Biology Study Guide 2

1) The centromere is a region in which A) new spindle microtubules form. B) metaphase chromosomes become aligned. C) chromatids are attached to one another. D) chromosomes are grouped during telophase. E) the nucleus is located prior to mitosis. 2) What is a chromatid? A) another name for the chromosomes found in genetics B) a special region that holds two centromeres together C) a chromosome in of the cell cycle D) a replicated chromosome E) a chromosome found outside the nucleus 3) Starting with a fertilized egg (zygote), a series of five cell divisions would produce an early embryo with how many cells? A) 8 B) 64 C) 32 D) 16 E) 4 4) If there are 20 chromatids in a cell, how many centromeres are there? A) 40 B) 10 C) 80 D) 20

1) _______

2) _______

3) _______

4) _______ E) 30 5) _______

5) Which of the following statements is not true? A) Mitosis may occur without cytokinesis. B) All cells come from a preexisting cell. C) Mitosis produces new nuclei with exactly the same chromosomal endowment as the parent nucleus. D) The mitotic spindles in prokaryotic cells are composed of microtubules. E) Mitosis and cytokinesis are required for asexual reproduction. The questions below refer to the following terms. Each term may be used once, more than once, or not at all. A. B. C. D. E. telophase anaphase prometaphase metaphase prophase C. prometaphase

6) Two centrosomes are arranged at opposite poles of the cell. 7) Centrioles begin to move apart in animal cells. E. prophase

6) _____________ 7) _____________ 8) _____________

8) Centromeres uncouple, sister chromatids are separated, and the two new chromosomes move to opposite poles of the cell. B. anaphase 9) If cells in the process of dividing are subjected to colchicine, a drug that interferes with the functioning of the spindle apparatus, at which stage will mitosis be arrested? A) anaphase B) interphase

9) _______

C) telophase D) metaphase E) prophase 10) A cell containing 92 chromatids at metaphase of mitosis would, at its completion, produce two nuclei containing how many chromosomes? A) 16 B) 23 C) 46 D) 12 E) 92 11) If there are 20 centromeres in a cell at anaphase, how many chromosomes are there in each daughter cell following cytokinesis? A) 20 B) 10 C) 30 D) 80 E) 40 12) If there are 20 chromatids in a cell at metaphase, how many chromosomes are there in each daughter cell following cytokinesis? A) 30 B) 80 C) 20 D) 10 E) 40 13) Where do the microtubules of the spindle originate during mitosis in both plant and animal cells? A) chromatid B) kinetochore C) centromere D) centriole E) centrosome 14) All of the following occur during mitosis except the A) formation of a spindle. B) synthesis of DNA. C) disappearance of the nucleolus. D) uncoupling of chromatids at the centromere. E) condensing of chromosomes. 15) All of the following occur during prophase of mitosis in animal cells except A) the centrioles move toward opposite poles. B) the spindle is organized. C) chromosomes are duplicated. D) the nucleolus can no longer be seen. E) the nuclear envelope disappears. 16) If a cell has 8 chromosomes at metaphase of mitosis, how many chromosomes will it have during anaphase? A) 1 B) 2 C) 8 D) 16 E) 4 17) Cytokinesis usually, but not always, follows mitosis. If a cell completed mitosis but not cytokinesis, the result would be a cell with A) high concentrations of actin and myosin. B) two abnormally small nuclei. C) two nuclei. D) two nuclei but with half the amount of DNA. E) a single large nucleus. 10) ______

11) ______

12) ______

13) ______

14) ______

15) ______

16) ______

17) ______

18) Which of the following organisms does not reproduce cells by mitosis and cytokinesis? A) cow B) banana tree C) cockroach

18) ______

D) bacterium E) mushroom 19) Chromosomes first become visible during ________ of mitosis. A) anaphase B) telophase C) metaphase D) prometaphase E) prophase 20) The correct sequence of steps in the M phase of the cell cycle is A) prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase, cytokinesis. B) prophase, prometaphase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase. C) cytokinesis, telophase, prophase, prometaphase, metaphase, anaphase. D) prophase, metaphase, prometaphase, anaphase, telophase. E) prophase, prometaphase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase, cytokinesis. 21) During which phases of mitosis are chromosomes composed of two chromatids? A) from metaphase through telophase B) from interphase through anaphase C) from of interphase through metaphase D) from of interphase through metaphase E) from anaphase through telophase 22) ______ 19) ______

20) ______

21) ______

22) A group of cells is assayed for DNA content immediately following mitosis and is found to have an average of 8 picograms of DNA per nucleus. Th ose cells would have ________ picograms at the end of the S phase and ________ picograms at the end of A) 16; 16 B) 8; 8 C) 12; 16 . D) 8; 16 E) 16; 8

23) The somatic cells derived from a single-celled zygote divide by which process? A) cytokinesis alone B) mitosis C) binary fission D) meiosis E) replication 24) Cytoskeletal elements play important roles in cell division. The mitotic spindle apparatus is made of ________ and pulls sister chromatids apart, whereas the contractile ring is made of ________ and required for the separation of daughter cells at the end of the mitotic phase of the cell cycle. A) microtubules; contractile filaments B) actin microfilaments; myosin C) microtubules; actin microfilaments D) intermediate filaments; actin microfilaments E) intermediate filaments; contractile filaments

23) ______

24) ______

25) Imagine looking through a microscope at a squashed onion root tip. The chromosomes of many of the cells are plainly visible. In some cells, replicated chromosomes are aligned along the center (equator) of the cell. These particular cells are in which stage of mitosis? A) prophase

25) ______

B) metaphase C) prometaphase D) telophase E) anaphase 26) Asexual reproduction and sexual reproduction are different in that A) individuals reproducing asexually transmit 100% of their genes to their progeny, whereas individuals reproducing sexually only transmit 50%. B) asexual reproduction produces offspring that are genetically identical to the parents, whereas sexual reproduction gives rise to genetically distinct offspring. C) asexual reproduction only requires mitosis, whereas sexual reproduction always involves meiosis. D) asexual reproduction involves a single parent, whereas sexual reproduction involves two. E) all of the above 27) How do the two members of a pair of homologous chromosomes differ from each other? A) their staining patterns B) the precise sequence of the DNA within each of the chromosomes C) the identity and relative position of the genes present on each of the chromosomes D) the position of the centromere within each of the chromosomes E) their length 28) What is a karyotype? A) the collection of all the mutations present within a genome B) the set of unique physical characteristics that define an individual C) a unique combination of chromosomes found in a gamete D) a system of classifying cell nuclei E) a display of every pair of homologous chromosomes within a cell, organized according to size and shape 29) At which stage of mitosis are chromosomes photographed in the preparation of a karyotype? A) metaphase B) prophase C) interphase D) telophase E) anaphase 30) The human X and Y chromosomes are A) both present in every somatic cell of males and females alike. B) almost entirely homologous, despite their different names. C) of approximately equal size. D) called "sex chromosomes" because they determine an individual's sex. E) all of the above 31) If the liver cells of an animal have 24 chromosomes, how many chromosomes do its sperm cells have? A) 6 B) 48 C) 12 D) 64 E) 24 26) ______

27) ______

28) ______

29) ______

30) ______

31) ______

32) Which of the following is true of a species that has a chromosome number of A) There are 8 homologous pairs. B) During the S phase of the cell cycle there will be 32 separate chromosomes. C) A gamete from this species has 4 chromosomes.

32) ______

D) The species is diploid with 32 chromosomes. E) The species has 16 sets of chromosomes. 33) Which of the following is the term for a human cell that contains 22 pairs of autosomes and two X chromosomes? A) an unfertilized egg cell B) a male somatic cell C) a female somatic cell D) a sperm cell E) both A and D 34) Eukaryotic sexual life cycles show tremendous variation. Of the following elements, which do all sexual life cycles have in common? I. alternation of gen erations II. meiosis III. fertilization IV. gametes V. spores A) I, II, and IV B) I, IV, and V C) II, III, and IV D) II, IV, and V E) all of the above 35) Which of these statements is false? A) At sexual maturity, ovaries and testes produce diploid gametes by meiosis. B) In humans, each of the 22 maternal autosomes has a homologous paternal chromosome. C) Sexual life cycles differ with respect to the relative timing of meiosis and fertilization. D) In humans, the 23rd pair, the sex chromosomes, determines whether the person is female (XX) or male (XY ). E) Single, haploid (n) sets of chromosomes in ovum and sperm unite during fertilization, forming a diploid (2n), single-celled zygote. 36) In animals, meiosis results in gametes, and fertilization results in A) sporophytes. B) clones. C) gametophytes. D) spores. E) zygotes. 37) In animals, somatic cells are produced by mitosis and ________ are produced by meiosis. A) gametes B) clones C) zygotes D) diploid cells E) spores 38) After telophase I of meiosis, the chromosomal makeup of each daughter cell is A) haploid, and the chromosomes are composed of two chromatids. B) diploid, and the chromosomes are composed of a single chromatid. C) diploid, and the chromosomes are composed of two chromatids. D) haploid, and the chromosomes are composed of a single chromatid. 33) ______

34) ______

35) ______

36) ______

37) ______

38) ______

E) tetraploid, and the chromosomes are composed of two chromatids. 39) How do cells at the completion of meiosis compare with cells that have replicated their DNA and are just about to begin meiosis? A) They have half the number of chromosomes and one-fourth the amount of DNA. B) They have half the number of chromosomes and half the amount of DNA. C) They have twice the amount of cytoplasm and half the amount of DNA. D) They have the same number of chromosomes and half the amount of DNA. E) They have half the amount of cytoplasm and twice the amount of DNA. 40) Which of the following terms belongs with the words synapsis, tetrads, and chiasmata? A) fertilization B) haploid C) prophase II D) crossing over E) autosomes For the following questions, match the key event of meiosis w ith the stages listed below. I. prophase I V. prophase II II. metaphase I VI. metaphase II III. anaphase I VII. anaphase II IV. telophase I VIII. telophase II 41) Tetrads of chromosomes are aligned at the center of the cell; independent assortment soon follows. A) I B) II C) IV D) VII E) VIII 42) Synapsis of homologous pairs occurs; crossing over may occur. A) I B) II C) IV D) VI 43) Centromeres of sister chromatids uncouple and chromatids separate. A) II B) III C) IV D) V 44) Which of the following happens at the conclusion of meiosis I? A) The sperm cells elongate to form a head and a tail end. B) Homologous chromosomes are separated. C) Sister chromatids are separated. D) The chromosome number is conserved. E) Four daughter cells are formed. 45) Which of the following is true of the process of meiosis ? A) Four haploid cells result. B) Two diploid cells result. C) Four autosomes result. D) Four chiasmata result. E) Four diploid cells result. 41) ______ 39) ______

40) ______

42) ______ E) VII 43) ______ E) VII 44) ______

45) ______

46) Crossing over occurs during which phase of meiosis? A) metaphase II B) prophase II C) anaphase I D) telophase I

46) ______

E) prophase I Refer to the drawings in Figure 13.2 of a single pair of homologous ch romosomes as they might appear during various stages of either mitosis or meiosis, and answer the following questions.

Figure 13.2 47) Which diagram represents prophase I of meiosis? A) I B) II C) III 48) Which drawing represents anaphase of mitosis? A) II B) III C) IV 49) Which drawing represents metaphase II of meiosis? A) I B) II C) IV 47) ______ D) IV E) V 48) ______ D) V E) VI 49) ______ D) V E) VI

Use the following key to answer the following questions. Each answer may be used once, more than once, or not at all. A. B. C. D. E. The statement is true for mitosis only. The statement is true for meiosis I only. The statement is true for meiosis II only. The statement is true for mitosis and meiosis I. The statement is true for mitosis and meiosis II. 50) _____________ 51) _____________

50) A cell divides to produce two daughter cells that are genetically identical. A. Mitosis only 51) Homologous chromosomes synapse and crossing over occurs. B. Meiosis I only 52) Centromeres uncouple and chromatids are separated from each other. 53) Independent assortment of chromosomes occurs.

B. Meiosis I only 54) The process is preceded by replication of the DNA. D. Mitosis & Meiosis I

E. 52) _____________ Mitosis & Meiosis II 53) _____________ 54) _____________

55) How does the sexual life cycle increase the genetic variation in a species? A) by allowing random fertilization B) by allowing independent assortment of chromosomes C) by allowing crossing over D) A and B only E) A, B, and C

55) ______

56) For a species with a diploid number of 10 chromosomes, how many different combinations of maternal and paternal chromosomes are possible for the gametes? A) 25 B) 32 C) 100 D) 5 E) about 10,000 57) Independent assortment of chromosomes is a result of A) the random distribution of the sister chromatids to the two daughter cells during anaphase II. B) the random and independent way in which each pair of homologous chromosomes lines up at the metaphase plate during meiosis I. C) the relatively small degree of hom ology shared by the X and Y chromosomes. D) the random nature of the fertilization of ova by sperm. E) all of the above 58) When pairs of homologous chromosomes separate during anaphase I, A) the maternal chromosomes all move to one daughter cell, and the paternal chromosomes all move to the other daughter cell. B) the synaptonemal complex is visible under the light microscope. C) most of the recombination has already occurred, with the remainder taking place during prophase II. D) the sister chromatids remain linked to one another. 59) Which of the following statements about crossing over is incorrect? A) Crossing over combines sections of the maternal and paternal chromosomes. B) There are on average one to three crossover events per chromosome. C) Crossing over increases the extent of genetic variation beyond what is possible through independent assortment alone. D) Crossing over results in recombinant chromosomes. E) Crossing over plays a role in both sexual and asexual reproduction.

56) ______

57) ______

58) ______

59) ______

60) Cytosine makes up 38% of the nucleotides in a sample of DNA from an organism. Approximately, 60) ______ what percentage of the nucleotides in this sample will be thymine? A) 31 B) 24 C) 38 D) 12 E) It cannot be determined from the information provided.

61) Chargaff's analysis of the relative base composition of DNA was significant because he was able to show that A) the amount of A is always equivalent to T, and C to G. B) the human genome is more complex than that of other species. C) the relative proportion of each of the four bases differs from species to species. D) both A and C E) both B and C

61) ______

62) All of the following can be determined directly from X-ray diffraction photographs of crystallized DNA except the A) diameter of the helix. B) sequence of nucleotides. C) helical shape of DNA. D) number of strands in a helix. E) spacing of the nitrogenous bases along the helix. 63) The DNA double helix has a uniform diameter because ________, which have two rings, always pair with ________, which have one ring. A) deoxyribose sugars; ribose sugars B) pyrimidines; purines C) nucleotides; nucleoside triphosphates D) ribose sugars; deoxyribose sugars E) purines; pyrimidines 64) What kind of chemical bond is found between paired bases of the DNA double helix? A) sulfhydryl B) hydrogen C) covalent D) phosphate E) ionic 65) Which of the following statements does not apply to the Watson and Crick model of DNA? A) The two strands of the helix are held together by covalent bonds. B) The framework of the helix consists of sugar-phosphate units of the nucleotides. C) The distance between the strands of the helix is uniform. D) The two strands of the DNA form a double helix. E) The purines form hydrogen bonds with pyrimidines. 66) It became apparent to Watson and Crick after completion of their model that the DNA molecule could carry a vast amount of hereditary information in its A) phosphate-sugar backbones. B) different five-carbon sugars. C) side groups of nitrogenous bases. D) sequence of bases. E) complementary pairing of bases. 67) In an analysis of the nucleotide composition of DNA, which of the following is true? A) A = C B) A = G and C = T C) G + A = T + C D) A + C = G + T E) both C and D

62) ______

63) ______

64) ______

65) ______

66) ______

67) ______

68) Which enzyme catalyzes the elongation of a DNA strand in the A) topoisomerase B) DNA ligase C) helicase D) primase E) DNA polymerase


68) ______

69) What determines the nucleotide sequence of the newly synthesized strand during DNA



______ A) the relative amounts of the four nucleoside triphosphates in the cell B) the nucleotide sequence of the template strand C) the primase used in the reaction D) the particular DNA polymerase catalyzing the reaction E) both A and D 70) What is the function of DNA polymerase? A) to seal together the broken ends of DNA strands B) to add nucleotides to the end of a growing DNA strand C) to unwind the DNA helix during replication D) to rejoin the two DNA strands (one new and one old) after replication E) to degrade damaged DNA molecules 71) The difference between ATP and the nucleoside triphosphates used during DNA synthesis is that A) the nucleoside triphosphates have two phosphate groups; ATP has three phosphate groups. B) triphosphate monomers are active in the nucleoside triphosphates, but not in ATP. C) ATP contains three high-energy bonds; the nucleoside triphosphates have two. D) the nucleoside triphosphates have the sugar deoxyribose; ATP has the sugar ribose. E) ATP is found only in human cells; the nucleoside triphosphates are found in all animal and plant cells. 72) A new DNA strand elongates only in the 5' to 3' direction because A) the polarity of the DNA molecule prevents addition of nucleotides at the 3' end. B) replication must progress toward the replication fork. C) Okazaki fragments prevent elongation in the 3' to 5' direction. D) DNA polymerase can only add nucleotides to the free 3' end. E) DNA polymerase begins adding nucleotides at the 5' end of the template. 73) What kind of molecule or substance is the primer that is used to initiate the synthesis of a new DNA strand? A) sulfur B) DNA C) RNA D) protein E) phosphate 74) Which of these mechanisms ensures that the DNA s equence in the gen ome remains accurate? A) mismatch repair B) proofreading during DNA replication C) excision repair D) complementary base pairing during DNA replication E) all of the above 70) ______

71) ______

72) ______

73) ______

74) ______

75) If nondisjunction occurs in meiosis II during gametogen esis, what will be the result at the completion of meiosis? A) Two gametes will be n + 1, and two will be n - 1. B) All the gametes will be diploid. C) One gamete will be n + 1, one will be n - 1, and two will be n. D) Two of the four gametes will be haploid, and two will be diploid. E) There will be three extra gametes.

75) ______

76) If a pair of h omologous chromosomes fails to separate during anaphase of meiosis I, what will be the chromosome number of the four resulting gametes with respect to the normal haploid number (n)? A) n + 1; n - 1; n - 1; n - 1 B) n + 1; n + 1; n - 1; n - 1 C) n - 1; n - 1; n; n D) n + 1; n - 1; n; n E) n + 1; n + 1; n; n 77) If a chromosome lacks certain genes, what has most likely occurred? A) an inversion B) a deletion C) a nonduplication D) disjunction E) a translocation 78) One possible result of chromosomal breakage is for a fragment to join a nonhomologous chromosome. This is called a (an) A) disjunction. B) inversion. C) translocation. D) deletion. E) duplication. 79) One possible result of chromosomal breakage can be that a fragment reattaches to the original chromosome in a reverse orientation. This is called A) deletion. B) aneuploidy. C) inversion. D) translocation. E) disjunction. 80) Of the following human trisomies, the one that generally has the most severe impact on the health of the individual is A) Klinefelter syndrome (XXY). B) trisomy X. C) XYY. D) trisomy 21. E) All of the above have equal impact.

76) ______

77) ______

78) ______

79) ______

80) ______

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