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for

2015
Practice Paper
for
Test No. 3 (Code-A)
TOPICS OF THE TEST
Physics
Chemistry

Biology

Gravitation; Properties of Bulk Matter; Thermodynamics

Solid State, Solutions, Electrochemistry, Chemical Kinetics, Surface Chemistry

Anatomy of Flowering Plants, Cell Structure and Function: Cell theory and
cell as the basic unit of life; Structure of prokaryotic and eukaryotic cell; Plant
cell and animal cell; Cell envelope, cell membrane, cell wall; Cell organellesstructure and function; Endomembrane system-endoplasmic reticulum,
Golgi bodies, lysosomes, vacuoles; mitochondria, ribosomes, plastids, micro
bodies; Cytoskeleton, cilia, flagella, centrioles (ultra structure and function);
Nucleus-nuclear membrane, chromatin, nucleolus, Cell division; Cell cycle,
mitosis, meiosis and their significance, Digestion and Absorption, Breathing
and Respiration, Body fluids and Circulation

Test - 3 (Objective) Code-A

All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2015

[ PHYSICS ]
1.

2.

3.

Planets A and B have same average density. Radius


of A is twice that of B. The ratio of acceleration due
to gravity on the surface of A and B is
(1) 2:1

(2) 1:2

(3) 1:4

(4) 4:1

(1) 4 1015 m2/s

(2) 3 1015 m2/s

(3) 1015 m2/s

(4) 2 1015 m2/s

Two particles A and B of equal mass m each are


separated by a distance r. If they are executing
unif orm circular motion due to their mutual
gravitational attraction then orbital speed of B is
Gm
r

(2)

Gm
2r

(3)

(4)

Gm
3r

9.

(1)

(2) 2

7
6

(4) 1

An ideal gas absorbs Q heat in an isobaric process.


If adiabatic exponent of the gas is , then what
fraction of heat is used to perform work ?
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

1
1

The P-V diagram of 8 g of Helium gas for a certain


process A B is shown in figure. Heat given to the
body during process A B is

(2)
V

(3)

(4)
V

The molar heat capacity of a monoatomic ideal gas


undergoing process PV1/2 = constant is

(1)

15
R
2

7
R
(3)
2

6.

8.

1 Gm
2
r
4

(1) 5
(3)

A sample of gas follows process represented by


PV2 = constant. Bulk modulus for this process is B,
then which of the following graph is correct ?
B

5.

For the given composite arrangement of two different


materials at steady state. The ratio of temperature
gradient is (symbols have their usual meanings)

If the area enclosed by earth's orbit in one year


(3.5107 s) is 7 1022 m 2, then find the ratio of
earth's orbital angular momentum to its mass

(1)

4.

7.

(2)

23
R
2

(1) 12P0V0

(2) 6P0V0

(3) 4P0V0

(4) 15P0V0

10. If a gas is compressed adiabatically, then


(1) The internal energy of the gas increases

(4) Zero

Two gases have same initial pressure, volume and


temperature. They expand to the same final volume,
one adiabatically and the other isothermally
(1) The final pressure is greater for isothermal
(2) The f inal temperature is greater f or the
isothermal process
(3) The work done by the gas is greater for the
isothermal process
(4) All of these

(2) The internal energy of the gas decreases


(3) The internal energy of the gas does not change
(4) Work done by the gas is positive
11. To what depth must a rubber ball be taken in deep
sea so that its volume is decreased by 0.1% ?
(Density of sea water = 103 kg/m3, bulk modulus of
rubber = 9 108 N/m2, g = 10 m/s2)
(1) 18 m
(2) 90 m
(3) 180 m

(4) 9 m

2/16

Test - 3 (Objective) Code-A

All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2015

12. Choose the incorrect statement, regarding the


assumptions of kinetic theory of gases
(1) Gas molecules obey Newtons laws of motion
(2) Gas molecules travel in a straight line
(3) There is force of attraction between gas
molecules
(4) Volume of a molecule is neglected in comparison
to volume of gas
13. Water is flowing in streamline motion through a
horizontal tube. The pressure at a point in the tube
is P where the velocity of flow is v. At another point,
where the pressure is P/2, the velocity of flow is
(= density of water)

(1)

v2

(3)

v2

(2)

v2

2P

(4)

v2

(3)

g
2TL

(4) T L
17. 20 g of ice at 0C mix with 30 g of water at 20C.
The final temperature of mixture is (latent heat of ice
80 cal/g, specific heat capacity of water 1 cal/g
C)
(1) 10C
(2) 0C
(3) 20C
(4) 5C
18. W hen a diatomic gas is allowed to expand at
constant pressure, it does work of 280 J. Total heat
supplied to the gas is equal to
(1) 780 J
(2) 880 J
(3) 380 J
(4) 980 J
19. Change in internal energy of the ideal gas in the
process ABC is 30 J. Change in internal energy in
the process CDA is

2P

P (kPa)

14. The load versus elongation graph for four wires of the
same material and same length is shown in the
figure. The thickest wire is represented by the line

Load

100

(1) OD

C
B
A

(2) OC

(3) Zero

(4)

TL
g

(2)

2TL
g

50

150

V (cc)

(2) 30 J

(3) +30 J

(4) +40 J

P
V1
V2
T
(1) V1 = V2
(3) V1 < V2

mv 2
4

(2) V1 > V2
(4) V1 V2

R
from
3
earth's surface, the change in potential energy is (R
= radius of earth, g = gravitational acceleration at
earth surface)

21. If a body of mass m is sent to a height of

16. A liquid film is formed over a frame ABCD as shown in


figure. Wire CD can slide without friction. The mass to
be hung from CD to keep it in equilibrium is
(1)

(1) 40 J

(3) OB
(4) OA
15. A particle of mass m moving horizontally strikes the
bob of a simple pendulum of mass m and length l.
After the impact, particle sticks to the bob. If the
compound mass just completes a vertical circle,
then initial velocity of the particle is
(1) mv2

20. An ideal gas is undergoing two processes at


constant volume V1 and V2 as shown in figure.
Which of the following relation is correct?

Elongation

mv 2
(2)
2

200

C
L

(1)

mgR
3

(3) mgR

(2)

mgR
4

(4)

3mgR
4

3/16

Test - 3 (Objective) Code-A

All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2015

22. For the same area of cross-section and for a given


load, the ratio of depression for beam of a square
cross-section and circular cross-section is
3

(2)

(3) 1

(4)

(1)

(3)

(1) Hdg

(2) hdg

(3) (Hh)dg

(4) (Hh)dg cos

24. Two soap bubbles having diameter D1 and D2 in


vacuum, coalesce under isothermal conditions. The
diameter of the new bubble is

(3)

D1 D2
2

D12 D22

(2)

(4)

D12 D22
2

(1) 5 cm

(2) < 5 cm

(3) > 5 cm

(4) 5 cos

26. A U-tube is rotating with constant angular velocity


about a vertical axis xy as shown. The difference in
the height of liquid column in two vertical limbs is (
= density of liquid)

22 2
3g

A1 H
H
(2) A g 3g

A1 4H
4H
(3) A g 3g

A1 H
H
(4) A 2g 6g

(1)

(3)
29.

31.

32.

(2)

A1 2H
2H
(1) A g 3g

28. A point isotropic radiating source of power P is kept


at centre of a spherical shell of radius r and
thickness t (t <<< r). If coefficient of thermal
conductivity of material of shell is K then the
temperature difference across the shell is

30.

22
2g

22
6g

H
3

1
D12 D22
2

25. A straight capillary tube is immersed in water and


the water rises to 5cm. If the capillary is bent as
shown in figure, then the height of water column will
be

(1)

(4)

27. A tank is filled with water upto height H. There is a


hole of area of cross-section A2 at the bottom of the
tank (A2 <<< A1 = Area of cross-section of the tank).
If water is allowed to come out of hole at t = 0,
then time after which water height in tank becomes

23. A vessel contains liquid of density d as shown in


figure, the gauge pressure at the point A is

(1)

2 2
9g

Pt
3

4r k
Pt

(2)

(4)

Pt
4r 3 k

P2 t

4r 2k
4r 2k
A lake starts freezing when temperature goes below
0C. The time taken to freeze first 2 mm, 4 mm,
6 mm, 8 mm are t1, t2, t3 and t4 respectively. Then
(t2 t1) : (t3 t2) : (t4 t3) is
(1) 1 : 3 : 5
(2) 1 : 4 : 8
(3) 3 : 5 : 7
(4) 1 : 4 : 9
Let be the angular speed of rotation of the earth
at which an object kept on equator will f eel
weightless. The ratio of to the present angular
speed of rotation of the earth is approximately
(1) 6
(2) 12
(3) 17
(4) 1
If the breaking stress of steel is 8 108 N/m2 and
the density of steel is 8 10 3 kg/m 3 then the
greatest length of steel wire that can hang vertically
without breaking is (take g = 10 m/s2)
(1) 104 m
(2) 103 m
(3) 102 m
(4) 10 m
W ater is flowing through a horizontal tube of
nonuniform cross-section. At a place the radius of
the tube is 1 cm and the velocity of water is
4 m/s. The velocity of water where the radius of the
pipe is 2 cm is
(1) 0.5 m/s
(2) 1 m/s
(3) 2 m/s
(4) 4 m/s

4/16

Test - 3 (Objective) Code-A

All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2015

33. The temperature at which oxygen molecules would


have the same RMS speed as the hydrogen
molecules would have at 27C, is
(1) 4800 K

(2) 2400 K

(3) 1200 K

(4) 600 K

34. In a sudden expansion of an ideal diatomic gas, the


pressure P and temperature T are related as PTx,
here x is equal to
(1) 3.5
(3)

3
mole of a monatomic gas is mixed
3
2

with one mole of a diatomic gas , then the


5

value of for the mixture is


(1)

11
21

(2)

29
19

(3)

19
29

(4)

11
31

(2) 2.5

1
7

(4) 1.4

35. The intensity of radiation emitted by the sun has


maximum value at a wavelength of 5000 and that
emitted by a star is at 3500 . Assuming them to
be black bodies, ratio of absolute temperature of the
sun and the star is
(1) 0.7

(2) 0.6

(3) 0.5

(4) 0.4

36. If a point mass m is placed at the centre of earth


of mass M and radius R, then the magnitude of
binding energy of the system would be
(1)

1 GMm
2 R

(2)

3 GMm
4 R

(3)

1 GMm
4 R

(4)

3 GMm
2 R

37. Two masses, m1 = 2 kg and m2 = 8 kg at an infinite


distance apart are initially at rest. They start
interacting gravitationally. When the separation
between them becomes 1 m, the velocity of m2 will
be
(1) 4

39. If

G
5

(2) 3

G
5

40. Two mole monatomic gas absorb 50 cal isobarically.


The change in internal energy of the gas is
(1) 30 cal

(2) 20 cal

(3) 50 cal

(4) 10 cal

41. Terminal velocity of small sized spherical body of


mass m falling vertically in a viscous liquid is v. Find
terminal velocity when spherical body of mass 8m
made by the same material falling vertically in same
liquid
(1) v

(2) 8v

(3) 2v

(4) 4v

42. Temperature diff erence between body and


surroundings falls from 40C to 20C in 10 minute.
Time interval in which the difference will fall from
20C to 5C is
(1) 20 minute

(2) 15 minute

(3) 10 minute

(4) 30 minute

43. Temperature of a body increased by 25C. Its rise of


temperature in Fahrenheit scale is
(1) 25 F

(2) 35 F

(3) 45 F

(4) 55 F

44. Two metallic rods of equal length and diameter have


thermal conductivities 3K and 4K. If they are joined in
series, then the equivalent thermal conductivity of

G
(3) 2
5

(4)

G
5

38. Two satellites of equal masses revolve in the same


sense around a heavy planet in circular orbit of radii
R and 3R. Which of the following is correct ?

combination is
(1) 2K

(2)

7K
2

24K
7
45. A boat having a length of 3 m and breadth of 2 m is
floating on a lake. The boat sinks by 1 cm when a
man gets on it. The mass of man is

(3) 7K

(4)

(3) Ratio of their kinetic energy is 3 : 1

(1) 60 kg

(2) 62 kg

(4) All of these

(3) 72 kg

(4) 128 kg

(1) Ratio of period of revolution is 1: 3 3


(2) Ratio of their velocities is

3 :1

5/16

Test - 3 (Objective) Code-A

All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2015

[ CHEMISTRY ]
46. The distance between two nearest neighbours in
body centred cubic lattice of axial length a, is
(1) a

(2)

3
a
2

2
3
a
a
(4)
2
4
47. Which of the following interstitial site is formed when
the three close packed spheres of one layer is put
over three close packed spheres of the second layer,
their positions being inverted w.r.t. each other?
(3)

(1) Tetrahedral

(2) Octahedral

(3) Rhombohedral

(4) Tetragonal

48. Which of the following is incorrect?


(1) The coordination number of each type of ions in
CsCl crystal is 8
(2) A metal that crystallises in bcc structure has a
coordination number of 12
(3) A unit cell of an ionic crystal shares some of its
ions with other unit cells
(4) The length of the unit cell in NaCl is 552 pm

(rNa 95 pm, rCl 181 pm)


49. The number of atoms in 100 g of a fcc crystal with
density = 10.0 g/cm3 and cell edge length equal to
200 pm is
(1) 5 1024

(2) 5 1025

(3) 6 1023

(4) 2 1025

50. Which of the following is distance between two


tetrahedral voids?
(1)

(3)

3a
2
a
2

a
(2)
2

(4) All of these

51. Which of the following statements is true?


(1) The existence of certain intermediates in a
reaction mechanism can sometimes be proven
because intermediates can sometimes be
trapped and identified
(2) Intermediates in a reaction mechanism cannot

be isolated because they do not have finite life


times
(3) Reaction mechanisms cannot have more than
one intermediate
(4) Intermediates in a reaction mechanism appear in
the overall balanced equation for the reaction
52. Gaseous N 2 O 5 decomposes according to the
following equation
N2O5 (g) 2NO2 (g)

1
O2 (g)
2

N2 O5
k[N2O5 ] .
t
At a certain temperature the rate constant is
k = 5 104 sec1. In how many seconds will the
concentration of N2O5 decrease to one-tenth of its
initial value?

The experimental rate law is

(1) 2 103 s

(2) 4.6 103 s

(3) 2.1 102 s

(4) 1.4 103 s

53. A and B are two dif f erent chemical species


undergoing first order decomposition with rate
constants kA and kB which are in the ratio of 3 : 2
respectively. If the initial concentration of A and B are
in the ratio of [A]0 : [B]0 = 3 : 2. What would be the
ratio of [A] : [B] after three half lives of A?
(1) 1 : 1

(2) 3 : 4

(3) 1 : 2

(4) 2 : 1

54. 0.9 gm of a hydrocarbon with molecular formula


H2(CH2)n when dissolved in 180 gm of solvent freezes
at 8.48C. If freezing point of pure solvent is 9C,
then the formula of hydrocarbon (kf = 12)
(1) C8H6

(2) C8H18

(3) C8H16

(4) C7H8

55. Select the correct statement


(1) Freezing point, boiling point and vapour pressure
are all colligative properties
(2) The freezing point, boiling point and vapour
pressure all decrease when a solute is dissolved
in a solvent
(3) Plots of freezing point depression versus molal
concentration for ethyl alcohol, propyl alcohol
and butyl alcohol dissolved in water will all be
linear with different slopes
(4) All are incorrect

6/16

Test - 3 (Objective) Code-A

All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2015

56. The vapour pressure of two liquids A and B are 100


and 80 torr respectively. The total pressure of the
solution obtained by mixing 2 moles of A and
3 moles of B would be
(1) 20 torr

(2) 36 torr

(3) 88 torr

(4) 180 torr

57. When you dissolve sugar in a glass containing ice


and water in equilibrium, and assuming that no heat
enters or leaves the system
(1) Some of the ice should melt and the
temperature of water/ice mixture should increase
(2) Some of ice should melt and the temperature of
the water/ice mixture should decrease
(3) Some of the water should freeze and the
temperature of the water/ice mixture should
increase
(4) Some of the water should freeze and the
temperature of the water-ice mixture should
decrease
58. x mole of KCl and y mole of BaCl 2 are both
dissolved in 1 kg of water. Given that x + y = 0.1
and k f for water is 1.86 k/molal. W hat is the
observed range of T f if the ratio of x and y is
varied?
(1) 0.37 to 0.55

(2) 0.185 to 0.93

(3) 0.56 to 0.93

(4) 0.37 to 0.93

59. If a 500 ml brine is electrolysed with a current of


strength 0.5 A, how many seconds would it take for
the pH of solution to rise to a value of 9?
(1) 0.965 second

(2) 0.663 second

(3) 0.965 minute

(4) 0.663 minute

60. The reaction occurring at the cathode during


charging of lead storage battery is
(1) Pb2+ + 2e Pb
(2) Pb2+ + SO42 PbSO4

62. The equation for one of the half reactions in a lead


storage battery is
PbO2 4H SO 4 2 2e PbSO4 2H2O

What happens to the properties of the electrolyte as


this cell discharge?
Density

pH

(1) Increase

Increase

(2) Increase

Decrease

(3) Decrease

Decrease

(4) Decrease

Increase

63. Ionic conductance of H+ and SO42 at infinite dilution


are x and y s cm 2 eq1. Hence the equivalent
conductance of H2SO4 at dilution is
(1) x + y

(2) 2x + y

(3) x + 2y

(4) x + 0.5y

64. According to adsorption theory of catalysis the


reaction rate increases because
(1) Adsorption produces heat which increases the
rate of reaction
(2) In the process of adsorption, the kinetic energy
of the molecules increases
(3) The concentration of reactants at the active
centres becomes high due to adsorption
(4) The activation energy of the reaction becomes
high due to adsorption
65. The volume of gases H 2 , CH 4, CO 2 and NH 3
adsorbed by 1 g of adsorbent at 288 K are in the
order

(3) Pb Pb2+ + 2e

(1) H2 > CH4 > CO2 > NH3

(4) PbSO4 + 2H2O 2PbO2 + 4H+ + SO42 + 2e

(2) CH4 > CO2 > NH3 > H2

61. Given the following information, rank the activity of


the metals as reducing agents. Cr reacts with NiBr2
and CdBr2, but not with ZnBr2. Cd reacts with NiBr2
but not with ZnBr2 or CrBr3.

(3) CO2 > NH3 > H2 > CH4

(1) Zn > Cr > Cd > Ni


(2) Ni > Cr > Cd > Zn
(3) Zn > Cr > Ni > Cd
(4) Zn > Cd > Cr > Ni

(4) NH3 > CO2 > CH4 > H2


66. Bleeding is stopped by application of ferric chloride.
This is because
(1) The blood starts flowing in opposite direction
(2) The ferric chloride seals the blood vessel
(3) The blood reacts and forms a solid which seals
the blood vessel
(4) The blood is coagulated and thus the blood
vessel is sealed

7/16

Test - 3 (Objective) Code-A

All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2015

67. Gold number is a measure of the


(1) Protective action by a lyophilic colloidal on
lyophobic colloid
(2) Protective action by a lyophobic colloid on
lyophilic colloid
(3) Number of milligram of gold in a standard red
gold solution
(4) Number of millimoles of lyophilic solution
68. The possible distance between two tetrahedral voids
in CCP unit cell is
(1)

a
2

(2)

3a
2

a
(4) All of these
2
69. Choose the incorrect match
(3)

(1) Freezing point of pure solvent :


TQ
(2) Boiling point of pure solvent
:
TR
(3) Elevation in boiling point
:
TS TR
(4) Depression in freezing point
:
TR TP
70. An electrolyte AB undergoes 50% dissociation and
50% dimerisation in solution then vant Hoff factor (i)
would be
(1) 1.25
(2) 1
(3) 0.90
(4) 1.50
71. If i is vant Hoff factor and m is the number of solute
particles obtained after the dissociation of 1 molecule
then degree of dissociation () is given by
i1
(1) 1 1
m

(2)

i 1
m 1

2
c m
m
2
(2) m
1 o
m

(1)

c
1
2
c m

(3) o o
m
m
m

(4) All of these

o
73. In the equation m m
Ac1/2 , the constant A
depends on
(1) Nature of solvent
(2) Temperature
(3) Type of electrolyte (4) All of these
74. In the electrochemical cell,
Cd + Sn+4 Cd+2 + Sn+2
Increase in the concentration of Sn+2
(1) Increasing the emf of cell
(2) Decreasing the emf of cell
(3) No change in emf of cell
(4) Unpredictable
75. The degree of dissociation of first order reaction is
given by
(1) 1 + ekt
(2) ekt
kt
(3) 1 e
(4) ekt
76. The collodion solution is
(1) 4% solution of picric acid in ether
(2) 4% solution of starch in alcohol
(3) 4% solution of nitrocellulose in a mixture of
alcohol and ether
(4) 4% solution of As2S3 in dilute HCl
77. Which of the following is not a colloidal solution?
(1) Froth
(2) Butter
(3) Pumice stone
(4) Mixture of gases
78. In Fe0.93O, the percentage of Fe+3 by number is nearly
(1) 15%
(2) 10%
(3) 20%
(4) 25%
79. Which of the following is a molecular solid?
(1) SiC
(2) Diamond
(3) AlN
(4) I2
80. The point defect which is shown by AgBr(s) crystals
is/are
(1) Metal excess defect (2) Frenkel defect
(3) Schottky defect
(4) Both (2) & (3)
81. Which of the following graph is correct for an ideal
binary liquid solution containing nonvolatile solute?

i1
i 1
(4)
m 1
m 1
72. The degree of dissociation can be approximated to

(3)

the ratio of molar conductivity m at the concentration


m
c to the limiting molar conductivity om as o .
m

The dissociation constant for acetic acid can be


represented as

Total V.P.

(1)
XA=1

X A=0

XB=0

X B=1

8/16

Test - 3 (Objective) Code-A

All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2015


86. Consider the f ollowing statements regarding
electrochemical cell
Zn(s)|Zn2(+)(aq) || Cu2(+)(aq)|Cu(s)
I. Electrons move from Zn to Cu
II. Concentration of Zn2(+) will increase and that of
Cu2(+) will decrease when cell operates

Total V.P.

(2)
XA=1

XA=0

XB=0

XB=1

Total V.P.

(3)
XA=1

XA=0

XB=0

XB=1

(4) All are correct

82.

Which of the following is correct about vant Hoff factor


of A, B & C?
(1) iA > iB > iC
(2) iA < iB < iC
(3) iA > iB < iC
(4) iA = iB = iC
83. On electrolysis of aqueous solution of NaCl using Pt
electrode
(1) pH of the solution will decrease
(2) pH of the solution will increase
(3) pH of the solution will remain constant
(4) pH of solution may increase or decrease
84. Which of the following is intensive property?

III. When cell becomes dead, Eocell 0 Choose the


correct statement(s)
(1) I, II & III
(2) I & III
(3) I & II
(4) II & III
87. Match column I to column II
Column-I
Column II
a. Osmosis
(i) Movement of dispersed
phase
particles
towards opposit ely
charged electrode
b. Dialysis
(ii) Movement of solvent
particles through SPM
towards concentrated
solution side
c. Electrophoresis
(iii) Colloidal sol formation
d. Peptisation
(iv) Purification of colloids
(1) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii) (2) a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(iii)
(3) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv) (4) a(iv), b(ii), c(iii), d(i)
88. Consider the following EMF diagram for Fe,
2
3
2
2.20V
0.77V
FeO 4
Fe
Fe
o
the value for EFeO 24 /Fe2 will be

(1) 7.37 V
(2) 3.685 V
(3) 2.456 V
(4) 1.843 V
89. Consider the following graph

(2) Eocell
(3) Molarity
(4) All of these
85. Which of the following graph is correct for Freundlich
adsorption isotherm?
(1) Ecell

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

Choose the incorrect statement(s)


(1) Reaction is exothermic in forward direction i.e.,
H = ve
(2) Activation energy for forward reaction is x y
(3) Using catalyst will decrease H value of the reaction
(4) All of these
90. If r is the radius of tetrahedral void and R is the radius
of sphere forming ccp, then which of the following
relation is correct considering that the ccp structure
is not disrupted?
(1) r = 0.414R
(2) r = 0.314R
(3) r = 0.732R
(4) r = 0.225R

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Test - 3 (Objective) Code-A

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[ BIOLOGY ]
91. Examine the figure given below and select the part
correctly matched with its function/structure
(D)
(C)

95. Match the column I with column II


Column I

Column II

a. Lysosomes

(i) Cell inclusions

b. Transosomes

(ii) Carotenoids

c. Raphides and cystolith (iii) Triple membrane


bound organelle
d. Chromoplast

(iv) Cathepsin

(1) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i) (2) a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii)
(3) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv) (4) a(i), b(iv), c(ii), d(iii)

(A)

(B)
(1) Part (A) : Ribosome-made up of 30S and 50S
subunits
(2) Part (C) : RER - principally performs the function
of packaging materials
(3) Part (D) : Nuclear pore - passage through which
movement of RNA takes place in one
direction only
(4) Part (B) : SER - synthesis of steroidal hormones
92. In plasma membrane, quasi-fluid nature of lipid
(1) Enables flip-flop movement of proteins
(2) Is essential for endocytosis only
(3) Enables lateral movement of proteins
(4) Enables flip-flop as well as lateral movements of
proteins
93. Which of the following combination is correct?
(1) Xenobiotics
Rough endoplasmic
reticulum
(2) Plasma membrane 52% lipid
of RBC
(3) Mitochondria
Protein synthesis
(4) Glyoxysomes
Photorespiration
94. Which of the following statement for eukaryotic
flagellum is correct?
(1) Basal body has nine pairs of doublets of radially
arranged peripheral microtubules
(2) It emerge from a centriole like structure called
axoneme
(3) In axoneme, central tubules are connected by
bridge
(4) It has a number of microfibrils running parallel to
the long axis

96. Disc-shaped structures present on the sides of


centromeres in the chromosomes are called
(1) Satellite

(2) Chromatin

(3) NOR

(4) Kinetochores

97. M phase starts with the nuclear div ision,


corresponding to the separation of daughter
chromosomes and usually ends with
(1) Division of cytoplasm
(2) Telophase
(3) G2 phase
(4) Karyokinesis
98. Stage between the meiosis-I and meiosis-II is
(1) Characterised by polymerisation of nucleotides
(2) Short lived than preparatory phase of cell cycle
(3) Called karyokinesis
(4) Characterised by DNA as well as centriole
duplication
99. If at the end of meiosis each daughter cell has four
chromosomes, how many chromosomes would a
diploid cell have in G1 phase of cell cycle?
(1) 2

(2) 4

(3) 8

(4) 16

100. Primary oocyte of the human being contains


(1) As many chromosomes as sperms
(2) Haploid set of chromosomes
(3) As many chromosomes as ovum
(4) Diploid set of chromosomes
101. Which of the following stage is recognised by the
dissolution of synaptonemal complex, so the
recombined homologous chromosomes will start
separating?
(1) Metaphase II

(2) Diakinesis

(3) Diplotene

(4) Pachytene

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Test - 3 (Objective) Code-A

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102. Read the following statements (a-c) carefully and find


out the option (1-4) representing the correct
sequence of events in amitotic division.
a. A constriction appears in the cytoplasm.
b. Nucleus of the cell elongates.

(3) Cambium strips develop from pericycle opposite


to protoxylem
(4) A wavy ring of cambium develops
107. a. Annual rings are bands of secondary phloem
and medullary rays.

c. A constriction appears in the nucleus which


gradually deepens and divides the nucleus into
two daughter nuclei.

b. Wood of Cycas has vessels.

(1) c a b

(2) b a c

Which of above statement(s) is/are correct?

(3) b c a

(4) a c b

(1) a and b are correct (2) b and c are correct

103. Mark the correct statement (with respect to lateral


meristem)

c. Conjoint vascular bundles are found in leaves of


sunflower and maize.

(3) Only a is correct

(4) Only c is correct

108. Choose the correct statement

(1) Secondary meristem producing primary


permanent tissues

(1) Annual rings are formed by the activity of cork


cambium

(2) Intercalary meristem producing secondary


permanent tissues

(2) Fibres are abundant in secondary xylem and


protophloem

(3) Cylindrical meristem producing the secondary


tissues

(3) Primary xylem does not show distinction into


protoxylem and metaxylem

(4) Promeristem producing secondary permanent


tissues

(4) At certain regions, the cork cambium cuts off


parenchymatous cells on the outer side instead
of phellem

104. Match the column I with column II


Column I

Column II

a. Xylem parenchyma

(i) Absent in most of the


monocots

b. Sclereids

(ii) Long cylindrical tubelike structure

c. Phloem parenchyma (iii) Food and tannins


d. Vessel

(iv) Fruit walls of nuts

(1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv) (2) a(ii), b(iv), c(iii), d(i)
(3) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii) (4) a(iii), b(ii), c(i), d(iv)
105. In monocot leaf, mesophyll tissue
(1) Is differentiated into palisade and spongy
parenchyma
(2) Is not differentiated into palisade and spongy
parenchyma
(3) Possesses some bulliform cells
(4) Is made up of parenchyma cells which lack
chloroplasts
106. Which of the following occurs first during secondary
growth in dicot root?
(1) Primary meristem becomes active present below
phloem
(2) Cambium strips are formed secondarily from
conjunctive tissue lying just below each phloem
strand

109. Which of the following is correct statement for


intercalary meristems?
(1) They lie at tip of root apex
(2) They lie at base of stem always
(3) They are short lived and consumed during
primary growth
(4) They are long lived and cause increase in length
110. Girdling experiment cannot be perf ormed in
sugarcane plant because
(1) Its stem is thin
(2) Its vascular bundles are arranged in scattered
manner
(3) Its stem surface is coated with wax
(4) Phloem is surrounded on all sides by xylem
111. Match the column I with column II
Column I
a. Papain

Column II
(i) Betula

b. Diffuse porous wood (ii) Quercus


c. Lithocysts

(iii) Carica papaya

d. Ring porous wood

(iv) Ficus leaf

(1) a(i), b(iii), c(iv), d(ii) (2) a(iii), b(ii), c(i), d(iv)
(3) a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(iv) (4) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii)

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Test - 3 (Objective) Code-A

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112. Match the following


Column I

a. A Cellulose, lignin, hemicellulose thickening.


Column II

a. G1 phase

(i) Longest phase of cell cycle

b. Occurs in layers below the epidermis in


dicotyledonous plants

b. M phase

(ii) Synthesis of histone proteins

c. Simple permanent tissue

c. S-phase

(iii) Cell quiescence

d. May contain plastids.

d. G0 phase

(iv) Nuclear division

e. Dead mechanical tissue.

(1) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii) (2) a(i), b(iv), c(ii), d(iii)

(1) a, b and c

(2) b, c and d

(3) a(i), b(iv), c(iii), d(ii) (4) a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii)
113. Choose the correct option for given diagram

(3) a, d and e

(4) a, c, d and e

117. In the vicinity of the guard cells few epidermal cells


are specialised in their
(1) Shape and size
(2) Shape and colour
(3) Size and thickening
(4) Colour and secretion

(1) A Meristematic tissue


B Differentiating tissue
(2) A Shoot apical meristem
B Axillary bud
(3) C Reproductive bud
B Leaf primordia
(4) B Differentiating vascular tissue
A Root apical meristem
114. How many from the given components are associated
with gymnosperm and angiosperm respectively?
Tracheids, Sieve tube, Sieve cells, Companion
cells, Albuminous cells
(1) 2, 6

(2) 4, 3

(3) 3, 3

(4) 6, 2

115. Choose the correct position of sclereids in the


sapota, tea, pea, almond respectively.
(1) Pulp, leaves, fruit wall, seed coat
(2) Pericarp, leaves, pulp, fruit wall
(3) Pulp, leaves, seed coat, fruit wall
(4) Seed coat, leaves, pulp, pericarp
116. For the given tissue, choose correct option

118. Choose odd one with respect to innermost layer of


cortex in dicot root
(1) Single layered
(2) Possesses barrel shaped cells
(3) Presence of differential thickening
(4) Presence of intercellular spaces
119. Choose correct sequence of layers/tissue from outer
to towards the inner side in T.S. of dicot stem.
(1) Endodermis Pericycle Starch sheath
(2) Starch sheath Pericycle Vascular bundles
(3) Hypodermis Pericycle Starch sheath
(4) Cortex Pith Vascular bundles
120. Activity of cambium is controlled by
(1) Physiological and environmental factors
(2) Hormonal and external factors
(3) Internal and external factors
(4) More than one option is correct
121. During secondary growth in dicot root some part of
vascular cambium originates from the tissue
located_______ the phloem and a portion of
pericycle tissue _____ the protoxylem.
(1) Above, below

(2) Below, above

(3) Below, below

(4) Above, above

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Test - 3 (Objective) Code-A

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122. How many parts are there in bacterial flagellum and


amongst these, which is the longest portion
respectively?
(1) Two, hook

(2) Two, filament

(3) Three, filament

(4) Three, hook

123. Gas vacuole is present in

(1) A Central sheath


C Intertriplet bridge
(2) B Plasma membrane
D Central microtubule
(3) E Radial spoke
D Incomplete microfilament

(1) Blue green algae


(2) Purple photosynthetic bacteria
(3) Green photosynthetic bacteria
(4) More than one option is correct
124. Which of the following component of Gram negative
bacteria is structurally similar to plants?
(1) Cell wall

(4) B Central sheath


C Interdoublet bridge
128. ER A Lysosome
In the above given schematic representation of
endomembrane system, choose the correct function
associated with organelle labelled as A.
(1) Post transcription RNA processing

(2) Capsule

(2) Glycosidation of protein

(3) Plastids

(3) Post translation protein modification

(4) Plasma membrane

(4) Glycosylation of lipids

125. Protein synthesised by RER is


(1) Released in luminal compartment

129. Which of the following feature is not associated with


centrosome?

(2) Modified in intercellular spaces

(1) Pericentriolar material

(3) Secreted without any modification

(2) Two cylindrical structures

(4) Processed in lysosome and centrioles

(3) Two centriole

126. How many of the given features are associated with


mitochondria?

70S ribosome, divide by multiple fission, Outer


and inner membranes have their own specific
enzymes, enzymes for protein synthesis, single

(4) Lipid bilayer covering


130. One very short (p) arm and one very long (q) arm is
found in _______ chromosome.
(1) Submetacentric

(2) Metacentric

(3) Acrocentric

(4) Telocentric

131. Interphase nucleus possesses

circular DNA molecule.

(1) Five

(2) Three

(3) Four

(4) Two

(1) Condensed chromatin, nucleolus, nuclear matrix,


centrioles
(2) Elaborate nucleoprotein fibres, sub-spherical
nucleoli, stroma

127. Choose the correct labelling for given diagram


(3) Extended nucleoprotein fibre, nucleolus, nuclear
matrix
(4) Condensed chromatin, sub-spherical nucleoli,
matrix

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Test - 3 (Objective) Code-A

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132. Choose correct option for the stroma (A) and


thylakoid (B)

Choose the option which is correct for the layers


labelled as A, B, C, D and E
(1) A Serosa

(1) ALight reaction

B Longitudinal muscle layer

BDark reaction

C Circular muscle layer

(2) ACarbohydrate synthesis

D Mucosa

BDark reaction

E Submucosa

(3) AProtein synthesis

(2) A Mucosa

BLight reaction

B Circular muscle layer

(4) ADark reaction

C Longitudinal muscle layer

BProtein synthesis

D Submucosa

133. Food vacuole is formed by fusion of

E Serosa

(1) Phagosome + Lysosome

(3) A Serosa

(2) Food vesicle + Ribosome

B Circular muscle layer

(3) Phagosome + Centrosome

C Longitudinal muscle layer

(4) Food vesicle + Sphaerosome

D Submucosa

134. During cell cycle the interval between mitosis and


initiation of DNA replication:
a. Is metabolically active

E Mucosa
(4) A Serosa
B Longitudinal muscle layer

b. Involves cell growth

C Circular muscle layer

c. Involves centriole duplication

D Submucosa

d. Involves chromosome replication

E Mucosa

Choose the correct option


(1) a and b

(2) a and c

(3) b and c

(4) c and d

137. All of the following hormones are secreted by


duodenum except

135. Choose incorrect option with respect to cell cycle


(1) Cell growth in terms of cytoplasmic increase
occurs continuously
(2) DNA synthesis occurs during specific stage

(1) Gastrin

(2) Secretin

(3) GIP

(4) Duocrinin

138. Find the incorrect match with respect to


composition of digestive juices
(1) Gastric juice

Pepsin, erepsin, gastric


lipase

(2) Pancreatic juice

Trypsin,
carboxypeptidases,
ribonuclease

(3) Events are not under genetic control


(4) Cell duplicates its genome once
136. Given below is a diagrammatic representation of
transverse section of gut

(3) Succus entericus Enterokinase, dipeptidase,


sucrase
(4) Saliva

C
B
D
E

Lingual lipase, -amylase

139. Which of the following is not related to Marasmus?


(1) Subcutaneous fat is not preserved
(2) Oedema is absent
(3) Ribs become very prominent
(4) Enlarged fatty liver

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Test - 3 (Objective) Code-A

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140. Find the incorrect statement with respect to


saliva/salivary glands
(1) Thiocyanate in saliva is antimicrobial
(2) Mumps is a viral infection of parotid salivary
glands
(3) Submandibular or submaxillary salivary glands
secrete maximum amount of saliva and provide
their secretion by means of Whartons duct
(4) Secretion of saliva is increased by sympathetic
nervous system
141. Which of the following functions as true stomach in
ruminants?
(1) Abomasum

(2) Rumen

(3) Omasum

(4) Both (1) and (2)

142. Consider the following


a. Trypsin

145. Given below are the partial pressures (in mmHg) of


oxygen and carbondioxide at different parts involved
in diffusion in comparison to those in atmosphere.
Body
Blood
Tissues
(deoxyge- (Oxygenated)
nated)

Respiratory Atmospheric Alveoli


gas
air

O2

159

40

40

CO 2

40

40

45

Choose the correct option with respect to the values


of partial pressures (in mmHg) marked as A, B, C
and D
A

(1) 0.3

104

40

52

(2) 32

116

45

45

(3) 0.3

104

45

95

(4) 32

116

45

95

146. Which of the following is an unpaired cartilage of the


human larynx?

b. Carboxypeptidase
c. Steapsin

(1) Cartilage of santorini

d. Amylopsin

(2) Cricoid cartilage

The enzyme/s not initially secreted as zymogen


is/are

(3) Corniculate cartilage

(1) a only

(2) a and b

(3) c and d

(4) d only

143. Select the incorrect statement with respect to


Emphysema
(1) It is a chronic obstructive disease of lungs,
causing irreversible, distension and loss of
elasticity of alveoli
(2) The alveolar sac remains filled with air even after
expiration
(3) Bronchodilators, antibiotics and oxygen therapy
are used to treat emphysema. It can be cured
permanently

(4) Cuneiform cartilage


147. Normal expiration involves
(1) Contraction of diaphragm
(2) Contraction of abdominal muscles
(3) Relaxation of phrenic muscles
(4) Contraction of external intercostal muscles
148. Trachea divides into right and left primary bronchi at
the level of
(1) 2nd thoracic vertebrae
(2) 5th thoracic vertebrae
(3) 7th thoracic vertebrae
(4) 10th thoracic vertebrae

(4) Conditions of emphysema are mainly due to


cigarette smoking

149. Select the incorrect statement with respect to


Lymph

144. The epithelial lining of alveoli consist of two types of


cells called as pneumocyte type - I and pneumocyte
type - II. Type II pneumocytes

(1) It has more amount of CO2 and wastes as that


in plasma

(1) Are columnar epithelial cells


(2) Form the site of gaseous exchange between
alveolus and blood
(3) Constitute about 95% of total number of cells
(4) Secrete alveolar fluid and surfactant

(2) It is a colourless fluid containing abundant


lymphocytes which are responsible for immune
responses of the body
(3) It lacks proteins and RBCs
(4) Like blood, lymph can also clot but slowly

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Test - 3 (Objective) Code-A

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150. During each cardiac cycle, the SAN generates


action potential which stimulates both atria to
undergo simultaneous contraction. The atrial systole
increases the flow of blood into the ventricle by about
(1) 60%

(2) 30%

(3) 40%

(4) 75%

151. ECG is a graphical representation of the electrical


activity of the heart during a cardiac cycle. Mark the
correct statement regarding specific electrical
activity of the heart
(1) The contraction of the ventricles start shortly
after S-wave
(2) The end of the T-wave marks the end of
ventricular systole

d.

Nucleic acid

(1) a only

(2) a and b only

(3) a, b and c only

(4) a, b, c and d

154. Which gastric gland cells in humans produce factor


essential for absorption of B12?
(1) Peptic cells

(2) Mucus neck cells

(3) Oxyntic cells

(4) Chief cells

155. Blood enters into liver through two sources. Which


source supplies nutrient rich but deoxygenated blood
from intestine to liver before it is delivered to the
systemic circulation?
(1) Hepatic artery
156.

152. Read the following statements having four blanks A,


B, C and D.
During a cardiac cycle, each ventricle pumps out

approximately

of blood which is called as

. The first heart sound (lubb) is associated

C , whereas, the second


with the closure of
heart sound dup, is associated with closure of

157.

The correct option for blanks A, B, C and D is


A

(1) 5 litres

Cardiac
output

AV valves

Semilunar
valves

(2) 5 litres

Cardiac
output

Semilunar
valves

AV v alv es

(3) 70 ml

Stroke
volume

Tricuspid
and bicuspid
valves

Semilunar
valves

(4) 70 ml

Cardiac
output

AV
valves

Semilunar
valves

Maltase

a.

Maltose

b.

Nucleosides

c.

Starch

Glucose + Glucose

Nucleosidases

Amylase

Sugar + Bases

Disaccharides

158.

159.

153. Which of the following reaction/s is/are catalysed by


brush border enzymes?

Nucleotides

Choose the correct option

(3) QRS complex represents the return of ventricles


from excited to normal state
(4) T-wave represents repolarisation of atria

Nucleases

160.

(2) Hepatic vein

(3) Hepatic portal vein (4) Mesenteric artery


If the incision is done in the small intestine in which
order would the physician encounter the layers from
outside to inside?
a. Mucosa
b. Submucosa
c. Serosa
d. Muscularis externa
e. Muscularis mucosa
(1) a - e - b - d - c
(2) a - b - d - e - c
(3) c - d - b - e - a
(4) b - a - e - d - c
Which duodenal glands or cell secretion neutralise
gastric acid and protects the lining of the
duodenum?
(1) Brunners gland
(2) Parietal cells
(3) Paneth cell
(4) Oxyntic cells
W hen there is abnormal f requency of bowel
mov ement and increased liquidity of f aecal
discharge, reducing the absorption of food it is called
as
(1) Diarrhoea
(2) Constipation
(3) Indigestion
(4) Vomiting
Chymotrypsinogen of pancreatic juice is activated to
chymotrypsin by
(1) HCl
(2) Enterokinase
(3) Trypsin
(4) Enterocrinin
Bohrs effect promotes ___X___ and Haldane effect
__Y___
(1) X O2 dissociation Y CO2 dissociation
(2) X O2 association Y CO2 dissociation
(3) X CO2 association Y CO2 dissociation
(4) X CO2 dissociation Y O2 dissociation

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Test - 3 (Objective) Code-A

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Percentage saturation of haemoglobin

161. Following is the oxygen-haemoglobin dissociation


curve. Mark the conditions in which that curve will
shift from A to B.

165. During expiration, how many barriers CO2 cross in


the course of journey from capillaries to alveoli?
(1) One

(2) Two

(3) Three

(4) Six

166. Occupational lung disease is characterised by


(1) Collapsing of alveoli
(2) Proliferation of fibrous tissue in the upper part of
lungs
(3) Accumulation of fluid in pleural cavity
(4) Excessive secretion of mucus in alveoli
167. Which chamber of heart has thickest wall?
Partial pressure of oxygen (mm Hg)

a. Increase in BPG.
b. Increase in partial pressure of carbon dioxide.
c. Low temperature.
d. Increase in pH, blood becomes more alkaline.

(1) Right atrium

(2) Left atrium

(3) Right ventricle

(4) Left ventricle

168. If the blood flow in the wall of heart is inadequate


due to obstruction of coronary artery. In ECG the ST
segment is depressed which disorder is the person
is suffering from
(1) Myocardial ischaemia

(1) a, b

(2) b, c

(2) Angina pectoris

(3) c, d

(4) a, d

(3) Heart failure

162. Exchange of O2 and CO2 at the alveoli and tissues


occur by diffusion. Rate of diffusion is dependent on
a. The partial pressure gradients of O2 (pO2) and
CO2 (pCO2).
b. Solubility of gases.

(4) Myocardial infraction


169. Which of the following are thread like tendons of
papillary muscles inserted upon the flaps of tricuspid
and bicuspid valve?
(1) Trabeculae carneae
(2) Columnae carneae

c. Thickness of the diffusion surface.


Choose the correct option
(1) a only

(2) a and b

(3) b only

(4) a, b and c

163. Which centre of respiration is primarily meant to


limit inspiration and can moderate the functions of
the respiratory rhythm centre?

(3) Chordae tendinae


(4) Moderator band
170. In a normal ECG, wav es of def lection are
represented by symbol PQRST. Which of these
waves have tallest upward deflection?
(1) P wave

(2) Q wave

(3) T wave

(4) R wave

171. In double circulation, there is a complete separation


of oxygenated and deoxygenated blood. In this case
part of blood enters to lungs for oxygenation. Blood
will return to heart from lungs in

(1) Apneustic centre


(2) Pneumotaxic centre
(3) Dorsal respiratory group
(4) Ventral respiratory group
164. In which of the following disease, alveolar walls are
damaged alveoli remain filled with air even after
expiration and there is no permanent cure for the
disease?

(1) Right ventricle

(2) Left ventricle

(3) Right auricle

(4) Left atrium

172. Which of the following statement is correct ?


(1) Sinoatrial node is known as heart of heart
(2) The disorder in the SA node is known as Stokes
- Adam syndrome

(1) Asthma

(2) Emphysema

(3) The purkinje fibres have highest resting potential

(3) Pneumonia

(4) Bronchitis

(4) The fall in the blood pressure causes stroke

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Test - 3 (Objective) Code-A

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173. The intrapulmonary pressure becomes negative with


respect to atmospheric pressure during
(1) Normal quiet inspiration only

(3) Volume of thorax is increased


(4) Ribs and sternum are raised
177. In the following table of secretory products of the
stomach, choose the incorrect option.

(2) Normal quiet expiration only


(3) Normal quiet inspiration and forced inspiration
(4) Forced inspiration and expiration
174. If a molecule of CO2 released into the blood in your
left toe is exhaled from your nose, it must pass
through all of the following, except
a. The pulmonary vein
b. An alveolus
c. The right atrium
d. The right ventricle
e. The trachea
(1) a and d

(2) c and d

(3) Only a

(4) Only b

178. Which of the following is not a matching pair?


(1) Kupffer cells

175. The air from outside moves into the lungs when

Phagocytic cells in liver

(2) Peyers patches Lymphoid tissue in ileum

(1) Pulmonary volume decreases and intrapulmonary


pressure increases

(3) Haustra

Outpouchings in wall of
colon

(2) Pulmonary volume increases and intrapulmonary


pressure decreases

(4) Villi

Present in colon
to maximise absorption of
water, minerals and
vitamins

(3) Diaphragm becomes more arched due to


relaxation of phrenic muscles
(4) Ribs and sternum move downward and inward
176. Which of the following statements is true regarding
the given figure?

179. The upper surf ace of the tongue has small


projections called papillae which bear taste buds.
Which of the following taste papillae are largest in
size and present on the posterior side of tongue?
(1) Foliate

(2) Fungiform

(3) Vallate

(4) Filiform

180. Choose the set of enzymes which are functional in


alkaline medium?
(1) Lipase, aminopeptidase, rennin
(2) Ptyalin, pepsin, trypsin
(3) Amylopsin, lipase, carboxypeptidase
(1) Diaphragm is contracted

(4) DNase, rennin, chymotrypsin

(2) Diaphragm is relaxed

18/16

ANSWERS OF AIATS PRACTICE PAPER - 3


2015
CODE-A
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
26.
27.
28.
29.
30.
31.
32.
33.
34.
35.
36.

(1)
(1)
(3)
(4)
(3)
(4)
(1)
(2)
(4)
(1)
(2)
(3)
(2)
(1)
(1)
(2)
(2)
(4)
(2)
(3)
(2)
(1)
(3)
(3)
(1)
(4)
(1)
(3)
(3)
(3)
(1)
(2)
(1)
(1)
(1)
(4)

37.
38.
39.
40.
41.
42.
43.
44.
45.
46.
47.
48.
49.
50.
51.
52.
53.
54.
55.
56.
57.
58.
59.
60.
61.
62.
63.
64.
65.
66.
67.
68.
69.
70.
71.
72.

(3)
(4)
(2)
(1)
(4)
(1)
(3)
(4)
(1)
(2)
(2)
(2)
(1)
(4)
(1)
(2)
(2)
(2)
(3)
(3)
(2)
(1)
(1)
(4)
(1)
(4)
(1)
(1)
(4)
(4)
(1)
(4)
(4)
(1)
(4)
(4)

73.
74.
75.
76.
77.
78.
79.
80.
81.
82.
83.
84.
85.
86.
87.
88.
89.
90.
91.
92.
93.
94.
95.
96.
97.
98.
99.
100.
101.
102.
103.
104.
105.
106.
107.
108.

(4)
(2)
(3)
(3)
(4)
(1)
(4)
(4)
(3)
(4)
(2)
(4)
(4)
(3)
(2)
(4)
(4)
(4)
(4)
(3)
(3)
(3)
(2)
(4)
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(3)
(3)
(3)
(3)
(2)
(2)
(4)
(4)

109.
110.
111.
112.
113.
114.
115.
116.
117.
118.
119.
120.
121.
122.
123.
124.
125.
126.
127.
128.
129.
130.
131.
132.
133.
134.
135.
136.
137.
138.
139.
140.
141.
142.
143.
144.

(3)
(2)
(4)
(2)
(1)
(3)
(3)
(2)
(1)
(4)
(2)
(4)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(4)
(1)
(3)
(4)
(3)
(4)
(3)
(3)
(3)
(1)
(1)
(3)
(4)
(1)
(1)
(4)
(4)
(1)
(3)
(3)
(4)

145.
146.
147.
148.
149.
150.
151.
152.
153.
154.
155.
156.
157.
158.
159.
160.
161.
162.
163.
164.
165.
166.
167.
168.
169.
170.
171.
172.
173.
174.
175.
176.
177.
178.
179.
180.

(3)
(2)
(3)
(2)
(3)
(2)
(2)
(3)
(2)
(3)
(3)
(3)
(1)
(1)
(3)
(1)
(1)
(4)
(2)
(2)
(3)
(2)
(4)
(1)
(3)
(4)
(4)
(1)
(3)
(3)
(2)
(2)
(4)
(4)
(3)
(3)