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Analytical Reasoning

Analytical Reasoning forms an important part of generally all Campus Placement Test. The questions

in this section can either test analytical or logical reasoning. This booklet will concentrate on the

former. The thinking process associated with such problems resembles solving a case, wherein the

clues here are in the form of certain conditions, which may or may not be mutually exclusive. The best

way to get a hang of these problems is to work on them continuously. Initially, they may deter you

but once the student follows the rules given below and solves many problems, it will appear simple.

Games1 in this section can both be verbal and numerical. The first part of this booklet will consist of

the basics behind solving such problems, such as the elements forming the problem and the rules to

follow to crack such problems. The second part will deal with verbal analytical reasoning wherein a few

varieties of games / puzzles / problems will be provided, which will be followed by a discussion on

solving the same. Questions may not be provided for a few of these games, as solving the conditions

directly will give us the solution. The third part will deal with numerical reasoning, which basically

requires a strong sense of arithmetic. The methodology for solving each game is only suggestive and

the student can use his own discretion to solve it in an easier fashion.

Conditions

As mentioned above, conditions are a set of clues, which when analysed, provide the solution for the

problem. These conditions cannot be violated and all these conditions have to be analysed before

attempting any question relating to the problem. These conditions are not necessarily in order and

therefore, it becomes imperative for the student to go through all of them before identifying the

important ones.

There are a few rules of this game, which help in solving AR problems systematically. These rules help

you frame the problem in the right perspective, organise your thoughts and finally, crack the problem

and its associated set of questions. A few such rules have been given below.

1.

2.

3.

4.

student has to spend sometime reading and analysing the statements. Read the conditions

carefully. Please dont over-read into the conditions and statements. Its also important to study

the implications of the conditions, i.e. try to analyse it from a what-if angle (though not the case

in all the problems)

Since the conditions are not

given in any specific order, the student has to peruse through all of them and identify the key

condition, which will provide the platform from where the problem can be solved. If there are

any restrictions in the problem, like for example, one of the elements has always to be at one

place and then start by putting that element there. In case of ordering problems (wherein an

order of the elements has to be ascertained), this becomes especially important.

at a bus stop, the student must be able to juxtapose it in his analysis. Since there wont be

sufficient place to work out these kinds of problems, picturisation helps in arranging the

information

Picturisation is the first step in organising information.

Once the student has an idea of the problem, he has to organise the information in an easily

comprehensible manner, i.e. he should try to associate it with whatever he feels comfortable.

The student should put every bit of detail on paper, say, make notes. Some ways of organising

information are

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Grids/Tables: Once the student has identified a particular structure of relationships, all the

information can be arranged in the form of a multi-columnar grid. The different elements of the

problem, as given by the conditions, must be entered onto the grid to facilitate a logical thinking

process. It also helps in eliminating some of the answers provided in the solution.

conditions, he should do so, as, this, like tables, provides a simplistic view of the problem.

These may differ according to the type of problem and the comfort level of the student.

5.

Elimination of Answer choices. Some of the above rules do help one in eliminating

answer choices. It is generally not advisable in case of AR to start off by eliminating choices. As

you will see, many problems require a bottom-up approach, but, that is only after a careful

perusal and analysis of the conditions. Eliminate choices when the conditions are insufficient to

answer the questions.

6.

7.

Be careful of the language used. Certain words or phrases are oft-repeated and

these can well form important clues in framing the solution.

Finally,

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SOLVED EXAMPLES

The World This Week

This game deals with scheduling a program over a time period, say a week or a year. It consists of a

few conditions, from which the order of telecast has to be identified. These are problems, which

require the identification of a particular order or a schedule. Other variants of this game include

Example

A TV channel is going to telecast 6 soppy soaps over the week Sob, Cry, Weep, Wail, Lament and

Moan. One of these will be telecast each day from Monday to Saturday, with Sunday being a FunDay.

The conditions specified by the Boss are as follows:

Wail must be telecast on the day immediately before or immediately after the day on which Cry

is telecast

Questions

Q1.

If Cry is telecast on Thursday, the earliest day on which Lament can be featured is

a) Monday

b) Tuesday

c) Wednesday

d) Friday

e) Saturday

Q2.

a) Monday

b) Tuesday

c) Wednesday

d) Thursday

e) Saturday

Q3.

If Wail is to be featured on Thursday, the latest day on which Sob can be telecast is

a) Monday

b) Tuesday

c) Wednesday

d) Friday

e) Saturday

Q4.

a) Cry

b) Moan

c) Lament

d) Weep

e) Wail

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Q5.

a) Sob must be telecast on Wednesday

b) Cry must be telecast on Saturday

c) Wail must be telecast exactly two days after Lament is telecast

d) Lament must be telecast on Wednesday

e) Lament must be telecast later in the week than Moan

Q6.

If Moan is to be telecast on Friday, what is the total number of acceptable schedules available to

the TV channel?

a) 1

b) 2

c) 3

d) 4

e) 5

Solution/Discussion

We shall begin discussing the solution by following the rules that have been specified above. A

thorough reading of the problem provides us with the following leads

It is imperative in these kinds of ordering problems that we begin with conditions that fix the exact

position of one or more elements, and then work towards narrowing the possibilities for other

elements. When the order cannot be determined by the condition, then, attack the questions and

proceed with eliminating choices.

There are 3 conditions, of which, the second condition that Weep should be telecast on Tuesday can

be considered to be the important condition since it provides an ideal base to work the problem.

The first condition suggests that Sob can be telecast on any day except Saturday, and Lament can be

telecast on any day except Monday. Since Tuesday is already ruled out, the days of telecast for these

two soaps are down to four.

From the third condition, we can ascertain that Cry cannot be telecast on Monday because Weep is to

be telecast on Tuesday. Therefore, Cry can be telecast on any day from Wednesday to Saturday.

Let us now make a table to help organise this information

Days

Soaps

Monday

Tuesday

Wednesday

Thursday

Friday

Saturday

Weep

Calculations

Monday: No Lament and Cry.so its either Sob, Wail or Moan

Wednesday to Friday: All except Weep

Saturday: All except Weep and Sob

Since there can be many combinations of the telecast of these soaps, we can proceed with the

problem by reading the questions. This approach will also help in eliminating answer choices.

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Solution 1: For every question, we can fill the table. As for this question, if Cry is telecast on

Thursday, the table would look like this

Days

Monday

Soaps

Tuesday

Wednesday

Weep

Thursday

Friday

Saturday

Cry

From our calculation earlier, we have seen that the earliest day that Lament can be telecast is on

Wednesday. WE now check whether it is feasible with Cry being telecast on Thursday.

Days

Monday

Tuesday

Wednesday

Thursday

Friday

Saturday

Soaps

Sob

Weep

Lament

Cry

Wail

Moan

We find that it is indeed feasible and therefore, the answer to this question is Wednesday

Solution 2: Moan has not figured in our calculations so far. So if we assume that Moan is telecast on

Friday, then we have a table that looks like this

Days

Monday

Soaps

Tuesday

Wednesday

Thursday

Weep

Friday

Saturday

Moan

Moans telecast on Friday provides us with only one combination of days for the telecast of Cry and

Wail, Wednesday and Thursday, since they have to be telecast on consecutive days. And from the first

condition, which specifies that Sob must be telecast earlier in the week than Lament, Sob must be

telecast on Monday.

Days

Monday

Tuesday

Wednesday

Thursday

Friday

Saturday

Soaps

Sob

Weep

Cry

Wail

Moan

Lament

Days

Monday

Tuesday

Wednesday

Thursday

Friday

Saturday

Soaps

Sob

Weep

Cry

Wail

Moan

Lament

This table is similar to the one used to arrive at Solution 2, but the question has been framed

differently. Here we are supposed to find the latest day on which sob can be telecast and not the

earliest day. From our earlier calculation, we find that Sob can be telecast on Monday and on any day

from Wednesday to Friday. Since Wail is telecast on Thursday, Cry should be telecast on Wednesday

or Friday. Since there is no condition relating to Moans telecast, Moan can be telecast on Monday and

Sob on Friday. Do not forget that Lament has to be telecast after Sob.

Days

Monday

Tuesday

Wednesday

Thursday

Friday

Saturday

Soaps

Moan

Weep

Cry

Wail

Sob

Lament

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Solution 4: From our earlier calculation, we can easily say that Moan is the only soap, among the

answer choices, that can be telecast on Monday.

Solution 5: This question requires us to visualise different alternatives and ascertain their veracity.

Days

Monday

Soaps

Tuesday

Wednesday

Weep

Thursday

Friday

Saturday

Moan

We can do this by analysing each of the answer choices. Never forget the calculations

Sob must be telecast on Wednesday: If Sob is telecast on Wednesday, Lament will have to be telecast

on wither Friday or Saturday, which is not possible because Cry and Wail have to be telecast on

consecutive days. Therefore, this is untrue.

Cry must be telecast on Saturday: Cry can be telecast on Friday or Saturday. Though this is not

entirely untrue, it is an option we should keep in mind till we arrive at the exact answer.

Wail must be telecast exactly two days after Lament is telecast. Since, in this case, Lament has to be

telecast on Wednesday, Wail can be telecast either on Friday or Saturday, i.e. either 2 or 3 days after

lament is telecast. So, even this option is not entirely untrue and should be kept in abeyance till we

arrive at the final answer.

Lament must be telecast on Wednesday: From the argument for the earlier answer choices, we find

that Lament has to be telecast on Wednesday alone.

Lament must be telecast later in the week than Moan: this is not possible since Cry and Wail have to

be telecast on consecutive days and only Friday and Saturday are available for them.

Therefore, after examining the answer choices, we find that the correct answer is (d).

Solution 6: We again make use of a table here, with Moan appearing on Friday

Days

Monday

Soaps

Tuesday

Wednesday

Thursday

Weep

Friday

Saturday

Moan

Days

Monday

Tuesday

Wednesday

Thursday

Friday

Saturday

Soaps

Sob

Weep

Cry

Wail

Moan

Lament

Sob

Weep

Wail

Cry

Moan

Lament

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Round Table

In this game, there are a few people sitting around a table. The basic theme here is to

identify, from the conditions, the exact placement of a person around the table.

Example:

There are six people, A, B, C, D, E and F sitting around a table.

1. The person sitting to the left of A faces D.

2. B and E sit on either side of C

3. A and B do not face each other.

Questions generally relate to the seating arrangement around the table and therefore are very simple.

For example, Who sits in front of B? Who faces B if A and D swap places?

Solution/Discussion:

This is a very simplistic version of the problem. The best and the simplest method to solve round-table

problems is to start by drawing a table and seating the students according to the conditions.

For example, from the first condition, by seating A at the top of the table, we can ascertain the exact

seating position of D.

A

Since the identity of the person seated next to A cannot be ascertained with one condition alone, we

move on to the second condition. After analysing the second condition along with the diagram above,

we can ascertain the exact seating position of E, as illustrated by the following diagram.

A

The third condition that A and B do not face each other means that A is sitting to the left of A and

facing D and E is facing A (from the second condition above). And therefore the final seating

arrangement would like this

A

B

F

D

E

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Different Strokes

This game is a variant of the above, with more number of elements. One thing to remember, the

more the conditions, the easier it is to solve the problem. There are many variants of this game,

like people standing in a bus-stop/railway station etc.

Example

There are 5 houses coloured Red, Green, Black, White and Blue in a row. Each of the houses is

occupied by bachelors of different professions (Singer, Accountant, consultant, Software engineer and

lawyer) and each of them has a different vehicle in which to commute to office. The colour of the

vehicle is different from not only that of his house but also of his neighbours house.

1) A lives in a Blue House, which has the same number of houses on either side.

2) B is an accountant and the colour of his car is similar to the colour of the lawyers house.

3) E has a black car and his house is next to the Green house

4) The person living in the White House is a consultant

5) D is a software engineer living in the Black House

6) The lawyer drives a white car and he stays next to the Red House

1.

a) A

b) E

c) D

d) C

2.

a) GRBWB

b) BGWBR

c) GRBBW

d) WBBGR

3.

a) Black

b) Blue

c) Green

d) Red

4.

a) A

b) D

c) C

d) E

Solution/Discussion

The best method to solve these types of problems is to organise the information in the form of a

multi-dimensional grid. The dimensions as provided in the case are: People, Profession, Houses and

Cars.

We begin by filling in the information known to us in the correct boxes. First, we make individual grids

connecting each of the dimensions and then consolidate them in one single grid based on our analysis.

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From condition 1, we know that A lives in the blue house and that it has two houses on either side.

Grid 1 shows the relationship

Though there are two parts to the second condition, we take them one at a time. We match B with

that of an accountant. Grid 3 shows the relationship

E has a black car and his house is next to the Green house, which means that the colour of Es house

is neither black (the case specifically mentions that the house and a vehicle of a person cannot be of

the same colour) nor green nor blue. Grid 2 shows this relationship

D is a software engineer living in the black house. From this, we ascertain that D is not the neighbour

of E since E has a black car (refer to the case which specifically mentions that the colour of the vehicle

is not similar to the colour of the neighbours house). We can now say that E and D live on either side

of A.

Now for the remaining two conditions:

The lawyer drives a white car and stays next to the red house. Therefore the colour of the lawyers

house is not white, black or red (which, in turn, means that the colour of Bs car is not white, black, or

red)

The person living in the White House is a consultant. Therefore, the consultant is not the neighbour of

the lawyer.

If we combine all the dimensions into one single grid, Grid 6, we can make the following guesses:

Either A or C should be a lawyer

Either C or E is a consultant.

E should be staying either in the white house or the red house.

The colour of Bs car is either Blue or Green.

The colour of the Lawyers house is Blue or Green. Since the lawyer stays next to the red house and

drives a white car, his house can neither be red nor white in colour. This combined with the above

mean that B is not the neighbour of the lawyer and A.

Since Es house is not green, black or blue in colour, he should be the neighbour of B. Since he stays

next to the Green house, the colour of Bs house is Green, which means that B drives a blue car. This,

in turn, implies that the colour of the lawyers house is blue, i.e. A is the lawyer. Therefore, the singer

lives in the red house.

The lawyer stays next to the red house and therefore, the colour of Es house is red, which means that

he is the singer and C is the consultant.

Grid 1

House

Green

Red

Blue

Black

White

Name

Car

White

Blue

Green

Red

Black

Name

Profession

Lawyer

Accountant

consultant

Engineer

Singer

Name

Grid 2

Grid 3

Grid 4

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Profession

Singer

Accountant

Lawyer

Consultant

Engineer

House

Red

Green

Blue

White

Black

Profession

Singer

Accountant

Lawyer

Consultant

Engineer

Car

Black

Blue

White

Green

Red

Grid 5

Grid 6

Name

House

Car

Profession

Blue

Green

Lawyer

Green

Blue

Accountant

White

Green

Consultant

Black

Red

Engineer

Red

Black

Singer

House

GREEN

RED

BLUE

BLACK

WHITE

Person

Profession

ACCOUNTANT

SINGER

LAWYER

ENGINEER

CONSULTANT

Vehicle

BLUE

BLACK

WHITE

RED

GREEN

This question can also be solved using symbols or notations. For example, the fact that the colour of

Bs car is similar to the lawyers house can be recorded as

Bs car = Lawyers house, and so on. But, it is required that students be comfortable using notations

in place of grids etc.

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10

Conditions Galore

These games are slightly different from the others in that the problem does not specify the exact

number of places to assign elements, rather, some elements have to be assigned for some questions

and some others for other questions. These problems are of the selection variety wherein you are

asked to distribute elements into groups. The strategy for this is similar to that of the earlier

problems, namely ordering/scheduling problems, but because of the if-then relationship (or the

probability relationship) prevalent, it requires a more organised solution process, especially with the

use of symbols. Some of these relations are given below. Please note the implications of the a single

statement.

Eg 1: If A is in the team, then B also has to be in the team.

If the team consists of A, then it will also have B, i.e. A, therefore B.

But, if B is in the team, it doesnt mean that A is in the team, i.e. B, therefore A is not a correct way

of reasoning.

Similarly if B is not in the team, it also means that A is not in the team, i.e. not B, therefore not A.

The converse, however, isnt true, i.e., if A is not in the team, it doesnt mean that A is not in the

team, i.e. not A, not B is a wrong way of reasoning.

Eg 2: In a vote for a resolution, A and B never both aye.

This means that both never vote aye, but they can both vote nay. Please dont jump into conclusions

that since they cannot both vote aye, they can also never both vote nay.

Example:

A track coach is deciding which and how many of her athletes L, M, N, O, P, R and S will compete

in an upcoming track meet. She will decide according to the following guidelines:

1. If L competes, M must compete

2. If M and N both compete, O cannot compete

3. If N and O both compete, R cannot compete

4. If O competes, either P or S must compete

5. Either P or R must compete, but they cannot both compete

6. P and S cannot both compete.

Questions

1.

If only 3 athletes can compete in the track meet, which of the following could be that group of

athletes?

a) LMN

b) MPS

c) MPR

d) NOP

e) NOR

2.

If O and S both compete in the track meet, which of the following must be true?

a) N competes

b) P competes

c) R competes

d) L does not compete

e) M does not compete

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3.

If O and R both compete in the track meet, which of the following cannot be true?

a) M competes

b) N competes

c) S competes

d) L does not compete

e) P does not compete

4.

If L and N both compete in the track meet, what is the maximum number of athletes who can

compete

a) 3

b) 4

c) 5

d) 6

e) 7

5.

If S competes in the track meet, which of the following combinations of 3 athletes can be among

those who also compete?

a) LMP

b) LNO

c) LOP

d) MOR

e) NOR

Solution/Discussion

This problem requires the simplest of tables. The idea here is to identify who can compete together

and who cannot and the best way to do that would be to draw a table which separates one from the

other, i.e

Compete

Not compete

Another simple method would be to symbolise the clues. But, as mentioned before, only people who

are comfortable with symbolising should do so to avoid any confusion.

Some of the symbols used are:

Arrows: to indicate that if L competes, M must compete. L M

Boxes: To indicate that if M and N both compete, O cannot compete.MN

~O

A combination of symbols can also help in arriving at the solution.

As per the tabular method illustrated above, we can answer each question by deciding on whether the

athletes compete together or not. This is another problem which can be solved using the questions,

and thereby, the process of elimination. For example, if we consider the second question in the

problem,

2.

If O and S both compete in the track meet, which of the following must be true?

a) N competes

b) P competes

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12

c) R competes

d) L does not compete

e) M does not compete

Using the table and the clues given above, we can arrive at the answer. The last clue clearly mentions

that P and S cannot both compete. Therefore, put P in the Not compete column. Another clue specifies

that either P or R must compete and not both. Since P is not competing, R can compete. So put R in

the Compete column. Using these two clues alone, we can arrive at the answer choice, which is, R

competes. We can also see that N can also compete in this case, but, if we read the question again

it says which of the following must be true, and not can or may be true. Also, this is the logical

answer, which appears on the face of the conditions. In such cases, it is advisable to take things at

face value and leave the implications behind.

Compete

Not compete

OSR

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13

Liar Liar

These are games which contain statements by a few people, which are either true or false. From these

statements, the student has to answer a few questions depending on the kind of condition given in the

problem. This problem requires considerable amount of time and the student has to be ready to invest

it during the exam. It may seem confounding in the beginning but once the thinking process is in

place and the approach methodical, it will appear simple.

Its time for the What-What island, where the inhabitants answer any question with two sentences;

one of which is true and the other is false.

You are looking for Venkats house and you meet 3 people Anand, Ravi and Som. You ask them,

Which is Venkats house?

Anand says: Venkats house is No.9. I am his neighbour.

Ravi says: Anand is not my neighbour. Anand and som live in the same house.

Som says: Venkats house is not No.9. Anand is Ravis neighbour.

There are only two houses and four people in What-what. Two people live in each house.

Q1.

a) Venkat stays in house no.9

b) Venkat does not stay in house no. 9

c) Venkat does not stay in what-what

d) Ravi and Som stay together.

Q2.

a) Ravi

b) Venkat

c) Som

d) Cant say

Solution/Discussion

This question is very different from the previous ones and requires some time on the part of the

student to understand and solve it. A methodical process would be useful in this case.

To begin with, start with the first speaker and label one sentence each as true or false, similarly for

the other speakers. Ascertain whether the labeling makes sense at the end of the third speaker.

For example, We label Anands first sentence as true (T) and the second as false (F) and similarly for

Ravis and Soms sentences. The final output will look like:

Venkats house is no.9 and Anand is not his neighbour

Anand is not Ravis neighbour and Anand and som do not live in the same house.

Venkats house is not No.9 and Anand is not Ravis neighbour.

We can see the contradiction evident in the first and third sentences relating to Venkats house. Since

this doesnt make much sense, we re-label the sentences accordingly, taking care of the initial

contradiction.

If we label Anands first sentence as true, Soms first sentence has to be false, and thereby Soms

second sentence is true. This means that Anand is Ravis neighbour and therefore, Ravis first

sentence is false. But here lies another contradiction if Anand and Som live in the same house, then

Ravi and Venkat live

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14

in the other house, but Anand;s second sentence specifically says that He is not Venkats neighbour.

Therefore, even this is a wrong choice.

Now, we try the other way, by labeling Anands first sentence as false and Soms first sentence as

true. By the chain of thoughts, it is evident that Anand is not Ravis neighbour and therefore Anand

and Ravi live in the same house, which is also true in case of the second sentence of Anand.

Therefore, Venkat does not stay in House no. 9 and Ravi stays with Anand.

Alpha-Numeric

Here, numbers are coded as words or vice-versa and from the rules of this game, exact codes have to

be identified. Variants of this game are

substituting symbols for relations, i.e. if a*b means a is the father of b, and a@b means a is the

sister of b, then how does one denote a paternal aunt

Two English words are codified as follows. Each number represents only one letter and each letter is

represented by only one number.

Word 1: 8 3 7 6 3 2 9

Word 2: 3 6 7 5 8 4 1 6

The following rules are known to the person decoding them.

I. Letters T and R occur exactly three times

II. Letters S and A occur exactly two times.

III. Letters E, P, O and N occur exactly once.

IV. One of the words starts with T and the other with S.

V. E occurs only in word 1.

Solution/Discussion

We proceed methodically analysing one condition at a time.

From the first condition, it is clear that T or R should stand for 3 or 6.

From the second condition, it is clear that S or A should stand for 8 or 7

We will ignore the third condition for sometime because we cannot conclude anything from it.

From the fourth condition, we can conclude that T stands for 3 and S stands for 8. Therefore, R stands

for 6 and A stands for 7. E stands for either 2 or 9. O,P and n can be substituted for 5,4 and 1 in Word

2.

Decoding the numbers individually, we find the following

Word 1: 8 3 7 6 3 2 9

S T ART

Word 2: 3 6 7 5 8 4 1 6

T RA S

In this particular question, the words are not those that make some meaning. Its more open-ended

than a word that has a meaning attached to it. I say so because it is not possible to decipher all the

numbers correctly, and therefore, its left to the student as to what he makes of the numbers and

words which cannot be correctly identified.

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Absolute Relatives

In this game, again a variant of the first 2 games, from the data given, relationships have to be

identified.

A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are people who are related as below

I. A is the father of 2 children C (male) and D (female)

II. H is the mother of two children E (male) and F (female)

III.

B is Es mother-in-law

V. Es wife is Fs sister-in-law

VI. Es son will also be As grandson and Cs daughter will also be Hs grand-daughter

Q1.

Who is As wife?

a) H

b) F

c) B

d) E

e) NONE OF THESE

Q2.

Who is Hs husband?

a) B

b) A

c) D

d) F

e) NONE OF THESE

Q3.

Who is Ds mother-in-law?

a) B

b) H

c) F

d) E

e) NONE OF THESE

Q4.

A. Bs daughter in law

B. Es wife

C. Hs daughter

a) A only

b) B only

c) C only

d) A and B only

e) B and C

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Q5. D is

a) Wife of A

b) Wife to E

c) Daughter of G

d) Fs sister

e) None of these

Q6.

Es mother is also

a) Ds mother

b) Cs grandmother

c) Bs sister

d) Gs wife

e) As wife

Q7.

a) Brother & Sister

b) Husband and Wife

c) Ds children

d) Hs grand children

e) None of these

Q8.

a) 4

b) 3

c) 5

d) 2

e) 6

a)

b)

c)

d)

e)

Q10. Which of the following represent a correct pair of husband and wife?

a)

A&H

b)

B&G

c)

E&D

d)

A&F

e)

C&D

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Solution/Discussion

How better to solve a family problem than by using a family tree. We can use symbols to denote the

different relationships. Males and Females can be denoted using m and f respectively.

The following symbols can be used: (Indicative symbols)

Father: up-arrow

Mother: up-arrow

Mother-in-law: diagonal up arrow

Father-in-law: diagonal up arrow

Daughter-in-law: diagonal down arrow

Son: down-arrow

Daughter: down-arrow

Using the conditions given above, the relationships can be symbolised as follows:

Am

Cm Df

Bf

Hf

Em Ff

Es wife

Fs sister-in-law

Am

Em

Cm

Son

daughter

Since A has 2 children, C & D, E must be the son-in-law.

Since H has 2 children, E & F, C must be the daughter-in-law (which is also mentioned in the

conditions)

Es wife therefore is D, who is the brother of C, who is Fs husband.

Since G is the only missing link, G must be the husband of H, just as B is the wife of A

The families are : AB, GH, ED and CF. There are an equal number of males and females in the family.

Therefore, X and Y are the grand-children of AB and GH. The other questions can be solved similarly.

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Map Games

These types of games describe connection between the elements specified in the game. Symbols are

very much useful in this type of games.

In a message relay system there are exactly seven terminals F,G,H,J,K,L and M. A terminal can

transmit any messages initiated by that terminal as well as any messages received from others, but

only according to specific rules:

Messages can be transmitted in either direction between G and H, in either direction between J and M,

and in either direction between K and L.

Messages can be transmitted from F to K, from H to J, from K to G, From M to F, and from M to H.

Q1. Which of the seven terminals can transmit messages directly to the greatest number of

terminals?

a) F

b) H

c) J

d) K

e) M

Q2.

necessary, it must be transmitted to a total of how many terminals, other than G and K?

a) 1

b) 2

c) 3

d) 4

e) 5

Q3.

A message from H that eventually reaches L must have been transmitted to all of the following

terminals except

a) F

b) G

c) J

d) K

e) M

Q4.

If J is removed from the message relay system for a day, it is still possible for a message to be

transmitted on that day all the way along a route from

a) F to H

b) G to K

c) G to M

d) H to K

e) L to M

Q5.

If K is removed from the message relay system for a day, which of the following terminals

cannot receive any messages from any other terminal on that day

a) F

b) G

c) H

d) J

e) L

Q6.

A message can travel along two alternative routes that have no terminal in common except the

initiating terminal and the final recipient terminal if the initiating terminal and the final recipient

terminal, respectively, are

a) G and J

b) G and L

c) H and L

d) K and M

e) M and G

Q7.

A message being transmitted along which of the following routes must reach each of the seven

terminals at least once?

a) F to G and then to M

b) J to H and then to L

c) L to H and then to M

d) M to G and then to K

e) M to L and then to F

Solution/discussion

Arrows can be used to show the connection between the different elements. One-way or Two-way

arrows can be used to differentiate between the connections.

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G

K

With this combined map, we can proceed to answering the questions. The process of elimination can

also be used in this case. If there arises a need to redraw the connection chart for a particular

question, go ahead and do it.

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Card Games

Card games require a basic knowledge of playing cards, the suits in cards, etc. For the starter, there

are 4 different suits, in 2 different colours Spades and Clubs, in black, and Hearts and Diamonds, in

red. There are 13 cards in all, in each suit. The cards are Ace, 2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9, 10, Jack, Queen and

King. The last three are picture cards. Though card and die games appear more in quantitative ability

in the form of probability questions, they have known to appear in reasoning questions also.

From a normal pack of playing cards, 20 cards were used in a game. These were all the four suits of

Ace, King, Queen, Jack and number ten. A, B, C and D are the players. Each player has all the five

cards, in one or different suits. Cs five cards were in 3 different suits and consisted of 3 red and 2

black cards. Ds five cards were also in 3 different suits, his ace being in the same suit as his queen,

and his king in the same suit as his jack. B held more than one black car. As five cards were all in the

same suit. C held the king of Spades, and D, the ten of diamonds.

Q1.

a) 6

b) 7

c) 4

d) 3

Q2.

a) C

b) D

c) A

d) B

a) A

b) B

c) C

d) D

Q4. As five cards are all

a) Spades

b) Clubs

c) Hearts

d) Diamonds

Solution/Discussion

Firstly, we organise the given information. For our convenience, lets denote the different suits as S, D,

H and C. Secondly, we start with identifying the important condition, if any. Lets begin by putting all

the information together.

Cs cards were in 3 different suits and consisted of 3 red and 2 black cards. C held the King of spades.

Ds cards were also in 3 different suits, with ace and queen of the same suit and the king and jack of

another suit. He has the ten of diamonds. Because 10 is of a different suit, the other cards may belong

to spades, hearts or clubs.

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All of As cards were in the same suit. Since C and D have one each of spades and diamonds, he must

have either all hearts or all clubs.

Since we havent been able to glean more out of the conditions, we follow a bottom-up approach, and

analyse the questions.

To answer the first question, we know that C has 2 black cards, B has more than one black card. 4

black cards are already accounted for. From what we have discussed above, we know that 2 of Ds

cards must be black (either spades or clubs). Therefore, B,C and D account for at least 6 black cards

(Please note the word at least, 6 may not be the ultimate number of black cards accounted for by

them).

Since they account for 6 black cards, they must include at least 1 spade and 1 club. Therefore, all of

As cards are hearts. So, the other 2 suits held by D are Spades and Clubs. Since C takes the King of

spades, King and Jack must belong to clubs and Ace and Queen must belong to spades. Now we can

make a small table with what we know.

Person

Cards

A K Q J 10 all hearts

B

C

Ks

10 d A Q s K J c

Spades: J and 10

Clubs: A, Q and 10

Diamonds: A, K, Q and J

C has 3 red and 2 black colour cards. The only remaining cards in red are the ones in diamonds above.

Since C already has a K, he must have the A,Q and J of diamonds, which means that he also has the

10 of clubs. Now that C is over, all the remaining cards are assigned to B. The final table will look as

follows:

Person

Cards

A K Q J !0 h

K d J 10 s A Q c

K s A Q J d 10 c

10 d A Q s K J c

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Number Game

This game requires a good knowledge of simple arithmetic, mainly LCM and factorisation. The

problems will generally be in the form of a grid, wherein based on the conditions given, the grid has to

be filled with the appropriate numbers.

There are nine letters A to I, each represented by a different number from 1 to 9. The grid is

positioned as below:

C

D

E

G

H

I

Each of the combinations of letters, A+B+C, C+D+E, E+F+G and G+H+I is equal to 13. Match the

letters to the numbers.

Solution/discussion

We can begin by making a grid similar to that made by the letters above.

D

E

G

H

I

Here, distinction has to be made between A,B, D, F, H and I on one side and C,E, and G on the other,

because the latter occur in two sums of numbers.

Since the numbers have to total 13, we can try different ways in which the number can be arrived at

by adding three numbers.

1+3+9

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1+4+8

1+5+7

2+3+8

2+4+7

2+5+6

3+4+6

We can safely say that one of A,B,D,F,H and I can assume the number 9, and 9 can occur only with 1

and 3. So, if we assume A to be 9, then we can assume B as 3 and C as 1, which means that D and E

should stand for either 8 and 4 or 5 and 7.

Using the first combination of 8 and 4, we find that E cannot be 8 because the only other combination

possible with 8 is 2 and 3, and 3 is already present. So E has to be 4, which means that F and G

should stand for 7 and 2. G, again, cannot stand for 7, because the only other possible combination

with 7 is 1 and 5, and 1 is already present. If G stands for 2, then H and I stand for 5 and 6.

On the other hand, if D and E stand for 5 and 7, then, assuming E stands for 7, we find that the only

other combination with 7 is F and G being 4 and 2. If G is 4, then H and I should be 3 and 6, but 3 has

already been used, so, this combination is not possible. If G is 2, then H and I should be 3 and 8 or 4

and 7, and again, we find that in both cases, a number has already been used.

From these two alternatives, we find that the first one is a feasible alternative and therefore, one

possible outcome of matching numbers can be,

A 9; B 3;

H 5;

C 1;

I 6

D 8;

E 4; F 7;

G2;

Please note that there can be other solutions based on the arrangement of numbers, say, for example,

if a student assigns 9 to I, then the grid would look different. But it is preferable to begin with a

number that can appear only once on the grid, in this case, 9.

Variations of this game include

Finding numbers for a similar grid, where products, instead of sums, are given.

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Bulls Eye

This game basically involves scoring a certain number of points on the dartboard. This may involve

more of trial and error than method. But, even in the former, a proper understanding of multiplication

tables and factorisation is necessary. As the following problem will indicate, its never easy to solve

such problems in a fraction of a minute unless one can calculate quickly.

The following numbers appear on a dartboard 46, 44, 42, 33, 31, 13 and 11, with 46 on the Bulls

eye and the rest of the numbers appearing on either side of it. Ascertain the least number of attempts

required for a person to score exactly 100 points.

11

13

31

33

44

46

42

Solution/Discussion

This problem requires the student to have quick calculation skills, especially multiplication. A good

way to attack the problem is to use the bottom-up approach, i.e. start from 100 onwards and identify

the numbers on the darts that will satisfy the given condition. From the board, we can easily identify

that the score before the dart hits the final 11 points to score 100 should be 89. Similarly, it should be

87 for 13, and so on. Solving along these lines for all kinds of possible combinations, such as,

11+13=24, therefore 76 to be scored beforehand

11+31=44, therefore 56 to be scored beforehand

13*2 = 26, therefore 74 to be scored beforehand, and so on, till we can arrive at a proper match.

In this case, after a few combinations of numbers and their multiples, we identify that a person needs

8 attempts to score exactly 100 points. The 8 attempts can be broken down into 6 attempts at the

target 13 and 2 at 11, which is equal to

13*6=78

11*2=22, totaling 100.

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An important point to note would be that the answer would definitely not be a very small number,

because the analysis required for it would be very minimal.

This game is a variant of the number game illustrated above. These games generally consist of a

table, wherein some numbers are missing or are substituted by letters. There are no explicit

conditions in these games, and so require some trial and error to solve them.

Its Copa America time and the South American football teams are playing each other for top honours.

The table below gives the results at a certain point during the tournament. A team gets 2 points for a

win, 1 point for a draw and no points for losing. Each letter below represents a distinct integer value.

No two letters represent the same integer. Each team plays the other only once.

Team

Played

Won

Drawn

Lost

Points

The questions may be w.r.t. number of games played by a team, points taken, whom they still have to

play against and values of the letters. A couple of them are given below:

Q1. What is the value of q?

a) 0

b) 1

c) 2

d) 4

Q2. How many games has E played till now?

a) 0

b) 1

c) 2

d) 3

Solution/Discussion

A team could have played its 4 matches, won all of them and scored 8 points, or a team would have

lost all its matches. Therefore, the numbers can range from 0 to 8. All columns of the table are filled

w.r.t team C, so, we use C as the starting point. At this point, it is advisable to look through the

questions, and look at a question, which can help us solve the row pertaining to C. In this case, only

the first question is relevant.

When we analyse the first question, we find that q cannot take the value of 3. Also, Cs row consists of

5 different numbers, and he should have won at least one point. We can make a simple assumption

that q is equal to 4 and start working the other numbers.

If q is 4, then C must have played at least 2 games and won them both or played 3, won one, drawn

two, or won two and lost one. C couldnt have played 4 games because the value of q is 4. Also, C

couldnt have played 2 and won them both because 2 different letters, x and y, represent the columns

of played and won respectively. So, he must have played 3 games. Now, we assume that C has won 2

matches and lost the other. Then, y represents 2 , p represents 0 and a represents 1.

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Once we have arrived at the numbers, well proceed to solving the whole table.

A has played 2 matches, has 2 points from them, and has lost a match. Therefore, he must have won

the other match. So, we fill in As row with the relevant numbers. Since only one column in team B

and E has been filled, we shall ignore them for the time being and proceed with team D. We find that

D has played 4 matches and has only one point. Therefore, he must have drawn a game and lost the

rest. We fill in the columns with the respective numbers. At this stage, the table will look as follows:

Team

Played

Won

Drawn

Lost

Points

Since team D has drawn a game and none of the other teams identified, A or C, has drawn a game, B

or E should have drawn a game with D. B must have played at least 2 games since its score is 4.

Now, if we analyse the Lost column, we find that 5 games have been lost but on comparison with

the Won column, we find that only 3 games have been won. Therefore, we can be sure that B must

have won at least one game. It can also happen that B would have drawn two of its games, one each

with D and E. (For the time being, we keep the number of losses constant and work the problem). So,

the other game must have been won by E. If we look at the table now,

Team

Played

Won

Drawn

Lost

Points

Team

Played

Won

Drawn

Lost

Points

From the table above, we can find that D has drawn with B and lost to the other 3 teams. B and C

have to play one game each but they cant play themselves since the other 2 teams A and C have 2

games left to play. Therefore, since B has already played C, it must have beaten it, which, in turn,

means that C must have beaten A for its only other win and is yet to play E. Similarly, B is yet to play

A, and A and C have to play each other.

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Ascertaining the number of runs scored, wickets taken etc. by players in a cricket match

We have tried to cover different problems that students can encounter during entrance examinations.

Though it is not an exhaustive list of problems, students should find it easier to follow a methodical

approach on solving analytical reasoning problems. The common mistakes made by students are

Hurrying through the conditions and later, finding it difficult to answer the questions

Following a set method of solving every game, irrespective of its type. Say, using symbols to

solve every game and every question in the game.

Wasting time reading too much into the conditions, especially in the conditional problems.

Organise the information according to your convenience. If you are comfortable using symbols,

go ahead, but please take some time to identify the easiest approach. Its just a matter of a few

seconds to read the conditions and identify the correct and easiest approach.

Use the bottom-up approach if the conditions are not sufficient to solve the questions.

Conditional problems take some time. Understand the implications of the conditions while

solving them. In case of questions that may have two answers, go for the most logical one or

the one that appears correct on the face of it, rather than working out its implications.

Last, but not the least, if nothing strikes you during the examination or if you feel that no

approach will help, try Trial and Error. It should work.

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CHAPTER-2

Numerical Puzzles

Recent papers of the Campus Placement Test have had a number of group problems in the

quantitative sections. In this chapter, the basic approach to these group problems has been discussed

with examples.

Each group of problems contains the directions that are nothing but the description of a numerical

problem situation. The problem situations are from any of the already discussed areas in the

quantitative ability fundamentals such as Interest Rates, Profit/Loss, Time, Speed, Functions,

Geometry etc. We have called these situations as puzzles because all the unknown information has to

be unveiled from one or two links provided generally at the end of the description of the situations.

As can be appreciated from the solved examples and exercise problems given under, two different

approaches are required to solve these puzzles depending on the type of questions.

In the first type, all the unknown but related details have to be determined before finding the best

answer choice for the questions (Please refer to solved example 1). The questions only pertain to the

unknown variables in the problem situation.

In the second type each question contains additional data and the problem needs to be solved with

this information separately for each question. In this type it is necessary that each question be

treated independently. Also the information provided in one question pertains only to that question

and should not be used in subsequent problems, unless otherwise mentioned.

Solved Examples

Example 1 : DIRECTIONS for questions 1 to 5.

Jeshwanth, Krishna and Lokesh invested in a certain business. As Lokesh was to manage the business

alone, it was decided that Lokesh would take 20% of the profit earned by the business and the

remaining amount would be shared by all the three in proportion to their investment.

Thus at the end of the first year each of them earned Rs.10,000/- from the business. While Krishna

withdrew 50% of his investment in the second year, Jeshwanth invested his first years profit also into

the business. The business earned the same amount of profit in the second year as in the first year.

Jeshwanth got a share which was 2.5 times the share of Krishna.

1.

1. Rs.17,102

2.

3. Rs.21,903.60

4. Rs.14,788

1. Rs.20,000

3.

2. Rs.15,581.40

2. Rs.18,000

3. Rs.28,000

4. Rs.15,000

3. Rs.16,000

4. Rs.14,000

1. Rs.17,500

2. Rs.22,350

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4.

1. 38%

5.

2. 65%

4. 47%

What is the profit earned by the business as a percentage of investment in the first year?

1. 42.75%

Ans:

3. 29%

2. 31.25%

3. 52.22%

4. 35.35%

To answer all these questions, it is first necessary to organize the given information. From the

data given it is clear that both Jeshwanth and Krishna get the same share of profit in the first

year. Hence they must have invested the same amount in the first year. Let the investment

made by Jeshwanth and Krishna in the first year be X. The total profit for the first year is

Rs.30,000/- and 20% of this amount, that is Rs.6,000/- goes to Lokesh for managing the

business alone. As Lokesh totally received a share of Rs.10,000/- in the first year, his share in

proportion to his investment must be Rs.10,000 - Rs.6,000 = Rs.4,000. Clearly this amount is

40% of the share received by the other two partners. Therefore Lokeshs investment in the

first year should be 40% of Jeshwanths or Krishnas investment i.e., 0.4X.

Jeshwanth

Krishna

Lokesh

Investment

0.4X

Profit

Rs.10,000

Rs.10,000

Rs.10,000

Investment

X + 10,000

0.50X

0.40X

Profit

2.5Z

30,000 - 3.5Z

I Year

II Year

As the ratio of the profit shared by Jeshwanth to that of Krishna is 2.5, the ratio of their investments

must also be equal to 2.5.

(X + 10, 000)

Therefore

0.5X

= 2.5

On solving the above equation X = 40,000/The investments of Jeshwanth, Krishna and Lokesh for the second year are respectively Rs.50,000,

Rs.20,000 and Rs.16,000.

The profit earned by the business in the second year is Rs.30,000. Out of this Rs.6,000 is paid to

Lokesh for managing the business.

The balance amount of Rs.24,000/- is to be shared among the three in proportion to their investment.

The final table looks as depicted below.

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Jeshwanth

Krishna

Lokesh

Investment

Rs.40,000

Rs.40,000

Rs.16,000

Profit

Rs.10,000

Rs.10,000

Rs.10,000

Investment

Rs.50,000

Rs.20,000

Rs.16,000

Profit

Rs.13,953.50

Rs.5,581.40

Rs.10,465.10

I Year

II Year

1.

2.

3.

4.

10,465.10

Lokeshs profit to investment ratio is Rs. 16,000

. This is equal to approx. 65%.

5.

The profit earned by the business is Rs.30,000 and the total investment is Rs.96,000. The

profit as a percentage of the investment is 30/96 = 31.25%. Answer is 2.

The PNV group is interested in investing in a High Technology Venture. The project details have been

worked out and are as below.

Investment required = 250% of the annual sales desired.

Profit = 25%

Working capital requirement = 35% of cost of goods.

6.

What should be the investment if PNV wants to earn a profit of Rs.2 crore in the first year?

1. Rs.25 cr.

Ans:

2. Rs.35 cr.

3. Rs.28 cr.

4. Rs.18 cr.

25 = (S - C)/ C x 100 Or S = 1.25 C

Therefore profit = S - C = S - S/1.25 = 0.25S/1.25

Required profit is Rs.2 crores.

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It is given that the investment is 250% of annual sales desired. Hence the investment would

be Rs.25 crores. Answer is 1.

7.

If PNV would like to restrict its investments to Rs.10 crores, what will be the annual profit?

1. Rs.1 cr.

2. Rs.80 lakhs

3. Rs.1.2 cr.

4. Rs.2.2 cr.

Ans:

The annual sales possible with an investment of Rs.10 crores is Rs.4 crores. The profit with

this sales would be Rs.0.8 crores or Rs.80 lakhs. Answer is 2.

8.

1. Rs.3.7 cr.

2. Rs.2.9 cr.

3. Rs.5.3 cr.

4. Rs.4.2 cr.

Ans:

The profit with a sales turnover of Rs.15 crores is Rs.3 crores. Hence the cost of goods will be

Rs.12 crores. The working capital requirement is given to be 35% of the cost. Therefore the

working capital required is 0.35 x 12 = Rs.4.2 crores. Answer is 4.

9.

interest rate of 18%, what will the profit after interest earned by the company be?

1. 0.3 cr.

2. 2.2 cr.

3. 0.85 cr.

4. 1.15 cr.

Ans:

As the sale is Rs.15 crores, the investment would be 2.5 x 15 = Rs.37.5 crs. The amount

borrowed from financial institutions is 0.40 x 37.5 = Rs.15 crores. The annual interest on this

borrowing is 18% of 15 crs. = Rs.2.7 crs. The profit earned is Rs.3 crs. and the profit after

interest will be Rs.0.3 crs. Answer is 1.

10.

If an annual net profit (profit after interest) of Rs.2 crores is to be achieved and PNV wants to

borrow 40% of the investment at an interest rate of 18%, what is the total investment

required?

1. Rs.200 cr.

Ans:

2. Rs.20 cr.

3. Rs.250 cr.

4. Indeterminate.

The gross profit will be I/2.5 x 0.25/1.25.

The amount to be borrowed from the financial institutions is Rs.0.41.

The annual interest on this amount is 0.18 x 0.41.

The profit after interest is I/2.5 x 0.25/1.25 - 0.18 x 0.41 = 2 crores.

On solving I = Rs.250 crores. Answer is 3.

XYZ Co. Ltd earned a profit of 20% in 1989. In 1990 the sales of the company improved by

Rs.6,000/- and the profit increased to 25%. Capitalising on the high demand for its product, the

company earned the highest profit of 50% in 1991 but maintained the sales at the same level as

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1990. In spite of the severe recession during 1992, the companys sales improved impressively by

20% but the profit slumped to the lowest ever figure of 12.5%. The amount of profit earned in 1992

was the same as the amount of profit earned in 1989.

11.

1. Rs.42,000

12.

2. Rs.36,000

2. Rs.8,000

2. 20%

2. Rs.24,000

3. 28%

4. 30%

3. Rs.41,000

4. Rs.18,000

If the cost of each item produced in 1991 was the same as that in 1990, the percentage

decrease in quantity sold in 1991 as compared to 1990 was

1. 18%

16.

4. Rs.11,000

1. Rs.20,000

15.

3. Rs.10,000

1. 25%

14.

4. Rs.30,000

1. Rs.6,000

13.

3. Rs.27,500

2. 16.66%

3. 22.5%

4. 25%

In problem 15 above the percentage increase in the price in 1991 as compared to 1990 was

1. 20%

Solution:

2. 25%

3. 30%

4. 35%

Sales

1989

1990

1991

1992

S + 6,000

S + 6,000

1.20 (S + 6,000)

% profit

Profit

20%

0.20S

1.2

25%

0.25(S + 6,000)

1.25

50%

0.50(S + 6,000)

1.5

12.5%

1.125

=

1.2 ,

1.125

Therefore,

On solving S = 24,000

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Sales

% profit

Profit

1989

24,000

20%

4,000

1990

30,000

25%

6,000

1991

30,000

50%

10,000

1992

36,000

12.5%

4,000

11.

12.

13.

The total sales for four years is Rs. 1,20,000 and the total profit is Rs. 24,000. Therefore the

total cost is Rs. 96,000. The % profit is 25. Answer is 1.

14.

15.

If cost of each item is Rs. 200 (assume), the quantity sold in 1990 was 24,000/200 = 120.

Similarly the cost of goods in 1991 was 30,000 - 10,000 = 20,000. As the cost of each item

remains same (at Rs. 200 in this case), the quantity sold in 1991 was 20,000/200 = 100.

Hence the percentage decrease in quantity sold in 1991 as compared to 1990 was (120 100)/120 = 16.66%. Answer is 2.

16.

From the above answer, the price of each item in 1990 was 30,000/120 = 250.

The price of each item in 1991 was 30,000/100 = 300.

The increase in price from 1990 to 1991 is (300 - 250)/250 = 20%. Answer is 1.

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Practice Exercise 1

DIRECTIONS for questions 1 to 5.

Both Amar and Prem individually invested certain amounts in a bank at a rate of interest of 5%.

Interest at the end of each year will be accumulated into the principal amount. At the end of the first

year, Amar withdrew 50% of the accumulated amount, while Prem withdrew Rs.11,500. At the end of

the third year, Prem had an accumulated amount equal to that which Amar had at the end of the

second year. Amar withdrew Rs.4,050 at the end of the second year. The total interest earned by

Amar is Rs.3,950 for three years.

1.

1. 35,000

2.

2. 40,000

3. 30,000

4. 48,000

2. 3,950

3. 1,975

4. 4,350

3. 1050

4. 1800

1. 1235

5.

4. 30,000

1. 3,550

4.

3. 31,500

1. 35,000

3.

2. 40,000

2. 900

If Prem had not withdrawn any amount in three years he would have had an accumulated

amount of

1. 34,725

2. 43,475

3. 45,447

4. 39,912

Ramkumar invests 60% of his retirement money in fixed deposits that earn an interest of 15% at the

end of every year. He decides to take out this interest amount at the end of every year to meet his

personal expenses. He invests the balance 40% of the retirement money in shares. At the end of the

first year he sells off all the shares and realises a profit of 25%. Inspired by the return on investment

on shares, Ramkumar decides to take out 25% of the money in fixed deposits and invest it in shares

along with the balance money. At the end of the second year he sells all the shares and incurs a loss

of 10%. Taken aback by the loss, Ramkumar puts the amount withdrawn by him earlier from fixed

deposits back into it. He reinvests the balance amount again in shares. After selling all the shares at

the end of the third year he realises a profit of 10%. The profit earned by Ramkumar in the three

years of his transactions in shares is Rs.18,900.

6.

1. 2.5 lakhs

7.

2. 2 lakhs

3. 3.2 lakhs

4. 1.6 lakhs

1. 49,500

2. 27,000

3. 52,000

4. 38,900

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8.

What is the loss incurred by Ramkumar in transacting in shares in the second year?

1. 16,500

9.

3. 13,000

4. 18,700

1. 87,000

10.

2. 15,000

2. 1,05,000

3. 98,500

4. 72,250

1. 10.8%

2. 15.4%

3. 19.2%

4. 9.2%

A company manufactures two products X and Y. Both these products are to be processed on machines

A, B, C in that order. Product X requires 10 hours on machine A, 20 hours on machine B and 15 hours

on machine C. Product Y requires 12 hours on machine A, 15 hours on machine B and 24 hours on

machine C. There are two machines of type A, 3 machines of type B and 4 machines of type C. The

company works for 8 hours a day.

11.

If the company makes only product X, how many numbers of X can be made in a month

consisting of 25 working days?

1. 55

12.

2. 41

3. 55

4. 72

2. 33

3. 13

4. 16

If products X and Y are to be dispatched in pairs, how many pairs of X and Y can be produced

in a month of 25 days?

1. 17

15.

4. 35

The company has to produce 20 numbers of product X in a month. If there are 25 working

days in the month, how many numbers of product Y can be made with the remaining capacity?

1. 24

14.

3. 72

In problem 11 above, how many numbers of product Y alone can be produced in the month?

1. 33

13.

2. 30

2. 18

3. 12

4. 27

1. 9.33%

2. 21%

3. 10.5%

4. 8%

Ghosh Babu deposited a certain amount of money in a bank in 1986. The bank calculated interest on

the balance in the account at 10 percent simple interest, and credited it to the account once a year. At

the end of the first year, Ghosh Babu withdrew the entire interest and 20 percent of the initial

amount. Again, at the end of the second year, he withdrew the interest and 50 percent of the

remaining amount. At the end of the third year, he withdrew the interest and 50 percent of the

remaining amount. Finally, at the end of the fourth year, Ghosh Babu closed the account and collected

the entire balance of Rs.11,000.

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16.

1. 25,000

17.

2. 75,000

2. 20,000

2. Second

4. 11,000

3. Third

4. Fourth

The year, at the end of which, Ghosh Babu collected the maximum interest was

1. First

20.

3. 4,000

The year, at the end of which, Ghosh Babu withdrew the maximum amount was

1. First

19.

4. None of these.

1. 12,000

18.

3. 50,000

2. Second

3. Third

4. Fourth

The year, at the end of which, Ghosh Babu withdrew the smallest amount was

1. First

2. Second

3. Third

4. Fourth

Prakash has to decide whether or not to test a batch of 1,000 widgets before sending them to the

buyer. In case he decides to test, he has two options : (a) Use test I (b) Use test II. Test I costs Rs.2

per widget. However, the test is not perfect. It sends 20% of the bad ones to the buyer as good. Test

II costs Rs.3 per widget. It brings out all the bad ones. A defective widget identified before sending

can be corrected at a cost of Rs.25 per widget. All defective widgets are identified at the buyers end

and a penalty of Rs.50 per defective widget has to be paid by Prakash.

21.

22.

23.

24.

Prakash should not test if the number of bad widgets in the lot is

1. less than 100

4. Cannot be answered.

If the number of defective widgets in the lot is between 200 and 400, Prakash

1. Should use either Test I or Test II

4. Cannot decide.

1. Should use either Test I or Test II

4. Cannot decide.

If Prakash is told that the lot has 160 defective widgets he should

1. Use Test I

25.

3. No test

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On 27-11-92, Sanjay bought 500 shares of company A at a price of Rs. 80/-, 100 shares of company

B at a price of Rs. 45 and 200 shares of company C at a rate of Rs. 50/-. The sensitive index on 2711-92 was 2,000. Sanjay knows that the price of share A is directly proportional and share price of B

is inversely proportional to the sensitive index. The share price of C is proportional to the square root

of the share price of A.

26.

If Sanjay again buys 500 shares of A at an index of 2400, what will be his average price of

share A?

1. Rs.92/-

27.

2. 3,825

3. 1,110

4. 2,000

2. Rs.82,000

3. Rs.48,250

4. Rs.72,000

Sanjay predicts that the index would reach a peak of 2400 and would fall down to 1800 in the

coming month. What will be the profit earned by Sanjay if he sells all his shares at the peak

index and buys back the same shares at the lowest index?

1. Rs.14,800

30.

4. Rs.12/-

1. Rs.75,250

29.

3. Rs.96/-

If Sanjay sells 200 shares of C when the index is 2,500, what is his gain in rupees?

1. 2,500

28.

2. Rs.98/-

2. Rs.12,700

3. Rs.13,850

4. Rs.18,750

3. 1,000

4. 6,400

3. 57/9

4. 65/7

1. 4,000

2. 8,000

x y = x2 + x2 y2

x

xy=

31.

1. 47/13

32.

2. 13/2

1. 27/7

33.

y2 + y

2. 0

3. 17/3

4. 19/4

If x y = m , x y = n, what is m n for x = 2, y = 1?

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1. 412

34.

3. 197

4. -4

1. 2

35.

2. 278

2. -2

3. 1

4. -4

2. Only when y is equal to x2.

3. When y is equal to either zero or

x.

4. None of these.

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CHAPTER-3

Blood Relationships

In the study of Blood relations we come across three major types of problems.

The relation will be described with you as a centre and is given in a round about manner

i.e. one needs to under go a series of relationships before arriving at the conclusion.

The relation will be given between the two people in a round about manner.

Here certain codes are used to indicate certain relations. One needs to decode it and come

to the conclusion.

In order to solve the problems related to blood relation we need to know the following relations

Mothers mother

Grand mother

Fathers mother

Grand mother

Mothers father

Grand father

Fathers father

Grand father

Grandmothers brother

Grand uncle

Grandmothers sister

Grand aunt

Grandfathers brother

Grand uncle

Grandfathers sister

Grand aunt

Fathers son

Brother

Mothers son

Brother

Mothers daughter

Sister

Fathers daughter

Sister

Mothers brother

Uncle

Fathers brother

Uncle

Mothers sister

Aunt

Sons wife

Daughter-in-law

Daughters husband

Son-in-law

Husbands sister

Sister-in-law

Wifes sister

Sister-in-law

Husbands brother

Brother-in-law

Wifes brother

Brother-in-law

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Sisters son

Nephew

Brothers son

Nephew

Sisters daughter

Niece

Brothers daughter

Niece

Cousin

Cousin

Sisters husband

Brother-in-law

Brothers wife

Sister-in-law

and sister)

The graph given below will help us to get the concepts properly.

Draw family tree in which stem represents mother and father, roots, grant parents, branches,

children, and leaves, the children of the children. Aunt can be mothers or fathers sisters. Uncles are

fathers or mothers brothers.

These are common relations and one can easily spot out the

relationship.

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Practice Exercise 2

1.

2.

If a+b means a is the husband of b, a b means a is the sister of b and a b means a is the

son of b which of the following shows that A is the daughter of B?

1. A D B

2. D B C A

3. B x C A

4. C + B A

The man who is receiving the hat is the brother of uncles daughter. What is the relation

of the speaker and the man getting the hat.

1. Son in law

3.

3. Cousin

4. Niece

2. Son in law

3. Brother

4. Husband

2. Aunt

3. Sister in law

4. Niece

2. Brother

3. Uncle

4. Nephew

2. Uncle

3. Sister

4. Daughter in law

Pointing to a lady Mohan said She is the daughter of a woman who is the mother of the

husband of my mother. How is the lady related to Mohan?

1. Aunt

10.

2. Brother

Introducing a man to her husband a wife said that his brothers father is the only son of my

grand father. How is the wife related to the man?

1. Mother in law

9.

4. Grandmother

Pointing to his sons photograph Ralph said to a woman His mother is the only daughter of

your mother. How is the woman related to Ralph?

1. Wife

8.

3. Aunt

Introducing a man a woman said, he is the only son of my mothers mother. How is the

woman related to the man?

1. Mother

7.

2. Sister

Pointing to a lady in a photograph John said, She is the daughter of my grandfathers only

son. How is John related to the lady?

1. Father in law

6.

4. Nephew

Dennis said to Raman that the boy who has won the game is the younger of the two brothers

of the daughter of my fathers wife. How is the boy related to Dennis?

1. Son in law

5.

3. Brother

Pointing to a girl in the photograph Umesh said Her mothers brother is the only son of my

mothers father. How is girls mother related to Umesh?

1. Mother

4.

2. Cousin

2. Mother

3. Daughter in law

4. Sister in law

Pointing to a man in group Sheela said He is the brother of the daughter of the wife of my

husban4. How is the man in group related to Sheela?

1. Son

2. Uncle

3. Sister

4. Niece

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CHAPTER-4

Calendars

General Information about Calendars

1.

2.

3.

A normal year (Non Leap Year) consist of 365 days, where as a Leap Year consist of 366

days.

4.

Number of days in a month is either 31 days or 30 days depending upon what month we

are taking into consideration but only in the month of February we find 28 days and if it is

a leap year then the month of February contains 29 days.

Consider that 2006 February 22nd was a Thursday. If it is required to be find the day on which

the next 5th would fall, first calculate the total number of days from February 22.

It happens to be 11 days.

Then divide this number by 7 to obtain the reminder.

Here, we have 11/7 = 4 as the reminder.

Then count the 4th day starting from Thursday

The day on March 5th is Monday

Odd days are basically the remainder obtained by dividing the number of days under

consideration by 7.

Every year consists of 365 day and quarter of a day, but for all practical consideration we take

the year to be comprising of 365 days only.

That quarter of a day is taken into account every year and at the end of 4 year we say that

one extra day is added to the total number of days.

Hence a leap year is going to have 366 days

A leap year is a year, which is divisible by 4 and if its a century it must be divisible by 400.

366

The number of odd days in a leap year =

= 2 odd days

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365

The number of odd days in a non leap year =

= 1 odd day

As such, if June 19th of one particular year is Monday then June 19th of the very next year (if

it is a non leap year) happens to be Tuesday because a non leap year has one odd day.

Whereas, if the next year is a leap year then June 19th is going to be Wednesday as a leap

year is going to be having 2 odd days.

In a Century

100

Odd days in a period of 100 years =

= 25

As such, in a century, there must be 25 leap years and 75 non leap years.

But the 25th year happens to be 100th year, which is not a leap year.

Totally 24 leap years and 76 non leap years, in a century.

We know that each leap year has 2 odd days and non leap year 1 odd day. So, a period of

100 years is going to have (48+76) = 124 odd days

1242

i.e. effectively

=3

odd days.

Similar Cases

1243

A period of 300 years is going to have

7

124 4

=1

odd day.

= 6 odd days

But the 400th year happens to be a leap year hence it would contain an extra day or odd day.

Total number of odd days is, 6+1 = 7 odd days or effectively 0 odd days.

This concept will help us to calculate the days on any year, any month. We need to remember

a table so as to find out the day depending upon the number of odd days.

If we get 0 as the odd day then it is Sunday.

Similarly,

1 Monday

2 Tuesday

3 Wednesday

4 Thursday

5 Friday

6 Saturday

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Step 1: Consider up to 1900

We know that 1600 is a multiple of 400, so the total number of odd days is zero.

A period of 300 years will have 1 odd days. So effectively up to 1900 we have just 1 odd

day.

Now consider 81 years.

By dividing 81 by 4, we get 20 leap years and 61 non leap years.

i.e. 40 + 61 = 101 odd days (202+611 = 101)

Up to 1981 we have (1 + 101) odd days

The month of January has 31 days 3 odd days.

March has 31 days 3 odd days.

April has 30 days 2 odd days.

May has 31 days 3 odd days.

June has 30 days 2 odd days.

July has 31 days 3 odd days.

August has 31 days 3 odd days.

September has 30 days 2 odd days.

October has 31 days 3 odd days.

So up to 1981 Oct 31st we have (1+101+3+0+3+2+3+2+3+3+2+3) odd days

Finally consider month of November up to 28 days

When you add 28 days to the consisting odd days

You will get total number of odd days up to 28th November 1982

= 126 + 28 = 154 odd days or 0 odd days

From the table we can make out that it is Sunday.

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Sometimes, it may be required to find out which year has or will have the same calendar

as this year.

If it is a leap year it is going to repeat after 28 years and if it is a non leap year, the

method is explained in the example below.

Example: Which year will have the same calendar as that if 2001.

2001 is a non leap year hence 1 odd day.

2002 is a non leap year hence 1 odd day.

2003 is a non leap year hence 1 odd day.

2004 is a leap year hence 2 odd day.

2005 is a non leap year hence 1 odd day.

2006 is a non leap year hence 1 odd day.

Once we get the total number of odd days to be 7 or 0, the next year is going to have the

same calendar as the year under consideration.

i.e. year 2007 will have the same calendar as 2001 year.

Note: If the year after 7 odd day count happens to be a leap year then we have continue

the same procedure will we get a non leap year by taking multiple of 7 into consideration.

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Practice Exercise 3

1.

If December 25th 1965 was a Friday then what day was Christmas in 1966?

1. Saturday

2.

7.

3. 7

2. 9 birthdays

3. 12 birthdays

2. 1971

3. 1972

4. 8

4. 10 birthdays

4. 1973

If August 15th, 1947 was a Friday and is celebrated as Indias Independence Day. How many

Fridays will India celebrate as Independence Day in this century?

2. 10 Fridays

3. 11 Fridays

4. 12 Fridays

3. Wednesday

4. Thursday

3. Wednesday

4. Thursday

3. Wednesday

4. Saturday

2. Tuesday

1. Monday

10.

2. 6

1. Monday

9.

4. Saturday

November 16th, 1998 was Monday. When was November 16th a Monday the last time ?

1. 9 Fridays

8.

3. Sunday

If June 7th, 1965 was a Thursday then find the year when June 7th was Thursday the next

time.

1. 1970

6.

2. Monday

Mrs. Lily was born on February 29th, 1940. She joined a school as a teacher in 1958, June 1st.

She retired on March 31st, 1995. How many birthdays did she celebrate in her school?

1. 8 birthdays

5.

4. Tuesday

Former Prime Minister of India Mr. Morarji Desai was born on February 29th in 1896. What

was his age when he celebrated his first birthday?

1. 5

4.

3. Monday

If November 16th 1987 was a Thursday what will be November 16th 1988.

1. Tuesday

3.

2. Sunday

2. Tuesday

1. Monday

2. Tuesday

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Practice Exercise 4

1.

1. Monday

2.

4. Thursday

2. Tuesday

3. Wednesday

4. Thursday

2. Tuesday

3. Wednesday

4. Thursday

2. Tuesday

3. Wednesday

4. Thursday

2. Tuesday

3. Wednesday

4. Thursday

2. Tuesday

3. Wednesday

4. Thursday

3. Sunday

4. Thursday

3. Wednesday

4. Thursday

1. Monday

10.

3. Friday

1. Monday

9.

2. Saturday

1. Monday

8.

4. Thursday

1. Monday

7.

3. Wednesday

1. Monday

6.

2. Tuesday

1. Monday

5.

4. Thursday

1. Monday

4.

3. Wednesday

1. Monday

3.

2. Tuesday

2. Tuesday

1. Monday

2. Tuesday

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CHAPTER-5

Clocks

The Clocks, we take under consideration, are all analog ones and 12 hour clock. We consider

only minute-hand and hour-hand for all calculations and seconds-hand is not considered.

Consider the time to be 2 pm. For it to be 3 pm, it takes 60 minutes.

In a matter of 60 minutes, the minute-hand makes one entire revolution i.e 360

Distance traveled by minute-hand in one minute is given by 360/60 = 6

If we divide the entire clock into four parts, each section constitutes for 90.

Between any two number which are at the end of quadrants there are two more numbers.

Angle between any two numbers is 90/3 = 30

The hour-hand moves by an angle of 300 while traveling between 2 pm to 3 pm

Distance traveled by hour-hand in one minute is given by 30/60 =

Since both the hands are moving in the same direction the relative speed is going to be the

difference of the speed i.e (6 ) = 5

If the same thing needs to be defined in terms of minute in one hour, the minute-hand covers

60 minute division while the hour-hand covers just 5 minute division.

Hence relative speed is = 60 5 = 55 minute.

To find out the angle when the time is given or when the angle is the following relation can be

used:

= 30h =

11

2

11

2

m - 30h ( when

11

2

11

2

m)

m > 30h)

where,

is the angle formed between the hands of the Clock.

m is the minutes

h is the hour

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Worked Examples

1.

What is the angle between the minute-hand and hour-hand when the clock shows 2 hours and

30 minutes?

Solution:

11

2

11

2

- 30h

30 = 165

30h = 302 = 60

11

2

m > 30h

=

2.

11

2

Find the angle between 3 o Clock and 4 o Clock when the angle formed between the hands

of the clock is 45.

Solution:

11

2

m - 30h

45 =

m =

11

2

270

11

m - 30 3 135 =

= 24

11

2

6

11

24

3.

6

11 min.

The Clock was slow by 10 minutes at 6 am. But when I saw the watch at 6 pm in the evening

it was 20 minutes fast. Find the time when it had shown the correct time.

Solution:

When the clock was 10 minute slow initially, instead of showing 6 am it was actually showing

5:50 am and started gaining time from that moment. It was showing 20 minutes more than

the correct time at 6 pm. That implies at 6 pm, it was showing 6:20 pm.

In a matter of 12 hours (6 am in the morning to 6 pm in the evening), the clock has gained

totally 10 + 20 = 30 minutes.

It will show the correct time when it gains 10 minutes, from 6 am onwards.

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10 12

In order to gain 10 minutes it will take,

30

= 4 hrs

Hence, the clock had shown the correct time at 10 am in the morning.

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Practice Exercise 5

1.

Find the angle between the hour-hand and the minute-hand when the time is 3 hours 40

minutes.

1. 36

2.

3. 90

4. 25

2. 15

3. 130

4. 2.5

2. 157.5

3. 130

4. 2.5

1. 36

6.

2. 15

1. 36

5.

4. 65

1. 36

4.

3. 130

What is the angle between the hour-hand and minute-hand at 6.30 p.m.?

1. 36

3.

2. 72

2. 157.5

3. 90

4. 2.5

2 clocks are set at exactly 12 oclock. One clock gains 5 minutes every hour while the other

loses 5 minutes every hour. After how many hours will both the minute-hands point at the

same number? What is time showing by both the clocks?

1. Clock - I shows 6.30 and Clock -II shows 6.30

2. Clock - I shows 6.30 and Clock -II shows 5.30

3. Clock - I shows 6.30 and Clock -II shows 7.30

4. Clock - I shows 6.30 and Clock -II shows 8.30

7.

2 clocks are set exactly at 6.00 a.m. Clock - I gains 6 mins every 1/2 hour and Clock - II loses

6 minute every 1/2 hour. When Clock I shows 8.24, what is the exact time? What is the time

given by Clock II?

1. 8.36 a.m.

8.

2. 9.36 a.m.

3. 7.36 a.m.

3. 6.36 a.m.

A watch loses 5 minutes every half an hour. It is set to the correct time at 4 p.m. What is the

exact time when the time indicated by the watch is 8.00 p.m.?

9.

1. 8 hours 48 minutes.

2. 9 hours 48 minutes.

3. 10hours 48 minutes.

4. 11 hours 48 minutes.

A watch gain 3 minutes in every 20 minutes. It is set exactly to correct time at 10.00 a.m.

What is the time when it is actually 3.00 p.m. ?

1. 3.45 p.m.

2. 6.45 p.m.

3. 8.45 p.m.

4. 9.45 p.m.

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10.

Two clocks chime together at 1.00 p.m. After that clock-I gains 5 minutes every half an hour.

Next when the clocks chime together, what is the time indicated by clock-I and clock-II. What

is the exact time?

1. 4.00 p.m.

2. 6.00 p.m.

3. 7.00 p.m.

4. 8.00 p.m.

Practice Exercise 6

1.

1. 36 hrs

2.

2. 72 hrs

3. 144 hrs

4. 96 hrs

A clock gains 2 minutes for every minute it covers. It is set right at 12 noon. What is the

correct time when it shows 9 p.m., on the same day?

1. 2 p.m

3.

2. 2:30 p.m

3. 3 p.m

4. 6 p.m

Let x be the angle between the minute-hand and the hour-hand of the clock when the time is

1:05 p.m. At which of the following times is the angle between the hands equal to 12x?

1. 1:00 p.m

4.

2. 2:30 p.m

3. 4:52 p.m

4. 11:38 p.m

playing with a clock. It is 7:00 in the evening. He moves the minute-hand backward, and

stops it at the first position when the angle between the minute-hand and the hour-hand

becomes what it was at 7:00. What time is the clock showing now?

6 : 05

1.

5.

5

11 p.m.

6 : 07

2.

2

8 p.m.

6 : 03

3.

4

17 p.m.

6 : 23

4.

1

9 p.m.

Rutherford wants to measure the height of a skyscraper. Having no other alternative, he hits

upon an ingenious solution. He takes a stopwatch at the top of the skyscraper, starts it and

drops it.

Then he rushes down to the ground, only find that his beloved stopwatch has

before it broke, if the top f the skyscraper subtends an angle of 300 at a point 173 m. from its

base? (Assume g = 10 m/sec2)

1. 3:8 sec

6.

2. 4:9 sec

3. 6:1 sec

4. 4.4 sec

When given a date as an

input, the program tells the day corresponding to that date. However, Gaurav makes an error

while programming, so all the leap year are taken as non-leap years, while all the non-leap

years are taken as leap years by the program. What day does the program give for 1 Jan

2001?

1. Sunday

7.

2. Monday

3. Tuesday

4. Friday

Amit is a firm believer in astrology, so one Tuesday he goes to his family astrologer to find the

next time that he is going to make a windfall. The astrologer predicts, It is going to be a

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Thursday, and the number of days between that day and today is going to be a multiple of

40. Can you tell Amit after how many days does his auspicious day arrives?

1. 120

8.

2. 160

3. 200

4. 240

The Kingdom of Eccentricity has a 6 day week, i.e., there is no concept of a Saturday in

Eccentricity. Today, the 15th of August 1947 is a Sunday in Eccentricity. What day will lie on

15th of August 2001?

1. Tuesday

9.

2. Thursday

3. Sunday

4. Monday

A clock is set right at 12 noon. It loses a different amount of time every subsequent hour, the

different times being related by the fact that they form an arithmetic progression. Let t1 be

the time lost in first hour, t2 in second hour and so on. If t3 = 7 min and t13 = 27 min, then

what does the clock show when it is 5 a.m. the next day?

1. 1:04 p.m.

10.

2. 11:37 a.m.

3. 11:37 p.m.

4. 10:23 a.m.

Yogesh designs a clock which moves anti-clockwise instead of the normal clockwise routine. If

today 31st March 2000 and the clock is started, what will be the date and year as shown by

the clock (they also go back in time) after 100 days?

1. 23 Dec 1999

2. 22 Dec 1999

3. 21 Dec 1999

4. 23 Dec 2000

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CHAPTER-6

Direction of Movement

The concept involves a person (in general) moving certain distances in specified directions.

Then we are asked to find out the net distance traveled between the initial position and

final position.

Best approach to solve these problems is to draw a diagram as per the information given

in the question.

In general terms north direction is referred as the vertical direction and south direction is

referred as the downward direction.

For solving the problems on direction one must be thoroughly one needs to be quiet aware

of the all possible directions.

The problems related to direction sense are aimed to find out two major aspects,

1.

Total distance traveled between the initial and the final position

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2.

Worked Examples

1.

Rajeev travels a distance of 3 metres towards east from his house; he then travels a distance

of 8 metres southwards and then travels a distance of 3 metres towards east and finally

travels a distance of 11 metres southwards. What is his vertical distance from his house?

Solution:

The total vertical distance traveled 11+8=19m.

2.

Sridhar starts from his house and travels 10 meters towards east, then 8 meters towards

right, and then travels 8 meters towards east and 3 meters towards south after that. Finally

he turns right and travels 1 meter. What is the total distance he has traveled from his house

in the north-south direction?

Solution:

meters.

3.

Anil travels 7 meters towards east, then he turns right and travels 3 metres; then travels 5

meters towards left and then proceeds 3 metres northwards and finally travels 2 meters

westwards. How far is he from his house in the vertical direction?

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Solution:

The distance covered by Anil in the north-south direction from his house is equal to

3 - 3 = 0 meters

4.

metres leftwards, then travels 6 metres northwards and finally Sol travels 6 meters eastwards

to reach a new location. What is the distance he traveled from his previous location?

Solution:

The distance traveled vertically is 6 - 6 = 0 metres and the distance traveled horizontally is

equal to 7 + 6 = 13 m. Therefore, the distance traveled from his original location is also equal

to 13 m.

5.

Lucas starts from his house and goes 2 metres towards east, then turns towards right and

goes 25 metres and again goes towards east travelling 15 metres and then turns left and

travels for 18 metres. He then goes towards east and travels 7 metres. Howfar is he from his

house?

Solution:

Distance traveled in vertical direction is : 25 - 18 = 7 m

Hence the total distance traveled will be equal to : (242 + 72) = 25 m

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Practice Exercise 7

1.

metres leftwards and finally travels 15 metres rightwards. What is the approximate distance of

the place she reached from his original place?

1. 17 m

2.

3.

1. 7 m towards east

2. 1 m towards west

3. 7 m towards south

4. 1 m towards east

3. 22 m

4. 12 m

and goes towards his house. To reach her house, she has to

Travel 5 km towards north-east from the office followed by 5

travel 5 km towards south-west followed by 5 km towards

far is the office from her house?

2. 10 m

3. 0 m

4. 20 m

2. South

3. South-West

4. North-East

One evening two friends Ramya and Sowmya were talking to each other face to face. If

Sowmya's shadow was exactly to her right side, which direction was Ramya facing?

2. South

3. West

4. East

Nandy going 50 m to the south of her house, turns left and goes another 20 m then turning to

the north, he goes 30 m and then starts walking to her house. In which direction is she

walking now?

1. North-West

9.

4. 8 m

After walking 6 km, Dipankar turned right and traveled a distance of 2 km, then turned left

and covered a distance of 10 km. In the end Dipankar was moving towards the north. From

which direction did Dipankar start my journey?

1. North

8.

3. 12 m

2. 32 m

follow the following directions:

km towards ,south-east; then

north-west. Approximately how

1. East

7.

2. 2 m

Krishna starts from his house and travels a distance of 10 m southwards and then travels a

distance of 12 m rightwards, then travels a distance of 10 m rightwards and finally travels a

distance of 10 m in the eastern direction. At what horizontal distance is he from his house?

1. 5 m

6.

4. 34 m

Laxmi starts from his house, travels a distance of 12 m westwards, then travels a distance of

10 m northwards, then a distance of 10 m eastwards, then a distance of 10 m southwards.

What is her distance from his house presently?

1. 2 m

5.

3. 20 m

then a distance of 3 m leftwards and again 6 m leftwards and finally travels 15 m towards the

south. What is the present horizontal distance from the place he had started? Is he to the west

or east of the starting point?

1. 22 m

4.

2. 42 m

2. North

3. South-East

4. South- West

One evening, two friends Ganga and Sunil were talking to each other with their backs towards

each other. If Gangas shadow was exactly to the right of her, which direction was Sunil

facing?

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1. South

10.

4. North-West

2. North-East

3. North

4. South-West

2. 8 km

3. 22 km

4. 17 km

2. 8 km

3. 12 km

4. 151.6 km

A person starts from his house and travels a distance of 10 m southwards and then travels a

distance of 12 m rightwards, then travels a distance of 10 m rightwards and finally travels a

distance of 10 m in the eastern direction. At what horizontal distance is he from his house?

1. 2 m

15.

3. West

A man goes northwards and travels 5 km and then goes 5 km towards the east, then travels

15 km towards the right and finally travels 17 km towards the right1. Approximately how far

is he from the original place?

1. 221.8 km

14.

2. South-East

A person travels 7 km towards the east, then turns right and travels 7 km, then travels 15 km

towards the left, then goes 12 km towards the left again and finally goes 5 km towards the

north. How far is he from his original place in the horizontal direction?

1. 24 km

13.

4. West

Gagan started walking towards north to his office which is 3 km from his house. From there he

turns 135 in the anti-clock wise direction and then 180 in the clock-wise direction. Which

direction is he facing now from his office?

1. North-West

12.

3. East

A watch shows 8.30. If the minute hand points towards east, in what direction will the hour

hand point?

1. South-West

11.

2. North-west

2. 32 m

3. 22 m

4. 12 m

Sadanada walks 8 km towards North1. Then he turns right and walks a further 8 km. How far

and in what direction is he from the starting point?

1. 10 km towards North

2. 11 km towards North-East

3. 16 km towards North-East

4. None of these

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CHAPTER-7

Letter Series

Techniques to Tackle

2.

A

Z

B

Y

C

X

D

W

E

V

F

U

G

T

H

S

I

R

J

Q

K

P

L

O

M

N

3. Sometimes alphabets are to be arranged in four rows thus

A

N

O

B

M

P

Z

C

L

Q

Y

D

K

R

X

E

J

S

W

F

I

T

V

G

H

U

4.

5.

6.

The series of arrangement may be arithmetic series where each alphabet differs by a

common difference or may be a geometric series where the ratio of position values of

alphabets is always equal.

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Practice Exercise 8

1.

Make a meaningful word with the 6th, 8th, 9th, 10th and 14th letters of the word

CORRESPONDENCE. Point out the third letter of the new word.

1. E

2.

2. K

3. M

4. G

2. 6th

3. 5th

4. 8th

2. E

3. S

4. T

2. I

3. M

4. L

If the letters of the alphabet are arranged in the reverse order which will be the 14th letter to

the left of the third letter from the right?

1. Q

8.

4. T

Which of the following will be fourth to the right of sixteenth position from the right end?

1. X

7.

3. R

Which letter in the alphabet is the 8th letter to the right of the letter which is 20th from the

left?

1. D

6.

2. E

If every fourth letter starting from F is replaced by days of a week starting from Sunday what

will be the position of Thursday counting from your right?

1. 9th

5.

4. X

Which letter will be midway between the 14th letter from the left end and 19th letter from the

right end in the alphabet?

1. I

4.

3. S

If letters on alternating positions, while starting from D, are dropped, which of the following

letters will be second to the right of the seventh position from your left?

1. L

3.

2. M

2. J

3. R

4. K

Which letter is midway between the eighth letter from the right and seventh letter from the

left in the following alphabet?

ABCDEFGHIJKLMNOPQRSTUVWXYZ

1. L

9.

3. M

4. N

If the alphabet are written in the reverse order which will be the fourth letter to the right of

the 13th letter from the left?

1. J

10.

2. G

2. L

3. K

4. M

Which letter in the word APPLES (other than A) occupies the same position as it does in

alphabet?

1. E

2. P

3. L

4. T

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CHAPTER-8

Number Series

Techniques to Tackle

1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

Series based on the Difference between the Numbers.

Type 1:- Series in which the difference between the numbers or alphabets position

value is constant.

Example: the numbers of the series 1, 3, 5, 7, 9, .....

Here next number is obtained by adding a constant figure of 2 to the preceding term

of the series.

Type 2:- Series in which the difference between the numbers or alphabets position

value will keep on increasing or decreasing.

The difference between successive terms keeps increasing or decreasing, as per the

given series.

Example: the numbers of the series 1, 3, 6, 10, .....

Here, the difference between the first two terms of the series is 1;

the difference between the second and third terms is 2;

the difference between the third and the fourth terms is 3 and so on.

That is, the difference between any two successive terms is exactly 1 more than the

difference between the first number of this pair and the number immediately

preceding this number.

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Practice Exercise 9

1.

25, 13, 8, 6, ?

1. 5.5

2.

2. 7, 4

3. 7, 6

4. 8, 7

2. 29

3. 26

4. 35

2. 36, 41

3. 37, 42

4. 35, 40

2. 677

3. 635

4. 648

2. 7, 4

3. 5, 4

4. 3, 6

2. 254

3. 246

4. 234

2. 648, 646

3. 607, 708

4. 702, 507

1. 264

10.

4. 37

1. 9, 3

9.

3. 35

2. 34

0, 1, 2, 5, 26, ?

1. 627

8.

4. 18, 26

1. 33, 38

7.

3. 18, 32

1. 31

6.

2. 28, 36

1. 9, 8

5.

4. 4.5

1. 33

4.

3. 2.5

1. 16, 12

3.

2. 3.5

1. 504, 507

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CHAPTER-9

In this section, you are required to classify each problem according to four or five fixed answer

choices, rather than find a solution. Each problem consists of a question (or an argument) and is

followed by two or three statements depending on the type of data sufficiency problem discussed

below. Three types of data sufficiency problems that are commonly tested are outlined in this section.

The section also includes problem-solving strategies and solved examples.

The data sufficiency problem usually consists of four parts viz:

1. The directions

2. The given (original) information

3. The question that is asked based on the given information in part 2.

4. 2 or 3 statements (depending on type) from which the answer has to be drawn.

Part 1: There would be a set of directions, based on which each of the following questions need to be

answered. These directions would specify which option should be selected as response while

answering the questions.

Part 2: The information given at the beginning of the question including any geometrical diagram

forms Part 2 of the DS question format. For instance, Find the area of a rectangle if its length

is 20 cm or If 10 workers lay 100 bricks on a floor measuring ...sq. ft., how many workers

are needed to complete the job in ....days? In other words, the information given is in the

form of a definite statement.

Part 3: A question is either given in the information sentence itself as in the above example or

followed afterwards by the information part of the format. Questions normally pertain to

mathematical problems. Generally there are two forms in which the question part appears.

1.

Asking a specific number in an answer, e.g., What is the area of the rectangular figure

shown in the diagram below? In such cases the answers must be a single numerical

value.

In both instances the answers have to be drawn from the given statements only.

Part 4: The question is followed by two or three statements (depending on the type), in each of which

will be given a particular relationship or fact and sometimes even two facts/relationships.

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The general instructions for this type of problem are as under:

Directions: Each of the following problems has a question followed by two statements, which are

marked A and B. Use the data given in A and B together or separately and mark

1.

2.

3.

If both statements together are needed to answer the question but neither statement

alone is sufficient.

4.

This type of data sufficiency problem therefore has 4 alternatives. The problem can be well illustrated

by the following flow chart.

Is A alone

sufficient

to answer

the

tiNo

Is B alone

sufficient

to answer

the

Yes

Yes

Answer 1

Answer 2

No

Are A & B

together

sufficient

to answer

the

No

Answer 4

Yes

Answer 3

1.

a.

b.

The 2nd term in the series is twice the first and the 3rd term is three times the

2nd.

It is clear that statement A alone would not be of any help in answering the question.

Statement B gives the relationships among the first three terms in the series, but does not

provide the absolute value of the first term. The question can only be answered from

statement A and B together. Hence the answer is 3.

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2.

Is x2 > y?

a.

x3 - 8x - 27 < y

b. y < 0

Statement A gives only a relationship between x and y but fails to answer the question.

Statement B indicates that y is negative. As x2 is always positive, it is clear that x2 is greater

than y. Hence statement B alone can answer the question. Answer is 2.

3.

a. AB = 4cms, BC = 7cms, AC = 11 cms

Statement A gives the dimensions of the three sides of the triangle. In a triangle the sum of

any two sides will always be greater than the third side. In statement A, the sum of AB and BC

is equal to the third side AC. Hence the given figure is a straight line and the area is zero.

Answer is 1.

4.

a. XYZ publishing co. has 12 presses.

b. Each press can print 1052 pages everyday.

Here neither statement A alone nor statement B alone can answer the question. Using both

statements together one can only get the total number of pages that can be printed in XYZ

co., in a day but not the number of books printed as required in the question. Hence the

answer is 4.

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For each of the following questions mark:

1.

2.

3.

If statements A and B together are needed to answer the question, but neither statement

alone is sufficient.

1.

a. Sarah arrived at 8 p.m., Jack arrived at 8.15 p.m. and Tony arrived at 8.20 p.m.

b. Mike arrived at least 15 minutes before any of the three - Sarah, Jack and Tony.

2.

What is the area of the shaded portion between the two circles A and B?

B

a. Length of q = 7 cms.

q

3.

P

a. QR = PR.

b. The bisector of angle R is perpendicular to QP.

4.

a. 5x = A. x is an integer.

b. 8y = A. y is an integer.

5.

a.

6.

1 1

<

q 2

p

>4

q

a. y is even.

7.

b.

b. xy is even.

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a. 4a + 3b = 14

8.

Is

b. a + b = 4

1 1

> ?

p q

a. p > q

9.

10.

b. p > 1

a.

b.

As per the partnership arrangement Michael got 40% of the profit while Allen and Jack

shared the remaining amount equally.

Is p > q?

a. 0 < p < 0.50

11.

What is the area of the circle with centre 0 and chord AC?

C

a. OA = 6.5 cm

b. AC = 5 cm

12.

a. Angle b = 300

b c

b. Angle d = 200

A

13.

700

a. BD = DC

14.

b. 1 > y > 0

a. x2 - 1 = 0

16.

Is xy > yx?

a. x > 0

15.

b. x > 0

a. The baker made a profit equal to the selling price of 4 loaves.

b. The baker made a profit of $4.80.

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17.

Is x > 0?

a.

18.

19.

a. x = y

b. x = p

q

z

p

r

The average temperature of a certain week was 260C. What was the temperature on the

fourth day?

a. The average temperature on the first four days was 26.50C.

b. The average temperature on the last four days was 27.50C.

20.

a. Z = 40

21.

Is 1/m2 = 2?

a. m2 + 2m > 4

22.

b. m > 0.75

What is the area of the shaded portion (O is the centre of the circle)?

P

a. Chord PQ = 12cm.

b. Chord OA = 7 cm.

23.

0

A

a. Car A is moving 22 kmph faster than car B.

b. If car B reduces its speed by 50% it would take 44 minutes for car A to overtake car B.

24.

25.

26.

How many days does it take for 12 men to complete the work?

a.

If there were 3 men less, the same work would have taken 4 days more.

b.

2 more men have to work in order to complete the work as per schedule.

a.

The train takes 27 seconds to cross a bullock cart moving in the same direction.

b.

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27.

a.

b.

a.

xy = 12cm

b.

Angle z = 90

Z

28.

29.

Is x < y?

a.

x2 - 36 = 0

b.

y>7

Is p > q?

a. p3 q2 > 0

b. p2 q5 < 0

30.

a. xy = 6

b. x2 + y2 = 22

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The general instruction for this type of problem is as below:

Directions:

Each of the problems below consists of a question and two statements, labelled (1)

and (2), in which certain data is given. You have to decide whether the data given in the statements is

sufficient for answering the question. Using the data given in the statements plus your knowledge of

mathematics and everyday facts (such as number of days in May etc.), you are to mark as your

answer

A: If statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient to answer

the question.

B: If statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (1) alone is not sufficient to answer

the question.

C: If BOTH statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are sufficient to answer the question asked

but NEITHER statement ALONE is sufficient to answer the question.

D: If EACH statement alone is sufficient to answer the question asked.

E: If statement (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient to answer the question asked,

and additional data specific to the problem is needed.

The approach to this type of problem is explained in the following flow chart:

Is (1) alone

sufficient to

answer the

question?

yes

Is (2) alone

sufficient to

answer the

question?

no

yes

ANSWER A

ANSWER D

no

Is (2) alone

sufficient to

answer the

question?

together

sufficient to

answer the

question?

yes

yes

ANSWER C

ANSWER E

ANSWER B

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1.

Is xy < 0?

1. x2 y3 < 0

2. xy2 > 0

It is not possible to answer the question with statement (1) alone. Statement (2) only

indicates that x is positive (y2 is always positive and x has to be positive for xy2 to be greater

than 0) and is not sufficient to answer the question. It is only possible to answer the question

with statements (1) and (2) together. (From statement (1) it is clear that y is negative and

hence xy should always be negative). The answer is C.

2.

Is x > y?

1. x2 > y2

2. x - y > 0

Statement 1 alone will not answer the question as either x or y can be negative. Statement 2

alone will answer the question. The answer is B.

3.

a. p = 120

b. q = 60

a

p

x

60

q

c

Each statement alone is sufficient as angle x = angle q (alternate angles) and angle x = 180 (180 - p) - 60 = p - 60 (angles in a triangle). The answer is D.

4.

1. The length of the diagonal is 13cms.

2. The ratio of the length to the breadth of the rectangle is 2:4.

Each statement alone is sufficient to answer the question. The answer is D.

5.

1.

If the selling price was increased by Rs. 10, the profit percentage would have increased by

12%.

2.

Neither statement 1 alone nor statement 2 alone can answer the question. Both statements

together can answer the question. The answer is C.

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31.

32.

Is PQ parallel to RS?

1.

a=b

2.

a + b = 2 right angles

Is 1/x > 1?

1. x > 1

33.

x<2

2.

a=2

Is a + 1/a > 2?

1.

34.

2.

a>1

1. A boatman can row a distance of 24 kms. from the starting point and come back in

10 hours.

2. A boatman can row at a rate of 4 kmph. with the river and at a rate of 3 kmph

against it.

35.

36.

37.

38.

39.

Is x a positive integer?

1.

x3 is a positive integer.

2.

x2 + 1 is positive.

How many runs did Venkat score in a five match cricket series?

1.

If he had scored 1 run less, his average would have dropped by 0.15.

2.

If he had scored 1 run more, his average would have increased by 0.045.

1.

2.

1.

2.

Is p a positive integer?

1.

40.

px = 1

2.

x=0

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1.

41.

44.

45.

46.

48.

49.

x2 - 1 = 0

2.

x-1=0

1

1

>

x

y

2.

y is positive.

1.

AB = BC = AC = 3 cms

2.

AD =

3 3

cms

2

1.

AB = AC

2.

BD = DC

Is m > n?

1.

m2 > n2

2.

m < -2

Is x > y?

1.

47.

(a - b) 2 = 25

Is x > y?

1.

43.

2.

Is x positive?

1.

42.

a + b = 15

(x + y) 2 is positive.

2.

x is positive.

Is x positive?

1.

x3 + 1 = 0

2.

x2 - 1 = 0

1.

Jim ran 2 kmph faster than Mike whose speed was 4 kmph greater than Terrys.

2.

1.

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2.

50.

1.

2.

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Directions: Each of the following problems has a question followed by three statements, which are

marked a, b and c. Use the data and mark

1. If one statement itself is sufficient to answer the question.

2. If any two of all three possible pairs of statements are sufficient, but none of the

statements by itself is sufficient to answer the question.

3. If any two statements but not all three statements are sufficient to answer the question.

4. If all three statements are required to answer the question.

5. If none of the statements individually or jointly answer the question.

This type of data sufficiency problem therefore has 5 alternatives, as illustrated by the following chart.

Is A alone sufficient

Yes

to answer the

question?

No

Is B alone sufficient

to answer the

question?

Yes

ANSWER 1

No

Is C alone sufficient

to answer the

question?

Yes

No

Are A & B together

sufficient

to answer the

question?

Yes

No

sufficient

ANSWER 3

to answer the

question?

No

Yes

Yes

No

Are A & C together

sufficient

to answer the

question?

sufficient

to answer the

question?

Yes

sufficient

to answer the

question?

ANSWER 2

Yes

No

Are B & C together

sufficient

to answer the

question?

Yes

No

ANSWER 3

No

Are A, B & C

sufficient

to answer the

question?

No

Yes

ANSWER 4

ANSWER 5

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1.

How many people were there in the stadium to watch the cricket match?

a.

b.

c.

It is very clear that the statements A, B and C alone will not answer the question. It is not

possible to answer the question by using any pairs of these statements. All the statements

together also will not give any answer. The best answer is 5.

2.

a.

If the average speed was more by 50% it would have taken 2 hours less.

b.

c.

Here it is possible to answer the question only with statement A. Statements B and C cannot

answer the question. Hence the answer is 1.

3.

C

a.

b.

AC = 4 cms.

0

B

c.

BC = 4 cms.

Angle subtended by the diameter at the circumference is 900. Hence it is possible to answer

the question if any two dimensions of the triangle ABC are known. The question can therefore

be answered by any two of the statements. The answer is 2.

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51.

52.

a.

b.

c.

AB is the tangent to the circle with center O. What is the value of angle ACO?

a.

b.

OB = 26 cms.

C

0

c.

53.

54.

55.

56.

a.

b.

c.

a.

b.

c.

a.

Angle B = 90

b.

c.

a.

b.

c.

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Directions : Each of the following problems has a question followed by two statements which are

marked A and B. Use the data and mark

1. If only one statement (A) or (B) is sufficient to answer the question.

2. If either (A) or (B) is independently sufficient to answer the question.

3. If neither of them can answer the question.

4. If both (A) and (B) are together sufficient to answer the question.

This type of data sufficiency problem, therefore has 2 alternatives, as illustrated by the following

chart.

Is A alone

sufficient

to answer

the question?

Is B alone

sufficient

to answer

the question?

Is either A or

B

independentl

y

sufficient to

Are A and B

together

sufficient to

answer the

question?

Yes

Answer 1

Yes

Yes

Yes

Answer 2

Answer 4

Answer 3

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1.

a.

x,y>0

b.

xy = 1

1

x=

y

x+y=

1

- y = + y - 2

y

y

1

- y

- y

=x+y-2

+2

2.

a.

b.

The area cannot be determined since only one side is known. Note that (A) and (B) do not

imply that the triangle has sides 13, 12, 5 cms unless it is specifically mentioned that the sides

have integral values.

The answer here is (3).

3.

What is the principal amount if a certain sum of money trebles itself in ten years?

a.

b.

Both statements (A) and (B) give the same value of r (r = rate) as given by the question

itself. Since both statements do not give any additional information, the principal cannot be

found. Hence the answer is (3).

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57.

58.

59.

60.

61.

62.

63.

64.

a.

b.

a.

b.

What would be the cost of fencing a circular field at Rs. 65/- per metre?

a.

b.

What is the length of the train which crosses another train in 25 seconds?

a.

Both the trains travel with the same speed and are of the same length.

b.

Is x an integer?

a.

b.

x=

y

where y is a number between 2 and 5.

2

In the XY plane if the point (x, 0) is on the line I, what is the value of x?

a.

b.

Is x + y an odd integer?

a.

b.

xy is an even integer.

What is the value of the three digit number if and denote the digits of the number?

a.

=4

b.

843

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65.

66.

67.

68.

69.

70.

71.

72.

Anu had an average score (A.M) of 86 on three tests. What was her lowest score in the three

tests?

a.

b.

Typists A and B type at constant rates. If the time it takes typist A to type 100 pages is 2.5

hours how long does it take typist B to type 100 pages?

a.

It takes typist A and typist B working independently and at the same time 1.5 hours to

type a total of 100 pages.

b.

The time it takes typist A to type 100 pages is 1.25 hours less than the time it takes typist

B.

How many of the 10,000 acres of Jyothis farm were cultivated this season?

a.

b.

Exactly 1/3rd of the acreage that could be cultivated was not cultivated.

If both the numerator and denominator of a fraction are positive and each is increased by 5

what is the value of the resulting fraction?

a.

b.

In the original fraction the denominator was 6 less than the numerator.

What would be the cost of surrounding a rectangular field by a road 30 metres wide?

a.

b.

A trader wants to make 10% profit after allowing a discount of 15% on the marked price.

What should be the marked price of the article?

a.

b.

a.

b.

If A and B can complete a job in x days in how many days would B alone finish the job?

a.

x = 20.

b.

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73.

74.

75.

76.

77.

78.

79.

80.

81.

82.

a.

PQ = XY and QR = YZ.

b.

R = Z.

a.

A = D.

b.

AB = DE and AC = DF.

a.

n is odd.

b.

n is a multiple of 5.

Is x a positive number?

a.

x = x2

b.

x 3 = x5

Is xy > 30?

a.

2x4

b.

3>y

a.

a = b and c = d.

b.

A = C, B = D

a.

is an acute angle.

b.

a.

b.

Is x > y?

a.

2x + 3y = 5

b.

4x + 7y = 10

Is n > 1?

a.

n + |n| = 0

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b.

83.

84.

85.

86.

87.

n3 4|n| = 0

a.

b.

Is p < q?

a.

1

1

<p <

7

7

b.

1

1

< q<

6

6

a.

b.

Is x - y > 0?

a.

x5 > y5.

b.

x 2 > y2 .

Is x - y < 0?

a.

x4 > y4.

b.

x 2 > y2 .

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10. SOLUTIONS

Answers to DS Practice Problems

1d

2c

3-a

4b

5-c

6-d

7-c

8d

9b

10 - d

11 a

12 - a

13 - b

14 - d

15 a

16 d

17 - a

18 c

19 - c

20 - b

21 - d

22 c

23 d

24 - a

25 b

26 - d

27 - d

28 - c

29 c

30 d

31 - a

32 a

33 - d

34 - b

35 - a

36 e

37 e

38 - e

39 e

40 - c

41 - b

42 - c

43 a

44 a

45 - c

46 e

47 - a

48 - e

49 - a

50 e

51 c

52 - a

53 d

54 - d

55 - e

56 - b

57 a

58 a

59 - b

60 d

61 - c

62 - d

63 - d

64 a

65 d

66 - b

67 d

68 - a

69 - c

70 - b

71 a

72 c

73 - c

74 d

75 - a

76 - c

77 - d

78 c

79 c

80 - d

81 d

82 - b

83 - c

84 - c

85 a

86 a

87 - c

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Answer Key:: Practice Exercise 1

1-2

23

3-1

42

5-1

6-2

7-1

8-3

91

10 - 1

11 2

12 - 1

13 - 3

14 - 1

15 - 1

16 3

17 - 1

18 2

19 - 1

20 - 4

21 - 1

22 - 3

23 1

24 - 1

25 4

26 - 3

27 - 3

28 - 1

29 - 3

30 2

31 - 2

32 2

33 - 4

34 - 3

35 - 4

Questions 1 - 5:

AMAR

Start-amounts invested

PREM

0.05X

0.05Y

1.05X

2

1.05Y - 11,500

(withdrew 50%)

1.05X

2

0.05 x

(1.05)2 X

2

1.05(1.05Y - 11,500)

(1.05)2 X

Beginning of III year

- 4,050)

1.05(1.05Y - 11,500)

(1.05)2 X

Interest during the III year

0.05(

- 4,050)

0.05 x 1.05(1.05Y-11,500)

(1.05)2 X

Total amount at III year end

1.05 (

- 4,050)

Given :

Total amount with Prem at the end of third year = Total amount with Amar at the end of second year.

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(1.05)2 X

2

- (1)

(1.05)2 X

0.05 x 1.05X

2

2

+ 0.05

- 4050) = 3950

0.05X +

Solving X = Rs.40,000. Using this value of X in (1), we get the value of Y = Rs.30,000

1.

(2)

Rs. 40,000

2.

(3)

Rs. 30,000

3.

(1)

= 0.05Y + 0.05(1.05Y - 11,500) + 0.05 x 1.05(1.05Y - 11,500) = Rs. 3550

(1.05)2 X

2

4.

(2)

5.

(1)

Questions 6 - 10:

M = Retirement money

Fixed Deposits

Shares

Initial

0.60M

0.40M

= 0.60M 0.15M

= 0.65M

= 0.45M

Return in the 2nd year

0.15 x 0.45M

0.65M 0.065M

= 0.60M

= 0.595M

0.15 x 0.60M

Net profit earned through shares in three years = 0.10M - 0.065M + 0.0595M = 18,900

M = Rs.2,00,000

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6.

(2)

7.

(1)

= 0.15 x 1.65M = Rs.49,500

8.

(3)

9.

(1)

(1)

200000 x 3

Average annual return =

10.

49500 + 15700

= 200000 x 3

= 10.8%

Questions 11 - 15:

10 hrs

20 hrs

15 hrs

12 hrs

15 hrs

24 hrs

No. of machines

11.

(2)

Total number of hours available on

A = 2 x 200 = 400 hrs, B = 3 x 200 = 600 hrs, C = 4 x 200 = 800 hrs

No. of units of X that can be produced on

400

600

800

10

20

A=

= 40, B =

= 30, C = 15 = 53

Maximum number of pieces that can be produced is the least of these three i.e., 30.

12.

(1)

600

400

800

15

12

A=

= 33, B =

= 40, C = 24 = 33

Max. No. of Ys that can be produced is 33.

13.

(3)

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10 x 20 = 200 hrs

20 x 20 = 400 hrs

15 x 20 = 300 hrs

A: 200/12 = 16

B: 200/15 = 13

C: 500/24 = 20

14.

(1)

A

10 + 12 = 22 hrs

20 + 15 = 35 hrs

15 + 24 = 39 hrs

A: 400/22 = 18

B: 600/35 = 17

C: 800/39 = 22

15.

(1)

A

17 x 22 = 374

17 x 35 = 595

17 x 39 = 663

Unused capacity = available - used = (400 + 600 + 800) - (374 + 595 + 663) = 168

168

% unused capacity = 1800 = 9.33%

Questions 16 - 20:

1986

Interest

1987

M

0.1M

M - 0.2M

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Interest

0.1 x 0.8M

1988

Interest

0.1 x 0.4M

1989

Interest

0.1 x 0.2M

Total

Total interest

Given:

Total = 11,000 0.22M = 11,000

M = Rs.50,000

16.

(3)

17.

18.

(2)

19.

(1)

20.

(4)

Questions 21 - 25:

21.

(1)

Test 1 1000 x 2 + 20 x 50 + 80 x 25

Test 2 1000 x 3 + 100 x 25 = 5,500

No test 100 x 50 = 5000

22.

(3)

23.

(1)

Test 1 1000 x 2 + 160 x 25 + 40 x 50 = Rs. 8000

Test 2 1000 x 3 + 200 x 25 = Rs. 8000

24.

(1)

25.

(4)

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26.

(3)

Price of A Index,

A1

I

= 1

A2

I2

C1

27.

(3)

A,

Price of C

A1

80 2000

=

A2

2400

, A2 = Rs. 96

C2

A2

2500

A2 at I = 2500 = 2000 x 80

50

C2 =

80 x

3000

Price of A at I = 3000 = 2000 x 80 = 120, Price of B at I = 3000

2000 x 45

3000

= 30

28. (1)

50

Price of C at I = 3000 =

80 x

120 = 61.25

29.

(3)

30.

(2)

31.

(2)

2 x = 22 + 22 x 32 = 4 + 36 = 40

40

40 4 = 4

32.

(2)

40

40 + 64

104

52

13

16

16

8

+ 4 = 16 + 4 =

=

=

= 2

y 2 + 9y

25

y x = y2 + 9y, (y2 + 9y) - 5 =

-5=5

y(y + 9) = 0, y = 0 or y = -9

33.

(4)

m = 2 1 = 22 + 22 x 12 = 8

2

n=21= 1 +1=3

m n = 82 + 82 x 32 = 64 + 576 = 640

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34.

m = x 1 = x2 + x2 = 2x2

(3)

n=x1=x+1

m = n or 2x2 = x + 1

2x2 - x - 1 = 0, 2x2 - 2x + x - 1 = 0

2x (x - 1) + (x - 1) = 0

1

(x - 1)(2x + 1) = 0, x = 1 or x = - 2

35.

(4)

1

10

1

10

1

10

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1

10

1

10

1

2

3

3

2

4

6

7

8

2

2

1

11

12

13

2

3

4

14

9

1

0

15

1

2

3

4

2

1

2

3

6

7

8

9

1

0

2

1

1

1

1

1

2

3

4

5

1

2

4

4

2

6

7

8

9

10

3

2

1

3

3

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