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CHAPTER-1

Analytical Reasoning
Analytical Reasoning forms an important part of generally all Campus Placement Test. The questions
in this section can either test analytical or logical reasoning. This booklet will concentrate on the
former. The thinking process associated with such problems resembles solving a case, wherein the
clues here are in the form of certain conditions, which may or may not be mutually exclusive. The best
way to get a hang of these problems is to work on them continuously. Initially, they may deter you
but once the student follows the rules given below and solves many problems, it will appear simple.
Games1 in this section can both be verbal and numerical. The first part of this booklet will consist of
the basics behind solving such problems, such as the elements forming the problem and the rules to
follow to crack such problems. The second part will deal with verbal analytical reasoning wherein a few
varieties of games / puzzles / problems will be provided, which will be followed by a discussion on
solving the same. Questions may not be provided for a few of these games, as solving the conditions
directly will give us the solution. The third part will deal with numerical reasoning, which basically
requires a strong sense of arithmetic. The methodology for solving each game is only suggestive and
the student can use his own discretion to solve it in an easier fashion.

Conditions
As mentioned above, conditions are a set of clues, which when analysed, provide the solution for the
problem. These conditions cannot be violated and all these conditions have to be analysed before
attempting any question relating to the problem. These conditions are not necessarily in order and
therefore, it becomes imperative for the student to go through all of them before identifying the
important ones.

Rules of the Game


There are a few rules of this game, which help in solving AR problems systematically. These rules help
you frame the problem in the right perspective, organise your thoughts and finally, crack the problem
and its associated set of questions. A few such rules have been given below.
1.

Read, Read, and Read:

2.

Identify the most important condition, if any.

3.

Picturise the information.

4.

Organise the information.

Reading the problem and its conditions is a pre-requisite. The


student has to spend sometime reading and analysing the statements. Read the conditions
carefully. Please dont over-read into the conditions and statements. Its also important to study
the implications of the conditions, i.e. try to analyse it from a what-if angle (though not the case
in all the problems)
Since the conditions are not
given in any specific order, the student has to peruse through all of them and identify the key
condition, which will provide the platform from where the problem can be solved. If there are
any restrictions in the problem, like for example, one of the elements has always to be at one
place and then start by putting that element there. In case of ordering problems (wherein an
order of the elements has to be ascertained), this becomes especially important.

If, for example, the problem deals with 5 people standing


at a bus stop, the student must be able to juxtapose it in his analysis. Since there wont be
sufficient place to work out these kinds of problems, picturisation helps in arranging the
information
Picturisation is the first step in organising information.
Once the student has an idea of the problem, he has to organise the information in an easily
comprehensible manner, i.e. he should try to associate it with whatever he feels comfortable.
The student should put every bit of detail on paper, say, make notes. Some ways of organising
information are

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Grids/Tables: Once the student has identified a particular structure of relationships, all the
information can be arranged in the form of a multi-columnar grid. The different elements of the
problem, as given by the conditions, must be entered onto the grid to facilitate a logical thinking
process. It also helps in eliminating some of the answers provided in the solution.

Symbols/Notations: If the student is comfortable substituting symbols for the different


conditions, he should do so, as, this, like tables, provides a simplistic view of the problem.
These may differ according to the type of problem and the comfort level of the student.

5.

Elimination of Answer choices. Some of the above rules do help one in eliminating
answer choices. It is generally not advisable in case of AR to start off by eliminating choices. As
you will see, many problems require a bottom-up approach, but, that is only after a careful
perusal and analysis of the conditions. Eliminate choices when the conditions are insufficient to
answer the questions.

6.
7.

Be careful of the language used. Certain words or phrases are oft-repeated and
these can well form important clues in framing the solution.
Finally,

answer all questions at the same time, if the game demands

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SOLVED EXAMPLES
The World This Week
This game deals with scheduling a program over a time period, say a week or a year. It consists of a
few conditions, from which the order of telecast has to be identified. These are problems, which
require the identification of a particular order or a schedule. Other variants of this game include

Identifying people staying in an apartment complex,

Ordering of books in a shelf etc.

Example
A TV channel is going to telecast 6 soppy soaps over the week Sob, Cry, Weep, Wail, Lament and
Moan. One of these will be telecast each day from Monday to Saturday, with Sunday being a FunDay.
The conditions specified by the Boss are as follows:

Sob must be telecast earlier in the week than Lament.

Weep must be telecast on Tuesday

Wail must be telecast on the day immediately before or immediately after the day on which Cry
is telecast

Questions
Q1.

If Cry is telecast on Thursday, the earliest day on which Lament can be featured is
a) Monday
b) Tuesday
c) Wednesday
d) Friday
e) Saturday

Q2.

If Moan is to be telecast on Friday, Sob must be telecast on


a) Monday
b) Tuesday
c) Wednesday
d) Thursday
e) Saturday

Q3.

If Wail is to be featured on Thursday, the latest day on which Sob can be telecast is
a) Monday
b) Tuesday
c) Wednesday
d) Friday
e) Saturday

Q4.

Which of the following soaps can be telecast on Monday?


a) Cry
b) Moan
c) Lament
d) Weep
e) Wail

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Q5.

If Moan is to be telecast on Thursday, which of the following is true?


a) Sob must be telecast on Wednesday
b) Cry must be telecast on Saturday
c) Wail must be telecast exactly two days after Lament is telecast
d) Lament must be telecast on Wednesday
e) Lament must be telecast later in the week than Moan

Q6.

If Moan is to be telecast on Friday, what is the total number of acceptable schedules available to
the TV channel?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
e) 5

Solution/Discussion
We shall begin discussing the solution by following the rules that have been specified above. A
thorough reading of the problem provides us with the following leads
It is imperative in these kinds of ordering problems that we begin with conditions that fix the exact
position of one or more elements, and then work towards narrowing the possibilities for other
elements. When the order cannot be determined by the condition, then, attack the questions and
proceed with eliminating choices.
There are 3 conditions, of which, the second condition that Weep should be telecast on Tuesday can
be considered to be the important condition since it provides an ideal base to work the problem.
The first condition suggests that Sob can be telecast on any day except Saturday, and Lament can be
telecast on any day except Monday. Since Tuesday is already ruled out, the days of telecast for these
two soaps are down to four.
From the third condition, we can ascertain that Cry cannot be telecast on Monday because Weep is to
be telecast on Tuesday. Therefore, Cry can be telecast on any day from Wednesday to Saturday.
Let us now make a table to help organise this information

Days
Soaps

Monday

Tuesday

Wednesday

Thursday

Friday

Saturday

Weep

We can proceed in the following manner


Calculations
Monday: No Lament and Cry.so its either Sob, Wail or Moan
Wednesday to Friday: All except Weep
Saturday: All except Weep and Sob
Since there can be many combinations of the telecast of these soaps, we can proceed with the
problem by reading the questions. This approach will also help in eliminating answer choices.

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Solution 1: For every question, we can fill the table. As for this question, if Cry is telecast on
Thursday, the table would look like this

Days

Monday

Soaps

Tuesday

Wednesday

Weep

Thursday

Friday

Saturday

Cry

From our calculation earlier, we have seen that the earliest day that Lament can be telecast is on
Wednesday. WE now check whether it is feasible with Cry being telecast on Thursday.

Days

Monday

Tuesday

Wednesday

Thursday

Friday

Saturday

Soaps

Sob

Weep

Lament

Cry

Wail

Moan

We find that it is indeed feasible and therefore, the answer to this question is Wednesday

Solution 2: Moan has not figured in our calculations so far. So if we assume that Moan is telecast on
Friday, then we have a table that looks like this

Days

Monday

Soaps

Tuesday

Wednesday

Thursday

Weep

Friday

Saturday

Moan

Moans telecast on Friday provides us with only one combination of days for the telecast of Cry and
Wail, Wednesday and Thursday, since they have to be telecast on consecutive days. And from the first
condition, which specifies that Sob must be telecast earlier in the week than Lament, Sob must be
telecast on Monday.

Days

Monday

Tuesday

Wednesday

Thursday

Friday

Saturday

Soaps

Sob

Weep

Cry

Wail

Moan

Lament

The answer to the second question is Monday

Solution 3: We make a table again with Wail being telecast on Thursday.

Days

Monday

Tuesday

Wednesday

Thursday

Friday

Saturday

Soaps

Sob

Weep

Cry

Wail

Moan

Lament

This table is similar to the one used to arrive at Solution 2, but the question has been framed
differently. Here we are supposed to find the latest day on which sob can be telecast and not the
earliest day. From our earlier calculation, we find that Sob can be telecast on Monday and on any day
from Wednesday to Friday. Since Wail is telecast on Thursday, Cry should be telecast on Wednesday
or Friday. Since there is no condition relating to Moans telecast, Moan can be telecast on Monday and
Sob on Friday. Do not forget that Lament has to be telecast after Sob.

Days

Monday

Tuesday

Wednesday

Thursday

Friday

Saturday

Soaps

Moan

Weep

Cry

Wail

Sob

Lament

The answer to the third question is Friday

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Solution 4: From our earlier calculation, we can easily say that Moan is the only soap, among the
answer choices, that can be telecast on Monday.

Solution 5: This question requires us to visualise different alternatives and ascertain their veracity.
Days

Monday

Soaps

Tuesday

Wednesday

Weep

Thursday

Friday

Saturday

Moan

We can do this by analysing each of the answer choices. Never forget the calculations
Sob must be telecast on Wednesday: If Sob is telecast on Wednesday, Lament will have to be telecast
on wither Friday or Saturday, which is not possible because Cry and Wail have to be telecast on
consecutive days. Therefore, this is untrue.
Cry must be telecast on Saturday: Cry can be telecast on Friday or Saturday. Though this is not
entirely untrue, it is an option we should keep in mind till we arrive at the exact answer.
Wail must be telecast exactly two days after Lament is telecast. Since, in this case, Lament has to be
telecast on Wednesday, Wail can be telecast either on Friday or Saturday, i.e. either 2 or 3 days after
lament is telecast. So, even this option is not entirely untrue and should be kept in abeyance till we
arrive at the final answer.
Lament must be telecast on Wednesday: From the argument for the earlier answer choices, we find
that Lament has to be telecast on Wednesday alone.
Lament must be telecast later in the week than Moan: this is not possible since Cry and Wail have to
be telecast on consecutive days and only Friday and Saturday are available for them.
Therefore, after examining the answer choices, we find that the correct answer is (d).

Solution 6: We again make use of a table here, with Moan appearing on Friday

Days

Monday

Soaps

Tuesday

Wednesday

Thursday

Weep

Friday

Saturday

Moan

The different schedules can be tabulated as under


Days

Monday

Tuesday

Wednesday

Thursday

Friday

Saturday

Soaps

Sob

Weep

Cry

Wail

Moan

Lament

Sob

Weep

Wail

Cry

Moan

Lament

Since there are only 2 acceptable schedules, the answer is 2.

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Round Table
In this game, there are a few people sitting around a table. The basic theme here is to
identify, from the conditions, the exact placement of a person around the table.

Example:
There are six people, A, B, C, D, E and F sitting around a table.
1. The person sitting to the left of A faces D.
2. B and E sit on either side of C
3. A and B do not face each other.

Questions generally relate to the seating arrangement around the table and therefore are very simple.
For example, Who sits in front of B? Who faces B if A and D swap places?
Solution/Discussion:
This is a very simplistic version of the problem. The best and the simplest method to solve round-table
problems is to start by drawing a table and seating the students according to the conditions.
For example, from the first condition, by seating A at the top of the table, we can ascertain the exact
seating position of D.
A

Since the identity of the person seated next to A cannot be ascertained with one condition alone, we
move on to the second condition. After analysing the second condition along with the diagram above,
we can ascertain the exact seating position of E, as illustrated by the following diagram.
A

The third condition that A and B do not face each other means that A is sitting to the left of A and
facing D and E is facing A (from the second condition above). And therefore the final seating
arrangement would like this
A
B
F

D
E

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Different Strokes
This game is a variant of the above, with more number of elements. One thing to remember, the
more the conditions, the easier it is to solve the problem. There are many variants of this game,
like people standing in a bus-stop/railway station etc.
Example
There are 5 houses coloured Red, Green, Black, White and Blue in a row. Each of the houses is
occupied by bachelors of different professions (Singer, Accountant, consultant, Software engineer and
lawyer) and each of them has a different vehicle in which to commute to office. The colour of the
vehicle is different from not only that of his house but also of his neighbours house.
1) A lives in a Blue House, which has the same number of houses on either side.
2) B is an accountant and the colour of his car is similar to the colour of the lawyers house.
3) E has a black car and his house is next to the Green house
4) The person living in the White House is a consultant
5) D is a software engineer living in the Black House
6) The lawyer drives a white car and he stays next to the Red House
1.

Who is the lawyer?


a) A
b) E
c) D
d) C

2.

Which of the following gives an orderly description of the houses?


a) GRBWB
b) BGWBR
c) GRBBW
d) WBBGR

3.

What is the colour of the consultants car?


a) Black
b) Blue
c) Green
d) Red

4.

Which of the following lives in the house next to B?


a) A
b) D
c) C
d) E

Solution/Discussion
The best method to solve these types of problems is to organise the information in the form of a
multi-dimensional grid. The dimensions as provided in the case are: People, Profession, Houses and
Cars.
We begin by filling in the information known to us in the correct boxes. First, we make individual grids
connecting each of the dimensions and then consolidate them in one single grid based on our analysis.

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From condition 1, we know that A lives in the blue house and that it has two houses on either side.
Grid 1 shows the relationship
Though there are two parts to the second condition, we take them one at a time. We match B with
that of an accountant. Grid 3 shows the relationship
E has a black car and his house is next to the Green house, which means that the colour of Es house
is neither black (the case specifically mentions that the house and a vehicle of a person cannot be of
the same colour) nor green nor blue. Grid 2 shows this relationship
D is a software engineer living in the black house. From this, we ascertain that D is not the neighbour
of E since E has a black car (refer to the case which specifically mentions that the colour of the vehicle
is not similar to the colour of the neighbours house). We can now say that E and D live on either side
of A.
Now for the remaining two conditions:
The lawyer drives a white car and stays next to the red house. Therefore the colour of the lawyers
house is not white, black or red (which, in turn, means that the colour of Bs car is not white, black, or
red)
The person living in the White House is a consultant. Therefore, the consultant is not the neighbour of
the lawyer.

If we combine all the dimensions into one single grid, Grid 6, we can make the following guesses:
Either A or C should be a lawyer
Either C or E is a consultant.
E should be staying either in the white house or the red house.
The colour of Bs car is either Blue or Green.
The colour of the Lawyers house is Blue or Green. Since the lawyer stays next to the red house and
drives a white car, his house can neither be red nor white in colour. This combined with the above
mean that B is not the neighbour of the lawyer and A.

Since Es house is not green, black or blue in colour, he should be the neighbour of B. Since he stays
next to the Green house, the colour of Bs house is Green, which means that B drives a blue car. This,
in turn, implies that the colour of the lawyers house is blue, i.e. A is the lawyer. Therefore, the singer
lives in the red house.
The lawyer stays next to the red house and therefore, the colour of Es house is red, which means that
he is the singer and C is the consultant.
Grid 1
House

Green

Red

Blue

Black

White

Name

Car

White

Blue

Green

Red

Black

Name

Profession

Lawyer

Accountant

consultant

Engineer

Singer

Name

Grid 2

Grid 3

Grid 4

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Profession

Singer

Accountant

Lawyer

Consultant

Engineer

House

Red

Green

Blue

White

Black

Profession

Singer

Accountant

Lawyer

Consultant

Engineer

Car

Black

Blue

White

Green

Red

Grid 5

Grid 6
Name

House

Car

Profession

Blue

Green

Lawyer

Green

Blue

Accountant

White

Green

Consultant

Black

Red

Engineer

Red

Black

Singer

To show the same information in a multi-dimensional grid,


House

GREEN

RED

BLUE

BLACK

WHITE

Person

Profession

ACCOUNTANT

SINGER

LAWYER

ENGINEER

CONSULTANT

Vehicle

BLUE

BLACK

WHITE

RED

GREEN

With the above grid, all the questions can be answered.


This question can also be solved using symbols or notations. For example, the fact that the colour of
Bs car is similar to the lawyers house can be recorded as
Bs car = Lawyers house, and so on. But, it is required that students be comfortable using notations
in place of grids etc.

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10

Conditions Galore
These games are slightly different from the others in that the problem does not specify the exact
number of places to assign elements, rather, some elements have to be assigned for some questions
and some others for other questions. These problems are of the selection variety wherein you are
asked to distribute elements into groups. The strategy for this is similar to that of the earlier
problems, namely ordering/scheduling problems, but because of the if-then relationship (or the
probability relationship) prevalent, it requires a more organised solution process, especially with the
use of symbols. Some of these relations are given below. Please note the implications of the a single
statement.
Eg 1: If A is in the team, then B also has to be in the team.
If the team consists of A, then it will also have B, i.e. A, therefore B.
But, if B is in the team, it doesnt mean that A is in the team, i.e. B, therefore A is not a correct way
of reasoning.
Similarly if B is not in the team, it also means that A is not in the team, i.e. not B, therefore not A.
The converse, however, isnt true, i.e., if A is not in the team, it doesnt mean that A is not in the
team, i.e. not A, not B is a wrong way of reasoning.
Eg 2: In a vote for a resolution, A and B never both aye.
This means that both never vote aye, but they can both vote nay. Please dont jump into conclusions
that since they cannot both vote aye, they can also never both vote nay.

Example:
A track coach is deciding which and how many of her athletes L, M, N, O, P, R and S will compete
in an upcoming track meet. She will decide according to the following guidelines:
1. If L competes, M must compete
2. If M and N both compete, O cannot compete
3. If N and O both compete, R cannot compete
4. If O competes, either P or S must compete
5. Either P or R must compete, but they cannot both compete
6. P and S cannot both compete.

Questions
1.

If only 3 athletes can compete in the track meet, which of the following could be that group of
athletes?
a) LMN
b) MPS
c) MPR
d) NOP
e) NOR

2.

If O and S both compete in the track meet, which of the following must be true?
a) N competes
b) P competes
c) R competes
d) L does not compete
e) M does not compete

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11

3.

If O and R both compete in the track meet, which of the following cannot be true?
a) M competes
b) N competes
c) S competes
d) L does not compete
e) P does not compete

4.

If L and N both compete in the track meet, what is the maximum number of athletes who can
compete
a) 3
b) 4
c) 5
d) 6
e) 7

5.

If S competes in the track meet, which of the following combinations of 3 athletes can be among
those who also compete?
a) LMP
b) LNO
c) LOP
d) MOR
e) NOR

Solution/Discussion
This problem requires the simplest of tables. The idea here is to identify who can compete together
and who cannot and the best way to do that would be to draw a table which separates one from the
other, i.e

Compete

Not compete

Another simple method would be to symbolise the clues. But, as mentioned before, only people who
are comfortable with symbolising should do so to avoid any confusion.
Some of the symbols used are:
Arrows: to indicate that if L competes, M must compete. L M
Boxes: To indicate that if M and N both compete, O cannot compete.MN

~O

Not equal: To indicate that P and S cannot both compete. P/S


A combination of symbols can also help in arriving at the solution.
As per the tabular method illustrated above, we can answer each question by deciding on whether the
athletes compete together or not. This is another problem which can be solved using the questions,
and thereby, the process of elimination. For example, if we consider the second question in the
problem,

2.

If O and S both compete in the track meet, which of the following must be true?
a) N competes
b) P competes

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12

c) R competes
d) L does not compete
e) M does not compete

Using the table and the clues given above, we can arrive at the answer. The last clue clearly mentions
that P and S cannot both compete. Therefore, put P in the Not compete column. Another clue specifies
that either P or R must compete and not both. Since P is not competing, R can compete. So put R in
the Compete column. Using these two clues alone, we can arrive at the answer choice, which is, R
competes. We can also see that N can also compete in this case, but, if we read the question again
it says which of the following must be true, and not can or may be true. Also, this is the logical
answer, which appears on the face of the conditions. In such cases, it is advisable to take things at
face value and leave the implications behind.

Compete

Not compete

OSR

Similarly, for the other questions.

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13

Liar Liar
These are games which contain statements by a few people, which are either true or false. From these
statements, the student has to answer a few questions depending on the kind of condition given in the
problem. This problem requires considerable amount of time and the student has to be ready to invest
it during the exam. It may seem confounding in the beginning but once the thinking process is in
place and the approach methodical, it will appear simple.
Its time for the What-What island, where the inhabitants answer any question with two sentences;
one of which is true and the other is false.
You are looking for Venkats house and you meet 3 people Anand, Ravi and Som. You ask them,
Which is Venkats house?
Anand says: Venkats house is No.9. I am his neighbour.
Ravi says: Anand is not my neighbour. Anand and som live in the same house.
Som says: Venkats house is not No.9. Anand is Ravis neighbour.
There are only two houses and four people in What-what. Two people live in each house.

Q1.

From the above, you can decide that


a) Venkat stays in house no.9
b) Venkat does not stay in house no. 9
c) Venkat does not stay in what-what
d) Ravi and Som stay together.

Q2.

Who stays with Anand?


a) Ravi
b) Venkat
c) Som
d) Cant say

Solution/Discussion
This question is very different from the previous ones and requires some time on the part of the
student to understand and solve it. A methodical process would be useful in this case.
To begin with, start with the first speaker and label one sentence each as true or false, similarly for
the other speakers. Ascertain whether the labeling makes sense at the end of the third speaker.
For example, We label Anands first sentence as true (T) and the second as false (F) and similarly for
Ravis and Soms sentences. The final output will look like:
Venkats house is no.9 and Anand is not his neighbour
Anand is not Ravis neighbour and Anand and som do not live in the same house.
Venkats house is not No.9 and Anand is not Ravis neighbour.
We can see the contradiction evident in the first and third sentences relating to Venkats house. Since
this doesnt make much sense, we re-label the sentences accordingly, taking care of the initial
contradiction.
If we label Anands first sentence as true, Soms first sentence has to be false, and thereby Soms
second sentence is true. This means that Anand is Ravis neighbour and therefore, Ravis first
sentence is false. But here lies another contradiction if Anand and Som live in the same house, then
Ravi and Venkat live

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in the other house, but Anand;s second sentence specifically says that He is not Venkats neighbour.
Therefore, even this is a wrong choice.
Now, we try the other way, by labeling Anands first sentence as false and Soms first sentence as
true. By the chain of thoughts, it is evident that Anand is not Ravis neighbour and therefore Anand
and Ravi live in the same house, which is also true in case of the second sentence of Anand.
Therefore, Venkat does not stay in House no. 9 and Ravi stays with Anand.

Alpha-Numeric
Here, numbers are coded as words or vice-versa and from the rules of this game, exact codes have to
be identified. Variants of this game are

the usage of words only as codes

substituting symbols for relations, i.e. if a*b means a is the father of b, and a@b means a is the
sister of b, then how does one denote a paternal aunt

Two English words are codified as follows. Each number represents only one letter and each letter is
represented by only one number.
Word 1: 8 3 7 6 3 2 9
Word 2: 3 6 7 5 8 4 1 6
The following rules are known to the person decoding them.
I. Letters T and R occur exactly three times
II. Letters S and A occur exactly two times.
III. Letters E, P, O and N occur exactly once.
IV. One of the words starts with T and the other with S.
V. E occurs only in word 1.
Solution/Discussion
We proceed methodically analysing one condition at a time.
From the first condition, it is clear that T or R should stand for 3 or 6.
From the second condition, it is clear that S or A should stand for 8 or 7
We will ignore the third condition for sometime because we cannot conclude anything from it.
From the fourth condition, we can conclude that T stands for 3 and S stands for 8. Therefore, R stands
for 6 and A stands for 7. E stands for either 2 or 9. O,P and n can be substituted for 5,4 and 1 in Word
2.
Decoding the numbers individually, we find the following
Word 1: 8 3 7 6 3 2 9
S T ART
Word 2: 3 6 7 5 8 4 1 6
T RA S

In this particular question, the words are not those that make some meaning. Its more open-ended
than a word that has a meaning attached to it. I say so because it is not possible to decipher all the
numbers correctly, and therefore, its left to the student as to what he makes of the numbers and
words which cannot be correctly identified.

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Absolute Relatives
In this game, again a variant of the first 2 games, from the data given, relationships have to be
identified.
A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are people who are related as below
I. A is the father of 2 children C (male) and D (female)
II. H is the mother of two children E (male) and F (female)
III.

B is Es mother-in-law

IV. D is the daughter-in-law


V. Es wife is Fs sister-in-law
VI. Es son will also be As grandson and Cs daughter will also be Hs grand-daughter
Q1.

Who is As wife?
a) H
b) F
c) B
d) E
e) NONE OF THESE

Q2.

Who is Hs husband?
a) B
b) A
c) D
d) F
e) NONE OF THESE

Q3.

Who is Ds mother-in-law?
a) B
b) H
c) F
d) E
e) NONE OF THESE

Q4.

As daughter will also be


A. Bs daughter in law
B. Es wife
C. Hs daughter
a) A only
b) B only
c) C only
d) A and B only
e) B and C

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Q5. D is
a) Wife of A
b) Wife to E
c) Daughter of G
d) Fs sister
e) None of these

Q6.

Es mother is also
a) Ds mother
b) Cs grandmother
c) Bs sister
d) Gs wife
e) As wife

Q7.

If X is Cs son and Y is Es daughter then X and Y must be


a) Brother & Sister
b) Husband and Wife
c) Ds children
d) Hs grand children
e) None of these

Q8.

Out of 8 people, how many must be male?


a) 4
b) 3
c) 5
d) 2
e) 6

Q9. Out of 8 people, how many must be female?


a)

b)

c)

d)

e)

Q10. Which of the following represent a correct pair of husband and wife?
a)

A&H

b)

B&G

c)

E&D

d)

A&F

e)

C&D

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Solution/Discussion
How better to solve a family problem than by using a family tree. We can use symbols to denote the
different relationships. Males and Females can be denoted using m and f respectively.
The following symbols can be used: (Indicative symbols)
Father: up-arrow
Mother: up-arrow
Mother-in-law: diagonal up arrow
Father-in-law: diagonal up arrow
Daughter-in-law: diagonal down arrow
Son: down-arrow
Daughter: down-arrow
Using the conditions given above, the relationships can be symbolised as follows:

Am

Cm Df

Bf

Hf

Em Ff

Es wife

Fs sister-in-law

Am

Em

Cm

Son

daughter

From the symbols above, we can infer the following:


Since A has 2 children, C & D, E must be the son-in-law.
Since H has 2 children, E & F, C must be the daughter-in-law (which is also mentioned in the
conditions)
Es wife therefore is D, who is the brother of C, who is Fs husband.
Since G is the only missing link, G must be the husband of H, just as B is the wife of A
The families are : AB, GH, ED and CF. There are an equal number of males and females in the family.
Therefore, X and Y are the grand-children of AB and GH. The other questions can be solved similarly.

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Map Games
These types of games describe connection between the elements specified in the game. Symbols are
very much useful in this type of games.
In a message relay system there are exactly seven terminals F,G,H,J,K,L and M. A terminal can
transmit any messages initiated by that terminal as well as any messages received from others, but
only according to specific rules:
Messages can be transmitted in either direction between G and H, in either direction between J and M,
and in either direction between K and L.
Messages can be transmitted from F to K, from H to J, from K to G, From M to F, and from M to H.

Q1. Which of the seven terminals can transmit messages directly to the greatest number of
terminals?
a) F

b) H

c) J

d) K

e) M
Q2.

If a message initiated by G is to reach K, and is to be transmitted to no more terminals than


necessary, it must be transmitted to a total of how many terminals, other than G and K?
a) 1

b) 2

c) 3

d) 4

e) 5
Q3.

A message from H that eventually reaches L must have been transmitted to all of the following
terminals except
a) F

b) G

c) J

d) K

e) M
Q4.

If J is removed from the message relay system for a day, it is still possible for a message to be
transmitted on that day all the way along a route from
a) F to H

b) G to K

c) G to M

d) H to K

e) L to M
Q5.

If K is removed from the message relay system for a day, which of the following terminals
cannot receive any messages from any other terminal on that day
a) F

b) G

c) H

d) J

e) L
Q6.

A message can travel along two alternative routes that have no terminal in common except the
initiating terminal and the final recipient terminal if the initiating terminal and the final recipient
terminal, respectively, are
a) G and J

b) G and L

c) H and L

d) K and M

e) M and G
Q7.

A message being transmitted along which of the following routes must reach each of the seven
terminals at least once?
a) F to G and then to M

b) J to H and then to L

c) L to H and then to M

d) M to G and then to K

e) M to L and then to F

Solution/discussion
Arrows can be used to show the connection between the different elements. One-way or Two-way
arrows can be used to differentiate between the connections.

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Using these connections, we make a link connecting these elements.

G
K

With this combined map, we can proceed to answering the questions. The process of elimination can
also be used in this case. If there arises a need to redraw the connection chart for a particular
question, go ahead and do it.

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Card Games
Card games require a basic knowledge of playing cards, the suits in cards, etc. For the starter, there
are 4 different suits, in 2 different colours Spades and Clubs, in black, and Hearts and Diamonds, in
red. There are 13 cards in all, in each suit. The cards are Ace, 2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9, 10, Jack, Queen and
King. The last three are picture cards. Though card and die games appear more in quantitative ability
in the form of probability questions, they have known to appear in reasoning questions also.

From a normal pack of playing cards, 20 cards were used in a game. These were all the four suits of
Ace, King, Queen, Jack and number ten. A, B, C and D are the players. Each player has all the five
cards, in one or different suits. Cs five cards were in 3 different suits and consisted of 3 red and 2
black cards. Ds five cards were also in 3 different suits, his ace being in the same suit as his queen,
and his king in the same suit as his jack. B held more than one black car. As five cards were all in the
same suit. C held the king of Spades, and D, the ten of diamonds.

Q1.

Between them, B,C and D held at least ..black cards


a) 6
b) 7
c) 4
d) 3

Q2.

Who held the queen of hearts?


a) C
b) D
c) A
d) B

Q3. Who held the Ace of diamonds?


a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
Q4. As five cards are all
a) Spades
b) Clubs
c) Hearts
d) Diamonds

Solution/Discussion
Firstly, we organise the given information. For our convenience, lets denote the different suits as S, D,
H and C. Secondly, we start with identifying the important condition, if any. Lets begin by putting all
the information together.
Cs cards were in 3 different suits and consisted of 3 red and 2 black cards. C held the King of spades.
Ds cards were also in 3 different suits, with ace and queen of the same suit and the king and jack of
another suit. He has the ten of diamonds. Because 10 is of a different suit, the other cards may belong
to spades, hearts or clubs.

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B held more than one black card.

All of As cards were in the same suit. Since C and D have one each of spades and diamonds, he must
have either all hearts or all clubs.

Since we havent been able to glean more out of the conditions, we follow a bottom-up approach, and
analyse the questions.

To answer the first question, we know that C has 2 black cards, B has more than one black card. 4
black cards are already accounted for. From what we have discussed above, we know that 2 of Ds
cards must be black (either spades or clubs). Therefore, B,C and D account for at least 6 black cards
(Please note the word at least, 6 may not be the ultimate number of black cards accounted for by
them).

Since they account for 6 black cards, they must include at least 1 spade and 1 club. Therefore, all of
As cards are hearts. So, the other 2 suits held by D are Spades and Clubs. Since C takes the King of
spades, King and Jack must belong to clubs and Ace and Queen must belong to spades. Now we can
make a small table with what we know.

Person

Cards

A K Q J 10 all hearts

B
C

Ks

10 d A Q s K J c

The cards that remain in each suit are:


Spades: J and 10
Clubs: A, Q and 10
Diamonds: A, K, Q and J
C has 3 red and 2 black colour cards. The only remaining cards in red are the ones in diamonds above.
Since C already has a K, he must have the A,Q and J of diamonds, which means that he also has the
10 of clubs. Now that C is over, all the remaining cards are assigned to B. The final table will look as
follows:

Person

Cards

A K Q J !0 h

K d J 10 s A Q c

K s A Q J d 10 c

10 d A Q s K J c

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Number Game
This game requires a good knowledge of simple arithmetic, mainly LCM and factorisation. The
problems will generally be in the form of a grid, wherein based on the conditions given, the grid has to
be filled with the appropriate numbers.

One such game is illustrated below:

There are nine letters A to I, each represented by a different number from 1 to 9. The grid is
positioned as below:

C
D
E

G
H
I

Each of the combinations of letters, A+B+C, C+D+E, E+F+G and G+H+I is equal to 13. Match the
letters to the numbers.

Solution/discussion

We can begin by making a grid similar to that made by the letters above.

D
E

G
H
I

Here, distinction has to be made between A,B, D, F, H and I on one side and C,E, and G on the other,
because the latter occur in two sums of numbers.

Since the numbers have to total 13, we can try different ways in which the number can be arrived at
by adding three numbers.

1+3+9

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1+4+8
1+5+7
2+3+8
2+4+7
2+5+6
3+4+6

We can safely say that one of A,B,D,F,H and I can assume the number 9, and 9 can occur only with 1
and 3. So, if we assume A to be 9, then we can assume B as 3 and C as 1, which means that D and E
should stand for either 8 and 4 or 5 and 7.

Using the first combination of 8 and 4, we find that E cannot be 8 because the only other combination
possible with 8 is 2 and 3, and 3 is already present. So E has to be 4, which means that F and G
should stand for 7 and 2. G, again, cannot stand for 7, because the only other possible combination
with 7 is 1 and 5, and 1 is already present. If G stands for 2, then H and I stand for 5 and 6.

On the other hand, if D and E stand for 5 and 7, then, assuming E stands for 7, we find that the only
other combination with 7 is F and G being 4 and 2. If G is 4, then H and I should be 3 and 6, but 3 has
already been used, so, this combination is not possible. If G is 2, then H and I should be 3 and 8 or 4
and 7, and again, we find that in both cases, a number has already been used.
From these two alternatives, we find that the first one is a feasible alternative and therefore, one
possible outcome of matching numbers can be,

A 9; B 3;
H 5;

C 1;
I 6

D 8;

E 4; F 7;

G2;

Please note that there can be other solutions based on the arrangement of numbers, say, for example,
if a student assigns 9 to I, then the grid would look different. But it is preferable to begin with a
number that can appear only once on the grid, in this case, 9.
Variations of this game include

Finding numbers for a similar grid, where products, instead of sums, are given.

Identifying missing numbers in a sum/multiplication/division problem.

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Bulls Eye
This game basically involves scoring a certain number of points on the dartboard. This may involve
more of trial and error than method. But, even in the former, a proper understanding of multiplication
tables and factorisation is necessary. As the following problem will indicate, its never easy to solve
such problems in a fraction of a minute unless one can calculate quickly.
The following numbers appear on a dartboard 46, 44, 42, 33, 31, 13 and 11, with 46 on the Bulls
eye and the rest of the numbers appearing on either side of it. Ascertain the least number of attempts
required for a person to score exactly 100 points.

11

13
31

33

44
46

42

Solution/Discussion
This problem requires the student to have quick calculation skills, especially multiplication. A good
way to attack the problem is to use the bottom-up approach, i.e. start from 100 onwards and identify
the numbers on the darts that will satisfy the given condition. From the board, we can easily identify
that the score before the dart hits the final 11 points to score 100 should be 89. Similarly, it should be
87 for 13, and so on. Solving along these lines for all kinds of possible combinations, such as,
11+13=24, therefore 76 to be scored beforehand
11+31=44, therefore 56 to be scored beforehand
13*2 = 26, therefore 74 to be scored beforehand, and so on, till we can arrive at a proper match.
In this case, after a few combinations of numbers and their multiples, we identify that a person needs
8 attempts to score exactly 100 points. The 8 attempts can be broken down into 6 attempts at the
target 13 and 2 at 11, which is equal to
13*6=78
11*2=22, totaling 100.

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An important point to note would be that the answer would definitely not be a very small number,
because the analysis required for it would be very minimal.

Whos the winner???


This game is a variant of the number game illustrated above. These games generally consist of a
table, wherein some numbers are missing or are substituted by letters. There are no explicit
conditions in these games, and so require some trial and error to solve them.
Its Copa America time and the South American football teams are playing each other for top honours.
The table below gives the results at a certain point during the tournament. A team gets 2 points for a
win, 1 point for a draw and no points for losing. Each letter below represents a distinct integer value.
No two letters represent the same integer. Each team plays the other only once.
Team

Played

Won

Drawn

Lost

Points

The questions may be w.r.t. number of games played by a team, points taken, whom they still have to
play against and values of the letters. A couple of them are given below:
Q1. What is the value of q?
a) 0
b) 1
c) 2
d) 4
Q2. How many games has E played till now?
a) 0
b) 1
c) 2
d) 3

Solution/Discussion
A team could have played its 4 matches, won all of them and scored 8 points, or a team would have
lost all its matches. Therefore, the numbers can range from 0 to 8. All columns of the table are filled
w.r.t team C, so, we use C as the starting point. At this point, it is advisable to look through the
questions, and look at a question, which can help us solve the row pertaining to C. In this case, only
the first question is relevant.
When we analyse the first question, we find that q cannot take the value of 3. Also, Cs row consists of
5 different numbers, and he should have won at least one point. We can make a simple assumption
that q is equal to 4 and start working the other numbers.
If q is 4, then C must have played at least 2 games and won them both or played 3, won one, drawn
two, or won two and lost one. C couldnt have played 4 games because the value of q is 4. Also, C
couldnt have played 2 and won them both because 2 different letters, x and y, represent the columns
of played and won respectively. So, he must have played 3 games. Now, we assume that C has won 2
matches and lost the other. Then, y represents 2 , p represents 0 and a represents 1.

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Once we have arrived at the numbers, well proceed to solving the whole table.
A has played 2 matches, has 2 points from them, and has lost a match. Therefore, he must have won
the other match. So, we fill in As row with the relevant numbers. Since only one column in team B
and E has been filled, we shall ignore them for the time being and proceed with team D. We find that
D has played 4 matches and has only one point. Therefore, he must have drawn a game and lost the
rest. We fill in the columns with the respective numbers. At this stage, the table will look as follows:

Team

Played

Won

Drawn

Lost

Points

Since team D has drawn a game and none of the other teams identified, A or C, has drawn a game, B
or E should have drawn a game with D. B must have played at least 2 games since its score is 4.
Now, if we analyse the Lost column, we find that 5 games have been lost but on comparison with
the Won column, we find that only 3 games have been won. Therefore, we can be sure that B must
have won at least one game. It can also happen that B would have drawn two of its games, one each
with D and E. (For the time being, we keep the number of losses constant and work the problem). So,
the other game must have been won by E. If we look at the table now,

Team

Played

Won

Drawn

Lost

Points

Converting the table into its numerical form


Team

Played

Won

Drawn

Lost

Points

From the table above, we can find that D has drawn with B and lost to the other 3 teams. B and C
have to play one game each but they cant play themselves since the other 2 teams A and C have 2
games left to play. Therefore, since B has already played C, it must have beaten it, which, in turn,
means that C must have beaten A for its only other win and is yet to play E. Similarly, B is yet to play
A, and A and C have to play each other.

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Variants of this game include:

Identifying the correct answer choices given by students

Ascertaining the number of runs scored, wickets taken etc. by players in a cricket match

We have tried to cover different problems that students can encounter during entrance examinations.
Though it is not an exhaustive list of problems, students should find it easier to follow a methodical
approach on solving analytical reasoning problems. The common mistakes made by students are

Hurrying through the conditions and later, finding it difficult to answer the questions

Following a set method of solving every game, irrespective of its type. Say, using symbols to
solve every game and every question in the game.

Wasting time reading too much into the conditions, especially in the conditional problems.

Before signing off, some things to remember:

Read the conditions and the accompanying questions carefully

Organise the information according to your convenience. If you are comfortable using symbols,
go ahead, but please take some time to identify the easiest approach. Its just a matter of a few
seconds to read the conditions and identify the correct and easiest approach.

Use the bottom-up approach if the conditions are not sufficient to solve the questions.

Conditional problems take some time. Understand the implications of the conditions while
solving them. In case of questions that may have two answers, go for the most logical one or
the one that appears correct on the face of it, rather than working out its implications.

Last, but not the least, if nothing strikes you during the examination or if you feel that no
approach will help, try Trial and Error. It should work.

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CHAPTER-2

Numerical Puzzles
Recent papers of the Campus Placement Test have had a number of group problems in the
quantitative sections. In this chapter, the basic approach to these group problems has been discussed
with examples.
Each group of problems contains the directions that are nothing but the description of a numerical
problem situation. The problem situations are from any of the already discussed areas in the
quantitative ability fundamentals such as Interest Rates, Profit/Loss, Time, Speed, Functions,
Geometry etc. We have called these situations as puzzles because all the unknown information has to
be unveiled from one or two links provided generally at the end of the description of the situations.
As can be appreciated from the solved examples and exercise problems given under, two different
approaches are required to solve these puzzles depending on the type of questions.
In the first type, all the unknown but related details have to be determined before finding the best
answer choice for the questions (Please refer to solved example 1). The questions only pertain to the
unknown variables in the problem situation.
In the second type each question contains additional data and the problem needs to be solved with
this information separately for each question. In this type it is necessary that each question be
treated independently. Also the information provided in one question pertains only to that question
and should not be used in subsequent problems, unless otherwise mentioned.

Solved Examples
Example 1 : DIRECTIONS for questions 1 to 5.
Jeshwanth, Krishna and Lokesh invested in a certain business. As Lokesh was to manage the business
alone, it was decided that Lokesh would take 20% of the profit earned by the business and the
remaining amount would be shared by all the three in proportion to their investment.
Thus at the end of the first year each of them earned Rs.10,000/- from the business. While Krishna
withdrew 50% of his investment in the second year, Jeshwanth invested his first years profit also into
the business. The business earned the same amount of profit in the second year as in the first year.
Jeshwanth got a share which was 2.5 times the share of Krishna.
1.

What is Krishnas total profit for two years?


1. Rs.17,102

2.

3. Rs.21,903.60

4. Rs.14,788

What is Krishnas investment in the second year?


1. Rs.20,000

3.

2. Rs.15,581.40

2. Rs.18,000

3. Rs.28,000

4. Rs.15,000

3. Rs.16,000

4. Rs.14,000

What is Lokeshs investment in the business?


1. Rs.17,500

2. Rs.22,350

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4.

What is the % profit on investment for Lokesh in the second year?


1. 38%

5.

2. 65%

4. 47%

What is the profit earned by the business as a percentage of investment in the first year?
1. 42.75%

Ans:

3. 29%

2. 31.25%

3. 52.22%

4. 35.35%

To answer all these questions, it is first necessary to organize the given information. From the
data given it is clear that both Jeshwanth and Krishna get the same share of profit in the first
year. Hence they must have invested the same amount in the first year. Let the investment
made by Jeshwanth and Krishna in the first year be X. The total profit for the first year is
Rs.30,000/- and 20% of this amount, that is Rs.6,000/- goes to Lokesh for managing the
business alone. As Lokesh totally received a share of Rs.10,000/- in the first year, his share in
proportion to his investment must be Rs.10,000 - Rs.6,000 = Rs.4,000. Clearly this amount is
40% of the share received by the other two partners. Therefore Lokeshs investment in the
first year should be 40% of Jeshwanths or Krishnas investment i.e., 0.4X.

Now the data can be represented for two years as below.


Jeshwanth

Krishna

Lokesh

Investment

0.4X

Profit

Rs.10,000

Rs.10,000

Rs.10,000

Investment

X + 10,000

0.50X

0.40X

Profit

2.5Z

30,000 - 3.5Z

I Year

II Year

(assuming Z as Krishnas Profit)


As the ratio of the profit shared by Jeshwanth to that of Krishna is 2.5, the ratio of their investments
must also be equal to 2.5.

(X + 10, 000)
Therefore

0.5X

= 2.5

On solving the above equation X = 40,000/The investments of Jeshwanth, Krishna and Lokesh for the second year are respectively Rs.50,000,
Rs.20,000 and Rs.16,000.
The profit earned by the business in the second year is Rs.30,000. Out of this Rs.6,000 is paid to
Lokesh for managing the business.
The balance amount of Rs.24,000/- is to be shared among the three in proportion to their investment.
The final table looks as depicted below.

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Jeshwanth

Krishna

Lokesh

Investment

Rs.40,000

Rs.40,000

Rs.16,000

Profit

Rs.10,000

Rs.10,000

Rs.10,000

Investment

Rs.50,000

Rs.20,000

Rs.16,000

Profit

Rs.13,953.50

Rs.5,581.40

Rs.10,465.10

I Year

II Year

1.

Krishnas total profit for two years is Rs.15,581.40.

2.

Krishnas investment in the second year is Rs.20,000.

3.

Lokeshs investment in the business is Rs.16,000.

4.

10,465.10
Lokeshs profit to investment ratio is Rs. 16,000
. This is equal to approx. 65%.

5.

The profit earned by the business is Rs.30,000 and the total investment is Rs.96,000. The
profit as a percentage of the investment is 30/96 = 31.25%. Answer is 2.

Example 2: DIRECTIONS for questions 6 to 10.

The PNV group is interested in investing in a High Technology Venture. The project details have been
worked out and are as below.
Investment required = 250% of the annual sales desired.
Profit = 25%
Working capital requirement = 35% of cost of goods.
6.

What should be the investment if PNV wants to earn a profit of Rs.2 crore in the first year?
1. Rs.25 cr.

Ans:

2. Rs.35 cr.

3. Rs.28 cr.

4. Rs.18 cr.

% Profit = (Sales - Cost) / Cost x 100


25 = (S - C)/ C x 100 Or S = 1.25 C
Therefore profit = S - C = S - S/1.25 = 0.25S/1.25
Required profit is Rs.2 crores.

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Sales = Rs.10 crores.

It is given that the investment is 250% of annual sales desired. Hence the investment would
be Rs.25 crores. Answer is 1.
7.

If PNV would like to restrict its investments to Rs.10 crores, what will be the annual profit?
1. Rs.1 cr.

2. Rs.80 lakhs

3. Rs.1.2 cr.

4. Rs.2.2 cr.

Ans:

The annual sales possible with an investment of Rs.10 crores is Rs.4 crores. The profit with
this sales would be Rs.0.8 crores or Rs.80 lakhs. Answer is 2.

8.

What is the working capital required for a sale of 15 crores?


1. Rs.3.7 cr.

2. Rs.2.9 cr.

3. Rs.5.3 cr.

4. Rs.4.2 cr.

Ans:

The profit with a sales turnover of Rs.15 crores is Rs.3 crores. Hence the cost of goods will be
Rs.12 crores. The working capital requirement is given to be 35% of the cost. Therefore the
working capital required is 0.35 x 12 = Rs.4.2 crores. Answer is 4.

9.

In problem 8 above, if 40% of the investment is borrowed from Financial Institutions at an


interest rate of 18%, what will the profit after interest earned by the company be?
1. 0.3 cr.

2. 2.2 cr.

3. 0.85 cr.

4. 1.15 cr.

Ans:

As the sale is Rs.15 crores, the investment would be 2.5 x 15 = Rs.37.5 crs. The amount
borrowed from financial institutions is 0.40 x 37.5 = Rs.15 crores. The annual interest on this
borrowing is 18% of 15 crs. = Rs.2.7 crs. The profit earned is Rs.3 crs. and the profit after
interest will be Rs.0.3 crs. Answer is 1.

10.

If an annual net profit (profit after interest) of Rs.2 crores is to be achieved and PNV wants to
borrow 40% of the investment at an interest rate of 18%, what is the total investment
required?
1. Rs.200 cr.

Ans:

2. Rs.20 cr.

3. Rs.250 cr.

4. Indeterminate.

If the investment is I, the sales possible annually is I/2.5.


The gross profit will be I/2.5 x 0.25/1.25.
The amount to be borrowed from the financial institutions is Rs.0.41.
The annual interest on this amount is 0.18 x 0.41.
The profit after interest is I/2.5 x 0.25/1.25 - 0.18 x 0.41 = 2 crores.
On solving I = Rs.250 crores. Answer is 3.

Example 3: DIRECTIONS for questions 11 to 16.

XYZ Co. Ltd earned a profit of 20% in 1989. In 1990 the sales of the company improved by
Rs.6,000/- and the profit increased to 25%. Capitalising on the high demand for its product, the
company earned the highest profit of 50% in 1991 but maintained the sales at the same level as

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1990. In spite of the severe recession during 1992, the companys sales improved impressively by
20% but the profit slumped to the lowest ever figure of 12.5%. The amount of profit earned in 1992
was the same as the amount of profit earned in 1989.
11.

What was the sales of XYZ in 1990?


1. Rs.42,000

12.

2. Rs.36,000

2. Rs.8,000

2. 20%

2. Rs.24,000

3. 28%

4. 30%

3. Rs.41,000

4. Rs.18,000

If the cost of each item produced in 1991 was the same as that in 1990, the percentage
decrease in quantity sold in 1991 as compared to 1990 was
1. 18%

16.

4. Rs.11,000

The total profit earned for four years is


1. Rs.20,000

15.

3. Rs.10,000

The average percentage profit for four years is


1. 25%

14.

4. Rs.30,000

What was the profit earned in 1990?


1. Rs.6,000

13.

3. Rs.27,500

2. 16.66%

3. 22.5%

4. 25%

In problem 15 above the percentage increase in the price in 1991 as compared to 1990 was
1. 20%

Solution:

2. 25%

3. 30%

4. 35%

The given information can be compiled as follows (assuming sales in 1989 as S)


Sales

1989

1990

1991

1992

S + 6,000

S + 6,000

1.20 (S + 6,000)

% profit

Profit

20%

0.20S
1.2

25%

0.25(S + 6,000)
1.25

50%

0.50(S + 6,000)
1.5

12.5%

0.125 x 1.2(S + 6,000)


1.125

It is given that the profit earned in 1992 is equal to that in 1989.

0.125 x 1.2 (S + 6000) 0.20 S


=
1.2 ,
1.125
Therefore,
On solving S = 24,000

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The details can now be written as follows:


Sales

% profit

Profit

1989

24,000

20%

4,000

1990

30,000

25%

6,000

1991

30,000

50%

10,000

1992

36,000

12.5%

4,000

11.

Sales in 1990 was Rs. 30,000. Answer is 4.

12.

Profit earned in 1990 was Rs. 6,000. Answer is 1.

13.

The total sales for four years is Rs. 1,20,000 and the total profit is Rs. 24,000. Therefore the
total cost is Rs. 96,000. The % profit is 25. Answer is 1.

14.

Total profit earned for four years is Rs. 24,000. Answer is 2.

15.

The cost of goods in 1990 was 30,000 - 6,000 = 24,000.


If cost of each item is Rs. 200 (assume), the quantity sold in 1990 was 24,000/200 = 120.
Similarly the cost of goods in 1991 was 30,000 - 10,000 = 20,000. As the cost of each item
remains same (at Rs. 200 in this case), the quantity sold in 1991 was 20,000/200 = 100.
Hence the percentage decrease in quantity sold in 1991 as compared to 1990 was (120 100)/120 = 16.66%. Answer is 2.

16.

From the above answer, the price of each item in 1990 was 30,000/120 = 250.
The price of each item in 1991 was 30,000/100 = 300.
The increase in price from 1990 to 1991 is (300 - 250)/250 = 20%. Answer is 1.

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Practice Exercise 1
DIRECTIONS for questions 1 to 5.

Both Amar and Prem individually invested certain amounts in a bank at a rate of interest of 5%.
Interest at the end of each year will be accumulated into the principal amount. At the end of the first
year, Amar withdrew 50% of the accumulated amount, while Prem withdrew Rs.11,500. At the end of
the third year, Prem had an accumulated amount equal to that which Amar had at the end of the
second year. Amar withdrew Rs.4,050 at the end of the second year. The total interest earned by
Amar is Rs.3,950 for three years.
1.

What is the amount initially invested by Amar?


1. 35,000

2.

2. 40,000

3. 30,000

4. 48,000

2. 3,950

3. 1,975

4. 4,350

3. 1050

4. 1800

Interest earned by Amar in the third year is


1. 1235

5.

4. 30,000

The total interest earned by Prem for three years is


1. 3,550

4.

3. 31,500

The amount initially deposited by Prem is


1. 35,000

3.

2. 40,000

2. 900

If Prem had not withdrawn any amount in three years he would have had an accumulated
amount of
1. 34,725

2. 43,475

3. 45,447

4. 39,912

DIRECTIONS for questions 6 to 10.

Ramkumar invests 60% of his retirement money in fixed deposits that earn an interest of 15% at the
end of every year. He decides to take out this interest amount at the end of every year to meet his
personal expenses. He invests the balance 40% of the retirement money in shares. At the end of the
first year he sells off all the shares and realises a profit of 25%. Inspired by the return on investment
on shares, Ramkumar decides to take out 25% of the money in fixed deposits and invest it in shares
along with the balance money. At the end of the second year he sells all the shares and incurs a loss
of 10%. Taken aback by the loss, Ramkumar puts the amount withdrawn by him earlier from fixed
deposits back into it. He reinvests the balance amount again in shares. After selling all the shares at
the end of the third year he realises a profit of 10%. The profit earned by Ramkumar in the three
years of his transactions in shares is Rs.18,900.
6.

What is the retirement benefit that Ramkumar obtained?


1. 2.5 lakhs

7.

2. 2 lakhs

3. 3.2 lakhs

4. 1.6 lakhs

What is the total amount of interest earned by Ramkumar on fixed deposits?


1. 49,500

2. 27,000

3. 52,000

4. 38,900

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8.

What is the loss incurred by Ramkumar in transacting in shares in the second year?
1. 16,500

9.

3. 13,000

4. 18,700

What was Ramkumars investment in shares in the third year?


1. 87,000

10.

2. 15,000

2. 1,05,000

3. 98,500

4. 72,250

The average annual return on investment earned by Ramkumar in three years is


1. 10.8%

2. 15.4%

3. 19.2%

4. 9.2%

DIRECTIONS for questions 11 to 15:

A company manufactures two products X and Y. Both these products are to be processed on machines
A, B, C in that order. Product X requires 10 hours on machine A, 20 hours on machine B and 15 hours
on machine C. Product Y requires 12 hours on machine A, 15 hours on machine B and 24 hours on
machine C. There are two machines of type A, 3 machines of type B and 4 machines of type C. The
company works for 8 hours a day.
11.

If the company makes only product X, how many numbers of X can be made in a month
consisting of 25 working days?
1. 55

12.

2. 41

3. 55

4. 72

2. 33

3. 13

4. 16

If products X and Y are to be dispatched in pairs, how many pairs of X and Y can be produced
in a month of 25 days?
1. 17

15.

4. 35

The company has to produce 20 numbers of product X in a month. If there are 25 working
days in the month, how many numbers of product Y can be made with the remaining capacity?
1. 24

14.

3. 72

In problem 11 above, how many numbers of product Y alone can be produced in the month?
1. 33

13.

2. 30

2. 18

3. 12

4. 27

In problem 14 above, what is the percentage unutilized capacity?


1. 9.33%

2. 21%

3. 10.5%

4. 8%

DIRECTIONS for questions 16 - 20:

Ghosh Babu deposited a certain amount of money in a bank in 1986. The bank calculated interest on
the balance in the account at 10 percent simple interest, and credited it to the account once a year. At
the end of the first year, Ghosh Babu withdrew the entire interest and 20 percent of the initial
amount. Again, at the end of the second year, he withdrew the interest and 50 percent of the
remaining amount. At the end of the third year, he withdrew the interest and 50 percent of the
remaining amount. Finally, at the end of the fourth year, Ghosh Babu closed the account and collected
the entire balance of Rs.11,000.

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16.

The initial amount in rupees, deposited by Ghosh Babu was


1. 25,000

17.

2. 75,000

2. 20,000

2. Second

4. 11,000

3. Third

4. Fourth

The year, at the end of which, Ghosh Babu collected the maximum interest was
1. First

20.

3. 4,000

The year, at the end of which, Ghosh Babu withdrew the maximum amount was
1. First

19.

4. None of these.

The total interest, in rupees, collected by Ghosh Babu was


1. 12,000

18.

3. 50,000

2. Second

3. Third

4. Fourth

The year, at the end of which, Ghosh Babu withdrew the smallest amount was
1. First

2. Second

3. Third

4. Fourth

DIRECTIONS for questions 21 - 25:

Prakash has to decide whether or not to test a batch of 1,000 widgets before sending them to the
buyer. In case he decides to test, he has two options : (a) Use test I (b) Use test II. Test I costs Rs.2
per widget. However, the test is not perfect. It sends 20% of the bad ones to the buyer as good. Test
II costs Rs.3 per widget. It brings out all the bad ones. A defective widget identified before sending
can be corrected at a cost of Rs.25 per widget. All defective widgets are identified at the buyers end
and a penalty of Rs.50 per defective widget has to be paid by Prakash.
21.

22.

23.

24.

Prakash should not test if the number of bad widgets in the lot is
1. less than 100

2. more than 200

3. between 120 and 190

4. Cannot be answered.

If the number of defective widgets in the lot is between 200 and 400, Prakash
1. Should use either Test I or Test II

2. Should use Test I only

3. Should use Test II only

4. Cannot decide.

If there are 200 defective widgets in the lot, Prakash


1. Should use either Test I or Test II

2. Should use Test I or not use any test

3. Should use Test II or not use any test

4. Cannot decide.

If Prakash is told that the lot has 160 defective widgets he should
1. Use Test I

25.

2. Use Test II only

3. No test

4. Use Test I or No test.

If there are 120 defective widgets in the lot, Prakash

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1. Should use either Test I or not test

2. Should use Test II or not test

3. Should use Test I or Test II

4. Should use Test I only.

DIRECTIONS for questions 26 - 30:

On 27-11-92, Sanjay bought 500 shares of company A at a price of Rs. 80/-, 100 shares of company
B at a price of Rs. 45 and 200 shares of company C at a rate of Rs. 50/-. The sensitive index on 2711-92 was 2,000. Sanjay knows that the price of share A is directly proportional and share price of B
is inversely proportional to the sensitive index. The share price of C is proportional to the square root
of the share price of A.
26.

If Sanjay again buys 500 shares of A at an index of 2400, what will be his average price of
share A?
1. Rs.92/-

27.

2. 3,825

3. 1,110

4. 2,000

2. Rs.82,000

3. Rs.48,250

4. Rs.72,000

Sanjay predicts that the index would reach a peak of 2400 and would fall down to 1800 in the
coming month. What will be the profit earned by Sanjay if he sells all his shares at the peak
index and buys back the same shares at the lowest index?
1. Rs.14,800

30.

4. Rs.12/-

What is the total value of shares possessed by Sanjay at an index of 3,000?


1. Rs.75,250

29.

3. Rs.96/-

If Sanjay sells 200 shares of C when the index is 2,500, what is his gain in rupees?
1. 2,500

28.

2. Rs.98/-

2. Rs.12,700

3. Rs.13,850

4. Rs.18,750

3. 1,000

4. 6,400

3. 57/9

4. 65/7

At what index will the price of C double?


1. 4,000

2. 8,000

DIRECTIONS for questions 31 - 35:

x y = x2 + x2 y2

x
xy=
31.

What is the value of (2 3) 4?


1. 47/13

32.

2. 13/2

Given x = 5, for what value of y does (y 3) x become equal to 5?


1. 27/7

33.

y2 + y

2. 0

3. 17/3

4. 19/4

If x y = m , x y = n, what is m n for x = 2, y = 1?

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1. 412
34.

3. 197

4. -4

In problem 33 above if y = 1, then for what value of x will m be equal to n?


1. 2

35.

2. 278

2. -2

3. 1

4. -4

When will x y be equal to x + y?


2. Only when y is equal to x2.

1. Only when y is zero.


3. When y is equal to either zero or

x.

4. None of these.

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CHAPTER-3

Blood Relationships
In the study of Blood relations we come across three major types of problems.

The relation will be described with you as a centre and is given in a round about manner
i.e. one needs to under go a series of relationships before arriving at the conclusion.

The relation will be given between the two people in a round about manner.

Here certain codes are used to indicate certain relations. One needs to decode it and come
to the conclusion.

In order to solve the problems related to blood relation we need to know the following relations
Mothers mother

Grand mother

Fathers mother

Grand mother

Mothers father

Grand father

Fathers father

Grand father

Grandmothers brother

Grand uncle

Grandmothers sister

Grand aunt

Grandfathers brother

Grand uncle

Grandfathers sister

Grand aunt

Fathers son

Brother

Mothers son

Brother

Mothers daughter

Sister

Fathers daughter

Sister

Mothers brother

Uncle

Fathers brother

Uncle

Mothers sister

Aunt

Sons wife

Daughter-in-law

Daughters husband

Son-in-law

Husbands sister

Sister-in-law

Wifes sister

Sister-in-law

Husbands brother

Brother-in-law

Wifes brother

Brother-in-law

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Sisters son

Nephew

Brothers son

Nephew

Sisters daughter

Niece

Brothers daughter

Niece

Uncle or Aunts son

Cousin

Uncle or Aunts daughter

Cousin

Sisters husband

Brother-in-law

Brothers wife

Sister-in-law

Children of same parents


and sister)

Siblings (brother and brother, sister and sister, brother

Spouse means either husbands wife or wife husban4.


The graph given below will help us to get the concepts properly.

Draw family tree in which stem represents mother and father, roots, grant parents, branches,
children, and leaves, the children of the children. Aunt can be mothers or fathers sisters. Uncles are
fathers or mothers brothers.
These are common relations and one can easily spot out the
relationship.

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Practice Exercise 2
1.

2.

If a+b means a is the husband of b, a b means a is the sister of b and a b means a is the
son of b which of the following shows that A is the daughter of B?
1. A D B

2. D B C A

3. B x C A

4. C + B A

The man who is receiving the hat is the brother of uncles daughter. What is the relation
of the speaker and the man getting the hat.
1. Son in law

3.

3. Cousin

4. Niece

2. Son in law

3. Brother

4. Husband

2. Aunt

3. Sister in law

4. Niece

2. Brother

3. Uncle

4. Nephew

2. Uncle

3. Sister

4. Daughter in law

Pointing to a lady Mohan said She is the daughter of a woman who is the mother of the
husband of my mother. How is the lady related to Mohan?
1. Aunt

10.

2. Brother

Introducing a man to her husband a wife said that his brothers father is the only son of my
grand father. How is the wife related to the man?
1. Mother in law

9.

4. Grandmother

Pointing to his sons photograph Ralph said to a woman His mother is the only daughter of
your mother. How is the woman related to Ralph?
1. Wife

8.

3. Aunt

Introducing a man a woman said, he is the only son of my mothers mother. How is the
woman related to the man?
1. Mother

7.

2. Sister

Pointing to a lady in a photograph John said, She is the daughter of my grandfathers only
son. How is John related to the lady?
1. Father in law

6.

4. Nephew

Dennis said to Raman that the boy who has won the game is the younger of the two brothers
of the daughter of my fathers wife. How is the boy related to Dennis?
1. Son in law

5.

3. Brother

Pointing to a girl in the photograph Umesh said Her mothers brother is the only son of my
mothers father. How is girls mother related to Umesh?
1. Mother

4.

2. Cousin

2. Mother

3. Daughter in law

4. Sister in law

Pointing to a man in group Sheela said He is the brother of the daughter of the wife of my
husban4. How is the man in group related to Sheela?
1. Son

2. Uncle

3. Sister

4. Niece

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CHAPTER-4

Calendars
General Information about Calendars
1.

A period of one year comprises of 12 months.

2.

Total number of weeks in a year is 52.

3.

A normal year (Non Leap Year) consist of 365 days, where as a Leap Year consist of 366
days.

4.

Number of days in a month is either 31 days or 30 days depending upon what month we
are taking into consideration but only in the month of February we find 28 days and if it is
a leap year then the month of February contains 29 days.

Concept of Odd Days


Consider that 2006 February 22nd was a Thursday. If it is required to be find the day on which
the next 5th would fall, first calculate the total number of days from February 22.
It happens to be 11 days.
Then divide this number by 7 to obtain the reminder.
Here, we have 11/7 = 4 as the reminder.
Then count the 4th day starting from Thursday
The day on March 5th is Monday

Odd days are basically the remainder obtained by dividing the number of days under
consideration by 7.

Concept of Leap Year


Every year consists of 365 day and quarter of a day, but for all practical consideration we take
the year to be comprising of 365 days only.
That quarter of a day is taken into account every year and at the end of 4 year we say that
one extra day is added to the total number of days.
Hence a leap year is going to have 366 days
A leap year is a year, which is divisible by 4 and if its a century it must be divisible by 400.
366
The number of odd days in a leap year =

= 2 odd days

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365
The number of odd days in a non leap year =

= 1 odd day

As such, if June 19th of one particular year is Monday then June 19th of the very next year (if
it is a non leap year) happens to be Tuesday because a non leap year has one odd day.
Whereas, if the next year is a leap year then June 19th is going to be Wednesday as a leap
year is going to be having 2 odd days.
In a Century

100
Odd days in a period of 100 years =

= 25

As such, in a century, there must be 25 leap years and 75 non leap years.
But the 25th year happens to be 100th year, which is not a leap year.
Totally 24 leap years and 76 non leap years, in a century.

We know that each leap year has 2 odd days and non leap year 1 odd day. So, a period of
100 years is going to have (48+76) = 124 odd days
1242
i.e. effectively

=3
odd days.

Similar Cases

1243
A period of 300 years is going to have

7
124 4

A period of 400 years is going to have

=1
odd day.

= 6 odd days

But the 400th year happens to be a leap year hence it would contain an extra day or odd day.
Total number of odd days is, 6+1 = 7 odd days or effectively 0 odd days.

This concept will help us to calculate the days on any year, any month. We need to remember
a table so as to find out the day depending upon the number of odd days.
If we get 0 as the odd day then it is Sunday.
Similarly,
1 Monday

2 Tuesday

3 Wednesday

4 Thursday

5 Friday

6 Saturday

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Example: What was the day on 28 November, 1982.


Step 1: Consider up to 1900

It can be split as 1600 + 300


We know that 1600 is a multiple of 400, so the total number of odd days is zero.
A period of 300 years will have 1 odd days. So effectively up to 1900 we have just 1 odd
day.
Now consider 81 years.
By dividing 81 by 4, we get 20 leap years and 61 non leap years.
i.e. 40 + 61 = 101 odd days (202+611 = 101)
Up to 1981 we have (1 + 101) odd days
The month of January has 31 days 3 odd days.

(4 weeks + 3 extra days)

February has 28 days 0 odd days.


March has 31 days 3 odd days.
April has 30 days 2 odd days.
May has 31 days 3 odd days.
June has 30 days 2 odd days.
July has 31 days 3 odd days.
August has 31 days 3 odd days.
September has 30 days 2 odd days.
October has 31 days 3 odd days.
So up to 1981 Oct 31st we have (1+101+3+0+3+2+3+2+3+3+2+3) odd days
Finally consider month of November up to 28 days
When you add 28 days to the consisting odd days
You will get total number of odd days up to 28th November 1982
= 126 + 28 = 154 odd days or 0 odd days
From the table we can make out that it is Sunday.

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Sometimes, it may be required to find out which year has or will have the same calendar
as this year.
If it is a leap year it is going to repeat after 28 years and if it is a non leap year, the
method is explained in the example below.
Example: Which year will have the same calendar as that if 2001.
2001 is a non leap year hence 1 odd day.
2002 is a non leap year hence 1 odd day.
2003 is a non leap year hence 1 odd day.
2004 is a leap year hence 2 odd day.
2005 is a non leap year hence 1 odd day.
2006 is a non leap year hence 1 odd day.
Once we get the total number of odd days to be 7 or 0, the next year is going to have the
same calendar as the year under consideration.
i.e. year 2007 will have the same calendar as 2001 year.
Note: If the year after 7 odd day count happens to be a leap year then we have continue
the same procedure will we get a non leap year by taking multiple of 7 into consideration.

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Practice Exercise 3
1.

If December 25th 1965 was a Friday then what day was Christmas in 1966?
1. Saturday

2.

7.

3. 7

2. 9 birthdays

3. 12 birthdays

2. 1971

3. 1972

2. 1992 November 15th

3. 1992 November 16th

4. 1992 November 11th

4. 8

4. 10 birthdays

4. 1973

If August 15th, 1947 was a Friday and is celebrated as Indias Independence Day. How many
Fridays will India celebrate as Independence Day in this century?
2. 10 Fridays

3. 11 Fridays

4. 12 Fridays

3. Wednesday

4. Thursday

3. Wednesday

4. Thursday

3. Wednesday

4. Saturday

What is the day on 19th July 1983?


2. Tuesday

What is the day on 14th April 1982?


1. Monday

10.

2. 6

1. 1992 November 14th

1. Monday
9.

4. Saturday

November 16th, 1998 was Monday. When was November 16th a Monday the last time ?

1. 9 Fridays
8.

3. Sunday

If June 7th, 1965 was a Thursday then find the year when June 7th was Thursday the next
time.
1. 1970

6.

2. Monday

Mrs. Lily was born on February 29th, 1940. She joined a school as a teacher in 1958, June 1st.
She retired on March 31st, 1995. How many birthdays did she celebrate in her school?
1. 8 birthdays

5.

4. Tuesday

Former Prime Minister of India Mr. Morarji Desai was born on February 29th in 1896. What
was his age when he celebrated his first birthday?
1. 5

4.

3. Monday

If November 16th 1987 was a Thursday what will be November 16th 1988.
1. Tuesday

3.

2. Sunday

2. Tuesday

What is the day on 10th April 1982?


1. Monday

2. Tuesday

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Practice Exercise 4
1.

What is the day on 14th May 1981?


1. Monday

2.

4. Thursday

2. Tuesday

3. Wednesday

4. Thursday

2. Tuesday

3. Wednesday

4. Thursday

2. Tuesday

3. Wednesday

4. Thursday

2. Tuesday

3. Wednesday

4. Thursday

2. Tuesday

3. Wednesday

4. Thursday

3. Sunday

4. Thursday

3. Wednesday

4. Thursday

What is the day on 10th April 1991?


1. Monday

10.

3. Friday

What is the day on 4th June 1981 ?


1. Monday

9.

2. Saturday

What is the day on 25th March 1980?


1. Monday

8.

4. Thursday

What is the day on 14th April 1982?


1. Monday

7.

3. Wednesday

What is the day on 19th July 1983?


1. Monday

6.

2. Tuesday

What is the day on 18th July 1979?


1. Monday

5.

4. Thursday

What is the day on 8th October 1977?


1. Monday

4.

3. Wednesday

What is the day on 7th June 1982?


1. Monday

3.

2. Tuesday

2. Tuesday

What is the day on 10th February 1992?


1. Monday

2. Tuesday

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CHAPTER-5

Clocks
The Clocks, we take under consideration, are all analog ones and 12 hour clock. We consider
only minute-hand and hour-hand for all calculations and seconds-hand is not considered.

Concept of Relative Speed


Consider the time to be 2 pm. For it to be 3 pm, it takes 60 minutes.
In a matter of 60 minutes, the minute-hand makes one entire revolution i.e 360
Distance traveled by minute-hand in one minute is given by 360/60 = 6

If we divide the entire clock into four parts, each section constitutes for 90.
Between any two number which are at the end of quadrants there are two more numbers.
Angle between any two numbers is 90/3 = 30
The hour-hand moves by an angle of 300 while traveling between 2 pm to 3 pm
Distance traveled by hour-hand in one minute is given by 30/60 =

Since both the hands are moving in the same direction the relative speed is going to be the
difference of the speed i.e (6 ) = 5
If the same thing needs to be defined in terms of minute in one hour, the minute-hand covers
60 minute division while the hour-hand covers just 5 minute division.
Hence relative speed is = 60 5 = 55 minute.

To find out the angle when the time is given or when the angle is the following relation can be
used:
= 30h =

11
2

11
2

m (when 30h >

m - 30h ( when

11
2

11
2

m)

m > 30h)

where,
is the angle formed between the hands of the Clock.
m is the minutes
h is the hour

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Worked Examples
1.

What is the angle between the minute-hand and hour-hand when the clock shows 2 hours and
30 minutes?
Solution:

11
2

11
2

- 30h

30 = 165

30h = 302 = 60

11
2

m > 30h

=
2.

11
2

m - 30h = 165 - 60 = 105

Find the angle between 3 o Clock and 4 o Clock when the angle formed between the hands
of the clock is 45.
Solution:

11
2

m - 30h

45 =
m =

11
2

270
11

m - 30 3 135 =
= 24

11
2

6
11
24

An angle of 45 is formed at 3 past


3.

6
11 min.

The Clock was slow by 10 minutes at 6 am. But when I saw the watch at 6 pm in the evening
it was 20 minutes fast. Find the time when it had shown the correct time.
Solution:

When the clock was 10 minute slow initially, instead of showing 6 am it was actually showing
5:50 am and started gaining time from that moment. It was showing 20 minutes more than
the correct time at 6 pm. That implies at 6 pm, it was showing 6:20 pm.

In a matter of 12 hours (6 am in the morning to 6 pm in the evening), the clock has gained
totally 10 + 20 = 30 minutes.
It will show the correct time when it gains 10 minutes, from 6 am onwards.

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To gain 30 minutes it has taken 12 hrs.


10 12
In order to gain 10 minutes it will take,

30

= 4 hrs

4 hours from the 6 am.


Hence, the clock had shown the correct time at 10 am in the morning.

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Practice Exercise 5
1.

Find the angle between the hour-hand and the minute-hand when the time is 3 hours 40
minutes.
1. 36

2.

3. 90

4. 25

2. 15

3. 130

4. 2.5

2. 157.5

3. 130

4. 2.5

Find the angle between hour-hand and minute-hand at 9o clock.


1. 36

6.

2. 15

Find the angle between hour-hand and minute-hand at 8 hours 15 minutes.


1. 36

5.

4. 65

Find the angle between hour-hand and minute-hand at 7 hours 5 minutes.


1. 36

4.

3. 130

What is the angle between the hour-hand and minute-hand at 6.30 p.m.?
1. 36

3.

2. 72

2. 157.5

3. 90

4. 2.5

2 clocks are set at exactly 12 oclock. One clock gains 5 minutes every hour while the other
loses 5 minutes every hour. After how many hours will both the minute-hands point at the
same number? What is time showing by both the clocks?
1. Clock - I shows 6.30 and Clock -II shows 6.30
2. Clock - I shows 6.30 and Clock -II shows 5.30
3. Clock - I shows 6.30 and Clock -II shows 7.30
4. Clock - I shows 6.30 and Clock -II shows 8.30

7.

2 clocks are set exactly at 6.00 a.m. Clock - I gains 6 mins every 1/2 hour and Clock - II loses
6 minute every 1/2 hour. When Clock I shows 8.24, what is the exact time? What is the time
given by Clock II?
1. 8.36 a.m.

8.

2. 9.36 a.m.

3. 7.36 a.m.

3. 6.36 a.m.

A watch loses 5 minutes every half an hour. It is set to the correct time at 4 p.m. What is the
exact time when the time indicated by the watch is 8.00 p.m.?

9.

1. 8 hours 48 minutes.

2. 9 hours 48 minutes.

3. 10hours 48 minutes.

4. 11 hours 48 minutes.

A watch gain 3 minutes in every 20 minutes. It is set exactly to correct time at 10.00 a.m.
What is the time when it is actually 3.00 p.m. ?
1. 3.45 p.m.

2. 6.45 p.m.

3. 8.45 p.m.

4. 9.45 p.m.

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10.

Two clocks chime together at 1.00 p.m. After that clock-I gains 5 minutes every half an hour.
Next when the clocks chime together, what is the time indicated by clock-I and clock-II. What
is the exact time?
1. 4.00 p.m.

2. 6.00 p.m.

3. 7.00 p.m.

4. 8.00 p.m.

Practice Exercise 6
1.

A clock gains 5 mins per hour.

It is set right at 2 noon.

After what time will it show the

correct time again?


1. 36 hrs
2.

2. 72 hrs

3. 144 hrs

4. 96 hrs

A clock gains 2 minutes for every minute it covers. It is set right at 12 noon. What is the
correct time when it shows 9 p.m., on the same day?
1. 2 p.m

3.

2. 2:30 p.m

3. 3 p.m

4. 6 p.m

Let x be the angle between the minute-hand and the hour-hand of the clock when the time is
1:05 p.m. At which of the following times is the angle between the hands equal to 12x?
1. 1:00 p.m

4.

2. 2:30 p.m

Albert Einstein is a hyperactive kid.

3. 4:52 p.m

4. 11:38 p.m

One day, when he is feeling bored with life, he starts

playing with a clock. It is 7:00 in the evening. He moves the minute-hand backward, and
stops it at the first position when the angle between the minute-hand and the hour-hand
becomes what it was at 7:00. What time is the clock showing now?
6 : 05
1.
5.

5
11 p.m.

6 : 07
2.

2
8 p.m.

6 : 03
3.

4
17 p.m.

6 : 23
4.

1
9 p.m.

Rutherford wants to measure the height of a skyscraper. Having no other alternative, he hits
upon an ingenious solution. He takes a stopwatch at the top of the skyscraper, starts it and
drops it.

Then he rushes down to the ground, only find that his beloved stopwatch has

shattered on impact with the ground.

What would the stopwatch have been showing just

before it broke, if the top f the skyscraper subtends an angle of 300 at a point 173 m. from its
base? (Assume g = 10 m/sec2)
1. 3:8 sec
6.

2. 4:9 sec

3. 6:1 sec

Gaurav decides to develop a calendar program on a computer.

4. 4.4 sec
When given a date as an

input, the program tells the day corresponding to that date. However, Gaurav makes an error
while programming, so all the leap year are taken as non-leap years, while all the non-leap
years are taken as leap years by the program. What day does the program give for 1 Jan
2001?
1. Sunday
7.

2. Monday

3. Tuesday

4. Friday

Amit is a firm believer in astrology, so one Tuesday he goes to his family astrologer to find the
next time that he is going to make a windfall. The astrologer predicts, It is going to be a

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Thursday, and the number of days between that day and today is going to be a multiple of
40. Can you tell Amit after how many days does his auspicious day arrives?
1. 120
8.

2. 160

3. 200

4. 240

The Kingdom of Eccentricity has a 6 day week, i.e., there is no concept of a Saturday in
Eccentricity. Today, the 15th of August 1947 is a Sunday in Eccentricity. What day will lie on
15th of August 2001?
1. Tuesday

9.

2. Thursday

3. Sunday

4. Monday

A clock is set right at 12 noon. It loses a different amount of time every subsequent hour, the
different times being related by the fact that they form an arithmetic progression. Let t1 be
the time lost in first hour, t2 in second hour and so on. If t3 = 7 min and t13 = 27 min, then
what does the clock show when it is 5 a.m. the next day?
1. 1:04 p.m.

10.

2. 11:37 a.m.

3. 11:37 p.m.

4. 10:23 a.m.

Yogesh designs a clock which moves anti-clockwise instead of the normal clockwise routine. If
today 31st March 2000 and the clock is started, what will be the date and year as shown by
the clock (they also go back in time) after 100 days?
1. 23 Dec 1999

2. 22 Dec 1999

3. 21 Dec 1999

4. 23 Dec 2000

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CHAPTER-6

Direction of Movement

The concept involves a person (in general) moving certain distances in specified directions.

Then we are asked to find out the net distance traveled between the initial position and
final position.

Best approach to solve these problems is to draw a diagram as per the information given
in the question.

Let the diagram reflect all the possible data given.

In general terms north direction is referred as the vertical direction and south direction is
referred as the downward direction.

For solving the problems on direction one must be thoroughly one needs to be quiet aware
of the all possible directions.

The problems related to direction sense are aimed to find out two major aspects,
1.

Total distance traveled between the initial and the final position

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2.

Final direction in which he is moving in the end or after some time

Worked Examples
1.

Rajeev travels a distance of 3 metres towards east from his house; he then travels a distance
of 8 metres southwards and then travels a distance of 3 metres towards east and finally
travels a distance of 11 metres southwards. What is his vertical distance from his house?
Solution:

From the data that is given


The total vertical distance traveled 11+8=19m.
2.

Sridhar starts from his house and travels 10 meters towards east, then 8 meters towards
right, and then travels 8 meters towards east and 3 meters towards south after that. Finally
he turns right and travels 1 meter. What is the total distance he has traveled from his house
in the north-south direction?
Solution:

The distance he traveled from his house in north-south direction is equal to 8 + 3 = 11


meters.
3.

Anil travels 7 meters towards east, then he turns right and travels 3 metres; then travels 5
meters towards left and then proceeds 3 metres northwards and finally travels 2 meters
westwards. How far is he from his house in the vertical direction?

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Solution:

The distance covered by Anil in the north-south direction from his house is equal to
3 - 3 = 0 meters
4.

From A, Sampath travels a distance of 6 metres southwards, then travels a distance of 7


metres leftwards, then travels 6 metres northwards and finally Sol travels 6 meters eastwards
to reach a new location. What is the distance he traveled from his previous location?
Solution:

The distance traveled vertically is 6 - 6 = 0 metres and the distance traveled horizontally is
equal to 7 + 6 = 13 m. Therefore, the distance traveled from his original location is also equal
to 13 m.
5.

Lucas starts from his house and goes 2 metres towards east, then turns towards right and
goes 25 metres and again goes towards east travelling 15 metres and then turns left and
travels for 18 metres. He then goes towards east and travels 7 metres. Howfar is he from his
house?
Solution:

Distance traveled in horizontal direction is : 2 + 15 + 7 = 24 m


Distance traveled in vertical direction is : 25 - 18 = 7 m
Hence the total distance traveled will be equal to : (242 + 72) = 25 m

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Practice Exercise 7
1.

Namita travels a distance of 4 m northwards, then travels 3 m westwards, then travels 12


metres leftwards and finally travels 15 metres rightwards. What is the approximate distance of
the place she reached from his original place?
1. 17 m

2.

3.

1. 7 m towards east

2. 1 m towards west

3. 7 m towards south

4. 1 m towards east

3. 22 m

4. 12 m

and goes towards his house. To reach her house, she has to
Travel 5 km towards north-east from the office followed by 5
travel 5 km towards south-west followed by 5 km towards
far is the office from her house?

2. 10 m

3. 0 m

4. 20 m

2. South

3. South-West

4. North-East

One evening two friends Ramya and Sowmya were talking to each other face to face. If
Sowmya's shadow was exactly to her right side, which direction was Ramya facing?
2. South

3. West

4. East

Nandy going 50 m to the south of her house, turns left and goes another 20 m then turning to
the north, he goes 30 m and then starts walking to her house. In which direction is she
walking now?
1. North-West

9.

4. 8 m

After walking 6 km, Dipankar turned right and traveled a distance of 2 km, then turned left
and covered a distance of 10 km. In the end Dipankar was moving towards the north. From
which direction did Dipankar start my journey?

1. North
8.

3. 12 m

2. 32 m

Sharmila starts from his office


follow the following directions:
km towards ,south-east; then
north-west. Approximately how

1. East
7.

2. 2 m

Krishna starts from his house and travels a distance of 10 m southwards and then travels a
distance of 12 m rightwards, then travels a distance of 10 m rightwards and finally travels a
distance of 10 m in the eastern direction. At what horizontal distance is he from his house?

1. 5 m
6.

4. 34 m

Laxmi starts from his house, travels a distance of 12 m westwards, then travels a distance of
10 m northwards, then a distance of 10 m eastwards, then a distance of 10 m southwards.
What is her distance from his house presently?

1. 2 m
5.

3. 20 m

Sangam travels a distance of 12 m northwards and then travels a distance of 5 m westwards,


then a distance of 3 m leftwards and again 6 m leftwards and finally travels 15 m towards the
south. What is the present horizontal distance from the place he had started? Is he to the west
or east of the starting point?

1. 22 m
4.

2. 42 m

2. North

3. South-East

4. South- West

One evening, two friends Ganga and Sunil were talking to each other with their backs towards
each other. If Gangas shadow was exactly to the right of her, which direction was Sunil
facing?

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1. South
10.

4. North-West

2. North-East

3. North

4. South-West

2. 8 km

3. 22 km

4. 17 km

2. 8 km

3. 12 km

4. 151.6 km

A person starts from his house and travels a distance of 10 m southwards and then travels a
distance of 12 m rightwards, then travels a distance of 10 m rightwards and finally travels a
distance of 10 m in the eastern direction. At what horizontal distance is he from his house?
1. 2 m

15.

3. West

A man goes northwards and travels 5 km and then goes 5 km towards the east, then travels
15 km towards the right and finally travels 17 km towards the right1. Approximately how far
is he from the original place?
1. 221.8 km

14.

2. South-East

A person travels 7 km towards the east, then turns right and travels 7 km, then travels 15 km
towards the left, then goes 12 km towards the left again and finally goes 5 km towards the
north. How far is he from his original place in the horizontal direction?
1. 24 km

13.

4. West

Gagan started walking towards north to his office which is 3 km from his house. From there he
turns 135 in the anti-clock wise direction and then 180 in the clock-wise direction. Which
direction is he facing now from his office?
1. North-West

12.

3. East

A watch shows 8.30. If the minute hand points towards east, in what direction will the hour
hand point?
1. South-West

11.

2. North-west

2. 32 m

3. 22 m

4. 12 m

Sadanada walks 8 km towards North1. Then he turns right and walks a further 8 km. How far
and in what direction is he from the starting point?
1. 10 km towards North

2. 11 km towards North-East

3. 16 km towards North-East

4. None of these

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CHAPTER-7

Letter Series
Techniques to Tackle

1. Such questions depends on accurate observation.


2.

Sometime we have to arrange the alphabet in two rows

A
Z

B
Y

C
X

D
W

E
V

F
U

G
T

H
S

I
R

J
Q

K
P

L
O

M
N

And observe the pattern shown in the series.


3. Sometimes alphabets are to be arranged in four rows thus

A
N
O

B
M
P
Z

C
L
Q
Y

D
K
R
X

E
J
S
W

F
I
T
V

G
H
U

4.

Some series are formed by skipping letters backward or forward.

5.

The positional value of the alphabets can be useful to a great extent.

6.

The series of arrangement may be arithmetic series where each alphabet differs by a
common difference or may be a geometric series where the ratio of position values of
alphabets is always equal.

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Practice Exercise 8
1.

Make a meaningful word with the 6th, 8th, 9th, 10th and 14th letters of the word
CORRESPONDENCE. Point out the third letter of the new word.
1. E

2.

2. K

3. M

4. G

2. 6th

3. 5th

4. 8th

2. E

3. S

4. T

2. I

3. M

4. L

If the letters of the alphabet are arranged in the reverse order which will be the 14th letter to
the left of the third letter from the right?
1. Q

8.

4. T

Which of the following will be fourth to the right of sixteenth position from the right end?
1. X

7.

3. R

Which letter in the alphabet is the 8th letter to the right of the letter which is 20th from the
left?
1. D

6.

2. E

If every fourth letter starting from F is replaced by days of a week starting from Sunday what
will be the position of Thursday counting from your right?
1. 9th

5.

4. X

Which letter will be midway between the 14th letter from the left end and 19th letter from the
right end in the alphabet?
1. I

4.

3. S

If letters on alternating positions, while starting from D, are dropped, which of the following
letters will be second to the right of the seventh position from your left?
1. L

3.

2. M

2. J

3. R

4. K

Which letter is midway between the eighth letter from the right and seventh letter from the
left in the following alphabet?
ABCDEFGHIJKLMNOPQRSTUVWXYZ
1. L

9.

3. M

4. N

If the alphabet are written in the reverse order which will be the fourth letter to the right of
the 13th letter from the left?
1. J

10.

2. G

2. L

3. K

4. M

Which letter in the word APPLES (other than A) occupies the same position as it does in
alphabet?
1. E

2. P

3. L

4. T

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CHAPTER-8

Number Series
Techniques to Tackle

The series are formed by:


1.

Skipping numbers backward or forward.

2.

Multiplying first number by some number to get the next number.

3.

Squaring one number to get the next.

4.

Sometimes alternate numbers are related.

5.

Sometimes square roots of numbers give the next number.

Each series is constructed on the basis of one and/or two functions.


Series based on the Difference between the Numbers.

This can be further classified in to two types.


Type 1:- Series in which the difference between the numbers or alphabets position
value is constant.

There is always a constant difference between two successive numbers.


Example: the numbers of the series 1, 3, 5, 7, 9, .....
Here next number is obtained by adding a constant figure of 2 to the preceding term
of the series.
Type 2:- Series in which the difference between the numbers or alphabets position
value will keep on increasing or decreasing.

The difference between successive terms keeps increasing or decreasing, as per the
given series.
Example: the numbers of the series 1, 3, 6, 10, .....
Here, the difference between the first two terms of the series is 1;
the difference between the second and third terms is 2;
the difference between the third and the fourth terms is 3 and so on.
That is, the difference between any two successive terms is exactly 1 more than the
difference between the first number of this pair and the number immediately
preceding this number.

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Practice Exercise 9
1.

25, 13, 8, 6, ?
1. 5.5

2.

2. 7, 4

3. 7, 6

4. 8, 7

2. 29

3. 26

4. 35

2. 36, 41

3. 37, 42

4. 35, 40

2. 677

3. 635

4. 648

2. 7, 4

3. 5, 4

4. 3, 6

2. 254

3. 246

4. 234

2. 648, 646

3. 607, 708

4. 702, 507

4, 12, 28, 60, 122, ?


1. 264

10.

4. 37

729, 243, 81, 27, ?


1. 9, 3

9.

3. 35

2. 34

0, 1, 2, 5, 26, ?
1. 627

8.

4. 18, 26

7, 12, 17, 22, 27, 32, ?


1. 33, 38

7.

3. 18, 32

1, 2, 4, 7, 11, 16, 22, ?


1. 31

6.

2. 28, 36

35, 28, 22, 17, 13, 10,?


1. 9, 8

5.

4. 4.5

76, 72, 67, 61, 54, 46, ?


1. 33

4.

3. 2.5

1, 3, 6, 10, 15, 2,?


1. 16, 12

3.

2. 3.5

203, 304, 405, 506, ?


1. 504, 507

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CHAPTER-9

Data Sufficiency (DS)


In this section, you are required to classify each problem according to four or five fixed answer
choices, rather than find a solution. Each problem consists of a question (or an argument) and is
followed by two or three statements depending on the type of data sufficiency problem discussed
below. Three types of data sufficiency problems that are commonly tested are outlined in this section.
The section also includes problem-solving strategies and solved examples.
The data sufficiency problem usually consists of four parts viz:
1. The directions
2. The given (original) information
3. The question that is asked based on the given information in part 2.
4. 2 or 3 statements (depending on type) from which the answer has to be drawn.
Part 1: There would be a set of directions, based on which each of the following questions need to be
answered. These directions would specify which option should be selected as response while
answering the questions.
Part 2: The information given at the beginning of the question including any geometrical diagram
forms Part 2 of the DS question format. For instance, Find the area of a rectangle if its length
is 20 cm or If 10 workers lay 100 bricks on a floor measuring ...sq. ft., how many workers
are needed to complete the job in ....days? In other words, the information given is in the
form of a definite statement.
Part 3: A question is either given in the information sentence itself as in the above example or
followed afterwards by the information part of the format. Questions normally pertain to
mathematical problems. Generally there are two forms in which the question part appears.

1.

Asking a specific number in an answer, e.g., What is the area of the rectangular figure
shown in the diagram below? In such cases the answers must be a single numerical
value.

2. Requiring Yes or No as an answer.


In both instances the answers have to be drawn from the given statements only.
Part 4: The question is followed by two or three statements (depending on the type), in each of which
will be given a particular relationship or fact and sometimes even two facts/relationships.

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Data Sufficiency Problem Type 1


The general instructions for this type of problem are as under:
Directions: Each of the following problems has a question followed by two statements, which are
marked A and B. Use the data given in A and B together or separately and mark

1.

If statement A alone is sufficient to answer the question.

2.

If statement B alone is sufficient to answer the question.

3.

If both statements together are needed to answer the question but neither statement
alone is sufficient.

4.

If neither statement is sufficient to answer the question.

This type of data sufficiency problem therefore has 4 alternatives. The problem can be well illustrated
by the following flow chart.
Is A alone
sufficient
to answer
the
tiNo
Is B alone
sufficient
to answer
the

Yes

Yes

Answer 1

Answer 2

No
Are A & B
together
sufficient
to answer
the
No
Answer 4

Yes

Answer 3

Solved Examples on Type 1 Data Sufficiency


1.

What is the first term in the series?


a.

The 3rd term in the series is 2.

b.

The 2nd term in the series is twice the first and the 3rd term is three times the
2nd.

It is clear that statement A alone would not be of any help in answering the question.
Statement B gives the relationships among the first three terms in the series, but does not
provide the absolute value of the first term. The question can only be answered from
statement A and B together. Hence the answer is 3.

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2.

Is x2 > y?
a.

x3 - 8x - 27 < y

b. y < 0

Statement A gives only a relationship between x and y but fails to answer the question.
Statement B indicates that y is negative. As x2 is always positive, it is clear that x2 is greater
than y. Hence statement B alone can answer the question. Answer is 2.
3.

What is the area of triangle ABC?


a. AB = 4cms, BC = 7cms, AC = 11 cms

b. Angle C < 800

Statement A gives the dimensions of the three sides of the triangle. In a triangle the sum of
any two sides will always be greater than the third side. In statement A, the sum of AB and BC
is equal to the third side AC. Hence the given figure is a straight line and the area is zero.
Answer is 1.
4.

How many books can XYZ publishing co. print in a day?


a. XYZ publishing co. has 12 presses.
b. Each press can print 1052 pages everyday.
Here neither statement A alone nor statement B alone can answer the question. Using both
statements together one can only get the total number of pages that can be printed in XYZ
co., in a day but not the number of books printed as required in the question. Hence the
answer is 4.

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Practice Problems Set 1


For each of the following questions mark:

1.

If statement A alone can answer the question.

2.

If statement B alone can answer the question.

3.

If statements A and B together are needed to answer the question, but neither statement
alone is sufficient.

4. If neither A nor B can answer the question.


1.

At what time did Mike arrive at the party?


a. Sarah arrived at 8 p.m., Jack arrived at 8.15 p.m. and Tony arrived at 8.20 p.m.
b. Mike arrived at least 15 minutes before any of the three - Sarah, Jack and Tony.

2.

What is the area of the shaded portion between the two circles A and B?
B

a. Length of q = 7 cms.

b. Radius of the outer circle A = 21 cms.


q

3.

In triangle PQR, QR = 7cms, Q = 500. What is the value of angle P?


P

a. QR = PR.
b. The bisector of angle R is perpendicular to QP.
4.

Is the number A an odd integer?


a. 5x = A. x is an integer.
b. 8y = A. y is an integer.

5.

Is the value of p greater than 6 given q is a positive integer?


a.

6.

1 1
<
q 2

p
>4
q

In the equation z = x2 + x + yx, z is even. Is x even?


a. y is even.

7.

b.

b. xy is even.

What is the value of a - b?

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a. 4a + 3b = 14
8.

Is

b. a + b = 4

1 1
> ?
p q

a. p > q
9.

10.

b. p > 1

What is Jacks percentage share of profit in the partnership firm PQR?


a.

Michael got $12000 more than Allen did.

b.

As per the partnership arrangement Michael got 40% of the profit while Allen and Jack
shared the remaining amount equally.

Is p > q?
a. 0 < p < 0.50

11.

b. 0.25 < q < 1.5

What is the area of the circle with centre 0 and chord AC?
C

a. OA = 6.5 cm

b. AC = 5 cm
12.

What is the value of angle a?

a. Angle b = 300

b c

b. Angle d = 200
A
13.

700

What is the value of angle BDC?


a. BD = DC

b. BD and DC are bisectors of angles B and C respectively.


14.

b. 1 > y > 0

One of the values of x is?


a. x2 - 1 = 0

16.

Is xy > yx?
a. x > 0

15.

b. x > 0

What was the profit percentage on the sale of bread loaves?


a. The baker made a profit equal to the selling price of 4 loaves.
b. The baker made a profit of $4.80.

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17.

Is x > 0?
a.

x is not an imaginary number.

b. The numerical value of x is greater than 1/2.


18.

19.

What is the value of angle x?


a. x = y

b. x = p

q
z

p
r

The average temperature of a certain week was 260C. What was the temperature on the
fourth day?
a. The average temperature on the first four days was 26.50C.
b. The average temperature on the last four days was 27.50C.

20.

If F = 12, what is the value of T?


a. Z = 40

21.

Is 1/m2 = 2?
a. m2 + 2m > 4

22.

b. T = F[9 x Z (6 2 x 3)] + F2 - 9ZF

b. m > 0.75

What is the area of the shaded portion (O is the centre of the circle)?
P

a. Chord PQ = 12cm.
b. Chord OA = 7 cm.
23.

0
A

When will car A overtake car B?


a. Car A is moving 22 kmph faster than car B.
b. If car B reduces its speed by 50% it would take 44 minutes for car A to overtake car B.

24.

25.

26.

How many days does it take for 12 men to complete the work?
a.

If there were 3 men less, the same work would have taken 4 days more.

b.

2 more men have to work in order to complete the work as per schedule.

What is the length of the train?


a.

The train takes 27 seconds to cross a bullock cart moving in the same direction.

b.

Moving at 40 kmph the train crosses a platform of 40m length in 12 seconds.

What is the volume of the rectangular box?

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27.

a.

The total surface area is 122 sq. cm.

b.

One of the dimensions is 7 cm.

What is the area of triangle xyz?


a.

xy = 12cm

b.

Angle z = 90

Z
28.

29.

Is x < y?
a.

x2 - 36 = 0

b.

y>7

Is p > q?
a. p3 q2 > 0
b. p2 q5 < 0

30.

What is the value of x?


a. xy = 6
b. x2 + y2 = 22

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Data Sufficiency Problem Type 2


The general instruction for this type of problem is as below:
Directions:
Each of the problems below consists of a question and two statements, labelled (1)
and (2), in which certain data is given. You have to decide whether the data given in the statements is
sufficient for answering the question. Using the data given in the statements plus your knowledge of
mathematics and everyday facts (such as number of days in May etc.), you are to mark as your
answer
A: If statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient to answer
the question.
B: If statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (1) alone is not sufficient to answer
the question.
C: If BOTH statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are sufficient to answer the question asked
but NEITHER statement ALONE is sufficient to answer the question.
D: If EACH statement alone is sufficient to answer the question asked.
E: If statement (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient to answer the question asked,
and additional data specific to the problem is needed.

The approach to this type of problem is explained in the following flow chart:

Is (1) alone
sufficient to
answer the
question?

yes

Is (2) alone
sufficient to
answer the
question?

no

yes

ANSWER A

ANSWER D

no

Is (2) alone
sufficient to
answer the
question?

Are(1) & (2)


together
sufficient to
answer the
question?

yes

yes

ANSWER C

ANSWER E
ANSWER B

Flow chart explaining approach to type 2 data sufficiency problem

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Solved Examples on Type 2 Data Sufficiency


1.

Is xy < 0?
1. x2 y3 < 0

2. xy2 > 0

It is not possible to answer the question with statement (1) alone. Statement (2) only
indicates that x is positive (y2 is always positive and x has to be positive for xy2 to be greater
than 0) and is not sufficient to answer the question. It is only possible to answer the question
with statements (1) and (2) together. (From statement (1) it is clear that y is negative and
hence xy should always be negative). The answer is C.
2.

Is x > y?
1. x2 > y2

2. x - y > 0

Statement 1 alone will not answer the question as either x or y can be negative. Statement 2
alone will answer the question. The answer is B.
3.

What is the value of angle x?


a. p = 120

b. q = 60
a

p
x
60

q
c

Each statement alone is sufficient as angle x = angle q (alternate angles) and angle x = 180 (180 - p) - 60 = p - 60 (angles in a triangle). The answer is D.
4.

What is the perimeter of the rectangle with an area of 60 sq. cms?


1. The length of the diagonal is 13cms.
2. The ratio of the length to the breadth of the rectangle is 2:4.
Each statement alone is sufficient to answer the question. The answer is D.

5.

What is the selling price of item p?


1.

If the selling price was increased by Rs. 10, the profit percentage would have increased by
12%.

2.

The cost price of the item is Rs. 117.

Neither statement 1 alone nor statement 2 alone can answer the question. Both statements
together can answer the question. The answer is C.

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Practice Problems Set 2


31.

32.

Is PQ parallel to RS?
1.

a=b

2.

a + b = 2 right angles

Is 1/x > 1?
1. x > 1

33.

x<2

2.

a=2

Is a + 1/a > 2?
1.

34.

2.

a>1

What is the speed of the river?


1. A boatman can row a distance of 24 kms. from the starting point and come back in
10 hours.
2. A boatman can row at a rate of 4 kmph. with the river and at a rate of 3 kmph
against it.

35.

36.

37.

38.

39.

Is x a positive integer?
1.

x3 is a positive integer.

2.

x2 + 1 is positive.

How many runs did Venkat score in a five match cricket series?
1.

If he had scored 1 run less, his average would have dropped by 0.15.

2.

If he had scored 1 run more, his average would have increased by 0.045.

Did Socrates speak the truth?


1.

Socrates says All Greeks are liars.

2.

Socrates was a Greek.

When would `Jim catch up with the tortoise?


1.

The tortoise has a 100 m head start.

2.

Jim runs 10 times as fast as the tortoise.

Is p a positive integer?
1.

40.

px = 1

2.

x=0

What are the possible values of a and b?

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1.
41.

44.

45.

46.

48.

49.

x2 - 1 = 0

2.

x-1=0

1
1
>
x
y

2.

y is positive.

What is the radius of the circle?


1.

AB = BC = AC = 3 cms

2.

AD =

3 3
cms
2

1.

AB = AC

2.

BD = DC

Is A equidistant from both B and C?

Is m > n?
1.

m2 > n2

2.

m < -2

Is x > y?
1.

47.

(a - b) 2 = 25

Is x > y?
1.

43.

2.

Is x positive?
1.

42.

a + b = 15

(x + y) 2 is positive.

2.

x is positive.

Is x positive?
1.

x3 + 1 = 0

2.

x2 - 1 = 0

What speed did John run at in the marathon?


1.

Jim ran 2 kmph faster than Mike whose speed was 4 kmph greater than Terrys.

2.

Johns speed was 8 kmph greater than Terrys speed.

Is Frooda, Mirzads father?


1.

Mirzad is Froodas son.

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2.
50.

Mirzads uncle Barty is Froodas brother.

What is the perimeter of triangle XYZ?


1.

Triangle XYZ is a right angled triangle.

2.

The length of the hypotenuse is 13 cms.

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Data Sufficiency Problem Type 3


Directions: Each of the following problems has a question followed by three statements, which are
marked a, b and c. Use the data and mark
1. If one statement itself is sufficient to answer the question.
2. If any two of all three possible pairs of statements are sufficient, but none of the
statements by itself is sufficient to answer the question.
3. If any two statements but not all three statements are sufficient to answer the question.
4. If all three statements are required to answer the question.
5. If none of the statements individually or jointly answer the question.

This type of data sufficiency problem therefore has 5 alternatives, as illustrated by the following chart.
Is A alone sufficient
Yes
to answer the
question?
No
Is B alone sufficient
to answer the
question?

Yes

ANSWER 1

No
Is C alone sufficient
to answer the
question?

Yes

No
Are A & B together
sufficient
to answer the
question?

Yes

Are B & C together


No
sufficient
ANSWER 3
to answer the
question?

No

Yes

Yes

No
Are A & C together
sufficient
to answer the
question?

Are A & C together


sufficient
to answer the
question?

Yes

Are B & C together


sufficient
to answer the
question?

ANSWER 2

Yes

No
Are B & C together
sufficient
to answer the
question?

Yes

No

ANSWER 3

No

Are A, B & C
sufficient
to answer the
question?
No

Yes

ANSWER 4

ANSWER 5

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Solved Examples on Type 3 Data Sufficiency


1.

How many people were there in the stadium to watch the cricket match?
a.

The total number of tickets and passes issued was 46,000.

b.

2000 people with valid tickets were not allowed inside.

c.

Many people without tickets and passes were in the stadium.

It is very clear that the statements A, B and C alone will not answer the question. It is not
possible to answer the question by using any pairs of these statements. All the statements
together also will not give any answer. The best answer is 5.
2.

How long did it take for the bus to reach Baroda?


a.

If the average speed was more by 50% it would have taken 2 hours less.

b.

The bus moved at a constant speed of 55 kmph.

c.

The bus reached Baroda half an hour late.

Here it is possible to answer the question only with statement A. Statements B and C cannot
answer the question. Hence the answer is 1.
3.

What is the value of angle x?


C

a.

The diameter of circle O is 5.66 cms.

b.

AC = 4 cms.

0
B

c.

BC = 4 cms.

Angle subtended by the diameter at the circumference is 900. Hence it is possible to answer
the question if any two dimensions of the triangle ABC are known. The question can therefore
be answered by any two of the statements. The answer is 2.

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Practice Problems Set 3


51.

52.

Who got the highest share of profit among A, B and C?


a.

A got half as much profit as B and C together got.

b.

B received Rs. 850 as profit.

c.

C got half as much profit as A and B together got.

AB is the tangent to the circle with center O. What is the value of angle ACO?
a.

The diameter of the circle is 11 cms.

b.

OB = 26 cms.

C
0

c.
53.

54.

55.

56.

Angle CAB = 105

What is the average age of a family of 5 ?


a.

The average age of the first three persons is 37 years.

b.

The average age of the last three persons is 26 years.

c.

The age of the third person in the family is 28 years.

What is the distance between A and B?


a.

Distance between A and C is 157 kms.

b.

Distance between B and C is 87 kms.

c.

Nearest distance from C to the road joining A and B is 45 kms.

What is the area of triangle ABC?


a.

Angle B = 90

b.

Perimeter of the triangle is 16 cms.

c.

ABC is not an isosceles triangle.

What is the area of the rhombus ABCD?


a.

The length of diagonal AC = 12 cms.

b.

The perimeter of the rhombus is 28 cms.

c.

The distance between parallel sides is 4 cms.

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Data Sufficiency Problems Type 4


Directions : Each of the following problems has a question followed by two statements which are
marked A and B. Use the data and mark
1. If only one statement (A) or (B) is sufficient to answer the question.
2. If either (A) or (B) is independently sufficient to answer the question.
3. If neither of them can answer the question.
4. If both (A) and (B) are together sufficient to answer the question.

This type of data sufficiency problem, therefore has 2 alternatives, as illustrated by the following
chart.
Is A alone
sufficient
to answer
the question?
Is B alone
sufficient
to answer
the question?
Is either A or
B
independentl
y
sufficient to
Are A and B
together
sufficient to
answer the
question?

Yes

Answer 1

Yes

Yes

Yes

Answer 2

Answer 4

Answer 3

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Solved Examples on Type 4 Data Sufficiency


1.

Does x + y have a minimum value?


a.

x,y>0

b.

xy = 1

It is clear that both statements together answer the question since

1
x=
y

x+y=

1
- y = + y - 2

y
y

1
- y

- y

=x+y-2

+2

implies minimum value is 2. Hence the answer is (4)


2.

What is the area of triangle ABC?


a.

ABC is a right angled triangle.

b.

The hypotenuse is 13 cms.

The area cannot be determined since only one side is known. Note that (A) and (B) do not
imply that the triangle has sides 13, 12, 5 cms unless it is specifically mentioned that the sides
have integral values.
The answer here is (3).
3.

What is the principal amount if a certain sum of money trebles itself in ten years?
a.

The rate of interest is 20% p.a.

b.

The sum would double itself in five years.

Both statements (A) and (B) give the same value of r (r = rate) as given by the question
itself. Since both statements do not give any additional information, the principal cannot be
found. Hence the answer is (3).

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Practice Problems Set 4


57.

58.

59.

60.

61.

62.

63.

64.

What is 5/6th of a number?


a.

One/fifth of the number is 63.

b.

The number is a multiple of 3.

What is the cost of 7 pens and 6 pencils?


a.

One pen costs Rs. 35.

b.

21 pens and 18 pencils cost Rs. 506.

What would be the cost of fencing a circular field at Rs. 65/- per metre?
a.

The radius of the field is 10m.

b.

The circumference to area ratio is 6:5.

What is the length of the train which crosses another train in 25 seconds?
a.

Both the trains travel with the same speed and are of the same length.

b.

The speed of the train is 45 km/hr.

Is x an integer?
a.

x is a number between 1 and 5.

b.

x=

y
where y is a number between 2 and 5.
2

In the XY plane if the point (x, 0) is on the line I, what is the value of x?
a.

I is parallel to the Y - axis.

b.

The point (5, -6) lies on the line I.

Is x + y an odd integer?
a.

x and y are distinct prime numbers.

b.

xy is an even integer.

What is the value of the three digit number if and denote the digits of the number?
a.

=4

b.

843

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65.

66.

67.

68.

69.

70.

71.

72.

Anu had an average score (A.M) of 86 on three tests. What was her lowest score in the three
tests?
a.

Anus highest score is 97.

b.

The average (A.M) of Anus 2 highest scores was 92.

Typists A and B type at constant rates. If the time it takes typist A to type 100 pages is 2.5
hours how long does it take typist B to type 100 pages?
a.

It takes typist A and typist B working independently and at the same time 1.5 hours to
type a total of 100 pages.

b.

The time it takes typist A to type 100 pages is 1.25 hours less than the time it takes typist
B.

How many of the 10,000 acres of Jyothis farm were cultivated this season?
a.

Exactly 1/15th of the acreage could not be cultivated.

b.

Exactly 1/3rd of the acreage that could be cultivated was not cultivated.

If both the numerator and denominator of a fraction are positive and each is increased by 5
what is the value of the resulting fraction?
a.

In the resulting fraction the denominator is thrice the numerator.

b.

In the original fraction the denominator was 6 less than the numerator.

What would be the cost of surrounding a rectangular field by a road 30 metres wide?
a.

The diagonal of the rectangular field is 750 metres.

b.

The unit cost of construction is Rs.900 per sq. metre.

A trader wants to make 10% profit after allowing a discount of 15% on the marked price.
What should be the marked price of the article?
a.

The cost price is Rs.500.

b.

The selling price is Rs.650.

In a school of 750 students what is the ratio of boys to girls?


a.

The school runs in two shifts.

b.

The number of boys exceeds the number of girls by 25.

If A and B can complete a job in x days in how many days would B alone finish the job?
a.

x = 20.

b.

B is faster than twice the rate of A.

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73.

74.

75.

76.

77.

78.

79.

80.

81.

82.

Is triangle PQR congruent to triangle XYZ?


a.

PQ = XY and QR = YZ.

b.

R = Z.

Is triangle ABC similar to triangle DEB?


a.

A = D.

b.

AB = DE and AC = DF.

What is the remainder when (n + 5) 2 is divided by 4?


a.

n is odd.

b.

n is a multiple of 5.

Is x a positive number?
a.

x = x2

b.

x 3 = x5

Is xy > 30?
a.

2x4

b.

3>y

Can a, b, c, d be the adjacent sides of a square ABCD?


a.

a = b and c = d.

b.

A = C, B = D

Is sin - cos > 0?


a.

is an acute angle.

b.

Sin and Cos < 1.

What is the profit percentage of a dealer if he sells two articles A and B?


a.

The selling price of both the articles is Rs. x.

b.

One is sold at a loss of 20% and the other at a profit of 20%.

Is x > y?
a.

2x + 3y = 5

b.

4x + 7y = 10

Is n > 1?
a.

n + |n| = 0

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b.
83.

84.

85.

86.

87.

n3 4|n| = 0

What is the age of the teacher?


a.

The average age of students and teacher together is 15 years.

b.

The average age of students alone is 12 years.

Is p < q?
a.

1
1
<p <
7
7

b.

1
1
< q<
6
6

What is the average of three consecutive odd integers?


a.

One of the integers is -3.

b.

The sum of the integers is -15.

Is x - y > 0?
a.

x5 > y5.

b.

x 2 > y2 .

Is x - y < 0?
a.

x4 > y4.

b.

x 2 > y2 .

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10. SOLUTIONS
Answers to DS Practice Problems

1d

2c

3-a

4b

5-c

6-d

7-c

8d

9b

10 - d

11 a

12 - a

13 - b

14 - d

15 a

16 d

17 - a

18 c

19 - c

20 - b

21 - d

22 c

23 d

24 - a

25 b

26 - d

27 - d

28 - c

29 c

30 d

31 - a

32 a

33 - d

34 - b

35 - a

36 e

37 e

38 - e

39 e

40 - c

41 - b

42 - c

43 a

44 a

45 - c

46 e

47 - a

48 - e

49 - a

50 e

51 c

52 - a

53 d

54 - d

55 - e

56 - b

57 a

58 a

59 - b

60 d

61 - c

62 - d

63 - d

64 a

65 d

66 - b

67 d

68 - a

69 - c

70 - b

71 a

72 c

73 - c

74 d

75 - a

76 - c

77 - d

78 c

79 c

80 - d

81 d

82 - b

83 - c

84 - c

85 a

86 a

87 - c

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Answers Key to Practice Exercises


Answer Key:: Practice Exercise 1

1-2

23

3-1

42

5-1

6-2

7-1

8-3

91

10 - 1

11 2

12 - 1

13 - 3

14 - 1

15 - 1

16 3

17 - 1

18 2

19 - 1

20 - 4

21 - 1

22 - 3

23 1

24 - 1

25 4

26 - 3

27 - 3

28 - 1

29 - 3

30 2

31 - 2

32 2

33 - 4

34 - 3

35 - 4

Solutions to Practice Exercise: Numerical Puzzles


Questions 1 - 5:

AMAR
Start-amounts invested

PREM

End of 1 year - interest

0.05X

0.05Y

Amount at the beginning of II year

1.05X
2

1.05Y - 11,500

(withdrew 50%)

(withdrew Rs. 11,500)

1.05X
2
0.05 x

0.05 x (1.05Y - 11,500)

Interest during the II year

(1.05)2 X
2

Amount at the end of II year

1.05(1.05Y - 11,500)

(1.05)2 X
Beginning of III year

- 4,050)

1.05(1.05Y - 11,500)

(1.05)2 X
Interest during the III year

0.05(

- 4,050)

0.05 x 1.05(1.05Y-11,500)

(1.05)2 X
Total amount at III year end

1.05 (

- 4,050)

1.052 x (1.05Y - 11,500)

Given :
Total amount with Prem at the end of third year = Total amount with Amar at the end of second year.

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(1.05)2 X
2

(1.05)2 x (1.05Y - 11,500) =

- (1)

Also given : Total interest earned by Amar for 3 years = Rs.3,950.

(1.05)2 X
0.05 x 1.05X
2
2
+ 0.05
- 4050) = 3950
0.05X +
Solving X = Rs.40,000. Using this value of X in (1), we get the value of Y = Rs.30,000
1.

(2)

Rs. 40,000

2.

(3)

Rs. 30,000

3.

(1)

Total interest earned by Prem


= 0.05Y + 0.05(1.05Y - 11,500) + 0.05 x 1.05(1.05Y - 11,500) = Rs. 3550

(1.05)2 X
2

4.

(2)

Interest earned by Amar in the III year is 0.05 (

5.

(1)

Prem would have had Rs. 30,000 x 1.053 = Rs. 34,728

- 4,050) = Rs. 900

Questions 6 - 10:
M = Retirement money

Fixed Deposits

Shares

Initial

0.60M

0.40M

Return during 1st year

0.15 x 0.60M = 0.09M

0.25 x 0.40M = 0.10M

Total at start of 2nd year

0.60M - 0.25 x 0.60M

0.40M + 0.10M + 0.15M

= 0.60M 0.15M

= 0.65M

= 0.45M
Return in the 2nd year

0.15 x 0.45M

-(0.1 x 0.65M) = -(0.065M)

Net amount at start of 3rd year

0.45M + 0.15M (returned)

0.65M 0.065M

= 0.60M

= 0.595M

0.15 x 0.60M

0.1 x 0.595M = 0.0595M

Return during the 3rd year

Net profit earned through shares in three years = 0.10M - 0.065M + 0.0595M = 18,900
M = Rs.2,00,000

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6.

(2)

7.

(1)

Amount of interest earned = 0.15 x 0.6M + 0.15 x 0.45M + 0.15 x 0.6M


= 0.15 x 1.65M = Rs.49,500

8.

(3)

Loss incurred = 0.1 x 0.65 M = Rs.13,000

9.

(1)

Investment in shares in the third year = 0.435M = Rs.87,000

(1)

Total interest + Profit on shares


200000 x 3
Average annual return =

10.

49500 + 15700
= 200000 x 3
= 10.8%
Questions 11 - 15:

10 hrs

20 hrs

15 hrs

12 hrs

15 hrs

24 hrs

No. of machines

Working hours per day = 8


11.

(2)

Total number of working hours per machine per month = 25 x 8 = 200


Total number of hours available on
A = 2 x 200 = 400 hrs, B = 3 x 200 = 600 hrs, C = 4 x 200 = 800 hrs
No. of units of X that can be produced on

400
600
800
10
20
A=
= 40, B =
= 30, C = 15 = 53
Maximum number of pieces that can be produced is the least of these three i.e., 30.

12.

(1)

No. of Ys total that can be produced on

600
400
800
15
12
A=
= 33, B =
= 40, C = 24 = 33
Max. No. of Ys that can be produced is 33.
13.

(3)

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No. of hrs required to produce 20 units of X

Balance hours left in the month

10 x 20 = 200 hrs

400 - 200 = 200 hrs

20 x 20 = 400 hrs

600 - 400 = 200 hrs

15 x 20 = 300 hrs

800 - 300 = 500 hrs

No. of Ys that can be produced in the balance hours.


A: 200/12 = 16

B: 200/15 = 13

C: 500/24 = 20

Max. No. of Ys that can be produced = 13


14.

(1)

Time required to make 1 unit each of X and Y on


A

10 + 12 = 22 hrs

20 + 15 = 35 hrs

15 + 24 = 39 hrs

No. of pairs of X and Y that can be produced on


A: 400/22 = 18

B: 600/35 = 17

C: 800/39 = 22

Max. no. of pairs that can be produced = 17


15.

(1)

Time required to make 17 pairs of X and Y on


A

17 x 22 = 374

17 x 35 = 595

17 x 39 = 663

Unused capacity = available - used = (400 + 600 + 800) - (374 + 595 + 663) = 168

168
% unused capacity = 1800 = 9.33%
Questions 16 - 20:

1986
Interest
1987

M
0.1M
M - 0.2M

(withdrew 20% of initial money plus interest)

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Interest

0.1 x 0.8M

1988

0.8M - 0.4M = 0.4M

Interest

0.1 x 0.4M

1989

0.4M - 0.2M = 0.2M

Interest

0.1 x 0.2M

Total

0.2 + 0.02M = 0.22M

Total interest

0.1M + 0.1 x 0.8M + 0.1 x 0.4M + 0.1 x 0.2M = 0.24M

Given:
Total = 11,000 0.22M = 11,000
M = Rs.50,000
16.

(3)

17.

(1) Total interest = 0.24M = Rs.12,000

18.

(2)

19.

(1)

20.

(4)

Questions 21 - 25:
21.

(1)

Cost if the no. of defectives is 100


Test 1 1000 x 2 + 20 x 50 + 80 x 25
Test 2 1000 x 3 + 100 x 25 = 5,500
No test 100 x 50 = 5000

22.

(3)

If more than 200 are defective, Test II would prove to be economical.

23.

(1)

Cost when the no. of defectives is 200


Test 1 1000 x 2 + 160 x 25 + 40 x 50 = Rs. 8000
Test 2 1000 x 3 + 200 x 25 = Rs. 8000

24.

(1)

25.

(4)

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26.

(3)

Price of A Index,

A1
I
= 1
A2
I2
C1

27.

(3)

A,

Price of C

A1

80 2000
=
A2
2400

, A2 = Rs. 96

C2
A2

2500
A2 at I = 2500 = 2000 x 80
50
C2 =

80 x

100 = 55.55 = 100

Gain in rupees on selling 100 shares of C = 55.55 x 200 - 50 x 200 = Rs.1111.11

3000
Price of A at I = 3000 = 2000 x 80 = 120, Price of B at I = 3000
2000 x 45
3000
= 30

28. (1)

50
Price of C at I = 3000 =

80 x

120 = 61.25

Total value of shares = 500 x 120 + 100 x 30 + 200 x 61.25 = Rs.75,250


29.

(3)

30.

(2)

31.

(2)

2 x = 22 + 22 x 32 = 4 + 36 = 40

40
40 4 = 4

32.

(2)

40

40 + 64
104
52
13
16
16
8
+ 4 = 16 + 4 =
=
=
= 2

y 2 + 9y
25
y x = y2 + 9y, (y2 + 9y) - 5 =
-5=5
y(y + 9) = 0, y = 0 or y = -9

33.

(4)

m = 2 1 = 22 + 22 x 12 = 8

2
n=21= 1 +1=3
m n = 82 + 82 x 32 = 64 + 576 = 640

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34.

m = x 1 = x2 + x2 = 2x2

(3)

n=x1=x+1
m = n or 2x2 = x + 1
2x2 - x - 1 = 0, 2x2 - 2x + x - 1 = 0
2x (x - 1) + (x - 1) = 0

1
(x - 1)(2x + 1) = 0, x = 1 or x = - 2
35.

(4)

Answer Keys for Practice Exercise 2


1

10

Answer Keys for Practice Exercise 3


1

10

Answer Keys for Practice Exercise 4


1

10

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Answer Keys for Practice Exercise 5


1

10

Answer Keys for Practice Exercise 6


1

10

Answer Keys for Practice Exercise 7


1
2
3

3
2
4

6
7
8

2
2
1

11
12
13

2
3
4

14

9
1
0

15

Answer Keys for Practice Exercise 8


1
2
3
4

2
1
2
3

6
7
8
9
1
0

2
1
1
1
1

Answer Keys for Practice Exercise 9


1
2
3
4
5

1
2
4
4
2

6
7
8
9
10

3
2
1
3
3

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