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1. General Principles of
2. Toxicology
3. Gene Therapy
4. Autonomic Drugs
5. Gen Anesth/Therapeutic
6. Local Anesthetics
7. Hypnotics, Sedatives
8. Antidepressants
9. Treatment of Epilepsies
10. Opiods / Drug Addiction
11. Antiinflammatory /
12. Tx of Degenerative
13. Antihistamines/ other
14. Treatment of Asthma
15. Drugs Affecting Renal
16. Cardiovascular Drugs
17. GIT Drugs
18. Antiprotozoals
19. Antimicrobials
20. Antineoplastics/
22. Drugs Acting on the
23. Hormones and Hormone
24. Dermatological/Ocular













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NAME_____________________________________GROUP NO.__________ ID NO. ___
DIRECTION: Each question below is followed by four possible answers. Select the one best
response and mark the appropriate spaces on the answer sheet provided for.
1. Potency of a drug is:
A. the concentration of a drug in the plasma to produce a given effect
B. very important in the clinical use of a drug
C. independent of drug usage
D. directly proportional to drug effect
(Answer: A / Ref: page 50 / MPL: 60)
2. Which of the following statements regarding half-life of a drug is not true?
A. half-life of a drug may increase as drug clearance decreases due to disease
B. half-life provides a good indication of the time for a drug to be removed from the body
C. it provides a means to estimate the amount of drug to be administered
D. it is a useful guide to estimate the appropriate dosing interval
(answer: C /reference p. 22-23 / MPL 60)
3. The route of drug administration that will most likely subject a drug to first pass
A. sublingual
B. oral
C. topical application to mucous membranes
D. inhalation
(answer: B /reference p. 6-8 / MPL 90)
4. One of the following is NOT a true statement regarding agonist and/or antagonist drugs:
A. A true agonist interacts directly with its receptor to elicit a pharmacologic response.
B. A partial agonist has affinity for its receptors but with low intrinsic activity
C. A competitive antagonist interacts irreversibly with a receptor
D. A competitive antagonist is devoid of intrinsic activity
(answer: C /reference p. 41 / MPL 60)
5. Which of the following statements is not true concerning plasma-protein binding of drugs?
A. acidic drugs bind to plasma albumin; basic drugs bind to alpha1 acid glycoprotein
B. binding is usually reversible
C. drugs with similar pharmacochemical properties can compete for binding sites
D. plasma-protein binding limits renal tubular secretion and biotransformation of drug
(answer: D /reference p. 9 / MPL 60)
6. Which of the following benzodiazepines is conjugated directly and not metabolized Into an
active metabolite?
A. alprazolam
C. flurazepam
B. oxazepam
D. diazepam
(answer: B /reference p. 406 / MPL 60)
7. An opioid drug with mixed actions can produce this effect:
A. provoke withdrawal symptoms in a person addicted to Heroin.
B. replace Naloxone as antidote to neonates from addicted mothers
C. be used as substitute drug to control opioid addiction
D. not produce sedation, only analgesia
(answer: A /reference p. 580 / MPL 60)

8. To rehabilitate opioid addicts, one must start with:

A. small doses of naloxone by IM injections
B. psychotherapy
C. methadone, a pure mu agonist with longer duration of action to replace the addicting drug
D. immediate discontinuance of the opioid and control withdrawal symptoms with diazepam
(answer: C /reference p. 633 / MPL 90)
9. Morphine and aspirin both can produce this pharmacologic effect:
A. uricosuria
C. analgesia
B. respiratory depression
D.physical dependence
(answer: C /reference p. 580 / MPL 90)
10. The hormone of choice for thyroid hormone replacement therapy:
A. levothyroxine sodium
C. desiccated thyroid
B. liothyronine sodium
D. liotrix
(answer: A /reference p. 1577 / MPL 90)
11. Drug of choice in the management of gestational diabetes:
A. Chlorpropamide
C. Isophane insulin
B. Propylthiouracil
D. Regular insulin
(answer: D /reference p. 1695 / MPL 90)
12. Antianxiety agent which possess clinically significant antiseizure activity:
A. Haloperidol
C. Diazepam
B. Chlorpromazine
D. Phenytoin
(answer: C /reference p. 410 / MPL 60)
13. Which of the following cytotoxic agent is used for the treatment of severe disabling psoriasis
and refractory rheumatoid arthritis?:
A. cyclosphosphamide
C. 5- fluorouracil
B. methotrexate
D. cytarabine
(answer: B /reference p. 1403 / MPL 60)
14. Drug of choice for the treatment of amebiasis, giardiasis & trichomoniasis:
A. metronidazole
C. cotrimoxazole
B. pentamidine
D. melarsoprol
(answer: A /reference p. 1107 / MPL 90)
15. The following are antibiotic-anticancer agents except:
A. Actinomycin D
C. Doxycycline
B. Doxorubicin
D. Mitomycin
(answer: c /reference p. 1425-1431 / MPL 90)
16. Antiprotozoal agent used clinically for both prophylaxis & treatment of Pneumocystis carinii
A. co-trimoxazole
C. Metronidazole
B. pentamidine
D. Eflornithine
(answer: B /reference p. 1111 / MPL 60)
17. A more common hematological result of chronic lead intoxication:
A. hypochromic microcytic anemia C. pancytopenia
B. megaloblastic anemia
D. leukopenia
(answer: A /reference p. 1854 / MPL 90)
18. One of the following agents prevents the conversion of testosterone to dihydrotestosterone
and has been used in the treatment of BPH :

A. GnRH agonists
B. Ketoconazole

C. Finasteride
D. Cyproterone acetate

(answer: C /reference p. 1646 / MPL 60)

19. Pyridoxine deficiency leads to this condition in the anterior segment of the eye:
A. Bitots spots
C. macular degeneration
B. keratomalacia
D. corneal neovascularization
(answer: D /reference p. 1843 / MPL 60)
20. The oxidant found in the highest concentration in polluted atmosphere:
A. sulfur dioxide
C. ozone
B. nitrogen dioxide
D. carbon monoxide
(answer: C /reference p. 1879 / MPL 90)
21. One of the following is a broad spectrum antihelminthic drug:
A. piperazine
C. mebendazole
B. pyrantel pamoate
D. diethylcarbamazine
(answer: C /reference p. 1127 / MPL 90)
22. The following are second line drugs for tuberculosis, except:
A. pyrazinamide
C. capreomycin
B. ethionamide
D. kanamycin
(answer: A /reference p. 1284 / MPL 90)
23. A first line anti-TB drug that is used for TB prophylaxis:
A. rifampin
C. ethambutol
B. streptomycin
D. Isoniazid
(answer: D /reference p. 1275 / MPL 90)
24. One of the following is not a mechanism of action of statins:
A. inhibit cholesterogenesis in liver
B. enhance the removal of LDL precursors by decreasing hepatic VLDL production
C. stabilize endothelial cell nitric oxide synthase mRNA
D. enhance the proliferation of smooth muscle cells
(answer: D /reference p. 984 / MPL 60)
25. The major adverse effect of clinical significance associated with the use of statin:
A. bloating & dyspepsia
C. myositis flu-like syndrome
B. myopathy
D. peripheral neuritis
(answer: B /reference p. 988 / MPL 60)
26. Which of the following drugs used in the treatment of patients with heart failure is a
phosphodiesterase inhibitor:
A. Milrinone
C. Nitroglycerin
B. Sodium nitroprusside
D. Dobutamine
(answer: A /reference p. 927 / MPL 90)
27. Indications for radioactive iodine in the treatment of Graves disease include the following,
A. hyperthyroidism in older patients
B. hyperthyroidism in those with heart disease
C. graves disease persisting after subtotal thyroidectomy
D. as maintenance therapy for those on remission
(answer: D /reference p. 1588 / MPL 90)
28. This drug is recommended for angina patients with insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus:
A. calcium channel antagonists
C. verapamil

B. beta adrenergic antagonists

D. nitrates

(answer: B /reference p. 862 / MPL 60)

29. Which of the following is a calcium channel antagonist:
A. verapamil
C. captopril
B. methyldopa
D. losartan
(answer: A /reference p. 891 / MPL 90)
30. This anti-TB drug inhibits the excretion of urate, resulting in hyperuricemia:
A. ethionamide
C. ethambutol
B. streptomycin
D. pyrazinamide
(answer: D /reference p. 1281 / MPL 90)
31. A primary effect of ACh on the cardiovascular system is:
A. increase in the rate of conduction in SAN/AVN.
B. increase in heart rate
C. increase in the force of cardiac contraction
D. vasodilatation
(answer: D /reference p. 157 / MPL 60)
32. The standard cholinergic agent for initial treatment of open-angle glaucoma:
A. bethanecol
C. pilocarpine
B. methacholine
D. muscarine
(answer: C /reference p. 161/ MPL 60)
33. Atropine, as primary antidote to poisoning by organophosphates acts by:
A. competitively blocking muscarinic receptors
B. irreversibly blocking muscarinic receptors
C. directly inactivating cholinesterases.
D. preventing aging of phosphorylated AChE.
(answer: A /reference p. 164 GG / MPL 90)
34. Neuromuscular blocking agents are used as adjuvants in surgical anesthesia to:
A. induce hypnosis
B. provide adequate skeletal muscle relaxation.
C. lower the dose of the general anesthetic agent
D. potentiate depth of anesthesia in the surgical stage.
(answer: B /reference p. 205 / MPL 90)
35. Which of the following drugs are used to reactivate phosphorylated AChE:
A. Pyridostigmine
C. Methscopolamine
B. Pralidoxime
D. Tacrine
(answer: B /reference p. 185 / MPL 90)
36. Measures the potency of general anesthetics :
A. minimum alveolar concentration. C. degree of muscle relaxation
B. partition coefficient of the drug
D. emergence from anesthesia
(answer: A /reference p. 328 / MPL 90)
37. The primary therapeutic use of O2 is to:
A. alleviate dyspnea
B. correct hypoxia
C. reduce partial pressure of an inert gas
D. provide hyperbaric bacteriostasis
(answer: B /reference p. 391 GG, 10th ed / MPL 90)
38. The most common untoward effect of tricyclic antidepressants is:

A. postural hypotension
B. anticholinergic effects

C. maniacal behavior
D. arrhythmias

(answer: B /reference p. 466 / MPL 60)

39. Switching of moods in manic depressive psychotic patients may most likely occur with the
use of this antidepressant:
A. serotonin reuptake inhibitors
C. tricyclic antidepressants
B. bupropion & other atypical antidepressants
D. MAO inhibitors
(answer: C /reference p. 467 / MPL 60)
40. Which of the following H1 receptor antagonists causes the least sedation?
A. clemastine
C. chlorpheniramine
B. hydroxyzine
D. loratadine
(answer: D /reference p. 655 / MPL 90)
41. This second generation H1 antagonist may induce torsades de pointes when
taken with drugs that inhibit the 3A family of P450 enzymes in the liver:
A. Loratadine
C. Terfenadine
B. Cetirizine
D. Azelastine
(answer: C /reference p. 655 / MPL 60)


42. Which of the following H1 antagonists has both antihistamine and antiserotonin activity?
A. Diphenhydramine
C. Cyproheptadine
B. Pyrilamine
D. Meclizine
(answer: C /reference p. 656 / MPL 60)
43. X-ray examination of the knee joints in a 73 year old female reveals arthritic changes.
Which of the following should NOT be prescribed?
A. Aspirin
C. Indomethacin
B. Acetaminophen
D. Diclofenac
(answer: B /reference p. 703 / MPL 90)
44. Irreversible acetylation of both COX-1 and COX-2, is the characteristic mechanism of action
of this NSAID:
A. Mefenamic acid
C. Indomethacin
B. Celecoxib
D. Aspirin
(answer: D /reference p. 691 / MPL 90)
45. When the goal of therapy is for prophylaxis against thrombotic episodes, Aspirin should be
given at a subtherapeutic dose range of:
A. 40-80 mg daily
C. 60-100 mg daily
B. 325-650 mg daily
D. 80-325 mg daily
(answer: A /reference p. 701 / MPL 60)
46. Closure of patent ductus arteriosus in 70% of neonates can be expected with this drug:
A. Indomethacin
C. Glucocorticoid
D. Aspirin
(answer: A /reference p. 701 / MPL 60)
47. In rheumatic disease therapy, one of the following manifestations may be a reliable index of
therapeutic plasma concentration of salicylates:
A. hypothermia
C. blurred vision
B. tinnitus
D. excessive sweating
(answer: B /reference p. 701 / MPL 60)
48. ACE inhibitors are associated with which of the following adverse reactions?
A. dry cough
C. anemia

B. hypokalemia

D. hepatitis

(answer: A/reference p. 828 / MPL 60)

49. A 56 year old diabetic patient with a BP of 150/90 will most likely benefit from this
antihypertensive drugbecause it can prevent or delay progression of renal disease:
A. Betaxolol
C. Enalapril
B. Nifedipine
D. Methyldopa
(answer: C /reference p. 827 / MPL 90)
50. The efficacy of ARBs with regard to lowering BP is comparable to that of ACE
inhibitors. However, unlike ACE inhibitors, ARBs do not:
A. enhance BP lowering effect of other antihypertensives
B. produce cough.
C. fetopathic potential.
D. affect patients whose arterial BP is highly dependent on RAS.
(answer: B /reference p. 833 / MPL 60)

Which of the following is the preferred drug for treatment of hypertension during
pregnancy but may cause hemolytic anemia with prolonged use:
A. Minoxidil
C. Propranolol
B. Nifedipine
D. Methyldopa.
(answer: D /reference p. 879 / MPL 60)
52. The mechanism by which beta adrenergic receptor antagonist drugs reduce BP include all
of the following, EXCEPT:
A. delayed normalization of vascular resistance in the presence of a persistently reduced
cardiac output.
B. reduction of Angiotensin II production as a result of decreased renin secretion
C. altered sympathetic outflow at the CNS level
D. vasodilatation as direct effect on vascular wall
(answer: D /reference p. 883 / MPL 60)
53. A common untoward effect of the older less soluble sulfonamides:
A. agranulocytosis
C. hypersensitivity reaction
B. aplastic anemia
D. crystalluria
(answer: D /reference p. 1175 / MPL 90)
54. A synergistic ratio of 20:1 sulfonamide with another drug combination that provides greater
antibacterial spectrum / less bacterial resistance against systemic infections:
A. Silver : Sulfadiazine
C. sulfadoxine: Pyrimethamine
B. Sulfamethoxazole: Trimethoprim
D. Pyrimethamine : Sulfadiazine
(answer: B /reference p. 1177 / MPL 60)
55. An advantage of triazole antifungals over the imidazoles is:
A. greater inhibition of fungal sterol 14-a-demethylase
B. do not produce nausea and vomiting
C. less effect on human sterol synthesis
D. lesser toxicity due to rapid metabolism
(answer: C /reference p. 1301 / MPL 60)
56. A dermophyte-selective antifungal drug that utilizes sweat and transepidermal fluid loss as
its mode of transfer from keratin precursors to the stratum corneum:
A. Ketoconazole
C. Terbinafine
B. Griseofulvin
D. Potassium iodide
(answer: B /reference p. 1306 / MPL 60)

57. The first effective antiretroviral agent that is recommended in HIV-infected pregnancy to
prevent prenatal transmission of virus :
A. Zidovudine
C. Stavudine
B. Didanosine
D. Lamivudne
(answer: A /reference p. 1355 / MPL 90)
58. When faced with a patient with pernicious anemia, which of the following manifestations
would make you decide to prioritize on Vit B12 therapy instead of folic acid only?
A. presence of neurologic abnormalities
B. absence of alcoholism in the patient
C. patient is strictly vegetarian
D. a (+) macrocytic hyperchromic blood profile
(answer: A /reference p. 1508-1509 / MPL 90)
59. Epoietin alfa is effective in the treatment of anemias associated with:
A. chronic renal failure
B. pregnancy
C. mixed parasitism
D. a highly competitive athlete to improve performance
(answer: A /reference p. 1489-1491 / MPL 90)

This anticoagulant is the drug of choice for anticoagulation in pregnancy because it does
not cross the placenta:
A. Dicumarol
C. Heparin
B. Warfarin
D. Phenprocoumon
(answer: C /reference p. 1523 / MPL 90)
61. A pure estrogen antagonist that is mainly used as a fertility pill to induce ovulation:
A. Tamoxifen
C. Toremifene
B. Raloxifene
D. Clomiphene
(answer: D /reference p. 1613-1614 / MPL 90)
62. The major indication for testosterone treatment is:
A. male senescence
C. male hypogonadism
B. to improve athletic performance D. male contraception
(answer: C /reference p. 1635 -1643/ MPL 90)
63. Inflammatory skin lesions may be treated with this glucocorticoid through intralesional
A. triamcinolone hexacetonide
C. dexamethasone sodium phosphate
B. betamethasone dipropionate
D. hydrocortisone valerate
(answer: A /reference p. 1800 / MPL 90)
64. A commonly used parenteral anesthetic that is advantageous for procedures where rapid
return to a preoperative mental status is desired:
A. Ketamine
C. Etomidate
B. Propofol
D. Thiopental
(answer: B /reference p. 347 / MPL 60)
65. Sumatriptan is effective in the treatment of migraine headache by acting as:
A. selective agonist at 5-HT!D and 5HT1B receptors
B. agonist at alpha-1 & 2 adrenergic receptors
C. selective antagonist at dopaminergic receptors
D. antagonist at beta-1 & 2 adrenergic receptors
(answer: A /reference p. 280 / MPL 60)
66. Vectors for gene transfer include the following, except:

naked plasmid DNA

genetically engineered herpes simplex virus
genetically engineered Moloney murine leukemia retrovirus
RNA-coated gold particles
(answer: D/reference p. 82/ MPL 60)

67. Combination of penicillin and tetracycline for the treatment of acute tonsillo- pharyngitis may
result to:
A. greater incidence of superinfection
B. total bacteriostatic effect
C. an effective cure due to enhanced bactericidal activity
D. a state of indifference as regards antibacterial effect
(answer: A /reference p. 1163/ MPL 60)
68. The MOA of choloroquine in P. falciparum malaria is elimination of:
A. sporozoites
C. exoerythrocytic schizonts
B. erythrocytic stage
D. secondary tissue schizonts
(answer: B /reference p. 1077 / MPL 60)
69. A Filipino OCW went to a South African jungle region to work where cholorquine resistant P.
falciparum is endemic. He took a drug for prophylaxis but he still developed severe attack
of P. vivax malaria. The drug he took for prophylaxis was most likely:
A. cholorquine
C. proguanil
B. atovaquone
D. mefloquine
(answer: A/reference p. 1079 / MPL 60)
70. A 51 year old female teacher who has just finished chemotherapy for lung cancer is admitted
in the hospital for fever and chills. Gram stain of blood reveals gram negative bacilli.
History revealed she developed urticarial rashes with breathing difficulty following a
parenteral penicillin injection for an infection more than 3 months ago. Which of the
following is the most appropriate antibiotic for empiric treatment of this patient?
A. Piperacillin
C. Imipenem +cilastatin
B. Aztreonam
D. Ceftriaxone
(answer: B /reference p. 1214 / MPL 60)
71. One of the mechanisms associated with bacterial resistance to penicillin is :
A. ability of bacteria to produce an acid medium
B. increase renal excretion of penicillin
C. bacterial production of lyzozymes
D. alteration of PBPS
(answer: D /reference p. 1192/ MPL 90)
72. Which of the following cephalosporins would have increased activity against Bacteroides
A. Cefoxitin
C. Cefaclor
B. Cefamandole
D. Cephalothin
(answer: A /reference p. 1210/ MPL 60)
73. Toxic effects of corticosteroids do not include:
A. salt retention
C. hypoglycemia
B. inhibition of growth
D. hypertension
(answer: C /reference p. 1667/ MPL 90)
74. The use of epinephrine in anaphylactic shock is an example of:
A. physiological antagonism
C. dispositional antagonism
B. chemical antagonism
D. receptor antagonism
(answer: A /reference p. 73/ MPL 60)

75. Epinephrine when mixed with anesthetics like procaine will:

A. facilitate their distribution along nerve endings
B. stimulate wound repair
C. retard their systemic absorption
D. promote hemostasis
(answer: C /reference p. 372/ MPL 90)
76. Which of the following statements is not true regarding dobutamine?
A. it activates dopaminergic receptors in renal and mesenteric vascular beds
B. it is used to increase cardiac output in patients with severe cardiac failure
C. it is administered by IV infusion
D. it is a selective agonist at B1 receptors at low doses
(answer: A /reference p. 228/ MPL 60)
77. A 56-year-old male executive with a 2 year history of hypertension is given prazosin which is
A. calcium channel antagonist
C. beta adrenergic antagonist
B. alpha adrenergic antagonist
D. sodium channel antagonist
(answer: B /reference p. 246/ MPL 60)
78. Which of the following drugs act within sympathetic neurons to depress neurotransmitter
release thus is used to treat hypertension?
A. metoprolol
C. methyldopa
B. phentolamine
D. nifedipine
(answer: C /reference p. 877/ MPL 60)
79. A 55 year old male alcoholic with early liver cirrhosis requires suturing for a deep
scalp laceration. Which of the following local anesthetic could potentially be toxic
to this patient?
A. benzocaine
C. procaine
B. tetracaine
D. bupivacaine
(answer: D /reference p. 374/ MPL 60)
80. Which of the following is the drug of choice for a 14-year-old male who abruptly
experienced impairment of consciousness with blank stare lasting over 30 seconds?
A. Phenobarbital
C. Clonazepam
B. Diazepam
D. Phenytoin
(answer: C /reference p. 538/ MPL 60)
81. An 18 year old female epileptic who is on maintenance medication is noted to have
increasing drowsiness and inattentiveness. She has gingival hyperplasia and ataxic
gait. What medication is she taking?
A. Phenytoin
C. Carbamazepine
B. Phenobarbital
D. Valproate
(answer: A/reference p. 530/ MPL 90)
82. Which of the following diuretics should not be used in the presence of hyperkalemia?
A. acetazolamide
C. chlorothiazide
B. ethacrynic acid
D. spironolactone
(answer: D /reference p. 780/ MPL 90)
83. Which of the following diuretics will inhibit Na+/K+/2Cl- cotransporters in the
ascending limb of Henles loop?
A. chlorthalidone
C. acetazolamide
B. ethacrynic acid
D. mannitol
(answer: B /reference p. 769/ MPL 90)

84. The cytoprotective action of misoprostol on the GI mucosa is because it:

A. neutralizes the acid secretion
B. coats the mucosa
C. enhance secretion of mucin and bicarbonate
D. relieves ulcer symptoms
(answer: C /reference p. 1011/ MPL 70)
85. The mechanism of action of omeprazole is mainly based on its action on:
A. H+ - K+ - ATPase
B. gastric mucosal carbonic anhydrase
C. H2 receptors of parietal cells
D. ulcer craters
(answer: A /reference p. 1007/ MPL 90)
86. Which of the following laxatives is not properly matched with its mechanism of action?
A. lactulose: non absorbable sugar which draws water into the lumen
B. mineral oil: penetrates and softens the stool
C. docusate sodium: 5HT4 receptor agonist
D. methylcellulose: retention of intraluminal fluid by hydrophilic mechanism
(answer: C /reference p. 1046/ MPL 60)
87. The prokinetic effect of dromperidone is due to:
A. increased availability of acetylcholine from myenteric motor neurons
B. dopamine (D2) receptor antagonism
C. serotonin (5HT4) receptor antagonism
D. muscarinic receptor activation
(answer: B A/reference p. 1024/ MPL 60)
88. What is the on/off phenomenon associated with prolonged used of levodopa?
A. the duration of effect exceeds the plasma life time of drug
B. with time, the buffering capacity of drug is lost
C. fluctuation in clinical response irrespective of drug levels
D. improvement of clinical response after a drug holiday
(answer: C /reference p. 557/ MPL 60)
89. Spasticity can be alleviated with which of the following drugs?
A. baclofen
C. selegiline
B. bromocriptine
D. amantadine
(answer: A /reference p. 565/ MPL 60)
90. The drug of choice for a serious digitalis induced arrhythmia is:
A. quinidine
C. antidigoxine Fab fragments
B. atropine
D. cardiac pacing
(answer: C /reference p. 958/ MPL 60)
91. Which of the following is leukotriene receptor antagonist?
A. montelukast
C. cromolyn
B. zileuton
D. nedocromil
(answer: A /reference p. 740/ MPL 60)
92. The drug that is proven to be effective in the immediate treatment of severe asthma
exacerbation is:
A. inhaled glucocorticoids
B. inhaled B-adrenergic agonist
C. aminophylline
D. aminophylline + B-adrenergic agonist

(answer: B /reference p. 747/ MPL 90)

93. Treatment of hypotonicity in SIADH include which of the following?
A. unrestricted dietary salt
C. demeclocycline
B. spironolactone
D. intranasal desmopressin
(answer: C /reference p. 803/ MPL 60)
94. Prevention of transplant rejection by cyclosporine is due to which of the following
A. suppression of humoral immunity
B. suppression of T cell dependent immune mechanism
C. inhibition of innate immune response
D. inhibition of B lymphocyte production of antibody
(answer: B /reference p.1466/ MPL 60)
95. Which of the following immunosuppressive drugs is not correctly matched to its toxicity?
A. corticosteroid: avascular necrosis of bone
B. tacrolimus: diabetes mellitus
C. azathioprine: increased susceptibility to infections
D. cyclosporin: bone marrow depression
(answer: D /reference p.1469/ MPL 60)
96. Aminoglycosides are excreted from the body by which route?
A. tubular secretion
C. glomerular filtration
B. biliary secretion
D. hepatic metabolism
(answer: C /reference p. 1226/ MPL 90)
97. Which of the following aminoglycosides is most resistant to inactivation by aminoglycosideinactivating enzymes?
A. gentamicin
C. streptomycin
B. tobramycin
D. amikacin
(answer: D /reference p. 1233/ MPL 60)
98. Which of the following is used as prophylaxis of meningococcal disease?
A. rifampin
C. erythromycin
B. gentamicin
D. clindamycin
(answer: A /reference p. 1278/ MPL 90)
99. Which of the following is not a toxic effect of amikacin?
A. hearing impairment due to loss of hair cells in the cochlea
B. neuromuscular blockade
C. postural imbalance due to irreversible vestibular damage
D. nephrotoxicity
(answer: C /reference p. 1228/ MPL 70)
100. Which of the following oral antidiabetic drugs does not cause hypoglycemia?
A. metformin
C. chlorpropamide
B. repaglinide
D. gliclazide
(answer: A /reference p. 1705/ MPL 70)


Goodman & Gilmans Pharmacological Basis of Therapeutics, (10 th Edition)