LIC AAO 2016 MODEL TEST PAPER

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TEST I – REASONING ABILITY
Directions (1-5): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.
(i) M, D, K, R, T, J and H are seven members of a family. Each of them have a different professions
Doctor, Lawyer, Engineer, Teacher, Manager, Architect and Chartered Accountant, not necessarily in
the same order. There are two married couples in the family.
(ii) D is the Lawyer. R, the Architect is brother of T who is the Manager. The Chartered Accountant, is
married to the Doctor. No lady is either an Engineer or a Chartered Accountant or a Manager. J is
sister of K who is the Engineer. H is a married lady whose husband is not the Lawyer, the only other
married male.
1. Who is the teacher?
(a) J
(b) M
(c) H
(d) M or H
(e) None of these
2. Which of the following pairs is one of the married couples?
(a) JK
(b) MH
(c) DH
(d) MJ
(e) None of these
3. How is K related to D?
(a) Brother
(b) Uncle
(c) Son
(d) Brother-in-law
(e) None of these
4. What is H's profession?
(a) Teacher
(b) Chartered Accountant
(c) Doctor
(d) Data inadequate
(e) None of these
5. How many female members are there in the family?
(a) Two

(b) Three
(c) Four
(d) Data inadequate
(e) None of these
Directions (6-7): Study the given information carefully and answer the given questions:
In a group of six people; P, Q, R, S, T and U, each are having a different weight. S is heavier than Q. R
is lighter than only T and P. Q is not the lightest. P is not the heaviest.
6. Who amongst the following is the second heaviest?
(a) R
(b) S
(c) U
(d) T
(e) P
7. Who amongst the following is the lightest?
(a) T
(b) P
(c) R
(d) U
(e) None of these
Directions (8-12): In the following questions, the symbols @, ©, %, # and ⋆ are used with the
meaning as illustrated below:
‘P © Q’ means ‘P is not greater than Q’.
‘P # Q’ means ‘P is not smaller than Q’.
‘P ⋆ Q’ means ‘P is neither smaller than nor equal to Q’.
‘P @ Q’ means ‘P is neither greater than nor equal to Q’.
‘P % Q’ means ‘P is neither greater than nor smaller than Q’.
Now in each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the
two conclusions I and II given below them is / are definitely true?
8. Statements:
R % J, J @ D, D ⋆ F, J % G
Conclusions:
I. D % R
II. D @ R
III. G ⋆ F
(a) None follows
(b) Both Conclusions I and II are true.
(c) Either Conclusion I or III is true.
(d) Neither Conclusion I nor III is true.
(e) None of these
9. Statements:

M ⋆ T, T @ K, K © N, K # S
Conclusions:
I. N ⋆ T
II. N ⋆ M
III. N © M
(a) Only Conclusion I is true.
(b) Both Conclusions I and II are true.
(c) Either Conclusion I or III is true.
(d) Neither Conclusion I nor III is true.
(e) Only Conclusion I and either II or III are true.
10. Statements:
D # B, B ⋆ T, T % M, B @ S
Conclusions:
I. T © D
II. M © D
III. S ⋆ T
(a) Only Conclusion II is true.
(b) Both Conclusions I and II are true.
(c) Either Conclusion I or III is true.
(d) Neither Conclusion I nor III is true.
(e) None of these.
11. Statements:
H © W, W % M, M @ B, M ⋆ S
Conclusions:
I. B ⋆ H
II. M # H
III. H @ S
(a) Only Conclusion I is true.
(b) Both Conclusions I and II are true.
(c) Either Conclusion I or III is true.
(d) Neither Conclusion I nor III is true.
(e) Both Conclusions II and III are true.
12. Statements:
K @ V, V © N, N # F, T ⋆ N
Conclusions:
I. F @ V
II. K @ N
III. T ⋆ K
(a) Only Conclusion I is true.
(b) Both Conclusions I and II are true.
(c) Either Conclusion I or III is true.
(d) Neither Conclusion I nor III is true.
(e) Both Conclusions II and III are true.

Directions (13-17): In the question below are given four statements followed by four conclusions
numbered I, II, III and IV. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at
variance from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decided which of the given
conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.
13. Statements:
All drums are tubes.
Some tubes are pipes.
No pipe is stick.
Some sticks are rubbers.
Conclusions:
I. Some rubbers are tubes.
II. Some drums are sticks.
III. Some sticks are definitely not pipes.
IV. Some sticks are tubes.
(a) None follows
(b) Only I follows
(c) I and II follow
(d) I and III follow
(e) Only III follows
14. Statements:
All beads are rings.
All rings are bangles.
All bangles are tyres.
All tyres are pendants.
Conclusions:
I. Some pendants are definitely beads.
II. Some tyres are rings.
III. At least some bangles are beads.
IV. Some pendant are rings.
(a) I and II follow
(b) I, II and III follow
(c) II, III and IV follow
(d) I, III and IV follow
(e) All follows
15. Statements:
Some desks are fruits.
All fruits are flowers.
No flower is branch.
Some branches are roots.
Conclusions:
I. At least some roots are flowers.
II. No desk is branch.
III. Some flowers are definitely desks.
IV. Some branches are desks.
(a) Only either II or IV follow

(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)

Only III follows
Either II or IV and III follow
III and IV follow
None of these

16. Statements:
Some roads are buses.
All buses are trains.
Some trains are trucks.
All trucks are kites.
Conclusions:
I. Some trucks are roads.
II. All kites are buses.
III. At least some trains are roads.
IV. Some kites are trains.
(a) None follows
(b) Only I follows
(c) Only II follows
(d) Only III follows
(e) None of these
17. Statements:
Some pens are rooms.
All rooms are walls.
Some walls are bricks.
All bricks are states.
Conclusions:
I. Some states are walls.
II. Some walls are pens.
III. Some bricks are definitely not rooms.
IV. At least some states are rooms.
(a) I and III follow
(b) II and III follow
(c) I and II follow
(d) III and IV follow
(e) None of these
Directions (18-20): The questions below each consist of two statements numbered I and II given
below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statement are sufficient to answer
the question. Read both the statements and give answer.
18. Towards which direction is P from R?
I. S is towards West of M and North – East of R
II. P is towards South of S.
(a) Data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement
II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
(b) Data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement
I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

(c) Data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the
question.
(d) Data even in both statement I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.
(e) Data in statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.
19. Who among five boys Arnav, Qutub, Krish, Nitin and Vikram each having different height is
second tallest among them?
I) Only Qutub is taller than Krish.
II) Nitin and Vikram are shorter than Arnav.
(a) Data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II
alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
(b) Data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I
alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
(c) Data in statement I alone or in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question.
(d) Data in both the statements I and II are not sufficient to answer the question.
(e) Data in both the statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.
20. What is the code for ‘waste’ in the code language?
I) In the code language ‘waste is butter’ is written as ‘ke mo te’ and ‘butter is good’ is written as ‘te
ke ro’.
II) In the code language ‘waste are you doing’ is written as ‘la mo pa je’ and ‘waste is the shadow’ is
written as ‘cha fa mo te’.
(a) Data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II
alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
(b) Data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I
alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
(c) Data in statement I alone or in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question.
(d) Data in both the statements I and II are not sufficient to answer the question.
(e) Data in both the statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

Directions (21-25): Study the following information carefully and answer information carefully and
answer these question.
Eight family members A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a circular table, facing the center but
not necessarily in the same order.
1. F, the wife of D is sitting third to right of C.
2. A is the son of H. A is sitting second to left of D. D is not an immediate neighbor of either F or C.
No male is an immediate neighbor of D.
3. G sits second to left of D’s son. Only two person sit between H and A’s brother. Neither C nor D is
the brother of A.
4. D’s son and the wife of D’s son are immediate neighbours of each other.
5. F is the mother of H. F is not an immediate neighbor of B and G.
6. G is the sister of E.
21. Which of the following statements regarding H is definitely correct?
(a) H is male
(b) H is the cousin of C
(c) Both the immediate neighbours of H are males

(d) H is the daughter – in – law of D
(e) H is the father of A
22. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the given arrangement and so form
a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
(a) B
(b) C
(c) H
(d) G
(e) F
23. Based on the given arrangement, how is A related to D?
(a) Grandfather
(b) Son
(c) Grandson
(d) Daughter – in – law
(e) Cannot be determined
24. Who amongst the following sits exactly between H and F?
(a) D’s wife
(b) D’s son
(c) C
(d) B
(e) A
25. Who sits seconds to the left of G?
(a) A’s brother
(b) G’s mother
(c) D
(d) B’s father
(e) A’s aunt
Directions (26-30): These questions are based on the data given below.
Six people – A through F are sitting in row facing the same direction. Each of them is a topper in
different subject among – Chemistry, Biology, Mathematics, History, English and Physics not
necessarily in the given order. Each of them has a different roll number among 11 through 16 further
information regarding their sitting arrangement is as follows.
(a) The sum of the roll numbers of C and B is 26. Topper of Mathematics is sitting adjacent to A. A
and C are not sitting at the extreme ends and also A is sitting three places away to the left of C.
(b) The persons who topped in Biology and History are sitting adjacent to each other. The sum of the
roll numbers of the topper of English and C is 27 and they both are sitting adjacent to each other.
(c) A is sitting adjacent to the person whose roll number 16 who is not sitting at the extreme ends.
(d) The person who topped in Physics is sitting at the extreme left. The sum of the roll numbers of
the persons who topped in History and Biology is 28
(e) C’s roll number is not 13 and F is sitting at the extreme right. B is three places away to the left of
E. The roll number of the person who topped in Biology is not 15.
26. In which position is E sitting from the extreme left?
(a) 2

(b) 3
(c) 6
(d) 1
(e) None of these
27. The student whose roll number is 11 is the topper is______
(a) Mathematics
(b) Physics
(c) Chemistry
(d) English
(e) None of these
28. Who is sitting two places away to the right of D?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) F
(e) None of these
29. Whose roll number is 12?
(a) B
(b) A
(c) E
(d) Cannot be determined
(e) D
30. Who is the topper in Chemistry?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) F

TEST II – QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE
Directions (31-33): What will come in the place of the question mark in the following questions?
31. 12 × 184 ÷ 23 + 26 – 73 =? + 2
(a) 32
(b) 47
(c) 76
(d) 43
(e) None of these
32. 4 + 4.44 + (4 × 11.1) + 4.04 + (80% of 555) =?
(a) 500.88
(b) 577.2

(c) 495.22
(d) 472.88
(e) None of these
33. 4 × 52 - 32 × 7 + 62 =? + 24
(a) 72
(b) 82
(c) 92
(d) 42
(e) None of these
34. What approximate value should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following
question? (Note: You are not expected to calculate the exact value.)
4502 ÷ (180.2 ÷ 9 + 5) × 1.979 =?
(a) 360
(b) 630
(c) 550
(d) 310
(e) 540
35. A train starts from Delhi with a certain number of passengers. At Ghaziabad 110 get down and
100 get in. At Aligrah 50% get down and 25 get in. At Kanpur half of them get down and 50 get
in. When the train leaves Kanpur there are 200 passengers. How many did board the train at
Delhi?
(a) 300
(b) 400
(c) 560
(d) 600
(e) None of these
36. Mrs. Sheela spends 18% of her monthly income for the children’s education. She spends 32% of
her monthly income in household expenses and 12% in travelling. She spends 45% of the
remaining amount in gambling and manages to save only Rs. 7315 at the end of the month.
What is Mrs. Sheela’s monthly income?
(a) Rs. 36000
(b) Rs. 50000
(c) Rs. 35000
(d) Cannot be determined
(e) None of these
37. In the month of April, Rahul’s average expenditure for the first 10 days was Rs 800 per day. If his
average expenditure for the next 10 days decreases by Rs25 and after 10 days the average
expenditure again decrease by Rs.25 and he earns Rs 25, 000 per month. Calculate his savings in
the month of April.
(a) Rs. 1500
(b) Rs. 2000
(c) Rs. 1850

(d) Rs. 1950
(e) Rs. 1750
38. In a class of 80 students and 20 teachers, each student got sweets which was x% of total number
of students, while every teacher got sweets which was 2x% of total no. of students. If 50% of the
sweets given to the all the teachers were also donated to homeless, what is the value of ‘x’, if
560 sweets were bought in total?
(a) 8
(b) 15
(c) 2.5
(d) 10
(e) 5
39. If A : B = 8 : 15, B : C = 5 : 8 and C : D = 4 : 5, then A : D is equal to –
(a) 7 : 12
(b) 15 : 4
(c) 4 : 15
(d) 12 : 7
(e) None of these
40. Mr Shridharan invested money in two schemes A and B, offering compound interest @ 8 p.c.p.a
and 9 p.c.p.a respectively. If the total amount of interest accrued through the two schemes
together in two years was Rs. 4818.30 and the total amount invested was Rs. 27,000, what was
the amount invested in scheme A?
(a) Rs. 15000
(b) Rs. 13500
(c) Rs. 12000
(d) Cannot be determined
(e) None of these
41. Janta express left for New Delhi, increasing its speed in each hour, it started its journey from
Lucknow, but after four hours of its journey it met with an accident. Its speed in the fourth hour
was 7/5 times that of the third hour and the speed in the third hour was 10/7 times that of the
second hour and in the second hour it was 7/5 times that of the first hour. If it would have been
travelled with the half of the speed that of the third hour, then it would have gone 160 km less in
the same time (i.e., in four hours). The average speed of the train during the journey of 4 hours
was:
(a) 32 km/hr
(b) 60 km/hr
(c) 90 km/hr
(d) 68 km/hr
(e) None of these
42. There are three Taps A, B and C in a tank. They can fill the tank in 10 hrs, 20 hrs and 25 hrs
respectively. At first, all of them are opened simultaneously. Then after 2 hours, tap C is closed
and A and B are kept running. After the 4th hour, tap B is also closed. The remaining work is
done by Tap A alone. Find the percentage of the work done by Tap A by itself.
(a) 32%

(b) 52%
(c) 75%
(d) None of these
(e) 68%
43. A and B can finish a work in 10 days while B and C can do it in 18 days. A started the work,
worked for 5 days, then B worked for 10 days and the remaining work was finished by C in 15
days. In how many days could C alone have finished the whole work?
(a) 30 days
(b) 15 days
(c) 45 days
(d) 24 days
(e) None of these
44. A started a business investing Rs. 30,000. After 2 months B joined him with a capital of Rs.
45,000. After another 2 months C joined them with a capital of Rs. 67,500. At the end of the
year, they made a profit of Rs 13,500. Find the share of B.
(a) Rs. 4500
(b) Rs. 9000
(c) Rs. 3600
(d) Rs. 4680
(e) None of these
45. In how many different ways can the letters of the word ‘MATHEMATICS’ be arranged so that the
vowels always come together?
(a) 72060
(b) 110870
(c) 838460
(d) 120960
(e) None of these
46. What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following number series?
15
12
17
10
?
8
21
6
(a) 3
(b) 7
(c) 21
(d) 19
(e) None of these
47. In the following number series only one number is wrong. Find out the wrong number.
48
72
108 162 243 366
(a) 72
(b) 108
(c) 162
(d) 243
(e) None of these

48. What will come in the place of question mark (?) in the following number series?
12,
24,
72,
144, 432, ?
(a) 786
(b) 678
(c) 478
(d) 645
(e) 864
49. Directions: The question given below consists of a question and two statements marked A and B
given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to
answer the questions. Read both the statements and give answer.
A turtle is crossing a field. What is the total distance (in meters) passed by turtle?
(A) The average speed of the turtle is 2 meters per minute
(B) Had the turtle walked 1 meter per minute faster than his average speed it would have
finished 40 minutes earlier
(a) Data in statement A alone is sufficient to answer the question.
(b) Data in statement B alone is sufficient to answer the question.
(c) Data either in statement A alone or in statement B alone is sufficient to answer the question.
(d) Data in both statements A and B together are not sufficient to answer the question.
(e) Data in both statements A and B together are necessary to answer the question.

50. Below question is followed by two statements A and B. you are to determine whether the data
given in the statement is sufficient for answering the question. You should use the data and your
knowledge of Mathematics to choose between the possible answers.
In how many days 12 men can complete a piece of work?
A. If 8 women can complete the same pieces of work in 16 days.
B. If 18 children can complete the same piece of work in 45 days.
(a) The statement A alone is sufficient to answer the question, but the statement B alone is not
sufficient.
(b) The statement B alone is sufficient to answer the question, but the statement A alone is not
sufficient.
(c) Either the statement A alone of statement B alone is sufficient to answer the question.
(d) Both the statements are not sufficient to answer the question.
(e) Both statements A and B together are needed to answer the question.

Directions (51-55): Study the following Table carefully and answer the questions given below:
THE ANNUAL INCOME OF 6 PERSONS OVER THE YEARS (IN LACS)
Persons
Years
Harish Indira Jasmeet Kiran
2001 1.44

1.45

2.00

1.68

Lalita Manish
1.80

2.50

2002 1.50

1.56

2.12

1.74

1.92

2.61

2003 1.56

1.64

2.25

1.92

2.00

2.68

2004 1.62

1.70

2.30

2.00

2.11

2.73

2005 1.68

1.84

2.33

2.05

2.18

2.80

2006 1.73

1.95

2.40

2.17

2.20

2.85

51. What is the respective ratio of the annual income of Indira and Manish in the year 2005?
(a) 23 : 35
(b) 23 : 37
(c) 32 : 35
(d) 43 : 70
(e) 33 : 53
52. The average annual income earned by Indira over the given years is approximately what percent
of the average income earned by Jasmeet over the given years?
(a) 10.15
(b) 75.78
(c) 13.33
(d) 24.5
(e) 71.25
53. What is the approximate average annual income of Harish over the given years?
(a) Rs. 1.6222 lakhs
(b) Rs. 1.88 lakhs
(c) Rs. 2.588 lakhs
(d) Rs. 1.562 lakhs
(e) Rs. 1.588 lakhs
54. What is approximate percent increase in the annual income of Kiran in the year 2004 from that
of the previous year?
(a) 5.5
(b) 6
(c) 4
(d) 7
(e) 2.5
55. In the year 2002 who amongst the given people got the highest increase (in percentage) in their
annual salary from the previous year?
(a) Manish
(b) Harish
(c) Lalita
(d) Indira
(e) Kiran

Directions (56-60): Study the following bar graph carefully and answer the question given below.
4000
3500

3500
3000

3000
2500

2500

2007

2008

Price of Rice

2500
2000
2000
1500
1000
500
0
2006

2009

2010

56. By what percent, price of rice in 2010 is more than price of rice in 2006?
(a) 75%
(b) 50%
(c) 42%
(d) 38%
(e) None of these
57. Which year experienced highest percentage hike in the price of rice?
(a) 2006
(b) 2007
(c) 2008
(d) 2010
(e) None of these
58. Find the difference between price of 14 quintal rice in 2008 and that of same quantity in 2010.
(a) Rs. 34000
(b) Rs. 14000
(c) Rs. 42800
(d) Rs. 38000
(e) None of these
59. A person purchased 20 quintal rice in 2006 and 14 quintal in 2010. How much did he pay for the
total?
(a) Rs. 12800
(b) Rs. 89000
(c) Rs. 38000
(d) Rs. 99000
(e) None of these

60. How many years experienced more than 10% increment in the price of rice?
(a) 4
(b) 2
(c) 1
(d) 3
(e) None of these

TEST III – GENERAL AWARENESS AND CURRENT AFFAIRS
61. How many beaches from India have been selected among the top ten beaches of Asia
according to Travel website Tripadvisor?
(a) 2
(b) 4
(c) 3
(d) 1
(e) None of these
62. Name the sportsperson who has joined UNICEF’S ‘Team Swachh’ initiative?
(a) Sania Mirza
(b) Saina Nehwal
(c) Mary Kom
(d) Sachin Tendulkar
(e) Vijender Singh
63. Rajesh Pillai recently passed away, he was related to which field?
(a) Sports
(b) Journalism
(c) Business
(d) Politics
(e) None of the above
64. Which car company has launched India’s first digital car outlet?
(a) Toyota
(b) Hyundai
(c) TATA
(d) Ford
(e) Nissan
65. Samsung has recently won a $119.6 million patent case against which company?
(a) Amazon
(b) Apple
(c) BlackBerry
(d) Oracle
(e) LG
66. Where is Simhasth Kumbh Mela 2016 going to be held?
(a) Nasik

(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)

Allahabad
Ujjain
Haridwar
Puri

67. The 7th Lamitye Military Exercise which came to an end on 28th Feb, 2016 was a joint
exercise between which countries?
(a) India and Japan
(b) India and Bangladesh
(c) India and Sri Lanka
(d) India and Seychelles
(e) India and Mauritius
68. Who is appointed as new chairperson of National Human Rights Commission (NHRC)?
(a) K Balakrishnan
(b) Panna Lal (P.L.) Punia
(c) H. L. Dattu
(d) Dr Rameshwar Oraon
(e) Lalitha Kumaramangalam
69. Where has the first FIFA World Football Museum opened?
(a) Zurich
(b) Paris
(c) Berlin
(d) London
(e) Lisbon
70. Higher Education Financing Agency (HEFA) will be set up with an initial base capital of?
(a) Rs. 500 Cr
(b) Rs. 200 Cr
(c) Rs. 1000 Cr
(d) 2000 Cr
(e) 1500 Cr
71. Which country claimed to have developed an anti-tank weapon that could turn the tanks
into boiling pumpkin?
(a) Pakistan
(b) Iran
(c) Israel
(d) North Korea
(e) South Korea
72. Who was elected as the President of Kosovo in February 2016?
(a) Tifete Jahjaga
(b) Hashim Thaci
(c) Jakup Krasniqi
(d) Behgjet Pacolli
(e) Ibrahim Rugova

73. Which state government suggested making sand freely available for the construction within
the state?
(a) Telangana
(b) Rajasthan
(c) Andhra Pradesh
(d) Madhya Pradesh
(e) Uttar Pradesh
74. Which State Cabinet in February 2016 approved a proposal to set up a Law Commission to
aid and advise the government on legal reforms?
(a) Jharkhand
(b) Odisha
(c) Bihar
(d) West Bengal
(e) Maharashtra
75. The 2016 G-20 Summit which is the 10th such Summit started in February 2016 at which
place?
(a) Canada
(b) Australia
(c) China
(d) India
(e) USA
76. MK Sharma has been appointed as the Chairman of which beverage company?
(a) Limtex
(b) United Spirits
(c) Tata Global Beverages
(d) United Breweries Group
(e) Khoday Group
77. ______ satellite will be launched by ISRO for its first solar mission in 2016.
(a) Ravi-L1
(b) Aditya-L1
(c) Genesis
(d) SDO
(e) Surya-X2
78. When is Marathi language Day celebrated in Maharashtra and Goa?
(a) February 26
(b) February 27
(c) February 28
(d) March 23
(e) April 3
79. When is International Polar Bear Day observed?
(a) February 27

(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)

February 28
March 1
March 2
April 9

80. When does the Dominican Republic celebrate its Independence day?
(a) February 25
(b) February 26
(c) February 27
(d) March 1
(e) March 2
81. As per RBI, which of the following categories of advances are included in “Sensitive Sector”?
(a) Advances to Real Estate
(b) Advances against Stock Exchange securities
(c) advances against commodities
(d) All of the above
(e) None of the above
82. What does the body of the Association of National Exchanges Members of India (ANMI)
consist of?
(a) Bankers and SEBI
(b) SEBI and IBA
(c) Brokers operating in the national Exchanges
(d) Bankers, SEBI, IBA and RBI
(e) All of the above
83. Where is the headquarters of the Bank for International Settlement (BIS) situated?
(a) Manila
(b) Chicago
(c) Basle, Switzerland
(d) None of these
(e) All of the above
84. Banks are focusing on financing small borrowers through Self Help Groups. Which of the
following is correct in this regard?
(a) Financing Self Help Groups are treated as financing to weaker sections within the
Priority Sector
(b) Financing of self Help Groups promotes the habit of thrift and concept of credit
management
(c) Financing such activities is cost effective and will facilitate easy flow of credit to rural
sector
(d) All of the above
(e) Both (b) & (c)
85. What will be the interest rate for the domestic investors on the sovereign gold bond that will
be issued by RBI from 26 Nov, 2015?
(a) 2%

(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)

2.5%
2.75%
3%
3.8%

86. What was the purpose behind setting up of The Exim Bank?
(a) Functioning as a specialized institution for providing comprehensive credits on
International competitive terms for export of capital goods, engineering goods,
manufactured produced, protects and services
(b) Offering advisory services to exports for non – traditional exports
(c) Providing refinance facilities in regard to exports financing by banks and other financial
institutions
(d) Only (a) & (b)
(e) All of the above
87. RBI has asked banks to make a plan to provide banking services to all villages having a
population up to 2000. This directive issued by the RBI will fall in which of the following
categories:
(a) Plan for Financial Inclusion
(b) Efforts to meet the targets of Priority Sector Lending
(c) Extension of Relief Packages to the Farmers
(d) Plan for opening more rural branches
(e) All of the above
88. For which of the following Loan Products “Teaser Loan” are offered by Banks?
(a) Education Loans
(b) Commercial Loans
(c) Loans against security of Gold
(d) Home Loans
(e) All of the above
89. Under provisions of which one of the following Acts, the RBI issues directives to the banks in
India?
(a) RBI Act
(b) Banking Regulation Act
(c) Essential Commodities Act
(d) Both (a) and (b) above
(e) None of the above
90. Ten Rupee notes contain the signature of whom?
(a) Finance Secretary, Gol
(b) Chairman, SBI
(c) Governor, RBI
(d) Finance Minister, Gol
(e) None of the above

TEST IV – COMPUTER KNOWLEDGE
91. What are those computers known as which are inexpensive in terms of cost & do not
possess a diskette drive?
(a) Home computers
(b) Diskless computers
(c) Dedicated computers
(d) General computers
(e) None of these
92. Which option in excel, allows users to bring together copies of workbooks that other users
have worked on independently.
(a) Copying
(b) Merging
(c) Pasting
(d) Compiling
(e) None of these
93. Which command is used to undo a step in MS word?
(a) Ctrl+Z
(b) Ctrl+P
(c) Ctrl+O
(d) Ctrl+I
(e) Ctrl+U
94. Which key is used to set text on the page in such a way that there is equal alignment on the
left and right side of the page?
(a) Ctrl+R
(b) Ctrl+L
(c) Ctrl+J
(d) Ctrl+S
(e) Ctrl+I
95. Which of the following mentioned below options produces high quality output?
(a) Impact printer
(b) Non-impact printer
(c) Plotter
(d) Both (a) and (b)
(e) Non-plotter
96. The advantage of XML documents one should
(i) It allows processing of data stored in web-pages
(ii) It uses meaningful tags which aids in understanding the nature of a document
(iii) Is simpler than HTML
(iv) It separates presentation and structure of document
(a) i, ii, and iii
(b) i, ii, and iv
(c) ii, iii, and iv

(d) i, iii, and iv
(e) None of these
97. What is the advantage of a dialup connection?
(a) It utilizes broadband technology
(b) It utilizes existing telephone service
(c) It uses a router for security
(d) Modem speeds are very fast
(e) None of these
98. When a program is run using coding in HTML script, what runs in the backend and frontend
respectively?
(a) Notepad - Internet explorer
(b) Notepad - Msn Messenger
(c) Ms-word – Internet Explorer
(d) Both (a) and (b)
(e) None of these
99. _____ is collection of web-pages and ________is the very first page that we see on opening
of a web-site.
(a) Home-page, web-page
(b) Web-site, Home-page
(c) Web-page, Home-page
(d) Web-page, Web-site
(e) None of these
100. What shall be the course of action of a user who receives an email from an unknown
sender?
(a) Forward it to the police immediately
(b) Delete it without opening it
(c) Open it and respond to them saying you don’t know them
(d) Reply and ask them for their personal information
(e) Reply and tell them you want to keep in touch with them
101. Which of the following would comprise of a billion memory locations?
(a) Kilobyte
(b) Megabyte
(c) Gigabyte
(d) Terabyte
(e) None of these
102. Choose the largest unit of storage among the following?
(a) GB
(b) KB
(c) MB
(d) TB
(e) None of these

103. What is the process of condensing data for exhibiting as specific output known as?
(a) Calculating
(b) Recording
(c) Merging
(d) Summarizing
(e) None of these
104. What is the term used to denote the number of characters which can be stored in a given
physical space?
(a) Word length
(b) Byte
(c) Data density
(d) Filed
(e) None of these
105. Which of the following includes programs and instructions in a computer?
(a) Hardware
(b) Icon
(c) Information
(d) Software
(e) None of these
106. A joystick is primarily used for which of the following?
(a) Printing text
(b) Drawing pictures
(c) Entering text
(d) Computer gaming
(e) Sound control
107. Which of the following is storage device that uses rigid, permanently installed magnetic
disks to store data/information?
(a) Floppy diskette
(b) Hard disk
(c) Permanent disk
(d) Optical disk
(e) None of these
108. Identify the famous video calling software among the following.
(a) DropBox
(b) Mediafire
(c) Skype
(d) Epic
(e) Powerpoint
109. Which IT giant now owns Picasa image sharing software?
(a) Google
(b) Microsoft
(c) Apple

(d) Infosys
(e) Oracle
110. It is a software that can assist someone who cannot use their hands for computer input.
Which of the following is it?
(a) Audio digitizer
(b) Video conferencing
(c) Speech recognition
(d) Synthesizer
(e) None of these
111. The computer related storage device(s) used for the purpose of making permanent record:
(a) CD-ROM
(b) Floppy disk
(c) Hard Disk
(d) WORM Drive
(e) All of the above
112. Which computer has been designed to be as compact as possible?
(a) Minicomputer
(b) Supercomputer
(c) Microcomputer
(d) Mainframe
(e) None of the above
113. Which of the following is the correct sequence of actions that takes place during the bootup process?
(a) Load operating system > Activate BIOS > Perform POST > Check configuration settings
(b) Activate BIOS > Perform POST > Load operating system > Check configuration settings
(c) Perform POST > Load operating system > Activate BIOS > Check configuration settings
(d) Activate BIOS > Check configuration settings > Perform POST > Load operating system
(e) None of these
114. The combination of the operating system and the processor is referred to as the
computer’s:
(a) CPU
(b) Platform
(c) BIOS
(d) CMOS
(e) None of these
115. The two broad categories of software are:
(a) Word processing and spreadsheet
(b) Transaction and application
(c) Windows and Mac OS
(d) System and application
(e) None of these

116. ____________ Viruses are often transmitted by a floppy disk left in the floppy drive
(a) Trojan horse
(b) Boot sector
(c) Script
(d) Logic bomb
(e) None of these
117. ____________ is a set of computer programs used on a computer to help perform tasks.
(a) An instruction
(b) Software
(c) Memory
(d) A processor
(e) None of these
118. Word processor, spreadsheet, and photo-editor are examples of:
(a) application software
(b) system software
(c) operating system software
(d) platform software
(e) None of these
119. Master files contain data of ______ nature.
(a) Temporary
(b) Local
(c) Permanent
(d) Global
(e) none of these
120. The simultaneous processing of 2 or more programs by processor is ___________
(a) Multi programming
(b) Multi-tasking
(c) Time-sharing
(d) Multi-processing
(e) None of these

TEST V – ENGLISH LANGUAGE
Directions (121-125): Rearrange the given six sentences/group of sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E), and
(F) in a proper sequence so as to form a meaningful paragraph and then answer the questions given
below them.
(A) These lifestyle diseases entail regular visits and check-ups at hospitals and clinics, which in
turn mean the requirement of skilled medical personnel.
(B) The healthcare sector is certainly expected to grow six to seven times by 2020.
(C) The lifestyle diseases will increase from the current 50% to 81% by 2020.
(D) The prime reason for this is that India is currently facing a double burden of diseasesinfectious diseases and lifestyle diseases, such as diabetes, hypertension etc.

(E) Within the next five to seven years these figures, will touch 100 million and 270 million
respectively.
(F) For instance, currently around 65 million people in suffer from diabetes and 180 million from
hypertension i.e. lifestyle diseases.
121. Which of the following should be the SIXTH sentence after rearrangement?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) E
122. Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) E
123. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) E
124. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) E
125. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) E

Directions (126-135): Read the passage given below and then answer the questions given below.
Certain words/phrases have been given in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the
questions.
Beginning several years ago - no one really knows when - banks slowly got into the business of
granting short-term, high interest loans to consumers when they attempt to overdraw their
accounts. Account holders are automatically enrolled in the programmes, which are now standard at

nearly all banks-Why are the programmes, which many people have never heard of, so popular?
Financial institutions that adopt them can expect a huge spike in overdraft revenue - a hike of 200%
to 400%, according to the centre for responsible lending.
Financial institutions collected some $10 billion in 2005 through what’s sometimes called Automatic
Overdraft Protection. These mini-loans are incredibly expensive. Most debit purchases that force
overdraft loans to kick in are for small purchases, the agency says. The median overdraft loan for a
point-of-sale transaction is $14.75. The average fee is more than double the amount. And since more
consumers pay these loans back within 3-5 days, the annual percentage rate on a courtesy overdraft
loan can be as high as 20000%.
First, let me acknowledge that it’s easy to armchair quarterback, as I know from people saying “you
should have done it that way!!” First, if one of my customers overdrafted, I would charge them the
regular overdraft fee- but I would notify them that if they enrolled in a personal-finance class, the
bank would waive the overdraft fee and once more (make customers think positively about the
future). The classes would be conveniently held at every branch on various weekends and evenings,
and would explain basic concepts of personal finance. At the beginning of the class, I would ask each
customer to fill out a detailed survey of their personal needs. During the class, there wouldn’t be a
transparent sales pitch, but the presenters could mention the services offered by the bank.
Then, two weeks after the class, I’d contact the class attended and offer to help them achieve their
goals based on the information they filled out on the survey. May be they need a money-market
account or investment assistance? I’d monitor engagement and try to upset them on something
appropriate for their personal situation. And that’s it- simple on the surface, but understandably
difficult to implement, test, measure.
Banks: You’ll reduce the immediate, short-term fees you get from overdrafts-the ones that cause
your customers to hate you-but you’ll make them happy by educating them and addressing their
personal needs. And because you’re offering to waive their fees and educate them for free, you’re
going to build an incredibly loyal base who will stay your customer. Yes, you’ll lose fees up front. But
sophisticated customers buy more services from trusted sources, so if you take it up through other
services and help your customers achieve their goals- that’s a win-win.
126. What is the general tone of the author?
(a) Strategic
(b) Optimistic
(c) Sagacious
(d) Both (a) and (c)
(e) All the three options (a), (b) and (c)
127. Give the correct meaning of the highlighted words, as used in the passage:
Financial institutions that adopt them can expect a huge spike in overdraft revenue.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)

a sharp rise followed by a sharp decline.
a sudden steep increase
a steep fall
a sudden decrease
None of the above

128. What do you think the author means by ‘transparent sales pitch’?

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)

being fair in what you are selling.
an even deal
having a discussion with the buyer about the challenges that they would be facing
giving a vague idea to your buyer about the services you offer.
None of the above

129. Which of the following comes closest in meaning to the idiomatic phrase “armchair
quarterback” used in the passage?
(a) one who instructs other people.
(b) the act of remaining non chalant to a situation.
(c) one who offers advice on something in which they have no expertise.
(d) the act of disturbing other people while they are working.
(e) None of the above.
130. Which of the following is most similar in meaning to the word ‘waive’?
(a) leave
(b) increase
(c) forgo
(d) uphold
(e) depart
131. If author waives the overdraft fees then he might be losing revenue but educating individuals
may benefit him by providing customer base. How do you think strong customer-base benefits
a business?
(a) It gives them to run a monopoly of their own.
(b) It gives them a chance to sell their services at a premium rate.
(c) It gives them a chance to sell services to their customer reasonably.
(d) It enables them to have a strong and maintained deposits.
(e) None of the above.
132. Author thinks that personal-finance classes would be simple on the surface but very difficult to
implement, test and measure. Choose from the options the possible reasons for it.
(a) It is difficult to monitor the financial needs of individuals.
(b) Money-market or investment assistance is another difficult aspect to measure.
(c) People would be least interested in the original programme.
(d) Common men might not be willing to avail the overdraft facility often.
(e) All of the above are expected with the monetary needs varying individual to individual.
133. How has the author planned to charge for the overdraft to the customers of personal finance
class?
(a) He would charge the regular overdraft fee.
(b) He would waive the overdraft fee if the customer is enrolled in personal finance class.
(c) He would organise personal finance classes to assist them organise their financial needs.
(d) Both (a) and (b)
(e) Both (a) and (c)
134. Why short term loans are expensive?
(a) Average fee is more than double the amount.

(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)

Banks provide loan without much formality.
Banks provide loan without much formality.
Bank tries to make best use of the services.
None of the above.

135. As per the passage, overdraft is a loan that is
(a) of short term nature
(b) of high interest nature
(c) of low interest nature
(d) both (a) and (c)
(e) both (a) and (c)

Directions (136-140). The sentence has two blanks. Each blank indicates that something has been
omitted. Choose the words that best fit the meaning of the sentence as a whole.
136. The otherwise ______ employee surprised everyone when she was extremely ______ in
meeting a deadline.
(a) Exquisite, Gorgeous
(b) Adept, Vulgar
(c) Skilful, Calculating
(d) Helpful, Pragmatic
(e) Punctual, Late
137. In his bed slung like a __________ on broken springs, leaks all around, the judge lay pinned by
layers of __________ blankets.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)

Hammock, Fusty
Sofa, Stiff
Balance, Bushy
Rope, Rigid
Machine, Dirty

138. All over the __________, the heat had reduced the townspeople to a __________.
(a) Country, Speck
(b) Mountainside, Stupor
(c) City, Dust
(d) Bed-sheet, Bliss
(e) Kitchen, Charcoal
139. The government has been _______ on this project since the _____ twenty years despite any
concrete results.
(a) Working, Gone
(b) Aiming, Remaining
(c) Working, Past
(d) Hiring, Coming
(e) Delaying, Next

140. Most people who feel that the rules of safety did not help anyone and were made to _______
people, paid for their _______ attitude.
(a) Annoy, Cynical
(b) Persecute, Pessimistic
(c) Pester, Doubtful
(d) Intimidate, Sarcastic
(e) Harass, Scornful
Directions (141-145): In these questions, read the sentence to find out if there is any grammatical
error/mistake in it. There error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. Mark the part with the
error as your answer. If there is no error, mark ‘No error’ as your answer. (Ignore errors of
punctuation, if any).
141. He shouted at his employees / in a very harsh tone / and told them / that he does not need
their services.
(a) He shouted at his employees
(b) in a very harsh tone
(c) and told them
(d) that he does not need their services
(e) No error
142. The system of giving / different jobs for different people / should be based on their / strengths
and weaknesses.
(a) The system of giving
(b) different jobs for different people
(c) should be based on their
(d) strengths and weaknesses
(e) No error

143. Rita and / myself /acknowledge / the project work.
(a) Rita and
(b) myself
(c) acknowledge
(d) the project work
(e) No error
144. Unless / you do not / work hard / you will not be selected in the team.
(a) Unless
(b) you do not
(c) work hard
(d) you will not be selected in the team
(e) No error
145. If you had made a mistake, / while filling up the application / you should be informed / the Sales
Tax Department immediately.

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)

If you had made a mistake
while filling up the application
you should be informed
the Sales Tax Department immediately
No error

Directions (146-150): Which of the phrases given against the sentence should replace the
word/phrase in bold in the sentence to make it grammatically correct? If the sentence is correct as it
is given and no correction is required, select ‘No correction required’ as the answer.
146. The unrest among the common people is growing ever since the new commissioner took
charge of administration of the district.
(a) has growing ever since
(b) growing ever since
(c) grew ever since
(d) has been growing ever since
(e) No correction required
147. One of every two new businesses fail within two years.
(a) fails
(b) failed
(c) will fail
(d) will be failing
(e) No correction required
148. It took over 200 hours to turn over 2,000 pieces of paper into the life-size model, and the result
is something that accurately depicts the funky car and retaining the distinct look of origami.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)

and retaining the distinct look of origami
retaining the distinct look of origami
also retaining the distinct look of origami
while retaining the distinct look of origami
No correction is required

149. Despite of his repeated failures he never gave up training his mind and body.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)

Despite his repeated
Despite his repeat
In spite of his repeat
In spite his repeated
No correction required

150. Being a destitute, he admitted to an old age home.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)

was admitted
admitting
will admit
will be admitting
No correction required

Directions (151-160): In the following passage, there are blanks, each of which are numbered.
Against each, five words are suggested, one of which has been numbered. Against each, five words
are suggested one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.
Music is sound that has been __(151)__ by using rhythm, melody or harmony. If someone bangs
saucepans while cooking, it makes noise. If a person bangs saucepans or pots in a rhythmic way, they
are making a __(152)__ type of music.
Even in the stone age, people __(153)__ music. The first music was probably made trying to imitate
sounds and rhythms that __(154)__ naturally. This kind of music is still here today. Shamans
sometimes __(155)__ sounds that are heard in nature. It may also __(156)__ as entertainment
(games), or have practical uses, like luring animals when __(157)__.
Some animals also use music. Songbirds use song to protect their territory, or to __(158)__ a mate.
Monkeys have been seen beating hollow logs. This may, of course, also serve to defend the territory.
The first musical instrument used by humans was probably the __(159)__. The human voice can
make many different kinds of sounds. The larynx (voice box) is like a wind __(160)__.

151. Which of the following words most appropriately fits the blank labelled (151)?
(a) detailed
(b) unkempt
(c) organized
(d) made
(e) destroyed
152. Which of the following words most appropriately fits the blank labelled (152)?
(a) primary
(b) laid back
(c) simple
(d) compact
(e) prominent
153. Which of the following words most appropriately fits the blank labelled (153)?
(a) organized
(b) uplifted
(c) generated
(d) made
(e) sold
154. Which of the following words most appropriately fits the blank labelled (154)?
(a) occurred
(b) prevailed
(c) triumphed
(d) went
(e) goes

155. Which of the following words most appropriately fits the blank labelled (155)?
(a) defiant
(b) imitate
(c) implement
(d) carry
(e) make
156. Which of the following words most appropriately fits the blank labelled (156)?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)

compliment
serve
dedicate
entitle
purpose

157. Which of the following words most appropriately fits the blank labelled (157)?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)

prey
hunting
carrying
playing
petting

158. Which of the following words most appropriately fits the blank labelled (158)?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)

diverse
repel
push
attract
prevent

159. Which of the following words most appropriately fits the blank labelled (159)?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)

music
voice
instrument
human
sound

160. Which of the following words most appropriately fits the blank labelled (160)?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)

instrument
pipe
medium
fact
mill

For answer key, visit: http://bit.ly/1QrKt7h
Disclaimer: This is a model test paper, and not actual LIC AAO paper.