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1. Which communication tool allows real-time collaboration?




wiki
e-mail
weblog
instant messaging

2. A host is accessing a Web server on a remote network. Which three
functions are performed by intermediary network devices during this
conversation? (Choose three.)





regenerating data signals
acting as a client or a server
providing a channel over which messages travel
applying security settings to control the flow of data
notifying other devices when errors occur
serving as the source or destination of the messages

3. A home user is looking for an ISP connection that provides high
speed digital transmission over regular phone lines. What ISP
connection type should be used?




DSL
dial-up
satellite
cell modem
cable modem

4. A company is expanding its business to other countries. All branch
offices must remain connected to corporate headquarters at all times.
Which network technology is required to support this requirement?



LAN
MAN
WAN
WLAN

5. Refer to the exhibit. From which location did this router load the IOS?

CCNA 1 Final Exam Answer 001 (v5.02, 2015)





flash memory
NVRAM?
RAM
ROM
a TFTP server?

6. Which connection provides a secure CLI session with encryption to a
Cisco network device?



a console connection
an AUX connection
a Telnet connection
an SSH connection

7. Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is trying to configure the switch
but receives the error message that is displayed in the exhibit. What is
the problem?

CCNA 1 Final Exam Answer 002 (v5.02, 2015)

The entire command, configure terminal, must be used.



The administrator is already in global configuration mode.
The administrator must first enter privileged EXEC mode before issuing the command.
The administrator must connect via the console port to access global configuration mode.

8. An administrator uses the Ctrl-Shift-6 key combination on a switch
after issuing the ping command. What is the purpose of using these
keystrokes?



to restart the ping process
to interrupt the ping process
to exit to a different configuration mode
to allow the user to complete the command

9. What function does pressing the Tab key have when entering a
command in IOS?



It aborts the current command and returns to configuration mode.
It exits configuration mode and returns to user EXEC mode.
It moves the cursor to the beginning of the next line.
It completes the remainder of a partially typed word in a command.

10. Refer to the exhibit. An administrator wants to change the name of a
brand new switch, using the hostname command as shown. What
prompt will display after the command is issued??

CCNA 1 Final Exam Answer 003 (v5.02, 2015)





My Switch(config)#?
Switch(config)#?
MySwitch(config)#?
My(config)#?
Switch#

11. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is configuring access
control to switch SW1. If the administrator uses Telnet to connect to the
switch, which password is needed to access user EXEC mode?

CCNA 1 Final Exam Answer 004 (v5.02, 2015)




letmein
secretin
lineconin
linevtyin

12. After making configuration changes, a network administrator issues
a copy running-config startup-config command in a Cisco switch. What
is the result of issuing this command?



The new configuration will be stored in flash memory.
The new configuration will be loaded if the switch is restarted.
The current IOS file will be replaced with the newly configured file.
The configuration changes will be removed and the original configuration will be
restored.

13. Refer to the exhibit. Which action will be successful?



PC1 can send a ping to 192.168.1.1?.
PC1 can send a ping to 192.168.1.254?.
PC2 can send a ping to 192.168.1.1.
PC2 can send a ping to 192.168.1.254?.

14. Which IPv4 address can be pinged to test the internal TCP/IP
operation of a host?




0.0.0.0
0.0.0.1
127.0.0.1
192.168.1.1
255.255.255.255

15. What three application layer protocols are part of the TCP/IP protocol
suite? (Choose three.)

multicast PING. . processes. even if the PC is moved to a different network?     IP address default gateway address MAC address logical address 19. What will happen if the default gateway address is incorrectly configured on a host?   The host cannot communicate with other hosts in the local network.      ARP DHCP DNS FTP NAT PPP 16. broadcast 20. Which two protocols function at the internet layer? (Choose two. unicast DNS. multicast DNS. broadcast PING. Which publicly available resources describe protocols. broadcast ARP. What is the protocol that is used to discover a physical address from a known logical address and what message type does it use?       ARP.)      ARP BOOTP ICMP IP PPP 17. Which address on a PC does not change. and technologies for the Internet but do not give implementation details?     Request for Comments IRTF research papers protocol models IEEE standards 18. The switch will not forward packets initiated by the host.

A ping from the host to 127. What is an important function of the physical layer of the OSI model?     It accepts frames from the physical media.)      Fiber-optic cabling does not conduct electricity. It defines the media access method performed by the hardware interface.0.1 would not be successful. 21. What is contained in the trailer of a data-link frame?     logical address physical address data error detection 25. 22. Fiber-optic cabling is primarily used as backbone cabling. optical. What is the auto-MDIX feature on a switch?      the automatic configuration of an interface for 10/100/1000 Mb/s operation the automatic configuration of an interface for a straight-through or a crossover Ethernet cable connection the automatic configuration of full-duplex operation over a single Ethernet copper or optical cable the ability to turn a switch interface on or off accordingly if an active connection is detected . Which two statements describe the characteristics of fiber-optic cabling? (Choose two. Which procedure is used to reduce the effect of crosstalk in copper cables?      requiring proper grounding connections twisting opposing circuit wire pairs together wrapping the bundle of wires with metallic shielding designing a cable infrastructure to avoid crosstalk interference avoiding sharp bends during installation 23. It encapsulates upper layer data into frames. Fiber-optic cabling has high signal loss. The host cannot communicate with hosts in other networks.   The host will have to use ARP to determine the correct address of the default gateway. or radio wave signals. Fiber-optic cabling uses LEDs for single-mode cab?les and laser technology for multimode cables. Multimode fiber-optic cabling carries signals from multiple sending devices.0. It encodes frames into electrical. 24.

28.26. Which MAC addresses will be contained in the S1 MAC address table that is associated with the Fa0/1 port? CCNA 1 Final Exam Answer 005 (v5. However. A Layer 3 switch maintains an IP address table instead of a MAC address table. However. and PC2 in this exact order.02. PC1. a Layer 2 switch does not. What is the purpose of the routing process?      to encapsulate data that is used to communicate across a network to select the paths that are used to direct traffic to destination networks to convert a URL name into an IP address to provide secure Internet file transfer to forward traffic on the basis of MAC addresses 29. 2015)      just PC0 and PC1 MAC addresses just the PC0 MAC address PC0. Which technology provides a solution to IPv4 address depletion by allowing multiple devices to share one public IP address?    ARP DNS NAT . How does a Layer 3 switch differ from a Layer 2 switch?     A Layer 3 switch supports VLANs. A ping to PC3 is issued from PC0. A Layer 3 switch learns the MAC addresses that are associated with each of its ports. this is not supported in Layer 2 switches. An IP address can be assigned to a physical port of a Layer 3 switch. PC1. but a Layer 2 switch does not. Refer to the exhibit. and PC2 MAC addresses just the PC1 MAC address just the PC2 MAC address? 27.

It is the IP address of the ISP network device located in the cloud.   SMB DHCP HTTP 30. It is the IP address of the Router1 interface that connects the PC1 LAN to Router1. It is the IP address of Switch1 that connects PC1 to other devices on the same LAN.02. Which two statements correctly describe a router memory type and its contents? (Choose two. 2015)     It is the IP address of the Router1 interface that connects the company to the Internet. Refer to the exhibit. Which of the following are primary functions of a router? (Choose two. Consider the IP address configuration shown from PC1.)      packet switching microsegmentation domain name resolution path selection flow control 32. What is a description of the default gateway address? CCNA 1 Final Exam Answer 006 (v5. 31.) .

4 192. NVRAM is nonvolatile and stores a full version of the IOS. setup mode 34. ROM.2 192. What is the effect of configuring the ipv6 unicast-routing command on a router?     to assign the router to the all-nodes multicast group to enable the router as an IPv6 router to permit only unicast packets on the router to prevent the router from joining the all-routers multicast group .168.5. FLASH is nonvolatile and contains a limited portion of the IOS?.168. TFTP. RAM. 33.20.32. The part of the VoIP transmission that was lost is re-sent. NVRAM flash. RAM is volatile and stores the running configuration.6. The entire transmission is re-sent. In which default order will a router search for startup configuration information?      NVRAM. TFTP NVRAM.10.254 224. Which three IP addresses are private ? (Choose three.10 172.)       10. The transmission continues without the missing portion. ROM. TFTP TFTP. How many bits make up the single IPv6 hextet :10CD:?     4 8 16 32 37. ROM is nonvolatile and stores bootup information.6 36. 35.172. NVRAM. What happens when part of an Internet VoIP transmission is not delivered to the destination?     A delivery failure message is sent to the source host.     ROM is nonvolatile and stores the running IOS.4.5.6. setup mode setup mode.167.1 172.

. Although the user can access all local LAN resources. what could account for this failure? CCNA 1 Final Exam Answer 007 (v5. Refer to the exhibit. the user cannot access any Internet sites by using either FQDN or IP addresses.02. Which group of IPv6 addresses cannot be allocated as a host source address??     FEC0::/10? FDFF::/7? FEBF::/10? FF00::/8 39. What is the purpose of ICMP messages?     to inform routers about network topology changes to ensure the delivery of an IP packet to provide feedback of IP packet transmissions to monitor the process of a domain name to IP address resolution 40. Based upon the exhibit.38. The default gateway address in incorrect. A technician has configured a user workstation with the IP address and default subnet masks that are shown. 2015)   The DNS server addresses are incorrect.

96 as a usable host address?     192.  The wrong subnet mask was assigned to the workstation.168. Which subnet would include the address 192.168.1.64/29 42. A network administrator needs to monitor network traffic to and from servers in a data center. Which features of an IP addressing scheme should be applied to these devices?     random static addresses to improve security addresses from different subnets for redundancy predictable static IP addresses for easier identification dynamic addresses to reduce the probability of duplicate addresses 43. 41. Which IP addressing scheme should be changed? CCNA 1 Final Exam Answer 008 (v5.168.64/26 192.32/28 192.168.1.1.02. The workstation is not in the same network as the DNS servers.168.1.1. Refer to the exhibit. 2015)   Site 1 Site 2 .32/27 192.

)      /62 /64 /66 /68 /70 45. When applied to a router. What is the purpose of the network security accounting function?     to require users to prove who they are to determine which resources a user can access to keep track of the actions of a user to provide challenge and response questions 47.  Site 3 Site 4 44. A particular website does not appear to be responding on a Windows 7 computer. which command would help mitigate bruteforce password attacks against the router?     exec-timeout 30 service password-encryption banner motd $Max failed logins = 5$ login block-for 60 attempts 5 within 60 48. Which two messages will the client typically broadcast on the network? (Choose two. What command could the technician use to show any cached DNS entries for this web page?     ipconfig /all arp -a ipconfig /displaydns nslookup . Which two notations are useable nibble boundaries when subnetting in IPv6? (Choose two. A host PC has just booted and is attempting to lease an address through DHCP.)      DHCPDISCOVER DHCPOFFER DHCPREQUEST DHCPACK DHCPNACK 46.

168. The network administrator enters these commands into the R1 router: R1# copy running-config tftp Address or name of remote host [ ]? When the router prompts for an address or remote host name.168.11.) .168.168.10. Match the IPv6 address to the IPv6 address type.254 192. 2015)      192.11.9.2 192.1 192.49.252 192. (Not all options are used. what IP address should the administrator enter at the prompt? CCNA 1 Final Exam Answer 009 (v5. Refer to the exhibit.168.254 50.02.10.

connectionless application layer protocol that is used to transfer files.CCNA 1 Final Exam Answer 010 (v5. Fill in the blank. 2015) 51. .)      broadcast SSID MAC filtering enabled WEP encryption enabled PSK authentication required default administrator password 52. Which type of wireless security generates dynamic encryption keys each time a client associates with an AP?     EAP PSK WEP WPA 53. TFTP is a best-effort.02. What two preconfigured settings that affect security are found on most new wireless routers? (Choose two.

54. 56.02. A host is accessing an FTP server on a remote network.)       media wireless NIC custom adapter crossover cable wireless bridge wireless client software 55.) CCNA 1 Final Exam Answer 011 (v5. Which two components are necessary for a wireless client to be installed on a WLAN? (Choose two. (Not all options are used. Match the phases to their correct stage in the router bootup process. Consider the following range of addresses: 2001:0DB8:BC15:00A0:0000:: 2001:0DB8:BC15:00A1:0000:: 2001:0DB8:BC15:00A2:0000:: … 2001:0DB8:BC15:00AF:0000:: The prefix-length for the range of addresses is /60 . Which three functions are performed by intermediary network devices during this conversation? (Choose three.)  regenerating data signals . 2015) 57.

If network traffic is prioritized with QoS. database. audio conference. searching the library database. and attending an audio conference with their sister school in Japan. HTTP. Which connection provides a secure CLI session with encryption to a Cisco switch?     a console connection an AUX connection a Telnet connection an SSH connection 62. HTTP database. from which location do most Cisco routers run the IOS?     RAM flash NVRAM disk drive 61.     acting as a client or a server providing a channel over which messages travel applying security settings to control the flow of data notifying other devices when errors occur serving as the source or destination of the messages 58. When is a dial-up connection used to connect to an ISP?     when a cellular telephone provides the service when a high-speed connection is provided over a cable TV network when a satellite dish is used when a regular telephone line is used 59. HTTP 60. HTTP. audio conference audio conference. During normal operation. how will the traffic be classified from highest priority to lowest priority?     audio conference. Which keys act as a hot key combination that is used to interrupt an IOS process?     Ctrl-Shift-X Ctrl-Shift-6 Ctrl-Z Ctrl-C . students are surfing the web. database database. On a school network.

What is the result of issuing this command?     The new configuration will be stored in flash memory. The configuration changes will be removed and the original configuration will be restored.63. Refer to the exhibit. using the hostname command as shown. What is the technician testing?      the TCP/IP stack on a network host connectivity between two adjacent Cisco devices connectivity between a PC and the default gateway connectivity between two PCs on the same network physical connectivity of a particular PC and the network 67. The current IOS file will be replaced with the newly configured file. a network administrator issues a copy running-config startup-config command.1 command. What prompt will display after the command is issued?? CCNA 1 Final Exam Answer 012 (v5. 2015)      HR Switch(config)#? Switch(config)#? HRSwitch(config)#? HR(config)#? Switch# 64. A technician uses the ping 127. 65. On which switch interface would an administrator configure an IP address so that the switch can be managed remotely?     FastEthernet0/1 VLAN 1 vty 0 console 0 66.0. The new configuration will be loaded if the switch is restarted. What is the correct order for PDU encapsulation? .0. After making configuration changes on a Cisco switch. An administrator wants to change the name of a brand new switch.02.

Which device should be used for enabling a host to communicate with another host on a different network?     switch hub router host 69.)     It is not affected by EMI or RFI. shielding and twisting to protect data. 2015) 68. . It combines the technique of cancellation. Which characteristics describe fiber optic cable? (Choose two. It has a maximum speed of 100 Mbps. Which three factors could influence the differences in throughput? (Choose three. Each pair of cables is wrapped in metallic foil. The technician notices that the network throughput appears lower than the bandwidth expected.02.CCNA 1 Final Exam Answer 013 (v5.)       the amount of traffic that is currently crossing the network the sophistication of the encapsulation method applied to the data the type of traffic that is crossing the network the latency that is created by the number of network devices that the data is crossing the bandwidth of the WAN connection to the Internet the reliability of the gigabit Ethernet infrastructure of the backbone 70. A network technician is measuring the transfer of bits across the company backbone for a mission critical application.

Which two statements describe the functions or characteristics of ROM in a router? (Choose two. It is the most expensive type of LAN cabling 71. What will a Layer 2 switch do when the destination MAC address of a received frame is not in the MAC table?     It initiates an ARP request. It notifies the sending host that the frame cannot be delivered. What are two features of a physical. It broadcasts the frame out of all ports on the switch.)   stores routing tables allows software to be updated without replacing pluggable chips on the motherboard . Which parameter does the router use to choose the path to the destination when there are multiple routes available?     the lower metric value that is associated with the destination network the lower gateway IP address to get to the destination network the higher metric value that is associated with the destination network the higher gateway IP address to get to the destination network 76. Why does the receiving device check the FCS field in the frame?      to determine the physical address of the sending device to verify the network layer protocol information to compare the interface media type between the sending and receiving ends to check the frame for possible transmission errors to verify that the frame destination matches the MAC address of the receiving device 73. 72. End devices are connected together by a bus.)      It is straightforward to troubleshoot. It is easy to add and remove end devices. Which switching method has the lowest level of latency?     cut-through store-and-forward fragment-free fast-forward 75. star network topology? (Choose two. A frame is transmitted from one networking device to another. Each end system is connected to its respective neighbor. All end devices are connected in a chain to each other. It forwards the frame out of all ports except for the port at which the frame was received. 74.

5.2 192.6 81. Which three IP addresses are private ? (Choose three. Each Cisco router has a LED indicator to provide information about the status of the management ports. The entire transmission is re-sent.168.01110001.30.199 198. The transmission continues without the missing portion.30. Which statement describes a characteristic of the Cisco router management ports?     A console port is used for remote management of the router.3 192.   maintains instructions for POST diagnostics holds ARP cache stores bootstrap program 77. What happens when part of an Internet radio transmission is not delivered to the destination?     A delivery failure message is sent to the source host. A console port is not used for packet forwarding.5 224.11010011?     192. The part of the radio transmission that was lost is re-sent. What is the maximum TTL value that is used to reach the destination www.167.201 203.5. Refer to the exhibit.10.113. What is the dotted decimal representation of the IPv4 address 11001011.)       10.10 172.165.0.6.1 172.201.223 80.00000000.6. 79.5.cisco.com?? . Serial and DSL interfaces are types of management ports.51. 78.0. What types of addresses make up the majority of addresses within the /8 block IPv4 bit space?     private addresses public addresses multicast addresses experimental addresses 82.32.2.20.100.211 209.

168.128/27 192.1.96/28 192.168.168.168.CCNA 1 Final Exam Answer 014 (v5. In a network that uses IPv4. The company wants to create two subnetworks that would contain 10 hosts and 18 hosts respectively.)      192. 2015)     11 12 13 14 83.192/28 84. Which protocol supports rapid delivery of streaming media?    Transmission Control Protocol Real-Time Transport Protocol Secure File Transfer Protocol .02.1.192. A company has a network address of 192.1.168.168.255.1.16/28 192.64/27 192. what prefix would best fit a subnet containing 100 hosts?     /23 /24 /25 /26 85.255.1. Which two networks would achieve that? (Choose two.64 with a subnet mask of 255.1.

Refer to the exhibit. (Not all options are used. What is the significance of the asterisk (*) in the exhibited output? CCNA 1 Final Exam Answer 015 (v5. Why would a network administrator use the tracert utility?     to determine the active TCP connections on a PC to check information about a DNS name in the DNS server to identify where a packet was lost or delayed on a network to display the IP address. Match each characteristic to the appropriate email protocol. Point-to-point communications where both devices can transmit and receive on the medium at the same time are known as fullduplex . 2015)     The asterisk shows which file system was used to boot the system. Video over Internet Protocol 86.) . An asterisk indicates that the file system is bootable. default gateway. An asterisk designates that the file system has at least one file that uses that file system. 90. The asterisk designates which file system is the default file system. and DNS server address for a PC 87. Which WLAN security protocol generates a new dynamic key each time a client establishes a connection with the AP?     EAP PSK WEP WPA 89. 88. Fill in the blank.02.

Which three functions are performed by intermediary network devices during this conversation? (Choose three. A host is accessing a Telnet server on a remote network.02. Refer to the exhibit.CCNA 1 Final Exam Answer 016 (v5. Which area would most likely be an extranet for the company network that is shown? . 2015) 91.)       regenerating data signals acting as a client or a server providing a channel over which messages travel applying security settings to control the flow of data notifying other devices when errors occur serving as the source or destination of the messages 92.

The third employee participates in an important live audio conference with other office workers in branch offices. what will be the priorities from highest to lowest of the different data types?  audio conference.02. financial transactions. Three office workers are using the corporate network. 2015)     area A area B area C area D 93. The first employee uses a web browser to view a company web page in order to read some announcements. web page . The second employee accesses the corporate database to perform some financial transactions.CCNA 1 Final Exam Answer 017 (v5. What is the purpose of having a converged network?     to provide high speed connectivity to all end devices to make sure that all types of data packets will be treated equally to achieve fault tolerance and high availability of data network infrastructure devices to reduce the cost of deploying and maintaining the communication infrastructure 94. If QoS is implemented on this network.

DHCP is working correctly. What will happen after this command executes?     The configuration will be copied to flash. It provides delimitation of data according to the physical signaling requirements of the medium. from which location do most Cisco switches and routers run the IOS?     RAM flash NVRAM disk drive 96. web page 95. During normal operation. It defines software processes that provide services to the physical layer. The new configuration file will replace the IOS file. What information does the loopback test provide?      The TCP/IP stack on the device is working correctly. The device has the correct IP address on the network. A network administrator is making changes to the configuration of a router. 99. the administrator issues the copy running-config startup-config command. After making the changes and verifying the results. It places information in the frame allowing multiple Layer 3 protocols to use the same network interface and media. What method is used to manage contention-based access on a wireless network?     CSMA/CD priority ordering CSMA/CA token passing .   financial transactions. The device has end-to-end connectivity. 98. The Ethernet cable is working correctly. web page. audio conference. financial transactions financial transactions. audio conference audio conference. web page. 97. What is a characteristic of the LLC sublayer?     It provides the logical addressing required that identifies the device. The configuration will load when the router is restarted. The changes will be lost when the router restarts.

)      adjacency tables MAC-address tables routing tables ARP tables forwarding information base (FIB) 105.255.100. What happens when a switch receives a frame and the calculated CRC value is different than the value that is in the FCS field?     The switch places the new CRC value in the FCS field and forwards the frame.FFFF.255. 101.255 FFFF.FFFF 127. What are the two main components of Cisco Express Forwarding (CEF)? (Choose two.0.0. The switch notifies the source of the bad frame.1 01-00-5E-00-AA-23 102.0. Which destination address is used in an ARP request frame?      0. The switch floods the frame to all ports except the port through which the frame arrived to notify the hosts of the error. What is the auto-MDIX feature on a switch?     the automatic configuration of an interface for 10/100/1000 Mb/s operation the automatic configuration of an interface for a straight-through or a crossover Ethernet cable connection the automatic configuration of full-duplex operation over a single Ethernet copper or optical cable the ability to turn a switch interface on or off accordingly if an active connection is detected 103. Which statement describes the sequence of processes executed by a router when it receives a packet from a host to be delivered to a host on another network? . The switch drops the frame.0 255. Which frame forwarding method receives the entire frame and performs a CRC check to detect errors before forwarding the frame?     cut-through switching store-and-forward switching fragment-free switching fast-forward switching 104.0.

Why does the show ip route command output not display any information about the directly connected networks?? CCNA 1 Final Exam Answer 018 (v5.02. Router R1 has two interfaces that were configured with correct IP addresses and subnet masks. 108. It selects the path and forwards it toward the destination host. selects the appropriate path. It de-encapsulates the packet. and encapsulates the packet to forward it toward the destination host. It de-encapsulates the packet and forwards it toward the destination host. Which technology provides a solution to IPv4 address depletion by allowing multiple devices to share one public IP address?       ARP DNS NAT SMB DHCP HTTP 107. What happens when part of an Internet television transmission is not delivered to the destination? . 106. 2015)     The directly connected networks have to be created manually to be displayed in the routing table. The routing table will only display information about these networks when the router receives a packet.     It receives the packet and forwards it directly to the destination host. Refer to the exhibit. The no shutdown command was not issued on these interfaces. The gateway of last resort was not configured.

com to search for certification course information.0 to 224. UDP is a connectionless protocol.)      TCP and UDP port numbers are used by application layer protocols.0. Which statement is true regarding the UDP client process during a session with a server?     Datagrams that arrive in a different order than that in which they were sent are not placed in order.0. . Application servers have to use port numbers above 1024 in order to be UDP capable. Which three statements characterize the transport layer protocols? (Choose three. TCP is a connection-oriented protocol. The Cisco web server sends a datagram as a reply to the request from one of the web browsers. A three-way handshake takes place before the transmission of data begins. The entire transmission is re-sent.)  The source address of a multicast transmission is in the range of 224. What are three characteristics of multicast transmission? (Choose three.    A delivery failure message is sent to the source host.255. A session must be established before datagrams can be exchanged. TCP uses windowing and sequencing to provide reliable transfer of data.0. The transmission continues without the missing portion. Which two components are configured via software in order for a PC to participate in a network environment? (Choose two. Which information is used by the TCP/IP protocol stack in the PC to identify the destination web browser?     the destination IP address the destination port number the source IP address the source port number 111. 109. 112. The part of the television transmission that was lost is re-sent.)      MAC address IP address kernel shell subnet mask 113. TCP uses port numbers to provide reliable transportation of IP packets. UDP uses windowing and acknowledgments for reliable transfer of data.cisco. A user opens three browsers on the same PC to access www.0. 110.

Multicast transmission can be used by routers to exchange routing information.)      compression addressing encryption session control authentication 117. Which two reasons generally make DHCP the preferred method of assigning IP addresses to hosts on large networks? (Choose two. Routers will not forward multicast addresses in the range of 224. 115. What is the purpose of the network security authentication function?     to require users to prove who they are to determine which resources a user can access to keep track of the actions of a user to provide challenge and response questions 118. It guarantees that every device that needs an address will get one.0. Which two tasks are functions of the presentation layer? (Choose two. 114.0 to 224.0.)      It eliminates most address configuration errors.0. Which type of wireless security makes use of dynamic encryption keys each time a client associates with an AP?     EAP PSK WEP WPA . What is the subnet address for the address 2001:DB8:BC15:A:12AB::1/64?     2001:DB8:BC15::0 2001:DB8:BC15:A::0 2001:DB8:BC15:A:1::1 2001:DB8:BC15:A:12::0 116. It ensures that addresses are only applied to devices that require a permanent address. Computers use multicast transmission to request IPv4 addresses.0. It reduces the burden on network support staff. It provides an address only to devices that are authorized to be connected to the network.255.     A single packet can be sent to a group of hosts. Multicast messages map lower layer addresses to upper layer addresses.

119. During data communications. This message is in the form of a Multicast message.) . Match the description with the associated IOS mode. a host may need to send a single message to a specific group of destination hosts simultaneously. Fill in the blank. 120. (Not all options are used.

CCNA 1 END .

) o o o o o o  Which WAN technology uses a fixed payload of 48 bytes and is transported across both switched and permanent virtual circuits? o o o o  ATM ISDN Frame Relay metro Ethernet What can cause a reduction in available bandwidth on a cable broadband connection? o o o o  date and time of message ID of sending device length of message message ID checksum field community ID smaller cells number of subscribers committed information rate distance from the central office of the provider A technician has been asked to configure a broadband connection for a teleworker. Which broadband technology should be used? o o o cable DSL ISDN . The technician has been instructed that all uploads and downloads for the connection must use existing phone lines. Which three items are normally included when a log message is generated by a syslog client and forwarded to a syslog server? (Choose three.CCNA 4 Practice Final Exam Answer v5. 2015 by admin · Leave a Comment CCNA 5 Blog 1.02 2015 (100%) March 21.

It ensures that remote workers actually use the VPN for connectivity.255. It allows a greater variety of network devices to be used for VPN connections.224 Router(config)#ip nat inside source list 9 pool TAME o o o o o 7 8 9 10 24 .201.165.255.201. How many addresses will be available for dynamic NAT translation when a router is configured with the following commands? Router(config)#ip nat pool TAME 209. It simplifies the configuration tasks for the device that is used as the VPN server.o  Which three algorithms can be used to encrypt user data in an IPSec VPN framework? (Choose three.23 209.) o o o o o o  o o o o channel widths access method maximum data rate modulation techniques compression techniques What makes the Cisco EasyVPN application a useful tool for VPN implementation? o o o o  3DES AES Diffie-Hellman DES ESP SHA Which two Layer 1 requirements are outlined in the Dataover-Cable Service Interface Specification (DOCSIS)? (Choose two.30 netmask 255.165.) o  POTS It provides encryption algorithms unavailable in other systems.

A network is missing from the routing protocol configuration. Keepalives are not being sent by the remote device. It sends an alert message to the management station when a threshold is reached.) o  31 Run the tracert command to identify the faulty device. . Which action should the administrator perform first? o o o o  The LMI provides a virtual circuit (VC) status mechanism. Enter an IP address in the address bar of the web browser to determine if DNS has failed.o  Which three statements are true regarding the Frame Relay LMI? (Choose three.) o o o o o o  o o o o The clock rate is not set on the DTE. What are two possible causes for the line protocol being in the down state? (Choose two. It collects information for the management station by using polling devices. subnet mask. The output of the show ip interface brief command indicates that Serial0 is up but the line protocol is down. A user is unable to connect to the Internet. Run the ipconfig command to verify the IP address. and gateway on the PC. Check the patch cable connection from the PC to the wall. The encapsulation on the Serial0 interface is incorrect. How does an SNMP trap aid network monitoring and management? o o o It reports to the management station by responding to polls. The available LMI types are CHAP and PAP. An incorrect default gateway is set on the router. The LMI type must always be manually configured. The network administrator decides to use the top-down troubleshooting approach. The LMI types supported by Cisco routers are CISCO and IETF. The LMI uses reserved DLCIs to exchange messages between the DTE and DCE. The LMI type configured on the router must match the one used on the Frame Relay switch.

Which statement is true about NCP?  o o o o Link termination is the responsibility of NCP. and memory usage.) o o o o o  Uploads typically offer larger transfer rates than downloads. How can the administrator determine how this change has affected performance and availability on the company intranet? o o o o Conduct a performance test and compare with the baseline that was established previously. Filters and splitters allow POTS and DSL traffic to share the same medium. Compare the hit counts on the company web server for the current week to the values that were recorded in previous weeks. DSL download rates are reduced by large volumes of POTS voice traffic. NetFlow can be used to collect performance indicators such as interface errors. including packet payload content. Which two statements about NetFlow are true? (Choose two. NetFlow is a Cisco-specific feature that enables the collection of detailed traffic profiles. o What are two characteristics of DSL technology? (Choose  two. NetFlow can be used to monitor traffic statistics.)  o o o o NetFlow can be used to create baseline documentation. CPU usage. NCP establishes the initial link between PPP devices. Service providers deploy DSL in the local loop of the telephone network. A network administrator has moved the company intranet web server from a switch port to a dedicated router interface.It flags attempts to begin a DoS attack on the network. Interview departmental administrative assistants and determine if they think load time for web pages has improved. . DSL is a shared medium that allows many users to share bandwidth available from the DSLAM. NCP tests the link to ensure that the link quality is sufficient. Determine performance on the intranet by monitoring load times of company web pages from remote sites. Each network protocol has a corresponding NCP.

) o o o o o o ingress interface TOS field egress interface number of packets number of bytes port number What is the purpose of the Cisco Enterprise Architecture?  o o o o  NetFlow is a network monitoring and event reporting tool. NetFlow traffic collectors use a “pull” based model to acquire traffic statistics from ports of interest. It replaces the three-layer hierarchical model with a flat network approach. It provides an enterprise-wide system network architecture that helps protect. It reduces overall network traffic by grouping server farms. While planning an upgrade. What generated the most packets? . corporate intranet.o o  What are three parameters that are used by NetFlow to classify traffic? (Choose three. optimize. and grow the network infrastructure that supports the business processes of a company. Refer to the exhibit. It provides services and functionality to the core layer by grouping various components into a single component that is located in the access layer. and e-commerce routers in the same layer. a network administrator uses the Cisco NetFlow utility to analyze data flow in the current network. the management server.

) o o o o o authentication encryption automatic creation of a public network automatic creation of a private network encapsulation How does STDM allocate bandwidth on a serial connection?  o o o o  GRE IPsec SSH SSL What is IPsec?   ICMP TCP-Telnet TCP-other UDP-DNS UDP-other It statically assigns bandwidth based upon pre-assigned time slots.o o o o o Which is a clientless VPN solution for mobile workers?  o o o o o o o o a specification for the way in which a group of protocols and algorithms combine to create VPNs a protocol that is used to create a VPN at Layer 2 of the OSI model a 56-bit authentication and encryption method that must be used to create VPN tunnels a means by which routers and VPN gateways read and forward packets with encrypted packet headers What are two significant benefits that are provided by IPsec? (Choose two. It then dynamically reassigns unused time slices on an as-needed basis. It keeps track of conversations that require extra bandwidth. It ensures each of the time slices are assigned to individual conversations. It ensures that bandwidth is allocated to each channel or time slot regardless of whether the station using the channel has data to Which statement is true about the operation of a site-to-site VPN connection? .

0/27 block of IP addresses by the ISP. The data is encrypted by the VPN gateway at the sending side and decrypted by the target host.113. PAT dynamic NAT static NAT NAT overloading Refer to the exhibit.) o o o o o  o o o o Borderless End Point​ TelePresence​ Unified Communications Unified Computing Virtual Private Network static NAT dynamic NAT port forwarding PAT off the external router interface dynamic NAT overload using the pool of addresses An administrator needs to configure a router so that internal network servers are accessible from the Internet. Each server is configured with a private IPv4 address. The data is encrypted by the sending host and decrypted by the VPN gateway at the receiving side. Based on the configuration of R1. The company has over 6000 internal devices.0. The data is encrypted and decrypted by VPN gateways at both the sending and receiving sides. What type of NAT would be most appropriate for the employee workstations of the company? o  The data is encrypted and decrypted by the sending and target hosts.o o o o  Which two products are part of the Cisco Collaboration Architecture? (Choose two. which device is the inside host and what is the inside local address of this . What type of NAT should the administrator configure? o o o o  Cisco Cisco Cisco Cisco Cisco A company has been assigned the 203.

0.100 209.100 209.host? o o o o PC-A PC-A PC-B PC-B with with with with address address address address 64.165.200.0.165.100.225 64.100.225 .200.

1. . A PC at address 10. The wrong netmask was used on the NAT pool. The inside and outside interfaces have been configured backwards. Connectivity is failing between Edge_Router and a non-Cisco router running Frame Relay. A network administrator has configured router Edge_Router as shown in the output. the the the the the the 10-bit DLCI Extended Address field C/R bit FECN bit BECN bit DE bit Refer to the exhibit.1.) o o o o o o  The NAT pool has been exhausted. Access-list 1 has not been configured properly.45 is unable to access the Internet. What is the most likely cause of the problem? o o o o  Which three parts of a Frame Relay Layer 2 PDU are used for congestion control? (Choose three. Refer to the exhibit.

When the CIR on a given DLCI is exceeded. The XON/XOFF flow control mechanism sets the DE bit when the CIR is exceeded.5 802. Issue the broadcast keyword when performing static mapping on interface serial 0/1/0.What should be done to repair this Layer 2 connectivity? o o o o o Issue the ietf keyword when enabling Frame Relay on interface serial 0/1/0. The DE bit will indicate when the CIR committed burst size should be applied.11 802. the DE bit of frames above the CIR is set. Modify the OSPF process-id from 10 to 1. an Inverse ARP DE message notifies the source to reduce frame transmission speed. What is the relationship between the DE and the CIR in Frame  Relay? o o o o Which IEEE standard defines the WiMax technology?  o o o o  When the CIR is exceeded. Correct the IP address used in the frame-relay map command. Issue the frame-relay lmi-type ansi command on interface serial 0/1/0. 802.16 For a VPN. which technology provides secure remote access over broadband? o o o o QoS ADSL LTE IPsec .3 802.

What kind of information should network engineers check to find out if this situation is part of a normal network behavior? o o o o  data center services module access-distribution enterprise edge What are two examples of network problems that are found at the data link layer? (Choose two.) o  CMTS CDMA DOCSIS VPN IPsec syslog records and messages the network performance baseline debug output and packet captures network configuration files Refer to the exhibit. Which three events will occur as a result of the configuration shown on R1? (Choose three. Which two technologies are implemented by organizations to support teleworker remote connections? (Choose two.) .) o o o o o  Which basic network module of the Enterprise Architecture is the fundamental component of a campus design? o o o o  o o o o encapsulation errors framing errors electromagnetic interference incorrect interface clock rates late collisions and jabber Users are reporting longer delays in authentication and in accessing network resources during certain time periods of the week.

For multiple occurrences of the same error. Messages that are sent to the syslog server will be limited to levels 3 and higher. Messages that are sent to the syslog server will use 192.5 as the destination IP address.1.168. The syslog messages will contain the IP address the GigabitEthernet 0/1 interface. How many 64 kb/s voice channels are combined to produce a T1 line? o o o o 8 16 24 32 .o o o o o o  Messages that are sent to the syslog server will be limited to levels 3 or lower. WAN is another name for the Internet. only the first three messages will be sent to the server. A WAN is a public utility that enables access to the Internet. Only traffic that originates from the GigabitEthernet 0/1 interface will be monitored. What is a disadvantage of a packet-switched network compared to a circuit-switched network? higher cost fixed capacity less flexibility higher latency o o o o What is a type of VPN that is generally transparent to the end  user? o o o o Which statement best describes a WAN?  o o o o  site-to-site remote access public private A WAN interconnects LANs over long distances. A WAN is a LAN that is extended to provide secure remote network access.

1.0 is incorrectly configured. What is the cause of this problem? o o o o  to provide access to IP telephony services. A network technician attempts to determine if the problem is on the wireless or the wired network. wireless controller services.168. and WAN connections There is no gateway of last resort at R1. a sales person who is using a laptop cannot connect to Server1 through the wireless network.168.2. A ping from R1 to 10. VPN. A small office uses an ISR to provide connectivity for both wired and wireless computers. In the Cisco Enterprise Architectures network design approach what is the purpose of the enterprise edge module? o o o o  Refer to the exhibit. The static route for 192. The . Refer to the exhibit.1. One day.2 is successful. but a ping from R1 to any address in the 192. and unified services to provide high-speed connectivity and protection for servers to forward traffic from one local network to another to provide Internet.2.0 network fails. A default route is not configured on R1. The serial interface between the two routers is down.

What is the probable cause of this problem? .0.technician pings successfully from the wireless laptop to the default gateway IP address on the ISR. Server1 to PC1. the laptop to the Ethernet port on the cable modem. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is troubleshooting the OSPF network.0/16 network is not showing up in the routing table of Router1.10. The 10. What should be the next troubleshooting step? o o o o  Ping Ping Ping Ping from from from from the laptop to PC1. Server1 to its gateway IP address.

0 encapsulation frame-relay frame-relay map ip 192. The OSPF process is not running on Router2. R3 has the following configuration: R3# show running-config –some output text omitted– interface serial0 bandwidth 128 ip address 192. Refer to the exhibit.0/16 on Router2.0.o o o o  The serial interface on Router2 is down. There is an incorrect wildcard mask statement for network 10.2 30 broadcast After the command R3# debug frame-relay packet is executed.10.168.255.2 255. Based on the output of the debug command shown in the graphic and the router .11.11.255. The OSPF process is configured incorrectly on Router1. a ping is issued from R3 to R1 but is unsuccessful.168.

configuration, what is the problem?

o
o
o
o

No clock rate has been configured on interface s0.
There is an incorrect DLCI number in the map statement.
An incorrect IP address exists in the map statement.
The encapsulation frame-relay command is missing the broadcast
keyword.

Refer to the exhibit. What type of Layer 2 encapsulation will
be used for connection D on the basis of this configuration on a
newly installed router:
RtrA(config)# interface serial0/0/0
RtrA(config-if)# ip address 128.107.0.2 255.255.255.252
RtrA(config-if)# no shutdown

o
o
o
o

The security policy in a company specifies that the staff in
the sales department must use a VPN to connect to the corporate
network to access the sales data when they travel to meet
customers. What component is needed by the sales staff to
establish a remote VPN connection?
o
o
o
o

VPN
VPN
VPN
VPN

gateway
appliance
concentrator
client software

Which PPP protocol allows a device to specify an IP address
for routing over the PPP link?
o
o
o
o

Ethernet
Frame Relay
HDLC
PPP

PAP
CHAP
LCP
IPCP

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has configured
routers RTA and RTB, but cannot ping from serial interface to serial
interface. Which layer of the OSI model is the most likely cause of

the problem?

o
o
o
o
o

What is the default location for Cisco routers and switches to
send critical logging events?
o
o
o
o

application
transport
network
data link
physical

auxiliary port
console port
syslog server
virtual terminal

Open the PT Activity. Perform the tasks in the activity
instructions and then answer the question.
Which message is displayed on the web browser?
o
o
o
o

Well done!
PPP is working!
PPP configured!
Configured correctly!

Open the PT activity. Perform the tasks in the activity
instructions and then answer the question.

What is the IP address or range of IP addresses that are used as the
inside global address for packets that originate from PC1 and are
going to the server?​
o

209.165.200.231

o

209.165.200.225 – 200.165.200.229

o

209.165.200.231 – 209.165.200.239

o

192.168.10.21

CCNA 4 END .

CCNA 3 Chapter 1 Exam Answer v5 & v5.999 percent up-time? (Choose two.  Which two features of enterprise class equipment assists an enterprise network in maintaining 99. Which devices exist in the failure domain when switch S3 loses power? .02 2015 (100%) March 21. 2015 by admin · Leave a Comment CCNA 5 Blog 1.) o failover capabilities o collapsed core o redundant power supplies o failure domains o services module Refer to the exhibit.

    o S4 and PC_2 o PC_3 and AP_2 o AP_2 and AP_1 o PC_3 and PC_2 o S1 and S4 Which design feature will limit the size of a failure domain in an enterprise network? o the use of a collapsed core design o the use of the building switch block approach o the installation of redundant power supplies o the purchase of enterprise equipment that is designed for large traffic o volume How can an enterprise network be designed to optimize bandwidth? o by installing devices with failover capabilities o by limiting the size of failure domains o by deploying a collapsed core model o by organizing the network to control traffic patterns Which technology is required when switched networks are designed to include redundant links? o link aggregation o Spanning Tree Protocol o virtual private networks o virtual LANs A network administrator is planning redundant devices and cabling in a switched network to support high availability. Which benefit will implementing the Spanning Tree Protocol provide to this design? .

o Faster convergence is available for advanced routing protocols.) o increased flexibility o decreased number of critical points of failure o reduced costs o increased bandwidth availability o increased network management options As the network administrator you have been asked to implement EtherChannel on the corporate network. What does this configuration consist of? o providing redundant links that dynamically block or forward traffic o grouping multiple physical ports to increase bandwidth between two switches o grouping two devices to share a virtual IP address o providing redundant devices to allow traffic to flow in the event of device failure  Which statement describes a characteristic of Cisco Meraki switches? o They promote infrastructure scalability. o They are cloud-managed access switches that enable virtual stacking of switches.o Multiple physical interfaces can be combined into a single EtherChannel interface. o Redundant paths can be available without causing logical Layer 2 loops. and transport flexibility. What are two benefits of extending access layer connectivity to users through a wireless medium? (Choose two. . o They are service provider switches that aggregate traffic at the edge of the network. operational continuity. o They are campus LAN switches that perform the same functions as Cisco 2960 switches.   o Network access can be expanded to support both wired and wireless devices.

 In which situation would a network administrator install a Cisco Nexus Series or Cisco Catalyst 6500 Series switch to promote infrastructure scalability? o to enable virtual stacking of switches to provide cloud-managed access o on a service provider network to promote integrated security. A network engineer is reviewing a network design that uses a fixed configuration enterprise router that supports both LAN and WAN connections. o New Cisco Catalyst 2960-C switches support PoE pass-through.  o They are modular switches. o It manages the VLAN database. and simplified management o on a data center network to provide expansion and transport flexibility o  on a campus LAN network as access layer switches Which statement describes a characteristic of Cisco Catalyst 2960 switches? o They do not support an active switched virtual interface (SVI) with IOS versions prior to 15.x. o It controls the flow of data via the use of Layer 2 addresses. o It determines the best path to send packets. However. . Which type of device should be used as a​​ replacement? o a Layer 3 switch o a modular router o a PoE device o another fixed configuration router What are two functions of a router? (Choose two. the engineer realizes that the router does not have enough interfaces to support growth and network expansion. o They are best used as distribution layer switches.)  o It connects multiple IP networks.

the network administrator wants to check the routers configuration.) o a direct connection to the console port o a direct connection to the auxiliary port o a terminal emulation client o at least one network interface that is connected and operational o Telnet. From privileged EXEC mode.o   It increases the size of the broadcast domain.) o show flash o show NVRAM o show startup-config o show running-config o show version What is a characteristic of in-band device management?  o It uses a terminal emulation client. . Which two requirements must always be met to use in-band management to configure a network device? (Choose two. or HTTP access to the device Why would a network administrator issue the show cdp neigbors command on a router? o to display device ID and other information about directly connected Cisco devices o to display router ID and other information about OSPF neighbors o to display line status and other information about directly connected Cisco devices o to display routing table and other information about directly connected Cisco devices  Immediately after a router completes its boot sequence. which of the following commands can the administrator use for this purpose? (Choose two. SSH.

o It is used to monitor and make configuration changes to a network device over a network connection.  Mach the purpose to the related configuration item.02 Answers 2015 . (Not all options are used.o It is used for initial configuration or when a network connection is unavailable. o It uses a direct connection to a console or AUX port.) Filed Under: CCNA 3 V5.02 · Tagged With: CCNA 3 v5.

CCNA 3 Chapter 2 Exam Answer v5 & v5. What is the outcome of a Layer 2 broadcast storm?  o Routers will take over the forwarding of frames as switches become congested. What additional information is contained in the 12-bit extended system ID of a BPDU? o MAC address o VLAN ID o IP address .  o CSMA/CD will cause each host to continue transmitting frames. o The Time-to-Live attribute of a frame is set to infinity. o Routers continually forward packets to other routers. o A switch is continually forwarding the same unicast frame. 2015 by admin · Leave a Comment CCNA 5 Blog 1. o ARP broadcast requests are returned to the transmitting host.) o static default routes o implementing VLANs to contain broadcasts o redundant links between Layer 2 switches o link-state dynamic routing that provides redundant routes o removing single points of failure with multiple Layer 2 switches What is a characteristic of a Layer 2 loop?  o Broadcast frames are forwarded back to the sending switch.02 2015 (100%) March 21. Which two network design features require Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) to ensure correct network operation? (Choose two. o New traffic is discarded by the switch because it is unable to be processed.

BPDU guard. and provides support for PortFast. BPDU filter.) o STP o Rapid PVST+ o PVST+ o MSTP . and loop guard? o STP o Rapid PVST+ o PVST+ o MST Which two types of spanning tree protocols can cause suboptimal traffic flows because they assume only one spanningtree instance for the entire bridged network? (Choose two. root guard.o Which three components are combined to form a bridge ID?     port ID o port ID o IP address o extended system ID o MAC address o bridge priority o cost Which STP priority configuration would ensure that a switch would always be the root switch? o spanning-tree vlan 10 priority 0 o spanning-tree vlan 10 priority 61440 o spanning-tree vlan 10 root primary o spanning-tree vlan 10 priority 4096 Which protocol provides up to 16 instances of RSTP. combines many VLANs with the same physical and logical topology into a common RSTP instance.

  In which two port states does a switch learn MAC addresses and process BPDUs in a PVST network? (Choose two. which criteria is considered when electing the root bridge? o lowest IP address o lowest MAC address o highest IP address o highest MAC address Which RSTP ports are connected to end devices?   o trunk ports o designated ports o root ports o edge ports A network administrator is preparing the implementation of Rapid PVST+ on a production network. o PVST+ optimizes performance on the network through autoselection of the root bridge.o RSTP What is an advantage of PVST+?  o PVST+ requires fewer CPU cycles for all the switches in the network. o PVST+ reduces bandwidth consumption compared to traditional implementations of STP that use CST. How are the Rapid PVST+ link types determined on the switch interfaces? .) o blocking o disabled o forwarding o learning o listening If no bridge priority is configured in PVST. o PVST+ optimizes performance on the network through load sharing.

o The role of the ports in all VLANs. o Link types must be configured with specific port configuration commands.o Link types are determined automatically. o Link types can only be configured on access ports configured with a single VLAN. o The number of broadcasts received on each root port. a network engineer issues the show spanningtree command on a switch. o It prevents a rogue switch from becoming the STP root.) o The root bridge BID. o It enables an access port to immediately transition to the forwarding state. o The status of native VLAN ports. o It prevents malicious hosts from connecting to trunk ports.   Which port state will switch ports immediately transition to when configured for PortFast? o listening o learning o forwarding o blocking To obtain an overview of the spanning tree status of a switched network. o The IP address of the management VLAN interface. o Link types can only be determined if PortFast has been configured. What is the purpose of HSRP?   o It provides a continuous network connection when a router fails. Which two items of information will this command display? (Choose two. Which nonproprietary protocol provides router redundancy for a group of routers which support IPv4 LANs? o HSRP o VRRPv2 .

  o GLBP o SLB Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer is troubleshooting host connectivity on a LAN that uses a first hop redundancy . Which protocol information is being displayed in the output? o FHRP o GLBP o HSRP o VRRP Refer to the exhibit.

1 o 192.168.2 o 192.0 o 192.100 Fill in the blank. Fill in the blank. Do not use abbreviations. In FHRP operation.168.protocol.168.2.168.2. Which IPv4 gateway address should be configured on the host?   o 192. The spanning-tree mode rapid-pvst global configuration command is used to enable Rapid PVST+.2.2. two or more routers are represented as a single virtual router. .

 Match the step number to the sequence of stages that occur during the HSRP failover process. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then answer the question. Which switch is the root bridge?​ o Switch_1 o Switch_2 o Switch_3 o Switch_4 . (Not all options are used.)  Open the PT Activity.

CCNA 3 END .

Refer to the exhibit. o The IPv6 DHCP pool configuration has no IPv6 address range specified. 2015 by admin · Leave a Comment CCNA 5 Blog 1.02 2015 (100%) March 21. A network administrator is configuring a router as a DHCPv6 server. Which statement explains the reason that the number of active clients is 0? o The default gateway address is not provided in the pool. o No clients have communicated with the DHCPv6 server yet. when that link to the ISP is enabled? . o The state is not maintained by the DHCPv6 server under stateless DHCPv6 operation. The administrator issues a show ipv6 dhcp pool command to verify the configuration. enables the interface to acquire an IPv4 address automatically from an ISP.CCNA 2 Final Exam Answer v5 & v5. when issued in the interface configuration mode of a router.  Which command.

  o ip dhcp pool o ip address dhcp o service dhcp o ip helper-address Which kind of message is sent by a DHCP client when its IP address lease has expired?​ o a DHCPDISCOVER broadcast message o a DHCPREQUEST broadcast message​ o a DHCPREQUEST unicast message​ o a DHCPDISCOVER unicast message​ Refer to the exhibit. o The ip helper-address command was applied on the wrong interface. PC1 is not able to receive an IPv4 address. However. o R1 is not configured as a DHCPv4 server. R1 has been configured as shown. What is the problem?​ o A DHCP server must be installed on the same LAN as the host that is receiving the IP address.​ o The ip address dhcp command was not issued on the interface Gi0/1. .

7. A college marketing department has a networked storage device that uses the IP address 10.5 443 209.200. and UDP port 4365 for video streaming.5 4365 209.200.7.225 443 10. TCP port 443 for encryption.228-236.165.18.18.5 10.18.165.225 o ip nat inside source static tcp 10.7.7.5 4365 o No additional configuration is necessary.200.165.​   Which type of traffic would most likely have problems when passing through a NAT device? o Telnet o IPsec o HTTP o ICMP o DNS What benefit does NAT64 provide? .18.7.5 443 ip nat inside source static udp 209.5.7.​ o The internal hosts have to use a single public IPv4 address for external communication. The college already uses PAT on the router that connects to the Internet.200.18.165.5 209. The IP NAT pool currently uses the IP addresses ranging from 209.165.7.165.7.18.165. Which configuration would the network administrator add to allow this device to be accessed by the marketing personnel from home? o ip nat pool mktv 10.200.225 443 ip nat inside source static udp 10. What is a disadvantage of NAT?  o There is no end-to-end addressing. o The costs of readdressing hosts can be significant for a publicly addressed network.18.225 4365 o ip nat inside source static tcp 209.225 4365 10.225/30.200.18. The router interface has the public IP address of 209.200.5 o ip nat outside source static 10. o The router does not need to alter the checksum of the IPv4 packets.

PCs on VLAN 10 should be able to print to the P1 printer on VLAN 12.  Refer to the exhibit.o It allows sites to use private IPv6 addresses and translates them to global IPv6 addresses.12 o R1 S0/0/0 o R2 S0/0/1 o R2 Gi0/1.) o R1 Gi0/1. and thus hides the internal addressing structure from hosts on public IPv4 networks. The Gigabit interfaces on both routers have been configured with subinterface numbers that match the VLAN numbers connected to them. o It allows sites to connect multiple IPv4 hosts to the Internet via the use of a single public IPv4 address. but stops the PCs on VLAN 20 from using the P1 printer? (Choose two. o It allows sites to connect IPv6 hosts to an IPv4 network by translating the IPv6 addresses to IPv4 addresses. o It allows sites to use private IPv4 addresses.20 o inbound . PCs on VLAN 20 should print to the printers on VLAN 22. What interface and in what direction should you place a standard ACL that allows printing to P1 from data VLAN 10.

o   outbound Which two packet filters could a network administrator use on an IPv4 extended ACL? (Choose two.1. 192.0. 192. Where would the lt or gt keywords be used? o in an IPv6 extended ACL that stops packets going to one specific destination VLAN o in an IPv4 named standard ACL that has specific UDP protocols that are allowed to be used on a specific server o in an IPv6 named ACL that permits FTP traffic from one particular LAN getting to another LAN o in an IPv4 extended ACL that allows packets from a range of TCP ports destined for a specific network device   Which three values or sets of values are included when creating an extended access control list entry? (Choose three.128/25. . 192.0.168.0/25.168.128/26.0/25.) o destination MAC address o ICMP message type o computer type o source TCP hello address o destination UDP port number A network administrator is explaining to a junior colleague the use of the lt and gt keywords when filtering packets using an extended ACL.168.168.) o access list number between 1 and 99 o access list number between 100 and 199 o default gateway address and wildcard mask o destination address and wildcard mask o source address and wildcard mask o source subnet mask and wildcard mask o destination subnet mask and wildcard mask A network administrator is designing an ACL.1. The networks 192.

0.0.0.1.127 o access-list 5 permit 10.255.0.and 192. Which wildcard mask. Which IPv6 ACE is automatically added implicitly at the end of an ACL so that two adjacent routers can discover each other? o permit ip any any o permit ip any host ip_address o permit icmp any any nd-na o deny ip any any .255 o 0. Which two commands are needed at a minimum to apply an ACL that will ensure that only devices that are used by the network administrators will be allowed Telnet access to the routers? (Choose two.) o access-class 5 in o access-list 5 deny any o access-list standard VTY permit 10.  The computers used by the network administrators for a school are on the 10.0.0.31  o ip access-group 5 out o ip access-group 5 in A network administrator is adding ACLs to a new IPv6 multirouter environment.127 o 0. is the most efficient to use when specifying all of these networks in a single ACL permit entry? o 0.255 o 0.0.0 0.0/27 network.168.192/26 are affected by the ACL.7.0.0 0.255 o A single ACL command and wildcard mask should not be used to specify these particular networks or other traffic will be permitted or denied and present a security risk.0.7.7.0.0. if any.1.0.0.

o It is identified by the prefix C in the routing table. o Another router in the same organization provided the default route by using a dynamic routing protocol. Refer to the exhibit. o IPv6 uses the link-local address of neighbors as the next-hop address for dynamic routes. Which statement is correct about IPv6 routing?  o IPv6 routing is enabled by default on Cisco routers. o It is unaffected by changes in the topology of the network. . o The ip address interface configuration mode command was used in addition to the network routing protocol configuration mode command. o The ipv6 route command was used. o IPv6 routes appear in the same routing table as IPv4 routes. How did the router obtain the last route that is shown? o The ip route command was used. o IPv6 only supports the OSPF and EIGRP routing protocols. o It has an administrative distance of 1.  Which statement describes a route that has been learned dynamically? o It is automatically updated and maintained by routing protocols.

Which type of route is 172. Which type of IPv6 static route is configured in the exhibit? o directly attached static route o recursive static route o fully specified static route o floating static route .16.0/16?    o child route o ultimate route o default route o level 1 parent route Which two factors are important when deciding which interior gateway routing protocol to use? (Choose two.0.Refer to the exhibit.) o scalability o ISP selection o speed of convergence o the autonomous system that is used o campus backbone architecture Refer to the exhibit.

0 S0/0/0 200 o ip route 172.32.0 255.32.224.0 S0/0/0 100 o ip route 172.224.0 255. Which command will implement a backup floating static route to this network? o ip route 172.    A router has used the OSPF protocol to learn a route to the 172.0. o OSPFv3 routers do not need to elect a DR on multiaccess segments. .0.0 S0/0/0 100 Which summary IPv6 static route statement can be configured to summarize only the routes to networks 2001:db8:cafe::/58 through 2001:db8:cafe:c0::/58? o ipv6 route 2001:db8:cafe::/62 S0/0/0 o ipv6 route 2001:db8:cafe::/54 S0/0/0 o ipv6 route 2001:db8:cafe::/56 S0/0/0 o ipv6 route 2001:db8:cafe::/60 S0/0/0 Refer to the exhibit.16.255. o OSPFv3 routers use a 128 bit router ID instead of a 32 bit ID.0/19 network.0 255.255.16.255.0. how many hops away does R1 consider the 2001:0DB8:ACAD:1::/64 network to be? o 1 o 2 o 3 o 4 Which statement is true about the difference between OSPFv2 and OSPFv3? o OSPFv3 routers use a different metric than OSPFv2 routers use.240.16. If RIPng is enabled.32.16.255.16.0 S0/0/0 200 o ip route 172.0 255.

o They exchange abbreviated lists of their LSDBs. o   A lower cost indicates a better path to the destination than a higher cost does. o The OSPFv2 process is enabled on the interface by entering the ospf process area-id command. o They negotiate the election process if they are on a multiaccess network.o OSPFv3 routers do not need to have matching subnets to form neighbor adjacencies.) o the link router interface IP address and subnet mask o the type of network link o the link next-hop IP address o the link bandwidth o the cost of that link Which three requirements are necessary for two OSPFv2 routers to form an adjacency? (Choose three. o Cost equals bandwidth. Which three pieces of information does a link-state routing protocol use initially as link-state information for locally connected links? (Choose three. What does the cost of an OSPF link indicate?  o A higher cost for an OSPF link indicates a faster path to the destination.) o The two routers must include the inter-router link network in an OSPFv2 network command. .  What happens immediately after two OSPF routers have exchanged hello packets and have formed a neighbor adjacency? o They exchange DBD packets in order to advertise parameters such as hello and dead intervals. o Link cost indicates a proportion of the accumulated value of the route to the destination. o They request more information about their databases.

255 0 o RouterA(config-router)# network 192. o Routers send triggered updates in response to a change.0. o The database information for each router is obtained from the same source.) o RouterA(config)# router ospf 0 o RouterA(config)# router ospf 1 o RouterA(config-router)# network 192. o The link interface subnet masks must match.2. Which two commands are required to accomplish this? (Choose two.2.  Why would an administrator use a network security auditing tool to flood the switch MAC address table with fictitious MAC addresses? o to determine which ports are not correctly configured to prevent MAC address flooding o to determine when the CAM table size needs to be increased in order to prevent overflows o to determine if the switch is forwarding the broadcast traffic correctly o to determine which ports are functioning .255.0.168.2. o The link interface on each router must be configured with a link-local address.255.0 0 What are two features of a link-state routing protocol? (Choose two.168. o Paths are chosen based on the lowest number of hops to the designated router.0 255. o The OSPFv2 process ID must be the same on each router.168. o Routers create a topology of the network by using information from other routers.0.255 area 0 o RouterA(config-router)# network 192.0 0.0 0. A router needs to be configured to route within OSPF area 0.) o Routers send periodic updates only to neighboring routers.0.  o The OSPF hello or dead timers on each router must match.

12a0 on port FastEthernet0/8. o The no shutdown command has not been issued on the interface.a0d4. putting Fa0/8 in err-disable state 01:11:12: %PORT_SECURITY-2-PSECURE_VIOLATION: Security violation occurred. Which set of commands would allow only these two laptops to use the Ethernet port and create violation log entry without shutting down the port if a violation occurs? o switchport mode access switchport port-security o switchport mode access switchport port-security switchport port-security maximum 2 switchport port-security mac-address sticky switchport port-security violation restrict o switchport mode access switchport port-security maximum 2 switchport port-security mac-address sticky o switchport mode access switchport port-security maximum 2 switchport port-security mac-address sticky switchport port-security violation protect   Which problem is evident if the show ip interface command shows that the interface is down and the line protocol is down? o An encapsulation mismatch has occurred. o There is an IP address conflict with the configured address on the interface. What caused the following error message to appear? 01:11:12: %PM-4-ERR_DISABLE: psecure-violation error detected on Fa0/8. caused by MAC address 0011. . Two employees in the Sales department work different shifts with their laptop computers and share the same Ethernet port in the office. o A cable has not been attached to the port.

o Port security was enabled on the switch port.  While analyzing log files. o NAT was enabled on a router. changed state to down o Another switch was connected to this switch port with the wrong cable. o The control and management traffic on the error-occurring trunk port is being misdirected or dropped. o Unexpected traffic on the error-occurring trunk port is being received.01:11:13: %LINEPROTO-5-UPDOWN: Line protocol on Interface FastEthernet0/8. changed state to down 01:11:14: %LINK-3-UPDOWN: Interface FastEthernet0/8. o All traffic on the error-occurring trunk port is being switched correctly regardless of the error.) o dynamic desirable – dynamic desirable o dynamic auto – dynamic auto o dynamic desirable – dynamic auto o dynamic desirable – trunk o access – trunk o access – dynamic auto . and an unauthorized connection was made on switch port Fa0/8. o An unauthorized user tried to telnet to the switch through switch port Fa0/8. and a private IP address arrived on switch port Fa0/8. a network administrator notices reoccurring native VLAN mismatches. o A host with an invalid IP address was connected to a switch port that was previously unused.​  Which three pairs of trunking modes will establish a functional trunk link between two Cisco switches? (Choose three. What is the effect of these reoccurring errors? o All traffic on the error-occurring trunk port is being misdirected or dropped.

) o Change the native VLAN on both ports.) o Designed to carry traffic that is generated by users. o Configure one port with the dynamic auto command option and the opposite attached switch port with the dynamic desirable command option. o High priority traffic. o Place the two attached switch ports in access mode. o Configure attached switch ports with the dynamic desirable command option. o Configure attached switch ports with the nonegotiate command option.  A network administrator is using the router-on-a-stick method to configure inter-VLAN routing. On a switch that is configured with multiple VLANs.  o This VLAN is necessary for remote management of a switch. this type of VLAN is also known as the default VLAN. What are two ways of turning off DTP on a trunk link between switches? (Choose two. o The native VLAN provides a common identifier to both ends of a trunk. o The native VLAN traffic will be untagged across the trunk link. which command will remove only VLAN 100 from the switch? . such as voice traffic. Which command should be entered to prepare this port for the task? o Switch(config)# interface gigabitethernet 1/1 Switch(config-if)# spanning-tree vlan 1 o Switch(config)# interface gigabitethernet 1/1 Switch(config-if)# spanning-tree portfast o Switch(config)# interface gigabitethernet 1/1 Switch(config-if)# switchport mode trunk o Switch(config)# interface gigabitethernet 1/1 Switch(config-if)# switchport access vlan 1  Which two characteristics describe the native VLAN? (Choose two. Switch port Gi1/1 is used to connect to the router. uses the native VLAN.

The partial configuration that is shown was used to configure router on a stick for VLANS 10. o The security of management frames that are carried in the native VLAN can be enhanced. o Only devices in VLAN 20 see the frame. and 50.   A network contains multiple VLANs spanning multiple switches. 30. o Switch# delete flash:vlan. testing shows that there are some connectivity problems . o Devices in VLAN 20 and the management VLAN see the frame. o Only devices that are connected to the local switch see the frame. so it should be different from data VLANs. However. Refer to the exhibit.dat o Switch(config-if)# no switchport access vlan 100 o Switch(config-if)# no switchport trunk allowed vlan 100 o Switch(config)# no vlan 100 What is the purpose of setting the native VLAN separate from data VLANs? o The native VLAN is for carrying VLAN management traffic only. o A separate VLAN should be used to carry uncommon untagged frames to avoid bandwidth contention on data VLANs. o The native VLAN is for routers and switches to exchange their management information. What happens when a device in VLAN 20 sends a broadcast Ethernet frame? o All devices in all VLANs see the frame.

between the VLANs.​ o The VLAN IP addresses should belong to the same subnet.50. . o The wrong VLAN has been configured on subinterface Fa0/0. o There is no IP address configured for the FastEthernet 0/0 interface. o The access list permits or denies specific addresses from entering the device doing the translation. o The access list defines the private IP addresses that are to be translated. Which configuration error is causing this problem?  o A configuration for the native VLAN is missing.​ What is the purpose of an access list that is created as part of configuring IP address translation? o The access list defines the valid public addresses for the NAT or PAT pool. o The access list prevents external devices from being a part of the address translation.

2.16. all routes are level​​   ultimate routes.0 172.0 172.2.Static routes are configured by the use of the ip route global configuration command.255.0 172.3.2.16.1 o R2(config)# ip route 172.3.255.0 255.255. In IPv6.3.16.2.0 255.255.255.16.254 o R2(config)# ip route 172. Fill in the blank.16.0 255.The default administrative distance for a static route is 1 .2. Fill in the blank.1 255.0 172.1 o R2(config)# ip route 172.16.255.254 Fill in the blank.  Which command will create a static route on R2 in order to reach PC B? o R2(config)# ip route 172. .16.255.16. The OSPF Type 1 packet is the ​  1 Hello packet.255. Fill in the blank.

(Not all options are used.) o  Which information does a switch use to populate the MAC address table? o the destination MAC address and the incoming port o the destination MAC address and the outgoing port o the source and destination MAC addresses and the incoming port o the source and destination MAC addresses and the outgoing port o the source MAC address and the incoming port o the source MAC address and the outgoing port . Match the order in which the link-state routing process occurs on a router.

How many broadcast and collision domains exist in the topology? o 10 broadcast domains and 5 collision domains o 5 broadcast domains and 10 collision domains o 5 broadcast domains and 11 collision domains o 16 broadcast domains and 11 collision domains What is a function of the distribution layer?   o fault isolation o network access to the user o high-speed backbone connectivity o interconnection of large-scale networks in wiring closets Which switching method drops frames that fail the FCS check? o borderless switching o cut-through switching o ingress port buffering o store-and-forward switching . Refer to the exhibit.