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C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
010-ATC

001.)

002.)

003.)

004.)

Visual Flight Rules


Except when a clearance is obtained from an ATC unit, VFR flights shall not take off
or land at an aerodrome within a CTR or enter the aerodrome traffic zone or traffic
pattern when the
a)

ceiling is less than 1 000 ft or the ground visibility is less than 8 km.

b)

ceiling is less than 1 500 ft or the ground visibility is less than 5 km.

c)

ceiling is less than 1 000 ft or the ground visibility is less than 5 km.

d)

ceiling is less than 2 000 ft or the ground visibility is less than 5 km.

Authority
The final authority as to the disposition of the aircraft has the:
a)

ATC controller whenever the aircraft is flying in controlled airspace.

b)

Pilot-in-command.

c)

aircraft owner.

d)

Operator.

Avoidance of collisions
The highest priority for landing has:
a)

an aircraft that is compelled to land (Emergency landing).

b)

an aircraft on a diplomatic flight (Head of state).

c)

an Air Ambulance carrying a very sick person needing immediate medical attention.

d)

a military aircraft.

Visual Flight Rules


An aircraft operating in accordance with VFR, above the sea at altitudes between 4500
ft and 9000 ft AMSL, outside controlled airspace shall maintain at least
a)

a distance from cloud of 600 m horizontally and 1000 ft vertically and a flight visibility
of 5 km.

b)

a distance from cloud of 1500 m horizontally and 1000 ft vertically and a flight visibility
of 8 km.

c)

a distance from cloud of 1000 m horizontally and 1000 ft vertically and a flight visibility
of 5 km.

d)

a distance from cloud of 1500 m horizontally and 1000 ft vertically and a flight visibility
of 5 km.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 1

C.A.T.
005.)

006.)

007.)

008.)

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
010-ATC

The VMC minima for an airspace classified as "B" above 10 000 feet MSL are:
a)

1 nautical mile horizontally and 1 000 feet vertically from clouds; 8 km visibility

b)

2 000 metres horizontally, 1 000 feet vertically from clouds; 8 km visibility

c)

1 mile horizontally and 1 000 feet vertically from clouds; 5 km visibility

d)

clear of clouds; 8 km visibility

Visual Flight Rules


Above an altitude of 10000 ft, flights operating within airspace Class "G" in
accordance with VFR shall observe the following weather minima:
a)

a distance from cloud: 1 Nautical Mile (NM) horizontally, 1000 ft vertically, flight
visibility: 8 km.

b)

a distance from cloud: 1 Nautical Mile (NM) horizontally, 1000 ft vertically, flight
visibility: 5 km.

c)

a distance from cloud: 1500 m horizontally, 1000 ft vertically, flight visibility: 5 km.

d)

a distance from cloud: 1500 m horizontally, 1000 ft vertically, flight visibility: 8 km.

A controlled flight is requested to inform the appropriate ATC unit whenever the
average True Air Speed at cruising level varies or is expected to vary from that given
in the flight plan by plus or minus:
a)

5%

b)

2%

c)

3%

d)

10 %

Interception
An aircraft equipped with SSR transponder which is intercepted by another aircraft
shall immediately, unless otherwise instructed by the appropriate air traffic service
unit, select Mode A
a)

Code 7000.

b)

Code 7700.

c)

Code 7600.

d)

Code 7500.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 2

C.A.T.
009.)

010.)

011.)

012.)

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
010-ATC

Interception
An aircraft which is intercepted by another aircraft shall immediately attempt to
establish radio-communication with the intercepting aircraft or with the appropriate
intercept control unit, by making a general call on the frequency
a)

121.5 MHz. If no contact has been established, and if practicable, repeat this call on the
frequency 125.5 MHz.

b)

121.5 MHz. If no contact has been established, and if practicable, repeat this call on the
frequency 243 MHz.

c)

243 MHz. If no contact has been established, and if practicable, repeat this call on the
frequency 125.5 MHz.

d)

121.5 MHz. If no contact has been established, and if practicable, repeat this call on the
frequency 282.8 MHz.

Interception, DAY or NIGHT


Which manoeuvre will be executed by an intercepting aircraft if the pilot of this
aircraft wants to communicate to the intercepted aircraft "YOU MAY PROCEED"?
a)

Rocking aircraft and flashing navigational lights at regular intervals.

b)

Circling the intercepted aircraft in a counter-clockwise pattern for aeroplanes, in a


clockwise pattern for helicopter.

c)

Rocking aircraft twice in front of the intercepting aircraft, after acknowledgement by


intercepted aircraft a slow level turn (normally to the left).

d)

An abrupt break-away manoeuvre from the intercepted aircraft consisting of a climbing


turn of 90 degrees or more without crossing the line of flight of the intercepted aircraft.

Which action shall be taken by an aircraft in the traffic pattern of an aerodrome,


experiencing radio failure to indicate difficulties which compel it to land without
requiring immediate assistance?
a)

Switching on and off four times the landing lights

b)

Switching on and off four times the navigation lights

c)

Switching on and off three times the landing lights

d)

The repeated switching on and off of the landing lights

If radio communication is established during an interception but communications in a


common language is not possible, which phrase should be pronounced by the
intercepting aircraft to request the intercepted aircraft to descend for landing?
a)

Descend

b)

Descend for landing

c)

You land

d)

Let down

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 3

C.A.T.
013.)

014.)

015.)

016.)

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
010-ATC

If radio contact with the intercepting aircraft is established but communication on a


common language is not possible, which phrase should be pronounced by the
intercepted aircraft to communicate that he is unable to comply with the instructions
received?
a)

CAN NOT

b)

UNABLE TO COMPLY

c)

CAN NOT COMPLY

d)

NOT POSSIBLE

A flashing red light from control tower during an approach to land means:
a)

Continue circling and wait for further instructions

b)

The airport is unsafe, do not land

c)

The airport is temporarily closed, continue circling

d)

Give way to other aircraft in emergency

On aerodromes aircraft taxiing on the manoeuvring area of an aerodrome shall give


way to:
a)

other converging aircraft

b)

aircraft taking off or about to take off

c)

all vehicles moving on the apron except the "follow me" vehicle

d)

other vehicles and pedestrians

Unless otherwise prescribed, what is the rule regarding level to be maintained by an


aircraft flying IFR outside controlled airspace?
a)

2 000 feet above the highest obstacle within 8 nautical miles of course

b)

1 000 feet above the highest obstacle within 8 kilometres of the estimated position of the
aircraft

c)

2 000 feet above the highest obstacle within 8 kilometres of course

d)

1 000 feet above the highest obstacle within 8 nautical miles of course

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 4

C.A.T.
017.)

018.)

019.)

020.)

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
010-ATC

Aircraft "A" with an ATC clearance is flying in VMC conditions within a control area.
Aircraft "B" with no ATC clearance is approaching at approximately the same altitude
and on a converging course. Which has the right of way?
a)

Aircraft "A" regardless of the direction which "B" is approaching

b)

Aircraft "B" if "A" is on its left

c)

Aircraft "B" regardless of the direction "A" is approaching

d)

Aircraft "A" if "B" is on its right

Which of the following actions shall be taken in case of a controlled flight deviates
from the track?
a)

Notify ATC of the new track immediately and comply with instructions

b)

If VMC, maintain this condition, waiting for the ATC instructions

c)

Inform the ATC unit immediately

d)

Adjust the heading of aircraft to regain track as soon as practicable

While on IFR flight, a pilot has an emergency which causes a deviation from an ATC
clearance. What action must be taken?
a)

Squawk 7700

b)

Request an amended clearance or cancel the IFR flight plan

c)

Submit a detailed report to ATC within 24 hours

d)

The appropriate ATC unit shall be notified of the action taken as soon as circumstances
permit

A signalman will ask the pilot to apply parking brakes by the following signals:
a)

Arms down , palms facing inwards, moving arms from extended position inwards.

b)

Crossing arms extended above his head

c)

Horizontally moving his hands, fingers extended, palms toward ground

d)

Raise arm and hand, with fingers extended, horizontally in front of body , then clench fist

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 5

C.A.T.
021.)

022.)

023.)

024.)

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
010-ATC

An aircraft is flying under Instrument Flight Rules in an area where the visibility is
unlimited and the sky is clear (free of clouds), when it totally loses radio
communications. The procedure to be followed is:
a)

adopt a VFR flight level and continue flight onto destination

b)

descend to En-route Minimum Safe Altitude and join closest airfield open to IFR
operations

c)

continue flight onto destination, complying with last received clearances then with filed
flight plan.

d)

land on the closest appropriate aerodrome, then advise Air Traffic Services of landing

A red flare addressed to a flying aircraft means:


a)

Not with standing any previous instructions, do not land for the time being.

b)

Dangerous airfield. Do not land.

c)

Come back and land.

d)

Give way to another aircraft and hold the circuit.

Definitions (ICAO Doc 8168)


What is:
A turn executed by the aircraft during the initial approach between the end of the
outbound track and the beginning of the intermediate or final approach track.
The tracks are not reciprocal.
a)

Base turn

b)

Procedure turn

c)

Reversal procedure

d)

Race track

OCA
An OCA is referenced to:
a)

the Aerodrome Reference Point

b)

an Aerodrome Elevation

c)

Mean Sea Level

d)

the relevant Runway Threshold

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 6

C.A.T.
025.)

026.)

027.)

028.)

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
010-ATC

Definitions
What is:
A manoeuvre in which a turn is made away from a designated track followed by a turn
in the opposite direction to permit the aircraft to intercept and proceed along the
reciprocal of the designated track:
a)

Race track.

b)

Procedure turn.

c)

Reversal track.

d)

Base turn.

Circling approach
One of the conditions to descent below the MDA on a circling approach is:
a)

The landing runway and an alternative landing possibility (runway) are in sight.

b)

The Ceiling is 1500 ft or higher.

c)

The horizontal Visibility is at least 5 NM and the Ceiling is 1500 ft or higher.

d)

The required visual references have been established and can be maintained.

Holding procedures
If for any reasons a pilot is unable to conform to the procedures for normal conditions
laid down for any particular holding pattern, he should:
a)

follow the radio communication failure procedure.

b)

advise ATC as early as possible.

c)

execute a non-standard holding pattern in accordance with the performance of his


aeroplane.

d)

remain within the protected area, but may deviate from the prescribed holding.

Holding procedures (outbound time)


The outbound time in a holding pattern at 14000 ft or below in still air conditions is:
a)

1 minute.

b)

30 seconds.

c)

2 minutes.

d)

1,5 minutes.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 7

C.A.T.
029.)

030.)

031.)

032.)

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
010-ATC

Holding procedures (entry)


You have received instructions to hold over a radio fix. The published procedure is:
All turns to the right, 1 minute outbound, inbound Magnetic Track 052.
You are approaching the fix on Magnetic Track 232.
Select the appropriate entry procedure:
a)

parallel or direct.

b)

either offset or parallel.

c)

offset only.

d)

direct only.

Holding procedures (outbound time)


The outbound time in a holding pattern above 14000 ft in still air conditions is:
a)

2 minutes 30 seconds.

b)

2 minutes.

c)

1 minute.

d)

1 minute 30 seconds.

Altimeter setting (change during climb)


On flights in accordance with IFR, the change of the altimeter setting from QNH to
Standard shall be made at the:
a)

transition level.

b)

level specified by ATC.

c)

transition layer.

d)

transition altitude.

AIP
Which part contains a brief description of areas and/or routes for which
meteorological service is provided?
a)

METEO

b)

AD

c)

GEN

d)

ENR

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 8

C.A.T.
033.)

034.)

035.)

036.)

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
010-ATC

AIP
Which part of the AIP gives detailed information about refuelling facilities and the fuel
grades available?
a)

AD

b)

FAL

c)

GEN

d)

ENR

AIP
Which part of the AIP contains information relating to existing prohibited, restricted
and danger areas?
a)

ENR

b)

The AIP does not contain this information

c)

GEN

d)

AD

A notice containing information concerning flight safety, air navigation, technical,


administration or legislative matters and originated at the AIS of a state is called:
a)

Aeronautical Information Circular (AIC).

b)

NOTAM.

c)

AIRAC.

d)

Aeronautical Information Publication (AIP).

A notice providing information on Rules of the Air, Air Traffic Services and Air
Navigation Procedures and distributed in advance of its effective date is:
a)

A NOTAM RAC.

b)

An ATS NOTAM.

c)

An Advisory NOTAM.

d)

An AIRAC.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 9

C.A.T.
037.)

038.)

039.)

040.)

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
010-ATC

Each contracting state shall provide an Aeronautical Information Service (AIS) in its
territory and for areas in which the state is responsible for the Air Traffic Services
outside its territory, and this shall include the preparation and origination of:
a)

AIP, NOTAMs, Circular and AIRAC.

b)

Integrated Aeronautical Information Package.

c)

Only NOTAMs and Circulars.

d)

Only AIP and NOTAMs.

"Instrument runways" are the following runways intended for the operation of aircraft
using instrument approach procedures.
a)

Instrument approach runways, precision approach runways category I, II and III.

b)

Precision approach runways in general.

c)

Precision approach runways category I, II and III.

d)

Non precision approach runways, precision approach runways category I, II and III.

"Code letter D" shall be chosen to identify a taxiway used by aircraft having an outer
main gear wheel span of less than 9 m. The taxiway width shall be:
a)

23 m.

b)

18 m.

c)

25 m.

d)

15 m.

"TODA" take-off distance available is:


a)

The length of the take-off run available plus the length of clearway available (if
provided).

b)

The length of the runway available plus the length of clearway available (if provided).

c)

The length of the take-off run available plus the length of the stop way.

d)

The length of the take-off run available plus the length of the stop way and clearway (if
provided).

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 10

C.A.T.
041.)

042.)

043.)

044.)

045.)

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
010-ATC

"Clearway" is defined rectangular area established to:


a)

Permit the aircraft to stop if it fails the take-off.

b)

Protect aircraft during take-off or landing operations.

c)

Reduce the risk of damage to aircraft running off a runway.

d)

Permit aircraft to make a portion of its initial climb to a specific height.

Which "code letter" shall be chosen to identify a taxiway to be used by an aircraft


having a wheel base of 15 m?
a)

Code letter "E".

b)

Code letter "B".

c)

Code letter "C".

d)

Code letter "D".

According to the "Aerodrome Reference Code", the "Code Letter E" shall identify an
aircraft wing span of:
a)

36 m up to but not including 52 m.

b)

24 m up to but not including 36 m.

c)

52 m up to but not including 65 m.

d)

15 m up to but not including 24 m.

In the "Aerodrome Reference Code" the code element 2 shall identify:


a)

The length of the aircraft fuselage.

b)

The width of the aircraft wing.

c)

Only the aircraft wing span.

d)

The aircraft wing span and the outer main gear wheel span.

The "Aerodrome Reference Code" is a code composed of two elements which are
related to the aeroplane performance characteristics and dimensions. These elements
are a combination of a number and a letter as in the example under listed:
a)

4F.

b)

5E.

c)

2B.

d)

6D.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 11

C.A.T.
046.)

047.)

048.)

049.)

050.)

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
010-ATC

According with the "Aerodrome Reference Code" the "Code number 4" shall identify
an aircraft reference field length of:
a)

1 200 m.

b)

1 800 m and over.

c)

1 500 m.

d)

1 600 m.

The STOPWAY is a defined rectangular area on the ground at the end of take-off run
available prepared as a suitable area where:
a)

A landing aircraft can be stopped if overcoming the end of runway.

b)

A landing aircraft can be stopped only in emergency.

c)

An aircraft taking-off or landing can be stopped.

d)

An aircraft can be stopped in the case of an abandoned take-off.

"ASDA" (Acceleration Stop Distance Available) is:


a)

The length of the take-off run available plus the length of the clearway.

b)

The length of the runway plus the length of stop way available (if stop way provided).

c)

The length of the take-off run available plus the length of stop way (if stop way provided)
.

d)

The length of the take-off run available plus the length of stop way and clearway (if
provided) .

How many red lights must a pilot see, whose aircraft, in final approach, is following a
normal glide path defined by a PAPI?
a)

None.

b)

3.

c)

1.

d)

2.

Taxiway centre line lights other than an exit taxiway shall be:
a)

Fixed lights showing green.

b)

Fixed lights showing white.

c)

Fixed lights showing blue.

d)

Fixed lights showing yellow.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 12

C.A.T.
051.)

052.)

053.)

054.)

055.)

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
010-ATC

In a precision approach category I lighting system, the centre line and crossbar lights
shall be:
a)

Fixed lights showing variable white.

b)

Fixed lights showing variable green.

c)

Flashing lights showing variable green.

d)

Flashing lights showing variable white.

The abbreviation PAPI stands for:


a)

Precision Approach Power Index.

b)

Precision Approach Path Indicator.

c)

Precision Approach Power Indicator.

d)

Precision Approach Path Index.

The "PAPI" shall consist of:


a)

Two wing bars of 4 sharp transition multi-lamp or paired units equally spaced.

b)

A wing bar of 4 sharp transition multi-lamp or paired units equally spaced.

c)

Two wing bars of 6 sharp transition multi-lamp or paired units equally spaced.

d)

A wing bar of 2 sharp transition multi-lamp equally spaced.

In the "PAPI" system the pilot during an approach will see the two units nearest the
runway as red and the two units farthest from the runway as white when:
a)

Only on the approach slope.

b)

Below the approach slope.

c)

Above the approach slope.

d)

On or close to the approach slope.

In the case of parallel runways, each runway designation number shall be


supplemented:
a)

By a letter - for example 3 parallel runways "L" and "R" and the central has no letter.

b)

By a number like "0" and "01" for 2 parallel runways.

c)

By a letter for 2 parallel runways.

d)

By a letter - for example 2 parallel runways "L" and "R" - for 3 "L", "C" and "R".

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 13

C.A.T.
056.)

057.)

058.)

059.)

060.)

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
010-ATC

Taxiway edge lights shall be:


a)

Flashing showing blue.

b)

Fixed showing yellow.

c)

Fixed showing green.

d)

Fixed showing blue.

Runway end lights shall be:


a)

Fixed unidirectional lights showing white in the direction of the runway.

b)

Fixed lights showing variable white.

c)

Fixed unidirectional lights showing red in the direction of the runway.

d)

Fixed lights showing variable red.

Runway threshold lights shall be:


a)

Fixed unidirectional lights showing white in the direction of approach to the runway.

b)

Fixed unidirectional lights showing green in the direction of approach to the runway.

c)

Fixed lights green colours.

d)

Fixed lights showing green or white colours.

Runway edge lights excepted in the case of a displaced threshold shall be:
a)

Fixed lights showing variable white or yellow.

b)

Flashing white.

c)

Fixed lights showing variable white.

d)

Fixed lights, white or yellow colour.

Runway threshold identification lights, when provided, should be:


a)

Flashing white.

b)

Flashing green.

c)

Fixed green.

d)

Fixed white.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 14

C.A.T.
061.)

062.)

063.)

064.)

065.)

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
010-ATC

The light shown by an "Aerodrome Identification Beacon" at a land aerodrome shall


be:
a)

White and green colour identification given by Morse Code.

b)

Green colour identification given by Morse Code.

c)

Blue colour identification given by Morse Code.

d)

White colour identification given by Morse Code.

In the "VASIS" , how many light units are in each wing bar?
a)

4.

b)

3.

c)

5.

d)

2.

In a precision approach category I, lighting system, the single, two and three light
sources on the centre line have a length of:
a)

150 m.

b)

250 m.

c)

200 m.

d)

300 m.

High intensity obstacle lights should be:


a)

Fixed red.

b)

Flashing white.

c)

Fixed orange.

d)

Flashing red.

Low intensity obstacle lights on mobile objects shall be:


a)

Flashing red or preferably yellow.

b)

Fixed red or preferably orange.

c)

Fixed red or preferably blue.

d)

Flashing blue.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 15

C.A.T.
066.)

067.)

068.)

069.)

070.)

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
010-ATC

Low intensity obstacle lights on fixed objects shall be:


a)

Flashing red.

b)

Fixed orange.

c)

Flashing yellow.

d)

Fixed red.

The runway edge lights shall be:


a)

blue

b)

white

c)

green

d)

red

A double white cross displayed horizontally in the signal area means:


a)

The aerodrome is being used by gliders and that glider flights are being performed.

b)

Need special precautions while approaching for landing.

c)

An area unit for the movement of aircraft.

d)

Special precautions must be observed due to bad state of the taxiways.

The aerodrome category for rescue and fire fighting is based on:
a)

The over-all length of the longest aeroplane normally using the aerodrome and its
maximum fuselage width.

b)

The over-all length of the longest aeroplane normally using the aerodrome and its
maximum fuselage weight.

c)

The over-all length of the longest aeroplane.

d)

The longest aeroplane maximum width only

The obligation of a carrier to transport any person away from the territory of a
Contracting State shall terminate from the moment such person has been definitely
admitted in other Contracting State of destination.
a)

The obligation is for the Contracting State of the operator.

b)

The obligation of the operator terminates as soon as the person leaves the aeroplane.

c)

The stated above is correct.

d)

The operator has no obligation.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 16

C.A.T.
071.)

072.)

073.)

074.)

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
010-ATC

Search and Rescue


The unit responsible for promoting efficient organisation of search and rescue service
is the:
a)

Flight Information Centre

b)

Alerting Centre

c)

Area Control Centre

d)

Rescue Co-ordination Centre

Accident, incident notification and reporting


After landing, while taxiing towards the apron, the landing gear of your aircraft sinks
into a hole. No persons are injured, but the aircraft sustains structural damage. As a
consequence you have to cancel the onward flight.
a)

This is an incident and the pilot-in-command must report it to the airport authority within
the next 48 hours.

b)

Since there is no person injured and the flight is terminated, a damage report has to be
made out with the services of the aerodrome in charge of the runway and taxiways for the
insurance company.

c)

This is an irregularity in the operation. The crew must inform the operator of the
aerodrome and establish a report.

d)

This is an accident and the crew must follow the procedure relevant to this case.

A controlled airspace extending upwards from a specified limit above the earth is:
a)

Control zone.

b)

Flight Information Region.

c)

Advisory airspace.

d)

Control area.

A controlled airspace extending upwards from the surface of the earth to a specified
upper limit is:
a)

Air traffic zone.

b)

Advisory airspace.

c)

Control area.

d)

Control zone.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 17

C.A.T.
075.)

076.)

077.)

078.)

079.)

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
010-ATC

ATS airspace's where IFR and VFR flights are permitted, all flights are subject to air
traffic control service and are separated from each other is classified as:
a)

Class A.

b)

Class B.

c)

Class E.

d)

Class D.

Aerodrome traffic is:


a)

All traffic in the aerodrome circuit.

b)

All traffic on the manoeuvring area and flying in the vicinity of an aerodrome.

c)

All traffic on the movement area and flying in the vicinity of an aerodrome.

d)

All traffic on the manoeuvring area.

Air Traffic Service unit means:


a)

Air Traffic Control units, Flight Information Centres or Air Services reporting offices.

b)

Air Traffic Control units and Flight Information Centres.

c)

Flight Information Centres and Air Services reporting offices.

d)

Air Traffic Control units and Air Services reporting offices.

Which condition is requested so that an aerodrome may be considered controlled?


a)

The aerodrome shall be located within a controlled airspace.

b)

The aerodrome shall be located within a Control Zone.

c)

The aerodrome shall be located within a Control Zone (CTR) and provided with a
Control Tower.

d)

The aerodrome shall be provided with a Control Tower.

Flight Information Region (FIR) is an airspace within which the following services are
provided:
a)

Flight Information Service, Alerting Service and Advisory Service.

b)

Flight Information Service only.

c)

Flight Information Service and Alerting Service.

d)

Flight Information Service and Advisory Service.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 18

C.A.T.
080.)

081.)

082.)

083.)

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
010-ATC

Control Area (CTA) is defined as follows:


a)

A controlled airspace extending upwards from a specified limit above the earth.

b)

A controlled airspace extending upwards from a height of 1000 feet above the earth.

c)

A controlled airspace extending upwards from the surface of the earth to a specified limit.

d)

A controlled airspace extending upwards from a height of 900 feet above the earth.

A Control Zone shall extend laterally to at least:


a)

10 miles from the centre of the aerodrome or aerodromes concerned in the direction from
which approaches may be made.

b)

20 miles from the centre of the aerodrome or aerodromes concerned in the direction from
which approaches may be made.

c)

15 miles from the centre of the aerodrome or aerodromes concerned in the direction from
which approaches may be made.

d)

5 nautical miles from the centre of the aerodrome or aerodromes concerned in the
direction from which approaches may be made.

A lower limit of a Control Area shall be established at a height above the ground level
or water of not less than:
a)

500 metres.

b)

300 metres.

c)

200 metres.

d)

150 metres.

The units providing Air Traffic Services are:


a)

Area Control Centre - Approach Control Office and Aerodrome Control Tower.

b)

Area Control Centre - Flight Information Region - Approach Control Office and Tower.

c)

Area Control Centre - Flight Information Centre - Approach Control Office - Aerodrome
Control Tower and Air Traffic Services reporting office.

d)

Area Control Centre - Advisory Centre - Flight Information Centre - Approach Control
Office and Tower.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 19

C.A.T.
084.)

085.)

086.)

087.)

088.)

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
010-ATC

Air traffic control service is provided for the purpose of:


a)

Preventing collisions between aircraft, between aircraft and obstacles on the manoeuvring
area and expediting and maintaining an orderly flow of air traffic

b)

Applying separation between aircraft and expediting and maintaining an orderly flow of
air traffic

c)

Preventing collisions between controlled air traffic and expediting and maintaining an
orderly flow of air traffic

d)

Avoiding collisions between all aircraft and maintaining an orderly flow of air traffic

Area Control Centres issue clearances for the purpose of:


a)

Achieving separation between IFR flights

b)

Providing flight Information Service

c)

Providing advisory service

d)

Achieving separation between controlled flights

Clearances will be issued by an ATC unit for the purpose of:


a)

Achieving separation between controlled flights

b)

Providing flight Information Service

c)

Providing alerting services

d)

Providing advisory services

You receive an IFR enroute clearance stating: Clearance expires at 0920. What does it
mean?
a)

If not airborne until 0920, a new clearance has to be issued

b)

After 0920 return to the ramp and file a new flight plan

c)

Do not take off before 0920

d)

The take off clearance is expected at 0920

When are ATIS broadcasts updated?


a)

Only when the ceiling and/or visibility changes by a reportable value

b)

Upon receipt of any official weather, regardless of content change or reported values

c)

Every 30 minutes if weather conditions are below those for VFR ; otherwise hourly

d)

Only when weather conditions change enough to require a change in the active runway or
instrument approach in use

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 20

C.A.T.
089.)

090.)

091.)

092.)

093.)

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
010-ATC

When it becomes apparent that an aircraft is in difficulty, the decision to initiate the
alert phases is the responsibility of the:
a)

flight information or control organisations

b)

search and rescue co-ordination centres

c)

operational air traffic control centres

d)

air traffic co-ordination services

The Alerting Service is provided by:


a)

The Area Control Centres.

b)

The ATC unit responsible for the aircraft at that moment, when it is provided with 121.5
MHz.

c)

The ATS unit responsible for the aircraft at that moment.

d)

Only by ATC units.

The phases related to an aircraft in emergency or believed in emergency are:


a)

uncertainty phase, urgency phase, distress phase.

b)

uncertainty phase, alert phase, distress phase.

c)

uncertainty phase, distress phase, urgency phase.

d)

uncertainty phase, alert phase, distress phase and urgency phase.

A radio communications, "Distress" differs from "Urgency" because in the first case:
a)

There is a serious and imminent danger requiring immediate assistance.

b)

The aeroplane will not be able to reach a suitable aerodrome.

c)

The aeroplane has suffered damages which impair its fitness to fly.

d)

The aeroplane or a passenger's safety require the flight immediately interrupted.

Alert phase is defined as follows:


a)

An emergency event in which an aircraft and its occupants are considered to be


threatened by a danger.

b)

A situation where an apprehension exists as to the safety of an aircraft and its occupants.

c)

A situation related to an aircraft which reports that the fuel on board is exhausted.

d)

A situation related to an aircraft and its occupants are considered to be in a state of


emergency.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 21

C.A.T.
094.)

095.)

096.)

097.)

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
010-ATC

Separation methods and minima - ESSENTIAL TRAFFIC INFORMATION


Essential traffic is:
a)

Controlled Traffic separated from other controlled traffic with the prescribed separation
minima.

b)

Uncontrolled IFR flights separated from uncontrolled VFR flights within advisory
airspace.

c)

Controlled Traffic not separated from another controlled traffic with the prescribed
separation minima.

d)

Controlled IFR flights separated from uncontrolled flights within advisory airspace.

General provisions - change from IFR to VFR


a)

A change from instrument flight rules (IFR) to visual flight rules (VFR) is only
acceptable, when VFR is permitted in that air space and when the PIC has requested and
obtained an ATC CLR for the change and has filed a special VFR flight plan.

b)

the position of the change has been noted on the ATC flight plan. The cancellation of the
IFR flight will then be made automatically by ATC.

c)

the change is initiated by the PIC with a message containing the specific expression
"cancelling my IFR flight".

d)

ATC invites the PIC to change from IFR to VFR.

General provisions - handling an ATC-flight plan in case of a delay In the event of a


delay of a controlled flight, the submitted flight plan should be amended or cancelled
and a new flight plan submitted when the delay is in excess of:
a)

30 minutes of the estimated time off blocks.

b)

30 minutes of the estimated time of departure.

c)

60 minutes of the estimated time off blocks.

d)

60 minutes of the estimated time of departure.

General provisions for ATS - Content of voice position reports (according Doc4444)
A complete position report transmitted by radiotelephony shall contain the following
elements of information in the order listed.
a)

1) Aircraft identification, 2) position, 3) time, 4) flight level or altitude, 5) next position


and time over, 6) ensuing significant point.

b)

1) Aircraft identification, 2) position, 3) flight level or altitude, 4) time, 5) next position


and time over, 6) ensuing significant point.

c)

1) Aircraft identification, 2) position, 3) time, 4) true air speed, 5) flight level or altitude,
6) next position and time over.

d)

1) Aircraft identification, 2) position, 3) time, 4) flight level or altitude, 5) next position,


6) time over.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 22

C.A.T.
098.)

099.)

100.)

101.)

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
010-ATC

General provisions - Responsibility for terrain clearance


Who is in general responsible for an ATC clearance to be safe in respect to terrain
clearance?
a)

The aircraft operator.

b)

The pilot-in-command.

c)

The ATS reporting office accepting the flight plan.

d)

The ATC.

General provisions - handling an ATC-flight plan in case of a delay


In the event of a delay for an uncontrolled flight for which a flight plan has been
submitted, the flight plan should be amended or a new flight plan submitted and the
old one cancelled, when the delay is exceeding the original
a)

estimated departure time by 30 minutes.

b)

estimated off-block time by 30 minutes.

c)

estimated off-block time by 60 minutes.

d)

estimated departure time by 60 minutes.

Procedures related to communication failure - IFR in VMC


Which procedure do you follow after having experienced a two way communication
failure during a flight in accordance with IFR in VMC?
a)

Maintain the assigned level and route and land at the nearest aerodrome where VMC
conditions prevail.

b)

Continue to fly in VMC and return to the aerodrome of departure.

c)

Continue to fly in VMC, land at the nearest suitable aerodrome, report the arrival by the
most expeditious means to the appropriate Air Traffic Control unit.

d)

Continue the flight at the assigned level and route, carry out level changes as indicated in
the filed ATC flight plan, start the approach to the flight plan destination at the planned
ETA.

General provisions - amended clearance


If an ATC clearance is not suitable to the pilot-in-command of an aircraft
a)

The PIC may request an amended clearance from the ATC. Amended clearances will
only be given when VMC prevails.

b)

The PIC has to accept the ATC clearance. The clearance is based on the flight plan filed
with ATC.

c)

The PIC may request and, if practicable, obtain an amended clearance.

d)

The PIC may propose another clearance. ATC has to amend the clearance in accordance
with the pilots request.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 23

C.A.T.
102.)

103.)

104.)

105.)

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
010-ATC

Separation - VMC and own separation


The "Clearance to fly maintaining own separation while in visual meteorological
conditions" may be given by the appropriate ATS authority. This has to be requested
by the pilot of a controlled flight and has to be agreed by the pilot of the other aircraft.
The conditions are:
a)

Airspace Class C, VMC, hours of daylight

b)

Airspace Class B. C, D and E, VMC

c)

Airspace Class D and E, VMC, hours of daylight

d)

Airspace Class C, D, VMC

Separation Methods and Minima General


What are the controlled traffic separation methods applied by ATC?
a)

Vertical and horizontal separation.

b)

Time separation and track separation.

c)

Composite separation.

d)

Vertical, horizontal and angular separation.

Separation methods and minima - vertical separation


The Vertical Separation Minimum (VSM) for flights in accordance with IFR within
controlled airspace below FL 290 is:
a)

2000 feet (600 m).

b)

2500 feet (750 m).

c)

1000 feet (300 m).

d)

500 feet (150 m).

Separation methods and minima - vertical separation


The Vertical Separation Minimum (VSM) for flights in accordance with IFR within
controlled airspace above FL 290 is:
a)

4000 feet (1200 m).

b)

2000 feet (600 m).

c)

1000 feet (300 m).

d)

500 feet (150 m).

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 24

C.A.T.
106.)

107.)

108.)

109.)

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
010-ATC

Communications Failure - Flight Procedures


You are on a flight in accordance with IFR in IMC, exactly on the current flight plan
route.
At 18:36 UTC you receive and acknowledge the following instruction from the radar
controller:
"Turn immediately, fly heading 050 until further advised".
At 18:37 UTC you discover a communication failure. Two way radio communication
cannot be established again.
a)

You continue on Heading 050 for 15 minutes.

b)

You continue on Heading 050.

c)

You continue on Heading 050 for 30 minutes.

d)

You have to return to your current flight plan route.

Separation methods and minima - vertical separation


Above flight level FL 290 the Vertical Separation Minimum (VSM) between aircraft
flying in the same direction is:
a)

4 000 feet.

b)

3 000 feet.

c)

1 500 feet.

d)

2 000 feet.

Separation in the vicinity of aerodromes - timed approaches


A "Timed Approach Procedure" may be utilized as necessary in order to expedite the
approaches of a number of arriving aircraft. This will be obtained by requesting
aircraft to
a)

notify the time when passing a specified point.

b)

pass a specified point inbound at the previously notified time.

c)

keep distance and time equal between aircraft in the approach.

d)

maintain a specified airspeed during the approach procedure.

General provisions for ATS - obstacle clearance


When does Air Traffic Control Services have the responsibility to prevent collisions
with terrain?
a)

ATS never prevent collisions with terrain.

b)

When a flight in accordance with IFR is vectored by radar.

c)

ATS only provides prevention when an aircraft is flying IFR in IMC.

d)

Always when ATS are provided.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 25

C.A.T.
110.)

111.)

112.)

113.)

114.)

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
010-ATC

One of the functions ensured by a radar control unit for the provision of approach
control service is:
a)

To conduct surveillance radar approaches.

b)

To apply a reduced vertical separation of 500 feet between IFR flights and VFR flights.

c)

To provide instructions in order to reduce separations minima, if accepted by the pilots.

d)

To apply a horizontal separation less than 5 NM.

The primary duty provided by a radar unit is:


a)

To assist aircraft due to failure of airborne equipment.

b)

To assist aircraft where navigation appears unsatisfactory.

c)

To assist aircraft on the location storms.

d)

To provide radar separation.

When radar identification of aircraft has been achieved, ATC unit shall:
a)

Inform the aircraft only if radar identification has been achieved without availability of
SSR.

b)

Inform the aircraft only if communication's load permits it.

c)

not advise the aircraft before issuing instructions.

d)

Inform the aircraft prior to issue any instructions or advice based on the use of radar.

One of the functions ensured by a radar control unit for the provision of approach
control service is:
a)

To provide instructions to reduce the separation minima.

b)

To apply a reduced vertical separation of 500 feet between IFR and VFR flights.

c)

To apply a horizontal separation less than 5 NM.

d)

To conduct precision radar approach (PAR).

Except otherwise established by the appropriate ATS authority a Surveillance Radar


Approach (SRA) shall be terminated at a distance from the touchdown of:
a)

2 NM.

b)

3 NM.

c)

5 NM.

d)

4 NM.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 26

C.A.T.
115.)

116.)

117.)

118.)

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
010-ATC

When "Secondary Radar" is used, an aircraft may be identified by one of the following
procedures:
a)

To request pilot to set transponder on position "OFF".

b)

To request pilot to set transponder on position "ON".

c)

To request pilot to switch from "ON" to "STDBY".

d)

Observation of compliance with an instruction to operate transponder from "ON" to


"STBY" and back to "ON".

Where a "Secondary Surveillance Radar" (SSR) is not available, radar identification


may be achieved by one of the following procedures:
a)

To instruct the pilot to execute one or more changes of 10.

b)

To instruct the pilot to execute one or more changes of 20 or more.

c)

To instruct the pilot to execute one or more changes of 30 or more.

d)

To instruct the pilot to execute one or more changes of 45.

Which code shall be used on Mode "A" to provide recognition of an aircraft subjected
to unlawful interference?
a)

Code 2000.

b)

Code 7600.

c)

Code 7700.

d)

Code 7500.

Which does ATC Term "Radar contact" signify?


a)

Your aircraft has been identified on the radar display and radar flight instructions will be
provided until radar identification is terminated.

b)

Your aircraft has been identified and you will receive separation from all aircraft while in
contact with this radar facility.

c)

You will be given traffic advisories until advised that the service has been terminated or
that radar contact has been lost.

d)

ATC is receiving your transponder and will furnish vectors and traffic advisories until
you are advised that contact has been lost.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 27

C.A.T.
119.)

120.)

121.)

122.)

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
010-ATC

What is meant when departure control instruct you to "resume own navigation" after
you have been vectored to an airway?
a)

You are still in radar contact, but must make position reports.

b)

Advisories will no longer be issued by ATC.

c)

You should maintain that airway by use of your navigation equipment.

d)

Radar Service is terminated.

The proficiency check of a pilot took place the 15th of April. The validity of the
previous proficiency check was the 30th of June. The period of the new proficiency
check can be and can't exceed:
a)

15th of October the same year

b)

30th of October the same year

c)

30th of April the following year

d)

31th of December the same year

Abbreviations
What does the abbreviation OIS mean? (Doc 8168)
a)

Obstacle in surface.

b)

Obstacle identification slope.

c)

Obstacle identification surface.

d)

Obstruction in surface.

Abbreviations
In Pans-Ops, the abbreviation DER stands for (Doc 8168)
a)

Distance error in routing.

b)

Direct entry route.

c)

Displaced end of runway.

d)

Departure end of runway.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 28

C.A.T.
123.)

124.)

125.)

126.)

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
010-ATC

Instrument Departure Procedure - Wind correction Flying an Instrument Departure


Procedure pilots are expected to:
a)

request a clearance from ATC with regards to a wind correction to be applied.

b)

ignore the wind and proceed on a heading equal to the track.

c)

request from ATC an adequate heading to cater for wind direction and strength.

d)

correct the track for known wind to remain within the protected airspace.

Departure procedure Design


The main factor/s that dictate/s in general the design of an instrument departure
procedure is/are:
a)

ATC availability and requirements.

b)

airspace restrictions applicable and in force.

c)

availability of navigation aids.

d)

the terrain surrounding the aerodrome.

Instrument Departure Procedures - Obstacle Clearance


The minimum obstacle clearance at the departure end of runway equals:
a)

35 ft.

b)

0 ft.

c)

0.8 % gradient.

d)

3.3 % gradient.

Standard Instrument Departure Procedures - Straight Departures


A straight departure is one in which the initial departure track does not deviate from
the alignment of the extended runway centre line by more than:
a)

30.

b)

15.

c)

45.

d)

12.5.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 29

C.A.T.
127.)

128.)

129.)

130.)

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
010-ATC

Holding procedures - Offset Entry


Above 14000 ft in still air, the outbound time on a 30 offset track is limited to:
a)

2 minutes.

b)

1 minute.

c)

1 minute 30 seconds.

d)

3 minutes.

Arrival and Approach segments, General


What are the names of all separate segments that can be part of an instrument
approach procedure?
a)

Initial, intermediate, final.

b)

Descend, holding arrival, initial, intermediate, final, missed approach.

c)

Arrival, holding, initial, intermediate, final, missed approach.

d)

Arrival, initial, intermediate, final, missed approach.

Approach Procedures -Arrival and Approach Segments


The minimum obstacle clearance in the primary area of the initial approach segment
for an instrument approach procedure is at least:
a)

150m (492 ft).

b)

300m (984 ft).

c)

450m (1476 ft).

d)

600m (1968 ft).

Approach procedures, Arrival and Approach Segments - Intermediate approach


segment
What is the minimum obstacle clearance requirement at the end of the primary area of
the intermediate approach segment in an instrument approach procedure?
a)

150m (492 ft) reducing to 0 m.

b)

450m (1476 ft) reducing to 150 m (492 ft).

c)

300 m (984 ft) reducing to 0 m.

d)

300m (984 ft) reducing to 150 m (492 ft).

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 30

C.A.T.
131.)

132.)

133.)

134.)

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
010-ATC

Approach procedures - Arrival and approach segments


In an instrument approach procedure, the segment in which alignment and descent
for landing are made is called:
a)

Arrival segment.

b)

Initial approach segment.

c)

Final approach segment.

d)

Intermediate approach segment.

Approach procedures - Final approach segment


In a precision approach (ILS), the final approach segment begins at the:
a)

FAP.

b)

FAF.

c)

IF.

d)

MAP.

Approach procedures - final approach segment


In a precision approach (ILS), generally glide path interception occurs at heights
above runway elevation from:
a)

300m (984 ft) to 900m (2955 ft).

b)

150m (492 ft) to 900m (2955 ft).

c)

150m (492 ft) to 300m (984 ft).

d)

300m (984 ft) to 600m (1968 ft).

Approach procedures - Final approach segment - precision approach ILS


The ILS obstacle clearance surfaces assume that the pilot does not normally deviate
from the centreline more than:
a)

A quarter of a scale deflection after being established on the track.

b)

Half a scale deflection after being established on the track.

c)

One full scale deflection after being established on the track.

d)

One and a half of a scale deflection after being established on the track.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 31

C.A.T.
135.)

136.)

137.)

138.)

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
010-ATC

Approach Procedures - Missed Approach Phases


A complete missed approach procedure consists of the following phases?
a)

Arrival, intermediate and final.

b)

Initial, intermediate and final.

c)

Arrival, initial, intermediate and final.

d)

Initial and final.

Approach Procedures Circling


The term used to describe the visual phase of flight after completing an instrument
approach, to bring an aircraft into position for landing on a runway which is not
suitably located for straight-in approach, is:
a)

Visual approach.

b)

Visual manoeuvring (circling).

c)

Contact approach.

d)

Aerodrome traffic pattern.

Approach Procedures Circling


It is permissible to eliminate from consideration a particular sector where a prominent
obstacle exists in the visual manoeuvring (circling) area outside the final approach
and missed approach area. When this option is exercised, the published procedure:
a)

Permits circling only in VMC.

b)

Recommends not to perform circling within the total sector in which the obstacle exists.

c)

Prohibits circling within the total sector in which the obstacle exists.

d)

Prohibits the circling approach to the affected runway.

Approach Procedures - Visual Flight Manoeuvre Circling


A circling approach is:
a)

A visual flight manoeuvre that may be carried out as long as visual ground contact can be
maintained.

b)

A visual flight manoeuvre to be performed when radar vectoring is available.

c)

A visual manoeuvre to be conducted only in IMC.

d)

A visual flight manoeuvre keeping the runway environment in sight while at MDA/H.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 32

C.A.T.
139.)

140.)

141.)

142.)

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
010-ATC

Holding Procedures Entry


Related to the three entry sectors in a holding pattern, there is a zone of flexibility on
either side of the sectors boundaries of:
a)

15.

b)

5.

c)

10.

d)

20.

Holding Procedures - Buffer Area


How far beyond the boundary of the holding area extends the buffer area?
a)

5 NM.

b)

3 NM.

c)

5 km.

d)

3 km.

Altimeter setting procedures - Transition Altitude


The transition altitude of an aerodrome shall be as low as possible but normally not
less than:
a)

1500 ft.

b)

2500 ft.

c)

3000 ft.

d)

1000 ft.

Altimeter setting procedures - Transition Level


The vertical position of an aircraft at or above the transition level with altimeter setting
1013.2 hPa has to be reported:
a)

as Altitude.

b)

as Height.

c)

According to pilot's choice.

d)

as Flight Level.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 33

C.A.T.
143.)

144.)

145.)

146.)

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
010-ATC

SSR Transponder
When an aircraft carries a serviceable transponder, the pilot shall operate the
transponder:
a)

At all times during flight, regardless of whether the aircraft is within or outside airspace
where SSR is used for ATS purposes.

b)

Only when the aircraft is flying within airspace where SSR is used for ATS purposes.

c)

Only when the aircraft is flying within controlled airspace.

d)

Only when directed by ATC.

SSR Transponder
When the aircraft carries serviceable Mode C transponder, the pilot shall continuously
operate this mode
a)

regardless of ATC instructions.

b)

unless otherwise directed by ATC.

c)

only when the aircraft is flying within controlled airspace.

d)

only when directed by ATC.

SSR Transponder
When an aircraft is subjected to unlawful interference, the pilot-in-command shall
indicate the situation by setting the transponder to Mode A, Code
a)

7700.

b)

7600.

c)

7000.

d)

7500.

SSR Transponder
Pilots shall not SQUAK IDENT unless they:
a)

operate within controlled airspace.

b)

are requested by ATC.

c)

operate a transponder with Mode C.

d)

operate outside controlled airspace.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 34

C.A.T.
147.)

148.)

149.)

150.)

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
010-ATC

SSR Transponder
When acknowledging mode / code setting instructions, pilots shall:
a)

read back the mode and code to be set.

b)

read back the code to be set and SQUAK IDENT.

c)

use the word ROGER.

d)

use the word WILCO.

The longitudinal separation minima based on time between aircraft at same cruising
level where navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed, is:
a)

3 minutes.

b)

15 minutes.

c)

10 minutes.

d)

5 minutes.

The longitudinal separation minima based on time between aircraft at same cruising
level where navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed and
the preceding aircraft is maintaining a true airspeed of 20 kt or more faster than the
succeeding aircraft, is:
a)

5 minutes.

b)

10 minutes.

c)

3 minutes.

d)

15 minutes.

The longitudinal separation minima based on time between aircraft at same cruising
level where navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed and
the preceding aircraft is maintaining a true airspeed of 40 kt or more faster than the
succeeding aircraft, is:
a)

5 minutes.

b)

6 minutes.

c)

10 minutes.

d)

3 minutes.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 35

C.A.T.
151.)

152.)

153.)

154.)

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
010-ATC

The longitudinal separation minima between aircraft departed from the same
aerodrome and following the same track, and the preceding aircraft is maintaining a
true airspeed of 20 kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft, is:
a)

2 minutes.

b)

5 minutes.

c)

3 minutes.

d)

10 minutes.

The longitudinal separation minima between aircraft departed from the same
aerodrome and following the same track, and the preceding aircraft is maintaining a
true airspeed of 40 kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft, is:
a)

3 minutes.

b)

5 minutes.

c)

10 minutes.

d)

8 minutes.

When an aircraft will pass through the level of another aircraft on the same track, the
following minimum longitudinal separation shall be provided:
a)

5 minutes at the time the level is crossed.

b)

20 minutes at the time the level is crossed.

c)

15 minutes at the time the level is crossed.

d)

10 minutes at the time the level is crossed.

The longitudinal separation minima based on distance using DME, and each aircraft
"on track" uses DME stations, is:
a)

20 NM when the leading aircraft maintains a true airspeed of 20 kt or more faster than the
succeeding aircraft.

b)

5 NM.

c)

20 NM.

d)

10 NM.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 36

C.A.T.
155.)

156.)

157.)

158.)

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
010-ATC

The longitudinal separation minima based on DME, and each aircraft "on track" uses
DME stations, is:
a)

20 NM provided that the leading aircraft maintains a true airspeed of 10 kt or more faster
than the succeeding aircraft.

b)

10 NM provided that the leading aircraft maintains a true airspeed of 20 kt or more faster
than the succeeding aircraft.

c)

10 NM provided that the leading aircraft maintains a true airspeed of 10 kt or more faster
than the succeeding aircraft.

d)

10 NM provided that the leading aircraft maintains a true airspeed of 40 kt or more faster
than the succeeding aircraft.

A "RNAV" distance based separation minimum may be used at the time the level is
crossed, provided that each aircraft reports its distance to or from the same "on
track" way-point. This minimum is:
a)

20 NM.

b)

50 NM.

c)

80 NM.

d)

60 NM.

A VFR flight constitutes essential traffic to other VFR flights, when operating in
controlled airspace classified as:
a)

B.

b)

B, C and D.

c)

B and C.

d)

B, C, D and E.

One minute separation may be used between departing aircraft if they are to fly on
tracks diverging by at least:
a)

30 immediately after take-off.

b)

25 immediately after take-off.

c)

45 immediately after take-off.

d)

15 immediately after take-off.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 37

C.A.T.
159.)

160.)

161.)

162.)

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
010-ATC

Two minutes separation may be used between departing aircraft if they are to fly on
the same track, when:
a)

The preceding aircraft is 10 kt or more faster than the following aircraft.

b)

The preceding aircraft is 30 kt or more faster than the following aircraft.

c)

The preceding aircraft is 20 kt or more faster than the following aircraft.

d)

The preceding aircraft is 40 kt or more faster than the following aircraft.

When vectoring an aircraft to intercept the localizer course, the final vector furnished
shall be such as to enable the aircraft to intercept the localizer course at an angle not
greater than:
a)

20 degrees.

b)

25 degrees.

c)

15 degrees.

d)

30 degrees.

The following minimum radar separation shall be provided between aircraft on the
same localizer with additional longitudinal separation as required for wake
turbulence:
a)

3 NM.

b)

5 NM.

c)

2 NM.

d)

2.5 NM.

The minimum radar separation to be provided to aircraft established on the localizer


course shall be:
a)

5.0 NM between aircraft on the same localizer course.

b)

3.0 NM between aircraft on the same localizer course.

c)

2.0 NM between aircraft on the same localizer course.

d)

3.0 NM between aircraft on adjacent localizer course.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 38

C.A.T.
163.)

164.)

165.)

166.)

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
010-ATC

The tolerance value used to determine that mode C derived level information
displayed to the controller is accurate shall be:
a)

+/- 500 ft.

b)

+/- 200 ft.

c)

+/- 250 ft.

d)

+/- 300 ft.

Unless otherwise prescribed by the appropriate ATS authority, the horizontal radar
separation minimum shall be:
a)

5.0 NM.

b)

3.5 NM.

c)

3.0 NM.

d)

10.0 NM.

The criterion which shall be used to determine that a specific level is occupied by an
aircraft shall be, (except that appropriate ATS authorities may specify a smaller
criterion):
a)

+/- 200 ft.

b)

+/- 150 ft.

c)

+/- 250 ft.

d)

+/- 300 ft.

An aircraft is considered to be maintaining its assigned level as long as the SSR mode
C derived level information indicated that it is within:
a)

+/- 500 ft of the assigned level.

b)

+/- 200 ft of the assigned level.

c)

+/- 300 ft of the assigned level.

d)

+/- 250 ft of the assigned level.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 39

C.A.T.
167.)

168.)

169.)

170.)

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
010-ATC

An aircraft in climb or descent is considered to have crossed a level when the SSR
mode C derived level information indicates that it has passed this level in the required
direction by:
a)

More than 300 ft.

b)

+/- 300 ft.

c)

300 ft.

d)

More than 200 ft.

The radar separation minimum may be reduced but not below:


a)

1.5 NM.

b)

2.0 NM.

c)

3.0 NM.

d)

5.0 NM.

Unless otherwise prescribed by the appropriate ATS authority, the radar controller
should notify the non-radar controller when an aircraft making a radar approach is
approximately:
a)

8 NM.

b)

6 NM.

c)

10 NM.

d)

5 NM.

An aircraft making a radar approach should be advised to consider executing a


missed approach, if the position or identification of the aircraft is in doubt during any
portion of the final approach or if the aircraft is not visible on the radar display for
significant interval during the last:
a)

2 NM.

b)

3 NM.

c)

4 NM.

d)

1 NM.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 40

C.A.T.
171.)

172.)

173.)

174.)

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
010-ATC

When conducting a surveillance radar approach, the radar controller shall terminate
the surveillance radar approach, except as determined by the appropriate ATS
authority, at a distance of:
a)

1 NM from touchdown.

b)

3 NM from touchdown.

c)

2.5 NM from touchdown.

d)

2 NM from touchdown.

Subject to conditions specified by the appropriate ATS authority, a radar controller


may request radar-controlled aircraft to adjust their speed when established on
intermediate and final approach. This speed adjustment should not be more than:
a)

+/- 15 kt.

b)

+/- 20 kt.

c)

+/- 10 kt.

d)

+/- 8 kt.

The radar controller shall not request the pilot to adjust the speed where the aircraft
has passed:
a)

3 NM from the threshold on final approach.

b)

5 NM from the threshold on final approach.

c)

2 NM from the threshold on final approach.

d)

4 NM from the threshold on final approach.

Aircraft wishing to conduct IFR flight within advisory airspace, but not electing to use
the air traffic advisory service:
a)

Shall nevertheless submit a flight plan but changes made thereto are not necessary to be
notified.

b)

may file a flight plan under pilot's discretion.

c)

need to file a flight plan

d)

Shall nevertheless submit a flight plan and notify changes made thereto to the ATS unit
providing that service.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 41

C.A.T.
175.)

176.)

177.)

178.)

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
010-ATC

Search and Rescue


The colour of droppable containers and streamers for medical supply and first aid
equipment is:
a)

Black

b)

Red

c)

Blue

d)

Yellow

The colour identification of the contents of droppable containers and packages


containing survival equipment should take the form of coloured streamers according
to the following code:
a)

Blue for medical supplies and first aid equipment.

b)

Red for food and water.

c)

Black for food and water.

d)

Yellow for blankets and protective clothing.

Search and Rescue


The colour of droppable containers and streamers for food and water is:
a)

Red

b)

Blue

c)

Yellow

d)

Black

The prescribed re-examination of a licence holder operating in an area distant from


designated medical examination facilities may be deferred at the discretion of the
licence authority, provided that such deferment shall only be made as an exception
and shall not exceed:
a)

A single period of three month in the case of a flight crew member of an aircraft engaged
in commercial operations.

b)

A single period of six month in the case of a flight crew member of an aircraft engaged in
non-commercial operations.

c)

Two consecutive periods each of six month in the case of a flight crew member of an
aircraft engaged in non-commercial operations.

d)

Two consecutive periods each of three month in the case a flight crew member of an
aircraft engaged in non-commercial operations.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 42

C.A.T.
179.)

180.)

181.)

182.)

183.)

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
010-ATC

In accordance with annex 1, when a contracting state renders valid a licence issued
by another contracting state, the validity of the authorisation:
a)

Shall not extend beyond the period of validity of the licence.

b)

Is only considered for PPL.

c)

Shall not extend beyond one year for ATPL and PCL.

d)

Depends on the regulations of the contracting sate which renders valid the licence.

Which body of ICAO finalises the Standard and Recommended Practices (SARPS) for
submission for adoption?
a)

the Air Navigation Commission

b)

the Assembly

c)

the Council

d)

the Regional Air Navigation meeting

You may act as a flight instructor to carry out flight instruction for the issue of a PPL
a)

With a valid licence plus flight instructor rating

b)

With a PPL plus flight instructor rating

c)

With a CPL

d)

With a PPL plus CPL theory

The validity of the instrument-rating aeroplane - IR(A) is:


a)

6 months

b)

5 years

c)

1 year

d)

2 years

AIP
Which part of the AIP contains a list with "Location Indicators"?
a)

ENR

b)

AD

c)

LOC

d)

GEN

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 43

C.A.T.
184.)

185.)

186.)

187.)

188.)

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
010-ATC

The minimum age for obtaining a PPL is:


a)

17 years

b)

16 years

c)

21 years

d)

18 years

An aircraft is considered to overtake another if it approaches the other aircraft from


the rear on a line forming an angle of less than:
a)

70 degrees with the plane of symmetry of the latter

b)

50 degrees with the plane of symmetry of the latter

c)

80 degrees with the plane of symmetry of the latter

d)

60 degrees with the plane of symmetry of the latter

Which provisions on a VFR-flight in Class E airspace are CORRECT?


a)

Service provided: Traffic Information as far as practical; ATC Clearance: not required ;

b)

Service provided: Air Traffic Control Service; ATC Clearance: required ;

c)

Service provided: Air Traffic Control Service; ATC Clearance: not required

d)

Service provided: Traffic Information as far as practical; ATC Clearance: required ;

VMC minima for VFR flights in Class B airspace, above 3050m (10000 ft) AMSL, are:
a)

5 km visibility, 1500 m horizontal and 1000 ft vertical distance from clouds ;

b)

8 km visibility, 1500 m horizontal and 1000 ft vertical distance from clouds ;

c)

8 km visibility, and clear of clouds ;

d)

No minima, VFR flights are not permitted

During an IFR flight in VMC in controlled airspace you experience a two-way radio
communication failure. You will:
a)

Land at the nearest suitable aerodrome and inform ATC

b)

Descend to the flight level submitted for that portion of flight ;

c)

Land at the nearest suitable aerodrome maintaining VMC and inform ATC ;

d)

Select A7600 and continue according current flight plan to destination ;

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 44

C.A.T.
189.)

190.)

191.)

192.)

193.)

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
010-ATC

An airline is planning a flight that will require a Technical landing in a neighbouring


state. Which freedom of the Air will be exercised?
a)

2nd freedom

b)

3rd freedom

c)

1st freedom

d)

4th freedom

Radar controlled aircraft on intermediate or final approach may be requested to make


minor speed adjustments by ATC. These adjustments shall never be more than:
a)

25 knots at any stage

b)

20 knots and not within 4 NM of threshold

c)

15 knots at any stage

d)

10 knots and not within 5 NM of threshold

What is the length of an approach lighting system of a precision-approach runway


CAT II:
a)

300m

b)

150m

c)

600m

d)

900m

What is a "barrette"?
a)

a frangible structure on which approach lights are fixed.

b)

three or more ground lights closely spaced together to appear as a bar of lights.

c)

a CAT II or III holding position.

d)

a high obstacle near the runway and/or taxiway.

When a fixed-distance marking has to be provided this marking shall commence at:
a)

450 m from threshold

b)

150 m from threshold

c)

600 m from threshold

d)

300 m from threshold

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 45

C.A.T.
194.)

195.)

196.)

197.)

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
010-ATC

Approach Procedures - Non-precision - straight-in


A so-called "straight-in-approach" is considered to be acceptable for a non-precision
approach, if the angle between the final approach track and the runway centreline is:
a)

20 or less

b)

40 or less

c)

10 or less

d)

30 or less

To perform a VFR flight in airspace classification E :


a)

a clearance and/or two-way radio communication is required.

b)

a clearance and two-way radio communication is required.

c)

a clearance is required.

d)

two way radio communication is not required.

Which statement regarding approach control service is correct?


a)

If it is anticipated that an aircraft has to hold for 30 minutes or more, an Expected


Approach Time will be transmitted by the most expeditious means to the aircraft

b)

An approach sequence shall be established according to the sequence of initial radio


contact between aircraft and approach control ;

c)

During a visual approach an aircraft is maintaining its own separation ;

d)

Approach control have to advise the aircraft operators about substantial delays in
departure in any event when they are expected to exceed 45 minutes ;

Radar identification of a departing aircraft can be achieved if a radar blip is observed


within a certain distance from the end of the runway.
Identification has to be achieved within:
a)

1NM

b)

5NM

c)

3NM

d)

2NM

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 46

C.A.T.
198.)

199.)

200.)

201.)

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
010-ATC

Runway-lead-in lighting should consist:


a)

of group of at least three white lights flashing in sequence towards the runway ;

b)

of an arbitrary amount of green lights;

c)

always of a straight row of lights towards the runway

d)

of flashing lights only;

Which of the following statements regarding Alerting service is correct?


a)

Alerting Service and Flight Information Service are often provided by the same ATS unit

b)

The distress phase is established when an aircraft is known or believed to be the subject
of unlawful interference

c)

Aircraft in the vicinity of an aircraft known or believed to be the subject of unlawful


interference, shall be informed about this;

d)

The Alert phase is established when no communication has been received from an
aircraft within a period of thirty minutes after the time a communication should have
been received;

Which of the following statements regarding aerodrome control service is correct?


a)

An aircraft entering the traffic circuit without permission of ATC, will be cleared to land
if this is desirable ;

b)

Suspension of VFR operations can not be initiated by the aerodrome controller;

c)

The aerodrome control service is a service provided for the purpose of preventing
collisions between aircraft on the movement area;

d)

ATC permission is required for entering the apron with a vehicle

Which statement is correct?


a)

The upper limit of a CTR shall be established at a height of at least 3000ft AMSL;

b)

The lower limit of a TMA shall be established at a height of at least 700ft AGL;

c)

The lower limit of an UIR may coincide with an IFR cruising level

d)

The lower limit of a CTA shall be established at a height of at least 1500ft AGL;

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 47

C.A.T.
202.)

203.)

204.)

205.)

206.)

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
010-ATC

The separation method whereby the vertical and horizontal separation may be
reduced till a maximum of half the standard criteria is called:
a)

Composite separation

b)

Reduced separation

c)

Combined separation

d)

Essential separation

The closure of a runway for a year, because of maintenance, will be published:


a)

only in AIP

b)

in NOTAM and AIP, inclusive Supplement.

c)

NOTAM, AIP and MAL

d)

only in NOTAM

Aerodromes signs should be in the following configuration:


a)

mandatory instruction signs; black background with red inscriptions.

b)

mandatory instruction signs ; red background with black inscriptions.

c)

information signs; yellow or black background with black or yellow inscriptions.

d)

information signs; orange background with black inscriptions.

When a controlled flight inadvertently deviates from its current flight plan, ATC has to
be informed in case:
a)

it is a deviation from the track.

b)

the TAS varies by plus or minus 5% of the TAS notified in the flight plan.

c)

the estimated time is in error by more than 10 minutes.

d)

of an emergency.

When the transponder appears to be unserviceable prior to departure and restore is


impossible, than:
a)

you must indicate the failure in the fight plan, after which the ATC will endeavour to
provide for continuation of the flight;

b)

you are not allowed to commence the flight

c)

the flight can only continue in the most direct manner;

d)

departure to the nearest suitable airport where repair can be effected is allowed

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 48

C.A.T.
207.)

208.)

209.)

210.)

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
010-ATC

Where State has not established minimum IFR altitudes, the minimum height of an
aircraft above the highest obstacle over high terrain, or in mountainous areas shall be
for an IFR flight:
a)

at least 1000 feet within 8 KM of the estimated position

b)

at least 1000 feet within 5KM of the estimated position

c)

at least 2000 feet within 8 KM of the estimated position

d)

at least 2000 feet within 5KM of the estimated position

An aircraft shall display, if so equipped, an anti-collision light:


a)

while taxiing, but not when it is being towed;

b)

outside the daylight-period in flight, but not on the ground when it is being towed;

c)

on the ground when the engines are running

d)

outside the daylight-period at engine-start. During the daylight-period this is not


applicable;

The white dumb-bell with black perpendicular bar indicates that:


a)

this aerodrome is using parallel runways

b)

taxiing need not be confined to the taxiways ;

c)

glider flying is performed outside the landing area;

d)

landing, take-off and taxiing is allowed on runway and/or taxiway only;

Interception
If any instructions received by radio from any sources conflict with those given by the
intercepting aircraft by visual signals, the intercepted aircraft shall:
a)

select transponder mode A, squawk 7600, fly holding patterns until having received
instructions from the appropriate ATS unit.

b)

ignore the signals of the intercepting aircraft and request instructions from the appropriate
ATS unit.

c)

ignore the signals of the intercepting aircraft and continue in accordance with the last
clearance received and confirmed by the appropriate ATS unit.

d)

follow the instructions of the intercepting aircraft and request immediate clarification.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 49

C.A.T.
211.)

212.)

213.)

214.)

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
010-ATC

Approach procedures - Instrument Approach Area


The primary area of an instrument approach segment is:
a)

the most critical part of the segment where the minimum altitude should be kept very
carefully.

b)

a defined area symmetrically disposed about the nominal flight track in which the
Minimum Obstacle Clearance is provided.

c)

the outside part of the segment where the obstacle clearance increases from zero ft to the
appropriate minimum.

d)

the first part of the segment.

A so called "Visual Approach" can be performed:


a)

during IFR flights, if there is permanent sight on the movement area and the underlying
ground;

b)

during IFR flights, if the cloud base is 1000 ft more than the appropriate DA or MDA for
that procedure;

c)

as in above, but in addition there should be a visibility of 5,5 km or more

d)

during IFR and VFR flights in VMC;

An approaching aircraft may descent below the MSA if:


a)

the aircraft gets radar vectors ;

b)

the pilot is following the published approach procedure

c)

the pilot has the field and the underlying terrain in sight and will keep it in sight;

d)

all mentioned answers are correct

To be able to execute a public transport flight, the minimum and maximum age (with
ATPL) is:
a)

18 and 60 years

b)

17 and 59 years

c)

21 and 59 years

d)

16 and 60 years

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 50

C.A.T.
215.)

216.)

217.)

218.)

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
010-ATC

The EAT has to be transmitted to the pilot as soon as possible, in case the expected
delay is:
a)

15 minutes or more

b)

10 minutes

c)

20 minutes

d)

5 minutes or more.

Except when prescribed in procedures or made possible by agreements, aircraft


under radar-control shall not be vectored closer to the boundary of controlled
airspace than:
a)

2,5 NM

b)

3 NM

c)

5 NM

d)

1,5 NM

During radar-control, a "radar-controller" shall issue a missed-approach instruction,


in case the "tower-controller" has not issued a "landing-clearance" at the moment the
aircraft is:
a)

2 NM from touch-down;

b)

4 NM from touch-down;

c)

3 NM from touch-down;

d)

1NM from touch-down;

Which statement is correct ?


During a "Visual Approach" in Controlled Airspace (Class C):
a)

the pilot to apply separation with other traffic;

b)

ATC will apply separation with other traffic

c)

ATC will apply separation with other arriving traffic

d)

ATC will apply separation only with other IFR-traffic

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 51

C.A.T.
219.)

220.)

221.)

222.)

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
010-ATC

"Cabotage" refers to:


a)

domestic air services ;

b)

a flight above territorial waters;

c)

a national air carrier;

d)

crop spraying

A Special Air Report comprises a number of sections.


In section I the pilot fills in:
a)

a position report, including aircraft identification, height, position and time ;

b)

flight identification and weather noted ;

c)

weather noted ;

d)

urgent messages

An aircraft which is being subjected to unlawful interference ('hijacked') and is forced


to divert from the cleared track or cruising level without being able to communicate
with ATS shall try to:
a)

Declare an emergency

b)

As soon as possible commence emergency descent in order minimise the difference


between cabin pressure and outside pressure

c)

Continue at an altitude that differs from the semicircular rule with 1000 feet when above
FL 290 and 500 feet when lower than FL 290

d)

Fly the emergency triangle

What is the speed limit (IAS) in airspace class E?


a)

250 kt for IFR and VFR UP TO FL 100

b)

250 kt only for VFR up to FL 195

c)

250 kt only for IFR up to FL 100

d)

250 kt VFR and IFR, all levels

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 52

C.A.T.
223.)

224.)

225.)

226.)

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
010-ATC

Within the Annex to the ICAO convention that specifies dimensions of aerodromes are
codes for different runways. Which is the minimum width of a runway with runway
code 4?
a)

40 metres

b)

35 metres

c)

45 metres

d)

50 metres

Within the Annex to the ICAO convention that specifies dimensions of aerodromes is
a specific dimension given for the approach light system for CAT 1 ILS. What should
be the length of this approach light system?
a)

900 metres

b)

1000 metres

c)

420 metres

d)

1200 metres

One of the main objectives of ICAO is to:


a)

approve new international airlines

b)

approve the ticket prices set by international airline companies

c)

develop principles and technique for international aviation

d)

approve new international airlines with jet aircraft

The 'Standards' contained in the Annexes to the Chicago convention are to be


considered:
a)

binding for the member states that have not notified ICAO about a national difference

b)

binding for all member states

c)

advice and guidance for the aviation legislation within the member states

d)

binding for all air line companies with international traffic

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 53

C.A.T.
227.)

228.)

229.)

230.)

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
010-ATC

The Warsaw convention and later amendments deals with:


a)

the regulation of transportation of dangerous goods

b)

limitation of the operator's liability for damage caused to passengers and goods
transported

c)

operators licence for international scheduled aviation

d)

the security system at airports

Altimeter setting procedures - transition altitude / level


In the vicinity of an aerodrome of intended landing or used for take-off, the vertical
position of aircraft shall be expressed in term of:
a)

altitude above mean sea level at or below the transition altitude

b)

flight level at or below the transition level

c)

altitude above mean sea level at or above the transition altitude

d)

flight level at or below the transition altitude

Altimeter setting procedures - Transition Layer


When flying through the transition layer the vertical position of the aircraft should be
expressed as:
a)

either altitude or flight level during climb

b)

flight level during descent

c)

altitude during climb

d)

altitude during descent

Which of the following alternatives describes the complete CAT 1 ('Calvert') type of
approach light system?
a)

3 crossbars, centre line with 3, 2 or 1 lamp per light unit

b)

5 crossbars, centre line with 3, 2 and 1 lamp per light unit

c)

4 crossbars, centre line with 3 or 2 lamps per light unit

d)

3 crossbars, centre line with 3 or 2 lamps per light unit

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 54

C.A.T.
231.)

232.)

233.)

234.)

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
010-ATC

The air traffic control unit has reported 'radar contact', what does that mean to the
pilot?
a)

The radar identity of the aircraft has been established

b)

The aircraft is subject to positive control

c)

The pilot does not have to follow up the position of the aircraft

d)

Position reports may be omitted

What is the minimum vertical separation between aircraft flying IFR below flight level
290?
a)

1500 feet

b)

500 feet

c)

1000 feet

d)

2000 feet

Change from IFR to VFR will always take place:


a)

on the initiative of the aircraft commander

b)

as instructed by an air traffic control unit

c)

at the clearance limit, irrespective of the weather conditions

d)

when the aircraft is leaving controlled airspace during VMC

Approach procedures Circling


The visual contact with the runway is lost on the down-wind leg, while circling to land
following an instrument approach. You have to initiate a go-around:
a)

If you have other visual cues of the aerodrome environment, continue with visual ground
contact.

b)

Turn towards the runway, maintain altitude and request ATC instructions.

c)

Make a turn of 90 degrees towards the runway and try to regain visual contact.

d)

Make an initial climbing turn towards the runway and initiate the missed approach.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 55

C.A.T.
235.)

236.)

237.)

238.)

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
010-ATC

Which of the following is obligating for members of ICAO?


a)

ICAO must be informed about differences from the standards in any of the Annexes to
the convention

b)

ICAO must be informed about new flight crew licenses and any suspended validity of
such licenses

c)

ICAO must be informed about changes in the national regulations

d)

ICAO shall approve the pricing of tickets on international airline connections

An aircraft which is being subjected to unlawful interference ('hijacked') and is forced


to divert from the cleared track or cruising level without being able to communicate
with ATS shall try to:
a)

Declare an emergency

b)

Continue at an altitude that differs from the semicircular rule with 1000 feet when above
FL 290 and 500 feet when lower than FL 290

c)

Fly the emergency triangle

d)

As soon as possible commence emergency descent in order minimise the difference


between cabin pressure and outside pressure

Which of the following Annexes to the Chicago convention contains minimum


specifications for a crew licence to have international validity?
a)

Annex 1

b)

Annex 3

c)

Annex 2

d)

Annex 4

Which of the following Annexes to the Chicago convention contains minimum


specifications for the design of aerodromes?
a)

Annex 14

b)

Annex 6

c)

Annex 11

d)

Annex 10

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 56

C.A.T.
239.)

240.)

241.)

242.)

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
010-ATC

Which of the following Annexes to the Chicago convention contains international


standards and recommended practices for air traffic services (ATS)?
a)

Annex 14

b)

Annex 11

c)

Annex 17

d)

Annex 6

An aircraft is maintaining FL 150 within airspace class C. Another aircraft below at FL


140 is receiving a clearance to descend to FL 70. It is severe turbulence in the area.
When is the earliest that a clearance to descend to FL 140 or below can be expected?
a)

When the other aircraft has reported that it has left FL 120

b)

When the other aircraft has reported that it has left FL 140

c)

When the other aircraft has reported that it has reached FL 70

d)

When the other aircraft has reported that it has descended through FL 130

A braking action given by ATS of 0.25 and below is:


a)

Medium

b)

Good

c)

Medium/poor

d)

Poor

Accident investigation
Who is responsible for the initiation of an accident investigation?
a)

The aircraft manufacturer.

b)

The Operators of the same aircraft type.

c)

The Authority of the State in which the accident took place.

d)

The State of design and manufacturer.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 57

C.A.T.
243.)

244.)

245.)

246.)

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
010-ATC

According to international agreements wind direction shall be adjusted to the local


variation and given in degrees magnetic:
a)

When the local variation exceeds 10 East or 10 West.

b)

In upper wind forecast for areas north of lat 60 north or 60 south.

c)

Before landing and take-off

d)

When an aircraft on the request by a meteorological watch office (MWO) or at specified


points transmits a PIREP

Which information is not included in Instrument Approach Charts (IAC) in the AIP
a)

OCA or OCH

b)

Obstacles penetrating the obstacle free area in the final approach sector

c)

Any addition to minima when the aerodrome is used as alternate

d)

DME-frequencies

Altimeter setting procedures Definitions


The Transition Level:
a)

shall be the highest available flight level below the transition altitude that has been
established.

b)

is published for the aerodrome in the Section ENR of the AIP.

c)

shall be the lowest flight level available for use above the transition altitude.

d)

is calculated and declared for an approach by the Pilot-in command.

Altimeter setting procedures - transition level


The transition level:
a)

is calculated by the Pilot-in command

b)

will be passed to aircraft by ATS units

c)

is published and updated in the NOTAM

d)

is published on the approach and landing chart for each aerodrome

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 58

C.A.T.
247.)

248.)

249.)

250.)

251.)

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
010-ATC

Cruising level IFR during cruise within controlled airspace shall be given as flight
level (FL)
a)

Above the transition altitude when applicable

b)

if the obstacle clearance is more than 2000 feet

c)

only in airspace class A

d)

When QNH is higher than the standard pressure 1013 hPa

Changing of flight rules from IFR to VFR is possible


a)

Only when leaving controlled airspace

b)

If instructed by ATC so long as VMC is forecasted during the next 60 minutes

c)

If the commander so requests

d)

If instructed by ATC so long as VMC is forecasted during the next 30 minutes

For controlled traffic that shall be separated in the vicinity of an airport, separation
minima may be reduced:
a)

Only if the air traffic controller has the involved aircraft in sight

b)

If the commander of the involved aircraft so requests

c)

At the discretion of the air traffic controller

d)

When the commander in the following aircraft has the preceding aircraft in sight and is
able to maintain own separation

If the crew on an arriving aircraft approaching a controlled aerodrome will report 'field
in sight', a clearance for 'visual approach' may be given under certain conditions
a)

The meteorological visibility must not be less than 8 km

b)

Continued approach will be according to VFR

c)

The air traffic controller will provide separation to other controlled traffic

d)

The approach must be passing the FAF

What is the shortest distance in a sequence for landing between a 'Heavy' aircraft
preceding a 'Light' aircraft
a)

2 km

b)

10 km

c)

3 NM

d)

6 NM

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 59

C.A.T.
252.)

253.)

254.)

255.)

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
010-ATC

Aircraft flying along the same track may be separated by DME-distances from the
same DME and it is confirmed that the aircraft have passed each other. Specify the
shortest difference in DME-distance to make it possible for one aircraft to climb or
descend
a)

15 NM

b)

20 NM

c)

12 NM

d)

10 NM

The objectives of ICAO was ratified by the:


a)

Geneva convention 1936

b)

Warsaw convention 1929

c)

Chicago convention 1944

d)

Geneva convention 1948

Search and Rescue signals


The ground - air visual code for: "REQUIRE ASSISTANCE" is:
a)

b)

c)

d)

Search and Rescue signals


The ground - air visual code for: "REQUIRE MEDICAL ASSISTANCE" is:
a)

b)

c)

d)

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 60

C.A.T.
256.)

257.)

258.)

259.)

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
010-ATC

The holder of a pilot's licence should inform the Authority of any illness which they
are suffering which involves incapacity to undertake those functions to which the
licence relates throughout a period of a certain number of days or more. The number
of days is:
a)

21

b)

30

c)

60

d)

90

If a licence holder is unable to perform the flight crew functions appropriate to that
licence due to illness, the authority must be informed:
a)

if still not fit to fly when his/her current medical certificate expires

b)

After 21 days of consecutive "illness"

c)

after one calendar month of consecutive illness

d)

as soon as possible if the illness is expected to last more than 21days

If an arriving aircraft is making a straight in approach a departing aircraft may take off
in any direction
a)

until ten minutes before the arriving aircraft is estimated to be over the instrument
runway

b)

until five minutes before the arriving aircraft is estimated to be over the instrument
runway

c)

until two minutes before the arriving aircraft is estimated to be over the instrument
runway

d)

until three minutes before the arriving aircraft is estimated to be over the instrument
runway

When surveillance radar approaches are to be continued to the threshold of the


runway transmission should not be interrupted for intervals of more than five seconds
while the aircraft is within a distance of:
a)

1.5 NM from the touchdown

b)

2 NM from the touchdown

c)

4 NM from the touchdown

d)

3 NM from the touchdown

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 61

C.A.T.
260.)

261.)

262.)

263.)

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
010-ATC

The surveillance radar approach shall be terminated at a distance of 2 NM from the


touchdown except when as determined by the appropriate ATS authority, the
accuracy of the radar equipment permits to be continued to a prescribed point less
than 2 NM from the touchdown. In this case distance and level information shall be
given at each
a)

half NM

b)

half mile

c)

1.5 NM

d)

1 NM

Clearance to land or any alternative clearance received from the non-radar controller
should normally be passed to the aircraft before it reaches a distance of:
a)

3 NM from touchdown

b)

5 NM from touchdown

c)

4 NM from touchdown

d)

2 NM from touchdown

An aircraft making a radar approach should be directed to execute a missed approach


if no clearance to land has been received from the non-radar controller by the time the
aircraft reaches a distance of:
a)

5 NM from the touchdown

b)

2 NM from the touchdown

c)

4 NM from the touchdown

d)

1.5 NM from the touchdown

An aircraft making a radar approach should be directed to consider executing a


missed approach if the aircraft is not visible on the radar display for any significant
interval during the:
a)

Last 5 NM of the approach

b)

Last 3 NM of the approach

c)

Last 2 NM of the approach

d)

Last 4 NM of the approach

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 62

C.A.T.
264.)

265.)

266.)

267.)

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
010-ATC

What is the maximum speed adjustment that a pilot should be requested to make
when under radar control and established on intermediate and final approach?
a)

10KT

b)

15 KT

c)

20KT

d)

25 KT

Lights on and in the vicinity of aerodromes may be turned off, provided that they can
be again brought into operation:
a)

At least 15 minutes before the expected arrival of an aircraft

b)

At least 30 minutes before the expected arrival of an aircraft

c)

At least one hour before the expected arrival of an aircraft

d)

At least 5 minutes before the expected arrival of an aircraft

At the commencement of final approach, if the controller possesses wind information


in the form of components, significant changes in the mean surface wind direction
and speed shall be transmitted to aircraft. The mean cross-wind component
significant change is:
a)

8 KT

b)

5 KT

c)

10 KT

d)

3 KT

At the commencement of final approach, if the controller possesses wind information


in the form of components, significant changes in the mean surface wind direction
and speed shall be transmitted to aircraft. The mean tail-wind component significant
change is:
a)

2 KT

b)

3 KT

c)

4 KT

d)

5 KT

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 63

C.A.T.
268.)

269.)

270.)

271.)

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
010-ATC

At the commencement of final approach, if the controller possesses wind information


in the form of components, significant changes in the mean surface wind direction
and speed shall be transmitted to aircraft. The mean head-wind component significant
change is:
a)

5 KT

b)

8 KT

c)

4 KT

d)

10 KT

Whenever unlawful interference with an aircraft is suspected, and where automatic


distinct display of SSR Mode A code 7500 and code 7700 is not provided, the radar
controller shall attempt to verify this suspicion by:
a)

Setting the SSR decoder to mode A 7700 then to standby and thereafter to code 7500

b)

Setting the SSR decoder to mode A code 7500 and thereafter to code 7700

c)

Setting the SSR decoder to mode A code 7000 and thereafter to code 7500

d)

Setting the SSR decoder to mode A 7500 then to standby and thereafter to code 7700

When the Mach number technique (MNT) is being applied, and the preceding aircraft
shall maintain a mach number equal to or greater than the following aircraft a RNAV
distance based separation minimum may be used on the same direction tracks in lieu
of 10 minutes longitudinal separation minimum. The distance is:
a)

70 NM

b)

100 NM

c)

80 NM

d)

60 NM

Longitudinal separation minima based on distance using DME for aircraft at the same
cruising level and track, provided that each aircraft utilises "on Track" DME stations
and separation is checked by obtaining simultaneous DME readings, is:
a)

40 NM

b)

25 NM

c)

20 NM

d)

10 NM

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 64

C.A.T.
272.)

273.)

274.)

275.)

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
010-ATC

Longitudinal separation minima based on time for aircraft at the same cruising level
when navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed provided
that the preceding aircraft is maintaining a true air speed of 40 Kt or more faster than
the succeeding aircraft will be
a)

2 minutes

b)

3 minutes

c)

10 minutes

d)

5 minutes

Longitudinal separation minima based on time for aircraft at the same cruising level
when navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed provided
that the preceding aircraft is maintaining a true air speed of 20 Kt or more faster than
the succeeding aircraft will be
a)

2 minutes

b)

5 minutes

c)

3 minutes

d)

10 minutes

Longitudinal separation minima based on time for aircraft at the same cruising level
when navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed will be
a)

10 minutes

b)

3 minutes

c)

5 minutes

d)

15 minutes

Repetitive flight plans (RPLs) shall not be used for flights operated regularly on the
same day(s) of consecutive weeks and:
a)

On at least ten occasions or every day over a period of at least ten consecutive days

b)

On at least ten occasions or every day over a period of at least 20 consecutive days

c)

On at least 20 occasions

d)

On at least 20 days consecutively

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 65

C.A.T.
276.)

277.)

278.)

279.)

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
010-ATC

What is the minimum wake turbulence separation criteria when a light aircraft is
taking off behind a medium aircraft and both are using the same runway?
a)

5 minutes

b)

1 minute

c)

2 minutes

d)

3 minutes

Special VFR flights may the authorised to operate locally within a control zone when
the ground visibility is not less than 1 500 metres, even when the aircraft is not
equipped with a functioning radio receiver within class:
a)

C, D and E airspace

b)

E airspace

c)

D and E airspace

d)

D airspace

In order to meet wake turbulence criteria, for arriving aircraft and using timed
approaches, what minima shall be applied to aircraft landing behind a heavy or a
medium aircraft?
a)

light aircraft behind medium aircraft -4 minutes

b)

medium aircraft behind heavy aircraft - 2 minutes

c)

medium aircraft behind heavy aircraft - 3 minutes

d)

medium aircraft other medium aircraft - 2 minutes

A minimum vertical separation shall be provided until aircraft are established inbound
on the ILS localizer course and/or MLS final approach track. This minimum is, when
independent parallel approaches are being conducted:
a)

200 m (660 ft)

b)

150 m (500 ft)

c)

100 m (330 ft)

d)

300 m (1000 ft)

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 66

C.A.T.
280.)

281.)

282.)

283.)

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
010-ATC

A separation minimum shall be applied between a light or MEDIUM aircraft and a


HEAVY aircraft and between a LIGHT aircraft and a MEDIUM aircraft when the heavier
aircraft is making a low or missed approach and the lighter aircraft is landing on the
same runway in the opposite direction or on a parallel opposite direction runway
separated by:
a)

Less than 730 m

b)

760 m

c)

Less than 760 m

d)

730 m

A separation minimum shall be applied between a light or MEDIUM aircraft and a


HEAVY aircraft and between a LIGHT aircraft and a MEDIUM aircraft when the heavier
aircraft is making a low or missed approach and the lighter aircraft is utilizing an
opposite direction runway for take off, this minimum is:
a)

1 minute

b)

2 minutes

c)

5 minutes

d)

3 minutes

A minimum radar separation shall be provided until aircraft are established inbound
on the ILS localizer course and/or MLS final approach track. This minimum is, when
independent parallel approaches are being conducted:
a)

2.0 NM

b)

1.0 NM

c)

5.0 NM

d)

3.0 NM

Independent parallel approaches may be conducted to parallel runways provided that:


a)

the missed approach track for one approach diverges by at least 25 (degrees) from the
missed approach track of the adjacent approach

b)

the missed approach track for one approach diverges by at least 45 (degrees) from the
missed approach track of the adjacent approach

c)

the missed approach track for one approach diverges by at least 30 (degrees) from the
missed approach track of the adjacent approach

d)

the missed approach track for one approach diverges by at least 20 (degrees) from the
missed approach track of the adjacent approach

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 67

C.A.T.
284.)

285.)

286.)

287.)

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
010-ATC

When independent parallel approaches are being conducted and vectoring to


intercept the ILS localizer course or MLS final approach track, the final vector shall be
such as to enable the aircraft to intercept the ILS localizer course or MLS final
approach track at an angle not greater than:
a)

30 degrees

b)

15 degrees

c)

20 degrees

d)

25 degrees

Independent parallel approaches may be conducted to parallel runways provided that


a no transgression zone (NTZ) of at least:
a)

500 m is established between extended runway centre lines and as is depicted on the
radar display

b)

610 m is established between extended runway centre lines and as is depicted on the
radar display

c)

600 m is established between extended runway centre lines and as is depicted on the
radar display

d)

710 m is established between extended runway centre lines and as is depicted on the
radar display

When independent parallel approaches are being conducted to parallel runways and
vectoring to intercept the ILS localizer course or MLS final approach track, the vector
shall be such as to enable the aircraft to be established on the ILS localizer course or
MLS final approach track in level flight for:
a)

at least 2.5 NM prior to intercepting the ILS glide path or specified MLS elevation angle

b)

at least 2.0 NM prior to intercepting the ILS glide path or specified MLS elevation angle

c)

at least 1.5 NM prior to intercepting the ILS glide path or specified MLS elevation angle

d)

at least 3.0 NM prior to intercepting the ILS glide path or specified MLS elevation angle

Dependent parallel approaches may be conducted to parallel runways provided that:


the missed approach track for one approach diverges by:
a)

at least 15 (degrees) from the missed approach track of the adjacent approach

b)

at least 30 (degrees) from the missed approach track of the adjacent approach

c)

at least 45 (degrees) from the missed approach track of the adjacent approach

d)

at least 25 (degrees) from the missed approach track of the adjacent approach

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 68

C.A.T.
288.)

289.)

290.)

291.)

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
010-ATC

In order to meet the wake turbulence criteria, what minimum separation should be
applied when a medium aircraft is taking off behind a heavy aircraft and both are
using the same runway?
a)

4 minutes

b)

1 minute

c)

3 minutes

d)

2 minutes

The speed limitation for IFR flights inside ATS airspace classified as C, when flying
below 3.050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL, is:
a)

240 KT IAS

b)

Not applicable

c)

250 KT IAS

d)

250 KT TAS

The speed limitation for VFR flights inside ATS airspace classified as C, when flying
below 3.050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL, is:
a)

250 KT TAS

b)

240 KT IAS

c)

Not applicable

d)

250 KT IAS

The speed limitation for IFR flights inside ATS airspace classified as E, when flying
below 3.050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL, is:
a)

250 KT TAS

b)

260 KT IAS

c)

250 KT IAS

d)

Not applicable

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 69

C.A.T.
292.)

293.)

294.)

295.)

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
010-ATC

The speed limitation for both IFR flights and VFR flights inside ATS airspace
classified as B, when flying below 3.050 m (10.000 ft) AMLS, is:
a)

260 KT IAS

b)

250 KT TAS

c)

Not applicable

d)

250 KT IAS

A strayed aircraft is:


a)

An aircraft which has deviated significantly from its intended track or which reports that
it is lost

b)

only that aircraft which reports that it is lost

c)

only that aircraft which has deviated significantly its intended track

d)

an aircraft in a given area but whose identity has not been established

Flight information service provided to flights shall include the provision of


information concerning collision hazards to aircraft operating in airspace classes:
a)

A to E (inclusive)

b)

F and G

c)

C to G (inclusive)

d)

A to G (inclusive)

ATIS broadcast messages containing departure and arrival information should


include cloud cover, when the clouds are:
a)

cumulonimbus

b)

below 1 500 m (5.000 ft) or below the highest minimum sector altitude, whichever is the
greater

c)

below 900 m (3.000 ft) or below the highest minimum sector altitude, whichever is the
greater

d)

below 2 000 m (600 ft) or below the highest minimum sector altitude, whichever is the
greater

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 70

C.A.T.
296.)

297.)

298.)

299.)

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
010-ATC

Where an upper flight information region (UIR) is established, the procedures


applicable there in:
a)

have to be as agreed at the regional air navigation meetings

b)

have to be as indicated by ICAO council

c)

need not to be identical with those applicable in the underlying flight information region

d)

has to be the same as the underlying flight information region

The VMC minima for a VFR flight inside an ATS airspace classified as B, is:
a)

8 km visibility when at or above 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL and clear of clouds

b)

5 NM visibility when below 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL, 1500 m horizontal and 300 m
vertical from cloud

c)

5 NM visibility below 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL, clear of clouds

d)

8 km visibility when at or above 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL, and 1500 m horizontal and
300 m vertical from clouds

A VFR flight when flying inside an ATS airspace classified as B has to maintain the
following minima of flight visibility and distance from clouds
a)

8 km below 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL, 1 500 m horizontal and 300 m vertical from
clouds

b)

5 km below 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL and clear of clouds

c)

5 km below 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMS 1.500 m horizontal and 300 m vertical from clouds

d)

5 km visibility, 1500 m horizontal and 300 m vertical from clouds

A VFR flight when flying inside an ATS airspace classified as C has to maintain the
following minima of flight visibility and distance from clouds
a)

8 km at or above 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL 1500 m horizontal and 300 m vertical from
clouds

b)

8 km at or above 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL, and clear of clouds

c)

5 NM at or above 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL, 1500 m horizontal and 300 m vertical from
clouds

d)

5km at or above 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL 1500 m horizontal and 300 m vertical from
clouds

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 71

C.A.T.
300.)

301.)

302.)

303.)

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
010-ATC

An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR flights are permitted, all flights are subject to air
traffic control service and IFR flights are separated from other IFR flights and from
VFR flights VFR flights are separated from IFR flights and receive traffic information in
respect of other VFR flights, is classified as:
a)

Airspace E

b)

Airspace C

c)

Airspace D

d)

Airspace B

An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR flights are permitted, all flights are subject to air
traffic control service and are separated from each other is classified as
a)

Airspace C

b)

Airspace B

c)

Airspace D

d)

Airspace E

An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR flights are permitted and all flights are subject to
air traffic control service. IFR flights are separated from other IFR flights and receive
traffic information in respect of VFR flights. VFR flights receive traffic information in
respect of all other flights, is classified as:
a)

Airspace A

b)

Airspace D

c)

Airspace E

d)

Airspace B

An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR are permitted IFR flights are subject to Air Traffic
Control Service and are separated from other IFR flights. All flights receive traffic
information as far as is practical, is classified as
a)

Airspace A

b)

Airspace B

c)

Airspace E

d)

Airspace D

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 72

C.A.T.
304.)

305.)

306.)

307.)

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
010-ATC

An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR flights are permitted, all participating IFR flights
receive an air traffic advisory service and all flights receive flight information service
if requested, is classified
a)

Airspace D

b)

Airspace G

c)

Airspace E

d)

Airspace F

An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR are permitted and receive flight information
service if requested, is classified as
a)

Airspace G

b)

Airspace F

c)

Airspace C

d)

Airspace E

An integrated aeronautical information package consists of the following elements


a)

AIP, supplements to AIP; NOTAM and PIB; AIC and checklist summaries

b)

AIP including amendment service; supplements to AIP; NOTAM, AIC; AIRAC

c)

AIP, including amendment service; supplements to AIP, NOTAM, AIC and checklist
summaries

d)

AIP, including amendment service; supplements to AIP; NOTAM and pre-flight


information bulletin (PIB); AIC; checklists and summaries

The identification of each prohibited, restricted and danger area shall be composed
by:
a)

The nationality letters for location indicators assigned to the state or territory, followed
the letters P. R and D and figures

b)

The letters P (Prohibited), R (Restricted) and D (Dangerous) for the area concerned and
figures

c)

The letters P (Prohibited), R (Restricted) and D (Dangerous) followed by figures

d)

The nationality letters for the location indicators assigned to the state, followed by P, R
and D

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 73

C.A.T.
308.)

309.)

310.)

311.)

312.)

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
010-ATC

In order to avoid confusion, the identification numbers given to each prohibited area,
restricted area and danger area shall not be re-used for a period of
a)

At least 6 months after cancellation of the area to which they refer

b)

At least 2 months after cancellation of the area to which they refer

c)

At least one year after cancellation of the area to which they refer

d)

At least 3 months after cancellation of the area to which they refer

Temporary changes on specifications for AIP supplements of long duration and


information of short duration which contains extensive text and/or graphics shall be
published as AIP supplements. It is considered a long duration.
a)

Six months or longer

b)

Three months or longer

c)

One year or longer

d)

Two months or longer

Operationally significant changes to the AIP shall be published in accordance with:


a)

AIRAC procedures and identified by the acronym AIRAC

b)

NOTAM procedures and identified by acronym NOTAM followed by a number

c)

AIP supplements and shall be clearly identified

d)

AIC procedures and identified by the acronym AIC followed by a number

A checklist of AIP supplements currently in force shall be issued at intervals of:


a)

Not more than three months

b)

Not more than one month

c)

Not more than 2 months

d)

Not more than 28 days

A checklist of NOTAM currently in force shall be issued at the AFTN at intervals of:
a)

Not more than 28 days

b)

No more than 15 days

c)

Not more than one month

d)

Not more than 10 days

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 74

C.A.T.
313.)

314.)

315.)

316.)

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
010-ATC

The ASHTAM provides information on the status of activity of a volcano when a


change in its activity is, or is expected to be of operational significance. This
information is provided using the volcano level of colour code. When volcanic
eruption in progress or volcano dangerous, eruption likely, with ash plume/cloud is
reported above FL 250 or is expected to rise above FL 250, the level of alert colour
code is
a)

YELLOW

b)

GREEN

c)

RED

d)

ORANGE

AIP
SIGMET information can be found in which part of the AIP?
a)

MET

b)

GEN

c)

AD

d)

ENR

AIP
Which part of the AIP contains a brief description of the service(s) responsible for
search and rescue?
a)

ENR

b)

AD

c)

SAR

d)

GEN

AIP
Which part of the AIP contains information about holding, approach and departure
procedures?
a)

ENR

b)

MAP

c)

AD

d)

GEN

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 75

C.A.T.
317.)

318.)

319.)

320.)

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
010-ATC

Unaccompanied baggage carried by air shall be cleared under the procedure


applicable to:
a)

accompanied baggage or under another simplified customs procedure distinct from that
normally applicable to other cargo

b)

cargo but is free from any kind of declaration forms

c)

cargo and is covered by a traffic document

d)

cargo but clearance documents provided by airlines shall be completed by the passenger
prior to shipment

The documents for entry and departure of aircraft:


a)

are accepted in hand-written block lettering in ink

b)

has to be typewritten

c)

are accepted at the contracting state discretion

d)

has to be typewritten or produced by electronic data processing techniques

When a person is found inadmissible and is returned to the operator for transport
away from the territory of the state, the operator:
a)

shall not be preclude from recovering from such person any transportation costs arising
from his (her) inadmissibility

b)

is not responsible for the person inadmissible for entry in the receiving state

c)

and the state of the operator are both responsible for the person inadmissible

d)

shall not recover from such person any transportation costs arising from his (her)
inadmissibility

The ICAO annex which deals with entry and departure of persons and their baggage in
international flights is:
a)

annex 6

b)

annex 15

c)

annex 9

d)

annex 8

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 76

C.A.T.
321.)

322.)

323.)

324.)

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
010-ATC

The ICAO annex which deals with entry and departure of cargo and other articles on
international flights is:
a)

annex 8

b)

annex 16

c)

annex 9

d)

annex 15

The aircraft commander, when he has reasonable grounds to believe that a person
has committed or is about to commit, on board the aircraft, an offence against penal
law
a)

may require the assistance of passengers to restrain such person

b)

may request such person to disembark

c)

may not require or authorise the assistance of other crew members

d)

may deliver such person to the competent authorities

The Rome Convention and later amendments deals with:


a)

Regulation of transportation of dangerous goods

b)

offences and certain other acts committed on board aircraft

c)

Damage caused by any aircraft to third parties on the surface

d)

Damage caused by foreign aircraft to third parties on the surface

The convention signed by the states and moved by a desire to ensure adequate
compensation for persons who suffer damage caused on the surface by foreign
aircraft is:
a)

the Paris Convention

b)

the Rome Convention

c)

the Warsaw Convention

d)

the Tokyo Convention

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 77

C.A.T.
325.)

326.)

327.)

328.)

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
010-ATC

Any person who suffers damage on the surface shall, upon proof only that damage
was caused by an aircraft in flight or by any person or thing falling therefore will be
entitled to compensation as provided by:
a)

the Rome Convention

b)

the Warsaw Convention

c)

the Chicago Convention

d)

the Montreal Convention

The convention on offences and certain acts committed on board aircraft, is:
a)

the convention of Chicago

b)

the convention of Rome

c)

the convention of Tokyo

d)

the convention of Paris

The convention which deals with offences against penal law, is


a)

the convention of Tokyo

b)

the convention of Warsaw

c)

the convention of Madrid

d)

the convention of Rome

The holder of a pilot licence, when acting as co-pilot of an aircraft required to be


operated with a co-pilot, shall be entitled to be credit with not more than:
a)

50 % of the co-pilot flight time towards the total flight time required for a higher grade of
pilot licence

b)

60 % of the co-pilot flight time towards, the total flight time required for a higher grade
of a pilot licence

c)

40 % of the co-pilot flight time towards, the total flight time required for a higher grade
of a pilot licence

d)

100 hours of flying time required for a higher grade of a pilot licence

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 78

C.A.T.
329.)

330.)

331.)

332.)

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
010-ATC

The age of an applicant for a commercial pilot licence shall not be less than:
a)

17 years of age

b)

16 years of age

c)

18 years of age

d)

21 years of age

An applicant for a commercial pilot licence shall hold


a)

a current class I medical assessment

b)

a current class III medical assessment

c)

a current class II medical assessment

d)

a current class medical assessment as prescribed by the state issuing the licence

The privileges of the holder of a commercial pilot licence-aeroplane shall be:


a)

none of the answers are correct

b)

to act as pilot in command in any aeroplane engaged in commercial air transportation

c)

to act as pilot-in command in any aeroplane engaged in operations other than commercial
air transportation

d)

to act as pilot in command in any aeroplane certificate for single pilot operation other
than in commercial air transportation

An applicant for a commercial pilot licence-aeroplane shall have completed not less
than ........ hours of cross country flight time as pilot in command including a cross
country flight totalling not less than ........ km (-NM), in the course of which full stop
landings at two different aerodromes shall be made. The hours and distance referred
are:
a)

10 hours and 270 km (150 NM)

b)

15 hours and 540 km (300NM)

c)

20 hours and 270 km (150NM)

d)

20 hours and 540 km (300NM)

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 79

C.A.T.
333.)

334.)

335.)

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
010-ATC

An applicant for a commercial pilot licence aeroplane shall have completed in


aeroplanes not less than:
a)

15 hours of cross country flight time as pilot-in-command including a cross country flight
not less than 540 km (300NM)

b)

20 hours of cross country flight time as pilot-in-command including a cross country flight
not less than 540 km (300NM)

c)

10 hours of cross country flight time as pilot-in-command including a cross country flight
not less than 540 km (300NM)

d)

25 hours of cross country flight time as pilot-in-command including a cross country flight
not less than 540 km (300NM)

An applicant for an Airline Transport Pilot Licence aeroplane shall have completed in
aeroplanes not less than ...... hours, either as pilot in command or made up by not
less than ...... hours as pilot-in-command and the additional flight time as co-pilot
performing, under the supervision of the pilot-in-command the duties and functions of
pilot in command provided that the method of supervision employed is acceptable to
the licensing authority. The stated above hours are respectively:
a)

200 hours and 75 hours

b)

250 hours and 100 hours

c)

200 hours and 100 hours

d)

150 hours and 75 hours

The applicant for an Airline Transport Pilot Licence shall have completed in
aeroplanes not less than ...... hours of cross-country flight time, of which not less than
..... hours shall be as pilot-in command or co-pilot performing, under the supervision
of the pilot in command, the duties and functions of a pilot in command, provided that
the method of supervision employed is acceptable to the licensing authority. The
state above hours are respectively:
a)

200 hours and 75 hours

b)

250 hours and 10 hours

c)

200 hours and 100 hours

d)

150 hours and 75 hours

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 80

C.A.T.
336.)

337.)

338.)

339.)

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
010-ATC

An applicant for an Airline Transport Pilot Licence shall have completed in aeroplanes
not less than:
a)

150 hours of instrument time, of which not more than 75 hours of instrument ground
time.

b)

75 hours of instrument time, of which not more than 30 hours may be instrument ground
time.

c)

100 hours of instrument time, of which not more than 30 hours of instrument ground time

d)

75 hours of instrument time, of which not more than 20 hours of instrument ground time.

An applicant for an Airline Transport Pilot Licence shall have completed in aeroplanes
not less than:
a)

100 hours of night flight only as pilot in command

b)

75 hours of night time only as pilot in command

c)

75 hours of night flight as pilot in command or as co-pilot

d)

100 hours of night flight as pilot in command or as co-pilot

The licensing authority shall determine whether experience as pilot under instruction
in a synthetic flight trainer which it has approved, is acceptable as part of the total
flight time of 1 500 hours. Credit for such experience shall be limited to a maximum of:
a)

100 hours of which not more than 20 hours shall have been acquired in a basic instrument
flight trainer

b)

100 hours, of which not more than 25 hours shall have been acquired in a flight
procedure trainer or basic instrument flight trainer

c)

100 hours of which not more than 15 hours shall have been acquired in a flight procedure
trainer or basic instrument flight trainer

d)

75 hours of which not more than 20 hours shall have been acquired in a flight procedure
trainer or basic instrument flight trainer

An applicant holding a private or commercial pilot licence aeroplane for the issue of
an instrument rating, shall have completed ..... hours of cross-country flight time as
pilot-in-command of aircraft in categories acceptable to the licensing Authority, of
which not less than ..... hours shall be in aeroplanes. The said hours, are respectively
a)

40 hours and 15 hours

b)

50 hours and 10 hours

c)

40 hours and 10 hours

d)

50 hours and 15 hours

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 81

C.A.T.
340.)

341.)

342.)

343.)

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
010-ATC

In certain circumstances a medical examination may be deferred at the discretion of


the licensing authority, provided that such deferment shall only be made as an
exception and shall not exceed:
a)

A single period of six months in the case of a flight crew member of an aircraft engaged
in commercial operations.

b)

Two consecutive periods each of three months in the case of a flight crew member of an
aircraft engaged in non commercial operations

c)

A single period of six months in the case of a flight crew member of an aircraft engaged
in non commercial operations.

d)

in the case of a private pilot, a single period of 12 months

The duration of the period of currency of a medical assessment shall begin on the
date:
a)

the licence is issued or renewed

b)

the medical assessment is issued

c)

the licence is delivered to the pilot

d)

the licence is issued or validated

When a contracting state renders valid a licence issued by another contracting state
the validity of the authorisation
a)

shall not extend beyond the period of validity of the licence other than for use in private
flights

b)

shall not extend more than 15 days from the date of the licence

c)

shall not extend beyond the period of validity of the licence

d)

the Contracting state rendering a licence valid may extend the date of the validity at its
own discretion

When the holders of aircraft transport pilot licences aeroplane and helicopter have
passed their 40th birthday the medical examination shall be reduced from:
a)

24 months to 12 months

b)

12 months to 3 months

c)

none of the answers are correct

d)

12 months to 6 months

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 82

C.A.T.
344.)

345.)

346.)

347.)

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
010-ATC

Type ratings shall be established


a)

all the answers are correct

b)

only aircraft certificated for operation with a minimum crew of at least two pilots

c)

for any type of aircraft whenever considered necessary by the authority

d)

only for aircraft certificated for operation with a minimum crew of at least two pilots and
each type of helicopter

The holder of a pilot licence when acting as co-pilot performing under the supervision
of the pilot in command the functions and duties of a pilot in command shall be
entitled to be credit:
a)

in full with his flight but not more than 300 hours towards the total time required for a
higher grade of pilot licence

b)

50% of his flight time towards the total time required for higher grade of pilot licence

c)

the flight time towards the total time required for higher grade of pilot licence in
accordance with the requirements of the licensing authority

d)

in full with his flight time towards the total time required for higher grade of pilot licence

For commercial pilot licence aeroplane the applicant shall have completed in
aeroplanes not less than if the privileges of the licence are to be exercised at night
a)

5 hours of night flight time including 5 take-offs and 5 landings either as pilot in
command or as co-pilot

b)

5 hours of night flight time including 5 take-offs and 5 landings as pilot in command

c)

5 hours of night flight time including 3 take-offs and 3 landings as pilot in command

d)

5 hours of night flight time including 3 take-offs and 5 landings as pilot in command

An applicant for a commercial pilot licence aeroplane shall have completed in


aeroplanes not less than:
a)

200 hours of flight time or 150 hours if completed during a course of approved training as
a pilot of aeroplanes

b)

150 hours of flight time and 100 hours as pilot in command

c)

200 hours of flight time and 70 hours as pilot in command

d)

200 hours of flight time and 80 hours as pilot in command

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 83

C.A.T.
348.)

349.)

350.)

351.)

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
010-ATC

An applicant for a commercial pilot licence shall have completed in aeroplanes not
less than:
a)

20 hours of instrument instruction time of which not more than 5 hours may be
instrument ground time.

b)

10 hours of instrument instruction time of which not more than 5 hours may be
instrument ground time

c)

15 hours of instrument time of which not more than 5 hours as pilot in command

d)

20 hours of instrument instruction time of which not more than 10 hours may be
instrument ground time

The national civil aviation security programme shall be established by:


a)

ECAC

b)

Each contracting state

c)

ICAO

d)

ICAO and other organisations including the contracting state concerned

When mixing or contact does take place between passengers subjected to security
control and other persons not subjected to such control after the security screening
points at airports serving international civil aviation have been passed
a)

only the passengers cabin baggage are to be re screened

b)

the passengers concerned and their cabin baggage shall be re screened before boarding an
aircraft

c)

the persons not subjected to security control shall be identified

d)

only the passengers are to be re screened

Each member state should designate an appropriate authority with its administration
to be responsible for the development implementation and maintenance of a national
aviation security programme. This programme should apply:
a)

to all international civil air transport including aircraft engaged solely in the carriage of
cargo and yet to domestic flights at the discretion of each member state

b)

only to passengers and aircrew in international civil transport flights

c)

only to passengers and aircrew in international civil transport flights and domestic flights

d)

only to all international civil transport including aircraft engaged solely in the carriage of
cargo

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 84

C.A.T.
352.)

353.)

354.)

355.)

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
010-ATC

When a member state allows police officers, security staff, bodyguards or other
agents of foreign states to carry weapons in their territory for the protection of aircraft
in flight, permission for the carriage of weapons should be conditional upon:
a)

Notification of the pilot in command of a decision to permit a weapon to be carried on


board his aircraft only

b)

Agreement between the state of embarcation and the state of destination

c)

Agreement between the state of embarcation and the airport of arrival

d)

Prior notification by the state of embarcation to the foreign state in which the weapons
will be carried on the airport of arrival and notification of the pilot in command of a
decision to permit a weapon to be carried on board his aircraft

Member states should introduce specific security measures for the air transport of the
following groups of potentially disruptive passengers defined below:
a)

Deportees and persons in lawful custody only

b)

Deportees, inadmissible persons and persons in lawful custody

c)

Deportees and inadmissible persons only

d)

None of the answers is correct

For the transport of potentially disruptive passengers some supplementary


safeguards are to be observed such as:
a)

the boarding will be at the pilot in command discretion

b)

boarding prior to all passengers

c)

boarding after to all other passengers

d)

the boarding has to be done at the state discretion

When on a RNP 1 route is indicated A342 Z, means that all turns shall be made within
the allowable RNP tolerance of a tangential arc between the straight leg segments
with a radius of:
a)

25 NM on the route between 30 and 90 at and below FL190

b)

15 NM on the route between 30 and 90 at and above FL 200

c)

22.5 NM on the route between 30 and 90 at and above FL 250

d)

15 NM on the route between 30 and 90 at and below FL 190

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 85

C.A.T.
356.)

357.)

358.)

359.)

360.)

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
010-ATC

Concerning to RNP (Required Navigation Performance) types, the indication RNP 4,


represents a navigation accuracy of
a)

plus or minus 4 NM on a 90 per cent containment basis

b)

plus or minus 4 miles on a 90 per cent containment basis

c)

plus or minus 4 NM on a 98 per cent containment basis

d)

plus or minus 4 NM on a 95 per cent containment basis

When on a RNP 1 route is indicated B235 Y, means that all turns shall be made within
the allowable RNP tolerance of a tangential arc between the straight leg segments
defined with a radius of:
a)

22.5 NM between 30 and 90 at and above FL260

b)

20 NM on the route between 30 and 90 at and above FL200

c)

22.5 NM between 30 and 90 at and above FL200

d)

25.0 NM on the route between 30 and 90 at and above FL 250

The ATIS broadcast message should, whenever practicable, not exceed


a)

3 minutes

b)

30 seconds

c)

2 minutes

d)

1 minute

Whenever ATIS is provided, the broadcast information shall be updated


a)

at least every half an hour independently of any significant change

b)

immediately a significant change occurs

c)

as prescribed by the meteorological office

d)

as prescribed by the state

Whenever ATIS is provided, the preparation and dissemination of the ATIS message
shall be the responsibility of
a)

the air traffic services

b)

the unit as prescribed the states

c)

the meteorological office serving the aerodrome (s)

d)

both air traffic services and the meteorological office

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 86

C.A.T.
361.)

362.)

363.)

364.)

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
010-ATC

ATIS broadcast
a)

shall not be transmitted on the voice channel of an ILS

b)

Shall not be transmitted on the voice of a VOR

c)

Shall be transmitted on the voice channel of an ILS, on a discrete VHF frequency or on


the voice channel of a VOR

d)

Shall only be transmitted on a discrete VHF frequency

Air traffic services unit clocks and other time recording devices shall be checked as
necessary to ensure correct time to within plus or minus
a)

10 seconds of UTC at all times

b)

15 seconds of UTC at all times

c)

1 minute of UTC at all times

d)

30 seconds of UTC at all times

An information issued by a meteorological watch office concerning the occurrence or


expected occurrence of specified en-route weather phenomena which may affect the
safety of low-level aircraft operations and which was not already included in the
forecast issued for low level flights in the flight information region concerned or subarea thereof is
a)

A SIGMET information

b)

A NOTAM

c)

An AIRMET information

d)

An En-Route Meteo Report

Except in some special cases the establishment of change-over points should be


limited to route segments of
a)

100 NM or more

b)

60 NM or more

c)

50 NM or more

d)

75 NM or more

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 87

C.A.T.
365.)

366.)

367.)

368.)

369.)

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
010-ATC

Required Navigation Performance (RNP) shall be prescribed


a)

by regional air navigation agreements

b)

by states but not on the basis of regional air agreements

c)

by ICAO on the basis of regional air navigation agreements

d)

by states on the basis of regional air navigation agreements

Flight Information Service shall be provided to aircraft in order to avoid collision


hazards when operating in airspace classes:
a)

F only

b)

A, B, C, D, E, F and G

c)

F and G only

d)

C, D, E, F, and G

According to Annex 7, the registration mark shall be letters, numbers or a


combination of letters and numbers and shall be that assigned by:
a)

the International Civil Aviation Organisation

b)

the International Telecommunication Union

c)

the state of registry or common mark registering authority

d)

the state of registry only

When letters are used for the registration mark combinations shall not be used which
might be confused with the
a)

three letters combinations used in the international code of signals

b)

four letter combinations beginning with Q

c)

five letter combinations used in the international code of signals

d)

letters used for ICAO identification documents

When letters are used for registration mark combinations shall not be used which
might be confused with urgent signals for example
a)

LLL

b)

RCC

c)

FFF

d)

TTT

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 88

C.A.T.
370.)

371.)

372.)

373.)

374.)

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
010-ATC

When letters are used for registration mark combinations shall not be used which
might be confused with urgent signals for example
a)

DDD

b)

LLL

c)

RCC

d)

PAN

When letters are used for the registration mark combinations shall not be used which
might be confused with urgent or distress signals for example
a)

DDD

b)

LLL

c)

XXX

d)

RCC

The height of the marks under the wings of heavier than air aircraft shall be:
a)

at least 75 centimetres

b)

at least 50 centimetres

c)

at least 60 centimetres

d)

at least between 40 centimetres and 50 centimetres

The height of the marks on the fuselage (or equivalent structure) and on the vertical
tail surfaces of heavier than air aircraft shall be:
a)

at least between 20 centimetres and 40 centimetres

b)

at least 20 centimetres

c)

at least 40 centimetres

d)

at least 30 centimetres

The state of design shall ensure that, there exists a continuing structural integrity
program to ensure the airworthiness of the aeroplane, which includes specific
information concerning corrosion prevention and control, in respect of aeroplanes:
a)

over 5.700 kg maximum certificate take-off mass

b)

up to 5.700 kg maximum certificate take-off mass

c)

over 5.700 kg maximum certificate take-off and landing mass

d)

up to 5.700 kg maximum certificate take-off and landing mass

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 89

C.A.T.
375.)

376.)

377.)

378.)

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
010-ATC

When an aircraft has sustained damage, the aircraft shall be allowed to resume its
flight, if
a)

the state of design and the state of manufacture inform the state of registry that the
aircraft is still airworthy

b)

the state of registry, the state of design and the state of manufacture consider that the
aircraft is still airworthy

c)

the state of registry considers that the damage sustained is of a nature such that the
aircraft is still airworthy

d)

the state of manufacture informs the state of registry that the damage sustained is of a
nature such that the aircraft is still airworthy

The loading limitations shall include:


a)

all limiting mass, mass distributions and centres of gravity

b)

all limiting mass and centres of gravity

c)

all limiting mass, centres of gravity position, mass distributions and floor loading

d)

all limiting mass, centres of gravity position and floor loading

An aircraft manoeuvring in an airport's circuit receives a series of red flashes from the
control tower. This signifies that the aircraft must:
a)

give way to another aircraft.

b)

return to land and that clearance to land will be communicated in due course.

c)

not land for the moment regardless of previous instructions.

d)

not land because the airport is not available for landing.

The International Civil Aviation Organisation ( I.C.A.O. ) was established by the


international convention of:
a)

Chicago

b)

Montreal

c)

Warsaw

d)

The Hague

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 90

C.A.T.
379.)

380.)

381.)

382.)

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
010-ATC

The second freedom of the air is the:


a)

right to "cabotage" traffic, (trans-border traffic).

b)

right to overfly without landing

c)

right to operate a commercial passenger flight with passengers on board between two
states.

d)

right to land for a technical stop

The International Civil Aviation Convention Annex containing standards and


recommended practices for Personnel Licensing is:
a)

Annex 1

b)

Annex 12

c)

Annex 11

d)

Annex 2

The first freedom of the air is:


a)

The opportunity to operate a commercial flight with passengers on board between two
states.

b)

The right to board passengers from the state where the aircraft is registered and to fly to
an other state.

c)

The right to overfly without landing.

d)

The right to land for a technical stop.

An AIRAC is:
a)

A package which consists of the following elements: AIP, supplements to the AIP,
NOTAM, AIC, checklists and summaries.

b)

A publication issued by or with the authority of a state containing aeronautical


information of a lasting character essential to air navigation.

c)

A notice distributed by means of telecommunication containing information concerning


the establishment, condition or change in any aeronautical facility service, procedure or
hazard, the timely knowledge of which is essential to personnel concerned with flight
operations.

d)

An Acronym for a system aimed at advance notification based on common effective


dates, of circumstances necessitating significant changes in operating procedures.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 91

C.A.T.
383.)

384.)

385.)

386.)

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
010-ATC

The International Civil Aviation Organisation (ICAO) establishes:


a)

aeronautical standards adopted by all states.

b)

proposals for aeronautical regulations in the form of 18 annexes.

c)

standards and recommended practices applied without exception by all states, signatory
to the Chicago convention.

d)

standards and recommended international practices for contracting member states.

The international convention defining rules relative to the responsibilities of


international air carriers for the carriage of passengers, baggage and freight is the:
a)

Warsaw Convention.

b)

Tokyo Convention.

c)

Hague Convention.

d)

Montreal Convention.

At night an aircraft observes a luminous signal requesting help. To indicate that he


has received these ground signals, the pilot must:
a)

switch his landing lights on and off twice or, if he is not so equipped, his navigation
lights twice.

b)

fly over the group of people in difficulty as low as possible.

c)

make at least one complete turn over the group of people in difficulty.

d)

transmit, by luminous Morse signal, a series of the letter "R" using his navigational
lights.

The planned cruising speed for the first leg or all of the cruising portion of the flight
must be entered in the speed box of a flight plan form. This speed is the:
a)

true air speed (TAS).

b)

indicated air speed (IAS).

c)

estimated ground speed (G/S).

d)

true air speed at 65% power.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 92

C.A.T.
387.)

388.)

389.)

390.)

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
010-ATC

The "estimated total time" in block 16 of a VFR flight plan is the estimated time:
a)

required by the aircraft from the moment it moves by its own power until it stops at the
end of the flight (block time).

b)

required by the aircraft from take-off to arrive overhead the destination airport.

c)

required by the aircraft from brake release at take-off until landing.

d)

of endurance at cruising power taking into account pressure and temperature on that day.

An air traffic control unit:


a)

may ask an aircraft to temporarily change its call sign for safety reasons when there is a
risk of confusion between two or more similar call signs.

b)

may require to change the call sign for safety reasons when there is a risk of confusion
between two or more similar call signs providing the aircraft is on a repetitive flight plan.

c)

may not ask an aircraft to change its call sign after accepting the flight plan.

d)

must not ask an aircraft to change its call sign.

The pilot in command of an aircraft:


1 - must comply immediately to all instructions received from ATC.
2 - is responsible only if he is the "pilot flying".
3 - may deviate from air regulations for safety reasons.
4 - may be exempt from air regulations in order to comply to an ATC instruction.
5 - may ask for the modification of an unsatisfactory clearance.
Which of the following combinations contains all of the correct statements?
a)

3-4-5

b)

3-5

c)

2-3-5

d)

14

Whilst flying in an aerodrome's traffic circuit, an aircraft receives a series of green


flashes from the tower. The aircraft:
a)

is cleared to land.

b)

must give way to another aircraft.

c)

must come back to land and the landing clearance will be sent in due time.

d)

must land immediately and clear the landing area.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 93

C.A.T.
391.)

392.)

393.)

394.)

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
010-ATC

The transfer of an aircraft from one ATC unit to another is done:


a)

by agreement with the receiving unit.

b)

through a central control unit.

c)

automatically at the control zone boundary.

d)

with the pilot's consent.

Regarding Aerodrome Flight Information Service (AFIS):


a)

its only purpose is to relay ATC information to the aircraft in flight or on the ground.

b)

its purpose is to supply ATC services but it is not a state organisation.

c)

it has the same privileges and prerogatives as an ATC organisation but its activity is
neither continuous nor regular.

d)

it can only supply limited services to the users and under no circumstances may it supply
ATC services.

SSR special codes


ATC has assigned you the transponder code 5320.
In case of loosing two way radio communication, you have to squawk:
a)

Mode A Code 7700

b)

Mode A Code 5320

c)

Mode A Code 7500

d)

Mode A Code 7600

When a RADAR operator says the following to an aircraft: "fly heading 030", the pilot
must fly heading:
a)

030 true, in still air conditions (thereby flying the true track)

b)

030 true

c)

030 magnetic

d)

030 magnetic in still air conditions (thereby flying the magnetic track)

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 94

C.A.T.
395.)

396.)

397.)

398.)

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
010-ATC

The letter "L" is written in the wake turbulence box of a flight plan form when the
maximum certified take-off weight of an aircraft is less than or equal to:
a)

14 000 kg.

b)

20 000 kg.

c)

7 000 kg.

d)

5 700 kg for aeroplanes and 2 700 kg for helicopters.

If no ICAO identifier has been attributed to an alternate airport (box 16) of a flight plan
form...
a)

write XXXX in box 16 and indicate in box 18 (additional information) ALTN/followed


by the name of the airport

b)

write XXXX in box 16 and indicate in box 18 (additional information) DEGT/followed


by the name of the airport

c)

write ZZZZ in box 16 and indicate in box 18 (additional information) DEGT/followed by


the name of the airport.

d)

write ZZZZ in box 16 and indicate in box 18 (additional information) ALTN/followed by


the name of the airport.

While taxiing an aircraft receives the following light signal from the control tower:
series of red flashes. This signal means that the aircraft:
a)

may continue to taxi to the take-off area.

b)

must return to its point of departure.

c)

must vacate the landing area in use.

d)

must stop.

While taxiing, an aircraft receives from the airport controller the following light signal:
a series of green flashes. This signal means that the aircraft:
a)

must return to its point of departure.

b)

must stop.

c)

is cleared for take-off.

d)

may continue to taxi towards the take-off area.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 95

C.A.T.
399.)

400.)

401.)

402.)

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
010-ATC

Approach procedures - missed approach climb


Normally the missed approach procedures are based on a nominal missed approach
climb gradient of:
a)

2%

b)

5%

c)

3.3%

d)

2.5%

For an IFR flight to an airport equipped with navaids, the estimated time of arrival is
the estimated time at which the aircraft:
a)

will arrive overhead the initial approach fix.

b)

will leave the initial approach fix to start the final approach.

c)

will land.

d)

will stop on the parking area.

Given:
AGL = above ground level
AMSL = above mean sea level
FL = flight level
within uncontrolled airspace, the first usable level in IFR must provide a 500 ft margin
above the following two levels:
a)

3 000 ft AMSL or 1 000ft AGL.

b)

FL 30 or 100 ft AGL.

c)

FL 30 or 1 500 ft AGL.

d)

3 000 ft AMSL or 1 500 ft AGL.

Approach procedures - Minimum Sector Altitudes / MSA Minimum Sector Altitudes are
established for each aerodrome. The MSA provides an obstacle clearance of at least
300m (984 ft) within a circle, associated with the homing facility for the approach
procedure of that aerodrome.
How many NM is the radius of this circle?
a)

10 NM

b)

25 NM

c)

5 NM

d)

20 NM

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 96

C.A.T.
403.)

404.)

405.)

406.)

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
010-ATC

Approach procedures - MDH / OCH


For a non-precision or circling approach, the Minimum Descent Height (MDH) cannot
be lower than:
a)

400 ft

b)

200 ft

c)

the Obstacle Clearance Height (OCH)

d)

350 ft

When an aircraft is experiencing difficulties, triggering of the alert phase is the


responsibility of:
a)

air traffic control and flight information centres.

b)

search and rescue co-ordination centres.

c)

control centres only.

d)

air traffic co-ordination centres.

During an arrival procedure under an IFR flight plan in VMC conditions, traffic
avoidance is the responsibility of:
a)

the approach controller.

b)

the radar controller.

c)

the pilot in command.

d)

the airport controller.

According to JAR-FCL, a professional flight crew licence license issued by a non JAA
State may be rendered valid for use on aircraft registered in a JAA Member State
a)

At the discretion of the Authority of that Member State concerned for a period not
exceeding one year, provided that the basic licence remains valid.

b)

At the discretion of the Authority of the Member State concerned for a period not
exceeding the period validity of basic licence

c)

At the discretion of the Authority of that Member State concerned for a period not
exceeding one year

d)

At the discretion of the Authority of that Member State concerned for a period not
exceeding one year, provided that the basic licence remains valid.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 97

C.A.T.
407.)

408.)

409.)

410.)

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
010-ATC

According to JAR-FCL, licence holders do not exercise the privileges of their licences,
related ratings or authorisations at any time when they are aware of any decrease in
their medical fitness which might render them unable to safely exercise those
privileges. They shall without undue delay seek the advice of the authority or AME
when becoming aware of hospital or clinic admissions for:
a)

More than one week

b)

More than 12 hours

c)

More than 12 days

d)

Any period

According to JAR-FCL, Class 2 medical certificate for private pilots will be valid for
a)

24 months until age of 40, 12 months until age of 60 and 6 months thereafter

b)

24 months until age of 40, 12 months thereafter

c)

60 months until age of 30, 24 months until age of 50, 12 months until age of 65 and 6
months thereafter

d)

60 months until age of 30, 24 months until age of 40, 12 months thereafter

According to JAR-FCL, an applicant for a CPL (A) who has satisfactorily followed and
completed an integrated flying training course shall have completed as a pilot of
aeroplanes having a certificate of airworthiness issued or accepted by a JAA Member
State at least:
a)

150 hours of flight time

b)

200 hours of flight time plus 10 hours of instrument ground time

c)

150 hours of flight time plus 10 hours of instrument ground time

d)

200 hours of flight time

According to JAR-FCL, an instrument rating is valid for:


a)

Indefinitely

b)

The period of validity of the licence.

c)

one year

d)

two years

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 98

C.A.T.
411.)

412.)

413.)

414.)

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
010-ATC

According to JAR-FCL, an applicant for an IR(A) shall hold a PPL (A) including a night
qualification or CPL(A) and shall have completed at least 50 hours:
a)

Instructional flight time as student-pilot-in-command of aeroplanes.

b)

Cross country flight time as pilot of aeroplanes or helicopters of which at least 10 hours
shall be in aeroplanes.

c)

Instructional flight time as student-pilot-in-command of aeroplanes or helicopters of


which at least 10 hours shall be in aeroplanes.

d)

Cross country flight time as pilot-in-command in aeroplanes or helicopters of which at


least 10 hours shall be in aeroplanes.

According to JAR-FCL, class rating shall be established for single pilots aeroplanes
not requiring a type rating, including:
a)

All self.-sustaining gliders.

b)

All types of single-pilot, single-engine aeroplanes fitted with a turbojet engine.

c)

Any other type of aeroplane if considered necessary.

d)

Microlights having fixed wings and moveable aerodynamic control surfaces acting in all
three dimensions.

According to JAR-FCL, establishment of separate type rating for aeroplanes will be


assessed on the basis of three criteria. One of these three criteria is that the
aeroplane has:
a)

Handling characteristics that require additional flying or simulator training

b)

Handling characteristics that require the use of more than one crew member

c)

A certificate of airworthiness issued by the manufacturer.

d)

A certificate of airworthiness issued by a non-member state.

According to JAR-FCL, the validity of type ratings and multi-engine class ratings will
be one year from the date:
a)

Of the last medical certificate

b)

Of issue

c)

Of the skill test

d)

The application is received by the Authority.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 99

C.A.T.
415.)

416.)

417.)

418.)

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
010-ATC

According to JAR-FCL, single pilot single-engine class ratings are valid for:
a)

One year

b)

Two years up to age 40 years then one year thereafter.

c)

Five years after licence issue.

d)

Two years

According to JAR-FCL, successful completion of multi-crew co-operation (MCC)


training shall be required to:
a)

Obtain a professional pilot licence

b)

Revalidate any rating or licence

c)

Obtain the first class rating on multi-engine aeroplanes

d)

Obtain the first type rating on multi-pilot aeroplanes

According to JAR-FCL, an applicant for ATPL (A) shall have completed as a pilot of
aeroplane at least 1.500 hours of flight time, including
a)

500 hours in multi-pilot operations on aeroplanes type certificated in accordance with


JAR/FAR 25 or JAR/FAR 23.

b)

500 hours in multi-pilot operations on aeroplanes type certificated in accordance with


JAR/FAR 25 or JAR/FAR 23, of which up to 150 hours may be as flight engineer.

c)

500 hours in multi-pilot operations on aeroplanes type certificated in accordance with


JAR/FAR 25 or JAR/FAR 23, as pilot-in-command

d)

500 hours in multi-pilot operations on aeroplanes type certificated in accordance with


JAR/FAR 25 or JAR/FAR 23, including 200 hours of night flight as pilot-in-command or
as co-pilot.

According to JAR-FCL, an applicant for ATPL(A) shall have demonstrated the ability
to perform as pilot-in-command, the procedures and manoeuvres of an aeroplane type
certificated for:
a)

operations by pilots under training.

b)

the carriage of passengers at night.

c)

a minimum crew of two pilots under IFR

d)

a minimum crew of two pilots plus a flight engineer.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 100

C.A.T.
419.)

420.)

421.)

422.)

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
010-ATC

According to JAR-FCL, the privileges of a newly qualified Flight Instructor are


restricted to carrying out instruction under the supervision of a FI(A), approved for
this purpose. The restrictions may be removed from the rating:
a)

On the recommendation of the supervising FI(A) after the holder of the restricted FI(A)
rating has completed a competency test.

b)

On the recommendation of the supervising FI(A) after the holder of the restricted FI(A)
rating has completed at least 100 hours flight instruction and , in addition, has supervised
at least 25 student solo flights.

c)

On the recommendation of the supervising FI(A) after the holder of the restricted FI(A)
rating has supervised at least 100 solo flights.

d)

On the recommendation of the supervising FI(A) after the holder of the restricted FI(A)
rating has supervised at least 100 solo flights and completed a competency test.

According to JAR-FCL, the aeroplane instructor categories recognised are:


a)

FE(A)/TRE(A)/CRE(A)/IRE(A) and SFI authorisation.

b)

FI(A) and IRI(A).

c)

FI(A)/TRI(A)CRE(A)/IRE(A) and SFI authorisation

d)

FI(A)/TRI(A)/CRI(A)/IRI(A) and SFI authorisation

According to JAR-FCL, the privileges of the holder of an unrestricted FI(A) rating are
to conduct flight instruction for the issue of a CPL(A):
a)

Provided that the FI(A) has completed not less than 15 hours on the relevant type in the
preceding 12 months.

b)

Provided that the FI(A) has completed 200 hours of flight instruction

c)

Provided that the FI(A) has completed at least 500 hours of flight time as a pilot of
aeroplanes including at least 200 hours of flight instruction

d)

Without restriction

According to JAR-FCL, an examiner's authorisation is valid for:


a)

The period of validity of the class/type rating.

b)

Not more than two years

c)

Not more than three years

d)

The period of validity of the medical certificate.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 101

C.A.T.
423.)

424.)

425.)

426.)

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
010-ATC

According to JAR-FCL, Medical certificates classes are:


a)

1 and 2

b)

class 1 only.

c)

1, 2 and 3

d)

1,2,3 and 4

According to ICAO Annex 8, a certificate of airworthiness shall be renewed or shall


remain valid subject to the:
a)

Laws of the State in which is operated

b)

Laws of the State of registry and operation

c)

Laws of the State of registry

d)

Requirements laid down by ICAO

Each State of ICAO Annex 17 shall ensure the establishment of a security programme,
a)

At each airport

b)

only for administrative staff of airport

c)

for every airline operating in the State

d)

That is common for all airports within State

The ICAO Annex 17 comprise rules in order to establish security measures for
passengers
a)

and baggage

b)

checked baggage, cargo and other goods, access control and airport design

c)

cabin baggage, checked baggage, cargo and other goods, access control and airport
design

d)

checked baggage, cargo and other goods

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 102

C.A.T.
427.)

428.)

429.)

430.)

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
010-ATC

When an aircraft subjected to an unlawful interference has landed it shall notify by the
most expeditious means of the State of registry of the aircraft and the State of the
operator of the landing and shall similarly transmit all other relevant information to
the:
a)

Two aforementioned States, each State whose citizens suffered fatalities or injuries, each
State whose citizens are known to be on board the aircraft and the ICAO

b)

Two aforementioned States, each State whose citizens suffered fatalities or injuries, each
State whose citizens were detained as hostages, each State whose citizens are known to
be on board the aircraft and the ICAO

c)

Two aforementioned States, each State whose citizens suffered fatalities or injuries on
board the aircraft and the ICAO

d)

Two aforementioned States and the ICAO

A State shall provide assistance to an aircraft subjected to an act of unlawful seizure.


This assistance includes:
a)

provision of navigation aids, air traffic services, permission to land and refuelling

b)

provision of navigation aids, air traffic services and permission to land

c)

only permission to land

d)

provision of navigation aids, air traffic services, permission to land and catering for
passengers

A State shall take adequate measures for the safety of passengers and crew of an
aircraft which is subjected to an act of unlawful interference,
a)

until their journey can be continued

b)

if is requested by an individual passenger

c)

and arrange for them to return to their country of origin

d)

during a period of investigation

Accident investigation, objective


The sole objective of the investigation of an accident or incident shall be the:
a)

prevention of accidents or incidents and establish the liability.

b)

prevention of accidents or incidents and to provide legal evidence for subsequent court
cases.

c)

prevention of accidents or incidents.

d)

prevention of accidents or incidents and provide the manufacturer with investigation data
for the improvement of the design.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 103

C.A.T.
431.)

432.)

433.)

434.)

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
010-ATC

Select the acronym corresponding to the following definition: an special NOTAM


series notifying, by means of a specific format, an important change for the aircraft
operations, due to a volcano activity, a volcano eruption or a volcanic ash cloud.
a)

GVATAM

b)

VULTAM

c)

ASHTAM

d)

NAVTAM

The system notifying in advance the circumstances requiring important changes in


the methods of operation, based on common effective dates, is identified by the
acronym:
a)

IFPS

b)

EATCHIP

c)

NOTAM

d)

AIRAC

The temporary, long-term modification ( 3 months or more) and the short-term


extensive or graphical information are published as follows:
a)

Trigger NOTAM

b)

NOTAM

c)

AIP Amendments

d)

AIP Supplements

The applicant to exercise the functions of an Instrumental Flight Rating in _____


aeroplanes shall prove, according to Annex I, PERSONNEL LICENSING, his/her
capability to pilot such aircraft only by instrumental rules and an engine _________.
a)

Multi-engine / inoperative or simulated inoperative.

b)

Amphibious/inactive or simulated inactive.

c)

Land/inactive.

d)

Single-engine/inactive.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 104

C.A.T.
435.)

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
010-ATC

The movement area of an airfield, the adjacent lands and buildings or the parts of
them with controlled access is called:
a)

Terminal.

b)

Manoeuvring area.

c)

Aeronautical part

d)

Security program.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 105

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
010-ATC

Lsungen
1: B (1 Pkt.)

39: B (1 Pkt.)

77: A (1 Pkt.)

2: B (1 Pkt.)

40: A (1 Pkt.)

78: D (1 Pkt.)

3: A (1 Pkt.)

41: D (1 Pkt.)

79: C (1 Pkt.)

4: D (1 Pkt.)

42: C (1 Pkt.)

80: A (1 Pkt.)

5: D (2 Pkt.)

43: C (1 Pkt.)

81: D (1 Pkt.)

6: D (1 Pkt.)

44: D (1 Pkt.)

82: C (1 Pkt.)

7: A (1 Pkt.)

45: C (1 Pkt.)

83: C (1 Pkt.)

8: B (1 Pkt.)

46: B (1 Pkt.)

84: A (1 Pkt.)

9: B (1 Pkt.)

47: D (1 Pkt.)

85: D (1 Pkt.)

10: D (1 Pkt.)

48: C (1 Pkt.)

86: A (1 Pkt.)

11: D (1 Pkt.)

49: D (1 Pkt.)

87: A (1 Pkt.)

12: A (1 Pkt.)

50: A (1 Pkt.)

88: B (1 Pkt.)

13: A (1 Pkt.)

51: A (1 Pkt.)

89: C (1 Pkt.)

14: B (1 Pkt.)

52: B (1 Pkt.)

90: C (1 Pkt.)

15: B (1 Pkt.)

53: B (1 Pkt.)

91: B (1 Pkt.)

16: B (1 Pkt.)

54: D (1 Pkt.)

92: A (1 Pkt.)

17: B (1 Pkt.)

55: D (1 Pkt.)

93: B (1 Pkt.)

18: D (1 Pkt.)

56: D (1 Pkt.)

94: C (1 Pkt.)

19: D (1 Pkt.)

57: C (1 Pkt.)

95: C (1 Pkt.)

20: D (1 Pkt.)

58: B (1 Pkt.)

96: A (1 Pkt.)

21: D (1 Pkt.)

59: C (1 Pkt.)

97: A (1 Pkt.)

22: A (1 Pkt.)

60: A (1 Pkt.)

98: B (1 Pkt.)

23: A (1 Pkt.)

61: B (1 Pkt.)

99: C (1 Pkt.)

24: C (1 Pkt.)

62: B (1 Pkt.)

100: C (1 Pkt.)

25: B (1 Pkt.)

63: D (1 Pkt.)

101: C (1 Pkt.)

26: D (1 Pkt.)

64: B (1 Pkt.)

102: C (1 Pkt.)

27: B (1 Pkt.)

65: A (1 Pkt.)

103: A (1 Pkt.)

28: A (1 Pkt.)

66: D (1 Pkt.)

104: C (1 Pkt.)

29: B (2 Pkt.)

67: B (1 Pkt.)

105: B (1 Pkt.)

30: D (1 Pkt.)

68: A (1 Pkt.)

106: D (1 Pkt.)

31: D (1 Pkt.)

69: A (1 Pkt.)

107: A (1 Pkt.)

32: C (1 Pkt.)

70: C (1 Pkt.)

108: B (1 Pkt.)

33: A (1 Pkt.)

71: D (1 Pkt.)

109: B (1 Pkt.)

34: A (1 Pkt.)

72: D (1 Pkt.)

110: A (1 Pkt.)

35: A (1 Pkt.)

73: D (1 Pkt.)

111: D (1 Pkt.)

36: D (1 Pkt.)

74: D (1 Pkt.)

112: D (1 Pkt.)

37: B (1 Pkt.)

75: B (1 Pkt.)

113: D (1 Pkt.)

38: D (1 Pkt.)

76: B (1 Pkt.)

114: A (1 Pkt.)

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 106

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
010-ATC

115: D (1 Pkt.)

156: C (1 Pkt.)

197: A (1 Pkt.)

116: C (1 Pkt.)

157: A (1 Pkt.)

198: A (1 Pkt.)

117: D (1 Pkt.)

158: C (1 Pkt.)

199: A (1 Pkt.)

118: A (1 Pkt.)

159: D (1 Pkt.)

200: A (1 Pkt.)

119: C (1 Pkt.)

160: D (1 Pkt.)

201: B (1 Pkt.)

120: D (1 Pkt.)

161: A (1 Pkt.)

202: A (1 Pkt.)

121: C (1 Pkt.)

162: B (1 Pkt.)

203: B (1 Pkt.)

122: D (1 Pkt.)

163: D (1 Pkt.)

204: C (1 Pkt.)

123: D (1 Pkt.)

164: A (1 Pkt.)

205: B (1 Pkt.)

124: D (1 Pkt.)

165: A (1 Pkt.)

206: D (1 Pkt.)

125: B (1 Pkt.)

166: C (1 Pkt.)

207: C (1 Pkt.)

126: B (1 Pkt.)

167: A (1 Pkt.)

208: C (1 Pkt.)

127: C (1 Pkt.)

168: C (1 Pkt.)

209: B (1 Pkt.)

128: D (1 Pkt.)

169: A (1 Pkt.)

210: D (1 Pkt.)

129: B (1 Pkt.)

170: A (1 Pkt.)

211: B (1 Pkt.)

130: D (1 Pkt.)

171: D (1 Pkt.)

212: A (1 Pkt.)

131: C (1 Pkt.)

172: B (1 Pkt.)

213: D (1 Pkt.)

132: A (1 Pkt.)

173: D (1 Pkt.)

214: C (1 Pkt.)

133: A (1 Pkt.)

174: D (1 Pkt.)

215: D (1 Pkt.)

134: B (1 Pkt.)

175: B (1 Pkt.)

216: A (1 Pkt.)

135: B (1 Pkt.)

176: D (1 Pkt.)

217: A (1 Pkt.)

136: B (1 Pkt.)

177: B (1 Pkt.)

218: B (1 Pkt.)

137: C (1 Pkt.)

178: B (1 Pkt.)

219: A (1 Pkt.)

138: D (1 Pkt.)

179: A (1 Pkt.)

220: A (1 Pkt.)

139: B (1 Pkt.)

180: A (1 Pkt.)

221: C (1 Pkt.)

140: A (1 Pkt.)

181: A (1 Pkt.)

222: A (1 Pkt.)

141: C (1 Pkt.)

182: C (1 Pkt.)

223: C (1 Pkt.)

142: D (1 Pkt.)

183: D (1 Pkt.)

224: A (1 Pkt.)

143: A (1 Pkt.)

184: A (1 Pkt.)

225: C (1 Pkt.)

144: B (1 Pkt.)

185: A (1 Pkt.)

226: A (1 Pkt.)

145: D (1 Pkt.)

186: A (1 Pkt.)

227: B (1 Pkt.)

146: B (1 Pkt.)

187: C (1 Pkt.)

228: A (1 Pkt.)

147: A (1 Pkt.)

188: C (1 Pkt.)

229: D (1 Pkt.)

148: C (1 Pkt.)

189: A (1 Pkt.)

230: B (1 Pkt.)

149: A (1 Pkt.)

190: B (1 Pkt.)

231: A (1 Pkt.)

150: D (1 Pkt.)

191: D (1 Pkt.)

232: C (1 Pkt.)

151: B (1 Pkt.)

192: B (1 Pkt.)

233: A (1 Pkt.)

152: A (1 Pkt.)

193: D (1 Pkt.)

234: D (1 Pkt.)

153: C (1 Pkt.)

194: D (1 Pkt.)

235: A (1 Pkt.)

154: C (1 Pkt.)

195: D (1 Pkt.)

236: B (1 Pkt.)

155: B (1 Pkt.)

196: A (1 Pkt.)

237: A (1 Pkt.)

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 107

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
010-ATC

238: A (1 Pkt.)

279: D (1 Pkt.)

320: C (2 Pkt.)

239: B (1 Pkt.)

280: C (1 Pkt.)

321: C (2 Pkt.)

240: D (1 Pkt.)

281: B (1 Pkt.)

322: D (2 Pkt.)

241: D (1 Pkt.)

282: D (1 Pkt.)

323: D (2 Pkt.)

242: C (1 Pkt.)

283: C (1 Pkt.)

324: B (2 Pkt.)

243: C (1 Pkt.)

284: A (1 Pkt.)

325: A (2 Pkt.)

244: C (1 Pkt.)

285: B (1 Pkt.)

326: C (2 Pkt.)

245: C (1 Pkt.)

286: B (1 Pkt.)

327: A (2 Pkt.)

246: B (1 Pkt.)

287: B (1 Pkt.)

328: A (2 Pkt.)

247: A (1 Pkt.)

288: D (1 Pkt.)

329: C (2 Pkt.)

248: C (1 Pkt.)

289: B (1 Pkt.)

330: A (1 Pkt.)

249: D (1 Pkt.)

290: D (1 Pkt.)

331: C (2 Pkt.)

250: C (1 Pkt.)

291: C (1 Pkt.)

332: D (2 Pkt.)

251: D (1 Pkt.)

292: C (1 Pkt.)

333: B (2 Pkt.)

252: D (1 Pkt.)

293: A (1 Pkt.)

334: B (1 Pkt.)

253: C (1 Pkt.)

294: C (1 Pkt.)

335: C (1 Pkt.)

254: A (1 Pkt.)

295: B (1 Pkt.)

336: B (1 Pkt.)

255: A (1 Pkt.)

296: C (1 Pkt.)

337: D (1 Pkt.)

256: A (1 Pkt.)

297: A (1 Pkt.)

338: B (1 Pkt.)

257: B (1 Pkt.)

298: B (1 Pkt.)

339: B (1 Pkt.)

258: B (1 Pkt.)

299: A (1 Pkt.)

340: C (1 Pkt.)

259: C (1 Pkt.)

300: B (1 Pkt.)

341: B (1 Pkt.)

260: A (1 Pkt.)

301: B (1 Pkt.)

342: C (1 Pkt.)

261: D (1 Pkt.)

302: B (1 Pkt.)

343: D (1 Pkt.)

262: B (1 Pkt.)

303: C (1 Pkt.)

344: C (1 Pkt.)

263: C (1 Pkt.)

304: D (1 Pkt.)

345: D (1 Pkt.)

264: C (1 Pkt.)

305: B (1 Pkt.)

346: B (1 Pkt.)

265: C (1 Pkt.)

306: D (2 Pkt.)

347: A (1 Pkt.)

266: B (1 Pkt.)

307: A (2 Pkt.)

348: B (1 Pkt.)

267: A (1 Pkt.)

308: C (2 Pkt.)

349: B (1 Pkt.)

268: D (1 Pkt.)

309: B (2 Pkt.)

350: B (1 Pkt.)

269: B (1 Pkt.)

310: A (2 Pkt.)

351: A (1 Pkt.)

270: C (1 Pkt.)

311: B (2 Pkt.)

352: D (1 Pkt.)

271: C (1 Pkt.)

312: C (2 Pkt.)

353: B (1 Pkt.)

272: B (1 Pkt.)

313: C (2 Pkt.)

354: B (1 Pkt.)

273: B (1 Pkt.)

314: B (1 Pkt.)

355: D (1 Pkt.)

274: A (1 Pkt.)

315: D (1 Pkt.)

356: D (1 Pkt.)

275: A (1 Pkt.)

316: A (1 Pkt.)

357: C (1 Pkt.)

276: C (1 Pkt.)

317: A (2 Pkt.)

358: B (1 Pkt.)

277: B (1 Pkt.)

318: A (2 Pkt.)

359: B (1 Pkt.)

278: B (1 Pkt.)

319: A (2 Pkt.)

360: A (1 Pkt.)

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 108

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
010-ATC

361: A (1 Pkt.)

386: A (1 Pkt.)

411: D (1 Pkt.)

362: D (1 Pkt.)

387: B (1 Pkt.)

412: A (1 Pkt.)

363: C (1 Pkt.)

388: A (1 Pkt.)

413: A (1 Pkt.)

364: B (1 Pkt.)

389: B (2 Pkt.)

414: B (1 Pkt.)

365: D (1 Pkt.)

390: C (1 Pkt.)

415: D (1 Pkt.)

366: D (1 Pkt.)

391: A (1 Pkt.)

416: D (1 Pkt.)

367: C (1 Pkt.)

392: D (1 Pkt.)

417: A (1 Pkt.)

368: C (1 Pkt.)

393: D (1 Pkt.)

418: C (1 Pkt.)

369: D (1 Pkt.)

394: C (1 Pkt.)

419: B (1 Pkt.)

370: D (1 Pkt.)

395: C (1 Pkt.)

420: D (1 Pkt.)

371: C (1 Pkt.)

396: D (1 Pkt.)

421: C (1 Pkt.)

372: B (1 Pkt.)

397: C (1 Pkt.)

422: C (1 Pkt.)

373: D (1 Pkt.)

398: D (1 Pkt.)

423: A (1 Pkt.)

374: A (1 Pkt.)

399: D (1 Pkt.)

424: C (1 Pkt.)

375: C (1 Pkt.)

400: A (1 Pkt.)

425: A (1 Pkt.)

376: C (1 Pkt.)

401: A (1 Pkt.)

426: C (1 Pkt.)

377: D (1 Pkt.)

402: B (1 Pkt.)

427: B (1 Pkt.)

378: A (1 Pkt.)

403: C (1 Pkt.)

428: B (1 Pkt.)

379: D (1 Pkt.)

404: A (1 Pkt.)

429: A (1 Pkt.)

380: A (1 Pkt.)

405: C (1 Pkt.)

430: C (1 Pkt.)

381: C (1 Pkt.)

406: D (1 Pkt.)

431: C (1 Pkt.)

382: D (2 Pkt.)

407: B (1 Pkt.)

432: D (1 Pkt.)

383: D (1 Pkt.)

408: C (1 Pkt.)

433: D (1 Pkt.)

384: A (1 Pkt.)

409: A (1 Pkt.)

434: A (1 Pkt.)

385: A (1 Pkt.)

410: C (1 Pkt.)

435: C (1 Pkt.)

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 109

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
021-1 FZK

001.)

002.)

003.)

004.)

005.)

In flight, a cantilever wing of an airplane containing fuel undergoes vertical loads


which produce a bending moment:
a)

equal to half the weight of the aircraft multiplied by the semi span

b)

highest at the wing root

c)

lowest at the wing root

d)

equal to the zero -fuel weight multiplied by the span

The trim tab:


a)

increases hinge moment and control surface efficiency.

b)

reduces hinge moment and control surface efficiency.

c)

reduces hinge moment and increases control surface efficiency.

d)

increases hinge moment and reduces control surface efficiency.

The purpose of a trim tab (device) is to:


a)

reduce or to cancel control forces.

b)

trim the aeroplane during normal flight.

c)

lower manoeuvring control forces.

d)

trim the aeroplane at low airspeed.

A torsion link assembly is installed on the landing gear to:


a)

control the wheels.

b)

avoid rotation of the piston rod relative to the gear oleo strut.

c)

absorb the spring tension.

d)

lock the landing gear.

In a commercial transport aircraft the landing gear operating system is usually:


a)

Electrically driven.

b)

Hydraulically driven.

c)

Mechanically driven.

d)

Pneumatically driven.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20.Dezember 2004

page: 1

C.A.T.
006.)

007.)

008.)

009.)

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
021-1 FZK

Generally, on modern jet transport aircraft, how can the landing gear be extended if
there is a complete hydraulic system failure.
a)

By hydraulic accumulators.

b)

Electrically.

c)

Mechanically

d)

Pneumatically.

The type of brake unit found on most transport aeroplanes is a:


a)

Drum type brake.

b)

Multiple disk brake.

c)

Belt brake.

d)

Single disk brake.

The reason for fitting thermal plugs to aircraft wheels is that they:
a)

prevent the brakes from overheating.

b)

release air from the tyre in the event of overpressure.

c)

release air from the tyre in the event of overheating.

d)

prevent heat transfer from the brake disks to the tyres.

Thermal plugs are installed in:


a)

cabin windows.

b)

fire warning systems.

c)

cargo compartments.

d)

wheel rims.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20.Dezember 2004

page: 2

C.A.T.
010.)

011.)

012.)

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
021-1 FZK

The advantages of fly-by-wire control are:


1. reduction of the electric and hydraulic power required to operate the control
surfaces
2. lesser sensitivity to lightning strike
3. direct and indirect weight saving through simplification of systems
4. immunity to different interfering signals
5. improvement of piloting quality throughout the flight envelope
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
a)

1 and 2

b)

3 and 5

c)

3, 4 and 5

d)

1 and 5

An artificial feel unit is necessary in the pitch channel when:


a)

the elevators are fitted with servo-tabs or trim tabs.

b)

the elevators are actuated by reversible servo-control units.

c)

the elevators are actuated by irreversible servo-control units.

d)

there is a trimmable stabilizer.

Hydraulic fluids must have the following characteristics:


1. thermal stability
2. low emulsifying characteristics
3. corrosion resistant
4. good resistance to combustion
5. high compressibility
6. high volatility
7. high viscosity
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
a)

1, 2, 5, 7

b)

1, 2, 3, 4

c)

2, 3, 4, 5

d)

1, 3, 4, 6

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20.Dezember 2004

page: 3

C.A.T.
013.)

014.)

015.)

016.)

017.)

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
021-1 FZK

In a hydraulic braking system, an accumulator is pre-charged to 1200 psi.


An electrically driven hydraulic pump is started and provides a system pressure of
3000 psi.
The hydraulic pressure gauge which is connected to the gas section of the
accumulator, reads:
a)

4200 psi

b)

3000 psi

c)

1200 psi

d)

1800 psi

In a hydraulic system overheat detectors are mostly installed:


a)

at the pumps.

b)

at the actuators.

c)

in the reservoirs.

d)

at the coolers.

Hydraulic fluids:
a)

Do not require special care.

b)

Cause high fire risk.

c)

Are irritating to eyes and skin and cause high fire risk.

d)

Are irritating to eyes and skin.

Hydraulic fluids used in systems of large modern airliners are:


a)

Phosphate ester base fluids.

b)

Mineral base fluids.

c)

Water base fluids.

d)

Vegetable base fluids.

Hydraulic power is a function of:


a)

Pump RPM only.

b)

System pressure and volume flow.

c)

System pressure and tank capacity.

d)

Pump size and volume flow.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20.Dezember 2004

page: 4

C.A.T.
018.)

019.)

020.)

021.)

022.)

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
021-1 FZK

Large transport aeroplane hydraulic systems usually operate with a system pressure
of approximately:
a)

2000 psi

b)

3000 psi

c)

4000 psi

d)

1000 psi

In hydraulic systems of large modern transport category aircraft the fluids used are:
a)

Vegetable oil.

b)

Mineral oil.

c)

Water and glycol.

d)

Synthetic oil.

The type of hydraulic oil used in modern hydraulic systems is:


a)

mixture of mineral oil and alcohol

b)

synthetic oil

c)

mineral oil

d)

vegetable oil

In a modern hydraulic system, "hydraulic fuses" can be found. Their function is:
a)

To isolate a part of the system and protect it against accidental pollution.

b)

To switch to the secondary system in case of a leak in the primary brake system.

c)

To allow by-passing of a hydraulic pump in case it is subject to excessive pressure,


without further damage to the system.

d)

To prevent total system loss in case of a leaking hydraulic line.

In a hydraulic system, the reservoir is pressurized in order to:


a)

reduce fluid combustibility

b)

seal the system

c)

keep the hydraulic fluid at optimum temperature

d)

prevent pump cavitation

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20.Dezember 2004

page: 5

C.A.T.
023.)

024.)

025.)

026.)

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire

Shuttle valves will automatically:


a)

switch hydraulically operated units to the most appropriate pressure supply.

b)

reduce pump loads.

c)

shut down systems which are overloaded.

d)

guard systems against overpressure.

021-1 FZK

One of the functions of an accumulator in a hydraulic system is:


a)

to damp pressure surges in the system.

b)

to store fluid.

c)

to store pressure.

d)

to act as a pressure relief valve.

If the cabin altitude rises (aircraft in level flight), the differential pressure:
a)

decreases

b)

increases

c)

may exceed the maximum permitted differential unless immediate preventative action is
taken.

d)

remains constant

The purpose of the cabin pressure controller, in the automatic mode, is to perform
the following functions:
1. control of cabin altitude,
2. control of cabin altitude rate-of-change,
3. limitation of differential pressure
4. balancing aircraft altitude with cabin altitude
5. cabin ventilation
6. keeping a constant differential pressure throughout all the flight phases.
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
a)

5, 6, 1

b)

4, 5, 3

c)

1, 2, 3

d)

2, 6, 4

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20.Dezember 2004

page: 6

C.A.T.
027.)

028.)

029.)

030.)

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire

During a normal pressurised climb after take-off:

021-1 FZK

a)

the cabin differential pressure is maintained constant

b)

absolute cabin pressure increases to compensate for the fall in pressure outside the
aircraft

c)

the pressurisation system is inoperative until an altitude of 10 000 feet is reached

d)

cabin pressure decreases more slowly than atmospheric pressure

(For this question use annex 021-786A)


In a pressurized aircraft whose cabin altitude is 8000 ft, a crack in a cabin window
makes it necessary to reduce the differential pressure to 5 psi.
The flight level to be maintained in order to keep the same cabin altitude is:
a)

FL 340

b)

FL 230

c)

FL 180

d)

FL 280

Main cabin temperature is:


a)

Only controllable at maximum cabin differential pressure.

b)

controlled by individual passenger.

c)

not controllable at the maximum cabin differential pressure.

d)

controlled automatically, or by flight crew selection.

The purpose of cabin air flow control valves in a pressurization system is to:
a)

discharge cabin air to atmosphere if cabin pressure rises above the selected altitude.

b)

Maintain a constant and sufficient mass air flow to ventilate the cabin and minimise cabin
pressure surges.

c)

regulate cabin pressure at the maximum cabin pressure differential.

d)

regulate cabin pressure to the selected altitude.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20.Dezember 2004

page: 7

C.A.T.
031.)

032.)

033.)

034.)

035.)

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
021-1 FZK

Assuming cabin differential pressure has reached the required value in normal flight
conditions, if flight altitude and air conditioning system setting are maintained:
a)

the pressurisation system ceases to function until leakage reduces the pressure.

b)

the outflow valves will move to the fully open position.

c)

the mass air flow through the cabin is constant.

d)

the outflow valves will move to the fully closed position.

Cabin pressure is controlled by:


a)

controlling the flow of air into the cabin with a constant outflow.

b)

the cabin air mass flow control inlet valve(s).

c)

delivering a substantially constant flow of air into the cabin and controlling the outflow.

d)

the cabin air re-circulation system.

During level flight at a constant cabin pressure altitude (which could be decreased,
even at this flight level), the cabin outflow valves are:
a)

fully closed until the cabin climbs to a selected altitude.

b)

At the pre-set position for take-off.

c)

Partially open.

d)

Fully closed until the cabin descends to a selected altitude.

The cabin pressure is regulated by the:


a)

Air conditioning pack.

b)

Air cycle machine.

c)

Outflow valve.

d)

Cabin inlet airflow valve.

Cabin pressurization is controlled by the:


a)

cabin outflow valve.

b)

cabin inlet airflow.

c)

engine's RPM.

d)

engine's bleed valves.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20.Dezember 2004

page: 8

C.A.T.
036.)

037.)

038.)

039.)

040.)

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire

Cabin differential pressure means the pressure difference between:


a)

cockpit and passenger cabin.

b)

actual cabin pressure and selected pressure.

c)

cabin pressure and ambient air pressure at MSL.

d)

cabin pressure and ambient air pressure.

021-1 FZK

Under normal conditions (JAR 25) the cabin pressure altitude is not allowed to
exceed:
a)

6000 ft

b)

8000 ft

c)

4000 ft

d)

10000 ft

Cabin altitude means the:


a)

cabin pressure expressed as altitude.

b)

flight level the aircraft is flying at.

c)

flight level altitude at maximum differential pressure.

d)

difference in height between the cabin floor and ceiling.

On a modern large pressurized transport aircraft, the maximum cabin differential


pressure is approximately:
a)

3 - 5 psi

b)

7 - 9 psi

c)

22 psi

d)

13 - 15 psi

On most modern airliners the cabin pressure is controlled by regulating the:


a)

RPM of the engine.

b)

Bleed air valve.

c)

Airflow leaving the cabin.

d)

Airflow entering the cabin.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20.Dezember 2004

page: 9

C.A.T.
041.)

042.)

043.)

044.)

045.)

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
021-1 FZK

If the maximum operating altitude of an airplane is limited by the pressurized cabin,


this limitation is due to the maximum:
a)

Positive cabin differential pressure at maximum operating ceiling.

b)

Negative cabin differential pressure at maximum operating ceiling.

c)

Positive cabin differential pressure at maximum cabin altitude.

d)

Negative differential pressure at maximum cabin altitude.

The "cabin differential pressure" is:


a)

the pressure differential between the air entering and leaving the cabin.

b)

approximately 5 psi at maximum.

c)

cabin pressure minus ambient pressure.

d)

approximately 15 psi at maximum.

The cabin rate of descent:


a)

is always the same as the airplane's rate of descent.

b)

results in a cabin pressure decrease.

c)

is not possible at constant airplane altitudes.

d)

results in a cabin pressure increase.

The maximum cabin differential pressure of a pressurised aeroplane operating at


FL370 is approximately:
a)

9.0 psi

b)

15.5 psi

c)

3.5 psi

d)

13.5 psi

Pneumatic mechanical ice protection system are mainly used for:


a)

propellers.

b)

wings.

c)

pitot tubes.

d)

windscreens.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20.Dezember 2004

page: 10

C.A.T.
046.)

047.)

048.)

049.)

050.)

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
021-1 FZK

The purpose of the pack cooling fans in the air conditioning system is to:
a)

supply the Passenger Service Unit (PSU) with fresh air.

b)

supply the heat exchangers with cooling air during slow flights and ground operation.

c)

cool the APU compartment.

d)

supply the heat exchangers with cooling air during cruise flight.

In flight, the cabin air for modern airplanes with jet engines is usually supplied by:
a)

ram air intakes.

b)

engine compressors.

c)

piston compressors.

d)

single radial compressors.

Cabin air for modern aircraft is usually taken from:


a)

the low pressure compressor and from the high pressure compressor if necessary.

b)

the second fan stage.

c)

the high pressure compressor.

d)

the low pressure compressor.

In an aircraft air conditioning system the air cannot be treated for:


a)

pressure.

b)

purity.

c)

temperature.

d)

humidity.

On modern transport aircraft, cockpit windows are protected against icing by:
a)

Vinyl coating.

b)

Rain repellent system.

c)

Electric heating.

d)

Anti-icing fluid.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20.Dezember 2004

page: 11

C.A.T.
051.)

052.)

053.)

054.)

055.)

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
021-1 FZK

Generally, for large aeroplanes, electrical heating for ice protection is used on:
a)

pitot tubes.

b)

elevator leading edges.

c)

slat leading edges.

d)

fin leading edges.

On most transport aircraft, the low pressure pumps of the fuel system are:
a)

centrifugal pumps, driven by an electric motor.

b)

removable only after the associated tank has been emptied.

c)

electro-mechanical wobble pumps, with self-regulated pressure.

d)

mechanically driven by the engine's accessory gearbox.

The fuel supply system on a jet engine includes a fuel heating device, upstream of
the main fuel filter so as to:
a)

ease low pressure pumps work by increasing fuel fluidity.

b)

maintain and improve fuel heating power.

c)

prevent fuel from freezing in fuel pipes due to low temperatures at high altitude.

d)

prevent, at low fuel temperature, the risk of ice formation from water contained in the
fuel.

On most transport jet aircraft, the low pressure pumps of the fuel system are
supplied with electric power of the following type:
a)

115 V DC

b)

115 V AC

c)

28 V AC

d)

28 V DC

The fuel cross-feed system:


a)

is only used to feed an engine from the tank of the opposite wing.

b)

is only used on the ground for fuel transfer from one tank to another.

c)

is only used in flight for fuel transfer from one tank to another.

d)

allows feeding of any engine from any fuel tank.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20.Dezember 2004

page: 12

C.A.T.
056.)

057.)

058.)

059.)

060.)

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire

The purpose of baffles in an aeroplane's integral fuel tank is to:


a)

prevent mixture of the fuel and hydraulic fluid.

b)

prevent overpressure in the tank.

c)

prevent the fuel from flowing in the vent lines.

d)

restrict the fuel movements in the tank.

021-1 FZK

On a transport type aircraft the fuel tank system is vented through:


a)

Ram air scoops on the underside of the wing.

b)

The return lines of the fuel pumps.

c)

Bleed air from the engines.

d)

A pressure regulator in the wing tip.

The types of fuel tanks used on most modern transport aircraft are:
a)

Cell tanks.

b)

Fixed built-in tanks.

c)

Integral tanks.

d)

Combined fuel tanks.

The purpose of baffle check valves fitted in aircraft fuel tanks is to:
a)

close the vent lines in case of turbulence.

b)

prevent fuel movement to the wing tip.

c)

damp out movement of the fuel in the tank.

d)

prevent positive pressure build up inside the tank.

On most transport aircraft, the low pressure pumps of the fuel system are:
a)

Diaphragm pumps.

b)

Centrifugal pumps.

c)

Piston pumps.

d)

Gear type pumps.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20.Dezember 2004

page: 13

C.A.T.
061.)

062.)

063.)

064.)

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire

The pressurization of fuel tanks is maintained by:


a)

the fuel vent system.

b)

the fuel top off unit.

c)

the fuel tank drains.

d)

the fuel dump system.

021-1 FZK

In a turbo compressor air conditioning system (bootstrap system), the purpose of the
heat exchangers is to:
a)

cool the bleed air in front and behind the compressor of the air cycle machine.

b)

allow a homogeneous temperature by mixing air flows from various air conditioning
groups in operation.

c)

allow a steady compressor outlet temperature.

d)

cool bleed air before entering the complete pneumatic system.

In a turbo compressor air conditioning system (bootstrap system), the main water
separation unit is:
a)

before the cooling turbine.

b)

after the cooling turbine.

c)

just after the heat exchangers.

d)

before the heat exchangers.

A turbo compressor air conditioning system (bootstrap system) includes two heat
exchangers; the primary exchanger (P) and the secondary exchanger (S).
The functions of these heat exchangers are as follows:
a)

P: warms up engine bleed air


S: recirculates the cabin air, reducing its temperature.

b)

P: precools the engine bleed air


S: cools air behind the pack's compressor.

c)

P: pre-cools the engine bleed air


S: increases the temperature of the air used for air-conditioning of cargo compartment
(animals).

d)

P: warms up engine bleed air


S: increases the temperature of air originating from the compressor of the pack.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20.Dezember 2004

page: 14

C.A.T.
065.)

066.)

067.)

068.)

069.)

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire

Cabin air for a large airplane, during flight:


a)

has an increased oxygen ratio.

b)

is temperature controlled.

c)

has a constant oxygen ratio regulated to a preset value.

d)

has a reduced oxygen ratio.

021-1 FZK

When air is compressed for pressurization purposes, the percentage oxygen content
is:
a)

dependent on the degree of pressurisation.

b)

decreased.

c)

increased.

d)

unaffected.

The term "bootstrap", when used to identify a cabin air conditioning and
pressurisation system, refers to the:
a)

source of the charge air.

b)

cold air unit (air cycle machine) arrangement.

c)

means by which pressurisation is controlled.

d)

charge air across the inter-cooler heat exchanger.

In a turbo compressor air conditioning system (bootstrap system) the supply of air
behind the primary heat exchanger is:
a)

passed across an expansion turbine, then directly to the heat exchanger.

b)

compressed, passed through a heat exchanger, and then across an expansion turbine.

c)

compressed, then passed across an expansion turbine and finally across a heat exchanger.

d)

passed across an expansion turbine, compressed and then passed through a heat
exchanger.

In a cabin air conditioning system, equipped with a bootstrap, the mass air flow is
routed via the:
a)

secondary heat exchanger outlet to the turbine inlet of the cold air unit.

b)

turbine outlet of the cold air unit to the primary heat exchanger inlet.

c)

compressor outlet of the cold air unit to the primary heat exchanger inlet.

d)

secondary heat exchanger outlet to the compressor inlet of the cold air unit.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20.Dezember 2004

page: 15

C.A.T.
070.)

071.)

072.)

073.)

074.)

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
021-1 FZK

Engine bleed air used for air conditioning and pressurization in turbo-jet aeroplanes
is usually taken from the:
a)

by-pass ducting.

b)

fan section.

c)

compressor section.

d)

turbine section.

In an air cycle machine:


a)

the temperature drop across the turbine is the main contributor to the cooling effect of the
air cycle machine.

b)

the turbine drives the compressor which provides pressurisation.

c)

the turbine drives the compressor of the machine which causes a higher temperature, and
so increases the second heat exchanger efficiency.

d)

the turbine increases the pressure of the air supply to the cabin.

In large modern aircraft, in the air conditioning system, reduction of air temperature
and pressure is achieved by:
a)

an evaporator.

b)

a condenser.

c)

a compressor.

d)

an expansion turbine.

In a "bootstrap" cooling system, the charge air is first compressed in the cold air unit
to:
a)

ensure an adequate pressure and temperature drop across the cooling turbine.

b)

ensure an adequate charge air flow across the inter-cooler heat exchanger.

c)

maintain a constant cabin mass air flow.

d)

increase the cabin air supply pressure when the charge pressure is too low.

A turbo compressor air conditioning system (bootstrap system) will:


a)

cause a pressure drop as well as an associated temperature drop in the charge air.

b)

not affect the charge air pressure.

c)

decrease charge air pressure whilst causing the temperature to rise in the heat exchanger.

d)

increase charge air pressure whilst causing the temperature to drop in the heat exchanger.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20.Dezember 2004

page: 16

C.A.T.
075.)

076.)

077.)

078.)

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
021-1 FZK

The cabin heating supply in a heavy jet transport aircraft is obtained from:
a)

an electrical heater system.

b)

a fuel heater system.

c)

hot air coming from the engine's turbines.

d)

hot air coming from the engine's compressors.

The pack cooling fan provides:


a)

cooling air to the primary and secondary heat exchanger during cruise.

b)

cooling air to the primary and secondary heat exchanger during slow flight and ground
operation.

c)

air to the eyeball outlets at the Passenger Service Unit (PSU).

d)

cooling air to the pre-cooler.

In flight, the most commonly used anti-icing method for the wings of modern
commercial aircraft fitted with turbo-jet units is:
a)

Electrical (electrical resistances).

b)

Physical/chemical (glycol-based liquid).

c)

Thermal (use of hot air).

d)

Mechanical (pneumatic source which acts by deforming the profiles of the leading edge).

With regard to pneumatic mechanical devices that afford ice protection the only
correct statement is:
a)

They can be used as both de-icing and anti-icing devices.

b)

They can only be used as de-icing devices.

c)

They can only be used as anti-icing devices.

d)

They are used extensively on modern aircraft as they are inexpensive and easy to
maintain.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20.Dezember 2004

page: 17

C.A.T.
079.)

080.)

081.)

082.)

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
021-1 FZK

Concerning electrically powered ice protection devices, the only true statement is:
a)

on modern aeroplanes, electrically powered thermal devices are used as de-icing devices
for pitot-tubes, static ports and windshield.

b)

on modern aeroplanes, electrically powered thermal devices are used to prevent icing on
small surfaces (pitot-static, windshield...).

c)

on modern aeroplanes, electrically powered thermal devices are very efficient, therefore
they only need little energy.

d)

on modern aeroplanes, electrical power supply being available in excess, this system is
very often used for large surfaces de-icing.

The elements specifically protected against icing on transport aircraft are:


1) engine air intake and pod.
2) front glass shield.
3) radome.
4) pitot tubes and waste water exhaust masts.
5) leading edge of wing.
6) cabin windows.
7) trailing edge of wings.
8) electronic equipment compartment.
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
a)

1, 2, 3, 8

b)

1, 2, 5, 6

c)

1, 2, 4, 5

d)

1, 4, 5, 7

The heating facility for the windshield of an aircraft is:


a)

Harmful to the integrity of the windows in the event of a bird strike.

b)

Used only at low altitudes where there is a risk of ice formation.

c)

Used on a continual basis as it reduces the thermal gradients which adversely affect the
useful life of the components.

d)

Only used when hot-air demisting is insufficient.

On a jet aircraft fuel heaters are:


a)

Installed in each tank.

b)

not necessary at all.

c)

Installed only in the centre tank.

d)

Located on the engines.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20.Dezember 2004

page: 18

C.A.T.
083.)

084.)

085.)

086.)

087.)

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire

The automatic fuelling shut off valve:


a)

cuts off the fuel in case of engine fire.

b)

stops fuelling as soon as a certain pressure is reached.

c)

stops fuelling as soon as a certain fuel level is reached inside the tank.

d)

stops fuelling as soon as the fuel spills into the vent line.

021-1 FZK

During re-fuelling the automatic shut-off valves will switch off the fuel supply system
when:
a)

the surge vent tank is filled.

b)

fuelling system has reached a certain pressure.

c)

there is fire.

d)

the fuel has reached a predetermined volume or mass.

(For this question use annex 021-980A)


The diagram shown in annex represents a jet fuel system. The fuel-flow
measurement is carried out:
a)

in the fuel control unit (item 3).

b)

after low pressure valve (item 1).

c)

after high pressure pump first stage (item 2).

d)

after high pressure valve (item 4).

The wing of an aircraft in flight, powered by engines located under the wing, is
subjected to a bending moment due to thrust and drag. The loading on the front spar
of the torsion box from the wing root to the wing tip is:
a)

compression.

b)

tension, and then compression.

c)

tension.

d)

compression, and then tension.

When a landing gear wheel is hydroplaning, its friction factor is equal to:
a)

b)

0.1

c)

0.5

d)

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20.Dezember 2004

page: 19

C.A.T.
088.)

089.)

090.)

091.)

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire

The colour of a fresh synthetic hydraulic fluids is:


a)

red.

b)

blue.

c)

purple.

d)

pink.

021-1 FZK

A tubeless tyre is a tyre:


1. which requires solid or branched wheels
2. whose valve can be sheared in sudden accelerations
3. whose mounting rim must be flawless
4. which requires no rim protection between rim flange and tire removing device
5. which does not burst in the event of a tire puncture
6. which eliminates internal friction between the tube and the tire
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
a)

1, 5, 6.

b)

1, 2, 5.

c)

2, 3, 6.

d)

3, 4, 5.

The purpose of stringers, used in fuselage construction, is to:


a)

withstand the shear stresses.

b)

assist the skin in absorbing the longitudinal traction-compression stresses.

c)

integrate the strains due to pressurization to which the skin is subjected and convert them
into a tensile stress.

d)

provide sound and thermal isolation.

Landing gear torque links are used to:


a)

maintain the compass heading throughout taxiing and take-off.

b)

take up the lateral stresses to which the gear is subjected.

c)

prevent the extension of the landing gear oleo strut rod.

d)

prevent rotation of the landing gear piston in the oleo strut.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20.Dezember 2004

page: 20

C.A.T.
092.)

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire

Shimmy occurs on the nose wheel landing gear during taxiing when:
1. the wheels tend to describe a sinusoidal motion on the ground
2. the wheels no longer respond to the pilot's actions

021-1 FZK

This effect is overcome by means of:


3. the torque link
4. a damper associated with the steering cylinder
The combination of correct statements is:

093.)

094.)

a)

1, 4.

b)

2, 3.

c)

2, 4.

d)

1, 3.

The illumination of the green landing gear light indicates that the landing gear is:
a)

locked-down and its door is locked.

b)

not in the required position.

c)

locked-down.

d)

in the required position.

An aircraft with a pressurized cabin is settled at its cruise level.


During the flight, a malfunction of the pressure controller is detected by the crew and
the cabin rate indicator reads -200ft/min.
Given that:
DELTA P: Differential pressure
Zc: Cabin altitude
a)

The crew has to intermittently cut off the incoming air flow in order to maintain a zero
Zc.

b)

The aircraft has to climb to a higher flight level in order to reduce Zc to its initial value.

c)

A descent must be initiated to prevent the oxygen masks dropping when Zc reaches
14000ft.

d)

DELTA P will rise up to its maximum value, thus causing the safety relief valves to open.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20.Dezember 2004

page: 21

C.A.T.
095.)

096.)

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire

The function of an accumulator in a hydraulic brake system is:

021-1 FZK

a)

to store the hydraulic energy recovered by the anti skid system to prevent wheel blocking.

b)

to damp pressure fluctuations of the auto brake system.

c)

to supply a limited amount of brake energy in case the hydraulic system normally
powering the brakes does not function anymore.

d)

to function as a buffer to assist the hydraulic system during heavy braking.

An aircraft with a pressurized cabin flies at FL 310 and, following a malfunction of


the pressure controller, the outflow valve runs to the open position. Given :
CAB V/S : Cabin rate of climb indication
CAB ALT: Cabin pressure altitude
DELTA P: Differential pressure
This will result in a:

097.)

a)

CAB V/S decrease


CAB ALT increase
DELTA P decrease

b)

CAB V/S increase


CAB ALT increase
DELTA P decrease

c)

CAB V/S decrease


CAB ALT decrease
DELTA P increase

d)

CAB V/S increase


CAB ALT increase
DELTA P increase

Among the different types of aircraft structures, the shell structures efficiently
transmit the:
1. normal bending stresses
2. tangent bending stresses
3. torsional moment
4. shear stresses
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
a)

1, 2, 3

b)

1, 3, 4

c)

2, 3, 4

d)

1, 2, 4

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20.Dezember 2004

page: 22

C.A.T.
098.)

099.)

100.)

101.)

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
021-1 FZK

On a non-stressed skin type wing, the wing structure elements which take up the
vertical bending moments Mx are:
a)

the webs.

b)

the spars.

c)

the skin.

d)

the ribs.

The modern anti-skid processes are based on the use of a computer whose input
data is:
1. idle wheel speed (measured)
2. braked wheel speed (measured)
3. brake temperature (measured)
4. desired idle wheel train slipping rate
5. tire pressure
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
a)

2, 4.

b)

1, 3.

c)

1, 2, 4.

d)

1, 2, 3, 4, 5.

VLO is the maximum:


a)

cruising speed not to be exceeded except in still air with caution.

b)

speed at which the landing gear can be operated with full safety.

c)

speed with flaps extended in a given position.

d)

flight speed with landing gear down.

VLE is the maximum:


a)

speed with flaps extended in a given position

b)

speed at which the landing gear can be operated with full safety

c)

flight speed with landing gear down

d)

speed authorized in flight

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20.Dezember 2004

page: 23

C.A.T.
102.)

103.)

104.)

105.)

106.)

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire

Flutter results from two deformation modes which are:


a)

torsion and bending

b)

torsion and shearing

c)

shearing and elongation

d)

bending an elongation

021-1 FZK

(For this question use annex 021-4960A)


Automatic temperature control of the system as shown, would be accomplished by:
a)

the temperature selector in conjunction with cabin sensors and the temperature regulator,
modulating the mix valve.

b)

the temperature selector only modulating the mix valve.

c)

the cabin sensors only modulating the mix valve.

d)

automatic control of the ram air.

The damping element in a landing gear shock absorber used on large aircrafts is:
a)

Oil.

b)

Nitrogen.

c)

Oxygen.

d)

Springs.

In some aircraft, there is a protection device to avoid the landing gear being
inadvertently retracted on the ground. It consists of:
a)

An aural warning horn.

b)

A bolt.

c)

A warning light which is activated by the WOW (Weight On Wheels) sensor system.

d)

A latch located in the landing gear lever.

The function of the selector valve is to:


a)

automatically activate the hydraulic system.

b)

discharge some hydraulic fluid if the system pressure is too high.

c)

communicate system pressure to either side of an actuator.

d)

select the system to which the hydraulic pump should supply pressure.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20.Dezember 2004

page: 24

C.A.T.
107.)

108.)

109.)

110.)

111.)

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
021-1 FZK

The component that converts hydraulic pressure into linear motion is called:
a)

An actuator or jack.

b)

A hydraulic pump.

c)

An accumulator.

d)

A pressure regulator.

The aircraft hydraulic system is designed to produce:


a)

high pressure and small flow.

b)

small pressure and small flow.

c)

high pressure and large flow.

d)

small pressure and large flow.

The hydraulic device similar to an electronic diode is a:


a)

shutoff valve.

b)

flow control valve.

c)

distribution valve.

d)

check valve.

The cross-feed fuel system is used to:


a)

allow the unusable fuel elimination.

b)

allow the fuel to be quickly thrown away in case of emergency

c)

automatically fill every tank up to the desired level.

d)

feed every engine from any fuel tank.

One of the purpose of the fuel system booster pumps to be submerged in the fuel is:
a)

To shorten the fuel lines, so minimising the pressure losses.

b)

To facilitate the priming of the pumps.

c)

To improve their efficiency.

d)

To cool the pumps.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20.Dezember 2004

page: 25

C.A.T.
112.)

113.)

114.)

115.)

116.)

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
021-1 FZK

The capacitance type fuel gauging system indicates the fuel quantity by measuring
the:
a)

electrical resistance change.

b)

density variation of the fuel.

c)

resistivity variation of the fuel.

d)

dielectric change between fuel and air.

The vapour lock is:


a)

The exhaust gases obstructions caused by an engine overheating.

b)

A stoppage in a fuel feeding line caused by a fuel vapour bubble.

c)

The effect of the water vapour bubbles in the induction manifold caused by the
condensation.

d)

The abnormal mixture enrichment caused by a greater gasoline vaporisation in the


carburettor.

The fuel system boost pumps are used to:


a)

feed the lines with fuel for directing it to the engine at a positive pressure.

b)

feed the fuel control units, which inject the pressurized fuel into the engine.

c)

avoid the bubbles accumulation.

d)

avoid the bubbles accumulation and feed the lines with fuel for directing it to the engine
at a positive pressure.

The purpose of an accumulator in a hydraulic system is:


a)

to enable the starting of hydraulic devices.

b)

to bypass the pumps in the hydraulic system.

c)

to damp the fluid pressure variations.

d)

to eliminate the fluid flow variations.

Torsion in a wing can be caused by


a)

Wing tip vortex

b)

Dihedral

c)

Positive sweep

d)

Propwash

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20.Dezember 2004

page: 26

C.A.T.
117.)

118.)

119.)

120.)

121.)

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire

'Fail safe construction' is:

021-1 FZK

a)

A type of construction for small aircraft only.

b)

A construction which is suitable for aerobatic flight.

c)

A simple and cheap type of construction.

d)

A type of construction in which the load is carried by other components if a part of the
structure fails.

Maximum power output and low mass of aeroplane hydraulic systems can be
achieved with
a)

medium system pressure and low volume flow.

b)

medium system pressure and high volume flow.

c)

high system pressure and low volume flow.

d)

low system pressure and high volume flow.

(For this question use annex 021-5248A)


The hydraulic systems which works correctly is shown in the figure:
a)

Figure c)

b)

c)

d)

The accumulator in a hydraulic system works as


a)

a fluid storage.

b)

a pressure storage.

c)

a volume storage.

d)

an energy storage.

The type of hydraulic fluid which has the greatest resistance to cavitation is:
a)

Synthetic fluid.

b)

Water and glycol based fluid.

c)

Vegetable oil based fluid (caster oil).

d)

Mineral oil based fluid.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20.Dezember 2004

page: 27

C.A.T.
122.)

123.)

124.)

125.)

126.)

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire

Parameters to monitor a hydraulic system in the cockpit can be:


a)

Pressure and RPM of the hydraulic pump.

b)

Pressure and hydraulic pump output.

c)

Pressure, fluid temperature and quantity.

d)

Pressure and fluid viscosity.

021-1 FZK

The working principle of the anti-skid system is:


a)

Reduction of the brake pressure at the slower turning wheels.

b)

Increase of the brake pressure at the slower turning wheels.

c)

Increase of the brake pressure at the faster turning wheels.

d)

Reduction of the brake pressure at the faster turning wheels.

The ice protection system currently used for the most modern jet aeroplanes is the
a)

Liquid de-icing system.

b)

Electrical de-icing system.

c)

Hot air system.

d)

Pneumatic system with expandable boots.

During flight, the wing anti-ice system has to protect


a)

the whole leading edge and the whole upper wing surface.

b)

a part of the whole leading edge.

c)

slats and the leading edge flaps only.

d)

the whole upper wing surface and the flaps.

In jet aeroplanes the 'thermal anti-ice system' is primarily supplied by


a)

ram air, heated via a heat exchanger.

b)

bleed air from the engines.

c)

turbo compressors.

d)

the APU.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20.Dezember 2004

page: 28

C.A.T.
127.)

128.)

129.)

130.)

131.)

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
021-1 FZK

The de-icing system which is mostly used for the wings of modern turboprop
aeroplanes is:
a)

Fluid de-icing.

b)

Electrical heating.

c)

Pneumatic boots.

d)

Thermal anti-icing.

The ice protection for propellers of modern turboprop aeroplanes works


a)

electrically.

b)

with hot air.

c)

with anti-icing fluid.

d)

pneumatically.

On an aircraft, the Krueger flap is a:


a)

leading edge flap close to the wing root

b)

leading edge flap close to the wing tip

c)

trailing edge flap

d)

leading edge flap

"Conditioned" air is air that has:


a)

been controlled in respect of temperature and pressure.

b)

had the oxygen content increased.

c)

had the oxygen content reduced.

d)

had any moisture removed from it.

A cabin pressure controller maintains a pre-set cabin altitude by regulating the:


a)

position of the outflow valve(s).

b)

position of the duct relief valve(s).

c)

mass air flow into the cabin.

d)

position of the inward relief valve.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20.Dezember 2004

page: 29

C.A.T.
132.)

133.)

134.)

135.)

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
021-1 FZK

(For this question use annex 021-6716A)


In the hydraulic press schematically shown, what balancing Force would be acting
on the right hand side ? (The diagram is not to scale)
a)

20 N.

b)

100 N.

c)

1 N.

d)

1000 N.

Assuming an accumulator is pre-charged with air to 1000 psi and the hydraulic
system is pressurised to 1500 psi, the accumulator gauge will read:
a)

1500 psi.

b)

500 psi.

c)

1000 psi.

d)

2500 psi.

Internal leakage in a hydraulic system will cause:


a)

fluid loss.

b)

an increased fluid temperature.

c)

a decreased fluid temperature.

d)

an increased fluid pressure.

On large aeroplanes equipped with power brakes, the main source of power is
derived from:
a)

pressure to the rudder pedals.

b)

the master cylinders.

c)

the aeroplane's hydraulic system.

d)

the brake actuators.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20.Dezember 2004

page: 30

C.A.T.
136.)

137.)

138.)

139.)

140.)

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire

Fire precautions to be observed before refuelling are:

021-1 FZK

a)

Ground Power Units (GPU) are not to be operated.

b)

Aircraft must be more than 10 metres from radar or HF radio equipment under test.

c)

All bonding and connections to the earth terminal between ground equipment and the
aircraft should be made before filler caps are removed.

d)

Passengers may be boarded (traversing the refuelling zone) providing suitable fire
extinguishers are readily available.

"Nose wheel shimmy" may be described as:


a)

the amount of free movement of the nose wheel before steering takes effect.

b)

the oscillatory movement of the nose wheel when extended prior to landing.

c)

a possibly damaging vibration of the nose wheel when moving on the ground.

d)

aircraft vibration caused by the nose wheel upon extension of the gear.

The term "Bootstrap", when used to identify a cabin air conditioning and
pressurisation system, refers to the:
a)

charge air across the inter-cooler heat exchanger.

b)

cold air unit (air cycle machine) arrangement.

c)

means by which pressurisation is controlled.

d)

source of the charge air.

In a bootstrap cooling system the supply air is first:


a)

used to increase the cabin air supply pressure when the charge pressure is too low.

b)

compressed, passed through a secondary heat exchanger, and then across an expansion
turbine.

c)

passed across an expansion turbine, then compressed and passed through a secondary
heat exchanger.

d)

passed across an expansion turbine, then directly to the heat exchanger.

The term "pressure cabin" applies when an aeroplane:


a)

has the ability to maintain a constant cabin differential pressure at all flight altitudes.

b)

is only pressurised in the area of the control cabin.

c)

has the ability to maintain a constant cabin altitude at all flight altitudes.

d)

has the means to maintain cabin pressure higher than ambient pressure.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20.Dezember 2004

page: 31

C.A.T.
141.)

142.)

143.)

144.)

145.)

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire

Under normal flight conditions, cabin pressure is controlled by:


a)

regulating the discharge of air through the outflow valve(s).

b)

pressurisation duct relief valve(s).

c)

engine rpm.

d)

inward relief valve(s).

021-1 FZK

Assuming cabin differential pressure has attained the required value in normal flight
conditions, if flight altitude is maintained:
a)

a constant mass air flow is permitted through the cabin.

b)

the pressurisation system must be controlled manually.

c)

the pressurisation system ceases to function until leakage reduces the pressure.

d)

the outflow valves will move to the fully open position.

Assuming cabin pressure decreases, the cabin rate of climb indicator should
indicate:
a)

zero.

b)

a rate of descent of approximately 300 feet per minutes.

c)

a rate of descent dependent upon the cabin differential pressure.

d)

a rate of climb.

The level in a hydraulic reservoir will:


a)

initially increase with system pressurisation.

b)

always remain the same.

c)

increase as ambient temperature decreases.

d)

fluctuate with accumulator pressure.

An accumulator in a hydraulic system will:


a)

reduce fluid temperature only.

b)

increase pressure surges within the system.

c)

reduce fluid temperature and pressure.

d)

store fluid under pressure.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20.Dezember 2004

page: 32

C.A.T.
146.)

147.)

148.)

149.)

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
021-1 FZK

Assuming a hydraulic accumulator is pre-charged with air to 1000 psi. If the


hydraulic system is then pressurised to its operating pressure of 3000 psi, the
indicated pressure on the air side of the accumulator should be:
a)

4000 psi.

b)

1000 psi.

c)

2000 psi.

d)

3000 psi.

(For this question use annex 021-6736A)


The schematic diagram annexed illustrates an actuator and a selector valve in a
typical hydraulic system. Assuming hydraulic pressure throughout and no internal
leakage:
a)

the piston moves to the left due to pressure acting on differential areas.

b)

since pressures are equal, the piston is free to move in response to external forces.

c)

the piston moves to the right due to equal pressure acting on differential areas.

d)

a condition of hydraulic lock exists and no movement of the piston will take place.

In hydraulic system, a shuttle valve:


a)

allows two units to be operated by one pressure source.

b)

regulates pump delivery pressure.

c)

is a non-return valve.

d)

enables an alternate system to operate the same actuators in case of normal system
failure.

To allow for failure of the normal method of system pressure limiting control, a
hydraulic system often incorporates
a)

auxiliary hydraulic motors.

b)

a high pressure relief valve.

c)

an accumulator.

d)

a stand-by hydraulic pump.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20.Dezember 2004

page: 33

C.A.T.
150.)

151.)

152.)

153.)

154.)

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire

The Ram Air Turbine (RAT) provides emergency hydraulic power for:
a)

flap extension only.

b)

undercarriage selection and automatic brake system.

c)

nose wheel steering after the aeroplane has landed.

d)

flight controls in the event of loss of engine driven hydraulic power.

021-1 FZK

In a compensated capacitance type quantity indicating system, the contents gauge


of a half-full fuel tank indicates a fuel mass of 8000 kg. If a temperature rise
increased the volume of fuel by 5%, the indicated fuel mass would:
a)

remain the same.

b)

increase by 5%.

c)

decrease by 5%.

d)

increase by 10%.

Tyre "creep" may be described as the:


a)

gradual circumferential increase of tyre wear.

b)

the increase in inflation pressure due to decrease in ambient temperature.

c)

the decrease in inflation pressure due to increase in ambient temperature.

d)

circumferential movement of the tyre in relation to the wheel flange.

The reason for the fact that an aeroplane designed for long distances cannot simply
be used for short haul flights at higher frequencies is that
a)

the procedures and checklists for this kind of aeroplanes will take too much time

b)

in that case some fuel tanks remain empty during the whole flight, which stresses the
aeroplane's structure in an unacceptable way

c)

these aeroplanes often consume too much fuel on short haul flights.

d)

the lifetime of the fatigue sensitive parts has been based on a determined load spectrum

The ABS (Auto Brake System) is being disconnected after landing ..


a)

by pilot action

b)

the system is always armed

c)

at a certain low speed

d)

automatically

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20.Dezember 2004

page: 34

C.A.T.
155.)

156.)

157.)

158.)

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire

The purposes of the oil and the nitrogen in an oleo-pneumatic strut are:

021-1 FZK

a)

the oil supplies the damping and lubrication function, the nitrogen supplies the heatdissipation function.

b)

the oil supplies the spring function and the nitrogen supplies the damping function.

c)

the oil supplies the sealing and lubrication function, the nitrogen supplies the damping
function.

d)

the oil supplies the damping function and the nitrogen supplies the spring function

The function of a feed box in the fuel tank is to


a)

distribute the fuel to the various tanks during refuelling

b)

increase the fuel level at the boost pump location

c)

trap fuel sediments or sludge in the lower part of the tank

d)

ventilate the tank during refuelling under high pressure

The part of the flight that will cause the highest loads on the torsion link in a bogie
gear is
a)

Taxiing with a small turning radius.

b)

Touch down with crosswind

c)

Gear down selection

d)

Braking with an inoperative anti skid system.

The reason for the trim switch on a control column to consist of two separate
switches is
a)

To be able to use two different trim speeds, slow trim rate at high speed and high trim
rate at low speed

b)

To prevent that both pilots perform opposite trim inputs.

c)

Because there are two trim motors.

d)

To reduce the probability of a trim-runaway

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20.Dezember 2004

page: 35

C.A.T.
159.)

160.)

161.)

162.)

163.)

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
021-1 FZK

Assume that during cruise flight with air-conditioning packs ON, the outflow valve(s)
would close. The result would be that:
a)

the pressure differential would go to the maximum value

b)

the cabin pressure would become equal to the ambient outside air pressure

c)

the air supply would automatically be stopped

d)

the skin of the cabin would be overstressed

The function of an air cycle machine is to:


a)

decrease the pressure of the bleed air.

b)

pump the conditioned air into the cabin.

c)

cool the bleed air.

d)

remove the water from the bleed air.

Hydraulic fluid, entering the hydraulic pump, is slightly pressurised to:


a)

ensure sufficient pump output.

b)

prevent overheating of the pump.

c)

prevent vapour locking.

d)

prevent cavitation in the pump.

The function of a fusible plug is to


a)

function as a special circuit breaker in the electric system

b)

protect the brake against brake disk fusion due to excessive temperature.

c)

protect against excessive pressure in the pneumatic system.

d)

protect the tyre against explosion due to excessive temperature.

If the pressure in the cabin tends to become lower than the outside ambient air
pressure the:
a)

negative pressure relief valve will close

b)

outflow valve open completely.

c)

air cycle machine will stop.

d)

negative pressure relief valve will open.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20.Dezember 2004

page: 36

C.A.T.
164.)

165.)

166.)

167.)

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire

Regarding a thermal wing anti-icing system, the correct statement is:

021-1 FZK

a)

Aerodynamic performances of the wings are not maintained and there is a reduction of
maximum engine thrust.

b)

Aerodynamic performances of the wings are maintained and there is no reduction of


maximum engine thrust.

c)

Aerodynamic performances of the wings are not maintained and there is no reduction of
maximum engine thrust.

d)

Aerodynamic performances of the wings are maintained and there is a reduction of


maximum engine thrust.

The correct statement about rain protection for cockpit windshields is that:
a)

wipers are sufficient under heavy rain conditions to provide adequate view through the
cockpit windows.

b)

rain repellent should never be sprayed onto the windshield unless the rainfall is very
heavy.

c)

the alcohol de-icing system for cockpit windows is also suitable for rain protection.

d)

the electric de-icing system for cockpit windows is also suitable for rain protection.

For a JAR25 aeroplane, spoilers are:


a)

lower wing surface devices, their deflection is always asymmetrical.

b)

lower wing surface devices, their deflection can be symmetrical or asymmetrical.

c)

upper wing surface devices, their deflection can be symmetrical or asymmetrical.

d)

upper wing surface devices, their deflection is always asymmetrical.

On an airplane, the Krueger flaps are:


a)

trailing edge flaps close to the wing tip

b)

trailing edge flaps close to the wing root

c)

leading edge flaps close to the wing root

d)

leading edge flaps close to the wing tip

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20.Dezember 2004

page: 37

C.A.T.
168.)

169.)

170.)

171.)

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
021-1 FZK

Compared to a tyre fitted with an inner tube, a tubeless tyre presents the following
characteristics:
1 - high heating
2 - valve fragility
3 - lower risk of bursting
4 - better adjustment to wheels
The combination containing all the correct statements is:
a)

2, 4.

b)

2, 3.

c)

1, 2, 3, 4.

d)

3, 4.

On a modern aeroplane, to avoid the risk of tyre burst from overheating, due for
example to prolonged braking during an aborted take-off, there is:
a)

a hollow bolt screwed into the wheel which melts at a given temperature (thermal fuse)
and deflates the tyre.

b)

a pressure relief valve situated in the filler valve.

c)

water injection triggered at a fixed temperature in order to lower tyre temperature.

d)

the "Emergency Burst" function of the anti-skid system which adapts braking to the tyre
temperature.

The low pressure switch of a hydraulic circuit sets off an alarm if:
a)

the reservoir level is at the normal operation limit.

b)

there is a leak in the reservoir return line.

c)

the pump power accumulator is deflated.

d)

the pump output pressure is insufficient.

Concerning the sequential pneumatic impulses used in certain leading edge de-icing
evices, one can affirm that:
1 - They prevent ice formation.
2 - They are triggered from the flight deck after icing has become visible.
3 - A cycle lasts more than ten seconds.
4 - There are more than ten cycles per second.
The combination which regroups all the correct statements is:
a)

1-4

b)

2-3

c)

2-4

d)

13

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20.Dezember 2004

page: 38

C.A.T.
172.)

173.)

174.)

175.)

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire

On an aircraft landing gear, an under-inflated tyre:


a)

will have an increased critical hydroplaning speed

b)

will be more subject to viscosity aquaplaning on dry runway

c)

it's tread will deteriorate faster

d)

will wear at the shoulders

021-1 FZK

A scissor is a component found on landing gears. Its function is to:


a)

create the wheel pitch on bogie gears.

b)

make the body gears pivot when the nose wheel is turned through more than 20.

c)

transform the translational movement of the rudder pedals into the rotational movement
of the nose wheel.

d)

prevent any rotation of the oleo strut in the undercarriage shock absorber.

For an aeroplane hydraulic supply circuit, the correct statement is:


a)

the regulation system deals only with emergency operation and is not applied to all
hydraulic services but only those considered as essential.

b)

the reservoir constitutes a reserve of hydraulic fluid maintained under pressure by a


pneumatic back pressure (air or nitrogen) and destined to serve as a fluid or pressure
reserve.

c)

the security components comprise the filters, the pressure relief valves, the by-passes, and
the fire shut-off valve.

d)

the pumps are always electric due to the high pressures which they must deliver (140 to
210 kg/cm).

The reservoirs of a hydraulic system can be pressurized:


a)

by an auxiliary system.

b)

by bleed air from the engine.

c)

in flight only.

d)

by the air conditioning system.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20.Dezember 2004

page: 39

C.A.T.
176.)

177.)

178.)

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire

The cross-feed fuel system enables:

021-1 FZK

a)

the supply of the outboard jet engines from any outboard fuel tank.

b)

the supply of any jet engine from any fuel tank.

c)

the supply of the jet engines mounted on a wing from any fuel tank within that wing.

d)

only the transfer of fuel from the centre tank to the wing tanks.

Fuel pumps submerged in the fuel tanks of a multi-engine aircraft are:


a)

low pressure variable swash plate pumps.

b)

centrifugal low pressure type pumps.

c)

centrifugal high pressure pumps.

d)

high pressure variable swash plate pumps.

For this question use annex 021-11494A)


Associate the correct legend to each of the numbered diagrams:
a)

1- cantilever 2- dual wheels 3- half fork 4- fork

b)

1- cantilever 2- fork 3- half fork 4- dual wheels

c)

1- half-fork 2- single trace 3- cantilever 4- dual wheels

d)

1- half fork 2- fork 3- cantilever 4- tandem

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20.Dezember 2004

page: 40

021-10164 a.gif

021-10164 a.gif

021-11468 a.gif

021-11468 a.gif

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021-11474 a.gif

021-11494 a.gif

021-11494 a.gif

021-11507 a.gif

021-11507 a.gif

021-4008 a.gif

021-4008 a.gif

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021-4960 a.gif

021-5248 a.gif

021-5248 a.gif

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021-6660 a.gif

021-6716 a.gif

021-6716 a.gif

021-6736 a.jpg

021-6736 a.jpg

021-786 a.gif

021-786 a.gif

021-980 a.gif

021-980 a.gif

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
021-1 FZK

Lsungen
1: B (1 Pkt.)

40: C (1 Pkt.)

79: B (1 Pkt.)

2: B (1 Pkt.)

41: C (1 Pkt.)

80: C (1 Pkt.)

3: A (1 Pkt.)

42: C (1 Pkt.)

81: C (1 Pkt.)

4: B (1 Pkt.)

43: D (1 Pkt.)

82: D (1 Pkt.)

5: B (1 Pkt.)

44: A (1 Pkt.)

83: C (1 Pkt.)

6: C (1 Pkt.)

45: B (1 Pkt.)

84: D (1 Pkt.)

7: B (1 Pkt.)

46: B (1 Pkt.)

85: D (1 Pkt.)

8: C (1 Pkt.)

47: B (1 Pkt.)

86: D (1 Pkt.)

9: D (1 Pkt.)

48: A (1 Pkt.)

87: D (1 Pkt.)

10: B (1 Pkt.)

49: D (1 Pkt.)

88: C (1 Pkt.)

11: C (1 Pkt.)

50: C (1 Pkt.)

89: A (1 Pkt.)

12: B (1 Pkt.)

51: A (1 Pkt.)

90: B (1 Pkt.)

13: B (1 Pkt.)

52: A (1 Pkt.)

91: D (1 Pkt.)

14: A (2 Pkt.)

53: D (1 Pkt.)

92: A (1 Pkt.)

15: D (1 Pkt.)

54: B (1 Pkt.)

93: C (1 Pkt.)

16: A (1 Pkt.)

55: D (1 Pkt.)

94: D (1 Pkt.)

17: B (1 Pkt.)

56: D (1 Pkt.)

95: C (1 Pkt.)

18: B (1 Pkt.)

57: A (1 Pkt.)

96: B (1 Pkt.)

19: D (1 Pkt.)

58: C (1 Pkt.)

97: A (1 Pkt.)

20: B (1 Pkt.)

59: B (1 Pkt.)

98: B (1 Pkt.)

21: D (1 Pkt.)

60: B (1 Pkt.)

99: C (1 Pkt.)

22: D (1 Pkt.)

61: A (1 Pkt.)

100: B (1 Pkt.)

23: A (1 Pkt.)

62: A (1 Pkt.)

101: C (1 Pkt.)

24: A (1 Pkt.)

63: B (1 Pkt.)

102: A (1 Pkt.)

25: A (1 Pkt.)

64: B (1 Pkt.)

103: A (1 Pkt.)

26: C (1 Pkt.)

65: B (1 Pkt.)

104: A (1 Pkt.)

27: D (1 Pkt.)

66: D (1 Pkt.)

105: D (1 Pkt.)

28: B (3 Pkt.)

67: B (1 Pkt.)

106: C (1 Pkt.)

29: D (1 Pkt.)

68: B (1 Pkt.)

107: A (1 Pkt.)

30: B (1 Pkt.)

69: A (1 Pkt.)

108: C (1 Pkt.)

31: C (1 Pkt.)

70: C (1 Pkt.)

109: D (1 Pkt.)

32: C (1 Pkt.)

71: C (1 Pkt.)

110: D (1 Pkt.)

33: C (1 Pkt.)

72: D (1 Pkt.)

111: B (1 Pkt.)

34: C (1 Pkt.)

73: A (1 Pkt.)

112: D (1 Pkt.)

35: A (1 Pkt.)

74: A (1 Pkt.)

113: B (1 Pkt.)

36: D (1 Pkt.)

75: D (1 Pkt.)

114: D (1 Pkt.)

37: B (1 Pkt.)

76: B (2 Pkt.)

115: C (1 Pkt.)

38: A (1 Pkt.)

77: C (1 Pkt.)

116: C (1 Pkt.)

39: B (1 Pkt.)

78: B (1 Pkt.)

117: D (1 Pkt.)

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20.Dezember 2004

page: 41

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
021-1 FZK

118: C (1 Pkt.)

139: B (1 Pkt.)

160: C (1 Pkt.)

119: C (1 Pkt.)

140: D (1 Pkt.)

161: D (1 Pkt.)

120: D (1 Pkt.)

141: A (1 Pkt.)

162: D (1 Pkt.)

121: A (1 Pkt.)

142: A (1 Pkt.)

163: D (1 Pkt.)

122: C (1 Pkt.)

143: D (1 Pkt.)

164: D (1 Pkt.)

123: A (1 Pkt.)

144: D (1 Pkt.)

165: B (1 Pkt.)

124: C (1 Pkt.)

145: D (1 Pkt.)

166: C (1 Pkt.)

125: B (1 Pkt.)

146: D (1 Pkt.)

167: C (1 Pkt.)

126: B (1 Pkt.)

147: D (1 Pkt.)

168: D (1 Pkt.)

127: C (1 Pkt.)

148: D (1 Pkt.)

169: A (1 Pkt.)

128: A (1 Pkt.)

149: B (1 Pkt.)

170: D (1 Pkt.)

129: D (1 Pkt.)

150: D (1 Pkt.)

171: B (1 Pkt.)

130: A (1 Pkt.)

151: A (1 Pkt.)

172: D (1 Pkt.)

131: A (1 Pkt.)

152: D (1 Pkt.)

173: D (1 Pkt.)

132: B (1 Pkt.)

153: D (1 Pkt.)

174: C (1 Pkt.)

133: A (1 Pkt.)

154: A (1 Pkt.)

175: B (1 Pkt.)

134: B (1 Pkt.)

155: D (1 Pkt.)

176: B (1 Pkt.)

135: C (1 Pkt.)

156: B (1 Pkt.)

177: B (1 Pkt.)

136: C (1 Pkt.)

157: A (1 Pkt.)

178: B (1 Pkt.)

137: C (1 Pkt.)

158: D (1 Pkt.)

138: B (1 Pkt.)

159: A (1 Pkt.)

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20.Dezember 2004

page: 42

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
021-2 ETEC

001.)

002.)

003.)

004.)

In aviation, the reflection on ionosphere layers phenomenon is used in the following


frequencies:
a)

HF

b)

UHF

c)

VLF

d)

VHF

In aviation, the reflection on ionosphere layers phenomenon is used in the following


frequencies:
a)

VHF

b)

UHF

c)

VLF

d)

HF

The wavelength of a radio transmitted on frequency 121.95 MHz is:


a)

2.46 m

b)

24.60 cm

c)

24.60 m

d)

2.46 cm

If one of the 12 cells of a lead-acid battery is dead, the battery:


a)

has 1/12 less voltage, but can still be used.

b)

has 1/12 less voltage and less capacity, but can still be used.

c)

is unserviceable.

d)

has 1/12 less capacity, but can still be used.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 1

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
021-2 ETEC

005.)

006.)

007.)

008.)

When the AC generators are connected in parallel, the reactive loads are balanced by
means of the:
a)

energizing current.

b)

voltage.

c)

frequency.

d)

torque of the Constant Speed Drive (CSD).

In order to produce an alternating voltage of 400 Hz, the number of pairs of poles
required in an AC generator running at 6000 rpm is:
a)

b)

12

c)

24

d)

In an AC power generation system, the Constant Speed Drive (CSD):


1 - can be disconnected from the drive shaft.
2 - can be disconnected from the generator.
3 - is a hydro-mechanical system.
4 - is an electronic system.
5 - can not be disconnected during flight.
6 - can be disconnected during flight.
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
a)

1, 4, 5

b)

1, 3, 6

c)

2, 3, 4

d)

1, 2, 5

An inverter is a:
a)

unit used to convert DC into AC.

b)

device for reversing the polarity of the static charge.

c)

filter against radio interference.

d)

static discharger.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 2

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
021-2 ETEC

009.)

010.)

011.)

012.)

013.)

The main purpose of a Constant Speed Drive unit is to:


a)

mechanically protect the alternator drive shaft during coupling.

b)

maintain a constant frequency.

c)

take part in the voltage regulation.

d)

take part in the balancing of reactive loads.

The type of gate which requires all conditions with logic 1 for engagement is:
a)

AND.

b)

OR.

c)

NOR.

d)

NAND.

The frequency which corresponds to a wavelength of 12 cm is:


a)

3600 MHz.

b)

2500 kHz.

c)

360 MHz.

d)

2500 MHz.

The wavelength of a radio signal transmitted at the frequency of 75 MHz is:


a)

40 m.

b)

7.5 m.

c)

75 m.

d)

4 m.

The wavelength of a radio signal transmitted at the frequency 118.7 MHz is:
a)

2.53 m.

b)

25.3 m.

c)

2.53 cm.

d)

25.3 cm.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 3

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
021-2 ETEC

014.)

015.)

016.)

017.)

018.)

When the AC generators are connected in parallel, the reactive loads are balanced by
means of the:
a)

torque of the Constant Speed Drive (CSD).

b)

frequency or load controller.

c)

voltage controller.

d)

excitation current.

The power required for field excitation of the main rotor in modern constant-frequency
alternators is directly controlled by:
a)

the voltage regulator.

b)

a battery.

c)

an excitation alternator with a permanent magnet generator.

d)

an AC generator.

The alternators, when connected, are usually connected:


a)

In parallel mode.

b)

Dependant on the type of engine.

c)

Dependant on the type of generator.

d)

In series mode.

Alternating current can be derived from direct current by:


a)

an inverter.

b)

an alternating current motor.

c)

the use of relays.

d)

a series wound motor.

When a persistent underexcitation fault is detected on an AC generator connected to


the aircraft mains with another AC generator, the protection device opens:
a)

the exciter control relay, the generator breaker and the tie breaker.

b)

the generator breaker and the tie breaker.

c)

the tie breaker.

d)

the generator control relay and the generator breaker.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 4

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
021-2 ETEC

019.)

020.)

021.)

022.)

On detection of a persistent phase unbalance on an AC generator connected to the


aircraft mains, with another AC generator, the protection device opens:
a)

the generator breaker.

b)

the generator breaker and the tie breaker.

c)

the exciter control relay and the generator breaker.

d)

the tie breaker.

A static converter is powered by:


a)

alternating current on input, direct current on output.

b)

alternating current on input, alternating current on output.

c)

direct current on input, direct current on output.

d)

direct current on input, alternating current output.

In an aircraft electrical system where AC generators are not paralleled mounted, the
changeover relay allows:
a)

power supply to the faulty AC generators busbar.

b)

connection of the ground power truck to its distribution busbar.

c)

connection of the AC generator to its distribution busbar.

d)

connection of the Auxiliary Power Unit (APU) to its main busbar.

Pulling the fire shutoff handle causes a number of devices to disconnect. In respect of
the AC generator it can be said that the:
a)

exciter control relay opens.

b)

exciter control relay and the generator breaker open.

c)

exciter control relay, the generator breaker and the tie breaker open.

d)

generator breaker opens.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 5

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
021-2 ETEC

023.)

024.)

025.)

026.)

The advantages of grounding the negative pole of the aircraft structure are:
1. Weight saving
2. Easy fault detection
3. Increase of short-circuit risk
4. Reduction of short-circuit risk
5. Circuits are not single-wired lines
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
a)

1, 3, 5

b)

1, 2, 4

c)

2, 3, 5

d)

1, 2, 3

The speed of an asynchronous four-pole motor fed at a frequency of 400 Hertz is:
a)

800 revolutions per minute.

b)

1600 revolutions per minute.

c)

6000 revolutions per minute.

d)

12000 revolutions per minute.

Electrical bonding of an aircraft is used to:


1. protect the aircraft against lightning effects.
2. reset the electrostatic potential of the aircraft to a value approximating 0 volt
3. reduce radio interference on radio communication systems
4. set the aircraft to a single potentialThe combination regrouping all the correct
statements is:
a)

1, 2, 3

b)

2, 4

c)

1, 3, 4

d)

3, 4

The wavelength of a non-directional beacon (NDB) at a frequency of 300 kHz is:


a)

1 metre.

b)

100 metres.

c)

1000 metres.

d)

10 metres.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 6

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
021-2 ETEC

027.)

028.)

029.)

030.)

031.)

The minimum airborne equipment required for operation of a the VHF direction finder
is a:
a)

cathode-ray tube.

b)

VHF receiver operating in the 118 MHz to 136 MHz range.

c)

VHF compass operating in the 200 kHz to 1750 kHz range.

d)

VHF transmitter-receiver operating in the 118 MHz to 136 MHz range.

The VHF Omnirange (VOR) uses the following wavelengths:


a)

hectometric.

b)

decimetric.

c)

metric.

d)

centimetric.

The Instrument Landing System (ILS) uses the following wavelengths:


a)

hectometric.

b)

centimetric.

c)

decimetric.

d)

metric.

The Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) uses the following wavelengths:


a)

centimetric.

b)

decimetric.

c)

hectometric.

d)

metric.

The VHF direction finder uses the following wavelengths:


a)

hectometric.

b)

metric.

c)

centimetric.

d)

decimetric.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 7

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
021-2 ETEC

032.)

033.)

034.)

035.)

036.)

The high Altitude Radio Altimeter uses the following wavelengths:


a)

decimetric.

b)

myriametric.

c)

hectometric.

d)

metric.

The Automatic Direction Finder uses the following wavelengths:


a)

decimetric.

b)

hectometric or kilometric.

c)

metric.

d)

centimetric.

A thermal circuit breaker:


a)

uses electromagnetic trip system to prevent over heating.

b)

can be re-engaged without any danger even if the fault remains.

c)

protects the system in the event of overload/overheating.

d)

limits any overcurrent.

The Auxiliary Power Unit (APU) has its own AC generator that:
a)

must have the same characteristics as the main AC generator so that it can be easily
coupled with the latter.

b)

is excited by its Generator Control Unit (GCU) as soon as the APU starts up.

c)

is driven at constant speed through a Constant Speed Drive (CSD), in the same way as
the main AC generator.

d)

supplies the aircraft with three-phase 115-200 V, 400 Hz AC.

A magnetic circuit-breaker is:


a)

a protection system that has a quick tripping response.

b)

permits an overcurrent limited in time.

c)

can be reset without any danger even when fault remains.

d)

is a system with a slow response time.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 8

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
021-2 ETEC

037.)

038.)

039.)

040.)

The conditions to be met to activate a shunt generator are:


1. presence of a permanent field
2. closed electrical circuit
3. generator terminals short-circuited
4. minimum rotation speedThe combination of correct statements is:
a)

1, 4

b)

1, 3

c)

2, 3

d)

1, 2

A "Zener" diode is used for:


a)

rectification.

b)

digital displays.

c)

reverse current protection.

d)

voltage stabilization.

To reverse the direction of rotation of shunt-type (parallel field) DC electric motor, it is


necessary to:
a)

connect a phase-shift capacitor to the field circuit.

b)

reverse the polarity of either the stator and the rotor.

c)

change the connections from shunt to series.

d)

reverse the polarity of the motor connections.

The advantages of alternating current on board an aircraft are:


1. simple connection
2. high starting torque
3. flexibility in use
4. lighter weight of equipment
5. easy to convert into direct current
6. easy maintenance of machinesThe combination of correct statements is:
a)

3, 4, 5, 6

b)

1, 4, 6

c)

1, 2, 3, 5, 6

d)

1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 9

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
021-2 ETEC

041.)

042.)

043.)

044.)

Direct current generators are connected:


a)

in series to provide maximum voltage.

b)

in parallel to provide maximum power.

c)

in series to provide maximum power.

d)

in parallel to provide maximum voltage.

On board present aircraft, the batteries used are mainly Cadmium-Nickel. Their
advantages are:
1. low risk of thermal runaway
2. high internal resistance, hence higher power
3. good charging and discharging capability at high rating
4. wider permissible temperature range
5. good storage capability
6. sturdiness owing to its metal casing
7. the electrolyte density remains unchanged during charging.The combination of
correct statement is:
a)

3, 4, 5, 6

b)

1, 2, 5, 6, 7

c)

2, 3, 4, 5, 6

d)

3, 4, 6, 7

On detection of a persistent overvoltage fault on an AC generator connected to the


aircraft AC busbars, the on-board protection device opens:
a)

The generator breaker and tie breaker.

b)

the exciter breaker, the generator breaker and tie breaker.

c)

The generator breaker.

d)

the exciter breaker and the generator breaker.

A feeder fault on a direct current circuit results from a flux unbalance between the:
a)

shunt exciter and the series winding turn.

b)

generator and the series winding turn.

c)

voltage coil and the series winding.

d)

voltage coil and the series winding turn.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 10

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
021-2 ETEC

045.)

046.)

047.)

048.)

049.)

When a persistent top excitation limit fault on an AC generator connected to the


mains with another AC generator, the overexcitation protection device opens:
a)

the exciter breaker and the generator breaker.

b)

the exciter breaker, the generator breaker and the tie breaker.

c)

the generator breaker.

d)

the tie breaker.

When an underspeed fault is detected on an AC generator connected to the aircraft


AC busbar, the protection device opens the:
a)

exciter breaker.

b)

generator breaker.

c)

exciter breaker and generator breaker.

d)

exciter breaker, generator breaker and tie breaker.

The voltage regulator of a DC generator is connected in:


a)

parallel with the armature.

b)

parallel with the shunt field coil.

c)

series with the shunt field coil.

d)

series with the armature.

On starting, in a brushless AC generator with no commutator rings, the generator is


activated by:
a)

the main field winding.

b)

the auxiliary winding.

c)

a set of permanent magnets.

d)

the stabilizer winding jointly with the voltage regulator.

The capacity of an accumulator is:


a)

The quantity of electricity that the battery can supply during discharge.

b)

The number of cycles (charging and discharging) that a battery can withstand without
deterioration of its cells.

c)

The no-load voltage of the battery multiplied by its rated output current.

d)

The intensity withstood by the battery during charging.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 11

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
021-2 ETEC

050.)

051.)

052.)

053.)

054.)

The purpose of static wick dischargers is to:


a)

dissipate static charge of the aircraft in flight thus avoiding radio interference as a result
of static electricity.

b)

provide a path to ground for static charges when refuelling.

c)

be able to fly higher because of less electrical friction.

d)

dissipate static charge from the aircraft skin after landing.

The type of windings commonly used in DC starter motors are:


a)

compound wound.

b)

shunt wound.

c)

series wound.

d)

series shunt wound.

The output of a generator is controlled by:


a)

varying the field strength.

b)

the reverse current relay circuit breaker.

c)

varying the speed of the engine.

d)

varying the length of wire in the armature windings.

The rating of electrical fuses is expressed in:


a)

volts.

b)

watts.

c)

ohms.

d)

amperes.

A relay is:
a)

a magnetically operated switch.

b)

a device that is used to increase electrical power.

c)

a unit that is used to convert electrical energy to heat energy.

d)

another name for a solenoid valve.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 12

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
021-2 ETEC

055.)

056.)

057.)

058.)

The voltage of a fully charged lead-acid battery cell is:


a)

1,2 volts.

b)

2,2 volts.

c)

1,8 volts.

d)

1,4 volts.

The capacity of a battery is given in:


a)

Ohms.

b)

Watts.

c)

Ampere hours.

d)

Amperes/volts.

It may be determined that an aircraft is not properly bonded if:


a)

static noises can be heard on the radio.

b)

a circuit breaker pops out.

c)

there is heavy corrosion on the fuselage skin mountings.

d)

there is interference on the VOR receiver.

In the response curve of an amplifier, the bandwidth is:


a)

The frequency band corresponding to maximum gain less 3 decibels.

b)

The frequency band corresponding to maximum gain.

c)

The frequency band corresponding to maximum gain, increased by 10 kHz at each end.

d)

The frequency band corresponding to maximum gain less 20 decibels.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 13

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
021-2 ETEC

059.)

060.)

061.)

062.)

Static dischargers:
1. are used to set all the parts of the airframe to the same electrical potential
2. are placed on wing and tail tips to facilitate electrical discharge
3. are used to reset the electrostatic potential of the aircraft to a value approximating0
volts
4. are located on wing and tail tips to reduce interference with the on-board
radiocommunication systems to a minimum
5. limit the risks of transfer of electrical charges between the aircraft and theelectrified
clouds
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
a)

1,2,5.

b)

1,3,4.

c)

2,4,5.

d)

3,4,5.

A relay is:
a)

An electromagnetically operated switch.

b)

An electrical energy conversion unit.

c)

An electrical security switch.

d)

A switch specially designed for AC circuits.

The most widely used electrical frequency in aircraft is:


a)

200 Hz.

b)

400 Hz.

c)

60 Hz.

d)

50 Hz.

Assume a constant speed DC generator providing a constant output voltage. If the


electrical load increases, the voltage regulator will:
a)

change the direction of the excitation current.

b)

maintain the intensity of the excitation current constant.

c)

increase the intensity of the excitation current.

d)

decrease the intensity of the excitation current.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 14

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
021-2 ETEC

063.)

064.)

065.)

066.)

067.)

The so-called "hot buses" or "direct buses" are:


a)

automatically connected to the battery if generators have failed.

b)

directly connected to the battery.

c)

kept in operating conditions by an electrical resistance in the case of energy failure.

d)

providing an alternative current.

In flight, if the constant speed drive (CSD) temperature indicator is in the red arc the:
a)

pilot can disconnect it to allow it to cool and use it again.

b)

pilot has to throttle back.

c)

pilot must disconnect it and manually control the alternator.

d)

pilot must disconnect it, and the generator is not available for the rest of flight.

The reason for using inverters in an electrical system is ..


a)

To change AC into DC.

b)

To avoid a short circuit.

c)

To change DC into AC.

d)

To change the DC voltage.

The essential difference between aircraft AC alternators and DC generators (dynamos)


is that the:
a)

induced (output) windings of the alternators are fixed (stator), and the dynamos have a
fixed inductor (field) coil.

b)

alternators supply all of the output current through the commutators and brush
assemblies.

c)

induced windings of the alternators are rotating (rotor), and the dynamos have a rotary
inductor coil.

d)

The alternators generate much less power than DC generators.

In an alternator rotor coil you can find:


a)

Only induced current.

b)

Three-phase AC.

c)

AC.

d)

DC.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 15

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
021-2 ETEC

068.)

069.)

070.)

071.)

072.)

Skip distance is the:


a)

thickness of the ionosphere

b)

range from the transmitter to the first sky wave

c)

wavelength distance of a certain frequency

d)

highest critical frequency distance

A radio signal looses strength as range from the transmitter increases, this is called:
a)

propagation

b)

attenuation

c)

refraction

d)

ducting

In computer technology, an output peripheral is a:


a)

keyboard

b)

hard disk drive

c)

diskette drive

d)

screen unit

In computer technology, an input peripheral is a:


a)

diskette drive

b)

hard disk drive

c)

printer

d)

keyboard

In computer technology, a storage peripheral is a:


a)

key board

b)

screen unit

c)

hard disk drive

d)

printer

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 16

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
021-2 ETEC

073.)

074.)

075.)

076.)

077.)

The skip zone of HF-transmission will increase when the following change in
circumstance occurs:
a)

Higher frequency and lower position of the reflecting ionospheric layer

b)

Lower frequency and lower position of the reflecting ionospheric layer

c)

Lower frequency and higher position of the reflecting ionospheric layer

d)

Higher frequency and higher position of the reflecting ionospheric layer

A test to assess the state of charge of a lead-acid battery would involve:


a)

checking the battery voltage "off-load".

b)

checking the discharge current of the battery "on-load".

c)

checking the level of the electrolyte.

d)

comparing the "on-load" and "off-load" battery voltages.

When an "open circuit" occurs in an electrical supply system, the:


a)

load as indicated by the ammeter will increase.

b)

loss of continuity will prevent its working components from functioning.

c)

fuse or CB should isolate the circuit due to excess current drawn.

d)

component will operate normally, but will not switch off.

When two DC generators are operating in parallel, control of load sharing is achieved
by:
a)

the synchronous bus-bar.

b)

an equalising circuit which, in conjunction with the voltage regulators, varies the field
excitation current of the generators.

c)

carrying out systematic load-shedding procedures.

d)

an equalising circuit which, in turn, controls the speed of the generators.

Because of the connection in parallel of electrical equipments on an AC bus bar,


isolation of individual equipments:
a)

increases the bus bar voltage.

b)

decreases the bus bar voltage.

c)

increases the bus bar current consumption.

d)

decreases the bus bar current consumption.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 17

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
021-2 ETEC

078.)

079.)

080.)

081.)

082.)

In an aircraft equipped with a DC main power system, AC for instrument operation


may be obtained from:
a)

a rectifier.

b)

an inverter.

c)

a TRU.

d)

a contactor.

If a current is passed through a conductor which is positioned in a magnetic field:


a)

a force will be exerted on the conductor.

b)

the current will increase.

c)

the intensity of the magnetic field will decrease.

d)

there will be no effect unless the conductor is moved.

The moving part in an AC generator is usually referred to as the:


a)

rotor.

b)

stator.

c)

oscillator.

d)

slip ring.

The function of a constant speed drive (CSD) in an AC generating system is to:


a)

vary generator rpm in order to compensate for various AC loads.

b)

drive the generator at a constant speed.

c)

directly maintain a constant proportion between the rpm of an engine and a generator.

d)

vary the engine rpm (within limits) to compensate for various AC loads.

If two constant frequency AC generators are operating independently, then the phase
relation between both generators:
a)

must be synchronised.

b)

must be 120 out of phase.

c)

must be 240 out of phase.

d)

is unimportant.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 18

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
021-2 ETEC

083.)

084.)

085.)

086.)

087.)

To ensure correct load sharing between AC generators operating in parallel:


a)

only real loads need to be matched.

b)

both real an reactive loads must be matched.

c)

only reactive loads need to be matched.

d)

the matching of loads is unimportant.

A bus-bar is:
a)

a device which may only be used in DC circuits.

b)

a distribution point for electrical power.

c)

the stator of a moving coil instrument.

d)

a device permitting operation of two or more switches together.

A CSD of an AC generator may be disconnected in flight. The primary reason(s) for


disconnection are:
a)

slight variation about the normal operating frequency.

b)

excessive variation of voltage and kVAR.

c)

illumination of the CSD disconnect warning light.

d)

low oil pressure and/or high oil temperature of the generator drive.

A CSD unit which has been disconnected in flight:


a)

automatically resets at engine shut-down.

b)

may be reset in flight using the reset mechanism.

c)

may be reset on the ground only, after engine shut-down.

d)

automatically resets in flight providing engine rpm is below a given value.

(For this question use annex 021- 6660A) The logic symbol shown represents
(assuming positive logic):
a)

an INVERT or NOT gate.

b)

a NOR gate.

c)

a NAND gate.

d)

an EXCLUSIVE gate.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 19

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
021-2 ETEC

088.)

089.)

090.)

091.)

092.)

Because of the input/output relationship of an OR gate, it is often referred to as the:


a)

"all or nothing" gate.

b)

"any or all" gate.

c)

"state indicator" gate.

d)

"inhibited" or "negated" gate.

When carrying out battery condition check using the aircraft's voltmeter:
a)

the load condition is unimportant.

b)

no load should be applied to the battery because it would depress the voltage.

c)

a load should be applied to the battery in order to give a better indication of condition.

d)

the battery should be isolated.

Connecting two 12 volt 40 ampere-hour capacity batteries in series will result in a total
voltage and capacity respectively of:
a)

12 volts, 80 ampere-hours.

b)

12 volts, 40 ampere-hours.

c)

24 volts, 80 ampere-hours.

d)

24 volts, 40 ampere-hours.

When a conductor cuts the flux of a magnetic field:


a)

the field will collapse.

b)

there will be no effect on the conductor.

c)

current will flow in accordance with Flemings left hand rule.

d)

an electromotive force (EMF) is induced in the conductor.

In order that DC generators will achieve equal load sharing when operating in parallel,
it is necessary to ensure that:
a)

adequate voltage differences exists.

b)

the synchronising bus-bar is disconnected from the busbar system.

c)

equal loads are connected to each generator busbar before paralleling.

d)

their voltages are almost equal.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 20

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
021-2 ETEC

093.)

094.)

095.)

096.)

097.)

The purpose of a voltage regulator is to control the output voltage of the:


a)

generator at varying loads and speeds.

b)

batteries at varying loads.

c)

TRU.

d)

generators at varying speeds and the batteries at varying loads.

A current limiter fuse in a DC generation system is used to:


a)

allow a short term overload before rupturing.

b)

limit the current in the armature.

c)

limit the current in the field circuit.

d)

instantaneously rupture to limit the current in the load.

The purpose of bonding the metallic parts of an aircraft is to:


a)

prevent electrolytic corrosion between mating surfaces of similar metals.

b)

isolate all components electrically.

c)

provide a single earth for electrical devices.

d)

provide safe distribution of electrical charges and currents.

A 3 phase AC generator has 3 separate stator windings spaced at:


a)

45.

b)

90.

c)

60.

d)

120.

On the flight deck, an oil operated CSD unit is normally provided with means of
monitoring the:
a)

oil temperature and synchronous speed.

b)

oil over-temperature and low oil pressure.

c)

output speed and oil pressure.

d)

low oil temperature and low oil quantity.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 21

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
021-2 ETEC

098.)

099.)

100.)

101.)

102.)

An AC generator driven by a CSD unit:


a)

requires a voltage controller to maintain constant voltage under load.

b)

requires a voltage controller to maintain constant frequency.

c)

does not need a voltage controller since an AC generator voltage cannot alter under load.

d)

does not need a voltage controller since the CSD will ensure constant voltage.

Assuming a CSD fault is indicated, the CSD should be disconnected:


a)

at flight idle engine rpm only.

b)

on the ground only.

c)

when the AC generator voltage is outside limits.

d)

provided the engine is running.

When operating two AC generators unparalleled, the phase relationship of each


generator:
a)

must be synchronous.

b)

must be 90 out of synchronisation.

c)

must be in opposition.

d)

is unimportant.

When AC generators are operated in parallel, they must be of the same:


a)

amperage and kVAR.

b)

frequency and amperage.

c)

voltage and frequency.

d)

voltage and amperage.

The measured output power components of a constant frequency AC system are:


a)

kVA and kVAR.

b)

volts and amperes.

c)

volts and kilowatts.

d)

amperes and kilowatts.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 22

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
021-2 ETEC

103.)

104.)

105.)

106.)

107.)

"Frequency wild" in relation to a AC generation system means the generator:


a)

output frequency is too high.

b)

output frequency varies with engine speed.

c)

output frequency is too low.

d)

voltage regulator is out of adjustment.

When the supply frequency in a circuit with a capacitor is increased, the current in
this circuit will:
a)

remain the same.

b)

decrease.

c)

increase.

d)

be zero.

In an aeroplane fitted with a constant frequency AC power supply, DC power is


obtained from a:
a)

transformer rectifier unit (TRU).

b)

3 phase current transformer unit.

c)

rotary converter.

d)

static inverter.

On an aeroplane using AC as primary power supply, the batteries are charged in flight
from:
a)

a DC transformer and rectifier.

b)

a static inverter.

c)

a Transformer Rectifier Unit.

d)

the AC bus via current limiters.

Regarding Ohm's law:


a)

The current in a circuit is directly proportional to voltage.

b)

The current in a circuit is inversely proportional to voltage.

c)

The current in a circuit is directly proportional to the resistance of the circuit.

d)

The power in the circuit is inversely proportional to the square of the current.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 23

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
021-2 ETEC

108.)

109.)

110.)

111.)

112.)

When a battery is almost fully discharged there is a tendency for the:


a)

electrolyte to "boil".

b)

current produced to increase due to the reduced voltage.

c)

voltage to increase due to the current available.

d)

voltage to decrease under load.

Immediately after starting engine(s) with no other electrical services switched on, an
ammeter showing a high charge rate to the battery:
a)

indicates a generator failure, thus requiring the engine to be shut down immediately.

b)

indicates a battery failure since there should be no immediate charge.

c)

would be normal and is only cause for concern if the high charge rate persists.

d)

indicates a faulty reverse current relay.

Circuit breakers protecting circuits may be:


a)

used in AC and DC circuits.

b)

used only in AC circuits.

c)

used only in DC circuits.

d)

reset at any time.

A "trip-free" type circuit breaker is a circuit protection device which:


a)

can be reset at any time.

b)

is free from the normal CB tripping characteristic.

c)

will allow the contacts to be held closed in order to clear a fault in the circuit.

d)

will not allow the contacts to be held closed while a current fault exists in the circuit.

The function of a CSD in an AC generating system is to:


a)

drive the generator at a constant speed.

b)

vary the engine rpm (within limits) to compensate for various AC loads.

c)

vary generator rpm in order to compensate for various AC loads.

d)

directly maintain a constant proportion between the rpm of engine and generator.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 24

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
021-2 ETEC

113.)

114.)

115.)

116.)

117.)

The frequency of an AC generator is dependent on the:


a)

number of individual poles and the field strength.

b)

number of pairs of poles and the speed of the moving part.

c)

number of individual poles only.

d)

field strength and the speed of the moving part.

Because of the input/output relationship of an AND gate, it is often referred to as the:


a)

"all or nothing" gate.

b)

"any or all" gate.

c)

"inhibited" or "negated" gate.

d)

"state indicator" gate.

The function of a NOT logic gate within a circuit is to:


a)

ensure the input signal is DC only.

b)

invert the input signal such that the output is always of the opposite state.

c)

ensure the input signal is AC only.

d)

ensure the output signal is of the same state as the input signal.

A condenser in parallel with breaker points will


a)

assist in negative feedback to secondary coil

b)

assist in collapse of secondary winding.

c)

permit arcing across points

d)

intensify current in secondary winding

A unit that converts electrical DC into AC is:


a)

a thermistor.

b)

an AC generator.

c)

a transformer rectifier unit.

d)

an inverter.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 25

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
021-2 ETEC

118.)

119.)

120.)

121.)

A Constant Speed Drive aims at ensuring


a)

that the CSD remains at a constant RPM not withstanding the generator RPM

b)

that the electric generator produces a constant frequency.

c)

equal AC voltage from all generators.

d)

that the starter-motor maintains a constant RPM not withstanding the acceleration of the
engine.

Regarding (1) a fuse and (2) a circuit breaker:


a)

(1) is suitable for high currents, (2) is not suitable for high currents.

b)

(1) and (2) are not resettable.

c)

(1) is not suitable for high currents, (2) is suitable for high currents.

d)

(1) is not resettable, (2) is resettable.

The Central Processing Unit (CPU) of a computer essentially consists of:


1. an Arithmetic and Logic Unit (ALU)
2. a control and timing unit
3. registers
The combination which regroups all the correct statements is:
a)

1,2

b)

2,3

c)

1,3

d)

1,2,3

In an on-board computer, the software is


a)

resident in a random access memory (RAM)

b)

resident in a read-only memory (REPROM, EEPROM,...)

c)

loaded from a hard disk

d)

loaded from a floppy disk

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 26

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
021-2 ETEC

122.)

123.)

124.)

125.)

On-board electrical systems are protected against faults of the following type:
1. AC generator over-voltage
2. AC generator under-voltage
3. over-current
4. over-speed
5. under-frequency
6. undue vibration of AC generatorsThe combination of correct statements is:
a)

1,2,4,5

b)

1,2,4,6

c)

2,3,4,5,6

d)

1,3,5,6

The purpose of a battery control unit is generally to isolate the battery:


1 - from the bus when the battery charge has been completed
2 - when there is a battery overheat condition
3 - in case of an internal short circuit
4 - in case of a fault on the ground power unit
The combination which regroups all of the correct statements is:
a)

1 - 2 - 3 -4

b)

c)

1-2

d)

1 - 2 -3

The frequency of the current provided by an alternator depends on...


a)

the strength of the excitation current

b)

its rotation speed

c)

its phase balance

d)

its load

The resistors R1 and R2 are connected in parallel. The value of the equivalent
resistance (Req) so obtained is given by the following formula:
a)

Req = R1 x R2

b)

1/Req = 1/(R1 + R2)

c)

Req = R1 + R2

d)

1/Req = 1/R1 + 1/R2

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 27

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
021-2 ETEC

126.)

127.)

128.)

The function of the Generator Breaker is to close when the voltage of the:
a)

generator is greater than battery voltage and to open when the opposite is true

b)

battery is greater than the generator voltage and to open when the opposite is true

c)

battery is greater than the alternator voltage and to open when the opposite is true

d)

alternator is greater than the battery voltage and to open when the opposite is true

In the propagation of MF waves, the phenomenon of FADING is particularly found:


a)

at night and when raining.

b)

at night, due to the combination of the sky and ground waves.

c)

by day, due to the combination of sky and ground waves.

d)

by day and when raining.

The connection in parallel of two 12 volt/ 40 amp hours batteries, will create a unit
with the following characteristics;
a)

24 volt / 80 amp hours

b)

24 volt / 40 amp hours

c)

12 volt / 80 amp hours

d)

12 volt / 40 amp hours

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 28

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
021-2 ETEC

Lsungen

1:

A (1 Pkt.)

39:

B (1 Pkt.)

77:

D (1 Pkt.)

2:

D (1 Pkt.)

40:

A (1 Pkt.)

78:

B (1 Pkt.)

3:

A (2 Pkt.)

41:

B (1 Pkt.)

79:

A (1 Pkt.)

4:

C (1 Pkt.)

42:

A (1 Pkt.)

80:

A (1 Pkt.)

5:

A (1 Pkt.)

43:

D (1 Pkt.)

81:

B (1 Pkt.)

6:

A (1 Pkt.)

44:

D (1 Pkt.)

82:

D (1 Pkt.)

7:

B (1 Pkt.)

45:

B (1 Pkt.)

83:

B (1 Pkt.)

8:

A (1 Pkt.)

46:

B (1 Pkt.)

84:

B (1 Pkt.)

9:

B (1 Pkt.)

47:

C (1 Pkt.)

85:

D (1 Pkt.)

10:

A (1 Pkt.)

48:

C (1 Pkt.)

86:

C (1 Pkt.)

11:

D (1 Pkt.)

49:

A (1 Pkt.)

87:

A (1 Pkt.)

12:

D (1 Pkt.)

50:

A (1 Pkt.)

88:

B (1 Pkt.)

13:

A (1 Pkt.)

51:

C (1 Pkt.)

89:

C (1 Pkt.)

14:

D (1 Pkt.)

52:

A (1 Pkt.)

90:

D (1 Pkt.)

15:

A (1 Pkt.)

53:

D (1 Pkt.)

91:

D (1 Pkt.)

16:

A (1 Pkt.)

54:

A (1 Pkt.)

92:

D (1 Pkt.)

17:

A (1 Pkt.)

55:

B (1 Pkt.)

93:

A (1 Pkt.)

18:

A (1 Pkt.)

56:

C (1 Pkt.)

94:

A (1 Pkt.)

19:

D (1 Pkt.)

57:

A (1 Pkt.)

95:

D (1 Pkt.)

20:

D (1 Pkt.)

58:

A (1 Pkt.)

96:

D (1 Pkt.)

21:

A (1 Pkt.)

59:

C (1 Pkt.)

97:

B (1 Pkt.)

22:

B (1 Pkt.)

60:

A (1 Pkt.)

98:

A (1 Pkt.)

23:

B (1 Pkt.)

61:

B (1 Pkt.)

99:

D (1 Pkt.)

24:

D (1 Pkt.)

62:

C (1 Pkt.)

100:

D (1 Pkt.)

25:

C (1 Pkt.)

63:

B (1 Pkt.)

101:

C (1 Pkt.)

26:

C (1 Pkt.)

64:

D (1 Pkt.)

102:

A (1 Pkt.)

27:

D (1 Pkt.)

65:

C (1 Pkt.)

103:

B (1 Pkt.)

28:

C (1 Pkt.)

66:

A (1 Pkt.)

104:

C (1 Pkt.)

29:

D (1 Pkt.)

67:

C (1 Pkt.)

105:

A (1 Pkt.)

30:

B (1 Pkt.)

68:

B (1 Pkt.)

106:

C (1 Pkt.)

31:

B (1 Pkt.)

69:

B (1 Pkt.)

107:

A (1 Pkt.)

32:

A (1 Pkt.)

70:

D (1 Pkt.)

108:

D (1 Pkt.)

33:

B (1 Pkt.)

71:

D (1 Pkt.)

109:

C (1 Pkt.)

34:

C (1 Pkt.)

72:

C (1 Pkt.)

110:

A (1 Pkt.)

35:

D (1 Pkt.)

73:

D (1 Pkt.)

111:

D (1 Pkt.)

36:

A (1 Pkt.)

74:

D (1 Pkt.)

112:

A (1 Pkt.)

37:

A (1 Pkt.)

75:

B (1 Pkt.)

113:

B (1 Pkt.)

38:

D (1 Pkt.)

76:

B (1 Pkt.)

114:

A (1 Pkt.)

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 29

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
021-2 ETEC

115:

B (1 Pkt.)

120:

D (1 Pkt.)

125:

D (1 Pkt.)

116:

D (1 Pkt.)

121:

B (1 Pkt.)

126:

A (1 Pkt.)

117:

D (1 Pkt.)

122:

A (1 Pkt.)

127:

B (1 Pkt.)

118:

B (1 Pkt.)

123:

D (1 Pkt.)

128:

C (1 Pkt.)

119:

D (1 Pkt.)

124:

B (1 Pkt.)

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 30

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
021-3 TW

001.)

002.)

003.)

004.)

The pressure usually produced by the Boost Pumps (BP) of the fuel supply system of
a large jet transport airplane is within the following range:
a)

3000 to 5000 psi

b)

20 to 50 psi

c)

300 to 500 psi

d)

5 to 10 psi

In a gas turbine engine lubrication system, the oil to fuel heat exchanger provides:
a)

automatic controlled fuel heating by engine oil to prevent icing in the fuel filter.

b)

fuel cooling to prevent vapour locking interrupting the fuel supply to the nozzles.

c)

fuel heating as required whenever fuel filter clogging is detected.

d)

oil cooling through thermal exchange with the fuel.

The purpose of the barometric correction in a fuel controller is to:


a)

maintain the correct fuel to air mass ratio when the altitude increases.

b)

reduce the fuel to air mass ratio when the altitude increases.

c)

increase the fuel to air mass ratio when the altitude increases.

d)

maintain a constant fuel flow whatever the altitude is.

In a compressor stage of a jet engine, the sequence is:


a)

stator - rotor

b)

rotor - stator

c)

stator - stator - rotor

d)

rotor - rotor - stator

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 1

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
021-3 TW

005.)

006.)

007.)

008.)

The accessory units driven by the accessory gearbox of a turbo-jet engine are the:
1. tacho-generator N1
2. tacho-generator N2
3. thrust reverser pneumatic motors
4. AC generator and its Constant Speed Unit (CSD)
5. oil pumps
6. hydraulic pumps
7. high pressure fuel pumpsThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
a)

1, 4, 5, 6, 7.

b)

2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7.

c)

2, 4, 5, 6.

d)

4, 5, 6, 7.

The correct formula to calculate the total displacement of a multi-cylinder piston


engine is:
a)

cylinder length * cylinder diameter

b)

cylinder volume * number of cylinders

c)

piston area * piston stroke

d)

piston area * piston stroke * number of cylinders

When changing power on engines equipped with constant-speed propeller, engine


overload is avoided by:
a)

reducing the RPM before reducing the manifold pressure.

b)

adjusting Fuel Flow before the manifold pressure.

c)

increasing the manifold pressure before increasing the RPM.

d)

increasing the RPM before increasing the manifold pressure.

The blade angle of a constant-speed propeller


a)

is independent of the true air speed.

b)

increases with increasing true air speed.

c)

only varies with engine RPM.

d)

decreases with increasing true air speed.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 2

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
021-3 TW

009.)

010.)

011.)

012.)

013.)

A propeller blade is twisted, so as to


a)

keep the local Angle of Attack constant along the blade.

b)

decrease the blade tangential velocity from the blade root to the tip.

c)

allow a higher mechanical stress.

d)

avoid the appearance of sonic phenomena.

When increasing true airspeed with a constant engine RPM, the angle of attack of a
fixed pitch propeller:
a)

stays constant.

b)

increases.

c)

reduces.

d)

stays constant because it only varies with engine RPM.

When TAS increases, the blade angle of a constant speed propeller will (RPM and
throttle levers are not moved):
a)

increase.

b)

remain constant.

c)

first decrease and after a short time increase to its previous value.

d)

decrease.

The main advantage of a constant speed propeller as compared to a fixed pitch


propeller is a:
a)

high efficiency in a much wider speed range of the aeroplane.

b)

constant efficiency in the whole speed range of the aeroplane.

c)

lower propeller blade stress.

d)

higher efficiency in cruising range.

In case of engine failure during flight the blades of a constant speed propeller in a
single engine aeroplane, not fitted with feathering system
a)

move in a certain pitch position depending on windmilling RPM.

b)

move in the lowest pitch position by the centrifugal force and/or the spring force.

c)

move in the highest pitch position by the aerodynamic force.

d)

move in low pitch position by oil pressure created by the windmilling propeller.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 3

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
021-3 TW

014.)

015.)

016.)

017.)

018.)

For take-off, the correct combination of propeller pitch (1), and propeller lever position
(2) at brake release is:
a)

(1) high (2) aft.

b)

(1) low (2) forward.

c)

(1) high (2) forward.

d)

(1) low (2) aft.

For piston engines, mixture ratio is the ratio between the:


a)

mass of fuel and mass of air entering the cylinder.

b)

volume of fuel and volume of air entering the carburettor.

c)

mass of fuel and volume of air entering the carburettor.

d)

volume of fuel and volume of air entering the cylinder.

Variations in mixture ratios for carburettors are achieved by the adjustment of:
a)

fuel flow and air flow.

b)

air flow.

c)

fuel flow, air flow and temperature.

d)

fuel flow.

As altitude increases, the mixture ratio of a piston engine should be adjusted to :


a)

reduce the fuel flow in order to compensate for the increasing air density.

b)

increase the mixture ratio.

c)

increase the fuel flow in order to compensate for the decreasing air pressure and density.

d)

reduce the fuel flow in order to compensate for the decreasing air density.

When applying carburettor heating:


a)

a decrease in RPM results from the lean mixture.

b)

no change occurs in the mixture ratio.

c)

the mixture becomes richer.

d)

the mixture becomes leaner.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 4

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
021-3 TW

019.)

020.)

021.)

022.)

023.)

When the pilot moves the mixture lever of a piston engine towards a lean position the:
a)

volume of air entering the carburettor is reduced.

b)

amount of fuel entering the combustion chamber is increased.

c)

amount of fuel entering the combustion chamber is reduced.

d)

volume of air entering the carburettor is increased.

When altitude increases without adjustment of the mixture ratio, the piston engine
performance is affected because of:
a)

an increase of air density with a fuel flow which becomes too high.

b)

an increase of air density with a fuel flow which becomes too low.

c)

a decrease of air density with a fuel flow which becomes too low.

d)

a decrease of air density with a fuel flow which becomes too high.

A mixture setting richer than best power has to be used during climb segments. This
results in a
a)

lower cylinder head temperature.

b)

higher torque.

c)

increase of power.

d)

higher efficiency.

Max. Exhaust Gas Temperature is theoretically associated with:


a)

Full rich setting.

b)

Mixture ratio very close to idle cut-out.

c)

Cruising mixture setting.

d)

Mass ratio of 1/15.

For a given type of oil, the oil viscosity depends on the:


a)

quantity of oil.

b)

oil pressure.

c)

oil temperature.

d)

outside pressure.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 5

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
021-3 TW

024.)

025.)

026.)

027.)

In the axial flow compressor of a turbo-jet engine, the flow duct is tapered. Its shape is
calculated so as to:
a)

maintain a constant axial speed in cruising flight.

b)

reduce the axial speed in cruising flight.

c)

maintain a constant axial speed whatever the engine rating.

d)

reduce the axial speed, whatever the engine rating.

In the stator of a turbine, the gas velocity V and static pressure Ps vary as follows:
a)

V increases, Ps increases.

b)

V increases, Ps decreases.

c)

V decreases, Ps increases.

d)

V decreases, Ps decreases.

The Engine Pressure Ratio (EPR) is the ratio of:


a)

the total turbine inlet pressure to the total compressor outlet pressure.

b)

the total turbine outlet pressure to the total compressor inlet pressure.

c)

the total turbine inlet pressure to the total compressor inlet pressure.

d)

the total turbine outlet pressure to the total compressor outlet pressure.

On the ground, the Auxiliary Power Unit (APU) can provide:


1. electricity
2. air for starting system
3. hydraulic pressure
4. air for air conditioningThe combination which regroups all of the correct statements
is:
a)

1.

b)

1, 2, 4.

c)

2, 3, 4.

d)

1, 2, 3, 4.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 6

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
021-3 TW

028.)

029.)

030.)

031.)

032.)

The compressor surge effect during acceleration is prevented by the:


a)

inlet guide vanes.

b)

surge bleed valves.

c)

Fuel Control Unit (F.C.U.).

d)

variable setting type nozzle guide vanes.

By-pass turbine engines are mainly used in commercial aviation, because:


a)

they are lighter than straight jet engines.

b)

twin spool or triple spool jet engines require a high by pass ratio.

c)

they produce less noise.

d)

at high subsonic airspeeds they have a better propulsive efficiency than propeller or
straight jet engines.

Below its design speed an axial compressor:


a)

has a tendency to surge in the front stages.

b)

has a tendency to surge in the centre stages.

c)

has a tendency to surge in the rear stages.

d)

has no tendency to surge.

The purpose of a compressor bleed valve is to prevent surging:


a)

at low compressor rpm.

b)

generated by foreign object ingestion.

c)

with altitude.

d)

of the first compressor stages.

(For this question use annex 021-4008A)


In flight, with centre tank empty and APU operating, a fuel unbalance is detected
(quantity in tank 1 < quantity in tank 2).
Rebalancing of the two tanks is:
a)

impossible because there is no fuel in centre tank.

b)

possible with "CROSSFEED" open and tank 2 pumps "OFF".

c)

impossible without causing the APU to stop.

d)

possible with "CROSSFEED" open and tank 1 pumps "OFF" and tank 2 pumps "ON".

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 7

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
021-3 TW

033.)

034.)

035.)

036.)

Consider a jet engine whose control is based on the Engine Pressure Ratio (EPR):
1. with a constant EPR, the thrust decreases when the altitude increases
2. with a constant EPR, the thrust is independent of the Mach number
3. At same environmental conditions, a given EPR setting maintains the
thrustirrespective of engine wear due to ageing.
4. the EPR is determined by the impact pressure difference between the turbine
outletand the compressor inlet
5. on take-off, in the event of icing not detected by the crew, the indicated EPR islower
than the real EPR
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
a)

1, 5.

b)

3, 4, 5.

c)

2, 3, 4.

d)

1, 3.

Consider the variable-pitch propeller of a turbo-prop. During deceleration:


a)

with propeller windmilling, the thrust is zero and the propeller supplies engine power.

b)

when feathered, the propeller produces thrust and absorbs no engine power.

c)

at zero power, the propeller thrust is zero and the engine power absorbed is nil.

d)

when braking, the propeller supplies negative thrust and absorbs engine power.

The octane rating of a fuel characterises the:


a)

fuel electrical conductivity

b)

fuel volatility

c)

the anti-knock capability

d)

quantity of heat generated by its combustion

The fuel temperature, at which, under standard conditions, the vapour ignites in
contact with a flame and extinguishes immediately, is the:
a)

flash point

b)

self ignition point

c)

fire point

d)

combustion point

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 8

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
021-3 TW

037.)

038.)

039.)

040.)

041.)

The useful work area in an ideal Otto engine indicator diagram is enclosed by the
following gas state change lines
a)

2 adiabatic and 1 isothermic lines.

b)

2 adiabatic and 2 isobaric lines.

c)

2 adiabatic, 1 isochoric and 1 isobaric lines.

d)

2 adiabatic and 2 isochoric lines.

Ignition occurs in each cylinder of a four stroke engine (TDC = Top Dead Centre):
a)

before TDC at each crankshaft revolution.

b)

before TDC at each second crankshaft revolution.

c)

behind TDC at each second crankshaft revolution.

d)

behind TDC at each crankshaft revolution.

The power output of a piston engine can be calculated by:


a)

Torque times RPM.

b)

Force times distance.

c)

Pressure times arm.

d)

Work times velocity.

The power of a piston engine which will be measured by using a friction brake is:
a)

Brake horse power.

b)

Indicated horse power.

c)

Friction horse power.

d)

Heat loss power.

The torque of an aeroplane engine can be measured at the:


a)

propeller blades.

b)

accessory gear box.

c)

gear box which is located between the engine and the propeller.

d)

camshaft.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 9

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
021-3 TW

042.)

043.)

044.)

045.)

046.)

The power of a piston engine decreases during a climb with a constant power lever
setting because of the decreasing:
a)

air density.

b)

engine temperature.

c)

temperature.

d)

humidity.

The conditions under which you obtain the highest engine power are:
a)

cold and dry air at high pressure.

b)

warm and humid air at low pressure.

c)

cold and humid air at high pressure.

d)

warm and dry air at high pressure.

The power output of a piston engine without supercharging increases with increasing
altitude in standard atmosphere at constant Manifold Air Pressure (MAP) and RPM
because of the:
a)

lower losses during the gas change.

b)

increase of the air density behind the throttle valve.

c)

lower friction losses.

d)

leaner mixture at higher altitudes.

During a climb in a standard atmosphere with constant Manifold Absolute Pressure


(MAP) and RPM indications and at a constant mixture setting, the power output of a
piston engine:
a)

only stays constant if the propeller lever is pushed.

b)

decreases.

c)

increases.

d)

stays constant.

The kind of compressor normally used as a supercharger is:


a)

a piston compressor.

b)

a hybrid compressor.

c)

a radial compressor.

d)

an axial compressor.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 10

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
021-3 TW

047.)

048.)

049.)

050.)

051.)

Assume an initial condition at a high cruise altitude with a constant speed propeller.
What will happen if the altitude is decreased while the throttle remains fully open and
the waste gate is seized in the cruise position:
a)

The manifold absolute pressure (MAP) value will stay constant.

b)

The blade angle may reach the full fine limit.

c)

The manifold absolute pressure (MAP) value may exceed the maximum allowed value.

d)

The power of the engine will decrease.

One of the advantages of a turbocharger is:


a)

that there is no danger of detonation.

b)

to make the power available less dependent on altitude.

c)

that there is no torsion at the crankshaft.

d)

that it has a better propulsive efficiency.

With which instrument(s) do you monitor the power output of an aeroplane fitted with
a fixed pitch propeller?
a)

RPM indicator.

b)

Fuel Flow indicator.

c)

Cylinder head temperature indicator.

d)

RPM and MAP indicator.

An EGT (Exhaust Gas Temperature) indicator for a piston engine is used to:
a)

control the cylinder head temperature.

b)

control the carburettor inlet air flow.

c)

assist the pilot to set the correct mixture.

d)

control the fuel temperature.

During climb with constant throttle and RPM lever setting (mixture being constant)
the:
a)

Manifold Absolute Pressure (MAP) increases.

b)

Manifold Absolute Pressure (MAP) decreases.

c)

RPM decreases.

d)

RPM increases.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 11

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
021-3 TW

052.)

053.)

054.)

055.)

056.)

The conditions which can cause knocking are:


a)

Low manifold pressure and high fuel flow.

b)

High manifold pressure and low revolutions per minute.

c)

High manifold pressure and high revolutions per minute.

d)

Low manifold pressure and high revolutions per minute.

During take-off, the angle of attack of the blades of a fixed pitch propeller, optimised
for cruise condition is:
a)

zero.

b)

relatively high.

c)

negative.

d)

relatively small.

The mechanism to change the propeller blade pitch of modern small piston engine
aeroplanes is operated
a)

hydraulically by engine oil.

b)

hydraulically by hydraulic fluid.

c)

by an electrical actuator.

d)

by a mechanical linkage.

What will happen to the geometrical pitch angle of a "constant speed propeller" if the
manifold pressure is increased ?
a)

It will decrease so that the engine can increase

b)

It will remain the same

c)

It will increase

d)

It will increase and after a short time it will be the same again

The 'slipstream effect' of a propeller is most prominent at:


a)

low airspeeds with low power setting.

b)

low airspeeds with high power setting.

c)

high airspeeds with high power setting.

d)

high airspeeds with low power setting.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 12

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
021-3 TW

057.)

058.)

059.)

060.)

061.)

An asymmetric loading (p-factor) on the propeller exists ..


a)

Only for counterrotating propeller

b)

If there is an unbalanced propeller.

c)

If the aeroplane has a large angle of attack.

d)

Only if the 'constant speed propeller' mechanism is broken.

In respect of a constant speed propeller of a twin engine aeroplane controlled by a


single-acting pitch control unit:
a)

spring force turns the propeller blades towards smaller pitch angle.

b)

oil pressure turns the propeller blades towards higher pitch angle.

c)

aerodynamic force turns the propeller blades towards higher pitch angle.

d)

oil pressure turns the propeller blades towards smaller pitch angle.

A pilot can actuate the feathering system by:


a)

pulling the power levers rearwards.

b)

pulling the propeller control lever rearwards.

c)

pushing the propeller control lever forwards.

d)

pushing the power lever forwards.

The crank assembly consists of


a)

crankshaft, connecting rods and pistons.

b)

crankshaft, camshaft, valves, valve springs and push rods.

c)

propeller, crankshaft, pistons and connecting rods.

d)

Crankcase, crankshaft, connecting rods and pistons.

Once the engine has started, ignition systems of piston engines are:
a)

independent of the electrical system of the aircraft.

b)

dependent on the DC-Generator.

c)

dependent on the battery.

d)

dependent on the AC-Generator.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 13

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
021-3 TW

062.)

063.)

064.)

065.)

066.)

The ignition system generally used for small aircrafts is a:


a)

High tension system.

b)

Low tension system.

c)

High intensity system.

d)

Battery ignition system.

The ventilation system in a fuel tank:


a)

prevents vapour lock in the fuel lines.

b)

It prevents a surge in the tank of an iced aeroplane.

c)

prevents low pressure or overpressure in the tank.

d)

can be used to drain the tanks, for daily checks.

The fuel tanks of aircrafts must be checked for water


a)

during refuelling.

b)

before the first flight of the day or after a long turnaround time.

c)

immediately after every refuelling.

d)

before each flight.

The task of the primer pump is to


a)

inject additional fuel during engine acceleration.

b)

serve as an alternate pump in case of an engine driven pump failure.

c)

provide additional fuel for an engine start.

d)

to serve as main supply pump in a fuel injection system.

Viscosity is
a)

the flow velocity inside the oil lines.

b)

the temperature dependence of an oil.

c)

the resistance of a gas or liquid to flow.

d)

Viscosity is the pressure resistance of an oil.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 14

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
021-3 TW

067.)

068.)

069.)

070.)

071.)

The purpose of the blow-in-doors at the air inlets is to:


a)

serve to increase the relative velocity at the first compressor stage.

b)

provide the engine with additional air at high power settings and low air speeds.

c)

feed cooling air to the engine cowling.

d)

provide the engine with additional air at high power settings at cruising speed.

On four-stroke piston engines, the theoretical valve and ignition settings are
readjusted in order to increase the:
a)

piston displacement

b)

overall efficiency

c)

compression ratio

d)

engine RPM

In a four-stroke piston engine, the only "driving" stroke is:


a)

induction

b)

exhaust

c)

power

d)

compression

Fixed-pitch propellers are usually designed for maximum efficiency at:


a)

idling

b)

take-off

c)

full throttle

d)

cruising speed

If the ground wire between the magnetos and the ignition switch becomes
disconnected the most noticeable result will be that:
a)

the engine cannot be shut down by turning the ignition switch to the "OFF" position

b)

the engine cannot be started with the ignition switch in the "ON" position

c)

a still operating engine will run down

d)

the power developed by the engine will be strongly reduced

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 15

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
021-3 TW

072.)

073.)

074.)

075.)

076.)

For internal cooling, reciprocating engines are especially dependent on:


a)

a properly functioning thermostat

b)

a lean fuel/air mixture

c)

a rich fuel/air mixture

d)

the circulation of lubricating oil

In order to get the optimum efficiency of a piston engine, the positions of the intake
and exhaust valve at the end of the power stroke are:
a)

exhaust valve closed and intake valve open.

b)

intake valve closed and exhaust valve open.

c)

both valves open.

d)

both valves closed.

The main purpose of the mixture control is to:


a)

increase the oxygen supplied to the engine.

b)

decrease the air supplied to the engine.

c)

decrease the oxygen supplied to the engine.

d)

adjust the fuel flow to obtain the correct fuel/air ratio.

In which sections of the carburettor would icing most likely occur?


a)

float chamber and fuel inlet filter

b)

main air bleed and main discharge nozzle

c)

accelerator pump and main metering jet

d)

venturi and the throttle valve

The operating principle of float-type carburettors is based on the:


a)

difference in air pressure at the venturi throat and the air inlet

b)

increase in air velocity in the throat of a venturi causing an increase in air pressure

c)

measurement of the fuel flow into the induction system

d)

automatic metering of air at the venturi as the aircraft gains altitude

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 16

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
021-3 TW

077.)

078.)

079.)

080.)

081.)

In an engine equipped with a float-type carburettor, the low temperature that causes
carburettor ice is normally the result of:
a)

vaporization of fuel and expansion of the air in the carburettor

b)

low volatility of aviation fuel

c)

compression of air at the carburettor venturi

d)

freezing temperature of the air entering the carburettor

Fuel/air ratio is the ratio between the:


a)

volume of fuel and volume of air entering the carburettor.

b)

volume of fuel and volume of air entering the cylinder.

c)

mass of fuel and mass of air entering the cylinder.

d)

mass of fuel and mass of air entering the carburettor

Which statement is correct concerning the effect of the application of carburettor


heat?
a)

The volume of air entering the carburettor is reduced, thus enriching the fuel/air mixture.

b)

The volume of air entering the carburettor is reduced, thus leaning the fuel/air mixture.

c)

The density of the air entering the carburettor is reduced, thus leaning the fuel/air
mixture.

d)

The density of the air entering the carburettor is reduced, thus enriching the fuel/air
mixture.

On design purpose, the relationship between the fuel octane rating and the maximum
compression ratio of a piston engine is:
a)

the maximum compression ratio is independent of the octane rating.

b)

the higher the octane rating is, the higher the maximum compression ratio is

c)

the higher the octane rating is, the lower the maximum compression ratio is.

d)

the lower the octane rating is, the higher the maximum compression ratio is

Vapour lock is:


a)

the inability of a fuel to vaporize in the carburettor

b)

the formation of water vapour in a fuel system

c)

vaporizing of fuel prior to reaching the carburettor

d)

vaporizing of fuel in the carburettor

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 17

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
021-3 TW

082.)

083.)

084.)

085.)

086.)

In addition to the fire hazard introduced, excessive priming should be avoided


because:
a)

it washes the lubricant of cylinder walls

b)

it fouls the spark plugs

c)

it drains the carburettor float chamber

d)

the gasoline dilutes the oil and necessitates changing oil

The primary purpose of a supercharger is to:


a)

maintain power at altitude

b)

provide leaner mixtures at altitudes below 5000 ft

c)

provide a richer mixture at high altitudes

d)

increase quantity of fuel at metering jet

An excessively rich mixture can be detected by:


a)

high cylinder head temperatures

b)

black smoke from exhaust.

c)

a long purple flame from exhaust.

d)

white smoke from exhaust.

A manifold pressure gauge of a piston engine measures:


a)

vacuum in the carburettor.

b)

fuel pressure leaving the carburettor.

c)

absolute pressure in intake system near the inlet valve.

d)

absolute air pressure entering the carburettor.

A piston engine compression ratio is the ratio of the:


a)

total volume to the swept volume.

b)

clearance volume to the swept volume.

c)

swept volume to the clearance volume.

d)

total volume to the clearance volume.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 18

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
021-3 TW

087.)

088.)

089.)

090.)

091.)

Pre-ignition refers to the condition that may arise when:


a)

the mixture is ignited before the piston has reached top dead centre.

b)

the sparking plug ignites the mixture too early.

c)

a rich mixture is ignited by the sparking plugs.

d)

the mixture is ignited by abnormal conditions within the cylinder before the spark occurs
at the plug

Overheating of a piston engine is likely to result from an excessively:


a)

low barometric pressure.

b)

weak mixture.

c)

rich mixture.

d)

high barometric pressure.

A fuel strainer when fitted to a carburettor will be positioned:


a)

between the metering jet and the discharge nozzle.

b)

upstream of the needle valve.

c)

between the needle valve and the metering jet.

d)

downstream of the discharge nozzle.

The working cycle of a four-stroke engine is:


a)

induction, power, compression, exhaust.

b)

compression induction, power, exhaust.

c)

induction, compression, power, exhaust.

d)

induction, compression, expansion, power.

Specific fuel consumption is defined as the:


a)

maximum fuel consumption of the aircraft.

b)

mass of fuel required to produce unit power for unit time.

c)

designed fuel consumption for a given rpm.

d)

quantity of fuel required to run the engine for one minute at maximum operating
conditions.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 19

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
021-3 TW

092.)

093.)

094.)

095.)

096.)

In a piston engine, the purpose of an altitude mixture control is to:


a)

prevent a weak cut when the throttle is opened rapidly at altitude.

b)

correct for variations in the fuel/air ratio due to decreased air density at altitude.

c)

weaken the mixture strength because of reduced exhaust back pressure at altitude.

d)

enrich the mixture strength due to decreased air density at altitude.

The purpose of an ignition switch is to:


a)

connect the battery to the magneto

b)

connect the secondary coil to the distributor

c)

connect the contact breaker and condenser in series with the primary coil

d)

control the primary circuit of the magneto

Under normal running conditions a magneto draws primary current:


a)

directly from the aircraft batteries.

b)

from the booster coil.

c)

from a self-contained electro-magnetic induction system.

d)

from the aircraft batteries via an inverter.

On a normally aspirated aero-engine fitted with a fixed pitch propeller:


a)

the propeller setting is constant at all indicated airspeeds.

b)

manifold pressure decreases as the aircraft climbs at a fixed throttle setting.

c)

in a descent at a fixed throttle setting manifold pressure will always remain constant.

d)

in level flight, manifold pressure will remain constant when the rpm is increased by
opening the throttle.

The air in a piston engine supercharger enters the centrifugal compressor at:
a)

the diffuser and is fed to the impeller at the optimum angle of attack.

b)

a tangent to the rotor and leaves via the stator.

c)

the eye of the impeller and leaves it almost at a tangent to the periphery.

d)

the periphery and leaves via the eye of the impeller.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 20

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
021-3 TW

097.)

098.)

099.)

100.)

101.)

In a piston engine, turbocharger boost pressure may be monitored by:


a)

a manifold pressure gauge only.

b)

a cylinder head temperature gauge (CHT), a manifold pressure gauge, and engine rpm
readings.

c)

both a CHT gauge and manifold pressure gauge.

d)

both engine rpm readings and a manifold pressure gauge.

An engine pressure ratio (EPR) gauge reading normally shows the ratio of:
a)

jet pipe pressure to combustion chamber pressure.

b)

jet pipe pressure to compressor inlet pressure.

c)

compressor outlet pressure to compressor inlet pressure.

d)

combustion chamber pressure to compressor inlet pressure.

In a gas turbine engine, the maximum gas temperature is attained:


a)

in the cooling airflow around the flame tube.

b)

across the turbine.

c)

within the combustion chamber.

d)

at the entry to the exhaust unit.

The diffuser in a centrifugal compressor is a device in which the:


a)

pressure rises at a constant velocity.

b)

pressure rises and velocity falls.

c)

velocity rises and pressure falls.

d)

velocity, pressure and temperature rise.

A "fan" stage of a ducted-fan turbine engine is driven by:


a)

airflow drawn across it by the high pressure compressor.

b)

the high pressure compressor through reduction gearing.

c)

the low pressure turbine.

d)

the high pressure turbine.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 21

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
021-3 TW

102.)

103.)

104.)

105.)

In a free turbine engine:


a)

there is no mechanical connection between the compressor and the power output shaft.

b)

the air enters the compressor via the input turbine.

c)

its shaft may be connected to either a compressor or another turbine.

d)

the compressor and power output shaft are mechanically connected.

The fan in a high by-pass ratio turbo-jet engine produces:


a)

none of the thrust.

b)

the lesser part of the thrust.

c)

the greater part of the thrust.

d)

half the thrust.

At constant fuel flow, if engine compressor air is bled off for engine anti-icing or a
similar system, the turbine temperature:
a)

may rise or fall depending on which stage of the compressor is used for the bleed and the
rpm of the engine at the moment of selection.

b)

will fall.

c)

will be unchanged.

d)

will rise.

The reason for having a low pressure fuel-cooled oil cooler in a recirculatory type oil
system is to:
a)

cool the oil and heat the fuel.

b)

cool both the oil and the fuel.

c)

heat the fuel only.

d)

cool the oil only.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 22

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
021-3 TW

106.)

107.)

108.)

109.)

A "hung start" is the failure of an engine to accelerate to its normal idle speed. It may
be caused by:
a)

failure of the fuel to ignite in the starting sequence after the engine has been accelerated
to the required rpm by the starter.

b)

an attempt to ignite the fuel before the engine has been accelerated sufficiently by the
starter.

c)

the starter cutting out early in the starting sequence before the engine has accelerated to
the required rpm for ignition.

d)

compressor surging.

A reverse thrust door warning light on the flight deck instrument panel illuminates
when:
a)

the reverser doors have moved to the reverse thrust position.

b)

the reverser doors are locked.

c)

reverse has been selected but the doors have remained locked.

d)

the reverser doors are unlocked.

The compression ratio of a piston engine is the ratio of the:


a)

diameter of the bore to the piston stroke.

b)

area of the piston to the cylinder volume.

c)

weight of the air induced to its weight after compression.

d)

volume of the cylinder with the piston at bottom dead centre to that with the piston at top
dead centre.

Prolonged running at low rpm can have an adverse effect on the functioning of the:
a)

oil pump.

b)

carburettor.

c)

fuel filter.

d)

sparking plugs.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 23

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
021-3 TW

110.)

111.)

112.)

113.)

114.)

The purpose of the venturi in a carburettor is to:


a)

create a rise in pressure at the throat before the mixture enters the induction system.

b)

create the suction necessary to cause fuel to flow through the carburettor main jets.

c)

prevent enrichment of the mixture due to high air velocity through the carburettor.

d)

ensure complete atomisation of the fuel before entering the injection system.

The mixture control for a carburettor achieves its control by:


a)

altering the depression on the main discharge tube.

b)

varying the air supply to the main discharge tube.

c)

varying the fuel supply to the main discharge tube.

d)

moving the butterfly valve through a separate linkage to the main throttle control.

The purpose of a distributor in an ignition system is to distribute:


a)

primary current to the condenser.

b)

secondary current to the condenser.

c)

primary current to the sparking plugs.

d)

secondary current to the sparking plugs.

The very rapid magnetic field changes (flux) around the primary coil in a magneto are
accomplished by the:
a)

distributor arm aligning with one of the high tension segments.

b)

contact breaker points opening.

c)

contact breaker points closing.

d)

rotor turning past the position of maximum flux in the armature.

The reading on the oil pressure gauge is the:


a)

pressure of the oil on the outlet side of the pressure pump.

b)

difference between the pressure pump pressure and the scavenge pump pressure.

c)

pressure of the oil on the inlet side of the pressure pump.

d)

pressure in the oil tank reservoir.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 24

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
021-3 TW

115.)

116.)

117.)

118.)

119.)

A turbocharger system is normally driven by:


a)

an electrically activated hydraulically powered clutch.

b)

an electric motor.

c)

the exhaust system.

d)

an hydraulic motor.

A turbocharger consists of a:
a)

compressor and turbine mounted on a common shaft.

b)

turbine driving a compressor via a reduction gear.

c)

compressor and turbine on individual shafts.

d)

compressor driving a turbine via a reduction gear.

In a single spool gas turbine engine, the compressor rpm is:


a)

less than turbine rpm.

b)

the same as turbine rpm.

c)

greater than turbine rpm.

d)

independent of turbine rpm.

When the combustion gases pass through a turbine the:


a)

axial velocity of the flow decreases.

b)

pressure drops.

c)

temperature increases.

d)

pressure rises.

For a turbine engine, the term self-sustaining speed relates to the speed at which the
engine:
a)

will run without any external assistance.

b)

operates most efficiently in the cruise..

c)

is designed to idle after starting.

d)

will enable the generators to supply bus-bar voltage.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 25

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
021-3 TW

120.)

121.)

122.)

123.)

The primary reason for a limitation being imposed on the temperature of gas flow is
to:
a)

ensure that the maximum acceptable temperature within the combustion chamber is not
exceeded.

b)

prevent damage to the jet pipe from overheating.

c)

prevent overheating and subsequent creep of the nozzle guide vanes.

d)

ensure that the maximum acceptable temperature at the turbine blades is not exceeded.

In a gas turbine engine, compressor blades, which are not rigidly fixed in position
when the engine is stationary, take up a rigid position when the engine is running due
to:
a)

the resultant of aerodynamic and centrifugal forces.

b)

thermal expansion.

c)

oil pressure.

d)

blade creep.

If air is tapped from a gas turbine HP compressor (engine N2 controlled), the effect on
the engine pressure ratio (EPR) and the exhaust gas temperature (EGT) is that:
a)

EPR decreases and EGT remains constant.

b)

EPR remains constant and EGT increases.

c)

both EPR and EGT decrease.

d)

EPR decreases and EGT increases.

The purpose of a variable bypass valve, fitted between the LP and HP compressor of
an axial flow compressor, is to:
a)

prevent stall in the LP compressor.

b)

enable to start the engine with an external air supply.

c)

prevent the engine from an overspeed.

d)

control the acceleration of the engine.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 26

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
021-3 TW

124.)

125.)

126.)

127.)

Turbine blade stages may be classed as either "impulse" or "reaction". In an impulse


turbine stage:
a)

the pressure remains constant across stator blades and rises across the rotor blades.

b)

the pressure rises across the stator blades and remains constant across the rotor blades.

c)

the pressure drops across the stator blades and remains constant across the rotor blades.

d)

the pressure remains constant across the stator blades and drops across the rotor blades.

A modern Auxiliary Power Unit (APU) is designed to provide power for ground
starting of an engine. It also supplies both in the air (subject to certification
limitations) and on the ground:
a)

air conditioning and thrust in the event of engine failure.

b)

air conditioning and electrical services.

c)

air conditioning and electrical services (on the ground) electrical and hydraulic back-up
services (in the air).

d)

either air conditioning or electrical services, but never both at the same time.

With respect to a piston engine aircraft, ice in the carburettor:


a)

will only form at OAT's below +10C.

b)

may form at OAT's higher than +10C.

c)

will only form at outside air temperatures (OAT's) below the freezing point of water.

d)

will only form at OAT's below the freezing point of fuel.

The part of a piston engine that transforms reciprocating movement into rotary
motion is termed the:
a)

camshaft

b)

piston

c)

reduction gear

d)

crankshaft

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 27

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
021-3 TW

128.)

129.)

130.)

131.)

Which one of the following factors would be most likely to increase the possibility of
detonation occurring within a piston engine?
a)

The use of a fuel with a high octane rating as compared to the use of one with a low
octane rating.

b)

Using an engine with a low compression ratio.

c)

Slightly retarding the ignition timing.

d)

High cylinder head temperature.

In a piston engine if the ratio of air to fuel, by weight, is approximately 9:1, the mixture
is said to be:
a)

normal

b)

too weak to support combustion

c)

weak

d)

rich

To ensure that the fuel flow is kept directly proportional to the mass of air flowing
through the choke, thus preventing the main jet supplying excessive fuel as engine
speed is increased, a carburettor is fitted with:
a)

a power jet

b)

a diffuser

c)

a mixture control

d)

an accelerator pump

The oil system for a piston engine incorporates an oil cooler that is fitted:
a)

in the return line to the oil tank after the oil has passed through the scavenge pump

b)

after the pressure pump but before the oil passes through the engine

c)

between the oil tank and the pressure pump

d)

after the oil has passed through the engine and before it enters the sump

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 28

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
021-3 TW

132.)

133.)

134.)

135.)

136.)

When leaning the mixture for the most economic cruise fuel flow, excessive leaning
will cause:
a)

high manifold pressure

b)

high cylinder head

c)

high engine RPM

d)

low cylinder head

The first indication of carburettor icing in airplanes equipped with constant speed
propellers would most likely be a:
a)

decrease in rpm

b)

rough running engine followed by an increase in manifold pressure

c)

rough running engine followed by loss in rpm.

d)

decrease in manifold pressure

What will eventually happen during a continuous climb with a mixture setting full
rich?
a)

the engine will operate smoother even though fuel consumption is increased.

b)

fouling of spark plugs.

c)

the engine will overheat.

d)

increase of the power available.

With an aircraft fitted with a fixed pitch propeller, during flight at normal cruising
speed, one magneto fails completely. This will first cause:
a)

engine to overheat.

b)

excessive vibration

c)

additional load on the other magneto

d)

loss of approximately 100 rpm

The use of too low an octane fuel may cause:


a)

a cooling effect on cylinders

b)

detonation

c)

a prompt pre-ignition reaction.

d)

higher manifold pressure

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 29

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
021-3 TW

137.)

138.)

139.)

140.)

141.)

The cylinder head and oil temperature gauges are to exceed the normal operating
ranges if a pilot
a)

uses fuel that has a rating higher-than-specified for the engine

b)

uses fuel that has a rating lower-than-specified for the engine

c)

operating wit higher-than-normal oil pressure

d)

operates with the mixture control set too rich.

If the engine, with a fixed pitch propeller, is detonating during climb-out after takeoff,
the normal corrective action would be to:
a)

reduce the throttle

b)

lean the mixture

c)

increase the rate of climb

d)

apply carburettor heat.

As the flight altitude increases, if no leaning is made with the mixture control:
a)

the density of air entering the carburettor decreases and the amount of fuel remains
constant

b)

the volume of air entering the carburettor remains constant and the amount of fuel
decreases

c)

the volume of air entering the carburettor decreases and the amount of fuel decreases

d)

the density of air entering the carburettor decreases and the amount of fuel increases.

When starting an engine or when the engine runs at an idle rpm on ground, the
mixture is:
a)

lean, to prevent hat the engine consumes too much fuel.

b)

rich, to make starting possible and to cool the engine sufficiently when idling

c)

rich, because carburettor heat is switched on

d)

rich, because the choke valve is closed

The application of carburettor heat reduces


a)

the density of air entering the carburettor, thus enriching the fuel/air mixture

b)

it reduces the density of air entering the carburettor, thus leaning the fuel/air mixture

c)

the volume of air entering the carburettor, thus enriching the fuel/air mixture.

d)

the volume of air entering the carburettor, thus leaning the fuel/air mixture

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 30

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
021-3 TW

142.)

143.)

144.)

145.)

146.)

An impulse coupling does not function at such speeds above those encountered in
starting. Its engaging pawls are prevented from operating at higher speeds by
a)

engine oil pressure

b)

centrifugal force

c)

a coil spring

d)

electro-magnetic action of operating magneto.

An aircraft magneto is switched off by


a)

opening the secondary circuit

b)

opening the primary circuit

c)

grounding the secondary circuit.

d)

grounding the primary circuit

Spark timing is related to engine speed in the way that the:


a)

slower the engine functions, the more the spark is advanced

b)

faster the engine functions, the more retarded the spark is.

c)

faster the engine functions, the more the spark is advanced

d)

faster the engine functions, the further past TDC the spark occurs

An impulse magneto coupling


a)

reduces magneto speed during engine warm-up

b)

gives a retarded spark at starting

c)

advances ignition timing and gives a hotter spark at starting

d)

gives an automatic spark increase during high speed operation.

If an engine fails to stop with the magneto switch in OFF position, the cause may be:
a)

defective condenser

b)

switch wire grounded

c)

excessive carbon formation in cylinder head.

d)

fouled spark plugs

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 31

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
021-3 TW

147.)

148.)

149.)

150.)

151.)

If the ground wire between the magneto and the ignition switch becomes
disconnected, the most noticeable result will be that the engine
a)

will not operate at the left magneto

b)

cannot be started with the switch in the ON position

c)

will not operate at the right magneto

d)

cannot be shut down by turning the switch to the OFF position.

An impulse coupling is installed on a magneto of a piston engine to:


a)

provide a stronger spark on top dead centre for engine starting.

b)

facilitate quick removal and installation.

c)

advance the ignition timing.

d)

absorb starting loads.

Aircraft magneto`s receive electrical energy from


a)

rotating permanent magneto's.

b)

generators

c)

batteries

d)

condensers

Cooling air for a reciprocating engine can be obtained by means of:


a)

ram air

b)

a supercharger

c)

a pneumatic system.

d)

a turbocharger

A chip detector in the oil system of an engine/gearbox is to indicate that


a)

the piston rings are worn

b)

to indicate that seals are worn

c)

there are metal particles in the oil

d)

the oil temperature is too high

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 32

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
021-3 TW

152.)

153.)

154.)

155.)

Vents in oil tanks are primarily to


a)

eliminate foaming.

b)

allow for expansion of hot oil

c)

prevent excessive pressure from building up in tank

d)

prevent overthrow

The lubricating system of an aircraft engine is used to


a)

operate ground adjustable propellers.

b)

prevent inter-crystalline corrosion

c)

aid in dissipation of heat

d)

keep the engine warm

A pressure relief valve that does not fit on its seat properly would result in
a)

low oil temperature.

b)

low oil pressure

c)

high oil pressure

d)

excessive oil consumption

A magnetic plug can be used to


a)

collect static electricity.

b)

collect ferrous particles reaching the sump

c)

prevent metallic particles from entering the oil system

d)

collect carbon found in the oil

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 33

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
021-3 TW

156.)

157.)

158.)

159.)

The disadvantages of axial flow compressors compared to centrifugal flow


compressors are:
1 - more expensive to manufacture
2 - lower airflow
3 - greater vulnerability to foreign object damage
4 - lower pressure ratio
The combination which regroups all of the correct answers is:
a)

1, 3.

b)

1, 2.

c)

2, 4.

d)

2, 3.

A stage in an axial compressor:


a)

has a compression ration in the order of 0.8 .

b)

consists of a row of stator blades followed by a rotor disc.

c)

consists of a rotor disc followed by a row of stator blades.

d)

has a compression ratio in the order of 2.1 .

For a fan jet engine, the by-pass ratio is the:


a)

external airflow mass divided by the internal airflow mass

b)

internal airflow mass divided by the external airflow mass

c)

fuel flow mass divided by the internal airflow mass

d)

internal airflow mass divided by the fuel flow mass

In very cold weather, the pilot notices during startup, a slightly higher than normal
engine oil pressure. This higher pressure:
a)

is normal, if it decreases after startup.

b)

is abnormal but does not require the engine to be shut down.

c)

is abnormal and requires the engine to be shut down.

d)

requires an oil change.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 34

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
021-3 TW

160.)

161.)

162.)

163.)

164.)

In a turbo-jet, the purpose of the turbine is to ...


a)

drive the compressor by using part of the energy from the exhaust gases

b)

drive devices like pumps, regulator, generator.

c)

compress the air in order to provide a better charge of the combustion chamber

d)

clear the burnt gases, the expansion of which provide the thrust

The blade angle of a propeller is the angle between the:


a)

reference chord line and the propeller plane of rotation.

b)

propeller plane of rotation and the relative airflow.

c)

propeller reference chord line and the extremity of the propeller.

d)

propeller reference chord line and the relative airflow.

When in flight, a piston engine is stopped and the propeller blade angle is near 90,
the propeller is said to be:
a)

at zero drag.

b)

feathered.

c)

windmilling.

d)

transparent.

During a power change on an engine equipped with a constant speed propeller, a


wrong combination of manifold pressure and RPM values results in excessive
pressures in the cylinders. This is the case when one simultaneously selects a ...
a)

high manifold pressure and high RPM.

b)

low manifold pressure and low RPM.

c)

low manifold pressure and high RPM.

d)

high manifold pressure and low RPM.

If, when the magneto selector switch is set to the OFF position, a piston engine
continues to run normally, the most probable cause is that:
a)

On a magneto, the grounding wire is broken.

b)

A wire from the magneto is in contact with a metallic part of the engine.

c)

There are local hot points in the engine (probably due to overheating of the cylinder
heads).

d)

There is a carbon deposit on the spark plugs electrodes.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 35

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
021-3 TW

165.)

166.)

167.)

168.)

169.)

On a normally aspirated engine (non turbo-charged), the manifold pressure gauge


always indicates
a)

a lower value than atmospheric pressure when the engine is running.

b)

zero on the ground when the engine is stopped.

c)

a greater value than atmospheric pressure when the engine is running.

d)

a value equal to the QFE when the engine is at full power on the ground.

The richness of a fuel/air mixture ratio is the:


a)

volume of fuel relative to the mass of the volume of air.

b)

mass of fuel relative to the volume of air.

c)

actual mixture ratio relative to the chemically correct ratio.

d)

volume of fuel relative to the volume of air.

Using compressor bleed air to power systems:


a)

is limited to the phases of take-off and landing

b)

decreases aircraft performance

c)

increases aircraft performance

d)

has no influence on aircraft performance

A piston engine may use a fuel of a different grade than the recommended:
a)

provided that it is an aeronautical petrol

b)

provided that the grade is lower

c)

never

d)

provided that the grade is higher

With a piston engine, when detonation is recognised, you:


a)

Increase manifold pressure and lean the mixture

b)

Reduce manifold pressure and enrich the mixture

c)

Increase manifold pressure and enrich the mixture

d)

Reduce manifold pressure and lean the mixture

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 36

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
021-3 TW

170.)

171.)

172.)

From the cruise, with all the parameters correctly set, if the altitude is reduced, to
maintain the same mixture the fuel flow should:
a)

increase

b)

remain the same

c)

increase or decrease, depending on the engine type

d)

decrease

(For this question use annex 021-11474A) The gas turbine illustrated is of the
following type:
a)

free turbine and centrifugal compressor

b)

free turbine and axial compressor

c)

single shaft turbine and centrifugal compressor

d)

single shaft turbine and axial compressor

The control of free turbine engines on turboprops, is accomplished by:


-a propeller control lever used to select:
1 - propeller RPM
2 - turbine temperature
3 - turbine RPM
-a fuel control lever used to select:
4 - propeller RPM
5 torque
6 - turbine temperature
The combination which regroups all of the correct statements is:
a)

1-5-6

b)

1-3-5

c)

3-4-6

d)

2-4-5

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 37

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
021-3 TW

173.)

174.)

175.)

176.)

The static thrust of a turbo-jet, at the selection of full power:


1. equals the product of the exhaust gas mass flow and the exhaust gas velocity
2. is obtained by pressure of the exhaust gas on the ambient air
3. produces zero mechanical power since the aeroplane is not moving
4. is independent of the outside air temperatureThe combination which regroups all of
the correct statements is:
a)

1-3

b)

1-2

c)

d)

2-3

The use of igniters is necessary or recommended on a turbo-jet:


1. throughout the operating range of the engine
2. for accelerations
3. for ground starts
4. for in-flight relights
5. during turbulence in flight
6. under heavy precipitation or in icing conditionsThe combination which regroups all
of the correct statements is:
a)

2, 3, 4.

b)

3.

c)

3, 4, 5, 6.

d)

1.

Spark plug fouling is more likely to happen if:


a)

the engine runs at the authorized maximum continuous power for too long.

b)

the aircraft climbs without mixture adjustment.

c)

the aircraft descends without a mixture adjustment.

d)

power is increased too abruptly.

"Vapour lock" is the phenomenon by which:


a)

water vapour plugs are formed in the intake fuel line following the condensation of water
in fuel tanks which have not been drained for sometime.

b)

burnt gas plugs forming and remaining in the exhaust manifold following an overheat and
thereby disturbing the exhaust.

c)

abrupt and abnormal enrichment of the fuel/air mixture following an inappropriate use of
carburettor heat.

d)

heat produces vapour plugs in the fuel line.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 38

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
021-3 TW

177.)

178.)

179.)

180.)

In a piston engine, magnetos are used to produce the spark which ignites the fuel/air
mixture. The operating principle of magnetos consists in:
a)

breaking the primary current in order to induce a low amp high volt current which is
distributed to the spark plugs.

b)

accumulating in a condenser a low volt current from the battery, reconstitute it as high
voltage current at the moment the spark is generated.

c)

obtaining a high amp low volt current in order to generate the spark.

d)

creating a brief high intensity magnetic field which will be sent through the distributor at
the appropriate time.

For a piston engine, the chemically correct fuel/air ratio of the mixture is:
a)

1:9

b)

1:15

c)

1:10

d)

1:12

The thermal efficiency of a piston engine is about:


a)

80%

b)

30%

c)

70%

d)

50%

(For this question use annex 021-11507A)


On the attached diagram showing the power output of a piston engine as a function of
mixture richness, best economy is at the point marked:
a)

b)

c)

d)

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 39

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
021-3 TW

181.)

The main reason for opening the cowl flaps is to control the:
a)

C.H.T. (cylinder head temperature)

b)

oil temperature

c)

cabin temperature

d)

E.G.T (exhaust gas temperature)

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 40

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
021-3 TW

Lsungen

1:

B (1 Pkt.)

38:

B (1 Pkt.)

75:

D (1 Pkt.)

2:

D (1 Pkt.)

39:

A (1 Pkt.)

76:

A (1 Pkt.)

3:

A (1 Pkt.)

40:

A (1 Pkt.)

77:

A (1 Pkt.)

4:

B (1 Pkt.)

41:

C (1 Pkt.)

78:

C (1 Pkt.)

5:

A (1 Pkt.)

42:

A (1 Pkt.)

79:

D (1 Pkt.)

6:

D (1 Pkt.)

43:

A (1 Pkt.)

80:

B (1 Pkt.)

7:

D (1 Pkt.)

44:

B (1 Pkt.)

81:

C (1 Pkt.)

8:

B (1 Pkt.)

45:

C (1 Pkt.)

82:

A (1 Pkt.)

9:

A (2 Pkt.)

46:

C (1 Pkt.)

83:

A (1 Pkt.)

10:

C (1 Pkt.)

47:

C (1 Pkt.)

84:

B (1 Pkt.)

11:

A (1 Pkt.)

48:

B (1 Pkt.)

85:

C (1 Pkt.)

12:

A (1 Pkt.)

49:

A (1 Pkt.)

86:

D (1 Pkt.)

13:

B (1 Pkt.)

50:

C (1 Pkt.)

87:

D (1 Pkt.)

14:

B (1 Pkt.)

51:

B (1 Pkt.)

88:

B (1 Pkt.)

15:

A (1 Pkt.)

52:

B (1 Pkt.)

89:

B (1 Pkt.)

16:

D (1 Pkt.)

53:

B (1 Pkt.)

90:

C (1 Pkt.)

17:

D (1 Pkt.)

54:

A (1 Pkt.)

91:

B (1 Pkt.)

18:

C (1 Pkt.)

55:

C (1 Pkt.)

92:

B (1 Pkt.)

19:

C (1 Pkt.)

56:

B (1 Pkt.)

93:

D (1 Pkt.)

20:

D (1 Pkt.)

57:

C (1 Pkt.)

94:

C (1 Pkt.)

21:

A (1 Pkt.)

58:

D (1 Pkt.)

95:

B (1 Pkt.)

22:

D (2 Pkt.)

59:

B (1 Pkt.)

96:

C (1 Pkt.)

23:

C (1 Pkt.)

60:

A (1 Pkt.)

97:

A (1 Pkt.)

24:

A (1 Pkt.)

61:

A (1 Pkt.)

98:

B (1 Pkt.)

25:

B (1 Pkt.)

62:

A (1 Pkt.)

99:

C (1 Pkt.)

26:

B (1 Pkt.)

63:

C (1 Pkt.)

100:

B (1 Pkt.)

27:

B (1 Pkt.)

64:

B (1 Pkt.)

101:

C (1 Pkt.)

28:

C (1 Pkt.)

65:

C (1 Pkt.)

102:

A (1 Pkt.)

29:

D (1 Pkt.)

66:

C (1 Pkt.)

103:

C (1 Pkt.)

30:

A (1 Pkt.)

67:

B (1 Pkt.)

104:

D (1 Pkt.)

31:

A (1 Pkt.)

68:

B (1 Pkt.)

105:

A (1 Pkt.)

32:

D (1 Pkt.)

69:

C (1 Pkt.)

106:

B (1 Pkt.)

33:

D (1 Pkt.)

70:

D (1 Pkt.)

107:

D (1 Pkt.)

34:

D (1 Pkt.)

71:

A (1 Pkt.)

108:

D (1 Pkt.)

35:

C (1 Pkt.)

72:

D (1 Pkt.)

109:

D (1 Pkt.)

36:

A (1 Pkt.)

73:

C (1 Pkt.)

110:

B (1 Pkt.)

37:

D (1 Pkt.)

74:

D (1 Pkt.)

111:

C (1 Pkt.)

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 41

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
021-3 TW

112:

D (1 Pkt.)

136:

B (1 Pkt.)

160:

A (1 Pkt.)

113:

B (1 Pkt.)

137:

B (1 Pkt.)

161:

A (1 Pkt.)

114:

A (1 Pkt.)

138:

A (1 Pkt.)

162:

B (1 Pkt.)

115:

C (1 Pkt.)

139:

A (1 Pkt.)

163:

D (1 Pkt.)

116:

A (1 Pkt.)

140:

B (1 Pkt.)

164:

A (1 Pkt.)

117:

B (1 Pkt.)

141:

A (1 Pkt.)

165:

A (1 Pkt.)

118:

B (1 Pkt.)

142:

B (1 Pkt.)

166:

C (1 Pkt.)

119:

A (1 Pkt.)

143:

D (1 Pkt.)

167:

B (1 Pkt.)

120:

D (1 Pkt.)

144:

C (1 Pkt.)

168:

D (1 Pkt.)

121:

A (1 Pkt.)

145:

B (1 Pkt.)

169:

B (1 Pkt.)

122:

D (1 Pkt.)

146:

C (1 Pkt.)

170:

A (1 Pkt.)

123:

A (1 Pkt.)

147:

D (1 Pkt.)

171:

A (1 Pkt.)

124:

C (1 Pkt.)

148:

A (1 Pkt.)

172:

A (1 Pkt.)

125:

B (1 Pkt.)

149:

A (1 Pkt.)

173:

A (1 Pkt.)

126:

B (1 Pkt.)

150:

A (1 Pkt.)

174:

C (1 Pkt.)

127:

D (1 Pkt.)

151:

C (1 Pkt.)

175:

B (1 Pkt.)

128:

D (1 Pkt.)

152:

C (1 Pkt.)

176:

D (1 Pkt.)

129:

D (1 Pkt.)

153:

C (1 Pkt.)

177:

A (1 Pkt.)

130:

B (1 Pkt.)

154:

B (1 Pkt.)

178:

B (1 Pkt.)

131:

A (1 Pkt.)

155:

B (1 Pkt.)

179:

B (1 Pkt.)

132:

B (1 Pkt.)

156:

A (1 Pkt.)

180:

C (1 Pkt.)

133:

D (1 Pkt.)

157:

C (1 Pkt.)

181:

A (1 Pkt.)

134:

B (1 Pkt.)

158:

A (1 Pkt.)

135:

D (1 Pkt.)

159:

A (1 Pkt.)

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 42

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
021-4 EME

001.)

002.)

003.)

004.)

The most common extinguishing agent used in gas turbine engine fire protection
system is:
a)

Powder

b)

Water

c)

Freon

d)

CO2

When a part of a continuous loop fire detection system is heated:


1. its resistance decreases.
2. its resistance increases.
3. the leakage current increases.
4. the leakage current decreases
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
a)

2, 4

b)

2, 3

c)

1, 3

d)

1, 4

In a pressurized transport aircraft, the protective breathing equipment:


a)

protects all the occupants against the effects of accidental depressurization.

b)

gives medical assistance to certain passengers with respiratory disorders.

c)

protects the members of the crew against smoke and noxious gases.

d)

protects the members of the crew against the effects of accidental depressurization.

When quick donning masks are in use, the pilot is:


a)

able to radiotelephone.

b)

only able to transmit.

c)

only able to receive.

d)

not able to do any radio communication.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 1

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
021-4 EME

005.)

006.)

007.)

008.)

009.)

A fault protection circuit in a fire detection system will:


a)

activate the fire detection system when the detection line is connected to ground.

b)

inhibit the fire detector when the detection line is connected to ground.

c)

automatically initiate APU shutdown and fire extinguisher striker activation in the event
of fire.

d)

activate an alarm in the cockpit and in the landing gear bay for ground crew.

In a fire detection system with single-loop continuous components (with no fault


protection), if the line is accidentally grounded:
a)

the engine fire extinguisher striker is automatically activated.

b)

the fire alarm is triggered.

c)

the power supply is cut off automatically.

d)

there will be no effect on the system

When a continuous loop wire type fire detection system is tested:


a)

a part of the wire is heated

b)

the whole wire is heated

c)

the wiring and the warning are tested.

d)

only the warning function is tested.

What is breathed in when using a passenger oxygen mask?


a)

Cabin air and oxygen.

b)

A mixture of oxygen and freon gas.

c)

Cabin air and oxygen or 100% oxygen.

d)

100% oxygen.

Regarding fire detection, Ion detectors are used to detect:


a)

smoke.

b)

overtemperature.

c)

overtemperature and fire

d)

fire

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 2

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
021-4 EME

010.)

011.)

012.)

013.)

Consider the flight deck oxygen supply system. The purpose of the oxygen regulator
(as a function of demand and altitude) is to:
1. decrease oxygen pressure from 1800 PSI (in the bottles) down to about 50-75
PSI(low pressure system)
2. supply pure oxygen
3. supply diluted oxygen
4. supply oxygen at normal pressure
5. supply oxygen at emergency/positive pressure
6. trigger the continuous cabin altitude warning at 10000 ft cabin altitude
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
a)

1, 3, 4, 6

b)

1, 2, 3, 4

c)

2, 3, 4, 5

d)

3, 4, 5, 6

A diluter demand oxygen regulator:


a)

delivers oxygen flow when inhaling.

b)

mixes air and oxygen in a passenger oxygen mask.

c)

is only recommended for use with smoke in the cockpit.

d)

delivers oxygen flow only above FL 100.

In jet transport aircraft, breathing oxygen for the cockpit is stored in the following
state:
a)

gaseous

b)

chemical

c)

liquid.

d)

chemical or gaseous.

A gaseous sensor/responder tube fire sensor is tested by


a)

heating up the sensor with test power connection.

b)

checking the continuity of the system with a test switch.

c)

checking the wiring harness for faults but not the sensor.

d)

checking the sensor with pressurized gas.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 3

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
021-4 EME

014.)

015.)

016.)

017.)

018.)

Smoke detector systems are installed in the


a)

fuel tanks.

b)

upper cargo compartments (class E).

c)

engine nacelles

d)

wheel wells

The indication of the fire detection systems is performed by a:


a)

gear warning.

b)

warning light and a warning bell (or aural alert).

c)

warning bell.

d)

warning light.

In what state is the breathing oxygen for the cockpit of jet transport aeroplanes
stored:
a)

Gaseous.

b)

A chemical compound.

c)

A gaseous or chemical compound.

d)

Liquid.

If the maximum operating pressure of the oxygen system is exceeded the:


a)

oxygen bottles will explode.

b)

oxygen is discharged overboard via a safety plug.

c)

oxygen becomes unusable for the passengers.

d)

passenger oxygen masks will drop down.

The purpose of a diluter demand regulator in an oxygen system is to:


a)

deliver oxygen flow when inhaling.

b)

be used only when smoke is present in the cockpit.

c)

mix air and oxygen in a passenger oxygen mask.

d)

deliver oxygen flow only above FL 100.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 4

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
021-4 EME

019.)

020.)

021.)

022.)

023.)

The built-in passenger oxygen system be activated by:


a)

opening the oxygen-bottle valves.

b)

switching the diluter demand regulator ON.

c)

switching the diluter demand regulator and the passenger oxygen ON.

d)

switching the passenger oxygen ON.

The passenger oxygen mask will supply:


a)

a mixture of cabin air and oxygen.

b)

a mixture of oxygen and freon gas.

c)

100 % oxygen.

d)

a mixture of compressed air and oxygen or 100 % oxygen.

Continuous loop fire detector systems operate on the principle that an increase in
temperature produces:
a)

a decrease in pressure

b)

a decrease in resistance

c)

a decrease in the reference current

d)

an increase in resistance

On a 13653 a fire detection system includes:


a)

a warning light for each engine and a single alarm bell common to all engines

b)

a single warning light but a separate alarm bell for each engine

c)

both a warning light and an alarm bell unique to each engine

d)

a single warning light and a single alarm bell

A pressurized aeroplane is operated at FL 300. It undergoes a rapid decompression so


that the pressure in the cabin goes quickly down to the outside pressure value. What
happens concerning the oxygen system ?
a)

if the automatic mask presentation has been activated, the oxygen will flow within the
first 3 minutes

b)

the oxygen masks are automatically presented to cabin crew members and passengers

c)

manual override of the automatic presentation of passenger oxygen masks is, generally
speaking, not possible

d)

the oxygen masks are automatically presented to flight crew members

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 5

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
021-4 EME

024.)

025.)

026.)

027.)

028.)

A substance which may never be used in the vicinity or on parts of an oxygen


installation is:
a)

Water

b)

Nitrogen

c)

Halon

d)

Grease

The crash/fire axe is part of the safety equipment fitted to passenger aircraft. Its
function is to:
a)

activate a radio survival beacon by cutting off the red coloured top

b)

settle an escalating conflict with unreasonable passengers, who threaten flight safety.

c)

free exits in case of evacuation via the sides.

d)

obtain forced access to a fire behind a panel and a general purpose tool during
evacuation.

Regarding the chemical oxygen generator, to enable the oxygen to flow, the
passenger must:
a)

firmly pull the mask towards his face.

b)

operate the relevant switch in his armrest.

c)

turn the oxygen valve to open.

d)

firmly pull the door compartment of the oxygen mask storage.

A manual inflation handle:


a)

operates a hand pump for manual inflation of a slide

b)

serves to inflate a life jacket when the normal inflation function fails

c)

is generally not applied on slides

d)

serves to actuate inflation of a slide when automatic inflation fails

The type of a aircraft oxygen system intended for use by passengers, is mostly:
a)

a continuous flow system

b)

a pressure demand system

c)

portable equipment only

d)

an air recycle system

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 6

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
021-4 EME

029.)

030.)

031.)

032.)

A continuous loop detector system is a:


a)

fire fighting system.

b)

smoke detection system.

c)

carbon dioxide warning system.

d)

overheat detection system.

The demand valve of a diluter-demand type oxygen regulator in normal mode,


operates when the:
a)

pressure in the oxygen reservoir is more than 500 psi

b)

user requires 100 percent oxygen

c)

user breathes in

d)

diluter control is in normal position

The purpose of the Pressure Relief Valve in a high pressure oxygen system is to:
a)

act as a manual shut-off valve

b)

maximize the charging pressure of the system

c)

relieve overpressure if the pressure reducing valve malfunctions

d)

reduce pressure in the oxygen reservoir to a suitable manifold pressure for the regulator

Generally, when the fire handle of the fire-extinguishing system on an aircraft is


pulled, the effects are:
1. closing of the LP valve of the fuel system
2. opening of the air bleed valves and HP valves on the engine concerned
3. setting of extinguishing systems
4. closing of the isolation and de-icing valves
5. isolation of the associated electric current generators
6. immediate discharge of extinguishing agentThe combination regrouping all the
correct statements is:
a)

2,3,4,5

b)

1,3,4,5

c)

1,3,4

d)

1,2,5,6

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 7

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
021-4 EME

033.)

034.)

035.)

036.)

On an aircraft provided with resistance and capacitance variation type fire detection
loops, a fire alarm is initiated by a temperature increase detected:
a)

only at an isolated point of the loops

b)

at any isolated point of the loops or else generally on all the loops

c)

on at least one loop

d)

only in a uniform way along the loops

Smoke detectors fitted on transport aircraft are of the following type:


a)

electrical

b)

magnetic

c)

optical or ionization

d)

chemical

In the cockpit of a transport airplane, at least one manual fire-extinguisher must be


conveniently located containing:
a)

halon.

b)

powder.

c)

special fluids

d)

water

Oxygen systems on pressurized airplanes are used to provide oxygen:


1. In an emergency in the case of depressurization.
2. In an emergency in the case of the indisposition of a passenger.
3. During a normal flight.
4. In an emergency in case of smoke or toxic gases in the cockpit.The combination
regrouping all the correct statements is:
a)

2, 3

b)

1, 2, 4

c)

1,4

d)

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 8

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
021-4 EME

037.)

038.)

039.)

040.)

041.)

Modern pressurized transport airplanes are equipped with:


a)

only portable oxygen bottles.

b)

only one oxygen system supplying the whole aircraft.

c)

two independent oxygen systems, one supplying the cockpit, the other the cabin.

d)

two oxygen systems both supplying the cockpit and the cabin.

When selected to normal, the oxygen/air ratio of the mixture supplied by the cockpit
oxygen system regulator:
a)

is 100%

b)

increases when the altitude increases

c)

decreases when the altitude increases

d)

is constant whatever the altitude

In the cabin, when the oxygen mask is pulled downwards, the passenger breathes:
a)

cabin air under pressure.

b)

pure oxygen at the ambient pressure.

c)

pure oxygen under pressure.

d)

a mixture of oxygen and cabin air.

Chemical oxygen generators are used to furnish oxygen to the:


a)

cabin only.

b)

cockpit and the cabin.

c)

toilets only.

d)

cockpit only.

The chemical oxygen generator supplies oxygen for about:


a)

30 minutes

b)

2 hours

c)

15 minutes

d)

5 minutes

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 9

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
021-4 EME

042.)

043.)

044.)

The advantages of a chemical oxygen source for the passenger cabin are:
1. reduced weight and volume,
2. easy storage and maintenance,
3. greater autonomy,
4. no risk of explosion,
5. reversible functioning,
6. no maintenance.The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
a)

1, 3, 4, 5

b)

2, 3, 5

c)

1, 2, 4, 6

d)

1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6

The disadvantages of a chemical oxygen source for the passenger cabin are:
1. a flow which cannot be modulated,
2. a heavy and bulky system,
3. non reversible functioning,
4. risks of explosion,
5. poor autonomy.The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
a)

1, 2, 3, 5

b)

1, 3, 5

c)

2, 4

d)

1, 2, 3, 4, 5

The advantages of a gaseous oxygen source for the passenger cabin are:
1. a greater autonomy,
2. no risk of explosion,
3. reversible functioning,
4. easy storage and maintenance,
5. possibility to regulate flow.The combination regrouping all the correct statements
is:
a)

2, 4, 5

b)

1, 3, 5

c)

2, 3, 4

d)

1, 2, 3, 4, 5

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 10

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
021-4 EME

045.)

046.)

047.)

048.)

When the door operation of a transport airplane equipped with evacuation slides in
the armed position is opened from the outside, the slide:
a)

unfolds and becomes inflated.

b)

is disarmed automatically

c)

unfolds but does not become inflated

d)

becomes inflated in its container thus preventing its unfolding.

The purpose of the proximity of the emergency evacuation path marking system is to:
a)

replace the overhead emergency lighting in case of failure.

b)

guide the emergency evacuation during night only.

c)

mark only the thresholds exits.

d)

give additional guidance during an emergency evacuation with a thick smoke.

The equipment of an oxygen supply installation must be kept absolutely free of oil or
grease traces as:
a)

these substances catch fire spontaneously in the presence of oxygen under pressure.

b)

these substances mixed with oxygen could catch fire in the presence of a spark.

c)

the oxygen system would be contaminated.

d)

these substances could plug the oxygen masks filters.

The opening of the doors giving access to the oxygen masks for the passengers is:
1. pneumatic for the gaseous oxygen system,
2. electrical for the chemical oxygen system,
3. pneumatic for the chemical oxygen system,
4. electrical for the gaseous oxygen system.The combination regrouping all the
correct statements is:
a)

1, 2

b)

2, 3

c)

1, 3

d)

2, 4

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 11

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
021-4 EME

049.)

050.)

051.)

052.)

053.)

A passenger oxygen mask is:


a)

a continuous flow mask and must be used if there is smoke in the cabin.

b)

a continuous flow mask and in principle should not be used if there is smoke in the cabin.

c)

an on demand type mask and in principle should not be used if there is smoke in the
cabin.

d)

an on demand type mask and must be used if there is smoke in the cabin.

A smoke mask is a:
a)

continuous flow mask and covers only the nose and the mouth.

b)

mask with flow on request and covers only the nose and the mouth.

c)

mask with flow on request and covers the whole face

d)

continuous flow mask and covers the whole face

(For this question use annex 021-10164A) The smoke detection in the aircraft cargo
compartments is carried out by four sensors: C1, C2, C3 and C4. They are associated
with the logic circuit as described in the annex. The repeating bell is activated when:
a)

only one sensor detects smoke

b)

the C1 and C3 sensors detect smoke

c)

the C2 and C4 sensors detect smoke

d)

the C1 and C2 sensors detect smoke

When a bimetallic strip is used as a switch in a fire detection loop, a fire alarm is
triggered after a delay. The purpose of this delay is to:
a)

wait for the triggering of the second fire detection loop in order to confirm the fire

b)

avoid false alarms in case of vibrations

c)

delay the triggering of the fire extinguishers and increase their efficiency

d)

allow temperatures to equalise

Evacuation slide inflation is ensured by:


a)

a pressurized gas canister combined with the slide itself.

b)

a manual pump, used when needed by the cabin crew.

c)

pressurized air from the air conditioning system.

d)

the aircrafts general pneumatic circuit.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 12

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
021-4 EME

054.)

055.)

056.)

057.)

Regarding the oxygen systems of a JAR 25 aeroplane:


a)

The seals must be carefully greased to avoid sparks.

b)

The passenger source of supply never uses chemically generated oxygen.

c)

The same source of supply is used by the crew and passengers.

d)

With the setting on NORMAL, the crew breathes a mixture of oxygen and cabin air.

An oxygen regulator has 3 controls:


-a power lever: ON/OFF
-an O2 lever: NORMAL/100%
-an emergency lever: ON/OFF
Among the following statements, the correct proposition is:
a)

with the EMERGENCY lever on OFF, in an emergency situation, one cannot use the
oxygen mask to breathe.

b)

the O2 lever on ON enables breathing of the over-pressure oxygen at a constant flow


rate.

c)

the power lever on ON, and, the O2 lever on NORMAL allows the oxygen to enter the
regulator and enables breathing of a mixture of air/oxygen according to altitude.

d)

the EMERGENCY lever on ON enables breathing of pure oxygen at ambient pressure.

The main feature of BCF fire extinguishers is that they:


a)

are electrical conductors.

b)

act as flame inhibitors by absorbing the airs oxygen.

c)

are highly corrosive particularly for aluminium alloys.

d)

use the cooling effect created by the venturi during discharge.

In case of smoke in the cockpit, the crew oxygen regulator must be set to:
a)

100%

b)

on demand

c)

emergency

d)

normal

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 13

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
021-4 EME

058.)

059.)

The installation and use of on-board oxygen generators is such that:


1 - the smoking ban is imperative when used
2 - in case of accidental drop of the continuous flow passenger masks, no crew
action is required
3 - no trace of grease must be found in the system assembly
4 - the systems filling adaptors must be greased with non-freezing or graphite grease
The combination which regroups all of the correct statements is:
a)

1-3

b)

2-4

c)

1-4

d)

2-3

The contents of an oxygen bottle can be ensure by the:


1 - weight.
2 - pressure.
3 - level.
4 - volume.
The combination containing all of the correct statements is:
a)

1 and 2 only.

b)

2 and 3 only.

c)

1 and 4 only.

d)

1 and 3 only.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 14

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
021-4 EME

Lsungen

1:

C (1 Pkt.)

21:

B (1 Pkt.)

41:

C (1 Pkt.)

2:

C (1 Pkt.)

22:

A (1 Pkt.)

42:

C (1 Pkt.)

3:

C (1 Pkt.)

23:

B (1 Pkt.)

43:

B (1 Pkt.)

4:

A (1 Pkt.)

24:

D (1 Pkt.)

44:

B (1 Pkt.)

5:

B (1 Pkt.)

25:

D (1 Pkt.)

45:

B (1 Pkt.)

6:

B (1 Pkt.)

26:

A (1 Pkt.)

46:

D (1 Pkt.)

7:

C (1 Pkt.)

27:

D (1 Pkt.)

47:

A (1 Pkt.)

8:

A (1 Pkt.)

28:

A (1 Pkt.)

48:

A (1 Pkt.)

9:

A (1 Pkt.)

29:

D (1 Pkt.)

49:

B (1 Pkt.)

10:

C (1 Pkt.)

30:

C (1 Pkt.)

50:

C (1 Pkt.)

11:

A (1 Pkt.)

31:

C (1 Pkt.)

51:

D (1 Pkt.)

12:

A (1 Pkt.)

32:

B (1 Pkt.)

52:

B (1 Pkt.)

13:

A (1 Pkt.)

33:

B (1 Pkt.)

53:

A (1 Pkt.)

14:

B (1 Pkt.)

34:

C (1 Pkt.)

54:

D (1 Pkt.)

15:

B (1 Pkt.)

35:

A (1 Pkt.)

55:

C (1 Pkt.)

16:

A (1 Pkt.)

36:

C (1 Pkt.)

56:

B (1 Pkt.)

17:

B (1 Pkt.)

37:

C (1 Pkt.)

57:

A (1 Pkt.)

18:

A (1 Pkt.)

38:

B (1 Pkt.)

58:

A (1 Pkt.)

19:

D (1 Pkt.)

39:

D (1 Pkt.)

59:

A (1 Pkt.)

20:

A (1 Pkt.)

40:

A (1 Pkt.)

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 15

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
022 INSTR

001.)

002.)

003.)

004.)

The error in altimeter readings caused by the variation of the static pressure near the
source is known as:
a)

position error.

b)

instrument error.

c)

barometric error.

d)

hysteresis effect.

If the static source of an altimeter becomes blocked during a descent the instrument
will:
a)

under-read

b)

continue to display the reading at which the blockage occurred

c)

indicate a height equivalent to the setting on the millibar subscale

d)

gradually indicate zero

If the static source to an altimeter becomes blocked during a climb, the instrument
will:
a)

gradually return to zero

b)

under-read by an amount equivalent to the reading at the time that the instrument became
blocked

c)

continue to indicate the reading at which the blockage occurred

d)

over-read

If the static source to an airspeed indicator (ASI) becomes blocked during a descent
the instrument will:
a)

over-read

b)

continue to indicate the speed applicable to that at the time of the blockage

c)

under-read

d)

read zero

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 1

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
022 INSTR

005.)

006.)

007.)

008.)

009.)

When climbing at a constant Mach number:


a)

CAS increases.

b)

difference between surrounding conditions and ISA must be known to deduce the CAS
variation.

c)

CAS decreases.

d)

CAS remains constant.

Maintaining CAS and flight level constant, a fall in ambient temperature results in:
a)

higher TAS because air density increases.

b)

lower TAS because air density increases.

c)

lower TAS because air density decreases.

d)

higher TAS because air density decreases.

In standard atmosphere, when descending at constant CAS:


a)

TAS first increases and then remains constant above the tropopause.

b)

TAS increases.

c)

TAS remains constant.

d)

TAS decreases.

A leak in the pitot total pressure line of a non-pressurized aircraft to an airspeed


indicator would cause it to:
a)

under-read in a climb and over-read in a descent.

b)

over-read.

c)

over-read in a climb and under-read in a descent.

d)

under-read.

Machmeter readings are subject to:


a)

density error.

b)

setting error.

c)

temperature error.

d)

position pressure error

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 2

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
022 INSTR

010.)

011.)

012.)

013.)

The indications on a directional gyroscope are subject to errors. The most significant
are:
1- apparent wander due to earth rotation.
2- apparent wander due to change of aircraft position.
3- gimballing errors.
4- north change.
5- mechanical defects.
The combination regrouping the correct statement is:
a)

1,2,4,5.

b)

2,3,5.

c)

3,4,5.

d)

1,2,3,5.

The diagram on annex 022-648A shows three gyro assemblies: A, B and C. Among
these gyros,
-one is a roll gyro (noted 1)
-one is a pitch gyro (noted 2)
-one is a yaw gyro (noted 3)
The correct matching of gyros and assemblies is:
a)

1C, 2B, 3A

b)

1B, 2C, 3A

c)

1B, 2A, 3C

d)

1A, 2B, 3C

While inertial platform system is operating on board an aircraft, it is necessary to use


a device with the following characteristics, in order to keep the vertical line with a
pendulous system:
a)

with damping and a period of about 84 minutes.

b)

with damping and a period of 84 seconds

c)

without damping and a period of about 84 seconds

d)

without damping and a period of about 84 minutes

In order to align an inertial reference system (IRS), it is required to insert the local
geographical coordinates. This enables the IRS to:
a)

compare the longitude it finds with that entered by the operator.

b)

find true north.

c)

initialise the FMS flight plan.

d)

compare the latitude it finds with that entered by the operator.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 3

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
022 INSTR

014.)

015.)

016.)

017.)

The radio altimeter is required to indicate zero height AGL as the main wheels touch
down on the runway. For this reason, it is necessary to:
a)

adjust the gross height according to the aircraft instantaneous pitch.

b)

have a specific radio altimeter dedicated to automatic landing.

c)

compensate for residual height and cable length.

d)

change the display scale in short final, in order to have a precise readout.

The low-altitude radio altimeters used in precision approaches:


1 operate in the 1540-1660 MHz range.
2 are of the pulsed type.
3 are of the frequency modulation type.
4 have an operating range of 0 to 5000 ft.
5 have a precision of +/- 2 feet between 0 and 500 ft and +/- 1.5% whichever is the
greatest.
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
a)

2, 3, 4

b)

1, 2, 5

c)

3, 5

d)

3, 4

The data supplied by a radio altimeter:


a)

is used by the automatic pilot in the altitude hold mode.

b)

concerns only the decision height.

c)

indicates the distance between the ground and the aircraft.

d)

is used only by the radio altimeter indicator.

Flight Director Information supplied by an FD computer is presented in the form of


command bars on the following instrument:
a)

ADI Attitude Director Indicator.

b)

RMI Radio Magnetic Indicator.

c)

HSI Horizontal Situation Indicator.

d)

BDHI Bearing Distance Heading Indicator.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 4

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
022 INSTR

018.)

019.)

020.)

021.)

022.)

If the outside temperature at 35 000 feet is -40C, the local speed of sound is:
a)

595 kt.

b)

307 kt.

c)

686 kt.

d)

247 kt.

A thermocouple type thermometer consists of:


a)

two metal conductors of the same type connected at two points.

b)

a single-wire metal winding.

c)

a Wheatstone bridge connected to a voltage indicator.

d)

two metal conductors of different type connected at two points.

The disadvantage of an electronic rpm indicator is the:


a)

generation of spurious signals at the commutator.

b)

influence of temperature on the indication.

c)

necessity of providing a power supply source.

d)

high influence of line resistance on the indication.

The principle of capacity gauges is based on the:


a)

capacitance variation by the volume measurement carried out on the sensor.

b)

current variation in the Wheatstone bridge.

c)

flow rate and torque variation occurring in a supply line.

d)

capacitance variation of a given capacitor with the type of dielectric.

A synchroscope is used on aircraft to:


a)

reduce the vibration of each engine.

b)

achieve optimum control of on-board voltages.

c)

set several engines to the same speed.

d)

reduce the rpm of each engine.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 5

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
022 INSTR

023.)

024.)

025.)

026.)

The Low Altitude Radio Altimeter uses the following wavelengths:


a)

decimetric.

b)

metric.

c)

myriametric.

d)

centimetric.

The gyroscope of a turn indicator has:


(NB: the degree(s) of freedom of a gyro does not take into account its rotor spin axis)
a)

2 degrees of freedom.

b)

0 degree of freedom.

c)

1 degree of freedom.

d)

3 degrees of freedom.

The fields affecting a magnetic compass originate from:


1. magnetic masses
2. ferrous metal masses
3. non ferrous metal masses
4. electrical currents
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
a)

1, 2, 4

b)

1, 2, 3

c)

1, 3, 4

d)

1, 2, 3, 4

Modern low altitude radio altimeters emit waves in the following frequency band:
a)

HF (High Frequency).

b)

VLF (Very Low Frequency).

c)

UHF (Ultra High Frequency).

d)

SHF (Super High Frequency).

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 6

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
022 INSTR

027.)

028.)

029.)

030.)

031.)

The Primary Flight Display (PFD) displays information dedicated to:


a)

engines and alarms.

b)

weather situation.

c)

systems.

d)

piloting.

(For this question use annex 022-3880A)


The block diagram of an auto-pilot is shown in the annex.
For each control channel (pitch, roll and yaw) the piloting law is the relationship
between the deflection of the control surface commanded by the computer (BETA c)
and the:
a)

offset EPSILON at the computer input.

b)

real deflection of the control surface (BETA control surface feedback).

c)

aircraft response S.

d)

pilot command E.

The operating frequency range of a low altitude radio altimeter is:


a)

4200 MHz to 4400 MHz.

b)

5 GHz.

c)

2700 MHz to 2900 MHz.

d)

5400 MHz or 9400 MHz.

The Engine Pressure Ratio (EPR) is computed by:


a)

dividing compressor discharge pressure by turbine discharge pressure.

b)

multiplying compressor inlet pressure by turbine discharge pressure.

c)

multiplying compressor discharge pressure by turbine inlet pressure.

d)

dividing turbine discharge pressure by compressor inlet pressure.

When flying in cold air (colder than standard atmosphere), the altimeter will:
a)

underestimate.

b)

be just as correct as before.

c)

show the actual height above ground.

d)

overestimate.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 7

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
022 INSTR

032.)

033.)

034.)

035.)

A slaved directional gyro derives it's directional signal from:


a)

the air-data-computer.

b)

the flux valve.

c)

the flight director.

d)

a direct reading magnetic compass.

During descent, the total pressure probe of the airspeed indicator becomes blocked.
In this case:
1 - IAS becomes greater than CAS
2 - IAS becomes lower than CAS
3 - maintaining IAS constant, VMO may be exceeded
4 - maintaining IAS constant, aircraft may stall
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
a)

1, 3.

b)

2, 4.

c)

2, 3.

d)

1, 4.

In standard atmosphere, when climbing at constant CAS:


a)

TAS decreases and Mach number increases.

b)

TAS and Mach number increase.

c)

TAS increases and Mach number decreases.

d)

TAS and Mach number decrease.

The limits of the yellow scale of an airspeed indicator are:


a)

VLE for the lower limit and VNE for the upper limit

b)

VFE for the lower limit and VNE for the upper limit

c)

VNO for the lower limit and VNE for the upper limit

d)

VLO for the lower limit and VNE for the upper limit

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 8

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
022 INSTR

036.)

037.)

038.)

039.)

040.)

The limits of the green scale of an airspeed indicator are:


a)

VS1 for the lower limit and VLO for the upper limit

b)

VS1 for the lower limit and VNO for the upper limit

c)

VS0 for the lower limit and VNO for the upper limit

d)

VS1 for the lower limit and VNE for the upper limit

The limits of the white scale of an airspeed indicator are:


a)

VSO for the lower limit and VFE for the upper limit

b)

VSO for the lower limit and VLE for the upper limit

c)

VSI for the lower limit and VFE for the upper limit

d)

VSI for the lower limit and VLE for the upper limit

The limit speed maximum operating (VMO) is a speed expressed as:


a)

true airspeed (TAS).

b)

calibrated airspeed (CAS).

c)

computed airspeed (COAS).

d)

equivalent airspeed (EAS).

A VMO-MMO warning device consists of an alarm connected to:


a)

a barometric aneroid capsule and an airspeed sensor subjected to dynamic pressure.

b)

a barometric aneroid capsule subjected to a static pressure and an airspeed sensor


subjected to a dynamic pressure.

c)

a barometric aneroid capsule subjected to a dynamic pressure and an airspeed sensor


subjected to a static pressure.

d)

a barometric aneroid capsule and an airspeed sensor subjected to a static pressure.

The reading of a Mach indicator is independent of:


a)

the total pressure

b)

the differential pressure measurement

c)

the outside temperature

d)

the static pressure

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 9

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
022 INSTR

041.)

042.)

043.)

044.)

045.)

After an aircraft has passed through a volcanic cloud which has blocked the total
pressure probe inlet of the airspeed indicator, the pilot begins a stabilized descent
and finds that the indicated airspeed:
a)

decreases abruptly towards zero

b)

increases abruptly towards VNE

c)

increases steadily

d)

decreases steadily

The principle of the Mach indicator is based on the computation of the ratio:
a)

Pt/Ps

b)

(Pt - Ps)/Pt

c)

(Pt + Ps)/Ps

d)

(Pt - Ps)/Ps

The mach number is the:


a)

equivalent airspeed (EAS) divided by the local speed of sound

b)

corrected airspeed (CAS) divided by the local speed of sound

c)

indicated airspeed (IAS) divided by the local speed of sound

d)

true airspeed (TAS) divided by the local speed of sound

During a climb, the total pressure probe of the airspeed indicator becomes blocked; if
the pilot maintains a constant indicated airspeed, the true airspeed:
a)

decreases by 1% per 600 FT.

b)

decreases until reaching the stall speed.

c)

increases by 1% per 600 FT.

d)

increases until reaching VMO.

With constant weight and configuration, an aircraft always takes off at the same:
a)

indicated airspeed.

b)

equivalent airspeed.

c)

ground speed.

d)

true airspeed.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 10

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
022 INSTR

046.)

047.)

048.)

The indication of the directional gyro is valid only for a limited period of time. The
causes of this inaccuracy are:
1 - rotation of the earth
2 - longitudinal accelerations
3 - aircraft's moving over the surface of the earth
4 - mechanical imperfections
5 - vertical components of the earth's magnetic field
6 - geometry of the gimbal system
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
a)

1,2,4,6.

b)

1,3,4,6

c)

2,3,5.

d)

1,2,3,4,6.

The artificial horizon uses a gyroscope with:


(note: the degree(s) of freedom of a gyro does not take into account its rotor spinaxis)
a)

two degrees of freedom, and its rotor spin axis is continuously maintained to local
vertical by an automatic erecting system.

b)

two degrees of freedom, and its rotor spin axis is continuously maintained in the
horizontal plane by an automatic erecting system.

c)

one degree of freedom, and its rotor spin axis is continuously maintained to local vertical
by an automatic erecting system.

d)

one degree of freedom, and its rotor spin axis is continuously maintained in the horizontal
plane by an automatic erecting system.

The characteristics of the directional gyro used in a gyro stabilised compass system
are:
NB: the degree(s) of freedom of a gyro does not take into account its rotor spin axis.
a)

two degrees of freedom, whose horizontal axis corresponding to the reference direction is
maintained in the horizontal plane by an automatic erecting system.

b)

one degree of freedom, whose vertical axis, aligned with the real vertical to the location
is maintained in this direction by an automatic erecting system.

c)

two degrees of freedom, whose axis aligned with the vertical to the location is maintained
in this direction by an erecting system.

d)

one degree of freedom, whose horizontal axis is maintained in the horizontal plane by an
automatic erecting system.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 11

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
022 INSTR

049.)

050.)

051.)

052.)

Calibrated Air Speed (CAS) is obtained from Indicated Air Speed (IAS) by correcting
for the:
a)

position and density errors.

b)

density error.

c)

position and instrument errors.

d)

instrument error.

The most significant advantages of an air data computer (ADC) are:


1. Position error correction
2. Hysteresis error correction
3. Remote data transmission capability
4. Gimballing errors correction
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
a)

1,2,3.

b)

1,2,4.

c)

1,3.

d)

2,3,4

VNO is the maximum speed:


a)

not to be exceeded except in still air and with caution.

b)

with flaps extended in landing position.

c)

at which the flight controls can be fully deflected.

d)

which must never be exceeded.

VNE is the maximum speed:


a)

not to be exceeded except in still air and with caution

b)

which must never be exceeded

c)

with flaps extended in landing position

d)

at which the flight controls can be fully deflected

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 12

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
022 INSTR

053.)

054.)

055.)

056.)

057.)

At a given altitude, the hysteresis error of an altimeter varies substantially with the:
a)

aircraft attitude.

b)

time passed at this altitude.

c)

static temperature.

d)

mach number of the aircraft.

The purpose of the vibrating device of an altimeter is to:


a)

reduce the hysteresis effect

b)

reduce the effect of friction in the linkages

c)

allow damping of the measurement in the unit

d)

inform the crew of a failure of the instrument

The position error of the static vent on which the altimeter is connected varies
substantially with the:
a)

Mach number of the aircraft.

b)

flight time at high altitude.

c)

static temperature.

d)

deformation of the aneroid capsule.

When flying in cold air (colder than standard atmosphere), indicated altitude is:
a)

the same as the true altitude.

b)

equal to the standard altitude.

c)

higher than the true altitude.

d)

lower than the true altitude.

When flying in warm air (warmer than standard atmosphere), indicated altitude is:
a)

equal to the standard altitude.

b)

higher than the true altitude.

c)

lower than the true altitude.

d)

the same as the true altitude.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 13

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
022 INSTR

058.)

059.)

060.)

061.)

062.)

Due to its conception, the altimeter measures a:


a)

a temperature altitude

b)

a true altitude

c)

a density altitude

d)

a pressure altitude

The density altitude is:


a)

the altitude in the standard atmosphere on which the density is equal to the actual density
of the atmosphere

b)

the pressure altitude corrected for the relative density prevailing at this point

c)

the temperature altitude corrected for the difference between the real temperature and the
standard temperature

d)

the pressure altitude corrected for the density of air at this point

The response time of a vertical speed detector may be decreased by adding a:


a)

bimetallic strip

b)

second calibrated port

c)

return spring

d)

correction based on an accelerometer sensor.

The pressure altitude is the altitude corresponding:


a)

in standard atmosphere, to the pressure Ps prevailing at this point.

b)

in standard atmosphere, to the reference pressure Ps.

c)

in ambient atmosphere, to the reference pressure Ps.

d)

in ambient atmosphere, to the pressure Ps prevailing at this point.

During a deceleration phase at constant attitude, the control system of the artificial
horizon results in the horizon bar indicating a
a)

constant attitude.

b)

nose up attitude.

c)

nose down attitude.

d)

nose up followed by a nose down attitude.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 14

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
022 INSTR

063.)

064.)

065.)

066.)

067.)

When an aircraft has turned 360 degrees with a constant attitude and bank, the pilot
observes the following on a classic artificial horizon:
a)

too much nose-up and bank too high

b)

too much nose-up and bank correct

c)

attitude and bank correct

d)

too much nose-up and bank too low

When an aircraft has turned 90 degrees with a constant attitude and bank, the pilot
observes the following on a classic artificial horizon:
a)

attitude and bank correct

b)

too much nose-up and bank too low

c)

too much nose-up and bank too high

d)

too much nose-up and bank correct

A gravity type erector is used in a vertical gyro device to correct errors on:
a)

a directional gyro unit

b)

a gyromagnetic indicator

c)

an artificial horizon

d)

a turn indicator

The latitude at which the apparent wander of a directional gyro is equal to 0 is:
a)

latitude 45

b)

the equator

c)

latitude 30

d)

the North pole

The apparent wander of a directional gyro is 15/h:


a)

At the latitude 45

b)

At the North pole

c)

At the equator

d)

At the latitude 30

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 15

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
022 INSTR

068.)

069.)

070.)

071.)

For a directional gyro, the system which detects the local vertical supplies:
a)

a levelling erection torque motor.

b)

a torque motor on the sensitive axis.

c)

a nozzle integral with the outer gimbal ring.

d)

two torque motors arranged horizontally.

In a directional gyro, gimballing errors are due to:


a)

a banked attitude

b)

an apparent weight and an apparent vertical

c)

the aircraft's movement over the earth

d)

the vertical component of the earth's magnetic field

Under normal operating conditions, when an aircraft is in a banked turn, the rate-ofturn indicator indicates:
1. the angular velocity of the aircraft about the yaw axis
2. the bank of the aircraft
3. the direction of the aircraft turn
4. the angular velocity of the aircraft about the real vertical
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
a)

1,2.

b)

3,4.

c)

1,3.

d)

2,4.

The aircraft radio equipment which emits on a frequency of 4400 MHz is the:
a)

weather radar.

b)

primary radar.

c)

high altitude radio altimeter.

d)

radio altimeter.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 16

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
022 INSTR

072.)

073.)

074.)

075.)

Given:
- Ts the static temperature (SAT)
- Tt the total temperature (TAT)
- Kr the recovery coefficient
- M the Mach number
The total temperature can be expressed approximately by the formula:
a)

Tt = Ts(1+0.2 M)

b)

Tt = Ts(1-0.2 M)

c)

Tt = Ts(1+0.2 Kr.M)

d)

Tt = Ts/(1+0.2 Kr.M)

In low altitude radio altimeters, the height measurement (above the ground) is based
upon:
a)

a wave transmission, for which the frequency shift by DOPPLER effect after ground
reflection is measured.

b)

a frequency modulation wave, for which the frequency variation between the transmitted
wave and the received wave after ground reflection is measured.

c)

a pulse transmission, for which time between transmission and reception is measured on a
circular scanning screen.

d)

a triangular amplitude modulation wave, for which modulation phase shift between
transmitted and received waves after ground reflection is measured.

The Yaw Damper system:


1 - counters any wrong pilot action on the rudder pedals;
2 - counters dutch roll;
3 - is active only when autopilot is engaged.
The combination regrouping all the correct statements are:
a)

1, 2.

b)

2.

c)

1, 2, 3.

d)

2, 3.

A blocked pitot head with a clear static source causes the airspeed indicator to:
a)

react like an altimeter.

b)

read like a vertical speed indicator.

c)

freeze at zero.

d)

operate normally.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 17

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
022 INSTR

076.)

077.)

078.)

079.)

080.)

A pitot tube covered by ice which blocks the ram air inlet will affect the following
instrument (s):
a)

airspeed indicator, altimeter and vertical speed indicator.

b)

vertical speed indicator only.

c)

airspeed indicator only.

d)

altimeter only.

The input signal of the amplifier of the gyromagnetic compass resetting device
originates from the:
a)

error detector.

b)

flux valve.

c)

directional gyro erection device.

d)

directional gyro unit.

The heading information originating from the gyromagnetic compass flux valve is
sent to the:
a)

erector system.

b)

error detector.

c)

amplifier.

d)

heading indicator.

The gyromagnetic compass torque motor:


a)

causes the heading indicator to precess

b)

feeds the error detector system

c)

is fed by the flux valve

d)

causes the directional gyro unit to precess

VFE is the maximum speed:


a)

with the flaps extended in a given position.

b)

with the flaps extended in landing position.

c)

at which the flaps can be operated in turbulence.

d)

with the flaps extended in take-off position.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 18

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
022 INSTR

081.)

082.)

083.)

084.)

085.)

During deceleration following a landing in an easterly direction, a magnetic compass


made for the northern hemisphere indicates:
a)

an apparent turn to the north.

b)

an apparent turn to the south.

c)

no apparent turn.

d)

no apparent turn only on northern latitudes.

During deceleration following a landing in a northerly direction, a magnetic compass


made for the southern hemisphere indicates:
a)

no apparent turn.

b)

an apparent turn to the east.

c)

no apparent turn only on southern latitudes.

d)

an apparent turn to the west.

During deceleration following a landing in a southerly direction, a magnetic compass


made for the northern hemisphere indicates:
a)

an apparent turn to the west.

b)

no apparent turn only on northern latitudes.

c)

no apparent turn.

d)

an apparent turn to the east.

During deceleration following a landing in a westerly direction, a magnetic compass


made for the southern hemisphere indicates:
a)

no apparent turn.

b)

no apparent turn only on southern latitudes.

c)

an apparent turn to the south.

d)

an apparent turn to the north.

During deceleration following a landing in a westerly direction, a magnetic compass


made for the northern hemisphere indicates:
a)

an apparent turn to the south.

b)

no apparent turn.

c)

an apparent turn to the north.

d)

no apparent turn only on northern latitudes.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 19

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
022 INSTR

086.)

087.)

088.)

089.)

During deceleration following a landing in an easterly direction, a magnetic compass


made for the southern hemisphere indicates:
a)

an apparent turn to the north.

b)

no apparent turn only on southern latitudes.

c)

no apparent turn.

d)

an apparent turn to the south.

The quadrantal deviation of the magnetic compass is due to the action of:
a)

the soft iron pieces influenced by the geomagnetic field

b)

the hard iron pieces influenced by the mild iron pieces

c)

the hard iron ices and the soft iron pieces influenced by the hard iron pieces

d)

the hard iron pieces influenced by the geomagnetic field

The "Bourdon tube" is used to measure:


a)

quantity.

b)

pressure.

c)

a flow rate.

d)

temperature.

Given:
M is the Mach number
Ts is the static temperature
Tt is the total temperature
a)

Ts = Tt.(0.2. M)

b)

Ts = Tt.(1+0.2. M)

c)

Ts = Tt /(1+0.2. M)

d)

Ts = Tt/( 0.2 M)

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 20

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
022 INSTR

090.)

091.)

092.)

093.)

A pilot wishes to turn right on to a southerly heading with 20 bank at a latitude of 20


North. Using a direct reading compass, in order to achieve this he must stop the turn
on an approximate heading of:
a)

200

b)

150

c)

180

d)

170

A pilot wishes to turn left on to a southerly heading with 20 bank at a latitude of 20


North. Using a direct reading compass, in order to achieve this he must stop the turn
on an approximate heading of:
a)

160

b)

170

c)

190

d)

200

A pilot wishes to turn left on to a northerly heading with 10 bank at a latitude of 50


North. Using a direct reading compass, in order to achieve this he must stop the turn
on an approximate heading of:
a)

015

b)

330

c)

030

d)

355

A pilot wishes to turn right through 90 on to North at rate 2 at latitude of 40 North


using a direct reading compass. In order to achieve this the turn should be stopped
on an indicated heading of approximately:
a)

010

b)

330

c)

360

d)

030

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 21

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
022 INSTR

094.)

095.)

096.)

097.)

098.)

The compass heading can be derived from the magnetic heading by reference to a:
a)

map showing the isogonic lines

b)

magnetic variation correction card

c)

compass deviation card

d)

map showing the isoclinic lines

The magnetic heading can be derived from the true heading by means of a:
a)

map showing the isogonal lines

b)

compass swinging curve

c)

deviation correction curve

d)

map showing the isoclinic lines

Total Air Temperature (TAT) is:


a)

higher or equal to Static Air Temperature (SAT), depending on mach number and SAT.

b)

lower than Static Air Temperature (SAT), depending on altitude and SAT.

c)

higher or equal to Static Air Temperature (SAT), depending on altitude and SAT.

d)

lower than Static Air Temperature (SAT), depending on mach number and SAT.

Compared with a conventional gyro, a laser gyro:


a)

consumes a lot of power

b)

is influenced by temperature

c)

has a fairly long starting cycle

d)

has a longer life cycle

The principle of a laser gyro is based on:


a)

two rotating cavities provided with mirrors.

b)

a gyroscope associated with a laser compensating for gimballing errors.

c)

frequency difference between two laser beams rotating in opposite direction.

d)

a gyroscope associated with a laser compensating for apparent wander due to the rotation
of the earth.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 22

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
022 INSTR

099.)

100.)

101.)

102.)

103.)

The Decision Height (DH) warning light comes on when an aircraft:


a)

passes over the ILS inner marker.

b)

passes over the outer marker.

c)

descends below a pre-set radio altitude.

d)

descends below a pre-set barometric altitude.

If a manifold pressure gauge consistently registers atmospheric pressure, the cause


is probably;
a)

leak in pressure gauge line.

b)

too high float level.

c)

fuel of too low volatility.

d)

ice in induction system.

The operation of the radio altimeter of a modern aircraft is based on:


a)

frequency modulation of the carrier wave.

b)

amplitude modulation of the carrier wave.

c)

a combination of frequency modulation and pulse modulation.

d)

pulse modulation of the carrier wave.

An airborne instrument, equipped with a gyro with 2 degrees of freedom and a


horizontal spin axis is:
NB: the degree(s) of freedom of a gyro does not take into account its rotor spin axis.
a)

a directional gyro

b)

an artificial horizon

c)

a turn indicator

d)

a fluxgate compass

An airborne instrument, equipped with a gyro with 1 degree of freedom and a


horizontal spin axis is a:
NB: the degree(s) of freedom of a gyro does not take into account its rotor spin axis.
a)

turn indicator

b)

fluxgate compass

c)

directional gyro

d)

gyromagnetic compass

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 23

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
022 INSTR

104.)

105.)

106.)

107.)

108.)

In a turn at a constant angle of bank, the turn indicator reading is:


a)

proportional to the aircraft weight

b)

independent to the aircraft true airspeed

c)

proportional to the aircraft true airspeed

d)

inversely proportional to the aircraft true airspeed

At a low bank angle, the measurement of rate-of-turn actually consists in measuring


the:
a)

roll rate of the aircraft.

b)

yaw rate of the aircraft.

c)

pitch rate of the aircraft.

d)

bank of the aircraft.

The rate-of-turn is the:


a)

pitch rate in a turn

b)

yaw rate in a turn

c)

change-of-heading rate of the aircraft

d)

aircraft speed in a turn

On the ground, during a right turn, the turn indicator indicates:


a)

needle to the right, ball to right

b)

needle in the middle, ball to right

c)

needle to the right, ball to left

d)

needle in the middle, ball to left

On the ground, during a left turn, the turn indicator indicates:


a)

needle in the middle, ball to the right

b)

needle to the left, ball to the left

c)

needle to the left, ball to the right

d)

needle in the middle, ball to the left

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 24

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
022 INSTR

109.)

110.)

111.)

112.)

113.)

When, in flight, the needle and ball of a needle-and-ball indicator are on the left, the
aircraft is:
a)

turning right with too much bank

b)

turning left with too much bank

c)

turning left with not enough bank

d)

turning right with not enough bank

When, in flight, the needle and ball of a needle-and-ball indicator are on the right, the
aircraft is:
a)

turning left with not enough bank

b)

turning right with not enough bank

c)

turning right with too much bank

d)

turning left with too much bank

When, in flight, the needle of a needle-and-ball indicator is on the right and the ball on
the left, the aircraft is:
a)

turning right with not enough bank

b)

turning right with too much bank

c)

turning left with too much bank

d)

turning left with not enough bank

When, in flight, the needle of a needle-and-ball indicator is on the left and the ball on
the right, the aircraft is:
a)

turning right with too much bank

b)

turning left with not enough bank

c)

turning left with too much bank

d)

turning right with not enough bank

In an engine vibration monitoring system for a turbojet any vibration produced by the
engine is:
a)

fed directly to the cockpit indicator without amplification or filtering.

b)

directly proportional to engine speed.

c)

amplified and filtered before being fed to the cockpit indicator.

d)

inversely proportional to engine speed.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 25

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
022 INSTR

114.)

115.)

116.)

117.)

118.)

Which one of the following statements is true with regard to the operation of a Mach
trim system:
a)

It only operates above a pre-determined Mach number.

b)

It operates to counteract the larger than normal forward movements of the wing centre of
pressure at high subsonic airspeeds.

c)

It only operates when the autopilot is engaged.

d)

It operates over the full aircraft speed range.

A closed loop control system in which a small power input controls a much larger
power output in a strictly proportionate manner is known as:
a)

a servomechanism.

b)

a feedback control circuit.

c)

an amplifier.

d)

an autopilot.

In order to measure temperature the cylinder head temperature (CHT) gauge utilises a:
a)

bourdon tube.

b)

ratiometer circuit.

c)

thermocouple consisting of two dissimilar metals.

d)

wheatstone bridge circuit.

If an EPR is set at a constant barometric pressure, with an increasing OAT, the thrust
a)

decreases.

b)

remains constant

c)

varies according to the characteristics of the engine

d)

increases

The yaw damper system controls:


a)

the rudder, with the angular rate about the yaw axis as the input signal.

b)

the ailerons, with Mach Number as the input signal.

c)

the ailerons, with the angular rate about the yaw axis as the input signal.

d)

the rudder, with Mach Number as the input signal.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 26

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
022 INSTR

119.)

120.)

121.)

122.)

Considering an airspeed indicator, a second stripped needle, if installed, indicates:


a)

maximum operating speed (VMO).

b)

never-exceed speed (VNE).

c)

never-exceed speed (VNE) or maximum operating speed (VMO), depending on which is


the higher.

d)

never-exceed speed (VNE) or maximum operating speed (VMO), depending on which is


the lowest.

The flight director is engaged in the heading select mode (HDG SEL) , heading 180
selected. When heading is 160, the vertical bar of the FD:
a)

is cantered if the aircraft has a 20 right drift.

b)

is cantered if the aircraft has a 20 left drift.

c)

cannot be cantered.

d)

is cantered if the bank angle of the aircraft is equal to the bank angle computed by the
flight director calculator.

The airspeed indicator of a twin-engine aircraft comprises different sectors and colour
marks. The blue line corresponds to the:
a)

minimum control speed, or VMC

b)

maximum speed in operations, or VMO

c)

speed not to be exceeded, or VNE

d)

optimum climbing speed with one engine inoperative, or Vy

The RPM indicator (or tachometer) of a piston engine can include a small red arc
within the arc normally used (green arc)
In the RPM range corresponding to this small red arc the:
a)

propeller generates vibration, continuous rating is forbidden

b)

rating is the maximum possible in continuous mode

c)

rating is the minimum usable in cruise

d)

propeller efficiency is minimum at this rating

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 27

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
022 INSTR

123.)

124.)

125.)

126.)

Different pressure sensors are used according to the intensity of the pressure
measured (low, medium or high)
Classify the following sensors by order of increasing pressure for which they are
suitable:
1- bellows type
2- Bourdon tube type
3- aneroid capsule type
a)

1,2,3

b)

3,2,1

c)

3,1,2

d)

2,1,3

TCAS 2 (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) uses for its operation:


a)

the replies from the transponders of other aircrafts.

b)

the echoes of collision avoidance radar system especially installed on board.

c)

the echoes from the ground air traffic control radar system.

d)

both the replies from the transponders of other aircraft and the ground-based radar
echoes.

The Mach number is:


a)

a direct function of temperature ; it varies in proportion to the square root of the absolute
temperature

b)

the ratio of the indicated airspeed to the sonic velocity at the altitude considered

c)

the ratio of the aircraft true airspeed to the sonic velocity at the altitude considered

d)

the ratio of the aircraft conventional airspeed to the sonic velocity at the altitude
considered

Mach Trim is a device to compensate for:


a)

the effects of fuel transfer between the main tanks and the tank located in the horizontal
tail

b)

backing of the aerodynamic centre at high Mach numbers by moving the elevator to noseup

c)

weight reduction resulting from fuel consumption during the cruise

d)

the effects of temperature variation during a climb or descent at constant Mach

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 28

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
022 INSTR

127.)

128.)

129.)

130.)

131.)

When available, the yaw damper indicator supplies the pilot with information
regarding the:
a)

rudder displacement by the rudder pedals

b)

rudder position

c)

yaw damper action on the rudder

d)

yaw damper action only on the ground

In An Air Data Computer (ADC), aeroplane altitude is calculated from:


a)

The difference between absolute and dynamic pressure at the fuselage

b)

Measurement of absolute barometric pressure from a static source on the fuselage

c)

Measurement of elapsed time for a radio signal transmitted to the ground surface and
back

d)

Measurement of outside air temperature (OAT)

Indication of Mach number is obtained from:


a)

A kind of echo sound comparing velocity of sound with indicated speed

b)

Indicated speed (IAS) compared with true air speed (TAS) from the air data computer

c)

Indicated speed and altitude using a speed indicator equipped with an altimeter type
aneroid

d)

An ordinary airspeed indicator scaled for Mach numbers instead of knots

An aircraft is equipped with one altimeter that is compensated for position error and
another one altimeter that is not. Assuming all other factors are equal, during a
straight symmetrical flight :
a)

the greater the speed, the lower the error between the two altimeters.

b)

the greater the speed, the greater the error between the two altimeters.

c)

the lower the speed, the greater the error between the two altimeters.

d)

the error between the two altimeters does not depend on the speed.

A Stand-by-horizon or emergency attitude indicator:


a)

Is automatically connected to the primary vertical gyro if the alternator fails

b)

Contains its own separate gyro

c)

Is fully independent of external energy resources in an emergency situation

d)

Only works of there is a complete electrical failure

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 29

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
022 INSTR

132.)

133.)

134.)

135.)

Mode "Localizer ARM" active on Flight Director means:


a)

System is armed for localizer approach and coupling will occur upon capturing centre
line

b)

Coupling has occurred and system provides control data to capture the centreline

c)

Localizer is armed and coupling will occur when flag warning disappears

d)

Localizer ALARM, making localizer approach not authorized

The purpose of Auto Throttle is:


a)

automatic shut down of one engine at too high temperature

b)

to deactivate manual throttles and transfer engine control to Auto Pilot

c)

to maintain constant engine power or airplane speed

d)

to synchronize engines to avoid "yawing"

The purpose of Auto Trim function in autopilot is to:


a)

control elevator trim tab in order to relieve elevator load

b)

trim throttles to obtain smooth engine power variation

c)

help Auto Pilot compensate for crosswind influence

d)

tell the pilot when elevator trimming is required

The altitude alerting system:


a)

alerts the flight crew upon approaching a pre-selected altitude.

b)

generates a signal once the aircraft is steady at the pre-selected altitude.

c)

alerts the flight crew in case of ground proximity.

d)

alerts the flight crew in case of an autopilot disengagement.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 30

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
022 INSTR

136.)

137.)

138.)

139.)

The signal supplied by a transmitter fitted with a 3-phase AC generator, connected to


RPM indicator, is:
a)

an AC voltage, the frequency of which varies with the RPM; the indicator converts the
signal into square pulses which are then counted

b)

a three-phase voltage, the frequency of which varies with the RPM; the indicator is
provided with a motor which drives a magnetic tachometer

c)

an AC voltage varying with the RPM; the indicator rectifies the signal via a diode bridge
and is provided with a voltmeter

d)

a DC voltage varying with the RPM; the indicator is a plain voltmeter with a rev/min.
scale

The signal supplied by a transmitter fitted with a magnetic sensor, connected to an


RPM indicator is:
a)

an AC voltage, the frequency of which varies with the RPM; the indicator converts the
signal into square pulses which are then counted

b)

an AC voltage varying with the RPM ; the indicator rectifies the signal via a diode bridge
and is provided with a voltmeter

c)

a three-phase voltage frequency varies with the RPM; the indicator is provided with a
motor which drives a magnetic tachometer

d)

a DC voltage varying with the RPM ; the indicator is a simple voltmeter with a rev/min.
scale

A vibration indicator receives a signal from different sensors (accelerometers). It


indicates the:
a)

vibration period expressed in seconds

b)

vibration frequency expressed in Hz

c)

acceleration measured by the sensors, expressed in g

d)

vibration amplitude at a given frequency

The altimeter consists of one or several aneroid capsules located in a sealed casing.
The pressures in the aneroid capsule (i) and casing (ii) are respectively:
a)

(i) total pressure

b)

(i) vacuum (or a very low pressure) (ii) static pressure

c)

(i) static pressure at time t

(ii) static pressure at time t - dt

d)

(i) static pressure

(ii) total pressure

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

(ii) static pressure

page: 31

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
022 INSTR

140.)

141.)

142.)

The transmitter of RPM indicator may consist of:


1- a magnetic sensor supplying an induced AC voltage
2- a DC generator supplying a DC voltage
3- a single-phase AC generator supplying an AC voltage
4- a three-phase AC generator supplying a three-phase voltage
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
a)

1,2,3,4

b)

1,2,3

c)

1,4

d)

2,3,4

The indication of a fuel float gauge varies with:


1- aircraft attitude
2- accelerations
3- atmospheric pressure
4- temperature
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
a)

1,2,3,4

b)

1,2,4

c)

1,2

d)

The operation of the GPWS (Ground Proximity Warning System) is governed by laws
taking the aircraft height into account as well as:
1- the descent rate
2- the climb rate
3- the aircraft configuration
4- the selected engine rpm
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
a)

1,2,4

b)

1,3

c)

2,4

d)

2,3

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 32

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
022 INSTR

143.)

144.)

145.)

146.)

147.)

Concerning the TCAS (Traffic Collision Avoidance System):


a)

In one of the system modes, the warning: "TOO LOW TERRAIN" is generated

b)

Resolution Advisory (RA) must not be followed without obtaining clearance from ATC

c)

No protection is available against aircraft not equipped with a serviceable SSR


transponder

d)

In one of the system modes, the warning: "PULL UP" is generated

The TCAS 2 (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) gives avoidance resolutions:


a)

in horizontal and vertical planes

b)

based on speed control

c)

only in the vertical plane

d)

only in the horizontal plane

In the event of a conflict, the TCAS 2 (Traffic Collision alert and Avoidance System)
presents warnings to the crew such as:
a)

"Glide Slope"

b)

"Too low terrain"

c)

"Climb" or "Descent"

d)

"Turn left" or "Turn right"

The principle of the TCAS (Traffic Collision Avoidance Systems) is based on the use
of:
a)

air traffic control radar systems

b)

F.M.S. (Flight Management System)

c)

airborne weather radar system

d)

transponders fitted in the aircraft

An aircraft is flying at flight level FL180 and Mach number 0.36. Its onboard
thermometer reads TAT = - 5C. Considering that the probe recovery coefficient is
0.84, the present weather conditions compared with the standard atmosphere are:
a)

Standard + 20C

b)

Standard

c)

Standard + 30C

d)

Standard + 10C

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 33

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
022 INSTR

148.)

149.)

150.)

151.)

In the absence of position and instrumental errors, IAS is equal to:


a)

KAS

b)

EAS

c)

CAS

d)

TAS

One of the errors inherent in a ring laser gyroscope occurs at low input rotation rates
tending towards zero when a phenomenon known as 'lock-in' is experienced. What is
the name of the technique, effected by means of a piezo-electric motor, that is used
a)

dither

b)

zero drop

c)

beam lock

d)

cavity rotation

A gyromagnetic compass is a system which always consists of:


1 - a horizontal axis gyro
2 - a vertical axis gyro
3 - an earth's magnetic field detector
4 - an erection mechanism to maintain the gyro axis horizontal
5 - a torque motor to make the gyro precess in azimuth
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
a)

1, 3, 4, 5.

b)

2, 3, 5.

c)

1, 4.

d)

2, 3.

A radio altimeter can be defined as a:


a)

self-contained on-board aid used to measure the true height of the aircraft

b)

ground radio aid used to measure the true height of the aircraft

c)

self-contained on-board aid used to measure the true altitude of the aircraft

d)

ground radio aid used to measure the true altitude of the aircraft

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 34

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
022 INSTR

152.)

153.)

154.)

155.)

The Ground Proximity Warning System (GPWS) generates the following sound signal
or signals when the aircraft is sinking after a take-off or a go-around:
a)

WHOOP WHOOP PULL UP repetitive only

b)

DON'T SINK repetitive only

c)

DON'T SINK always followed by WHOOP WHOOP PULL UP

d)

DON'T SINK followed by WHOOP WHOOP PULL UP if the sink rate overshoots a
second level

A ground proximity warning system (GPWS), when mandatory installed on board an


aircraft, must in all cases generate:
a)

a visual alarm to which a sound alarm can be

b)

a sound alarm or a visual alarm

c)

a sound and visual alarm

d)

at least one sound alarm to which a visual alarm can be added

The essential components of a flight director are:


1- a computer
2- an automatic pilot
3- an auto-throttle
4- command bars
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
a)

2,3

b)

2,4

c)

1,2

d)

1,4

An aircraft is descending from FL 390 to ground level at maximum speed. The limits in
speed will be:
a)

the VMO only.

b)

initially the VMO, then the MMO below a certain flight level.

c)

the MMO only.

d)

initially the MMO, then the VMO below a certain flight level.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 35

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
022 INSTR

156.)

157.)

158.)

The functions of the altitude alerting system is to alert the flight crew:
1 - upon approaching a pre-selected altitude
2 - upon approaching a pre-selected altitude, during climb only
3 - of a loss of altitude during take-off or missed approach
4 - of a wrong landing configuration
5 - when deviating from the selected altitude
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
a)

3, 4.

b)

1, 5.

c)

1, 3, 4.

d)

2, 5.

During the approach, a crew reads on the radio altimeter the value of 650 ft. This is an
indication of the true:
a)

altitude of the aircraft.

b)

height of the aircraft with regard to the runway.

c)

height of the aircraft with regard to the ground at any time.

d)

height of the lowest wheels with regard to the ground at any time.

The GPWS warns the crew in case of:


1 - an altitude at a lower level than the one shown in the flight plan entered in the FMS.
2 - a dangerous ground proximity.
3 - a loss of altitude during take-off or missed approach.
4 - a wrong landing configuration.
5 - a descent below glidepath.
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
a)

1,3,4

b)

2,3,4,5

c)

d)

2,5

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 36

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
022 INSTR

159.)

160.)

161.)

162.)

The rate of turn indicator uses a gyroscope:


1 - the spinning wheel axis of which is parallel to the yawing axis.
2 - the spinning wheel axis of which is parallel to the pitch axis.
3 - the spinning wheel axis of which is parallel to the roll axis.
4 - with one degree of freedom.
5 - with two degrees of freedom
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
NB: the degree(s) of freedom of a gyro does not take into account its rotor spin axis.
a)

3, 5.

b)

1, 5.

c)

2, 4.

d)

3, 4.

In case of accidental closing of an aircraft's left static pressure port (rain, birds), the
altimeter:
a)

keeps on providing reliable reading in all situations

b)

overreads the altitude in case of a side-slip to the right and displays the correct
information during symmetric flight.

c)

overreads the altitude in case of a sideslip to the left and displays the correct information
during symmetric flight.

d)

underreads the altitude.

In the building principle of a gyroscope, the best efficiency is obtained through the
concentration of the mass:
a)

on the periphery and with a low rotation speed.

b)

on the periphery and with a high rotation speed.

c)

close to the axis and with a low rotation speed.

d)

close to the axis and with a high rotation speed.

The Ground Proximity Warning System (GPWS) is a system working according to a


height span ranging from:
a)

50 ft to 2 500 ft

b)

30 ft to 5 000 ft

c)

the ground to 1 000 ft

d)

the ground to 500 ft

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 37

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
022 INSTR

163.)

164.)

165.)

166.)

167.)

On a modern aircraft, the flight director modes are displayed on the:


a)

upper strip of the ND (Navigation Display).

b)

upper strip of the PFD (Primary Flight Display).

c)

control panel of the flight director only.

d)

upper strip of the ECAM (Electronic Centralized A/C Management).

In order to know in which mode the auto-throttles are engaged, the crew will check
the:
a)

ND (Navigation Display).

b)

PFD (Primary Flight Display)

c)

throttles position.

d)

TCC (Thrust Control Computer).

The flight director provides information for the pilot:


a)

to join a desired track with a 45 intercept angle.

b)

to join to a desired path with the optimum attitude.

c)

to join a desired track with a constant bank angle of 25.

d)

to remain within the flight envelope.

(For this question use annex 022-9771A)


The atmospheric pressure at FL 70 in a "standard + 10" atmosphere is:
a)

942.13 hPa.

b)

644.41 hPa.

c)

781.85 hPa.

d)

1 013.25 hPa.

The QNH is by definition the value of the:


a)

altimeter setting so that the altimeter, on the apron of the aerodrome for which it is given,
reads the elevation.

b)

atmospheric pressure at the sea level of the location for which it is given.

c)

atmospheric pressure at the level of the ground overflown by the aircraft.

d)

altimeter setting so that the altimeter, on the apron of the aerodrome for which it is given,
reads zero.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 38

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
022 INSTR

168.)

169.)

170.)

171.)

172.)

To be as accurate as possible, an anemometer must be calibrated according to the


following formula:
a)

Bernoulli, taking into account the air compressibility.

b)

Saint-Venant, taking into account the air compressibility.

c)

Bernoulli, considering the air as an uncompressible fluid.

d)

Saint-Venant, considering the air as an uncompressible fluid.

Sound propagates through the air at a speed which only depends on:
a)

pressure.

b)

temperature and the pressure.

c)

density.

d)

temperature.

The velocity of sound at the sea level in a standard atmosphere is:


a)

644 kt.

b)

332 kt.

c)

661 kt.

d)

1059 kt.

Given:
Pt: total pressure
Ps: static pressure
Pd: dynamic pressure
The altimeter is fed by:
a)

Ps-Pt.

b)

Pt-Pd.

c)

Pd-Ps.

d)

Pd.

In a standard atmosphere and at the sea level, the calibrated airspeed (CAS) is:
a)

higher than the true airspeed (TAS).

b)

equal to the true airspeed (TAS).

c)

lower than the true airspeed (TAS).

d)

independent of the true airspeed (TAS).

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 39

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
022 INSTR

173.)

174.)

175.)

176.)

The total pressure probe (pitot tube) is mounted at a distance from the aeroplane skin
such that:
a)

it is located outside the boundary layer.

b)

it is easily accessible during maintenance checks.

c)

it does not disturb the aerodynamic flow around the aircraft.

d)

it is protected from icing.

Below the tropopause, when descending at constant CAS:


a)

Mach number increases and the velocity of sound decreases.

b)

Mach number decreases and the velocity of sound increases.

c)

Mach number and the velocity of sound decrease.

d)

Mach number and the velocity of sound increase.

The GPWS calculator receives the following signals:


1 - vertical speed
2 - radio altimeter height
3 - pressure altitude
4 - glidepath deviation
5 - gear and flaps position
6 - flight path angle
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
a)

2,3,4,6

b)

1,2,4,5

c)

1,3,4,5,6

d)

1,2,5,6

The GPWS calculator is able to operate in the following modes:


1- excessive descent rate
2- excessive rate of terrain closure
3- excessive angle of attack
4- too high descent attitude
5- loss of altitude after take-off
6- abnormal gear/flaps configuration
7- excessive glidepath deviation
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
a)

3,4,5,6

b)

1,2,4,6,7

c)

1,2,5,6,7

d)

2,3,5,7

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 40

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
022 INSTR

177.)

178.)

179.)

The main input data to the Stall Warning Annunciator System are:
1- Mach Meter indication
2- Angle of Attack
3- Indicate Airspeed (IAS)
4- Aircraft configuration (Flaps/Slats)
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
a)

1,2

b)

1,4

c)

2,3

d)

2,4

The TCAS 2 (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) provides:


1- traffic information (TA: Traffic Advisory)
2- horizontal resolution (RA: Resolution Advisory)
3- vertical resolution (RA: Resolution Advisory)
4- ground proximity warning
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
a)

1, 2

b)

1, 2, 3, 4

c)

1, 3

d)

1, 2, 3

The TCAS (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) computer receives information:


1 - about the aircraft true airspeed
2 - about the airplane configuration
3 - about the pressure altitude through the mode C transponder
4 - from the radio altimeter
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
a)

1, 2,3.

b)

2, 3, 4.

c)

1, 2, 4.

d)

1, 3, 4.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 41

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
022 INSTR

180.)

181.)

182.)

183.)

The stall warning system receives information about the:


1- airplane angle of attack
2- airplane speed
3- airplane bank angle
4- airplane configuration
5- load factor on the airplane
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
a)

1, 3, 5

b)

1, 4

c)

2, 3, 4, 5

d)

1, 2, 3, 4, 5

When the intruding aircraft is equipped with a transponder without altitude reporting
capability, the TCAS (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) issues a:
a)

"traffic advisory" and horizontal "resolution advisory".

b)

"traffic advisory" and vertical "resolution advisory".

c)

"traffic advisory", vertical and horizontal "resolution advisory".

d)

"traffic advisory" only.

When the intruding aircraft is equipped with a serviceable mode C transponder, the
TCAS 2 (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) generates a:
a)

"traffic advisory" and horizontal "resolution advisory".

b)

"traffic advisory" and vertical "resolution advisory".

c)

"traffic advisory", vertical and horizontal "resolution advisory".

d)

vertical "traffic advisory" and an horizontal "resolution advisory".

The GPWS (Ground Proximity Warning System) releases a warning in the following
cases:
1- excessive rate of descent
2- excessive ground proximity rate
3- loss of altitude after take-off or go-around
4- abnormal gear/flaps configuration
5- excessive deviation under the glidepath
6- abnormal airbrakes configuration
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
a)

3, 4, 5, 6

b)

1, 2, 3, 4, 5

c)

2, 4, 5, 6

d)

1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 42

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
022 INSTR

184.)

185.)

186.)

187.)

On a TCAS2 (Traffic Collision Avoidance System), a corrective "resolution advisory"


(RA) is a "resolution advisory":
a)

asking the pilot to modify the heading of his aircraft.

b)

which does not require any action from the pilot but on the contrary asks him not to
modify his current vertical speed rate.

c)

asking the pilot to modify the speed of his aircraft.

d)

asking the pilot to modify effectively the vertical speed of his aircraft.

On a TCAS 2 (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) the preventive "resolution


advisory" (RA) is a "resolution advisory":
a)

that advises the pilot to avoid certain deviations from the current vertical rate but does not
require any change to be made to that rate.

b)

asking the pilot to modify the heading of his aircraft.

c)

asking the pilot to modify effectively the vertical speed of his aircraft.

d)

asking the pilot to modify the speed of his aircraft.

On the display of a TCAS 2 (Traffic alert and Collision Avoidance System), a traffic
advisory (TA) is represented by:
a)

an amber solid circle.

b)

a red full square.

c)

a white or cyan empty lozenge.

d)

a white or cyan solid lozenge.

On the display of a TCAS 2 (Traffic alert and Collision Avoidance System), a


resolution advisory (RA) is represented by:
a)

a red full square.

b)

an amber solid circle.

c)

a white or cyan empty lozenge.

d)

a white or cyan solid lozenge.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 43

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
022 INSTR

188.)

189.)

190.)

191.)

192.)

On the display of a TCAS II (Traffic alert and Collision Avoidance System), a proximate
traffic is represented by:
a)

an amber solid circle.

b)

a white or cyan solid lozenge.

c)

a red full square.

d)

a white or cyan empty lozenge.

The float type fuel gauges provide information on:


a)

mass whose indication is independent of the temperature of the fuel.

b)

mass whose indication varies with the temperature of the fuel.

c)

volume whose indication is independent of the temperature of the fuel.

d)

volume whose indication varies with the temperature of the fuel.

The sensors used to measure the exhaust gas temperature on an aircraft equipped
with turbojets are:
a)

thermocouples.

b)

based on metallic conductors whose resistance increases linearly with temperature.

c)

based on metallic parts whose expansion/contraction is measured.

d)

capacitors whose capacity varies proportionally with temperature.

The measurement of the turbine temperature or of the EGT (Exhaust Gas


Temperature) is carried out at the:
a)

high pressure chamber intake.

b)

combustion chamber intake.

c)

combustion chamber outlet.

d)

high pressure turbine outlet.

The flight director indicates the:


a)

path permitting reaching a selected radial in minimum time.

b)

optimum path at the moment it is entered to reach a selected radial.

c)

path permitting reaching a selected radial over a minimum distance.

d)

optimum instantaneous path to reach selected radial.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 44

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
022 INSTR

193.)

194.)

195.)

196.)

During an automatic landing, between 50 FT AGL and touch down, the autopilot
maintains:
a)

a vertical speed according to the GPS height.

b)

a vertical speed according to the radio altimeter height.

c)

a constant flight path angle with reference to the ground.

d)

a constant vertical speed.

The stick shaker calculator receives the following information:


1- mass of the airplane
2- angle of attack
3- wing flap deflection
4- position of the landing gear
5- total air temperature
6- pressure altitude
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
a)

2, 3

b)

2, 3, 5

c)

1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6

d)

1, 2, 3, 4

The automatic trim is a component of the autopilot pitch channel. Its function is to:
a)

set the attitude to an instantaneous value before engaging the autopilot.

b)

reset the attitude, after engaging (the autopilot).

c)

automatically disengage the autopilot in the case of an excessive pitch up.

d)

transfer a stabilized aeroplane to the pilot during autopilot disengagement.

Magnetic compass errors are:


a)

parallax errors due to compass rose oscillations.

b)

due to Schuler oscillations.

c)

due to the lateral gusts which occur when the airplane is heading eastward or westward.

d)

about north change, depending on the bank angle and magnetic heading.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 45

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
022 INSTR

197.)

198.)

199.)

200.)

The elements which take part in the local vertical alignment of an inertial strap-down
unit are:
a)

the flow inductors.

b)

the accelerometers.

c)

the gyroscopes.

d)

the accelerometers and gyroscopes.

The range of a low altitude radio altimeter is:


a)

500 ft.

b)

greater than 10 000 ft.

c)

10 000 ft.

d)

2 500 ft.

In an inertial reference system (IRS), the alignment sequence consists in:


1 - search and alignment on the local vertical
2 - search for the true North
3 - definition of the latitude
4 - definition of the longitude
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
a)

1, 2, 3.

b)

1, 2, 4.

c)

1, 2, 3, 4.

d)

3, 4.

The auto-throttle:
1- enable to catch and to maintain the N1 RPM
2- enable to catch and to maintain the N2 RPM3- enable to catch and to maintain an airplane indicated airspeed (IAS)
4- is always engaged automatically at the same time as the autopilot
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
a)

1 and 4

b)

1, 3 and 4

c)

2 and 3

d)

1 and 3

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 46

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
022 INSTR

201.)

202.)

203.)

An aircraft is equipped with an autopilot and an auto-throttle. When the altitude hold
mode (ALT HOLD) is active:
a)

the indicated airspeed (IAS) is maintained constant by the autopilot by means of elevator.

b)

the indicated airspeed (IAS) is maintained constant by the auto-throttle system.

c)

the true airspeed (TAS) is maintained constant by the auto-throttle system.

d)

the true airspeed (TAS) is maintained constant by the autopilot by means of elevator.

An air data computer


1. supplies the ground speed and the drift (angle)
2. determines the total temperature and the true altitude
3. receives the static pressure and the total pressure
4. supplies the true airspeed to the inertial unit
5. determines the Mach number, the outside (static) air temperature
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
a)

2, 3 and 4

b)

3, 4 and 5

c)

2 and 5

d)

1 and 2

The mode selector of an inertial unit comprises the OFF - STBY - ALIGN - NAV ATT
positions:
1 - on "STBY", the unit aligns on the local geographic trihedron;
2 - the "ATT" position is used in automatic landing (mode LAND);
3 - on "NAV" the coordinates of the start position can be entered;
4 - the platform is levelled before azimuth alignment;
5 - in cruise, the unit can only be used in "NAV" mode.
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
a)

1, 3, 5.

b)

4.

c)

2, 5.

d)

1, 2, 4.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 47

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
022 INSTR

204.)

205.)

206.)

The CVR (Cockpit Voice Recorder) includes:


1. a microphone
2. a recorder in compliance with the shock and fire resistance standards
3. an independent battery
4. a flight data recorder
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
a)

1, 2, 3, 4

b)

1, 4

c)

1, 2

d)

2, 4

The automatic synchronisation function of an autopilot control system:


1 - operates only when the autopilot is engaged
2 - prevents the aircraft's control system from jerking when disengaging the autopilot
3 - enables the cancellation of the rudder control signals
4 - prevents the aircraft's control system from jerking when engaging the autopilot
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
a)

1, 2, 4.

b)

1, 4.

c)

1, 2.

d)

4.

A Full Authority Digital Engine Control (FADEC) has the following functions:
1- flow regulation (fuel, decelerations and accelerations monitoring)
2- automatic starting sequence
3- transmissions of engine data to the pilot's instruments
4- thrust management and protection of operation limits
5- monitoring of the thrust reversers
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
a)

1, 3, 4, 5

b)

2, 4, 5

c)

1, 2, 3, 4, 5

d)

1, 3, 5

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 48

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
022 INSTR

207.)

208.)

209.)

In a 3-phase synchronous motor type tachometer indicator:


1- the transmitter is a direct current generator
2- the voltage is proportional to the transmitter drive speed
3- the frequency is proportional to the transmitter drive speed
4- the speed indicating element is a galvanometer
5. the speed indicating element is an asynchronous motor driving a magnetic
tachometer
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
a)

1, 4

b)

3, 5

c)

2, 5

d)

1, 2

The two main sources of information used to calculate turbojet thrust are the:
a)

fan rotation speed (or N1) or the EPR (Engine Pressure Ratio).

b)

fan rotation speed (or N1) or the total pressure at the high pressure compressor outlet.

c)

fan rotation speed (or N1) or the total pressure at the low pressure turbine outlet.

d)

high pressure turbine rotation speed or the EPR (Engine Pressure Ratio).

The advantages of an "electric" fuel (float) gauge are:


1- easy construction
2- independence of indications with regard to airplane attitude
3- independence of indications with regard to the accelerations
4- independence of indications with regard to temperature variations
5- independence of indications with regard to vibrations
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
a)

1, 2, 3, 4, 5

b)

2, 3, 4

c)

2, 3, 4, 5

d)

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 49

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
022 INSTR

210.)

211.)

212.)

213.)

The disadvantages of an "electric" fuel (float) gauge are:


1- the design is complex
2- the indications are influenced by the airplane attitude variations
3- the indications are influenced by the accelerations
4- the indications are influenced by temperature variations
5- that an alternative current supply is necessary
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
a)

2, 3, 4, 5

b)

2, 3, 4

c)

1, 2, 3, 4

d)

The operating principle of an "electronic" tachometer is to measure the:


a)

frequency of the electric impulse created by a notched wheel rotating in a magnetic field.

b)

electromotive force (EMF) produced by a dynamo or an alternator.

c)

rotation speed of an asynchronous motor energized by an alternator.

d)

magnetic field produced by a dynamo or an alternator.

The operating principle of the "induction" type of tachometer is to measure the:


a)

frequency of the electric impulse created by a notched wheel rotating in a magnetic field.

b)

magnetic field produced by a dynamo or an alternator.

c)

rotation speed of an asynchronous motor energized by an alternator.

d)

electromotive force (EMF) produced by a dynamo or an alternator.

A flight control system which can, in the event of a failure, complete automatically the
approach, flare and landing is called fail ...
a)

soft.

b)

operational.

c)

hard.

d)

passive.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 50

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
022 INSTR

214.)

215.)

216.)

217.)

An automatic landing system necessitating that the landing be continued manually in


the case of a system failure during an automatic approach is called "FAIL...."
a)

"OPERATIONAL"

b)

"PASSIVE"

c)

"SAFE"

d)

"REDUNDANT"

The airplane outside air temperature "probe" measures the:


a)

"total" air temperature minus kinetic heating effects in order to obtain the static
temperature.

b)

"total" air temperature minus compressibility effects in order to obtain the static
temperature.

c)

"static" air temperature minus kinetic heating effects in order to obtain the total
temperature.

d)

"static" air temperature minus compressibility effects in order to obtain the total
temperature.

When an aircraft, operating in the VOR coupled mode, approaches the "cone of
confusion" over a VOR station, the roll channel of the autopilot:
a)

remains always coupled to the selected VOR radial.

b)

temporarily maintains a heading.

c)

is temporarily disconnected.

d)

is damped by a trim input signal from the lateral trim system.

An "altitude warning system" must at least warn the crew:


1- when approaching the pre-selected altitude
2- when the airplane is approaching the ground too fast
3- in case of a given deviation above or below the pre-selected altitude (at least by an
aural warning)
4- in case of excessive vertical speed
5- when approaching the ground with the gear retracted
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
a)

1, 3, 4

b)

2, 4, 5

c)

1, 2, 3, 4, 5

d)

1, 3

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 51

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
022 INSTR

218.)

219.)

220.)

(For this question use annex 022-10179A)


Four scenarios of VOR axis interception are represented in the appended annex. The
one corresponding to the optimal interception path calculated by a flight director is
number:
a)

b)

c)

d)

The requirement to carry a GPWS (Ground Proximity Warning System) concerns


aeroplanes which are, depending on their age, weight and passenger capacity:
1- turboprop-powered
2- piston-powered
3- jet-powered
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
a)

1, 2, 3

b)

c)

d)

1, 3

The control law of a transport airplane autopilot control channel may be defined as
the relationship between the:
a)

crew inputs to the computer and the detector responses (returned to the airplane).

b)

input and output signals at the amplifier level respectively control deviation data and
control deflection signals.

c)

computer input deviation data and the output control deflection signals.

d)

computer input deviation data and the signals received by the servoactuators.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 52

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
022 INSTR

221.)

222.)

223.)

224.)

In a transport airplane, an autopilot comprises, in addition to the mode display


devices, the following fundamental elements:
1- Airflow valve
2- Sensors
3- Comparators
4- Computers
5- Amplifiers
6- Servo-actuators
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
a)

1, 3, 4, 6

b)

1, 2, 6

c)

2, 3, 4, 5

d)

2, 3, 4, 5, 6

The basic principle of a capacitance fuel gauge system is that the:


a)

capacity of a capacitor depends on the nature of the dielectric in which it is immersed.

b)

capacity of a capacitor depends only on the density of the liquid on which it is immersed.

c)

internal resistance of a capacity depends on the nature of the dielectric in which it is


immersed.

d)

electromotive force of a capacity depends on the nature of the dielectric in which it is


immersed.

Except for airplanes under 5,7 t airworthiness certificate of which is subsequent to 31


march 1998, a flight data recording system must be able to store the recorded data for
a minimum of the last:
a)

10 hours.

b)

30 minutes.

c)

60 minutes.

d)

25 hours.

The purpose of an airplane automatic trim system is to trim out the hinge moment of
the:
a)

elevator(s)

b)

elevator(s) and rudder(s)

c)

elevator(s), rudder(s) and ailerons.

d)

rudder(s)

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 53

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
022 INSTR

225.)

226.)

227.)

228.)

If the tanks of your airplane only contain water, the capacitor gauges indicate:
a)

a mass equal to zero.

b)

the exact mass of water contained in the tanks.

c)

a mass equal to the mass of a same volume of fuel.

d)

a mass of water different from zero, but inaccurate.

A pilot engages the control wheel steering (CWS) of a conventional autopilot and
carries out a manoeuvre in roll. When the control wheel is released, the autopilot will:
a)

roll wings level and maintain the heading obtained at that moment.

b)

restore the flight attitude and the rate of turn selected on the autopilot control display unit.

c)

maintain the track and the flight attitude obtained at that moment.

d)

maintain the flight attitude obtained at that moment.

The functions of an autopilot (basic modes) consist of:


a)

guiding the airplane path.

b)

stabilizing and monitoring the movement around the airplane centre of gravity.

c)

stabilizing and monitoring the movement around the airplane aerodynamic centre.

d)

monitoring the movement of the airplane centre of gravity.

The "guidance" functions of a autopilot consist in:


a)

monitoring the movements of the aerodynamic centre in the three dimensions of space.

b)

stabilizing and monitoring the movements around the centre of gravity.

c)

stabilizing and monitoring the movements around the aerodynamic centre.

d)

monitoring the movements of the centre of gravity in the three dimensions of space.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 54

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
022 INSTR

229.)

230.)

231.)

232.)

The automatic power control system (auto-throttle) of a transport airplane has


thefollowing mode(s):
1- capture and holding of speeds
2- capture and holding of Mach number
3- capture and holding of flight angle of attack
4- capture and holding of N1 or EPR (Engine Power Ratio)
5- capture and holding of flight paths
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
a)

1, 2, 4

b)

1, 2, 3, 5

c)

1, 4, 5

d)

2, 4

The command bars of a flight director are generally represented on an:


a)

RMI (Radio Magnetic Indicator)

b)

ADI (Attitude Director Indicator)

c)

HSI (Horizontal Situation Indicator)

d)

ILS (Instrument Landing System)

(For this question use annex 022-10217A)


After having programmed your flight director, you see that the indications of your ADI
(Attitude Director Indicator) are as represented in diagram N1 of the appended annex.
On this instrument, the command bars indicate that you must bank your airplane to
the left and:
a)

increase the flight attitude until the command bars recentre on the symbolic airplane.

b)

increase the flight attitude until the command bars recentre on the horizon.

c)

decrease the flight attitude until the command bars recentre on the symbolic airplane.

d)

decrease the flight attitude until the command bars recentre on the horizon.

An autopilot capable of holding at least altitude and heading mode is compulsory:


a)

on multi-pilot airplanes.

b)

for IFR or night flights with only one pilot.

c)

on airplanes over 5.7 t.

d)

for VFR and IFR flights with only one pilot.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 55

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
022 INSTR

233.)

234.)

235.)

Among the following functions of an autopilot, those related to the airplane


stabilization are:
1- pitch attitude holding
2- horizontal wing holding
3- displayed heading or inertial track holding
4- indicated airspeed or Mach number holding
5- yaw damping
6- VOR axis holding
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
a)

3, 4, 5, 6.

b)

1, 2.

c)

2, 4, 5.

d)

1, 2, 5.

Among the following functions of an autopilot, those related to the airplane guidance
are:
1- pitch attitude holding
2- horizontal wing holding
3- indicated airspeed or Mach number holding
4- altitude holding
5- VOR axis holding
6- yaw damping
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
a)

1, 2, 3, 6.

b)

3, 4, 5.

c)

1, 2, 6.

d)

1, 3, 4, 5.

When using the autopilot, the function of the pitch channel automatic trim is to:
1- cancel the hinge moment of the elevator
2- ease as much as possible the load of the servo-actuator
3- restore to the pilot a correctly trimmed airplane during the autopilot disengagement
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
a)

1 and 3.

b)

1 and 2.

c)

1, 2 and 3.

d)

3.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 56

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
022 INSTR

236.)

237.)

238.)

An airplane is in steady cruise at flight level 290. The auto-throttle maintains a


constant Mach number. If the total temperature increases, the calibrated airspeed:
a)

increases.

b)

increases if the static temperature is higher than the standard temperature, decreases if
lower.

c)

remains constant.

d)

decreases.

An airplane is in steady cruise at flight level 290. The auto-throttle maintains a


constant Mach number. If the total temperature decreases, the calibrated airspeed:
a)

decreases.

b)

remains constant.

c)

decreases if the outside temperature is lower than the standard temperature, increases if
higher.

d)

increases.

The calibrated airspeed (CAS) or Mach holding mode is carried out by:
1- the autopilot pitch channel in the climb mode at a constant calibrated airspeed
(CAS) or Mach number
2- the auto-throttles in the climb mode at a constant calibrated airspeed (CAS) or
Mach number
3- the autopilot pitch channel in the altitude or glide path holding mode
4- the auto-throttles in the altitude or glide path holding mode
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
a)

2 and 4.

b)

1 and 4.

c)

2 and 3.

d)

1 and 3.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 57

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
022 INSTR

239.)

240.)

241.)

When required, the ground proximity warning system (GPWS) must automatically
provide distinctive warning to the flight crew of:
1 - impeding stall
2 - excessive sink rate
3 - altitude loss after take-off or go-around
4 - incorrect landing configuration
5 - dangerous ground proximity
6 - downward glide-slope deviation
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
a)

2, 3, 4, 5, 6.

b)

1, 4, 5, 6.

c)

1, 2, 4, 5.

d)

3, 5, 6.

The calculator combined with the stick shaker system of a modern transport airplane
receives information about the:
1- angle of attack
2- engine R.P.M.
3- configuration
4- pitch and bank attitude
5- sideslip
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
a)

1 and 5.

b)

1, 2, 3 and 4.

c)

1, 2, 3, 4 and 5.

d)

1 and 3.

An angle of attack sensor may consist of:


1 - an inertial system computing the difference between flight path and flight attitude
2 - a conical slotted probe which positions itself to determine the angle of attack
3 - a vane detector which positions the rotor of a synchro
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
a)

1, 2, 3.

b)

2, 3.

c)

1, 2.

d)

1, 3.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 58

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
022 INSTR

242.)

243.)

244.)

245.)

The TCAS 2 data display devices can be in the form of:


1- a specific dedicated screen
2- a screen combined with the weather radar
3- a variometer represented on a liquid crystal screen which allows the display of
Traffic Advisory (TA) and Resolution Advisory (RA)
4- an EFIS (Electronic Flight Instrument System) screen
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
a)

1, 2, 3 and 4.

b)

1 and 3.

c)

3 and 4.

d)

1, 2 and 3.

A TCAS 2 (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) provides:


a)

a simple intruding airplane proximity warning.

b)

the intruder relative position and possibly an indication of a collision avoidance


manoeuvre within the vertical plane only.

c)

the intruder relative position and possibly an indication of a collision avoidance


manoeuvre within the horizontal plane only.

d)

the intruder relative position and possibly an indication of a collision avoidance


manoeuvre within both the vertical and horizontal planes.

The probe used to measure the air intake pressure of a gas turbine engine powerplant
is:
a)

a differential capsule.

b)

a bellows sensor.

c)

a Bourdon tube.

d)

an aneroid capsule.

A millivoltmeter measuring the electromotive force between the "hot junction" and the
"cold junction" of a thermocouple can be directly graduated in temperature values
provided that the temperature of the:
a)

hot junction is maintained constant.

b)

cold junction is maintained constant.

c)

hot junction is maintained at 15 C.

d)

cold junction is maintained at 15 C.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 59

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
022 INSTR

246.)

247.)

248.)

249.)

The electric float gauge:


1 - gives a mass information;
2 - gives information independent of aircraft's manoeuvres and attitude changes;
3 - gives information all the more accurate as the tank is full;
4 - is typically a DC powered system.
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
a)

1.

b)

4.

c)

1, 3, 4.

d)

1, 2, 3, 4.

The gauge indicating the quantity of fuel measured by a capacity gauging system can
be graduated directly in weight units because the dielectric constant of fuel is:
a)

twice that of air and varies inversely with density.

b)

twice that of air and varies directly with density.

c)

the same as that of air and varies directly with density.

d)

the same as that of air and varies inversely with density.

When compared with the volumetric fuel flowmeter, the mass fuel flowmeter takes
into account the fuel:
a)

temperature.

b)

pressure.

c)

turbulent flow in the line.

d)

density.

The advantages of an electrical induction tachometer are:


1- the display is not sensitive to line resistance
2- the measurement is independent of aircraft power supply
3- the measurement is independent of temperature variations
4- the option to use without restriction several indicators connected in parallel to a
single transmitter
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
a)

2, 3, 4.

b)

1, 2, 3, 4.

c)

1, 3, 4.

d)

1, 2, 4.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 60

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
022 INSTR

250.)

251.)

252.)

253.)

The electronic tachometer sensor is composed of:


a)

a notched wheel rotating in front of an electro-magnet.

b)

the rotor of a three-phase A.C. generator.

c)

the rotor of a single phase A.C. generator.

d)

a circular magnet with four poles.

The automatic pitch trim:


1 - ensures the aeroplane is properly trimmed when the autopilot is engaged.
2 - permits the elevator to always be in neutral position with respect to horizontal
stabiliser;
3 - ensures the aeroplane is properly trimmed when the autopilot is disengaged.
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is
a)

2, 3.

b)

1, 2.

c)

1, 2, 3.

d)

1, 3.

The angle of attack transmitter placed laterally on the forward part of the fuselage
supplies an electrical signal which can indicate the angular position of:
1 - a specific slaved pitot probe ;
2 - a vane detector ;
3 - a conical slotted probe .
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is
a)

1, 2.

b)

1, 3.

c)

2, 3.

d)

1, 2, 3.

The purpose of the altitude alert system is to generate a visual and aural warning to
the pilot when the:
a)

airplane altitude differs from a selected altitude.

b)

airplane altitude is equal to the decision altitude.

c)

proximity to the ground becomes dangerous.

d)

altimeter setting differs from the standard setting above the transition altitude.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 61

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
022 INSTR

254.)

255.)

256.)

The advantages of a D.C. generator tachometer are:


1- easy transmission of the information.
2- independence of the information relative to the airborne electrical power supply.
3- freedom from any spurious current due to the commutator.
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
a)

2, 3.

b)

1, 3.

c)

1, 2.

d)

1, 2, 3.

The advantages of single-phase A.C. generator tachometer are:


1- the suppression of spurious signals due to a D.C. generator commutator
2- the importance of line resistance on the information value
3- the independence of the information in relation to the airborne electrical power
supply
4- the ease of transmission of the information
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
a)

2, 3, 4.

b)

2, 4.

c)

1, 3.

d)

1, 2, 3, 4.

The disadvantages of a single-phase A.C. generator tachometer are:


1- the presence of spurious signals due to a D.C. generator commutator
2- the importance of line resistance on the information value
3- the influence of temperature on the tachometer information
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
a)

1, 3.

b)

2.

c)

1, 2, 3.

d)

1, 2.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 62

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
022 INSTR

257.)

258.)

259.)

The stall warning system of a large transport airplane includes:


1- an angle of attack sensor
2- a computer
3- a transmitter originating from the anemometer
4- an independent pitot probe
5- a transmitter of the flap/slat position indicating system
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
a)

1, 2, 5.

b)

1, 2, 4.

c)

1, 4.

d)

1, 2, 4, 5.

The inputs to the GPWS (Ground Proximity Warning System), are:


1- Air Data Computer - (Mach number and Vertical Speed)
2- Radio Altimeter
3- NAV/ILS (Glide Slope)
4- NAV/VOR
5- Flap (position)
6- Weight of the aircraft
7- Landing Gear (position)
The combination of correct statement is:
a)

1,2,3,5,7

b)

2, 4, 5, 6.

c)

2, 5, 6.

d)

1, 4, 7.

If an aircraft is flying (with flaps and landing gear retracted) in proximity to terrain and
its GPWS (Ground Proximity Warning System) get activated, because it is detecting
that the aeroplane has an excessive rate of descent, the system provides the
following aural warning signals:
a)

"SINK RATE, SINK RATE" followed by "WHOOP WHOOP PULL UP" (twice)

b)

"TOO LOW, TERRAIN" (twice) followed by "TOO LOW GEAR" (twice)

c)

"TERRAIN, TERRAIN" followed by "WHOOP WHOOP PULL UP" (twice)

d)

"DON'T SINK, DON'T SINK"

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 63

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
022 INSTR

260.)

261.)

262.)

263.)

If the GPWS (Ground Proximity Warning System) activates, and alerts the pilot with an
aural warning "DON'T SINK" (twice times), it is because:
a)

the aircraft experiences an unexpected proximity to terrain, without landing-flap selected.

b)

at too low altitude, the aircraft has an excessive rate of descent.

c)

during take-off or missed approach manoeuvre, the aircraft has started to loose altitude.

d)

the aircraft experiences an unexpected proximity to the terrain, with landing gear
retracted.

(For this question use annex 022-11232A)


After having programmed your flight director, you see that the indications of your ADI
(Attitude Director indicator) are as represented in diagram N1 of the appended annex.
On this instrument, the command bars indicate that you must:
a)

increase the flight attitude and bank your aeroplane to the right until the command bars
recentre on the symbolic aeroplane.

b)

increase the flight attitude and bank your airplane to the left until the command bars
recentre on the symbolic aeroplane.

c)

decrease the flight attitude and bank your airplane to the right until the command bars
recentre on the symbolic aeroplane.

d)

decrease the flight attitude and bank your airplane to the left until the command bars
recentre on the symbolic aeroplane.

An aeroplane is in steady cruise at flight level 270. The auto-throttle maintains a


constant calibrated airspeed. If the static air temperature increases, the Mach number:
a)

decreases.

b)

increases.

c)

remains constant.

d)

decreases if the outside temperature is higher than the standard temperature, increases if
lower.

An aeroplane is in steady cruise at flight level 270. The auto-throttle maintains a


constant calibrated airspeed. If the static air temperature decreases, the Mach
number:
a)

decreases.

b)

remains constant.

c)

increases.

d)

increases if the outside temperature is higher than the standard temperature, decreases if
lower.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 64

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
022 INSTR

264.)

265.)

266.)

267.)

268.)

An aeroplane is in a steady climb. The auto-throttle maintains a constant Mach


number. If the total temperature remains constant, the calibrated airspeed:
a)

remains constant.

b)

decreases if the static temperature is lower than the standard temperature, increases if
higher.

c)

increases.

d)

decreases.

An aeroplane is in steady descent. The auto-throttle maintains a constant calibrated


airspeed. If the total temperature remains constant, the Mach number:
a)

decreases.

b)

increases.

c)

increases if the static temperature is lower than the standard temperature, decreases if
higher.

d)

remains constant.

An aeroplane is in steady climb. The auto-throttle maintains a constant calibrated


airspeed. If the total temperature remains constant, the Mach number:
a)

increases.

b)

decreases if the static temperature is lower than the standard temperature.

c)

decreases.

d)

remains constant.

The vertical speed indicator (VSI) is fed by:


a)

dynamic pressure

b)

total pressure

c)

differential pressure

d)

static pressure

The altimeter is supplied with:


a)

static pressure.

b)

total pressure.

c)

dynamic pressure.

d)

differential pressure.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 65

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
022 INSTR

269.)

270.)

271.)

272.)

When being engaged, and without selecting a particular mode, an automatic pilot
enables:
a)

aeroplane piloting and guidance functions.

b)

a constant speed on track, wings horizontal.

c)

aeroplane stabilisation with attitude hold or maintaining vertical speed and possibly
automatic trim.

d)

all aeroplane piloting and guidance functions except maintaining radio-navigation course
lines.

An autopilot system:
a)

must provide at least aircraft guidance functions.

b)

may provide automatic take off functions.

c)

must provide at least aircraft stabilisation functions.

d)

must provide automatic take off functions.

An aircraft flies steadily on a heading 270. The flight director is engaged in the
heading select mode (HDG SEL), heading 270 selected. If a new heading 360 is
selected, the vertical trend bar:
a)

deviates to the right and will be centred as soon as you roll the aircraft to the bank angle
calculated by the flight director.

b)

deviates to its right stop as long as the aeroplane is more than 10 off the new selected
heading.

c)

deviates to the right and remains in that position until the aircraft has reached heading
360.

d)

disappears, the new heading selection has deactivated the HDG mode.

Alarms are standardised and follow a code of colours. Those requiring action but not
immediately, are signalled by the colour:
a)

flashing red

b)

red

c)

green

d)

amber

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 66

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
022 INSTR

273.)

274.)

275.)

276.)

277.)

About a magnetic compass:


a)

errors of parallax are due to the oscillation of the compass rose

b)

acceleration errors are due to the angle of dip.

c)

acceleration errors are due to Schler oscillations

d)

turning error is due to the vertical component of the earth's magnetic field.

A stall warning system is based on a measure of:


a)

groundspeed.

b)

angle of attack.

c)

airspeed.

d)

attitude.

When the auto-pilot is engaged; the role of the automatic trim is to:
a)

react to altitude changes in Altitude Hold mode

b)

relieve the pressure on the control column and return, the aircraft in-trim at A.P.
disconnect

c)

synchronize the longitudinal loop

d)

relieve the A.P. servo motor and return the aircraft in-trim at A.P. disconnect

Torque can be determined by measuring the:


a)

quantity of light passing through a rack-wheel attached to a transmission shaft.

b)

phase difference between 2 impulse tachometers attached to a transmission shaft.

c)

frequency of an impulse tachometer attached to a transmission shaft.

d)

oil pressure at the fixed crown of an epicycloidal reducer of the main engine gearbox.

For an aircraft flying a true track of 360 between the 5S and 5N parallels, the
precession error of the directional gyro due to apparent drift is equal to:
a)

15/hour

b)

approximately 0/hour

c)

-5/hour

d)

+5/hour

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 67

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
022 INSTR

278.)

279.)

280.)

281.)

282.)

The engine instrument utilising an aneroid pressure diaphragm is the:


a)

fuel pressure gauge.

b)

oil temperature gauge.

c)

manifold pressure gauge.

d)

oil pressure gauge.

Heading information from the gyromagnetic compass flux gate is transmitted to the:
a)

error detector.

b)

amplifier.

c)

erecting system.

d)

heading indicator.

The position of a Flight Director command bars:


a)

only displays information relating to radio-electric deviation.

b)

indicates the manoeuvres to execute, to achieve or maintain a flight situation.

c)

repeats the ADI and HSI information

d)

enables the measurement of deviation from a given position.

In a steep turn, the northerly turning error on a magnetic compass on the northern
hemisphere is:
a)

none on a 090 heading in a right turn.

b)

none on a 270 heading in a left turn.

c)

equal to 180 on a 090 heading in a right turn.

d)

equal to 180 on a 270 heading in a right turn.

(For this question use annex 022-11532A)


The diagram representing a left turn with insufficient rudder is:
a)

b)

c)

d)

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 68

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
022 INSTR

283.)

284.)

285.)

286.)

A directional gyro is:


1- a gyroscope free around two axis
2- a gyroscope free around one axis
3- capable of self-orientation around an earth-tied direction
4- incapable of self-orientation around an earth-tied direction
The combination which regroups all of the correct statements is:
NB: the degree(s) of freedom of a gyro does not take into account its rotor spin axis.
a)

1-4

b)

1-3

c)

2-4

d)

23

The maximum directional gyro error due to the earth rotation is:
a)

15/hour

b)

180/hour

c)

90/hour

d)

5/hour

In an auto-pilot slaved powered control circuit, the system which ensures


synchronisation:
a)

can itself, when it fails, prevent the automatic pilot from being engaged.

b)

intervenes only when the automatic pilot has been engaged.

c)

is inhibited when the automatic pilot is engaged.

d)

prevents uncommanded surface deflection when the automatic pilot is disengaged.

Heading information given by a gyro platform, is given by a gyro with:


NB: the degree(s) of freedom of a gyro does not take into account its rotor spin axis.
a)

2 degrees-of-freedom in the vertical axis

b)

l degree-of-freedom in the vertical axis

c)

1 degree-of-freedom in the horizontal axis

d)

2 degrees-of-freedom in the horizontal axis

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 69

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
022 INSTR

287.)

288.)

289.)

290.)

A thermocouple can be made of:


a)

a three wire coil.

b)

two metal conductors of the same nature fixed together at two points.

c)

two metal conductors of different nature fixed together at a single point.

d)

a single wire coil.

A flux valve detects the horizontal component of the earth's magnetic field
1- the flux valve is made of a pair of soft iron bars
2- the information can be used by a "flux gate" compass or a directional gyro
3- the flux gate valve signal comes from the magnetic compass
4- the accuracy on the value of the magnetic field indication is less than 0,5
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
a)

2, 4.

b)

1, 2, 4.

c)

1, 2.

d)

1, 4.

An aircraft takes-off on a runway with an alignment of 045; the compass is made for
the northern hemisphere. During rolling take-off, the compass indicates:
a)

a value above 045 in the northern hemisphere.

b)

a value above 045 in the southern hemisphere.

c)

a value below 045.

d)

045.

During an acceleration phase at constant attitude, the control system of the artificial
horizon results in the horizon bar indicating a:
a)

constant attitude

b)

nose-down followed by a nose-up attitude

c)

nose-up attitude

d)

nose-down attitude

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 70

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
022 INSTR

291.)

292.)

293.)

294.)

To permit turbine exit temperatures to be measured, gas turbines are equipped with
thermometers which work on the following principle:
a)

liquid expansion

b)

gas pressure

c)

bi-metallic strip

d)

thermocouple

Among the systematic errors of the "directional gyro", the error due to the earth
rotation make the north reference turn in the horizontal plane. At a mean latitude of
45N, this reference turns by...
a)

10.5/hour to the right.

b)

15/hour to the right.

c)

7.5/hour to the left.

d)

7.5/hour to the right.

A turn indicator is an instrument which indicates rate of turn.


Rate of turn depends upon:
1: bank angle
2: aeroplane speed
3: aeroplane weight
The combination regrouping the correct statements is:
a)

2 and 3.

b)

1 and 3.

c)

1 and 2.

d)

1, 2, and 3.

The operating principle of the vertical speed indicator (VSI) is based on the
measurement of the rate of change of:
a)

Dynamic pressure

b)

Static pressure

c)

Kinetic pressure

d)

Total pressure

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 71

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
022 INSTR

295.)

296.)

297.)

298.)

(For this question use annex 022-11567A)


The diagram which shows a 40 left bank and 15 nose down attitude is n
a)

b)

c)

d)

The heading read on the dial of a directional gyro is subject to errors, one of which is
due to the movement of the aircraft.
This error...
a)

is at its greatest value when the aircraft follows a meridional track

b)

is, in spite of this, insignificant and may be neglected

c)

is dependent on the ground speed of the aircraft, its true track and the latitude of the flight

d)

shows itself by an apparent rotation of the horizontal axis of the gyroscope which seems
to turn at 15 per hour to the right in the northern hemisphere

A "Bourdon Tube" is used in:


a)

vibration detectors

b)

turbine temperature probes

c)

smoke detectors

d)

pressure sensors

A gravity erector system is used to correct the errors on:


a)

a directional gyro.

b)

an artificial horizon.

c)

a turn indicator.

d)

a gyromagnetic compass.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 72

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
022 INSTR

299.)

300.)

301.)

302.)

Which of the following statements are correct for an aeroplane cruising at FL 60 with a
true airspeed (TAS) of 100 kt in standard atmospheric conditions?
1 - The TAS is approximately 10% higher than the IAS.
2 - The difference between the equivalent airspeed (EAS) and the calibrated airspeed
(CAS) is negligible.
3 - The speed displayed on the airspeed indicator is a calibrated airspeed (CAS) if the
position error and instrument error are zero.
a)

2 and 3 are correct.

b)

1 and 2 are correct.

c)

1 and 3 are correct.

d)

1, 2 and 3 are all correct.

During the ground run take-off phase, the auto-throttles allow to:
a)

maintain V2 under 1,500 ft.

b)

hold and maintain the Mach number.

c)

hold N1.

d)

hold IAS.

The auto-throttles enables to hold:


1 - a true airspeed;
2 - a Mach number;
3 - an indicated airspeed;
4 - a N1 thrust.
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
a)

1, 2, 4.

b)

1, 2, 3.

c)

2, 3, 4.

d)

1, 2, 3, 4.

The Mach trim system allows to:


a)

trim the pitch-up tendency at a high Mach number.

b)

search for the ideal C.G. location by transferring the fuel into the horizontal stabilizer.

c)

increase the longitudinal static stability of the aircraft by changing the horizontal
stabilizer according to the Mach number.

d)

interlock the operation of the stick shaker at the oncoming of the high speed stall.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 73

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
022 INSTR

303.)

304.)

305.)

306.)

The parameters taken into account by the flight director computer in the altitude
holding mode (ALT HOLD) are:
1. altitude deviation
2. roll
3. bank angle
4. pitch angle
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
a)

1, 3.

b)

1.

c)

1, 4.

d)

1, 2.

On a modern transport category airplane, the engagement of the automatic pilot is


checked on the display of:
a)

the PFD (Primary Flight Display).

b)

the ECAM (Electronic Centralized Aircraft Monitoring) left screen .

c)

the ND (Navigation Display) of the pilot in command.

d)

the ND (Navigation Display).

The sequence of the automatic landing comprises several phases (from final
approach to touch-down) actuated by:
a)

the DME (Distance Measuring Equipment) of the ILS (Instrument Landing System).

b)

the altimeter set to the QNH.

c)

the distance left before the touch down zone.

d)

the radio altimeter.

During a category III automatic approach, the position signals in the vertical plane
under 200 ft are based on:
a)

an altimeter set to the QNH.

b)

an altimeter set to the QFE.

c)

an altimeter set to 1013 hPa.

d)

a radio altimeter.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 74

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
022 INSTR

307.)

308.)

309.)

310.)

The purpose of a flight director is to:


a)

reduce the pilots workload by presenting data in the form of control commands.

b)

provide an automatic landing system function.

c)

convey air traffic control information to the pilot.

d)

automatically steer the aircraft to waypoints selected on the CDU.

Command bars of the flight director may be present on the:


1 HIS
2 EICAS
3 CDU
4 ADI
The combination containing all of the correct statements is:
a)

1 and 3 only.

b)

1 only.

c)

4 only.

d)

1 and 4 only.

An outer loop Automatic Flight Control System (AFCS), is a system which:


a)

contains a parallel actuator which provides control through 100% of the control range and
moves the control inputs only.

b)

controls the aircraft about the lateral axis only (PITCH).

c)

contains a parallel actuator which provides control through 100% of the control range and
moves both the control inputs and the cockpit control stick.

d)

controls the aircraft about the longitudinal axis only (ROLL).

Automatic Flight Control System (AFCS) series actuator is:


a)

passed to the pilot via control stick position.

b)

displayed in the cockpit as a function of input and output signals.

c)

displayed to the pilot by movement on the ADI/EADI.

d)

not displayed in the cockpit due to short duration of operation.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 75

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
022 INSTR

311.)

312.)

313.)

314.)

315.)

Automatic Flight Control System (AFCS) parallel actuator position is:


a)

passed to the pilot via control stick position.

b)

displayed in the cockpit as a function of input and output signals.

c)

displayed to the pilot by movement on the ADI only.

d)

not displayed in the cockpit due to short duration of operation.

Should a defect arise in the stability augmentation system (SAS) during flight:
a)

the pilot will be advised by an amber warning.

b)

an audio alarm will attract the pilots attention to check the AFCS control panel.

c)

the control stick will move to a pre-set patum causing the pilot to revert to manual
control.

d)

the pilot is not informed unless the second channel fails also.

The most common system used to monitor turbine gas exhaust temperature is the:
a)

hot junction Tungsten/copper system.

b)

hot and cold junction, alumel/chromel system.

c)

flame switch.

d)

fixed junction mercurial oxide/chromium system.

Electrical requirements for an alumel/chromel indicating system are


a)

28VDC for sensor plus power for gauge lighting.

b)

3 phase AC for sensor plus 26VAC for gauge lighting.

c)

power for gauge lighting only.

d)

3 phase AC for sensor plus 28VDC for gauging.

Gas turbine engine rotational speed (RPM) is usually sensed using either
a)

a 28VDC tachometer generator or a DC phonic wheel.

b)

a single phase AC tachometer generator or an AC phonic wheel system.

c)

a 28VDC tachometer generator or an AC phonic wheel.

d)

a 3 phase AC tachometer generator or an AC phonic wheel system.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 76

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
022 INSTR

316.)

317.)

318.)

319.)

Parallax error is:


a)

due to temperature effect.

b)

due to the effect of aircraft accelerations.

c)

due to pressure effect.

d)

a reading error.

An airspeed indicator displays:


a)

TAS.

b)

CAS.

c)

IAS.

d)

EAS.

Given:
Pt = total pressure
Ps = static pressure
Dynamic pressure is:
a)

(Pt - Ps) / Ps

b)

Pt / Ps

c)

Pt - Ps

d)

(Pt - Ps) / Pt

Given:
Pt = total pressure
Ps = static pressure
Pso = static pressure at sea level
Dynamic pressure is :
a)

(Pt - Pso) / Pso

b)

(Pt - Ps) / Ps

c)

Pt - Ps

d)

Pt Pso

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 77

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
022 INSTR

320.)

321.)

322.)

323.)

Given:
Pt = total pressure
Ps = static pressure
Pd = dynamic pressure
a)

Pd = Pt + Ps

b)

Pt = Pd + Ps

c)

Pd = Pt / Ps

d)

Ps = Pt + Pd

In the absence of position and instrument errors, IAS is equal to:


a)

CAS and EAS.

b)

EAS.

c)

CAS.

d)

TAS.

Given:
Pt = total pressure
Ps = static pressure
Pso = static pressure at sea level
Calibrated airspeed (CAS) is a function of:
a)

Pt / Ps

b)

Pt - Pso

c)

Pt - Ps

d)

(Pt - Pso) / Ps

Equivalent Air Speed (EAS) is obtained from Calibrated Air Speed (CAS) by correcting
for:
a)

instrument error.

b)

position error.

c)

density error.

d)

compressibility error.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 78

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
022 INSTR

324.)

325.)

326.)

Equivalent Air Speed (EAS) is obtained from Indicated Air Speed (IAS) by correcting
for the following errors:
1 instrument
2 position
3 density
4 compressibility
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
a)

1, 2, 3.

b)

1, 2, 4.

c)

1, 2, 3, 4.

d)

1, 2.

True Air Speed (TAS) is obtained from Calibrated Air Speed (CAS) by correcting for
the following errors:
1 instrument
2 compressibility
3 position
4 density
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
a)

2, 4.

b)

4.

c)

1, 2, 3, 4.

d)

2.

True Air Speed (TAS) is obtained from Indicated Air Speed (IAS) by correcting for the
following errors:
1 instrument
2 position
3 compressibility
4 density
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
a)

1, 3, 4.

b)

1, 2.

c)

1, 2, 3, 4.

d)

3, 4.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 79

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
022 INSTR

327.)

328.)

329.)

330.)

331.)

Calibrated Air Speed (CAS) is:


a)

Equivalent Air Speed (EAS) corrected for density error.

b)

Equivalent Air Speed (EAS) corrected for compressibility and density errors.

c)

Indicated Air Speed (IAS) corrected for compressibility error.

d)

Indicated Air Speed (IAS) corrected for position and instrument errors.

Equivalent Air Speed (EAS) is:


a)

True Air Speed (TAS) corrected for compressibility and density errors.

b)

Calibrated Air Speed (CAS) corrected for density error.

c)

True Air Speed (TAS) corrected for compressibility error.

d)

Calibrated Air Speed (CAS) corrected for compressibility error.

True Air Speed (TAS) is:


a)

Equivalent Air Speed (EAS) corrected for compressibility error.

b)

Calibrated Air Speed (CAS) corrected for density error.

c)

Equivalent Air Speed (EAS) corrected for density error.

d)

Calibrated Air Speed (CAS) corrected for compressibility error.

True Air Speed (TAS) is:


a)

Equivalent Air Speed (EAS) corrected for compressibility and density errors.

b)

Calibrated Air Speed (CAS) corrected for compressibility and density errors.

c)

Equivalent Air Speed (EAS) corrected for density error only.

d)

Calibrated Air Speed (CAS) corrected for density error only

True Air Speed (TAS) is:


a)

Indicated Air Speed (IAS) corrected for instrument, position, compressibility and density
errors.

b)

Calibrated Air Speed (CAS) corrected for instrument, compressibility and density errors.

c)

Indicated Air Speed (IAS) corrected for compressibility and density errors only.

d)

Calibrated Air Speed (CAS) corrected for instrument, position, compressibility and
density errors.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 80

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
022 INSTR

332.)

333.)

334.)

335.)

True Air Speed (TAS) is equal to Equivalent Air Speed (EAS) only if:
a)

P = 1013,25 hPa, OAT = 15C and TAS > 200 kt.

b)

P = 1013,25 hPa and OAT = 273 K.

c)

P = 1013,25 hPa and OAT = 15C.

d)

P = 1013,25 hPa, OAT = 15C and TAS < 200 kt.

The parameter that determines the relationship between EAS and TAS is:
a)

Mach number.

b)

OAT.

c)

density altitude.

d)

pressure altitude.

The compressibility correction to CAS to give EAS:


1 - may be positive
2 - is always negative
3 - depends on Mach number only
4 - depends on pressure altitude only
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
a)

2, 4.

b)

2, 3.

c)

1, 3.

d)

1, 4.

When climbing at a constant CAS:


a)

Mach number increases.

b)

the difference between surrounding conditions and ISA must be known to deduce the
Mach number variation.

c)

Mach number remains constant.

d)

Mach number decreases.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 81

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
022 INSTR

336.)

337.)

338.)

339.)

Concerning the airspeed indicator, IAS is:


a)

the indicated airspeed corrected for instrument error only.

b)

the indicated reading on an instrument presumed to be perfect.

c)

the indicated airspeed corrected for instrument and position errors.

d)

the indicated reading on the instrument.

When descending at a constant CAS:


a)

the difference between surrounding conditions and ISA must be known to deduce the
Mach number variation.

b)

Mach number remains constant.

c)

Mach number increases.

d)

Mach number decreases.

Equivalent Air Speed (EAS) is:


a)

True Air Speed (TAS) corrected for compressibility error.

b)

Indicated Air Speed (IAS) corrected for compressibility error.

c)

Calibrated Air Speed (CAS) corrected for density error.

d)

Indicated Air Speed (IAS) corrected for position, instrument and compressibility errors.

True Air Speed (TAS) is obtained from Equivalent Air Speed (EAS) by correcting for:
a)

instrument error.

b)

position and instrument errors.

c)

density error.

d)

compressibility error.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 82

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
022 INSTR

340.)

341.)

342.)

343.)

Calibrated Air Speed (CAS) is obtained from Indicated Air Speed (IAS) by correcting
for the following errors:
1 position
2 compressibility
3 instrument
4 density
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is :
a)

2, 3, 4.

b)

3.

c)

1, 3, 4.

d)

1, 3.

Equivalent Air Speed (EAS) is obtained from Calibrated Air Speed (CAS) by correcting
for the following errors:
1 position
2 compressibility
3 instrument
4 density
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
a)

2, 4.

b)

1, 2, 3, 4.

c)

4.

d)

2.

If OAT decreases when at a constant TAS:


a)

Mach number remains constant.

b)

Mach number decreases.

c)

the difference between surrounding conditions and ISA must be known to deduce the
Mach number variation.

d)

Mach number increases.

If OAT increases when at a constant TAS:


a)

the difference between surrounding conditions and ISA must be known to deduce the
Mach number variation.

b)

Mach number remains constant.

c)

Mach number increases.

d)

Mach number decreases.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 83

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
022 INSTR

344.)

345.)

346.)

347.)

348.)

If OAT increases when at a constant Mach number:


a)

TAS increases.

b)

TAS decreases.

c)

TAS decreases only if the flight level remains constant.

d)

TAS remains constant only if the flight level remains constant.

If OAT decreases when at a constant Mach number:


a)

TAS increases.

b)

TAS decreases only if the flight level remains constant.

c)

TAS remains constant only if the flight level remains constant.

d)

TAS decreases.

Below the tropopause, with no temperature inversion, when descending at constant


Mach number:
a)

the difference between surrounding conditions and ISA must be known to deduce the
TAS variation.

b)

TAS decreases.

c)

TAS increases.

d)

TAS remains constant.

When descending at a constant Mach number:


a)

CAS increases.

b)

CAS decreases.

c)

CAS remains constant.

d)

the difference between surrounding conditions and ISA must be known to deduce the
CAS variation.

When climbing at a constant CAS in a standard atmosphere:


a)

TAS remains constant.

b)

TAS first decreases, then remains constant above the tropopause.

c)

TAS increases.

d)

TAS decreases.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 84

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
022 INSTR

349.)

350.)

351.)

352.)

Below the tropopause with no temperature inversion, when climbing at constant Mach
number:
a)

the difference between surrounding conditions and ISA must be known to deduce the
TAS variation.

b)

TAS remains constant.

c)

TAS decreases.

d)

TAS increases.

Given:
Zp = pressure altitude
Zd = density altitude
TAS can be obtained from the following data:
a)

EAS and Zp.

b)

EAS and Zd.

c)

CAS and Zp.

d)

CAS and Zd.

With EAS and density altitude (Zd), we can deduce:


a)

CAS.

b)

CAS and TAS.

c)

IAS

d)

TAS.

With EAS and pressure altitude (Zp), we can deduce:


a)

TAS.

b)

IAS.

c)

CAS and TAS.

d)

CAS.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 85

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
022 INSTR

353.)

354.)

355.)

356.)

When climbing at a constant CA in a standard atmosphere:


1 - TAS decreases
2 - TAS increases
3 - Mach number increases
4 - Mach number decreases
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
a)

1, 3.

b)

2, 3.

c)

1, 4.

d)

2, 4.

When descending at a constant CAS in a standard atmosphere:


1 - TAS increases
2 - TAS decreases
3 - Mach number increases
4 - Mach number decreases
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
a)

1, 3.

b)

2, 4.

c)

1, 4.

d)

2, 3.

For the same TAS, when pressure altitude increases below the tropopause:
a)

Mach number increases.

b)

Mach number decreases.

c)

Mach number remains constant.

d)

the difference between surrounding conditions and ISA must be known to deduce the
Mach number variation.

For the same TAS, when pressure altitude decreases below the tropopause:
a)

the difference between surrounding conditions and ISA must be known to deduce the
Mach number variation.

b)

Mach number remains constant.

c)

Mach number increases.

d)

Mach number decreases.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 86

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
022 INSTR

357.)

358.)

359.)

360.)

361.)

When climbing at a constant CAS:


a)

EAS does not depend on altitude.

b)

EAS increases.

c)

EAS decreases.

d)

EAS remains constant.

When descending at a constant CAS:


a)

EAS decreases.

b)

EAS does not depend on altitude.

c)

EAS increases.

d)

EAS remains constant.

Considering the relationship between CAS and EAS:


a)

EAS may be lower or greater than CAS, depending on pressure altitude.

b)

EAS is always greater than or equal to CAS.

c)

EAS is always lower than or equal to CAS.

d)

EAS may be lower or greater than CAS, depending on density altitude.

Given:
Zp = pressure altitude
Zd = density altitude
CAS can be obtained from the following data:
a)

EAS and Zd.

b)

TAS and Zd.

c)

TAS and Zp.

d)

EAS and Zp.

If an aircraft maintaining a constant CAS and flight level is flying from a cold air mass
into warmer air:
a)

TAS decreases.

b)

Mach number decreases.

c)

TAS increases.

d)

Mach number increases.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 87

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
022 INSTR

362.)

363.)

364.)

365.)

366.)

If OAT increases whilst maintaining a constant CAS and flight level:


a)

TAS decreases.

b)

Mach number remains constant.

c)

Mach number decreases.

d)

TAS remains constant.

If OAT decreases whilst maintaining a constant CAS and flight level:


a)

TAS increases.

b)

TAS remains constant.

c)

Mach number increases.

d)

Mach number remains constant.

If an aircraft maintaining a constant CAS and flight level is flying from a warm air
mass into colder air:
a)

Mach number decreases.

b)

TAS increases.

c)

TAS decreases.

d)

Mach number increases.

In the absence of position and instrument errors, CAS is equal to:


a)

IAS and EAS.

b)

IAS.

c)

TAS.

d)

EAS.

In the absence of position and instrument errors:


a)

CAS = EAS.

b)

IAS = CAS.

c)

CAS = TAS.

d)

IAS = EAS.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 88

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
022 INSTR

367.)

368.)

369.)

370.)

The vertical command bar of a flight director:


1 - repeats the position information given by the EHSI
2 - repeats the position information given by the VOR
3 - gives information about the direction and the amplitude of the corrections to be
applied on the bank of the aircraft
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
a)

2, 3.

b)

1, 3.

c)

1, 2, 3.

d)

3.

The vertical command bar of a flight director:


a)

gives information about the direction and the amplitude of the corrections to be applied
on the control commands.

b)

repeats the position information given by the VOR.

c)

gives information only about the direction of the corrections to be applied on the bank of
the aircraft.

d)

repeats the position information given by the EHSI.

The vertical command bar of a flight director:


1 - repeats the position information given by the ILS in the horizontal plane
2 - repeats the position information given by the ILS in the vertical plane
3 - gives information about the direction and the amplitude of the corrections to be
applied on the bank of the aircraft
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
a)

2, 3.

b)

3.

c)

1, 3.

d)

1.

The vertical command bar of a flight director:


a)

repeats the position information given by the ILS in the horizontal plane.

b)

gives information about the direction and the amplitude of the corrections to be applied
on the control commands.

c)

gives information only about the direction of the corrections to be applied on the bank of
the aircraft.

d)

repeats the position information given by the ILS in the vertical plane.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 89

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
022 INSTR

371.)

372.)

373.)

374.)

The horizontal command bar of a flight director:


1 - repeats the position information given by the ILS in the horizontal plane
2 - repeats the position information given by the ILS in the vertical plane
3 - gives information about the direction and the amplitude of the corrections to be
applied on the pitch of the aircraft.
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
a)

3.

b)

2, 3.

c)

2.

d)

1, 3.

The horizontal command bar of a flight director:


a)

gives information only about the direction of the corrections to be applied on the pitch of
the aircraft.

b)

gives information about the direction and the amplitude of the corrections to be applied
on the pitch of the aircraft.

c)

repeats the position information given by the ILS in the horizontal plane.

d)

repeats the position information given by the ILS in the vertical plane.

The command bars of a flight director:


a)

are always displayed during take-off.

b)

are displayed only if the autopilot is engaged.

c)

may be displayed when flying manually.

d)

are always displayed when the autopilot is engaged.

The command bars of a flight director:


a)

are displayed only when flying manually.

b)

are always displayed during take-off.

c)

are displayed only when the autopilot is engaged.

d)

may be displayed when flying manually or with the autopilot engaged.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 90

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
022 INSTR

375.)

376.)

377.)

378.)

Considering a flight director of the "command bars" type:


1 - the vertical bar is always associated with the roll channel
2 - the vertical bar may be associated with the pitch channel
3 - the horizontal bar may be associated with the roll channel
4 - the horizontal bar is always associated with the pitch channel
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
a)

1, 4.

b)

1, 2, 3, 4.

c)

1, 3, 4.

d)

1, 2, 4.

Considering a flight director of the "command bars" type:


a)

the horizontal bar may be associated with the roll channel.

b)

the vertical bar is associated with the roll channel.

c)

the horizontal bar is associated with the roll channel.

d)

the vertical bar is associated with the pitch channel.

Considering a flight director of the "command bars" type:


a)

the vertical bar is associated with the pitch channel.

b)

the horizontal bar is associated with the pitch channel.

c)

the vertical bar may be associated with the pitch channel.

d)

the horizontal bar is associated with the roll channel.

During a final approach, if the flight director system is engaged in the G/S mode
(holding of ILS Glide Slope), the position of the horizontal command bar indicates:
a)

the instantaneous deviation between the aircraft position and the ILS Glide Slope.

b)

the correction on the pitch to be applied to join and follow the ILS Glide Slope.

c)

the pitch attitude of the aircraft.

d)

the position of the aircraft relative to the ILS Glide Slope.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 91

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
022 INSTR

379.)

380.)

381.)

382.)

During a final approach, the flight director system is engaged in the G/S mode
(holding of ILS Glide Slope). The position of the horizontal command bar indicates:
1 - the position of the aircraft relative to the ILS Glide Slope
2 - the correction on the pitch to be applied to join and follow the ILS Glide Slope
3 - the pitch attitude of the aircraft
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
a)

1, 3.

b)

1, 2.

c)

1.

d)

2.

During a final approach, the flight director system is engaged in the LOC mode
(holding of Localizer axis). The position of the vertical command bar indicates:
a)

the roll attitude of the aircraft.

b)

the correction on the bank to be applied to join and follow the Localizer axis.

c)

the position of the aircraft relative to the Localizer axis.

d)

the instantaneous deviation between the aircraft position and the Localizer axis.

During a final approach, the flight director system is engaged in the LOC mode
(holding of localizer axis). The position of the vertical command bar indicates:
1 - the position of the aircraft relative to the localizer axis
2 - the roll attitude of the aircraft
3 - the correction on the bank to be applied to join and follow the Localizer axis
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
a)

1, 2.

b)

1.

c)

2.

d)

1, 3.

Flying manually during a final approach, the flight director system is engaged in the
LOC mode (holding of localizer axis). If the aircraft is left of the Localizer axis, the
vertical command bar:
a)

is automatically centred since the LOC mode is engaged.

b)

deviates to the right, whatever the attitude of the aircraft is.

c)

deviates to the left, whatever the attitude of the aircraft is.

d)

may be centred if the pilot is correcting to come back on the Localizer axis.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 92

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
022 INSTR

383.)

384.)

385.)

Flying manually during a final approach, the flight director system is engaged in the
LOC mode (holding of localizer axis). If the aircraft is right of the Localizer axis, the
vertical command bar:
a)

cannot be centred.

b)

will be centred only when establish on the Localizer axis.

c)

may be centred if the pilot is correcting to come back on the Localizer axis.

d)

is automatically centred since the LOC mode is engaged.

Flying manually during a final approach, the flight director system is engaged in the
G/S mode (holding of ILS Glide Slope). If the aircraft is below the ILS Glide Slope, the
horizontal command bar:
a)

is automatically centred since the G/S mode is engaged.

b)

deviates downward, whatever the attitude of the aircraft is.

c)

deviates upward, whatever the attitude of the aircraft is.

d)

may be centred if the pilot is correcting to come back on the ILS Glide Slope.

Flying manually during a final approach, the flight director system is engaged in the
G/S mode (holding of ILS Glide Slope). If the aircraft is above the ILS Glide Slope, the
horizontal command bar:
a)

cannot be centred.

b)

will be centred only when establish on the ILS Glide Slope.

c)

may be centred if the pilot is correcting to come back on to the ILS Glide Slope.

d)

is automatically centred since the G/S mode is engaged.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 93

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022-10179 a.gif

022-10217 a.gif

022-10217 a.gif

022-11232 a.gif

022-11232 a.gif

022-11532 a.gif

022-11532 a.gif

022-11567 a.gif

022-11567 a.gif

022-3880 a.gif

022-3880 a.gif

022-648 a.gif

022-648 a.gif

022-9771 a.gif

022-9771 a.gif

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
022 INSTR

Lsungen
1: A (1 Pkt.)

38: B (1 Pkt.)

75: A (1 Pkt.)

2: B (1 Pkt.)

39: B (1 Pkt.)

76: C (1 Pkt.)

3: C (1 Pkt.)

40: C (1 Pkt.)

77: A (1 Pkt.)

4: A (1 Pkt.)

41: D (1 Pkt.)

78: B (1 Pkt.)

5: C (1 Pkt.)

42: D (1 Pkt.)

79: D (1 Pkt.)

6: B (1 Pkt.)

43: D (1 Pkt.)

80: A (1 Pkt.)

7: D (1 Pkt.)

44: B (1 Pkt.)

81: B (1 Pkt.)

8: D (1 Pkt.)

45: B (1 Pkt.)

82: A (1 Pkt.)

9: D (1 Pkt.)

46: B (1 Pkt.)

83: C (1 Pkt.)

10: D (1 Pkt.)

47: A (1 Pkt.)

84: D (1 Pkt.)

11: B (1 Pkt.)

48: A (1 Pkt.)

85: A (1 Pkt.)

12: A (1 Pkt.)

49: C (1 Pkt.)

86: A (1 Pkt.)

13: D (1 Pkt.)

50: C (1 Pkt.)

87: A (1 Pkt.)

14: C (1 Pkt.)

51: A (1 Pkt.)

88: B (1 Pkt.)

15: C (1 Pkt.)

52: B (1 Pkt.)

89: C (1 Pkt.)

16: C (1 Pkt.)

53: B (1 Pkt.)

90: A (1 Pkt.)

17: A (1 Pkt.)

54: B (1 Pkt.)

91: A (1 Pkt.)

18: A (1 Pkt.)

55: A (1 Pkt.)

92: C (1 Pkt.)

19: D (1 Pkt.)

56: C (1 Pkt.)

93: B (1 Pkt.)

20: C (1 Pkt.)

57: C (1 Pkt.)

94: C (1 Pkt.)

21: D (1 Pkt.)

58: D (1 Pkt.)

95: A (1 Pkt.)

22: C (1 Pkt.)

59: A (1 Pkt.)

96: A (1 Pkt.)

23: D (1 Pkt.)

60: D (1 Pkt.)

97: D (1 Pkt.)

24: C (1 Pkt.)

61: A (1 Pkt.)

98: C (1 Pkt.)

25: A (1 Pkt.)

62: C (1 Pkt.)

99: C (1 Pkt.)

26: D (1 Pkt.)

63: C (1 Pkt.)

100: A (1 Pkt.)

27: D (1 Pkt.)

64: B (1 Pkt.)

101: A (1 Pkt.)

28: A (1 Pkt.)

65: C (1 Pkt.)

102: A (1 Pkt.)

29: A (1 Pkt.)

66: B (1 Pkt.)

103: A (1 Pkt.)

30: D (1 Pkt.)

67: B (1 Pkt.)

104: D (1 Pkt.)

31: D (1 Pkt.)

68: A (1 Pkt.)

105: B (1 Pkt.)

32: B (1 Pkt.)

69: A (1 Pkt.)

106: C (1 Pkt.)

33: C (1 Pkt.)

70: C (1 Pkt.)

107: C (1 Pkt.)

34: B (1 Pkt.)

71: D (1 Pkt.)

108: C (1 Pkt.)

35: C (1 Pkt.)

72: A (1 Pkt.)

109: B (1 Pkt.)

36: B (1 Pkt.)

73: B (1 Pkt.)

110: C (1 Pkt.)

37: A (1 Pkt.)

74: B (1 Pkt.)

111: A (1 Pkt.)

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 95

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
022 INSTR

112: B (1 Pkt.)

153: D (1 Pkt.)

194: A (1 Pkt.)

113: C (1 Pkt.)

154: D (1 Pkt.)

195: D (1 Pkt.)

114: A (1 Pkt.)

155: D (1 Pkt.)

196: D (1 Pkt.)

115: A (1 Pkt.)

156: B (1 Pkt.)

197: B (1 Pkt.)

116: C (1 Pkt.)

157: D (1 Pkt.)

198: D (1 Pkt.)

117: B (1 Pkt.)

158: B (1 Pkt.)

199: A (1 Pkt.)

118: A (1 Pkt.)

159: C (1 Pkt.)

200: D (1 Pkt.)

119: A (1 Pkt.)

160: C (1 Pkt.)

201: B (1 Pkt.)

120: D (1 Pkt.)

161: B (1 Pkt.)

202: B (1 Pkt.)

121: D (1 Pkt.)

162: A (1 Pkt.)

203: B (1 Pkt.)

122: A (1 Pkt.)

163: B (1 Pkt.)

204: C (1 Pkt.)

123: C (1 Pkt.)

164: B (1 Pkt.)

205: D (1 Pkt.)

124: A (1 Pkt.)

165: B (1 Pkt.)

206: C (1 Pkt.)

125: C (1 Pkt.)

166: C (1 Pkt.)

207: B (1 Pkt.)

126: B (1 Pkt.)

167: A (1 Pkt.)

208: A (1 Pkt.)

127: C (1 Pkt.)

168: B (1 Pkt.)

209: D (1 Pkt.)

128: B (1 Pkt.)

169: D (1 Pkt.)

210: B (1 Pkt.)

129: C (1 Pkt.)

170: C (1 Pkt.)

211: A (1 Pkt.)

130: B (1 Pkt.)

171: D (1 Pkt.)

212: C (1 Pkt.)

131: B (1 Pkt.)

172: B (1 Pkt.)

213: B (1 Pkt.)

132: A (1 Pkt.)

173: A (1 Pkt.)

214: B (1 Pkt.)

133: C (1 Pkt.)

174: B (1 Pkt.)

215: A (1 Pkt.)

134: A (1 Pkt.)

175: B (1 Pkt.)

216: B (1 Pkt.)

135: A (1 Pkt.)

176: C (1 Pkt.)

217: D (1 Pkt.)

136: B (1 Pkt.)

177: D (1 Pkt.)

218: B (1 Pkt.)

137: A (1 Pkt.)

178: C (1 Pkt.)

219: D (1 Pkt.)

138: D (1 Pkt.)

179: B (1 Pkt.)

220: C (1 Pkt.)

139: B (1 Pkt.)

180: B (1 Pkt.)

221: D (1 Pkt.)

140: A (1 Pkt.)

181: D (1 Pkt.)

222: A (1 Pkt.)

141: B (1 Pkt.)

182: B (1 Pkt.)

223: D (1 Pkt.)

142: B (1 Pkt.)

183: B (1 Pkt.)

224: A (1 Pkt.)

143: C (1 Pkt.)

184: D (1 Pkt.)

225: D (1 Pkt.)

144: C (1 Pkt.)

185: A (1 Pkt.)

226: D (1 Pkt.)

145: C (1 Pkt.)

186: A (1 Pkt.)

227: B (1 Pkt.)

146: D (1 Pkt.)

187: A (1 Pkt.)

228: D (1 Pkt.)

147: D (1 Pkt.)

188: B (1 Pkt.)

229: A (1 Pkt.)

148: C (1 Pkt.)

189: D (1 Pkt.)

230: B (1 Pkt.)

149: A (1 Pkt.)

190: A (1 Pkt.)

231: A (1 Pkt.)

150: A (1 Pkt.)

191: D (1 Pkt.)

232: B (1 Pkt.)

151: A (1 Pkt.)

192: D (1 Pkt.)

233: B (1 Pkt.)

152: B (1 Pkt.)

193: B (1 Pkt.)

234: B (1 Pkt.)

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 96

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
022 INSTR

235: C (1 Pkt.)

276: D (1 Pkt.)

317: C (1 Pkt.)

236: C (1 Pkt.)

277: B (1 Pkt.)

318: C (1 Pkt.)

237: B (1 Pkt.)

278: C (1 Pkt.)

319: C (1 Pkt.)

238: B (1 Pkt.)

279: A (1 Pkt.)

320: B (1 Pkt.)

239: A (1 Pkt.)

280: B (1 Pkt.)

321: C (1 Pkt.)

240: D (1 Pkt.)

281: C (1 Pkt.)

322: C (1 Pkt.)

241: B (1 Pkt.)

282: B (1 Pkt.)

323: D (1 Pkt.)

242: A (1 Pkt.)

283: A (1 Pkt.)

324: B (1 Pkt.)

243: B (1 Pkt.)

284: A (1 Pkt.)

325: A (1 Pkt.)

244: D (1 Pkt.)

285: A (1 Pkt.)

326: C (1 Pkt.)

245: B (1 Pkt.)

286: D (1 Pkt.)

327: D (1 Pkt.)

246: B (1 Pkt.)

287: C (1 Pkt.)

328: D (1 Pkt.)

247: B (1 Pkt.)

288: A (1 Pkt.)

329: C (1 Pkt.)

248: D (1 Pkt.)

289: C (1 Pkt.)

330: B (1 Pkt.)

249: D (1 Pkt.)

290: C (1 Pkt.)

331: A (1 Pkt.)

250: A (1 Pkt.)

291: D (1 Pkt.)

332: C (1 Pkt.)

251: A (1 Pkt.)

292: A (1 Pkt.)

333: C (1 Pkt.)

252: C (1 Pkt.)

293: C (1 Pkt.)

334: B (1 Pkt.)

253: A (1 Pkt.)

294: B (1 Pkt.)

335: A (1 Pkt.)

254: C (1 Pkt.)

295: C (1 Pkt.)

336: D (1 Pkt.)

255: C (1 Pkt.)

296: C (1 Pkt.)

337: D (1 Pkt.)

256: B (1 Pkt.)

297: D (1 Pkt.)

338: D (1 Pkt.)

257: A (1 Pkt.)

298: B (1 Pkt.)

339: C (1 Pkt.)

258: A (1 Pkt.)

299: D (1 Pkt.)

340: D (1 Pkt.)

259: A (1 Pkt.)

300: C (1 Pkt.)

341: D (1 Pkt.)

260: C (1 Pkt.)

301: C (1 Pkt.)

342: D (1 Pkt.)

261: B (1 Pkt.)

302: C (1 Pkt.)

343: D (1 Pkt.)

262: C (1 Pkt.)

303: C (1 Pkt.)

344: A (1 Pkt.)

263: B (1 Pkt.)

304: A (1 Pkt.)

345: D (1 Pkt.)

264: D (1 Pkt.)

305: D (1 Pkt.)

346: C (1 Pkt.)

265: A (1 Pkt.)

306: D (1 Pkt.)

347: A (1 Pkt.)

266: A (1 Pkt.)

307: A (1 Pkt.)

348: C (1 Pkt.)

267: D (1 Pkt.)

308: C (1 Pkt.)

349: C (1 Pkt.)

268: A (1 Pkt.)

309: C (1 Pkt.)

350: B (1 Pkt.)

269: C (1 Pkt.)

310: B (1 Pkt.)

351: D (1 Pkt.)

270: C (1 Pkt.)

311: A (1 Pkt.)

352: D (1 Pkt.)

271: A (1 Pkt.)

312: A (1 Pkt.)

353: B (1 Pkt.)

272: D (1 Pkt.)

313: B (1 Pkt.)

354: B (1 Pkt.)

273: D (1 Pkt.)

314: C (1 Pkt.)

355: A (1 Pkt.)

274: B (1 Pkt.)

315: D (1 Pkt.)

356: D (1 Pkt.)

275: D (1 Pkt.)

316: D (1 Pkt.)

357: C (1 Pkt.)

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 97

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
022 INSTR

358: C (1 Pkt.)

368: A (1 Pkt.)

378: B (1 Pkt.)

359: C (1 Pkt.)

369: B (1 Pkt.)

379: D (1 Pkt.)

360: D (1 Pkt.)

370: B (1 Pkt.)

380: B (1 Pkt.)

361: C (1 Pkt.)

371: A (1 Pkt.)

381: C (1 Pkt.)

362: B (1 Pkt.)

372: B (1 Pkt.)

382: D (1 Pkt.)

363: D (1 Pkt.)

373: C (1 Pkt.)

383: C (1 Pkt.)

364: C (1 Pkt.)

374: D (1 Pkt.)

384: D (1 Pkt.)

365: B (1 Pkt.)

375: A (1 Pkt.)

385: C (1 Pkt.)

366: B (1 Pkt.)

376: B (1 Pkt.)

367: D (1 Pkt.)

377: B (1 Pkt.)

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 98

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
031 M&B

001.)

002.)

003.)

004.)

The centre of gravity of a body is that point


a)

through which the sum of the forces of all masses of the body is considered to act.

b)

where the sum of the external forces is equal to zero.

c)

where the sum of the moments from the external forces acting on the body is equal to
zero.

d)

which is always used as datum when computing moments.

For a given configuration, the stall speed of an aeroplane will be highest when loaded:
a)

to the maximum allowable mass with the most aft CG.

b)

to a low total mass with the most aft CG.

c)

to a low total mass with the most forward CG.

d)

to the maximum allowable mass with the most forward CG.

Comparing a forward CG position with an aft one, the forward cg position will cause a
a)

decrease of the stalling speed.

b)

decrease in the landing speed.

c)

decrease in range.

d)

tendency to yaw to the right on take-off.

The maximum load per running metre of an aircraft is 350 kg/m. The width of the floor
area is 2 metres. The floor strength limitation is 300 kg per square metre.
Which one of the following crates (length x width x height) can be loaded directly on
the floor?
a)

A load of 400 kg in a crate with dimensions 1.4 m x 0.8 m x 0.8 m.

b)

A load of 500 kg in a crate with dimensions 1.5 m x 1 m x 1 m.

c)

A load of 400 kg in a crate with dimensions 1.2 m x 1.2 m x 1.2 m.

d)

A load of 700 kg in a crate with dimensions 1.8 m x 1.4 m x 0.8 m.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 1

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
031 M&B

005.)

006.)

007.)

Given the following:


- Maximum structural take-off mass 48 000 kg
- Maximum structural landing mass: 44 000 kg
- Maximum zero fuel mass: 36 000 kg
-Taxi fuel: 600 kg
-Contingency fuel: 900 kg
-Alternate fuel: 800 kg
-Final reserve fuel: 1 100 kg
-Trip fuel: 9 000 kg
The actual TOM can never be higher than:
a)

53 000 kg

b)

48 000 kg

c)

47 800 kg

d)

48 400 kg

The maximum zero-fuel mass:


1- is a regulatory limitation
2- is calculated for a maximum load factor of +3.5 g
3- is based on the maximum permissible bending moment at the wing root
4- is defined on the assumption that fuel is consumed from the outer wings tank first
5- is defined on the assumption that fuel is consumed from the centre wing tank first
The combination of correct statements is:
a)

2, 3, 5

b)

1, 3, 5

c)

2, 3, 4

d)

1, 2, 3

If nose wheel moves aft during gear retraction, how will this movement affect the
location of the centre of gravity (cg) on the aircraft?
a)

It will not affect the cg location.

b)

It will cause the cg to move aft.

c)

It will cause the cg to move forward.

d)

The cg location will change, but the direction cannot be told the information given.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 2

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
031 M&B

008.)

009.)

010.)

011.)

At the flight preparation stage, the following parameters in particular are available for
determining the mass of the aircraft:
1- Dry operating mass
2- Operating mass
Which statement is correct:
a)

The dry operating mass includes take-off fuel.

b)

The operating mass includes the traffic load.

c)

The operating mass is the mass of the aircraft without take-off fuel.

d)

The dry operating mass includes fixed equipment needed to carry out a specific flight.

Which of the following corresponds to zero fuel mass?


a)

The take-off mass of an aeroplane minus all usable fuel.

b)

Operating mass plus passengers and cargo.

c)

Operating mass plus luggage of passengers and cargo.

d)

Take-off mass minus fuel to destination and alternate.

Given that:
- Maximum structural take-off mass: 146 000 kg
- Maximum structural landing mass: 93 900 kg
- Maximum zero fuel mass: 86 300 kg
- Trip fuel: 27 000 kg
- Taxi fuel: 1 000 kg
- Contingency fuel: 1350 kg
- Alternate fuel: 2650 kg
- Final reserve fuel: 3000 kg
The actual TOM can never be higher than:
a)

120 900 kg.

b)

146 000 kg.

c)

120 300 kg.

d)

121 300 kg.

On an aeroplane without central fuel tank, the maximum Zero Fuel Mass is related to:
a)

the bending moment at the wing root.

b)

Maximum Structural Take-Off Mass.

c)

wing loaded trip fuel.

d)

variable equipment for the flight.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 3

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
031 M&B

012.)

013.)

014.)

015.)

Given are:
- Maximum structural take-off mass: 72 000 kg
- Maximum structural landing mass: 56 000 kg
- Maximum zero fuel mass: 48 000 kg
- Taxi fuel: 800 kg
- Trip fuel: 18 000 kg
- Contingency fuel: 900 kg
- Alternate fuel: 700 kg
- Final reserve fuel: 2 000 kg
The actual take-off mass can never be higher than:
a)

74 000 kg

b)

72 000 kg

c)

69 600 kg

d)

70 400 kg

(For this question use annex 031-1569A)


Where is the centre of gravity of the aeroplane in the diagram?
a)

26.57 cm forward of datum.

b)

32.29 cm aft of datum.

c)

32.29 cm forward of datum.

d)

26.57 cm aft of datum.

The centre of gravity location of the aeroplane is normally computed along the:
a)

vertical axis.

b)

horizontal axis.

c)

longitudinal axis.

d)

lateral axis.

In mass and balance calculations which of the following describes the datum?
a)

It is the most aft position of the centre of gravity.

b)

It is the most forward position of the centre of gravity.

c)

It is the distance from the centre of gravity to the point through which the weight of the
component acts.

d)

It is the point on the aircraft designated by the manufacturers from which all centre of
gravity measurements and calculations are made.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 4

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
031 M&B

016.)

017.)

018.)

019.)

An aircraft has its centre of gravity located 7 metres from the datum line and it has a
weight of 49000 N. The moment about the datum is:
a)

343 000 Nm.

b)

343 000 N/m.

c)

7000 Nm.

d)

1.43 Nm.

Which one of the following is correct?


a)

Arm = Force X Moment

b)

Moment = Force / Arm

c)

Arm = Moment / Force

d)

Arm = Force / Moment

Given:
Total mass 2900 kg
Centre of gravity (cg) location station: 115
Aft cg limit station: 116
The maximum mass that can be added at station 130 is:
a)

317 kg.

b)

207 kg.

c)

140 kg.

d)

14 kg.

Given:
Total mass: 7500 kg
Centre of gravity (cg) location station: 80.5
Aft cg limit station: 79.5
How much cargo must be shifted from the aft cargo compartment at station 150 to the
forward cargo compartment at station 30 in order to move the cg location to the aft
limit?
a)

65.8 kg.

b)

68.9 kg.

c)

62.5 kg.

d)

73.5 kg.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 5

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
031 M&B

020.)

021.)

022.)

(For this question use annex 031-1580A)


A jet aeroplane, with the geometrical characteristics shown in the appendix, has a
take-off weight (W) of 460 000 N and a centre of gravity (point G on annex) located at
15.40 m from the zero reference point.
At the last moment the station manager has 12 000 N of freight added in the forward
compartment at 10 m from the zero reference point.
The final location of the centre of gravity, calculated in percentage of mean
aerodynamic chord AB (from point A), is equal to:
a)

35.5 %.

b)

27.5 %.

c)

30.4 %.

d)

16.9 %.

Given:
Dry Operating Mass= 29 800 kg
Maximum Take-Off Mass= 52 400 kg
Maximum Zero-Fuel Mass= 43 100 kg
Maximum Landing Mass= 46 700 kg
Trip fuel= 4 000 kg
Fuel quantity at brakes release= 8 000 kg
The maximum traffic load is:
a)

14 600 kg

b)

13 300 kg

c)

9 300 kg

d)

12 900 kg

The total mass of an aircraft is 9000 kg. The centre of gravity (cg) position is at 2.0 m
from the datum line. The aft limit for cg is at 2.1 m from the datum line.
What mass of cargo must be shifted from the front cargo hold (at 0.8 m from the
datum) to the aft hold (at 3.8 m), to move the cg to the aft limit?
a)

30.0 kg

b)

196 kg

c)

300 kg

d)

900 kg

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 6

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
031 M&B

023.)

024.)

025.)

026.)

Assume:
Aircraft actual mass: 4750 kg
Centre of gravity at station: 115.8
What will be the new position of the centre of gravity if 100 kg is moved from the
station 30 to station 120?
a)

Station 118.25

b)

Station 118.33

c)

Station 117.69

d)

Station 120.22

An aeroplane with a two wheel nose gear and four main wheels rests on the ground
with a single nose wheel load of 500 kg and a single main wheel load of 6000 kg. The
distance between the nose wheels and the main wheels is 10 meter.
How far is the centre of gravity in front of the main wheels?
a)

4 meter.

b)

40 cm.

c)

25 cm.

d)

41.6 cm.

Considering only structural limitations, on very short legs with minimum take-off fuel,
the traffic load is normally limited by:
a)

Maximum take-off mass.

b)

Maximum zero fuel mass.

c)

Actual landing mass.

d)

Maximum landing mass.

Considering only structural limitations, on long distance flights (at the aeroplane's
maximum range), the traffic load is normally limited by:
a)

The maximum take-off mass.

b)

The maximum zero fuel mass.

c)

The maximum landing mass.

d)

The maximum zero fuel mass plus the take-off mass.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 7

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
031 M&B

027.)

028.)

029.)

030.)

The zero fuel mass of an aeroplane is always:


a)

the maximum take-off mass minus the take-off fuel mass.

b)

the take-off mass minus the fuselage fuel mass.

c)

the take-off mass minus the wing fuel mass.

d)

the take-off mass minus the mass of take-off fuel.

Given:
Maximum structural take-off mass= 146 900 kg
Maximum structural landing mass= 93 800 kg
Maximum zero fuel mass= 86 400 kg
Trip fuel= 27 500 kg
Block fuel= 35 500 kg
Engine starting and taxi fuel = 1 000 kg
The maximum take-off mass is equal to:
a)

120 900 kg

b)

120 300 kg

c)

113 900 kg

d)

121 300 kg

Given:
Aeroplane mass = 36 000 kg
Centre of gravity (cg) is located at station 17 m
What is the effect on cg location if you move 20 passengers (total mass = 1 600 kg)
from station 16 to station 23?
a)

It moves aft by 0.157 m.

b)

It moves forward by 0.157 m.

c)

It moves aft by 3.22 m.

d)

It moves aft by 0.31 m.

The loaded centre of gravity (cg) of an aeroplane is 713 mm aft of datum. The mean
aerodynamic chord lies between station 524 mm aft and 1706 mm aft. The cg
expressed as % MAC (mean aerodynamic chord) is:
a)

10 %

b)

16 %

c)

60 %

d)

41 %

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 8

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
031 M&B

031.)

032.)

033.)

034.)

035.)

The take-off mass of an aeroplane is 117 000 kg, comprising a traffic load of 18 000 kg
and fuel of 46 000 kg. What is the dry operating mass?
a)

99 000 kg

b)

64 000 kg

c)

71 000 kg

d)

53 000 kg

A location in the aircraft which is identified by a number designating its distance from
the datum is known as:
a)

Station.

b)

MAC.

c)

Moment.

d)

Index.

The mass of an aircraft is 1950 kg. If 450 kg is added to a cargo hold 1.75 metres from
the loaded centre of gravity (cg). The loaded cg will move:
a)

34 cm.

b)

30 cm.

c)

40 cm.

d)

33 cm.

The Dry Operating Mass includes:


a)

unusable fuel and reserve fuel.

b)

passengers baggage and cargo.

c)

crew and crew baggage, catering, removable passenger service equipment, potable water
and lavatory chemicals.

d)

fuel and passengers baggage and cargo.

Which is true of the aircraft basic empty mass?


a)

It is dry operating mass minus traffic load.

b)

It is dry operating mass minus fuel load.

c)

It is a component of dry operating mass.

d)

It is the actual take-off mass, less traffic load.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 9

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
031 M&B

036.)

037.)

038.)

039.)

In mass and balance calculations the "index" is:


a)

the range of moments the centre of gravity (cg) can have without making the aeroplane
unsafe to fly.

b)

an imaginary vertical plane or line from which all measurements are taken.

c)

is a figure without unit of measurement which represents a moment.

d)

a location in the aeroplane identified by a number.

Loads must be adequately secured in order to:


a)

avoid any centre of gravity (cg) movement during flight.

b)

avoid unplanned centre of gravity (cg) movement and aircraft damage.

c)

prevent excessive 'g'-loading during the landing flare.

d)

allow steep turns.

Traffic load is the:


a)

Zero Fuel Mass minus Dry Operating Mass.

b)

Take-off Mass minus Zero Fuel Mass.

c)

Dry Operating Mass minus the variable load.

d)

Dry Operating Mass minus the disposable load.

Given the following information, calculate the loaded centre of gravity (cg).
__________________________________________________________________
STATION
MASS (kg)
ARM (cm)
MOMENT (kgcm)
___________________________________________________________________
Basic Empty Condition
12045 +30
+361350
Crew 145
-160
-23200
Freight 1
5455 +200 +1091000
Freight 2
410
-40
-16400
Fuel
6045 -8
-48360
Oil
124
+40
+4960
a)

56.53 cm aft datum.

b)

60.16 cm aft datum.

c)

56.35 cm aft datum.

d)

53.35 cm aft datum.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 10

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
031 M&B

040.)

041.)

042.)

Given are the following information at take-off


___________________________________________________________________
STATION
MASS (kg)
ARM (cm)
MOMENT (kgcm)
___________________________________________________________________
Basic Empty Condition
12 045 +30
+361 350
Crew 145
-160
-23 200
Freight 1
570
+200 +114 000
Freight 2
410
-40
-16 400
Fuel
6 045 -8
- 48 360
Given that the flight time is 2 hours and the estimated fuel flow will be 1050 litres per
hour and the average oil consumption will be 2.25 litres per hour. The specific density
of fuel is 0.79. The "Fright 2" will be dropped during flight within the scope of a rescue
action.
Calculate the CG position at landing.
a)

27 cm aft of datum.

b)

25 cm aft of datum.

c)

22 cm aft of datum.

d)

24 cm aft of datum.

Given that the total mass of an aeroplane is 112 000 kg with a centre of gravity
position at 22.62m aft of the datum. The centre of gravity limits are between 18m and
22m. How much mass must be removed from the rear hold (30 m aft of the datum) to
move the centre of gravity to the middle of the limits:
a)

8 680 kg

b)

29 344 kg

c)

16 529 kg

d)

43 120 kg

(For this question use annex 031-2946A)


The total mass of an aeroplane is 145000 kg and the centre of gravity limits are
between 4.7 m and 6.9 m aft of the datum. The loaded centre of gravity position is 4.4
m aft. How much mass must be transferred from the front to the rear hold in order to
bring the out of limit centre of gravity position to the foremost limit:
a)

7 500 kg

b)

3 500 kg

c)

35 000 kg

d)

62 500 kg

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 11

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
031 M&B

043.)

044.)

045.)

046.)

047.)

What determines the longitudinal stability of an aeroplane ?


a)

The effectiveness of the horizontal stabilizer, rudder and rudder trim tab.

b)

The relationship of thrust and lift to weight and drag.

c)

The dihedral, angle of sweepback and the keel effect.

d)

The location of the centre of gravity with respect to the neutral point.

Assuming gross mass, altitude and airspeed remain unchanged, movement of the
centre of gravity from the forward to the aft limit will cause
a)

lower optimum cruising speed.

b)

reduced maximum cruise range.

c)

higher stall speed.

d)

increased cruise range.

While making mass and balance calculation for a particular aircraft, the term 'Basic
Empty Mass' applies to the sum of airframe, engine(s), fixed ballast plus
a)

all the oil and fuel.

b)

all the oil, fuel, and hydraulic fluid but not including crew and traffic load.

c)

all the consumable fuel and oil, but not including any radio or navigation equipment
installed by manufacturer.

d)

unusable fuel and full operating fluids.

The term 'Maximum Zero Fuel Mass' consist of:


a)

The maximum permissible mass of an aeroplane with no usable fuel.

b)

The maximum mass authorized for a certain aeroplane not including the fuel load and
operational items

c)

The maximum mass for some aeroplanes including the fuel load and the traffic load

d)

The maximum mass authorized for a certain aeroplane not including traffic load and fuel
load.

The actual 'Zero Fuel Mass' is equal to the:


a)

Operating Mass plus all the traffic load.

b)

Dry Operating Mass plus the traffic load.

c)

Basic Empty Mass plus the fuel loaded.

d)

Actual Landing Mass plus trip fuel.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 12

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
031 M&B

048.)

049.)

050.)

The actual 'Take-off Mass' is equivalent to:


a)

Dry Operating Mass plus take-off fuel and the traffic load

b)

Dry Operating Mass plus the take-off fuel

c)

Actual Landing Mass plus the take-off fuel

d)

Actual Zero Fuel Mass plus the traffic load

Calculate the centre of gravity in % MAC (mean aerodynamic chord) with following
data:
Distance datum - centre of gravity: 12.53 m
Distance datum - leading edge: 9.63 m
Length of MAC: 8 m
a)

63.4 % MAC

b)

36.3 % MAC

c)

23.1 % MAC

d)

47.0 % MAC

Given : Actual mass 116.500 lbs


Original cg station 435.0
Compartment A station 285.5
Compartment B station 792.5
If 390 lbs of cargo are moved from compartment B (aft) to compartment A (forward),
what is the station number of the new centre of gravity (cg).
a)

506.3

b)

436.7

c)

433.3

d)

463.7

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 13

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
031 M&B

051.)

052.)

(For this question use annex 031-4739A or Loading Manual MEP1 Figure 3.4)
With respect to multi-engine piston powered aeroplane, determine the ramp mass
(lbs) in the following conditions:
Basic empty mass: 3 210 lbs
Basic arm: 88.5 Inches
One pilot: 160 lbs
Front seat passenger: 200 lbs
Centre seat passengers: 290 lbs
One passenger rear seat: 110 lbs
Baggage in zone 1: 100 lbs
Baggage in zone 4: 50 lbs
Block fuel: 100 US Gal.
Trip fuel: 55 US Gal.
Fuel for start up and taxi (included in block fuel): 3 US Gal.
Fuel density: 6 lbs/US Gal.
a)

4 120

b)

4 372

c)

4 390

d)

4 720

(For this question use annex 031-4740A or Loading Manual MEP1 Figure 3.4)
With respect to multi-engine piston powered aeroplane, determine the block fuel
moment (lbs.In.) in the following conditions:
Basic empty mass: 3 210 lbs.
One pilot: 160 lbs.
Front seat passenger: 200 lbs.
Centre seat passengers: 290 lbs. (total)
One passenger rear seat: 110 lbs.
Baggage in zone 1: 100 lbs.
Baggage in zone 4: 50 lbs.
Block fuel: 100 US Gal.
Trip fuel: 55 US Gal.
Fuel for start up and taxi (included in block fuel): 3 US Gal.
Fuel density: 6 lbs./US Gal.
a)

30 888

b)

56 160

c)

9 360

d)

433 906

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 14

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
031 M&B

053.)

054.)

(For this question use annex 031-4741A or Loading Manual MEP1 Figure 3.4)
With respect to a multi-engine piston powered aeroplane, determine the total moment
(lbs.In) at landing in the following conditions:
Basic empty mass: 3 210 lbs.
One pilot: 160 lbs.
Front seat passenger: 200 lbs.
Centre seat passengers: 290 lbs. (total)
One passenger rear seat: 110 lbs.
Baggage in zone 1: 100 lbs.
Baggage in zone 4: 50 lbs.
Block fuel: 100 US Gal.
Trip fuel: 55 US Gal.
Fuel for start up and taxi (included in block fuel): 3 US Gal.
Fuel density: 6 lbs./US Gal.
Total moment at take-off: 432226 lbs.In
a)

433 906

b)

432 221

c)

377 746

d)

401 338

(For this question use annex 031-4742A or Loading Manual MEP1 Figure 3.4)
With respect to a multi-engine piston powered aeroplane, determine the CG location
at take off in the following conditions:
Basic empty mass: 3 210 lbs.
One pilot: 160 lbs.
Front seat passenger: 200 lbs.
Centre seat passengers: 290 lbs. (total)
One passenger rear seat: 110 lbs.
Baggage in zone 1: 100 lbs.
Baggage in zone 4: 50 lbs.
Zero Fuel Mass: 4210 lbs.
Moment at Zero Fuel Mass: 377751 lbs.In
Block fuel: 100 US Gal.
Trip fuel: 55 US Gal.
Fuel for start up and taxi (included in block fuel): 3 US Gal.
Fuel density: 6 lbs./US Gal.
a)

91.92 inches aft of datum

b)

93.60 inches aft of datum

c)

91.84 inches aft of datum

d)

91.69 inches aft of datum

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 15

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
031 M&B

055.)

056.)

057.)

(For this question use annexes 031-6564A and 031-6564B or Loading Manual SEP1
Figure 2.4)
With respect to a single-engine piston powered aeroplane, determine the zero fuel
moment (lbs.In./100) in the following conditions:
Basic Empty Mass: 2415 lbs.
Arm at Basic Empty Mass: 77,9 In.
Cargo Zone A: 350 lbs.
Baggage Zone B: 35 lbs.
Pilot and front seat passenger: 300 lbs (total)
a)

2496,3

b)

6675

c)

2548,8

d)

2311,8

Determine the Zero Fuel Mass for the following single engine aeroplane.
Given :
Basic Empty Mass: 1799 lbs
Optional Equipment: 35 lbs
Pilot + Front seat passenger: 300 lbs
Cargo Mass: 350 lbs
Ramp Fuel = Block Fuel: 60 Gal.
Trip Fuel: 35 Gal.
Fuel density: 6 lbs/Gal.
a)

2449 lbs

b)

2659 lbs

c)

2589 lbs

d)

2414 lbs

Given:
Standard Empty Mass 1764 lbs
Optional Equipment 35 lbs
Pilot + Passenger 300 lbs
Cargo 350 lbs
Ramp Fuel ( Block Fuel) 60 Gal
Trip Fuel 35 Gal
Taxi Fuel 1.7 Gal
Final Reserve Fuel 18 Gal
Fuel density 6 lbs/Gal
Determine the expected landing mass.
a)

2557 lbs

b)

2589 lbs

c)

2472 lbs

d)

2599 lbs

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 16

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
031 M&B

058.)

059.)

060.)

Determine the Take-off Mass for the following single engine aeroplane.
Given:
Standard Empty Mass 1764 lbs
Optional Equipment 35 lbs
Pilot + Front seat passenger 300 lbs
Cargo Mass 350 lbs
Ramp Fuel = Block Fuel 60 Gal.
Trip Fuel 35 Gal.
Fuel density 6 lbs/Gal.
a)

2764 lbs

b)

2809 lbs

c)

2659 lbs

d)

2799 lbs

The maximum zero fuel mass is a mass limitation for the:


a)

strength of the fuselage

b)

total load of the fuel imposed upon the wing

c)

strength of the wing root

d)

allowable load exerted upon the wing considering a margin for fuel tanking

With respect to aeroplane loading in the planning phase, which of the following
statements is always correct ?
LM = Landing Mass
TOM = Take-off Mass
MTOM = Maximum Take-off Mass
ZFM = Zero Fuel Mass
MZFM = Maximum Zero Fuel Mass
DOM = Dry Operating Mass
a)

Reserve Fuel = TOM - Trip Fuel

b)

MTOM = ZFM + maximum full tank fuel mass

c)

LM = TOM - Trip Fuel

d)

MZFM = Traffic load + DOM

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 17

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
031 M&B

061.)

062.)

063.)

Which of the following statements is correct?


a)

The centre of gravity is given in percent of MAC calculated from the leading edge of the
wing, where MAC always = the wing chord halfway between the centre line of the
fuselage and the wing tip

b)

If the actual centre of gravity is located behind the aft limit the aeroplane longitudinal
stability increases.

c)

The station (STA) is always the location of the centre of gravity in relation to a reference
point, normally the leading edge of the wing at MAC

d)

A tail heavy aeroplane is less stable and stalls at a lower speed than a nose heavy
aeroplane

Which of the following statements is correct?


a)

If the actual centre of gravity is close to the forward limit of the centre of gravity the
aeroplane may be unstable, making it necessary to increase elevator forces

b)

If the actual centre of gravity is located behind the aft limit of centre of gravity it is
possible that the aeroplane will be unstable, making it necessary to increase elevator
forces

c)

The lowest stalling speed is obtained if the actual centre of gravity is located in the
middle between the aft and forward limit of centre of gravity

d)

A tail heavy aeroplane is less stable and stalls at a lower speed than a nose heavy
aeroplane

Which of the following statements is correct?


a)

The Maximum Landing Mass of an aeroplane is restricted by structural limitations,


performance limitations and the strength of the runway.

b)

The Maximum Take-off Mass is equal to the maximum mass when leaving the ramp.

c)

The Maximum Zero Fuel Mass ensures that the centre of gravity remains within limits
after the uplift of fuel.

d)

The Basic Empty Mass is equal to the mass of the aeroplane excluding traffic load and
useable fuel but including the crew.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 18

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
031 M&B

064.)

065.)

066.)

067.)

Given an aeroplane with:


Maximum Structural Landing Mass: 68000 kg
Maximum Zero Fuel Mass: 70200 kg
Maximum Structural Take-off Mass: 78200 kg
Dry Operating Mass: 48000 kg
Scheduled trip fuel is 7000 kg and the reserve fuel is 2800 kg,
Assuming performance limitations are not restricting, the maximum permitted take-off
mass and maximum traffic load are respectively:
a)

77200 kg and 22200 kg

b)

75000 kg and 20000 kg

c)

75000 kg and 17200 kg

d)

77200 kg and 19400 kg

Given an aeroplane with:


Maximum Structural Landing Mass: 125000 kg
Maximum Zero Fuel Mass: 108500 kg
Maximum Structural Take-off Mass: 155000 kg
Dry Operating Mass: 82000 kg
Scheduled trip fuel is 17000 kg and the reserve fuel is 5000 kg.
Assuming performance limitations are not restricting, the maximum permitted take-off
mass and maximum traffic load are respectively:
a)

125500 kg and 21500 kg

b)

130500 kg and 26500 kg

c)

130500 kg and 31500 kg

d)

125500 kg and 26500 kg

For the purpose of completing the Mass and Balance documentation, the Traffic Load
is considered to be equal to the Take-off Mass
a)

plus the Trip Fuel Mass.

b)

less the Operating Mass.

c)

less the Trip Fuel Mass.

d)

plus the Operating Mass.

For the purpose of completing the Mass and Balance documentation, the Operating
Mass is considered to be Dry Operating Mass plus
a)

Ramp (Block) Fuel Mass.

b)

Ramp Fuel Mass less the fuel for APU and run-up.

c)

Trip Fuel Mass.

d)

Take-off Fuel Mass.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 19

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
031 M&B

068.)

069.)

070.)

071.)

When establishing the mass breakdown of an aeroplane, the empty mass is defined
as the sum of the:
a)

basic mass plus variable equipment mass

b)

standard empty mass plus specific equipment mass plus trapped fluids plus unusable fuel
mass

c)

empty mass dry plus variable equipment mass

d)

basic mass plus special equipment mass

For the purpose of completing the Mass and Balance documentation, the Dry
Operating Mass is defined as:
a)

The total mass of the aircraft ready for a specific type of operation excluding crew and
crew baggage.

b)

The total mass of the aircraft ready for a specific type of operation excluding all usable
fuel and traffic load.

c)

The total mass of the aircraft ready for a specific type of operation excluding all usable
fuel.

d)

The total mass of the aircraft ready for a specific type of operation excluding all traffic
load.

In calculations with respect to the position of the centre of gravity a reference is made
to a datum. The datum is
a)

calculated from the loading manifest.

b)

an arbitrary reference chosen by the pilot which can be located anywhere on the aircraft.

c)

a reference plane which is chosen by the aircraft manufacturer. Its position is given in the
aircraft Flight or Loading Manual.

d)

calculated from the data derived from the weighing procedure carried out on the aircraft
after any major modification.

The datum is a reference from which all moment (balance) arms are measured. Its
precise position is given in the control and loading manual and it is located
a)

at a convenient point which may not physically be on the aircraft.

b)

at or near the forward limit of the centre of gravity.

c)

at or near the natural balance point of the empty aircraft.

d)

at or near the focal point of the aircraft axis system.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 20

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
031 M&B

072.)

073.)

074.)

075.)

076.)

Moment (balance) arms are measured from a specific point to the body station at
which the mass is located. That point is known as
a)

the datum.

b)

the centre of gravity of the aircraft.

c)

the focal point.

d)

the axis.

The centre of gravity of an aircraft is that point through which the total mass of the
aircraft is said to act. The weight acts in a direction
a)

parallel to the gravity vector.

b)

at right angles to the flight path.

c)

always parallel to the aircraft's vertical axis.

d)

governed by the distribution of the mass within the aircraft.

When an aircraft is stationary on the ground, its total weight will act vertically
a)

through the main wheels of its undercarriage assembly.

b)

through a point defined as the datum point.

c)

through its centre of pressure.

d)

through its centre of gravity.

The weight of an aircraft, which is in level non accelerated flight, is said to act
a)

always along the vertical axis of the aircraft.

b)

vertically through the datum point.

c)

vertically through the centre of gravity.

d)

vertically through the centre of pressure.

The centre of gravity of an aircraft


a)

is in a fixed position and is unaffected by aircraft loading.

b)

can be allowed to move between defined limits.

c)

may only be moved if permitted by the regulating authority and endorsed in the aircraft's
certificate of airworthiness.

d)

must be maintained in a fixed position by careful distribution of the load.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 21

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
031 M&B

077.)

078.)

079.)

080.)

In relation to an aircraft, the term ' Basic Empty Mass' includes the mass of the aircraft
structure complete with its powerplants, systems, furnishings and other items of
equipment considered to be an integral part of the particular aircraft configuration.
Its value is
a)

found in the latest version of the weighing schedule as corrected to allow for
modifications.

b)

inclusive of an allowance for crew, crew baggage and other operating items. It is entered
in the loading manifest.

c)

printed in the loading manual and includes unusable fuel.

d)

found in the flight manual and is inclusive of unusable fuel plus fluids contained in
closed systems.

An aeroplane is weighed and the following recordings are made:


nose wheel assembly scale 5330 kg
left main wheel assembly scale 12370 kg
right main wheel assembly scale 12480 kg
If the 'operational items' amount to a mass of 1780 kg with a crew mass of 545 kg, the
empty mass, as entered in the weight schedule, is
a)

32505 kg

b)

30180 kg

c)

28400 kg

d)

31960 kg

If individual masses are used, the mass of an aircraft must be determined prior to
initial entry into service and thereafter
a)

at regular annual intervals.

b)

only if major modifications have taken place.

c)

at intervals of 9 years.

d)

at intervals of 4 years if no modifications have taken place.

The empty mass of an aircraft is recorded in


a)

the loading manifest. It differs from the zero fuel mass by the value of the 'traffic load'.

b)

the weighing schedule and is amended to take account of changes due to modifications of
the aircraft.

c)

the loading manifest. It differs from Dry Operating Mass by the value of the 'useful load'.

d)

the weighing schedule. If changes occur, due to modifications, the aircraft must be reweighed always.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 22

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
031 M&B

081.)

082.)

083.)

084.)

Prior to departure an aircraft is loaded with 16500 litres of fuel at a fuel density of 780
kg/m. This is entered into the load sheet as 16500 kg and calculations are carried out
accordingly. As a result of this error, the aircraft is
a)

heavier than anticipated and the calculated safety speeds will be too high

b)

heavier than anticipated and the calculated safety speeds will be too low.

c)

lighter than anticipated and the calculated safety speeds will be too low

d)

lighter than anticipated and the calculated safety speeds will be too high

An additional baggage container is loaded into the aft cargo compartment but is not
entered into the load and trim sheet. The aeroplane will be heavier than expected and
calculated take-off safety speeds
a)

are unaffected but V1 will be increased.

b)

will give reduced safety margins.

c)

will not be achieved.

d)

will be greater than required.

Fuel loaded onto an aeroplane is 15400 kg but is erroneously entered into the load
and trim sheet as 14500 kg. This error is not detected by the flight crew but they will
notice that
a)

the aeroplane will rotate much earlier than expected.

b)

V1 will be reached sooner than expected

c)

speed at un-stick will be higher than expected

d)

V1 will be increased.

(For this question use annex 031-9596 A or Loading Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.11)
At the maximum landing mass the range of safe CG positions, as determined from the
appropriate graph in the loading manual, is:
a)

Forward limit 8.6% MAC aft limit 27.0% MAC

b)

Forward limit 8.0% MAC aft limit 26.8% MAC

c)

Forward limit 7.4% MAC aft limit 27.0% MAC

d)

Forward limit 8.0% MAC aft limit 27.2% MAC

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 23

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
031 M&B

085.)

086.)

087.)

088.)

At a given mass the CG position is at 15% MAC. If the leading edge of MAC is at a
position 625.6 inches aft of the datum and the MAC is given as 134.5 inches determine
the position of the CG in relation to the datum.
a)

645.78 inches aft of datum

b)

228.34 inches aft of datum

c)

20.18 inches aft of datum

d)

605.43 inches aft of datum

(For this question use annex 031-9598 A or Loading Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.11)
The aeroplane has a Take Off Mass of 58 000 kg. At this mass the range of safe CG
positions, as determined from the appropriate graph in the loading manual, is:
a)

Forward limit 8.0% MAC aft limit 26.5% MAC

b)

Forward limit 8.5% MAC aft limit 26.1% MAC

c)

Forward limit 8.2% MAC aft limit 26.2% MAC

d)

Forward limit 9.5% MAC aft limit 26.1% MAC

When preparing to carry out the weighing procedure on an aircraft, which of the
following is not required?
a)

removable passenger services equipment to be off-loaded.

b)

drain all useable fuel.

c)

drain all engine tank oil.

d)

drain all chemical toilet fluid tanks.

An aircraft is weighed prior to entry into service. Who is responsible for deriving the
Dry Operational Mass from the weighed mass by the addition of the 'operational
items' ?
a)

The appropriate Aviation Authority.

b)

The commander of the aircraft.

c)

The Operator.

d)

The aircraft manufacturer or supplier.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 24

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
031 M&B

089.)

090.)

091.)

092.)

An aircraft may be weighed


a)

at a specified 'weighing location' on the airfield.

b)

in a quiet parking area clear of the normal manoeuvring area.

c)

in an enclosed, non-air conditioned, hangar.

d)

in an area of the airfield set aside for maintenance.

(For this question use annex 031-9603 A or Loading Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.11)
A aeroplane has a landing mass of 53 000kg. The range of safe CG positions, as
determined from the appropriate graph in the loading manual, is:
a)

Forward limit 8.2% MAC aft limit 27.0% MAC

b)

Forward limit 7.3% MAC aft limit 26.8% MAC

c)

Forward limit 7.8% MAC aft limit 27.0% MAC

d)

Forward limit 8.7% MAC aft limit 26.8% MAC

(For this question use annex 031-9604 A or Loading Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.11)
The aeroplane has a mass of 61 000 kg in the cruise. The range of safe CG positions,
as determined from the appropriate graph in the loading manual, is:
a)

forward limit 7.6% aft limit 26.9% MAC.

b)

forward limit 8.0% aft limit 27.2% MAC.

c)

forward limit 7.7% aft limit 25.2% MAC

d)

forward limit 8.3% aft limit 26.3% MAC

(For this question use annex 031-9605 A or Loading Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.9)
For the transport aeroplane the moment (balance) arm (B.A.) for the forward hold
centroid is:
a)

421.5 inches.

b)

257 inches.

c)

314.5 inches.

d)

367.9 inches.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 25

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
031 M&B

093.)

094.)

095.)

096.)

Which of the following is unlikely to have any effect on the position of the centre of
gravity on an aeroplane in flight ?
a)

Movement of cabin attendants going about their normal duties.

b)

Normal consumption of fuel for a swept wing aeroplane.

c)

Lowering the landing gear.

d)

Changing the tailplane (horizontal stabiliser) incidence angle.

(For this question use annex 031-9608 A or Loading Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.9)
Referring to the loading manual for the transport aeroplane, the maximum running
load for the aft section of the forward lower deck cargo compartment is:
a)

13.15 kg per inch.

b)

7.18 kg per inch.

c)

13.12 kg per inch.

d)

14.65 kg per inch.

(For this question use annex 031-9609 A or Loading Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.9)
Referring to the loading manual for the transport aeroplane, the maximum load
intensity for the lower forward cargo compartment is:
a)

150 kg per square foot.

b)

68 kg per square foot.

c)

3305 kg in forward compartment and 4187 kg in aft compartment.

d)

7288 kg in forward compartment and 9232 kg in aft compartment.

The maximum floor loading for a cargo compartment in an aircraft is given as 750 kg
per square metre. A package with a mass of 600 kg. is to be loaded. Assuming the
pallet base is entirely in contact with the floor, which of the following is the minimum
size pallet that can be used ?
a)

30 cm by 200 cm

b)

40 cm by 300 cm

c)

30 cm by 300 cm

d)

40 cm by 200 cm

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 26

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
031 M&B

097.)

098.)

099.)

100.)

The maximum intensity floor loading for an aeroplane is given in the Flight Manual as
650 kg per square metre. What is the maximum mass of a package which can be
safely supported on a pallet with dimensions of 80 cm by 80 cm?
a)

41.6 kg

b)

101.6 kg

c)

1015.6 kg

d)

416.0 kg

The distance from the datum to the Centre of Gravity of a mass is known as
a)

the force.

b)

the moment arm or balance arm.

c)

the index.

d)

the moment.

(For this question use annex 031-9613 A or Loading Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.9)
A pallet having a freight platform which measures 200 cm x 250 cm has a total mass
of 300 kg. The pallet is carried on two ground supports each measuring 20 cm x 200
cm.
Using the loading manual for the transport aeroplane, calculate how much mass may
be added to, or must be off loaded from, the pallet in order for the load intensity to
match the maximum permitted distribution load intensity for lower deck forward cargo
compartment.
a)

158.3 kg must be off loaded.

b)

28.5 kg may be added.

c)

285.5 kg may be added.

d)

28.5 kg must be off loaded.

During take-off you notice that, for a given elevator input, the aeroplane rotates much
more rapidly than expected. This is an indication that :
a)

the aeroplane is overloaded.

b)

the centre of pressure is aft of the centre of gravity.

c)

the centre of gravity may be towards the aft limit.

d)

the centre of gravity is too far forward.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 27

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
031 M&B

101.)

102.)

103.)

104.)

105.)

Dry Operating Mass is the mass of the aircraft less


a)

usable fuel.

b)

traffic load, potable water and lavatory chemicals.

c)

usable fuel, potable water and lavatory chemicals.

d)

usable fuel and traffic load.

The total mass of the aeroplane including crew, crew baggage; plus catering and
removable passenger equipment; plus potable water and lavatory chemicals but
excluding usable fuel and traffic load, is referred to as:
a)

Aeroplane Prepared for Service ( APS) Mass.

b)

Zero Fuel Mass.

c)

Dry Operating Mass.

d)

Maximum Zero Fuel Mass

The responsibility for determination of the mass of 'operating items' and 'crew
members' included within the Dry Operating Mass lies with
a)

the commander.

b)

the person compiling the weighing schedule.

c)

the operator.

d)

the authority of the state of registration.

If the centre of gravity is near the forward limit the aeroplane will:
a)

benefit from reduced drag due to the decrease in angle of attack.

b)

require elevator trim which will result in an increase in fuel consumption.

c)

tend to over rotate during take-off.

d)

require less power for a given airspeed.

An aeroplane is said to be 'neutrally stable'. This is likely to:


a)

be totally unrelated to the position of the centre of gravity.

b)

be caused by a centre of gravity which is towards the rearward limit.

c)

cause the centre of gravity to move forwards.

d)

be caused by a centre of gravity which is towards the forward limit.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 28

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
031 M&B

106.)

107.)

108.)

109.)

110.)

The Dry Operating Mass is the total mass of the aircraft ready for a specific type of
operation but excluding
a)

usable fuel and traffic load.

b)

potable water and lavatory chemicals.

c)

usable fuel, potable water and lavatory chemicals.

d)

usable fuel and crew.

The Take-off Mass of an aeroplane is 66700 kg which includes a traffic load of 14200
kg and a usable fuel load of 10500 kg. If the standard mass for the crew is 545 kg the
Dry Operating Mass is
a)

41455 kg

b)

56200 kg

c)

42545 kg

d)

42000 kg

When the centre of gravity is at the forward limit, an aeroplane will be:
a)

extremely unstable and require excessive elevator control to change pitch.

b)

extremely stable and require small elevator control to change pitch.

c)

extremely unstable and require small elevator control to change pitch.

d)

extremely stable and will require excessive elevator control to change pitch.

An aeroplane is loaded with its centre of gravity towards the rear limit. This will result
in:
a)

a reduced fuel consumption as a result of reduced drag.

b)

an increased risk of stalling due to a decrease in tailplane moment

c)

a reduction in power required for a given speed.

d)

an increase in longitudinal stability.

An aeroplane must be re-weighed at certain intervals. Where an operator uses 'fleet


masses' and provided that changes have been correctly documented, this interval is
a)

4 years for each aeroplane.

b)

whenever a major modification is carried out.

c)

whenever the Certificate of Airworthiness is renewed.

d)

9 years for each aeroplane.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 29

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
031 M&B

111.)

112.)

113.)

114.)

A flight benefits from a strong tail wind which was not forecast. On arrival at
destination a straight in approach and immediate landing clearance is given. The
landing mass will be higher than planned and
a)

the approach path will be steeper and threshold speed higher.

b)

the landing distance will be unaffected.

c)

the landing distance required will be longer.

d)

the approach path will be steeper.

(For this question use annex 031-9629 A or Loading Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.9)
From the loading manual for the jet transport aeroplane, the maximum floor loading
intensity for the aft cargo compartment is:
a)

68 Lbs per square foot.

b)

68 kg per square metre.

c)

150 kg per square foot.

d)

68 kg per square foot.

(For this question use annex 031-9630 A or Loading Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.9)
From the loading manual for the transport aeroplane, the aft cargo compartment has a
maximum total load of:
a)

9232 kg

b)

4187 kg

c)

1568 kg

d)

3062 kg

(For this question use annexes 031-9631A or Loading Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.9)
From the Loading Manual for the transport aeroplane, the maximum load that can be
carried in that section of the aft cargo compartment which has a balance arm centroid
at:
a)

421.5 inches is 4541 kg.

b)

835.5 inches is 3062 kg.

c)

421.5 inches is 2059 Lbs.

d)

835.5 inches is 6752 kg.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 30

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
031 M&B

115.)

116.)

117.)

118.)

A mass of 500 kg is loaded at a station which is located 10 metres behind the present
Centre of Gravity and 16 metres behind the datum.
(Assume: g=10 m/s^2)
The moment for that mass used in the loading manifest is:
a)

50000 Nm

b)

80000 Nm

c)

130000 Nm

d)

30000 Nm

The maximum certificated taxi (or ramp) mass is that mass to which an aeroplane may
be loaded prior to engine start. It is:
a)

a fixed value which is listed in the Flight Manual.

b)

a value which varies only with airfield altitude. Standard corrections are listed in the
Flight Manual.

c)

a value which varies with airfield temperature and altitude. Corrections are listed in the
Flight Manual.

d)

a value which is only affected by the outside air temperature. Corrections are calculated
from data given in the Flight Manual.

The maximum mass to which an aeroplane may be loaded, prior to engine start, is:
a)

maximum certificated take - off mass.

b)

maximum regulated taxi (ramp) mass.

c)

maximum regulated take - off mass.

d)

maximum certificated taxi (ramp) mass.

The maximum taxi (ramp) mass is governed by:


a)

tyre speed and temperature limitations.

b)

taxi distance to take - off point.

c)

structural considerations.

d)

bearing strength of the taxiway pavement.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 31

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
031 M&B

119.)

120.)

121.)

The Maximum Zero Fuel Mass is the mass of the aeroplane with no usable fuel on
board. It is a limitation which is:
a)

governed by the traffic load to be carried. It also provides protection from excessive
'wing bending'.

b)

listed in the Flight Manual as a fixed value. It is a structural limit.

c)

tabulated in the Flight Manual against arguments of airfield elevation and temperature.

d)

governed by the requirements of the centre of gravity limits and the structural limits of
the aeroplane.

The Zero Fuel Mass and the Dry Operating Mass


a)

differ by the sum of the mass of usable fuel plus traffic load mass.

b)

differ by the value of the traffic load mass.

c)

are the same value.

d)

differ by the mass of usable fuel.

Mass for individual passengers (to be carried on an aircraft) may be determined from
a verbal statement by or on behalf of the passengers if the number of
a)

passengers carried is less than 20.

b)

passenger seats available is less than 20.

c)

passengers carried is less than 6.

d)

passenger seats available is less than 10.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 32

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
031 M&B

122.)

123.)

124.)

(For this question use annex 031-9640 A or Loading Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.14)
A revenue flight is planned for the transport aeroplane. Take-off mass is not airfield
limited. The following data applies:
Dry Operating Mass 34930 kg
Performance limited landing mass 55000 kg
Fuel on board at rampTaxi fuel 350 kg
Trip fuel 9730 kg
Contingency and final reserve fuel 1200 kg
Alternate fuel 1600 kg
Passengers on board 130
Standard mass for each passenger 84 kg
Baggage per passenger 14 kg
Traffic load Maximum possible
Use the loading manual provided and the above data. Determine the maximum cargo
load that may be carried without exceeding the limiting aeroplane landing mass.
a)

4530 kg.

b)

6350 kg.

c)

3185 kg.

d)

5400 kg

The empty mass of an aeroplane is given as 44800 kg. Operational items (including
crew standard mass of 1060 kg) are 2300 kg. If the maximum zero fuel mass is given
as 65500 kg, the maximum traffic load which could be carried is:
a)

23000 kg

b)

20700 kg

c)

19460 kg.

d)

18400 kg

(For this question use annex 031-9643 A or Loading Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.14)
The following data relates to a planned flight of an aeroplane Dry Operational mass 60520 kg
Performance limited take-off mass 92750 kg
Performance limited landing mass 72250 kg
Maximum Zero Fuel mass 67530 kg
Fuel on board at take-off Trip fuel 12500 kg
Contingency and final reserve fuel 2300 kg
Alternate fuel 1700 kg
Using this data, as appropriate, calculate the maximum traffic load that can be carried.
a)

15730 kg

b)

7730 kg

c)

11730 kg

d)

7010 kg

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 33

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
031 M&B

125.)

126.)

127.)

128.)

(For this question use annex 031-9644 A or Loading Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.14)
Aeroplane Dry Operating mass 85000 kg
Performance limited take-off mass 127000 kg
Performance limited landing mass 98500 kg
Maximum zero fuel mass 89800 kg
Fuel requirements for flight Trip fuel 29300 kg
Contingency and final reserve fuel 3600 kg
Alternate fuel 2800 kg.
The maximum traffic load that can be carried on this flight is:
a)

7100 kg

b)

4800 kg

c)

12700 kg

d)

6300 kg

The Maximum Zero Fuel Mass is a structural limiting mass. It is made up of the
aeroplane Dry Operational mass plus
a)

unuseable and crew standard mass.

b)

traffic load, unuseable fuel and crew standard mass.

c)

traffic load and crew standard mass.

d)

traffic load and unuseable fuel.

The take-off mass of an aeroplane is 141000 kg. Total fuel on board is 63000 kg
including 14000 kg reserve fuel and 1000 kg of unusable fuel. The traffic load is 12800
kg. The zero fuel mass is:
a)

93000 kg

b)

78000 kg

c)

79000 kg

d)

65200 kg.

'Standard Mass' as used in the computation of passenger load establish the mass of a
child as
a)

35 kg for children over 2 years occupying a seat and 10 kg for infants (less than 2 years)
not occupying a seat.

b)

35 kg irrespective of age provided they occupy a seat.

c)

35 kg for children over 2 years occupying a seat and 10 kg for infants (less than 2 years)
occupying a seat.

d)

35 kg only if they are over 2 years old and occupy a seat.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 34

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
031 M&B

129.)

The maximum certificated take - off mass is:


a)

limited by the runway take off distance available. It is tabulated in the Flight Manual.

b)

a take - off limiting mass which is affected by the aerodrome altitude and temperature.

c)

a structural limit which may not be exceeded for any take - off.

d)

a take - off limiting mass which is governed by the gradient of climb after reaching V2

130.)

131.)

132.)

For a particular aeroplane, the structural maximum mass without any fuel on board,
other than unusable quantities, is:
a)

a fixed value which will limit the amount of fuel carried.

b)

a variable value which is governed by the traffic load carried.

c)

a fixed value which is stated in the Aeroplane Operating Manual.

d)

a variable value which is governed by the traffic load carried.

An aeroplane, which is scheduled to fly an oceanic sector, is due to depart from a


high altitude airport in the tropics at 1400 local time. The airport has an exceptionally
long runway.
Which of the following is most likely to be the limiting factor(s) in determining the take
- off mass ?
a)

en route obstacle clearance requirements.

b)

maximum zero fuel mass.

c)

altitude and temperature of the departure airfield.

d)

maximum certificated take - off mass.

On an aeroplane with a seating capacity of more than 30, it is decided to use standard
mass values for computing the total mass of passengers. If the flight is not a holiday
charter, the mass value which may be used for an adult is
a)

84 kg

b)

76 kg

c)

88 kg (male) 74 kg (female).

d)

84 kg (male) 76 kg (female).

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 35

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
031 M&B

133.)

134.)

135.)

The standard mass for a child is


a)

35 kg for all flights.

b)

30 kg for holiday charters and 35 kg for all other flights.

c)

38 kg for all flights.

d)

35 kg for holiday charters and 38 kg for all other flights.

On an aeroplane with 20 or more seats engaged on an inter-continental flight, the


'standard mass' which may be used for passenger baggage is
a)

11 kg per passenger.

b)

15 kg per passenger.

c)

13 kg per passenger.

d)

14 kg per passenger.

The following data applies to a planned flight.


Dry Operating Mass 34900 kg
Performance limited Take-Off Mass 66300 kg
Performance limited Landing Mass 55200 kg
Maximum Zero Fuel Mass 53070 kg
Fuel required at ramp:Taxi fuel 400 kg
trip fuel 8600 kg
contingency fuel 430 kg
alternate fuel 970 kg
holding fuel 900 kg
Traffic load 16600 kg
Fuel costs at the departure airfield are such that it is decided to load the maximum
fuel quantity possible. The total fuel which may be safely loaded prior to departure is:
a)

12700 kg

b)

10730 kg

c)

13230 kg

d)

15200 kg

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 36

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
031 M&B

136.)

137.)

In determining the Dry Operating Mass of an aeroplane it is common practice to use


'standard mass' values for crew. These values are
a)

flight crew 85 kg., cabin crew 75 kg. each. These are inclusive of a hand baggage
allowance.

b)

flight crew (male) 88 kg. (female) 75 kg., cabin crew 75 kg. each. These do not include
an allowance for hand baggage.

c)

flight crew (male) 88 kg. (female) 75 kg., cabin crew 75 kg. each. These include an
allowance for hand baggage.

d)

flight crew 85 kg., cabin crew 75 kg. each. These do not include a hand baggage
allowance.

Prior to departure the medium range twin jet aeroplane is loaded with maximum fuel
of 20100 litres at a fuel density (specific gravity) of 0.78.
Using the following data Performance limited take-off mass 67200 kg
Performance limited landing mass 54200 kg
Dry Operating Mass 34930 kg
Taxi fuel 250 kg
Trip fuel 9250 kg
Contingency and holding fuel 850 kg
Alternate fuel 700 kg
The maximum permissible traffic load is
a)

12840 kg

b)

13090 kg.

c)

18040 kg

d)

16470 kg

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 37

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
031 M&B

138.)

139.)

140.)

(For this question use annex 031-9660 A or Loading Manual MRJT 1 Paragraph 3.1)
The medium range jet transport aeroplane is to operate a flight carrying the maximum
possible fuel load.
Using the following data as appropriate, determine the mass of fuel on board at start
of take off.
Departure airfield performance limited take-off mass: 60 400 kg
Landing airfield -not performance limited.
Dry Operating Mass: 34930 kg
Fuel required for flight Taxi fuel: 715 kg
Trip fuel: 8600 kg
Contingency and final reserve fuel: 1700 kg
Alternate fuel 1500 kg
Additional reserve 400 kg
Traffic load for flight 11000 kg
a)

13 655 kg

b)

15 815 kg

c)

14 470 kg

d)

16 080 kg

An aeroplane is to depart from an airfield at a take-off mass of 302550 kg. Fuel on


board at take-off (including contingency and alternate of 19450 kg) is 121450 kg. The
Dry Operating Mass is 161450 kg. The useful load will be
a)

121450 kg

b)

19650 kg

c)

39105 kg

d)

141100 kg

When considering the effects of increased mass on an aeroplane, which of the


following is true?
a)

Gradient of climb for a given power setting will be higher.

b)

Flight endurance will be increased.

c)

Stalling speeds will be higher.

d)

Stalling speeds will be lower.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 38

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
031 M&B

141.)

142.)

143.)

144.)

If an aeroplane is at a higher mass than anticipated, for a given airspeed the angle of
attack will
a)

be greater, drag will increase and endurance will decrease.

b)

remain constant, drag will increase and endurance will increase.

c)

be decreased, drag will decrease and endurance will increase.

d)

remain constant, drag will decrease and endurance will decrease.

In order to provide an adequate "buffet boundary" at the commencement of the cruise


a speed of 1.3Vs is used. At a mass of 120000 kg this is a CAS of 180 knots. If the
mass of the aeroplane is increased to 135000 kg the value of 1.3Vs will be
a)

increased to 191 knots, drag will increase and air distance per kg of fuel will decrease.

b)

increased to 191 knots, drag will decrease and air distance per kg of fuel will increase.

c)

unaffected as Vs always occurs at the same angle of attack.

d)

increased to 202 knots but, since the same angle of attack is used, drag and range will
remain the same.

The maximum quantity of fuel that can be loaded into an aircraft's tanks is given as
3800 US Gallons. If the fuel density (specific gravity) is given as 0.79 the mass of fuel
which may be loaded is
a)

14383 kg.

b)

11364 kg.

c)

13647 kg.

d)

18206 kg.

Conversion of fuel volume to mass


a)

must be done by using actual measured fuel density values.

b)

may be done by using standard fuel density values as specified in the Operations Manual,
if the actual fuel density is not known.

c)

may be done by using standard fuel density values as specified in JAR - OPS 1.

d)

must be done using fuel density values of 0.79 for JP 1 and 0.76 for JP 4 as specified in
JAR - OPS, IEM - OPS 1.605E.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 39

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
031 M&B

145.)

146.)

147.)

Standard masses may be used for the computation of mass values for baggage if the
aeroplane
a)

is carrying 30 or more passengers.

b)

has 6 or more seats.

c)

has 20 or more seats.

d)

has 30 or more seats.

Which of the following is most likely to affect the range of centre of gravity positions
on an aeroplane?
a)

Location of the undercarriage.

b)

The need to maintain a low value of stalling speed.

c)

The need to minimise drag forces and so improve efficiency.

d)

Elevator and tailplane (horizontal stabiliser) effectiveness in all flight conditions.

A jet transport has the following structural limits:


-Maximum Ramp Mass: 63 060 kg
-Maximum Take Off Mass: 62 800 kg
-Maximum Landing Mass: 54 900 kg
-Maximum Zero Fuel Mass: 51 300 kg
The aeroplane's fuel is loaded accordance with the following requirements:
-Taxi fuel: 400 kg
-Trip fuel: 8400 kg
-Contingency & final reserve fuel: 1800 kg
-Alternate fuel: 1100 kg
If the Dry Operating Mass is 34930 kg, determine the maximum traffic load that can be
carried on the flight if departure and landing airfields are not performance limited.
a)

16 370 kg

b)

16 430 kg

c)

16 570 kg

d)

17 070 kg

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 40

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
031 M&B

148.)

149.)

150.)

A flight has been made from London to Valencia carrying minimum fuel and maximum
traffic load. On the return flight the fuel tanks in the aeroplane are to be filled to
capacity with a total fuel load of 20100 litres at a fuel density of 0.79 kg/l.
The following are the aeroplane's structural limits:
-Maximum Ramp Mass: 69 900 kg
-Maximum Take Off Mass: 69 300 kg
-Maximum Landing Mass: 58 900 kg
-Maximum Zero Fuel Mass: 52 740 kg
The performance limited take off mass at Valencia is 67 330 kg.
The landing mass at London is not performance limited.
Dry Operating Mass: 34 930 kg
Trip Fuel (Valencia to London): 5 990 kg
Taxi fuel: 250 kg
The maximum traffic load that can be carried from Valencia will be:
a)

16 770 kg

b)

9 830 kg

c)

13 240 kg

d)

14 331 kg

The term 'useful load' as applied to an aircraft includes


a)

traffic load plus useable fuel.

b)

traffic load only.

c)

the revenue-earning portion of traffic load only.

d)

the revenue-earning portion of traffic load plus useable fuel.

An aeroplane is performance limited to a landing mass of 54230 kg. The Dry Operating
Mass is 35000 kg and the zero fuel mass is 52080 kg. If the take-off mass is 64280 kg
the useful load is
a)

10080 kg.

b)

29280 kg.

c)

12200 kg.

d)

17080 kg

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 41

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
031 M&B

151.)

152.)

153.)

(For this question use annex 031-9676 A or Loading Manual MRJT 1 Paragraph 4)
For the medium range transport aeroplane, from the loading manual, determine the
maximum total volume of fuel which can be loaded into the main wing tanks. (Fuel
density value 0.78)
a)

11646 litres

b)

8850 litres

c)

5674 litres

d)

11349 litres

An aeroplane's weighing schedule indicates that the empty mass is 57320 kg. The
nominal Dry Operating Mass is 60120 kg and the Maximum Zero Fuel Mass is given as
72100 kg. Which of the following is a correct statement in relation to this aeroplane?
a)

operational items have a mass of 2800 kg and the maximum useful load is 14780 kg.

b)

operational items have a mass of 2800 kg and the maximum traffic load for this aeroplane
is 11980 kg.

c)

operational items have a mass of 2800 kg and the maximum traffic load for this aeroplane
is 14780 kg.

d)

operational items have a mass of 2800 kg and the maximum useful load is 11980 kg.

An aeroplane is to depart from an airfield where the performance limited take-off mass
is 89200 kg.
Certificated maximum masses are as follows:
Ramp (taxi) mass 89930 kg
Maximum Take-off mass 89430 kg
Maximum Landing mass 71520 kg
Actual Zero fuel mass 62050 kg
Fuel on board at ramp:
Taxi fuel 600 kg
Trip fuel 17830 kg
Contingency, final reserve and alternate 9030 kg
If the Dry Operating Mass is 40970 kg the traffic load that can be carried on this flight
is
a)

21220 kg

b)

21080 kg

c)

20870 kg

d)

21500 kg

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 42

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
031 M&B

154.)

155.)

156.)

The empty mass of an aeroplane, as given in the weighing schedule, is 61300 kg. The
operational items (including crew) is given as a mass of 2300 kg. If the take-off mass
is 132000 kg (including a useable fuel quantity of 43800 kg) the useful load is
a)

68400 kg

b)

29600 kg

c)

70700 kg

d)

26900 kg.

The following data applies to an aeroplane which is about to take off:


Certified maximum take-off mass 141500 kg
Performance limited take-off mass 137300 kg
Dry Operating Mass 58400 kg
Crew and crew hand baggage mass 640 kg
Crew baggage in hold 110 kg
Fuel on board 60700 kg
From this data calculate the mass of the useful load.
a)

18200 kg

b)

78150 kg

c)

17450 kg

d)

78900 kg

A revenue flight is to be made by a jet transport. The following are the aeroplane's
structural limits:
-Maximum Ramp Mass: 69 900 kg
-Maximum Take Off Mass: 69 300 kg
-Maximum Landing Mass: 58 900 kg
-Maximum Zero Fuel Mass: 52 740 kg
The performance limited take off mass is 67 450kg and the performance limited
landing mass is 55 470 kg.
Dry Operating Mass: 34 900 kg
Trip Fuel: 6 200 kg
Taxi Fuel: 250 kg
Contingency & final reserve fuel: 1 300 kg
Alternate Fuel: 1 100 kg
The maximum traffic load that can be carried is:
a)

17 840 kg

b)

13 950 kg

c)

25 800 kg

d)

18 170 kg

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 43

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
031 M&B

157.)

158.)

A revenue flight is to be made by a jet transport. The following are the aeroplane's
structural limits:
-Maximum Ramp Mass: 69 900 kg
-Maximum Take Off Mass: 69 300 kg
-Maximum Landing Mass: 58 900 kg
-Maximum Zero Fuel Mass: 52 740 kg
Take Off and Landing mass are not performance limited.
Dry Operating Mass: 34 930 kg
Trip Fuel: 11 500 kg
Taxi Fuel: 250 kg
Contingency & final reserve fuel: 1 450 kg
Alternate Fuel: 1 350 kg
The maximum traffic load that can be carried is:
a)

17 810 kg

b)

21 170 kg

c)

20 420 kg

d)

21 070 kg

A revenue flight is to be made by a jet transport. The following are the aeroplane's
structural limits:
-Maximum Ramp Mass: 69 900 kg
-Maximum Take Off Mass: 69 300 kg
-Maximum Landing Mass: 58 900 kg
-Maximum Zero Fuel Mass: 52 740 kg
Take Off and Landing mass are not performance limited.
Dry Operating Mass: 34 900 kg
Trip Fuel: 11 800 kg
Taxi Fuel: 500 kg
Contingency & final reserve fuel: 1 600 kg
Alternate Fuel: 1 900 kg
The maximum traffic load that can be carried is:
a)

19 100 kg

b)

17 840 kg

c)

19 200 kg

d)

19 500 kg

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 44

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
031 M&B

159.)

160.)

161.)

(For this question use annex 031-9685 A or Loading Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.14)
The medium range twin jet transport is scheduled to operate from a departure airfield
where conditions limit the take-off mass to 65050 kg. The destination airfield has a
performance limited landing mass of 54500 kg.
The Dry Operating Mass is 34900 kg. Planned loading data is as follows:
Taxi fuel 350 kg
Trip fuel 9250 kg
Contingency and final reserve fuel 1100 kg
Alternate fuel 1000 kg
Traffic load 18600 kg
Check the load and ensure that the flight may be operated without exceeding any of
the aeroplane limits.
Changes in fuel loading due to mass change may be disregarded.
The correct answer is:
a)

the flight may be safely operated with an additional 200 kg of traffic load.

b)

the flight may be safely operated with the stated traffic and fuel load.

c)

the flight is 'landing mass' limited and the traffic load must be reduced to 17500 kg.

d)

the flight is 'zero fuel mass' limited and the traffic load must be reduced to 14170 kg.

The following data is extracted from an aeroplane's loading manifest:


Performance limited take-off mass 93500 kg
Expected landing mass at destination 81700 kg
Maximum certificated landing mass 86300 kg
Fuel on board 16500 kg
During the flight a diversion is made to an en-route alternate which is not
'performance limited' for landing. Fuel remaining at landing is 10300 kg. The landing
mass
a)

is 83200 kg which is in excess of the regulated landing mass and could result in
overrunning the runway

b)

is 87300 kg and excess structural stress could result

c)

must be reduced to 81700 kg in order to avoid a high speed approach.

d)

is 87300 kg which is acceptable in this case because this is a diversion and not a normal
scheduled landing.

At maximum certificated take-off mass an aeroplane departs from an airfield which is


not limiting for either take-off or landing masses. During initial climb the number one
engine suffers a contained disintegration. An emergency is declared and the
aeroplane returns to departure airfield for an immediate landing. The most likely result
of this action will be
a)

a landing short resultant from the increased angle of approach due to the very high
aeroplane mass.

b)

a high threshold speed and possible undercarriage or other structural failure.

c)

a landing further along the runway than normal.

d)

a high threshold speed and a shorter stop distance.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 45

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
031 M&B

162.)

163.)

164.)

The flight preparation of a turbojet aeroplane provides the following data:


Take-off runway limitation: 185 000 kg
Landing runway limitation: 180 000 kg
Planned fuel consumption: 11 500 kg
Fuel already loaded on board the aircraft: 20 000 kg
Knowing that:
Maximum take-off mass (MTOM): 212 000 kg
Maximum landing mass (MLM): 174 000 kg
Maximum zero fuel mass (MZFM): 164 000 kg
Dry operating mass (DOM): 110 000 kg
The maximum cargo load that the captain may decide to load on board is:
a)

54 000 kg

b)

61 500 kg

c)

55 000 kg

d)

55 500 kg

The crew of a transport aeroplane prepares a flight using the following data:
- Block fuel: 40 000 kg
- Trip fuel: 29 000 kg
- Taxi fuel: 800 kg
- Maximum take-off mass: 170 000 kg
- Maximum landing mass: 148 500 kg
- Maximum zero fuel mass: 112 500 kg
- Dry operating mass: 80 400 kg
The maximum traffic load for this flight is:
a)

32 900 kg

b)

18 900 kg

c)

32 100 kg

d)

40 400 kg

The crew of a transport aeroplane prepares a flight using the following data:
- Dry operating mass: 90 000 kg
- Block fuel: 30 000 kg
- Taxi fuel: 800 kg
- Maximum take-off mass: 145 000 kg
The traffic load available for this flight is:
a)

25 800 kg

b)

25 000 kg

c)

55 800 kg

d)

55 000 kg

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 46

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
031 M&B

165.)

166.)

167.)

The mass displacement caused by landing gear extension:


a)

creates a pitch-down longitudinal moment

b)

creates a pitch-up longitudinal moment

c)

does not create a longitudinal moment

d)

creates a longitudinal moment in the direction (pitch-up or pitch-down) determined by the


type of landing gear

The mass and balance information gives:


Basic mass: 1 200 kg ; Basic balance arm: 3.00 m
Under these conditions the Basic centre of gravity is at 25% of the mean aerodynamic
chord (MAC). The length of MAC is 2m.
In the mass and balance section of the flight manual the following information is
given:
Position Arm
front seats: 2.5 m
rear seats: 3.5 m
rear hold: 4.5 m
fuel tanks: 3.0 m
The pilot and one passenger embark; each weighs 80 kg. Fuel tanks contain 140 litres
of petrol with a density of 0.714. The rear seats are not occupied. Taxi fuel is
negligible.
The position of the centre of gravity at take-off (as % MAC) is:
a)

29 %

b)

22 %

c)

34 %

d)

17 %

The centre of gravity of an aeroplane is at 25% of the Mean Aerodynamic Chord.


This means that the centre of gravity of the aeroplane is situated at 25% of the length
of:
a)

the mean aerodynamic chord in relation to the datum

b)

the mean aerodynamic chord in relation to the leading edge

c)

the mean aerodynamic chord in relation to the trailing edge

d)

the aeroplane in relation to the leading edge

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 47

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
031 M&B

168.)

169.)

170.)

The operator of an aircraft equipped with 50 seats uses standard masses for
passengers and baggage. During the preparation of a scheduled flight a group of
passengers present themselves at the check-in desk, it is apparent that even the
lightest of these exceeds the value of the declared standard mass.
a)

the operator may use the standard masses for the load and balance calculation without
correction

b)

the operator may use the standard masses for the balance but must correct these for the
load calculation

c)

the operator is obliged to use the actual masses of each passenger

d)

the operator should use the individual masses of the passengers or alter the standard mass

The datum used for balance calculations is:


a)

chosen on the longitudinal axis of the aircraft, and always at the fire-wall level

b)

chosen on the longitudinal axis of the aircraft and necessarily situated between the
leading edge and trailing edge of the wing

c)

chosen on the longitudinal axis of the aeroplane, but not necessarily between the nose and
the tail of the aircraft

d)

chosen on the longitudinal axis of the aeroplane, and necessarily situated between the
nose and the tail of the aircraft

The Dry Operating Mass of an aircraft is 2 000 kg.


The maximum take-off mass, landing and zero fuel mass are identical at 3500 kg. The
block fuel mass is 550kg, and the taxi fuel mass is 50 kg. The available mass of traffic
load is:
a)

1 000 kg

b)

1 450 kg

c)

950 kg

d)

1 500 kg

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 48

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
031 M&B

171.)

172.)

173.)

Based on actual conditions, an aeroplane has the following performance take-off


mass limitations:
Flaps: 0 10 15
Runway: 4100 4400 4600
Climb: 4700 4500 4200
Masses are in kg
Structural limits: take-off/landing/zero fuel: 4 300 kg
The maximum take-off mass is:
a)

4 200 kg

b)

4 100 kg

c)

4 300 kg

d)

4 700 kg

The basic empty mass of an aircraft is 30 000 kg. The masses of the following items
are:
- catering: 300 kg
- safety and rescue material: nil
- fly away kit: nil
- crew (inclusive crew baggage): 365kg
- fuel at take-off: 3 000 kg
- unusable fuel: 120 kg
- passengers, baggage, cargo: 8 000 kg
The Dry Operating Mass is:
a)

30 300 kg

b)

30 665 kg

c)

38 300 kg

d)

30 785 kg

The floor limit of an aircraft cargo hold is 5 000 N/m2.


It is planned to load-up a cubic container measuring 0,4 m of side.
It's maximum gross mass must not exceed:
(assume g=10m/s2)
a)

800 kg

b)

80 kg

c)

320 kg

d)

32 kg

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 49

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
031 M&B

174.)

175.)

176.)

177.)

To measure the mass and CG-position of an aircraft, it should be weighed with a


minimum of:
a)

4 point of support

b)

2 points of support

c)

3 points of support

d)

1 point of support

During a violent avoidance manoeuvre, a light twin aircraft, certified to FAR 23


requirements was subjected to an instantaneous load factor of 4.2. The Flight Manual
specifies that the aircraft is certified in the normal category for a load factor of -1.9 to
+3.8.
Considering the certification requirements and taking into account that the
manufacturer of the twin did not include, during its conception, a supplementary
margin in the flight envelope, it might be possible to observe;
a)

no distortion, permanent or temporary of the structure

b)

a permanent deformation of the structure

c)

rupture of one or more structural components

d)

a elastic deformation whilst the load was applied, but no permanent distortion

Longitudinal CG location can be expressed:


a)

with respect to the neutral point.

b)

with respect to the centre of pressure.

c)

as a percentage of the MAC from its trailing edge.

d)

as a percentage of the MAC from its leading edge.

By adding to the basic empty mass the following fixed necessary equipment for a
specific flight (catering, safety and rescue equipment, fly away kit, crew), we get:
a)

zero fuel mass

b)

take-off mass

c)

landing mass

d)

Dry operating mass

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 50

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
031 M&B

178.)

179.)

180.)

181.)

The floor of the main cargo hold is limited to 4 000 N/m2.


It is planned to load a cubic container each side of which measures 0.5m.
Its maximum gross mass must not exceed:
(assume g=10m/s2)
a)

500 kg

b)

1 000 kg

c)

5 000 kg

d)

100 kg

An aircraft basic empty mass is 3000 kg.


The maximum take-off, landing, and zero-fuel mass are identical, at 5200 kg. Ramp
fuel is 650 kg, the taxi fuel is 50 kg.
The maximum traffic load is:
a)

2 200 kg

b)

2 150 kg

c)

1 600 kg

d)

1 550 kg

To calculate a allowable take-off mass, the factors to be taken into account include:
a)

the sum of the maximum zero fuel mass and the trip fuel.

b)

the sum of the maximum landing mass and the trip fuel.

c)

the maximum take-off mass minus the trip fuel.

d)

the sum of the maximum landing mass and the fuel on board at take-off.

In cruise flight, a centre of gravity moving aft will:


a)

decrease longitudinal static stability

b)

have no effect on longitudinal static stability

c)

not change the manoeuvrability

d)

increase longitudinal static stability

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 51

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
031 M&B

182.)

183.)

184.)

Given:
Dry operating mass = 38 000 kg
maximum structural take-off mass = 72 000 kg
maximum landing mass = 65 000 kg
maximum zero fuel mass = 61 000 kg
Fuel burn = 8 000 kg
Take-off Fuel = 10 300 kg
The maximum allowed take-off mass and traffic load are respectively :
a)

71 300 kg and 25 300 kg

b)

73 000 kg and 24 700 kg

c)

71 300 kg and 23 000 kg

d)

73 000 kg and 27 000 kg

Length of the mean aerodynamic chord = 1 m


Moment arm of the forward cargo: -0,50 m
Moment arm of the aft cargo: + 2,50 m
The aircraft mass is 2 200 kg and its centre of gravity is at 25% MAC
To move the centre of gravity to 40%, which mass has to be transferred from the
forward to the aft cargo hold?
a)

104 kg

b)

165 kg

c)

110 kg

d)

183 kg

(For this question use annex 031-12266A or Loading Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.14)
Using the load and trim sheet for the JAR FCL twin jet, which of the following is the
correct value for the index at a Dry Operating Mass (DOM) of 35000 kg with a CG at
14% MAC ?
a)

35.5

b)

40.0

c)

33..0

d)

41.5

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 52

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
031 M&B

185.)

186.)

187.)

188.)

(For this question use annex 031-12267A )


Using the data given in the Load & Trim sheet, determine which of the following gives
the correct values for the Zero Fuel Mass and position of the centre of gravity (%
MAC) at that mass.
a)

46130 Kg and 17,8%

b)

46130 Kg and 20,8%

c)

51300 Kg and 20,8%

d)

41300 Kg and 17,8%

(For this question use annex 031-12268A)


Using the data given in the Load & Trim sheet, determine from the following the
correct values for the take off mass and the position of the centre of gravity at that
mass if the fuel index correction to be applied is given as - 0.9
a)

20.3 %

b)

20.1 %

c)

22.6 %

d)

17.5 %

(For this question use annex 031-12269A)


Using the data given at the appendix to this question, if the fuel index corrections
(from ZFM index) are as follows
9500 kg - 0.9
6500 kg - 6.1
3500 kg - 4.7
3000 kg - 4.3
Which of the following represent the correct values for landing mass of the aeroplane
and the position of the centre of gravity for this condition ?
a)

52900kg and 19 %

b)

49130 kg and 19 %

c)

49130 kg and 21.8 %

d)

52900 kg and 21.6 %

(For this question use annex 031-12270A)


Using the data given at the appendix, determine which of the following correctly gives
the values of the Zero Fuel Mass (ZFM) of the aeroplane and the load index at ZFM
a)

48600 kg and 57.0

b)

46300 kg and 20.5

c)

51300 kg and 57.0

d)

35100 kg and 20.5

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 53

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
031 M&B

189.)

190.)

191.)

(For this question use annex 031-12271A)


From the data given at the appendix and assuming a fuel index shift of - 5.7 from the
ZFM loaded index, determine which of the following is the correct value (percentage
MAC) for the position of the centre of gravity at Take Off Mass.
a)

14 %

b)

18 %

c)

19 %

d)

15 %

(For this question use annex 031-12272A)


For the purpose of calculating traffic loads, an operator's loading manual gives the
following standard mass values for passengers. (These values include an allowance
for hand baggage)
Male 88 kg
Female 70 kg
Child 35 kg
Infant 6 kg
The standard mass value to be used for hold baggage is 14 kg per piece
The loading manifest shows the following details:
Passengers loaded
Males 40
Females 65
Children 8
Infants 5
Baggage in hold number 4: 120 pieces
Using the standard mass values given and the data in the appendix, select from the
following the correct value for the mass of freight (all loaded in hold No1) which
constitutes the remainder of the traffic load
a)

260 kg

b)

no cargo can be loaded in hold number 1

c)

280 kg

d)

210 kg

(For this question use annex 031-12273A)


From the data contained in the attached appendix, the maximum allowable take off
mass and traffic load is respectively:
a)

61600 kg and 12150 kg

b)

60425 kg and 10975 kg

c)

68038 kg and 18588 kg

d)

66770 kg and 17320 kg

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 54

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
031 M&B

192.)

(For this question use annex 031-12274A)


An aeroplane is carrying a traffic load of 10320 kg
Complete the necessary sections of the attached appendix and determine which of
the answers given below represents the maximum increase in the traffic load
a)

7000 kg

b)

8268 kg

c)

655 kg

d)

1830 kg

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 55

031-12267 a.jpg

031-12267 a.jpg

031-12269 a.jpg

031-12269 a.jpg

031-12270 a.jpg

031-12270 a.jpg

031-12272 a.jpg

031-12272 a.jpg

031-12273 a.jpg

031-12273 a.jpg

031-1569 a.jpg

031-1569 a.jpg

031-1580 a.jpg

031-1580 a.jpg

031-2946 a.gif

031-2946 a.gif

031-4739 a.gif

031-4739 a.gif

031-6564 a.gif

031-6564 a.gif

031-9596 A, 9598 A, 9603 A, 9604 A

031-9605 A, 9608 A, 9609 A, 9613 A, 9629 A, 9630 A, 9631 A

031-9660 A
CIVIL AVIATION AUTHORITY
MASS & BALANCE

DATA SHEET
MRJT1

2.2 Landing Gear Retraction/extension

negligible effect from operation of landing gear

1.3 Flap Retraction


Figure 4.3 Effect of flap retraction
From

To

Moment Change
(Kg - inches x 1000)

-11

15

-14

30

-15

40

-16

1.4 Take-off Horizontal Stabiliser Trim Setting


Figure 4.4 Graph of trim units for G.G. position

2.5 Mean Aerodynamic Chord

134. 5 inches
Leading edge 625.6 inches aft of datum

3. MASS AND BALANCE LIMITATIONS


3.1 Mass Limits
Maximum Structural Taxi Mass
Maximum Structural Take-off Mass
Maximum Structural Landing Mass
Maximum Structural Zero Fuel Mass

63060
62800
54900
51300

031-9676 A
CIVIL AVIATION AUTHORITY
MASS & BALANCE

DATA SHEET
MRJT1

3.2 Centre of Gravity Limits


The centre of gravity for this aeroplane must at all times be within the limits
prescribed by the CG envelope shown in fig. 4.11 on page 9.
4.

FUEL

4.1
Figure 4.5

Fuel Tank Location and Maximum Volume


BA (fll
tanks)

Volume (US
Gallons)

Mass (Kg)

Left Wing Main Tank 1

650.7

1499

4542

Right Wing Main Tank 2

650.7

1499

4542

Centre Tank

600.4

2313

7008

Max. Total Fuel (assumes 3.03 Kg/US Gall.)

628.8

5311

16092

Caution - If centre tank contains more than 450 Kg the wing tanks must be fll.
4.2
Figure 4.6
Location

Unusable Fuel Quantities


Volume (US Galls)

Mass (Kg)

BA

Wing Tank 1

4.6

14.0

599.0

Wing Tank 2

4.6

14.0

599.0

Centre Tank

7.9

24.0

600.9

FUEL TANK LOCATION DIAGRAM

031-9685 A

031-9640 a.gif

031-9640 a.gif

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
031 M&B

Lsungen
1: A (1 Pkt.)

39: A (2 Pkt.)

77: A (1 Pkt.)

2: D (1 Pkt.)

40: D (3 Pkt.)

78: B (1 Pkt.)

3: C (1 Pkt.)

41: B (3 Pkt.)

79: D (1 Pkt.)

4: C (1 Pkt.)

42: A (3 Pkt.)

80: B (1 Pkt.)

5: C (1 Pkt.)

43: D (1 Pkt.)

81: D (1 Pkt.)

6: B (2 Pkt.)

44: D (1 Pkt.)

82: B (1 Pkt.)

7: B (1 Pkt.)

45: D (1 Pkt.)

83: C (1 Pkt.)

8: D (1 Pkt.)

46: A (1 Pkt.)

84: C (1 Pkt.)

9: A (1 Pkt.)

47: B (1 Pkt.)

85: A (1 Pkt.)

10: C (1 Pkt.)

48: A (1 Pkt.)

86: A (1 Pkt.)

11: A (1 Pkt.)

49: B (1 Pkt.)

87: C (1 Pkt.)

12: C (2 Pkt.)

50: C (2 Pkt.)

88: C (1 Pkt.)

13: A (2 Pkt.)

51: D (1 Pkt.)

89: C (1 Pkt.)

14: C (1 Pkt.)

52: B (1 Pkt.)

90: C (1 Pkt.)

15: D (1 Pkt.)

53: D (1 Pkt.)

91: D (1 Pkt.)

16: A (1 Pkt.)

54: A (2 Pkt.)

92: D (1 Pkt.)

17: C (1 Pkt.)

55: C (2 Pkt.)

93: D (1 Pkt.)

18: B (2 Pkt.)

56: A (1 Pkt.)

94: C (1 Pkt.)

19: C (2 Pkt.)

57: B (1 Pkt.)

95: B (1 Pkt.)

20: B (2 Pkt.)

58: D (1 Pkt.)

96: D (1 Pkt.)

21: D (2 Pkt.)

59: C (1 Pkt.)

97: D (1 Pkt.)

22: C (2 Pkt.)

60: C (1 Pkt.)

98: B (1 Pkt.)

23: C (2 Pkt.)

61: D (1 Pkt.)

99: C (2 Pkt.)

24: B (2 Pkt.)

62: D (1 Pkt.)

100: C (1 Pkt.)

25: B (1 Pkt.)

63: A (1 Pkt.)

101: D (1 Pkt.)

26: A (1 Pkt.)

64: C (2 Pkt.)

102: C (1 Pkt.)

27: D (1 Pkt.)

65: B (2 Pkt.)

103: C (1 Pkt.)

28: A (2 Pkt.)

66: B (1 Pkt.)

104: B (1 Pkt.)

29: D (1 Pkt.)

67: D (1 Pkt.)

105: B (1 Pkt.)

30: B (1 Pkt.)

68: B (1 Pkt.)

106: A (1 Pkt.)

31: D (1 Pkt.)

69: B (1 Pkt.)

107: D (1 Pkt.)

32: A (1 Pkt.)

70: C (1 Pkt.)

108: D (1 Pkt.)

33: D (1 Pkt.)

71: A (1 Pkt.)

109: B (1 Pkt.)

34: C (1 Pkt.)

72: A (1 Pkt.)

110: D (1 Pkt.)

35: C (1 Pkt.)

73: A (1 Pkt.)

111: C (1 Pkt.)

36: C (1 Pkt.)

74: D (1 Pkt.)

112: D (1 Pkt.)

37: B (1 Pkt.)

75: C (1 Pkt.)

113: B (1 Pkt.)

38: A (1 Pkt.)

76: B (1 Pkt.)

114: B (1 Pkt.)

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 56

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
031 M&B

115: B (1 Pkt.)

141: A (1 Pkt.)

167: B (1 Pkt.)

116: A (1 Pkt.)

142: A (3 Pkt.)

168: D (1 Pkt.)

117: D (1 Pkt.)

143: B (1 Pkt.)

169: C (1 Pkt.)

118: C (1 Pkt.)

144: B (1 Pkt.)

170: A (2 Pkt.)

119: B (1 Pkt.)

145: C (1 Pkt.)

171: C (1 Pkt.)

120: B (1 Pkt.)

146: D (1 Pkt.)

172: D (2 Pkt.)

121: D (1 Pkt.)

147: A (2 Pkt.)

173: B (2 Pkt.)

122: A (2 Pkt.)

148: D (2 Pkt.)

174: C (1 Pkt.)

123: D (1 Pkt.)

149: A (1 Pkt.)

175: B (1 Pkt.)

124: D (2 Pkt.)

150: B (1 Pkt.)

176: D (1 Pkt.)

125: B (2 Pkt.)

151: D (1 Pkt.)

177: D (1 Pkt.)

126: D (1 Pkt.)

152: B (1 Pkt.)

178: D (2 Pkt.)

127: C (1 Pkt.)

153: B (2 Pkt.)

179: C (2 Pkt.)

128: B (1 Pkt.)

154: A (2 Pkt.)

180: B (1 Pkt.)

129: C (1 Pkt.)

155: D (1 Pkt.)

181: A (1 Pkt.)

130: C (1 Pkt.)

156: A (3 Pkt.)

182: C (2 Pkt.)

131: C (1 Pkt.)

157: A (3 Pkt.)

183: C (3 Pkt.)

132: A (1 Pkt.)

158: B (3 Pkt.)

184: B (1 Pkt.)

133: A (1 Pkt.)

159: C (3 Pkt.)

185: A (1 Pkt.)

134: B (1 Pkt.)

160: B (2 Pkt.)

186: D (1 Pkt.)

135: A (2 Pkt.)

161: B (1 Pkt.)

187: B (2 Pkt.)

136: A (1 Pkt.)

162: A (1 Pkt.)

188: A (1 Pkt.)

137: B (2 Pkt.)

163: C (1 Pkt.)

189: B (1 Pkt.)

138: C (2 Pkt.)

164: A (1 Pkt.)

190: A (1 Pkt.)

139: D (2 Pkt.)

165: D (1 Pkt.)

191: A (1 Pkt.)

140: C (1 Pkt.)

166: B (3 Pkt.)

192: D (1 Pkt.)

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 57

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
032-PERF

001.)

002.)

003.)

Two identical turbojet aeroplanes (whose specific fuel consumption is assumed to be


constant) are in a holding pattern at the same altitude. The mass of the first one is
95000 kg and its hourly fuel consumption is equal to 3100 kg/h. Since the mass of the
second one is 105 000 kg, its hourly fuel consumption is:
a)

3426 kg/h

b)

3602 kg/h

c)

3259 kg/h

d)

3787 kg/h

(For this question use annex 032-915A)


What is the vertical speed of a three engine turbojet aeroplane with one engine
inoperative (N-1) and -a mass of 75 000 kg?
Using the following: g
= 10 m/s
1 kt
= 100 ft/min
SIN( Angle of climb)
= (Thrust- Drag)/ Weight
a)

-1267 ft / min.

b)

+3293 ft / min.

c)

+1267 ft / min.

d)

0 ft / min.

In relation to the net take-off flight path, the required 35 ft vertical distance to clear all
obstacles is:
a)

based on pressure altitudes.

b)

the height by which acceleration and flap retraction should be completed.

c)

the minimum vertical distance between the lowest part of the aeroplane and all obstacles
within the obstacle domain.

d)

the height at which power is reduced to maximum climb thrust.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 1

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
032-PERF

004.)

005.)

006.)

007.)

During certification flight testing of a transport aeroplane, the distances measured


from brake release to the 35 feet point are equal to:
1547 m with all engines running
1720 m with failure of critical engine at V1, with all other things remaining unchanged.
The take-off distance adopted for the certification file is:
a)

1547 m.

b)

1978 m.

c)

1720 m.

d)

1779 m.

For a turboprop powered aeroplane (performance class A) on a commercial flight, a


2200 m long runway at the destination aerodrome is expected to be wet. It must be
ensured that the landing mass of the aeroplane allows a full stop landing on a dry
runway within a landing distance of:
a)

1771 m.

b)

1339 m.

c)

1147 m.

d)

1540 m.

At a given altitude, when a turbojet aeroplane mass is increased by 5% - assuming the


engines specific consumption remains unchanged -, its hourly consumption is
approximately increased by:
a)

2.5%

b)

10%

c)

5%

d)

7.5%

Considering the take-off decision speed V1, which of the following is correct?
a)

If an engine failure is recognized before reaching V1, the take-off must be aborted.

b)

V1 may not be less than V2min, the minimum take-off safety speed.

c)

V1 is sometimes greater than the rotation speed VR.

d)

If an engine failure is recognized after reaching V1, the take-off must be aborted.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 2

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
032-PERF

008.)

009.)

010.)

What will be the effect on an aeroplane's performance if aerodrome pressure altitude


is decreased?
a)

It will increase the take-off ground run.

b)

It will decrease the take-off distance required.

c)

It will increase the take-off distance required.

d)

It will increase the accelerate stop distance.

What will be the influence on the aeroplane performance if aerodrome pressure


altitude is increased?
a)

It will increase the take-off distance available.

b)

It will increase the take-off distance.

c)

It will decrease the take-off run.

d)

It will decrease the take-off distance.

Given that the characteristics of a three engine turbojet aeroplane are as follows:
Thrust = 50 000 Newton / Engine
g = 10 m/s
Drag = 72 569 N
Minimum steady gradient of climb (2nd segment) = 2.7%
SIN(Angle of climb) = (Thrust- Drag) / Weight
The maximum take-off mass under 2nd segment conditions is:
a)

209 064 kg

b)

74 064 kg

c)

101 596 kg

d)

286 781 kg

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 3

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
032-PERF

011.)

012.)

013.)

014.)

The minimum climb gradient required on the 2nd flight path segment after the take-off
of a jet aeroplane is defined by the following parameters:
1 Gear up
2 Gear down
3 Wing flaps retracted
4 Wing flaps in take-off position
5 N engines at the take-off thrust
6 (N-1) engines at the take-off thrust
7 Speed over the path equal to V2 + 10 kt
8 Speed over the path equal to 1.3 VS
9 Speed over the path equal to V2
10 At a height of 35 ft above the runway
The correct statements are:
a)

1, 4, 6, 9

b)

1, 5, 8, 10

c)

1, 4, 5, 10

d)

2, 3, 6, 9

Minimum control speed on the ground, VMCG, is based on directional control being
maintained by:
a)

nose wheel steering only.

b)

primary aerodynamic control and nose wheel steering.

c)

primary aerodynamic control only.

d)

primary aerodynamic control, nose wheel steering and differential braking.

The take-off runway performance requirements for transport category aeroplanes are
based upon:
a)

one engine inoperative only.

b)

failure of the critical engine or all engines operating whichever requirement gives the
greater distance.

c)

failure of the critical engine only.

d)

all engines operating only.

Which of the following distances will increase if you increase V1, but VR remains
unchanged?
a)

All Engine Take-off distance

b)

Take-off distance

c)

Accelerate Stop Distance

d)

Take-off run

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 4

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
032-PERF

015.)

016.)

017.)

018.)

Which of the following answers is true?


a)

V1 is lower VMCG

b)

V1 is higher VR

c)

V1 is higher VLOF

d)

V1 is lower or equal to VR

The length of a clearway may be included in:


a)

the accelerate-stop distance available.

b)

the take-off distance available.

c)

the take-off run available.

d)

the distance to reach V1.

How does runway slope affect allowable take-off mass, assuming other factors remain
constant and not limiting?
a)

A downhill slope increases allowable take-off mass.

b)

A downhill slope decreases allowable take-off mass.

c)

An uphill slope increases the allowable take-off mass.

d)

Allowable take-off mass is not affected by runway slope.

The following parameters affect the take off ground run:


1 decreasing take off mass
2 increasing take off mass
3 increasing density
4 decreasing density
5 increasing flap setting
6 decreasing flap setting
7 increasing pressure altitude
8 decreasing pressure altitude
Which parameters will decrease the take off ground run?
a)

2, 4, 5 and 7

b)

2, 3, 6 and 7

c)

1, 3, 5 and 8

d)

1, 4, 6 and 8

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 5

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
032-PERF

019.)

020.)

021.)

022.)

023.)

What is the result of a large take off flap setting compared to a small take off flap
setting on required Take-off Distance (TOD) and the field length limited Take-off Mass
(TOM)?
a)

Decreased TOD required and increased field length limited TOM.

b)

Increased TOD required and decreased field length limited TOM.

c)

Increased TOD required and increased field length limited TOM.

d)

Decreased TOD required and decreased field length limited TOM.

How is VMCA influenced by increasing pressure altitude?


a)

VMCA decreases with increasing pressure altitude.

b)

VMCA increases with increasing pressure altitude.

c)

VMCA decreases with pressure altitude higher than 4000 ft.

d)

VMCA decreases with increasing pressure altitude.

Which one of the following is not affected by a tail wind?


a)

the obstacle limited take-off mass.

b)

the field limited take-off mass.

c)

the take-off run.

d)

the climb limited take-off mass.

Considering VR, which statement is correct?


a)

VR is the lowest climb speed after engine failure.

b)

VR is the lowest speed for directional control in case of engine failure.

c)

VR is the speed at which rotation should be initiated.

d)

In case of engine failure below VR the take-off should be aborted.

Which statement is correct?


a)

VR must not be less than 1.05 VMCA and not less than V1.

b)

VR must not be less than 1.1 VMCA and not less than V1.

c)

VR must not be less than 1.05 VMCA and not less than 1.1 V1.

d)

VR must not be less than VMCA and not less than 1.05 V1.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 6

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
032-PERF

024.)

025.)

Which of the following represents the minimum for V1?


a)

VMU

b)

VLOF

c)

VMCG

d)

VR

Which of the following represents the maximum value for V1 assuming max tyre
speed and max brake energy speed are not limiting?
V2
VREF
VR
VMCA

026.)

027.)

During certification flight testing on a four engine turbojet aeroplane the actual takeoff distances measured are:
3050 m with failure of the critical engine recognised at V1
2555 m with all engines operating and all other things being equal
The take-off distance adopted for the certification file is:
a)

2938 m

b)

2555 m

c)

3513 m

d)

3050 m

In the event of engine failure below V1, the first action to be taken by the pilot in order
to decelerate the aeroplane is to:
a)

reduce the engine thrust.

b)

reverse engine thrust.

c)

deploy airbrakes or spoilers.

d)

apply wheel brakes.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 7

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
032-PERF

028.)

029.)

030.)

031.)

032.)

If the antiskid system is inoperative, which of the following statements is true?


a)

The accelerate stop distance decreases.

b)

It has no effect on the accelerate stop distance.

c)

Take-off with anti-skid inoperative is never permitted.

d)

The accelerate stop distance increases.

In which of the following distances can the length of a stopway be included?


a)

In the take-off run available.

b)

In the all-engine take-off distance.

c)

In the one-engine failure case, take-off distance.

d)

In the accelerate stop distance available.

Other factors remaining constant and not limiting, how does increasing pressure
altitude affect allowable take-off mass?
a)

Allowable take-off mass increases.

b)

There is no effect on allowable take-off mass.

c)

Allowable take-off mass decreases.

d)

Allowable take-off mass remains uninfluenced up to 5000 ft pressure altitude.

If there is a tail wind, the climb limited TOM will:


a)

not be affected.

b)

increase in the flaps extended case.

c)

decrease.

d)

increase.

Which of the following sets of factors will increase the climb-limited TOM (every factor
considered independently)?
a)

Low flap setting, low PA, low OAT.

b)

Low flap setting, high PA, low OAT.

c)

Low flap setting, high PA, high OAT.

d)

High flap setting, low PA, low OAT.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 8

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
032-PERF

033.)

034.)

035.)

036.)

037.)

The requirements with regard to take-off flight path and the climb segments are only
specified for:
a)

the failure of the critical engine on a multi-engines aeroplane.

b)

the failure of two engines on a multi-engine aeroplane.

c)

the failure of any engine on a multi-engine aeroplane.

d)

2 engine aeroplane.

At which minimum height will the second climb segment end?


a)

400 ft above field elevation.

b)

35 ft above ground.

c)

1500 ft above field elevation.

d)

When gear retraction is completed.

A head wind will:


a)

increase the angle of climb.

b)

increase the climb flight path angle.

c)

increase the rate of climb.

d)

shorten the time of climb.

Assuming that the required lift exists, which forces determine an aeroplane's angle of
climb?
a)

Thrust and drag only.

b)

Weight, drag and thrust.

c)

Weight and thrust only.

d)

Weight and drag only.

How does the best angle of climb and best rate of climb vary with increasing altitude
for an aeroplane with a normal aspirated piston engine?
a)

Both increase.

b)

Best angle of climb decreases while best rate of climb increases.

c)

Best angle of climb increases while best rate of climb decreases.

d)

Both decrease.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 9

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
032-PERF

038.)

039.)

040.)

041.)

042.)

An operator shall ensure that the net take-off flight path clears all obstacles. The halfwidth of the obstacle-corridor at the distance D from the end of the TODA is at least:
a)

0.125D

b)

90m + 0.125D

c)

90m + D/0.125

d)

90m + 1.125D

What is the effect of tail wind on the time to climb to a given altitude?
a)

The time to climb decreases.

b)

The time to climb does not change.

c)

The effect on time to climb will depend on the aeroplane type.

d)

The time to climb increases.

The angle of climb with flaps extended, compared to that with flaps retracted, will
normally be:
a)

Increase at moderate flap setting, decrease at large flap setting.

b)

Larger.

c)

Smaller.

d)

Not change.

Vx and Vy with take-off flaps will be:


a)

higher than that for clean configuration.

b)

changed so that Vx increases and Vy decreases compared to clean configuration.

c)

lower than that for clean configuration.

d)

same as that for clean configuration.

Other factors remaining constant, how does increasing altitude affect Vx and Vy in
terms of TAS?
a)

Vx will decrease and Vy will increase.

b)

Both will remain the same.

c)

Both will decrease.

d)

Both will increase.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 10

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
032-PERF

043.)

044.)

045.)

046.)

How does TAS vary in a constant Mach climb in the troposphere (under ISA
conditions) ?
a)

TAS is constant.

b)

TAS increases.

c)

TAS decreases.

d)

TAS is not related to Mach Number.

The optimum long-range cruise altitude for a turbojet aeroplane:


a)

is only dependent on the outside air temperature.

b)

is always equal to the powerplant ceiling.

c)

increases when the aeroplane mass decreases.

d)

is independent of the aeroplane mass.

Considering TAS for maximum range and maximum endurance, other factors
remaining constant,
a)

both will decrease with increasing altitude.

b)

both will stay constant regardless of altitude.

c)

both will increase with increasing altitude.

d)

TAS for maximum range will increase with increased altitude while TAS for maximum
endurance will decrease with increased altitude.

How does the specific range change when the altitude increases for jet aeroplane
flying with the speed for maximum range?
a)

Does not change.

b)

Increases only if there is no wind.

c)

First increases than decreases.

d)

Decreases.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 11

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
032-PERF

047.)

048.)

049.)

050.)

(For this question use annex 032-1014A rev. 05.05.2003)


Assuming constant L/D ratio, which of the diagrams provided correctly shows the
movement of the "Thrust Required Curve". Mass m1 is higher than mass m2.
a)

b)

c)

d)

Long range cruise is a flight procedure which gives:


a)

a specific range which is approximately 99% of maximum specific range and a lower
cruise speed.

b)

an IAS which is 1% higher than the IAS for maximum specific range.

c)

a 1% higher TAS for maximum specific range.

d)

a specific range which is approximately 99% of maximum specific range and a higher
cruise speed.

A twin engine aeroplane in cruise flight with one engine inoperative has to fly over
high ground. In order to maintain the highest possible altitude the pilot should
choose:
a)

the speed at the maximum lift.

b)

the speed corresponding to the minimum value of (lift / drag)^3/2.

c)

the long range speed.

d)

the speed corresponding to the maximum value of the lift / drag ratio.

A commercial flight is planned with a turbojet aeroplane to an aerodrome with a


landing distance available of 2400 m. The aeroplane mass must be such that on arrival
the aeroplane can be landed within:
a)

1 250 m.

b)

1 090 m.

c)

1 655 m.

d)

1 440 m.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 12

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
032-PERF

051.)

052.)

053.)

054.)

At the destination aerodrome the landing distance available is 3000m. The appropriate
weather forecast indicates that the runway at the estimated time of arrival will be wet.
For a commercial flight the mass of a turbojet aeroplane at landing must be such that
the aeroplane can be landed within:
a)

1800 m.

b)

2 070 m.

c)

2609 m.

d)

1565 m.

With zero wind, the angle of attack for maximum range for an aeroplane with turbojet
engines is:
a)

equal to the angle of attack corresponding to maximum endurance

b)

lower than the angle of attack corresponding to maximum endurance

c)

equal to the angle of attack corresponding to maximum lift to drag ratio.

d)

equal to the angle of attack corresponding to zero induced drag.

Two identical turbojet aeroplane (whose specific fuel consumptions are considered to
be equal) are at holding speed at the same altitude.
The mass of the first aircraft is 130 000 kg and its hourly fuel consumption is 4300
kg/h. The mass of the second aircraft is 115 000 kg and its hourly fuel consumption is:
a)

3578 kg/h.

b)

3365 kg/h.

c)

4044 kg/h.

d)

3804 kg/h.

A jet aeroplane equipped with old engines has a specific fuel consumption of 0.06 kg
per Newton of thrust and per hour and, in a given flying condition, a fuel consumption
of 14 kg per NM. In the same flying conditions, the same aeroplane equipped with
modern engines with a specific fuel consumption of 0.035 kg per Newton of thrust and
per hour, has a fuel consumption per NM of:
a)

8.17 kg/NM.

b)

14 kg/NM.

c)

10.7 kg/NM.

d)

11.7 kg/NM.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 13

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
032-PERF

055.)

056.)

057.)

The determination of the maximum mass on brake release, of a certified turbojet


aeroplane with 5, 15 and 25 flaps angles on take-off, leads to the following values:
Flap angle:
5
15
25
Runway limitation (kg):
66 000
69 500
71 500
2nd segment climb limitation: 72 200
69 000
61 800
Wind correction:
Head wind:+120kg / kt
Tail wind: -360kg / kt
Given that the tail wind component is equal to 5 kt, the maximum mass on brake
release and corresponding flap angle will be:
a)

69 700 kg / 25 deg

b)

72 200 kg / 5 deg

c)

69 000 kg / 15 deg

d)

67 700 kg / 15 deg

The correct formula is:


(Remark: "<=" means "equal to or lower")
a)

1.05 VMCA<= VEF<= V1

b)

V2min<= VEF<= VMU

c)

1.05 VMCG< VEF<= VR

d)

VMCG<=VEF < V1

Given:
VS= Stalling speed
VMCA= Air minimum control speed
VMU= Minimum unstick speed (disregarding engine failure)
V1= take-off decision speed
VR= Rotation speed
V2 min.= Minimum take-off safety speed
VLOF: Lift-off speed
The correct formula is:
a)

V2min< VMCA> VMU

b)

VMU<= VMCA< V1

c)

VR< VMCA< VLOF

d)

VS< VMCA< V2 min

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 14

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
032-PERF

058.)

059.)

060.)

061.)

Regarding take-off, the take-off decision speed V1:


a)

is always equal to VEF (Engine Failure speed).

b)

is an airspeed at which the aeroplane is airborne but below 35 ft and the pilot is assumed
to have made a decision to continue or discontinue the take-off .

c)

is the airspeed on the ground at which the pilot is assumed to have made a decision to
continue or discontinue the take-off.

d)

is the airspeed of the aeroplane upon reaching 35 feet above the take-off surface.

During certification test flights for a turbojet aeroplane, the actual measured take-off
runs from brake release to a point equidistant between the point at which VLOF is
reached and the point at which the aeroplane is 35 feet above the take-off surface are:
- 1747 m, all engines operating
- 1950 m, with the critical engine failure recognized at V1, the other factors remaining
unchanged.
Considering both possibilities to determine the take-off run (TOR). What is the correct
distance?
a)

1950 m.

b)

2096 m.

c)

2243 m.

d)

2009 m.

An airport has a 3000 metres long runway, and a 2000 metres clearway at each end of
that runway. For the calculation of the maximum allowed take-off mass, the take-off
distance available cannot be greater than:
a)

4000 metres.

b)

6000 metres.

c)

4500 metres.

d)

5000 metres.

The lowest take-off safety speed (V2 min) is:


a)

1.20 VSR for all aeroplanes.

b)

1.20 VSR for all turbo-propeller aeroplanes.

c)

1.13 VSR for two- and three-engine turbo-propeller and turbojet aeroplanes.

d)

1.15 VSR for all turbojet and turbo-propeller aeroplanes.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 15

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
032-PERF

062.)

063.)

064.)

065.)

The net flight path gradient after take-off compared to the actual climb gradient is:
a)

smaller.

b)

larger.

c)

depends on type of aircraft and may be smaller or larger respectively.

d)

equal.

Which of the following three speeds of a jet aeroplane are basically identical?
The speeds for:
a)

maximum range, minimum drag and minimum glide angle.

b)

maximum drag, maximum endurance and maximum climb angle.

c)

holding, maximum climb angle and minimum glide angle.

d)

maximum climb angle, minimum glide angle and maximum range.

The lift coefficient decreases during a glide with constant Mach number, mainly
because the:
a)

TAS decreases.

b)

IAS increases.

c)

glide angle increases.

d)

aircraft mass decreases.

(For this question use annex 032-2211A)


Which of the following diagrams correctly shows the movement of the power required
curve with increasing altitude .(H1 < H2)
a)

Figure a

b)

Figure b

c)

Figure d

d)

Figure c

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 16

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
032-PERF

066.)

067.)

068.)

069.)

070.)

An aeroplane executes a steady glide at the speed for minimum glide angle. If the
forward speed is kept constant, what is the effect of a lower mass?
Rate of descent / Glide angle / CL/CD ratio
a)

increases / increases / constant

b)

decreases / constant / decreases

c)

increases / constant / increases

d)

increases / increases / decreases

An aeroplane is in a power off glide at speed for minimum glide angle. If the pilot
increases pitch attitude the glide distance:
a)

increases.

b)

decreases.

c)

remains the same.

d)

may increase or decrease depending on the type of aeroplane.

Maximum endurance for a piston engine aeroplane is achieved at:


a)

The speed that corresponds to the speed for maximum climb angle.

b)

The speed for maximum lift coefficient.

c)

The speed that approximately corresponds to the maximum rate of climb speed.

d)

The speed for minimum drag.

The maximum indicated air speed of a piston engine aeroplane without turbo charger,
in level flight, is reached:
a)

at the optimum cruise altitude.

b)

at the lowest possible altitude.

c)

at the practical ceiling.

d)

at the service ceiling.

During a descent at constant Mach Number, the margin to low speed buffet will:
a)

decrease, because the lift coefficient decreases.

b)

increase, because the lift coefficient decreases.

c)

increase, because the lift coefficient increases.

d)

remain constant, because the Mach number remains constant.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 17

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
032-PERF

071.)

072.)

073.)

074.)

(For this question use annex 032-2219A or Performance Manual SEP1 1 Figure 2.4 )
With regard to the graph for landing performance, what is the minimum headwind
component required in order to land at Helgoland airport?
Given:
Runway length: 1300 ft, Runway elevation: MSL
Weather: assume ISA conditions
Mass: 3200 lbs
Obstacle height: 50 ft
a)

10 kt.

b)

15 kt.

c)

No wind.

d)

5 kt.

A jet aeroplane is climbing at a constant IAS and maximum climb thrust, how will the
climb angle / the pitch angle change?
a)

Remain constant / become larger.

b)

Reduce / decrease.

c)

Remain constant / decrease.

d)

Reduce / remain constant.

A jet aeroplane is flying long range cruise. How does the specific range / fuel flow
change?
a)

Increase / decrease.

b)

Decrease / increase.

c)

Decrease / decrease.

d)

Increase / increase.

During a glide at constant Mach number, the pitch angle of the aeroplane will:
a)

decrease.

b)

remain constant.

c)

increase at first and decrease later on.

d)

increase.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 18

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
032-PERF

075.)

076.)

077.)

078.)

During a cruise flight of a jet aeroplane at constant flight level and at the maximum
range speed, the IAS / the drag will:
a)

decrease / increase.

b)

increase / decrease.

c)

increase / increase.

d)

decrease / decrease.

An aeroplane carries out a descent from FL 410 to FL 270 at cruise Mach number, and
from FL 270 to FL 100 at the IAS reached at FL 270.
How does the angle of descent change in the first and in the second part of the
descent?
Assume idle thrust and clean configuration and ignore compressibility effects.
a)

Increases in the first part; is constant in the second.

b)

Decreases in the first part; increases in the second.

c)

Is constant in the first part; decreases in the second.

d)

Increases in the first part; decreases in the second.

Which statement with respect to the step climb is correct?


a)

A step climb is executed because ATC desires a higher altitude.

b)

A step climb is executed in principle when, just after levelling off, the 1.3g altitude is
reached.

c)

Executing a desired step climb at high altitude can be limited by buffet onset at g-loads
greater than 1.

d)

A step climb must be executed immediately after the aeroplane has exceeded the
optimum altitude.

Which of the following combinations basically has an effect on the angle of descentin
a glide? (Ignore compressibility effects.)
a)

Configuration and mass.

b)

Mass and altitude.

c)

Altitude and configuration.

d)

Configuration and angle of attack.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 19

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
032-PERF

079.)

080.)

081.)

082.)

Two identical aeroplanes at different masses are descending at idle thrust. Which of
the following statements correctly describes their descent characteristics ?
a)

At a given angle of attack the lighter aeroplane will always glide further than the heavier
aeroplane.

b)

There is no difference between the descent characteristics of the two aeroplanes.

c)

At a given angle of attack, both the vertical and the forward speed are greater for the
heavier aeroplane.

d)

At a given angle of attack the heavier aeroplane will always glide further than the lighter
aeroplane.

What is the effect of a head wind component, compared to still air, on the maximum
range speed (IAS) and the speed for maximum climb angle respectively?
a)

Maximum range speed increases and maximum climb angle speed stays constant.

b)

Maximum range speed increases and maximum climb angle speed increases.

c)

Maximum range speed decreases and maximum climb angle speed decreases.

d)

Maximum range speed decreases and maximum climb angle speed increases.

For a jet aeroplane, the maximum climb angle is achieved at a speed corresponding
to:
a)

1.2 Vs

b)

1.1 Vs

c)

the maximum CL/CD ratio

d)

the maximum CL/CD ratio

The maximum speed in horizontal flight occurs when:


a)

The thrust is equal to minimum drag.

b)

The maximum thrust is equal to the total drag.

c)

The thrust is equal to the maximum drag.

d)

The thrust does not increase further with increasing speed.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 20

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
032-PERF

083.)

084.)

085.)

086.)

With respect to the optimum altitude, which of the following statements is correct ?
a)

An aeroplane always flies below the optimum altitude, because Mach buffet might occur.

b)

An aeroplane sometimes flies above or below the optimum altitude because optimum
altitude increases continuously during flight.

c)

An aeroplane flies most of the time above the optimum altitude because this yields the
most economic result.

d)

An aeroplane always flies at the optimum altitude because this is economically seen as
the most attractive altitude.

How does the lift coefficient for maximum range vary with altitude?
(No compressibility effects.)
a)

Only at low speeds the lift coefficient decreases with increasing altitude.

b)

The lift coefficient decreases with increasing altitude.

c)

The lift coefficient increases with increasing altitude.

d)

The lift coefficient is independent of altitude.

What happens to the drag of a jet aeroplane if, during the initial climb after take
off,constant IAS is maintained?(Assume a constant mass.)
a)

The drag increases considerably.

b)

The drag increases initially and decreases thereafter.

c)

The drag decreases.

d)

The drag remains almost constant.

Which of the following sequences of speed for a jet aeroplane is correct ? (from low to
high speeds)
a)

Vs, maximum angle climb speed, maximum range speed.

b)

Maximum endurance speed, maximum range speed, maximum angle of climb speed.

c)

Maximum endurance speed, long range speed, maximum range speed.

d)

Vs, maximum range speed, maximum angle climb speed.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 21

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
032-PERF

087.)

088.)

089.)

090.)

091.)

If a flight is performed with a higher "Cost Index" at a given mass which of the
following will occur?
a)

A lower cruise Mach number.

b)

An increased maximum range.

c)

An increased long range performance.

d)

A higher cruise Mach number.

For a jet transport aeroplane, which of the following is the reason for the use of
'maximum range speed' ?
a)

Longest flight duration.

b)

Minimum drag.

c)

Minimum fuel flow.

d)

Minimum specific fuel consumption.

The speed for maximum lift/drag ratio will result in:


a)

The maximum range for a jet aeroplane.

b)

The maximum angle of climb for a propeller driven aeroplane.

c)

The maximum endurance for a propeller driven aeroplane.

d)

The maximum range for a propeller driven aeroplane.

What happens when an aeroplane climbs at a constant Mach number?


a)

The lift coefficient increases.

b)

The "1.3G" altitude is exceeded, so Mach buffet will start immediately.

c)

The TAS continues to increase, which may lead to structural problems.

d)

IAS stays constant so there will be no problems.

Which of the following provides maximum obstacle clearance during climb?


a)

The speed, at which the flaps may be selected one position further UP.

b)

The speed for maximum rate of climb.

c)

1.2Vs.

d)

The speed for maximum climb angle Vx.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 22

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
032-PERF

092.)

093.)

094.)

095.)

096.)

Which of the following factors will lead to an increase of ground distance during a
glide, while maintaining the appropriate minimum glide angle speed?
a)

Tailwind.

b)

Increase of aircraft mass.

c)

Headwind.

d)

Decrease of aircraft mass.

Which of the following factors leads to the maximum flight time of a glide?
a)

Low mass.

b)

Headwind.

c)

High mass.

d)

Tailwind.

Which of the following is a reason to operate an aeroplane at 'long range speed'?


a)

In order to achieve speed stability.

b)

In order to prevent loss of speed stability and tuck-under.

c)

It is efficient to fly slightly faster than with maximum range speed.

d)

The aircraft can be operated close to the buffet onset speed.

Complete the following statement regarding the take-off performance of an aeroplane


in performance class A. Following an engine failure at (i) ........... and allowing for a
reaction time of (ii) ........... a correctly loaded aircraft must be capable of decelerating
to a halt within the (iii) .........
a)

(i) V1

(ii) 1 second

(iii) Accelerate - stop distance available.

b)

(i) V1

(ii) 2 seconds

(iii) Accelerate - stop distance available.

c)

(i) V2

(ii) 3 seconds

(iii) Take-off distance available.

d)

(i) V1

(ii) 2 seconds

(iii) Take-off distance available.

If the value of the balanced V1 is found to be lower than VMCG, which of the following
is correct ?
a)

V1 must be increased to at least the value of VMCG.

b)

The VMCG will be lowered to V1.

c)

The ASDR will become greater than the one engine out take-off distance.

d)

The one engine out take-off distance will become greater than the ASDR.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 23

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
032-PERF

097.)

098.)

099.)

100.)

101.)

In accordance to JAR 25 which of the following listed speeds are used for
determination of V2min:
a)

VLOF, VMCA.

b)

VSR, VMCA

c)

VMCG, V2

d)

V1, VR.

Maximum Tyre Speed can limit the Lift-off Speed. Which kind of speed can be directly
used to determine this limitation?
a)

ESS.

b)

Groundspeed.

c)

IAS.

d)

TAS.

Reduced take-off thrust should normally not be used when:


a)

the runway is dry.

b)

windshear is reported on the take-off path.

c)

it is dark.

d)

the runway is wet.

Reduced take-off thrust should normally not be used when:


a)

the runway is wet.

b)

anti skid is not usable.

c)

the OAT is ISA +10C

d)

it is dark.

Reduced take-off thrust should normally not be used when:


a)

it is dark.

b)

obstacles are present close to the end of the runway.

c)

the runway is wet.

d)

the runway is contaminated.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 24

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
032-PERF

102.)

103.)

104.)

105.)

The use of reduced take-off thrust is permitted, only if:


a)

The take-off distance available is lower than the take-off distance required one engine out
at V1.

b)

The actual take-off mass (TOM) is greater than the climb limited TOM.

c)

The actual take-off mass (TOM) including a margin is greater than the performance
limited TOM.

d)

The actual take-off mass (TOM) is lower than the field length limited TOM.

When V1 has to be reduced because of a wet runway the one engine out obstacle
clearance / climb performance:
a)

increases / increases.

b)

remains constant / remains constant.

c)

decreases / decreases.

d)

decreases / remains constant.

Which statement concerning the inclusion of a clearway in take-off calculation is


correct?
a)

The usable length of the clearway is not limited.

b)

The field length limited take-off mass will increase.

c)

V1 is increased.

d)

V1 remains constant.

In certain conditions V2 can be limited by VCMA


a)

High take-off mass, large flap extension, low field elevation.

b)

Low take-off mass, large flap extension, low field elevation.

c)

High take-off mass, small flap extension, high field elevation.

d)

Low take-off mass, small flap extension, low field elevation.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 25

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
032-PERF

106.)

107.)

108.)

109.)

Which of the following factors favours the selection of a low flap setting for the takeoff?
a)

Low field elevation, close-in obstacles in the climb-out path, long runway and a high
ambient temperature.

b)

High field elevation, no obstacles in the climb-out path, low ambient temperature and
short runway.

c)

High field elevation, distant obstacles in the climb-out path, long runway and a high
ambient temperature.

d)

Low field elevation, no obstacles in the climb-out path, short runway and a low ambient
temperature.

The approach climb requirement has been established so that the aeroplane will
achieve:
a)

obstacle clearance in the approach area.

b)

manoeuvrability during approach with full flaps and gear down, all engines operating.

c)

manoeuvrability in the event of landing with one engine inoperative.

d)

minimum climb gradient in the event of a go-around with one engine inoperative.

How is V2 affected if T/O flaps 20 is chosen instead of T/O flaps 10?


a)

V2 increases in proportion to the angle at which the flaps are set.

b)

V2 has no connection with T/O flap setting, as it is a function of runway length only.

c)

V2 decreases if not restricted by VMCA.

d)

V2 has the same value in both cases.

What is the advantage of balancing V1, even in the event of a climb limited take-off?
a)

The safety margin with respect to the runway length is greatest.

b)

The accelerate stop distance required is the shortest.

c)

The take-off distance required with one engine out at V1 is the shortest.

d)

The climb limited take-off mass is the highest.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 26

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
032-PERF

110.)

111.)

112.)

113.)

During the flight preparation the climb limited take-off mass (TOM) is found to be
much greater than the field length limited TOM using 5 flap. In what way can the
performance limited TOM be increased? There are no limiting obstacles.
a)

By selecting a lower flap setting.

b)

By selecting a higher V2.

c)

By selecting a lower V2.

d)

By selecting a higher flap setting.

Which combination of circumstances or conditions would most likely lead to a tyre


speed limited take-off?
a)

A high runway elevation and tail wind.

b)

A low runway elevation and a cross wind.

c)

A high runway elevation and a head wind.

d)

A low runway elevation and a head wind.

During the flight preparation a pilot makes a mistake by selecting a V1 greater than
that required. Which problem will occur when the engine fails at a speed immediately
above the correct value of V1?
a)

The one engine out take-off distance required may exceed the take-off distance available.

b)

It may lead to over-rotation.

c)

V2 may be too high so that climb performance decreases.

d)

The stop distance required will exceed the stop distance available.

Which of the following statements is correct?


a)

The performance limited take-off mass is independent of the wind component.

b)

The accelerate stop distance required is independent of the runway condition.

c)

The climb limited take-off mass is independent of the wind component.

d)

The take-off distance with one engine out is independent of the wind component.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 27

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
032-PERF

114.)

115.)

116.)

117.)

The drift down requirements are based on:


a)

the landing mass limit at the alternate.

b)

the obstacle clearance during a descent to the new cruising altitude if an engine has
failed.

c)

the maximum flight path gradient during the descent.

d)

the actual engine thrust output at the altitude of engine failure.

Which of the following statements, concerning the obstacle limited take-off mass for
performance class A aeroplane, is correct?
a)

It cannot be lower than the corresponding climb limited take-off mass.

b)

It should be determined on the basis of a 35 ft obstacle clearance with the respect to the
"net take-off flight path".

c)

It should not be corrected for 30 bank turns in the take-off path.

d)

It should be calculated in such a way that there is a margin of 50 ft with respect to the
"net take off flight path".

Which of the following statements is correct?


a)

VR should not be higher than 1.05 VMCG.

b)

VR is the speed at which, during rotation, the nose wheel comes off the runway.

c)

VR should not be higher than V1.

d)

VR is the speed at which the pilot should start to rotate the aeroplane.

The 'maximum tyre speed' limits:


a)

VLOF in terms of ground speed.

b)

V1 in kt TAS.

c)

V1 in kt ground speed.

d)

VR, or VMU if this is lower than VR.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 28

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
032-PERF

118.)

119.)

120.)

121.)

For jet aeroplanes which of the following statements is correct?


a)

In any case runway slope is one of the factors taken into account when determining the
required landing field length.

b)

When determining the maximum allowable landing mass at destination, 60% of the
available distance is taken into account, if the runway is expected to be dry.

c)

An anti-skid system malfunction has no effect on the required landing field length.

d)

The required landing field length is the distance from 35 ft to the full stop point.

Which statement is correct?


a)

The climb limited take-off mass increases when a larger take-off flap setting is used.

b)

The climb limited take-off mass will increase if the headwind component increases.

c)

The performance limited take-off mass is the highest of:


field length limited take-off mass
climb limited take-off mass
obstacle limited take-off mass.

d)

The climb limited take-off mass depends on pressure altitude and outer air temperature

Which of the following factors determines the maximum flight altitude in the "Buffet
Onset Boundary" graph?
a)

Economy.

b)

Aerodynamics.

c)

Theoretical ceiling.

d)

Service ceiling.

Which data can be extracted from the Buffet Onset Boundary Chart?
a)

The value of the Mach number at which low speed and shockstall occur at various masses
and altitudes.

b)

The value of maximum operating Mach number (MMO) at various masses and power
settings.

c)

The value of the critical Mach number at various masses and altitudes.

d)

The values of the Mach number at which low speed and Mach buffet occur at various
masses and altitudes.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 29

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
032-PERF

122.)

123.)

124.)

125.)

126.)

Why should the temperature of the wheel brakes be checked prior to take off?"
a)

Because overheated brakes will not perform adequately in the event of a rejected take-off.

b)

To ensure that the brake wear is not excessive.

c)

To ensure that the wheels have warmed up evenly.

d)

To ensure that the thermal blow-out plugs are not melted.

Which is the correct sequence of speeds during take-off?


a)

VMCG, V1, VR, V2.

b)

V1, VMCG, VR, V2.

c)

V1, VR, V2, VMCA.

d)

V1, VR, VMCG, V2.

A jet aeroplane is climbing with constant IAS. Which operational speed limit is most
likely to be reached?
a)

The Stalling speed.

b)

The Mach limit for the Mach trim system.

c)

The Maximum operating Mach number.

d)

The Minimum control speed air.

A jet aeroplane descends with constant Mach number. Which speed limit will be
exceeded?
a)

Maximum Operating Speed

b)

High Speed Buffet Limit

c)

Maximum Operational Mach Number

d)

Never Exceed Speed

Which statement about reduced thrust is correct?


a)

In case of reduced thrust V1 should be decreased.

b)

Reduced thrust is used in order to save fuel.

c)

Reduced thrust can be used when the actual take-off mass is less than the field length
limited take-off mass.

d)

Reduced thrust is primarily a noise abatement procedure.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 30

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
032-PERF

127.)

128.)

129.)

130.)

Which statement, in relation to the climb limited take-off mass of a jet aeroplane, is
correct?
a)

The climb limited take-off mass is determined at the speed for best rate of climb.

b)

The climb limited take-off mass decreases with increasing OAT.

c)

50% of a head wind is taken into account when determining the climb limited take-off
mass.

d)

On high elevation airports equipped with long runways the aeroplane will always be
climb limited.

Regarding the obstacle limited take-off mass, which of the following statements is
correct?
a)

The obstacle limited mass can never be lower than the climb limited take-off mass.

b)

A take-off in the direction of an obstacle is also permitted in tail wind condition.

c)

The maximum bank angle which can be used is 10.

d)

Wind speed plays no role when calculating this particular mass.

Which statement regarding V1 is correct?


a)

The V1 correction for up-slope is negative.

b)

V1 must not exceed VR.

c)

When determining the V1, reverse thrust is only allowed to be taken into account on the
remaining symmetric engines.

d)

V1 must not exceed VMCG.

When an aircraft takes off with the mass limited by the TODA:
a)

the "balanced take-off distance" equals 115% of the "all engine take-off distance".

b)

the end of the runway will be cleared by 35 feet following an engine failure at V1.

c)

the actual take-off mass equals the field length limited take-off mass.

d)

the distance from brake release to V1 will be equal to the distance from V1 to the 35 feet
point.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 31

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
032-PERF

131.)

132.)

133.)

134.)

For a take-off from a contaminated runway, which of the following statements is


correct?
a)

The performance data for take-off must be determined in general by means of calculation,
only a few values are verified by flight tests.

b)

Dry snow is not considered to affect the take-off performance.

c)

A slush covered runway must be cleared before take-off, even if the performance data for
contaminated runway is available.

d)

The greater the depth of contamination at constant take-off mass, the more V1 has to be
decreased to compensate for decreasing friction.

To minimize the risk of hydroplaning during landing the pilot should:


a)

postpone the landing until the risk of hydroplaning no longer exists.

b)

use normal landing-, braking- and reverse technique.

c)

make a "positive" landing and apply maximum reverse thrust and brakes as quickly as
possible.

d)

use maximum reverse thrust, and should start braking below the hydroplaning speed.

What is the advantage of a balanced field length condition ?


a)

A balanced field length gives the minimum required field length in the event of an engine
failure.

b)

For a balanced field length the required take-off runway length always equals the
available runway length.

c)

A balanced take-off provides the lowest elevator input force requirement for rotation.

d)

A balanced field length provides the greatest margin between "net" and "gross" take-off
flight paths.

The stopway is an area which allows an increase only in the:


a)

take-off distance available.

b)

take-off run available.

c)

landing distance available.

d)

accelerate-stop distance available.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 32

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
032-PERF

135.)

136.)

137.)

138.)

VR cannot be lower than:


a)

V1 and 105% of VMCA.

b)

1.15 Vs for turbo-prop with three or more engines.

c)

105% of V1 and VMCA.

d)

1.2 Vs for twin and three engine jet aeroplane.

The effect of a higher take-off flap setting up to the optimum is:


a)

an increase of both the field length limited take-off mass and the climb limited take-off
mass.

b)

an increase of the field length limited take-off mass but a decrease of the climb limited
take-off mass.

c)

a decrease of both the field length limited take-off mass and the climb limited take-off
mass.

d)

a decrease of the field length limited take-off mass but an increase of the climb limited
take-off mass.

When the outside air temperature increases beyond the flat rated temperature of the
engines, the:
a)

field length limited take-off mass decreases but the climb limited take-off mass increases.

b)

field length limited take-off mass and the climb limited take-off mass decreases.

c)

field length limited take-off mass increases but the climb limited take-off mass decreases.

d)

field length limited take-off mass and the climb limited take-off mass increases.

The one engine out take-off run is the distance between the brake release point and:
a)

the point where V2 is reached.

b)

the point half way between V1 and V2.

c)

the lift-off point.

d)

the middle of the segment between VLOF point and 35 ft point.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 33

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
032-PERF

139.)

140.)

141.)

142.)

The decision speed at take-off (V1) is the calibrated airspeed:


a)

at which the take-off must be rejected.

b)

at which the failure of the critical engine is expected to occur.

c)

below which take-off must be rejected if an engine failure is recognized, above which
take-off must be continued.

d)

below which the take-off must be continued.

With regard to an unaccelerated horizontal flight, which of the following statements is


correct?
(no compressibility effects)
a)

The minimum drag is independent of the aircraft mass.

b)

The minimum drag is proportional to the aircraft mass.

c)

The minimum drag is a function of the density altitude.

d)

The minimum drag is a function of the pressure altitude.

If the aircraft mass, in a horizontal unaccelerated flight, decreases:


a)

the minimum drag decreases and the IAS for minimum drag decreases.

b)

the minimum drag decreases and the IAS for minimum drag increases.

c)

the minimum drag increases and the IAS for minimum drag decreases.

d)

the minimum drag increases and the IAS for minimum drag increases.

The tangent from the origin to the power required against true airspeed curve, for a jet
aeroplane, determines the speed for:
a)

minimum power.

b)

critical angle of attack.

c)

maximum specific range.

d)

maximum endurance.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 34

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
032-PERF

143.)

144.)

145.)

146.)

For a jet aeroplane, the speed for maximum range is:


a)

that corresponding to the point of the minimum drag at the Drag versus TAS curve.

b)

that corresponding to the point of contact of the tangent from the origin to the Drag
versus TAS curve.

c)

that corresponding to the point of the minimum power required the Drag versus TAS
curve.

d)

that corresponding to the point of contact of the tangent from the origin to the Power
required versus TAS curve.

Which cruise system gives minimum fuel consumption during cruise between top of
climb and top of descent? (still air, no turbulence)?
a)

Long range.

b)

Maximum endurance.

c)

Maximum range.

d)

Holding.

A jet aeroplane is climbing at constant Mach number below the tropopause. Which of
the following statements is correct?
a)

IAS decreases and TAS decreases.

b)

IAS decreases and TAS increases.

c)

IAS increases and TAS decreases.

d)

IAS increases and TAS increases.

With all engines out, a pilot wants to fly for maximum time. Therefore he has to fly the
speed corresponding to:
a)

the minimum angle of descent.

b)

the minimum power required.

c)

the maximum lift.

d)

the critical Mach number.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 35

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
032-PERF

147.)

148.)

149.)

150.)

(For this question use annex 032-2929A)


Consider the graphic representation of the power required versus true air speed
(TAS), for a piston engine aeroplane with a given mass. When drawing the tangent from the origin, the point of contact (A) determines the speed of:
a)

critical angle of attack.

b)

maximum thrust.

c)

maximum endurance.

d)

maximum specific range.

For a piston engine aeroplane, the speed for maximum range is:
a)

that which gives the maximum lift to drag ratio.

b)

1.4 times the stall speed in clean configuration.

c)

that which gives the maximum value of lift

d)

that which gives the minimum value of drag.

A twin jet aeroplane is in cruise, with one engine inoperative, and has to overfly a high
terrain area. In order to allow the greatest clearance height, the appropriate airspeed
must be the airspeed
a)

giving the highest Cd/Cl ratio.

b)

for long-range cruise.

c)

of greatest lift-to-drag ratio.

d)

giving the lowest Cl/Cd ratio.

A four jet-engine aeroplane (mass = 150 000 kg) is established on climb with all
engines operating. The lift-to-drag ratio is 14.
Each engine has a thrust of 75 000 Newton. The gradient of climb is:
(given: g= 10 m/s)
a)

12.86%.

b)

1.286%.

c)

27%.

d)

7.86%.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 36

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
032-PERF

151.)

152.)

153.)

154.)

155.)

Density altitude is the


a)

height above the surface

b)

pressure altitude corrected for 'non standard' temperature

c)

altitude read directly from the altimeter

d)

altitude reference to the standard datum plane

The Density Altitude


a)

is used to calculate the FL above the Transition Altitude.

b)

is used to determine the aeroplane performance.

c)

is used to establish minimum clearance of 2.000 feet over mountains.

d)

is equal to the pressure altitude.

Which of the following combinations adversely affects take-off and initial climb
performance ?
a)

High temperature and high relative humidity

b)

High temperature and low relative humidity

c)

Low temperature and high relative humidity

d)

Low temperature and low relative humidity

What effect has a downhill slope on the take-off speeds? The slope
a)

decreases the TAS for take-off.

b)

increases the IAS for take-off.

c)

has no effect on the take-off speed V1.

d)

decreases the take-off speed V1.

During climb to the cruising level, a headwind component


a)

increases the amount of fuel for the climb.

b)

decreases the ground distance flown during that climb.

c)

increases the climb time.

d)

decreases the climb time.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 37

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
032-PERF

156.)

157.)

158.)

159.)

160.)

What affect has a tailwind on the maximum endurance speed?


a)

The IAS will be increased.

b)

Tailwind only effects holding speed.

c)

No affect

d)

The IAS will be decreased.

During climb with all engines, the altitude where the rate of climb reduces to 100
ft/min is called:
a)

Service ceiling

b)

Absolute ceiling

c)

Maximum transfer ceiling

d)

Thrust ceiling

The maximum rate of climb that can be maintained at the absolute ceiling is:
a)

125 ft/min

b)

100 ft/min

c)

0 ft/min

d)

500 ft/min

How does the thrust of a propeller vary during take-off run, assuming unstalled flow
conditions at the propeller blades? The thrust
a)

varies with mass changes only.

b)

has no change during take-off and climb.

c)

increases while the aeroplane speed builds up.

d)

decreases while the aeroplane speed builds up.

A twin engine aeroplane is flying at the minimum control speed with take-off thrust on
both engines.
The critical engine suddenly fails. After stabilising the engine failure transient which
parameter(s) must be maintainable?
a)

Straight flight

b)

Straight flight and altitude

c)

Altitude

d)

Heading, altitude and a positive rate of climb of 100 ft/min

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 38

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
032-PERF

161.)

162.)

163.)

164.)

165.)

The speed V2 is
a)

the lowest safety airspeed at which the aeroplane is under control with aerodynamic
surfaces in the case of an engine failure.

b)

the lowest airspeed required to retract flaps without stall problems.

c)

that speed at which the PIC should decide to continue or not the take-off in the case of an
engine failure.

d)

the take-off safety speed.

Which take-off speed is affected by the presence or absence of stopway and/or


clearway ?
a)

VMCG

b)

VMCA

c)

V1

d)

V2

What is the influence of the mass on maximum rate of climb (ROC) speed if all other
parameters remain constant ?
a)

The ROC is affected by the mass, but not the ROC speed.

b)

The ROC speed increases with increasing mass.

c)

The ROC speed decreases with increasing mass.

d)

The ROC and the ROC speed are independent of the mass.

The long range cruise speed is in relation to the speed for maximum range cruise.
a)

Depending on the OAT and net mass.

b)

Depending on density altitude and mass.

c)

Lower

d)

Higher

Approaching in turbulent wind conditions during manual flight requires


a)

no change

b)

a steeper approach path

c)

an increase in VREF

d)

an increase in approach speed

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 39

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
032-PERF

166.)

167.)

168.)

169.)

An aeroplane operating under the 180 minutes ETOPS rule may be up to:
a)

180 minutes flying time from a suitable airport under the prevailing weather condition
with one engine inoperative.

b)

180 minutes flying time from a suitable airport in still air, with one engine inoperative.

c)

180 minutes flying time from suitable airport in still air, at the normal cruising speed.

d)

90 minutes flying time from the first enroute airport and another 90 minutes from the
second enroute airport in still air with one engine inoperative.

ETOPS flight is a twin engine jet aeroplane flight conducted over a route, where no
suitable airport is within an area of
a)

60 minutes flying time in still air at the normal cruising speed.

b)

60 minutes flying time in still air at the approved one engine out cruise speed.

c)

75 minutes flying time at the approved one engine out cruise speed.

d)

30 minutes flying time at the normal cruising speed.

(For this question use annex 032-3589A or Performance Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.24)
With regard to the drift down performance of the twin jet aeroplane, why does the
curve representing 35 000 kg gross mass in the chart for drift down net profiles start
at approximately 4 minutes at FL370?
a)

All the curves start at the same point, which is situated outside the chart.

b)

Due to higher TAS at this mass it takes more time to develop the optimal rate of descent,
because of the inertia involved.

c)

Because at this mass the engines slow down at a slower rate after failure, there is still
some thrust left during four minutes.

d)

Because at this mass it takes approximately 4 minutes to decelerate to the optimum speed
for drift down at the original cruising level.

(For this question use annex 032-3590A or Performance Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5)
With regard to the take-off performance of a twin jet aeroplane, why does the take-off
performance climb limit graph show a kink at 30C and PA 0 ft?
a)

At lower temperatures one has to take the danger of icing into account.

b)

At higher temperatures the flat rated engines determines the climb limit mass.

c)

The engines are pressure limited at lower temperature, at higher temperatures they are
temperature limited.

d)

At higher temperatures the VMBE determines the climb limit mass.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 40

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
032-PERF

170.)

171.)

172.)

173.)

174.)

(For this question use annex 032-3591A or Performance Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5)
Consider the take-off performance for the twin jet aeroplane climb limit chart. Why has
the wind been omitted from the chart?
a)

There is no effect of the wind on the climb angle relative to the ground.

b)

The effect of the wind must be taken from another chart.

c)

The climb limit performances are taken relative to the air.

d)

There is a built-in safety measure.

Field length is balanced when


a)

take-off distance available equals accelerate stop distance available.

b)

one engine acceleration from V1 to VLOF plus flare distance between VLOF and 35 feet
are equal.

c)

all engine acceleration to V1 and braking distance for rejected take-off are equal.

d)

calculated V2 is less than 110% VMCA and V1.

The second segment begins


a)

when flaps are selected up.

b)

when acceleration starts from V2 to the speed for flap retraction.

c)

when flap retraction begins.

d)

when landing gear is fully retracted.

Which of the alternatives represents the correct relationship?


a)

VMCG and V1 should not exceed VR

b)

VMCL and V1 should not exceed VR

c)

VMCA and V1 should not exceed V2

d)

V2 and V1 should not exceed VMCG

Take-off run is defined as the


a)

distance to V1 and stop, assuming an engine failure at V1.

b)

Distance from brake release to V2.

c)

horizontal distance along the take-off path from the start of the take-off to a point
equidistant between the point at which VLOF is reached and the point at which the
aeroplane is 35 ft above the take-off surface.

d)

distance to 35 feet with an engine failure at V1 or 115% all engine distance to 35 feet.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 41

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
032-PERF

175.)

176.)

177.)

178.)

179.)

The minimum value of V2 must exceed VMC by:


a)

30%

b)

20%

c)

15%

d)

10%

Which of the following is true according to JAA regulations for turbo propeller
powered aeroplanes not performing a steep approach?
a)

Maximum Take-off Run is 0,5 x runway.

b)

Maximum use of clearway is 1,5 x runway.

c)

Maximum Landing Distance at the destination aerodrome and at any alternate aerodrome
is 0,7 x LDA (Landing Distance Available).

d)

Maximum Landing Distance at destination is 0,95 x LDA (Landing Distance Available).

For take-off obstacle clearance calculations, obstacles may be avoided


a)

by banking not more than 15 between 50 ft and 400 ft above the runway elevation.

b)

by standard turns - but only after passing 1500 ft.

c)

by banking as much as needed if aeroplane is more than 50 ft above runway elevation.

d)

only by using standard turns.

Which of the following statements is correct ?


a)

An underrun is an area beyond the runway end which can be used for an aborted take-off.

b)

A stopway means an area beyond the take-off runway, able to support the aeroplane
during an aborted take-off.

c)

If a clearway or a stopway is used, the lift-off point must be attainable at least at the end
of the permanent runway surface.

d)

A clearway is an area beyond the runway which can be used for an aborted take-off.

According to JAR 25 the landing reference speed VREF may not be less than
a)

1.2 VMCA

b)

1.23 VSRO for turbojet powered and 1.30 for turboprop powered aeroplanes

c)

VSRO and must be maintained down to 35 ft height

d)

1.23 VSRO and must be maintained down to 50 ft height

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 42

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
032-PERF

180.)

181.)

182.)

183.)

184.)

During take-off the third segment begins:


a)

when landing gear is fully retracted.

b)

when flap retraction is completed.

c)

when acceleration to flap retraction speed is started.

d)

when acceleration starts from VLOF to V2.

Which of the following is true with regard to VMCA (air minimum control speed)?
a)

VMCA only applies to four-engine aeroplanes

b)

The aeroplane will not gather the minimum required climb gradient

c)

The aeroplane is uncontrollable below VMCA

d)

Straight flight can not be maintained below VMCA, when the critical engine has failed.

Which of the following will decrease V1?


a)

Inoperative flight management system.

b)

Increased take-off mass.

c)

Inoperative anti-skid.

d)

Increased outside air temperature.

Which of the following are to be taken into account for the runway in use for take-off ?
a)

Airport elevation, runway slope, standard temperature, standard pressure and wind
components.

b)

Airport elevation, runway slope, outside air temperature, pressure altitude and wind
components.

c)

Airport elevation, runway slope, outside air temperature, standard pressure and wind
components.

d)

Airport elevation, runway slope, standard temperature, pressure altitude and wind
components.

According to JAR-OPS 1, for turbo-prop aeroplanes, the required runway length at a


destination airport is:
a)

less then that required at an alternate airport.

b)

more than that required at an alternate airport.

c)

the same as that required at an alternate airport.

d)

60% greater than that required at an alternate airport

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 43

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
032-PERF

185.)

186.)

187.)

188.)

Changing the take-off flap setting from flap 15 to flap 5 will normally result in:
a)

a better climb and an equal take-off distance.

b)

a shorter take-off distance and a better climb.

c)

a longer take-off distance and a better climb.

d)

a shorter take-off distance and an equal climb.

The landing reference speed VREF has, in accordance with JAR 25, the following
margins above reference stall speed in landing configuration:
a)

15%

b)

20%

c)

10%

d)

23%

If other factors are unchanged, the fuel mileage (nautical miles per kg) is
a)

lower with a forward centre of gravity position.

b)

higher with a forward centre of gravity position.

c)

lower with an aft centre of gravity position.

d)

independent from the centre of gravity position.

(For this question use annex 032-4732A or Performance Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.24)
With regard to the drift down performance of the twin jet aeroplane, what is meant by
"equivalent gross weight at engine failure" ?
a)

The increment represents fuel used before engine failure.

b)

The increment accounts for the higher fuel flow at higher temperatures.

c)

This gross weight accounts for the lower Mach number at higher temperatures.

d)

The equivalent gross weight at engine failure is the actual gross weight corrected for
OAT higher than ISA +10C.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 44

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
032-PERF

189.)

190.)

191.)

192.)

(For this question use annex 032-4733A or Performance Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.28)
What is the minimum field length required for the worst wind situation, landing a twin
jet aeroplane with the anti-skid inoperative?
Elevation: 2000 ft
QNH: 1013 hPa
Landing mass: 50 000 kg
Flaps: as required for minimum landing distance
Runway condition: dry
Wind: Maximum allowable tailwind: 15 kt, Maximum allowable headwind: 50 kt
a)

3100 m.

b)

2600 m.

c)

2900 m.

d)

2700 m.

(For this question use annex 032-4743A or Performance Manual MEP1 Figure 3.2)
With regard to the graph for the light twin aeroplane, will the accelerate and stop
distance be achieved in a take-off where the brakes are released before take-off power
is set?
a)

Performance will be better than in the chart.

b)

No, the performance will be worse than in the chart.

c)

It does not matter which take-off technique is being used.

d)

Yes, the chart has been made for this situation.

(For this question use annex 032-4744A)


Considering a rate of climb diagram (ROC versus TAS) for an aeroplane. Which of the
diagrams shows the correct curves for "flaps down" compared to "clean"
configuration?
a)

b)

c)

d)

What is the most important aspect of the 'backside of the power curve'?
a)

The elevator must be pulled to lower the nose.

b)

The aeroplane will not stall.

c)

The speed is unstable.

d)

The altitude cannot be maintained.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 45

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
032-PERF

193.)

194.)

195.)

196.)

197.)

What is the effect of increased mass on the performance of a gliding aeroplane?


a)

The speed for best angle of descent increases.

b)

The gliding angle decreases.

c)

The lift/drag ratio decreases.

d)

There is no effect.

Which force compensates the weight in unaccelerated straight and level flight ?
a)

the thrust

b)

the drag

c)

the lift

d)

the resultant from lift and drag

In which of the flight conditions listed below is the thrust required equal to the drag?
a)

In accelerated level flight

b)

In a climb with constant IAS

c)

In a descent with constant TAS

d)

In level flight with constant IAS

The load factor in a turn in level flight with constant TAS depends on
a)

the radius of the turn and the weight of the aeroplane.

b)

the bank angle only.

c)

the true airspeed and the bank angle.

d)

the radius of the turn and the bank angle.

The induced drag of an aeroplane


a)

decreases with increasing gross weight.

b)

increases with increasing airspeed.

c)

decreases with increasing airspeed.

d)

is independent of the airspeed.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 46

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
032-PERF

198.)

199.)

200.)

201.)

202.)

The induced drag of an aeroplane at constant mass in un-accelerated level flight is


highest at:
a)

VMO

b)

VS1

c)

VA

d)

the lowest achievable speed at a given configuration

The lowest point of the thrust required curve of a jet aeroplane is the point for:
a)

maximum specific range.

b)

minimum drag.

c)

minimum specific range.

d)

maximum endurance.

The point where Drag coefficient/Lift coefficient is a minimum is


a)

on the "back side" of the drag curve.

b)

at stalling speed (VS).

c)

the lowest point of the drag curve.

d)

the point where a tangent from the origin touches the drag curve.

The airspeed for jet aeroplanes at which "power required" is minimum


a)

is lower than the minimum drag speed in the climb and higher than the minimum drag
speed in the descent.

b)

is the same as the minimum drag speed.

c)

is always lower than the minimum drag speed.

d)

is always higher than the minimum drag speed.

The point at which a tangent out of the origin touches the power required curve
a)

is the point where Drag coefficient is a minimum.

b)

is the point where the Lift to Drag ratio is a minimum.

c)

is the point where the Lift to Drag ratio is a maximum.

d)

is the maximum drag speed.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 47

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
032-PERF

203.)

204.)

205.)

206.)

207.)

On a reciprocating engine aeroplane, to maintain a given angle of attack,


configuration and altitude at higher gross mass
a)

the airspeed and the drag will be increased.

b)

the airspeed will be decreased and the drag increased.

c)

the lift/drag ratio must be increased.

d)

the airspeed will be increased but the drag does not change.

On a reciprocating engine aeroplane, to maintain a given angle of attack,


configuration and altitude at higher gross mass
a)

requires an increase in power and decrease in the airspeed.

b)

a higher coefficient of drag is required.

c)

an increase in airspeed and power is required.

d)

an increase in airspeed is required but power setting does not change.

An aeroplane with reciprocating engines is flying at a constant angle of attack, mass


and configuration. With increasing altitude the drag
a)

increases at constant TAS.

b)

decreases and the CAS decreases too because of the lower air density.

c)

remains unchanged but the TAS increases.

d)

remains unchanged but the CAS increases.

On a reciprocating engine aeroplane, with increasing altitude at constant gross mass,


angle of attack and configuration the power required
a)

decreases slightly because of the lower air density.

b)

increases but TAS remains constant.

c)

increases and the TAS increases by the same percentage.

d)

remains unchanged but the TAS increases.

Moving the centre of gravity from the forward to the aft limit (gross mass, altitude and
airspeed remain unchanged)
a)

increases the induced drag.

b)

increases the power required.

c)

affects neither drag nor power required.

d)

decreases the induced drag and reduces the power required.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 48

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
032-PERF

208.)

209.)

210.)

211.)

212.)

The centre of gravity near, but still within, the aft limit
a)

improves the maximum range.

b)

decreases the maximum range.

c)

increases the stalling speed.

d)

improves the longitudinal stability.

The critical engine inoperative


a)

does not affect the aeroplane performance since it is independent of the power plant.

b)

decreases the power required and increases the total drag due to the additional drag of the
windmilling engine and the compensation of the yaw moment.

c)

increases the power required and the total drag due to the additional drag of the
windmilling engine and the compensation of the yaw moment.

d)

increases the power required and decreases the total drag due to the windmilling engine.

The speed range between low speed buffet and high speed buffet
a)

decreases with increasing mass and is independent of altitude.

b)

increases with increasing mass.

c)

is only limiting at low altitudes.

d)

decreases with increasing mass and increasing altitude.

The danger associated with low speed and/or high speed buffet
a)

has to be considered at take-off and landing.

b)

exists only above MMO.

c)

can be reduced by increasing the load factor.

d)

limits the manoeuvring load factor at high altitudes.

Which of the jet engine ratings below is not a certified rating?


a)

Maximum Take-off Thrust

b)

Go-Around Thrust

c)

Maximum Cruise Thrust

d)

Maximum Continuous Thrust

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 49

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
032-PERF

213.)

214.)

215.)

216.)

217.)

At constant thrust and constant altitude the fuel flow of a jet engine
a)

increases with decreasing OAT.

b)

is independent of the airspeed.

c)

increases slightly with increasing airspeed.

d)

decreases slightly with increasing airspeed.

At a constant Mach number the thrust and the fuel flow of a jet engine
a)

decrease in proportion to the ambient pressure at constant temperature.

b)

are independent of outside air temperature (OAT).

c)

increase with increasing altitude.

d)

increase in proportion to the ambient pressure at constant temperature.

The thrust of a jet engine at constant RPM


a)

increases in proportion to the airspeed.

b)

is inversely proportional to the airspeed.

c)

is independent of the airspeed.

d)

does not change with changing altitude.

The intersections of the thrust available and the drag curve are the operating points of
the aeroplane
a)

in descent with constant IAS.

b)

in unaccelerated climb.

c)

in unaccelerated level flight.

d)

in accelerated level flight.

In straight horizontal steady flight, at speeds below that for minimum drag:
a)

the aeroplane cannot be controlled manually.

b)

a lower speed requires a higher thrust.

c)

the aeroplane can be controlled only in level flight.

d)

a higher speed, but still below that for minimum drag requires a higher thrust.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 50

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
032-PERF

218.)

219.)

220.)

221.)

222.)

A lower airspeed at constant mass and altitude requires


a)

more thrust and a lower coefficient of drag.

b)

a higher coefficient of lift.

c)

less thrust and a lower coefficient of lift.

d)

more thrust and a lower coefficient of lift.

A higher altitude at constant mass and Mach number requires


a)

a lower angle of attack.

b)

a higher angle of attack.

c)

a lower coefficient of lift.

d)

a lower coefficient of drag.

When flying the "Backside of Thrust curve" means


a)

the thrust required is independent of the airspeed.

b)

a lower airspeed requires less thrust because drag is decreased.

c)

a thrust reduction results in an acceleration of the aeroplane.

d)

a lower airspeed requires more thrust.

"Maximum endurance"
a)

is the same as maximum specific range with wind correction.

b)

is achieved in unaccelerated level flight with minimum fuel flow.

c)

can be flown in a steady climb only.

d)

can be reached with the 'best rate of climb' speed in level flight.

The speed for maximum endurance


a)

is the lower speed to achieve 99% of maximum specific range.

b)

is always higher than the speed for maximum specific range.

c)

is always lower than the speed for maximum specific range.

d)

can either be higher or lower than the speed for maximum specific range.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 51

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
032-PERF

223.)

224.)

225.)

226.)

Which of the equations below defines specific range (SR)?


a)

SR = Groundspeed/Total Fuel Flow

b)

SR = Mach Number/Total Fuel Flow

c)

SR = True Airspeed/Total Fuel Flow

d)

SR = Indicated Airspeed/Total Fuel Flow

Long range cruise is selected as


a)

the higher speed to achieve 99% of maximum specific range in zero wind.

b)

the speed for best economy.

c)

the climbing cruise with one or two engines inoperative.

d)

specific range with tailwind.

The optimum altitude


a)

decreases as mass decreases.

b)

is the altitude at which the specific range reaches its minimum.

c)

increases as mass decreases and is the altitude at which the specific range reaches its
maximum.

d)

is the altitude up to which cabin pressure of 8 000 ft can be maintained.

To achieve the maximum range over ground with headwind the airspeed should be
a)

equal to the speed for maximum range cruise with no wind.

b)

higher compared to the speed for maximum range cruise with no wind.

c)

lower compared to the speed for maximum range cruise with no wind.

d)

reduced to the gust penetration speed.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 52

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
032-PERF

227.)

228.)

229.)

230.)

The take-off run is


a)

1.5 times the distance from the point of brake release to a point equidistant between the
point at which VLOF is reached and the point at which the aeroplane attains a height of
35 ft above the runway with all engines operative.

b)

the horizontal distance along the take-off path from the start of the take-off to a point
equidistant between the point at which VLOF is reached and the point at which the
aeroplane is 35 ft above the take-off surface.

c)

the distance of the point of brake release to a point equidistant between the point at which
VLOF is reached and the point at which the aeroplane attains a height of 50 ft above the
runway assuming a failure of the critical engine at V1.

d)

1.15 times the distance from the point of brake release to the point at which VLOF is
reached assuming a failure of the critical engine at V1.

Can the length of a stopway be added to the runway length to determine the take-off
distance available ?
a)

Yes, but the stopway must have the same width as the runway.

b)

No, unless its centreline is on the extended centreline of the runway.

c)

No.

d)

Yes, but the stopway must be able to carry the weight of the aeroplane.

May anti-skid be considered to determine the take-off and landing data ?


a)

Yes.

b)

Only for take-off.

c)

Only for landing.

d)

No.

In case of an engine failure recognized below V1


a)

the take-off is to be continued unless V1 is less than the balanced V1.

b)

the take-off must be rejected.

c)

the take-off should only be rejected if a stopway is available.

d)

the take-off may be continued if a clearway is available.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 53

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
032-PERF

231.)

232.)

233.)

234.)

235.)

In case of an engine failure which is recognized at or above V1


a)

a height of 50 ft must be reached within the take-off distance.

b)

the take-off must be rejected if the speed is still below VLOF.

c)

the take-off should be rejected if the speed is still below VR.

d)

the take-off must be continued.

The take-off distance available is


a)

the runway length plus half of the clearway.

b)

the runway length minus stopway.

c)

the length of the take-off run available plus the length of the clearway available.

d)

the total runway length, without clearway even if this one exists.

The result of a higher flap setting up to the optimum at take-off is


a)

a higher V1.

b)

an increased acceleration.

c)

a longer take-off run.

d)

a shorter ground roll.

Reduced take-off thrust


a)

has the benefit of improving engine life.

b)

is not recommended at very low temperatures (OAT).

c)

can be used if the headwind component during take-off is at least 10 kt.

d)

can be used if the actual take-off mass is higher than the performance limited take-off
mass.

How is wind considered in the take-off performance data of the Aeroplane Operations
Manuals ?
a)

Since take-offs with tailwind are not permitted, only headwinds are considered.

b)

Not more than 80% headwind and not less than 125% tailwind.

c)

Unfactored headwind and tailwind components are used.

d)

Not more than 50% of a headwind and not less than 150% of the tailwind.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 54

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
032-PERF

236.)

237.)

238.)

239.)

240.)

A higher pressure altitude at ISA temperature


a)

decreases the field length limited take-off mass.

b)

has no influence on the allowed take-off mass.

c)

increases the climb limited take-off mass.

d)

decreases the take-off distance.

A higher outside air temperature (OAT)


a)

decreases the brake energy limited take-off mass.

b)

increases the climb limited take-off mass.

c)

decreases the take-off distance.

d)

increases the field length limited take-off mass.

The take-off distance required increases


a)

due to head wind because of the drag augmentation.

b)

due to downhill slope because of the smaller angle of attack.

c)

due to slush on the runway.

d)

due to lower gross mass at take-off.

Due to standing water on the runway the field length limited take-off mass will be
a)

unaffected.

b)

higher.

c)

only higher for three and four engine aeroplanes.

d)

lower.

On a dry runway the accelerate stop distance is increased


a)

by headwind.

b)

by uphill slope.

c)

by a lower take-off mass because the aeroplane accelerates faster to V1.

d)

by low outside air temperature.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 55

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
032-PERF

241.)

242.)

243.)

244.)

245.)

Uphill slope
a)

increases the allowed take-off mass.

b)

decreases the take-off distance only.

c)

decreases the accelerate stop distance only.

d)

increases the take-off distance more than the accelerate stop distance.

A balanced V1 is obtained when:


a)

a stopway is used to obtain the highest runway length limited take off mass.

b)

a clearway is used to obtain the highest runway length limited take off mass.

c)

the accelerate stop distance is equal to the one engine out take-off distance.

d)

it is equal to V2.

A 'Balanced Field Length' is said to exist where:


a)

The accelerate stop distance is equal to the all engine take-off distance.

b)

The one engine out take-off distance is equal to the all engine take-off distance.

c)

The accelerate stop distance is equal to the take-off distance available.

d)

The clearway does not equal the stopway.

V2 has to be equal to or higher than


a)

1.1 VMCA.

b)

1.15 VMCG.

c)

1.1 VSO.

d)

1.15 VR.

V1 has to be
a)

equal to or higher than V2.

b)

higher than VR.

c)

equal to or higher than VMCA.

d)

equal to or higher than VMCG.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 56

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
032-PERF

246.)

247.)

248.)

249.)

250.)

The speed VR
a)

must be higher than V2.

b)

must be higher than VLOF.

c)

must be equal to or lower than V1.

d)

is the speed at which rotation to the lift-off angle of attack is initiated.

If the take-off mass of an aeroplane is brake energy limited a higher uphill slope would
a)

have no effect on the maximum mass for take-off.

b)

increase the maximum mass for take-off.

c)

decrease the required take-off distance.

d)

decrease the maximum mass for take-off.

If the take-off mass of an aeroplane is tyre speed limited, downhill slope would
a)

decrease the maximum mass for take-off.

b)

have no effect on the maximum mass for take-off.

c)

increase the maximum mass for take-off.

d)

increase the required take-off distance.

The first segment of the take-off flight path ends


a)

at completion of gear retraction.

b)

at completion of flap retraction.

c)

at 35 ft above the runway.

d)

at reaching V2.

The climb limited take-off mass can be increased by


a)

selecting a lower VR.

b)

selecting a lower V1.

c)

a lower flap setting for take-off and selecting a higher V2.

d)

selecting a lower V2.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 57

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
032-PERF

251.)

252.)

253.)

254.)

In the event that the take-off mass is obstacle limited and the take-off flight path
includes a turn, the bank angle should not exceed
a)

10 degrees up to a height of 400 ft.

b)

25 degrees up to a height of 400 ft.

c)

20 degrees up to a height of 400 ft.

d)

15 degrees up to height of 400 ft.

You climb with a climb speed schedule 300/.78. What do you expect in the crossover
altitude 29 200 ft (OAT = ISA) ?
a)

During the acceleration to the Mach number .78 the rate of climb is approximately zero.

b)

The rate of climb decreases since climb performance at a constant Mach number is
grossly reduced as compared to constant IAS.

c)

No noticeable effect since the true airspeed at 300 kt IAS and .78 Mach are the same (at
ISA temperature TAS=460 kt)

d)

The rate of climb increases since the constant IAS-climb is replaced by the constant
Mach-climb.

If the climb speed schedule is changed from 280/.74 to 290/.74 the new crossover
altitude will be
a)

only affected by the aeroplane gross mass.

b)

unchanged.

c)

higher.

d)

lower.

The optimum cruise altitude is


a)

the pressure altitude at which the best specific range can be achieved.

b)

the pressure altitude at which the fuel flow is a maximum.

c)

the pressure altitude at which the speed for high speed buffet as TAS is a maximum.

d)

the pressure altitude up to which a cabin altitude of 8000 ft can be maintained.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 58

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
032-PERF

255.)

256.)

257.)

258.)

259.)

The optimum cruise altitude increases


a)

if the temperature (OAT) is increased.

b)

if the aeroplane mass is decreased.

c)

if the tailwind component is decreased.

d)

if the aeroplane mass is increased.

Below the optimum cruise altitude


a)

the Mach number for long range cruise increases continuously with decreasing altitude.

b)

the IAS for long range cruise increases continuously with decreasing altitude.

c)

the Mach number for long range cruise decreases continuously with decreasing altitude.

d)

the TAS for long range cruise increases continuously with decreasing altitude.

Under which condition should you fly considerably lower (4 000 ft or more) than the
optimum altitude ?
a)

If the maximum altitude is below the optimum altitude.

b)

If the temperature is lower at the low altitude (high altitude inversion).

c)

If at the lower altitude either considerably less headwind or considerably more tailwind
can be expected.

d)

If at the lower altitude either more headwind or less tailwind can be expected.

After engine failure the aeroplane is unable to maintain its cruising altitude. What is
the procedure which should be followed?
a)

Emergency Descent Procedure.

b)

Long Range Cruise Descent.

c)

Drift Down Procedure.

d)

ETOPS.

'Drift down' is the procedure to be applied


a)

to conduct a visual approach with one engine out.

b)

after cabin depressurization.

c)

to conduct an instrument approach at the alternate.

d)

after engine failure if the aeroplane is above the one engine out maximum altitude.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 59

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
032-PERF

260.)

261.)

262.)

263.)

264.)

If the level-off altitude is below the obstacle clearance altitude during a drift down
procedure
a)

fuel jettisoning should be started at the beginning of drift down.

b)

the recommended drift down speed should be disregarded and it should be flown at the
stall speed plus 10 kt.

c)

the drift down should be flown with flaps in the approach configuration.

d)

fuel jettisoning should be started when the obstacle clearance altitude is reached.

Which statement is correct for a descent without engine thrust at maximum lift to drag
ratio speed?
a)

The higher the average temperature (OAT) the lower is the speed for descent.

b)

The higher the gross mass the greater is the speed for descent.

c)

The higher the gross mass the lower is the speed for descent.

d)

The mass of an aeroplane does not have any effect on the speed for descent.

Which statement is correct for a descent without engine thrust at maximum lift to drag
ratio speed?
a)

A tailwind component decreases the ground distance.

b)

A tailwind component increases the ground distance.

c)

A tailwind component increases fuel and time to descent.

d)

A headwind component increases the ground distance.

The maximum mass for landing could be limited by


a)

the climb requirements with one engine inoperative in the approach configuration.

b)

the climb requirements with all engines in the landing configuration but with gear up.

c)

the climb requirements with all engines in the approach configuration.

d)

the climb requirements with one engine inoperative in the landing configuration.

The landing field length required for turbojet aeroplanes at the destination (wet
condition) is the demonstrated landing distance plus
a)

43%

b)

67%

c)

92%

d)

70%

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 60

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
032-PERF

265.)

266.)

267.)

268.)

The landing field length required for jet aeroplanes at the alternate (wet condition) is
the demonstrated landing distance plus
a)

67%

b)

43%

c)

92%

d)

70%

On a long distance flight the gross mass decreases continuously as a consequence of


the fuel consumption. The result is:
a)

The specific range and the optimum altitude increases.

b)

The speed must be increased to compensate the lower mass.

c)

The specific range increases and the optimum altitude decreases.

d)

The specific range decreases and the optimum altitude increases.

With one or two engines inoperative the best specific range at high altitudes is
(assume altitude remains constant)
a)

first improved and later reduced.

b)

not affected.

c)

improved.

d)

reduced.

In unaccelerated climb
a)

thrust equals drag plus the uphill component of the gross weight in the flight path
direction.

b)

lift is greater than the gross weight.

c)

lift equals weight plus the vertical component of the drag.

d)

thrust equals drag plus the downhill component of the gross weight in the flight path
direction.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 61

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
032-PERF

269.)

270.)

271.)

272.)

273.)

What is the equation for the climb gradient expressed in percentage during
unaccelerated flight (applicable to small angles only)
a)

Climb Gradient = (Lift/Weight) x 100

b)

Climb Gradient = ((Thrust + Drag)/Lift) x 100

c)

Climb Gradient = ((Thrust - Mass)/Lift) x 100

d)

Climb Gradient = ((Thrust - Drag)/Weight) x 100

The rate of climb


a)

is the horizontal component of the true airspeed.

b)

is approximately climb gradient times true airspeed divided by 100.

c)

is angle of climb times true airspeed.

d)

is the downhill component of the true airspeed.

If the thrust available exceeds the thrust required for level flight
a)

the aeroplane decelerates if the altitude is maintained.

b)

the aeroplane decelerates if it is in the region of reversed command.

c)

the aeroplane accelerates if the altitude is maintained.

d)

the aeroplane descends if the airspeed is maintained.

Any acceleration in climb, with a constant power setting,


a)

decreases the rate of climb and the angle of climb.

b)

improves the climb gradient if the airspeed is below VX.

c)

decreases rate of climb and increases angle of climb.

d)

improves the rate of climb if the airspeed is below VY.

As long as an aeroplane is in a positive climb


a)

VY is always above VMO.

b)

VX may be greater or less than VY depending on altitude

c)

VX is always above VY.

d)

VX is always below VY.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 62

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
032-PERF

274.)

275.)

276.)

277.)

278.)

The best rate of climb at a constant gross mass


a)

is independent of altitude.

b)

increases with increasing altitude due to the higher true airspeed.

c)

increases with increasing altitude since the drag decreases due to the lower air density.

d)

decreases with increasing altitude since the thrust available decreases due to the lower air
density.

The 'climb gradient' is defined as the ratio of


a)

rate of climb to true airspeed.

b)

the increase of altitude to horizontal air distance expressed as a percentage.

c)

the increase of altitude to distance over ground expressed as a percentage.

d)

true airspeed to rate of climb.

Higher gross mass at the same altitude decreases the gradient and the rate of climb
whereas
a)

VY and VX are decreased.

b)

VY and VX are increased.

c)

VY and VX are not affected by a higher gross mass.

d)

VX is increased and VY is decreased.

A higher outside air temperature


a)

does not have any noticeable effect on climb performance.

b)

reduces the angle of climb but increases the rate of climb.

c)

reduces the angle and the rate of climb.

d)

increases the angle of climb but decreases the rate of climb.

A headwind component increasing with altitude, as compared to zero wind condition,


(assuming IAS is constant)
a)

has no effect on rate of climb.

b)

decreases angle and rate of climb.

c)

improves angle and rate of climb.

d)

does not have any effect on the angle of flight path during climb.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 63

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
032-PERF

279.)

280.)

281.)

282.)

283.)

A constant headwind
a)

increases the angle of the descent flight path.

b)

increases the angle of descent.

c)

increases the descent distance over ground.

d)

increases the rate of descent.

When compared to still air conditions, a constant headwind component:


a)

increases the best rate of climb.

b)

increases the angle of flight path during climb.

c)

decreases the angle of climb.

d)

increases the maximum endurance.

The speed V1 is defined as


a)

take-off climb speed.

b)

engine failure speed.

c)

speed for best angle of climb.

d)

take-off decision speed.

The speed VSR is defined as


a)

speed for best specific range.

b)

design stress speed.

c)

safe rotation speed for take-off .

d)

as reference stall speed and may not be less than 1-g stall speed.

The speed V2 is defined for jet aeroplane as


a)

take-off climb speed or speed at 35 ft.

b)

critical engine failure speed.

c)

take-off decision speed.

d)

lift off speed.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 64

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
032-PERF

284.)

285.)

286.)

287.)

288.)

The speed VLO is defined as


a)

lift off speed.

b)

landing gear operating speed.

c)

design low operating speed.

d)

long distance operating speed.

VX is
a)

the speed for best rate of climb.

b)

the speed for best angle of climb.

c)

the speed for best specific range.

d)

the speed for best angle of flight path.

The speed for best rate of climb is called


a)

VX.

b)

VO.

c)

VY.

d)

V2.

The stalling speed or the minimum steady flight speed at which the aeroplane is
controllable in landing configuration is abbreviated as
a)

VSO.

b)

VS.

c)

VMC.

d)

VS1.

The absolute ceiling


a)

is the altitude at which the rate of climb theoretically is zero.

b)

is the altitude at which the aeroplane reaches a maximum rate of climb of 100 ft/min.

c)

can be reached only with minimum steady flight speed

d)

is the altitude at which the best climb gradient attainable is 5%

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 65

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
032-PERF

289.)

290.)

291.)

292.)

The aerodynamic ceiling


a)

is the altitude at which the aeroplane reaches 50 ft/min.

b)

is the altitude at which the best rate of climb theoretically is zero.

c)

is the altitude at which the speeds for low speed buffet and for high speed buffet are the
same.

d)

depends upon thrust setting and increase with increasing thrust.

The maximum operating altitude for a certain aeroplane with a pressurised cabin
a)

is dependent on aerodynamic ceiling.

b)

is the highest pressure altitude certified for normal operation.

c)

is dependent on the OAT.

d)

is only certified for four-engine aeroplanes.

Why are 'step climbs' used on long distance flights ?


a)

To respect ATC flight level constraints.

b)

Step climbs are only justified if at the higher altitude less headwind or more tailwind can
be expected.

c)

Step climbs do not have any special purpose for jet aeroplanes; they are used for piston
engine aeroplanes only.

d)

To fly as close as possible to the optimum altitude as aeroplane mass reduces.

(For this question use annex 032-6569A or Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.4)
With regard to the landing chart for the single engine aeroplane determine the landing
distance from a height of 50 ft .
Given:
O.A.T: 27 C
Pressure Altitude: 3000 ft
Aeroplane Mass: 2900 lbs
Tailwind component: 5 kt
Flaps: Landing position (down)
Runway: Tarred and Dry
a)

approximately: 1370 feet

b)

approximately: 1700 feet

c)

approximately: 1120 feet

d)

approximately: 1850 feet

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 66

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
032-PERF

293.)

294.)

295.)

(For this question use annex 032-6570A or Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.4)
With regard to the landing chart for the single engine aeroplane determine the landing
distance from a height of 50 ft .
Given:
O.A.T: ISA +15C
Pressure Altitude: 0 ft
Aeroplane Mass: 2940 lbs
Tailwind component: 10 kt
Flaps: Landing position (down)
Runway: Tarred and Dry
a)

approximately: 750 feet

b)

approximately: 1300 feet

c)

approximately: 1400 feet

d)

approximately: 950 feet

(For this question use annex 032-6571A or Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.4)
With regard to the landing chart for the single engine aeroplane determine the landing
distance from a height of 50 ft
Given:
O.A.T: ISA
Pressure Altitude: 1000 ft
Aeroplane Mass: 3500 lbs
Tailwind component: 5 kt
Flaps: Landing position (down)
Runway: Tarred and Dry
a)

approximately: 920 feet

b)

approximately:1150 feet

c)

approximately: 1500 feet

d)

approximately: 1700 feet

(For this question use annex 032-6572A or Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.4)
With regard to the landing chart for the single engine aeroplane determine the landing
distance from a height of 50 ft .
Given:
O.A.T: 0C
Pressure Altitude: 1000 ft
Aeroplane Mass: 3500 lbs
Tailwind component: 5 kt
Flaps: Landing position (down)
Runway: Tarred and Dry
a)

approximately: 940 feet

b)

approximately: 1150 feet

c)

approximately: 1480 feet

d)

approximately: 1650 feet

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 67

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
032-PERF

296.)

297.)

(For this question use annex 032-6573A or Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.4)
With regard to the landing chart for the single engine aeroplane determine the landing
distance from a height of 50 ft .
Given:
O.A.T: ISA +15C
Pressure Altitude: 0 ft
Aeroplane Mass: 2940 lbs
Headwind component: 10 kt
Flaps: Landing position (down)
Runway: short and wet grass- firm soil
Correction factor (wet grass): 1.38
a)

approximately: 2000 feet

b)

approximately: 1300 feet

c)

approximately: 1450 feet

d)

approximately:1794 feet

(For this question use annex 032-6574A or Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.1)
With regard to the take off performance chart for the single engine aeroplane
determine the take off distance to a height of 50 ft .
Given:
O.A.T: 30C
Pressure Altitude: 1000 ft
Aeroplane Mass: 3450 lbs
Tailwind component: 2.5 kt
Flaps: up
Runway: Tarred and Dry
a)

approximately: 2200 feet

b)

approximately: 2800 feet

c)

approximately: 2470 feet

d)

approximately: 1440 feet

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 68

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
032-PERF

298.)

299.)

300.)

(For this question use annex 032-6575A or Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.1)
With regard to the take off performance chart for the single engine aeroplane
determine the maximum allowable take off mass .
Given:
O.A.T: ISA
Pressure Altitude: 4000 ft
Headwind component: 5 kt
Flaps: up
Runway: Tarred and Dry
Factored runway length: 2000 ft
Obstacle height: 50 ft
a)

> 3650 lbs

b)

2900 lbs

c)

3240 lbs

d)

3000 lbs

(For this question use annex 032-6576A or Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.2)
With regard to the take off performance chart for the single engine aeroplane
determine the take off distance to a height of 50 ft.
Given:
O.A.T: -7C
Pressure Altitude: 7000 ft
Aeroplane Mass: 2950 lbs
Headwind component: 5 kt
Flaps: Approach setting
Runway: Tarred and Dry
a)

approximately: 1150 ft

b)

approximately: 2450 ft

c)

approximately: 2050 ft

d)

approximately: 1260 ft

(For this question use annex 032-6577A or Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.1)
With regard to the take off performance chart for the single engine aeroplane
determine the take off speed for (1) rotation and (2) at a height of 50 ft.
Given:
O.A.T: ISA+10C
Pressure Altitude: 5000 ft
Aeroplane mass: 3400 lbs
Headwind component: 5 kt
Flaps: up
Runway: Tarred and Dry
a)

73 and 84 KIAS

b)

71 and 82 KIAS

c)

68 and 78 KIAS

d)

65 and 75 KIAS

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 69

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
032-PERF

301.)

302.)

303.)

(For this question use annex 032-6578A or Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.2)
With regard to the take off performance chart for the single engine aeroplane
determine the take off distance to a height of 50 ft.
Given:
O.A.T: 38C
Pressure Altitude: 4000 ft
Aeroplane Mass: 3400 lbs
Tailwind component: 5 kt
Flaps: Approach setting
Runway: Dry Grass
Correction factor: 1.2
a)

approximately: 5040 ft

b)

approximately: 3680 ft

c)

approximately: 4200 ft

d)

approximately: 3960 ft

(For this question use annex 032-6579A or Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.3)
With regard to the climb performance chart for the single engine aeroplane determine
the rate of climb.
Given :
O.A.T : ISA + 15C
Pressure Altitude: 0 ft
Aeroplane Mass: 3400 lbs
Flaps: up
Speed: 100 KIAS
a)

1370 ft/min

b)

1290 ft/min

c)

1150 ft/min

d)

1210 ft/min

(For this question use annex 032-6580A or Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.2)
With regard to the take off performance chart for the single engine aeroplane
determine the take off distance over a 50 ft obstacle height.
Given:
O.A.T: 30C
Pressure Altitude: 1000 ft
Aeroplane Mass: 2950 lbs
Tailwind component: 5 kt
Flaps: Approach setting
Runway: Short, wet grass, firm subsoil
Correction factor: 1.25 (for runway conditions)
a)

1900 ft

b)

2375 ft

c)

1600 ft

d)

2000 ft

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 70

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
032-PERF

304.)

305.)

306.)

(For this question use annex 032-6581A or Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.3)
Using the climb performance chart, for the single engine aeroplane, determine the
ground distance to reach a height of 2000 ft above the reference zero in the following
conditions:
Given:
O.A.T. at take-off: 25C
Airport pressure altitude: 1000 ft
Aeroplane mass: 3600 lbs
Speed: 100 KIAS
Wind component: 15 kts Headwind
a)

21 505 ft

b)

18 347 ft

c)

24 637 ft

d)

18 832 ft

(For this question use annex 032-6582A or Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.3)
Using the climb performance chart, for the single engine aeroplane, determine the
ground distance to reach a height of 1500 ft above the reference zero in the following
conditions:
Given:
O.A.T at Take-off: ISA
Airport pressure altitude: 5000 ft
Aeroplane mass: 3300 lbs
Speed: 100 KIAS
Wind component: 5 kts Tailwind
a)

18 909 ft

b)

18 073 ft

c)

16 665 ft

d)

20 109 ft

(For this question use annex 032-6583A or Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.3)
Using the climb performance chart, for the single engine aeroplane, determine the rate
of climb and the gradient of climb in the following conditions:
Given:
O.A.T at Take-off: ISA
Airport pressure altitude: 3000 ft
Aeroplane mass: 3450 lbs
Speed: 100 KIAS
a)

1030 ft/min and 8,4%

b)

1120 ft/min and 9,3%

c)

1310 ft/min and 11,3%

d)

1170 ft/min and 9,9%

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 71

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
032-PERF

307.)

308.)

309.)

(For this question use annex 032-6584A or Flight Planning Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.2
Table 2.2.3)
Using the Power Setting Table, for the single engine aeroplane, determine the
manifold pressure and fuel flow (lbs/hr) with full throttle and cruise lean mixture in the
following conditions:
Given:
OAT: 13C
Pressure altitude: 8000 ft
RPM: 2300
a)

22,4 in.Hg and 73,8 lbs/hr

b)

22,4 in.Hg and 69,3 lbs/hr

c)

22,4 in.Hg and 71,1 lbs/hr

d)

23,0 in.Hg and 69,0 lbs/hr

(For this question use annex 032-6585A or Flight planning Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.2
Table 2.2.3)
Using the Power Setting Table, for the single engine aeroplane, determine the cruise
TAS and fuel flow (lbs/hr) with full throttle and cruise lean mixture in the following
conditions:
Given:
OAT: 13C
Pressure altitude: 8000 ft
RPM: 2300
a)

159 kt and 71,7 lbs/hr

b)

160 kt and 69,3 lbs/hr

c)

158 kt and 74,4 lbs/hr

d)

160 kt and 71,1 lbs/hr

(For this question use annex 032-6586A or Flight planning Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.3
Table 2.3.1)
Using the Power Setting Table, for the single engine aeroplane, determine the cruise
TAS and fuel flow (lbs/hr) with full throttle and cruise lean mixture in the following
conditions:
Given:
OAT: 3C
Pressure altitude: 6000 ft
Power: Full throttle / 21,0 in/Hg./ 2100 RPM
a)

125 kt and 55,7 lbs/hr

b)

136 kt and 56,9 lbs/hr

c)

134 kt and 55,7 lbs/hr

d)

131 kt and 56,9 lbs/hr

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 72

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
032-PERF

310.)

311.)

312.)

(For this question use annex 032-6587A or Flight planning Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.4)
Using the Range Profile Diagram, for the single engine aeroplane, determine the
range, with 45 minutes reserve, in the following conditions:
Given:
O.A.T.: ISA +16C
Pressure altitude: 4000 ft
Power: Full throttle / 25,0 in/Hg./ 2100 RPM
a)

865 NM

b)

851 NM

c)

911 NM

d)

739 NM

(For this question use annex 032-6588A or Flight planning Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.4)
Using the Range Profile Diagram, for the single engine aeroplane, determine the
range, with 45 minutes reserve, in the following conditions:
Given:
O.A.T.: ISA -15C
Pressure altitude: 12000 ft
Power: Full throttle / 23,0 in/Hg./ 2300 RPM
a)

860 NM

b)

875 NM

c)

902 NM

d)

908 NM

(For this question use annex 032-6590A or Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.4)
Using the Landing Diagram, for single engine aeroplane, determine the landing
distance (from a screen height of 50 ft) required, in the following conditions:
Given:
Pressure altitude: 4000 ft
O.A.T.: 5C
Aeroplane mass: 3530 lbs
Headwind component: 15 kt
Flaps: Approach setting
Runway: tarred and dry
Landing gear: down
a)

1550 ft

b)

1400 ft

c)

880 ft

d)

1020 ft

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 73

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
032-PERF

313.)

314.)

315.)

316.)

317.)

The drift down procedure specifies requirements concerning the:


a)

climb gradient during the descent to the net level-off altitude.

b)

weight during landing at the alternate.

c)

engine power at the altitude at which engine failure occurs.

d)

obstacle clearance after engine failure.

The approach climb requirement has been established to ensure:


a)

manoeuvrability in case of landing with one engine inoperative.

b)

minimum climb gradient in case of a go-around with one engine inoperative.

c)

manoeuvrability during approach with full flaps and gear down, all engines operating.

d)

obstacle clearance in the approach area.

Which statement related to a take-off from a wet runway is correct?


a)

The use of a reduced Vr is sufficient to maintain the same safety margins as for a dry
runway

b)

Screenheight reduction can not be applied because of reduction in obstacle clearance.

c)

A reduction of screen height is allowed in order to reduce weight penalties

d)

In case of a reverser inoperative the wet runway performance information can still be
used

Given a jet aircraft. Which order of increasing speeds in the performance diagram is
correct?
a)

Maximum endurance speed, Long range speed, Maximum range speed

b)

Vs, Maximum range speed, Vx

c)

Maximum endurance speed, Maximum range speed, Vx

d)

Vs, Vx, Maximum range speed

Is there any difference between the vertical speed versus forward speed curves for
two identical aeroplanes having different masses ? (assume zero thrust and wind)
a)

Yes, the difference is that the heavier aeroplane will always glide a greater distance.

b)

Yes, the difference is that for a given angle of attack both the vertical and forward speeds
of the heavier aeroplane will be larger.

c)

Yes, the difference is that the lighter aeroplane will always glide a greater distance.

d)

No difference.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 74

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
032-PERF

318.)

319.)

320.)

321.)

When determining the maximum landing mass of an turbojet powered aeroplane


during the planning phase what factor must be used on the landing distance available
(dry runway)
a)

115/100

b)

1.67

c)

0.60

d)

60/115

Which statement regarding the relationship between traffic load and range is correct?
a)

The traffic load can be limited by the desired range.

b)

The maximum landing mass is basically equal to the maximum zero fuel mass.

c)

The maximum traffic load is not limited by the reserve fuel quantity.

d)

The maximum zero fuel mass limits the maximum quantity of fuel.

In a given configuration the endurance of a piston engine aeroplane only depends on:
a)

speed and mass.

b)

speed, mass and fuel on board.

c)

altitude, speed, mass and fuel on board.

d)

altitude, speed and mass.

Which speed provides maximum obstacle clearance during climb?


a)

V2.

b)

The speed for maximum rate of climb.

c)

V2 + 10 kt.

d)

The speed for which the ratio between rate of climb and forward speed is maximum.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 75

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
032-PERF

322.)

323.)

324.)

325.)

Which of the following statements with regard to the optimum cruise altitude (best
fuel mileage) is correct?
a)

An aeroplane usually flies above the optimum cruise altitude, as this provides the largest
specific range.

b)

An aeroplane sometimes flies above the optimum cruise altitude, because ATC normally
does not allow to fly continuously at the optimum cruise altitude.

c)

An aeroplane always flies on the optimum cruise altitude, because this is most attractive
from an economy point of view.

d)

An aeroplane always flies below the optimum cruise altitude, as otherwise Mach buffet
can occur.

Which of the following statements is applicable to the acceleration height at the


beginning of the 3rd climb segment ?
a)

There is no requirement for minimum climb performance when flying at the acceleration
height.

b)

The minimum one engine out acceleration height must be maintained in case of all
engines operating.

c)

The minimum legally allowed acceleration height is at 1500 ft.

d)

The maximum acceleration height depends on the maximum time take-off thrust may be
applied.

Which statement regarding the influence of a runway down-slope is correct for a


balanced take-off? Down-slope...
a)

increases V1 and increases the take-off distance required (TODR).

b)

increases V1 and reduces the accelerate stop distance required (ASDR).

c)

reduces V1 and increases the accelerate stop distance required (ASDR).

d)

reduces V1 and reduces take-off distance required (TODR).

If the field length limited take off mass has been calculated using a Balanced Field
Length technique, the use of any additional clearway in take off performance
calculations may allow
a)

the obstacle clearance limit to be increased with an higher V1

b)

a greater field length limited take off mass but with a higher V1

c)

the obstacle clearance limit to be increased with no effect on V1

d)

a greater field length limited take off mass but with a lower V1

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 76

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
032-PERF

326.)

327.)

328.)

329.)

The take-off mass of an aeroplane is restricted by the climb limit. What would be the
effect on this limit of an increase in the headwind component?
a)

The climb limited take-off mass would decrease.

b)

None.

c)

The climb limited take-off mass would increase.

d)

The effect would vary depending upon the height of any obstacle within the net take-off
flight path.

Which of the following statements with regard to the actual acceleration height at the
beginning of the 3rd climb segment is correct?
a)

A lower height than 400 ft is allowed in special circumstances e.g. noise abatement.

b)

There is no legal minimum value, because this will be determined from case to case
during the calculation of the net flight path.

c)

The minimum value according to regulations is 400 ft.

d)

The minimum value according to regulations is 1000 ft.

According to JAR-OPS 1, which one of the following statements concerning the


landing distance for a turbojet aeroplane is correct?
a)

The landing distance is the distance from 35 ft above the surface of the runway to the full
stop.

b)

Malfunctioning of an anti-skid system has no effect on the required runway length.

c)

Reverse thrust is one of the factors always taken into account when determining the
landing distance required.

d)

When determining the maximum allowable landing mass at destination, 60% of the
available landing runway length should be taken into account.

Which one of the following statements concerning drift-down is correct?


a)

An engine failure at high cruising altitude will always result in a drift-down, because it is
not permitted to fly the same altitude with one engine inoperative as with all engines
operating.

b)

The drift-down procedure requires a minimum obstacle clearance of 35 ft.

c)

When determining the obstacle clearance during drift-down, fuel dumping may be taken
into account.

d)

The drift-down procedure requires a minimum descent angle after an engine failure at
cruising altitude.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 77

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
032-PERF

330.)

331.)

332.)

333.)

In accordance with JAR 25 the take-off safety speed V2min for turbo-propeller
powered aeroplanes with more than three engines may not be less than:
a)

1.2 VSR

b)

1.13 VSR

c)

VSR

d)

1.08 VSR

The take-off safety speed V2 for two-engine or three-engine turbo propeller powered
aeroplanes may not be less than:
a)

1.2 Vs

b)

1.15 Vs1

c)

1.15 Vs

d)

1.3 Vs

On a segment of the take-off flight path an obstacle requires a minimum gradient of


climb of 2.6% in order to provide an adequate margin of safe clearance. At a mass of
110000 kg the gradient of climb is 2.8%. For the same power and assuming that the
sine of the angle of climb varies inversely with mass, at what maximum mass will the
aeroplane be able to achieve the minimum gradient?
a)

102150 kg

b)

121310 kg

c)

106425 kg

d)

118455 kg

Which statement regarding V1 is correct ?


a)

VR may not be lower than V1

b)

The correction for up-slope on the balanced V1 is negative

c)

V1 may not be higher than Vmcg

d)

When determining V1, reverse thrust may only be used on the remaining symmetric
engines

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 78

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
032-PERF

334.)

335.)

336.)

337.)

Which statement with respect to the step climb is correct ?


a)

Performing a step climb based on economy can be limited by the 1.3g buffet onset
requirements.

b)

A step climb provides better economy than a optimum cruise.

c)

In principle a step climb is performed immediately after the aircraft has exceeded the
optimum altitude.

d)

A step climb can only be performed when the altitude exceeds the one engine out service
ceiling.

Take-off performance data, for the ambient conditions, show the following limitations
with flap 10 selected:
- runway limit: 5 270 kg
- obstacle limit: 4 630 kg
Estimated take-off mass is 5 000kg.
Considering a take-off with flaps at:
a)

20, both limitations are increased

b)

20, the obstacle limit is increased but the runway limit decreases

c)

5, both limitations are increased

d)

5, the obstacle limit is increased but the runway limit decreases

A climb gradient required is 3,3%. For an aircraft maintaining 100 kt true airspeed , no
wind, this climb gradient corresponds to a rate of climb of approximately:
a)

3,30 m/s

b)

3 300 ft/min

c)

33,0 m/s

d)

330 ft/min

Following a take-off determined by the 50ft (15m) screen height, a light twin climbs on
a 10% over-the-ground climb gradient.
It will clear a 900 m high obstacle in relation to the runway (horizontally), situated at
10 000 m from the 50 ft clearing point with an obstacle clearance of:
a)

100 m

b)

It will not clear the obstacle

c)

115 m

d)

85 m

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 79

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
032-PERF

338.)

339.)

340.)

A runway is contaminated with 0.5 cm of wet snow.


The flight manual of a light twin nevertheless authorises a landing in these conditions.
The landing distance will be, in relation to that for a dry runway:
a)

increased

b)

unchanged

c)

reduced

d)

substantially decreased

The climb gradient of an aircraft after take-off is 6% in standard atmosphere, no wind,


at 0 ft pressure altitude.
Using the following corrections:
" 0,2 % / 1 000 ft field elevation"
" 0,1 % / C from standard temperature"
" - 1 % with wing anti-ice"
" - 0,5% with engine anti-ice"
The climb gradient after take-off from an airport situated at 1 000 ft, 17 C; QNH
1013,25 hPa, with wing and engine anti-ice operating for a functional check is:
a)

3,9 %

b)

4,3 %

c)

4,7 %

d)

4,9 %

An aircraft has two certified landing flaps positions, 25 and 35.


If a pilot chooses 25 instead of 35, the aircraft will have:
a)

a reduced landing distance and better go-around performance

b)

an increased landing distance and better go-around performance

c)

a reduced landing distance and degraded go-around performance

d)

an increased landing distance and degraded go-around performance

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 80

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
032-PERF

341.)

342.)

343.)

344.)

The take-off distance of an aircraft is 800m in standard atmosphere, no wind at 0 ft


pressure-altitude.
Using the following corrections:
" 20 m / 1 000 ft field elevation "
"- 5 m / kt headwind "
"+ 10 m / kt tail wind "
" 15 m / % runway slope "
" 5 m / C deviation from standard temperature "
The take-off distance from an airport at 2 000 ft elevation, temperature 21C, QNH
1013.25 hPa, 2% up-slope, 5 kt tail wind is:
a)

810 m

b)

970 m

c)

870 m

d)

890 m

An increase in atmospheric pressure has, among other things, the following


consequences on landing performance:
a)

an increased landing distance and degraded go-around performance

b)

an increased landing distance and improved go-around performance

c)

a reduced landing distance and improved go-around performance

d)

a reduced landing distance and degraded go around performance

A decrease in atmospheric pressure has, among other things, the following


consequences on take-off performance:
a)

a reduced take-off distance and improved initial climb performance

b)

a reduced take-off distance and degraded initial climb performance

c)

an increased take-off distance and degraded initial climb performance

d)

an increased take-off distance and improved initial climb performance

An increase in atmospheric pressure has, among other things, the following


consequences on take-off performance:
a)

a reduced take-off distance and improved initial climb performance

b)

a reduced take-off distance and degraded initial climb performance

c)

an increases take-off distance and degraded initial climb performance

d)

an increased take-off distance and improved initial climb performance

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 81

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
032-PERF

345.)

346.)

347.)

348.)

The take-off distance of an aircraft is 600m in standard atmosphere, no wind at 0 ft


pressure-altitude.
Using the following corrections:
" 20 m / 1 000 ft field elevation"
"- 5 m / kt headwind"
"+ 10 m / kt tail wind"
" 15 m / % runway slope"
" 5 m / C deviation from standard temperature"
The take-off distance from an airport at 1 000 ft elevation, temperature 17C, QNH
1013,25 hPa, 1% up-slope, 10 kt tail wind is:
a)

715 m

b)

685 m

c)

555 m

d)

755 m

An aircraft has two certified landing flaps positions, 25 and 35.


If a pilot chooses 35 instead of 25, the aircraft will have:
a)

a reduced landing distance and degraded go-around performance

b)

an increased landing distance and better go-around performance

c)

an increased landing distance and degraded go-around performance

d)

a reduced landing distance and better go-around performance

The pilot of a single engine aircraft has established the climb performance.
The carriage of an additional passenger will cause the climb performance to be:
a)

Unchanged

b)

Improved

c)

Degraded

d)

Unchanged, if a short field take-off is adopted

A runway is contaminated by a 0,5 cm layer of wet snow. The take-off is nevertheless


authorized by a light-twin's flight manual.
The take-off distance in relation to a dry runway will be:
a)

decreased

b)

increased

c)

very significantly decreased

d)

unchanged

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 82

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
032-PERF

349.)

350.)

351.)

352.)

Following a take-off, limited by the 50 ft screen height, a light twin climbs on a


gradient of 5%.
It will clear a 160 m obstacle in relation to the runway (horizontally), situated at 5 000m
from the 50 ft point with an obstacle clearance margin of:
a)

90 m

b)

it will not clear the obstacle

c)

75 m

d)

105 m

The pilot of a light twin engine aircraft has calculated a 4 000 m service ceiling, based
on the forecast general conditions for the flight and a take-off mass of 3 250 kg.
If the take-off mass is 3 000 kg, the service ceiling will be:
a)

only a new performance analysis will determine if the service ceiling is higher or lower
than 4000 m.

b)

higher than 4 000 m.

c)

less than 4 000 m.

d)

unchanged, equal to 4 000 m.

The flight manual of a light twin engine recommends two cruise power settings, 65
and 75 %. The 75% power setting in relation to the 65 % results in:
a)

an increase in speed, fuel consumption and fuel-burn/distance.

b)

same speed and fuel-burn/distance, but an increase in the fuel-burn per hour.

c)

same speed and an increase of the fuel-burn per hour and fuel-burn/distance.

d)

an increase in speed and fuel-burn/distance, but an unchanged fuel-burn per hour.

With an true airspeed of 194 kt and a vertical speed of 1 000 ft/min, the climb gradient
is about:
a)

8%

b)

c)

d)

3%

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 83

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
032-PERF

353.)

354.)

355.)

356.)

On a twin engine piston aircraft with variable pitch propellers, for a given mass and
altitude, the minimum drag speed is 125 kt and the holding speed (minimum fuel burn
per hour) is 95 kt.
The best rate of climb speed will be obtained for a speed:
a)

inferior to 95 kts

b)

equal to 95 kt

c)

is between 95 and 125 kt

d)

equal to 125 kt

If the airworthiness documents do not specify a correction for landing on a wet


runway; the landing distance must be increased by:
a)

20 %

b)

15 %

c)

5%

d)

10 %

At a given mass, the reference stall speed of a twin engine turboprop aircraft is 100 kt
in the landing configuration. The minimum speed a pilot must maintain in short final
is:
a)

125 kt

b)

120 kt

c)

115 kt

d)

123 kt

(For this question use annex 032-11661A or Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.1)
An extract of the flight manual of a single engine propeller aircraft is reproduced in
annex.
Airport characteristics: hard, dry and zero slope runway
Actual conditions are:
pressure altitude: 1 500 ft
outside temperature: +18C
wind component: 4 knots tailwind
For a take-off mass of 1 270 kg, the take-off distance will be:
a)

525 m

b)

615 m

c)

415 m

d)

440 m

Lsungen

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 84

jaa-032-1014 a.gif

jaa-032-1014 a.gif

jaa-032-2211 a.jpg

jaa-032-2211 a.jpg

jaa-032-2219 a.gif

jaa-032-2219 a.gif

jaa-032-2929 a.gif

jaa-032-2929 a.gif

jaa-032-3589 a.gif

jaa-032-3589 a.gif

jaa-032-3590 a.gif

jaa-032-3590 a.gif

jaa-032-4733 a.gif

jaa-032-4733 a.gif

jaa-032-4743 a.gif

jaa-032-4743 a.gif

jaa-032-4744 a.jpg

jaa-032-4744 a.jpg

jaa-032-6574 a.gif

jaa-032-6574 a.gif

jaa-032-6576 a.gif

jaa-032-6576 a.gif

032-6579 A, 6581 A, 6582 A, 6583 A

4. CRUISE
4. 1 Requirements
The aeroplane may not be assumed to be flying above the altitude at which a rate of climb of 300 ft/minute is attained.
The net gradient of descent, in the event of engine failure, is the gross gradient +0,5%.

032-6584 A, 6585 A
CIVIL AVIATION AUTHORITY
FLIGHT PLANNING & MONITORING
Figure 2.2

DATA SHEET
SEP 1

RECOMMENDED CRUISE POWER SETTINGS

TABLE 2.2.3

20 C LEAN

23.0 IN. HG (OR FULL THROTTLE) @ 2300 RPM


Of Peak EGT

CRUISE LEAN MIXTURE


3400 Ibs.
Press. Alt.

ISA 20 C
(ISA 36 F)

Standard
Day
(ISA)

ISA +
20 C
(ISA +
36 F)

NOTES:

IOAT

Man.
Press.

Fuel Flow

Air Speed

Feet

IN. HG

PPH

GPH

KIAS

KTAS

0
2000
4000
6000
8000
10,000
12,000
14,000
16.000

-3
-7
-11
-15
-18
-23
-17
-31
-35

26
20
13
6
-1
-9
-16
-23
-31

23.0
23.0
23.0
23.0
22.4
20.7
19.2
17.8
16.4

67.6
69.7
72.1
74.4
73.8
68.4
63.8
60.0
56.3

11.3
11.6
12.0
12.4
12.3
11.4
10.6
10.0
9.4

152
152
153
153
150
143
135
127
117

144
149
154
158
160
157
153
148
141

65.4
67.4
69.4
71.7
71.1
66.2
61.8
58.5
55.3

10.9
11.2
11.6
12.0
11.9
11.0
10.3
9.8
9.2

147
147
148
148
145
137
129
120
109

145
149
154
159
160
157
152
146
137

63.2
65.1
67.1
69.0
68.5
64.0
60.0
57.1
-

10.5
10.9
11.2
11.5
11.4
10.7
10.0
9.5
-

142
143
143
142
140
132
123
113
-

145
149
154
158
160
156
151
142
-

0
2000
4000
6000
8000
10,000
12,000
14,000
16.000

0
2000
4000
6000
8000
10,000
12,000
14,000
16,000

17
13
9
5
2
-3
-7
-11
-15

62
56
49
42
35
27
20
13
5

37
33
29
25
22
17
13
9
-

98
92
85
78
71
63
56
48

23.0
23.0
23.0
23.0
22.4
20.7
19.2

17.8
16.4

23.0
23.0
23.0
23.0
22.4
20.7
19.2
17.8
-

1. Full throttle manifold pressure settings are approximate.


2. Shaded area represents Operation with full throttle.
3. Fuel flows are to be used for flight planning only and will vary from aeroplane to
aeroplane. Lean using the EGT.

032-6586 A
CIVIL AVIATION AUTHORITY
FLIGHT PLANNING & MONITORING
Figure 2.3

DATA SHEET
SEP 1

ECONOMY CRUISE POWER SETTINGS

TABLE 2.3.1

20 C LEAN

21.0 IN. HG (OR FULL THROTTLE) @ 2100 RPM


Of Peak EGT

CRUISE LEAN MIXTURE


3400 Ibs.
Press. Alt.

ISA 20 C
(ISA 36 F)

Standard
Day
(ISA)

ISA +
20 C
(ISA +
36 F)

NOTES:

IOAT

Man.
Press.

Fuel
Flow

Air Speed

Feet

IN. HG

PPH

GPH

0
2000
4000
6000
8000
10,000
12,000
14,000
16.000

-4
-8
-11
-15
-19
-23
-27
-31
-35

25
18
12
5
-2
-9
-17
-24
-32

21.0
21.0
21.0
21.0
21.0
20.8
19.3
17.9
16.5

52.7
54.0
55.4
56.9
58.9
60.1
56.7
54.5
52.2

8.8
9.0
9.2
9.5
9.8
10.0
9.5
9.1
8.7

0
2000
4000
6000
8000
10,000
12,000
14,000
16.000

0
2000
4000
6000
8000
10,000
12,000
14,000
16,000

16
12
9
5
1
-3
-7
-11
-

61
54
48
41
34
27
19
12
-

36
32
29
25
21
17
13
-

97
90
83
77
70
63
55
-

21.0
21.0
21.0
21.0
21.0
20.8
19.3

17.9
-

21.0
21.0
21.0
21.0
21.0
20.8
19.3
-

KIAS

KTAS

126
128
130
131
132
132
123
113
95

120
125
130
136
141
144
139
132
114

51.8
53.1
54.4
55.7
57.3
58.5
55.6
53.5
-

8.6
8.9
9.1
9.3
9.6
9.8
9.3
8.9
-

120
123
124
125
126
126
116
103
-

118
124
129
134
140
143
137
125
-

50.8
52.1
53.4
54.7
55.9
56.8
54.5
-

8.65
8.7
8.9
9.1
9.3
9.5
9.1
-

114
116
118
119
120
119
108
-

115
121
127
132
137
141
131
-

1. Full throttle manifold pressure settings are approximate.


2. Shaded area represents Operation with full throttle.
3. Fuel flows are to be used for flight planning only and will vary from aeroplane to
aeroplane. Lean using the EGT.

032-6587 A, 6588 A
CIVIL AVIATION AUTHORITY
FLIGHT PLANNING & MONITORING

DATA SHEET
SEP 1

4. RANGE PROFILE
The graph at Figure 2.4 (page 9) provides a simple and rapid means of determining the still air range (nautical air miles) for the sample
aeroplane. An example of the use of the graph is shown.
Note that the figures make allowance for the taxi, run-up and 45 minutes reserve fuel.
Figure 2. 4

RANGE

jaa-032-915 a.gif

jaa-032-915 a.gif

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
032-PERF

Lsungen

39: B (1 Pkt.)

78: D (1 Pkt.)

1: C (2 Pkt.)

40: C (1 Pkt.)

79: C (1 Pkt.)

2: C (3 Pkt.)

41: C (1 Pkt.)

80: A (1 Pkt.)

3: C (1 Pkt.)

42: D (1 Pkt.)

81: D (1 Pkt.)

4: D (1 Pkt.)

43: C (1 Pkt.)

82: B (1 Pkt.)

5: B (1 Pkt.)

44: C (1 Pkt.)

83: B (1 Pkt.)

6: C (1 Pkt.)

45: C (1 Pkt.)

84: D (1 Pkt.)

7: A (1 Pkt.)

46: C (1 Pkt.)

85: D (1 Pkt.)

8: B (1 Pkt.)

47: C (1 Pkt.)

86: A (1 Pkt.)

9: B (1 Pkt.)

48: D (1 Pkt.)

87: D (1 Pkt.)

10: C (2 Pkt.)

49: D (1 Pkt.)

88: D (1 Pkt.)

11: A (1 Pkt.)

50: D (1 Pkt.)

89: D (1 Pkt.)

12: C (1 Pkt.)

51: D (1 Pkt.)

90: A (1 Pkt.)

13: B (1 Pkt.)

52: B (1 Pkt.)

91: D (1 Pkt.)

14: C (1 Pkt.)

53: D (1 Pkt.)

92: A (1 Pkt.)

15: D (1 Pkt.)

54: A (1 Pkt.)

93: A (1 Pkt.)

16: B (1 Pkt.)

55: D (2 Pkt.)

94: C (1 Pkt.)

17: A (1 Pkt.)

56: D (1 Pkt.)

95: B (1 Pkt.)

18: C (1 Pkt.)

57: D (1 Pkt.)

96: A (1 Pkt.)

19: A (1 Pkt.)

58: C (1 Pkt.)

97: B (1 Pkt.)

20: A (1 Pkt.)

59: D (2 Pkt.)

98: B (1 Pkt.)

21: D (1 Pkt.)

60: C (1 Pkt.)

99: B (1 Pkt.)

22: C (1 Pkt.)

61: C (1 Pkt.)

100: B (1 Pkt.)

23: A (1 Pkt.)

62: A (1 Pkt.)

101: D (1 Pkt.)

24: C (1 Pkt.)

63: C (1 Pkt.)

102: D (1 Pkt.)

25: C (1 Pkt.)

64: B (1 Pkt.)

103: D (1 Pkt.)

26: D (1 Pkt.)

65: C (1 Pkt.)

104: B (1 Pkt.)

27: A (1 Pkt.)

66: D (1 Pkt.)

105: B (1 Pkt.)

28: D (1 Pkt.)

67: B (1 Pkt.)

106: C (1 Pkt.)

29: D (1 Pkt.)

68: C (1 Pkt.)

107: D (1 Pkt.)

30: C (1 Pkt.)

69: B (1 Pkt.)

108: C (1 Pkt.)

31: A (1 Pkt.)

70: B (1 Pkt.)

109: A (1 Pkt.)

32: A (1 Pkt.)

71: A (2 Pkt.)

110: D (1 Pkt.)

33: A (1 Pkt.)

72: B (1 Pkt.)

111: A (1 Pkt.)

34: A (1 Pkt.)

73: A (1 Pkt.)

112: D (1 Pkt.)

35: B (1 Pkt.)

74: A (1 Pkt.)

113: C (1 Pkt.)

36: B (1 Pkt.)

75: D (1 Pkt.)

114: B (1 Pkt.)

37: D (1 Pkt.)

76: A (2 Pkt.)

115: B (1 Pkt.)

38: B (1 Pkt.)

77: C (1 Pkt.)

116: D (1 Pkt.)

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 85

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
032-PERF

117: A (1 Pkt.)

158: C (1 Pkt.)

199: B (1 Pkt.)

118: B (1 Pkt.)

159: D (1 Pkt.)

200: D (1 Pkt.)

119: D (1 Pkt.)

160: A (1 Pkt.)

201: C (1 Pkt.)

120: B (1 Pkt.)

161: D (1 Pkt.)

202: C (1 Pkt.)

121: D (1 Pkt.)

162: C (1 Pkt.)

203: A (1 Pkt.)

122: A (1 Pkt.)

163: B (1 Pkt.)

204: C (1 Pkt.)

123: A (1 Pkt.)

164: D (1 Pkt.)

205: C (1 Pkt.)

124: C (1 Pkt.)

165: D (1 Pkt.)

206: C (1 Pkt.)

125: A (1 Pkt.)

166: B (1 Pkt.)

207: D (1 Pkt.)

126: C (1 Pkt.)

167: B (1 Pkt.)

208: A (1 Pkt.)

127: B (1 Pkt.)

168: D (1 Pkt.)

209: C (1 Pkt.)

128: B (1 Pkt.)

169: C (1 Pkt.)

210: D (1 Pkt.)

129: B (1 Pkt.)

170: C (1 Pkt.)

211: D (1 Pkt.)

130: C (1 Pkt.)

171: A (1 Pkt.)

212: C (1 Pkt.)

131: A (1 Pkt.)

172: D (1 Pkt.)

213: C (1 Pkt.)

132: C (1 Pkt.)

173: A (1 Pkt.)

214: A (1 Pkt.)

133: A (1 Pkt.)

174: C (1 Pkt.)

215: A (1 Pkt.)

134: D (1 Pkt.)

175: D (1 Pkt.)

216: C (1 Pkt.)

135: A (1 Pkt.)

176: C (1 Pkt.)

217: B (1 Pkt.)

136: B (1 Pkt.)

177: A (1 Pkt.)

218: B (1 Pkt.)

137: B (1 Pkt.)

178: B (1 Pkt.)

219: B (1 Pkt.)

138: D (1 Pkt.)

179: D (1 Pkt.)

220: D (1 Pkt.)

139: C (1 Pkt.)

180: C (1 Pkt.)

221: B (1 Pkt.)

140: B (1 Pkt.)

181: D (1 Pkt.)

222: C (1 Pkt.)

141: A (1 Pkt.)

182: C (1 Pkt.)

223: C (1 Pkt.)

142: D (1 Pkt.)

183: B (1 Pkt.)

224: A (1 Pkt.)

143: B (1 Pkt.)

184: C (1 Pkt.)

225: C (1 Pkt.)

144: C (1 Pkt.)

185: C (1 Pkt.)

226: B (1 Pkt.)

145: A (1 Pkt.)

186: D (1 Pkt.)

227: B (1 Pkt.)

146: B (1 Pkt.)

187: A (1 Pkt.)

228: C (1 Pkt.)

147: D (1 Pkt.)

188: D (1 Pkt.)

229: A (1 Pkt.)

148: A (1 Pkt.)

189: A (2 Pkt.)

230: B (1 Pkt.)

149: C (1 Pkt.)

190: B (1 Pkt.)

231: D (1 Pkt.)

150: A (2 Pkt.)

191: A (1 Pkt.)

232: C (1 Pkt.)

151: B (1 Pkt.)

192: C (1 Pkt.)

233: D (1 Pkt.)

152: B (1 Pkt.)

193: A (1 Pkt.)

234: A (1 Pkt.)

153: A (1 Pkt.)

194: C (1 Pkt.)

235: D (1 Pkt.)

154: D (1 Pkt.)

195: D (1 Pkt.)

236: A (1 Pkt.)

155: B (1 Pkt.)

196: B (1 Pkt.)

237: A (1 Pkt.)

156: C (1 Pkt.)

197: C (1 Pkt.)

238: C (1 Pkt.)

157: A (1 Pkt.)

198: D (1 Pkt.)

239: D (1 Pkt.)

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 86

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
032-PERF

240: B (1 Pkt.)

279: A (1 Pkt.)

318: C (1 Pkt.)

241: D (1 Pkt.)

280: B (1 Pkt.)

319: A (1 Pkt.)

242: C (1 Pkt.)

281: D (1 Pkt.)

320: C (1 Pkt.)

243: C (1 Pkt.)

282: D (1 Pkt.)

321: D (1 Pkt.)

244: A (1 Pkt.)

283: A (1 Pkt.)

322: B (1 Pkt.)

245: D (1 Pkt.)

284: B (1 Pkt.)

323: D (1 Pkt.)

246: D (1 Pkt.)

285: B (1 Pkt.)

324: D (1 Pkt.)

247: B (1 Pkt.)

286: C (1 Pkt.)

325: D (1 Pkt.)

248: B (1 Pkt.)

287: A (1 Pkt.)

326: B (1 Pkt.)

249: A (1 Pkt.)

288: A (1 Pkt.)

327: C (1 Pkt.)

250: C (1 Pkt.)

289: C (1 Pkt.)

328: D (1 Pkt.)

251: D (1 Pkt.)

290: B (1 Pkt.)

329: C (1 Pkt.)

252: D (1 Pkt.)

291: D (1 Pkt.)

330: D (1 Pkt.)

253: D (1 Pkt.)

292: D (2 Pkt.)

331: A (1 Pkt.)

254: A (1 Pkt.)

293: B (2 Pkt.)

332: D (1 Pkt.)

255: B (1 Pkt.)

294: D (2 Pkt.)

333: A (1 Pkt.)

256: C (1 Pkt.)

295: D (2 Pkt.)

334: A (1 Pkt.)

257: C (1 Pkt.)

296: D (2 Pkt.)

335: D (1 Pkt.)

258: C (1 Pkt.)

297: C (2 Pkt.)

336: D (1 Pkt.)

259: D (1 Pkt.)

298: C (2 Pkt.)

337: C (2 Pkt.)

260: A (1 Pkt.)

299: C (2 Pkt.)

338: A (1 Pkt.)

261: B (1 Pkt.)

300: B (1 Pkt.)

339: A (1 Pkt.)

262: B (1 Pkt.)

301: D (2 Pkt.)

340: B (1 Pkt.)

263: A (1 Pkt.)

302: B (1 Pkt.)

341: B (1 Pkt.)

264: C (1 Pkt.)

303: B (2 Pkt.)

342: C (1 Pkt.)

265: C (1 Pkt.)

304: B (2 Pkt.)

343: C (1 Pkt.)

266: A (1 Pkt.)

305: C (1 Pkt.)

344: A (1 Pkt.)

267: D (1 Pkt.)

306: B (1 Pkt.)

345: D (1 Pkt.)

268: D (1 Pkt.)

307: B (1 Pkt.)

346: A (1 Pkt.)

269: D (1 Pkt.)

308: B (1 Pkt.)

347: C (1 Pkt.)

270: B (1 Pkt.)

309: C (1 Pkt.)

348: B (1 Pkt.)

271: C (1 Pkt.)

310: A (1 Pkt.)

349: D (2 Pkt.)

272: A (1 Pkt.)

311: C (1 Pkt.)

350: B (1 Pkt.)

273: D (1 Pkt.)

312: B (2 Pkt.)

351: A (1 Pkt.)

274: D (1 Pkt.)

313: D (1 Pkt.)

352: B (1 Pkt.)

275: B (1 Pkt.)

314: B (1 Pkt.)

353: B (1 Pkt.)

276: B (1 Pkt.)

315: C (1 Pkt.)

354: B (1 Pkt.)

277: C (1 Pkt.)

316: D (1 Pkt.)

355: D (1 Pkt.)

278: A (1 Pkt.)

317: B (1 Pkt.)

356: A (2 Pkt.)

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 87

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire
033-FPLN

001.)

002.)

003.)

004.)

An aircraft is flying at MACH 0.84 at FL 330. The static air temperature is -48C and the
headwind component 52 Kt. At 1338 UTC the controller requests the pilot to cross the
meridian of 030W at 1500 UTC. Given the distance to go is 570 NM, the reduced MACH
No. should be:
a)

0.80

b)

0.78

c)

0.72

d)

0.76

On a given path, it is possible to chose between four flight levels (FL), each
associated with a mandatory flight Mach Number (M). Th