It has been proven that teachers always ask content questions. Which does not refer to a content question? a. Closed c. concept b. Direct d. convergent

2. TEACHER: In what other ways aside from the periodic table may we predict the undiscovered earth? STUDENT A: We can go to the moon and see if there are elements there that can’t be found. We can dig down to the Earth’s core and see if we can see there some missing elements. TEACHER: Ok those are really good ideas, but don’t you think those would cost a lot? How can we possibly use the elements to find new ones? QUESTION: What is being illustrated by the dialogue above? a. funneling c. nose-dive b. sowing and reaping d. extending and lifting 3. Which practice in questioning brings about more classroom interaction? a. asking the question before calling on a student. b. focusing on divergent questions c. focusing on convergent questions d. asking rhetorical questions

4. If students are not responding to your questions, what technique should you use? a. ask a specific student to respond, state the question, and wait a response. b. Tell the class that it will have detention unless answer is forthcoming. c. ask another question, an easier one. d. wait for a response. 5. What should you do if you want to teach your students to synthesize? a. ask students to formulate a generalization from the data shown in graphs. b. ask students to answer questions beginning with “What if…” c. tell students to state data presented in graph d. direct students to ask questions on the parts of the lesson not understood 6. The following are acceptable purposes of a question except; a. to call the attention of an inattentive student b. to teach student answers c. to stimulate learners to ask questions d. to arouse interest and curiosity

7. Teachers must avoid ____ questions to promote maximum interaction. a. informational c. leading b. rhetorical d. divergent 8. In asking higher order questions, a teacher must ask more ____ questions. a. closed c. concept b. fact d. convergent 9. What is not a logical and sound purpose of questioning? a. to probe deeper after an answer is given b. to discipline a bully in class c. to remind students of a procedure d. to encourage self reflection 10. After giving a comment on a paragraph, the teacher ask his students to rate a given paragraph based on the elements of the paragraph. What is the level of the student’s task? a. application c. evaluation b. analysis d. synthesis 11. Which of the following directly measures competence? a. personality test c. paper and pencil test b. performance test d. standardized test 12. Analyze this item: Group these items in terms of shape. This question is an example of what type of question?

a. creating b. generalizing

c. classifying d. predicting

13. Considering the theory of multiple intelligences, what would be a weakness of the pencil and paper test? a. it is not easy to administer b. it puts the non-linguistically intelligent at a disadvantage c. it utilizes so much time d. it lacks reliability 14. Which has the highest diagnostic value when we are tasked to develop our skills in synthesizing? a. essay test c. completion test b. performance test d. multiple choice test 15. Which one can best evaluate students’ attitude? a. essay test c. observation b. portfolio d. short answer test 16. A teacher discovered that her students are good in dramatizing. What test could have helped the teacher in discovering her students’ ability? a. portfolio assessment c. journal entry b. performance test d. paper and pencil test

17. A teacher wants to teach students the skill in crocheting. Her check up quiz was a pen and paper test on the steps of crocheting. What do you think is lacking for it to be considered a good test? a. scorability c. objectivity c. reliability d. validity 18. If the exam you have taken constitutes the competencies stated on the syllabus, then we can say that the test has ____ validity. a. concurrent c. content b. construct d. predictive 19. What kind of question is this particular item: “Based on the facts given, what most likely will happen if….” a. inferring c. synthesizing b. generalizing d. justifying 20. What must a teacher do to ensure the fairness of an exam in a criterion-referenced testing? a. make all the questions true or false b. ask each student to contribute one question c. make twenty questions but ask the students to answer only ten of their choices d. use the objectives for the units as guide in your test construction.

21. This type of test’s strength is its broad sampling. a. objective test c. essay test c. short answer test d. problem type 22. In planning an achievement test, this must be the first step. a. define the instructional objective b. decide on the length of the test c. select the type of test items to use d. build a table of specification 23. What is the first step in constructing a periodic test? a. decide on the number of items for the test b. go back to the instructional objectives c. study the content d. decide on the type of test to be constructed 24. What is the meaning of TOS in the parlance of test construction? a. table of speeches c. table of specific test item b. table of specifications d. term of specifications 25. Which guidelines in test construction is not observed in this test item: Jose Rizal wrote _________. a. the central problem should be packed in the stem b. there must be only one answer c. alternatives must have grammatical parallelism d. the alternatives must be plausible

26. Quiz: Formative, Periodic:_____ a. criterion reference test c. norm-reference test b. summative test d. diagnostic test 27. What kind of test must a teacher use if she wants to test the students’ ability to organize ideas? a. multiple choice type c. essay b. short answer d. technical problem type 28. Among the choice given, A, B, C, D, no student chose D. It means D is: a. a defective distracter c. an effective distracter c. a vague distracter d. a plausible distracter 29. NSAT and Nat results are interpreted against set mastery level. This means that NSAT and NAT fall under ___ a. intelligence test c. criterion-reference test b. aptitude test d. norm-reference test 30. _________ is strength of an autobiography as a technique for personality appraisal a. it can replace data obtained from other data gathering technique b. it gives complete data about the author c. it makes possible the presentation of intimate experiences that can not be revealed in a face-to-face situation by shy students d. it may be read by unauthorized people

31. When the teacher construct a table of specifications, the students can be assured that the test has; a. scorability c. economy b. reliability d. content validity 32. Here is a performance objective: “WITH THE AID OF A PERIODIC CHART, the student will list the atomic weights of the first ten elements”. The capitalized words are referred to as the a. performance statement c. behavior b. minimum acceptable performance d. condition 33. Robert Frost wrote ___. “This question lacks what guideline in test construction? a. the length of the blank suggests answer. b. the central problem is not packed in the stem c. it is open to more than one answer d. the blank is at the end of the question. 34. Which should be excluded in the group? a. completion c. multiple choice b. matching d. alternative response 35. A teacher interpreted the test scores using normreference, which of the following did she do? a. used a specific content as its frame of reference b. described group performance in relation to a level of master set

c. compared every individual student scores with other scores d. describe what should be the students’ performance 36. What type of test measures higher order thinking skills? a. enumeration c. completion b. matching d. analogy 37. What is convergent question? a. Did the LA SOLIDARIDAD accomplish its purpose? Why or why not? b. Who was the first editor of LA SOLIDARIDAD? c. Why did the LA SOLIDARIDAD come about? d. If you were the editor of the LA SOLIDARIDAD what would you do? 38. Here is a performance objective: Given a compass and a straight edge, construct a pentagon within 5 degrees of accuracy on any of the inside or outside angles. Which is the condition statement? a. within 5 degrees of accuracy b. construct a pentagon c. on any of the inside or outside angles d. given a compass and a straight edge

39. What should be the source of a teacher performance in terms of professional growth? a. self evaluation c. student’s evaluation b. supervisory evaluation d. peer evaluation 40. If a guidance counselor plays the role of a social worker, it means; a. he must spend time planning, giving and interpreting tests b. he gives vocational guidance c. he does tutoring d. he does counseling with children who are disturbed emotionally 41. Which teacher behavior DOES enhance development of higher level thinking skills? a. Encouraging credibility as a criterion b. Asking convergent questions c. Making students aware of their mental process d. Teaching for meaning 42. Which is FALSE about guidance? a. Guidance is concerned with the entire individual b. Guidance is an integral part of education c. Guidance helps individuals develop the ability to make intelligence d. Guidance makes choices for individuals

43. Which must be removed from the group? a. Short answer c. Completion b. Restricted-response essay d. Multiple Choice 44. Which statement is CORRECT about guidance? a. Guidance is aimed merely at the amelioration of trauma. b. Guidance is concerned with the maximum development of the individual. c. Guidance is confined to one type of life situation like social. d. Guidance is making intelligent choices for confused individuals. 45. In order to have basis for _______, test norms are established. a. establishing learning objectives b. identifying pupil’s difficulties c. planning effective instructional devices d. comparing test scores. 46. Analyze this test item: Jose Rizal was born on June____,1861. What seems to be wrong on this item? a. The blank is very long b. It is concerned with trivia c. The blank is near the end. d. It is open to more than one correct answer.

47. Counselors must AVOID this assumption for them to have a successful counseling. a. Student is willing to participate in the process b. Counselor tells the student what to do c. Environment must provide assurance of confidentiality 48. Comparability of grades could be improved by: a. Individual teachers giving weights to factors considered for rating b. Using a common conversion table for translating test scores into ratings c. Allowing individual teachers to determine factors for rating d. Formulating tests that vary from one teacher to another 49. Which objective below is the highest level in Bloom’s taxonomy? a. Explain how trees receive nutrients b. Explain how a tree functions in relation to the ecosystem. c. Rate three different methods of controlling tree growth d. List the parts of a tree 50. What is an effective tool in measuring students’ awareness of values? a. anecdotal record c. Likert scale b. projective techniques d. moral dilemma

51. IDENTIFY IN WRITING THE SIX ELEMENTS IN THE SHORT STORY BY EDGAR ALLAN POE with complete accuracy. The capitalized words in this question is called; a. minimum acceptable performance c. criterion of success b. performance statement d. condition 52. This is the collection of students’ outputs, products and accomplishments in a period of time. a. anecdotal record c. observation report b. portfolio d. diary 53. The school wants the graduating students to choose rightly the courses they would take in college. The is what type of guidance service? a. research service c. skewed to the left b. skewed to the right d. very normal 54. Guidance service that conducts follow up studies of graduates and drop outs falls under a. individual inventory service c. counseling service b. research service d. placement service 55. A teacher did a misconception/preconception check on the first day of class to know what the class already knows about a certain topic. This check is a form of; a. diagnostic test c. criterion-reference test

b. placement test

d. achievement test

56. Teacher Eva wrote of Henry: “when Henry came to class this morning, he seemed very tired and slouched in his seat. He took no part in class discussion and seemed to have no interest in what was being discussed. This was very unusual, for he has always been eager to participate and often monopolized the discussion time.” What teacher eva wrote is an example of a/an; a. incident report c. personality report b. anecdotal report d. observation report 57. Read this test item then answer the question below. WHAT IS THE END PUNCTUATION FOR AN INTERROGATIVE SENTENCE? A. Quotation mark c. semicolon b. comma d. question mark 58. Parents who demand their 3 to 5 year old children to study seriously forgets that the children are in; a. questioning age c. initiative age b. pre-school age d. play age 59. Under which assumption is portfolio assessment based? a. portfolio assessment is a dynamic assessment b. assessment should stress the reproduction of knowledge

c. an individual learner is inadequately characterized by test score d. an individual learner is adequately characterized by test score 60. If a teacher is concerned with the development of students’ higher order thinking skills, his lesson objectives must go beyond; a. analysis c. comprehension b. recall d. application 61. What does not constitute principles of guidance? a. it is inherent in every school b. it is a function of the entire school c. the classroom teacher is not a part of the school guidance program d. guidance embraces curriculum, teaching and all other activities of the school 62. Which statement on counseling is FALSE? a. the ultimate goal of counseling is greater happiness on the part of the counselee b. for counseling to be successful, the counselee, is willing to participate in the process c. the school counselor is primary responsible for counseling d. counseling is the program that includes guidance

63. Which assessment tool shows evidence of students’ writing skills? a. project c. critiquing sessions b. portfolio d. daily journal 64. Teacher j discovered that her pupils are weak in comprehension. To further determine in which particular skill/s her pupils are weak; which test should teacher J give? a. aptitude test c. diagnostic test b. placement test d. standardized test 65. What type of validity is needed if a test must course objectives and scopes? a. content c. criterion b. concurrent d. construct 66. Teacher gives to his class for assessment. CORE IS TO EARTH AS NUCLEUS IS TO ATOM. Then she asks the students to explain how the relationship between core and earth is similar to relationship between odometer and distance. What is the classroom assessment technique is called? a. webbing c. metaphor b. analogy d. simile 67. It is good to give students challenging and creative learning tasks because; a. development is aided by stimulation b. the development of individual is unique

c. development is affected by cultural changes d. development is an individual choice 68. Teacher B wants to diagnose which vowel sound/s her students have difficulty. Which tools most appropriate? a. portfolio assessment c. performance test b. journal entry d. standardized test 69. Who is the proponent of non-directive counseling? a. Carl Rogers c. Karen Horney b. Sigmund Freud d. William James 70. If a student has a special need and the teacher has no adequate training on learning disabilities, what should not be the attitude of the teacher? a. refer the child with special need to the principal b. refer the child with special need to a psychologist c. refuse to accept the child in your class d. the teacher should express one’s limitations 71. Which of the following is not an ideal situation? a. student with behavioral problem is sanctioned by the guidance counselor b. student with behavioral problem is assisted by the counselor c. student with behavioral problem is given psychological test

d. student with behavioral problem is referred to a guidance counselor 72. Teachers should have fundamental background in guidance and counseling because; a. teachers should be ready to be multi-talented b. teachers should be ready to perform dual tasks c. teachers should know that a school has limited budget d. teachers should know a proactive intervention 73. If a student discloses a very sensitive problem then the teacher divulges such problem in the faculty room, the teacher violates _____ a. secrecy c. ethics b. confidentiality d. promise 74. Who is the Father of Guidance and Counseling in the Philippines? a. Sigmund Freud c. Fr. Jaime Bulatao b. Frank Parsona d. Sinfroso Padilla 75. What kind of test must a teacher use if she wants to test the students’ ability to organize ideas? a. multiple choice type c. essay b. short answer d. technical problem type

76. Study this group of test which was administered with the following results, then answer the question Subject Mean SD Rudy’s Score Trigo 80 7.5 95 Chemistry 49 3 60 Filipino 95 12 90 In which subject/s did Rudy performed best in relation to the performance of the group? a. Trigonometry c. Filipino b. Chemistry d. Trigonometry & Filipino 77. John Marco obtained a score of 85 in Mathematics multiple choice tests. What does this mean? a. he has a rating of 85 b. he answered 85 items in the test correctly c. he answered 85% of the test correctly d. his performance is 15% better than the group 78. In his second item analysis, Teacher Ian found out that more from the lower group got the test item #6 correctly. This means that the test item; a. has a negative discriminating power b. has a lower validity c. has a positive discriminating power d. has a high reliability

79. NSAT and Nat results are interpreted against set mastery level. This means that NSAT and NAT fall under ___ a. intelligence test c. criterion-reference test b. aptitude test d. norm-reference test 80. This is the first step in planning an achievement test. a. select the type of test items to use b. decide on the length of the test c. define the instructional objective d. build a table of specification 81. Standard deviation: Variability, Mean: ____ A. discrimination c. correlation b. level of difficulty d. central tendency 82. Which is implied by a positively skewed score distribution? a. the mean, median and mode are equal b. most of the scores are high c. the mode is high d. most of the scores are low 83. Median is the 50th percentile as Q3 is to a. 45th percentile c. 75 percentile b. 70th percentile d. 25th percentile

84. What is the general advantage of criterion reference test over norm reference test? a. an individual score is compared with the set mastery level b. an individual score is compared with that of his peers c. an individual score is compared with the average scores d. an individual score does not need to be compared with any measure 85. All the students who took the examination, got scores above the mean. What is the graphical representation of the score distribution? a. normal curve c. positively skewed b. mesokurtic d. negatively skewed 86. Which statement best describes a negatively skewed score distribution? a. all examinees got a score above the mean b. the value of the median and mode are equal c. the value of the mode correspond to a low score d. the value of the median is higher than the value of mode

87. In a normal distribution curve a T-score of 70 is a. two SD’s below the mean c. one SD below the mean b. two SD’s above the mean d. one SD above the mean 88. Table below is a result of arty-out test in Science. An item analysis conducted for non-attractiveness and non-plausibility of distracters. The letter marked with asterisk is the correct answer. Item No. 1 A B* C D Omit Upper 275 4 11 3 2 0 Lower 275 9 5 4 3 0 Based on the given table, which is the most effective distracter? a. Option B c. Option C b. Option A d. Option D 89. Mean is to measure of central tendency as _____ is to measure of variability. a. quartile deviation c. correlation b. quartile d. skewness 90. The distribution of a class with academically poor students is most likely a. normally distributed c. skewed to the right b. skewed to the left d. leptokurtic

91. Which is correct about Median? a. it is the measure of variability b. it is the most stable measure of central tendency c. it is the 50th percentile d. it is significantly affected by extreme scores 92. Skewed score distribution means; a. the scores are normally distributed b. the mean and the median are equal c. the mode, mean and median are equal d. the scores are concentrated more at one end or the other end value of r for Math and Science is 0.90. What does this imply? a. Math and Science are inversely related b. the higher the scores in math the higher the scores in Science c. the lower the scores in math the lower the scores in Science d. the higher the scores in science the higher the scores in math 94. In her conduct of item analysis. Teacher Cristy found out that a significantly greater number from the upper group of the class got test item #5 correctly. This means that the test item; a. has a negative discriminating power b. is valid

c. is easy d. has positive discriminating power 95. Nico got a NAT percentile rank of 95. This means that a. they have a zero reference point b. they have scales of equal units c. they indicate an individual’s relative standing in a group d. they indicate specific points in the normal curve 96. Raprap obtained a NEAT percentile rank of 95. This means that a. he got a score of 95 b. he answered 95 items correctly c. he surpassed in the performance 95% of his fellow examinees d. he surpassed in the performance 5% of his fellow examinees 97. Which objective below is the highest in the Bloom’s taxonomy? a. explain how trees receive nutrients. b. explain how a tree functions in relation to the ecosystem. c. rate three different methods of controlling tree growth. d. list the parts of the tree.

98. What would be most likely the distribution if a class is composed of bright students? a. platykurtic c. skewed to the left b. skewed to the right d. very normal 99. This is a type of statistics that give/s information about the sample being studied. a. inferential and co relational c. descriptive b. inferential d. co relational 100. About how many percent of the cases fall between -2SD and +2SD in the normal curve? a. 95.44 c. 99.72 b. 68.26 d. 99.85

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