Test Ref: TEP0509

DIRECTIONS for questions 1 and 2: These questions are based on the data given below: The following five functions of x are defined for any real value of x. f(x) g(x) h(x) j(x) k(x) = = = = = 1 – h(x) 1 – k(x) f(x) + 1 g(x) + 1 j(x) + 1

Time: 1 hour 15 minutes


Find the value of [g(x) j(x)+ k(x)]g(x)⋅ j(x)⋅k(x)] + [ (1) –3 (2) 8/3 (3) 3

[g(f(k(x))+ j(k(g(x))) k(g(j(x))) ) + ]
(4) None of these


Find the value of (1) –1

h(f (x)) + f(h(x)) h(f(x)+ h(x)) .
(3) 1 (4) It is not defined

(2) 0

DIRECTIONS for questions 3 and 4: These questions are based on the following data. There are two vertical flagposts, of heights 10 3 and 20 3 m respectively, which are d meters apart. Rahul randomly picks a point on the ground on the line segment joining the feet of the two flagposts and observes the angles of elevation of the two flagposts. 3. 4. If d = 24 m, then what is the probability that Rahul will find both the flagposts subtending an angle of at least 60°? (1) 1/3 (2) 1/4 (3) 1/5 (4) Cannot be determined What can be the maximum distance between the flagposts if the probability of Rahul finding the shorter post subtending an angle greater than 30° and the taller post subtending an angle greater than 60° is at least 50%? (1) 331/3 mts (2) 671/2 mts (3) 821/2 mts (4) 831/3 mts

DIRECTIONS for questions 5 to 8: These questions are based on the following data. Sixteen teams have been invited to play in the CAB Gold Cup cricket tournament. The tournament is conducted in two stages. In the first stage, the teams are divided into two groups. Each group consists of eight teams, with each team playing every other team in its group exactly once. A team earns one point for each win and no points for a loss. There are no ties in any match. At the end of the first stage, the teams in each group are ranked on the basis of their points earned to determine the qualifiers advancing to the next stage. Ties (in ranks) are resolved by a series of complex tie-breaking rules so that exactly four teams from each group advance to the second stage. The second stage is knock-out stage, where the loser of each match is eliminated. The team that remains undefeated in the second stage is declared the winner and claims the Cup. 5. 6. 7. 8. What is the total number of matches played in the tournament? (1) 31 (2) 35 (3) 63 (4) 127 The minimum number of wins needed for a team in the first stage to guarantee its advancement to the next stage is (1) 4 (2) 5 (3) 6 (4) 7 What is the highest number of wins for a team in the first stage inspite of which it could possibly be eliminated at the end of first stage? (1) 4 (2) 5 (3) 6 (4) 7 If the second stage consisted of quarterfinals, semifinals and the finals, then the team which won the gold cup won a total of how many games? (1) 7 (2) 9 (3) 10 (4) Cannot be determined

DIRECTIONS for Questions 9 to 23: Select the correct alternative from the given choices. 9. A number, P, leaves a remainder of 6 when divided by 11 but gives a multiple of 11 when added to of P such that (P + 3 x ) is a multiple of 4? (1) 94 (2) 72 (3) 50 (4) 39
x , where
x < 250. What is the least value

10. What is the remainder when (4147)8 is divided by (9)10? (1) Zero (2) Three (3) Eight (4) Two 11. A team of 12 players, numbered 1 to 12, play a game of “Turn Around”. They start by standing in a row, from left to right, in the increasing order of their numbers. They stand such that the first and the second players face each other and so do the third and the fourth, the fifth and the sixth and so on. A “move” consists of several (i.e. more than one) successively numbered players turning around simultaneously. What is the minimum number of moves after which all the players can be facing in the same direction? (1) 5 (2) 6 (3) 9 (4) 11 12. How many four-digit numbers, which are divisible by 15, are there such that the number 15 occurs in them? (1) 39 (2) 40 (3) 41 (4) 42 13. If (x + z) (x – 2y + z) = (x – z)2, where x, y and z are all real and distinct, then (1) x, y and z are in A.P (2) 1/x, 1/y and 1/z are in A.P (3) x, y and z are in G.P (4) None of these 14. Mona and Sona start simultaneously from two towns, P and Q, towards Q and P respectively at 8:00 a.m. R is a checkpost which is midway between P and Q. Both Mona and Sona turn back towards their respective starting points whenever they reach R and every time they reach their starting points they turn back and return to R. If the speeds of Mona and Sona are 45 km/hr and 60 km/hr respectively and PQ = 24 km, when will they reach R at the same time? (1) 10:24 a.m. (2) 11:36 a.m. (3) 2:12 p.m. (4) None of these 15. How many three digit numbers are there such that one of the digits is the arithmetic mean of the other two? (1) 120 (2) 112 (3) 121 (4) 129 16. ABCD is a rhombus with O as its centre. P, Q and R are three ants travelling from A to C along the paths AOC, ADC and ABOC respectively. All the three ants leave A at the same time and reach C simultaneously. The ratio of the speeds of P and R is 2 : 3. If all the three ants travelled along the path ADOC, what will be the ratio of their travelling times? (1) 4 : 5 : 6 (2) 6 : 5 : 4 (3) 15 : 12 : 10 (4) Cannot be determined





17. What is the sum of the total surface areas of all the cubes formed when a cuboid of size 5.2 m x 13 m x 39 m is cut completely into the least possible number of cubes, all of which are identical? (1) 6164 sq.m (2) 30452 sq.m (3) 6760 sq.m (4) 6084 sq.m 18. A, B and C have a few chocolates among themselves. A gives to each of the other two half the number chocolates they already have. Similarly B and C (in that order) give each of the other two half the number of chocolates each of them already has. Now, if each of them has the same number of chocolates, what could be the minimum number of chocolates they have among themselves? (1) 243 (2) 81 (3) 27 (4) None of these 19. Amar, Akbar and Antony decide to go for a cycling race, for which they first have a practice race on a racetrack OR. P and Q are points on the track between O and R such that OP : PQ : QR is 1 : 2 : 3. The ratio of the speeds with which Amar, Akbar and Antony covered the leg OP is 2 : 3 : 4, while for the leg PQ it is 3 : 4 : 2 and for the leg QR it is 4 : 2 : 3. If the ratio of the speeds with which Amar covered the legs OP, PQ and QR is 2 : 3 : 4, who among Amar, Akbar and Antony completed the practice race first? (1) Amar (2) Akbar (3) Antony (4) Cannot be determined 20. A transport agency has 5 carriers, each of capacity 10 tonnes. The carriers are scheduled such that the first makes a trip every day, the second makes a trip every second day, the third makes a trip every third day and so on. Find the maximum number of times in an year that it is possible to dispatch a total shipment of 50 tonnes in a single day, if all the carriers started their operations on 7th of January and continued till the end of the year i.e. 31st of December, without any holidays. (1) 5 (2) 72 (3) 6 (4) 7 21. The two series a1, a2, ……… and b1, b2, ……. are two arithmetic progressions, where a1 + b1 = 100 and a24 – a21 = b97 – b100. Find the sum of the 100 terms (a1 + b100), (a2 + b99), ...... (a100 + b1). (1) 0 (2) 9900 (3) 9090 (4) 10,000 22. There are a certain number of apples in a big box. A boy takes half apple more, than half of them. A second boy takes half apple more than half of the remaining and so on. After the 7th boy takes his share, the number of apples in the box is 635 less than the original number of apples. If no apple is cut in the entire process, how many apples are left after the fifth boy takes apples from the box? (1) 9 (2) 19 (3) 39 (4) 59

DIRECTIONS for questions 23 to 27: These questions are based on the following graphs which give information on the percentage of people living below the poverty line.
(Percentage of people living below the poverty line) 100 90 80 70 60 45% 50 40 30 20 10 0 1951-52
Distribution of people living below the poverty line in terms of percentage for the period of 1951-52 to 1993-94

61% 50% 62% 52% 38% 35%

Central 54° North 54° 72° 108°

72° East








23. If the population in 1951-52 was 100 lakh and it was growing at a steady rate of 10 lakh per year, then what is the percentage increase in the people above the poverty line from 1951-52 to 1959-60? (Approximately) (1) 5% (2) 33% (3) 63% (4) 88% 24. Assuming that the population remains constant for the entire period shown, then the number of people below the poverty line in the Central sector in 1951-52 is what percentage more than the number of people living below the poverty line in the Southern sector for the year 1966-67? (1) 17% (2) 28% (3) 68% (4) 45% 25. A new scheme called ‘Aao Garibi Hataye’ of the government was successful in reducing the existing poverty in the East, West and Central sectors of the country by 50% in 1959-60. What is the percentage of people above the poverty line after this scheme was implemented in 1959-60? (There is no change in poverty level for the South and North sectors) (1) 32.5% (2) 65% (3) 35% (4) 67.5% 26. In which of the following years did the country have the maximum number of people above the poverty line? (1) 1966-67 (2) 1993-94 (3) 1959-60 (4) Cannot be determined 27. If 25% of the people above the poverty line and 60% of the people below the poverty line in 1970-71 lived in villages, then how many people lived in villages assuming that the population of the country in 1970-71 was 100 X? (1) 43.2 X (2) 41.4 X (3) 30 X (4) 17.5 X DIRECTIONS for questions 28 to 30: These questions are based on the following table. DETAILS OF FIVE COMPANIES FOR THE YEAR ENDING 31-03-2003
Name of the company A B C D E Value of production (Rs.in crore) 35 64 66 57 45 Capacity utilization 42% 40% 55% 38% 36% Value of sales (Rs. in crore) 45 63 54 36 40 Number of working days 290 295 298 283 285 Cost price per product (Rs.) 700 800 1100 1900 900

1. 2. 3.

The five companies manufacture only one kind of product. Capacity utilization is calculated as a percentage of total installed capacity. Productivity is the ratio of cost of production to the number of working days.

28. For which of the following companies, is the selling price of the product the highest? (Assume all products manufactured are sold) (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D 29. What is the descending order of productivity? (1) BCDAE (2) AEBCD (3) CBDEA (4) CDBAE

30. For which of the following companies is the installed capacity (by volume) the largest? (1) A (2) B (3) D (4) E

DIRECTIONS for questions 31 to 35: These questions are based on the pie-charts and bar graphs given below. Statistics Of Students Pursuing Graduation And Post Graduation In Madhya Pradesh

MBBS 7% B.Com 18% BE 15% BCA 5% BBM 10% BArch 10% BA 10% BSc 25%

Post Graduation
MCA 20% MD 3% MCom 12% ME 20% MSc 15% MBA 22% M.Arch 3% MA 5%

NOTE: 1. The Total number of students in Madhya Pradesh doing their graduation or doing their post graduation is 75,000. 2. For every four students doing their graduation there is one student doing his post-graduation. 3. For every five students in each graduation course, there is one student in the final year. For every two students in each post graduate course there is one student in the final year. Percentage of students in the final year who did not complete their respective courses
25% 18% 15% 10% 6% 5% 10% 10% 5% 3% 22% 20% 15% 12% 13% 20%
















Post Graduation

31. What is the ratio of the total number of students in either the 1st or the 2nd year of B.Sc to the number of students in the final year of ME? (Assume that B.Sc is a three year course) (1) 1 : 2 (2) 2 : 1 (3) 3 : 4 (4) 8 : 1 32. What percentage of the total number of students who are doing either graduation or post graduation are in their final year? (1) 20% (2) 24% (3) 26% (4) 33% 33. If all the first year students of ME are promoted to the final (i.e. second) year of their course and BE graduates fill in their seats, then how many of the BE graduates who completed their graduation will not be able to get admission into ME? (1) 15 (2) 20 (3) 30 (4) 40 34. How many students currently doing their Final year BA did complete their course? (1) 100 (2) 900 (3) 960 (4) 1080 35. Among the students doing their Final year postgraduation currently, what percentage did complete their course? (1) 75 (2) 78 (3) 95 (4) None of these DIRECTIONS for questions 36 and 37: These questions are based on the information given below. Pritam, a teenager is given a weekly allowance, which he spends at the local grocery store, which sells the following items only. 1) Kurkure → 2 packs for 1 Rupee 2) Time Pass → 1 pack for 1 Rupee 3) Uncle Chipps → 2 packs for 5 Rupees 4) Cream Wafers → 1 pack for 5 Rupees In a week he got a weekly allowance of 25 Rupees, all of which he spent in buying 25 packs of food stuffs (at least one of each kind) from the local grocery store.



36. The number of packs of Uncle Chips he purchased are what percentage of the Time Pass packs he purchased? (1) 10% (2) 25% (3) 50% (4) Cannot be determined 37. The number of packs purchased, of the two most popular items, is how many more than those purchased of the two least popular items (popularity is directly proportional to the number of packs purchased)? (1) 13 (2) 17 (3) 20 (4) 19 DIRECTIONS for questions 38: Select the correct alternative from the given choices. 38. Five boys are standing in a row for a photography session. Each won a gold medal in a different game among Tennis, Running, Long Jump, High Jump and Boxing. No two boys have won the gold medal in the same game and each game has only one gold medalist. The names of the five boys are - Praneet, Pradeep, Prem, Prakash and Pavan. The person standing exactly between Praneet and Prem is a gold medalist in Long Jump. The person standing exactly between Prakash and Pavan is a gold medalist in Tennis. Praneet is the gold medalist in Running. Which of the following additional information is required to know the name of the gold medalist in Boxing? I. Pavan is the gold medalist in High Jump. II. Pavan is the gold medalist in Long Jump. III. Pradeep is to the immediate right of the gold medalist in High Jump. (1) I or II. (2) II or III. (3) I or III. (4) I or II or III. DIRECTIONS for questions 39 to 41: These questions are based on the following data given below. Each person among Jonty, Wasim, Lara, Sachin and Steve plays exactly one game among Tennis, Table-Tennis, Poker, Marbles and Golf, not necessarily in that order. To gain strength to play their respective games, each person has to attend exactly one of the workouts from among pushups, yoga, judo, jogging and bench-press, for which they have to pay a course fee from among Rs.5,00,000, Rs.50,000, Rs.5,000, Rs 500 and Rs.50, not necessarily in that order. Also, the following details are known: (a) Neither Wasim nor Steve Plays Marbles or Table-Tennis and neither of them takes up jogging. (b) Neither jogging nor yoga has a course fee of Rs.5,00,000 and none of these two workouts are taken up by Jonty or Sachin. (c) The course fee for bench-press and for judo are Rs.50,000 and Rs.500 respectively, and neither of these two workouts is taken up by Jonty or Lara. (d) Neither Steve nor Sachin plays Poker or Golf and none of them pays a course fee of Rs.50,000 or Rs.50. (e) Neither Sachin nor Lara plays Marbles and none of them pays a course fee of Rs.5,000. (f) The course fee for yoga is not Rs.50. 39. Who among the following plays Poker? (1) Wasim (2) Jonty (3) Lara (4) Cannot be determined.

40. Which of the following statements must be true? (1) Wasim takes up benchpress and plays Marbles. (2) Sachin pays Rs.500 for Judo and plays Tennis. (3) Jonty pays Rs.5,00,000 for pushups and plays Marbles. (4) Steve pays Rs.5,000 for yoga and plays Table Tennis. 41. Which of the following statements is definitely false? (1) Lara pays Rs.50 for jogging and plays Golf. (2) Wasim pays Rs.50,000 for benchpress. (3) Steve pays Rs.500 for yoga and plays Tennis. (4) None of the above. DIRECTIONS for questions 42 to 44: Each question below is followed by two statements, A and B. Answer each question using the following instructions: Choose 1 if the question can be answered by one of the statements alone, but cannot be answered by using the other statement alone. Choose 2 if the question can be answered by using either statement alone. Choose 3 if the question can be answered by using both the statements together, but cannot be answered by using either statement alone. Choose 4 if the question cannot be answered even by using both the statements together. 42. A trader sold a TV and a VCR to Rajesh. Did the trader gain or lose in the entire deal? A. The cost price (to the dealer) of the TV is more than that of the VCR. B. The profit percent the dealer made on the TV is the same as the loss percent he made on the VCR. 43. The number 165 is split into three parts – two perfect squares and one perfect cube. If all the three parts are positive and distinct, find the three parts. A. One of the perfect squares is 36. B. The perfect cube is the greatest of the three parts.

44. A, B and C take an assignment for Rs.36,000. What are the daily earnings of A? A. A, B and C together can complete the work in 131/3 days and B and C together can complete the work in 24 days. B. A and B can individually complete the work in 30 days and 40 days respectively. DIRECTIONS for questions 45 to 50: In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, four words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case and mark its number as your answer. In the twelfth century, orthodoxy was 45 by the Arab cleric Imam Al Ghazali. Science and Mathematics were 46 as anti-Islam because they were 47 of the mind and weakened faith. Ghazali patronized revelation over reason, pre-destination over rational thinking. Mired in orthodoxy Islam 48. Interaction between Jewish and Christian scholars 49 out and intolerance of faith crept in and Islam became 50. The last great Muslim thinker of world renown lived in the fourteenth century! 45. (1) rekindled 46. (1) pronounced 47. (1) intuitions 48. (1) fainted 49. (1) persisted 50. (1) insubstantial (2) rejuvenated (2) denounced (2) inundations (2) felicitated (2) petered (2) integrated (3) relaxed (3) denoted (3) introspection (3) faltered (3) percolated (3) insular (4) relapsed (4) deputed (4) intoxicants (4) festered (4) perished (4) intellectual

DIRECTIONS for questions 51 to 55: In each of the following questions, statements 1 to 6 are respectively the first and last sentences of a paragraph. Statements A, B, C and D come in between them. Rearrange A,B,C and D in such a manner that they make a coherent paragraph together with statements 1 and 6. Select the correct order from the given choices and mark its number as your answer. 51. 1. A. B. C. D. 6. (1) 52. 1. A. Money talks, but you may think that the conversation of a little, old ten dollar bill in New York would be nothing more than a whisper. Pass up this sotto voce autobiography of a temper if you like. But don’t forget small change can say a word to the point now and then. Oh, very well! If you are of the kind that prefers to listen to John D’s chequebook roar at you through a megaphone as it passes by, all right. The next time you tip your grocer’s clerk a silver quarter, remember this. ABCD (2) CADB (3) CABD (4) DCBA

Manipuri is the dance of the small state of Manipur, cradled in the rugged hills on India’s eastern border. This ancient and alluring dance is known for its slow rhythmic steps and exquisite grace of movement. B. The costume consists of a stiff billowing skirt, gorgeously embroidered and set with mica pieces. C. These gleam and sparkle with every gesture of the dancer. D. It is a dance form which though not purely classical in nature, is accepted as such. 6. The theme is mostly the love life of lord Krishna and Radha. (1) DABC (2) BACD (3) ABDC (4) BADC Yet in delight, he flew a loop to landing, with a snap roll just before touchdown. We can lift ourselves out of ignorance, we can find ourselves as creatures of excellence and intelligence and skill. Instead of our drab slogging forth and back to the fishing boats, there’s reason to life! How much more there is now to living! When they hear of it, he thought, of The Breakthrough, they’ll be wild with joy. We can be free! We can learn to fly! ABCD (2) CDAB (3) DCBA (4) DCAB Arguments can be avoided and a lot of heartache prevented by being a little careful. The best way to win an argument is to avoid it. If you win, you lose; if you lose, you lose. An argument is one thing you will never win. If you win an argument but lose a good job, customer, friend or marriage, what kind of victory is it? Pretty empty. ACBD (2) ABCD (3) CABD (4) CBAD

53. 1. A. B. C. D. 6. (1) 54. 1. A. B. C. D. 6. (1) 55. 1.

In Greek myths a crucial point in the narrative is often reached when a character changes shape, typically taking on the form of a plant, animal or some other natural feature. A. For this the Gods, in their fury, turned them both into sea birds. B. This was done so that Halcyon, who had become the kingfisher, could sit on her eggs undisturbed. C. Amongst the best known transformation myths is the story of Halcyon and her husband Ceyx, who presumptuously decided to call themselves Hera and Zeus. D. However, for seven days each winter, Aeolus, the king of the winds, kept the waves calm. 6. Hence the expression “Halcyon days” to describe a time of peace and contentment. (1) ADCB (2) BACD (3) CADB (4) CDAB

DIRECTIONS for questions 56 to 61: In each of the following sentences, a part of the sentence is underlined. Beneath each sentence, four different ways of rephrasing the underlined part are indicated. Choose the best alternative from among the four. 56. We can learn much about the inequities in our own legal system after having studied law in other cultures. (1) after studying law in other cultures (2) after having studied law in other cultures (3) by studying law in other cultures (4) by having studied law in other cultures 57. John fastened the door of my box, touches his cap, and waited for orders. (1) John fastened the door of my box, touches his cap (2) John fastens the door of my box, touched his cap (3) John who fastened the door of my box, touched his cap (4) John fastened the door of my box, touched his cap 58. Twenty thousand people in Cactus city scatter their silver coin with liberal hands for the things that their hearts desire. (1) scatter their silver coins on liberal hands for the thing (2) scatter their silver coins with liberal hands for the things (3) scatter their silver coin with liberal hands for things (4) scatter their silver coin on liberal hands for things 59. A little boy of five or six, stood looking with covetous eyes in a confectioner’s window. (1) looked with covetous eyes in a confectioner’s window. (2) looking in covetous eyes at a confectioner’s window. (3) looking in covetous eyes in a confectioner’s window. (4) looking with covetous eyes at a confectioner’s window. 60. It was Friday morning and I sat at my desk watched the absorbed application of the class as they wrote up their weekly review. (1) I sat at my desk and watched the absorbed application (2) I sat at my desk watched the absorbed application (3) I sat at desk watching absorbed application (4) I sat at my desk watching the absorbed application 61. Most words evolved as a description for separated realities of the external world, hence their inadequacy to describe the one gentle reality within us all. (1) a description of the separated reality of the external world (2) a description for separated realities of the external world (3) descriptive of the separated realities of the external world (4) a description of the separated realities of the external world DIRECTIONS for questions 62 to 66: Read each of the passages given below and answer the question that follows it. 62. The minister assured the villagers that the proposed dam would bring them more prosperity than relocation would. He noted in his address that his engineers had informed him that of the 500 villages at the site of the proposed dam, only 50 or so would have to be rehabilitated outside the district. The rest can be rehabilitated in the nearby areas within the district, with pucca houses constructed by the government. Which of the following, if true, most supports the minister’s claim? (1) The district is huge and has large tracts of open land to rehabilitate people. (2) The people in the district are generally poor and do not have enough sources of livelihood. (3) The people have been in the area for long and do not know any specific skill. (4) The tribals are likely to get violent if asked to relocate outside the district. 63. Heuristic methods are basically mathematical approaches tempered with logical reasoning. The term heuristic implies a trial-anderror approach. These techniques will give solutions which may not be mathematically optimal but are still very satisfactory from the point of veiw of practical application. The computing effort required to determine a truly optimum solution is usually very high and an inaccuracy of input data might make the entire effort an exercise in vain. Which of these would not be an example of application of heuristic methods? (1) Solving the 6 color, 9 part cube. (2) Optimum quantity of water drawn from a tubewell in each use. (3) Scheduling of trains on a route. (4) Betting on the outcome of a cricket match. 64. In the United States of America, companies started to pay more attention to turning “green” when there was mass interest in the environment. Then they realised that although everyone wants the environment to get better, few people wanted to pay for it. And corporate environmentalism, which had started as a revolution, ended as fads do. This only goes to show that corporates are not responsible or concerned. They are just looking for ways to maximise their gains. Which of these examples would best illustrate the surmise above? (1) Mc Donald’s switching to non-Styrofoam (Styrofoam is polluting and hazardous) packing for its world-wide operations. (2) P and G changing over to environmental packaging for a higher price – in an option pack (i.e. customers can choose whether to buy the environment friendly non-plastic packaging for a little extra). (3) ACC setting up ETPs (Effluent Treatment Plants) in all its 14 plants across India. (4) XYZ Co. changing its uniform to green for a couple of years, to emphasise its environment focus.

65. We do not know about our ancestors.We assume that they lived in a society that maintained high standards of hygiene, because the primitive people we see today are very clean people, and we assume our ancestors must have lived very like them. Which of these best disputes the conclusion drawn in the passage? (1) The primitive people mentioned are a separate race. (2) Not all primitive societies observed are clean. (3) Primitive people have been called clean relative to the degree of cleanliness one might expect, and not in absolute terms. (4) The societies mentioned have improved only after contact with the outside world. 66. The Kathakar is a weaver of words. With his gift of the gab and his familiarity with the local dialect, he sells as much entertainment as religion to his audience. His movements act as illustrations of a text printed in his tongue. Katha is, indeed, a source of evening entertainment safely veiled in religion. Which of the following is an essential quality of a Kathakar? (1) The ability to memorise. (2) The ability to make a narrative appear interesting. (3) Knowledge of the local dialect. (4) All of the above. DIRECTIONS for questions 67 and 68: These questions are based on the following data. People are a difficult resource to find and manage. It is hard to believe that with the kind of labour shortage we face, there are such huge figures of unemployment in this country. Either the unemployment figures are fabricated, or something is wrong with our education system, that does not prepare the young for the kind of jobs offered by the economy. 67. Assuming that the only kind of education available is the formal schooling kind, with low stress on technical education, which of the following is an essential input to conclude safely that the education system needs to be revised? (1) Formal school children are trained only for white collar jobs. (2) The number of children attending school is a dismal 18%. (3) The economy needs people with technical skills. (4) School children pass out with high expectations of easy jobs and good pay. 68. Which of these, if true, would best support the idea that unemployment figures are inflated? (1) Population growth in the country rests at 2% while jobs are growing at an average of 2.6% per annum. (2) Unemployment figures count everyone who was unemployed even for a day during the previous year. 3) Unemployment figures are at 10% while the percentage of people below poverty line is 40%. (4) None of these. DIRECTIONS for questions 69 to 78: Read the passages given below and answer the questions that follow. The Hindu theory is that religions do not come from without, but from within. It is my belief that religious thought is in man’s very constitution, so much so that it is impossible for him to give up religion until he can give up his mind and body, until he can give up thought and life. As long as man thinks, the struggle must go on, and so long man must have some form of religion. Thus we see various forms of religion in the world. It is a bewildering study; but it is not, as many of us think, a vain speculation. Amidst this chaos there is harmony, throughout these discordant sounds there is a note of concord; and he who is prepared to listen to it will catch the tone. The great question of all questions at the present time is this: Taking for granted that the known and the knowable are bounded on both sides by the unknowable and the infinitely unknown, why struggle for that infinite unknown? Why shall we not be content with the known? Why shall we not rest satisfied with eating, drinking, and doing a little good to society? This idea is in the air. From the most learned professor to the prattling baby, we are told that to do good to the world is all of religion, and that it is useless to trouble ourselves about questions of the beyond. So much is this the case that it has become a truism. But fortunately we must inquire into the beyond. This present, this expressed, is only one part of that unexpressed. The sense universe is, as it were, only one portion, one bit of that infinite spiritual universe projected into the plane of sense consciousness. How can this little bit of projection be explained, be understood, without, knowing that which is beyond? It is said of Socrates that one day while lecturing at Athens, he met a Brahmin who had travelled into Greece, and Socrates told the Brahmin that the greatest study for mankind is man. The Brahmin sharply retorted: “How can you know man until you know God”. This God, this eternally Unknowable, or Absolute, or Infinite, or without name – you may call Him by what name you like – is the rationale, the only explanation, the raison d’etre of that which is known and knowable, this present life. Take anything before you, the most material thing – take one of the most material sciences, as chemistry or physics, astronomy or biology – study it, push the study forward and forward, and the gross forms will begin to melt and become finer and finer, until they come to a point where you are bound to make a tremendous leap from these material things into the immaterial. The gross melts into the fine, physics into metaphysics, in every department of knowledge. Thus man finds himself driven to a study of the beyond. Life will be a desert, human life will be vain, if we cannot know the beyond. It is very well to say: Be contented with the things of the present. The cows and the dogs are, and so are all animals; and that is what makes them animals. So if man rests content with the present and gives up all search into the beyond, mankind will have to go back to the animal plane again. It is religion, the inquiry into the beyond, that makes the difference between man and an animal. Well has it been said that man is the only animal that naturally looks upwards; every other animal naturally looks down. That looking upward and going upward and seeking perfection are what is called salvation; and the sooner a man begins to go higher, the sooner he raises himself towards this idea of truth as salvation; It does not consist in the amount of money in your pocket, or the dress you wear, or the house you live in, but in the wealth of spiritual thought in your brain. That is what makes for human progress, that is the source of all material and intellectual progress, the motive power behind, the enthusiasm that pushes mankind forward.

Religion does not live on bread, does not dwell in a house. Again and again you hear this objection advance: “What good can religion do? Can it take away the poverty of the poor?” Supposing it cannot, would that prove the untruth of religion? Suppose a baby stands up among you when you are trying to demonstrate an astronomical theorem, and says. “Does it bring gingerbread?” “No, it does not”, you answer. “Then”, says the baby, “it is useless.” Babies judge the whole universe from their own standpoint, that of producing gingerbread, and so do the babies of the world. We must not judge by the standard of infinity. Religion permeates the whole of man’s life, not only the present, but the past, present and future. It is, therefore, the eternal relation between the eternal soul and the eternal God. Is it logical to measure its value by its action upon five minutes of human life? Certainly not. These are all negative arguments. Now comes the question: Can religion really accomplish anything? It can. It brings to man eternal life. It has made man what he is, and will make of this human animal a god. That is what religion can do. Take religion from human society and what will remain? Nothing but a forest of brutes. Sense happiness is not the goal of humanity. Wisdom (Jnana) is the goal of all life. We find that man enjoys his intellect more than an animal enjoys its senses; and we see that man enjoys his spiritual nature even more than his rational nature. So the highest wisdom must be this spiritual knowledge. With this knowledge will come bliss. All these things of this world are but the shadows, the manifestations in the third or fourth degree of the real Knowledge and Bliss. 69. The ‘babies of the world’ are those who (1) have constricted or myopic view of things. (2) tend to view things from their own perspective. (3) have a unique perspective for each situation. (4) are the novices looking at things beyond their comprehension. 70. The Brahmin opposed Socrates because he believed that (1) man can understand the part of a whole only when he understands the whole. (2) man is the manifestation of God’s creativity. (3) the tangible is nothing but the expression of the intangible. (4) the material merges into the abstract in all sciences. 71. Which of the following statements apply to the concept of religion as per the passage? (A) Religion is the means of enquiring into the beyond. (B) We can use religion as a means to salvation. (C) Religion says that one should do good to others. (D) It is the relation between the eternal soul and eternal God. (1) A, B, C (2) B, C, D (3) A, B, D (4) A, C, D 72. “The sense universe is, as it were, only one portion, one bit of that infinite spiritual universe projected into the plane of sense consciousness.” Through the above statement the author says that (1) the sense universe and the spiritual universe are one and the same. (2) the sense universe can never reveal the secrets of the spiritual universe. (3) the sense universe and the spiritual universe are mutually exclusive. (4) we need to apply the spiritual universe to the sense universe in order to understand the spiritual universe better. 73. What can ‘the struggle’ mean? (1) To know the infinite unknown. (3) To reconcile the abstract with the absolute. (2) To achieve salvation. (4) To give up religion.

Half a century after the cold war, Sir Martin Rees, a 61-year-old veteran of the anti-nuclear movement believes that the world came closer – and more often – to the brink of thermonuclear destruction than most people realise. Could it happen again? More broadly, could man, even unwittingly, unleash a chain of events that destroys the natural environment, and ultimately humanity itself? The debate over how to safeguard our world is not limited, of course, to disaster scenarios. Conservationists, politicians and scientists of every hue continue to hold forth on mankind’s environmental depredations. For Sir Martin, a respected Cambridge University astrophysicist and Britain’s Astronomer Royal, the emphasis is on warning; for others it is the more difficult task of trying to devise prescriptions. The spectre of a terrorist attack or an accident involving bio-organisms or nanotechnology so concerns Sir Martin that he is ready to wager $1, 000 that 1 m people die as a result of a single horrendous act by 2020. In addition to threats from disgruntled misfits or religious radicals, he worries about the destruction of the natural environment that may result from broader policy choices made by society. And he is particularly concerned that the current pattern of industrialisation, urbanisation and motorisation might fuel climate change and biodiversity loss on such a scale as to lead to environmental disaster. However, unlike most dystopian works, which are often melodramatic and misleading, “Our Final Century” is lively, informative and often witty. Sadly, the same cannot be said about “The Wealth of Nature”, a provocative but unsatisfying work by Robert Nadeau, who teaches at America’s George Mason University. Mr Nadeau believes that the world is already in the throes of an environmental disaster of man’s making. Conventional economics, he says, making a play on Adam Smith’s “The Wealth of Nations”, is not very good at valuing nature and “cannot introduce the incentives necessary to a sustainable global environment.” He dismisses recent efforts by environmental economists to put “a green thumb on the invisible hand”: first in Scandinavia, and now in many countries, governments are imposing effluent taxes and other market-friendly reforms to help reduce pollution. He also dismisses similar efforts by ecological economists – cuddlier, philosophically greener versions of environmental economists – as ultimately destined to fail.

It is easy for Mr Nadeau to scoff at the prospects for greening Adam Smith’s hand, but in fact market-based environmentalism may well be the best hope for reconciling future economic growth with the need to preserve nature. That is certainly the view of a distinguished group of scientists, economists and other conservation experts assembled by the Royal Society, Britain’s premier scientific body. In “Capturing Carbon and Conserving Biodiversity: The Market Approach”, the boffins examine various challenges involved in dealing with two of the biggest environmental problems: global warming and biodiversity loss. Crucially, they argue that turning to market forces can help solve both problems at once. By putting an economic value on the neglected “ecosystem services” provided by forests, such as their ability to absorb carbon from the atmosphere, they argue that both deforestation and climate change can be dealt with. That is not to say that the market-friendly approaches advocated in this book are cure-alls. There are still plenty of problems to overcome. One example is that scientists still do not fully understand how and how fast different trees absorb carbon as they grow, making accurate measurements particularly difficult to calculate. Even so, explains Ian Swingland, who edited this collection of articles, this approach is far more promising than the failed conservation approaches of the past that relied on “a donation-driven western culture permeated by the idea that so-called expert and political committees could and should plan what should happen, and draw lines on maps as boundaries between people and the rest of the animal and plant world. Well-meaning it may have been, but disastrous it has proved”. In arguing that “biodiversity can pay for itself through benign systems of sustainable extraction, where people can receive some equitable share by right, not patronage,” Mr Swingland and his co-authors make a compelling case that the best way to reduce the risk of any potential eco-disaster is to embrace market greenery. The future may be brighter than the eco-doomsayers suggest. One reason is that man has more power to influence that future benignly – through innovations in technology and economic policy – than some suggest. Another is that it is simply wrong to imply that most environmental indicators suggest an environmental disaster is imminent. Inspect Sir Martin’s work closely, for example, and you find that he is careful about his language and predictions; unlike many greens (and, it must be said, Mr Nadeau at times), who adopt the alarmist tactic of giving only the shocking high- end of forecasts of potential global warming without mentioning the low-end of the forecast, Sir Martin tends to give ranges and add appropriate qualifiers and caveats. The Cambridge academic is also very wary of the so-called precautionary principle; a misguided pseudo-philosophy invoked by greens to stifle innovation in areas like genetically modifies foods. So how does he justify his suggestion that mankind might have only a 50-50 chance of surviving the 21st century – our final century, to use the alarmist title of the book? Even before one could ask him that question at a recent literary event, Sir Martin confessed to being a fan of Bjorn Lomborg – a Danish academic who recently caused some controversy when he suggested that greens have been systematically distorting the fact that the environment has been getting healthier in many countries. Sir Martin then took the reviewer’s copy of “Our Final Century” and pencilled in a question mark after the title. His publishers had ruled it out. The American publishers even changed the title from “Our Final Century” to “Our Final Hour”. Sir Martin is clever enough to know that the end is not nigh, but he put up with the chicanery in order to gain a wider audience. A small sin, perhaps, in such an important book. 74. Why does the author consider Sir Martin’s agreeing to have the title changed ‘a small sin’? (1) The title was changed with the intention that it would pique the readers’ interest and thereby probably push the sales up. (2) The new title goes against what is said in the book. (3) It uses deception to gain readership. (4) Sir Martin has colluded with the publishers for personal gain. 75. The term ‘The invisible hand’ as used in the passage, may mean (1) policies made by man not taking environment into consideration. (2) pollution caused by industries. (3) the economics that operate in markets that are not conducive to environment. (4) present state of environment. 76. Which of the following statements reflect Mr Ian Swingland’s opinion? (A) The interaction among all entities of nature should be considered. (B) If the systems are harmless, biodiversity may be automatically taken care of. (C) Environment friendly policies can avert potential disaster to ecology. (D) Politicians, together with scientists, should plan the course of action to preserve environment. (1) Only A (2) A and B (3) A, B and C (4) All the above 77. According to the author, the future may still be green because (A) innovation in technology may save the day. (B) environmental indicators do not necessarily suggest a disaster. (C) scaremongers have put forth only the extreme possibility. (D) man has the power to positively influence the present scenario. (1) only A (2) A and B (3) A, B and C (4) All the above 78. Pick out the statements that are true, according to the passage. (A) Sir Martin is an astrophysicist from Cambridge University. (B) Mr Nadeau teaches at America’s George Mason University. (C) Mr Ian Swingland is a scientist at the Royal Society in Britain. (D) The greens are against everything that is not natural. (1) A and B (2) B and C (3) C and D (4) A and D

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