# MOCK CAT

This is a three section test. Totally 150 questions. 1st section is Verbal, 2nd in Quant and last is DI (50 questions each) Total time 2 hrs. 0.25 negative marking.

Direction for question: The following question consists of four statements. You have to select the option representing the most coherent sequencing of the given statements. A. He was a socialist and had the reputation of being sympathetic to the Indian cause. B. The proposals he had brought were however, not so favourable. C. Sir Stafford Cripps reached Delhi on March 22. 1942. D. He was known to be a personal friend of Jawahar Lal Nehru and other Indian leaders. CDBA BCDA CDAB DCBA Direction for question: The following question consists of four statements. You have to select the option representing the most coherent sequencing of the given statements. A. It continued its deliberations for many days over Gandhiji’s new slogan to the nation. B. On July 14, 1942 the Committee passed a long resolution - "Quit India" resolution. C. The Working Committee of the Congress met at Wardha. D. It demanded that the British rule in India must end. BCDA

1

2

CABD BCAD ADBC

3

Direction for question: The following question consists of four statements. You have to select the option representing the most coherent sequencing of the given statements. A. You may imprint it on your hearts and let every breath of yours give expression to it. B. We shall either free India or die in the perpetuation of our slavery. C. Here is a "mantra", a short one that I give. D. The "mantra" is: "Do or Die." ACDB BCDA ACBD CADB

4

Direction for question: The following question consists of four statements. You have to select the option representing the most coherent sequencing of the given statements. A. His inner voice spoke two words "Quit India." B. The failure of Cripps Mission disheartened the people. C. The day Cripps left was Sunday. D. Gandhiji pondered over the difficult situation, on Monday his day of silence, as to what could be the solution? BCDA ACBD DCBA CBAD

5

Direction for question: The following question consists of four statements. You have to select the option representing the most coherent sequencing of the given statements. A. All other developing nations fall far behind. B. With a large and complex market like India, the report says further, looking at averages can be deceptive. C. China's parity is $ 2,870 billion, India's stands at $ 1,105 billion. D. Among developing countries. India comes second after China in terms of purchasing power parity. ABCD DCBA DCAB ABDC

6

Direction for question: The following question consists of four statements. You have to select the option representing the most coherent sequencing of the given statements. A. Honesty, truth and loyalty have the foundation of Utopia strong. B. In Utopia there is no black money, no transaction under table. C. It is a self-sufficient country with abundant natural resources. D. It imports less and exports more. BCAD ADBC CDAB ABCD

7

Direction for question: The following question consists of four statements. You have to select the option representing the most coherent sequencing of the given statements. A. The cottage industries producing a variety of handicrafts boost the country's exports. B. The economy in Utopia is quite strong; the currency ratings do not fall by the day. C. There are no prominent classes in Utopian society. D. It is, more or less, a homogeneous system. ACDB BCDA ADBC CDAB

8

Direction for question: Four statements A, B, C, and D are given between two statements 1 and 2. Statements (A, B, C, and D) are jumbled up. You have to select the option which indicates a logical sequencing of the six taken together.

1. We must be aware that all private industries have not proved successful: there are hundreds and thousand of sick units. A. The problem is not choosing between Public Sector and private industry. B. If public sector is not doing well, we can find out the reasons and remove the detects. C. There is less chance for corruption and meddling with politics. D. Some Public Sector units like the ONGC. LIC and other have done quite well. 6. A constructive approach is needed. ACBD ADCB ABDC BCDA

9

Direction for question: Four statements A, B, C, and D are given between two statements 1 and 2. Statements (A, B, C, and D) are jumbled up. You have to select the option which indicates a logical sequencing of the six taken together. 1. In certain controversial issues the Board of Interview may be interested in your personal views. A. Let us take Stale autonomy, sons of the Soil policy. Non-alignment, Prohibition, Public Sector. Gandhian economy etc.

B. Some simple controversial topics can be cited.

C. Here one must give his/her sincere preferences.

D. If one opposes he/she must say why with convincing and rational reasons. 6. It is quite possible that some Members of the Board may hold rather strong views to the contrary. ADCB BCAD BACD ACDB

10 between two statements 1 and 2. Statements (A, B, C, and D) are

Direction for question: Four statements A, B, C, and D are given jumbled up. You have to select the option which indicates a logical sequencing of the six taken together. 1. The Chairman starts the interview with some general and casual questions. A. However, the Chairman and a member subsequently attempt to probe the candidate at length. B. The candidate answers the questions freely and frankly. C. He is free of inhibitions. D. He frankly admits his reading is not too extensive. 6. He subtly conveys that he reads newspapers and periodicals to keep himself well-informed.

ABCD DCBA BCDA BACD

11 between two statements 1 and 2. Statements (A, B, C, and D) are

Direction for question: Four statements A, B, C, and D are given jumbled up. You have to select the option which indicates a logical sequencing of the six taken together. 1. The candidate reveals a selective approach and indicates his preferences without hesitation. A. He displays consistently a logical, rational and intelligent approach. B. He is sure of himself. C. His behaviour is natural and normal - no affectations, air or superficiality. D. He makes up his mind firmly when required to choose. 6. This indicates his mental stability and consistency. ACDB BDAC ACBD DBCA

12 between two statements 1 and 2. Statements (A, B, C, and D) are

Direction for question: Four statements A, B, C, and D are given jumbled up. You have to select the option which indicates a logical sequencing of the six taken together. 1. Earlier, under cold war conditions we were enjoying the support of Soviet Union. A. It was the same case with many other countries like Iran, Iraq, Syria, Vietnam etc. B. Even before disintegration of Russia, America attacked Iraq and liberated Kuwait. C. We could stand upto American pressure to some extent. D. The Soviet Union was a mute witness.

6. It allowed the onslaught of U.S. air, land and naval attacks on Iraq. ACBD BCDA BDCA CABD

13 between two statements 1 and 2. Statements (A, B, C, and D) are

Direction for question: Four statements A, B, C, and D are given jumbled up. You have to select the option which indicates a logical sequencing of the six taken together. 1. He is able to think on his feet. A. He is abreast of the international burning issues and their impact on India. B. He can think ahead and plan with imagination and enterprise. C. He succeeds in presenting his views with force and sincerity. D. He displays readiness to accept responsibility. 6. At the same time he is flexible and has no rigid or predetermined views. ACBD DBAC ACDB BDAC

14 between two statements 1 and 2. Statements (A, B, C, and D) are

Direction for question: Four statements A, B, C, and D are given jumbled up. You have to select the option which indicates a logical sequencing of the six taken together. 1. He is an intelligent and well-informed candidate. A. He is able to decide on the priorities with speed and accuracy. B. He has significant capacity to motivate and carry his team-mates with him. C. He is physically fit and mentally alert.

D. He takes reasonable risks unhesitantly. 6. He will prove a real asset to the organisation. DCBA DACB DBAC ACDB

15 between two statements 1 and 2. Statements (A, B, C, and D) are

Direction for question: Four statements A, B, C, and D are given jumbled up. You have to select the option which indicates a logical sequencing of the six taken together. 1. More professional and responsible character should be bestowed on our sports federation. A. Some minimum criteria for selection to a post should be prescribed. B. A healthy public opinion should be generated. C. Government's interference should be cut to the roots. D. This will leave little room for government to make vested manoeuvres. 6. Exposure with the game should be the criteria for selection to a post of office bearers. ADCB ACBD BDCA DBAC

**16 sequence of the four statements to make proper and coherent
**

paragraph. A. to put pressure on the authorities in charge to B. the inhuman treatment meted out to the inmates of

Direction for question: Select the option representing the best

C. Indian prisons has once again forced the human rights activists D. take steps to amend the same.

DACB CABD ABCD BCAD

**17 sequence of the four statements to make proper and coherent
**

paragraph. A. one day be able to distinguish between the two realities of B. life which are

Direction for question: Select the option representing the best

C. it seems, extremely difficult, if not impossible, that humans will D. objective individualism and selfishness DBAC CABD CBAD CADB

**18 sequence of the four statements to make proper and coherent
**

paragraph. A. cannot be done away with completely because of

Direction for question: Select the option representing the best

B. the so called fear of foreign aggression and the simultaneous C. the inborn tendency of man to involve himself in violence D. desire to gain world supremacy DABC CABD DACB CBAD

**19 sequence of the four statements to make proper and coherent
**

paragraph. A. need them or as usual will adorn the

Direction for question: Select the option representing the best

B. it is still a moot point whether the fruits of C. corridors of power and the elite abodes D. economic reforms In India will reach those who most urgently DACB DABC BADC BDAC Direction for question: Six statements A, B, C, D, E and F are given. sequencing. A. A balanced diet is necessary for good health. B. A balanced diet does not consist of vitamins only. C. Vitamins prevent deficiency diseases. D. Proteins too are important ingredient in a balanced diet. E. Regular consumption of vitamins is essential. F. Vitamins only are not necessary and sufficient for a good health. BCD ABC CEF ABF

20 You have to select the option which indicates the most logical

**21 You have to select the option which indicates the most logical
**

sequencing. A. A witty person need not be humorous. B. A witty man is an intelligent man. C. Humour is never sarcastic. D. A witty man can be sarcastic. E. Sarcasm is often bitter. F. An intelligent man can be sarcastic. BDF

Direction for question: Six statements A, B, C, D, E and F are given.

ABC CDE DEF

22 You have to select the option which indicates the most logical

Direction for question: Six statements A, B, C, D, E and F are given. sequencing. A. Rubber trees ooze saps. B. Tyres are made of sap from trees. C. Rubber is made from tree-saps. D. Rubber has been of many uses to mankind. E. Rubber trees are an important source of raw material for industry. F. Rubber may be an eco-friendly product. ABC ACF ABE DEF

**23 You have to select the option which indicates the most logical
**

sequencing. A. Politicians are scoundrels. B. Football is a game for Americans. C. Politicians love to play soccer. D. Americans love politicians. E. Americans love scoundrels. F. Scoundrels are prohibited from football field. FED ABE DAF DAE

Direction for question: Six statements A, B, C, D, E and F are given.

**24 You have to select the option which indicates the most logical
**

sequencing.

Direction for question: Six statements A, B, C, D, E and F are given.

A. Suresh is Sudha’s grand father-in-law. B. Naresh is Suresh's son. C. Mohan is one of two grandsons of Suresh. D. Kamla is Suresh's wife. E. Kamla is Mohan's grand-mother. F. Mohan may be Sudha's husband or brother-in-law. BAF BCD ACF DEF

25

Direction for question: Select the part that has an error. (A) The Indian government's choice (B) of the EEC as a partner (C) stem from the fact (D) that the community is the most important market for India. (A) (B) (C) (D)

26

Direction for question: Select the part that has an error. (A) Privatisation generally represents (B) an ideological response (C) to the perceived problems (D) in the public sector

(A) (B) (C) (D)

Directions for Q.27 - 34 : Read the passages and answer the questions that follow.

Many companies around the world believe that they have a moral duty to respond to global problems such as Third world poverty, the deterioration of the natural environment, and endless trade battles. But few have realized that their survival actually depends on their response. Global corporations rely on educated workers, consumers with money to spend, a healthy natural environment, and peaceful coexistence between nations and ethnic groups. This reality is to me a great source of hope; at this watershed period in history, it is in the interests of the world’s most powerful corporations to work for the advancement of global peace and prosperity. To put it simply, global companies have no future if the earth has no future.But how, many have asked, can global corporations promote peace and prosperity and at the same time remain true to their obligation to secure a profit? The answer, in my experience, is kyosei, which can best be defined as a “spirit of cooperation,” in which individuals and organizations live and work together for the common good. A company that is practicing kyosei established harmonious relations with its customers, its suppliers, its competitors, the governments with which it deals, and the natural environment. When practiced by a group of corporations, kyosei can become a powerful force for social, political, and economic transformation. At Canon, we have put kyosie at the heart of our business credo. For the last ten years, it has been Canon’s most cherished principle. I began to see Cannon’s need for a philosophy of kyosei when we started doing business on a global scale. As we built plants, hired workers, and managed our finances in foreign countries, we encountered a new set of business challenges. These challenges were more than tactical business concerns such as responding to fierce competition, managing suppliers, or dealing with currency risk, they were global imbalances. I identify three-that continue to trouble us. They need our collective attention as corporated leaders and as citizens of the world. The first is the imbalance between countries with trade deficits and those with trade surpluses. Trade imbalances lead to an unhealthy international business environment rife with antidumping laws, rising tariffs, and endless trade disputes. The second is the vast income imbalance between wealthy and poor nations. Among the many problems generated by this inequality are widespread poverty, floods of economic and political refugees, illegal immigration, and ethnic or civil wars. The third is an imbalance between generations; the current generation is consuming the earth’s resources so fast that little will be left for the next. The earth’s nonrenewable energy supplies, for example, are in danger of running out, and the earth’s atmosphere is rapidly

deteriorating. If we look ahead into the middle of the twenty first century, we cannot be sure that our planet will escape environmental ruin. Ultimately our work as companies practicing kyosei should focus on finding solutions to those three major global problems. The kyosei journey begins by laying a sound business foundation and ends in political dialogue for global change. The process is analogous to building a pyramid in that the strength of each layer depends on the strength of the layers preceding it. Economic survival – Companies in this state work to secure a predictable stream of profits and to establish strong market positions in their industries. They contribute to the society by producing needed goods, purchasing locally produced raw materials, and employing workers. In pursuing business goals, however, they tend to exploit their staffs and create labour problems. For instance, I feel that some U.S. companies take the profit motive too far when they lay off workers to increase profits and at the same time pay large bonuses to their CEOs. There is nothing wrong with profit motive per se-even companies in the later stages of kyosei must increase profits. But making profit is only the beginning of a company’s obligations. As they mature, businesses need to understand that they play a role in a larger, global context. Cooperating with Labour – A company enters the second stage of kyosei when managers and workers begin to cooperate with other. Each employee makes cooperation a part of his or her own code of ethics. When that happens management and labour start to see each other as vital to the company success. The two sides are in the same boat, so to speak, sharing the same fate. This approach to management is popular in Japan, where companies are well known for their commitment to workers’ salaries, bonuses, and training. As important a step as it is, though, this stage of kyosei can become so inwardly focused that it does little to solve problems outside the company. Cooperating outside the Company – When a company cooperates with outside groups, such as customers and suppliers, it enters the third stage of kyosei. Customers are treated respectfully and reciprocate by being loyal. Suppliers are provided with technical support and, in turn deliver high quality materials on time. Competitors are invited into partnership agreements and joint ventures, which result in higher profits for both parties. Community groups become partners in solving local problems. Needless to say, forming a kyosei partnership for the common good is very different from forming a cartel and fixing prices. Companies at this state understand that a rising tide lifts all ships. They know that by finding ways to collaborate with customers, suppliers, and community groups, they are helping all parties. But third stage companies often focus so much on local and national problems that they neglect global problems. For example, in Japan, many companies contribute to Japanese society but continue to have adversarial relations with foreign governments. Global Activism – When a company begins large scale business operations in foreign countries, it is ready to enter the fourth stage of kyosei. By cooperating with foreign companies, large corporations not only can increase their base of business but also can

address global imbalance. For example, a company can help reduce trade friction by building production facilities in countries with which its home country has a trade surplus. By setting up R & D facilities in foreign countries, companies can train local scientists and engineers in cutting edge research work. By training local workers and introducing them to new technology, corporations can improve the standard of living of people in poor countries. And by developing and using technology that reduces or eliminates pollution companies can help preserve the global environment. The government as a Kyosei partner – When a company has established a worldwide network of kyosei partners, it is ready to move to the fifth state. Fifth-stage companies are very rare. Using their power and wealth, fifth-stage companies urge national government to work toward rectifying global imbalance. Corporations might press government for legislation aimed at reducing pollution, for example. Or they might recommend the abolition of antiquated trade regulations. This type of cooperation is quite different from the traditional partnership between business and government in which powerful corporations look to their own governments for help in trade deals or for special subsidies and protective tariffs. 27 no future” in the passage refers to :

the green revolution the scarcity of natural resources poverty eradication programmes a healthy natural environment The author’s social inclination is obvious from the passage. True False Indeterminate None of these The statement “Global companies have no future if the earth has

28

29

Practicing kyosie leads to : good international relations a strong organizational structure profitable market share co-operative spirit in building a better world

30 would lead to :

Kyosei, as propounded by author, if followed by corporate houses

consumer-supplier synchronised relations gains in the competitive international market for viable players socio economic and political revolutions renewal of the deteriorating environment

31

The need for kyosei in Canon was due to : international trade developments financial investment at global scale need for internal corporate changes none of the above

32

The author’s “Global Activism role” can be best described as : International outlook with a local feel Local perspective for international edge Managing technological strategies in the foreign market Shifting the rules of competition

33 necessitates :

The cooperation within and outside the corporate organization

competitive salaries and recruitment a need to increase profit dedicated research of the labour problems a collective integration of promoting the company

34

The theme of the passage is best reflected by the statement : Global perspective for managing competitive industries Building dynamic strategies around your organization Canon, and the secret of its success by kyosei Co-operation for the common good, through kyosei as shown by Canon

Directions for Q.35 - 41 : Read the following passage and answer the questions. If the economics of land use is given a secondary status, the same piece of land can be put to various uses such as agriculture, forestry, habitation and mining. But no human

activity is possible without economics. This has led to categorization of land. India has 16 percent of the world’s population and only 2.4 per cent of its land area. Of the total 329 m.ha. of land, it is estimated that only 266 m.ha. has any potential for production. Of this 143 m.ha. is agricultural land. 40 m.ha. is unproductive and the balance of 83 m.ha. is classified as forest land, of which over half is in various stages of degradation. The increase in population has led to the accelerated degeneration of forests. Apart from ecological services, forests provide economic products and recreation. Those concerned with the basic needs of the poor generally tend to ignore the fundamental importance of forests to human well-being. The average Indian villager is still in the wood age. This dependency is more severe and acute in developing countries like India though the average American consumes about as much wood in the form of paper as the average Indian burns as cooking fuel per year. This is subsistence dependency Forests are evaluated by economists in terms of their ability to provide a dead product – wood. But for those residing in and around them, forests are a living, dynamic resource. These dependency patterns make the need for managing this resource essential. In India, wood is the preferred domestic fuel because to most who use it, it costs nothing but the physical labour of procuring, it. Due to its “easy” availability, the consumption of firewood exceeds the recorded production from forests. The colossal gap between actual consumption and legitimate production of fuel wood is filled by pilferage. The enormity of this pilferage leads to excessive cutting from the forests, which depletes forests and reduces firewood for future generations. There are limits to the resilience of forests. Any management approach must clearly understand these limits and formulate principles to enhance various forest outputs through silviculture. There are many examples of thinning, selective harvesting and manipulations of watershed forests to increase the yield of wood, water and wildlife without any apparent negative ecological impact. On the other hand, some industrial forestry activities create environmental stresses on forest systems. Any forest management strategy should prescribe harvesting (economics) within the biological limits of productive capacity and renewal capacity as two extremes. No forest resource should be tapped beyond the renewal capacity as otherwise the naturally endowed land use will be changed. There are three stages, in general, in the process of forest degradation. They are selfrenewal, rehabilitation and restoration. The self-renewal stage is the moderate level of degradation in which, following the withdrawal of the stress factor, forest ecosystems are able to renew themselves. The rehabilitation state is an intermediate level of degradation, the forest ecosystem may require long periods to recover naturally but this period may be shortened through human intervention. The restoration state is the one in which forest degradation becomes virtually irreversible, and the result is a combination of total or near total loss of forest cover. Forests are unlike other land-based resources. They are dynamic living systems with intense interactions among all the living and non-living components of the ecosystem. Man is the only component of this ecosystem, who, in spite of being a part of the dynamic milieu, tends to place himself “apart” from it and by doing so causes great damage. The management strategy must recognize the fact the fact that there is a symbiotic relationship between the people and the forest ecosystem. The life of forest-dwellers is woven round forest ecology and resources and ensures that the forest is protected against depredation by man and nature. Directly or indirectly, in the tribal mind, forests

symbolise life in its many manifestations, i.e., home, worship, food, employment, income. Tribal people are not only familiar with the biological species around them but they also possess some understanding of ecological interrelationships of the various components of forests. Thus, in the present context, sustainable exploitation of forests for meeting the needs of the nation and the people is possible, provided sound management is practiced. The present state of non-availability of potential alternatives to various uses of wood, especially firewood, must from part of the strategy so that total withdrawal of use is not visualised as a solution. The development of alternatives to forest uses is still in its infancy and there is an impending need to mobilise resources for research and development in this field.

35 economists and :

As far as forests are concerned, there is a critical difference between the attitude of

government officials forest-dwellers forest officials forest animals

36

No forest resource should be tapped beyond the : feasible limit renewal limit economic limit None of these The rehabilitation stage is a/an : moderate level of degradation extreme level of degradation intermediate level of degradation None of these

37

38

Pilferage of wood accounts for : the gap between for legitimate production and legitimate consumption the gap between actual production and legitimate consumption

the gap between the legitimate production and consumption the gap between the legitimate production and actual consumption

39

“Forests are resilient by nature.” True False Can’t say None of these The restoration stage represents a/an : reversible process economically infeasible process irreversible process restoration process At present, due to the huge population, sustainable exploitation of forest is : impossible possible imperative None of these

40

41

Directions for Q.42- 46: Read the following passage and answer the questions. Secondly, whatever may be true of other countries, in India at any rate where more than eighty per cent of the population is agricultural and another ten per cent industrial, it is a crime to make education merely literary and to unfit boys and girls for manual work in afterlife. Indeed I hold that, as the larger part of our time is devoted to labour for earning our bread, our children must from their infancy be taught the dignity of such labour. Our children should not become useless, as he does become, as agricultural labourer. It is a sad thing that our schoolboys look upon manual labour with disfavour, if not contempt. Moreover, in India, if we expect, as we must, every boy and girl of school-going age to attend public schools, we have not the means to finance education in accordance with the existing style, be free. I fancy that, even under an ideal system of government, we shall not be able to devote two thousand million rupees which we should require for funding education for all the children of school-going age. It follows therefore that our children must be made to pay in labour partly or wholly for all the education they receive. Such universal labour to be profitable can only be (to my thinking) hand spinning and hand weaving. But for the purposes of my proposition, it will be found upon examination, that on a practical, profitable and extensive scale, there is no occupation other than the processes connected with clothproduction which can be introduced in our schools throughout India.

42

The author objects to education being merely literary because : 80% of our people do not know to read or write it makes the learners unfit for manual labour Printing books is expensive None of the above The draflt5/wback of our education system is that : it is confined to books it gives no practical training to earn one’s bread in a country where majority of people subsist on manual labour it weens the children away from labour it is expensive Pick out the statement that most closely expresses the sentiments of the author. That education is best which makes a Tailor’s son a better tailor, a labourer’s son a better labourer Let them earn for whatever they learn Education ought to produce the sons of the soil and not take sons away from the soil Cloth production is the only way for universal education

43

44

45

The author is most likely a/an : Social Scientist Policy advisor in the PMO at Delhi Social Psychologist Educationist

46

The tone of the passage is : harsh and critical elucidatory and complacent bitterly satirical nostalgic

Directions for Q.47- 50: Read the following passage and answer the questions. Thomas Jefferson, one of the founders of the United States of America, remarked, “If a

nation expects to be ignorant and free, it expects what never was and never will be.” When a republic comes to birth, it is the leaders who produce the institutions. Later, it is the institutions which produce the leaders. The question – where are the leaders of tomorro ? – can only be answered by the other question – where are the nation – building institutions which can produce the leaders of tomorrow ? Do we have educational institutions which aim at generating excellence, and which are equipped to produce “movers of people, mobilizers of opinion” – integrated personalities whose minds, hearts and character have been developed in the noble traditions of our invaluable heritage ? I am using the word “education” in its profound sense. Animals can be trained; only human beings can be educated. Education requires personal participation and transformation. It cannot be given to anyone; it must be inwardly appropriated. It involves cultivation of the mind, not merely with a view of offering it as a commodity for sale in the marketplace. H. G. Wells wisely observed that human history is becoming more and more a race between education and catastrophe. This observation indicates what our people without education are heading for. The child is father of the man. The quality of education of the children of today will determine the quality of life in India tomorrow. “In ancient shadows and twilights Where childhood had strayed, The world’s great sorrows were born And its heroes were made. In the lost boyhood of Judas Christ was betrayed.” .

47

Jefferson’s statement can be best interpreted as : Knowledge is contrary to slavery Ignorance cannot lead to freedom Freedom can not survive amidst ignorance of economy Ignorance and Freedom cannot co-exist

48

The author quotes the remark of Thomas Jefferson with the intent of: stressing the invalidity of Education in a free society. stressing the crucial role of education in sustaining free societies.

stressing the lack of good educational institutions in our country. stressing the importance of freedom.

**49 Nations are built through institutions that :
**

give education impart training in leadership generate and preserve excellence are founded by leaders

50

The author is most likely a/an : policy maker in defence creative analyst newspaper columnist marketing guru

QUANTATIVE

51

If x is very large, then 2x/(1 + x) is close to 0 arbitrarily large close to 2 greater than 2 but less than 3

**52 What is the smallest possible value of xy, if 2x – 4 ≥ 6 and 8 – y ≤ 5?
**

30

150 15 52 A point on the line 3x + 5y = 15 and equidistant from the coordinate axes, lies in: None of the quadrants quadrants I and II only quadrant I only quadrants, I, II and III only

53

**54 If α and β be roots
**

α+β=0 α=β α+β=1 α2 = β

+

– 6 = 0; then

55 square is 3 units, and if the distance between the corresponding corners of any two

The following figure shows a set of concentric squares. If the diagonal of the innermost successive squares is 1.5 unit, find the difference between the areas of the eighth and the ninth square, counting from the innermost square.

67.5 76.5 3 153 A magazine distributor made 5500 copies of May issue of the magazine at a cost of Rs. the market price of the magazine and gave one extra copy free with every 49 copies bought at a time. In this manner, he was able to sell all the 5500 copies that were

56 550,000. He gave 500 copies free to some libraries. He also allowed a 25% discount on

produced. If the market price of a copy was Rs. 200, what is his gain or loss per cent for the May issue of magazine? 25% gain 33.6% gain 40% loss 26.8% loss The weight of an empty bucket is 25% of the weight of the bucket when filled with some

57 liquid. Some of the liquid has been removed. Then, the bucket, along with the remaining

liquid, weighed three-fifth of the original weight. What fractional part of the liquid has been removed? 2/5 8/15 7/13 5/8

**58 Let y = min { ( x + 6), ( 4 – x)}. If x ∈ R, what is the maximum value of y?
**

4 5 6 10 A sphere of diameter 40 cm is completely enclosing a right circular cone of height not still outside to cone would be: nearly 99% of the sphere's volume nearly 92% of the sphere's volume not more than 25% of the sphere's volume not more than 33.33% of the sphere's volume The following diagram represents a frustum of a cone whose bottom and top radii are 8 bottom. What is the ratio of conical cavity to the material in the solid?

59 more than 16 cm and base radius not more than 12 cm. The minimum volume of sphere

60 cm and 4 cm. Its height is 9 cm. There is a conical cavity to a height of 6 cm at the

6 : 13 8 : 13 13 : 21 None of these

61 If

+ + + ………. greatest integer function .What is the value of n? 26 27 28 29

= 54. Where [ ] is the

62 price of a dozen bananas reduced by Rs. 1, from the initial price. Thus she gets one

Mrs. Kapoor goes to the market and after hassling with the fruit vendor is able to get the banana extra for every rupee saved. The initial and final prices of a dozen bananas are (in Rs.) : 9, 8 12, 11 14, 13 24, 23 A company makes toy cars at a production cost of Rs 17.50 per unit. A market survey be stolen. At what unit price must the company sell it to realize 28% profit? Rs. 29.86 Rs. 28 Rs. 31.70 Rs. 20.5

63 reveals that 10% of the product will be lost, 5% will be rejected, 5% will decay and 5% will

**64 remaining bullets is equal to that of one has after division. Find the original number
**

divided. 26 18 16 6

Three friends divided some bullets equally. After all of them shot 4 bullets the total no. of

65

A natural number x is chosen at random from the first 150 natural numbers, then the probability that is ½

11 7

/20

/10

None of these

**66 (x) = Least integer greater than or equal to x,
**

[x] = Greatest integer less than or equal to x, |x| = absolute value of x, mn ( a, b, c, ……) = Least of a, b, c, ……. mx ( a, b, c, ……) = Highest of a, b, c, …. If x is any real number then the value of (x) - [x] is 0 1 –1 1 or 0 Direction for question:

Direction for question

**67 (x) = Least integer greater than or equal to x,
**

[x] = Greatest integer less than or equal to x, |x| = absolute value of x, mn (a, b, c, ……) = Least of a, b, c, ……. mx ( a, b, c, ……) = Highest of a, b, c, ….

Which of the following holds good? [|x|] = | [x ] | [|x|]<|[x]| [ | x | ] > | [ x]| None of these

**68 (x) = Least integer greater than or equal to x,
**

[x] = Greatest integer less than or equal to x, |x| = absolute value of x, mn ( a, b, c, ……) = Least of a, b, c, ……. mx ( a, b, c, ……) = Highest of a, b, c, …. If mx (mn (a, b) |a|, | b| ) = mn ( mx (a, b), |a| ) holds good for any two real numbers a and b, then a < 0, b < 0 a < 0, b > 0 a > 0, b < 0 a > 0, b > 0

Direction for question

69 paise and Y coins of 50 paise. If two coins of 50 paise from bag A are put into bag B and

Bag A contains X coins of 50 paise and Y coins of 25 paise. Bag B contains X coins of 25 3 coins of 25 paise from bag B are put into bag A, the value of money in both the bags will become equal. What may be the minimum value of the total amount in both the bags? Rs 10 Rs 3 Rs 4 Rs 1.25 Mr. Jill requires Rs 6000 per month to maintain his family. He saves 20% of any amount that he earns above Rs 7000 but below Rs 8000 in a month. If Mr. Jill spends Rs 6975 on a month, what is his income for that month? Rs 7150 Rs 7250 Rs 7500 Rs 7100 All possible two-factor products are formed from the numbers 1, 2, ….,100. The number

70 that he earns above Rs. 6000 but below Rs 7000 in a month. He saves 30% of amount

**71 of factors out of the total obtained which are multiple of 3 is
**

2211 4950

2739 None of these

**72 A is always above A is 1 10
**

5! 2 (5!) 10!

The number of ways in which ten candidates A1, A2, ….A10 can be ranked such that

73

(10!) In the figure EFGH is formed by joining midpoints of consecutive sides of square KLMN. Figures PQRS and ABCD are also formed similarly. ABCD : KLMN is :

1:4 1:8 1 : 16 None of these A square of side 3 cm is taken and two equilateral triangles are drawn on the opposite Find the area common to both triangles.

74 sides.

None of these

**75 cubical box with six different colours for different faces of the cube.
**

The detailed account of it is given as:(a) Red face should lie between Yellow and Brown faces. (b) Green face should be adjacent to the silver face. (c) Pink face should lie adjacent to the Green face. (d) Yellow face should lie opposite to the Brown one. (e) Brown face should face down. (f) Silver and Pink faces should lie opposite to each other. The face opposite to Red is Yellow Green Pink Silver Directions for question: A painter is given a task to paint a cubical box with six different (a) Red face should lie between Yellow and Brown faces. (b) Green face should be adjacent to the silver face. (c) Pink face should lie adjacent to the Green face. (d) Yellow face should lie opposite to the Brown one. (e) Brown face should face down. (f) Silver and Pink faces should lie opposite to each other. The upper face is Red Pink Yellow Silver Directions for question:

Directions for question: A painter is given a task to paint a

76 colours for different faces of the cube. The detailed account of it is given as:-

**77 A painter is given a task to paint a cubical box with six
**

different colours for different faces of the cube. The detailed account of it is given as:(a) Red face should lie between Yellow and Brown faces. (b) Green face should be adjacent to the silver face. (c) Pink face should lie adjacent to the Green face. (d) Yellow face should lie opposite to the Brown one. (e) Brown face should face down.

(f) Silver and Pink faces should lie opposite to each other. The faces adjacent to Green are Yellow, Pink, Red, Silver Brown, Pink, yellow, Silver Silver, Pink, Green Yellow, Pink, Green

**78 A painter is given a task to paint a cubical box with six different colours
**

for different faces of the cube. The detailed account of it is given as:(a) Red face should lie between Yellow and Brown faces. (b) Green face should be adjacent to the silver face. (c) Pink face should lie adjacent to the Green face. (d) Yellow face should lie opposite to the Brown one. (e) Brown face should face down. (f) Silver and Pink faces should lie opposite to each other. The face opposite to Silver is Pink Brown Red Green

Directions for question:

**79 A painter is given a task to paint a cubical box with six different colours for different
**

faces of the cube. The detailed account of it is given as:(a) Red face should lie between Yellow and Brown faces. (b) Green face should be adjacent to the silver face. (c) Pink face should lie adjacent to the Green face. (d) Yellow face should lie opposite to the Brown one. (e) Brown face should face down. (f) Silver and Pink faces should lie opposite to each other. Three of the faces adjacent to Red face are Silver, Green, Brown Silver, Brown, Pink Silver, Pink, Green Yellow, Pink, Green (AA)2 = DCBA. where A, B, C and D are the distinct digits and B is odd. Then D = 5

Directions for question:

80

6 4 3 A certain clock marks every hour by striking a number of times equal to the hour and

**81 the time required for a stroke is exactly equal to the time interval between strokes. At
**

9 : 00 a.m. the time lapse between the beginning of the first stroke and the end of the last stroke is 34 seconds. At 18 : 00 hrs. how many seconds elapse between the beginning of the first stroke and the end of the last stroke : 70 43 36 22

**82 485 machine parts were to be manufactured by some workers in 5 days. Every day
**

after the first, 4 more men were put onto the job and every day after the first, each person manufactured 3 fewer parts. The results was that during the latter part of the period, the daily number of manufactured part began to go down What was the no. of parts manufactured on the third day? 196 121 81 172

Directions for question:

**83 485 machine parts were to be manufactured by some workers in 5 days. Every day after
**

the first, 4 more men were put onto the job and every day after the first, each person manufactured 3 fewer parts. The results was that during the latter part of the period, the daily number of manufactured part began to go down.

Directions for question:

What was the attendance on the fifth day? 24 20 22 19 A sum of Rs 3328 is divided among A, B and C so that if Rs. 35, Rs. 51 and Rs. 74 be 16. Find the share of each.

84 diminished from their shares respectively, the remainders shall be in the ratio of 9 : 11 :

Rs. 827, 1019, 1482 Rs. 909, 1010, 1409 Rs. 846, 1042, 1440 Rs. 797, 1061, 1470

85

The factors of ( not possible

) are

(

)(

)

(

+

)(

–

)

(

+

)(

–

)

86 Two bugs are climbing a slippery wall. At time ‘t’ = 0, both are at the bottom of the wall.

Bug A climbs at the rate of 3 inches a minute. Bug B climbs at the rate of 4 inches a minute. Due to the slippery wall, however, Bug A slips back 1 inch for every 2 inches climbed and bug B 1.5 inches for every 2 inches. Moreover bug A takes a rest of 1 minute after every 2 minutes and Bug B, a rest of 1 minute after every 3 minutes. Assume that slipping occurs continuously when climbing.

Directions for question:

At what height do the two bugs meet each other? Do not meet 3 inches 5 inches 12 inches Directions for question:

87 Two bugs are climbing a slippery wall. At time ‘t’ = 0, both are at the bottom of the wall.

Bug A climbs at the rate of 3 inches a minute. Bug B climbs at the rate of 4 inches a minute. Due to the slippery wall, however, Bug A slips back 1 inch for every 2 inches climbed and bug B 1.5 inches for every 2 inches. Moreover bug A takes a rest of 1

minute after every 2 minutes and Bug B, a rest of 1 minute after every 3 minutes. Assume that slipping occurs continuously when climbing. What is the widest gap achieved between the bugs, within the first 10 minutes ? 2 inches 3 inches 2.5 inches 5 inches Directions for question:

88 Two bugs are climbing a slippery wall. At time ‘t’ = 0, both are at the bottom of the wall.

Bug A climbs at the rate of 3 inches a minute. Bug B climbs at the rate of 4 inches a minute. Due to the slippery wall, however, Bug A slips back 1 inch for every 2 inches climbed and bug B 1.5 inches for every 2 inches. Moreover bug A takes a rest of 1 minute after every 2 minutes and Bug B, a rest of 1 minute after every 3 minutes. Assume that slipping occurs continuously when climbing. If Bug B does not have rest periods, how many times do the bugs meet in the first 10 minutes? 6 1 2 3 Directions for question:

89 Two bugs are climbing a slippery wall. At time ‘t’ = 0, both are at the bottom of the wall.

Bug A climbs at the rate of 3 inches a minute. Bug B climbs at the rate of 4 inches a minute. Due to the slippery wall, however, Bug A slips back 1 inch for every 2 inches climbed and bug B 1.5 inches for every 2 inches. Moreover bug A takes a rest of 1 minute after every 2 minutes and Bug B, a rest of 1 minute after every 3 minutes. Assume that slipping occurs continuously when climbing. If the wall is 1 foot high, but when A reaches the top, how far is Bug B behind? 3 inches 2 inches 2.5 inches 3.5 inches Directions for question:

90 Two bugs are climbing a slippery wall. At time ‘t’ = 0, both are at the bottom of the wall.

Bug A climbs at the rate of 3 inches a minute. Bug B climbs at the rate of 4 inches a minute. Due to the slippery wall, however, Bug A slips back 1 inch for every 2 inches climbed and bug B 1.5 inches for every 2 inches. Moreover bug A takes a rest of 1

minute after every 2 minutes and Bug B, a rest of 1 minute after every 3 minutes. Assume that slipping occurs continuously when climbing. What is the average speed of Bug A for the first 9 minutes? 1.75 in/min 1 in/min 0.75 in/min 2 in/min Two trains start from stations A and B spaced 50 kms apart at the same time and speed. second train, it flies back to the first train. This is repeated till the trains collide. If the speed of the trains is 25 km/h and that of the bird is 100km/h. How much did the bird travel till the collision? 98.75 km 100 km 95.5 km None of these Ram, Shyam and Gumnaam are friends. Ram is a widower and lives alone and his sister house. Gumnaam is married to Gita and lives in large house in the same town. Gita gives the idea that all of them could stay together in the house and share monthly expenses equally. During their first month of living together, each person contributed Rs.25. At the end of the month, it was found that Rs 92 was the expense so the remaining amount was distributed equally among everyone. The distribution was such that everyone received a whole number of Rupees. How much did each person receive? 4 2 Not possible None of these Directions for question:

91 As the trains start, a bird flies from one train towards the other and on reaching the

92 takes care of him. Shyam is a bachelor and his niece cooks his food and looks after his

**93 N, a set of natural numbers is partitioned into subsets – S = {1} S 1 2
**

= (2, 3) S3 {4, 5, 6} S4 = {7, 8, 9, 10} and so on.

The first term of the subset S25 is : 201 301

402 160

**94 N, a set of natural numbers is partitioned into subsets – S = {1} S 1 2
**

= (2, 3) S3 {4, 5, 6} S4 = {7, 8, 9, 10} and so on. The sum of the elements of the subset S30 is : 12505 14115 13515 16505 Directions for question:

Directions for question:

**95 N, a set of natural numbers is partitioned into subsets – S = {1} S 1 2
**

= (2, 3) S3 {4, 5, 6} S4 = {7, 8, 9, 10} and so on. The last term of the subset S15 is : 120 125 130 145 180 guests have to be brought for a marriage. The following two types 1. Mini buses with a seating capacity of 18 passengers each. 2. Buses with a seating capacity of 61 passenger each. What are the minimum No. of buses needed for the trip provided no guest is to travel without seat. 3 4 6 10

96 of buses are available ;

97

The capacity of tank B is 1000 lts and that of tank A = 3000 lts Tank B is completely inside tank A. 1, 3 are inlet pipes; 2, 4 outlet pipes. 1 takes 20 min to fill tank A 3 takes 10 min to fill tank B 4 takes 40 min to empty tank B 2 takes 20 min to empty tank A If all the pipes are opened when would the tank A be filled? 30 min

min

min None of these In the figure find b in terms of a. c & d.

98

b=c+d–a b = ( c + d – a) /2 b=a–c+d b=a–c–d

99

If bc : ac : ab = 1 : 2: 3, find 3:2 4:1 2:1 3:4 A train, travelling at the rate of 19.5 miles an hour started at 8.00 a.m. on a journey of 234 8 : 5 and arrived 20 minutes after the first time. When did the second train start? 12.50 p.m. 1.30 p.m. 11 a.m. 10.30 a.m.

100 miles. A second train started from the same station; its speed was to that of the former as

Directions for questions 101 – 105: These questions are based on the following diagram.

101

Which bank showed a loss whose deviation from the average was maximum? Indian Bank Vijaya Bank Central Bank United Bank Which of the following is true?

102 I. The loss incurred by Indian Bank is equal to the loss incurred by all the other banks

given II. If the Reserve Bank of India ploughs in approx. Rs. 2300 crore, the losses suffered by the given banks can be offset. III. Indian Bank will almost surely lose its popularity soon. I & II II only II & III I, II & III Finding no other alternative of increasing the income, Vijaya Bank decided to generate crore, by how many percent points would it have to increase the lending rates so as to offset its losses? Around 5 Around 2.5 Around 1 Can't determine The total assets of Indian Bank are Rs. 75000 crore. The assets of Vijaya Bank, UCO 13% & 12% of the assets of the Indian Bank. Which of the following banks shows the maximum loss per crore rupees of assets? Indian Vijay UCO United

103 income by raising the lending rates. If the total amount loaned out by it was Rs. 8250

104 Bank, United Bank, Punjab & Sind Bank, Central Bank are respectively 23%, 19%, 17%,

105 Bank, United Bank, Punjab & Sind Bank, Central Bank are respectively 23%, 19%, 17%,

13% & 12% of the assets of the Indian Bank. What change would have to be made in the assets of the Indian Bank if its loss per crore of asset was to be made equal to that in case of Central Bank? They will have to be increased by 62% They will have to be reduced by 15% They will have to be increased by 215% They will have to be reduced by 25%

The total assets of Indian Bank are Rs. 75000 crore. The assets of Vijaya Bank, UCO

**Directions for questions 106– 110: These questions are based on data given below
**

DATA ON COFFEE AND TEA DRINKERS (000's) 1971 Men Coffee drinkers 50 Women 60 Children 2 Men 120 1981 Women 140 Children 30

106

What percentage of the total population in 1971 drank coffee? 45% 50% 20% None of these The increase in woman coffee drinkers from 1971 to 1981 was about 233% 80% 120 % 133% The number of children who drink either beverage increased over the two periods by 37000 9500

107

108

28000 37500

**109 was nobody drink both)?
**

30 27.3 28.5 None of these

In 1971, out of every 100 men, how many drank neither coffee nor tea (assume that there

110

In 1981, how many children drank milk? 140000 100000 140000 can't say

Directions for questions 111– 115: The nation of Zox consists of five islands Zog, Zod, Zob, Zop and Zoz. The total population of all the five islands is 750 Zoxians. (A) The smallest island has as many Zoxians as all of Zox.

(B) The largest island is Zod. The smallest island is not Zoz.

(C) One island has

of the total population of Zox. Another island has

(D) Zob is one and a half times larger than one of the other islands.

(E) Zop has 100 more people than the smallest island.

111

Which is the smallest island? Zog Zob Zop None of the above

112

What is the sum of the population of Zod and Zob? 275 250 325 400 What is the sum of population of Zop and Zoz? 250 275 350 400

113

114 Zox?

The sum of the population of which two islands is more than half the total population of

Zod and Zop Zod and Zob Zod and Zoz Both option (A) & (B) What is the population of the island of Zoz? 75 100 150 150

115

Directions for questions 116– 120: The questions are based on the following pie-charts. FEMININE CARE PRODUCT Mkt Size : Rs 75 Crores. DISPOSABLE DIAPERS Mkt. Size. 10 Crores.

**116 percentage approximately of the total turnover in these segments of the entire market?
**

34% 30% 27% None of these

Procter and Gamble's turnover from the two personal care segments amounted to what

**117 it has in feminine care product, what should it s turnover (Rs. crores) in this segments be
**

given that the sales of other companies in disposable diapers market does not change? 1 2.3 1.11 None of these If the market size of the feminine care products increases by 25%, the turnover of (assume the market shares of various companies remain the same) ? 10.25 13 11.25 None of these

If J.K. Helen Curtis is to get a market share in the disposable diapers market equal to that

118 Johnson and Johnson in this segment will increase by how many crores of rupees

**119 segments together is greater than the percentage share of Regency Drapers in these two
**

segment together by how many percentage points. 50.8 25.3 42 None of these

The percentage share of Johnson and Johnson in the two personal care market

**120 much (Rs crores) should Procter and Gamble's turnover in this segment increase to get a
**

25% share? 2.93 3.23 2.52 None of these

If in value terms all the other companies retain their share of the diapers market, by how

Directions for questions 121– 125: These questions are based on the following data.

Electricity Generation million kwh (June 1996) Hydel Generation Thermal Generation Total 5038 25247 30285

Percentage change over last month 2.4 –10.3 –8.4 last three months 2.3 –12.7 –10.6 last twelve months –20.3 2.7 –2.0

121 1996?

What was the proportion of Hydel generation in total electricity generation in May

15% 20% 25% None of these

122

What was the thermal generation in March 1996 (million kwh)? 38919 28919

20000 None of these What was the total power generation in January 1996 (million kwh)? 40000 50000 30000 Can't determine What was the proportion of Thermal generation in total electricity generation in June

123

124 1995?

80% 70% 60% 50% What was the ratio of hydel generation to thermal generation in March 1996? 1:6 1:3 1:9 None of these

125

Directions for questions 126– 131 :

Duloc and his pals held bake sales and earned enough money to take a field trip with their teacher Mr. Oonla. In fact they made enough to go all the way to Earth! When they arrived at the third planet in the Solar System, they discovered that the gravitational pull was different from what they were used to back on Nolu Si. Mr. Oonla was curious about the difference in weight and how much each of his students weighted in Earth ounces. An Earth ounce is equivalent to 11 Nolu Si ounces, except that on Nolu Si the measurement is not called ounces but qinae. He found the following: Sio weighs 50.6 qinae. He outweighs everyone except Phren, who weighs 13.2 qinae more.

Ontrus, the lightest, weighs 27.5 qinae less than Duloc. Jorn weighs 5.5 qinae less than Sio and 2.2 qinae more than Duloc. 126

Who is the heaviest of the lot of five children? Sio Phren Jorn Ontrus

**127 in ounces and qinae?
**

12 36 48

What is the difference between the percentage difference in weight of Sio and Phren

None of the above

128

What is the Phren’s weight on Earth (in Ounces) 5.8 4.6 4.1 3.9

129

What is Ontru’s weight on Nolu si? 15.4 42.9 45.1 50.6

130

What is Jorn’s weight on Earth? 3.9 4.1 4.6 1.4

131

What is the percentage difference in the weights of Sio and Phren? 26.08 30.16 24.91 Can’t be determined

132 statements "1" and "2", as the answer.

Direction for question: The following question is followed by two

In how many days would the lawn be mowed? 1. Ram alone can mow it in 17 days whereas Ganesh and Sohan together can do it in 12 days 2. One of Ram, Ganesh and Sohan works on the job everyday. If both, statement 1 and statement 2 are needed to answer the question. If the question can be answered with the help of statement 2 alone. If the question can be answered with the help of statement 1 alone. If the question cannot be answered even with the help of both the statements.

133 as the answer.

Direction for question: The following question is followed by two statements "1" and "2",

What are the three numbers? 1. Their sum is 61. 2. These are three consecutive prime numbers If both, statement 1 and statement 2 are needed to answer the question. If the question can be answered with the help of statement 2 alone. If the question can be answered with the help of statement 1 alone. If the question cannot be answered even with the help of both the statements.

**134 1. The 200 meters long train is running at a speed of 60 kmph
**

2. The man is walking at a speed of 5 m/s If both, statement 1 and statement 2 are needed to answer the question. If the question can be answered with the help of statement 2 alone.

In how much time will the train pass the man?

If the question can be answered with the help of statement 1 alone. If the question cannot be answered even with the help of both the statements.

Directions for questions 135– 140: Study the following graph carefully to answer these questions. FDI Inflows in India & Competing Countries 1991 Indonesia Malaysia Philippines Singapore Sri Lanka Thailand Vietnam China India Argentina Brazil Chile Colombia 1482 3998 544 4887 48 2014 229 4366 155 2439 1103 523 457 1992 1777 5183 228 2204 123 2114 385 11156 233 4045 2061 699 729 1993 2004 5006 1238 4686 194 1805 1002 27515 550 2763 1294 1034 960 1994 2109 4342 1591 8550 166 1364 1500 33787 973 3432 2589 2583 1444 1995 4346 4178 1478 7206 56 2068 2000 35849 2144 5279 5475 2977 968 1996 6194 5078 1517 7884 120 2336 2500 40180 2426 6513 10496 4724 3123 1997 4673 5106 1222 9710 430 3733 2950 44236 3351 8094 18745 5417 5701 1998 –356 3727 1713 7218 345 6969 1900 45460 2258 5697 28718 4792 2983 1999 –3270 3532 737 6984 202 6078 1609 40400 2168 23153 31397 9221 1396 US $ Million

**135 any country in any year?
**

947.08 912.25 998.74 904.36

What was the ratio of highest FDI inflow in any country in any year to the lowest in

136

What is the percentage increase in FDI inflow in India from 1991 to 1999? 1298.7% 1340.46% 1212.36% 1476.64%

137

For 1994–1995, the FDIs of how many countries showed a decline of more than 5%? 2 3 4

1

138 years?

What is the ratio of India’s highest FDI in all the years to China’s lowest FDI in all the

0.68 0.43 0.76 0.71

**139 sector in 1999, then what amount (in US $ million) went to the above
**

two sectors in 1999? 415, 712 432, 712 415, 737 433, 737

If 20% of FDI in India went to the Power sector and 34% to the Infotech

140

How many times has the FDI in any country mentioned gone beyond 5000 US $ million? 35 31 34 37

Directions for questions 141– 145: are based on the following table. All Figures in Crores.

Revenue Expenditure Departmental Enterprises Social Services Economic Services 457 14061

Total cost of Service 561 22618 149

Total recoveries

Recovery rate

Subsidy (as % Total subsidy)

of

198 15363 20

35.2 67.92 13.40

0.86 17.14 0.31

Non – Departmental Enterprises Social Services 82

Economic

6033

9768

3029

31.01

15.92

Services Co–operatives Social Services 5 29 Economic Services 234 709 All Public Enterprises Social Services 544 740 Economic Services 20327 33096 Of which Central Public Enterprises 16485 23814 State Public Enterprises 4387 10021

4 141 222 18534 14601 4155

14.06 19.95 29.97 56.00 61.31 41.46

0.06 1.34 1.22 34.41 21.77 13.86

141

The recovery rate has been calculated as: 1/ (Revenue Expenditure / Total recoveries) 1 / (Revenue Expenditure / Total recoveries) × 100 1/ (Total cost of Service / Total recoveries) 1 / (Total Cost of Service / Total recoveries) × 100

**142 crores, then what, in Rs. crore, is the subsidy given to the Non–
**

departmental enterprises? 6874 8874 7874 Can't determine

If it is known that the subsidy given to the co–operative is Rs. 593

**143 subsidy given to the social services of the Departmental enterprises (Rs. crore)?
**

36.4 364 3640 Can't determine

If it is known that the subsidy given to the co–operative is Rs. 593 crores then what is the

**144 difference in the subsidies given to the Economic and social services of the Non–
**

departmental enterprises (Rs. crore)? 4600 5600 6600 None of these

If it is known that the subsidy given to the co–operative is Rs. 593 crores, then what is the

**145 services form what percentage of the total recoveries from economic services?
**

1.2% 2.2% 3.2% None of these

For departmental and non–departmental enterprises, the total recoveries from social

Directions for questions 146– 150:

Four students of I.I.T. College: - Harry, Nipun, Rahul, Ashish went to Taj hotel. Each ordered different food items. Food items available at that time were Masala Dosa, Idly Sambar, Noodles, and Manchurian. However none ate what any of the others ate. When they returned to their college they asked their college mates to guess what they had eaten at hotel. Each makes two false statements and one true statement. Read their statements and answer the questions that follow.

Harry: I ate Masala Dosa. Nipun ate Idly Sambar. Rahul did not eat Manchurian. Rahul: Harry ate Masala Dosa. Nipun did not eat Masala Dosa. I ate Manchurian. Nipun: Rahul ate Manchurian. I did not eat Idly Sambar. Ashish didn’t eat noodles. Ashish: I ate Idly Sambar. Nipun ate Manchurian. Harry ate noodles.

146

Harry ate Noodles Manchurian Idly Sambar Masala Dosa

147

Nipun ate Noodles Manchurian Idly Sambar Masala Dosa

148

Rahul ate Noodles Manchurian Idly Sambar Masala Dosa

149

Ashish ate Noodles Manchurian Idly Sambar Masala Dosa

150

Which of the following is false? Rahul’s second statement is true. Harry’s second statement is true. Nipun’s second statement is true. Ashish’s second statement is true.

ANSWERS

Analysis of your test

- Correct Question No. Question No 1 Question No 2 Question No 3 Question No 4 Question No 5 Question No 6 Question No 7 Question No 8 Question No 9 Question No 10 Question No 11 Question No 12 - Incorrect - Unmarked Comment Correct Answer (C) (B) (D) (A) (C) (C) (D) (B) (C) (A) (D) (A) Your Answer Unmarked Unmarked Unmarked Unmarked Unmarked Unmarked Unmarked Unmarked Unmarked Unmarked Unmarked Unmarked

Question No 13 Question No 14 Question No 15 Question No 16 Question No 17 Question No 18 Question No 19 Question No 20 Question No 21 Question No 22 Question No 23 Question No 24 Question No 25 Question No 26 Question No 27 Question No 28 Question No 29 Question No 30 Question No 31 Question No 32 Question No 33 Question No 34 Question No 35 Question No 36 Question No 37 Question No 38 Question No 39 Question No 40 Question No 41 Question No 42 Question No 43 Question No 44

(D) (D) (C) (D) (B) (B) (D) (D) (A) (B) (D) (C) (C) (D) (D) (A) (D) (C) (A) (C) (D) (D) (B) (B) (C) (D) (A) (C) (C) (B) (C) (B)

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Question No 45 Question No 46 Question No 47 Question No 48 Question No 49 Question No 50 Question No 51 Question No 52 Question No 53 Question No 54 Question No 55 Question No 56 Question No 57 Question No 58 Question No 59 Question No 60 Question No 61 Question No 62 Question No 63 Question No 64 Question No 65 Question No 66 Question No 67 Question No 68 Question No 69 Question No 70 Question No 71 Question No 72 Question No 73 Question No 74 Question No 75 Question No 76

(D) (A) (D) (B) (C) (C) (C) (C) (C) (A) (B) (B) (B) (B) (B) (B) (D) (B) (A) (B) (C) (D) (B) (D) (B) (B) (C) (D) (B) (D) (B) (C)

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Question No 77 Question No 78 Question No 79 Question No 80 Question No 81 Question No 82 Question No 83 Question No 84 Question No 85 Question No 86 Question No 87 Question No 88 Question No 89 Question No 90 Question No 91 Question No 92 Question No 93 Question No 94 Question No 95 Question No 96 Question No 97 Question No 98 Question No 99 Question No 100 Question No 101 Question No 102 Question No 103 Question No 104 Question No 105

(B) (A) (B) (C) (D) (B) (D) (A) (C) (B) (B) (D) (A) (B) (B) (B) (B) (C) (A) (A) (A) (A) (B) (A) (A) (B) (D) (D) (A)

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(A) (D) (D) (B) (D) (A)

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(D) (B) (D) (B) (B) (C) (C) (A) (A) (A) (B) (D) (A) (A) (B) (D)

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========================================================================= === Question 1 Direction for question: The following question consists of four statements. You have to select the option representing the most coherent sequencing of the given statements. A. He was a socialist and had the reputation of being sympathetic to the Indian cause. B. The proposals he had brought were however, not so favourable. C. Sir Stafford Cripps reached Delhi on March 22. 1942. D. He was known to be a personal friend of Jawahar Lal Nehru and other Indian leaders. (1) CDBA (2) BCDA (3) CDAB (4) DCBA

The right answer is CDAB . In this question the obvious statement to start with is C. This is because it introduces Cripps and the other statements are referring to Cripps as ‘he’. Also AB is the key. A statement says that Cripps was considered to be sympathetic to Indian cause and B logically follows as it says proposals “however’” were not so favorable. This is true for (C) choice. Hence (C) is the correct option choice. ========================================================================= Question 2 Direction for question: The following question consists of four statements. You have to select the option representing the most coherent sequencing of the given statements. A. It continued its deliberations for many days over Gandhiji’s new slogan to the nation. B. On July 14, 1942 the Committee passed a long resolution - "Quit India" resolution. C. The Working Committee of the Congress met at Wardha. D. It demanded that the British rule in India must end. (1) BCDA (2) CABD (3) BCAD (4) ADBC

The right answer is CABD. Here, BD is the key. B statement talks about “Quit Indian” resolution. The logical statement to follow is D as it talks about what was the motive or what was the demand under this resolution. This key is present only in option (B) and hence the correct answer. ========================================================================= ===

Question 3 Direction for question: The following question consists of four statements. You have to select the option representing the most coherent sequencing of the given statements. A. You may imprint it on your hearts and let every breath of yours give expression to it. B. We shall either free India or die in the perpetuation of our slavery. C. Here is a "mantra", a short one that I give. D. The "mantra" is: "Do or Die." (1) ACDB (2) BCDA (3) ACBD (4) CADB

The right answer is CADB. The most general statement to start with is obviously C. Also, DB is a key. D tells about the mantra “Do or Die” and B statement then explains it. This is true only for option (D). Moreover (D) is the only option choice that puts all the given statement in a proper sequence. ========================================================================= === Question 4 Direction for question: The following question consists of four statements. You have to select the option representing the most coherent sequencing of the given statements. A. His inner voice spoke two words "Quit India." B. The failure of Cripps Mission disheartened the people. C. The day Cripps left was Sunday. D. Gandhiji pondered over the difficult situation, on Monday his day of silence, as to what could be the solution? (1) BCDA (2) ACBD (3) DCBA (4) CBAD

The right answer is BCDA. Here CD and DA are the keys. C statement talks Cripps leaving on ‘Sunday’ and D is the next logical statement as it talks about Gandhi ji finding a solution on ‘Monday’. Also D talks about Gandhi pondering over a tough situation and A has to follow as his inner voice gave the solution. This is true only for option (A). Thus (A) option is correct. ========================================================================= === Question 5

Direction for question: The following question consists of four statements. You have to select the option representing the most coherent sequencing of the given statements. A. All other developing nations fall far behind. B. With a large and complex market like India, the report says further, looking at averages can be deceptive. C. China's parity is $ 2,870 billion, India's stands at $ 1,105 billion. D. Among developing countries. India comes second after China in terms of purchasing power parity. (1) ABCD (2) DCBA (3) DCAB (4) ABDC

The right answer is DCAB. The most general statement to start with is D as it introduces the word “developing countries” as well as India and China. Also CA is the key. Purchasing power parities the statement that logically follows the parity of other countries, which A does. This key is present only in option choice (C). Thus (C) is the correct answer. Question 6 Direction for question: The following question consists of four statements. You have to select the option representing the most coherent sequencing of the given statements. A. Honesty, truth and loyalty have the foundation of Utopia strong. B. In Utopia there is no black money, no transaction under table. C. It is a self-sufficient country with abundant natural resources. D. It imports less and exports more. (1) BCAD (2) ADBC (3) CDAB (4) ABCD

The right answer is CDAB. A is the most general statement as it introduces the word ‘utopia’ around which the passage revolves. Also AB is the key. A statement introduces the values of honesty, truth and loyalty and B substantiates the statement by “no transaction under the table”. This is clearly on lines with (D) option. Thus (C) is the correct option choice. ========================================================================= === Question 7 Direction for question: The following question consists of four statements. You have to select the option representing the most coherent sequencing of the given statements. A. The cottage industries producing a variety of handicrafts boost the country's exports.

B. The economy in Utopia is quite strong; the currency ratings do not fall by the day. C. There are no prominent classes in Utopian society. D. It is, more or less, a homogeneous system. (1) ACDB (2) BCDA (3) ADBC (4) CDAB

The right answer is CDAB. If we start the passage with A or B statement, C can’t follow as AC and BC are not at all compatible Also, CD is a key as C says that there are no prominent classes in utopian society and D further explains it by terming it “homogeneous”. These conditions are satisfied only by option (D). Thus (D) is the correct option choice. ========================================================================= === Question 8 Direction for question: Four statements A, B, C, and D are given between two statements 1 and 2. Statements (A, B, C, and D) are jumbled up. You have to select the option which indicates a logical sequencing of the six taken together.

1. We must be aware that all private industries have not proved successful: there are hundreds and thousand of sick units.

A. The problem is not choosing between Public Sector and private industry.

B. If public sector is not doing well, we can find out the reasons and remove the detects.

C. There is less chance for corruption and meddling with politics.

D. Some Public Sector units like the ONGC. LIC and other have done quite well. 6. A constructive approach is needed. (1) ACBD (2) ADCB (3) ABDC (4) BCDA

The right answer is ADCB. The key to the question is BC. B talks about finding reasons and removing defects. For doing this in proper manner, a constructive approach is required. This is exactly what is stated in option choice (B). Thus ADCB is the correct answer. ========================================================================= ===

Question 9 Direction for question: Four statements A, B, C, and D are given between two statements 1 and 2. Statements (A, B, C, and D) are jumbled up. You have to select the option which indicates a logical sequencing of the six taken together.

1. In certain controversial issues the Board of Interview may be interested in your personal views.

A. Let us take Stale autonomy, sons of the Soil policy. Non-alignment, Prohibition, Public Sector. Gandhian economy etc.

B. Some simple controversial topics can be cited.

C. Here one must give his/her sincere preferences.

D. If one opposes he/she must say why with convincing and rational reasons.

6. It is quite possible that some Members of the Board may hold rather strong views to the contrary. (1) ADCB (2) BCAD (3) BACD (4) ACDB

The right answer is BACD. The first key to the question is BA. B statement is talking about controversial topics and A logically follows as it gives examples of the controversial topics. Now, C is most logical statement to follow because it talks about giving sincere preferences from these topics. So BA and AC are the keys. These are present only is option (C). Thus (C) is the correct option choice. ========================================================================= ===

Question 10 Direction for question: Four statements A, B, C, and D are given between two statements 1 and 2. Statements (A, B, C, and D) are jumbled up. You have to select the option which indicates a logical sequencing of the six taken together.

1. The Chairman starts the interview with some general and casual questions.

A. However, the Chairman and a member subsequently attempt to probe the candidate at length.

B. The candidate answers the questions freely and frankly.

C. He is free of inhibitions.

D. He frankly admits his reading is not too extensive.

6. He subtly conveys that he reads newspapers and periodicals to keep himself wellinformed. (1) ABCD (2) DCBA (3) BCDA (4) BACD

The right answer is ABCD. Here 1A is a strong key, 1st statement talks about the chairman starting an interview and A logically follows as it talks about the chairman probing the candidate at length. D6 is another strong key. D statement tells that the candidate does not read extensively and 6th statement logically follows as it talks that how the candidate keeps himself well informed despite less reading. This is true only for option choice (A). Thus (A) is the correct answer. ========================================================================= === Question 11 Direction for question: Four statements A, B, C, and D are given between two statements 1 and 2. Statements (A, B, C, and D) are jumbled up. You have to select the option which indicates a logical sequencing of the six taken together.

1. The candidate reveals a selective approach and indicates his preferences without hesitation.

A. He displays consistently a logical, rational and intelligent approach.

B. He is sure of himself.

C. His behaviour is natural and normal - no affectations, air or superficiality.

D. He makes up his mind firmly when required to choose.

6. This indicates his mental stability and consistency. (1) ACDB (2) BDAC (3) ACBD (4) DBCA

The right answer is DBCA.

In this question A6 is the key. A talks about consistency and 6th statement continues the idea as it also talks about consistency. This key is present only in option choice (D). Thus (D) is the correct answer. Question 12 Direction for question: Four statements A, B, C, and D are given between two statements 1 and 2. Statements (A, B, C, and D) are jumbled up. You have to select the option which indicates a logical sequencing of the six taken together.

1. Earlier, under cold war conditions we were enjoying the support of Soviet Union. A. It was the same case with many other countries like Iran, Iraq, Syria, Vietnam etc.

B. Even before disintegration of Russia, America attacked Iraq and liberated Kuwait.

C. We could stand upto American pressure to some extent.

D. The Soviet Union was a mute witness.

6. It allowed the onslaught of U.S. air, land and naval attacks on Iraq. (1) ACBD (2) BCDA (3) BDCA (4) CABD

The right answer is ACBD. D6 is a key. D statement says that Soviet Union was a mute witness. 6th logically follows as it tells what happened because of Soviet Union being mute witness. 1A is also a key. 1st statement tells about Soviet support to cold war and A logically follows as it says that same was the case with other countries. These keys are present only in option (A) and hence the answer. ========================================================================= === Question 13 Direction for question: Four statements A, B, C, and D are given between two statements 1 and 2. Statements (A, B, C, and D) are jumbled up. You have to select the option which indicates a logical sequencing of the six taken together.

1. He is able to think on his feet.

A. He is abreast of the international burning issues and their impact on India. B. He can think ahead and plan with imagination and enterprise.

C. He succeeds in presenting his views with force and sincerity.

D. He displays readiness to accept responsibility.

6. At the same time he is flexible and has no rigid or predetermined views. (1) ACBD (2) DBAC (3) ACDB (4) BDAC

The right answer is BDAC. The first key is 1B. From the 1st statement “able to think” and from B statement “can think ahead”. Also, C6 is a key. From C statement “presenting his views with force” and from 6th statement “At the same time he is flexible”. This is true only for option (D), hence the answer. ========================================================================= === Question 14 Direction for question: Four statements A, B, C, and D are given between two statements 1 and 2. Statements (A, B, C, and D) are jumbled up. You have to select the option which indicates a logical sequencing of the six taken together. 1. He is an intelligent and well-informed candidate.

A. He is able to decide on the priorities with speed and accuracy.

B. He has significant capacity to motivate and carry his team-mates with him.

C. He is physically fit and mentally alert.

D. He takes reasonable risks unhesitantly.

6. He will prove a real asset to the organisation. (1) DCBA (2) DACB (3) DBAC (4) ACDB

The right answer is ACDB. Here 1A is a key. From statement 1, “an intelligent candidate”. A statement talks about setting priorities and that can be done by an intelligent person. This key is present in option (D). Thus (D) is the correct option choice. Question 15

Direction for question: Four statements A, B, C, and D are given between two statements 1 and 2. Statements (A, B, C, and D) are jumbled up. You have to select the option which indicates a logical sequencing of the six taken together.

1. More professional and responsible character should be bestowed on our sports federation.

A. Some minimum criteria for selection to a post should be prescribed.

B. A healthy public opinion should be generated.

C. Government's interference should be cut to the roots.

D. This will leave little room for government to make vested manoeuvres.

6. Exposure with the game should be the criteria for selection to a post of office bearers. (1) ADCB (2) ACBD (3) BDCA (4) DBAC

The right answer is BDCA . In this question, A statement is talking about some minimum criteria for a selection to a post. The 6th statement follows logically as it suggests criteria for selection to the post. So A6 is a strong key. Thus (C) is the correct option choice. ========================================================================= === Question 16 Direction for question: Select the option representing the best sequence of the four statements to make proper and coherent paragraph. A. to put pressure on the authorities in charge to

B. the inhuman treatment meted out to the inmates of

C. Indian prisons has once again forced the human rights activists

D. take steps to amend the same. (1) DACB (2) CABD (3) ABCD (4) BCAD

The right answer is BCAD.

Here BC have to be together as inhumane treatment matches with inmates of prison. C introduces human rights activists and A statement continues by talking about putting up pressure by those activities. So AC is also a key. This is true only for (D) option. Thus (D) is the correct answer. ========================================================================= === Question 17 Direction for question: Select the option representing the best sequence of the four statements to make proper and coherent paragraph.

A. one day be able to distinguish between the two realities of

B. life which are

C. it seems, extremely difficult, if not impossible, that humans will

D. objective individualism and selfishness (1) DBAC (2) CABD (3) CBAD (4) CADB

The right answer is CABD. AB is the key “two realities of life”. D logically follows as it tells about these two realities. The sequence ABD is present only in option (B). Thus, (B) is the correct answer. ========================================================================= === Question 18 Direction for question: Select the option representing the best sequence of the four statements to make proper and coherent paragraph. A. cannot be done away with completely because of

B. the so called fear of foreign aggression and the simultaneous

C. the inborn tendency of man to involve himself in violence

D. desire to gain world supremacy (1) DABC (2) CABD (3) DACB (4) CBAD

The right answer is CABD . C statement ends with “involve himself in violence”. The word ‘desire’ in D statement and “the so called” in B can’t continue the idea as it would be incorrect usage of words. Only A statement can follow C correctly. The key CA is present only in option (B). Thus (B) is the correct answer. ========================================================================= === Question 19 Direction for question: Select the option representing the best sequence of the four statements to make proper and coherent paragraph.

A. need them or as usual will adorn the

B. it is still a moot point whether the fruits of

C. corridors of power and the elite abodes

D. economic reforms In India will reach those who most urgently (1) DACB (2) DABC (3) BADC (4) BDAC

The right answer is BDAC. The only statement that can logically follow B statement is D. Obviously, “fruit of need them” or “fruit of corridors” does not make any sense. So the key is BD which is present only in option (D). Thus (D) is the correct answer. ========================================================================= ===

Question 20 Direction for question: Six statements A, B, C, D, E and F are given. You have to select the option which indicates the most logical sequencing.

A. A balanced diet is necessary for good health.

B. A balanced diet does not consist of vitamins only.

C. Vitamins prevent deficiency diseases.

D. Proteins too are important ingredient in a balanced diet.

E. Regular consumption of vitamins is essential.

F. Vitamins only are not necessary and sufficient for a good health. (1) BCD (2) ABC (3) CEF (4) ABF

The right answer is ABF. A statement talks about balance diet being necessary for good health. B says that vitamins only can’t give balanced diet. The concluding statement should be such that denies only vitamins to be sufficient of good health. This is done in statement F. Thus ABF i.e. option (D) is the correct answer. ========================================================================= === Question 21 Direction for question: Six statements A, B, C, D, E and F are given. You have to select the option which indicates the most logical sequencing. A. A witty person need not be humorous.

B. A witty man is an intelligent man.

C. Humour is never sarcastic.

D. A witty man can be sarcastic.

E. Sarcasm is often bitter.

F. An intelligent man can be sarcastic. (1) BDF (2) ABC (3) CDE (4) DEF

The right answer is BDF . B statement refers witty man as intelligent and D refers witty man as sarcastic. So, the most logical sentence to follow would be the one which talks of intelligent man being sarcastic. This is stated in F statement. So, BDF is a perfect sequence. Thus (A) is the correct answer.

========================================================================= === Question 22 Direction for question: Six statements A, B, C, D, E and F are given. You have to select the option which indicates the most logical sequencing.

A. Rubber trees ooze saps.

B. Tyres are made of sap from trees.

C. Rubber is made from tree-saps.

D. Rubber has been of many uses to mankind.

E. Rubber trees are an important source of raw material for industry.

F. Rubber may be an eco-friendly product. (1) ABC (2) ACF (3) ABE (4) DEF

The right answer is ACF . This is a classic example where we don’t have correct choices but have to look for the best choice. Inspite of statement F introducing a new concept, it will still be taken as the correct choices as the rest of the choices are wholly ambiguous. Hence, answer is (B). ========================================================================= === Question 23 Direction for question: Six statements A, B, C, D, E and F are given. You have to select the option which indicates the most logical sequencing. A. Politicians are scoundrels.

B. Football is a game for Americans.

C. Politicians love to play soccer.

D. Americans love politicians.

E. Americans love scoundrels.

F. Scoundrels are prohibited from football field. (1) FED (2) ABE (3) DAF (4) DAE

The right answer is DAE. ‘D’ statement says that Americans love politicians. ‘A’ statement terms Politicians as scoundrels. The next statement should be the one that should combine both the statements as Americans love scoundrels. Thus DAE is the correct combination. So, (D) is the correct option choice. ========================================================================= === Question 24 Direction for question: Six statements A, B, C, D, E and F are given. You have to select the option which indicates the most logical sequencing.

A. Suresh is Sudha’s grand father-in-law. B. Naresh is Suresh's son.

C. Mohan is one of two grandsons of Suresh. D. Kamla is Suresh's wife.

E. Kamla is Mohan's grand-mother. F. Mohan may be Sudha's husband or brother-in-law. (1) BAF (2) BCD (3) ACF (4) DEF

The right answer is ACF. A statement talks about Suresh and Sudha’s relation. C statement gives relation between Mohan and Suresh. The most logical sequence would be formed if the next statement suggests about Mohan and Sudha’s relation because Suresh is common in the first two statements. This is done in F. So, ACF is the correct sequence. Thus (C) is the correct answer. ========================================================================= === Question 25 Direction for question: Select the part that has an error.

(A) The Indian government's choice (B) of the EEC as a partner

(C) stem from the fact (D) that the community is the most important market for India. (1) (A) (2) (B) (3) (C) (4) (D)

The right answer is (C) . In the (C) part of the statement, it should be ‘stems’ instead of stem. So, (C) part has an error. ========================================================================= === Question 26 Direction for question: Select the part that has an error. (A) Privatisation generally represents

(B) an ideological response

(C) to the perceived problems (D) in the public sector (1) (A) (2) (B) (3) (C) (4) (D)

The right answer is (D). This is an easy one to crack if we known that correct preposition usage. The problems perceived will be ‘of’ the sector or anything about a point. Therefore, answer is (D). ========================================================================= === Question 27 The statement “Global companies have no future if the earth has no future” in the passage refers to : (1) the green revolution (2) the scarcity of natural resources programmes (4) a healthy natural environment (3) poverty eradication

The right answer is a healthy natural environment. From the 4th line of 1st para “a healthy natural environment, ……… earth ha no future”. Clearly the

author is talking about a peaceful co existence and healthy natural environment for the future of global companies. (D) option also contains the same idea. Thus (D) is correct option choice. ========================================================================= === Question 28 The author’s social inclination is obvious from the passage. (1) True (2) False (3) Indeterminate (4) None of these

The right answer is True. From the entire passage, we can infer that author is inclined towards the social face of globalization, companies, role of government and also about the environment. So we can say that we come to know about the social inclination of the author. Thus (A) i.e. True is the correct option choice. ========================================================================= === Question 29 Practicing kyosie leads to : (1) good international relations (2) a strong organizational structure market share (4) co-operative spirit in building a better world (3) profitable

The right answer is co-operative spirit in building a better world. From the 2nd para, 3rd line, kyosei has been explicitly referred as “spirit of cooperation”. From the 5th line of 2nd para “when practiced ……………. economic transformation.” This clearly indicates a sprit towards building a better world. So, (D) is the correct answer. ========================================================================= ===

Question 30 Kyosei, as propounded by author, if followed by corporate houses would lead to : (1) consumer-supplier synchronised relations (2) gains in the competitive international market for viable players (3) socio economic and political revolutions (4) renewal of the deteriorating environment

The right answer is socio economic and political revolutions.

3rd last line of 2nd para explicitly says, “kyosei can become a powerful source for social political and economic transformation”. This idea is clearly stated in option (C). Thus, (C) is the correct choice. ========================================================================= === Question 31 The need for kyosei in Canon was due to : (1) international trade developments (2) financial investment at global scale for internal corporate changes (4) none of the above (3) need

The right answer is international trade developments. The need for kyosie in Canon is discussed in para 3rd. The author has talked about ‘management’ of finance and not investment’, So, (B) can’t be the answer. The author has clearly talked about doing business on global scale, challenges, fierce competition etc. This clearly suggests that need of kyosie was due to international trade developments. Thus (A) is the correct answer. ========================================================================= === Question 32 The author’s “Global Activism role” can be best described as : (1) International outlook with a local feel (2) Local perspective for international edge (3) Managing technological strategies in the foreign market (4) Shifting the rules of competition

The right answer is Managing technological strategies in the foreign market. The author has explained global activism in 3rd last para. We can say that the author is talking about global activism in terms of business. Though the author has talked about local people but the main stress in on R and D facilities, technological etc. in the foreign market. This leads to “managing technological strategies in foreign market” as the correct option answer. Thus (C) is the correct option choice. ========================================================================= === Question 33 The cooperation within and outside the corporate organization necessitates : (1) competitive salaries and recruitment (2) a need to increase profit (3) dedicated research of the labour problems (4) a collective integration of promoting the company

The right answer is a collective integration of promoting the company. The cooperation within and outside is discussed in para 7th and 8th. From the 7th para, 2nd line “each employee makes……. company success”. From 8th line of 8th para “collaborate with customers…. all parties”. This clearly suggests that cooperation necessitates a collective integration for promoting a company. Thus, (D) is the correct option choice. ========================================================================= === Question 34 The theme of the passage is best reflected by the statement : (1) Global perspective for managing competitive industries (2) Building dynamic strategies around your organization (3) Canon, and the secret of its success by kyosei (4) Co-operation for the common good, through kyosei as shown by Canon

The right answer is Co-operation for the common good, through kyosei as shown by Canon. The passage revolves around kyosei. Canon is simply an example and so, it can’t be the main theme. Hence, (C) is eliminated. Global perspective and dynamic strategies have been talked about but through kyosei. Thus (A) and (B) are also eliminated. (D) is the most appropriate option choice and hence the answer. ========================================================================= === Question 35 As far as forests are concerned, there is a critical difference between the attitude of economists and : (1) government officials (2) forest-dwellers (3) forest officials (4) forest animals

The right answer is forest-dwellers. From the 2nd para, 3rd line “Forests are evaluated …… dynamic resource” These lines explicitly indicate the critical difference between the attitude of economists and forest dwellers. Thus (B) is the correct option choice. ========================================================================= === Question 36 No forest resource should be tapped beyond the : (1) feasible limit (2) renewal limit (3) economic limit (4) None of these

The right answer is renewal limit. 4th para, 2nd line explicitly says that no forest resource should be tapped beyond the renewal capacity. Thus (B) is the correct answer choice. ========================================================================= === Question 37 The rehabilitation stage is a/an : (1) moderate level of degradation (2) extreme level of degradation level of degradation (4) None of these (3) intermediate

The right answer is intermediate level of degradation . From 5th para, 3rd line “The rehabilitation is an intermediate level of degradation”. This is clearly stated in option (C). Thus (C) is the correct option choice. ========================================================================= === Question 38 Pilferage of wood accounts for : (1) the gap between for legitimate production and legitimate consumption (2) the gap between actual production and legitimate consumption (3) the gap between the legitimate production and consumption (4) the gap between the legitimate production and actual consumption

The right answer is the gap between the legitimate production and actual consumption. From the 3rd para, 3rd line, “The colossal gap between actual consumption and legitimate production of fuel wood is filled by pilferage”. The same idea is contained in option (D). Thus (D) is the correct answer. ========================================================================= === Question 39 “Forests are resilient by nature.” (1) True (2) False (3) Can’t say (4) None of these

The right answer is True.

From 5th para, last two lines tell that restoration is virtually irreversible. Resilient means, stubborn to change. So we can say that forests are resilient by nature. Thus, (A) i.e. true is correct answer. ========================================================================= ===

Question 40 The restoration stage represents a/an : (1) reversible process (2) economically infeasible process (4) restoration process (3) irreversible process

The right answer is irreversible process. From 5th para, 2nd last line, we can say that restoration is virtually irreversible. Thus (C) is the correct option choice. ========================================================================= === Question 41 At present, due to the huge population, sustainable exploitation of forest is : (1) impossible (2) possible (3) imperative (4) None of these

The right answer is imperative. The author is throughout the passage telling us that because of the increasing day−by−day population, the forests are being degenerated. There is also a problem that the land can’t be conserved too because of the same. Hence, the answer is (C). ========================================================================= === Question 42 The author objects to education being merely literary because : (1) 80% of our people do not know to read or write (2) it makes the learners unfit for manual labour (3) Printing books is expensive (4) None of the above

The right answer is it makes the learners unfit for manual labour. From the 3rd line “literary and to unfit boys and girls for manual work in after-life”. By this the author is clearly objecting to education being merely literary, as educated people can’t fit themselves in manual work. Thus (B) is the correct option choice. Question 43

The draflt5/wback of our education system is that : (1) it is confined to books (2) it gives no practical training to earn one’s bread (3) in a country where majority of people subsist on manual labour it weens the children away from labour (4) it is expensive

The right answer is in a country where majority of people subsist on manual labour it weens the children away from labour. The author does not say that our education system is confined to books. So, (A) is eliminated. Also, the author does not talk about “no practical training”. So (B) eliminated. The author’s idea reflects that education in public schools is expensive but that does not mean that education is expensive in govt. school also. So, (D) is eliminated. (C) option is the most relevant choice as author stresses on manual labor and feels that our education system is weaning children away from labor. Thus, (C) is the correct answer. ========================================================================= === Question 44 Pick out the statement that most closely expresses the sentiments of the author. (1) That education is best which makes a Tailor’s son a better tailor, a labourer’s son a better labourer (2) Let them earn for whatever they learn (3) Education ought to produce the sons of the soil and not take sons away from the soil (4) Cloth production is the only way for universal education

The right answer is Let them earn for whatever they learn. Education which makes a tailor’s son a better tailor can’t be referred as “best”. Also, cloth production can’t be the “only way” for universal education. So, A and D statements are eliminated. C statement talks about brain drain, “take sons away from soil”. So, it is absurd. Thus the only option that can be the answer is (B). ========================================================================= === Question 45 The author is most likely a/an : (1) Social Scientist Educationist (2) Policy advisor in the PMO at Delhi (3) Social Psychologist (4)

The right answer is Educationist . The entire passage is about education and the problems related to educating children. So, it is obvious that the author is an educationist. Thus, (D) is the correct option choice.

========================================================================= === Question 46 The tone of the passage is : (1) harsh and critical nostalgic (2) elucidatory and complacent (3) bitterly satirical (4)

The right answer is harsh and critical. There is no touch of satire, complacency or nostalgia in the stone of the passage. The author is infact being harsh and critical. So, (A) is the correct option choice. ========================================================================= === Question 47 Jefferson’s statement can be best interpreted as : (1) Knowledge is contrary to slavery (2) Ignorance cannot lead to freedom (3) Freedom can not survive amidst ignorance of economy (4) Ignorance and Freedom cannot co-exist

The right answer is Ignorance and Freedom cannot co-exist . From the 1st line of the passage itself, “If the nation ….. never will be”. This clearly means that ignorance and freedom cannot co−exist. Thus (D) is the correct option choice. ========================================================================= === Question 48 The author quotes the remark of Thomas Jefferson with the intent of: (1) stressing the invalidity of Education in a free society. education in sustaining free societies. (3) (2) stressing the crucial role of

stressing the lack of good educational institutions in our country. (4) stressing the importance of freedom.

The right answer is stressing the crucial role of education in sustaining free societies.. Option (D) is absurd in context to the passage as importance of freedom has not been discussed anywhere. (A) and (C) option are eliminated as they are contrary to what is said in the passage. The passage is talking about crucial role of education to produce leader and integrated personalities. Thus (B) is the correct option choice.

========================================================================= === Question 49 Nations are built through institutions that : (1) give education (2) impart training in leadership excellence (4) are founded by leaders (3) generate and preserve

The right answer is generate and preserve excellence. The author has discussed the role of educational institutions in the building of nation in the 2nd para. From 1st line of 2nd para, “institutions which aim at generating excellence”. This clearly leads us to option choice (C) as the correct answer. ========================================================================= === Question 50 The author is most likely a/an : (1) policy maker in defence marketing guru (2) creative analyst (3) newspaper columnist (4)

The right answer is newspaper columnist. Policy maker in defense, creative analyst and marketing guru are absurd in context to the passage. The only option that fits in the best is newspaper columnist. Thus, (C) is the correct answer choice. ========================================================================= === Question 51 If x is very large, then 2x/(1 + x) is (1) close to 0 (2) arbitrarily large (3) close to 2 (4) greater than 2 but less than 3

The right answer is close to 2.

=

When x

∞

0

Value of

⇒

= 2.

========================================================================= === Question 52 What is the smallest possible value of xy, if 2x – 4 ≥ 6 and 8 – y ≤ 5? (1) 30 (2) 150 (3) 15 (4) 52

The right answer is 15. 8–y≤5⇒y ≥3 2x – 4 ≥ 6 ⇒ x ≥ 5 Value of xy will be minimum when x = 5 & y = 3 And minimum value = 3 × 5 = 15. ========================================================================= === Question 53 A point on the line 3x + 5y = 15 and equidistant from the coordinate axes, lies in: (1) None of the quadrants quadrants, I, II and III only (2) quadrants I and II only (3) quadrant I only (4)

The right answer is quadrant I only. The line has positive x and y intercepts. ========================================================================= === Question 54

If α and β be roots (1) α + β = 0 (2) α = β

+

– 6 = 0; then

(3) α + β = 1 (4) α2 = β

The right answer is α + β = 0.

= x when x ≥ 0 = – x when x < 0 If x < 0, given equation is x2 – x – 6 = 0 ⇒ x = 3, –2, but x is negative so x = – 2 is a solution. If x ≥ 0 given equation is x2 + x – 6 = 0 ⇒ x = – 3, 2 but x is positive so x = 2 is a solution So the roots of equation are 2 and –2 sum of roots = 2 – 2 = 0 ========================================================================= === Question 55 The following figure shows a set of concentric squares. If the diagonal of the innermost square is 3 units, and if the distance between the corresponding corners of any two successive squares is 1.5 unit, find the difference between the areas of the eighth and the ninth square, counting from the innermost square.

(1) 67.5

(2) 76.5

(3) 3 (4) 153

The right answer is 76.5. The diagonal of the innermost square is 3 and the diagonals of subsequent squares increase by 3. So, the diagonals will take values 3, 6, 9, 12, ----. The diagonals of the 8th and the 9th squares will be 24 and 27 respectively. The areas of these squares will be ½ (24)2 and ½ (27)2, the difference between their areas is ½ (729-576) = 76.5. ========================================================================= === Question 56 A magazine distributor made 5500 copies of May issue of the magazine at a cost of Rs. 550,000. He gave 500 copies free to some libraries. He also allowed a 25% discount on the market price of the magazine and gave one extra copy free with every 49 copies bought at a time. In this manner, he was able to sell all the 5500 copies that were produced. If the market price of a copy was Rs. 200, what is his gain or loss per cent for the May issue of magazine? (1) 25% gain (2) 33.6% gain (3) 40% loss (4) 26.8% loss

The right answer is 33.6% gain. Number of copies produced = 5500 Free copies given away = 500 Number of copies left for sale = 5000 But he gives one copy free with every 49 copies. This means, for every 50 copies sold, he gets the price of

only 49 copies.

∴ For 5000 copies, he gets the price of × 49 = 4900 copies only. Market price of a copy = Rs. 200 Discount = 25% ∴ Selling price of a copy = 200 × 75/100 = Rs. 150 ∴ Selling price of 4900 copies = 4900 × 150 = Rs. 735000 Cost price = Rs. 550000 ∴ Gain = Rs. 185000 =33.6% of 550000. ========================================================================= === Question 57 The weight of an empty bucket is 25% of the weight of the bucket when filled with some liquid. Some of the liquid has been removed. Then, the bucket, along with the remaining liquid, weighed three-fifth of the original weight. What fractional part of the liquid has been removed? (1) 2/5 (2) 8/15 (3) 7/13 (4) 5/8

The right answer is 8/15. Let 100 units be the weight of the bucket filled with liquid. then this weight comprises 75 liquid and 25 units empty bucket weight of the bucket with some liquid removed = 3/5th of original weights = 60 units. Of this 60 units, 25 units is the weight of the empty bucket. Weight of the liquid removed = 75 – 35 = 40 units. Fraction of the liquid removed = 40/75 = 8/15. ========================================================================= === Question 58 Let y = min { ( x + 6), ( 4 – x)}. If x ∈ R, what is the maximum value of y?

(1) 4 (2) 5 (3) 6 (4) 10

The right answer is 5. Consider the graph of y = x + 6 and y = 4 – x as shown below.

At point P i.e. the point of intersection we get the maximum value of Y i.e. Min. of {(–1 + 6), ( 4 + 1)}. i.e. 5. ========================================================================= === Question 59 A sphere of diameter 40 cm is completely enclosing a right circular cone of height not more than 16 cm and base radius not more than 12 cm. The minimum volume of sphere still outside to cone would be: (1) nearly 99% of the sphere's volume (2) nearly 92% of the sphere's volume (3) not more than 25% of the sphere's volume (4) not more than 33.33% of the sphere's volume

The right answer is nearly 92% of the sphere's volume. Take the ratios of the volumes to get : Vol of cone ÷ Vol of sphere = 1/3 π r2h ÷ 4/3πR3 = 9/125 = 7.2%. ========================================================================= === Question 60 The following diagram represents a frustum of a cone whose bottom and top radii are 8 cm and 4 cm. Its height is 9 cm. There is a conical cavity to a height of 6 cm at the bottom. What is the ratio of conical cavity to the material in the solid?

(1) 6 : 13

(2) 8 : 13

(3) 13 : 21 (4) None of these

The right answer is 8 : 13 . The volume of frustum πh/3 (a2 + ab + b2) = π9/3 (64 + 32 + 16) = 336π The volume of the bottom cavity = 1/3 π (8). (8) (6) = 128π The remaining volume = 336π – 128π = 208π There fore required ratio = 128π : 208π = 8 : 13 ========================================================================= === Question 61

If + + + ………. function .What is the value of n? (1) 26 (2) 27 (3) 28 (4) 29

= 54. Where [ ] is the greatest integer

The right answer is 29.

[ [

] = [1] = 1, [

] = 1 …… [

]=1 ]=2

] = [2] = 2 ………………... [

[ ] = [3] = 3 …………..[ Given equation is

]=3

[ ]+[ ] + ………..[ ]=K If 1 ≤ n ≤ 7, then K = 1, 2, 3 …. 7 If 8 ≤ n ≤ 26 K = 9, 11, 13 …… 45 (odd terms only) If n = 26, K = 45 n = 27, K = 45 + 3 = 48 n = 28, K = 48 + 3 = 51 When n = 29, K = 54. [∴[ ] = 3]

========================================================================= === Question 62 Mrs. Kapoor goes to the market and after hassling with the fruit vendor is able to get the price of a dozen bananas reduced by Rs. 1, from the initial price. Thus she gets one banana extra for every rupee saved. The initial and final prices of a dozen bananas are (in Rs.) : (1) 9, 8 (2) 12, 11 (3) 14, 13 (4) 24, 23

The right answer is 12, 11. For option (2), initial price = Rs. 12 per dozen For 1 rupee, she could purchase 12/12 = 1 banana Thus she gets 1 banana extra for every rupee saved when she buys at the rate of Rs. 11 per dozen.

========================================================================= === Question 63 A company makes toy cars at a production cost of Rs 17.50 per unit. A market survey reveals that 10% of the product will be lost, 5% will be rejected, 5% will decay and 5% will be stolen. At what unit price must the company sell it to realize 28% profit? (1) Rs. 29.86 (2) Rs. 28 (3) Rs. 31.70 (4) Rs. 20.5

The right answer is Rs. 29.86. Total loss = (10 + 5 + 5 + 5) % = 25 %; CP = Rs. 17.5/unit SP for 28% profit = 1.28 x 17.5 = Rs. 22.4 / unit But 25% of the prodn. is lost For every unit. 0.75 reaches the market Required SP = 22.40 / 0.75 = Rs. 29.86 ========================================================================= === Question 64 Three friends divided some bullets equally. After all of them shot 4 bullets the total no. of remaining bullets is equal to that of one has after division. Find the original number divided. (1) 26 (2) 18 (3) 16 (4) 6

The right answer is 18. Let total no. of bullets: 3x. Each had x bullets. Original: x x x After shot: x–4 x–4 x–4 Now 3x-12 = x x = 6 total bullets = 3 × 6 = 18 ========================================================================= === Question 65 A natural number x is chosen at random from the first 150 natural numbers, then the

probability that (1) ½ (2)

11

is (3) 7/10 (4) None of these

/20

The right answer is 7/10. Favorable numbers for x + 1/x to be > 50 are 1,2, 48, 49,50, 51….... 150. ∴ Favorable number of cases = 105, and Total number of cases = 150. ∴ Required probability = 105/150 = 7/10. ========================================================================= === Question 66 Direction for question (x) = Least integer greater than or equal to x, [x] = Greatest integer less than or equal to x, |x| = absolute value of x, mn ( a, b, c, ……) = Least of a, b, c, ……. mx ( a, b, c, ……) = Highest of a, b, c, …. If x is any real number then the value of (x) - [x] is (1) 0 (2) 1 (3) – 1 (4) 1 or 0

The right answer is 1 or 0. If x is any integer then [x] = (x) ⇒ (x) - [x] = 0. if x is a positive number other than integer then it can be written as n + f where n is it’s integral part and f is it’s fractional part ∴ (x) – [x] = (n + 1) – n = 1. This is also true if x is any negative number. ========================================================================= === Question 67 Direction for question: (x) = Least integer greater than or equal to x, [x] = Greatest integer less than or equal to x, |x| = absolute value of x, mn (a, b, c, ……) = Least of a, b, c, ……. mx ( a, b, c, ……) = Highest of a, b, c, ….

Which of the following holds good? (1) [|x|] = | [x ] | (2) [ | x | ] < | [ x ] | (3) [ | x | ] > | [ x]| (4) None of these

The right answer is [ | x | ] < | [ x ] |. Let x = n + f where n is its integral part & f is its fractional part. ∴ | x | = n + f if x is positive and | x | = – n – f if x is negative. If x is – ve, then | x | = -n –f . ∴ [ | x | ] = -n and | [x] | is always non negative. Hence the alternative (2) holds good. ========================================================================= ===

Question 68 Direction for question (x) = Least integer greater than or equal to x, [x] = Greatest integer less than or equal to x, |x| = absolute value of x, mn ( a, b, c, ……) = Least of a, b, c, ……. mx ( a, b, c, ……) = Highest of a, b, c, …. If mx (mn (a, b) |a|, | b| ) = mn ( mx (a, b), |a| ) holds good for any two real numbers a and b, then (1) a < 0, b < 0 (2) a < 0, b > 0 (3) a > 0, b < 0 (4) a > 0, b > 0

The right answer is a > 0, b > 0. By considering different cases a > b and a < b, it can be verified that the only alternative that holds good is Answer (D). ========================================================================= === Question 69 Bag A contains X coins of 50 paise and Y coins of 25 paise. Bag B contains X coins of 25 paise and Y coins of 50 paise. If two coins of 50 paise from bag A are put into bag B and 3 coins of 25 paise from bag B are put into bag A, the value of money in both the bags will become equal. What may be the minimum value of the total amount in both the bags? (1) Rs 10 (2) Rs 3 (3) Rs 4 (4) Rs 1.25

The right answer is Rs 3. Bag A Bag B Value of money originally 50X + 25Y 50Y + 25X Value of money after transfer 50X + 25Y – 25 50Y+ 25X + 25 By data 50X + 25Y – 25 = 50Y + 25X + 25. Therefore 25X – 25Y = 50. That is X = Y + 2. The total value of money in both the bags is 75X + 75Y = 75 (Y + 2 + Y) = 75 (2Y + 2) = 150 (Y + 1). By considering the minimum value 1 for Y, the minimum value of money in both the bags = 300 paise = 3 Rs. ========================================================================= === Question 70 Mr. Jill requires Rs 6000 per month to maintain his family. He saves 20% of any amount that he earns above Rs. 6000 but below Rs 7000 in a month. He saves 30% of amount that he earns above Rs 7000 but below Rs 8000 in a month. If Mr. Jill spends Rs 6975 on a month, what is his income for that month? (1) Rs 7150 (2) Rs 7250 (3) Rs 7500 (4) Rs 7100

The right answer is Rs 7250. Let his income be (6000 + X) Rs. He could speed S = 6000 + 80% of X if 0 ≤ X ≤ 1000. The greatest value of S = 6800 Rs. But the expenditure give is Rs. 6975. Which is greater than S. Therefore his income is > 7000. Let it be (7000 + Y) Rs. ⇒ 6000 + 800 + 70.Y/100 = 6975 Rs. On solving 7Y/10 = 175 ⇒ Y = 250 Income for the month is Rs. 7250 ========================================================================= === Question 71 All possible two-factor products are formed from the numbers 1, 2, ….,100. The number of factors out of the total obtained which are multiple of 3 is (1) 2211 (2) 4950 (3) 2739 (4) None of these

The right answer is 2739. The total number of two factor products = 100C2. Out of the numbers 1, 2, 3, …, 100; the multiples of 3 are 3, 6, 9, …, 99 i.e., there are 33 multiples of 3, and therefore there are 67 non-multiples of 3. So, the number of two factor products which hare not multiples of 3 = 67C2 So, the required number = 100C2 – 67C2 = 2739. ========================================================================= === Question 72 The number of ways in which ten candidates A1, A2, ….A10 can be ranked such that A1 is always above A10 is

(1) 5!

(2) 2 (5!)

(3) 10! (4)

(10!)

The right answer is

(10!).

========================================================================= === Question 73 In the figure EFGH is formed by joining midpoints of consecutive sides of square KLMN. Figures PQRS and ABCD are also formed similarly.

ABCD : KLMN is :

(1) 1 : 4

(2) 1 : 8

(3) 1 : 16 (4) None of these

The right answer is 1 : 8. If area of ABCD = A, Areas of outer squares are each two times the inner one’s, hence Area of KLMN = 2 × 2 × 2 × A = 8A. Hence ratio = 1 : 8. ========================================================================= === Question 74 A square of side 3 cm is taken and two equilateral triangles are drawn on the opposite sides. Find the area common to both triangles.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None of these

The right answer is None of these .

Equilateral Δ's are APB & DMC ∠ABN = 60, ∠NBC = 30 ∠NCB,

∠BNC = 120, BC = 3 cm

According to sine formula

= NP = 3 – = (BP – NB) ∴ IN ΔNPQ ∠N = ∠QNP = ∠PQN = 60

⇒

=

⇒ BN =

∴Δ is equilateral

Common area = 2 × Area ΔNPQ = 2 × = (3 – )2 = (9 + 3 – 6

× (side)2 )=6 (2 – ) cm2 .

========================================================================= Question 75 Directions for question: A painter is given a task to paint a cubical box with six different colours for different faces of the cube. The detailed account of it is given as:(a) Red face should lie between Yellow and Brown faces. (b) Green face should be adjacent to the silver face. (c) Pink face should lie adjacent to the Green face. (d) Yellow face should lie opposite to the Brown one. (e) Brown face should face down. (f) Silver and Pink faces should lie opposite to each other. The face opposite to Red is (1) Yellow (2) Green (3) Pink (4) Silver

The right answer is Green. Make a cube to get the answer

========================================================================= === Question 76 Directions for question: A painter is given a task to paint a cubical box with six different colours for different faces of the cube. The detailed account of it is given as:(a) Red face should lie between Yellow and Brown faces. (b) Green face should be adjacent to the silver face. (c) Pink face should lie adjacent to the Green face. (d) Yellow face should lie opposite to the Brown one. (e) Brown face should face down. (f) Silver and Pink faces should lie opposite to each other. The upper face is (1) Red (2) Pink (3) Yellow (4) Silver

The right answer is Yellow. Make a cube to get the answer

========================================================================= === Question 77 Directions for question: A painter is given a task to paint a cubical box with six different colours for different faces of the cube. The detailed account of it is given as:(a) Red face should lie between Yellow and Brown faces. (b) Green face should be adjacent to the silver face. (c) Pink face should lie adjacent to the Green face. (d) Yellow face should lie opposite to the Brown one. (e) Brown face should face down. (f) Silver and Pink faces should lie opposite to each other. The faces adjacent to Green are

(1) Yellow, Pink, Red, Silver Yellow, Pink, Green

(2) Brown, Pink, yellow, Silver

(3) Silver, Pink, Green (4)

The right answer is Brown, Pink, yellow, Silver .

Question 78 Directions for question: A painter is given a task to paint a cubical box with six different colours for different faces of the cube. The detailed account of it is given as:(a) Red face should lie between Yellow and Brown faces. (b) Green face should be adjacent to the silver face. (c) Pink face should lie adjacent to the Green face. (d) Yellow face should lie opposite to the Brown one. (e) Brown face should face down. (f) Silver and Pink faces should lie opposite to each other. The face opposite to Silver is (1) Pink (2) Brown (3) Red (4) Green

The right answer is Pink. Make a cube to get the answer

========================================================================= === Question 79 Directions for question: A painter is given a task to paint a cubical box with six different colours for different faces of the cube. The detailed account of it is given as:(a) Red face should lie between Yellow and Brown faces. (b) Green face should be adjacent to the silver face. (c) Pink face should lie adjacent to the Green face. (d) Yellow face should lie opposite to the Brown one. (e) Brown face should face down. (f) Silver and Pink faces should lie opposite to each other. Three of the faces adjacent to Red face are (1) Silver, Green, Brown Pink, Green (2) Silver, Brown, Pink (3) Silver, Pink, Green (4) Yellow,

The right answer is Silver, Brown, Pink. Make a cube to get the answer

========================================================================= === Question 80 (AA)2 = DCBA. where A, B, C and D are the distinct digits and B is odd. Then D = (1) 5 (2) 6 (3) 4 (4) 3

The right answer is 4. Now square of a two digit no. is ending with the same digit in which the no. is ending

This is possible only when the last digit is either 0, 1, 5 or 6 Considering these our no. (AA) can’t be 00 and 11 Now 552 = 3025. But here B is an even no. 662 = 4356. This is the obvious no. and it is satisfying our given conditions. Thus D = 4. ========================================================================= === Question 81 A certain clock marks every hour by striking a number of times equal to the hour and the time required for a stroke is exactly equal to the time interval between strokes. At 9 : 00 a.m. the time lapse between the beginning of the first stroke and the end of the last stroke is 34 seconds. At 18 : 00 hrs. how many seconds elapse between the beginning of the first stroke and the end of the last stroke : (1) 70 (2) 43 (3) 36 (4) 22

The right answer is 22. At 9:00 a.m. there are 9 stokes and 8 intervals between strokes. Thus for 17 equal time intervals, Time = 34 sec. ⇒ For 1 interval time = 2 seconds. At 18:00 hours i.e. (6:00 p.m.) there are 6 strokes and 5 intervals i.e. total 11 time intervals of 2 seconds. ⇒ Ans = 22 seconds. ========================================================================= === Question 82 Directions for question: 485 machine parts were to be manufactured by some workers in 5 days. Every day after the first, 4 more men were put onto the job and every day after the first, each person manufactured 3 fewer parts. The results was that during the latter part of the period, the daily number of manufactured part began to go down What was the no. of parts manufactured on the third day? (1) 196 (2) 121 (3) 81 (4) 172

The right answer is 121. On the third day let there are x workers and each manufactured n parts. Then the total no. of parts manufactured in 5 days = (x – 8) (n + 6) + (x – 4) ( n + 3) + (x) (n) + (x + 4) (n – 3) + (x + 8) (n – 6) = 485 ⇒ 5nx – 120 = 485 ⇒ nx = 121 = 11 × 11from here we can say that there are 11 men and each manufactured 11 parts on the third day.No. of workers on the fifth day = x + 8 = 11 + 8 = 19 ========================================================================= ===

Question 83 Directions for question: 485 machine parts were to be manufactured by some workers in 5 days. Every day after the first, 4 more men were put onto the job and every day after the first, each person manufactured 3 fewer parts. The results was that during the latter part of the period, the daily number of manufactured part began to go down.

What was the attendance on the fifth day? (1) 24 (2) 20 (3) 22 (4) 19

The right answer is 19. On the third day let there are x workers and each manufactured n parts. Then the total no. of parts manufactured in 5 days = (x – 8) (n + 6) + (x – 4) ( n + 3) + (x) (n) + (x + 4) (n – 3) + (x + 8) (n – 6) = 485 ⇒ 5nx – 120 = 485 ⇒ nx = 121 = 11 × 11 from here we can say that there are 11 men and each manufactured 11 parts on the third day.No. of workers on the fifth day = x + 8 = 11 + 8 = 19 ========================================================================= === Question 84 A sum of Rs 3328 is divided among A, B and C so that if Rs. 35, Rs. 51 and Rs. 74 be diminished from their shares respectively, the remainders shall be in the ratio of 9 : 11 : 16. Find the share of each. (1) Rs. 827, 1019, 1482 1061, 1470 (2) Rs. 909, 1010, 1409 (3) Rs. 846, 1042, 1440 (4) Rs. 797,

The right answer is Rs. 827, 1019, 1482. Ratio of the remainders = 9 : 11 : 16 Let the Remainders are =9x, 11x, 16x Original money of A, B , & C = 9x + 35, 11x + 51, 16x + 74 Total money = A+ B +C = 3328 36x = 3328-74-51-35 x = 88 Now, share of A = 9x + 35 = Rs .827 Similarly others are Rs. 1019 & Rs. 1482. ========================================================================= ===

Question 85

The factors of (

) are

(1) not possible

(2) (

)(

)

(3) (

+

)(

–

)

(4) (

+

)(

–

)

The right answer is (

+

)(

–

)

.

(

)=(

)2 + (

)2 + 2.

.

–

=(

)2 – (

)2

(

+

)(

–

)

========================================================================= === Question 86 Directions for question: Two bugs are climbing a slippery wall. At time ‘t’ = 0, both are at the bottom of the wall. Bug A climbs at the rate of 3 inches a minute. Bug B climbs at the rate of 4 inches a minute. Due to the slippery wall, however, Bug A slips back 1 inch for every 2 inches climbed and bug B 1.5 inches for every 2 inches. Moreover bug A takes a rest of 1 minute after every 2 minutes and Bug B, a rest of 1 minute after every 3 minutes. Assume that slipping occurs continuously when climbing.

At what height do the two bugs meet each other?

(1) Do not meet

(2) 3 inches

(3) 5 inches (4) 12 inches

The right answer is 3 inches. Solutions 87 – 91:

TIME Bug A Bug B Bug B (no rest)

1 1.5

2 3

3 3

4 4.5

5 6

6 6

7 7.5

8 9

9 9

10 10.5

11 12

1

2

3

3

4

5

6

6

7

8

9

1

2

3

4

5

6

7

8

9

10

11

3 inches. =============================================================== =============

Question 87 Directions for question: Two bugs are climbing a slippery wall. At time ‘t’ = 0, both are at the bottom of the wall. Bug A climbs at the rate of 3 inches a minute. Bug B climbs at the rate of 4 inches a minute. Due to the slippery wall, however, Bug A slips back 1 inch for every 2 inches climbed and bug B 1.5 inches for every 2 inches. Moreover bug A takes a rest of 1 minute after every 2 minutes and Bug B, a rest of 1 minute after every 3 minutes. Assume that slipping occurs continuously when climbing. What is the widest gap achieved between the bugs, within the first 10 minutes ?

(1) 2 inches

(2) 3 inches

(3) 2.5 inches (4) 5 inches

The right answer is 3 inches. 3 inches at t = 8. ========================================================================= === Question 88 Directions for question: Two bugs are climbing a slippery wall. At time ‘t’ = 0, both are at the bottom of the wall. Bug A climbs at the rate of 3 inches a minute. Bug B climbs at the rate of 4 inches a minute. Due to the slippery wall, however, Bug A slips back 1 inch for every 2 inches climbed and bug B 1.5 inches for every 2 inches. Moreover bug A takes a rest of 1 minute after every 2 minutes and Bug B, a rest of 1 minute after every 3 minutes. Assume that slipping occurs continuously when climbing. If Bug B does not have rest periods, how many times do the bugs meet in the first 10 minutes? (1) 6 (2) 1 (3) 2 (4) 3

The right answer is 3. At t = 3, 6, 9. ========================================================================= === Question 89 Directions for question: Two bugs are climbing a slippery wall. At time ‘t’ = 0, both are at the bottom of the wall. Bug A climbs at the rate of 3 inches a minute. Bug B climbs at the rate of 4 inches a minute. Due to the slippery wall, however, Bug A slips back 1 inch for every 2 inches climbed and bug B 1.5 inches for every 2 inches. Moreover bug A takes a rest of 1 minute after every 2 minutes and Bug B, a rest of 1 minute after every 3 minutes. Assume that slipping occurs continuously when climbing. If the wall is 1 foot high, but when A reaches the top, how far is Bug B behind? (1) 3 inches (2) 2 inches (3) 2.5 inches (4) 3.5 inches

The right answer is 3 inches. ========================================================================= ===

Question 90 Directions for question: Two bugs are climbing a slippery wall. At time ‘t’ = 0, both are at the bottom of the wall. Bug A climbs at the rate of 3 inches a minute. Bug B climbs at the rate of 4 inches a minute. Due to the slippery wall, however, Bug A slips back 1 inch for every 2 inches climbed and bug B 1.5 inches for every 2 inches. Moreover bug A takes a rest of 1 minute after every 2 minutes and Bug B, a rest of 1 minute after every 3 minutes. Assume that slipping occurs continuously when climbing. What is the average speed of Bug A for the first 9 minutes? (1) 1.75 in/min (2) 1 in/min (3) 0.75 in/min (4) 2 in/min

The right answer is 1 in/min. distance/time = 9/9 = 1 inch/min. ========================================================================= === Question 91 Two trains start from stations A and B spaced 50 kms apart at the same time and speed. As the trains start, a bird flies from one train towards the other and on reaching the second train, it flies back to the first train. This is repeated till the trains collide. If the speed of the trains is 25 km/h and that of the bird is 100km/h. How much did the bird travel till the collision? (1) 98.75 km (2) 100 km (3) 95.5 km (4) None of these

The right answer is 100 km. Collision took place after 1 hour ( distance / relative speed of trains or 50/50). Bird travelled for one hour before collision.In one hour it travelled 100 km as speed is 100kmph. ========================================================================= === Question 92 Ram, Shyam and Gumnaam are friends. Ram is a widower and lives alone and his sister takes care of him. Shyam is a bachelor and his niece cooks his food and looks after his house. Gumnaam is married to Gita and lives in large house in the same town. Gita gives the idea that all of them could stay together in the house and share monthly expenses equally. During their first month of living together, each person contributed Rs.25. At the end of the month, it was found that Rs 92 was the expense so the remaining amount was distributed equally among everyone. The distribution was such that everyone received a whole number of Rupees. How much did each person receive? (1) 4 (2) 2 (3) Not possible (4) None of these

The right answer is 2. Rs. 2 (Ram’s sister, Shyam's neice and Gumnaam's wife are the same person). ========================================================================= Question 93 Directions for question: N, a set of natural numbers is partitioned into subsets – S1 = {1} S2 = (2, 3) S3 {4, 5, 6} S4 = {7, 8, 9, 10} and so on. The first term of the subset S25 is : (1) 201 (2) 301 (3) 402 (4) 160

The right answer is 301. In S25, the first term = (25 – 1) 25/2 + 1 = 301. ========================================================================= === Question 94 Directions for question: N, a set of natural numbers is partitioned into subsets – S1 = {1} S2 = (2, 3) S3 {4, 5, 6} S4 = {7, 8, 9, 10} and so on. The sum of the elements of the subset S30 is : (1) 12505 (2) 14115 (3) 13515 (4) 16505

The right answer is 13515. First term of S30 = 436 ⇒ S30 = {436, 437 … 30 terms} = 13515 (using A.P.) ========================================================================= === Question 95 Directions for question: N, a set of natural numbers is partitioned into subsets – S1 = {1} S2 = (2, 3) S3 {4, 5, 6} S4 = {7, 8, 9, 10} and so on. The last term of the subset S15 is : (1) 120 (2) 125 (3) 130 (4) 145

The right answer is 120. T1 of S15 = 106 T15 of S15 = 106 + (15-1) x 1 = 120. ========================================================================= === Question 96 180 guests have to be brought for a marriage. The following two types of buses are available ; 1. Mini buses with a seating capacity of 18 passengers each. 2. Buses with a seating capacity of 61 passenger each. What are the minimum No. of buses needed for the trip provided no guest is to travel without seat. (1) 3 (2) 4 (3) 6 (4) 10

The right answer is 3. For 180 guests, 3 buses are sufficient (of capacity 61). ========================================================================= === Question 97

The capacity of tank B is 1000 lts and that of tank A = 3000 lts Tank B is completely inside tank A. 1, 3 are inlet pipes; 2, 4 outlet pipes. 1 takes 20 min to fill tank A 3 takes 10 min to fill tank B 4 takes 40 min to empty tank B 2 takes 20 min to empty tank A If all the pipes are opened when would the tank A be filled?

(1) 30 min

(2)

min

(3)

min (4) None of these

The right answer is 30 min .

Inlet rate of 1, 3 are Outlet rate of 2, 4 are

lt/min and and

It/min i.e. 150 It/min and 100It /min. i.e. 150 Its/min and 25 Its/min.

Hence Tank A takes

= 30 min (or) Alternately it takes

or 30 min.

========================================================================= === Question 98 In the figure find b in terms of a. c & d.

(1) b = c + d – a

(2) b = ( c + d – a) /2

(3) b = a – c + d (4) b = a – c – d

The right answer is b = c + d – a.

r = w + X = Y + Z (external angle of triangle) ⇒ (360o – a) + (360o – b) = (360o – c) + (360o – d) (angles at a point) ⇒b=c+d–a

========================================================================= === Question 99

If bc : ac : ab = 1 : 2: 3, find (1) 3 : 2 (2) 4 : 1 (3) 2 : 1 (4) 3 : 4

The right answer is 4 : 1. bc/ac = 1/2 = ⇒ a:b=2:1 =4:1

========================================================================= === Question 100 A train, travelling at the rate of 19.5 miles an hour started at 8.00 a.m. on a journey of 234 miles. A second train started from the same station; its speed was to that of the former as 8 : 5 and arrived 20 minutes after the first time. When did the second train start? (1) 12.50 p.m. (2) 1.30 p.m. (3) 11 a.m. (4) 10.30 a.m.

The right answer is 12.50 p.m..

Time taken by first train = = 12 hrs. i.e. it reach at 8 p.m. Next train reaches at 8.20 pm.

Time taken by 2nd train = × 12 = 7.5 hrs = 7 hrs 30 min. So it starts 7 hrs 30 min before 8:20 i.e. 12:50 pm. ========================================================================= === Question 101 Which bank showed a loss whose deviation from the average was maximum? (1) Indian Bank (2) Vijaya Bank (3) Central Bank (4) United Bank

The right answer is Indian Bank.

Solutions 101 – 105: For 1995-96, the net losses incurred by the banks are around : Indian Bank – 1350; Vijaya – 250; UCO – 250; United – 250; Punjab and Sind – 150; Central – 100. The average net loss was (2350/6) = 325. Indian Bank shows a maximum deviation from this average. ‘Can be observed directly. Notice that excepting IB, all are in similar losses. This implies the average to be nearer them than IB viz., IB deviation maximum. ========================================================================= === Question 102 Which of the following is true? I. The loss incurred by Indian Bank is equal to the loss incurred by all the other banks given II. If the Reserve Bank of India ploughs in approx. Rs. 2300 crore, the losses suffered by the given banks can be offset. III. Indian Bank will almost surely lose its popularity soon. (1) I & II (2) II only (3) II & III (4) I, II & III

The right answer is II only. Since the total net loss is 2350, the Reserve Bank of India would have to plough in around 2300 to offset this loss. The validity of the other statements cannot be determined on the basis of the information provided. In fact since all options accept second statement as true, this need not be computed. ========================================================================= === Question 103 Finding no other alternative of increasing the income, Vijaya Bank decided to generate income by raising the lending rates. If the total amount loaned out by it was Rs. 8250 crore, by how many percent points would it have to increase the lending rates so as to offset its losses? (1) Around 5 (2) Around 2.5 (3) Around 1 (4) Can't determine

The right answer is Can't determine. Loss of 250 is 3% of 8250. So, if lending rate is increased by 3%, losses can be offset. Note that the value 250 is an approximation, so the answer cannot be exact. ========================================================================= ===

Question 104 The total assets of Indian Bank are Rs. 75000 crore. The assets of Vijaya Bank, UCO Bank, United Bank, Punjab & Sind Bank, Central Bank are respectively 23%, 19%, 17%, 13% & 12% of the assets of the Indian Bank. Which of the following banks shows the maximum loss per crore rupees of assets? (1) Indian (2) Vijay (3) UCO (4) United

The right answer is United. The assets of the all the other banks are less than 25% of Indian Bank’s assets. It we assume that the assets of all the other banks are 25%, it is easier to compare figures without actually calculating :

Indian Bank Loss Assets 1350 75,000

Vijaya

UCO

United

Punjab & Sind 150 9,750

Central

250 17,250

250 1,420

250 12,750

100 9,000

Thus, it can be seen that the maximum loss per crore rupees of assets is incurred by Indian Bank. ========================================================================= Question 105 The total assets of Indian Bank are Rs. 75000 crore. The assets of Vijaya Bank, UCO Bank, United Bank, Punjab & Sind Bank, Central Bank are respectively 23%, 19%, 17%, 13% & 12% of the assets of the Indian Bank. What change would have to be made in the assets of the Indian Bank if its loss per crore of asset was to be made equal to that in case of Central Bank? (1) They will have to be increased by 62% They will have to be reduced by 15% They will have to be reduced by 25% (2) (4)

(3) They will have to be increased by 215%

The right answer is They will have to be increased by 62%. To make the loss per crores of rupees equal to Central Bank, Indian Bank has to increase its assets. Therefore, 1350/x = 100/9000. Thus, x = 1,21,500 This is an increase of (1,21,500 – 75,000), i.e., 46,500, i.e., 62% Note the even if we approximate as 1350/x = 75/9000, x = 1,62,000, i.e., increase of 116%. So, closest option is chosen. ========================================================================= ===

Question 106 What percentage of the total population in 1971 drank coffee? (1) 45% (2) 50% (3) 20% (4) None of these

The right answer is 45%. × 100 = 45%. ========================================================================= === Question 107 The increase in woman coffee drinkers from 1971 to 1981 was about (1) 233% (2) 80% (3) 120 % (4) 133%

The right answer is 133%.

× 100 =

× 100 = 133%.

========================================================================= === Question 108 The number of children who drink either beverage increased over the two periods by (1) 37000 (2) 9500 (3) 28000 (4) 37500

The right answer is 37500. 40000 – 2500 = 37500 ========================================================================= === Question 109 In 1971, out of every 100 men, how many drank neither coffee nor tea (assume that there was nobody drink both)? (1) 30 (2) 27.3 (3) 28.5 (4) None of these

The right answer is 27.3. × 100 = 27.3 ========================================================================= === Question 110 In 1981, how many children drank milk? (1) 140000 (2) 100000 (3) 140000 (4) can't say

The right answer is can't say. ========================================================================= === Question 111 Which is the smallest island? (1) Zog (2) Zob (3) Zop (4) None of the above

The right answer is Zog. Solutions 111 – 115: The smallest island has The largest is zod One island has × 750 = 75 Zoxians [from (1)]

× 150 = 150 Zoxians

Another has × 750 = 250 Zoxians Zob = 1.5 × one of the islands Zop = 100 + 75 = 175 ∴ the fifth island has = 750 –(75 + 150 + 250 + 175) = 100 Zoxians The smallest island is not Zod [form 2] not Zoz [form 2] not Zob [form 4] not Zop [form 5] ∴ the smallest island is Zog = 75 Zop = 175 Zob =1.5 × 100 = 150 Zod = 250 Zoz = 100

========================================================================= === Question 112 What is the sum of the population of Zod and Zob? (1) 275 (2) 250 (3) 325 (4) 400

The right answer is 400. ========================================================================= === Question 113 What is the sum of population of Zop and Zoz? (1) 250 (2) 275 (3) 350 (4) 400

The right answer is 275. ========================================================================= Question 114 The sum of the population of which two islands is more than half the total population of Zox? (1) Zod and Zop (2) Zod and Zob (3) Zod and Zoz (4) Both option (A) & (B)

The right answer is Both option (A) & (B). ========================================================================= === Question 115 What is the population of the island of Zoz? (1) 75 (2) 100 (3) 150 (4) 150

The right answer is 100. ========================================================================= ===

Question 116 Procter and Gamble's turnover from the two personal care segments amounted to what percentage approximately of the total turnover in these segments of the entire market? (1) 34% (2) 30% (3) 27% (4) None of these

The right answer is 30%.

× 100 = 30%. ========================================================================= === Question 117 If J.K. Helen Curtis is to get a market share in the disposable diapers market equal to that it has in feminine care product, what should it s turnover (Rs. crores) in this segments be given that the sales of other companies in disposable diapers market does not change? (1) 1 (2) 2.3 (3) 1.11 (4) None of these

The right answer is 1.11. 10 crores = 90/100 × New Market 11.11 = New Market ∴ 10% of New Market = 1.11. ========================================================================= === Question 118 If the market size of the feminine care products increases by 25%, the turnover of Johnson and Johnson in this segment will increase by how many crores of rupees (assume the market shares of various companies remain the same) ? (1) 10.25 (2) 13 (3) 11.25 (4) None of these

The right answer is 11.25 . (75 × 60/100) 0.25 = 11.25. ========================================================================= ===

Question 119 The percentage share of Johnson and Johnson in the two personal care market segments together is greater than the percentage share of Regency Drapers in these two segment together by how many percentage points. (1) 50.8 (2) 25.3 (3) 42 (4) None of these

The right answer is 50.8. J & J = 45 + 0.2 = 45.2 crores

⇒ % share = (

× 100)

R.D = 2 => % share = Difference in % points = 50.82.

× 100)

========================================================================= === Question 120 If in value terms all the other companies retain their share of the diapers market, by how much (Rs crores) should Procter and Gamble's turnover in this segment increase to get a 25% share? (1) 2.93 (2) 3.23 (3) 2.52 (4) None of these

The right answer is 2.93. If the increase in P & G’s market is Rs. x crores, then for the market share to increase from present 3% to (i.e. 0.3 crores) to 25%, we have

= 0.25 ⇒ 0.3 + x = 2.5 + 0.25x

0.75x = 2.2 ⇒ × = x = 8.8/3 = 2.93

= 2.2 ×

========================================================================= === Question 121 What was the proportion of Hydel generation in total electricity generation in May 1996? (1) 15% (2) 20% (3) 25% (4) None of these

The right answer is 15%. Solutions 121 – 125: As the table gives us the percent change over the last 1, 3 and 12 months, these values can be calculated. In June 1996, hydel generation has shown an increase of 2.4% over May 1996, whereas, the total electricity generation has shown a decrease of 8.4%. In May 1996, hydel generation and total electricity generation were 4920 and 33060 respectively. So, hydel generation formed around 15% of the total electricity generated. ========================================================================= === Question 122 What was the thermal generation in March 1996 (million kwh)? (1) 38919 (2) 28919 (3) 20000 (4) None of these

The right answer is 28919. In June 1996, thermal generation has shown a drop of 12.7% over the generation in March 1996. So, the thermal generation in March 1996 was 28919. ========================================================================= === Question 123 What was the total power generation in January 1996 (million kwh)? (1) 40000 (2) 50000 (3) 30000 (4) Can't determine

The right answer is Can't determine. Since the percentage change over January 1996 is not available, the total power generated in January 1996 cannot be determined. ========================================================================= === Question 124 What was the proportion of Thermal generation in total electricity generation in June 1995? (1) 80% (2) 70% (3) 60% (4) 50%

The right answer is 80%. Thermal generation and total generation in June 1996 have increased by 2.7% and decreased by 2% respectively as compared to June 1995. Thus, in June 1995, thermal generation was 24580 and the total generation was 30900. So, thermal generation formed around 80% of the total generation. ========================================================================= === Question 125 What was the ratio of hydel generation to thermal generation in March 1996? (1) 1 : 6 (2) 1 : 3 (3) 1 : 9 (4) None of these

The right answer is 1 : 6.

In June 1996, hydel generation showed an increase of 2.3% over the generation in March 1996. So, hydel generation in March 1996 was 4924 and the thermal generation was 28919. This is in the ratio 1 : 6.

Question 126 Who is the heaviest of the lot of five children? (1) Sio (2) Phren (3) Jorn (4) Ontrus

The right answer is Phren . Ounces Jorn Duloc Phren Sio Ontrus 4.1 3.9 5.8 4.6 1.4 Qinae 45.1 42.9 63.8 50.6 15.4

Question 127 What is the difference between the percentage difference in weight of Sio and Phren in ounces and qinae? (1) 12 (2) 36 (3) 48 (4) None of the above

The right answer is None of the above . There will be no difference. ========================================================================= === Question 128 What is the Phren’s weight on Earth (in Ounces) (1) 5.8 (2) 4.6 (3) 4.1 (4) 3.9

The right answer is 5.8. ========================================================================= === Question 129 What is Ontru’s weight on Nolu si? (1) 15.4 (2) 42.9 (3) 45.1 (4) 50.6

The right answer is 15.4. ========================================================================= === Question 130 What is Jorn’s weight on Earth? (1) 3.9 (2) 4.1 (3) 4.6 (4) 1.4

The right answer is 4.1. Question 131 What is the percentage difference in the weights of Sio and Phren?

(1) 26.08

(2) 30.16

(3) 24.91 (4) Can’t be determined

The right answer is Can’t be determined . Since the question is ambiguous about the base on which percentage difference is to be calculated, hence it cannot be determined. ========================================================================= === Question 132 Direction for question: The following question is followed by two statements "1" and "2", as the answer.

In how many days would the lawn be mowed? 1. Ram alone can mow it in 17 days whereas Ganesh and Sohan together can do it in 12 days 2. One of Ram, Ganesh and Sohan works on the job everyday. (1) If both, statement 1 and statement 2 are needed to answer the question. (2) If the question can be answered with the help of statement 2 alone. (3) If the question can be answered with the help of statement 1 alone. (4) If the question cannot be answered even with the help of both the statements.

The right answer is If the question cannot be answered even with the help of both the statements.. Assume that Ganesh and Sohan work at their usual capacity, but on successive days, say the second and the third days. ∴ In three days, (1/17 + 1/12) = (29 / 204) part of the lawn can be mowed. But as nothing about the order of working of the three, nor anything about the individual working capacities of Ganesh and Sohan is given, we cannot find the answer even with the help of both the statements. ========================================================================= === Question 133 Direction for question: The following question is followed by two statements "1" and "2", as the answer. What are the three numbers? 1. Their sum is 61. 2. These are three consecutive prime numbers (1) If both, statement 1 and statement 2 are needed to answer the question. (2) If the question can be answered with the help of statement 2 alone. (3) If the question can be answered with the help of statement 1 alone. (4) If the question cannot be answered even with the help of both the statements.

The right answer is If the question cannot be answered even with the help of both the statements.. Since the second statement states that the number are prime, we get that the numbers have to be three positive integers in ascending order. Note that 61/3 –20. This implies that numbers should be around 20. Check 17, 19, 23 do not add to 61. So. (D). Note that no other set could be closer to 61. ========================================================================= === Question 134 In how much time will the train pass the man? 1. The 200 meters long train is running at a speed of 60 kmph 2. The man is walking at a speed of 5 m/s (1) If both, statement 1 and statement 2 are needed to answer the question. (2) If the question can be answered with the help of statement 2 alone. (3) If the question can be answered with the help of statement 1 alone. (4) If the question cannot be answered even with the help of both the statements.

The right answer is If the question cannot be answered even with the help of both the statements.. Although the individual speeds of the train and the man are known, for finding out the relative speed, we must also know the directions (same or opposite) of their travel. But this data is not clearly available, and hence the time cannot be determined. ========================================================================= ===

Question 135 What was the ratio of highest FDI inflow in any country in any year to the lowest in any country in any year? (1) 947.08 (2) 912.25 (3) 998.74 (4) 904.36

The right answer is 947.08.

Ratio =

= 947.08

========================================================================= ===

Question 136 What is the percentage increase in FDI inflow in India from 1991 to 1999? (1) 1298.7% (2) 1340.46% (3) 1212.36% (4) 1476.64%

The right answer is 1298.7%.

Percentage increase =

× 100 = 1298.7%

========================================================================= === Question 137 For 1994–1995, the FDIs of how many countries showed a decline of more than 5%? (1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) 1

The right answer is 4. The countries are Philippines, Singapore, Sri Lanka and Colombia. ========================================================================= === Question 138 What is the ratio of India’s highest FDI in all the years to China’s lowest FDI in all the years? (1) 0.68 (2) 0.43 (3) 0.76 (4) 0.71

The right answer is 0.76.

Ratio =

= 0.76

========================================================================= === Question 139 If 20% of FDI in India went to the Power sector and 34% to the Infotech sector in 1999, then what amount (in US $ million) went to the above two sectors in 1999? (1) 415, 712 (2) 432, 712 (3) 415, 737 (4) 433, 737

The right answer is 433, 737. For power sector = 0.2 × 2168 = 433.6 For Infotech sector = 0.34 × 2168 = 737.12 ========================================================================= === Question 140 How many times has the FDI in any country mentioned gone beyond 5000 US $ million? (1) 35 (2) 31 (3) 34 (4) 37

The right answer is 34. Just observe from the table. ========================================================================= === Question 141 The recovery rate has been calculated as: (1) 1/ (Revenue Expenditure / Total recoveries) (2)

1 / (Revenue Expenditure / Total recoveries) × 100 (3) 1/ (Total cost of Service / Total recoveries) (4) 1 / (Total Cost of Service / Total recoveries) × 100

The right answer is 1 / (Total Cost of Service / Total recoveries) × 100. For social services under departmental enterprises, the total cost of service is 561 and the total recovery is 198, whereas the recovery rate is 35.20. ========================================================================= === Question 142 If it is known that the subsidy given to the co–operative is Rs. 593 crores, then what, in Rs. crore, is the subsidy given to the Non–departmental enterprises? (1) 6874 (2) 8874 (3) 7874 (4) Can't determine

The right answer is 6874. The co-operatives have 1.4% of the total subsidy. This amounts to 593. So, the non-departmental enterprises have a subsidy of 16.23%, i.e.. 6874.

========================================================================= === Question 143 If it is known that the subsidy given to the co–operative is Rs. 593 crores then what is the subsidy given to the social services of the Departmental enterprises (Rs. crore)? (1) 36.4 (2) 364 (3) 3640 (4) Can't determine

The right answer is 364. The subsidy given to social services of the departmental enterprises is (0.86 × 593) /1.4 = 364. ========================================================================= === Question 144 If it is known that the subsidy given to the co–operative is Rs. 593 crores, then what is the difference in the subsidies given to the Economic and social services of the Non– departmental enterprises (Rs. crore)? (1) 4600 (2) 5600 (3) 6600 (4) None of these

The right answer is 6600. The percentage difference between the subsidies for economic and social services of nondepartmental enterprises is 15.61. So, the actual value is (15.61 × 593)/1.4 = 6611. ========================================================================= === Question 145 For departmental and non–departmental enterprises, the total recoveries from social services form what percentage of the total recoveries from economic services? (1) 1.2% (2) 2.2% (3) 3.2% (4) None of these

The right answer is 1.2%. For departmental and non-departmental enterprises, the recoveries from social services are 218 and the recoveries from economic services are 18392. So, the recoveries from social services form around 1.2% of the total recoveries under this category. ========================================================================= ===

Question 146 Harry ate (1) Noodles (2) Manchurian (3) Idly Sambar (4) Masala Dosa

The right answer is Idly Sambar. Solutions 146 – 150: Since everybody makes at least 1 true statement, we can make an assumption about a statement’s authenticity, which if false will get contradicted at some stage. After looking at the statements made by Harry & Rahul, we notice that their last statements are opposites. So one of those 2 statements is the truth. Assuming the last statement of Harry to be true, his other statements must be false. Since he says that he ate Masala Dosa & Rahul also says the same thing, both are false statements. So Rahul’s 2nd statement must be true. On the basis of our assumption Nipun’s 1st statement becomes false. Since Harry’s 2nd statement is also false Nipun’s 2nd statement must be true. So his last statement must be false. As Nipun’s last statement is false, it means that Ashish ate the noodles. So Ashish’s 1st statement is false. Looking at everybody’s second statement, and knowing that the 1st is false & the other 2 are true, we can conclude that Nipun has eaten the Manchurian. So Ashish’s 2nd statement is true and the last statement is false. ========================================================================= === Question 147 Nipun ate (1) Noodles (2) Manchurian (3) Idly Sambar (4) Masala Dosa

The right answer is Manchurian. ========================================================================= === Question 148 Rahul ate (1) Noodles (2) Manchurian (3) Idly Sambar (4) Masala Dosa

The right answer is Masala Dosa. ========================================================================= ===

Question 149 Ashish ate (1) Noodles (2) Manchurian (3) Idly Sambar (4) Masala Dosa

The right answer is Noodles. ========================================================================= === Question 150 Which of the following is false? (1) Rahul’s second statement is true. (2) Harry’s second statement is true. second statement is true. (4) Ashish’s second statement is true. (3) Nipun’s

The right answer is Harry’s second statement is true..