Year 5 Issue 49 July 2010

International Relation Article Regulars
6 To Our Readers 7 Editorial 88 Strategic Triangle of Russia-China-India : A Potential Axis of Power

Current Affairs
92 India and Russia Relations

News and Events
9 Nation this Month 22 World this Month 31 Regional News 33 National and International Updates

94 Compendium

Countries of the World : At a Glance
97 Canada

Current Affairs
42 Sports World 47 Memorable Points 49 Economic Scenario

Miscellaneous Facts : General Knowledge
99 Present Scenario of Scientific and Industrial Research Sector : In a Nutshell

Profile : International Organisation
102 International Committee of the Red Cross (ICRC) 104 Current Questionnaire 106 Trade and Industry

Career News
56 Employment and Career News 58 Forthcoming Competitive Examinations

World Panorama
59 (i) Group of 15 : Signs of Revival 62 (ii) SAARC : Need for Introspection

Question Papers Optional Papers
108 RAS/RTS (Pre.) Exam., 2008 : Indian History 113 UGC-NET/JRF Exam., 2008 : Commerce

Personality Development
66 Action : Key to Better Personality

Other Papers
125 Madhya Pradesh Civil Judge (Pre.) Exam., 2009 : Law and General Knowledge 131 Hotel Management Aurangabad Exam., 2010 : General Knowledge 133 Uttar Pradesh PCS (Pre.) Exam., 2010 : General Studies 142 Civil Services (Pre.) Exam., 2010 : General Studies 156 Associate Bank of SBI P.O. Exam., 2010 : Reasoning 163 Corporation Bank P.O. Exam., 2009 : Quantitative Aptitude

Inspiring Youth : Interviews
67 Shah Faesal Topper—Civil Services 2009 (1st Rank) 70 Iva Sahay Topper—Civil Services 2009 (3rd Rank) 72 Bhawna Gulati Topper—U.P. PCS 2007 (2nd Rank)

Articles IAS Success Planner 2010
75 Civil Services Exam. : Battle Against All Odds

Political Science Article
78 Naxal Movement in India

Your Pages
168 Essay Contest 170 Debate Contest 173 Results 174 Concentric Quiz 177 Test Your Knowledge

Public Administration Article
82 Bureaucracy

Environmental Article
84 Carbon Tax or Cap and Trade : Alternative Mechanisms of Emission Control


To Our Readers
Dear Readers,

Year 5

Issue 49

July 2010

EDITOR Mahendra Jain

It is with a sense of great pleasure and satisfaction that we are presenting to you the July issue of your favourite magazine ‘Pratiyogita Darpan’. We have tried our best to make this issue examination-oriented and useful for general reading. Your consistent interest in the magazine is giving us impetus to make it more and more useful to serve your needs. We are sure that if you read it intelligently and with proper understanding it will go a long way in enhancing your knowledge to face any competitive examination and be successful with flying colours. Our approach to our readers is direct. We regularly enquire about their needs and demands and try to incorporate the same in future editions. This has made our magazine endeared to all our readers. This issue of the magazine contains a number of core articles on important world events contributed by reputed and well informed authors. Some of the important and representative articles are : IAS Success Planner-2010. Naxal Movement in India, Strategic Triangle of Russia-ChinaIndia : A Potential Axis of Power, etc. The most important section of the magazine contains a number of question papers selected from various competitive examinations. These are fully solved with relevant hints and explanations. We make all efforts to maintain the unique speciality of our magazine for giving error-free solutions. This has made it unparalleled and endeared to all. An intelligent study and practice of these papers will be highly useful in solving questions in any future examination. The column ‘Compendium’ in the magazine has also become a trusted tool for help. Our constant contact with toppers and other successful candidates has proved, beyond any doubt, that planned hardwork, strong self-conf idence and right guidance are all indispensable for success in an y examination. You can wish for but cannot achieve success with out anyone of these. If you are determined, Pratiyogita Darpan is ready to give the best guidance. It is sure to sublime your career. Read Pratiyogita Darpan regularly and intelligently. It gives you the power to master your career and shape your destiny.

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The meaning of Swatantrata is to remain under one’s own tantra i.e., one’s own regular order and system. The word Swaraj also means almost the same thing. It denotes self-rule or self-control. That is why, in our country, the word Swaraj has also been used very often for Swatantrata. Man is a rational being, and endowed with the faculty of discrimination. He has the ability to distinguish and decide what is right and what is wrong, what is proper and what is improper. At the same time he has the freedom to decide and determine the necessities of his life. This freedom is the basis of man’s all-round progress, such as in the fields of religion, art, morality, sense of duty, ethics, and so forth. Although, judging of what is right and what is wrong may be subjective and individualistic in nature, yet it is also a social characteristic and responsibility. What is right, just and proper or what is wrong, unjust and improper can be judged in the context of the social life only. Thus freedom is a special and distinctive quality based on social relationship and it is reflected in the context of man’s interaction. One example of such relationship and interaction is that one man’s freedom should not pose danger to the freedom of any other individual or an individual’s freedom should not encroach upon any other individual’s freedom. An individual is expected to practise and enjoy freedom within the limits of the laws of the country and the rules of the society in which he lives and moves. Freedom ought not to permit any individual to be ungovernable or self-willed. The basis or foundation of freedom is an intelligent, alert and pure mind.

Freedom demands sensitivity and clarity of perception of man’s social behaviour. If he deviates from the main source or from what he thinks to be right, just and proper, then he follows the path of imitation and thus becomes dependent on others. This breeds disorder, arrogance and lack of restraint in the individual. For example, if a student does not pursue his studies as he deems right and useful, but imitates one of his companions, then the student concerned will always depend for any progress on his companion, and have a feeling of guilt or inferiority within himself. This is likely to make the student irritable and look small in his own eyes. And, God forbid, if he does not succeed, he will put all the blame on his friend. That would do him harm instead of good. In short, the student, referred to above will never come out of the web of ignorance, which he has woven for himself by imitating one of his friends. So, to be free and to enjoy the fruits of freedom, one has to chalk out one’s own programme and find out one’s own ways and means of action. It has been rightly emphasised by a number of thinkers that “He is free, who lives as he chooses.” Dolores Ibarrun, goes a step ahead to declare that “Better to die on one’s feet than to live on one’s knees.” We take another example from our daily life. The growing consumerism has made man’s lifestyle more dependent on materialistic things resulting in greater problems and complications in the fields of consumption, transport, taxation, price fixation and the rule of demand and supply. In this new context, the fixation of prices does not depend upon the cost of production and the selling price. Instead, the prices are

charged vis-a-vis the purchasing power of the consumer. The way out of it is the Gandhian economic system. Every consumer has to be the producer and thus a close relationship is established between the individual and the society. In the present situation, it is essential to discover the possibility of change in which the individual and society may be interdependent, and freedom of consumption and production is maintained. In case otherwise, the individual is always depending on outside agencies and thus his freedom is plundered or abducted. It is necessary for our young men and women to work out a model of social system in which freedom in the real sense prevails. Freedom in the real sense connotes inner discipline, order, sense of responsibility, constant awareness of one’s own thought, action and behaviour. When struggle for India’s freedom was going on, Dr. (Mrs.) Annie Besant had written that for making India free, all of us at first will have to make ourselves free, and no man is free who is not the master of his own mind and his own body. Our young readers must be pondering over the conditions which have been laid down in the preceding lines. Those, who aspire to be in the high posts of authority, will do well to note that to have your desires fulfilled, you will have to share and shoulder great responsibilities, and give your best to the cause of freedom–not political freedom, but the freedom of the mind and thought. Write these words of Dr. (Mrs.) Besant in bold letters, and keep them on your table. “No man can safely use outside freedom, until he/she has gained that inner freedom, which we P.Darpan call self-control.”


“So often time it happens, we all live our life in chains, and we never even know we have the key.”

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N-Capable Agni-II Test-fired Successfully
Nuclear-capable Agni-II ballistic missile, with a strike range of 2000 kms, was on May 17, 2010 successfully testfired during a user trial by the strategic forces from the Wheelers Island off the Orissa coast. The success came after two launches of the surfaceto-surface Intermediate Range Ballistic Missile (IRBM) failed to meet mission objectives last year. “The trial of the missile from the Nuclear-capable Agni-II ballistic Integrated Test Range missile takes off from Wheelers (ITR) was successful Island, in the Bay of Bengal on May and met all parameters 17, 2010. and mission objectives,” ITR Director S. P. Dash said. The 20-metre-long Agni-II which has 1,000 kg payload capacity was launched from a rail mobile system in Launch Complex-4 of ITR. The 17-tonne missile, a two stage, solid fuel weapon system, has already been inducted into the services. The launch was carried out by the Strategic Forces Command (SFC) with logistic support from laboratories and personnel of the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO). “With this launch, the Strategic Forces have carried out launch of all three versions of the Agni within three months demonstrating their capability,” the spokesperson

About Agni
● The 20-metre long Agni-II is a two stage, solid-propelled ballistic missile. ● It has a launch weight of 17 tonnes and can carry a payload of 1000 kg over a distance of 2,000 kg. ● Was developed by Advanced Systems Laboratory along with other DRDO laboratories and integrated by the Bharat Dynamics Limited, Hyderabad.

said. While 700 km range Agni-I has already been inducted into the armed forces, Agni-III, having range of 3500 km is still in the process of induction. The trajectory of the missile was tracked by a battery of sophisticated radars, telemetry observation stations, electro-optic instruments and naval ships stationed near the impact point in the Bay of Bengal. The launch followed two earlier user trials on May 19, 2009 and November 23, 2009 which could not meet all mission parameters. On the development of 5000 km Agni-V, the spokesperson said that the scientists were working on it. “We are hopeful that within a year we should be able to launch the missile,” he said, noting that the new missile will have one additional stage as compared to Agni-III. Defence Minister A. K. Antony congratulated all the DRDO scientists and armed forces personnel for the success of the missions.

India’s War on Terror : Govt. Bans 100 Terror Outfits
Government’s resolve to fight terror effectively got buttressed by its move to ban 100 terror outfits. Armed with an amended Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act, the Centre has, in one stroke, formally banned over 100 outfits—linked to al-Qaeda—from across the globe by declaring them terrorist organisations in India. Though India had been keeping tabs on these outfits in accordance with the relevant United Nations Security Council (UNSC) resolutions, a formal decision to put these 100-odd entities— Ensuring no Repeats : In the light of along with 33 other increased activities of the outfit in terror organisation— India in the past couple of years, in the list of banned Khalistan Zindabad Force has also organisations is seen been included in the list.


“Think big thoughts but relish small pleasures.”

as a move to avoid any legal ambiguity in case Indian police lay their hands on anyone associated with these organisations.

Facing Ban : Among Others
● Jemaah Islamiyah ● Islamic Jihad Group of Libya ● Moroccan Islamic Combatant Group ● Egyptian Islamic Jihad ● International Islamic Relief Organisation of Philippines ● Islamic Movement of Uzbekistan ● Khalistan Zindabad Force

root and branch. However, this resolve has to be seen to be one of steel if the government wants the message of its toughness to go across the terrorists. It has to be effectively buttressed by a determination to enforce the ban with a heavy hand. All crime detection intelligence agencies and enforcement bodies must be fully mobilised to ensure that the ban does not remain simply a display affair. The whole life of nation needs to be mobilised effectively to root out the menace once and for all. It is gratifying that India has the backing of a host of countries for its move to fight terror effectively. Let this ban prove to be a well thoughtout strategic act.

These outfits include all the big Islamic terror outfits like Jemaah Islamiya (Bali bombing notoriety) of Indonesia, Islamic Jihad Group of Libya, the Moroccan Islamic Combatant Group, the Egyptian Islamic Jihad, International Islamic Relief Organization of Philippines and Islamic Movement of Uzbekistan among others. The Ministry of Home Affairs has put these entities together (at entry number 33) in its ‘revised’ list of banned outfits as “Organizations listed in the Schedule to the UN Prevention and Suppression of Terrorism (Implementation of Security Council Resolution) Order, 2007.” “The number of these outfits will increase or decrease as amended from time-to-time. We have put them together under one head so that we do not have to revise it (the list) whenever it is amended at the UNSC level,” said a senior home ministry official. The home ministry’s revised list of banned outfits— which is to be made public on its official website soon— also for the first time includes the Khalistan Zindabad Force (KZF) as one of the terrorist organizations under the UAP Act. Though names of three pro-Khalistan terror outfits—Babbar Khalsa International (BKI), Khalistan Comando Force (KCF) and International Sikh Youth Federation (ISYF)—have been on the list for long, the move to include KZF in the revised list is seen in the light of increased activities of the outfit in India in the past couple of years. “The KZF was put on the list of banned outfits just before the Indo-Pak foreign secretary-level talks in February,” said the official. During the talks on February 26, India had handed over three dossiers to Pakistan, one of which had the names of seven Khalistani terrorists including the KZF commander Ranjit Singh Neeta. The outfit was also in the news recently following the arrest of its terrorist Nirmal Singh alias Nimma in Raipur (Chhattisgarh) in May, 2010. Nimma was given the task by the ISI to attack Adampur Air Force station in Punjab and to recruit youths from villages along the IndoPakistan border in the state. Officials believe that the revised list will help the cops in pursuing cases against the terrorists belonging to these organizations in courts more effectively.

Bhairon Singh Shekhawat Passes Away
Former Vice-President of India and three-time Chief Minister of Rajasthan in the past, Bhairon Singh Shekhawat passed away at Jaipur on May 15, 2010. Mr. Shekhawat often set the political agenda in the State for half a century and headed the first non-Congress government in Rajasthan in 1977 was 87 at the time of his death. Mr. Shekhawat was Chief Minister of Rajasthan from 1977 to 1980, 1990 to 1992 and from 1993 to 1998. He was Vice-President of India from 2002 to 2007 during which period he proved his detractors within the party and outside wrong when he not only successFormer Vicefully managed the Upper House as the President Chairman of the Rajya Sabha but even Bhairon Singh ushered in some widely accepted reforms. Shekhawat Unfortunately he lost out in his pursuit to become the President of India to—curiously to a ‘bahu’ (daughter-in-law) of his own native place Shekhawati, Pratibha Devi Singh Patil. A leader who had risen from his humble surroundings in a village in Sikar district of Rajasthan, Mr. Shekhawat was the quintessential Indian politician who befriended even his enemies and outwitted his friends. His demise marks the end of an era of Indian politics. At his death former Prime Minister Atal Behari Vajpai said : “I cannot bear his loss. His death has left me shocked.” President Pratibha Patil said the departed leader was a personality who deeply understood the concerns and aspirations of the poorest of the poor as a result of his experiences early in life. She recalled that he began his career as a farmer and later became a Sub-Inspector of Police. He rose high in life through determination resolve and perseverance.

Rs. 1,000 crore Plan for Speeding up Visa Services
In a major relief for legitimate travellers and visa seekers, the Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs (CCEA) on May 13, 2010 approved modernisation and upgradation of immigration services as one of the Mission Mode Projects (MMP) to be undertaken by the Home Ministry under the National e-Governance Plan (NeGP). The project titled Immigration, Visa and Foreigners Registration and Tracking (IVFRT) is expected to help develop and implement a secure and integrated service delivery framework which makes life easy for legitimate travellers even while strengthening security. The total cost of the project is approximately Rs. 1,011 crore.

Well-thoughout Strategic Act
The government’s move to ban 100 and odd terrorist organisations from across the globe deserves appreciation. It reflects government’s resolve to end the menace of terror


“Every thought is a seed. If you plant crab apples, don’t count on harvesting Golden Delicious.”

“Of this total project cost, Rs. 132 crore is proposed to be spent during April 2010-June 2011 (Phase-I) with the remaining amount of Rs. 879 crore earmarked for Phase-II (July 2011-September 2014),” said a statement issued by the government. The National Institute for Smart Government (NSIG) was selected and tasked with the responsibility for generating a comprehensive e-Governance solution for the immigration, visa issuance and foreigners’ registration and tracking functions, and to prepare a Detailed Project Report (DPR). The DPR has been finalised by NSIG in consultation with the ministries of home affairs and external affairs, Department of Information Technology, Bureau of Immigration and National Informatics Centre (NIC). “An elaborate list of services have been included in the DPR for streamlining and integrating visa, immigration, and foreigners registration and tracking process,” added the statement. The services identified for inclusion are drawn with a focus on security, facilitation and enablement. Drawing from the global best practices and bench-marking, requisite service levels have also been indicated in the DPR. This MMP has global outreach since the scope of the project includes 169 Missions, 78 ICPs (Immigration Check Posts), 7 FRROs (Foreigners Regional Registration Offices), and FROs (Foreigners Registration Offices) in the State/District Headquarters. The implementation of this MMP is to be done in phases and the entire project is targeted to the completed by September 2014.

Sundersan, ONGC Chairman R. S. Sharma, OVL Managing Director R. S. Butoal and IOC Chairman B. M. Bansal. Spain’s Repsol-YPF SA Petroleum Nasimal Bhad (Petronas) of Malaysia and OVL each hold 11 per cent stake in the consortium that will produce 400,000 barrels of oil a day. IOC and Oil India Ltd. (OIL) will each have 3·5 per cent interest in the joint venture to develop the Carabobo 1 Norte and Carabobo 1 Centro blocks, located in the Orinoco Heavy Oil Belt. Corporation Venezuelana del Petroleo, a unit of PdV, will hold the remaining equity. About half of the production from the joint venture, called Petro Carabobo SA will be upgraded as light crude oil for export.

Government Sets Up Defence Technology Commission
The government on May 13, 2010 announced the setting up of a New Defence Technology Commission to impart a major boost to defence research and development. It also decided to go for the second generation of main battle tank ‘Arjun’ and ‘Akash’ surface-to-air missile. As per official sources, the decision to set up the Commission with Defence Minister as its Chief forms part of a series of measures aimed at transforming and revitalising the Defence Research and Development Organization (DRDO) in form and substance. It may be mentioned that the Defence Minister A. K. Antony had approved A. K. Antony will the recommendation of a committee head the newly formed comunder former Science and Technology mission. Secretary P. Rama Rao. The Committee had been set up way back in February 2007 to restructure the DRDO. After the committee had submitted its report to Antony a year later, another team headed by the Defence Secretary was appointed to study the report and submit its recommendations.

India, Venezuela Sign Agreement to Develop $ 20-billion Oil Project
In a bid to give a boost to its holding of oil and gas assets abroad, the Oil and Natural Gas Corporation Videsh Limited (OVL), alongwith its partners, entered into an agreement with the Venezuela government on May 13, 2010 to develop a $ 20-billion oil project in that country. The project is expected to give India 3·6 million tonnes of crude a year. The OVL and its partners signed the agreement with Petroleos de Venezuela SA (PdV) for development and production of hydrocarbons from the Venezuelan President Hugo Chavez Carabobo project in (left) has a word with Union Minister Orinoco region in for Petroleum and Natural Gas Murli Venezuela. Deora at the headquarters of Petroleos The agreement de Venezuela SA in Caracas on May 12, was signed in Vene- 2010. zuelan Capital Caracas in the presence of Venezuela President Hugo Chavez, India’s Petroleum and Natural Gas Minister Murli Deora, Petroleum Secretary S.

Nod for Development for Second Generation of the Main Battle Tank Arjun and Akash Surface-to-air Missile
The government has also given its nod for the development of second generation of main battle tank ‘Arjun’ and ‘Akash’ surface-to-air missile by DRDO. With Arjun’s performance in the comparative trials with the Russian T-90 tanks coming in for appreciation and it proving to be a superior tank, the decision to go in for a second generation Arjun MK-II tanks is only an indication that the army would be inducting more of these tanks in the future. Already, the army has placed orders for 124 Arjun tanks of which about 50 tanks were finally handed over to it last year to form a regiment. Other key measures on which Antony took a decision include the de-centralisation of DRDO management and making it leaner by merging some of its laboratories with other public-funded institutions with similar discipline, interest and administrative system.


“We find things where we look for them, which is why I never look for a golf ball out of bounds.”

India to Get First Defence University
Drawing lessons from the 1999 Kargil conflict, the government on May 13, 2010 took a momentous decision to set up the first defence university in the country to enable holistic study of defence and strategic security challenges.
The Indian National Defence University to come up in Gurgaon is to be established at an estimated cost of Rs. 300 crore.

India also asked Singapore to recognise its professionals, such as doctors, nurses, accountants and architects in Singapore. Both the countries also launched the second review of the IndiaSingapore free trade and services agreement officially known as the Comprehensive Economic Cooperation Agreement (CECA). India also signed a pact with Singapore for greater market access of its On a Fast Track : Lim Hng Kiang generic (off-potent) (right), Minister for Trade and Industry, drugs in the South- Singapore, calling on Anand Sharma, east Asian nation. Minister of Commerce and Industry, at The two countries his office in New Delhi on May 11, also set new targets 2010. for their economic engagement in terms of further removing barriers and encouraging the flow of people from one country to the other. Addressing a joint conference with the visiting Singapore Trade and Industry Minister, Lim Hng Kiang Commerce and Industry Minister Anand Sharma said, “we have agreed to work towards doubling bilateral trade from $ 16 billion to $ 32 billion by 2015.” According to Mr. Sharma, officials from the two sides would meet every quarter to complete the second review in a time-bound manner. Officials would also work to expedite the conclusion of Mutual Recognition Agreements (MRAs) for dental, medical, nursing, architecture, accountancy and company secretary officials.
● India asks Singapore to recognise the former’s professionals. ● They decide to double trade from $ 16 billion to $ 32 billion. ● To establish a CEOs Forum to enhance business activities. ● Both signed a ‘special scheme for registration of generic medicinal products from India’.

A meeting of the Union Cabinet, chaired by Prime Minister Manmohan Singh, accorded ‘in principle’ approval to set up the Indian National Defence University (INDU) near Delhi. To be established at an estimated cost of Rs. 300 crore, the university would come up on a 200 acre land at Binola in Gurgaon, Haryana. A sum of Rs. 100 crore has been earmarked for acquisition of the land. The existing defence educational institutions like the National Defence College in New Delhi, College of Defence Management at Secunderabad, National Staff College at Wellington and National Defence Academy at Pune, would be affiliated to INDU. At present, these institutions are attached to various universities. The INDU will undertake long term defence and strategic studies and create synergy between the academic community and government functionaries. The university, which would be fully autonomous and constituted under an Act of Parliament, would promote policy-oriented research on all aspects of national security as part of the strategic national policy-making. “It will encourage awareness of national security issues by reaching out to scholars and an audience beyond the official machinery,” said an official. INDU would educate national security leaders on all aspects of strategies in the fields of security, military, information and technology, through teaching and research. After the Kargil conflict, the government had set up a Review Committee, which had recommended establishment of such a university.

India-Singapore CEOs Forums
The two Ministers also agreed to establish an IndiaSingapore CEOs Forum to enhance business activities. Both signed a ‘Special scheme for registration of generic medical products for India’ that seeks to fast track the registration process for domestic off-patent medicines in that country. The pact would help create new opportunities for the $ 25-billion Indian generic medicine market in Singapore. With the arrival of Indian generic drugs in the global market, the cost of life-saving medicines had come down significantly and helped people in African and Latin American nations, Mr. Sharma added. Mr. Lim said that if an Indian generic drug had been cleared in the US, Canada, EU, the UK or Australia, Singapore would allow it into its market. “Accordingly, the registration process will become faster.” he said.

India, Singapore Decide to Double Trade
[Launch the Second Review of Comprehensive Economic Cooperation Agreement] India, Singapore cooperation in different fields is assuming greater and greater dimensions, with both countries entering into agreements galore and pledging themselves to carry the relationship further forward. In April 2010, they carried out joint military exercises with the troops of both countries participating in several manoeuvres. Seeking to put trade relations between them on a fast track the two countries on May 11, 2010 decided to double their trade in the next five years from $ 16 billion to $ 32 billion.


“We are all in the gutter, but some of us are looking at the stars.”

Justice M. M. Punchhi Report on Centre-State Relations : More Powers for Centre in Panel Report
[Report seeks 5-yr term for governs, removal by impeachment] Touching upon several significant areas in the working of Centre-State relations, the Justice Madan Mohan Punchhi report submitted recently to the government has made over 200 recommendations. These include radical ones like amending Articles 355 and 356, to enable the Centre to bring trouble-torn areas under its rule for a limited period, creation of an overriding structure to maintain internal security along the lines of the US Homeland Security department, giving more teeth to the National Integration Council, and amending the communal violence bill to allow deployment of Central forces without the State’s consent for a short period.

Commission/Committees Constituted with Respect to Centre-State Relations
● Setalvad Committee—The Setalvad Committee was appointed in 1966 by the Administrative Reforms Commission (1966-69) to study and make recommendations for the improvement of Centre-state relations. The Committee recommended for giving more autonomy to the States within the limits of the Constitutions. ● Raja Mannar Committee—This committee was appointed in 1969 by Tamil Nadu government for suggesting measures for providing more autonomy to States. Its two other members were—Dr. Laxman Swamy Muddaliar and P. C. Chanda Reddy. The Committee recommended for—(i) abolishing the residuary powers or transferring them to the States. (ii) organisation of Inter-State Council and (iii) abolition of All India Services. ● Sarkaria Commission headed by justice Ranjeet Singh Sarkaria, the Commission was appointed on March 24, 1983 by the Union government to study and make recommendations with regard to Centre-State relations. The Commission submitted its report in 1988. ● Punchhi Commission—The Central Government appointed in April 2007 a new Commission to review the Centre State relations and to make necessary recommendations thereon. The Commission had to submit its report to the Government within two years. The retired Chief Justice of India, Justice Madan Mohan Punchhi was appointed the Chairman of this Commission

1,456 Pages, 200 Recommendations
● Amend Arts 355 and 356, to enable the Centre to bring areas under its rule for a limited period. ● Set up overriding structure like the US Homeland Security, more teeth for National Integration Council. ● Amend communal violence bill to allow deployment of Central forces without the state’s consent. ● Give CMs say in governor choice, pick eminent people, who haven’t been in active politics for at least some years. ● Allow governors right to clear prosecution of ministers against the advice of the state government.

Role of the Governor
Besides the above recommendations, the panel has advised critical changes in the role of governors— including a fixed five-year tenure as well as their removal only through impeachment by the State Assembly. It has also recommended that the State Chief Minister have a say in the appointment of the governor.

The panel also feels that governors should have the right to sanction prosecution of a minister against the advice of the Council of Ministers. However, it wants the convention of making them chancellors of universities to be done away with. The Punchhi Commission was appointed in 2007 with Justice Madan Mohan Punchhi as its chairman to go into the much-talked about Centre-State relations. In finalising the 1,456 page report, in seven volumes, the Punchhi Commission has taken extensive help from Justice Sarkaria Commission report, the National Commission to Review the working of the Constitution


(NCRWC), appointed during NDA regime, and the Administrative Reforms Commission report. However, in a number of areas, the Punchhi Commission report differs from the Sarkaria Commission recommendations.

Acharya Mahapragya Passes Away
Acharya Mahapragya, the 10th Acharya (sage) and supreme head of the Jain Swetamber Terapanth community, died following a cardiac arrest at Sardarshahar in Churu district of Rajasthan on May 9, 2010. He was 90. Acharya Mahapragya was born on June 14, 1920 at Tamkor village in Jhujhunu district of Rajasthan. He headed the Jain Vishwa Bharati university at Ladnun and led the Anuvrat movement launched in 1949 by his mentor and the then head of Swetambar Terapanth, Acharya Mahapragya Acharya Tulsi. He was a great practtioner of meditation, spirituality, Mantras, Anekaant and non-violence and wrote extensively on these subjects. As a Jain monk, he always travelled on foot and took five major Mahavratas as part of initiation into monkhood at the age of 10. The Acharya was known for a seven-year long ‘Ahimsa Yatra,’ which he undertook to highlight the spiritual aspect of non-violence and spread the message of peace and harmony across the country. He traversed over 10,000 km on foot, covering 2,400 villages, towns and cities, and addressed many public meetings during the yatra. The journey began and ended at Sujangarh in Rajasthan. The Acharya, who was consecrated as the 10th supreme head of Terapanth religious order at a public meeting in Delhi on February 5, 1995, had formulated the famous ‘Preksha’ meditation system, comprising Yogasana, Pranayam, Mantra and thereby in 1970s. Prominent among the awards conferred on him during his lifetime were the Mother Teresa national award of peace (2005), Union Government’s communal harmony award (2004), Ambassador of Peace Award in London (2003), Lok maharishi by Navi Mumbai Municipal Corporation (2003) and the Indira Gandhi National Integration Award (2002). The Acharya has been described as a great sage and philosopher who gave a new direction to Anuvrat movement and spread the message of non-violence through his Ahimsa Yatra. Acharya Mahashraman has been nominated as Acharya Mahapragya’s successor and the 11th Acharya of the Terapanth community.

Appointment of Chief Minister
Among the significant suggestions made by the Commission is the laying down of clear guidelines for the appointment of Chief Minister. Upholding the view that a pre-poll alliance should be treated as one political party, it lays down the order of precedence that ought to be followed by the governor in case of a hung assembly : (a) call the group with the largest pre-poll alliance commanding the largest number; (b) the single largest party with support of others; (c) the post-electoral coalition with all parties joining the government; and last (d) the post-electoral alliance with some other parties joining the government and the remaining independents supporting from outside. As for qualifications for a governor, the Punchhi Commission suggests that the nominee must not have participated in active politics at even local level for at least a couple of years before his appointment. It also agrees with the Sarkaria Commission recommendation that a governor be an eminent person and not belong to the state where he is to be posted. It may be mentioned here that this view was endorsed by a Supreme Court five-member bench headed by the then Chief Justice K. G. Balakrishna earlier in May, 2010 itself. The Commission also criticizes arbitrary dismissal of governors, saying the practice of treating governors as political football must stop. Underlining that removal of a governor be for a reason related to his discharge of functions it has proposed provisions for impeachment by the state legislature along the same lives as that of the President by Parliament. This, significantly, goes against the doctrine of pleasure upheld by the recent Supreme Court Judgement. Endorsing an NCRWC recommendation, it says appointment of governors should be entrusted to a committee comprising the Prime Minister, Home Minister, speaker of the Lok Sabha and Chief Minister of the concerned state. The Vice-President may also be involved in the process, it says. Unlike the Sarkaria Commission report, the Punchhi report categorically suggests that governor be given a fixed five-year tenure. The Punchhi Commission report also recommends that a constitutional amendment be brought about to limit the scope of discretionary powers of the governor under Article 163(2). Governors should not sit on decisions and must decide matters within a four-month period it says. The commission, however, supports their right to give sanction to prosecution of ministers against the advice of the state government.

Russia to Develop Lander for Chandrayaan-II
[Moon mission launch in 2013] As per official sources, Russia will develop a lander that will ferry a rover to explore the moon’s surface as part of the Chandrayaan-II mission, scheduled to be undertaken in 2013. Project Director of Chandrayaan-I and II M. Annadurai informed that GSLV will be the launch vehicle


“Blessed is he who expects nothing, for he shall never be disappointed.”

for Chandrayaan-II and the prime responsibility of realising the lander will be Russia’s. The rover to be realised by the Indian Space Research Organization (ISRO) will carry out in situ probe on the moon’s surface. The ISRO will also develop the scientific instruments to go around with it. Unlike Chandrayaan-I, whose moon impact probe (MIP) did a hard landing on the moon, the lander ferried by Chandrayaan-II orbiter to soft-land on the moon’s surface would be about 1200 kg. While the rover interface would be done by the ISRO, the lander interface with the rover would be developed by Russia, Mr. Annadurai said.

Rover’s life
The rover’s life would be about a few weeks. Prior to the launch, the ISRO would study its movement on a simulated terrain of the moon. “It has to operate at one-sixth of the earth’s gravity. Although we will not be able to simulate the atmospheric conditions, we very much want to see how the rover moves on a surface with very less friction,” he said.

Hyd Airport is World’s Best
Hyderabad’s Rajiv Gandhi International Airport (RGIA) received the world’s best airport award at the ACI Asia-Pacific Regional Conference and Exhibition in Hainan on May 13. The airport was declared the world’s best airport in the five to 15 million passengers category by the Airports Council International, an independent authority that conducted the survey.

As regards the payloads to be carried by Chandrayaan-II, they would not be as many as Chandrayaan-I carried. According to Mr. Annadurai, the purpose of Chandrayaan-I was to understand what the entire moon contained, but now the effort would be to understand it in situ. Originally, India’s Chandrayaan-I mission wanted to have chemical-mineral analysis, but now that Chandrayaan-I has shown us traces of water on the moon’s surface, the emphasis could also be on confirming the finding. The data pertaining to Chandrayaan-I was still under analysis. “Overall, each of Chandrayaan-I’s instruments has given enough data, meeting the overall science goals of the mission.” “The daytime mapping camera, laser ranging instrument, or even foreign instruments like the moon image mapper or the mini-SAR [Miniature Synthetic Aperture Radar] have all given us ample data. For instance, regarding mini-SAR, we have completed study of data pertaining to the North Pole of the moon. Analysis of data concerning the South Pole is still going on,” said Mr. Annadurai.

Flying High
● The RGIA handles about 6·4 million passengers annually. ● The airport has also been rated among the top five airports in terms of airport service quality. ● Delhi’s Indira Gandhi International Airport was fourth in the 15-25 million passenger traffic per annum category.

RGIA got 4·4 on a 5-point scale within two years of operation.


Indo-Pak Business Meet : Delhi Declaration Lists 6 Key Sectors for Close Cooperation
[The Indo-Pak Business Meet witnessed many emotional moments. But ultimately it succeeded in framing a pragmatic plan to impart fresh dimensions to economic ties between the two countries] According to a The Times of India report, the biggest and most high-profile gathering ever of Indian and Pak business people was held in Delhi in the third week of May 2010. The two-day event was marked by an intense and at times emotional engagement. The meet adopted a Delhi Declaration under the aegis of Aman Ki Asha. The aim is to pursue achievable objectives rather than pursue ambitious high profile goal, particularly in the backdrop of the present state of relations between the two countries. The Delhi Declaration has identified six key sectors to fast-track economic ties between the two countries : ● Textiles, with Pakistan exporting its home textiles, and India, its polyester textiles; Information technology (IT) which given its virtual nature, lends itself to collaboration easily; Agriculture, which, if logistics and storage facilities are fixed, affords tremendous opportunities;
When Doves Fly : Hero Group Chairman Brijmohan Lall Munjal (left) and Sunil Munjal, Chairman, Hero Corporate Service, at the Indo-Pak Business Meet in Delhi.

● ●

Energy, as constant outages are an issue, and collaboration can help tap unexploited resources; and Education : Given the young population of both nations, investment in this vital sector will pay the highest dividend over time.

The declaration further said that committees featuring business leaders from both the countries would be set up for IT and textile sectors with similar ones in the offing for the others. The Indo-Pak Business Meet gave a ringing endorsement to the objectives of Aman ki Asha, a peace initiative launched jointly by the Times of India and Pakistan’s Jang Group. Another major objective of the Declaration is to take specific steps to change public perception and remove the existing mistrust in India and Pakistan about each other. Towards this end, it would be imperative to allow uplinking from India to Pakistan and open up news channels in both countries, which certainly would be a salutary positive first step. There is need to fast track communications between the two countries. Priority may be given to the vexatious visa issue. An easier visa regime would facilitate better movement of people.
A moment of Love is All it takes to erase generations of hatred. —Brijmohan Lall Munjal

Tragic Air Crash at Mangalore Airport
Air India Express Flight IX-812 from Dubai with 160 passengers and six crew members on board overshot the table-top runway at the Mangalore airport on May 22, 2010 and plunged over cliff into a wooded valley where it burst into flames. One hundred and fifty-eight persons were killed. Luckily for them eight persons survived.

Healthcare, the paucity and quality of which is the bane of both nations and where combined effort would help address the three major diseases—heart, diabetes and cancer—that plague both;

Peace Via Prosperity
● Joint declaration of Indo-Pak business leaders identifies 6 sectors as having highest potential for economic cooperation; Textiles (largest employer in both countries), infotech (fastest growing sector in both), agriculture, healthcare, energy and education ● Committees comprising business leaders from both countries established for IT and textile sectors. Similar committees for other sectors to be set up. The Delhi Declaration also calls for; ● Removal of restrictions on uplinking from India to Pakistan and opening up of news channels in both countries ● Easing restrictions on visas, particularly business visas ● Allowing cellphone roaming between India and Pakistan


“To be upset over what you don’t have is to waste what you do have.”

The aircraft was commandeered by Zlatpo Glusica, a British national of Serbian origin, who had 10,000 hours of flying experience and had been operating in India for two years. Mr. Glusica himself and his co-pilot H. S. Ahluwalia were among the dead. The reasons for the crash have not yet been identified. However an enquiry by the Directorate General of Civil Aviation (DGCA) had been ordered. It was the worst air tragedy reported in Karnataka. The crash involving the erst while Indian Airlines’ newly inducted Air bus A 320 in Bangalore HAL air- Tragic End : Civilians look on as firefighters and rescue personnel try to port on February 14, extinguish the fire around the site of an 1990, left 92 people Air India plane crash in Mangalore on May 22, 2010. dead. The aircraft was coming to Bangalore from Bombay. Fifty-four passengers survived the crash. Besides these, the State witnessed several air crashes in the past involving Indian Air Force (IAF) and civilian aircraft. In April 18, 2004, actor Soundarya, her brother Amarnath and two others were killed when their aircraft crashed soon after taking off from the Jakkur airfield. Soundarya was on her way to Karimnagar in Andhra Pradesh to campaign for the BJP when the four-seater aircraft crashed. In October 26, 2005, IAF test pilot Sqn. Ldr. K. R. Murthy was killed when the MIG 21 aircraft crashed soon after taking off from the HAL airport. Flight engineer K. D. Bhat ejected to safety. In March 18, 2006, IAF pilots Sqn. Ldr. Shailendra Singh and Wg. Cdr. Dhiraj Bhatia of the famed Surya Kiran Aerobatic Team were killed when their trainer jet Kiran MK 2 crashed on the outskirts of Bidar. In February 2, 2007, one IAF pilot was killed and another injured when the HAL-made Advanced Light Helicopter Dhruv of Sarang air display team crashed at the Yelahanka Air Base.

Ms. Meira Kumar was leading an Indian parliamentary delegation to Bhutan. She met the Bhutanese king Jigme Singye WangChuck and the Speaker of Bhutanese Parliament. Addressing a joint session of the Bhutanese Parliament, Ms. Kumar recalled the close economic partnership as well as cultural exchanges between the two countries and said it Time for Prayers : Lok Sabha Speaker was a great privilege Meira Kumar offering prayers at a to extend support to Buddhist shrine in Bhutan on May 27, the people of Bhutan 2010. in their peaceful march towards democracy. She lauded the concept of ‘gross national happiness’ adopted by Bhutan and the world at large had much to learn from the country.

Indian President’s Six-Day Visit to China : Seeks China’s Support for Permanent UNSC Seat
President Pratibha Patil arrived in the Chinese capital Beijing for a six-day visit on May 27, 2010. She was warmly welcome by Chinese Prime Minister Wen Jiabao at Batch : Every Sunday of June & July 2010 the Purple Light Pavilion. In her talks with Chinese Prime Minister Ms. Patil raised India’s Security Council ambitions and again during the summit meeting with President Wen Jiabao she sought China’s support for India’s bid for a permanent seat in the UNSC. Patil and Wen also discussed bilateral issues, particularly trade and commerce between the two countries. China, which is one of the five vetowielding members of the powerful UN Security Council, has been saying that it supports India’s aspirations to play an important role at the UN, but wants an overall reform of the world body.

Lok Sabha Speaker Meira Kumar’s Visit to Bhutan
Lok Sabha Speaker paid a goodwill visit to Bhutan in last week of May. On May 28, she announced the setting up of a Parliamentary Friendship Group to help reinforce and renew the bonds of friendship between India and Bhutan.


“There is nothing so easy but that it becomes difficult when you do it reluctantly.”

Earlier, Wen warmly welcomed Patil and described her visit here as ‘significant’ as it coincided with the 60th year of establishment of Sino-India diplomatic ties. On the 60th anniversary of IndiaChina diplomatic relations, President Pratibha Patil dedicated an Indian-style temple in the town of Luoyang to the friendship between the people of India and people of China President Pratibha Patil and her on May 29, 2010. She Chinese counterpart, Hu Jintao, propose a toast after signing a series of said that it was an agreements in Beijing on May 27, 2010. Indian gift to the people of China. India’s External Affairs Ministry described the temple covering 3,450 square metres of built-up area as one of India’s biggest diplomatic initiatives. There is much symbolism in its launch on the 60th anniversary of India-China diplomatic relations. The temple is located in Luoyang which falls in the province of Henan—considered as the cradle of Chinese civilization. During Patil’s visit to China, Minister of State for Food Processing Subodh Kant Sahay and Foreign Secretary Nirupama Rao, also accompanied her.

Kashmir Boy Tops Civil Services Examination
Dr. Shah Faesal, a doctor from Srinagar has topped the Civil Services Examination 2009 conducted by the Union Public Service Commission, the results of which were announced on May 6, 2010. Shah Faesal, who has done his MBBS from Srinagar, topped the prestigious examination in his first attempt. It was a battle against all odds for Shah Faesal after h i s father was killed by militants in 2001. A total of 875 candidates—680 male and 195 female—have been recommended for appointment to the prestigious Indian Administrative Service, Indian Foreign Shah Faesal : Service, Indian Police Service and other The best Central Services. Prakash Rajpurohit, B. Tech from Indian Institute of Technology, Delhi, has bagged the second position while Iva Sahay from Jawaharlal Nehru University (JNU) has secured the third position. Sahay is the topper among female candidates. A total of 4,09,110 candidates applied for the civil services examination in 2009. As many as 193,091 candidates appeared for the preliminary examination and 12,026 candidates qualified for the main examination. A total of 2,482 candidates were shortlisted for the personality test conducted in March-April 2010.

An Indian Naval Officer Sets Record : Goes Around the World Solo
[First ever Donde is the only Indian to achieve this feat]
A naval officer set a record for the first-ever solo circumnavigation of the globe on a sail boat by an Indian, when he steered into the Mumbai harbour after 276 days of arduous journey. Commander Dilip Donde, who embarked on the voyage on August 19 last year on INSV Mhadei, approached the finish line as his boat, escorted by a fast attack craft of the navy along with speedboats and two tugs operating their water canons, touched base back in India at the Sunk rock Light House in Mumbai on May. Donde : Sets a Donde, 42, covered 21,600 nautical record miles sailing in the seas to achieve the milestone, as part of the Navy’s Sagar Parikrama project. Vice-President Hamid Ansari along with Chief of Naval Staff Nirmal Kumar Verma and Donde’s family members were there to witness the historic moment. The world record for the fastest solo circumnavigation was set in January 2008 by Frenchman Francis Joyon at 67 days, 13 hours, 34 minutes and 6 seconds.

The Union Cabinet approved the posts at its meeting on May 13, 2010. The decision to revive the NAC has led to a war of words between BJP and Congress over its role. BJP has criticized the body as a way of making Sonia Gandhi the ‘Super PM.’ However, after the Cabinet approved the posts, Congress rebuffed the criticism saying that it was an advisory body to help the government on issues of concern to common man.

Commonwealth Games : Queen’s Baton Relay on its Way to India
71 Nations and Territories. 340 days. 1,90,000 kms. The longest ever Queen’s Baton Relay reaches India on 25th June 2010 to begin its 20,000 km long run across the country.

News in a Nutshell
35-Member Staff for NAC Sanctioned
The institutional framework for the National Advisory Council is beginning to fall in place with the government sanctioning a 35-strong staff, including a Secretary level officer, for the body to be headed by Congress President Sonia Gandhi.
The Queen’s Baton had travelled for 206 days across 59 countries by May 21, 2010.

Barack Obama’s India Visit Dates Finalised
Barack Obama’s official India visit is scheduled to materialise in November second week this year. It is learnt

Continued on Page 173


“The only disability in life is a bad attitude.”

Iran Clinches a Deal with Turkey for Uranium Swap
Iran on May 17, 2010 agreed to swap a major part of its low enriched uranium stocks on Turkish soil for an equivalent amount of uranium enriched to 19·75 per cent, potentially ending a stand-off with the US and Europe that threatened to spiral into sanctions. Iran needs the higher grade enriched uranium to fuel the Tehran Research Reactor, used by it to produce medical isotopes. The deal was reached after 18 hours of negotiations among Iran, Turkey and Brazil, leaving Washington and its allies red-faced. The US and Europe are pressing for the punitive route and Secretary of State Hillary Clinton had predicted earlier that the Brazilian-Turkish attempt at mediation would fail. This point was rubbed in by the Brazilian and Turkish Foreign Ministers who flanked their Iranian counterpart, Manoucher Mottaki, at a press conference just before the commencement of the G-15 summit to announce a trilateral agreement that will now be sent to

the Vienna Group and the International Atomic Energy Agency for further action. “The success achieved by Iran, Turkey and Brazil shows there is room for diplomacy. There is no ground anymore for new sanctions,” Turkish Foreign Minister Ahmet Davutoglu said. He gave an assurance that till the uranium swap took place, Turkey would safeguard the Iranian LEU stock as its own property. India, whose Foreign Minister S. M. Krishna was present in Tehran, was out of the loop and had no comments to offer on a deal that overshadowed the presence of six heads of state and nearly a dozen Ministers for the G-15 summit. “We have done this to open the way for constructive dialogue,” Mr. Davuoglu stressed. “This (talks) is the route to peace. We have established the principles of cooperation in future,” said Brazilian Foreign Minister Celso Amorim.

Deal Deepens the Divide on Iran within Security Council : Chances of Sanctions Remote
The deal has several major implications. Most importantly, it makes fresh sanctions against Iran extremely difficult if not impossible to impose. By committing themselves strongly against sanctions, Turkey and Brazil, both non-permanent members, have deepened the divide on Iran within the ranks of the United Nations Security Council. Following the conclusion of the deal, Turkish Foreign Minister Ahmet Davutoglu, taking the lead from his Prime Minister, said the swap deal had demonstrated that “Tehran wants to open a constructive path… there is no more ground for new sanctions and pressures.” The position adopted by Brazil was also on similar times. Among the veto wielding members of the Security Council, China has already shown its disinclination to impose sanctions, preferring diplomacy and dialogue. With Iran now demonstrating its flexibility by signing the deal, and dropping some of its earlier conditions, it is likely that Beijing would be further emboldened to press for a dialogue. In the past few weeks, Russia’s position on sanctions, compared to China, had been rather more ambiguous . Nevertheless, Russians did oppose ‘crippling sanctions’ that would have badly hit Iran’s ordinary citizenry. With the trilateral deal now in place, Moscow is bound to feel the pressure to diverge firmly from the confrontationist path the Americans and their European allies have so far been inclined to adopt. For some of Iran’s die-hard foes, the likely alternative to the pursuit of sanctions through the Security Council would be to press for curbs against Iran by forging a coalition of the willing.

The Deal : Highlights
● Stresses commitments on non-proliferation of nuclear weapons and respect for rights of other countries in nuclear energy progress, research and fuel cycle. ● Vows to implement the articles to open a new round of interaction and cooperation in a constructive and positive atmosphere. ● Fuel exchange is a step to begin cooperation on different aspects of peaceful nuclear energy. ● Fuel exchange is a constructive measure, which should lead to positive cooperation and avoid any confrontation. ● Turkey is to keep 1,200 kg of low-enriched uranium fuel owned by Iran and that the IAEA and Iran can monitor the fuel. ● Iran will inform the IAEA of its agreement within 7 days and in accordance with Vienna group’s demand. ● The two sides must implement article 6 when Vienna group declares it agrees with the deal, then Iran agrees with the exchange of 1200 kg of LEU and Vienna group undertakes to deliver the required 120 kg of nuclear fuel to Iran. ● If points of the agreement are not considered, Turkey gives back fuel to Iran, if it demands so. Turkey and Brazil welcome Iran’s talks with P5 + 1 anywhere including in Brazil and Turkey. Turkey and Brazil appreciate Iran’s constructive approach to pursue its rights and fulfil NPT commitments and Iran appreciates the two countries, measures as well.


“A good conscience is a continual Christmas.”

However, analysts say, even that would be hard to achieve, now that the deal has been signed. Iran, under the terms of the trilateral agreement, is ready to send to Turkey 1,200 kg of low-enriched uranium. This is exactly the quantity of Uranium that the global powers had in their October 2009 meeting in Vienna calculated as sufficient to deprive Tehran of material to manufacture a bomb. The analysts further say that if transfer of 1,200 kg heightened the Western sense of security in October 2009, how can its extraordinary sense of vulnerability be explained few months down the line. Iran has now seized some of the initiative in its nuclear stand-off with the west. But the achievement is in equal measure, if not more, of Brazilian President Lula da Silva and Turkish Prime Minister Recep Tayyip Erdogan, who after their Tehran intervention have acquired a more prominent niche on the global political stage.

support for the strategic arms treaty with Russia, plans to spend $ 180 billion over the next decade to upgrade the nation’s nuclear weapons complex, keep warheads capable and modernise strategic delivery systems. The administration sent law makers the treaty package, including a classified report that lays out in detail its programme to sustain “a strong nuclear deterrent for the duration of the new START treaty and beyond.” The treaty requires the United States to reduce its stockpile of missiles and bombers that can launch nuclear weapons. Republicans had been insistent that they would not support the treaty unless the US nuclear weapons complex is modernised so that more nuclear weapons can be built if needed. According to Administration sources, spending on modernisation of the nuclear weapons complex over the decade will reach $ 180 billion, growing from $ 64 billion this year to $ 7 billion in coming years and eventually topping $ 8 billion beginning in 2010. The growing costs reflect not just construction of facilities but also the refurbishment and possible replacement of some warheads in the next decade, all without the need for testing. An additional $ 100 billion is to be spent on strategic nuclear delivery systems such as bombers and land and submarine-based intercontinental ballistic missiles. Research is underway on a new strategic bomber and a new class of strategic submarines.

Western Powers Keep Pressure on Iran
The uranium swap deal clinched by Iran and supported by a host of countries including some members of the Security Council could not deflect the western powers from keeping pressure on Iran to reach an agreement with the United Nations over its nuclear programme or face more sanctions. France, Germany, Britain and other Western diplomats did not relax their demands on Iran, seeing the Islamic republic as still causing serious concern. “Let’s not be duped by this,” said French Foreign Ministry spokesman Bernard Valero. “A solution for the medical reactor, while necessary, would in no way resolve the problem posed by the Iranian nuclear programme. The exchange of uranium that is envisaged amounts to a confidence gesture, a side issue,” he told reporters. France’s Foreign Minister Bernard Kouchner said the UN nuclear watchdog, the International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA), must be the first body to respond to Iran’s agreement to send its nuclear fuel to Turkey for enrichment, a view echoed by the German government. “It of course remains important that Iran and the IAEA reach an accord,” said Germany’s deputy government spokesman Christoph Steegmans. “That cannot be replaced by an accord with other countries.”
● Exchange of uranium a side issue : France ● Accord with IAEA cannot be replaced : Germany

Dog Meat Keeps Chinese Taikonauts Fit
The first Chinese man to orbit around the earth has said that taikonauts (the Chinese call their astronauts taikonauts) eat dog meat in order to provide them nutrition and keep them fully fit. The 49-year old military pilot, Yang Liwei, who commanded the Shenzhou five mission in 2003, revealed the menu on board Chinese spacecraft in his autobiography “The Nine Levels between Heaven and Earth.”

Coalition Government Assumes Power in Britain : David Cameron New PM
[Nick Clegg becomes British Deputy Prime Minister] Britain’s first post war coalition government, with conservative leader David Cameron as Prime Minister and his Liberal Democrat counterpart Nick Clegg as Deputy Prime Minister, took office on May 12, 2010, promising to give the country a ‘historic new direction.’ Earlier the Labour Prime Young Team at Helm : Britain’s new Minister Gordon Prime Minister David Cameron (left) Brown had sub- and Deputy Prime Minister Nick Clegg mitted his resigna- wave to people outside 10 Downing tion following the Street in London on May 12, 2010. failure of his talks with the Liberal Democrats for a tie-up. With this ended the 13-year Labour rule in Britain.

The western pressure on Iran notwithstanding, the fact remains that the deal has taken much wind out of the sails of the west. Diplomacy of the G-15 leaders who strongly back Iran over the issue has had its hey day and it is not long before the shrillness in the western attitude towards Iran would become a thing of the past. Meanwhile Iran would have to walk on a tight rope.

US to Spend $ 180 billion on Upgrading N-Arsenal
According to The Washington Post sources, the Obama administration, seeking to bolster congressional


“A slip of the foot you may soon recover, but a slip of the tongue you may never get over.”

Profile of David Cameron
● Cameron, 43, is Britain’s youngest Prime Minister for almost two centuries, a few months younger than Tony Blair was when he stormed to power in 1997. ● Cameron was educated at Britain’s most exclusive private school, Eton, and at Oxford University, where he joined the elitist Bullingdon dining club and gained a first-class degree in politics, philosophy and economics. After university, he worked for the Centre-Right Conservative party and was an adviser to then-Chancellor—Norman Lamont in 1992. ● Cameron worked as a public relations executive at the Carlton television company for seven years, before being elected to Parliament in 2001. The Conservatives chose him as their fifth leader in nine years in December 2005. ● Cameron’s support for ‘compassionate Conservatism’ and defence of the state-run National Health Service were influenced by the experience of caring for his oldest child Ivan, who suffered from cerebal palsy and severe epilepsy. Ivan died in February last year aged six. ● Cameron and wife Samantha have two other children and are expecting a baby in September.

Nick Clegg : A Profile
● The charismatic, young leader of the Liberal Democrats transformed his party’s role from traditional underdog of British politics to a party that will never be ignored. ● Nick Clegg, 43, son of a banker, descended from a family of Russian aristocrats who fled to Britain after the 1917 Revolution. His mother, a Dutch, spent her childhood in a former colony of Indonesia. ● Clegg went to Westminster School in London and graduated in archaeology and anthropology from Cambridge. He pursued his post-graduate studies at the University of Minnesota and the College d’Europe in Belgium. ● Clegg worked as a journalist and also as a skiing instructor before joining the European Commission. He speaks four languages—French, Spanish, German and Dutch. ● Clegg was elected a Liberal member of the European Parliament in 1999 but left the job after five years. ● He met his wife, Spanish lawyer Miriam Gonzales Durantez, in Brussels, and they married in 2000. The couple have three sons aged 1 to 8. ● Clegg won his first parliamentary seat in Sheffield in 2005 and two years later took over the leadership of the Lib Dems.

It may be recalled that Parliamentary elections in Britain were held on May 6. The elections returned a hung Parliament with neither of the two major parties obtaining clear majority. This time the Liberal Democrats made a good showing which enabled them to bargain with the parties for formation of the government. David Cameron of the Conservative Party and Nick Clegg of the Liberal Democrats succeeded in managing a tie-up. William Hague, a right-wing Conservative with a hard line on Europe, is the new Foreign Secretary; George Osborne, a close ally of Mr. Cameron, the Chancellor of the Exchequer; and Liberal Democrat Vince Cable, who famously predicted the banking crisis, the Business Secretary.

Mr. Cable is among the five Lib Dem figures who have been given Cabinet posts, causing considerable heart-burn among the Conservatives. The only female member of the Cabinet is Theresa May, a former Conservative Party chairperson, who has been appointed Home Secretary. At 43, Mr. Cameron is the youngest Prime Minister since 1812. His elitist background was sought to be made into an election issue by the Labour Party, which argued that he was not in touch with the ordinary people.

United Kingdom General Election Results, 2010 : At a Glance
Party Conservative Labour Liberal Democrat Democratic Unionist Party Scottish National Party Sinn Fein Plaid Cymru Social Democratic & Labour Party Green Alliance Party UK Independence Party British National Party Ulster Conservatives and Unionits–New Force English Democrats Respect-Unity Coalition Traditional Unionist Voice Christian Party Independent Community and Health Concern Trade Unionist and Socialist Coalition Scottish Socialist Party Others Seats 306 258 57 8 6 5 3 3 1 1 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 1 Gain 100 3 8 0 0 0 1 0 1 1 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 1 Loss 3 94 13 1 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 1 0 1 0 0 1 0 0 1 Net + 97 – 91 –5 –1 0 0 +1 0 +1 +1 0 0 –1 0 –1 0 0 –1 0 0 0 Turnout Votes 10,706,647 8,604,358 6,827,938 168,216 491,386 171,942 165,394 110,970 285,616 42,762 917,832 563,743 102,361 64,826 33,251 26,300 18,623 16,150 12,275 3,157 319,891 29,653,638 % 36·1 29·0 23·0 0·6 1·7 0·6 0·6 0·4 1·0 0·1 3·1 1·9 0·3 0·2 0·1 0·1 0·1 0·1 0·0 0·0 1·1 65·1 (+-, % + 3·8 – 6·2 + 1·0 – 0·3 + 0·1 – 0·1 – 0·1 – 0·1 – 0·1 + 0·0 + 0·9 + 1·2 – 0·1 + 0·2 – 0·1

+ 0·0 – 0·1 0·0 4·0

[After 649 to 650 seats declared]


“All would live long, but none would be old.”

Like him, Mr. Clegg, also 43, has a whiff of class baggage coming of an aristocratic Russian–German lineage. He was under pressure from his left-wing colleagues to form a progressive alliance with the Labour. But the talks collapsed in the face of opposition from those in the Labour. Calling each other by their first names, Mr. Cameron and Mr. Clegg pledged to usher in ‘new politics’. Both parties compromised on their election promises to make the deal possible. Mr. Clegg also agreed to a fixed five-year term for the coalition to allay Liberal Democrat’s fears over its stability.

Policies of the New Coalition
The Conservatives and the Liberal Democrats agreed on some policies to be followed by the new coalition, which are substantially as given below : Coalition—Lib Dems get five cabinet positions. Their leader Nick Clegg becomes Deputy Prime Minister. Some junior ministerial posts will also go to Lib Dems. Economy—A significantly accelerated reduction in the structural budget deficit over the course of a Parliament, the main burden to be borne by reduced spending. Tax—Conservatives agreed to scrap their commitment to raise the death tax threshold to £ 1 million over next Parliament. Banking Reform—Agreed to introduce a banking levy, to tackle bonuses and to create a more competitive banking industry.

Government—Fixed-term Parliaments, including the current Parliament, with the next general election to be held on the first Thursday of May 2015. A referendum on the alternative vote system. European Union—The new government will not join the Euro or propose to join the Euro. It does not propose to transfer any new powers to the European Union. Immigration—A cap on immigration. An end to child detention in immigration centres. Education—The Conservatives’ plans for schools reform can go ahead provided all schools are held accountable.

Russia Celebrates 65th Anniversary of World War II Victory
[Leaders of big powers participate in the Celebrations] Russia marked on May 9, 2010 the 65th anniversary of victory in World War II with a spectacular military parade. For the first time ever, serving US, British, French and Polish troops, as well as servicemen from many former Soviet states joined over 10,000 Russian soldiers to parade on Moscow’s Red Square in a sign that the ‘reset’ in Russia-American relations undertaken a year ago is spreading to Russia’s ties with Europe. Addressing the parade attended by dozens of foreign dignitaries, Russian President Dmitry Medvedev also sought to underline the new spirit of cooperation. “It is only together that we can counter present-day threats. It is only as good neighbours that we can resolve problems of global security in order that the ideals of justice and good triumph in all of the world and that the lives of future generations will be free and happy,” said Medvedev in a short speech that lacked traditional criticism of the west. Foreign leaders in attendance included German Chancellor Angela Merkel, China’s President Hu Jintao, Israeli President Shimon Peres, other European and Asian heads of state, as well as the leaders of most of the ex-Soviet States.

Spacecraft to Test Einstein’s Relativity Theory
In what is billed to be the largest scientific instrument ever built, scientists plan to use three spacecrafts flying three million miles apart to fire laser beams at each other across the emptiness of space in a bid to finally prove whether a theory proposed by Albert Einstein is correct. Physicists hope that the ambitious mission will allow them to prove the existence of gravitational waves—a phenomenon predicted in Einstein’s theory of general relativity and the last piece of his theory still to be proved correct. The three spacecrafts will be put into orbits at a distance of 5 million kilometers from one another, connected only by a laser beam. The mission, a collaboration between NASA and the European Space Agency (ESA) will use three spacecrafts flying information while orbiting the sun, with each housing floating cubes of gold platinum. Laser beams fired between the spacecrafts will then be used to measure minute changes in the distance between each of the cubes, caused by the weak waves of gravity that ripple out from catastrophic events in deep space.

Proven Facts
Experts have already been able to prove a number of predictions made by Einstein’s theory of general relativity. Some of them are : ● Light is bent by gravity ● Gravity travels at a constant speed ● Time can be warped by gravity ● Space and time can bend ● E = m c 2 has also withstood scientific testing


“An investment in knowledge always pays the best interest.”

The latter included Presidents of Latvia and Estonia, whose presence at the V-day parade in Moscow would have been unthinkable a few years ago, when the US under the neo-con Republican Administration stoked anti-Russian sentiments in Eastern Europe. In his statement in Washington US President Barack East-West Cooperation : Russian Obama, regretting a President Dmitry Medvedev with his Chinese counterpart Hu Jintao (left) scheduling class that after the military parade in Moscow on prevented his parti- May 9, Kazakh President Nursultan cipation, praised Mr. Nazarbayev and German Chancellor Medvedev for show- Angela Merkel are also seen. ing “remarkable leadership in honouring the sacrifices of those who came before us.”

More than a 100 helicopters, fighters, bombers, reconnaissance aircraft and refuelling planes screamed over Red Square at low altitudes, some displaying a huge number ‘65’ in the sky, others releasing red, white and blue smoke in the colours of the Russian flag. Military parades were simultaneously held in 70 Russian cities involving 102,000 troops.

14th G-15 Conference Concludes in Tehran
G-15 nations’ conference was held in Tehran in the third week of May 2010. G-15 is a political grouping of developing countries which have formed something like a bloc with a view to jointly deliberating on issues confronting them as developing nations and hammering out strategies to promote G-15 Tehran Summit Logo cooperation and comprehensive interaction among themselves.

Victory Day Parade in Moscow
US, French and British troops strode across Red Square for the first time on May 9, 2010 in a Victory Day parade marked both by the usual impressive display of Russia’s military might and an emphasis on international cooperation. Russian President Dmitry Medvedev addressed the participants and guests at the beginning of the parade. Foreign leaders in attendance included German Chancellor Angela Merkel, China’s Hu Jintao, Israeli President Shimon Peres and

Su-27 and MiG-29 fly over St. Basil’s cathedral during the Victory Day parade in Moscow on May 9, 2010

G-15 Conference in Tehran May 17, 2010

acting Polish President Bronislaw Komorowski, whose predecessor died last month in a plane crash in Russian along with many of Poland’s political and military elite.

Strong nation
The US military was represented at the Moscow parade by a detachment from the 2nd Battalion, 18th Regiment; France was represented by the NormandieNiemen squadron; Britain sent in 76 soldiers from the 1st Battalion Welsh Guards, wearing bright red tunics and tall bearskin caps and Poland deployed 75 service personnel representing the Polish army, air force and navy. “This war made us a strong nation,” said Mr. Medvedev flagging off an impressive display of the Russian military strength. The largest military parade in Russia’s post-Soviet period opened with WWII-era T-34 tanks followed by some of the latest weapon systems, including the PantsirS1 and S-400 air-defence systems and the Topol-M intercontinental ballistic missile.

The Tehran Conference acquired added significance in the backdrop of concerted campaign carried out by the west, particularly the USA to impose sanctions on Iran in order to force it to abandon its nuclear programme, which, the west fears, aims at building nuclear weapons despite claims made by Iran to the contrary and affirming that it is pursuing nuclear programme exclusively for peaceful purposes. At the recent G-15 conference Iran found support from the members of this organisation who expressed grave concern on the west’s adopting or implementing extra territorial and unilateral economic sanctions against developing countries. The G-15 summit called for full and immediate revocation of coercive economic measures or laws against developing countries as well as using its international economic and financial systems as political instruments to impose such measures. The G-15 resolve to stand up against such punitive measures against its members came hours after Iran agreed to mediation by Turkey and Brazil which has eased the threat of sanctions against Tehran by the US-


“Anger is never without Reason, but seldom with a good one.”

Europe combine. With the summit taking place at a crucial juncture, the G-15 mandated the incoming Chairman, Sri Lanka, to establish a high level task force to undertake a thorough and fair assessment on the progress and prospects of the Group. It would also be expected to provide recommendations on the revitalisation of the Group. Expressing deep concern on the extensive devastation in Palestinian territories as a result of Israeli occupation and related activities, the G-15 which actually consists of 17 members, expressed full support for efforts to create a conducive environment to the building of a sovereign and viable Palestinian state. The 14th G-15 summit also called for time-bound reform of Bretton Woods Institutions and examining alternative sources of financing for the developing world. In this context, it urged the completion of the IMF quota review by November this year and welcomed ongoing initiatives for alternative financing such as the IndiaBrazil-South Africa Fund, the Chiang Mai Initiative and the PetroCaribe initiative among others.

Indian Origin PM for Trinidad & Tobago
Kamla Persad-B-Bissessar, whose forefather came to Port of Spain from India as an indentured labourer, has been elected the first woman Prime Minister of Trinidad and Tobago after the political alliance led by her emerged victorious and ended the ruling party’s Kamla Persad43 years in power. Bissessar

US to Expand Secret Military Missions in West Asia
[Clandestine order to counter militant threat in the region. The order is reported to be permitting strikes in Iran if its nuclear ambitions escalate] According to reliable sources, the top American commander in West Asia has ordered a broad expansion of clandestine military activity in an effort to disrupt militant groups or counter threats in Iran, Saudi Arabia, Somalia and other countries in the region. The secret directive signed in September by Gen. David H. Petraeus, authorises the sending of American Special operations troops to both friendly and hostile nations in West Asia, Central Asia and the Horn of Africa to gather intelligence and build ties with local forces. The order also permits reconnaissance that could pave the way for possible military strikes in Iran if tensions over its nuclear ambitions escalate. While the Bush administration had approved some clandestine military activities, the new order is intended to make such efforts more systematic and long term. As per official sources, its goals are to build networks that could “penetrate, disrupt, defeat or destroy” al-Qaeda and other militant groups, as well as to prepare the environment for future attacks by American or local military forces. General Petraeus’s order is meant for small teams of American troops to fill intelligence groups about terror organisations.

Attended by six heads of government and senior Ministers from the other 11 members, the meet stressed the need for the early and full implementation of all the commitments made at the G-20 summits to put in place a global plan for recovery and reform. This includes the commitment to replenish the finances of international financial institutions for concessional lending to crisesaffected countries and mobilising $ 20 billion for food security in developing countries. The G-15’s stand on commitments comes a month ahead of the next G-20 summit which will be attended by four of the G-15 members. It also urged developed countries to fulfil their promise of earmarking 0·7 per cent of their gross national product (GNP) to developing countries by 2015 and reach the level of at least 0·5 per cent of GNP of official development assistance by the end of this year. In the arena of international trade, the G-15 rejected attempts by some developed countries to impose additional commitments on some of its members currently in the process of WTO accession.

G-15 Members
The grouping accounts for one third of the global population and consists of some of the biggest economies of the world. The 17 members of the Grouping are : Algeria, Argentina, Brazil, Chile, Egypt, India, Indonesia, the Islamic Republic of Iran, Jamaica, Kenya, Malaysia, Mexico, Nigeria, Senegal, Sri Lanka, Venezuela and Zimbabwe. The chairmanship of the grouping passed from Iran to Sri Lanka, which will be the 15th chairman for a twoyear term. As chairman of the G-15 Sri Lanka would be entrusted with the responsibility of articulating the aspirations of the developing world.


“At 20 years of age the will reigns, at 30 the wit, at 40 the judgement.”

The seven-page directive appears to authorise specific operations in Iran, most likely to gather intelligence about the country’s nuclear programme or identify dissident groups that might be useful for a future military offensive. The Obama administration insists that it is committed to penalising Iran only with sanctions. Nevertheless, the Pentagon has to draw up detailed war plans to be prepared, in the event that President Obama ever authorises a strike. “The Defence Department can’t be caught flatfooted,” said one Pentagon official. The directive, the Joint Unconventional Warfare Task Force Execute Order, signed September 30, may also have helped lay a foundation for the surge of American military activity in Yemen that began three months later. Special Operations troops began working with Yemen’s military to try to dismantle al-Qaeda in the Arabian Peninsula. The order calls for clandestine activities that “cannot or will not be accomplished” by conventional military operations or “interagency activities”. Unlike covert actions undertaken by the CIA, such clandestine activity does not require the President’s approval or regular reports to Congress. Special Operations troops have already been sent into a number of countries.

As part of the freeze the statement said that North Korea would close a 39 year old Red Cross liaison office at the Panmunjom border village and begin a full-force counter attack against the puppet regime’s psychological warfare against North Korea.” It is common knowledge that South Korea is fully supported by the United States and is an ally of the latter. It is in this context that North Korea dubs it as a puppet regime.

US Backing South
● The US has thrown its full support behind South Korea’s moves and they are planning two major military exercises off the Korean peninsula in a display of force intended to deter future aggression by North Korea. ● The US has 28,500 troops in South Korea. ● On the other sides of the Cold War border, the North keeps about one million soldiers, one of the world’s largest standing armies.

North Korea’s Military Readiness
Meanwhile, North Korean leader Kim Jong-il has told his military that it may have to go to war but only if the South attacks first, “We do not hope for war but if South Korea, with the US and Japan on its back, tries to attack us, Kim Jong-il has ordered us to finish the task of unification left undone during the (Korean) war,” a radio broadcast said. The comments are in line with previous one by North that it is ready to defend itself if attacked. The international community will have to mobilise all its diplomatic moves to defuse the crisis between the two Koreas. The situation may aggravate further if somehow the hot tempers on both sides maul the best side of discretion by coming into clash.

North Korea Severs Ties with South Korea
North Korea announced on May 25, 2010 that it was severing all relations with South Korea as tensions soared on the Korean Peninsula. The announcement was a tit-fortat response to Seoul’s imposition of sanctions on the North for sinking one of its warships. North Korea said that it would cut all communications with South Korea and would not resume any contact during the tenure of South Korean President Lee Myung-bak. Lee had announced tough trade measures against North Korea earlier on May 24, including a ban on all imports and exports with the North and the closure of South Korean waters to ships from the North. A week earlier, his government had released the findings of an international investigation that blamed North Korea for firing a torpedo that sank South Korea’s warship on March 26, killing 46 sailors. North Korea said that it would forbid South Korean ships and aircraft from passing through its sea and air space. It also said that South Korean government officials would be expelled from the Kaesong industrial park, a North-South venture near the border between the two Koreas that has been a major source of hard currency earnings for the impoverished government of Kim Jong-il (North Korea). A statement attributed to the committee for the Peaceful Reunifications of Korea said, “Now we officially state that we will embark on firm action to close all North and South relations, scrap the non-aggression agreement and abolish all cooperative businesses between the Koreas.

Shanghai Cooperation Organisation’s (SCO’s) Norms for New Admissions
In a historic decision, the Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO) has approved draft rules for admitting new members into the six-member regional security grouping. The new rules were endorsed by the SCO Foreign Ministers at their meeting in Tashkent, capital of Uzbekistan, on May 22, 2010. The rules are expected to be finally approved by the Heads of State of the SCO at a Summit meeting in June in Tashkent. May 22’s decision signals the lifting of a moratorium on the admission of new members the SCO introduced shortly after its establishment in 2001. The SCO comprises : Russia, China, Kazakhstan, Uzbekistan, Kyrgyzstan and Tajikistan. The nations which have observer status : Indian, Iran, Mangolia and Pakistan would be prime candidates for full membership. Iran will not immediately be able to enrol as the rules bar nations which are under UN security council sanctions as reported by a Russian diplomat.

Israel Launches Air Raid Drill
Israel launched its biggest air raid exercise on May 23, 2010 to test its preparedness against possible missile


“Be civil to all; sociable to many; familiar with few; friend to one; enemy to none.”

strikes from Iranian sponsored militant groups as international tensions rose over Tehran’s nuclear programme. Israel has all along been calling for strong economic sanctions against Iran over its nuclear plans but, in a hint of possible military action, has said that all options are open in case diplomacy failed to resolve the dispute. Israeli Prime Minister Benjamin Netanyahu has, however, described Israel’s biggest civil defence exercise as a routine, protective move and said that the government sought only “quiet, stability and peace”. The five-day drill dubbed as ‘Turning Point’ has sparked nervousness in the region as diplomatic efforts intensify to curb Iran’s nuclear ambitions, which the west and Israel believe are aimed at building nuclear weapons. Hezbollah fired more than 4,000 rockets into Israel during the 2006 Lebanon war. Hamas carried out numerous cross-border rocket attacks in the past, and Israel launched a war in the Gaza-Strip in late 2008 with the aim of ending such strikes. Israel has held a country-wide civil defence exercise annually for the past three years and military officials said the current drill is the most extensive in its 62-year history.

Self-Replicating Bacterial Cell with Synthetic DNA Created
On May 20, 2010 American scientists announced a remarkable bold step. They announced that they had produced a living cell powered by man-made DNA. Scientists have created synthetic life by synthesising an entire bacterial genome and used it to take over a cell.

One Step Forward to Artificial Life
1. Scientists picked two species of a simple germ called Mycoplasma, then chemically synthesized the genome of M. Mycoides, a germ that causes a disease in goats, with some 1.1 million ‘letters’ of DNA. 2. This genome was transplanted into a living cell from a different Mycoplasma series. 3. The recipient cell started out with synthetic DNA and its original cytoplasm. 4. Soon enough, though, the new genome ‘booted up’, producing proteins which could be found only in the transplanted goat germ. Three Indian-origin scientists—Sanjay Vashee, Radha Krishnakumar and Prashanth P. Parmar–were part of the 24member team that has created a synthetic cell for the first time. The team was earlier involved in copying genomes from one bacteria to another, and in ‘writing’ the blueprint of DNA.

Teenage Everesters Establish Records
Two teenagers made records in climbing Mt. Everest on May 22, 2010. 13 year old American boy Jordan Romero, who was among the more than 50 mountaineers to reach the top, climbed from the Tibet side to become the youngest in the world to scale the highest peak. A few hours earlier a 16 year old school boy Arjun Bajpayee from Noida (India) became the youngest Indian to be The Youngest in the World to on top of the peak. He chose the traditional South Col route in Nepal. reach Everest The two youngsters could have had a tryst atop the world’s highest summit, but apparently missed each other by a whisker, as Arjun after a short stay atop made his way back for a descent. Arjun climbed the peak in the company of Apa Sherpa 50, who became the first man to climb the peak for a record 20th time. The world record for the highest numbers of climbs on Everest also earlier stood in his name. Along with Arjun also making it to the top was another Indian woman Arjun Bajpayee, Mamta Sudha who reached the Summit who became the four hours after the young Indian Arjun youngest Indian to climb Mt. Bajpayee. Arjun was accompanied by a 12member team, nine of whom were from the U.S., Denmark, Switzerland and Australia while the remaining three were Indians.
Everest on May 22

The Scientists have called it the world’s first synthetic cell. It is more a re-creation of existing life. The research is being presented here as a landmark that will open ways to creating useful microbes from scratch to make products like vaccines and biofuels. Scientist J. Craig Venter described the converted cell “as the first self-replicating species we have had on the planet. This synthetic cell raises new questions about nature of life”. Scientists aim at achieving control over a bacterium’s genome, first by synthesising its DNA and then by designing a new genome stripped of many natural functions and equipped with new genes that govern production of useful chemicals.


“The only people who find what they are looking for in life are the fault finders.”

Synthesising a Functional Genome
A team led by J. Craig Venter has succeeded in creating a synthetic bacterial genome and have used it to control a cell.

ASSEMBLY : The team began with small pieces of laboratory-made DNA, then used a new technique to join them together into the largest piece of DNA synthesised so far, a loop one million units in length.

INSERTION : The loop of DNA was designed to closely replicate the genetic sequence of a species of bacterium. To test the DNA, the team inserted it into an empty cell of a different species of bacterium.

SELF-REPLICATION : The synthetic DNA proved accurate enough to take over the bacterial cell and substitute for the cell’s own DNA. The ‘synthetic cell’ then replicated itself to form a bacterial colony.

The Scientists picked two species of a simple germ named Mycoplasma. First, they chemically synthesized the genome of M. mycoides, that goat germ, which with 1·1 million letters of DNA was twice as large as the germ genome they had previously built. Then they transplanted it into a living cell from a different Mycoplasma species, albeit a fair close cousin. That fixed, the transplant worked. The recipient cell started out with synthetic DNA and its original cytoplasm, but the new genome booted up that cell to start producing only proteins that normally would be found in the copied goat germ. The scientists had tagged the synthetic DNA to be able to tell it apart and checked as the modified cell reproduced to confirm that new cells really looked and behaved like M. Mycoides.

Hundreds of people were killed in clashes between the Thai security force and the protesters. At long last, however, Thai authorities on May 19, 2010 declared success in ending this prolonged protest campaign in Bangkok’s commercial hub. While several protesters surrendered, a few others resolved to fight on. The Red-shirted protesters have been demanding an immediate dissolution of the House of Representatives and a snap general election. Military-backed Prime Minister Abhisit Vejjajiva, who set November 14, timeline for a fresh poll, over a year ahead of schedule, later withdrew the offer, citing its rejection by the protest leaders. The protesting United Front for Democracy against Dictatorship (UDD) is an umbrella group of pro-democracy activists and the loyalists of Thaksin Shinawatra, who was deposed in a military coup in 2006 and is now a proclaimed fugitive living in self-imposed exile. The UDD has been holding protests in the capital since March 12, when it trucked in tens of thousands of followers to Bangkok from northern and north-eastern Thailand, the heartlands of the red shirt movement which is openly supportive of the fugitive former Prime Minister, Thaksin Shinawatra. Mr. Thaksin was overthrown by a military coup in 2006 and fled the country to avoid a two-year prison term for corruption.

Thai Turmoil : Government Acts Tough with Red-shirt Protesters
For about two months the Thai capital witnessed rebel activity indulged in by red-shirt protesters tearing asunder the law and order situation in the capital.

News in a Nutshell
Russia to Build ‘Invisible’ Helicopters
Russia is planning to build a combat helicopter that would be able to attack fighter jets and remain ‘invisible’ to radar, officials have said. “We are working on the concept of the 5th-generation combat helicopter,” Andrei Shibitov, Chief Executive Officer of the Russia Helicopters Company said. If built, this will be the world’s first fifthP.Darpan generation combat helicopter, he said.

Quelling Dissent : Red Shirt anti-government protesters are detained by soldiers at their camp in Bangkok on May 19, 2010.


“Beware of the young doctor and the old barber.”

Annual Plan Pegged at Rs. 20,000 crore
The Annual Plan for Bihar for 2010-11 was on May 17, 2010 was finalised at Rs. 20,000 crore. The plan was approved at a meeting between Bihar Chief Minister Nitish Kumar and Planning Commission Deputy Chairman Montek Singh Ahluwalia. Mr. Ahluwalia advised the State government to concentrate on improving farm productivity through intensive use of high yielding varieties. The farm sector contributed 35 per cent of the State’s gross domestic product (GDP) and gave employment to 77 per cent of its work force. Chief Minister Nitish Kumar said the social sector would get priority in Plan allocation with over 36 per cent funding. Transport sector would be next priority with 23·45 per cent allocation. The state has succeeded in bringing down fiscal deficit to 3·5 per cent and tax revenue up from Rs. 3,561 crore in 200506 to Rs. 8,274 crore in 2009-10.

A New 300 crore Package Announced
Union Commerce and Industry Minister Anand Sharma on May 8, 2010 announced an industrial and financial bonaza worth Rs. 300 crore for Himachal Pradesh including extension of transportation and capital subsidy and income tax exemption for another three years. He also announced a centrally sponsored Industrial Infrastructure Upgradation Scheme worth Rs. 70 crore for the industrial township of Baddi.

Rs. 18,260 crore Approved for State Annual Plan
The Annual Plan for Haryana for 2010-11 was approved at Rs. 18,260 crore on May 11, 2010. The plan was finalised between Haryana Chief Minister Bhupinder Singh Hooda and Planning Commission Deputy Chairman Montek Singh Ahluwalia. It may be noted here that Haryana ranks high in terms of per capita income which reflected the health of the state’s economy and development.

Dipak Misra : New Chief Justice of High Court
President Pratibha Patil has appointed the Chief Justice of the Patna High Court, Justice Dipak Misra, as the new Chief Justice of the Delhi High Court. He succeeded Justice A.P. Shah, who retired this past February. Hailing from Orissa, Justice Misra was appointed Additional Judge of the Orissa High Court in January 1996. He was transferred to the Madhya Pradesh High Court in March 1997. He became permanent Judge in December that year. In December 2009 he was appointed Chief Justice of the Patna High Court.

Sahitya Akademi Awards Announced
The Kerala Sahitya Akademi Awards for 2009 were announced on May 11, 2010. Among the awardees Ettumanorr Somadasan, Erumeli Parameswaran Pillai and P.V.K. Panyal have been chosen for overall contribution Bengamin’s Aadujeevitham was adjudged the best novel. The awards in the other categories are as follows : Poetry : N. K. Desam (Mudra); drama : K. M. Raghavan Nambyar (Swathanthryam thanne jeevitham); short-story : K. R. Meera (Ave Maria); literary criticism : K. S. Ravi Kumar (Aakhyanathinte Adarukal); scholarly literature : Vijaya Kumar Menon (Sthalam Kalam Kala); biography/autobiography : T. J. S. George (Ghoshayatra); travelogue : Raveendran (Ente Keralam) translation : K. Sachithanandan (Padinjaran Kavithakal); children’s literature : a. Vijayan (Muyalchevi) and humour : Marshal (Ronald Reaganum Balan Mashum); Vishnu Narayanan Namboodiri and Punathil Kunjabdulla have been chosen for Akademi’s fellowships.

Gujarat gets Rs. 30,000 crore for Annual Plan
The Annual Plan for Gujarat for 2010-11 was on May 20, 2010 finalised at Rs. 30,000 crore. The plan was finalised in a meeting between Planning Commission Deputy Chairman Montek Singh Ahluwalia and Gujarat Chief Minister Narendra Modi. It may be noted here that in the first year of the Eleventh Plan, the State posted a growth of 12·8% and in terms of per capita income also Gujarat was far better placed that most other states of India. The state has plans to set up the country’s first solar park for generation of 700 Megawatt of power.


“Content makes poor men rich; discontentment makes rich men poor.”

Israni Committee Recommends Quota for Gujjars in Jobs
Israni Committee which was appointed on the orders of the Rajasthan High Court to look into the demands of Gujjars for reservation in jobs has recommended that Gujjars should be accorded special backward class status and thus be provided reservation in jobs. It may be noted here that the committee is headed by former High Court Judge Justice I. S. Israni. The Committee which submitted its report to a Division Bench of the High Court hearing a public interest writ in this matter on May 3, 2010 in Jaipur endorsed the recommendation of the Justice Jas Raj Chopra Committee which had recommended 5 per cent reservation quota for Gujjars community in 2007. Following the submission of the report on–Gujjar quota, the state government is planning to send a team to Maharashtra to study the legal provisions on exceeding the 50 per cent limit on reservation.

Arunachal Pradesh have been clubbed with the old districts from which those were carved out, for the purpose of DII. It has also prepared State-wise composite infrastructure index and district ranking on 14 indicators covering the seven broad indicators. Imphal West district in Manipur ranks first while Kiphire in Nagaland ranks the lowest rank 80 under the Indes. Going by the district ranking South Sikkim district has the first rank with 7·07 banks per 100 sq. km, while Kolasib district in Mizoram has 80th rank with only 0·02 banks per 100 sq. km. The ranking on density and quality of roads has West Tripura district having the first rank with 206·62 km of road per 100 sq. km. while Kurung Kumey district in Arunachal is ranked 80 with only 2·53 km road per 100 sq. km. Similarly Serchhip district in Mizoram ranks first on village electrification with 100 per cent villages electrified while Dhemaji in Assam ranks the lowest at 80 with only 26·01 per cent villages electrified. The Ministry plans to use the DII for final approval of the schemes and projects submitted by the States to be funded under the Non-Lapsable Central Pool of Resources.

Annual Plan Fixed at Rs. 2,230 crore
Megalaya’s Annual Plan for 2010-11 was pegged at Rs. 2,230 crore on May 21, 2010. The plan was finalised in a meeting between Planning Commission Deputy Chairman Montek Singh Ahluwalia and Meghalaya Chief Minister Mukul Sangma. Meghalaya has been faring well in development of infrastructure particularly roads and steady growth is visible in the state’s per capita income and foodgrains. In the field of education, the state is close to the national average and its 8·3% GSDP (gross state domestic product) growth during the two first two year Plan (2007-12) is a creditable achievement.

Rs. 20,068 crore Annual Plan Fixed for Tamil Nadu
The Annual Plan for Tamil Nadu for 2010-11 was on May 3, 2010 fixed at Rs. 20,068 crore. The plan was finalised in a meeting between Tamil Nadu Chief Minister M. Karunanidhi and Planning Commission Deputy Chairman Montek Singh Ahluwalia. The plan outlay includes an additional Central assistance of Rs. 150 crore for projects of special interest to the state. Mr. Ahluwalia appreciated Tamil Nadu for having an impressive record of improvement in human development indices and growth in industry and services with a dynamic service sector, a relatively stagnant agriculture sector and a modest industry sector. Tamil Nadu was one of the most urbanised states with a high human development index with improvement in infrastructure and high investment levels.

Infrastructure Index for North-East Region Released
The Ministry of Development of North East Region (DONER) has prepared a composite District Infrastructure Index (DII) for all the districts in the region with objective to reduce intra-regional disparities and better target schemes and projects meant for development and progress. The DII is based on seven broad indicators— transport facilities in terms of road density and road quality, energy, water supply, education, health facilities, communication infrastructure and banking facilities. The Ministry has used the composite NER DII to give ranking from 1 to 80 to all the 80 districts. It may be noted here that in all there are 86 districts in eight NE States. However, six new districts, four in Assam and two in

Rs. 3,050 crore Target Set for MGNREGA
The West Bengal Government has set an expenditure target of Rs. 3,050 crore for the implementation of 100 days’ work programme for the rural masses under the Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA) which is Union Governments’ flagship programme. As per West Bengal Finance Minister Asim Dasguptas’ information, this would mark a significant increase over the Rs. 2010 crore spent in 2009-10. It may be noted here that in West Bengal 45 days of work was made available last year but this year, the target would be to P.Darpan raise it to 70 days.


“Do not anticipate trouble, or worry about what may never happen. Keep in the sunlight.”

CIHCS—Central Institute of Himalayan Culture Studies. The central government has decided to set up a Central Institute of Himalayan Culture studies in Arunachal Pradesh. It would be an autonomous body under the Ministry of Culture and will be located at Dahung in West Kameng district to be built at a cost of Rs. 9 crore. IFC—Infrastructure Finance Companies. IVFRT—Immigration, Visa and Foreigners Registration and Tracking. NCPCR—National Commission for Protection of Child Rights NCPCR is a statutory body like the NCW (National Commission for Women) and NHRC (National Human Rights Commission. It is a body entrusted with the task of acting as children’s ombudsman, to protect their rights and ensure due justice to them. The Government of India constituted the Commission in the context of UN convention on the Rights of the Child, which it ratified in 1992. It may be mentioned that there is already a NCPCR Act, 2005. PHWRs—Pressurised Heavy Water Reactors. UIDAI—Unique Identification Authority of India.

Earlier, he designed, developed and installed coolant channels and other internal components of the Dhruwa (100 Megawatt thermal) research reactor at BARC.

New Rajasthan Judges Take Oath
Justice Kailash Joshi and Justice Sajjan Singh Kothari were sworn in as judges of the Rajasthan High Court at its principal seat at Jodhpur on May 24, 2010. Chief Justice Jagdish Bhalla administered the oath of office to the two new judges. While justice Joshi was earlier Registrar-General of the High Court, Justice Kothari served as the State Law Secretary. With the two judges assuming office, the strength of judges in the high court has increased to 26 against the sanctioned strength of 40. By another order Tafazzul Hussain Samma has been appointed the High Court’s Registrar-General.

Kshemendra Paul
The Obama administration has appointed IndianAmerican Kshemendra Paul to a key IT position, making him head of an agency that facilitates the sharing and access of terrorism-related information with in various wings of the U.S. government. Mr. Paul, whose parents migrated from Punjab in 1950s has been appointed as Programme Manager for the Information Sharing Environment (PM-ISE), which has now assumed a major role as the administration is focused on organising and streamlining terrorism-related data available with various agencies and departments of the government. At present he is the Federal Chief Architect at the Office of Management and Budget.

Ratan Kumar Sinha
Ratan Kumar Sinha took over as Director of the Bhabha Atomic Research Centre (BARC), Trombay, on May 19, 2010 from Srikumar Banerjee, also Chairman of the Atomic Energy Commission. Mr. Sinha was Director of the Reactor Design and Development Group and the Manufacturing and Automation Group at BARC. Mr. Sinha spearheaded the development of several remote inspection technologies for New Director of the BARC Ratan replacing the coolant Kumar Sinha (left) being greeted by channels in the Pres- predecessor Srikumar Banerjee in sured Heavy Water Mumbai on May 19, 2010. Reactors.

S. Ramakrishnan
S. Ramakrishnan, Director (Projects) Vikram Sarabhai Space Centre, Thiruvananthapuram, has been appointed Director of Liquid Propulsion Systems Centre (LPSC) of the Indian Space Research Organisation. He took over the charge on May 31, 2010. An expert in rocket technology, Mr. Ramakrishnan had earlier been the Project Director of the Geo-synchronous Satellite Launch Vehicle—MARK III S. Ramakrishnan which is under development.

D. Shivnandan
Mumbai Police Commissioner D. Shivnandan was on May 31, 2010 appointed Maharashtra’s new DirectorGeneral Police (DGP). He succeeds Anami Narayan Roy who retired on May 31.


“Drive thy business or it will drive thee.”

Sanjeev Dayal, Additional Director-General (special operations) was appointed Mumbai Police Commissioner.

H. L. Kakria
Lieutenant General H. L. Kakria on May 31, 2010 took over as the new Director General of Medical Services (Army) in New Delhi. He replaces Lt. Gen. S. R. Mehta, who retired.

The youngest member of the House of Lords, she was, on the recommendation of now PM David Cameron, conferred the title of Baroness of Dewsbury in 2007.

Legendary Singer Lena Horne
Lena Horne, the enchanting jazz singer and actress who reviled the bigotry that allowed her to entertain white audiences but not socialise with them, slowing her rise to Broadway superstardom, died on May 2, 2010. She was 92. Horne, whose striking beauty and magnetic sex appeal often overshadowed her sultry voice, was remarkably candid about the underlying reason for her success. “I was unique in that I was a kind of black that white people Lena Horne could accept,” she once said. “I was their day dream. I had the worst kind of acceptance because it was never for how great I was or what I contributed. It was because of the way I looked.”

Vivek Sahay
A Senior railway officer Vivek Sahay on May 31, 2010 took over as the new Chairman of Railway Board. He takes the place of S. S. Khurana who has retired.

Vivek Sahay

Ms. Khusboo, who is a popular southern actress came into the news recently when she met DMK President M. Karunanidhi and joined his DMK party, saying she loves to serve the people. Khusboo told IANS earlier that she had always wanted to involve herself in full-time politics. Khusboo was in April 2010 acquitted by the Supreme in all 22 cases pending against her in courts across Tamil Nadu for endorsing pre-marital and live-in-relationships.

K. A. Krishnasamy
Former AIADMK Minister K. A. Krishnasamy, known as KAK, died on May 18. He was 78. KAK was the younger brother of K. A. Mathiazhagan, one of the five prominent leaders of the DMK. KAK was the first organisation secretary of the AIADMK when it was founded in 1972 by MGR. Thennagam, the daily run by him, became the official organ of the AIADMK.

She started her career in the 1980s as a child artiste. She was introduced to southern film industry by K. Raghavendra Rao’s Telugu movie ‘Kaliyuga Pandavulu.’ She worked in all four southern movie industries but was more active in Tamil films.

Joining the Bandwagon : Khusboo

Father of ATM, Scot John Shepherd-Barron Passes Away
India-born Scot John Shepherd-Barron, the man who invented the Automated Teller Machine (ATM) passed away in Scotland on May 15, 2010. He was 84. The businessman, who worked for the printing firm De La Rue Instruments at the time came up with the con-cept of a self service cash dispenser in 1965 while lying in a bath after getting to his bank too late to withdraw money. Shepherd - Barron’s ‘eureka’ moment was inspired by a machine dispensing chocolate bars and he later sold his concept to an executive at Britain’s Barclays Bank over a pink A 1968 photo of an ATM in action gin. “It struck me there must be a way I could get my own money, anywhere in the world or the UK. I hit upon the

Baroness Sayeeda Hussain Warsi
Baroness Sayeeda Hussain Warsi created history by becoming the first Muslim woman to be part of the British Cabinet, when she was announced the Chairman of the Conservative Party a few days earlier. Born in Yorkshire, the trained solicitor has been heavily promoted as the multi-cultural face of the newly elected British Prime Minister David Cameron’s Tory Party. Once voted the most powerful Muslim woman in the country, Warsi is Sayeeda Warsi one of the only four women appointed to the 23-member cabinet. “It is a huge achievement for me as someone who is from a working class, of Muslim faith and of Pakistan background,” she was quoted as saying. Warshi has the potential of becoming a powerful voice for Muslims within the British Cabinet.


“Early to bed and early to rise makes a man healthy, wealthy and wise.”

idea of a chocolate bar dispenser, but replacing chocolate with cash,” Barron had said. The first ATM was installed at a bank in London in 1967. And, Reg Varney, one of the stars of popular TV show ‘On the Buses’, became the first person to withdraw cash. The first ATM was operated by inserting a special cheque that was matched against a PIN number, and paved the way for machines using plastic cards. There are now nearly two million machines worldwide.

(Rs. one crore) and citation. It was presented at the Annual Award Gala of Canada India Foundation held in Vancouver Barj Dhahan recently.

The 63rd Cannes Film Festival Concludes
The 63rd Cannes Film Festival which began on May 12, 2010 concluded on 23, 2010 in Cannes, France. Little known arthouse director Apichatpong Weerasethakul’s “Uncle Boonmee who can Recall his Past Lives” won the prestigious Palme d’Or. The film is from Thailand. ‘Uncle Boonmee’ is only sixth Asian offering to win the top prize at Cannes Festival in several decades and the first in more than 10 years. Bardem, who plays a good hearted terminally hustler in ‘Biutiful’ by Mexico’s Alejandro Inarritu, shared the best actor award with Italy’s Elio Germano of gritty social drama ‘Our Life’. Binocha was named best actress for her life role in ‘Certified copy’ by Iran’s Abbas Kiarostami. South Korean director Lee Chang Apichatpong Weerasethakul receiving Dong’s. ‘Poetry’ was Palme d’Or—for uncle Boonmee named best screenplay while Frenchman Mathieu Amalric won the best director prize for ‘Tour’. Chadian director Mahmat— Saleh Haroun clinched the jury prize for ‘A Screaming Man’—the first movie from Sub-Saharan Africa to run for the Palme in 13 years. The list of the awardees at the cannes Film Festival is given below— Palma d’Or (Best Feature Film)—LUNG BOONMEE RALUEK CHAT (Uncle Boonmee who can recall his past lives) by Apichatpong WEERASETHAKUL (Thailand) Grand Prix—DES HOMMES ET DES DIEUX (Of Gods And Men) by Xavier BEAUVOIS (France) Award for the Best Director—Mathieu AMALRIC for TOURNEE (On Tour) (France) Jury Prize—UN HOMME QUI CRIE (A Screaming Man) directed by Mahamat-Saleh HAROUN (Chad) Best Performance for an Actor—Javier BARDEM in BIUTIFUL directed by Alejandro GONZALEZ INARRITU (Mexico) Elio GERMANO in LA NOSTRA VITA (Our Life) directed by Daniele LUCHETTI (Italy) Best Performance for an Actress—Juliette BINOCHE in COPIE CONFORME (Certified Copy) directed by Abbas KIAROSTAMI (Iran) Award for the Best Screenplay—LEE Chang-dong for POETRY (Korea) Palme d’Or (Best Short Feature Film)—CHIENNE D’HISTOIRE (Barking Island) directed by Serge AVEDIKIAN (France)

Tapen Chattopadhyay
Film personality Tapen Chattopadhyay, famous for his role as Goopi in Satyajit Ray’s classic Goopi Gayen Bagha Bayen (Goopi the singer Bagha the drammure) died at Kolkata on May 24, 2010. He was 72. Chattopadhyay started his career in the advertisement department of a children’s magazine, Sandesh before being cast by Ray as Goopi. The actor became famous overnight and went on to play the same actor in two more films—one directed by Ray and the other by Ray’s son Sandip Ray.

Rima Fakih is Miss USA 2010
Rima Fakih—an Arab-American was crowned Miss USA 2010 on May 16, 2010 in Washington. She is the Labanese immigrant who became the first ever Arab-American to win the title. She won accolade for telling the judges that birth control ought to be paid for by the healthcare system given its cost. Ms. Fakih was born in Lebanon and immigrated to the United States of America as a Rima Fakih child. Currently she hails from Dearborn, Michigan. She is also the first Muslim woman to bag the title.

Ratan Tata Honoured with Chanchlani Global Indian Award
India’s top industrialist and Chairman of the Tata Group Ratan Tata has been honoured with CIF Chanchlani Global Indian Award for his outstanding global leadership, vision and professional excellence. Canada India Foundation (CIF) created the CIF Chanchlani Global India Award to recognize individuals who have demonstrated global leadership, vision and professional excellence which has made Ratan Tata people of Indian origin around the globe proud of their heritage. The award carries $ 2,25,000


“Employ thy time well, if thou meanest to get leisure.”

Jury Prize—MICKY BADER (Bathing Micky) directed by Frida KEMPFF CAMERA D’OR ANO BISIESTO directed by Michael ROWE. UN CERTAIN REGARD Un Certain Regard Prize—Fondation Groupama GAN pour le cinema HAHAHA by HONG Sangsoo Jury Prize—OCTUBRE (October) directed by Daniel VEGA & Diego VEGA The Prize for Best Performance Un Certain Regard— Adela SANCHEZ, Eva BIANCO, Victoria RAPOSO in LOS LABIOS (The lips) by lvan FUND & Santiago LOZA. CINEFONDATION First Cinefondation Prize—TAULUKAUPPIAAT (The Painting Sellers) by Juho KUOSMANEN. Second Cinefondation Prize—COUCOU-LESNUAGES (Anywhere out of the world) by Vincent CARDONA Third Cinefondation Prize—HINKERORT ZORASUNE (The Fifth Column) by Vatche BOULGHOURJIAN A VEC JESAM SVE ONO STO ZELIM DA IMAM (I Already am Everything I Want to Have) by Dane KOMLJEN

Gold Medal for Indian Sand Artist
Indian sand artist Sudarsan Pattnaik won the People’s Choice Gold Medal at the second World Sand Sculpture Championship recently held in Moscow. Pattnaik won this honour for his sculpture of legendary Bollywood actor Raj Kapoor. Mr. Pattnaik’s Raj Kapoor— the Icon of IndoRussian Friendship sculpture was highly acclaimed by visitors who voted him for the top prize. Artists from Iceland won the Jury Choice and Sculptor Choice prizes in the championship. The theme of this year’s cham- Sudarsan Pattnaik poses with his gold pionship was world’s medal in front of the sand sculpture of cinema and the Raj Kapoor from the film ‘Mera Naam artists were required Joker’ in Moscow on May 6, 2010. to give their vision of famous movies from famous directors with famous actors in their sand creations.

Anti-Imperialist Writer Wins the Lost Booker
The anti-imperialist Anglo-Irish writer J.G. Farrell was recently posthumously awarded a special one-off lost Booker prize for his novel ‘Troubles’ published in 1970. The prize which carries no cash prize was created to recognize books of 1970 which missed out because of a change in rules that meant that the 1971 Booker was given to novels published that year, rather than retrospectively, as had been the practice until then. Mr. Farrell’s younger brother Richard accepted the prize for his elder brother in London recently.

Vandana Shiva Honoured with Sydney Peace Prize
Indian physicist and environmentalist Vandana Shiva has been honoured with the 2010 Sydney Peace Prize. The 57 years old activist has been recognized for her work on the empowerment of women in developing countries, her advocacy of the human rights of small farming communities and her scientific analysis of environmental sustainability. Shiva will give the City of Sydney Peace Prize lecture at Sydney Opera House on November 3, 2010 and Vandana Shiva will be presented with the prize on November 4, 2010. “Vandana Shiva’s work highlights the fundamental connection between human rights and the protection of environment” said Mary Kostakidis who is the Chairperson of the Sydney Peace Foundation.

Nine Indians Figure Among ‘Time’ Magazine’s 100 Most Influential People
Prime Minister Manmohan Singh, cricketing legend Sachin Tendulkar and Nobel-winning economist Amartya Sen are among nine Indians who figure in the annual Time magazine list of 100 most influential people while its alumnae chart is topped by Bollywood beauty Aishwarya Rai Bachchan. Other Indians on the list of most influential people are : Eye specialist Perumalsamy Namperumalsam, humanitarian worker Sanjit Buker Roy, writer Chetan Bhagat, Indian-American doctor and Harvard Professor Atul Gwande, paramedic from Toronto Rahul Singh and entre-preneur Kiran Mazumdar Shaw. The magazine recognised Prime Minister Singh’s contribution towards liberalising the economy and guiding India into the ‘ranks of the great powers’. “The long history of India boasts many great leaders. But the much shorter history of Indian democracy is already creating its own heroes, and Manmohan Singh, 77, is one of them.” Indra Nooyi, CEO of Pepsi, wrote in the magazine. As India’s Finance Minister from 1991 to 1996, Singh realised that the country had everything to gain by opening up. The Former US President Clinton heads the heroes for his work as a fund-raiser and anti-poverty activist. The ‘leaders’ list starts with the Brazilian

Kyriakos Maniatis gets Bioenergy Prize
Kyriakos Maniatis Principal Administrator, Directorate General for Energy, European Commission has been awarded the Johannes Linneborn Prize for achievements in biomass development. The bioenergy prize was presented to him at the 18th European Biomass Conference and Exhibition in Lyons, France recently. Maniatis has managed the bioenergy demonstration part of the European Commission Framework Programmes and has been responsible for all technical issues related to 1st and 2nd generation biofuels at DG Energy. It may be noted here that Johannes Linneborn Prize was established in 1994 for outstanding contribution to the development from biomass.


“Energy and persistence conquer all things.”

President Lula da Silva who is recognised for his drive to bring social justice and end deep inequality in his huge Latin American country. J. T. Wang, CEO of the Taiwanese PC maker Acer comes in at number two as a representative of the rise of Asian companies. Top US military officer, Admiral Mike Mullen, is third, with President Barack Obama in the fourth slot.

Malnutrition Main Reason for 50 per cent Child Deaths : Study
A new study on nutritional challenges has painted a grim picture of the current Indian scenario where over 50 per cent of child deaths are caused due to malnutrition. Concerned over the high number of child deaths, the Ministry of Women and Child Development (WCD) plans to strengthen nutritional surveillance by map- Damage Control : WCD ministry ping under-nourished plans to strengthen nutritional endemic zones and surveillance by identifying highidentifying high risk risk and vulnerable districts. and vulnerable districts.
● Programme to strengthen care of pregnant mothers ● Need to reduce malnutrition among children

Global Green Award for Sourabh Sen
NRI entrepreneur Sourabh Sen has been awarded the prestigious Global Green Award in recognition of his leaderhip and success in promoting renewable energy solutions in emerging markets such as India. Sen, co-chairman of the US-based renewable energy major Astonfield Renewables Inc, was presented the award at World Trade Week in New York recently. The Global Green Award is an annual award that acknowledges exemplary leadership in promoting environmental sustainability and economic development around the globe. Astonfield was nominated for the award by the US Department of Commerce. It may be noted here that with a portfolio of nearly 1,000 MW of solar, biomass and waste-to-energy projects, Astonfield is the largest mutli-modality renewable energy company in South Asia.

State Bank of India gets Asian Banker Achievement Award
The State Bank has won the prestigious Asian Banker Achievement Award for being the strongest bank in Asia Pacific region. The award has been instituted by the Qatar Financial Centre Authority and the Asian Banker magazine. The award has been given to SBI in recognition of SBI’s combination of financial performance and key business improvements, making it the region’s strongest bank with strong and steady income growth rates of 20 per cent, 14 per cent and 28 per cent for the past three years, the magazine said in the award citation. Already the largest bank in the second fastest growing large economy, the state-owned lender has attracted customers and talent from the private sector and other state-owned banks, as well as market share in deposits. The SBI has also won the Asian Banker transaction banking award. Winner of achievement award for trade finance in India in the past two years, SBI became the largest bank by market capitalisation.

The report recommends developing a nutrition surveillance system to identify clusters of cases and deaths due to undernutrition. It also suggests setting up of a working group comprising experts to monitor ICDS (Integration Child Development Scheme) and NRHM (National Rural Health Mission). The system envisages tracking of children to ensure medical intervention and families can benefit from government schemes like 100 days’ employment under MNREGA. The WCD Ministry has already presented a paper to the Planning Commission on the issue. Sources said that there was need for nutritional aspect to take centrestage in all welfare programmes and policies. While this has been done to some extent in government programmes like National Rural Health Mission, ICDS, JNNURM, Rajiv Gandhi national drinking water mission and national food security mission, the report pointed out that gaps remained.

Third IOS Lifetime Achievement Award for A. R. Kidwai
The Vice-President of India Shri M. Hamid Ansari presented the “3rd IOS Lifetime Achievement Award to Dr. A. R. Kidwai, the former Governor of Bihar, West Bengal, Haryana and the former Chairman, UPSC at a function organised by the Institute of Objective Studies (IOS) recently. The award consists of Rs. One lakh, a citation and a memento. Dr. Kidwai was a Professor of Chemistry in Aligarh Muslim University. Lauding the great contribution of Dr. Kidwai, Shri Ansari said that he fulfilled his constitutional responsibilities without being involved in any politics.


“Genius without education is like silver in the mine.”

Core interventions that have been recommended include ensuring household food security and livelihood, need for supplementary food programmes to address maternal and infant undernutrition, restructuring of ICDS, capacity building, monitoring nutrition interventions and restructuring of ICDS. The ministry also plans to take up the matter of construction of anganwadi centres through MNREGA and MP local area development funds. In addition to laying emphasis on nutrition status of children under the age of three years, the Ministry will also launch a joint training initiative with the Health and Family Welfare Ministry under the NRHM and the ICDS to strengthen care of pregnant mothers. The nutritional rehabilitation centres under the NRHM will be strengthened by linking them to child health units and the ICDS will restructure itself to provide greater flexibility to States and districts for implementation. The objective of the “Strategy to Address India’s Nutrition Challenges,” as defined in the 11th Five-Year Plan monitorable targets, also highlights the need to reduce malnutrition among children (underweight prevalence) in the age group 0–3 years to half its present level by the end of the Plan. It also stresses on reducing anaemia among women and girls by 50 per cent.

challenge with rural indebtedness and poverty crippling the economy. Of India’s 370 million informal economy workers, 236 million are found in agriculture. According to official data, nearly 25 per cent of the rural population is reported to be below the poverty line. By World Bank definitions of poverty, over 75 per cent of Indians are probably below the poverty line. As a consequence, there is a huge problem of rural indebtedness affecting 82 per cent of farmers in Andhra, and around 50 per cent of farmers nationwide. Incidentally, four states account for 40 per cent of the country’s child workers. The report cites data collected by the National Commission for Enterprises in the Unorganised Sector, which reported in 2007, that a much larger labour pool of out-of-school children could be considered as potential child labourers.

Theme Song Launched for World Classical Tamil Meet
The theme song for the world classical Tamil Conference, encapsulating the contributions of Tamil culture and literature down the ages, was officially launched by i t s author and Chief Minister M . Karunanidhi a t a functions in Chennai on May 15, 2010. Mr. Karunanidhi admitted that it was difficult to illustrate in a poem the glory of different classical works written in various periods ranging from the Sangam era to the post-Sangam period. Explaining the Central theme of the song, the Chief Minister said that all were equal by birth and they should have the feeling that they remained as such even later and they should live as one race.
● Author Karunanidhi explains the central message of the song ● All are equal by birth… they should live as one race ● The song encapsulates the contributions of Tamil culture and literature down the ages.

Most Child Labourers Found in Asia-Pacific : A Report
According to a study, child labourers may be declining in sheer numbers yet more children are at work in the Asia-Pacific region than in the rest of the world combined. A global report has noted that while there was a 26 per cent decline in the number of children employed (between the age group of 5–14 years) from 122·3 million to 96·4 million across the world, but in absolute terms, Asia-Pacific region had the largest number of child labourers at 113·6 million (aged 5–17 years) compared to sub-saharan Africa (65·1 million) and Latin America and Caribbean (14·1 million). The Interntional Labour Organisation’s ‘Accelerating action against child labour’ report said that 42 per cent of these children were employed in hazardous work. The global estimate for child labourers according to ILO is about 215 million in 2008, down from 222 million in 2004. India has 445 million children, Bangladesh 64 million, and Pakistan 70 million, as compared to, for example, China’s 348 million. “In sheer numbers, India and Pakistan have by far the largest out-of-school child population in the world,” the report said. The study said there was a “stark contrast in political commitment” to universal education and poverty reduction. While China took more people out of poverty than any other country since 1979, and put most of its children into basic education, this goal had often proved elusive in South Asia. For one, India still devotes about the same proportion of national income to education (about 3·5 per cent) that it did in the mid-1980s. The report also pointed out that institutional capacity to implement policies and programmes and enforce legislation remained a major

The world classical Tamil Conference would be held in June 2010 in Coimbatore. It would begin with the rendering of the song. According to Mr. Karunanidhi 205 scholars from 27 countries would attend the meet. There would be 53 experts from Sri Lanka, 37 from Singapore, 29 from Malaysia, 22 from the United States and 14 from Canada. The song has been filmed by Gautam Vasudev Menon.

Government Launches CBSE’s International Curriculum
The Central Board of Secondary Education (CBSE) on May 25, 2010 launched its self-designed international curriculum that aims at competing with its western counterparts to produce the global citizen of tomorrow.


“Glass, china and reputation are easily cracked, and never well mended.”

Human Resource Development Minister Kapil Sibal presided over the worldwide launch of the CBSE— international (CBSE-i) curriculum at Dubai’s Indian High School (IHS). The IHS will also become a global centre for training teachers in the new curriculum under the guidelines of the CBSE. According to the Minister, the CBSE’s initiative was futuristic and was a reflection of India’s ambitious drive to establish vast pool of skilled manpower that could become a significant driver of the global economy. Elaborating on the new initiative CBSE Chairman Vineet Joshi said that learning skills apart, the CBSE-i would also impart to its students social skills, and at the same time highlight the importance of a positive attitude. “Having the right attitude, willingness to learn and ability to work in teams will be given prime importance, as demanded by the globalised world.” What the Minister emphasized was the fact that India possessed human resources having a ‘demographic dividend’ in comparison to ‘demographic deficit’ that was being felt in the rest of the world.

astronaut Michael J. Bloomfield, who flew three missions including one as the commander, it was an emotional moment to watch Atlantis take the sunset mission.

Australian Schoolgirl Sails Solo Around the World
An Australian schoolgirl sailor Jessica Watson sailed into history on May, 15, 2010, becoming the youngest person to circumnavigate the globe solo, non-stop and without help. Ms. Watson (16), crossed the finish line at the entrance to Sydney Harbour shortly before 2 p.m. in her bright pink yacht after 210 days at sea, one month ahead of schedule and three days before her 17th birthday. Ms. Watson’s 23,000 nautical mile journey took her through some of the world’s most challenging and treacherous waters, pitting her bright pink 33-foot yacht against 40-foot swells and gale-force winds. She twice sailed over the equator, crossed all meridians of longitude and passed the world’s four capes as she traversed the Pacific, Atlantic and Indian Oceans. Ms. Watson, who took up sailing at the age of 8, faced some of her worst conditions in waters off Australia. “It is an amazing feat,” said Harbour Master Steve Young. “Anybody who’s read her blog will see she’s got a maturity far above her years.”

Atlantis Lifts off into History
With a huge orange plume trailing behind, US space shuttle Atlantis lifted off from the Kennedy Space Centre on its scheduled mission to the International Space Station (ISS), signalling the beginning of the end of the threedecade American Programme. As the countdown ended at 2·20 p.m. on May 7 (23·50 IST), thousands of people who thronged the sprawling complex in Florida were treated to a jaw-dropping sight as the shuttle’s engines pounded the launch pad lifting it into space with a thunderous roar. Over the next few seconds the shuttle disappeared into the skies embarking on mission STS 132, ascending on what appeared like a scorching streak of sunlight. It left behind a thick cloud of smoke. “You do not see a shuttle launch, you feel it,” Kevin Hoshstrasser, Site Director of Boeing Network and Space, told a group of Indian correspondents ahead of the launch that was cheered by an estimated 3 lakh people who descended here from various places to watch Atlantis make history. The Obama administration decided to wind up the space shuttle programme that began with Columbia making its maiden voyage in April 1981. Between now and November 2010, the last of the two shuttles, Discovery and Endeavour will carry payloads to the ISS and then make their way to museums. Space shuttle Atlantis mission STS-132 was common deered by US Navy Captain Ken Hem. For space shuttle

Six More Fast Breeder Reactors Planned
The Centre has sanctioned a pre-project funding of Rs. 250 crore to Bharatiya Nabhikiya Vidyut Nigam Limited (BHAVINI) for the construction of two more fast breeder reactors of 500 MWe capacity each at Kalpakkam, near Chennai. This information was given by Prabhat Kumar, Project Director, BHAVINI. The money would be used for land acquisition and site-levelling. These two breeder reactors would come up in addition to the 500 MWe Prototype Fast Breeder Reactor (PFBR) already under construction at Kalpakkam. Mr. Kumar told reporters on May 13 that PFBR construction had survived the trauma of the tsunami of December 2004, which had flooded the PFBR’s pit. The PFBR had the largest and the deepest excavated pit for any nuclear power project in India. It measured 225 metres by 225 metres and 20 metres deep. According to S. C. Chetal, Director, Reactor Engineering Group, Indira Gandhi Centre for Atomic Research, the construction of the two additional breeder reactors would commence by the beginning of 2014. They would generate electricity by 2020. Four more breeder reactors of 500 MWe capacity each would come up at coastal sites, perhaps in Andhra Pradesh, Orissa or West Bengal. According to B. S. Goel, Director (Finance) BHAVINI, the PFBR project cost had gone up from Rs. 3,500 crore to Rs. 5,600 crore.


“God heals, and the doctor takes the fees.”

Over Hundred People Killed in Libyan Plane Crash
A Libyan Airbus jet crashed early on May 12, 2010 as it tried to land in Tripoli airport, killing 103 people on board, most of them Dutch, leaving a young Dutch boy the sole survivor. The Airbus A330-200, which had only been in service since September was flying from Johannesburg to the Libyan capital when it crashed just short of the runway. Among those on board 22 of the victims were Libyans.
Death Field : At least 96 of 104 people on a Libyan Afriqiyah Airways plane were killed on May 12 as the aircraft crashed on approach to Tripoli airport. A 10-year-old Dutch boy was the only survivor. Libyan transport minister Mohammed Ali Zaidan ruled out terrorism behind the crash of the Airbus A330-200 arriving from Johannesburg, South Africa. Experts are unclear on the cause of the crash though they ruled out presence of volcanic ash from Iceland. Libyan state TV showed a large field scattered with pieces of plane debris, and dozens of police and rescue workers, some of them carrying at least one body away. A large piece of the plane’s tail was visible, bearing Afriqiyah’s brightly coloured logo with the numbers ‘9·9·99’, the date of founding of the African Union.

to see whether they had any inscription. On being told that one stone had an inscription, he came back to the village on May 12 and saw another inscription lying some distance away. Both belonged to 10th Century A. D. Two inscriptions of the great Chola emperor were also discovered in the vicinity. So Sri Vijayendra Saraswati wanted R. Nagaswamy, former Director of the Tamil Nadu Archaeology Department, to read them. The Paramacharya, Sri Chandrasekharendra Saraswati, had visited these temples in 1974 and 1978. Dr. Nagaswamy said one of the 10th Century inscriptions referred to several persons who agreed to serve the Siva temple and mentioned them as Mani Nagan Naruppan, Kuppan Narupponthai, Arunan Tirukkoil Mottai, Tirukkoil Poduvan, Ezhilan etc. The other referred to an endowment, which was added to an existing endowment, on a donation of 100 ‘kalams’ (a measure) of paddy for meeting the temple’s expenses. Of the two inscriptions of the emperor, one, dated to his 28th regnal year (1013 A.D.), specifically mentioned his name as Raja Kesari Varman Raja Raja Devar. It referred to Jayamkonda Chola Mandalam, a territorial division of Paduvur ‘Kottam’ (a smaller territorial division) and talked about the land lying in a common holding in a habitation named Raja Raja Ceri.

Luxury Train to Link Rajasthan, Varanasi and Khajuraho
The Royal Rajasthan on wheels, a new luxury tourist train connecting Varanasi, Rajasthan and Khajuraho, will be on tracks from September 2010. The train run by Rajasthan Tourism Development Corporation in collaboration with Indian Railways will connect Varanasi, Rajasthan and Khajuraho with other tourist destinations of the country.
The cost of boarding the train will be $ 590 per day for one person. Accommodation facility of 82 tourists has been made available.

The plane was carrying 93 passengers and 11 crew. “Every body is dead, except for one child,” Libyan Transport Minister Mohammed Zaidan told a news conference at Tripoli airport. It was not known what went wrong with Afriqiyah Airways flight 8U771 but the Minister ruled out terrorism.

Four Chola Inscriptions Found Near Kancheepuram
Four inscriptions, two of Raja Raja Chola (regnal years 985–1014AD) and two of the earlier Chola period of 10th century A.D. have been discovered at Siru Karumbur village, near Kaveripakkam, 20 km from Kancheepuram in Tamil Nadu on the initiative of Sri Vijayendra Saraswati of the Kanchi Kamakoti Peetham. They throw light on the artistic and temple–building activities in the northern region (Tondaimandalam) of the Tamil country during the Chola period and Raja Raja Chola’s firm grip on the region. When Sri Vijayendra Saraswati visited the Siva temple and the adjacent Sundara Kamakshi temple at Siru Karumbur on May 10, he saw many architectural pieces and fragmented stone inscriptions lying scattered in the village. When he noticed a mound of stones behind the temples, he suggested that the stones be ‘rolled over’

Royal Rajasthan on Wheels is an upgraded version of Palace on Wheels luxury train. An official source said that it would be a seven-day tour starting on the first Sunday of September (Septermber 5). The train will be flagged off from New Delhi. It would then traverse all the way from Jodhpur, Udaipur, Chittaur, Sawai Madhopur, Jaipur, Khajuraho, Varanasi, Agra before returning to New Delhi. The train comprises 14 sleeping saloons, 41 cabins, two restaurant-cum-bars, one kitchen and one spa beside other luxurious facilities. The cost of boarding this train will be $ 590 per day for one person and accommodation facility of eighty two tourists has been made in the train. In Varanasi, the tourists will be taken on a visit to Ganga ghats, Banaras Hindu University, Bharat Mata Temple and Sarnath.


“Having been poor is no shame, but being ashamed of it, is.”

No Ancestral Property for Children from Live-in Relationship : Court
A child born out of a live-in relationship is not entitled to claim inheritance in Hindu ancestral coparcenary property and can only claim a share in the parents’ self-acquired property, if any, the Supreme Court has held. Reiterating an earlier ruling, a vacation Bench of Justice B. S. Chauhan and Swatantra Kumar said : “In view of the legal fiction contained in section 16 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 (legitimacy of children of void and voidable marriages), the illegitimate children, for all practical purposes, including succession to the properties of their parents, have to be treated as legitimate. They cannot, however, succeed to the properties of any other relation on the basis of this rule, which in its operation is limited to the properties of the parents.” The Bench set aside a Madras High Court judgement which held that children born out of live-in relationship were entitled to a share in ancestral property as there was presumption of marriage in view of the long relationship.

Air India Express Flight IX-812 from Dubai with 160 passengers and crew members on board overshot the table-top runaway on May 22, 2010 in Mangalore plunging over a cliff into a wooded valley where it burst into flames. One hundred and fifty-eight people were killed in the crash

1. Sabdatharapadam (The Milky Way of sound) —By An autobiography of Resul Pookutty written in Malayalam 2. Losing Control : The Emerging Threats to Western Prosperity —By Stephen King, Yale University Press 3. Anklets at Sunset —By Ministhy Dileep Through her book the young bureacrat Ms. Dileep wants people to look at the elders a little differently, embrace their spirit, respect them more and enjoy their companionship. The whole theme of the book is about old people, their ideas, their dreams, their wisdom, which the young often forget. 4. Paradise Beneath her Feet : How Women are Transforming the Middle East —By Isobel Coleman 5. Orientalism, Empire and National Culture, India 1770-1880 —By Michael S. Dodson 6. Women of the Tagore Household —By Chitra Deb; translated into English by Smita Chowdhry and Sona Roy The author is at pains to show that despite their achievements, the women of Tagore family were all good cooks too. Obviously it is the culinary art and the management of a kitchen that mark the ultimate feminine grace, the image of Annapoorna. 7. The Plundered Planet : How to Reconcile Prosperity with Nature —By Paul Collier, Oxford University Press 8. The Promise : President Obama, Year One —By Jonathan Alter In this book the author recounts a series of private blow-ups, including a particularly fiery one involving the nation’s top military brass. 9. The Unspoken Alliance : Israel’s Secret Relationship with Apartheid South Africa —By Shasha Polakow-Suransky

Union Cabinet gives Nod to Himalayan Institute
The Union Cabinet on May 19, 2010 decided to set up a Central Institute of Himalayan Culture Studies (CIHCS) in Arunachal Pradesh. Proposed to be set up as an autonomous body under the Ministry of Culture, the Institute will be located at Dahung in West Kameng district and will be built at a cost of Rs. 9 crore. The Institute that will fill the vacuum in the field of Buddhism studies, will also provide moorings to the youth of the region and foster national integration, a statement issued by the Ministry said. “It will inculcate awareness of the ecological balance and preservation of natural resources. It will teach community art and crafts for self-sufficiency and sustainable development and preservation of ethnic identity within the framework of national integration” the statement said.

Siru Karumbur Village
Four inscriptions have been discovered at Siru Karumbur village near Kaveripakkam 20 kilometre from Kancheepuram in Tamil Nadu. Out of these four inscriptions two belong to Raja Raja Chola (ruling period 985– 1014 A.D.) and two of them belong to earlier Chola period of 10th century A.D.

National Days
July July July July 1 6 7 11 Doctor’s Day

Tiruindalur Village
Tiruindalur Village in Tamil Nadu came into news when over 85 copper plates and twelve bronze icons were found in the Kailasanthar temple in Kazhukanni Muttam in Tiruindalur Village in a first-of-its-kind archaeology discovery in Tamil Nadu on May 20, 2010.

International Days
World Zoonoses Day International Day of Cooperatives World Population Day



“He is ill clothed that is bare of virtue.”

Barcelona Clinches La Liga Championship
Barcelona clinched the Spanish La Liga football title on the May 16, 2010 in Barcelona. They registered 4-0 win over Valladolid to finish above arch rival Real Madrid. Barcelona beat Valladolid 4-0 while Real Madrid were held to a 1-1 draw at Malaga. A record of 99 points saw Barcelona crowned League Champions ahead of Real Madrid. Lionel Messi won the European Golden Shoe award after scoring twice against Valladolid to finish the season with 34 goals. The striker had amassed 68 points, 10 more than closest rivals Didier Drogba (Chelsea) and Antonio Di Natale (Udinese) who scored 29 each.

pions for the third time, after a wait of 45 years since their second title in 1965. Inter Milan have also become the first Italian side to clinch the treble after winning the Series A and cup double earlier in the same month.

Australia Wins Women’s Twenty-20 Championship
Australia emerged as the ICC World Women’s Twenty-20 Champion

Chelsea Wins English Premier League
Chelsea beat Wigan 8-0 to claim the English Premier League football title on May 9, 2010 in London. It was Didier Drogba’s hat trick which helped Chelsea to clinch a victory.

India and Korea are Joint Winners of Azlan Shah Hockey Tournament
India and S. Korea were declared joint winners in the Sultan Azlan
Australia captain Alex Blackwell holds the trophy as the team celebrate their win over New Zealand in the World T-20 final on May 16, 2010

Inter Milan Wins Champions League Final
Inter Milan registered 0-2 victory over Bayern Munich in the Champions League final (of football) in Madrid on May 22, 2010.

after defeating New Zealand by three runs in Bridgetown (Barbados) on May 16, 2010. It was Australia’s medium-pacer Ellyse Perry who took three wickets for 18 and made the victory easy. After opting for batting Australia made 106 runs for eight in 20 overs which was a modest target for New Zealand. Australia restricted New Zealand to 103 for six.

England Champion of ICC World Twenty-20 Cup
India captain Rajpal Singh and Arjun Halappa and Korea’s Kim Yong-bae (second from right) and Ro Jong-hwan with the trophy after the teams were declared joint winners.

England beat Australia by seven wickets to win its first title in the

Inter Milan captain Javier Zanetti lifts the UEFA Champions League trophy in Madrid on May 22, 2010

It was Inter Milan Diego Milito’s two brilliant goals and the sub-plots surrounding the game that brought victory to Inter Milan—the Italian team. It may be added here that Inter Milan have become European Cham-

Shah Hockey Tournament on May 16, 2010 in Ipoh. Heavy rain forced the tournament committee to abandon the cup final and declare the both teams as the joint winners of the tournament. This is the first time that the teams were declared joint winners in this tournament. Australia defeated Malaysia to corner the bronze medal in the competition.

The victorious England squad after defeating Australia in the final of the ICC World Twenty 20

World Twenty 20 cup in Bridgetown, Barbados on May 16, 2010. Chasing


“He that can have patience can have what he will.”

ICC World Twenty-20 Cup : Records At a Glance

148, England outclassed Australia with three overs to spare to emerge victorious in the ICC World Twenty 20. Opener Craig Kieswetter who contributed 63 off 49 was declared ‘Man of the Match’. Craig Kieswetter and Kevin Pietersen starred with 111 runs partnership for the second wicket. Kevin Pietersen of England was declared Player of the Tournament for his brilliant performance.

South Zone Claims J. K. Bose Trophy
South Zone won the enter-zonal J. K. Bose Twenty-20 cricket tournament after winning its third match in Panaji on May 9, 2010. Abhijit Bhaskar was declared the Man of the Match. South Zone beat North Zone to clinch the trophy after 12 years. It may also be added here that South Zone’s Satish Viswanathan was declared the Player of the Tournament.

WT20 in Numbers
7413 is the total number of runs scored in the tournament. 346 is the total number of wickets to fall in the tournament. 1137 is the maximum runs aggregated by Australia, the maximum in the tournament. 278 is the record no of sixes smashed in the tournament at an avg. of 10·29 sixes per match. 12 is the number of sixes hit by Cameron White. Jayawardene, Kieswetter and Watson hit 11 each.

Rafael Nadal Claims Rome Masters Trophy
Spain’s Rafael Nadal won fifth Rome Masters title in six years in

Highest Team Total
1. Sri Lanka 2. India 260 Vs. Kenya 218 Vs. England

Leading Wicket Takers
1. Sahid Afridi (Pakistan) 2. Umar Gul (Pakistan) 3. Lasith Malinga (Sri Lanka) 4. Saeed Ajmal (Pakistan) 27 (20 Matches) 26 (14 Matches) 25 (18 Matches) 23 (13 Matches)

3. South Africa 211 Vs. Scotland 4. South Africa 208 Vs. West Indies 5. West Indies 205 Vs. South Africa

5. Michell Johnson (Australia) 20 (14 Matches)

Leading Run Scores
1. Mahela Jayawardene (Sri Lanka) 615 (18 Matches) 2. Kevin Pietersen (England) 580 (15 Matches) 3. Tilakaratne Dilshan (Sri Lanka) 453 (18 Matches) 4. Gautam Gambhir (India) 444 (16 Matches) 5. Chris Gayle (West Indies) 442 (11 Matches)

Best Batting Strike Rate
1. Craig McMillan (New Zealand) 181·11 (6 Matches) 2. Mitchell Johnson (Australia) 180·64 (14 Matches) 3. Zunaed Siddique (Bangladesh) 164·47 (3 Matches) 4. Aaron Redmond (New Zealand) 162·5 (4 Matches) 5. Yasir Arafat (Pakistan) 160 (4 Matches)

Rafael Nadal with the trophy

Highest Individual Score
1. Chris Gayle (West Indies) 2. Suresh Raina (India) 3. Mahela Jayawardene (Sri Lanka) 4. Mahela Jayawardene (Sri Lanka) 5. Chris Gayle (West Indies) 117 Vs. South Africa 101 Vs. South Africa 100 Vs. Zimbabwe 98* Vs. West Indies 98 Vs. India

Rome on May 2, 2010. He defeated compatriot and 13th seeded David Ferrer 7-5, 6-2. With this victory Nadal equalled American legend Andre Agassi’s record of 17 Masters title. This victory also took his overall record on clay to 191 to just 17 defeats. It is Nadal who won the Monte Carlo Masters six years in a row. He also won Rome Masters title five times in six years and clinched Barcelona five years in row.


“He that falls in love with himself will have no rivals.”

Nadal Wins Masters



Sharapova Claims Title
Russia’s top seed Maria Sharapova defeated Germany’s Kristina Barrois 7-5, 6-1 in the final of the Strasbourg Open to claim her second title of 2010 as she had won at Memphis earlier this year.

Rafael Nadal defeated Roger Federer 6-4, 7-6 (5) to clinch the Madrid Masters on May 16, 2010 in Madrid. It was Nadal’s 18th career Masters 1000 title—one more than Andre Agassi and two more than Roger Federer. By defeating Federer, Nadal took the revenge of last year’s defeat in last year’s final at the hands of Nadal.


Viswanathan Anand Retains World Title
Viswanathan Anand retained his World Chess Championship title in

Alexandra Dulgheru Triumphs
Romania’s Alexandra Dulgheru defended her WTA Warsaw Open title after defeating China’s fifth seed Zheng Jie 6-3, 6-4 in the final in Warsaw on May 21, 2010.

Rezai Takes Madrid Masters
Francis Avane Rezai defeated Venus Williams of USA 6-2, 7-5 to claim the Madrid Masters title. Rezai ranked 24th denied Venus the tenth clay honour of her career. Rezai took the victory in just under one and three quarters by rallying from 4-1 down in the second set after winning the first.

Richard Gasquet Nice Open

Viswanathan Anand beat Veselin Topalov in the 12th game win the World title in Sofia on May 11, 2010

Somdev Devvarman Qualifies for French Open
Somdev Devvarman became the first Indian in 13 years to qualify for

Richard Gasquet won the singles title of Nice Open Tennis Championship after beating Fernando Verdasco 6-3, 5-7, 7-6 (5) on May 21, 2010 in Nice. In doubles, Brazil’s Marcelo Melo and Bruno Soares beat Rohan Bopanna and Aisam-ul-Haq Qureshi 1-6, 6-3, 10-5 in the doubles final of the Nice Open Tennis Championship to clinch the doubles title.

Argentina is World Team Cup Champion
Argentina beat USA in the World Team Cup at Dusseldorf in May 2010. Juan Monaco picked up the South American’s first point in the singles after beating Sam Querrey 1-6, 6-2, 6-3 before Horacio Zeballos won the trophy with a 6-4, 6-7 (7) 7-5 victory over Robby Ginepri.

the twelfth and final game in Sofia on May 11, 2010. Anand won the match 6·5-5·5 after breaking the deadlock. Anand lost the first game of the match but fought back and won two games. After losing one more game he launched the decisive attack and succeeded in clinching the title. Anand’s victory fetched him € 1·2 million and the world title. It may be noted here that the World Championship title will remain with India for another two years.

Pavel Maletin Emerges Commonwealth Champion
Russia’s Pavel Maletin clinched the Commonwealth Chess Championship following a 31 move draw

Henin Takes Title
Former World No. Justine Henin won the Stuttgart WTA tournament on May 2, 2010 in Rome. She defeated Australia’s Samantha Stosur 6-4, 2-6, 6-1 in the final to clinch the title. It may be noted here that it was her first title in third final since she came out of retirement.

Somdev Devvarman

the men’s singles event of the French Open. He became eligible for the event after scoring 6-4, 6-1 victory over Adrian Manarino in Paris on May 21, 2010. It is for the second time that Devvarman has qualified for the men’s singles of a Grand Slam tournament. He first played at the US last year where he had reached the second round. It may be recalled here that Leander Paes was the last Indian to play in the men’s singles event of the French Open in 1997 when he reached the second round of the Clay Court Grand Slam.

From left : Pavel Maletin, D. Harika and R. R. Laxman.

Mantinez-Sanchez Rome Open


Maria Martinez-Sanchez upset seventh seeded Jelena Jankovic 7-6 (5), 7-5 to claim the WTA Rome Open on May 8, 2010 in Rome. This victory was the biggest of Martinez-Sanchez’s career and was her third tournament title.

against M. R. Lalith Babu in New Delhi on May 18, 2010. Though Maletin and Laxman tied for the title on nine points after 11 rounds. Maletin’s superior tie break score made him champion. India’s R. R. Laxman got the gold medal in the championship. R. R. Laxman beat Argentinian Pablo Lafuente with black pieces to become the best


“He that is good for making excuses is seldom good for anything else.”

Indian player. The women’s title was bagged by D. Harika who topped three way tie at 7·5 points with room mate Tania Sachdev and S. Meenakshi.

Prix on May 9, 2010 in Barcelona for Red Bull. It was his first victory of the season and third victory of his career. Fernand Alonso of Ferrari finished second in the race.

Hamilton was 2008 World Champion and it was his first win since last year’s Singapore Grand Prix.

Aravindh Bags National Title
Aravindh Chithambaram who is sixth standard school student from

Mark Webber Wins Monaco Grand Prix
Mark Webber won the Monaco Grand Prix in Monaco on May 16, 2010. He led Sebastian Vettel in a Red Bull 1-2 finish. Webber became the first Australian to win back to back races in 20 years after he captured the

China Clinches Thomas Cup
China pounded Indonesia 3-0 to emerge champion and win a fourth consecutive Thomas Cup title. On May 16, 2010, in Kuala Lumpur. With this victory China again underlined its dominance of World Badminton. China’s Lin Dan gave a brilliant performance by beating Indonesia’s Taufik Hidayat 21-7, 21-14 and made China victorious in the competition.

Priyamvada (left) and Aravindh pose with their trophies.

Madurai drew with Harshal Shahi of Delhi in the final round to clinch the boy’s title in the RMK Residential School National Under 11 chess championship which concluded on May 6, 2010 in Chennai. Hetul Shah finished runner-up while Harshal Shah was third. Priamvada drew with Bengal’s Chandreyee to finish on 10 points and thus emerged triumphant in the championship with a round to spare.

South Korea Bags Uber Cup Title
South Korea’s women shuttlers clinched their first ever Uber Cup team title on May 15, 2010 in Kuala Lumpur. It was the first time that South Korea won their six clashes with China in the finals of the women’s badminton team championship. South Korea reached the finals five times before and were beaten in all five by China and this time it succeded in clinching the victory. Bae Seung Hee gained a morale boosting opening point for South Korea when he beat China’s World number 1 Wang Yihan in straight sets 23-21, 21-11 in the first singles match before Lee Hyo Jung and Kim Min Jung lifted the team to a 2-0 lead with tough win against Ma Jin and Wang Xiaoli. So how it was that South Korean team emerged winner and created history.

Red Bull driver Mark Webber with trophy after winning the Monaco F1 Grand Prix

Chikkarangappa Claims Asia Pacific Championship
Chikkarangappa on May 16, 2010, registered a six stroke victory and thus emerged triumphant in the HP Asia Pacific Junior Golf Championship in Bangalore. Chikkarangappa totalled 16 under 272 inclusive of a final round of 4 under 68 and stayed ahead of Teng Kao of Chinese Taipei and Thailand’s Poom Saksanin who got third position.

Spanish Grand Prix in May 2010. It may be noted that Sebastian Vettel and Mark Webber have 78 points to lead the overall driver’s championship but Webber is on top because he has won more races.

Lewis Hamilton Winner of Turkish Grand Prix
Lewis Hamilton clinched Turkish Grand Prix his first victory of the

Indian Open Championship Logo Unveiled
The logo of the $ 120,000 Yonex Sunrise Indian Open 2010, a World

Webber Achieves Victory in Spanish Grand Prix
Australia’s Mark Webber emerged triumphant in the Spanish Grand

Lewis Hamilton with Turkish Grand Prix Trophy

season and the 12th of his career on May 30, 2010 in Istanbul. He led Mc Laren teammate fellow Briton and defending champion Jenson Button home in a dramatic one-two Mc Laren to emerge victorious in the race. It may be noted here that Lewis

Hemant K. Sinha (second from left), President TNBA and others unveiling the Indian Open logo.


“He that lives upon hope will die fasting.”

Badminton Grand Prix Gold event which is scheduled from June 8 to 13 was launched on May 21, 2010 by the TNBA President Hemant K. Sinha.

Neil Robertson Bags World Snooker Title
Australia’s Neil Robertson won the Snooker World Championship in

(Squash) while in women’s section it was Nicol David who clinched her seventh successive Asian Women’s Crown (Squash) on May 4, 2010 in Chennai. Mohd. Azlan beat Pakistan’s Amir Atlas Khan 11-8, 11-4, 3-0 and Nicol David of Malaysia beat Rebecca Chiu of Hong Kong 11-6, 11-7, 11-7 to emerge triumphant in the competition.

Uganda while Yimer Wude a track runner all her life-eased past last year’s champion Aselefech Mergia to stop the clock at 00 : 31 : 58 seconds and thus both emerged champions in their respective sections.

Vikas Clinches Gold Medal
Vikas Krishnan (60 kg) won his second successive international gold

Olympic Games 2012 Mascots Unveiled
The mascots for the 2012 London Olympics and Paralympics have been unveiled. The mascots Wenlock has been selected as the Olympic mascot, while Mandeville has been chosen

Vikas Krishan (right) and Shiva Thapa pose with the medals they won at the World youth boxing championship in Baku recently.

Neil Robertson of Australia with Trophy

Sheffield on May 4, 2010. He clinched the title after beating Scotland’s Graeme Dott 18-13 in the final. He became the first man from outside Britain and Ireland to win the title since Canada’s Cliff Thorburn emerged victorious in 1980. Having won the match, Robertson completed a break of 53 to take the final frame 94-1.

The London 2012 Olympic Games mascot Wenlock (left) and Paralympic mascot Mandeville.

as his Paralympic colleague. The mascots are one-eyed creatures and ultra modernist. These mascots will adorn everything from toys to mugs when they are launched for sale.

after defeating Lithuania’s Evaldas Petrauskas to trumph 4-3 on May 3, 2010 in World Youth Boxing Championship in Baku, Azerbaijan. Shiva Thapa (54 kg) was defeated by Cuba’s Rubeisy Ramirez Carrazan to settle for silver. With these two Indians reaching the final. India can now hope for a better haul from the London Games in 2012. In terms of medals India (one Gold and one Silver) was behind Cuba (three gold, one silver and one bronze) and Azerbaijan (two gold and two silver).

Mohd. Azlan and David are Champions Nicol

Mbieshei and Champions



Titus Mbieshei of Kenya and Yimer Wude emerged victorious in

New Release

Top seeded Malaysian Mohd. Azlan defended Asian men’s title

Titus Mbieshei of Kenya who won the men’s title in the Sunfeast World 10K event

A Comprehensive Study with Latest Facts and Data
By : Editorial Board : Pratiyogita Darpan Code No. 1683 Price : Rs. 125/UPKAR PRAKASHAN, AGRA-2
● E-mail : ● Website :

Mohd. Azlan and Nicol David with Trophies

the men’s and women’s Elite 10 K run in the third edition of the Sunfeast World events in Bangalore on May 23, 2010. He finished the race in an impressive time of 00 : 27 : 54 seconds leaving behind Moses Kipsiro of


“He that would live in peace and at ease, must not speak all he knows nor judge all he sees.”

● The place where Air India plane recently crashed at

➟ Mangalore

☞ Air India Express Flight IX-812 from Dubai with 160 passengers and crew members on board overshot the
table top runaway at Mangalore airport on May 22, 2010. It plunged over cliff into a wooded valley and crashed killing 158 persons. The UPA government recently generated the big bonanza of Rs. 67,710 crore by the auction of ➟ The 3G Mobile Licence Spectrum ☞ The 3G mobile licence spectrum auction concluded on May 19, 2010 generating a huge revenue for UPA government touching somewhere in the region of Rs. 67,710 crore almost twice than what was expected. The number of Indians who have figured among the 100 most influential people of the world in recent Time Magazine issue is ➟ Nine ☞ Dr. Manmohan Singh, Sachin Tendulkar, Kiran Mazumdar Shaw, Amartya Sen, Rahul Singh, Chetan Bhagat, Atul Gawande, Sanjit Bunker Roy and Dr. P. Namperumalsamy are the nine Indians who have figured among the 100 most influential persons of the world in the latest Time annual special issue. Sarosh Homi Kapadia is ➟ The 38th Chief Justice of India ☞ Justice Sarosh Homi Kapadia took over as the 38th Chief Justice of India on May 12, 2010 succeeding Justice K. G. Balkrishnan who retired on May 11, 2010. India recently completed ➟ Its Deep-sea mission ☞ A remote-operated vehicle (ROV) developed by the National Institute of Ocean Technology (NIOT) Chennai has successfully completed its deep sea mission at a depth of 5,289 metres. The ROV was released at a distance of 2,500 km away from the southern tip of the coastline of Indian Ocean in April 2010 to map the seabed and identify resources and living organisms. Indian boxer who recently grabbed gold medal at World Youth Championship is ➟ Vikas Krishnan ☞ Vikas Krishnan won gold medal in 60 kg category for India after defeating Lithuania’s Evaldas Petrauskas to emerge victorious in World Youth Boxing Championship in Baku (Azerbaijan) recently. The new BARC director is ➟ Ratan Kumar Sinha ☞ Ratan Kumar Sinha has been appointed as the new director of the Bhabha Atomic Research Centre (BARC). He was associated with the design and development of the country’s first thorium based Advanced Heavy Water Reactor earlier. India recently test-fired ➟ Agni II missile ☞ On May 17, 2010, India successfully test-fired surface-to-surface ballistic missile from the Wheeler island off the Orissa Coast. Stone inscription with Indus signs have recently been found in ➟ Gujarat ☞ An inscription on stone, with three big indus signs and possibly a fourth has been found on the Harappan site of Dholavira in Gujarat recently in excavations. During 1994-2007 Green House Gas emissions in India fell by ➟ 30 per cent ☞ India has released its first green house gas emissions inventory since 1994—showing a 30 per cent fall in the emissions intensity of all GHG from that year till 2007. Four Chola inscriptions have been discovered at ➟ Siru Karumbur Village ☞ Four inscriptions—two of Raja Raja Chola (years 985–1014 A.D.) and two of the earlier Chola period of 10th century A.D. have been discovered at Siru Karumbur village near Kaveripakkam 20 km away from Kanchipuram on the initiative of Sri Vijayendra Saraswati of the Kanchi Kamakoti Peetham. The woman athlete who set a new record in recently held National Open athletic meet is ➟ Kavita Raut ☞ Kavita Raut (Maharashtra) set a new record in the women’s 10,000 m event on the fourth and final day of the 50th National Open athletic meet in Kochi on May 18, 2010. The youngest Indian to scale Mount Everest is ➟ Arjun Bajpayee ☞ Arjun Bajpyee—a 16 year old schoolboy from Noida on May 22, 2010 became the youngest Indian to scale Mt. Everest. He equalled the record of a Nepalese boy Shepa Temba Tsheri, Arjun climbed the peak via traditional South Col route in Nepal. Along with Arjun, another Indian woman also reached the summit four hours after the young man. “Attitudes are contagious. Are yours worth catching ?”


● The astronomer who was recently reburied is

➟ Copernicus

☞ Nicolaus Copernicus—the 16th century astronomer whose findings were condemned by the Roman Catholic
Church as heretical on May 22, 2010 was reburied in Poland. He propounded the heliocentric theory. ● Iran’s first nuclear plant is being built at tion was given by Russia’s atomic energy chief Sergei Kiriyenko on May 20, 2010 in Moscow. ●

➟ Bushehr

☞ Iran’s first nuclear plant which Russia is building in Bushehr is expected to start by August 2010. The informa➟ Wenlock and Mandeville ☞ Wenlock and Mandeville—two ultra modern one-eyed creatures were unveiled as the mascots for the 2012
The names of 2012 Olympics Mascots are London Olympics and Paralympics recently. They will adorn everything from toys to mugs when they go on sale. ●

➟ Belgium ☞ Belgium became the first European country to ban the burqa in public places after its Lower House in
The first European country to ban burqa is Parliament on last week of April banned it.

➟ Neil Robertson ☞ Australia’s Neil Robertson won the World Snooker title in Sheffield on May 4, 2010 after beating Scotlands’
The winner of World Snooker Championship is Graeme Dott 18–13 in the final.

➟ Mark Webber ☞ Mark Webber won the Spanish Grand Prix on May 9, 2010 in Barcelona for Red Bull. It was the third title of
The winner of Spanish Grand Prix is his career. Fernando Alonso finished second in the race.

➟ Nigeria ☞ Goodluck Jonathan (52) was sworn in as the new President of Nigeria—the oil rich African nation on May 6,
Goodluck Jonathan is the newly appointed President of 2010 after the death of incumbent Umaru Yar Adua.

➟ Hatf III and Shaheen I ☞ Pakistan on May 8, 2010 successfully tested two surface-to-surface missiles—capable of carrying both nuclear
Pakistan recently tested nuclear-capable ballistic missiles and conventional warheads. The missiles tested were—The Short Range Ballistic Missile Hatf III (Ghaznavi) and Medium Range Ballistic Missile Hatf (IV) or (Shaheen I).

● ●

English Premier League (Football) title has been bagged by Asian Squash Championship has been won by Championship.

➟ Chelsea ➟ Mohd Azlan

☞ Chelsea defeated Wigan to clinch the English Premier League football title on May 9, 2010 in London. ☞ Mohd Azlan—top seeded Malaysian defeated Pakistan’s Aamir Atlas Khan to clinch Asian Men’s Squash
● Raorchestes resplendens are the newly discovered species of

➟ Frog

☞ Scientists have discovered a new bright reddish orange-coloured frog with multiple glands and extremely
short limbs from the highest mountains of the Western ghats. The frog has been assigned the name Raorchestes resplendens. ● The first woman to score a century in Twenty-20 World Cup (Cricket) is 2010 against South Africa in St. Kitts. ●

➟ Deandra Dottin

☞ West Indies Deandra Dottin became the first woman to score a century in a Twenty-20 International on May 5, ➟ Atlantis ☞ Space Shuttle lifted from the Kennedy Space Centre on May 14, 2010 from the Kennedy Space Centre on its
The space shuttle which recently began its last mission to the International Space Station is last scheduled mission to the International Space Station, signalling the beginning of the end of the three decade American programme. ● The Australian girl who sailed solo around the World is

➟ Jessica Watson

☞ Australian schoolgirl sailor Jessica Watson (16) on May 15, 2010 became the youngest person to circumnavigate the globe solo, non stop and without any help. She crossed the finish line at the entrance to Sydney Harbour after 210 days at sea—one month ahead of schedule. ●

➟ Lewis Hamilton ☞ Lewis Hamilton of Mc Loren recently won Turkish Grand Prix in Istanbul on May 30, 2010 ahead of Jenson
The winner of Turkish Grand Prix is Button.


“Wherever you go, no matter what the weather, always bring your own sunshine.”

Ambani Brothers Cancel Non-Compete Agreement
Ambani brothers have taken a big step towards reconciliation of their ongoing disputes and have come forward with new agreement formula. As per the declaration made by Mukesh Ambani-led Reliance Industries and Anil Ambani-led Reliance ADAG Group, the two groups have cancelled all noncompete agreements signed in 2006. The cancellation of existing noncompete agreement will now provide enhanced operational and financial flexibility to both groups and greater ability to participate in high growth sectors such as oil and gas, petrochemical, telecom, power and financial services. It is important to recall that according to the settlement reached between the two brothers in 2006, Mukesh Ambani got Reliance Industries which has interests in oil and gas exploration, petro-chemicals, infrastructure and textiles while Anil Ambani got the telecom, power and financial services businesses. Now after the cancellation of non-compete agreement, both groups find no hurdle in expanding their empire in any field and come forward with competition activities in the market. Despite of the cancellation of noncompete agreement, as a goodwill gesture, Mukesh’s RIL has decided not to enter gas-based power generation arena till 2022. Both the groups have also extended the hope to reach a conclusion soon in the gas supply agreement between RIL and Reliance Natural Resource Ltd. (RNRL), that was the main dispute between the two. As per the declaration made by the both groups, the new scenario

will create an overall environment of harmony, cooperation and collaboration between the two groups, thereby further enhancing overall shareholder value for shareholders of both groups.

imports during 2009-10 show 4·7% and 8·2% decline respectively as compared to the figures of the year 2008-09. Due to the global slowdown, the country’s exports kept contracting for 13 months in a row since October 2008 and the dip was the worst at 39 per cent in May 2009. However, exports growth entered into positive territory in November 2009 due to government’s stimulus packages. Despite the positive growth of exports during the last five months (i.e., November-March) of 2009-10, the total merchandise exports could not reach previous year’s level of $ 185·3 billion and stood at only $ 176·6 billion. The provisional statistics of the foreign trade for 2009-10 puts exports and imports figures at $ 176·6 billion and $ 278·7 billion respectively against $ 185·3 billion and $ 303·7 billion respectively of the year 2008-09. The trade deficit which was $ 118·4 billion in 2008-09 became $ 102·1 billion in 2009-10.

Indian Exports Estimated at $ 176.6 billion in 2009-10
On May 6, 2010 the Ministry of Commerce released the provisional figures of foreign trade data for the year 2009-10, according to which both merchandise exports and imports registered a decline as compared to the previous year. Exports and

Foreign Trade Figures : At a Glance
(in billion dollars)
2008-09 Export Import Trade Deficit 185·3 303·7 118·4 2009-10 176·6 278·7 102·1 % Decline – 4·7% – 8·2% —


“If you don’t get everything you want, think of the things you don’t get that you don’t want.”

Merchandise a Exports Show Decline in 2009-10 after 7 Years
For the first time in last seven years, India’s exports declined 4·7 per cent in 2009-10 despite a recovery witnessed since November 2009. Though in March 2010, exports grew a whopping 54·4%, exports during 2009-10 could reach only $ 176·6 billion level which remained lower than $ 185·3 billion in 2008-09.

tonne in 3rd advance estimates from 34·27 million tonne level of 2nd estimates for the year 2009-10. Pulses production estimates have been kept at 14·77 million tonne which is less than the target level of 16·15 million tonne for the year 2009-10.

‘Maharatna’ Tag Awarding to 4 PSUs in Pipeline
As per the information revealed by the government in the Parliament the process of granting ‘Maharatna’ status to four state-run public sector enterprises. These four PSUs are— ONGC, SAIL, NTPC and IOC. The proposals of granting ‘Maharatna’ tag have been recommended by InterMinisterial Committee and these proposals are now being considered by the Apex Committee. The Apex Committee’s recommendations will be placed before the Heavy Industries and Public Enterprises Minister for a decision. The Maharatna tag will allow these four PSUs to take investment decisions upto Rs. 5000 crore independent of the govern-ment. According to the guidelines, the board of a Maharatna CPSE has the power to make equity investments for establishing financial joint ventures and wholly-owned subsidiaries, besides undertaking mergers and acquisitions in India or abroad, subject to a ceiling of 15 per cent of its net worth. The investment ceiling is limited to Rs. 5000 crore per project. It is worthnoting that four PSUs, being considered for ‘Maharatna’ tag fulfil all the criteria, comprising a three-year track record of annual net profits of over Rs. 5000 crore, net worth of more than Rs. 15000 crore and turn over of more than Rs. 25000 crore.

Sectors like engineering goods, handicraft, leather, cotton yarn, readymade garments, carpets and oilmeal continue to take a beating. Growth has been seen in marine products, tea, iron ore, tobacco, plastics, fruits and vegetables. It may be recalled that during the first seven months of last fiscal, exports continued to fall due to the slump in traditional markets of US, Europe and Japan. It turned positive from November 2009 due to a slew of measures announced by the government as part of the stimulus package, ranging from interest subvention on export credit, incentives for market expansion to easy lending rates. For the current year 2009-10, the government has set a target for merchandise exports at $ 200 billion. For assessing the effectiveness of the measures announced in the Foreign Trade Policy 2009-14, declared in August 2009, the government has decided to undertake a sectoral review in July 2010 and depending on the results of the assessment, minor alterations may take place in the policy.

Foodgrains Production in 2009-10 Registers a Fall : Agriculture Ministry’s 3rd Advance Estimates
Ministry of Agriculture on May 12, 2010 released foodgrains third advance estimates for the year 200910 which stands at 218·19 million tonne. In its third advance estimates the Ministry places rice production at 89·31 million tonne while it was 87·56 million tonne in the second advance estimates released on February 12, 2010. Wheat production has been

estimated at 80·98 million tonne, showing a record level and above the target level of 79·0 million tonne. Coarse cereals production estimate has been reduced to 33·13 million

Foodgrain Production 2009-10 Targets Vs. Advance Estimates
Crop Rice Wheat Coarse cereals Pulses Total Foodgrains Target 100·50 79·00 43·10 16·15 239·10 2nd* Advance Estimates 87·56 80·28 34·27 14·74 216·85 3rd Advance Estimates 89·31 80·98 33·13 14·77 218·19

* Released on February 12, 2010


“Life is a shipwreck but we must not forget to sing in the lifeboats.”

Industrial Output Continues to Register Double-Digit Growth
Growth in industrial output maintained double digit level of 13·5 per cent in March 2010 mainly due to growth in manufacturing of consumer durables. Though the industrial growth showed a marginal deceleration on a month-on-month basis, industrial growth remained in doubledigit zone showing robust growth despite monetary tightening and roll back of stimulus measures Industrial output had been showing double digit growth since October 2009. It grew 15·07 per cent in February 2010 and at 0·3 per cent in March 2009. The average rate of growth of industrial output, as measured by the Index of Industrial Production (IIP), stood at 10·4 per cent for the financial year 2009-10 as against 2·8 per cent in 2008-09. Manufacturing, which constitutes around 80 per cent of IIP, continued to lead and registered a growth of 14·3 per cent in March 2010 as against a negative growth of 0·3 per cent in the corresponding period in 2009. Electricity and mining output grew at a rate of 11 per cent and 7·7 per cent during March 2010, respectively, as compared with 1·9 per cent and 6·3 per cent last year. In the use based category, basic goods grew at a rate 10·6 per cent, while capital goods and intermediate goods grew at 27·4 per cent and 12·7 per cent, respectively, during March 2010.

Consumer goods posted a robust growth rate of 10·6 per cent during March 2010. Consumer non-durables also maintained its consistent healthy double digit growth rate at 32 per cent as against 8·4 per cent during the corresponding period in 2009.

pay Rs. 370 a share. Earlier, Dubai Financial Group was having to sell its stake in BSE, but looking at the rush, embattled Dubai Financial deferred its stake sale plans in anticipation of higher valuations in the future. The rush for BSE stake is in anticipation of improved performance and further gains in the coming months.

Kaiser and Caldwell Acquire Stake in BSE
Toronto-based investment broker Thomas Caldwell and philanthropist George Kaiser have acquired shares in Asia’s oldest Bombay Stock Exchange (BSE). Over the past few months Kaiser has acquired over 3% in BSE while Caldwell has increased his shareholding from 3·8% last year to 4·25% through multiple private deals. Kaiser is the majority shareholder of a largely successful Bank of Oklahoma and GBK Corporation, parent of Kaiser-Francis Oil Company (an independent oil and gas exploration and production company) and founder of Excelerate Energy.

Bank of Rajasthan to get Merged with ICICI Bank
Bank of Rajasthan has decided to merge with ICICI Bank, the country’s largest private sector bank. Bank of Rajasthan Board has approved the merger in-principle. The move comes in the wake of regulatory pressure mounted on the Tayals, who according to the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) hold nearly 55 per cent stake in the bank. According to stock exchange data, at the end of 2009, the promoters held a 28·6 per cent stake in the bank. The Bank of Rajasthan has a market capitalisation of Rs. 1,471 crore and a free float of Rs. 1·103 crore on the day it decided to merge with ICICI Bank. It reported a net loss of Rs. 44·7 crore for the quarter ended December 2009, on revenues of Rs. 344·83 crore. In comparison, ICICI Bank has a market capitalisation of Rs. 99,125 crore on the same day. In terms of assets, ICICI Bank is around 25 times as large as Bank of Rajasthan. In terms of branch network, Bank of Rajasthan with 500 branches is around one-fourth of ICICI Bank’s network. As per opinion of the analysts, this takeover would aid ICICI Bank in expanding its footprint further, which is in line with its branch-focused strategy. As most of Bank of Rajasthan branches are concentrated in northern India, ICICI Bank would gain deeper access in these markets. On May 23, 2010 the Boards of ICICI Bank and Bank of Rajasthan approved the share exchange formula. ICICI Bank-Bank of Rajasthan share swap ratio is fixed at 1 : 4·72 i.e., Bank of Rajasthan share holders will gain one share of ICICI Bank of every 4·72 shares held by them.

Top 10 Share Holders in BSE
Name Deutsche Bourse Singapore Stock Exchange LIC SBI Caldwell Actius Dubai Financial Acacia Bannian Argonaut Bajaj MFPL Holding (in%) 4·94 4·94 4·86 4·86 4·25 3·89 3·89 3·89 3·00 2·91 1·16

Industrial Growth Scenario
(in %)
Month January 2010 February 2010 March 2010 2008-09 1·0 0·2 0·3 2009-10 16·7 15·1 13·5

Caldwell is recognised as one of the world’s foremost investors in securities exchanges and his clients have holdings in Hong Kong, Johannesburg, London, Osaka, Toronto, the Chicago Board Options Exchange and the International Stock Exchange. Along with US hedge fund legend George Soros and private equity firm JC Flowers, Caldwell and Kaiser were in the race to buy Dubai Financial Group LIC’s four per cent stake in BSE. Kaiser, through his private equity firm, Argonaut, was the highest bidder and had offered to

Positive Trajectory of Industrial Growth
Year 2007-08 2008-09 2009-10 Growth (%) 8·5 2·8 10·4


“I had the blues because I had no shoes until upon the street, I met a man who had no feet.”

Oil India Ltd. Becomes 20th Navratna PSU
In its latest attempt in April 2010, the Union Government has granted ‘Navaratna’ status to one more public sector enterprise which made the member of Navratna PSUs to become 20. Oil India Ltd. (OIL) has become the 20th member to join the club of Navratna status having public sector enterprises. Like other Navratna PSUs, Oil India Ltd. will also have the autonomy to invest upto Rs. 1000 crore without the prior permission of the government.

Cabinet Approves Data Collection Norms for Unique ID Project
The government has granted an in-principle approval for adopting a standardised approach to collect demographic and biometric attributes of residents for its ambitious Unique Identification (UID) project. The approval was given at a meeting of the Cabinet Committee on Unique Identification Authority of India (UIDAI) related issues. This final approval will make it mandatory for any data collecting department or organisation in the country to adopt UIDAI standards. The standards will cover the method of collection of demographics—name, age, sex, address and the guardian’s name and biometric attributes like face, all 10 fingerprints and an iris scan. UIDAI chairman Nandan Nilekani also revealed that it has also been decided to include data of the iris for children in the age group of 5-15 years and the same standards and processes would be adhered to by the Registrar General of India for the National Population Register (NPR) exercise and all other registrars in the UID system. UIDAI Chairman also declared that the authority is in final stage of drafting the UID Act which will be put for discussions in the public domain. The first set of the 12-digit unique set of randomly-generated numbers, or Aadhaars, will be issued between August 2010 and February 2011. It will be for the poor and marginalised section of society. A separate drive would be started to get the nomadic and homeless people into the system. Once this is achieved, 600 million UID numbers will be issued in the next five years.

ending 2012, would be about 74,000 MW, close to the original target of 78,577 MW. On energy efficiency, official sources declare to add about 12,00013,000 MW power generation capacity over the likely addition of 62,000 MW in the current Five-Year which would be at 74,000 MW, near the original target of 78,577 MW. Earlier, in its mid-term review, the Planning Commission had reduced power generation capacity addition target by over 20 per cent to 62,374 MW for the current Plan period from the original 78,577 MW. In the mid-term appraisal report, the Plan panel had anticipated that additional power generation capacity of 45,234 MW can be commissioned during the remaining period of the 11th Plan, noting that 19,207 MW capacity was added till December 31, 2009. Considering Prime Minister’s announcement of ‘power to all’ by March 2012, the target of power generation was originally put at 78,577 MW for the 11th plan which was later reduced taking the note of actual achieved level in 10th plan. During the 10th plan, only 21080 MW capacity could be added against the target of 41,000 MW.

Navratna Companies Club
(Status as on April 30, 2010)
● Bharat Heavy Electrical Ltd. (BHEL) ● Bharat Petroleum Corporation Ltd. (BPCL) ● Hindustan Petroleum Corporation Ltd. (HPCL) ● Indian Oil Ltd. (IOL) ● Mahanager Telephone Nigam Ltd. (MTNL) ● Oil and Natural Gas Corporation (ONGC) ● National Thermal Power Corporation (NTPC) ● Steel Authority of India Ltd. (SAIL) ● Gas Authority of India Ltd. (GAIL) ● Bharat, Electronics Ltd. (BEL) ● Hindustan Aeronautical Ltd. (HAL) ● Power Finance Corporation (PFC) ● National Mineral Development Corporation (NMDC) ● Power Grid Corporation of India Ltd. (PGCIL) ● Rural Electrification Corporation (REC) ● National Aluminium Company (NALCO) ● Shipping Corporation of India (SCI) ● Coal IndiaLtd. (CIL) ● Rashtriya Ispat Nigam Ltd. (RINL) ● Oil India Ltd. (OIL)

Business Confidence Index Rises 1.5 Points on Economic Recovery
The Confederation of Indian Industry in its 73rd Business Outlook Survey reflects a boost in business confidence for the April-September 2010 period, compared to the past six months. The Business Confidence Index (BCI) rose by 1·5 points for the period, compared with a 7·4 points increase during the second half of 2009-10. The CII survey is based on a sample of 458 companies. According to the survey, as the developed part of the world is recovering from the crisis, business prospects for companies in the service sector, especially for those involved in outsourcing, are improving. The BCI for service sector stood higher at 68·9, compared with overall BCI of 67·6.

It is important to recall that in July 1997 the government had launched the scheme to award Navratna status to public sector enterprises showing better performance. Navratna companies were granted more autonomy in their working. Initially Navratna status was awarded to nine public sector enterprises but at present (as on April 30, 2010) this member of Navratna status holding companies has gone to 20.

74,000 MW Power Capacity to be Added in 11th Plan
The government has announced that the power generation capacity addition in the 11th Five-Year Plan,


“If you don’t think every day is a good day, just try missing one.”

CII-BCI is constructed as a weighted average of the Current Situation Index (CSI) and the Expectations Index (EI). CSI has registered an increase of 5·5 points for the period April-September 2010-11, compared with the previous six months. Compared to the corresponding period last year, CSI surged by 11·4 points, suggesting that the economy was reviving swiftly. Expectation Index (EI) reflects the expectation of Indian industry with regard to the performance of companies, sectors and the economy for the period April-September 201011. While this moderated marginally by 0·4 points from the second half of 2009-10, it improved by a robust 7·7 points over the corresponding period of last year. CII in its survey pointed out two main concerns for the Indian economy i.e., inflationary conditions and global economic instability. Besides infrastructural and institutional shortages and high interest rates have been pointed out of check in improvement rate of the Business Confidence Index.

News in a Nutshell
● 2009-10 begins with 36·2% growth in Indian exports— Showing a recovery from global crisis Indian export sector gives a good start to the current fiscal year 2010-11. In April 2010, Indian export sector registered a growth of 36·2% to touch $ 16·9 billion level. In April 2009, exports had shrunk nearly 30 per cent to $ 12·4 billion in line with a 9 per cent contraction in global trade as a result of a worldwide financial crisis. India’s exports contracted for 13 straight months starting October 2008, before turning positive in November 2009. Barring foodgrain and handicrafts, all other sectors, such as textiles, gems and jewellery and marine products, performed well in April 2010. Imports too increased in April 2010 by 43·3 per cent to $ 27·3 billion from $ 19·1 billion a year ago. Trade deficit for April 2010

was $ 10·4 billion, against $ 6·7 billion in the period a year ago. Oil imports increased to $ 8·1 billion in April 2010 against $ 4·7 billion in April last year. Industrial park developer’s tax holiday extended—The Finance Ministry has extended the 10year tax-holiday to developers and operators of industrial parks by two years till March 31, 2011. This is a move which became effective according to the provisions contained in the Finance Act, 2009. The Central Board of Direct Taxes has amended the Industrial Park Scheme, 2008, and Rule 18C of the Income Tax Rules, 1962, to give effect to the extension of the ending date of operation of the scheme because the Finance Act, 2009, had extended the ending date of the scheme from March 31, 2009, to March 31, 2011. The Industrial Park Scheme, 2008 encourages developers to create infrastructure facilities for manufacturing units in these zones. The scheme extends a 100 per cent income tax rebate for 10 years to any undertaking that develops an industrial park between April 1, 2006, and March 31, 2011. Earlier, March 31, 2009, was the deadline.

The government has taken this step to boost industrial development in the country. ● India’s gem and jewellery exports show 16% growth in 2009-10—Despite 4·7% fall in merchandise exports in 2009-10, the exports of gems and jewellery registered 16% increase during the year. As per the statistics released by Gems and Jewellery Export Promotion Council (GJEPC), the exports of Gems and Jewellery during 200910 stood at 28·41 billion dollar while it was $ 24·49 billion in 2008-09. Like the entire export sector, Gems and Jewellery sector also faced export decline till October 2009 but since November 2009, this sector started ensuring positive growth. The gems and jewellery sector continued to maintain India as the target cutting and polishing centre of diamonds in the world both in terms of quantity and value. This sector consists of three segments viz. diamonds, gold jewellery and coloured jemstones. The United States is the largest market accounting for about 30% of exports from this sector. About 70% of country’s exports of jems and jewellery are purchased by United States and EU nations.


“It’s so hard when I have to, and so easy when I want to.”

Govt. announces sugarcane’s SMP for 2010-11—Government on April 23, 2010 has announced Fair and Remunerative Price (FRP) of Sugarcane for the Sugarcane year 2010-11 (i.e., October 2010 to September 2011). On the basis of recommendations made by the Commission for Agricultural Cost and Prices (CACP). The government has fixed FRP of sugarcane at Rs. 139·12 per quintal. This price will prevail for 2010-11 for the sugarcane having recovery of 9·5 per cent. FRP of sugarcane for 2010-11 exceeds Rs. 9·28 per quintal as compared to the Statutory Minimum Price fixed for the sugarcane year 2008-09. For every additional recovery of 0·1% Rs. 1·46 per quintal will be added in FRP of sugarcane. It is worthnoting that till now, the Statutory Minimum Price (SMP) was declared for sugarcane but with the sugarcane year 2010-11, SMP has been replaced by FRP for sugarcane. Hindujas acquires Belgian Banking Group for € 1·35 billion— The Hinduja Group has acquired KBL epb, the private banking arm of Belgian banking and insurance group KBC for € 1·35 billion (Rs. 7,918 crore) in an all cash deal. With this acquisition, the Hinduja brothers plan to grow KBL’s private banking business in India, West Asia and the rest of Asia. KBL epb (European Private Bankers) is one of Europe’s largest onshore private banking groups with affiliated local banks at 55 locations across 10 European countries including France, Germany and United Kingdom. At the end of 2009, KBL epb had assets under management worth € 47 billion, as sets under custody worth € 37 billion and, through a 52·7 per cent stake in EFA (European Fund Administration), assets under administration worth € 103 billion. The closing of transaction is subject to customary regulatory approvals and is expected to be completed in the third quarter of 2010.

According to the joint press statement issued by KBC and the Hinduja Group, the transaction comprises the sale of KBC’s entire interest in KBL epb and includes all the private banking subsidiaries as well as the custody and life insurance businesses. The KBL epb brand, management team and operations will be maintained in their entirety and KBL epb will continue to be headquartered in Luxembourg. Plan panel to promote ‘Secondary Agriculture’—The Planning Commission is working on an ambitious action plan to boost Secondary Agriculture which includes value addition to form products in the coming 12th Five Year Plan. Secondary agriculture encompasses activities such as extracting medicines from herbs, vitamins from foodgrains, fibre boards from rice straw, oil from rice bran etc. This plan panel is headed by Planning Commission’s member K. Kasturirangan who extends the hope to release draft report on secondary agriculture in the next four-five months. Plan panel points out the need to tap the potential in the secondary agriculture which has the projected worth of over Rs. 100000 crore. Promoting the secondary agriculture is expected to push the country’s overall farm growth in coming years. Apparel exports estimated to show 10% growth in 2010-11— Apparel export sector has extended the hope that exports would expand by 10 per cent in 2010-11, even as overseas shipments contracted in the last fiscal due to demand slowdown in the EU and US. Garment exports dipped by 11·4 per cent in 2009-10 to $ 9·7 billion, from $ 10·95 billion in the year-ago period. The contraction in March 2010 was 6·7 per cent. Apparel Export Promotion Council (AEPC) has appealed to the government to discourage the exports of raw material such as cotton and yarn to help the domestic industry. Due to large

scale exports of raw material, prices of fabric in the domestic market have increased by about 40 to 50 per cent over the last six months. China and Bangladesh imported a huge chunk of cotton from India between January to March 2010. It is also worthnoting that the apparel industry provides employment to about seven million people, of which half are engaged in the export sector. Commerce ministry proposes 74% FDI in defence sector—The Ministry of Commerce and Industry has proposed Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) limit in defence sector to 74 per cent from the present 26 per cent. According to the Ministry sources, the urgent upgrade of equipment in the armed forces is essential as bulk of them suffered obsolescence. The Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion (DIPP), while proposing the increase in FDI limit for defence sector, makes it clear that the increase in the foreign direct investment ceiling in defence does not mean any commitment on procuring from companies which has set up facilities in India. As per official estimates, nearly 50% of India’s defence equipments are suffering obsolescence and consequently it is an urgent need to enhance the deterrent and the operational capabilities of the armed forces. Mahindra buys Reva Car Company—Mahindra and Mahindra Ltd. (M & M) buys Reva Car Company by capturing a little over 55% stake in Reva Electric Car Company, the Bangalore based maker of electric cars. This purchase marks M & M’s entry into the alternative fuels technology space. M & M has picked up the majority stake from Maini family through a combination of equity purchase and fresh capital infusion of Rs. 45 crore. Now after the acquisition, M & M will hold 55·2 per cent stake, the Maini family will hold 31 per cent and 11 per cent will be held by Reva’s co-promoter—Long-bell.


“Attitude is a little thing that makes a big difference.”

The balance 2·8 per cent stake is distributed to the employees of Reva in the form of employee stock options. The authorised capital would be Rs. 135 crore and paid up capital is Rs. 20 crore in the new entity. The buyout makes the Mahindra Group a strong global player in the electric vehicle space. Till now, Reva is the single largest seller of electric vehicles globally. After the acquisition, RECC will be renamed Mahindra Reva Electric Car Company Ltd. and it will function as a subsidiary company of the $ 6·3 billion Mahindra Group. OECD raises global growth forecast—Organisation of Economic Cooperation and Development (OECD) in its Global Economic Outlook puts the view that the global economy is recovering faster than expected from recession with Asia leading the way but it is at the risk from huge debts in developed countries and possible overheating in countries such as China. In a twice-yearly report, the Paris-based OECD raised its forecast for global growth to 4·6 per cent in 2010 and 4·5 per cent in 2011. In November 2009 it predicted growth of 3·4 per cent this year and 3·7 per cent in 2011, after a 0·9 per cent contraction in 2009. New inflation series to be introduced by July 2010—As per official declaration, the government plans to come out with the new inflation series by July 2010. This new series will have over 600 items from the current 435 items. Due to the expansion of items included in the basket, the new series is expected to give a better reflection of price movements in the country. The official sources of the Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion, the whole items of the basket in the new series would be adjusted, depending on the turnover of the commodities, for which the trial is already on. At present the base year of the existing wholesale price-based inflation is 1993-94. The new series will have 2004-05 as its

base year. The enlarged basket of items in the new series will cover most of the items from manufacturing products category while primary items, including foodgrain and milk would remain unchanged in the new basket of items. IFC to invest $ 150 million in EXIM Bank—International Finance Corporation (IFC), a World Bank group arm, is planning to invest around $ 150 million (around Rs. 660 crore) in ExportImport Bank of India (EXIM). The proposed investment includes $ 75 million (Rs. 337·5 crore) on IFC’s own account. The remaining $ 75 million will be mobilised from another private sector commercial bank. The investment involves a long-term loan to EXIM Bank. The proceeds of the IFC loan component will be used to finance exports to Africa from private sector exports clients of EXIM Bank. ONGC posts 71% growth in profit—Oil and Natural Gas Corporation (ONGC) posted a 71 per cent growth in net profit in the January-March quarter of 2009-10. The company has posted a net profit of Rs. 3,776·41 crore for the quarter ended March 31, 2010 compared to Rs. 2,206·76 crore for the quarter ended March 31, 2009. Total Income increased from Rs. 15,113·13 crore for the quarter ended March 31, 2009 to Rs. 16,471·47 crore for the quarter ended March 31, 2010.

The company posted a net profit rise of 4 per cent at Rs. 16,767·55 crore for the year ended March 31, 2010 compared to Rs. 16,126·31 crore for the year ended March 31, 2009. Total income of the company fell from Rs. 68,769·29 crore for the year ended March 31, 2009 to Rs. 64,202·44 crore for the year ended March 31, 2010. ● SAIL registers 9·4% profit growth in 2009-10—Steel Authority of India (SAIL), the country’s second-largest steel producer, has recorded a profit of Rs. 2,084·9 crore from the fourth quarter of 2009-10 up 40 per cent from Rs. 1,485·20 crore of the corresponding period in the previous financial year. Total income of the company rose to Rs. 12,672·69 crore in the January-March period, marginally higher than the Rs. 12,519·33 crore in the same quarter of the previous year. For the full financial year 200910, the company registered a net profit of Rs. 6,754·37 crore, up 9·4 per cent from Rs. 6,170·40 crore in 2008-09. In volume terms, sales grew seven per cent in 2009-10 to 12·11 million tonnes. In the entire year, SAIL produced 14·5 million tonnes of hot metal, 13·5 million tonnes of crude and 12·6 million tonnes of saleable steel. SAIL, however, saw a drop of six per cent in its net turnover in 2009-10 at Rs. 40,551 crore on account of lower sales realisation, especially during the first half of the financial year, from Rs. 43,188 crore in 2008-09. P.Darpan


“My riches consist not in the extent of my possessions, but in the fewness of my wants.”

Last Date (Receipt of Application Forms)—June 15, 2010. Total Vacancies—16. Educational Qualifications— As per the requirements of the post. Selection Procedure—Selection process consists of written test, group discussion and interview. The test will be in two parts. Part I will be based on the relevant technical discipline and Part II will have questions on general aptitude comprising Reasoning, Data Analysis, Computer Awareness, General Awareness and Current Affairs. How to Apply—As per the format prescribed in Employment News May 15–21, 2010. See Employment News May 15–21, 2010 for more details.

IV will be based on questions of Basic Nursing and Health Education. How to Apply—Candidates should submit application form and Admit card in the performa as given in Employment News May 22-28, 2010. See Employment News May 22-28 , 2010 for more details.

How to Apply—All eligible candidates should apply on-line through the link provided to website www. in the prescribed format given at the website. Log onto www.pgbgorakhpur. com for more details.

High Court of Judicature at Allahabad : Recruitment of Personal Assistants
Last Date (Receipt of Application Forms)—June 15, 2010. Total Vacancies—61. Educational Qualifications— Bachelor’s degree from a recognized university or qualification equivalent thereto. Age Limit—21 to 35 years. How to Apply—As per the format given in Employment News May 15–21, 2010. Selection Procedure—Written exam. will comprise elementary knowledge of General English, Elementary Knowledge of Computer, Translation from shorthand passage into English (from Sir Issac Pitman’s book and General Knowledge and Current Affairs. See Employment News May 15–21, 2010 for more details.

Recruitment in U.P. Rajya Vidyut Utpadan Nigam Limited for Assistants Engineer (Trainee)
Last Date (Receipt of Application Forms)—June 26, 2010. Total Vacancies—642. Educational Qualifications— Four years Bachelors degree in Engineering and qualification for other posts as per the requirement of posts. Age Limit—18 years to 35 years for Junior Engineers and for others as per the requirement of the posts. See Employment News May 22-28 , 2010 for more details.

Recruitment in Directorate General Border Security Force
Last Date (Receipt of Application Forms)—June 21, 2010. Total Vacancies—283. Educational Qualifications— B.Sc. for Inspector/Sub Inspector and Matriculation for Assistant SubInspector (ECG Technician Matriculation for Head Constable, (AC Plant Technician and Steward) Senior Secondary School Certificate for Paramedic and Nurse). Age Limit—Not exceeding 30 years for Inspector, 21 to 30 for Staff Nurse, 18 to 25 years for Head Constable (Steward and Nurse, 20 to 25 years for Head Constable (Paramedic male). Written Examination—Written Examination will consist of four parts having 200 multiple choice questions. Part-I will comprise General Knowledge and Numerical Aptitude. PartII will consist of Pharmaceuticals. Part-III will have Human Anatomy, Physiology and Pathology while Part-

Recruitment in Food Corporation of India for Various Posts
Last Date (Receipt of Application Forms)—June 21, 2010. Total Vacancies—84. Educational Qualifications— MBA (Fin.) from a recognized University/Institute for Management Trainee (Accounts). Degree in Agriculture for Management Trainee (Technical) and qualification for other posts as per the requirement of the posts. Upper Age Limit—28 years for Management Trainee. How to Apply—Applications are to be made in the prescribed form published given in Employment News May 22-28, 2010. Applications forms may also be downloaded from www.fciwz.nic. in or www.fciweb. Selection Procedure—The selection process for all posts consists of written test group discussion and interview. The written test will be in two Parts. Part-I will be based on relevant technical discipline while

Recruitment in Purvanchal Gramin Bank for Various Posts
Last Date (Receipt of Application Forms)—June 24, 2010. Total Vacancies—150. Educational Qualifications— Degree of a recognized university in any discipline or its equivalent. Age Limit—18 to 26 years. Selection Procedure—The selection will be made on the basis of performance in written test and interview. The written test will consist of Reasoning Ability, Quantitative Aptitude, General Awareness and English Language.


“There are exactly as many special occasions in life as we choose to celebrate.”

part-II will be based on General Aptitude comprising Reasoning, Data Analysis, Computer Awareness, General Awareness and Current Affairs. See Employment News May 22-28, 2010 for more details.

Recruitment in Indian Oil Corporation Limited for Engineering Assistants
Last Date (Receipt of Application Forms)—June 14, 2010. Total Vacancies—55. Educational Qualifications— Diploma in Engineering. Selection Procedure—The selection procedure will comprise written test followed by interview of the short listed candidates. Age Limit—18 to 32 years. How to Apply—As per the format given in Employment News 22-28 May 2010. Application can also be downloaded from website www. See Employment News May 22-28, 2010 for more details.

Educational Qualifications— Senior Secondary Examination (10 + 2) pattern or its equivalent from University/Board with its least 75% aggregate marks in Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics. How to Apply—As per the format given in Employment News May 22-28, 2010. Selection Procedure—The candidates will be issued call up for Services Selection Board (SSB) interview. The interview will consist of 5 stages comprising Intelligence Test, Picture Perception and Discussion and Interview. See Employment News May 22-28, 2010 for more details.

How to Apply—Applications should be submitted strictly online by logging onto HAL website See Employment News May 29– June 4, 2010 for more details.

Recruitment in Container Corporation of India Limited for Sr. Assistants (Technical)
Last Date (Receipt of Application Forms)—June 21, 2010. Total Vacancies—37. Educational Qualifications— NCTVT (Trade) and NCTVT (Applications) certificate in the trade of conditioning or refrigeration. Application Fee—Rs. 150. How to Apply—As per the prescribed format given in Employment News May 29–June 4, 2010. See Employment News May 29– June 4, 2010 for more details.

Uttarakhand Public Service Commission : Combined Lower Subordinate Services Exam., 2010
Last Date (Receipt of Application Forms)—June 30, 2010. Total Vacancies—337. Educational Qualifications— Graduation degree from any recognized university. Age Limit—21 to 35 years. How to Apply—OMR application form with instructions can be purchased for Rs. 220 for PG from designated post offices in the state. Selection Procedure—F o r prelims only one paper of General Studies and General Aptitude Test (objective type) will be held while for mains examination there will be two papers. Paper-I will be of General Studies and Paper-II will be of Essay and Drafting. After that Interview will be held. See Employment News May 29–June 4, 2010 for more details.

UPSC Central Police Forces (Assistant Commandants) Exam., 2010
Last Date (Receipt of Application Forms)—June 28, 2010. Total Vacancies—753. Age Limit—20 to 25 years. Educational Qualifications— Bachelor's degree of a university. How to Apply—The UPSC have developed an application form and is obtainable from the designated offices across the country. Selection Procedure—Written exam will have two papers : Paper-I will consist of General Ability and Intelligence, Paper-II will consist of Essay, Precise writing and comprehension. See Employment News May 29– June 4, 2010 for more details.

Recruitment in Railway Recruitment Boards for Various Posts
Last Date (Receipt of Application Forms)—June 21, 2010. Total Vacancies—More than 6,000 Vacancies. Educational Qualifications— Matriculation and diploma/certificate as per the requirement of the posts. How to Apply—The candidates should send the applications in prescribed format published in the Employment News 22-28 May 2010. Selection Procedure—The test will be objective type based on questions pertaining to General Awareness, Arithmetic, General Intelligence and Reasoning and Language General Hindi and General English. See Employment News May 22-28, 2010 for more details.

Recruitment in Hindustan Aeronautics Limited for Various Posts
Last Date (Receipt of Application Forms)—June 13, 2010. Total Vacancies—85. Educational Qualifications— Degree in Engineering. Age Limit—28 to 35 years. Selection Procedure—There will be written test followed by Interview. Application Fee—Rs. 400.

Recruitment in Indian Navy as Sailors for Artificer Apprentice (AA)
Last Date (Receipt of Application Forms)—June 18, 2010. Educational Qualifications— Qualified in 10 + 2/equivalent exam with 55%. Age Limit—16 to 19 years. Selection Procedure—Written Test and Physical Fitness test will be

Recruitment in the Indian Navy (10 + 2 Cadet) B. Tech. Entry Scheme
Last Date (Receipt of Application Forms)—June 29, 2010.


“If you don’t like something change it; if you can’t change it, change the way you think about it.”

held. Written will comprise four sections i.e., English, Science, Mathematics and General Knowledge. How to Apply—The application are to be downloaded from internal site www.nausenabharti.nic in applications will be received only through ordinary post. The application should be sent as per the format given in Employment News May 29–June 4, 2010. See Employment News May 29– June 4, 2010 for more details.

Reasoning, Quantitative Aptitude, General Awareness and English Language. How to Apply—As per the format prescribed as given in Employment News May 29–June 4, 2010. See Employment News May 29– June 4, 2010 for more details.

Knowledge, General Awareness, Logical Reasoning and Numerical Ability. Log onto for more details.

Delhi Development Authority Recruitment for Various Posts
Last Date (Receipt of Application Forms)—June 28, 2010. Total Vacancies—281. Educational Qualifications— Diploma-holder in Civil Engineering from recognised university for Engineers and qualification for others as per the requirements of the posts. Mode of Selection—Scheme of examination syllabus is given DDA website www. The questions in the test will be based on Civil Engineering, General

Govt. of India Department of Atomic Energy Recruitment of Security Guard
Last Date (Receipt of Application Forms)—July 1, 2010. Total Vacancies—86. Educational Qualifications— 10th standard. Age Limit—18 to 27 years. Selection Procedure—Written test will comprise comprehension, General Awareness (Objective Type) and Analytical or Basic Maths. How to Apply—As per the proforma given DC SEM’s website Log onto for P.Darpan more details.

Recruitment in Narmada Kshetriya Gramin Bank for Scale-I Officers
Last Date (Receipt of Application Forms)—June 30, 2010. Total Vacancies—350. Educational Qualifications— Degree from any recognized university. Selection Procedure—Written test will be objective type comprising

Delhi Polytechnic Common Entrance Test, 2010 (June 12) LIC Apprentice Development Officers Exam. (June 13) Jharkhand Gramin Bank Officers Scale-I Exam. (June 13) M.P. Commercial Tax Deptt. Taxation Assistant Exam. (June 17) Uttar Pradesh B.Ed. Combined Entrance Test, 2010 (June 19) Delhi SSSB TGT Natural Science Exam. (June 19) Joint CSIR-UGC Test for JRF and Eligibility for Lectureship, June-2010 (June 20) Jharkhand Gramin Bank Clerk-cum-Cashier Exam.(June 20) Common Proficiency Test (CPT)-June 2010 for C.A. Entrance (June 20) Madhya Pradesh P.M.T., 2010 (June 20) Staff Selection Commission SAS Apprentices in CGDA Exam., 2010 (June 26-27) UGC National Eligibility Test (NET) June 2010 (June 27) Syndicate Bank Probationary Clerk Exam., 2010-11 (June 27) Delhi SSSB Drawing Teacher and Physical Education Teacher Exam. (June 27) Uttar Pradesh I.T.I. Entrance Exam. (June 27) (Closing Date : 30 June, 2010) Vidarbha Kshetriya Gramin Bank Officer Scale-I Recruitment Test (July 4) Canara Bank Probationary Officers Exam. (July 4) M.P. Higher Judicial Service Preliminary Exam. (July 4) Trade Apprentices for Training in Ordnance and Ordnance Equipment Factories for 2010-11 (July 4) U.P. Combined Paramedical Entrance Exam. July/August 2010 (July 4) Vidarbha Kshetriya Gramin Bank Office Assistant Recruitment Test (July 11) Rajasthan PSC School-Lecturer (School Education) Exam. 2008 (Hindi & Sanskrit) (July 11) Madhya Bihar Gramin Bank Clerk Exam. (July 11) Bihar I.T.I. Entrance Exam., 2010 (July 17) Canara Bank Probationary Clerks Recruitment Exam. (July 18) Aryavart Gramin Bank, Lucknow Officer Scale-I Exam. (July 18) Aryavart Gramin Bank, Lucknow Clerical Cadre (Office Assistant) Exam. (July 25) Central Bank of India Probationary Officers Exam. (July 25) Haryana VLD Diploma Entrance Test, 2010-11 (July 25) (Closing Date : 23 June, 2010) Indian Air Force Airman in Group ‘Y’ (NonTech.) Selection Test, 2010 (Aug.) (Closing Date : 10 June, 2010) Purbanchal Gramin Bank Officer Scale-I Recruitment Exam. (Aug. 1) (Closing Date : 24 June, 2010) M.P. State Forest Service Exam., 2010 (Aug. 1-8) Civil Judge II (Entry Level) in High Court of Madhya Pradesh, Jabalpur Preliminary Test (Aug. 8) Purbanchal Gramin Bank Office Assistant Exam. (Aug. 8) (Closing Date : 24 June, 2010) U.P.S.C. National Defence Academy Exam. (II), 2010 (Aug. 22) SSC Assistant Sub-Inspector (Executive) in CISF Exam., 2010 (Aug. 29) (Closing Date : 28 June, 2010) Combined Defence Services Exam. (II), 2010 (Sept. 19) UPSC Central Police Forces (Assistant Commandants) Exam., 2010 (Oct. 24) (Closing Date : 28 June, 2010)


Group of 15 : Signs of Revival
—Arunoday Bajpai In a historical and ideological sense, the G-15 has special significance for India. Infact, it is a potential mechanism for South-South co-operation among developing countries, which was created at the Non-aligned Summit meeting held in Belgrade in 1989. India played an important role in the formation of G-15. It consists of 17 leading developing countries from three continents—Asia, Africa and Latin America. Though its membership has increased to 17, it retains its original name, G-15. It is a most cohesive and compact group of developing countries. G-15 consists of 17 developing countries which are : Algeria, Argentina, Brazil, Chile, Egypt, Indonesia, India, Iran, Jamaica, Kenya, Malaysia, Mexico, Nigeria, Senegal, Sri Lanka, Venezuela and Zimbabwe. 2. To conduct a regular review of the impact of world situation and of the state of international economic relations on developing countries; 3. To serve as a forum for regular consultation among developing countries with a view to coordinate policies and actions; 4. To identify and implement concrete schemes for South-South Cooperation and mobilise wider support for them; 5. To pursue a more positive and productive North-South dialogue and to find new ways of dealing with problems in a co-operative, constructive and mutually supportive manner. The term ‘South-South Cooperation’ means co-operation among developing countries in different fields. The developing countries are also called the ‘South’ countries because they are located i n the Southern hemisphere. Similarly, the developed countries are called the ‘North’ countries as they are located in Northern hemisphere in Europe and North America. Thus, the term North-South cooperation means cooperation between developed and developing countries.

Aims and Objectives of G-15
According to the official statement of G-15, it was established in the firm belief of the considerable potential for greater and mutually beneficial cooperation among developing countries, especially in the areas of investment, trade and technology. By acting as a catalyst to greater South-South Cooperation, G-15 aims at facilitating national efforts for development and economic progress. It is envisaged that the G-15 will both serve as a forum for regular consultation among developing countries with a view to coordinating policies and actions of developing countries at global level and assist in the formulation and implementation of programmes of cooperation. The main objectives of G-15, as such, are given below— 1. To harness the considerable potential for greater and mutually beneficial cooperation among developing countries;

14th Summit of G-15 (May 15-17, 2010)
The 14th Summit of G-15 was held at Tehran, in Iran on May 15-17, 2010. The Summit assumed significance because it was held after a gap of four years and second, it was held in Iran, which is facing the threat of economic sanctions from European countries and the US. Indian delegation in the Summit was led by the External Affairs Minister, S. M. Krishna. Out of 17 members, the 6 countries were represented by their

respective Heads of State/Government and 11 members were represented by their high ranking ministers. One of the related and significant but separate development during the Summit was the trilateral agreement between Brazil, Iran and Turkey announced on May 17, 2010 which facilitates the solution of long-standing Iranian nuclear impasse. Under the agreement Iran agreed to send its 1200 kg low enriched uranium (about 3·5% enriched) to deposit in Turkey and it would get after sometime 120 kg of highly enriched uranium (about 19·5% enriched) from Russia. It would prevent Iran from developing the uranium enrichment technology and facility for the same; which was a primary condition imposed by the US and its Western allies. If Iran failed to stop the development of uranium enrichment technology, the US threatened fresh and stringent economic sanctions against Iran. Iran claims that it needs enriched uranium for the production of medical isotopes. But the US and its Western allies and International Atomic Energy Agency, IAEA insist that Iran would use enriched uranium to produce nuclear weapons. The contradiction arises from the dual nature of nuclear technology. The significance of this trilateral agreement lies in the fact that the US and its Western allies lose the moral ground to impose fresh sanctions against Iran. If this agreement is acceptable to IAEA and the US, the Iranian nuclear impasse would be resolved to some extent. It should be noted that the issue of sanction was indirectly incorporated in the Joint Communiqué issued by the G-15 countries at the end of Summit. The Joint Communique of the G-15 essentially focuses on the importance of the South-South Cooperation particularly among G-15 members in facing current global challenges of food, energy, climate change, health,


“An appeaser is one who feeds a crocodile, hoping it will eat him last.”

List of G-15 Summits
S. No.
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15.

1-3 June, 1990 27-29 Nov., 1991 21-23 Nov., 1992 28-30 March, 1993 5-7 Nov., 1995 3-5 Nov., 1996 28 Oct.—5 Nov., 1997 11-13 May, 1998 10-12 Feb., 1999 19-20 June, 2000 30-31 May, 2001 27-28 Feb., 2004 14 Sep., 2006 15-17 May, 2010 2014 (proposed)

Host City
Kuala Lumpur Caracas Dakar New Delhi Buenos Aires Harare Kuala Lumpur Cairo Montego Bay Cairo Jakarta Caracas Havana Tehran

Host Country
Malaysia Venzuela Senegal India Argentina Zimbabwe Malaysia Egypt Jamaica Egypt Indonesia Venzuela Cuba Iran Sri Lanka

votes in IMF as they have larger quota of funds contributed to the IMF. Thus, the prevailing system is discriminatory to developing countries. Therefore, it has to be rectified as demanded by the developing countries. It should be noted that in April 2010, the World Bank member nations have approved greater voting rights to developing countries including India and China. This change would enable India to seek additional assistance from the World Bank. The quota reform issue was also raised in 2009 during the London Summit of G-20 countries. As regards the alternative sources of funding to the developing countries, the Summit remarked that “the Bretton Woods institutions should not be seen as the unique source of financing for the developing countries. It called for development of alternative financial institutions. In this respect the leaders of G-15 welcomed the ongoing initiatives for alternative funding such as India-Brazil-South Africa Fund, the Chiang Mai funding initiative, and the Petro Caribe initiative of alternative funding to developing nations. 5. In order to prevent the repeat of the recent global financial crisis, the G-15 members including India have called for effective supervision of major financial centres and institutions. More specifically it called for “expanding the scope of financial regulation and supervision, making it more effective and transparent, with respect to all major financial centres, institutions and actors, including an unbiased and effective IMF surveillance of financial centres, institutional capital flows and financial markets”. The joint communique noted that the financial crisis” highlighted longstanding systemic fragilities and imbalances of the existing global financial system. It may be recalled that the global financial crisis was triggered by the fall of America’s investment banker Lehman Brothers in Sep. 2008; which impacted all major eco-

Note—It should be noted that during the first Summit of G-15 it was decided to hold its Summits on annual basis but since 2001, the G-15 Summits have not been held on annual basis. It is customary that the venue of the Summit is rotated among the three continents one by one. The office of G-15 is located in Geneva. The Summit is the highest decision making organ of this organisation.

trade and Doha round of trade negotiations, intellectual properties and global financial crisis. The Joint Communique issued at the end of 14th Summit, on May, 17, 2010 highlights the following points— 1. Indirectly referring to the threat of sanctions against Iran, the members of G-15 expressed grave concern on adopting or implementing extraterritorial and unilateral economic sanctions against developing countries. The Summit called for full and immediate revocation of coercive economic measures or laws against developing countries as well as using the international economic and financial mechanisms as political instrument against them. 2. The members were also concerned about the revival and strengthening of G-15 mechanism. They mandated the incoming chairman of G-15, Sri Lanka to appoint a high level Task Force, which would be responsible to make thorough and fair assessment of the progress and future prospects of G-15. The Task Force would also suggest measures to revitalise and strengthen the G-15 group. 3. The G-15 Summit extended full support for all efforts to create a

conducive environment for the establishment of a viable and sovereign Palestinian state. The leaders expressed deep concern on the extensive devastation in Palestinian territories (West Bank and Gaza Strip) as a result of Israeli occupation, resettlement and other related activities. 4. On the question of reforms of the international financial institutions, the Summit called for the time bound reform of Bretton Woods institutions (World Bank and International Monetary Fund-IMF) and examining alternative sources of financing for developing world. The World Bank and IMF are known as Bretton Woods institutions because they were founded at the Bretton Woods City of the USA. In this respect, it demanded the IMF Quota Review by December, 2010. It should be noted that the similar demand was also raised by the BRIC (Brazil, Russia, India and China) countries in April 2010 at its Second Summit Meeting. Thus, the demand for IMF Qota reform is gaining momentum. The prevailing IMF Quota system mandates that the voting right of a country in IMF would be in proportion to its quota of funds contributed. Obviously, the rich countries have more


“Broadly speaking, the short words are the best, and the old words best of all.”

nomies of the world. The crisis saw India’s economic growth rate slipping to 6·7 per cent in 2008-09 from 9% in the preceding year. The G-15 Summit noted with deep concern that this financial crisis led to food insecurity, volatile commodity prices, drying up private capital flows and unemployment besides loss of confidence in the international financial system. 6. The Summit called for the early and full implementation of all the commitments made at the G-20 Summit in 2009 to put in place a global plan of recovery and reform. This includes commitment to replenish the finances of international financial institutions for concessional lending to crisis affected developing countries and mobilising $ 20 billion food security in poor countries. This demand is significant in view of the fact that the G-20 Summit is proposed to be held in June 2010. 7. The Summit leaders also urged developed countries to fulfil their promise of earmarking 0·7 per cent of their Gross National product (GNP) as Official Development Assistance (ODA) to developing countries by the year 2015 and reaching the level of 0·5% of GNP as ODA by the end of 2010. 8. The Summit leaders expressed unreserved disappointment at Doha round of trade negotiations not producing development-oriented outcome as mandated originally. They asked the WTO members to desist from the temptation to adopt protectionist and trade-distorting measures. The ongoing trade negotiations, if concluded, would boost global trade by $ 300 billion a year, which would strengthen the recovery from the global economic crisis. It should be noted that the Doha Round of trade negotiations are stalled at present over differences on trade barriers and agriculture subsidies between the developed and developing countries. The G-15 Summit criticised the attempts by some developed countries to impose additional commitments on some of its members who want accession to WTO.

Organisational Structure of G-15
In order to achieve its objective, the G-15 has evolved some organisational structures which are given below— 1. Summit of Heads of State and Government—As a rule the Summit meeting is the highest decision making body of the group. As decided in the first Summit, its meetings are held on annual basis. 2. Ministers of Foreign Affairs—G-15 Ministers of Foreign Affairs usually meet once in a year. It is responsible for making preparation for the Summit and co-ordinating the working of the group. 3. Steering Committee (Troika)—It consists of the Foreign Ministers of the preceding, present and the future host country of the G-15 Summit. It is responsible for overseeing and co-ordinating the work of the group. 4. Personal Representatives of Heads of Government—Each country is represented by the personal representive of the Heads of State of member countries. They are based in Geneva and supervise the dayto-day work of the G-15. 5. Federation of Chambers of Commerce, Industry and Services (FCCIS)—The FCCIS is the private sector forum of G-15. Its purpose is to co-ordinate and maximise efforts which promote business, economic development and joint investment in the member states of G-15. 6. Technical Support Facility (TSF)— The TSF is located in Geneva. It works under the guidance of the current chairman of the G-15 and is responsible for giving substantive and technical secretarial support for the activities of the group and for promoting its objectives.

The joint communiqué also discussed the issue of food security, energy conservation and efficiency and satisfactory conclusion of ongoing climate change negotiations.

Major G-15 Programmes under South-South Cooperation
In order to realise its major objective of promoting cooperation among developing countries in the field of trade, investment and technology, the G-15 has launched a number of projects and programmes. The major such programmes are given ahead—


“From now on, ending a sentence with a preposition is something up with which I will not put.”

1. Programme of cooperation at institutional and enterprise level for G-15 small and medium size enterprises under the supervision of Egypt. 2. Cooperation among developing countries in the field of Design, Execution and Management of petroleum, gas and petrochemical project with Egypt as the nodal country. 3. Cooperation among G-15 Stock Market Exchanges under the supervision of Egypt. 4. Cooperation between the G-15 countries in International Fairs and Exhibitions under the supervision of Egypt. 5. Computer Training Centre at New Delhi with India as the coordinator. 6. G-15 Information and Communication Technology on-line Resource Centre with Egypt as nodal country. 7. Small-scale industries co-operation with Senegal, Zimbabwe and Nigeria with India as a nodal country. 8. Programme for cooperation in Solar Energy Cooperation with India as a coordinator. 9. International Centre for Environmental and Nuclear Sciences under the supervision of Jamaica. 10. Transfer of Technology and Development programme with Senegal as the nodal country. 11. Business and Investment Forum (BIF) programme conducted under the supervision of Zimbabwe. 12. G-15 Human Resource Training programme. The range and width of the cooperative projects demonstrates that G-15 has taken some concrete measures to advance the idea of SouthSouth Cooperation.

they are able to have a major say in the shaping of international financial, trading and economic systems. The uniqueness of G-15 lies in the fact that it consists of the leading developing countries from the three regions of the World, Asia, Africa and Latin America. Its small size imparts the quality of compactness and cohesiveness. Their common strength, if harnessed effectively, may have a major impact on global affairs. As in 2007, the G-15 countries accounted for onethird of the world’s population, 27% of total exports and 30% of the total imports of goods and services by developing countries. In terms of the size of GDP 12 members of G-15 counted among the World’s 50 biggest economies and three members namely—India, Brazil and Mexico find place in top 15 countries. Six G-15 countries—Brazil, Mexico, Chile, India, Malaysia and Argentina find place in top 30 destinations for foreign direct investment and three member countries—Malaysia, Chile and India figured among the first 30 countries on the global competitiveness index. G-15 countries have abundant natural resources. They account for the 25% of the total global crude oil production. Some members are leading producers of certain mineral and agricultural products, such as copper (Chile); nickle and tin (Indonesia); Sugar (Brazil, India); tea (India, Kenya, Sri Lanka), coffee (Brazil), rubber (Indonesia, Malaysia) and oil seeds (Brazil, Argentina). Some member countries like Chile and Malaysia have well developed infrastructure required for development. Some countries have advanced technological capabilities in selected areas such as pharmaceuticals (Brazil, India and Argentina); and information technology (India, Malaysia and Argentina). The above features of member countries of G-15 provide an opportunity to this group to launch a viable process of South-South cooperation

Assessment of G-15
The launching of G-15 was the major and desired initiative of NAM countries. It wanted to promote selfreliance among developing countries through the process of South-South Co-operation and encourage collective bargaining and view points in these countries in the process of North-South dialogues. Its ultimate goal was to promote such capabilities in the developing countries so that

and collective self reliance in international economic matters. However, the G-15 has been losing its shine for last 10 years or so due to a number of factors. First, in the face of the ongoing process of globalisation and privatisation, the member countries have opted separate routes to face the new challenges of global competitions. In the process the countries of Africa were left to fend for themselves. The globalisation has produced new processes and opportunity as well as threats in which G-15 did not prove effective. Second, some of the leading countries of G-15 like Brazil, India, Mexico have joined new groups such as IBSA (India, Brazil and South Africa); G-20 etc. These countries have got the status of outreach countries of the G-8 meetings of rich countries. The neat categorisation of developed and developing countries has become now blurred as some of the developing countries have moved on the rapid development path undermining the unity and relevance of G-15 group. Also, the cooperative programmes launched by G-15 have not received proper attention. Due to these factors, the G-15 group is pushed to the margins of the prevailing global economic process. However, in the face of prevailing international conditions also, the significance of the G-15 group can hardly he over emphasized. Still there are fundamental differences between the developed and developing countries with respect to the major global issues like trade negotiations, climate change, human rights, etc. The G-15 provides a valuable forum to articulate the viewpoints of developing countries on these pressing issues. To end the marginalisation of African and Asian poor countries, the process of South-South co-operation and the spirit of collective self-reliance among developing countries need to be revived. This underlines the contemporary relevance of G-15.

SAARC : Need for Introspection
Regional approach to development and cooperation is the major development in the Post-World WarII international politics. Even such organisations as long as they are consistent with the aims and objectives of UN are permitted under the charter of the UN. Though, it may appear ironic, both tendencies—the regionalism and the globalisation are rein-


“He has all the virtues I dislike and none of the vices I admire.”

forcing each other. It may be termed a s regional mechanism t o participate i n the process o f globalisation. We have witnessed regional organisation for cooperation in Asia, Africa, Europe or Latin America. Some of these organisations like ASEAN or European community are considered successful examples of regional cooperation and integration. Some other regional organisations have not been able to achieve desired success. SAARC, the regional cooperation organisation of South Asia falls in the latter category. The South Asian Association for Regional cooperation (SAARC) was established in 1985 for launching the process of regional cooperation and development in South Asia. The, then President of Bangladesh, Zia-ur Rehman made pioneering efforts in the establishment of SAARC. The seven countries of South Asia—India, Nepal, Bangladesh, Sri Lanka, Bhutan, Maldives and Pakistan are the seven founder members of this organisation. Afghanistan was admitted as the 8th member of SAARC during 14th SAARC Summit, held in India. In terms of population, the SAARC is the largest regional organisation in the world, which represent 1·5 billion people of the world.

7. To strengthen cooperation among themselves in international forums on matters of common interests; and 8. To cooperate with international and regional organisations with similar aims and objectives. From the list of above objectives, it becomes apparent that the SAARC is not a political organisation. It is purely an organisation of cooperation in non-political areas. In fact, SAARC charter debars the member states from raising contentions political or bilateral issues. The decisions in SAARC forums are not taken by majority rule but by consensus and common understanding. In order to achieve its objectives, SAARC has identified nine areas for cooperation— Agriculture, Rural development, Telecommunication, Meteorology, Health and Population, Transport, Postal Services, Science and Technology and Sports, Arts and Culture.

wards a Green and Happy South Asia.” In fact, in the background of the looming crisis of climate change and ongoining negotiations in this field, the Summit focussed on the issue of climate change and environment by adopted it as the major theme of the Summit.

Thimphu Statement on Climate Change
As the green and happy South Asia was the major focus of Thimphu Summit, the leader issued a separate Thimphu statement on climate change on April 29, 2010 besides the main Declaration. Following are the salient features of this statement on climate change— 1. Leaders attached high priority for preserving and sustainably managing the rich fragile and diverse ecosystem of South Asia. 2. They expressed concern over the adverse impact of climate change on the people of South Asia. 3. They emphasised the need for a sustainable approach to socio-economic development and poverty eradication in South Asia. 4. They reiterated that the principles of equity, and common and differentiated responsibility and respective capabilities, as incorporated in the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) should be the basis of ongoing international negotiations on climate change. 5. The leaders appreciated the benefits from co-operative regional initiatives and approaches, exchange and experiences knowledge, transfer of technology, best practices to address the challenge posed by climate change. 6. The leaders agreed to undertake certain measures in this field such as timely implementation of SAARC Action Plan on climate change, establishment of intergovernmental expert group on climate change to suggest policy directions, to commission a study on the risks of climate change in the region, to promote education of climate change, to plant ten million trees in the region in the next five years, to build institutional linkage in this field, measures to integrate climate change management and disaster management, facilitating sharing of knowledge, information and technology in this field, periodical review of the implementation of climate change statement etc.

16th SAARC Summit (Thimphu—27-28 April 2010)
The sixteenth Summit of SAARC was held at Thimphu (Bhutan) on 2728 April, 2010. Summit meeting is the annual feature of SAARC. Summit is also the highest decision-making body of SAARC. India was represented by the Prime Minister, Manmohan Singh. Other participants in the Summit were—Hamid Karzai, the President of Islamic Republic of Afghanistan; Sheikh Hasina, the Prime Minister of the People’s Republic of Bangladesh; Lyonchhen Jigme Yoeser, the Prime Minister of Kingdom of Bhutan; Mohammad Nasheed, the President of Republic of Maldives; Madhav Kumar Nepal, the Prime Minister of Nepal; Syed Yusuf Raza Gilani, the Prime Minister of the Islamic Republic of Pakistan and Mahinda Rajpaksha, the President of the Democratic Socialist Republic of Sri Lanka. The leaders of SAARC members discussed all the major global issues like climate change, terrorism, trade etc. and reviewed the progress of the organisation in various fields of cooperation. This is the Silver Jubilee Year of formation of SAARC. Hence, the leader adopted the Silver Jubilee Declaration at the end of the Summit. The Declaration was titled as “To-

Aims and Objectives SAARC


The SAARC charter adopted in December 1985 lists the following objectives— 1. To promote the welfare of people of South Asia and to improve their quality of life; 2. To accelerate economic growth, social progress and cultural development in the region and to provide all individuals the opportunity to live in dignity and to realise their full potential; 3. To promote and strengthen the collective self-reliance among the countries of South Asia; 4. To contribute to mutual trust, understanding and appreciation of one another is problems; 5. To promote active collaboration and mutual assistance in the economic social, cultural, technical and scientific fields; 6. To strengthen cooperation with other developing countries;


“History will be kind to me for I intend to write it.”

The main Thimphu Declaration contains 37 points and reflects upon all the major global and regional issues. The main points of Thimphu Declaration (29 April, 2010) are listed below— 1. On the completion of 25 years of SAARC’s establishment, the leaders expressed satisfaction on the achievement of SAARC and underscored the relevance and importance of Association to provide a platform for regional co-operation. 2. They felt the need to develop a ‘Vision Statement’ of SAARC and decided to establish ‘South Asia Forum’ for debate and discussion on the future development of South Asia. 3. They emphasised the need of effective communication and public diplomacy to reach out to different sections of society in South Asia. 4. The leaders highlighted the need for more efficient, focused, time bound and people centric activities and incorporating the same in the national programmes of the member states. 5. They emphasised the need for regional cooperation to strengthen good governance in the region through sharing of experiences, best practices, and establishing institutional linkages. The leaders recommended the convening of SAARC conclave of parliamentarians’. 6. The leader emphasised on a greater focus to pursue people centric development with due emphasis on socio-cultural progress and upholding traditions and values of society. 7. Leader felt to deepen regional efforts for eradicating poverty through main streaming the SAARC Development Goals (SDG). 8. On climate change they demanded that the outcome of the global negotiations should be based on the principles of equity and common but differentiated responsibilities and respective capabilities. 9. They advocated effective regional programmes for effective disaster management in the region. 10. They appreciated the ongoing initiatives with respect to gender equality and women empowerment.

List of SAARC Summits
S. No.
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17.

7-8 Dec., 1985 16-17 Nov., 1986 2-4 Nov., 1987 29-31 Dec., 1988 21-23 Nov., 1990 21 Dec., 1991 10-11 April, 1993 2-4 May, 1995 12-14 May, 1997 29-31 July, 1998 4-6 Jan., 2002 2-6 Jan., 2004 12-13 Nov., 2005 3-4 April, 2007 1-3 Aug., 2008 28-29 April, 2010 2011 (proposed)

Dhaka Bangalore Kathmandu Islamabad Male Colombo Dhaka New Delhi Male Colombo Kathmandu Islamabad Dhaka New Delhi Colombo Thimphu Male

Bangladesh India Nepal Pakistan Maldives Sri Lanka Bangladesh India Maldives Sri Lanka Nepal Pakistan Bangladesh India Sri Lanka Bhutan Maldives

Note—SAARC Summits are held on annual basis. Summit is the highest decision making forum of SAARC. On some occasions, the Summits have not been held on annual basis.

11. The SAARC leaders underlined the importance of SAARC Development Fund (SDF) in financing regional programmes and projects. 12. The leaders reiterated the commitment to implement SAFTA in letter and spirit. They welcomed the SAARC Agreement on services called for participation of private sector in regional cooperation. 13. Leaders called for co-ordinating SAARC position on WTO issues and Doha Round of international trade negotiations. For promot-

ing intra–SAARC trade leader underlined the importance of development of communication system, transport infrastructure, and transit facilities, specially for the land-locked member-states. 14. Other issues incorporated in the Thimphu Declaration are strengthening cooperation in the field of education, expediting the work of establishment of SAARC University in New Delhi, achieving greater intra-regional connectivity, promotion of tourism and energy conservation, rooting out terrorism in all its forms etc. The

What is SAPTA and SAFTA ?
There is a distinction between SAPTA (SAARC Preferential Trading Arrangement) and SAFTA (South Asia Free Trade Area). SAPTA was signed on April 11, 1993 to promote and sustain mutual trade and economic cooperation within SAARC region through the exchange of trade concession. Infact, the SAPTA is a prelude and tool of realizing the final goal of SAFTA. The agreement on SAFTA was reached at the 12th SAARC Summit at Islamabad on Jan. 6, 2004. This agreement came into being on Ist Jan. 2006. The SAFTA is a framework to create a free trade area in South Asia. Under SAFTA, the member countries will reduce their custom duties to 0-5 per cent by the year 2016. However, in case of Sri Lanka, India and Pakistan this time limit is the year of 2012. Beyond these time limits, the region will go for zero custom duty. Under this agreement, each member country is permitted to declare a list of sensitive goods in which no duty concession shall be made. India has declared a list of 884 sensitive goods with respect to trade with Pakistan and Sri Lanka and a list of 763 sensitive goods respect to trade with other countries. At present, the trade among SAARC (intra-SAARC trade) countries is about 5·29 billion dollars (2009) which is expected to increase by three fold after the establishment of South Asia Free trade Area. After the signing of agreement on SAFTA, the earlier agreement of SAPTA has been replaced by this new agreement. During Thimphu Summit on 28-29 April, 2010, the leaders of SAARC reiterated their commitment to implement SAFTA in letter and spirit.


“However beautiful the strategy, you should occasionally look at the results.”

leaders condemned all manifestation of terrorism and considered it as a threat to peace, security and economic stability in the region. In this regard they called for the effective implementation of SAARC Regional Convention on Supression of Terrorism and SAARC Convention on Narcotic Drugs and Psycho tropic Substances. In brief, the Thimphu Declaration deals with all the major contemporary issues and pleads for taking concrete measures for effective regional cooperation in different fields among the SAARC members.

Problems and Prospects
It is felt by many observers that the SAARC has not achieved the desired success in realising its objectives like other regional organisations namely ASEAN or European community. The notion of South Asian solidarity or South Asian identity is yet to take shape. Infact, the leaders of the SAARC have always raised their voice on the burning issues of the region but it has hardly done anything to solve the core problems of the region like poverty, food security, preventing terrorism or drug smuggling etc. According to the Report of World Bank, the 2/3 people of South Asia live on less than two dollars per day. During 16th Summit the Prime Minister of Bhutan rightly remarked that SAARC is losing its focus from core issues such as poverty, food security etc. Indian Prime Minister called the 25 year long journey of SAARC as “a glass half empty”. The much hyped SAFTA success has another inside story to reveal. It is true that after implementation of free trade area agreement in 2006, the trade through SAARC mechanism has slightly improved. It is revealing to note that the total intra-South Asian trade was $ 11 billion in 2009 out of which the intra-regional trade through SAARC mechanism was merely 5·29 billion dollars. It indicates that the members of SAARC prefer bilateral trade rather than trade through SAFTA route. After implementation of SAFTA the increase in intra-SAARC trade is due to merely increase in Indo-Bangladesh trade through the mechanism of SAFTA. Pakistan is not willing to implement SAFTA with India or to grant status of most favoured nation to India under W.T.O. rules.

The reasons for the partial success are inherent in the historical and present circumstances of the region. The major problems are explained below— (1) Bilateral Problems between Member States—The SAARC charter prohibits the raising of bilateral problems in the meeting of SAARC. However, the bilateral problems between the member states like IndiaPakistan tensions, India differences on certain issues with Nepal and Bangladesh etc., negatively affect the growth of closer regional cooperation. During SAARC Summits, bilateral issues overshadow the official agenda of meeting. For example, during the Thimphu Summit in April 2010, the meeting became the Indian and Pakistani Prime Minister assumed greater significance. (2) Big Brother Image of India— This is a fact that India overwhelmingly dominates other members in terms of size, population and economy. Other members, due to various reasons are apprehensive of India’s domination in the region. This factor hampers the closer regional cooperation among the member states of the region. (3) Competitive Trade and Economies—It should be noted that in certain respects, the economies and trade of member states is competitive rather than contradictory. For example, the jute trade competition between India and Bangladesh and tea trade between India and Sri Lanka. Pakistan and India due to their spirit of false competition abhore bilateral trade with each other. (4) Poor Infrastructure and Development—In order to implement a minimum level of cooperative mechanism, there should be a viable existance of infrastructure and economic and technological development. There is a wide disparity between Indian economic and technological development and development in rest of the nations. Also, the members of SAARC suffer from lack of capital and advanced technology, which makes them dependent on developed countries. (5) Interference of External Actors—The relations among the member state are ridden with many conflictual issues. Thus, the member states go far bilateral approach to external world and there is minimal multilateral interaction. India participates in the international affairs not as a member of SAARC but in her

individual capacity. Indian participation in other regional or international groupings like G-20, IBSA or BRIC is more pronounced and broad based rather than her participation in SAARC process. On the other hand some external actors like the USA and China guide the policies of SAARC members, which often goes against the Indian interest and the very idea of regional integration. The present military involvement of US in Pakistan in Afghanistan is a case in point. The 16th SAARC Summit did not pass any resolution on the problem of Afghanistan. The involvement of external actors in regional affairs complicates the problems of South Asia. Similarly, China has developed close naval relationship with some of the members of SAARC to encircle India from the seaside. Afghanistan is a member of SAARC but its problem is not a cause of concern for SAARC. During 16th Summit, at individual level, Indian PM supported “an Afghan led and Afghan owned” rebuilding of Afghanistan, based on the principle of national sovereignty, independence and non-interference. Inspite of these problems and partial success of SAARC, it has a potential utility for its members. The idea of SAFTA has definitely achieved some success inspite of many problems and complications. From 2007 Summit onwards, SAARC has focussed on the development of institutional framework for strengthening regional cooperation. For example, regional SAARC institutions such as South Asian Regional Standard Organisation, SAARC Arbitration Council in Islamabad, SAARC development in Thimphu, South Asian University in Delhi or South Asia Forum etc., May prove building blocks for regional cooperation and development. The 16th Summit has underlined the need of dialogue and conversation among the members to resolve their differences. Inspite of many shortcomings, the SAARC provides an open forum to its members to exchange their ideas and views regarding South Asia present and future and its potential role in the international affairs. The continuous interaction and linkages among member states would strengthen the idea and identity of South Asian solidarity.


“I have always felt that a politician is to be judged by the animosities he excites among his opponents.”

Personality Development Article

Action : Key to Better Personality
—I. M. Soni
Dr. Maxwell Maltz, in PsychoCybernetics, says “You act and feel, not according to what things are really like, but according to the image your mind holds of what they are like. “You have certain images of yourself, your world and the people around you, and you behave as though these images were the truth, the reality, rather than the things they represent.” You must get your mental image right. You may find this difficult as it takes a great deal of time to remove false pictures which may have been built up through the years. William James has provided us with a good clue to solving this problem. He says, “We rely too much on our feelings to guide us. We should realise that our actions, not our feelings are the key.” ‘Action’, he said, “seems to follow feeling, but really action and feeling go together : and by regulating the action which is under the more direct control of the will, we can indirectly regulate the feeling, which is not.” You can change your actions. When you change your actions your feelings automatically change. This is where many fail in their attempts to practise positive thinking. They stop short of the final stage which completes the cycle of thinking, feeling and willing–namely, action. However diligent your affirming or suggesting, however clear your visualising, the vital and constitutive step, even if at first you flop, is when you take the plunge. The author Edward Kramer tells how he learned, as a youngman, the power of positive thinking. He determined he would practise it. He persistently made his affirmations and positive visualizations, but somehow never got the results. His self– doubts, feelings of inferiority and inadequacy still tormented him. One day he thought : “Here am I, professing to believe all these wonderful things, yet I constantly feel downhearted and discouraged. What on earth is wrong ?” A friend, to whom he confided his predicament drew his attention to the fact that action begets feeling, as James stated it. Kramer dates the beginning of his success from that time. You are feeling discouraged and depressed. If you just begin to act as if you were happy, you will tend, in a short time to feel like that. You benefit in another way from acting out your desires in this way. The object of auto-suggestion is to get ideas down into our subconscious mind. Deliberate action is one way to get knowledge rooted in the subconscious. Don’t wait to be pushed into action. Don’t wait for the stimulus of circumstance or person. Be a selfstarter. Professor A. N. Whitehead says : “We cannot think first and act afterwards. From the moment of birth we are immersed in action, and can only fitfully guide it by taking thought.” Here are a few suggestions which may help to put this principle into practice. They concentrate on action. If you examine a ship in dock, you notice the small size of the tiny rudder which steers it. It can only do so when the ship is in motion. You have known the frustration which can come when you fail to speak in a meeting. You have a good idea, but you are too timid to voice it. Then someone else steps up and is acclaimed for the very idea you have thought but failed to utter. You feel deflated. Practise speaking your mind. Speech is the first expression of an idea in action. You are shy, hesitant and indistinct in your speech. Make it a point on every occasion to say what you have to say clearly and decisively, and a good deal louder than you have been accustomed to speak. Don’t procrastinate. “Do it now.” You fail to act because you just will not make a decision. You are still thinking it out and the time for action is gone. Do your thinking and visualising, then get right into action. The psychologist A. H. Maslow records his treatment of a very timid woman who was troubled in this way. He advised her to practise acting at once in twenty quite trivial but quiet situations. For example, she was not to go back to the house once she had started on an errand. When she was shopping, if the shopkeeper tried to persuade her to buy goods other than she specified, she was to insist on having her own favourite brand of whatever she was buying. She became decisive. Be interested in people. Do not shrink from having much to do with others for fear of being hurt or criticised, determine to be as objective and outgoing as you can. Express the good that you often feel for others, and which you like them to feel for you. Be ready to express a sincere compliment, and learn graciously to receive one. Nothing is so interesting as people. Nothing develops you as much as human contacts. Make sure you join the do-it-yourself club. One tendency is watching others instead of getting into action. It is best to have a go yourself, whether you perform well or ill. Instead of just listening to music, why not sing yourself ? Learn a new language and speak it out even if you make mistakes. Join a class where you will have to speak and not just read. There are always faults and failures, but there are always some positive points you can score up. Appreciate them.

Continued on Page 74


“I like pigs. Dogs look up to us. Cats look down on us. Pigs treat us as equals.”

⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯ Inspiring Youth ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯

“Hardwork and extensive study are the secrets of my success.”
—Shah Faesal Topper—Civil Services Exam., 2009 (1st Rank)
‘Pratiyogita Darpan’ arranged an exclusive interview with Shah Faesal who has achieved 1st rank in Civil Services Exam., 2009. He is the first Kashmiri boy to top the UPSC Civil Services 2009 Examination. He deserves all our admiration and our heartiest congratulations on his splendid success. This important, thought provoking and highly inspiring interview is being presented here in its original form.
PD—Achieving top slot in the CS Examination is no small feat; accept our heartiest congratulations on your splendid success. Faesal—Thank you very much. PD—Can you recall the exact moment when you realized the importance of Civil Services ? Faesal—I live in a state which is undergoing a turbulent situation and we do not have the right environment for Civil Services. In my medical college once Mr. Abdul Gani Malik visited and talked about Civil Services and told us that no Kashmiri has made it to IAS since 1994. I took it as a challenge and had inclination towards it. PD—Finally, at what point of time did you make up your mind to make career in ‘Civil Services’ ? Faesal—It was in December 2008, I finally made my mind to appear in Civil Services Examination. PD—Was there someone who really motivated you among toppers ? Any particular success story which influenced your journey to this result ? Faesal—I was inspired by each and every IAS/IPS officer I saw. I had been listening about IAS and always wanted to be one like them. PD—Was CSE a planned decision or your parent’s wish ? Faesal—It was a planned decision. PD—Did you keep in mind some time frame for the examination preparation and number of attempts ? Faesal—I had a little time to think on such issues. I was confident

“Pratiyogita Darpan is a good magazine. One of my friends Rafeeq Khan from Allahabad suggested me to read Pratiyogita Darpan and shared some information from Hindi version. After that I started reading English version. I also made use of Indian Economy issue for my preparation.” —Shah Faesal
that my treasure of knowledge is going to help me here. I did not listen to any theory or rule many candidates have about this examination. My rule was to be well prepared. PD—The first step is the most difficult; how to prepare ? Which optionals? What to read ? How much to read? Many such questions come to your mind when you really get serious about Civil Services Examination ? From where did you get the right advice ? Faesal—Perception about this examination is really challenging. People say it is difficult to crack this examination in first attempt. But, I do not understand such justifications. I interacted with candidates after Prelims result and I realized that I can achieve success. I came to Delhi and here developed this confidence that I can be IAS. PD—Were you confident of your success in this examination and how did you react to this news of your success ? Faesal—Yes, I had that confidence that I should get a good rank. I tried to give my best and had a feeling that it is going to be a pleasant result. Believe me, I really felt good initially to become topper. Then, I thought, it is just a routine and has been happening with somebody every year for decades. It was someone else last year, this year it is me and next year, a new name will come in news. PD—In how many attempts have you achieved this success ? Faesal—It was my first attempt. PD—Were you preparing for other career opportunities as well while preparing for your ultimate goal i.e., Career in Civil Services ? Faesal—I am a doctor but, in case I had to choose other career, I would have picked up journalism. PD—While the changing economic environment offers immense lucrative career opportunities in various sectors, still what kept you motivated towards Civil Services ? Faesal—In Kashmir, there is a general feeling of getting discriminated. As told you in beginning, I took this preparation as a challenge and nothing else occupied my mind during these days. PD—While making final choice for optional subject/s, what's important and what's not ? Share your thoughts and opinions.


“It’s not enough that we do our best; sometimes we have to do what’s required.”

Faesal—I did not consider much before choosing optional subject. I had a feeling that if well prepared, success can be achieved with any subject combination. I thought, whatever I study, I should enjoy. So, selection of subject was based on this factor. I started preparation with Public Administration-Geography but, later changed it to Public Administration and Literature of Urdu Language without any reference to what statistics show. PD—What were your optional subjects ? Give the basis of selecting them. Prelims : Public Administration Mains : Public Administration and Literature of Urdu language. For choosing first optional it was never a problem. I had interest and its relevance to Civil Services helped me to zero in on this subject. For second optional, I had been preparing for Geography, but, after Prelims, I realized in July 2009 that Urdu Literature can be a better bet. I knew it well that it may be dangerous. Still, I took Urdu Literature and succeed. What to say for Urdu–I was in love with the language from the beginning.

Faesal—I tried to do justice with both. Yes, in Prelims, people say, it is game of optional subjects. But, you have to have balance in both otherwise General Studies can curtail your further advancement. Now, with talk of new C-SAT examination pattern, without optional subjects; so, for future aspirants General Studies becomes more important. PD—How did you manage to tackle the ‘Negative Marking’ in Prelims ? Faesal—My approach was simple. I had chalked out 3-tier formula for me while attempting Preliminary examination. 1. 100% sure : Answer immediately 2. 75% sure : Attempt educational guess 3. Less sure : I would leave them. With this strategy I moved forward with my Prelims papers. PD—In your opinion at which Educational Level should one start preparing for Civil Services and what should be the minimum period of time required to prepare for Civil Services Examinations ? Faesal—For those doing normal graduation, you can start preparation during 2nd year and those in professional courses, 3rd year onwards, honest efforts can be considered. PD—List some of the Magazines, Newspapers, Books etc. which you read for preparation. Faesal—Prelims : I read Pratiyogita Darpan, The Hindu, Times of India regularly. I trusted text books and research papers only for my preparation. I depended on trusted online reading and sites like Wikipedia were essential part of my preparation. PD—What is your opinion regarding the general view that Science subjects have better chance to score than Humanities? Faesal—Any subject here is good and delivers result. If I look at success-rate Medical Science delivers better result. Again as trend shows, humanities subjects show big number of success.

For me it was a balanced situation for any subject choice. Why I opted for my optional subjects, I was bored of reading medicine and wanted to leave this now, as I required to learn something new. PD—What is the importance of medium of examination for exams like CSE? Faesal—This examination is creative and role of expression is enormous. When you have to express your opinion and ideas language plays key role to communicate your thoughts. You can choose any medium provided you have relevant books and resource material available.

Personal Qualities
Favourite Person—Poet Faiz Ahmed Faiz Strong Point—I am humble and believe in myself. Weak Point—I trust people too easily. Hobbies—Listen to music, writer, a RTI (Right to Information) Activist. PD—Does the educational, financial and demographic status of the family of an aspirant have any impact on the preparation? Faesal—Look at my past, I come from a small place in turbulent state and my father was killed by unidentified gunmen, I prepared in less than a year that too without coaching, still, I am able to perform well. Dedication is the keyword. You can do anything if you work hard. PD—According to a recent report published by reputed survey agency, PRATIYOGITA DARPAN (Hindi) is the largest read and the only Career & Competition magazine in top four magazines in India. How do you find Pratiyogita Darpan? Faesal—It is a good magazine. I tell you, one of my friends Rafeeq Khan from Allahabad suggested me to read Pratiyogita Darpan and shared some information from Hindi version. After that I started reading English edition.

Name—Shah Faesal Father’s Name—Mr. Ghulam Rasool Shah Mother’s Mubeena Shah (Late)

Name— M r s .

Date of Birth—May 17, 1983 Educational Qualifications— MBBS—(March 2009) Sher-eKashmir Institute of Medical Sciences (Topper) 12th—(2000) J&K State Board (Distinction) 10th—(1998) J&K State Board (Distinction) PD—What was your approach towards General Studies and Optional Subject during Prelims preparation? How much time and effort did you divide for each?


“Personally I’m always ready to learn, although I do not always like being taught.”

I suggest you should work on your pages more as too much content is put on a single page. PD—Please give your comments on the PD Extra Issues Series on 'General Studies' and a few Optional Subjects. Faesal—I made use of ‘Indian Economy’ issue for my preparation. PD—What is the secret of your success ? Faesal—Hardwork and extensive study. Reading is treasure of knowledge and prepares you to face any test in life. PD—What preference in services have you opted for ? Faesal—IAS.

PD—To whom would you like to give the credit for your success ? Faesal—To my teachers and friends. mother, my

Interview is test of personality and no one can make personality within a few days and even 10 mocks cannot help. I have the personality and know how to present me; hence, I thought, it is greatest moment of my life and all I need is to present myself well. I had no separate preparation except 2 mock interviews each at Hamdard Study Centre and ZFI (Zakat Foundation of India). My interview was on 25th March in Mr. Purushottam Agarwal’s Board. There were wide ranging questions on Right to information, peace in South Asia, Google-China dispute, work and duties of DM etc. The interview board was cordial and I felt my interview went off well.

PD—Any suggestion/advice you would like to give to the future aspirants. Faesal—I would like to point out that Civil Services is not the end of the world. Your preparation should be such where if you are not able to make it to Civil Services, the knowledge accumulated for preparation should help you in any sphere of life. ‘Expect the best but, be ready for the worst.

My approach was simple—read as much as possible. I am a net-addict so whatever I read, I tried to go deep and grab all related information. Mine was a multi-dimensional approach. It always happens if you do not read any particular subject for say 8-10 days, you forget what you had read. So, continuing devoting time for each subject is certainly going to help you. For actual examination, one must make up mind that it is going to be lengthy paper. And it is to be finished within stipulated time. I tell you the incident that took place on the day I was to write my paper, my watch stopped. My friends in Delhi are aware of this. Still, I started my paper and finished it 5 minutes before the end. jumping from one compartment to another. My efforts for Mains Examination were to read and add to the vocabulary of the subjects I am preparing. Whatever I read, I did not read for the examination, I read for my knowledge. And when you gain knowledge, any paper becomes easy to handle. I am an avid reader and internet buff. Anything that I wanted to know, internet was the key element to acquire the relevant information. I tried to understand it with all possible angles. Current Affairs was never a problem as I am a columnist and regularly write for local newspaper.

Time Management
I had made a plan which covered General Studies and both my optional subjects. I never left touch with any of P.Darpan my subjects.

No special efforts were required for Essay. As I just told you, I am writing regularly in newspaper so, it is a must to keep myself abreast of the latest developments. For essay, if one is well read and has command over language, it is very easy to organize and put your thoughts in a nice manner. I could have attempted any topic. I wrote my essay on ‘Globalism Vs. Nationalism’.

My strategy for this examination was an integrated approach. Since beginning, I had in mind that the whole examination process is interlinked. Candidates look at each stage of this examination with different line of attack and Prelims, Mains and interview are treated just like


“Success is the ability to go from one failure to another with no loss of enthusiasm.”

⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯ Inspiring Youth ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯

“Single-minded devotion is the secret of my success.”
—Iva Sahay Topper—Civil Services Exam., 2009 (3rd Rank)
‘Pratiyogita Darpan’ arranged an exclusive interview with Iva Sahay who has been selected in Civil Services Exam., 2009 in her very first attempt and has achieved 3rd rank. She deserves all admiration and our heartiest congratulations on her splendid success. This important, thought provoking and highly inspiring interview is being presented here in its original form.
PD—Achieving top slot in the CS Examination is no small feat; accept our heartiest congratulations on your fantastic performance and splendid success. Iva—Thank you PD—Can you recall the exact moment when you realized the importance of Civil Services? Iva—Only when I qualified. Before that, for me, it was only a very challenging exam. PD—Finally, at what point of time did you make up your mind to make career in ‘Civil Services’ ? Iva—When I was about 4 or 5 years of age, my father just mentioned that I should become an IAS officer. I simply said ‘yes’ never asking ‘why’. I know I was as committed to it then as I was when I actually filled up the form. PD—You must have read IAS Toppers interviews in newspapers/ magazines; what inspired you the most ? Any particular success story which influenced your journey to this result ? Iva—Yes, that is the best thing to do to get an idea of books, hard work and planning needed etc. In 2008 when I started focussed preparation, I read that Ashima Jain (that year’s topper among women) studied 18 hours. I was struck by her dedication. I decided I would not rest till I also reach that mark. It was sometime before Mains that I was actually studying for 18-19 hours, but throughout the preparation at least I tried hard for it. PD—Was CSE a planned decision or your parent’s wish ? Had you kept in mind some timeframe, for the examination preparation and number of attempts ? Iva—It was my father’s desire that I become an IAS officer. But it

“Pratiyogita Darpan is very comprehensive. It is useful for a variety of examinations. The PD Extra Issues Series on General Studies are very well researched and include almost everything in that subject that is relevant for competitive exams.” —Iva Sahay
caught my fancy. It was I who decided ultimately. I wanted to appear after M.A. and could never think of a second attempt as the first was sapping all energy from me. PD—The first step is the most difficult; how to prepare ? Which optionals ? What to read ? How much to read ? Many such questions comprehend your mind when you get really serious about Civil Services Examination ? From where, did you get the right advice ? Iva—From what the toppers said. Generally everybody prescribes the same books, newspapers, magazines etc. I have always followed their advice though the time management, general planning were mine. PD—Were you confident of your success in this examination and how did you react to this special news ? Iva—Yes, more or less though the fear of twist of faith was there. While preparing I kept the 1st rank as my target. When I stood 3rd, I was disappointed at first. But it was a sobering reality to know at least 2 people were worthier. PD—In how many attempts have you achieved this success ? How do you visualize your preparation/ previous attempts ? Iva—This was my first attempt. PD—Were you preparing for other career opportunities as well simultaneously till you achieved your ultimate goal–Career in Civil Services ? Iva—No. PD—While the changing economic environment offers immense lucrative career opportunities across various sectors, still what kept you motivated towards Civil Services ? Iva—This is the only service that gives you the responsibility as well as authority to make life easier for millions. I also have interest in Regional Planning. PD—While making final choice for optional subject/s, what's important and what's not ? Share your thoughts and opinions. Iva—It is good if they were your subjects during graduation. If not then, one can go through the syllabi and take the one which seems interesting and books can be easily available. PD—What were your optional subjects ? Give the basis of selecting these. Prelims : Geography. Mains : Geography and Anthropology. I had studied both in graduation, then did post-graduation in Geography.


“The price of greatness is responsibility.”

Name—Iva Sahay Father’s Name—Prof. Vijoy S. Sahay Mother’s Name—Dr. Vatsala Sahay Date of Birth—August 5, 1984 Educational Qualifications— M.A.—2006-08, Jawaharlal Nehru University, Delhi (85%) B.A.—2003-06, Allahabad University (76%) 12th—2003, St. Mary’s Convent, Allahabad (ISC Board) (92·2%) 10th—2001, St. Mary’s Convent, Allahabad (ICSE) (87·5%) Previous Selections—JNU and DSE entrances qualified, UGC and CSIR JRFs. PD—What was your approach towards General Studies and optional Subjects during Prelims preparation ? How much time and effort did you divid for each ? Iva—Writing notes as it makes revision easy. 50 : 50 was the time divided. PD—How did you manage to tackle the ‘Negative Marking’ in Prelims ? Iva—I didn’t read anything casually, and revised many times. During the exam I did not tick when I was not sure. I had studied as much as possible so that I could attempt maximum questions. PD—List some of the Magazines, News papers, Books etc. which you read for 'General Studies’ preparation. Iva—Prelims : The Hindu, Economic Times, India Year Book, NCERT books, PD special issue on Indian Economy, Yojana, ICSE class 10th science books. NCERT history old books of classes 11th and 12th and new books from 6th to 10th. For other subjects NCERT books of 10th, 11th and 12th are OK. D. D. Basu for Constitution. Mains : The above all + Frontline, Kurukshetra, Datt and Sundaram (Economy), Bipin Chandra (Independence struggle). PD—In your opinion at which Educational Level should one start

preparing for Civil Services and what should be the minimum period of time required to prepare for Civil Services Examinations. Iva—After Graduation. One year of focussed preparation is sufficient. PD—What is your opinion regarding the general view that Science subjects have better chance to score than Humanities ? Iva—No, most of the aspirants take any of the social sciences as optional. Even engineers and doctors shift to Arts subject for it. PD—What is the importance of medium of examination for exams like CSE ? Iva—Those with English as medium get more variety of newspapers and magazines, this is my perception, at least. PD—Does the educational, financial and demographic status of the family of an aspirant have any impact on the preparation ? Iva—Yes, sadly it does. PD—In your opinion what role do these Competition Magazines play when you are preparing for an examination like Civil Services ? Iva—They play a crucial role, supplementing the newspaper, compiling important events of the month. Question banks published in these are also useful. PD—As per a reputed survey report out recently, PRATIYOGITA DARPAN (Hindi) is the largest read and the only Career & Competition magazine in top 4 magazines in India. How do you find Pratiyogita Darpan ? Iva—Very comprehensive. It is useful for a variety of examinations.

Personal Qualities
Favourite Person—My brother for being soft-spoken and affectionate. Strong Point—Capacity for Hardwork. Weak Point—Always Dissatisfied Hobbies—Reading, sketching visiting places, listening old Hindi movie songs. PD—Please give your comments on the PD Extra Issues Series on 'General Studies' and a few Optional Subjects ? Iva—They are very well researched and include almost everything in that subject that is relevant for competitive exams. PD—Did you refer to Pratiyogita Darpan-Year Book ? What is your opinion about the contents, size and the time of publishing? Iva—No, I had no idea that it was being published; otherwise I would have bought it. PD—What is the secret of your success ? Iva—Single-minded devotion for the goal. PD—What preference in services have you opted for ? Iva—IAS, IFS, IPS and so on. PD—To whom would you like to give the credit for your success ? Iva—My Parents. PD—Any suggestion/advice you would like to give to the future aspirants. Iva—Solve question papers, devote at least 1 year for focussed preparation for civil services.

Here I was particular about the concepts, not minor details. I read extensively but …for those units were questions are more likely to be asked, …I did all the topics within those units with extra care. This can be known by solving previous years’ question papers.

I was reading Frontline, The Hindu and EPW regularly for GS+ Essay. I wrote on “Are we a soft state” as I have interest in India’s inter-national affairs and history after independence.

Continued on Page 74

PD/July/2010/71 “There are a terrible lot of lies going around the world, and the worst of it is half of them are true.”

⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯ Inspiring Youth ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯

“Persistent hardwork in the right direction with consistency and honesty is the secret of my success.”
—Bhawna Gulati Topper—U.P. PCS Exam., 2007 (2nd Rank)
‘Pratiyogita Darpan’ arranged an exclusive interview with Bhawna Gulati who has been selected in U.P. PCS 2007 and has achieved 2nd rank. She deserves all admiration and our heartiest congratulations on her splendid success. This important, thought provoking and highly inspiring interview is being presented here in its original form.
PD—Achieving top slot in the CS Examination is no small feat; accept our heartiest congratulations on your splendid success. Bhawna—Thanks a lot. It has been the consistent support of the family and teachers which made me achieve this. Above all the grace of Almighty provided me strength to focus on my goal. PD—Can you recall the exact moment when you realized the importance of Civil Services? Bhawna—It’s been since graduation that I realised the importance of Civil Services to national development and upliftment of poor and down-trodden. PD—Finally, at what point of time did you make up your mind to make career in ‘Civil Services’ ? Bhawna—I made up my mind in the first year of my graduation. PD—You must have read IAS Toppers interviews in newspapers/ magazines; what inspired you the most ? Any particular success story which influenced your journey to this result ? Bhawna—When I used to read the interview of toppers, I realised that they are not made up of a different stuff. But they are more determined, disciplined and focussed in their efforts. I was particularly influenced by the success story of Roopa Mishra— IAS 1st rank (2003). PD—Was CSE a planned decision or your parent’s wish ? Did you keep in mind some time frame, for the examination preparation and number of attempts ?

“Competitive magazines have an important role to play since they present the facts and current affairs in crisp and precise form. It saves lot of time of the candidate and also arms him with necessary information. The PD Extra Issues on Indian and Geography in terms of quality are par Excellence and are must-read for Civil Services aspirants.” —Bhawna Gulati
Bhawna—Civil Services was a planned decision of mine. I devoted 1 year of services study after my graduation in 2006. I aspired to crack the exam in my very first attempt. PD—The first step is the most difficult; how to prepare ? Which optionals ? What to read ? How much to read ? Many such questions come to your mind when did you really get serious about Civil Services Examination ? From where, did you get the right advice ? Bhawna—I visited coaching institutes and also contacted successful candidates to get the advice on this subject. But ultimately the aspirants should choose only those optionals in which they have interest, because the duration of the exam is quite long, and it is necessary to maintain interest in the subject for so long. PD—Were you confident of your success in this examination and how did you react to the news of your success ? Bhawna—I was confident of getting success in the exam because of good performance in mains and interview. But achieving 2nd rank was unexpected. I was completely surprised when I got this news. PD—In how many attempts have you achieved this success ? How do you visualize your preparation/ previous attempts ? Bhawna—It attempt. was my first

PD—Were you preparing for other career opportunities as well while preparing for your career in Civil Services ? Bhawna—No, I concentrated only on civil services after my graduation. PD—While the changing economic environment offers immense lucrative career opportunities in various sectors, still what kept you motivated towards Civil Services ? Bhawna—Undoubtedly there are lucrative career opportunities in private sector, but it was my immense desire to be a part of the development of the nation, and to do something for the upliftment of the poor and downtrodden, which kept me motivated towards Civil Services. PD—While making final choice for optional subject/s, what's important and what's not ? Share your thoughts and opinions. Bhawna—It is not necessary to choose the subjects of graduation as


“We make a living by what we get, we make a life by what we give.”

optionals. But only those subjects should be chosen in which the aspirant has interest. And any optional can fetch good marks, provided one performs really well in it.

PD—What is the importance of medium of examination for exams like CSE ? Bhawna—It is necessary to choose the medium in which one is able to express well. PD—Does the educational, financial and demographic status of the family of an aspirant have any impact on the preparation ? Bhawna—These have only negligible impact on preparation. Above all it is the persistent desire of the aspirant and his hardwork which decide success or failure in this exam. PD—In your opinion what role do these Competition Magazines play when you are preparing for an examination like Civil Services ? Bhawna—These have an important role to play since these present the facts and current affairs in a crisp and precise form. It saves a lot of time of the candidate and also arm him with necessary information. PD—According to a recent report published by a reputed survey agency, PRATIYOGITA DARPAN (Hindi) is the largest read and the only Career & Competition magazine in top four magazines in India. How do you find Pratiyogita Darpan ? Bhawna—Although I am not a regular reader of the magazine my friends read it and they commended the magazine for its usefulness for various competitive exams. PD—Please give your comments on the PD Extra Issues Series on 'General Studies' and a few Optional Subjects ? Bhawna—I went through PD Extra Issue on ‘Indian Economy’ and ‘Geography’. I think the quality is par excellence. Especially ‘Indian Economy’ issue is a must read for every Civil Services aspirant. PD—What is the secret of your success ? Bhawna—I had put in persistent hardwork in the right direction, consistency, honesty, support of family and faith in God. PD—What preference in services have you opted for ? Bhawna—Deputy Collector, Assistant Commissioner Trade Tax, Trade Tax Officer, Deputy S. P.

Personal Qualities
Favourite Person—My Mother Strong Point—Hardwork and positive thinking. Weak Point—I am quite shy at times Hobbies—Playing teaching, calligraphy, music, walking. Chess, listening

Name—Bhawna Gulati Father’s Chandra Gulati Name—Harish

Mother’s Name—Lata Gulati Date of Birth—8-8-1984 Educational Qualifications— B.Sc.—(2006) Navayuga Kanya Degree College, Lucknow (79·6%) 12th—(2002) CBSE Navayuga Radiance School, Lucknow (85·4%) 10th—(2000) CBSE Navayuga Radiance School, Lucknow (85·2%) PD—What were your optional subjects ? Give the basis of selecting these. Prelims : History. Mains : History and Geography. I had Physics, Maths and Statistics in my graduation. But I did not choose them because I could not get proper guidance in them. Besides I thought I may not perform well in these subjects. So I decided to choose humanities. In humanities, I had a lot of interest in history and geography. So I chose them. PD—Did you keep the same optional subjects in all your attempts ? Bhawna—It was my first attempt. I could clear it with History and Geography. PD—In your opinion at which Educational Level should one start preparing for Civil Services and what should be the minimum period of time required to prepare for Civil Services Examinations ? Bhawna—One should start preparing from graduation itself. And one year of serious study after graduation is sufficient to crack the examination. PD—What is your opinion regarding the general view that Science subjects have better chance to score than Humanities ? Bhawna—I think all the subjects have an equally fair chance to score good, provided one performs really well in that.

PD—To whom would you like to give the credit for your success ? Bhawna—The credit goes to my parents for constantly supporting me, my brother and sister-in-law, friends, teachers; above all the grace of Almighty without which it would have not been possible. PD—Any suggestion/advice you would like to give to the future aspirants. Bhawna—Have faith in yourself, work hard in the right direction and be consistent in your efforts. Remembers that—‘Winners don’t do different things, they do things differently.’


“When the eagles are silent, the parrots begin to jabber.”

Continued from Page 71

It was an integrated preparation for 1 year of both prelims and mains. But I devoted 2 months before prelims, exclusively for its preparation. I concentrated more on my optional since it carries 300 marks. For General Studies I paid more attention to history, geography, polity, economics, mental ability and current affairs. My interview was on May 12, 2010 and the board was of Anil Kumar Yadav. The board was very friendly and cordial. The interview lasted for about 25 minutes. The questions were asked on my subjects in graduation; my optionals; social issues, like domestic violence, gender bias, status of women in India; suggestions for improving status of women; Kashmir issue; naxalism; volcanic eruption in Iceland; historical significance of Andaman and Nicobar islands etc.

I prepared my bio-data, especially questions relating to Hobby well. I faced Prof. Purshottam Agarwal’s board on March 26. I was confident even when I did not know the answers to a few questions. It went on for 30 to 35 minutes. I was not able to answer at least 5 questions of factual nature. In about 7 to 8 I answered reasonably well. Tribal problems, Khap panchayat verdict, euro 4 norms, GPS, women's reservation, Bundelkhand, 5 freedom fighters from South India, India's foreign policy since independence, on my hobby book reading, on Mithila (my birthplace), black money, establisment of UPSC, the reason behind the name Dholpur House, India Gate, captain of women's cricket team, why IAS as first choice, why so many IAS officers do nothing for Allahabad, the functioning of Churu panchayat that I had mentioned were the questions asked. They did a lot of leg pulling and laughed many times at my expense for example they said that Allahabad is a very bad city etc. But they were very cordial and supportive on the whole. There was one woman member as well.

For mains it is necessary to focus on answer writing. So, I practised answer writing extensively. Besides I also prepared the framework of the answers which I could not write. It is necessary to make a good balance between knowledge, expression, analysis and layout while writing answers in mains.

Time Management
For prelims I devoted more time to my optional. For mains I devoted 65 per cent time to both my optionals and 35 per cent for General Studies. Besides, in the examination hall, it is necessary to write fast, recall quickly and devote equal time to all the answers in the optional paper. P.Darpan

I did not prepare separately for the essay paper. My first attempt was in the examination hall itself. But I focussed on logical and clear exposition, and included a number of facts and figures in the essay. In U.P. PCS, we have to write 3 essays in 3 hours. One of the topics in which I wrote was—Political Situations in India’s Neighbouring Countries’.

Continued from Page 66
People play themselves down. They are being modest ! Reverse the process and build yourself up to better and more constructive action. When you have done something well even in a small way, appreciate it and go right ahead. Some people go around as if they were carrying half the world on their back. Their shoulders sag, the corners of their mouths turn down, their furrowed brows and eyes seem to mirror pain. Is it a wonder they are dull and depressed ? If you want to feel confident, stand and walk with shoulders back and head held high. Think of something pleasant so that you relax those tense facial muscles. This will make you look years younger. You are self-confident. Remember to act out, as a constant role, the part you really would like to play in life. Keep on with your affirming. It is important to develop the right self-image. Visualise the action you should take, make your success pictures detailed, constant and vivid. Act out what you want to P.Darpan become.

List of Books :
Prelims Optional Savindra Singh, Majjid Hussain (Human Geography, Thought, World Geography), Khullar (India), NCERT books. Mains Optional I Savindra Singh, Tom Garrison (Oceanography, Strahler, Ahrens (Metereology), Majjid Hussain (above + Map Book), Chand and Puri (Regional Planning), Khullar were for Geography. Also Spectrum’s compilation for Mains Geography. Optional II Ember and Ember, P. Nath (Biological Anthropology), Paul Bohannan, Marwin Harris (Culture, People Nature), Weiss and Mann (Biological Anthropology), Sahay and Singh (Indian Anthropology), Bhattacharya (Archaeology), Images of Man (Thought).

For Interview I concentrated on my birth place (Lucknow) and my state (U.P.). Besides I prepared current affairs and held discussions with my friends, family members and teachers.

List of Books :
Prelims Newspaper : The Hindu History : Dutta, Majumdar, Raichaudhary; Romila Thapar; Satish Chandra; Bipin Chandra. General Studies : NCERT books and class notes. Mains Newspaper —The Hindu History : (Same) Geography : Physical Geography : Savindra Singh; Human Geography : Majid Hussain; World Geography : Majid Hussain; Indian Geography : D. R. Khullar; Oxford Student’s Atlas. General Studies—Class notes, Spectrum Series and NCERT book.

Time Management
I never studied any thing for more than 3 hours at a stretch. If the topic was not completed within stipulated time, I did that next day. This is important for efficiency conP.Darpan siderations.


“A countryman between two lawyers is like a fish between two cats.”

IAS Success Planner-2010

Civil Services Examination : Battle Against All Odds
—Atul Kapoor
The previous month of May had been full of news relating to Civil Service Examination. May 6th the spotlight was on Shah Faesal who topped the Civil Services Examination 2009 and later, on May 23, the Preliminary Examination 2010 was conducted. To start with, based on the results of the written part of Civil Services (Main) Examination, 2009 held in October-November, 2009 and the interviews for Personality Test held in March-April, 2010, the Civil Services Examination 2009 result was announced. A total of 875 candidates were recommended for appointment as per the merit-list. It includes 399 General, 273 Other Backward Classes, 127 Scheduled Castes and 76 Scheduled Tribes candidates. In his very first attempt Dr. Shah Faesal created history by scaling the top slot (Public Administration and Urdu Literature as optional subjects) in the Civil Services Examination and it was highlighted more as after 16 years a Kashmiri had made it to the IAS.
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 25085 70763 1250 21364 10462 163535 3708 12651 4936 113502 Shah Faesal Prakash Rajpurohit Iva Sahay Anupama T. V. Anay Dwivedi Tanvi Sundriyal Saswati Dey Garima Mittal Jai Prakash Maurya Akhand Pratap Singh

The other big event of the month was Civil Services (Preliminary) Examination 2010 which was staged on May 23. Talking of Preliminary Examination, this year General Studies paper has left most of the candidates stunned. In past two years, the Preliminary Examination was more objective and straight but this year, it is absolutely different based on concepts and applications which is totally different in nature. The candidates who follow the traditional way of preparation and cram facts and figures would be one who must have found it sickening as well as shocking. A glance at the question paper confirms that it is not possible for anyone who does not follow longterm, planned study of current affairs and contemporary developments to do well.

appeared in 2010 examination with limited preparation because a feeling has cropped in among many candidates that the strategy based on present pattern is known and understood so their approach right now is, as if ‘there is no tomorrow’. Compounding the situation there is changing trend witnessed in Preliminary Examination. But, now, this seems to be ‘blessing in disguise’ as each passing day is giving some hope to candidates as expectations are that this year it should see a low cut-off and 975 vacancies means bigger number of candidates who are to write Mains.

Attention Shift Mains Exam. 2010


Arena is Getting Puzzling
On one side the changing trend is apparent, on the other hand recent announcements relating to proposed C SAT examination in place of existing Preliminary examination is a major development. Last year UPSC Chairman D. P. Agarwal talked about the coming changes and reform to be introduced relating to Civil Services recruitment and of late, a statement in the Lok Sabha by State Minister (Ministry of Personnel) Prithviraj Chauhan relating to the proposed C SAT in place of preliminary examination has really fuelled the settings.

After the Prelims, now focus is shifting towards Mains Examination and it is a prudent decision to start preparing for Mains Examination now. Wait for the Prelims result could be damaging as later if you clear Prelims, you will be left with such a short period that it would be difficult to reach a good preparation level in limited time. To ease a little heaviness, we are bringing the analysis based on recently published UPSC 59th Annual Report. Agreed, it is talking about Civil Services Examination 2007, still, it is the only official data which can be put to use.

Prakash Rajpurohit from Delhi IIT got second rank with Mathematics and Electrical Engineering as optional subjects. Topper among women, Iva Sahay secured third rank in her maiden attempt with Geography and Anthropology as optional subjects. The result includes 680 men and 195 women who have been recommended for appointment. It is again women power reflected in top 10 where women have 50% share with 3rd, 4th, 6th, 7th and 8th rank.

Exam Getting Tougher; Vacancies on the Rise
No doubt, Civil Services Examination is a tough examination and is called the mother of all examinations. The popularity is increasing day by day and no sign of trend reversal in the time to come. May be, it is going to attract more and more talented people and those with higher academic background who were talking about the level-playing field and need of similar paper for everyone.

All Eyes on Short-term Goals
In the context of the state of affairs today, Mains Examination 2010 has gained significant importance and a lot of candidates are eyeing this with lots of hope. Reason; most of the candidates have short-term vision instead of long-term approach. As things are getting little confusing for 2011 examination, many acandidates


“It is not always the same thing to be a good man and a good citizen.”

Table 1 : Number of Candidates who Applied, Appeared and Qualified at the Civil Services (Pre.) Exam., 2007
Number of Candidates Community Male Scheduled Castes Scheduled Tribes Other Backward Classes General Total Applied Female Total 90,686 34,743 Appeared Male Female 34,745 12,603 8,955 3,049 Total Qualified Male Female Total 142 1,426 76 795

Besides many reasons, one is pointed out in the following table which suggests the examination getting tougher. The analysis of data for last 5 years points towards the fact that every year, approx 19%-24% candidates appearing in Mains, qualify for Interview stage. In CSE 2006 this figure was 19% and for CSE 2007 it stood at 21% which shows the competition has intensified in last few years. It is evident from the table above that in last 3 years from CSE 2005 to 2007 there is a steep increase in number of candidates in Mains Examination but the final selection is getting tougher. If we take into consideration the number of candidates appearing in Mains vis-a-vis final selection, we find that successrate from CSE 2003 to CSE-2005 was 8-9% which has seen a drop as figures

71,789 18,897 27,546 7,197

43,700 1,284 15,652 719

78,103 19,739




49,737 3,233

271 3,504 435 3,541 924 9,266

78,905 31,240 1,10,145 37,947 14,433 52,380 3,106 2,56,343 77,073 3,33,680* 1,25,454 36,015 1,61,469 8,342


Community and gender-wise data in respect of 264 candidates, who applied but did not qualify, are not included in the break-up but included in total.

Civil Services Examination : Top of Mind for Many
As per the current examination pattern, the Preliminary Examination is for screening and of qualifying nature. As reported, in Civil Services (Preliminary) Examination 2007 held on May 20, 2007, out of 3,30,680 applicants only 1,61,469 candidates appeared in the Prelims. Out of these only 5.7% i.e., 9,266 candidates were declared eligible for appearing in Mains (Written) Examination.

Planning Necessary as Competition Intensifies
If people talk about the Mains Examination a real test, it is no overstatement. Smart candidates see it as an opportunity to score good marks to ensure top place in the merit-list.

The Number of Candidates Appeared, Interviewed and Recommended During the Last Five Examinations are shown in Diagram 1.

Time to Show Your Talent


Finally, 8,886 candidates came out to sit in Mains Examination out of 9,266 selected candidates. Based on the results of Mains (Written) examination, 1,886 candidates (21%) were called for the final stage of this examination Interview (Personality Test). According to the pattern of examination, based on performance in Mains (Written) and Interview, finally 638 candidates were recommended for appointment.

Table 2 : Number of Candidates Appeared, Interviewed and Recommended—Civil Services (Mains) Exam., 2007
Number of Candidates Community Male Scheduled Castes Scheduled Tribes Other Backward Classes General Total 1,224 669 Appeared Female Total 138 71 1,362 740 Interviewed Male Female 249 113 46 22 Total 295 135 Recommended Male Female Total 92 42 17 11 109 53

for CSE 2006 and CSE-2007 stands at 6% and 7% respectively.

Candidates with Humanities Background have Better Grip
As it is said, this examination favours candidates from Humanities background; it is going to be repetition of words only. Even a cursory look at the following table confirms this and strengthens the case for humanities background candidates. It clearly shows the details of recommended candidates by broad streams of optional subjects opted by them in

3,073 3,026 7,992

254 431 894

3,327 3,457 8,886

574 641 1,577

80 158 306

654 799 1,883

155 206 495

35 80 143

190 286 638


“Evil brings men together.”

Distribution of Candidates Recommended by Broad Streams of Optional Subjects Chosen by them in the Last Five Civil Services (Mains) Examination are shown in Diagram 2

the Civil Services (Mains) Examination during 5 years i.e., from CSE 2003 to CSE 2007. Shah Faesal (1st rank, CSE 2009) in his very first attempt preferred to pick humanities subjects leaving his own (Medical Science) subject and prepared in less than a year still delivered wonderful result. Commenting on this trend, Prakash Rajpurohit (2nd Rank, CSE 2009) says that this process definitely favours candidates with Humanities background. He added that although

Muthyala Raju Revu (AIR-1, CSE-06) and Mr. Supreet Singh Gulati (AIR-2, CSE-07) and now in CSE 2009 he secured 2nd Rank; yet, only with science or Engineering subjects as optional is risky combination. Either it can take you to top or sometimes it leaves you nowhere. Possibly, this is the reason why science, Medical or Engineering background candidates have very good success-rate but, most of them achieve success by picking Humanities subjects as optional.

Dr. Shah Faesal (AIR-1, CSE-09) from medical background chose Public Administration and Urdu Literature; Tanvi Sundriyal (AIR-6, CSE-09), an engineer opted for Sociology and Public Administration and Garima Mittal (AIR-08, CSE-09) again a doctor still appeared in examination with Sociology and Psychology combination. There are many such incidents which are reflected in the data above as support the continuing trend.

Continued on Page 96


“Misfortune shows those who are not really friends.”

Political Science Article

Naxal Movement in India
—Arunoday Bajpai
On May 17, 2010, at least 35 people including 24 civilians and 11 special police officers were killed when Naxals (now also called Maoists) blew up a private bus using a powerful Improvised Explosive Device (IED) on Dantewada–Sukhna Road in Chhattisgarh. On May 16, 2010, same Maoists killed 6 people including the Sarpanch of a village Panchayat in Rajnandgaon district as suspected police informers. On May 8, 2010, Naxals blew up a bullet proof vehicle of Central Reserve Police Force (CRPF) by mines killing 7 members of police force in Bijapur district. To cap it all, on April 6, 2010, Naxals ambushed of police party of CRPF in the jungles of Dantewada district of Chhattisgarh. This was a most coordinated and successful operation carried out by the Naxalites against the police forces. In this incident, 76 CRPF personnel were killed, which demoralised the security forces involved in the operation against the Naxal groups. This operation called, ‘Operation Green Hunt’ was launched by the Central Government to check the menace of Naxalism in affected areas. Read these incidents along with the capture of Lalgarh (West Bengal) region in May 2009. This region emerged as an area close to coming completely under the control of Naxalites after they threw out the local police. The region became increasingly under assault by Maoist guerrillas. The state government of West Bengal, assisted by Central paramilitary forces strove hard to take back Lalgarh from Maoists control in June 2009. The Maoist leader in Lalgarh, Kishenji said that the mass naxalite movement in Lalgarh in 2009 aimed at creating a ‘Liberalised zone’ against the oppression of the establishment of Left and its police. He claimed that the Maoists will have an armed movement in Calcutta in 2011. These incidents within a span of less than one year demonstrate the following facts : first, that naxal groups in India are well entrenched in the large affected area of the country and are poised to pose a serious challenge to the internal security of the country. They are equipped with improvised explosive devices (IED) and advanced arms and weaponary. Second, Naxals derive their support from the rural poor and tribals, who are the marginalised groups in the development process. They also raise the issues which affect the lives of the poor people. For example, Naxals gave a three days’ bandh call (April 18, 19, 20, 2010) in five states—Orissa, Bihar, West Bengal, Jharkhand and Chhattisgarh to protest against the centre’s decision to sell 10% government stake in 10 profit-making public sector undertakings including NALCO and handing over 15,000 acre of land to steel-making company Posco. In fact, these issues are vital for the poor and tribal people depending on meagre resources. Third, the approach of the government so far has been to treat this problem as a law and order problem. Hence this has been considered a problem of states as the subject of law and order falls in the jurisdiction of states, although, the centre has been providing forces and technical assistance. As in last two to three years, the Naxals have spread their activities in both depth and scale, the state police forces proved inadequate to face their challenge. In the wake of killing 35 people in Dantewada district on April 17, 2010, the Union Home Minister, P. Chidambaram reiterated the stand that the Naxal problem is a primary responsibility of state governments. However, he appealed to opposition parties to adopt a bipartisan approach to this problem. Bipartisan approach means evolving a consensus among the ruling and opposition parties to deal with Naxal problem. For last one year, since the encirclement of Lalgarh, the Central Government has taken some initiatives to control the violence of Naxalites. Prime Minister “The gods too are fond of a joke.” Manmohan Singh remarked in September 2009 “that in many ways, left wing extremism poses perhaps the gravest internal security threat our country faces”. He further remarked that the Maoist threat could not be treated simply as a law and order problem. The Central Government, with the assistance of affected state government has launched ‘Operation Green Hunt’ to flush out Naxals from their entrenched areas. For this purpose, at present, 58 battalions of central forces have been deployed. However, Operation Green Hunt has not produced the desired results. According to the estimates of the institute of conflict management, New Delhi, just 294 insurgents were killed as against 214 insurgents killed in previous year before the launch of this operation. Not only this, loss of security force personnel was 50% more than in that previous year and reached to 312 in 2009. The reasons for the failure of government measures are not far to seek. First, in view of the changing strategy of the central government, far at least two years, Maoists have been preparing to face the assault by the government forces. Thus, they have enough time to mine roads in the affected areas, plan ambushes and prepare traps. Second, the government forces are not acquainted with the jungles and terrains where Maoists have control. Neither they are trained to face the guerrilla tactics of the Maoists. Thirdly, the state police forces are under-manned, poorly trained and ill-equipped and are hard pressed to their lines of communication and logistical infrastructures. Fourth, Naxals have gained the sympathy of local poor people and tribals and have been successful in terrorising people who are sympathetic to police forces. Lack of development in affected areas has pushed poor and marginalised people towards Maoists. A recent study of the Planning Commission found that just 7·5% of residents of 33 worst


Naxal affected districts had access to safe drinking water; and less than 15% had electricity. Thus, years of injustice, exploitation, lack of economic and social development and poverty have produced conditions where extremists and violent groups like Naxals could gain stronghold. Finally, there is a lack of coordination and consensus between the state and central government on the one hand and different political parties and stakeholders on the other to adopt a viable common approach to deal with the threat of Maoists.

Historical Naxalism

Background of

The genesis of Naxal, Naxalite or Naxalwadi movement in India can be located within the communist movement in India. The Communist Party of India was founded in 1925 at Kanpur during national movement, which was largely inspired by ideas of Karl Marx and Russian Revolution of 1917. The typical communist ideology believes in establishment of communism or socialism through the means of revolution. After independence Communist Party faced the dilemma of reconciling the revolutionary path with parliamentary democracy. Finally, it opted for parliamentary democratic path to achieve the goal of socialism. However, this did not satisfy all sections of activists involved in communist movement in India. Different lines of thought and approaches were visible within communist movement in India on account of national experience and international events like Chinese Revolution of 1949. The Telangana Movement (1946-51) was a peasant struggle launched by communists in India. Telangana movement was the first serious effort to learn from the Chinese revolution. It facilitated the articulation of three distinct lines within the Indian communist movement. The first line advocated by the communist leader Ranadive and his followers, rejected the significance of Chinese revolution and supported simultaneous promotion of democratic and socialist revolution based on the organization of city-based working class. The second line, called centrist line, was supported by Ajoy Ghosh and Dange, which advocated the path of parliamentary democracy.

The third line, mainly supported by Andhra communists advocated Chinese experience and teaching of Mao Zedong. Following the IndoChina war 1962, the Communist Party of India was split in 1964. While the CPI preached the theory of peaceful road to non-capitalist development, the CPI (M) advocated a centrist line, however, both supporting parliamentary democracy. It was in this background of ideological and organisational upheaval with Indian communist movement that Naxalite movement was born in India, originally as a peasant struggle. It was at a remote village called Naxalbari in Siliguri subdivision of Dorjeeling district of West Bengal that on March 2, 1967, a local tribal farmer Bimal Kissan was deprived of his land by local landlords, which led to the origin and spread of peasant rebellion against landlords. This incident led to the death of one sub-inspector and 15 tribals. Naxalite movement derives its name from the Naxalbari village. The agitation was led by a section of CPI (M) activists like Charu Mazumdar and Siliguri former leader Jangal Santhal. The peasants declared their readiness to adopt arm struggle to redistribute land to the landless. This was a birth of a violent Naxal movement in India. Within a period of two months, this violent struggle received huge support from the crosssections of communist revolutionaries belonging to state units of the CPI (M) in Bihar, West Bengal, Orissa, Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu, Kerala, Uttar Pradesh and Jammu and Kashmir. Though the government of West Bengal was able to contain this rebellion within 72 days with repressive measures, the revolutionary elements from CPI (M) units across the country were organised under the banner of All India Coordination Committee of Communist Revolutionaries (AICCCR) which was founded in May 1968. It laid down the two fundamental principles of Naxalismallegiance to arm struggle and nonparticipation in election. There has been a major difference among the various sections of Naxalites as to how to advance the arm struggle. Charu Mazumdar advocated the idea of ‘annihilation of class enemy’.

which was not accepted by other leaders such as Kanhai Chatterjee and T. Negi Reddy, as the latter upheld the view that the ‘annihilation of class enemy’ should be undertaken only after the building-up of the mass agitation. However, the majority supported the Charu Mazumdar line and the AICCCR went ahead to found the parent Naxal organisationCommunist Party of India (MarxistLeninist) in May 1969, with Charu Mazumdar as its General-Secretary. Charu Mazumdar became the most important leader of Naxal movement in late 1960s, with the organisational skills of Kanu Sanyal and Jaghal Santhal. The Naxal movement spread to different parts of the country with the euphoria of Maoist revolution. However, the movement and its revolutionary zeal were short lived and many of its cadres were either killed or put behind the bar. The movement witnessed confusion, split and disintegration after the death of Charu Mazumdar in 1972. Kanu Sanyal, later, gave up the path of armed struggle and accepted the parliamentary practice as a form of revolutionary activity in 1977. The break away faction of CPI (M-L) led by Negi Reddy and Kanhai Chatterjee joined MCC (Maoist Communist Centre) in 1969. The MCC was founded on Oct. 20, 1969 from its original group ‘Dakshin Desh’ which was active in southern parts of the country. Another major faction of CPI (M-L) led by Jauhar (Subrato Datta), Nagbhushan Patnaik and Vinod Mishra launched a major Naxal initiative, called ‘course correction’ in 1974 and founded a New outfit CPI (M-L) Liberation. This course correction pleaded for limited armed struggle with more emphasis on mass peasant struggles. Ultimately, the initiative drifted towards the acceptance of parliamentary practices. As a reaction to this compromising line of Naxal, there was another split in the movement. In Bihar, N. Prasad broke away and founded CPI (M-L) Unity organisation in 1980. In the same year in Andhra Pradesh, Kondapalli Seethramiah founded People’s War Group (PWG) and its emphasis was on building mass organisation, while keeping away from parliamentary practices. The faction led under the


“The only stable state is the one in which all men are equal before the law.”

banner of CPI (M-L) was termed as revisionist. This may be termed as the beginning of second phase of Naxal movement in India. It should be noted that the initial dilemma of Naxalites as to how to achieve the goals of the movement has persistently plagued the movement and led to numerous splits and fragmentations. While major groups under the influence of CPI (M-L) drifted towards parliamentary practices, the PWG and MCC rejected parliamentary democratic form of government and strove to wage people’s war for people’s government. In 2004, the PWG and MCC came together to form a new Naxal Umbrella Organisation called CPI (Maoist). At present, this may be called the third phase of Naxal movement, characterised by renewed efforts for unity and intensification of violent activities. In brief, we can claim that the naxal activism in India is not merely a whimsical reaction but it gains support from the poor, tribals and other marginalised sections of Indian society. It is a product of poverty, lack of development in equality and exploitation inherent in Indian socioeconomic conditions. At present, Naxals have gained sympathy from urban educated class, certain intellectuals and human right activists like Vinayak Sen of Chhattisgarh. About the urban support base of Naxals, an expert A. K. Verma, remarks, ”some intellectuals, human right workers and political and media activists seem to belong to this category. In other words, no class is being left out. Semi-proliterat, petty bourgeoisie and even national bourgeoisie are being probed for support and collaboration. The success achieved in making such inroads seemed to suggest that some grounds for a revolution, howsoever, embryonic, do exist in the country.” Attempts are being made to expand the support base of the movement, as the land for the tiller is not the only issue at present. In fact, efforts are being made to rope in all marginalised sections of people including the victims of globalization, privatisation, unemployment, lay offs, displacement due to major projects and all those left behind in the process of socio-economic develop-

ment. For enlarging their support base certain industrial areas and cities such as Ahmedabad, Surat, Pune, Mumbai, Calcutta, Ranchi, Dhanbad, Bhilai etc. offer them new opportunities and centres of attraction.

The Present Status of Naxal Movement
As its historical evolution indicates, the naxal movement in India, in last 10 years or so has shown the tendency of expanding its support base as well as intensification of violent activities. It has assumed

regional and international orientation in view of the success of Maoists in the neighbouring Nepal. This has emboldened Naxal groups in India. They are at present well entrenched in worst affected areas of West Bengal, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, Andhra Pradesh and Orissa. Their guerrilla tactics has surprised the security forces. Besides their wide support in rural and tribal areas of these states, they have generated certain amount of sympathy among certain urban educated and intellectual sections.

Major Naxal Groups in India
1. CPI (Marxist-Leninist) Liberation—This is the major group founded after the death of ‘Naxal Guru’ Charu Mazumdar. It was founded in 1974 by leaders like Vinod Mishra and Nagbhushan Patnaik. It had major support base in Bihar. It founded its own political platform in 1982, named as Indian People’s Front (IPF). The IPF contested 1989 parliamentary elections and sent First Naxalite Member of Parliament from Ara (Bihar). In 1992, the IPF was disbanded and the CPI (M-L) Liberation itself started functioning as a political party duly recognised by the Election Commission of India. Though the party has espoused the parliamentary democratic set up, it has not completely abandoned the path of armed rebellion. However, it is not directly involved in the violent activities. 2. People’s War Group (PWG)—As a reaction to the revisionist and compromising line of CPI (M-L) Liberation, the PWG was formed in 1980 by Kondapalli Seetharamiah, with major support base in Andhra Pradesh. Due to ideological differences, Seetharamiah was later expelled from the PWG. This naxal group advocates that the armed agrarian rebellion is the only path for achieving people’s democracy. It considers India as a semi-colonial and semi feudal country with major contradiction between the alliance of imperialism, feudalism, and bureaucrat capitalism on the one hand and poor masses of the country on the other. The PWG is the most radical naxal group. It rejects the parliamentary democratic system of government and supports people’s war as the only path for bringing about people’s democracy in the country. In 2004, the PWG merged with the MCC to form a new umbrella organisation named as CPI (Maoist). The strategy of protracted people’s war involves liberating the countryside first through areawise serzure of power from government, establishing guerrilla zones and base areas and then encircling the cities and finally capturing power throughout the country. 3. Maoist Communist Centre (MCC)—It was founded on Oct. 20, 1969 and was known as ‘Dakshin Desh’. It assumed the present name of MCC in 1975. The MCC is distinct from other Naxal groups as it was never a part of CPI (M-L) which is considered the parent organisation of all naxal groups. The MCC believes in waging protracted people’s war as shown by Mao Tse Tung. This revolutionary war is the war of armed people themselves. According to its literature the concrete economic and political conditions of India demonstrate that armed people’s protracted war is the only path for the victory of the new democratic revolution. In 2003, the MCC merged with the Revolutionary communist Centre of India (RCCI-M) Maoist to form Maoist Communist Centre-India (MCC-I). 4. Communist Party of India (Maoist) CPI (Maoist)—It was formed in 2004 by the merger of two naxal groups-PWG and MCC-I, and became the umbrella organisation for all naxal groups in India. It tries to unite all genuine maoist groups that remain outside the fold of new party. Its first Secretary, Ganpathy, remarked, a unified maoist party based on Marxism-Leninism-Maoism is a long delayed and highly cherished need of the revolutionary minded and oppressed people of the country, including all our ranks and, also all the Maoist forces of South Asia and internationally. The fundamental aim of the CPI (Maoist) is to establish a compact revolutionary zone, stretching from Nepal to Bihar, Andhra Pradesh and beyond. This is known as ‘Red Corridor’. While continuing their pursuit of a people’s democracy, the ultimate aim of the CPI (Maoist) is to seize political power through protracted armed struggle.


“To perceive is to suffer.”

Naxalism in India : Important Facts
● Naxal movement in India started in March-May 1967 from the Naxalbari village of Siliguri sub-division of Darjeeling district of West Bengal, as a violent struggle of peasants. The movement was initially led by CPI (M-L) activists like Charu Mazumdar, Kanhai Chatterjee and Kanu Sanyal. ● The major Naxal groups in India have been CPI (M-L), MCC, CPI (M-L) Liberation, CPI (M-L) Unity Organisation and PWG (People War Group). In 2004 PWG and MCC joined together to form Communist Party of India (Maoist), which is at present (2010) the umbrella organisation of all Naxalites in India. It should be noted that all Naxal groups owe their origin to CPI (M-L) which was formed in 1969 by Charu Mazumdar and others. CPI (M-L) is itself a break away faction of Communist Party of India (Marxist) or CPI (M). ● Besides violent struggle, the major characteristics of naxal movement in India have been various splits, disintegration and reorganisation and ideological confusion. Many of the groups and leaders have accepted parliamentary path to social change, yet others continue to uphold revolutionary ideology. ● The core ideological base of Naxal movement is to organise revolution on the pattern of maoist revolution of China through armed and violent struggle. Their chief strategy has been to control first the rural and tribal areas and gradually move towards the encirclement of urban areas and finally capture the political authority. They do not have faith in Parliamentary democracy and peaceful means of change. At present, the main Naxal outfit; CPI (Maoist) draws support and sustenance from the similar groups in Nepal and China. ● The evolution of Naxal movement in India may be divided into three district phases. The first phase (1967-1980) is characterised by beginning, spread and fragmentation. The second phase (1980-2004) is characterised by consolidation and introspection. The third phase (2004 till date) is characterised by resurgence and intensified struggle with well organised violent activities. ● According to the estimates of the Home Ministry of Central Government, at present, (2010) these are 220 districts in 20 states which are affected by Naxal violence. However, the most affected states are Orissa, West Bengal, Bihar, Chhattisgarh, Andhra Pradesh, Jharkhand and South-Eastern parts of Uttar Pradesh. ● The area under the control of Naxal groups is known as ‘Red Corridor’, which is about 92000 sq km spread in Chhattisgarh, Orissa, West Bengal, Jharkhand, and Andhra Pradesh, the worst affected states. According to the estimates of India’s intelligence agency Research and Analysis Wing (RAW), there are 20,000 armed cadres of Naxalites, besides 50,000 regular cadres operating in India. At present, two important Naxal leaders are Kishenji in West Bengal and Ramanna in Chhattisgarh and Andhra Pradesh. Kanu Sanyal, committed suicide in 2008 in Siliguri, West Bengal. ● The central government, in cooperation with states launched operation ‘Green Hunt’ in 2009 in which 50,000 personnel of central paramilitary forces are deployed. The present intensification in Naxal activities is in reaction to this operation.

Extent of Naxal Violence in India
As per the statistics given by the Ministry of Home Affairs, the following are the casualty figures on account of naxal violence in India. Year 1996 1997 1998 1999 2000 2001 2002 2003 2004 2005 2006 2007 2008 2009 No. of Deaths 156 428 270 363 50 100 140 451 500 700 750 650 794 1134

In the summer of 2009, Maoist largely captured the Lalgarh area of West Bengal and posed a serious threat to security forces. Last year government recognised the threat posed by Naxals to the internal security and launched ‘Operation Green Hunt’ with the deployment of 50,000 paramilitary forces. On April 6, 2010, the Maoists launched biggest attack in the history of naxal movement and killed 76 paramilitary forces in Dantewada district of Chhattisgarh. Within a few days they killed 35 people in the same district. Their famous and typical strength lies in ambushing, mining the road and other guerrilla tactics. These incidents

exposed the chinks in the armour of security forces. On April 17, 2010, the Home Minister of India proposed to hold talks with Naxals if they stop violence for 72 hours. But naxal leader of Chhattisgarh, Ramanna turned down this proposal and put forward the demand of withdrawal of operation Green Hunt as a precondition to hold the talks. It appears that the response of the central and state government is not adequate to face the challenges of naxals in India. Few years back the government of Chhattisgarh launched ‘Salva Judum’ programme in which people of local community

As the above figures demonstrate, there is constant rise in the death toll after the year 2004. In 2010, all indications are that death toll will far surpass the previous years’ figures. According to BBC, more than 6000 people have died during last 20 years due to Maoist violence. According to the Institute of peace and conflict studies, Naxal groups have recruited children in different capacity and exposed them to injury and death. A major cause of worry is that out of total death toll of 1134 in 2009, only 200 naxals died and rest of them are either security forces or innocent civilians. Not only that, due to naxal related violence up to 2009, more than 40,000 people have been displaced. Besides the killing of human beings, Naxals have destroyed the huge amount of property and infrastructure. In 2008, 25 school buildings were destroyed and that number increased to 71 in 2009. In the year 2008 alone, more than 100 rural infrastructure assests like road and culverts were destroyed. They have destroyed the railway tracks many times halting the functioning of railways. In Chhattisgarh alone at least 71 state highways had been rendered unusable. Large scale extortion and violence has scared away the teachers, doctors and administrators jeopardising the development work. Political opponents and police informers have been killed in the style of terrorists. The Naxals have used mines and other explosive devices and modern weapons. The fear, destruction and violence unleased by naxals is worse than terrorists in the affected areas.

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“We are what we repeatedly do. Excellence then, is not an act, but a habit.”

Public Administration Article Article

—Sanjay Sinha
The term bureaucracy is derived from the French word ‘bureau’ which means a desk. In its etymological sense, bureaucracy means simply ‘desk government’, or rule by administrative officers. However the word bureaucracy is often used in the negative or pejorative sense. In that sense it is taken to be synonymous with red tape, inefficiency and ineffectiveness. Actually it originated as a technical term referring to a specific form of social organisation for administrative purpose. The word bureaucracy was, in fact, coined by Mr. Vincent De Gourney, an eminent French economist of 18th century in 1745. He observed in a negative sense that “we have an illness in France which bids fair to play havoc with us; this illness is called ‘bureaumania’.” During the early 19th century its use spread to Germany as ‘burokratic’ and then faced its way to England and other countries. The French Academy in 1789, defined bureaucracy as power, influence of the heads and staff of government bureaux. In 1895 the term bureaucracy is defined/described systematically in his book ‘Elements di scienra politica’. This book is translated into English as ‘The Ruling Class’ in 1939. Laski applied the term bureaucracy for a system of government the control of which is so completely in the hands of officials that their power jeopardises the liberties of ordinary citizens. Sociologist, who gave the modern concept of bureaucracy. He never defined bureaucracy in derogatory sense. He regarded bureaucracy as a universal social phenomenon and the means of carrying ‘community action’ over into rationally ordered societal action. He outlined the characteristics of the ‘ideal type’ from functional point of view. authority is fixed by custom. The ruler is obeyed because the traditions so demanded. The Administrative Staff under such an authority system has one of the two patterns. They are patrimonial or feudal. Under the patrimonial form, officials are personal servants of the ruler and they owe traditional loyalty to the supreme head, whereas under feudalism, the officials have much more autonomy with their own sources of income but they owe a traditional relationship of loyalty towards the leader. Therefore, this type of authority is based on a popular belief that the person giving the command is socially accepted to do so. The administrative system in the domination would consist of personal relatives, servants and personal retainers etc. 2. Chrismatic Authority—Chrismatic authority is based on the personal qualities of the leader by virtue of which he is set apart from ordinary men and treated as endowed with supernatural, superhuman or at least specifically exceptional power or qualities. Among the holders of Chrisma are a prophet, a messiah or a political leader. In Weber’s analysis, Chrisma lies in the eyes of the beholder. It consists of faithful followers or disciples who play the role of intermediaries between the rulers and the ruled. While referring to the administrative system under the chrismatic authority, Weber observed that in such a system, there was no separate administrative staff but only a group of followers and disciples who were given positions in administration on the basis of their chrismatic qualities. There are no legal rules to govern the administrative class. Disciples obey the orders of their leader primarily because they perceive in him superhuman and supernatural qualities. If the disciples observe a decline or failure of the chrismatic qualities of their master, they might abandon him, leading to a break in the chrismatic authority system. Under

Power and Authority
Weber started with the definition of power and authority. According to him, a person could be said to have power if within a social relationship his own will could be enforced despite resistant. If this power is exercised for the structuring human groups, it becomes a special case of power called ‘Authority’. Authority or domination is instrumental in the emergence of organisation. The rules of an organisation are termed ‘Administration’ by Weber. The most important aspect of the administration is that it determines who has to give commands to whom. Every form of authority, according to Weber, expresses itself and functions as administration. Weber’s most widely and acknowledged contribution to social sciences has been the formation of three pure ideal types of legitimate authority. Weber classified authority on the basis of legitimacy, because the type of obedience, the kind of administrative system and the ways of excercising authority depended on it.

Weber’s Theory of Bureaucracy
Apart from pejorative sense mentioned above, bureaucracy means the tasks and procedures of administration. It is also used to denote a body of administrative officials. The subject was studied by several scholars, the prominent ones being Marx, Robert Michels and Max Webers. The most significant contribution to the study of bureaucracy has, however, been made by Max Weber. It was Max Weber, a German

Legitimisation of Authority
According to Weber all authority has to be legitimised in one of the following ways— 1. Traditional Authority—Traditional authority according to Weber, rests on “an established belief in the sanctity of immemorial traditions and in the legitimacy of the status of those exercising authority under them”. The leader in such a system has authority by virtue of the status that he has inherited and the extent of his


“Every man loves two women; the one is the creation of his imagination and the other is not yet born.”

the chrismatic authority system, value and socio-cultural belief considerably influence the character of administrative staff. Weber’s analysis of chrismatic authority system can help in studying the administrative system of those countries where chrismatic leaderships are still prevalent. Notably, the chrismatic elements are almost in every political system although the difference may be in degree. 3. Legal Rational Authority—It is Weber’s third type of authority, with bureaucracy forming the kernel of the administrative system. Obedience under it is owes to the legal established impersonal order. According to Weber, the legal rational authority system is the dominant institution of modern society. This system is called ‘rational’ because in it the means are expressly designed to achieve certain specific ends. It is ‘legal’ because authority is exercised by means of a system of rules and procedures. Because, there are written documents which are the heart of the process. All final decisions are kept in writing. Although the head under a legal rational authority system may enjoy authority either on the basis of tradition or chrisma, yet the administrative staff functioning under him is hierarchically organised and is better trained than the one we find in traditional or chrismatic authority system. The administrative staff in a legal rational authority system has been termed as ‘bureaucracy’ which according to Weber, is the most efficient form of organisation.

petence which has been marked off as a systematic division of labour. Each office is the primary occupation of the incumbent. 2. Hierarchy—It is the fundamental characteristic of an ideal type of bureaucracy. There is a separation between super and subordinate offices. Each lower office is under control and supervision of a higher one. It creates a system of supersubordinate relationship under which each office is accountable to his superior for his and his subordinate ’s action. In addition there are chances of promotion and career advancement on the basis of seniority and merit. Lastly, there is a right to appeal and of statement of grievances from the lower power to the higher. 3. Rules—It operates according to a fixed set of detailed written rules. These rules specify the authority, rights and duties of the employees and the modes of doing work. These rules are more or less stable and comprehensive and are applicable uniformly. The object of these rules is to specify proper procedure and to assure regularity in dealing with outsiders. These rules also seek to ensure impersonality and bolster hierarchical authority. 4. Impersonality— Rewards should be based on efficiency rather than on nepotism or family connection. The functioning of organisation based on rational and objective standards excludes the intervention of personal considerations, emotions and prejudices. The unbiased approach predictably leads to optimum efficiency. 5. Written documents—Administration is based on the written documents and this tends to make the office the hub of the modern organisation. The written documents are stored in files, access to which is limited and is frequently a source of power. The body of officials and these records and files make up bureau or office. 6. Selection and recruitment— The officials are selected on the basis of their qualifications, which are substantiated by a diploma or degree granted by recognised institutions. They are recruited through open competitive examination.

7. Career officials—There is a career structure and promotion for the officials according to the established rules and procedures. It is based on seniority or merit as decided by the judgement of superior. This judgement is again based on the objective criteria laid down for the evaluation of the performance. 8. Neutrality and Anonymity— As a corollary of impersonality, neutrality implies absence of bias. Bureaucracy is an instrument which serves any kind of political regime without being aligned to it. It is not intrinsic to any ism-communalism, socialism, capitalism etc. It can exist in any society without bias. It is committed to work only, not for value. The concept of anonymity means no government policy is named with government official. The neutrality and anonymity always come in pair. On the basis of neutrality and anonymity Weber believes in ‘balanced polity’. 9. Remuneration—The officials are paid salary in cash and usually have pension rights. The salary is graded according to their position in the hierarchy. 10. Code of conduct—The officials are subject to the unified control and disciplinary system of the organisation. The system is uniformly applied to all individual cases. The official can always leave the post and under certain circumstances can also be terminated.

Criticism Theory



Nature of Bureaucracy
The most rational form of administrative staff, according to Weber is ‘monocratic bureaucracy’ that is found in a legal rational authority system. He has also termed it as ‘pure’ since purely from a technical point of view, it is capable of attaining the highest degree of efficiency and thus it is the most rational known means of exercising control over human beings. The characteristics of bureaucracy, according to Weber are the following— 1. Division of Labour—This involves a specific sphere of com-

Weber’s ideal type of bureaucracy appears very attractive and efficient. However, it has not been found to be so in actual practice. Actual bureaucracies suffer from a number of deficiencies such as, red tape, inefficiency, inflexibility, lack of responsiveness etc. Some of the important criticism levelled against Weber’s bureaucratic theory is as follows— 1. According to Robert K. Menton, the precision, reliability and efficiency of bureaucracy is a myth. To achieve these virtues, the bureaucracy indulges in the formulation of various rules, regulations and procedures which bind them in knots. So

Continued on Page 87


“Generosity is giving more than you can, and pride is taking less than you need.”

Environmental Article Article

Carbon Tax or Cap and Trade (C&T) : Alternative Mechanisms of Emission Control
—Dr. Shrawan Kumar Singh
The interconnections among the social, economic and environmental spheres have been internationally recognized as a crucial aspect to be addressed for the future well being of humanity through the concept of sustainable development. Under the paradigm of sustainable development, ecological economics places the human socio-economic system as a subsystem under the broader lifesupporting environment of which it is dependent. This, by placing the ‘economic subsystem’ in its proper perspective and understanding its interconnections with the entire system, represents a fundamental step for achieving long term sustainability. In order to address that, monetary values are assigned to ecosystem goods and services in an attempt to incorporate them into economic accounting. By bringing the role of the environment to the monetary dimension operating in the economic system, valuation can represent an important tool for decision-making in the policy level. The values associated with the environment come in a nonmarket form. The regulations for climate change, concretized by the Kyoto Protocol, have created a demand for carbon offsets. Although economic valuation of environmental goods and services attempts to give a more realistic picture of the role of the environment, it has limitations in going all the way in avoiding environmental degradation, if such values are not traded in the market. The use of market mechanisms is not in itself a safe solution for environmental problems. It is an instrument that should be used with caution to avoid diverting environmental policies and regimes from its original goals, as well as the risk that markets stop being a means to become an end in themselves.

Future Mechanism of Emission Control
Standard-based regulations and public investment are superior to either carbon taxes or cap-and-trade (C&T). But we need some form of carbon pricing to reinforce public action, and a carbon tax is superior to carbon trading. The main policy advantage cap-andtrade offers over a carbon tax is certainty. Ceilings on emissions are fixed under cap-and trade regime. They claim that it is better to fix the ceiling on emissions and let the price vary than to fix the price and hope it produces the reduction. The political advantage no longer comes from not being a carbon tax, but from not being called a carbon tax. “A welldesigned C&T system is preferable to a well-designed tax. A cap-and-trade provides ‘certainty’ via an auto-matic escalator. Creating a carbon trading sector, creates an entire subset of the financial sector opposed to fast emissions reductions. It is true that an absolutely perfect cap-and-tax proposal (a combination of a cap on carbon emission and a tax on its production or consumption) is superior to either a carbon tax or a cap-and-trade alone. But one is not likely to get a perfect system. The best one can hope for is a good system, or may be a mediocre system. A good cap-and-trade will have 100 per cent auctioning of permits-no offsets, no escape clause, expiration dates for permits, and may be a very low floor. It may auction quarterly, but is unlikely to have restrictions on resale. That means one ends up with a lot of volatility and a large carbon trading secotr that will join the carbon lobby to try and weaken the first iteration of cap tightening. A good carbon tax will have both scheduled escalation and special escalation when emissions drop more slowly than intended. So while a perfect cap-and-tax system is betterr than either cap-and-

trade or carbon tax alone, a decent carbon tax is simpler and more workable than a decent cap-andtrade. A mediocre carbon tax is definitely preferable to a mediocre cap-and-trade. Public investment and regulation are more important anyway. But before the word ‘tax’ sets off alarm bells, consider the effect of combusted fossil fuels on the environment. They cause groundlevel ozone, acid rain, global climate change and a myriad of other problems. While cap-and-trade seems to have won over most politicians, many economists and consumers prefer carbon tax for its simplicity and impartiality.

The Logistics of Carbon Tax
The carbon content of oil, coal and gas varies. Proponents of a carbon tax want to encourage the use of efficient fuels. If all fuel types were taxed equally by weight or volume, there would be no incentive to use cleaner sources like natural gas over dirtier, cheaper ones like coal. To fairly reflect carbon content, the tax has to be based on Btu heat units— something standardized and quantifiable—instead of unrelated units like weight or volume.

The Price is Right
Because the carbon content of fuel varies, certain fuels should be taxed at a higher rate. The Carbon Tax Centre, a group that supports the adoption of a national carbon tax in the United States, determined the following theoretical rates. They assumed a tax of $ 50 per ton of carbon (not CO2 ) emitted, determined the heat content of several major fuels, and created a hypothetical price per million Btu of fuel. The higher the price, the dirtier the fuel. Each fuel variety also has its own carbon content. Bituminous coal, for


“God made Truth with many doors to welcome every believer who knocks on them.”

Some Important Terms
(1) Adaptation—Refers to actions required to cope with the changes being brought about by global warming. For example, introducing a new variety of crop that can withstand, or give a better yield, in higher temperatures is an adaptation process. Who shall pay how much for cutting emissions. India would cut carbon intensity—the amount of CO 2 emitted for each unit of GDP—by 20-25 per cent between 2005-2020. This is not too impressive if one considers that our carbon intensity anyway declined by 17·6 per cent over the previous 15 years, or that China has announced a 40-45 per cent target. The government moving on multiple fronts included improved energy efficiency certificates for industries, mandatory fuel efficiency standards, an ambitious solar power programme, green building codes, regular updates on the forest cover that absorbs 10 per cent of India’s greenhouse emissions and accelerated adoption of green coal technology. (2) Carbon emission trading—This is a form of emissions trading specifically and currently makes up the bulk of emissions trading. It is one of the ways countries can meet their obligations under the Kyoto Protocol to reduce carbon emissions and thereby mitigate global warming. Carbon credits came into existence as a result of increasing awareness of the need for controlling carbon emissions. Carbon trading is an application of an emission trading approach with two distinct types of carbon credits—Carbon Offset Credits (COCs) and Carbon Reduction Credits (CRCs). A credit is an emission allowance which was originally allocated or auctioned by the national administrators or a cap-and-trade programme or it is an offset of emissions. The Kyoto Protocol provides three mechanisms : (i) Joint implementation, (ii) Clean Development Mechanism (CDM) & (iii) International Emission Trading (IET), that enable countries or operators in developed countries to acquire greenhouse gas reduction credits termed as Carbon Emission Reductions (CERs). For trading purposes, one allowance or CER is considered equivalent to one metric tonne of CO2 emissions. (3) Carbon intensity—The amount of carbon dioxide emitted for each unit of gross domestic product (GDP). Energy intensity is the amount of energy used for each unit of GDP. India’s energy intensity has been on a declining trajectory, as befits a servicesdriven economy. From 0·12 Kgoe (kg of oil equivalent) per dollar of GDP at purchasing power parity in 2003, its energy intensity has fallen to 0·09 kgoe. Meanwhile, government officials and experts remain divided on whether India should focus on carbon intensity or energy intensity. Its current stance emphasizes the latter. (4) Carbon Sequestration—Carbon sequestration is a technique used to combat global warming by storing carbon dioxide and other forms of carbon on a long term basis. This method has been proposed to mitigate the effect of greenhouse gases released with the burning of fossil fuels. (5) Carbon Tax—The International Energy Agency (IEA) is trying to put a price on global warming. By focusing on price rather than quota systems, the IEA may help shift global warming policies towards market-friendly carbon taxes and away from distorting cap-and-trade systems. As well as being a market-friendly way to tackle climate change, taxes would also provide muchneeded government revenues. (6) Clean Development Mechanism (CDM)—CDM is a well defined mechanism under Kyoto protocol. It implies the use of fuel efficient plants and projects. India is implementing approved CDM projects for the purposes of trading Certified Emission Reductions (CERs). While the nodal agency in implementation of CDM projects in India is the Ministry of Environment and Forests, it is estimated that approximately 300-odd CDM projects are either implemented or under consideration all over the country. India’s carbon credits’ trading is expected to reach $ 100 billion by 2010. Carbon credit trading in India was introduced with the Multi Commodity Exchange of India Ltd. (MCX) after entering into an alliance with the Chicago Climate Exchange in 2005. This association has integrated Indian markets with their global counterparts to cover risks associated with future trading of carbon credits and ensuring best prices. CDM projects in manufacturing, energy, agriculture, mining and mineral production would provide a boost to the Indian economy. (7) Climate Change—Climate change refers to changes in the concentration of the greenhouse gases (water vapour, carbon dioxide, methane, nitrous oxide, and chlorofluorocarbons), which trap infrared radiation from the Earth’s surface, heating it, much like a normal greenhouse. This is called the greenhouse effect. This effect is a natural phenomenon, which helps maintain a stable temperature and climate on the Earth, essential for life. However, this balance is precarious. An increase in infrared radiation captured by the atmosphere has caused changes in the air temperature, precipitation patterns, sea-level rise, and melting of glaciers. Climate change refers to a statistically significant variation in either the mean state of the climate or its variability, persisting for an extended period (typically decades or longer). For instance, the sea levels are rising and agriculture is being impacted apart from other extreme events. Shifting weather patterns can threaten food production while rising sea levels can contaminate coastal freshwater reserves and increase the risk of catastrophic flooding. A warming atmosphere could aid the poleward spread of pests and diseases once limited to the tropics. Ice and rock avalanches in mountains and changes in some Arctic and Antarctic flora and fauna, including sea-ice biomass and predators high in the food chain are some other effects. (8) IPCC—The Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC) is a scientific inter-governmental body that is meant to evaluate the risk of climate change caused by human activity. The panel was established in 1988 by the two United Nations organisations, the World Meteorological Organisation (WMO) and the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP). The IPCC does not carry out its own research, nor does it do the work of monitoring climate or related phenomena itself. It, however, published special reports on climate change, its effects, what can be done about it, and the like. The IPCC bases its assessment mainly on papers reviewed and published scientific literature. (9) Kyoto Protocol—The Kyoto Protocol is a code to the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC or FCCC), aimed at combating global warming. It was adopted on December 11, 1997 in Kyoto, Japan and put into force


“If indeed you must be candid, be candid beautifully.”

on February 16, 2005. As of November 2009, 187 states have signed and ratified the protocol. The most notable non-member of the protocol is the US, which was responsible for 36·1 per cent of the 1990 emission levels. Under the Protocol, 37 industrialised countries commit themselves to a reduction of four greenhouse gases (carbon dioxide, methane, nitrous oxide, sulphur hexafluoride) and two groups of gases (hydrofluorocarbons and perfluorocarbons) produced by them, and all member countries give general commitments. Annex I countries agreed to reduce their collective greenhouse gas emissions by 5·2 per cent from the 1990 level. India signed and ratified the Protocol in August, 2002. Since India is exempted from the framework of the treaty, it is expected to gain from the protocol in terms of transfer of technology and related foreign investments. (10) Legally-binding cuts—The Kyoto Protocol is an amendment to the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC), an international treaty intended to bring countries together to reduce global warming and to cope with the effects of temperature increases that are unavoidable after 150 years of industrialisation. The provisions of the Kyoto Protocol are legally binding on the ratifying nations, and stronger than those of the UNFCCC. A good policy framework would include some regulation in areas where the market doesn’t work well, such as the energyefficiency of buildings and appliances. It would include a modicum of subsidy, on research into technologies that are still a long way from being marketable, such as carbon capture and storage. But it would rely largely on by far the most efficient tool in the policymaker’s kit—a carbon price. A carbon price sends business a price signal to invest in clean stuff not dirty stuff. It doesn’t involve micromanaging business, which regulations do. It doesn’t impose a burden on taxpayers, or require governments to pick winners, which subsidies do. It is, according to an American study, twice as efficient as any other policy. (11) United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change—The UNFCCC process started in response to scientific concerns. But at the political level, the earliest demands for strong action came at the Commonwealth Summit of 1988 and later in the United Nations from the then presidents of Bangladesh and Maldives; both countries being very vulnerable to climate change. When the negotiations started, the high salience of this issue for these vulnerable countries led to the formation of the Association of Small Island States, which became a formal part of the process.

instance, contains considerably more carbon than lignite coal. Residual fuel oil contains more carbon than gasoline. Every fuel variety needs to have its own rate based on its Btu heat content.

Arguments for and against Carbon/Tax
So, what good is a tax on carbon ? (i) Carbon tax is a form of pollution tax. It levies a fee on the production, distribution or use of fossil fuels based on how much carbon their combustion emits. The government sets a price per ton on carbon, then translates it into a tax on electricity, natural gas or oil. Because the tax makes using dirty fuels more expensive, it encourages utilities, businesses and individuals to reduce consumption and increase energy efficiency. (ii) Carbon tax also makes alternative energy more costcompetitive with cheaper, polluting fuels like coal, natural gas and oil. (iii) Carbon tax is based on the economic principle of negative externalities. Externalities are costs or benefits generated by the production of goods and services. Negative externalities are costs that are not paid for. When utilities, businesses or homeowners consume fossil fuels, they create pollution that has a societal cost; everyone suffers from the effects of pollution. Proponents of a carbon tax believe that the price of fossil fuels should account for these social costs. More simply put—if one is polluting

to everyone else’s detriment, one should have to pay for it. The primary purpose of carbon tax is to lower greenhouse-gas emissions. The tax charges a fee on fossil based on how much carbon they emit when burned. So in order to reduce the fees, utilities, business and individuals attempt to use less energy derived from fossil fuels. An individual might switch over to public transportation and replace incandescent bulbs with compact fluorescent lamps (CFLs). A business might increase energy efficiency by installing new appliances or updating heating and cooling systems. A utility company might use wet scrubbers, low NOx -burners or gasification to reduce their emissions. (iv) Since carbon tax sets a definite price on carbon, there is a guaranteed return on expensive efficiency investments. A tax on carbon would increase the cost-competitiveness of alternative power. Carbon tax also encourages alternative energy by making it cost-competitive with cheaper fuels. A tax on a plentiful and inexpensive fuel like coal raises its per British Thermal Unit (B T U) price to one comparable with cleaner forms of power. A BTU is a standard measure of heat energy used in industry. One BTU is the energy necessary to raise the temperature of one pound of water by one degree Fahrenheit. (v) The money raised by

the tax can help subsidize environmental programms or be issued as a rebate. Many fans of carbon tax believe in progressive tax-shifting. This would mean that some of the tax burden would shift away from federal income tax and state sales tax. (vi) Economists like carbon tax for its predictability. The price of carbon under cap-and-trade schemes can fluctuate with weather and changing economic conditions. This is because cap-and-trade schemes set a definite limit on emissions, not a definite price on carbon. Carbon tax is stable. Businesses and utilities would know the price of carbon and where it was headed. They could then invest in alternative energy and increased energy efficiency based on that knowledge. It’s also easier for people to understand carbon tax. Carbon tax seems straightforward enough, but how is the rate actually determined ? At what point is the tax levied ? Carbon tax can be levied at different points of production and consumption. Some taxes target the top of the supply chain—the transaction between producers like coal mines and oil wellheads and suppliers like coal shippers and oil refiners. Some taxes affect distributors—the oil companies and utilities. And other taxes charge consumers directly through electric bills. Different carbon taxes, both real


“If you cannot work with love but only with distaste, it is better that you should leave your work.”

and theoretical, support varying points of implementation. The only carbon tax in the United States, a municipal tax in Boulder, Colo, taxes the consumers—homeowners and businesses. Like Boulder, Sweden also taxes the consumption end. The national carbon tax charges homeowners a full rate and halves it for industry. Utilities are not charged at all. Since the majority of S w e d i s h power consumption goes to heat, and because the tax exempts renewable energy sources like those derived from plants, the biofuel industry has blossomed since 1991. Quebec started a tax on petroleum, natural gas and coal in October 2007. Instead of taxing consumers, Quebec taxes the middlemen—energy and oil companies. Even though the tax is towards the top end, companies can, and probably will, pass on some of the cost to consumers by charging more for energy. It’s easier to tax consumption than production. Consumers are more willing to pay the extra for a carbon tax. Producers are usually not. Taxes on production can also be economically disruptive and make domestic energy more expensive than foreign imports. That’s why existing carbon taxes target consumers, or, in the case of Quebec, energy and oil companies. Carbon tax has a patchy history in the United States and around the world. It’s widely accepted only in Northern Europe—Denmark, Finland, the Netherlands, Norway, Poland and Sweden, all tax carbon in some form. Few legislators around the world consider national carbon taxes as practical successors for the Kyoto Protocol, a multinational carbon market. Kyoto expires in 2012, but its example, as well as that of voluntary cap-and-trade programs like the Chicago Climate Exchange (CCX), has made capped programs the norm. The United States even has successful cap-and-trade program on sulphur dioxide emissions. The main difference between a carbon tax and emissions trading is that a tax gives certainty about the price of

carbon whereas emissions trading gives certainty about the quantity of carbon dioxide being emitted. Economists argue that while fluctuations in carbon emissions don’t matter greatly to the environment as long as they decrease in the long term, fluctuations in the carbon price can cause economic disruption and make it more difficult to undertake the investment required to make the transition to a low-carbon economy. Business representatives prefer a carbon tax because it would be less volatile than a price set by emissions trading with its possible speculation activity. So if a carbon tax is so much better, why are governments pressing ahead with emissions trading. The reason to get (emissions) quotas rather than a tax is that it allows the government to quietly give away all the rights to the polluters. And the industries are powerful lobbyists. With the quota system (governments) can give (polluters) trillions of dollars under the table that with a (carbon) tax system would be difficult to do. Introducing a carbon tax doesn’t mean to raise taxes overall and setting a price on carbon rather than negotiating on emissions quotas could be a circuit-breaker. Policymakers around the world have mostly resisted carbon taxes in the past. A carbon tax is no more economically damaging than most other forms of tax, and probably less so than restrictive tariffs or punitive income tax rates. A globally-agreed $ 50 a tonne carbon tax would raise $ 1·4 trillion annually. Once instituted, it could be increased if global warming alarm escalated, or eliminated if it diminished. Carbon taxes could thereby kill two birds with one stone—and with precious little P.Darpan bureaucracy.

2. Veblan says the training of bureaucracy proved inadequate for changing situations. Bureaucrats who are trained in doing some specific task find it difficult to undertake new tasks as and when they arise. The problem becomes more acute when the need for change arises after an official has performed the same kind of job over a long period of time. 3. Elton Mayo, the leader of Human Relations movement condemned bureaucratic model of administration for taking a mechanistic view of man. According to him bureaucratic model does not consider behavioural aspects of the people working within the organisation. HRTs have challenged the assumptions of bureaucratic theory. They have argued that human beings are incapable of acting like machines. They have feelings, emotions. 4. According to Riggs there is lack of empirical approach and lack of universal validity of Weberian model. Riggs has drawn attention to interaction between Administration and environment within its functioning. So, we cannot understand its real nature without interaction with its ecology. The Weberian model of bureaucracy is a product of developed nations of West, it does not suit the requirement of developing nations of Asia, Africa and MiddleEast. 5. Goal displacement, rules and regulations and rigidity lead to red tape with the functioning of organisational behaviour. It creates delay. 6. In Weber’s analysis of a ‘fully developed’ bureaucracy it is difficult to escape the conclusion that the more developed a bureaucracy is, the less, ‘responsible’, it would be. 7. Weber’s bureaucratic model, in its entirety, is not found to be operating in any of the contemporary societies. It is largely on account of the fact that there does not exist any ideal typical legal rational authority system in empirical reality. We find, a mixture of authority system functioning in various countries of the P.Darpan world today.

Continued from Page 83
much so that the bureaucrats take these rules and regulations to be an end in themselves. This phenomenon of taking the rules and procedures to be the purpose of administration leads to rigidity. Herton named this phenomenon as ‘goal displacement’ where ‘an instrumental value’ becomes ‘a terminal value’.


International Relations Article Relations

Strategic Triangle of Russia-China-India : A Potential Axis of Power
—Dr. Amresh Chandra
The notion of a ‘Strategic Triangle’ comprising Russia, China and India was used by the former Premier of Russia Mr. Primakov, when he visited India in 1999. Vladivostok Trilateral Meet (2 June 2005) and Beijing conference (16th to 17th June 2005) and various trilateral (ninth trilateral meeting held on 28 October, 2009 in Bangalore) and bilateral summits and meetings of other levels have furthered the process of crystallization of the potential triangularity of these powers. The three emerging economies, that together comprise 20% of the global landmass and represent 39% of the global population, hold great strategic potentiality at regional and global levels. The idea of a “strategic triangle’ took a tangible form when the foreign ministers of Russia, China, and India—Igor Ivanov, Tang Jiaxuan, and Yashwant Sinha–met on the margins of the United Nations General Assembly in New York in September 2002. Despite the fact that nothing concrete emerged out of that meeting, it represented the first major attempt by the three nations to deliberate on world affairs, and has now become a regular feature of interactions among the three states. The emergence of such a triangle, if and whenever it takes place, would alter the global strategic balance in a strikingly significant manner. Russia has an extremely important role in this process. Russia’s loss of power and influence on the world scene has been a major cause of concern for virtually all of Russia’s leaders. There has been a growing and pervasive feeling in Russia that it has surrendered its once powerful position on the world stage for a position of little international influence and respect. It is in this respect that Russia has been trying to establish itself as the hub of two bilateral security partnerships that can be used to counteract U.S. power and influence in areas of mutual concern. While Russia has witnessed a downward slide in its status as a superpower in the last decade, China is a rising power that sees the USA as the greatest obstacle it faces, if it is to achieve a pre-eminent position in the global political hierarchy. As a consequence, China recognizes the importance of cooperating with Russia to check US expansionism in the world, even if only in the short term. In fact, Kenneth Waltz has gone as far as to argue that ‘wrong’ US policies towards Russia and China are moving these two states closer to each other and might even lead to the formation of a new balance of power against the USA. India, on the other hand, has different considerations, as it is still far from becoming a global power of any reckoning. However, India has always tried to voice the concerns of the so-called Third World, strongly arguing for respecting the sovereignty of all countries and opposing the use of force in international politics. Growing concern that the USA is becoming too powerful and unilateral, and that a unipolar US dominated world is not in the best interests of weaker states like India, might make the idea of a ‘strategic triangle’ attractive for India. and improve their relationship. The proposed triangle of Russia-ChinaIndia certainly would provide ideal platform to both these countries to forge a viable relationship. The post liberation history of China-Indian relation has been that of friendship, setbacks and normalization. India was the first country in non-communist bloc to recognize China and hence established diplomatic relations in 1950. Both countries in their initial years of tie expressed common concern and understanding on major international issues. They tried to cooperate and coordinate on various diplomatic fronts. However, relationship was never unimpeachable. It was cordial between 1949-59, hostile thereafter, until the war in 1962 and has struggled to remain barely correct since then. The 1970’s were characterized by a few faltering efforts to restore a modicum of relationship, the 1980’s saw the establishment of a regular intergovernmental contacts, these have begun to bear fruit in the 1990’s in the form of Confidence Building Measures (CBMs). Indo-Sino relations took a major forward step, when Rajeev Gandhi visited China in 1988. In the last three decades it was the first visit by the head of government from either side. Deng Xiaoping the then Chairman of China’s Central Military Commission in a meeting with Indian Prime Minister Rajeev Gandhi remarked, “Let us forget the unpleasant phase in our past relations and do everything with an eye on the future”. On a return visit to India in 1991, Chinese Prime Minister Le Peng said, “I consider his visit as a wise and bold step, I profoundly cherish his memories”. Boosting the visit of Li Peng, the Peoples Daily called a milestone in the development of SinoIndian relations.

Dynamics of all the Three Fronts of the Triad
Sino-Indo Front In spite of — immense potentiality their relationship did not develop properly. India’s faith on China and brotherhood feeling shattered in 1962. Nehru’s idealism did not match Mao’s realism. Nehru’s morality approach to solve the problems facing the country and world as a whole had little meaning for Mao/Zhou. Despite this hiatus in the approaches, they moved on and contributed a lot to each other and to the world. There is immense potentiality for both countries to converge


“It is well to give when asked, but it is better to give unasked, through understanding.”

Jiang Zamin, the then Chinese President who visited India in 1996 remarked. “though we still have some outstanding problems leftover from history but I can say for sure that our common interests far outweigh our differences as neither of us poses a threat to the other”. During his visit many agreements were signed covering various issues, likechecking drug trafficking, efforts on Confidence Building Measures (CBMS), improving maritime transport etc. But the most significant part of the agreement was contained in this agreement—“neither side shall use its military capabilities against the other side.” This was like “a virtual no war pact.” Events since 1991 have created favourable condition for Sino-Indian relations. Collapse of Soviet Union, international terrorism, rampant American diplomacy in the unipolar world, could provide common platform to both the countries to converge in and to strengthen their ties. The two sides recalled the historical depth of their friendly contact. India and China are the two largest developing countries of the world with centuries-old civilization, unique history and similar objectives. Both noted that the sustained economic and social development in the two countries, representing one third of humanity is vital for ensuring peace, stability and prosperity not only in Asia but also in the whole world.” Their friendship and cooperation meets the need to : ● promote the socio-economic development and prosperity of both India and China; ● maintain peace and stability regionally and globally ● strengthen multiplicity at the international level and ● enhance the positive factors of globalization. Exchanging greetings on the occasion of the 50th anniversary of the ‘Panchsheel’, the then Indian President A.P.J. Abdul Kalam, the Prime Minister Manmohan Singh, and their Chinese counterparts, Hu Jintao and Wen Jiabao, noted that the five point principles had promoted aspirations in the two countries to coexist and prosper in peace and harmony. Both reiterated their strong

desire to strengthen bilateral ties— India said, it was committed to addressing outstanding issues with China in ”fair, reasonable and mutually-acceptable manner” while Beijing said putting aside differences for mutual benefits was in the interest of both countries. Mr. Singh (Manmohan Singh) said in his letter to Mr. Wen, India remained “committed to strengthening and diversifying our relations with China and further developing our long-term constructive and cooperative partnership while addressing outstanding issues in fair, reasonable and mutually-acceptable manner. This was corroborated by his counterpart (Mr. Wen), when he said, his Government “highly values its goodneighbourly relations and friendship with India. Chinese Prime Minister Wen Jiabao on the eve of his visit to India in 2005 expressed great optimism. “China and India are not competitors, we are friends” Further he stressed “on the need to strengthen China-India relation, which is a factor in the maintenance of global peace and tranquillity.” Both countries are keen to cooperate each other in the field of energy sector, the most important determinant for the growth of a country. The significant historic era of cooperation between India and China in the hydrocarbon sector will ensure energy security for the two Asian giants. In the spirit of the China-India Friendship Year, the two giant neighbours have, since early 2006 engaged each other intensively in ‘strategic dialogue’—hints maturing bilateralism between India and China. Drawing on a detailed and systematic analysis of the interlinked and increasingly important issues of maritime security in the Indian Ocean region, energy demands and concerns, and economic growth and interchange, it shows that not only is there an absence of mutual threat perception, but Sino-Indian bilateral trade is increasingly being framed institutionally and China and India are also beginning to coordinate policy in important areas such as energy policy. Evidently, despite some outstanding problems in Sino-Indian relations like—Tibet, border dispute, etc. both countries are sailing in right

direction to strengthen their bilateral ties. India-China relations hold great promise, and beckon both to rise to the challenges before them in a rapidly evolving world situation. As long as they keep in mind the longterm and strategic nature of the partnership they will be able to calmly approach seemingly difficult and intractable issues in the interest of the long-term objectives of peace and friendship, which, as Premier Wen Jiabao has famously observed, have been the mainstream of IndiaChina civilizational ties for 99·99 per cent of the time. While the scope for competition and cooperation exists side by side, the choice, of whether to make competition or cooperation, the dominant theme of India-China discourse, is ours. Sino-Russo Front— How does Sino-Russo relation work as catalyst in the formulation of Russian-IndianChina strategic triangle ? SinoRussian/Soviet relations before the disintegration of the Soviet Union were characterized by ups and downs. In 1950 they signed the Treaty of Friendship. They had honeymoon period upto first half of the 1950’s. However, by the late 50’s differences in national interests and ideologies emerged, leading to serious disputes in the early 1960’s, which developed into acute conflicts and border clashes in 1969. So the period of 1960’s and up to late 1970’s, Soviet Union regarded China as one of its main rivals and stationed approximately one million troops and onethird of its SS-20 intermediate range ballistic missile along the Sino-Soviet border, threatening to make a surgical first strike on China’s nuclear bases. In these circumstances China was forced to improve its military strength. This face-to-face military threat between these two countries created a lot of tension. But its futility soon was realized by them. They seriously started the process of normalization. Mikhail Gorbachov’s historic visit to China in May 1989, symbolized the end of three decades of Sino-Soviet schism, normalized international relations between the USSR and China and effectively restored party-to-party relations. China’s calculative favourable response to Soviet overtures represen-

PD/July/2010/89 “Out of suffering have emerged the strongest souls; the most massive characters are seared with scars.”

ted a shift in policy from strategic cooperation with the US towards a posture of equidistance between the superpowers. Sino-Russian friendship further adjusted in the new emerging world order. The April 1997 summit meeting highlighted the desire to demonstrate to the international community (primarily the US) the coorelation between the geopolitical postures of the two nations, as represented in the Joint Declaration on a Multipolar World and the Emerging New International Order of 23 April 1997. In the 1997 “Joint declaration on multipolar world and the formation of a new international order”, then Russian President Boris Yeltsin and his Chinese counterpart Jiang Zemin announced their commitment to develop a ‘partnership……for the purpose of strategic interaction in the twenty-first centuury’. The statement was widely seen not only as a challenge to American ‘hegemonism’, but also as confirmation of the qualitatively new relationship that had emerged between Moscow and Beijing after the end of the Cold War. The negative legacy of historical irredentism, civilization prejudices engagement and positive-sum cooperation, based on shared political, security and economic interests became the base of bilateralism. The development of the relationship with China is arguably the greatest Russian foreign policy success of the Post-Soviet period. During the presidency of Boris Yeltsin, when Russia’s international status and influence were in decline on nearly all fronts, the ‘strategic partnership’ with Beijing represented a notable exception to the rule. Under Vladimir Putin the gains of the 1990s have been consolidated, and there is genuine substance to the official claim that relations are at an all time high, particularly after the signing of the Treaty of Good-Neighbourliness, Friendship and Cooperation in July 2001. The positives are evident across the board. First, the two countries have near-identical views regarding the desired structure of the post-Cold War international order. Both emphasise the primacy of the UN in

global decision-making and the precedence of national sovereignty over Western conceptions of ‘humanitarian intervention’ and ‘limited sovereignty’. They aspire to a ‘multipolar’ world in which a few great powers— the United States, Russia, Western Europe, China, India, and Japan— make the big decision. This elitist vision is the modern-day successor of the Concert of Europe in the early nineteenth century, and diametrically opposed to the uniplar order associated with hegemonic America. Moscow and Beijing also share many security interests and threat perceptions, from an attachment to geopolitical concepts such as spheres of influence and the balance of power to a common view of the post—9/11 international security agenda. They have adopted similar positions on the war against terror, the non-proliferation of Weapons of Mass Destruction (WMD), and international conflict management, most recently in the context of Iraq. They are supportive of each other’s directed security concerns, while Moscow has reciprocated on Chinese efforts to suppress separatism in Xinjiang and Tibet and has given its unequivocal support to the ‘One China’ policy towards Taiwan. Both have a major stake in ensuring peace and stability on the Korean peninsula. The Sino-Russian rapprochement is basically a relation to the changing balance of power in world politics, enabling the two countries to act in parallel rather than as allies. Their efforts to develop a strategic partnership seek to counter the US line of preserving a unipolar international system and seek the establishment of multipolarity with both countries playing the most independent roles possible. “The objective action by China and Russia are concurrent selfdetermination, independent influence and separate bargaining positions rather than a close military and political alliance”, so there is every possibility to foresee a friendly relationship between Russia and China. However, there are areas where they do differ, and overall Russia’s China policy also sometime reflects larger contradictions and paradoxes in Moscow’s approach to international affairs, particularly seeing China as a threat.

Indo-Russian Front—IndianRussian relationship has always been of distinct category. Starting from a lacklustre note with Stalin’s policy of maintaining equidistance towards India and Pakistan, Soviets favourably changed during the leadership of Khrushchev (1953-64). During the regime of Brezhnev (1964-82) bilateral relation of Russia and India was very close and warm. Russian policy was in lassitude just after the break-up of the Soviet Union. But immediately, Russia realised the importance of India in particular (and Third World in general). In May 1992, the then Russian State Secretary, Gennady Burbulis, in an interview on the eve of a visit to India—the first of a new Russian leader was forced to accept that Russia’s relationship with India had to be different from its relations with other countries of the region and preferred to describe them as relations of spiritual pragmatism. When Yevgeny Premakov appointed as the Prime Minister of Russia, he realised the importance of multifaceted ties with India when he uttered—“this also suited Russian foreign policy which suited its geographical and geopolitical relations, reflected in its State symbol—the two headed eagle looking in two opposite directions”. The Indo-Russian Friendship Treaty of 1971 was restamped in 1998, when Russian President Boris Yeltsin visited India. During his visit two countries signed a new 20-year Friendship and Cooperation Treaty. Russian President Vladimir Putin’s visit to India Oct. (2-5), 2000 provided a great impetus to the bilateral ties. This treaty covers a whole gamut of areas from economy to environment and from terrorism to global security concerns. The then Russian President Vladimir Putin’s visit to India in the month of December 2002 reiterates their commitment to boost the bilateral relations. Statement of Andrei Belyaninov, head of the Rosobo-ronexport State Company, which handles 90% of Russia’s arms export, expressed the importance of strategic partnership with India. He said “India is Russia’s sole strategic partner in the region and we follow our President’s strict guidelines to have no defence intervention with Pakistan whatsoever. Joint production of BrahMos Missile and


“Say not, ‘I have found the truth,’ but rather, ‘I have found a truth.”

Kundankulam Nuclear Project symbolise techno-strategic cooperation both countries are enjoying. During his (Putin) recent visit he reiterated the fact that nuclear cooperation was one of the most important aspects in the partnership between the two countries which have strong trade ties. Russia’s stateowned nuclear company has agreed to build six reactors by 2017 in India. Russia will remain India’s largest defence supplier for some time to come, with ongoing arms contracts and projects in the pipeline worth well over a whopping $ 15 billion. So there is the immense possibility that Russian-Indian relations will go from strength to strength in the years and decades to come. This is more optimistic and also realistic one, keeping in mind the international order which is coming up after the end of cold war.

some issues which create ripples in the bilateral relationship, hence could also work as obstacles in the formation of strategic triangle.

Obstacles in the Realization of Strategic Triangle
As strategic triangle consists of three poles and hence having three fronts, problems required to be seen on all the fronts which may create obstacles in the formation of strategic triangle. Indo-Russian front is moving satisfactorily and historically well tested and has stood to the challenges. Sino-Russian front is also manageable; however, there is history of vicissitudes in their relationship due to border disputes, ideological clash, fight for dominance etc. But the biggest challenge the triangular concept could face is the mistrust prevailing on Sino-Indian front. However efforts are on from both the sides to shed the previous differences and move forward to start a fresh beginning. Indo-Chinese mutual suspicion, China’s aversion to alliances, each state’s desire for a close working relationship with the United States, and the fact that Russia has little to offer in tangible, material terms to them beyond what they already receive have impeded formation of this triangle. However, these are only small impediments in the broader political and strategic concerns all these three nations are having in the new emerging world order. As a precis of the binding aspects of their relationship, Russia is the biggest supplier of defence equipment to India, and both are jointly developing the ‘BrahMos’ anti-ship missile. China is Russia’s main weapons customer, purchasing an estimated $ 1 to 2 billion of Russia’s $ 4 billion military exports. India (like Russia) is demonstrating its loyalty by acknowledging China’s sovereignty in Tibet. India has pledged not to allow anti-Chinese political sentiment in India. The armies of India and China held unprecedented joint counter-terrorism and peace-keeping training programmes in 2005-06. Furthermore, all three are burdened by militant Islam—in Chechnya, Xinjiang and Kashmir—to name but a few unifying factors. The purpose of the triangularity is to build the Multi-Polar World in which they could maximise their national interest and also meeting

Why Triangle a Pragmatic Possibility
There are several positive factors in favour of trilateralism. All of them advocate a multi-polar world and the establishment of just and fair new international order. Two, all the three countries need to develop their economy and rejuvenate themselves. And their economies are complementary. Three, Russia has a special position among the three—it is a traditional ally and partner of India and also has close ties with China. Its special role could facilitate development of trilateral cooperation. Four, this cooperation, though just started, has gained strong momentum and is moving in the right direction. When Chinese President Hu Jintao visited Russia in March 2007, he and his Russian counterpart, Vladimir Putin, lost no time in reaching out to India. In their joint declaration, they called for expanding trilateral cooperation with India as such interaction “enhances mutually beneficial economic cooperation among the three nations, strengthens their coordination in facing new challenges and threats, especially that of international terrorism and contributes to the cause of promoting peace and stability in Asia and throughout the world.” After examining the potentialities and possibilities of cooperation among the three players of the strategic triangle, we found, there are a number of areas on which cooperation is realistic and easy. But there are

many of the objectives of short-range, medium-range and long-range goals. All the three countries are firm supporters of the Five Principles of Peaceful Co-existence. Putin said, “We are united by our desire to resolve regional problems in a way acceptable to all sides. We therefore think that there are good prospects for work together in a trilateral format.” This was corroborated by Indian Prime Minister Dr. Manmohan Singh when he added that he, Putin and Chinese President Hu Jintao had met and had useful discussions in St. Petersburg on the strategic triangle. It was reasserted by them—“enhanced engagement among them strengthens their influence on the process of democratization of international relations and development of multipolar world order reflecting the diversity of world cultures and civilizations.” They are in unison that, “the strengthening of trilateral cooperation does not imply any diminution of national autonomy or of the national identity. On the contrary, constructive interaction must become a guarantee for the full development of the most valuable qualities and genius of all three peoples. Considering the magnitude of the resources (both—human and material) involved in this triangularity, it has the potential to significantly and dynamically influence the depth, direction and dimension of geo-politics and geo-strategy at both the levels, regional and global. P.Darpan

Just Released

By : Dr. L. N. Koli Code No. 1682 Price : Rs. 60/UPKAR PRAKASHAN, AGRA-2
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“The deeper sorrow carves into your being the more joy you can contain.”

Current Affairs

India and Russia Relations
—Sanjeev Sirohi (Advocate)
India has always since independence had a chequered history of having good relations with Russia and it is most satisfying to see that even now we are continuing to enjoy good equations with them. Contrary to popular belief, India’s growing friendly ties with US have not in anyway adversely affected India’s relations with Russia which is a healthy sign of the firm relationship which we enjoy with them. Moreover, India has not done anything which would alienate Russia and has made it clear that having good relations with Russia will always be of top priority and can never be compromised under any circumstances. Just recently, on March 12, 2010, Russian Prime Minister Vladimir Putin arrived in New Delhi on a 22 hour visit to India. This will certainly further boost relations between the two countries. India and Russia signed over a dozen pacts, including an umbrella inter-governmental civil nuclear agreement and another accord freezing the price of the refurbished aircraft carrier Admiral Gorshkov as well as a clutch of defence deals and a visa pact. It must be mentioned here that until the night before the summit meeting between the two Prime Ministers, the Indian establishment was extremely reluctant about committing itself to the Russian bear hug whether in the nuclear energy, defence or space sectors. The offer on nuclear cooperation by Russia, however, was wideranging and generous. As part of the inter-governmental agreement on cooperation in nuclear energy and the road map for the construction of nuclear power plants, signed in the presence of the two Prime Ministers, Russia promised to go beyond the Indo-US nuclear deal. While speaking to the Russian media after Putin’s visit to Delhi, Sergei Kiriyenko, the head of Russia’s nuclear energy agency Rosatom, said Russia offered to build 16 nuclear power plants at Kudamkulam in Tamil Nadu and Haripur in West Bengal, design and build a nuclear fuel fabrication facility in India under IAEA safeguards and set up a joint venture to explore and mine uranium in Russia that would be used in India and third countries. The joint venture would likely operate at the Elkon uranium field in Yakutia, in Russia’s mineral-rich Siberian landmass, Interfax, the Russian news agency reported. The Russian stateowned mining company ARMZ Uranium Holding Co. or Atom-Red Met Zoloto, holds the licence to the Elkon field which is estimated to hold 3,44,000 tonnes of uranium or 5·3 per cent of the world’s recoverable reserves. On his brief visit to India, Russian PM Vladimir Putin apart from engaging in bilateral talks with PM Dr. Manmohan Singh also met President Mrs. Pratibha Patil. He very categorically assured India of support in the nuclear energy sector through building of reactors and supply of fuel. He said that, “India had expressed keenness in his country’s help for disposal of nuclear waste too. Our (India and Russia) cooperation is in construction and building of nuclear reactors, supply of nuclear fuel and India has expressed interest for help in disposal of nuclear waste.” Regarding safety of the reactors, with the Chernobyl experience during the Soviet era behind it, he firmly assured that upgrading and increasing the safety features in nuclear power plants were the key elements of Russian technology it would provide to India. He also voiced his grave concerns over terror groups operating from within Afghanistan and Pakistan, saying it was a threat to the entire world. Fully conscious of the power equation in Moscow where Putin still calls the shots in all vital matters notwithstanding that his protege Dimitry Medvedev is the President now, India left no stone unturned to ensure that Putin’s less than 24 hour official visit turns out to be a grand success and this it managed to a very large extent. Also during Putin’s visit to India, the other eminent persons who also came with him included two vice-premiers—Sergei Sobyanin and Sergei Ivanov, Energy Minister Sergei Shnatko. From business community, those who accompanied Putin included ‘Rosatom’ CEO Sergei Kiriyenko, main head of ‘Sukhoi’ Mikhail Pogasyan and ‘Rostechnology’ head Sergei Chemezev. Apart from sealing agreements in the defence and strategic spheres, India and Russia also took steps to extend their partnership in new areas such as energy, mining and fertilizers. Simultaneously, both countries also had detailed discussions on regional and global issues and agreed to intensify consultations on Afghanistan and the challenges posed by terrorism and extremism in the region. “In the run-up to, and during Prime Minister, Vladimir Putin’s visit, we have finalised several important and long pending defence cooperation projects which will deepen our longstanding partnership in this vital sector. We have signed the Inter-Governmental Agreement on Cooperation in Atomic Energy and agreed upon a Roadmap for construction of nuclear power plants. A Memorandum of Understanding for bilateral cooperation in Russia’s satellite navigation system has been agreed upon,” Prime Minister Dr. Manmohan Singh said in a statement shortly after concluding delegation-level talks with Mr. PutinDr. Singh also referred to the agreement on strengthening cooperation in hydrocarbons through greater collaboration between the oil and gas companies of Russia and India. Agreements were also signed in the areas of fertilizers. Dr. Singh further added : “We have identified information technology and telecommunications as focus areas for our future economic cooperation.”


“Yesterday is but today’s memory, tomorrow is today’s dream.”

India and Russia signed five accords at the government level in the presence of PM Dr. Manmohan Singh and his Russian counterpart Vladimir Putin after holding extensive talks with each other. Some 15 supplementary agreements were inked between the two countries at various other levels on the margins of official-level talks. A slew of agreements in key areas like defence, nuclear energy, diamond, petroleum and aviation were also inked. The most significant accords between India and Russia were on the Admiral Gorshkov aircraft carrier which the Union Cabinet approved for the purchase of the vessel at $ 2·33 billion and the supply of 29 MIG 29K—the sea variant of the fighter used by the IAF valued at $ 1·5 billion. Earlier, India had ordered 16 such fighters and the first lot of 4— i.e., twin-seated trainer version were inducted into the IAF at Goa in February, 2010. Ever since the cold war era of the 80s, the IAF variant has been in service. These can fly off the deck of the Gorshkov as well as India’s under construction sea-borne aircraft carrier.

The two sides also discussed cooperation in other areas of defence. The role of India in a co-developing the fifth generation fighter aircraft and the multi-role transport aircraft was discussed in detail. India conveyed its disapproval of selling the upcoming fighter to other countries, especially China and therefore wanted an embargo on the same. Apart from this, another important agreement was between the National Power Corporation of India Limited (NPCIL) and the Atom Story for Kudankulam III and Kudankulam IV nuclear reactors as part of the nuclear cooperation accord between the two sides. There were three agreements between Al Roza of Russia and Diamond India Limited in the diamond sector, two agreements between Al Roza and private Indian companies and one between Gastrum of Russia & the ONGC in the petroleum sector. Both Putin and Dr. Manmohan felt that there was a lot the two countries could do to advance global peace, stability and the process of global economic revival. They also agreed to Afghanistan and challenges posed

collectively intensify cooperation on by terrorism and extremism in the region. While describing Mr. Putin as the ‘architect’ of the strategic partnership between India and Russia, Dr. Manmohan said India owed a ‘deep sense of gratitude’ to him for bringing the two countries so close to each other. On his visit to Moscow in December last year, our PM Dr. Singh had engaged in detailed discussions with Mr. Putin to iron out all differences from the bilateral relationship. It is expected that Putin’s visit is set to ink about $ 10 billion worth of deals, mostly in defence collaboration and civilian nuclear reactors. Mr. Putin’s visit is bound to boost bilateral trade which, despite standing at about $ 8 billion right now, is far below its potential. ONGC Videsh has invested nearly $ 3 billion in the Sakhalin oil and gas projects and is looking f o r more oilfields. India which is a large net importer of energy certainly needs and will benefit tremendously from access to Russian oil and natural gas. It is expected that the current $ 7·5 billion bilateral trade will rise to $ 20 P.Darpan billion by 2015.

Exam. Date 12 June, 2010

(For 10th Based Diploma Courses) By : Dr. M. B. Lal & J. P. Dixit Code No. 1656 Price : Rs. 255/-

Main Features

☞ Previous Year’s Solved

☞ Mathematics ☞ Science (Physics,
Chemistry, Biology) ☞ General English


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Indian Polity and Constitution
★ The Constitution of India deals
with the organisation, composition, duration, officers, procedures, privileges, powers of the Parliament under : —Articles 79 to 122 in Part V

★ The highest law officer in the
state is : —Advocate General

★ Who wrote in 1900 to the
Secretary of State for India —“It is my firm belief that the Congress is staggering towards its downfall and it is my great desire that during my stay in India I should help in its peaceful demise ?” —Lord Curzon ★ Bal Gangadhar Tilak popularly known as Lokamanya Tilak was born in 1856 at— —Ratnagiri (Maharashtra) ★ An English weekly called ‘New India’ was started by : —Bipin Chandra Pal ★ Bangdarshan was the main newspaper of : —Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay

★ The first municipal Corporation
in India was set up in Madras in : —The year 1687

★ The parliamentary form of
government as prevalent in India emphasises the interdependence between the : —Legislative and Executive Organs

Indian National Movement
★ Who led the revolt in 1857 in
Bihar and defeated the British Army near Aara ? —Kunwar Singh of Jagdishpur

★ The main duty of the Speaker
Protem of Lok Sabha is : —To administer oath to the new members

★ Who wrote famous thesis
entitled ‘South India in 1857 : War of Independence’ : —V. D. Divekar

★ The Chairman of the Rajya Sabha
can be removed from his office only if he is removed : —From the office of the VicePresident

★ Who has written about the revolt
of 1857—“This was an eruption of social volcano, where many spent forces found vent. After the vent the whole social topography has changed. The scars of rebellion remained deep and shining” —Ashok Mehta

History and Culture of India
★ Mahismati on the river Narmada
was the earliest seat of power of : —The Kalachuris The Chalukyas or Solankis ruled over Gujarat : —For almost three and a half centuries (950-1300 A.D.) Jayadeva, composer of the Gita Govinda adorned the Court of Lakshmanasena who was the last Hindu ruler of : —Bengal Mahabhasya has been written by : —Patanjali The author of the famous play Mrichchakatika—considered one of the best plays of ancient India is : —Sudraka The most important Bahamani ruler was : —Firuz Shah Bahamani The emergence of two independent states in the south namely the Vijaynagar (A. D. 1336) and Bahamani (A.D. 1347) took place during the reign of : —Muhammad Bin Tughlaq

★ When the House (Lok Sabha or
Rajya Sabha) is adjourned without naming a day for reassembly, it is known as : —Adjournment sine die

★ Which Act may be regarded as
the beginning of representative system in modern India ? —The Indian Councils Act 1861

★ The last session of the existing
Lok Sabha after a new Lok Sabha has been elected is called : —Lame-duck session The Supreme Court can issue writs only for the enforcement of: —Fundamental Rights and not for other purposes

★ By which Act of the British
Parliament did Queen Victoria assume the title of ‘the Empress of India’ to emphasize British sovereignty over the whole of British provinces in India and Indian states ? —The Royal Titles Act 1876

★ A governor, though he remains
in office at the pleasure of the President is an integral part of : —State Legislature

★ The Vernacular Press Act as a
safety valve against vernacular newspapers was passed by Lord Lytton on : —March 14, 1878

★ Which Article of the Constitution
declares that the council of ministers is collectively responsible to the legislative assembly of the state ? —Article 164

★ Who was the first to call the
revolt of 1857 as an organised war for national independence ? —V. D. Savarkar

★ The provisions of which Article
explicitly confer the power of judicial review on a high court ? —Articles 13 and 226

★ Who founded Atmiya Sabha in
1815 ? —Raja Rammohan Roy “A friend is a second self.”


★ Under which Delhi Sultan’s rule,
was the kharaj in the form of a proper land tax levied over large parts of northern India ? —Alauddin Khilji The Satnami sect in India was founded in : —The year 1657 Which Sikh Guru constituted Khalsa and introduced a new baptism ceremony requiring every Sikh to observe the five K’s—Kesh, Kirpan, Kachha, Kanghi and Kara ? —Guru Govind Singh (in 1699) Shivaji divided his kingdom into : —Four provinces

★ Mulberry, Eri, Tasar and Muga
are the varieties of : —Silk

★ Monpa, Daffla, Abor, Mishmi,
Nishi and Nagas are the prominent tribal communities found in : —Arunachal Himalayas The Gneiss is a coarse grained : —Metamorphic rock

★ The Janashree Bima Yojana
providing for an insurance cover of Rs. 20,000 on natural death was launched on : —August 10, 2000

★ As per 2001 census, the smallest
million city is : —Rajkot

★ The Central Sales Tax is levied
under the provisions of the Central Sales Tax Act 1956 : —On the sale of goods of the course of inter state trade or commerce

★ The leading producer of tea
which accounts for about 28% of total production in the World is : —India

★ Value Added Tax being a tax on
sale or purchase of goods within a state is a subject by virtue of : —Entry 54 of List II (State List)

Science & Technology
★ Hair of a shaving brush cling
together when the brush is removed from water due to : —Surface Tension The substance used for artificial rain is : —Silver Iodide The least distance of distinct vision is : —25 cm Red light is used as danger signal because it : —Is scattered least In AIDS virus, there is : —DNA + Protein

Economic Affairs of India
★ The number of deaths of infants
before reaching the age of one, in a particular year, per 1000 live births during that year is called : —Infant Mortality Rate Shares in the paid up capital or stock of a company whose holders are considered as owners of the company with voting rights and dividends in the company are called : —Equities and reserves of the commercial banks that is to be kept with the Central Bank (RBI) in liquid form as a measure of control of RBI over the Commercial Banks is known as : —Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) Inflation is measured in India on the basis of which ‘index’ ? —Wholesale Price Index The institution which decides the value and volume of bank notes to be printed and on what basis is : —Reserve Bank of India In India, the second largest provider of employment after agriculture is : —Textiles Sector In the World, in the production of cotton, India ranks : —Second

★ The Foreign Exchange Management Act (FEMA) was passed in : —The year 1999

★ The Governments’ e-governance
initiative aiming at service oriented approach in the design and delivery of Government services is known as : —MCA 21-e-Governance Project

(India and the World)
★ The concept of sustainable
development relates to : —Intergenerational Equity

★ Hydrophobia is caused by :

★ A proportion of the total deposits

★ Which disease is caused by the
excessive use of alcoholic beverage ? —Liver Cirrhosis The strongest muscle in human body is found in : —Jaws The pulse in the human wrist beats : —At the same rate as the heart The sunrays can penetrate the clear ocean water to a maximum depth of : —200 metre

★ The narrow meandering bands of
swift winds which blow in the midlatiludes near the tropopause and encircle the globe are known as : —Jet stream

★ The first of the fourteen biosphere reserves of India which was established in 1986 is : —Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve

★ Nanda Devi Biosphere Reserve is
located in : —Uttarakhand

★ First dwarf variety of paddy
developed in India is : —Govind

★ The average rainfall in India is
about : —125 cm

★ In India, the highest rainfall
occurs along : —The West Coast (on the Western Ghats), north-east and hills of Meghalaya

★ Maya is the variety of :

★ Which crop requires maximum
of nitrogen ? —Sugarcane


“All paid jobs absorb and degrade the mind.”

★ The word agriculture is derived ★
from : —Latin The main function of NABARD is : —Refinancing to agricultural financing institutions Co-operative Credit Societies Act was passed in India in : —the year 1912 Maximum photosynthesis takes place in : —Green Light The origin of litchi is : —China The main function of biofertilizer is : —To increase photosynthesis process

★ The largest natural port of India ★
is in : —Vishakhapatnam Namdapha National Park is located in : —Tirap district of Arunachal Pradesh The third biggest planet of the Solar System is : —Uranus The study of the Moon is called : —Selenology

★ Rice, Jowar, Bajra, Maize, Cotton,
Sugarcane, Soyabean and Groundnut are : —Kharif Crops The growth rate achieved during Tenth Five Year Plan (2002-07) is: —7·2% The National Rural Employment Guarantee Bill was passed by Parliament on : —September 7, 2005 The Reserve Bank of India was nationalised on : —January 1, 1949 R. Chelliah Committee was associated with : —Reforms in Tax Structure Sales Tax, Excise Duty and Custom duty are the forms of : —Indirect Taxes Pascal is the unit of : —Pressure Who invented Electric Iron in 1882 ? —H. W. Seeley The instrument used to measure the pitch of a sound is : —Tonometer Saraswati Samman is associated with : —Literature

★ ★

★ ★ ★

★ The IBSA members are :
—India, Brazil and South Africa

★ Papanasam Hydro-electric project is located in : —Tamil Nadu

★ Rand is the currency of :
—South Africa

Sports and Games
★ Maxim Turov is the famous
player of : 2009 was won by : —India Red —Chess

★ The Capital of Mongolia is :
—Ulan Bator

★ Jamshedpur is located on the ★
river of : —Subarnarekha Famous Pichola lake is situated in : —Udaipur (Rajasthan) Which place is known as the Key to Mediterranean ? —Gibraltar 49th parallel is the boundary line between : —Canada and USA in : —North Nigeria

★ ★ ★

★ N.K.P. Salve Challenger Trophy

★ Which Indian Chess player won
the World Junior Chess Championship in November 2009 ? —Soumya Swaminathan

★ Vijay Hazare Trophy is associated with : —Cricket

★ Hausa tribes are mainly found ★ An instrument used for determining the difference in elevation between two points is known as : —Clinometer

★ The 2010 Commonwealth Games ★ ★
mascot is : —Shera The Champion of IPL III is : —Chennai Super Kings Who bagged the best batsman award in Indian Premier League III ? —Sachin Tendulkar The Wisden Cricketer’s Test Player of the year 2009 is : —Shakib Al Hasan Who have been named as the 2009 ITF World Champions ? —Roger Federer and Serena Williams

Continued from Page 77

Civil Services : Challenging but Rewarding as Well
Well, UPSC has a comprehensive and admirable process of selecting suitable candidates for the Civil Services. Even the emerging scenario hints at the focus of UPSC to select the candidates who are honest, well aware, intelligent, adaptive, sensitive and compassionate to understand the duties of a 21st century ‘Civil Servant’. In our approach, we try to address the needs of aspirants at large. Still, if you have any specific query, you can always mail to us at At the time when the new face of Civil Services Examination is going to emerge, it is expected of you to show total dedication towards your immediate goal – Mains Examination to achieve the desired success. Wishing you all the best.

★ Which article of the Constitution
of India provides for the right of minorities to establish and administer educational institutions ? —Article 30 ★ Provisions of administration and control of Scheduled Areas are contained in : —The 5th Schedule to the Constitution of India ★ Sikkim was made full-fledged state of the Union of India by : —36th Constitutional Amendment Act 1975 ★ The Chairman of the 13th Finance Commission of India is : —Dr. Vijay L. Kelkar ★ The Common Chairman of all the Zonal Councils is : —The Union Home Minister

★ The Indian state which has the
maximum length of roads is : —Maharashtra

★ Hubli is the headquarters of :
—South Western Railway

★ Airways in India started in :


“All virtue is summed up in dealing justly.”

Official Name Capital Area Population The UN Projection (for 2010 Population) Type of Government GDP per capita (as per 2005) HDI/World Rank Central Bank National Anthem

: Canada : Ottawa : 99,84,670 sq km : 3,33,11,400 (July estimate) : 33·75 million : Confederation with Parliamentary Democracy : (PPP $) 33,375 : 0·961/4 : The Bank of Canada : ‘O Canada, our home and native land’/O Canada, terre de nos aieux. Birth Rate 2006-07 (per 1000 population) Adult Literacy Rate Important Festivals : 99% : The Montreal Jazz Festival, Calgary Stampede, Ottawa International Jazz Festival, The Toronto International Film Festival, Vancover International Film Festival. : 77·4 years (for men) 82·4 years (for women) : July 1, 1867 : Supreme Court of Canada, based in Ottawa is the highest Court. : Conservative Party, Liberal Party, New Democractic Party, Bloc Quebecois, and Greens. : Roman Catholic, Protestants, Muslim : English (Official), French (Official) : The Toronto Star, The Globe and Mail
Stephen Harper Current Prime Minister of Canada Michaell Jean The Current GovernorGeneral of Canada



Currency GDP Growth Rate

: Canadian dollar : 2·7% (2007 estimate) Total GDP was US 1, 326·4 billion in 2007 : 11·0%

Canada’s National Police : Royal Canadian Mounted Force Police (RCMP) States/Provinces of Canada : Alberta, British Columbia, Manitoba New Brunswick, Newfoundland and Labrador Nova Scotia, Ontario, Prince Edward Island, Quebec—Quebec, Saskatchewan, The NorthWest Territory, Nunavut : Yukon Territory.

Life Expectancy (as per 2003 data) Date of Independence Judicial System

Important Political Parties

Religions Language Important Newspapers

Brief History
Map of Canada

Head of State Governor-General Prime Minister (since Feb. 6, 2006)

: Queen Elezabeth : Michaell Jean : Stephen Harper (Conservative Party of Canada)

The first inhabitants of Canada were Mongoloid tribes—the hunter-gatherers—who crossed the Berring Straits by a land bridge in search of mammoth, bison and elk. But currently there are two kinds of aboriginal groups—The Inuit and Metis. The Inuit arrived around


“Dignity consists not in possessing honors, but in the consciousness that we deserve them.”

1000 BC while Metis are the evolved group from the Union of natives and Europeans. John Cabot who was an Italian Navigator and was commissioned by King Henry VII of England in 1497 charted the coasts around Labrador and Newfoundland. Jaques Cartier a Frenchman discovered the Gulf Lawrence in 1534. In the following years fisheries were set up by the English and the French. French captured the area called Acadia. In opposition to French expansion, England sent explorers to claim new territory. Rivalry between France and England continued throughout the 17th century over trade. The Treaty of Utrecht was signed between France and England in 1713. It was James Cook who charted the Pacific Coast from Vancouver to Alaska in 1778. Ultimately the French left Canada. In 1849—United Kingdom recognized Canada's right to self-government. Three political leaders A. Macdonald (Conservative—Canada West) George Brown (Reform Movement–Canada West) and George Etienne Cartier (Conservative—Canada East) formed a coalition government in 1864. In 1867 Nova Scotia, New Brunswick and Canadas (now Ontario and Quebec) were United as the Dominion of Canada. The Constitution Act made the provisions of division of power between the federal government and the provinces. John Macdonald was elected Prime Minister. After the death of Maconald in 1891 the Liberal leader Wilfried Laurier came to power in 1896 bringing about a period of growth and stability. In 1929, after the Wall Street crash Conservative leader Richard Bedford Bennett was chosen in the election of 1930. But his efforts to alleviate the effects of the economic depression were not successful. Then in 1935 King was reelected. Thus, democratically elected governments have been ruling over Canada for long period.

vote of confidence. The Governor General is assisted by a Privy Council comprising Cabinet Ministers.

As for the climate, polar conditions are found in the north while cool temperature situations exist in the south. The severe winters are experienced over much of the country but inland summers are very hot.

Energy and Mineral Resources
It may be specially mentioned here that Canada is one of the leading exporters of electricity with 33·2 billion kWh in 2004. As per 2004 data, the power generating capacity of Canada was 118·6 m kW. In 2004 Canada produced 598·51 billion kWh. In 2003 there were 17 nuclear reactors. As per 2005 data oil reserves were 178·8 billion barrels. Canada is the third largest producer of natural gas after Russia and the USA. Canada’s first off shore field 250 km off Nova Scotia began production in 1992. Canada is one of the major producers of sand, gravel, lignite, coal, iron ore, salt, gypsum lime, nickel, lead, uranium, silver, gold and diamonds.

Agriculture, Industry and Infrastructure
Canada ranks second in the production of barley, rapeseeds and oats. Canada’s 6,75,039 square kilometre land were on farms as per 2001 census. Forests make up nearly half of Canada’s landmass and 10% of World’s forest cover. As for industry, Research in Motion, (a technology hardware company) Royal Bank of Canada and Manulife Financial were the major companies in terms of market capitalization in 2007. As per 2002 data there were 14,08,800 km of roads. The National Highway System includes the Trans Canada Highway and other major east-west and north-south highways. Canada has two transcontinental systems : The Canadian National Railway System and the Canadian Pacific Railway. The busiest Canadian Airport is Toronto.

Geography and Location
Canada is bounded in the north-west by the Beaufort Sea, north by the Arctic Ocean, north-east by Baffin Bay east by the Davis Strait, Labrador Sea and Atlantic Ocean while on the south bounded by the USA and west by the Pacific Ocean and USA (Alaska).

Tourist Places
The important tourist sites of Canada are L’Anse aux Meadows National Historic Site (1978) the remains of an 11th century Viking settlement in Newfoundland; Nahnani National Park, Dinosaur Provincial Park in Alberta. Dinosaur Provincial Park in Alberta is a major area for fossil discoveries including 35 species of dinosaur. S. Gaang Gwaii (Anthony Island); Head Smashed—In Buffalo Jump is situated in south-west Alberta, Wood Buffalo National Park is home to America’s largest population of wild bison; Historical District of Quebec has memories of French colonial past; Old Town Lunenburg is also a major attraction; Miguasha Park is one of the world’s most important fossile sites for fish species of Davonian age. Monumental Canal which runs from Ottawa to Kingston Harbour and Joggins Fossil Falls are among the other important tourist sites of Canada. P.Darpan

Constitution and Government
In 1982, the Canada Act of 1982 was enacted and passed by the UK Parliament which became the final Act of UK Parliament in Canadian Constitutional Development. Under the Constitution of Canada, legislative power is vested in Parliament which consists of the Queen, represented by a Governor General, a Senate and a House of Commons. The members of the Senate are appointed until age of 75 by summons of the Governor General under the Great Seal of Canada. The Senate consists of 105 senators. The House of Commons consists of 308 members and is elected by universal suffrage by a first-past—the post system. As per May 2007 legislation elections will be held on the third Monday of October in the fourth calendar year except when a government loses


“Education is the best provision for the journey to old age.”

Miscellaneous Facts : General Knowledge

Present Scenario of Scientific and Industrial Research Sector : In a Nutshell
Undoubtedly India has achieved a significant progress in various fields of scientific and industrial research like; technology-development, innovation, promotion, consultancy, information facilitation, administration, finance, public sector enterprises, eGovernance, International Cooperation and technology transfer programme and management etc. The Department of Scientific and Industrial Research (DSIR)–One of the Department of the Ministry of Science and Technology was created in January 1985 through a Presidential Notification on January 4, 1985 (74/2/1/8 Cab.), with the mandate of DSIR–promotion of Industrial Research for indigenous technology promotion, development, utilization and transfer. Because of several technology programmes, there has been found successful in synergizing the Research and Development (R&D) efforts of industry and national research organisations. Such efforts should continue in future for development of the country, keeping in view the demands of ever-increasing fast growing population @ 1·9% per annum. Based on the Annual Report (2007-08) of the Department of Scientific and Industrial Research (DSIR–Ministry of Science and Technology Government of India–GOI), enough progress has been seen through the various achievements made by the DSIR, those can be highlighted in nutshell as below :

and Technology (GOI)–as one of the departments. The mandate of DSIR includes promotion of industrial research for indigenous technology, promotion, development, utilization and transfer. Allocation of Business for the Department is as : (i) All matters related to CSIR (Council of Scientific and Industrial Research), CEL (Central Electronics Ltd.)/ UNCTAD and WIPO (World Intellectual Property Organisation), Registration and Recognition of R&D units, National Register for Foreign collaborations etc. Organisational set-up of DSIR–5 main bodies viz., Administration, Finance, Department Programme (TPDU), Autonomous Bodies, Public Enterprises. Under Autonomous Bodies–CSIR (Council of Scientific and Industrial Research); CDC (Consultancy Development Centre; and under Public Enterprise) NRDC (National Research Development Corporation); CEL (Central Electronics Ltd.) etc. Website : DSIR—

National Laboratories and 39 outreach centres.

CSIR has been catalyzing the growth of many of the industries i.e., creation of public and private goods and services, in the fields of biology, biotechnology, chemicals and drugs, pharmaceutical sectors-fuel industrial growth. A good achievement has been observed in development of herbal formulation from Murraya Koengii and Tribulus terrestris, as well as of Aloe Vera (Guarpattha)–useful in wound healing and antifungal formation, development of a HYVs of Foeniculum vulgare. Process for extraction of virgin coconut oil–colourless, intense coconut aroma, has been much appreciated as functional food, which acts as antibacterial, antiviral and antifungal. With regard to environment friendly technology development, a significant contribution has been observed like; (i) Zero waste water discharge leather processing technology–appreciated by industrial stakeholders; (ii) a process for heptafluoropropane—a chemical used in fire fighting–suitable for halon and (iii) a plant using a catalystic process for epichlorohydrin from allyl chloride–commissioned in Thailand, which is a first plant of its kind. CSIR already filed 655 patents abroad and 169 patents in India, whereas it has been granted 316 patents abroad and 262 in India. It has secured 21 copyrights as well.

Council of Scientific and Industrial Research (CSIR)

Major Achievements of DSIR (Deptt. of Scientific and Industrial Research)
Organisational set-up/Infrastructure of DSIR and Functions

DSIR (Department of Scientific and Industrial Research) was set up in January, 1985 (vide Presidential Notification, dated January 4, 1985 (74/2/1/8 Cab.) under the Ministry of Science

It comes in an Autonomous Institution. The Council, the largest publicly funded industrial R&D organisation of the world, ever since its establishment in the year 1942, has contributed immensely for new products, facile technological processes, deeper scientific understanding through basic research as well as its S&T contributions as wide, unique and significant. It has multi-disciplinary and multi-locational network of 38 “Happiness depends upon ourselves.”

Consultancy Development Centre (CDC)

CDC came into a registered society in January 1986 and


approved as an autonomous institution of DSIR in Dec. 2004. This centre is managed and guided by a Governing Council headed by Secretary DSIR, which consists of consultancy organisations, R&D Institutions, Government Deptts., Academic Institutions, Public Sector Units. etc.

CEL is diversifying in other areas to achieve a project turnover of Rs. 250 crore by the year 2011-12. and

International Technology Transfer Programme (ITTP)

Technology Development Innovation Programme–TDIP

During 2007-08, CDC has developed linkage with Indira Gandhi National Open University for collaboration programmes on Diploma, Degree, Certificate etc. Training and skill building programmes on consulting were carried-out. 10th Consultancy Congress on Outsourcing : Role of Consultants was held from Jan. 15-16, 2008, wherein status of women consultants in India, consultancy capabilities and opportunities, benchmarking best consultancy pratice etc. were taken into consideration.

This TDIP has two sub-components viz., (i) TDDP (Technology Development and Demonstration Programme); (ii) TePP (Technopreneur Promotion Programme). The main objectives of these TDDP and TePP programmes are : (i) TDDP—to support technology development efforts of Industry R&D system and added two more components–TDDPs– start up and small business. (ii) TePP—to nurture the innovative spirit of individuals. TDPs (Technology Development Projects) have strengthened the linkage with more than 25 National Research Laboratories/ Institutions like, NAL, Bangalore; RRL, Trivandrum; IICT, Hyderabad; CMRI, Dhanbad; IIP, Dehradun; C-DAC, Pune; Dalmia Centre for Biotechnology, Coimbatore etc. TePP has developed successfully and completed TePP Projects during 2007-08, with design of CPAP device for the treatment of sleep apnea, camera mouse for visually handicapped; split type wood forming cutter; tractor mounted pulveriser; water emulsification in fuel oil etc. Pro-

During the year 2007-08, major activities were done like : (i) Participation in India, Fair, Melbourne; (ii) Organisation of INDIATECH-2007 (11th Technology Trade Pavilion) at India International Trade Fair (IITF) 2007, Pragati Maidan, New Delhi etc. Awareness-cum-Training Programmes organised at International and National level have catalyzed the technology intensive and high value added exports. Consequently, the percentage of exports, in overall exports, has steadily increased over the years. A large segment of exporting community has been trained and sensitized towards high value added exports. DSIR continues to play the role of being the focal point for the APCTT (Asian and Pacific Centre for Transfer of Technology). During 2007-08, 463 technology offers and 944 technology request were registered in the databank. APCTT is presently implementing a twin portal to promote SMEs (Small Medium Enterprises) in the region with—the www.technology4sme. net portal and– The 4th Meeting of APTMNET (Asia-Pacific Traditional Medicine Network)–a viable and productive network linking the 14 member countries in the region, was hosted by the Ministry of Health, Malaysia in Kuala Lumpur during July 23-24, 2007.

International Cooperation

NRDC (National Research Development Corporation)

NRDC a public sector enterprise corporation acts as a catalyst for transforming innovative research into marketable industrial products. During 2006-07, this NRDC entered into MoUs/Agreement with other organisations like, GBPUA, Pantnagar; Raman Cente for Applied and Interdisciplinary Sciences, Kolkata; Vasant Dada Sugar Institute, Pune; Synthetic Silica Products, Kanpur, Indian Association for cultivation of Sciences, Kolkata etc. NRDC has made various innovations in the major fields of Agriculture, Biotechnology, Chemical and Allied, Electrical, Electronics, Mechanical etc. CEL a public sector enterprise, has been pioneer in India in solar Photovoltaics; Railway Signaling and Safety Equipments. CEL achieved the ever highest production turnover of Rs. 139·3 crore in 2006-07, with a profit of Rs. 11·24 crore

Technology Management gramme (TMP)

The main theme of T M P is to provide technical inputs and support mechanisms for efficient transfer and management of technology. The case studies under programme includes “Study on Industrial Clusters in U.P. covering Leather Processing Cluster of Kanpur”; “Silk Producing Cluster of Varanasi” and “Brass Work Cluster of Moradabad.” The Seminars / Workshops / Training Programmes were also organized during the year (200708), related to technology management.

CEL (Central Electronics Ltd.)

Technology Information Facilitation Programme (TIFP)

During 2007-08, the significant and specific achievements of the programme (TIFP) were obtained on promotion of content development as such data base on ‘Pest Management Technologies’ for major oilseeds and pulse crops of Central India; Database on wild ornamental plants of


“It is in justice that the ordering of society is centered.”

Himalayas (Solan); Database on Metallopharmaceuticals; Flora potential of J&K state, Indian Wood Insect Database; Database on Mycorrhiza, Decision Support software system for Cereals, Millets, Pulses and Tuber Crops and establishment of an Agricultural Digital Information Centre.

Establishment of a Virtual Information Centre (VIC)–http:// at the ICICI Knowledge Park (ICICIKP) Hyderabad. For support to survey and R&D studies, GIS based Digital Atlas of the Sacred Groves of the NE region (7-sisters of India, comprising Arunanchal Pradesh, Assam, Manipur, Tripura, Mizoram, Nagaland, and Meghalaya, including Sikkim State; are available. Six sensitization-cum-awareness programmes were organised in the country to create awareness and solicit good project proposal in the field of education and training on digital content development. Training for women for construction of mobile bio-gas plant under the project “Propagation of Technologies on water conservation and waste disposed through women group” was given.

Gender Budgeting Cell on the recommendation of the Interdepartmental Committee, some steps have been taken to enhance the share/contribution of women with regard to beneficiary oriented schemes, as TDUPW designed in 2005-06, as well as to meet specific needs of women contribution towards technology capability building. The Deptt. (DSIR) has supported about 20 projects and 7 projects have been completed.

During 2007-08, Five Sensitization-cum-awareness programmes, in various parts of the country were organized with regard to significant nature and beneficial to women. In food and food processing field, CSIR is contributing several novel and cost effective, ITK (Indigenous/Inherited Technical Knowledge)—easy - to - operate techniques and process for foodgrains storage, conservation and processing and has developed various technologies for low cost-nutritive foods, and food preservation, convenience foods, non-conventional foods, spice products, fruits and vegetable preservation, packaging and transporation, besides appropriate and improved designs of machinery for processing, milling etc. Likewise, with regard to proper foodgrains storage without losses due to pests, Dr. O. P. Rajput, Agronomist, ICAR Project at Bichpuri, Agra (U.P.) contributed an incredible research work through developed ITK (Indigenous / Inherited Technical Knowledge) techniques—a low cost technology and also published and released three publication booklets on ITK in oilseeds–Mustard at the GBPUAT, Pantnagar (Uttarakhand) and Assam Agric. University, Jorhat by Vice-Chancellors at the National Workshops in the year 2006 and 2005, respectively. The technologies developed on ITK in foodgrains storage are :

(a) Cereals (wheat, barley, bajra, jowar, maize)—(i) 5-6 kg Neem leaves mixed/q grain; (ii) mix 250 g lime powder/q grain; (iii) 250 g maize cobs ash (with out grain)/q grain; (iv) 2 match box i.e., 100 spokes/q grain; (v) 5-6 g Heeng (Asafoetida) per q grain etc-be mixed in cereal grains like, wheat to save foodgrains in storage. The national losses of foodgrains i.e., 18-21% in storage can be minimized this way. (b) Pulses (gram, tur, peas, moong, urd etc. dals)–use or mix 5-6 g heeng/q pulses in storage. (c) Rice—Mix 15-20 common salts pieces/q rice. These techniques on ITK have also been documented by the ICAR Publications (2004-05)–Inventory of ITK in Agric. Document I, II, and III as well as with Electronic CDs. This information was also made available on ICAR website for online access— Promotion of Hindi ● To promote official language Hindi Week was observed from Sept., 14-21, 2007 by the Deptt.– DSIR—(GOI), besides Hindi workshops. Administrative/Establishment Division ● For promotion, vigilance, pension, retirement benefits, etc., Vigilance Cell works accordingly.

Food and Food Processing

Information Technology and eGovernance

Information Technology for eGovernance has been initiated in the Department (DSIR) during mid 10th Plan. NET security has been strengthened by introducing a three level security system. Various client server applications like; INTRADSIR, PIMS DMIS, INFOSYS, FCAIMS, EXTRADSIR etc. were kept operational during the year 2007-08 by the DSIR.

Based on the above achievements made under DSIR (Department of Scientific and Industrial Research– Ministry of Science and Technology, GOI) during 2007-08, it can very well be concluded in a nutshell that many technological achievements made through several technology programmes, have been found successful in synergizing the Research and Development (R&D) efforts of industry and national research organisations/programmes CSIR, CDC, NRDC, CEL, TDIP, TMP, ITTP, TIFP, TDUPW, ICAR etc. Such efforts should continue in future so as to fullfil the ever increasing scientific demand of fast growing population @ P.Darpan 1·9% year.

Other Activities
TDUPW (Technology Development and Utilisation Programme for Women)

Regarding Gender Budgeting, the Deptt. (D S I R) has set-up


“It is the mark of an educated mind to be able to entertain a thought without accepting it.”


International Organisation
Year of Establishment
1863 October 1863, the International Conference organized by the Committee was held in Geneva to develop possible measures to improve medical services on the battle field. In 1864 the Conference adopted the first Geneva Convention for the Amelioration of the condition of the wounded in Armies in the field. The ICRC is part of the International Red Cross and Red Crescent Movement alongwith the International Federation and 186 National Societies. It J. Kellenberger : has won three Nobel Prizes in 1917, 1944, ICRC President and 1963.

Geneva (Switzerland)

Type of Organisation
The International Committee of the Red Cross is an independent, neutral organisation which ensure humanitarian protection and assistance for victims of war and other situations of violence. The ICRC has a permanent mandate under international law to take impartial action for prisoners, the wounded and the sick and civilians affected by conflict. In situations of conflict the International Committee of the Red Cross coordinates the response by national Red Cross and ICRC Logo Red Crescent Societies and their International Federation. The ICRC is at the origin of both the International Red Cross/Red Crescent Movement and of International humanitarian law notably the Geneva Conventions. With its headquarters in Geneva, Switzerland, the ICRC is based in around 80 countries and has a total of more than 12,000 staff.

Geneva Conventions of 1949
The Geneva Conventions and their additional protocol are international treaties that contain the most important rules limiting the barbarity of war. They protect people who do not take part in the fighting (civilians, medics and and those people who can no longer fight (wounded, sick and shipwrecked troops, prisoners of war). The conventions and their protocols call for measures to be taken to prevent or put an end to all breaches. They contain stringent rules to deal with what are known as grave breaches. Those responsible for grave breaches must be sought, tried or extradited, whatever nationality they may hold.

Landmarks in the History of ICRC
1859 : Battle of Solferino–Henry Dunant. 1863 : International Committee for the relief of military wounded; as from 1876, International Committee of the Red Cross. 1864 : Geneva Convention for the Amelioration of the condition of the wounded in armies in the field. 1867 : First International Conference of the Red Cross 1919 : League of Red Cross as from 1983, League of Red Cross and Red Crescent Societies as from 1991, International Federation of Red Cross and Red Crescent Societies. 1949 : Geneva Conventions 1965 : Proclamation of the Fundamental Principles of the Red Cross 1986 : Statutes of the International Red Cross and Red Crescent Movement 1989 : Conventions on the Rights of the Child 1998 : Rome Statute of the International Criminal Court 2008 : Convention on cluster Munitions

Brief History of ICRC
The idea that mankind must be protected against the scourge of war can be found among all the people of antiquity. It was only in the nineteenth century, however, that considerable efforts were undertaken to make war more human. The decisive events were the creation of the ICRC in February 1863 and the signature in August 1864, of the Geneva Convention for the Amelioration of the wounded in Armies in the Field, which signalled the birth of international humanitarian law. It may be mentioned here that it was Henry Dunant—a Swiss businessman— who first founded in 1863 in Geneva ‘Committee of the Five’ to examine the feasibility to form national voluntary relief organisation to help nurse wounded soldiers in the case of war. Actually Dunant felt the need of such an organisation after he witnessed the Battle of Solferino in 1859 in which 40,000 soldiers died or were left wounded on the field with near total lack of medical attendance and basic care. In 1863 the Committee of five was renamed ‘International Committee for Relief to the wounded.’ In


“It is unbecoming for young men to utter maxims.”

ICRC’s Mandate and Mission
The ICRC has a legal mandate from the international community. That mandate has two sources. The 1949 Geneva Conventions, which task the ICRC with visiting prisoners, organising relief operations, re-uniting separated families and similar humanitarian activities during armed conflicts which encourage it to undertake similar work in situations of internal violence where the Geneva Conventions do not apply. The Geneva Conventions are binding instruments of international law, applicable worldwide. The statutes of the movement are adopted at the international Conference of the Red Cross and Red Crescent which takes place every four years and at which legal states that are party to the Geneva conventions take part, thereby conferring a quasi-legal or soft law status on the statutes.

two elected members. While one of the Vice-Presidents is elected for a four year term, the other is appointed permanently with his tenure ending by retirement from the Vice-Presidency or from the committee.

ICRC Funding and Financing
The ICRC is funded by contributions from states party to the Geneva Conventions (governments); National Red Cross and Red Crescent Societies; supernational organizations (such as the European Commission); and public and private sources. All funding is voluntary. The ICRC does not wait to receive funds before it responds to urgent needs in the field and counts on the goodwill of its contributors to provide the funds as quickly as possible. At the end of each year, the ICRC launches two budget appeals, for headquarters and the field to cover the coming year; operational information and statistical and financial tables (based on the original appeals) are combined in Annual Report.

Structure of ICRC
The ICRC is headquartered in the Swiss city of Geneva. It has external offices called Delegations in about 80 countries. Each delegation is under the responsibility of a Head of delegation who is the official representative of the ICRC in the country. Delegations also often work closely with the National Red Cross Societies of the countries where they are based and thus can call on the volunteers of the National Red Cross to assist in some of the ICRC operations.

International Humanitarian Law
International Humanitarian Law is a set of rules which seek, for humanitarian reasons, to limit the effects of armed conflict. It protects persons who are no longer participating in the hostilities and restricts the means and methods of warefare. International humanitarian law is also known as the law of war or the law of armed conflict.

The Directorate of ICRC
The Directorate is the executive body of the Committee. It attends to the daily management of ICRC whereas the Assembly sets the policy. The Directorate consists of a Director-General and five directors in the areas of operations, Human Resources, Resources and Operational Support, Communication and International Law and Cooperation within the Movement.

The Assembly
The Assembly (also called the Committee) convenes on a regular basis and is responsible for defining aims, guidelines and strategies for supervising the financial matters of the committee. The Assembly has a member of a maximum of 25 Swiss citizens. These Assembly members are appointed for a period of four years and there is no limit to the number of terms an individual member can serve. A three quarters majority vote from all members is required for re-election after the third term, which acts as a motivation for members to remain active and productive.

Assembly Council
A five member Assembly Council constitutes an especially active core of the Assembly. The Council meets at least ten times per year and has the authority to decide on behalf of the full Assembly in some matters. The Council is also responsible for organizing the Assembly meetings and for facilitating communication between the Assembly and the Directorate. The Assembly Council normally includes the President, two Vice-Presidents and


“Law is mind without reason.”

Multiple Choice Questions

Current Questionnaire
1. India recently signed a major deal on education with— (A) Japan (B) Australia (C) Russia (D) U.S.A. 2. Dantewada was in news recently for the reason of— (A) Communal violence (B) Naxal Terror (C) Caste Clashes (D) None of the above 3. INS Kamorta is country’s first— (A) Anti-submarine warfare corvette (B) Nuclear submarine (C) First naval aircraft carrier (D) None of the above 4. Sixteenth SAARC recently was held in— (A) Thimphu (B) Kathmandu (C) Colombo (D) Dhaka Summit (B) 18th Constitution Amendment Bill (C) 20th Constitution Amendment Bill (D) 22nd Constitution Amendment Bill 9. Where was the Sixteenth ASEAN Summit held ? (A) Delhi (B) Beijing (C) Hanoi (D) Kuala Lumpur 10. ‘United People’s Freedom Alliance’ recently won a majority in the parliamentary elections in— (A) Sri Lanka (B) Nepal (C) Maldives (D) Vietnam 11. …… IBSA Summit 2010 was recently held in Brasilia. (A) Third (B) Fourth (C) Fifth (D) Sixth 12. Which of the European countries recently came into news for eruption of volcano ? (A) England (B) Finland (C) Iceland (D) Denmark 13. The World’s first Homeopathy University is being established in— (A) Karnataka (B) Rajasthan (C) Tamil Nadu (D) Kerala 14. The is— (A) (B) (C) (D) new NASSCOM Chairman Gopal Subramanium Harsh Manglik G. Raghurama Mukul Sangma (C) Aditi Malik (D) None of the above 16. The All India Management Association (AIMA) Lifetime Achievement Award has been conferred on— (A) Ratan Tata (B) R. P. Goenka (C) Mukesh Ambani (D) Azim Premji 17. The Best Parliamentarian Award for 2009 has been conferred on— (A) Jaipal Reddy (B) Murli Manohar Joshi (C) Mohan Singh (D) None of the above 18. Asko Parpola recently bagged— (A) Classical Tamil Award (B) Padma Vibhushan (C) Jnanpeeth Award (D) None of the above 19. The best batsman award of Indian Premier League-III was received by— (A) Suresh Raina (B) M. S. Dhoni (C) Sachin Tendulkar (D) Pragyan Ojha 20. Which of the following Indians has got prestigious Dan David Award ? (A) Amitav Ghosh (B) Dev Anand (C) Mani Shankar Mukherjee (D) None of the above 21. Which South Asian country in April 2010 experienced heavy quake ? (A) Nepal (B) China (C) India (D) Afghanistan 22. SIMBEX-10 was a recently held maritime exercise between India and— (A) USA (B) China (C) Malaysia (D) Singapore

5. The new Chief Justice of the Supreme Court of India is— (A) K. G. Balakrishnan (B) Gyan Sudha Mishra (C) S. H. Kapadia (D) None of the above 6. The deal ‘New START’ has recently been signed between— (A) Russia and USA (B) UK and Japan (C) India and China (D) China and Russia 7. The Central Asian country which recently came into news for political turmoil is— (A) Uzbekistan (B) Kyrgyztan (C) Tajikistan (D) Turkemenistan 8. Which of the following Constitutional Amendment Bills in Pakistan aimed at stripping the President of key powers ? (A) 15th Constitution Amendment Bill

15. The first woman to conquer the World’s 14 highest mountains is— (A) Dorothy Height (B) Oh Eun Sun


“Pleasure in the job puts perfection in the work.”

23. The government has decided to declare the World’s largest river island Majuli— (A) A protective zone (B) An eco-sensitive zone (C) A national heritage (D) None of the above 24. World Environment Day observed on— (A) June 3 (B) June 4 (C) June 5 (D) June 6 is

(C) Gun Woo Choo (D) Ling Chen 32. Who has won the women’s title of Badminton Championship ? (A) Xuerui Li (B) Xin Liu (C) Pan Pan (D) Qing Tian 33. The Unique Identification (UID) project, headed by Nandan Nilekani has been renamed— (A) Aadhar (B) Pratiksha (C) Sambandh (D) Samarthan 34. India’s 15th National Census Exercise began on— (A) April 10, 2010 (B) March 10, 2010 (C) April 1, 2010 (D) April 30, 2010 35. As per the schedule, the Census 2011 Exercise work will be completed by— (A) February 28, 2011 (B) March 1, 2011 (C) March 5, 2011 (D) March 31, 2011 36. Which country was on the top in medal tally in South Asian Games 2010 ? (A) Pakistan (B) India (C) Sri Lanka (D) Afghanistan 37. The Best feature film chosen at the 56th National Film Awards is— (A) Antaheen (B) Jogva (C) Rock on (D) Fashion 38. Who among the following personalities awarded Padam Vibhushan is percussionist and Mrudangam Vidwan ? (A) Umayalpuram K. Sivaraman (B) Zohra Segal (C) Bipin Chandra (D) Prathap C. Reddy 39. Praduman Singh Jindrahia whose composition Geet Sarovar was awarded Sahitya Akademi Award 2009 is a noted and famous poet of— (A) Assamese (B) Dogri (C) Gujarati (D) Konkani “Poverty is the parent of revolution and crime.”

40. Irina Bokova is currently the head of— (A) Asian Development Bank (B) UNESCO (C) International Monetary Fund (D) World Bank

Answers with Explanations

25. The champion of Indian Premier League-III is— (A) Mumbai Indians (B) Chennai Super Kings (C) Deccan Chargers (D) Rajasthan Royals 26. How many teams participated in ICC World Twenty-20 Cup ? (A) Ten Teams (B) Twelve Teams (C) Eight Teams (D) Seven Teams 27. Which of the following won the Sony Ericsson Tennis Championship men’s title ? (A) Lukas Dlouhy (B) Mahesh Bhupati (C) Leander Paes (D) Andy Roddick 28. The winner of Augusta Masters title (Golf) is— (A) (B) (C) (D) Richard Karlberg Phil Mickelson Tiger Woods Lee Westwood

29. Who won the Chinese Grand Prix recently ? (A) Jenson Button (B) Sebastian Vettel (C) Valentino Rossi (D) Mark Webber 30. Sebastian Vettel recently emerged winner in— (A) Qatar Grand Prix (B) Malaysian Grand Prix (C) Chinese Grand Prix (D) None of the winner 31. Who has won the Men’s title of Badminton Asia Championship ? (A) Wang Zhengming (B) Lin Dan

Continued on Page 107


Current Objective Questions

Trade and Industry
1. Ambani Brothers have cancelled non-compete agreement which was signed in— (A) 2004 (C) 2006 (B) 2005 (D) 2007 8. In the very first month of 2010-11 (i.e., April 2010) Indian exports registered a growth of— (A) (B) (C) (D) – 4·2% + 4·2% + 26·3% + 36·2% (A) 49% (C) 74% (B) 51% (D) 76% 15. Planning Commission has set up a High Level Expert Committee to suggest measures for efficient management of public expenditure under the chairmanship of— (A) (B) (C) (D) Prof. Ravindra Dholakia C. Rangrajan K. Kasturiranjan Nitin Desai

2. As per third advance estimates of foodgrains for 2009-10 released by the Ministry of Agriculture, the total foodgrain production has been estimated at— (A) 216·85 MT (B) 218·19 MT (C) 222·03 MT (D) 226·13 MT 3. During 2009-10 the trade deficit in India has been estimated at— (A) (B) (C) (D) $ 118·4 billion $ 112·3 billion $ 108·4 billion $ 102·1 billion

9. During 2009-10, India’s gems & jewellery exports registered a growth of— (A) – 3% (C) + 16% (B) + 6% (D) + 26%

10. For the sugarcane having recovery of 9·5%, the government has fixed Fair and Remunerative Prices (FRP) of sugarcane for the sugarcane year 2010-11 (i.e., October 2010 to September 2011) at— (A) (B) (C) (D) Rs. 139·12 per quintal Rs. 142·32 per quintal Rs. 146·12 per quintal Rs. 156·12 per quintal

16. Parliament on May 5, 2010 passed the payment of Gratuity (Amendment) Bill 2010 which increases the gratuity limit for employees from Rs. 3·5 lakh to— (A) (B) (C) (D) Rs. 5 lakh Rs. 7·5 lakh Rs. 10 lakh Rs. 12·5 lakh

4. Which of the following public sector enterprises is not in the list of companies being considered for ‘Maharatna’ status ? (A) ONGC (C) NTPC (B) SAIL (D) OIL

5. Industrial growth for the year 2009-10 has been estimated at— (A) (B) (C) (D) 8·5% 10·4% 12·3% Below 5%

11. For the merger of Bank of Rajasthan with ICICI Bank, the share swap ratio between ICICI Bank and Bank of Rajasthan has been fixed at— (A) 1 : 3·72 (B) 1 : 3·92 (C) 1 : 4·52 (D) 1 : 4·72 12. As on April 30, 2010 the total number of ‘Navratna’ status having public sector enterprises is— (A) 18 (C) 20 (B) 19 (D) 21

17. India’s first electricity museum ‘CLP Electro dome displaying evolution of power from vedic days to nuclear power generation has been established in— (A) (B) (C) (D) Bangalore Ahmedabad Delhi Hyderabad

18. 16th SAARC Summit concluded in Thimpu (Bhutan). The 17th SAARC Summit is scheduled to be held in 2011 in— (A) (B) (C) (D) Maldives Sri Lanka Nepal Pakistan

6. Bank of Rajasthan is being merged with— (A) HDFC Bank (B) ICICI Bank (C) AXIS Bank (D) None of the above 7. The 20th member joining ‘Navratna Club’ of public sector enterprises is— (A) Coal India Ltd. (B) Rashtriya Ispat Nigam Ltd. (C) Oil India Ltd. (D) Power Grid Corporation of India

13. Belgium banking and insurance group KBC is being acquired by— (A) Tata Group (B) Hinduja Group (C) Reliance Group (D) AXIS Bank Group 14. Commerce Ministry has proposed the foreign direct investment ceiling to be raised from existing 26% to—

19. The minimum support price of the raw jute for the year 2010-11 has been raised from Rs. 1375 per quintal (for the year 2009-10) to— (A) (B) (C) (D) Rs. 1425 per quintal Rs. 1525 per quintal Rs. 1575 per quintal Rs. 1625 per quintal

20. Railway Minister Mamta Banerjee flags off ‘Aurobindo


“A fanatic is one who can’t change his mind and won’t change the subject.”

Express’ which is a weekly express train to run between— (A) (B) (C) (D) Delhi and Puducherry Howrah and Puducherry Sealdah and Puducherry Asansol and Puducherry

Continued from Page 105

(English-Hindi Medium)

Read Upkar’s

21. In Forbes list of companies for 2010 i.e., Global 2000, how many Indian companies found a place ? (A) 47 (C) 56 (B) 50 (D) 62

22. As per the data released by TRAI, the tele-density (i.e., the number of telephone connections per 100 people) in the country at the end of March 2010 stands at— (A) (B) (C) (D) 47·88% 52·74% 55·32% 59·63%


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23. Who is the census commissioner for the census 2011 ? (A) (B) (C) (D) C. Chandramauli G.K. Pillai J. Harinarayan J.S. Sharma

24. Sony India has appointed a new Brand Ambassador to promote the sale of its digital cameras in the market. Who is the one among the following ? (A) (B) (C) (D) Kareena Kapoor Deepika Padukone Saif Ali Khan Preeti Zinta


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Solved Paper

R.A.S./R.T.S. (Pre.) EXAM., 2008
(Held on 7-1-2009)

Indian History
1. Vikramshila University was established by— (A) Dharmapal (B) Devapal (C) Narayanapal (D) Mahipal 2. Who among the following directed to throw bomb on Viceroy Lord Hardinge ? (A) Khudiram Bose (B) Rasbihari Bose (C) Chandrashekhar Azad (D) Ramprasad Bismil 3. The is— (A) (B) (C) (D) author of Tabqat-i-Nasiri Minhaj-us-Siraj Ziyauddin Barni Amir Khusro Mehadi Hussain (C) Mohammed-bin-Tughlaq (D) Firoz Shah Tughlaq 10. Agam Siddhant is religious literature of— (A) Buddhism (B) Jainism (C) Brahmanism (D) Veda 11. The Second Capital of Gupta ruler Chandragupta II was— (A) Ujjain (B) Malwa (C) Saurashtra (D) Mehrauli 12. Which one is related Mahatma Buddha ? (A) Malla (C) Shakya (B) Deva (D) Koliya with 18. “Brahmanical reaction was responsible for the downfall of the Mauryan Empire.” Who said ? (A) Harprasad Shastri (B) U. N. Ghoshal (C) D. D. Koshambi (D) Romila Thapar 19. The grant of ‘Diwani’ in Bengal, Bihar and Orissa was given to the English East India Company by the Treaty in 1765 with— (A) Shah Alam II (B) Mir Qasim (C) Siraj-ud-daula (D) Francis Joseph Dupleix 20. Vernacular Press Act passed in— (A) 1877 (B) 1878 (C) 1879 (D) 1880 21. When did Deimachos, the Greek ambassador, visited India ? (A) Chandragupta Maurya (B) Bindusar (C) Ashok (D) Brihadrath 22. Who called British Economic policy as ‘Colonial Economy’ ? (A) Mahatma Gandhi (B) Jawaharlal Nehru (C) Sardar Vallabh Bhai Patel (D) Madan Mohan Malaviya 23. When did separate electorate system was established for Muslims ? (A) 1908 (B) 1909 (C) 1910 (D) 1911 24. The statement of Mahatma Gandhi that it was ‘a post-dated cheque’ was related to— (A) The Simon Commission (B) The Cripps Mission (C) The Cabinet Mission (D) The Young-Husband’s Mission 25. Under which Viceroy’s tenure Indian National Congress was formed ?

4. During Akbar’s reign the biggest gold coin was called— (A) Ilahi (B) Jalali (C) Dam (D) Shamsab 5. Who among the following was a leader of Wahabi Movement ? (A) Mohammed Ali (B) Ajmal Khan (C) Syed Ahmad (D) M. A. Ansari 6. When did Akbar abolish Jaziya ? (A) 1563 (B) 1564 (C) 1565 (D) 1566 7. Rani Jhansi Regiment is related with— (A) Azad Hind Fauj (B) Gandhi Brigade (C) Nehru Brigade (D) Azad Brigade 8. How many tirthas (Officials) are referred in Arthashastra ? (A) 16 (B) 17 (C) 18 (D) 19 9. Jaunpur was established by— (A) Balban (B) Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq

13. Which one of the following Mauryan rulers was Jaina ? (A) Kunal (B) Samprati (C) Dasharatha (D) Jalauk 14. When did Albaruni, a scholar of Central Asia visited India ? (A) Mahmud Ghaznavi (B) Mohammed Ghori (C) Qutub-ud-din Aibak (D) Iltutmish 15. Chola rulers were followers of— (A) Vaishnavism (B) Shaivism (C) Shaktism (D) Jainism 16. During Mauryan age, Avantipath was— (A) Northern Province (B) Southern Province (C) Western Province (D) Eastern Province 17. Paramaras were residents of— (A) Malwa (B) Rajasthan (C) Gujarat (D) Orissa


(A) (B) (C) (D)

Lord Dufferin Lord Ripon Lord Lansdowne Lord Curzon

26. Fort William was situated in— (A) Madras (B) Machalipattnam (C) Orissa (D) Calcutta 27. The author of “Indian Epigraphy” is— (A) D. C. Sircar (B) Oldenburg (C) F.F. Pargitar (D) H. D. Sankalia 28. Where did Britishers establish their first trade centre ? (A) Calcutta (B) Surat (C) Bombay (D) Karnatak 29. Who was Alara Kalama ? (A) Disciple of Buddha (B) Prominent Buddhist monk (C) Teacher of Buddha (D) Ruler who criticised Buddhism 30. Which session of the Indian National Congress approved ‘Gandhi-Irwin Pact’ ? (A) Karachi Session (B) Lahore Session (C) Calcutta Session (D) Tripura Session 31. Which Urdu poet was invited to the Second and Third Round Table Conference ? (A) Faiz Ahmad Faiz (B) Mohammad Iqbal (C) Josh Malihabadi (D) Firaq Gorakhpuri 32. The author of Historica is— (A) Justin (B) Herodotus (C) Deodorus (D) Megasthenes 33. Kalibanga is situated in— (A) Gujarat (B) Punjab (Pakistan) (C) Rajasthan (D) Haryana 34. With reference to the Swadeshi Movement during the Indian Freedom Struggle, which of the

following statement is not correct ? (A) The theme song of Swadeshi Movement in Bengal was Ravindranath’s “Amar Sonar Bangla”. (B) Syed Haider Raza led the Swadeshi Movement in India (C) The Ganapati and Shivaji festival became a medium of the movement (D) The Surat split in 1907 weakened the Swadeshi Movement 35. Who among the following was fond of slaves ? (A) Alauddin Khalji (B) Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq (C) Mohammed-bin-Tughlaq (D) Firoz Shah Tughlaq 36. Sravanabelgola is associated with— (A) Chandragupta Maurya (B) Ashok (C) Vihnugupta (D) Dasharath 37. Who called Samudragupta ‘Napolean of India’ ? (A) R. K. Mukherjee (B) R. C. Dutt (C) R. S. Sharma (D) V. A. Smith 38. Which language was the State language during the Sultanate period ? (A) Arabic (B) Persian (C) Turkish (D) Urdu 39. Dahasala system was introduced by Akbar in— (A) 1575 (B) 1580 (C) 1590 (D) 1602 40. Which mughal Emperor introduced “Duaspa-Sihaspa” method in Mansabdari System ? (A) Akbar (B) Jahangir (C) Shahjahan (D) Aurangzeb 41. Who among the following recognised important role played by women in family and society in his preachings ? (A) Guru Nanak (B) Saint Ravidas (C) Saint Gyaneshwar (D) Saint Tukaram

42. The Kalinga War conquered by Ashoka is described in— (A) Rock Edict I (B) Rock Edict V (C) Pillar Edict VII (D) Rock Edict XIII 43. Who was called ‘dvija’ ? (A) Brahman, Kshatriya, Vaishya (B) Kshatriya, Vaishya, Shudra (C) Brahman, Vaishya, Shudra (D) Shudra, Kshatriya, Brahman 44. Ibn Batuta, the famous traveller of 14th Century, lived in— (A) Venice (B) Geneva (C) Spain (D) North Africa 45. Nizamuddin Aulia and Nasirud-din Chirag were— (A) Sohrawardi Saint (B) Chishti Saint (C) Nakshbandi Saint (D) Silsilah 46. How many ruling dynasties were there in the Delhi Sultanate ? (A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 5 47. Who was the President of 3rd Buddhist Assembly ? (A) Mahakassap (B) Vasumitra (C) Ashvaghosha (D) Moggaliputta Tissa 48. Kharaj was meant by— (A) Land Tax (B) House Tax (C) Loan (D) Law 49. Which one of the following Muslim leaders joined the Home Rule League founded by AnnieBesant ? (A) Mohammed Iqbal (B) Mohammed Ali Jinnah (C) Syed Ahmad Khan (D) Abul Kalam Azad 50. Rowlatt Act passed in— (A) 1916 (B) 1917 (C) 1918 (D) 1919 51. Sangam is meant for— (A) Dynasty of South India (B) Tamil religious literature (C) Assemblies of Tamil Scholars (D) Ancient name of South India


52. Which one among the following is the oldest Stupa ? (A) Stupa of Sanchi (B) Stupa of Piprawah (C) Stupa of Bharahut (D) Stupa of Amaravati 53. Which of the following text refers Chandragupta Maurya as ‘Vrishal’ ? (A) Mudrarakshasa (B) Arthashastra (C) Indica ˙ (D) Mahavamsha 54. In which of the following Council Jainism was divided into two ? (A) First Jain Council (B) Second Jain Council (C) Third Jain Council (D) Fourth Jain Council 55. “India for the Indians.” Who said ? (A) Swami Vivekanand (B) Madan Mohan Malaviya (C) Dayanand (D) Bal Gangadhar Tilak 56. Which one of the following is not correct ? (A) Indian National Congress, Calcutta Session (1887) (B) Indian National Congress, Lucknow Session (1916) (C) Indian National Congress, Gaya Session (1922) (D) Indian National Congress, Tripuri Session (1939) 57. Irani System of ‘Sajda’ was started by— (A) Balban (B) Razia (C) Iltutmish (D) Mohammed Tughlaq 58. Mohammed Ghori was assassinated by— (A) Hazras (B) Khokkars (C) Yurtwals (D) Baluchis 59. “Swaraj is my birth right.” Who said ? (A) Bal Gangadhar Tilak (B) Dadabhai Naoroji (C) Netaji Subhash Chandra Bose (D) Bhagat Singh

60. The first Turkish Sultan to cross Vindhyachal ranges was— (A) Iltutmish (B) Balban (C) Alauddin Khilji (D) Firoz Shah Tughlaq 61. Ajanta Paintings are related with— (A) Jainism (B) Brahmanism (C) Shaktism (D) Buddhism 62. The author of Anandmath was— (A) Bankim Chandra Chatterjee (B) Sharat Chandra Chatterjee (C) Ravindra Nath Tagore (D) S. C. Bose 63. The author of ‘Poverty and UnBritish Rule in India’ is— (A) Lala Lajpat Rai (B) Dadabhai Naoroji (C) Surendra Nath Banerjee (D) R. C. Dutt 64. By which Act, Rule of East India Company ended in India ? (A) Regulating Act, 1773 (B) Pitt’s India Act, 1784 (C) Government of India Act, 1858 (D) Morley-Minto Act, 1909 65. In which age Brahmanas were inferior than Kshatriyas ? (A) Vedic age (B) Buddha age (C) Maurya age (D) Post-Mauryan age 66. How many Pitakas Buddhist literature ? (A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4 (A) Malwa (C) Mandu are in

70. Pandyas were centred in— (A) Madurai (B) Tanjore (C) Andhra Pradesh (D) Kaveripattan 71. During the Mauryan age ‘bhaga’ was— (A) House Tax (B) Land Tax (C) Water Tax (D) Hiranya 72. Who among the following was known as ‘Frontier Gandhi’ ? (A) Sir Syed Ahmad Khan (B) Syed Amir Ali (C) Abul Kalam Azad (D) Abdul Gaffar Khan 73. The founder of Gadar Party was— (A) Basudev Balwant Phadke (B) Vinay Damodar Savarkar (C) Lala Hardayal (D) Bhagat Singh 74. The name of the committee to enquire Jallianwala Bagh Massacre was— (A) Simon Commission (B) Hunter Commission (C) Raymond Commission (D) Linlithgo Commission 75. Which court was considered as the highest criminal court of appeal during East India Company ? (A) Circuit Court (B) Provincial Court (C) Sadar Diwani (D) Sadar Nizamat 76. Which Mughal Emperor increased more number of Rajput and Maratha Mansabdars in his reign ? (A) Akbar (B) Jahangir (C) Shajahan (D) Aurangzeb 77. In which Session, Congress demanded ‘Poorna Swaraj’ ? (A) (B) (C) (D) Lucknow Session 1916 Calcutta Session 1917 Kanpur Session 1925 Lahore Session 1929

67. Rana Sanga is related with— (B) Khajuraho (D) Mewar

68. In which month Quit India Movement of 1942 started ? (A) January (C) August (B) July (D) December

69. Who is the author of Prithviraj Raso ? (A) Chandabardai (B) Gunadhya (C) Amir Khusro (D) Samdeva

78. Which Mauryan ruler was called ‘Amitraghat’ by Greek writers ?


(A) (B) (C) (D)

Chandragupta Maurya Bindusara Ashoka Dasharatha

(A) (B) (C) (D)

V. D. Savarkar S. N. Sen R. C. Majumdar Benjamin Disraeli

97. Ryotwari Settlement was started in— (A) Madras (B) Bengal (C) Bombay (D) Assam 98. The author of “Parties and Politics in Mughal Court” is— (A) Satish Chandra (B) Irfan Habib (C) Nurul Hasan (D) Athar Ali 99. During the Mughals, change in the architectural style is known as— (A) Hindu Islamic style (B) Goethic style (C) Islamic style (D) Persian style 100. Which one of the following was not included in the Navratnas of Akbar ? (A) Birbal (B) Todarmal (C) Mansingh (D) Badaoni

79. Which foreign traveller visited Vijaynagar Empire during 1420 ? (A) Alhanasius Nikitin (B) Farishta (C) Abdur Razzaq (D) Nicolo-de-Conti 80. When did Aurangzeb took the title of ‘Alamgir’ ? (A) 1658 (B) 1659 (C) 1660 (D) 1661 81. During the reign of which of the following did Vijaynagar Empire come into existence ? (A) Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq (B) Mohammed-bin-Tughlaq (C) Firoze Shah Tughlaq (D) Nasiruddin Mahmud Shah 82. The term ‘dastak’ implies— (A) Riot (B) Duty free trade (C) Port (D) Market 83. When did Akbar abolish the slavery and protected human rights ? (A) 1582 (B) 1583 (C) 1584 (D) 1585 84. The author of “Indian Mussalmans” is— (A) W. W. Hunter (B) Sir Aga Khan (C) Atulanand Chakravarti (D) Rizaul Karim 85. Who was the last Governor General and First Viceroy of India ? (A) Lord Lawrence (B) Lord Mayo (C) Lord Canning (D) Lord Lytton 86. Which Session of Indian National Congress was presided by Subhash Chandra Bose ? (A) Haripura (B) Nagpur (C) Lahore (D) Delhi 87. The statement that the revolt of 1857 was “neither the first, nor national, nor war of independence” was made by—

88. In the revenue settlement of Todarmal the land never left fallow was known as— (A) Polaj (B) Parauti (C) Chachar (D) Banjar 89. Nagarjuna Stupa was constructed during the age of— (A) Buddha (B) Maurya (C) Gupta (D) Post Gupta 90. The ancient name of Assam is— (A) Pawa (B) Kamrup (C) Pippalivan (D) Ramgram 91. Which of the following stands for ‘Iqta’ ? (A) Law of primogeniture (B) Crown land donated to army officers (C) State’s share in the war booty (D) The grant of revenue from a territory in lieu of salary 92. “Every Indian is corrupt.” Who said ? (A) Lord Cornwallis (B) Lord Wellesley (C) Lord Hastings (D) Lord Dalhousie 93. Vellore Mutiny took place in the year of— (A) 1764 (B) 1806 (C) 1857 (D) 1935 94. Dilwara Temple is the example of— (A) Buddhist architecture (B) Jain architecture (C) Mughal architecture (D) Sultanate architecture 95. The architect of Taj Mahal belonged to— (A) Italy (B) France (C) Turkey (D) Egypt 96. The central feature of Indian society during 800 to 1200 A.D. was— (A) Feudalism (B) Liberalism (C) Egalitarianism (D) Republic

Answers with Explanations


Solved Paper

(Held in December 2008)

(Based on Memory)
Note—This paper is of two hundred (200) marks containing four sections. Candidates are required to attempt the questions contained in these sections according to the detailed instructions given therein. The principal charges against to Public Sector are : low rate of return on investment, declining contribution to national savings, poor capacity utilisation overstaffing and bureauatisation leading to excessive delays and wastage of scarce resources. Q. 1. What are the reasons for promoting Public Sector Enterprises ? Ans. Q. 5. State the advantages of Private Sector. Ans.

Directions—This section contains five questions based on the following paragraph. Each question should be answered in about thirty words and each carries five marks. There is a process of crucial change in Indian economy. In the last forty years, we have been following a path in which the public sector was expected to be the engine of growth. However towards the middle of the seventies, disenchantment with the public sector had started, but the voices of protest were feeble and were sporadic and inarticulate. The failure of the Public Sector to fulfil the role assigned to it resulted in the protest becoming louder and more articulate. Although even in the beginning of eighties, the opening of certain areas hitherto reserved for the public sector was undertaken, but the Government was still hesitant to make a clear statement. The first clear pronouncement on the public sector outliving the change in policy was made during 1991 by the then Prime Minister of India, in his first broadcast to the nation, when he said, “the public sector has spread into “Too many areas, where it should not be, we will be developing our Public Sector to undertake jobs that the Private Sector cannot do. But we will be opening up more to the Private Sector so that it can expand and the economy can grow more freely.” The culmination of all these developments led to the announcement of new Industrial Policy 1991. The debate about Public Sector and Privatisation assumed great importance thereafter.

Directions—This section contains fifteen question, each to be answered in about thirty words. Each question carries five marks. Q. 6. What is E-marketing ? Ans.

Q. 2. What is the justification for reserving certain areas for Public Sector ? Ans.

Q. 7. What are derivates ? Ans. Q. 3. Identify the major charges against Public Sector ? Ans.

Q. 8. What is career planning ? Ans.

Q. 4. What led to the announcement of new Industrial Policy ? Ans.

Q. 9. Write the salient features of factoring. Ans.


Q. 15. Name five characteristics of Normal Distribution. Ans.

Q. 10. Write the names of five accounting standards. Ans.

Q. 19. What is marketing mix ? Ans. Q. 11. What is buying process ? Ans.

Q. 16. Name the Profitability Ratios. Ans. (A) Based on Sales

Q. 12. What do you mean by Current Account Convertibility ? Ans.

Q. 20. Write note on Advance Payment of Tax. Ans.

Q. 13. Write three objectives of ASEAN. Ans.

Q. 17. What is Assessment year ? Ans.

Q. 18. Discuss the main objectives of NAFTA. Ans.

Q. 14. Define Morale. Ans. Directions—This section contains five questions from each of the electives/specialisations. The candidate has to choose only one elective/ specialisation and answer all the five questions from it. Each question carries twelve marks and is to be answered in about two hundred words.


Elective 1

(Accounting and Finance)
Q. 21. What do you mean by the term Capital Market ? Distinguish between Money market and Capital market. Ans.

Q. 24. Write five functions of Securities and Exchange Board of India. Q. 22. What are different types of currency options contracts ? Explain how the buyers and sellers of option benefit from the option deals. Ans. Q. 23. Name the computer programmes used in Accounting. Ans. Ans.



Elective 2

Q. 21. Discuss the marketing research procedures in detail. Ans. Q. 22. Discuss the major factors that you will take into consideration while pricing a product. Ans.

Q. 25. Explain the Accounting standard used for the preparation of cash-flow statement in India. Ans.


Q. 23. What is advertising budget ? What are the methods used in determining advertising budgets ? Ans.

Q. 25. Describe the various social and ethical issues involved in the Marketing. Ans.

Q. 24. Explain various types of branding strategies which can be adopted by a marketing Manager. Ans.



Elective 3

(Human Resource Management)
Q. 21. Differentiate between Personnel Management and Human Resources Management ? Ans.

Q. 22. What is the importance of Human Resource Planning in the context of globalization ? Ans.

Q. 23. Suggest measures to improve morale of employees when employees go on strike ? Ans.

Q. 24. What are different industrial safety measures to be followed as per safety Regulation Act. Ans.



Elective 4

(International Business)
Q. 21. Comment on the significance of FDI in Insurance-Sector in India. Ans.

Q. 22. What were the main objectives of the formation of SAARC ? Ans.

Q. 25. Differentiate between job description and job analysis with their usage in HRM. Ans.

Q. 23. What is the impact of volatility of exchange rates of major currencies on developing countries ? Ans.



Elective 5

Q. 24. Discuss the main features of the Doha Development Agenda. Ans. Q. 21. Describe ‘Entertainment Allowance’ according to the provision of Income Tax. Ans.

Q. 25. Describe the various techniques of Risk-Control. Ans.


Q. 22. How is the income from a rented house property computed ? Ans.

Q. 24. Write down the IncomeTax Rates regarding ‘Individual’, and ‘Hindu Undivided Family’, Assessment Year 2006-07. Ans.

Q. 23. What are the provisions governing Set-Off of losses ? Ans.


Q. 25. How would you define ‘Partly Agricultural Income’ ? Ans.

Directions—This section consists of one essay type question of forty marks to be answered in about one thousand words on any of the following topics. Each question carries 40 marks. Q. 26. Critically examine the role of Public Sector in bringing about structural changes in the industrial economy of India. Ans.


OR Write a detailed note on the poverty alleviation programmes in India. Ans.


OR What are the salient features of New Agricultural Strategy in India ? Discuss the achievements and short commings. Ans.

Continued on Page 130 PD/July/2010/124

Solved Paper


Law and General Knowledge
Part-I LAW
1. Who administers oath to the Governor of a State ? (A) President of India (B) Chief Justice of the State High Court (C) Advocate General of the State (D) None of the Above 2. A person whose fundamental rights are violated can move the High Court under— (A) Article 20 (B) Article 226 (C) Article 32 (D) Article 22 3. Which of the following protects personal freedom ? (A) Quo-warranto (B) Mandamus (C) Habeas Corpus (D) Certiorari 4. Preamble of the Constitution declares India as— (A) A Socialist Democratic Republic (B) A Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic Republic (C) A Sovereign Democratic Republic (D) A None of the above 5. Who among the following was the Chairman of the Constitution Drafting Committee ? (A) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar (B) Motilal Nehru (C) M. K. Gandhi (D) Sardar Patel 7. An application for amendment of pleadings is filed under— (A) Order 6 Rule 17 (B) Order 6 Rule 5 (C) Order 38 Rule 5 (D) Order 21 Rule 1 8. Provisions with regard to res judicata are provided in Section ……… of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908. (A) Section 9 (B) Section 12 (C) Section 100 (D) Section 11 9. A person instituting a suit in ‘form of a pauper’ is known as— (A) Intelligent person (B) Juristic person (C) First person (D) Indigent person 10. A suit shall be instituted in a Court within the local limits of whose jurisdiction— (A) The plaintiff resides (B) The Stamp Paper for entering into the contract was purchased (C) Where no cause of action in part or full arose (D) Where the cause of action wholly or in part arose (C) Contingent Contract (D) Void Contract 13. ‘A’ proposes by a letter to sell his house to ‘B’ for certain price, communication of this proposal is complete when— (A) ‘A’ dispatches the letter (B) ‘A’ has completed writing the letter (C) ‘B’ gets information about posting of the letter (D) ‘B’ receives the letter 14. Where the order in which reciprocal promises are to be performed is expressly fixed by the contract, they shall be performed in that order; and where the order is not expressly fixed it shall be performed— (A) In that order which the nature of transaction requires (B) In the order as one of the parties prefer (C) As desired by the proposal (D) None of the above 15. ‘A’ promises to obtain for ‘B’ an employment in public service and ‘B’ promises to pay Rs. 1,000 to ‘A’, the agreement between ‘A’ and ‘B’— (A) Is Legal and proper (B) Can be enforced at the instance of ‘B’ (C) Is Void agreement (D) None of the above 16. A person employed to do any act for another or to represent another in dealings with the third person is— (A) A principal (B) A pawnor (C) An agent (D) A bailor 17. Insurance is a— (A) Contingent contract (B) Wagering contract

Indian Contract Act
11. An Agreement in restraint of marriage of any person other than a minor is a— (A) Legal Contract (B) Voidable Contract (C) Fraudulent Contract (D) Void Contract 12. ‘A’ and ‘B’ contract to marry each other, before the time fixed for the marriage, ‘A’ goes mad, the contract becomes— (A) Voidable Contract (B) Conditional Contract

Code of Civil Procedure, 1908
6. Power granted to a Court under Section 151 of the Code of Civil Procedure is known as— (A) Inherent power (B) Appellate power (C) Revisional power (D) Reviewing power


(C) Contract of indemnity (D) Contract of guarantee

Indian Evidence Act, 1872
18. Copies made from or compared with the original is— (A) Primary evidence (B) Secondary evidence (C) Inadmissible evidence (D) None of these 19. Whether confession made to a Police Officer (while not in custody) by an accused of an offence can be proved against him and is a ……… Evidence— (A) Admissible (B) Not admissible (C) Partially admissible (D) None of these 20. The following is not the exception to the rule of hearsay— (A) Dying declaration (B) Res gestae (C) Medical Expert’s Opinion (D) Confession 21. ‘A’ is charged with travelling on a railway without a ticket, the proving that he had a ticket is on— (A) Prosecution (B) Accused (C) Complainant (D) Prosecution witness

(C) Tahsildar (D) Superintendent of Record

Specific Relief Act, 1963
Land 31. The relief provided under the Specific Relief Act, is— (A) Discretionary (B) Mandatory (C) Statutory (D) Obligatory 32. In a suit for specific performance of contract the plaintiff can seek a relief only if he establishes that— (A) Prima facie case is in his favour (B) He was willing and ready to perform his part of the contract (C) Balance of Convenience is in his favour (D) He may suffer irreparable loss 33. Find out the correct statement. Specific Relief can be granted— (A) For enforcing individual civil rights and not for enforcing a penal law (B) For enforcing penal law and not for enforcing civil rights (C) Only for enforcing penal law (D) For enforcing civil rights and a penal law 34. No suit for recovery of possession may be instituted under Section 6 of Specific Relief Act— (A) Against Government (B) Against a Public Company (C) Against a Private Company (D) Against all of these 35. Find out the incorrect statement in respect of temporary injunctions— (A) Preventive relief granted at the discretion of the Court (B) Such as are to continue until a specified time or until the further order of the Court (C) Regulated by the Code of Civil Procedure (D) Cannot be granted at any stage of a suit 36. In which of the following cases would the specific performance of any contract not be enforced by the Court ? (A) Where the property is not an ordinary article of commerce

25. Which amongst the following is not the duty of a Patel appointed under the Madhya Pradesh Land Revenue Code ? (A) To collect and pay Land Revenue into the Gram Kosh (B) To furnish reports regarding state of his village (C) To prevent encroachment on waste land, public path and roadways (D) To maintain land records 26. Who is competent to transfer a revenue case from one District to another under Section 29 of the M. P. Land Revenue Code ? (A) State Government (B) Board of Revenue (C) Chief Secretary (D) Revenue Minister 27. If a Bhumiswami is dispossessed of the land otherwise then in due course of law who can be ordered for restoration of the possession ? (A) Tahsildar (B) Commissioner (C) Collector (D) S.D.O. 28. Wajib-ul-arz of a village is maintained by the— (A) Patwari (B) Kotwar (C) Sub-Divisional Officer (D) Tahsildar 29. Which one of the following matter is not provided for in a Nistar Patrak; terms and conditions on which— (A) Grazing of cattle in the village is permissible (B) The right to fishing may be obtained by a resident (C) Wood, Timber or Fuel may be obtained by a resident (D) Mooram, Kankar or Sand may be obtained by a resident 30. ……is not defined in the Code ? (A) Orchard (B) Arrears (C) Cooperative Society (D) Alluvion

The Madhya Revenue Code



22. Amongst the following who is not a Revenue Officer as defined under the Madhya Pradesh Land Revenue Code ? (A) Commissioner (B) Collector (C) Settlement Officer (D) Chairman, Board of Revenue 23. Revision powers are exercised by the Board of Revenue under …… of the Madhya Pradesh Land Revenue Code. (A) Section 40 (B) Section 44 (C) Section 46 (D) Section 50 24. A Bhumiswami can seek partition of his agricultural land amongst his legal heirs during his life time by applying to the— (A) Patwari (B) Village Kotwar


(B) Where the property consists of goods which are not easily obtainable in the market (C) Where compensation in money can be afforded for nonperformance of the contract as an adequate relief (D) Where there exists no standard for ascertaining the actual damage caused by nonperformance of the contract 37. Which of the following contracts cannot be specifically enforced as per the provision of Section 14 of the Act ? (A) Execution of a formal deed of partnership (B) Contract for the construction of any building or execution of any other work on land (C) Contract which is determinable in its nature (D) Contract to execute a mortgage or furnish any other security for repayment of any loan which the borrower is not willing to repay at once

(A) He actually knows the fact (B) May have knowledge about the fact (C) Could with reasonable cause know the fact (D) Is not at all aware of the fact 42. A mortgage by deposit of title deed is called— (A) Anomalous mortgage (B) English mortgage (C) Equitable mortgage (D) Usufructuary mortgage 43. Which of the following is not an actionable claim ? (A) Right to a Provident Fund Account (B) Promise to pay Rs. 500 if the promisee succeed in L.L.B. examination (C) Agreement to pay Rs. 500 if the promisee marries a particular woman (D) Right to claim benefit of a contract coupled with a liability 44. ……… is defined as a security for repayment of a loan. (A) Pledge (B) Mortgage (C) Lease (D) None of these

(C) He shall not hold any office of profit (D) He shall cease to be a member of political party from the date he assumes office 48. A Gram Nyayalaya constituted under the M.P. Gram Nyayalaya Adhiniyam, 1996 is not empowered to inquire or to try an offence under Section— (A) 326 I.P.C. (B) 323 I.P.C. (C) 336 I.P.C. (D) 426 I.P.C.

49. A Gram Nyayalaya shall not have exclusive jurisdiction under Section 16(ii) of M.P. Gram Nyayalaya Adhiniyam, 1996 to inquire and try offences under— (A) Cattle Trespass Act (B) M. P. Juvenile Smoking Act (C) Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act (D) Secton 13 of the Public Gambling Act 50. A Gram Nyayalaya should make endeavour to— (A) Compromise a dispute (B) Should not compromise (C) Should make endeavour to punish the wrong doer (D) None of the above

Transfer of Property Act
38. An instrument as defined under Section 3 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 means— (A) A Negotiable Instrument (B) A Transferable Instrument (C) A non-testamentary Instrument (D) A will 39. Where on a Transfer of Property, an interest therein is created in favour of a person to take effect only on the happening of a specified uncertain event, the Transfer is called— (A) Conditional Transfer (B) Transfer by Interest (C) Absolute Transfer (D) Contingent Transfer 40. The Transfer of Property Act, 1882 covers— (A) Movable Property (B) Immovale Property (C) None (D) (A) and (B) both 41. Under the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 a person is said to have notice of a fact when—

Madhya Pradesh Gram Nyayalaya Adhiniyam
45. The normal term of office of a member nominated to a Gram Nyayalaya constituted under the Madhya Pradesh Gram Nyayalaya Adhiniyam, 1996 is— (A) Two years (B) Three years (C) Five years (D) Six years 46. The State Government establishes Gram Nyayalaya for every— (A) District (B) Tahsil (C) Block (D) Circle 47. Every person nominated as a member of the Gram Nyayalaya before assuming office shall submit a declaration to the effect that— (A) He shall continue to be a member of political party (B) He shall not pay subscription to any political party

Madhya Pradesh Accommodation Control Act
51. If a landlord contravenes the provision of Sub-section (1) of Section 38 of the M. P. Accommodation Control Act, he shall be punished with imprisonment for a term which may extend to— (A) Two years (B) Six months (C) One month (D) Three months 52. A suit for eviction of a tenant on the ground of bonafide need for non-residential purpose is covered under Section …………of the Madhya Pradesh Accommodation Control Act. (A) 12(1)(a) (B) 12(1)(b) (C) 12(1)(e) (D) 12(1)(f) 53. The special provision for eviction of a tenant on the ground of bonafide requirement of a landlord as provided under Chapter


III-A of the Madhya Pradesh Accommodation Control Act is applicable to— (A) A widow or a divorced wife (B) A woman in employment in non-governmental establishment (C) A married woman living with her husband (D) A business woman 54. Madhya Pradesh Accommodation Control Act, 1961 is not applicable to— (A) Accommodation which is used for non-residential purpose (B) Accommodation which is the property of the Government (C) Accommodation which is the property of a widow (D) Accommodation which is the property of a minor children 55. No suit for the eviction of a tenant shall be maintainable on the grounds specified under Section 12(1)(e) or 12(1)(f), unless a period of ………… has elapsed from the date of acquisition. (A) One year (B) Two years (C) Three years (D) Five years 56. An appeal shall lie from every order of the Rent Controlling Authority made under Madhya Pradesh Accommodation Control Act, 1961— (A) District Judge (B) Collector (C) Commissioner (D) High Court 57. Which of the following act cannot form ground of eviction of the tenant ? (A) Nuisance (B) Disclaimer of the title of the landlord (C) Material structural alteration (D) Holding over

(B) A direction to release a person on bail issued even before a person is arrested or is in apprehension of arrest (C) A direction to release a person on bail from judicial custody (D) A direction to release a person on bail when he is in police custody after being arrested 59. Inherent Powers under Section 482 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 can be exercised by— (A) Judicial Magistrate First Class (B) Sessions Judge (C) High Court (D) Chief Judicial Magistrate 60. Information regarding occurrence of a cognizable offence is recorded by an officer Incharge of a Police Station under which provision of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 ? (A) Section 149 (B) Section 154 (C) Section 155 (D) Section 200 61. A ……… is not entitled to maintenance under Section 125 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973. (A) Wife unable to maintain herself (B) Divorced wife (not remarried) (C) Minor daughter (D) Divorced wife re-married 62. The Court of Magistrate of the First Class may pass a sentence of imprisonment for a term— (A) Not exceeding three years or a fine not exceeding Rs. 10,000 (B) Not exceeding one year or a fine not exceeding Rs. 5,000 (C) Not exceeding three years or a fine not exceeding Rs. 5,000 (D) Not exceeding seven years or a fine prescribed under the code 63. An offence of voluntarily causing grievous hurt by dangerous weapons or means as provided under Section 326 of the Indian Penal Code is—

(A) Compoundable (B) Non-Compoundable (C) Compoundable with the permission of Court (D) None of the above 64. An inquest report must contain— (A) The names of accused (B) The apparent cause of death (C) The details of weapons (D) The details of incident 65. If it appears to the Magistrate that the offence complained of is triable exclusively by the Court of Session, he, under Section 202 Cr. P.C., postponing the issue of process against the accused— (A) Shall commit the case to the Court of Session (B) May direct an investigation to be made by a police officer (C) Shall call upon the complainant to produce all his witnesses and examine them on oath (D) Shall return the complaint for presentation before the Court of Session

Indian Penal Code
66. A person himself does not commit an offence, he helps or aids another person, he is guilty of— (A) Abetment (B) Conspiracy (C) Incitement (D) None of these 67. ……… of the Indian Penal Code defines ‘Murder’. (A) Section 299 (B) Section 300 (C) Section 301 (D) Section 302 68. Which of the following is not ‘Public Servant’ within the meaning of Section 21 of the Code ? (A) Municipal Commissioner (B) Member of Parliament (C) MLA (D) Examiner of University 69. A married man commits adultery if he has sexual intercourse with a/an— (A) Unmarried woman (B) Married woman except his wife

Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973
58. Anticipatory bail under Section 438 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 means— (A) A direction to release a person on bail issued after a person is arrested


(C) Any woman except his wife (D) Unmarried woman without her consent 70. Cruelty to a woman by husband or relative of husband is defined under— (A) Section 498 A of the Indian Penal Code (B) Section 498 of the Indian Penal Code (C) Section 497 of the Indian Penal Code (D) Section 496 of the Indian Penal Code

(A) Jabalpur (C) Umaria

(B) Shahdol (D) Mandla

78. River Narmada originates from— (A) Bhedaghat (B) Amarkantak (C) Dindori (D) Allahabad 79. Gandhiji started Dandi March in 1930— (A) Against atrocities committed on Harijans (B) Against imposition of Salt Tax (C) Against the commencement of Communal Riot (D) Against prohibition on Indian’s participating in elections 80. Who is the author of “My Experiments with Truth” ? (A) Nehru (B) Tagore (C) Gandhi (D) Jinnah 81. NASA refers to— (A) National Aeronautics and Space Administration (B) North Agency Atlantic Space

86. Dr. Rajendra Pachauri is a/an— (A) Banker (B) Industrialist (C) Environmentalist (D) Scientist 87. Who is the author of ‘Discovery of India’ ? (A) (B) (C) (D) Jawaharlal Nehru Mahatma Gandhi Sarojini Naidu Indira Gandhi

71. Who is the Chairperson of Identification Authority of India (UIA) ? (A) Dr. M. S. Swaminathan (B) Nandan Nilekani (C) E. Shreedharan (D) M. N. Buch 72. Who won the 2009 Wimbledon on July 5th, 2009 ? (A) Pete Sampras (B) Rafael Nadal (C) Roger Federer (D) John McEnroe 73. Which country has the largest Rail Network in the World ? (A) India (B) U. K. (C) China (D) U.S.A. 74. Who is the Union Law Minister of India ? (A) Sharad Pawar (B) Kapil Sibbal (C) Verrappa Moily (D) Hansraj Bharadwaj 75. The Birthday of Late Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan, ‘President of India’, is celebrated as— (A) Lawyer’s Day (B) Teacher’s Day (C) Children’s Day (D) Father’s Day 76. Tirupati is in— (A) Andhra Pradesh (B) Karnataka (C) Tamil Nadu (D) Kerala 77. Kanha National Park is situated in which District ?

88. D.N.A. refers to— (A) Di-oxyribo Nucleic Acid (B) Di-oxide Nucleic Acid (C) Different Nucleic Acid (D) None of these 89. S.M.S. is— (A) Short Messaging Sequence (B) Short Messaging Service (C) Short Manageable Service (D) Short and Medium Service 90. Padma Bhushan Award is— (A) (B) (C) (D) Gallantry Award Bravery Award Civilian Award Literary Award

(C) North Airbase and Space Agency (D) None of the above 82. I.S.O. 9000 is a— (A) Quality Standard Mark (B) Space Project (C) Trade Technique (D) None of these 83. Who among the following made a film on Mahatma Gandhi ? (A) Aparna Sen (B) Shyam Benegal (C) James Ivory (D) Richard Attenborough 84. ‘Law Day’ is observed on— (A) 26th January (B) 15th August (C) 26th May (D) 26th November 85. Which is the longest sea bridge in the country ? (A) Vidyasagar Setu, Kolkata (B) Bandra-Worli Mumbai Sea Link,

91. Which city is known as the ‘City of Joy’ ? (A) Delhi (B) Mumbai (C) Kolkata (D) Chennai 92. Who is the Chief Justice of Madhya Pradesh High Court ? (A) Justice R. S. Garg (B) Justice Dipak Misra (C) Justice A. K. Patnaik (D) None of these 93. Who won the ASHES Cricket Test Series held in year 2009 ? (A) Australia (B) England (C) Pakistan (D) None of these 94. Who appoints a Judge of a High Court ? (A) (B) (C) (D) Governor Chief Minister President of India Chief Justice of India

(C) Bhakra-Nangal Project (D) None of these

95. Which of these animals is not shown in the National Emblem of India ?


(A) Lion (C) Bull

(B) Horse (D) Elephant

Continued from Page 81
were armed and assisted by the government to take up the challenge of naxal threat. However, many human right groups and legal experts questioned the involvement of armed civilian in state security. Hence the scheme became controversial. At present the state and central government strategy to combat Naxal threat consists of threat components— 1. Surrender and resettlement schemes launched by the state governments in the affected areas, where naxals surrendering to the government are given financial incentives and facilities for their resettlement. The scheme is only partially successful. Strengthening the deployment of heavy paramilitary forces in cooperation with state police to flush out naxals from entrenched areas. Due to lack of training in guerrilla warfare and knowledge of the affected terrain as well as lack of coordination between the state and central government and failure of intelligence agencies, the armed measures have not succeeded to the desired extent. The third component is a longterm measure of expediting the development process in the affected areas. Due to lack of effective implementation of various development schemes, the naxals are able to coopt the marginalised sections of rural poor and tribals. The corruption and administrative inefficiency have further compounded the development process.

96. Which is the Mother State of Chhattisgarh ? (A) (B) (C) (D) Bihar Uttar Pradesh Uttarakhand Madhya Pradesh ● ● ● ● ● ● ● ●

Continued from Page 124
It has promoted the uses of HYV seeds, fertilizers, machines etc. Considerable rise in production. Large increase in foodgrains. Significant change in agricultural practices. Large increase in the area of multi-cropping. Decrease in import substitution. Promotion of export of agricultural products. Considerable rise revolution etc. in white

97. The Principal Seat of the Madhya Pradesh High Court is at— (A) Jabalpur (B) Bhopal (C) Gwalior (D) Indore 98. How many Civil Districts are there in the State of Madhya Pradesh ? (A) 48 (B) 49 (C) 50 (D) 51 99. Who won the men’s 100 m. final race at the recently held 2009 IAAF Athletics World Championship in Berlin ? (A) Tyson Gay of America (B) Usain Bolt of Jamaica (C) Asafa Powell of Jamaica (D) Yang Yong Eun of South Korea 100. The Finance Minister has proposed replacement of the Income Tax Act by— (A) (B) (C) (D) The Finance Act, 2008 The Direct Tax Act The Indian Taxation Code The Direct Taxes Code


Short Commings
The new agricultural strategy has now become a subject of heated debate in the country. Its short comings can be pointed out as follows— ● It has been limited in its coverage on three counts—crops, land and region. The big rise in the output of wheat could not make much differences to the total food grains supply. Commercial crops were not covered by the new strategy. The new agricultural strategy has promoted personal inequalities in the rural sector and has been responsible for widening regional disparities. Agricultural inputs, in particular chemical fertilizers, were largely cornered by rich landlords. The poor farmers found themselves handicapped by the small size of resources like credit facilities, inadequate water supplies etc. An increase in the instability of output between two seasons— Rabi season and Kharif season. Most of the HYV seeds have been developed for and used during the Rabi season, there has been a larger increase in rabi output as compared to that in P.Darpan the Kharif output. 3.

● ●


In view of the above discussion, it is cystal clear that naxal violence is not a law and order problem in India. It is a serious security threat to India with international and regional dimensions. The need of the hour is to adopt both the long term and short term measures to tackle the threat posed by the naxal groups. Besides, the better training of security forces planning and coordination, the rapid development of affected areas are necessary for the success of governP.Darpan ment measures.


Solved Paper

(Held on 7-3-2010)

General Knowledge
(Based on Memory)
1. The royal court of Alauddin was graced by the great poet— (A) Firdausi (B) Omar Khaiyyam (C) Amir Khusro (D) Ibn Batuta 2. Match the facts of List-I with List-II and then answer which choice is correct ? List-I (a) (b) (c) (d) 1. 2. 3. 4. (A) (B) (C) (D) Sri Chaitanya Nanak Tukaram Shankaracharya List-II Malabar Maharashtra Punjab Bengal (a) (b) (c) 1 3 2 3 4 2 4 3 2 2 4 3 6. The first nuclear test was conducted in India in the year— (A) 1973 (B) 1974 (C) 1975 (D) 1976 7. Which State grows nearly 30 per cent of world opium ? (A) M. P. (B) West Bengal (C) Gujarat (D) Bihar 8. A list of national languages can be traced in the ……… of the Indian Constitution. (A) Fifth Schedule (B) Sixth Schedule (C) Seventh Schedule (D) Eighth Schedule 9. Which one of the following provides constitutional guarantee of personal freedom ? (A) Mandamus (B) Certiorari (C) Habeas Corpus (D) Quo Warranto 10. Which one of these countries is not in Scandinavia ? (A) Denmark (B) Luxembourg (C) Norway (D) Sweden 11. What is the official language of the Argentina ? (A) Portuguese (B) Spanish (C) Italian (D) German 12. Falkland Islands are in— (A) Antarctica (B) North Atlantic (C) South Atlantic (D) Pacific 13. The French Revolution gave its modern meaning to the term— (A) Nation (B) Sovereignty (C) Republic (D) Capitalism 14. The Iran-Iraq war started for exclusive possesion of— (A) Iranian oil refineries (B) the whole of Western Iran (C) the territory already captured by Iran from Jordan and Iraq both (D) Shatt-al-Arab region 15. ‘Dirham’ is the currency of— (A) Malta (B) Iran (C) Morocco (D) Libya 16. OPEC stands for— (A) Oil Producing European Countries (B) Organization of Petroleum Exporting Countries (C) Oil and Petroleum Exploring Countries (D) Organization of Pacific Exploring Countries 17. A light-year is a unit of— (A) time (B) distance (C) velocity (D) energy 18. The main masses of land above sea level are called— (A) Continent (B) Islands (C) Nations (D) Countries 19. The Mineral resource which has made Middle East of vital importance to the world to-day is— (A) Coal (B) Tin (C) Oil (D) Silver 20. Which one of the following match with ‘Khetri, Jharia, Kudermukh, Kolar respectively ? (A) Copper, Coal, Iron, Gold (B) Coal, Bauxite, Iron, Gold (C) Iron, Copper, Coal, Gold (D) Bauxite, Coal, Iron, Gold 21. The Alpine races mostly live in the Indian States of— (A) Rajasthan and Punjab (B) Tamil Nadu and Kerala (C) Karnataka and Maharashtra (D) Gujarat and West Bengal

(d) 4 1 1 1

3. The name of India’s first aircraft carrier is— (A) INS Vikrant (B) INS Nilgiri (C) INS Kukri (D) INS Himgiri 4. Which of the following is associated with the manufacture of guided missiles ? (A) Bharat Earth Movers Limited (B) Bharat Dynamics Limited (C) Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (D) Bharat Electronics Limited 5. National Highway No. 3 runs from— (A) Delhi to Chennai (B) Amritsar to Kolkata (C) Delhi to Ahmedabad (D) Agra to Mumbai


22. Which of the following factors influence the climate of India ? (A) Long Coastal Area (B) Nearness to Equator (C) The Himalayas (D) The Relief of Our Land 23. What is the distance of running in a marathon race ? (A) 26 miles 385 yards (B) 26 miles 405 yards (C) 26 miles 180 yards (D) 26 miles 24. ‘Prince of Wales Cup’ is associated with the game of— (A) Polo (B) Basket ball (C) Golf (D) Volleyball 25. ‘Quessberry Rules’ is the name given to the rules in— (A) Hockey (B) Cricket (C) Tennis (D) Boxing 26. Who was the first recipient of Nehru Award for International Understanding ? (A) Martin Luther King (B) Mother Teresa (C) U. Thant (D) Dr. Jonas Salk 27. Which of the following Indians was awarded ‘Legion de Award’, the highest civilian award of France ? (A) Pandit Ravi Shankar (B) Satyajit Ray (C) Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru (D) Indira Gandhi 28. C. Funk’s name has been associated with the research of which of the following ? (A) Vitamins (B) Proteins (C) Minerals (D) Carbohydrates 29. Who defined democracy as a “Government of the people, by the people and for the people” ? (A) Mahatma Gandhi (B) Ruskin (C) Aristotle (D) Abraham Lincoln 30. Who said, “Give to stand, and I world” ? (A) Archimedes (C) Edison me somewhere will move the (B) Galileo (D) Newton

31. Ben Hur, the world famous epic, is written by— (A) John Milton (B) George Orwell (C) Lewis Wallace (D) Leo Tolstoy 32. Poliomyelitis is spread by— (A) Mosquito (B) Virus (C) Water (D) Adulterated Food 33. A person in normal health requires per day— (A) 1000 – 1800 calories (B) 2500 – 3000 calories (C) 3000 – 4000 calories (D) 4000 – 5000 calories 34. The fourth estate is— (A) Press (B) Property (C) Metals (D) Tax 35. ‘Hertz’ is a unit of— (A) Velocity (B) Wavelength (C) Frequency of Sound Waves (D) Magnetic field 36. A ‘bear’ on the Stock Exchange is a speculator— (A) Who sells shares which he does not possess (B) Who applies for new issues of shares in the hope that the price will go up (C) Whose holdings of the shares in a company is so large that selling them could affect the market price (D) Who buys shares in the hope that price will go up 37. The function of DNA in the body is— (A) to help in the synthesis of proteins (B) to control the heredity (C) to assist in the release of energy (D) None of the above 38. Which of the following is called a ‘red planet’ ? (A) Pluto (B) Venus (C) Jupiter (D) Mars 39. In a human body, the basic building block are— (A) Muscles (B) Cells (C) Bones (D) Nerves

40. Which feature film was screened in the UN in Nov. 2006 ? (A) Lage Raho Munna Bhai (B) Rang De Basanti (C) Black (D) The Kabul Express



New Release

Mathematical Formulae
(Useful for Various Competitive Examinations)
Compiled by : Dr. N. K. Singh Code No. 1642

Rs. 65/-


Code 248 Rs. 76/Upkar Prakashan, AGRA-2
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Solved Paper

(Held on 2-5-2010)

General Studies
1. Who among the following was not associated with the Home Rule Movement ? (A) C. R. Das (B) S. Subramaniya Iyer (C) Annie Besant (D) B. G. Tilak 2. Read the following events connected with Indian National Movement and find the correct chronological order of the events from the codes given below— 1. 2. 3. 4. Cripps Mission Cabinet Mission Plan Quit India Movement Wavell Offer (B) 1, 2, 3, 4 (D) 4, 3, 2, 1 (A) Larry Collins and Dominique Lapierre —Freedom at Midnight (B) Durga Das —India from Curzon to Nehru and After (C) K. K. Aziz —The Man Who Divided India (D) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad —India Wins Freedom 7. Given below are two statements labelled as— Assertion (A) : The Congress boycotted the Simon Commission. Reason (R) : The Simon Commission did not have a single Indian member. In the context of the above, which one of the following is correct ? Codes : (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A) (B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A) (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true 8. Match the peasants’ revolts of the 19th century with their respective areas— (a) Kuki revolt (b) Kuka revolt (c) Pabna Peasant revolt (d) Birsa Munda revolt 1. Punjab 2. Bengal 3. Bihar 4. Tripura Choose your answer with the help of given codes : Codes : (a) (A) (B) (C) (D) 4 2 4 4 (b) 2 3 1 1 (c) 1 1 3 2 (d) 3 4 2 3 9. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists— List-I (a) Jhansi (b) Lucknow (c) Kanpur (d) Faizabad List-II 1. 2. 3. 4. Moulavi Ahmad Shah Azimullah Khan Begum Hazrat Mahal Rani Laxmi Bai (b) 3 2 4 2 (c) 2 3 2 3 (d) 1 1 1 4

Codes : (A) 1, 3, 4, 2 (C) 1, 3, 2, 4

Codes : (a) (A) 4 (B) 4 (C) 3 (D) 1

3. With which one of the following movements was Aruna Asaf Ali associated ? (A) Khilafat Movement (B) Non-Cooperation ment Move-

10. Where was Mahatma Gandhi when a raid was made by Congress Volunteers on Dharsana Salt Depot ? (A) In Yervada Jail (B) In Sabarmati Jail (C) In Agha Khan Palace Poona (D) In Ahmadnagar Fort Jail 11. In which of the following movements did Mahatma Gandhi make the first use of hunger strike as a weapon ? (A) Non-Cooperation Movement (B) Rowlatt Satyagraha (C) Ahmedabad Strike (D) Bardoli Satyagraha 12. Mention of which of the following rivers in the Rigveda suggests the Aryan’s connection with Afghanistan ? (A) (B) (C) (D) Asikni Parushni Kubha, Kramu Vipas, Sutudri

(C) Civil Disobedience Movement (D) Quit India Movement 4. The official historian of India’s struggle for independence was— (A) R. C. Majumdar (B) Tarachand (C) V. D. Savarkar (D) S. N. Sen 5. Who out of the following had told “Destruction is the best method of dealing with the foreign clothes” ? (A) Ravindra Nath Tagore (B) Mahatma Gandhi (C) Chitranjan Das (D) Subhas Chandra Bose 6. Which one of the following is not correctly matched ?

13. The entry of woman as a bhikshuni into the Buddhist Sangha was allowed by Gautam Buddha at—


(A) Sravasti (B) Vaisali (C) Rajagriha (D) Kushinagar 14. Choose the correct pair— (A) Ellora Caves —Saka (B) Mahabalipuram —Rashtrakutas (C) Meenakshi Temple —Pallavas (D) Khajuraho —Chandellas 15. Buddha is depicted on the coins of— (A) Wima Kadphises (B) Kanishka (C) Nahapana (D) Budh Gupta 16. Put the following events in chronological order and choose your answer with the help of given codes— 1. Formation of an interim Government 2. The arrival of the Cabinet Mission 3. Muslim League launches Direct Action 4. Jinnah’s wrecking of the Shimla Conference Codes : (A) 2, 4, 3, 1 (B) 4, 2, 3, 1 (C) 1, 2, 4, 3 (D) 4, 2, 1, 3 17. The great Jain Scholar Hemachandra adorned the court of— (A) Amoghavarsha (B) Kumarapala (C) Jaysimha Siddharaja (D) Vidyadhara 18. The three age system—Stone, Bronze and Iron from the collection of Copenhagen museum was coined by— (A) Thomson (B) Lubbock (C) Taylor (D) Childe 19. The city plan of ancient Shravasti is in the shape— (A) Circular (B) Crescentic (C) Triangular (D) Rectangular 20. Where is the wild ass sanctuary ? (A) U.P. (B) Assam (C) Gujarat (D) Rajasthan 21. Kissan Bahi Yojana was started in Uttar Pradesh in—

(A) 1970 (C) 1990

(B) 1975 (D) 1992

(c) Moti Masjid, Agra (d) Moti Masjid, Delhi List-II (Builders) Alauddin Khalji Akbar Shahjahan Aurangzeb

22. Yapaniya was a school of— (A) Buddhism (B) Jainism (C) Saivism (D) Vaisnavism 23. The first Gupta ruler to assume the title of ‘Param Bhagawata’ was— (A) Chandragupta I (B) Samudragupta (C) Chandragupta II (D) Srigupta 24. Panini and Patanjali are the renowned names in the literary history of ancient India. Under which dynasty did they flourish ? (A) Pushyabhukti (B) Kushanas (C) Sungas (D) Guptas 25. Who had composed the ‘Gita Govinda’ ? (A) Dhoyi (B) Govardhanacharya (C) Jayadeva (D) Lakshmana Sen 26. Which medieval King of India introduced the ‘Iqkta system’ ? (A) Iltutmish (B) Balban (C) Alauddin Khalji (D) None of the above 27. Which musical instrument was played by the Mughal Emperor Aurangzeb ? (A) Sitar (B) Pakhawaj (C) Veena (D) None of the above 28. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched ? (A) Babar —Battle of Khanwa (B) Humayun —Battle of Chausa (C) Akbar —Battle of Haldighati (D) Jahangir —Battle of Balkh 29. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists— List-I (Monuments) (a) Alai Darwaja, Delhi (b) Buland Darwaja, Fatehpur Sikri

1. 2. 3. 4.

Codes : (a) (b) (c) (d) (A) 1 2 3 4 (B) 3 2 1 4 (C) 4 1 2 3 (D) 1 4 3 2 30. In U. P. the first ‘Biotechnology Park’ was established at— (A) Lucknow (B) Noida (C) Agra (D) Kanpur 31. The Kirtistambha at Chittor was built by— (A) Rana Sanga (B) Rana Kumbha (C) Rana Pratap (D) Rana Udai Singh 32. Who among the following rulers is famous as “Prithvi Raj Chauhan” ? (A) Prithvi Raj I (B) Prithvi Raj II (C) Prithvi Raj III (D) None of the above 33. Jain temple of Abu is made of— (A) Sandstone (B) Lime stone (C) Granite (D) Marble 34. Which among the following organisations supported the Suddhi movement ? (A) Arya Samaj (B) Brahma Samaj (C) Deva Samaj (D) Prarthana Samaj 35. The institution of local self government got a fillip during the Viceroyalty of— (A) Lord Mayo (B) Lord Ripon (C) Lord Dufferin (D) Lord Curzon 36. With which Uprising is Mangal Pandey associated ? (A) Barrackpur (B) Meerut (C) Delhi (D) None of the above


37. Which one of the following is correctly matched ? (A) Khuldabad —Tomb of Shaikh Salim Chishti (B) Fatehpur Sikri —Tomb of Itimadud-Daula (C) Agra —Tomb of Aurangzeb (D) Delhi —Tomb of Abdur Rahim Khan-i-khanan 38. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists— List-I (Authors) (a) Bankim Chandra Chatterji (b) Michael Madhusudan Das (c) Ravindra Nath Tagore (d) Sarojini Naidu List-II (Works) 1. 2. 3. 4. Anand Math Captive Lady Gora The Broken Wing (a) 1 2 1 4 (b) 2 3 4 1 (c) 3 4 2 3 (d) 4 1 3 2

(A) (B) (C) (D)

Maulana Abul Kalam Azad Dr. Rajendra Prasad Narendra Deva Asaf Ali

42. The minimum percentage of population below the poverty limit is recorded in— (A) Jammu and Kashmir (B) Punjab (C) Haryana (D) Goa 43. Jhooming is practised by— (A) The Bhotias (B) The Khasis (C) The Santhals (D) The Todas 44. Which one of the following biosphere reserves is not included in the list of world network of biosphere reserves of UNESCO ? (A) Simlipal (B) Sunderban (C) Gulf of Mannar (D) Nilgiri 45. As per Census 2001, the class I cities of India claim a share of the total urban population of— (A) 44·40% (C) 65·20% (B) 56·50% (D) 62·32%

50. Which one of the following lakes has been recently included under National Lake Conservation Project ? (A) Bhimtal (B) Pulicat (C) Ooty (D) Sambhar 51. The population of U.P. exceeds that of— 1. Bangladesh 2. Brazil 3. Pakistan 4. Indonesia Select the correct answer from the following codes— Codes : (A) 1 and 2 (B) 1 and 3 (C) 2 and 3 (D) 2 and 4 52. Consider the following statements— Assertion (A) : Madhya Pradesh is called the Ethiopia of India. Reason (R) : Its hallmarks are excessive infantile mortality and malnutrition. Select the correct answer using the codes given below— Codes : (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A) (B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A) (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true 53. The UNESCO has given international recognition to— 1. Nilgiri Biosphere 2. Nanda Devi Biosphere 3. Manas Biosphere 4. Simlipal Biosphere Select the correct answer from the following codes— Codes : (A) 1 and 2 (B) 1 and 3 (C) 2 and 3 (D) 2 and 4 54. National Renewal Fund was constituted for the purpose of— (A) Providing pension for retiring employees (B) Social security (C) Rural reconstruction (D) Restructuring and modernisation of industries 55. Open-market operations of Reserve Bank of India refer to—

Codes : (A) (B) (C) (D)

39. In which of the Indian Provinces the first Communist Government was established ? (A) Tamilnadu (B) Andhra Pradesh (C) Kerala (D) West Bengal 40. Arrange the following million cities of Uttar Pradesh in ascending order of their population size. 1. Agra 2. Allahabad 3. Meerut 4. Lucknow Use the codes given below to select the correct answer. Codes : (A) 1, 3, 2, 4 (B) 4, 2, 1, 3 (C) 2, 1, 4, 3 (D) 2, 3, 1, 4 41. The author of the book “India Divided” was—

46. Which megacity of India generates the largest solid waste per capita annually ? (A) Bangalore (B) Chennai (C) Delhi (D) Mumbai 47. Today the largest contributor to carbon dioxide (CO 2 ) emissions is— (A) China (C) Russia (B) Japan (D) U.S.A.

48. Which one of the following is the most important factor responsible for decline of bio-diversity ? (A) Genetic assimilation (B) Controlling predators (C) Destruction of habitat (D) Controlling pests 49. Which one of the following States of India has the highest rural literacy rate ? (A) Maharashtra (B) Manipur (C) Goa (D) Gujarat


(A) Trading in securities (B) Auctioning of Foreign Exchange (C) Transaction in gold (D) None of the above 56. If interest payment is added to primary deficit, it is equivalent to— (A) Budget deficit (B) Fiscal deficit (C) Deficit financing (D) Revenue deficit 57. Consider the following statements and state which is/are correct ? 1. The sub-prime crisis which hit the U. S. economy was caused by sudden increase in oil prices 2. The crisis led to default in home loan repayment 3. It led to failure of some U.S. banks 4. Sub-prime crisis caused crash in Indian Stock Market Choose your answer from given codes. Codes : (A) 1 only (B) 2 and 4 only (C) 2, 3, and 4 only (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4 58. In Uttar Pradesh, recognized Stock Exchange is at— (A) Lucknow (B) Kanpur (C) Varanasi (D) Ghaziabad 59. Which of the following provides the largest credit to agriculture and allied sectors ? (A) Cooperative Banks (B) Regional Rural Banks (C) Commercial Banks (D) Cooperative and Regional Rural Banks jointly 60. Who had suggested an imposition of ‘expenditure tax’ in India for the first time ? (A) Kalecki (B) Kaldor (C) R. J. Chelliah (D) Gautam Mathur 61. An increase in CRR by the Reserve Bank of India results in— (A) Decrease in debt of the government

(B) Reduction in liquidity in the economy (C) Attracting more FDI in the country (D) More flow of credit to desired sectors 62. Special Economic Zone (SEZ) Act became effective in— (A) 2004 (B) 2005 (C) 2006 (D) 2007 63. In the 11th Five Year Plan, which of the following sectors accounts for maximum combined Central, State and U.T. expenditure ? (A) Transport (B) Energy (C) Agriculture and Rural Development (D) Social sector 64. In which of the following Committees there is no representation of Rajya Sabha ? (A) Public Accounts Committee (B) Committee on Public Undertakings (C) Estimates Committee (D) Committee on Government Assurances 65. Provision regarding Panchayats and Municipalities was made in the Indian Constitution in which year ? (A) 1991 (B) 1995 (C) 2000 (D) 1993 66. Which one of the following writs is issued during the pendency of proceedings in a court ? (A) Mandamus (B) Certiorari (C) Prohibition (D) Quo warranto 67. The word ‘Secularism’ was inserted in the Preamble of the Indian Constitution by (A) 25th Amendment (B) 42nd Amendment (C) 44th Amendment (D) 52nd Amendment 68. Mid day Meal Scheme is financed and managed by— (A) Food and Civil Supply Department of State Governments (B) Department of Consumer Affairs and Welfare

(C) Ministry of Programme Implementation (D) Ministry of Human Resource Development 69. The following States were created after 1960. Arrange them in ascending chronological order of their formation and choose your answer from the given codes. 1. Haryana 2. Sikkim 3. Nagaland 4. Meghalaya Codes : (A) 1, 2, 3, 4 (C) 3, 1, 4, 2 (B) 2, 3, 4, 1 (D) 2, 4, 1, 3

70. The function of the Pro-Temp. Speaker is to— (A) Conduct the proceedings of the House in the absence of Speaker (B) Swearing members (C) Officiate as Speaker when the Speaker is unlikely to be elected (D) Only check if the election certificates of the members are in order 71. The Provision for the Calling Attention Notices has restricted the scope of which of the following ? (A) Short duration discussion (B) Question hour (C) Adjournment motion (D) Zero hour 72. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists— List-I (a) Article 14 (b) Article 36 (c) Article 74 (d) Article 368 List-II 1. 2. 3. 4. Amendment procedure Council of Ministers Right to Equality Directive Principles (a) 2 4 1 3 (b) 1 1 2 4 (c) 4 3 3 2 (d) 3 2 4 1

Codes : (A) (B) (C) (D)

73. The expenses of Public Service Commission of Uttar Pradesh are charged upon—


(A) Consolidated Fund of India (B) Consolidated Fund of State (C) It’s own generated fund from fees (D) Contingent Fund 74. In 1930 a person’s age was 8 times that of his son. In 1938 the father’s age becomes 10 times the age of his son’s age in 1930. The ages of father and son in 1940 were respectively— (A) 58 and 16 years (B) 50 and 15 years (C) 42 and 14 years (D) 34 and 13 years 75. Reema is twice as old as Sumita. Three years ago she was three times as old as Sumita. How old is Reema now ? (A) 6 years (B) 7 years (C) 8 years (D) 12 years 76. The marked price of a table is Rs. 2,000, which is 25% above the cost price. If the shopkeeper sells the table at 8% discount on the marked price, his percentage of profit would be— (A) 14% (B) 15% (C) 16% (D) 20% 77. Which of the following statements is not true of the Indian Economy ? (A) Its share of world population is only 16% but its share of world GDP is 1·6% (B) The share of service sector in India’s GDP is only 25% (C) 58% of its working population is engaged in agriculture, but the contribution of agriculture to the national income is 22% (D) India occupies only 2·4% of the world’s geographical area 78. A can finish a work in 6 days whereas B can finish the work in 9 days. If both of them work together, what is the probability that the work will be finished on third day ? (A) 1/2 (B) 1/6 (C) 1 (D) 0 79. Which layer of atmosphere is responsible for Aurora Borealis ? (A) Troposphere (B) Thermosphere (C) Ionosphere (D) Exosphere

80. Who is the brand ambassador of BSNL ? (A) Shah Rukh Khan (B) Abhishek Bachchan (C) Preity Zinta (D) Deepika Padukone 81. The headquarter of R.B.I. is situated at— (A) Delhi (B) Kolkata (C) Mumbai (D) Chennai 82. An ox in a ‘Kolhu’ is tethered to a rope 3m long. How much distance does the ox cover in 14 rounds ? 22 π= 7

(A) Borneo (B) Celebes (C) New Guinea (D) Timor 89. The Anglo-American Culture Realm does not include— 1. Canada 2. U.S.A. 3. Mexico 4. Cuba Select the correct answer from the codes given below— Codes : (A) 1 and 2 (C) 2 and 3 (B) 1 and 3 (D) 3 and 4



(A) 300m (C) 264m

(B) 250m (D) 232m

83. 90°E Ridge lies in— (A) Atlantic ocean (B) Indian ocean (C) Pacific ocean (D) Mediterranean sea 84. Which of the following rivers flows through a ‘rift’ valley ? (A) Ganga (B) Brahmaputra (C) Narmada (D) Krishna 85. The Ruhr basin is the famous Industrial region of— (A) China (B) Germany (C) Japan (D) United Kingdom 86. Which of the following countries are located on the Equator ? 1. Brunei 2. Columbia 3. Kenya 4. Venezuela Select the correct answer from the codes given below— Codes : (A) 1 and 2 (B) 2 and 3 (C) 3 and 4 (D) 1 and 4 87. If the Sun rises at TIRAP in Arunachal Pradesh at 5·00 a.m. (IST), then what time (IST) the Sun will rise in Kandla in Gujarat ? (A) About 5·30 a.m. (B) About 6·00 a.m. (C) About 7·00 a.m. (D) About 7·30 a.m. 88. Which one of the following islands of the East Indies is divided into three countries ?

90. The Kalpsar Project for supply of sweet water is located in— (A) Gujarat (B) Haryana (C) Maharashtra (D) Rajasthan 91. Which soil needs little irrigation as it retains soil moisture ? (A) Alluvial soil (B) Black soil (C) Red soil (D) Laterite soil 92. In an area with annual rainfall of more than 200 cms and sloping hills which crop will be ideal ? (A) Jute (B) Cotton (C) Tea (D) Maize 93. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists— List-I (a) Etna (b) Vesuvius (c) Erebus (d) Cotopaxy 1. 3. List-II Ross Island 2. Ecuador Italy 4. Sicily (b) 2 3 4 3 (c) 3 1 2 2 (d) 4 2 1 1

Codes : (a) (A) 1 (B) 4 (C) 3 (D) 4

94. Consider the following statements— Assertion (A) : River Damodar was known as ‘River of Sorrow’ in West Bengal prior to the development of the Damodar Valley Corporation. Reason (R) : Damodar in its upper reaches flows rapidly and in its lower reaches it runs too sluggishly.


Select the correct answer using the codes given below— Codes : (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A) (B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A) (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true 95. Which State has decided to 102. establish a University for the disabled during 2009-10 ? (A) Maharashtra (B) Kerala (C) Madhya Pradesh (D) Uttar Pradesh 103. 96. Dhuria is folk dance of— (A) (B) (C) (D) Avadh Bundelkhand Purvanchal Rohelkhand


97. In which one of the following States is Suil river project located ? (A) Uttarakhand (B) Haryana (C) Punjab (D) Himachal Pradesh 98. Which one of the following is not correctly matched ? (A) Alha — Bundelkhand (B) Birha — Purvanchal (C) Chaiti — Rohelkhand (D) Kajri — Avadh 105.

99. Which one of the following is not a folk dance of Uttar Pradesh ? 106. (A) Charkula (B) Dadra (C) Karma (D) Muria 100. Which one of the following is not included in the “National Food Security Missions” ? (A) Oil seeds (B) Wheat (C) Rice (D) Pulses 101. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below the lists— List-I (a) (b) (c) (d) Kishan Maharaj Hari Prasad Chaurasia Pt. Gopalji Mishra Kudak Singh

107. Who has written the book “The Rediscovery of India” published around November 2009 ? (A) Ram Chandra Guha (B) Meghnad Desai (C) Arun Shourie (D) Mohan Bhagwat (d) 108. Which country launched the 2 World’s first satellite dedicated 1 to monitoring ‘greenhouse gas 1 emissions’ in 2009 ? 3 (A) Japan (B) Brazil (C) India (D) U.S.A. In which year the Government of India included ten new tribes of 109. How many nations were memUttar Pradesh as Scheduled bers of the BASIC Block at the Tribes ? December 2009 Copenhagen (A) 2004 (B) 2003 Meet ? (C) 2002 (D) 2001 (A) Five (B) Four (C) Three (D) Two In Uttar Pradesh, which one of the following districts has the 110. The Rangnath Mishra Commislargest population of Scheduled sion report which was tabled in Tribes ? the Parliament in December (A) Sonebhadra (B) Mirzapur 2009, relates to— (C) Kheri (D) Bijnore (A) Electoral reforms Sukna scam case was recently (B) Police reforms (first quarter of 2010) much in (C) Religious and Linguistic the news. With which State is it Minorities concerned ? (D) Tax reforms (A) Himachal Pradesh 111. Match List-I with List-II and (B) Jammu and Kashmir select the correct answer using (C) Rajasthan the codes given below the lists— (D) West Bengal List-I The author of the book which (Name of Film) recently became the root cause of (a) 3 Idiots the controversy regarding the script of the film “Three Idiots” (b) Slum dog Millionaire is— (c) Junoon (A) Abhijat Joshi (d) My Fair Lady (B) Mohammad Khalid List-II (C) Chetan Bhagat (The writing inspiring the film) (D) Rajkumar Hirani 1. Pygmalion Consider the following state2. Five Point some one ments— 3. Q and A 1. The crop insurance scheme 4. A Flight of Pigeons in India was started in the Codes : year 1985 (a) (b) (c) (d) 2. The total number of agrocli(A) 2 1 4 3 matic zone in U.P. is 9 (B) 3 4 1 2 3. Food for work programme was started in the year 1977 (C) 3 1 4 2 4. Blue resolution is concerned (D) 2 3 4 1 with production of mustard 112. The Indian citizen who has been Of these statements— honoured with Ramon MagsayCodes : say award for the year 2009 is— (A) Only 1 and 2 are correct (A) Bhimsen Joshi (B) Deep Joshi (B) Only 2 and 3 are correct (C) Indira Sinha (C) Only 3 and 4 are correct (D) Pankaj Srivastava (D) Only 1, 2 and 3 are correct List-II 1. Sarangi player 2. Tabla player 3. Pakhawaj player 4. Bansuri player Codes : (a) (b) (c) (A) 1 3 4 (B) 3 4 2 (C) 2 4 3 (D) 2 4 1


113. At the 56th National Film 121. Commonwealth Games are scheduled to take place in New Awards for 2008 the best feature Delhi, India in 2010. Which film award was bagged by— location has been chosen for the (A) Antaheen (B) Fashion next Commonwealth Games in (C) Jogeva (D) Rock on 2014 ? 114. ‘Project Arrow’ is concerned (A) Brisbane — Australia with the modernisation of which (B) Victoria — Canada of the following ? (C) Auckland — New Zealand (A) Airports (D) Glasgow — Scotland (B) Post offices 122. Suresh Kalmadi has been elected (C) Road Transport Chairman of the ‘Asian Athletic (D) Railways Association’ on November 9th 115. During Prime Minister Man2009 for the— mohan Singh’s visit to Russia in (A) 2nd term (B) 3rd term December 2009, India and Russia (C) 4th term (D) 5th term signed an agreement mainly relating to— 123. ICC announced a list of 55 Cricket players in 2009 to be (A) Civil nuclear cooperation included in its inaugural ‘Hall of (B) Climate change Fame’ list. (C) Cooperation in agriculture Identify from the following crisector cketers who was not included in (D) Cooperation in science and the list. technology sector (A) Kapil Dev 116. The city which has been selected (B) Sachin Tendulkar by a famous International Maga(C) Sunil Gavaskar zine “Travel and Leisure” in its (D) Bishan Singh Bedi survey 2009 as the best city from tourism point of view in the 124. 2016 Olympic Games will be held at— world is— (A) Chicago (A) Udaipur (B) Hong Kong (B) Madrid (C) Singapore (D) Dubai (C) Rio de Janeiro 117. Football World Cup 2010 will be (D) Tokyo held in— 125. Which of the following legumi(A) Britain (B) Germany nous plant is also a petro-plant ? (C) Portugal (D) South Africa (A) Pigeon-pea (B) Pea

128. In which of the following industries is mica used as a raw material ? (A) Iron and Steel (B) Toys (C) Glass and Pottery (D) Electrical 129. The micro-organism which is associated with the production of Bt cotton is a— (A) Fungus (B) Bacterium (C) Blue green Alga (D) Virus 130. Computer virus is a— (A) Fungus (B) Bacterium (C) IC 7344 (D) Software program 131. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists— List-I (a) (b) (c) (d) 1. 2. 3. 4. Arihant Awacs Atlas Centaur Nag List-II American Cryogenic Rocket Anti tank missile Israel developed Falcon for Air Force Atomic submarine

(b) (c) (d) 118. How many seats BSP won in the (C) Gram (D) Pongam 3 2 1 elections to the U.P. Legislative 3 1 2 126. If an apple is released from an Council held in January 2010 ? orbiting spaceship, it will— 4 1 2 (A) 31 (B) 32 (A) Fall towards the Earth 4 2 1 (C) 33 (D) 34 (B) Move at a lower speed 132. Consider the following state(C) Move along with the space119. The mascot of the 19th Commonments— ship at the same speed wealth Games, to be held in 2010 Assertion (A) : Space Based Solar (D) Move at a higher speed in New Delhi is— Power (SBSP), it is suggested be (A) Bhaloo (B) Cheetah made a national goal. 127. The atmosphere exerts enormous (C) Chital (D) Shera pressure on us. But, we do not Reason (R) : Supply of SBSP is feel it because— 99% uninterrupted throughout 120. The ‘Man of the Series’ in the the year, besides the enormity of (A) Our blood exerts a pressure triangular series of the Idea Cup energy availability. slightly more than that of the 2010 concluded on 13th January, atmosphere Select the correct answer using 2010 is— (B) We are used to it the codes given below— (A) M. S. Dhoni (C) Our bones are very strong Codes : (B) Kumar Sangakkara and can withstand the pressure (A) Both (A) and (R) are true (C) Virat Kohli (D) The surface area of our head and (R) is the correct explanation is very small (D) Virender Sehwag of (A)

Codes : (a) (A) 4 (B) 4 (C) 3 (D) 3


(C) The image of the close 141. Which one of the following comobjects is focussed behind the pounds is used as a sedative ? retina (A) Potassium bromide (D) A concave lens is used to (B) Calcium chloride correct this defect (C) Ethyl alcohol 137. ‘Endoscope’ used by Doctors for (D) Phosphorus trichloride 133. Match List-I with List-II and examining the inside of the select the correct answer using patient’s stomach, works on the 142. An enzyme which helps in the the codes given below the lists— digestion of protein is— principle of— List-I (A) Urease (B) Sulfatase (A) Reflection of light (Disease) (C) Trypsin (D) Protease (B) Dispersion of light (a) Marasmus (C) Total internal reflection of 143. Methane is present in the atmos(b) Kwashiorkor light phere of— (c) T.B. (D) Refraction of light (A) Moon (B) Sun (d) Hepatitis B 138. Consider the following state(C) Jupiter (D) Mars List-II ments— 144. Hydrogen bomb is based on the (Cause) Assertion (A) : If Ice collects on principle of— the freezer the cooling in the 1. Prolonged Starvation (A) Controlled fusion reaction refrigerator is affected adversely. 2. Protein Deficiency (B) Uncontrolled fusion reaction Reason (R) : Ice is a poor con3. Bacterial Infection (C) Controlled fission reaction ductor of heat. 4. Viral Infection (D) Uncontrolled fission reaction Select the correct answer using Codes : the codes given below— 145. In countries where polished rice Codes : (a) (b) (c) (d) is the mean cereal in their diet, people suffer from— (A) Both (A) and (R) are true (A) 1 2 3 4 and (R) is the correct explanation (A) Pellagra (B) Beri-beri (B) 2 1 3 4 of (A) (C) Scurvy (D) Osteomalacia (C) 4 2 3 1 (B) Both (A) and (R) are true, (D) 2 4 1 3 146. Which one of the following silver but (R) is not the correct explasalts is used for producing artifi134. Which one of the following is not nation of (A) cial rains ? properly matched ? (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false (A) Silver chloride (A) Gene splicing and recombi(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true (B) Silver bromide nant DNA technology 139. What type of electromagnetic (C) Silver nitrate —Genetic Engineering radiation is used in the remote (D) Silver iodide (B) A diagnostic test to detect control of a television ? the presence or absence of 147. The hypo solution used in photo(A) Infrared genetic disorders in unborn child graphy is the aqueous solution (B) Ultraviolet —Amniocentesis of— (C) Visible (A) Sodium thiosulphate (C) A process by which living (D) None of these organisms break down complex (B) Sodium tetrathionate matter into simpler constituents 140. Match List-I with List-II and (C) Sodium sulphate select the correct answer using —Biodegradation (D) Ammonium per sulphate the codes given below the lists— (D) An inbuilt time-keeping sys148. Accumulation of which one of List-I tem in all organisms the following in the muscles (Naturally occurring substance) —Bio-mass leads to fatigue ? (a) Diamond (b) Marble (A) Lactic acid 135. Salk’s vaccine is connected with (c) Sand (d) Ruby (B) Benzoic acid which one of the following List-II (C) Pyruvic acid diseases ? (D) Uric acid (Elements present) (A) Small pox (B) Titanus (B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A) (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true (C) T.B. (D) Polio 136. Which one of the following statements is not true for a person suffering from hypermetropia ? (A) The person can see far objects distinctly. (B) The focal length of the lens is large 1. 3. Calcium 2. Silicon Aluminium 4. Carbon (b) 1 2 1 1 (c) 2 1 3 2 (d) 4 3 4 3 149. Which one of the following had supported the Non-cooperation movement, but could not see its upshots ? (A) Bal Gangadhar Tilak (B) Lala Lajpat Rai (C) Motilal Nehru (D) Chitranjan Das

Codes : (a) (A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 2 (D) 4


150. Which of the following is a substance abundantly available in the sea and administered in a certain deficiency disease ? (A) Iron (B) Vitamin A (C) Fluorine (D) Iodine

Answers with Hints



Solved Paper

(Held on 23-5-2010)

General Studies
1. A geographic area with an altitude of 400 metres has following characteristics :
Month Average maximum temp. °C Average minimum temp. °C Rainfall (mm) J 31 21 51 F 31 21 85 M 31 21 A 31 21 M 30 21 J 30 21 J 29 20 A 28 20 S 29 20 O 29 20 N 30 20 D 31 20 86

188 158 139 121 134 168 185 221 198

If this geographic area were to have a natural forest, which one of the following would it most likely be ? (A) Moist temperate coniferous forest (B) Montane subtropical forest (C) Temperate forest (D) Tropical rain forest 2. If a potato is placed on a pure paper plate which is white and unprinted and put in a microwave oven, the potato heats up but the paper plate does not. This is because— (A) Potato is mainly made up of starch whereas paper is mainly made up of cellulose (B) Potato transmits microwaves whereas paper reflects microwaves (C) Potato contains water whereas paper does not contain water (D) Potato is a fresh organic material whereas paper is a dead organic material 3. With reference to the Constitution of India, consider the following : 1. Fundamental Rights 2. Fundamental Duties 3. Directives Principles of State Policy. Which of the above provisions of the Constitution of India is/are fulfilled by the National Social Assistance Programme launched by the Government of India ?

6. A cuboid has six sides of different colours. The red side is opposite to black. The blue side is adjacent to white. The brown side is adjacent to blue. The red side is face down. Which one of the following would be the opposite to brown ? (A) Red (B) Black (C) White (D) Blue 7. Consider the following statements : The satellite Oceansat-2 launched by India helps in— 1. estimating the water vapour content in the atmosphere. 2. predicting the onset of monsoons. 3. monitoring the pollution of coastal waters. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? (A) 1 and 2 only (B) 2 only (C) 1 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3 8. Genetically modified ‘golden rice’ has been engineered to meet human nutritional requirements. Which one of the following statements best qualifies golden rice ? (A) The grains have been fortified with genes to provide three times higher grain yield per acre than other high yielding varieties (B) Its grains contain provitamin A which upon ingestion is converted to vitamin A in the human body (C) Its modified genes cause the synthesis of all the nine essential amino acids (D) Its modified genes cause the fortification of its grains with vitamin D 9. In a tournament 14 teams play league matches. If each team plays against every other team once only then how many matches are played ?

(A) (B) (C) (D)

1 only 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3

4. A new type of El Nino called El Nino Modoki appeared in the news. In this context, consider the following statements : 1. Normal El Nino forms in the Central Pacific ocean whereas El Nino Modoki forms in Eastern Pacific ocean. 2. Normal El Nino results in diminished hurricanes in the Atlantic ocean but El Nino Modoki results in a greater number of hurricanes with greater frequency. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? (A) (B) (C) (D) 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2

5. Mon 863 is a variety of maize. It was in the news for the following reason— (A) It is a genetically modified dwarf variety which is resistant to drought (B) It is a genetically modified variety which is pest resistant (C) It is a genetically modified variety with ten times higher protein content than regular maize crop (D) It is a genetically modified variety used exclusively for biofuel production


(A) 105 (C) 85

(B) 91 (D) 78

10. Consider the following statements : The Supreme Court of India tenders advice to the President of India on matters of law or fact. 1. on its own initiative (on any matter of larger public interest). 2. if he seeks such an advice. 3. only if the matters relate to the Fundamental Rights of the citizens. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? (A) 1 only (B) 2 only (C) 3 only (D) 1 and 2 11. Chlorination is a process used for water purification. The disinfecting action of chlorine is mainly due to— (A) The formation of hydrochloric acid when chlorine is added to water (B) The formation of hypochlorous acid when chlorine is added to water (C) The formation of nascent oxygen when chlorine is added to water (D) The formation of hydrogen when chlorine is added to water 12. With reference to Lok Adalats, which of the following statements is correct ? (A) Lok Adalats have the jurisdiction to settle the matters at pre-litigative stage and not those matters pending before any court (B) Lok Adalats can deal with matters which are civil and not criminal in nature (C) Every Lok Adalat consists of either serving or retired judicial officers only and not any other person (D) None of the statements given above is correct 13. Consider the following : 1. Bluetooth device 2. Cordless phone 3. Microwave oven 4. Wi-Fi device Which of the above can operate between 2·4 and 2·5 GHz range of radio frequency band ?

(A) (B) (C) (D)

1 and 2 only 3 and 4 only 1, 2 and 4 only 1, 2, 3 and 4


14. Though coffee and tea both are cultivated on hill slopes, there is some difference between them regarding their cultivation. In this context, consider the following statements : 1. Coffee plant requires a hot and humid climate of tropical areas whereas tea can be cultivated in both tropical and subtropical areas. 2. Coffee is propagated by seeds but tea is propagated by stem cuttings only. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? (A) 1 only (B) 2 only (C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2 15. In the context of the affairs of which of the following is the phrase ‘Special Safeguard Mechanisms’ mentioned in the news frequently ? (A) United Nations Environment Programme (B) World Trade Organisation (C) ASEAN-India Free Trade Agreement (D) G-20 Summits 16. Which of the following terms indicates a mechanism used by commercial banks for providing credit to the government ? (A) Cash Credit Ratio (B) Debt Service Obligation (C) Liquidity Adjustment Facility (D) Statutory Liquidity Ratio 17. In order to comply with TRIPS Agreement, India enacted the Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act, 1999. The difference/ differences between a ‘Trade Mark’ and a Geographical Indication is/are : 1. A Trade Mark is an individual or a company’s right whereas a Geographical Indication is a community’s right.

A Trade Mark can be licensed whereas a Geographical Indication cannot be licensed. 3. A Trade Mark is assigned to the manufactured goods whereas the Geographical Indication is assigned to the agricultural goods/products and handicrafts only. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3 18. The SEZ Act, 2005 which came into effect in February 2006 has certain objectives, in this context, consider the following : 1. Development of infrastructure facilities. 2. Promotion of investment from foreign sources. 3. Promotion of exports of services only Which of the above are the objectives of this Act ? (A) 1 and 2 only (B) 3 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3 19. Which one of the following statements is an appropriate description of deflation ? (A) It is a sudden fall in the value of a currency against other currencies (B) It is a persistent recession in both the financial and real sectors of economy (C) It is a persistent fall in the general price level of goods and services (D) It is a fall in the rate of inflation over a period of time 20. Consider the following statements : 1. Biodiversity hotspots are located only in tropical regions. India has four biodiversity hotspots i.e., Eastern Himalayas, Western Himalayas, Western Ghats and Andaman and Nicobar Islands.



Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? (A) 1 only (B) 2 only (C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2 21. Widespread resistance of malarial parasite to drugs like chloroquine has prompted attempts to develop a malarial vaccine to combat malaria. Why is it difficult to develop an effective malaria vaccine ? (A) Malaria is caused by several species of Plasmodium (B) Man does not develop immunity to malaria during natural infection (C) Vaccines can be developed only against bacteria (D) Man is only an intermediate host and not the definitive host 22. Consider the following statements : 1. The boundaries of a National Park are defined by legislation. 2. A Biosphere Reserve is declared to conserve a few specific species of flora and fauna. 3. In a Wildlife Sanctuary, limited biotic interference is permitted. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? (A) 1 only (B) 2 and 3 only (C) 1 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3 23. A pesticide which is a chlorinated hydrocarbon is sprayed on a food crop. The food chain is : Food crop-Rat-Snake-Hawk. In this food chain, the highest concentration of the pesticide would accumulate in which one of the following ? (A) Food crop (B) Rat (C) Snake (D) Hawk 24. With reference to soil conservation, consider the following practices : 1. Crop rotation 2. Sand fences 3. Terracing 4. Wind breaks

Which of the above are considered appropriate methods for soil conservation in India ? (A) 1, 2 and 3 only (B) 2 and 4 only (C) 1, 3 and 4 only (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4 25. With reference to the Nonbanking Financial Companies (NBFCs) in India, consider the following statements : 1. They cannot engage in the acquisition of securities issued by the government. They cannot accept demand deposits like Savings Account.

How many different sequences of answers are possible ? (A) 20 (B) 40 (C) 512 (D) 1024 29. In the parlance of financial investments, the term ‘bear’ denotes— (A) An investor who feels that the price of a particular security is going to fall (B) An investor who expects the price of particular shares to rise (C) A shareholder or a bondholder who has an interest in a company, financial or otherwise (D) Any lender whether by making a loan or buying a bond. 30. A great deal of Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) to India comes from Mauritius than from many major and mature economies like UK and France. Why ? (A) India has preference for certain countries as regards receiving FDI (B) India has double taxation avoidance agreement with Mauritius (C) Most citizens of Mauritius have ethnic identity with India and so they feel secure to invest in India (D) Impending dangers of global climatic change prompt Mauritius to make huge investments in India 31. Six books A, B, C, D, E and F are placed side by side. B, C and E have blue cover and the other books have red cover. Only D and F are new books and the rest are old. A, C and D are law reports and others are Gazetteers. What book is a new law report with a red colour ? (A) A (B) B (C) C (D) D 32. Following are the characteristics of an area in India : 1. Hot and humid climate. 2. Annual rainfall 200 cm. 3. Hill slopes up to an altitude of 1100 metre 4. Annual range of temperature 15°C to 30°C Which one among the following crops are you most likely to find in the area described above ?


Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? (A) (B) (C) (D) 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2

26. Which one of the following was not stipulated in the Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act, 2003 ? (A) Elimination of revenue deficit by the end of the fiscal year 2007-08 (B) Non-borrowing by the central government from Reserve Bank of India except under certain circumstances (C) Elimination of primary deficit by the end of the fiscal year 2008-09 (D) Fixing government guarantees in any financial year as a percentage of GDP 27. Two trains leave New Delhi at the same time. One travels north at 60 kmph and the other travels south at 40 kmph. After how many hours will the trains be 150 km apart ? 3 4 (A) (B) 2 3 3 15 (C) (D) 4 2 28. A question paper had ten questions. Each question could only be answered as True (T) or False (F). Each candidate answered all the questions. Yet, no two candidates wrote the answers in an identical sequence.


(A) (B) (C) (D)

Mustard Cotton Pepper Virginia tobacco

33. Running at a speed of 60 km per hour, a train passed through a 1·5 km long tunnel in two minutes. What is the length of the train ? (A) 250 m (B) 500 m (C) 1000 m (D) 1500 m 34. India-based Neutrino Observatory is included by the Planning Commission as a mega science project under the 11th Five-Year Plan. In this context, consider the following statements— 1. Neutrinos are chargeless elementary particles that travel close to the speed of light. Neutrinos are created in nuclear reactions of beta decay. Neutrinos have a negligible, but nonzero mass.

the following statements in this context is not correct ? (A) LASIK procedure is used to correct refractive errors of the eye (B) It is a procedure that permanently changes the shapes of the cornea (C) It reduces a person’s dependence on glasses or contact lenses (D) It is a procedure that can be done on the person of any age 38. Consider the following : 1. Oxides of Hydrogen 2. Oxides of Nitrogen 3. Oxides of Sulphur Which of the above causes/cause acid rain ? (A) 1 and 2 only (B) 3 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3 39. Six persons M, N, O, P, Q and R are sitting in two rows, three in each. Q is not at the end of any row. P is second to the left of R. O is the neighbour of Q and is sitting diagonally opposite to P. N is the neighbour of R. On the basis of above information, who is facing N ? (A) R (B) Q (C) P (D) M 40. A person X has four notes of Rupee 1, 2, 5 and 10 denomination. The number of different sums of money she can form from them is— (A) 16 (B) 15 (C) 12 (D) 8 41. Consider the following countries : 1. Brazil 2. Mexico 3. South Africa According to UNCTAD, which of the above is/are categorized as ‘Emerging Economies’ ? (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 3 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3 42. Which one of the following is not related to United Nations ? (A) Multilateral Investment Guarantee Agency

(B) International Finance Corporation (C) International Centre for Settlement of Investment Disputes (D) Bank of International Settlements 43. In the context of Indian economy, consider the following pairs : Term Most appropriate description 1. Melt down —Fall in stock prices 2. Recession —Fall in growth rate 3. Slow down —Fall in GDP Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched ? (A) 1 only (B) 2 and 3 only (C) 1 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3 44. With reference to BRIC countries consider the following statements : 1. At present, China’s GDP is more than the combined GDP of all the three other countries. 2. China’s population is more than the combined population of any two other countries. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? (A) 1 only (B) 2 only (C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2 45. Which of the following is/are treated as artificial currency ? (A) ADR (B) GDR (C) SDR (D) Both ADR and SDR 46. Stiglitz Commission established by the President of the United Nations General Assembly was in the international news. The commission was supposed to deal with— (A) The challenges posed by the impending global climate change and prepare a road map (B) The workings of the global financial systems and to explore ways and means to secure a more sustainable global order


3. 4.

Trillions of Neutrinos pass through human body every second. Which of the statements given above are correct ? (A) 1 and 3 only (B) 1, 2 and 3 only (C) 2, 3 and 4 (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4 35. The ‘Instrument of Instructions’ contained in the Government of India Act 1935 have been incorporated in the Constitution of India in the year 1950 as— (A) Fundamental Rights (B) Directive Principles of State Policy (C) Extent of Executive Power of State (D) Conduct of Business of the Government of India 36. Hydrogen fuel cell vehicles produce one of the following as ‘exhaust’— (A) NH3 (B) CH4 (C) H2O (D) H2O2 37. Recently, LASIK (Laser Assisted in situ Keratomileusis) procedure is being made popular for vision correction. Which one of


(C) Global terrorism and prepare a global action plan for the mitigation of terrorism (D) Expansion of the United Nations Security Council in the present global scenario 47. With reference to the mineral resources of India, consider the following pairs : Mineral 90% Natural sources in 1. 2. 3. Copper Nickel Tungsten —Jharkhand —Orissa —Kerala

51. With reference to Simon Commission’s recommendations, which one of the following statements is correct ? (A) It recommended the replacement of diarchy with responsible government in the provinces (B) It proposed the setting up of inter-provincial council under the Home Department (C) It suggested the abolition of bicameral legislature at the Centre (D) It recommended the creation of Indian Police Service with a provision for increased pay and allowances for British recruits as compared to Indian recruits 52. Four resolutions were passed at the famous Calcutta session of Indian National Congress in 1906. The question of either retention OR of rejection of these four resolutions became the cause of a split in Congress at the next Congress session held in Surat in 1907. Which one of the following was not one of those resolutions ? (A) Annulment of partition of Bengal (B) Boycott (C) National education (D) Swadeshi 53. Two numbers X and Y are respectively 20% and 28% less than a third number Z. By what percentage is the number Y less than the number X ? (A) 8% (B) 9% (C) 10% (D) 12% 54. After Quit India Movement, C. Rajagopalachari issued a pamphlet entitled ‘The Way Out’. Which one of the following was a proposal in this pamphlet ? (A) The establishment of a ‘War Advisory Council’ composed of representatives of British India and the Indian States (B) Reconstitution of the Central Executive Council in such a way that all its members, except the Governor General and the Commander-in-Chief should be Indian leaders (C) Fresh elections to the Central and Provincial Legislatures to be

held at the end of 1945 and the Constitution making body to be convened as soon as possible (D) A solution for the constitutional deadlock 55. There are only two known examples of cave paintings of the Gupta period in ancient India. One of these is paintings of Ajanta caves. Where is the other surviving example of Gupta paintings ? (A) Bagh caves (B) Ellora caves (C) Lomas Rishi cave (D) Nasik caves 56. The United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) is an international treaty drawn at— (A) United Nations Conference on the Human Environment, Stockholm, 1972 (B) UN Conference on Environment and Development, Rio de Janeiro, 1992 (C) World Summit on Sustainable Development, Johannesburg, 2002 (D) UN Climate Change Conference, Copenhagen, 2009 57. Which bacterial strain, developed from natural isolates by genetic manipulations, can be used for treating oil spills ? (A) Agrobacterium (B) Clostridium (C) Nitrosomonas (D) Pseudomonas 58. Which feature of some species of blue-green algae helps promote them as bio-fertilizers ? (A) They convert atmospheric methane into ammonia which the crop plants can absorb readily (B) They induce the crop plants to produce the enzymes which help convert atmospheric nitrogen to nitrates (C) They have the mechanism to convert atmospheric nitrogen into a form that the crop plants can absorb readily (D) They induce the roots of the crop plants to absorb the soil nitrates in larger quantities

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched ? (A) (B) (C) (D) 1 and 2 only 2 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3

48. As regards the use of international food safety standards as reference point for the dispute settlements, which one of the following does WTO collaborate with ? (A) Codex Alimentarius Commission (B) International Federation of Standards Users (C) International Organisation for Standardization (D) World Standards Cooperation 49. An objective of the National Food Security Mission is to increase the production of certain crops through area expansion and productivity enhancement in a sustainable manner in the identified districts of the country. What are those crops ? (A) Rice and wheat only (B) Rice, wheat and pulses only (C) Rice, wheat, pulses and oilseeds only (D) Rice, wheat, pulses, oilseeds and vegetables 50. In India, the interest rate on savings accounts in all the nationalized commercial banks is fixed by— (A) Union Ministry of Finance (B) Union Finance Commission (C) Indian Banks’ Association (D) None of the above


59. India is a party to the Ramsar Convention and has declared many areas as Ramsar Sites. Which of the following statements best describes as to how we should maintain these sites in the context of this Convention ? (A) Keep all the sites completely inaccessible to man to that they will not be exploited (B) Conserve all the sites through ecosystem approach and permit tourism and recreation only (C) Conserve all the sites through ecosystem approach for a period without any exploitation, with specific critieria and specific period for each site, and then allow sustainable use of them by future generations (D) Conserve all the sites through ecosystem approach and allow their simultaneous sustainable use 60. Other than Jatropha curcas, why is Pongamia pinnata also considered a good option for the production of bio-diesel in India ? 1. Pongamia pinnata grows naturally in most of the arid regions of India. 2. The seeds of Pongamia pinnata are rich in lipid content of which rearly half is oleic acid. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? (A) 1 only (B) 2 only (C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2 61. Due to their extensive rice cultivation, some regions may be contributing to global warming. To what possible reason/reasons is this attributable ? 1. The anaerobic conditions associated with rice cultivation cause the emission of methane. 2. When nitrogen based fertilizers are used, nitrous oxide is emitted from the cultivated soil. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? (A) 1 only (B) 2 only

(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2 62. Sustainable development is described as the development that meets the needs of the present without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own needs. In this perspective, inherently the concept of sustainable development is intertwined with which of the following concepts ? (A) Social justice and empowerment (B) Inclusive Growth (C) Globalization (D) Carrying capacity 63. Given below are the names of four energy crops. Which one of them can be cultivated for ethanol ? (A) Jatropha (B) Maize (C) Pongamia (D) Sunflower

(D) They have remained in that particular stage of evolution as living fossils, a link between autotrophs and heterotrophs 66. A person travelled a distance of 50 km in 8 hours. He covered a part of the distance on foot at the rate of 4 km per hour and a part on a bicycle at the rate of 10 km per hour. How much distance did he travel on foot ? (A) 10 km (B) 20 km (C) 30 km (D) 40 km 67. In the context of governance, consider the following : 1. 2. 3. 4. Encouraging Foreign Direct Investment inflows. Privatization of higher educational Institutions. Down-sizing of bureaucracy. Selling/offloading the shares of Public Sector Undertakings.

64. Consider the following pairs : (A) 1, 2 and 3 Protected Well-known (B) 2, 3 and 4 area for (C) 1, 2 and 4 1. Bhiterkanika, Orissa (D) 3 and 4 only —Salt Water Crocodile 2. Desert National Park, 68. As per the UN-Habitat’s Global Rajasthan Report on Human Settlements 2009, which one among the —Great Indian Bustard following regions has shown the 3. Eravikulam, Kerala fastest growth rate of urbani—Hoolak Gibbon zation in the last three decades ? Which of the pairs given above (A) Asia is/are correctly matched ? (B) Europe (A) 1 only (C) Latin America and Carib(B) 1 and 2 only bean (C) 2 only (D) North America (D) 1, 2 and 3 69. In India, which type of forest 65. Some species of plants are insecamong the following occupies tivorous. Why ? the largest area ? (A) Their growth in shady and (A) Montane Wet Temperate dark places does not allow them Forest to undertake sufficient photo(B) Sub-tropical Dry Evergreen synthesis and thus they depend Forest on insects for nutrition (C) Tropical Moist Deciduous (B) They are adapted to grow in Forest nitrogen deficient soils and thus (D) Tropical Wet Evergreen depend on insects for sufficient Forest nitrogenous nutrition (C) They cannot synthesize 70. Inclusive growth as enunciated certain vitamins themselves and in the Eleventh Five Year Plan depend on the insects digested does not include o n e of the by them following—

Which of the above can be used as measures to control the fiscal deficit in India ?


(A) Reduction of poverty (B) Extension of employment opportunities (C) Strengthening of capital market (D) Reduction of gender inequality 71. How many numbers from 0 to 999 are not divisible by either 5 or 7 ? (A) 313 (B) 341 (C) 686 (D) 786 72. Tamil Nadu is a leading producer of mill-made cotton yarn in the country. What could be the reason ? 1. Black cotton soil is the predominant type of soil in the State. 2. Rich pool of skilled labour is available. Which of the above is/are the correct reasons ? (A) 1 only (B) 2 only (C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2 73. Consider the following statements : 1. On the planet Earth, the fresh water available for use amounts to about less than 1% of the total water found. 2. Of the total fresh water found on the planet Earth 95% is bound up in polar ice caps and glaciers. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? (A) 1 only (B) 2 only (C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2 74. Which one of the following reflects back more sunlight as compared to other three ? (A) Sand desert (B) Paddy crop land (C) Land covered with fresh snow (D) Prairie land 75. Rivers that pass through Himachal Pradesh are— (A) Beas and Chenab only (B) Beas and Ravi only (C) Chenab, Ravi and Satluj only

(D) Beas, Chenab, Ravi, Satluj and Yamuna 76. Who of the following shall cause every recommendation made by the Finance Commission to be laid before each House of Parliament ? (A) The President of India (B) The Speaker of Lok Sabha (C) The Prime Minister of India (D) The Union Finance Minister 77. Which one of the following is responsible for the preparation and presentation of Union Budget to the Parliament ? (A) Department of Revenue (B) Department of Economic Affairs (C) Department of Financial Services (D) Department of Expenditure 78. In a group of five persons A, B, C, D and E, there is a professor, a doctor and lawyer. A and D are unmarried ladies, and do not work. Of the married couple in the Group, E is the husband. B is the brother of A and is neither a doctor nor a lawyer. Who is the professor ? (A) B (B) C (C) A (D) Cannot be determined with the available data 79. Consider the following actions by the Government : 1. Cutting the tax rates. 2. Increasing the government spending. 3. Abolishing the subsidies In the context of economic recession, which of the above actions can be considered a part of the ‘fiscal stimulus’ package ? (A) 1 and 2 only (B) 2 only (C) 1 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3 80. Half of the villagers of a certain village have their own houses. One-fifth of the villagers cultivate paddy. One-third of the villagers are literate. Four-fifth of the villagers are below twenty five. Then, which one of the following is certainly true ?

(A) All the villagers who have their own houses are literate (B) Some villagers under twenty five are literate (C) A quarter of the villagers who have their own houses cultivate paddy (D) Half of the villagers who cultivate paddy are literate 81. When the Reserve Bank of India announces an increase of the Cash Reserve Ratio, what does it mean ? (A) The commercial banks will have less money to lend (B) The Reserve Bank of India will have less money to lend (C) The Union Government will have less money to lend (D) The commercial banks will have more money to lend 82. Who among the following Governor Generals created the Covenanted Civil Service of India which later came to be known as the Indian Civil Service ? (A) Warren Hastings (B) Wellesley (C) Cornwallis (D) William Bentinck 83. What was the immediate cause for the launch of the Swadeshi movement ? (A) The partition of Bengal done by Lord Curzon (B) A sentence of 18 months rigorous imprisonment imposed on Lokmanya Tilak (C) The arrest and deportation of Lala Lajpat Rai and Ajit Singh; and passing of the Punjab Colonization Bill (D) Death sentence pronounced on the Chapekar brothers 84. Consider the following statements : 1. Dr. Rajendra Prasad persuaded Mahatma Gandhi to come to Champaran to investigate the problem of peasants. Acharya J. B. Kriplani was one of Mahatma Gandhi’s colleagues in his Champaran investigation.



Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? (A) 1 only (B) 2 only (C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2 85. By a regulation in 1793, the District Collector was deprived of his judicial powers and made the collecting agent only. What was the reason for such regulation ? (A) Lord Cornwallis felt that the District Collector’s efficiency of revenue collection would enormously increase without the burden of other work (B) Lord Cornwallis felt that Judicial power should compulsorily be in the hands of Europeans while Indians can be given the job of revenue collec-tion in the districts (C) Lord Cornwallis was alarmed at the extent of power concentrated in the District Collector and felt that such absolute power was undesirable in one person (D) The judicial work demanded a deep knowledge of India and a good training in law and Lord Cornwallis felt that District Collector should be only a revenue collector 86. With reference to India, consider the following statements : 1. The Wholesale Price Index (WPI) in India is available on a monthly basis only. 2. As compared to Consumer Price Index for Industrial Workers [CPI(IW)], the WPI gives less weight to food articles. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? (A) 1 only (B) 2 only (C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2 87. Each person’s performance compared with all other persons is to be done to rank them subjectively. How many comparisons are needed in total, if there are 11 persons ? (A) 66 (B) 55 (C) 54 (D) 45

88. What is the principle by which a cooling system (Radiator) in a motor car works ? (A) Conduction only (B) Convection (C) Radiation only (D) Both conduction and radiation 89. Which among the following do/ does not belong/belongs to the GSM family of wireless technologies ? (A) EDGE (B) LTE (C) DSL (D) Both EDGE and LTE 90. With reference to the treatment of cancerous tumours, a tool called cyberknife has been making the news. In this context, which one of the following statements is not correct ? (A) It is a robotic image guided, system (B) It delivers an extremely precise dose of radiation (C) It has the capability of achieving sub-millimetre accuracy (D) It can map the spread of tumour in the body 91. When you travel in certain parts of India, you will notice red soil. What is the main reason for this colour ? (A) Abundance of magnesium (B) Accumulated humus (C) Presence of ferric oxides (D) Abundance of phosphates 92. Which one of the following is the appropriate reason for considering the Gondwana rocks as most important of rock systems of India ? (A) More than 90% of limestone reserves of India are found in them (B) More than 90% of India’s coal reserves are found in them (C) More than 90% of fertile black cotton soils are spread over them (D) None of the reasons given above is appropriate in this context 93. Which one of the following can one come across if one travels through the Strait of Malacca ?

(A) (B) (C) (D)

Bali Brunei Java Singapore

94. With reference to the river Luni, which one of the following statements is correct ? (A) It flows into Gulf of Khambhat (B) It flows into Gulf of Kuchchh (C) It flows into Pakistan and merges with a tributary of Indus (D) It is lost in the marshy land of the Rann of Kuchchh 95. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched ? Dam/Lake River (A) Govind Sagar —Satluj (B) Kolleru Lake —Krishna (C) Ukai Reservoir —Tapi (D) Wular Lake —Jhelum 96. A geographic region has the following distinct characteristics : 1. Warm and dry climate. 2. Mild and wet winter. 3. Evergreen oak trees. The above features are the distinct characteristics of which one of the following regions ? (A) Mediterranean (B) Eastern China (C) Central Asia (D) Atlantic coast of North America 97. With reference to the National Rehabilitation and Resettlement Policy, 2007, consider the following statements : 1. This policy is applicable only to the persons affected by the acquisition of land for projects and not to the involuntary displacement due to any other reason. 2. This policy has been formulated by the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? (A) 1 only (B) 2 only (C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2


98. In the context of India’s Five Year Plans, a shift in the pattern of industrialization, with lower emphasis on heavy industries and more on infrastructure begins in— (A) Fourth Plan (B) Sixth Plan (C) Eighth Plan 102. (D) Tenth Plan 99. Two of the schemes launched by the Government of India for Women’s development are Swadhar and Swayam Siddha. As regards the difference between them, consider the following statements : 1. Swayam Siddha is meant for those in difficult circumstances such as women survivors of natural disasters or terrorism, women prisoners released from jails, mentally challenged women etc. whereas Swadhar is meant for holistic empowerment of women through Self Help Groups.

track of 11 km. Their speeds are 4, 5·5 and 8 kmph respectively. When will they meet at the starting point for the first time ? (A) (B) (C) (D) After 11 hours After 21 hours After 22 hours After 33 hours

(C) It is an assessment of programmes/schemes undertaken by different countries for improving the conservation of natural resources (D) It is an index showing the volume of carbon credits sold by different countries 105. Consider the following statements : 1. The Taxus tree naturally found in the Himalayas. 2. The Taxus tree is listed in the Red Data Book. 3. A drug called ‘taxol’ is obtained from Taxus tree is effective against Parkinson’s disease. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3

With reference to the Consumer Disputes Redressal at district level in India, which one of the following statements is not correct ? (A) A State Government can establish more than one District Forum in a district if it deems fit (B) One of the members of the District Forum shall be a woman (C) The District Forum entertains the complaints where the value of goods or services does not exceed rupees fifty lakhs

(D) A complaint in relation to any goods sold or any service provided may be filed with a 106. P, Q, R and S are four men. P is District Forum by the State the oldest but not the poorest. R Government as a representative is the richest but not the oldest. Q of the interests of the consumers 2. Swayam Siddha is impleis older than S but not than P or in general mented through Local Self R. P is richer than Q but not than Government bodies or 103. King Cobra is the only snake that S. The four men can be ordered reputed Voluntary Organimakes its own nest. Why does it (descending) in respect of age sations whereas Swadhar is make its nest ? and richness, respectively, as— implemented through the (A) It is a snake-eater and the (A) PQRS, RPSQ ICDS units set up in the nest helps attract other snakes (B) PRQS, RSPQ states. (B) It is a viviparous snake and (C) PRQS, RSQP Which of the statements given needs a nest to give birth to its (D) PRSQ, RSPQ above is/are correct ? offspring (A) 1 only 107. What causes wind to deflect (C) It is an oviparous snake and towards left in the Southern (B) 2 only lays its eggs in the nest and hemi-sphere ? (C) Both 1 and 2 guards the nest until they are (A) Temperature hatched (D) Neither 1 nor 2 (B) Magnetic field (D) It is a large, cold blooded 100. With reference to the United (C) Rotation of the earth animal and needs a nest to Nations Convention on the hibernate in the cold season (D) Pressure Rights of the Child, consider the following : 104. As a result of their annual 108. Indiscriminate disposal of used 1. The Right to Development. survey, the National Geographic fluorescent electric lamps causes Society and an international mercury pollution in the 2. The Right to Expression. polling firm Globe Scane gave environment. Why is mercury 3. The Right to Recreation. India top rank in Greendex 2009 used in the manufacture of these Which of the above is/are the score. What is this score ? lamps ? Rights of the child ? (A) (B) (C) (D) 1 only 1 and 3 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 (A) It is a measure of efforts made by different countries in adopting technologies for reducing carbon footprint (B) It is a measure of environmentally sustainable consumer behaviour in different countries (A) A mercury coating on the inside of the lamp makes the light bright white (B) When the lamp is switched on, the mercury in the lamp causes the emission of ultraviolet radiations

101. Three men start together to travel the same way around a circular


Which of the statements given (C) When the lamp is switched 113. The diameters of two circular above is/are correct ? on, it is the mercury which coins are in the ratio of 1 : 3. The converts the ultra-violet energy smaller coin is made to roll (A) 1 only into visible light around the bigger coin till it (B) 2 only returns to the position from (D) None of the statement given (C) Both 1 and 2 where the process of rolling above is correct about the use of (D) Neither 1 nor 2 started. How many times the mercury in the manufacture of smaller coin rolled around the 120. Among the following, who was fluorescent lamps bigger coin ? not a proponent of bhakti cult ? 109. If there were no Himalayan (A) 9 (B) 6 (A) Nagarjuna ranges, what would have been the most likely geographical (C) 3 (D) 1·5 (B) Tukaram impact on India ? (C) Tyagaraja 114. The difference between the 1. Much of the country would simple interest received from (D) Vallabhacharya experience the cold waves two banks on Rs. 500 for two 121. For the Karachi session of Indian from Siberia. years is Rs. 2·50. What is the National Congress in 1931 pre2. Indo-gangetic plain would difference between their rates ? sided over by Sardar Patel, who be devoid of such extensive (A) 0·25% (B) 0·5% drafted the Resolution on Fundaalluvial soils. mental Rights and Economic (C) 1% (D) 2·5% 3. The pattern of monsoon Programme ? 115. When ten persons shake hands would be different from (A) Mahatma Gandhi with one another, in how many what it is at present. (B) Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru ways is it possible ? Which of the statements given (C) Dr. Rajendra Prasad (A) 20 (B) 25 above is/are correct ? (D) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar (A) 1 only (C) 40 (D) 45 (B) 1 and 3 only 116. A candidate attempted 12 ques- 122. Who among the following were (C) 2 and 3 only official Congress negotiators tions and secured full marks in with Cripps Mission ? (D) 1, 2 and 3 all of them. If he obtained 60% in (A) Mahatma Gandhi and 110. In the context of space techthe test and all questions carried Sardar Patel nology, what is ‘Bhuvan’, equal marks, then what is the recently in the news ? (B) Acharya J. B. Kripalani and number of questions in the test ? C. Rajagopalachari (A) A mini satellite launched by (A) 36 (B) 30 ISRO for promoting the distance (C) Pandit Nehru and Maulana (C) 25 (D) 20 education in India Azad (B) The name given to the next 117. In how many ways can four (D) Dr. Rajendra Prasad and children be made to stand in a Moon Impact Probe, for Rafi Ahmed Kidwai line such that two of them, A and Chandrayaan-II B are always together ? 123. Which one of the following (C) A geoportal of ISRO with processes in the bodies of living (A) 6 (B) 12 3D imaging capabilities of India organisms is a digestive pro(C) 18 (D) 24 (D) A space telescope developed cess ? by India 118. In a meeting, the map of a village (A) Breakdown of proteins into was placed in such a manner that 111. The latitudes that pass through amino acids south-east becomes north, northSikkim also pass through— (B) Breakdown of glucose into east becomes west and so on. (A) Rajasthan CO2 and H2 O What will south become ? (B) Punjab (C) Conversion of glucose into (A) North (C) Himachal Pradesh glycogen (B) North-east (D) Jammu & Kashmir (D) Conversion of amino acids (C) North-west 112. A man fills a basket with eggs in into proteins (D) West such a way that the number of 124. From the point of view of eggs added on each successive 119. Consider the following stateevolution of living organisms, day is the same as the number ments : which one of the following is the already present in the basket. 1. The ‘Bombay Manifesto’ correct sequence of evolution ? This way the basket gets comsigned in 1936 openly (A) Otter-Tortoise-Shark pletely filled in 24 days. After opposed the preaching of (B) Shark-Tortoise-Otter how many days the basket was socialist ideals. (C) Tortoise-Shark-Otter 1 2. It evoked support from a th full ? (D) Shark-Otter-Tortoise 4 large section of business (A) 6 (B) 12 125. Consider the following statecommunity from all across ments : (C) 17 (D) 22 India.


(C) An infected mother can 132. In the context of bilateral trade Hepatitis B is several times negotiations between India and transmit the infection to her baby more infectious than HIV/ European Union, what is the during pregnancy, at childbirth AIDS difference between European and by breast feeding 2. Hepatitis B can cause liver Commission and European (D) The risk of contracting cancer. Council ? infection from transfusion of Which of the statements given infected blood is much higher 1. European Commission above is/are correct ? than an exposure to contamirepresents the EU in trade (A) 1 only nated needle negotiations whereas Euro(B) 2 only 129. What are the possible limitations pean Council participates in (C) Both 1 and 2 of India in mitigating the global the legislation of matters (D) Neither 1 nor 2 warming at present and in the pertaining to economic poliimmediate future ? 126. Excessive release of the pollutant cies of the European Union. carbon monoxide (CO) into the 1. Appropriate alternate tech2. European Commission air may produce a condition in nologies are not sufficiently comprises the Heads of State which oxygen supply in the available. or government of member human body decreases. What 2. India cannot invest huge countries whereas the causes this condition ? funds in research and deveEuropean Council comprises (A) When inhaled into the lopment. of the persons nominated by human body, CO is converted 3. Many developed countries European Parliament. into CO2 have already set up their Which of the statements given (B) The inhaled CO has much polluting industries in India. above is/are correct ? higher affinity for haemoglobin Which of the statements given (A) 1 only as compared to oxygen above is/are correct ? (B) 2 only (C) The inhaled CO destroys the (A) 1 and 2 only chemical structure of haemo(C) Both 1 and 2 (B) 2 only globin (D) Neither 1 nor 2 (C) 1 and 3 only (D) The inhaled CO Adversely (D) 1, 2 and 3 133. The approximate representation affects the respiratory centre in of land use classification in India 130. Consider the following statethe brain is— ments : 127. Consider the following state1. The Commonwealth has no (A) Net area sown 25%; forests ments : charter, treaty or constitu33%; other areas 42% tion. 1. Every individual in the (B) Net area sown 58%; forests population is equally sus2. All the territories/countries 17%; other areas 25% ceptible host for Swine Flu. once under the British (C) Net area sown 43%; forests empire (jurisdiction/rule/ 2. Antibiotics have no role in 29%; other areas 28% mandate) automatically the primary treatment of (D) Net area sown 47%; forests joined the Commonwealth Swine Flu. 23%; other areas 39% as its members. 3. To prevent the future spread Which of the statements given 134. With reference to the National of Swine Flu in the epidemic above is/are correct ? area, the swine (pigs) must Investment Fund to which the (A) 1 only all be culled. disinvestment proceeds are (B) 2 only routed, consider the following Which of the statements given statements : (C) Both 1 and 2 above is/are correct ? (D) Neither 1 nor 2 (A) 1 and 2 only 1. The assets in the National Investment Fund are mana(B) 2 only 131. Examine the following stateged by the Union Ministry ments : (C) 2 and 3 only of Finance. 1. All colours are pleasant. (D) 1, 2 and 3 2. The National Investment 2. Some colours are pleasant. 128. With regard to the transmission Fund is to be maintained 3. No colour is pleasant. of the Human Immunodeficiency within the Consolidated 4. Some colours are not Virus, which one of the following Fund of India. pleasant. statements is not correct ? 3. Certain Asset Management Given that the statement 4 is (A) The chances of transmission true, what can be definitely Companies are appointed as from female to male are twice as concluded ? the fund managers. likely as from male to female (A) 1 and 2 are true 4. A certain proportion of (B) The chances of transmission (B) 1 is false annual income is used for are more if a person suffers from (C) 2 is false financing select social other sexually transmitted (D) 3 is true sectors. infections 1.


Which of the statements given 139. What was the immediate reason 142. Consider the following statements : for Ahmad Shah Abdali to above is/are correct ? invade India and fight the Third The functions of commercial (A) 1 and 2 (B) 2 only Battle of Panipat ? banks in India include— (C) 3 and 4 (D) 3 only (A) He wanted to avenge the 1. Purchase and sale of shares 135. In India, which of the following expulsion by Marathas of his and securities on behalf of is regulated by the Forward viceroy Timur Shah from Lahore customers. Markets Commission ? (B) The frustrated governor of 2. Acting as executors and (A) Currency Futures Trading Jullundhar Adina Beg Khan trustees of wills. (B) Commodities Futures Tradinvited him to invade Punjab Which of the statements given ing (C) He wanted to punish above is/are correct ? (C) Equity Futures Trading Mughal administration for non(A) 1 only (D) Both Commodities Futures payment of the revenues of the (B) 2 only and Financial Futures Trading Chahar Mahal (Gujarat, (C) Both 1 and 2 Aurangabad, Sialkot and Pasrur) 136. Which one of the following is not (D) Neither 1 nor 2 (D) He wanted to annex all the a feature of Limited Liability fertile plains of Punjab up to the 143. In India, the tax proceeds of Partnership firm ? which one of the following as a borders of Delhi to his kingdom (A) Partners should be less than percentage of gross tax revenue 20 140. With reference to Pondicherry has significantly declined in the (B) Partnership and manage(now Puducherry), consider the last five years ? ment need not be separate following statements : (A) Service tax (C) Internal governance may be 1. The first European power to (B) Personal income tax decided by mutual agreement occupy Pondicherry were (C) Excise duty among partners the Portuguese. (D) Corporation tax (D) It is corporate body with 2. The second European power perpetual succession to occupy Pondicherry were 144. Which one of the following authorities makes recommenthe French. 137. With reference to the institution dation to the Governor of a State of Banking Ombudsman in India, 3. The English never occupied as to the principles for deterwhich one of the statements is Pondicherry. mining the taxes and duties not correct ? Which of the statements given which may be appropriated by (A) The Banking Ombudsman is above is/are correct ? the Panchayats in that particular appointed by the Reserve Bank (A) 1 only State ? of India (B) 2 and 3 only (A) District Planning Commit(B) The Banking Ombudsman (C) 3 only tees can consider complaints from (B) State Finance Commission (D) 1, 2 and 3 Non-Resident Indians having (C) Finance Ministry of that accounts in India 141. Why did Buddhism start declinState (C) The orders passed by the ing in India in the early medieval (D) Panchayati Raj Ministry of Banking Ombudsman are final times ? that State and binding on the parties con1. Buddha was by that time cerned considered as one of the 145. Consider the following state(D) The service provided by the ments : incarnations of Vishnu and Banking Ombudsman is free of thus became a part of In India, taxes on transactions in any fee Vaishnavism. Stock Exchanges and Futures Markets are— 138. With reference to India, consider 2. The invading tribes from the following : Central Asia till the time of 1. levied by the Union. last Gupta king adopted 1. Nationalization of Banks. 2. collected by the States. Hinduism and persecuted 2. Formation of Regional Rural Which of the statements given Buddhists. Banks. above is/are correct ? 3. Adoption of villages by 3. The Kings of Gupta dynasty (A) 1 only Bank Branches. were strongly opposed to (B) 2 only Buddhism. Which of the above can be consi(C) Both 1 and 2 dered as steps taken to achieve Which of the statements given (D) Neither 1 nor 2 the ‘financial inclusion’ in India ? above is/are correct ? 146. In India, during the last decade (A) 1 and 2 only (A) 1 only the total cultivated land for (B) 2 and 3 only (B) 1 and 3 only which one of the following crops (C) 3 only (C) 2 and 3 only has remained more or less (D) 1, 2 and 3 stagnant ? (D) 1, 2 and 3


(A) Rice (C) Pulses

(B) Oilseeds (D) Sugarcane

Answers with Hints

147. Consider the following statements : 1. The Union Government fixes the Statutory Minimum Price of sugarcane for each sugar season. 2. Sugar and sugarcane are essential commodities under the Essential Commodities Act. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? (A) 1 only (B) 2 only (C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2 148. With reference to Indian economy, consider the following statements : 1. The Gross Domestic Product (GDP) has increased by four times in the last 10 years. 2. The percentage share of Public Sector in GDP has declined in the last 10 years. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? (A) 1 only (B) 2 only (C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2 149. Consider the following which can be found in the ambient atmosphere : 1. Soot 2. Sulphur hexafluoride 3. Water vapour Which of the above contribute to the warming up of the atmosphere ? (A) 1 and 2 only (B) 3 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3 150. The International Development Association, a lending agency, is administered by the— (A) International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (B) International Fund for Agricultural Development (C) United Nations Development Programme (D) United Nations Industrial Development Organisation


Solved Paper

(Held on 7-3-2010)

(Based on Memory)
1. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word TRIBUNAL each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet ? (A) None (B) One (C) Two (D) Three (E) More than three 02. In a certain code DOWN is written as ‘5 @ 9 #’ and NAME is written as ‘# 6%3’. How is MODE written in that code ? (A) %653 (B) %@63 (C) %5@3 (D) %@53 (E) None of these 03. How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters LGEU using each letter only once in each word ? (A) None (B) One (C) Two (D) Three (E) More than three 04. If ‘R’ denotes ‘–’, ‘Q’ denotes ‘× ’, ‘W’ denotes ‘÷’ and ‘A’ denotes ‘+’, then— 42 W 7 R 8 A 6 Q 4 = ? (A) – 22 (B) – 168 (C) 22 (D) 28 (E) None of these 05. In a certain code THRIVES is written as SIUHRDU. How is SOULFUL written in that code ? (A) VPTKKTE (B) VPTKETK (C) TPVKKTE (D) TNRKMVG (E) None of these 06. The positions of how many digits in the number 59164823 will remain unchanged after the digits are rearranged in descending order within the number ? (A) None (B) One (C) Two (D) Three (E) More than three 07. Mohan walked 30 metres towards South, took a left turn and walked 15 metres. He then took a right turn and walked 20 metres. He again took a right turn and walked 15 metres. How far is he from the starting point ? (A) 95 metre (B) 50 metre (C) 70 metre (D) Cannot be determined (E) None of these 08. What should come next in the following letter series ? PQRSTABCDEPQRSAB CDEPQRSABCDPQ (A) R (B) T (C) A (D) B (E) None of these 09. In a certain code language, ‘how can you go’ is written as ‘ja da ka pa’; ‘can you come here’ is written as ‘na ka sa ja’ and ‘come and go’ is written as ‘ra pa sa’. How is ‘here’ written in that code language ? (A) ja (B) na (C) pa (D) Data inadequate (E) None of these 10. What should come next in the following letter series based on English alphabet ? CEA, IKG, OQM, ? (A) STW (B) WUS (C) SWU (D) UWS (E) None of these Directions—(Q. 11–15) In each of the questions below are given four statements followed by four conclusions numbered I, II, III and IV. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts. 11. Statements : Some trains are cars. All cars are branches. All branches are nets. Some nets are dresses. Conclusions : I. II. III. IV. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) Some dresses are cars. Some nets are trains. Some branches are trains. Some dresses are trains. Only I and III follow Only II and III follow Only I and IV follow Only II, III and IV follow None of these

12. Statements : All papers are clips. Some clips are boards. Some boards are lanes. All lanes are roads. Conclusions : I. II. III. IV. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) Some roads are boards. Some lanes are clips Some boards are papers. Some roads are clips. Only I and II follow Only I and III follow Only I, II and III follow Only II , III and IV follow None of these

13. Statements : Some pencils are kites. Some kites are desks. All desks are jungles. All jungles are mountains. Conclusions : I. Some mountains are pencils. II. Some jungles are pencils. III. Some mountains are desks. IV. Some jungles are kites.


(A) Only I and III follow (B) Only I, II and III follow (C) Only III and IV follow (D) Only II, III and IV follow (E) None of these 14. Statements : All stones are hammers. No hammer is ring. Some rings are doors. All doors are windows. Conclusions : I. Some windows are stones. II. Some windows are rings III. No window is stone IV. Some rings are stones. (A) Only I follows (B) Only II follows (C) Only III follows (D) Only either I or III follows (E) Only either I or III and II follow 15. Statements : All pens are clocks. Some clocks are tyres. Some tyres are wheels. Some wheels are buses. Conclusions : I. II. III. IV. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) Some buses are tyres. Some wheels are clocks. Some wheels are pens. Some buses are clocks. None follows Only I follows Only II follows Only III follows Only IV follows

17. Who is third to the right of K ? (A) F (B) E (C) G (D) Data inadequate (E) None of these 18. What is E’s position with respect to B ? (A) Second to the left (B) Third to the right (C) Fourth to the right (D) Third to the left (E) Fifth to the right 19. Who is fourth to the left of G ? (A) C (B) A (C) D (D) K (E) Data inadequate 20. In which of the following combinations is the third person sitting between the first and the second persons ? (A) GFB (B) BGH (C) ADC (D) KEC (E) EGF Directions—(Q. 21–25) In the following questions, the symbols δ, @, ©, % and ★ are used with the following meaning as illustrated below : ‘P © Q’ means ‘P is not smaller than Q’ ‘P % Q’ means ‘P is neither smaller than nor equal to Q’ ‘P ★ Q’ means ‘P is neither greater than nor equal to Q’ ‘P δ Q’ means ‘P is not greater than Q’ ‘P @ Q’ means ‘P is neither greater than nor smaller than Q’ Now in each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the three conclusions I, II, III and IV given below them is/are definitely true and give your answer accordingly. 21. Statements : D δ T, T @ R, R © M, M % K Conclusions : I. R@D II. R % D III. K ★ T IV. M δ T

(A) Only either I or II is true (B) Only III and IV are true (C) Only either I or II and III are true (D) Only either I or II and IV are true (E) Only either I or II and III and IV are true 22. Statements : J @ F, F δ N, N % H, H © G Conclusions : I. G★N II. N © J III. F ★ J IV. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) JδG Only I and II are true Only I, II and III are true Only II, III and IV are true All I, II, III and IV are true None of these

23. Statements : R ★ K, K % D, D @ V, V δ M Conclusions : I. R★D II. V ★ R III. D @ M IV. M % D (A) None is true (B) Only III is true (C) Only IV is true (D) Only either III or IV is true (E) Only either III or IV and II are true 24. Statements : B © T, T ★ R, R % F, F @ K Conclusions : I. B%R II. F ★ T III. R % K IV. K ★ T (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) None is true Only I is true Only II is true Only III is true Only IV is true

Directions—(Q. 16–20) Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below : A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H and K are sitting around a circle facing the centre. F is fourth to the right of A who is third to the right of B. K is fourth to the left of B and third to the right of D. C is third to the right of H. E is second to the left of G. 16. Who is to the immediate right of F? (A) B (B) G (C) E (D) Data inadequate (E) None of these

25. Statements : F % N, N © W, W δ Y, Y ★ T Conclusions : I. F%W II. T % N III. N % Y IV. T % W


(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Only I and III are true Only I and IV are true Only II and III are true Only I, II and IV are true None of these

Directions—(Q. 26–30) In making decisions about important questions, it is desirable to be able to distinguish between ‘strong’ arguments and ‘weak’ arguments. ‘Strong’ arguments are those which are both important and directly related to the question. ‘Weak’ arguments are those which are of minor importance and also may not be directly related to the question or may be related to a trivial aspect of the question. Each question below is followed by three arguments numbered (I), (II) and (III). You have to decide which of the arguments is a ‘strong’ argument and which is a ‘weak’ argument. 26. Statement : Should there be complete ban on setting up of thermal power plants in India ? Arguments : I. Yes, this is the only way to arrest further addition to environmental pollution. II. No, there is a huge shortage of electricity in most parts of the country and hence generation of electricity needs to be augmented. III. No, many developed countries continue to set up thermal power plants in their countries. (A) None is strong (B) Only I is strong (C) Only II is strong (D) Only III is strong (E) Only either I or II is strong 27. Statement : Should road repair work in big cities be carried out only late at night ? Arguments : I. No, this way the work will never get completed. II. No, there will be unnecessary use of electricity. III. Yes, the commuters will face lot of problems due to repair work during the day. (A) None is strong (B) Only I is strong (C) Only III is strong

(D) Only II and III are strong (E) Only I and II are strong 28. Statement : Should all the deemed universities be derecognized and attached to any of the central or state universities in India ? Arguments : I. Yes, many of these deemed universities do not conform to the required standards of a full-fledged university and hence the level of education is compromised. II. No, these deemed universities have been able to introduce innovative courses suitable to the requirement of various industries as they are free from strict Govt. controls. III. Yes, many such universities are basically money spinning activites and education takes a backseat in these institutions. (A) Only I and II are strong (B) Only II and III are strong (C) Only I and III are strong (D) All I, II and III are strong (E) None of these 29. Statement : Should there be a cap on drawing groundwater for irrigation purposes in India ? Arguments : I. No, irrigation is of prime importance for food production in India and it is heavily dependent on groundwater in many parts of the country. Yes, water tables have gone d o w n to alarmingly low levels in some parts of the country where irrigation is primarily dependent on groundwater, which may lead to serious environmental consequences.

(C) Only I and III are strong (D) All I, II and III are strong (E) None of these 30. Statement : Should there be a restriction on the construction of high rise buildings in big cities in India ? Arguments : I. No, big cities in India do not have adequate open land plots to accommodate the growing population. Yes, only the builders and developers benefit from the construction of high rise buildings.


III. Yes, the Govt. should first provide adequate infrastructural facilities to existing buildings before allowing the construction of new high rise buildings. (A) Only II is strong (B) Only III is strong (C) Only I and III are strong (D) Only I is strong (E) None of these Directions—(Q. 31–35) In each question below is given a statement followed by three assumptions I, II and III. An assumption is something supposed or taken for granted. You have to consider the statement and the following assumptions and decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement. 31. Statement : The Govt. has decided to auction construction of highways to private entities in several blocks across the country on build-operate-transfer basis. Which of the following assumption(s) is/are implicit in the above statement ? I. An adequate number of private entities may not respond to the Government’s auction notification. II. Many private entities in the country are capable of constructing highways within reasonable time.


III. Yes, India just cannot afford to draw groundwater any further as the international agencies have cautioned India against it. (A) Only I and II are strong (B) Only II and III are strong

III. The Govt.’s proposal of build-operate-transfer may financially benefit the private entities.


(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Only I and II are implicit Only II and III are implicit Only II is implicit Only I and III are implicit None of these

III. The Govt. may not allow the apex body to implement its decision in all the colleges as it may lead to chaos. (A) None is implicit (B) Only I is implicit (C) Only II is implicit (D) Only III is implicit (E) Only I and II are implicit 34. Statement : Police authority cordoned off the entire locality for the entire day and stopped all vehicular movement for the visit of a top functionary of the government in view of the threat perception and advised all the residents in the area to limit their movement outside their dwellings. Which of the following assumption(s) is/are implicit in the above statement ? I. Police personnel may not be able to control the vehicular movement in the locality and may seek help from the armed forces. II. People living in the locality may move out of their houses for the day to avoid inconvenience.


The Govt. may take serious objection to the notice issued by the airline company.

32. Statement : Govt. has urged all the citizens to use electronic media for carrying out their daily activities, whenever possible, instead of using paper as the manufacture of paper requires the cutting down of a large number of trees causing severe damage to the ecosystem. Which of the following assumption(s) is/are implicit in the above statement ? I. Most people may be capable of using electronic media to carry out various routines. Most people may have access to electronic media for carrying out their daily routine activites.

III. Majority of the passengers may cancel their tickets and postpone their journey till the situation becomes normal. (A) None is implicit (B) Only I is implicit (C) Only II is implicit (D) Only III is implicit (E) Only I and III are implicit Directions—(Q. 36–40) Below is given a passage followed by several possible inferences which can be drawn from the facts stated in the passage. You have to examine each inference separately in the context of the passage and decide upon its degree of truth or falsity. Give answers— (A) if the inference is ‘definitely true’, i.e., it properly follows from the statement of facts given. (B) if the inference is ‘probably true’ though not ‘definitely true’ in the light of the facts given. (C) If the ‘data are inadequate’, i.e., from the facts given you cannot say whether the inference is likely to be true or false. (D) If the inference is ‘probably false’, though not ‘definitely false’ in the light of the facts given. (E) If the inference is ‘definitely false’, i.e., it cannot possibly be drawn from the facts given or it contradicts the given facts. The deterioration in the overall asset quality of banks—gross NonPerforming Assets (NPAs) are reportedly 27% higher at the end of December 2009 than at the end of December 2008—is not surprising. Any slowdown in growth is bound to trigger a rise in NPAs as more and more companies default on loan repayments. The effect would be pronounced when the slowdown coincides with a severe global recession. But for the restructuring of loans permitted by the Central Bank


III. People at large may reject the Govt.’s appeal and continue using paper as before. (A) Only I is implicit (B) Only II is implicit (C) Only I and II are implicit (D) Only III is implicit (E) None of these 33. Statement : The apex body controlling universities in the country has decided to revise the syllabus of all the technical courses to make them focussed towards the present needs of the industry thereby making the technical graduates more employable than they are at present. Which of the following assumption(s) is/are implicit in the above statement ? I. Technical colleges affiliated to different universities may not welcome the apex body’s decision and may continue with the same syllabus as at present. The industry may welcome the decision of the apex body and scale up their hiring from these colleges.

III. The Govt. functionary may request the police authority to lift the ban on movement of residents of the locality outside their dwellings. (A) None is implicit (B) Only I is implicit (C) Only II is implicit (D) Only III is implicit (E) Only II and III are implicit 35. Statement : The airlines have requested all their bonafide passengers to check the status of flight operations before leaving their homes as heavy fog is causing immense problems to normal flight operations. Which of the following assumption(s) is/are implicit in the above statement ? I. The majority of the air passengers may check the flight status before starting their journey to the airport.



on fairly generous terms, NPAs would have been still higher. Prudent banks that took care while sanctioning loans and then monitored the post-sanction disbursement diligently should be able to weather the crisis. But it is one thing to have NPAs rise because of a cyclical downturn, it is quite another to have NPAs would have been still higher. Prudent banks that took care while sanctioning loans and then monitored the post-sanction disbursement diligently should be able to weather the crisis. But it is one thing to have NPAs rise because of policy errors that are entirely within the realm of policymakers. And this is what we need to guard against. Excessively low interest rates skew the risk-reward equation by making projects that are actually not viable, appear viable—till interest rates reverse and the same projects cease to be viable ! It is now well established that long periods of unduly low interest rates encourage banks to take more risks. A low interest rate regime driven by an easy money policy rather than macroeconomic fundamentals leads to excessive expansion of credit. It incentivizes banks to take on more risk in search of higher returns and to misprice risk. 36. Low interest rate on credit reduces the capacity to absorb various unaccounted risk factors. 37. Bank’s NPAs occur only due to economic factors. 38. The Central Bank always allows banks to restructure their loans in the event of rise in NPAs. 39. Lower interest rate cycle projects commercially unviable projects as viable. 40. Higher NPAs indicate shortcomings in disbursement and followup of credit given by banks. Directions—(Q. 41–45) Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below : Following are the conditions for selecting Senior Manager-General Banking in a bank : The Candidate must : (i) have secured at least 60 per cent marks in Std. XII. (ii) have secured at least 55 per cent marks in Graduation in any discipline.

(iii) have secured at least 60 per cent marks in post-graduate degree/diploma in Management/Economics/Statistics. (iv) be at least 25 years and not be more than 35 years as on 1.3.2010. (v) have post qualification work experience of at least 2 years as General Banking Officer in a bank. (vi) have secured at least 50 per cent marks in written examination. (vii) have secured at least 40 per cent marks in Personal Interview. In the case of a candidate who satisfies all the above conditions except— (a) at (iii) above, but has secured at least 60 per cent marks in CA or ICWA, the case is to be referred to VP-Recruitment. (b) at (vii) above, but have secured at least 65 per cent marks in the written examination and at least 35 per cent marks in the personal interview, the case is to be referred to President-Recruitment. In each question below are given details of one candidate. You have to take one of the following courses of actions based on the information provided and the conditions and subconditions given above and mark the number of that course of action as your answer. You are not to assume anything other than the information provided in each question. All these cases are given to you as on 1.3.2010. Mark answers— (A) If the data provided are inadequate to take a decision. (B) If the case is to be referred to VP-Recruitment. (C) If the case is to be referred to President-Recruitment. (D) If the candidate is to be selected (E) If the candidate is not to be selected. 41. Shoan Majhi has secured 65 per cent marks in B.Sc. and 70 per

cent marks in M.Sc. Statistics. He has been working in a bank as generalist officer for the past three years after completing his post-graduation. He has secured 55 per cent marks in the written examination and 50 per cent marks in the personal interview. He was born on 8th July 1982. 42. Neeta Jaiswal was born on 2nd June 1980. She has been working in a bank as generalist officer for the past three years after completing her post-graduate degree in Economics with 60 per cent marks. She has secured 68 per cent marks in HSC and 58 per cent marks in B.Com. She has also secured 50 per cent marks in both the wirtten examination and personal interview. 43. Arindam Ghosh has been working in a bank as generalist officer for the past four years after completing his post-graduate diploma in management with 60 per cent marks. He has secured 50 per cent marks in the written examination and 40 per cent marks in the personal interview. He has also secured 70 per cent marks in Std. XII. He was born on 25th February, 1975. 44. Kesav Vora was born on 8th November 1978. He has secured 65 per cent marks in Std. XII and 60 per cent marks in graduation. He has secured 58 per cent marks in M.A. Economics and 60 per cent marks in ICWA. He has been working in a bank as generalist officer for the past two years after completing his education. He has also secured 50 per cent marks in the written examination and 45 per cent marks in personal interview. 45. Neha Salve has been working in a bank as generalist officer for the past four years after completing her post-graduate degree in Economics with 60 per cent marks. She has secured 60 per cent marks in both graduation and Std. XII. She was born on 24th August, 1979. She has secured 70 per cent marks in the written examination and 38 per cent marks in the personal interview.


Directions—(Q. 46–50) In each of these questions there are two sets of figures. The figures on the left are Problem Figures (four figures and one question-marked space) and those on the right are Answer Figures indicated by letter (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E). A series is established if one of the five Answer Figures in placed at the ‘question-marked space’. Question Figures form a series if they change from left to right according to some rule. The letter of the Answer Figure which should be placed in the question-marked space is the answer. All the five figures i.e., four Problem Figures and one Answer Figure placed in the question-marked space should be considered as forming the series. Study the following question. Problem Figures
? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Answer Figures

If we place the Answer Figure (D) in the question marked space it makes a series which indicates that one vertical line is added in each figure. So the answer is ‘(D)’. Note that if we go by only one aspect of ‘number of lines’, Answer Figure (C) may also fit in. So you have to consider all different aspects. Now solve the following questions. Problem Figures
46. ? (A) 47. ? (A) 48. ? (A) 49. ? (A) 50.
5 = 3 Z 3 U Z =

Answer Figures













= 3 U 6

Z 6 = U

Z 6 U =

= 6 Z U








3 =







Answers with Hints


Solved Paper

(Held on 22-11-2009)

Quantitative Aptitude
(Based on Memory)
Directions—(Q. 1–5) What should come in the place of question mark (?) in the following questions ? 1 5 5 1 01. 1 + 1 × 1 ÷ 6 = ? 4 9 8 2 (A) 17 (B) 27 (C) 42 (D) 18 23 (E) 1 36 02. If 289 = 17x (A) 16 , then x = ? (B) 8 2 (C) 32 (D) 5 (E) None of these

08. 5940 ÷ 28 ÷ 6 = ? (A) 40 (B) 35 (C) 46 (D) 52 (E) 27 09. 15·5% of 850 + 24·8% of 650 = ? (A) 295 (B) 330 (C) 270 (D) 375 (E) 220 10. 2230 = ? (A) 54 (C) 41 (E) 47

city in 6 hours. How much total unit of electricity will both AC and bulb consume in 8 days if they run 10 hours a day ? (A) 1280 units (B) 1528 units (C) 1248 units (D) 1520 units (E) 1620 units 16. What amount a man would have received on a principal of Rs. 4,000 after two years simple interest @ 5 p.c.p.a. ? (A) Rs. 4,161 (B) Rs. 5,200 (C) Rs. 4,400 (D) Rs. 4,100 (E) Rs. 4,190 17. Four years ago Shyam’s age was 3 times that of Ram. Four years 4 5 hence, Shyam’s age will be 6 times that of Ram. What is the present age of Shyam ? (A) 15 years (B) 20 years (C) 16 years (D) 24 years (E) 8 years 18. The average marks in Science subject of a class of 20 students is 68. If the marks of two students were misread as 48 and 65 of the actual marks 72 and 6 respectively, then what would be the correct average ? (A) 68·5 (B) 69 (C) 69·5 (D) 70 (E) 66 19. A school team has eight volleyball players. A five-member team and a captain will be selected out of these eight players. How many different selections can be made ? (A) 224 (B) 112 (C) 56 (D) 88 (E) None of these 20. A bus started its journey from Ramgarh and reached Devgarh in 44 minutes with its average speed of 50 km/hour. If the average speed of the bus is increased by 5 km/hour, how much time will it take to cover the same distance ?

(B) 59 (D) 37

03. 0·01 × 0·1 – 0·001 ÷ 10 + 0·01 = ? (A) 0·01009 (B) 0·0101 (C) 0·19 (D) 0·109 (E) 0·0109 04. If x% of 500 = y% of 300 and x% of y% of 200 = 60, then x = ? (A) 10 2 (C) 15 2 16 × 32 =? 9 × 27 × 81 (A) (C) (B) 20 2 (D) 30 2

Directions—(Q. 11 and 12) In the following number series only one is wrong. Find out the wrong number. 11. 8, 11, 17, 47, 128, 371, 1100 (A) 11 (B) 47 (C) 17 (D) 371 (E) 128 12. 1, 5, 13, 31, 61, 125, 253 (A) 1 (B) 5 (C) 31 (D) 61 (E) 125

(E) None of these 05.

() ()
2 3 2 3


(B) (D)


() ()
2 3 2 3



(E) None of these Directions—(Q. 6–10) What approximate value should come in place of question mark (?) in the following questions ? (Note : You are not expected to calculate the exact value.) 06. 23·999 × 9·004 × 16·997 = ? (A) 3200 (B) 4100 (C) 2700 (D) 3700 (E) 4500 7 4 2 07. 5 × 8 × 9 = ? 9 5 3 (A) 490 (B) 590 (C) 540 (D) 460 (E) 520

13. Aman’s expense is 30% more than Vimal’s expense and Vimal’s expense is 10% less than Raman’s expense. If the sum of their expenses is Rs. 6,447, then what would be the Aman’s expense ? (A) Rs. 2,200 (B) Rs. 2,457 (C) Rs. 1,890 (D) Rs. 2,100 (E) None of these 14. In a test, a candidate secured 336 marks out of maximum marks ‘x’. If the maximum marks ‘x’ were converted into 400 marks, he would have secured 192 marks. What were the maximum marks of the test ? (A) 700 (B) 750 (C) 500 (D) 650 (E) 800 15. An AC consumes 8 units of electricity in 30 minutes and a bulb consumes 18 units of electri-


(A) 40 minutes (B) 38 minutes (C) 36 minutes (D) 31 minutes (E) 49 minutes Directions—(Q. 21–25) In the following questions two equations numbered I and II are given. You have to solve both the equations and…… Give answer (A) x > y (B) x ≥ y (C) x < y (D) x ≤ y (E) x = y or the relationship cannnot be established 21. I. II. 22. I. II. 23. I. II. 24. I. II. 25. I. II. x2 – 1 = 0 y 2 + 4y + 3 = 0 x 2 – 7x + 12 = 0 y2 – 12y + 32 = 0 x 3 – 371 = 629 y 3 – 543 = 788 5x + 2y = 31 3x + 7y = 36 2x2 + 11x + 12 = 0 5y2 + 27y + 10 = 0 If

28. What is the total number of girls who have participated in group song and drama together ? (A) 192 (C) 184 (E) 175 29. What is the ratio between number of boys to the number of girls respectively who have participated in solo song ? (A) 1 : 2 (C) 4 : 3 (B) 2 : 1 (D) 3 : 2 (B) 196 (D) 168

only 40 marks and failed by 30 marks. What would be the maximum marks of test ? (A) 280 (B) 180 (C) 200 (D) 150 (E) 210 36. The length of a rectangular floor is twice its breadth. If Rs. 256 is required to paint the floor at the rate of Rs. 2 per square metres, then what would be the length of floor ? (A) 16 metre (B) 8 metre (C) 12 metre (D) 32 metre (E) 20 metre 37. Angle ‘A’ of the quadrilateral ABCD is 26 ° less than angle B. Angle B is twice angle C and angle C is 10° more than the angle D. What would be the measure of angle A ? (A) 104 ° (C) 56° (E) 106 ° 38. A number when subtracted by 1 7 of itself gives the same value as the sum of all the angles of a triangle. What is the number ? (A) 224 (C) 140 (E) 187 39. A man walked at a speed of 4 km/hr from point A to B and came back from point B to A at the speed of 6 km/hr. What would be the ratio between the time taken by man in walking from point A to B to point B to A respectively ? (A) 5 : 3 (C) 2 : 1 (E) 3 : 2 40. In every 30 minutes the time of a watch increases by 3 minutes. After setting the correct time at 5 a.m., what time will the watch show after 6 hours ? (A) 10:54 a.m (B) 11:30 a.m (C) 11:36 a.m (D) 11:42 a.m (E) 11:38 p.m Directions—(Q. 41–45) Study the following profile of Parliament carefully and answer the questions given below it. (B) 2 : 3 (D) 4 : 3 (B) 210 (D) 350 (B) 126 ° (D) 132 °

(E) None of these 30. What is the difference between the number of boys and girls who have participated in dance ? (A) 63 (C) 28 (B) 35 (D) 126

(E) None of these 31. The sum of four consecutive even numbers is 284. What would be the smallest number ? (A) 72 (C) 68 (E) 70 32. If (a – b)2 – (a + b)2 x = y – 4a (B) 74 (D) 66

Directions—(Q. 26–30) Study the information carefully to answer the questions that follows. In an annual function, 504 children participated. The ratio of number of girls to the number of boys is 5 : 3 respectively. Out of the total girls, 20% participated in dance and remaining girls participated in solo song, group song and drama in the ratio of 2 : 3 : 4 respectively. Twothird of the total boys participated in group song and remaining boys participated in solo song and dance in the ratio 4 : 5 respectively. 26. What is the approximate percentage of the boys who have participated in dance out of the total number of boys ? (A) 19% (C) 16% (E) 14% 27. What is the approximate percentage of the girls participated in solo song out of all the total participants ? (A) 11% (B) 15% (C) 6% (D) 20% (E) 18% (B) 23% (D) 27%

On simplifying the above mentioned equation, what will be the equation ? (A) xy = b (C) by = x (E) ay = x 33. 3 6 1 of of of a number = 54. 5 5 4 What is the number ? (A) 280 (C) 300 (E) 160 34. The average age of the family of five members is 24. If the present age of youngest member is 8 years, then what was the average age of the family at the time of the birth of the youngest member ? (A) 20 years (C) 12 years (E) 21 years 35. A candidate appearing for an examination has to secure 35% marks to pass. But he secured (B) 16 years (D) 18 years (B) 250 (D) 150 (B) bx = y (D) ab = x


Profile of Parliament in Year XXXX Total members in Parliament = 640 (490 from Lok Sabha and 150 from Rajya Sabha)
Lok Sabha (No. of Members) 280 180 30 490 435 55 348 42 75 25 300 45 60 85 Party Rajya Sabha (No. of Members) 90 45 15 150 120 30 85 20 35 10 50 19 11 70

Directions—(Q. 46–50) Study the following pie-charts carefully and answer the questions below it.

The entire fund that school gets from different sources is equal to Rs. 500 lakhs
15% , NGO s

(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Rs. 100 lakhs Rs. 110 lakhs Rs. 150 lakhs Rs. 140 lakhs None of these

A B Others Total SEX Males Females RELIGION Hindus Muslims Sikhs Christians PROFESSION Graduates Businessmen Educators Unknown

35% Donation

45% Govt. A gencies 5% Internal Source

50. What amount of the fund is acquired by the school from government agencies ? (A) Rs. 220 lakhs (B) Rs. 310 lakhs (C) Rs. 255 lakhs (D) Rs. 225 lakhs (E) None of these

Sources of Funds in School
20% School Maintenance 30% Payment

Answers with Hints

35% Reserved

15% Scholarship

Uses of Funds by School 46. What is the difference between the funds acquired by school from NGO’s and internal sources ? (A) Rs. 50 lakhs (B) Rs. 45 lakhs (C) Rs. 75 lakhs (D) Rs. 25 lakhs (E) None of these 47. If the school managed ‘school maintenance’ from the ‘government agencies’ fund only, then how much fund from government agencies would still left for other use ? (A) Rs. 120 lakhs (B) Rs. 150 lakhs (C) Rs. 110 lakhs (D) Rs. 95 lakhs (E) None of these 48. If scholarship has to be paid out of the donation fund, then what is the approximate per cent of donation fund used for this purpose ? (A) 43% (B) 53% (C) 37% (D) 47% (E) 32% 49. What is the total amount used by the school for payment ?

41. What is the approximate percentage of the Muslim members in Lok Sabha ? (A) 9% (B) 11% (C) 13% (D) 14% (E) 7% 42. In Rajya Sabha if 30 male members were replaced by 30 female members, then what is the ratio of male members to female members respectively ? (A) 3 : 1 (B) 3 : 2 (C) 1 : 3 (D) 2 : 3 (E) 2 : 1 43. What percentage of members in Parliament are businessmen ? (A) 8% (B) 20% (C) 30% (D) 18% (E) 10% 44. If all the ‘others’ party members of Lok Sabha join party ‘B’ then what would be the ratio between members of party ‘A’ to the members of party ‘B’ respectively ? (A) 3 : 2 (B) 6 : 5 (C) 4 : 3 (D) 7 : 6 (E) 4 : 5 45. Out of total members of party ‘B’ in Parliament, what percentage of the members belong to Rajya Sabha ? (A) 30% (B) 35% (C) 25% (D) 20% (E) 15%


Essay Contest

Independence of Indian Judiciary
—Naveen Shekhar

The governance of any country requires the making of laws, their execution and interpretation which is carried out by its three organs—the legislature, executive and the judi ciary respectively. A judiciary, aka the rule—adjudication department of the government, that is independent of and acting as a check on the arbitrary exeNaveen Shekhar rcise of legislative and executive power is an essential feature of a constitutional government. The judiciary settles disputes and interprets laws and the constitution. It protects individual’s rights, and is the guardian of laws and the constitution. It has also got the power of judicial review which has led to judicial activism in recent times. All this requires it to be independent and impartial. With the advent of the British rule in India, judicial system on the basis of Anglo-Saxon jurisprudence was introduced in India. The Royal Charter of the Charles II (1661), the Regulating Act (1773), the Indian High Courts Act of 1861 and the Act of 1935—all proved as milestones in the evolution of modern judicial system in India. The Supreme Court of India, the first fully independent Court for the country, was first set up under the 1950 Constitution. The Constitution also set up an integrated hierarchy of courts for a more parliamentary federal system compared to the Government of India Act, 1935. Thus, presently the entire judicature has been divided into three tiers. At the top there is a Supreme Court, below it is the High Court in the states and at the lowest position we get session courts.

tive and the executive power. It is the basic requisite for ensuring a free and fair society under the rule of law. The importance of the independence of the judiciary was long ago realised by the framers of our Constitution. The Constitution Assembly pondered at great length over the issue of independence of judiciary as well as scope of judicial review. It was felt that if the institution of the judiciary was to remain strong, it must be free from coercion and political influence. Dr. Ambedkar had opined, “There can be no difference of opinion in the House that our judiciary must be both independent of the executive and must also be competent in itself. And the question is how these two objects can be secured……” Why the need ?—The independence of the judiciary can be understood as the independence of the institution of the judiciary and also the independence of the judges who form a part of the judiciary. The basic need for the judicial independence rests upon some cardinal points. Justice H. R. Khanna once said, “When the light of law fails, judges are supposed to have some special vision like the third eye of Shiva……. They must solve enigmas that no other agency of the government has been able to solve……” Thus, judiciary acts as a watchdog by ensuring that all the organs of the state function within their respective areas and as per the provisions of the constitution. Secondly, judiciary is given the job to interpret the Constitution as per the Constitutional philosophy and norms. So it must be independent and self-competent for interpretation in such a way as to clear the ambiguity. Moreover, the judiciary is expected to deliver judicial justice, instead of partial or committed justice (i.e., without considering all aspects concomitant of a particular situation). That is why, it must act in an unbiased manner.

Constitutional Provisions for Ensuring Judicial Independence
The framers of the Indian Constitution gave great deal of thought to such issues as the independence of the courts and judicial review. Various provisions make it amply clear that the judiciary is beyond executive or legislative interference. Sir Gerald Brennan once noted, “judicial independence is at risk when future appointment or security of tenure is within the gift of the Executive.” This type of concern is clearly nullified in one important Constitution a provision where the judges of the Supreme Court and High Courts have been given the security of the tenure. Once appointed, they continue to hold the post till they reach the retirement age which is 65 years in the case of the Supreme Court Judges (Article 124(2)) and 62 years in the case of those of the High Courts (Article 217(1)). They can’t be removed during their tenure except on proved misbehaviour or incapacity. The procedure for removal is very difficult. The motion has to be passed by 2/3rd majority of both the houses of Parliament. Besides, the salaries and allowance of the judges are charged on the Consolidated Fund and are not subject to the vote of legislature. Also, Parliament can only add to the powers and jurisdiction of the Supreme Court but can’t curtail them. Both the Supreme Court and the High Courts have the power to punish any person for their contempt (Articles 129 and 215) as well. Article 211 restricts any type of discussion on conduct of judges in legislatures. In addition. Article 50 clearly provides for separation of the judiciary from the executive. One predominant aspect is the power of ‘judicial review.’ In the words of Ferguson and McHenry, “Judicial review is the power of a court to hold unconstitutional any law or official action that it deems to

Independence of the Judiciary
Judicial independence is the principle that the judiciary should be politically shielded from the legisla-


be in conflict with the basic law, or the Constitution.” The power to declare a law or an executive action invalid and ultra vires of the Constitution originated in the US in 1803 in Marbury vs. Madison case. The Supreme Court of India frequently exercises this power. Laws which violate the Constitution are wholly or partially declared void or unconstitutional by the judiciary owing to the fact that there’s a clear mention of judicial review in Article 13. One of the limits on judicial review has been the principle of locus standi, where only a person aggrieved shall have the right to move the court. However, in 1982, the Supreme Court in a judgement on the democratic rights of construction workers of the Asian Games granted the right of ‘Public Interest Litigation’ (PIL). Till date, the courts on several occasions have issued directions in PILs covering a wide spectrum such as pollution, road safety, illegal structures in VIP zones and what not.

As an aside, whenever there is a mention of judicial independence, there’s always a concern about its latent dangers and there arises the importance of judicial accountability. In 1993, a case against Justice Ramaswamy of the Supreme Court was investigated for financial improprieties during his tenure as chief justice of Punjab and Haryana High Court. The matter was heard by Parliament and it came close to a vote for impeachment when the then PM issued a party whip and gave an assurance of resignation of the judge in case the proceedings dropped. But, it didn’t happen and the judge completed his term. In recent times, some cases of judicial misconduct have been raised against Justice H. M. Punchhi and Justice Dinakaran among others. Hence we need a more standardized and stringent process for judicial impeachment of tainted judges.

The independence of Judiciary is one of the most important pillars on which democracy lies. The Indian Supreme Court enjoys wider powers than even its US counterpart which doesn’t deal with appeals in civil and criminal cases except the constitutional ones. The Indian Supreme Court has advisory functions also which the American doesn’t have. On top of it, the Supreme Court of India is a court of record. On the darker side, the lower judiciary in India is extremely corrupt. Instances of corruption in higher judiciary have also been becoming rather frequent. Judicial activism in its overuse can degenerate into politicization and corruption of the judiciary. Therefore judicial accountability and judicial independence have to work in tandem to serve the real purpose, because it is responsibility which automatically P.Darpan comes with independence.

Controversies and Judicial Accountability
Although every possible effort was made by the framers of our Constitution to ensure the independence and incorruptible functioning of judiciary, controversies have cropped up now and then. Controversies are generally related to the appointment of judges, court’s power to Veto Legislative and executive acts, and the limits of judicial activisim. For instance, till the seventies, there was an unbroken convention of appointing the seniormost judge of the Supreme Court as the CJI, since the Constitution is silent on procedure for the CJI appointment. In 1973, when Justice A. N. Ray was appointed as the CJI superseding three other senior judges, the government was blamed for interfering with the independence of judiciary. Similar controversies erupted in 1977 and 1978 also regarding the appointment of Justice Khanna and Justice Chandrachud respectively. Therefore, many have suggested that the appointment of the CJI should be finalised through a due process where sitting judges recommend a name, after forming a committees to the executive authority thereby ending political interference.

Test Your Knowledge
Answers with Hints



Debate Contest

Graduation should be the Minimum Educational Qualification for Members of Parliament and State Legislatures
In Favour
—Madhumita Choudhuri
Look at an advertisement for a job given in a newspaper and you will find written in bold letters ‘essential qualifications or eligibility criteria’. Depending on the requirement of the job, applications are invited from Madhumita Choudhuri graduates or post graduates or other degree and certificate holders. In fact graduation is the minimum qualification for securing any respectable job in the country. If merit forms the criteria for selection in every field why should MPs and MLAs be exempted from the requirement of possessing minimum educational qualifications. Is their job less important or is their task a simple one which does not require skill and capability ? Members of Parliament and state legislature are responsible for framing laws, representing their respective constituencies, criticising or approving government decisions, reviewing government policies, discussing and debating issues of national and international importance. Such responsibilities can be discharged by capable men and women. Education determines the capacity and ability of a person. Today it seems that anybody and everybody can become a member of Parliament or state legislature. In fact if you are eligible for nothing else you are still eligible to become a MP or MLA as you are not required to be even a graduate to contest in an election. If you are in the good books of your political bosses or are one of their relatives you can easily contest elections. It is true that in a democracy the people decide the fate of a candidate. If the member does not serve his/her constituency, he or she may be voted out in the next elections. But this may not always be true. In a country where poor voters are lured by money, frightened by muscle power, where candidates appeal for votes in the name of religion, caste and creed, it is possible that incapable and inefficient candidates may be re-elected in subsequent elections. If graduation is made the minimum qualification then only serious, dedicated and committed men and women will become MPs and MLAs. They will be elected from amongst educated, qualified youth who have chosen to serve the country rather than take up jobs as engineers, doctors and scientists. In a country such as ours which faces numerous challenges such as hunger, poverty, unemployment illiteracy it becomes even more important that we elect deserving candidates as members of Parliament and State Legislature. Introduction of the graduation criterion does not undermine the right of the voter in any way. In fact the electorate will be presented with a better choice of candidates who have the potential and ability to be elected as representatives. Thereafter the candidates will ultimately be judged by the voters themselves. Look at the spectacle that the country gets to witness every time the Parliament is in session. Members displaying bags of money, tearing away bills, shouting slogans, disrupting the proceedings of the house, sometimes they have to be thrown out at the orders of the presiding officer. And then some TV channel shows some MP/MLA hurling abuses or kicking someone. Is this kind of undignified behaviour expected from our honourable MPs and MLAs. If MPs and MLAs are elected from amongst the graduates of the country the situation is likely to improve. I am not alleging that uneducated or less educated persons cannot conduct themselves properly but simply that education teaches one to be humble and respectful even when one has acquired position, power and influence. Is it not necessary that members of the Parliament and state legislatures be aware of basic facts about the history, geography, economy, society and culture of the nation. If they are ignorant about relevant facts such as those which can be found in school text books how can we expect them to frame laws and policies for a nation as vast and with such diversities as ours. Is it sufficient to know one’s own constituency ? But the Parliament and state legislature legislates on subjects pertaining to the whole nation or the whole state. A thorough knowledge about the nation and its people is a must. A graduate member is likely to be more well-read and well-informed. At least he or she is in a better position and more capable of understanding issues of national and international importance. I am sure all of you will agree that education not only enhances knowledge but a person’s level of understanding as well. Here I will cite an instance from the civil nuclear deal discussion in the Parliament the year before last. A media channel asked some MPs outside the Parliament to give the full form for NSG (Nuclear Suppliers Group). Few of them could answer. In fact one of them said, ‘National Security Guards’ ! This kind of ignorance is expected from a layman but not from MPs and MLAs who are supposed to discuss and debate such issues. Today the general perception is that politics is a dirty business and educated youth prefer to stay away from it. Introducing the graduation criterion will encourage more educated youths to join politics and contest elections. This would be very healthy for our democracy. We must remember that ministers who manage important portfolios are appointed from amongst


members of the party with a majority in the Parliament. The Prime Minister is the head of this council of ministers. Now consider that the PM and other ministers are not even graduates. I am not talking about the symbolic aspect of having an undergraduate PM. But will such persons have the capacity, skills, knowledge and understanding for leading the nation. Will they be competent enough ? Governing such a vast country as ours is no trivial task. I do not believe that an undergraduate can possess the skills and knowledge to lead the country. Some may say that the bureaucrats are enough educated to look into the details of plans, policies and programmes so we can afford to have undergraduate MPs and MLAs. This is a lame excuse as the bureaucracy is supposed to work under the able leadership of the government and not the other way round. Corruption is rampant in our society. It is prevalent amongst educated as well as less educated sections. If graduation is made compulsory for MPs and MLAs then such men and women will contest elections who have given up highly paid jobs as doctors and engineers to become public representatives. One expects them to be less greedy for money. We also have a number of MPs and MLAs with criminal cases against them. Though we have both graduate and undergraduate MPs and MLAs falling into this category, the percentage is higher amongst undergraduates. Thus some of our criminal MPs and MLAs are likely to lose their seats if the criterion of graduation is introduced. Education also teaches a person to be broad-minded, liberal and tolerant. Sometimes our MPs and MLAs display a narrow minded atitude. A public representative ought to be a tolerant, liberal and progressive thinker.

per cent male MPs possess the same. This implies that about one fourth of our MPs are undergraduates. We can ensure that every single member of the Parliament and state legislature has a graduate degree by making graduation the minimum educational qualification for a MP and MLA. We may not be able to overcome all short-comings of the existing system but the graduation criterion will result in improvement of the standard of administration and governance in the country.

There are so many reasons because of which it would neither be wise nor just to make graduation minimum qualification in order to become member of Parliament or State Legislature. ● When people of India have already got the power to select their representatives based on certain attributes they possess, the argument to make graduation as minimum qualification to become member of Parliament and State Legislature ceases to exist. People do have the freedom to reject or approve any candidate based on their educational qualification. It would be unjust if we take this power from them which is their constitutional right. Just think of a situation where every candidate fighting an election is a graduate but involved in corruption or has a criminal background. Would this be a right option ? Certainly not. Literacy rate of our country is 64·8 per cent with males having 75·2 per cent and females lagging far behind at 53·7 per cent. People who advocate for graduation to be minimum educational qualification should realize that we cannot deny such a huge population the right to represent their people when they are not even literate, let alone the question of people being graduates. We all have witnessed whatever happened in Uttar Pradesh assembly when microphones, chairs, stationery and anything and everything that was found was thrown by our respected MLAs. It was indeed a shame and it degraded the honour and prestige of our Legislature. Were the people involved in this shameful incident having less qualification than graduation ? It is indeed a matter of concern that our polity is touching new lows day-by-day and so are the members of Parliament and State Legislatures. In order to get votes parties and its members play divisive politics based on sensitive issues like caste, religion, region, language, gender, etc.

—Mohd. Zia Ullah
India is world’s largest democracy and people of this country send their selected representatives through elections in Parliament at national level and State Legislatures at state level. In the 63 years of Indian Independence our polity has changed significantly and so are the members. To Mohd. Zia Ullah become a member of Parliament or State Legislatures there are few conditions which are needed to be fulfilled by the candidates like age, nationality, rationality, etc. There is an argument from lot of people that graduation should be the minimum educational qualification to become member of Parliament or State Legislatures, but would this be right ? 70 per cent of our population lives in villages and most people in rural areas are dependent on agriculture to earn their livelihood. Unfortunately most of them are devoid of even primary education let alone expecting them to be graduates. Can we deny farmers of our country who are feeding millions of people the right to represent their people in Parliament and State Legislatures just because they are not graduates. One does not need to be a graduate to understand the issues and problems of people or to be aware of what should be done for development and most importantly one does not need to be a graduate to be an honest person having good character.

Education is not the luxury of the rich but is the necessity of every individual. In the 15th Lok Sabha about 42 per cent women MPs and 46 per cent male MPs have a graduate degree. 32 per cent of women MPs have a post-graduate degree and 30


rather than issues of development, health, education. It is extremely unfortunate and rather strange that even members possessing good qualifications like that of being a graduate have not been able to deliver what has been expected from them. In such a situation it would be wrong and immature to expect something good by merely making graduation as a minimum educational qualification. ● Being a graduate does not tell anything about the character, social commitment or honesty of any person and it would be wrong to set a criterion for selection which cannot ensure that members would be honest, socially committed and have good character. Nobody can guarantee that members who are graduates would not get involved in corruption, dirty politics, money and muscle power game. It is important for us to understand and appreciate the fact that even people who are graduates have got a very limited knowledge of few subjects which they have studied. Leaving the intricacies of subjects one does not need to be an economist to understand demand and supply, one does not need to be an environmentalist to understand the importance of clean and green surroundings, one does not need to be an expert academician to understand that quality education should be provided to every child and so on. Women of our country have not been able to get their rightful share in Parliament and State Legislatures. With literacy rate of women being a dismal 53·7 per cent how can one expect them to get their rightful share if graduation is made the minimum educational qualification. A criterion which denies millions of women the right to represent their people is not only unjust but undemocratic. India is a developing nation but with a per capita income of Rs. 40,745 equivalent to $ 885 it can still be termed as an under-

developed nation. Certainly a country where 30 per cent of total population are living below poverty line how can one even imagine about making graduation as minimum qualification in Parliament and State Legislatures. There is a high percentage of people who inspite of living above the poverty line do not possess graduation as minimum educational qualification. In such a situation it would be grave injustice to millions of people to deny them their right to represent people in Parliament and State Legislatures. ● Over the years we have witnessed increase in corruption at the highest levels. Recently there was a case of ‘Cash For Vote’ in which few MPs came into the Parliament with bags full of Indian currency estimated in crores. What one can say to this ? It lowered the dignity of our Parliament and moreover the people of this nation. They could have easily gone to the chairperson of Lok Sabha and informed her but that was not the case. Did it happen because these MPs were not graduates ? Certainly not, it was a brazen show of dirty politics played in our country. One must understand and appreciate the fact that graduates and non-graduates both have got similar limitations, temptations being humans and by merely making graduation as minimum educational qualification we cannot ensure clean and healthy politics in our country. Just take the example of huge tribal population in India who are not even getting basic amenities of life let alone to expect them to be graduates when they even do not get basic primary education. Can we deny them the right to represent their people and address their issues, or we should ask some Madhu Koda or Shibu Soren to represent them. If this happens it would be an insult to the democratic setup of our country which gives every Indian the right to represent people in Parliament and State Legislatures.

Members of Parliament and State Legislature are representatives of people of India and if at all educational qualification of members is a concern it should be left to the people of India who have got the right to choose their representatives. It would be inappropriate to think of making graduation as minimum qualification when we are well aware with the level of education in our society and disparities in educational levels of urban and rural India. Today there is a need to make people realize that we need honest people with good social and political character as members of Parliament and State Legislatures, those who really care for general masses and address their grieviences and issues. We need to ensure that people who thrust their way into Parliament and State Legislatures using ‘Money and Muscle’ power are isolated. If at all anything needs to be done then it should be ensured that people having criminal background are kept away from Parliament and State Legislatures. People involved in corruption should be barred from contesting elections by making strict laws. People having more than one spouse or more than two children should not be allowed to contest elections. Instead of addressing these concerns we cannot restrict millions of people from becoming members of Parliament and State Legislatures based on educational qualification and give a free path to the so called ‘Intellectuals of our country.’ P.Darpan


Essay Competition
Topic : Independence of Indian Judiciary

Continued from Page 20
that both sides have agreed to hold the visit on November 7–10, just after the conclusion of the Congressional elections in the United States. Now that a set of dates is on the table, preparations have already begun with November 8 being planned as the day for official meetings. It is expected that Obama’s family will be accompanying him. Prime Minister Manmohan Singh had invited Obama to visit India in his first congratulatory telephonic conversation on November 12, 2008 after the latter won the historic election. He reaffirmed the invitation in his letter to Obama once he formally assumed office in January, 2009. Subsequently, on his visit to Washington as the first state guest of the Obama presidency last November, Singh announced that a “very warm welcome awaits him and his family in India.” Obama accepted the invitation and said he would be visiting India soon. Since then, the positive intent on both sides had sparked off speculation over dates as the White House tried to find a convenient timeframe.

Quiz Contest
Concentric Quiz (Union Territories Special) First Prize Winner
Roopal Namdev Bhopal M. P.–462 003

First Prize Winner
Naveen Shekhar S/o Sri A. K. Roy ‘At Millennium Sweet Hut’ Mahadeva, Siwan Bihar–841 226

Second Prize Winner
Neha Jindal D/o Sri Kapur Chand Jindal Bathinda Punjab

Second Prize Winner
Kanchan Pandey Haridwar Uttarakhand–247 667

Third Prize Winner
Achintya Banik C/o Dr. Sukanta Ghatak Kolkata West Bengal–700 037

Third Prize Winner
Niharita Srivastava D/o Dr. R. C. Srivastava Kanpur Uttar Pradesh

Debate Competition
Topic : Graduation should be the Minimum Educational Qualification for Members of Parliament and State Legislatures


Presidential Assent Council Revival


For the Topic
Madhumita Choudhuri C/o Pradip Kanti Choudhuri Kolkata West Bengal–700 051


Presidential assent has been given to the revival of Tamil Nadu Legislative Council. According to a notification issued on the gazette of the Union Government, the assent was given on May 18, 2010.

Mamta Sodha of Kaithal Successfully Climbs Mt. Everest
Mamta Sodha, a Dalit girl of Kaithal, Haryana made it to the Mt. Everest in May 2010. Her mother is a widow and Mamta, the eldest of five sibling is teaching at a college in Kurukshetra. Her achievement is not just a story of how a Dalit girl’s hardwork has paid off but also a mirror of the changing social landscape of small towns that nurture and support the dreams of sports persons. Mamta is a national level handball player. P.Darpan

Against the Topic
Mohd. Zia Ullah 415/357, Shahganj Allahabad Uttar Pradesh–211 003 Harshita Mittal D/o Sri S. P. Mittal Ajmer Rajasthan–305 001


(Current Affairs Special)
1. The politician Manuel Zelaya is associated with which of the following countries ? (A) Chile (B) Honduras (C) Haiti (D) Jamaica 2. Bogor Goals are associated with— (A) APEC (B) ASEAN (C) SAARC (D) NATO 3. The largest intergovernmental conference in the world outside UN is— (A) Non-Aligned Movement Meeting (B) Commonwealth Heads of Government Meeting (C) African Union Meeting (D) None of the above 4. Yulia Timoshenko is a known personality of— (A) Moldava (B) Lithuania (C) Ukrain (D) Costa Rica well (A) Iraq (C) Iran (B) Israel (D) Qatar (A) (B) (C) (D) Draupadi Chitralipi Geet Sarovar Mrugaya

9. Which of the following political parties is active in Northern Ireland ? (A) Sinn Fein (B) The Civic Democratic Party (C) Left-Ethical Democratic Network (D) National Coalition Party 10. Which of the following countries registered a growth rate of 8·7 per cent for 2009 ? (A) Bangladesh (B) China (C) Pakistan (D) Maldives 11. Indian state which became the first state in the country to achieve distinction of extending health insurance cover to all the Below Poverty Line families is— (A) Punjab (B) Tamil Nadu (C) Haryana (D) Karnataka 12. As per United Nations Development Programme Human Development Report 2009 India has been ranked among 182 countries on Human Development Index ? (A) 130th (B) 134th (C) 139th (D) 128th 13. As per the Economic Survey of India 2009-10, India’s position among the gold holding nations of the world is— (A) Seventh (B) Tenth (C) Ninth (D) Sixth 14. The first fully electrified district of India is— (A) Bangalore (B) Thiruvananthapuram (C) Palakkad (D) Hyderabad 15. Which of the following compositions was chosen for Sahitya Akademi Award 2009 in the category of Marathi language ?

16. India’s first commercial solar power plant has been established at— (A) Kochi (B) Awan village (C) Haridwar (D) Panagi 17. Which of the following sites has recently yielded the richest haul of Roman amphora sherds ever found from an Indo-Roman site on the Indian ocean ? (A) Beruthorapatti (B) Tezpur (C) Pattanam (D) Taregna village 18. ISSA stands for— (A) International Safety and Security Association (B) Indian Sensitive Security Agreement (C) India Specific Agreement Safeguard

5. The first woman President of Costa Rica is— (A) Yulia Timoshenko (B) Laura Chinchilla (C) Kaiane Aldorino (D) Herta Mueller 6. Sahara Greatest Indian Sportsperson award has been given to— (A) S. Dung Dung (B) Gautam Gambhir (C) Sachin Tendulkar (D) Prakash Padukone 7. Who among the following has been honoured with 24th Indira Gandhi Award for National Integration ? (A) Javed Akhtar (B) Mahesh Bhatt (C) Balraj Puri (D) Medha Patkar 8. Jundallah insurgents are fighting against—

(D) None of the above 19. Which of the following books is written by Peter Maass ? (A) Dynamics of Law and Justice (B) Not By Reason Alone : The Politics of Change (C) The Privileges (D) Crude World : The Violent Twilight of Oil 20. Under ICC Award 2009, Tilakratne Dilshan received— (A) Emerging Player of the Year Award (B) One Day Player of the Year Award (C) Affiliate Player of the Year Award (D) None of the above


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Mental Exerc se Exercise

Test Your Knowledge
1. Which of the following is known as the Act for the Good Government of India ? (A) Indian Councils Act 1861 (B) Government of India Act 1858 (C) Pitts India Act of 1784 (D) Government of India Act 1919 2. Which British Prime Minister announced a scheme of representation of the minorities which came to be known as Communal Award in 1932 ? (A) Ramsay Mac Donald (B) Clement Atlee (C) Winston Churchill (D) None of the above 3. Which of the following words was not added to the Preamble of the Constitution of India by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1976 ? (A) Sovereign (B) Socialist (C) Secular (D) Integrity 4. Which of the following Articles provides for securing for all citizens a uniform civil code throughout the territory of India ? (A) Article 44 (B) Article 45 (C) Article 46 (D) Article 47 5. Who said that Directive Principles are “aimed at furthering the goals of the social revolution or to foster this revolution by establishing the conditions necessary for its achievement ?” (A) (B) (C) (D) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar M. C. Chagla Granville Austin B. N. Rau (A) The 25th Constitutional Amendment Act (1971) (B) The 24th Constitutional Amendment Act (1971) (C) The 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act (1976) (D) None of the above 7. The provision of Contingency Fund of India has been made under— (A) Article 266 (B) Article 265 (C) Article 267 (D) Article 268 8. Who was the first scholar to use the term ‘Indus Civilization’ ? (A) John Marshall (B) Rakhal Das Bannerji (C) R. S. Bist (D) Dayaram Sahni 9. National Food for Work Programme was launched on— (A) November 20, 2004 (B) December 1, 2005 (C) November 14, 2004 (D) October 5, 2007 10. The recommendations of the 11th Finance Commission covered the period— (A) April 1, 2002 to March 31, 2007 (B) April 1, 2002 to March 31, 2005 (C) April 1, 2007 to March 31, 2012 (D) None of the above 11. Which of the following committees is associated with reforms in small industries ? (A) (B) (C) (D) K. L. Rekhi Committee R. Chelliah Committee Abid Hussain Committee None of the above (C) Arjun Award (D) Vyasa Samman 13. Who is known as the father of Sanskrit Grammar ? (A) (B) (C) (D) Panini Patanjali Kalidas None of the above

14. Who among the following is known as the Morning Star of Indian Renaissance ? (A) Swami Vivekanand (B) Raja Rammohan Roy (C) Acharya Vinoba Bhave (D) Rabindra Nath Tagore 15. Who among the following is the recipient of Dada Saheb Phalke Award ? (A) Javed Akhtar (B) Akkineni Nageshwar Rao (C) Manoj Kumar (D) Subhash Ghai 16. ‘Romancing with Life’ is a book written by— (A) Dilip Kumar (B) Debasheesh Dutta (C) Dev Anand (D) Hema Malini 17. Which of the following won women’s hockey Gold in Olympic Games 2008 ? (A) Holland (B) Australia (C) Germany (D) USA 18. Uranium Corporation of India is located in— (A) Mumbai (B) Delhi (C) Thiruvananthapuram (D) Jadugoda 19. Phylloquinone is the chemical name of— (A) Vitamin D (B) Vitamin E (C) Vitamin K (D) Vitamin C

6. By which of the following Constitutional Amendment Acts, was it provided that Parliament has the power to abridge or take away any of the Fundamental Rights by the enactment of Constitutional Amendment Acts ?

12. Which of the following awards is associated with Agriculture ? (A) Bourlog Award (B) Shanti Swaroop Bhatnagar Award


20. The Copenhagen Accord related to Climate Change was adopted on— (A) December 15, 2009 (B) December 19, 2009 (C) December 10, 2009 (D) December 30, 2009 21. The Criminal Procedure Code (Amendment) Act 2008 came into effect in— (A) January 2010 (B) January 2009 (C) January 2008 (D) None of the above 22. The CNN-IBN Indian of the year 2009 is— (A) A. R. Rahman (B) Sachin Tendulkar (C) Mukesh Ambani (D) Sania Mirza 23. Who received the Best Actor Award at the 56th National Film Awards ? (A) Upendra Limaye (B) Amitabh Bachchan (C) Arjun Rampal (D) None of the above 24. B. C. Roy Trophy is associated with— (A) Cricket (B) Football (C) Chess (D) Hockey 25. India’s first Special Economic Zone dedicated to the aerospace industry has been launched at— (A) Hyderabad (B) Hallargi (C) Shimla (D) Ahmedabad 26. Which Indian golf player has been named Rookie of the year 2009 ? (A) Rashid Khan (B) Anirban Lahiri (C) Gaganjeet Bhullar (D) C. Muniyappa 27. Who among the following clinched Junior Boy’s singles title in Australian Open 2010 (Tennis Championship) ? (A) Leander Paes (B) Tiago Fernandes (C) Bob Bryan (D) Meke Bryan

28. As per the 2009 Human Development India’s rank in Human Development Index is— (A) 135th (B) 134th (C) 133th (D) 130th 29. Who among the following is not the winner of the Nobel Prize 2009 for Medicine ? (A) Elizabeth H. Blackburn (B) Carol W. Greider (C) Jack W. Szostak (D) Elinor Ostrom 30. National Youth Day is observed on— (A) January 15 (B) January 12 (C) January 20 (D) January 28 31. The Hockey World Player for 2009 is— (A) Rajpal Singh (B) Jamie Dwyer (C) Grant Shubert (D) None of the above 32. Theorphrastus is called the father of— (A) Botany (B) Zoology (C) Anatomy (D) Astrology 33. Matatilla Multi-purpose Project is located on— (A) River Betwa (B) River Rihand (C) River Tapi (D) River Mahi 34. Dakar is the capital of— (A) Romania (B) Senegal (C) Syprus (D) Mozambique 35. Which of the following cities is situated on the river Hudson ? (A) Paris (B) New York (C) London (D) Montreal 36. Which of the following cities is famous for Tobacco industry ? (A) Jharia (B) Khetri (C) Ferozabad (D) Guntur 37. Which of the following languages was added to the Eighth schedule to the Constitution of India by 21st Constitutional Amendment Act 1967 ?

(A) Sindhi (B) Punjabi (C) Malyalam (D) Tamil 38. Which of the following states does not have legislative council ? (A) Andhra Pradesh (B) Jammu & Kashmir (C) Kerala (D) Uttar Pradesh 39. Which of the following is known as ‘Queen of the Adriatic’ ? (A) Stockholm (B) Chicago (C) Venice (D) Strait of Gibraltar 40. Which of the following organisations has its headquarters in Rome ? (A) World Food Programme (B) Food and Agriculture Organisation (C) International Labour Organisation (D) European Free Trade Association [For Answer See Page 169 ]

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