• Question Answer F1

• What is the main purpose of passage planning? to ensure positive control over safe navigation at
all times

• The main objective of a prudent mariner is: to ensure that his ship reaches destination safely and
efficiently

• The person directing the movement of the vessel by helm and engine orders is: Conning Officer

• The vessel’s command responsibility lies on the ______ when the pilot takes over the ship’s
maneuvering. Master

• The result of a combined effort by a group of individuals towards a common goal is called:
Teamwork

• To optimize human performance and minimize the possibility of human error, we must have ______.
all of these

• Factor that affects decision making is: all of these

• Factor that affects conning officer limitation in making a decision is ______. all of these

• Factor that affects human performance is ______. all of these

• An accurate perception of the operational and environmental conditions affecting the vessel during a
specific period of time is called _____. situational awareness

• Which is correct in order to eliminate the possibility of ‘ One Man Error ‘. all of these

• Which of the following is not included in the Bridge Team Organization? Able Seaman

• What resolution requires the OOW ensures that efficient lookout is maintained? IMO Resolution
285

• The point at which helm must be applied to achieve a required course alteration is____. wheel over
position

• What scenario indicates that the ship is in very high risk situation? All of these

• What is the limiting bearing of a mark to one side of which the ship will be safe? Clearing bearing

• A useful method of monitoring cross track tendency in both poor and good visibility is ______.
Parallel indexing

• ______ is used to ensure that a ship remains within a safe area or is not approaching a danger
clearing mark

• A lead between pack and fast ice is called ______. Fracture lead
• Latitude of the observer is 7 deg N, declination of the sun is 7 deg S, which of the following occur?
Sunrise before 0600 Hrs

• A route often marked by center buoys is called _______. Recommended route

• Water may boil up around the stern of a vessel in a channel due to ______. Shallow water

• The proximity of ice is indicate by ______. Glare on clouds and horizon

• _______ is accurately surveyed for sea bottom and submerged articles. deep water route

• If your vessel is 18 knots, you change your course to the desired course after plotting a position
exactly on the change course position, you will find yourself: outside the course line

• The horizontal distance that an object can be seen by an unaided eye is called: visibility

• Which of the following is NOT an area of open water in sea ice? Water gorge

• Where sea ice and icebergs are present, which of the following are TRUE? Icebergs and sea ice
travel in a different direction

• You are running safely parallel to the coast with the current against you. In plotting a running fix for
safety margin, you should use: minimum speed estimate

• For the deepest water when negotiating a bend in a river, you should navigate your vessel: in the
river’s center

• The effect known as a bank cushion acts in which of the following ways on a single-screw vessel
proceeding along a narrow channel: it forces the bow away from the bank

• The pulling of the stern toward the bottom of a shallow channel by the lowering of pressure due to
increase water velocity is called ______. Squat

• An area where ships must navigate with caution within which direction of flow of traffic may be
recommended is called _______. Precautionary area

• The vessel’s direction pointed at anytime is called ______. Heading

• A reliable sign in the approach of pack ice not yet in sight is: sky map

• It is often marked by center buoys. This route is called ______. Recommended route

• A bright white glare observed above a snow covered surface is called: snow blink

• Approach crossing TSS shall be: almost perpendicular

• Which of the following indicates that there is navigable waters all around this mark? safe water
mark
• This is used in conjunction with the compass to indicate where the mariner may find the best
navigable water and the danger area. cardinal marks

• On a chart, the characteristics of the light on a lighthouse is shown as flashing white with a red
sector. The red sector ______ indicates a danger area

• A good chart can be distinguished from indifferent one by _______. date of correction

• Tables of tidal stream information are given for certain reference denoted by: a diamond shape
with a letter inside

• In a number of coastal waters, measures on ship routing have been introduced EXCEPT: reduce the
risk of overdraft

• Recommendations and proposals for routing measures beyond the territorial sea, IMO should
approve zones exceeding ______ meters 500

• The chart lacks detail if: I. the coastline is shown as dotted line II. there are no large areas where no
depths are given I only

• Which gives information about the general current circulation in the North Atlantic Ocean? Pilot
Chart

• The Tide Tables tabulate sunrise and sunset from Latitudes: 76 degrees N to 60 degrees S

• Ship’s routing main purpose is to _______. improve safety of navigation

• What information does the outer ring of a compass rose on a nautical chart provide? true direction

• The time interval in making a sea surface and weather reports to the ice patrol by the Master is:
every 6 hours

• The vertex of a great circle track is in Long. 109 degrees E. An eastbound vessel would cross the
equator in Long. ______ 19 degrees E

• The vertex along your GC course is 38º 15' S, 168º 24' E. Your vessel is on course 068º T. Which is
your longitude at equator crossing? 78º 39 W

• The difference of longitude between the intersection of the great circle and the equator to the lower
vertex is: 90 degrees

• The great circle distance from Lat 38º 17' N, Long 123º 16' W to Lat 35º 01 N, Long 142º 21' E is
4330 miles and the initial course is 300.9º T. Determine the position of the vertex. 47º 39'5 N, 167º
18'5 W

• The navigational echo sounder should be expected to operate down to depth of at least ______. 200
meters

• The bright spot which form the trace or timebase moves across the screen of radar at a speed
equivalent to ______. half the speed of radar waves
• In Lat 50 deg S, you obtained an RDF bearing on a vessel 400 miles due west of you. You expect the
bearing from the: southwest quadrant

• A line of position derived by radar range from an undetermined point on a coast will be a: arc

• The sonic sound waves of modern fathometers are produced electrically by means of a: transducer

• Loran-C operates on a single frequency centered on: 100 kHz

• When fixing a vessel position by radar, a navigator: should use radar info from one object to fix
the position

• You are proceeding at a slow speed with your starboard side near the right bank of a channel. If your
vessel suddenly sheers toward the opposite bank, the BEST maneuver would be ______. full
astern, hard left rudder

• Loran-C is what type of system? hyperbolic radio navigation

• Various radio signals may reinforce and cancel each other next. This is called: fading

• In an unstabilized mode of a radar, fixes are determined most easily from: range

• Vessels required to have an ARPA must have a device to indicate the ______. speed of vessel over
ground

• GPS offers commercial users with position accuracy of about 100

• GPS transmit PRN radio frequencies, designated as L1 and L2 carrier. What is the wave length of
the L1 carrier? 19 cm

• Which of the following statements is TRUE? the ship’s receiver cannot begin processing data
until the antenna locks onto the satellite and starts continuous tracking

• In Long 144º E, Feb. 6, ZT 0800. What is the GMT and date? 2300, 5 February

• In Lat 40º N, decl of sun 20º N, the sun will ______. cross the Prime Vertical twice

• Latitude of the observer is 7º N, declination of the sun is 5º N, which would occur? sunrise after
0600 Hrs

• Which of the following is true about Sidereal Hour Angle? angular distance of a star west of
Aries

• The Zone Time in your locality is 0700 Hrs, Feb. 24, 2007 with a Zone description of (-8). What is
the date and time at Greenwich? Feb. 23, 2007 – 2300 Hrs

• What line of position can you derive foremost during meridian passage? latitude line

• The azimuth angle when prefixed South means that: I. the amplitude is East-South II. the true
azimuth is taken from the South III. the latitude is South III only
• The geographical longitude of the body will be East if: the GHA is more than 180 degrees

• The radius of the almucantar is equal to the ______ co-altitude

• Which of the following when subtracted to 90 degrees give the radius of the almucantar? altitude

• The GHA of the sun at 1200 GMT was found in the daily pages of the Almanac to be 356 degrees
28.’4. What is the Equation of Time? 14m 06s

• Any system of one or more routes or routeing measures aimed at reducing the risk of casualties; it
includes traffic separation schemes two-way routes, recommended tracks, areas to be avoided,
inshore traffic zones, roudabouts, precautionary areas and deep water routes. routeing system

• What do you call the system that has been established to improve the safety in navigation in
converging area and in areas where the density of traffic is great and other factor might hamper the
safe passage of the vessel? ship's routeing

• An example of gyroscopic inertia is _______. quoit

• If polarization error occurs during sunrise or sunset, it is called _______. night effect

• An accurate way of determining a gyro error is ______. azimuth of a celestial body compared to
computed azimuth

• Parameter P is what kind of component? fore and aft component

• Which of the following could cause a gyro compass to develop an easterly error? voltage becomes
too high

• Above the earth’s surface, the magnetic field surrounding the earth is believed to be uniform and
centered ______. two geographical poles

• The vertical between the horizontal at any point of a line force, measured in angular unit is called:
magnetic dip

• The strength of magnetic field at any point, measured in a direction parallel to the field is called:
total intensity

• Coefficient B is ______. all of these

• The directive force of a gyro compass _______. decreases with latitude, being maximum at
geographical equator

• If the locking devices of a gyro in operation is left unlocked, the gyro will cause: the compass to
turn constantly

• _______ is added to the vertical ring of the gyro compass to effect symmetrical distribution of
weight about the vertical axis. compensator weights

• The gyro compass recorder writer are attached to the arms that are controlled by the: indicator
from the master gyro
• The average number of severe tropical storm or cyclones per year in the North Pacific Ocean is: 4

• What is the average number of severe hurricane per year in the coast of USA and West coast of
Mexico? 4

• What is the average number of severe cyclone per year in the Indian Ocean or Arabian Sea? 3

• Fair weather will generally continue when: winter fog clears off before noon

• Fair weather generally continue when: cloud bases above horizon increase in height

• Weather will generally change for the worse when: wind shifts to the North and West

• The greatest change of weather condition occurs when: wind shifts from East through North
to South

• The weather condition will generally clear when: barometer falls rapidly

• Rain or snow generally occurs or falls if: a warm front approaches

• Temperature will generally fall when: a cold front approaches

• Fog will generally form when: the sky is clear at midnight

• In infrared imagery, everything with a temperature above absolute zero radiates: Solar energy

• In infrared imagery, high-level clouds are somewhat cold, they appear: white

• The albedo of large thunderstorms in satellite imagery is: 92 percent

• In infrared imagery, mid-level clouds are somewhat warmer so they are: light grey

• The albedo of large water surfaces in satellite imagery is: 9 percent

• A line whose tangent at any point in a fluid is parallel to the intantenous velocity of the fluid at that
point is: streamline

• The albedo of white sands in satellite imagery is: 60 percent

• The albedo of �thick� cirrostratus in satellite imagery is: 74 percent

• This is a measure of the rate of net removal of mass out of a volume of air above a given point. This
is to promote surface pressure and height falls: divergence

• The albedo of new fresh snow in satellite imagery is: 88 percent

• The albedo of thin cirrostratus in satellite imagery is: 32 percent

• This term is used in relation with ice submarine navigation: ice canopy
• This term is used in relation with ice navigation and surface shipping: water sky

• This term is used in relation with ice to surface shipping and navigation: ice under pressure

• This term is used in relation with ice to submarine navigation: friendly ice

• This term is used in relation with ice to submarine navigation: hostile ice

• This term is used in relation with ice to surface shipping and navigation: difficult area

• This term is used in relation with ice to surface shipping and navigation: easy area

• An example of floating ice is: pancake ice

• One form of ice motion processes is: shearing

• One form of floating ice is: floe

• An example of ice drift is: ice cover

• One form of ice driftï is: open water

• The Philippine Weather system which normally starts from the 3rd week of May until late
September, characterized by rainfall and thunderstorms with occasional passages of tropical storms
is the ____. Southwest monsoon

• The Philippine weather system characterized by prevailing northeasterly chilled wind from Siberia
that normally occurs between November and late February or early March is the______ Northeast
Monsoon

• The Philippine weather system normally occurs during transition from SW Monsoon to Northeast
Monsoon is the _____________ Pacific trades

• In October to November and by NE Monsoon to SW , in March to May of the year Characterized by

constant speed of wind _____________ Pacific trades

• Philippine weather system characterized by the long line of thunderstorms and cumulus clouds and it
moves with the season along the Tropic region of the Earth, from the Equator to 23.4 degrees North
and back to 23.4 degrees South, moving and migrating with Sun�s declination_________ Inter-
tropical Convergence Zone

• Philippine weather system characterized by chilly temperature during evening and early morning at
the northern part of the Philippines, particularly ISABELA, during winter months_________ Tail
end of cold front

• The Philippine Weather system which occurs in the early part of rainy season, with atmospheric
pattern of Wind coming from the East at 10 degrees meridian apart , with strongest pressure at its
lowest extreme of the wind wave________ Easterly waves

• Solar radiation which is less than 0.001 micron are the following, EXCEPT______ Cosmic rays
• Radio wave is a radiation with wavelength of _____________ 20 micron

• Solar Radiation of 0.4 mm to 1 meter is ___________ microwave

• Solar radiation which wavelength is between 0.8 micron to 400 micron: Infra-red

• Ultra-violet rays has a radiated wavelength of __________ 300 micron

• Visible band wavelength has a wavelength of _______ 0.4 micron to 0.8 micron

• Micron is equivalent to _____________ One-thousandth of a meter

• Speed of light is _________ 300,000,000 meters/second

• A 1000 grams of air of which 12 grams are water vapor, has the specific humidity of ______. 1 g
per one kg

• Speed of light, denotes as C is derived by ________ subtracting wavelength from frequency of

radiation

• Man Overboard situation is a critical “life and death” scenario. The most critical variable to be
considered is __________. The fastest and correct turn of execution

• These are general professional knowledge which are essentials in ship handling and navigation,
EXCEPT______________ Knowledge of own ship

• It is a particular professional knowledge regarding own ship various methods available and how to
change over to secondary from primary methods. It is the knowledge on_________ all of these

• These are professional knowledge which illustrates own ship capabilities that are very essential to
the Officer–on-Watch, EXCEPT___________ construction of the ship

• When running into a fog, following are prudent measures, EXCEPT: Reduce to moderate speed

• An execution by swinging out of the ship with maximum wheel either port or starboard, and
subsequently reverse the wheel so that the ships head swings out to, but not beyond 60 from the
original course; then continue to swing back with full wheel, finally steadying on the reciprocal
course to the original. This execution is called __________. Williamson Turn

• There are indications of running into ice, EXCEPT Absence of Sea or Swell

• It is a propeller which is almost invariably right-handed. When the ship is driven ahead, the propeller
revolves in a clockwise direction, when viewed from astern. To go astern the rotation of the
propeller is reversed. It is: single screw

• This propeller consists of screws that are out-turning, are right-handed on the starboard side and left-
handed on the port side. This type of propeller is: Twin screw
• This type of screw is principally used by fast coastal craft and some classes of aircraft carriers. The
propeller revolve in the same direction, so as to facilitate engine installation. This propeller is
______. Triple screw

• This propeller is in-turning but the shaft revolves always in the same direction, the astern power
being obtained by reversing the pitch of the screws. Controllable pitch propeller

• The acceleration or deceleration capability of the ship depends largely on horsepower available and
the momentum of the ship. The most important aspect of comparing the ahead and astern power of
the ship is to consider first the _________ full- ahead momentum

• Normally a ship fitted with steam turbines has an astern power one-third of ahead power. If a ship is
7,000-ton deadweight with speed of 15 knots, what is the astern power? 35,000 knot-tons

• If a ship of 15,000 tons deadweight fitted with steam turbine has an astern power of 60,000 knot-
tons, what is the speed of the ship?___________ 12 knots

• This occurs when the suction abaft the rudder reaches a value equal to the vapor pressure of the
water, so that bubbles of water vapor formed. This causes the force from the rudder drops suddenly
and the turn widens. This phenomenon is called _______ burbling

• Maximum rudder angle of 35 degrees is most acceptable during turning. However, an angle of 45
degrees will give a tighter turn, but will reduce speed more. At higher speed during turning, the ship
tends to reduce the force of the rudder and in greater angle will reduce speed. This phenomenon is
called________________ burbling

• This is the form of hull which produces large wake effect , making the speed of the water passing the
rudder maybe as much as 35% less than that of the ship. This reduces the rudder efficiency. This
form of hull is called: rounded sterns

• When does it become evident that the ship has reached shallow water? when the depth of water is
about one point five (1.5) times of the ships draft

• In maneuvering the ship in a restricted area or in a narrow channel, which side would be easier to
maneuver the ship using the backing and filling maneuver? starboard side

• A ship is having a slow speed, by using the backing maneuver, the ship is considered to be dead on
the water when the __________. quickwater reaches the amidships

• In docking, when approaching the quay at one (1) knot, how many meters is ships advance in one (1)
minute. 41 meters

• The distance of the ship to its final berth is about 200 meters. Approximately how many minutes will
it take the ship to be in position if the ship speed is two (2) knots 3.2 minutes

• Your ship RPM is 120 and gives a maximum speed of 1 knot. How many RPM required if you need
a two (2) knot speed in approaching the berth? 15 rpm

• When going astern in a right-handed propeller ship and need to maintain the ship heading, the rudder
would be place at __________. Rudder to starboard enough to compensate the swing
• In principles of shiphandling which factor that a master or a pilot has no direct control of the ship
shallow water factor

• What is the main purpose of knowing the turning circle of own ship? to know the area of
maneuverability of the ship

• The best approach to an anchorage is ______. I. against the current or wind II. with the current or
wind III. a turn either way to give momentum for the dropping of anchor chain I only

• Ship handling in a channel, a Pilot should break a sheer in narrow channel by: increasing engine
RPM

• In ship handling, as the beam increases for a given length, it is apparent that the directional stability:
I. is the same II. Increases III. Decreases III only

• In ship handling, as the under keel clearance decreases, it is apparent that the directional stability: I.
is the same/steady II. Decreases III. Increases III only

• It is easier to dock a right, single-screw vessel _________. port side to wharf

• Which characteristics is a disadvantage of a controllable-pitch propeller as compared to a fixed-pitch

propeller? some unusual handling characteristic

• You are approaching a wrecked vessel which is on fire in order to remove survivors. Your approach
should be ______. To windward of the wrecked vessel

• You are proceeding at a slow speed with your starboard side near the right bank of a channel. If your
vessel suddenly sheers toward the opposite bank, the BEST maneuver would be ______. full
astern, hard left rudder

• On a single screw vessel, coming portside to pier and being set off the pier you should: make your
approach at a greater angle than in calm water

• As a general rule a VLCC should not have a speed in any direction greater than ______ when
touching berth. 0.15 knots

• As a general rule a ULCC should not have a speed in any direction greater than ______ when
touching berth. 0.10 knots

• Berth lights shall: be permanently mounted and wired without the use of portable cord

• It is easier to dock a right hand single screw vessel: portside to the wharf

• You are landing a single screw vessel with a right-handed propeller portside to the dock. When you
have approached your desired position of the dock, you back down on your engines with rudder
amidships, you expect the vessel to ______. turn its stern towards the dock

• When mooring a vessel alongside a dock, you should if possible: go in against the current

• Maneuver your vessel alongside for a given rudder load/rudder and engine speed. The rate of turn
______ as the depth of water decreases. decreases
• You are docked portside to a lock. The best way to undock a vessel off with no wind is: cast off all
lines aft, then all lines forward, left rudder, bow thruster to starboard, dead slow ahead

• To berth with the wind offshore, on beam or bow, the wharf should be approached: with a big
angle

• Unberthing with stream ahead ______. the vessel is singled up to an aft backspring and a fore
breast

• To ensure the best result in Mediterranean moor, the chains should: tend forward 30 degrees on
either bow

• When using the anchor, steady the bow in a maneuvering situation, you have the proper scope cable
when: bow is held in position with the engines coming ahead

• Why is it necessary to veer a sufficient amount of chain when anchoring a vessel? to insure that
the anchor flukes bite into the ocean bottom

• When a small craft’s anchor fouls in a rocky bottom, the first attempt to clear it should be made:
reversing the angle and direction of pull, with moderate scope

• What does the term “Ground Tackle” mean? the anchor, the anchor rode and all connecting
parts that anchor a vessel

• If a VLCC is proceeding at 12 knots, her headway is reduced to _______ at the completion. Of a

round turn even though the engine continues to run ahead of steerageway. 2 to 3 knots

• Which rule in the COLREG allow vessels to depart from the rules if necessary to avoid immediate
danger? rule 2

• Rule 2 of the COLREGS allows vessels to: depart from the rules to avoid immediate danger

• Does the COLREGS give any preference to ships equipped with ARPA? Yes

• What is the main content of COLREG Rule No. 5? Proper lookout

• COLREG Rule No.10 applies to vessels sailing in: Vessel�s sailing in separation schemes

• COLREG Rule No 35 specifies? safe speed during reduced visibility

• Does the COLREGS give any preference to ships equipped with ARPA? Yes

• Two vessels are navigating in dense fog. Vessel A observes vessel B on her starboard side. Which
vessel has the right of way? neither

• The use traffic separation schemes in the territorial sea, particular ships like ___________ and other
inherently dangerous or noxious substances or materials may be required to confine their passage to
such lane. Tankers, nuclear powered ship
• In case of any failure on machinery or irregularity on equipment which may lead to the propulsion
speed or the steering of the vessel to be affected, what is the FIRST ACTION to be taken by the duty
engineer? inform the bridge

• The amount and condition/appearance of liquid collected in bilges is a clear sign of _______.
specific system losses or flooding

• What would be the best method to be followed if the ship is in port and there is an urgent need to
pump out bilge water from the vessel? pump out only to shore tank or barge

• What action shall be taken if you find more substantial amount of water than usual has collected in
the bilge wells? ask permission to pump bilges via 15ppm oily water separator

• Suppose you are told to store ship’s lubricants for one year and you estimate you will consume 480
liters in that time. You have an opened drum of 180 liters on board. What quantity will you order?
24 pails x 20 liters

• During maneuvering periods with the main engine, what is the arrangement for starting air supply by
the main air compressors on the control setting of the compressors? one compressor on AUTO
CONTROL, the other on MANUAL

• What is that force that tends to twist the material like the force on the shaft to twist it apart?
torsional stress

• Kinetic energy is the energy a body has due to its ______. motion

• Phenolphthalein is used to test boiler for ______. alkalinity

• What do you call the instrument that measures the radial position of the crankshaft or rotor shaft?
bridge gauge

• Too high alkalinity of boiler water may cause ______. scale

• In which pipe line should you expect to find an illuminated sight glass (bull’s eye)? tank overflow
piping

• What are the four processes in a refrigeration process?

Compression/Condensation/Expansion/Evaporation

• What is the purpose of a dehydrator in a refrigeration system? to absorb moisture usually present
in the refrigerant

• In which machinery can you not add oil under running conditions? air compressors or refrigerant
compressors

• If the cooling water temperature exceeds over its recommended value, what can happen? a less
effective lubricating oil film is formed on the cylinder walls

• The temperature of the daily tank of 60 degrees C suggests which grade of Fuel in use?
intermediate or heavy fuel oil
• In which part of the alternator is the electric power produced? by the stator

• What is the function of the Lub Oil Sump Tank? all of these

• What is the purpose of the Main Engine Dirty Oil Tank? as collecting for dirty oil of main engine
intended for purification

• The main as well as the emergency switchboard are panels where the electric power is, as well: fed
into monitored and supplied to the consumers

• By what means is the power output of an alternator controlled? by the excitation current in the
rotor

• The working principle of an automatic voltage regulator (AVR) is to produce an excitation current
proportioned to _______. the output voltage as well as the output current of the alternator

• According to regulations on board ships, it is required to have pump redundancy. What is understood
by this? all essential pumps in the engine room have a back-up possibility

• In case the auxiliary seawater pump fails, with which pump shall you cool the condensers? with the
main seawater pump(s)

• Below are some capacities of seawater pumps of a vessel listed. Which pump is the FIRE AND
BALLAST pump? 110/410 cubic meter/hour x 70/35 meters

• Following is a listing of water pumps on board. Which one is the Fresh Water Hydrophore pump? 5
cubic meter/hour x 50 meters

• What liquid is used to clean a turbo charger? water

• If you find it difficult to obtain suction while pumping the bilge well, which action shall you take?
all of these

• How does the change of flow direction in the filter helps in segregating water and dirt? due to
centrifugal force

• A pump can empty a tank in 12 hours, another pump can empty the same tank in 4 hours, and
another can empty this tank in 9 hours. If all three pumps are set working together on this tank, how
long would it take to empty it? 2 hours and 15 minutes

• In a 4 cycle engine, the intake valve begins to open while the piston is on the: suction stroke

• In a 4 cycle engine, the exhaust valve opens while the piston is on its ______. power stroke

• What are the indications of excessive cylinder clearance in a small diesel engine? I. loss of power II.
Misfiring III. White exhaust smoke IV. Excessive Consumption of lube oil I, III and IV

• In four stroke cycle diesel engine, a four stroke of the piston is required to complete one cycle which
must take place in regular order, and the second stroke indicates _______. compression of air
• What is the compression system of a refrigeration? it is the absorption of heat under
temperature, compression, pressure and expansion

• The last stroke of two-stroke cycle diesel engine is also called: power stroke

• What is the source of energy used to convert salt water into fresh water inside a fresh water
generator? the waste heat from the main engine

• How is a vacuum created in the fresh water generator? by the vapor eductor driven to the ejector
pump

• What is the required ppm if boiler distillate water is produced to be used in water tube boilers of
medium pressure by a fresh water generator? 2ppm

• Reciprocating pumps are installed in circuits where liquids ______. have a high air content

• If you are to replace a mechanical seal of a pump, which part will you dismantle/remove in order to
access to the seal? remove pump casing half, shaft flange and take out pump assembly

• It is noted after overhaul that pump bearings heat up, and is verified that o wrong assembly has taken
place or no parts are touching. The reason is: misalignment of the shaft pump

• What will happen to the level of the expansion tank if the engine slows down or stops from running
condition? the level will decrease

• What can happen if only one generator is connected to the mains and several large fans are started at
the same time? the generator may trip on overload

• A ship's propeller is 4882 mm diameter with pitch of 4226 mm. The engine RPM is 122. What is the
engine speed of this vessel? 16.70 knots

• A vessel's main engine runs at 114 RPM. The slip that day was 7.4%. The ship?s speed that day was
13.82 knots. What is the pitch of the propeller? 4040 mm

• A vessel has a propeller with 3828 mm pitch and makes 109 RPM. The nautical speed is 12.8 knots.
What is the slip? 5.3%

• Normally, fully automated vessels with UMS certificate carry smaller number of crew, a major
reduction in the number of certified ratings and officers. On the other hand, ________? do
officers/crew require a higher level of skill

• What is the most important connection of the Chief Engineer with the Deck Department?
knowledge of all sailing plans and cargo loading/discharging

• What is the most important deck connection of watchkeeping engineers? executing orders from
and issuing warnings to the bridge

• Clearing a cylinder of exhaust gases by forcing into a current of air which provides clean air for the
next compression stroke is ______. scavenging
• Flashpoint of the oil is the temperature at which ______. fuel oil must be heated to allow
flammable vapors to form on its surface

• A unit of measure used to express the chloride content of boiler water is _____. PPM

• What is the purpose of a counterbore in a cylinder? to distribute the oil film evenly over the
cylinder surface

• Thermal efficiency refers to heat engines and is the ratio of ______. output on the shaft/flywheel
over internally produced power

• What do you call the valve that prevent steam pressure from exceeding the allowable working
pressure? safety valve

• The basic type of reversing air starting system that can be used only on two stroke ported direct
propulsion marine engine is _______. rotating camshaft

• The heat used to change a liquid to vapor is called latent heat of ______. vaporation

• A refrigerant gives up heat when it _______. condenses

• The lowest temperature obtained in a refrigerator system is the temperature of the ______. liquid in
the evaporator

• The actual refrigerating or cooling effect is produced by ________. lowering pressure of

refrigerant

• The two main types of evaporators are: dry and flooded

• The greatest decrease in the temperature of the refrigerant is at the ______. condenser

• A receiver in a refrigeration system is used to ______. store the refrigerant

• Humidity is a measure of ______. water vapor content

• Ambient temperature means ______. temperature of air in the surrounding space

• Moisture in the refrigeration system will cause a ______. faulty expansion valve

• What will happen if a brine in a refrigeration system has a high specific gravity? it will crystallize

• Diesel engines are considered safer than gasoline engines because ___? The fuel used is less
volatile

• Generally speaking, the fuel injected into a diesel engine combustion chamber is ignited by? heat of
compression

• The quickest method to stop a small diesel engine whose throttle or governor has become stuck open
is to __? close the fuel supply valve
• Which of the following is an advantage of diesel over steam turbine propulsion? less fuel
consumption per SHP

• All diesel engines are classified as ___? compression ignition

• Each cylinder in a two stroke cycle engine experience combustion __? once each crankshaft
revolution

• How would the exhaust of a properly operating diesel engine appear? perfectly clear

• What does a pyrometer measure on a diesel engine? exhaust temperature

• What monitoring device best indicates the load being carried by a diesel engine? tachometer

• What is the effect of heated intake air on a diesel engine? increases efficiency

• How does combustion air enter the cylinder of a two cycle diesel engine? cylinder head valves

• Diesel engines obtain combustion air through turbo chargers, blowers or: air receiver

• What is the purpose of the intake/exhaust valves in a diesel engine? They regulate the combustion
cycle

• The most serious effect of air in a diesel engine jacket water cooling system is that it? causes
corrosion

• What quality of a diesel fuel is most significant for efficient combustion? viscosity

• Lubricating oil should be changed on a heavy duty diesel engine when___? it has been in use for a
specified interval

• How should you warm up a diesel engine that has not been run for some time? run it at minimum
speed for a period of time

• What would white exhaust smoke from a diesel engine probably mean? late fuel injection

• The three conditions which cause engine shutdown are over speed, low lube oil pressure and__?
high jacket water temperature

• If an engine shuts down due to high jacket water temperature, what action should be taken? open
crankcase explosion covers

• What is the bets indication of the loading of diesel engine? exhaust gas temperature

• Sudden unloading of a diesel engine can cause? black smoke

• If you are unable to stop a diesel engine by any other means, you should__? secure the starting air
supply valve
• What is the one effect of running a diesel engine at too cool a temperature? severe heat stresses on
mechanical parts

• Most medium and slow speed diesels are started by what medium? compressed air

• What are the three basic types of engine starters? air, hydraulic, electric

• All marine low speed diesels are of what design? two stroke

• One major disadvantage of a low speed diesel as compared to a steam main propulsion system is? a
minimum speed for the engines that limits the minimum speed of the vessel

• Which of the following exhausts should be carefully inspected at regular intervals? engine

• The exhaust pipe shall be kept gas tight throughout its entire length because? the joint gaskets may
be blown

• Vessels required to be equipped with an approved backfire flame arrester are? those with diesel
engines

• Backfire flame arrestors are installed on ___? fuel tanks

• A carburetor is placed on the engines to ___? mix the fuel and air

• A carburetor is required to have a safety device called a (n)__? backfire flame arrestor

• Which of the following devices is required to be installed under the carburetor of a gasoline engine?
flame arrestor

• The engine head block, and exhaust manifold shall be ___ (small passenger vessel regulations)
water jacketed

• If a gasoline engine falls to start, the procedure to find the cause is to? ventilate the space, then
check the battery, spark plugs, carburetor and fuel line

• If a gasoline engine turns over but is hard to start, the cause is generally__? defective ignition

• Fuel system safety may best be achieved by? proper air/gasoline fuel mixture ratio

• Gasoline fumes tend to__? disperse to atmosphere

• Gasoline vapor is of such weight relative to air that it will tend to collect: above the carburetor
level

• Which statement is TRUE concerning fuel vapors on a vessel? fuel vapors can only be ignited by
an open flame