This action might not be possible to undo. Are you sure you want to continue?
1. A woman in a child bearing age receives a rubella vaccination. Nurse Joy would give her which of the following instructions? a. Refrain from eating eggs or egg products for 24 hours b. Avoid having sexual intercourse c. Don¶t get pregnant at least 3 months d. Avoid exposure to sun 2. Jonas who is diagnosed with encephalitis is under the treatment of Mannitol. Which of the following patient outcomes indicate to Nurse Ronald that the treatment of Mannitol has been effective for a patient that has increased intracranial pressure? a. Increased urinary output b. Decreased RR c. Slowed papillary response d. Decreased level of consciousness 3. Mary asked Nurse Maureen about the incubation period of rabies. Which statement by the Nurse Maureen is appropriate? a. Incubation period is 6 months b. Incubation period is 1 week c. Incubation period is 1 month d. Incubation period varies depending on the site of the bite 4. Which of the following should Nurse Cherry do first in taking care of a male client with rabies? a. Encourage the patient to take a bath b. Cover IV bottle with brown paper bag c. Place the patient near the comfort room
d. Place the patient near the door 5. Which of the following is the screening test for dengue hemorrhagic fever? a. Complete blood count b. ELISA c. Rumpel-leede test d. Sedimentation rate 6. Mr. Dela Rosa is suspected to have malaria after a business trip in Palawan. The most important diagnostic test in malaria is: a. WBC count b. Urinalysis c. ELISA d. Peripheral blood smear 7. The Nurse supervisor is planning for patient¶s assignment for the AM shift. The nurse supervisor avoids assigning which of the following staff members to a client with herpes zoster? a. Nurse who never had chicken pox b. Nurse who never had roseola c. Nurse who never had german measles d. Nurse who never had mumps 8. Clarissa is 7 weeks pregnant. Further examination revealed that she is susceptible to rubella. When would be the most appropriate for her to receive rubella immunization? a. At once b. During 2nd trimester c. During 3rd trimester d. After the delivery of the baby
9. A female child with rubella should be isolated from a: a. 21 year old male cousin living in the same house b. 18 year old sister who recently got married c. 11 year old sister who had rubeola during childhood d. 4 year old girl who lives next door 10. What is the primary prevention of leprosy? a. Nutrition b. Vitamins c. BCG vaccination d. DPT vaccination 11. A bacteria which causes diphtheria is also known as? a. Amoeba b. Cholera c. Klebs-loeffler bacillus d. Spirochete 12. Nurse Ron performed mantoux skin test today (Monday) to a male adult client. Which statement by the client indicates that he understood the instruction well? a. I will come back later b. I will come back next month c. I will come back on Friday d. I will come back on Wednesday, same time, to read the result 13. A male client had undergone Mantoux skin test. Nurse Ronald notes an 8mm area of indurations at the site of the skin test. The nurse interprets the result as: a. Negative
Restless and irritable c. Sore eyes b. Which of the following signs and symptoms indicate some dehydration? a. Use alcohol moderately b. Nurse Trish plans to teach the client to: a. A and B . Unconscious d. Tony will start a 6 month therapy with Isoniazid (INH). Avoid vitamin supplements while o therapy c. Inconclusive 14. What is the fast breathing of Jana who is 3 weeks old? a. 40 breaths per minute c. Uncertain and needs to be repeated c. 10 breaths per minute d. Incomplete intake of dairy products d. 20 breaths per minute 17. Positive d. Sore throat c. Which is the primary characteristic lesion of syphilis? a.b. Chancre 16. 60 breaths per minute b. May be discontinued if symptoms subsides 15. Drinks eagerly b. Chancroid d.
BCG b. Wound b.18. 1 tsp. None of the above 22. 1 tbsp. salt and 8 tsp. sugar d. salt and 8 tsp. sugar c. what is the ratio of salt and sugar if you want to prepare with 1 liter of water? a. 8 tsp. EPI is based on? a. salt and 8 tsp. salt and 8 tbsp. Ear infections d. Tetracycline c. sugar 20. What is the first line for dysentery? a. sugar b. 1 tbsp. OPV c. Basic health services b. Cotrimoxazole 19. Cefalexin d. In home made oresol. Burn 21. Amoxicillin b. Gentian Violet is used for: a. Scope of community affected . Which of the following is a live attenuated bacterial vaccine? a. Umbilical infections c. Measles d.
Plasma derivatives 26. Time table showing planned work days and shifts of nursing personnel is: . Temperature of refrigerator to maintain potency of measles and OPV vaccine is: a. 100 b. 80 d.c. Diptheria is a: a. 99 c. TT? provides how many percentage of protection against tetanus? a. Bacterial toxin b. +15c to +25c d. Killed bacteria c. +3c to +8c 25. Organizing d. Live attenuated d. Directing b. -15c to -25c c. Research studies 23. Planning 27. Epidemiological situation d. 90 24. -3c to -8c b. Budgeting is under in which part of management process? a. Controlling c.
Scheduling d. Vision d. Flow chart d. Reward d. Philosophy c. Feedback b. Schedule c. Standards 31. Planning 28. Self-esteem 29. Motivation b. ³To be the leading hospital in the Philippines´ is best illustrate in: a. Job descriptions b. Positive reinforcement . Objective 30. A force within an individual that influences the strength of behavior? a. Survey c. Staffing b. Reprimanding a staff nurse for work that is done incorrectly is an example of what type of reinforcement? a. It is the professionally desired norms against which a staff performance will be compared? a. Mission b.a. Envy c.
Maximum risk 35. Inductive b. Respondent d. Risk-benefit ratio c. Element b. A researcher that makes a generalization based on observations of an individuals behavior is said to be which type of reasoning: a. Survey b. Logical c. Questions that are answerable only by choosing an option from a set of given alternatives are known as? a. Demographic 33. Percentile d. Performance appraisal d.c. The balance of a research¶s benefit vs. Deductive 34. its risks to the subject is: a. An individual/object that belongs to a general population is a/an: a. Illogical d. Subject c. Author . Questionnaire d. Negative reinforcement 32. Close ended c. Analysis b.
Inference d. Bar graph c. An example of subjective data is: a. The first college of nursing that was established in the Philippines is: a. Size of wounds b. Objective data is also called: a. Florence nightingale is born on: a. University of the East d.36. VS . Britain c. Fatima University b. Organizational chart d. Italy 39. Far Eastern University c. An illustration that shows how the members of an organization are connected: a. Tomas 38. France b. U. University of Sto. Overt c. Flowchart b. Line graph 37. Evaluation 40.S d. Covert b.
Kardex d. TPR sheet . 5 days before menstrual period 43. Side lying c. Preparation of environment 44. Trendelenburg b. 7 days after menstrual period b. It is a flip over card usually kept in portable file at nursing station. When is the best time in performing breast self examination? a. Lethargy d. Preparation of the room b. Which of the following should be given the highest priority before performing physical examination to a patient? a. Lithotomy 42. a.c. Nursing care plan b. 5 days after menstrual period d. Medicine and treatment record c. The statement of patient ³My hand is painful´ 41. Preparation of the nurse d. 7 days before menstrual period c. Preparation of the patient c. What is the best position in palpating the breast? a. Supine d.
Bradyprea b. Bradycardia c. What will be the priority nursing diagnosis? a. Percussion 47. Which physiologic effect should the nurse expect? a. The nurse in charge is aware that the best position for Jose is: a. Impaired urinary elimination related to fluid loss d. affected side 46. Ineffective airway clearance related to edema b. Inspection d. Semi fowlers b. Auscultation b. Palpation c. Side lying. The degree of patients abdominal distension may be determined by: a. unaffected side d. Impaired mobility related to pain c. Nurse Betty expect to see which of the following as signs of a local inflammatory response? . A male client is addicted with hallucinogen. Constricted pupils d. chest and neck. Dilated pupils 48. Jose has undergone thoracentesis. Tristan a 4 year old boy has suffered from full thickness burns of the face. Low fowlers c. Side lying. Risk for infection related to epidermal disruption 49.45. In assessing a client¶s incision 1 day after the surgery.
Which of the following is not a good source of iron? a. One artery and two veins 52. Two arteries and two veins b. 2 kilograms b.a. After delivery of a baby girl. Butter b. April 4 d. Brown exudates at incision edges c. Redness and warmth 50. Myrna a pregnant client reports that her last menstrual cycle is July 11. Two arteries and one vein d. One artery and one vein c. Nurse Ronald is aware that the amiotic fluid in the third trimester weighs approximately: a. April 18 53. November 11 c. Nurse Gina examines the umbilical cord and expects to find a cord to: a.5 kilograms 51. November 4 b. 100 grams d. 1 kilograms c. Pallor around sutures d. Pechay . Greenish discharge b. her expected date of birth is a. 1.
Trendelinburg d.c. Which of the following would you anticipate? a. Immediate surgery d. Bed rest c. 400 . Semi-fowlers 56. Which position would you expect to place her based on this diagnosis? a. Maureen is admitted with a diagnosis of ectopic pregnancy. Beef 54. Supine b. 200 d. Grains d. Enema 55. Left side lying c. Nurse Hazel knows that Myrna understands her condition well when she remarks that urinary frequency is caused by: a. 100 b. Effect of cold weather d. NPO b. Pressure caused by the ascending uterus b. Increase intake of fruits and vegetables 57. How many ml of blood is loss during the first 24 hours post delivery of Myrna? a. Gina a postpartum client is diagnosed with endometritis. 500 c. Water intake of 3L a day c.
the priority nursing action is: a.58. Perineal lacerations . Blue 61. Prolactin c. Oxytocin d. Pink b. Let the mother rest 62. Bay of water is broken b. Progesterone b. The leaking fluid is tested with nitrazine paper. Document the color and consistency of amniotic fluid b. Which is the most frequent reason for postpartum hemorrhage? a. Position the mother in her left side d. Which of the following hormones stimulates the secretion of milk? a. Presence of bloody show 60. Nurse Kelly confirms that the client¶s membrane have ruptures when the paper turns into a: a. After amniotomy. Green d. Contractions are regular c. Estrogen 59. Cervix is completely dilated d. Listen the fetal heart tone c. Nurse Carla is aware that Myla¶s second stage of labor is beginning when the following assessment is noted: a. Violet c.
Normal findings during assessment b. On 2nd postpartum day. OPV c. 2 fingers below umbilicus d. Asin law is on which legal basis: a. Measles b. BCG d. Frequent internal examination (IE) c. 1 finger above umbilicus b. Diabetes history d. 1 finger below umbilicus 64. RA 8860 b. Which of the following criteria allows Nurse Kris to perform home deliveries? a. Uterine atomy 63. Nurse Carla is aware that one of the following vaccines is done by intramuscular (IM) injection? a. Tetanus toxoid 66. RI 8172 . which height would you expect to find the fundus in a woman who has had a caesarian birth? a. Previous CS c.b. 2 fingers above umbilicus c. Hypertensive history 65. RA 2777 c. CS d.
RR 6610 67. Bayabas 68. After 2 months 71. After 2-4 weeks c. Is a requirement in the health center and for home visit d. 80 c. It contains drugs and equipment used by the community health nurse c. Community/Public health bag is defined as: a. Akapulco b. Tsaang gubat d. 90 d. TT4 provides how many percentage of protection against tetanus? a.d. Within 24 hours after delivery b. Sambong c. Nurse John is aware that the herbal medicine appropriate for urolithiasis is: a. 70 b. Within 1 week d. It is a tool used by the community health nurse in rendering effective procedures during home visit 69. Nurse Candy is aware that the family planning method that may give 98% protection to another pregnancy to women . Third postpartum visit must be done by public health nurse: a. 99 70. An essential and indispensable equipment of the community health nurse during home visit b.
1984. Assess the child d. April 1985 b. Sentrong program movement d. If a young child has pneumonia when should the mother bring him back for follow up? a. IUD 72.a. It is the certification recognition program that develop and promotes standard for health facilities: a. Sentrong sigla movement 75. Formula b. Pills b. Counsel the mother b. Lactational Amenorrhea method (LAM) d. After 5 days 74. Identify the illness c. Nurse John will expect finger thumb opposition on: a. After 2 days b. Which of the following is not a part of IMCI case management process a. Treat the child 73. In the afternoon c. February 1985 c. Tubal ligation c. March 1985 . Tutok gamutan c. Baby Marie was born May 23. After 4 days d.
Baby Reese is a 12 month old child. Acetylcysteine d. 9 b. Educational 79. 7 c. 6 77. Oligohydramios . Placenta previa d.I anomaly? a. Flumazenil 78. Which kind of environment and interdisciplinary program most likely to benefit this child would be best described as: a. June 1985 76. Which of the following is the primary antidote for Tylenol poisoning? a. Sheltered workshop c. A male child has an intelligence quotient of approximately 40. Nurse Oliver would anticipate how many teeth? a. Habit training b.d. Narcan b. Cord prolapse b. Polyhydramios c. Nurse Judy is aware that following condition would reflect presence of congenital G. Digoxin c. 8 d. Custodial d.
80. Nurse Christine teaches the parents to include which of the following food items in the child¶s diet: a. Would you like a mango or orange juice?´ 82. At what age a child can brush her teeth without help? a. Oatmeal c. ³Would you like to drink your medicine?´ b. I¶ll give you lollipop´ c. Rice 81. Intra venous b. ³If you take your medicine now. 5 years d. ³Here¶s your medicine. 7 years c. 6 years b. Nurse Randy is planning to administer oral medication to a 3 year old child. Nurse Judy prepare this medication via which route? a.´ d. Rye toast b. 8 years 83. ³See the other boy took his medicine? Now it¶s your turn. White bread d. Oxygen tent d. Nurse Christine provides health teaching for the parents of a child diagnosed with celiac disease. Nurse Randy is aware that the best way to proceed is by: a. Oral c. The present chairman of the Board of Nursing in the Philippines is: . Ribivarin (Virazole) is prescribed for a female hospitalized child with RSV. Subcutaneous 84.
A male nurse was found guilty of negligence. Primitiva Paquic 85. 1 year b. The obligation to maintain efficient ethical standards in the practice of nursing belong to this body: a. Which of the following information cannot be seen in the PRC identification card? a. 3 years d. License Number c. ANSAP c. Carmencita Abaquin c. EO 51 b. 4 years 87. Leonor Rosero d. Registration Date b. PNA d. Breastfeeding is being enforced by milk code or: a.a.A. RN 86. BON b. Re-issuance of revoked certificates is after how many years? a. R. His license was revoked. 2 years c. Signature of PRC chairperson 88. Maria Joanna Cervantes b. 7600 . Date of Application d.
996 89. Resourcefulness c. Being on time. Self governance. Responsibility b. The hospital personnel may be excused because of: a. P. Force majeure d.c. Veracity b. Beneficence 90. This quality is being demonstrated by Nurse Ron who raises the side rails of a confused and disoriented patient? a. Res ipsa loquitor 91. Fidelity b. Autonomy c.D. Governance b. R. Veracity d. meeting deadlines and completing all scheduled duties is what virtue? a. Prudence .A. ability to choose or carry out decision without undue pressure or coercion from anyone: a. A male patient complained because his scheduled surgery was cancelled because of earthquake. Confidentiality 92. Respondent superior c. Autonomy c. Autonomy d. Fidelity d. 6700 d.
Records Management Archives Office c. Primary health nurse d. Refresher course d. this is a gauge for the nurses¶ a. Department of Health b. Enrollment in graduate school c. Priest c. Nurse generalist b. The BSN curriculum prepares the graduates to become? a. When Nurse Clarence respects the client¶s self-disclosure. Bureau of Internal Revenue 96. Conference b. Nurse specialist c. Disposal of medical records in government hospital/institutions must be done in close coordination with what agency? a. Family lawyer d. Which of the following is formal continuing education? a.93. Metro Manila Development Authority d. Clinical instructor 95. Parents/legal guardians 97. Nurse Jolina must see to it that the written consent of mentally ill patients must be taken from: a. Seminar 94. Nurse b. Respectfulness .
Loyalty c. Taking vital signs b. Change IV infusions c. The Nurse is aware that the ability to enter into the life of another person and perceive his current feelings and their meaning is known: a. Report the incidence to head nurse c. Genuineness c. What would be the best response of Nurse Tina? a. Professionalism 98. Assist client to perform ADL c. Trustworthiness d. Call the attention of the client and encourage to sleep b. Toralba meditating and afterwards started singing prayerful hymns. The Nurse is aware that the following tasks can be safely delegated by the nurse to a nonnurse health worker except: a. Respect the client¶s action d. In caring for a dying client. During the evening round Nurse Tina saw Mr. Belongingness b. Document the situation 100. you should perform which of the following activities a. Transferring the client from bed to chair d. Empathy . Encourage to exercise d. Assist client towards a peaceful death 101. Irrigation of NGT 99.b. Do not resuscitate b.
Haloperidol (Haldol) b. Benztropine (Cogentin) d. Political problems c. Exploring the client¶s thoughts. Establishing rapport 103. All of the following are characteristics of crisis except a. Review progress of therapy and attainment of goals b. it is the most important risk factor in the development of mental illness? a. Narcotic 105. Hallucinogen b. Diazepam (Valium) 104. The nurse is aware that cocaine is classified as: a. Respect 102. Psycho stimulant c. Separation of parents b. The termination phase of the NPR is best described one of the following: a. In community health nursing.d. During the process of cocaine withdrawal. Sexual abuse 106. The client may become resistive and active in stopping the crisis . the physician orders which of the following: a. Identifying and solving patients problem d. Poverty d. feelings and concerns c. Imipramine (Tofranil) c. Anxiolytic d.
Oral b. Altered nutrition : less than body requirement b. School age d. The diagnosis was ANOREXIA NERVOSA. The nurse is aware that the primary nursing diagnosis for the client is: a. It may also affect the family of the client 107. Reduce anxiety d. Weight gain c. Attractive appearance 110. Infancy 109. Her parents brought her to the hospital for medical evaluation. Latency 108. Weight loss b. Altered nutrition : more than body requirement c. Phallic d. The nurse is aware that ego development begins during: a. It is unique in every individual d. Toddler period b. Impaired tissue integrity . Anal c. It is self-limiting for 4-6 weeks c. The Primary gain of a client with anorexia nervosa is: a. Freud states that temper tantrums is observed in which of the following: a. Preschool age c. Situation: A 19 year old nursing student has lost 36 lbs for 4 weeks.b.
She gained 4 lbs in two weeks 112. which finding indicates that her condition in improving? a. She tells the nurse that she eat 3 times or more in a day d. The nurse is aware that ataractics or psychic energizers are also known as: a. Simplify the environment to eliminate the need to make chores 115. Anti anxiety 114. She arrives earlier than scheduled time of group therapy c. Anti depressants b. The priority of care for a client with Alzheimer¶s disease is a.d. Antipsychotics d. She tells the nurse that she had no idea that she is thin b. Risk for malnutrition 111. Anti manic d. Provide him stimulating environment d. Infancy . Known as mood elevators: a. Help client develop coping mechanism b. Anti manic b. Autism is diagnosed at: a. Encourage to learn new hobbies and interest c. After 14 days in the hospital. Antipsychotics c. Anti anxiety 113. Anti depressants c.
The common characteristic of autism child is: a. Cognitive therapy c. Personality b. 3 years old c. School age 116. Schizophrenia b. The nurse is aware that the most common indication in using ECT is: a. Impulsitivity b. Depression 118. Personality therapy 119.b. Self destructiveness c. Anorexia Nervosa d. Withdrawal 117. A therapy that focuses on here and now principle to promote self-acceptance? a. Behavior d. Gestalt therapy b. Hostility d. Cognition . Communication c. The goal of therapy is to change her: a. Bipolar c. 5 years old d. A client has many irrational thoughts. Behavior therapy d.
Chess b. Orange juice . possess which defense mechanism: a. Swimming d.120. Water b. Low fat. Basketball c. Finger painting 122. high fat c. Relieving anxiety 124. Relieving depression d. Introjection b. Nurse John is aware that self mutilation among Bipolar disorder patients is a means of: a. Small frequent feedings 121. Low calorie. Overcoming feeling of insecurity c. Which of the following activity would be best for a depressed client? a. Repression d. Finger foods. in manic phase is: a. Projection 123. Which of the following may cause an increase in the cystitis symptoms? a. The appropriate nutrition for Bipolar I disorder. high in calorie d. The nurse is aware that clients with severe depression. Overcoming fear of failure b. Suppression c. low sodium b.
Administer analgesics as prescribed 126. In patient with renal failure. which is the priority nursing intervention? a. 7th CN d. 4th CN b. Elevated creatinine d. Low protein.c. low potassium b. Which of the following cannot be corrected by dialysis? a. Later the client complaints of ringing in the ears. Tony with infection is receiving antibiotic therapy. High calcium. high protein 127. 8th CN c. In caring for clients with renal calculi. Hyperkalemia c. Limit fluids d. low sodium. Low protein. Coffee d. Strain urine c. Mango juice 125. the diet should be: a. Record vital signs b. Decreased hemoglobin 128. 9th CN . high potassium c. This ototoxicity is damage to: a. High carbohydrate. low protein d. Hypernatremia b.
Nurse Emma provides teaching to a patient with recurrent urinary tract infection includes the following: a. Void immediately after intercourse d. Colchicines c. Inability to move toes d. It has too many unofficial abbreviations d. Planning .129. Aspirin d. Nurse Karen is revising a client plan of care. Increase intake of tea. Information in the patients chart is inadmissible in court as evidence when: a. The clients parents refuses to use it 133. Void every 6 hours per day c. coffee and colas b. Complaints of pressure or tightness c. Take tub bath everyday 130. During acute gout attack. Numbness of toes 131. Blanching or cyanosis of legs b. Which assessment finding indicates circulatory constriction in a male client with a newly applied long leg cast? a. Handwriting is not legible c. During which step of the nursing process does such revision take place? a. Prednisone (Deltasone) b. The client objects to its use b. Allopurinol (Zyloprim) 132. the nurse administer which of the following drug: a.
Implementation c. Diagnosing d. Symptomatic quadrant either second or first b. Accused c. 1 minute c. He then suddenly stopped breathing and you are at his bedside. How long will nurse John obtain an accurate reading of temperature via oral route? a. Evaluation 134. A male client has a standing DNR order. 15 minutes 136. You would: a. Plaintiff d. Stay with the client and do nothing c. Call the family . Guilty b. Witness 137. 8 minutes d. Call the physician b. The symptomatic quadrant first d. The one filing the criminal care against an accused party is said to be the? a. Call another nurse d. The symptomatic quadrant last c. When examining a client with abdominal pain. Any quadrant 135. Nurse Hazel should assess: a. 3 minutes b.b.
138. On unaffected side . The nurse is assessing a female client with possible diagnosis of osteoarthritis. Tymphanic membranes b. The ANA recognized nursing informatics heralding its establishment as a new field in nursing during what year? a. External ear 142. 1994 b. 1992 c. Age 141. 2001 139. 2000 d. When performing Weber¶s test. 1990-1993 b. A male client complains of vertigo. Nurse Rosean expects that this client will hear a. The most significant risk factor for osteoarthritis is: a. Race c. Obesity b. Job d. 2001-2002 c. When is the first certification of nursing informatics given? a. 1994-1996 d. 2005-2008 140. Auricle d. Nurse Bea anticipates that the client may have a problem with which portion of the ear? a. Inner ear c.
a most appropriate respiratory goal is: a. A male client is hospitalized with Guillain-Barre Syndrome. Longer through bone than air conduction c. Widening pulse pressure . A positive sweat chloride test d. Warm skin 145. Promote elimination of carbon dioxide c. non distended abdomen c. A positive edrophonium (Tensilon) test 144. Brudzinski¶s sign c. Kernigs sign b. Temperature of over 103°F c. By neither bone or air conduction 143. Which assessment finding is the most significant? a. On affected side by bone conduction d. Even.b. Maintain partial pressure of arterial oxygen (Pa O2) above 80mmHg b. unlabored respirations b. For a female client with suspected intracranial pressure (ICP). Soft. Which nursing assessment would identify the earliest sign of ICP? a. Urine output of 50 ml/hr d. Lower the PH d. Toy with a tentative diagnosis of myasthenia gravis is admitted for diagnostic make up. Prevent respiratory alkalosis 146. Myasthenia gravis can confirmed by: a. Change in level of consciousness b.
Pulmonary embolism b. The drop factor of the IV infusion set is 10 drops per minute. The greatest danger of an uncorrected atrial fibrillation for a male patient will be which of the following: a. 21 gtts/min c. You answered that the BSE is best performed: a. A 30 year old post hysterectomy client has visited the health center. Linda. Unequal pupils 147. How many drops per minute should the flow rate be? a. The Intravenous drip is running at 60 gtts/min. At the same day each month c. Before menstruation 149. During menstruation d. 13-14 drops b. Mr. Thrombus formation d. 30 gtts/min d. Gutierrez is to receive 1 liter of D5RL to run for 12 hours. She inquired about BSE and asked the nurse when BSE should be performed. 60 gtts/min. Approximately how many drops per minutes should the IV be regulated? a. 15 gtts/min 150. 10-12 drops . 7 days after menstruation b. 17-18 drops c. Cardiac arrest c.d. b. An infant is ordered to recive 500 ml of D5NSS for 24 hours. Myocardial infarction 148.
d. 15-16 drops .
This action might not be possible to undo. Are you sure you want to continue?
We've moved you to where you read on your other device.
Get the full title to continue reading from where you left off, or restart the preview.