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QP-OpenMatVIII-XII

QP-OpenMatVIII-XII

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  • OPENMAT (VIII) ENTRANCE TEST FOR MANAGEMENT PROGRAMMES 2001
  • OPENMAT (IX) ENTRANCE TEST FOR MANAGEMENT PROGRAMMES 2001
  • OPENMAT (X) ENTRANCE TEST FOR MANAGEMENT PROGRAMMES 2002
  • OPENMAT (XI) ENTRANCE TEST FOR MANAGEMENT PROGRAMMES 2002
  • OPENMAT (XII) ENTRANCE TEST FOR MANAGEMENT PROGRAMMES 2003

Indira Gandhi National Open University

School of Management Studies
MANAGEMENT
PROGRAMME
Previous OPENMAT Entrance
Test Papers
April, 2003
© Indira Gandhi National Open University, 2003
All rights reserved. No part of this work may be reproduced in any form, by mimeograph or any other means,
without permission in writing from the Indira Gandhi National Open University.
Further information on the Indira Gandhi National Open University courses may be obtained from the University’s
office at Maidan Garhi, New Delhi-110 068.
Printed and published on behalf of the Indira Gandhi National Open University, New Delhi, by the
Director, School of Management Studies.
Laser typeset by Nath Graphics, 1/21, Sarvapriya Vihar, New Delhi-110 016.
Printed at:
Print Production
Mr. A.S. Chhatwal Mr. Tilak Raj Ms. Sumathy
Asstt. Registrar (Publication), Sr. Scale Section Officer (Publication) Proof Reader
SOMS, IGNOU, New Delhi SOMS, IGNOU, New Delhi SOMS, IGNOU, New Delhi
CONTENTS
Page Nos.
q Openmat (viii) Entrance Test ............................................................................................ 9
q Openmat (ix) Entrance Test ............................................................................................ 24
q Openmat (x) Entrance Test ............................................................................................. 40
q Openmat (xi) Entrance Test ............................................................................................ 55
q Openmat (xii) Entrance Test ........................................................................................... 69
5
INFORMATION HANDOUT FOR ENTRANCE EXAMINATION
Dear Candidate,
This booklet contains the Previous Openmat question paper and other related information for OPENMAT Test for
admission to Management Programme of this University. You will be given a test booklet containing 200 objective type
multiple choice questions and a specifically designed OMR response sheet in the Examination hall. You will notice
from the sample test paper that it is different from the usual School/College examinations. It is, therefore, necessary for
you to know in advance about the type of questions and the way in which you are required to answer them. This handout
will help you in this respect.
The type of tests which will be used in this OPENMAT (ENTRANCE TEST) are given below:
Test No. of Questions Marks Time
Test I General Awareness 30 30 Composite
Test II English Language 50 50 Time of
Test III Quantitative Aptitude 50 50 Three hours
Test IV Reasoning 70 70
All the above four tests will be given in a composite test booklet which will be printed in English. You will be given
composite time of three hours to answer 200 questions. You may attempt the test in any order you like. Since the
questions in the test Booklet are objective type, answers are not required to be written in words or sentences. For each
question, there are four answer choices suggested and only one of them is right. You have to select the right answer from
amongst the given answers. In case you find that none of the four alternatives is correct, you have to mark ‘O’.
HOW TO FILL UP THE INFORMATION ON THE
EXAMINATION ANSWER SHEET
At the end of this handout a sample answer sheet is given. You may fill up your own information in this answer sheet so
that you may correctly fill up the actual OMR examination answer sheet in the examination hall. While filling up the
OMR examination answer sheet, you should follow the following guidelines:
1. Write your complete Enrolment No. in 9 digits. This should correspond to the enrolment number indicated as on
your Hall Ticket. Also write your correct name address with pin code in the space provided in ink. Put your
signatures on the response sheet with date in ink. Ensure that the Invigilator in your examination hall also puts his
signatures with date on the OMR response sheet at the space provided. You should use only HB pencil to mark the
answers of the questions on the OMR Response Sheet.
2. Do not make any stray marks on the response sheet.
3. Write correct information in numerical digit in Enrolment No. and Exam. Centre Code columns. The correspond-
ing rectangle should be dark enough and should be filled in completely. For example, suppose your enrolment
number is 145786159. Examination Centre Code is 0101. This information in indicated in sample answer sheet.
4. Each question is followed by four probable answers which are numbered 1,2,3 & 4. You should select and show
only one answer to each question considered by you as the most appropriate or the correct answer. Select the most
appropriate answer. Then by using HB pencil, blacken the rectangle bearing the correct answer number against
the serial number of the question. If you find that answer to any question is none of the four alternatives given
under the question you should darken the rectangle ‘O’.
5. If you wish to change your answer, ERASE completely the already darkened rectangle by using a good quality
eraser and then blacken the rectangle bearing your revised answer number. If incorrect answer is not erased
completely, smudges will be left on the erased rectangle and the question will be read as having two answers by
the Optical Mark Reader (OMR) and will be ignored for giving any credit.
6. No credit will be given if more than one answer is given for one question. Therefore, you should select most
appropriate answers.
6
7. You should not spend too much time on any one question. If you find any particular question difficult, leave it and
go to the next. If you have time left after answering all the questions, you may go back to the unanswered ones.
8. There is no negative marking for wrong answers.
GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS
1. No calculators, books, slide-rules, foot-rulers, note-books or written notes, etc. will be allowed inside the Exami-
nation Hall.
2. You should follow the instructions given by Centre Superintendent and by Invigilators at the examination venue.
If you violate the instructions you will be disqualified.
3. Any candidate found copying or receiving or giving assistance in the examination will be disqualified.
4. The test booklet and the OMR response sheet would be supplied to you by the Invigilator. After the exam is over
you should hand over the Test Booklet and the OMR Response Sheet to the Invigilator before leaving the
examination hall . Any candidate who does not return the question booklet and the OMR Response Sheet will be
disqualified and the University may take further action against him/her.
5. Candidates arriving late will not be permitted to enter the examination hall. The reporting time is 9.15 A.M.
The examination will start at 10.00 A.M. and will be over at 1.00 p.m.
6. All rough work is to be done on the test booklet itself and not on any other paper, Scrap paper is not permitted. For
arriving at answers you may work in the margins, make some markings or underline in the test booklet itself.
7. University reserves the right to cancel score of any candidate who impersonates or uses malpractices. The exami-
nation is conducted under uniform conditions. The University would also follow a procedure to verify the validity
of scores of all examinees uniformly. If there is substantial indication that your performance is not genuine,
University may cancel your score.
8. Candidates should bring their hall tickets duly affixed with their latest photograph to appear in the test.
The photograph should be attested by a Gazetted Officer, failing which you will not be allowed to take
examination. The hall ticket should be got signed by the Invigilator. In the Event of your qualifying in the
OPENMAT Test, this hall ticket should be enclosed with your admission form while submitting it to your
Regional Centre for seeking admission in Management Programme along with your testimonials and
programme fee. Admission forms received at the Regional Centre without hall ticket in original will be
summarily rejected.
(No duplicate Hall ticket will be issued after the Entrance Test)
DECLARATION OF RESULT AND RESULT CARD
The University will send you Result Card by post indicating your qualifying/non-qualifying status in the examination. Those
who have ‘qualifying’ status may apply for admission. The procedure for submission of admission form, is given on page 4 of
Student Handbook and Prospectus. The results will also be available with IGNOU Regional Cenres in third week of
September/third week of March for OPENMAT (Entrance Test) held in August and February respectively. You may
inquire about your qualifying status from the Office of the Regional Director, IGNOU of your Region.
Relaxed qualifying standards would be applied to SC/ST and female candidates. In case, you have not indicated the category
(SC/ST) you belong to, you will be considered as a general candidate. Similarly, if there is no indication regarding male/
female, no relaxation in qualifying standard if any will be admissible. You will be responsible for the accuracy of indications
made by you in the OPENMAT test form and no review will be possible.
Result Cards would be despatched from SR&E Division, IGNOU, Maidan Garhi, New Delhi-110068 to all the candidates,
who appear for the examination. In case you are ‘Qualifying’ but do not receive your Result Card, you may approach the
Regional Director, IGNOU of your Region.
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INSTRUCTIONS FOR MARKING
1. Use only H.B. Pencil for marking responses.
2. Do not mutilate / tear this response sheet.
3. Mark your answer in proper column. Erase clearly and
completely to change any wrong marking, if any.
4. Use correct course Code (Entrance Test Candidates
need not fill up Course Code).
5. Course Codes are given below.
6. Programme Codes for Entrance Test Candidates are given below.
7. Four choices are given for a question, out of which one
option is correct. Mark the correct answer in the relevant
coulmn and also write your answer choice in numeral in
the rectangle above. If you find that none of the options
given in a question is correct mark in column “0”.
8. Please follow the examples given below to mark your
Enrolment Number, Programme Code (For Entrance
Test Candidates only), Exam. Centre Code, Course
Code, Month and Year.
i=r=inirts i¶¶tªt +¶n rvtrt n -tt
Course Particulars / ¶t:v+¤ i¶¶tªt
Programme / +.( |+ .....................................................................
Course Name / |.(|+ -.+ ........................................................
Student’s Particulars / i¶¤t·tt i¶¶tªt
Enrolment No. / - |+. + = (. ...................................................
Name / -.+ ......................................................................................
Address / |. ..................................................................................
..................................................................................
City / ..-· .........................................................................................
Pin Coe / '|- +. ..........................................................................
Fill up the following particulars with ink only
¶tt:tt ¶·t -tt= n ¶rn +¶vt i=r=inirts i=:-tt +t ¤¶-v ¶: n(
¶-=t-tt i¤-r rn ¶+tt x=tv = i+ [´] [] [ \] [ q]
Plaese read relevant instructions given below care-
fully before completing this form.
Make like Not like [´] [] [ \] [ q]
Candidate’s Signature / '.·.. + --.·.· ............................
Signature of Invigilator / - .·.+ + --.·.· ........................
Date / '-. + ....................................
Course Code PMT PSS PCO CIC1 CIC2 CIC3 CIC4 CIC5
Computer Code 1111 1112 1113 2221 2222 2223 2224 2225
Programme Code OPENMAT B.ED. BIT ADIT
Computer Code 555 666 777 888
Indira Gandhi National Open University
OMR RESPONSE SHEET
ri-:tt vt·tt ttª-tv ¤+s i¶-¶i¶¤tnv
¤t.¤¤.¤tt. ¶tt:tt ¬-tt ¶ª:
B
SHEET NUMBER
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PLEASE NOTE THAT THE NUMBERS AND CODES GIVEN IN THE RESPECTIVE FIELDS ARE ONLY EXAMPLES.
Enrolment Numbr
¤=+¤t+
1 4 5 7 8 6 1 5 9
[0]
[2]
[3]
[4]
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[6]
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1 1 1 2 1 2 4 6 5 5 5 0 3 2 0 0 0
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Examination
Centre Code
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Code
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Month
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Year
¶ªt
Enrolment Numbr
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1 4 5 7 8 6 1 5 9
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¶t:v+¤ +ts
Examination
Centre Code
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Programme
Code
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Month
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Year
¶ªt
MARK YOUR ANSWERS WITH H.B. PENCIL ONLY
A
(For Entrance Test
Candidates Only)
q q
1 2 3 4 5
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36 37 38 39 40
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71 72 73 74 75
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106 107 108 109 110
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141 142 143 144 145
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[1]
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176 177 178 179 180
[0]
[1]
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6 7 8 9 10
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41 42 43 44 45
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[1]
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[1]
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[1]
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76 77 78 79 80
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111 112 113 114 115
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[1]
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146 147 148 149 150
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[1]
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181 182 183 184 185
[0]
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[1]
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[1]
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11 12 13 14 15
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[1]
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[0]
[1]
[2]
[3]
[4]
46 47 48 49 50
[0]
[1]
[2]
[3]
[4]
[0]
[1]
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[0]
[1]
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81 82 83 84 85
[0]
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116 117 118 119 120
[0]
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151 152 153 154 155
[0]
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186 187 188 189 190
[0]
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[0]
[1]
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[0]
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16 17 18 19 20
[0]
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51 52 53 54 55
[0]
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[0]
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[0]
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86 87 88 89 90
[0]
[1]
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[0]
[1]
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[1]
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121 122 123 124 125
[0]
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[0]
[1]
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156 157 158 159 160
[0]
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191 192 193 194 195
[0]
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21 22 23 24 25
[0]
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56 57 58 59 60
[0]
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[0]
[1]
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[3]
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[0]
[1]
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[1]
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91 92 93 94 95
[0]
[1]
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[1]
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[0]
[1]
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126 127 128 129 130
[0]
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161 162 163 164 165
[0]
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196 197 198 199 200
[0]
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[1]
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26 27 28 29 30
[0]
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61 62 63 64 65
[0]
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[1]
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[0]
[1]
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[1]
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96 97 98 99 100
[0]
[1]
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[0]
[1]
[2]
[3]
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[0]
[1]
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[1]
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131 132 133 134 135
[0]
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[1]
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166 167 168 169 170
[0]
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31 32 33 34 35
[0]
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66 67 68 69 70
[0]
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101 102 103 104 105
[0]
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136 137 138 139 140
[0]
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171 172 173 174 175
[0]
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9
OPENMAT (VIII) ENTRANCE TEST FOR
MANAGEMENT PROGRAMMES 2001
1. At present the major part of which of the following
Central revenues goes to various State Governments
in India ?
(1) Gift Tax (2) Wealth Tax
(3) Excise Duties (4) Income Tax
2. Which of the following is the correct chronological
order of rulers ?
(1) Mohammed Bin Tughlaq, Ghiasuddin Tughlaq,
Firoz Shah Tughlaq
(2) Firoz Shah Tughlaq, Mohammed Bin Tughlaq,
Ghiasuddin Tughlaq
(3) Ghiasuddin Tughlaq, Firoz Shah Tughlaq,
Mohammed Bin Tughlaq
(4) Ghiasuddin Tughlaq, Mohammed Bin Tughlaq,
Firoz Shah Tughlaq
3. At what temperature on the Centigrade scale, does
the Fahrenheit scale’s reading become 5 times of the
Centigrade reading ?
(1) 10
o
C (2) 20
o
C
(3) 30
o
C (4) 45
o
C
4. Arrange the following in a chronological order :
A. Kheda Satyagraha
B. Dandi March
C. Non-Cooperation Movement
D. Civil Disobedience Movement
(1) A, B, C, D (2) A, C, D, B
(3) D, C, A, B (4) A, C, B, D
5. The first Buddhist Council was held during the reign of
(1) Bimbisara (2) Ajatashatru
(3) Ashoka (4) Kanishka
6. Who was the founder of Jainism ?
(1) Rishabha (2) Mahavira
(3) Arishthanemi (4) Parasavanatha
7. The leguminous plants (legumes or dals) are
important in agriculture because they
(1) need very little water to grow
(2) are disease resistant
(3) have a short life-cycle
(4) help in nitrogen economy of the plants
8. In which of the following games did India win a Gold
Medal after 32 years in Asian Games ?
(1) Basketball (2) Hockey
(3) Wrestling (4) Football
9. Which of the following countries is not a member of
G-7 group ?
(1) Germany (2) India
(3) Japan (4) Italy
10. Which one of the following is correctly matched ?
(1) Andhra Pradesh : Land-man ratio is lowest
(2) West Bengal : Sex ratio is highest
(3) Kerala : Density of population is highest
(4) Tamil Nadu : Sex ratio is lowest
11. Diabetes mellitus affects human system following a
disorder in
(1) anatomy (2) behaviour
(3) metabolism (4) excretion
12. Which of the following names does not match with
the other three ?
(1) Amir Khusro (2) Todarmal
(3) Abul Fazal (4) Birbal
13. Which of the following books has been written by
Vikram Seth ?
(1) Starry Nights (2) Midnight’s Children
(3) A Suitable Boy (4) Islamic Bomb
14. Kuki tribes mainly inhabit which of the following
states ?
(1) Nagaland (2) Manipur
(3) Assam (4) Andhra Pradesh
15. Which of the following states gets the benefit of
Idukki Power Project ?
(1) Kerala (2) Orissa
(3) Jammu & Kashmir (4) Tamil Nadu
16. The currency of Myanmar is
(1) Taka (2) Ngultrum
(3) Kyat (4) Dinar
17. When was the Muslim League formed ?
(1) 1904 (2) 1905
(3) 1906 (4) 1907
18. Who amongst the following is known as ‘Father of
Genetics’ ?
(1) Walter S. Sutton
(2) Thomas Hunt Morgan
(3) Hershey and Chase
(4) Gregor Mendel
TEST I
General Awareness
10
19. Delta is an alluvial deposit
(1) on the mountain
(2) in the valley
(3) on the foot-hill
(4) on the mouth of a river
20. Seismograph is an instrument to measure
(1) earthquake shocks (2) air pressure
(3) air temperature (4) height
21. The ‘Queen of the Adriatic’ is the name given to
(1) Milan (2) Venice
(3) Peshkara (4) Fogia
22. The proposed state of Chhatisgarh is a major part of
(1) Bihar (2) U.P.
(3) Orissa (4) Madhya Pradesh
23. Kofi Annan is the
(1) Chairman of International Monetary Fund
(2) Secretary-General UNO
(3) President of Angola
(4) Noted Scientist
24. The Daewoo Group of industries launched Cielo cars
in collaboration with which of the following indus-
trial houses in India ?
(1) Tata (2) Birla
(3) DCM (4) Bajaj
25. Who is the author of the book, ‘I Dare’ ?
(1) Mr. K.P.S. Gill
(2) Ms. Kiran Bedi
(3) Field Marshal Sam Manekshaw
(4) Mohd. Azharuddin
26. Penguins are normally habitants of
(1) Antarctica region
(2) Marshy land of the African Continent
(3) Siberian Forests
(4) Sahara Desert
27. The famous Moorti Devi Award is given for excel-
lence in
(1) Medicine
(2) Science and Technology
(3) Journalism
(4) Social Service
28. Who amongst the following first launched Floating
Interest Rate Bonds in the capital market in India ?
(1) Canara Bank
(2) Reliance Industries
(3) Steel Authority of India
(4) Industrial Development Bank of India
29. At the present rate of its population growth, India
will overtake China in the year
(1) 2010
(2) 2060
(3) 2030
(4) 2040
30. The Indian variety of which of the following plants
has been proved to be the greatest pollution fighter
in India ?
(1) Tea
(2) Jute
(3) Mustard
(4) Groundnut
TEST II
English Language
Directions : For Q. No. 31 – 45. There are two reading passages given below. Each passage is followed by questions based on
its content. Choose the best answer on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passage.
Passage I
Telecommunications has traditionally been viewed as a natural monopoly and a relaltively straightforward public
utility. Economies of scale, political and military sensitivities, and large externalities made telecommunications a typical
public service. In such an environment, development focussed primarily on extending basic services and secondarily on
improving the operational performance of the telecommunications operating entities.
In recent years the situation has changed dramatically. There has emerged a strong business demand for better, more
varied, and less costly communications services. This demand reflects the growing importance of communication in all eco-
nomic sectors, the convergence of information and telecommunication services, and the globalisation of capital flows, trade,
manufacturing, and other activities. Technological innovation has greatly reduced the cost of information processing and
transmission and has created new ways of meeting a wider range of user needs independent of existing telecommunications
enterprises and often at lower cost.
11
Industrialized countries, in which these forces first emerged in full strength are responding to the profound changes in
telecommunications by revising the policy framework, structure, and regulation of the sector. These developments in turn
promote competition, increase the number of participants in the telecommunications business and blur the boundaries not
only between users and providers but also among the various types of services offered. In addition the changes expand
telecommunications markets globally and unleash powerful forces seeking new opportunites worldwide.
Where do developing countries stand in this context ?
With few exceptions, in the developing world telecommunications services are provided by the public sector. These services
yield high economic returns, benefit a broad section of the population, and are used mainly for economic production and
distribution. They can also be a profitable business and an important source of public funds. Despite the high social and private
returns, however, developing countries generally invest too little in telecommunications. As a result there is high unmet
demand for basic services, call congestion, excessive concentration in a few urban centers, and a lack of the advanced services
trhat are increasingly needed by the modern sectors of the economy. Furthermore, facilities are often badly maintained and
operated, so that service quality and reliability are poor. These problems are largely traceable to inadequate sector policies, a
shortage of funds (especially foreign exchange) for investment, and weaknesses in the operating entities’ organisation and
management.
There is evidence that the pressures on the telecommunications sector in the advanced economies are increasingly felt
in developing countries as well. Consequently, attractive opportunities to deal with the sector’s inadequacies are emerging.
Some developing coutries are considering alternatives to the traditional state monopoly that would increase the autonomy and
commercial orientation of the enterprise, attract private participation, and introduce competitive discipline. These alternatives
are expected to help raise investment levels, mobilize new sources of capital, attract entrepreneurial talent, improve enterprise
efficiency, and increase responsiveness to user demands. Such undertakings, however, raise broad policy and regulatory issues
that many developing country governments may not yet be well equipped to address.
31. In the recent past the focus of telecom services has been
(1) on its political and military sensitivities
(2) on extending basic services and improving op-
erational performance
(3) on externalities
(4) on its technological characteristics
32. The key reason for profound changes in the telecom
sector in the developed countries is
(1) the structural characteristics of the sector
(2) the growing importance of communications
(3) the change in the pattern of demand for tele-
communications
(4) the introduction of the computer
33. All of the following have directly led to an increase
in the demand for better and more varied telecom-
munication services except the
(1) globalisation of trade and capital
(2) change in the information processing equipment
(3) convergence of information and telecommuni-
cation services
(4) growing importance of communication in eco-
nomic activity
34. Technological innovation has led to the demand for
cheaper telecommunication services mainly because
(1) information processing costs have declined
(2) newer ways of meeting user needs independent
of existing telecom services have evolved
(3) cost of setting up telecom networks has declined
(4) transmission costs have fallen leading to in-
creased usage of telecommunication facilities
35. According to the passage, all of the following are
significant changes taking place in the telecom sec-
tors of industrialised countries except
(1) an increase in the number of participants and
competition
(2) a strong expansion in global telecommunica-
tions market
(3) significant changes in policy environment
(4) an increased emphasis on extending basic ser-
vices
36. All of the following are characteristics of telecom-
munication services in the developing world except
(1) high economic returns
(2) highly varied services
(3) high social returns
(4) high unmet demand
37. The main reason for problems facing telecommuni-
cation services in the developing world is
(1) high unmet demand for basic services
(2) excessive concentration in a few urban centres
(3) too little investment in telecommunications
(4) high social and private returns
38. Which of the following, according to the passage,
cannot be cited as a cause for poor operational and
service quality in telecom ?
(1) Poor management practices
(2) Lack of advanced services
(3) A shortage of foreign exchange
(4) Badly maintained practices
12
39. All the following are seen as advantages by develop-
ing countries in evolving alternative models for their
telecom sector except
(1) increased competition
(2) increased investment
(3) improved operational and enterprise efficiency
(4) better responsiveness to users
40. According to the passage
(1) competitive discipline results in increased returns
(2) the boundaries between users and providers are
blurring
(3) the telecom secrtor is an important destination for
public funds in developed countries
(4) most developing countries have prepared them-
selves to increase the autonomy and commer-
cial orientation of traditional state monopolies
Passage II
Human memory, formerly believed to be rather inefficient, is really more sophisticated than that of a computer. Re-
searchers approaching the problem from a variety of points of view have all concluded that there is a great deal more stored in
our minds than has been generally supposed. Dr. Wilder Penfield, a Canadian neurosurgeon, proved that by stimulating their
brains electrically, he could elicit the total recall of specific events in his subjects’ lives. Even dreams and other minor events
supposedly forgotten for many years suddently emerged in detail.
The memory trace is the term for whatever is the internal representation of the specific information about the event
stored in the memory. Assumed to have been made by structural changes in the braiun, the memory trace is not subject to
direct observation but is rather a theoretical construct that we use to speculate about how information presented at a particular
time can cause performance at a later time. Most theories include the strength of the memory trace as a variable in the degree
of learning, retention, and retrieval possible for a memory. One theory is that the fantastic capacity for storage in the brain is
the result of an almost unlimited combination of interconnection between brain cells, stimulated by patterns of activity.
Repeated reference to the same information supports recall. Or, to say that in another way, improved performance is the result
of strengtheneing the chemical bonds in the memory.
41. The passage above is mainly concerned with
(1) Wilder Penfield (2) Neurosurgery
(3) Human memory (4) Chemical reactions
42. Compared with a computer, human memory is
(1) more complex (2) more limited
(3) less dependable (4) less durable
43. According to the passage, researchers have concluded
that
(1) the mind has a much greater capacity for
memory than was previously believed
(2) the physical basis for memory is clear
(3) different points of view are valuable
(4) human memory is inefficient
44. According to the passage, the capacity for storage in
the brain
(1) can be understood by examining the physiol-
ogy
(2) is stimulated by patterns of activity
(3) has a limited combination of relationships
(4) is not influenced by repetition
45. All of the following are true of a memory trace
except
(1) it is probably made by structural changes in the
brain
(2) it is able to be observed
(3) it is a theoretical construct
(4) it is related to the degree of recall
Directions: To answer Q. No. 46 to 50, choose a word from
among the four options given in each question, one that is
closest in meaning to the word in capital letters.
46. PRECURSOR
(1) Attacker (2) Pursuer
(3) Forerunner (4) Torturer
47. INTREPID
(1) Fearless (2) Senseless
(3) Cowardly (4) Complacent
48. ATTENUATE
(1) To fawn (2) To weaken
(3) To fulminate (4) To hesitate
13
49. FLIPPANT
(1) Flair (2) Frivolous
(3) Pliant (4) Serious
50. ATYPICAL
(1) Qualitative (2) Unstandardised
(3) Irregular (4) Vague
Directions : For Q. No. 51 to 55. Each of these questions
consists of a word in capital letters followed by four op-
tions. choose the one option in each question, that is the
nearest opposite in meaning to the word in capital letters.
51. REMISS
(1) Additional (2) Alert
(3) Unabashed (4) Forgetful
52. PRINCIPAL
(1) Minor (2) Duplicate
(3) Joint (4) Additional
53. PANEGYRIC
(1) Libel (2) Allergic
(3) Verbose (4) Tedious
54. ABSTEMIOUS
(1) Critical (2) Intemperate
(3) Drained (4) Redundant
55. BUOYANT
(1) Joyless (2) Student
(3) Dangerous (4) Secretive
Directions : Q. No. 56 to 60 consist of a phrase followed by
four alternatives. Choose the alternative that expresses the
meaning of the phrase most appropriately.
56. Government by the rich
(1) Aristocracy (2) Oligarchy
(3) Bureaucracy (4) Autocracy
57. That which cannot be withdrawn
(1) Inevitable (2) Immutable
(3) Irrevocable (4) Indelible
58. Hypocritical and undependable
(1) Janus-faced (2) Hydra-headed
(3) Quotidian (4) Doughty
59. Establish a scale
(1) Valuate (2) Ululate
(3) Calibrate (4) Escalate
60. Crossing the Rubicon
(1) Averting great calamity
(2) Walking on the path of virtue
(3) Passing the point of no return
(4) Leaping into unknown waters
Directions : Q. No. 61 to 65 consist of incomplete sentences.
Following each sentence, you will see four words or phrases
marked 1, 2, 3 and 4. Choose the one word or phrase that
best completes the sentence.
61. The consistency of protoplasm and that of glue
_______ .
(1) they are alike (2) are similar to
(3) are similar (4) the same
62. Nerve impulses _______ to the brain at a speed of
about a hundred yards per second.
(1) are sending sensations
(2) to send sensations
(3) send sensations
(4) sends sensations
63. Although exact statistics vary because of political
changes, _______ separate nation states are included
in the official lists at any one time.
(1) more than two hundred
(2) as much as two hundred
(3) many as two hundred
(4) most two hundred
64. According to a recent survey, ________ doctors do
not have a personal physician.
(1) a large amount of
(2) large amount of
(3) a large number of
(4) large number of
65. ________ the plough is being displaced by new tech-
niques that protect the land and promise more abun-
dant crops.
(1) As a whole (2) Wholly
(3) On a whole (4) Wholesale
14
Directions : For Q. No. 66 to 70. Each of these questions
has a pair of words in capital letters which have a certain
relationship to each other, followed by four pairs of words.
Choose the pair which has words related to each other in
the same way as the words in the capital letters.
66. TURPITUDE : MORAL
(1) Canker : Physical
(2) Intelligence : Economic
(3) Aptitude : Mental
(4) Elevation : Spiritual
67. VINDICTIVE : REVENGE
(1) Mild : Mannerism
(2) Forgetful : Lapse
(3) Unemployed : Work
(4) Discourse : Audience
68. PHEASANT : FOWL
(1) Tiger : Cat (2) Lion : Lioness
(3) Oxen : Yoke (4) Fox : Wolverine
69. RADICAL : CONSERVATIVE
(1) Zealot : Fanatic
(2) Quisling : Patriotic
(3) Independence : Service
(4) Supporter : Solidity
70. CURRY : FLAVOUR
(1) Dish : Spice
(2) Manipulate : Scheme
(3) Beg : Pardon
(4) Ground : Foundation
Directions : In Q. No. 71 to 80, each sentence has four underlined words or phrases. The four underlined parts of the
sentences are marked A, B, C and D. Identify the one underlined word or phrase that must be changed in order for the sentence
to be correct.
71. A swarm of locusts is responsible the consumption of enough plant material to feed a million and a half people.
A B C D
(1) A (2) B
(3) C (4) D
72. Those of us who smoke should have their lungs X-rayed regularly.
A B C D
(1) A (2) B
(3) C (4) D
73. The prices at retail stores are as reasonable if not more reasonable as those at the supermarket.
A B C D
(1) A (2) B
(3) C (4) D
74. The more the humidity rises the worst the heat affects us.
A B C D
(1) A (2) B
(3) C (4) D
75. It is extremely important for an engineer to know to use a computer.
A B C D
(1) A (2) B
(3) C (4) D
76. The range of plant life on a hill is a results of differences in temperature and precipitation at varying altitudes.
A B C D
(1) A (2) B
(3) C (4) D
15
81. Find the cost of fencing a square field containing
49284 sq. m at 70 p per m.
(1) Rs. 612.60 (2) Rs. 612
(3) Rs. 621.60 (4) Rs. 631.60
82. The area of two circular fields is in the ratio 16 : 49.
If the radius of the latter is 14 m, what is the radius of
the former?
(1) 32 m (2) 18 m
(3) 8 m (4) 4 m
83. The area of the floor of a room is 20 sq. m, that of a
longer wall is 15 sq. m and of the shorter wall is 12
sq. m. Find the volume of the room.
(1) 45 cu.m (2) 10 cu.m
(3) 60 cu.m (4) 40 cu.m
84. If the car moves at the rate of 54 km per hour, what is
its speed in meters per second ?
(1) 12 (2) 15
(3) 18 (4) 21
85. The compound interest on Rs. 800 for 2 years at the
rate of 5% is
(1) Rs. 102 (2) Rs. 112
(3) Rs. 82 (4) Rs. 42
86. If the compound interest on Rs. 15625 for three years
is Rs. 1951 then the rate of interest is
(1) 5% (2) 3%
(3) 4% (4) 6%
87. If m + 2n = 2m + n, then m – n is equal to
(1) 2 (2) 3
(3) 0 (4) 4
88. 40% of 200 + 35% of 150 is
(1) 125 (2) 135
(3) 130 (4) 145
89. A sum of Rs. 6.25 is made of 80 coins which are
either 10 p or 5 p. How many are there of each kind?
(1) 40, 40 (2) 50, 30
(3) 35, 45 (4) 45, 35
90. 3 men or 4 boys can do a piece of work in 16 days.
How much time will be taken by 3 men and 4 boys to
do double that work ?
(1) 8 days (2) 16 days
(3) 12 days (4) 20 days
91. A garrison of 112 men has provisions for 5 months.
How many men must leave so that the provisions now
last for 7 months ?
(1) 50 (2) 45
(3) 40 (4) 32
92. A candidate has to obtain 33% of the total marks to
pass. He obtains 262 marks and fails by 200 marks.
Find 40% of the total marks.
(1) 650 (2) 560
(3) 565 (4) 570
77. It is said Einstein felt very badly about the application of his theories to the creation of weapons of war.
A B C D
(1) A (2) B
(3) C (4) D
78. Ferstilisers are used primarily to enrich soil and increasing yield.
A B C D
(1) A (2) B
(3) C (4) D
79. Despite of the increase in the air fares, most people still prefer to travel by plane.
A B C D
(1) A (2) B
(3) C (4) D
80. It is desirable that a management student maintains a grade point average of B in his specialisation field.
A B C D
(1) A (2) B
(3) C (4) D
TEST III
Quantitative Aptitude
16
93. How many bricks of 20 cm by 10 cm size will be required
to pave the floor of a room 8 m long and 5 m wide ?
(1) 20000 (2) 2500
(3) 2000 (4) 200
94. Pipe A can fill an empty tank in 5 hours and pipe B
can empty it in 7.5 hours. How long will it take to fill
the tank when both the pipes are opened together ?
(1) 10 hours (2) 15 hours
(3) 14 hours (4) Never be filled
95. The area of a rectangular field is 3600 sq. m. The
ratio of its length and breadth is 16 : 9. Find its
perimeter.
(1) 250 m (2) 1250 m
(3) 500 m (4) 750 m
96. It needs 50 ml paint for painting a picture 50 cm x 25
cm. How much paint is needed to paint a similar pic-
ture 100 cm x 50 cm ?
(1) 100 ml (2) 400 ml
(3) 750 ml (4) 200 ml
Directions : The table given below gives the information of
export of an item in crores of rupees. Answer Q. No. 97 to
101 based on this.
Year Amount
1994-95 161.78
1995-96 175.16
1996-97 101.38
1997-98 91.38 (Expected)
97. What is the expected decrease percent of export dur-
ing 1997-98 from 1996-97 ?
(1) 10% (2) 9.9.%
(3) 11% (4) 7.3%
98. Taking the expected export during 1997-98, what will
be the average annual export during the period un-
der consideration ?
(1) 123.4 approx (2) 143.5 approx
(3) 137.4 approx (4) 132.4 approx
99. If the exports during 1994-95 was 25% more than
1993-94, what was it during 1993-94 ?
(1) 129.4 (2) 121.3
(3) 135.7 (4) 133.9
100. What is the difference of exports during 1994-96 and
1996-98 ?
(1) 144.1 (2) 134.7
(3) 144.18 (4) 148.03
101. Exports during 1996-97 is what percent less than
during 1994-95 ?
(1) 43% (2) 37%
(3) 41% (4) 39%
102. Find the greatest number that will divide 398, 436
and 542 leaving 7, 11 and 15 as remainders
respectivdly.
(1) 15 (2) 19
(3) 17 (4) 29
103. A man bought 7 oranges for a rupee and sold them at
a profit of 40%. How many oranges did he sell for a
rupee ?
(1) 6 (2) 7
(3) 5 (4) 4
104. When the income tax is 3%, a man’s net income is
Rs. 2425. What will it be when the tax rate is raised
to 4% ?
(1) Rs. 2300
(2) Rs. 2350
(3) Rs. 2400
(4) Rs. 2415
105. Find the number which when added to itself 17 times
becomes 162
(1) 13
(2) 9
(3) 7
(4) 18
106. A number when divided by a certain divisor left re-
mainder 63. When twice the given number was di-
vided by the same divisor, remainder was 55. What
the divisor ?
(1) 61 (2) 78
(3) 71 (4) 98
107. Find the greatest number that divides 204, 1190, 1445
exactly.
(1) 15 (2) 27
(3) 17 (4) 13
108. How many times must I run around a square field of
one hectare to run 6 kilometers ?
(1) 10 (2) 15
(3) 20 (4) 25
109. Find the value of 4.7 x 13.23 + 4.7 x 9.43 + 4.7 x
77.34.
(1) 4700 (2) 470
(3) 47 (4) 47000
17
Directions : Answer Q. No. 110 to 114 on the basis of the
information given below :
The values of Net RBI credit to Government for different
years is given below :
Year Rs. in crores
1990-91 4038
1991-92 3996
1992-93 2545
1993-94 3987
1994-95 6403
1995-96 4823
1996-97 5496
110. What is the difference between the maximum and
the minimum RBI credit to the Government ?
(1) 3768 (2) 3858
(3) 3758 (4) 3407
111. Keeping in view the RBI credit in 1990-91, 1996-
97, find the annual increase.
(1) 245.7 (2) 234.5
(3) 243 (4) 234
112. What is the increase % of RBI credit in 1996-97 from
1995-96 ?
(1) 14 (2) 12
(3) 13 (4) 11
113. What is the % decrease of RBI credit in 1992-93 from
that in 1991-92 ?
(1) 15 (2) 29
(3) 33 (4) 36
114. Maximum RBI credit is what % of the minimum RBI
credit ?
(1) 159 (2) 239
(3) 129 (4) 251
115. In an examination every candidate took History or
Geography or both. 74.8% took History and 50.2%
took Geography. If the total number of candidates be
1500, how many took History and Geography both ?
(1) 400 (2) 375
(3) 350 (4) 500
116. Find the ratio in which rice at Rs. 7.20 a kg be mixed
with rice at Rs. 5.70 to produce a mixture worth Rs.
6.30 a kg.
(1) 1 : 3 (2) 2 : 3
(3) 3 : 4 (4) 4 : 5
117. Rs. 49.25 were divided among 150 children. Each
boy gets 50 paise and each girl gets 25 paise. Find
the number of boys and girls.
(1) 47,103 (2) 48, 102
(3) 93, 57 (4) 75, 75
118. A man sold two pens at Rs. 20 each. He sold one at a
loss of 10% and the other at a gain of 10%. His loss
or gain in % is
(1) loss 1% (2) gain 1%
(3) no loss no gain (4) loss 5%
119. 4% more is gained by selling a book for Rs. 180 than
by selling it at Rs. 175. Find the cost price of the book.
(1) Rs. 130 (2) Rs. 125
(3) Rs. 150 (4) Rs. 160
120. The average daily temperature from 9th January to
16th January (both days inclusive) was 38.6
o
and that
from 10th to 17th (both days inclusive) was 39.2
o
.
The temperature of 9th January was 34.6
o
. What was
the temperature on 17th January?
(1) 39.4
o
(2) 40.5
o
(3) 38.9
o
(4) 67.89
o
121. Find the simple interest on Rs. 471 for 7 months at 2
paise per rupee per month.
(1) Rs. 69.98 (2) Rs. 65.94
(3) Rs. 65.67 (4) Rs. 67.89
122. In what time will the simple interest on Rs. 900 @
6% be equal to the interest on Rs. 540 for 8 years @
5% ?
(1) 3 years (2) 5 years
(3) 4 years (4) 6 years
123. I have Rs. 3500 and I have lent Rs. 1500 @ 4% and
Rs. 1000 @ 3%. At what rate must I lend the remain-
der of my money so that my total income may be 5%
on Rs. 3500 ?
(1) 9% (2) 7.5%
(3) 8.5% (4) 7.75%
124. Find sthe compound interest on Rs. 2000 for 2 years
at 6%.
(1) Rs. 205.00 (2) Rs. 240.00
(3) Rs. 247.20 (4) Rs. 382.03
125. A certain number of men can do a piece of work in
40 days, but if there were 8 more men, it would be
finished 10 days earlier. How many men were there
in the beginning ?
(1) 25 (2) 23
(3) 22 (4) 24
18
126. If 5x – 2y = 10, then 67 – 15x equals
(1) 15 (2) 20
(3) –20 (4) –30
127. A creditor received 86 p in a rupee and thereby lost
Rs. 112. How much was due to him ?
(1) Rs. 900 (2) Rs. 800
(3) Rs. 850 (4) Rs. 950
128. The length of a room is 5.5 m and width is 3.75 m.
Find the cost of paving the floor by slabs at the rate
of Rs. 800 per sq. m.
(1) Rs. 15600 (2) Rs. 16500
(3) Rs. 15550 (4) Rs. 15000
129. The area of a square field is 6050 sq. m. Find the
length of its diagonal.
(1) 120 m
(2) 135 m
(3) 110 m
(4) 112 m
130. What is the length of a sheet, 2 m wide, required for
making an open tank 15 m long, 10 m wide and 6 m
deep ?
(1) 450 m
(2) 250 m
(3) 225 m
(4) 150 m
TEST IV
Reasoning
Directions : For Q. No. 131 to 135. Find the number that
comes next in the sequence.
131. 5, 12, 21, 32, 45, ____
(1) 60 (2) 75
(3) 50 (4) 54
132. 1, 8, 27, 64, ____
(1) 96 (2) 88
(3) 125 (4) 144
133. 2, 3, 5, 7, 11, ____
(1) 13 (2) 17
(3) 9 (4) 19
134. 2, 5, 18, 41, ____
(1) 61 (2) 64
(3) 71 (4) 74
135. 1, 3, 7, 15, 31, 63, ____
(1) 127 (2) 144
(3) 151 (4) 125
Directions : For Q. No. 136 to 140. In each of these ques-
tions, there is a pair of capitalised words followed by 4 pairs
of words. Select the pair which expresses the relaltionship
similar to that expressed in the capitalised pair of words.
136. LANGUAGE : COMMUNICATION
(1) Car : Transport (2) Line : Verse
(3) Tongue : Mouth (4) Gun : Bullet
137. ARTIST : PAINT
(1) Doctor : Patient (2) Mechanic : Car
(3) Sculptor : Clay (4) Chemist : Discovery
138. BOUQUET : FLOWER
(1) Garland : Beads (2) Hand : Bangles
(3) College : Techers (4) Party : Cakes
139. COBBLER : HIDE
(1) Farmer : Grain
(2) Tailor : Cloth
(3) Author : Book
(4) Carpenter : Furniture
140. SOLDIER : ARMY
(1) Worker : Labourer
(2) Star : Constellation
(3) Farmer : Co-operatives
(4) Member : Library
Directions : For Q. No. 141 to 145, find the odd one out.
141. (1) China (2) India
(3) Pakistan (4) Australia
142. (1) 5 (2) 7
(3) 15 (4) 17
143. (1) 64 (2) 8
(3) 25 (4) 125
19
144. (1) 17
(2) 23
(3) 25
(4) 12
145. (1) 64 (2) 144
(3) 250 (4) 225
Directions : For Q. No. 146 to 150, read the following in-
formation :
(i) Sarita, Veena, Ramesh and Mohan are sitting round
a table. All four have just won first prize in throwing,
sprinting, hurdles and high jump.
(ii) The best thrower is sitting on Sarita’s left.
(iii) The highest jumper is directly opposite Ramesh.
iv) Veena and Mohan are next to each other.
(v) There is a girl to the left of the hurdler.
146. Who is the sprint champion ?
(1) Sarita (2) Veena
(3) Ramesh (4) Mohan
147. Who is sitting opposite to the best hurdler ?
(1) Veena (2) Ramesh
(3) Sarita (4) Mohan
148. Who is the high jump champion ?
(1) Veena (2) Ramesh
(3) Mohan (4) Sarita
149. Which of the following are not sitting next to each
other ?
(1) Veena and Sarita
(2) Veena and Ramesh
(3) Mohan and Ramesh
(4) Ramesh and Sarita
150. Who is the throwing champion ?
(1) Ramesh (2) Mohan
(3) Sarita (4) Veena
151. How many triangles are there in the following figure ?
(1) 5 (2) 4
(3) 7 (4) 6
152. At a dinner party every two guests used a dish of rice
between them. Every three guests used a dish of dal
and every four used a dish of meat between them.
There were altogether 65 dishes. How many guests
were present ?
(1) 30
(2) 40
(3) 45
(4) 60
153. If ‘KITCHEN’ is coded 5263417, ‘CHICKEN’ will
be coded as
(1) 3423517
(2) 3534217
(3) 6341752
(4) 2536174
154. Find the odd one out from the following :
(1) Run (2) Climb
(3) Swim (4) Listen
155. If 214 = 12, 326 = 30, 415 = 25, then 523 is
(1) 10 (2) 30
(3) 25 (4) 15
Directions : For Q. No. 156 to 160, read the following in-
formation.
(i) There are 5 persons, A, B, C, D and E.
(ii) All except C have a pencil.
(iii) C has a pen and so have A and E.
(iv) C, D and E also have an eraser each.
156. Who has a pencil, a pen and an eraser as well ?
(1) E (2) D
(3) C (4) A
157. Who has only a pen and a pencil ?
(1) A (2) B
(3) C (4) D
158. Who has only a pencil and an eraser ?
(1) A (2) B
(3) C (4) D
159. Who has only a pen and an eraser ?
(1) B (2) C
(3) D (4) E
160. Who has only a pencil ?
(1) A (2) B
(3) C (4) D
20
Directions : For Q. No. 161 to 164, read the following information.
Anil attends his college during 9:00 a.m. to 3:00 p.m. except on Thursdays when he is free at noon. Anil takes a piano
lesson at home on Mondays from 3:30 to 4:30 p.m. On Tuesdays he goes to Karate class from 4:00 to 6:00 p.m. His art class
meets from 4:00 to 6:00 p.m. on Wednesdays. He remains in college after 3:00 p.m. on Fridays to participate in a 90 minutes
club programme.
161. The most convenient afternoon for Anil to do library
research is
(1) Tuesday
(2) Wednesday
(3) Thursday
(4) Friday
162. Keeping the same 3:30 – 4:30 p.m. schedule, Anil
can conveniently change his piano lessons to which
of the following days ?
(1) Monday
(2) Tuesday
(3) Wednesday
(4) Thursday
163. Anil is chosen to play for the university basketball team.
To attend daily 5:00 p.m. practice sessions, he will have
to suspend which of the following activities ?
(1) The art class and Karate
(2) Piano instruction and Karate
(3) Karate and the club programme
(4) The art class and the club programme
164. Anil was invited to replace his 4:00 – 6:00 p.m. art
class with an advanced art class that meets at the same
time. He could accept this advancement without in-
terfering with his other activities if the class met on
which of the following days ?
(1) Mondays & Wednesdays
(2) Tuesdays & Wednesdays
(3) Wednesdays & Thursdays
(4) Thursdays & Fridays
Directions : For Q. No. 165 to 168, study the following details :
Eight university cricket players (G, H, J, K, L, M, N, O) are to be honoured at a special ceremony. Three of these
players (H, M and O) are also university football players. Two of them (K and N) are also basketball players on the university
team. In arranging the seats it was decided that no athlete in two sports should be seated next to another two-sport athlete.
165. Which of the following combinations is possible in
order to have the arrangement of seat assignments as
planned ?
(1) H G K J (2) H K J L
(3) J K M N (4) J L H K
166. Which of the following cannot sit next to M ?
(1) G (2) J
(3) G and J (4) K
167. Before all players are seated there are two vacant seats
on either side of N. Which two players may occupy
these seat?
(1) G and K (2) G and L
(3) J and H (4) L and O
168. To have the proper seating arrangement, K should sit
between
(1) J and L (2) G and H
(3) J and M (4) L and N
Directions : For Q. No. 169 to 170 :
A is east of B and west of C. D is south-east of C. B
is south-east of F.
169. Which is farthest to the west ?
(1) D (2) F
(3) A (4) B
170. Which is in the middle ?
(1) B (2) F
(3) A (4) C
Directions : For Q. No. 171 to 173 :
In each of these questions a word has been given followed by four other words, one of which cannot be formed by using
the letters of the given word. Find that word.
171. CONSTITUTIONAL
(1) CONSTANT (2) TALENT
(3) TUITION (4) LOCATION
172. SATISFACTION
(1) FICTION (2) FACT
(3) FAT (4) FRACTION
21
173. RHINOCEROS
(1) NOSE (2) SOON
(3) ROOM (4) RINSE
174. Three of the following four are alike in a certain way
and so form a group. Which is the one that doesn’t
belong to that group ?
(1) PRT (2) QOM
(3) CEG (4) UWY
175. In a certain code, PERFECT is written as RGTHGEV.
How will BROWN be written in that code ?
(1) CSPXO (2) DSQYP
(3) CTQXP (4) DTQYP
176. In a row of boys, Ram is twelfth from the left and
Ramesh is fifteenth from the right. When they inter-
change their positions, Ramesh becomes twentieth
from the right. How many boys are there in the row ?
(1) 27 (2) 30
(3) 31 (4) 24
177. Which of the following should come next in the fol-
lowing letter series ?
LXF, MTJ, NPN, OLR, ____
(1) PHV (2) PPV
(3) PIU (4) PJW
178. If rain is called water, water is called air, air is called
cloud, cloud is called sky, sky is called sea, sea is
called road, where do the aeroplanes fly ?
(1) Water (2) Road
(3) Sea (4) Cloud
179. “Kilogram” is related to “Quintal” in the same way
as “Paisa” is related to
(1) Coin (2) Money
(3) Wealth (4) Rupee
180. If P denotes ‘+’, R denotes ‘x’, S denotes ‘–’ and T
denotes ‘÷’, then what will be the value of
5R9P7S9T3P6 ?
(1) 50 (2) 43
(3) 75 (4) 55
Directions : For Q. No. 181 to 190, study the following information.
(i) Five persons Manohar, Amar, Narender, Sachin and Prakash are musician, architect, doctor, engineer and artist by
profession and live in Agra, Bhopal, Calcuuta, Delhi and Ernakulam, but not in that order.
(ii) Manohar and Amar are not artists or engineers and they do not live in Delhi or Agra.
(iii) Prakash and Narender do not live in Agra or Ernakulam, and neither of them is an architect or doctor.
(iv) Sachin is neither a doctor nor a musician.
(v) The person living in Agra is neither an artist nor an engineer.
(vi) Manohar does not live in Calcutta and Amar is not a doctor.
(vii) The musician does not live in Ernakulam or Bhopal.
(viii) Prakash is not an artist.
(ix) The artist does not live in Delhi.
181. Who lives in Agra ?
(1) Amar (2) Sachin
(3) Manohar (4) Prakash
182. Sachin is a/an
(1) Musician (2) Doctor
(3) Architect (4) Artist
183. Who is the artist ?
(1) Narender (2) Prakash
(3) Amar (4) Manohar
184. The engineer who lives in Delhi is
(1) Sachin (2) Prakash
(3) Narender (4) Manohar
185. The musician lives in
(1) Calcutta (2) Delhi
(3) Agra (4) Ernakulam
186. Tlhe person living in Ernakulam is
(1) Amar (2) Prakash
(3) Manohar (4) Sachin
187. The person living in Bhopal is a/an
(1) Architect (2) Engineer
(3) Doctor (4) Artist
188. Where does Prakash live ?
(1) Agra (2) Delhi
(3) Ernakulam (4) Bhopal
22
189. Amar lives in Calcutta and is a
(1) Musician (2) Doctor
(3) Engineer (4) Artist
190. The doctor lives in
(1) Bhopal (2) Calcutta
(3) Ernakulam (4) Agra
Directions : From Q. No. 191 to 194 :
Seats on a small plane are being assigned to six passengers — N, P, Q, R, S and T. The eight seats on the plane are in
four rows, numbered 1 through 4, and each row has two seats. Seat assignments are made according to the following condi-
tions :
(i) N must sit alone in a row.
(ii) P must sit in the same row as R.
(iii) Q cannot sit in the same row as S.
(iv) The rows with only one passenger must be row 1 and row 3.
191. Which of the following passengers could be assigned
to sit in the same row as Q ?
(1) T (2) N
(3) P (4) R
192. If P and R are in row 2, which of the following must be true ?
(1) Q is in row 1
(2) Q is in row 4
(3) S is in row 3
(4) T is in row 4
193. Which of the following is the total number of pas-
sengers eligible to be the passenger assigned to sit in
the same row as T ?
(1) 1 (2) 2
(3) 3 (4) 4
194. If Q and T are assigned to sit together in a row, which
of the following passengers could be assigned to sit
in row 3 ?
(1) P (2) Q
(3) R (4) S
Directions : For Q. No. 195 to 198 :
A shopkeeper is preparing gift boxes of candy. Each box will contain exactly two kinds of hard candy to be selected
from F, G and H, and exactly three kinds of soft candy to be selected from P, Q, R, S and T with the following restrictions :
(i) G cannot be in the same gift box as T.
(ii) P cannot be in the same gift box as S.
(iii) Q cannot be in the same gift box as T.
195. If G is included in a gift box, which of the following
is a kind of candy that must also be included ?
(1) F
(2) H
(3) P
(4) Q
196. If H is not included in a particular gift box, any of the
following kinds of candies can be included except
(1) Q
(2) R
(3) S
(4) T
197. Which of the following kinds of candies must be in-
cluded in ech of the gift boxes ?
(1) G (2) H
(3) P (4) R
198. If T is included in a gift box, the box must also in-
clude which of the following kinds of candy ?
(1) F and G
(2) F and H
(3) G and H
(4) P and R
23
Directions : For Q. No. 199 and 200.
Two-way roads exist among the following towns
surrounding a mountain :
Between M and N
Between M and O
Between O and R
Between R and T
Between R and U
Between T and P
Between P and S
There is also a one-way road between town P and town N;
the permitted direction of travel is from P to N.
None of these roads intersect each other except at the towns.
There are no other towns or roads in the vicinity.
199. To drive from S to N, it is necessary to go through town
(1) M (2) P
(3) R (4) T
200. If a landslide temporarily makes the road between O
and R impassable, then in order to reach M by road
from U, one would have to go through a total of how
many other towsn besides M and U ?
(1) 2 (2) 3
(3) 4 (4) 5
24
OPENMAT (IX) ENTRANCE TEST FOR
MANAGEMENT PROGRAMMES 2001
TEST I
General Awareness
1. The Third Ministerial Conference of the WTO was
held in November–December 1999 at which of the
following places ?
(1) New Delhi (2) Seattle
(3) Tokyo (4) Berlin
2. The tiny enclave of Macau was handed over to China
in December 1999. Macau was under the rule of
(1) Russia (2) Britain
(3) India (4) Portugal
3. Almatti Dam is being constructed between which of
the following states ?
(1) Madhya Pradesh and Andhra Pradesh
(2) Tamil Nadu and Andhra Pradesh
(3) Karnataka and Tamil Nadu
(4) Andhra Pradesh and Karnataka
4. Which of the following days is observed as World
Food Day ?
(1) September 23 (2) September 16
(3) October 23 (4) October 16
5. Which of the following is not a computer language ?
(1) Windows 98 (2) PASCAL
(3) C++ (4) FORTRAN
6. According to the Insurance and Regulatory and De-
velopment Authority (IRDA) Bill, the share of the
foreign companies in insurance sector will be upto a
maximum of
(1) 16% (2) 20%
(3) 26% (4) 28%
7. Which of the following musicians declined to accept
the Padma Vibhushan Award 2000 ?
(1) Pt. Jasraj
(2) Pt. Ravi Shankar
(3) Ustad Bismillah Khan
(4) Ustad Vilayat Khan
8. How much compensation was demanded by Paki-
stan at the International Court of Justice, the Hague,
over the shooting down of its Atlantique aircraft in
the Kutch region of India in August 1999 ?
(1) $60 million
(2) $40 million
(3) $50 million
(4) $20 million
9. Which of the following prizes was given to
Mahashweta Devi for 1998 ?
(1) Saraswati Samman
(2) Kalidas Samman
(3) Moorti Devi Award
(4) Tagore Literary Award
10. India has decided to purchase T-90 tanks and ‘Kiev’
type submarine from which of the following coun-
tries?
(1) China (2) South Korea
(3) Russia (4) Germany
11. The Union Government and the Reserve Bank of
India have agreed to put an end to the four-decade-
old system of ad hoc Treasury Bills. This system was
being used
A. to finance the Centre’s budget deficit
B. to provide for controlled monetisation
C. to make up the Centre’s budget deficit by
printing notes
(1) Only A (2) Only B
(3) Only A and B (4) Only C
12. Which of the following countries heads the Human
Development Index 2000 ?
(1) USA (2) Canada
(3) Japan (4) Germany
13. Which of the following universities celebrated its
platinum jubilee in 1997 ?
(1) Calcutta (2) Delhi
(3) Mumbai (4) Chennai
14. The Duburi Thermal Power Plant Project approved
by the Cabinet Committee on Foreign Investment will
be set up in which of the following states ?
(1) Tamil Nadu (2) Orissa
(3) Andhra Pradesh (4) Karnataka
15. The Ninth Asian Shooting Championship was held
in January 2000 in
(1) Malaysia (2) Thailand
(3) Maldives (4) Indonesia
16. ‘Hale Bopp’ is the name of a
(1) New planet identified
(2) Comet near Earth
(3) New rocket launched by France to study Venus
(4) Black Hole identified near Earth
25
17. TyazPromExports (TPE), which offered a 300 mil-
lion dollar loan to revive ailing public sector Indian
Iron and Steel Co. is basically a company based in
(1) Germany (2) Russia
(3) France (4) Switzerland
18. Who amongst the following got the 1999 Jawaharlal
Nehru Award for International Understanding ?
(1) Nelson Mandela
(2) Prince Charles
(3) Mahathir bin Mohamad
(4) Sheikh Hasina
19. Which of the following gases is used for purification
of water ?
(1) Oxygen (2) Ammonia
(3) Chlorine (4) Carbon dioxide
20. Who led the Indian delegation to G-15 Summit held
at Cairo in June 2000 ?
(1) Mr. A.B. Vajpayee
(2) Mr. K.R. Narayanan
(3) Mr. Krishna Kant
(4) Mr. Murasoli Maran
21. Who amongst the following is the author of the book
‘Blue Bed Spread’ ?
(1) Raj Kamal Jha
(2) Pupul Jaykar
(3) Michael Hammer
(4) R.K. Karanjia
22. Which of the following does not come as a product
of vehicular pollution ?
(1) Sulphur dioxide
(2) Nitrogeon Oxide
(3) Carbon Monoxide
(4) Hydrogen Peroxide
23. The day-to-day administration of a Union Territory
in India is looked after by the
(1) Council of Ministers
(2) Lt. Governor
(3) Governor
(4) President of India
24. The annual meeting of ‘India Forum’ in May 2000
was organized at which of the following places ?
(1) Geneva
(2) Paris
(3) Hong Kong
(4) New York
25. Who is Prof. Guenter Blobel
(1) He has developed a vaccine for AIDS
(2) He is UK’s High Commissioner to India
(3) He is the Vice-President of Australia and was
on an official visit to India recently
(4) He got the Nobel Prize for Medicine for 1999
26. The Jammu and Kashmir Assembly set up an Au-
tonomous Hill Development Council for which of
the following regions ?
(1) Jammu
(2) Srinagar
(3) Ladakh
(4) Anantnag and Baramula
27. The Prime Minister laid the foundation stone of the
first Science City of the country in which of the fol-
lowing states?
(1) Maharashtra
(2) Tamil Nadu
(3) West Bengal
(4) Rajasthan
28. At present approximately what percentage of GDP
is spent on primary education by the Union and State
Governments in India ?
(1) 6% (2) 6.5%
(3) 1% (4) 2%
29. Under the new liberalized policy of gold and silver
imports in India, the rate of import duty on one kg of
silver is
(1) Rs. 200 (2) Rs. 220
(3) Rs. 350 (4) Rs. 500
30. India’s first superconductivity fusion device is being
constructed at which of the following places ?
(1) Mumbai (2) Tarapur
(3) Bangalore (4) Calcutta
26
TEST II
English Language
Directions : Read the following passages carefully, and answer the questions that follow according to the contents of the
passage.
Passage I
The world economy is irretrievably getting divided into ‘two unequal worlds’ and the global community is doing little
to counter this, warns the1996 Human Development Report, published by the United Nations Development Programme. “The
imbalances in economic growth, if allowed to continue, will produce a world gargantuan in its excesses and grotesque in its
human and economic inequalities,” says HDR ’96 adding, “human development over the past 30 years is a mixed picture of
unprecendented human progress and unspeakable human misery.”
Nearly 1.5 billion people — more than a quarter of the world population are located mostly in East Asia — enjoyed per
capita income growth of more than 7% a year during the 1980s but nearly a billion people, living mostly in Africa, experi-
enced a decline in their real incomes during this period. Human development indicators, like life expectancy and literacy, have
improved for most countries, but per capita incomes have moved very differently for the developed, developing and least
developed countries, with the rich becoming richer and poor getting poorer. Between 1960 and 1991, the share of the richest
20 per cent rose from 70 per cent of the global income to 85 per cent — while that of the poorest 20 per cent declined from 2.3
per cent to 1.4 per cent. The ratio of the shares of the world’s richest and poorest thus increased from 30 : 1 to 61 : 1 ! Apart
from sub-Saharan Africa, Eastern Europe has also witnessed a decline in the standard of living in the 1990s. “The deep erosion
of the purchasing power of people in Eastern Europe and the CIS countries has undercut many of their past human develop-
ment achievements,” laments HDR ’96. South Asia, especially India, stands in the middle with a modest improvement in
economic development indicators, albeit with an emerging concern that it may be slipping on human development.
The report draws attention to what it calls “two disturbing findings”. First, economic growth has been failing over much
of the past 15 years in about 100 countries, in which almost a third of the world’s people live; and, second, the link between
growth and human development has been tenuous, with many countries experiencing “lop-sided development — with either
good growth but little human development or good human development but little or no growth”. HDR ’96 documents in detail
emerging global inequalities and economic failure in many poor countries, suggesting that the economic catastrophe these
countries have experienced over the last 15 years is far worse than the privations inflicted by the Great Depression on the
people of the developed world earlier this century.
The ‘central message’ of HDR ’96 in its own words, is : “There is no automatic link between economic growth and
human development, but when these links are forged with policy and determination, they can be mutually reinforcing and
economic growth will effectively and rapidly improve human development. Government policies are vitally important ....
(There are) limits to trickle-down economies.”
Making a distinction between ‘quantitative’ and ‘qualitative’ dimensions of growth, HDR ’96 says, “Policy makers are
often mesmerised by the quantity of growth. They need to be more concerned with its structure and quality. Unless govern-
ments take timely corrective action, economic growth can become lop-sided and flawed.” The report identifies five types of
distortions that can afflict the growth process, both in developed and developing economies. These are : jobless growth
(growth without new employment); ruthless growth (inequalising growth with the rich becoming richer and the poor not any
better off); voiceless growth (rapid growth under an authoritarian regime, where economic prosperity is not accompanied by
political freedom); rootless growth (where material prosperity is achieved at the cost of cultural, social and ethnic identity);
and finally, futureless growth (growth which is environment unfriendly, where the present generation squanders resources
needed by future generations). Economic development that perpetuates such distortions can neither be sustained nor worth
sustaining, concludes the report.
31. According to the passage, India
(1) has escaped extensive criticism by the HDR ’96
(2) has been lauded on the human development
front
(3) has modestly improved its economic
performance
(4) None of these
27
32. Which of the following correctly interprets the HDR’s
central message ?
(1) Trickle-down economies implies a hope that
sound economic growth would have positive
effect on human development
(2) Without determined government intervention,
the link between economic growth and human
development is bound to be tenuous
(3) Human development over the last 30 years is a
mixed picture of unprecedented human progress
and unspeakable human misery
(4) None of these
33. According to the passage, policy makers should be
more concerned with the
I. structure of growth
II. quality of growth
III. quantity of growth
(1) I and II only (2) III only
(3) II only (4) All of the three
34. By mentioning “two unequal worlds”, the author
wants to draw the readers’ attention to
(1) the glaring differences between the developed
and develping countries
(2) the difference in the state of the world 30 years
ago and now
(3) the difference in focus between countries stress-
ing on economic growth, and others stressing
on human development
(4) None of these
35. Which of the following is false ?
(1) Most of East Asia experienced per capita income
growth of more than 7% annually during the 1980s
(2) Millions of people in Africa suffered a de-
cline in their income, in real terms, during
the 1980s
(3) Between 1960 and 1991, the percentage of the
number of rich people in the world grew
from70% to 85%
(4) None of these
36. If X is defined as : (the share of the world’s richest
20%) divided by (the share of the world’s poorest
20%), then between 1960 and 1991, the value of
X has
(1) more than doubled
(2) remained approximately the same
(3) increased, but not doubled
(4) cannot be determined
37. Which of the following best describes the author’s
opinion of the HDR ’96 as deduced from the pas-
sage ?
(1) Useful, but not very practical
(2) Disturbing, and needs to be acted upon
(3) Well-researched, and needs to be lauded
(4) Biased, at best to be taken as an opinion
Passage II
Capital flight is an elusive concept. Statistically, it is hard to distinguish from the normal capital flows generated by
trade relations and by growing world financial integration. Some authors define it as capital that leaves the country in re-
sponse to perceptions of abnormal risk at home. Capital flight has also been defined as that part of foreign assets that does not
yield an investment income recorded in balance of payments statistics. Alternatively it can be defined as all capital outflow,
because any outflow entails some loss for the domestic economy. So defined flight can be measured as the stock of external
assets acquired by residents or as net short-term capital outflaws from the non bank private sector (hot money). The error and
omission entry of the balance of payments is usually incorporated in these measurements under the assumption that a large
part of capital flight consists of illegal transactions that appear only in the item. When capital flight takes the form of under-
invoicing of exports and over-invoicing of imports, it will be not be captured in balance of payments entries. None of these
definitions is entirely satisfactory, and all of them pose measurement problem. At best, they provide only a range of estimates.
The extent of capital flight has varied widely. For the period 1990–94 it has been estimated at about $16-17 billion for
Argentina, $40 billion for Mexico, and $27 billion for Venezuela. In some years, capital flights in Argentina and Venezuela
was equivalent to half the savings in those countries. In Brazil, capital flight has been relatively small, but it seems to have
increased during the late 1990s.
Capital flight, however, defined or measured, is above all a symptom of macro-economic mismanagement — in many
instances compounded by political instability. As investors choose from among domestic financial assets, inflation hedges
(consumer durable or land), and foreign assets, they make their decision on the basis of domestic inflation and interest rates,
foreign interest rates, and the expected rate of depreciation of the currency. If investors fear a devaluation they will move their
funds abroad to avoid a capital loss. Similarly, high inflation rates and repressive financial policies that keep real interest rates
too low will encourage residents to invest abroad or to stockpile.
28
Because capital flight generally occurs during a period of scarce foreign capital inflow it imposes heavy costs on an
economy. As a symptom of macro-economics mismanagement, it also increases domestic instability — both financially(because
hot money flows can impede the pursuit of domestic economic objectives) and politically (because it reduces the political
legitimacy of effort to service external debt). Capital flight also harms domestic growth by diverting savings out of the
country. It shrinks the tax base, which reduces government income and shifts more of the burden onto low-income citizens.
And it contributes to the debt problem by increasing the cost of borrowing (which rises with the amount borrowed), reducing
the resources available to repay debt.
Reversing capital flight requires restoring confidence in the economy and the government through a resumption of
growth and the adoption of sustainable policies. Unfortunately, it is much easier for a government to lose credibility than to
regain it.
38. According to the passage, all of the following coun-
tries faced the problem of capital flight in the 1990s
except
(1) Brazil
(2) Mexico
(3) Argentina
(4) Bolivia
39. According to the passage, capital flight hurts eco-
nomic growth in all of the following ways except
(1) it worsens the debt situation
(2) it hurts domestic growth by diverting savings
(3) it shrinks the tax base
(4) it leads to high inflation rates
40. According to the author, capital flight is all of the
following except
(1) is difficult to measure
(2) is an elusive concept
(3) is a result of growing world financial integration
(4) is usually in the form of under-invoiced exports
41. According to the passage, capital flight could take
place because of
(1) perceptions of country risk
(2) acquisition of external assets by residents
(3) under-invoicing of exports
(4) macro-economic performance
42. According to the passage, capital flight can be defined
as all of the follwoing except
(1) capital that leaves a country in response to
perceptions of abnormal risk
(2) non-income yielding foreign assets
(3) all capital outflow
(4) stock of external assets acquired by residents
43. The passage concerns itself with all of the following
except
(1) defining capital flight
(2) examining the impact of capital flight
(3) measuring capital flight
(4) examining the reasons for capital flight
44. According to the passage, investors base their asset
choices on all of the following except
(1) domestic inflaltion and interest rates
(2) expectations on rates of currency depreciation
(3) foreign interest rates
(4) taxation rates
45. According to the passge, we can infer
(1) high interest rates are a result of high inflation rates
(2) macro-economics mismanagement leads to capi
tal flight
(3) political legitimacy is necessary to reduce exter
nal debt
(4) None of the above
Directions : For Questions 46 to 50. These questions consist of a capitalised work followed by four alternatives. From the
given alternatives choose the word that is most similar in meaning to the capitalised word.
46. MARTINET
(1) greedy
(2) rigid disciplinarian
(3) drunk
(4) cold and unloving
47. PARI PASSU
(1) by and large
(2) by and by
(3) side by side
(4) one against
48. DEPRECATE
(1) to assure (2) disapprove
(3) analyse (4) pester
49. GERMANE
(1) relevant (2) polite
(3) still (4) hot and stuffy
50. NUGATORY
(1) tiny (2) precious
(3) worthless (4) fearless
29
51. DIVEST
(1) furnish (2) simplify
(3) run down (4) starve
52. IMPASSIVE
(1) predictable (2) ornate
(3) ebullient (4) passive
53. TORTUOUS
(1) ingenious (2) straight
(3) friendly (4) hospitable
54. TRANSIENT
(1) urgent (2) youthful
(3) original (4) eternal
55. PRECIPITOUS
(1) pleasantly sweet
(2) overly ambitious
(3) gently sloping
(4) agreeably situated
Directions : For Questions 51 to 55. These questions consist of a capitalised word followed by four alternatives. From the
given alternatives choose the word which is the nearest opposite to the capitalised word.
Directions : For Questions 56 to 60. Each main sentence given below is followed by four alternatives. Select from among the
alternatives the one which most logically completes the idea contained in the main sentence.
56. Each honest calling, each walk of life, has its elite,
its own aristocracy __________
(1) about to degenerate in democracy
(2) based on excellence of performance
(3) and its own underworld
(4) and its own detractors
57. Mankind has transformed the climate. The rain is
acid, the ozone layer is vanishing, the globe is
__________.
(1) getting overcrowded
(2) warming
(3) getting infested
(4) slowing down its speed of rotation
58. Success for Korea is embarrassisng. However hard it
spends it __________.
(1) cannot make profits
(2) faces stiff competition in the international markets
(3) sells far more than it buys
(4) finds fewer buyers for its products than Japan
does
59. Selling soap may seem dull compared with high tech
wizardry but __________.
(1) it is a bigger business
(2) it is easy to make
(3) it carries more profit per unit of sale
(4) it is easily understood by people
60. Special scrutiny is the means, in both science and
religion, by which deep insights can be __________
(1) developed into great truths
(2) winnowed from deep nonsense
(3) ultimately put to use
(4) separated from deep reality
Directions : For Questions 61 to 65. Find the odd item among each of the following.
61. (1) anguish (2) remorse
(3) penitence (4) contrition
62. (1) seismic (2) natural
(3) quake (4) tremor
63. (1) exploit (2) feat
(3) extract (4) adventure
64. (1) indolent (2) phlegmatic
(3) languid (4) emaciated
65. (1) blase
(2) outdated
(3) passe
(4) obsolete
30
66. The statement made on oath in the court was later
found to be false and the person was prosecuted for
perjury.
(1) evidence (2) deposition
(3) affidavit (4) affirmation
67. The passing feeling of well-being was generated in
him by the paltry fortune that fell to his share.
(1) euthansia (2) amnesia
(3) bravado (4) euphoria
68. The course of diet and medicine recommended by
the physician did immediate good for the convales-
cent old man.
Directions : For Questions 66 to 70. Each of these questions has a highlighted phrase, which can be correctly substituted by
one of the four alternative choices that follow the question. Choose the alternative which can correctly substitute the high-
lighted phrase.
(1) programme (2) routine
(3) regimen (4) prescription
69. Becket belongs to the class of those who greatly
suffer and die for a great cause.
(1) Saints (2) Savants
(3) Monks (4) Martyrs
70. The study for the cause of the disease should be the
first step in our efforts to find a cure for any disease.
(1) of Actiology (2) of Teleology
(3) of Pharmacology (4) of Pathology
Directions : For Questions 71 to 75. In each of the following sentences four words or phrases have been underlined. Choose
the one word or phrase which has been used inappropriately.
71. A formal letter beginning with “Dear Sir” always ends with the complimentary close “yours faithfully”.
(1) (2) (3) (4)
72. The tailor stitched my shirt well but he spoiled the trouser.
(1) (2) (3) (4)
73. Hardly had I entered the room then the girl began to scream wildly.
(1) (2) (3) (4)
74. It is an ancient paradox that the rules of nature are simple but the world itself was complex.
(1) (2) (3) (4)
75. Fewer discoveries have captured the public imagination better than the double helix of DNA, the two-stranded
(1) (2) (3) (4)
molecule of the genetic library.
Directions : For Questions 76 to 80. Each question has a blank space. Fill in the blanks by choosing the most appropriate
alternative from among the choices given with each question.
76. The Human Genome Project will give the biologist a
toolkit with which to describe and hence perhaps to
________, human life.
(1) explain (2) develop
(3) disregard (4) synthesize
77. The implications of the projects like those of atomic
physics, are enormous and for the moment ________.
(1) stupendous (2) unpredictable
(3) scary (4) immeasurable
78. As happened with the description of atomic particles
all this opens up frightening possibilites and
________ dilemmas.
(1) scientific (2) legal
(3) human (4) ethical
79. For decades dismissed as part of the canon of ‘artis-
tic’ pursuits, music is today being ________ by sci-
ence.
(1) probed (2) rediscovered
(3) valued (4) questioned
80. The tragedy of hunger and malnutrition ________
despite considerable progress in overall agriculture
production and an improved understanding of hu-
man nutritional needs.
(1) will continue (2) continues
(3) develops (4) diminishes
31
32
96. A piece of wire is 78 cm long. This is given a shape of
an isosceles triangle. If the ratio of one of the equal
sides to the base is 5 : 3, the length of the base in cm is
(1) 20 (2) 18
(3) 16 (4) 21
97. The sum of two numbers that are in the ratio of 5 : 9
is 308. The numbers are
(1) 198, 110 (2) 110, 198
(3) 98, 210 (4) 78, 230
98. A can do a piece of work in 12 days. B is 60% more
efficient than A. The number of days it takes B to do
the same piece of work is
(1) days
2
1
8 (2) days
2
1
9
(3) days
2
1
6 (4) days
2
1
7
99. If A : B = 3 : 4 and B : C = 5 : 6 then A : B : C equals
(1) 20 : 25 : 30 (2) 15 : 20 : 24
(3) 15 : 20 : 28 (4) 21 : 28 : 30
100. The string of a kite is 150 metres long and it makes
an angle of 60
o
with the horzontal. Find the height of
the kite from the ground.
(1) 130.1 m (2) 129 m
(3) 112 m (4) 145 m
101. What is value of
?
39 sin
51 cos
°
°
(1)
2
1
(2)
3
1
(3) 1 (4)
3
102. If
3
1
A cos =
find sin A.
(1)
9
2 2
(2)
3
2 2
(3)
3
2
(4)
3
103. If
θ − θ
θ + θ
= θ
sin cos
sin cos
of value the find
b
1
(1)
c b
a b
+

(2)
a b
a b

+
(3)
a b
c b

+
(4)
c b
a b
+
+
104. Find
2 x
4
1 x
3
3 x
1
if x

=

+

(1) 4 (2) 3
(3) 2 (4) 5
105. A man buys two horses for Rs. 800. By selling one
for 3/4 of its cost price and the other for 4/3 of its
cost price, he loses Rs. 25. What did he pay for each
horse ?
(1) Rs. 500, Rs. 300
(2) Rs. 400, Rs. 400
(3) Rs. 600, Rs. 200
(4) Rs. 300, Rs. 500
106. The surface of a cube is 150 sq m. Find its volume.
(1) 125 cu m (2) 105 cu m
(3) 110 cu m (4) 120 cu m
107. A room is 10 metres long and 6 metres broad. Find
the cost of carpeting its floor with a carpet 60 cm
wide and rate Rs. 2.37 per metre.
(1) Rs. 2370 (2) Rs. 237
(3) Rs. 1422 (4) Rs. 142.20
108. How much earth will be dug out by sinking a well 21
metres deep and of 5 metres diameter ?
(1) 412.5 cu m (2) 473.5 cu m
(3) 112.5 cu m (4) 825 cu m
109. How many cubes of 3 m edge can be cut out of a
cube of 18 cm edge ?
(1) 218 (2) 216
(3) 432 (4) 864
110. Find the cost of sinking a well 35 metres deep and of
1 metre radius at Rs. 2 per cu m.
(1) Rs. 110 (2) Rs. 440
(3) Rs. 350 (4) Rs. 220
111. A reservoir is 2 metres long, 1 metre broad and 0.5
metre deep. A flower pot requires 0.5 litre of water.
How many such pots can be watered with the water
of the tank ?
(1) 20,000 (2) 2,00,000
(3) 2,000 (4) 1,000
112. Simplify
2 8
2 8

+
(1) 1 (2) 2
(3) 3 (4)
3
33
113. A company having a stock of R.s 4,50,000 declares
a dividend of 4% semi-annually. What is the annual
income of a stockholder having 135 shares at par
value of Rs. 10 ?
(1) Rs. 54 (2) Rs. 108
(3) Rs. 81 (4) Rs. 540
114. Find the fraction which becomes
2
1
when 1 is added
to its denominator and
3
1
when 2 subtracted from its
numerator.
(1)
2
1
(2)
6
1
(3)
6
5
(4)
9
5
115. A man’s age is three times his son’s. In 15 years it
will be double that of his son. How is his son now ?
(1) 15 years (2) 18 years
(3) 30 years (4) 35 years
116. A man invested Rs. 20,000 partly in 5% and partly in
4% security. What sum did he invest in each if his
total annual interest income is Rs. 890 ?
(1) Rs. 9,000, Rs. 11,000
(2) Rs. 8,000, Rs. 12,000
(3) Rs. 7,000, Rs. 13,000
(4) Rs. 4,000, Rs. 16,000
117. You have to spend
10
1
of your income on house rent,
10
1
of the remainder on conveyance,
3
1
of further
remainder on children’s education, after which you
are left with Rs. 648. What is your income ?
(1) Rs. 1100 (2) Rs. 1400
(3) Rs. 1700 (4) Rs. 1200
118. Find the square root of 0.9 upto 3 places of decimals.
(1) 0.674 (2) 0.333
(3) 0.999 (4) 0.948
119. The average beight of 30 girls out of a class of 40 is
160 cm and that of the remaining girls is 156 cm.
The average height of the whole class is
(1) 157 cm (2) 159 cm
(3) 158 cm (4) 161 cm
120. A shopkeeper gives a discount of 10% on the marked
price of a transistor but in the bargain makes a profit of
10%. If the marked price is Rs. 330, the cost price is
(1) Rs. 290 (2) Rs. 280
(3) Rs. 270 (4) Rs. 275
121. If x is 90% of y, what percent of x is y?
(1) 120% (2) 110%
(3) 111.1% (4) 11.1%
122. A cloth shop has announced a reduction of 25% in
the price. What is the least number of shirts priced at
Rs. 140 that one should buy to avail a total reduction
of at least Rs. 200?
(1) 3 (2) 7
(3) 8 (4) 6
123. A reduction of 20% in the price of apples enables
you to purchase 12 more at Rs. 15. What was the
price of 16 apples before reduction?
(1) Rs. 5 (2) Rs. 6
(3) Rs. 7 (4) Rs. 8
124. When the price of a scooter was increased by 30%,
the number of scooters sold decreased by 20%. What
was the effect on sales?
(1) 5% increase (2) 4% increase
(3) 6% increase (4) 8% decrease
125. Janki spends 20% of her monthly salary for her son’s
education. When she will get her anm increment of Rs.
170 next month, she plans to spend half of that also for
her son’s education. The total she would spend then,
would be Rs. 645. What is her present salary?
(1) Rs. 2800 (2) Rs. 3600
(3) Rs. 3210 (4) Rs. 3500
126. A customer wants 30% discount on his purchase. The
dealer gave him successive discount of 20% and 12%,
in this transaction
(1) the customer got more than what he expected
(2) the customer got less than what he expected
(3) The customer got what be expected
(4) we cannot say exactly what he got
127.
3
2
rd of a consignment was solf at a profit of 6% and
the rest at a loss of 3%. If, however there was an overall
profit of Rs. 540, the value of consignment was
(1) Rs. 20,000 (2) Rs. 17,000
(3) Rs. 18,000 (4) Rs. 16,000
128. Ram got twice as many marks in English as in Sci-
ence. His total marks in English, Science and Maths
are 180. If the proportion of his marks in English
and Maths is 2 : 3, what are his marks in Science ?
(1) 25 (2) 30
(3) 60 (4) 40
129. Akram invested Rs. 3000 in a business. After 6 months
Dhruv invested Rs. 2000. If at the end of the year they
gained Rs. 2600, then the share of Dhruv’s profit is
(1) Rs. 600 (2) Rs. 1300
(3) Rs. 650 (4) Rs. 1000
34
130. Sita bought a certain quantity of rice at the rate of
Rs. 150 per quintal, and 10% of the rice was spoiled.
At what price should she sell the remaining to gain
20% of her outlay ?
(1) Rs. 200 (2) Rs. 300
(3) Rs. 400 (4) Rs. 500
131. 2, 6, 12, 20, _____
(1) 30 (2) 28
(3) 26 (4) 40
132. 9, 16, 25, 36, _____
(1) 47 (2) 50
(3) 42 (4) 49
133. 1, 2, 6, 24, 120, _____
(1) 240 (2) 720
(3) 600 (4) 360
134. 2, 3, 3, 5, 4, 7, _____
(1) 5 (2) 9
(3) 6 (4) 3
135. 0, 1, 1, 2, 3, 5, 8, 13, _____
(1) 14 (2) 21
(3) 18 (4) 20
136. 0, 6, 24, 60, _____
(1) 100 (2) 96
(3) 120 (4) 114
137. 62, 97, 127, 152, _____
(1) 160 (2) 212
(3) 177 (4) 172
138. A runs faster than B but not as fast as C, who is slower
than D. Who is the fastest runner ?
(1) A (2) B
(3) C (4) D
139. Which of the following should come in place of the
question mark in the following series :
LXF, MTJ, NPN, OLR, ?
(1) PCV (2) PHV
(3) PST (4) PAV
140. Some men and some tigers are performing in a cir-
cus. They have 42 legs and 13 heads. How many
tigers are there ?
(1) 8 (2) 6
(3) 2 (4) 10
TEST IV
Reasoning
Directions : For Q. Nos. 131 to 137, find the number that comes next in the sequence.
Directions : For Questions 141 – 145 refer to the information given below.
5 volunteers — J, K, L, M and N have been assigned the job of guarding a locality, Monday through Friday, during a
single week. Exactly two volunteers must be assigned the work each day according to the following conditions :
(i) Each of the volunteers must work at least once.
(ii) None of the volunteers can work on three consecutive days.
(iii) K must work on Monday.
(iv) M must work on Thursday and on Friday.
(v) J cannot work on any day on which K works.
141. Any of the following volunteers could be assigned
to work on Wednesday except
(1) J
(2) K
(3) L
(4) M
142. If K is assigned to work on exactly four days of the
week, which of the following could be the pair of
volunteers assigned to work on Wednesday ?
(1) J and M (2) J and L
(3) M and N (4) K and L
143. If J is assigned to work on exactly three days of the
week, those days must include
(1) Thursday and Friday
(2) Wednesday and Friday
(3) Tuesday and Friday
(4) Monday and Wednesday
35
Directions : For Questions 146 – 150.
Each of these questions has a set of 3 items with some sort of relationship among them. Given below are four answers
1, 2, 3 and 4 depicting different type of relationship among items, each circle representing one item, irrespective of its size.
Find out the figure that represents the relationship among items given in questions.
146. Bedroom, House, Kitchen
147. U.S.A., Florida, North America
148. Train, Ship, Aeroplane
149. Air, Nitrogen, Oxygen
150. Tyre, Scooter, Sun
Directions In questions 151 to 155, two statements are followed by two conclusions numbered I and II.
Mark 1 if only conclusion I follows
Mark 2 if only conclusion II follows
Mark 3 if both I and II follow
Mark 4 if neither I nor II follows
151. Statements
Ram is a cake.
Some cakes are chairs.
Conclusions
I Ram is a chair
II Ram is not a cake.
152. Statements
No dog is a cat.
Rohit is a dog.
Conclusions
I Rohit is not a cat.
II All dogs are Rohits.
153. Statements
All stars are covers.
All covers are bushes
Conclusions
I All stars are bushes
II All covers are stars
154. Statements
Some women are shrubs.
Some shrubs are planets.
Conclusions
I Some women are planets.
II Some shrubs are planets.
155. Statements
All huts are foils.
All foils are books.
Conclusions
I All huts are books.
II All books are huts.
144. If K is assigned to work on only one day and L is
assigned to work on exactly four days which of the
following pairs of volunteers must be assigned to
work on Wednesday
(1) J and N (2) J and L
(3) L and M (4) L and N
145. If J is assigned to work whenever and only when M
is assigned to work, which of the following can be
true ?
(1) J is assigned to work on Monday
(2) J is assigned to work on Wednesday
(3) L is assigned to work on Friday
(4) N is assigned to work on Tuesday
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
36
159. Anaemia : Blood : : Insomnia : ?
(1) Sleep
(2) Food
(3) Walking
(4) Fever
160. Air : Breath : : Blood : ?
(1) Red
(2) Smell
(3) Thick
(4) Circulation
156. Magazine : Editor : : Drama : ?
(1) Star (2) Director
(3) Producer (4) Actress
157. Top : Bottom : : Roof : ?
(1) Wall (2) Pillar
(3) Door (4) Floor
158. Bihar : U.P. : : Canada : ?
(1) Mexico (2) U.S.A.
(3) Panama (4) Greenland
Directions : In each of the questions 156 – 160, a word is missing. Choose the missing word from the four choices given after
each question.
Directions : For questions 161 – 164 consider the following information.
In order to do a work, it is necessary to have a minimum of three workers each day. The staff consists of five persons —
A, B, C, D and E, who work on a part-time basis. A can work on Mondays, Wednesdays and Fridays. B cannot report for work
on Wednesdys. C can report for wok of Tuesdays and Wednesdays only. D cannot work on Fridays. E is available any time
except on the first Monday and Thursday of the month.
161. Which three are available on any Monday ?
(1) B, C and D (2) B, E and C
(3) A, E and C (4) D, B and A
162. During which day of the week would it be necessary to
call on A to complete the full complement of workers ?
(1) Friday (2) Monday
(3) Tuesday (4) Thursday
163. Which three could you count on to report for work
on Friday ?
(1) A, B and D (2) B, C and E
(3) C, B and A (4) A, B and E
164. During which day of the week might it be impos-
sible to obtain a full complement of workers ?
(1) Monday
(2) Thursday
(3) Friday
(4) Wednesday
165. Arrange the following words according to dictionary
arrangement :
a. enrol b. entice
c. ensure d. ensign
(1) abcd (2) cbad
(3) adcb (4) adbc
Directions : For questions 166 to 170, unscramble the letters in the follwoing words and find the odd man out.
166. (1) DIINH (2) ISORTYH
(3) NELGSIH (4) HCNERF
167. (1) EDB (2) HIRAC
(3) OTCA (4) BALET
168. (1) KITSC (2) TBA
(3) LABL (4) PUTSM
169. (1) IHRAB (2) REKLAA
(3) MSASA (4) LEPAN
170. (1) URYB (2) LGOD
(3) LVIRSE (4) OPCPER
37
Directions : For questions 171 to 175, find the missing letter.
171. D, I, N, ___
(1) S (2) O
(3) P (4) T
172. L, N, P, R, ___
(1) S (2) W
(3) T (4) V
173. O, P, R, S, V, ___
(1) T (2) Z
(3) Y (4) W
Directions : For questions 176 – 180 consider the following information
(i) Five persons; A, B, C, D and E are holding a meeting
(ii) A converses in Spanish and Italian
(iii) B converses in Spanish and English
(iv) C converses in English and Italian
(v) D converses in French and Spanish
(vi) E converses in Italian and French
176. Which of the following can act as interpreter when C
and D wish to confer ?
(1) Only A (2) Only B
(3) A or B (4) Any of the three
177. Which of the following cannot converse without an
interpreter ?
(1) B and E (2) A and B
(3) A and C (4) B and D
178. Besides E, which of the following can converse with
D without an interpreter ?
(1) Only A (2) Only B
(3) Only C (4) A and B
179. Of the languages spoken at the meeting, which are
the two least common ?
(1) French and Spanish
(2) Italian and Spanish
(3) English and French
(4) French and Spanish
180. If a sixth person is brought in, to be understood by
the maximum number of the original five, he should
be fluent in
(1) English and French
(2) French and Italian
(3) Italian and Spanish
(4) English and Spanish
Directions : For questions 181 – 183. In each of these questions a word has been given followed by four other words, one of
which cannot be formed by using the letters of the given word. Find that word.
181. RELIANCE
(1) RAIN (2) LINE
(3) CANE (4) COIN
182. INDTERMINATE
(1) DETERMINE (2) MATE
(3) DIRTY (4) DRAIN
183. PHYSIOTHERAPY
(1) PEAR
(2) SHOT
(3) PRAY
(4) SHUT
174. P, E, G, Q, F, H, R, G, I, ___
(1) S
(2) H
(3) J
(4) T
175. A, E, I, O, ___
(1) T
(2) U
(3) V
(4) P
38
187. If model U is one of the models selected for the street,
then which of the following models must also be selected?
(1) Z (2) Y
(3) X (4) W
188. If T, U and X are three of the models selected for the
street, then which of the following must be the other
two models selected ?
(1) V and W (2) V and Y
(3) V and Z (4) W and Y
189. Which of the following is an acceptable combina-
tion of models that can be selected for the street ?
(1) T, U, X, Y, Z (2) T, V, X, Y, Z
(3) U, V, W, X, Y (4) V, W, X, Y, Z
190. If model Z is one model not selected for the street,
then the other model not selected must be which of
the following?
(1) T (2) U
(3) V (4) W
Directions : For questions 184 – 186, find the missing number.
184.
(1) 51 (2) 43
(3) 81 (4) 9
185.
(1) 225 (2) 255
(3) 250 (4) 175
186.
(1) 42 (2) 50
(3) 52 (4) 55
Directions : For questions 187 – 190, consider the following information.
A contractor will build five houses in a certain town on a street that currently has no houses on it. The contractor will
select from seven different models of house — T, U, V, W, X, Y and Z. The town’s planning board has placed the following
restrictions on the contractor.
(i) No model can be selected for more than one house.
(ii) Either model W must be selected or model Z must be selected, but both cannot be selected.
(iii) If model Y is selected, then model V must also be selected.
(iv) If model U is selected, then model W cannot be selected.
72
8
7
12
62
18 2
6
5
11
9
?
121 119 81
100 1012 144
625 ? 25
27
? 1
3
5
7 3
11
39
191. In a code language, A is written as B, B is written as
C, C is written as D and so on, then how will TALK
be written in that code language ?
(1) UBML (2) UCNM
(3) UBNM (4) KLAT
192. Three of the following four are alike in a certain way
and so form a group. Which is the one that doesn’t
belong to that group ?
(1) ACE (2) QOM
(3) FHJ (4) IKM
193. Pointing to a photograph of a girl Ram said, “She
has no sisters or daughters but her mother is the only
daughter of my mother.” How is the girl in the pho-
tograph related to Ram’s mother ?
(1) Grand daughter (2) Sister-in-law
(3) Daughter-in-law (4) Daughter
194. In a certain code, if XMKIV means TIGER, then how
is PONY written ?
(1) TVMB (2) SCTR
(3) YNOP (4) TSRC
195. If you rearrange the letters ‘ARSIP’ you would have
the name of a
(1) State (2) Country
(3) Continent (4) City
Directions : For questions 196 – 200 consider the following information.
Six negotiators — M, O, P, R, S and T — are to be seated at a round table for discussions. There are exactly six chairs
around the table. Each negotiator sits facing the centre of the table and is directly opposite a negotiator across the table. The
seating arrangement is subject to the following restrictions :
T cannot sit next to P
S cannot sit next to M
R must sit next to M
196. If R sits next to S on S’s right side, who must sit next
to R on R’s right side ?
(1) M (2) O
(3) P (4) S
197. If T sits next to M and S sits next to R, which of the
other negotiators must sit next to S ?
(1) M (2) O
(3) R (4) P
198. If T sits directly across the table from O, who must
sit on either side of P ?
(1) M and O (2) O and S
(3) M and S (4) O and R
199. Which of the following is an acceptable sequence of
negotiators around the table ?
(1) M, S, R, T, P, O
(2) M, S, T, P, R, O
(3) T, O, P, S, M, R
(4) T, R, M, P, S, O
200. If M sits next to P, which of the following is a com-
plete and accurate list of those who can sit next to P
on P’s other side ?
(1) O
(2) O, S
(3) O, S, R
(4) R, S, T
40
OPENMAT (X) ENTRANCE TEST FOR
MANAGEMENT PROGRAMMES 2002
TEST I
General Awareness
1. The primary function of the Finance Commission in
India is to
(1) Distribute revenue between the Centre and the
States
(2) Prepare the Annual Budget
(3) Advise the President on financial matters
(4) Allocate funds to various Ministries of the Union
and the State Governments
2. The state which has the largest number of seats re-
served for the Scheduled Tribes in Lok Sabha is
(1) Bihar (2) Gujarat
(3) Uttar Pradesh (4) Madhya Pradesh
3. At which stage in its life cycle does the silkworm
yield the commercial fibre.
(1) Egg (2) Larva
(3) Pupa (4) Imago
4. The Balkan Plan for fragmentation of India was the
brain-child of
(1) W. Churchill (2) M.A. Jinnah
(3) Lord Mountbatten (4) V.P. Menon
5. The blood glucose level is commonly measured in
(1) Millimeters of Hg (2) Milligrams per decilitre
(3) Parts per million (4) Grammes per litre
6. Gilt-edged market means
(1) Billion market (2) Market of Govt. Securities
(3) Market of guns (4) Market of pure metals
7. Which one of the following dynasties was ruling over
North India at the time of Alexander’s invasion ?
(1) Nanda (2) Maurya
(3) Surya (4) Kanva
8. The sensation of fatigue in the muscles after pro-
longed strenous physical work is caused by
(1) Decrease in supply of oxygen
(2) Minor wear and tear of muscle fibres
(3) The depletion of glucose
(4) The accumulaltion of lactic acid
9. Who was the last President of the US to serve for
two consecutive terms before Mr. Bill Clinton ?
(1) John F. Kennedy (2) Ronald Reagan
(3) George Bush (4) Jimmy Carter
10. The satellite-based personal communications com-
pany ‘Iridium’, which had to shut down its services,
is a subsidiary company of which US giant ?
(1) General Electric (2) US Robotics
(3) Motorola (4) AT&T
11. When was the last time that India won the Gold Medal
in Hockey in the Olympics ?
(1) 1992 (3) 1980
(3) 1964 (4) 1972
12. The Indian Ntional Army (I.N.A.( came into exist-
ence in 1943 in
(1) Japan (2) the then Burma
(3) Singapore (4) the then Malaya
13. To which country did the nuclear submarine ‘Kursk’
belong, which sank recently killing all the sailors on
board ?
(1) Russia (2) Finland
(3) Sweden (4) Norway
14. Who was awarded the Dada Saheb Phalke Award in
the year 2000 ?
(1) Shyam Benegal (2) Mrinal Sen
(3) Hrishikesh Mukherjee (4) Subhash Ghai
15. Slobodan Milosevic, the Yugoslav leader who was
forced to step down in October 2000, was the Presi-
dent of which Republic ?
(1) Croatia (2) Bosnia
(3) Slovenia (4) Serbia
16. Who is credited with the idea of linking each page of
information on the net to another that went on to cre-
ate the World Wide Web (WWW) ?
(1) Tim Berners-Lee (2) Bill Gates
(3) Steve Jobs (4) Al Gore
17. The recent Supreme Court judgement, on Sardar
Sarovar Dam Project on Narmada river, has allowed
construction of the dam upto what height ?
(1) 80 meters (2) 90 meters
(3) 100 meters (4) 110.6 meters
18. Which state did the Americans buy from the Rus-
sians in 1867 ?
(1) Hawai (2) Washington
` (3) Alaska (4) California
41
19. How many squares are there on a standard chess
board ?
(1) 49 (2) 64
(3) 81 (4) 100
20. The founder of the slave dynasty in India was
(1) Qutub-ud-din Aibak (2) Iltutmish
(3) Aram Shah (4) Kaiquabad
21. Which of the following amendments in the Indian
Constitution incorporated the Fundamental Duties of
citizens ?
(1) 41st (2) 42nd
(3) 43rd (4) 44th
22. During whose Prime Ministership of Britain did In-
dia gain freedom ?
(1) Chamberlain (2) Churchill
(3) Attlee (4) MacDonald
23. Tropical forests of Silent Valley lie in the state of
(1) Goa (2) Karnataka
(3) Kerala (34) Tamil Nadu
24. Shanghai is situated on the river
(1) Hwang Ho (2) Yangtze Kiang
(3) Min Chiang (4) Hsiang
25. The famous Battle of Wandiwash was fought between
the English and
(1) The French (2) The Portuguese
(3) The Marathas (4) Tipu Sultan
26. Who discovered the neutron ?
(1) John Bardeen (2) William Brag
(3) Henry Cavendish (4) James Chadwick
27. Which single event in 1991 brought about the great
change in the world political scene ?
(1) Unification of two Germanys
(2) Disintegration of USSR
(3) The Gulf War
(4) Stoppage of military aid to Pakistan by USA
28. Impure blood is received in which part of the heart ?
(1) Right Auricle
(2) Left Auricle
(3) Right Ventricle
(4) Left Ventricle
29. Which one of the following is not correctly matched?
(1) Colosseum — Rome
(2) Kremlin — Moscow
(3) Wall Street — New York
(4) White Hall — Washington
30. In the history of the world, which of the following
revolutions has been the latest ?
(1) Red Revolution in China
(2) French Revolution
(3) Glorious Revolution in England
(4) Russian Revolution
TEST II
English Language
Directions : Read the following passages carefully and answer the questions that follow each passage, according to the
contents of the passage.
Passage I
When musing on cities over time and in our time, from the first (whenever it was) to today, we must always remember
that cities are artifacts. Forests, jungles, deserts, plains, oceans — the organic environment is born and dies and is without
moral constraint or ethical control. But cities — despite the metaphors that we apply to them from biology or nature (“The city
dies when industry flees”, “The neighbourhoods are the vital cells of the urban organism”), despite the sentimental or anthro-
pomorphic devices we use to describe cities — are artificial. Nature has never made a city, and what Nature makes that may
seem like a city — an anthill, for instance — onlyseems like one. It is not a city.
Human beings made and make cities, and only human beings kill cities, or let them die. And human beings do both —
make cities and unmake them by the same means : by acts of choice. We enjoy deluding ourselves in this as in other things. We
enjoy believing that there are forces out there completely determining our fate, natural forces — or forces so strong and
overwhelming as to be like natural forces — that send cities through organic or biological phases of birth, growth and decay.
We avoid the knowledge that cities are best works of art, and at worst ungainly artifacts — but never flowers or even weeds —
and that we, not some mysterious force or cosmic biological system, control the creation of life of a city.
42
31. The author’s purpose in the passage is primarily to
(1) identify the sources of popular discontent with cities
(2) define the city as growing out of a social con-
tract
(3) illustrate the difference between cities and vil-
lages
(4) compare cities with blood families
32. The author cites the sentence “The neighbourhoods
are the vital cells of the urban organism” as
(1) an instance of prevarication
(2) a simple statement of scientific fact
(3) a momentary digression from his central thesis
(4) an example of one type of figurative language
33. The author’s attitude towards the statements quoted is
(1) respectful
(2) ambivalent
(3) pragmatic
(4) skeptical
34. According to the author of the passage, why is an anthill,
by definition, unlike a city ?
(1) It can be casually destroyed by human beings
(2) Its inhabitants outnumber the inhabitants of even
the largest city
(3) It exists on a far smaller scale than any city does
(4) It is the work of instinct rather than of imagination
35. Mutual defense, control of waterways, and shelter
from the forces of nature are presented primarily as
examples of motives for people to
(1) move away from their enemies
(2) build up their supplies of armament
(3) gather together in settlements
(4) welcome help from their kinfolk
36. We can infer that roving tribes differ from city dwell-
ers in that these nomads
(1) have not chosen to settle in one spot
(2) lack ties of activity and self-interest
(3) are willing to let the cities die
(4) have no need for mutual defense
37. By saying a city “is a considerable pact” the author
primarily stresses
(1) its essential significance
(2) its speculative nature
(3) the inevitable agreement
(4) the moral constraints
38. The author of the passage, to live in a city is
(1) an unexpected outcome
(2) an opportunity for profit
(3) an action of volition
(4) a pragmatic solution
We control the creation and life of a city by the choices and agreements we make — the basic choice being, for
instance, not to live alone, the basic agreement being to live together. When people choose to settle, like the stars, not wander
like the moon, they create cities as sites and symbols of their choice to stop and their agreement not to separate. Now stasis
and proximity, not movement and distance, define human relationships. Mutual defense, control of a river or harbour, shelter
from natural forces — all these and other reasons may cause people to aggregate, but once congregated, they then live
differently and become different.
A city is not an extended family. That is a tribe or clan. A city is a collection of disparate families who agree to a fiction
: They agree to live as if they were as close in blood or ties of kinship as in fact they are in physical proximity. Choosing life
in an artifact, people agree to live in a state of similitude. A city is a place where ties of proximity, activity, and self-interest
assume the role of family ties. It is a considerable pact, a city. If a family is an expression of continuity through biology, a city
is an expression of continuity through will and imagination — through mental choices makeing artiface, not through physical
reproduction.
Passage II
The need for solar electricity is clear. It is safe, ecologically sound, efficient, continuously available, and it has no
moving parts. The basic problem with the use of solar photovoltaic devices is economics, but until recently very little progress
has been made towards the development of low-cost photovoltaic devices. The larger part of research funding has been
devoted to study of single-crystal silicon solar cells, despite the evidence, including that the leading manufacturers of crystal-
line silicon, that the technique holds little promise. The reason for this pattern is understandable and historical. Crystalline
silicon is the active element in the very successful semiconductor industry and virtually all the solid state devices contain
silicon transistors and diodes. Crystalline silicon, however, is particularly unsuitable to terrestrial solar cells.
Crystalline silicon solar cells work well and are successfully used in the space programme, where cost is not an issue.
While single-crystal silicon has been proven in extraterrestrial use with efficiencies as high as 18 percent, and other more
expensive and scarce material such as gallium arsenide can have even higher efficiences, costs must be reduced by a factor of
43
43. Which of the following has been mentioned as an
advantage of amorphous materials over silicon
crystals for solar cells ?
(1) The relative thinness of amorphous materials
(2) The cost of amorphous materials
(3) The size ofsolar cells which can be made of
amorphous materials
(4) All of the above
44. The tone of the passage can best be described as
(1) analytical and optimistic
(2) biased and unprofessional
(3) critical and discouraged
(4) tentative and inconclusive
45. The word ‘terrestrial’ as used in the passage means
(1) on the surface of the earth
(2) territory
(3) to be used on roof tops or terraces
(4) without wire connectivity
more than 100 to make them practical for commercial use. Beside the fact that the starting crystalline silicon is expensive, 95
percent of it is wasted and does not appear in the final device. Recently, there have been some imaginative attempts to make
quality single crystals : but to date the efficiencies of these apparently lower-cost arrays have been unacceptably small.
Moreover, these materials are cheaper only because of the introduction of disordering in crystalline semiconductors and
disorder degrades the efficiency of crystalline solar cells.
The dilemma can be avoided by preparing completely disordered or amorphous materials. Amorphous materials have
disordered atomic structure as compared to crystalline materials : that is, they have only short-range order rather than the long-
range periodicity of crystals. The advantages of amorphous solar cells are impressive. Whereas crystals can be grown as
wafers about four inches in diameter, amorphous materials can be grown over large areas in a single process. Whereas crystal-
line silicon must be made 200 microns thick to absorb a sufficient amount of sunlight for efficient energy conversion, only 1
micron of the proper amorphous materials is necessary. Crystalline silicon solar cells cost in excess of Rs. 4500 per square
foot, but amorphous films can be created at a cost of about Rs. 2200 per square foot.
Although many scientists were aware of the very low cost of amorphous solar cells, they felt that they could never be
manufactured with the efficiencies necessary to contribute significantly to the demand for electric power. This was based on
a misconception about the feature which determines efficiency. For example, it is not the conductivity of the material in the
dark which is relevant, but only the photoconductivity, that is, the conductivity in the presence of sunlight. Already, solar cells
with efficiencies well abve 6 percent have been developed using amorphous materials and further research will doubtless find
even less costly amorphous material with higher efficiencies.
39. The author is primarily concerned with
(1) discussing the importance of solar energy
(2) explaining the functioning of solar cells
(3) presenting a history of research on energy
sources
(4) describing a possible solution to the problem of
the cost of photovoltaic cells
40. According to the passage, which of the following en-
couraged use of silicon solar cells in the space
programme ?
(1) The higher cost of materials such as gallium arsenide
(2) The high extraterrestrial efficiency of the cells
(3) The relative lack of cost limitations in the space
program
(4) Both (2) and (3)
41. Which of the following pairs of terms does the au-
thor regard as most nearly synonymous ?
(1) Solar and extraterrestrial
(2) Photovoltaic devices and solar cells
(3) Amorphous materials and higher efficiencies
(4) Wafers and crystals
42. The material in the passage could best be used in an
argument for
(1) discontinuing the space programme
(2) increased funding for research on amorphous
materials
(3) further study of the history of silicon crystals
(4) increased reliance on solar energy
44
46. TEMPORISE
(1) avoid committing oneself
(2) restrain
(3) extend
(4) hesitate
47. ZEPHYR
(1) fanatic (2) gentle wind
(3) fanciful (4) profligate
48. SONOROUS
(1) wordly-wise (2) sleep causing
(3) resonant (4) half asleep
49. PUGNACITY
(1) versatility (2) comeliness
(3) rapidity (4) disposition to fight
50. OBFUSCATE
(1) take away (2) confuse
(3) bring to a halt (4) get rid of
Directions : For Questions 46 to 50. Each of these questions consists of a capitalized word followed by four alternatives. From
the given alternatives choose the one that is most similar in meaning to the capitalized word.
Directions : For Questions 51 to 55. These questions consist of a capitalized word followed by four alternatives. Select from
among the alternatives, the word which is most nearly opposite to the capitalized word in meaning.
51. EXTRANEOUS
(1) outlandish (2) tumultuous
(3) impetuous (4) central
52. RUE
(1) celebrate (2) denounce
(3) engender (4) constrain
53. MORIBUND
(1) contentious (2) malignant
(3) vital (4) pretentious
54. ESCHEW
(1) invite
(2) use
(3) emanate
(4) strengthen
55. ENERVATE
(1) deliberate
(2) fortify
(3) introduce
(4) escalate
Directions : For Questions 56 to 60. Each of the questions below consists of a sentence with one or more blank spaces. Each
sentence is followed by four alternative sets of words. Choose the set of words from among the alternatives given, which when
inserted in the sentence, best fit the meaning of the sentence.
56. Tempers ran high among the old timers who
_______ the young Mayor and his _______
Municipal Council.
(1) despised, attractive (2) admired, elite
(3) resented, reformist (4) feared, apathetic
57. Working _______ under the pressure of time, Rohan
did not notice his _______ mistake.
(1) continually, redundant
(2) frantically, inevitable
(3) rapidly, careless
(4) sporadically, simple
58. We are _______ going to have to face the reality that
the resources of the Earth are _______ .
(1) finally, worthless (2) gradually, limitless
(3) eventually, finite (4) quickly, unavailable
59. Although her initial success was _______ by the fact
that she was the daughter of a famous actor, the crit-
ics later _______ her as a star in her own right.
(1) enhanced, acclaimed
(2) impeded, criticised
(3) superceded, disawarded
(4) trivialized, accepted
60. _______ and piety seem to have been two qualities
almost universally shared by the original settlers of
this land who faced the almost _______ problem of
the weather and disease.
(1) cowardice, enduring
(2) Avarice, threatening
(3) veracity, understandable
(4) Fortitude, insurmountable
45
61. (1) compliant (2) submissive
(3) homely (4) obliging
62. (1) sociable (2) cheerful
(3) convivial (4) gregarious
63. (1) paranoia (2) schizophrenia
(3) pneumonia (4) dementia
64. (1) fawning (2) preposterous
(3) obsequious (4) servile
65. (1) frustration (2) approximation
(3) sorrow (4) satisfaction
Directions: For Questions 61 to 65. Find the odd man out among each of the following.
Directions : For Questions 66 to 70. In each of the following sentences four words or phrases have been underlined. Choose
the underlined word or phrase that has been used imappropriately.
66. The arrogant young executive revelled in finding faults with his elder.
(1) (2)(3)(4)
67. In planning the syllabus we must give regards to the needs of those students taking the vernacular courses.
(1) (2) (3) (4)
68. At the end of the long and difficult negotiation, the union and the management agreed about the proposal.
(1) (2) (3) (4)
69. The desire to protect games and the desire to use it occurs in the same person who both protects wildlife for aesthetic
(1) (2)
reasons but enjoys dining on a haunch of venison.
(3) (4)
70. Problems arise when the historical writer tries to graft a modern sensibility on an ancient era, when he tries to create
(1) (2)
feminists where none existed or egalitarian people in an age replete with the horrors of slavery and despots.
(3) (4)
Directions : For Questions 71 to 75. Each of these questions has a highlighted phrase which can be correctly substituted by
one of the four alternative choices that follow the question. Choose the alternatives which can most appropriately substitute
the highlighted phrase, without changing the sense of the sentence.
71. The policeman took away for public use the first car
that came along and ordered the driver to reach the
accident site.
(1) confiscated (2) commandeered
(3) appropriated (4) confined
72. The mayfly is a shortlive creature, its adult life last-
ing little more than a day.
(1) fragile (2) ephemeral
(3) eugenic (4) ethereal
73. Deeply attacking cherished traditions, he deliberately set
out to shock conventional theatre goers with his radical plays.
(1) unconventional (2) irreverential
(3) iconoclastic (4) idiosyncratic
74. This mountain range contains slopes that will chal-
lenge experts as well as recent converts.
(1) amateurs
(2) neophytes
(3) settlers
(4) novices
75. Silas Marner’s excessive frugality did not allow him
to indulge in any luxuries.
(1) probity
(2) proclivity
(3) sagacity
(4) parsimony
46
76. PLEAD : SUPPLIANT
(1) disperse : rioteer (2) translate : interpreter
(3) beg : philanthropist (4) shun : outcast
77. LINEAGE : PERSON
(1) foliage : tree (2) title : book
(3) landscape : portrait (4) derivation : word
78. INDOLENT : SLOTH
(1) wrathful : ire (2) arrogant : acuity
(3) impatient : apathy (4) covetous : enigma
79. BUFFOON : DIGNITY
(1) laughing stock : ridicule
(2) imposter : identification
(3) braggart : modest
(4) gambler : risk
80. STARE : GLANCE
(1) participate : observe (2) hunt : stalk
(3) gulp : sip (4) scorn : admire
Directions : For Questions 76 to 80. Each of these questions consist of a related pair of capitalized words, followed by four
alternative pairs of words. Select the alternative pair that best expresses a relaltionship similar to that expressed in the pair of
capitalized words.
TEST III
Quantitative Aptitude
81. The sum of 0.2 + 0.02 + 0.002 + 0.00002 is
(1) 0.22222 (2) 0.22024
(3) 0.24222 (4) 0.22202
82. If 3 men or 4 women can do a piece of work in 43
days, how long will 7 men and 5 women take to do it
?
(1) 10 days (2) 11 days
(3) 12 days (4) 13 days
83. The square root of 0.8 is
(1) 0.4 (2) 0.888
(3) 0.894 (4) 0.911
84. At what rate of simple interest will a sum of money
triple itself in 20 years ?
(1) 9% (2) 11%
(3) 10% (4) 8%
85. The average of 25 results is 18, the average of first 12
is 16 and the last 12 is 19. What is the 13th result ?
(1) 17 (2) 30
(3) 40 (4) 35
86. Which of the following is divisible by 11 ?
(1) 35819 (2) 45387
(3) 8593 (4) 61234
87. A train travels 90 km in 1 hour. How long will it take
to travel 24 kn ?
(1) 36 mins. (2) 16 mins
(3) 17 mins. (4) 18 mins.
88. If 10 dozen pens cost Rs. 648, what do 33 pens
cost ?
(1) Rs. 154.30 (2) Rs. 178.20
(3) Rs. 168.20 (4) Rs. 188.20
89. 0.1% of 10000 is
(1) 100 (2) 1000
(3) 110 (4) 10
90. A sum of Rs. 2400 amounts to Rs. 2646 in 2 years
at compound interest rate. Find the rate of
interest.
(1) 6% (2) 5%
(3) 8% (4) 4%
91. If Monu can do a piece of work in 6 days and Vikas
can do the same work in 12 days, how long will they
take to do it together ?
(1) 4 days (2) 5 days
(3) 8 days (4) 3 days
92. The value of 1500
0
is equal to
(1) 0 (2) 1
(3) 1500 (4) 150
93. Two pipes A and B can fill a tank in 8 and 12 mins.
respectively. Both are opened together but at the end
of 3 mins B is turned off. How much more time will
it take to fill the tank ?
(1) 3 mins (2) 4 mins
(3) 6 mins (4) 5 mins
47
48
112. The compound interest on Rs. 18,750 in 2 years, with
the rate of interest being 4% for first year and 8% for
the second year, is
(1) Rs. 2250 (2) Rs. 2310
(3) Rs. 1610 (4) Rs. 2410
113. A ship of 1200 men on board has sufficient provisions
to last 17 weeks. Some more pasengers from other
ships were taken and the provisions were finished in
15 weeks. How many passengers were taken ?
(1) 1260 (2) 1360
(3) 160 (4) 60
114. The sum of two numbers which are in the ratio of 5 :
7 is 264. Find the numbers.
(1) 111; 153 (2) 110; 154
(3) 109; 155 (4) 112; 152
115. Find two numbers, the greater of which shall be in
the same ratio to the smaller as the sum is to 42 and
their difference is to 6.
(1) 36, 28 (2) 32,24
(3) 19, 17 (4) 29, 23
116. If tan
θ + θ
θ + θ
= θ
sin cos 2
sin cos 3
of value the find , 1
(1)
2
1
(2)
8
3
(3)
3
8
(4) 5
117. If 3
θ + θ
θ + θ
= θ
cos 3 sin 5
cos 3 sin 5
of value the find , 4 cos
(1)
8
2
(2)
9
1
(3)
2 2
1
(4)
8
3
118. Jayanti is three years younger to Rani. Rina is two years
older than Jayanti. What is Rani’s age in relation to Rina ?
(1) Two years older (2) One year older
(3) Three years older (4) One year younger
119. Jack says to John, “I am twice as old as you were
when I was as old as you are.” The sum of their ages
is 63. Find their ages.
(1) 44, 19 (2) 50, 13
(3) 40, 23 (4) 36, 27
120. A father is fifty one years old and his son is 16 years
old. In how many years will the father be twice as
old as his son?
(1) 17 years (2) 18 years
(3)14 years (4) 19 years
121. If the speed of a car is 92.4 km/hr, then how many
meters will it cover in 20 minutes ?
(1) 30800 m (2) 32800 m
(3) 38000 m (4) 80300 m
122. Mohan starts at 2 pm and walks from Delhi to Agra
at the rate of 5 km/hr. Ganesh starts from Delhi to
Agra on cycle at 3 pm at the rate of 10 km/hr. When
will Ganesh overtake Mohan ?
(1) 4 pm (2) 5 pm
(3) 3.30 pm (4) 4.30 pm
123. I travelled 1200 km by air which formed 2/5 of the
trip. The remaining part of my trip was one third of
the whole trip by car and rest by train. The distance
travelled by train is
(1) 700 km (2) 800 km
(3) 1000 km (4) 900 km
124. What will be the income tax payable by a person
getting total income of Rs. 90,000 in a year if the
first Rs. 50,000 is not taxable and the rate for next
Rs. 50,000 is 20% ?
(1) Rs. 7,000 (2) Rs. 8,000
(3) Rs. 10,000 (4) Rs. 15,000
125. The product of (a+b) (a
2
–ab+b
2
) is
(1) a
3
+ b
3
(2) a
3
– b
3
(3) (a + b)
3
(4) (a – b)
3
Directions :

For Questions 126 to 130. Study the pie chart given below and answer the Questions 126 to 130.
Cloth
20%
Elec.
10%
Misc.
10%
Rent
20%
Food
40%
Percentage of money spent on
household items
49
126. The ratio between money spent on electricity and
clothing is
(1) 1 : 3 (2) 1 : 2
(3) 1 : 4 (4) 1 : 5
127. If the income is Rs. 28,000 per month, the expendi-
ture on rent is
(1) Rs. 8400 (2) Rs. 5600
(3) Rs. 2800 (4) Rs. 5000
128. If the expenditure on food goes up by 5%, how much
should the family spend less on clothing assuming
other expenses remain constant ?
(1) 5% (2) 10%
(3) 12% (4) 15%
129. The raio of expenses on food to other expenses is
(1) 4 : 6
(2) 4 : 9
(3) 4 : 8
(4) 4 : 5
130. If the income of the family is Rs. 6000, the expenses
on non-food items is
(1) Rs. 3600
(2) Rs. 2400
(3) Rs. 4200
(4) Rs. 3000
TEST IV
Reasoning
Directions : For Questions 131 to 140, find the number that comes next in the sequence.
131. 6, 37, 7, 50, 8, 65, 9, ____
(1) 80 (2) 82
(3) 100 (4) 10
132. 5, 25, 125, 7, 49, 343, 9, 81, ____
(1) 729 (2) 643
(3) 810 (4) 819
133. 9, –7, 18, –18, 31, ____
(1) –31 (2) 33
(3) 61 (4) –33
134. 4, 16, 80, 480, ____
(1) 4800 (2) 880
(3) 3360 (4) 960
135. 25, 24, 22, 19, 15, ____
(1) 9 (2) 10
(3) 11 (4) 12
136. 100, 81, 64, 49, 36, ____
(1) 40 (2) 30
(3) 25 (4) 24
137. 2, 3, 5, 7, 11, ____
(1) 15 (2) 13
(3) 16 (4) 12
138. 0, 1, 2, 5, 26, ____
(1) 47 (2) 31
(3) 677 (4) 676
139. 76, 72, 36, 32, 16, 12, ____
(1) 6 (2) 8
(3) 677 (4) 10
140. 1, 4, 13, 40, ____
(1) 67 (2) 60
(3) 120 (4) 121
Directions : For Questions 141 to 143 consider the following information.
Six employees — L, M, N, O, P and R — are being assigned to offices, each of which can accommodate two persons
and no more than two. Each person must be assigned to exactly one office and must be assigned to that office either alone or
else together with one other member of the group of six. Enough offices are available to permit any possible assignment of
group members to offices, but the following restrictions must be observed :
M cannot share an office with N.
N cannot share an office with O.
P and R must share an office together
50
141. Which of the following pairs of employees can be
assigned to one office together ?
(1) L and O (2) L and R
(3) N and O (4) M and N
142. If N is assigned to an office alone, which of the fol
lowing must be true ?
(1) L shares an office with O
(2) M is assigned to an office alone
(3) The group occupies either 4 or 5 offices
(4) The group occupies either 3 or 6 offices
143. If P and R are the only ones who share an office, how
many offices are the minimum that can accommo-
date the group?
(1) 2 (2) 3
(3) 4 (4) 5
144. Which is the odd one out ?
145. Which is the least like the other ?
Directions : For Questions 151 to 156, consider the following information :
All electronic messages in a large corporation are transmitted by means of a message network that connects eight
computers — Q, R, S, T, W, X, Y and Z. All of the connections are two-way, so that messages can be sent back and forth
between any two connected computers. Any given message enters and leaves a given computer at most once. The computers
are connected only in the following way :
Q is connected to R and to T
S is connected to R and to T
W is connected to S and to Y
X is connected to S, to Y, and to Z
151. The path followed by messages sent from Y to Z must
include which of the following computers ?
(1) R (2) S
(3) W (4) X
152. Messages sent from Q to W can go along any of the
following paths EXCEPT
(1) Q to R to S to W
(2) Q to T to S to W
(3) Q to R to S to T to W
(4) Q to R to S to X to Y to W
153. Which of the following specifies in its entirety a se-
quence, from first to last, of computers through which
a message from Z to T can pass ?
(1) Z, X, Q, T (2) Z, X, Y, T
(3) Z, X, S, R, T (4) Z, X, Y, W, S, T
154. What is the minimum number of computers, exclud-
ing the originating and destination computers,
through which a message from T to X must pass ?
(1) One (2) Two
(3) Three (4) Four
Directions : For Questions 146 to 150, uncramble the letters in the following words and find the odd man out.
146. (1) LHOCOS (2) LLIIGCO
(3) REVIINTUYS (4) PSLATIOH
147. (1) ROEANG (2) LEPAP
(3) INNOO (4) LNOEM
148. (1) AISPR (2) NNOOLD
(3) KOWNEYR (4) OTYKO
149. (1) SEHSC
(2) CCRETKI
(3) KCYEOH
(4) NEINTS
150. (1) PLANE (2) AAJNP
(3) HANUBT (4) STIKAPNA
51
52
168. How far is B’s house from A’s and in which direction ?
(1) 1 km west (2) 2 km east
(3) 2 km west (4) 1 km north
169. If both started at 10 a.m. and reached P at 10.24 a.m.,
B’s speed was how much more than A ?
(1) 2 km per hour (2) 3 km per hour
(3) 4 km per hour (4) 5 km per hour
170. If they both went to A’s place from P, took the short-
est route and went at a speed of 30 km per hour, how
much time did they take in reaching A’s place ?
(1) 8 mins
(2) 6 mins
(3) 10 mins
(4) 15 mins
Directions : For Questions 168 to 170, consider the following information :
Two persons A and B started for point P from their homes. A went 2 km east, turned right, went 3 km, again turned right
and after going 1 km reached P.
B went 3 km west, turned left and after 1 km, again turned left. He went 2 km, finally turned right and after 2 km
reached P. All roads were either north-south or east-west.
Directions : For Questions 171 to 175, consider the following information.
A project to consolidate the programmes of a large university and a small college is set up. It is agreed that the represen-
tatives work in small committees of three, with two representatives of the large university. It was also agreed that no committee
be represented by faculty members of the same subject area. The large university was represented by the following professors
: J, who teaches English literature, K, who is chairman of the Mathematics Department, and L, who is in the Department of
Natural Sciences. The small college appointed the following : M, who teaches Mathematics, N, who is a Latin teacher, and O
and P, who teach English literature.
171. Which of the following represents a committee prop-
erly composed ?
(1) K, L, N (2) K, L, M
(3) J, K, L (4) J, O, N
172. Which of the following may serve with P ?
(1) K and M (2) K and L
(3) K and O (4) J and K
173. Which of the following must be true ?
I If J serves on a committee, P must be assigned
to that committee.
II If J cannot serve on a committee, then M can-
not be assigned to that committee.
III If J cannot serve on a committee, then L must
serve on that committee.
(1) II only (2) III only
(3) I and II only (4) II and III only
174. If L is not available for service, which of the follow-
ing must be on the committee ?
(1) M and J
(2) O and J
(3) N and J
(4) N and O
175. Which of the following must be true ?
I N and O are always on the same committee.
II M and O never serve on the same committee.
III When M serves, L must serve.
(1) I only
(2) I and II only
(3) III only
(4) II and III only
176. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8
E U I M L P T L
(1) 43512867 (2) 53418672
(3) 63145872 (4) 42873651
177. 1 2 3 4 4 6 7 8 9
O N E I C T N T N
(1) 543219867 (2) 456329871
(3) 514278963 (4) 512849376
178. 1 2 3 4 5
E L P A R
(1) 32145
(2) 31452
(3) 45213
(4) 34512
Directions : For Questions 176 to 178. You find below a set of letters with a number above each, followed by four choices of
arrangements of letters to make a word. Choose the correct arrangement of letters as indicated by the number to make a word.
53
179. Which of the following is an acceptable package ?
(1) One jar of peach, one jar of strawberry, and one
jar of orange
(2) Two jars of strawberry and one jar of apple
(3) Three jars of peach
(4) Three jars of orange
180. An acceptable package cannot contain which of the
following combinations of jams ?
(1) Grape and peach
(2) Peach and apple
(3) Orange and peach
(4) Orange and grape
181. Which of the following could be packed with a jar of
strawberry to make an acceptable package ?
(1) One jar of peach and one jar of orange
(2) One jar of grape and one jar of orange
(3) Two jars of apple
(4) Two jars of orange
182. A jar of which of the following must be packed with
a jar of orange and a jar of peach to make an accept-
able package?
(1) grape (2) orange
(3) strawberry (4) peack
183. An acceptable package cannot contain two jars of
(1) grape (2) apple
(3) strawberry (4) peach
184. Which of the following pairs of jars of jam could be
packed with a jar of orange to make an acceptable
package ?
(1) One jar each of orange and strawberry
(2) One jar each of grape and strawberry
(3) Two jars of orange
(4) Two jars of grape
185. Which of the following cannot be two of the three
jars of jam in an acceptable package ?
(1) One jar of strawberry and one jar of peach
(2) One jar of grape and one jar of orange
(3) Two jars of orange
(4) Two jars of grape
Directions : For Questions 179 to 185, consider the following information.
A mail-order company sells packages of jam, each containing three jars of jam. The available flavours are : grape,
orange, strawberry, peach and apple. Each jar contains exactly one flavour of jam. Each package must conform to the follow-
ing rules :
(i) Each package must contain either two or three different flavours of jam.
(ii) A package containing any orange jam must also contain at least one jar of grape.
(iii) A package containing any grape jam must also contain at least one jar of orange.
(iv) Peach jam and apple jam cannot be packed in the same package.
(v) A package containing any strawberry jam must also contain at least one jar of apple, but a package containing jam need
not contain strawberry jam.
Directions : For Questions 186 to 188. If in a certain language CHARCOAL is coded as 45164913 and MORALE is coded as
296137, how are the following words coded in that language ?
186. REAL
(1) 8519 (2) 6713
(3) 7209 (4) 9135
187. ARCHER
(1) 164543 (2) 163546
(3) 193344 (4) 193476
188. COACH
(1) 31837
(2) 81494
(3) 82464
(4) 49145
189. L’s husband is
(1) K (2) P
(3) R (4) S
190. If P had daughter M, then which of the following is true?
(1) U is M’s mother
(2) M’s paternal uncle is M
(3) K is M’s maternal uncle
(4) R is M’s brother
Directions : For Questions 189 to 193, consider the following information.
T, U, V and L (females) married P, K, R and S (males) — not necessarily in that order. V’s husband is older than S. U’s
husband is older than K who is the brother of T. K was the best man at V’s marriage. P is the youngest of the husbands.
54
191. Which of the following is false ?
(1) K is younger than R but older than P
(2) L’s husband is not the youngest among the hus-
bands
(3) V’s husband is the eldest among the husbands
(4) T’s husband is not the youngest among the hus-
bands
192. If the husbands from the youngest to the eldest are
of the ages 33, 36, 40 and 42 and the age of their
wives are 29, 30, 28 and 39 respectively, then which
of the following is false ?
(1) V is older than P
(2) K is older than S’s wife
(3) The difference in the ages of R and V is only
three years
(4) L is the youngest among the wives
193. The age of T is 30 years. The ages of the ladies differ
by 2 years. If each husband is exactly three years
older than his wife, what is the age of S ? (If the
husbands are arranged according to their ages
from the youngest to eldest, the ages of the wives
would be in the increasing order, each differing by 2
years)
(1) 34 (2) 37
(3) 36 (4) 39
Directions : For Questions 194 to 196. In each of these questions a word has been given, followed by four other words, one of
which cannot be formed by using the letters of the given word. Find that word.
194. INFRASTRUCTURE
(1) STARE (2) CURE
(3) INFER (4) STAIR
195. ADMINISTRATION
(1) TRAIN (2) MINISTER
(3) RATIOS (4) STAIR
196. REMARKABLE
(1) ABLE
(2) MARKS
(3) REAR
(4) MARBLE
Directions : In Questions 197 to 200, ech question consists of a statement followed by three assumptions numbered I, II and
III. An assumption is something supposed or taken for granted. You have to consider the statement and the following assump-
tions and decide which of the assumptions are implicit in the statement. Then decide which of the answers 1, 2, 3 or 4 is the
correct answer.
197. The opportunities available to an MBA degree holder
are limitless.
I. MBA degree holders have a good demand in
the job market.
II. MBA degree holders are better workers than others.
III. No other degree provides as many opportuni-
ties as an MBA degree.
(1) Only I (2) Only II
(3) Only III (4) All three
198. Till now, XYZ Corprn. has functioned with a strong
emphasis on tradition and values, with employees
looked upon as part of one big family.
I. Only family members were employed by XYZ
Corprn.
II. There exists a strong corporatge culture with
emphasis on tradition and values.
III. There is a low turnover of employees in the
group.
(1) Only I (2) I and II
(3) All three (4) Only II
199. Part of the core sector, the cement industry has been
badly hit by the cut in government plan allocation.
I. The cement industry is in a recession.
II. The cement industry depends heavily on the
government for support.
III. The core sector consists of only the cement in-
dustry.
(1) II and III (2) I and II
(3) I and III (4) All three
200. The contours of the investment strategies have been
dramatically altered with the entry of the foreign insti-
tutional investors into the Indian market and with the
imminent entry of so many other waiting in the wings.
I. Some foreign institutional investors have already
entered India.
II. There has already been a shift in the investment
strategies.
III. More foreign institutional investors are likely
to enter India.
(1) Only I (2) Only II
(3) I and III (4) All three
55
OPENMAT (XI) ENTRANCE TEST FOR
MANAGEMENT PROGRAMMES 2002
TEST I
General Awareness
1. The headquarters of UNESCO is located in
(1) The Hague (2) New York
(3) Paris (4) Washington
2. Which of the following is not correctly matched ?
(1) Bhangra – Punjab (2) Bihu – Manipur
(3) Garba – Gujarat (4) Tamasha – Maharashtra
3. Who is the author of “The Hindu View of Life” ?
(1) S. Radhakrishnan
(2) Sri Aurobindo
(3) Rabindra Nath Tagore
(4) Swami Vivekanand
4. Which new championship was introduced in the last
Commonweallth Games held in Malaysia ?
(1) Cricket (2) Football
(3) Hocky (4) Tennis
5. “In Custody”, an English novel, has been written by
(1) V.S. Naipaul (2) Vikram Seth
(3) Anita Desai (4) Shobha De
6. Cricket was an Olympic event at which of the fol-
lowing Olympics ?
(1) London 1908 (2) Amsterdam 1928
(3) Paris 1900 (4) Melbourne 1956
7. Who is the Chairman of the Planning Commission
of India ?
(1) The President (2) The Vice President
(3) The Finance Minister (4) The Finance Secretary
8. Which of the following Indian states has entered the
Guiness Book of World Records for its proud pos-
session of the tallest tree in the world ?
(1) Tripura (2) Sikkim
(3) Assam (4) Nagaland
9. Which of the following was admitted as the 189th
members of the UN in September 2000 ?
(1) Tuvalu (2) Kiribati
(3) Nauru (4) Tonga
10. Which of the following is not a South Americal country?
(1) Argentina (2) Bolivi
(3) Colombia (4) Mexico
11. Ms Harita Kaur has the distinction of being the first
Indian woman
(1) Ambassador to a foreign country
(2) to join Indian Air Force
(3) to join Indian Navy
(4) doctor to create a test-tube baby
12. Who among the following earned the sobriquet
‘Deshbandhu’ for his defence of members of the ex-
tremist group of the Congress in 1908 ?
(1) Chittaranjan Das (2) Lala Lajpat Rai
(3) Bipin Chandra Pal (4) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
13. Which of the following is not a rural development
programme ?
(1) TRYSEM (2) JRY
(3) CRY (4) RLEGP
14. The headquarters of World Intellectual Property
Organisation (WIPO) is located in
(1) Paris (2) Madrid
(3) New York (4) Geneva
15. The first ever India–EU Summit was held in
(1) Pyongyang (2) Tokyo
(3) Beijing (4) Lisbon
16. World Cup Soccer 2006 will be held in
(1) Germany (2) UK
(3) Japan (4) South Korea
17. Who won the Women’s Singles in the U.S. Open Ten-
nis Championship held in September 2000 at New
York ?
(1) Lindsay Davenport (2) Serena Williams
(3) Venus Williams (4) Jennifer Capriati
18. Which of the following rivers is not a tributary of the
Indus ?
(1) Sutlej (2) Chenab
(3) Bharirathi (4) Beas
19. The President of India can nominate how many mem-
bers to the Lok Sabha ?
(1) 2 (2) 4
(3) 8 (4) 12
56
20. The Constitution Review Panel has been set up in Feb-
ruary under the Chairmanship of Mr. Justice M.N.
Venkatachaliah, consisting of how many members ?\
(1) 7 (2) 9
(3) 11 (4) 15
21. Who wrote the book “India Unbound” ?
(1) A.K. Damodaran (2) Vikram Seth
(3) Khushwant Singh (4) Gurcharan Das
22. The name of Pierre Cardin is associated with
(1) Painting (2) Pop music
(3) Fashion designing (4) Films
23. Which of the following pairs is not correct ?
(1) Gandhi Sagar – Madhya Pradsh
(2) Tungabhadra – Tamil Nadu
(3) Bhakra Nangal – Punjab
(4) Hirakud – Orissa
24. The World Investment Report (WIR) is published by
(1) IMF (2) GATT
(3) OECD (4) UNCTAD
25. The tenth session of UNCTAD (United Nations Con-
ference on Trade and Development) was held at which
of the following places in Feburary 2000 ?
(1) Myanmar (2) Manila
(3) Singapore (4) Thailand
26. Asteriods revolve around the Sun between
(1) Mars and Jupiter (2) Earth and Mars
(3) Saturn and Uranus (4) Uranus and Neptune
27. Which of the following countries is also known as
the ‘Land of the Midnight Sun’ ?
(1) Finland (2) Ireland
(3) Norway (4) Sweden
28. Which one of the following lakes forms an interna-
tional boundry between Tanzania and Uganda ?
(1) Chad (2) Malawi
(3) Victoria (4) Zambezi
29. A ‘black hole’ is a body in space which does not al-
low any radiation to come out. This property is due
to its
(1) very small size
(2) very large size
(3) very high density
(4) very low density
30. A small pouch containing silica gel is found in
bottles of medicine in tablet or powder form be-
cause silica gel
(1) kills bacteria
(2) kills germs and spores
(3) absorbs moisture
(4) absorbs all gases present inside the bottle
TEST II
English Language
Directions : For Questions 31 to 45. Read the passages below and then answer the questions that follow each passage,
according to the contents of the passage.
Passage I
Nearly two thounsand years have passed since a census decreed by Caesar Augustus became part of the greatest story
ever told. Many things have changed in the intervening years. The hotel industry worries more about overbuilding than
ovecrowding, and if they had to meet an unexpected influx, few inns would have a manger to accommodate the weary guests.
Now it is the census taker that does the travelling in the fond hope that a highly mobile population will stay put long enough
to get a good sampling. Methods of gathering, recording and evaluating information have presumably been improved a great
deal. And where then it was the modest purpose of Rome to obtain a simple head count as an adequate basis for levying taxes,
now batteries of complicated statistical series furnished by governmental agencies and private organisations are eagerly
scanned and interpreted by sages and seers to get a clue to future events. History does not tell us how the Roman census takers
made out, and as regards our more immediate casting, there are considerable differences of opinion. They were aired at the
celebration of the 125th anniversary of the American Statistical Assocation. There was the thought that business forecasting
might well be on its way from an art to a science, and some speakers talked about new-fangled computers and high-faulting
mathematical systems in terms of excitement and endearment which we, at least in our younger years when these things
mattered, would have associated more readily with the description of a fair maiden. But others pointed to the deplorable
record of highly esteemed forecasts and forecasters with a batting average below that of the weakest teams, and the president-
elect of the Association cautioned that “high powered statistical methods are usually in order where the facts are crude and
inadequate statisticians assume.” We left his birthday party somewhere between hope and despair and with the conviction, not
57
31. The passage would be most likely to appear in
(1) a journal of biblical studies
(2) an introductory college textbook on statistics
(3) the annual report of the American Statistical
Assocation
(4) a newspaper review of a recent professional fes
tivity
32. According to the passage, taxation in Roman times
was based on
(1) mobility (2) wealth
(3) population (4) census takers
33. The author refers to the Romans primarily in order
to
(1) prove the superiority of modern sampling meth
ods to ancient ones
(2) provide a historical framework for the passage
(3) relate an unfamiliar concept to a familiar one
(4) show that statistical forecasts have not signifi-
cantly deteriorated
34. The author refers to the ‘weakest teams’ primarily in
order to
(1) show that sports do not depend on statistics
(2) provide an example of an unreliable statistic
(3) contrast verifiable and unverifiable methods of
record keeping
(4) illustrate the failure of statistical predictions
35. On the basis of the passage, it can be inferred that
the author would agree with which of the following
statements ?
(1) Computers have significantly improved the
application of statistics in business
(2) Statistics is not at the present time, a science
(3) It is useless to try to predict the economy
(4) Most mathematical systems are inexact
36. The author’s tone can best be described as
(1) jocular
(2) scornful
(3) pessimistic
(4) objective
37. In the phrase “when these things mattered”, the words
“these things” refer to
(1) new-fangled computers
(2) terms of excitement and endearment
(3) fair maidens
(4) younger years
38. The word “delineation” used towards the end of the
passage means
(1) separation
(2) depiction
(3) demarcation
(4) association
really newly acquired, that proper statistical methods applied to ascertainable facts have their merits in economic forecasting
as long as neither forecaster nor public is deluded into mistaking the delineation of probabilities and trends for a prediction of
certainties of mathematical exactitude.
Passage II
Scattered around the globe are more than 100 small regions of isolated volcanic activity known to geologists as hot
spots. Unlike most of world’s volcanoes, they are not always found at the boundaries of the great drifting plates that make up
the earth’s surface; on the contrary, many of them lie deep in the interior of a plate. Most of the hot spots move only slowly, and
in some cases the movement of the plates past them has left trails of extinct volcanoes. The hot spots and their volcanic trails
are milestones that mark the passage of the plates.
That the plates are moving is now beyond dispute. Africa and South America, for example, are receding from each
other as new material is injected into the sea floor between them. The complementary coastlines and certain geological
features that seem to span the ocean are reminders of where the two continents were once joined. The relative motion of the
plate carrying these continents has been constructed in detail, but cannot readily be translated into motion with respect to the
earth’s interior. It is not possible to determine whether both continents are moving (in opposite directions) or whether one
continent is stationary and the other is drifting away from it. Hot spots, anchored in the deeper layers of the earth, provide the
measuring instruments needed to resolve the question. From an analysis of the hot spot population it appears that the African
plate is stationary and that it has not moved during the past 30 million years.
39. The term “hot plate” is being used in the passage
(1) rhetorically (2) colloquially
(3) technically (4) ambiguously
40. The authors regard the theory that the plates making
up the earth’s surface move as
(1) tentative (2) irrefutable
(3) discredited (4) unanimous
58
41. The term ‘complementary’ as referred to in respect
of coastlines is used in the sense of
(1) serving to complete
(2) adding value to each other
(3) juxtaposed
(4) running parallel
42. According to the passage, hot spots
(1) are always found on the boundaries of the drift-
ing plates
(2) move slowly and may lie deep in the interior of
a plate
(3) are too numerous to be counted
(4) All of the above
43. According to the passage, which of the following
statements indicated that Africa and South America
once adjoined one another ?
(1) They share certain common topographic traits
(2) Their shorelines are physical counterparts
(3) The African plate has been stable for 30 million
years
(4) (1) and (2) only
44. The word “constructed”’ most nearly means
(1) interpreted (2) built
(3) impeded (4) restricted
45. According to the passage, the hot spot theory even-
tually may prove useful in interpreting
(1) the boundaries of the plates
(2) the depth of the ocean floor
(3) the relative motion of the plates
(4) major changes in continental shape
Directions : For Questions 46 to 50. Each of these questions consists of a capitalized word followed by 4 alternatives. From
the given alternatives choose the one that is most similar in meaning to the capitalized word.
46. DISINGENUOUS
(1) sophisticated (2) unprejudiced
(3) argumentative (4) unintelligent
47. EXCULPATE
(1) scold with biting harshness
(2) cut away
(3) clear from blame
(4) serve as an example
48. GERMANE
(1) well bred (2) pertinent
(3) light hearted (4) about to grow
49. ABJURE
(1) discuss (2) renounce
(3) run off secretly (4) perjure
50. STYMIE
(1) make numb
(2) cause to appear stupid
(3) present an obstacle
(4) bring under control
Directions : For Questions 51 to 55. These questions consists of a capitalized word followed by four alternatives. Select from
among the alternatives the word wlhich is most nearly opposite to the capitalized word in meaning.
51. PHLEGMATIC
(1) hoarse (2) voluntary
(3) oral (4) effusive
52. CONSONANT
(1) insuperable
(2) incongruous
(3) non existent
(4) abundant
53. SALACIOUS
(1) expensive (2) wholesome
(3) private (4) religious
54. PEREMPTORY
(1) humble (2) resistant
(3) weak (4) deferential
55. SYBARITIC
(1) foolish (2) obdurate
(3) austere (4) conservative
59
56. _______ and ________, she left many to mourn her
generous heart when she died.
(1) Selfless, altruistic
(2) Thoughtful, rarefied
(3) Belove, somatic
(4) Kind, political
57. The innovations of the _______ age have had
________ effec ts on people in all walks of life.
(1) atomic, irrelevant
(2) electronic, universal
(3) nuclear, profane
(4) computer, marked
58. Human senses are designed to _______ specific
stimuli, and after a focus is achieved, other sensory
data is ________
(1) look for, hightened
(2) respond to, insulated
(3) concentration, discounted
(4) favour, added up
59. Immigrants arriving in a new country have the spe-
cial problem of __________ their established
behaviour and learning new habits whose results are
_________
(1) abandoning, uncertain
(2) 1strengthening, different
(3) losing, definte
(4) controlling, guaranteed
60. We should have _________ trouible ahead when the
road _______ into a gravel path.
(1) doubted, shrank
(2) anticipated, dwindled
(3) expected, grew
(4) seen, collapsed
Directions : For Questions 56 to 60. Each of the questions below consists of sentences with one or more blank spaces. Each
sentence is followed by four alternative sets of words. Choose the word or set of words from among the alternatives given,
which when inserted in the sentence, best fits the meaning of the sentence.
Directions: For Questions 61 to 65. Find the odd man out among each of the following.
61. (1) destroyed (2) deteriorated
(3) dilapidated (4) decayed
62. (1) epigram (2) monograph
(3) treatise (4) journal
63. (1) resign (2) exit
(3) reconcile (4) tolerate
64. (1) contract (2) protocol
(3) agreement (4) settlement
65. (1) meditation
(2) sedation
(3) deliberation
(4) speculation
Directions : For Questions 66 to 70. In each of the following four words or phrases have been underlined. Choose the
underlined word or phrase that has been used inappropriately.
66. At the cooperative stores you can buy the goods really cheaply.
(1) (2) (3) (4)
67. His absence may have been because of the weather or
(1) (2)
alternatively it may have been because of his illness.
(3) (4)
68. However a good stero you have, you will never get the perfect reproduction.
(1) (2) (3) (4)
69. Having failed once, it is unfortunate to note that no further attempt was made.
(1) (2) (3) (4)
70. No one, not even the members of the Cabinet, knows how inefficient and unreliable our security set up has become.
(1) (2) (3) (4)
60
71. Even though he is a leading authority on the French
Revolution, the chairperson is a dull and unintersting
speaker whose lectures, even on most exciting as-
pects, cause students to yawn and fidget.
(1) sublime
(2) confident
(3) insipid
(4) lacklustre
72. Because experience had convinced her that he was both
self seeking and avaricious, she rejected the likeli-
hood that his donation had been selfless and chari-
table.
(1) generous (2) altruistic
(3) frivolous (4) ephemeral
73. The evil of class and race hatred must be eliminated
while it is still in an undeveloped, formative state,
otherwise it may grow to dangerous proportions.
(1) uncultivated (2) overt
(3) embryonic (4) amorphous
74. The fire spread in such an unusual manner that the
fire department chiefs were certain that it had been
set by an arsonist.
(1) an ingrate (2) a rogue
(3) an incendiary (4) an imposter
75. In formulating a hypothesis we must keep it in agree-
ment with what we know of the real world.
(1) congruent (2) in consonance
(3) in connotatiuon (4) in consanguinity
Directions : For Questions 71 to 75. Each of these questions has a highlighted phrase which can be correctly substituted by
one of the four alternative choices that follow the question. Choose the alternatives which can most appropriately substitute
the highlighted phrase, without changing the sense of the sentence.
Directions : For Questions 76 to 80. Each of these questions consists of a related pair of capatalized words, followed by four
alternative pairs of words. Select the alternative pair that best expresses a relationship similar to that expressed in the pair of
capitalized words.
76. MUSTER : CREW
(1) convene : meeting
(2) demobilize : troops
(3) dominate : opposition
(4) cheer : lean
77. SURPRISE : EXCLAMATION
(1) insolence : low
(2) dismay : groan
(3) happiness : grimace
(4) contentment : mutter
78. MENDICANT : IMPECUNIOUS
(1) critic : quizzical
(2) complainer : petulant
(3) physician : noble
(4) liar : compulsive
79. IMPROMPTU : REHEARSAL
(1) practiced : technique
(2) makeshift : whim
(3) offhand : premeditation
(4) numerical : calculation
80. TIRADE : ABUSIVE
(1) monologue : lengthy
(2) aphorism : boring
(3) prologue : conclusion
(4) encomium : laudatory
TEST III
Quantitative Aptitude
81. Find the product of 56 X 48.
(1) 2788 (2) 2308
(3) 2688 (4) 2808
82. Find the least number which must be added to 4931
to make it a perfect square.
(1) 90 (2) 85
(3) 100 (4) 110
83. If the base of a triangle is 25 cm, and corresponding
altitude is 12 cm, then the area will be
(1) 15 sq. cm (2) 150 sq. cm
(3) 1500 sq. cm (4) 300 sq. cm
84. The base of a parallelogram is 6 cm and the corre-
sponding altitude is 4 cm. Find its area.
(1) 12 cm
2
(2) 48 cm
2
(3) 72 cm
2
(4) 24 cm
2
61
62
102. The cost price of 15 copies of a book is equal to the
selling price of 12 copies of the same book. What is
the gain percent?
(1) 25% (2) 33%
(3) 20% (4) %
2
1
22
103. Three years ago the average age of a family of 5
members was 17 years. A bady having been born,
the average age of the family is same today. What is
the age of the bady?
(1) 3 years (2) 2 years
(3) 1 year (4)
2
1
1 years
104. If tan
θ − θ
θ + θ
cos sin
cos sin
is equal to
(1)
2
3
(2) 3
(3) 4 (4)
3
2
105. The sum of 1st 10 even numbers greater than 10 is
(1) 212 (2) 208
(3) 210 (4) 214
106. Two taps A and B can fill a tank in 8 hours and 12
hour respectively. If they are opened on alternate
hours and if A is opened first, in how many hours
will the tank be full?
(1)
5
3
9
hours (2) 10 hours
(3)
2
1
10 hours (4)
2
1
9 hours
107. A can do a piece of work in 8 days and B in 12 days.
With the help of C, they finished the work in 4 days.
If they got Rs. 1500 for their work, how much will C
get for doing the work?
(1) Rs. 750 (2) Rs. 1000
(3) Rs. 500 (4) Rs. 250
108. Simplify 105 ¥ 11 ÷ 33 ÷ 21
(1)
3
5
(2)
5
3
(3)
5
7
(4)
7
5
109. Simplify
9 . 11 9 . 11 9 . 11 7 . 19 7 . 19 7 . 19
9 . 11 9 . 11 9 . 11 7 . 19 7 . 19 7 . 19
× + × + ×
× × − × ×
(1) 31.6 (2) 7.8
(2) 8.8 (4) 30.6
110. A sum of money is divided among A, B and C in such
a way that A gets half as much as B and B gets half as
much as C. If C gets Rs. 280, how much does A get?
(1) Rs. 140 (2) Rs. 70
(3) Rs. 210 (4) Rs. 280
111. A rectangular field is 80 m long and 60 m wide. How
long will it take to cross it diagonally at 5 m/sec?
(1) 20 sec (2) 40 sec
(3) 28 sec (4) 32 sec
112. The surface of a cube is 150 sq. m. Find its volume.
(1) 110 cu. m (2) 105 cu. m
(3) 750 cu. m (4) 125 cu. m
113. A room is 10 m long and 6 m broad. Find the cost of
carpeting its floor with a carpet of width 60 cm, at
the rate of Rs. 2.37 per m.
(1) Rs. 474 (2) Rs. 237
(3) Rs. 300 (4) Rs. 118.50
114. A rectangular field is 36 m long and 30 m wide. A
path of uniform width and of area 360 sq. m runs
round inside it. Find the width of the path.
(1) 3 m (2) 6 m
(3) 4.5 m (4) 5 m
115. A tank is 50 m long, 17.5 m wide and 5 m deep. How
many quintals of watger can it contain if one cu. cm
of water weighs one gram?
(1) 47350 (2) 45370
(3) 43750 (4) 30000
116. The slant height of a cone, whose height is 8 cm and
radius of the base is 6 cm, is
(1) 14 cm (2) 10 cm
(3) 11 cm (4) 40 cm
117. Find the volume of a sphere whose diameter is 21 cm.
(1) 4851 cu. cm (2) 3312 cu. cm
(3) 403 cu. cm (4) 4581 cu. cm
118. The walls of a hall are 30 m broad and 12 m high. If
the cost of painting the wall is Rs. 2 per sq. m, the
total cost will be
(1) Rs. 2400 (2) 1200
(3) Rs. 800 (4) Rs. 300
119. A man invested Rs. 20, 000, partly in 5% and partly
in 4% deposits. If his total income is Rs. 890. what
sums did he invest?
(1) Rs. 9,000, Rs. 11,000
(2) Rs. 8,000, Rs. 12,000
(3) Rs. 7,000, Rs. 13,000
(4) Rs. 6,000, Rs. 14,000
120. If
2 x
4
1 x
3
3 x
1

=

+

then x is equal to
(1) 4 (3) 3
(3) 2 (4) 1
121. A milk vendor buys 5 litres milk at the rate of Rs. 10
a litre and after mixing water in it, sells it at Rs. 12 a
litre. If he wishes to make a profit of 80%, how much
water should he add?
(1) 3 litres (2) 2.5 litres
(3) 2 litres (4) 5 litres
63
64
133. 64, 60, 44, –20, ________
(1) –40 (2) –256
(3) 20 (4) –276
134. 4, 5, 9, 14, _________
(1) 19 (2) 23
(3) 18 (4) 25
135. 1, 3, 7, 15, ________
(1) 22 (2) 31
(3) (24) (4) 30
136. 1, 3, 4, 8, 15, 27, 50, ________
(1) 92 (2) 77
(3) 100 (4) 75
137. 36, 54, 18, 27, 9, ________
(1) 13.5 (2) 36
(3) 10 (4) 4.5
138. 3, 8, 15, 24, 35, _________
(1) 45 (2) 48
(3) 59 (4) 42
Directions : For Questions 139 to 143. Unscramble the letters in the following words and find the odd man out.
139. (1) TOYO
(2) HIALSM
(3) SNAAGRRI
(4) LIHED
140. (1) IARUPJ (2) NAUPKR
(3) BMMIAU (4) AANTP
141. (1) PEGAR (2) EPRA
(3) OOTTAP (4) AEHCP
142. (1) RETE (2) NALTP
(3) RSGSA (4) NIOR
143. (1) GEITR (2) ABT
(3) MUTSP (4) ALBL
Directions : For Questions 144 to 147. Consider the following information.
A cryptanalyst must translate into letters all of the digits included in the following two lines of 9 symbols each :
9 3 3 4 5 6 6 6 7
2 2 3 3 4 4 5 7 8
The cryptanalyst has already determined some of the rules governing the decoding :
(i) Each of the digits from 2 to 9 represents exactly one of the eight letters A, E, I, O, U, R, S, and T and each letter is
represented by exacly one of the digits.
(ii) If a digit occurs more than once, it represents the same letter on each occasion.
(iii) The letter T and the letter O are each represented exactly 3 times.
(iv) The letter I and the letter A are each represented exactly 2 times.
(v) The letter E is represented exactly four times.
144. If 2 represents R and 7 represents A, then 5 must
represent
(1) I (2) O
(3) S (4) T
145. Which of the following is a possible decoding of the
five-digit message 46536?
(1) O-T-A-E-T (2) O-T-E-U-T
(3) O-O-S-E-O (4) T-O-I-E-T
146. If 9 represents a vowel, it must represent which of
the following?
(1) E (2) I
(3) O (4) U
147. If 8 represents a vowel, which of the following must
represent a consonant ?
(1) 4 (2) 5
(3) 7 (4) 9
65
Directions : For Questions 148 to 150. Choose the correct alternative.
148. If HOT = IPU, COLD =
(1) CPUI (2) RPME
(2) DPME (4) STUV
149. If GOA = EMY, USA =
(1) DAT (2) RAP
(3) TUV (4) SQY
150. If DOG = GRJ, CAT =
(1) VRA (2) TAC
(3) TXZ (4) FDW
Directions : For Questions 151 to 156. Consider the following information.
Three women—R, S and T, two men—U and V, and four children — W, X, Y and Z— are going to a game. They have
a total of nine seats for the game, but the seats are in three different sections of the arena; they have a group of three adjacent
seats in each section. For the game, the nine people must divide into groups of three according to the following restrictions:
(i) No adults of the same sex can be together in any group
(ii) W cannot be in R’s goup
(iii) X must be in a goup with S or U or both
151. If R is the only adult in one goup, the other members
of her group must be
(1) W and Y (2) X and Y
(3) X and Z (4) Y and Z
152. If R and U are two of the three people in the first
group, who can be in the second and third groups,
respectively?
(1) S, T, W; V, Y, Z (2) S, W, Z; T, V, X
(3) S, X, Y; T, W, Z (4) T, V, W; S, Y, Z
153. Which of the following pairs of people can be in the
same group as W?
(1) R and Y (2) S and U
(3) S and V (4) X and Z
154. Which of the following must be true?
(1) One of the women is in a group with two children
(2) One of the two men in is a group with W
(3) R is in a group with a man
(4) T’s group includes exactly one child
155. Any of the following pairs of people could be in X’s
group except
(1) R and U (2) S and T
(3) S and U (4) S and W
156. If T,Y and Z are in one group, which of the follow-
ing must be together in one of the other groups?
(1) R, S, V (2) R, U, W
(3) S, U, W (4) S, V, W
Directions : For Questions 157 to 160.
Each of these questions has a set of 3 items with some sort of relationship among them. Given below are four answers
1, 2, 3 and 4 depicting different type of relationships among items, each circle representing one item, irrespective of its size.
Find out the figure that represents the relationship among items given in questions.
157. India, Andhra Pradesh, Hyderabad
158. Planets, Earth, Sun
159. Cars, Trucks, Automobiles
160. Asia, Europe, Australia
(1) (2) (3) (4)
66
Directions : For Questions 161 to 163.
You find below a set of letters with a number above each, followed by four choices of arrangements of letters to make
a word. Choose the correct arrangement of letters as indicated by the number to make a word.
161. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7
H L N G E I S
(1) 4671235 (2) 4536712
(3) 5342671 (4) 3672415
162. 1 2 3 4 5 6
A W R S N E
(1) 213564 (2) 413256
(3) 154263 (4) 321546
163. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
E O N R I A S N G
(1) 416728539 (2) 754132698
(3) 645723189 (4) 675489321
164. If ‘South-East’ is called ‘East’, ‘North-West’ is called
‘West’, ‘South-West’ is called ‘South’ and so on, what
will ‘North’ be called?
(1) South
(2) North-West
(3) North-East
(4) South-West
165. Six persons a, b, c, d, e and f are standing in a circle.
‘b’ is between ‘d’ and ‘c’. ‘a’ is between ‘e’ and ‘c’.
‘f’ is to the right of ‘d’. Who is between ‘a’ and ‘f’?
(1) e
(2) c
(3) b
(4) d
Directions : For Questions 166 to 170. Consider the following information.
In a certain society, only two forms of marriage are recognized. In ‘Prahtu’ marriage, several brothers marry a single
women, while in ‘Brihtu’ marriage, several sisters marry a single man. All members of a given married group are regarded as
the parents of any children of the marriage. Marriage between male and female children of the same parents is forbidden.
(i) E is a son of A.
(ii) G is a daughter of B.
(iii) F is a daughter of C.
(iv) E, F, M and N have a daughter, H.
(v) E and F have the same paternal grandmother, Q.
(vi) A and B are the only grandfathers of H; C, J, K, and L are the only grandmothers of H.
(vii) No one has married more than once; all children were born in wedlock.
166. G is a sister of
(1) N only (2) M only
(3) E (4) F
167. N is a sibling of
I. M only
II. M and E
III. M and F
(1) I only
(2) II only
(3) III only
(4) II ro III, but not both
168. One of Q’s children may be
(1) A (2) C
(3) J (4) K
169. Which of the following is an offspring of a ‘Brihtu’
marriage?
(1) H (2) E
(3) A (4) B
170. If E, F, M and N had not married, which would be a
permissible marriage?
(1) N and M marry E (2) N and M marry
G and F
(3) G marries E only (4) E marries G and F
Directions : For Questions 171 to 175. One of the numbers in the series is wrong. Find out the wrong one.
171. 380, 188, 92, 48, 20, 8, 2
(1) 188 (2) 48
(3) 8 (4) 20
172. 579, 885, 696, 398, 876
(1) 696 (2) 876
(3) 398 (4) 885
67
173. 24, 12, 36, 27, 48
(1) 24 (2) 36
(3) 27 (4) 48
174. 56, 72, 90, 110, 132, 150
(1) 72 (2) 110
(3) 132 (4) 150
175. 445, 221, 109, 46, 25, 11, 4
(1) 221
(2) 109
(3) 46
(4) 11
176. Which is the odd one out?
177. Complete the series
178. Three of the following four are alike in a certain way
and so form a group. Which is the one that doesn’t
belong to that group?
(1) 21 (2) 63
(3) 39 (4) 83
179. If the first day of the year (other than the leap year)
was Friday, which was the last day of that year?
(1) Saturday (2) Sunday
(3) Monday (4) Friday
180. If English alphabets are written in reverse order, what
will be the fourth letter to the right of the 13th letter
from the left?
(1) J
(2) L
(3) K
(4) M
Cirections : For Questions 181 to 186. Consider the following information.
A Group of eight people is going camping in tents — tent 1, tent 2, and tent 3. The group consists of two women — V
and X — and six girls — K, L, M, O, P and T. Tent assignments will be made as follows:
(1) There will be no more than three persons in a tent.
(ii) V will be in tent 1.
(iii) V will not be in a tent with her daughter O, and X will not be in a tent with her daughter P.
(iv) K, L and M, who are close friends, will be in a tent together.
181. Which of the following can be in tent 1?
(1) L (2) M
(3) O (4) X
182. If K is in tent 2, which of the following must be true?
(1) M is in tent 3 (2) O is in tent 3
(3) P is in tent 2 (4) T is in tent 1
?
(1) (2) (3) (4)
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
68
183. If the two women are together in a tent, which of the fol-
lowing is a pair of girls who must be together in a tent?
(1) K and P (2) L and T
(3) M and O (4) O and P
184. If X is in tent 2, which of the following must be in
the same tent as V?
(1) K (2) L
(3) O (4) P
185. If L is in tent 3 and the two women are not in the
same tent as each other, the people in tent 2 can be
(1) X and T only (2) K, M and O
(3) O, P and X (4) O, T and X
186. If V and T are together in a tent, it is possible that
(1) K and P are together in a tent
(2) O and T are together in a tent
(3) O and X are the only people in tent 2
(4) P and X are the only people in tent 3
187. Pointing to a photograph of a girl, Rajan said, “She
has no sisters or daughters but her mother is the only
daughter of my mother.” How is the girl in the pho-
tograph related with Rajan’s mother?
(1) Sister-in-law (2) Grand-daughter
(3) Daughter-in-law (4) Sister
188. Nageena is taller than Pushpa but not as tall as
Manish. Rama is taller than namita but not as tall as
Pushpa. Who among them is the tallest?
(1) Manish (2) Pushpa
(3) Namita (4) Nageena
Directions : For Questions 189 to 193. Find the odd man
out.
189. (1) HGIF (2) NMOL
(3) WVXU (4) SRTP
190. (1) DEGJ (2) XYAD
(3) LNPS (4) GHJM
191. (1) USQP (2) NLJH
(3) FDBZ (4) XVTR
192. (1) NMQP (2) HGKJ
(3) TSWV (4) DCHF
193. (1) HM21 (2) DR24
(3) JP26 (4) LQ29
Directions : For Questions 194 to 196. In each of these ques-
tions a word has been given followed by four other words,
one of which cannot be formed by using the letters of the
given word. Find that word.
194. INDUSTRIALIST
(1) DUST
(2) TRIAL
(3) LIST
(4) TRAINED
195. RESPECTABILITY
(1) REPEAT
(2) RESPECT
(3) SPEAR
(4) INSECT
196. CHANNELLING
(1) CHAIN
(2) NAIL
(3) LONG
(4) LICE
Directions : For Questions 197 to 200. Consider the fol-
lowing series.
2, 4, 8, 16, 32, 64 128, _______, 512, 1024, 2048, 5000,
8192, 16384, 32768, 65536, 131072, 262144
197. What is the missing number ?
(1) 258 (2) 255
(3) 256 (4) 264
198. The number which doesn’t belong to the series is
(1) 5000 (2) 2048
(3) 8192 (4) 32768
199. If the 1st and 2nd, the 3rd and 4th, and so on upto the
17th and 18th numbers are interchanged then what
is the 13th number?
(1) 8192 (2) 16384
(3) 65536 (4) 131072
200. If the sequence is reversed (i.e. descending order is
maintained), what is the eighth number from the
right?
(1) 512 (2) 256
(3) 5000 (4) 2048
69
OPENMAT (XII) ENTRANCE TEST FOR
MANAGEMENT PROGRAMMES 2003
TEST I
GENERAL AWARENESS
1. Which of the following countries is not a member of
the G-8 Group?
(1) France (2) Italy
(3) Spain (4) Germany
2. Sariska and Ranthambhore are the reserves for which
of the following animals?
(1) Lion (2) Deer
(3) Tiger (4) Bear
3. Which Article of the Constitution of India gives pre-
cedence to constitutional provision over the laws
made by the Union Parliament/Sate Legislatures?
(1) 13 (2) 32
(3) 245 (4) 326
4. ‘APSARA’ is the name of India’s first
(1) Nuclear Reactor
(2) Helicopter
(3) Ground Battle Tank
(4) Railway Locomotive
5. Which of the following countries has the second larg-
est rail network in the world?
(1) India (2) USA
(3) Russia (4) China
6. Gandhi Peace Prize for the year 2000 was awarded
to the former President of South Africa along with
(1) C. Subramaniam
(2) Grameen Bank of Bangladesh
(3) Satish Dhawan
(4) World Health Organisation
7. Which of the following is not a part of vehicular
pollution?
(1) Sulphur dioxide (2) Nitrogen oxide
(3) Carbon monoxide (4) Hydrogen peroxide
8. The ‘World Environment Day’ is celebrated on
(1) June 5th (2) June 4th
(3) July 5th (4) July 4th
9. The theme of the World Development Report 2001 is
(1) From plan to market
(2) Knowledge for development
(3) Attacking poverty
(4) The state in the changing world
10. The Indian National Army (INA) came into exist-
ence in 1943 in
(1) Japan (2) Then Burma
(3) Singapore (4) Then Malaya
11. The Asian Games have been held in New Delhi
(1) Once (2) Twice
(3) Thrice (4) Four times
12. The Famous book ‘Anandmath’ has been authored
by
(1) Rabindranath Tagore
(2) Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyaya
(3) Sarojini Naidu
(4) Sri Aurobindo
13. SAARC declared the decade 1991-2000 as the
Decede of
(1) Youth (2) Family
(3) Literacy (4) Girl Child
14. Army Day is celebrated in India every year on
(1) 1st January (2) 15th January
(3) 1st February (4) 15th February
15. The first Indian-American Woman to go into space
was
(1) Harbans Kaur (2) Kalpana Chawla
(3) Jyotirmoyee Sikdar (4) Bachhendri Pal
16. The main occupation of the people of Indus Valley
Civilization was
(1) Trade (2) Cattle rearing
(3) Huntin (4) Agriculture
17. The term ‘Golden Quadrangle’ refers to :
(1) The base of the pyramids found in Egyptian
Desert
(2) Four sea-ports identified by the Customs depart-
ment which are routes for gold smuggling
(3) National Highways Development Project con-
necting the four Indian metro-cities
(4) Rich contiguous wheat growing areas of Punjab,
Haryana, U.P. and Rajasthan
18. Which of the following was not a centre of learning
in ancient India?
(1) Taxila (2) Vikramshila
(3) Nalanda (4) Koushambi
70
19. ‘Charak’ was the famous court physician of
(1) Harsha
(2) Chandragupta Maurya
(3) Ashoka
(4) Kanishka
20. Who among the following Congress leaders was
called the ‘Grand Old man of India’?
(1) Mahatma Gandhi (2) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(3) Dadabhai Naoroji (4) Madan Mohan
Malviya
21. The President of the Drafting Committee of the In-
dian Constitution was
(1) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar (2) Jawahar Lal Nehru
(3) Dr. Rajendra Prasad (4) J.B. Kriplani
22. Which rock is formed by the deposits of animal shells
and skeletons?
(1) Sandstone (2) Limestone
(3) Phyllite (4) Granite
23. Which of the following pairs is mismatched?
(1) Mettur – Kaveri
(2) Bhakra Nangal – Sutlej
(3) Hirakud – Mahanadi
(4) Tehri – Yamuna
24. Which part of the islands in the Arabian Sea is known
as Minicoy Islands?
(1) Northern (2) Eastern
(3) Southern (4) Western
25. Tropical evergreen forests of India are found in
(1) Kerala (2) andhra Pradesh
(3) Madhya Pradesh (4) Orissa
26. G-15 is
(1) an organisation of the developed countries of
the world
(2) an organisation of the developing countries of
the world
(3) an organisation of the developed countries of
Europe
(4) an organisation of developing countries of Asia
27. The birth-rate measures the number of births during
a year per
(1) 100 of population
(2) 1, 000 of ppulation
(3) 10,000 of population
(4) 1,00,000 of population
28. Fundamental Duties were incorporated in the India
Constitution in
(1) 1971 (2) 1972
(3) 1975 (4) 1976
29. In India, to be recognised as a national party, a party
must secure at least
(1) 10% of the valid votes in four or more states
(2) 4% of the valid votes in four or more states
(3) 15% of the valid votes in two states
(4) 25% of the valid votes in one state
30. In which year were the first general elections held in
India?
(1) 1947–48 (2) 1948–49
(3) 1950–51 (4) 1951–52
TEST II
English Language
Directions : For Questions 31 to 45. Read the two passages given below carefully. Each passage is followed by questions
based on the contents of the passage. Answer the questions by selecting the best alternative from among those given in the
questions.
Passage I
India has come a long way since the Bengal Famine of 1943. The food situation in India, once characterised by chronic
shortages and the spectre of famines, has changed dramatically over the years. From being the biggest recipient of PL 480 aid
during the 1950s and 1960s, India today is relatively self-sufficient in foodgrains at the given level of incomes and prices; in
fact, it has marginal surpluses. The General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT) has been signed, with India as one of the
signatories, under which all countries will have to gradually open up their agricultural sectors.
It is, therefore, neigher feasible nor desirable to keep India’s foodgrains sector insulated from world markets. In fact,
this is an appropriate opportunity for India to integrate its agriculture with global agriculture, and make use of private trade
(both domestic and foreign) as an important instrument for efficiently allocating her resources as well as providing food
security to her people at the lowest economic cost. The time to change gears in food policy has come.
71
31. India has ‘come a long way’ means
(1) many years have passed after the Bengal fam-
ine
(2) the food position in India is now vastly improved
(3) India now handles such problems under PL-480
scheme
(4) India has advanced in science and technology
32. Which of the following views regarding GATT, does
the author seem to be advocating?
(1) India should seize the chance and make efforts
to fulfil its objectives
(2) India should not have signed it, to insulate our
foodgrains sector
(3) India should have agreed to GATT excluding
the agricultural sector
(4) India should hand over the issue of foodgrains
security to the private sector
33. According to the author, why is it necessary to en
sure food security to people?
(1) In order to sustain economic growth
(2) As per the PL-480 guidelines
(3) In order to be able to export foodgrains
(4) The passage makes no such assertion
34. Which of the following forms the most essential part
of the concept of food security in India?
(1) Availability of affordable technology of food
production to poor farmers
(2) Availability of all foodgrains in the market for
the rural poor
(3) Easy access of foodgrains to the weaker
sections at affordable prices
(4) Providing subsidies on all food items for the
rural poor
35. If private agencies are to be entrusted with the task
of making foodgrains available to people, what fa-
cilitative role should the Government undertake?
(1) Nationalise all distribution systems
(2) Make policies that give the right signals to the market
(3) Take responsibility of distribution
(4) Make efforts to increase the income of the farmers
36. The author of the passage seems to advocate
(1) liberalisation and privatisation
(2) state controlled, socialistic but closed economy
(3) a very practical and pragmatic approach to guard
our economy
(4) stable international relations
37. According to the author, food at affordable prices
could be made available to the poor by
A. reducing the cost of production of foodgrains
by using appropriate technology
B. offering foodgrains at lower cost and offering
economic support for maintaining low cost
C. raising the earnings of the poor
(1) only A
(2) only B and C
(3) only A and C
(4) A, B and C
38. By saying Indian policy makers have followed a mix
of both options it means that
(1) production and distribution both have public and
private participation
(2) production is largely in private hands while
distribution is only through public means
(3) for production, reliance has been on the private
sector while both public and private agencies
are mobilised for distribution
(4) production and distribution are both private
endeavours
Food security, in a broader context, means that people have physical and economic access to food. Since foodgrains
have the largest share in the food basket of the poor in a developing country like India, it is the availability of foodgrains that
lies at the heart of the concept of food security. The first step in this direction, therefore, is to make foodgrains physically
available to the people. This can be done by augmenting production, or through imports and transportation of grains to people
wherever they are.
There are several ways of achieving these targets. One may rely on private entrepreneurship by letting the individual
farmers produce, traders trade/import and make it available to consumers far and wide; or the Government may directly
intervene in the production and/or the trade process. In the former case, the Government follows policies that provide appro-
priate market signals while in the latter, it acts as producer, importer and trader itself. Indian policy makers have followed a
mix of both these options. For production, they have relied on the farmers while the Government has retained control over
imports. For distribution, it created public agencies to do the job along with private trade, thus creating a dual market structure.
Providing economic access to food is the second part of the concept of food security. This can be best obtained by adopting a
cost effective technology in production so that the real price of foodgrains come down and more people have access to it. In
case it still fails to reach the larger sections of the population, the Government can directly subsidise food for the poor, launch
a drive to augment their incomes, or try a combination of the two strategies. India has followed both these policies.
72
(1) opposed (2) diverted
(3) implemented (4) advocated
40. Why, according to the passage, was central economic
planning found to be difficult?
(1) On account of multiplicity of States and Union
Territories
(2) On account of lack of coordination in different
Government departments
(3) On account of autonomy given to the States in
certain matters
(4) On account of lack of will in implementing land
reforms
41. Which of the following issues was not appropriately
realised by the Central Government?
(1) Ethnic diversity of the people
(2) A national language for the country
(3) Implementation of the formulated policies
(4) Centre-State relations
42. Which, according to the passage, was an exercise in
democratic practice in India before Independence?
(1) The handing over of power by the British
(2) The Indianisation of the Indian Civil Service
(3) The conduct of provincial elections in 1937
(4) Several democratic institutions created by the
India National Congress
43. Which of the following statements is not true in the
context of the passage?
(1) The Congress party was originally opposed
to the idea of division of states on linguistic
basis
(2) Economic development and social reform were
initiated soon after Independence
(3) The political elite in India rebelled against the
British Raj
(4) The Congress leadership was full conscious of
the problems arising out of ethnic diversity in
India at the time of Independence
44. The new government could start with effective in-
strument of central control because the
(1) process of Indianisation of the Indian Civil Ser-
vice had already begun
(2) Indian army was organised on the pattern of the
British army
(3) people of India offered their wholehearted sup-
port to the Government
(4) transfer of power to the Indian Congress Party
was peaceful
Passage II
The strength of Indian democracy lies in its tradition, in the fusion of the ideas of democracy and national independece,
which was the characteristic of the Indian nationalist movement long before Independence. Although the British retained
supreme authority in India until 1947, the privincial elections of 1937 provided real exercise in democratic practice before
national independence. During the Pacific was, India was not overrun or seriously invaded by the Japanese and after the war
was over, the transfer of power to a gevernment of the Indian Congress Party was a peaceful one as far as Britain was
concerned. By 1947 ‘Indianisation’ had already gone far in the India Civil Service and Army, so that the new government
could start with effective instrument of central control.
After Independence, however, India was faced with two problems; the first, that of economic growth from a very low
level of production and the second was that of ethnic diversity and the aspirations of subnationalities. The Congress leadership
was more aware of the former problem than of the second; as a new political elite, which had rebelled not only against the
British Raj but also against India’s old social order, they were conscious of the need to initiate economic development and
undertake social reforms, but as nationalists who had led a struggle against the alien on behalf of all parts of India, they took
the cohesion of the Indian nation too much for granted and underestimated the centrifugal forces of ethnic division, which
were bound to be accentuated rather than diminished as the popular masses were more and more drawn into politics. The
Congress Party was origninally opposed to the idea of recognizing any division of India on a linguistic basis and preferred to
retain the old provinces of British India, which often cut across linguistic boundaries; it was only in response to strong
pressures from below that the principle of linguistic states was conceded as the basis for a federal ‘Indian Union’. The rights
granted to the States created new problems for the Central Government. The idea of making Hindi the national language of a
united India was thwarted by the recalcitrance of the speakers of other important Indian languages, and the autonomy of the
States rendered central economic planning extremely difficult. Land reforms remained under the control of the States and
many large scale economic projects required a degree of cooperation between the Central Government and one or more of the
States which it was found impossible to achieve. Coordination of policies was difficult even when the Congress Party was in
power both in the States and at the Centre; When a Congress Government in Delhi was confronted with non-Congress parties
in office in the States, in became much harder.
39. Choose the word which is most nearly the same in meaning as the word ‘thwarted’ as used in the passage.
73
45. Why was India not overrun by Japan during the
Pacific war?
(1) Japan was friendly with the British
(2) Japan was interested in India’s freedom
(3) Japan was doubtful about the success of such
attack
(4) The passage does not offer any information in
this regard
Directions : For Questions 46 to 50. Each of these questions consists of a capitalised word followed by four alternatives. From
the given alternatives, choose the one that is most similar in meaning to the capitalized word.
46. FEIGN
(1) to pretend (2) faint
(3) congratulate (4) glow
47. SEDITIOUS
(1) impure (2) inactive
(3) seriously injured (4) rebellious
48. GLEAN
(1) to shine (2) gather
(3) glide (4) glorify
49. VAUNTED
(1) belittled (2) exacting
(3) highly publicized (4) trusted
50. MALADROIT
(1) impossible (2) awkward
(2) sluggish (4) hardy
51. TURPITUDE
(1) amplitude (2) activity
(3) virtue (4) calmness
52. SEDULOUS
(1) indolent (2) guiledess
(3) vindicative (4) upright
53. REPROGRADE
(1) inclining (2) progressing
Directions : For questions 51 to 55. These questions consist of a capitalized word followed by four alternatives. Select from
among the given alternatives, the word which is most nearly opposite in meaning to the capitalized word.
(3) evaluating (4) directing
54. PROVIDENT
(1) unholy (2) rash
(3) miserable (4) remote
55. PERNICIOUS
(1) practical (2) comparative
(3) harmless (4) tangible
Directions : For Questions 56 to 60. Each of the questions below consists of a sentence with one or two blank spaces. Each
sentence is followed by four alternative sets of words. Chosse the words or set of words from among the alternatives given,
which when inserted in the sentence best fit the meaning of the sentence.
56. Critics of the movie version of The Colour Purple
______ its saccharine, overoptimistic mood as out
of keeping with the novel’s more _______ tone.
(1) applauded, sombre
(2) decried, acerbic
(3) denounced, sanguine
(4) acclaimed, positive
57. Measurement is, like any other human endeavour, a
complex activity, subject to error, not always used
______, and frequently misinterpreted and _______.
(1) mistakenly, derided
(2) erratically, analyzed
(3) innovatively, refined
(4) properly, misunderstood
58. If you are seeking a ___________ that will resolve
all our ailments you are undertaking an _________
task.
(1) precedent, awkward
(2) panacea, impossible
(3) direction, awesome
(4) continuance, enjoyable
59. Your ____________ tactics may comple me to
___________ the contract as the job must be finished
on time.
(1) dilatory, cancel
(2) pressure, delay
(3) offensive, award
(4) confiscatory, hasten
74
60. We need more men of ___________ and enlighten-
ment; we have too many ___________ among us.
(1) courage, missionaries
(2) wisdom, pragmatists
(3) culture, philistines
(4) valour, students
Directions : For Questions 61 to 65. In each of the following sentences four words or phrases have been underlined. Choose
the underlined word or phrase that has been used inappropriately.
61. He is a doubtful opponent, you must respect and fear him at all times.
(1) (2) (3) (4)
62. I have no formal clothes for this occasion; perhaps I can get away in a dark suit.
(1) (2) (3) (4)
63. Sodium chloride dissolves in water and so is salt.
(1) (2) (3) (4)
64. Even as a young boy, he has lacked the incination to go outdoors and play.
(1) (2) (3) (4)
65. The printing press is one of man’s cleverest invention.
(1) (2) (3) (4)
Directions : For Questions 66 to 70. Find the odd man out among each of the following.
66. (1) replicate (2) duplicate
(3) impersonate (4) reproduce
67. (1) renounce (2) denounce
(3) abandon (4) disown
68. (1) muted (2) maimed
(3) muffled (4) toned down
69. (1) negate (2) nether
(3) cancel (4) deny
70. (1) homily
(2) sermon
(3) admonition
(4) serious warning
Directions : For Questions 71 to 75. Each of these questions has a sentence with a highlighted phrase which can be correctly
substituted by one of the alternative choices that follow the sentence. Choose the alternative which can most appropriately
substitute the highlighted phrase, without changing the meaning of the sentence.
71. The headmaster could not regard this latest escapde
as a boyish joke and expelled the young man.
(1) new prank (2) flighty conduct
(3) current exit (4) innovative escape
72. The police immediately restrained and handcuffed
the prisoner so that he could not escape.
(1) arrested (2) detained
(3) manacled (4) quarantined
73. The foul smells began to fill her with disgust.
(1) overpower her (2) nauseate her
(3) throttle her (4) asphyxiate her
74. He offered to drive her to the airport for a very small
fee.
(1) a nominal
(2) a wholesome
(3) an appropriate
(4) an ordinary
75. As the Godfather, Michael Corleone is unwilling to
expse his wife and children to the sordid and un-
wholesome side of his life as a mafia don.
(1) exciting (2) seamy
(3) unlawful (4) breathtaking
75
76
91. (2a + 3a
2
– 4)–2 (4a
2
– 2) (a + 4)) = ?
(1) – 5a
2
+ 6a + 12 (2) 5a
2
+ 6a + 12
(3) – 5a
2
– 6a – 12 (4) 5a
2
– 6a – 12
92. Find a if a
.
a
10
3 a = −
(1) 7 , 7 (2) 5, – 2
(3) – 5, 2 (4) 7 , 7 −
93. Ram weighs 25 kg more than Shyam. Their com-
bined weight is 325 kg. How much does Shyam
weight?
(1) 150 kg (2) 175 kg
(3) 200 kg (4) 125 kg
94. A train travels at an average speed of 50 miles per
hour for
2
1
2 hours and then travels at a speed of 70
miles per hour for
2
1
1 hours. How far did the train
travel in the entire 4 hours?
(1) 200 miles (2) 120 miles
(3) 230 miles (4) 150 miles
95. Worker A takes 8 hours to do a job. Worker B takes
10 hours to do the same job. How long should it take
worker A and worker B working together, but inde-
pendently, to do the same job?
(1)
9
1
4
hours (2)
9
2
4
hours
(3)
9
4
4
hours (4)
9
5
4
hours
96. A club has 20 members. They are electing a presi-
dent and a vice-president. How man different out-
comes of the election are possible?
(1) 300 (2) 380
(2) 200 (4) 280
97. Find x if
x
10
5
4
=
(1) 10.5 (2) 12
(3) 12.5 (4) 10
98. If m is proportional to na and m = 5 when n = 4, what
is the value of m when n = 18?
(1) 20 (2) 22.5
(3) 24.5 (4) 26.5
99. What is the eighth term of the sequence
1, 4, 9, 16, 25, ________?
(1) 36 (2) 49
(3) 64 (4) 81
100. Which of the following is the largest?
(1)
16
13
(2)
8
7
(3)
40
31
(4)
80
63
101. If m and n are two parallel lines and angle 1 is 60
o
,
how many degrees is angle 2?
(1) 60
o
(2) 30
o
(3) 45
o
(4) 75
o
102. What is the perimeter of a regular pentagon whose
sides are 6 inches long?
(1) 18 inches (2) 24 inches
(3) 27.5 inches (4) 30 inches
103. How far will a wheel of radius 2 ft travel in 500 revo-
lutions? (Assume the wheel does not slip)
(1) 1000 þ ft (2) 1500 þ ft
(3) 500 þ ft (4) 2000 þ ft
104. Given that x and y are real numbers let S(x, y) = x
2

y
2
. Then S(3, S(3, 4)) =?
(1) –40 () – 7
(3) 40 (4) 49
105. What is the area of the figure below? ABCD is a rect-
angle and BDE is an isosceles right triangle.
(1) ab (2) ab
2
(3) cab (4)






+
2
b
a b
E
B
C D b
A a
b
c
m
n
1
2
77
106. If 2x + y = 5 then 4x + 2y is equal to
(1) 5 (2) 8
(3) 9 (4) 10
107. In 1997 a new oven cost Rs. 2500. In 2000 the cost
of that type of oven is Rs. 4800. Wha is the percent-
age increase between 1997 and 2000?
(1) 92 (2) 152
(3) 192 (4) 52
108. If x + y = 6 and 3 x – y = 4 then x – y is equal to
(1) – 1 (2) 0
(3) 2 (4) 4
109. If
3
2
y
x
=
then
2 x
y
2
is equal to
(1)
9
4
(2)
3
2
(3)
2
3
(4)
4
9
110. How much simple interest will Rs. 2000 earn in 18
months at an annual rate of 6%?
(1) Rs. 120 (2) Rs. 180
(3) Rs. 216 (4) Rs. 1800
111. If the average of 6 numbers is 4.5, the sum of the
numbers divided by 3
2
is
(1) 4.5 (2) 3.5
(3) 3 (4) 5
112. The product of (a + b) (a
2
– ab + b
2
) is
(1) a
3
+ b
3
(2) a
3
– b
3
(3) (a + b)
3
(4) (a – b)
3
113. What is the value of the following expression?
04 . 0 04 . 0 04 . 0 05 . 0 05 . 0 05 . 0
04 . 0 04 . 0 04 . 0 05 . 0 05 . 0 05 . 0
× + × − ×
× × × × ×
(1) 0.0009 (2) 0.01
(3) 0.09 (4) 0.41
114. If I walk at 3 kmph, I miss a train by 2 munutes. If
however I walk at 4 kmph, I reach the station 2
munutes before the arrival of the train. How far do I
walk to rach the station?
(1)
4
3
km (2)
5
4
km
(3)
4
5
km (4) 1 km
115.
?
00121 . 0
289 . 0
=
(1)
11
7 . 1
(2)
11
17
(3)
110
17
(4)
11
170
116. The fractions below are in their lowest terms. Sup-
ply the missing figures.
20
4
3
*
*
1
5 = ×
(1) 3,1 (2) 4.1
(3) 5.3 (4) 3,3
117. What is the least number which must be subtracted
from 10420 to make it a perfect square?
(1) 219 (2) 200
(3) 189 (3) 16
118. 0.2 ¥ 0.02 0;002 = ?
(1)
5
10
8
(2)
6
10
8 . 0
(3)
6
10 8× (4)
6
10
8
119. SP = Rs. 450, loss = 10%. If gain = 10%, SP = ?
(1) Rs. 475 (2) Rs. 550
(3) Rs. 500 (4) Rs. 525
120.
?
16
3
of
2
1
8
3
= +
(1)
4
3
(2)
32
15
(3)
128
21
(4)
16
15
121.
?
4 . 0
16 . 0
=
(1) 0.2 (2) 2
(3)
5
10
(4)
5
5
5
122. 80000 is equivalent to which of the following?
(1) 2
3
¥ 10
5
(2) 0.2
3
¥ 10
7
(3) 2
2
¥ 20
4
(4) 2
4
¥ 5
8
78
123. Rs. 720 is divided between 2 men, 5 women and 8
boys so that the share of a man, a woman and boy are
in the ratio of 3 : 2 : 1. How much does each boy get?
(1) Rs. 24 (2) Rs. 30
(3) Rs. 45 (4) Rs. 72
124. The length of the diagonal of a square is ‘a’ cms.
Which of the following represents the area of the
square in sq. cms?
(1) 2a (2)
2
1
(3)
2
a
2
(4)
4
a
2
125.
?
3 8
9 2
5 2
2 5
=
×
×
(1)
6
1
(2)
3
2
(3)
2
3
(4)
8
1
Directions : For Questions 126 to 130. Study the table given below and answer the questions 126 to 130.
Income (Rs.) Tax (Rs.)
0 – 4,000 1 % of income
4,000 – 6,000 40 + 2% of income over 4,000
6, 000 –8,000 80 + 3% of income over 6,000
8,000 –10,000 140 + 4% of income over 8,000
10,000 –15,000 220 + 5% of income over 10,000
15,000 – 25,000 470 + 6% of income over 15,000
25, 000 – 50,000 1070 + 7% of income over 25,000
126. How much tax is due on an income of Rs. 7,500?
(1) Rs. 80 (2) Rs.125
(3) Rs. 150 (4) Rs. 225
127. Your income for a year is Rs. 26,000. You receive a
raise so that next year your income will be Rs. 29,000.
How much more will you pay in taxes next year if
the tax rate remains the same?
(1) Rs. 70 (2) Rs. 180
(3) Rs. 200 (4) Rs. 210
128. Vibha paid Rs. 100 tax. If X was her income, which
of the following statements is true?
(1) 0 < X < 4,000
(2) 4, 000 < X < 6,000
(3) 6,000 < X < 8,000
(4) 8,000 < X < 10,000
129. Town X has a population of 50,000. The average
income of a person who lives in town X is Rs. 3, 700
per year. What is the total amount paid in taxes by
the people of town X? (Assume each person pays
tax on Rs. 3,700)
(1) Rs. 37 (2) Rs. 3,700
(3) Rs. 1,85,000 (4) Rs. 18,50,000
130. A person whose income is Rs. 10,000 pays what per-
cent of his or her income on taxes approximately?
(1) 1 (2) 2
(3) 3 (4) 4
TEST IV
Reasoning
Directions : For Questions 131 to 134, consider the following information.
There adults – Rs, S and V – will be travelling in a van with five children – F, H, J, I and M. The van has a driver’s seat
and one passenger seat in the front, and two benches behind the front seats, one bench behind the other. Each bench has room
for exactly three people. Everyone must sit in a seat or on a bench, and seating is subject to the followin restrictions :
(i) An adult must sit on each bench.
(ii) Either R or S must sit in the driver’s seat.
(iii) J must sit immediately beside M.
131. Which of the following can sit in the front passenger
seat?
(1) J (2) L
(3) R (4) S
132. Which of the following groups of three can sit to-
gether on a bench?
(1) F, J and M (2) F, J and V
(3) F, S and V (4) H, L and S
79
133. If F sits immediately beside V, which of the follow-
ing cannot be true?
(1) H sits on the same bench as R
(2) J sits immediately beside S
(3) L sits immediately beside V
(4) H sits in the front passenger seat
134. If S sits on a bench that is behind where J is sitting,
which of the following must be true?
(1) L sits in a seat or on a bench that is in front of
where F is sitting
(2) M sits on the same bench as V
(3) F sits on the same bench as H
(4) L sits on the same bench as S
Directions : For Questions 135 to 138, unscramble the letters in the following words and find the odd man out.
135. (1) HONRT (2) EWTS
(3) EWSN (4) ATES
136. (1) LOW (2) ERTGI
(3) OWC (4) ROSHE
137. (1) NVESU (2) TERAH
(3) NOMO (4) RASM
138. (1) EGERN (2) DRE
(3) KADR (4) RAGONE
Directions : For Questions 139 – 140. Select the alternative which does not belong to the class of the other three.
139. (1) Million (2) Powder
(3) Letter (4) Compel
140. (1) Belief (2) Shield
(3) Deceit (4) Brief
141. A man starts walking in the morning facing the sun.
After sometime, he turned to his left. Later he again
turned to his left. The direction in which the man is
moving now is
(1) West (2) South
(3) East (4) North
Directions : For Questions 142 to 147, consider the following information.
Two nations, Fontan and Gordia, have agreed to submit any disputes that might arise between them to arbitration panels
drawn from a pool of arbitrators. The pool consists of the following : three Fontanian representatives – K, L and M; three
Gordian representatives – P, Q and R; and three neutral arbitrators – S, T and U. Each arbitration panel must be formed
according to the following conditions :
(i) A panel can have three, four, five or six members.
(ii) At least one member of each panel must be neutral.
(iii) Neither Fontanian nor Gordian representatives can make up more than half the number of members on a panel.
(iv) S cannot be on a panel with L, with M or with U.
(v) R cannot be on a panel with L or with T.
142. Which of the following is a properly constituted
panel?
(1) L, M, P, Q (2) R, P, S, T
(3) P, Q, R, U (4) P, Q, S, T
143. If both S and T are to be members of a three-member
panel, then which of the following can be the third
member of that panel?
(1) L (2) M
(3) P (4) R
144. If R and S are both selected as members of a four-
member panel, which of the following must also be
selected as a member of that panel?
(1) K (2) L
(3) P (4) Q
145. If K, M, Q and R are all selected as members of a
five-member panel, which of the following must be
selected as the fifth member of that panel?
(1) L (2) P
(3) U (4) T
146. If S, P and Q are selected as mumbers of a four-mem-
ber panel and if T is not available to serve, the fourth
member selected must be
(1) K (2) L
(3) M (4) R
147. How many different, acceptable five-member panels
can be formed if both S and R must be selected as
members?
(1) 1 (2) 3
(3) 4 (4) 0
80
Directions : For Questions 148 to 155, Find the number that comes next in the sequence.
148. 3, 1, 4, 5, 9, 14, 23, ______
(1) 32 (2) 37
(3) 41 (4) 28
149. 3, 5, 8, 12, 17, 23, _____
(1) 30 (2) 28
(3) 29 (4) 33
150. 3, 6, 18, 72, 360, ______
(1) 720 (2) 1080
(3) 1600 (4) 2160
151. 7776, 1296, 216, _____
(1) 16 (2) 36
(3) 108 (4) 21
152. – 15, 2, 21, 42, ______
(1) 62 (2) 84
(3) 65 (4) 66
153. 1, 2, 5, 29, ______
(1) 866 (2) 58
(3) 53 (4) 145
154. 13, 10, 4, –5, –17______
(1) – 32 (2) – 34
(3) 34 (4) – 22
155. 0.5, 1.5, 3, 5, 7.5, 10.5, _____
(1) 21 (2) 13.5
(3) 14 (4) 15
Directions : For Questions 156 to 159, consider the following information.
Seven persons – N, Q, R, S, T, U and W – are all the persons present at a party. All of them join distinct conversational
groups that form during the party and these consist of two, three, or four persons at a time. At any time during the party, each
of the persons present is considered to be a member of exactly one of the conversational groups. During the party the follow-
ing conditions are satisfied :
(1) N can never be in the same conversational group as S.
(ii) T must be in a conversational group that includes either S or W, but T cannot be in a conversational group with both S
and W.
(iii) W must be in a conversational group that consists of exactly three persons.
156. Which of the following lists three conversational
groups that can exist at the same time during the
party?
(1) N and S; Q, T and W; R and U
(2) N and T; R and S; Q, U and W
(3) N and U; R and S; Q, T and W
(4) N and W; S and U; Q, R and T
157. If, at a certain point during the party, R, T and W are
members of three distinct conversational groups, S
must at that that point be in a conversational group
that includes
(1) Q (2) R
(3) T (4) W
158. If, at a certain point during the party, a group of three
persons and a group of four persons have formed and
W is in the same conversational group as U, who of
the following must that point be in the group with W
and U?
(1) N (2) Q
(3) R (4) S
159. If, at a certain point during the party, one of the con-
versational groups consists only R and W, at that
point N must be part of a group of exactly
(1) two persons, whose other member is T
(2) two persons, whose other members is U
(3) four persons, whose other members include S
(4) four persons, whose other members include T
Directions : For Questions 160 to 163. In each of these questions a word has been given following four other words, one of
which cannot be formed by using the letters of the given word that word.
160. RECOMMENDATIONS
(1) RAINS (2) MEANT
(3) SOON (4) NURSE
161. UNDERESTIMATED
(1) ESTIMATE (2) DIRT
(3) EARTH (4) TIMER
81
82
Directions : For Questions 177 to 181, consider the following information.
(i) M and S are good in Dramatics and computer Science
(ii) A and M are good in Computer Science and Physics
(iii) A, P and N are good in Physics and History
(iv) N and A are good in Physics and Mathematics
(v) P and S are good in History and Dramatics
177. Who is good in Physics, History and Mathematics,
but not in Computer Science?
(1) P (2) A
(3) M (4) N
178. Who is good in History, Physics, Computer Science
and Mathematics?
(1) A (2) M
(3) N (4) P
179. Who is good in Physics, History and Dramatics?
(1) M (2) P
(3) A (3) S
180. Who is good in Physics, Dramatics and Computer
Science?
(1) S (2) P
(3) M (4) A
181. Who is good in Computer Science, History and Dra-
matics?
(1) M (2) A
(3) N (4) S
182. Drama is related to Director in the same way as Maga-
zine is related to _________?
(1) Reader (2) Printer
(3) Editor (4) Story
183. Three of the following four are alike in a certain way
and so form a group. Which one does not belong to
that group?
(1) Beam (2) Roof
(3) Wall (4) House
Directions : For Questions 184 and 185, find the missing number.
Directions : For Questions 186 to 191, condider the following information.
(i) Nine people – F, G, H, I, J, K, L, M and N – are the only peopl who can serve on three committees designated X, Y and
Z and each person must serve on exactly one of the committees.
(ii) Committee X must have exactly one more member than does committee Y.
(iii) It is possible that there are no members of committee Z.
(iv) Neigher F nor G nor H can serve on committee X.
(v) Neigher I nor J nor K can serve on committee Y.
(vi) Neigher L nor M nor N can serve on committee Z.
186. If L and F are the only persons serving on committee
Y, how many of the nine people must serve on com-
mittee Z?
(1) 3 (2) 4
(3) 5 (4) 6
187. Of the nine people, the greatest number that can serve
together on committee Z is
(1) 9 (2) 8
(3) 7 (4) 6
184.
(1) 30 (2) 32
(3) 320 (4) 22
12
5
6
4
21
7 6
5
4
8
10
?
0
4
7
6
5
1
8
4
6
7
?
0
0
2 11 185.
(1) 12 (2) 10
(3) 11 (4) 0
83
188. If N is the only person serving on committee Y, Which
of the following must serve on committee X?
(1) L and M (2) J and K
(3) J and L (4) K and M
189. If none of the nine people serves on committee Z,
which of the following must be a person who serves
on committee X?
(1) F (2) G
(3) I (4) L
190. If L, M and H are the only persons serving on com-
mittee Y, the complete membership of committee Z
must be
(1) F and G (2) F and I
(3) G and J (4) G and K
191. Which of the following groups could constitute the
membership of committee Z?
(1) G and L (2) H and K
(3) G, H and I (4) I, J and K
Directions : For Questions 192 to 194, unscramble the letters in the following words, and find the last word of the sentence/
question.
192. (1) SI (2) REENG
(3) ETH (4) RSASG
193. (1) OTO (2) TI
195. Which of the following must vote in favour of bill 1 ?
(1) K (2) L
(3) M (4) O
196. The maximum number of favourable votes that bill
2 could receive is
(1) two (2) three
(3) four (4) five
197. Which of the following cannot be true?
(1) J and K vote in favour of the same bill
(2) J and O vote in favour of the same bill
(3) J votes in favour of one bill and against two bills
(4) K votes in favour of two bills and against one bill
198. If any bill is to be passed, which of the following must
be among the legislators who vote in favour of it?
(1) J (2) K
(3) M (4) N
199. If M votes the same way that O does on all three bills,
which of the following can be determined?
(1) Bill 1 will be passed (2) Bill 1 will be defeated
(3) Bill 2 will be passed (4) Bill 2 will be defeated
200. If K votes in favour of bills 2 and 3, which of the fol-
lowing can be determined?
(1) Bill 1 will be passed (2) Bill 1 will be defeated
(3) Bill 2 will be passed (4) Bill 3 will be passed
(3) SI (4) ALET
194. (1) AMEN (2) HTAW
(3) SI (4) ROUY
Directions : For Questions 195 to 200, consider the following information.
H, J, K, L, M, N and O are the only legislators eligible to vote on bills 1, 2 and 3, each of which will be passed if at least four
legislators vote in favour of it. Each legislator must vote on all three bills; no abstentions are possible. The following is known
:
(i) H must vote against all three bills; each of the ohter legislators must vote in favour of at least one bill and against at least
one bill.
(ii) J must vote against bill 1.
(iii) O must vote against bills 2 and 3.
(iv) L must vote the same way that K does on all three bills.
(v) N must vote the same way that O does on all three bills.

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April, 2003 © Indira Gandhi National Open University, 2003 All rights reserved. No part of this work may be reproduced in any form, by mimeograph or any other means, without permission in writing from the Indira Gandhi National Open University. Further information on the Indira Gandhi National Open University courses may be obtained from the University’s office at Maidan Garhi, New Delhi-110 068. Printed and published on behalf of the Indira Gandhi National Open University, New Delhi, by the Director, School of Management Studies. Laser typeset by Nath Graphics, 1/21, Sarvapriya Vihar, New Delhi-110 016. Printed at:

CONTENTS
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Openmat (viii) Entrance Test ............................................................................................ 9 Openmat (ix) Entrance Test ............................................................................................ 24 Openmat (x) Entrance Test ............................................................................................. 40 Openmat (xi) Entrance Test ............................................................................................ 55 Openmat (xii) Entrance Test ........................................................................................... 69

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INFORMATION HANDOUT FOR ENTRANCE EXAMINATION
Dear Candidate, This booklet contains the Previous Openmat question paper and other related information for OPENMAT Test for admission to Management Programme of this University. You will be given a test booklet containing 200 objective type multiple choice questions and a specifically designed OMR response sheet in the Examination hall. You will notice from the sample test paper that it is different from the usual School/College examinations. It is, therefore, necessary for you to know in advance about the type of questions and the way in which you are required to answer them. This handout will help you in this respect. The type of tests which will be used in this OPENMAT (ENTRANCE TEST) are given below: Test Test I Test II Test III Test IV General Awareness English Language Quantitative Aptitude Reasoning No. of Questions 30 50 50 70 Marks 30 50 50 70 Time Composite Time of Three hours

All the above four tests will be given in a composite test booklet which will be printed in English. You will be given composite time of three hours to answer 200 questions. You may attempt the test in any order you like. Since the questions in the test Booklet are objective type, answers are not required to be written in words or sentences. For each question, there are four answer choices suggested and only one of them is right. You have to select the right answer from amongst the given answers. In case you find that none of the four alternatives is correct, you have to mark ‘O’.

HOW TO FILL UP THE INFORMATION ON THE EXAMINATION ANSWER SHEET
At the end of this handout a sample answer sheet is given. You may fill up your own information in this answer sheet so that you may correctly fill up the actual OMR examination answer sheet in the examination hall. While filling up the OMR examination answer sheet, you should follow the following guidelines: 1. Write your complete Enrolment No. in 9 digits. This should correspond to the enrolment number indicated as on your Hall Ticket. Also write your correct name address with pin code in the space provided in ink. Put your signatures on the response sheet with date in ink. Ensure that the Invigilator in your examination hall also puts his signatures with date on the OMR response sheet at the space provided. You should use only HB pencil to mark the answers of the questions on the OMR Response Sheet. Do not make any stray marks on the response sheet. Write correct information in numerical digit in Enrolment No. and Exam. Centre Code columns. The corresponding rectangle should be dark enough and should be filled in completely. For example, suppose your enrolment number is 145786159. Examination Centre Code is 0101. This information in indicated in sample answer sheet. Each question is followed by four probable answers which are numbered 1,2,3 & 4. You should select and show only one answer to each question considered by you as the most appropriate or the correct answer. Select the most appropriate answer. Then by using HB pencil, blacken the rectangle bearing the correct answer number against the serial number of the question. If you find that answer to any question is none of the four alternatives given under the question you should darken the rectangle ‘O’. If you wish to change your answer, ERASE completely the already darkened rectangle by using a good quality eraser and then blacken the rectangle bearing your revised answer number. If incorrect answer is not erased completely, smudges will be left on the erased rectangle and the question will be read as having two answers by the Optical Mark Reader (OMR) and will be ignored for giving any credit. No credit will be given if more than one answer is given for one question. Therefore, you should select most appropriate answers.
5

2. 3.

4.

5.

6.

7. If you have time left after answering all the questions. You should follow the instructions given by Centre Superintendent and by Invigilators at the examination venue. 8. Maidan Garhi. The results will also be available with IGNOU Regional Cenres in third week of September/third week of March for OPENMAT (Entrance Test) held in August and February respectively. All rough work is to be done on the test booklet itself and not on any other paper. slide-rules. no relaxation in qualifying standard if any will be admissible. and will be over at 1. 6 . No calculators. if there is no indication regarding male/ female. failing which you will not be allowed to take examination. If you find any particular question difficult. The hall ticket should be got signed by the Invigilator. IGNOU of your Region. IGNOU of your Region. GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS 1. The examination is conducted under uniform conditions.15 A. IGNOU. The reporting time is 9. In case you are ‘Qualifying’ but do not receive your Result Card. Relaxed qualifying standards would be applied to SC/ST and female candidates. Scrap paper is not permitted. Any candidate who does not return the question booklet and the OMR Response Sheet will be disqualified and the University may take further action against him/her.M.M. University reserves the right to cancel score of any candidate who impersonates or uses malpractices. you will be considered as a general candidate. make some markings or underline in the test booklet itself. Admission forms received at the Regional Centre without hall ticket in original will be summarily rejected. You may inquire about your qualifying status from the Office of the Regional Director. Candidates should bring their hall tickets duly affixed with their latest photograph to appear in the test. There is no negative marking for wrong answers. If you violate the instructions you will be disqualified. leave it and go to the next. The test booklet and the OMR response sheet would be supplied to you by the Invigilator. The University would also follow a procedure to verify the validity of scores of all examinees uniformly. foot-rulers. Any candidate found copying or receiving or giving assistance in the examination will be disqualified. note-books or written notes. After the exam is over you should hand over the Test Booklet and the OMR Response Sheet to the Invigilator before leaving the examination hall .00 A. Result Cards would be despatched from SR&E Division. The examination will start at 10. Similarly.7. you may approach the Regional Director. 4. 8. University may cancel your score. The photograph should be attested by a Gazetted Officer. who appear for the examination. In the Event of your qualifying in the OPENMAT Test. New Delhi-110068 to all the candidates.00 p. etc. You should not spend too much time on any one question. If there is substantial indication that your performance is not genuine. 3. (No duplicate Hall ticket will be issued after the Entrance Test) DECLARATION OF RESULT AND RESULT CARD The University will send you Result Card by post indicating your qualifying/non-qualifying status in the examination. In case. For arriving at answers you may work in the margins. you may go back to the unanswered ones. 2. 6. Candidates arriving late will not be permitted to enter the examination hall. is given on page 4 of Student Handbook and Prospectus. Those who have ‘qualifying’ status may apply for admission. this hall ticket should be enclosed with your admission form while submitting it to your Regional Centre for seeking admission in Management Programme along with your testimonials and programme fee. you have not indicated the category (SC/ST) you belong to. You will be responsible for the accuracy of indications made by you in the OPENMAT test form and no review will be possible. 5. books. The procedure for submission of admission form. will be allowed inside the Examination Hall.m.

A dsoy fu/kkZfjr dkye esa gh mÙkj fpfUgr djsaA . Please follow the examples given below to mark your Enrolment Number. Programme Code Month Year vuqØekad 1 4 5 7 8 6 1 5 9 [1] [1] [1] ikB~.ksx djsaA mÙkj i`"B dks eksM+uk@QkM+uk ugha pkfg. dsoy .k --------------------------------------------------- uke -------------------------------------------------------------------------------------irk ------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------- Address / Candidate’s Signature / fo|kFkhZ ds gLrk{kj ---------------------------Signature of Invigilator / vuqoh{kd ds gLrk{kj -----------------------Date / fnukad ------------------------------------ City / 'kgj ----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------fiu dksM -------------------------------------------------------------------------- Pin Coe / fpfUgr djus ds fy. Erase clearly and completely to change any wrong marking.e-vkj. 3. Do not mutilate / tear this response sheet. 8. Make like Not like [´] [] [ \] [ q] Student’s Particulars / Enrolment No.ijh{kk mÙkj i`"B Indira Gandhi National Open University OMR RESPONSE SHEET SHEET NUMBER B fuEufyf[kr fooj.ZØe dksM bl izdkj gSA OPENMAT 555 6. Programme Code Computer Code 7- 8- izR. Course Codes are given below. 4.Øe dksM 1 1 1 2 [0] [0] [0] [0] [1] [2] [2] [2] [3] [3] [3] [3] [4] [4] [4] [4] [5] [5] [5] [5] [6] [6] [6] [6] [7] [7] [7] [7] [8] [8] [8] [8] [9] [9] [9] [9] Examination Centre Code ijh{kk dsUnz dksM 1 2 4 6 [0] [0] [0] [0] [1] [1] [1] [2] [4] [4] [6] [6] [6] [7] [7] [7] [7] [8] [8] [8] [8] [9] [9] [9] [9] [2] [2] [4] [3] [3] [3] [3] [5] [5] [5] [5] ikB~. Month and Year.d mÙkj fodYi lgh gS ftls vki mi.fn dksbZ xyr dkye fpfUgr gks x.k Bhd izdkj fyf[k.drk ugha gS½A ikB~.Øe dk lgh dksM iz.Øe fooj. 666 INSTRUCTIONS FOR MARKING 1. Course Code. .Øe dksM] ekg . funsZ'k 123mÙkj i`"B dks Hkjrs le. vks-. Pencil for marking responses. fuEufyf[kr mnkgj.s x.sd iz'u ds pkj fodYi fn.bfUnjk xka/kh jk"Vªh. Use only H.s x. gSA vki viuk fooj.k tkfu. Mark your answer in proper column. CIC1 2221 CIC2 2222 BIT 777 CIC3 2223 CIC4 2224 ADIT 888 CIC5 2225 45- Course Code Computer Code 6- izos'k ijh{kkfFkZ.ksa ds fy.k fuEufyf[kr funsZ'kksa dks vo'.sA PLEASE NOTE THAT THE NUMBERS AND CODES GIVEN IN THE RESPECTIVE FIELDS ARE ONLY EXAMPLES.k Course Name / ijh{kk i=k Hkjus ls igys d`i.Øe dksM bl izdkj gSA PMT 1111 PSS 1112 PCO 1113 B.sa u fd [´] [] [ \] [ q] Plaese read relevant instructions given below carefully before completing this form.oa o"kZ fpfUgr djus ds fy.k dk. Mark the correct answer in the relevant coulmn and also write your answer choice in numeral in the rectangle above. 2. if any.s [kkus dh la[.k dsoy L. Four choices are given for a question.fn vki le>rs gSa fd fn.k dk vuqdj.Z Øe --------------------------------------------------------------------ikB. dk. i<+ ysaA iz'uksÙkj fpUg bl izdkj cuk. 5. If you find that none of the options given in a question is correct mark in column “0”.k dks Åij cus dkye esa fy[ksaA .ksx djsaA ¼izos'k ijh{kk ijh{kkfFkZ. out of which one option is correct.s iz'u esa dksbZ Hkh fodYi lgh ugha gS rks mldk mÙkj ‘ ^^0** dkye esa fpfUgr djsaA viuk vuqØekad] dk.kgh ls Hkjsa Course Particulars / Programme / Fill up the following particulars with ink only ikB.qZDr vad vkSj dksM dsoy mnkgj.s fd mi. / Name / vuq Øekad la[.Øe dksM 5 5 5 [0] [0] [0] [1] [1] [1] [1] [2] [2] [3] [3] [3] [4] [4] [4] [6] [6] [6] [7] [7] [7] [8] [8] [8] [9] [9] [9] ekg 0 3 [0] [1] [1] [2] [2] [3] [4] [4] [5] [5] [6] [6] [7] [7] [8] [8] [9] [9] o"kZ 2 0 0 0 [0] [1] [1] [1] [1] [2] [2] [2] [3] [3] [3] [3] [4] [4] [4] [4] [5] [5] [5] [5] [6] [6] [6] [6] [7] [7] [7] [7] [8] [8] [8] [8] [9] [9] [9] [9] [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [1] [1] [1] [1] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [4] [4] [4] [4] [2] [2] [2] [2] [3] [3] [3] [3] [4] [4] [4] [5] [5] [6] [6] [6] [7] [7] [7] [8] [8] [8] [4] [5] [5] [5] [5] [5] [6] [6] [6] [6] [6] [7] [7] [7] [7] [7] [8] [8] [8] [8] [8] [9] [9] [9] [9] [9] [9] [9] [9] d`i. x. Exam. Programme Code (For Entrance Test Candidates only).Øe dksM Hkjus dh vko'. Programme Codes for Entrance Test Candidates are given below.iSfUly dk iz.B. Centre Code.ksa ds fy. ikB~.ksa ds fy.qDr dkye esa fpfUgr djsa vkSj dkys fd.k djsaA Enrolment Numbr Course Code 7.Øe uke -------------------------------------------------------fo|kFkhZ fooj.ED.k gks rks jcM+ ls vPNh rjg feVkdj lgh dkye dks HkjsaA ikB~.k ds fy. Use correct course Code (Entrance Test Candidates need not fill up Course Code).p-ch. eqDr fo'ofo|ky.s½] ijh{kk dsUnz dksM] ikB~.s gSa vkSj muesa ls .ZØe dksM ¼dsoy izos'k ijh{kkfFkZ.

PENCIL ONLY q Enrolment Numbr Course Code Examination Centre Code (For Entrance Test Candidates Only) A q Month Year vuqØekad 1 4 5 7 8 6 1 5 9 [0] [0] [1] [1] [2] [2] [3] [3] [4] [4] [5] [5] [6] [6] ikB~.Øe dksM 5 5 5 [0] [0] [0] [1] [1] [1] [1] [2] [2] [3] [3] [3] [4] [4] [4] [5] [5] [5] [6] [6] [6] [7] [7] [7] [8] [8] [8] [9] [9] [9] ekg 0 3 [0] [0] [1] [1] [2] [2] [3] [3] [4] [4] [5] [5] [6] [6] [7] [7] [8] [8] [9] [9] o"kZ 2 0 0 0 [0] [0] [0] [0] [1] [1] [1] [1] [2] [2] [2] [2] [3] [3] [3] [3] [4] [4] [4] [4] [5] [5] [5] [5] [6] [6] [6] [6] [7] [7] [7] [7] [8] [8] [8] [8] [9] [9] [9] [9] [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] [5] [5] [5] [5] [5] [5] [5] [6] [6] [6] [6] [6] [6] [6] [7] [7] [7] [7] [7] [7] [7] [7] [7] [8] [8] [8] [8] [8] [8] [8] [8] [8] [9] [9] [9] [9] [9] [9] [9] [9] [9] 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] 46 47 48 49 50 [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] 81 82 83 84 85 [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] 116 117 118 119 120 [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] 151 152 153 154 155 [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] 186 187 188 189 190 [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] 16 17 18 19 20 [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] 51 52 53 54 55 [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] 86 87 88 89 90 [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] 121 122 123 124 125 [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] 156 157 158 159 160 [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] 191 192 193 194 195 [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] 21 22 23 24 25 [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] 56 57 58 59 60 [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] 91 92 93 94 95 [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] 126 127 128 129 130 [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] 161 162 163 164 165 [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] 196 197 198 199 200 [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] 26 27 28 29 30 [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] 61 62 63 64 65 [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] 96 97 98 99 100 [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] 131 132 133 134 135 [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] 166 167 168 169 170 [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] 31 32 33 34 35 [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] 66 67 68 69 70 [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] 101 102 103 104 105 [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] 136 137 138 139 140 [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] 171 172 173 174 175 [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] 36 37 38 39 40 [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] 71 72 73 74 75 [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] 106 107 108 109 110 [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] 141 142 143 144 145 [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] 176 177 178 179 180 [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] 41 42 43 44 45 [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] 76 77 78 79 80 [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] 111 112 113 114 115 [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] 146 147 148 149 150 [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] 181 182 183 184 185 [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] .Øe dksM 1 1 1 2 [0] [0] [0] [0] [1] [1] [1] [1] [2] [2] [2] [2] [3] [3] [3] [3] [4] [4] [4] [4] [5] [5] [5] [5] [6] [6] [6] [6] [7] [7] [7] [7] [8] [8] [8] [8] [9] [9] [9] [9] Programme Code ijh{kk dsUnz dksM 1 2 4 6 [0] [0] [0] [0] [1] [1] [1] [1] [2] [2] [2] [2] [3] [3] [3] [3] [4] [4] [4] [4] [5] [5] [5] [5] [6] [6] [6] [6] [7] [7] [7] [7] [8] [8] [8] [8] [9] [9] [9] [9] ikB~.MARK YOUR ANSWERS WITH H.B.

OPENMAT (VIII) ENTRANCE TEST FOR MANAGEMENT PROGRAMMES 2001
TEST I General Awareness
1. At present the major part of which of the following Central revenues goes to various State Governments in India ? (1) Gift Tax (2) Wealth Tax (3) Excise Duties (4) Income Tax Which of the following is the correct chronological order of rulers ? (1) Mohammed Bin Tughlaq, Ghiasuddin Tughlaq, Firoz Shah Tughlaq (2) Firoz Shah Tughlaq, Mohammed Bin Tughlaq, Ghiasuddin Tughlaq (3) Ghiasuddin Tughlaq, Firoz Shah Tughlaq, Mohammed Bin Tughlaq (4) Ghiasuddin Tughlaq, Mohammed Bin Tughlaq, Firoz Shah Tughlaq At what temperature on the Centigrade scale, does the Fahrenheit scale’s reading become 5 times of the Centigrade reading ? (2) 20o C (1) 10o C (3) 30o C (4) 45o C Arrange the following in a chronological order : A. Kheda Satyagraha B. Dandi March C. Non-Cooperation Movement D. Civil Disobedience Movement (1) A, B, C, D (2) A, C, D, B (3) D, C, A, B (4) A, C, B, D The first Buddhist Council was held during the reign of (1) Bimbisara (2) Ajatashatru (3) Ashoka (4) Kanishka Who was the founder of Jainism ? (1) Rishabha (2) Mahavira (3) Arishthanemi (4) Parasavanatha The leguminous plants (legumes or dals) are important in agriculture because they (1) need very little water to grow (2) are disease resistant (3) have a short life-cycle (4) help in nitrogen economy of the plants In which of the following games did India win a Gold Medal after 32 years in Asian Games ? (1) Basketball (2) Hockey (3) Wrestling (4) Football 9 9. Which of the following countries is not a member of G-7 group ? (1) Germany (2) India (3) Japan (4) Italy Which one of the following is correctly matched ? (1) Andhra Pradesh : Land-man ratio is lowest (2) West Bengal : Sex ratio is highest (3) Kerala : Density of population is highest (4) Tamil Nadu : Sex ratio is lowest Diabetes mellitus affects human system following a disorder in (1) anatomy (2) behaviour (3) metabolism (4) excretion Which of the following names does not match with the other three ? (1) Amir Khusro (2) Todarmal (3) Abul Fazal (4) Birbal Which of the following books has been written by Vikram Seth ? (1) Starry Nights (2) Midnight’s Children (3) A Suitable Boy (4) Islamic Bomb Kuki tribes mainly inhabit which of the following states ? (1) Nagaland (2) Manipur (3) Assam (4) Andhra Pradesh Which of the following states gets the benefit of Idukki Power Project ? (1) Kerala (2) Orissa (3) Jammu & Kashmir (4) Tamil Nadu The currency of Myanmar is (1) Taka (2) Ngultrum (3) Kyat (4) Dinar When was the Muslim League formed ? (1) 1904 (2) 1905 (3) 1906 (4) 1907 Who amongst the following is known as ‘Father of Genetics’ ? (1) Walter S. Sutton (2) Thomas Hunt Morgan (3) Hershey and Chase (4) Gregor Mendel

10.

2.

11.

12.

3.

13.

4.

14.

5.

15.

6.

16.

7.

17.

18.

8.

19.

Delta is an alluvial deposit (1) on the mountain (2) in the valley (3) on the foot-hill (4) on the mouth of a river Seismograph is an instrument to measure (1) earthquake shocks (2) air pressure (3) air temperature (4) height The ‘Queen of the Adriatic’ is the name given to (1) Milan (2) Venice (3) Peshkara (4) Fogia The proposed state of Chhatisgarh is a major part of (1) Bihar (2) U.P. (3) Orissa (4) Madhya Pradesh Kofi Annan is the (1) Chairman of International Monetary Fund (2) Secretary-General UNO (3) President of Angola (4) Noted Scientist The Daewoo Group of industries launched Cielo cars in collaboration with which of the following industrial houses in India ? (1) Tata (2) Birla (3) DCM (4) Bajaj Who is the author of the book, ‘I Dare’ ? (1) Mr. K.P.S. Gill (2) Ms. Kiran Bedi (3) Field Marshal Sam Manekshaw (4) Mohd. Azharuddin

26.

Penguins are normally habitants of (1) Antarctica region (2) Marshy land of the African Continent (3) Siberian Forests (4) Sahara Desert The famous Moorti Devi Award is given for excellence in (1) Medicine (2) Science and Technology (3) Journalism (4) Social Service Who amongst the following first launched Floating Interest Rate Bonds in the capital market in India ? (1) Canara Bank (2) Reliance Industries (3) Steel Authority of India (4) Industrial Development Bank of India At the present rate of its population growth, India will overtake China in the year (1) 2010 (2) 2060 (3) 2030 (4) 2040 The Indian variety of which of the following plants has been proved to be the greatest pollution fighter in India ? (1) Tea (2) Jute (3) Mustard (4) Groundnut

20.

27.

21.

22.

28.

23.

29.

24.

30.

25.

TEST II English Language
Directions : For Q. No. 31 – 45. There are two reading passages given below. Each passage is followed by questions based on its content. Choose the best answer on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passage.

Passage I
Telecommunications has traditionally been viewed as a natural monopoly and a relaltively straightforward public utility. Economies of scale, political and military sensitivities, and large externalities made telecommunications a typical public service. In such an environment, development focussed primarily on extending basic services and secondarily on improving the operational performance of the telecommunications operating entities. In recent years the situation has changed dramatically. There has emerged a strong business demand for better, more varied, and less costly communications services. This demand reflects the growing importance of communication in all economic sectors, the convergence of information and telecommunication services, and the globalisation of capital flows, trade, manufacturing, and other activities. Technological innovation has greatly reduced the cost of information processing and transmission and has created new ways of meeting a wider range of user needs independent of existing telecommunications enterprises and often at lower cost. 10

Industrialized countries, in which these forces first emerged in full strength are responding to the profound changes in telecommunications by revising the policy framework, structure, and regulation of the sector. These developments in turn promote competition, increase the number of participants in the telecommunications business and blur the boundaries not only between users and providers but also among the various types of services offered. In addition the changes expand telecommunications markets globally and unleash powerful forces seeking new opportunites worldwide. Where do developing countries stand in this context ? With few exceptions, in the developing world telecommunications services are provided by the public sector. These services yield high economic returns, benefit a broad section of the population, and are used mainly for economic production and distribution. They can also be a profitable business and an important source of public funds. Despite the high social and private returns, however, developing countries generally invest too little in telecommunications. As a result there is high unmet demand for basic services, call congestion, excessive concentration in a few urban centers, and a lack of the advanced services trhat are increasingly needed by the modern sectors of the economy. Furthermore, facilities are often badly maintained and operated, so that service quality and reliability are poor. These problems are largely traceable to inadequate sector policies, a shortage of funds (especially foreign exchange) for investment, and weaknesses in the operating entities’ organisation and management. There is evidence that the pressures on the telecommunications sector in the advanced economies are increasingly felt in developing countries as well. Consequently, attractive opportunities to deal with the sector’s inadequacies are emerging. Some developing coutries are considering alternatives to the traditional state monopoly that would increase the autonomy and commercial orientation of the enterprise, attract private participation, and introduce competitive discipline. These alternatives are expected to help raise investment levels, mobilize new sources of capital, attract entrepreneurial talent, improve enterprise efficiency, and increase responsiveness to user demands. Such undertakings, however, raise broad policy and regulatory issues that many developing country governments may not yet be well equipped to address. 31. In the recent past the focus of telecom services has been (1) on its political and military sensitivities (2) on extending basic services and improving operational performance (3) on externalities (4) on its technological characteristics The key reason for profound changes in the telecom sector in the developed countries is (1) the structural characteristics of the sector (2) the growing importance of communications (3) the change in the pattern of demand for telecommunications (4) the introduction of the computer All of the following have directly led to an increase in the demand for better and more varied telecommunication services except the (1) globalisation of trade and capital (2) change in the information processing equipment (3) convergence of information and telecommunication services (4) growing importance of communication in economic activity Technological innovation has led to the demand for cheaper telecommunication services mainly because (1) information processing costs have declined (2) newer ways of meeting user needs independent of existing telecom services have evolved (3) cost of setting up telecom networks has declined (4) transmission costs have fallen leading to increased usage of telecommunication facilities 11 35. According to the passage, all of the following are significant changes taking place in the telecom sectors of industrialised countries except (1) an increase in the number of participants and competition (2) a strong expansion in global telecommunications market (3) significant changes in policy environment (4) an increased emphasis on extending basic services All of the following are characteristics of telecommunication services in the developing world except (1) high economic returns (2) highly varied services (3) high social returns (4) high unmet demand The main reason for problems facing telecommunication services in the developing world is (1) high unmet demand for basic services (2) excessive concentration in a few urban centres (3) too little investment in telecommunications (4) high social and private returns Which of the following, according to the passage, cannot be cited as a cause for poor operational and service quality in telecom ? (1) Poor management practices (2) Lack of advanced services (3) A shortage of foreign exchange (4) Badly maintained practices

32.

36.

33.

37.

34.

38.

39.

All the following are seen as advantages by developing countries in evolving alternative models for their telecom sector except (1) increased competition (2) increased investment (3) improved operational and enterprise efficiency (4) better responsiveness to users

40. According to the passage (1) competitive discipline results in increased returns (2) the boundaries between users and providers are blurring (3) the telecom secrtor is an important destination for public funds in developed countries (4) most developing countries have prepared themselves to increase the autonomy and commercial orientation of traditional state monopolies

Passage II
Human memory, formerly believed to be rather inefficient, is really more sophisticated than that of a computer. Researchers approaching the problem from a variety of points of view have all concluded that there is a great deal more stored in our minds than has been generally supposed. Dr. Wilder Penfield, a Canadian neurosurgeon, proved that by stimulating their brains electrically, he could elicit the total recall of specific events in his subjects’ lives. Even dreams and other minor events supposedly forgotten for many years suddently emerged in detail. The memory trace is the term for whatever is the internal representation of the specific information about the event stored in the memory. Assumed to have been made by structural changes in the braiun, the memory trace is not subject to direct observation but is rather a theoretical construct that we use to speculate about how information presented at a particular time can cause performance at a later time. Most theories include the strength of the memory trace as a variable in the degree of learning, retention, and retrieval possible for a memory. One theory is that the fantastic capacity for storage in the brain is the result of an almost unlimited combination of interconnection between brain cells, stimulated by patterns of activity. Repeated reference to the same information supports recall. Or, to say that in another way, improved performance is the result of strengtheneing the chemical bonds in the memory. 41. The passage above is mainly concerned with (1) Wilder Penfield (2) Neurosurgery (3) Human memory (4) Chemical reactions Compared with a computer, human memory is (1) more complex (2) more limited (3) less dependable (4) less durable According to the passage, researchers have concluded that (1) the mind has a much greater capacity for memory than was previously believed (2) the physical basis for memory is clear (3) different points of view are valuable (4) human memory is inefficient According to the passage, the capacity for storage in the brain (1) can be understood by examining the physiology (2) is stimulated by patterns of activity (3) has a limited combination of relationships (4) is not influenced by repetition 45. All of the following are true of a memory trace except (1) it is probably made by structural changes in the brain (2) it is able to be observed (3) it is a theoretical construct (4) it is related to the degree of recall

42.

43.

Directions: To answer Q. No. 46 to 50, choose a word from among the four options given in each question, one that is closest in meaning to the word in capital letters. 46. PRECURSOR (1) Attacker (3) Forerunner INTREPID (1) Fearless (3) Cowardly ATTENUATE (1) To fawn (3) To fulminate

(2) Pursuer (4) Torturer

44.

47.

(2) Senseless (4) Complacent

48.

(2) To weaken (4) To hesitate

12

(2) Oligarchy (4) Autocracy 57. No.49. 53. (2) Student (4) Secretive Directions : Q. No. 3 and 4. Government by the rich (1) Aristocracy (3) Bureaucracy 64. Directions : For Q. REMISS (1) Additional (3) Unabashed PRINCIPAL (1) Minor (3) Joint PANEGYRIC (1) Libel (3) Verbose ABSTEMIOUS (1) Critical (3) Drained BUOYANT (1) Joyless (3) Dangerous Crossing the Rubicon (1) Averting great calamity (2) Walking on the path of virtue (3) Passing the point of no return (4) Leaping into unknown waters Directions : Q. that is the nearest opposite in meaning to the word in capital letters. _______ separate nation states are included in the official lists at any one time. ________ doctors do not have a personal physician. 56. 51 to 55. FLIPPANT (1) Flair (3) Pliant ATYPICAL (1) Qualitative (3) Irregular 59. (2) Unstandardised (4) Vague Establish a scale (1) Valuate (3) Calibrate (2) Ululate (4) Escalate 50. (1) more than two hundred (2) as much as two hundred (3) many as two hundred (4) most two hundred According to a recent survey. 2. Each of these questions consists of a word in capital letters followed by four options. 61. (2) Frivolous (4) Serious 60. choose the one option in each question. (2) Intemperate (4) Redundant 63. (1) they are alike (2) are similar to (3) are similar (4) the same Nerve impulses _______ to the brain at a speed of about a hundred yards per second. 13 . 55. (1) are sending sensations (2) to send sensations (3) send sensations (4) sends sensations Although exact statistics vary because of political changes. (2) Allergic (4) Tedious 54. 51. 56 to 60 consist of a phrase followed by four alternatives. (1) a large amount of (2) large amount of (3) a large number of (4) large number of ________ the plough is being displaced by new techniques that protect the land and promise more abundant crops. Choose the one word or phrase that best completes the sentence. Following each sentence. (2) Duplicate (4) Additional 62. The consistency of protoplasm and that of glue _______ . (1) As a whole (2) Wholly (3) On a whole (4) Wholesale (2) Alert (4) Forgetful 52. That which cannot be withdrawn (1) Inevitable (2) Immutable (3) Irrevocable (4) Indelible Hypocritical and undependable (1) Janus-faced (2) Hydra-headed (3) Quotidian (4) Doughty 65. you will see four words or phrases marked 1. No. 58. 61 to 65 consist of incomplete sentences. Choose the alternative that expresses the meaning of the phrase most appropriately.

76. B. Identify the one underlined word or phrase that must be changed in order for the sentence to be correct. C and D. A B C D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D The range of plant life on a hill is a results of differences in temperature and precipitation at varying altitudes. PHEASANT : FOWL (1) Tiger : Cat (3) Oxen : Yoke (2) Lion : Lioness (4) Fox : Wolverine 69. RADICAL : CONSERVATIVE (1) Zealot : Fanatic (2) Quisling : Patriotic (3) Independence : Service (4) Supporter : Solidity CURRY : FLAVOUR (1) Dish : Spice (2) Manipulate : Scheme (3) Beg : Pardon (4) Ground : Foundation 67. A B C D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D It is extremely important for an engineer to know to use a computer. 66 to 70. No. A swarm of locusts is responsible the consumption of enough plant material to feed a million and a half people. 14 . The four underlined parts of the sentences are marked A. Each of these questions has a pair of words in capital letters which have a certain relationship to each other. Directions : In Q. 71. TURPITUDE : MORAL (1) Canker : Physical (2) Intelligence : Economic (3) Aptitude : Mental (4) Elevation : Spiritual VINDICTIVE : REVENGE (1) Mild : Mannerism (2) Forgetful : Lapse (3) Unemployed : Work (4) Discourse : Audience 68. A B C D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D 72. 66.Directions : For Q. each sentence has four underlined words or phrases. A B C D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D The prices at retail stores are as reasonable if not more reasonable as those at the supermarket. followed by four pairs of words. No. 75. A B C D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D The more the humidity rises the worst the heat affects us. 74. A B C D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D Those of us who smoke should have their lungs X-rayed regularly. 73. Choose the pair which has words related to each other in the same way as the words in the capital letters. 70. 71 to 80.

112 (4) Rs. 800 for 2 years at the rate of 5% is (1) Rs. 82 (2) Rs. If the compound interest on Rs. 6. 30 (3) 35. (1) 650 (2) 560 (3) 565 (4) 570 89. 90. How many are there of each kind? (1) 40. How many men must leave so that the provisions now last for 7 months ? (1) 50 (2) 45 (3) 40 (4) 32 A candidate has to obtain 33% of the total marks to pass. 40% of 200 + 35% of 150 is (1) 125 (2) 135 (3) 130 (4) 145 A sum of Rs. TEST III Quantitative Aptitude 81. 102 (3) Rs. 86.60 The area of two circular fields is in the ratio 16 : 49. 631. m at 70 p per m. what is the radius of the former? (1) 32 m (2) 18 m (3) 8 m (4) 4 m The area of the floor of a room is 20 sq.25 is made of 80 coins which are either 10 p or 5 p. Find 40% of the total marks. 612. 84. m. If the radius of the latter is 14 m.60 (4) Rs. 15625 for three years is Rs. that of a longer wall is 15 sq. 621. what is its speed in meters per second ? (1) 12 (3) 18 85. It is said Einstein felt very badly about the application of his theories to the creation of weapons of war. (2) 15 (4) 21 91. Find the volume of the room.m If the car moves at the rate of 54 km per hour. m and of the shorter wall is 12 sq. 83. How much time will be taken by 3 men and 4 boys to do double that work ? (1) 8 days (2) 16 days (3) 12 days (4) 20 days A garrison of 112 men has provisions for 5 months. most people still prefer to travel by plane.60 (2) Rs. 42 92. 35 3 men or 4 boys can do a piece of work in 16 days. (1) Rs. 45 (4) 45. A B C D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D Ferstilisers are used primarily to enrich soil and increasing yield. 80. 1951 then the rate of interest is (1) 5% (3) 4% (2) 3% (4) 6% 15 .m (3) 60 cu. 87. A B C D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D Despite of the increase in the air fares. He obtains 262 marks and fails by 200 marks.m (4) 40 cu. The compound interest on Rs. A B C D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D 78. m. A B C D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D It is desirable that a management student maintains a grade point average of B in his specialisation field. (1) 45 cu. 612 (3) Rs. then m – n is equal to (1) 2 (3) 0 88. 79. If m + 2n = 2m + n.m (2) 10 cu. (2) 3 (4) 4 82.77. 40 (2) 50. Find the cost of fencing a square field containing 49284 sq.

99. m. (1) 4700 (2) 470 (3) 47 (4) 47000 96. (1) 250 m (2) 1250 m (3) 500 m (4) 750 m It needs 50 ml paint for painting a picture 50 cm x 25 cm. what was it during 1993-94 ? (1) 129. How much paint is needed to paint a similar picture 100 cm x 50 cm ? (1) 100 ml (2) 400 ml (3) 750 ml (4) 200 ml 101.03 16 .1 (2) 134. Find the greatest number and 542 leaving 7. What the divisor ? (1) 61 (2) 78 (3) 71 (4) 98 107. A man bought 7 oranges for a rupee and sold them at a profit of 40%. How many times must I run around a square field of one hectare to run 6 kilometers ? (1) 10 (2) 15 (3) 20 (4) 25 109. 100.3 (3) 135.38 (Expected) What is the expected decrease percent of export during 1997-98 from 1996-97 ? (1) 10% (2) 9. a man’s net income is Rs.93. 1190.78 175.43 + 4. A number when divided by a certain divisor left remainder 63.9 98.18 (4) 148.7 (4) 133. remainder was 55. How many bricks of 20 cm by 10 cm size will be required to pave the floor of a room 8 m long and 5 m wide ? (1) 20000 (2) 2500 (3) 2000 (4) 200 Pipe A can fill an empty tank in 5 hours and pipe B can empty it in 7. 436 and 15 as remainders (2) 19 (4) 29 94.4 approx (4) 132. 11 respectivdly.4 approx (2) 143.9. 2415 105. Directions : The table given below gives the information of export of an item in crores of rupees. When twice the given number was divided by the same divisor. The ratio of its length and breadth is 16 : 9.7 x 13. Find the value of 4.38 91. Find its perimeter. 2350 (3) Rs.7 x 77.5 approx (3) 137.3% Taking the expected export during 1997-98. How long will it take to fill the tank when both the pipes are opened together ? (1) 10 hours (2) 15 hours (3) 14 hours (4) Never be filled The area of a rectangular field is 3600 sq.34.23 + 4. How many oranges did he sell for a rupee ? (1) 6 (2) 7 (3) 5 (4) 4 104. (1) 15 (3) 17 that will divide 398. Exports during 1996-97 is what percent less than during 1994-95 ? (1) 43% (2) 37% (3) 41% (4) 39% 102. 2400 (4) Rs. What will it be when the tax rate is raised to 4% ? (1) Rs. Find the greatest number that divides 204.7 (3) 144.4 (2) 121. Answer Q.5 hours. 2425. No. 103. 95. what will be the average annual export during the period under consideration ? (1) 123. 1445 exactly. Amount 161. When the income tax is 3%.4 approx If the exports during 1994-95 was 25% more than 1993-94. Find the number which when added to itself 17 times becomes 162 (1) 13 (2) 9 (3) 7 (4) 18 106.% (3) 11% (4) 7. 2300 (2) Rs. What is the difference of exports during 1994-96 and 1996-98 ? (1) 144. Year 1994-95 1995-96 1996-97 1997-98 97. (1) 15 (2) 27 (3) 17 (4) 13 108.16 101.7 x 9. 97 to 101 based on this.

Keeping in view the RBI credit in 1990-91.00 (3) Rs. (1) Rs.20 a kg be mixed with rice at Rs. 75 118.6o . 5. 471 for 7 months at 2 paise per rupee per month. 240. 110 to 114 on the basis of the information given below : The values of Net RBI credit to Government for different years is given below : Year 1990-91 1991-92 1992-93 1993-94 1994-95 1995-96 1996-97 Rs. 65. find the annual increase.5% (2) 7. (1) 245.6o and that from 10th to 17th (both days inclusive) was 39.5o (1) 39. 102 (3) 93. What was the temperature on 17th January? (2) 40.94 (3) Rs. How many men were there in the beginning ? (1) 25 (2) 23 (3) 22 (4) 24 17 . 130 (2) Rs.Directions : Answer Q. 65. Find the ratio in which rice at Rs. it would be finished 10 days earlier. 150 (4) Rs.4o (3) 38. 900 @ 6% be equal to the interest on Rs. 7. Find sthe compound interest on Rs. 199697. 247. In what time will the simple interest on Rs.5 (3) 243 (4) 234 112.89o 121.20 (2) Rs. His loss or gain in % is (1) loss 1% (2) gain 1% (3) no loss no gain (4) loss 5% 119. 125 (3) Rs. What is the difference between the maximum and the minimum RBI credit to the Government ? (1) 3768 (2) 3858 (3) 3758 (4) 3407 111.103 (2) 48. 205. 2000 for 2 years at 6%. 74. If the total number of candidates be 1500. 175. I have Rs.2% took Geography. (1) 1 : 3 (2) 2 : 3 (3) 3 : 4 (4) 4 : 5 124.70 to produce a mixture worth Rs. The temperature of 9th January was 34. 57 (4) 75.8% took History and 50. Rs. Maximum RBI credit is what % of the minimum RBI credit ? (1) 159 (2) 239 (3) 129 (4) 251 115. He sold one at a loss of 10% and the other at a gain of 10%. 382.89 122. 20 each. 69. 6. 540 for 8 years @ 5% ? (1) 3 years (2) 5 years (3) 4 years (4) 6 years 123. Find the number of boys and girls.9o (4) 67.7 (2) 234. What is the % decrease of RBI credit in 1992-93 from that in 1991-92 ? (1) 15 (2) 29 (3) 33 (4) 36 114. (1) Rs. (1) Rs. 1000 @ 3%. At what rate must I lend the remainder of my money so that my total income may be 5% on Rs. 49. A certain number of men can do a piece of work in 40 days.25 were divided among 150 children. 160 120.30 a kg. 3500 ? (1) 9% (3) 8. in crores 4038 3996 2545 3987 6403 4823 5496 117. 3500 and I have lent Rs. (1) 47. No.5% (4) 7. 4% more is gained by selling a book for Rs. how many took History and Geography both ? (1) 400 (2) 375 (3) 350 (4) 500 116. Each boy gets 50 paise and each girl gets 25 paise.98 (2) Rs.00 (4) Rs. Find the cost price of the book. but if there were 8 more men.2o.03 125.75% 110. Find the simple interest on Rs. 1500 @ 4% and Rs. What is the increase % of RBI credit in 1996-97 from 1995-96 ? (1) 14 (2) 12 (3) 13 (4) 11 113.67 (4) Rs. The average daily temperature from 9th January to 16th January (both days inclusive) was 38. 67. A man sold two pens at Rs. 180 than by selling it at Rs. In an examination every candidate took History or Geography or both.

Select the pair which expresses the relaltionship similar to that expressed in the capitalised pair of words. ____ (1) 60 (3) 50 132. 63. then 67 – 15x equals (1) 15 (2) 20 (3) –20 (4) –30 127. 1. LANGUAGE : COMMUNICATION (1) Car : Transport (2) Line : Verse (3) Tongue : Mouth (4) Gun : Bullet 18 . 2 m wide. ____ (1) 127 (3) 151 137. 10 m wide and 6 m deep ? (1) 450 m (2) 250 m (3) 225 m (4) 150 m TEST IV Reasoning Directions : For Q. (1) 5 (3) 15 143. 64. 2. ____ (1) 61 (3) 71 135. 15000 129. 3. 1. 11. 136 to 140. The area of a square field is 6050 sq. 800 per sq. 32. In each of these questions. Find the cost of paving the floor by slabs at the rate of Rs.5 m and width is 3. A creditor received 86 p in a rupee and thereby lost Rs. 131. 136. find the odd one out. 5. required for making an open tank 15 m long. 5. 45. m. (1) 120 m (2) 135 m (3) 110 m (4) 112 m 130. 12. The length of a room is 5. 16500 (3) Rs. 15600 (2) Rs. Find the number that comes next in the sequence. (1) Rs. 27.126. 21. No. 31. ARTIST : PAINT (1) Doctor : Patient (3) Sculptor : Clay 138. (1) China (3) Pakistan 142. What is the length of a sheet. 7. BOUQUET : FLOWER (1) Garland : Beads (3) College : Techers 139. 18. 15. ____ (1) 13 (3) 9 134. 131 to 135. 141. 3.75 m. (1) 64 (3) 25 (2) India (4) Australia (2) 7 (4) 17 (2) 8 (4) 125 (2) Mechanic : Car (4) Chemist : Discovery (2) 75 (4) 54 (2) Hand : Bangles (4) Party : Cakes (2) 88 (4) 144 (2) 17 (4) 19 (2) 64 (4) 74 (2) 144 (4) 125 Directions : For Q. 7. 5. 800 (3) Rs. SOLDIER : ARMY (1) Worker : Labourer (2) Star : Constellation (3) Farmer : Co-operatives (4) Member : Library Directions : For Q. How much was due to him ? (1) Rs. 112. Find the length of its diagonal. COBBLER : HIDE (1) Farmer : Grain (2) Tailor : Cloth (3) Author : Book (4) Carpenter : Furniture 140. 141 to 145. 900 (2) Rs. 15550 (4) Rs. 950 128. No. 2. 850 (4) Rs. 8. 41. there is a pair of capitalised words followed by 4 pairs of words. ____ (1) 96 (3) 125 133. If 5x – 2y = 10. No. m.

Veena and Mohan are next to each other. How many guests were present ? (1) 30 (2) 40 (3) 45 (4) 60 153. Who is the throwing champion ? (1) Ramesh (2) Mohan (3) Sarita (4) Veena 151. D and E also have an eraser each. (1) 64 (3) 250 Directions : For Q. Who has a pencil. Who has only a pen and an eraser ? (1) B (2) C (3) D (4) E 160. All four have just won first prize in throwing. B.144. Who is sitting opposite to the best hurdler ? (1) Veena (2) Ramesh (3) Sarita (4) Mohan 148. read the following information : (i) Sarita. (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) There are 5 persons. hurdles and high jump. Find the odd one out from the following : (1) Run (2) Climb (3) Swim (4) Listen 155. Which of the following are not sitting next to each other ? (1) Veena and Sarita (2) Veena and Ramesh (3) Mohan and Ramesh (4) Ramesh and Sarita 150. Who has only a pencil ? (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) 5 (3) 7 (2) 4 (4) 6 19 . read the following information. Ramesh and Mohan are sitting round a table. C. ‘CHICKEN’ will be coded as (1) 3423517 (2) 3534217 (3) 6341752 (4) 2536174 154. a pen and an eraser as well ? (1) E (3) C (2) D (4) A 157. Every three guests used a dish of dal and every four used a dish of meat between them. 152. (ii) (iii) iv) (v) 146. The best thrower is sitting on Sarita’s left. All except C have a pencil. At a dinner party every two guests used a dish of rice between them. (1) (2) (3) (4) 17 23 25 12 (2) 144 (4) 225 145. D and E. No. Who has only a pencil and an eraser ? (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D 159. The highest jumper is directly opposite Ramesh. A. 326 = 30. Veena. 146 to 150. If ‘KITCHEN’ is coded 5263417. sprinting. If 214 = 12. There were altogether 65 dishes. Who is the sprint champion ? (1) Sarita (2) Veena (3) Ramesh (4) Mohan 147. then 523 is (1) 10 (2) 30 (3) 25 (4) 15 Directions : For Q. 415 = 25. 156 to 160. Who is the high jump champion ? (1) Veena (2) Ramesh (3) Mohan (4) Sarita 149. No. Who has only a pen and a pencil ? (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D 158. How many triangles are there in the following figure ? 156. C has a pen and so have A and E. There is a girl to the left of the hurdler. C.

on Wednesdays. 171 to 173 : In each of these questions a word has been given followed by four other words. 165. K should sit between (1) J and L (2) G and H (3) J and M (4) L and N Directions : For Q. He could accept this advancement without interfering with his other activities if the class met on which of the following days ? (1) Mondays & Wednesdays (2) Tuesdays & Wednesdays (3) Wednesdays & Thursdays (4) Thursdays & Fridays Directions : For Q. schedule. B is south-east of F. Find that word. J. art class with an advanced art class that meets at the same time. L. Anil attends his college during 9:00 a. H. M. 171. Anil was invited to replace his 4:00 – 6:00 p. Two of them (K and N) are also basketball players on the university team. N. to 3:00 p. No. Which of the following cannot sit next to M ? (1) G (2) J (3) G and J (4) K 167.m. No. Keeping the same 3:30 – 4:30 p. Which is in the middle ? (1) B (2) F (3) A (4) C Directions : For Q. one of which cannot be formed by using the letters of the given word.m. SATISFACTION (1) FICTION (3) FAT (2) FACT (4) FRACTION 20 . No. No. O) are to be honoured at a special ceremony. Which two players may occupy these seat? (1) G and K (3) J and H (2) G and L (4) L and O 168. he will have to suspend which of the following activities ? (1) The art class and Karate (2) Piano instruction and Karate (3) Karate and the club programme (4) The art class and the club programme 164. on Fridays to participate in a 90 minutes club programme. study the following details : Eight university cricket players (G. Anil can conveniently change his piano lessons to which of the following days ? (1) Monday (2) Tuesday (3) Wednesday (4) Thursday 163.m. In arranging the seats it was decided that no athlete in two sports should be seated next to another two-sport athlete. Anil takes a piano lesson at home on Mondays from 3:30 to 4:30 p. Anil is chosen to play for the university basketball team. The most convenient afternoon for Anil to do library research is (1) Tuesday (2) Wednesday (3) Thursday (4) Friday 162. 169. 161. Three of these players (H. 169 to 170 : A is east of B and west of C. On Tuesdays he goes to Karate class from 4:00 to 6:00 p. D is south-east of C. He remains in college after 3:00 p. 161 to 164. To attend daily 5:00 p.m.Directions : For Q. practice sessions. M and O) are also university football players. 165 to 168. Which is farthest to the west ? (1) D (2) F (3) A (4) B 170.m.m. Which of the following combinations is possible in order to have the arrangement of seat assignments as planned ? (1) H G K J (2) H K J L (3) J K M N (4) J L H K 166. except on Thursdays when he is free at noon. To have the proper seating arrangement. read the following information. His art class meets from 4:00 to 6:00 p. CONSTITUTIONAL (1) CONSTANT (3) TUITION (2) TALENT (4) LOCATION 172.m.m. Before all players are seated there are two vacant seats on either side of N. K.m.

____ (1) PHV (2) PPV (3) PIU (4) PJW 178. NPN. Tlhe person living in Ernakulam is (1) Amar (2) Prakash (3) Manohar (4) Sachin 187. Who lives in Agra ? (1) Amar (3) Manohar 182. Who is the artist ? (1) Narender (3) Amar (2) Sachin (4) Prakash 185. Narender. “Kilogram” is related to “Quintal” in the same way as “Paisa” is related to (1) Coin (2) Money (3) Wealth (4) Rupee 180. Five persons Manohar. In a certain code. Calcuuta. How many boys are there in the row ? (1) 27 (2) 30 (3) 31 (4) 24 177. If P denotes ‘+’. The engineer who lives in Delhi is (1) Sachin (2) Prakash (3) Narender (4) Manohar 21 . cloud is called sky. The person living in Bhopal is a/an (1) Architect (2) Engineer (3) Doctor (4) Artist 188. and neither of them is an architect or doctor. then what will be the value of 5R9P7S9T3P6 ? (1) 50 (2) 43 (3) 75 (4) 55 Directions : For Q. Delhi and Ernakulam. Which is the one that doesn’t belong to that group ? (1) PRT (2) QOM (3) CEG (4) UWY 175. Bhopal. PERFECT is written as RGTHGEV. Where does Prakash live ? (1) Agra (2) Delhi (3) Ernakulam (4) Bhopal (2) Prakash (4) Manohar 184. sea is called road.173. doctor. (v) The person living in Agra is neither an artist nor an engineer. (ii) Manohar and Amar are not artists or engineers and they do not live in Delhi or Agra. (vii) The musician does not live in Ernakulam or Bhopal. where do the aeroplanes fly ? (1) Water (2) Road (3) Sea (4) Cloud 179. Sachin is a/an (1) Musician (3) Architect 183. (vi) Manohar does not live in Calcutta and Amar is not a doctor. (i) 181. How will BROWN be written in that code ? (1) CSPXO (2) DSQYP (3) CTQXP (4) DTQYP 176. OLR. (ix) The artist does not live in Delhi. study the following information. Amar. RHINOCEROS (1) NOSE (3) ROOM (2) SOON (4) RINSE 174. No. Sachin and Prakash are musician. In a row of boys. (iv) Sachin is neither a doctor nor a musician. If rain is called water. Ramesh becomes twentieth from the right. When they interchange their positions. air is called cloud. engineer and artist by profession and live in Agra. (iii) Prakash and Narender do not live in Agra or Ernakulam. Three of the following four are alike in a certain way and so form a group. 181 to 190. architect. R denotes ‘x’. Ram is twelfth from the left and Ramesh is fifteenth from the right. MTJ. (viii) Prakash is not an artist. but not in that order. Which of the following should come next in the following letter series ? LXF. S denotes ‘–’ and T denotes ‘÷’. The musician lives in (1) Calcutta (3) Agra (2) Delhi (4) Ernakulam (2) Doctor (4) Artist 186. water is called air. sky is called sea.

which of the following passengers could be assigned to sit in row 3 ? (1) P (2) Q (3) R (4) S 191. 193. Which of the following is the total number of passengers eligible to be the passenger assigned to sit in the same row as T ? (1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4 194. No. S and T. Q. If H is not included in a particular gift box. Q cannot be in the same gift box as T. If P and R are in row 2. Amar lives in Calcutta and is a (1) Musician (2) Doctor (3) Engineer (4) Artist Directions : From Q. The eight seats on the plane are in four rows. Q cannot sit in the same row as S. Q. R. and exactly three kinds of soft candy to be selected from P. Which of the following kinds of candies must be included in ech of the gift boxes ? (1) G (3) P (2) H (4) R 195. S and T with the following restrictions : (i) (ii) (iii) G cannot be in the same gift box as T. The doctor lives in (1) Bhopal (3) Ernakulam (2) Calcutta (4) Agra Seats on a small plane are being assigned to six passengers — N. and each row has two seats. 191 to 194 : 190. If G is included in a gift box.189. If Q and T are assigned to sit together in a row. numbered 1 through 4. which of the following is a kind of candy that must also be included ? (1) F (2) H (3) P (4) Q 196. any of the following kinds of candies can be included except (1) Q (2) R (3) S (4) T 198. G and H. Each box will contain exactly two kinds of hard candy to be selected from F. P. P must sit in the same row as R. No. 195 to 198 : A shopkeeper is preparing gift boxes of candy. which of the following must be true ? (1) Q is in row 1 (2) Q is in row 4 (3) S is in row 3 (4) T is in row 4 Directions : For Q. R. P cannot be in the same gift box as S. Which of the following passengers could be assigned to sit in the same row as Q ? (1) T (2) N (3) P (4) R 192. 197. Seat assignments are made according to the following conditions : (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) N must sit alone in a row. If T is included in a gift box. The rows with only one passenger must be row 1 and row 3. the box must also include which of the following kinds of candy ? (1) F and G (2) F and H (3) G and H (4) P and R 22 .

199. it is necessary to go through town (1) M (2) P (3) R (4) T 200. To drive from S to N.Directions : For Q. If a landslide temporarily makes the road between O and R impassable. one would have to go through a total of how many other towsn besides M and U ? (1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) 5 23 . the permitted direction of travel is from P to N. Two-way roads exist among the following towns surrounding a mountain : Between M and N Between M and O Between O and R Between R and T Between R and U Between T and P Between P and S There is also a one-way road between town P and town N. No. 199 and 200. then in order to reach M by road from U. None of these roads intersect each other except at the towns. There are no other towns or roads in the vicinity.

9. The Third Ministerial Conference of the WTO was held in November–December 1999 at which of the following places ? (1) New Delhi (2) Seattle (3) Tokyo (4) Berlin The tiny enclave of Macau was handed over to China in December 1999. 13. 5. Which of the following prizes was given to Mahashweta Devi for 1998 ? (1) Saraswati Samman (2) Kalidas Samman (3) Moorti Devi Award (4) Tagore Literary Award India has decided to purchase T-90 tanks and ‘Kiev’ type submarine from which of the following countries? (1) China (2) South Korea (3) Russia (4) Germany The Union Government and the Reserve Bank of India have agreed to put an end to the four-decadeold system of ad hoc Treasury Bills. to finance the Centre’s budget deficit B. 7. 3. . to make up the Centre’s budget deficit by printing notes (1) Only A (2) Only B (3) Only A and B (4) Only C Which of the following countries heads the Human Development Index 2000 ? (1) USA (2) Canada (3) Japan (4) Germany Which of the following universities celebrated its platinum jubilee in 1997 ? (1) Calcutta (2) Delhi (3) Mumbai (4) Chennai The Duburi Thermal Power Plant Project approved by the Cabinet Committee on Foreign Investment will be set up in which of the following states ? (1) Tamil Nadu (2) Orissa (3) Andhra Pradesh (4) Karnataka The Ninth Asian Shooting Championship was held in January 2000 in (1) Malaysia (2) Thailand (3) Maldives (4) Indonesia ‘Hale Bopp’ is the name of a (1) New planet identified (2) Comet near Earth (3) New rocket launched by France to study Venus (4) Black Hole identified near Earth 2. 10. 14. to provide for controlled monetisation C. 11. Ravi Shankar (3) Ustad Bismillah Khan (4) Ustad Vilayat Khan How much compensation was demanded by Pakistan at the International Court of Justice. the Hague. 16. Jasraj (2) Pt. This system was being used A. 6. 4. 15. over the shooting down of its Atlantique aircraft in the Kutch region of India in August 1999 ? (1) $60 million (2) $40 million (3) $50 million (4) $20 million 24 12. 8. Macau was under the rule of (1) Russia (2) Britain (3) India (4) Portugal Almatti Dam is being constructed between which of the following states ? (1) Madhya Pradesh and Andhra Pradesh (2) Tamil Nadu and Andhra Pradesh (3) Karnataka and Tamil Nadu (4) Andhra Pradesh and Karnataka Which of the following days is observed as World Food Day ? (1) September 23 (2) September 16 (3) October 23 (4) October 16 Which of the following is not a computer language ? (1) Windows 98 (2) PASCAL (3) C++ (4) FORTRAN According to the Insurance and Regulatory and Development Authority (IRDA) Bill.OPENMAT (IX) ENTRANCE TEST FOR MANAGEMENT PROGRAMMES 2001 TEST I General Awareness 1. the share of the foreign companies in insurance sector will be upto a maximum of (1) 16% (2) 20% (3) 26% (4) 28% Which of the following musicians declined to accept the Padma Vibhushan Award 2000 ? (1) Pt.

220 (3) Rs. 29. Krishna Kant (4) Mr. is basically a company based in (1) Germany (2) Russia (3) France (4) Switzerland Who amongst the following got the 1999 Jawaharlal Nehru Award for International Understanding ? (1) Nelson Mandela (2) Prince Charles (3) Mahathir bin Mohamad (4) Sheikh Hasina Which of the following gases is used for purification of water ? (1) Oxygen (2) Ammonia (3) Chlorine (4) Carbon dioxide Who led the Indian delegation to G-15 Summit held at Cairo in June 2000 ? (1) Mr. Murasoli Maran Who amongst the following is the author of the book ‘Blue Bed Spread’ ? (1) Raj Kamal Jha (2) Pupul Jaykar (3) Michael Hammer (4) R. 26.R. 27.5% (3) 1% (4) 2% Under the new liberalized policy of gold and silver imports in India. Governor (3) Governor (4) President of India 24. 25 . Guenter Blobel (1) He has developed a vaccine for AIDS (2) He is UK’s High Commissioner to India (3) He is the Vice-President of Australia and was on an official visit to India recently (4) He got the Nobel Prize for Medicine for 1999 The Jammu and Kashmir Assembly set up an Autonomous Hill Development Council for which of the following regions ? (1) Jammu (2) Srinagar (3) Ladakh (4) Anantnag and Baramula The Prime Minister laid the foundation stone of the first Science City of the country in which of the following states? (1) Maharashtra (2) Tamil Nadu (3) West Bengal (4) Rajasthan At present approximately what percentage of GDP is spent on primary education by the Union and State Governments in India ? (1) 6% (2) 6. K. 20. Vajpayee (2) Mr.B.17. 30. 28. TyazPromExports (TPE). The annual meeting of ‘India Forum’ in May 2000 was organized at which of the following places ? (1) Geneva (2) Paris (3) Hong Kong (4) New York Who is Prof. Karanjia Which of the following does not come as a product of vehicular pollution ? (1) Sulphur dioxide (2) Nitrogeon Oxide (3) Carbon Monoxide (4) Hydrogen Peroxide The day-to-day administration of a Union Territory in India is looked after by the (1) Council of Ministers (2) Lt. A. 23. 25. 500 India’s first superconductivity fusion device is being constructed at which of the following places ? (1) Mumbai (2) Tarapur (3) Bangalore (4) Calcutta 18. 21. 200 (2) Rs.K. 19. 22. which offered a 300 million dollar loan to revive ailing public sector Indian Iron and Steel Co. the rate of import duty on one kg of silver is (1) Rs. 350 (4) Rs. Narayanan (3) Mr.

in which almost a third of the world’s people live. voiceless growth (rapid growth under an authoritarian regime.” Making a distinction between ‘quantitative’ and ‘qualitative’ dimensions of growth. 31. ruthless growth (inequalising growth with the rich becoming richer and the poor not any better off). but when these links are forged with policy and determination. The ‘central message’ of HDR ’96 in its own words. with many countries experiencing “lop-sided development — with either good growth but little human development or good human development but little or no growth”. India (1) has escaped extensive criticism by the HDR ’96 (2) has been lauded on the human development front (3) has modestly improved its economic performance (4) None of these 26 .TEST II English Language Directions : Read the following passages carefully. both in developed and developing economies. if allowed to continue.. “The imbalances in economic growth. Government policies are vitally important .4 per cent. have improved for most countries. rootless growth (where material prosperity is achieved at the cost of cultural. stands in the middle with a modest improvement in economic development indicators. HDR ’96 says. Between 1960 and 1991. Passage I The world economy is irretrievably getting divided into ‘two unequal worlds’ and the global community is doing little to counter this. First. but per capita incomes have moved very differently for the developed. they can be mutually reinforcing and economic growth will effectively and rapidly improve human development. and finally. economic growth can become lop-sided and flawed.” says HDR ’96 adding. experienced a decline in their real incomes during this period. economic growth has been failing over much of the past 15 years in about 100 countries. “The deep erosion of the purchasing power of people in Eastern Europe and the CIS countries has undercut many of their past human development achievements. albeit with an emerging concern that it may be slipping on human development. “Policy makers are often mesmerised by the quantity of growth. South Asia.. The report draws attention to what it calls “two disturbing findings”. especially India. Eastern Europe has also witnessed a decline in the standard of living in the 1990s.3 per cent to 1. (There are) limits to trickle-down economies. living mostly in Africa. According to the passage. where economic prosperity is not accompanied by political freedom). Human development indicators. They need to be more concerned with its structure and quality.5 billion people — more than a quarter of the world population are located mostly in East Asia — enjoyed per capita income growth of more than 7% a year during the 1980s but nearly a billion people. social and ethnic identity). like life expectancy and literacy. Economic development that perpetuates such distortions can neither be sustained nor worth sustaining. Unless governments take timely corrective action. is : “There is no automatic link between economic growth and human development. with the rich becoming richer and poor getting poorer. will produce a world gargantuan in its excesses and grotesque in its human and economic inequalities. developing and least developed countries. “human development over the past 30 years is a mixed picture of unprecendented human progress and unspeakable human misery. warns the1996 Human Development Report.” Nearly 1. and. concludes the report.” laments HDR ’96. second. where the present generation squanders resources needed by future generations). suggesting that the economic catastrophe these countries have experienced over the last 15 years is far worse than the privations inflicted by the Great Depression on the people of the developed world earlier this century. HDR ’96 documents in detail emerging global inequalities and economic failure in many poor countries.. the share of the richest 20 per cent rose from 70 per cent of the global income to 85 per cent — while that of the poorest 20 per cent declined from 2. futureless growth (growth which is environment unfriendly.” The report identifies five types of distortions that can afflict the growth process. These are : jobless growth (growth without new employment). published by the United Nations Development Programme. The ratio of the shares of the world’s richest and poorest thus increased from 30 : 1 to 61 : 1 ! Apart from sub-Saharan Africa. the link between growth and human development has been tenuous. and answer the questions that follow according to the contents of the passage.

27 . they make their decision on the basis of domestic inflation and interest rates. however. At best. The extent of capital flight has varied widely. Which of the following is false ? (1) Most of East Asia experienced per capita income growth of more than 7% annually during the 1980s (2) Millions of people in Africa suffered a decline in their income. capital flights in Argentina and Venezuela was equivalent to half the savings in those countries. The error and omission entry of the balance of payments is usually incorporated in these measurements under the assumption that a large part of capital flight consists of illegal transactions that appear only in the item. and all of them pose measurement problem. in real terms. Alternatively it can be defined as all capital outflow. In some years. at best to be taken as an opinion Passage II Capital flight is an elusive concept. and needs to be acted upon (3) Well-researched. it is hard to distinguish from the normal capital flows generated by trade relations and by growing world financial integration. and $27 billion for Venezuela. and foreign assets. but not very practical (2) Disturbing. 33. When capital flight takes the form of underinvoicing of exports and over-invoicing of imports. None of these definitions is entirely satisfactory. and needs to be lauded (4) Biased. If investors fear a devaluation they will move their funds abroad to avoid a capital loss. and others stressing on human development (4) None of these 35. Similarly. quality of growth III. during the 1980s (3) Between 1960 and 1991. the value of X has (1) more than doubled (2) remained approximately the same (3) increased. Capital flight has also been defined as that part of foreign assets that does not yield an investment income recorded in balance of payments statistics. As investors choose from among domestic financial assets. Which of the following best describes the author’s opinion of the HDR ’96 as deduced from the passage ? (1) Useful. inflation hedges (consumer durable or land). high inflation rates and repressive financial policies that keep real interest rates too low will encourage residents to invest abroad or to stockpile. capital flight has been relatively small. then between 1960 and 1991. defined or measured. because any outflow entails some loss for the domestic economy. it will be not be captured in balance of payments entries. quantity of growth (1) I and II only (2) III only (3) II only (4) All of the three By mentioning “two unequal worlds”. but it seems to have increased during the late 1990s. $40 billion for Mexico. policy makers should be more concerned with the I. So defined flight can be measured as the stock of external assets acquired by residents or as net short-term capital outflaws from the non bank private sector (hot money). but not doubled (4) cannot be determined 34. they provide only a range of estimates. structure of growth II. Which of the following correctly interprets the HDR’s central message ? (1) Trickle-down economies implies a hope that sound economic growth would have positive effect on human development (2) Without determined government intervention. Capital flight. the author wants to draw the readers’ attention to (1) the glaring differences between the developed and develping countries (2) the difference in the state of the world 30 years ago and now (3) the difference in focus between countries stressing on economic growth. 37. and the expected rate of depreciation of the currency. In Brazil. Some authors define it as capital that leaves the country in response to perceptions of abnormal risk at home. foreign interest rates. For the period 1990–94 it has been estimated at about $16-17 billion for Argentina. Statistically.32. the link between economic growth and human development is bound to be tenuous (3) Human development over the last 30 years is a mixed picture of unprecedented human progress and unspeakable human misery (4) None of these According to the passage. is above all a symptom of macro-economic mismanagement — in many instances compounded by political instability. the percentage of the number of rich people in the world grew from70% to 85% (4) None of these 36. If X is defined as : (the share of the world’s richest 20%) divided by (the share of the world’s poorest 20%).

According to the passage. According to the passge. all of the following countries faced the problem of capital flight in the 1990s except (1) Brazil (2) Mexico (3) Argentina (4) Bolivia According to the passage. we can infer (1) high interest rates are a result of high inflation rates (2) macro-economics mismanagement leads to capi tal flight (3) political legitimacy is necessary to reduce exter nal debt (4) None of the above 39. 40. The passage concerns itself with all of the following except (1) defining capital flight (2) examining the impact of capital flight (3) measuring capital flight (4) examining the reasons for capital flight 44. it also increases domestic instability — both financially(because hot money flows can impede the pursuit of domestic economic objectives) and politically (because it reduces the political legitimacy of effort to service external debt). capital flight hurts economic growth in all of the following ways except (1) it worsens the debt situation (2) it hurts domestic growth by diverting savings (3) it shrinks the tax base (4) it leads to high inflation rates According to the author. According to the passage. These questions consist of a capitalised work followed by four alternatives. And it contributes to the debt problem by increasing the cost of borrowing (which rises with the amount borrowed). Capital flight also harms domestic growth by diverting savings out of the country. reducing the resources available to repay debt. capital flight can be defined as all of the follwoing except (1) capital that leaves a country in response to perceptions of abnormal risk (2) non-income yielding foreign assets (3) all capital outflow (4) stock of external assets acquired by residents 43. As a symptom of macro-economics mismanagement. (2) precious (4) fearless . which reduces government income and shifts more of the burden onto low-income citizens. Unfortunately. 46. it is much easier for a government to lose credibility than to regain it. capital flight is all of the following except (1) is difficult to measure (2) is an elusive concept (3) is a result of growing world financial integration (4) is usually in the form of under-invoiced exports According to the passage. Reversing capital flight requires restoring confidence in the economy and the government through a resumption of growth and the adoption of sustainable policies. Directions : For Questions 46 to 50. capital flight could take place because of (1) perceptions of country risk (2) acquisition of external assets by residents (3) under-invoicing of exports (4) macro-economic performance 42. investors base their asset choices on all of the following except (1) domestic inflaltion and interest rates (2) expectations on rates of currency depreciation (3) foreign interest rates (4) taxation rates 45. 47. DEPRECATE (1) to assure (3) analyse GERMANE (1) relevant (3) still NUGATORY (1) tiny (3) worthless (2) disapprove (4) pester 49. From the given alternatives choose the word that is most similar in meaning to the capitalised word. 38. (2) polite (4) hot and stuffy 50. MARTINET (1) greedy (2) rigid disciplinarian (3) drunk (4) cold and unloving PARI PASSU (1) by and large (2) by and by (3) side by side (4) one against 28 48.Because capital flight generally occurs during a period of scarce foreign capital inflow it imposes heavy costs on an economy. 41. According to the passage. It shrinks the tax base.

56. has its elite. DIVEST (1) furnish (3) run down IMPASSIVE (1) predictable (3) ebullient TORTUOUS (1) ingenious (3) friendly 54. the ozone layer is vanishing. Select from among the alternatives the one which most logically completes the idea contained in the main sentence. 58. the globe is __________. in both science and religion. Each main sentence given below is followed by four alternatives. (1) cannot make profits (2) faces stiff competition in the international markets (3) sells far more than it buys (4) finds fewer buyers for its products than Japan does 59. 60. 65.Directions : For Questions 51 to 55. (1) indolent (3) languid (1) blase (2) outdated (3) passe (4) obsolete (2) phlegmatic (4) emaciated 62. The rain is acid. Selling soap may seem dull compared with high tech wizardry but __________. Directions : For Questions 61 to 65. 61. However hard it spends it __________. 29 . 51. (2) ornate (4) passive 53. (1) getting overcrowded (2) warming (3) getting infested (4) slowing down its speed of rotation Success for Korea is embarrassisng. (2) simplify (4) starve TRANSIENT (1) urgent (3) original 55. PRECIPITOUS (1) pleasantly sweet (2) overly ambitious (2) straight (4) hospitable (3) gently sloping (4) agreeably situated (2) youthful (4) eternal 52. each walk of life. Each honest calling. (1) it is a bigger business (2) it is easy to make (3) it carries more profit per unit of sale (4) it is easily understood by people Special scrutiny is the means. 63. (1) anguish (3) penitence (1) seismic (3) quake (1) exploit (3) extract (2) remorse (4) contrition (2) natural (4) tremor (2) feat (4) adventure 64. Find the odd item among each of the following. its own aristocracy __________ (1) about to degenerate in democracy (2) based on excellence of performance (3) and its own underworld (4) and its own detractors Mankind has transformed the climate. These questions consist of a capitalised word followed by four alternatives. by which deep insights can be __________ (1) (2) (3) (4) developed into great truths winnowed from deep nonsense ultimately put to use separated from deep reality 57. From the given alternatives choose the word which is the nearest opposite to the capitalised word. Directions : For Questions 56 to 60.

The statement made on oath in the court was later found to be false and the person was prosecuted for perjury. 68. (1) evidence (2) deposition (3) affidavit (4) affirmation The passing feeling of well-being was generated in him by the paltry fortune that fell to his share. are enormous and for the moment ________. Choose the one word or phrase which has been used inappropriately. (1) Saints (2) Savants (3) Monks (4) Martyrs The study for the cause of the disease should be the first step in our efforts to find a cure for any disease. The Human Genome Project will give the biologist a toolkit with which to describe and hence perhaps to ________. (2) legal (4) ethical 77. A formal letter beginning with “Dear Sir” always ends with the complimentary close “yours faithfully”. (2) routine (4) prescription 67. Choose the alternative which can correctly substitute the highlighted phrase. (1) will continue (2) continues (3) develops (4) diminishes 80. Fill in the blanks by choosing the most appropriate alternative from among the choices given with each question. For decades dismissed as part of the canon of ‘artistic’ pursuits. Each of these questions has a highlighted phrase. Each question has a blank space. 75. Becket belongs to the class of those who greatly suffer and die for a great cause.Directions : For Questions 66 to 70. Directions : For Questions 76 to 80. (1) (2) (3) (4) The tailor stitched my shirt well but he spoiled the trouser. 74. (1) explain (2) develop (3) disregard (4) synthesize The implications of the projects like those of atomic physics. (1) probed (2) rediscovered (3) valued (4) questioned The tragedy of hunger and malnutrition ________ despite considerable progress in overall agriculture production and an improved understanding of human nutritional needs. (1) scientific (3) human 79. (1) (2) (3) (4) Fewer discoveries have captured the public imagination better than the double helix of DNA. 72. 71. 73. (1) (2) (3) (4) It is an ancient paradox that the rules of nature are simple but the world itself was complex. (1) programme (3) regimen 69. 78. (1) (2) (3) (4) Hardly had I entered the room then the girl began to scream wildly. In each of the following sentences four words or phrases have been underlined. human life. (1) of Actiology (3) of Pharmacology (2) of Teleology (4) of Pathology 70. music is today being ________ by science. 66. Directions : For Questions 71 to 75. which can be correctly substituted by one of the four alternative choices that follow the question. the two-stranded (1) (2) (3) (4) molecule of the genetic library. 76. (1) euthansia (2) amnesia (3) bravado (4) euphoria The course of diet and medicine recommended by the physician did immediate good for the convalescent old man. (1) stupendous (2) unpredictable (3) scary (4) immeasurable As happened with the description of atomic particles all this opens up frightening possibilites and ________ dilemmas. 30 .

31 .

105. 110 (2) Rs. The string of a kite is 150 metres long and it makes an angle of 60o with the horzontal. How much earth will be dug out by sinking a well 21 metres deep and of 5 metres diameter ? (1) 412. (1) Rs. 230 A can do a piece of work in 12 days. By selling one for 3/4 of its cost price and the other for 4/3 of its cost price. 200 (4) Rs. The numbers are (1) 198. 600.1 m (2) 129 m (3) 112 m (4) 145 m cos 51° 101. 2370 (2) Rs.000 (3) 2.000 (4) 1. If A : B = 3 : 4 and B : C = 5 : 6 then A : B : C equals (1) 20 : 25 : 30 (2) 15 : 20 : 24 (3) 15 : 20 : 28 (4) 21 : 28 : 30 100. 25. 198 (3) 98. If θ = b find the value of cos θ − sin θ (1) (3) b−a b+c b+c b−a (2) (4) b+a b−a b+a b+c 112. 110 (2) 110. 300. 400. Rs. 142. 2. 400 (3) Rs. Rs. 98.00. If cos A = 2 2 9 2 3 3 (1) (2) 2 2 3 (3) (4) 3 1 cos θ + sin θ 103. 2 per cu m.5 cu m (4) 825 cu m 109. Simplify (1) 1 (3) 3 (2) 2 (4) 3 32 . How many such pots can be watered with the water of the tank ? (1) 20. The surface of a cube is 150 sq m. 800. Find x if (1) 4 (3) 2 1 3 4 + = x − 3 x −1 x − 2 (2) 3 (4) 5 97.96. Rs.5 litre of water. the length of the base in cm is (1) 20 (2) 18 (3) 16 (4) 21 The sum of two numbers that are in the ratio of 5 : 9 is 308. A reservoir is 2 metres long. Find the cost of sinking a well 35 metres deep and of 1 metre radius at Rs. (1) 130. 237 (3) Rs.5 metre deep. What is value of sin 39° ? (1) 1 2 1 (2) (4) 1 find sin A. A man buys two horses for Rs. 3 3 (3) 1 102.20 108. A room is 10 metres long and 6 metres broad.5 cu m (2) 473. Find the height of the kite from the ground. How many cubes of 3 m edge can be cut out of a cube of 18 cm edge ? (1) 218 (2) 216 (3) 432 (4) 864 110. he loses Rs. 500. 220 111. (1) 125 cu m (2) 105 cu m (3) 110 cu m (4) 120 cu m 107.5 cu m (3) 112.000 (2) 2. B is 60% more efficient than A. 1422 (4) Rs. 350 (4) Rs. Find its volume. The number of days it takes B to do the same piece of work is (1) 8 (3) 6 1 days 2 1 days 2 104. A piece of wire is 78 cm long. A flower pot requires 0. 210 (4) 78. (1) Rs.37 per metre. 440 (3) Rs. Find the cost of carpeting its floor with a carpet 60 cm wide and rate Rs. What did he pay for each horse ? (1) Rs. If the ratio of one of the equal sides to the base is 5 : 3. 1 metre broad and 0. This is given a shape of an isosceles triangle. 300 (2) Rs. 500 106.000 8+ 2 8− 2 (2) (4) 9 7 1 days 2 1 days 2 99. Rs.

1400 (3) Rs. 6 (3) Rs. Rs. 330. Rs. 275 33 128.000 partly in 5% and partly in 4% security. 7 (4) Rs. (1) (3) 1 2 5 6 1 when 1 is added 2 121.000 (4) Rs. Akram invested Rs. 2600. His total marks in English. then the share of Dhruv’s profit is (1) Rs. would be Rs. 10 ? (1) Rs. What is the least number of shirts priced at Rs. 108 (3) Rs. A shopkeeper gives a discount of 10% on the marked price of a transistor but in the bargain makes a profit of 10%. The dealer gave him successive discount of 20% and 12%. Rs. 890 ? (1) Rs. 9. 3500 126.000 (4) Rs.s 4. 648. 540 114. 645. 3210 (4) Rs. 1100 (2) Rs. 2 rd of a consignment was solf at a profit of 6% and 3 the rest at a loss of 3%. 8 124. When the price of a scooter was increased by 30%. 54 (2) Rs. After 6 months Dhruv invested Rs. 1000 .000 (3) Rs. If x is 90% of y. 16. If the proportion of his marks in English and Maths is 2 : 3. When she will get her anm increment of Rs. 3600 (3) Rs.000 (2) Rs. What is the annual income of a stockholder having 135 shares at par value of Rs. 20. 280 (3) Rs. 2800 (2) Rs.000 117. Find the fraction which becomes to its denominator and numerator. 170 next month. the value of consignment was (1) Rs. A reduction of 20% in the price of apples enables you to purchase 12 more at Rs. 20. after which you are left with Rs.999 (4) 0. of further 10 3 remainder on children’s education. however there was an overall profit of Rs. 290 (2) Rs. If at the end of the year they gained Rs. the number of scooters sold decreased by 20%.000 (2) Rs. If the marked price is Rs. 650 (4) Rs. A company having a stock of R. You have to spend 1 of your income on house rent. what percent of x is y? (1) 120% (2) 110% (3) 111.000 declares a dividend of 4% semi-annually. 16.000 (3) Rs. Ram got twice as many marks in English as in Science. 15. 4. 10 1 1 of the remainder on conveyance. 18. What was the price of 16 apples before reduction? (1) Rs. 2000.9 upto 3 places of decimals. 600 (2) Rs. How is his son now ? (1) 15 years (2) 18 years (3) 30 years (4) 35 years 116.000. 1200 118. What is her present salary? (1) Rs. Janki spends 20% of her monthly salary for her son’s education.948 119. 7. Science and Maths are 180.1% 122. (1) 0. 12. 540. 200? (1) 3 (2) 7 (3) 8 (4) 6 123.50. If. the cost price is (1) Rs. Rs.674 (2) 0. The average beight of 30 girls out of a class of 40 is 160 cm and that of the remaining girls is 156 cm. in this transaction (1) the customer got more than what he expected (2) the customer got less than what he expected (3) The customer got what be expected (4) we cannot say exactly what he got 127. 1300 (3) Rs. what are his marks in Science ? (1) 25 (2) 30 (3) 60 (4) 40 129.333 (3) 0.000. 140 that one should buy to avail a total reduction of at least Rs.113. 81 (4) Rs. What was the effect on sales? (1) 5% increase (2) 4% increase (3) 6% increase (4) 8% decrease 125. 13.000. A cloth shop has announced a reduction of 25% in the price. 3000 in a business. 8. A customer wants 30% discount on his purchase. 1700 (4) Rs.000 1 when 2 subtracted from its 3 1 6 5 9 (2) (4) 115. What sum did he invest in each if his total annual interest income is Rs. A man’s age is three times his son’s. 17. 270 (4) Rs.1% (4) 11. Find the square root of 0.000. 11. 5 (2) Rs. The average height of the whole class is (1) 157 cm (2) 159 cm (3) 158 cm (4) 161 cm 120. she plans to spend half of that also for her son’s education. In 15 years it will be double that of his son. A man invested Rs. The total she would spend then. What is your income ? (1) Rs.

those days must include (1) (2) (3) (4) Thursday and Friday Wednesday and Friday Tuesday and Friday Monday and Wednesday 141. 2. Monday through Friday. ? (1) PCV (2) PHV (3) PST (4) PAV 140. 36. 1. 60. 9. 400 (2) Rs. 20. 3. Nos. None of the volunteers can work on three consecutive days. 142. If K is assigned to work on exactly four days of the week. Who is the fastest runner ? (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D 139. _____ (1) 47 (3) 42 133.130. 6. 5. M must work on Thursday and on Friday. K must work on Monday. 1. K. which of the following could be the pair of volunteers assigned to work on Wednesday ? (1) J and M (2) J and L (3) M and N (4) K and L 143. M and N have been assigned the job of guarding a locality. 12. 500 TEST IV Reasoning Directions : For Q. _____ (1) 14 (2) 21 (3) 18 (4) 20 136. _____ (1) 100 (3) 120 (2) 96 (4) 114 Directions : For Questions 141 – 145 refer to the information given below. 200 (3) Rs. and 10% of the rice was spoiled. 7. 13. 4. _____ (1) 160 (3) 177 (2) 212 (4) 172 (2) 50 (4) 49 138. If J is assigned to work on exactly three days of the week. 97. 5 volunteers — J. Any of the following volunteers could be assigned to work on Wednesday except (1) J (2) K (3) L (4) M 34 . 131 to 137. 2. J cannot work on any day on which K works. How many tigers are there ? (1) 8 (2) 6 (3) 2 (4) 10 (2) 720 (4) 360 (2) 9 (4) 3 135. 300 (4) Rs. 2. 150 per quintal. MTJ. 24. 8. 0. 24. 131. 3. OLR. 120. who is slower than D. _____ (1) 30 (3) 26 132. A runs faster than B but not as fast as C. find the number that comes next in the sequence. 127. 6. _____ (1) 240 (3) 600 134. 1. 0. They have 42 legs and 13 heads. 6. At what price should she sell the remaining to gain 20% of her outlay ? (1) Rs. Sita bought a certain quantity of rice at the rate of Rs. 3. _____ (1) 5 (3) 6 (2) 28 (4) 40 137. 25. 2. L. 152. Some men and some tigers are performing in a circus. 16. NPN. Which of the following should come in place of the question mark in the following series : LXF. during a single week. Exactly two volunteers must be assigned the work each day according to the following conditions : (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v) Each of the volunteers must work at least once. 5. 62.

.A.S. Aeroplane 149. Statements Some women are shrubs. Conclusions I Ram is a chair II Ram is not a cake. Ship. . Each of these questions has a set of 3 items with some sort of relationship among them. If K is assigned to work on only one day and L is assigned to work on exactly four days which of the following pairs of volunteers must be assigned to work on Wednesday (1) J and N (3) L and M (2) J and L (4) L and N 145. Sun Directions In questions 151 to 155. Nitrogen. Mark 1 if only conclusion I follows Mark 2 if only conclusion II follows Mark 3 if both I and II follow Mark 4 if neither I nor II follows 151. Statements All huts are foils. U. All covers are bushes Conclusions I All stars are bushes II All covers are stars 154. Conclusions I Some women are planets. each circle representing one item. Conclusions I II Rohit is not a cat. All dogs are Rohits. Some shrubs are planets. 35 153. Florida. 155. Bedroom. 2. Rohit is a dog. All foils are books. irrespective of its size. Oxygen 150.144. two statements are followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. II Some shrubs are planets. Statements All stars are covers. which of the following can be true ? (1) J is assigned to work on Monday (2) J is assigned to work on Wednesday (3) L is assigned to work on Friday (4) N is assigned to work on Tuesday Directions : For Questions 146 – 150. If J is assigned to work whenever and only when M is assigned to work. Kitchen 147. Statements No dog is a cat. II All books are huts. House. (1) 146. Train. Scooter. Given below are four answers 1. 152. 3 and 4 depicting different type of relationship among items. Conclusions I All huts are books. Tyre. North America (2) (3) (4) 148. Air. Find out the figure that represents the relationship among items given in questions. Statements Ram is a cake. Some cakes are chairs.

C and E (3) C. B and A 162. (3) Panama (4) Greenland 159. Bihar : U. enrol b. 156. During which day of the week would it be necessary to call on A to complete the full complement of workers ? (1) Friday (2) Monday (3) Tuesday (4) Thursday 163. C can report for wok of Tuesdays and Wednesdays only. B and A (4) A. Anaemia : Blood : : Insomnia : ? (1) Sleep (2) Food (3) Walking (4) Fever 160. Choose the missing word from the four choices given after each question. Arrange the following words according to dictionary arrangement : a. C and D (2) B. (1) IHRAB (3) MSASA 170. B. ensure d.Directions : In each of the questions 156 – 160. (1) KITSC (3) LABL (2) ISORTYH (4) HCNERF (2) HIRAC (4) BALET (2) TBA (4) PUTSM 169. E and C (4) D. (1) EDB (3) OTCA 168. Wednesdays and Fridays. Which three could you count on to report for work on Friday ? (1) A. 166. a word is missing. 161.P. B cannot report for work on Wednesdys. In order to do a work. who work on a part-time basis. it is necessary to have a minimum of three workers each day. B and E 164. During which day of the week might it be impossible to obtain a full complement of workers ? (1) Monday (2) Thursday (3) Friday (4) Wednesday 165. A can work on Mondays. : : Canada : ? (1) Mexico (2) U. ensign (1) abcd (2) cbad (3) adcb (4) adbc Directions : For questions 166 to 170. unscramble the letters in the follwoing words and find the odd man out. (1) URYB (3) LVIRSE (2) REKLAA (4) LEPAN (2) LGOD (4) OPCPER 36 . B and D (2) B. Magazine : Editor : : Drama : ? (1) Star (2) Director (3) Producer (4) Actress 157. Top : Bottom : : Roof : ? (1) Wall (2) Pillar (3) Door (4) Floor 158. D and E. The staff consists of five persons — A. E is available any time except on the first Monday and Thursday of the month. entice c.A.S. (1) DIINH (3) NELGSIH 167. Air : Breath : : Blood : ? (1) Red (2) Smell (3) Thick (4) Circulation Directions : For questions 161 – 164 consider the following information. D cannot work on Fridays. C. E and C (3) A. Which three are available on any Monday ? (1) B.

P. Which of the following can act as interpreter when C and D wish to confer ? (1) Only A (2) Only B (3) A or B (4) Any of the three 177. I. INDTERMINATE (1) DETERMINE (3) DIRTY 183. which of the following can converse with D without an interpreter ? (1) Only A (2) Only B (3) Only C (4) A and B Directions : For questions 181 – 183. PHYSIOTHERAPY (2) LINE (4) COIN (1) PEAR (2) SHOT (3) PRAY (2) MATE (4) DRAIN (4) SHUT 37 . D and E are holding a meeting A converses in Spanish and Italian B converses in Spanish and English C converses in English and Italian D converses in French and Spanish E converses in Italian and French 179. 171. R. P. O. If a sixth person is brought in. R. R. P.Directions : For questions 171 to 175. Of the languages spoken at the meeting. RELIANCE (1) RAIN (3) CANE 182. I. Find that word. he should be fluent in (1) English and French (2) French and Italian (3) Italian and Spanish (4) English and Spanish 176. L. D. A. E. N. I. ___ (1) T (3) Y 174. ___ (1) S (3) P 172. Besides E. one of which cannot be formed by using the letters of the given word. O. Which of the following cannot converse without an interpreter ? (1) B and E (2) A and B (3) A and C (4) B and D 178. B. Q. find the missing letter. to be understood by the maximum number of the original five. V. ___ (1) S (2) H (3) J (4) T 175. E. C. which are the two least common ? (1) French and Spanish (2) Italian and Spanish (3) English and French (4) French and Spanish 180. A. F. In each of these questions a word has been given followed by four other words. H. G. ___ (1) S (3) T 173. ___ (1) T (2) U (3) V (4) P (2) O (4) T (2) W (4) V (2) Z (4) W Directions : For questions 176 – 180 consider the following information (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v) (vi) Five persons. S. G. 181. N.

then which of the following models must also be selected? (1) Z (2) Y (3) X (4) W 188. Z (4) V. W. 27 11 ? 1 3 5 3 (1) 51 (3) 81 7 (2) 43 (4) 9 185. The contractor will select from seven different models of house — T. (i) No model can be selected for more than one house. If model U is one of the models selected for the street. V. X. U and X are three of the models selected for the street. 8 72 12 7 2 62 6 18 5 ? 9 11 (1) 42 (3) 52 (2) 50 (4) 55 Directions : For questions 187 – 190. X. X. X. A contractor will build five houses in a certain town on a street that currently has no houses on it. Which of the following is an acceptable combination of models that can be selected for the street ? (1) T. Y. W. X. If T. Z (3) U. then which of the following must be the other two models selected ? (1) V and W (2) V and Y (3) V and Z (4) W and Y 189. 184. If model Z is one model not selected for the street. then model V must also be selected. Y and Z. then the other model not selected must be which of the following? (1) T (3) V (2) U (4) W 38 . V. then model W cannot be selected.Directions : For questions 184 – 186. W. U. U. The town’s planning board has placed the following restrictions on the contractor. Y. find the missing number. Y. (iv) If model U is selected. Y (2) T. V. 187. consider the following information. 121 119 81 100 1012 144 625 (1) 225 (3) 250 ? 25 (2) 255 (4) 175 186. (iii) If model Y is selected. (ii) Either model W must be selected or model Z must be selected. but both cannot be selected. Z 190.

O. P. O 200.191. O (2) M. R. The seating arrangement is subject to the following restrictions : T cannot sit next to P S cannot sit next to M R must sit next to M 196. R. P. P. R (4) R. O. Which of the following is an acceptable sequence of negotiators around the table ? (1) M. If T sits directly across the table from O. In a certain code. which of the following is a complete and accurate list of those who can sit next to P on P’s other side ? (1) O (2) O. P. In a code language. Six negotiators — M. R. T. If you rearrange the letters ‘ARSIP’ you would have the name of a (1) State (2) Country (3) Continent (4) City Directions : For questions 196 – 200 consider the following information. S. Which is the one that doesn’t belong to that group ? (1) ACE (2) QOM (3) FHJ (4) IKM 193. S. P. which of the other negotiators must sit next to S ? (1) M (2) O (3) R (4) P 198. “She has no sisters or daughters but her mother is the only daughter of my mother. If R sits next to S on S’s right side. M. S and T — are to be seated at a round table for discussions. T 39 . then how is PONY written ? (1) TVMB (2) SCTR (3) YNOP (4) TSRC 195. There are exactly six chairs around the table. who must sit on either side of P ? (1) M and O (2) O and S (3) M and S (4) O and R 199. Each negotiator sits facing the centre of the table and is directly opposite a negotiator across the table. B is written as C. S. who must sit next to R on R’s right side ? (1) M (2) O (3) P (4) S 197. R. S (3) O. S.” How is the girl in the photograph related to Ram’s mother ? (1) Grand daughter (2) Sister-in-law (3) Daughter-in-law (4) Daughter 194. M. If M sits next to P. Pointing to a photograph of a girl Ram said. if XMKIV means TIGER. S. O (3) T. A is written as B. Three of the following four are alike in a certain way and so form a group. S. R (4) T. T. then how will TALK be written in that code language ? (1) UBML (2) UCNM (3) UBNM (4) KLAT 192. If T sits next to M and S sits next to R. C is written as D and so on.

5. ` . 7. 8. the Yugoslav leader who was forced to step down in October 2000. 12. which had to shut down its services. Securities (3) Market of guns (4) Market of pure metals Which one of the following dynasties was ruling over North India at the time of Alexander’s invasion ? (1) Nanda (2) Maurya (3) Surya (4) Kanva The sensation of fatigue in the muscles after prolonged strenous physical work is caused by (1) Decrease in supply of oxygen (2) Minor wear and tear of muscle fibres (3) The depletion of glucose (4) The accumulaltion of lactic acid Who was the last President of the US to serve for two consecutive terms before Mr.A. 6. The satellite-based personal communications company ‘Iridium’. Jinnah (3) Lord Mountbatten (4) V. 4.P. 18. 13. Churchill (2) M. (1) Egg (2) Larva (3) Pupa (4) Imago The Balkan Plan for fragmentation of India was the brain-child of (1) W. is a subsidiary company of which US giant ? (1) General Electric (2) US Robotics (3) Motorola (4) AT&T When was the last time that India won the Gold Medal in Hockey in the Olympics ? (1) 1992 (3) 1980 (3) 1964 (4) 1972 The Indian Ntional Army (I.6 meters Which state did the Americans buy from the Russians in 1867 ? (1) Hawai (2) Washington (3) Alaska (4) California 11. 9.A. 14. The primary function of the Finance Commission in India is to (1) Distribute revenue between the Centre and the States (2) Prepare the Annual Budget (3) Advise the President on financial matters (4) Allocate funds to various Ministries of the Union and the State Governments The state which has the largest number of seats reserved for the Scheduled Tribes in Lok Sabha is (1) Bihar (2) Gujarat (3) Uttar Pradesh (4) Madhya Pradesh At which stage in its life cycle does the silkworm yield the commercial fibre. Kennedy (2) Ronald Reagan (3) George Bush (4) Jimmy Carter 40 16.N. 3. 10. 17. has allowed construction of the dam upto what height ? (1) 80 meters (2) 90 meters (3) 100 meters (4) 110. 2. Bill Clinton ? (1) John F. 15. on Sardar Sarovar Dam Project on Narmada river.( came into existence in 1943 in (1) Japan (2) the then Burma (3) Singapore (4) the then Malaya To which country did the nuclear submarine ‘Kursk’ belong. was the President of which Republic ? (1) Croatia (2) Bosnia (3) Slovenia (4) Serbia Who is credited with the idea of linking each page of information on the net to another that went on to create the World Wide Web (WWW) ? (1) Tim Berners-Lee (2) Bill Gates (3) Steve Jobs (4) Al Gore The recent Supreme Court judgement. Menon The blood glucose level is commonly measured in (1) Millimeters of Hg (2) Milligrams per decilitre (3) Parts per million (4) Grammes per litre Gilt-edged market means (1) Billion market (2) Market of Govt.OPENMAT (X) ENTRANCE TEST FOR MANAGEMENT PROGRAMMES 2002 TEST I General Awareness 1. which sank recently killing all the sailors on board ? (1) Russia (2) Finland (3) Sweden (4) Norway Who was awarded the Dada Saheb Phalke Award in the year 2000 ? (1) Shyam Benegal (2) Mrinal Sen (3) Hrishikesh Mukherjee (4) Subhash Ghai Slobodan Milosevic.

and only human beings kill cities.19. TEST II English Language Directions : Read the following passages carefully and answer the questions that follow each passage. 23. according to the contents of the passage. control the creation of life of a city. or let them die. 24. 29. And human beings do both — make cities and unmake them by the same means : by acts of choice. which of the following revolutions has been the latest ? (1) Red Revolution in China (2) French Revolution (3) Glorious Revolution in England (4) Russian Revolution 20. oceans — the organic environment is born and dies and is without moral constraint or ethical control. from the first (whenever it was) to today. 25. 22. We enjoy deluding ourselves in this as in other things. “The neighbourhoods are the vital cells of the urban organism”). despite the sentimental or anthropomorphic devices we use to describe cities — are artificial. deserts. plains. 21. 27. But cities — despite the metaphors that we apply to them from biology or nature (“The city dies when industry flees”. We avoid the knowledge that cities are best works of art. How many squares are there on a standard chess board ? (1) 49 (2) 64 (3) 81 (4) 100 The founder of the slave dynasty in India was (1) Qutub-ud-din Aibak (2) Iltutmish (3) Aram Shah (4) Kaiquabad Which of the following amendments in the Indian Constitution incorporated the Fundamental Duties of citizens ? (1) 41st (2) 42nd (3) 43rd (4) 44th During whose Prime Ministership of Britain did India gain freedom ? (1) Chamberlain (2) Churchill (3) Attlee (4) MacDonald Tropical forests of Silent Valley lie in the state of (1) Goa (2) Karnataka (3) Kerala (34) Tamil Nadu Shanghai is situated on the river (1) Hwang Ho (2) Yangtze Kiang (3) Min Chiang (4) Hsiang The famous Battle of Wandiwash was fought between the English and (1) The French (2) The Portuguese (3) The Marathas (4) Tipu Sultan 26. Forests. for instance — only seems like one. Passage I When musing on cities over time and in our time. and at worst ungainly artifacts — but never flowers or even weeds — and that we. Human beings made and make cities. It is not a city. Nature has never made a city. 28. Who discovered the neutron ? (1) John Bardeen (2) William Brag (3) Henry Cavendish (4) James Chadwick Which single event in 1991 brought about the great change in the world political scene ? (1) Unification of two Germanys (2) Disintegration of USSR (3) The Gulf War (4) Stoppage of military aid to Pakistan by USA Impure blood is received in which part of the heart ? (1) Right Auricle (2) Left Auricle (3) Right Ventricle (4) Left Ventricle Which one of the following is not correctly matched? (1) Colosseum — Rome (2) Kremlin — Moscow (3) Wall Street — New York (4) White Hall — Washington In the history of the world. jungles. and what Nature makes that may seem like a city — an anthill. we must always remember that cities are artifacts. We enjoy believing that there are forces out there completely determining our fate. 41 . natural forces — or forces so strong and overwhelming as to be like natural forces — that send cities through organic or biological phases of birth. not some mysterious force or cosmic biological system. growth and decay. 30.

control of waterways. Crystalline silicon is the active element in the very successful semiconductor industry and virtually all the solid state devices contain silicon transistors and diodes. but once congregated. Choosing life in an artifact. people agree to live in a state of similitude. not to live alone. continuously available. not through physical reproduction. that the technique holds little promise. why is an anthill. a city. 33. shelter from natural forces — all these and other reasons may cause people to aggregate. That is a tribe or clan. not movement and distance. is particularly unsuitable to terrestrial solar cells. It is a considerable pact. 36. The author’s purpose in the passage is primarily to (1) identify the sources of popular discontent with cities (2) define the city as growing out of a social contract (3) illustrate the difference between cities and villages (4) compare cities with blood families The author cites the sentence “The neighbourhoods are the vital cells of the urban organism” as (1) an instance of prevarication (2) a simple statement of scientific fact (3) a momentary digression from his central thesis (4) an example of one type of figurative language The author’s attitude towards the statements quoted is (1) respectful (2) ambivalent (3) pragmatic (4) skeptical According to the author of the passage.We control the creation and life of a city by the choices and agreements we make — the basic choice being. The basic problem with the use of solar photovoltaic devices is economics. The reason for this pattern is understandable and historical. a city is an expression of continuity through will and imagination — through mental choices makeing artiface. Crystalline silicon solar cells work well and are successfully used in the space programme. not wander like the moon. ecologically sound. Mutual defense. and it has no moving parts. define human relationships. efficient. If a family is an expression of continuity through biology. Now stasis and proximity. A city is not an extended family. where cost is not an issue. and other more expensive and scarce material such as gallium arsenide can have even higher efficiences. the basic agreement being to live together. and shelter from the forces of nature are presented primarily as examples of motives for people to (1) move away from their enemies (2) build up their supplies of armament (3) gather together in settlements (4) welcome help from their kinfolk We can infer that roving tribes differ from city dwellers in that these nomads (1) have not chosen to settle in one spot (2) lack ties of activity and self-interest (3) are willing to let the cities die (4) have no need for mutual defense By saying a city “is a considerable pact” the author primarily stresses (1) its essential significance (2) its speculative nature (3) the inevitable agreement (4) the moral constraints The author of the passage. and self-interest assume the role of family ties. like the stars. for instance. 37. When people choose to settle. control of a river or harbour. despite the evidence. by definition. unlike a city ? (1) It can be casually destroyed by human beings (2) Its inhabitants outnumber the inhabitants of even the largest city (3) It exists on a far smaller scale than any city does (4) It is the work of instinct rather than of imagination 35. It is safe. to live in a city is (1) an unexpected outcome (2) an opportunity for profit (3) an action of volition (4) a pragmatic solution 32. they then live differently and become different. 34. they create cities as sites and symbols of their choice to stop and their agreement not to separate. While single-crystal silicon has been proven in extraterrestrial use with efficiencies as high as 18 percent. Mutual defense. activity. 31. A city is a collection of disparate families who agree to a fiction : They agree to live as if they were as close in blood or ties of kinship as in fact they are in physical proximity. Crystalline silicon. Passage II The need for solar electricity is clear. including that the leading manufacturers of crystalline silicon. costs must be reduced by a factor of 42 . 38. however. A city is a place where ties of proximity. The larger part of research funding has been devoted to study of single-crystal silicon solar cells. but until recently very little progress has been made towards the development of low-cost photovoltaic devices.

they have only short-range order rather than the longrange periodicity of crystals. For example. Moreover. but amorphous films can be created at a cost of about Rs. 95 percent of it is wasted and does not appear in the final device. This was based on a misconception about the feature which determines efficiency. only 1 micron of the proper amorphous materials is necessary. amorphous materials can be grown over large areas in a single process. Beside the fact that the starting crystalline silicon is expensive. Although many scientists were aware of the very low cost of amorphous solar cells. but only the photoconductivity. they felt that they could never be manufactured with the efficiencies necessary to contribute significantly to the demand for electric power. Whereas crystalline silicon must be made 200 microns thick to absorb a sufficient amount of sunlight for efficient energy conversion. 42. Already. The advantages of amorphous solar cells are impressive. 41. solar cells with efficiencies well abve 6 percent have been developed using amorphous materials and further research will doubtless find even less costly amorphous material with higher efficiencies. it is not the conductivity of the material in the dark which is relevant. 2200 per square foot.more than 100 to make them practical for commercial use. Crystalline silicon solar cells cost in excess of Rs. Recently. The author is primarily concerned with (1) discussing the importance of solar energy (2) explaining the functioning of solar cells (3) presenting a history of research on energy sources (4) describing a possible solution to the problem of the cost of photovoltaic cells According to the passage. The word ‘terrestrial’ as used in the passage means (1) on the surface of the earth (2) territory (3) to be used on roof tops or terraces (4) without wire connectivity 40. these materials are cheaper only because of the introduction of disordering in crystalline semiconductors and disorder degrades the efficiency of crystalline solar cells. 43 . which of the following encouraged use of silicon solar cells in the space programme ? (1) The higher cost of materials such as gallium arsenide (2) The high extraterrestrial efficiency of the cells (3) The relative lack of cost limitations in the space program (4) Both (2) and (3) Which of the following pairs of terms does the author regard as most nearly synonymous ? (1) Solar and extraterrestrial (2) Photovoltaic devices and solar cells (3) Amorphous materials and higher efficiencies (4) Wafers and crystals The material in the passage could best be used in an argument for (1) discontinuing the space programme (2) increased funding for research on amorphous materials (3) further study of the history of silicon crystals (4) increased reliance on solar energy 43. The dilemma can be avoided by preparing completely disordered or amorphous materials. that is. Amorphous materials have disordered atomic structure as compared to crystalline materials : that is. 39. 4500 per square foot. the conductivity in the presence of sunlight. Which of the following has been mentioned as an advantage of amorphous materials over silicon crystals for solar cells ? (1) The relative thinness of amorphous materials (2) The cost of amorphous materials (3) The size ofsolar cells which can be made of amorphous materials (4) All of the above 44. The tone of the passage can best be described as (1) analytical and optimistic (2) biased and unprofessional (3) critical and discouraged (4) tentative and inconclusive 45. there have been some imaginative attempts to make quality single crystals : but to date the efficiencies of these apparently lower-cost arrays have been unacceptably small. Whereas crystals can be grown as wafers about four inches in diameter.

apathetic Working _______ under the pressure of time. 56. Each of these questions consists of a capitalized word followed by four alternatives. the critics later _______ her as a star in her own right. worthless (2) gradually. Each of the questions below consists of a sentence with one or more blank spaces. redundant (2) frantically. inevitable (3) rapidly. reformist (4) feared. Although her initial success was _______ by the fact that she was the daughter of a famous actor. the word which is most nearly opposite to the capitalized word in meaning. (2) tumultuous (4) central ESCHEW (1) invite (2) use (3) emanate (4) strengthen ENERVATE (1) deliberate (2) fortify (3) introduce (4) escalate 52. Each sentence is followed by four alternative sets of words. (2) denounce (4) constrain 55. elite (3) resented. (1) cowardice. Tempers ran high among the old timers who _______ the young Mayor and his _______ Municipal Council. (2) comeliness (4) disposition to fight 47. finite (4) quickly. careless (4) sporadically. These questions consist of a capitalized word followed by four alternatives. insurmountable 57. which when inserted in the sentence. understandable (4) Fortitude. enduring (2) Avarice. criticised (3) superceded. Choose the set of words from among the alternatives given. Rohan did not notice his _______ mistake. 44 . unavailable 59. ZEPHYR (1) fanatic (3) fanciful (2) gentle wind (4) profligate 50. 46. (2) malignant (4) pretentious Directions : For Questions 56 to 60. (1) despised. simple We are _______ going to have to face the reality that the resources of the Earth are _______ . (2) confuse (4) get rid of Directions : For Questions 51 to 55. (1) finally. _______ and piety seem to have been two qualities almost universally shared by the original settlers of this land who faced the almost _______ problem of the weather and disease. accepted 60. (1) continually. Select from among the alternatives. threatening (3) veracity. best fit the meaning of the sentence. disawarded (4) trivialized. From the given alternatives choose the one that is most similar in meaning to the capitalized word. SONOROUS (1) wordly-wise (3) resonant PUGNACITY (1) versatility (3) rapidity OBFUSCATE (1) take away (3) bring to a halt (2) sleep causing (4) half asleep 49. attractive (2) admired. 58. TEMPORISE (1) avoid committing oneself (2) restrain (3) extend (4) hesitate 48. 53. EXTRANEOUS (1) outlandish (3) impetuous RUE (1) celebrate (3) engender MORIBUND (1) contentious (3) vital 54. acclaimed (2) impeded.Directions : For Questions 46 to 50. 51. limitless (3) eventually. (1) enhanced.

61. (1) (2) (3) (4) The desire to protect games and the desire to use it occurs in the same person who both protects wildlife for aesthetic (1) (2) reasons but enjoys dining on a haunch of venison. (2) cheerful (4) gregarious 65. the union and the management agreed about the proposal. 69. when he tries to create (1) (2) feminists where none existed or egalitarian people in an age replete with the horrors of slavery and despots. The arrogant young executive revelled in finding faults with his elder. (1) compliant (3) homely (1) sociable (3) convivial (1) paranoia (2) submissive (4) obliging 64. (1) confiscated (2) commandeered (3) appropriated (4) confined The mayfly is a shortlive creature. The policeman took away for public use the first car that came along and ordered the driver to reach the accident site. 62. (1) (2) (3) (4) At the end of the long and difficult negotiation. Choose the alternatives which can most appropriately substitute the highlighted phrase. its adult life lasting little more than a day. he deliberately set out to shock conventional theatre goers with his radical plays. Directions : For Questions 71 to 75. (1) fragile (2) ephemeral (3) eugenic (4) ethereal Deeply attacking cherished traditions. (1) (2) (3) (4) In planning the syllabus we must give regards to the needs of those students taking the vernacular courses. Each of these questions has a highlighted phrase which can be correctly substituted by one of the four alternative choices that follow the question. without changing the sense of the sentence. 66. In each of the following sentences four words or phrases have been underlined. (1) unconventional (2) irreverential (3) iconoclastic (4) idiosyncratic 74. (2) schizophrenia (3) pneumonia (1) fawning (3) obsequious (1) frustration (3) sorrow (4) dementia (2) preposterous (4) servile (2) approximation (4) satisfaction Directions : For Questions 66 to 70.Directions: For Questions 61 to 65. (3) (4) Problems arise when the historical writer tries to graft a modern sensibility on an ancient era. (3) (4) 67. 75. 71. (1) amateurs (2) neophytes (3) settlers (4) novices Silas Marner’s excessive frugality did not allow him to indulge in any luxuries. 70. This mountain range contains slopes that will challenge experts as well as recent converts. 63. (1) probity (2) proclivity (3) sagacity (4) parsimony 72. 73. 45 . Choose the underlined word or phrase that has been used imappropriately. Find the odd man out among each of the following. 68.

92.888 (3) 0. Each of these questions consist of a related pair of capitalized words. Both are opened together but at the end of 3 mins B is turned off.8 is (1) 0.1% of 10000 is (1) 100 (3) 110 82.00002 is (1) 0. (2) 1000 (4) 10 90. (4) 18 mins. 84. (2) 16 mins (3) 17 mins. the average of first 12 is 16 and the last 12 is 19.22202 If 3 men or 4 women can do a piece of work in 43 days. 46 . 78. 2400 amounts to Rs. 88. Find the rate of interest. 178. 76.20 (4) Rs.22024 (3) 0. 93. The sum of 0. (1) 6% (2) 5% (3) 8% (4) 4% If Monu can do a piece of work in 6 days and Vikas can do the same work in 12 days.4 (2) 0.2 + 0. 648. 85.Directions : For Questions 76 to 80. Select the alternative pair that best expresses a relaltionship similar to that expressed in the pair of capitalized words. how long will 7 men and 5 women take to do it ? (1) 10 days (2) 11 days (3) 12 days (4) 13 days The square root of 0.20 0. A sum of Rs.20 (3) Rs. If 10 dozen pens cost Rs. 154. PLEAD : SUPPLIANT (1) disperse : rioteer (2) translate : interpreter (3) beg : philanthropist (4) shun : outcast LINEAGE : PERSON (1) foliage : tree (2) title : book (3) landscape : portrait (4) derivation : word 80. How much more time will it take to fill the tank ? (1) 3 mins (2) 4 mins (3) 6 mins (4) 5 mins 91. What is the 13th result ? (1) 17 (2) 30 (3) 40 (4) 35 Which of the following is divisible by 11 ? (1) 35819 (2) 45387 (3) 8593 (4) 61234 A train travels 90 km in 1 hour. 83.911 At what rate of simple interest will a sum of money triple itself in 20 years ? (1) 9% (2) 11% (3) 10% (4) 8% The average of 25 results is 18. 87. 86.30 (2) Rs. BUFFOON : DIGNITY (1) laughing stock : ridicule (2) imposter : identification (3) braggart : modest (4) gambler : risk STARE : GLANCE (1) participate : observe (2) hunt : stalk (3) gulp : sip (4) scorn : admire 77. How long will it take to travel 24 kn ? (1) 36 mins.24222 (4) 0.002 + 0. 168. 89.02 + 0. respectively. what do 33 pens cost ? (1) Rs. 2646 in 2 years at compound interest rate. how long will they take to do it together ? (1) 4 days (2) 5 days (3) 8 days (4) 3 days The value of 15000 is equal to (1) 0 (2) 1 (3) 1500 (4) 150 Two pipes A and B can fill a tank in 8 and 12 mins. 188. TEST III Quantitative Aptitude 81.22222 (2) 0. INDOLENT : SLOTH (1) wrathful : ire (3) impatient : apathy (2) arrogant : acuity (4) covetous : enigma 79.894 (4) 0. followed by four alternative pairs of words.

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If the speed of a car is 92. 10% 10% Rent 20% Cloth 20% Food 40% Percentage of money spent on household items 48 . 2310 (3) Rs. Find two numbers. 2250 (2) Rs. 17 (4) 29.4 km/hr. How many passengers were taken ? (1) 1260 (2) 1360 (3) 160 (4) 60 114. is (1) Rs. then how many meters will it cover in 20 minutes ? (1) 30800 m (2) 32800 m (3) 38000 m (4) 80300 m 122.000 (4) Rs. 23 116. 155 (4) 112. “I am twice as old as you were when I was as old as you are. The product of (a+b) (a2–ab+b2) is (1) a3 + b3 (2) a3 – b3 (3) (a + b)3 (4) (a – b)3 (1) (3) 1 2 8 3 (2) 3 8 (4) 5 5 sin θ + 3 cos θ 117. find the value of 5 sin θ + 3 cos θ (1) 2 8 1 (2) 1 9 3 8 (3) 2 2 (4) 118. 153 (2) 110. 154 (3) 109. The compound interest on Rs. 18.750 in 2 years. (1) 111. find the value of 2 cos θ + sin θ 119. 3 cos θ + sin θ If tan θ = 1. The sum of two numbers which are in the ratio of 5 : 7 is 264. 19 (2) 50. A father is fifty one years old and his son is 16 years old.000 in a year if the first Rs. (1) 36. A ship of 1200 men on board has sufficient provisions to last 17 weeks. 1610 (4) Rs. Mohan starts at 2 pm and walks from Delhi to Agra at the rate of 5 km/hr. 8. Elec. Study the pie chart given below and answer the Questions 126 to 130. In how many years will the father be twice as old as his son? (1) 17 years (2) 18 years (3)14 years (4) 19 years 121. Ganesh starts from Delhi to Agra on cycle at 3 pm at the rate of 10 km/hr.000 (3) Rs. Some more pasengers from other ships were taken and the provisions were finished in 15 weeks. 10. Find the numbers. 23 (4) 36. 50. 27 120.000 (2) Rs.000 125. What is Rani’s age in relation to Rina ? (1) Two years older (2) One year older (3) Three years older (4) One year younger Directions : For Questions 126 to 130. The remaining part of my trip was one third of the whole trip by car and rest by train. The distance travelled by train is (1) 700 km (2) 800 km (3) 1000 km (4) 900 km 124. When will Ganesh overtake Mohan ? (1) 4 pm (2) 5 pm (3) 3.000 is 20% ? (1) Rs. 15. I travelled 1200 km by air which formed 2/5 of the trip.30 pm 123. Jack says to John. 90. What will be the income tax payable by a person getting total income of Rs. Misc. 152 115. 28 (2) 32. Rina is two years older than Jayanti. (1) 44. with the rate of interest being 4% for first year and 8% for the second year. 2410 113. 50. Find their ages. If 3 cos θ = 4. 7. the greater of which shall be in the same ratio to the smaller as the sum is to 42 and their difference is to 6. 13 (3) 40.000 is not taxable and the rate for next Rs. Jayanti is three years younger to Rani.” The sum of their ages is 63.30 pm (4) 4.24 (3) 19.112.

9. 5000 128. 15. ____ (1) 6 (2) 8 (3) 677 (4) 10 140. 19. ____ (1) 9 (3) 11 136. 11. 7. 37. 76. 25. 131. 81. 81. 7. 49. 80. 28.000 per month. N. 4. 25. find the number that comes next in the sequence. O. 5. 480. 343. 22. 6000. 2. 2800 (4) Rs. M. 65. 125. but the following restrictions must be observed : M cannot share an office with N. 16.126. 64. 100. 16. ____ (1) 15 (3) 16 138. 5. how much should the family spend less on clothing assuming other expenses remain constant ? (1) 5% (2) 10% (3) 12% (4) 15% 129. P and R — are being assigned to offices. 50. 5600 (3) Rs. each of which can accommodate two persons and no more than two. 49. The raio of expenses on food to other expenses is (1) 4 : 6 (2) 4 : 9 (3) 4 : 8 (4) 4 : 5 130. 3600 (2) Rs. ____ (1) 729 (2) 643 (3) 810 (4) 819 133. –7. 2400 (3) Rs. ____ (1) –31 (3) 61 134. If the income is Rs. Six employees — L. ____ (1) 67 (3) 120 (2) 10 (4) 12 (2) 60 (4) 121 Directions : For Questions 141 to 143 consider the following information. ____ (1) 4800 (3) 3360 135. 31. 3. 0. 24. 40. 4. 4200 (4) Rs. 26. 36. 12. 3000 TEST IV Reasoning Directions : For Questions 131 to 140. N cannot share an office with O. ____ (1) 80 (2) 82 (3) 100 (4) 10 132. Enough offices are available to permit any possible assignment of group members to offices. 5. The ratio between money spent on electricity and clothing is (1) 1 : 3 (2) 1 : 2 (3) 1 : 4 (4) 1 : 5 127. 36. the expenditure on rent is (1) Rs. 2. 13. 8400 (2) Rs. If the income of the family is Rs. 1. If the expenditure on food goes up by 5%. –18. 6. the expenses on non-food items is (1) Rs. Each person must be assigned to exactly one office and must be assigned to that office either alone or else together with one other member of the group of six. 72. 18. 32. 8. 9. 7. ____ (1) 47 (3) 677 (2) 13 (4) 12 (2) 33 (4) –33 (2) 31 (4) 676 (2) 880 (4) 960 139. ____ (1) 40 (2) 30 (3) 25 (4) 24 137. 1. 9. P and R must share an office together 49 .

What is the minimum number of computers. and to Z 151. uncramble the letters in the following words and find the odd man out. Q. S. through which a message from T to X must pass ? (1) One (2) Two (3) Three (4) Four 50 . Any given message enters and leaves a given computer at most once. (1) AISPR (3) KOWNEYR (2) LLIIGCO (4) PSLATIOH (2) LEPAP (4) LNOEM (2) NNOOLD (4) OTYKO 149. S. to Y. so that messages can be sent back and forth between any two connected computers. T (2) Z. (1) PLANE (3) HANUBT Directions : For Questions 151 to 156. consider the following information : All electronic messages in a large corporation are transmitted by means of a message network that connects eight computers — Q. S. W. T (3) Z. from first to last. 146. Which is the least like the other ? Directions : For Questions 146 to 150. The path followed by messages sent from Y to Z must include which of the following computers ? (1) R (2) S (3) W (4) X 152. how many offices are the minimum that can accommodate the group? (1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) 5 144. X. (1) ROEANG (3) INNOO 148. X. W. T 154. Y and Z. X. R. R.141. T. T (4) Z. If P and R are the only ones who share an office. X. All of the connections are two-way. Which is the odd one out ? 145. excluding the originating and destination computers. (1) (2) (3) (4) SEHSC CCRETKI KCYEOH NEINTS (2) AAJNP (4) STIKAPNA 150. which of the fol lowing must be true ? (1) L shares an office with O (2) M is assigned to an office alone (3) The group occupies either 4 or 5 offices (4) The group occupies either 3 or 6 offices 143. Y. Which of the following pairs of employees can be assigned to one office together ? (1) L and O (2) L and R (3) N and O (4) M and N 142. X. of computers through which a message from Z to T can pass ? (1) Z. Messages sent from Q to W can go along any of the following paths EXCEPT (1) (2) (3) (4) Q to R to S to W Q to T to S to W Q to R to S to T to W Q to R to S to X to Y to W 153. Which of the following specifies in its entirety a sequence. Y. (1) LHOCOS (3) REVIINTUYS 147. If N is assigned to an office alone. The computers are connected only in the following way : Q is connected to R and to T S is connected to R and to T W is connected to S and to Y X is connected to S.

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K. How far is B’s house from A’s and in which direction ? (1) 1 km west (2) 2 km east (3) 2 km west (4) 1 km north 169. If L is not available for service. P must be assigned to that committee. and reached P at 10. and L. then M cannot be assigned to that committee. (1) I only (2) I and II only (3) III only (4) II and III only Directions : For Questions 176 to 178.. who teach English literature. then L must serve on that committee. 176. 1 2 3 4 4 6 7 8 9 O N E I C T N T N (1) 543219867 (2) 456329871 (3) 514278963 (4) 512849376 52 178. N. A went 2 km east. It was also agreed that no committee be represented by faculty members of the same subject area. You find below a set of letters with a number above each. 171. All roads were either north-south or east-west. turned left and after 1 km. If both started at 10 a. Choose the correct arrangement of letters as indicated by the number to make a word. who teaches Mathematics. The small college appointed the following : M. turned right. III When M serves. consider the following information.m. Which of the following must be true ? I If J serves on a committee. B went 3 km west. who is in the Department of Natural Sciences. Which of the following represents a committee properly composed ? (1) K. L. O. which of the following must be on the committee ? (1) M and J (2) O and J (3) N and J (4) N and O 175. II If J cannot serve on a committee. again turned right and after going 1 km reached P. again turned left. N (2) K. III If J cannot serve on a committee. If they both went to A’s place from P. A project to consolidate the programmes of a large university and a small college is set up. who is a Latin teacher. M and O never serve on the same committee. took the shortest route and went at a speed of 30 km per hour.Directions : For Questions 168 to 170. Which of the following must be true ? I II N and O are always on the same committee. Which of the following may serve with P ? (1) K and M (2) K and L (3) K and O (4) J and K 173. followed by four choices of arrangements of letters to make a word.24 a. L must serve. how much time did they take in reaching A’s place ? (1) 8 mins (2) 6 mins (3) 10 mins (4) 15 mins Directions : For Questions 171 to 175. who is chairman of the Mathematics Department. He went 2 km. went 3 km. M (3) J. finally turned right and after 2 km reached P. The large university was represented by the following professors : J. who teaches English literature. N 172. 168. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 E U I M L P T L (1) 43512867 (3) 63145872 (2) 53418672 (4) 42873651 177. L. K. B’s speed was how much more than A ? (1) 2 km per hour (2) 3 km per hour (3) 4 km per hour (4) 5 km per hour 170. with two representatives of the large university.m. 1 2 3 4 5 E L P A R (1) 32145 (2) 31452 (3) 45213 (4) 34512 . and O and P. consider the following information : Two persons A and B started for point P from their homes. (1) II only (2) III only (3) I and II only (4) II and III only 174. It is agreed that the representatives work in small committees of three. L (4) J.

An acceptable package cannot contain two jars of (1) grape (2) apple (3) strawberry (4) peach 184. but a package containing jam need not contain strawberry jam.Directions : For Questions 179 to 185. consider the following information. orange. 189. (iv) Peach jam and apple jam cannot be packed in the same package. If P had daughter M. U’s husband is older than K who is the brother of T. P is the youngest of the husbands. Which of the following pairs of jars of jam could be packed with a jar of orange to make an acceptable package ? (1) One jar each of orange and strawberry (2) One jar each of grape and strawberry (3) Two jars of orange (4) Two jars of grape 185. K. L’s husband is (1) K (3) R (2) P (4) S 190. 179. consider the following information. V’s husband is older than S. ARCHER (1) 164543 (3) 193344 188. strawberry. Each package must conform to the following rules : (i) Each package must contain either two or three different flavours of jam. T. peach and apple. (v) A package containing any strawberry jam must also contain at least one jar of apple. (ii) A package containing any orange jam must also contain at least one jar of grape. each containing three jars of jam. Which of the following could be packed with a jar of strawberry to make an acceptable package ? (1) One jar of peach and one jar of orange (2) One jar of grape and one jar of orange (3) Two jars of apple (4) Two jars of orange 182. V and L (females) married P. A jar of which of the following must be packed with a jar of orange and a jar of peach to make an acceptable package? (1) grape (2) orange (3) strawberry (4) peack 183. and one jar of orange (2) Two jars of strawberry and one jar of apple (3) Three jars of peach (4) Three jars of orange 180. U. one jar of strawberry. An acceptable package cannot contain which of the following combinations of jams ? (1) Grape and peach (2) Peach and apple (3) Orange and peach (4) Orange and grape 181. how are the following words coded in that language ? 186. If in a certain language CHARCOAL is coded as 45164913 and MORALE is coded as 296137. Which of the following is an acceptable package ? (1) One jar of peach. REAL (1) 8519 (3) 7209 187. Each jar contains exactly one flavour of jam. The available flavours are : grape. COACH (2) 6713 (4) 9135 (1) 31837 (2) 81494 (3) 82464 (2) 163546 (4) 193476 (4) 49145 Directions : For Questions 189 to 193. K was the best man at V’s marriage. then which of the following is true? (1) U is M’s mother (2) M’s paternal uncle is M (3) K is M’s maternal uncle (4) R is M’s brother 53 . (iii) A package containing any grape jam must also contain at least one jar of orange. R and S (males) — not necessarily in that order. Which of the following cannot be two of the three jars of jam in an acceptable package ? (1) One jar of strawberry and one jar of peach (2) One jar of grape and one jar of orange (3) Two jars of orange (4) Two jars of grape Directions : For Questions 186 to 188. A mail-order company sells packages of jam.

In each of these questions a word has been given. MBA degree holders are better workers than others. II. followed by four other words. More foreign institutional investors are likely to enter India. III. No other degree provides as many opportunities as an MBA degree. There exists a strong corporatge culture with emphasis on tradition and values. (1) Only I (2) Only II (3) Only III (4) All three 198. The cement industry is in a recession. An assumption is something supposed or taken for granted. There is a low turnover of employees in the group. INFRASTRUCTURE (1) STARE (3) INFER 195. Which of the following is false ? (1) K is younger than R but older than P (2) L’s husband is not the youngest among the husbands (3) V’s husband is the eldest among the husbands (4) T’s husband is not the youngest among the husbands 192. Then decide which of the answers 1. ech question consists of a statement followed by three assumptions numbered I. Part of the core sector. the ages of the wives would be in the increasing order. each differing by 2 years) (1) 34 (3) 36 (2) 37 (4) 39 Directions : For Questions 194 to 196. III. one of which cannot be formed by using the letters of the given word. Till now. 194. I. The core sector consists of only the cement industry. The contours of the investment strategies have been dramatically altered with the entry of the foreign institutional investors into the Indian market and with the imminent entry of so many other waiting in the wings. 3 or 4 is the correct answer. (1) II and III (2) I and II (3) I and III (4) All three 200. The ages of the ladies differ by 2 years. Some foreign institutional investors have already entered India. XYZ Corprn. I. ADMINISTRATION (1) TRAIN (3) RATIOS 196. The age of T is 30 years. MBA degree holders have a good demand in the job market. 36. If each husband is exactly three years older than his wife. Find that word. The cement industry depends heavily on the government for support. II. III. II. 40 and 42 and the age of their wives are 29. has functioned with a strong emphasis on tradition and values. I. with employees looked upon as part of one big family. You have to consider the statement and the following assumptions and decide which of the assumptions are implicit in the statement.191. the cement industry has been badly hit by the cut in government plan allocation. 28 and 39 respectively. Only family members were employed by XYZ Corprn. 30. II. III. 197. II and III. There has already been a shift in the investment strategies. REMARKABLE (2) CURE (4) STAIR (2) MINISTER (4) STAIR (1) ABLE (2) MARKS (3) REAR (4) MARBLE Directions : In Questions 197 to 200. then which of the following is false ? (1) V is older than P (2) K is older than S’s wife (3) The difference in the ages of R and V is only three years (4) L is the youngest among the wives 193. 2. The opportunities available to an MBA degree holder are limitless. (1) Only I (2) Only II (3) I and III (4) All three . If the husbands from the youngest to the eldest are of the ages 33. what is the age of S ? (If the husbands are arranged according to their ages from the youngest to eldest. I. (1) Only I (2) I and II (3) All three (4) Only II 54 199.

11. “In Custody”. 16. 7. 4. 10. Naipaul (2) Vikram Seth (3) Anita Desai (4) Shobha De Cricket was an Olympic event at which of the following Olympics ? (1) London 1908 (2) Amsterdam 1928 (3) Paris 1900 (4) Melbourne 1956 Who is the Chairman of the Planning Commission of India ? (1) The President (2) The Vice President (3) The Finance Minister (4) The Finance Secretary Which of the following Indian states has entered the Guiness Book of World Records for its proud possession of the tallest tree in the world ? (1) Tripura (2) Sikkim (3) Assam (4) Nagaland Which of the following was admitted as the 189th members of the UN in September 2000 ? (1) Tuvalu (2) Kiribati (3) Nauru (4) Tonga 15. Radhakrishnan (2) Sri Aurobindo (3) Rabindra Nath Tagore (4) Swami Vivekanand Which new championship was introduced in the last Commonweallth Games held in Malaysia ? (1) Cricket (2) Football (3) Hocky (4) Tennis 14. 8. 19. 3.S. an English novel.S. 13. 9. 17. Which of the following is not a South Americal country? (1) Argentina (2) Bolivi (3) Colombia (4) Mexico 55 . 5. Open Tennis Championship held in September 2000 at New York ? (1) Lindsay Davenport (2) Serena Williams (3) Venus Williams (4) Jennifer Capriati Which of the following rivers is not a tributary of the Indus ? (1) Sutlej (2) Chenab (3) Bharirathi (4) Beas The President of India can nominate how many members to the Lok Sabha ? (1) 2 (2) 4 (3) 8 (4) 12 2. The headquarters of UNESCO is located in (1) The Hague (2) New York (3) Paris (4) Washington Which of the following is not correctly matched ? (1) Bhangra – Punjab (2) Bihu – Manipur (3) Garba – Gujarat (4) Tamasha – Maharashtra 12. Ms Harita Kaur has the distinction of being the first Indian woman (1) Ambassador to a foreign country (2) to join Indian Air Force (3) to join Indian Navy (4) doctor to create a test-tube baby Who among the following earned the sobriquet ‘Deshbandhu’ for his defence of members of the extremist group of the Congress in 1908 ? (1) Chittaranjan Das (2) Lala Lajpat Rai (3) Bipin Chandra Pal (4) Bal Gangadhar Tilak Which of the following is not a rural development programme ? (1) TRYSEM (2) JRY (3) CRY (4) RLEGP The headquarters of World Intellectual Property Organisation (WIPO) is located in (1) Paris (2) Madrid (3) New York (4) Geneva The first ever India–EU Summit was held in (1) Pyongyang (2) Tokyo (3) Beijing (4) Lisbon World Cup Soccer 2006 will be held in (1) Germany (2) UK (3) Japan (4) South Korea Who won the Women’s Singles in the U. 18. 6. has been written by (1) V.OPENMAT (XI) ENTRANCE TEST FOR MANAGEMENT PROGRAMMES 2002 TEST I General Awareness 1. Who is the author of “The Hindu View of Life” ? (1) S.

and the presidentelect of the Association cautioned that “high powered statistical methods are usually in order where the facts are crude and inadequate statisticians assume. and if they had to meet an unexpected influx. Many things have changed in the intervening years. There was the thought that business forecasting might well be on its way from an art to a science. Read the passages below and then answer the questions that follow each passage. few inns would have a manger to accommodate the weary guests. would have associated more readily with the description of a fair maiden. at least in our younger years when these things mattered. now batteries of complicated statistical series furnished by governmental agencies and private organisations are eagerly scanned and interpreted by sages and seers to get a clue to future events. This property is due to its (1) very small size (2) very large size (3) very high density (4) very low density A small pouch containing silica gel is found in bottles of medicine in tablet or powder form because silica gel (1) kills bacteria (2) kills germs and spores (3) absorbs moisture (4) absorbs all gases present inside the bottle 27.20. 21. recording and evaluating information have presumably been improved a great deal.K. 28. History does not tell us how the Roman census takers made out. according to the contents of the passage. 24. TEST II English Language Directions : For Questions 31 to 45. consisting of how many members ?\ (1) 7 (2) 9 (3) 11 (4) 15 Who wrote the book “India Unbound” ? (1) A. Passage I Nearly two thounsand years have passed since a census decreed by Caesar Augustus became part of the greatest story ever told.” We left his birthday party somewhere between hope and despair and with the conviction. The hotel industry worries more about overbuilding than ovecrowding. there are considerable differences of opinion. and some speakers talked about new-fangled computers and high-faulting mathematical systems in terms of excitement and endearment which we. 30. Asteriods revolve around the Sun between (1) Mars and Jupiter (2) Earth and Mars (3) Saturn and Uranus (4) Uranus and Neptune Which of the following countries is also known as the ‘Land of the Midnight Sun’ ? (1) Finland (2) Ireland (3) Norway (4) Sweden Which one of the following lakes forms an international boundry between Tanzania and Uganda ? (1) Chad (2) Malawi (3) Victoria (4) Zambezi A ‘black hole’ is a body in space which does not allow any radiation to come out. And where then it was the modest purpose of Rome to obtain a simple head count as an adequate basis for levying taxes. 22. They were aired at the celebration of the 125th anniversary of the American Statistical Assocation. Which of the following pairs is not correct ? (1) Gandhi Sagar – Madhya Pradsh (2) Tungabhadra – Tamil Nadu (3) Bhakra Nangal – Punjab (4) Hirakud – Orissa The World Investment Report (WIR) is published by (1) IMF (2) GATT (3) OECD (4) UNCTAD The tenth session of UNCTAD (United Nations Conference on Trade and Development) was held at which of the following places in Feburary 2000 ? (1) Myanmar (2) Manila (3) Singapore (4) Thailand 29. 25. Now it is the census taker that does the travelling in the fond hope that a highly mobile population will stay put long enough to get a good sampling. But others pointed to the deplorable record of highly esteemed forecasts and forecasters with a batting average below that of the weakest teams. and as regards our more immediate casting. Damodaran (2) Vikram Seth (3) Khushwant Singh (4) Gurcharan Das 26. Methods of gathering. Justice M. The Constitution Review Panel has been set up in February under the Chairmanship of Mr. Venkatachaliah. not 56 . The name of Pierre Cardin is associated with (1) Painting (2) Pop music (3) Fashion designing (4) Films 23.N.

33. many of them lie deep in the interior of a plate. The term “hot plate” is being used in the passage (1) rhetorically (3) technically (2) colloquially (4) ambiguously 40. 34. 36. but cannot readily be translated into motion with respect to the earth’s interior. Most of the hot spots move only slowly. are receding from each other as new material is injected into the sea floor between them. Passage II Scattered around the globe are more than 100 small regions of isolated volcanic activity known to geologists as hot spots. 39. The hot spots and their volcanic trails are milestones that mark the passage of the plates. and in some cases the movement of the plates past them has left trails of extinct volcanoes. they are not always found at the boundaries of the great drifting plates that make up the earth’s surface. Unlike most of world’s volcanoes. that proper statistical methods applied to ascertainable facts have their merits in economic forecasting as long as neither forecaster nor public is deluded into mistaking the delineation of probabilities and trends for a prediction of certainties of mathematical exactitude. The complementary coastlines and certain geological features that seem to span the ocean are reminders of where the two continents were once joined. The passage would be most likely to appear in (1) a journal of biblical studies (2) an introductory college textbook on statistics (3) the annual report of the American Statistical Assocation (4) a newspaper review of a recent professional fes tivity According to the passage. Hot spots. 37. From an analysis of the hot spot population it appears that the African plate is stationary and that it has not moved during the past 30 million years. it can be inferred that the author would agree with which of the following statements ? (1) Computers have significantly improved the application of statistics in business (2) Statistics is not at the present time. 38. the words “these things” refer to (1) new-fangled computers (2) terms of excitement and endearment (3) fair maidens (4) younger years The word “delineation” used towards the end of the passage means (1) separation (2) depiction (3) demarcation (4) association 32. taxation in Roman times was based on (1) mobility (2) wealth (3) population (4) census takers The author refers to the Romans primarily in order to (1) prove the superiority of modern sampling meth ods to ancient ones (2) provide a historical framework for the passage (3) relate an unfamiliar concept to a familiar one (4) show that statistical forecasts have not significantly deteriorated The author refers to the ‘weakest teams’ primarily in order to (1) show that sports do not depend on statistics (2) provide an example of an unreliable statistic (3) contrast verifiable and unverifiable methods of record keeping (4) illustrate the failure of statistical predictions 35. On the basis of the passage. 31. It is not possible to determine whether both continents are moving (in opposite directions) or whether one continent is stationary and the other is drifting away from it. The relative motion of the plate carrying these continents has been constructed in detail. on the contrary. provide the measuring instruments needed to resolve the question. Africa and South America. for example. The authors regard the theory that the plates making up the earth’s surface move as (1) tentative (2) irrefutable (3) discredited (4) unanimous 57 . a science (3) It is useless to try to predict the economy (4) Most mathematical systems are inexact The author’s tone can best be described as (1) jocular (2) scornful (3) pessimistic (4) objective In the phrase “when these things mattered”. That the plates are moving is now beyond dispute. anchored in the deeper layers of the earth.really newly acquired.

(2) resistant (4) deferential (2) obdurate (4) conservative 58 . which of the following statements indicated that Africa and South America once adjoined one another ? (1) They share certain common topographic traits (2) Their shorelines are physical counterparts (3) The African plate has been stable for 30 million years (4) (1) and (2) only The word “constructed”’ most nearly means (1) interpreted (2) built (3) impeded (4) restricted According to the passage. The term ‘complementary’ as referred to in respect of coastlines is used in the sense of (1) serving to complete (2) adding value to each other (3) juxtaposed (4) running parallel According to the passage. (2) unprejudiced (4) unintelligent 50. PHLEGMATIC (1) hoarse (3) oral CONSONANT (1) insuperable (2) incongruous (3) non existent (4) abundant 55. Each of these questions consists of a capitalized word followed by 4 alternatives. 45. 53. From the given alternatives choose the one that is most similar in meaning to the capitalized word. the hot spot theory eventually may prove useful in interpreting (1) the boundaries of the plates (2) the depth of the ocean floor (3) the relative motion of the plates (4) major changes in continental shape 44. 42. hot spots (1) are always found on the boundaries of the drifting plates (2) move slowly and may lie deep in the interior of a plate (3) are too numerous to be counted (4) All of the above 43. SALACIOUS (1) expensive (3) private PEREMPTORY (1) humble (3) weak SYBARITIC (1) foolish (3) austere (2) wholesome (4) religious 52. According to the passage.41. 51. These questions consists of a capitalized word followed by four alternatives. DISINGENUOUS (1) sophisticated (3) argumentative 49. Select from among the alternatives the word wlhich is most nearly opposite to the capitalized word in meaning. EXCULPATE (1) scold with biting harshness (2) cut away (3) clear from blame (4) serve as an example GERMANE (1) well bred (3) light hearted STYMIE (1) make numb (2) cause to appear stupid (3) present an obstacle (4) bring under control 48. (2) voluntary (4) effusive 54. Directions : For Questions 46 to 50. 46. (2) pertinent (4) about to grow Directions : For Questions 51 to 55. ABJURE (1) discuss (3) run off secretly (2) renounce (4) perjure 47.

66. (3) (4) However a good stero you have. Directions : For Questions 66 to 70. shrank (2) anticipated. Each of the questions below consists of sentences with one or more blank spaces. uncertain (2) 1strengthening. (1) (2) (3) (4) No one. you will never get the perfect reproduction. At the cooperative stores you can buy the goods really cheaply. marked Human senses are designed to _______ specific stimuli. which when inserted in the sentence. she left many to mourn her generous heart when she died. Each sentence is followed by four alternative sets of words. 65. 70. hightened (2) respond to. (1) (2) (3) (4) 59 67. In each of the following four words or phrases have been underlined. best fits the meaning of the sentence. dwindled (3) expected. 69. 56. different (3) losing. altruistic (2) Thoughtful. 61. (1) doubted. collapsed 60. Directions: For Questions 61 to 65. insulated (3) concentration. (1) destroyed (3) dilapidated (1) epigram (3) treatise (1) resign (3) reconcile (2) deteriorated (4) decayed (2) monograph (4) journal (2) exit (4) tolerate 64. profane (4) computer. (1) (2) (3) (4) Having failed once. other sensory data is ________ (1) look for. (1) Selfless. (1) contract (3) agreement (1) (2) (3) (4) meditation sedation deliberation speculation (2) protocol (4) settlement 62. 63. knows how inefficient and unreliable our security set up has become. Immigrants arriving in a new country have the special problem of __________ their established behaviour and learning new habits whose results are _________ (1) abandoning. political 57. somatic (4) Kind. 68.Directions : For Questions 56 to 60. Choose the word or set of words from among the alternatives given. grew (4) seen. (1) atomic. universal (3) nuclear. Find the odd man out among each of the following. rarefied (3) Belove. and after a focus is achieved. _______ and ________. The innovations of the _______ age have had ________ effec ts on people in all walks of life. added up 59. it is unfortunate to note that no further attempt was made. definte (4) controlling. Choose the underlined word or phrase that has been used inappropriately. 58. discounted (4) favour. not even the members of the Cabinet. irrelevant (2) electronic. (1) (2) (3) (4) His absence may have been because of the weather or (1) (2) alternatively it may have been because of his illness. . guaranteed We should have _________ trouible ahead when the road _______ into a gravel path.

71. the chairperson is a dull and unintersting speaker whose lectures. . (1) generous (2) altruistic (3) frivolous (4) ephemeral 74. MUSTER : CREW (1) convene : meeting (2) demobilize : troops (3) dominate : opposition (4) cheer : lean SURPRISE : EXCLAMATION (1) insolence : low (2) dismay : groan (3) happiness : grimace (4) contentment : mutter MENDICANT : IMPECUNIOUS (1) critic : quizzical (2) complainer : petulant (3) physician : noble (4) liar : compulsive 79. Directions : For Questions 76 to 80. (1) sublime (2) confident (3) insipid (4) lacklustre 72. and corresponding altitude is 12 cm. 80. Even though he is a leading authority on the French Revolution. cm (3) 1500 sq. cm The base of a parallelogram is 6 cm and the corresponding altitude is 4 cm. without changing the sense of the sentence. Find the product of 56 X 48. otherwise it may grow to dangerous proportions. If the base of a triangle is 25 cm. 76. Because experience had convinced her that he was both self seeking and avaricious. even on most exciting aspects. 78. (1) uncultivated (2) overt (3) embryonic (4) amorphous 75. IMPROMPTU : REHEARSAL (1) practiced : technique (2) makeshift : whim (3) offhand : premeditation (4) numerical : calculation TIRADE : ABUSIVE (1) monologue : lengthy (2) aphorism : boring (3) prologue : conclusion (4) encomium : laudatory 77. (1) congruent (2) in consonance (3) in connotatiuon (4) in consanguinity 73. Each of these questions consists of a related pair of capatalized words. cm (2) 150 sq. (1) 12 cm2 (2) 48 cm2 (3) 72 cm2 (4) 24 cm2 82. cause students to yawn and fidget. she rejected the likelihood that his donation had been selfless and charitable. cm (4) 300 sq. formative state. (1) an ingrate (2) a rogue (3) an incendiary (4) an imposter In formulating a hypothesis we must keep it in agreement with what we know of the real world. followed by four alternative pairs of words.Directions : For Questions 71 to 75. 84. then the area will be (1) 15 sq. Choose the alternatives which can most appropriately substitute the highlighted phrase. (1) 2788 (2) 2308 (3) 2688 (4) 2808 Find the least number which must be added to 4931 to make it a perfect square. (1) 90 (2) 85 (3) 100 (4) 110 60 83. Each of these questions has a highlighted phrase which can be correctly substituted by one of the four alternative choices that follow the question. Find its area. The evil of class and race hatred must be eliminated while it is still in an undeveloped. TEST III Quantitative Aptitude 81. Select the alternative pair that best expresses a relationship similar to that expressed in the pair of capitalized words. The fire spread in such an unusual manner that the fire department chiefs were certain that it had been set by an arsonist.

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The cost price of 15 copies of a book is equal to the selling price of 12 copies of the same book. 250 (3) 10 108.37 per m. A room is 10 m long and 6 m broad. With the help of C. How many quintals of watger can it contain if one cu. A man invested Rs. 10 a litre and after mixing water in it. 12. is (1) 14 cm (2) 10 cm (3) 11 cm (4) 40 cm 117. Find the cost of carpeting its floor with a carpet of width 60 cm. the total cost will be (1) Rs. 1000 (3) Rs. 280. 8. cm 118. Rs. (1) Rs.9 + 11. 2. 2 per sq.6 (2) 8. how much does A get? (1) Rs. 280 62 121. What is the gain percent? (1) 25% (2) 33% 1 % 2 103.000 (2) Rs. 70 (3) Rs. Rs. If 1 3 4 + = then x is equal to x − 3 x −1 x − 2 (3) 20% (4) 22 (3) 1 year (4) 1 1 years 2 sin θ + cos θ 104.50 114.000 120.9 × 11. Simplify 105 ¥ 11 ÷ 33 ÷ 21 (1) (3) 5 3 7 5 (2) (4) 3 5 5 7 19. 210 (4) Rs. how much will C get for doing the work? (1) Rs. The walls of a hall are 30 m broad and 12 m high. If he wishes to make a profit of 80%. A can do a piece of work in 8 days and B in 12 days. (1) 4851 cu. If tan sin θ − cos θ is equal to (1) 3 2 (2) 3 (4) 2 3 105. The surface of a cube is 150 sq. Find the width of the path.7 × 19. the average age of the family is same today. m 113.5 m wide and 5 m deep. what sums did he invest? (1) Rs.7 + 19. 000. 13. Rs. 750 (2) Rs. 2400 (2) 1200 (3) Rs. 20. A tank is 50 m long. m. whose height is 8 cm and radius of the base is 6 cm.9 (1) 31.8 (4) 30.9 109. cm (2) 3312 cu. 6. they finished the work in 4 days. 300 119. Two taps A and B can fill a tank in 8 hours and 12 hour respectively. how much water should he add? (1) 3 litres (2) 2.5 litres (3) 2 litres (4) 5 litres . m. Simplify 19.7 × 11. 11. 890.7 × 19. m (2) 105 cu.9 × 11. If they are opened on alternate hours and if A is opened first. A milk vendor buys 5 litres milk at the rate of Rs. If his total income is Rs. How long will it take to cross it diagonally at 5 m/sec? (1) 20 sec (2) 40 sec (3) 28 sec (4) 32 sec 112. 1500 for their work. A bady having been born.7 − 11. cm of water weighs one gram? (1) 47350 (2) 45370 (3) 43750 (4) 30000 116. A rectangular field is 80 m long and 60 m wide.8 (2) 7. If C gets Rs. 474 (2) Rs.6 (1) 4 (3) 2 (3) 3 (4) 1 110.000 (4) Rs. cm (3) 403 cu. The slant height of a cone. 9. (1) 3 m (2) 6 m (3) 4.000. at the rate of Rs. The sum of 1st 10 even numbers greater than 10 is (1) 212 (2) 208 (3) 210 (4) 214 (3) 4 106. 300 (4) Rs.9 × 11. sells it at Rs. 140 (2) Rs. 118. 12 a litre.7 × 19. 14. 800 (4) Rs. m runs round inside it. 7. What is the age of the bady? (1) 3 years (2) 2 years 111.000.102. A rectangular field is 36 m long and 30 m wide. A sum of money is divided among A. Find the volume of a sphere whose diameter is 21 cm. 17. 500 (4) Rs. B and C in such a way that A gets half as much as B and B gets half as much as C.000. If the cost of painting the wall is Rs.5 m (4) 5 m 115. partly in 5% and partly in 4% deposits. m (3) 750 cu.000. in how many hours will the tank be full? 3 (1) 9 hours 5 (2) 10 hours 1 1 hours (4) 9 hours 2 2 107. A path of uniform width and of area 360 sq. Find its volume. (1) 110 cu. cm (4) 4581 cu. Rs. m (4) 125 cu. If they got Rs. Three years ago the average age of a family of 5 members was 17 years. 237 (3) Rs.000 (3) Rs.

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139. 44. then 5 must represent (1) I (2) O (3) S (4) T 145. A cryptanalyst must translate into letters all of the digits included in the following two lines of 9 symbols each : 9 2 3 2 3 3 4 3 5 4 6 4 6 5 6 7 7 8 The cryptanalyst has already determined some of the rules governing the decoding : (i) Each of the digits from 2 to 9 represents exactly one of the eight letters A. 35. 15. R. 9.5 138. 4. it must represent which of the following? (1) E (2) I (3) O (4) U 147. _________ (1) 19 (3) 18 135. (ii) If a digit occurs more than once. 24. If 2 represents R and 7 represents A. 8. If 8 represents a vowel. 54. 64. 8. (1) IARUPJ (3) BMMIAU Directions : For Questions 144 to 147. I. 27. Consider the following information. Which of the following is a possible decoding of the five-digit message 46536? (1) O-T-A-E-T (2) O-T-E-U-T (3) O-O-S-E-O (4) T-O-I-E-T 146. (iii) The letter T and the letter O are each represented exactly 3 times. 36. 15. 9. and T and each letter is represented by exacly one of the digits. ________ (1) 22 (3) (24) 136. 60. (1) RETE (3) RSGSA 143. 144. O. 50. ________ (1) –40 (2) –256 (3) 20 (4) –276 134.5 (2) 36 (3) 10 (4) 4. 7. it represents the same letter on each occasion. 4. If 9 represents a vowel. 14. 3. (1) (2) (3) (4) TOYO HIALSM SNAAGRRI LIHED (2) NAUPKR (4) AANTP 141. 5. ________ (1) 92 (2) 77 (3) 100 (4) 75 137. 1. _________ (1) 45 (2) 48 (3) 59 (4) 42 (2) 23 (4) 25 (2) 31 (4) 30 Directions : For Questions 139 to 143. E. 3. (1) GEITR (3) MUTSP (2) EPRA (4) AEHCP (2) NALTP (4) NIOR (2) ABT (4) ALBL 140. 1. (v) The letter E is represented exactly four times. 15.133. U. ________ (1) 13. 18. 27. which of the following must represent a consonant ? (1) 4 (2) 5 (3) 7 (4) 9 64 . 3. S. –20. (iv) The letter I and the letter A are each represented exactly 2 times. Unscramble the letters in the following words and find the odd man out. (1) PEGAR (3) OOTTAP 142.

Hyderabad 158. V. Which of the following pairs of people can be in the same group as W? (1) R and Y (2) S and U (3) S and V (4) X and Z Directions : For Questions 157 to 160. two men—U and V. Cars. W (4) S. W. U. V. the nine people must divide into groups of three according to the following restrictions: (i) No adults of the same sex can be together in any group (ii) W cannot be in R’s goup (iii) X must be in a goup with S or U or both 151. Choose the correct alternative. X (3) S. For the game. Consider the following information. If HOT = IPU. S. Three women—R. which of the following must be together in one of the other groups? (1) R. they have a group of three adjacent seats in each section. If GOA = EMY. and four children — W. Trucks. Z 153. Z (4) T. Europe. If R is the only adult in one goup. 3 and 4 depicting different type of relationships among items. Australia (4) 65 . Y. V. who can be in the second and third groups. Planets. the other members of her group must be (1) W and Y (2) X and Y (3) X and Z (4) Y and Z 152. T. Andhra Pradesh. 154. 2. Sun (2) (3) 159. USA = (1) DAT (3) TUV 150. If R and U are two of the three people in the first group. Y and Z— are going to a game. W. COLD = (1) CPUI (2) RPME (2) DPME (4) STUV 149. W (1) 157. V. W (3) S. W. Y. each circle representing one item. U. X. V (2) R. T. India.Y and Z are in one group. Find out the figure that represents the relationship among items given in questions. Z (2) S. X. Y. Z. If DOG = GRJ. Automobiles 160. S.Directions : For Questions 148 to 150. irrespective of its size. Each of these questions has a set of 3 items with some sort of relationship among them. They have a total of nine seats for the game. W. Earth. respectively? (1) S. Any of the following pairs of people could be in X’s group except (1) R and U (2) S and T (3) S and U (4) S and W 156. Asia. Given below are four answers 1. S and T. CAT = (1) VRA (3) TXZ (4) SQY (2) RAP (2) TAC (4) FDW Directions : For Questions 151 to 156. T. but the seats are in three different sections of the arena. 148. Which of the following must be true? (1) One of the women is in a group with two children (2) One of the two men in is a group with W (3) R is in a group with a man (4) T’s group includes exactly one child 155. If T.

‘a’ is between ‘e’ and ‘c’. what will ‘North’ be called? (1) South (2) North-West (3) North-East (4) South-West 165. several sisters marry a single man. M only M and E 168. J. Choose the correct arrangement of letters as indicated by the number to make a word. 188. If E. 48. One of the numbers in the series is wrong. One of Q’s children may be (1) A (2) C (3) J (4) K 169. II. F. b. which would be a permissible marriage? (1) N and M marry E (2) N and M marry G and F (3) G marries E only (4) E marries G and F (2) M only (4) F III. C. K. (vii) No one has married more than once. Who is between ‘a’ and ‘f’? (1) e (2) c (3) b (4) d Directions : For Questions 166 to 170. c. If ‘South-East’ is called ‘East’. (vi) A and B are the only grandfathers of H. but not both Directions : For Questions 171 to 175. In ‘Prahtu’ marriage. (i) E is a son of A.Directions : For Questions 161 to 163. 398. M and N have a daughter. while in ‘Brihtu’ marriage. (iv) E. Q. ‘b’ is between ‘d’ and ‘c’. In a certain society. Consider the following information. Find out the wrong one. H. 20. M and N had not married. 166. ‘South-West’ is called ‘South’ and so on. Six persons a. e and f are standing in a circle. 1 A (1) (3) 163. 876 (1) 696 (3) 398 (2) 876 (4) 885 66 . d. Marriage between male and female children of the same parents is forbidden. Which of the following is an offspring of a ‘Brihtu’ marriage? (1) H (2) E (3) A (4) B 170. 1 E (1) (3) 2 3 4 5 6 W R S N E 213564 (2) 413256 154263 (4) 321546 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 O N R I A S N G 416728539 (2) 754132698 645723189 (4) 675489321 164. (v) E and F have the same paternal grandmother. and L are the only grandmothers of H. 2 (1) 188 (2) 48 (3) 8 (4) 20 172. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 H L N G E I S (1) 4671235 (2) 4536712 (3) 5342671 (4) 3672415 162. 92. 171. only two forms of marriage are recognized. 161. followed by four choices of arrangements of letters to make a word. 885. (iii) F is a daughter of C. 696. (ii) G is a daughter of B. 579. ‘f’ is to the right of ‘d’. G is a sister of (1) N only (3) E 167. All members of a given married group are regarded as the parents of any children of the marriage. 8. several brothers marry a single women. 380. You find below a set of letters with a number above each. F. M and F (1) I only (2) II only (3) III only (4) II ro III. ‘North-West’ is called ‘West’. all children were born in wedlock. N is a sibling of I.

56. 24. A Group of eight people is going camping in tents — tent 1. L and M. O. what will be the fourth letter to the right of the 13th letter from the left? (1) J (2) L (3) K (4) M Cirections : For Questions 181 to 186. 25. 221. 27. Consider the following information. 90. Which is the odd one out? 175. 48 (1) 24 (3) 27 (2) 36 (4) 48 174. 11. 4 (1) 221 (2) 109 (3) 46 (4) 11 (1) 177. Which of the following can be in tent 1? (1) L (2) M (3) O (4) X 182. (iv) K. will be in a tent together. If English alphabets are written in reverse order. 46. If the first day of the year (other than the leap year) was Friday. (ii) V will be in tent 1. Which is the one that doesn’t belong to that group? (1) 21 (2) 63 (3) 39 (4) 83 179. which was the last day of that year? (1) Saturday (2) Sunday (3) Monday (4) Friday 180. The group consists of two women — V and X — and six girls — K. (iii) V will not be in a tent with her daughter O. 109. 110.173. tent 2. who are close friends. If K is in tent 2. and X will not be in a tent with her daughter P. which of the following must be true? (1) M is in tent 3 (2) O is in tent 3 (3) P is in tent 2 (4) T is in tent 1 67 . Complete the series (2) (3) (4) ? (1) (2) (3) (4) 178. Three of the following four are alike in a certain way and so form a group. 12. 445. L. 150 (1) 72 (2) 110 (3) 132 (4) 150 176. 181. Tent assignments will be made as follows: (1) There will be no more than three persons in a tent. and tent 3. 36. P and T. 132. M. 72.

CHANNELLING (1) CHAIN (2) NAIL (3) LONG (4) LICE Directions : For Questions 197 to 200. 194. 8. 4. What is the missing number ? (1) 258 (2) 255 (3) 256 (4) 264 198. If the sequence is reversed (i. 131072. 16. the 3rd and 4th. (1) DEGJ (3) LNPS 191. Pointing to a photograph of a girl. Consider the following series. Who among them is the tallest? (1) Manish (2) Pushpa (3) Namita (4) Nageena Directions : For Questions 189 to 193.183. In each of these questions a word has been given followed by four other words. 65536. RESPECTABILITY (1) REPEAT (2) RESPECT (3) SPEAR (4) INSECT 196. 5000. 16384. Nageena is taller than Pushpa but not as tall as Manish. 2048. Rama is taller than namita but not as tall as Pushpa. and so on upto the 17th and 18th numbers are interchanged then what is the 13th number? (1) 8192 (2) 16384 (3) 65536 (4) 131072 200. T and X 186. one of which cannot be formed by using the letters of the given word. 2. If V and T are together in a tent. P and X (4) O. 8192. M and O (3) O. what is the eighth number from the right? (1) 512 (2) 256 (3) 5000 (4) 2048 68 . 262144 197. _______. If the 1st and 2nd. If L is in tent 3 and the two women are not in the same tent as each other. (1) HGIF (3) WVXU 190. descending order is maintained). which of the following is a pair of girls who must be together in a tent? (1) K and P (2) L and T (3) M and O (4) O and P 184. (1) HM21 (3) JP26 (2) NMOL (4) SRTP (2) XYAD (4) GHJM (2) NLJH (4) XVTR (2) HGKJ (4) DCHF (2) DR24 (4) LQ29 Directions : For Questions 194 to 196. If X is in tent 2. 189. Rajan said. it is possible that (1) K and P are together in a tent (2) O and T are together in a tent (3) O and X are the only people in tent 2 (4) P and X are the only people in tent 3 187. Find that word. The number which doesn’t belong to the series is (1) 5000 (2) 2048 (3) 8192 (4) 32768 199. 64 128. 32. 512. 32768. “She has no sisters or daughters but her mother is the only daughter of my mother. which of the following must be in the same tent as V? (1) K (2) L (3) O (4) P 185.” How is the girl in the photograph related with Rajan’s mother? (1) Sister-in-law (2) Grand-daughter (3) Daughter-in-law (4) Sister 188. INDUSTRIALIST (1) DUST (2) TRIAL (3) LIST (4) TRAINED 195. (1) NMQP (3) TSWV 193. 1024.e. (1) USQP (3) FDBZ 192. the people in tent 2 can be (1) X and T only (2) K. If the two women are together in a tent. Find the odd man out.

5. 6. . U. 3. 9. and Rajasthan Which of the following was not a centre of learning in ancient India? (1) Taxila (2) Vikramshila (3) Nalanda (4) Koushambi 14. 8.P. 17. 12. 18. SAARC declared the decade 1991-2000 as the Decede of (1) Youth (2) Family (3) Literacy (4) Girl Child Army Day is celebrated in India every year on (1) 1st January (2) 15th January (3) 1st February (4) 15th February The first Indian-American Woman to go into space was (1) Harbans Kaur (2) Kalpana Chawla (3) Jyotirmoyee Sikdar (4) Bachhendri Pal The main occupation of the people of Indus Valley Civilization was (1) Trade (2) Cattle rearing (3) Huntin (4) Agriculture The term ‘Golden Quadrangle’ refers to : (1) The base of the pyramids found in Egyptian Desert (2) Four sea-ports identified by the Customs department which are routes for gold smuggling (3) National Highways Development Project connecting the four Indian metro-cities (4) Rich contiguous wheat growing areas of Punjab. 16. Haryana. 10. 11. 15. 7. 4.OPENMAT (XII) ENTRANCE TEST FOR MANAGEMENT PROGRAMMES 2003 TEST I GENERAL AWARENESS 1. Subramaniam (2) Grameen Bank of Bangladesh (3) Satish Dhawan (4) World Health Organisation Which of the following is not a part of vehicular pollution? (1) Sulphur dioxide (2) Nitrogen oxide (3) Carbon monoxide (4) Hydrogen peroxide The ‘World Environment Day’ is celebrated on (1) June 5th (2) June 4th (3) July 5th (4) July 4th The theme of the World Development Report 2001 is (1) From plan to market (2) Knowledge for development (3) Attacking poverty (4) The state in the changing world 69 13. The Indian National Army (INA) came into existence in 1943 in (1) Japan (2) Then Burma (3) Singapore (4) Then Malaya The Asian Games have been held in New Delhi (1) Once (2) Twice (3) Thrice (4) Four times The by (1) (2) (3) (4) Famous book ‘Anandmath’ has been authored Rabindranath Tagore Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyaya Sarojini Naidu Sri Aurobindo 2. Which of the following countries is not a member of the G-8 Group? (1) France (2) Italy (3) Spain (4) Germany Sariska and Ranthambhore are the reserves for which of the following animals? (1) Lion (2) Deer (3) Tiger (4) Bear Which Article of the Constitution of India gives precedence to constitutional provision over the laws made by the Union Parliament/Sate Legislatures? (1) 13 (2) 32 (3) 245 (4) 326 ‘APSARA’ is the name of India’s first (1) Nuclear Reactor (2) Helicopter (3) Ground Battle Tank (4) Railway Locomotive Which of the following countries has the second largest rail network in the world? (1) India (2) USA (3) Russia (4) China Gandhi Peace Prize for the year 2000 was awarded to the former President of South Africa along with (1) C.

21. Kriplani Which rock is formed by the deposits of animal shells and skeletons? (1) Sandstone (2) Limestone (3) Phyllite (4) Granite Which of the following pairs is mismatched? (1) Mettur – Kaveri (2) Bhakra Nangal – Sutlej (3) Hirakud – Mahanadi (4) Tehri – Yamuna Which part of the islands in the Arabian Sea is known as Minicoy Islands? (1) Northern (2) Eastern (3) Southern (4) Western Tropical evergreen forests of India are found in (1) Kerala (2) andhra Pradesh (3) Madhya Pradesh (4) Orissa 26. In fact. ‘Charak’ was the famous court physician of (1) Harsha (2) Chandragupta Maurya (3) Ashoka (4) Kanishka Who among the following Congress leaders was called the ‘Grand Old man of India’? (1) Mahatma Gandhi (2) Bal Gangadhar Tilak (3) Dadabhai Naoroji (4) M adan Mohan Malviya The President of the Drafting Committee of the Indian Constitution was (1) Dr. Read the two passages given below carefully. The General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT) has been signed. in fact. 25. it has marginal surpluses. Rajendra Prasad (4) J. B. and make use of private trade (both domestic and foreign) as an important instrument for efficiently allocating her resources as well as providing food security to her people at the lowest economic cost. Answer the questions by selecting the best alternative from among those given in the questions.000 of population (4) 1. this is an appropriate opportunity for India to integrate its agriculture with global agriculture. has changed dramatically over the years.R.B. From being the biggest recipient of PL 480 aid during the 1950s and 1960s. Ambedkar (2) Jawahar Lal Nehru (3) Dr. 30. to be recognised as a national party.000 of population Fundamental Duties were incorporated in the India Constitution in (1) 1971 (2) 1972 (3) 1975 (4) 1976 In India. 22. 23. 000 of ppulation (3) 10. a party must secure at least (1) 10% of the valid votes in four or more states (2) 4% of the valid votes in four or more states (3) 15% of the valid votes in two states (4) 25% of the valid votes in one state In which year were the first general elections held in India? (1) 1947–48 (2) 1948–49 (3) 1950–51 (4) 1951–52 27. once characterised by chronic shortages and the spectre of famines. 28. 29.19. Passage I India has come a long way since the Bengal Famine of 1943.00. Each passage is followed by questions based on the contents of the passage. TEST II English Language Directions : For Questions 31 to 45. 70 . It is. India today is relatively self-sufficient in foodgrains at the given level of incomes and prices. with India as one of the signatories. The time to change gears in food policy has come. neigher feasible nor desirable to keep India’s foodgrains sector insulated from world markets. under which all countries will have to gradually open up their agricultural sectors. therefore. G-15 is (1) an organisation of the developed countries of the world (2) an organisation of the developing countries of the world (3) an organisation of the developed countries of Europe (4) an organisation of developing countries of Asia The birth-rate measures the number of births during a year per (1) 100 of population (2) 1. 24. 20. The food situation in India.

This can be done by augmenting production. offering foodgrains at lower cost and offering economic support for maintaining low cost C. 31. it created public agencies to do the job along with private trade. Since foodgrains have the largest share in the food basket of the poor in a developing country like India. B and C By saying Indian policy makers have followed a mix of both options it means that (1) production and distribution both have public and private participation (2) production is largely in private hands while distribution is only through public means (3) for production. 36. food at affordable prices could be made available to the poor by A. thus creating a dual market structure. 37. This can be best obtained by adopting a cost effective technology in production so that the real price of foodgrains come down and more people have access to it. Indian policy makers have followed a mix of both these options. If private agencies are to be entrusted with the task of making foodgrains available to people. in a broader context. the Government can directly subsidise food for the poor. For production. socialistic but closed economy (3) a very practical and pragmatic approach to guard our economy (4) stable international relations According to the author. India has ‘come a long way’ means (1) many years have passed after the Bengal famine (2) the food position in India is now vastly improved (3) India now handles such problems under PL-480 scheme (4) India has advanced in science and technology Which of the following views regarding GATT. therefore. In case it still fails to reach the larger sections of the population. There are several ways of achieving these targets. it is the availability of foodgrains that lies at the heart of the concept of food security. traders trade/import and make it available to consumers far and wide. 33. importer and trader itself.Food security. raising the earnings of the poor (1) only A (2) only B and C (3) only A and C (4) A. or through imports and transportation of grains to people wherever they are. . or try a combination of the two strategies. means that people have physical and economic access to food. India has followed both these policies. 35. Providing economic access to food is the second part of the concept of food security. the Government follows policies that provide appropriate market signals while in the latter. The first step in this direction. In the former case. it acts as producer. to insulate our foodgrains sector (3) India should have agreed to GATT excluding the agricultural sector (4) India should hand over the issue of foodgrains security to the private sector According to the author. they have relied on the farmers while the Government has retained control over imports. is to make foodgrains physically available to the people. launch a drive to augment their incomes. does the author seem to be advocating? (1) India should seize the chance and make efforts to fulfil its objectives (2) India should not have signed it. why is it necessary to en sure food security to people? (1) In order to sustain economic growth (2) As per the PL-480 guidelines (3) In order to be able to export foodgrains (4) The passage makes no such assertion 34. One may rely on private entrepreneurship by letting the individual farmers produce. what facilitative role should the Government undertake? (1) Nationalise all distribution systems (2) Make policies that give the right signals to the market (3) Take responsibility of distribution (4) Make efforts to increase the income of the farmers The author of the passage seems to advocate (1) liberalisation and privatisation (2) state controlled. reliance has been on the private sector while both public and private agencies are mobilised for distribution (4) production and distribution are both private endeavours 32. reducing the cost of production of foodgrains by using appropriate technology B. Which of the following forms the most essential part of the concept of food security in India? (1) Availability of affordable technology of food production to poor farmers (2) Availability of all foodgrains in the market for the rural poor (3) Easy access of foodgrains to the weaker sections at affordable prices (4) Providing subsidies on all food items for the rural poor 71 38. For distribution. or the Government may directly intervene in the production and/or the trade process.

When a Congress Government in Delhi was confronted with non-Congress parties in office in the States. Although the British retained supreme authority in India until 1947. they were conscious of the need to initiate economic development and undertake social reforms. The rights granted to the States created new problems for the Central Government. the first. but as nationalists who had led a struggle against the alien on behalf of all parts of India. After Independence. The idea of making Hindi the national language of a united India was thwarted by the recalcitrance of the speakers of other important Indian languages. which had rebelled not only against the British Raj but also against India’s old social order. Which of the following statements is not true in the context of the passage? (1) The Congress party was originally opposed to the idea of division of states on linguistic basis (2) Economic development and social reform were initiated soon after Independence (3) The political elite in India rebelled against the British Raj (4) The Congress leadership was full conscious of the problems arising out of ethnic diversity in India at the time of Independence 44. The Congress leadership was more aware of the former problem than of the second. according to the passage. according to the passage. so that the new government could start with effective instrument of central control. and the autonomy of the States rendered central economic planning extremely difficult. was an exercise in democratic practice in India before Independence? (1) The handing over of power by the British (2) The Indianisation of the Indian Civil Service (3) The conduct of provincial elections in 1937 (4) Several democratic institutions created by the India National Congress 72 41. which were bound to be accentuated rather than diminished as the popular masses were more and more drawn into politics.Passage II The strength of Indian democracy lies in its tradition. which often cut across linguistic boundaries. however. The new government could start with effective instrument of central control because the (1) process of Indianisation of the Indian Civil Service had already begun (2) Indian army was organised on the pattern of the British army (3) people of India offered their wholehearted support to the Government (4) transfer of power to the Indian Congress Party was peaceful Why. as a new political elite. The Congress Party was origninally opposed to the idea of recognizing any division of India on a linguistic basis and preferred to retain the old provinces of British India. (1) opposed (3) implemented 40. was central economic planning found to be difficult? (1) On account of multiplicity of States and Union Territories (2) On account of lack of coordination in different Government departments (3) On account of autonomy given to the States in certain matters (4) On account of lack of will in implementing land reforms Which of the following issues was not appropriately realised by the Central Government? (1) Ethnic diversity of the people (2) A national language for the country (3) Implementation of the formulated policies (4) Centre-State relations Which. India was not overrun or seriously invaded by the Japanese and after the war was over. they took the cohesion of the Indian nation too much for granted and underestimated the centrifugal forces of ethnic division. that of economic growth from a very low level of production and the second was that of ethnic diversity and the aspirations of subnationalities. Coordination of policies was difficult even when the Congress Party was in power both in the States and at the Centre. which was the characteristic of the Indian nationalist movement long before Independence. Choose the word which is most nearly the same in meaning as the word ‘thwarted’ as used in the passage. the transfer of power to a gevernment of the Indian Congress Party was a peaceful one as far as Britain was concerned. During the Pacific was. the privincial elections of 1937 provided real exercise in democratic practice before national independence. (2) diverted (4) advocated 43. in the fusion of the ideas of democracy and national independece. By 1947 ‘Indianisation’ had already gone far in the India Civil Service and Army. . India was faced with two problems. it was only in response to strong pressures from below that the principle of linguistic states was conceded as the basis for a federal ‘Indian Union’. Land reforms remained under the control of the States and many large scale economic projects required a degree of cooperation between the Central Government and one or more of the States which it was found impossible to achieve. 42. 39. in became much harder.

These questions consist of a capitalized word followed by four alternatives. which when inserted in the sentence best fit the meaning of the sentence. 48. 53. From the given alternatives. Select from among the given alternatives. Why was India not overrun by Japan during the Pacific war? (1) Japan was friendly with the British (2) Japan was interested in India’s freedom (3) Japan was doubtful about the success of such attack (4) The passage does not offer any information in this regard Directions : For Questions 46 to 50. misunderstood 73 58. award (4) confiscatory. cancel (2) pressure. TURPITUDE (1) amplitude (3) virtue SEDULOUS (1) indolent (3) vindicative REPROGRADE (1) inclining (3) evaluating (2) activity (4) calmness 54. FEIGN (1) to pretend (3) congratulate SEDITIOUS (1) impure (3) seriously injured GLEAN (1) to shine (3) glide (2) faint (4) glow 49. (2) rash (4) remote (2) guiledess (4) upright 55. delay (3) offensive. not always used ______. enjoyable Your ____________ tactics may comple me to ___________ the contract as the job must be finished on time. analyzed (3) innovatively. choose the one that is most similar in meaning to the capitalized word. (1) precedent. Chosse the words or set of words from among the alternatives given. (2) gather (2) awkward (4) hardy Directions : For questions 51 to 55. a complex activity. like any other human endeavour. PROVIDENT (1) unholy (3) miserable PERNICIOUS (1) practical (3) harmless (4) directing 52. Each of the questions below consists of a sentence with one or two blank spaces.45. sanguine (4) acclaimed. overoptimistic mood as out of keeping with the novel’s more _______ tone. Each of these questions consists of a capitalised word followed by four alternatives. (1) mistakenly. (1) applauded. 56. the word which is most nearly opposite in meaning to the capitalized word. (2) progressing (2) comparative (4) tangible Directions : For Questions 56 to 60. subject to error. 59. If you are seeking a ___________ that will resolve all our ailments you are undertaking an _________ task. acerbic (3) denounced. 46. sombre (2) decried. (1) dilatory. (2) exacting (4) trusted (2) inactive (4) rebellious 50. Each sentence is followed by four alternative sets of words. . Critics of the movie version of The Colour Purple ______ its saccharine. positive Measurement is. derided (2) erratically. impossible (3) direction. refined (4) properly. and frequently misinterpreted and _______. awkward (2) panacea. VAUNTED (1) belittled (3) highly publicized MALADROIT (1) impossible (2) sluggish (4) glorify 47. hasten 57. 51. awesome (4) continuance.

(1) (2) (3) (4) Sodium chloride dissolves in water and so is salt. perhaps I can get away in a dark suit. 68. 71. (1) (2) (3) (4) Even as a young boy. (1) negate (3) cancel (1) (2) (3) (4) homily sermon admonition serious warning (2) nether (4) deny 67. (1) new prank (2) flighty conduct (3) current exit (4) innovative escape The police immediately restrained and handcuffed the prisoner so that he could not escape. (1) (2) (3) (4) 62. 74 . Each of these questions has a sentence with a highlighted phrase which can be correctly substituted by one of the alternative choices that follow the sentence. 64. missionaries (2) wisdom. Michael Corleone is unwilling to expse his wife and children to the sordid and unwholesome side of his life as a mafia don. 66. (1) arrested (2) detained (3) manacled (4) quarantined The foul smells began to fill her with disgust. In each of the following sentences four words or phrases have been underlined. you must respect and fear him at all times. pragmatists (3) culture. Find the odd man out among each of the following.60. students Directions : For Questions 61 to 65. 63. He offered to drive her to the airport for a very small fee. (1) exciting (2) seamy (3) unlawful (4) breathtaking 72. (1) overpower her (2) nauseate her (3) throttle her (4) asphyxiate her 74. We need more men of ___________ and enlightenment. (1) (2) (3) (4) The printing press is one of man’s cleverest invention. The headmaster could not regard this latest escapde as a boyish joke and expelled the young man. without changing the meaning of the sentence. (1) replicate (3) impersonate (1) renounce (3) abandon (1) muted (3) muffled (2) duplicate (4) reproduce (2) denounce (4) disown (2) maimed (4) toned down 69. he has lacked the incination to go outdoors and play. Choose the underlined word or phrase that has been used inappropriately. 70. Choose the alternative which can most appropriately substitute the highlighted phrase. 73. (1) (2) (3) (4) I have no formal clothes for this occasion. 65. 61. Directions : For Questions 71 to 75. 75. philistines (4) valour. (1) courage. He is a doubtful opponent. we have too many ___________ among us. (1) a nominal (2) a wholesome (3) an appropriate (4) an ordinary As the Godfather. Directions : For Questions 66 to 70.

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A train travels at an average speed of 50 miles per hour for 2 1 hours and then travels at a speed of 70 2 1 2 m n 1 hours. S(3. to do the same job? (1) 4 (3) 4 1 hours 9 4 hours 9 102. A b C (1) ab (3) cab D b E a B c (2) (4) 4 4 2 hours 9 5 hours 9 96. Which of the following is the largest? (2) 5. A club has 20 members. How far did the train 2 travel in the entire 4 hours? (1) 200 miles (2) 120 miles (3) 230 miles (4) 150 miles miles per hour for 1 (1) 60o (3) 45o (2) 30o (4) 75o 95. 16. 4. 4)) =? (1) –40 () – 7 (3) 40 (4) 49 105. ________? (1) 36 (2) 49 (3) 64 (4) 81 92.5 inches (4) 30 inches 103.5 (3) 12. (2) 12 (4) 10 If m is proportional to na and m = 5 when n = 4. How man different outcomes of the election are possible? (1) 300 (2) 380 (2) 200 (4) 280 4 10 Find x if = 5 x 97. 25. What is the perimeter of a regular pentagon whose sides are 6 inches long? (1) 18 inches (2) 24 inches (3) 27. 2 93. Worker A takes 8 hours to do a job. They are electing a president and a vice-president. but independently. what is the value of m when n = 18? (1) 20 (2) 22.5 (3) 24. a 99. Given that x and y are real numbers let S(x. – 2 (4) − 7. How long should it take worker A and worker B working together. What is the eighth term of the sequence 1. How far will a wheel of radius 2 ft travel in 500 revolutions? (Assume the wheel does not slip) (1) 1000 þ ft (2) 1500 þ ft (3) 500 þ ft (4) 2000 þ ft 104. 9. 7 (1) (3) 13 16 31 40 (2) (4) 7 8 63 80 (3) – 5. Their comHow much does Shyam (2) 175 kg (4) 125 kg 101. weight? (1) 150 kg (3) 200 kg than Shyam. Worker B takes 10 hours to do the same job. how many degrees is angle 2? 94. y) = x2 – y2.5 (2) ab2 (4) b  b a +  2  76 . If m and n are two parallel lines and angle 1 is 60o.5 (4) 26. Then S(3. 7 10 . (1) 10. Ram weighs 25 kg more bined weight is 325 kg. 100.5 98. (2a + 3a2 – 4)–2 (4a2 – 2) (a + 4)) = ? (1) – 5a2 + 6a + 12 (2) 5a2 + 6a + 12 (3) – 5a2 – 6a – 12 (4) 5a2 – 6a – 12 Find a if a a − 3 = (1) 7. What is the area of the figure below? ABCD is a rectangle and BDE is an isosceles right triangle.91.

0009 (3) 0. SP = Rs.289 =? 0.04 (2) 0. 2500. 500 (4) Rs.05 × 0. I miss a train by 2 munutes.4 (1) 0. 550 (3) Rs. If however I walk at 4 kmph.106.04 × 0. 114. 4800.41 121. In 2000 the cost of that type of oven is Rs.7 11 17 110 (2) 17 11 170 11 (3) (4) 116.05 × 0.05 × 0. If y = 3 then is equal to x2 2 115.1 (4) 3. 450.2 (3) 10 5 (2) 2 5 (4) 5 5 (2) 4 km 5 122. What is the least number which must be subtracted from 10420 to make it a perfect square? (1) 219 (2) 200 (3) 189 (3) 16 118. If I walk at 3 kmph.5 (3) 3 (4) 5 112.5.16 =? 0.05 − 0.04 × 0. In 1997 a new oven cost Rs.5 (2) 3.3 (2) 4. Wha is the percentage increase between 1997 and 2000? (1) 92 (2) 152 (3) 192 (4) 52 108. 0.05 × 0. What is the value of the following expression? 0.04 + 0. 216 (4) Rs. (1) 3 4 21 128 (2) 15 32 15 16 (3) (4) (1) 0. If gain = 10%. If x + y = 6 and 3 x – y = 4 then x – y is equal to (1) – 1 (2) 0 (3) 2 (4) 4 x 2 y 109. 525 3 1 3 + of =? 8 2 16 120. 0.09 (2) 0. 5 1 3 × * = 20 * 4 (1) 3. 180 (3) Rs. 80000 is equivalent to which of the following? (1) 23 ¥ 105 (2) 0.8 10 6 8 10 6 (3) 8 × 106 (4) 119. 2000 earn in 18 months at an annual rate of 6%? (1) Rs.2 ¥ 0.00121 (1) 1 . SP = ? (1) Rs.01 (4) 0.02 0.1 (3) 5. 1800 111. loss = 10%. Supply the missing figures. the sum of the numbers divided by 32 is (1) 4.04 0. If the average of 6 numbers is 4.04 × 0.3 (1) (3) 4 9 3 2 (2) (4) 2 3 9 4 117.23 ¥ 107 (4) 24 ¥ 58 (4) 1 km (3) 22 ¥ 204 77 . How much simple interest will Rs. How far do I walk to rach the station? (1) (3) 3 km 4 5 km 4 0.05 × 0. 120 (2) Rs.002 = ? (1) 8 10 5 110. The product of (a + b) (a2 – ab + b2) is (1) a3 + b3 (2) a3 – b3 3 (3) (a + b) (4) (a – b)3 113. I reach the station 2 munutes before the arrival of the train. If 2x + y = 5 then 4x + 2y is equal to (1) 5 (2) 8 (3) 9 (4) 10 107. The fractions below are in their lowest terms. 475 (2) Rs.

) 0 – 4.000 (3) 6. which of the following statements is true? (1) 0 < X < 4. 200 (4) Rs.000. consider the following information. 7. 100 tax. 80 (2) Rs. 000 – 8.000 80 + 3% of income over 6. Town X has a population of 50. 000 < X < 6. 700 per year.000 pays what percent of his or her income on taxes approximately? (1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4 126.700) (1) Rs. S and V – will be travelling in a van with five children – F.000 220 + 5% of income over 10.50. 210 TEST IV Reasoning Directions : For Questions 131 to 134. J and V (3) F.000 < X < 10.000 470 + 6% of income over 15.125 (3) Rs. (iii) J must sit immediately beside M. How much does each boy get? (1) Rs. L and S . 150 (4) Rs.000.000 10. What is the total amount paid in taxes by the people of town X? (Assume each person pays tax on Rs. cms? 1 125. 180 (3) Rs. Which of the following groups of three can sit together on a bench? (1) F. H. 29. 2 5 × 92 =? 8 2 × 35 1 6 3 2 2 3 1 8 (1) (2) (3) (4) (1) 2a a2 2 (2) 2 a2 4 (3) (4) Directions : For Questions 126 to 130. A person whose income is Rs. 37 (2) Rs.000 (2) 4.85. 3. How much tax is due on an income of Rs. 45 (4) Rs. The van has a driver’s seat and one passenger seat in the front. The average income of a person who lives in town X is Rs. Vibha paid Rs. (ii) Either R or S must sit in the driver’s seat. 000 – 50. The length of the diagonal of a square is ‘a’ cms.000 (4) 8.000.000 8. Rs. Everyone must sit in a seat or on a bench.000 128.000 129. Your income for a year is Rs. J. 1.000 1070 + 7% of income over 25. You receive a raise so that next year your income will be Rs.000 6. and two benches behind the front seats. How much more will you pay in taxes next year if the tax rate remains the same? (1) Rs.) 1 % of income 40 + 2% of income over 4.700 (3) Rs.000 – 15.000 140 + 4% of income over 8.000 15. 10. 24 (2) Rs.000 – 10. a woman and boy are in the ratio of 3 : 2 : 1. 720 is divided between 2 men. 5 women and 8 boys so that the share of a man. I and M.000 (4) Rs. S and V (4) H.123. Which of the following represents the area of the square in sq. If X was her income. 225 127.500? (1) Rs. 3. and seating is subject to the followin restrictions : (i) An adult must sit on each bench. J and M (2) F.000 – 25. Each bench has room for exactly three people.000 25. 72 124.000 130. one bench behind the other. 30 (3) Rs. 18. Study the table given below and answer the questions 126 to 130. Income (Rs.000 Tax (Rs. There adults – Rs. 131. 26.000 4. 70 (2) Rs. 3. Which of the following can sit in the front passenger seat? (1) J (2) L (3) R (4) S 78 132.000 < X < 8.000 – 6.

If both S and T are to be members of a three-member panel. If F sits immediately beside V. which of the following must also be selected as a member of that panel? (1) K (2) L (3) P (4) Q 79 145. M. with M or with U. (iv) S cannot be on a panel with L. P and Q are selected as mumbers of a four-member panel and if T is not available to serve. 142. 139. four. Q. Q (2) R. then which of the following can be the third member of that panel? (1) L (2) M (3) P (4) R 144. A man starts walking in the morning facing the sun. The direction in which the man is moving now is (1) West (2) South (3) East (4) North Directions : For Questions 142 to 147. Q and R are all selected as members of a five-member panel. If R and S are both selected as members of a fourmember panel. which of the following must be true? (1) L sits in a seat or on a bench that is in front of where F is sitting (2) M sits on the same bench as V (3) F sits on the same bench as H (4) L sits on the same bench as S Directions : For Questions 135 to 138. (1) Belief (3) Deceit (2) Powder (4) Compel (2) Shield (4) Brief 141. (1) NVESU (3) NOMO 138. which of the following must be selected as the fifth member of that panel? (1) L (2) P (3) U (4) T 146. (1) EGERN (3) KADR (2) TERAH (4) RASM (2) DRE (4) RAGONE Directions : For Questions 139 – 140. Two nations. consider the following information. How many different. S. Q. T 143. the fourth member selected must be (1) K (2) L (3) M (4) R 147.133. and three neutral arbitrators – S. which of the following cannot be true? (1) H sits on the same bench as R (2) J sits immediately beside S (3) L sits immediately beside V (4) H sits in the front passenger seat 134. M. (v) R cannot be on a panel with L or with T. U (4) P. S. P. five or six members. 135. acceptable five-member panels can be formed if both S and R must be selected as members? (1) 1 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) 0 . Fontan and Gordia. If S. (1) HONRT (3) EWSN 136. The pool consists of the following : three Fontanian representatives – K. have agreed to submit any disputes that might arise between them to arbitration panels drawn from a pool of arbitrators. If K. Select the alternative which does not belong to the class of the other three. three Gordian representatives – P. (1) Million (3) Letter 140. P. (iii) Neither Fontanian nor Gordian representatives can make up more than half the number of members on a panel. T and U. T (3) P. (ii) At least one member of each panel must be neutral. Later he again turned to his left. Which of the following is a properly constituted panel? (1) L. L and M. R. (1) LOW (3) OWC (2) EWTS (4) ATES (2) ERTGI (4) ROSHE 137. Q and R. If S sits on a bench that is behind where J is sitting. he turned to his left. unscramble the letters in the following words and find the odd man out. After sometime. Each arbitration panel must be formed according to the following conditions : (i) A panel can have three.

9. 5.5. R and U (2) N and T. (ii) T must be in a conversational group that includes either S or W. 10. 5. 5. –5. Q. 18.5. 17. 42.5 (3) 14 (4) 15 (2) 36 (4) 21 Directions : For Questions 156 to 159. 13. –17______ (1) – 32 (2) – 34 (3) 34 (4) – 22 155. 23. 2. consider the following information. 160. Q. If. ______ (1) 32 (2) 37 (3) 41 (4) 28 149. In each of these questions a word has been given following four other words. T. 29. R. 148. S and U. During the party the following conditions are satisfied : (1) N can never be in the same conversational group as S. 3. 1. 4. three. 4. at a certain point during the party. ______ (1) 720 (2) 1080 (3) 1600 (4) 2160 151. If. whose other members include T Directions : For Questions 160 to 163. R and S. UNDERESTIMATED (1) ESTIMATE (3) EARTH (2) DIRT (4) TIMER 80 . _____ (1) 21 (2) 13. _____ (1) 16 (3) 108 152. 2. at a certain point during the party. S must at that that point be in a conversational group that includes (1) Q (2) R (3) T (4) W 158. 156. R and S. (iii) W must be in a conversational group that consists of exactly three persons. 14. Q. Q. 5. 3. a group of three persons and a group of four persons have formed and W is in the same conversational group as U. Which of the following lists three conversational groups that can exist at the same time during the party? (1) N and S. at that point N must be part of a group of exactly (1) two persons. At any time during the party. ______ (1) 866 (3) 53 (2) 84 (4) 66 (2) 58 (4) 145 154. 3. S. 8. 1296. 23. ______ (1) 62 (3) 65 153. whose other members is U (3) four persons. U and W (3) N and U. at a certain point during the party. 0. RECOMMENDATIONS (1) RAINS (2) MEANT (3) SOON (4) NURSE 161. but T cannot be in a conversational group with both S and W. one of which cannot be formed by using the letters of the given word that word. Find the number that comes next in the sequence. _____ (1) 30 (2) 28 (3) 29 (4) 33 150. each of the persons present is considered to be a member of exactly one of the conversational groups. 360. whose other member is T (2) two persons. T and W. U and W – are all the persons present at a party. 10.5. Seven persons – N. 3. who of the following must that point be in the group with W and U? (1) N (2) Q (3) R (4) S 159. 7.Directions : For Questions 148 to 155. T and W are members of three distinct conversational groups. 21. 1. 12. 7776. R and T 157. Q. 1. or four persons at a time. whose other members include S (4) four persons. – 15. T and W (4) N and W. If.5. one of the conversational groups consists only R and W. 6. 216. All of them join distinct conversational groups that form during the party and these consist of two. 72. R.

81 .

Dramatics and Computer Science? (1) S (2) P (3) M (4) A 183. It is possible that there are no members of committee Z. History and Dramatics? (1) M (2) P (3) A (3) S 180. Who is good in Physics. G. (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v) (vi) Nine people – F. M and N – are the only peopl who can serve on three committees designated X. Who is good in Computer Science. Physics. J. I. find the missing number. how many of the nine people must serve on committee Z? (1) 3 (2) 4 (3) 5 (4) 6 82 . Y and Z and each person must serve on exactly one of the committees. L. Drama is related to Director in the same way as Magazine is related to _________? (1) Reader (3) Editor (2) Printer (4) Story 177. If L and F are the only persons serving on committee Y. Computer Science and Mathematics? (1) A (2) M (3) N (4) P 179. Neigher L nor M nor N can serve on committee Z. History and Dramatics? (1) M (2) A (3) N (4) S 182. Who is good in Physics. 4 184. History and Mathematics. (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v) M and S are good in Dramatics and computer Science A and M are good in Computer Science and Physics A. the greatest number that can serve together on committee Z is (1) 9 (3) 7 (2) 8 (4) 6 186. 187. but not in Computer Science? (1) P (2) A (3) M (4) N 178. Neigher F nor G nor H can serve on committee X. K. Of the nine people. consider the following information. Neigher I nor J nor K can serve on committee Y. Who is good in Physics. Who is good in History. H. Three of the following four are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which one does not belong to that group? (1) Beam (3) Wall (2) Roof (4) House Directions : For Questions 184 and 185. 5 12 4 (1) 30 (3) 320 6 6 21 5 (2) 32 (4) 22 7 4 ? 10 7 (1) 12 (3) 11 4 (2) 10 (4) 0 0 8 185.Directions : For Questions 177 to 181. condider the following information. 5 0 6 7 8 1 6 11 0 ? 2 Directions : For Questions 186 to 191. P and N are good in Physics and History N and A are good in Physics and Mathematics P and S are good in History and Dramatics 181. Committee X must have exactly one more member than does committee Y.

which of the following must be a person who serves on committee X? (1) F (2) G (3) I (4) L 190. (iv) L must vote the same way that K does on all three bills. consider the following information. each of the ohter legislators must vote in favour of at least one bill and against at least one bill. H and I (4) I. K. 192. and find the last word of the sentence/ question. unscramble the letters in the following words. 195. H. each of which will be passed if at least four legislators vote in favour of it. M and H are the only persons serving on committee Y. J.188. the complete membership of committee Z must be (1) F and G (2) F and I (3) G and J (4) G and K 191. If N is the only person serving on committee Y. (iii) O must vote against bills 2 and 3. Which of the following cannot be true? (1) J and K vote in favour of the same bill (2) J and O vote in favour of the same bill (3) J votes in favour of one bill and against two bills (4) K votes in favour of two bills and against one bill 198. The maximum number of favourable votes that bill 2 could receive is (1) two (2) three (3) four (4) five 197. which of the following can be determined? (1) Bill 1 will be passed (2) Bill 1 will be defeated (3) Bill 2 will be passed (4) Bill 2 will be defeated 200. If M votes the same way that O does on all three bills. (1) AMEN (3) SI (4) ALET (2) HTAW (4) ROUY 193. which of the following must be among the legislators who vote in favour of it? (1) J (2) K (3) M (4) N 199. Which of the following must vote in favour of bill 1 ? (1) K (2) L (3) M (4) O 196. If none of the nine people serves on committee Z. J and K Directions : For Questions 192 to 194. (v) N must vote the same way that O does on all three bills. no abstentions are possible. The following is known : (i) H must vote against all three bills. (1) SI (3) ETH (2) REENG (4) RSASG (2) TI (3) SI 194. (1) OTO Directions : For Questions 195 to 200. L. (ii) J must vote against bill 1. Each legislator must vote on all three bills. N and O are the only legislators eligible to vote on bills 1. Which of the following groups could constitute the membership of committee Z? (1) G and L (2) H and K (3) G. If K votes in favour of bills 2 and 3. which of the following can be determined? (1) Bill 1 will be passed (2) Bill 1 will be defeated (3) Bill 2 will be passed (4) Bill 3 will be passed 83 . Which of the following must serve on committee X? (1) L and M (2) J and K (3) J and L (4) K and M 189. If any bill is to be passed. 2 and 3. M. If L.

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