The SAT

®
Practice Booklet
Get ready for the SAT
®
and SAT Subject Tests

with ofcial practice
questions, test-taking approaches and more!
A little practice goes a long way.
Visit www.collegeboard.com/practice
2 SAT Practice Booklet
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Contents
The SAT ....................................................................................... 3
The Critical Reading Section ..................................................................3
The Mathematics Section .......................................................................9
The Writing Section ................................................................................ 17
SAT Subject Tests ..................................................................... 26
Literature .................................................................................................. 26
United States History ............................................................................ 29
World History ......................................................................................... 32
Mathematics Level 1 and Level 2 ........................................................ 35
Biology E/M .............................................................................................. 41
Chemistry .................................................................................................46
Physics ...................................................................................................... 50
Chinese with Listening .......................................................................... 55
French and French with Listening .......................................................60
German and German with Listening ................................................. 66
Modern Hebrew ...................................................................................... 71
Italian ......................................................................................................... 74
Japanese with Listening ........................................................................ 76
Korean with Listening ............................................................................ 78
Latin ........................................................................................................... 82
Spanish and Spanish with Listening ..................................................84
The College Board
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whose mission is to connect students to college success and
opportunity. Founded in 1900, the College Board is composed
of more than 5,600 schools, colleges, universities, and other
educational organizations. Each year, the College Board serves
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Placement Program® (AP®). The College Board is committed to
the principles of excellence and equity, and that commitment is
embodied in all of its programs, services, activities, and concerns.
For further information, visit www.collegeboard.com.
Who Is This Booklet For?
If you register for the SAT® on paper, you can use this book to get
familiar with the SAT and the SAT Subject Tests™. Remember,
if you have access to the Internet you can find everything in this
booklet and more at www.collegeboard.com.
Why Should You Take the SAT
®

and the SAT Subject Tests

?
Most colleges and universities in the United States accept and use
the SAT as part of the admissions process. Your SAT scores can
help connect you to the right colleges and discover scholarship
opportunities. Some colleges also recommend, and others require,
one or more SAT Subject Tests for admission or placement. Ask
your counselor for a This Is Your SAT brochure that explains general
information about the SAT and SAT Subject Tests.
How Can You Get Ready for the
Tests?
■ Take challenging classes, study hard, and read and write
outside of the classroom.
■ Take the PSAT/NMSQT® in your junior year.
■ Access free online practice tools, such as Skills Insight and
Question of the Day, on www.collegeboard.com/practice.
■ Take advantage of the lessons, practice questions and practice
exams in the Of cial SAT Online Course or the Of cial SAT
Study Guide™: Second Edition, and the Of cial Study Guide
for all SAT Subject Tests™.
■ Review the sample questions, test-taking approaches, and
directions in this booklet.
■ Take the of cial SAT practice test online and review the answer
explanations. If you don't have access to the Internet, ask your
counselor for a paper copy of the Of cial SAT Practice Test.
■ For SAT Subject Tests, see the recommended study methods
for each subject in this book and online.
Approaches to Taking the SAT and SAT Subject Tests
■ All questions count the same, so answer the easy questions
first. The easier questions are usually at the beginning of the
section, and the harder ones are at the end. The exception
is in the critical reading section of the SAT and SAT Subject
Tests with reading passages (Literature and foreign language
tests), where questions are ordered according to the logic and
organization of each passage.
■ Make educated guesses. You have a better chance of guessing
the right answer if you can rule out one or more answer
choices for multiple-choice questions.
■ Skip questions that you really can’t answer. No points are
deducted if an answer is left blank.
■ Limit your time on any one question. All questions are worth
the same number of points. If you need a lot of time to answer
a question, go on to the next one. Later, you may have time to
return to the question you skipped.
The SAT 3
■ Keep track of time. Don’t spend too much time on any group
of questions within a section.
■ Use your test booklet as scratch paper.
■ In your test booklet, mark the questions that you skipped
and to which you want to return. Mark your answers in the
correct column of your answer sheet. The answer sheet has
five circles for each question. In certain SAT Subject Tests,
some questions have only three or four possible answers.
■ Check your answer sheet to make sure you are placing your
answers correctly.
■ Always use a No. 2 pencil. All answer sheet circles must be
filled in darkly and completely with a No. 2 pencil. The SAT
essay must be written with a No. 2 pencil. Essays in pen will
receive a score of 0.
Know What to Expect
Use the information in this booklet and online to help you:
■ Know what to expect on test day. For details, see
www.collegeboard.com/sat and
www.collegeboard.com/subjecttests. Paper registrants
are qualified to receive paper practice tests; ask your
counselor for more information.
■ Know what to expect on your test. Study the descriptions of
the tests, directions, and sample questions in this booklet and
on collegeboard.com. For foreign language SAT Subject Tests
with Listening, ask your counselor for a copy of the practice
audio CD.
■ Review the equipment you need for each test. The SAT and
some SAT Subject Tests recommend or require that you use a
calculator. SAT Subject Tests with Listening also require you
to bring a CD player. For more information on what material is
approved for use on test day, please go to
www.collegeboard.com/student/testing/sat-calculator or
www.collegeboard.com/student/testing/sat-cdplayer or
ask for an SAT Paper Registration Guide from your counselor.
■ Become familiar with the test directions. Some sections, such
as the SAT mathematics section, and some tests, such as the
Subject Test in Chemistry, may have specialized directions. You
should become familiar with the question formats before you
take the test, so you’re not surprised or confused on test day.
The SAT
The SAT measures the skills you have learned in and outside of
the classroom and how well you can apply that knowledge. It
tests how you think, solve problems, and communicate. The test
is composed of three sections:
■ Critical reading, which has sentence completion and passage-
based reading questions.
■ Mathematics, which is based on the math that college-bound
students typically learn during their first three years of high
school.
■ Writing, which has multiple-choice questions and a written
essay.
You have 3 hours and 45 minutes to complete the entire test.
All multiple-choice questions are scored the same way: one point
for each correct answer, and one-quarter point subtracted for a
wrong answer. No points are subtracted for answers left blank.
The total score for each section is on a 200–800 scale.
The Critical Reading Section
The critical reading section gives you a chance to show how well
you understand what you read. This section has two types of
questions:
■ Sentence completions (19 questions)
■ Passage-based reading (48 questions)
Note: Calculators may not be on your desk or used on the
critical reading section of the SAT.
Approaches to the Critical Reading Section
■ Work on sentence completion questions first. They take less
time to answer than the passage-based reading questions.
■ The dif culty of sentence completion questions increases as
you move through the section.
■ Reading questions do not increase in dif culty from easy to
hard. Instead, they follow the logic of the passage.
■ The information you need to answer each reading question
is always in the passage(s). Reading carefully is the key to
finding the correct answer. Don’t be misled by an answer that
looks correct but is not supported by the actual text of the
passage(s).
■ Reading questions often include line numbers to help direct
you to the relevant part(s) of the passage. If one word or more
is quoted exactly from the passage, the line number(s) where
that quotation can be found will appear in the test question.
You may have to read some of the passage before or after the
quoted word(s), however, in order to find support for the best
answer to the question.
■ Do not jump from passage to passage. Stay with a passage
until you have answered as many questions as you can before
you proceed to the next passage.
■ In your test booklet, mark each question you don’t answer so
that you can easily go back to it later if you have time.
■ Remember that all questions are worth the same number of
points regardless of the type or dif culty.
Sentence Completions
Sentence completion questions measure your
■ knowledge of the m eanings of words;
■ ability to understand how the diferent parts of a sentence fit
together logically.
4 SAT Practice Booklet
Directions
Each sentence below has one or two blanks, each blank
indicating that something has been omitted. Beneath the
sentence are five words or sets of words labeled A through E.
Choose the word or set of words that, when inserted in the
sentence, best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.
Example:
Hoping to ------- the dispute, negotiators
proposed a compromise that they felt would
be ------- to both labor and management.
(A) enforce . . useful
(B) end . . divisive
(C) overcome . . unattractive
(D) extend . . satisfactory
(E) resolve . . acceptable
a b c d ,
Answering Sentence Completion Questions
One way to answer a sentence completion question with two
missing words is to focus first on just one of the two blanks. If one
of the words in an answer choice is logically wrong, then you can
eliminate the entire choice from consideration.
■ Look at the first blank in the above example. Would it make
sense to say that “negotiators” who have “proposed a
compromise” were hoping to enforce or extend the “dispute”?
No, so neither (A) nor (D) can be the correct answer.
■ Now you can focus on the second blank. Would the
“negotiators” have proposed a compromise that they
believed would be divisive or unattractive to “both labor and
management”? No, so (B) and (C) can be eliminated, and only
choice (E) remains.
■ Always check your answer by reading the entire sentence with
your choice filled in. Does it make sense to say, “Hoping to
resolve the dispute, the negotiators proposed a compromise
that they felt would be acceptable to both labor and
management”? Yes.
Correct answer: (E) / Dif culty level: Easy
Sample Questions
1. Because King Philip’s desire to make Spain the dominant
power in sixteenth-century Europe ran counter to
Queen Elizabeth’s insistence on autonomy for England,
------- was -------.
(A) reconciliation . . assured
(B) warfare . . avoidable
(C) ruination . . impossible
(D) conflict . . inevitable
(E) diplomacy . . simple
Be sure to look for key words and phrases as you read each
sentence. Words such as although, however, if, but, and since are
important to notice because they signal how the diferent parts
of a sentence are logically related to each other. Words such as
not and never are important because they indicate negation. In the
example above, the entire sentence hinges on a few key words:
“Because something ran counter to something else, blank was
blank.”
■ The word “because” indicates that the information in the first
part of the sentence (the part before the comma) explains
the reason for the situation described in the second part. The
first part states that what King Philip wanted (domination
for Spain) “ran counter to” what Queen Elizabeth wanted
(independence for England).
■ Given that there was such a fundamental disagreement
between the two monarchs, would reconciliation be assured?
Unlikely.
■ Would warfare be avoidable? Hardly; warfare might be
unavoidable.
■ Would ruination be impossible? No.
■ Would diplomacy be simple? Not necessarily.
■ Only choice (D) fits logically with the key words in the
sentence: Because what one person wanted ran counter to what
another person wanted, conflict was inevitable.
Correct answer: (D) / Dif culty level: Medium
2. There is no doubt that Larry is a genuine -------: he excels at
telling stories that fascinate his listeners.
(A) braggart (B) dilettante (C) pilferer
(D) prevaricator (E) raconteur
Some sentence completions contain a colon. This is a signal that
the words after the colon define or directly clarify what came
before. In this case, “he excels at telling stories that fascinate his
listeners” serves to define the word raconteur, choice (E). None
of the other words is directly defined by this clause.
■ A braggart may or may not excel at telling stories and may
actually annoy listeners.
■ A dilettante is someone who dabbles at a career or hobby and
so may not excel at anything.
■ A pilferer steals repeatedly, in small quantities; this has
nothing to do with storytelling.
The SAT 5
■ A prevaricator tells lies, but not necessarily in an
accomplished or fascinating way; and the sentence refers to
stories, not lies.
You should choose the word that best fits the meaning of the
sentence as a whole, and only choice (E) does so.
Correct answer: (E) / Dif culty level: Hard
Passage-Based Reading
The reading questions on the SAT measure your ability to read
and think carefully about several diferent passages ranging in
length from about 100 to about 850 words. Passages are taken
from a variety of fields, including the humanities, social studies,
natural sciences, and literary fiction. They vary in style and can
include narrative, argumentative, and expository elements. Some
selections consist of a pair of related passages on a shared issue
or theme; in some of the questions, you are asked to compare
and contrast these passages.
The following kinds of questions may be asked about a passage:
■ Vocabulary in Context: These questions ask you to determine
the meanings of words from their context in the reading
passage.
■ Literal Comprehension: These questions assess your
understanding of significant information directly stated in the
passage.
■ Extended Reasoning: These questions measure your ability
to synthesize and analyze information as well as to evaluate
the assumptions made and the techniques used by the author.
Most of the reading questions fall into this category. You
may be asked to identify cause and efect, make inferences,
recognize a main idea or an author’s tone, or follow the logic
of an analogy or an argument.
Answering Passage-Based Reading Questions
Following are samples of the kinds of reading passages and
questions that may appear on your test. For each set of sample
materials:
■ read the passage carefully;
■ decide on the best answer to each question;
■ read the explanation for the correct answer.
Some of the reading passages in the SAT are as short as a
paragraph or two, about 100 words in length. You will also find
one or more pairs of related short passages in each edition of the
test. Such material will be followed by one to five questions that
measure the same kinds of reading skills that are measured by
the questions following longer passages.
Directions
The passages below are followed by questions based on their
content; questions following a pair of related passages may
also be based on the relationship between the paired passages.
Answer the questions on the basis of what is stated or implied
in the passages and in any introductory material that may be
provided.
Sample Questions
Questions 3-4 are based on the following passage.
“Te rock was still wet. Te animal
was glistening, like it was still swimming,”
recalls Hou Xianguang. Hou discovered the
unusual fossil while surveying rocks as a
paleontology graduate student in 1984, near
the Chinese town of Chengjiang. “My teach-
ers always talked about the Burgess Shale
animals. It looked like one of them. My
hands began to shake.”
Hou had indeed found a Naraoia like
those from Canada. However, Hou’s animal
was 15 million years older than its Canadian
relatives.
Some questions ask you to recognize the meaning of a word as it is
used in the passage.
3. In line 4, “surveying” most nearly means
(A) calculating the value of
(B) examining comprehensively
(C) determining the boundaries of
(D) polling randomly
(E) conducting a statistical study of
The word “surveying” has a number of meanings, several of
which are included in the choices above. In the context of this
passage, however, only (B) makes sense. A student in the field
of “paleontology” is one who studies prehistoric life as recorded
in fossil remains. One of the activities of a paleontology student
would be to examine rocks carefully and “comprehensively”
while looking for fossils.
■ (A), (C), and (E) are incorrect because someone who studies
fossils would not calculate the “value” of rocks, or determine
the “boundaries” of rocks, or conduct a “statistical study” of
rocks.
■ (D) is wrong because “polling” rocks makes no sense at all.
Correct answer: (B) / Dif culty level: Easy
Line
5
10
6 SAT Practice Booklet
You may be asked to make an inference or draw a conclusion about a
statement made in the passage.
4. It can be inferred that Hou Xianguang’s “hands began to
shake” (line 9) because Hou was
(A) afraid that he might lose the fossil
(B) worried about the implications of his finding
(C) concerned that he might not get credit for his work
(D) uncertain about the authenticity of the fossil
(E) excited about the magnitude of his discovery
In the passage, Hou states that the fossil that he found “looked
like” certain other fossils that his “teachers always talked about.”
He understands almost immediately, therefore, the significance
of what he has found, and so (E) is the correct answer: Hou’s
hands were shaking because he was “excited about the
magnitude of his discovery.”
■ (A) is wrong because there is no suggestion that Hou was
“afraid that he might lose the fossil.”
■ (B) and (C) are wrong because the passage does not indicate
that Hou was “worried about” his discovery or “concerned
that he might not get credit.” The passage indicates only that
Hou recognized that he had found something valuable.
■ (D) is wrong because Hou’s immediate reaction is that
he thinks he has found an important fossil. The first two
sentences of the passage dramatize the discovery; it is Hou’s
excitement, not his uncertainty, that causes him to tremble.
Correct answer: (E) / Dif culty level: Easy
Questions 5-8 are based on the following passages.
These two passages were adapted from autobiographical works. In
the first, a playwright describes his first visit to a theater in the 1930s;
in the second, an eighteenth-century writer describes two visits to
theaters in London.
Passage 1
I experienced a shock when I saw a cur-
tain go up for the frst time. My mother had
taken me to see a play at the Schubert
Teater on Lenox Avenue in Harlem in New
York City. Here were living people talking to
one another inside a large ship whose deck
actually heaved up and down with the swells
of the sea. By this time I had been going to
the movies every Saturday afernoon
—Charlie Chaplin’s little comedies, adven-
ture serials, Westerns. Yet once you knew
how they worked, movies, unlike the stage,
lef the mind’s grasp of reality intact since
the happenings were not in the theater
where you sat. But to see the deck of the
ship in the theater moving up and down,
and people appearing at the top of a ladder
or disappearing through a door—where did
they come from and where did they go?
Obviously into and out of the real world of
Lenox Avenue. Tis was alarming.
And so I learned that there were two
kinds of reality, but that the stage was far
more real. As the play’s melodramatic story
developed, I began to feel anxious, for there
was a villain on board who had a bomb and
intended to blow everybody up. All over the
stage people were looking for him but he
appeared, furtive and silent, only when the
searchers were facing the other way. Tey
looked for him behind posts and boxes and
on top of beams, even afer the audience
had seen him jump into a barrel and pull
the lid over him. People were yelling, “He’s
in the barrel,” but the passengers were deaf.
What anguish! Te bomb would go of any
minute, and I kept clawing at my mother’s
arm, at the same time glancing at the the-
ater’s walls to make sure that the whole
thing was not really real. Te villain was
fnally caught, and we happily walked out
onto sunny Lenox Avenue, saved again.
Passage 2
I was six years old when I saw my frst
play at the Old Drury. Upon entering the
theater, the frst thing I beheld was the green
curtain that veiled a heaven to my imagina-
tion. What breathless anticipations I
endured! I had seen something like it in an
edition of Shakespeare, an illustration of the
tent scene with Diomede in Troilus and
Cressida. (A sight of that image can always
bring back in a measure the feeling of that
evening.) Te balconies at that time, full of
well-dressed men and women, projected
over the orchestra pit; and the pilasters*
reaching down were adorned with a glister-
ing substance resembling sugar candy. Te
orchestra lights at length rose. Once the bell
sounded. It was to ring out yet once again—
and, incapable of the anticipation, I reposed
my shut eyes in a sort of resignation upon
my mother’s lap. It rang the second time.
Te curtain drew up—and the play was
Artaxerxes! Here was the court of ancient
Persia. I took no proper interest in the
action going on, for I understood not its
import. Instead, all my feeling was absorbed
in vision. Gorgeous costumes, gardens,
palaces, princesses, passed before me. It was
all enchantment and a dream.
Afer the intervention of six or seven
years I again entered the doors of a theater.
Line
5
10
15
20
25
30
35
40
45
50
55
60
65
70
The SAT 7
Tat old Artaxerxes evening had never done
ringing in my fancy. I expected the same
feelings to come again with the same occa-
sion. But we difer from ourselves less at
sixty and sixteen, than the latter does from
six. In that interval what had I not lost! At
six I knew nothing, understood nothing,
discriminated nothing. I felt all, loved all,
wondered all. I could not tell how, but I had
lef the temple a devotee, and was returned a
rationalist. Te same things were there
materially; but the emblem, the reference,
was gone. Te green curtain was no longer a
veil, drawn between two worlds, the unfold-
ing of which was to bring back past ages, but
a certain quantity of green material, which
was to separate the audience for a given time
from certain of their fellows who were to
come forward and pretend those parts. Te
lights—the orchestra lights—came up a
clumsy machinery. Te frst ring, and the
second ring, was now but a trick of the
prompter’s bell. Te actors were men and
women painted. I thought the fault was in
them; but it was in myself, and the alteration
which those many centuries—those six
short years—had wrought in me.
* Pilasters are ornamental columns set into walls.
Following are four sample questions about this pair of related
passages. In the test, as many as 13 questions may appear with
a passage of this length. Some questions will focus on Passage
1, others will focus on Passage 2, and about half of the questions
following each pair of passages will focus on the relationships
between the passages.
Some questions require you to identify shared ideas or similarities
between the two related passages.
5. The authors of both passages describe
(A) a young person’s sense of wonder at first seeing a play
(B) a young person’s desire to become a playwright
(C) the similarities between plays and other art forms
(D) how one’s perception of the theater may develop over
time
(E) the experience of reading a play and then seeing it
performed
To answer this question, you have to figure out what these two
passages have in common. The subject of Passage 1 is
a child’s first visit to see a play performed in a theater, and how
captivated he was by the entire experience. Passage 2 describes
two diferent visits to the theater; at age six the child is entranced
by the spectacle of the performance, but “after the intervention
of six or seven years” the older and now more knowledgeable
child is not so impressed. (A) is the correct answer because all
of Passage 1 and the first half of Passage 2 describe “a young
person’s sense of wonder at first seeing a play.”
■ (B) is wrong; even though the introduction to these passages
reveals that one of the authors is a “playwright,” there
is no mention in either passage of a “desire to become a
playwright.”
■ (C) is wrong because Passage 1 mentions diferences rather
than “similarities” between plays and movies, and Passage
2 does not mention any “other art forms” at all.
■ (D) is wrong because only Passage 2 discusses “how one’s
perception of the theater may develop over time”—this
subject is unmentioned in Passage 1.
■ (E) is wrong because there is no reference in either passage to
“the experience of reading a play.”
Correct answer: (A) / Dif culty level: Easy
Some questions assess your comprehension of information that is
directly stated in a passage.
6. The “happenings” mentioned in line 14 refer to the
(A) work undertaken to produce a movie
(B) events occurring in the street outside the theater
(C) fantasies imagined by a child
(D) activity captured on the movie screen
(E) story unfolding on the stage
To answer this question correctly, you have to understand
lines 11–15, a rather complex sentence that makes an important
distinction in Passage 1. The author indicates that, unlike plays,
movies leave “the mind’s grasp of reality intact,” because the
“happenings” in a movie are not occurring in the actual theater.
Instead, images are projected on a screen in the theater. Thus
(D) is the correct answer; the word “happenings” refers to the
“activity captured on the movie screen.”
■ (A) and (B) are wrong because, when you insert them in place
of the word “happenings,” the sentence in lines 11–15 makes
no sense.
■ (C) is wrong; even if the movies being referred to include
“fantasies” in them, they are not “imagined by a child” but are
actually projected on the movie screen.
■ (E) is wrong because, in line 14, “happenings” refers to the
“story unfolding” in a movie, not “on the stage.”
Correct answer: (D) / Dif culty level: Medium
You may be asked to recognize the author’s tone or attitude in a
particular part of a passage, or in the passage as a whole.
7. In the final sentence of Passage 2 (“I thought . . . in me”), the
author expresses
(A) exultation (B) vindication (C) pleasure
(D) regret (E) guilt
Even though this question focuses on a single sentence, you must
understand the context in which the statement occurs in order
to determine the feeling expressed by the author. In the second
75
80
85
90
95
8 SAT Practice Booklet
is (E) because the entire first passage does indeed tell the story
of a particular “childhood experience”—a trip to the theater—
whereas the second passage describes two diferent trips to the
theater and how the “experience changed over time.”
■ (A) is wrong because there is neither bitterness nor
“detachment” in Passage 2. In fact, the first paragraph of
Passage 2 expresses excitement and “enchantment,” and the
second paragraph expresses disappointment and regret.
■ (B) is wrong because Passage 2 includes a great deal more
than just “the author’s reactions” to visiting the theater; most
of the second paragraph provides “further analysis” of what
had changed and why the reactions to the two visits were so
diferent.
■ (C) is wrong because it reverses the two narrative
approaches in this pair of passages. Passage 1 “maintains
a single point of view,” that of the youthful first-time
theatergoer, whereas the author of Passage 2 presents at least
two “diferent perspectives,” that of the enchanted six-year-
old and of the older child returning to the theater.
■ (D) is wrong because the author of Passage 1 does not find
his first visit to the theater “disturbing” in a negative way.
Although he feels “shock” when the curtain goes up and
anxiety during the play, these responses merely indicate how
efective and “real” the performance was for him. In the end,
the child and his mother walked “happily” out of the theater.
Correct answer: (E) / Dif culty level: Easy
paragraph of Passage 2, the author states that the experience
of attending a play at age 12 or 13 was much diferent than at
age 6. “The same things were there materially” in the theater,
but the older child knew much more than the younger one
about what was going on. Ironically, this increased knowledge
actually decreased the author’s pleasure in attending the play.
“In that interval what had I not lost!” the author exclaims in line
78. Where the younger child saw nobles in “the court of ancient
Persia,” the older child saw “men and women painted.” Thus the
final sentence of Passage 2 expresses “regret” concerning the
changes that “those many centuries—those six short years—had
wrought” in the author. (D) is the correct answer.
■ (A) and (C) are incorrect because the author does not feel
“exultation” about or take “pleasure” in the “alteration” that
has occurred; on the contrary, the author laments it.
■ (B) is incorrect because there is no expression of “vindication”
in the final sentence; the author is not trying to justify,
support, or defend the experiences described in the passage,
but rather to explain the changes that have occurred due to
the passing of time.
■ (E) is incorrect because, even though the final sentence
states that the “fault” was not in the actors but in the now
more knowledgeable child, the author feels no “guilt” about
the change. There is no way to avoid the passage of time
(and the learning that goes along with it). Aging is not the
child’s “fault,” but the loss of a youthful sense of wonder and
innocence can still cause regret.
Correct answer: (D) / Dif culty level: Hard
Some questions require you to determine and compare the primary
purpose or main idea expressed in each passage.
8. Which of the following best describes the diference between
Passages 1 and 2 ?
(A) Passage 1 remembers an event with fondness, while
Passage 2 recalls a similar event with bitter detachment
(B) Passage 1 considers why the author responded to the visit
as he did, while Passage 2 supplies the author’s reactions
without further analysis.
(C) Passage 1 relates a story from a number of diferent
perspectives, while Passage 2 maintains a single point of
view.
(D) Passage 1 treats the visit to the theater as a disturbing
episode in the author’s life, while Passage 2 describes the
author’s visit as joyful.
(E) Passage 1 recounts a childhood experience, while Passage 2
examines how a similar experience changed over time.
This question asks you to do two things: first, understand the
overall subject or purpose of each passage; second, recognize
an important “diference between” the two. The correct answer
The SAT 9
The Mathematics Section
The mathematics section of the SAT contains two types of
questions:
■ Standard multiple-choice (44 questions)
■ Student-produced response questions that provide no answer
choices (10 questions)
Some questions are like those you may have seen in your
mathematics courses. The ability to reason logically in a variety
of situations, some of which may be new to you, is tested
throughout.
Calculator Policy
We recommend that you bring a calculator to use on the
mathematics section of the SAT. Every question on the test can
be solved without a calculator, but you will have an advantage if
you use a scientific or graphing calculator on some questions.
Acceptable Calculators
Calculators permitted during testing are:
■ Graphing calculators
■ Scientific calculators
■ Four-function calculators (not recommended)
If you have a calculator with characters that are one inch or
higher, or if your calculator has a raised display that might be
visible to other test-takers, you will be seated at the discretion
of the test supervisor.
You will not be allowed to share calculators. You will be
dismissed and your scores will be canceled if you use your
calculator to share information during the test or to remove test
questions or answers from the test room.
Calculator Tips
■ Remember to bring your calculator to the test. Calculators
will not be available at the test center. You should be familiar
with how to use the calculator you bring to the test.
■ Make sure your calculator is in good working order and that
batteries are fresh. If your calculator fails during testing and
you have no backup, you’ll have to complete the test without
it (or cancel your scores on the entire test).
■ Don’t buy an expensive, sophisticated calculator just to
take the test. Although you can use them for the test, more
sophisticated calculators are not required for any problem.
■ Don’t try to use a calculator on every question. First, decide
how you will solve the problem, and then decide whether
to use the calculator. The calculator is meant to aid you in
problem solving, not to get in the way.
■ Get your thoughts down before using your calculator. It may
help to do scratch work in the test book.
■ Take the practice test with a calculator at hand. This will help
you determine how much you will probably use a calculator
the day of the test.
Unacceptable Calculators
The following calculators are not permitted:
■ Models that have a QWERTY (i.e., typewriter) keypad, either
as part of hardware or software (e.g, TI-92 Plus, Voyage 200)
■ Models that have pen-input, stylus*, or touch-screen
capability (e.g., Palm, PDAs, Casio ClassPad) or have wireless
or Bluetooth capability
■ Models that use paper tape, “talk” or make unusual noises, or
require an electrical outlet
■ Models that can access the Internet
■ Models that have cell phone capability or have audio/video
recording capability
■ Models that have a digital audio/video player or have a
camera
* The use of the stylus with the Sharp EL-9600 calculator is not
permitted.
Approaches to the Mathematics Section
■ Familiarize yourself with the directions ahead of time.
■ The test does not require you to memorize formulas.
Commonly used formulas are provided in the test book at
the beginning of each mathematics section. It is up to you
to decide which formula is appropriate.
■ Read the problem carefully. Note key words that tell you what
the problem is asking. Ask yourself the following questions
before you solve each problem: What is the question asking?
What do I know?
■ With some problems, it may be useful to draw a sketch or
diagram of the given information.
■ Use the test book for scratch work. You are not expected to
do all the reasoning and figuring in your head. You will not
receive credit for anything written in the booklet, but you will
be able to check your work easily later.
■ Decide when to use a calculator.
■ For multiple-choice questions, you may want to refer to the
answer choices before you determine your answer.
■ Eliminate choices. If you don’t know the correct answer to
a question, try some of the choices. It’s sometimes easier
to find the wrong answers than the correct one. On some
questions, you can eliminate all the incorrect choices.
■ Make sure your answer is a reasonable answer to the
question asked. This is especially true for student-produced
response questions, where no answer choices are given.
■ All figures are drawn to scale unless otherwise
indicated.
10 SAT Practice Booklet
Mathematics Topics on the SAT
Number and Operations (20–25%)
■ Arithmetic word problems (including percent, ratio, and
proportion)
■ Properties of integers (even, odd, prime numbers, divisibility,
etc.)
■ Rational numbers
■ Sets (union, intersection, elements)
■ Counting techniques
■ Sequences and series (including exponential growth)
■ Elementary number theory
Algebra and Functions (35–40%)
■ Substitution and simplifying algebraic expressions
■ Properties of exponents
■ Algebraic word problems
■ Solutions of linear equations and inequalities
■ Systems of equations and inequalities
■ Quadratic equations
■ Rational and radical equations
■ Equations of lines
■ Absolute value
■ Direct and inverse variation
■ Concepts of algebraic functions
■ Newly defined symbols based on commonly used operations
Geometry and Measurement (25–30%)
■ Area and perimeter of a polygon
■ Area and circumference of a circle
■ Volume of a box, cube, and cylinder
■ Pythagorean Theorem and special properties of isosceles,
equilateral, and right triangles
■ Properties of parallel and perpendicular lines
■ Coordinate geometry
■ Geometric visualization
■ Slope
• Similarity
■ Transformations
Data Analysis, Statistics, and Probability (10–15%)
■ Data interpretation (tables and graphs)
■ Descriptive statistics (mean, median, and mode)
■ Probability
For more information on the topics tested on the mathematics
section of the SAT please go to www.collegeboard.com/
practice.
The SAT 11
to use again. Most problems can be solved in a variety of ways,
so don’t be concerned if your method is diferent from the one
given. Note that the directions indicate that you are to select the
best of the choices given.
Multiple-Choice Questions
The questions that follow will give you an idea of the type of
mathematical thinking required to solve problems on the SAT.
First, try to answer each question yourself, and then read the
solutions that follow. These solutions may give you new insights
into solving the problems or point out techniques you’ll be able
Directions
For this section, solve each problem and decide which is the best of the choices given. Fill in the corresponding circle on the answer sheet.
You may use any available space for scratch work.
N
o
t
e
s
1. The use of a calculator is permitted.
2. All numbers used are real numbers.
3. Figures that accompany problems in this test are intended to provide information useful in solving the problems.
They are drawn as accurately as possible EXCEPT when it is stated in a specific problem that the figure is not
drawn to scale. All figures lie in a plane unless otherwise indicated.
4. Unless otherwise specified, the domain of any function f is assumed to be the set of all real numbers x for which
f (x) is a real number.
h
r
r
h
b
A = r
2
C = 2 r
A = bh V = wh
V = r
2
h
The number of degrees of arc in a circle is 360.
The sum of the measures in degrees of the angles of a triangle is 180.
b
a
c
c
2
= a
2
+ b
2
Special Right Triangles
x 3
2x
x
60°
30°
s
s
45°
45°
A = w
w
w
h
R
e
f
e
r
e
n
c
e

I
n
f
o
r
m
a
t
i
o
n
2 s
1
2
Sample Questions
Below are seven examples of standard multiple-choice questions.
Following each question, you will find one or two solutions.
1. A special lottery is to be held to select the student who will live
in the only deluxe room in a dormitory. There are 100 seniors,
150 juniors, and 200 sophomores who applied. Each senior’s
name is placed in the lottery 3 times; each junior’s name,
2 times; and each sophomore’s name, 1 time. If a student’s
name is chosen at random from the names in the lottery,
what is the probability that a senior’s name will be chosen?
(A) 
1
8

(B) 
2
9

(C) 
2
7
(D) 
3
8

(E) 
1
2
Correct answer: (D) / Dif culty level: Medium
To determine the probability that a senior’s name will be
chosen, you must determine the total number of seniors’
names that are in the lottery and divide this number by the total
number of names in the lottery. Since each senior’s name is
placed in the lottery 3 times, there are 3 100 300 × = seniors’
names. Likewise, there are 2 150 300 × = juniors’ names
and 1 200 200 × = sophomores’ names in the lottery. The
probability that a senior’s name will be chosen is
300
300 300 200
300
800
3
8 + +
= = .
12 SAT Practice Booklet
NOONTIME TEMPERATURES IN HILO, HAWAII
Mon. Tue. Wed. Thu. Fri. Sat. Sun.
66 78 75 69 78 77 70
2. The table above shows the temperatures at noon, in degrees
Fahrenheit, in a city in Hawaii over a one-week period. If m
represents the median of these temperatures, f represents
the temperature that occurred most often, and a represents
the average (arithmetic mean) of these seven temperatures,
which of the following is the correct order of m, f, and a ?
(A) a m f < <
(B) a f m < <
(C) m a f < <
(D) m f a < <
(E) a m f = <
Correct answer: (A) / Dif culty level: Medium
To determine the correct order of m, f, and a, it is helpful to
first place the seven temperatures in ascending order, as shown
below:
66 69 70 75 77 78 78
The median temperature is the middle temperature in the
ordered list, which is 75, so m = 75. The temperature that
occurred most often, or the mode, is 78, so f = 78. To determine
the average, you can add the seven numbers together and divide
by 7. However, you can determine the relationship between
the average and the median by inspection. The three numbers
greater than 75 are closer to 75 than are the three numbers
smaller than 75. Therefore, the average of the seven numbers will
be less than 75. The correct order of m, f, and a is a m f < < .
3. The projected sales volume of a video game cartridge is given
by the function s p
p a
( ) =
+
3000
2
, where s is the number of
cartridges sold, in thousands; p is the price per cartridge, in
dollars; and a is a constant. If according to the projections,
100,000 cartridges are sold at $10 per cartridge, how many
cartridges will be sold at $20 per cartridge?
(A) 20,000 (B) 50,000 (C) 60,000
(D) 150,000 (E) 200,000
Correct answer: (C) / Dif culty level: Medium
For 100,000 cartridges sold at $10 per cartridge, s = 100 (since
s is the number of cartridges sold, in thousands) and p = 10.
Substituting into the equation
yields 100
3000
2 10
=
( ) + a
. Solving this equation for a yields
100 20 3000
20 30
10
+ ( ) =
+ =
=
a
a
a
Since a is a constant, the function can be written as
s
p
p
( ) =
+
3000
2 10
. To determine how many cartridges will
be sold at $20 per cartridge, you need to evaluate
s 20
3000
2 20 10
60 ( ) =
( ) +
= . Since s is given in thousands,
there will be 60,000 cartridges sold at $20 per cartridge.
x
(1, 2)
y
O
4. In the xy-coordinate plane above, line contains the points
(0, 0) and (1, 2). If line m (not shown) contains the point (0, 0)
and is perpendicular to , what is an equation of m ?
(A) y x = −
1
2
(B) y x = − +
1
2
1
(C) y x = −
(D) y x = − + 2
(E) y x = − 2
Correct Answer: (A) / Dif culty level: Medium
Using the coordinates of the two points given on line ,

the
slope of is
2 0
1 0
2


= .
Line m, which is perpendicular
to , will have a slope of −
1
2
, since slopes of perpendicular lines
are negative reciprocals of each other. An equation
of m can be written as y x b = − +
1
2
. Since line m also
contains point (0, 0), it follows that b = 0. Therefore, an equation
of line m is y x = −
1
2
.
The SAT 13
Note: Figure not drawn to scale.
a b
c
5. If two sides of the triangle above have lengths 5 and 6, the
perimeter of the triangle could be which of the following?
I. 15
II. 20
III. 22
(A) I only (B) I and II only (C) I and III only
(D) II and III only (E) I, II, and III
Correct answer: (B) / Dif culty level: Hard
In questions of this type, statements I, II, and III should each be
considered independently of the others. In this question, you
must determine which of those statements could be true.
■ Statement I states that 15 could be the perimeter of the
triangle. This is true. If the perimeter of the triangle is 15, and
two sides have lengths 5 and 6, then the third side of the
triangle would have length 15 − (6 + 5), or 4. A triangle can
have side lengths of 4, 5, and 6. So the perimeter of the
triangle could be 15.
■ Similarly, statement II is true. If 20 is the perimeter of the
triangle, then the third side of the triangle would have length
20 – (6 + 5), or 9. A triangle can have side lengths of 5, 6, and
9. So the perimeter of the triangle could be 20.
■ Finally, consider whether the triangle could have a perimeter
of 22. In this case, the length of the third side would be
22 – (6 + 5) = 11. The triangle inequality states that the sum
of the lengths of any two sides of a triangle must be greater
than the length of the third side. Since the sum of 5 and 6 is
not greater than 11, it follows that 5, 6, and 11 cannot be the
lengths of the sides of a triangle, and so the given triangle
cannot have a perimeter of 22.
Therefore, the correct answer to the question is I and II only,
which is choice (B).
6. If x
x
x
x
m
> = 1
3
and , what is the value of m ?
(A) −
7
2
(B) −3 (C) −
5
2
(D) −2 (E) −
3
2

Correct answer: (C) / Dif culty level: Medium
Since x can be written as x
1
2
and
1
3
x
can be
written as x
−3
, the left side of the equation is
x x x x x
1
2
1
2
5
2
5
2
3
3
⋅ = =















− −
. Since == x
m
, the value
of m is −
5
2
.
7. If k is divisible by 2, 3, and 15, which of the following is also
divisible by these numbers?
(A) k + 5 (B) k + 15 (C) k + 20
(D) k + 30 (E) k + 45
Correct answer: (D) / Dif culty level: Medium
Since k is divisible by 2, 3, and 15, k must be a multiple of 30, as
30 is the least common multiple of 2, 3, and 15. Some multiples
of 30 are 0, 30, 60, 90, and 120.
■ If you add two multiples of 30, the sum will also be a multiple
of 30. For example, 60 and 90 are multiples of 30, and their sum,
150, is also a multiple of 30.
■ If you add a multiple of 30 to a number that is not a multiple
of 30, the sum will not be a multiple of 30. For example, 60
is a multiple of 30 and 45 is not. Their sum, 105, is not a
multiple of 30.
■ The question asks which answer choice is divisible by 2, 3,
and 15—that is, which answer choice is a multiple of 30. All
the answer choices are in the form of “k plus a number.” Only
choice (D), k + 30 , is the sum of k and a multiple of 30. The
sum of k and 30 is also a multiple of 30, so the correct answer
is choice (D).
14 SAT Practice Booklet
Student-Produced Response Questions
Questions of this type have no answer choices provided. Instead,
you must solve the problem and fill in your answer on a special
grid. Ten questions on the test will be of this type.
It is very important for you to understand the directions for
entering answers on the grid. You will lose valuable testing time
if you read the directions for the first time when you take the test.
A primary advantage of this format is that it allows you to enter
the form of the answer that you obtain, whether whole number,
decimal, or fraction. For example, if you obtain 2/5, you can grid
2/5. If you obtain .4, you can grid .4. Generally, you should grid
the form of the answer that you obtain naturally in solving the
problem. The grid will only hold numbers that range from 0 to
9999. Decimals and fractions can also be gridded.
■ Do your best to be certain of your answer before you grid
it. If you erase your answer, do so completely. Incomplete
erasures may be picked up by the scoring machines as
intended answers.
■ Check your work if your answer does not fit on the grid. If
you obtain a negative value, a value greater than 9999, or an
irrational number, you have made an error.
■ Make an educated guess if you don’t know the answer. On
student-produced response (grid-in) questions, you don’t lose
points for wrong answers.
■ Always enter your answer on the grid. Only answers entered
on the grid are scored. Your handwritten answer at the top of
the grid isn’t scored. However, writing your answer at the top
of the grid may help you avoid gridding errors.
Approaches to Student-Produced Response Questions
■ Decide in which column you want to begin gridding your
answers before the test starts. This strategy saves time. We
recommend that you grid the first (left-hand) column of the
grid or that you right-justify your answers.
■ If the answer is zero, grid it in column 2, 3, or 4. Zero has
been omitted from column 1 to encourage you to grid the
most accurate values for rounded answers. For example, an
answer of 1/8 could also be gridded as .125 but not as 0.12,
which is less accurate.
■ A fraction does not have to be reduced unless it will not fit
the grid. For example, 15/25 will not fit. You can grid 3/5,
6/10, or 9/15. The decimal form, .6, can also be gridded.
Each of the remaining questions requires you to solve the problem and enter your answer by marking the circles
in the special grid, as shown in the examples below. You may use any available space for scratch work.
Decimal Answers: If you obtain a decimal answer
with more digits than the grid can accommodate,
it may be either rounded or truncated, but it must
fill the entire grid. For example, if you obtain
an answer such as 0.6666..., you should record
your result as .666 or .667. A less accurate value
such as .66 or .67 will be scored as incorrect.
Acceptable ways to grid are:

2
3
Note: You may start your answers
in any column, space permitting.
Columns not needed should be left
blank.
Mark no more than one circle in any column.
Because the answer sheet will be machine-
scored, you will receive credit only if the circles
are filled in correctly.
Although not required, it is suggested that you
write your answer in the boxes at the top of the
columns to help you fill in the circles accurately.
Some problems may have more than one correct
answer. In such cases, grid only one answer.
No question has a negative answer.
Mixed numbers such as 3 must be gridded as
3.5 or 7 2. (If is gridded, it will be
interpreted as , not 3 .)
1
2
1
2
31
2






1
2
3
4
5
6
0
1
2
3
4
5
6
0
1
2
3
4
5
6
0
1
2
3
4
5
6
1
2
3
4
5
6
¥
0
1
2
3
4
5
0
1
2
3
4
5
0
1
2
3
4
5
1
2
3
4
5
6
¥
0
1
2
3
4
5
0
1
2
3
4
5
0
1
2
3
4
5
6
Answer: 2.5
Fraction
line Decimal
point
Write answer
in boxes.
Grid in
result.
Answer: 201
Either position is correct.
7
12
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
0
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
0
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
0
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
0
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
0
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
0
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
1
2
3
4
0
1
2
3
4
0
1
2
3
4
0
1
2
3
4
0
1
2
3
4
0
1
2
3
0
1
2
3
1
2
3
Answer:

Below are the actual directions that you will find on the test—read them carefully.
The SAT 15
9. For all positive integers a and b, let a ♦ b be
defined by a ♦ b
=
+

a
a
b
1
1
.
What is the value
of 4 ♦ 2?
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
0
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
0
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
0
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
7 1 3
/
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
0
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
0
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
0
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
6 5 6
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
0
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
0
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
0
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
7 5 6
The words “let a ♦ b be defined by” tell you that the symbol ♦ is
not supposed to represent a common mathematical operation
but one that is made up for this question. To evaluate 4 ♦ 2, you
substitute 4 for a and 2 for b in
the expression
a
a
b
+

1
1
. This gives
4 1
4 1
2
+

, which equals
17
3
.
The answer may be entered in the grid as 17/3 or as 5.66 or 5.67.
Dif culty level: Medium
10. Of the 6 courses ofered by the music department at her
college, Kay must choose exactly 2 of them. How many
diferent combinations of 2 courses are possible for Kay if
there are no restrictions on which 2 courses she can choose?
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
0
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
0
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
0
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9 9 9 9
5 1
There are 6 courses ofered; let us refer to them as 1, 2, 3, 4, 5,
and 6. One way to find the number of combinations is to list all
possible pairings. They are 1-2, 1-3, 1-4, 1-5, 1-6, 2-3, 2-4, 2-5,
2-6, 3-4, 3-5, 3-6, 4-5, 4-6, and 5-6. There are 15 combinations.
Note that 1-2 and 2-1 represent the same combination, so only
one is in the list.
Sample Questions
Below are five examples of student-produced response
questions. Following each question, you will find a solution and
several ways to enter the correct answer.
4 7 5
3 8 1
x
x
− =
− =
8. What value of x satisfies both of the equations above?

1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
0
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
0
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
0
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
1 2 /

1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
0
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
0
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
0
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
5

Since 4 7 5 x − = , the value of 4 7 5 5 x − − is either or .

4 7 5
4 12
3
x
x
x
− =
=
=

or
4 7 5
4 2
1
2
x
x
x
− = −
=
=

The two values of x that satisfy the first equation are
3 and
1
2
.
Since the value of is either 3 8 1 3 8 1 − = − x x , or −1

3 8 1
8 2
1
4
− =
=
=
x
x
x

or
3 8 1
8 4
1
2
− = −
=
=
x
x
x
The two values of x that satisfy the second equation are
1
4
and
1
2
. You are asked to find the value of x that
satisfies both equations. That value is
1
2
. The answer can
be entered in the grid as 1/2 or .5.
Dif culty level: Hard
16 SAT Practice Booklet
You could also notice that there are 5 pairings that start
with course 1 and 4 additional pairings that start with
course 2, and so forth. The total number of combinations is
5 4 3 2 1 15 + + + + = .
You could also solve the problem by noting that the total number
of permutations (that is, the number of diferent ways 2 of 6
courses could be selected) is 6 for the first course selected
times 5 for the second course selected, or 6 5 30 × = . To
find the number of combinations, you must divide the number
of permutations by the number of arrangements. For each
pair of courses A-B selected, the arrangement B-A is also
possible. Therefore, there are 2 arrangements. So the number of
combinations is 30 2 15 ÷ = .
Dif culty level: Medium
11. Let the function be defined by f f x x x ( ) = −
2
7 ++
+ ( ) =
10
1 0
.
, If what is one possible va f t llue of t ?

1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
0
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
0
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
0
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
1

1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
0
1
2
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0
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
0
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
4
Since f x x x ( ) = − +
2
7 10, substituting t + ( ) 1 for x into the
function yields f t t t + ( ) = + ( ) − + ( ) + 1 1 7 1 10
2
, or
f t t t t + ( ) = + + ( ) − + ( ) + 1 2 1 7 7 10
2
, or
f t t t + ( ) = − + 1 5 4
2
.
Since f t + ( ) = 1 0, it follows that t t
2
5 4 0 − + = ,

or
t t − ( ) − ( ) = 1 4 0. Therefore, t t = = 1 4 or .
Another way to solve the question would be to use a dummy
variable k. For example, let k t = + 1.
f k k k k k ( ) = − + = − ( ) − ( )
2
7 10 5 2 .

Since k t = + 1 and
f t + ( ) = 1 0,

it follows that f k ( ) = 0.

So k k − ( ) − ( ) = 5 2 0,
and therefore, k k = = 5 2 or . Since or t k t t = − = = 1 4 1 , .
This question asks for one possible value of t. Either 1 or 4
satisfies the question being asked. Choose only one correct
answer (not both) to enter in the grid.
When there is a range of possible correct answers, your gridded
response must lie within the range. For example, consider a
problem for which all numbers between 4 and 5, exclusive, are
correct answers. For this problem, although 4.0002 is within the
range 4 5 < < ( ) t , its rounded value 4.00 is not within the range
and therefore would not be considered a correct answer to the
problem.
Dif culty level: Hard
12. Three parallel lines in a plane are intersected by a fourth line,
forming twelve angles. If one of the angles has measure 28°,
how many of the other eleven angles have measure 28° ?
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
0
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
0
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
0
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
5
Drawing the figure described in the problem will help you
visualize the correct solution to the problem. The figure below
shows three parallel lines intersected by a fourth line. The acute
angle is labeled 28°.
28°
Using the fact that vertical angles and alternate interior angles
are equal, you can put a check showing the other angles in the
figure that also measure 28°, as shown below.
28°
There are 5 other angles that measure 28°. Therefore, the correct
answer to this problem is 5. The number 5 can be gridded in any
of the four columns on the answer grid.
Dif culty level: Easy
The SAT 17
The Writing Section
The writing section includes both multiple-choice questions and a
direct writing measure in the form of an essay.
The multiple-choice sections include:
■ Improving sentences (25 questions)
■ Identifying sentence errors (18 questions)
■ Improving paragraphs (6 questions)
The multiple-choice sections measure your ability to
■ communicate ideas clearly and efectively;
■ improve a piece of writing through revision and editing;
■ recognize and identify sentence-level errors;
■ understand grammatical elements and structures and how
they relate to one another in a sentence;
■ recognize correctly formed grammatical structures;
■ clearly express ideas through sentence combining and use of
transitional words and phrases;
■ improve coherence of ideas within and among paragraphs.
Note: Calculators may not be on your desk or used on the
writing section of the SAT.
Characteristics of Effective Writing
Multiple-choice writing questions focus on common problems associated with four characteristics of effective writing. Illustrations of problems
are given below. The fifth category of questions requires recognition of correct sentences and effective writing strategies.
Writing problem Sentence illustrating the problem Should be...
1. Being consistent
Sequence of tenses After he broke his arm, he is home for two weeks. After he broke his arm, he was home for two weeks.
Shift of pronoun If you are tense, one should try to relax. If you are tense, you should try to relax.
Parallelism She skis, plays tennis, and flying hang gliders. She skis, plays tennis, and flies hang gliders.
Noun agreement Carmen and Sarah are both a pilot. Carmen and Sarah are both pilots.
Pronoun reference Several people wanted the job, so he or she filled
out the required applications.
Several people wanted the job, so they filled out the
required applications.
Subject–verb agreement There is eight people on the shore. There are eight people on the shore.
2. Expressing ideas logically
Coordination and subordination Tawanda has a rash, and she is probably allergic to
something.
Tawanda has a rash; she is probably allergic to
something.
Logical comparison Nathan grew more vegetables than his neighbor’s
garden.
Nathan grew more vegetables than his neighbor
grew.
Modification and word order Barking loudly, the tree had the dog's leash
wrapped around it.
Barking loudly, the dog wrapped its leash around
the tree.
3. Being clear and precise
Ambiguous and vague pronouns In the newspaper they say that few people voted. The newspaper reported that few people voted.
Diction He circumvented the globe on his trip. He circumnavigated the globe on his trip.
Wordiness There are many problems in the contemporary
world in which we live.
There are many problems in the contemporary
world.
Improper modification If your car is parked here while not eating in the
restaurant, it will be towed away.
If you park here and do not eat in the restaurant,
your car will be towed away.
4. Following conventions
Pronoun case He sat between you and I at the stadium. He sat between you and me at the stadium.
Idiom Natalie had a different opinion for her. Natalie had a different opinion of her.
Comparison of modifiers Of the sixteen executives, Naomi makes more
money.
Of the sixteen executives, Naomi makes the most
money.
Sentence fragment Fred having to go home early. Fred has to go home early.
Comma splice Mary took time out of her busy schedule to
visit her aunt, John decided to continue working
through the summer.
Mary took time out of her busy schedule to visit her
aunt, but John decided to continue working through
the summer.
5. Recognizing effective writing Some sentences require students to recognize that there is no error.
18 SAT Practice Booklet
Improving Sentences
This question type measures your ability to
■ recognize and correct faults in grammar and
sentence structure;
■ recognize efective sentences that follow the conventions of
standard written English.
Directions
The following sentences test correctness and effectiveness
of expression. Part of each sentence or the entire sentence is
underlined; beneath each sentence are five ways of phrasing the
underlined material. Choice A repeats the original phrasing; the
other four choices are different. If you think the original phrasing
produces a better sentence than any of the alternatives, select
choice A; if not, select one of the other choices.
In making your selection, follow the requirements of standard
written English; that is, pay attention to grammar, choice of
words, sentence construction, and punctuation. Your selection
should result in the most effective sentence—clear and precise,
without awkwardness or ambiguity.
EXAMPLE:
Laura Ingalls Wilder published her first book and she was sixty-
five years old then.
(A) and she was sixty-five years old then
(B) when she was sixty-five
(C) at age sixty-five years old
(D) upon the reaching of sixty-five years
(E) at the time when she was sixty-five
a , c d e
Answering Improving Sentences Questions
Read the entire sentence carefully but quickly and ask yourself
whether the underlined portion is correct or whether it needs to
be revised.
Remember that choice (A) is the same as the underlined portion.
Even if you think that the sentence does not require correction
and that choice (A) is the correct answer, it is a good idea to read
each choice quickly to make sure.
When reading choices (A) through (E), replace the underlined
part of the sentence with each answer choice to determine which
revision results in a sentence that is clear and precise and meets
the requirements of standard written English.
Look for common problem areas in sentences. These include
subject–verb agreement, parallelism, placement of modifiers, and
the use of relative clauses.
Remember that the right answer will be the one correct version
among the five choices.
Keep in mind that while the answer choices change, the rest of
the sentence stays the same.
In the example, connecting the two ideas (“Laura Ingalls Wilder
published her first book”) and (“she was sixty-five years old
then”) with the word “and” indicates that the two ideas are
equally important. The word “and” should be replaced to
establish the relationship between the two ideas.
■ The word “and” indicates that the two ideas it connects are
equally important. No.
■ Replacing the word “and” with “when” clearly expresses the
information that the sentence is intended to convey by relating
Laura Ingalls Wilder’s age to her achievement. Yes, but continue
to look at the other revisions.
■ Using the word “at” results in a phrase that is not idiomatic.
No.
■ The phrase “upon the reaching of” also results in a phrase that
is not idiomatic. No.
■ The phrase “at the time when she was sixty-five” is awkward
and wordy. No.
Correct answer: (B) / Dif culty level: Easy
Sample Questions
1. Looking up from the base of the mountain, the trail seemed
more treacherous than it really was.
(A) Looking up
(B) While looking up
(C) By looking up
(D) Viewing
(E) Viewed
When a modifying phrase begins a sentence, it must logically
modify the sentence’s subject; otherwise, it is a dangling modifier.
In this example, every option except (E) is a dangling modifier.
■ In (A), the phrase “Looking up from the base of the mountain”
does not logically modify the subject “the trail.” A person
might stand at the base of a mountain and look up at a trail,
but it is illogical to suggest that a trail looks up from the base
of a mountain.
■ (B), (C), and (D) are simply variations of the error found in
(A). Each results in a sentence that illogically suggests that a
trail was looking up from the base of a mountain.
■ (E) is correct. Although a trail cannot itself look up from the
base of a mountain, a trail can be viewed by someone looking
up from the base of a mountain, so the phrase “Viewed from
the base of the mountain” logically modifies the subject “the
trail.”
Correct answer: (E) / Dif culty level: Hard
The SAT 19
■ The phrase “The other” correctly modifies the word
“delegates.”
■ The pronoun “him” is in the wrong case. (One would not say
“him immediately accepted.”) “Him” is an error, but go on to
check the other choices, especially if you are not sure.
■ The word “immediately” correctly modifies the verb “accepted.”
■ The phrase “drafted by” correctly expresses the action of the
“neutral states.”
Correct answer: (B) / Dif culty level: Easy
Sample Questions
2. After hours of futile debate, the committee has

A
decided to postpone further discussion

B
of the resolution until their next meeting.

C D
No error
E
■ The error in this sentence occurs at (D). A pronoun must agree
in number (singular or plural) with the noun to which it refers.
Here, the singular verb “has” establishes “the committee” as
a singular noun; therefore, the plural pronoun “their” is used
incorrectly.
■ The other options contain no errors. In (A), the preposition
“After” appropriately introduces a phrase that indicates
when the committee made its decision. In (B), “to postpone”
is the verb form needed to complete the description of the
committee’s decision. In (C), the prepositional phrase “of
the resolution” appropriately specifies the subject of the
postponed discussion.
■ The sentence may be corrected as follows: After hours of
futile debate, the committee has decided to postpone further
discussion of the resolution until its next meeting.
Correct answer: (D) / Dif culty level: Hard
Improving Paragraphs
This type of question measures your ability to
■ edit and revise sentences in the context of a paragraph or
entire essay;
■ organize and develop paragraphs in a coherent and logical
manner;
■ apply the conventions of standard written English.
Identifying Sentence Errors
This question type measures your ability to
■ recognize faults in grammar and usage;
■ recognize efective sentences that follow the
conventions of standard written English.
Directions
The following sentences test your ability to recognize grammar
and usage errors. Each sentence contains either a single error
or no error at all. No sentence contains more than one error. The
error, if there is one, is underlined and lettered. If the sentence
contains an error, select the one underlined part that must be
changed to make the sentence correct. If the sentence is correct,
select choice E.
In choosing answers, follow the requirements of standard writ-
ten English.
EXAMPLE:
The other delegates and him immediately
A B C
accepted the resolution drafted by the
D
neutral states. No error
E
a , c d e
Answering Identifying Sentence Errors Questions
Read the entire sentence carefully but quickly, paying attention
to the underlined choices (A) through (D). Ask yourself whether
any of the underlined words or phrases in the sentence contains
a grammar or usage error. Keep in mind that some sentences do
not contain an error.
Select the underlined word or phrase that must be changed to
make the sentence correct. Mark (E) No error if you believe that
the sentence is correct as written.
Develop the habit of looking for the most common mistakes that
people make in grammar: subject–verb agreement, pronoun
reference and agreement, and adjective/adverb confusion.
In the example above, “The other delegates and him” are the
people who “immediately accepted the resolution,” and the phrase
“drafted by the neutral states” describes “the resolution.” Check
each underlined word or phrase for correctness.
20 SAT Practice Booklet
Directions
The following passage is an early draft of an essay. Some parts
of the passage need to be rewritten.
Read the passage and select the best answers for the questions
that follow. Some questions are about particular sentences or
parts of sentences and ask you to improve sentence structure or
word choice. Other questions ask you to consider organization
and development. In choosing answers, follow the requirements
of standard written English.
Answering Improving Paragraphs Questions
To answer the improving paragraphs questions that accompany
the draft essay, you will need to note what sentences need to be
corrected and to know how each sentence relates to the other
sentences and to the essay as a whole.
Read the entire essay quickly to determine its overall meaning.
The essay is intended as a draft, so you will notice errors.
In answering each question, make sure that your answer about
a particular sentence or group of sentences makes sense in the
context of the passage as a whole. Choose the best answer from
among the choices given, even if you can imagine another correct
response.
Sample Questions
Questions 3 and 4 are based on the following passage:
(1) Many times art history courses focus on the great
“masters,” ignoring those women who should have
achieved fame. (2) Often women artists like Mary Cassatt
have worked in the shadows of their male contemporaries.
(3) They have rarely received much attention during their
lifetimes.
(4) My art teacher has tried to make up for it by teaching
us about women artists and their work. (5) Recently she
came to class very excited; she had just read about a little-
known artist named Annie Johnson, a high school teacher
who had lived all of her life in New Haven, Connecticut.
(6) Johnson never sold a painting, and her obituary in
1937 did not even mention her many paintings.
(7) Thanks to Bruce Blanchard, a Connecticut business-
man who bought some of her watercolors at an estate sale.
(8) Johnson is finally starting to get the attention that
she deserved more than one hundred years ago.
(9) Blanchard now owns a private collection of hundreds of
Johnson’s works—watercolors, charcoal sketches, and
pen-and-ink drawings.
(10) There are portraits and there are landscapes.
(11) The thing that makes her work stand out are the portraits.
(12) My teacher described them as “unsentimental.”
(13) They do not idealize characters. (14) Characters are
presented almost photographically. (15) Many of the people
in the pictures had an isolated, haunted look. (16) My
teacher said that isolation symbolizes Johnson’s life as an artist.
3. In context, which is the best revision to the underlined portion
of sentence 3 (reproduced below)?
They have rarely received much attention during their lifetimes.
(A) In fact, they had
(B) Too bad these artists have
(C) As a result, these women have
(D) In spite of this, women artists
(E) Often it is the case that the former have
Although sentence 3 is not grammatically incorrect, its
relationship to the preceding sentence needs to be made clearer.
A transitional phrase should be added to emphasize the cause-
and-efect relationship between the stated facts—women artists
received little attention as a consequence of having worked in
the shadows of their male contemporaries—and the ambiguous
pronoun “They” should be replaced with a word or phrase
that clearly refers to the “women artists” and not the “male
contemporaries” mentioned in sentence 2.
■ (A), (B), and (D) are unsatisfactory because in each case the
transitional phrase (“In fact,” “Too bad,” or “In spite of this”)
fails to indicate the cause-and-efect relationship. Moreover,
both (A) and (B) leave the ambiguity of the pronoun
unresolved.
■ (E) is unsatisfactory not only because it fails to signal the
cause-and-efect relationship, but also because it is wordy and
illogically combines the adverbs “Often” and “rarely.”
■ (C) is correct. The transitional phrase “As a result” clearly
indicates a cause-and-efect relationship, and “these women”
properly resolves the ambiguity of the pronoun “They.”
Correct answer: (C) / Dif culty level: Hard
4. In context, which of the following is the best version of
sentence 10 (reproduced below)?
There are portraits and there are landscapes.
(A) (As it is now)
(B) You can see both portraits and landscapes.
(C) Therefore, both portraits and landscapes are among her
works.
(D) Johnson painted both portraits and landscapes.
(E) Among them Johnson has portraits and landscapes.
In addition to being vague, sentence 10 contains no noun to which
the pronoun “her” in sentence 11 may refer. It should be revised
so that Johnson is clearly identified as the painter of the portraits
and landscapes.
The SAT 21
■ (A), (B), and (C) are unsatisfactory because they do not
mention Johnson.
■ Though (E) does mention Johnson, it is misleading in that the
words “Johnson has” suggest that Johnson is the owner rather
than the painter of the portraits and landscapes.
■ (D) is correct because it properly identifies Johnson as the
painter of the artworks and thus provides an antecedent for the
pronoun “her” in sentence 11.
Correct answer: (D) / Dif culty level: Easy
The Essay
The essay measures your ability to
■ develop a point of view on an issue presented in an excerpt;
■ support your point of view using reasoning and examples from
your reading, studies, experience, or observations;
■ follow the conventions of standard written English.
Approaches to the Essay
There are no short cuts to success on the SAT essay. You will
not receive high scores on your essay just because it is long, or
has five paragraphs, or uses literary examples. The high school
and college teachers who score the SAT reward essays that
insightfully develop a point of view with appropriate reasons and
examples and that use language skillfully. So what can you do to
write a successful SAT essay?
■ Read the entire assignment. It’s all there to help you. Every
essay assignment contains a short paragraph about the issue.
Imagine that you are talking to the author of the paragraph
about the issue. Would you argue with him or her, or agree?
What other ideas or examples would you bring up? Answering
these questions will help you develop your own point of view.
■ Don’t oversimplify. Developing your point of view doesn’t
mean coming up with as many examples as you can. Rushing
to give multiple relevant examples can lead you to oversimplify
a complex topic. An essay with one or two thoughtful, well-
developed reasons or examples is more likely to get a high
score than an essay with three short, simplistic examples.
■ There’s nothing wrong with “I.” You are asked to develop
your point of view on the issue, not give a straight report of
the facts. This is your opinion, so feel free to use “I,” and give
examples that are meaningful to you, even ones from your
personal life or experiences. Of course you need to support
your ideas appropriately and show that you can use language
well, but remember: The essay is an opportunity for you to say
what you think about an issue relevant to your life.

Directions
The essay gives you an opportunity to show how effectively you
can develop and express ideas. You should, therefore, take care
to develop your point of view, present your ideas logically and
clearly, and use language precisely.
Your essay must be written on the lines provided on your
answer sheet—you will receive no other paper on which to
write. You will have enough space if you write on every line,
avoid wide margins, and keep your handwriting to a reasonable
size. Remember that people who are not familiar with your
handwriting will read what you write. Try to write or print so
that what you are writing is legible to those readers.
Important Reminders:

A pencil is required for the essay. An essay written in ink will
receive a score of zero.

Do not write your essay in your test book. You will receive
credit only for what you write on your answer sheet.

An off-topic essay will receive a score of zero.

If your essay does not reflect your original and individual
work, your test scores may be canceled.
You have twenty-five minutes to write an essay on the topic
assigned below.
Think carefully about the issue presented in the following
excerpt and the assignment below.
Many persons believe that to move up the ladder of success
and achievement, they must forget the past, repress it, and
relinquish it. But others have just the opposite view. They
see old memories as a chance to reckon with the past and
integrate past and present.
Adapted from Sara Lawrence-Lightfoot,
I’ve Known Rivers: Lives of Loss and Liberation
Assignment: Do memories hinder or help people in their efort
to learn from the past and succeed in the present? Plan and write
an essay in which you develop your point of view on this issue.
Support your position with reasoning and examples taken from
your reading, studies, experience, or observations.
22 SAT Practice Booklet
Sample Essays
Score of 6:
Without our past, our future would be a tortuous path
leading to nowhere. In order to move up the ladder of
success and achievement we must come to terms with our past
and integrate it into our future. Even if in the past we made
mistakes, this will only make wiser people out of us and
guide us to where we are supposed to be.
This past year, I was auditioning for the fall play, “Cat on
a Hot Tin Roof.” To my detriment I thought it would be a good
idea to watch the movie in order to prepare. For two hours I
studied Elizabeth Taylor’s mannerisms, attitude, and diction,
hoping I could mimic her performance. I auditioned for the
part of “Maggie” feeling perfectly confident in my portrayal of
Elizabeth Taylor, however, I was unaware that my director saw
exactly what I had been thinking. Unfortunately, I didn’t get the
part, and my director told me that he needed to see “Maggie”
from my perspective, not Elizabeth Taylor’s.
I learned from this experience, and promised myself I
would not try to imitate another actress, in order to create my
character. Perservering, I was anxious to audition for the
winter play just two months later. The play was Neil Simon’s
“Rumors,” and would get the opportunity to play “Chris,” a
sarcastic yet witty role, which would be my final performance in
high school. In order to develop my character, I planned out her
life just as I thought it should be, gave her the voice I thought
was right, and the rest of her char acter unfolded beautifully from
there. My director told me after the first show that “Rumors”
was the best work he’d ever seen from me, and that he was
amazed at how I’d developed such a believable character.
Thinking back to my first audition I was grateful for that chance
I had to learn and to grow, because without that mistake I
might have tried to base “Chris” off of someone I’d known or
something I’d seen instead of becoming my own character. I
utilized the memory of the Elizabeth Taylor debacle to improve
my approach to acting and gave the best performance of my life
so far.
This essay efectively and insightfully develops its point of view
(In order to move up the ladder of success and achievement we must
come to terms with our past and integrate it into our future) through
a clearly appropriate extended example drawing on the writer’s
experience as an actor. The essay exhibits outstanding critical
thinking by pre senting a well-organized and clearly focused
narrative that aptly illustrates the value of memory. The essay
also uses language skillfully, demonstrating meaningful variety in
sentence structure (To my detriment I thought it would be a good
idea to watch the movie in order to prepare. For two hours I studied
Elizabeth Taylor’s mannerisms, attitude, and diction, hoping I could
mimic her performance. I auditioned for the part of “Maggie” feeling
perfectly confident in my portrayal of Elizabeth Taylor, however, I
was unaware that my director…). Despite minor errors, the essay
demonstrates clear and consistent mastery and is scored a 6.
Score of 5:
I agree with Ms. Sara Lawrence-Lightfoot in saying that
some people “see old memories as a chance to reckon with
the past and integrate past and present.” Many people are
so troubled by things that happened in their past that they
are not able to focus on the present. For example, in the book
Ceremony, by Leslie Marmon Silko, Tayo, the main character,
can not concentrate on the present because he constantly
hounds himself over things that happened during World War
II and his troubled childhood. However, past memories can
help people to succeed in the present. An historical example
of people learning from the past would be the Marshall Plan.
After the conclusion of World War II there were many countries
around the world in need of economical assistence to help
rebuild their war torn countries, and the United States would
have to be the one to provide that assistence. Many American
politicians thought it was foolish for the US government to
spend money abroad on countries that would not be able to
repay the loan for a long time. However, George Marshall, a
former general and later Secretary of State under President
Truman, remembered how the exact same argument of “why
should we spend money on war torn nations that really owe
us reparations?” had been used after World War I towards
Germany. The lack of assistence towards Germany after
World War I had caused a gigantic economic depression in
Germany that had made the Mark (German money) virtually
worthless. The German people became so desperate that they
started supporting an extreme German nationalist named Adolf
Hitler, who eventually started World War II. Marshall knew that
if the US did not help war torn Germany and, especially, Japan,
we could eventually have a World War III on our hands.
This focused essay efectively develops its point of view and
demonstrates strong critical thinking (Many people are so troubled
by things that happened in their past that they are not able to focus on
the present. . . . However, past memories can help people to succeed in
the present). The essay uses appropriate reasoning and examples
and demonstrates coherence and progression of ideas (Many
American politicians thought it was foolish for the US government to
spend money abroad on countries that would not be able to repay the
loan for a long time. However, George Marshall . . . remembered how
the exact same argument . . . had been used after World War I towards
Germany). The essay also exhibits facility in the use of language. To
earn a score of 6, the writer needs to achieve clearer coherence
and smoother progression of ideas by integrating the example of
Ceremony more efectively into the overall essay, perhaps through
an extended comparison of Tayo’s and Marshall’s experiences
of World War II. The essay demonstrates reasonably consistent
mastery and is scored a 5.
The SAT 23
Score of 4:
Interestingly enough, I fall in the middle of these
statements. I believe that one should remember the past and
learn from those events. However, I also believe that many bad
memories harm the present and the future. The only way to
continue, many times, is to forget and forgive.
My brother, who is college, has proved to me the
importance of getting good grades and actively participating
in extracorrecular activities. These two ideas helped him to
get into the prestegious college of the University of Notre
Dame. His education there will allow him to have a prosperous
career as an adult. Reviewing these facts and ideas has led
me to believe if I do the same, I will have a similar promising
career. Consequently, I have gotten good grades and have seen
interest from many prestigious programs.
Through my knowledge, I have learned that in many bad
instances, time to forget is very important. Ireland, for example,
had been persecuted for many hundreds of years from 1000
AD to 1900 AD. After being granted the Irish Free State,
they attacked many parts of Britain for retribution of those
many years of being oppressed. Consequently there has been
on going hostility between the two peoples. This hostility
has cost the lives of many hundreds of people. A quote once
said, “Violence begets violence” is the perfect phrase for this
warfare. The only way to stop the loss of life is to forget and
forgive; start anew.
Different situations require different actions to proceed in
a positive manner. Many times, people are required to use both
elements. For example, let’s forget this part and concentrate on
how to bring this positive part into light. Both of the ideas on
remembering and forgetting have their reasons for existing and
both are positive.
This essay provides adequate reasons and examples to support
both aspects of its point of view (I believe that one should
remember the past and learn from those events. However, I also
believe that many bad memories harm the present and the future),
thus demonstrating competent critical thinking. The essay
is generally organized and focused and features coherence
and progression of ideas. Facility in the use of language is
adequate, despite some inconsistencies (Through my knowledge,
I have learned that in many bad instances, time to forget is very
important). The essay also has some errors in grammar, usage,
and mechanics. To earn a higher score, the writer should provide
additional appropriate evidence and use critical thinking to
extend the discussion of situations in which “people are required
to use both elements.” The essay demonstrates adequate
mastery and receives a 4.
Score of 3:
Memories can be helpful to some and hinder others. I
believe that memories from different aspects of ones life have
different consequences. One memory may be bad and it may
be best forgotten about, when trying to succeed. Though some
memories may give on strength to suceed in achieving a higher
status in life.
When a person completes a task they have done once
before, it trigers a memory and lets the reader reflect on that
particular time in life. For example, a sporting team at the local
high school makes it to the state championships, but severly
loses to their opponent, the next time they get to the state
championships they may think about the past and how they
lost before, and it may hinder there feelings and they may once
again lose. This demonstrates how a memory can ruin a certain
activity for ever. On the other hand a memory
can also help someone to move up the ladder of success. As
an example if a person has cancer and is given treatment then
diagnosed in remission they feel like they have beat the cancer.
When the patient in remission is later told that the cancer has
grown back, the patient might feel that they can kill the cancer
again because when looking at the past they see they have
beat it once why not beat it again. This demonstrates how a
memory can be helpful to a person. In this case it did not help
the person climb the ladder of success though it helped the to
continue climbing the ladder of life to the extent that they were
able to climb.
Those two short examples just go to demonstrate how
memories of the past can both help and hinder a person in their
path of not only success but also in the path of life.
This essay develops a point of view (Memories can be helpful
to some and hinder others) and shows some critical thinking
by providing examples of the positive and negative efects of
memories. However, the examples are limited in focus, featuring
some lapses in coherence and progression of ideas, and are thus
inadequate to support the position. The essay also demonstrates
occasional problems in sentence structure and mechanics. To
achieve a higher score, this writer needs to use critical thinking
to clarify and expand each example by adding additional focused
reasoning and details. The writer also needs to avoid using run-on
sentences (. . . when looking at the past they see they have beat it
once why not beat it again). The essay demonstrates developing
mastery and earns a 3.
24 SAT Practice Booklet
Score of 2:
I think it is wrong to believe that to move up the ladder
of success and achievement, that they must forget the past,
repress it, and relinquish it. Everything you did and saw in the
past helps you to move on. Every single happy moment, every
mistake you make is getting a part of you. Your actions
become habits which creates your personality and helps you to
make your own experience. Therefore memories help people in
their effort to learn from the past and succeed in the present.
Everything we do has to do with our experiences in the past,
the way we get along with people or treat them, the way we
turn out to be an adult. If you don’t live with making your own
decisions, mistakes, and your experience with people and the
world or school you won’t have any examples to compare or to
handle any coming situations in the future. If you get everything
told you by someone, you will always wait for other people to
make decisions for you and won’t have your own point of view.
For succeed you have to know what you want, to find that out,
you have to have been through some difficult situations in the
PAST.
Although it expresses a point of view (I think it is wrong to believe
that to move up the ladder of success and achievement, that they
must forget the past, repress it, and relinquish it), this essay is
seriously limited, exhibiting weak critical thinking, insuf cient
use of evidence, and serious problems with progression of
ideas. The essay also demonstrates frequent problems in usage,
grammar, and sentence structure. To achieve a higher score,
the writer needs to develop the point of view with reasons and
specific examples instead of merely repeating the same vague
ideas (Everything you did and saw in the past helps you to move on.
. . . Everything we do has to do with our experiences in the past). The
essay demonstrates little mastery and is scored a 2.
Score of 1:
My oppion on this topic are oposing memories and
favoring them. People do succed with repeating their memories.
They might have horrible memories but also succeed because
they don’t repeat the past. I also think memories should not rule
the present. If you let the past overcome the preset you won’t
get any where. This is why memories should be guidelines,
not rules. If you repeat the past it won’t come out as well as
it did because the world has changed. See the past will never
change with the world, but the world will change to overcome
the past. So in conclusion don’t forget the past or live in it, and
the past is only guidelines.
This minimal essay demonstrates very little mastery, ofering
only a collection of general ideas in support of the writer’s
point of view (don’t forget the past or live in it, and the past is
only guidelines). The evidence presented is disorganized and
unfocused, resulting in a disjointed essay. To earn a higher score,
this writer needs to provide additional focused evidence that
develops the point of view, including specific examples. The essay
demonstrates very little mastery and receives a 1.
Scoring the Essay
Essays are scored in a manner that is fair and consistent, using
a holistic approach. In holistic scoring, a piece of writing is
considered as a total work, the whole of which is greater than the
sum of its parts. Essays are scored by experienced high school
teachers and college faculty members. The majority of essay
readers teach English, composition, or language arts courses.
Each essay is scored indepen dently by two readers on a scale of 1
to 6, with 6 being the highest score. The combined score for both
readers will range from 2 to 12. If the two readers’ scores are more
than one point apart, a third reader resolves the discrepancy.
In scoring the essays, readers follow the scoring guide below.
The scoring guide describes the features typically found in essays
at each score point, including critical thinking, development,
organization, language use, and sentence structure. A student
can get a top score on the essay even with minor errors in
grammar, usage, and mechanics. The SAT essay neither rewards
nor penalizes formulaic approaches to writing, such as the five-
paragraph essay.
There is no formula for efective writing, no single best way to
communicate an idea. Any essay that features clear lines of
reasoning, appropriate choices of evidence, ample development
of ideas, efective organization, and precise use of language will
receive a high score, regardless of style or approach. Readers are
trained to recognize and reward a wide variety of essays at each
score point.
The SAT 25
Scoring Guide
SCORE OF 6 SCORE OF 5 SCORE OF 4
An essay in this category demonstrates
clear and consistent mastery, although it
may have a few minor errors. A typical
essay
An essay in this category demonstrates
reasonably consistent mastery, although
it will have occasional errors or lapses in
quality. A typical essay
An essay in this category demonstrates
adequate mastery, although it will have
lapses in quality. A typical essay
■ effectively and insightfully develops
a point of view on the issue and
demonstrates outstanding critical
thinking, using clearly appropriate
examples, reasons, and other evidence
to support its position
■ effectively develops a point of view
on the issue and demonstrates strong
critical thinking, generally using
appropriate examples, reasons, and
other evidence to support its position
■ develops a point of view on the issue
and demonstrates competent critical
thinking, using adequate examples,
reasons, and other evidence to support
its position
■ is well organized and clearly focused,
demonstrating clear coherence and
smooth progression of ideas
■ is well organized and focused,
demonstrating coherence and
progression of ideas
■ is generally organized and focused,
demonstrating some coherence and
progression of ideas
■ exhibits skillful use of language, using
a varied, accurate, and apt vocabulary
■ exhibits facility in the use of language,
using appropriate vocabulary
■ exhibits adequate but inconsistent
facility in the use of language, using
generally appropriate vocabulary
■ demonstrates meaningful variety in
sentence structure
■ demonstrates variety in sentence
structure
■ demonstrates some variety in sentence
structure
■ is free of most errors in grammar,
usage, and mechanics
■ is generally free of most errors in
grammar, usage, and mechanics
■ has some errors in grammar, usage, and
mechanics
SCORE OF 3 SCORE OF 2 SCORE OF 1
An essay in this category demonstrates
developing mastery, and is marked
by ONE OR MORE of the following
weaknesses:
An essay in this category demonstrates
little mastery, and is flawed by ONE OR
MORE of the following weaknesses:
An essay in this category demonstrates
very little or no mastery, and is severely
flawed by ONE OR MORE of the
following weaknesses:
■ develops a point of view on the issue,
demonstrating some critical thinking,
but may do so inconsistently or use
inadequate examples, reasons, or
other evidence to support its position
■ develops a point of view on the issue
that is vague or seriously limited, and
demonstrates weak critical thinking,
providing inappropriate or insufficient
examples, reasons, or other evidence
to support its position
■ develops no viable point of view on
the issue, or provides little or no
evidence to support its position
■ is limited in its organization or focus,
or may demonstrate some lapses in
coherence or progression of ideas
■ is poorly organized and/or focused, or
demonstrates serious problems with
coherence or progression of ideas
■ is disorganized or unfocused,
resulting in a disjointed or incoherent
essay
■ displays developing facility in the
use of language, but sometimes uses
weak vocabulary or inappropriate
word choice
■ displays very little facility in the
use of language, using very limited
vocabulary or incorrect word choice
■ displays fundamental errors in
vocabulary
■ lacks variety or demonstrates
problems in sentence structure
■ demonstrates frequent problems in
sentence structure
■ demonstrates severe flaws in
sentence structure
■ contains an accumulation of errors in
grammar, usage, and mechanics
■ contains errors in grammar, usage,
and mechanics so serious that
meaning is somewhat obscured
■ contains pervasive errors in grammar,
usage, or mechanics that persistently
interfere with meaning
Essays not written on the essay assignment will receive a score of zero.
26 SAT Practice Booklet
SAT Subject Tests
SAT Subject Tests are one-hour multiple-choice tests that
measure how much you know about a particular academic
subject and how well you can apply that knowledge.
SAT Subject Tests fall into five subject areas: English, history,
mathematics, sciences, and languages. The tests help colleges
compare the academic achievement of students from diferent
schools where course preparation and academic backgrounds
may vary widely.
Take tests such as history, biology, chemistry, or physics as soon
as possible after you complete your course, while the material is
still fresh in your mind.
You’ll do better on other tests, such as foreign languages tests,
after at least two years of study.
Each test is scored slightly diferently depending on how many
answer choices there are. See specific subject sections for more
information. The total score for each test is on a 200–800 scale.
Literature
One-hour subject test
Content
Questions may cover:
■ Overall meaning, including efect and theme
■ Form, including structure, genre, and organization
■ Use of language, including word choice, imagery, and
metaphor
■ Meanings and connotations of specific words in context
■ Narrative voice, including tone and attitude
■ Characterization in narrative and dramatic selections
Recommended Preparation
■ Close, critical reading in English and American literature from
a variety of historical periods and genres
■ Reading of complete novels and plays, not just excerpts
■ Working knowledge of basic literary terminology, such as
speaker, tone, image, irony, alliteration, stanza
■ Three or four years of literary study at the college-preparatory
level
■ Independent, critical reading of poetry, prose, and drama
■ No suggested reading list
FORMAT
Approximate
% of Test*
About 60 multiple-choice questions
6 to 8 reading selections followed
by sets of 4 to 12 questions
Source of Questions
English literature 40–50
American literature 40–50
Other literature written in English 0–10
Chronology
Renaissance and 17th century 30
18th and 19th centuries 30
20th century 40
Genre
Poetry 40–50
Prose 40–50
Drama and other 0–10
*The distribution of passages may vary in different versions of
the test. The chart above indicates typical or average content.
Sample Questions
Questions on the Literature Subject Test are presented as sets
of questions about reading selections. The directions that
follow are identical to those in the test. All questions on the test
are multiple-choice questions in which you must choose the
BEST response from the five choices ofered. For these sample
materials and for the actual test, the date printed at the end of
each passage or poem is the original publication date or, in some
cases, the estimated date of composition.
Directions
This test consists of selections from literary works and questions
on their content, form, and style. After reading each passage or
poem, choose the best answer to each question and fill in the
corresponding circle on the answer sheet.
Note: Pay particular attention to the requirements of questions
that contain the words NOT, LEAST, or EXCEPT.
Questions 1-4. Read the following passage carefully before you
choose your answers.
By the time the man with the camera had cut across
our neighbor’s yard, the twins were out of the trees
swingin low and Granny was onto the steps, the screen
door bammin sof and scratchy against her palms.
“We thought we’d get a shot or two of the house
and everything and then . . .”
“Good mornin,” Granny cut him of. And smiled
that smile.
“Good mornin,” he said, head all down the way
Bingo does when you yell at him about the bones on
the kitchen foor. “Nice place you got here, aunty.
We thought we’d take a . . .”
Line
(5)
(10)
SAT Subject Tests 27
4. The episode reveals a conflict between
(A) propriety and impertinence
(B) virtue and corruption
(C) kindness and cruelty
(D) passiveness and aggression
(E) refinement and grossness
Questions 5-9. Read the following excerpt from a poem carefully
before you choose your answers.
One summer evening (led by her)
1
I found
A little boat tied to a willow tree
Within a rocky cave, its usual home.
Straight I unloosed her chain, and stepping in
Pushed from the shore. It was an act of stealth
And troubled pleasure, nor without the voice
Of mountain-echoes did my boat move on;
Leaving behind her still, on either side,
Small circles glittering idly in the moon,
Until they melted all into one track
Of sparkling light. But now, like one who rows,
Proud of his skill, to reach a chosen point
With an unswerving line, I fxed my view
Upon the summit of a craggy ridge,
Te horizon’s utmost boundary; for above
Was nothing but the stars and the grey sky.
She was an elfn pinnace;
2
lustily
I dipped my oars into the silent lake,
And, as I rose upon the stroke, my boat
Went heaving through the water like a swan;
When, from behind that craggy steep till then
Te horizon’s bound, a huge peak, black and huge,
As if with voluntary power instinct
Upreared its head. I struck and struck again,
And growing still in stature the grim shape
Towered up between me and the stars, and still,
For so it seemed, with purpose of its own
And measured motion like a living thing,
Strode afer me. With trembling oars I turned,
And through the silent water stole my way
Back to the covert of the willow tree;
Tere in her mooring-place I lef my bark, —
And through the meadows homeward went, in grave
And serious mood; but afer I had seen
Tat spectacle, for many days, my brain
Worked with a dim and undetermined sense
Of unknown modes of being; o’er my thoughts
Tere hung a darkness, call it solitude
Or blank desertion. No familiar shapes
Remained, no pleasant images of trees,
Of sea or sky, no colours of green felds;
But huge and mighty forms, that do not live
Like living men, moved slowly through the mind
By day, and were a trouble to my dreams.
1
nature (1850)
2
a boat
“Did you?” said Granny with her eyebrows. Cathy
pulled up her socks and giggled.
“Nice things here,” said the man buzzin his camera
over the yard. Te pecan barrels, the sled, me and
Cathy, the fowers, the painted stones along the
driveway, the trees, the twins, the toolshed.
“I don’t know about the thing, the it, and the stuf,”
said Granny still talkin with her eyebrows. “Just
people here is what I tend to consider.”
Camera man stopped buzzin. Cathy giggled into
her collar.
“Mornin, ladies,” a new man said. He had come up
behind us when we weren’t lookin. “And gents,”
discoverin the twins givin him a nasty look. “We’re
flmin for the county,” he said with a smile. “Mind if
we shoot a bit around here?”
“I do indeed,” said Granny with no smile.
Smilin man was smiling up a storm. So was Cathy.
But he didn’t seem to have another word to say, so he
and the camera man backed on out the yard, but you
could hear the camera buzzin still.
“Suppose you just shut that machine of,” said
Granny real low through her teeth and took a step
down of the porch and then another.
“Now, aunty,” Camera said pointin the thing
straight at her.
“Your mama and I are not related.”
(1971)
1. After Granny’s “Good mornin” (line 7), the camera man
probably behaves as he does because he
(A) is made to realize that he is intruding
(B) suspects that he is in physical danger
(C) hopes to win Granny’s afection by appearing at ease
(D) is relieved that an adult is present
(E) realizes that he is disturbing the tidiness of the yard
2. The tone of “Now, aunty” (line 37) is most accurately
described as
(A) expectant
(B) patronizing
(C) accusatory
(D) obedient
(E) respectful
3. Granny’s final comment can best be understood as a
(A) reluctant confession
(B) tentative assertion
(C) witty joke
(D) surprising revelation
(E) strong rebuke
Line
(5)
(10)
(15)
(20)
(25)
(30)
(35)
(40)
(15)
(20)
(25)
(30)
(35)
28 SAT Practice Booklet
And let that pine to aggravate thy store;
Buy terms divine in selling hours of dross;
Within be fed, without be rich no more:
So shalt thou feed on Death, that feeds on men,
And Death once dead, there’s no more dying then.
(1609)
10. The dramatic situation in the poem is that of
(A) a youth speaking to a lover
(B) a priest speaking to a sinner
(C) a reformer addressing an impoverished person
(D) God addressing any human soul
(E) an individual addressing his or her own soul
11. In the context of the poem, “Painting thy outward walls so
costly gay” (line 4) refers to
(A) camouflage
(B) writing poetry
(C) attending to physical appearances
(D) pretending to be happy
(E) preparations for a celebration
12. The poet signals a major shift at line 9 by changing from
(A) entirely negative to entirely positive imagery
(B) imagery of permanence to imagery of change
(C) direct address to impersonal statement
(D) material to spiritual imagery
(E) questions to commands
13. Which of the following best describes the theme of the
concluding couplet (lines 13-14)?
(A) A confession of sin before an almighty judge
(B) An af rmation of the immortality of the soul
(C) A declaration of rebellion against the powers of fate
(D) An accusation that death is a faithless servant
(E) A surrender to the inexplicable nature of life
ANSWERS
The difficulty of sample Literature questions is reported by
the set only. (The complexity of a literary text often influences
the difficulty of the questions asked about it.) Questions
1–4 overall are an easy set, questions 5–9 overall are a set of
average difficulty, and questions 10–13 overall are
a hard set.
1. A 4. A 7. C 10. E 13. B
2. B 5. E 8. B 11. C
3. E 6. A 9. D 12. E
5. The excerpt is best described as
(A) an enthusiastic celebration of youthful optimism
(B) an ironic self-portrait colored by satiric observations
(C) an imaginative evocation without didactic intention
(D) a symbolic representation of intellectual creativity
(E) a narrative episode with philosophical implications
6. In lines 1-7, which of the following devices is used to present
nature, the boat, and the mountain echoes?
(A) Personification
(B) Apostrophe
(C) Rhyme
(D) Paradox
(E) Simile
7. In lines 6-7, “the voice/Of mountain-echoes” serves to
reinforce the speaker’s sense of
(A) freedom
(B) omnipotence
(C) furtiveness
(D) enthusiasm
(E) despondency
8. At the conclusion of the excerpt, the “huge peak” (line 22)
seems to represent which of the following for the speaker?
(A) An emblem of the beauty of the natural world
(B) A figure of undefined and unsettling significance
(C) An allegorical representation of sin itself
(D) A curious natural phenomenon
(E) A trivial figment of the speaker’s imagination
9. Which of the following best describes the change in the
outlook of the speaker during the course of this excerpt?
(A) Naïveté to cynicism
(B) Bravery to cowardice
(C) Hope to despair
(D) Daring to uncertainty
(E) Eagerness to sloth
Questions 10-13. Read the following poem carefully before you
choose your answers.
Poor soul, the centre of my sinful earth,
Fenc’d by these rebel pow’rs that thee array,
Why dost thou pine within and sufer dearth,
Painting thy outward walls so costly gay?
Why so large cost, having so short a lease,
Dost thou upon thy fading mansion spend?
Shall worms, inheritors of this excess,
Eat up thy charge? Is this thy body’s end?
Ten, soul, live thou upon thy servant’s loss,
Line
(5)
Line
(10)
SAT Subject Tests 29
United States History
One-hour subject test
Content
Questions may require you to:
■ Understand terms, concepts, and generalizations
■ Recall basic information
■ Understand significant aspects of U.S. history
■ Analyze and interpret materials
■ Relate ideas to given data
■ Evaluate data for a given purpose
Recommended Preparation
■ One-year comprehensive course in United States history at
the college-preparatory level
■ Social studies courses and outside reading
FORMAT
Approximate
% of Test
90 multiple-choice questions
Material Covered*
Political history 32–36
Economic history 18–20
Social history 18–22
Intellectual and cultural history 10–12
Foreign policy 13–17
Periods Covered
Pre-Columbian history to 1789 20
1790–1898 40
1899 to the present 40
*Social science concepts, methods, and generalizations are
incorporated in this material.
Sample Questions
All questions in the U.S. History Subject Test are multiple-choice
questions in which you are asked to choose the BEST response
from the five choices ofered. The directions that follow are
identical to those in the test.
Directions
Each of the questions or incomplete statements below is
followed by five suggested answers or completions. Select the
one that is BEST in each case and then fill in the corresponding
circle on the answer sheet.
1. Which of the following best describes the pattern of
immigration into Britain’s North American colonies during the
years 1620 to 1770?
(A) Largely English in the seventeenth century, non-English
in the eighteenth century
(B) Chiefly of English origin during the whole period
(C) Largely non-English in the seventeenth century, English
in the eighteenth century
(D) Predominantly from southern and eastern Europe,
especially after 1700
(E) Predominantly from Asia, Africa, and Spanish America,
especially after 1650
2. George Grenville viewed the Stamp Act primarily as a means
to
(A) make the customs service more ef cient
(B) punish rebellious colonists
(C) test the colonists’ will to resist England
(D) create more patronage positions for the king’s courtiers
(E) raise revenue for the crown
3. Which of the following statements is generally true of the
framers of the Constitution?
(A) They believed in the supremacy of the executive branch
of the federal government.
(B) They had great faith in the goodness and rationality of
people.
(C) They were opposed to the development of political
parties.
(D) They incorporated into the Constitution the most
democratic ideals of the Declaration of Independence.
(E) They believed the new American republic would be
stable because of the unanimity of public opinion in the
country on major policy issues.
30 SAT Practice Booklet
4. “What is man born for but to be a reformer, a remaker of
what man has made; a renouncer of lies; a restorer of truth
and good, imitating that great Nature which embosoms us all,
and which sleeps no moment on an old past, but every hour
repairs herself, yielding every morning a new day, and with
every pulsation a new life?”
These sentiments are most characteristic of
(A) fundamentalism
(B) Social Darwinism
(C) pragmatism
(D) neoorthodoxy
(E) transcendentalism
5. From 1870 to 1930, the trend in industry was for hours to be
generally reduced, while both money wages and real wages
rose. What factor was primarily responsible for this trend?
(A) A reduction in profit margins
(B) Minimum-wage laws
(C) Restriction of the labor supply
(D) Increased output per hour of work
(E) Right-to-work legislation
6. All of the following are true of the movement to prohibit
alcoholic beverages in the United States EXCEPT:
(A) It arose quite suddenly amid the hysteria surrounding
the First World War.
(B) It won the support of many progressive reformers.
(C) It was often favored by people who disliked immigrants
and their cultural practices.
(D) It was a movement in which women played leading
roles.
(E) It gained strength from new scientific evidence that
alcohol was harmful to health.
7. I. “I believe it is the duty of the Negro—as the greater part
of the race is already doing —to deport himself modestly
in regard to political claims, depending upon the slow
but sure influences that proceed from the possession
of property, intelligence, and high character for the full
recognition of his political rights.”
II. “The truth is that ‘integration’ is an image, it’s a foxy
Northern liberal’s smoke-screen that confuses the true
wants of the American black man.”
III. “The talented tenth of the Negro race must be made
leaders of thought and missionaries of culture among
their people . . . . The Negro race, like all other races, is
going to be saved by its exceptional men.”
The most probable authors of statements I, II, and III,
respectively, are
(A) Malcolm X, Nat Turner, and Martin Luther King, Jr.
(B) Booker T. Washington, Malcolm X, and W.E.B. Du Bois
(C) Martin Luther King, Jr., Booker T. Washington, and
W.E.B. Du Bois
(D) Nat Turner, Martin Luther King, Jr., and Booker T.
Washington
(E) W.E.B. Du Bois, Malcolm X, and Martin Luther King, Jr.
8. Which of the following was symbolic of the rise of American
influence in the fine arts after the Second World War?
(A) Mary Cassatt’s work in Impressionism
(B) Thomas Eakin’s work in Realism
(C) Grant Wood’s work in Regionalism
(D) Jackson Pollock’s work in Abstract Expressionism
(E) John S. Copley’s work of realistic portraiture
9. Major population shifts between 1915 and 1980 included all of
the following EXCEPT a movement from
(A) the rural South to Northern cities
(B) New England to the Midwest
(C) the North to the Sun Belt
(D) the inner cities to the suburbs
(E) the Caribbean region to the American mainland
10. Which of the following presidents is correctly paired with an
event that took place during his administration?
(A) Lyndon B. Johnson . . . the establishment of diplomatic
relations between the United States and the People’s
Republic of China
(B) John F. Kennedy . . . resolution of the Suez Crisis
(C) Richard M. Nixon . . . the reduction of United States
forces in Vietnam
(D) Gerald R. Ford . . . the signing of the Camp David
Accords
(E) Jimmy Carter . . . resolution of the Cuban Missile Crisis
SAT Subject Tests 31
11. The Emancipation Proclamation declared slaves in which of
the following areas “forever free”?
(A) All areas of the United States
(B) All areas of the Confederacy
(C) Areas in border states loyal to the Union
(D) Confederate areas still in rebellion
(E) Areas in states controlled by Union forces
12. “The point I wish plainly to bring before you on this occasion
is the individuality of each human soul; our Protestant
idea, the right of individual conscience and judgment; our
republican idea, individual citizenship. . . . If we consider [a
woman] as a citizen, as a member of a great nation, she must
have the same rights as all other members, according to the
fundamental principles of our government.”
The statement above was made by
(A) Thomas Jeferson
(B) Elizabeth Blackwell
(C) Henry David Thoreau
(D) Margaret Sanger
(E) Elizabeth Cady Stanton
C a n a d a
Me x i c a n Te r r i t o r y
P a c i f i c
Uni t e d
States
O c e a n
Northern Limit
of United States
Claim 54° 40'
Crux
of
Dispute
13. The controversy with Great Britain over the northern
boundary of the shaded section in the map above was
settled during the presidency of
(A) John Quincy Adams
(B) James K. Polk
(C) Franklin Pierce
(D) James Buchanan
(E) Andrew Johnson
14. A major change brought about by Franklin D. Roosevelt’s New
Deal, 1933–1939, was the
(A) creation of machinery for maintaining full employment
(B) transformation of a business-dominated society into a
labor-dominated one
(C) redistribution of population from urban centers to rural
areas
(D) development of new attitudes about the role and
function of government
(E) destruction of machine politics at the state and city
levels
National Archives
15. The 1940s poster above referred to the
(A) contribution of women to the defense industry
(B) growing popularity of women movie stars
(C) large number of women in the armed forces
(D) large number of immigrants who supported
the war efort
(E) afection of Americans for their wartime president
ANSWERS
The estimated difficulty level, on a scale of 1 to 5, with
1 the easiest and 5 the most difficult, is in parentheses.
1. A (2) 5. D (4) 9. B (3) 13. B (2)
2. E (2) 6. A (4) 10. C (3) 14. D (3)
3. C (3) 7. B (5) 11. D (3) 15. A (2)
4. E (5) 8. D (3) 12. E (3)
32 SAT Practice Booklet
World History
One-hour subject test
Content
Questions may require you to:
■ Show knowledge of facts and terms
■ Understand cause-and-efect relationships
■ Use your knowledge of events and geography to demonstrate
understanding of major historical developments
■ Understand concepts essential to historical analysis
■ Interpret artistic materials and assess quotations from
published materials
Recommended Preparation
■ One-year comprehensive course in world history at the
college-preparatory level
■ Independent reading of materials on historical topics
FORMAT
Approximate
% of Test
95 multiple-choice questions
Material Covered
Global or comparative 25
Europe 25
Africa 10
Southwest Asia 10
South and Southeast Asia 10
East Asia 10
Americas 10
Periods Covered
Prehistory and civilizations to 500 C.E.* 25
500 to 1500 C.E. 20
1500 to 1900 C.E. 25
Post-1900 C.E. 20
Cross-chronological 10
*The World History Subject Test uses the chronological designa-
tions B.C.E. (before common era) and C.E. (common era). These labels
correspond to B.C. (before Christ) and A.D. (anno Domini), which are
used in some world history textbooks.
Sample Questions
All questions in the World History Subject Test are multiple-
choice questions in which you are asked to choose the BEST
response from the five choices ofered. The directions that follow
are identical to those that are in the test.
Directions
Each of the questions or incomplete statements below is
followed by five suggested answers or completions. Select the
one that is BEST in each case and then fill in the corresponding
circle on the answer sheet.
1. Based on archaeological evidence, experts on the prehistoric
period believe that the first hominids probably lived in
(A) North America
(B) South America
(C) Australia and New Zealand
(D) East Africa
(E) Northern Europe
2. Which of the following was an important virtue in
Confucianism?
(A) Warlike prowess
(B) Filial piety
(C) Public charity
(D) Poverty
(E) Manual labor
3. Early Christians developed the monastic ideal as a means of
counteracting
(A) government interference
(B) heresy
(C) competition from Eastern religions
(D) worldliness
(E) persecution
4. The Silk Routes were important in ancient times because they
(A) facilitated the exchange of goods and ideas between
China and the Roman Empire
(B) allowed gold and silver mined in China to be traded for
European furs and wool cloth
(C) provided trade links between the people of Siberia and
the people living on islands in the Bering Sea
(D) provided a conduit for trade in silk, porcelain, and costly
gems between China and Japan
(E) allowed carts and carriages to travel on paved roads
across northern Asia as far west as the Caspian Sea
SAT Subject Tests 33
5. The bronze plaque shown above was
created in
(A) Italy
(B) Central Asia
(C) Arabia
(D) West Africa
(E) China
6. Which of the following was characteristic of the physical
environments of early river-valley civilizations in the Near
East?
(A) Cool summer temperatures encouraged the production
of grain crops.
(B) Tropical forests along the riverbanks provided the
population with most of its food.
(C) The rivers maintained a steady flow year-round, fed by
melting mountain glaciers.
(D) The rivers flowed through deep mountain valleys, which
sheltered early civilizations.
(E) Rainfall was low, requiring irrigation of crops with river
water.
7. The ancient Chinese symbol of the universe shown above
represented
(A) the theory that everything consists of opposite but
complementary elements
(B) the Zen concept of unity in artistic expression
(C) Buddha’s vision of the perfect shape
(D) a dualism in which everything is in conflict, and nothing
can be resolved
(E) the moral principles of Confucius
8. In the map above, the numbered dots correspond to cities. In
the eighth century, which cities were near the east-west limits
of the Islamic world?
(A) 1 and 7
(B) 1 and 9
(C) 2 and 6
(D) 2 and 8
(E) 5 and 7
9. The encomienda system of colonial Spanish America most
closely resembled the European practice of
(A) absolutism
(B) primogeniture
(C) patronage
(D) manorialism
(E) nepotism
10. In early modern Europe, governments sought to increase
national wealth and maintain a favorable balance of trade
through government intervention by advocating
(A) Liberalism
(B) Capitalism
(C) Socialism
(D) Utilitarianism
(E) Mercantilism
34 SAT Practice Booklet
11. “Where it is an absolute question of the welfare of our
country, we must admit of no considerations of justice or
injustice, or mercy or cruelty, or praise or ignominy, but
putting all else aside must adopt whatever course will save its
existence and preserve its liberty.”
The statement above expresses the viewpoint of which of the
following?
(A) Niccolò Machiavelli
(B) Sir Thomas More
(C) Desiderius Erasmus
(D) Dante Alighieri
(E) John Calvin
12. Social Darwinists such as Herbert Spencer argued that
(A) competition allows individuals to develop their talents
and meet their needs
(B) competition and cooperation are equally important in
building a productive and compassionate society
(C) human societies progress through competition, since
the strong survive and the weak perish
(D) human societies progress through cooperation, a
natural instinct that should be encouraged
(E) God predetermines that some members of society are
fated to succeed and some members are fated to fail
13. Diferences between which two religions contributed to
violent conflicts in India during and after the struggle for
independence in 1947?
(A) Hinduism and Buddhism
(B) Islam and Christianity
(C) Hinduism and Islam
(D) Islam and Buddhism
(E) Hinduism and Jainism
14. Most of the noncitizens currently residing in Western
European countries originally came to Western Europe to
(A) consolidate the European Economic Community
agreements
(B) find employment
(C) do graduate work in the universities
(D) participate in the democratic political process
(E) avoid forced military conscription in their native land
ANSWERS
The estimated difficulty level, on a scale of 1 to 5, with 1 the
easiest and 5 the most difficult, is in parentheses.
1. D (2) 5. D (4) 9. D (3) 13. C (1)
2. B (4) 6. E (4) 10. E (3) 14. B (4)
3. D (5) 7. A (2) 11. A (4)
4. A (3) 8. B (4) 12. C (2)
SAT Subject Tests 35
Mathematics Level 1 and Level 2
One-hour subject tests
Recommended Preparation
■ Students are not expected to have studied every topic on
either test.
Mathematics Level 1
■ Three years of college-preparatory mathematics, including two
years of algebra and one year of geometry
Mathematics Level 2
■ More than three years of college-preparatory mathematics,
including two years of algebra, one year of geometry, and
elementary functions (precalculus) and/or trigonometry.
■ If you have had preparation in trigonometry and elementary
functions and have attained grades of B or better in these
courses, select Level 2. If you are suf ciently prepared to take
Level 2 but take Level 1 in hopes of receiving a higher score,
you may not do as well as you expect.
Score
■ Because the content measured by the two tests difers
considerably, you cannot use your score on one test to predict
your score on the other or to compare scores.
Geometric Figures
Figures that accompany problems are intended to provide
information useful in solving the problems. They are drawn as
accurately as possible EXCEPT when it is stated in a particular
problem that the figure is not drawn to scale. Even when figures
are not drawn to scale, the relative positions of points and angles
may be assumed to be in the order shown. Also, line segments
that extend through points and appear to lie on the same line may
be assumed to be on the same line. The text “Note: Figure
not drawn to scale.” is included on the figure when degree
measures may not be accurately shown and specific lengths may
not be drawn proportionally.
FORMAT
Approximate
% of Test
50 multiple-choice questions each
Topics Covered* Level 1 Level 2
Number and Operations 10–14 10–14
Operations, ratio and proportion,
complex numbers, counting, elementary
number theory, matrices, sequences,
series, vectors
Algebra and Functions 38–42 48–52
Expressions, equations, inequalities,
representation and modeling, properties
of functions (linear, polynomial, rational,
exponential, logarithmic, trigonometric,
inverse trigonometric, periodic,
piecewise, recursive, parametric)
Geometry and Measurement 38–42 28–32
Plane Euclidean/Measurement 18–22 -------
Coordinate
Lines, parabolas, circles, ellipses,
hyperbolas, symmetry, transformations,
polar coordinates
8–12 10–14
Three-dimensional
Solids, surface area and volume
(cylinders, cones, pyramids, spheres,
prisms), coordinates in three dimensions
4–6 4–6
Trigonometry
Right triangles, identities, radian
measure, law of cosines, law of sines,
equations, double angle formulas
6–8 12–16
Data Analysis, Statistics,
and Probability
8–12 8–12
Mean, median, mode, range,
interquartile range, standard
deviation, graphs and plots, least-
squares regression (linear, quadratic,
exponential), probability
*Topics in italics are tested on the Level 2 Test only. The
content of Level 1 overlaps somewhat with that on Level 2, but the
emphasis on Level 2 is on more advanced content. Plane Euclidean
geometry is not tested directly on Level 2.
Calculators
Be sure to bring a calculator to use on these tests: if you take
these tests without a calculator, you will be at a disadvantage.
In fact, some questions cannot be solved without a scientific or
a graphing calculator.
■ Verify that your calculator is in good working condition before
you take the test.
■ If possible, bring batteries and a backup calculator to the test
center. No substitute calculators or batteries will be available.
Students may not share calculators.
■ If your calculator malfunctions during the Level 1 or Level 2
tests and you do not have a backup calculator, you can cancel
scores on just the mathematics tests. You must tell your test
supervisor when the malfunction occurs in order to cancel
scores on these tests only.
36 SAT Practice Booklet
Sample Questions
All questions in the Mathematics Level 1 and Mathematics
Level 2 Subject Tests are multiple-choice questions in which
you are asked to choose the best response from the five
choices ofered. The directions for the tests are below:
Directions
For each of the following problems, decide which is the BEST
of the choices given. If the exact numerical value is not one of
the choices, select the choice that best approximates this value.
Then fill in the corresponding circle on the answer sheet.
Notes: (1) A scientific or graphing calculator will be necessary
for answering some (but not all) of the questions in this test. For
each question you will have to decide whether or not you should
use a calculator.
(2) Level 1: The only angle measure used on this test is
degree measure. Make sure your calculator is in the degree
mode.
Level 2: For some questions in this test you may have to
decide whether your calculator should be in the radian mode or
the degree mode.
(3) Figures that accompany problems in this test are
intended to provide information useful in solving the problems.
They are drawn as accurately as possible EXCEPT when it is
stated in a specific problem that its figure is not drawn to scale.
All figures lie in a plane unless otherwise indicated.
(4) Unless otherwise specified, the domain of any function
is assumed to be the set of all real numbers for which is
a real number. The range of is assumed to be the set of all real
numbers , where is in the domain of .
(5) Reference information that may be useful in answering
the questions in this test can be found on the page preceding
Question 1.
Reference Information. The following information is for your
reference in answering some of the questions in this test.
Volume of a right circular cone with radius r and
height :
Volume of a sphere with radius :
Volume of a pyramid with base area B and height :

Surface Area of a sphere with radius :
What Type of Calculator Should I Bring?
■ Bring a calculator that you are used to using. It may be a
scientific or a graphing calculator. If you’re comfortable with
both a scientific and a graphing calculator, bring a graphing
calculator.
■ We recommend the use of a graphing calculator over a
scientific calculator because a graphing calculator may
provide an advantage on some questions.
The following calculators are unacceptable:
■ Models that have wireless, Bluetooth, cellular, audio/video
recording and playing, camera, or any other cell phone type
feature
■ Models that can access the Internet
■ Models that have QWERTY, pen-input, stylus,* or touch-
screen capability; require electrical outlets; or use paper
tape (e.g., TI-92 Plus, Voyage 200, Palm, PDAs, Casio
ClassPad)
■ Models that “talk” or make unusual noises
*The use of the stylus with the Sharp EL-9600 calculator is
not permitted.
Using the Calculator
You do not need to use a calculator to solve every question, but it
is important to know when and how to use one. First decide how
you will solve a problem; then determine whether the calculator
is needed.
■ You’ll need a calculator for 40 to 50 percent of the questions
on Level 1 and 55 to 65 percent of the questions on Level 2.
■ For the rest of the questions, there is no advantage, perhaps
even a disadvantage, to using a calculator.
■ Do not round any intermediate calculations. If you get a result
from the calculator for the first step of a solution, keep the
result in the calculator and use it for the second step. If you
round the result from the first step, your answer may not be
one of the choices.
■ You may not use a calculator for other Subject Tests and must
put it away when not taking a mathematics test.
SAT Subject Tests 37
Mathematics Level 1
1. A band wants to distribute its music on compact discs (CDs).
The equipment to produce the CDs costs $250, and blank
CDs cost $5.90 for a package of 10. Which of the following
represents the total cost, in dollars, to produce n CDs, where n
is a multiple of 10?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
(E)
2. In the figure above, and are parallel. What is x in
terms of y and z ?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
3. A number n is increased by 8. If the cube root of that result
equals –0.5, what is the value of n ?
(A) −15.625
(B) −8.794
(C) −8.125
(D) −7.875
(E) 421.875
4. If a and b are real numbers, , and
, what is the value of b ?
(A) 4 (B) 5 (C) 9
(D) 4 5 + i (E)

5 4 + i
5. What are all values of x for which
?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
(E)
6. The graphs above show United States Census Bureau
population figures for the year 2000 for various age
groups, together with projections for the year 2050.
Of the following age groups, for which is the projected
percent increase in population from 2000 to 2050
greatest?
(A) 30−39 (B) 40−49 (C) 50−59
(D) 60−69 (E) 70−79
7. If , which of the following must be true?
(A) (B) (C)
(D) (E)
8. If which of the following
statements are true about the graphs of and in the
xy-plane?
I. The graphs are exactly the same.
II. The graphs are the same except when .
III. The graphs have an infinite number of points in common.
(A) I only (B) II only (C) III only
(D) I and III (E) II and III
38 SAT Practice Booklet
15. If , for how many real
numbers does ?
(A) None (B) One (C) Two
(D) Three (E) Four
16. When purchased, an automobile is valued at $15,000. Its
value depreciates at the rate shown in the table above. Based
on a least-squares linear regression, what is the value, to the
nearest hundred dollars, of the automobile when
(A) $5,400 (B) $5,500 (C) $5,600
(D) $6,400 (E) $7,000
Mathematics Level 2
17. What is the distance in space between the points with
coordinates and ?
(A) 4.36 (B) 5.92 (C) 7.91
(D) 9.11 (E) 22.25
18. If , what value does
approach as x gets infinitely larger?
(A) −6 (B) (C) −1
(D) (E)
19. In January 1990 the world’s population was 5.3 billion.
Assuming a growth rate of 2 percent per year, the world’s
population, in billions, for t years after 1990 can be modeled
by the equation . According to the model, the
population growth from January 1995 to January 1996 was
(A) 106,000,000
(B) 114,700,000
(C) 117,000,000
(D) 445,600,000
(E) 562,700,000
20. What is the measure of one of the larger angles of a
parallelogram in the xy-plane that has vertices with
coordinates , , , and

?
(A) 93.4° (B) 96.8° (C) 104.0°
(D) 108.3° (E) 119.0°
9. If line is the perpendicular bisector of the line segment with
endpoints and , what is the slope of line ?
(A) 2 (B) 1 (C) 0
(D) −1 (E) −2
10. Twenty students have each sampled one or more of three
kinds of candy bars that a school store sells. If 3 students
have sampled all three kinds, and 5 have sampled exactly two
kinds, how many of these students have sampled only one
kind?
(A) 8 (B) 12 (C) 15
(D) 17 (E) 18
Note: Figure not drawn to scale.
11. In the figure above, ᭝ABC has a right angle at C. If the length
of side AC is 10 and the measure of ∠BAC is 22°, what is the
length of side BC ?
(A) 3.7 (B) 4.0 (C) 5.8
(D) 6.8 (E) 9.3
12. The function h given by
represents the height of a ball, in feet, t seconds after it is
thrown. To the nearest foot, what is the maximum height
the ball reaches?
(A) 5 (B) 23 (C) 35
(D) 38 (E) 46
13. The front, side, and bottom faces of a rectangular solid have
areas of 24 square centimeters, 8 square centimeters, and 3
square centimeters, respectively. What is the volume of the
solid, in cubic centimeters?
(A) 24 (B) 96 (C) 192
(D) 288 (E) 576
14. Rectangle ABCD is inscribed in the circle shown above. If the
length of side AB is 5 and the length of side BC is 12, what is
the area of the shaded region?
(A) 40.8 (B) 53.1 (C) 72.7
(D) 78.5 (E) 81.7
SAT Subject Tests 39
21. For some real number t, the first three terms of an arithmetic
sequence are 2 5 1 t t , − , and 6 2 t + . What is the numerical
value of the fourth term?
(A) 4 (B) 8 (C) 10
(D) 16 (E) 19
22. The diameter and height of a right circular cylinder are equal.
If the volume of the cylinder is 2, what is the height of the
cylinder?
(A) 1.37 (B) 1.08 (C) 0.86
(D) 0.80 (E) 0.68
23. If , then
(A) −0.57 (B) −0.43 (C) 0
(D) 0.43 (E) 0.57
24. In a group of 10 people, 60 percent have brown eyes. Two
people are to be selected at random from the group. What is
the probability that neither person selected will
have brown eyes?
(A) 0.13 (B) 0.16 (C) 0.25
(D) 0.36 (E) 0.64
25. If is a factor of , then
(A) −6 (B) −3 (C) 2
(D) 3 (E) 6
26. If
,
what is

?
(A) 3.4 (B) 2.4 (C) 1.6
(D) 1.5 (E) 1.3
27. Which of the following equations best models the data in the
table above?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
28. The linear regression model above is based on an analysis
of nutritional data from 14 varieties of cereal bars to relate
the percent of calories from fat
(
F
)
to the percent of calories
from carbohydrates
(
C
)
. Based on this model, which of the
following statements must be true?
I. There is a positive correlation between C and F.
II. When 20 percent of calories are from fat, the predicted
percent of calories from carbohydrates is approximately
73.
III. The slope indicates that as F increases by 1, C decreases
by 1.02.
(A) II only (B) I and II only
(C) I and III only (D) II and III only
(E) I, II, and III
29. A line has parametric equations and ,
where t is the parameter. The slope of the line is
(A) (B) 1 (C)
(D) (E) 7
30. What is the range of the function defined by

?
(A) All real numbers
(B) All real numbers except
(C) All real numbers except 0
(D) All real numbers except 2
(E) All real numbers between 2 and 3
31. The number of hours of daylight, d, in Hartsville can be
modeled by
, where t is the number of
days after March 21. The day with the greatest number of
hours of daylight has how many more daylight hours than
May 1? (March and May have 31 days each. April and June
have 30 days each.)
(A) 0.8 hr (B) 1.5 hr (C) 2.3 hr
(D) 3.0 hr (E) 4.7 hr
40 SAT Practice Booklet
Day 1 Day 2 Day 3
Model X 20 18 3
Model Y 16 5 8
Model Z 19 11 10
32. The table above shows the number of digital cameras that
were sold during a three-day sale. The prices of models X, Y,
and Z were $99, $199, and $299, respectively. Which of the
following matrix representations gives the total income, in
dollars, received from the sale of the cameras for each of the
three days?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
ANSWERS
The estimated difficulty level, on a scale of 1 to 5,
with 1 the easiest and 5 the most difficult, is in parentheses.
Mathematics Level 1
1. B (2) 5. C (3) 9. D (4) 13. A (4)
2. A (2) 6. D (4) 10. B (3) 14. C (4)
3. C (2) 7. D (3) 11. B (3) 15. E (3)
4. A (3) 8. E (3) 12. D (4) 16. C (5)
Mathematics Level 2
17. D (2) 21. E (4) 25. A (2) 29. B (3)
18. E (2) 22. A (3) 26. E (4) 30. D (3)
19. C (4) 23. E (3) 27. D (4) 31. A (4)
20. C (4) 24. A (4) 28. D (4) 32. C (3)
SAT Subject Tests 41
Biology E/M
One-hour subject tests
How to Choose Biology-E or Biology-M
■ Take Biology-E if you feel more comfortable answering
questions pertaining to biological communities, populations,
and energy flow.
■ Take Biology-M if you feel more comfortable answering
questions pertaining to biochemistry, cellular structure and
processes, such as respiration and photosynthesis.
Once you decide which emphasis to take, you need to fill in the
appropriate code for the test you have chosen on your answer
sheet. Important: If you change your mind, you must change
the code on the answer sheet to match your test; otherwise,
your answers to the 20 specialized questions will not be scored
correctly.
You are not allowed to take Biology-E and Biology-M on the same
test date. You can take them on two diferent test dates.
Content
Questions may require you to:
■ Recall and understand the major concepts of biology and to
apply the principles
■ Organize and interpret results obtained by observation and
experimentation
■ Draw conclusions or make inferences from experimental data,
including data presented in graphic or tabular form
■ Solve problems with simple numerical calculations using the
metric system
NOTE: Calculator use is not permitted.
Recommended Preparation
■ One-year course in biology
■ One-year course in algebra and familiarity with simple
algebraic concepts such as ratios and direct and inverse
proportions
■ Laboratory experience
FORMAT
Approximate
% Test E
Approximate
% Test M
60 multiple-choice questions that are common to both
Biology-E and Biology-M
20 specialized multiple-choice questions for either
Biology-E or Biology-M
Total of 80 questions answered by each test-taker
Cellular and Molecular Biology 15 27
Cell structure and organization, mitosis,
photosynthesis, cellular respiration,
enzymes, biosynthesis, biological
chemistry
Ecology 23 13
Energy flow, nutrient cycles,
populations, communities, ecosystems,
biomes, conservation biology,
biodiversity, effects of human
intervention
Genetics 15 20
Meiosis, Mendelian genetics,
inheritance patterns, molecular
genetics, population genetics
Organismal Biology 25 25
Structure, function, and development
of organisms (with emphasis on plants
and animals), animal behavior
Evolution and Diversity 22 15
Origin of life, evidence of evolution,
patterns of evolution, natural selection,
speciation, classification and diversity
of organisms
BIOLOGY-E AND
BIOLOGY-M
Approximate
% of Test
Skills Specifications
Knowledge of Fundamental Concepts 30
Remembering specific facts; demonstrating
straightforward knowledge of information and
familiarity with terminology
Application 35
Understanding concepts and reformulating
information into other equivalent forms;
applying knowledge to unfamiliar and/or
practical situations; solving problems using
mathematical relationships
Interpretation 35
Inferring and deducing from qualitative and
quantitative data and integrating information
to form conclusions; recognizing unstated
assumptions
42 SAT Practice Booklet
Sample Questions
All of the questions in the test are multiple-choice questions for
which you must choose the best response from the five choices
ofered. Some questions are grouped in sets that refer to a
common figure, table, or laboratory experiment.
Biology E/M Core Section
Directions
Each set of lettered choices below refers to the numbered
statements immediately following it. Select the one lettered
choice that best fits each statement and then fill in the
corresponding circle on the answer sheet. A choice may be used
once, more than once, or not at all in each set.
Questions 1-2
(A) Decomposers (e.g., bacteria)
(B) Producers (e.g., grasses)
(C) Primary consumers (e.g., mice)
(D) Secondary consumers (e.g., snakes)
(E) Tertiary consumers (e.g., hawks)
1. Organisms that comprise the greatest mass of living
substance (biomass) in a terrestrial food chain
2. Organisms that convert nitrogen-containing organic
molecules into nitrates
Directions
Each of the questions or incomplete statements below is
followed by five suggested answers or completions. Select the
one that is BEST in each case and then fill in the corresponding
circle on the answer sheet.
3. In the graph above, the time when the
number of living bacteria is increasing at the
greatest rate occurs
(A) during the first 2 hours
(B) between the 2nd and the 4th hour
(C) between the 4th and the 6th hour
(D) between the 6th and the 10th hour
(E) between the 11th and the 13th hour
4. ATP is produced during which of the following processes?
I. Photosynthesis
II. Aerobic respiration
III. Fermentation
(A) I only (B) II only (C) I and III only
(D) II and III only (E) I, II, and III
5. All of the following are population characteristics EXCEPT
(A) number of individuals
(B) phenotype
(C) sex ratio
(D) age distribution
(E) death rate
SAT Subject Tests 43
Questions 6-7 refer to the following diagram:
6. Commonly, the fruit is derived from
(A) 2 (B) 4 (C) 7
(D) 8 (E) 9
7. Pollination involves a transfer of pollen from
(A) 4 to 1 (B) 4 to 2 (C) 4 to 5
(D) 5 to 4 (E) 5 to 9
Directions
Each group of questions below concerns a laboratory or
experimental situation. In each case, first study the description
of the situation. Then choose the one best answer to each
question following it and fill in the corresponding circle on the
answer sheet.
Questions 8-9
In a breeding experiment using gray and white mice of unknown
genotypes, the following results were obtained.
Parents Offspring
Cross Female Male Gray White
I Gray x White 82 78
II Gray x Gray 118 39
III White x White 0 50
IV Gray x White 74 0
8. If the gray female from cross IV were mated with the gray
male from cross II, then which of the following would most
likely be true?
(A) All of the ofspring would be gray.
(B) All of the ofspring would be white.
(C) Half of the ofspring would be gray.
(D) One-quarter of the ofspring would
be gray.
(E) One-quarter of the ofspring would be white.
9. If two gray progeny of cross IV mate with each other, what is
the probability that any one individual ofspring will be gray?
(A) 100% (B) 75% (C) 50%
(D) 25% (E) 0
Questions 10-11
Three students added equal volumes of pond water to each
of four beakers (I–IV) and placed each in a diferent constant
temperature bath, maintained at 5°C, 15°C, 25°C, and 35°C,
respectively. The students then added 6 water fleas, Daphnia
pulex, to each of the four beakers and recorded the time in each
case. After 1 hour, the students removed 3 Daphnia pulex from
each beaker and each student immediately observed one Daphnia
pulex under low-power magnification of a light microscope. (The
transparent body of the Daphnia pulex can be seen easily under a
light microscope.) Heart rates were recorded as beats per minute.
The results of the experiment are summarized in the chart below.
BEAKER TEMPERATURE
TIME
DAPHNIA
ADDED
TIME
DAPHNIA
REMOVED
HEARTBEATS
PER MINUTE
(average of
3 Daphnia)
I 5°C 2:00 p.m. 3:00 p.m. 41
II 15°C 2:10 p.m. 3:10 p.m. 119
III 25°C 2:20 p.m. 3:20 p.m. 202
IV 35°C 2:30 p.m. 3:30 p.m. 281
10. The independent variable in this experiment is the
(A) amount of light
(B) number of water fleas
(C) pH of the water
(D) temperature of the water
(E) average heart rate
44 SAT Practice Booklet
11. If a graph is constructed using the data given in the table, it
will most closely resemble which of the following?
Biology-E Section
12. Which of the following individuals is most fit in evolutionary
terms?
(A) A child who does not become infected with any of the
usual childhood diseases, such as measles or chicken
pox
(B) A woman of 40 with seven adult ofspring
(C) A woman of 80 who has one adult ofspring
(D) A 100-year old man with no ofspring
(E) A childless man who can run a mile in less than five
minutes
Questions 13-14
Known numbers of seeds from two species (X and Y) of annual
plants are mixed together in diferent proportions and planted in
five small plots of soil in the spring. The plants grow, flower, and
produce seeds. It is found that the percentage of seeds of species
X and species Y in the harvest is usually diferent from the
proportion that was planted, although the total number of seeds
produced is the same as the number of seeds planted. The data
are plotted on the graph below.
13. What mixture of seeds was harvested in the plot that was
planted with 25 percent species X and 75 percent species Y?
X Y
(A) 25% 75%
(B) 40% 60%
(C) 50% 50%
(D) 60% 40%
(E) 75% 25%
14. What do the data indicate about the ecological relationship
between species X and species Y?
(A) X and Y are mutualistic for low percentages of X seeds.
(B) X and Y are mutualistic for high percentages of X seeds.
(C) X and Y compete when both X and Y seeds are present.
(D) Y competes successfully against X at all percentages of
X and Y seeds.
(E) X is a parasite of Y when Y is rare.
SAT Subject Tests 45
Biology-M Section
15. Which of the following most accurately reveals common
ancestry among many diferent species of organisms?
(A) The amino acid sequence of their cytochrome C
(B) Their ability to synthesize hemoglobin
(C) The percentage of their body weight that is fat
(D) The percentage of their body surface that is used in gas
exchange
(E) The mechanism of their mode of locomotion
Questions 16-17
Thymine is used by animal cells primarily for the synthesis of
DNA. A group of sea urchin eggs was fertilized in sea water
containing radioactive thymine. Following fertilization, samples of
embryos were removed at regular intervals and the radioactivity
in the nucleic acid was measured in counts per minute. The
results obtained are shown in the figure below.
16. The increase in radioactivity of the embryos with time
probably results from
(A) synthesis of new proteins by the developing embryos
(B) synthesis of radioactive thymine by the developing
embryos
(C) oxidation of radioactive thymine
(D) incorporation of radioactive thymine in new cell
membranes
(E) incorporation of radioactive thymine in new DNA during
replication
17. An appropriate control to show that this experiment
measures DNA synthesis and not RNA synthesis would be to
perform the same procedures but
(A) not fertilize the eggs
(B) sample the embryos at longer time intervals
(C) add radioactive uracil instead of radioactive thymine
(D) fertilize the eggs in sea water that does not contain
radioactive thymine
(E) count the number of cells in the embryos at the
beginning and at the end of the experiment
ANSWERS
The estimated difficulty level, on a scale of 1 to 5, with 1
the easiest and 5 the most difficult, is in parentheses.
1. B (1) 6. A (1) 11. B (4) 16. E (4)
2. A (3) 7. D (3) 12. B (3) 17. C (3)
3. C (3) 8. A (4) 13. C (3)
4. E (2) 9. B (4) 14. C (5)
5. B (2) 10. D (3) 15. A (2)
46 SAT Practice Booklet
Chemistry
One-hour subject test
Content
Questions cover topics emphasized in most high school courses.
Because of course diferences, most students will find that there
are some questions on topics with which they are not familiar.
Questions may require you to:
■ Recall and understand the major concepts of chemistry and to
apply the principles to solve specific problems in chemistry
■ Organize and interpret results obtained by observation and
experimentation and to draw conclusions or make inferences
from experimental data, including data presented in graphic
and/or tabular form
On this Subject Test, please note that:
■ A periodic table indicating the atomic numbers and masses of
elements is provided for all test administrations
■ Problem solving requires simple numerical calculations
■ The metric system of units is used
NOTE: Calculator use is not permitted.
Recommended Preparation
■ One-year introductory chemistry course at the college-
preparatory level
■ Laboratory experience, which is a significant factor in
developing reasoning and problem-solving skills and should
help in test preparation even though laboratory skills can be
tested only in a limited way in a multiple-choice test
■ Mathematics preparation that enables handling simple
algebraic relationships and applying these to solving word
problems
■ Familiarity with the concepts of ratio and direct and inverse
proportions, exponents, and scientific notation
FORMAT
Approximate
% of Test
85 multiple-choice questions
Topics Covered
Structure of Matter 25
Atomic Structure, including experimental
evidence of atomic structure, quantum
numbers and energy levels (orbitals), electron
configurations, periodic trends
Molecular Structure, including Lewis structures,
three-dimensional molecular shapes, polarity
Bonding, including ionic, covalent, and metallic
bonds, relationships of bonding to properties
and structures; intermolecular forces such
as hydrogen bonding, dipole-dipole forces,
dispersion (London) forces
States of Matter 16
Gases, including the kinetic molecular theory,
gas law relationships, molar volumes, density,
and stoichiometry
Liquids and Solids, including intermolecular
forces in liquids and solids, types of solids, phase
changes, and phase diagrams
Solutions, including molarity and percent by
mass concentrations, solution preparation and
stoichiometry, factors affecting solubility of
solids, liquids, and gases, qualitative aspects
of colligative properties
Reaction Types 14
Acids and Bases, including Brønsted-Lowry
theory, strong and weak acids and bases, pH,
titrations, indicators
Oxidation-Reduction, including recognition
of oxidation-reduction reactions, combustion,
oxidation numbers, use of activity series
Precipitation, including basic solubility rules
Stoichiometry 14
Mole Concept, including molar mass, Avogadro’s
number, empirical and molecular formulas
Chemical Equations, including the balancing of
equations, stoichiometric calculations, percent
yield, and limiting reactants
Equilibrium and Reaction Rates 5
Equilibrium Systems, including factors affecting
position of equilibrium (LeChâtelier’s principle)
in gaseous and aqueous systems, equilibrium
constants, and equilibrium expressions
Rates of Reactions, including factors affecting
reaction rates, potential energy diagrams,
activation energies
SAT Subject Tests 47
Directions
Each set of lettered choices below refers to the numbered
statements or questions immediately following it. Select the one
lettered choice that best fits each statement or answers each
question and then fill in the corresponding circle on the answer
sheet. A choice may be used once, more than once, or not at all
in each set.
Questions 1-3 refer to the following aqueous solutions.
(A) 0.1 M HCl
(B) 0.1 M NaCl
(C) 0.1 M HC
2
H
3
O
2
(D) 0.1 M CH
3
OH
(E) 0.1 M KOH
1. Is weakly acidic
2. Has the highest pH
3. Reacts with an equal volume of 0.05 M Ba(OH)
2
to form a
solution with pH = 7
Questions 4-6 refer to the following ionic species.
(A) X
+
(B) X
2+
(C) X
3+
(D) XO
3
2–
(E) XO
4
2–
4. A type of ion found in sodium acetate
5. A type of ion found in aluminum oxide
6. A type of ion found in potassium phosphate
Questions 7-10 refer to the following atoms in the ground state.
(A) Ar
(B) O
(C) S
(D) Ti
(E) U
7. Has the electron configuration 1s
2
2s
2
2p
6
3s
2
3p
4
8. Has the same number of electrons as Ca
2+
9. Has electrons in f orbitals
10. Is the LEAST chemically reactive
Skills Specifications
Recall of Knowledge 20
Remembering fundamental concepts and specific
information; demonstrating familiarity with termi-
nology
Application of Knowledge 45
Applying a single principle to unfamiliar and/or
practical situations to obtain a qualitative result or
solve a quantitative problem
Synthesis of Knowledge 35
Inferring and deducing from qualitative and/or
quantitative data; integrating two or more rela-
tionships to draw conclusions or solve problems
Sample Questions
Three types of questions are used in the Chemistry Subject Test:
classification questions, relationship analysis questions, and
five-choice completion questions. The directions that follow are
identical to those that are in the test.
Note: For all questions involving solutions, assume that the
solvent is water unless otherwise stated.
FORMAT
Approximate
% of Test
Topics Covered
Thermochemistry 6
Including conservation of energy, calorimetry and
specific heats, enthalpy (heat) changes associated
with phase changes and chemical reactions,
heating and cooling curves, entropy
Descriptive Chemistry 12
Including common elements, nomenclature of ions
and compounds, periodic trends in chemical and
physical properties of the elements, reactivity of
elements and prediction of products of chemical
reactions, examples of simple organic compounds
and compounds of environmental concern
Laboratory 8
Including knowledge of laboratory equipment,
measurements, procedures, observations, safety, cal-
culations, data analysis, interpretation of graphical
data, drawing conclusions from observations and
data
48 SAT Practice Booklet
On the actual Chemistry Test, the following type of question
must be answered on a special section (labeled “Chemistry”)
at the lower left-hand corner of your answer sheet. These
questions will be numbered beginning with 101 and must be
answered according to the following directions.
Sample Answer Grid
*Fill in circle CE (correct explanation) only if statement II is a
correct explanation of the true statement I.
Directions
Each question below consists of two statements, I in the left-
hand column and II in the right-hand column. For each question,
determine whether statement I is true or false and whether
statement II is true or false and fill in the corresponding T or F
circles on your answer sheet. *Fill in circle CE only if statement
II is a correct explanation of the true statement I.
I II
101. The rate at which
sugar dissolves in
water increases
with stirring
BECAUSE stirring exposes the
surface of a solute
crystal to a less
concentrated layer of
solution.
102. Diamond has a
high melting point
BECAUSE in a diamond crystal,
the carbon atoms are
held in place by ionic
bonds.
103. Potassium has a
lower first ionization
energy than lithium
has
BECAUSE potassium has more
protons in its nucleus
than lithium has.
104. Zinc metal will reduce
Cu
2+
in solution
BECAUSE zinc is a more active
metal than copper is.
HC
2
H
3
O
2
+ H
2
O C
2
H
3
O
2

+ H
3
O
+
105. If some acetic
acid, HC
2
H
3
O
2
,
is added to the
equilibrium mixture
represented by the
equation above, the
concentration of
H
3
O
+
decreases
BECAUSE the equilibrium
constant of a reaction
changes as the
concentration of the
reactants changes.
.
On the actual Chemistry Test, the remaining questions must be
answered by returning to the section of your answer sheet you
started for the Chemistry Test
Directions
Each of the questions or incomplete statements below is
followed by five suggested answers or completions. Select the
one that is best in each case and then fill in the corresponding
circle on the answer sheet.
11. The hydrogen ion concentration of a solution prepared by
diluting 50. mL of 0.10 M HNO
3
(aq) with water to 500. mL of
solution is
(A) 0.0010 M (B) 0.0050 M (C) 0.010 M
(D) 0.050 M (E) 1.0 M
. . .Cu
2+
(aq) + . . . I

(aq) . . . CuI(s) + . . . I
2
(s)
12. When the equation above is balanced and all coef cients are
reduced to lowest whole-number terms, the coef cient for
I

(aq) is
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3
(D) 4 (E) 5
Gas
h
Liquid
Mercury
13. The bulb of the open-end manometer shown above contains
a gas. True statements about this system include which of the
following?
I. Only atmospheric pressure is exerted on the exposed
mercury surface in the right side of the tube.
II. The gas pressure is greater than atmospheric pressure.
III. The diference in the height, h, of mercury levels is equal
to the pressure of the gas.
(A) II only
(B) III only
(C) I and II only
(D) I and III only
(E) I, II, and III
SAT Subject Tests 49
14. A thermometer is placed in a test tube containing a melted
pure substance. As slow cooling occurs, the thermometer
is read at regular intervals until well after the sample has
solidified. Which of the following types of graphs is obtained
by plotting temperature versus time for this experiment?
15. From their electron configurations, one can predict that the
geometric configuration for which of the following molecules
is NOT correct?
(A) PF
3
trigonal planar
(B) CF
4
tetrahedral
(C) CHCl
3
irregular tetrahedron
(D) OF
2
bent (v-shaped)
(E) HF linear
. . . SO
2
(g) + . . . O
2
(g) . . . SO
3
(g)
16. According to the reaction represented by the unbalanced
equation above, how many moles of SO
2
(g) are required to
react completely with 1 mole of O
2
(g) ?
(A) 0.5 mol (B) 1 mol (C) 2 mol
(D) 3 mol (E) 4 mol
17. Analysis by mass of a certain compound shows that it
contains 14 percent hydrogen and 86 percent carbon. Which
of the following is the most informative statement that can
properly be made about the compound on the basis of these
data?
(A) It is a hydrocarbon.
(B) Its empirical formula is CH
2
.
(C) Its molecular formula is C
2
H
4
.
(D) Its molar mass is 28 g/mol.
(E) It contains a triple bond.
C
3
H
8
(g) + 5 O
2
(g) 3 CO
2
(g) + 4 H
2
O(l)
18. The combustion of propane, C
3
H
8
(g), proceeds according to
the equation above. How many grams of water will be formed
in the complete combustion of 44.0 grams of propane?
(A) 4.50 g (B) 18.0 g (C) 44.0 g
(D) 72.0 g (E) 176 g
19. The number of oxygen atoms in 0.50 mole of KHSO
4
is
(A) 1 2 10
23
. ×
(B) 2 4 10
23
. ×
(C) 3 0 10
23
. ×
(D) 1 2 10
24
. ×
(E) 2 4 10
24
. ×
20. All of the following statements about carbon dioxide are true
EXCEPT:
(A) It can be prepared by the action of acid on limestone.
(B) It is used to extinguish fires.
(C) It dissolves in water at room temperature.
(D) It sublimes rather than melts at 20°C and 1 atmosphere
pressure.
(E) It is less dense than air at a given temperature and
pressure.
21. For elements in the left-most column of the periodic table,
properties that have increasing values as the atomic number
increases include which of the following?
I. Ionization energy (potential)
II. Atomic radius
III. Atomic mass
(A) I only
(B) III only
(C) I and II only
(D) II and III only
(E) I, II, and III
50 SAT Practice Booklet
22. All of the following can act as Brønsted-Lowry acids (proton
donors) in aqueous solution EXCEPT
(A) HI (B) NH
4
+
(C) HCO
3


(D) H
2
S (E) NH
3
ANSWERS
The estimated difficulty level, on a scale of 1 to 5, with 1 the
easiest and 5 the most difficult, is in parentheses.
1. C (2) 5. C (1) 9. E (2)
2. E (3) 6. A (2) 10. A (2)
3. A (4) 7. C (3)
4. A (3) 8. A (3)
Questions 101–105: See box for dif culty level.
11. C (3) 16. C (2) 21. D (3)
12. D (2) 17. B (3) 22. E (4)
13. C (4) 18. D (2)
14. B (3) 19. D (1)
15. A (3) 20. E (3)
Physics
One-hour subject test
Content
Questions may require you to:
■ Recall and understand the major concepts of physics and to
apply these physical principles to solve specific problems
■ Understand simple algebraic, trigonometric, and graphical
relationships and the concepts of ratio and proportion, and
apply these to physics problems
On this Subject Test, please note that:
■ Numerical calculations are not emphasized and are limited to
simple arithmetic
■ Questions predominantly use the metric system
■ You should assume that the direction of any current is the
direction of flow of positive charge (conventional current)
NOTE: Calculator use is not permitted.
Recommended Preparation
■ One-year introductory physics course on the college-
preparatory level
■ Laboratory experience—a significant factor in developing
reasoning and problem-solving skills—even though this test
can only measure lab skills in a limited way, such as data
analysis
FORMAT
Approximate
% of Test
Skills Specification
Recall
20–33
Generally involves remembering and
understanding concepts or information
Single-Concept Problem 40–53
Recall and use of a single physical relationship
Multiple-Concept Problem 20–33
Recall and integration of two or more physical
relationships
Laboratory Skills
In each of the six major topics below, some
questions may deal with laboratory skills in
context.
Topics Covered
Mechanics
36–42
Kinematics, such as velocity, acceleration,
motion in one dimension, and motion of
projectiles
Dynamics, such as force, Newton’s laws, statics,
and friction
Energy and Momentum, such as potential
and kinetic energy, work, power, impulse, and
conservation laws
SAT Subject Tests 51
For more information on the topics tested on the Physics SAT
Subject Test please go to www.collegeboard.com
Sample Questions
Two types of questions are used in the Physics Subject Test and
are shown in the following samples. The directions that follow are
identical to those that are in the test. All questions in the test are
multiple-choice questions in which you must choose the BEST
response from the five choices ofered.
Part A
Directions
Each set of lettered choices below refers to the numbered
questions immediately following it. Select the one lettered
choice that best answers each question and then fill in the
corresponding circle on the answer sheet. A choice may be
used once, more than once, or not at all in each set.
Questions 1-2
Screen
A beam of light is incident on a rectangular opening in the front
of a box, as shown in the side view above. The back of the box
is open. After passing through the box, the light is incident on a
screen. The following devices may be in the box, positioned as
shown below.
(A) A convex
lens
(B) A concave
lens
(C) A thick sheet
of glass
(D) An opaque card with
a very narrow slit
(E) A prism with vertex
pointing downward
1. Which device could produce a tiny spot of light on the screen?
2. Which device could produce a difraction pattern consisting
of a central bright fringe with parallel secondary fringes that
decrease in intensity with increasing distance from the center
of the screen?
FORMAT
Approximate
% of Test
Circular Motion, such as uniform circular
motion and centripetal force
Simple Harmonic Motion, such as mass on a
spring and the pendulum
Gravity, such as the law of gravitation, orbits,
and Kepler’s laws
Electricity and Magnetism
18–24
Electric Fields, Forces, and Potentials, such
as Coulomb’s law, induced charge, field and
potential of groups of point charges, and
charged particles in electric fields
Capacitance, such as parallel-plate capacitors
and time-varying behavior in charging/
discharging
Circuit Elements and DC Circuits, such
as resistors, light bulbs, series and parallel
networks, Ohm’s law, and Joule’s law
Magnetism, such as permanent magnets, fields
caused by currents, particles in magnetic fields,
Faraday’s law, and Lenz’s law
Waves and Optics
15–19
General Wave Properties, such as wave speed,
frequency, wavelength, superposition, standing-
wave diffraction, and Doppler effect
Reflection and Refraction, such as Snell’s law
and changes in wavelength and speed
Ray Optics, such as image formation using
pinholes, mirrors, and lenses
Physical Optics, such as single-slit diffraction,
double-slit interference, polarization, and color
Heat and Thermodynamics 6–11
Thermal Properties, such as temperature, heat
transfer, specific and latent heats, and thermal
expansion
Laws of Thermodynamics, such as first and
second laws, internal energy, entropy, and heat
engine efficiency
Modern Physics 6–11
Quantum Phenomena, such as photons and
photoelectric effect
Atomic, such as the Rutherford and Bohr
models, atomic energy levels, and atomic spectra
Nuclear and Particle Physics, such
as radioactivity, nuclear reactions, and
fundamental particles
Relativity, such as time dilation, length
contraction, and mass-energy equivalence
Miscellaneous 4–9
General, such as history of physics and general
questions that overlap several major topics
Analytical Skills, such as graphical analysis,
measurement, and math skills
Contemporary Physics, such as astrophysics,
superconductivity, and chaos theory
52 SAT Practice Booklet
Questions 3-4 relate to a point charge + Q fixed in position, as
shown below. Five points near the charge and in the plane of the
page are shown.
A B
C
E
D
+ Q
3. At which point will the magnitude of the electric field be
least?
4. At which point will an electron experience a force directed
toward the top of the page?
Part B
Directions
Each of the questions or incomplete statements below is
followed by five suggested answers or completions. Select the
one that is best in each case and then fill in the corresponding
circle on the answer sheet.
5. When a vector of magnitude 6 units is added to a vector of
magnitude 8 units, the magnitude of the resultant vector will
be
(A) exactly 2 units
(B) exactly 10 units
(C) exactly 14 units
(D) 0 units, 10 units, or some value between them
(E) 2 units, 14 units, or some value between them
5 kg
6. A 5-kilogram block is suspended by a cord from the ceiling,
as shown above. The force exerted on the block by the cord is
most nearly
(A) zero (B) 25 N (C) 50 N
(D) 100 N (E) 200 N
7. An experiment is performed to measure the specific heat of
copper. A lump of copper is heated in an oven, then dropped
into a beaker of water. To calculate the specific heat of copper,
the experimenter must know or measure the value of all of the
quantities below EXCEPT the
(A) mass of the water
(B) original temperatures of the copper and the water
(C) final (equilibrium) temperature of the copper and the
water
(D) time taken to achieve equilibrium after the copper is
dropped into the water
(E) specific heat of the water
8. Which of the following graphs best represents the kinetic
energy K of an elementary particle as a function of its speed
, where c is the speed of light?
+
/
C
(A)
+
/
C
(B)
+
/
C
(C)
+
/
C
(E)
+
/
C
(D)
9. In a given process, 12 joules of heat is added to an ideal gas
and the gas does 8 joules of work. Which of the following is
true about the internal energy of the gas during this process?
(A) It has increased by 20 joules.
(B) It has increased by 4 joules.
(C) It has not changed.
(D) It has decreased by 4 joules.
(E) It has decreased by 20 joules.
SAT Subject Tests 53
N
S
W E
1 m/s
Disk
4 kg
Top View
Post
10. A 4-kilogram disk slides over level ice toward the east
at a velocity of 1 meter per second, as shown above. The
disk strikes a post and rebounds toward the north at the
same speed. The change in the magnitude of the eastward
component of the momentum of the disk is
(A) –4 kg • m/s
(B) –1 kg • m/s
(C) 0 kg • m/s
(D) 1 kg • m/s
(E) 4 kg • m/s
n
Energy Above
Ground State
3 7 eV
2 4 eV
1 0 eV
11. Three energy levels of an atom are shown above. Atoms in the
n = 2 state can spontaneously emit photons having which of
the following energies?
(A) 4 eV only
(B) 7 eV only
(C) 3 eV and 4 eV only
(D) 3 eV and 7 eV only
(E) 3 eV, 4 eV, and 7 eV
d
h
m
1
2
12. A box of mass m is released from rest at position 1 on the
frictionless curved track shown above. It slides a distance
d along the track in time t to reach position 2, dropping a
vertical distance h. Let and a be the instantaneous speed
and instantaneous acceleration, respectively, of the box at
position 2. Which of the following equations is valid for this
situation?
(A) (B)
h gt =
1
2
2
(C) d at =
1
2
2
(D) (E)
Questions 13-14 relate to the following circuit.
R
I
A single resistor R is connected to a battery as shown above.
The current is I and the power dissipated as heat is P. The circuit
is changed by doubling the emf of the battery while R is kept
constant.
13. After the change, the current is
(A)
I
4
(B)
I
2
(C) I
(D) 2I (E) 4I
14. After the change, the power dissipated in R is
(A)
P
4
(B)
P
2
(C) P
(D) 2P (E) 4P
54 SAT Practice Booklet
15. Which of the following is true of the magnetic field produced
by a current in a long, straight wire?
(A) The field is uniform.
(B) The field increases in strength as the distance from the
wire increases.
(C) The field lines are directed parallel to the wire, but
opposite to the direction of the current.
(D) The field lines are directed radially outward from the
wire.
(E) The field lines form circles about the wire.
16. The Earth has a radius of 6,400 kilometers. A satellite orbits
the Earth at a distance of 12,800 kilometers from the center
of the Earth. If the weight of the satellite on Earth is 100
kilonewtons, the gravitational force on the satellite in orbit is
(A) 11 kilonewtons
(B) 25 kilonewtons
(C) 50 kilonewtons
(D) 100 kilonewtons
(E) 200 kilonewtons
17. A pendulum of length with a bob of mass m is oscillating
with small amplitude. Which of the following changes in the
pendulum would double its period?
(A) Doubling the mass m of the bob
(B) Doubling the initial force used to set the pendulum in
motion
(C) Doubling the amplitude of the pendulum’s swing
(D) Quadrupling the mass m of the bob
(E) Quadrupling the length of the pendulum
Questions 18-19
A piece of chalk is thrown vertically upward and caught during
its descent at the same height from which it was thrown. Position
is measured from the location of the chalk when it left the hand.
The positive direction for position, velocity, and acceleration is
upward.
18. What are the signs of the position, velocity, and acceleration
during the ascending part of the trajectory?
POSITION VELOCITY ACCELERATION
(A) Positive Positive Positive
(B) Positive Positive Negative
(C) Positive Negative Negative
(D) Negative Positive Negative
(E) Negative Negative Negative
19. What are the signs of the position, velocity, and acceleration
during the descending part of the trajectory?
POSITION VELOCITY ACCELERATION
(A) Positive Positive Positive
(B) Positive Positive Negative
(C) Positive Negative Negative
(D) Negative Positive Negative
(E) Negative Negative Negative
ANSWERS
The estimated difficulty level, on a scale of 1 to 5, with 1
the easiest and 5 the most difficult, is in parentheses.
1. A (3) 7. D (3) 13. D (3) 19. C (5)
2. D (3) 8. B (2) 14. E (5)
3. D (1) 9. B (3) 15. E (3)
4. E (2) 10. A (4) 16. B (5)
5. E (2) 11. A (4) 17. E (4)
6. C (1) 12. E (4) 18. B (4)
SAT Subject Tests 55
FORMAT
Approximate
% of Test
20 minutes of listening and 40 minutes of usage and reading
85 multiple-choice questions in three sections
Skills Measured
Listening comprehension 33
Usage 33
Reading comprehension 33
Sample Listening Questions
All questions in the test are multiple choice. You must choose
the BEST response from the three or four choices ofered for
each question.
When the test is administered, all spoken Chinese will be
presented by CD playback. All text appearing here in square
brackets [ ] is spoken.
Part A
Directions
(Narrator): [Directions: In this part of the test you will hear short
questions, statements, or commands in Mandarin Chinese,
followed by three responses in Mandarin Chinese, designated
(A), (B), and (C). You will hear the questions or statements, as
well as the responses, just one time, and they are not printed in
your test booklet. Therefore you must listen very carefully. Select
the best response and fill in the corresponding circle on your
answer sheet.]
Question 1
Question 2
Chinese with Listening
One-hour subject test
Content
The test evaluates ability in three areas:
Listening Comprehension: These questions test the ability
to understand the spoken language and are based on
short, spoken dialogues and narratives primarily about
everyday topics. There are two diferent kinds of listening
comprehension questions: (A) a spoken statement, question,
or exchange, followed by a choice of three possible responses
(also spoken); (B) a spoken dialogue or monologue with a
printed question or questions (in English) about what was said.
Usage: These questions ask you to select the answer that best
completes a Chinese sentence in a way that is structurally and
logically correct. Questions are written to reflect instructional
practices of the curriculum. This section of the test is therefore
presented in four columns across two pages of the test book
to allow each question and its answer choices to be shown in
four diferent ways of representing Chinese: traditional and
simplified Chinese characters on the left page, and phonetic
transcriptions in Pinyin romanization and the Chinese phonetic
alphabet (Bopomofo) on the right page. You should choose
the writing form with which you are most familiar and read only
from that column.
Reading Comprehension: Reading comprehension questions
test your understanding of such points as main and supporting
ideas, themes, and the setting of passages. Some of the
passages are based on real-life materials such as timetables,
forms, advertisements, notes, letters, diaries, and newspaper
articles. All passages are written in both traditional and
simplified Chinese characters. Most questions deal with
understanding of literal meaning although some inference
questions may be included. All reading comprehension
questions are in English.
Recommended Preparation
■ Study of Chinese as a second language for two to four years
in high school, or the equivalent
■ Gradual development of competence in Chinese over a
period of years
■ Review of sample listening questions using the practice CD
available from your school counselor
56 SAT Practice Booklet
Question 3
Question 4
Part B
Directions
(Narrator): [Directions: You will now hear a series of short
selections. You will hear them only once and they are not printed
in your test booklet. After each selection, you will be asked to
answer one or more questions about what you have just heard.
These questions, each with four possible answers, are printed in
your test booklet. Select the best answer to each question from
among the four choices given and fill in the corresponding circle
on your answer sheet. You will have 15 seconds to answer each
question.]
Questions 5-6
5. Where will the woman spend the summer next year?
(A) In China
(B) In Japan
(C) In Hong Kong
(D) In the United States
6. What will the woman do?
(A) Visit friends
(B) Go to school
(C) Look for a job
(D) Travel abroad
Question 7
7. What will the tourists most likely do after the announcement?
(A) Claim their luggage
(B) Go shopping
(C) Call a taxi
(D) Leave the art museum
SAT Subject Tests 57
Sample Reading Questions
Questions 8-9
8. This note tells us that
(A) Wang is a teacher and Li is a student
(B) Wang is a teacher and Chen is a student
(C) Wang and Li are both teachers
(D) Li and Chen are both students
9. Who called in sick?
(A) Wang
(B) Chen
(C) Lin
(D) Li
Questions 10-11
10. This advertisement is announcing a temporary ofer of
(A) additional destinations
(B) lower fares
(C) special discounts
(D) additional flights
11. When does this ofer become efective?
(A) August 20
(B) June 15
(C) April 5
(D) February 1
58 SAT Practice Booklet
Sample Usage Questions
Directions: This section consists of a number of incomplete statements, each of which has four possible completions. Select the word or
phrase that best completes the sentence structurally and logically and fill in the corresponding circle on your answer sheet.
This section of the test is presented in four columns across two pages to allow each item to be shown in four diferent ways of represent-
ing Chinese: traditional characters, simplified characters, pinyin romanization, and the Chinese phonetic alphabet (Bopomofo). TO SAVE
TIME, IT IS RECOMMENDED THAT YOU CHOOSE THE WRITING FORM WITH WHICH YOU ARE MOST FAMILIAR AND READ ONLY
FROM THAT COLUMN AS YOU WORK THROUGH THIS SECTION OF THE TEST.
SAT Subject Tests 59
ANSWERS
The estimated difficulty level, on a scale of 1 to 5, with 1
the easiest and 5 the most difficult, is in parentheses.
1. C (2) 5. D (3) 9. D (3) 13. B (2)
2. A (2) 6. B (4) 10. D (5) 14. A (3)
3. B (1) 7. B (3) 11. B (4) 15. D (4)
4. C (3) 8. C (4) 12. D (1)
60 SAT Practice Booklet
French and French with
Listening
One-hour subject tests
Content
The tests evaluate reading ability in three areas:
Precision of Vocabulary: These questions test knowledge of
words representing diferent parts of speech and some basic
idioms within culturally authentic contexts.
Structure: These questions measure the ability to select an
appropriate word or expression that is grammatically correct
within a sentence. One part of the test contains vocabulary
and structure questions embedded in longer paragraphs.
Reading Comprehension: These questions test
understanding of such points as main and supporting ideas,
themes, and setting of a passage. Selections are drawn from
fiction, essays, historical works, and newspaper articles or
everyday materials such as advertisements, timetables,
forms, and tickets.
The listening test also measures the ability to understand spoken
language with three types of listening questions:
Type One: Identify the sentence that most accurately
describes what is presented in a picture or photograph.
Type Two: Answer general content questions based on short
dialogues or monologues.
Type Three: Answer more specific questions based on longer
dialogues or monologues.
Recommended Preparation
Both tests reflect general trends in high school curricula and are
independent of particular textbooks or methods of instruction.
Recommended preparation includes:
■ 3–4 years study in high school or the equivalent, or
■ 2 years of strong preparation
■ Gradual development of competence in French over a period
of years
French Test with Listening
■ Review of sample listening questions using the practice CD
available from your school counselor
FORMAT–FRENCH with LISTENING
Approximate
% of Test
20 minutes of listening and 40 minutes of reading
85–90 multiple-choice listening and reading questions
Listening Section (20 minutes) 35
Pictures 8–12 questions
Short dialogues 6–12 questions
Long dialogues 10–15 questions
Reading Section (40 minutes) 65
Vocabulary 16–20 questions
Structure 16–20 questions
Reading
comprehension
20–25 questions
Sample Reading Questions
Four types of reading questions are used in the French Subject
Tests. All questions in the tests are multiple-choice questions
in which you must choose the BEST response from the four
choices ofered.
Part A
Directions
This part consists of a number of incomplete statements,
each having four suggested completions. Select the most
appropriate completion and fill in the corresponding circle on
the answer sheet.
1. Pourquoi es-tu debout si…puisque tu dois te lever de bonne
heure?
(A) tard(B) loin(C) peu(D) haut
2. Je ne pleure pas! J’ai quelque chose dans…
(A) l’oeuvre(B) l’outil(C) l’oreiller(D) l’oeil
3. Les diplomates ont négocié un…entre les deux pays.
(A) traitement(B) accord
(C) agrément(D) concombre
FORMAT–FRENCH
Approximate
% of Test
85 multiple-choice questions
Skills Measured
Vocabulary in context 30
Structure 30–40
Reading comprehension 30–40
SAT Subject Tests 61
Part B
Directions
Each of the following sentences contains a blank. From the
four choices given, select the one that can be inserted in the
blank to form a grammatically correct sentence and fill in the
corresponding circle on the answer sheet. Choice (A) may
consist of dashes that indicate that no insertion is required to
form a grammatically correct sentence.
4. À cette occasion Jean-Louis a mis ------- plus belle chemise et
une jolie cravate neuve.
(A) sa(B) son(C) ses(D) sienne
5. Si tu faisais du jogging tous les jours, est-ce que tu te -------
mieux?
(A) sentiras(B) sentirais(C) sentais(D) sens
6. — ------- est sur la table?
— C’est le vin que ta mère a commandé.
(A) Quoi (B) Qu’est-ce qu’
(C) Quel (D) Qu’est-ce qui
Part C
Directions
The paragraphs below contain blank spaces indicating
omissions in the text. For some blanks it is necessary to choose
the completion that is most appropriate to the meaning of the
passage; for other blanks, to choose the one completion that
forms a grammatically correct sentence. In some instances,
choice (A) may consist of dashes that indicate that no insertion
is required to form a grammatically correct sentence. In each
case, indicate your answer by filling in the corresponding circle
on the answer sheet. Be sure to read the paragraph completely
before answering the questions related to it.
Selon (7) , les Français célèbrent les fêtes de fin d’année
en (8) un bon nombre d’huîtres et d’autres (9) de
mer. Ils ofrent de petits cadeaux à (10) envers qui ils sont
(11) . Et ils envoient des (12) de voeux à (13) amis et
collègues.
7. (A) la coutume
(B) l’utilisation
(C) l’habit
(D) le temps
8. (A) consommant
(B) consommé
(C) avoir consommé
(D) consommer
9. (A) légumes
(B) fleurs
(C) poisons
(D) fruits
10. (A) ceux
(B) lesquels
(C) quels
(D) leurs
11. (A) indiférents
(B) repentants
(C) prudents
(D) reconnaissants
62 SAT Practice Booklet
12. (A) cartons
(B) photos
(C) cartes
(D) feuilles
13. (A) ses
(B) tous
(C) leurs
(D) mes
Part D
Directions
Read the following selections carefully for comprehension. Each
selection is followed by a number of questions or incomplete
statements. Select the completion or answer that is BEST
according to the selection and fill in the corresponding circle on
the answer sheet.
Alors, que dire des contes qu’invente aujourd’hui la
publicité? On dénonce l’artifce et les conventions des
messages publicitaires. Mais quand on demande à
des enfants de choisir entre divers scénarios ou types
d’illustration, il faut bien constater que ce sont
justement ces conventions, cet artifce qu’ils préfèrent.
Les parents s’inquiètent des images de violence
physique ou de complaisance sexuelle qu’on peut voir
à la télévision, alors que les enfants, au moins jusqu’à
la puberté, y sont en général indiférents. En revanche,
ils détestent le journal télévisé. Avec son cortège de
guerres, de chômage et de grèves, de drames et de
catastrophes, il les met mal à l’aise. La publicité, avec
son imagerie du bonheur, les rassure.
Et quand les moralistes reprochent aux publicitaires
de lier cette idée de bonheur à la possession de biens
matériels, ils oublient que les contes de fées non plus
n’étaient pas désintéressés. Ce n’est pas le problème
des enfants. Cela peut être celui des parents, quand ils
s’eforcent de leur apprendre à faire le départ entre le
réel et l’imaginaire, entre le désir et sa réalisation.
14. Selon l’article, les efets des scènes de violence et de
complaisance sexuelle à la télévision sur les jeunes enfants
sont en général
(A) nuisibles (B) graves
(C) favorables (D) insignifiants
15. D’après le texte, quelle est la réaction que le journal télévisé
provoque chez les enfants?
(A) Il les trouble. (B) Il les intéresse.
(C) Il les laisse indiférents. (D) Il les rassure.
16. Quelle est la conclusion de l’article vis-à-vis de la publicité?
(A) La réaction des enfants devant la publicité dépend des
parents.
(B) Tous les enfants réagissent diféremment à la publicité.
(C) La publicité est salutaire dans le développement de
l’enfant.
(D) On a raison de dénoncer les messages publicitaires.
g
g
g
i[ih[ijWkhWj[khi"
17. Quand on voyage en train, on devrait réserver une table au
moment où l’on
(A) achète son billet
(B) commence le voyage
(C) annonce le repas
(D) arrive à destination
Ligne
(5)
(10)
(15)
(20)
SAT Subject Tests 63
Sample Listening Questions
The following three types of questions appear on the French
Test with Listening. All questions in this section of the test are
multiple-choice questions in which you must choose the BEST
response from three or four choices ofered. Text in brackets [ ] is
recorded on the CD.
Part A
Directions
For each item in this part, you will hear four sentences desig-
nated (A), (B), (C), and (D). They will not be printed in your test
book. As you listen, look at the picture in your test book and
select the choice that BEST reflects what you see in the picture
or what someone in the picture might say. Then fill in the cor-
responding circle on the answer sheet. You will hear the choices
only once. Now look at the following example.
You see:
You hear:
[ (A) Quelle joie d’être seul!
(B) Que c’est agréable de faire du vélo!
(C) Le moteur fait trop de bruit!
(D) Nous adorons la course à pied.]
Statement (B), “Que c’est agréable de faire du vélo!” best reflects
what you see in the picture or what someone in the picture might
say. Therefore, you should choose answer (B).
1. You see:
You hear:
[Numéro 1
(Woman) (A) Il y a beaucoup de vagues cet
après-midi.
(B) Quel plaisir d’être en forêt!
(C) Faire de la voile est bien
agréable.
(D) Les bateaux à rames sont
lents et silencieux.]
(7 seconds)
2. You see:
You hear:
[Numéro 2
(Man) (A) C’est bien, la musique en
plein air!
(B) Ces gens écoutent un
discours passionnant.
(C) Ces gens se plaignent du
bruit.
(D) Cette salle de concert a une
bonne acoustique.]
(7 seconds)
64 SAT Practice Booklet
Part B
Directions
In this part of the test you will hear several short selections. A
tone will announce each new selection. The selections will not
be printed in your test booklet, and will be heard only once. At
the end of each selection, you will be asked one or two ques-
tions about what was said, each followed by three possible an-
swers, (A), (B), and (C). The answers are not printed in your test
booklet. You will hear them only once. Select the BEST answer
and fill in the corresponding circle on the answer sheet. Now
listen to the following example, but do not mark the answer on
your answer sheet.
You hear:
[(Tone)
(Man B) Papa, ta voiture est chez le
garagiste.
(Man A) Mais pourquoi? Elle a toujours
bien marché.
(Man B) Euh, en réalité, j’ai eu un
accident.
(Man A) Quoi? Tu plaisantes, n’est-ce
pas?
(Woman A) Qu’est-ce qu’on peut dire de la
voiture en question?
(A) Elle est en réparation.
(B) Elle est sur la route.
(C) Elle est chez un ami.]
The best answer to the question, “Qu’est-ce qu’on peut dire
de la voiture en question?” is (A), “Elle est en réparation.”
Therefore, you should choose answer (A).
Questions 3-4
[(Tone)
(Woman) Agence Beausoleil, bonjour.
(Man) Bonjour, madame. Pourriez-vous
m’aider à trouver un vol
pour Toronto dans la semaine du
15 avril?
(Woman) Bien sûr, monsieur. Selon
l’ordinateur, il y a des vols à 11
heures et à 15 heures tous les
jours.
(Man) D’accord. Réservez-moi une
place sur le vol de 11 heures,
pour le mardi 16.
(Woman) Entendu, monsieur.]
(5 seconds)
3. [Numéro 3
(Woman) Qu’est-ce que le monsieur veut
faire?
(A) Réserver une chambre
(B) Acheter un ordinateur
(C) Prendre un avion]
(7 seconds)
4. [Numéro 4
(Woman) Quand le monsieur va-t-il partir?
(A) Immédiatement
(B) En semaine
(C) Pendant le week-end]
(7 seconds)
Questions 5-6
[(Tone)
(Man) Pour la quatrième année
consécutive, des échanges auront
lieu entre des étudiants de Paris
et de New York. Environ vingt-
cinq étudiants âgés de 15 à 17
ans viendront passer trois
semaines dans des familles aux
Etats-Unis. L’été suivant, ce sera
le tour des étudiants américains
d’être hébergés dans des familles
françaises.]
(5 seconds)
5. [Numéro 5
(Man B) Quel est le but de cette annonce à
la radio?
(A) D’encourager le tourisme en été
(B) De présenter des renseignements sur Paris
(C) De présenter un programme d’échange]
(7 seconds)
6. [Numéro 6
(Man B) Combien de temps doit durer ce
séjour?
(A) Trois semaines
(B) Six mois
(C) Un an]
(7 seconds)
SAT Subject Tests 65
Questions 7-8
[(Tone)
(Man A) Bon, c’est d’accord. Nous allons
d’abord voir un film, puis
retrouver Anne et Sophie au café
de la gare. On se rencontre à dix-
neuf heures devant le cinéma,
entendu?
(Man B) C’est ça. À ce soir.]
(5 seconds)
7. [Numéro 7
(Woman) Qu’est-ce que les deux amis vont
faire ensemble?
(A) Prendre le train
(B) Aller au cinéma
(C) Écouter des disques]
(7 seconds)
8. [Numéro 8
(Woman) Où les amis vont-ils rencontrer
Anne et Sophie?
(A) Chez elles
(B) Dans un café
(C) Au théâtre]
(7 seconds)
Part C
Directions
You will now hear some extended dialogues or monologues.
You will hear each only once. After each dialogue or monologue,
you will be asked several questions about what you have just
heard. These questions are also printed in your test book. Select
the best answer to each question from among the four choices
printed in your test book and fill in the corresponding circle on
the answer sheet. There is no sample question for this part.
Questions 9-11
You will hear:
[(Man A) Dialogue numéro 1. Éric,
jeune étudiant demeurant à
Paris, parle de ses activités.
(Woman) Alors, dis-moi ce que tu fais.
(Man B) Je suis chanteur dans deux
groupes, un de Rythme &
Blues, et un autre groupe, un
groupe de rock.
(Woman) Et vous répétez souvent?
(Man B) Pour le groupe de Rythme &
Blues, nous ne répétons pas
souvent; nous avons répété
pendant huit mois et donc
nous connaissons assez bien le
répertoire et je ne fais pas tous
les concerts avec eux, donc ce
n’est pas la peine.
(Woman) Et comment s’appelle ce
groupe?
(Man B) Ce groupe s’appelle Les Steady
Holy Men.
(Woman) Et l’autre groupe?
(Man B) C’est un groupe de rock qui
s’appelle Rifraf et là, on vient
de commencer il y a deux
mois, un peu plus peut-être, et
nous répétons, une fois par
semaine au moins, quelquefois
deux fois par semaine,
pendant trois ou quatre
heures.
(Woman) Et vous répétez où?
(Man B) Nous répétons dans un local
de répétitions. Il y en a
plusieurs sur Paris où on peut
payer à l’heure pour répéter
dans un studio. Tout est
équipé.
(Woman) Bien, et vous jouez où, en
général?
(Man B) Nous jouons dans des bars,
dans des clubs, dans des
bistros, dans des caves.]
9. [Numéro 9
(Woman B) Au cours de cette
conversation, qu’est-ce que
nous apprenons sur le jeune
Éric?]
Au cours de cette conversation, qu’est-ce que nous apprenons
sur le jeune Éric?
(A) Il est chanteur.
(B) Il a terminé ses études.
(C) Il est acteur.
(D) Il veut apprendre le français.
(12 seconds)
66 SAT Practice Booklet
10. [Numéro 10
(Woman B) Pourquoi les membres du groupe
Rythme & Blues ne répètent-ils
pas souvent?]
Pourquoi les membres du groupe Rythme & Blues ne
répètent-ils pas souvent?
(A) Parce qu’ils connaissent bien les chansons
(B) Parce qu’ils aiment improviser
(C) Parce qu’ils s’intéressent à d’autres concerts
(D) Parce qu’ils jouent rarement en public
(12 seconds)
11. [Numéro 11
(Woman B) Où Éric donne-t-il des concerts?]
Où Éric donne-t-il des concerts?
(A) Dans des restaurants
(B) Dans des jardins
(C) Dans des clubs
(D) Dans des théâtres
(12 seconds)
ANSWERS
The estimated difficulty level, on a scale of 1 to 5, with 1 the
easiest and 5 the most difficult, is in parentheses.
Reading Questions
1. A (1) 6. D (4) 11. D (3) 16. A (3)
2. D (2) 7. A (2) 12. C (3) 17. A (3)
3. B (3) 8. A (2) 13. C (2)
4. A (2) 9. D (2) 14. D (3)
5. B (3) 10. A (5) 15. A (4)
Listening Questions
1. D (4) 4. B (2) 7. B (2) 10. A (4)
2. A (3) 5. C (2) 8. B (3) 11. C (3)
3. C (2) 6. A (3) 9. A (2)
German and German with
Listening
One-hour subject tests
Content
Both tests comply with the German spelling reform
(Rechtschreibreform) as much as possible. The tests evaluate
reading ability in these areas:
Sentence Completion and Paragraph Completion: These
questions test vocabulary and grammar requiring you to
know the meaning of words and idiomatic expressions in
context and to identify usage that is structurally correct and
appropriate. For each omission, you must select the choice
that BEST fits each sentence.
Reading Comprehension: These questions test
understanding of the content of various materials taken
from sources such as advertisements, timetables, street
signs, forms, and tickets. They also examine your ability to
read passages representative of various styles and levels
of dif culty. There are several prose passages followed by
questions that test your understanding of the passages.
The passages, mostly adapted from literary sources
and newspapers or magazines, are generally one or two
paragraphs in length and test whether you can identify the
main idea or comprehend facts or details in the text.
The listening test also measures the ability to understand spoken
language with two types of listening questions:
Type One: Contains short dialogues/monologues with one
or two multiple-choice questions. Dialogues/monologues,
questions, and answer choices are recorded. Questions are
also printed in the test book.
Type Two: Contains longer dialogues and monologues with
several multiple-choice questions. Dialogues/monologues
and questions are only recorded and not printed in the test
book. Answer choices are not recorded; they appear only in
the test book.
Recommended Preparation
Both tests reflect general trends in high school curricula and are
independent of particular textbooks or methods of instruction.
Recommended preparation includes:
■ 2–4 years of study in high school or the equivalent
■ Gradual development of competence in German over a period
of years
SAT Subject Tests 67
German Test with Listening
■ Review of sample listening questions using the practice CD
available from your school counselor
FORMAT–GERMAN
Approximate
% of Test
80–85 multiple-choice questions
Skills Measured
Vocabulary in context and
Structure in context (grammar)
50
Reading comprehension 50
Authentic stimulus materials and passages
FORMAT–GERMAN with LISTENING
Approximate
% of Test
20 minutes of listening and 40 minutes of reading
85–90 multiple-choice listening and reading questions
Listening questions that require answers to questions based
on shorter and longer listening selections
Listening Section (20 minutes) 35
Short dialogues/monologues
Long dialogues/monologues
Reading Section (40 minutes) 65
Vocabulary in context
Structure in context (grammar)
Reading comprehension using authentic stimulus materials
and passages
Sample Reading Questions
Several types of questions are used in the Subject Test in German.
All questions in the test are multiple-choice questions in which
you must choose the BEST response from the four choices
ofered.
Part A
Directions
This part consists of a number of incomplete statements, each
having four suggested completions. Select the most appropriate
completion and fill in the corresponding circle on the answer
sheet.
1. Der Präsident hat gestern Abend eine . . . gehalten.
(A) Rede(B) Sprache(C) Nachricht
(D) Erklärung
2. Der nächste Bus . . . um zehn Uhr ab.
(A) fahrt(B) fahr(C) fahre
(D) fährt
3. Wissen Sie, . . . dieser Hund gehört?
(A) wer(B) wo(C) wessen
(D) wem
Part B
Directions
In the following paragraph, there are numbered blanks
indicating that words or phrases have been omitted. For each
numbered blank, four completions are provided. First read
through the entire paragraph. Then, for each numbered blank,
choose the completion that is most appropriate and fill in the
corresponding circle on the answer sheet.
Verspätung
Solange ich ihn -------, ist er immer pünktlich -------; ich
4. (A) weiß 5. (A) gewesen
(B) kenne (B) worden
(C) verstehe (C) geworden
(D) kann (D) gewusst
verstehe -------

nicht, warum er uns
6. (A) damit
(B) dadurch
(C) darin
(D) deshalb
diesmal im -------

gelassen hat.
7. (A) Loch
(B) Vergessen
(C) Stich
(D) Mangel
68 SAT Practice Booklet
Part C
Directions
Read the following texts carefully for comprehension. Each is
followed by a number of questions or incomplete statements.
Select the answer or completion that is best according to the
text and fill in the corresponding circle on the answer sheet.
Question 8
Weltstadt-Wochenende
zu zweit zu gewinnen!
• An einem Freitag anreisen und bis Sonntag
bleiben • Im erstklassigen Hotel verwöhnt
werden • Weltstadt-Programm erleben
• Das alles auf unsere Kosten •
______________________________________________
______________________________________________
______________________________________________
Name:
Straße:
Ort: Viel Glück!
8. Was könnte man mit diesem Schein gewinnen?
(A) Ein bezahltes Wochenende
(B) Einen Urlaub am Meer
(C) Ein tolles Auto
(D) Ein super Hotel
Questions 9-10
9. Wofür macht man hier Reklame?
(A) Moderne Rockstars
(B) Neue Stereoanlagen
(C) Preiswerte CD-Spieler
(D) Eine Musikzeitschrift
10. Worüber gibt das Magazin wohl Auskunft?
(A) Neues über Computer
(B) Kunstausstellungen
(C) Neues aus Rock und Pop
(D) Modische Kleidung
Questions 11-13
Die Frage, ob Bewegung wirklich der
Gesundheit dient, beschäfigt nach wie vor
sowohl die Mediziner als auch alle diejenigen,
die mit Joggen, Schwimmen und Schwitzen ihr
Herzinfarktrisiko zu verkleinern hofen.
Bevölkerungsstudien geben viele Beweise
dafür, dass Herztraining—bestimmte körperliche
Übungen mindestens dreimal in der Woche, die für
mindestens 30 Minuten den Puls beschleunigen—
tatsächlich die Gefahr von Herzkrankheiten
reduzieren kann. Laboruntersuchungen hingegen
waren bisher nicht ganz klar. Großes Interesse fand
jedoch eine Studie der Universitätsklinik Boston.
Nach regelmäßigem Training in einem Laufrad
überstand eine Versuchsgruppe von Afen die
Folgen einer schlechten Ernährung besser als eine
Vergleichsgruppe. Diese Gruppe hatte bei gleicher
Ernährung keine Bewegung. Natürlich muss das
Experiment wiederholt und verbessert werden.
Immerhin ist dies das erste Versuchsresultat mit
höheren Primaten, z.B. Afen, das zeigt, dass man
durch körperliche Bewegung Herzerkrankungen
verhindern kann.
SAT Subject Tests 69
11. Es gibt viele Beweise dafür, dass Herzinfarkte bei Menschen
nicht so häufig auftreten, wenn sie
(A) zu viel essen
(B) fit bleiben
(C) Bewegung vermeiden
(D) Tierversuche machen
12. Der Verfasser des Berichtes macht es klar, dass
(A) die Vergleichsgruppe kein Verhältnis zur
Versuchsgruppe hat
(B) Bewegung der menschlichen Gesundheit nur schaden
kann
(C) das Experiment wiederholt werden muss
(D) der Puls nie beschleunigt werden kann
13. In diesem Artikel geht es in erster Linie um eine Frage
(A) des Sporttrainings
(B) der Ernährung
(C) der Labormethoden
(D) der Gesundheit
Sample Listening Questions
In the German Test with Listening, the following two types
of listening questions will appear in addition to the reading
questions discussed previously. In the actual test, the listening
section will come first. All questions in this part of the test are
multiple-choice questions in which you must choose the BEST
response from the four choices ofered.
Text in brackets [ ] is only recorded and not printed in your test
book.
Part A
Directions
In this part of the test you will hear several selections. They
will not be printed in your test book. You will hear them only
once. Therefore, you must listen very carefully. In your test book
you will read one or two short questions about what was said.
Another speaker will read the questions for you. Each question
will be followed by four choices marked (A), (B), (C), and (D). The
choices are not printed in your test book. You will hear them
once. Select the best answer and fill in the corresponding circle
on your answer sheet.
(Narrator) [Question 14 refers to the following
exchange.]
(Man B) [Hmmm, das riecht gut. Was gibt’s
denn heute Abend zu essen?
(Man A) Für dich nichts, Klaus, weil du immer so
spät nach Hause kommst.
(Man B) Entschuldige, Rainer. Aber das war nicht
meine Schuld—heute. Die Chefin
gab mir in der letzten Minute noch
viel zu tun.]
14. (Woman) [Was gefällt Rainer nicht?] Was gefällt
Rainer nicht?
(Man) [(A)Klaus kommt spät.
(B) Die Chefin arbeitet viel.
(C) Klaus hat gegessen.
(D) Es riecht so gut.]
(5 seconds)
(Narrator) [Questions 15 and 16 refer to the
following exchange.]
(Man A) [Herr Lenz, es ist schon 6.00 Uhr,
und Sie sitzen immer noch am
Schreibtisch!
(Man B) Ich fahre doch morgen in Urlaub und
wollte keine Arbeit liegen lassen.
(Man A) Lassen Sie mal. Am Montag bekomme
ich eine Hilfskraft. Gehen Sie nach
Hause und packen Sie.]
15. (Woman) [Warum sitzt Herr Lenz noch am
Schreibtisch?] Warum sitzt Herr Lenz
noch am Schreibtisch?
(Man) [(A) Er telefoniert.
(B) Er packt ein.
(C) Er arbeitet.
(D) Er fährt heim.]
(5 seconds)
16. (Woman) [Wo unterhalten sich die Männer?] Wo
unterhalten sich die Männer?
(Man) [(A) Im Urlaub.
(B) Im Zug.
(C) Zu Hause.
(D) Im Büro.]
(5 seconds)
Part B
Directions
You will now listen to some extended dialogues or monologues.
You will hear each only once. After each dialogue or monologue,
you will be asked several questions about what you have just
heard. These questions are not printed in your test book. From
the four printed choices, select the best answer to each question
and fill in the corresponding circle on the answer sheet. There is
no sample question for this part.
70 SAT Practice Booklet
Questions 17-20
(Narrator) [You will hear a telephone conversation
about a car deal.]
(Telephone rings)
(Woman) [Hallo—Müller hier.
(Man) Ich habe in der „Morgenpost” gelesen,
dass Sie ein Auto zu verkaufen
haben. Können Sie mir etwas über
den Wagen sagen?
(Woman) Ja, der Wagen ist drei Jahre alt, hat
ungefähr 45 000 km und ein
Schiebedach. Er ist in gutem
Zustand. Er steht immer nachts in
der Garage, und ich hatte noch nie
einen Unfall damit.
(Man) Wann war der Wagen das letzte Mal
zur Inspektion beim TÜV?
(Woman) Ende letzten Jahres.
(Man) Gibt es irgendwelche Probleme mit dem
Wagen?
(Woman) Vor einigen Monaten ließ sich die Tür
auf der Fahrerseite nicht schließen.
Wir haben sie aber reparieren
lassen.
(Man) Ich habe gegen 17.00 Uhr Feierabend,
kann ich dann vorbeikommen?
(Woman) Ja, ich wohne Holunderweg 7.
(Man) Ach, da sind wir ja beinahe Nachbarn.
Ich werde kurz nach 18.00 Uhr bei
Ihnen sein.
(Woman) Gut dann: Auf Wiedersehen.]
17. (Man) [Woher weiß der Mann, dass die Frau ein
Auto zu verkaufen hat?]
(12 seconds)
(A) Er hat es in der Zeitung gelesen.
(B) Sie hat einen Brief an ihn geschrieben.
(C) Seine Autowerkstatt hat es ihm gesagt.
(D) Die Nachbarn haben es ihm erzählt.
18. (Man) [Warum war das Auto in der Werkstatt?]
(12 seconds)
(A) Weil es in einen Unfall verwickelt war.
(B) Weil die Karosserie verkratzt war.
(C) Weil die Tür auf der Fahrerseite nicht zuging.
(D) Weil man die Fenster nicht schließen konnte.
19. (Man) [Wann wird sich der Mann den Wagen
ansehen?]
(12 seconds)
(A) Kurz vor Feierabend.
(B) Nach der Arbeit.
(C) Am Morgen.
(D) Am Wochenende.
20. (Man) [Warum ist das Auto so gut wie neu?]
(12 seconds)
(A) Weil es gerade aus der Werkstatt kam.
(B) Weil es zur Inspektion muss.
(C) Weil es nachts nicht auf der Straße steht.
(D) Weil es über 45 000 km drauf hat.
ANSWERS
The estimated difficulty level, on a scale of 1 to 5, with 1 the
easiest and 5 the most difficult, is in parentheses.
Reading Questions
1. A (4) 5. A (2) 9. D (2) 13. D (3)
2. D (2) 6. D (3) 10. C (2) .
3. D (4) 7. C (5) 11. B (1)
4. B (2) 8. A (1) 12. C (3)
Listening Questions
14.
A (2) 16. D (1) 18. C (3) 20. C (3)
15.
C (1) 17. A (3) 19. B (4)
SAT Subject Tests 71
Modern Hebrew
One-hour subject test
Content
The test evaluates reading ability in three areas:
Vocabulary: These types of questions test knowledge of
words representing diferent parts of speech and some basic
idioms within culturally authentic contexts.
Structure: This kind of question tests grammar, including
parts of speech as well as your ability to recognize
appropriate language patterns.
Reading Comprehension: Reading comprehension
questions test your understanding of passages of varying
levels of dif culty. These passages, most of which are
vocalized, are generally adapted from literary sources and
newspaper or magazine articles. Authentic material such
as advertisements has been added to the test. While some
passages have biblical references, no material in the test is
written in biblical Hebrew.
Recommended Preparation
The Modern Hebrew Test allows for variation in language preparation.
It is independent of particular textbooks or methods of instruction.
Recommended preparation includes:
■ 2–4 years of Hebrew language study in high school or the
equivalent
■ Gradual development of competence in Hebrew over a period
of years
FORMAT
Approximate
% of Test
85 multiple-choice questions
Skills Measured
Vocabulary in context 30
Structure in context (grammar) 30
Reading comprehension 40
Sample Questions
Three types of questions are used in the Modern Hebrew Subject
Test. All questions in the test are multiple-choice and require you
to choose the BEST response from the four choices ofered.
Part A
Directions
This part consists of a number of incomplete statements, each
having four suggested completions. Select the most appropriate
completion and fill in the corresponding circle on the answer
sheet.
72 SAT Practice Booklet
Part B
Directions
In each of the following paragraphs there are numbered blanks
indicating that words or phrases have been omitted. For each
numbered blank, four completions are provided. First read
through the entire paragraph. Then, for each numbered blank,
choose the completion that is most appropriate and fill in the
corresponding circle on the answer sheet.
Part C
Directions
Read the following passages carefully for comprehension. Each
is followed by a number of questions or incomplete statements.
Select the answer or completion that is best according to the
passage and fill in the corresponding circle on the answer sheet.
SAT Subject Tests 73
ANSWERS
The estimated difficulty level, on a scale of 1 to 5, with 1 the
easiest and 5 the most difficult, is in parentheses.
1. C (1) 6. D (5) 11. D (5) 16. B (2)
2. D (2) 7. A (1) 12. D (4) 17. A (5)
3. A (3) 8. B (2) 13. B (4) 18. A (4)
4. A (4) 9. C (3) 14. D (3) 19. B (4)
5. B (5) 10. A (2) 15. B (1) 20. B (3)
74 SAT Practice Booklet
Italian
One-hour subject test
Content
The test questions range in dif culty from elementary through
advanced, although most questions are at the intermediate level.
The test evaluates reading ability in three areas:
Sentence Completion: These questions test your knowledge
of high-frequency vocabulary and appropriate idiomatic
expressions in the context of paragraphs.
Structure: These questions test your familiarity with the
language structure.
Reading Comprehension: Reading comprehension questions
test your understanding of the content of various selections
taken from sources such as newspaper and magazine
articles, fiction, historical works, advertisements, tickets,
brochures, forms, and schedules. Commonly taught
grammatical constructions are tested, and all questions
reflect current standard Italian.
Recommended Preparation
The Subject Test in Italian allows for variation in language
preparation. It is independent of particular textbooks or methods
of instruction. Recommended preparation includes:
■ 2–4 years of Italian language study in high school or the
equivalent
■ Gradual development of competence in Italian over a period of
years
FORMAT
Approximate
% of Test
80–85 multiple-choice questions
Skills Measured
Vocabulary in context 30
Structure in blank 30
Reading comprehension 40
Sample Questions
Three types of questions are used in the Italian Subject Test. All
questions in the test are multiple-choice questions in which you
must choose the BEST response from the four choices ofered.
Part A
Directions
In each of the following passages there are numbered blanks
indicating that words or phrases have been omitted. For each
numbered blank, four completions are provided. First read
through the entire passage. Then, for each numbered blank,
choose the completion that is most appropriate given the
context of the entire passage and fill in the corresponding circle
on the answer sheet.
Un paio di blue-jeans
Ho portato blue-jeans sin da quando se ne portavano pochissimi
e comunque solo in vacanza. Li trovavo e li trovo molto (1)
specie in viaggio perchè non ci sono problemi di piega. Oggi si
portano anche per bellezza, ma sono prima di tutto molto (2) .
Solo che da parecchi anni avevo dovuto (3) a questo piacere,
perchè ero ingrassato.
Recentemente, ho perso quel numero di (4)
suf ciente per riprovare un blue-jeans quasi normale. Ho
provato una dozzina di blue-jeans ed ogni (5) la commessa
del negozio mi diceva: “Stringa, vedrà che poi si (6) .”
Finalmente ne ho trovato uno e sono partito, senza dover tirare
indietro la pancia.
1. (A)colorati (B)costosi
(C)comodi (D)stretti
2. (A)utili (B)dif cili
(C)vecchi (D)strani
3. (A)rinunciare (B)rassegnarmi
(C)consentire (D)attenermi
4. (A)metri (B)litri
(C)chili (D)chilometri
5. (A)cosa (B)volta
(C)modo (D)giorno
6. (A)ritirano (B)lavano
(C)formano (D)adattano
Part B
Directions
Directions: In each sentence or dialogue below you will find
a blank space indicating that a word or phrase has been
omitted. Following each sentence are four completions. Of the
four choices, select the one that best completes the sentence
structurally and logically and fill in the corresponding circle on
the answer sheet. In some instances, choice (A) may consist
of dashes; by choosing this option, you are indicating that no
insertion is required to form a grammatically correct sentence.
SAT Subject Tests 75
7. Che ------- sconti!
(A)belli (B)begli
(C)belle (D)bei
8. Ti piacciono queste camicie? -------

ho comprate per Gianna.
(A)Le (B)La
(C)Gli (D)Li
Part C
Directions
Read the following texts carefully for comprehension. Each text
is followed by a number of questions or incomplete statements.
Select the answer or completion that is best according to the
text and fill in the corresponding circle on the answer sheet.
Questions 9-10
9. Cebion è
(A)un codice (B)una medicina
(C)un’avvertenza (D)un cibo
10. Questo prodotto si deve usare
(A)ogni giorno (B)con la vitamina C
(C)prima dei pasti (D)con cura
Questions 11-14
Cari lettori,
Gli scioperi dei treni hanno causato in questi giorni non pochi
problemi. Ogni mattina mi sono alzato tendendo l’orecchio ai
giornali radio, pronto ad adeguarmi ad ogni nuova circostanza, a
muovermi in macchina (nebbia permettendo) o in aereo (scioperi,
anche qui, permettendo). Ma non voglio lamentarmi degli
scioperi. Anch´io sono un lavoratore dipendente e so che è giusto
farli, quando occorrono, salvo tutelare i diritti degli utenti. Quanto
ai treni (ahimè!) lo sciopero non mi ha sconvolto più di tanto. So
di non poter contare sulle nostre ferrovie al cento per cento, so
che i ritardi, soprattutto su certe linee, sono piuttosto frequenti.
Parlo per esperienza. Io ho molti parenti in Emilia e spesso
ricevo le loro visite. Una volta andavo alla Stazione Centrale
ad aspettarli. Ora, da almeno dieci anni, non lo faccio più, per
non passare ore a vuoto in attesa di treni che non sono mai
puntuali. Pazienza! Bisogna accettare ciò che passa il convento e
rassegnarsi. Riuscirà la nuova linea che accorcerà le distanze tra
Milano e Roma a risolvere la situazione? Me lo auguro.
E.F.
11. Chi scrive questa lettera?
(A) Il padrone di una ditta
(B) Un controllore
(C) Un impiegato
(D) Un disoccupato
12. Cosa pensa degli scioperi l´autore della lettera?
(A) Che sono illegali
(B) Che sono qualche volta giustificati
(C) Che dovrebbero essere aboliti
(D) Che sono sempre utili
13. L´autore considera lo sciopero dei treni con
(A)allegria (B)incomprensione
(C)rabbia (D)rassegnazione
14. Dieci anni fa, E.F. ha deciso di
(A) non aspettare più alla stazione
(B) lamentarsi degli scioperi
(C) non dare appoggio ai lavoratori
(D) non ascoltare la radio la mattina
ANSWERS
The estimated difficulty level, on a scale of 1 to 5, with 1 the
easiest and 5 the most difficult, is in parentheses.
1. C (2) 5. B (3) 9. B (1) 13. D (2)
2. A (3) 6. D (4) 10. D (2) 14. A (1)
3. A (4) 7. B (2) 11. C (2)
4. C (5) 8. A (2) 12. B (4)
76 SAT Practice Booklet
Sample Listening Questions
All questions in the test are multiple-choice. You must choose the
BEST response from the four choices ofered.
Directions
(Narrator) [ This is a sample CD for the Japanese Test with
Listening.
Directions: In this section of the test you will hear short dia-
logues and monologues. You will hear them only once and they
are not printed in your test booklet. At the end of each selection,
you will be asked questions about what was said. Now listen
to the following example, but do not mark the answer on your
answer sheet. ]
Question 1
(Narrator) [ Listen to this short exchange in a
stationery store. ]
(Woman)
(Man)
(Narrator) Question 1. What did the woman buy?
(16 seconds)
1. (A) Pens
(B) Notebooks
(C) Erasers
(D) Colored paper
Question 2
(Narrator) [ Listen to this short conversation
between two acquaintances. ]
(Man)
(Woman)
(Narrator) Question 2. How did the woman get
there today? (16 seconds)
2. (A) By bus
(B) By car
(C) By train
(D) On foot
Japanese with Listening
One-hour subject test
Content
The test evaluates ability in three areas:
Listening comprehension: These questions are based on
short, spoken dialogues and narratives primarily about
everyday topics. A brief explanation about each selection
and the questions are given in English. Explanations are also
printed in the test book.
Usage: These questions require you to complete Japanese
sentences in a way that is appropriate in terms of structure
(grammar), vocabulary, and context. Usage questions are
printed in three diferent ways of representing Japanese. In
the center column, the Japanese is represented in standard
Japanese script and all kanji are supplied with furigana. In
the other two columns, the Japanese is written in the two
most common types of romanization (romaji). To the left,
a modified Hepburn system is used. In that system, the
Japanese word for “bicycle” is written as jitensha. In the right-
hand column, a modified kunrei-shiki is used. In that system,
the same Japanese word for “bicycle” is written as zitensya.
You should choose the writing system you are familiar with
and read only from that column on the test.
Reading comprehension: The reading comprehension
questions are in English and test your understanding of
such points as main and supporting ideas. The selections in
this section are taken from materials you might encounter
in everyday situations, such as notes, menus, newspaper
articles, advertisements, and letters. The text is written in
hiragana, katakana, and kanji without furigana.
Recommended Preparation
■ Study of Japanese for two to four years in high school, or the
equivalent
■ Gradual development of competence in Japanese over a
period of years
■ Review of sample listening questions using the practice CD
available from your school counselor
FORMAT
Approximate
% of Test
20 minutes listening and 40 minutes of usage and reading
80–85 multiple-choice questions
Skills Measured
Listening comprehension 35
Usage 30
Reading comprehension 35
SAT Subject Tests 77
Question 3
(Narrator) [ Now listen to the message on Mr.
Nakamura’s answering machine in
his of ce. ]
(Man)
(Narrator) Question 3. When is Mr. Nakamura
expected to call? (16 seconds)
3. (A) This morning
(B) Tonight
(C) Tomorrow morning
(D) Tomorrow night
Question 4
(Narrator) [ Listen to this conversation at the
woman’s home. Then answer
question 4. ]
(Woman)
(Man)
(Woman)
(Man)
(Narrator) Question 4. What most likely is the
man’s relationship to the woman?
(16 seconds)
4. (A) He is her guest
(B) He is her husband
(C) He is her son
(D) He is her close friend
Sample Usage Questions
Directions
This section consists of a number of incomplete statements, each of which has four suggested completions. In some instances, choice (A)
may consist of dashes that indicate that no insertion is required to form a correct sentence. Select the word or phrase that best completes
the sentence structurally and logically and fill in the corresponding circle on the answer sheet.
This section of the test is presented in three columns that provide identical information. Look at the example below and choose the one
column of writing with which you are most familiar in order to answer the question. Do not waste time by switching from column to
column in this section.
5. ------- narimashita.
(A) kirei
(B) osoku
(C) genki na
(D) benri
6. Hima ------- toki,
jogingu o shimasu.
(A) -------
(B) na
(C) no
(D) ni
5. ------- narimasita.
(A) kiree
(B) osoku
(C) genki na
(D) benri
6. Hima

-------

toki,
zyogingu o simasu.
(A) -------
(B) na
(C) no
(D) ni
6.
5.
78 SAT Practice Booklet
Sample Reading Questions
Directions
Read the following texts carefully for comprehension. Each text
is followed by one or more questions or incomplete statements
based on its content. Select the answer or completion that is
best according to the text and fill in the corresponding circle on
the answer sheet. There is no example for this section.
Questions 7-8
This is a notice on a telephone pole.
7. The writer wants to
(A) find a lost cat
(B) give away a cat
(C) find the owner of a cat
(D) sell a cat
8. The description says the cat is
(A) brown
(B) green-eyed
(C) long-haired
(D) young
Question 9
Ryan’s host mother left a note for him.
9. What is Ryan to do by seven thirty?
(A) Get up
(B) Eat
(C) Go out
(D) Go to bed
ANSWERS
The estimated difficulty level, on a scale of 1 to 5, with 1 the
easiest and 5 the most difficult, is in parentheses.
1. B (1) 3. B (1) 5. B (3) 7. A (4) 9. A (3)
2. A (2) 4. A (3) 6. B (2) 8. C (3)
Korean with Listening
One-hour subject test
Content
The test evaluates ability in three areas:
Listening comprehension: These questions test your ability
to understand the spoken language. They are based on
short, spoken Korean dialogues and narratives primarily about
everyday topics. All listening questions and possible answers
are in English. The questions will be spoken on a CD. They
will also be printed in the test book.
Usage: These questions are written entirely in Hangul and
require students to complete Korean sentences or phrases
so that they are structurally and logically correct. Areas
covered include vocabulary, honorifics, and various aspects
of structure.
Reading comprehension: The reading comprehension
questions test your understanding of such points as main
and supporting ideas. All passages in this section are written
in Hangul and all questions are in English. Most questions
deal with understanding literal meaning, although some
inference questions may be included. The Korean selections
are drawn from authentic materials, such as notes, diaries,
newspaper articles, advertisements, letters, and literary
texts.
SAT Subject Tests 79
(Narrator) [ Question 1. Where did Hansu go
yesterday? ] (16 seconds)
1. (A) To his brother’s of ce.
(B) To his brother’s house.
(C) To the airport.
(D) To a graduation ceremony.
(Narrator) [ Question 2. Choose the correct statement
based on the conversation you have just
heard. ] (16 seconds)
2. (A) Hansu’s brother is moving in with Hansu.
(B) Hansu’s brother has a four-day vacation.
(C) Hansu’s brother works on the
West Coast.
(D) Hansu’s brother went to college on the East
Coast.
(Narrator) [ Listen to the following announcement.
Then answer question 3. ]
(Man)
(Narrator) [ Question 3. What is being announced? ]
(16 seconds)
3. (A) That service is not afected.
(B) That service will be restored.
(C) That a new line will open on the following
day.
(D) That there will be no service at
3 o’clock.
Sample Usage Questions
Part A
Directions
This section consists of a number of incomplete statements,
each of which has four suggested completions. Select the word
or words that best complete the sentence structurally and
logically and fill in the corresponding circle on the answer
sheet.
Recommended Preparation
■ Study of Korean for two to four years in high school, or the
equivalent
■ Gradual development of competence in Korean over a period
of years
■ Review of sample listening questions using the practice CD
available from your school counselor
FORMAT
Approximate
% of Test
20 minutes listening and 40 minutes of usage and reading
80–85 multiple-choice questions
Skills Measured
Listening comprehension 35
Usage 30
Reading comprehension 35
Sample Listening Questions
Directions
In this part of the test you will hear several spoken selections.
They will not be printed in your test book. You will hear them
only once. After each selection you will be asked one or more
questions about what you have just heard. These questions,
with four possible answers, are printed in your test booklet.
Select the best answer to each question from among the four
choices printed and fill in the corresponding circle on your an-
swer sheet. Now listen to the first selection.
(Narrator) [ Listen to the following conversation.
Then answer questions 1 and 2. ]
(Woman)
(Man)
(Woman)
(Man)
(Woman)
(Man)
80 SAT Practice Booklet

Part B
Directions
In each of the following paragraphs there are numbered blanks
indicating that words or phrases have been omitted. For each
numbered blank, four completions are provided. First read
through the entire paragraph. Then, for each numbered blank,
choose the completion that is most appropriate and fill in the
corresponding circle on the answer sheet.

Sample Reading Questions
Directions
Read the following selections carefully for comprehension. Each
selection is followed by one or more questions or incomplete
statements based on its content. Choose the answer or
completion that is best according to the selection and fill in the
corresponding circle on the answer sheet.
SAT Subject Tests 81
Questions 12-13
12. What kind of business is being advertised?
(A) A bookstore
(B) A gift shop
(C) A delivery service
(D) A drugstore
13. How can one receive a special discount?
(A) By mail order
(B) By using a credit card
(C) By membership
(D) By buying a large quantity
ANSWERS
The estimated difficulty level, on a scale of 1 to 5, with 1 the
easiest and 5 the most difficult, is in parentheses.
1. C (2) 5. C (3) 9. C (3) 13. C (3)
2. D (3) 6. A (4) 10. C (4) 14. C (3)
3. B (4) 7. B (3) 11. B (3) 15. A (4)
4. B (2) 8. A (3) 12. A (2) 16. D (4)
Questions 14-16
14. How long did the writer think it would take to get used to
American life?
(A) About four months
(B) About four years
(C) At least a year
(D) A lifetime
15. What did the writer learn is important in American society?
(A) To accept cultural diversity
(B) To speak many languages
(C) To help international students
(D) To befriend many people
16. What does the writer think is the best way to become
proficient in English?
(A) Memorizing a lot of vocabulary
(B) Attending various seminars
(C) Participating in student clubs
(D) Learning and thinking in English
82 SAT Practice Booklet
2. The present subjunctive passive of capitis is
(A) capiāminī (B) capiēminī
(C) caperēminī (D) capiminī
Directions
Each of the following English sentences contains a word that is
underlined. From among the choices, select the Latin word to
which the underlined word is related by derivation. Then fill in
the corresponding circle on the answer sheet.
3. The transition from adolescence to adulthood was easy.
(A) sedēre (B) īre
(C) ferre (D) esse
4. All things are possible.
(A) pōnō (B) possum
(C) possideō (D) poscō
Directions
In each of the sentences below, part or all of the sentence is
underlined. From among the choices, select the best translation
for the underlined word or words. Then fill in the corresponding
circle on the answer sheet.
5. Sī vocāvissēs, laetī fuissēmus.
(A) If you were calling
(B) If you had called
(C) If you are calling
(D) If you should call
6. Agricola dīxit sē puellam vīsūrum esse.
(A) that he would see the girl
(B) that he had seen the girl
(C) that the girl would see him
(D) that they will see the girl
7. Iter mīlitibus faciendum est.
(A) The journey was made by the soldiers.
(B) The journey is being made by the soldiers.
(C) The soldiers must make a journey.
(D) The soldiers have made a journey.
Latin
One-hour subject test
Content
Questions may require you to:
■ Select appropriate grammatical forms of Latin words
■ Choose Latin words from which English words are derived
■ Translate from Latin to English
■ Complete Latin sentences
■ Choose alternative ways of expressing the same thought in
Latin
■ Answer a variety of questions based on short passages of
prose or poetry
The reading comprehension part has 30 to 37 questions based on
three to five reading passages and one or two poetry passages.
A set of questions following a poetry passage always includes
one question requiring you to scan the first four feet of a line of
dactylic hexameter verse or to determine the number of elisions
in a line.
Recommended Preparation
■ 2–4 years of Latin study in high school (the equivalent of two
to four semesters in college)
■ Gradual development of competence in sight-reading Latin
over a period of years
FORMAT
Approximate
% of Test
70–75 multiple-choice questions
Skills Measured
Grammar and syntax 30
Derivatives 5
Translation and reading comprehension 65
Sample Questions
Six types of questions are used in the Subject Test in Latin. All
questions in the test are multiple-choice questions in which you
must choose the BEST response from the four choices ofered.
Note: In some questions, variations of Latin terms will appear in
parentheses.
Directions
In each statement below, you are asked to give a specific form
of the underlined word. Select the correct form from the choices
given. Then fill in the corresponding circle on the answer sheet.
1. The dative singular of senātus is
(A) senātū (B) senātum
(C) senātūs (D) senātuī
SAT Subject Tests 83
Directions
Each of the sentences below contains a blank space indicating
that a word or phrase has been omitted. For each blank, four
completions are provided. Choose the word or phrase that best
completes the sentence and fill in the corresponding circle on
the answer sheet.
8. Servus . . . vulnerātur.
(A) ā saxō (B) saxum
(C) cum saxō (D) saxō
9. Vīdistī . . . patriam incolunt.
(A) quōs (B) quī
(C) quem (D) cui
Directions
In each of the sentences below, part or all of the sentence is
underlined. Select from the choices the expression that, when
substituted for the underlined portion of the sentence,
changes the meaning of the sentence LEAST. Then fill in the
corresponding circle on the answer sheet.
10. Fortēs ā consule semper laudantur.
(A) Consul ā fortibus semper laudātur.
(B) Consul fortēs semper laudat.
(C) Fortēs consulem semper laudant.
(D) Consulēs fortēs semper laudantur.
11. Cīvēs vēnērunt ut pācem peterent.
(A) ad pācem petendam
(B) pāce petītā
(C) sī pax peterētur
(D) postquam pax petēbātur
Directions
Read the following texts carefully for comprehension. Each is
followed by a number of questions or incomplete statements.
Select the answer or completion that is best according to the
text and fill in the corresponding circle on the answer sheet.
Honors for an emperor
Cum igitur in amōre omnium Marcus Antonīnus
bene rēgnāvisset, octāvō decimō annō imperī ī suī
mortuus est. Priusquam fūnus celebrātum est,
senātus populusque eum deum esse dīxit. Mox
nēmō erat quī eius (ejus) imāginem in suā domō non
habēret, hodiēque in multīs domibus Marcī
Antonīnī statuae consistunt inter Penātēs. Neque
dēfuērunt homines qui cre¯derent in somnīs eum
multa quae ve¯ra essent praedīxisse.
12. In line 2, octāvō decimō annō is translated
(A) for eighteen years
(B) after eighteen years
(C) in the eighteenth year
(D) throughout the eighteenth year
13. The first two sentences (Cum . . . dīxit) tell
us that
(A) Antoninus arranged his own funeral before he died
(B) everyone celebrated Antoninus’ funeral for eighteen
days
(C) a god told the senate and people to celebrate
Antoninus’ funeral
(D) Antoninus was proclaimed a god by the senate and
people
14. In line 5, suā refers to
(A) deum (line 4)
(B) nēmō (line 5)
(C) eius (ejus) (line 5)
(D) imāginem (line 5)
15. The third sentence (Mox . . . Penātēs) tells
us that
(A) Antoninus placed statues of the household gods in
every home
(B) no one had a statue of Antoninus
(C) many statues of Antoninus replaced the household
gods
(D) many houses had statues of Antoninus among the
household gods
16. In line 9, praedīxisse is translated
(A) would predict
(B) had predicted
(C) predicts
(D) will have predicted
17. The last sentence (Neque . . . praedīxisse) tells us that
(A) people do not always believe their dreams
(B) Marcus Antoninus was believed to prophesy in dreams
(C) Marcus Antoninus believed in the truth of many dreams
(D) people predicted that many would believe their dreams
ANSWERS
The estimated difficulty level, on a scale of 1 to 5, with 1 the
easiest and 5 the most difficult, is in parentheses.
1. D (3) 6. A (4) 11. A (3) 16. B (3)
2. A (4) 7. C (4) 12. C (3) 17. B (4)
3. B (3) 8. D (3) 13. D (3)
4. B (1) 9. B (4) 14. B (4)
5. B (3) 10. B (4) 15. D (3)
Line
(5)
84 SAT Practice Booklet
Spanish and Spanish
with Listening
One-hour subject tests
Content
Reading questions implicitly test vocabulary throughout the
test, but some questions specifically test word meaning in the
context of a sentence that reflects spoken or written language.
Understanding of various parts of speech (nouns, verbs, adjectives,
adverbs, etc.) and idiomatic expressions is tested. The reading
section also asks:
Structure Questions: These questions ask you to identify
usage that is both structurally correct and contextually
appropriate. Other reading questions test vocabulary and
grammatical usage in longer paragraphs.
Reading Questions: These questions are based on selections
from prose fiction, historical works, newspaper and magazine
articles, as well as advertisements, flyers, and letters. They
test points such as main and supporting ideas, themes, style,
tone, and the spatial and temporal settings of a passage.
The listening section has three parts:
Part A questions ask you to identify the sentence
that most accurately describes what is presented in
a photograph or what someone in the photograph
might say.
Part B questions test your ability to identify a
plausible continuation of a short conversation.
Part C requires that you answer comprehension questions
based on more extensive listening selections.
Recommended Preparation
Both tests reflect general trends in high school curricula and are
independent of particular textbooks or methods of instruction.
Recommended preparation includes:
■ 3–4 years of study in high school or the equivalent
(2 years for advanced students)
■ Gradual development of competence in Spanish over a period
of years
Spanish Test with Listening
■ Review of sample listening questions using the practice CD
available from your school counselor
FORMAT–SPANISH
Approximate
% of Test
85 multiple-choice questions
Skills Measured
Vocabulary and structure 33
Paragraph completion 33
Reading comprehension 33
FORMAT–SPANISH with LISTENING
Approximate
% of Test
20 minutes listening and 40 minutes reading
85 multiple-choice listening and reading questions
Listening Section (20 minutes/
approximately
30 questions)
40
Pictures
Rejoinders
Selections
Reading Section (40 minutes/
approximately
55 questions)
60
Vocabulary and structure
Paragraph completion
Reading comprehension
Sample Reading Questions
There are three types of reading questions, grouped into separate
parts. Each part accounts for approximately one-third of the
total score. All questions in the test are multiple-choice questions
in which you must choose the BEST response from the four
choices ofered.
Part A
Directions
This part consists of a number of incomplete statements, each
having four suggested completions. Select the most appropriate
completion and fill in the corresponding circle on the answer
sheet.
1. Los cubanos están muy orgullosos de -------
larga tradición folclórica.
(A) suyos (B) sus
(C) suya (D) su
2. Se sabe que la playa de Luquillo es muy popular porque la gente
de San Juan la visita ------- .
(A) en resumidas cuentas (B) en punto
(C) a medias (D) a menudo
SAT Subject Tests 85
3. Si ------- en el Brasil, hablaríamos portugués y no español.
(A) vivamos (B) vivimos
(C) vivíamos (D) viviéramos
Part B
Directions
Directions: In each of the following paragraphs, there are
numbered blanks indicating that words or phrases have
been omitted. For each numbered blank, four completions are
provided. First, read through the entire passage. Then, for
each numbered blank, choose the completion that is most
appropriate given the context of the entire paragraph and fill
in the corresponding circle on the answer sheet.
La máquina más infernal de hacer dinero se
llama “Pedroso,” un osito electrónico que (4) ha
derramado sobre sus fabricantes beneficios superiores
a los 100 millones de dólares en el (5)
año. La (6) de Pedroso es que habla. Claro, no hay ningún
misterio en la cinta sin fin y el grabador
(7) en el interior del osito. Pero lo (8) novedoso
es que (9) hablar su boca se mueve en sincronía
con las palabras y sus ojos pestañean. El juguete (10)
vende a precios que oscilan entre 60 y 80 dólares.
4. (A)todavía (B)nunca
(C)ya (D)tampoco
5. (A)primero (B)primer
(C)primo (D)primario
6. (A)oportunidad (B)mayoría
(C)desventaja (D)particularidad
7. (A)ocultos (B)lejanos
(C)cobrados (D)llenos
8. (A)verdaderamente (B)antiguamente
(C)ansiosamente (D)perezosamente
9. (A)del (B)en
(C)al (D)de
10. (A)se (B)le
(C)lo (D)los
Part C
Directions
Read the following texts carefully for comprehension. Each text
is followed by a number of questions or incomplete statements.
Select the answer or completion that is BEST according to
the passage and fill in the corresponding circle on the answer
sheet.
Alcanzó la carretera central y pisó el acelerador. Se
cruzó con varios camiones del ejército y con una
ambulancia de la Cruz Roja. Sara hablaba
incoherentemente a su lado.
—Pararemos en algún lugar. Un café nos hará bien.
En Santa Fe cayeron las primeras gotas. Álvaro las
vio caer en los cristales como frutas maduras y, a los
pocos segundos, el espacio se convirtió en una cortina
de agua. Era la lluvia violenta del trópico acompañada
de un viento colérico y del fuego brutal de los
relámpagos. Los limpiacristales oscilaban inútilmente
en abanico con un ruido sordo.
11. ¿Dónde se desarrolla esta narración?
(A)En una casa (B)En un automóvil
(C)En un café (D)En un cuartel
12. ¿Qué desea Álvaro?
(A)Abrir la cortina (B)Comer una fruta
(C)Tomar un café (D)Encender la luz
La tranquilidad de sentirse bien atendido
Cuando viaje por negocios, por anulaciones, demoras, etc.
ocio o por estudios, disfrute Viaje tranquilo. EUROPEA
plenamente de la tranquilidad pone a su disposición el seguro
de viajar bien atendido con más amplio y más completo
EUROPEA DE SEGUROS y para cada tipo de viaje.
despreocúpese de accidentes,
asistencia médica, equipajes,
13. ¿Cuál de los siguientes beneficios ofrece esta compañía de
seguros?
(A) Reparación de autos
(B) Ayuda financiera
(C) Protección al viajar
(D) Servicios de día y noche
14. ¿Qué característica se destaca más de la compañía
anunciada?
(A) Su precio
(B) Su cortesía
(C) Su rapidez
(D) Su amplitud
86 SAT Practice Booklet
Sample Listening Questions
In addition to the types of reading questions discussed above, the
Spanish Test with Listening has three types of listening questions
that test your ability to understand spoken Spanish. Please note
that in the actual test, the listening section comes first.
Part A
Directions
For each question in this part, you will hear four sentences
designated (A), (B), (C), and (D). They will not be printed in your
test book. As you listen, look at the picture in your test book
and select the choice that best reflects what you see in the
picture or what someone in the picture might say. Then fill in
the corresponding circle on your answer sheet. You will hear the
choices only once.
You see:
1.
You hear:
[Número 1
(Woman) (A) Siempre quise ser florista.
(B) Sólo hay una persona haciendo
cola.
(C) Las cebollas están baratas hoy.
(D) Creo que está por aquí.]
(7 seconds)
Part B
Directions
In this part of the test you will hear several short conversations
or parts of conversations, followed by four choices designated
(A), (B), (C), and (D). After you hear the four choices, choose the
one that most logically continues or completes the conversation
and mark your answer on your answer sheet. Neither the
conversations nor the choices will be printed in your test book.
You hear:
[Número 2
(Woman) Ana es una ciclista excelente.
(A) Yo tengo una camiseta nueva.
(B) La mía es mucho mejor.
(Man) (C) Y además, es muy simpática.
(D) La motocicleta también es
buena.]
(7 seconds)
You hear:
[Número 3
(Woman) ¿Algo más, señor? Tenemos unas
ofertas especiales hoy.
(Man) No, gracias. ¿Puedo pagar con tarjeta
de crédito?
(Woman) (A) Claro que sí.
(B) Salga usted ahora mismo.
(C) No aceptamos monedas.
(D) No, no tengo cambio.]
(7 seconds)
Part C
Directions
Directions: You will now hear a series of selections. For each
selection, you will see printed in your test book one or more
questions with four possible answers. They will not be spoken.
Select the best answer to each question from among the four
choices printed and fill in the corresponding circle on your
answer sheet. You will have twelve seconds to answer each
question.
You hear:
[Selección número 1
(Narrator) Escuchen esta conversación en la
taquilla del Teatro Colón.
(Man) Buenas tardes, señorita. ¿Todavía hay
entradas para el programa del
sábado? Necesito dos.
(Woman) No, ya no quedan.
(Man) Entonces, ¿para el domingo?
(Woman) Ah, sí, para el domingo sí hay.
(Man) ¿Es el mismo programa?
(Woman) No, es diferente; es un concierto de
música clásica.
(Man) Entonces, deme dos entradas, por favor.
(Narrator) Ahora contesten las preguntas 4 y 5.]
(24 seconds)
SAT Subject Tests 87
(Narrator) Y ahora, el pronóstico del tiempo.
(Man) Para mañana se anuncian fuertes
aguaceros en la zona de la costa.
Posibilidad de inundaciones en
algunas áreas. Temperatura máxima
de 25 grados centígrados. Leve
mejora a partir del sábado.
(Narrator) Ahora contesten la pregunta 6.]
(12 seconds)
You read:
Selección número 2
6. ¿Qué se anuncia para el día siguiente?
(A) Sol.
(B) Lluvia.
(C) Viento.
(D) Frío.
ANSWERS
The estimated difficulty level, on a scale of 1 to 5, with 1 the
easiest and 5 the most difficult, is in parentheses.
Reading Questions
1. D (1) 5. B (2) 9. C (3) 13. C (3)
2. D (3) 6. D (3) 10. A (3) 14. D (5)
3. D (5) 7. A (3) 11. B (2)
4. C (3) 8. A (3) 12. C (2)
Listening Questions
1. D (2) 3. A (3) 5. C (2)
2. C (3) 4. C (2) 6. B (4)
You read:
Selección número 1
4. ¿Para cuándo quedan entradas?
(A) Para la tarde.
(B) Para el sábado.
(C) Para el domingo.
(D) Para la próxima semana.
5. ¿Qué programa presentan el domingo?
(A) Una comedia.
(B) Una ópera.
(C) Un concierto.
(D) Un ballet.
You hear:
[Selección número 2
SAT
®
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Contents
The SAT....................................................................................... 3 The Critical Reading Section ..................................................................3 The Mathematics Section .......................................................................9 The Writing Section ................................................................................ 17 SAT Subject Tests .....................................................................26 Literature .................................................................................................. 26 United States History ............................................................................ 29 World History ......................................................................................... 32 Mathematics Level 1 and Level 2 ........................................................ 35 Biology E/M ..............................................................................................41 Chemistry .................................................................................................46 Physics ......................................................................................................50 Chinese with Listening .......................................................................... 55 French and French with Listening .......................................................60 German and German with Listening .................................................66 Modern Hebrew ...................................................................................... 71 Italian ......................................................................................................... 74 Japanese with Listening ........................................................................ 76 Korean with Listening ............................................................................ 78 Latin ........................................................................................................... 82 Spanish and Spanish with Listening ..................................................84

Why Should You Take the SAT® and the SAT Subject Tests™?
Most colleges and universities in the United States accept and use the SAT as part of the admissions process. Your SAT scores can help connect you to the right colleges and discover scholarship opportunities. Some colleges also recommend, and others require, one or more SAT Subject Tests for admission or placement. Ask your counselor for a This Is Your SAT brochure that explains general information about the SAT and SAT Subject Tests.

How Can You Get Ready for the Tests?
■ ■ ■

The College Board
The College Board is a not-for-profit membership association whose mission is to connect students to college success and opportunity. Founded in 1900, the College Board is composed of more than 5,600 schools, colleges, universities, and other educational organizations. Each year, the College Board serves seven million students and their parents, 23,000 high schools, and 3,800 colleges through major programs and services in college readiness, college admissions, guidance, assessment, financial aid, enrollment, and teaching and learning. Among its best-known programs are the SAT®, the PSAT/NMSQT®, and the Advanced Placement Program® (AP®). The College Board is committed to the principles of excellence and equity, and that commitment is embodied in all of its programs, services, activities, and concerns. For further information, visit www.collegeboard.com.

Take challenging classes, study hard, and read and write outside of the classroom. Take the PSAT/NMSQT® in your junior year. Access free online practice tools, such as Skills Insight and Question of the Day, on www.collegeboard.com/practice. Take advantage of the lessons, practice questions and practice exams in the Official SAT Online Course or the Official SAT Study Guide™: Second Edition, and the Official Study Guide for all SAT Subject Tests™. Review the sample questions, test-taking approaches, and directions in this booklet. Take the official SAT practice test online and review the answer explanations. If you don't have access to the Internet, ask your counselor for a paper copy of the Official SAT Practice Test. For SAT Subject Tests, see the recommended study methods for each subject in this book and online.

Who Is This Booklet For?
If you register for the SAT® on paper, you can use this book to get familiar with the SAT and the SAT Subject Tests™. Remember, if you have access to the Internet you can find everything in this booklet and more at www.collegeboard.com.

Approaches to Taking the SAT and SAT Subject Tests ■ All questions count the same, so answer the easy questions first. The easier questions are usually at the beginning of the section, and the harder ones are at the end. The exception is in the critical reading section of the SAT and SAT Subject Tests with reading passages (Literature and foreign language tests), where questions are ordered according to the logic and organization of each passage. ■ Make educated guesses. You have a better chance of guessing the right answer if you can rule out one or more answer choices for multiple-choice questions. ■ Skip questions that you really can’t answer. No points are deducted if an answer is left blank. ■ Limit your time on any one question. All questions are worth the same number of points. If you need a lot of time to answer a question, go on to the next one. Later, you may have time to return to the question you skipped.

© 2009 The College Board. All rights reserved. College Board, Advanced Placement Program, AP, SAT, and the acorn logo are registered trademarks of the College Board. achieve more, SAT Subject Tests, The Official SAT Study Guide, The Official SAT Question of the Day, and The Official SAT Online Course are trademarks owned by the College Board. PSAT/NMSQT is a registered trademark of the College Board and National Merit Scholarship Corporation. All other products and services may be trademarks of their respective owners. Visit the College Board on the Web: www.collegeboard.com.

2

SAT Practice Booklet

■ ■

Keep track of time. Don’t spend too much time on any group of questions within a section. Use your test booklet as scratch paper. In your test booklet, mark the questions that you skipped and to which you want to return. Mark your answers in the correct column of your answer sheet. The answer sheet has five circles for each question. In certain SAT Subject Tests, some questions have only three or four possible answers. Check your answer sheet to make sure you are placing your answers correctly. Always use a No. 2 pencil. All answer sheet circles must be filled in darkly and completely with a No. 2 pencil. The SAT essay must be written with a No. 2 pencil. Essays in pen will receive a score of 0.

Writing, which has multiple-choice questions and a written essay.

You have 3 hours and 45 minutes to complete the entire test. All multiple-choice questions are scored the same way: one point for each correct answer, and one-quarter point subtracted for a wrong answer. No points are subtracted for answers left blank. The total score for each section is on a 200–800 scale.

The Critical Reading Section
The critical reading section gives you a chance to show how well you understand what you read. This section has two types of questions:
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Know What to Expect Use the information in this booklet and online to help you: ■ Know what to expect on test day. For details, see www.collegeboard.com/sat and www.collegeboard.com/subjecttests. Paper registrants are qualified to receive paper practice tests; ask your counselor for more information. ■ Know what to expect on your test. Study the descriptions of the tests, directions, and sample questions in this booklet and on collegeboard.com. For foreign language SAT Subject Tests with Listening, ask your counselor for a copy of the practice audio CD. ■ Review the equipment you need for each test. The SAT and some SAT Subject Tests recommend or require that you use a calculator. SAT Subject Tests with Listening also require you to bring a CD player. For more information on what material is approved for use on test day, please go to www.collegeboard.com/student/testing/sat-calculator or www.collegeboard.com/student/testing/sat-cdplayer or ask for an SAT Paper Registration Guide from your counselor. ■ Become familiar with the test directions. Some sections, such as the SAT mathematics section, and some tests, such as the Subject Test in Chemistry, may have specialized directions. You should become familiar with the question formats before you take the test, so you’re not surprised or confused on test day.

Sentence completions (19 questions) Passage-based reading (48 questions)

Note: Calculators may not be on your desk or used on the critical reading section of the SAT.

The SAT
The SAT measures the skills you have learned in and outside of the classroom and how well you can apply that knowledge. It tests how you think, solve problems, and communicate. The test is composed of three sections:

Approaches to the Critical Reading Section ■ Work on sentence completion questions first. They take less time to answer than the passage-based reading questions. ■ The difficulty of sentence completion questions increases as you move through the section. ■ Reading questions do not increase in difficulty from easy to hard. Instead, they follow the logic of the passage. ■ The information you need to answer each reading question is always in the passage(s). Reading carefully is the key to finding the correct answer. Don’t be misled by an answer that looks correct but is not supported by the actual text of the passage(s). ■ Reading questions often include line numbers to help direct you to the relevant part(s) of the passage. If one word or more is quoted exactly from the passage, the line number(s) where that quotation can be found will appear in the test question. You may have to read some of the passage before or after the quoted word(s), however, in order to find support for the best answer to the question. ■ Do not jump from passage to passage. Stay with a passage until you have answered as many questions as you can before you proceed to the next passage. ■ In your test booklet, mark each question you don’t answer so that you can easily go back to it later if you have time. ■ Remember that all questions are worth the same number of points regardless of the type or difficulty. Sentence Completions Sentence completion questions measure your
■ ■

Critical reading, which has sentence completion and passagebased reading questions. Mathematics, which is based on the math that college-bound students typically learn during their first three years of high school.

knowledge of the meanings of words; ability to understand how the different parts of a sentence fit together logically.

The SAT

3

Directions
Each sentence below has one or two blanks, each blank indicating that something has been omitted. Beneath the sentence are five words or sets of words labeled A through E. Choose the word or set of words that, when inserted in the sentence, best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole. Example: Hoping to ------- the dispute, negotiators proposed a compromise that they felt would be ------- to both labor and management. (A) enforce . . useful (B) end . . divisive (C) overcome . . unattractive (D) extend . . satisfactory (E) resolve . . acceptable

Sample Questions 1. Because King Philip’s desire to make Spain the dominant power in sixteenth-century Europe ran counter to Queen Elizabeth’s insistence on autonomy for England, ------- was -------.
(A) reconciliation . . assured (B) warfare . . avoidable (C) ruination . . impossible (D) conflict . . inevitable (E) diplomacy . . simple Be sure to look for key words and phrases as you read each sentence. Words such as although, however, if, but, and since are important to notice because they signal how the different parts of a sentence are logically related to each other. Words such as not and never are important because they indicate negation. In the example above, the entire sentence hinges on a few key words: “Because something ran counter to something else, blank was blank.”

abcd,
Answering Sentence Completion Questions One way to answer a sentence completion question with two missing words is to focus first on just one of the two blanks. If one of the words in an answer choice is logically wrong, then you can eliminate the entire choice from consideration.

Look at the first blank in the above example. Would it make sense to say that “negotiators” who have “proposed a compromise” were hoping to enforce or extend the “dispute”? No, so neither (A) nor (D) can be the correct answer. Now you can focus on the second blank. Would the “negotiators” have proposed a compromise that they believed would be divisive or unattractive to “both labor and management”? No, so (B) and (C) can be eliminated, and only choice (E) remains. Always check your answer by reading the entire sentence with your choice filled in. Does it make sense to say, “Hoping to resolve the dispute, the negotiators proposed a compromise that they felt would be acceptable to both labor and management”? Yes.

■ ■ ■

The word “because” indicates that the information in the first part of the sentence (the part before the comma) explains the reason for the situation described in the second part. The first part states that what King Philip wanted (domination for Spain) “ran counter to” what Queen Elizabeth wanted (independence for England). Given that there was such a fundamental disagreement between the two monarchs, would reconciliation be assured? Unlikely. Would warfare be avoidable? Hardly; warfare might be unavoidable. Would ruination be impossible? No. Would diplomacy be simple? Not necessarily. Only choice (D) fits logically with the key words in the sentence: Because what one person wanted ran counter to what another person wanted, conflict was inevitable.

Correct answer: (D) / Difficulty level: Medium 2. There is no doubt that Larry is a genuine -------: he excels at telling stories that fascinate his listeners. (A) braggart (B) dilettante (C) pilferer (D) prevaricator (E) raconteur Some sentence completions contain a colon. This is a signal that the words after the colon define or directly clarify what came before. In this case, “he excels at telling stories that fascinate his listeners” serves to define the word raconteur, choice (E). None of the other words is directly defined by this clause.

Correct answer: (E) / Difficulty level: Easy

A braggart may or may not excel at telling stories and may actually annoy listeners. A dilettante is someone who dabbles at a career or hobby and so may not excel at anything. A pilferer steals repeatedly, in small quantities; this has nothing to do with storytelling.

4

SAT Practice Booklet

like it was still swimming. several of which are included in the choices above. and the sentence refers to stories. Answer the questions on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passages and in any introductory material that may be provided. The animal was glistening. For each set of sample materials: ■ ■ ■ read the passage carefully. “surveying” most nearly means (A) calculating the value of (B) examining comprehensively (C) determining the boundaries of (D) polling randomly (E) conducting a statistical study of The word “surveying” has a number of meanings. Correct answer: (B) / Difficulty level: Easy The SAT 5 . in some of the questions. The following kinds of questions may be asked about a passage: ■ Sample Questions Questions 3-4 are based on the following passage.” recalls Hou Xianguang. read the explanation for the correct answer. or follow the logic of an analogy or an argument. about 100 words in length. “The rock was still wet. Some of the reading passages in the SAT are as short as a paragraph or two. Extended Reasoning: These questions measure your ability to synthesize and analyze information as well as to evaluate the assumptions made and the techniques used by the author. A student in the field of “paleontology” is one who studies prehistoric life as recorded in fossil remains. It looked like one of them. not lies. However. One of the activities of a paleontology student would be to examine rocks carefully and “comprehensively” while looking for fossils. Literal Comprehension: These questions assess your understanding of significant information directly stated in the passage. you are asked to compare and contrast these passages. and literary fiction. (C). and only choice (E) does so. Some selections consist of a pair of related passages on a shared issue or theme. You will also find one or more pairs of related short passages in each edition of the test. but not necessarily in an accomplished or fascinating way.■ A prevaricator tells lies. (D) is wrong because “polling” rocks makes no sense at all.” Hou had indeed found a Naraoia like those from Canada. Passages are taken from a variety of fields. ■ Answering Passage-Based Reading Questions Following are samples of the kinds of reading passages and questions that may appear on your test. social studies. They vary in style and can include narrative. Correct answer: (E) / Difficulty level: Hard Passage-Based Reading The reading questions on the SAT measure your ability to read and think carefully about several different passages ranging in length from about 100 to about 850 words. and expository elements. or determine the “boundaries” of rocks. You should choose the word that best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole. however. Such material will be followed by one to five questions that measure the same kinds of reading skills that are measured by the questions following longer passages. decide on the best answer to each question. You may be asked to identify cause and effect. 3. recognize a main idea or an author’s tone. Hou discovered the unusual fossil while surveying rocks as a paleontology graduate student in 1984. 10 Some questions ask you to recognize the meaning of a word as it is used in the passage. Hou’s animal was 15 million years older than its Canadian relatives. near the Chinese town of Chengjiang. In line 4. natural sciences. In the context of this passage. or conduct a “statistical study” of rocks. Most of the reading questions fall into this category. argumentative. only (B) makes sense. questions following a pair of related passages may also be based on the relationship between the paired passages. “My teachers always talked about the Burgess Shale animals. make inferences. Directions The passages below are followed by questions based on their content. My hands began to shake. Line 5 ■ ■ Vocabulary in Context: These questions ask you to determine the meanings of words from their context in the reading passage. and (E) are incorrect because someone who studies fossils would not calculate the “value” of rocks. including the humanities. ■ (A).

it is Hou’s excitement. even after the audience had seen him jump into a barrel and pull the lid over him. and people appearing at the top of a ladder or disappearing through a door—where did 55 60 65 70 I was six years old when I saw my first play at the Old Drury. The first two sentences of the passage dramatize the discovery. People were yelling. gardens. I reposed my shut eyes in a sort of resignation upon my mother’s lap. It was to ring out yet once again— and. Upon entering the theater. and so (E) is the correct answer: Hou’s hands were shaking because he was “excited about the magnitude of his discovery. (A sight of that image can always bring back in a measure the feeling of that evening. I began to feel anxious. It rang the second time.You may be asked to make an inference or draw a conclusion about a statement made in the passage. What anguish! The bomb would go off any minute. It can be inferred that Hou Xianguang’s “hands began to shake” (line 9) because Hou was (A) afraid that he might lose the fossil (B) worried about the implications of his finding (C) concerned that he might not get credit for his work (D) uncertain about the authenticity of the fossil (E) excited about the magnitude of his discovery In the passage.” ■ 20 25 30 35 ■ ■ (A) is wrong because there is no suggestion that Hou was “afraid that he might lose the fossil. for I understood not its import. projected over the orchestra pit. My mother had taken me to see a play at the Schubert Theater on Lenox Avenue in Harlem in New York City. The orchestra lights at length rose. 6 SAT Practice Booklet . Gorgeous costumes. These two passages were adapted from autobiographical works. at the same time glancing at the theater’s walls to make sure that the whole thing was not really real. The villain was finally caught. palaces. But to see the deck of the ship in the theater moving up and down. and I kept clawing at my mother’s arm. Westerns.) The balconies at that time. saved again. I took no proper interest in the action going on. princesses. all my feeling was absorbed in vision. only when the searchers were facing the other way. This was alarming. and we happily walked out onto sunny Lenox Avenue. Passage 1 45 50 Line 5 10 15 I experienced a shock when I saw a curtain go up for the first time. Once the bell sounded. As the play’s melodramatic story developed. In the first. a playwright describes his first visit to a theater in the 1930s. Instead. What breathless anticipations I endured! I had seen something like it in an edition of Shakespeare. adventure serials. movies. in the second. for there was a villain on board who had a bomb and intended to blow everybody up. All over the stage people were looking for him but he appeared. (D) is wrong because Hou’s immediate reaction is that he thinks he has found an important fossil. an illustration of the tent scene with Diomede in Troilus and Cressida. After the intervention of six or seven years I again entered the doors of a theater. 40 they come from and where did they go? Obviously into and out of the real world of Lenox Avenue.” The passage indicates only that Hou recognized that he had found something valuable. the first thing I beheld was the green curtain that veiled a heaven to my imagination. They looked for him behind posts and boxes and on top of beams. but that the stage was far more real.” (B) and (C) are wrong because the passage does not indicate that Hou was “worried about” his discovery or “concerned that he might not get credit. Passage 2 Correct answer: (E) / Difficulty level: Easy Questions 5-8 are based on the following passages. and the pilasters* reaching down were adorned with a glistering substance resembling sugar candy.” but the passengers were deaf. 4. Here were living people talking to one another inside a large ship whose deck actually heaved up and down with the swells of the sea. It was all enchantment and a dream. Hou states that the fossil that he found “looked like” certain other fossils that his “teachers always talked about. left the mind’s grasp of reality intact since the happenings were not in the theater where you sat. unlike the stage. furtive and silent. And so I learned that there were two kinds of reality. The curtain drew up—and the play was Artaxerxes! Here was the court of ancient Persia. full of well-dressed men and women. the significance of what he has found.” He understands almost immediately. incapable of the anticipation. an eighteenth-century writer describes two visits to theaters in London. “He’s in the barrel. passed before me. that causes him to tremble. not his uncertainty. By this time I had been going to the movies every Saturday afternoon —Charlie Chaplin’s little comedies. therefore. Yet once you knew how they worked.

Instead. The authors of both passages describe (A) a young person’s sense of wonder at first seeing a play (B) a young person’s desire to become a playwright (C) the similarities between plays and other art forms (D) how one’s perception of the theater may develop over time (E) the experience of reading a play and then seeing it performed To answer this question. they are not “imagined by a child” but are actually projected on the movie screen. Following are four sample questions about this pair of related passages. Thus (D) is the correct answer. you have to understand lines 11–15. “happenings” refers to the “story unfolding” in a movie. than the latter does from six. when you insert them in place of the word “happenings.” ■ * Pilasters are ornamental columns set into walls.75 80 85 90 95 That old Artaxerxes evening had never done ringing in my fancy. even if the movies being referred to include “fantasies” in them. as many as 13 questions may appear with a passage of this length. but “after the intervention of six or seven years” the older and now more knowledgeable child is not so impressed. person’s sense of wonder at first seeing a play. In the test. but it was in myself. The first ring.” because the “happenings” in a movie are not occurring in the actual theater. Passage 2 describes two different visits to the theater. The same things were there materially. discriminated nothing. I expected the same feelings to come again with the same occasion. and was returned a rationalist.” there is no mention in either passage of a “desire to become a playwright. I felt all. but a certain quantity of green material. was now but a trick of the prompter’s bell. The “happenings” mentioned in line 14 refer to the (A) work undertaken to produce a movie (B) events occurring in the street outside the theater (C) fantasies imagined by a child (D) activity captured on the movie screen (E) story unfolding on the stage To answer this question correctly. . 6. But we differ from ourselves less at sixty and sixteen. unlike plays. images are projected on a screen in the theater. drawn between two worlds. 5. in line 14. (E) is wrong because there is no reference in either passage to “the experience of reading a play. or in the passage as a whole. but I had left the temple a devotee.” (C) is wrong because Passage 1 mentions differences rather than “similarities” between plays and movies. and about half of the questions following each pair of passages will focus on the relationships between the passages. even though the introduction to these passages reveals that one of the authors is a “playwright.” Correct answer: (D) / Difficulty level: Medium You may be asked to recognize the author’s tone or attitude in a particular part of a passage. . (E) is wrong because. wondered all. not “on the stage. I thought the fault was in them. In the second The SAT 7 . In that interval what had I not lost! At six I knew nothing. Some questions require you to identify shared ideas or similarities between the two related passages. the word “happenings” refers to the “activity captured on the movie screen. (C) is wrong.” ■ ■ ■ ■ (B) is wrong. was gone. and the second ring. The green curtain was no longer a veil. and Passage 2 does not mention any “other art forms” at all. I could not tell how. a rather complex sentence that makes an important distinction in Passage 1. loved all. In the final sentence of Passage 2 (“I thought . but the emblem. movies leave “the mind’s grasp of reality intact. in me”). the author expresses (A) exultation (B) vindication (D) regret (E) guilt (C) pleasure Even though this question focuses on a single sentence. the reference. 7. The lights—the orchestra lights—came up a clumsy machinery.” the sentence in lines 11–15 makes no sense.” Correct answer: (A) / Difficulty level: Easy Some questions assess your comprehension of information that is directly stated in a passage. and the alteration which those many centuries—those six short years—had wrought in me. The actors were men and women painted. and how captivated he was by the entire experience. which was to separate the audience for a given time from certain of their fellows who were to come forward and pretend those parts. others will focus on Passage 2. you must understand the context in which the statement occurs in order to determine the feeling expressed by the author. The author indicates that. The subject of Passage 1 is a child’s first visit to see a play performed in a theater. (D) is wrong because only Passage 2 discusses “how one’s perception of the theater may develop over time”—this subject is unmentioned in Passage 1. understood nothing. the unfolding of which was to bring back past ages. at age six the child is entranced by the spectacle of the performance. you have to figure out what these two passages have in common. (A) is the correct answer because all of Passage 1 and the first half of Passage 2 describe “a young ■ ■ (A) and (B) are wrong because. Some questions will focus on Passage 1.

understand the overall subject or purpose of each passage. The correct answer 8 SAT Practice Booklet .” that of the youthful first-time theatergoer. (E) Passage 1 recounts a childhood experience. (D) is wrong because the author of Passage 1 does not find his first visit to the theater “disturbing” in a negative way. while Passage 2 recalls a similar event with bitter detachment (B) Passage 1 considers why the author responded to the visit as he did. this increased knowledge actually decreased the author’s pleasure in attending the play. while Passage 2 maintains a single point of view. even though the final sentence states that the “fault” was not in the actors but in the now more knowledgeable child. (C) is wrong because it reverses the two narrative approaches in this pair of passages. these responses merely indicate how effective and “real” the performance was for him. the first paragraph of Passage 2 expresses excitement and “enchantment. while Passage 2 examines how a similar experience changed over time. Passage 1 “maintains a single point of view. Although he feels “shock” when the curtain goes up and anxiety during the play. while Passage 2 describes the author’s visit as joyful. “In that interval what had I not lost!” the author exclaims in line 78. Which of the following best describes the difference between Passages 1 and 2 ? (A) Passage 1 remembers an event with fondness. Where the younger child saw nobles in “the court of ancient Persia.paragraph of Passage 2. the author feels no “guilt” about the change. most of the second paragraph provides “further analysis” of what had changed and why the reactions to the two visits were so different. on the contrary.” but the loss of a youthful sense of wonder and innocence can still cause regret. second.” ■ ■ ■ ■ (A) and (C) are incorrect because the author does not feel “exultation” about or take “pleasure” in the “alteration” that has occurred. (D) is the correct answer. ■ ■ (A) is wrong because there is neither bitterness nor “detachment” in Passage 2. the child and his mother walked “happily” out of the theater. but rather to explain the changes that have occurred due to the passing of time. (C) Passage 1 relates a story from a number of different perspectives. while Passage 2 supplies the author’s reactions without further analysis. (E) is incorrect because. (B) is incorrect because there is no expression of “vindication” in the final sentence. or defend the experiences described in the passage. Correct answer: (E) / Difficulty level: Easy Correct answer: (D) / Difficulty level: Hard Some questions require you to determine and compare the primary purpose or main idea expressed in each passage.” and the second paragraph expresses disappointment and regret.” Thus the final sentence of Passage 2 expresses “regret” concerning the changes that “those many centuries—those six short years—had wrought” in the author. Aging is not the child’s “fault. the author laments it. There is no way to avoid the passage of time (and the learning that goes along with it). support. (B) is wrong because Passage 2 includes a great deal more than just “the author’s reactions” to visiting the theater. “The same things were there materially” in the theater. In the end. 8.” the older child saw “men and women painted. recognize an important “difference between” the two. the author is not trying to justify. (D) Passage 1 treats the visit to the theater as a disturbing episode in the author’s life. Ironically. but the older child knew much more than the younger one about what was going on. This question asks you to do two things: first. ■ is (E) because the entire first passage does indeed tell the story of a particular “childhood experience”—a trip to the theater— whereas the second passage describes two different trips to the theater and how the “experience changed over time. whereas the author of Passage 2 presents at least two “different perspectives.” that of the enchanted six-yearold and of the older child returning to the theater. the author states that the experience of attending a play at age 12 or 13 was much different than at age 6. In fact.

■ Eliminate choices. stylus*. If your calculator fails during testing and you have no backup. ■ Make sure your calculator is in good working order and that batteries are fresh. Although you can use them for the test. decide how you will solve the problem. It is up to you to decide which formula is appropriate. PDAs. where no answer choices are given. you may want to refer to the answer choices before you determine your answer. On some questions. It’s sometimes easier to find the wrong answers than the correct one. Calculator Policy We recommend that you bring a calculator to use on the mathematics section of the SAT.e.The Mathematics Section The mathematics section of the SAT contains two types of questions: ■ ■ Unacceptable Calculators The following calculators are not permitted: Models that have a QWERTY (i. more sophisticated calculators are not required for any problem. ■ Use the test book for scratch work. you’ll have to complete the test without it (or cancel your scores on the entire test). You are not expected to do all the reasoning and figuring in your head.g. ■ Get your thoughts down before using your calculator. The SAT 9 . First. you will be seated at the discretion of the test supervisor. ■ Take the practice test with a calculator at hand. is tested throughout. You should be familiar with how to use the calculator you bring to the test. Voyage 200) ■ Models that have pen-input. TI-92 Plus. This will help you determine how much you will probably use a calculator the day of the test. The ability to reason logically in a variety of situations. Approaches to the Mathematics Section ■ Familiarize yourself with the directions ahead of time. but you will have an advantage if you use a scientific or graphing calculator on some questions. Every question on the test can be solved without a calculator. Calculator Tips ■ Remember to bring your calculator to the test. and then decide whether to use the calculator. “talk” or make unusual noises. either as part of hardware or software (e. some of which may be new to you. ■ Standard multiple-choice (44 questions) Student-produced response questions that provide no answer choices (10 questions) Some questions are like those you may have seen in your mathematics courses. ■ The test does not require you to memorize formulas. Palm. Casio ClassPad) or have wireless or Bluetooth capability ■ Models that use paper tape. typewriter) keypad. you can eliminate all the incorrect choices. ■ Don’t buy an expensive. it may be useful to draw a sketch or diagram of the given information. Note key words that tell you what the problem is asking.. ■ Make sure your answer is a reasonable answer to the question asked. or touch-screen capability (e.. You will not be allowed to share calculators. Commonly used formulas are provided in the test book at the beginning of each mathematics section. ■ Read the problem carefully. ■ Decide when to use a calculator. ■ All figures are drawn to scale unless otherwise indicated. or require an electrical outlet ■ Models that can access the Internet ■ Models that have cell phone capability or have audio/video recording capability ■ Models that have a digital audio/video player or have a camera * The use of the stylus with the Sharp EL-9600 calculator is not permitted. or if your calculator has a raised display that might be visible to other test-takers.g. ■ For multiple-choice questions. The calculator is meant to aid you in problem solving. but you will be able to check your work easily later. ■ Don’t try to use a calculator on every question. Calculators will not be available at the test center. sophisticated calculator just to take the test. not to get in the way. It may help to do scratch work in the test book. If you don’t know the correct answer to a question. This is especially true for student-produced response questions. You will be dismissed and your scores will be canceled if you use your calculator to share information during the test or to remove test questions or answers from the test room. Acceptable Calculators Calculators permitted during testing are: ■ ■ ■ Graphing calculators Scientific calculators Four-function calculators (not recommended) If you have a calculator with characters that are one inch or higher. try some of the choices. You will not receive credit for anything written in the booklet. Ask yourself the following questions before you solve each problem: What is the question asking? What do I know? ■ With some problems.

intersection.Mathematics Topics on the SAT Number and Operations (20–25%) ■ Geometry and Measurement (25–30%) ■ ■ ■ ■ ■ ■ ■ ■ ■ ■ Arithmetic word problems (including percent. odd. prime numbers. and right triangles Properties of parallel and perpendicular lines Coordinate geometry Geometric visualization Slope Similarity Transformations Substitution and simplifying algebraic expressions Properties of exponents Algebraic word problems Solutions of linear equations and inequalities Systems of equations and inequalities Quadratic equations Rational and radical equations Equations of lines Absolute value Direct and inverse variation Concepts of algebraic functions Newly defined symbols based on commonly used operations Data Analysis. ratio. equilateral. etc. and proportion) Properties of integers (even. and cylinder Pythagorean Theorem and special properties of isosceles. and Probability (10–15%) ■ ■ ■ Data interpretation (tables and graphs) Descriptive statistics (mean. 10 SAT Practice Booklet . and mode) Probability For more information on the topics tested on the mathematics section of the SAT please go to www.collegeboard. cube. Statistics. median. elements) Counting techniques Sequences and series (including exponential growth) Elementary number theory ■ ■ ■ ■ Algebra and Functions (35–40%) ■ ■ ■ ■ ■ ■ ■ ■ ■ ■ ■ ■ • ■ Area and perimeter of a polygon Area and circumference of a circle Volume of a box.com/ practice. divisibility.) Rational numbers Sets (union.

you must determine the total number of seniors’ names that are in the lottery and divide this number by the total number of names in the lottery. First. each junior’s name. Most problems can be solved in a variety of ways. Reference Information Notes r A = r2 C=2 r w A= w h w b 1 A = 2 bh V = wh h r h b a V = r 2h c 2x 30° 60° x s 45° s 2 45° c2 = a2 + b2 s x 3 Special Right Triangles The number of degrees of arc in a circle is 360.Multiple-Choice Questions The questions that follow will give you an idea of the type of mathematical thinking required to solve problems on the SAT. The use of a calculator is permitted. 1. There are 100 seniors. Unless otherwise specified. 2 times. 4. the domain of any function f is assumed to be the set of all real numbers x for which f (x) is a real number. and then read the solutions that follow. Each senior’s name is placed in the lottery 3 times. so don’t be concerned if your method is different from the one given. 2. solve each problem and decide which is the best of the choices given. Note that the directions indicate that you are to select the best of the choices given. You may use any available space for scratch work. 1 time. The sum of the measures in degrees of the angles of a triangle is 180. The probability that a senior’s name will be chosen is 300 300 3 = = . there are 2 × 150 = 300 juniors’ names and 1 × 200 = 200 sophomores’ names in the lottery. and 200 sophomores who applied. 150 juniors. They are drawn as accurately as possible EXCEPT when it is stated in a specific problem that the figure is not drawn to scale. what is the probability that a senior’s name will be chosen? (A)  To determine the probability that a senior’s name will be chosen. A special lottery is to be held to select the student who will live in the only deluxe room in a dormitory. Since each senior’s name is placed in the lottery 3 times. Likewise. Figures that accompany problems in this test are intended to provide information useful in solving the problems. 3. and each sophomore’s name. 1. Following each question. If a student’s name is chosen at random from the names in the lottery. you will find one or two solutions. For this section. All figures lie in a plane unless otherwise indicated. 300 + 300 + 200 800 8 1 8 (D)  (B)  2 9 (E)  (C)  2 7 3 8 1 2 Correct answer: (D) / Difficulty level: Medium The SAT 11 . try to answer each question yourself. These solutions may give you new insights into solving the problems or point out techniques you’ll be able Directions to use again. Fill in the corresponding circle on the answer sheet. Sample Questions Below are seven examples of standard multiple-choice questions. there are 3 × 100 = 300 seniors’ names. All numbers used are real numbers.

NOONTIME TEMPERATURES IN HILO. 3. which is perpendicular 1− 0 1 to . or the mode. line contains the points (0. The three numbers greater than 75 are closer to 75 than are the three numbers smaller than 75. In the xy-coordinate plane above.000 (E) 200. you can determine the relationship between the average and the median by inspection. p is the price per cartridge. s ( 20 ) = y (1.000 Correct answer: (C) / Difficulty level: Medium 2−0 = 2. what is an equation of m ? (A) y = − 3000 . you need to evaluate Correct answer: (A) / Difficulty level: Medium To determine the correct order of m. in a city in Hawaii over a one-week period. in thousands) and p = 10. Line m. s = 100 (since s is the number of cartridges sold. which of the following is the correct order of m. Substituting into the equation yields 100 = 2. will have a slope of − . in dollars. which is 75. 77 Sun. f represents the temperature that occurred most often. it is helpful to first place the seven temperatures in ascending order. an equation of line m is y = − 1 x.000 cartridges sold at $20 per cartridge. 66 Tue. However. where s is the number of 2p + a cartridges sold. and a is a constant. Therefore.000 cartridges sold at $10 per cartridge.000 1 x 2 1 (B) y = − x + 1 2 y = −x (C) (D) y = − x + 2 (E) y = − 2 x Correct Answer: (A) / Difficulty level: Medium Using the coordinates of the two points given on line . the (D) 150. 78 Wed. you can add the seven numbers together and divide by 7. If m represents the median of these temperatures. To determine the average. To determine how many cartridges will 2 p + 10 be sold at $20 per cartridge. 2 12 SAT Practice Booklet . and a represents the average (arithmetic mean) of these seven temperatures. so m = 75. 0) and (1. 2 ( 20 ) + 10 there will be 60. the function can be written as a < m < f a < f < m m < a < f m < f < a a = m < f s ( p) = 3000 . 2) O x 4. An equation of m can be written as y = − 1 x + b . Solving this equation for a yields 2 (10 ) + a 100 ( 20 + a ) = 3000 20 + a = 30 a = 10 Since a is a constant.000 (B) 50. and a. 78 Sat. how many cartridges will be sold at $20 per cartridge? by the function s ( p ) = (A) 20. 70 For 100. f. Since s is given in thousands. 2). 69 Fri. If according to the projections. in degrees Fahrenheit. it follows that b = 0. f. f. HAWAII Mon. is 78. the average of the seven numbers will be less than 75. Therefore. and a is a < m < f . Since line m also 2 contains point (0. The projected sales volume of a video game cartridge is given 3000 = 60 .000 (C) 60. The correct order of m. The temperature that occurred most often. in thousands. 75 Thu. 0) and is perpendicular to . 0). 100. and a ? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) 3000 . so f = 78. The table above shows the temperatures at noon. If line m (not shown) contains the point (0.000 cartridges are sold at $10 per cartridge. as shown below: 66 69 70 75 77 78 78 The median temperature is the middle temperature in the ordered list. since slopes of perpendicular lines 2 slope of is are negative reciprocals of each other.

is the sum of k and a multiple of 30. Since x − 5 2 = x m . Since the sum of 5 and 6 is not greater than 11.a c b 6. If two sides of the triangle above have lengths 5 and 6. as 30 is the least common multiple of 2. or 9. the value 7. 3. you must determine which of those statements could be true. and two sides have lengths 5 and 6. consider whether the triangle could have a perimeter of 22. Finally. 60. If k is divisible by 2. For example. and 120. 90. 22 (A) I only (B) I and II only (C) I and III only (D) II and III only (E) I. This is true. For example. and 9. The SAT 13 . 60 is a multiple of 30 and 45 is not. If x > 1 and Note: Figure not drawn to scale. 6. So the perimeter of the triangle could be 20. 20 III. the length of the third side would be 22 – (6 + 5) = 11. which answer choice is a multiple of 30. 60 and 90 are multiples of 30. ■ ■ ■ Statement I states that 15 could be the perimeter of the triangle. 30. So the perimeter of the triangle could be 15. The sum of k and 30 is also a multiple of 30. k + 30 . then the third side of the triangle would have length 20 – (6 + 5).” Only choice (D). and 15. II. is not a multiple of 30. the sum will also be a multiple of 30. 6. Some multiples of 30 are 0. and 15—that is. what is the value of m ? x3 7 5 (A) − (B) − 3 (C) − 2 2 3 (D) −2 (E) − 2 Correct answer: (C) / Difficulty level: Medium Since x can be written as x 2 and 1 can be x3 −3 written as x . the perimeter of the triangle could be which of the following? I. 2 = x − 5 2. and 11 cannot be the lengths of the sides of a triangle. 3. statement II is true. and III Correct answer: (B) / Difficulty level: Hard In questions of this type. 5. is also a multiple of 30. If you add a multiple of 30 to a number that is not a multiple of 30. and their sum. In this case. 3. the sum will not be a multiple of 30. If 20 is the perimeter of the triangle. 15 II. The question asks which answer choice is divisible by 2. and 6. The triangle inequality states that the sum of the lengths of any two sides of a triangle must be greater than the length of the third side. k must be a multiple of 30. which of the following is also divisible by these numbers? (A) k + 5 (B) k + 15 (C) k + 20 (D) k + 30 (E) k + 45 Correct answer: (D) / Difficulty level: Medium Since k is divisible by 2. and so the given triangle cannot have a perimeter of 22. the correct answer to the question is I and II only. 105. and III should each be considered independently of the others. or 4. ■ x = x m . If the perimeter of the triangle is 15. 150. statements I. If you add two multiples of 30. which is choice (B). then the third side of the triangle would have length 15 − (6 + 5). 5. it follows that 5. All the answer choices are in the form of “k plus a number. A triangle can have side lengths of 4. II. ■ ■ Therefore. so the correct answer is choice (D). the left side of the equation is ⋅x −3 ⎛1 ⎜ ⎜ ⎜2 ⎜ ⎝ ⎟ −3⎟ ⎟ ⎟ ⎠ ⎞ 1 1 x2 = x 5 of m is − . A triangle can have side lengths of 5. In this question. 3. Their sum. Similarly. and 15. and 15.

14 SAT Practice Booklet . ■ A fraction does not have to be reduced unless it will not fit the grid. Mixed numbers such as 3 1 must be gridded as 2 3.667. You may use any available space for scratch work. For example. In such cases. It is very important for you to understand the directions for entering answers on the grid. . 6/10. Fraction line 0 1 2 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 Decimal point 1 2 3 4 0 1 2 3 4 0 1 2 3 4 0 1 2 3 4 1 2 3 0 1 2 3 4 0 1 2 3 0 1 2 3 Grid in result. as shown in the examples below. can also be gridded. you should grid the form of the answer that you obtain naturally in solving the problem. • Decimal Answers: If you obtain a decimal answer • Although not required. On student-produced response (grid-in) questions. writing your answer at the top of the grid may help you avoid gridding errors. However.4.. grid only one answer.5 Either position is correct. If you obtain . if you obtain 2/5. A less accurate value such as . If you erase your answer. You can grid 3/5. Ten questions on the test will be of this type. Zero has been omitted from column 1 to encourage you to grid the most accurate values for rounded answers. you can grid 2/5. Your handwritten answer at the top of the grid isn’t scored. Below are the actual directions that you will find on the test—read them carefully. or 4. Write answer in boxes. 2 Acceptable ways to grid are: 3 • Mark no more than one circle in any column. grid it in column 2. with more digits than the grid can accommodate. which is less accurate..Student-Produced Response Questions Questions of this type have no answer choices provided. it may be either rounded or truncated.666 or . (If interpreted as is gridded. You will lose valuable testing time if you read the directions for the first time when you take the test. you have made an error. Answer: 201 7 Answer: 12 Answer: 2. Decimals and fractions can also be gridded. a value greater than 9999. you can grid . Columns not needed should be left blank.4. Make an educated guess if you don’t know the answer. an answer of 1/8 could also be gridded as . For example. not 3 .12. The decimal form. 15/25 will not fit. Each of the remaining questions requires you to solve the problem and enter your answer by marking the circles in the special grid.5 or 7 2. • Some problems may have more than one correct answer. whether whole number. you should record your result as . you don’t lose points for wrong answers. you must solve the problem and fill in your answer on a special grid. Check your work if your answer does not fit on the grid. it is suggested that you write your answer in the boxes at the top of the columns to help you fill in the circles accurately. 3.6666. For example. Instead. but it must fill the entire grid.6.67 will be scored as incorrect. if you obtain an answer such as 0. The grid will only hold numbers that range from 0 to 9999. • Because the answer sheet will be machinescored. ■ If the answer is zero. Only answers entered on the grid are scored.) 2 2 ¥ 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 1 2 3 4 5 6 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 1 2 3 4 5 6 0 1 2 3 4 5 0 1 2 3 4 5 0 1 2 3 4 5 ¥ 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 1 2 3 4 5 0 1 2 3 4 5 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 Approaches to Student-Produced Response Questions ■ Decide in which column you want to begin gridding your answers before the test starts. or 9/15. Incomplete erasures may be picked up by the scoring machines as intended answers. For example.125 but not as 0. If you obtain a negative value. This strategy saves time. 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 Note: You may start your answers in any column. do so completely.. or an irrational number. • • No question has a negative answer. you will receive credit only if the circles are filled in correctly. decimal. space permitting.66 or . We recommend that you grid the first (left-hand) column of the grid or that you right-justify your answers. ■ ■ ■ ■ Do your best to be certain of your answer before you grid it. or fraction. Generally. Always enter your answer on the grid. it will be 31 1 . A primary advantage of this format is that it allows you to enter the form of the answer that you obtain.

1-4. 3-4.67. let a ♦ b be defined by a ♦ b = of 4 ♦ 2? ab + 1 . and 5-6.5.Sample Questions Below are five examples of student-produced response questions. There are 15 combinations. let us refer to them as 1. The answer can 2 be entered in the grid as 1/2 or . 1-5. the value of 3 − 8 x is either 1 or −1 3 − 8x = 1 8x = 2 1 x = 4 or 15 0 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 3 − 8x = − 1 8x = 4 1 x = 2 The two values of x that satisfy the second equation are 6 7 8 9 1 1 and . The SAT 15 . 5. Note that 1-2 and 2-1 represent the same combination. 4-6. Kay must choose exactly 2 of them. 3-5. the value of 4 x − 7 is either 5 or − 5. which equals . you substitute 4 for a and 2 for b in Since 4 x − 7 = 5 . 3-6. To evaluate 4 ♦ 2. 4x − 7 = 5 3 − 8x = 1 8. Difficulty level: Hard There are 6 courses offered. For all positive integers a and b. so only one is in the list. How many different combinations of 2 courses are possible for Kay if there are no restrictions on which 2 courses she can choose? 4x = 2 1 x = 2 The two values of x that satisfy the first equation are 3 and Since 3 − 8 x = 1. This gives . 2-3. 2 4x − 7 = − 5 or 42 + 1 17 ab + 1 . 1-3. 2-5. 1-6. you will find a solution and several ways to enter the correct answer. You are asked to find the value of x that 4 2 1 satisfies both equations. 4 −1 3 a−1 The answer may be entered in the grid as 17/3 or as 5. 4x − 7 = 5 4 x = 12 x = 3 1 . Of the 6 courses offered by the music department at her college. 4. the expression Difficulty level: Medium 10. That value is . 2-6. 2. and 6. They are 1-2. 3. One way to find the number of combinations is to list all possible pairings. What value of x satisfies both of the equations above? 9.66 or 5. Following each question. 4-5. What is the value a−1 17 0 1 2 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 / 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 3 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 5 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 66 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 5 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 67 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 1/ 2 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 5 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 The words “let a ♦ b be defined by” tell you that the symbol ♦ is not supposed to represent a common mathematical operation but one that is made up for this question. 2-4.

0002 is within the range ( 4 < t < 5) . or f ( t + 1) = t 2 − 5t + 4 . forming twelve angles. The figure below shows three parallel lines intersected by a fourth line. Since k = t + 1 and f ( t + 1) = 0. Let the function f be defined by f ( x ) = x 2 − 7 x + 10. f ( t + 1) = ( t 2 + 2t + 1) − ( 7t + 7 ) + 10. So ( k − 5) ( k − 2 ) = 0. The number 5 can be gridded in any of the four columns on the answer grid. The total number of combinations is This question asks for one possible value of t. or 28° ( t − 1) ( t − 4 ) = 0. or 6 × 5 = 30. k = 5 or k = 2. although 4. Difficulty level: Medium 11. For example. your gridded response must lie within the range. what is one possible value of t ? 1 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 4 0 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 5 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 Since f ( x ) = x 2 − 7 x + 10 .You could also notice that there are 5 pairings that start with course 1 and 4 additional pairings that start with course 2. t = 4 or t = 1. For each pair of courses A-B selected. how many of the other eleven angles have measure 28° ? 5 + 4 + 3 + 2 + 1 = 15. it follows that t 2 − 5t + 4 = 0. Using the fact that vertical angles and alternate interior angles are equal. Since f ( t + 1) = 0. substituting ( t + 1) for x into the function yields f ( t + 1) = ( t + 1)2 − 7 ( t + 1) + 10. the number of different ways 2 of 6 courses could be selected) is 6 for the first course selected times 5 for the second course selected. and therefore. If one of the angles has measure 28°. its rounded value 4. Choose only one correct answer (not both) to enter in the grid. You could also solve the problem by noting that the total number of permutations (that is. 28° There are 5 other angles that measure 28°. consider a problem for which all numbers between 4 and 5. Difficulty level: Hard 12. as shown below. Therefore. exclusive. and so forth. there are 2 arrangements. For example. Either 1 or 4 satisfies the question being asked. When there is a range of possible correct answers. Three parallel lines in a plane are intersected by a fourth line. f ( k ) = k 2 − 7 k + 10 = ( k − 5) ( k − 2 ) . you must divide the number of permutations by the number of arrangements. t = 1 or t = 4. or Drawing the figure described in the problem will help you visualize the correct solution to the problem.00 is not within the range and therefore would not be considered a correct answer to the problem. the arrangement B-A is also possible. are correct answers. it follows that f ( k ) = 0. So the number of combinations is 30 ÷ 2 = 15. you can put a check showing the other angles in the figure that also measure 28°. To find the number of combinations. Therefore. Difficulty level: Easy 16 SAT Practice Booklet . For this problem. let k = t + 1. If f ( t + 1) = 0. Since t = k − 1. Another way to solve the question would be to use a dummy variable k. the correct answer to this problem is 5. The acute angle is labeled 28°. Therefore.

Sentence illustrating the problem Should be. John decided to continue working through the summer. but John decided to continue working through the summer. so they filled out the required applications. he is home for two weeks. Tawanda has a rash. recognize correctly formed grammatical structures. He circumnavigated the globe on his trip. Several people wanted the job. Fred having to go home early. If you park here and do not eat in the restaurant. and she is probably allergic to Tawanda has a rash. Of the sixteen executives. Following conventions Pronoun case Idiom Comparison of modifiers Sentence fragment Comma splice He sat between you and I at the stadium. There are eight people on the shore. Naomi makes more money. Nathan grew more vegetables than his neighbor’s garden. Natalie had a different opinion for her. plays tennis. she is probably allergic to something. The multiple-choice sections measure your ability to ■ Note: Calculators may not be on your desk or used on the writing section of the SAT. Mary took time out of her busy schedule to visit her aunt. The SAT 17 . Illustrations of problems are given below. The multiple-choice sections include: ■ ■ ■ ■ ■ ■ ■ ■ Improving sentences (25 questions) Identifying sentence errors (18 questions) Improving paragraphs (6 questions) ■ improve a piece of writing through revision and editing. so he or she filled out the required applications. Barking loudly. it will be towed away. Characteristics of Effective Writing Multiple-choice writing questions focus on common problems associated with four characteristics of effective writing. the dog wrapped its leash around the tree. 5. understand grammatical elements and structures and how they relate to one another in a sentence. one should try to relax. something. Mary took time out of her busy schedule to visit her aunt. Recognizing effective writing Some sentences require students to recognize that there is no error. Writing problem 1. Barking loudly. Naomi makes the most money. Carmen and Sarah are both pilots. There are many problems in the contemporary world in which we live. If your car is parked here while not eating in the restaurant. The newspaper reported that few people voted. plays tennis. In the newspaper they say that few people voted. recognize and identify sentence-level errors. Being consistent Sequence of tenses Shift of pronoun Parallelism Noun agreement Pronoun reference Subject–verb agreement 2.The Writing Section The writing section includes both multiple-choice questions and a direct writing measure in the form of an essay. Nathan grew more vegetables than his neighbor grew. Fred has to go home early. The fifth category of questions requires recognition of correct sentences and effective writing strategies. clearly express ideas through sentence combining and use of transitional words and phrases. Of the sixteen executives.. There is eight people on the shore. She skis. Several people wanted the job. Expressing ideas logically Coordination and subordination Logical comparison Modification and word order 3. If you are tense. and flying hang gliders. He sat between you and me at the stadium. he was home for two weeks. Carmen and Sarah are both a pilot. improve coherence of ideas within and among paragraphs.. you should try to relax. After he broke his arm. communicate ideas clearly and effectively. After he broke his arm. your car will be towed away. Being clear and precise Ambiguous and vague pronouns Diction Wordiness Improper modification 4. If you are tense. Natalie had a different opinion of her. There are many problems in the contemporary world. and flies hang gliders. He circumvented the globe on his trip. the tree had the dog's leash wrapped around it. She skis.

■ In (A). select choice A. (E) is correct. Choice A repeats the original phrasing. EXAMPLE: Laura Ingalls Wilder published her first book and she was sixtyfive years old then. if not. ■ ■ recognize and correct faults in grammar and sentence structure. select one of the other choices. The phrase “upon the reaching of” also results in a phrase that is not idiomatic. If you think the original phrasing produces a better sentence than any of the alternatives. No. beneath each sentence are five ways of phrasing the underlined material. connecting the two ideas (“Laura Ingalls Wilder published her first book”) and (“she was sixty-five years old then”) with the word “and” indicates that the two ideas are equally important. (C). Look for common problem areas in sentences.” A person might stand at the base of a mountain and look up at a trail. sentence construction. No. and (D) are simply variations of the error found in (A). choice of words. The word “and” should be replaced to establish the relationship between the two ideas. (A) Looking up (B) While looking up (C) By looking up (D) Viewing (E) Viewed When a modifying phrase begins a sentence. Even if you think that the sentence does not require correction and that choice (A) is the correct answer.” Correct answer: (E) / Difficulty level: Hard 18 SAT Practice Booklet . (A) and she was sixty-five years old then (B) when she was sixty-five (C) at age sixty-five years old (D) upon the reaching of sixty-five years (E) at the time when she was sixty-five ■ ■ ■ ■ The word “and” indicates that the two ideas it connects are equally important. the phrase “Looking up from the base of the mountain” does not logically modify the subject “the trail. every option except (E) is a dangling modifier. a trail can be viewed by someone looking up from the base of a mountain. Looking up from the base of the mountain. (B). otherwise. but continue to look at the other revisions. These include subject–verb agreement.Improving Sentences This question type measures your ability to ■ Keep in mind that while the answer choices change. ■ When reading choices (A) through (E). pay attention to grammar. Remember that choice (A) is the same as the underlined portion. The phrase “at the time when she was sixty-five” is awkward and wordy. Although a trail cannot itself look up from the base of a mountain.cde Answering Improving Sentences Questions Read the entire sentence carefully but quickly and ask yourself whether the underlined portion is correct or whether it needs to be revised. Correct answer: (B) / Difficulty level: Easy Sample Questions 1. that is. parallelism. Remember that the right answer will be the one correct version among the five choices. Using the word “at” results in a phrase that is not idiomatic. and the use of relative clauses. Yes. the rest of the sentence stays the same. follow the requirements of standard written English. Replacing the word “and” with “when” clearly expresses the information that the sentence is intended to convey by relating Laura Ingalls Wilder’s age to her achievement. In this example. the trail seemed more treacherous than it really was. so the phrase “Viewed from the base of the mountain” logically modifies the subject “the trail. No. it must logically modify the sentence’s subject. the other four choices are different. No. Directions The following sentences test correctness and effectiveness of expression. but it is illogical to suggest that a trail looks up from the base of a mountain. it is a dangling modifier. recognize effective sentences that follow the conventions of standard written English. it is a good idea to read each choice quickly to make sure. Each results in a sentence that illogically suggests that a trail was looking up from the base of a mountain. and punctuation. Your selection should result in the most effective sentence—clear and precise. ■ a. In making your selection. In the example. Part of each sentence or the entire sentence is underlined. replace the underlined part of the sentence with each answer choice to determine which revision results in a sentence that is clear and precise and meets the requirements of standard written English. placement of modifiers. without awkwardness or ambiguity.

Ask yourself whether any of the underlined words or phrases in the sentence contains a grammar or usage error. The other options contain no errors. organize and develop paragraphs in a coherent and logical manner. EXAMPLE: The other delegates and him immediately A B C accepted the resolution drafted by the D neutral states. In choosing answers. In the example above.” Correct answer: (B) / Difficulty level: Easy Sample Questions 2. C D No error E ■ a.” The pronoun “him” is in the wrong case. The SAT 19 . No error E The phrase “The other” correctly modifies the word “delegates. select the one underlined part that must be changed to make the sentence correct. No sentence contains more than one error. the prepositional phrase “of the resolution” appropriately specifies the subject of the postponed discussion. the committee has A decided to postpone further discussion B of the resolution until their next meeting. A pronoun must agree in number (singular or plural) with the noun to which it refers. The word “immediately” correctly modifies the verb “accepted. but go on to check the other choices. the singular verb “has” establishes “the committee” as a singular noun.” The phrase “drafted by” correctly expresses the action of the “neutral states.”) “Him” is an error. In (A). and adjective/adverb confusion. Correct answer: (D) / Difficulty level: Hard Improving Paragraphs This type of question measures your ability to ■ ■ ■ edit and revise sentences in the context of a paragraph or entire essay.” Check each underlined word or phrase for correctness. select choice E. follow the requirements of standard written English. Each sentence contains either a single error or no error at all. the preposition “After” appropriately introduces a phrase that indicates when the committee made its decision. paying attention to the underlined choices (A) through (D). pronoun reference and agreement. The error. (One would not say “him immediately accepted. ■ ■ ■ Directions The following sentences test your ability to recognize grammar and usage errors. recognize effective sentences that follow the conventions of standard written English. the committee has decided to postpone further discussion of the resolution until its next meeting. If the sentence is correct. is underlined and lettered. Select the underlined word or phrase that must be changed to make the sentence correct. After hours of futile debate. “to postpone” is the verb form needed to complete the description of the committee’s decision. ■ The error in this sentence occurs at (D). The sentence may be corrected as follows: After hours of futile debate. especially if you are not sure.” and the phrase “drafted by the neutral states” describes “the resolution. Keep in mind that some sentences do not contain an error. In (C). if there is one. therefore.Identifying Sentence Errors This question type measures your ability to ■ ■ ■ recognize faults in grammar and usage. the plural pronoun “their” is used incorrectly. Here. apply the conventions of standard written English. In (B). If the sentence contains an error. Mark (E) No error if you believe that the sentence is correct as written.cde ■ Answering Identifying Sentence Errors Questions Read the entire sentence carefully but quickly. “The other delegates and him” are the people who “immediately accepted the resolution. Develop the habit of looking for the most common mistakes that people make in grammar: subject–verb agreement.

(2) Often women artists like Mary Cassatt have worked in the shadows of their male contemporaries. (15) Many of the people ■ ■ (A). both (A) and (B) leave the ambiguity of the pronoun unresolved.Directions The following passage is an early draft of an essay. The transitional phrase “As a result” clearly indicates a cause-and-effect relationship. (7) Thanks to Bruce Blanchard. (A) In fact. In addition to being vague.” (C) is correct. In context. (16) My teacher said that isolation symbolizes Johnson’s life as an artist. both portraits and landscapes are among her works. Other questions ask you to consider organization and development. but also because it is wordy and illogically combines the adverbs “Often” and “rarely. a Connecticut businessman who bought some of her watercolors at an estate sale. a high school teacher who had lived all of her life in New Haven. (10) There are portraits and there are landscapes. even if you can imagine another correct response. (6) Johnson never sold a painting. you will need to note what sentences need to be corrected and to know how each sentence relates to the other sentences and to the essay as a whole. (3) They have rarely received much attention during their lifetimes. she had just read about a littleknown artist named Annie Johnson. which of the following is the best version of sentence 10 (reproduced below)? There are portraits and there are landscapes. (B). In answering each question.” ignoring those women who should have achieved fame. (11) The thing that makes her work stand out are the portraits. (C) Therefore. they had (B) Too bad these artists have (C) As a result. haunted look.” “Too bad. Moreover. A transitional phrase should be added to emphasize the causeand-effect relationship between the stated facts—women artists received little attention as a consequence of having worked in the shadows of their male contemporaries—and the ambiguous pronoun “They” should be replaced with a word or phrase that clearly refers to the “women artists” and not the “male contemporaries” mentioned in sentence 2.” Correct answer: (C) / Difficulty level: Hard 4. Read the entire essay quickly to determine its overall meaning. (E) Among them Johnson has portraits and landscapes. It should be revised so that Johnson is clearly identified as the painter of the portraits and landscapes. (14) Characters are presented almost photographically. Read the passage and select the best answers for the questions that follow. so you will notice errors. (5) Recently she came to class very excited. these women have (D) In spite of this. ■ Answering Improving Paragraphs Questions To answer the improving paragraphs questions that accompany the draft essay. In context. and pen-and-ink drawings. (D) Johnson painted both portraits and landscapes. Choose the best answer from among the choices given. in the pictures had an isolated. (8) Johnson is finally starting to get the attention that she deserved more than one hundred years ago. (E) is unsatisfactory not only because it fails to signal the cause-and-effect relationship. which is the best revision to the underlined portion of sentence 3 (reproduced below)? They have rarely received much attention during their lifetimes. Sample Questions Questions 3 and 4 are based on the following passage: (1) Many times art history courses focus on the great “masters. In choosing answers. 20 SAT Practice Booklet .” (13) They do not idealize characters. 3. charcoal sketches. Connecticut. make sure that your answer about a particular sentence or group of sentences makes sense in the context of the passage as a whole. and “these women” properly resolves the ambiguity of the pronoun “They. Some questions are about particular sentences or parts of sentences and ask you to improve sentence structure or word choice. and (D) are unsatisfactory because in each case the transitional phrase (“In fact. (12) My teacher described them as “unsentimental. its relationship to the preceding sentence needs to be made clearer.” or “In spite of this”) fails to indicate the cause-and-effect relationship. sentence 10 contains no noun to which the pronoun “her” in sentence 11 may refer. The essay is intended as a draft. (A) (As it is now) (B) You can see both portraits and landscapes. Some parts of the passage need to be rewritten. (9) Blanchard now owns a private collection of hundreds of Johnson’s works—watercolors. and her obituary in 1937 did not even mention her many paintings. women artists (E) Often it is the case that the former have Although sentence 3 is not grammatically incorrect. (4) My art teacher has tried to make up for it by teaching us about women artists and their work. follow the requirements of standard written English.

You will not receive high scores on your essay just because it is long. Don’t oversimplify. and (C) are unsatisfactory because they do not mention Johnson. or agree? What other ideas or examples would you bring up? Answering these questions will help you develop your own point of view. welldeveloped reasons or examples is more likely to get a high score than an essay with three short. The high school and college teachers who score the SAT reward essays that insightfully develop a point of view with appropriate reasons and examples and that use language skillfully.■ ■ ■ (A). or observations. You should. take care to develop your point of view. You will receive credit only for what you write on your answer sheet. simplistic examples. follow the conventions of standard written English. Adapted from Sara Lawrence-Lightfoot. experience. or observations. I’ve Known Rivers: Lives of Loss and Liberation Assignment: Do memories hinder or help people in their effort to learn from the past and succeed in the present? Plan and write an essay in which you develop your point of view on this issue. You will have enough space if you write on every line. avoid wide margins. • If your essay does not reflect your original and individual work. experience. Developing your point of view doesn’t mean coming up with as many examples as you can. Many persons believe that to move up the ladder of success and achievement. (D) is correct because it properly identifies Johnson as the painter of the artworks and thus provides an antecedent for the pronoun “her” in sentence 11. Would you argue with him or her. Try to write or print so that what you are writing is legible to those readers. Rushing to give multiple relevant examples can lead you to oversimplify a complex topic. and relinquish it. studies. repress it. and keep your handwriting to a reasonable size. The SAT 21 . Correct answer: (D) / Difficulty level: Easy The Essay The essay measures your ability to ■ ■ ■ develop a point of view on an issue presented in an excerpt. even ones from your personal life or experiences. and use language precisely. • An off-topic essay will receive a score of zero. Every essay assignment contains a short paragraph about the issue. Of course you need to support your ideas appropriately and show that you can use language well. support your point of view using reasoning and examples from your reading. or uses literary examples. Directions The essay gives you an opportunity to show how effectively you can develop and express ideas. studies. Remember that people who are not familiar with your handwriting will read what you write. it is misleading in that the words “Johnson has” suggest that Johnson is the owner rather than the painter of the portraits and landscapes. You have twenty-five minutes to write an essay on the topic assigned below. so feel free to use “I. An essay with one or two thoughtful. Important Reminders: • A pencil is required for the essay. It’s all there to help you. So what can you do to write a successful SAT essay? ■ Think carefully about the issue presented in the following excerpt and the assignment below. present your ideas logically and clearly. not give a straight report of the facts. They see old memories as a chance to reckon with the past and integrate past and present. But others have just the opposite view. your test scores may be canceled. but remember: The essay is an opportunity for you to say what you think about an issue relevant to your life. Your essay must be written on the lines provided on your answer sheet—you will receive no other paper on which to write. • Do not write your essay in your test book. they must forget the past.” You are asked to develop your point of view on the issue. Imagine that you are talking to the author of the paragraph about the issue. (B). Approaches to the Essay There are no short cuts to success on the SAT essay. Though (E) does mention Johnson. or has five paragraphs. Support your position with reasoning and examples taken from your reading. This is your opinion. ■ ■ Read the entire assignment. An essay written in ink will receive a score of zero. therefore. There’s nothing wrong with “I.” and give examples that are meaningful to you.

This essay effectively and insightfully develops its point of view (In order to move up the ladder of success and achievement we must come to terms with our past and integrate it into our future) through a clearly appropriate extended example drawing on the writer’s experience as an actor. The play was Neil Simon’s “Rumors. past memories can help people to succeed in the present). which would be my final performance in high school. I didn’t get the part. in the book Ceremony. The essay exhibits outstanding critical thinking by presenting a well-organized and clearly focused narrative that aptly illustrates the value of memory.” and would get the opportunity to play “Chris. . Thinking back to my first audition I was grateful for that chance I had to learn and to grow. Japan. “Cat on a Hot Tin Roof. remembered how the exact same argument of “why should we spend money on war torn nations that really owe us reparations?” had been used after World War I towards Germany. The essay uses appropriate reasoning and examples and demonstrates coherence and progression of ideas (Many American politicians thought it was foolish for the US government to spend money abroad on countries that would not be able to repay the loan for a long time. For two hours I studied Elizabeth Taylor’s mannerisms. in order to create my character. George Marshall. can not concentrate on the present because he constantly hounds himself over things that happened during World War II and his troubled childhood. because without that mistake I might have tried to base “Chris” off of someone I’d known or something I’d seen instead of becoming my own character.” To my detriment I thought it would be a good idea to watch the movie in order to prepare. attitude. 22 SAT Practice Booklet This focused essay effectively develops its point of view and demonstrates strong critical thinking (Many people are so troubled by things that happened in their past that they are not able to focus on the present. I was auditioning for the fall play. by Leslie Marmon Silko. gave her the voice I thought was right. I planned out her life just as I thought it should be. . However. Many American politicians thought it was foolish for the US government to spend money abroad on countries that would not be able to repay the loan for a long time.” a sarcastic yet witty role. Perservering. the main character. this will only make wiser people out of us and guide us to where we are supposed to be. In order to move up the ladder of success and achievement we must come to terms with our past and integrate it into our future. the essay demonstrates clear and consistent mastery and is scored a 6. and my director told me that he needed to see “Maggie” from my perspective.Sample Essays Score of 6: Without our past. however. and diction. perhaps through an extended comparison of Tayo’s and Marshall’s experiences of World War II. and that he was amazed at how I’d developed such a believable character. I was unaware that my director…). past memories can help people to succeed in the present. attitude. However. I auditioned for the part of “Maggie” feeling perfectly confident in my portrayal of Elizabeth Taylor. demonstrating meaningful variety in sentence structure (To my detriment I thought it would be a good idea to watch the movie in order to prepare. hoping I could mimic her performance. I learned from this experience. we could eventually have a World War III on our hands. However. I was unaware that my director saw exactly what I had been thinking. however. not Elizabeth Taylor’s. . remembered how the exact same argument . The essay also uses language skillfully. However. After the conclusion of World War II there were many countries around the world in need of economical assistence to help rebuild their war torn countries. . The German people became so desperate that they started supporting an extreme German nationalist named Adolf Hitler. For example. I auditioned for the part of “Maggie” feeling perfectly confident in my portrayal of Elizabeth Taylor. Unfortunately. To earn a score of 6. our future would be a tortuous path leading to nowhere. For two hours I studied Elizabeth Taylor’s mannerisms. George Marshall . Tayo. I utilized the memory of the Elizabeth Taylor debacle to improve my approach to acting and gave the best performance of my life so far. Marshall knew that if the US did not help war torn Germany and. hoping I could mimic her performance. and the United States would have to be the one to provide that assistence. Score of 5: I agree with Ms. Despite minor errors. and diction. who eventually started World War II. . and the rest of her character unfolded beautifully from there. I was anxious to audition for the winter play just two months later. In order to develop my character. This past year. . . My director told me after the first show that “Rumors” was the best work he’d ever seen from me. The essay also exhibits facility in the use of language. An historical example of people learning from the past would be the Marshall Plan. Sara Lawrence-Lightfoot in saying that some people “see old memories as a chance to reckon with the past and integrate past and present. and promised myself I would not try to imitate another actress. The lack of assistence towards Germany after World War I had caused a gigantic economic depression in Germany that had made the Mark (German money) virtually worthless. a former general and later Secretary of State under President Truman. The essay demonstrates reasonably consistent mastery and is scored a 5. the writer needs to achieve clearer coherence and smoother progression of ideas by integrating the example of Ceremony more effectively into the overall essay. . especially. had been used after World War I towards Germany). Even if in the past we made mistakes.” Many people are so troubled by things that happened in their past that they are not able to focus on the present.

This essay provides adequate reasons and examples to support both aspects of its point of view (I believe that one should remember the past and learn from those events. they attacked many parts of Britain for retribution of those many years of being oppressed. . a sporting team at the local high school makes it to the state championships. His education there will allow him to have a prosperous career as an adult. . I also believe that many bad memories harm the present and the future). The essay demonstrates developing mastery and earns a 3. The essay also demonstrates occasional problems in sentence structure and mechanics.Score of 4: Interestingly enough. This demonstrates how a memory can ruin a certain activity for ever. I believe that memories from different aspects of ones life have different consequences. These two ideas helped him to get into the prestegious college of the University of Notre Dame. The SAT 23 . thus demonstrating competent critical thinking. I have learned that in many bad instances. when looking at the past they see they have beat it once why not beat it again). many times. This demonstrates how a memory can be helpful to a person. people are required to use both elements. it trigers a memory and lets the reader reflect on that particular time in life. I believe that one should remember the past and learn from those events. and it may hinder there feelings and they may once again lose. Both of the ideas on remembering and forgetting have their reasons for existing and both are positive. this writer needs to use critical thinking to clarify and expand each example by adding additional focused reasoning and details. I will have a similar promising career. The essay also has some errors in grammar. the writer should provide additional appropriate evidence and use critical thinking to extend the discussion of situations in which “people are required to use both elements. when trying to succeed. Those two short examples just go to demonstrate how memories of the past can both help and hinder a person in their path of not only success but also in the path of life. However. Through my knowledge. This essay develops a point of view (Memories can be helpful to some and hinder others) and shows some critical thinking by providing examples of the positive and negative effects of memories. This hostility has cost the lives of many hundreds of people. the patient might feel that they can kill the cancer again because when looking at the past they see they have beat it once why not beat it again. A quote once said. the examples are limited in focus. has proved to me the importance of getting good grades and actively participating in extracorrecular activities. but severly loses to their opponent. Reviewing these facts and ideas has led me to believe if I do the same. time to forget is very important). After being granted the Irish Free State. When a person completes a task they have done once before. On the other hand a memory can also help someone to move up the ladder of success. I fall in the middle of these statements. When the patient in remission is later told that the cancer has grown back. who is college. start anew. time to forget is very important. Many times. Score of 3: Memories can be helpful to some and hinder others. The writer also needs to avoid using run-on sentences (. For example. I have learned that in many bad instances. for example. Ireland.” The essay demonstrates adequate mastery and receives a 4. and are thus inadequate to support the position. For example. However. As an example if a person has cancer and is given treatment then diagnosed in remission they feel like they have beat the cancer. Different situations require different actions to proceed in a positive manner. Though some memories may give on strength to suceed in achieving a higher status in life. In this case it did not help the person climb the ladder of success though it helped the to continue climbing the ladder of life to the extent that they were able to climb. despite some inconsistencies (Through my knowledge. is to forget and forgive. had been persecuted for many hundreds of years from 1000 AD to 1900 AD. “Violence begets violence” is the perfect phrase for this warfare. and mechanics. My brother. usage. The essay is generally organized and focused and features coherence and progression of ideas. featuring some lapses in coherence and progression of ideas. Consequently. The only way to continue. let’s forget this part and concentrate on how to bring this positive part into light. The only way to stop the loss of life is to forget and forgive. Consequently there has been on going hostility between the two peoples. Facility in the use of language is adequate. However. the next time they get to the state championships they may think about the past and how they lost before. To earn a higher score. I also believe that many bad memories harm the present and the future. To achieve a higher score. One memory may be bad and it may be best forgotten about. I have gotten good grades and have seen interest from many prestigious programs.

Everything we do has to do with our experiences in the past. you will always wait for other people to make decisions for you and won’t have your own point of view. and mechanics. and the past is only guidelines). People do succed with repeating their memories. If the two readers’ scores are more than one point apart. regardless of style or approach. composition. and relinquish it. this writer needs to provide additional focused evidence that develops the point of view. but the world will change to overcome the past. Score of 1: My oppion on this topic are oposing memories and favoring them. development. In holistic scoring. that they must forget the past. including critical thinking. usage. I also think memories should not rule the present. This is why memories should be guidelines. Every single happy moment. They might have horrible memories but also succeed because they don’t repeat the past. The SAT essay neither rewards nor penalizes formulaic approaches to writing. insufficient use of evidence. language use. repress it. There is no formula for effective writing. or language arts courses. mistakes. grammar. and sentence structure. Your actions become habits which creates your personality and helps you to make your own experience. For succeed you have to know what you want. readers follow the scoring guide below. The essay demonstrates little mastery and is scored a 2. appropriate choices of evidence. organization. every mistake you make is getting a part of you. 24 SAT Practice Booklet . . Therefore memories help people in their effort to learn from the past and succeed in the present. If you repeat the past it won’t come out as well as it did because the world has changed. including specific examples. the way we get along with people or treat them. offering only a collection of general ideas in support of the writer’s point of view (don’t forget the past or live in it. a piece of writing is considered as a total work. In scoring the essays. not rules. The evidence presented is disorganized and unfocused. a third reader resolves the discrepancy. If you get everything told you by someone. that they must forget the past. This minimal essay demonstrates very little mastery. Everything we do has to do with our experiences in the past). and precise use of language will receive a high score. To earn a higher score. resulting in a disjointed essay. Essays are scored by experienced high school teachers and college faculty members. Readers are trained to recognize and reward a wide variety of essays at each score point. Each essay is scored independently by two readers on a scale of 1 to 6. So in conclusion don’t forget the past or live in it. See the past will never change with the world. . Scoring the Essay Essays are scored in a manner that is fair and consistent. with 6 being the highest score. repress it. If you let the past overcome the preset you won’t get any where. effective organization. the whole of which is greater than the sum of its parts. exhibiting weak critical thinking. Everything you did and saw in the past helps you to move on. to find that out. The majority of essay readers teach English. and relinquish it). and serious problems with progression of ideas. To achieve a higher score. and your experience with people and the world or school you won’t have any examples to compare or to handle any coming situations in the future. Any essay that features clear lines of reasoning. this essay is seriously limited. you have to have been through some difficult situations in the PAST. The scoring guide describes the features typically found in essays at each score point. ample development of ideas. using a holistic approach. . the writer needs to develop the point of view with reasons and specific examples instead of merely repeating the same vague ideas (Everything you did and saw in the past helps you to move on. no single best way to communicate an idea. If you don’t live with making your own decisions.Score of 2: I think it is wrong to believe that to move up the ladder of success and achievement. and the past is only guidelines. The essay also demonstrates frequent problems in usage. The essay demonstrates very little mastery and receives a 1. The combined score for both readers will range from 2 to 12. the way we turn out to be an adult. Although it expresses a point of view (I think it is wrong to believe that to move up the ladder of success and achievement. A student can get a top score on the essay even with minor errors in grammar. such as the fiveparagraph essay. and sentence structure.

using appropriate vocabulary ■ demonstrates variety in sentence structure ■ is generally free of most errors in grammar. or demonstrates serious problems with coherence or progression of ideas displays very little facility in the use of language. and other evidence to support its position ■ is generally organized and focused. and mechanics SCORE OF 5 An essay in this category demonstrates reasonably consistent mastery. accurate. providing inappropriate or insufficient examples.Scoring Guide SCORE OF 6 An essay in this category demonstrates clear and consistent mastery. A typical essay ■ effectively and insightfully develops a point of view on the issue and demonstrates outstanding critical thinking. or other evidence to support its position is poorly organized and/or focused. although it may have a few minor errors. but sometimes uses weak vocabulary or inappropriate word choice lacks variety or demonstrates problems in sentence structure contains an accumulation of errors in grammar. demonstrating some coherence and progression of ideas ■ exhibits adequate but inconsistent facility in the use of language. The SAT 25 . although it will have occasional errors or lapses in quality. usage. or may demonstrate some lapses in coherence or progression of ideas displays developing facility in the use of language. using clearly appropriate examples. demonstrating clear coherence and smooth progression of ideas ■ exhibits skillful use of language. or other evidence to support its position is limited in its organization or focus. and mechanics SCORE OF 4 An essay in this category demonstrates adequate mastery. usage. and mechanics develops a point of view on the issue that is vague or seriously limited. using a varied. using very limited vocabulary or incorrect word choice demonstrates frequent problems in sentence structure contains errors in grammar. and other evidence to support its position ■ is well organized and clearly focused. reasons. reasons. and is flawed by ONE OR MORE of the following weaknesses: ■ SCORE OF 1 An essay in this category demonstrates very little or no mastery. generally using appropriate examples. although it will have lapses in quality. or provides little or no evidence to support its position ■ ■ ■ is disorganized or unfocused. reasons. A typical essay ■ effectively develops a point of view on the issue and demonstrates strong critical thinking. and is severely flawed by ONE OR MORE of the following weaknesses: ■ develops a point of view on the issue. usage. usage. demonstrating some critical thinking. and is marked by ONE OR MORE of the following weaknesses: ■ SCORE OF 2 An essay in this category demonstrates little mastery. and mechanics so serious that meaning is somewhat obscured develops no viable point of view on the issue. A typical essay ■ develops a point of view on the issue and demonstrates competent critical thinking. reasons. using generally appropriate vocabulary ■ demonstrates some variety in sentence structure ■ has some errors in grammar. and demonstrates weak critical thinking. reasons. using adequate examples. usage. and other evidence to support its position ■ is well organized and focused. or mechanics that persistently interfere with meaning Essays not written on the essay assignment will receive a score of zero. but may do so inconsistently or use inadequate examples. usage. resulting in a disjointed or incoherent essay displays fundamental errors in vocabulary ■ ■ ■ ■ ■ ■ ■ ■ ■ demonstrates severe flaws in sentence structure contains pervasive errors in grammar. demonstrating coherence and progression of ideas ■ exhibits facility in the use of language. and apt vocabulary ■ demonstrates meaningful variety in sentence structure ■ is free of most errors in grammar. and mechanics SCORE OF 3 An essay in this category demonstrates developing mastery.

after at least two years of study. And smiled that smile. such as speaker. or EXCEPT. the estimated date of composition. You’ll do better on other tests. After reading each passage or poem. The total score for each test is on a 200–800 scale. LEAST.” he said.” 26 SAT Practice Booklet . We thought we’d take a . aunty. choose the best answer to each question and fill in the corresponding circle on the answer sheet. tone. chemistry. including tone and attitude Characterization in narrative and dramatic selections Sample Questions Questions on the Literature Subject Test are presented as sets of questions about reading selections. For these sample materials and for the actual test. and organization Use of language. the date printed at the end of each passage or poem is the original publication date or. prose. and style. and metaphor Meanings and connotations of specific words in context Narrative voice. The tests help colleges compare the academic achievement of students from different schools where course preparation and academic backgrounds may vary widely.SAT Subject Tests SAT Subject Tests are one-hour multiple-choice tests that measure how much you know about a particular academic subject and how well you can apply that knowledge.” Granny cut him off. such as foreign languages tests. Recommended Preparation ■ Close. . Literature One-hour subject test Content Questions may cover: ■ ■ ■ ■ ■ ■ Overall meaning. Each test is scored slightly differently depending on how many answer choices there are. image. . mathematics. form. including structure. Line (5) (10) By the time the man with the camera had cut across our neighbor’s yard. and languages. “Nice place you got here. head all down the way Bingo does when you yell at him about the bones on the kitchen floor. biology. Note: Pay particular attention to the requirements of questions that contain the words NOT. and drama ■ No suggested reading list Questions 1-4. “Good mornin. the twins were out of the trees swingin low and Granny was onto the steps. genre. irony. critical reading of poetry. stanza ■ Three or four years of literary study at the college-preparatory level ■ Independent. alliteration. . including word choice. in some cases. not just excerpts ■ Working knowledge of basic literary terminology. Read the following passage carefully before you choose your answers. including effect and theme Form. The chart above indicates typical or average content. while the material is still fresh in your mind. “We thought we’d get a shot or two of the house and everything and then . the screen door bammin soft and scratchy against her palms. or physics as soon as possible after you complete your course. Take tests such as history. sciences. imagery. critical reading in English and American literature from a variety of historical periods and genres ■ Reading of complete novels and plays. . The directions that follow are identical to those in the test. See specific subject sections for more information. All questions on the test are multiple-choice questions in which you must choose the BEST response from the five choices offered. history. Directions This test consists of selections from literary works and questions on their content. FORMAT About 60 multiple-choice questions 6 to 8 reading selections followed by sets of 4 to 12 questions Source of Questions English literature American literature Other literature written in English Chronology Renaissance and 17th century 18th and 19th centuries 20th century Genre Poetry Prose Drama and other Approximate % of Test* 40–50 40–50 0–10 30 30 40 40–50 40–50 0–10 *The distribution of passages may vary in different versions of the test.” “Good mornin. SAT Subject Tests fall into five subject areas: English.

Of sea or sky. Line (5) (10) (15) 1.” discoverin the twins givin him a nasty look. ladies. and still. from behind that craggy steep till then The horizon’s bound. and the stuff. It was an act of stealth And troubled pleasure.” a new man said. “Now. in grave And serious mood. 1 2 nature a boat (1850) SAT Subject Tests 27 . When. But huge and mighty forms. Cathy giggled into her collar. my brain Worked with a dim and undetermined sense Of unknown modes of being. the it. Smilin man was smiling up a storm. Until they melted all into one track Of sparkling light. aunty. “Suppose you just shut that machine off. as I rose upon the stroke. I struck and struck again. nor without the voice Of mountain-echoes did my boat move on. with purpose of its own And measured motion like a living thing.” said Granny still talkin with her eyebrows. “We’re filmin for the county.” he said with a smile. that do not live Like living men. and stepping in Pushed from the shore. Small circles glittering idly in the moon. The tone of “Now. And growing still in stature the grim shape Towered up between me and the stars. to reach a chosen point With an unswerving line. Proud of his skill. so he and the camera man backed on out the yard.” said the man buzzin his camera over the yard. and were a trouble to my dreams. As if with voluntary power instinct Upreared its head. no colours of green fields. for many days. aunty” (line 37) is most accurately described as (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) expectant patronizing accusatory obedient respectful (30) (35) 3. She was an elfin pinnace. on either side. Read the following excerpt from a poem carefully before you choose your answers. a huge peak. After Granny’s “Good mornin” (line 7). no pleasant images of trees. “Mind if we shoot a bit around here?” “I do indeed.2 lustily I dipped my oars into the silent lake. its usual home. “Just people here is what I tend to consider. the painted stones along the driveway. Granny’s final comment can best be understood as a (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) reluctant confession tentative assertion witty joke surprising revelation strong rebuke (40) One summer evening (led by her)1 I found A little boat tied to a willow tree Within a rocky cave. With trembling oars I turned. So was Cathy.(15) (20) (25) (30) (35) “Did you?” said Granny with her eyebrows.” Camera said pointin the thing straight at her. “I don’t know about the thing. — And through the meadows homeward went.” Camera man stopped buzzin. for above Was nothing but the stars and the grey sky. the twins. but after I had seen That spectacle. The horizon’s utmost boundary. Leaving behind her still.” said Granny real low through her teeth and took a step down off the porch and then another. The pecan barrels. Straight I unloosed her chain. “And gents. moved slowly through the mind By day. Cathy pulled up her socks and giggled. But now. the toolshed. me and Cathy. call it solitude Or blank desertion. For so it seemed. There in her mooring-place I left my bark. But he didn’t seem to have another word to say. but you could hear the camera buzzin still. And through the silent water stole my way Back to the covert of the willow tree. And. No familiar shapes Remained. black and huge. Strode after me.” (1971) 4.” said Granny with no smile. “Mornin. The episode reveals a conflict between (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) propriety and impertinence virtue and corruption kindness and cruelty passiveness and aggression refinement and grossness Questions 5-9. like one who rows. the trees. “Nice things here. the camera man probably behaves as he does because he (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) is made to realize that he is intruding suspects that he is in physical danger hopes to win Granny’s affection by appearing at ease is relieved that an adult is present realizes that he is disturbing the tidiness of the yard (20) (25) 2. the flowers. I fi xed my view Upon the summit of a craggy ridge. my boat Went heaving through the water like a swan. “Your mama and I are not related. the sled. o’er my thoughts There hung a darkness. He had come up behind us when we weren’t lookin.

In lines 1-7. B 9. Buy terms divine in selling hours of dross. questions 5–9 overall are a set of average difficulty. and questions 10–13 overall are a hard set. Within be fed. C 8. inheritors of this excess. the centre of my sinful earth. Dost thou upon thy fading mansion spend? Shall worms. At the conclusion of the excerpt. the “huge peak” (line 22) seems to represent which of the following for the speaker? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) An emblem of the beauty of the natural world A figure of undefined and unsettling significance An allegorical representation of sin itself A curious natural phenomenon A trivial figment of the speaker’s imagination 12. In lines 6-7. D 10. E 4. Read the following poem carefully before you choose your answers. “Painting thy outward walls so costly gay” (line 4) refers to (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) camouflage writing poetry attending to physical appearances pretending to be happy preparations for a celebration 8. ANSWERS The difficulty of sample Literature questions is reported by the set only. Which of the following best describes the change in the outlook of the speaker during the course of this excerpt? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) Naïveté to cynicism Bravery to cowardice Hope to despair Daring to uncertainty Eagerness to sloth 13. A 2. The poet signals a major shift at line 9 by changing from (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) entirely negative to entirely positive imagery imagery of permanence to imagery of change direct address to impersonal statement material to spiritual imagery questions to commands 9. A 7. A 5. B Line (5) Poor soul. E 11. without be rich no more: So shalt thou feed on Death. Which of the following best describes the theme of the concluding couplet (lines 13-14)? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) A confession of sin before an almighty judge An affirmation of the immortality of the soul A declaration of rebellion against the powers of fate An accusation that death is a faithless servant A surrender to the inexplicable nature of life Questions 10-13. live thou upon thy servant’s loss. which of the following devices is used to present nature. there’s no more dying then. 28 SAT Practice Booklet .) Questions 1–4 overall are an easy set. having so short a lease. “the voice/Of mountain-echoes” serves to reinforce the speaker’s sense of (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) freedom omnipotence furtiveness enthusiasm despondency 11. the boat. (The complexity of a literary text often influences the difficulty of the questions asked about it. B 3. E 13. Painting thy outward walls so costly gay? Why so large cost. C 12. And Death once dead.5. 1. E 6. Eat up thy charge? Is this thy body’s end? Then. that feeds on men. The dramatic situation in the poem is that of (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) a youth speaking to a lover a priest speaking to a sinner a reformer addressing an impoverished person God addressing any human soul an individual addressing his or her own soul 7. soul. and the mountain echoes? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) Personification Apostrophe Rhyme Paradox Simile 10. (1609) 6. Fenc’d by these rebel pow’rs that thee array. The excerpt is best described as (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) an enthusiastic celebration of youthful optimism an ironic self-portrait colored by satiric observations an imaginative evocation without didactic intention a symbolic representation of intellectual creativity a narrative episode with philosophical implications Line (10) And let that pine to aggravate thy store. In the context of the poem. Why dost thou pine within and suffer dearth.

non-English in the eighteenth century (B) Chiefly of English origin during the whole period (C) Largely non-English in the seventeenth century. George Grenville viewed the Stamp Act primarily as a means to (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) make the customs service more efficient punish rebellious colonists test the colonists’ will to resist England create more patronage positions for the king’s courtiers raise revenue for the crown *Social science concepts.United States History One-hour subject test Content Questions may require you to: ■ ■ ■ ■ ■ ■ Sample Questions All questions in the U. and generalizations Recall basic information Understand significant aspects of U. concepts. especially after 1650 2. Understand terms. (E) They believed the new American republic would be stable because of the unanimity of public opinion in the country on major policy issues. and generalizations are incorporated in this material. The directions that follow are identical to those in the test. SAT Subject Tests 29 . History Subject Test are multiple-choice questions in which you are asked to choose the BEST response from the five choices offered. 3. and Spanish America. (B) They had great faith in the goodness and rationality of people. Which of the following best describes the pattern of immigration into Britain’s North American colonies during the years 1620 to 1770? (A) Largely English in the seventeenth century. Africa. (C) They were opposed to the development of political parties. Select the one that is BEST in each case and then fill in the corresponding circle on the answer sheet.S. English in the eighteenth century (D) Predominantly from southern and eastern Europe. Which of the following statements is generally true of the framers of the Constitution? (A) They believed in the supremacy of the executive branch of the federal government.S. Directions Each of the questions or incomplete statements below is followed by five suggested answers or completions. history Analyze and interpret materials Relate ideas to given data Evaluate data for a given purpose Recommended Preparation ■ One-year comprehensive course in United States history at the college-preparatory level ■ Social studies courses and outside reading FORMAT 90 multiple-choice questions Material Covered* Political history Economic history Social history Intellectual and cultural history Foreign policy Periods Covered Pre-Columbian history to 1789 1790–1898 1899 to the present 20 40 40 32–36 18–20 18–22 10–12 13–17 Approximate % of Test 1. methods. (D) They incorporated into the Constitution the most democratic ideals of the Declaration of Independence. especially after 1700 (E) Predominantly from Asia.

. depending upon the slow but sure influences that proceed from the possession of property. and III. (E) It gained strength from new scientific evidence that alcohol was harmful to health. it’s a foxy Northern liberal’s smoke-screen that confuses the true wants of the American black man.” III.” II. (C) It was often favored by people who disliked immigrants and their cultural practices. resolution of the Suez Crisis (C) Richard M. . “What is man born for but to be a reformer. . are (A) Malcolm X. Nixon . .4. “The talented tenth of the Negro race must be made leaders of thought and missionaries of culture among their people . like all other races. Jr.B. Which of the following was symbolic of the rise of American influence in the fine arts after the Second World War? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) Mary Cassatt’s work in Impressionism Thomas Eakin’s work in Realism Grant Wood’s work in Regionalism Jackson Pollock’s work in Abstract Expressionism John S. Which of the following presidents is correctly paired with an event that took place during his administration? (A) Lyndon B. “I believe it is the duty of the Negro—as the greater part of the race is already doing —to deport himself modestly in regard to political claims. and Booker T. and with every pulsation a new life?” These sentiments are most characteristic of (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) fundamentalism Social Darwinism pragmatism neoorthodoxy transcendentalism 7. the trend in industry was for hours to be generally reduced.E. yielding every morning a new day. “The truth is that ‘integration’ is an image. Martin Luther King. All of the following are true of the movement to prohibit alcoholic beverages in the United States EXCEPT: (A) It arose quite suddenly amid the hysteria surrounding the First World War.B. a restorer of truth and good. Ford . Johnson . and Martin Luther King. is going to be saved by its exceptional men. Du Bois (D) Nat Turner. . and W. and high character for the full recognition of his political rights. (B) It won the support of many progressive reformers. Malcolm X. Booker T. respectively. and W.E. What factor was primarily responsible for this trend? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) A reduction in profit margins Minimum-wage laws Restriction of the labor supply Increased output per hour of work Right-to-work legislation 6. resolution of the Cuban Missile Crisis 30 SAT Practice Booklet . and Martin Luther King. the establishment of diplomatic relations between the United States and the People’s Republic of China (B) John F. . imitating that great Nature which embosoms us all. Washington (E) W. Kennedy . a renouncer of lies. a remaker of what man has made. Nat Turner. Malcolm X. the signing of the Camp David Accords (E) Jimmy Carter . Du Bois (C) Martin Luther King. From 1870 to 1930. while both money wages and real wages rose. (B) Booker T. Washington. . (D) It was a movement in which women played leading roles. 5. the reduction of United States forces in Vietnam (D) Gerald R. II. but every hour repairs herself. Jr. Jr. Major population shifts between 1915 and 1980 included all of the following EXCEPT a movement from (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) the rural South to Northern cities New England to the Midwest the North to the Sun Belt the inner cities to the suburbs the Caribbean region to the American mainland 10. . . The Negro race. I. Jr. and which sleeps no moment on an old past. . . Du Bois. . Copley’s work of realistic portraiture 9. intelligence.” The most probable authors of statements I. Washington. .E. .. 8.B.

Polk Franklin Pierce James Buchanan Andrew Johnson ANSWERS The estimated difficulty level. was the (A) creation of machinery for maintaining full employment (B) transformation of a business-dominated society into a labor-dominated one (C) redistribution of population from urban centers to rural areas (D) development of new attitudes about the role and function of government (E) destruction of machine politics at the state and city levels 12.11.” The statement above was made by (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) Thomas Jefferson Elizabeth Blackwell Henry David Thoreau Margaret Sanger Elizabeth Cady Stanton Northern Lim it of United Sta tes Claim 54° 40 ' Canada National Archives Pacific Ocean Crux of Dispute 15. individual citizenship. A (4) 7. our Protestant idea. . Roosevelt’s New Deal. C (3) 11. The 1940s poster above referred to the United States (A) (B) (C) (D) M e x i c a n Te r r i t o r y contribution of women to the defense industry growing popularity of women movie stars large number of women in the armed forces large number of immigrants who supported the war effort (E) affection of Americans for their wartime president 13. on a scale of 1 to 5. The controversy with Great Britain over the northern boundary of the shaded section in the map above was settled during the presidency of (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) John Quincy Adams James K. C (3) 4. A (2) SAT Subject Tests 31 . . she must have the same rights as all other members. D (4) 6. with 1 the easiest and 5 the most difficult. is in parentheses. E (5) 5. If we consider [a woman] as a citizen. B (5) 8. A major change brought about by Franklin D. as a member of a great nation. A(2) 2. The Emancipation Proclamation declared slaves in which of the following areas “forever free”? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) All areas of the United States All areas of the Confederacy Areas in border states loyal to the Union Confederate areas still in rebellion Areas in states controlled by Union forces 14. our republican idea. . according to the fundamental principles of our government. D (3) 9. 1. E (2) 3. B (3) 10. D (3) 12. the right of individual conscience and judgment. E (3) 13. D (3) 15. 1933–1939. “The point I wish plainly to bring before you on this occasion is the individuality of each human soul. B (2) 14.

E.World History One-hour subject test Content Questions may require you to: ■ ■ ■ Sample Questions All questions in the World History Subject Test are multiplechoice questions in which you are asked to choose the BEST response from the five choices offered. Cross-chronological 25 20 25 20 10 25 25 10 10 10 10 10 Approximate % of Test 2. The Silk Routes were important in ancient times because they (A) facilitated the exchange of goods and ideas between China and the Roman Empire (B) allowed gold and silver mined in China to be traded for European furs and wool cloth (C) provided trade links between the people of Siberia and the people living on islands in the Bering Sea (D) provided a conduit for trade in silk. which are used in some world history textbooks.E. Based on archaeological evidence.E. experts on the prehistoric period believe that the first hominids probably lived in (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) North America South America Australia and New Zealand East Africa Northern Europe Recommended Preparation ■ One-year comprehensive course in world history at the college-preparatory level ■ Independent reading of materials on historical topics FORMAT 95 multiple-choice questions Material Covered Global or comparative Europe Africa Southwest Asia South and Southeast Asia East Asia Americas Periods Covered Prehistory and civilizations to 500 C.D. and costly gems between China and Japan (E) allowed carts and carriages to travel on paved roads across northern Asia as far west as the Caspian Sea *The World History Subject Test uses the chronological designations B.E. 32 SAT Practice Booklet . (before Christ) and A.* 500 to 1500 C. (anno Domini).E.E. Early Christians developed the monastic ideal as a means of counteracting (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) government interference heresy competition from Eastern religions worldliness persecution 4. ■ ■ Show knowledge of facts and terms Understand cause-and-effect relationships Use your knowledge of events and geography to demonstrate understanding of major historical developments Understand concepts essential to historical analysis Interpret artistic materials and assess quotations from published materials 1. (common era). Select the one that is BEST in each case and then fill in the corresponding circle on the answer sheet. Which of the following was an important virtue in Confucianism? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) Warlike prowess Filial piety Public charity Poverty Manual labor 3. 1500 to 1900 C.C. porcelain. These labels correspond to B.C. The directions that follow are identical to those that are in the test. Directions Each of the questions or incomplete statements below is followed by five suggested answers or completions. (before common era) and C. Post-1900 C.

(E) Rainfall was low. In early modern Europe. fed by melting mountain glaciers. The bronze plaque shown above was created in (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) Italy Central Asia Arabia West Africa China 6. In the map above. The encomienda system of colonial Spanish America most closely resembled the European practice of (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) absolutism primogeniture patronage manorialism nepotism 10.7. 8. (C) The rivers maintained a steady flow year-round. and nothing can be resolved (E) the moral principles of Confucius 5. The ancient Chinese symbol of the universe shown above represented (A) the theory that everything consists of opposite but complementary elements (B) the Zen concept of unity in artistic expression (C) Buddha’s vision of the perfect shape (D) a dualism in which everything is in conflict. requiring irrigation of crops with river water. which sheltered early civilizations. the numbered dots correspond to cities. In the eighth century. which cities were near the east-west limits of the Islamic world? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) 1 and 7 1 and 9 2 and 6 2 and 8 5 and 7 9. governments sought to increase national wealth and maintain a favorable balance of trade through government intervention by advocating (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) Liberalism Capitalism Socialism Utilitarianism Mercantilism SAT Subject Tests 33 . (D) The rivers flowed through deep mountain valleys. (B) Tropical forests along the riverbanks provided the population with most of its food. Which of the following was characteristic of the physical environments of early river-valley civilizations in the Near East? (A) Cool summer temperatures encouraged the production of grain crops.

C (1) 14.” The statement above expresses the viewpoint of which of the following? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) Niccolò Machiavelli Sir Thomas More Desiderius Erasmus Dante Alighieri John Calvin 13. A (3) 5. since the strong survive and the weak perish (D) human societies progress through cooperation. Differences between which two religions contributed to violent conflicts in India during and after the struggle for independence in 1947? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) Hinduism and Buddhism Islam and Christianity Hinduism and Islam Islam and Buddhism Hinduism and Jainism 14. on a scale of 1 to 5. B (4) 34 SAT Practice Booklet . D (2) 2. but putting all else aside must adopt whatever course will save its existence and preserve its liberty. D (3) 10. E (4) 7. with 1 the easiest and 5 the most difficult. E (3) 11. or mercy or cruelty. we must admit of no considerations of justice or injustice. or praise or ignominy. C (2) 13. D (5) 4. a natural instinct that should be encouraged (E) God predetermines that some members of society are fated to succeed and some members are fated to fail ANSWERS The estimated difficulty level. “Where it is an absolute question of the welfare of our country. Most of the noncitizens currently residing in Western European countries originally came to Western Europe to (A) consolidate the European Economic Community agreements (B) find employment (C) do graduate work in the universities (D) participate in the democratic political process (E) avoid forced military conscription in their native land 12. Social Darwinists such as Herbert Spencer argued that (A) competition allows individuals to develop their talents and meet their needs (B) competition and cooperation are equally important in building a productive and compassionate society (C) human societies progress through competition. B (4) 3. A (4) 12. 1. B (4) 9. D (4) 6. is in parentheses.11. A (2) 8.

equations.” is included on the figure when degree measures may not be accurately shown and specific lengths may not be drawn proportionally. Even when figures are not drawn to scale. In fact. SAT Subject Tests 35 . prisms). ratio and proportion. If possible. radian measure. The content of Level 1 overlaps somewhat with that on Level 2. one year of geometry. ■ ■ ■ Verify that your calculator is in good working condition before you take the test. parabolas. surface area and volume (cylinders. They are drawn as accurately as possible EXCEPT when it is stated in a particular problem that the figure is not drawn to scale. you cannot use your score on one test to predict your score on the other or to compare scores. graphs and plots. probability Approximate % of Test Level 1 10–14 Level 2 10–14 38–42 48–52 38–42 18–22 8–12 28–32 ------10–14 4–6 4–6 6–8 12–16 8–12 8–12 *Topics in italics are tested on the Level 2 Test only.Mathematics Level 1 and Level 2 One-hour subject tests Recommended Preparation ■ Students are not expected to have studied every topic on either test. and Probability Mean. trigonometric. Plane Euclidean geometry is not tested directly on Level 2. elementary number theory. symmetry. leastsquares regression (linear. double angle formulas Data Analysis. rational. series. cones. Students may not share calculators. ellipses. representation and modeling. you will be at a disadvantage. including two years of algebra. coordinates in three dimensions Trigonometry Right triangles. Mathematics Level 1 ■ Three years of college-preparatory mathematics. sequences. you can cancel scores on just the mathematics tests. but the emphasis on Level 2 is on more advanced content. exponential). periodic. parametric) Geometry and Measurement Plane Euclidean/Measurement Coordinate Lines. exponential. bring batteries and a backup calculator to the test center. identities. the relative positions of points and angles may be assumed to be in the order shown. properties of functions (linear. vectors Algebra and Functions Expressions. polar coordinates Three-dimensional Solids. The text “Note: Figure not drawn to scale. If you are sufficiently prepared to take Level 2 but take Level 1 in hopes of receiving a higher score. Also. Geometric Figures Figures that accompany problems are intended to provide information useful in solving the problems. Statistics. circles. line segments that extend through points and appear to lie on the same line may be assumed to be on the same line. mode. No substitute calculators or batteries will be available. and elementary functions (precalculus) and/or trigonometry. matrices. polynomial. Calculators Be sure to bring a calculator to use on these tests: if you take these tests without a calculator. law of cosines. law of sines. quadratic. FORMAT 50 multiple-choice questions each Topics Covered* Number and Operations Operations. inequalities. piecewise. select Level 2. counting. recursive. inverse trigonometric. range. equations. median. complex numbers. ■ If you have had preparation in trigonometry and elementary functions and have attained grades of B or better in these courses. hyperbolas. including two years of algebra and one year of geometry Mathematics Level 2 ■ More than three years of college-preparatory mathematics. Score ■ Because the content measured by the two tests differs considerably. pyramids. You must tell your test supervisor when the malfunction occurs in order to cancel scores on these tests only. transformations. you may not do as well as you expect. interquartile range. some questions cannot be solved without a scientific or a graphing calculator. standard deviation. spheres. logarithmic. If your calculator malfunctions during the Level 1 or Level 2 tests and you do not have a backup calculator.

Make sure your calculator is in the degree mode. to using a calculator. Casio ClassPad) Models that “talk” or make unusual noises *The use of the stylus with the Sharp EL-9600 calculator is not permitted. or use paper tape (e. perhaps even a disadvantage. All figures lie in a plane unless otherwise indicated. pen-input. First decide how you will solve a problem.What Type of Calculator Should I Bring? ■ Bring a calculator that you are used to using. Voyage 200. (3) Figures that accompany problems in this test are intended to provide information useful in solving the problems. the domain of any function is assumed to be the set of all real numbers for which is a real number. ■ ■ ■ ■ You’ll need a calculator for 40 to 50 percent of the questions on Level 1 and 55 to 65 percent of the questions on Level 2. require electrical outlets. If you’re comfortable with both a scientific and a graphing calculator. If the exact numerical value is not one of the choices. Do not round any intermediate calculations. or any other cell phone type feature Models that can access the Internet Models that have QWERTY. where is in the domain of . Notes: (1) A scientific or graphing calculator will be necessary for answering some (but not all) of the questions in this test. Reference Information. ■ ■ ■ Models that have wireless. cellular. audio/video recording and playing. select the choice that best approximates this value. Volume of a right circular cone with radius r and height : : : Volume of a sphere with radius Volume of a pyramid with base area B and height Surface Area of a sphere with radius : 36 SAT Practice Booklet . decide which is the BEST of the choices given. your answer may not be one of the choices. Bluetooth. (5) Reference information that may be useful in answering the questions in this test can be found on the page preceding Question 1. Level 2: For some questions in this test you may have to decide whether your calculator should be in the radian mode or the degree mode. It may be a scientific or a graphing calculator. For the rest of the questions. If you get a result from the calculator for the first step of a solution. (4) Unless otherwise specified. but it is important to know when and how to use one. The directions for the tests are below: Directions For each of the following problems. Then fill in the corresponding circle on the answer sheet.g. You may not use a calculator for other Subject Tests and must put it away when not taking a mathematics test. then determine whether the calculator is needed. The following calculators are unacceptable: ■ Sample Questions All questions in the Mathematics Level 1 and Mathematics Level 2 Subject Tests are multiple-choice questions in which you are asked to choose the best response from the five choices offered. stylus.. there is no advantage. They are drawn as accurately as possible EXCEPT when it is stated in a specific problem that its figure is not drawn to scale. The range of is assumed to be the set of all real numbers . TI-92 Plus. bring a graphing calculator. Using the Calculator You do not need to use a calculator to solve every question. PDAs. If you round the result from the first step. The following information is for your reference in answering some of the questions in this test.* or touchscreen capability. For each question you will have to decide whether or not you should use a calculator. (2) Level 1: The only angle measure used on this test is degree measure. ■ We recommend the use of a graphing calculator over a scientific calculator because a graphing calculator may provide an advantage on some questions. Palm. camera. keep the result in the calculator and use it for the second step.

Mathematics Level 1
1. A band wants to distribute its music on compact discs (CDs). The equipment to produce the CDs costs $250, and blank CDs cost $5.90 for a package of 10. Which of the following represents the total cost, in dollars, to produce n CDs, where n is a multiple of 10? (A) (C) (E) (B) (D)

6. The graphs above show United States Census Bureau population figures for the year 2000 for various age groups, together with projections for the year 2050. Of the following age groups, for which is the projected percent increase in population from 2000 to 2050 greatest? 2. In the figure above, terms of y and z ? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) 3. A number n is increased by 8. If the cube root of that result equals –0.5, what is the value of n ? (A) −15.625 (B) −8.794 (C) −8.125 (D) −7.875 (E) 421.875 , and 4. If a and b are real numbers, , what is the value of b ? (A) 4 (D) 4 + 5i (B) 5 (C) 9 (E) 5 + 4i and are parallel. What is x in (A) 30−39 (B) 40−49 (C) 50−59 (D) 60−69 (E) 70−79 7. If (A) (D) 8. If xy-plane? I. The graphs are exactly the same. II. The graphs are the same except when . , which of the following must be true? (B) (E) which of the following and in the (C)

statements are true about the graphs of

III. The graphs have an infinite number of points in common. (A) I only (B) II only (C) III only (D) I and III (E) II and III

5. What are all values of x for which ? (A) (C) (E) (B) (D)

SAT Subject Tests 37

9. If line is the perpendicular bisector of the line segment with and , what is the slope of line ? endpoints

15. If numbers does

, for how many real ?

(A) 2
(D) −1

(B) 1
(E) −2

(C) 0

(A) None (B) One (C) Two (D) Three (E) Four

10. Twenty students have each sampled one or more of three kinds of candy bars that a school store sells. If 3 students have sampled all three kinds, and 5 have sampled exactly two kinds, how many of these students have sampled only one kind? (A) 8 (D) 17 (B) 12 (E) 18 (C) 15 16. When purchased, an automobile is valued at $15,000. Its value depreciates at the rate shown in the table above. Based on a least-squares linear regression, what is the value, to the nearest hundred dollars, of the automobile when (A) $5,400 (B) $5,500 (C) $5,600 (D) $6,400 (E) $7,000

Mathematics Level 2 Note: Figure not drawn to scale.
11. In the figure above, ABC has a right angle at C. If the length of side AC is 10 and the measure of ∠BAC is 22°, what is the length of side BC ? 17. What is the distance in space between the points with and ? coordinates (A) 4.36 (D) 9.11 18. If (B) 5.92 (C) 7.91 (E) 22.25 , what value does

(A) 3.7
(D) 6.8

(B) 4.0
(E) 9.3

(C) 5.8

12. The function h given by represents the height of a ball, in feet, t seconds after it is thrown. To the nearest foot, what is the maximum height the ball reaches? (A) 5 (D) 38 (B) 23 (C) 35 (E) 46

approach as x gets infinitely larger? (A) −6 (D) (B) (E) (C) −1

13. The front, side, and bottom faces of a rectangular solid have areas of 24 square centimeters, 8 square centimeters, and 3 square centimeters, respectively. What is the volume of the solid, in cubic centimeters?

19. In January 1990 the world’s population was 5.3 billion. Assuming a growth rate of 2 percent per year, the world’s population, in billions, for t years after 1990 can be modeled . According to the model, the by the equation population growth from January 1995 to January 1996 was (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) 106,000,000 114,700,000 117,000,000 445,600,000 562,700,000

(A) 24
(D) 288

(B) 96
(E) 576

(C) 192

20. What is the measure of one of the larger angles of a parallelogram in the xy-plane that has vertices with , , , and ? coordinates (A) 93.4° (B) 96.8° (C) 104.0° (D) 108.3° (E) 119.0°

14. Rectangle ABCD is inscribed in the circle shown above. If the length of side AB is 5 and the length of side BC is 12, what is the area of the shaded region? (A) 40.8 (B) 53.1 (C) 72.7 (D) 78.5 (E) 81.7

38 SAT Practice Booklet

21. For some real number t, the first three terms of an arithmetic sequence are 2t , 5t − 1, and 6t + 2 . What is the numerical value of the fourth term? (A) 4 (D) 16 (B) 8 (E) 19 (C) 10

28. The linear regression model above is based on an analysis of nutritional data from 14 varieties of cereal bars to relate the percent of calories from fat (F ) to the percent of calories from carbohydrates (C ). Based on this model, which of the following statements must be true? I. There is a positive correlation between C and F. II. When 20 percent of calories are from fat, the predicted percent of calories from carbohydrates is approximately 73. III. The slope indicates that as F increases by 1, C decreases by 1.02. (A) II only (B) I and II only (C) I and III only (D) II and III only (E) I, II, and III and 29. A line has parametric equations where t is the parameter. The slope of the line is ,

22. The diameter and height of a right circular cylinder are equal. If the volume of the cylinder is 2, what is the height of the cylinder? (A) 1.37 (B) 1.08 (C) 0.86 (D) 0.80 (E) 0.68 23. If , then

(A) −0.57 (B) −0.43 (C) 0 (D) 0.43 (E) 0.57 24. In a group of 10 people, 60 percent have brown eyes. Two people are to be selected at random from the group. What is the probability that neither person selected will have brown eyes? (A) 0.13 (B) 0.16 (C) 0.25 (D) 0.36 (E) 0.64 25. If is a factor of (B) −3 (E) 6 , what is , then (C) 2 ?

(A)
(D)

(B) 1
(E) 7

(C)

30. What is the range of the function defined by ? (A) All real numbers (B) All real numbers except (C) All real numbers except 0 (D) All real numbers except 2 (E) All real numbers between 2 and 3 31. The number of hours of daylight, d, in Hartsville can be modeled by , where t is the number of days after March 21. The day with the greatest number of hours of daylight has how many more daylight hours than May 1? (March and May have 31 days each. April and June have 30 days each.) (A) 0.8 hr (B) 1.5 hr (C) 2.3 hr (D) 3.0 hr (E) 4.7 hr

(A) −6 (D) 3 26. If (A) 3.4 (D) 1.5

(B) 2.4 (C) 1.6 (E) 1.3

27. Which of the following equations best models the data in the table above? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

SAT Subject Tests 39

Day 1 Model X Model Y Model Z 20 16 19

Day 2 18 5 11

Day 3 3 8 10

ANSWERS
The estimated difficulty level, on a scale of 1 to 5, with 1 the easiest and 5 the most difficult, is in parentheses.

Mathematics Level 1
1. 2. 3. 4. B (2) A (2) C (2) A (3) 5. 6. 7. 8. C (3) D (4) D (3) E (3) 9. 10. 11. 12. D (4) B (3) B (3) D (4) 13. 14. 15. 16. A (4) C (4) E (3) C (5)

32. The table above shows the number of digital cameras that were sold during a three-day sale. The prices of models X, Y, and Z were $99, $199, and $299, respectively. Which of the following matrix representations gives the total income, in dollars, received from the sale of the cameras for each of the three days? (A)

Mathematics Level 2
17. 18. 19. 20. D (2) E (2) C (4) C (4) 21. 22. 23. 24. E (4) A (3) E (3) A (4) 25. 26. 27. 28. A (2) E (4) D (4) D (4) 29. 30. 31. 32. B (3) D (3) A (4) C (3)

(B)

(C)

(D)

(E)

40 SAT Practice Booklet

Biology E/M One-hour subject tests How to Choose Biology-E or Biology-M ■ Take Biology-E if you feel more comfortable answering questions pertaining to biological communities. natural selection. Important: If you change your mind. cellular structure and processes. Once you decide which emphasis to take. ■ Take Biology-M if you feel more comfortable answering questions pertaining to biochemistry. photosynthesis. conservation biology. applying knowledge to unfamiliar and/or practical situations. enzymes. inheritance patterns. including data presented in graphic or tabular form Solve problems with simple numerical calculations using the metric system 22 15 NOTE: Calculator use is not permitted. populations. nutrient cycles. population genetics Organismal Biology Structure. and energy flow. effects of human intervention Genetics Meiosis. molecular genetics. You are not allowed to take Biology-E and Biology-M on the same test date. biological chemistry Ecology Energy flow. demonstrating straightforward knowledge of information and familiarity with terminology Application Understanding concepts and reformulating information into other equivalent forms. you must change the code on the answer sheet to match your test. biodiversity. biomes. evidence of evolution. populations. biosynthesis. you need to fill in the appropriate code for the test you have chosen on your answer sheet. Mendelian genetics. mitosis. Recommended Preparation ■ One-year course in biology ■ One-year course in algebra and familiarity with simple algebraic concepts such as ratios and direct and inverse proportions ■ Laboratory experience BIOLOGY-E AND BIOLOGY-M Skills Specifications Knowledge of Fundamental Concepts Remembering specific facts. function. FORMAT Approximate Approximate % Test E % Test M 60 multiple-choice questions that are common to both Biology-E and Biology-M 20 specialized multiple-choice questions for either Biology-E or Biology-M Total of 80 questions answered by each test-taker Cellular and Molecular Biology Cell structure and organization. cellular respiration. animal behavior Evolution and Diversity Origin of life. your answers to the 20 specialized questions will not be scored correctly. solving problems using mathematical relationships Interpretation Inferring and deducing from qualitative and quantitative data and integrating information to form conclusions. and development of organisms (with emphasis on plants and animals). classification and diversity of organisms 15 27 23 13 15 20 Content Questions may require you to: ■ 25 25 ■ ■ ■ Recall and understand the major concepts of biology and to apply the principles Organize and interpret results obtained by observation and experimentation Draw conclusions or make inferences from experimental data. recognizing unstated assumptions Approximate % of Test 30 35 35 SAT Subject Tests 41 . You can take them on two different test dates. speciation. patterns of evolution. otherwise. ecosystems. communities. such as respiration and photosynthesis.

table.Sample Questions All of the questions in the test are multiple-choice questions for which you must choose the best response from the five choices offered. ATP is produced during which of the following processes? I. Organisms that comprise the greatest mass of living substance (biomass) in a terrestrial food chain 2. II.g.g. All of the following are population characteristics EXCEPT (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) number of individuals phenotype sex ratio age distribution death rate 1.g.. Biology E/M Core Section Directions Each set of lettered choices below refers to the numbered statements immediately following it. more than once... Select the one lettered choice that best fits each statement and then fill in the corresponding circle on the answer sheet. Photosynthesis II. Aerobic respiration III. 42 SAT Practice Booklet . the time when the number of living bacteria is increasing at the greatest rate occurs (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) during the first 2 hours between the 2nd and the 4th hour between the 4th and the 6th hour between the 6th and the 10th hour between the 11th and the 13th hour Questions 1-2 (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) Decomposers (e. Select the one that is BEST in each case and then fill in the corresponding circle on the answer sheet. or not at all in each set.g. Some questions are grouped in sets that refer to a common figure. snakes) Tertiary consumers (e.g. or laboratory experiment.. and III 5. Organisms that convert nitrogen-containing organic molecules into nitrates Directions Each of the questions or incomplete statements below is followed by five suggested answers or completions. mice) Secondary consumers (e. bacteria) Producers (e. 3. Fermentation (A) I only (B) II only (C) I and III only (D) II and III only (E) I.. In the graph above. hawks) 4. A choice may be used once. grasses) Primary consumers (e.

41 119 202 281 10. All of the offspring would be white. The students then added 6 water fleas. first study the description of the situation. I II III IV 5°C 15°C 25°C 35°C 2:00 p. 25°C. 3:20 p. One-quarter of the offspring would be gray.Questions 6-7 refer to the following diagram: 9. 3:30 p. In each case.m. maintained at 5°C. (E) One-quarter of the offspring would be white. After 1 hour.m. and 35°C. The results of the experiment are summarized in the chart below. the following results were obtained.m. SAT Subject Tests 43 . Daphnia pulex. 2:20 p.m. The independent variable in this experiment is the (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) amount of light number of water fleas pH of the water temperature of the water average heart rate Questions 8-9 In a breeding experiment using gray and white mice of unknown genotypes. respectively. 3:10 p. 2:10 p. the students removed 3 Daphnia pulex from each beaker and each student immediately observed one Daphnia pulex under low-power magnification of a light microscope. 2:30 p. If the gray female from cross IV were mated with the gray male from cross II. 3:00 p. then which of the following would most likely be true? (A) (B) (C) (D) All of the offspring would be gray. (The transparent body of the Daphnia pulex can be seen easily under a light microscope. Commonly.m. 15°C. to each of the four beakers and recorded the time in each case.m. what is the probability that any one individual offspring will be gray? (A) 100% (B) 75% (D) 25% (E) 0 Questions 10-11 Three students added equal volumes of pond water to each of four beakers (I–IV) and placed each in a different constant temperature bath. Parents Cross I II III IV Female Gray Gray White Gray x x x x Male White Gray White White Offspring Gray 82 118 0 74 White 78 39 50 0 8.m.m. Pollination involves a transfer of pollen from (A) 4 to 1 (B) 4 to 2 (C) 4 to 5 (D) 5 to 4 (E) 5 to 9 Directions Each group of questions below concerns a laboratory or experimental situation. Half of the offspring would be gray. Then choose the one best answer to each question following it and fill in the corresponding circle on the answer sheet. If two gray progeny of cross IV mate with each other. the fruit is derived from (A) 2 (D) 8 (B) 4 (E) 9 BEAKER TEMPERATURE (C) 7 TIME DAPHNIA ADDED TIME DAPHNIA REMOVED HEARTBEATS PER MINUTE (average of 3 Daphnia) 7.) Heart rates were recorded as beats per minute. (C) 50% 6.

Biology-E Section 12. (E) X is a parasite of Y when Y is rare. X and Y compete when both X and Y seeds are present. X and Y are mutualistic for high percentages of X seeds. such as measles or chicken pox (B) A woman of 40 with seven adult offspring (C) A woman of 80 who has one adult offspring (D) A 100-year old man with no offspring (E) A childless man who can run a mile in less than five minutes 13. The plants grow. Which of the following individuals is most fit in evolutionary terms? (A) A child who does not become infected with any of the usual childhood diseases. What do the data indicate about the ecological relationship between species X and species Y ? (A) (B) (C) (D) X and Y are mutualistic for low percentages of X seeds. The data are plotted on the graph below. it will most closely resemble which of the following? Questions 13-14 Known numbers of seeds from two species (X and Y ) of annual plants are mixed together in different proportions and planted in five small plots of soil in the spring. Y competes successfully against X at all percentages of X and Y seeds. flower. although the total number of seeds produced is the same as the number of seeds planted.11. 44 SAT Practice Booklet . and produce seeds. If a graph is constructed using the data given in the table. What mixture of seeds was harvested in the plot that was planted with 25 percent species X and 75 percent species Y ? X (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) 25% 40% 50% 60% 75% Y 75% 60% 50% 40% 25% 14. It is found that the percentage of seeds of species X and species Y in the harvest is usually different from the proportion that was planted.

5. samples of embryos were removed at regular intervals and the radioactivity in the nucleic acid was measured in counts per minute. 15. with 1 the easiest and 5 the most difficult. An appropriate control to show that this experiment measures DNA synthesis and not RNA synthesis would be to perform the same procedures but (A) (B) (C) (D) not fertilize the eggs sample the embryos at longer time intervals add radioactive uracil instead of radioactive thymine fertilize the eggs in sea water that does not contain radioactive thymine (E) count the number of cells in the embryos at the beginning and at the end of the experiment ANSWERS The estimated difficulty level. The results obtained are shown in the figure below. B (1) A (3) C (3) E (2) B (2) 6. is in parentheses. 17. 8. Which of the following most accurately reveals common ancestry among many different species of organisms? (A) (B) (C) (D) The amino acid sequence of their cytochrome C Their ability to synthesize hemoglobin The percentage of their body weight that is fat The percentage of their body surface that is used in gas exchange (E) The mechanism of their mode of locomotion Questions 16-17 Thymine is used by animal cells primarily for the synthesis of DNA. 7. The increase in radioactivity of the embryos with time probably results from (A) synthesis of new proteins by the developing embryos (B) synthesis of radioactive thymine by the developing embryos (C) oxidation of radioactive thymine (D) incorporation of radioactive thymine in new cell membranes (E) incorporation of radioactive thymine in new DNA during replication SAT Subject Tests 45 . 12. 10. 2.Biology-M Section 15. E (4) C (3) 16. on a scale of 1 to 5. B (4) B (3) C (3) C (5) A (2) 16. Following fertilization. A (1) D (3) A (4) B (4) D (3) 11. 13. 1. 17. A group of sea urchin eggs was fertilized in sea water containing radioactive thymine. 4. 14. 3. 9.

and phase diagrams Solutions. electron configurations. strong and weak acids and bases. including intermolecular forces in liquids and solids. including data presented in graphic and/or tabular form 16 On this Subject Test. phase changes. indicators Oxidation-Reduction. equilibrium constants. and metallic bonds. stoichiometric calculations. including factors affecting reaction rates. including experimental evidence of atomic structure. and gases. dipole-dipole forces. gas law relationships. including ionic. including molarity and percent by mass concentrations. including factors affecting position of equilibrium (LeChâtelier’s principle) in gaseous and aqueous systems. exponents. including recognition of oxidation-reduction reactions. potential energy diagrams. periodic trends Molecular Structure. and equilibrium expressions Rates of Reactions. oxidation numbers. molar volumes. including basic solubility rules Stoichiometry Mole Concept. pH. including Lewis structures. and scientific notation 14 14 5 46 SAT Practice Booklet . Avogadro’s number. empirical and molecular formulas Chemical Equations. qualitative aspects of colligative properties Reaction Types Acids and Bases. which is a significant factor in developing reasoning and problem-solving skills and should help in test preparation even though laboratory skills can be tested only in a limited way in a multiple-choice test ■ Mathematics preparation that enables handling simple algebraic relationships and applying these to solving word problems ■ Familiarity with the concepts of ratio and direct and inverse proportions. titrations. density. activation energies Approximate % of Test 25 ■ Recall and understand the major concepts of chemistry and to apply the principles to solve specific problems in chemistry Organize and interpret results obtained by observation and experimentation and to draw conclusions or make inferences from experimental data. use of activity series Precipitation. including the kinetic molecular theory. and stoichiometry Liquids and Solids. covalent. percent yield. quantum numbers and energy levels (orbitals). Recommended Preparation ■ One-year introductory chemistry course at the collegepreparatory level ■ Laboratory experience.Chemistry One-hour subject test Content Questions cover topics emphasized in most high school courses. solution preparation and stoichiometry. polarity Bonding. including the balancing of equations. liquids. three-dimensional molecular shapes. Because of course differences. factors affecting solubility of solids. relationships of bonding to properties and structures. most students will find that there are some questions on topics with which they are not familiar. including molar mass. types of solids. dispersion (London) forces States of Matter Gases. please note that: ■ ■ ■ A periodic table indicating the atomic numbers and masses of elements is provided for all test administrations Problem solving requires simple numerical calculations The metric system of units is used NOTE: Calculator use is not permitted. Questions may require you to: ■ FORMAT 85 multiple-choice questions Topics Covered Structure of Matter Atomic Structure. including Brønsted-Lowry theory. intermolecular forces such as hydrogen bonding. combustion. and limiting reactants Equilibrium and Reaction Rates Equilibrium Systems.

Has the same number of electrons as Ca2+ 9. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) 0.1 M KOH Laboratory Including knowledge of laboratory equipment. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) Ar O S Ti U 7. enthalpy (heat) changes associated with phase changes and chemical reactions. measurements. procedures. 6 Descriptive Chemistry Including common elements. Has the highest pH 3. nomenclature of ions and compounds.FORMAT Topics Covered Thermochemistry Including conservation of energy. relationship analysis questions. Sample Questions Three types of questions are used in the Chemistry Subject Test: classification questions.05 M Ba(OH)2 to form a solution with pH = 7 Skills Specifications Recall of Knowledge Remembering fundamental concepts and specific information. A type of ion found in aluminum oxide 6. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) X+ X2+ X3+ XO32– XO42– Application of Knowledge Applying a single principle to unfamiliar and/or practical situations to obtain a qualitative result or solve a quantitative problem 45 Synthesis of Knowledge Inferring and deducing from qualitative and/or quantitative data. drawing conclusions from observations and data 8 1. demonstrating familiarity with terminology 20 Questions 4-6 refer to the following ionic species. entropy Approximate % of Test Directions Each set of lettered choices below refers to the numbered statements or questions immediately following it.1 M CH3OH 0. The directions that follow are identical to those that are in the test. Is the LEAST chemically reactive SAT Subject Tests 47 . Has electrons in f orbitals 10. calorimetry and specific heats. calculations. assume that the solvent is water unless otherwise stated.1 M HC2H3O2 0. reactivity of elements and prediction of products of chemical reactions. Select the one lettered choice that best fits each statement or answers each question and then fill in the corresponding circle on the answer sheet. A type of ion found in potassium phosphate Questions 7-10 refer to the following atoms in the ground state. Note: For all questions involving solutions. Has the electron configuration 1s2 2s22p6 3s23p4 8. observations. heating and cooling curves. periodic trends in chemical and physical properties of the elements. integrating two or more relationships to draw conclusions or solve problems 35 4. A choice may be used once. data analysis. more than once. and five-choice completion questions. interpretation of graphical data. Reacts with an equal volume of 0. safety. Is weakly acidic 2. A type of ion found in sodium acetate 5.1 M HCl 0.1 M NaCl 0. examples of simple organic compounds and compounds of environmental concern 12 Questions 1-3 refer to the following aqueous solutions. or not at all in each set.

48 SAT Practice Booklet . The rate at which sugar dissolves in water increases with stirring BECAUSE II stirring exposes the surface of a solute crystal to a less concentrated layer of solution. is added to the equilibrium mixture represented by the equation above. the concentration of H3O+ decreases zinc is a more active metal than copper is. For each question. . Sample Answer Grid *Fill in circle CE (correct explanation) only if statement II is a correct explanation of the true statement I. . mL of 0. Gas h 102. III. .0 M Directions Each question below consists of two statements. of mercury levels is equal to the pressure of the gas. potassium has more protons in its nucleus than lithium has. determine whether statement I is true or false and whether statement II is true or false and fill in the corresponding T or F circles on your answer sheet. the remaining questions must be answered by returning to the section of your answer sheet you started for the Chemistry Test . 11. II. True statements about this system include which of the following? I. BECAUSE On the actual Chemistry Test.Cu2+(aq) + . . The hydrogen ion concentration of a solution prepared by diluting 50.050 M (E) 1. I in the lefthand column and II in the right-hand column. . I–(aq) . C2H3O2– + H3O+ the equilibrium constant of a reaction changes as the concentration of the reactants changes. h. Potassium has a lower first ionization energy than lithium has BECAUSE 13. Select the one that is best in each case and then fill in the corresponding circle on the answer sheet. Directions Each of the questions or incomplete statements below is followed by five suggested answers or completions. The difference in the height. The gas pressure is greater than atmospheric pressure. .On the actual Chemistry Test. CuI(s) + . . (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) II only III only I and II only I and III only I.0050 M (C) 0. Zinc metal will reduce BECAUSE Cu2+ in solution HC2H3O2 + H2O 105. . *Fill in circle CE only if statement II is a correct explanation of the true statement I. and III 104. The bulb of the open-end manometer shown above contains a gas. in a diamond crystal. Only atmospheric pressure is exerted on the exposed mercury surface in the right side of the tube. HC2H3O2.10 M HNO3(aq) with water to 500. the carbon atoms are held in place by ionic bonds. II.0010 M (D) 0. the coefficient for I–(aq) is (A) 1 (D) 4 (B) 2 (E) 5 (C) 3 I 101. I2(s) 12. .010 M (A) 0. the following type of question must be answered on a special section (labeled “Chemistry”) at the lower left-hand corner of your answer sheet. mL of solution is (B) 0. Diamond has a high melting point BECAUSE Liquid Mercury 103. When the equation above is balanced and all coefficients are reduced to lowest whole-number terms. If some acetic acid. These questions will be numbered beginning with 101 and must be answered according to the following directions.

. how many moles of SO2(g) are required to react completely with 1 mole of O2(g) ? (A) 0. .0 grams of propane? (A) 4. one can predict that the geometric configuration for which of the following molecules is NOT correct? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) PF3 trigonal planar CF4 tetrahedral CHCl3 irregular tetrahedron OF2 bent (v-shaped) HF linear . . Atomic radius III. 21. It contains a triple bond. It dissolves in water at room temperature.0 × 10 23 1. For elements in the left-most column of the periodic table. and III 15.0 g (D) 72. It sublimes rather than melts at 20°C and 1 atmosphere pressure.14. . proceeds according to the equation above. All of the following statements about carbon dioxide are true EXCEPT: (A) (B) (C) (D) It can be prepared by the action of acid on limestone. As slow cooling occurs. . O2(g) 16. The combustion of propane. Its molecular formula is C2H4.4 × 10 24 20.50 mole of KHSO4 is (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) 1. Which of the following is the most informative statement that can properly be made about the compound on the basis of these data? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) It is a hydrocarbon. Its empirical formula is CH2. From their electron configurations. A thermometer is placed in a test tube containing a melted pure substance. (E) It is less dense than air at a given temperature and pressure.2 × 10 24 2. the thermometer is read at regular intervals until well after the sample has solidified.50 g (B) 18. The number of oxygen atoms in 0. C3H8(g). Ionization energy (potential) II.0 g (C) 44. C3H8(g) + 5 O2(g) 3 CO2(g) + 4 H2O(l ) 18.4 × 10 23 3. properties that have increasing values as the atomic number increases include which of the following? . . SO3(g) I. According to the reaction represented by the unbalanced equation above. Its molar mass is 28 g/mol. SO2(g) + .0 g (E) 176 g 19. Which of the following types of graphs is obtained by plotting temperature versus time for this experiment? 17.5 mol (B) 1 mol (C) 2 mol (D) 3 mol (E) 4 mol SAT Subject Tests 49 . How many grams of water will be formed in the complete combustion of 44. It is used to extinguish fires.2 × 10 23 2. Analysis by mass of a certain compound shows that it contains 14 percent hydrogen and 86 percent carbon. Atomic mass (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) I only III only I and II only II and III only I. II.

7. acceleration.22. on a scale of 1 to 5. C (3) D (2) C (4) B (3) A (3) 16. and apply these to physics problems On this Subject Test. 15. 19. Topics Covered Mechanics Kinematics. statics. 1. such as velocity. 4. some questions may deal with laboratory skills in context. 6. and graphical relationships and the concepts of ratio and proportion. ■ ■ Numerical calculations are not emphasized and are limited to simple arithmetic Questions predominantly use the metric system You should assume that the direction of any current is the direction of flow of positive charge (conventional current) NOTE: Calculator use is not permitted. 12. with 1 the easiest and 5 the most difficult. 14. D (3) E (4) Recommended Preparation ■ One-year introductory physics course on the collegepreparatory level ■ Laboratory experience—a significant factor in developing reasoning and problem-solving skills—even though this test can only measure lab skills in a limited way. C (1) A (2) C (3) A (3) 9. such as force. 18. 11. such as potential and kinetic energy. 8. 22. 17. C (2) B (3) D (2) D (1) E (3) 21. trigonometric. impulse. All of the following can act as Brønsted-Lowry acids (proton donors) in aqueous solution EXCEPT (A) HI (D) H2S (C) HCO3– (B) NH4+ (E) NH3 Physics One-hour subject test Content Questions may require you to: ■ ANSWERS The estimated difficulty level. motion in one dimension. 2. 3. and friction Energy and Momentum. Newton’s laws. 13. such as data analysis FORMAT Skills Specification Recall Generally involves remembering and understanding concepts or information Single-Concept Problem Recall and use of a single physical relationship Multiple-Concept Problem Recall and integration of two or more physical relationships Laboratory Skills In each of the six major topics below. C (2) E (3) A (4) A (3) 5. please note that: ■ Questions 101–105: See box for difficulty level. is in parentheses. and motion of projectiles Dynamics. power. and conservation laws 36–42 20–33 40–53 20–33 Approximate % of Test 50 SAT Practice Booklet . E (2) A (2) ■ Recall and understand the major concepts of physics and to apply these physical principles to solve specific problems Understand simple algebraic. 20. work. 10.

polarization. orbits. 18–24 Part A Directions Each set of lettered choices below refers to the numbered questions immediately following it.FORMAT Circular Motion. induced charge. 6–11 6–11 4–9 1. such as Snell’s law and changes in wavelength and speed Ray Optics. such as temperature. superconductivity. Faraday’s law. All questions in the test are multiple-choice questions in which you must choose the BEST response from the five choices offered. wavelength. and Potentials. and heat engine efficiency Modern Physics Quantum Phenomena. and Lenz’s law Waves and Optics General Wave Properties. The following devices may be in the box. Ohm’s law. such as single-slit diffraction. such as Coulomb’s law. such as image formation using pinholes. such as permanent magnets. such as parallel-plate capacitors and time-varying behavior in charging/ discharging Circuit Elements and DC Circuits.com Sample Questions Two types of questions are used in the Physics Subject Test and are shown in the following samples. fields caused by currents. Which device could produce a diffraction pattern consisting of a central bright fringe with parallel secondary fringes that decrease in intensity with increasing distance from the center of the screen? SAT Subject Tests 51 . such as photons and photoelectric effect Atomic. light bulbs. such as time dilation. mirrors. such as first and second laws. and Doppler effect Reflection and Refraction. The back of the box is open. such as astrophysics. frequency. particles in magnetic fields. measurement. length contraction. and fundamental particles Relativity. such as history of physics and general questions that overlap several major topics Analytical Skills. and math skills Contemporary Physics. as shown in the side view above. field and potential of groups of point charges. more than once. such as graphical analysis. and mass-energy equivalence Miscellaneous General. double-slit interference. such as radioactivity. and charged particles in electric fields Capacitance. and Kepler’s laws Electricity and Magnetism Electric Fields. and chaos theory Approximate % of Test For more information on the topics tested on the Physics SAT Subject Test please go to www. A choice may be used once. and atomic spectra Nuclear and Particle Physics. heat transfer. or not at all in each set. such as the law of gravitation. and thermal expansion Laws of Thermodynamics. specific and latent heats. such as wave speed. and lenses Physical Optics.collegeboard. atomic energy levels. such as mass on a spring and the pendulum Gravity. entropy. such as the Rutherford and Bohr models. series and parallel networks. The directions that follow are identical to those that are in the test. Select the one lettered choice that best answers each question and then fill in the corresponding circle on the answer sheet. standingwave diffraction. Which device could produce a tiny spot of light on the screen? 2. internal energy. Questions 1-2 15–19 Screen A beam of light is incident on a rectangular opening in the front of a box. such as resistors. such as uniform circular motion and centripetal force Simple Harmonic Motion. nuclear reactions. superposition. and color Heat and Thermodynamics Thermal Properties. Forces. and Joule’s law Magnetism. After passing through the box. positioned as shown below. the light is incident on a screen.

At which point will an electron experience a force directed toward the top of the page? Part B Directions Each of the questions or incomplete statements below is followed by five suggested answers or completions. where c is the speed of light? D E 3. then dropped into a beaker of water. Five points near the charge and in the plane of the page are shown. 52 SAT Practice Booklet . When a vector of magnitude 6 units is added to a vector of magnitude 8 units. Select the one that is best in each case and then fill in the corresponding circle on the answer sheet. It has increased by 4 joules. the experimenter must know or measure the value of all of the quantities below EXCEPT the (A) mass of the water (B) original temperatures of the copper and the water (C) final (equilibrium) temperature of the copper and the water (D) time taken to achieve equilibrium after the copper is dropped into the water (E) specific heat of the water 8. It has not changed. 12 joules of heat is added to an ideal gas and the gas does 8 joules of work. Which of the following graphs best represents the kinetic energy K of an elementary particle as a function of its speed . 10 units. It has decreased by 20 joules. as shown above. At which point will the magnitude of the electric field be least? 4. the magnitude of the resultant vector will be (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) exactly 2 units exactly 10 units exactly 14 units 0 units. In a given process. It has decreased by 4 joules.Questions 3-4 relate to a point charge + Q fixed in position. or some value between them 2 units. 5. To calculate the specific heat of copper. or some value between them 5 kg 6. Which of the following is true about the internal energy of the gas during this process? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) It has increased by 20 joules. An experiment is performed to measure the specific heat of copper. A lump of copper is heated in an oven. The force exerted on the block by the cord is most nearly (A) zero (B) 25 N (C) 50 N (D) 100 N (E) 200 N 9. A B +Q C 7. A 5-kilogram block is suspended by a cord from the ceiling. as shown below. 14 units.

The disk strikes a post and rebounds toward the north at the same speed. After the change. After the change. The current is I and the power dissipated as heat is P. I R 11. the power dissipated in R is (A) P 4 (B) (D) 2 P P 2 (C) P (E) 4P SAT Subject Tests 53 .N 4 kg Disk Top View 1 m/s Post S W E h m 1 d 2 10. Atoms in the n = 2 state can spontaneously emit photons having which of the following energies? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) 4 eV only 7 eV only 3 eV and 4 eV only 3 eV and 7 eV only 3 eV. Let and a be the instantaneous speed and instantaneous acceleration. A box of mass m is released from rest at position 1 on the frictionless curved track shown above. It slides a distance d along the track in time t to reach position 2. and 7 eV A single resistor R is connected to a battery as shown above. as shown above. A 4-kilogram disk slides over level ice toward the east at a velocity of 1 meter per second. Three energy levels of an atom are shown above. the current is (A) I 4 (D) 2 I (B) I 2 (E) 4I (C) I 14. 13. of the box at position 2. Which of the following equations is valid for this situation? 1 2 1 (B) h = gt (C) d = at 2 (A) 2 2 (D) (E) n 3 2 1 Energy Above Ground State 7 eV 4 eV 0 eV Questions 13-14 relate to the following circuit. The change in the magnitude of the eastward component of the momentum of the disk is (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) –4 kg • m/s –1 kg • m/s 0 kg • m/s 1 kg • m/s 4 kg • m/s 12. respectively. The circuit is changed by doubling the emf of the battery while R is kept constant. 4 eV. dropping a vertical distance h.

4. 5. and acceleration during the descending part of the trajectory? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) POSITION Positive Positive Positive Negative Negative VELOCITY Positive Positive Negative Positive Negative ACCELERATION Positive Negative Negative Negative Negative ANSWERS The estimated difficulty level. The positive direction for position. the gravitational force on the satellite in orbit is (A) 11 kilonewtons (B) 25 kilonewtons (C) 50 kilonewtons (D) 100 kilonewtons (E) 200 kilonewtons 17. What are the signs of the position. 18. (D) The field lines are directed radially outward from the wire. and acceleration during the ascending part of the trajectory? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) POSITION Positive Positive Positive Negative Negative VELOCITY Positive Positive Negative Positive Negative ACCELERATION Positive Negative Negative Negative Negative 19. 3. A (3) D (3) D (1) E (2) E (2) C (1) 7.15. 14. D (3) B (2) B (3) A (4) A (4) E (4) 13. (B) The field increases in strength as the distance from the wire increases. (E) The field lines form circles about the wire. 12. velocity. Position is measured from the location of the chalk when it left the hand. with 1 the easiest and 5 the most difficult.400 kilometers. (C) The field lines are directed parallel to the wire. 16. 8. velocity. If the weight of the satellite on Earth is 100 kilonewtons. C (5) 54 SAT Practice Booklet . 16.800 kilometers from the center of the Earth. The Earth has a radius of 6. 17. and acceleration is upward. 15. 11. Which of the following changes in the pendulum would double its period? (A) Doubling the mass m of the bob (B) Doubling the initial force used to set the pendulum in motion (C) Doubling the amplitude of the pendulum’s swing (D) Quadrupling the mass m of the bob (E) Quadrupling the length of the pendulum Questions 18-19 A piece of chalk is thrown vertically upward and caught during its descent at the same height from which it was thrown. Which of the following is true of the magnetic field produced by a current in a long. 9. but opposite to the direction of the current. 18. A pendulum of length with a bob of mass m is oscillating with small amplitude. 2. velocity. What are the signs of the position. 10. A satellite orbits the Earth at a distance of 12. 6. on a scale of 1 to 5. 1. straight wire? (A) The field is uniform. is in parentheses. D (3) E (5) E (3) B (5) E (4) B (4) 19.

FORMAT 85 multiple-choice questions in three sections Skills Measured Listening comprehension Usage Reading comprehension Approximate % of Test 20 minutes of listening and 40 minutes of usage and reading 33 33 33 Sample Listening Questions All questions in the test are multiple choice. and newspaper articles. just one time. (B). all spoken Chinese will be presented by CD playback. and (C).] Question 1 Recommended Preparation ■ Study of Chinese as a second language for two to four years in high school. Therefore you must listen very carefully. and they are not printed in your test booklet. All reading comprehension questions are in English. Part A Directions (Narrator): [Directions: In this part of the test you will hear short questions. Select the best response and fill in the corresponding circle on your answer sheet. Usage: These questions ask you to select the answer that best completes a Chinese sentence in a way that is structurally and logically correct. or exchange. You will hear the questions or statements. All text appearing here in square brackets [ ] is spoken. statements. Most questions deal with understanding of literal meaning although some inference questions may be included. You should choose the writing form with which you are most familiar and read only from that column. or the equivalent ■ Gradual development of competence in Chinese over a period of years ■ Review of sample listening questions using the practice CD available from your school counselor Question 2 SAT Subject Tests 55 . themes. followed by three responses in Mandarin Chinese. There are two different kinds of listening comprehension questions: (A) a spoken statement. followed by a choice of three possible responses (also spoken). spoken dialogues and narratives primarily about everyday topics. (B) a spoken dialogue or monologue with a printed question or questions (in English) about what was said. Reading Comprehension: Reading comprehension questions test your understanding of such points as main and supporting ideas. and the setting of passages. or commands in Mandarin Chinese. notes. advertisements. forms. This section of the test is therefore presented in four columns across two pages of the test book to allow each question and its answer choices to be shown in four different ways of representing Chinese: traditional and simplified Chinese characters on the left page. letters.Chinese with Listening One-hour subject test Content The test evaluates ability in three areas: Listening Comprehension: These questions test the ability to understand the spoken language and are based on short. and phonetic transcriptions in Pinyin romanization and the Chinese phonetic alphabet (Bopomofo) on the right page. Some of the passages are based on real-life materials such as timetables. diaries. designated (A). You must choose the BEST response from the three or four choices offered for each question. as well as the responses. All passages are written in both traditional and simplified Chinese characters. When the test is administered. Questions are written to reflect instructional practices of the curriculum. question.

Where will the woman spend the summer next year? (A) (B) (C) (D) In China In Japan In Hong Kong In the United States 56 SAT Practice Booklet . are printed in your test booklet. Select the best answer to each question from among the four choices given and fill in the corresponding circle on your answer sheet.] Questions 5-6 5. You will hear them only once and they are not printed in your test booklet.Question 3 6. you will be asked to answer one or more questions about what you have just heard. What will the tourists most likely do after the announcement? (A) (B) (C) (D) Claim their luggage Go shopping Call a taxi Leave the art museum Part B Directions (Narrator): [Directions: You will now hear a series of short selections. You will have 15 seconds to answer each question. What will the woman do? (A) (B) (C) (D) Visit friends Go to school Look for a job Travel abroad Question 7 Question 4 7. each with four possible answers. These questions. After each selection.

When does this offer become effective? (A) (B) (C) (D) August 20 June 15 April 5 February 1 SAT Subject Tests 57 .Sample Reading Questions Questions 8-9 Questions 10-11 8. This advertisement is announcing a temporary offer of (A) (B) (C) (D) additional destinations lower fares special discounts additional flights 9. This note tells us that (A) (B) (C) (D) Wang is a teacher and Li is a student Wang is a teacher and Chen is a student Wang and Li are both teachers Li and Chen are both students 10. Who called in sick? (A) (B) (C) (D) Wang Chen Lin Li 11.

each of which has four possible completions. Select the word or phrase that best completes the sentence structurally and logically and fill in the corresponding circle on your answer sheet. and the Chinese phonetic alphabet (Bopomofo). This section of the test is presented in four columns across two pages to allow each item to be shown in four different ways of representing Chinese: traditional characters. pinyin romanization.Sample Usage Questions Directions: This section consists of a number of incomplete statements. 58 SAT Practice Booklet . TO SAVE TIME. IT IS RECOMMENDED THAT YOU CHOOSE THE WRITING FORM WITH WHICH YOU ARE MOST FAMILIAR AND READ ONLY FROM THAT COLUMN AS YOU WORK THROUGH THIS SECTION OF THE TEST. simplified characters.

4. with 1 the easiest and 5 the most difficult. 2. 14. 12. 6. 3. 1.ANSWERS The estimated difficulty level. 7. D (3) B (4) B (3) C (4) 9. 8. B (2) A (3) D (4) SAT Subject Tests 59 . D (3) D (5) B (4) D (1) 13. C (2) A (2) B (1) C (3) 5. is in parentheses. on a scale of 1 to 5. 15. 10. 11.

and setting of a passage. Part A Directions This part consists of a number of incomplete statements. each having four suggested completions. Reading Comprehension: These questions test understanding of such points as main and supporting ideas. (A) traitement (B) accord (C) agrément (D) concombre 60 SAT Practice Booklet . Select the most appropriate completion and fill in the corresponding circle on the answer sheet. Structure: These questions measure the ability to select an appropriate word or expression that is grammatically correct within a sentence. or 2 years of strong preparation Gradual development of competence in French over a period of years Review of sample listening questions using the practice CD available from your school counselor 1. Recommended preparation includes: ■ ■ ■ 3–4 years study in high school or the equivalent. Les diplomates ont négocié un…entre les deux pays. themes. All questions in the tests are multiple-choice questions in which you must choose the BEST response from the four choices offered. timetables. and newspaper articles or everyday materials such as advertisements. and tickets. Je ne pleure pas! J’ai quelque chose dans… (A) l’oeuvre (B) l’outil (C) l’oreiller (D) l’oeil 3. FORMAT–FRENCH 85 multiple-choice questions Skills Measured Vocabulary in context Structure Reading comprehension Approximate % of Test 30 30–40 30–40 FORMAT–FRENCH with LISTENING Approximate % of Test 20 minutes of listening and 40 minutes of reading 85–90 multiple-choice listening and reading questions Listening Section (20 minutes) Pictures Short dialogues Long dialogues Vocabulary Structure Reading comprehension 8–12 questions 6–12 questions 10–15 questions 65 16–20 questions 16–20 questions 20–25 questions 35 Reading Section (40 minutes) Sample Reading Questions Four types of reading questions are used in the French Subject Tests. Type Three: Answer more specific questions based on longer dialogues or monologues.French and French with Listening One-hour subject tests Content The tests evaluate reading ability in three areas: Precision of Vocabulary: These questions test knowledge of words representing different parts of speech and some basic idioms within culturally authentic contexts. Selections are drawn from fiction. One part of the test contains vocabulary and structure questions embedded in longer paragraphs. historical works. essays. The listening test also measures the ability to understand spoken language with three types of listening questions: Type One: Identify the sentence that most accurately describes what is presented in a picture or photograph. forms. Recommended Preparation Both tests reflect general trends in high school curricula and are independent of particular textbooks or methods of instruction. Type Two: Answer general content questions based on short dialogues or monologues. Pourquoi es-tu debout si…puisque tu dois te lever de bonne heure? (A) tard (B) loin (C) peu (D) haut French Test with Listening ■ 2.

(A) indifférents (B) repentants (C) prudents (D) reconnaissants 5. — ------. les Français célèbrent les fêtes de fin d’année en (8) un bon nombre d’huîtres et d’autres (9) de mer. À cette occasion Jean-Louis a mis ------. (A) légumes (B) fleurs 4. Et ils envoient des (12) de voeux à (13) amis et collègues. (A) ceux (B) lesquels (C) quels (D) leurs 11. Be sure to read the paragraph completely before answering the questions related to it.plus belle chemise et une jolie cravate neuve. From the four choices given. select the one that can be inserted in the blank to form a grammatically correct sentence and fill in the corresponding circle on the answer sheet. (B) consommé (C) avoir consommé (D) consommer 9. choice (A) may consist of dashes that indicate that no insertion is required to form a grammatically correct sentence. (A) la coutume (B) l’utilisation (C) l’habit (D) le temps SAT Subject Tests 61 . In each case. est-ce que tu te ------mieux? (A) sentiras (B) sentirais (C) sentais (D) sens 6. (A) consommant Directions Each of the following sentences contains a blank.est sur la table? — C’est le vin que ta mère a commandé. Selon (7) . Choice (A) may consist of dashes that indicate that no insertion is required to form a grammatically correct sentence. (A) sa (B) son (C) ses (D) sienne (C) poisons (D) fruits 10. For some blanks it is necessary to choose the completion that is most appropriate to the meaning of the passage. Si tu faisais du jogging tous les jours. indicate your answer by filling in the corresponding circle on the answer sheet. (A) Quoi (C) Quel (B) Qu’est-ce qu’ (D) Qu’est-ce qui Part C Directions The paragraphs below contain blank spaces indicating omissions in the text. 7. for other blanks. to choose the one completion that forms a grammatically correct sentence. Ils offrent de petits cadeaux à (10) envers qui ils sont (11) .Part B 8. In some instances.

(B) Tous les enfants réagissent différemment à la publicité. En revanche. on devrait réserver une table au moment où l’on (A) (B) (C) (D) achète son billet commence le voyage annonce le repas arrive à destination 14. (B) Il les intéresse. alors que les enfants. Mais quand on demande à des enfants de choisir entre divers scénarios ou types d’illustration. les effets des scènes de violence et de complaisance sexuelle à la télévision sur les jeunes enfants sont en général (A) nuisibles (B) graves (C) favorables (D) insignifiants 15. y sont en général indifférents. quand ils s’efforcent de leur apprendre à faire le départ entre le réel et l’imaginaire. cet artifice qu’ils préfèrent. D’après le texte. (D) Il les rassure. Quelle est la conclusion de l’article vis-à-vis de la publicité? (A) La réaction des enfants devant la publicité dépend des parents. Part D Directions Read the following selections carefully for comprehension. au moins jusqu’à la puberté. de chômage et de grèves. Select the completion or answer that is BEST according to the selection and fill in the corresponding circle on the answer sheet. ils oublient que les contes de fées non plus n’étaient pas désintéressés. (C) La publicité est salutaire dans le développement de l’enfant. Each selection is followed by a number of questions or incomplete statements. Ligne (5) (10) (15) (20) Alors. La publicité. il faut bien constater que ce sont justement ces conventions. Les parents s’inquiètent des images de violence physique ou de complaisance sexuelle qu’on peut voir à la télévision. quelle est la réaction que le journal télévisé provoque chez les enfants? (A) Il les trouble. Cela peut être celui des parents.12. Ce n’est pas le problème des enfants. (A) cartons (B) photos (C) cartes (D) feuilles 13. que dire des contes qu’invente aujourd’hui la publicité? On dénonce l’artifice et les conventions des messages publicitaires. de drames et de catastrophes. Avec son cortège de guerres. (D) On a raison de dénoncer les messages publicitaires. ils détestent le journal télévisé. 17. 62 SAT Practice Booklet . Selon l’article. Et quand les moralistes reprochent aux publicitaires de lier cette idée de bonheur à la possession de biens matériels. Quand on voyage en train. les rassure. (C) Il les laisse indifférents. (A) ses (B) tous (C) leurs (D) mes 16. avec son imagerie du bonheur. entre le désir et sa réalisation. il les met mal à l’aise.

and (D). (B). you will hear four sentences designated (A). You hear: [Numéro 2 (Man) (A) C’est bien. As you listen. You see: You hear: [(A) Quelle joie d’être seul! (B) Que c’est agréable de faire du vélo! (C) Le moteur fait trop de bruit! (D) Nous adorons la course à pied.] (7 seconds) You see: 2.] (7 seconds) SAT Subject Tests 63 . la musique en plein air! (B) Ces gens écoutent un discours passionnant. (C) Ces gens se plaignent du bruit.] Statement (B). Now look at the following example. All questions in this section of the test are multiple-choice questions in which you must choose the BEST response from three or four choices offered. You will hear the choices only once. Text in brackets [ ] is recorded on the CD. (D) Les bateaux à rames sont lents et silencieux. look at the picture in your test book and select the choice that BEST reflects what you see in the picture or what someone in the picture might say. You see: You hear: [Numéro 1 (Woman) (A) Il y a beaucoup de vagues cet après-midi. Therefore. 1. (B) Quel plaisir d’être en forêt! (C) Faire de la voile est bien agréable. They will not be printed in your test book. (C). Then fill in the corresponding circle on the answer sheet. “Que c’est agréable de faire du vélo!” best reflects what you see in the picture or what someone in the picture might say. (D) Cette salle de concert a une bonne acoustique.Sample Listening Questions The following three types of questions appear on the French Test with Listening. Part A Directions For each item in this part. you should choose answer (B).

Pourriez-vous m’aider à trouver un vol pour Toronto dans la semaine du 15 avril? Bien sûr.] The best answer to the question. A tone will announce each new selection. [Numéro 3 (Woman) Qu’est-ce que le monsieur veut faire? (A) Réserver une chambre (B) Acheter un ordinateur (C) Prendre un avion] (7 seconds) 4. D’accord. pour le mardi 16. (Man A) Mais pourquoi? Elle a toujours bien marché. [Numéro 6 Combien de temps doit durer ce séjour? (A) Trois semaines (B) Six mois (C) Un an] (7 seconds) (Man B) (Woman) (Man) (Woman) 64 SAT Practice Booklet . Bonjour. and will be heard only once. madame. (Man A) Quoi? Tu plaisantes. “Elle est en réparation. [Numéro 5 (Man B) Quel est le but de cette annonce à la radio? (A) D’encourager le tourisme en été (B) De présenter des renseignements sur Paris (C) De présenter un programme d’échange] (7 seconds) You hear: [(Tone) (Man B) Papa. Now listen to the following example. L’été suivant. but do not mark the answer on your answer sheet.” Therefore. you will be asked one or two questions about what was said. “Qu’est-ce qu’on peut dire de la voiture en question?” is (A). 3. [Numéro 4 (Woman) Quand le monsieur va-t-il partir? (A) Immédiatement (B) En semaine (C) Pendant le week-end] (7 seconds) Questions 5-6 [(Tone) (Man) Pour la quatrième année consécutive. The answers are not printed in your test booklet. bonjour. monsieur. il y a des vols à 11 heures et à 15 heures tous les jours. The selections will not be printed in your test booklet. (C) Elle est chez un ami. ce sera le tour des étudiants américains d’être hébergés dans des familles françaises.Part B Directions In this part of the test you will hear several short selections. j’ai eu un accident. You will hear them only once.] (5 seconds) 6. en réalité. (B) Elle est sur la route. At the end of each selection. n’est-ce pas? (Woman A) Qu’est-ce qu’on peut dire de la voiture en question? (A) Elle est en réparation. and (C). Selon l’ordinateur.] (5 seconds) 5. Entendu. (A). Select the BEST answer and fill in the corresponding circle on the answer sheet. Réservez-moi une place sur le vol de 11 heures. (Man B) Euh. Environ vingtcinq étudiants âgés de 15 à 17 ans viendront passer trois semaines dans des familles aux Etats-Unis. you should choose answer (A). monsieur. ta voiture est chez le garagiste. Questions 3-4 [(Tone) (Woman) (Man) Agence Beausoleil. (B). des échanges auront lieu entre des étudiants de Paris et de New York. each followed by three possible answers.

À ce soir. (12 seconds) (Woman B) Questions 9-11 You will hear: [(Man A) Dialogue numéro 1. These questions are also printed in your test book. répertoire et je ne fais pas tous les concerts avec eux. dis-moi ce que tu fais. Tout est équipé. parle de ses activités.Questions 7-8 [(Tone) (Man A) Bon. On se rencontre à dixneuf heures devant le cinéma. Éric. [Numéro 8 (Woman) Où les amis vont-ils rencontrer Anne et Sophie? (A) Chez elles (B) Dans un café (C) Au théâtre] (7 seconds) (Woman) (Man B) (Woman) (Man B) (Man B) (Woman) (Man B) (Woman) (Man B) Part C Directions You will now hear some extended dialogues or monologues. un de Rythme & Blues. Et vous répétez où? Nous répétons dans un local de répétitions. (Woman) Et vous répétez souvent? (Man B) Pour le groupe de Rythme & Blues. nous avons répété pendant huit mois et donc nous connaissons assez bien le SAT Subject Tests 65 . c’est d’accord. et vous jouez où. dans des bistros. entendu? C’est ça. en général? Nous jouons dans des bars. dans des caves. (Man B) Je suis chanteur dans deux groupes. une fois par semaine au moins. Et l’autre groupe? C’est un groupe de rock qui s’appelle Riffraff et là. After each dialogue or monologue. you will be asked several questions about what you have just heard. pendant trois ou quatre heures. Il est acteur. puis retrouver Anne et Sophie au café de la gare. jeune étudiant demeurant à Paris. qu’est-ce que nous apprenons sur le jeune Éric?] Au cours de cette conversation. You will hear each only once. Et comment s’appelle ce groupe? Ce groupe s’appelle Les Steady Holy Men. qu’est-ce que nous apprenons sur le jeune Éric? (A) (B) (C) (D) Il est chanteur. dans des clubs. Select the best answer to each question from among the four choices printed in your test book and fill in the corresponding circle on the answer sheet. (Woman) Alors. Bien. un peu plus peut-être. et nous répétons.] (5 seconds) 7. nous ne répétons pas souvent. Il veut apprendre le français. Il y en a plusieurs sur Paris où on peut payer à l’heure pour répéter dans un studio. un groupe de rock. Nous allons d’abord voir un film. [Numéro 7 (Woman) Qu’est-ce que les deux amis vont faire ensemble? (A) Prendre le train (B) Aller au cinéma (C) Écouter des disques] (7 seconds) 8. Il a terminé ses études. [Numéro 9 Au cours de cette conversation. quelquefois deux fois par semaine.] 9. et un autre groupe. There is no sample question for this part. on vient de commencer il y a deux mois. donc ce n’est pas la peine.

7. Reading Questions 1. 4. 13. 5. 9. Questions are also printed in the test book. 10. D (4) A (2) A (2) D (2) A (5) 11. 12. 3. 17. Recommended preparation includes: ■ ■ 2–4 years of study in high school or the equivalent Gradual development of competence in German over a period of years 66 SAT Practice Booklet . D (3) C (3) C (2) D (3) A (4) 16. A (3) A (3) Listening Questions 1. Dialogues/monologues. are generally one or two paragraphs in length and test whether you can identify the main idea or comprehend facts or details in the text. 8. street signs. D (4) A (3) C (2) 4. questions. with 1 the easiest and 5 the most difficult. 11. Recommended Preparation Both tests reflect general trends in high school curricula and are independent of particular textbooks or methods of instruction. 2. 15. A (4) C (3) Type Two: Contains longer dialogues and monologues with several multiple-choice questions. [Numéro 11 (Woman B) (A) (B) (C) (D) Où Éric donne-t-il des concerts?] Où Éric donne-t-il des concerts? Dans des restaurants Dans des jardins Dans des clubs Dans des théâtres (12 seconds) ANSWERS The estimated difficulty level. timetables. forms. Dialogues/monologues and questions are only recorded and not printed in the test book. they appear only in the test book. 14. 3. on a scale of 1 to 5. Reading Comprehension: These questions test understanding of the content of various materials taken from sources such as advertisements. For each omission. [Numéro 10 (Woman B) Pourquoi les membres du groupe Rythme & Blues ne répètent-ils pas souvent?] Pourquoi les membres du groupe Rythme & Blues ne répètent-ils pas souvent? (A) (B) (C) (D) Parce qu’ils connaissent bien les chansons Parce qu’ils aiment improviser Parce qu’ils s’intéressent à d’autres concerts Parce qu’ils jouent rarement en public (12 seconds) German and German with Listening One-hour subject tests Content Both tests comply with the German spelling reform (Rechtschreibreform) as much as possible. 5. 11. The tests evaluate reading ability in these areas: Sentence Completion and Paragraph Completion: These questions test vocabulary and grammar requiring you to know the meaning of words and idiomatic expressions in context and to identify usage that is structurally correct and appropriate. mostly adapted from literary sources and newspapers or magazines. There are several prose passages followed by questions that test your understanding of the passages. B (2) C (2) A (3) 7. you must select the choice that BEST fits each sentence.10. They also examine your ability to read passages representative of various styles and levels of difficulty. The listening test also measures the ability to understand spoken language with two types of listening questions: Type One: Contains short dialogues/monologues with one or two multiple-choice questions. The passages. and tickets. 2. 6. 9. A (1) D (2) B (3) A (2) B (3) 6. is in parentheses. B (2) B (3) A (2) 10. Answer choices are not recorded. 8. and answer choices are recorded.

. (A) Rede (B) Sprache (D) Erklärung (C) Nachricht 2. . ist er immer pünktlich -------. All questions in the test are multiple-choice questions in which you must choose the BEST response from the four choices offered. warum er uns 6. ich 4. four completions are provided. (A) (B) (C) (D) gewesen worden geworden gewusst 85–90 multiple-choice listening and reading questions Listening questions that require answers to questions based on shorter and longer listening selections Listening Section (20 minutes) 35 Short dialogues/monologues Long dialogues/monologues Reading Section Vocabulary in context Structure in context (grammar) Reading comprehension using authentic stimulus materials and passages (40 minutes) 65 verstehe ------. Select the most appropriate completion and fill in the corresponding circle on the answer sheet. Der nächste Bus .German Test with Listening ■ 3. FORMAT–GERMAN with LISTENING 20 minutes of listening and 40 minutes of reading Approximate % of Test Verspätung Solange ich ihn -------.gelassen hat. for each numbered blank. Sample Reading Questions Several types of questions are used in the Subject Test in German. . Then. each having four suggested completions. Der Präsident hat gestern Abend eine . Part A Directions This part consists of a number of incomplete statements. Wissen Sie.nicht. . (A) (B) (C) (D) weiß kenne verstehe kann 5. (A) (B) (C) (D) Loch Vergessen Stich Mangel 1. there are numbered blanks indicating that words or phrases have been omitted. . choose the completion that is most appropriate and fill in the corresponding circle on the answer sheet. . dieser Hund gehört? (A) wer (B) wo (D) wem (C) wessen Review of sample listening questions using the practice CD available from your school counselor FORMAT–GERMAN 80–85 multiple-choice questions Skills Measured Vocabulary in context and Structure in context (grammar) Reading comprehension Authentic stimulus materials and passages Approximate % of Test Part B Directions 50 50 In the following paragraph. gehalten. (A) (B) (C) (D) damit dadurch darin deshalb diesmal im ------. First read through the entire paragraph. 7. (A) fahrt (B) fahr (D) fährt (C) fahre SAT Subject Tests 67 . For each numbered blank. . um zehn Uhr ab.

z. 10. ______________________________________________ ______________________________________________ ______________________________________________ Name: Straße: Ort: Viel Glück! 8. Diese Gruppe hatte bei gleicher Ernährung keine Bewegung. Select the answer or completion that is best according to the text and fill in the corresponding circle on the answer sheet. Worüber gibt das Magazin wohl Auskunft? (A) (B) (C) (D) Neues über Computer Kunstausstellungen Neues aus Rock und Pop Modische Kleidung Questions 11-13 Question 8 Weltstadt-Wochenende zu zweit zu gewinnen! • An einem Freitag anreisen und bis Sonntag bleiben • Im erstklassigen Hotel verwöhnt werden • Weltstadt-Programm erleben • Das alles auf unsere Kosten • Die Frage. die mit Joggen. Affen. Großes Interesse fand jedoch eine Studie der Universitätsklinik Boston. Nach regelmäßigem Training in einem Laufrad überstand eine Versuchsgruppe von Affen die Folgen einer schlechten Ernährung besser als eine Vergleichsgruppe. Wofür macht man hier Reklame? (A) (B) (C) (D) Moderne Rockstars Neue Stereoanlagen Preiswerte CD-Spieler Eine Musikzeitschrift 68 SAT Practice Booklet .Part C Directions Read the following texts carefully for comprehension. Schwimmen und Schwitzen ihr Herzinfarktrisiko zu verkleinern hoffen. die für mindestens 30 Minuten den Puls beschleunigen— tatsächlich die Gefahr von Herzkrankheiten reduzieren kann. dass Herztraining—bestimmte körperliche Übungen mindestens dreimal in der Woche. ob Bewegung wirklich der Gesundheit dient. dass man durch körperliche Bewegung Herzerkrankungen verhindern kann.B. beschäftigt nach wie vor sowohl die Mediziner als auch alle diejenigen. Each is followed by a number of questions or incomplete statements. Immerhin ist dies das erste Versuchsresultat mit höheren Primaten. Was könnte man mit diesem Schein gewinnen? (A) (B) (C) (D) Ein bezahltes Wochenende Einen Urlaub am Meer Ein tolles Auto Ein super Hotel Questions 9-10 9. das zeigt. Laboruntersuchungen hingegen waren bisher nicht ganz klar. Bevölkerungsstudien geben viele Beweise dafür. Natürlich muss das Experiment wiederholt und verbessert werden.

Lassen Sie mal.] [Warum sitzt Herr Lenz noch am Schreibtisch?] Warum sitzt Herr Lenz noch am Schreibtisch? [(A) Er telefoniert. Gehen Sie nach Hause und packen Sie.] (5 seconds) 12. (C). Aber das war nicht meine Schuld—heute. dass (A) die Vergleichsgruppe kein Verhältnis zur Versuchsgruppe hat (B) Bewegung der menschlichen Gesundheit nur schaden kann (C) das Experiment wiederholt werden muss (D) der Puls nie beschleunigt werden kann 13. wenn sie (A) (B) (C) (D) zu viel essen fit bleiben Bewegung vermeiden Tierversuche machen 14. Die Chefin gab mir in der letzten Minute noch viel zu tun. das riecht gut. 16. weil du immer so spät nach Hause kommst. you must listen very carefully. These questions are not printed in your test book. Text in brackets [ ] is only recorded and not printed in your test book. (B) Er packt ein. (Woman) (Man) Part A Directions In this part of the test you will hear several selections. All questions in this part of the test are multiple-choice questions in which you must choose the BEST response from the four choices offered. (B) Im Zug.] (5 seconds) (Man B) (Man A) Sample Listening Questions In the German Test with Listening. you will be asked several questions about what you have just heard. The choices are not printed in your test book. Select the best answer and fill in the corresponding circle on your answer sheet. (C) Klaus hat gegessen. (Woman) (Man) [Wo unterhalten sich die Männer?] Wo unterhalten sich die Männer? [(A) Im Urlaub. (B). From the four printed choices. Am Montag bekomme ich eine Hilfskraft. and (D). Therefore. (D) Es riecht so gut.] (5 seconds) Part B Directions You will now listen to some extended dialogues or monologues. Rainer. In diesem Artikel geht es in erster Linie um eine Frage (A) (B) (C) (D) des Sporttrainings der Ernährung der Labormethoden der Gesundheit (Narrator) (Man A) [Questions 15 and 16 refer to the following exchange. Es gibt viele Beweise dafür. You will hear each only once. (C) Er arbeitet. Each question will be followed by four choices marked (A). Entschuldige. Another speaker will read the questions for you. 15. select the best answer to each question and fill in the corresponding circle on the answer sheet. They will not be printed in your test book. the listening section will come first. (Woman) (Man) [Was gefällt Rainer nicht?] Was gefällt Rainer nicht? [(A)Klaus kommt spät. the following two types of listening questions will appear in addition to the reading questions discussed previously.] [Hmmm. (Narrator) (Man B) (Man A) (Man B) [Question 14 refers to the following exchange.] [Herr Lenz. (D) Im Büro. After each dialogue or monologue. Klaus. dass Herzinfarkte bei Menschen nicht so häufig auftreten. Der Verfasser des Berichtes macht es klar. There is no sample question for this part. You will hear them only once. Was gibt’s denn heute Abend zu essen? Für dich nichts. (B) Die Chefin arbeitet viel. In the actual test. You will hear them once. und Sie sitzen immer noch am Schreibtisch! Ich fahre doch morgen in Urlaub und wollte keine Arbeit liegen lassen. In your test book you will read one or two short questions about what was said.] SAT Subject Tests 69 .11. es ist schon 6. (D) Er fährt heim.00 Uhr. (C) Zu Hause.

A (3) 18.] 19. Ach. C (3) (Woman) 17. (C) Weil die Tür auf der Fahrerseite nicht zuging. Wann war der Wagen das letzte Mal zur Inspektion beim TÜV? Ende letzten Jahres. Wir haben sie aber reparieren lassen. (D) Weil es über 45 000 km drauf hat. und ich hatte noch nie einen Unfall damit. with 1 the easiest and 5 the most difficult.] [Woher weiß der Mann. D (1) 15. (C) Seine Autowerkstatt hat es ihm gesagt. (Man) [Wann wird sich der Mann den Wagen ansehen?] (12 seconds) (Telephone rings) (Woman) (Man) [Hallo—Müller hier.00 Uhr Feierabend. 12. (B) Weil es zur Inspektion muss. (Man) [Warum ist das Auto so gut wie neu?] (12 seconds) (A) Weil es gerade aus der Werkstatt kam. Gibt es irgendwelche Probleme mit dem Wagen? Vor einigen Monaten ließ sich die Tür auf der Fahrerseite nicht schließen. 10. 2.Questions 17-20 (Narrator) [You will hear a telephone conversation about a car deal. (C) Am Morgen.00 Uhr bei Ihnen sein. (A) Kurz vor Feierabend. A (2) 16. A (4) D (2) D (4) B (2) 5. 7. D (3) (Man) (Woman) (Man) Listening Questions 14. on a scale of 1 to 5. 19. Er ist in gutem Zustand. D (2) C (2) B (1) C (3) 13. (C) Weil es nachts nicht auf der Straße steht. Er steht immer nachts in der Garage. C (1) 17. (D) Weil man die Fenster nicht schließen konnte. (Man) [Warum war das Auto in der Werkstatt?] (12 seconds) (A) Weil es in einen Unfall verwickelt war. Ich habe in der „Morgenpost” gelesen. Reading Questions 1. 18. 8. (D) Am Wochenende. (D) Die Nachbarn haben es ihm erzählt. C (3) B (4) 20. (B) Weil die Karosserie verkratzt war. der Wagen ist drei Jahre alt. hat ungefähr 45 000 km und ein Schiebedach. (Man) 70 SAT Practice Booklet . 6. 3. da sind wir ja beinahe Nachbarn. 11. Ich werde kurz nach 18. ich wohne Holunderweg 7. Ich habe gegen 17. kann ich dann vorbeikommen? Ja. (B) Nach der Arbeit. is in parentheses. Gut dann: Auf Wiedersehen. Können Sie mir etwas über den Wagen sagen? Ja. 20. (Woman) (Man) (Woman) (Man) (Woman) ANSWERS The estimated difficulty level. A (2) D (3) C (5) A (1) 9. dass Sie ein Auto zu verkaufen haben. dass die Frau ein Auto zu verkaufen hat?] (12 seconds) (A) Er hat es in der Zeitung gelesen. 4. . (B) Sie hat einen Brief an ihn geschrieben.

Part A Directions This part consists of a number of incomplete statements. Recommended Preparation The Modern Hebrew Test allows for variation in language preparation. It is independent of particular textbooks or methods of instruction. no material in the test is written in biblical Hebrew. including parts of speech as well as your ability to recognize appropriate language patterns. most of which are vocalized. each having four suggested completions. SAT Subject Tests 71 . These passages. Select the most appropriate completion and fill in the corresponding circle on the answer sheet. While some passages have biblical references. Authentic material such as advertisements has been added to the test. Structure: This kind of question tests grammar. Reading Comprehension: Reading comprehension questions test your understanding of passages of varying levels of difficulty.Modern Hebrew One-hour subject test Content The test evaluates reading ability in three areas: Vocabulary: These types of questions test knowledge of words representing different parts of speech and some basic idioms within culturally authentic contexts. All questions in the test are multiple-choice and require you to choose the BEST response from the four choices offered. Recommended preparation includes: ■ ■ 2–4 years of Hebrew language study in high school or the equivalent Gradual development of competence in Hebrew over a period of years FORMAT 85 multiple-choice questions Skills Measured Vocabulary in context Structure in context (grammar) Reading comprehension Approximate % of Test 30 30 40 Sample Questions Three types of questions are used in the Modern Hebrew Subject Test. are generally adapted from literary sources and newspaper or magazine articles.

four completions are provided. Each is followed by a number of questions or incomplete statements. for each numbered blank. 72 SAT Practice Booklet . For each numbered blank.Part B Directions In each of the following paragraphs there are numbered blanks indicating that words or phrases have been omitted. First read through the entire paragraph. Part C Directions Read the following passages carefully for comprehension. Then. Select the answer or completion that is best according to the passage and fill in the corresponding circle on the answer sheet. choose the completion that is most appropriate and fill in the corresponding circle on the answer sheet.

A (4) 5. C (1) 2. B (1) 16. A (4) 19. B (5) 6. B (4) 14. B (4) 20. on a scale of 1 to 5. D (5) 12. is in parentheses.ANSWERS The estimated difficulty level. D (3) 15. D (4) 13. A (3) 4. A (2) 11. B (3) SAT Subject Tests 73 . with 1 the easiest and 5 the most difficult. B (2) 9. D (5) 7. D (2) 3. B (2) 17. C (3) 10. A (5) 18. A (1) 8. 1.

you are indicating that no insertion is required to form a grammatically correct sentence. Of the four choices. It is independent of particular textbooks or methods of instruction. perchè ero ingrassato. Structure: These questions test your familiarity with the language structure. by choosing this option. In some instances. First read through the entire passage. (A) 5. Un paio di blue-jeans Ho portato blue-jeans sin da quando se ne portavano pochissimi e comunque solo in vacanza. (A) colorati (B) costosi (C) comodi (D) stretti 2. Reading Comprehension: Reading comprehension questions test your understanding of the content of various selections taken from sources such as newspaper and magazine articles. choice (A) may consist of dashes. choose the completion that is most appropriate given the context of the entire passage and fill in the corresponding circle on the answer sheet. Part A Directions In each of the following passages there are numbered blanks indicating that words or phrases have been omitted. ma sono prima di tutto molto (2) . Recentemente. advertisements. vedrà che poi si (6) . Following each sentence are four completions. 74 SAT Practice Booklet . four completions are provided. tickets. Then. fiction. and schedules. 1. (A) lavano (D) adattano Sample Questions Three types of questions are used in the Italian Subject Test. Ho provato una dozzina di blue-jeans ed ogni (5) la commessa del negozio mi diceva: “Stringa. historical works.” Finalmente ne ho trovato uno e sono partito. Oggi si portano anche per bellezza. For each numbered blank. (A) rinunciare (B) rassegnarmi (C) consentire (D) attenermi 4. select the one that best completes the sentence structurally and logically and fill in the corresponding circle on the answer sheet. for each numbered blank. The test evaluates reading ability in three areas: Sentence Completion: These questions test your knowledge of high-frequency vocabulary and appropriate idiomatic expressions in the context of paragraphs. (A) metri (C) chili (B) litri (D) volta (D) chilometri giorno FORMAT 80–85 multiple-choice questions Skills Measured Vocabulary in context Structure in blank Reading comprehension Approximate % of Test 30 30 40 cosa (B) (C) modo ritirano (B) (C) formano 6. forms. (A) utili (B) (C) vecchi difficili (D) strani Recommended Preparation The Subject Test in Italian allows for variation in language preparation. Commonly taught grammatical constructions are tested. ho perso quel numero di (4) sufficiente per riprovare un blue-jeans quasi normale. senza dover tirare indietro la pancia. All questions in the test are multiple-choice questions in which you must choose the BEST response from the four choices offered. brochures.Italian One-hour subject test Content The test questions range in difficulty from elementary through advanced. Recommended preparation includes: ■ ■ 2–4 years of Italian language study in high school or the equivalent Gradual development of competence in Italian over a period of years 3. Part B Directions Directions: In each sentence or dialogue below you will find a blank space indicating that a word or phrase has been omitted. although most questions are at the intermediate level. Li trovavo e li trovo molto (1) specie in viaggio perchè non ci sono problemi di piega. Solo che da parecchi anni avevo dovuto (3) a questo piacere. and all questions reflect current standard Italian.

Each text is followed by a number of questions or incomplete statements. 6. 1. per non passare ore a vuoto in attesa di treni che non sono mai SAT Subject Tests 75 . sono piuttosto frequenti. Select the answer or completion that is best according to the text and fill in the corresponding circle on the answer sheet. E. non lo faccio più. quando occorrono. salvo tutelare i diritti degli utenti. so che i ritardi. 3. is in parentheses. Riuscirà la nuova linea che accorcerà le distanze tra Milano e Roma a risolvere la situazione? Me lo auguro. anche qui. Cebion è (A) un codice (B) una medicina (C) un’avvertenza (D) un cibo ANSWERS The estimated difficulty level. (A) Le (C) Gli (B) La (D) Li puntuali.F. Cosa pensa degli scioperi l´autore della lettera? (A) (B) (C) (D) Che sono illegali Che sono qualche volta giustificati Che dovrebbero essere aboliti Che sono sempre utili Questions 9-10 13. 11. Che ------.F. So di non poter contare sulle nostre ferrovie al cento per cento. Quanto ai treni (ahimè!) lo sciopero non mi ha sconvolto più di tanto. da almeno dieci anni. 11. Ora. B (1) D (2) C (2) B (4) 13. a muovermi in macchina (nebbia permettendo) o in aereo (scioperi. on a scale of 1 to 5.ho comprate per Gianna. Io ho molti parenti in Emilia e spesso ricevo le loro visite. Gli scioperi dei treni hanno causato in questi giorni non pochi problemi. Parlo per esperienza. Questo prodotto si deve usare (A) ogni giorno (B) con la vitamina C (C) prima dei pasti (D) con cura Questions 11-14 Cari lettori. E.sconti! (A) belli (C) (B) begli belle (D) bei 8.7. 14. Ti piacciono queste camicie? ------. 12. soprattutto su certe linee. Ogni mattina mi sono alzato tendendo l’orecchio ai giornali radio. 4. Dieci anni fa. 10. C (2) A (3) A (4) C (5) 5. Pazienza! Bisogna accettare ciò che passa il convento e rassegnarsi. with 1 the easiest and 5 the most difficult. 7. Una volta andavo alla Stazione Centrale ad aspettarli. B (3) D (4) B (2) A (2) 9. D (2) A (1) 10. ha deciso di (A) (B) (C) (D) non aspettare più alla stazione lamentarsi degli scioperi non dare appoggio ai lavoratori non ascoltare la radio la mattina 9. Chi scrive questa lettera? (A) (B) (C) (D) Il padrone di una ditta Un controllore Un impiegato Un disoccupato Part C Directions Read the following texts carefully for comprehension. pronto ad adeguarmi ad ogni nuova circostanza. 2. L´autore considera lo sciopero dei treni con (A) allegria (B) incomprensione (C) rabbia (D) rassegnazione 14. Anch´io sono un lavoratore dipendente e so che è giusto farli. 8. permettendo). 12. Ma non voglio lamentarmi degli scioperi.

You should choose the writing system you are familiar with and read only from that column on the test. At the end of each selection. a modified Hepburn system is used. the Japanese is written in the two most common types of romanization (romaji). and kanji without furigana. In the other two columns. Reading comprehension: The reading comprehension questions are in English and test your understanding of such points as main and supporting ideas. You must choose the BEST response from the four choices offered. katakana. the same Japanese word for “bicycle” is written as zitensya. the Japanese word for “bicycle” is written as jitensha. the Japanese is represented in standard Japanese script and all kanji are supplied with furigana. newspaper articles. such as notes. ] Question 2 (Narrator) (Man) (Woman) (Narrator) Question 2. (A) (B) (C) (D) By bus By car By train On foot [ Listen to this short conversation between two acquaintances. advertisements. but do not mark the answer on your answer sheet. To the left. Directions (Narrator) [ This is a sample CD for the Japanese Test with Listening. Now listen to the following example. In the center column. You will hear them only once and they are not printed in your test booklet. spoken dialogues and narratives primarily about everyday topics. In that system. In that system. or the equivalent ■ Gradual development of competence in Japanese over a period of years ■ Review of sample listening questions using the practice CD available from your school counselor FORMAT Approximate % of Test 20 minutes listening and 40 minutes of usage and reading 80–85 multiple-choice questions Skills Measured Listening comprehension Usage Reading comprehension 35 30 35 76 SAT Practice Booklet . menus. ] Recommended Preparation ■ Study of Japanese for two to four years in high school. (A) (B) (C) (D) Pens Notebooks Erasers Colored paper [ Listen to this short exchange in a stationery store. and letters. How did the woman get there today? (16 seconds) 2. Usage: These questions require you to complete Japanese sentences in a way that is appropriate in terms of structure (grammar). and context. What did the woman buy? (16 seconds) 1. a modified kunrei-shiki is used. Sample Listening Questions All questions in the test are multiple-choice. ] Question 1 (Narrator) (Woman) (Man) (Narrator) Question 1. In the righthand column. Directions: In this section of the test you will hear short dialogues and monologues.Japanese with Listening One-hour subject test Content The test evaluates ability in three areas: Listening comprehension: These questions are based on short. Usage questions are printed in three different ways of representing Japanese. you will be asked questions about what was said. The selections in this section are taken from materials you might encounter in everyday situations. The text is written in hiragana. A brief explanation about each selection and the questions are given in English. Explanations are also printed in the test book. vocabulary.

(A) kirei (B) osoku (C) genki na (D) benri (A) kiree (B) osoku (C) genki na (D) benri 6. (A) ------(B) na (C) no (D) ni 6. each of which has four suggested completions. zyogingu o simasu. (A) ------(B) na (C) no (D) ni SAT Subject Tests 77 .narimashita. 5.toki.toki. Nakamura’s answering machine in his office. (A) (B) (C) (D) This morning Tonight Tomorrow morning Tomorrow night (Narrator) Question 4. 6. ------. 5. jogingu o shimasu. Select the word or phrase that best completes the sentence structurally and logically and fill in the corresponding circle on the answer sheet. ] Question 4 (Narrator) [ Listen to this conversation at the woman’s home. Do not waste time by switching from column to column in this section. Nakamura expected to call? (16 seconds) 3. 5.narimasita. Then answer question 4. Look at the example below and choose the one column of writing with which you are most familiar in order to answer the question. (A) (B) (C) (D) He is her guest He is her husband He is her son He is her close friend Sample Usage Questions Directions This section consists of a number of incomplete statements. Hima ------. Hima ------. choice (A) may consist of dashes that indicate that no insertion is required to form a correct sentence. What most likely is the man’s relationship to the woman? (16 seconds) 4.Question 3 (Narrator) [ Now listen to the message on Mr. In some instances. ] (Man) (Woman) (Man) (Woman) (Man) (Narrator) Question 3. When is Mr. This section of the test is presented in three columns that provide identical information. ------.

spoken Korean dialogues and narratives primarily about everyday topics. 2. The Korean selections are drawn from authentic materials. Questions 7-8 This is a notice on a telephone pole. although some inference questions may be included. 1. 8. Reading comprehension: The reading comprehension questions test your understanding of such points as main and supporting ideas. and literary texts. and various aspects of structure. Most questions deal with understanding literal meaning. 8. is in parentheses. B (3) B (2) 7. Question 9 Ryan’s host mother left a note for him. Each text is followed by one or more questions or incomplete statements based on its content. They are based on short. with 1 the easiest and 5 the most difficult. B (1) A (2) 3. B (1) A (3) 5. diaries. Usage: These questions are written entirely in Hangul and require students to complete Korean sentences or phrases so that they are structurally and logically correct.Sample Reading Questions Directions Read the following texts carefully for comprehension. They will also be printed in the test book. 4. A (3) Korean with Listening One-hour subject test Content The test evaluates ability in three areas: (A) (B) (C) (D) find a lost cat give away a cat find the owner of a cat sell a cat Listening comprehension: These questions test your ability to understand the spoken language. Select the answer or completion that is best according to the text and fill in the corresponding circle on the answer sheet. Areas covered include vocabulary. There is no example for this section. 6. newspaper articles. 7. such as notes. What is Ryan to do by seven thirty? (A) (B) (C) (D) Get up Eat Go out Go to bed ANSWERS The estimated difficulty level. on a scale of 1 to 5. The writer wants to 9. advertisements. All listening questions and possible answers are in English. letters. honorifics. All passages in this section are written in Hangul and all questions are in English. The description says the cat is (A) (B) (C) (D) brown green-eyed long-haired young 78 SAT Practice Booklet . A (4) C (3) 9. The questions will be spoken on a CD.

or the equivalent ■ Gradual development of competence in Korean over a period of years ■ Review of sample listening questions using the practice CD available from your school counselor FORMAT Approximate % of Test (Narrator) 1. That a new line will open on the following day. Hansu’s brother has a four-day vacation. (A) (B) (C) (D) [ Question 1. ] (16 seconds) Hansu’s brother is moving in with Hansu. To his brother’s house. These questions. Choose the correct statement based on the conversation you have just heard. Where did Hansu go yesterday? ] (16 seconds) To his brother’s office. Now listen to the first selection. (Narrator) (Woman) [ Listen to the following conversation. (Woman) (Man) Sample Usage Questions Part A Directions This section consists of a number of incomplete statements. are printed in your test booklet. Hansu’s brother went to college on the East Coast. 20 minutes listening and 40 minutes of usage and reading 80–85 multiple-choice questions Skills Measured Listening comprehension Usage Reading comprehension 35 (A) (B) (C) (D) (Narrator) 30 35 (Man) Sample Listening Questions Directions In this part of the test you will hear several spoken selections. (A) (B) (C) (D) (Man) [ Question 3. After each selection you will be asked one or more questions about what you have just heard. with four possible answers. That service will be restored. What is being announced? ] (16 seconds) That service is not affected. Then answer questions 1 and 2. To the airport. each of which has four suggested completions.Recommended Preparation ■ Study of Korean for two to four years in high school. To a graduation ceremony. Hansu’s brother works on the West Coast. ] (Narrator) 3. [ Question 2. You will hear them only once. Then answer question 3. (Woman) (Man) SAT Subject Tests 79 . [ Listen to the following announcement. Select the word or words that best complete the sentence structurally and logically and fill in the corresponding circle on the answer sheet. ] (Narrator) 2. Select the best answer to each question from among the four choices printed and fill in the corresponding circle on your answer sheet. That there will be no service at 3 o’clock. They will not be printed in your test book.

for each numbered blank. First read through the entire paragraph. choose the completion that is most appropriate and fill in the corresponding circle on the answer sheet. Choose the answer or completion that is best according to the selection and fill in the corresponding circle on the answer sheet. Sample Reading Questions Directions Read the following selections carefully for comprehension.Part B Directions In each of the following paragraphs there are numbered blanks indicating that words or phrases have been omitted. 80 SAT Practice Booklet . four completions are provided. Each selection is followed by one or more questions or incomplete statements based on its content. For each numbered blank. Then.

6. How long did the writer think it would take to get used to American life? (A) (B) (C) (D) About four months About four years At least a year A lifetime 15. 7. C (3) C (4) B (3) A (2) 13. How can one receive a special discount? (A) (B) (C) (D) By mail order By using a credit card By membership By buying a large quantity 14. 16. 14. 8. with 1 the easiest and 5 the most difficult. C (2) D (3) B (4) B (2) 5. 11. C (3) A (4) B (3) A (3) 9.Questions 12-13 Questions 14-16 12. 3. is in parentheses. C (3) C (3) A (4) D (4) (A) (B) (C) (D) Memorizing a lot of vocabulary Attending various seminars Participating in student clubs Learning and thinking in English SAT Subject Tests 81 . 2. What did the writer learn is important in American society? (A) (B) (C) (D) To accept cultural diversity To speak many languages To help international students To befriend many people 16. 12. on a scale of 1 to 5. 1. What does the writer think is the best way to become proficient in English? ANSWERS The estimated difficulty level. 4. What kind of business is being advertised? (A) (B) (C) (D) A bookstore A gift shop A delivery service A drugstore 13. 10. 15.

(A) pōnō (B) possum (C) possideō (D) poscō The reading comprehension part has 30 to 37 questions based on three to five reading passages and one or two poetry passages. Agricola dīxit sē puellam vīsūrum esse. All questions in the test are multiple-choice questions in which you must choose the BEST response from the four choices offered. Sī vocāvissēs. Select the correct form from the choices given.Latin One-hour subject test Content Questions may require you to: ■ ■ ■ ■ ■ 2. Directions In each of the sentences below. From among the choices. Then fill in the corresponding circle on the answer sheet. Note: In some questions. The present subjunctive passive of capitis is (A) capiāminī (B) capiēminī (C) caperēminī (D) capiminī Directions Each of the following English sentences contains a word that is underlined. (A) (B) (C) (D) If you were calling If you had called If you are calling If you should call 6. The dative singular of senātus is (A) senātū (B) senātum (C) senātūs (D) senātuī 82 SAT Practice Booklet . you are asked to give a specific form of the underlined word. Directions In each statement below. Then fill in the corresponding circle on the answer sheet. The soldiers have made a journey. Recommended Preparation ■ 2–4 years of Latin study in high school (the equivalent of two to four semesters in college) ■ Gradual development of competence in sight-reading Latin over a period of years FORMAT 70–75 multiple-choice questions Skills Measured Grammar and syntax Derivatives Translation and reading comprehension 30 5 65 Approximate % of Test 5. The soldiers must make a journey. From among the choices. (A) (B) (C) (D) The journey was made by the soldiers. ■ Select appropriate grammatical forms of Latin words Choose Latin words from which English words are derived Translate from Latin to English Complete Latin sentences Choose alternative ways of expressing the same thought in Latin Answer a variety of questions based on short passages of prose or poetry 3. select the Latin word to which the underlined word is related by derivation. variations of Latin terms will appear in parentheses. Iter mīlitibus faciendum est. Then fill in the corresponding circle on the answer sheet. (A) (B) (C) (D) that he would see the girl that he had seen the girl that the girl would see him that they will see the girl Sample Questions Six types of questions are used in the Subject Test in Latin. (A) sedēre (B) īre (C) ferre (D) esse 4. part or all of the sentence is underlined. laetī fuissēmus. All things are possible. 7. 1. select the best translation for the underlined word or words. The transition from adolescence to adulthood was easy. A set of questions following a poetry passage always includes one question requiring you to scan the first four feet of a line of dactylic hexameter verse or to determine the number of elisions in a line. The journey is being made by the soldiers.

Fortēs ā consule semper laudantur. 4. senātus populusque eum deum esse dīxit. Vīdistī . . is in parentheses. 17. with 1 the easiest and 5 the most difficult. . Fortēs consulem semper laudant. In line 5. suā refers to (A) (B) (C) (D) deum (line 4) nēmō (line 5) eius (ejus) (line 5) imāginem (line 5) 8. when substituted for the underlined portion of the sentence. Penātēs) tells us that (A) Antoninus placed statues of the household gods in every home (B) no one had a statue of Antoninus (C) many statues of Antoninus replaced the household gods (D) many houses had statues of Antoninus among the household gods 16. Select from the choices the expression that. patriam incolunt. The third sentence (Mox . octāvō decimō annō is translated (A) (B) (C) (D) for eighteen years after eighteen years in the eighteenth year throughout the eighteenth year 13. hodiēque in multīs domibus Marcī Antonīnī statuae consistunt inter Penātēs. . Consulēs fortēs semper laudantur. 15. 2. (A) quōs (B) quī (C) quem (D) cui Directions In each of the sentences below. In line 9. 12. 15. four completions are provided. . 11. For each blank. . dīxit) tell us that (A) Antoninus arranged his own funeral before he died (B) everyone celebrated Antoninus’ funeral for eighteen days (C) a god told the senate and people to celebrate Antoninus’ funeral (D) Antoninus was proclaimed a god by the senate and people 14. (A) (B) (C) (D) Consul ā fortibus semper laudātur. Cīvēs vēnērunt ut pācem peterent. 12. 9. 17. (A) (B) (C) (D) ad pācem petendam pāce petītā sī pax peterētur postquam pax petēbātur Directions Read the following texts carefully for comprehension. D (3) A (4) B (3) B (1) B (3) 6. 3. Each is followed by a number of questions or incomplete statements. A (3) C (3) D (3) B (4) D (3) 16. changes the meaning of the sentence LEAST. Select the answer or completion that is best according to the text and fill in the corresponding circle on the answer sheet. The last sentence (Neque . 14. 10. . ¯ ANSWERS The estimated difficulty level.Directions Each of the sentences below contains a blank space indicating that a word or phrase has been omitted. Servus . Mox nēmō erat quī eius (ejus) imāginem in suā domō non habēret. Consul fortēs semper laudat. 5. octāvō decimō annō imperīī suī mortuus est. part or all of the sentence is underlined. . praedīxisse) tells us that (A) (B) (C) (D) people do not always believe their dreams Marcus Antoninus was believed to prophesy in dreams Marcus Antoninus believed in the truth of many dreams people predicted that many would believe their dreams Honors for an emperor Cum igitur in amōre omnium Marcus Antonīnus bene rēgnāvisset. Then fill in the corresponding circle on the answer sheet. 8. Neque dēfuērunt homines qui cre derent in somnīs eum ¯ multa quae ve ra essent praedīxisse. 7. In line 2. Priusquam fūnus celebrātum est. 13. . The first two sentences (Cum . 1. . praedīxisse is translated (A) (B) (C) (D) would predict had predicted predicts will have predicted 10. A (4) C (4) D (3) B (4) B (4) 11. Choose the word or phrase that best completes the sentence and fill in the corresponding circle on the answer sheet. . B (3) B (4) Line (5) SAT Subject Tests 83 . (A) ā saxō (B) saxum (C) cum saxō (D) saxō 9. on a scale of 1 to 5. vulnerātur.

(A) en resumidas cuentas (B) en punto (C) a medias (D) a menudo 84 SAT Practice Booklet . The reading section also asks: Structure Questions: These questions ask you to identify usage that is both structurally correct and contextually appropriate. Part A Directions This part consists of a number of incomplete statements. flyers. and the spatial and temporal settings of a passage. (A) suyos (B) sus (C) suya (D) su 2. but some questions specifically test word meaning in the context of a sentence that reflects spoken or written language.. style. Understanding of various parts of speech (nouns.Spanish and Spanish with Listening One-hour subject tests Content Reading questions implicitly test vocabulary throughout the test. Part B questions test your ability to identify a plausible continuation of a short conversation. adverbs. Reading Questions: These questions are based on selections from prose fiction. Recommended preparation includes: ■ ■ 3–4 years of study in high school or the equivalent (2 years for advanced students) Gradual development of competence in Spanish over a period of years Spanish Test with Listening ■ Review of sample listening questions using the practice CD available from your school counselor 1. themes. Each part accounts for approximately one-third of the total score. and letters. Other reading questions test vocabulary and grammatical usage in longer paragraphs. as well as advertisements. FORMAT–SPANISH 85 multiple-choice questions Skills Measured Vocabulary and structure Paragraph completion Reading comprehension Approximate % of Test 33 33 33 FORMAT–SPANISH with LISTENING 20 minutes listening and 40 minutes reading Approximate % of Test 85 multiple-choice listening and reading questions Listening Section (20 minutes/ approximately 30 questions) 40 Pictures Rejoinders Selections Reading Section (40 minutes/ approximately 55 questions) 60 Vocabulary and structure Paragraph completion Reading comprehension Sample Reading Questions There are three types of reading questions. historical works. adjectives. verbs. newspaper and magazine articles. tone. Part C requires that you answer comprehension questions based on more extensive listening selections. The listening section has three parts: Part A questions ask you to identify the sentence that most accurately describes what is presented in a photograph or what someone in the photograph might say. Recommended Preparation Both tests reflect general trends in high school curricula and are independent of particular textbooks or methods of instruction.) and idiomatic expressions is tested. each having four suggested completions. Los cubanos están muy orgullosos de ------larga tradición folclórica. etc. Select the most appropriate completion and fill in the corresponding circle on the answer sheet. All questions in the test are multiple-choice questions in which you must choose the BEST response from the four choices offered. They test points such as main and supporting ideas. Se sabe que la playa de Luquillo es muy popular porque la gente de San Juan la visita ------. grouped into separate parts.

¿Qué desea Álvaro? (A) Abrir la cortina (B) Comer una fruta (C) Tomar un café (D) Encender la luz Part B Directions Directions: In each of the following paragraphs. 4. SAT Subject Tests 85 . —Pararemos en algún lugar. 13.” un osito electrónico que (4) ha derramado sobre sus fabricantes beneficios superiores a los 100 millones de dólares en el (5) año. ¿Dónde se desarrolla esta narración? (A) En una casa (B) En un automóvil (C) En un café (D) En un cuartel 12. hablaríamos portugués y no español. 11. (A) todavía (C) ya (A) (A) primero (C) primo (B) nunca (D) tampoco (B) primer (D) primario mayoría (D) particularidad La tranquilidad de sentirse bien atendido oportunidad (B) (C) desventaja (A) ocultos (B) lejanos (C) cobrados (D) llenos (A) verdaderamente (B) antiguamente (C) ansiosamente (D) perezosamente (A) (A) del (C) al se (C) lo (B) (B) en (D) le (D) de los Cuando viaje por negocios. disfrute plenamente de la tranquilidad de viajar bien atendido con EUROPEA DE SEGUROS y despreocúpese de accidentes. Los limpiacristales oscilaban inútilmente en abanico con un ruido sordo. four completions are provided. equipajes. Era la lluvia violenta del trópico acompañada de un viento colérico y del fuego brutal de los relámpagos. ¿Cuál de los siguientes beneficios ofrece esta compañía de seguros? (A) Reparación de autos (B) Ayuda financiera (C) Protección al viajar (D) Servicios de día y noche 14. Sara hablaba incoherentemente a su lado. Álvaro las vio caer en los cristales como frutas maduras y. 7. La (6) de Pedroso es que habla.3. Select the answer or completion that is BEST according to the passage and fill in the corresponding circle on the answer sheet. La máquina más infernal de hacer dinero se llama “Pedroso. etc. 6. Un café nos hará bien. Se cruzó con varios camiones del ejército y con una ambulancia de la Cruz Roja. demoras. 5. EUROPEA pone a su disposición el seguro más amplio y más completo para cada tipo de viaje. there are numbered blanks indicating that words or phrases have been omitted. anulaciones. Viaje tranquilo. por ocio o por estudios. (A) vivamos (B) vivimos (C) vivíamos (D) viviéramos Alcanzó la carretera central y pisó el acelerador. 8. el espacio se convirtió en una cortina de agua. read through the entire passage. no hay ningún misterio en la cinta sin fin y el grabador (7) en el interior del osito. Each text is followed by a number of questions or incomplete statements. En Santa Fe cayeron las primeras gotas.en el Brasil. Si ------. for each numbered blank. a los pocos segundos. 10. 9. El juguete (10) vende a precios que oscilan entre 60 y 80 dólares. choose the completion that is most appropriate given the context of the entire paragraph and fill in the corresponding circle on the answer sheet. Then. ¿Qué característica se destaca más de la compañía anunciada? (A) Su precio (B) Su cortesía (C) Su rapidez (D) Su amplitud Part C Directions Read the following texts carefully for comprehension. For each numbered blank. First. Claro. asistencia médica. Pero lo (8) novedoso es que (9) hablar su boca se mueve en sincronía con las palabras y sus ojos pestañean.

] (24 seconds) Part B Directions In this part of the test you will hear several short conversations or parts of conversations. Then fill in the corresponding circle on your answer sheet. No aceptamos monedas. por favor. You will hear the choices only once. deme dos entradas. (C). Please note that in the actual test. gracias.] (7 seconds) You see: 1. es un concierto de música clásica. Part C Directions Directions: You will now hear a series of selections. choose the one that most logically continues or completes the conversation and mark your answer on your answer sheet. No. (D) Creo que está por aquí.Sample Listening Questions In addition to the types of reading questions discussed above. para el domingo sí hay. ¿Es el mismo programa? No. Neither the conversations nor the choices will be printed in your test book. (A) Yo tengo una camiseta nueva. (Woman) (Man) (Woman) (Man) (Woman) (Man) (Narrator) 86 SAT Practice Booklet . (D) La motocicleta también es buena. Ahora contesten las preguntas 4 y 5. señorita. (B) La mía es mucho mejor. No. and (D). You hear: [Número 2 (Woman) Ana es una ciclista excelente. ¿Todavía hay entradas para el programa del sábado? Necesito dos.] (7 seconds) (Man) You hear: [Número 3 (Woman) (Man) (Woman) ¿Algo más. ¿Puedo pagar con tarjeta de crédito? (A) (B) (C) (D) Claro que sí.] (7 seconds) [Selección número 1 (Narrator) Escuchen esta conversación en la taquilla del Teatro Colón. ¿para el domingo? Ah. Select the best answer to each question from among the four choices printed and fill in the corresponding circle on your answer sheet. (C) Y además. Part A Directions For each question in this part. (C) Las cebollas están baratas hoy. (B). the Spanish Test with Listening has three types of listening questions that test your ability to understand spoken Spanish. Entonces. No. ya no quedan. the listening section comes first. You will have twelve seconds to answer each question. You hear: [Número 1 (Woman) You hear: (A) Siempre quise ser florista. (Man) Buenas tardes. After you hear the four choices. As you listen. They will not be spoken. (C). señor? Tenemos unas ofertas especiales hoy. followed by four choices designated (A). no tengo cambio. Salga usted ahora mismo. and (D). you will see printed in your test book one or more questions with four possible answers. Entonces. you will hear four sentences designated (A). (B). For each selection. They will not be printed in your test book. es diferente. es muy simpática. sí. look at the picture in your test book and select the choice that best reflects what you see in the picture or what someone in the picture might say. (B) Sólo hay una persona haciendo cola.

You hear: [Selección número 2 ANSWERS The estimated difficulty level. with 1 the easiest and 5 the most difficult. Un concierto. 12. ¿Qué programa presentan el domingo? (A) (B) (C) (D) Una comedia. el pronóstico del tiempo. D (1) D (3) D (5) C (3) 5.] (12 seconds) (Narrator) You read: 5. Un ballet. C (3) D (5) Listening Questions 1. Ahora contesten la pregunta 6. 2. 4. 7. Viento. Para mañana se anuncian fuertes aguaceros en la zona de la costa. Para la próxima semana. Temperatura máxima de 25 grados centígrados. (Narrator) (Man) Y ahora. C (2) B (4) SAT Subject Tests 87 . Selección número 2 6. 6. 2. Leve mejora a partir del sábado. C (3) A (3) B (2) C (2) 13. 11. Para el sábado. on a scale of 1 to 5. 8. D (2) C (3) 3. ¿Para cuándo quedan entradas? (A) (B) (C) (D) Para la tarde. Posibilidad de inundaciones en algunas áreas. is in parentheses. B (2) D (3) A (3) A (3) 9. Reading Questions 1. 4. 14. ¿Qué se anuncia para el día siguiente? (A) (B) (C) (D) Sol. Lluvia. Frío. A (3) C (2) 5. 10. 6. Una ópera.You read: Selección número 1 4. 3. Para el domingo.

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