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38209891-220-701Final

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Exam(s): Final Exam Name: A+ Essentials Total Number of Weekly Questions: 275

++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20400010 Q: Which of the following socket types utilizes a zero insertion force (ZIF) connector Answer 1: 478 Answer 2: 775 Answer 3: 959 Answer 4: Slot A Correct Answer: 1 Explanation: Socket 478 is 478 contact CPU ZIF socket used for Intel's Pentium 4 and Celeron series CPUs. Socket 478 was phased out with the launch of LGA 775

Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide, Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) Chapter 5 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20400020 Q: Which of the following allows a secure connection between two points? Answer 1: HTTP Answer 2: VPN Answer 3: FTP Answer 4: WAN Correct Answer: 2 Explanation: A virtual private network (VPN) is a computer network that is implemented in an additional software layer (overlay) on top of an existing larger network for the purpose of creating a private scope of computer communications or providing a secure extension of a private network into an insecure network such as the Internet. The links between nodes of a virtual private network are formed over logical connections or virtual circuits between hosts of the larger network. The Link Layer protocols of the virtual network are said to be tunneled through the underlying transport network. One common application is to secure communications through the public Internet, but a VPN does not need to have explicit security features such as authentication or traffic encryption. For example, VPNs can also be used to separate the traffic of different user communities over an underlying network with strong security features, or to provide access to a network via customized or private routing mechanisms

Questions
Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide, Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) Chapter 25, 26 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20400030 Q: Which of the following BEST describes virtual memory ? Answer 1: Flash memory used to hold temporary files before deletion. Answer 2: Data written to a disk located in a paging file that would not fit into the system¶s RAM. Answer 3: The maximum amount of memory a given system can potentially have. Answer 4: A portion of physical RAM that is mirrored to the hard drive for redundancy. Correct Answer: 2 Explanation: Virtual memory is a computer system technique which gives an application program the impression that it has contiguous working memory (an address space), while in fact it may be physically fragmented and may even overflow on to disk storage. Systems that use this technique make programming of large applications easier and use real physical memory (e.g. RAM) more efficiently than those without virtual memory. Virtual memory differs significantly from memory virtualization in that virtual memory allows resources to be virtualized as memory for a specific system, as opposed to a large pool of memory being virtualized as smaller pools for many different systems

Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide, Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) Chapter 6 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20400040 Q: A technician is asked to add a PCMCIA bus card to a laptop that will allow the laptop high-speed wireless capability. Which of the following provides the BEST solution? Answer 1: 16-bit card Answer 2: 32-bit card Answer 3: 128-bit card Answer 4: 256-bit card Correct Answer: 2 Explanation: CardBus are PCMCIA 5.0 or later (JEIDA 4.2 or later) 32-bit PCMCIA devices, introduced in 1995 and present in laptops from late 1997 onward. CardBus is effectively a 32-bit, 33 MHz PCI bus in the PC Card form factor. CardBus supports bus mastering, which allows a controller on the bus to talk to other devices or memory without going through the CPU. Many chipsets, such as those that support Wi-Fi, are available for both PCI and CardBus

Questions
Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide, Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) Chapter 21 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20400050 Q: Which of the following has the HIGHEST cost of implementation in a small office home office (SOHO) environment? Answer 1: DSL Answer 2: Broadband Answer 3: Satellite Answer 4: Fiber Correct Answer: 4 Explanation: In short distance and relatively low bandwidth applications, electrical transmission is often preferred over Fiber Optic Cable because of its: Lower material cost, where large quantities are not required , Lower cost of transmitters and receivers. Capability to carry electrical power as well as signals (in specially-designed cables). Ease of operating transducers in linear mode. Optical Fibers are more difficult and expensive to splice.

Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide, Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) Chapter 23 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20400060 Q: Which of the following is a true statement regarding optical drives and backward compatibility? Answer 1: DVD drives can read Blu-Ray media, DVD media, but not CD media. Answer 2: Blue-Ray drives can read Blue-Ray media, DVD media, and CD media. Answer 3: Blu-Ray drives can read Blu-Ray media, DVD media, but not CD media. Answer 4: DVD drives can read Blu-Ray media, DVD media, and CD media. Correct Answer: 2 Explanation: Blu-ray Disc (BD), sometimes called "Blu-ray", is an optical disc storage medium designed to supersede the standard DVD format. Its main uses are for storing high-definition video, PlayStation 3 video games, and other data, with up to 25 GB per single layered, and 50 GB per dual layered disc. The disc has the same physical dimensions as standard DVDs and CDs.

Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide, Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) Chapter 11 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++

leaving 8 bits for host identification. an error message.0 to 192.255.102. and a message of its own. Upon receiving the request. Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) Chapter 23 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20400090 Q: Which of the following BEST describes how an impact printer works? . Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide. The default network portions for Class C networks is the first 24 bits. Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) Chapter 23 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20400080 Q: Which of the following is a Class C address? Answer 1: 65.1.Class C networks are still available.120 Answer 2: 192. An HTTP client initiates a request. or some other information.097. but each network can have a maximum of only 254 hosts. see List of TCP and UDP port numbers).3.1.152 networks. Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide.168.Questions QID: 20400070 Q: Which of the following protocols uses port 80? Answer 1: SMTP Answer 2: HTTP Answer 3: HTTPS Answer 4: FTP Correct Answer: 2 Explanation: An HTTP session is a sequence of network request-response transactions. It establishes a Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) connection to a particular port on a host (typically port 80. and the remaining 21 bits are used by IANA to define 2.168.132 Answer 4: 134.28.0. the server sends back a status line. The 3 high-order bits are always binary 110. the body of which is perhaps the requested resource.1 200 OK".120 Correct Answer: 2 Explanation: Class C was designed for smaller networks.32. Examples of Class C networks are the 256 private networks ranging from 192.0.1 Answer 3: 125.168. An HTTP server listening on that port waits for a client's request message.1. such as "HTTP/1.

254.15 Correct Answer: 1 Explanation: The technique is called Link-Local address assignment in RFC 3927.168. either directly or through small levers (pawls).15 Answer 2: 10. Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) . Answer 3: Heat from the printhead melts the ink onto the paper.1.16. Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide. Answer 4: Toner sticks to photoconductive areas on a drum. Answer 2: Small wires strike and transfer ink from a ribbon. Correct Answer: 2 Explanation: Each dot is produced by a tiny metal rod.0.Questions Answer 1: Heat from the printhead boils a water-based ink. However.0.25 Answer 3: 172. which is driven forward by the power of a tiny electromagnet or solenoid. Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide. Microsoft refers to this as Automatic Private IP Addressing (APIPA) or Internet Protocol Automatic Configuration (IPAC) (supported since at least Windows 98 .15 Answer 4: 192. Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) . In the absence of a DHCP server. Chapter 22 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20400100 Q: Which of the following addresses would be assigned by APIPA? Answer 1: 169.0. Chapter 23 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20400110 Q: Which of the following is used to control access to a broadcasted wireless network based on a user supplied key? Answer 1: NAT Answer 2: WEP Answer 3: SSID Answer 4: MAC Correct Answer: 2 Explanation: . network clients get issued an APIPA Address by the Operating System to participate in the local workgroup. also called a "wire" or "pin".0.

Answer 3: Use technical jargon. Chapter 23. and acronyms. When introduced in 1997. Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) . 24 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20400120 Q: A technician is informing a customer about the finding of any specific computer problem. Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide. Chapter 24. Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) .Questions Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP) is a deprecated algorithm to secure IEEE 802. Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) . and a 24 bit IV.11 wireless networks. (1) Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide. Answer 4: Use the proper acronyms Correct Answer: 1 Explanation: Use proper language and avoid using jargon. 26 . Put yourself in the position of someone not in the field and explain what is going on by using words they can relate to. Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide. abbreviations. Chapter 27 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20400130 Q: How many characters are used in a 128-bit WEP encryption key? Answer 1: 10 Answer 2: 12 Answer 3: 26 Answer 4: 28 Correct Answer: 3 Explanation: The 128 bit WEP key is a higher level of encryption (compared to 64 bit WEP). and outsiders feel lost when they start hearing it. It uses a 104 bit (26 Hex Character) "secret key". Every field has its own language. Wireless networks broadcast messages using radio and are thus more susceptible to eavesdropping than wired networks. Answer 2: Use email so that everything is in writing. Which of the following is the BEST approach to tell the customer what is going on? Answer 1: Use non-technical terms.[1] WEP was intended to provide confidentiality comparable to that of a traditional wired network.

4GHz wireless access point that drops connections. This can cause a significant decrease in speed. 802. Chapter 23 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20400160 Q: Which of the following is the purpose of the voltage selector switch? . and some more complicated. the same frequency at which Wi-Fi standards 802.11n operate.11b. Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide. The diodes are InGaN (Indium Gallium Nitride) lasers that produce 405nm photons directly. that is. respectively. without frequency doubling or other nonlinear optical mechanisms. Conventional DVDs and CDs use red and near-infrared lasers. Which of the following would MOST likely cause the connection drops? Answer 1: The access point is next to a speaker Answer 2: Electrostatic Discharge (ESD) Answer 3: Cordless phones Answer 4: Incandescent lighting Correct Answer: 3 Explanation: Many cordless telephones and baby monitors in the United States and Canada use the 2. or sometimes the total blocking of the Wi-Fi signal when a conversation on the phone takes place.11g and 802. to read and write data. at 650 nm and 780 nm. Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) .Questions ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20400140 Q: Which of the following types of media is considered optical? Answer 1: Floppy Answer 2: Blu-Ray Answer 3: Biometric device Answer 4: Tape Correct Answer: 2 Explanation: Blu-ray Disc uses a "blue" (technically violet) laser. operating at a wavelength of 405 nm.4 GHz frequency. Chapter 11 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20400150 Q: A technician is called in to repair a 2. There are several ways to avoid this though. some simple. Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) . Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide.

your best bet is to plug your laser printer in separately and allow it to lose power if the lights go out.+5VBs and +3. Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide. about once every hour or two (depending on the model). The first generation of computers power supplies were linear devices.+5V.Questions Answer 1: To allow the power supply to operate at different voltages Answer 2: To change the voltage coming from the wall Answer 3: To allow alternating current to be used instead of direct current Answer 4: To change the output voltage to meet the needs of the motherboard Correct Answer: 1 Explanation: A modern computer power supply is a switched-mode supply designed to convert 110-240 V AC power from the mains supply. portable heater and Vacuum cleaners omit high power surge and aren't meant to be powered by UPSes. and weight became important. Chapter 2. switched mode supplies are almost universal. 3. 17 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20400180 Q: A technician is on a service call and notices that a friend is calling. 6 Explanation: Laser printers. and in fact might be severely damaged by it. many printers turn on a very high-wattage lamp called the "fuser" whose purpose is to melt toner onto the paper. Which of the following is the BEST course of action? . 10 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20400170 Q: Which of the following should be plugged into a UPS located at a user¶s desk? (Select THREE). to several output both positive (and historically negative) DC voltages in the range + 12V. A UPS can't handle the sudden power surge. Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) . Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) . Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide. in fact.3V. Chapter 2. Answer 1: Laser Printer Answer 2: Monitor Answer 3: Laptop AC Adapter Answer 4: Portable Heater Answer 5: Vacuum Cleaner Answer 6: Computer Correct Answer: 2.-12V. So. but as cost became a driving factor.

Answer 3: The hard drive is faulty and needs to be replaced. Correct Answer: 2 Explanation: . then NTLDR runs ntdetect. Answer 4: The system does not have enough free hard drive space. Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) .chk which can be found on Microsoft support Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide. which gathers information about the computer's hardware. Correct Answer: 2 Explanation: Personal calls take up valuable time that should be devoted to completing job assignments on a timely basis.com.exe Answer 2: Ntldr Answer 3: Ntbootdd.Questions Answer 1: Ask the customer for permission before answering the call. Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide.sys Answer 4: Hal. Answer 2: Ignore the call and call back afterwards. Chapter 27 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20400190 Q: Which of the following boot process files communicates hardware changes to the Windows XP operating system? Answer 1: Smss. Answer 2: The automatically restart feature in System Failure is on. Answer 3: Answer the call and then resume work.dll Correct Answer: 4 Explanation: If an NT-based OS is selected. Chapter 17 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20400200 Q: A user reports that after a stop error appeared the PC started to reboot in a continuous loop. Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) . (If ntdetect hangs during hardware detection there is a debug version called ntdetect. Answer 4: Step outside and answer the call. Which of the following is MOST likely the cause of the problem? Answer 1: The system cannot connect to the network. It also causes distraction for you and the customer.

. trojan horses. unauthorized logins and access to sensitive files. Chapter 23 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20400220 Q: Which of the following best summarizes computer intrusion detection? Answer 1: An alert at logon when an unknown user has tried to logon Answer 2: An alert when the computer case has been opened Answer 3: A set of firewalls and anti-virus programs protecting the computer Answer 4: A motion sensitive web cam recording the room Explanation: An intrusion detection system is used to detect several types of malicious behaviors that can compromise the security and trust of a computer system. Thus. Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) . Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide. Fiber optics are immune to this EMI since signals are transmitted as light instead of current. data-driven attacks on applications. Magnetic field lines generate an electrical current as they cut across conductors. since current does cut across the conductor. host-based attacks such as privilege escalation. and worms). This includes network attacks against vulnerable services. Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) .Questions In Startup and Recovery console under System failure select Automatically restart. Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide. Chapter 17 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20400210 Q: Which of the following cable types is LEAST affected by electromagnetic interference (EMI)? Answer 1: Coaxial Answer 2: UTP Answer 3: Plenum Answer 4: Fiber Correct Answer: 4 Explanation: Electromagnetic Interference is a common type of noise that originates with one of the basic properties of electromagnetism. and malware (viruses. they can carry signals through places where EMI would block transmission. The flow of electrons in a conductor generates a magnetic field that changes with the current flow. Electromagnetic Interference does occur in coaxial cables.

9 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20400240 Q: A Windows XP computer does not load all of the services required when it is booted normally. Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide. The moving air increases the rate at which the heat sink can exchange heat with the ambient air.Questions Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide. 24 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20400230 Q: Which of the following is BEST used to cool down the CPU? Answer 1: Case fan Answer 2: Heat sink Answer 3: Power supply Answer 4: Decreased RAM Correct Answer: 2 Explanation: Active heat sink cooling uses the same principle as passive cooling . Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) . Chapter 15 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20400250 . Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) .ini file. Chapter 16. the MSCONFIG startup list is one place to look. Active heat sinks are the primary method of cooling a modern processor or graphics card. you can most likely safely uncheck them so that Windows doesn't try to run the program that doesn't exist any more Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide. 17. Correct Answer: 2 Explanation: If you're seeing errors on startup relating to a program or directory not being found. Answer 2: MSCONFIG was used to disable the computer services.ini file. Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) . with the addition of a fan that is directed to blow over or through the heat sink. Chapter 5. Answer 4: MSCONFIG was used to enable the computer services. If any of the startup entries reference programs or service that you no longer have. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the issue? Answer 1: MSCONFIG was used to execute the win. Answer 3: MSCONFIG was used to execute the system.

and the computer will no longer boot. Windows Update. For some business locations. Which of the following cable types would be used in a 10Base T network? Answer 1: UTP Answer 2: ThinNet Answer 3: Fiber Answer 4: Coaxial Correct Answer: 1 Explanation: Unshielded Twisted Pair is the ordinary copper wire that connects home and many business computers to the telephone company. By reverting back to the Last Known Good Configuration you will restore the settings so that they point back to the old driver. or a driver or you accidentally removed or modified an important system file that is causing the system not to function properly. To reduce crosstalk or electromagnetic induction between pairs of wires. Use Last Known Good Configuration if: The last time you started Windows you didn¶t have any issues. twisted pair is enclosed in a shield that functions as a ground. Chapter 17 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20400260 Q: 26. By reverting back to the Last Known Good Configuration you will restore the settings back to when the driver was still enabled Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide. a computer is getting stop errors. but the stop errors continue. two insulated copper wires are twisted around each other. Each signal on twisted pair requires both wires. twisted pair is sometimes installed in two or more pairs. You installed a new device driver. Which of the following would get the computer back to the operational state it was before the install? Answer 1: Debugging Mode Answer 2: Last known Good Configuration Answer 3: Safe Mode Answer 4: Systems Restore Correct Answer: 4 Explanation: Use System Restore if: Problems started to occur after you installed an application. all within a single cable. Since some telephone sets or desktop locations require multiple connections. You disable a driver that turns out to be more critical to the operation of Windows. The technician has uninstalled the program.Questions Q: After installing a program. restarted Windows. Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) . .

Chapter 23 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20400290 Q: Aero is a feature of which operating system? . Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) .Questions Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide. Answer 4: Ask several technicians for help in lift the CRT monitors and use a cart for transporting them. The storage room is on the other side of the building. Correct Answer: 4 Explanation: Under ideal conditions.11b Answer 2: 802.11b Wi-Fi wireless connection is 11 Mbps. Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) .11g Answer 4: 802. Which of the following safety measures should the technician take? Answer 1: Wear a back brace when lifting and carrying the CRTs to the storage room. should not be lifted alone. this level of performance is never realized in practice due to network overhead and other factors Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide. Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) . However. Chapter 2 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20400280 Q: Which of the following IEEE 802.11 standards operates at a maximum speed of 11Mbps? Answer 1: 802. Answer 2: Wear anti-static wrist straps to prevent ESD in the new monitors. Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide.11a Correct Answer: 1 Explanation: The theoretical bandwidth of an 802. as a result. Answer 3: Recycle the monitors after removing the capacitors for use in other monitors.11n Answer 3: 802. Chapter 23 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20400270 Q: A technician is replacing fifteen 21" CRTs with 19" LCDs. 90% of males and 75% of females can safely lift up to 51 lbs as long as safe lifting practices are followed. The average 21". 19" computer monitor weighs over 51 lbs and.

Plastic snap in units push through the main board and slide into Case attachment slots. live thumbnails. Aero also encompasses a set of user interface design guidelines for Microsoft Windows. 17 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20400300 Q: Which of the following components prevents a motherboard from making electrical contact with the case it is in? Answer 1: Riser cards Answer 2: Standoffs Answer 3: Screws Answer 4: Daughterboard Correct Answer: 2 Explanation: Motherboard Plastic standoffs are used to separate the main circuit board from the case. This part is the Most Common Variety Plastic Standoff used and originated on the IBM AT Systems. Chapter 9 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20400310 Q: A technician is trying to change the boot order on a laptop in order to install Windows Vista from a DVD. animations and eye candy.Questions Answer 1: Windows Vista Basic Answer 2: Windows XP Home Answer 3: Windows XP Media Center Answer 4: Windows Vista Ultimate Correct Answer: 4 Explanation: Windows Aero is the graphical user interface and the default theme in Windows Vista Ultimate and Windows 7 .[1] Intended to be a cleaner. more powerful. live icons. It is also available in Windows Server 2008. Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide. Reflective and Open. Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) . Where would be the proper place to configure this? Answer 1: PXE Boot Rom . Sometimes called Motherboard Spacers. operating systems released by Microsoft. more efficient and more aesthetically pleasing user interface than the previously used theme (Luna). Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide. Chapter 14. Energetic. 2 of the Cut off Standoffs used to keep board off Mounting Plate. Kit Includes 4 of Regular Standoffs used for holes on MB Case Mounting Plate. Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) . Its name is a backronym for Authentic. it includes new translucency.

typing in the program name. then Run.Questions Answer 2: BOOT. Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) . or something similar and select it. Change this setting to have either the CD-ROM or Floppy drive as first in the list. MSCONFIG and REGEDIT each can be launched by clicking Start. which of the following can the technician use to stop a program from loading at startup? (Select TWO). Different computers have different ways to enter the BIOS (setup). Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide. First Boot Device. Boot Sequence. By knowing where these are located. Chapter 14 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20400330 Q: Which of the following Windows operating systems has a different user folder path than the rest? Answer 1: Windows XP Media Center Edition . and clicking OK.INI file Answer 3: BIOS Answer 4: Hard Disk MBR Correct Answer: 3 Explanation: Step 1. How to edit and control startup program launching is different in various versions of Windows. You need to change the order of these devices so WipeDrive will run. Chapter 14 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20400320 Q: In Windows XP. Answer 1: Event Viewer Answer 2: Registry Answer 3: Performance Monitor Answer 4: MSCONFIG Answer 5: Net stop Correct Answer: 2. Turn on your computer and then look on the screen for some text that says something similar to "Press µX¶ to Enter Startup". Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) . The screen will show a list of devices that your computer can boot from. where X is generally the F2 key or the DEL key. Step 3. Step 2. 4 Explanation: A program can be loaded at startup from various places. Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide. you have more direct control over them. Boot Management. Look for a setting that says Boot Order.

xml files. ScanState creates an intermediate store that contains the user files and settings from the source computer.1 also has three default migration rule (.0. in almost all cases. 14 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20400340 Q: A technician needs to provide a customer with a new computer running Windows Vista. Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide. which you can modify.xml files and you can also create customized .1 migrates user files and settings during deployments of Microsoft Windows XP and Windows Vista. copy the user¶s profile from the old system to the new system.xml) files named MigApp. Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) . Also. each devoted to a different type of data. LoadState restores these files and settings to the destination computer. USMT 3. Each user account has its own profile folder here. Answer 2: From Windows Explorer.xml. which is located in the root of the system drive (usually C:). The entire migration process is controlled by the .0. USMT 3. This tool includes two command-line tools named ScanState and LoadState. Chapter 4. For starters.xml.1 is intended for administrators who are performing automated deployments. cache website credentials and desktop preferences.xml files on the command line.0. Depending on what you want to migrate. you should modify the migration . You can use USMT to perform unattended migrations and to migrate files and settings for computers with multiple users. MigUser. When using USMT for automated migration. you can specify all or none of the default . Answer 4: In the advanced settings of system properties go to the user profile settings and copy the customer¶s profile to the new system.xml. and import it to the new system. with USMT you have the ability to encrypt and compress the store.xml files for your unique situation. . Which of the following can the technician do to ensure all settings are moved to the new computer? Answer 1: Use the USMT to export the data from the old system. Answer 3: Use regedit to export the user data to the new system. the Documents and Settings folder is gone. Correct Answer: 1 Explanation: Microsoft® Windows® User State Migration Tool (USMT) version 3.xml rules.Questions Answer 2: Windows XP Home Answer 3: Windows Vista Ultimate Answer 4: Windows 2000 Professional Correct Answer: 3 Explanation: Windows Vista makes a few fundamental changes in the default folders used to store personal data. and MigSys. The customer has required all personal information be migrated to the new computer including favorites. and logic that is built into the tool. replaced by the Users folder. You can alter the default . which contains 11 folders.

Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) .4GB/s data transfer rates capability. Correct Answer: 4 Explanation: Anytime a Back-UPS determines that the input power is not safe for your computer equipment. 865G. Chapter 14 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20400350 Q: A user calls and reports that after the cleaning crew left they started hearing beeping from under their desk. Intel designed the 875P. high resolution video editing and playback in addition to other multi application and multitasking applications . However. With up to 6. Answer 4: The UPS is disconnected from the wall. thus preventing the UPS from constantly operating on battery power. It may be possible to adjust your Back UPS so that it will accept a lower input voltage. Which of the following is MOST likely the cause? Answer 1: A new security update is available for download. Answer 3: The speaker wires were disconnected while cleaning. Dual Channel DDR400 memory architecture balances the bandwidth capability of Intel Pentium 4 with 800 MHz FSB. The unit will beep once every 5 seconds for as long as it remains on battery. occasional transfers to battery should not be a matter for concern and should be regarded as normal operation. Answer 2: The default printer is out of paper or offline. it is advisable to raise the issue with your local utility company. and 865PE chipsets to take full advantage of this new memory architecture by developing a dual channel memory interface on MCH that is optimized to be used by Pentium 800MHz FSB. Chapter 2. The result is a balanced platform that is optimizes for memory demanding applications such as 3D graphics in advanced games. If your utility voltage is chronically low. reliable power to your sensitive equipment Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide. 17 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20400360 Q: Which of the following memory modules has the HIGHEST transfer rate? Answer 1: PC2100 Answer 2: DDR333 Answer 3: DDR400 Answer 4: PC2700 Correct Answer: 3 Explanation: Dual Channel DDR400 is the highest performing PC platform memory architecture available in the market today.Questions Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide. 3D modeling. Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) . The UPS is just trying to provide safe. it will transfer to battery power and the UPS will begin to beep.

Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) . interpretation has become a necessity for companies that need or desire to transcend the language barriers between them and their limited English-speaking customers. Correct Answer: 3 Explanation: Explanation: Dual-processor (DP) systems are those that contains two separate physical computer processors in the same chassis. Answer 2: Ask to get an interpreter to assist in the language barrier. Answer 3: two separate processing units. Answer 3: Restate the issues to the customer for validation. Answer 2: double the number of pins.Questions Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide. both AMD and Intel's dual-core flagships are 64-bit. . Chapter 6 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20400370 Q: A dual core CPU has: Answer 1: has two error correcting and checking units. the two identical processors are manufactured so they reside side-by-side on the same die. Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) . Chapter 5 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20400380 Q: A technician goes to a client site where there are some language barrier issues. Answer 4: Inform the client the service must be rescheduled with a different technician. an integrated circuit (IC) contains two complete computer processors. each with its own path to the system front-side bus. Usually. so are two hands. In a dual-core configuration. Correct Answer: 3 Explanation: Explanation: In today¶s fast paced business environment. Answer 4: twice the amount of cache. Adding to this favorable scenario. In dual-processor systems. the two processors can either be located on the same motherboard or on separate boards. Just as two heads are better than one. Now when one is executing the other can be accessing the system bus or executing its own code. Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide. Which of the following is the BEST method to overcome the issues at hand? Answer 1: Get a language to language conversion dictionary to help understand what is being said. In a dual core processor each core handles incoming data strings simultaneously to improve efficiency. Multi-core is somewhat of an expansion to dual-core technology and allows for more than two separate processors.

Chapter 27 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20400390 Q: An end user reports that they hear a clicking noise that becomes more frequent when they save files. the higher the odds are your fans will fail and your system will overheat and shut down. Correct Answer: 3 Explanation: Explanation: You should dust your computer every three to six weeks. It has been in service for four years and is located in a copier room. you are making sure your computer stays healthy over time. Answer 2: Power supply on the computer is going bad. The more dust that builds up. if possible. The "click of death" can also be an informal warning system before the data on a data drive is lost. Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) . Chapter 17 .Questions Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide. Which of the following is MOST likely causing the shutdown issues? Answer 1: Power supply to the room is not great enough for both the copy machine and the computer. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the noise? Answer 1: Power supply warming or cooling Answer 2: Error correcting memory making data adjustments Answer 3: Hard drive is failing Answer 4: System fan is rubbing against the fan¶s housing Correct Answer: 3 Explanation: Click of death is a term that became common in the late 1990s referring to the clicking sound in disk storage systems that signals the device has failed. Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) . Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide. Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide. Chapter 11 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20400400 Q: A technician is working on a computer with periodic shutdown problems. Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) . By avoiding dust build-up. Answer 3: Improper ventilation from dust buildup inside the computer. often catastrophically. Taking the time to dust is one of the easiest ways to ensure the longevity of your system. Answer 4: Electromagnetic interference due to the copy machine in the room.

The technician then explained to the customer the importance of keeping a clean area around their computer. Maybe. Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide. to ensure that the keyboard is still functioning. Answer 2: Document the issue including findings. But the key is whether you can remember what you did. Correct Answer: 2 Explanation: Lots of people can fix problems. Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) . Answer 4: Follow up with the customer at a later date. Chapter 17 . Answer 3: Report the incident to the customer¶s manager. Chapter 23 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20400420 Q: A technician has replaced a failed keyboard that was full of debris. actions taken and the outcome. Always document your work so that you or someone else can learn from that experience. Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) . Can one of your co-workers remember something you did to fix the same problem on that machine a month ago? Unlikely. Good documentation of past troubleshooting can save hours of stress in the future. When you fixed a problem a month ago. Which of the following should be the technician¶s NEXT troubleshooting step? Answer 1: Ask another technician to verify that the findings are correct.Questions ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20400410 Q: Which of the following commands will automatically reconnect a network drive as F: after a reboot in Windows XP? Answer 1: net use \\ComputerName\ShareName/persistent:NO :F Answer 2: net use F: \\ComputerName\ShareName/persistent:NO Answer 3: net use \\ComputerName\ShareName/persistent:YES :F Answer 4: net use F: \\ComputerName\ShareName/persistent :YES Correct Answer: 4 Explanation: Make all future connections persistent (auto-reconnect at login) NET USE /Persistent:Yes or NET USE /P:Yes Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide.

Answer 3: Apply the latest service pack. 66% of internet users have suffered from serious data loss.255.0. The first is to restore a state following a disaster (called disaster recovery). Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) .255.0 Answer 4: 255. Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide. Answer 2: Run a backup routine." Backups are useful primarily for two purposes.255. Correct Answer: 2 Explanation: A backup or the process of backing up refer to making copies of data so that these additional copies may be used to restore the original after a data loss event. Data loss is also very common.0 Correct Answer: 3 Explanation: The Class A networking address scheme is designed for the government and large institutions needing a great deal of unique nodes. Chapter 11. The second is to restore small numbers of files after they have been accidentally deleted or corrupted. it can contain approximately 17 million unique nodes. Before the technician performs diagnostics which of the following actions should the technician take? Answer 1: Run a power supply test.0. Chapter 23 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20400440 Q: A system is malfunctioning and the technician has asked the user about any recent changes to the system. These additional copies are typically called "backups. Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) . Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide. 17 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20400450 Q: Which of the following BEST describes a worm? .Questions ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20400430 Q: Which of the following below is a valid default subnet mask for a Class A network? Answer 1: 255. Answer 4: Boot into Safe Mode.1 Answer 3: 255.0 Answer 2: 255.0.255. which can make subnetting such a network a nightmare.0. Although the Class A network has only 254 unique network addresses.

you need to make every attempt to be there at that time. 24 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20400460 Q: A technician is late getting to a service call first thing in the morning. it does not need to attach itself to an existing program. Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) . That false hope can lead to anger when you arrive late and appear not to be taking her problem seriously. explain the reasoning to the client. Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide. Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide. Which of the following is the BEST course of action to take care of the appointments during that day? Answer 1: Skip the first appointment. Unlike a virus. Answer 3: Contact the customers and inform them of the change in schedule and give an appropriate time frame to make the service calls. It uses a network to send copies of itself to other nodes (computers on the network) and it may do so without any user intervention. if only by consuming bandwidth. Answer 4: Go to the first scheduled appointment late. Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) .Questions Answer 1: Malicious software that is self-replicating and self-propagating Answer 2: Malicious software that changes the user¶s home page Answer 3: Malicious software attached to another piece of software Answer 4: Malicious software that monitors Internet surfing habits Correct Answer: 1 Explanation: A computer worm is a self-replicating computer program.m. continue on with the rest of the day as scheduled and then try to fit in the skipped customer at the end of the day. you have given her false hope that the problem will be solved by a set time. Answer 2: Call the customers scheduled that day and reschedule all the appointments to different days. Chapter 16. Correct Answer: 3 Explanation: Punctuality is important and should be a part of your planning process before you ever arrive at the site: If you tell the customer you will be there at 10:30 a. whereas viruses almost always corrupt or devour files on a targeted computer.. and make the repairs as quick as possible to try to catch up on the schedule. Chapter 27 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20400470 . Worms almost always cause at least some harm to the network. If you arrive late. Punctuality continues to be important throughout the service call and does not end with your arrival.

more recently. S-Video. all comply with one of the popular host bus standards including PCI. the emerging HDMI standard. Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) . In practice. newer PCI Express (PCIe) or AGP bus interfaces. As a class. you won't get one. Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) . 20 . The first one can come from the computer if you don't send an image. the cards are used to capture baseband analog composite video. or could be a high voltage connection problem. one of these is missing. The third would be a broken corona wire. Some specialized cards support digital video via digital video delivery standards including Serial Digital Interface (SDI) and. Answer 2: The pick-up roller is defective. in models equipped with tuners. and. Which of the following is the solution? Answer 1: The fuser unit is defective. Models from many manufacturers are available.Questions Q: A customer reports that a printer is printing blank pages. More good news. Chapter 17. No image on the drum No toner on the image No charge to pull the image onto the paper.. The second one would come from being out of toner or the most common blank page you didn't pull the strip from the toner cartridge. RF modulated video. Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide. Answer 3: The toner cartridge is defective. Answer 4: The feed roller is defective. These models often support both standard definition (SD) and high definition (HD) variants. a blank page is almost always a sign of a toner cartridge problem. Chapter 9. via various operating systems. to software applications that further process the video for specific purposes. Correct Answer: 3 Explanation: A blank page is proof that the printer's mechanical mechanisms work. These cards typically include one or more software drivers to expose the cards' features. Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide. so there's some good news. It also can happen if the laser scanner is bad. To get a blank page.22 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20400480 Q: Which of the following audio/video devices have the ability to decode NTSC/PAL signals from an external source? Answer 1: TV tuner card Answer 2: Graphics card Answer 3: Video capture card Answer 4: Sound card Correct Answer: 3 Explanation: Video capture cards are a class of video capture devices designed to plug directly into expansion slots in personal computers and servers.

PlayStation 3 video games. Put yourself in the position of someone not in the field and explain what is going on by using words they can relate to. Chapter 12 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20400500 Q: A technician is informing a customer about the finding of any specific computer problem. and 50 GB per dual layered disc. Answer 3: Use technical jargon. is an optical disc storage medium designed to supersede the standard DVD format. . Correct Answer: 1 Explanation: Use proper language and avoid using jargon. Which of the following is the BEST approach to tell the customer what is going on? Answer 1: Use non-technical terms. sometimes called "Blu-ray". The disc has the same physical dimensions as standard DVDs and CDs Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide. Every field has its own language. and other data. abbreviations. and acronyms. Chapter 27 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20400510 Q: Which of the following display connections are the MOST commonly used to connect an LCD monitor to a desktop? (Select TWO).Questions ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20400490 Q: Which of the following media types has the largest capacity? Answer 1: DVD-RW+ Answer 2: DVD-RWAnswer 3: Blue-Ray Answer 4: Dual-sided DVD Correct Answer: 3 Explanation: Blu-ray Disc (BD). Answer 4: Use the proper acronyms. Answer 2: Use email so that everything is in writing. Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide. Its main uses are for storing high-definition video. Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) . with up to 25 GB per single layered. and outsiders feel lost when they start hearing it. Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702).

Questions Answer 1: USB Answer 2: DVI Answer 3: CGA Answer 4: VGA Answer 5: S-Video Correct Answer: 2. its scope. and then click Windows Firewall. The user states that they do have Internet connectivity. click Start. if needed. Chapter 16. click Security Center. 4. 3. Answer 4: Check for any updates to the program. which can typically be transmitted farther and at higher quality than analog. click Control Panel. 4 Explanation: The term Video Graphics Array (VGA) refers specifically to the display hardware first introduced with the IBM PS/2 line of computers in 1987. Which of the following solutions will MOST likely to resolve the issue with the program? Answer 1: Add an exception to the firewall for the program. 2. Chapter 19 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20400520 Q: A user is running a program that is not successfully connecting to the network after upgrading the wireless network router. Answer 2: Check the Hardware Compatibility List to see if the program is not compatible with the OS.Click the Exceptions tab. a series of connectors known collectively as the Digital Visual (or Video) Interface (DVI) was developed for the technology of the same name.Click Add Program and specify the program (the application or service) from the list or using the Browse button and.[1] but through its widespread adoption has also come to mean either an analog computer display standard. Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide. Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide. While this resolution has been superseded in the personal computer market. Correct Answer: 1 Explanation: 1. it is becoming a popular resolution on mobile devices In an effort to return to digital video. 26 . Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) . Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) . Answer 3: Run the program as a local administrator. see Manually Configuring Windows Firewall in Windows XP Service Pack 2.From the Windows XP desktop. For information about specifying the scope.Click OK to save changes to the exception. the 15-pin D-subminiature VGA connector or the 640×480 resolution itself.

Partition based recovery systems are usually faster than their disc based counterparts since the data is directly on the hard drive and no disc swapping is needed. They can also be cheaper for the OEM because they do not need to ship recovery CDs with the computer.Questions ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20400530 Q: A technician notices that there is a second partition on the primary hard drive. thus restricting access to your computer. adding the price of creating them to the cost of the computer. Answer 4: A recovery partition put there by the manufacturer. as some OEM's are now utilizing hard drive partitions to store the recovery data. 24 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20400550 . Chapter 16. Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) . Correct Answer: 4 Explanation: Explanation: In recent years. Chapter 17 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20400540 Q: Which of the following would a technician go to setup a password that would be required prior to booting into the operating system? Answer 1: LDAP Answer 2: POST Answer 3: BIOS Answer 4: User Accounts Correct Answer: 3 Explanation: Your computers BIOS is the first program that is run when your computer starts. Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) . Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide. Answer 3: A potentially dangerous virus has been downloaded onto the system. Which of the following is the MOST likely explanation for this extra partition? Answer 1: Space reserved by the drive manufacturer for firmware. This partition is not assigned a drive letter and is not accessible from Windows. Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide. bundled recovery CD-ROMs have become less common. Answer 2: Space set aside by Windows for use by the virtual memory swap file. Accessing hard drive based system recovery is usually performed by pressing a specific key combination during or after the computer's POST. You can tell the BIOS to ask for a password when it starts.

gaming graphics. Which of the following should the technician do NEXT? . Answer 3: the speed and available bandwidth of Internet connections. because your computer's performance is limited by its slowest or least-powerful hardware component. Therefore. Chapter 17 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20400560 Q: A technician is unable to log into a users computer after installing new hardware. The technician removed the external power adapter and held the power button down for ten seconds but the problem still exists.Questions Q: The Windows Experience Index is used to determine: Answer 1: remaining hard disk storage space.9. and with subscores for each of five individual hardware components: processor. Correct Answer: 2 Explanation: Understanding the Windows Experience Index: WEI scores currently range from 1 to 5. Answer 2: a performance value of system components. Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide. graphics. Your computer is rated with an overall score. memory. Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) . you can use this feature only if you were able to start your computer successfully before you restore your computer by using the last known good configuration. The base score is determined from the lowest of the five subscores. Which of the following Advanced Startup options would BEST resolve this issue? Answer 1: Debugging Mode Answer 2: Active Directory Restore Mode Answer 3: Last Known Good Configuration Answer 4: Disable Automatic Restart Correct Answer: 3 Explanation: The Last Known Good Configuration feature uses information that is saved from the last time that you shut down your computer to restore registry settings and drivers. and primary hard disk. Answer 4: the reliability and speed of search indexing. called the base score. Chapter 14 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20400570 Q: A user reports that their laptop has frozen up and will not shut down or log off. Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide. Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) .

Questions Answer 1: Remove the CMOS battery. Correct Answer: 3 Explanation: Things like this happen. you may need to use a keyboard command to tell the laptop something is connected to its external output port. 21 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20400580 Q: A customer connects a projector to their laptop. Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide. Which of the following will the technician MOST likely have to do to start the installation? Answer 1: Press the F8 Key Answer 2: Press the F3 Key Answer 3: Press the F2 Key Answer 4: Press the F6 Key Correct Answer: 4 . Answer 2: Disconnect all external devices. then leave it out for a minute or so. Answer 4: Go into Device Manager and enable the projector. Chapter 19 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20400590 Q: A technician is installing Windows XP on a system that has a SATA HDD. Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide. the system will auto-select the projector on restart. Chapter 17. Which of the following could the technician do to send the display to the projector? Answer 1: Use appropriate function toggle key to switch display mode. and you have turned on the laptop only after everything else is connected and turned on. Answer 3: Remove the internal main battery. then the laptop should boot properly. Answer 2: Press F1 to shift display to the projector. so you can't just hard shutdown from the wall. Answer 4: Wait until the main battery is exhausted and then remove. the annoying thing about laptops are their battery. Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) . Correct Answer: 1 Explanation: If you are sure everything is connected correctly. but no display shows on the screen. If you can remove the battery. Answer 3: Reboot the computer. Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) . The projector is turned on.

Chapter 11. less flexible DE-9 connector. Correct Answer: 2 Explanation: . Answer 2: Connect the laptop to a monitor. (iii) the older. Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide. (ii) DDC2 pinouts.Since the system will take a few minutes loading drivers for the installation I would recommend tapping the F6 key several times when this screen first comes up. This way you can make sure it does not miss the SATA driver prompt screen when it has finished loading all the drivers. Chapter 19 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20400610 Q: A technician is troubleshooting a laptop. After pushing the power button on the laptop the technician can hear the hard drive is spinning and the operating system start. mini sub D15. Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) . Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) . and mini D15 connector). but there is no video. and (iv) the Mini-VGA used for laptop computers. of which there are four versions: (i) the original VGA15 pinout connector. 14 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20400600 Q: How many pins does a VGA Connector have? Answer 1: 9 Answer 2: 15 Answer 3: 25 Answer 4: 40 Correct Answer: 2 Explanation: A VGA connector (also RGB connector. Answer 4: Upgrade the memory. Which of the following is the NEXT step to troubleshoot the issue? Answer 1: Upgrade the video card. is a threerow 15-pin DE-15 connector. Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide. D-sub 15.Questions Explanation: Press the F6 key to install drivers as the Windows setup screen launches. Answer 3: Replace the LCD.

typewriters are like impact printers. Chapter 17. use some form of impact and an inked ribbon to make an imprint on the paper. Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) . Answer 2: Double click the Computer Management icon under Administrative Tools. Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) .Questions Plug in an external monitor that you know works. Answer 3: Click Start. The major difference is that the printer can accept input from a computer. ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20400620 Q: Which of the following printers use a carbon film or inked ribbon to print? Answer 1: Laser Answer 2: Ink jet Answer 3: Impact Answer 4: Thermal Correct Answer: 3 Explanation: Impact printers. as their name suggests. Chapter 17 . Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide. 2 Explanation: The Microsoft Management Console (MMC) is a component of Windows 2000 and later Windows NTbased operating systems that provides system administrators and advanced users with a flexible interface through which they may configure and monitor the system. Correct Answer: 1. type in Run and then type in regedit. Answer 1: Right click on My Computer and select Manage. Both use an inked ribbon and an impact head to make letters on the paper. Chapter 22 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20400630 Q: Which of the following will navigate to the Computer Management MMC Plug-in? (Select TWO). Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) . you need to press the function key and another key known as the LCD cutoff switch (often F8 or F4) to direct the video output to an external monitor. In a manner of speaking. Answer 4: Right click on the Start Menu and select Properties. Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide. On most laptops. Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide.

It will help you remember what you've already tried and what didn't work. Rights can be assigned to users based on group membership and individually. Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) . If the problem looks to be long and complex. you'll need to document what happened and how you fixed it. I suggest taking notes as you're trying to fix it. Answer 2: The technician does not have the necessary permissions. Answer 4: Call their manager and report the status of the issue. Which of the following is the MOST likely reason? Answer 1: The job must be deleted using the printers front panel. Answer 3: Further troubleshoot the defective drive to determine if the problem is covered by the warranty. When the technician tries to delete the job. Correct Answer: 2 Explanation: Once everything is working. Which of the following should the technician do NEXT? Answer 1: Run a full system backup.Questions ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20400640 Q: A technician has just replaced a users defective CD-ROM drive and tested that everything is working properly. Chapter 17 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20400650 Q: A user reports that print jobs are not printing. Answer 3: Once a job is submitted to the queue it cannot be removed. Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide. Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide. After looking at the print queue a technician determines that a print job needs to be deleted to resolve the issue. Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) . Answer 2: Document their findings and the actions taken. Answer 4: The user submitted the job as a priority. it will not delete. Correct Answer: 2 Explanation: By default. Chapter 17 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20400660 . the determination of NTFS permissions is based on the cumulative NTFS permissions for a user. the only time permissions do not accumulate is when the Deny permission is invoked.

Answer 4: Contact the vendor for an RMA. follow these steps: 1. Disconnect the device. Answer 2: Disable the device in Device Manager.Questions Q: A user reports that Monday morning one of the ink jet printers in the office has a problem with images smearing on the page. Just how quickly the ink actually dries depends on the charachteristics of the ink. or the driver might be incompatible or corrupted. as well as the paper. Chapter 22 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20400670 Q: After installing a new piece of hardware with the hardware CD. On the other hand. To determine whether this is true. This can result in a faded or dull appearance. . 2. Please contact the device manufacturer to obtain updated drivers for the device or to learn about any known hardware issues so that you can reinstall the device. The printer was working fine Friday. resulting in a neat. Answer 2: Spooler service needs to be restarted. Correct Answer: 3 Explanation: There are many reasons why you might have a hardware or software driver problem. Answer 3: Wrong type of paper is being used for this printer. Answer 4: The printer drivers need to be rolled back to a previous version. You might have installed some new hardware and not yet installed the necessary driver for that hardware. a user is reporting system crashes and performance loss. liquid ink should dry immediately as it sticks to the paper. Which of the following would be the FIRST step in resolving this issue? Answer 1: Try installing the device to a different port or slot. Answer 3: Download and install updated drivers for the device. Which of the following is MOST likely the issue with the smearing print? Answer 1: Too many pages are being sent to the printer at one time. there is a driver issue with the new hardware. Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide. Restart Windows If Windows starts successfully. crisp appearance that will not smudge when touched. Paper that absorbs ink readily might drink up too much ink from the page surface. Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) . Correct Answer: 3 Explanation: Print quality problems are often related to the characteristics of the paper being used. Ideally. glossy paper or paper that does not ink well might allow ink to smudge or smear through rollers or when touched. The paper tray was empty this morning so they re-filled the paper tray and checked the ink levels.

Answer 4: Determine if any other users are affected by the problem. Chapter 15 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20400690 Q: A user reports that their USB device has stopped working. Chapter 17 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20400680 Q: A home user reports they have purchased a new video game for their PC but have trouble running it. type dxdiag in the Open box. and then click OK. The most important question is. click Start. . Correct Answer: 1 Explanation: Identify recent changes. The technician wants to check the DirectX version installed on the PC to ensure that it is the most current. Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) . "What changed?" Problems don't usually come out of nowhere. A technician arrives and ensures that the users hardware and video card meet the minimum requirements of the game.exe for Microsoft Windows 2000 and Microsoft Windows XP is: C:\Windows\System32 To start the DirectX Diagnostic Tool. Answer 2: Determine how long before the user is due for an upgraded system. the user can give you vital information. Answer 3: Determine how long the user has had the problem. Was a new piece of hardware or software added? Did the user drop some equipment? Was there a power outage or a storm? These are the types of questions you can ask a user in trying to find out what is different. Which of the following troubleshooting techniques should be used NEXT to help the technician establish a theory of probable cause for the users new computer problem? Answer 1: Determine if changes have been made that could have caused the problem. The default installation folder for Dxdiag. Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide. Which of the following utilities should the technician run? Answer 1: regedit Answer 2: ipconfig Answer 3: msconfig Answer 4: dxdiag Correct Answer: 4 Explanation: The DirectX Diagnostic Tool is designed to help you troubleshoot DirectX-related issues. click Run.Questions Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide. Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) .

Once files are indexed. If not. Windows Vista. date. Which of the following would BEST assist their searches? Answer 1: Chkdsk Answer 2: Defrag Answer 3: Indexing Answer 4: Scandisk Correct Answer: 3 Explanation: Windows Vista/XP/2000 implement a feature called the Index Service to catalog and improve the search capabilities of your drive. mic inputs and FireWire ports to allow communication with your computer. asking whether you want the existing files in the folder to be indexed as well. Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) . Once you connect the recording devices to your computer and install software. and 2000 automatically reset this attribute on subfolders and files. . Chapter 27 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20400700 Q: A technician notices that a group of users are continuously searching their computers for the same files. XP. which of the following locations would provide access to adjust the input levels? Answer 1: Start>Settings>Control Panel>Sounds and Audio Devices>Audio Answer 2: Start>Settings>Control Panel>System>Hardware Answer 3: Start>Settings>Control Panel>Speech Answer 4: Start>Settings>Control Panel>Sounds and Audio Devices>Sounds Correct Answer: 1 Explanation: Windows XP operating systems allow you to record audio using recording devices such as audio interfaces and microphones. or other attributes.Questions Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide. you can search them more quickly by name. Setting the index option on a folder causes a prompt to appear. Accomplish this simple task using the Windows XP sound and devices console. Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) Chapter 17 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20400710 Q: To record audio using a microphone attached to a computer running Windows XP. only new files created in the directory are indexed. These recording devices are connected to USB ports. Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide. If you choose to do this. you can easily select which devices to assign recording lines to.

However. By default. Type dvdupgrd /detect and press Enter 4. Answer 4: Decoder software needs to be loaded. presence of a nine pin D-subminiature . no decoder is installed Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide. serial ports were commonly built with a 9-pin connector to save cost and space. If No decoders found is displayed. Answer 3: The sound card is not connected properly. Correct Answer: 4 Explanation: To play DVDs using the Windows Media Player. Which of the following is MOST likely the issue? Answer 1: The system does not have enough RAM installed. Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) Chapter 11 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20400730 Q: Which of the following is the MOST common form of a serial port? Answer 1: 9-pin D-shell Answer 2: RJ-45 Answer 3: 15-pin D-shell Answer 4: 6-pin Mini-DIN Correct Answer: 1 Explanation: A male DE9 connector on the back of an IBM-PC-compatible computer is typically a serial port connector. Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) Chapter 17 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20400720 Q: A technician installs a new DVD drive into a users computer. Answer 2: The drives device driver needs to be updated. To confirm if you have Windows XPcompatible DVD decoder software on your system: 1.Starting around the time of the introduction of the IBM PC-AT. you must have a DVD-ROM drive and either a software or hardware DVD decoder installed on your computer. Enter cmd in the Open box.Questions Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide. IBM introduced the DE9 connector for RS-232 on PCs with the Personal Computer AT in 1984. The drive can be used to read data disks but Windows Media Player cannot play back DVD movies from the new drive. A Windows dialog box will open with identifying information about the installed software. and click OK 3. Select Start > Run 2. Windows XP does not come with compatible DVD decoder software installed.

Answer 3: Provides addressing of memory beyond 4GB. since this connector was also used for video. Answer 1: Motherboard Answer 2: Fan Answer 3: Heatsink Answer 4: CPU Answer 5: Capacitors Correct Answer: 3. Answer 4: Provides use of PCIe X16 expansion slots. 4 Explanation: Thermal compound is a fluid substance. This physical memory is not addressable by 32-bit processors. Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) Chapter 9 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20400740 Q: Which of the following components should be in contact with thermal compound? (Select TWO). joysticks. which increases the thermal conductivity of a thermal interface by compensating for the irregular surfaces of the components. Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide. Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide. It is often used to aid a component's thermal dissipation via a heat sink. Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide. Answer 2: Provides use of more powerful video graphics accelerators. Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) Chapter 9 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20400750 Q: Which of the following advantages does a 64-bit processor have over a 32-bit processor? Answer 1: Provides access to larger hard drive partitions.Questions connector is neither necessary nor sufficient to indicate use of a serial port. Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) Chapter 5 . and other purposes. Therefore the two components which are commonly connected using thermal compound are a heatsink and a CPU. originally with properties akin to grease. Correct Answer: 3 Explanation: One of the greatest advantages of using a 64-bit processor is the ability to access physical memory (RAM) that is above the 4-gigabyte (GB) range.

As a result the DVD ROM drive requires different treatment and packaging prior to shipping. Any information directed to one partition is also written to (mirrored) on the second. Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) Chapter 9. is used to write data across an array of hard disks participating in the RAID configuration. hence the "1+0" name. demands that there be a minimum of three disks with partitions of equal size.Questions ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20400760 Q: Which of the following uses data striping to distribute data across multiple disks with no fault tolerance? Answer 1: RAID 0 Answer 2: RAID 1 Answer 3: RAID 5 Answer 4: RAID 10 Correct Answer: 1 Explanation: RAID 0. RAID 1. RAID 5. Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide. A RAID 10 array requires a minimum of two drives. which of the following should be removed to avoid damage during transit? Answer 1: PC card adapters Answer 2: LCD Answer 3: DVD-ROM drive Answer 4: Backlight Correct Answer: 3 Explanation: Of the items listed. demands that there be two disks with partitions of equal size. These parity blocks are staggered for each row across the disks in the array so that no two adjoining block contain parity information. The algorithm is also used to calculate one block of parity information. but is more commonly implemented with 4 drives to take advantage of speed benefits. 11 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20400770 Q: Before shipping a laptop. for each row or stripe of information stored in the array. also known as disk striping with parity. only the DVD ROM drive contains moving components (the arm used to read the content of a DVD). RAID 1 + 0 or RAID 10 is a mirrored data set (RAID 1) which is then striped (RAID 0). . also known as disk striping without parity. An algorithm is used to write data in 64KB segments sequentially across each disk in the array. also known as disk mirroring.

is astoundingly higer. Blue-Ray discs are the same size as conventional DVDs and CDs.Questions The remaining components listed are not moving parts. Answer 1: Memory mismatch. In fact. Answer 4: Operating system does not recognize the additional memory. single-layer Blu-Ray disc is capable of holding 25GB of information. they are electronic devices with no moving parts. Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide. the BIOS only reports the original memory amount. As a result. Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) Chapter 17. Answer 2: Memory size needs to be adjusted in Device Manager. Which of the following are the MOST likely issues? (Select TWO). Correct Answer: 1. 5 Explanation: Most desktops and notebooks use one of four popular types of dynamic random access memory (DRAM) for the main system memory: Single data rate (SDR) SDRAM Double data rate (DDR) SDRAM . the laser can be focused on a much smaller area of the disc. Answer 5: Memory is defective. Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) Chapter 11 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20400790 Q: Memory was added to a Windows laptop and upon booting up. A single-sided. The capacity. This leads to a higher density of information being stored in the same area. and through the use of refined optics. Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide. 21 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20400780 Q: Which of the following optical media types has the GREATEST amount of capacity? Answer 1: Flash Answer 2: DVD Answer 3: HDD Answer 4: Blu-Ray Correct Answer: 4 Explanation: The Blu-Ray laser is of a shorter wavelength (450nm) than that of DVD (650nm) and CD (750nm) technologies. Answer 3: Memory brand is different than the computer. however. it is very unlikely that they would be damaged in shipping.

DDR. You cannot mix and match SDRAM. Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) Chapter 5 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20400810 Q: Which of the following is a benefit of having parity on a memory device? Answer 1: Lower cost Answer 2: Error detection Answer 3: Better cooling Answer 4: Faster response time Correct Answer: 2 . or DDR3 memory on the same motherboard in any system. The fact that 32-bit systems only have 32-bits of data to work with means that they can only address up to 4 GB of RAM. Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide. Correct Answer: 3 Explanation: Since 64-bit systems can process twice as many instructions per second as a comparable 32-bit system. in some cases up to 128GB of RAM can be supported. Perhaps the most significant difference between a 32-bit and a 64-bit system is the amount of memory that they support. Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) Chapter 21 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20400800 Q: Which of the following is an advantage of upgrading to a 64-bit version of Windows? Answer 1: A greater number of dynamic disks or disks larger than 1 TB can be supported. Answer 3: More than 4GB of RAM. If you have verified that the RAM being added to the computer matches the type of memory appropriate for that system. 64-bit systems are definitely faster than their 32-bit counterparts. Answer 2: Multiple applications running in 16-bit compatibility mode are supported.Questions DDR2 DDR3 Generally speaking. A 64-bit system on the other hand could theoretically address up to 16 exabytes of RAM. Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide. DDR2. motherboards are built to support only one type of memory. it is always possible that the memory chip has been damaged or is defective in some way. Answer 4: A new anti-virus protection scheme called Data Execution Prevention is supported.

Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide. Once the memory module has been replaced. It is unlikely that the user would have done anything involving static electricity (or anything else for that matter) that would cause the DIMM to fail. Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) Chapter 6 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20400820 Q: A technician has replaced a failed DIMM. . Therefore. the technician replaced a failed memory component. Parity checking is used to ensure that data transferred from one computer to another via a communications device such as a modem have been transferred successfully. The DIMM did not fail because of the volume of work done by the PC. Correct Answer: 4 Explanation: In this scenario. Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) Chapter 27 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20400830 Q: Which of the following are forms of biometric authentication? (Select THREE). Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide. For example: Parity bits are used to verify that data moved within a single computer system have been moved successfully. asking the customer to be mindful of the workload placed on the computer is not an appropriate response. Answer 2: Please inform me if the PC will be processing more work than for which it was designed. The technician has verified that the unit is working properly and is now updating the customer on the event. Answer 3: Please inform me if you think you want me to come back and check it again tomorrow. Once the failed memory module has been replaced and the new module shown to function successfully. there would be no reason for a follow up call or visit.Questions Explanation: Parity refers to a technique of checking whether data has been lost or written over when it's moved from one place in storage to another or when transmitted between computers. Telling the customer to try to be more conscious of static is not a meaningful response. Disk striping with parity is used in RAID configurations to ensure fault tolerance and data recoverability. Which of the following responses would be BEST to use? Answer 1: Please try to be more conscious of static when using this PC. Answer 4: Please inform me if you continue to have any problems with this PC. the problem is resolved so the only statement that needs to be made is to let the customer know that you are available to provide future assistance if needed.

Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide. WPA2 is currently the strongest wireless encryption protocol available. 26 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20400840 Q: Which of the following is the STRONGEST wireless encryption type? Answer 1: WEP Answer 2: WEP2 Answer 3: WPA Answer 4: WPA2 Correct Answer: 4 Explanation: Wired Equivalency Protocol (WEP) was introduced in 1997 to provide the same confidentiality on wireless networks that users had come to expect on wired networks. a user¶s voice. 5 Explanation: Biometric authentication is a security feature that uses some unique physical attribute of the user to verify that individual¶s identity. additional work on the WEP2 protocol was dropped. WEP2 was designed as the next developmental stage for the WEP protocol. Of the options provided. However. fingerprint or retina (optical recognition) would be regarded as unique physical attributes. That protocol has been further enhanced in WPA2. when it was discovered that the WEP algorithm contained serious security flaws. Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) Chapter 16. Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) Chapter 16.Questions Answer 1: Smart card Answer 2: Barcode scanner Answer 3: Voice recognition Answer 4: Fingerprint reader Answer 5: Optical recognition Answer 6: Secure ID Token Correct Answer: 3. 24 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20400850 Q: Which of the following connectors is MOST commonly used to support dial-up networking? . 4. This protocol was superseded by Wi-Fi Protected Access (WPA) in 2003. Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide.

Questions
Answer 1: RJ-45 Answer 2: LC Answer 3: SC Answer 4: RJ-11 Correct Answer: 4 Explanation: RJ-11 connectors are the type used to terminate telephone wires and to connect to single line telecommunication systems world-wide. This connector type is used most commonly to support dial-up networking. RJ-45 connectors are used to support 10Base-T and 100Base-T Ethernet (LAN) connections. LC and SC connectors are used to connect to fiber optic networks.

Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide, Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) Chapter 23 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20400860 Q: A host that has been assigned a permanent IP address is said to have a: Answer 1: reserved IP address. Answer 2: static IP address. Answer 3: dynamic IP address. Answer 4: stationary IP address. Correct Answer: 2 Explanation: A static IP address is one that is configured at the host and includes both a unique IP address and subnet mask. A dynamic IP address is one that has been obtained from a DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol) server. A reserved IP address is one that has been linked to a specific network adapter from the pool of IP addresses supported by a DHCP server. A stationary IP address is also assigned to a network adapter, but it is only assigned to network adapters that serve a special purpose, such as cluster servers that use a heartbeat to remain in synchronization with each other. This is not an address that would be configured for every host on the network.

Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide, Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) , Chapter 23

Questions
++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20400870 Q: Which of the following can be used to print a test page? Answer 1: Start > Control Panel > System Answer 2: Right-click My Computer then select Manage Answer 3: Right-click on the printers icon and select Properties Answer 4: Start > Control Panel > Printer icon Correct Answer: 3 Explanation: In all Windows operating systems, one of the properties supported for each printer configured on a host is the ability to print a test page. There are several ways to open and execute that property, but the only correct process among the options listed is to right-click on the printer's icon and select Properties from the pop-up menu. There will be an action button labeled Print Test Page on the General settings page in the printer¶s Properties dialog box.

Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide, Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) Chapter 17, 22 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20400880 Q: Which of the following printers would be the BEST choice for printing on multi-part forms? Answer 1: Impact printer Answer 2: Thermal printer Answer 3: Inkjet printer Answer 4: Laser printer Correct Answer: 1 Explanation: Only an impact printer provides a striking mechanism that could print through the several pages of a multipart form. Inkjet, laser, and thermal printers could only print on the top page of each form. None of the data printed would transfer to the lower pages.

Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide, Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) Chapter 22 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20400890

Questions
Q: A user states that a program is missing from the computer and it had just been used yesterday. Which of the following questions should a technician ask to help determine what occurred? Answer 1: Was there a power outage since yesterday? Answer 2: Did you check the Recycle Bin to see if the shortcut was accidentally deleted? Answer 3: Are you sure you ran a find on the system and the program is just not misfiled? Answer 4: Are you sure you were using that program? Correct Answer: 2 Explanation: Typically, program files are installed in a protected directory on the computer which is not generally accessible to most users. Program installation routines can be further configured to require that only users with elevated permissions, such as Root or Administrator, have the ability to launch the installation routine. In order to make the application more accessible to the user, while retaining a degree of internal protection, it is a common practice to create shortcuts to the application on the computers desktop or from a menu. If a user cannot find a program today that was successfully installed and running on the computer yesterday, the most likely cause is that the shortcut used to open the application has been moved or deleted. It is unlikely that the user would have moved the program or deleted it. And if there were a power outage, it is more like that the entire computer would be damaged rather than just one program.

Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide, Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) Chapter 17 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20400900 Q: The power brick or external power supply serves which of the following functions for a portable computer? Answer 1: Filters incoming voltage spikes and surges. Answer 2: Allows for a portable computer to be easily moved without being plugged into an outlet. Answer 3: Changes DC power to AC power to charge the battery and enhances portability. Answer 4: Converts AC power to DC power that a computer can use to operate and charge its battery. Correct Answer: 4 Explanation: The power brick is part of the external power supply. It also provides the power for the computer to charge its batteries. Plugging straight AC from a wall outlet into a notebook would blow the circuits, so lower-voltage DC powers the notebook. The power brick accomplishes the conversion. The computer is plugged into the power brick, while a cord runs from the power brick into a standard AC plug.

By using the last known good configuration. MAC addresses are uniquely assigned to each card. the best option is to restart the computer using the last known good configuration for that system because it can be reasonably assumed that the changed hardware configuration caused the problem. so using MAC filtering on a network permits and denies network access to specific devices through the use of blacklists and whitelists. Of the possible choices given. Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide. 24 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20400920 Q: An external hard drive installation has caused a system to crash. While the restriction of network access through the use of lists is straightforward. Which of the following would be the BEST startup selection? Answer 1: Debugging Mode Answer 2: Safe Mode with Command Prompt Answer 3: Last Known Good Configuration Answer 4: Active Directory Restore Mode Correct Answer: 3 Explanation: The question states that after changing the hardware configuration of a computer. an individual person is not identified by a MAC address. . Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) Chapter 23. so an authorized person will need to have a whitelist entry for each device that he or she would use to access the network.Questions Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide. Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) Chapter 21 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20400910 Q: Which of the following wireless network security methods controls who can connect to the network based on the hardware they are using? Answer 1: MAC filtering Answer 2: WEP encryption Answer 3: WPA encryption Answer 4: NAT routing Correct Answer: 1 Explanation: MAC Filtering is a security access control methodology which uses the 48-bit address assigned to each network card to control host access to the network. rather a device only. the operating system crashes. the system will restart without the single device driver or changed driver that is causing the crash to occur.

Answer 3: Check the USB port. All hardware manufactures provide device driver support for current products. the next step would be to connect to the manufacturer¶s web site. The Add Hardware Wizard will not automatically take you to the best location for the missing device driver files. Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide. Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) Chapter 14 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20400930 Q: A technician installs a new printer to a local computer and needs to install the drivers. The problem does not appear to be tied to an new application installation or a changed application.Questions The problem is not related to Active Directory. Correct Answer: 2 Explanation: Of the choices given. so debugging mode would not be a useful troubleshooting or problem resolution technique. Answer 2: Check the manufacturer's website. Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide. Safe Mode with Command Prompt would not cause the system to revert back to a state prior to the installation of the new external hard drive and would make it impossible to connect to the Internet in order to search for some type of problem resolution. Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) Chapter 14 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20400940 Q: Which of the following is a benefit of using STP cable? . Answer 4: Check the printers BIOS. so Active Directory Restore Mode would not be a useful troubleshooting or problem resolution technique. so this would not be a useful troubleshooting or problem resolution technique. when an installation disk or software is not immediately available to support the installation of a peripheral device such as a printer. The installation CD is not available. Checking either the USB port or the BIOS will not address the key problem which is to find an alternative source for the required device drivers and installation routines. Which of the following is the BEST solution to locate the correct drivers? Answer 1: Add Hardware Wizard.

Questions Answer 1: Increased RFI Answer 2: Decreased ESD Answer 3: Decreased EMI Answer 4: Increased transfer rate Correct Answer: 3 Explanation: STP or shielded twisted pair cable provides the advantage of reducing electro-magnetic interference and cross-talk by protecting the cable with additional layers of cladding. either a fingerprint or retina scan (optical recognition) would be regarded as unique physical attributes.EXE Answer 2: TASKMAN. Of the options provided.EXE Answer 3: SPUNINST. Answer 1: Logical token Answer 2: Encrypted passwords Answer 3: RFID smartcards Answer 4: Fingerprint reader Answer 5: Retinal scan Correct Answer: 4. Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide. Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) Chapter 23 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20400950 Q: Which of the following methods is commonly used for Biometric authentication? (Select TWO). Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide. 26 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20400960 Q: Which of the following command lines should a technician use to uninstall the Windows XP Service Pack 2? Answer 1: PROGMAN. Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) Chapter 16.EXE Answer 4: CONVERT.EXE Correct Answer: 3 . 5 Explanation: Biometric authentication is a security feature that uses some unique physical attribute of the user to verify that individual¶s identity.

Correct Answer: 2 Explanation: Once a system failure has been identified.EXE is a program used to is a part Microsoft Windows Operating System which has basic counters for monitoring hardware resources and provides links to computer maintenance tasks.exe) CONVERT. Which of the following should the technician do NEXT? Answer 1: Run a full system backup. Program Manager was replaced by Windows Explorer as the shell. a file manager. the findings uncovered. Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) Chapter 27 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20400980 Q: Disabling the SSID from broadcasting on a wireless access point (WAP) provides which of the . This shell exposed a task-oriented graphical user interface (GUI). consisting of icons (shortcuts for programs) arranged into program groups. though Windows 95 gave the user an opportunity to choose which shell they preferred during setup.Questions Explanation: SPUNINST. resolved. Answer 4: Call their manager and report the status of the issue. Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) Chapter 15 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20400970 Q: A technician has just replaced a users defective CD-ROM drive and tested that everything is working properly. Answer 3: Further troubleshoot the defective drive to determine if the problem is covered by the warranty. starting with Windows 95 and Windows NT 4.EXE is a program use uninstall service packs from a Windows XP installation (Service Pack UNINSTall . For backward compatibility with old applications. as the default Windows shell.x and Windows NT 3. the next step is to document the process followed. troubleshot.0. Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide. Program Manager was still included in later versions of Windows.x operating systems. PROGMAN. TASKMAN. and the actions taken to resolve the problem. In later versions of Microsoft Windows. It replaced MS-DOS Executive.EXE is the shell of Windows 3. and tested.EXE is a program run at the command line to change a hard disk type from basic to dynamic storage. Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide. Answer 2: Document their findings and the actions taken.

but now they are unable to see the network at all. or on some cards. The SSID on wireless clients can be set either manually. Answer 3: MAC filtering is preventing the computer from connecting to the network. check to make sure that the LEDs on your network card are functioning. or automatically. All wireless devices on a WLAN must employ the same SSID in order to communicate with each other.11n. Some newer wireless access points disable the automatic SSID broadcast feature in an attempt to improve network security. Correct Answer: 2 Explanation: If your wireless isn¶t working.Questions following benefits? Answer 1: Ensures all users physically login to the wired network Answer 2: Ensures that only certain devices can access the network Answer 3: Encrypts data traveling across the wireless network Answer 4: Prevents users from seeing the wireless network Correct Answer: 4 Explanation: Definition: An SSID is the name of a wireless local area network (WLAN). They were able to connect without a problem the day before. If there are no lights. to allow those new computers to connect wirelessly. then disable SSID Broadcast again and the computer should work properly from that point on Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide. or above the keyboard that can toggle the network card on and off. If this happens enable SSID Broadcast. after disabling SSID Broadcast. A network administrator often uses a public SSID. may not be able to communicate after being configured for the network. it could indicate a problem with the card itself. by leaving the SSID unspecified or blank. selecting Properties. make sure that the wireless card is enabled through Windows. side. and selecting Properties in order to look at the network card properties. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause for the problem? Answer 1: Recent provider upgrades have changed the wireless specification from 802. You generally do this in Windows by right-clicking on My Network Places.11a to 802. that there is no connection or signal. right-clicking the wireless network connection. First. Answer 2: The wireless network card has been disabled by the hardware switch. Be sure that this is set to the on position! . that is set on the access point and broadcast to all wireless devices in range. Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) Chapter23 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20400990 Q: An end user states that they are unable to connect to their home wireless network from their laptop. With each new computer that is added to the Wireless Network. a lot of laptops now also come with an external switch on the front. by entering the SSID into the client network settings. However. Answer 4: The wireless network is not properly configured.

and asks when it will be done. Modem is a device used to turn digital data into an analog signal to send it over the telephone line. and the best way to start that process is to determine what the computer is doing or not doing. Answer 2: Ask the customer to check daily to see when it is completed. from there you should be able give an estimated time frame for the repair to be completed. Switch and Hub are used to add a device to the network. Answer 4: Inform the customer that others are waiting. Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide.Questions Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide. You must start by talking to the customer. Answer 3: Ask the customer when they would like to have the work completed. The technician will get back to them as soon as possible. Allow the customer to explain the problem fully while you record the information. Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) Chapter 23 . Explanation: Your job as a tech is to get the computer fixed. 21 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20401000 Q: A customer brings a PC in for repair. Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) Chapter 27 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20401010 Q: Which of the following network devices interconnects networks together? Answer 1: Switch Answer 2: Hub Answer 3: Router Answer 4: Modem Correct Answer: 3 Explanation: To move traffic between networks you use specialized computers called routers. Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) Chapter 17. and then turn it back into digital data when it reached the other end of the connection. Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide. Which of the following is the BEST response for the technician to give? Answer 1: Give the customer an estimated time for repair based on the technicians assessment.

FireWire. and USB are examples of Interfaces that are hot-swappable on computers.Questions ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20401020 Q: Which of this following network types is the FASTEST? Answer 1: Gigabit Ethernet Answer 2: Wi-Fi Answer 3: Infrared Answer 4: Bluetooth Correct Answer: 1 Explanation: 1000BaseT networks. Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide. 6 Explanation: The capability of being able to disconnect and connect devices while the computer or other device is on and have those devices be detected without having to reboot the computer or device. Answer 1: eSATA Answer 2: Express Card/54 Answer 3: PS/2 peripherals Answer 4: MIDI devices Answer 5: NIC Answer 6: USB Correct Answer: 1. Bluetooth runs at 1 Mbps. Infrared runs at 4 Mbps. Answer 1: USB Answer 2: DVI . or 1 Gbps.called Gigabit Ethernet-run at 1000Mbps. 2. Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide. Wi-Fi run at 11Mbps. Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) Chapter 11 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20401040 Q: Which of the following display connections are the MOST commonly used to connect an LCD monitor to a desktop? (Select TWO). eSATA. Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) Chapter 23 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20401030 Q: Which of the following hardware is hot pluggable? (Select THREE).

Answer 3: Mouse and keyboard need to be cleaned. Which of the following devices is MOST likely connected to the other end of the cable? . Cables can easily be tripped over and inadvertently pulled from their sockets. and the Mac mini comes with a DVI to VGA adaptor dongle to help users with older displays connect to its built-in DVI port. although we¶re still in the transition period where support for both is common. Here are some examples of simple problems: Is it plugged in? And plugged in at both ends? Cables must be plugged in at both ends in order to function correctly. The newer DVI format. Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) Chapter 19 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20401050 Q: A user reports that after coming back from lunch their PC will no longer turn on. Some monitors contain sockets for each format. Answer 4: The hard drive is in standby mode. computer problems are the result of something simple. Which of the following is MOST likely the problem? Answer 1: Hard disk failure or operating system needs to be reloaded. which stands for Digital Video Interface. and even a small number of expensive video displays. Answer 2: Power cord is loose. which stands for Video Graphics Array. a number of higher-end CRTs.Questions Answer 3: CGA Answer 4: VGA Answer 5: S-Video Correct Answer: 2. Often. Technicians overlook these problems because they¶re so simple that the technicians assume they couldn¶t be the problem. is the preferred connection method for most non-budget LCD displays. VGA is being phased out in favour of DVI. 4 Explanation: VGA. Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide. Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide. Correct Answer: 2 Explanation: This step is the one that even experienced technicians overlook. has been the standard method for connecting monitors to Macs since the late 1990s and to PCs for some years before then. Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) Chapter 17 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20401060 Q: A technician has connected a cable to an RJ-45 connector on the back of a computer.

First ECC detects any time a single bit is incorrect.5 Answer 4: ping f 189. UTP cabling is the specified cabling for the 10/100/1000BaseT. and Secondly ECC fixes these errors on the fly.168.16.1..122. Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) Chapter 6 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20401080 Q: Which of the following commands will return the hostname of a specific device? Answer 1: ping t 172.0. Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide. ECC is a major advance in error checking DRAM.68.11 Answer 2: ping v 10.7 Correct Answer: 3 . In a 10/100/1000BaseT network each PC is connected to a hub or switch.5 Answer 3: ping a 192.18. Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide. as ECC RAM is always slower than non-ECC RAM.Questions Answer 1: Switch Answer 2: Fax machine Answer 3: Scanner Answer 4: Dial-up modem Correct Answer: 1 Explanation: RJ-45 is the standard for UTP (Unshielded Twisted Pair) connectors. The checking and fixing comes at a price.10. Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) Chapter 23 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20401070 Q: Which of the following BEST describes the function of ECC in a RAM module? Answer 1: Ability to bypass the IRQ channels to work directly with the CPU Answer 2: Ability to detect hardware incompatibilities and resolve them Answer 3: Ability to detect and correct single bit errors in memory Answer 4: Ability to use varying levels of voltage for power saving Correct Answer: 3 Explanation: Today¶s PC that need to watch for RAM errors use a special type of RAM called error correction code ( ECC) RAM.

the minimum. Answer 1: USB 001 Answer 2: \\computername\sharename Answer 3: SNMP Answer 4: IP_ip_address Answer 5: IEEE 1394 Correct Answer: 2. Ping measures the round-trip time[1] and records any packet loss. Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide. max and in some versions the standard deviation of the round trip time. Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) Chapter 15 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20401090 Q: Which of the following are valid ports for printing over a network? (Select TWO). The "echo response" is sometimes called a pong. and prints when finished a statistical summary of the echo response packets received. Correct Answer: 2 Explanation: Despite the advantages of resistive-type touch screens. 4 Explanation: Two common ways to setup network printing are: IP Printing using a network Printer with an assigned IP address or a shared local network printer. Answer 3: Degauss the monitor.Questions Explanation: ping is a computer network tool used to test whether a particular host is reachable across an IP network. Answer 4: Set the resolution to the highest the monitor can display. Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide. Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) Chapter 23 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20401100 Q: Which of the following should be done after installing a touch screen monitor to ensure that the display functions optimally? Answer 1: Set the refresh rate to the lowest the monitor can display. . or as a latency test. it is also used to self test the network interface card of the computer. devices equipped with them almost always require that a calibration algorithm be the first task to run when the final product comes out of the box. Answer 2: Calibrate the monitor. It works by sending ICMP echo request packets to the target host and listening for ICMP echo response replies. mean.

After attaching the wire nut would make it quite bulky to fit inside the desktop computer case. Duct tape not appropriate to use for electrical repair. which of the following is broadcasted by default and should be disabled? Answer 1: WPA Answer 2: WEP Answer 3: SSID Answer 4: RADIUS Correct Answer: 3 Explanation: By default. a technician finds a wire with insulation damage from rubbing up against a cooling fan. Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide. Wire nut would require splitting the damage wire to repair. Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) Chapter 17 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20401120 Q: When setting up a WAP. Which of the following should be used to repair the wire? Answer 1: Electrical tape Answer 2: Masking tape Answer 3: Duct tape Answer 4: Wire nut Correct Answer: 1 Explanation: Masking tape would be used for painting jobs. To hide the SSID from being picked up by wireless NIC's you can disable broadcasting the SSID. most WAP's broadcast their SSID.Questions Calibration is necessary because it is difficult to perfectly align a touch screen's coordinates to the display (LCD or otherwise) behind it. When you enable a wireless NIC it surveys the area and finds any wireless networks that are broadcasting their SSID. This will prevent computers from being able to pick up the SSID and attempt to connect to the network. Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) Chapter 18 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20401110 Q: While working inside of a desktop computer. Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide. Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide. Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) Chapter 23 .

Which of the following components should the technician replace? . Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide. The most common connectors used in fiber optic networks are square SC connectors and round ST connectors.Questions ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20401130 Q: Which of the following connectors are used on the end of a fiber cable? Answer 1: RJ-11 Answer 2: RJ-45 Answer 3: BNC Answer 4: ST Correct Answer: 4 Explanation: Fiber optic cable is a way to transmit Ethernet network packets. RJ-11 is the connector connects to the telephone jack. All fiber Ethernet networks that use these cables require two cables. RJ-45 is for UTP connectors. BNC is used with coaxial cable Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide. Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) Chapter 23 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20401150 Q: The users operating system is not keeping the correct time after a system powers down. Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) Chapter 23 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20401140 Q: Which of the following is the maximum cable length of a CAT5e? Answer 1: 100 feet (30 meters) Answer 2: 328 feet (100 meters) Answer 3: 492 feet (150 meters) Answer 4: 1076 feet (328 meters) Correct Answer: 2 Explanation: UTP cables comes in categories that define the maximum speed at which data can be transferred CAT5e maximum is 100 meters.

to give the CMOS the charge it needs when the computer is turned off. How would a technician walk the user through checking the IP address and default Gateway on the computer? Answer 1: Start>Run>type ipconfig>click OK and ask user to read the results. Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide. Correct Answer: 4 Explanation: Start>Run>type cmd>click OK>type ipconfig/all command will display all of your TCP/IP settings Start>Run>type ipconfig>click OK command will not display the required information Start>Run>type cmd>click OK>type ipconfig/flushdns command will flush the DNS (Domain Nam Services) servers. Answer 4: Start>Run>type cmd>click OK>type ipconfig /all>press enter key and ask user to read the results. Start>Run>type cmd>click OK>type ipconfig/release command will give up the IP address you currently have. usually a coin battery like those used in wrist watches. Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide. This battery also keeps track of the data and time when the PC is turned off. Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) Chapter 15 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ . keep database of IP Addresses and there corresponding names. Answer 3: Start>Run>type cmd>click OK>type ipconfig /release>press enter key and ask user to read the results. Motherboards use some type of battery. Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) Chapter 9 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20401160 Q: A user calls and says they cannot get to the Internet. Answer 2: Start>Run>type cmd>click OK>type ipconfig /flushdns>press enter and ask user to read the results.Questions Answer 1: L2 cache Answer 2: CMOS battery Answer 3: Processor Answer 4: System clock Correct Answer: 2 Explanation: CMOS needs a continuous trickle charge to retain its data.

Port 23 is Telnet Protocol used enables you to connect to a server and run commands on that server as if you were sitting in front of it. Factory recovery partition This option completely erases the C: partition and reinstalls factory-shipped files from the recovery partition. .com Answer 4: Windows CD installation Answer 5: Network installation Answer 6: Purchase a fully configured hard drive Correct Answer: 1. Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) Chapter 14. copy the i386 directory from your hard drive to a network server and share the directory. Probably one of the most foolproof methods for beginners. 23 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20401180 Q: Which of the following ports needs to be blocked to prevent Internet access? Answer 1: 20 Answer 2: 21 Answer 3: 23 Answer 4: 80 Correct Answer: 4 Explanation: Port 80 is a HTTP (Hyper Text Transfer Protocol) use for web browsing Port 21 & 21 is FTP (File Transfer Protocol) used to share files between systems. 5 Explanation: Boot from CD.Questions QID: 20401170 Q: Which of the following are valid installation methods for Windows XP? (Select THREE). 4. Before starting. eliminates the need for a CD ROM and/or a floppy drive in your computer. An over the network install. Answer 1: Factory recovery partition Answer 2: XCOPY all files from another computer Answer 3: Installation from Microsoft. Starting an install in this manner eliminates the need to have a partitioned and formatted hard drive prior to installation. It will also allow you to install several copies of XP simultaneously on different computers. Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide.

Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide. Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) Chapter 14 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20401200 Q: Which of the following printer types shoots the ink onto the paper? Answer 1: Impact Answer 2: Dot Matrix Answer 3: Laser Answer 4: Inkjet Correct Answer: 4 Explanation: Inkjet printers also called ink-dispersion printers. to strike an inked printer ribbon and produce images on paper. of tiny pins. They work by ejecting ink through tiny tubes. Pages are usually at least 4K bytes in size. RAM) generally use larger page sizes. Answer 2: Data written to a disk located in a paging file that would not fit into the systems RAM. Impact printers create an image on the paper by physically striking an ink ribbon against the paper¶s surface.g. Systems that use this technique make programming of large applications easier and use real physical memory (e.Dot Matrix printers use a grid. . and systems with large virtual address ranges or large amounts of real memory (e. Answer 3: The maximum amount of memory a given system can potentially have.Questions Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide. Virtual memory differs significantly from memory virtualization in that virtual memory allows resources to be virtualized as memory for a specific system. Almost all implementations of virtual memory divide the virtual address space of an application program into pages. RAM) more efficiently than those without virtual memory. a page is a block of contiguous virtual memory addresses. as opposed to a large pool of memory being virtualized as smaller pools for many different systems. Correct Answer: 2 Explanation: Virtual memory is a computer system technique which gives an application program the impression that it has contiguous working memory (an address space).Laser printers use a process called electro-photographic imaging. 26 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20401190 Q: Which of the following BEST describes virtual memory? Answer 1: Flash memory used to hold temporary files before deletion. Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) Chapter 16. or matrix. Answer 4: A portion of physical RAM that is mirrored to the hard drive for redundancy. also know as printwires. while in fact it may be physically fragmented and may even overflow on to disk storage.g.

if applicable. currency amounts. By default. Hebrew.-International layout. Windows XP installs the files for most input languages supported by Windows. When you switch to another input language. Input Method Editors. such as different keyboard layouts. for example. some programs offer special features. and numbers with decimal fractions. Even if you do most of your work in one language. Which of the following is the correct path to change the language settings? Answer 1: Control Panel> Accessibility Options> General Answer 2: Control Panel> Regional and Language Options> Regional Options Answer 3: Control Panel> Regional and Language Options> Regional Options> Customize Answer 4: Control Panel> Regional and Language Options> Languages> Details Correct Answer: 2 Explanation: With Regional and Language Options in Control Panel.Questions ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20401210 Q: A technician converts several existing Windows XP Professional laptops from English to the German language. Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide. times. you might want to try other layouts. if you want to enter or display text in the East Asian languages (Chinese. Each language has a default keyboard layout. and speech and handwriting recognition programs. such as font characters or spelling checkers designed for different languages. you can change the format Windows uses to display dates. In English. Armenian.S. Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) Chapter 17 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20401220 Q: Which of the following utilities could be used to check if there is a remote device on the network? Answer 1: netstat Answer 2: ipconfig Answer 3: nslookup Answer 4: ping Correct Answer: 1 . typing letters with accents might be simpler with the U. the Indic languages. or Korean) or the complex script and right-to-left languages (Arabic. You can also choose from a large number of input languages and text services. large numbers. However. but many languages have alternate versions. Japanese. Georgian. you can install the language files from the Windows CD-ROM or. Thai. a network. or Vietnamese).

and accountability. It is available on Unix. a notice appears on the screen which says the site is being blocked by a filter. Unix-like. guide the customer through the problem and the explanation. Simply select continue on the message and the video should appear. The technician knows that a new web filtering application was recently introduced which assigns a 120 minute quota on streaming media and a message appears allowing the user to click to continue. -a : Displays all active TCP connections and the TCP and UDP ports on which the computer is listening. Answer 2: The access point would now transmit on only one channel. Always treat the customer with the same respect and empathy you would expect if the situation were reversed. and a number of network interface statistics. Answer 4: Data encryption would be more secure over wireless connections. Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide. routing tables.Tell him what has caused the problem he is currently experiencing and the best solution for preventing it from reoccurring in the future. and Windows NT-based operating systems. Correct Answer: 4 Explanation: Professional conduct encompasses politeness. punctuality. Likewise. guidance. Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) Chapter 23 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20401230 Q: A user states that every time they try to pull down video clips from a website. Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide. . Which is the following is the MOST appropriate response from the technician? Answer 1: What particular website are you trying to download videos from? Are they work related? Answer 2: Video takes a large amount of bandwidth so management has decided to limit each user to what can be downloaded and watched. Parameters used with this command must be prefixed with a hyphen (-) rather than a slash (/). Answer 4: Bandwidth usage has become a problem. A new application has been implemented to help manage and improve the network. Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) Chapter 27 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20401240 Q: Which of the following should the technician expect when disabling SSID broadcast? Answer 1: A user would need to manually type the SSID to connect.Questions Explanation: netstat (network statistics) is a command-line tool that displays network connections (both incoming and outgoing). Answer 3: Data encryption would be less secure over wireless connections. If you take issue with that please inform your supervisor. Answer 3: Did you read the entire screen? The last sentence clearly says click to continue.

1 Correct Answer: 4 Explanation: In computer networking.255.1? Answer 1: 192. Copy Backs up selected files but does not clear the archive bit.Questions Correct Answer: 1 Explanation: Many access points allow a user to turn off the broadcast of the SSID.0 Answer 4: 127.0.0.168. this results in the detected network displaying as an unnamed network and the user would need to manually enter the correct SSID to connect to the network. The name is also a reserved domain name. localhost (meaning "this computer") is the standard hostname given to the address of the loopback network interface.12.0 Answer 2: 192.168. . The backup should clear the archive bit for each file. a subnet mask of 255.0 and a gateway of 192. set aside to avoid confusion with the narrower definition as a hostname.1 Answer 3: 255.255.0.168.255. Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) Chapter 23 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20401250 Q: Which of the following is a loopback address on a computer with an IP address of 192.168. Which of the following backup type should be selected? Answer 1: Incremental Answer 2: Copy Answer 3: Full Answer 4: Daily Correct Answer: 1 Explanation: Incremental Backs up selected files only if they were created or modified since the previous backup.0.0.1 in IPv4. Localhost always translates to the loopback IP address 127.255. or ::1 in IPv6.0. With many network client devices.0. Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide.0. ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20401260 Q: A technician wants to configure a tape backup to run every evening that will only archive files that have changed since the last tape was run.

Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) Chapter 17 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20401270 Q: A technician is working on a computer that has a virus downloaded on it. they notice the system takes a long time to display the desktop. After completing the initial configuration. such as disk corruption or the installation of poorly configured software that prevents the operating system from successfully booting into its normal operating mode. It doesn¶t look at the archive bit. Which of the following steps would shorten the startup time? Answer 1: Run the defrag command on the system. Which of the following Advanced Mode Options should be used to start up the computer? Answer 1: Safe Mode Answer 2: Last Known Good Configuration Answer 3: Debugging Mode Answer 4: Disable Automatic Restart Correct Answer: 1 Explanation: An operating system in safe mode will have reduced functionality. Normal Backs up selected files and clears the archive bit. Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide. but only the date when the file was modified. The technician gets an Access Denied message stating the process is in use every time the technician tries to remove the virus. Answer 3: Decrease the size of the paging file.Questions Daily Backs up files that were created or modified today. Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) Chapter 26 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20401280 Q: A technician has received a new PC directly from the manufacturer. Answer 4: Remove unneeded startup applications. Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide. An installation that will only boot into its safe mode typically has a major problem. but the task of isolating problems is easier because many non-core components are disabled (turned off). Answer 2: Run the chkdsk /f command on the system. Correct Answer: 4 Explanation: .

This will remove the program from those that run during startup. To stop a program from executing during startup. You¶ll notice that all the programs have a check box next to them. deselect the check box next to the program. For these programs you need to look at more sophisticated tools. especially if the hardware configuration is inadequate. type CONVERT driveletter: /FS:NTFS. 2. Click on the Start menu. some programs are coded to add themselves back into the startup sequence if you remove them.exe attempts to convert the partition to NTFS. Most of these are probably selected. and then click OK. click Run. Click on the Startup tab to bring up a list of programs that are executed at the startup of Windows XP. Click on OK when you¶re done. Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) Chapter 17 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20401290 Q: Which of the following utilities can be used to change a FAT file system into an NTFS file system without data loss? Answer 1: convert Answer 2: format Answer 3: diskpart Answer 4: fdisk Correct Answer: 1 Explanation: To convert a FAT partition to NTFS. By default the screen¶s focus is on the General tab. However. Click on Run. 3. At the command prompt. Simply restart your computer for the changes to take effect. type cmd. follow these steps: 1. Type the following command: msconfig. Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide. The configuration screen is then displayed. Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) Chapter 17 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ . Hit the Enter key on your keyboard. Convert. A popup window with a text box will appear. Use this text box to type commands for executing programs. Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide.Questions Many brand new computers come loaded with too much "teaseware" (software tryouts or offers) that actually slows the system down. Click Start.

. the COM+ Class Registration Database. Select the most probable cause 5. use the Backup utility to back up the system state. Establish what has changed 4. which of the following should be the NEXT action according to the troubleshooting theory? Answer 1: Return the system to the user.Questions QID: 20401300 Q: Using regedit. Correct Answer: 3 Explanation: Directly after resolving an issue. To back up the whole registry. Answer 3: Verify that all other parts of the system are working properly. If a problem occurs. or back up the whole registry. Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) Chapter 15 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20401310 Q: After the problem is resolved. a technician should verify that all other parts of the system are working properly. Identify the results and effects of the solution 8. Test the result 7. you can then follow the steps in the "Restore the registry" section to restore the registry to its previous state. Identify the symptoms and potential causes 2. The system state includes the registry. how can the registry backup before changes are made? Answer 1: Export registry file Answer 2: Backup registry file Answer 3: Save registry file Answer 4: Import registry file Correct Answer: 1 Explanation: Before you edit the registry. Document the solution and process Once these steps are complete. Implement an action plan and solution including potential effects 6. and your boot files. the system can be returned to the user. Answer 2: Recreate the problem and reapply the solution to ensure it worked properly. Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide. Identify the affected area 3. Answer 4: Inform the user of every step that was taken so the user can self-repair if the problem occurs again. export the keys in the registry that you plan to edit. The outline of the troubleshooting theory is as follows: 1.

Answer 2: Stop the mandatory update. Everyone has been in a situation where they have not been able to fully explain their problem without being interrupted or ignored. Which of the following would be the BEST way to communicate the mandatory update to the users? Answer 1: Post notices around the building. Correct Answer: 3 Explanation: . Correct Answer: 3 Explanation: Listen to your customers. Which of the following would be the MOST appropriate action of the technician to take? Answer 1: The technician should ask the customer to repeat the problem several times so they can verify all of the facts. However. the customer is not done describing all their symptoms. Answer 4: Install the update without notice. Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) Chapter 27 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20401330 Q: A mandatory update is going to be released to the users on the network that will reboot the workstations during lunch hours. People like to know they are being heard. Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) Chapter 27 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20401320 Q: While a customer is describing a problem to a technician. and it is intolerable in a business setting. the technician knows what the solution is. and. Allow them to complete their statements and avoid interrupting them. this can make all the difference in making them feel at ease with your work. Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide. It is not enjoyable in a social setting. Answer 3: Hear what the customer has to say without interrupting if it will not take an excessive amount of time. Answer 2: Wait until the customer is finished then refer them to a website so they can find the resolution and implement any preventative techniques so the problem does not appear again. Answer 4: Politely tell the customer that the solution is known and that no other symptoms need to be discussed.Questions Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide. as simple an act as it is. Answer 3: Email the users about the update.

5 Explanation: Windows Defender is a free application that helps your users stay productive by protecting their computers against pop-up windows. This could disrupt their workday and cause problems. Remember. DEP is enforced by hardware and by software. Data Execution Prevention (DEP) is a set of hardware and software technologies that perform additional checks on memory to help prevent malicious code from running on a system. Typically. users will be on their computers and accessing emails regularly throughout the day. Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide. and security threats caused by spyware and other potentially unwanted software. In Microsoft Windows XP Service Pack 2 (SP2) and Microsoft Windows XP Tablet PC Edition 2005. 26 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20401350 . The primary benefit of DEP is to help prevent code execution from data pages. code is not executed from the default heap and the stack. An administrator should never install an update without prior notice to end users. Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) Chapter 17 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20401340 Q: Which of the following utilities can help prevent viruses and other malware? (Select TWO). Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide. Most users are busy working on their computers throughout the day.Questions Keeping workstations updated and operating efficiently is an integral part of a technicians job. slow performance. Software-enforced DEP can help prevent malicious code from taking advantage of exception-handling mechanisms in Windows. Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) Chapter 16. so the most appropriate way to notify them of a mandatory update is via email. Answer 1: Windows Event Viewer Answer 2: Windows Defender Answer 3: CHKDSK Answer 4: FilterKeys Answer 5: Data Execution Prevention Correct Answer: 2. Posting notices is not a convenient or efficient way to communicate an update. Hardware-enforced DEP detects code that is running from these locations and raises an exception when execution occurs.

Correct Answer: 3 Explanation: The flashing error code that indicates a jammed printer is the digital-age equivalent of a flat tire. Infrared is another wireless technology that utilizes electromagnetic radiation rather than radio waves. Answer 3: Tell the user that there are indeed print jobs piling up but that the printer has a paper jam and a technician is in the process of repairing the issue. The technician notices that the real solution is to clear a paper jam in the printer.11and 802. The maximum range of Bluetooth 2.11a Correct Answer: 2 Explanation: Bluetooth 2.11b Answer 2: Bluetooth 2. Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) Chapter 22 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20401360 Q: Which of the following wireless technologies has a maximum range of 30 feet (9 meters)? Answer 1: 802. their solution did not work and inform the user that the company has personnel working on the problem. Which of the following is the BEST response for the technician to give the user? Answer 1: Thank the user for their assistance with the problem.11b are wireless technologies that operate similarly to Bluetooth.0 technology is 30 feet (9 meters).Questions Q: A user states that the print server needs to be reset because they have been unable to print and can see a number of documents pending when looking at the printer in control panel. Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide.0 Answer 3: Infrared Answer 4: 802. IEEE 802. Answer 2: Thank the user for their concern ask the user open ended questions to see what they think is the problem.0 is a wireless technology that utilizes the frequency-hopping spread spectrum (FHSS) radio technology. It was desiged to utilize low amounts of power and to operate within a short range. Sooner or later it happens to everyone. Answer 4: Fix the paper jam and then give the user some reference material so they can research preventative techniques and be more involved in the troubleshooting process. however. so you'd better know how to get things moving again if you want to finish your print job. . but can be used for much greater distances.

known as the degaussing coil. 2. A degauss causes a magnetic field inside the tube to oscillate rapidly. Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide. the shadow mask. can pick up strong external fields and from that point produce discoloration on the display. . you will need to use Setup floppy disks to start the process. do so. If your computer does not support booting from a CD-ROM. This leaves the shadow mask with a small and somewhat randomized field. When prompted to press a key to boot from the CD-ROM. Start your computer with the Windows XP Professional Setup CD-ROM. Tubes without an internal coil can be degaussed using an external hand held version.Questions Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide. To minimize this. For example. 24 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20401370 Q: Which of the following settings helps remove discoloration in a CRT monitor due to magnetism? Answer 1: Auto Alignment Answer 2: Resolution Answer 3: Degauss Answer 4: Refresh Rate Correct Answer: 3 Explanation: Today the most common use of degaussing is in CRT-based TV sets and computer monitors. Internal degaussing coils in CRTs are generally much weaker than external degaussing coils. with decreasing amplitude. removing the discoloration. many monitors use a metal plate near the front of the tube to focus the electron beams from the back. CRTs have a copper coil wrapped around the front of the display. proceed as outlined here: 1. This plate. Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) Chapter 23. Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) Chapter 19 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20401380 Q: Which of the following is needed to perform an ASR restore in Windows XP? Answer 1: Operating system CD Answer 2: Recovery console Answer 3: Vendor recovery CD Answer 4: ERD disk Correct Answer: 1 Explanation: Should the day come when you need to use ASR to recover your computer. since a better degaussing coil takes up more space.

When prompted to press F2 to start Automated System Recovery do so. 450Mbps Answer 3: 1. Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) Chapter 14 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20401390 Q: Which of the following speeds are the USB 2.USB 2. In this way.0Mbps. hub.0 uses the same physical connection as the original USB.0 supports data rates as high as 480Mbps (60MBps). Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) Chapter 9 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20401400 Q: The feature of Windows Vista that prevents applications from running in privileged mode even when an administrator is logged is which of the following? Answer 1: Task Manager Answer 2: Sidebar Interface Answer 3: User Account Control Answer 4: Aero Display Manager Correct Answer: 3 Explanation: User Account Control (UAC) is a technology and security infrastructure introduced with Microsoft's Windows Vista and Windows Server 2008 operating system.0 data rates? Answer 1: 1. You can tell if a computer. or cable (or on its packaging).5Mbps. but it is much higher in transfer rates and requires a cable with more shielding that is less susceptible to noise. 20Mbps. 12Mbps.0 by looking for the red and blue High Speed USB graphic somewhere on the computer. You will be prompted to supply your ASR floppy disk. Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide. or cable supports USB 2. 4.5Mbps. 40 times that of its predecessor. 480Mbps Answer 2: 2. 10Mbps. 400Mbps Correct Answer: 1 Explanation: USB 2.0Mbps. 16Mbps. Follow the onscreen prompts to complete the Automated System Recovery process. It aims to improve the security of Microsoft Windows by limiting application software to standard user privileges until an administrator authorizes an increase.Questions 3. only applications trusted by the user may receive administrative . Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide. 360Mbps Answer 4: 2. device.

Assuming the necessary slots are available. a user account may have administrator privileges assigned to it. a term used to describe a system implementing ACPI. power management and monitoring. Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) Chapter 6 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20401420 Q: Which of the following hardware features controls power management? Answer 1: ODBC Answer 2: ACPI Answer 3: IRQ Answer 4: IMAPI Correct Answer: 2 Explanation: The Advanced Configuration and Power Interface (ACPI) specification is an open standard for unified operating system-centric device configuration and power management. and malware should be kept from compromising the operating system. ACPI. but applications that the user runs do not inherit those privileges unless they are approved beforehand or the user explicitly authorizes it. In other words. The PC is currently holding two sticks of 512MB PC2700. which of the following will be the overall speed of the new RAM? Answer 1: 2100 Answer 2: 2700 Answer 3: 3200 Answer 4: 5300 Correct Answer: 2 Explanation: You can mix the ram. defines platform-independent interfaces for hardware discovery. first released in December 1996. which therefore removes device management responsibilities from legacy firmware interfaces. and the technician would like to install an additional two sticks of 512MB PC3200. Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide. configuration. Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide. Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) Chapter 14 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20401410 Q: A technician is installing a RAM upgrade into a PC. but the ram will default to the slowest of the set and only run at the slower speed. The standard . The specification is central to Operating System-directed configuration and Power Management (OSPM).Questions privileges.

on June 16.0".Questions was originally developed by Intel. and last published as "Revision 4. combined with the Elephant diffuser for additional disk encryption specific security not provided by AES. Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) Chapter 23 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20401440 Q: Which of the following is the BitLocker utility used for? Answer 1: Storing passwords Answer 2: Blocking harmful network traffic Answer 3: Securing wireless access points Answer 4: Encrypting hard drives Correct Answer: 4 Explanation: BitLocker Drive Encryption is a full disk encryption feature included with the Ultimate and Enterprise editions of Microsoft's Windows Vista and Windows 7 desktop operating systems. Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide. and Toshiba. Redback Networks. It is designed to protect data by providing encryption for entire volumes. It was developed by UUNET. and RouterWare. By default it uses the AES encryption algorithm in CBC mode with a 128 bit key. Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide. 2009. Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) Chapter 14 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20401430 Q: Which of the following Internet connectivity methods MOST commonly uses the PPPoE authentication method? Answer 1: Dial-up Answer 2: Cable Answer 3: DSL Answer 4: Satellite Correct Answer: 3 Explanation: The Point-to-Point Protocol over Ethernet (PPPoE) is a network protocol for encapsulating Point-toPoint Protocol (PPP) frames inside Ethernet frames. . Current developers also include HP and Phoenix. as well as the Windows Server 2008 and Windows Server 2008 R2 server platforms. Microsoft. It is used mainly with DSL services where individual users connect to the DSL modem over Ethernet and in plain Metro Ethernet networks.

Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) Chapter 17 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20401450 Q: Which of the following is a characteristic of solid state drives? Answer 1: Built-in encryption standards Answer 2: Larger capacity than traditional magnetic drives Answer 3: Lack of drive heads and platters Answer 4: Higher data integrity Correct Answer: 3 Explanation: A solid-state drive (SSD) is a data storage device that uses solid-state memory to store persistent data. solid-state drives are less fragile than hard disks and are also silent (unless a cooling fan is used). but in this context. thus easily replacing it in most applications. as there are no mechanical delays. Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide. has been adopted to distinguish solid-state electronics from electromechanical devices as well.Questions BitLocker is available only in the Enterprise and Ultimate editions of Windows Vista and Windows 7. The original usage of the term solid-state (from solid-state physics) refers to the use of semiconductor devices rather than electron tubes. they usually enjoy low access time and latency.Users of other versions of Windows Vista could use a 3rd party encryption program to satisfy the need for full drive encryption. An SSD emulates a hard disk drive interface. With no moving parts. not to be confused with a RAM disk. Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) Chapter 13 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20401460 Q: Which of the following operating systems comes with a default application to record TV using a remote? Answer 1: Windows Vista Home Basic Answer 2: Windows Vista Home Premium Answer 3: Windows Vista Business Answer 4: Windows XP Professional Correct Answer: 2 Explanation: . Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide. An SSD using SRAM or DRAM (instead of flash memory) is often called a RAM-drive.

3 Explanation: . although it was not designed for them. Answer 2: Open Control Panel. open Administrative Tools. Answer 4: Click Start>Run and then type in regedit. or Microsoft System Configuration Utility. (or simply System Configuration in Windows Vista) is a utility to troubleshoot the Windows startup process. and simplifies controls over Windows services. For U. Answer 3: Click Start>Run and then type in services. which is included with Windows Vista Home Premium offers built-in support for archiving TV shows directly to video DVDs and a platform for content owners to deliver new online entertainment services and experiences.msc. Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) Chapter 15 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20401480 Q: Which of the following is the correct way to get to the Services MMC Plug-in to see what services are currently running? (Select TWO). Windows 95 and Windows 2000 users can download the utility as well. but is accessible by using the Run dialog to launch 'msconfig' on any system on which the user has administrator access. Windows Media Center offers support for digital cable service.-based customers. Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) Chapter 14 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20401470 Q: Which of the following utilities is used to remove programs from startup in Windows XP? Answer 1: MSCONFIG Answer 2: ASR Answer 3: Task Manager Answer 4: Computer Management Correct Answer: 1 Explanation: MSConfig. It is bundled with all Microsoft Windows operating systems since Windows 98 except Windows 2000. MSConfig has commonly not been linked to in the Start Menu or Control Panel. As part of the base Windows install. double click on the Services icon. Answer 1: Right click on the My Computer and select Properties. Correct Answer: 2. edits certain configuration files. Answer 5: Click Start>Run and then type in regedt32.Questions Windows Media Center. Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide. Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide. MSConfig modifies which programs run at startup.S. by means of a digital cable tuner.

the user would like the laptop to automatically switch to the wireless connection. The MMC menu commands on the menu bar at the top of the Microsoft Management Console window apply to the entire console. Component Services. You might have one profile that loads a network card driver and another profile that loads your laptop¶s modem driver. Performance and Maintenance. Microsoft Management Console opens with an empty console (or administrative tool) as shown in Figure 1 below. Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) Chapter 17 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20401490 Q: A laptop with a docking station is normally wired into a local network. type MMC. Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide. Answer 1: AppleTalk Answer 2: DHCP Answer 3: IPX/SPX Answer 4: DNS Answer 5: NetBEUI Correct Answer: 2. Settings. Or another way to get to the MMC is to click on Start. Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide. which often have docking stations.Questions On the Start Menu. and then click OK. Which of the following Windows features BEST accomplishes this? Answer 1: Driver signing Answer 2: Hardware profile Answer 3: Wireless Zero Configuration Answer 4: Roaming profile Correct Answer: 2 Explanation: A hardware profile lets you start the computer with different hardware configurations. The empty console has no management functionality until you add some snap-ins. This ability is most useful on laptops. 4 Explanation: . Administrative Tools. Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) Chapter 21 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20401500 Q: Which of the following is part of the TCP/IP network configuration? (Select TWO). click Run. When the laptop is removed from the docking station. for example. Control Panel. or at the very least are moved from place to place.

com. A DHCP server can be configured to automatically provide IP configuration information to clients.205.Questions Two critical TCP/IP services you need to be aware of are Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) and Domain Name System (DNS). Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide.104. DNS has one function on the network. This sounds simple enough.14. That is 72. and press Enter. but realize that in the real world you need to make sure TCP port 20 is open too. but it has profound implications. If on the test you¶re asked for one port that FTP uses. Think about using the Internet. When a DHCP-configured client boots up. In addition. something like www. most FTP connections require the use of TCP port 20 for sending data. but those are the most common items. Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) Chapter 23 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20401510 Q: Which of the following services uses the TCP port 21 by default? Answer 1: TELNET Answer 2: HTTPS Answer 3: SMTP Answer 4: FTP Correct Answer: 4 Explanation: A protocol optimized for sending and managing files over an Internet connection is the File Transfer Protocol (FTP). it sends out a broadcast on the network (called a DHCP DISCOVER) requesting a DHCP server. Both are run off a server and provide key services to network clients. You open your browser.google. Configuration information provided typically includes: IP address Subnet mask Default gateway (the door to the outside world) DNS server address DHCP servers can provide a lot more than this list. FTP servers listen for incoming requests on TCP port 21. The DHCP server then returns configuration information to the client. Now that your computer knows the address of the website you want. If you have ever downloaded a file from the Internet. odds are you¶ve used FTP whether or not you realized it. it¶s able to traverse the Internet to find it. and that is to resolve hostnames to IP addresses. . go with 21. and in the address bar type the name of your favorite website. Who is that? The DNS server provides the answer. The first question your computer asks is.

and devices that operate in extreme conditions. Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) Chapter 23 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20401520 Q: A user reports that a computer is running very slow and also states that the machine has been rebooted several times with the same result. Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide. Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide. Chkdsk: Creates and displays a status report for a disk based on the file system. Answer 5: Use restore point to roll back the computer to a previous date. This makes SSDs useful for laptops. Answer 1: Use the defragment utility. high altitude. Which of the following can be performed on the hard drive to improve performance? (Select TWO). Answer 2: Use the drive compression utility. Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) Chapter 17 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20401530 Q: A customer states they want a new hard drive that is resistant to shock. and folders on local volumes. Answer 4: Empty the recycle bin and deleted email items. vibration and extremes of temperature.Questions Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide. chkdsk displays the status of the disk in the current drive. 3 Explanation: Defrag: Locates and consolidates fragmented boot files. Chkdsk also lists and corrects errors on the disk. The hard drive light is constantly on. Correct Answer: 1. mobile computers. Used without parameters. data files. Which of the following can be installed to accommodate the customers request? Answer 1: PATA hard drive Answer 2: SATA hard drive with a rubber gasket Answer 3: Solid state hard drive Answer 4: SCSI drive with properly terminated ends Correct Answer: 3 Explanation: SSD¶s has ability to endure extreme shock. Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) Chapter 13 . Answer 3: Use the checkdisk utility.

Trojan horses are not self-replicating. in fact. which of the following should the technician do FIRST? Answer 1: Identify the hardware make. which distinguishes them from viruses and worms. model. Correct Answer: 4 Explanation: Advice for becoming an exemplary PC technician Have a positive and helpful attitude Own the problem Be customer-focused Maintain integrity and honesty Perform your work in a professional manner . The Trojan horse was an executable file named "ie0199. 24 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20401550 Q: When a technician receives a call for assistance from a customer. The term comes from the Trojan Horse story in Greek mythology. or trojan for short. Reports suggest that it was widely distributed and that there were several versions. is a term used to describe malware that appears. Answer 4: Identify the user and associated problem. to the user. An example of a Trojan horse attack is one that was reported in 1999 This Trojan horse was distributed using email. The email did not originate from Microsoft Corporation nor did it provide an upgrade for Microsoft Internet Explorer. Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) Chapter 16. and serial number. to perform a desirable function but. Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide.Questions ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20401540 Q: Which of the following BEST describes a Trojan horse? Answer 1: Malicious software that monitors Internet surfing habits Answer 2: Malicious software that is self-replicating and self-propagating Answer 3: Malicious software attached to another piece of software Answer 4: Malicious software attached to an incoming email Correct Answer: 3 Explanation: A Trojan horse.exe" and was provided as an email attachment. facilitates unauthorized access to the user's computer system. Answer 2: Elevate the call to a higher level of support. The email sent to distribute the Trojan horse purported to be from Microsoft Corporation and to offer a free upgrade for Microsoft Internet Explorer. Answer 3: Assign an appropriate priority for the issue.

Questions
Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide, Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) Chapter 27 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20401560 Q: Which of the following definitions below BEST describes System Restore? Answer 1: Allows the operating system to be backed up with immunity to virus activity Answer 2: Allows the operating system to assigns dates so that user data files are backed up Answer 3: Allows the operating system to be rolled back to a previous point in time Answer 4: Allows all data on the hard drive to be rolled back to a previous point in time Correct Answer: 3 Explanation: System Restore is a component of Microsoft's Windows Me, Windows XP, Windows Vista and Windows 7 operating systems that allows for the rolling back of system files, registry keys, installed programs, etc., to a previous state in the event of malfunctioning or failure.

++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20401570 Q: Which of the following are benefits from an active cooling system? (Select TWO). Answer 1: Increase system security Answer 2: Utilize less memory Answer 3: Increased performance Answer 4: Increased network speed Answer 5: Longer chip life Correct Answer: 3, 5 Explanation: Active heat sink cooling uses the same principle as passive, with the addition of a fan that is directed to blow over or through the heat sink. The moving air increases the rate at which the heat sink can exchange heat with the ambient air. Active heat sinks are the primary method of cooling a modern processor or graphics card.

Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide, Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) Chapter 5 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20401580 Q: A user is running a program that is not successfully connecting to the network after upgrading the

Questions
wireless network router. The user states that they do have Internet connectivity. Which of the following solutions will MOST likely to resolve the issue with the program? Answer 1: Add an exception to the firewall for the program. Answer 2: Check the Hardware Compatibility List to see if the program is not compatible with the OS. Answer 3: Run the program as a local administrator. Answer 4: Check for any updates to the program. Correct Answer: 1 Explanation: A firewall is a part of a computer system or network that is designed to block unauthorized access while permitting authorized communications. It is a device or set of devices configured to permit, deny, encrypt, decrypt, or proxy all (in and out) computer traffic between different security domains based upon a set of rules and other criteria.

Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide, Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) Chapter 16, 26 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20401590 Q: Which of the following methods is commonly used for Biometric authentication? (Select TWO). Answer 1: Logical token Answer 2: Encrypted passwords Answer 3: RFID smartcards Answer 4: Fingerprint reader Answer 5: Retinal scan Correct Answer: 4, 5 Explanation: Are related to the shape of the body. Examples include, but are not limited to fingerprint, face recognition, DNA, hand and palm geometry, iris recognition, which has largely replaced retina, and odor/scent.

Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide, Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) Chapter 16, 26 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20401600 Q: A user has recently installed a new graphics driver, and after restarting their PC the display is no longer appearing. Which of the following boot options would be MOST effective in troubleshooting this issue? Answer 1: Safe mode

Questions
Answer 2: Boot to the recovery console Answer 3: Safe mode with command prompt Answer 4: Boot with repair disk Correct Answer: 1 Explanation: Safe mode is a diagnostic mode of a computer operating system (OS). It can also refer to a mode of operation by application software. Safe mode is intended to fix most, if not all problems within an operating system.

Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide, Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) Chapter 14 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20401610 Q: Which of the following, when locally connected, can be used as a boot device to install a new installation of Windows Vista? (Select TWO). Answer 1: Serial Cable Answer 2: CD-ROM Answer 3: USB drive Answer 4: Floppy drive Answer 5: DVD-ROM Correct Answer: 3, 5 Explanation: You can install Windows Vista in several methods - all are valid and good, it all depends upon your needs and your limitations, directly from the Windows Vista DVD media or from a USB.

Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide, Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) Chapter 14 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20401620 Q: Which of the following Windows features should be disabled to ensure that malware and viruses are completely removed during the disinfection process? Answer 1: Security Center Answer 2: System Restore Answer 3: Machine Debug Manager Answer 4: Hardware Profile Correct Answer: 2 Explanation:

Questions
System Restore is a component of Microsoft's Windows Me, Windows XP, Windows Vista and Windows 7 operating systems that allows for the rolling back of system files, registry keys, installed programs, etc., to a previous state in the event of malfunctioning or failure.

Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide, Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) Chapter 17 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20401630 Q: Which of the following are characteristics of a secure password? (Select TWO). Answer 1: Obscure word in a dictionary Answer 2: Contained in a text file Answer 3: Contains AES encryption Answer 4: Contains numbers and letters Answer 5: Contains special characters Correct Answer: 4, 5 Explanation: A strong password is a password that includes characters from at least three of the five groups in the following Character Classes table.

Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide, Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) Chapter 16, 24 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20401640 Q: After successfully installing a free antivirus solution, Windows reports that no antivirus software is currently protecting the system. Which of the following solutions would resolve this issue? Answer 1: Disable the antivirus logging in the Event Viewer. Answer 2: Disable antivirus protection notification within Security Center. Answer 3: Install the Microsoft Malicious Software removal tool. Answer 4: Update the Antivirus definitions. Correct Answer: 2 Explanation: However, not all antivirus programs are designed to report this information. In fact, there are some antivirus solutions that the Security Center won't detect at all. If you use an antivirus program that Windows doesn't recognize, and you keep it up to date and properly configured, you may want to disable the antivirus Security Center alerts.

Questions
Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide, Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) Chapter 17 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20401650 Q: Which of the following can be used to configure a Windows installation for imaging multiple computers? Answer 1: fdisk Answer 2: sysprep Answer 3: regedit Answer 4: telnet Correct Answer: 2 Explanation: Sysprep is a tool designed for corporate system administrators, OEMs, and others who need to deploy the Windows® XP operating system on multiple computers. After performing the initial setup steps on a single system, you can run Sysprep to prepare the sample computer for cloning.

Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide, Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) Chapter 14 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20401660 Q: Which of the following is a class A IP address? Answer 1: 192.168.1.1 Answer 2: 224.0.0.1 Answer 3: 10.0.0.1 Answer 4: 172.16.1.1 Correct Answer: 3 Explanation:

Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide, Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) Chapter 23 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20401670 Q: Which of the following network ports is normally associated with unencrypted web traffic? Answer 1: 53 Answer 2: 80

or XP partition set the Windows partition to file system type NTFS. Answer 2: check the HCL. When your computer receives internet traffic from your modem or router on that port. port 80 is associated with web traffic (http). Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) Chapter 23 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20401690 Q: As a best practice. which of the following file system should be used in formatting the drive? Answer 1: NTFS Answer 2: UFS Answer 3: FAT Answer 4: NFS Correct Answer: 1 Explanation: If you want to be able to read from and write to a Windows NT. Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide. Answer 4: clean each component with an approved cleaning solution. 2000. Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) Chapter 14 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20401700 Q: If a computer needs Windows XP and Windows 2000 configured for a dual-boot environment. Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide. before performing hardware upgrades a technician should: Answer 1: archive old drivers. Correct Answer: 2 Explanation: Provides information about products compatible with the Microsoft Windows operating systems. . it directs that traffic to your browser which knows what to do with it. Answer 3: perform a disk defrag.Questions Answer 3: 110 Answer 4: 443 Correct Answer: 2 Explanation: For instance.

or the Windows key. 23 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20401730 . such as Shift. Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) Chapter 17 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20401720 Q: Which of the following is MOST likely to be the source of wireless network interference? Answer 1: Bluetooth headset Answer 2: Large screen television Answer 3: AM/FM radio Answer 4: Cordless telephone Correct Answer: 4 Explanation: In a normal household scenario. Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) Chapter 2. Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide. StickyKeys allows the user to press a modifier key. but it is also used by others as a means to reduce RSI (or a syndrome called the Emacs Pinky).Questions Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide. unless your microwave and phone are in use all the time. Ctrl. Alt. Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) Chapter 14 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20401710 Q: A technician must configure a computer for a special needs user who can only press one key at a time. and have it remain active until another key is pressed. in most cases you probably won't even notice. an 802.11b wireless LAN may encounter interference from time to time. Which of the following must the technician enable for this user to press Ctrl-Alt-Del or other multi-key combinations? Answer 1: FilterKeys Answer 2: ToggleKeys Answer 3: Encryption Keys Answer 4: StickyKeys Correct Answer: 4 Explanation: StickyKeys is an accessibility feature created by Microsoft to aid users who have physical disabilities. Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide. Although performance may suffer when the microwave oven or cordless phone is in use.

proposals. Answer 4: Replace the display adaptor. Which of the following connection methods is the MOST effective when installing the printer on several PCs? Answer 1: Connect to it through a computer share Answer 2: Connect to it through a TCP/IP port . Correct Answer: 2 Explanation: Degauss is a method of erasing magnetic media and the removal of remnants of previously recorded signals. Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide. Answer 2: Run FDISK on the hard drive.) can never be seen again after you remove it then you need a program with the capabilities of this one. Answer 3: Erase the hard drive using a disk wiping program. Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) Chapter 19 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20401740 Q: A computer is being sold over the Internet. if you sell your old PC you may wish to make sure that all data is erased Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide. Which of the following actions BEST resolves this issue? Answer 1: Reload the driver for the monitor. etc. Correct Answer: 3 Explanation: If you wish to make sure that information which has been written to disk (such as financial data. company plans. Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) Chapter 11 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20401750 Q: A printer with an integrated NIC has been connected to a LAN.Questions Q: A CRT monitor is displaying patches of distortion while in use. Which of the following steps should be taken to ensure that none of the original hard drive data is given to the buyer? Answer 1: Pass all computer components near a large magnet. Answer 2: Degauss the monitor. Answer 4: Reformat the hard drive to a clean state using the format command. Also. Answer 3: Power cycle the computer.

Questions Answer 3: Connect to it via an ad-hoc wireless connection Answer 4: Connect to it through a USB or IEEE 1394 cable Correct Answer: 2 Explanation: Printers need an IP address so that they will reliably print to computers on the network. Which of the following is the MOST important factor for a technician to consider when in determining which UPS to purchase? Answer 1: Amount of time necessary for the UPS to run in a power outage. Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) Chapter 17 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20401770 Q: A user reports that the print jobs from a color inkjet printer appear fuzzy. Correct Answer: 1 Explanation: The consequence of equipment failure is the single most important factor determining the type of UPS to purchase. Answer 4: Replace all of the print cartridges. Answer 3: The number and size of all applications running on each workstation. Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) Chapter 22 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20401760 Q: Management has approved the purchase of uninterruptible power supplies (UPSs) for all workstations. Answer 2: The physical footprint of the UPS. Answer 2: Send a test page to the printer. Which of the following options would BEST help troubleshoot the problem? Answer 1: Power cycle the printer. as iterated below: . Answer 3: Run an alignment page. Answer 4: The amount of space available at each workstation to place the UPS. The first step in selecting the right UPS involves performing an electronic triage assessment of the importance or value of the processes and hardware to be protected. Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide. there are a variety of steps which can be taken to resolve the issue. Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide. Correct Answer: 3 Explanation: If the printed output of an inkjet printer appears fuzzy.

Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide. Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) Chapter 22 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20401780 Q: Which of the following draws too much power and should never be plugged into a UPS? Answer 1: Laser printer Answer 2: Laptop computer Answer 3: LCD monitor Answer 4: Server Correct Answer: 1 Explanation: Laser printers utilize a lot of power. neither will sending a test page to the printer. Replacing all of the print cartridges may resolve the issue. Ensure the proper type of paper is being used for the printer. a laser printer should never be powered by a UPS. All other devices listed are perfect for a UPS. Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) Chapter 2 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20401790 Q: Which of the following command line tools would be BEST to use if a technician wants to see if a printer is on the network? Answer 1: ipconfig Answer 2: ping Answer 3: telnet Answer 4: msconfig Correct Answer: 2 . This can quickly overpower a UPS and exceed standard load levels. 2. Check the resolution of the image or text from the source being printed.Questions 1. Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide. 4. Some paper contains non-printable sides or is too thick for a printer. 3. Align the cartridges Power cycling the printer will not resolve fuzzy print. Therefore. Check the printer settings are configured appropriately. more specifically the fuser utilizes short but huge amounts of power. but this would be costly and may not be required.

which stands for packet Internet groper. The PING command sends out four 32-byte packets to a destination and waits for a reply. Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) Chapter 15 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20401800 Q: Which of the following authentication technologies provides security to a corporate environment MOST commonly via the PCMCIA interface on a laptop? Answer 1: Username Answer 2: Key fob Answer 3: Smart cards Answer 4: Biometrics Correct Answer: 3 Explanation: Cryptographic smart cards are often used for single sign-on. The most widely used cryptographic algorithms in smart cards (excluding the GSM so-called "crypto algorithm") are Triple DES and RSA. Today's cryptographic smart cards are also able to generate key pairs on board. you will get back the following: Request timed out. Request timed out. On Microsoft Windows platforms the CSP API is also adopted. Most advanced smart cards are equipped with specialized cryptographic hardware that let you use algorithms such as RSA and DSA on board. Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide.Questions Explanation: Explanation: Another useful connectivity troubleshooting tool is PING. The key set is usually loaded (DES) or generated (RSA) on the card at the personalization stage. It can also use a DNS hostname. Such smart cards are mainly used for digital signature and secure identification. Request timed out Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide. to avoid the risk of having more than one copy of the key (since by design there usually isn't a way to extract private keys from a smart card). The most common way to access cryptographic smart card functions on a computer is to use a PKCS#11 library provided by the vendor. If you cannot make a connection to the remote host. Request timed out. 26 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20401810 Q: Which of the following is the proper way to enter the Windows Advanced options menu? . Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) Chapter 16.

Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) Chapter 14 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ . though. if you have only one OS installed). you access the options by pressing the F8 key when you¶re presented with the list of Oss installed on the computer. Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) Chapter 14 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20401820 Q: Starting Windows XP in Safe Mode will cause which of the following to occur? (Select TWO). keyboard. you can make additional selections for advanced startup options. you can restore files that are missing or fix a configuration error. Answer 5: Windows XP uses the minimum set of drivers and services to start the GUI. except serial mice. or 2000 using only basic files and drivers (mouse.Questions Answer 1: Midway through Windows loading. the advanced options offer a number of useful tools. If you don¶t have the system configured to display the list of Oss (for example. Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide. Answer 3: Windows XP will scan all drivers and services to make sure they are all approved and safe to run during boot. If you have a problem that makes it difficult to get Windows up and running. monitor.sys file that is located on the root directory. default system services. In most cases you will be able to just boot into your OS without worrying about the advanced options. Answer 2: Press F8 after POST but before Windows begins to load. press F8 when a message on the screen tells you that you can do so. Answer 1: Windows will not save any file changes while is Safe Mode. XP. Answer 4: Windows XP starts basic networking to allow for updating of drivers from the Internet. Answer 4: Enter System Configuration Utility and select Startup Menu. Answer 3: Edit the config. problems may arise. mass storage. Occasionally. The options are not identical on the various versions of Windows. power cycle the system. Once in Safe Mode. In Windows. base video. Explanation: Safe Mode Starts Windows Vista. Answer 2: Windows prevents successful boot and logon from updating Last Known Good Configuration. Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide. Correct Answer: 2 Explanation: Advanced Startup Options: In addition to performing a regular boot into the OS of your choice. and no network connections).

Questions QID: 20401830 Q: A technician has been asked to assist with the disposal and recycling of the old computers. From the microscopical point of view. Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) Chapter 16. As both surfaces aren¶t perfectly even. The first time that a low-level format ("LLF") is performed on a hard disk. As air is a terrible heat conductor (its conductibility coefficient is 0. If an LLF is done on a disk with data on it already. Answer 4: Use the fdisk command. the data is permanently erased (save heroic data recovery measures which are sometimes possible). That's the last time the platters will be empty for the life of the drive. Answer 2: Use a low level format. Which of the following is a BEST practice to ensure that the companys data is protected? Answer 1: Repartition the hard drive. But the cooler alone doesn¶t solve the overheating problem. The use of an inefficient or wrongly dimensioned cooler can cause overheating problems. 26 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20401840 Q: Which of the following locations BEST describes the correct placement of thermal compound? Answer 1: On the outside of a heat sink Answer 2: In the socket of a component Answer 3: On top of a component Answer 4: Between a component and a heat sink Correct Answer: 4 Explanation: What¶s The Use of Thermal Grease? The device used to remove the processors heat is the cooler. because it really creates the physical format that defines where the data is stored on the disk. and writing the control structures that define where the tracks and sectors are. we should apply thermal grease .026 W/m°K). Correct Answer: 2 Explanation: Low-level formatting is the process of outlining the positions of the tracks and sectors on the hard disk. To solve the problem and improve the heat transfer between the processor and the cooler. minuscule gaps of air are formed when putting them together. Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide. Imperfections that exist both on processor surface and cooler surface prevent the 100% perfect contact between them. the disk's platters start out empty. Answer 3: Use the format command. the physical contact between the processor and the cooler isn¶t perfect. which can result in overheating. the heat will pass with more difficulty from the processor to the cooler. There¶s another bad guy in the story: heat transfer between the processor and the cooler. This is often called a "true" formatting operation. Each processor requires a specific type of cooler.

external hard drives. A lot of connectivity devices will also have an indicator that blinks or flashes when traffic is going through the port. If you have a device with lights and you¶re not sure what they mean. If you have a hub. If it doesn¶t you have a problem. switch. In situations where the power light doesn¶t come on and the device has no power. and printers. The same holds true for other external devices such as wireless routers. or other connectivity device.Questions between them in order to fill in the tiny gaps of air. Some devices will give you a green light for a good connection. several types of devices have additional lights that can help you troubleshoot. but other times it¶s a separate indicator. always obey the first rule of troubleshooting: check your connections first! Beyond power indicators. you should have an indicator for each port that lights up when there is a connection. Answer 1: IEEE 1394 Answer 2: PS/2 Answer 3: Parallel Answer 4: NIC Answer 5: Modem Answer 6: Modem Correct Answer: 4. when you power on a system you expect the power light to come on. it¶s best to check the manual or the manufacturer¶s website to learn. Sometimes it¶s the same light that indicates a connection. and a yellow or red light if it detects a problem. the heat transfer between the processor and the cooler is more easily made. since the thermal grease has higher conductibility coefficient than the air. Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide. Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) Chapter 9 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20401850 Q: On which of the following interfaces should a technician expect to see status light indicators? (Select TWO). Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) Chapter 17. Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide. 25 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20401860 Q: Which of the following commands will partition a hard disk on a Windows XP computer? . Obviously. 5 Explanation: Status Light Indicators Most hardware devices have status light indicators that can help you identify when there is a problem. By doing so.

The Fdisk tool is an MS-DOSbased tool that you can use to prepare (partition) a hard disk. and retrieve data. . Windows NT . use the Format tool to format those partitions with a file system. Windows 95 OEM Service Release 2 (OSR2).Select the "Computer Name" tab and use the "Full computer name" field. you must first create a primary partition on the hard disk (disk 1) on your computer. Right-Click on the "My Computer" Icon which is on your Windows Desktop. You can use the Fdisk tool to create. you are prompted to choose one of the following file systems: Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide. Windows Millennium Edition (Me). and then each allocated space on the hard disk (primary partition. After you use the Fdisk tool to partition your hard disk. or display current partitions on the hard disk.Select the "Network Identification" tab and use the "Full computer name" field. Windows XP . extended partition.Questions Answer 1: convert Answer 2: fdisk Answer 3: chkdsk Answer 4: format Correct Answer: 2 Explanation: Before you install your operating system. change. When you run the Fdisk tool on a hard disk that is larger than 512 megabytes (MB). Select the appropriate tab for your operating system. store. 1. Windows 98. and a second hard disk may contain a primary or extended partition. or logical drive) is assigned a drive letter. and Windows 2000 support the FAT16 and FAT32 file systems. and then format a file system on that partition. delete. then select properties 2.Select the "General" tab and use the "Computer name" field. Disk 1 may contain one extended partition. Windows 98 Second Edition. Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) Chapter 14 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20401870 Q: Which of the following is the FASTEST way for a technician to find out a users computer name in a Windows 2000 environment? Answer 1: Right click on My Computer > Properties > Computer Name Tab Answer 2: Right click on My Computer > Properties > Network Identification Tab Answer 3: Control Panel > System Applet > Properties > Advanced Tab Answer 4: Control Panel > System Applet > Properties > Computer Name Tab Correct Answer: 2 Explanation: How to find the computer name. An extended partition may contain one or more logical MS-DOS drives. Windows 2000 . The file system File Allocation Table (FAT) allows the hard disk to accept.

11 medium access protocol. Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) Chapter 2 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20401890 Q: Which of this following wireless security options is MOST secure? Answer 1: WEP2 with shared-key authentication Answer 2: WPA2 with shared-key authentication Answer 3: WPA with shared-key authentication Answer 4: WEP with shared-key authentication Correct Answer: 2 Explanation: The first line of defense for your Wi-Fi network is encryption. most routers ship with encryption turned off. an interfering signal generally doesn't abide by the 802. the destination will receive the packet with errors and not reply to the source station with an acknowledgement. In return. so the interfering signal may start abruptly while a legitimate 802.11 station transmitting a packet.11 station is in the process of transmitting a packet. and many users don't turn it on. If this occurs. and use the strongest form supported by your network.11 stations to wait for indefinite periods of time until the interfering signal goes away.Questions Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide. the source station will attempt retransmitting the packet. If you haven't already. To make matters worse. which encodes the data transmitted between your PC and your wireless router. interfering RF signals that disrupt normal system operations. leaving themselves completely exposed. Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide. . The Wireless Protected Access (WPA) protocol and more recent WPA2 have supplanted the older and less-secure Wireless Encryption Protocol (WEP).11 protocols. This causes legitimate 802. enable your router's encryption. an interfering RF signal of sufficient amplitude and frequency can appear as a bogus 802. Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) Chapter 14 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20401880 Q: Which of the following is a type of interference that can adversely affect wireless communications? Answer 1: RFI Answer 2: CRT Answer 3: EMI Answer 4: ESD Correct Answer: 1 Explanation: RFI interference involves the presence of unwanted. adding overhead on the network. Because of the 802. Unfortunately.

Specifically. Since classes A. In order to better understand how this division of the whole is accomplished. the subnet mask for a default. it's worth starting with a look at how the whole class A. B or C network into subnets. the subnet mask will always have all ones or all zeroes in an octet.0 Answer 4: 255. Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) Chapter 16.0 Correct Answer: 3 Explanation: Explanation: IP Default Subnet Masks For Address Classes A.0. B or C network has ones for each bit that is used for network ID or subnet ID. In essence. the default subnet masks will always have 255s or 0s when expressed in decimal notation. so there are no subnet ID bits! Thus.255. 24 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20401900 Q: A technician needs to assign a default subnet mask for a class B network to a network device that was just installed. custom-subnetted network. Just as is always the case.Questions Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide. I realize that this seems like a bit of a semantic game. we just said we aren't subnetting. B and C Subnetting is the process of dividing a Class A. This is also of value because there are situations where you may need to define an unsubnetted network using subnetting notation. as we've seen in the preceding topics. most operating systems and networking hardware and software were designed under the assumption that subnetting would be used.255. Which of the following would the technician use? Answer 1: 224.0 Answer 3: 255.255. it is the case where we choose to divide the host ID so that zero bits are used for the subnet ID and all the bits are used for the host ID.0. B and C networks are represented in a subnetted environment. This is called the default subnet mask for each of the IP address classes. unsubnetted class A. This might seem like a strange concept if you aren't going to bother creating subnets. . and zeroes for the host ID bits. a non-subnetted class A. B or C network can be considered the ³default case´ of the more general.0. B and C divide the network ID from the host ID on octet boundaries. Of course. you may need to express your unsubnetted network using a subnet mask. this default case is the basis for the more practical subnetting we will examine in the next topic. However.0. Even if you decide not to subnet. why do you need to consider how the old-fashioned classes are used under subnetting? The answer is that after subnetting became popular.1 Answer 2: 255.0. Therefore. the subnet mask for this default case has 1s for the network ID portion and 0s for the host ID portion.

when locally connected.Questions Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide. and mouse. Answer 3: Add a KVM switch to the technicians computer. Common uses of KVM switches include using the same components alternately for a desktop computer and a laptop docking station or having a server room with multiple servers but no need to interface with them simultaneously. your keyboard and mouse might attach with mini-DIN connectors or with USB connectors. The initials stand for keyboard. The purpose of the switch is to allow you to have multiple systems attached to the same keyboard. Which of the following is the BEST solution? Answer 1: Add an infrared connection to all computers. You can use these three devices with only one system at a time. Answer 1: Serial Cable Answer 2: CD-ROM Answer 3: USB drive Answer 4: Floppy drive Answer 5: DVD-ROM Correct Answer: 3. and mouse. but it allows you to switch between sets of input devices. can be used as a boot device to install a new installation of Windows Vista? (Select TWO). The KVM switch is named after the devices it allows you to switch between or among sets of. You can select the switch that accommodates the type of interfaces your components require. Correct Answer: 3 Explanation: KVM Switch: A KVM switch isn¶t an input device. monitor. Some switches have a dial that you turn to select which system attaches to components. Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) Chapter 23 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20401910 Q: A technician must come up with a solution to control multiple computers with a single monitor. your monitor might attach with a VGA or DVI connector. Answer 4: Add a Bluetooth connection to all computers. KVM switches come in a variety of models. 5 . while others feature buttons for each system connected. Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) Chapter 18 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20401920 Q: Which of the following. For example. video. Answer 2: Add a USB hub to each computer. Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide.

gigabit Ethernet. Even though this maintenance helper manages details continually." Highlight the desired log from the Microsoft Management Console listing. the Event Viewer stops recording. or possibly even some external USB 2. select "Performance and Maintenance" > "Administrative Tools" > "Event Viewer. Only an administrator can log on and fix this problem. Select "Control Panel" from the Start menu. Meanwhile. you must clear it out occasionally because once the event log capacity is full." (Note: You can easily import this type of file into other applications later.0 hard drives.MSC Answer 3: Windows Security Center Answer 4: SECEDIT.txt)" file as the "Save As Type. making room for the freshest logs of the day. should you decide to do so.) Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide. But installing Windows Vista from a high speed USB flash drive perhaps is the easiest & fastest way to complete a Windows Vista install which nowadays every computer or laptop have a USB drive. Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) Chapter 14 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20401930 Q: A user receives the message The security log on this system is full. hardware and software changes. due to differences in access speed & transfer rate. This is much faster than using a DVD. Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) Chapter 17 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20401940 . The concept is simple by using flash memory drive to act as the Windows Vista installation DVD disk only. Actually.EXE Correct Answer: 1 Explanation: Microsoft Windows operating systems include an Event Viewer that records computer occurrences regarding security. After you've reviewed incidents. Next. The steps below will teach you how to clear the Event Viewer quickly. Select "Yes" to save the event log. Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide. Select "Action" > "Clear All Events" from the toolbar menu. Name your file and select "Text (tab delimited) (*.Questions Explanation: It sound a bit rare to hear people install Windows Vista on Flash Memory ya. you can back them up or delete them. The administrator should use which of the following to fix this issue? Answer 1: Event Viewer Answer 2: SECPOL.

Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) Chapter 5 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20401950 Q: A user calls and reports that after the cleaning crew left they started hearing beeping from under their desk. By loading frequently requested programs. reading at a very high rate of speed. and if not. the standard hard drive is the slowest storage device on the computer. the computer can process requests faster. Unlike RAM. While L1 cache is built into CPUs today. In some cases L3 cache is also being incorporated into the CPU. in the case of a disk drive. roughly analogous to the way a needle reads a phonograph record. L2 cache can be built into the CPU or present on the motherboard. followed by L2 and L3 cache (if present). The goal is to maximize hits and minimize misses that slow performance. it¶s a cache hit. it might also reside alongside the CPU on older PCs. When a request comes. However. Which of the following is MOST likely the cause? Answer 1: A new security update is available for download. If the CPU finds the requested data in cache. compact disk drives aside. Most computers also have L2 and L3 cache. Answer 2: The default printer is out of paper or offline. the device must search the internal disks for the information by sliding a head mechanism across the platters. By loading frequently used bits of data into L1 cache. it¶s a cache miss and RAM is searched next. When we request programs or files from a standard platter hard drive. and to speed things along.Questions Q: In which of the following does the level 1 (L1) cache reside? Answer 1: BIOS Answer 2: RAM Answer 3: RAID Answer 4: CPU Correct Answer: 4 Explanation: Level 1 or L1 cache is special. which are slower than L1 cache but faster than Random Access Memory (RAM). there are multiple platters and the head is magnetic. the CPU can work faster than RAM. Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide. RAM is a temporary holding area that becomes active when the computer boots. very fast memory built into the central processing unit (CPU) to help facilitate computer performance. Computers commonly have 1-4 Gigabytes (GB) of RAM. cache is not expandable. holding that data at the ready. followed by the hard drive. . the CPU checks L1 cache first. files. along with L3 cache. the computer doesn¶t have to search the hard drive(s) to retrieve the information on subsequent requests. you might think of L1. L2 and L3 cache as the go-betweens that anticipate what requests will be made of RAM. We normally think of RAM as being quite fast because it is so much faster than hard drives. Nevertheless. While this is a good strategy. pictures and other items into RAM.

Answer 4: The UPS is disconnected from the wall. It is usually possible to stop the beeping using the buttons on the front of the UPS. or modulator/demodulator. Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) Chapter 17 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20401960 Q: Which of the following network connections uses an analog signal? Answer 1: Wireless Answer 2: Dial-up Answer 3: Cable Answer 4: Satellite Correct Answer: 2 Explanation: Any computer that connects to the Internet using a dial-up connection needs a modem. When the power fails or browns out. Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide. However. when the beeping returns it is probably to alert you to the fact that the batteries are almost out of power and the server will be shutting down sometime soon. or its complete failure. Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide.Questions Answer 3: The speaker wires were disconnected while cleaning. Have a look at your manual. Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) Chapter 23 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20401970 Q: Which of the following input/output protocols is commonly associated with the DB-9 port? Answer 1: RS-422 Answer 2: RS-232 Answer 3: IEEE 1284 Answer 4: IEEE 1394 Correct Answer: 2 . A modem is a device that converts digital signals from a computer into analog signals that can be transmitted over phone lines and back again. Correct Answer: 4 Explanation: The UPS is designed to protect your connected hardware from surges or depressions in the power supply. the UPS will beep to indicate a lack of power to charge the batteries and change over to battery power to support your attached equipment. The low battery alarm usually cannot be silenced.

DB-9 is nearly always intended to be a 9 pin connector with an E size shell. The widest application of D-subs is for RS-232 serial communications. Which of the following should the technician keep in mind when setting up the lab? Answer 1: Cable management to avoid trip hazards Answer 2: Electrical safety with the extra network cables . allowing a DE9 9-pin D-sub to be used. Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) Chapter 9 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20401980 Q: Which of the following versions of Windows includes Windows Media Center functions? Answer 1: Windows Vista Home Basic Answer 2: Windows XP Professional Answer 3: Window Vista Home Premium Answer 4: Windows Vista Business Correct Answer: 3 Explanation: Windows Media Center (codenamed "Freestyle" during development) is an application with a 10-foot user interface designed to serve as a home-entertainment hub for the living-room TV. IBM PC compatible computers tend to have male connectors at the device. The standard indicates a male connector for terminal equipment and a female connector for modems. they were often called "DB9" instead of DE9.Questions Explanation: Because PCs first used DB25 connectors for their serial and parallel ports. when the PC serial port began to use 9-pin connectors. Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide. RS-232 devices originally used the DB25 25-pin D-sub. Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) Chapter 14 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20401990 Q: A technician is setting up a lab with fourteen wired PCs and one switch in a physical star network configuration. It is included in Windows XP Media Center Edition. but for many applications the less common signals were omitted. while modems have female connectors. but many variations exist. Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide. though the standard did not make this connector mandatory. It is also included in premium editions of Windows Vista (Vista Home Premium and Vista Ultimate) and Windows 7 (all editions. It is now common to see DE9 connectors sold as "DB9" connectors. except Starter and Home Basic). which must be installed as an operating system. as the application cannot be added to an existing installation of XP. due to the lack of understanding that the "B" represented a shell size.

run cables through drop ceilings or through conduits to keep them out of the way. Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide. with the user potentially having the option to put favorite tools in the sidebar and remove infrequently used tools. If they want to add more gadgets. Floor guards come in a variety of lengths and sizes (for just a few cables or for a lot of cables). with many operating systems also using sidebars as a form of menu for desktop navigation. Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) Chapter 2 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20402000 Q: After upgrading to Vista a user notices a clock. For applications.Questions Answer 3: Location of the PCs with respect to each other Answer 4: Number of fans located in the room so system does not overheat Correct Answer: 1 Explanation: Cables are a common cause of tripping. depending on the taste of the user and the language he or she works in. Sidebars may be located to the left or the right of the main application. Sidebars can contain a wide variety of information. Instead of having to enter drop down menus at the top of the application. and they are often designed to be configurable by the user so that he or she can keep commonly used tools and information in an easily accessible site. in a photo editing program. If you need to lay a cable through a trafficked area. If at all possible. Some sidebars are collapsible. Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide. which of the following features should they research? Answer 1: BitLocker Answer 2: Defender Answer 3: Sidebar Answer 4: User Account Control (UAC) Correct Answer: 3 Explanation: A sidebar is a form of auxiliary menu which can be found at the edge of a web page or application. and several other items on their display. sidebars might contain a range of commonly used tools. a sidebar can hold a number of commonly used tools and provide a form of navigation. allowing the user to hide the menu when it is not in use to avoid visual distractions. calendar. For example. use a cable floor guard to keep the cables in place and safe from crushing. Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) Chapter 14 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20402010 . a user can quickly grab a tool he or she needs.

so called Domain Name System (DNS) servers. It maps a human-recognizable identifier to a system-internal. and try plugging the drive into an alternate source of power to see if it spins up better Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide. For example. Answer 3: Provides security for a network through the use of ACLs. on the Internet. are used to translate a hostname or a domain name to its corresponding binary identifier or vice versa. a name server (also spelled nameserver) consists of a program or computer server that implements a name-service protocol. often numeric. hissing. Which of the following is MOST likely causing the sound? Answer 1: Under powered fan Answer 2: Failed fan Answer 3: System clock feature Answer 4: Failing hard drive Correct Answer: 4 Explanation: The difficulty with trying to figure out what problems a hard drive has is that there's so much that can go wrong with a hard drive. Nevertheless. or some other sound that you wouldn't normally expect. Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) Chapter 23 . a special case of name servers. Correct Answer: 2 Explanation: In computing. Users commonly refer to a clicking or the "click of death". identification or addressing component. a whirring. Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) Chapter 17 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20402020 Q: Which of the following BEST describes the function of a DNS server? Answer 1: Secures network traffic through shared key encryption. Answer 2: Provides resolution of host names to IP addresses.Questions Q: A technician hears a sound that resembles a ticking clock coming from a system. Here's a guide to diagnosing hard drive failures and a few notes on what you can do. Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide. there are some telltale signs that can give you a better idea of what you're dealing with. Answer 4: Dynamically assigns IP addresses for easy client configuration. Listen with your ear to the drive for any unusual noise. Head Crash The symptoms of a head crash usually include some sort of physical noise.

and other resources. . Laptop and external display together. Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide. Plus it's easy to get Help from an online Microsoft support professional. trade questions and answers with other Windows XP users on Windows newsgroups. support.Fx hotkey for video. Correct Answer: 3 Explanation: There should be a Fn . or Helpdesk professional assist you. External display only. Answer 2: Replace the LCD inverter. Give the system a few seconds between key presses to let it sort itself out. and back to Laptop screen only. Answer 4: Make sure the OS has the latest video drivers installed. or the table of contents. or use Remote Assistance to have a friend. how to articles. Have a look at the icons on your F keys Typically pressing this key combination will cycle between: Laptop screen only. 21 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20402040 Q: Where can a technician find information relating to common problems or concerns on a Windows XP computer? Answer 1: Right-click My Computer > Help and Support Answer 2: Start > Help and Support Answer 3: Start > Programs > Accessories > System Tools > Help and Support Answer 4: Right-click Taskbar > Help and Support Correct Answer: 2 Explanation: The Help and Support Center in the Windows® XP operating system represents a significant milestone in delivering a single resource for Online Help.Questions ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20402030 Q: A technician is examining a laptop that is booting up but not showing the laptop display. tools. When the technician plugs in an external monitor the display shows on the monitor but still not on the laptop display. Extensive Online Help is accessible via Search. co-worker. the Index. Exactly which F key varies between manufacturers. Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) Chapter 17. Answer 3: Make sure the laptop display is enabled. Which of the following should the technician do FIRST to resolve this issue? Answer 1: Replace the video card inside the laptop.

and they often look similar. switches don¶t pass along everything they receive on one port to every other port as hubs do. To fix whatever problem is going on. . a driver issue. This greatly reduces overhead and thus performance as there is essentially a virtual connection between sender and receiver. Answer 2: The component is not installed. Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) Chapter 17 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20402050 Q: Which of the following is indicated when a yellow question mark appears next to a device on the Device Manager list? Answer 1: The component is disabled. However. Answer 3: The components driver is outdated. Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) Chapter 14 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20402060 Q: Which of the following would be the BEST device to replace a hub? Answer 1: Switch Answer 2: Modem Answer 3: Bridge Answer 4: Router Correct Answer: 1 Explanation: Switches provide centralized connectivity just as hubs do (usually on twisted-pair Ethernet networks).Questions Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide. The yellow mark itself doesn't give you any valuable information but what it does do is confirm that a Device Manager error code has been generated. Answer 4: The components driver is not found. switches examine the Layer 2 header of the incoming packet and forward it properly to the right port and only that port. Correct Answer: 4 Explanation: The yellow exclamation mark provides an indication of a device's current status and could mean that there is a system resource conflict. so it¶s easy to confuse them. Rather. Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide. you'll need to view this code and troubleshoot accordingly. or any number of other things.

and the actual number of devices that can be attached to a SCSI bus depends on the SCSI type. This is important to know because SCSI allows you to daisy-chain multiple devices together. while older SCSI implementations usually support only eight devices. the SCSI adapter supports both internal and external SCSI devices. In most cases. There are several different flavors of SCSI.Questions Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide. but has to be terminated at the last device? Answer 1: USB Answer 2: SCSI Answer 3: Serial Answer 4: Parallel Correct Answer: 2 Explanation: Multiple devices can be attached to a SCSI bus. SCSI devices communicate across a SCSI bus. These internal and external SCSI devices communicate across a common SCSI bus (unless the adapter's manufacturer states otherwise). While the hardware itself will not stop you from daisy-chaining together an infinite number of SCSI devices. How many devices depends on the type of SCSI. Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) Chapter 23 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20402070 Q: Which of the following I/O devices can be daisy chained together. which is often implemented in the form of a SCSI adapter card or a SCSI port on the system board. Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide. Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) Chapter 11 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20402080 Q: How many pins does a VGA Connector have? Answer 1: 9 Answer 2: 15 Answer 3: 25 Answer 4: 40 Correct Answer: 2 Explanation: . the SCSI bus will only support a certain number of devices. Most modern SCSI buses support a total of 16 devices. Knowing how to set SCSI IDs is essential to making a chain of SCSI devices work correctly.

26 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20402100 Q: A user wants to add an additional network connection to their laptop. passwords should include upper.Questions The term Video Graphics Array (VGA) refers specifically to the display hardware first introduced with the IBM PS/2 line of computers in 1987. To be strong. secret. Which of the following bus slots will a laptop MOST likely have available to support a new NIC? Answer 1: SATA Answer 2: AGP Answer 3: SODIMM Answer 4: PCMCIA Correct Answer: 4 Explanation: .and lowercase letters. and regularly changed. the 15-pin D-subminiature VGA connector or the 640×480 resolution itself. Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide. Users should be educated to understand how valuable data is and why it is important to keep their password strong. While this resolution has been superseded in the personal computer market. Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) Chapter 19 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20402090 Q: Which of the following are characteristics of a secure password? (Select TWO). numbers.[citation Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide. 5 Explanation: Password Management: One of the strongest ways to keep a system safe is to employ strong passwords and educate your users.[1] but through its widespread adoption has also come to mean either an analog computer display standard. Answer 1: Obscure word in a dictionary Answer 2: Contained in a text file Answer 3: Contains AES encryption Answer 4: Contains numbers and letters Answer 5: Contains special characters Correct Answer: 4. Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) Chapter 16. and other characters as allowed (which characters are allowed may differ based upon the operating system). it is becoming a popular resolution on mobile devices.

There are three form factors that correspond to three standard thicknesses: Type I cards are generally used as memory expansion cards. The wires were either soldered to the power button (making it difficult to replace the power supply if it failed) or blade receptacles were used." This is known as softoff or standby and can be used for remote wake up through Wake-on-Ring or Wake-on-LAN. PCMCIA peripheral equipment comes in the shape of a credit card (54mm by 85 mm) and has a 68-pin connector. However. allowing the computer to be turned off via software. The general configuration was a double-pole latching mains voltage switch with the four pins connected to wires from a four-core cable. energy still flows to the components even when the computer appears to be "off. Type II cards are generally for peripheral communication equipment (modem. which is the name sometimes given to the bus) consortium in order to extend current peripheral equipment connectivity on mobile computers. but is generally used to power on the computer through a front switch. wireless network card) and small hard drives. Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) Chapter 9 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20402110 Q: Which of the following power supply standards was developed to provide a better way to plug into the motherboard? Answer 1: ATX Answer 2: AT Answer 3: PC/XT Answer 4: ACL Correct Answer: 1 Explanation: AT-style computer cases had a power button that was directly connected to the system computer power supply (PSU). Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide. Type III cards.Questions The PC Card bus was developed in 1989 by the PCMCIA (Personal Computer Memory Card International Association. network card. . much thicker. are generally used for peripheral equipment with mechanical elements (large capacity hard drives). many ATX power supplies have a manual switch on the back to ensure the computer is truly off and no power is being sent to the components. With this switch on. An ATX power supply does not directly connect to the system power button.

[1] and last updated by RFC 5321 (2008)[2] which includes the extended SMTP (ESMTP) additions. and Windows will send a test page to the printer. Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide. right-click on the printer you installed from within the Printer control panel and click Properties. double-check all of your connections. While electronic mail servers and other mail transfer agents use SMTP to send and receive mail messages. client applications usually use either the Post Office Protocol (POP) or the Internet Message Access Protocol (IMAP) to access their mail box accounts on a mail server. Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) Chapter 23 . For receiving messages. SMTP is specified for outgoing mail transport and uses port 25. To print a test page. If the page prints. your printer is working. and is the protocol in widespread use today. user-level client mail applications typically only use SMTP for sending messages to a mail server for relaying. SMTP was first defined in RFC 821 (STD 15). Click that button. where would a technician go in Windows to print out a test page? Answer 1: From the printers drivers Answer 2: Manually on the printer Answer 3: From the printer properties page Answer 4: From the administrative tools applet Correct Answer: 3 Explanation: Print a Test Page Windows has a built-in function for doing just that. Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) Chapter 9 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20402120 Q: When a job fails to print. If not. ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20402130 Q: Which of the following ports are commonly used for outgoing email? Answer 1: NNTP Answer 2: TELNET Answer 3: SMTP Answer 4: HTTP Correct Answer: 3 Explanation: Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) is an Internet standard for electronic mail (e-mail) transmission across Internet Protocol (IP) networks. On the General tab of the printer Properties there will be a Print Test Page button.Questions Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide.

Mac OS X and other modern operating systems. since they allow both callers to speak and be heard at the same time. and. By default the server listens on TCP port 3389.Clients exist for most versions of Microsoft Windows (including Windows Mobile). Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) Chapter 17 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20402150 Q: Which of the following transmission types allows for a NIC to send and receive data simultaneously? Answer 1: Half duplex Answer 2: Port mirroring Answer 3: Full duplex Answer 4: Port forwarding Correct Answer: 3 Explanation: A full-duplex. Unix. A good analogy for a full-duplex system would be a two-lane road with one lane for each direction.Questions ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20402140 Q: Which of the following protocols are commonly used for Windows Remote Desktop? Answer 1: NTP Answer 2: PPTP Answer 3: RDP Answer 4: LDAP Correct Answer: 3 Explanation: Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP) is a proprietary protocol developed by Microsoft. or sometimes double-duplex system. which concerns providing a user with a graphical interface to another computer. allows this to happen simultaneously. allows communication in both directions. Linux.128 application sharing protocol. Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide. The protocol is an extension of the ITUT T. Land-line telephone networks are full-duplex. Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide. unlike half-duplex. Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) Chapter23 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20402160 Q: Which of the following network devices helps prevent data collision by not allowing data to be broadcast? .

which slows down the network. Since every packet is repeated on every other port. Hubs do not manage any of the traffic that comes through them. Using a switch is called micro-segmentation. packet collisions result. a switch operates at the data-link layer of the OSI model to create a different collision domain per switch port. Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) Chapter 23 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20402170 Q: Which of the following network devices interconnects workstations and broadcasts the data that is being transmitted? Answer 1: Switch Answer 2: Modem Answer 3: Router Answer 4: Hub Correct Answer: 4 Explanation: A network hub. In the case of a "hub" then they would all have to share the bandwidth. . and they will never interfere with each others' conversations. is a fairly unsophisticated network device. Any packet entering a port is broadcast out or "repeated" on every other port. run in Half duplex and there would be collisions and retransmissions. Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide. then A and B can transfer data between them as well as C and D at the same time. If you have 4 computers A/B/C/D on 4 switch ports. except for the port of entry. Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide. or repeater. It allows you to have dedicated bandwidth on point to point connections with every computer and to therefore run in Full duplex with no collisions.Questions Answer 1: Hub Answer 2: Modem Answer 3: Bridge Answer 4: Switch Correct Answer: 4 Explanation: In the context of a standard 10/100 Ethernet switch. Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) Chapter 23 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20402180 Q: Which of the following is a difference between a local printer and a network printer? Answer 1: A local printer has a small footprint and cost less money than a network printer that has a large footprint.

after the print command is given. when the current starts flowing through the metal plates.Questions Answer 2: Local printers are situated in a common area shared by one department in the same office while network printers are always installed in enterprise environments where there are several offices in different buildings sharing the device. while laser printers can be harmful to the environment. for black and other primary colors respectively. It is usually 21 . The black inkjet cartridge has only black ink. This common technique is called Thermal Inkjet and the coinage of the name µBubbleJets¶ by Canon has been due to the bubbling vapors. The ink then flows out in droplets from the nozzles onto the paper in a few milliseconds. A vacuum is created (once the ink droplet flows out) which draws more ink into the nozzles ensuring a steady supply of droplets as required. while an inkjet printer fuses the image to the page. The number of holes or nozzles depends on the resolution of the printer. while an inkjet printer sprays the image on the page. The ink gets heated. Answer 4: A maximum of two computers can share a local printer verses unlimited users can share a network printer. Answer 4: Laser printers fuse the image to the page. magenta and yellow ink. Correct Answer: 3 Explanation: A network printer is shared by more than one computer. . The color inkjet printer contains two main ink cartridges.128 nozzles per color. The primary colors are consequently mixed to produce all other colors. The heat causes vapor bubbles to form inside the cartridge and make the ink swell up. Correct Answer: 4 Explanation: The technology used for inkjet cartridges is simpler and the parts are less expensive than the laser toners. The cartridge contains a reservoir which has compartments with metal plates and a number of tiny nozzles on the print head of the cartridge. Answer 3: Network printers can be connected directly to a network while a local printer is connected directly to a users computer. Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide. The primary colors are then divided into three compartments for cyan. Answer 2: Laser printers melt the image onto the page. Answer 3: Laser printers use toner. A local printer is directly connected to one computer. while the inkjet printer can only use ink cartridges. Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) Chapter 22 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20402190 Q: Which of the following is the difference between a laser printer and an inkjet printer? Answer 1: Ink jet printers are safe for the environment.

the printer will print jobs on a first-come. Networking has to be via a computer. The toner is transferred to the paper by the drum. The fuser system is made up of the hot-roll and the back-up roller. Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide. Once you send the job to the printer.Questions The Laser toners use a more elaborate and complex technology. Answer 2: The application used to create the document is incompatible with the printer. therefore more expensive. the fuser applies heat and pressure to make a durable image. therefore. Which of the following may be the cause? Answer 1: Outdated or corrupt print driver. Answer 4: Printer configuration is incorrect. fax machines and photocopiers to print text and images on laser and photo paper. The laser printers are larger in size than the inkjet printers. Answer 3: A print job is waiting in the print queue. The laser printers consist of the printer toner and the drum. but the printer does not print the job. The ink printers cannot be linked to a network directly. In most cases. individual carbon particles are mixed in a polymer which melt in heat. The latter is. By double-clicking on it (or by right-clicking on it and selecting the printer name). space saving and ideal for the home and small office users. This binds to the fibers in the paper. For the laser toners. near the clock. The positively charged toner gets attracted to the negatively charged drum. The line of all print jobs is called the print queue. you will end up looking at the jobs in the print queue. Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) Chapter 17 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ . Initially carbon powder was used but now manufacturers use disposable cartridges which can sometimes be refilled. that print job ends up in a line with all other documents sent to that printer. A powder called Toner is used by laser printers. The toner contains special wax that melts and dries in milliseconds. first-serve basis. This cuts down additional costs associated with networking. When the toner is transferred. The high-end laser printers generally come with networking facilities for you to connect to your computer network directly. a small printer icon will appear in the system tray in the lower-right corner of your desktop. Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide. as is the case with ink printers. Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) Chapter 22 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20402200 Q: A customer reports that while attempting to print a document it seems to queue up fine. Correct Answer: 3 Explanation: When you send a job to the printer.

slide the slide the resolution bar to the right to see if the settings will change to the desired resolution. Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide. Click on the "Settings" tab and double-check the resolution settings. . Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) Chapter 19 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20402230 Q: A CD drive is a type of: Answer 1: solid state drive. Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) Chapter 9 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20402220 Q: In terms of screen resolution. It has been designed to alleviate some of the issues that arose from using newer technologies (which often demand more power and create more heat) on motherboards compliant with the circa-1996 ATX specification. which of the following provides the MOST room for effective cooling? Answer 1: BTX Answer 2: ATX Answer 3: NLX Answer 4: Micro ATX Correct Answer: 1 Explanation: BTX (for Balanced Technology Extended) is a form factor for motherboards. originally slated to be the replacement for the aging ATX motherboard form factor in late 2004 and early 2005. Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide. which of the following is the minimum default resolution setting that Windows XP supports? Answer 1: 640 x 480 Answer 2: 800 x 600 Answer 3: 800 x 640 Answer 4: 1280 x 920 Correct Answer: 2 Explanation: Windows XP requires a minimum resolution of 800 X 600 for both the monitor and the video adapter. If the settings are less than 800 X 600. You can check this out by clicking the "Display" icon on your control panel.Questions QID: 20402210 Q: In regards to computer case form factors.

Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide. as in RAID 0. Answer 3: the back up tape drive configuration. DVDs (digital versatile disc" or "digital video disc") and Blu-ray discs. Answer 3: optical drive. RAID can be set up to serve several different purposes. they are said to be in a RAID array[3]. Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) Chapter 11 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20402240 Q: The RAID level on a computer system refers to: Answer 1: how data is distributed between multiple drives. Optical drives are designed to work with several types of media: CDs ("compact disc"). Correct Answer: 3 Explanation: An optical storage device is an electro-mechanical unit that can save and retrieve (write and read) information on a special disc medium using a laser light. Answer 4: hot swappable drive. RAID 1. but the array is seen by the computer user and operating system as one single disk. Correct Answer: 1 Explanation: RAID" is now used as an umbrella term for computer data storage schemes that can divide and replicate data among multiple hard disk drives. Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide. RAID's various designs involve two key design goals: increase data reliability and/or increase input/output performance. Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) Chapter 9 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20402250 Q: Which of the following would be an example of an I/O interface? Answer 1: DIMM chip Answer 2: IDE drive Answer 3: AGP slot Answer 4: PS/2 port . The different schemes/architectures are named by the word RAID followed by a number. This array distributes data across multiple disks. Answer 4: number of installed hard drives. etc.Questions Answer 2: network drive. Answer 2: the number of partitions across multiple hard drives. When multiple physical disks are set up to use RAID technology.

However. you should replacethem both and not attempt to repair them yourself. Answer 2: equal or greater than the original power supply wattage. be sure to match the size. The PS/2 connector is used for connecting some keyboards and mice to a PC compatible computer system. an issue not seen when replacing AT or ATX power supplies. When replacing an AC adapter. Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide. Correct Answer: 1 Explanation: Just as the power supply in a desktop computer converts AC voltages to DC for the internal components to run on. so are AC adapters.Questions Correct Answer: 4 Explanation: Short for input/output (pronounced "eye-oh"). shape. and polarity of the tip with the adapter you are replacing. Every transfer is an output from one device and an input into another. Additionally. Because both power supplies and AC adapters go bad on occasion. A writable CD-ROM is both an input and an output device. The term I/O is used to describe any program. you can replace an AC adapter with a model that supplies more watts to the component because the component only uses what it needs. Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) Chapter 17 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20402270 . One difference is that AC adapters are also rated in terms of DC volts out to the laptop or other device. it is important for the output to be: Answer 1: equivalent to the original power supply wattage. Just as power supplies are rated in watts and selected for use with a specific voltage. Answer 3: auto sensing from 100 to 240 Volts. and as with power supplies. such as certain brands and models of printer. Devices such as keyboards and mouses are inputonly devices while devices such as printers are output-only. Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) Chapter 9 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20402260 Q: When purchasing an extra AC adapter for a notebook computer. operation or device that transfers data to or from a computer and to or from a peripheral device. because the output DC voltage is specified for the AC adapter. Answer 4: equal or lesser than the original power supply wattage. be sure to replace it with one of equal output voltage. which have standard outputs. Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide. so does the AC adapter of a laptop computer for the laptop¶s internal components.

Cat 3 is currently still in use in two-line telephone systems Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide.) ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20402280 Q: Which of the following connectors is commonly used on CAT3 cable? Answer 1: RJ-11 Answer 2: BNC Answer 3: ST Answer 4: RG-6 Correct Answer: 1 Explanation: Category 3 cable. you won't see the 64-bit capable listing. under 64-bit capable. Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) Chapter 23 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20402290 Q: Which of the following cable types have a single copper wire used for sending and receiving data? . In the System section. and. the computer must be equipped with which of the following? Answer 1: Double the clock speed on a 32-bit processor Answer 2: Hyper-V technology Answer 3: Hyper-threading technology Answer 4: A 64-bit capable processor Correct Answer: 4 Explanation: Open Performance Information and Tools by clicking the Start button. clicking System and Maintenance. clicking Control Panel.Questions Q: To run a Microsoft Windows 64-bit OS. (If your computer is already running a 64-bit version of Windows. and then clicking Performance Information and Tools. with a possible bandwidth of 16 MHz. whether you can run a 64-bit version of Windows. is an unshielded twisted pair (UTP) cable designed to reliably carry data up to 10 Mbit/s. you can see what type of operating system you're currently running under System type. Click View and print details. commonly known as Cat 3. It is part of a family of copper cabling standards defined jointly by the Electronic Industries Alliance and the Telecommunications Industry Association.

ships. Coaxial cables are hard to install. Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide.11a Answer 2: 802.11n Answer 3: 802. Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) Chapter 23 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20402300 Q: Which of the following Internet access types has the GREATEST amount of latency? Answer 1: Fiber Answer 2: Satellite Answer 3: DSL Answer 4: Cable Correct Answer: 2 Explanation: Mobile satellite systems help connect remote regions. insulated by a plastic layer and a braided metal shield.Questions Answer 1: Coaxial Answer 2: UTP Answer 3: Fiber Answer 4: STP Correct Answer: 1 Explanation: Coaxial cables use a single copper conductor at the center. but can support greater cable lengths than twisted pair. in addition to serving as navigation systems Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide. Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) Chapter 23 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20402310 Q: Which of the following wireless types uses 5GHz frequency and can transmit data up to 54Mb? Answer 1: 802. vehicles.11g Answer 4: Bluetooth Correct Answer: 1 Explanation: . which blocks interference. people and aircraft to other parts of the world and/or other mobile or stationary communications units.

24 . Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) Chapter 23 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20402330 Q: Which of the following computer infections allows several computers to launch attacks against a network? Answer 1: Spyware Answer 2: Botnet Answer 3: Spam Answer 4: Adware Correct Answer: 2 Explanation: Botnet is a jargon term for a collection of software robots. fiber optics is much faster than conventional wire. but it can also refer to the network of computers using distributed computing software. Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide. The term is often associated with malicious software. there are typically multiple botnets in operation using the same malicious software families.11a is an amendment to the IEEE 802.11 specification that added a higher data rate of up to 54 Mbit/s using the 5 GHz band. but operated by different criminal entities. Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide. that run autonomously and automatically. Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) Chapter 16.Questions 802. because it uses light instead of electricity to send information. 24 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20402320 Q: Which of the following transmission mediums has the GREATEST speed? Answer 1: DSL Answer 2: Cable Answer 3: Fiber Answer 4: Satellite Correct Answer: 3 Explanation: As a medium for telecommunications. Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) Chapter 23. While botnets are often named after their malicious software name. or bots. Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide.

Some types of adware are also spyware and can be classified as privacy-invasive software. Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) Chapter 16.Questions ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20402340 Q: Which of the following malware types captures personal information? Answer 1: Botnet Answer 2: Spam Answer 3: Adware Answer 4: Spyware Correct Answer: 4 Explanation: Spyware is software that collects information from a computer without the user knowing about it Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide. ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20402360 Q: Which of the following malware types sends out email from a clients address book? Answer 1: Spyware Answer 2: Adware Answer 3: Worm Answer 4: Botnet Correct Answer: 3 . 24 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20402350 Q: Which of the following malware types displays pop-up advertisements on a PC wanting a user to purchase something? Answer 1: Spam Answer 2: Spyware Answer 3: Botnet Answer 4: Adware Correct Answer: 4 Explanation: Adware or advertising-supported software is any software package which automatically plays. displays. or downloads advertisements to a computer after the software is installed on it or while the application is being used.

Live CDs are unique in that they have the ability to run a complete. Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) Chapter 16. such as a hard disk drive. modern operating system on a computer lacking mutable secondary storage. also known as a battery backup. provides emergency power and. Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide. Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) Chapter 17 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20402380 Q: Which of the following boot devices can a Live version of the OS be installed and tested on. but often have the added functionality of automatically and transparently writing changes back to their bootable medium. . line regulation as well to connected equipment by supplying power from a separate source when utility power is not available Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide.Questions Explanation: A computer worm is a self-replicating computer program. 24 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20402370 Q: Which of the following devices would BEST protect the clients equipment from power outages? Answer 1: Power strip Answer 2: Uninterruptible power supply Answer 3: Surge protector Answer 4: Grounded outlet Correct Answer: 2 Explanation: An Uninterruptible power supply (UPS). depending on the topology. without actually installing it on the workstation? Answer 1: CD Answer 2: Floppy Answer 3: Internal hard drive Answer 4: Network Correct Answer: 1 Explanation: A live CD or live DVD is a CD or DVD containing a bootable computer operating system. It uses a network to send copies of itself to other nodes (computers on the network) and it may do so without any user intervention. Live USB flash drives are similar to live CDs.

While a live CD typically does not alter the operating system or files already installed on a computer's hard drive. many live CDs include mechanisms and utilities for altering the host computer's hard drive. Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide. drive imaging. Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) Chapter 14 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20402390 Q: Which of the following protocols uses port 110 by default? Answer 1: FTP Answer 2: HTTPS Answer 3: SMTP Answer 4: POP Correct Answer: 4 Explanation: Port 110 is used by the POP3 protocol for unencrypted access to electronic mail. including permanent installation.Questions The term "live" derives from the fact that these CDs each contain a complete. functioning and operational operating system on the distribution medium. Port 25 is used by the SMTP protocol to send mail ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20402400 Q: Which of the following is a type of solid state drive? Answer 1: IDE hard drive Answer 2: DVD-ROM drive Answer 3: USB thumb drive Answer 4: SCSI hard drive Correct Answer: 3 Explanation: A USB thumb drive consists of flash memory data storage device integrated with a USB (Universal Serial Bus). and system recovery. A flash drive may also refer to Solid State Drive ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20402410 . such as removing viruses. This is important for the system management aspect of live CDs.

Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) Chapter 9 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20402420 Q: IEEE1394b is capable of transfer rates of up to: Answer 1: 12Mbps. Answer 3: 480Mbps.Questions Q: Which of the following motherboards would be installed in a small form factor case? Answer 1: ATX Answer 2: Micro ATX Answer 3: AT Answer 4: NLX Correct Answer: 2 Explanation: Small Form Factor is a generic term originally phrased as shuttle form factor. MicroATX motherboards can be used in full-size ATX cases. Answer 2: 400Mbps. Furthermore. most microATX motherboards generally use the same power connectors Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide. Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide. Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) Chapter 9 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20402430 Q: The voltage selector on the back of some power supplies allows a technician to select between which of the following? Answer 1: 110/120 Volts AC or 220/240 Volts AC Answer 2: AC or DC Voltage Answer 3: 6/12 Volts DC or 12/24 Volts DC Answer 4: 110/120 Volts DC or 220/240 Volts DC Correct Answer: 1 . Answer 4: 800Mbps. Correct Answer: 4 Explanation: IEEE1394b Firewire module. and originally meant to describe shoebox-sized personal computers with exactly two expansion slots. offers 3 IEEE1394b ports with 100/200/400/800 Mbps of data transfer bandwidth for the industrial small form factor (SFF) embedded x86-based computing applications.The initialization "SFF" was later applied to them.

and weight became important. Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) Chapter 9 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20402440 Q: Which of the following is an advantage of using Plenum CAT5 cable when installing a network? Answer 1: Fire resistant Answer 2: Lower latency Answer 3: Increases length of cable Answer 4: Can be used with VoIP Correct Answer: 1 Explanation: Plenum is required when you want fire protection. but as cost became a driving factor. switched mode supplies are almost universal.-12V.+5V.3V. to several output DC voltages in the range + 12V. Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide. Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide. Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) Chapter 23 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20402450 Q: A Windows XP workgroup computer can have up to how many concurrent connections? Answer 1: 10 or fewer Answer 2: 15 or fewer Answer 3: 20 or fewer Answer 4: 25 or fewer Correct Answer: 1 Explanation: Only 10 nodes are allowed to enter a Win XP Pro shared folder.+5VBs and +3. Plenum grade cables are heat/fire resistant and generates little toxic smoke when burned. Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) Chapter 23 . Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide.Questions Explanation: A computer power supply is a switched-mode supply designed to convert 110/120-20/240 V AC power from the mains supply. The first generation of computers power supplies were linear devices.

Which of the following is the NEXT step? Answer 1: Remove and replace the network card.Questions ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20402460 Q: A customer with a SOHO network reports one computer on the network does not have Internet access. Make sure the duplex mode setting on the adapter matches the setting on the hub/switch. Correct Answer: 4 Explanation: A yellow exclamation point next to a device in Device Manager means that Windows has identified a problem of some kind with that device so update the device. Some hubs require a crossover cable while others require a straight-through cable. Try another port on the hub/switch. Make sure you have the correct type of cable between the adapter and the hub. Answer 2: Re-install the OS. Check all connections at the adapter and the hub/switch. Answer 3: Network server is not working. the customer reports the NIC link lights for that computer are not on. the technician notices a yellow exclamation mark in Device Manager. ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20402470 Q: After installing a network card. In addition. Answer 3: Join the computer to the workgroup. Correct Answer: 4 Explanation: The LNK LED doesn't light. 100Base-TX requires two pairs. ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20402480 Q: A technician needs to boot a computer with only the basic devices and drivers. Which of the following could be the problem? Answer 1: Firewall is not working. Which of the following boot options will accomplish this? . Answer 4: Switch is not working. Answer 4: Update the device driver. Make sure you've loaded the network drivers. Answer 2: Internet site is down.

With this minimal set of drivers. It is the first step of the more general . Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) Chapter 17 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20402500 Q: When a computer is turned on. Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide. Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) Chapter 14 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20402490 Q: After a computer starts it displays an error message NTLDR is missing. router or printer's pre-boot sequence. you can modify the registry or load or remove drivers Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide.INI Answer 4: NTDETECT. Where can the technician locate the NTLDR files? Answer 1: NTOSKRNL Answer 2: OS installation disk Answer 3: BOOT. The same basic sequence is present on all computer architectures.Questions Answer 1: Boot Mode Answer 2: Enable Boot Logging Answer 3: Safe Mode Answer 4: Debug Mode Correct Answer: 3 Explanation: Safe Mode is to use the Safe Boot option to start Windows with a minimal set of drivers.SYS Answer 4: POST Correct Answer: 4 Explanation: Power-on self-test (POST) is the common term for a computer.COM Correct Answer: 2 Explanation: if your computer is using Windows XP and you have a Windows XP installation CD you may be able to boot from this and use the Recovery Console to fix NTLDR manually.SYS Answer 2: NTLDR Answer 3: IO. which of the following is the FIRST process that runs? Answer 1: CONFIG.

and lighter.Questions process called initial program load (IPL). Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide. When the laptop is plugged into an outlet it starts. To use Power Options. Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) Chapter 9 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20402510 Q: A customer reports that a laptop does not start when the power button is pressed. But at the same time. it is suggested to get a new battery eventually so you can turn the power without the AC adapter plugged in. Answer 2: Remove the battery. The Power Options will vary depending on the exact hardware configuration you have. laptop chipsets and processors have gotten smarter about power management. or bootstrapping. booting. thinner. Answer 4: Change power outlets. If one or more components are not . Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) Chapter 21 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20402520 Q: A client reports that their laptop will not power off when the power button is pushed. Which of the following is the BEST solution? Answer 1: Replace the battery. the computer must be Advanced Configuration and Power Interface (ACPI)-compliant. Answer 3: Replace the power button. Windows XP provides several options to manage the power consumed by your laptop or your desktop. Which of the following could be the issue? Answer 1: The MBR Answer 2: The power-management console Answer 3: The AC/DC adaptor Answer 4: The battery Correct Answer: 2 Explanation: As laptops have gotten smaller. which dictates that all components are capable of power management. Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide. making the most of these smaller batteries. Correct Answer: 1 Explanation: Laptops work on just the AC adapter plugged in to the wall when the battery is bad. they've had to sacrifice the longer-lasting power that comes with large batteries. The term POST has become popular in association with and as a result of the proliferation of the PC.

giving you more components and devices. you might not have ACPI functionality. Answer 2: The system is overheating. Which of the following should the technician do NEXT? Answer 1: Check to see if a disk is present in the drive. Answer 4: Additional memory needs to be installed. Hibernate. device must be plugged in first so it could be detected. Answer 4: Check if the drive is properly plugged in. Correct Answer: 4 Explanation: When installing a device. Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) Chapter 17. In this column. Answer 3: The OS is not installed. Which of the following is the MOST likely issue? Answer 1: The RAM is not seated properly. The technician powers on the laptop and the drive is not detected. or you might experience erratic behavior. and allowing you to shut off or reduce the power consumption of specific pieces of your hardware. We can't begin to cover all the options of the various manufacturers and their power management utilities. Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) Chapter 21 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20402540 Q: A customer reports that a laptop starts running for a few minutes before freezing or shutting down. Answer 2: Check the manufacturer's recommended settings. and Stand by Low battery warnings Additionally.Questions capable of power management. many laptop manufacturers provide even greater control. Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide. 21 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20402530 Q: A technician installs a new CD-ROM/DVD player into a laptop. . we'll discuss how to use power management in Windows XP. Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide. Power Options in Windows XP allow you to control the power management features of: Your display Your hard drive Shut Down. Answer 3: Check the USB settings for the drive.

the term typically applies to trickery or deception for the purpose of information gathering. . While similar to a confidence trick or simple fraud. Correct Answer: 1 Explanation: Social engineering is the act of manipulating people into performing actions or divulging confidential information. or computer system access.Laptop Gets Too Hot And Shuts Itself Off Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide. 21 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20402550 Q: Which of the following are examples of common techniques used in social engineering? (Select TWO). or computer system access. Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) Chapter 17. Answer 4: engage in harmless communication. the term typically applies to trickery or deception for the purpose of information gathering. Answer 2: to test sociological boundaries with in the company. fraud. fraud. in most cases the attacker never comes face-to-face with the victim. in most cases the attacker never comes face-to-face with the victim. Answer 3: to perform a technical risk assessment of employees within the company. While similar to a confidence trick or simple fraud. Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide. 26 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20402560 Q: Social engineering is used to: Answer 1: acquire unauthorized information to achieve a goal. 5 Explanation: Social engineering is the act of manipulating people into performing actions or divulging confidential information. Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) Chapter 16.Questions Correct Answer: 2 Explanation: Laptop Overheating Causes Shut Down . Answer 1: Requesting public information Answer 2: Insulting the subject to motivate a response Answer 3: Assuming a position of authority Answer 4: Asking passive aggressive questions Answer 5: Flattery Correct Answer: 3.

Answer 4: communications in both directions simultaneously. At power-on. Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) Chapter 23 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20402590 Q: Which of the following is the definition of telnet? Answer 1: A tool that allows a user to connect to other computers. Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) Chapter 16. power-on passwords require a user to enter a password that gets stored in the system¶s non-volatile memory (CMOS). In their simplest form.Questions Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide. Answer 3: communications in both directions one at a time. the system prompts the user for the stored password and allows the boot process to continue if the correct password is entered ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20402580 Q: Full duplex supports transmission of: Answer 1: printing on both sides of paper one at a time. . Correct Answer: 4 Explanation: A Full duplex communication system is a system composed of two connected parties or devices that can communicate with one another in both directions Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide. Answer 2: printing on both sides of paper simultaneously. 26 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20402570 Q: Where is the power on password stored? Answer 1: System RAM Answer 2: CMOS ROM Answer 3: Hard Drive Answer 4: System ROM Correct Answer: 4 Explanation: Power-on password authentication is a simple but effective implementation of pre-boot security.

Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) Chapter 15 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20402610 Q: Which of the following is the POP3 port used for? Answer 1: It pings a workstation from a remote server. Answer 3: It blocks popup ads. Typically. telnet provides access to a command-line interface on a remote host via a virtual terminal connection which consists of an 8-bit byte oriented data connection over the Transmission Control Protocol (TCP). Typically. by default? Answer 1: Port 21 Answer 2: Port 23 Answer 3: Port 25 Answer 4: Port 110 Correct Answer: 2 Explanation: Telnet (teletype network) is a network protocol used on the Internet or local area networks to provide a bidirectional interactive communications facility. Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide. telnet provides access to a command-line interface on a remote host via a virtual terminal connection which consists of an 8-bit byte oriented data connection over the Transmission Control Protocol (TCP). Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) Chapter 15 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20402600 Q: Which of the following ports is used for telnet. Correct Answer: 4 . Answer 3: A tool that tells a user of the workstation that they have exceeded their memory quota. Answer 2: It holds a log of the last three passwords used. Answer 4: A tool that allows a workstation to tell the network that the workstation is present. Telnet in Windows Open a Windows Telnet Session Port 23 Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide. Correct Answer: 1 Explanation: Telnet (teletype network) is a network protocol used on the Internet or local area networks to provide a bidirectional interactive communications facility. User data is interspersed in-band with TELNET control information. User data is interspersed in-band with TELNET control information.Questions Answer 2: A tool that allows a user to use the workstation as a telephone through the network. Answer 4: It retrieves email from the mail server.

POP3 is a client/server protocol in which e-mail is received and held for you.Questions Explanation: POP3 (Post Office Protocol 3) is the most recent version of a standard protocol for receiving e-mail. POP3 is a client/server protocol in which e-mail is received and held for you. The eMail client retrieves eMail from port 110 Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide. and the hard drive stops working. Common power-related symptoms include: Any power-on or system startup failures or lockups . The user described the problems as: occasional rebooting. The eMail client retrieves eMail from port 110 Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide. Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) Chapter 23 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20402630 Q: A workstation has been experiencing intermittent system problems. Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) Chapter 23 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20402620 Q: Which of the following ports is used by POP3. by default? Answer 1: Port 21 Answer 2: Port 23 Answer 3: Port 25 Answer 4: Port 110 Correct Answer: 4 Explanation: POP3 (Post Office Protocol 3) is the most recent version of a standard protocol for receiving e-mail. overheating. Which of the following is the cause? Answer 1: Processor is going bad Answer 2: RAM module is faulty Answer 3: Power supply Answer 4: UPS not working properly Correct Answer: 3 Explanation: Just about any intermittent problem can be caused by a faulty power supply. electric shock felt on computer case.

Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide. 3 Explanation: When you boot from a USB device. Answer 4: A method of recovering lost data from a hard disk. Answer 3: A recognized method of disposing hard drives that contain sensitive data.Questions Spontaneous rebooting or intermittent lockups during normal operation Intermittent parity check or other memory-type errors HDD and fan simultaneously failing to spin (no +12V) Overheating due to fan failure Small brownouts that cause the system to restart Electric shocks that are felt when the case is touched ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20402640 Q: Drive thrashing is described as which of the following? Answer 1: Excessive movement between system memory and virtual memory. Correct Answer: 1 Explanation: Disk thrashing considerably slows down the performance of a system because data has to be transferred back and forth from the hard drive to the physical memory. Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) Chapter 21 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20402650 Q: Which of the following can be used as a boot device upon startup? (Select TWO). you're running with the operating system installed on your hard drive Windows Network booting is the process of booting a computer from a network rather than a local drive . When you start your computer normally. what you're actually doing is running your computer with the operating system that's installed on the USB device. Answer 2: Any damage to a hard drive caused by an intention or unintentional jolt or movement. Answer 1: Wireless router Answer 2: USB Answer 3: Network Answer 4: Printer Answer 5: System RAM Correct Answer: 2.

To run Setup without Advanced Configuration and Power Interface (ACPI) Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide.To install third-party SCSI and host controller drivers F7 . Correct Answer: 2 Explanation: Effective work order software can provide many benefits for business operations. Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide. Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) Chapter 14 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20402660 Q: Which of the following allows a technician to boot from a special device upon startup? Answer 1: Function keys (e.Questions Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide. Answer 4: Ask another technician to take over support for this user. technically advanced solution for work order tracking it is easy to see just how much Infor EAM can do for any company. 21 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20402670 Q: A user is calling excessively with computer issues.For computer type or hardware abstraction layer (HAL) selection F6 . Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) Chapter 27 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ . Which of the following should the technician do? Answer 1: Help the user with every issue that they call about and put all other work orders on hold. F12) Answer 2: Shift + B Answer 3: Ctrl + Alt + B Answer 4: Windows Key + B Correct Answer: 1 Explanation: Function keys can be used when Setup is loading and when you are prompted to press the F6 function key to install third-party small computer system interface (SCSI) and host controller drivers: F5 . Answer 3: Ask the user to call another technician for more in-depth assistance. F9. Infor EAM software solutions offer versatile work order tracking capabilities as well as a complete Asset Management and Maintenance Management capabilities. As the most widely-deployed. Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) Chapter 18.g. Answer 2: Explain to the user they need to fill out a work order for the computer issues.

it does not print. 4 Explanation: Opening CMD from Windows Explorer You can open a new CMD prompt by choosing START. however. Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) Chapter 15 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20402690 Q: A user is trying to print to a network printer. Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide. Users are required to confirm the printer before it actually prints. Correct Answer: 1 Explanation: They can be network printers (\\print server\shared printer name) and local printers. Which of the following is the FIRST step that the technician should do? Answer 1: Confirm the printer name where the user is trying to print. Answer 3: Replace the paper in the printer. There are multiple printers in the office. RUN. every time the user sends a print job to the printer. Answer 2: Restart the print spooler service. Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) Chapter 22 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20402700 Q: Which of the following components is used to connect expansion boards to the motherboard? Answer 1: PS/2 Answer 2: NIC Answer 3: Riser card . and all other users are able to print to the printer. Answer 1: Start> Run> cmd Answer 2: Start> Run> Accessories> Command Prompt Answer 3: Start>Programs>Accessories>Communications> Command Prompt Answer 4: Start> Programs> Accessories> Command Prompt Answer 5: Start> Control Panel> Run>cmd Correct Answer: 1. cmd or Select Start -> Programs ->Accessories ->Command Prompt Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide.Questions QID: 20402680 Q: Which of the following is a way to get to a command prompt in a Windows XP machine? (Select TWO). Answer 4: Reboot the workstation and have the user log in again.

health effects. and includes information such as physical data (melting point. boiling point. it is intended to provide workers and emergency personnel with procedures for handling or working with that substance in a safe manner. Which of the following places should the technician look to find the proper handling procedures? Answer 1: The cleaning label Answer 2: The manufacturer's documentation Answer 3: A past technician's documentation Answer 4: MSDS Correct Answer: 4 Explanation: A material safety data sheet (MSDS) is a form containing data regarding the properties of a particular substance. Answer 2: Store in an air-tight container. disposal. flash point. first aid. Answer 3: Put the toner into a sealed bag and then throw into the garbage. ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20402720 Q: After changing the toner cartridge on a printer. Answer 4: Return to the manufacturer for recycling. and spill handling procedures. etc. Correct Answer: 4 Explanation: . reactivity. Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide. Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) Chapter 9 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20402710 Q: A technician is about to use a cleaning solvent. An important component of product stewardship and workplace safety. which of the following is the BEST way to dispose of the old cartridge? Answer 1: Dispose in an incinerator. protective equipment. storage.).Questions Answer 4: Chipset Correct Answer: 3 Explanation: A riser card is a printed circuit board that picks up a multitude of signal lines (often bussed) via a single connector (usually an edge connector) on a main board and distributes them via dedicated connectors on the card. toxicity.

Answer 4: prevent outside interference. Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) Chapter 2 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20402730 Q: When applying the security settings to a network. Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide.Questions Contact the cartridge manufacturer or seller. which of the following is the MINIMUM number of failed login attempts before a user is locked out? Answer 1: One Answer 2: Three Answer 3: Seven Answer 4: Nine Correct Answer: 2 Explanation: The three strikes login policy is used to prevent computer password attacks. Answer 2: provide protection from heat. For example. Correct Answer: 4 Explanation: Twisted pair cabling is a type of wiring in which two conductors (the forward and return conductors of a single circuit) are twisted together for the purposes of canceling out electromagnetic interference (EMI) from external sources. A majority of cartridge manufacturers have plans in place on recycling old and used cartridges and they will accept it. electromagnetic radiation from Unshielded Twisted Pair (UTP) cables. . and crosstalk between neighboring pairs. Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) Chapter 16. a policy could dictate 3 failed attempts followed by a 180 second penalty Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide. Answer 3: assist with data transmission. 24 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20402740 Q: The foil shielding on a STP cable is there to: Answer 1: prevent damage from weather. The policy creates a condition where a user must wait a period of time before making more login attempts that fail. for instance.

Correct Answer: 4 Explanation: A Workgroup may refer to. Correct Answer: 2 Explanation: Verify that the CD-ROM drive is installed using the manufacturer's specifications Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide. Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) Chapter 23 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20402750 Q: A network that has no server controlling the computers is known as a: Answer 1: LAN Answer 2: domain. a peer-to-peer Windows computer network. Answer 4: workgroup. Answer 4: Check to see if the CD-Rom is compatible hardware. Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) Chapter 23 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QID: 20402760 Q: A user reports that their CD-Rom is not reading a disc. Answer 2: Ensure that the CD drive is installed.Questions Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide. See Workgroup (computer networking) a group of people working together toward a common goal Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide. What should be the BEST first step to resolve this issue? Answer 1: Make sure that the disc is a CD and not a DVD. Answer 3: WAN. Answer 3: Check to see if the BIOS register the drive. Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701 & 220-702) Chapter 11 .

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