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1 What allows businesses to define, manage, access, and secure network resources including files, printers, people, and applications? A. network service B. directory service C. Directory Infrastructure D. NT directory Ans: B Qus 2 : A __________ is defined as one or more IP subnets that are connected by fast links. A. domain B. network C. site D. forest Ans: C Qus 3 : What contains the rules and definitions that are used for creating and modifying object classes and attributes within Active Directory? A. Configuration NC B. Schema NC C. Domain NC D. DC NC Ans : B Qus 4 : What shared folder exists on all domain controllers and is used to store Group Policy objects, login scripts, and other files that are replicated domain-wide? A. SYSVOL B. AD C. C$ D. VOLMGR Ans: A Qus 5 : What new Windows Server 2008 feature is a special installation option that creates a minimal environment for running only specific services and roles? A. Minimal Installation Option B. Server Core C. Server Standard D. Minimal Server Environment (MSE) Ans: B
Qus 6 : What is the minimum amount of storage space required for the Active Directory installation files? A. 100 MB B. 150 MB C. 200 MB D. 250 MB Ans: C Qus 7 : When modifying the schema, Microsoft recommends adding administrators to what group only for the duration of the task? A. Schema Admins B. Enterprise Admins C. Global Admins D. Forest Admins Ans: A Qus 8 : When you install the forest root domain controller in an Active Directory forest, the Active Directory Installation Wizard creates a single site named __________. A. Default-Site B. Site-Default C. Default-Site-Name D. Default-First-Site-Name Ans: D Qus 9 : What command-line tool used for monitoring Active Directory provides functionality that includes performing connectivity and replication tests? A. dcdiag B. netdiag C. dcpromo D. netstat Ans: A Qus 10 : When replicating information between sites, Active Directory will designate a __________ server in each site to act as a gatekeeper in managing site-to-site replication. A. primary B. masthead C. bridgehead D. global catalog Ans: C Qus 11 : What defines a chain of site links by which domain controllers from different sites can communicate? A. site link bridge B. site chain C. site chain bridge D. site link chain
Ans: A Qus 12 : How many FSMO roles does Active Directory support? A. 2 B. 5 C. 10 D. 12 Ans: B Qus 13 : How many RID Masters can a domain have? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 5 Ans: A Qus 14 : What procedure is used only when you have experienced a catastrophic failure of a domain controller that holds a FSMO role and you need to recover that role? A. role transfer B. role migration C. role seizure D. role separation Ans: C Qus 15 : What special identity group contains all authenticated users and domain guests? A. Power Users B. Everyone C. Batch D. Authenticated Users Ans: B Qus 16 : __________ name refers to each user’s login name. A. Common B. Distinguished C. SAM account D. AD Name Ans: C Qus 17 : You cannot manually modify the group membership of or view the membership lists of __________ groups. A. distribution B. domain local C. special identity D. universal
B. delete. complex authentication D. Windows Vista. such as a home office. 97 B. LDIFDE C. PKI server B. DCPROMO B. in addition to modifying the schema if necessary? A. 68 C. two-factor authentication B. All of the above Ans: D Qus 20 : What method of authentication requires a smart card and a PIN to provide more secure access to company resources? A. to provide authentication services. making it difficult for anyone except the intended user to use or access it. Smart cards can be used from remote locations. CSVDE D. Users no longer need to remember passwords. 127 D. D. dual authentication C. and Microsoft Windows XP clients can be __________ characters in length. A. smart card verification station D. All information is stored on the smart card. Windows Server 2003.Ans: C Qus 18 : What can be used to add. or modify objects in Active Directory. NSLOOKUP Ans: B Qus 19 : Which of the following is a benefit of implementing a public key infrastructure (PKI)? A. strong authentication Ans: A Qus 21 : What dedicated workstation allows an administrator or another authorized user to preconfigure certificates and smart cards on behalf of a user or workstation? A. smart card enrollment station C. 142 . Certification Authority (CA) Ans: B Qus 22 : Passwords for Windows Server 2008. C.
allowing you to specify a more or less stringent password policy for this subset than the password policy defined for the entire domain? A. MMC Ans: A Qus 24 : What contains all of the Group Policy settings that you wish to implement to user and computer objects within a site. %systemroot%/System32/Drivers/Etc/GroupPolicy D. FSMO roles D. Group Policy Objects D.Ans: C Qus 23 : What is a method of controlling settings across your network? A. Fine-Tuned Password Policies C. Active Directory C. or OU? A. %systemroot%/System32/GroupPolicy B. Custom Password Policies Ans: A . Group Policy Settings C. Restricted Password Policies D. domain. Group Policy Links Ans: C Qus 25 : What allows the Group Policy processing order to circle back and reapply the computer policies after all user policies and logon scripts run? A. Group Policies B. Repeat Processing Ans: C Qus 26 : Local GPO settings are stored in what folder on a computer? A. %systemroot%/System32/Drivers/GroupPolicy C. Reverse Processing B. Switchback Processing C. Loopback Processing D. Fine-Grained Password Policies B. Group Policy B. %systemroot%/System/GroupPolicy Ans: A Qus 27 : What policies can be applied to one or more users or groups of users.
.Qus 28 : Where can you configure the Group Policy refresh interval? A. A.mst Ans: D Qus 31 : When configuring Software Restriction policies. .mse D. . . or read Group Policy Results information? A. Computer Configuration\\System\\Group Policy B. . Group Policy Inheritance C.inf Ans: B Qus 30 : Modifications to . which option prevents any application from running that requires administrative rights.msi files require transform files.msit B. Unrestricted B.msi C. Delegation D. Linked Group Policy Objects B. Computer Configuration\\Administrative Templates\\System\\Group Policy D. Computer Configuration\\Administrative Templates\\Group Policy Ans: C Qus 29 : Microsoft Windows Server 2008 uses the Windows Installer with Group Policy to install and manage software that is packaged into what type of file? A.mse C. .msx D. User Configuration\\Administrative Templates\\System\\Group Policy C. which have the __________ extension. Basic User D. but allows programs to run that only require resources that are accessible by normal users? A. Restricted C. Management Ans: C Qus 33 : . . Disallowed Ans: C Qus 32 : What tab displays groups and users with permission to link. .exe B. perform modeling analyses.
Windows Server Backup D. you must back up __________ rather than only backing up the System State data. two C. Remove Policy Propagation Ans: B Qus 34 : How many WMI filters can be configured per GPO? A. system volumes C.What setting will prevent policy settings from applying to all child objects at the current level and all subordinate levels? A. Active Directory Maintenance C. Directory Services Maintenance D. Block Policy Inheritance C. five Ans: A Qus 35 : To perform a System State restore in Windows Server 2008. Active Directory Restore B. A. you will boot the DC into what mode? A. MX records Ans: A Qus 37 : To back up Active Directory. Windows Backup Utility C. Active Directory Backup Client B. Block Policy Propagation B. three D. Directory Services Restore Ans: D Qus 36 : In Windows Server 2008. one B. you must install what feature from the Server Manager console? A. MBR records D. critical volumes B. Remove Policy Inheritance D. BackupExec Ans: C Qus 38 : .
smart cards D. Identity Lifecycle Management B. AD FTP C. translation C. caching-only server Ans: D Qus 40 : What Windows Server 2008 service can you use to protect sensitive data on a Windows network? A. General Lifecycle Management C. Lifecycle of Software Management Ans: A Qus 42 : What are small physical devices on which a digital certificate is installed that are usually the size of a credit card or keychain fob? A. referral D.What is the process by which one DNS server sends a name resolution request to another DNS server? A. global catalog server C. resolution B. biometric device Ans: C Qus 43 : . RSA SecureID B. propagation Ans: C Qus 39 : What DNS server contains no zones and hosts no domains? A. AD RMS Ans: D Qus 41 : What enables network administrators and owners to configure access rights for users during the users’ entire lifecycle within an organization? A. AD FSMO D. Microsoft Lifecycle Management D. digital certificates C. secondary DNS server D. AD FS B. secondary domain controller B.
replication B. global catalog D. Web Responder C. domain controller B. LDAP C. Online Responder Ans: D Qus 44 : A Windows Server 2008 computer that has been configured with the Active Directory DS role is referred to as a __________. NDIS D. A. domain manager C. DNS push C. NTDS B. DNS update Ans: C Qus 48 : .What service responds to requests from clients concerning the revocation status of a particular certificate. enterprise CA D. zone transfer D. SRV records D. A records B. MX records C. returning a digitally signed response indicating the certificate’s current status? A. SOA records Ans: C Qus 47: What is the process of replicating DNS information from one DNS server to another? A. DNS server Ans: A Qus 45 : What protocol has become an industry standard that enables data exchange between directory services and applications? A. AD Ans: B Qus 46 : What locator records within DNS allow clients to locate an Active Directory domain controller or global catalog? A. Web Enrollment B.
Repdiag C. secondary lookup C. Dcdiag B. C. schemamanagement. schmmgnt32.dll D. Netstat Ans: C Qus 53 : .What type of trust relationship allows you to create two-way transitive trusts between separate forests? A. cross-forest C. The value of an attribute has changed. primary lookup B. An object is added or removed from Active Directory. reverse lookup Ans: C Qus 50 : What DLL must be registered to use the Schema Management snap-in? A. B.dll C. adschm. shortcut B.dll Ans: C Qus 51 : Replication within Active Directory will occur when which of the following conditions is met? A. All of the above Ans: D Qus 52 : What command-line tool can be used to manually create a replication topology if site link bridging is disabled if the network is not fully routed? A. real Ans: B Qus 49 : What type of zone is necessary for computer hostname-to-IP address mappings. The name of an object has changed. schmmgmt. which are used for name resolution by a variety of services? A. Repadmin D. forward lookup D.dll B. D. external D.
NETDIAG B. such as a password change or an account lockout. will be transmitted by using __________ replication. local workstation Ans: B Qus 56 : What console must be used to move the Domain Naming Master FSMO role? A. DCPROMO Ans: C Qus 58 : . immediate C. domain trees. A. Active Directory Domains and Trusts Ans: D Qus 57 : What command-line utility is used to import or export Active Directory information from a comma-separated value (. Schema Master Ans: C Qus 55 : What types of memberships are stored in the global catalog? A. Active Directory Schema D. CSVDE D. Infrastructure Master C. NSLOOKUP C. Relative Identifier Master B. fast D. universal C. domain local B. Domain Naming Master D. global D. pushed Ans: A Qus 54 : Which FSMO role has the authority to manage the creation and deletion of domains. which means that the change will be placed at the beginning of the line and applied before any other changes that are waiting to be replicated.Certain operations. Active Directory Forests and Domains C.csv) file? A. Active Directory Users and Computers B. and application data partitions in the forest? A. urgent B.
certification authorities (CAs). header record C.What special identity group is used by the system to allow permission to protected system files for services to function properly? A. Service D. header row B. name row D. enrollment credential C. differs significantly from other previously used passwords Ans: C Qus 61 : What is a system of digital certificates. and other registration authorities (RAs) that verify and authenticate the validity of each party involved in an electronic transaction through the use of public key cryptography? A. enrollment verification D. at least one character from each of the previous character types C. Restricted C. CKI B. what is the first line of the text file that uses proper attribute names? A. enrollment agent B. PCI Ans: B Qus 62 : What types of certificates are generated by the enterprise CA and used to generate a smart card logon certificate for users in the organization? A. name record Ans: B Qus 60 : Which of the following is not a characteristic of a strong password? A. Self Ans: C Qus 59 : When using CSVDE. DKI D. enrollment authority Ans: A Qus 63 : . Network Service B. PKI C. is not your birth date D. at least eight characters in length B.
offline file storage Ans: D Qus 66 : What is the path to the default GPT structure for a domain? A. folder redirection D. Security Policy C. linking C. Default Domain C. %systemroot%\\Policies Ans: A Qus 67 : What section of GPO Local Policies allows administrators to log successful and failed security events such as logon events.com\\Policies D. nesting Ans: B Qus 64 : The __________ Policy is linked to the domain. account access. registry-based B. %systemroot%\\sysvol\\domain. attaching B. and its settings affect all users and computers in the domain.What process applies Group Policy settings to various containers within Active Directory? A. connecting D. Default Domain Controller B.com\\Policies C. Audit Policy D. %systemroot%\\domain. Domain Ans: B Qus 65 : What policies work with folder redirection to provide the ability to cache files locally? A. Default D. software installation C.com\\Policies B. Local Policy B. and object access? A. A. None of the above Ans: C Qus 68 : . %systemroot%\\sysvol\\sysvol\\domain.
Software Restriction B. Private Key Policies Ans: C Qus 70 : __________ files are used to apply service packs and hotfixes to installed software. all of the above Ans: D Qus 72 : What policies are designed to identify software and control its execution? A. maintenance. Folder Sharing B. Malicious Software Detection D. Folder Redirection C.What provides administrators with the ability to redirect the contents of certain folders to a network location or to another location on the user’s local computer? A. Enhanced Ans: B Qus 71 : Which of the following is a software restriction rule that can be used to govern which programs can or cannot run on your network? A. hash rule B. and guidelines within a public key infrastructure (PKI). A. Secure Key Policies C. A. Upgrade D. Path rule D. Malicious Software Removal Policies Ans: A Qus 73 : . Public Key Policies D. PKI Policies B. Update B. Profile Redirection Ans: B Qus 69 : Settings available in the __________ area of Group Policy allow greater administrative control in establishing rules and governing the issuance. certificate rule C. Desktop Redirection D. Patch C. Software Execution Prevention C.
classes Ans: A . and inheritance settings. Resultant Set of Policy C. Group Based Filtering D. Block Policy Inheritance B. groups. have finished processing? A. online defragmentation B. counters C. A. Group Policy Simulator B. security group permissions. Policy Delegation C. objects B. what obtains RSoP information from the client computer to show the actual effects that policies have on the client computer and user environment? A. Group Policy Results Ans: D Qus 75 : What refines the application of a GPO to include or exclude certain users. Effective Permissions B.What is the sum of the policies applied to a user or computer after all filters. offline defragmentation Ans: D Qus 77 : The Reliability and Performance Monitor uses categories called performance __________ to organize the items that can be monitored. local defragmentation C. Group Policy Modeling D. Applied Policy Ans: B Qus 74 : Rather than simulating policy effects like the Group Policy Modeling Wizard. remote defragmentation D. or computers based on the ACL that is applied to the GPO? A. such as Block Policy Inheritance and Enforce. items D. Effective Set of Policy D. Security Group Filtering Ans: D Qus 76 : What manual process defragments the Active Directory database in addition to reducing its size? A. Group Policy Planning C.
Qus 78 : What is the command-line component of the Windows Server Backup snap-in? A. secondary zone B. forwarder zone Ans: C Qus 82 : What are the highest-level DNS servers in the entire namespace? A. hard drives D. wbadm B. and Windows 2000 Server? A. top-level name server B. DNS B. DHCP C. primary zone D. upstream name server Ans: B Qus 83 : . root name server C. backadm D. ntbackup Ans: B Qus 79 : Server Backup does not support the use of which type of backup media? A. Windows Server 2003. DVD drives C. magnetic tape Ans: D Qus 80 : What is the name resolution mechanism that computers use for all Internet communications and for private networks that use the Active Directory domain services included with Microsoft Windows Server 2008. stub zone C. authoritative name server D. ADFS Ans: A Qus 81 : What type of zone contains the master copy of the zone database in which administrators make all changes to the zone’s resource records? A. wbadmin C. NetBIOS D. CD drives B.
resource organizations Ans: B Qus 84 : What role in ILM is to provide services for managing public key certificates that can be used by any security system that relies on a PKI for authentication or authorization? A. osmosis C. Active Directory Domains and Trusts Ans: C Qus 85 : What enables a user to manually create a certificate request file using the Certificates MMC snap-in? A. computer organizations D. Windows 2009 Ans: C Qus 88 : .In terms of AD FS. transferring D. user organizations B. A. Windows Server 2003 C. Active Directory Users and Computers B. account organizations C. Certificate Request Wizard C. replication Ans: D Qus 87 : __________ is the highest available forest functional level. Group Policy C. what organizations contain the user accounts that are accessing the resources controlled by resource organizations. Enrollment ACL Ans: B Qus 86 : The process of keeping each domain controller in synch with changes that have been made elsewhere on the network is called __________. Autoenrollment Wizard D. similar to a trusted domain in a traditional Windows trust relationship? A. PKI B. Windows 2000 B. Active Directory Certificate Services D. A. Windows Server 2008 D. copying B.
Enterprise Admins C. Active Directory Domains and Trusts MMC snap-in D. A. Domain Admins B. you must be logged on as a member of the __________ group. AD LDS Ans: D Qus 93: . Universal Admins Ans: B Qus 90: __________ roles work together to enable the multimaster functionality of Active Directory. Active Directory Domains and Trusts control panel Ans: C Qus 92: What role provides developers with the ability to store data for directory-enabled applications without incurring the overhead of extending the Active Directory schema to support their applications? A. FSMO B. A. Global Admins D. DNS C. A. Active Directory Trust Console B. Active Directory Trust Wizard C. AD LSD B. AD SLD C. starting with the object itself and including all parent objects up to the root of the domain. schema D. FMMO C. FMSO D. FOMO Ans: A Qus 91: What utility is used to manually create trust relationships? A. distinguished Ans: D Qus 89: To raise the functional level of a forest.A __________ name references an object in the Active Directory directory structure by using its entire hierarchical path. common B. AD DLS D.
administrative labor C. stored credentials Ans: B Qus 97 : Which FSMO role is responsible for reference updates from its domain objects to other domains? A. all of the above Ans: D Qus 96 : What allows a user to be able to log on using a cached copy of his or her logon credentials that have been stored on his or her local workstation? A. A. Relative Identifier Master B. financial support Ans: C Qus 94 : What process is responsible for selecting a bridgehead server and mapping the topology to be used for replication between sites? A. Intersite Bridgehead Generator D. cached credentials C. Active Directory B. Infrastructure Master C. Intersite Bridgehead Replicator B. bandwidth D.The primary goal of intersite replication is to minimize the usage of __________. Intersite Replication Generator C. number of domains that are or will be part of the forest B. number of domain controllers that will be available in each domain D. Intersite Topology Generator Ans: D Qus 95 : Which of these design aspects should you consider when planning the appropriate location of FSMO role holders? A. Domain Naming Master D. physical structure of the network C. stored login D. 3629 . Schema Master Ans: B Qus 98 : What port is used by Active Directory to direct search requests to a global catalog server? A. cached login B.
Power User D. Guest Ans: D Qus 102: __________ groups are a collection of user accounts that are local to one specific workstation or member server. Distribution B. 3232 Ans: C Qus 99 : What is the process of confirming a user’s identity by using a known value. administration D. Local C. allocation Ans: B Qus 100 : What signifies an object’s relative location within an Active Directory OU structure? A. Interactive C. Dialup . pin number on a smart card. authentication C. SAM account name D. A. Network B. or user’s fingerprint or handprint in the Qus of biometric authentication? A. A. 3389 C. Built-in D. authorization B. Network B. distinguished name C. such as a password. common name B.B. AD name Ans: B Qus 101 : The two built-in user accounts that are created on a Windows Server 2008 computer are the Administrator account and the __________ account. 3268 D. Security Ans: B Qus 103: What special identity group is used as a reduced-privilege account to allow applications to run on a server without requiring administrative access? A.
Network Service D. Group Policy Management Editor B. runadmin D. work Ans: B Qus 107 : What policies can be used to ensure that users always have the latest versions of applications? A. Restricted Ans: C Qus 104 : What is a credit card–sized or token-style device. smart card Ans: D Qus 105 : What command-line tool can be used with a standard user account to reduce the risks associated with the Administrator account? A. dictionary C. folder redirection D. password token C. software installation C.C. runas B. launchas Ans: A Qus 106 : Password-cracking can be accomplished by intelligent guessing on the part of the hacker or through the use of an automated __________ attack. brute force B. offline file storage Ans: B Qus 108 : What Microsoft Management Console (MMC) snap-in is used to create and modify Group Policies and their settings? A. that is used with a PIN to enable logon to the enterprise? A. smart chip D. cracking D. registry-based B. RSA SecureID B. Group Policy Control Console C. such as a USB device. A. su C. Group Policy GPO .
tracking B.exe Ans: D Qus 113: Before deploying software using Group Policy. deployment share B. System Services C. Domain Services Ans: B Qus 112 : What command-line tool can be used to manually refresh group policy? A.exe B. Workstation Services B. Account Services D. what must you create? A. tracing C. advanced GPO C.exe D. domain GPO D.exe C. deployment point C. spying D. adrefresh. gprefresh. auditing Ans: D Qus 111 : What category is used to configure the startup and security settings for services running on a computer? A. distribution share D. local GPO B. gpupdate. mount point Ans: C Qus 114: . Group Policy Management Console Ans: D Qus 109: Which of the following is not a type of GPO? A.D. starter GPO Ans: B Qus 110: What term refers to tracking events that take place on the local computer? A. adupdate.
ini Ans: C Qus 116 : What Software Restriction Policy properties allow you to determine whether the policies apply to all files or whether library files. Scope B. Modeling D. network zone rules Ans: C Qus 115 : What type of file can be written to allow non–Windows Installer–compliant applications to be deployed? A.What identifies software by specifying the directory path where the application is stored in the file system? A. .zap D. Results Ans: C Qus 118 : When a GPO is selected in Group Policy Management. A. are excluded? A. Planning C. . path rule D.msi B. Settings D. designated file types C. security settings D. trusted publishers Ans: A Qus 117 : Group Policy __________ is used to simulate the effect of a policy on the user environment. . hash rule B. .exe C. Delegation Ans: A Qus 119 : . Simulator B. such as Dynamic Link Library (DLL). Details C. certificate rule C. which tab allows administrators to view the locations to which the policy is linked? A. enforcement B.
performance counters C. Incremental backup D. Extensible Change Engine D. Windows Ultimate Shell D. performance items D. performance objects B. Copy backup B. gpresult /user jsmith /v /x Ans: C Qus 120 : What is responsible for managing changes to the Active Directory database? A. Windows PowerShell Ans: D Qus 123: Which backup type will update each file’s backup history and clear the Application log files? A. Windows Enhanced Shell B.What would the syntax of the GPResult command be if you want to obtain RSoP information on computer and user policies that will affect a user named jsmith? A. gpresult jsmith C. Stringent Change Manager Ans: A Qus 121 : What are the specific processes or events that you want to track in the Reliability and Performance Monitor? A. gpresult /user jsmith B. VSS full backup C. Windows Advanced Shell C. performance classes Ans: B Qus 122 : What new command-line and task-based scripting technology is included with Windows Server 2008? A. Differential backup Ans: B Qus 124 : What resource record identifies which name server is the authoritative source of information for data within this domain? . Extended Storage Engine C. Extensible Storage Engine B. gpresult /user jsmith /v D.
enterprise CA D. global catalogs D. standalone CA B. A. without any previous communication. Mail Exchange (MX) Ans: A Qus 125 : What resource record is the functional opposite of the A record. Name Server (NS) C. DNS servers Ans: B Qus 129 : . security certificates B. passwords Ans: B Qus 127 : What type of CA is not integrated with Active Directory and relies on administrator intervention to respond to certificate requests? A. public key infrastructure C. functional levels C. providing an IP addressto-name mapping for the system identified in the Name field using the in-addr. Mail Exchange (MX) Ans: C Qus 126: What consists of a number of elements that allow two parties to communicate securely. through the use of a mathematical algorithm called public key cryptography? A. Pointer (PTR) D.A. Name Server (NS) C. Service Record (SRV) B. Host (A) D. WEP codes D. domain controllers B.arpa domain name? A. static CA C. dynamic CA Ans: A Qus 128 : Interoperability with prior versions of Microsoft Windows is available in Windows Server 2008 through the use of __________. Start of Authority (SOA) B.
forest D. shortcut D. you can configure a __________ trust. domain C. trust B. Windows Server 2008 D. Windows 2000 Native B. parent-child Ans: C Qus 132: What processes can be used by Windows Server 2008 DNS to clean up the DNS database after DNS records become stale or out of date? A. A. Password Caching Policy C. seeking and removing D. Windows 2003 Mixed Ans: B Qus 131 : If the domains within a forest are separated by slow WAN links and the tree-walking process takes an exceedingly long time to allow user authentication across domains. searching and destroying B. A. two-way transitive B. Password Integration Policy B. Password Replication Policy Ans: D . either within a single forest or across multiple enterprise networks. cross-forest C.Active Directory uses __________ relationships to allow access between multiple domains and/or forests. global Ans: A Qus 130 : Which functional level only allows Windows Server 2003 and Windows 2008 domain controllers? A. finding and deleting Ans: B Qus 133: Read-Only Domain Controllers provide added security in the way passwords are stored through what feature? A. aging and scavenging C. Windows Server 2003 C. Password Storage Policy D.
A. DHCP server Ans: B . global catalog C. in addition to communicating forest-wide information with other domains. 5 minutes B. RPC over ARP Ans: C Qus 137: Active Directory creates a __________ with the idea that all writeable domain controllers in a domain should communicate Active Directory information to each other. DNS server D. 10 minutes C. what protocol does Active Directory use for all replication traffic? A. frequency D. cost B. domain controller B. none of the above Ans: A Qus 135: How often does intersite replication occur by default? A.Qus 134: When configuring a site link object. RPC over TCP C. which attribute allows the administrator to define the path that replication will take? A. domain topology C. 1 hour Ans: C Qus 136: For both intrasite and intersite replication. domain strategy Ans: A Qus 138 : What holds a subset of forest-wide Active Directory objects and acts as a central repository by holding a complete copy of all objects from the host server’s local domain with a partial copy of all objects from other domains within the same forest? A. 15 minutes D. schedule C. replication topology B. RPC over IP D. RPC over SMTP B. replication strategy D.
global group membership caching B. administration D. 1200 Ans: B Qus 142: What is the process of confirming that an authenticated user has the correct permissions to access one or more network resources? A. role separation Ans: B Qus 140 : What Windows Server 2008 feature stores universal group memberships on a local domain controller that can be used for logon to the domain. group forests Ans: A Qus 144 : . universal group membership caching Ans: D Qus 141 : The RID Master FSMO role distributes RIDs to domain controllers in what increments? A. local group membership caching D. group nesting B. 500 C.Qus 139: What process is used when you move a FSMO role gracefully from one domain controller to another? A. role seizure B. 300 B. group leveling D. authorization B. allocation Ans: A Qus 143 : What describes the process of configuring one or more groups as members of another group? A. 700 D. group hierarchy C. eliminating the need for frequent access to a global catalog server? A. role migration D. domain group membership caching C. role transfer C. authentication C.
Security Configuration C. asymmetric processing B. Windows Server 2003. Kerberos D. symmetric processing C. or nodes.B. return on investment Ans: D Qus 150 : Group policy is divided into two subcategories. administrators can control the amount of information that is stored on the server. A. that are named Computer Configuration and __________. total cost of ownership D. synchronous processing Ans: D Qus 152 : What policy can specify software that you wish to run on computers? A. Network Configuration B. Triple-DES Ans: C Qus 154 : By implementing the __________ feature when Folder Redirection is also configured. User Configuration D. A. asynchronous processing D. Domain Configuration Ans: C Qus 151 : What means that each policy must be read and applied completely before the next policy can be invoked? A. Local Policies B. Account Policies Ans: C Qus 153 : What is the default mechanism for authenticating domain users in Windows Server 2008. NTLM B. Software Restriction Policies D. total cost of investment C. AES C. File System Quotas . and Microsoft Windows 2000? A. Disk Caching B. Disk Quotas C. Event Log Policies C.
Policy Change Events Ans: A Qus 156 : What option allows users to install the applications that they consider useful to them? A. Require C. 2000 C. security settings D. algorithm B. trusted publishers Ans: D Qus 159 : Group Policy Management started being natively installed with what version of Windows Server? A. designated file types C. hash C. Publish Ans: D Qus 157 : What is a series of bytes with a fixed length that uniquely identifies a program or file? A. enforcement B. Logon Events C. Account Logon Events B. File System Caching Ans: B Qus 155 : What setting logs events related to successful user logons to a domain? A. Assign B.D. System Events D. IP address Ans: B Qus 158 : What Software Restriction Policy properties allow an administrator to control how certificate rules are handled? A. 2008 Ans: D Qus 160 : . 2003 D. NT 4 B. policy D. Amend D.
Windows Scripting Language C. buffers B. DCOM Ans: B Qus 162 : Changes in Active Directory are referred to as __________. Windows Management Instrumentation D. software. CIMOM C. full restore D. Internet Explorer Maintenance settings. VBScript B.What component of the Microsoft Windows operating system allows administrators to create queries based on hardware. Extensive C. Group Policy Software Installation settings. alterations Ans: B Qus 163 : What logging setting should you use if Minimal logging is not producing sufficient error messages to allow you to troubleshoot a particular issue? A. operating systems. and services? A. scripts.NET Framework Ans: C Qus 161 : What database of information includes hardware. nonauthoritative restore B. transactions C. Verbose D. Folder Redirection settings. authoritative restore C. DOM D. A. incremental restore Ans: A . which is the number that each domain controller assigns to every transaction that is either originated on the DC or replicated in from another domain controller? A. . modifications D. CICOM B. Basic B. Internal Ans: A Qus 164 : What type of restore will restore Active Directory objects with their original Update Sequence Number (USN). and Security settings? A.
Name Server (NS) C. public key B. PKI D. AD FS B. shared secret key Ans: D . host file D. name server B. AD RMS Ans: A Qus 169 : What is a secret piece of information that is shared between two parties prior to being able to communicate securely? A. private key C. Host (A) D. forwarder zone Ans: A Qus 167 : What has direct access to at least one name server and can also process referrals to direct its queries to other name servers when necessary? A. primary zone D. AD FTP C. Start of Authority (SOA) B. AD FSMO D.Qus 165 : What resource record provides the name-to-IP-address mappings that DNS name servers use to perform name resolution? A. secondary zone B. resolver Ans: D Qus 168 : What role allows administrators to configure Single Sign-On (SSO) for Web-based applications across multiple organizations without requiring users to remember multiple usernames and passwords? A. stub zone C. Mail Exchange (MX) Ans: C Qus 166 : What type of zone is a read-only copy of the data that is stored within a primary zone on another server? A. DNS server C.
enterprise CA D. domain C. A. fault tolerance and redundancy C. single logon for access to global resources B. personalized desktops D. tree D. possesses the system audit user right Ans: C Qus 172 : The largest container object within Active Directory is a(n) __________. simplified resource location Ans: C Qus 174 : When a child domain is created. forest Ans: D Qus 173 : Which of the following is not a benefit of Active Directory Domain Services? A. organization unit B. A. two-way transitive C. cross-forest D. standalone CA B. it automatically receives a __________ trust with its parent domain. read records and configuration information in the CA database C. simple Ans: B Qus 175 : . static CA C.Qus 170 : What type of CA can use certificate templates as well as Group Policy Objects to allow autoenrollment of digital certificates. configure audit parameters B. define key recovery agents D. parent-child B. dynamic CA Ans: C Qus 171 : Which of the following are not able to be performed by those with the Auditor predefined security role? A. as well as store digital certificates within the Active Directory database for easy retrieval by users and devices? A.
DNA record B. DNS type C. Application Directory Ans: D Qus 178 : Active Directory __________ provide the means by which administrators can control replication traffic. services B. sites C. cross-forest C. OID D. external D. ICMP Ans: B Qus 180 : . shortcut B. forests Ans: B Qus 179 : What is an alternative solution for intersite replication when a direct or reliable IP connection is not available? A. SID Ans: C Qus 176 : What type of trust allows you to configure trust relationships between Windows Server 2008 Active Directory and a UNIX MIT Kerberos realm? A. A. DNS data D.Each class or attribute that you add to the schema should have a valid __________. A. username B. SMTP C. password C. domains D. A. realm Ans: D Qus 177 : __________ partitions are used to separate forest-wide DNS information from domainwide DNS information to control the scope of replication of different types of DNS data. IRC B. TCP/IP D.
2 C. During this process. facilitating searches for objects in the forest B. partial domain listing Ans: A Qus 182 : What tool is used to seize a FSMO role? A. partial attribute set B. what is the maximum number of hops that the KCC will allow between domain controllers? A. dcpromo D. ntosutil B. access session Ans: B Qus 185 : All default groups are __________ groups. what is created that identifies the user and all of the user’s group memberships? A. adutil Ans: B Qus 183 : Which of the following is not a function performed by a global catalog server? A. A. 1 B. maintaining a copy of all objects in the domain Ans: C Qus 184 : When a user logs on. 3 D. maintaining a backup of all data stored on a domain controller D. access card B. maintaining universal group membership information C. ntdsutil C. access token C. partial attribute listing D. 4 Ans: C Qus 181: What is a partial copy of all objects from other domains within the same forest that is held on a global catalog server? A. partial domain set C. access key D. distribution .The KCC is responsible for calculating intrasite replication partners.
8 Ans: D Qus 189 : Administrators find that Group Policy implementation helps them to achieve __________. strong password D. encrypted password C. virus-free networks Ans: C Qus 190 : What folder located under the Computer Configuration node in the Group Policy Management Editor contains security settings and scripts that apply to all users who log on to Active Directory from that specific computer? A.B. PIN C. security Ans: D Qus 186 : What can be defined as a password that follows guidelines that make it difficult for a potential hacker to determine the user’s password? A. such as an ATM card or smart card? A. RSA SecureID Ans: C Qus 187 : What typically consists of at least four characters or digits that are entered while presenting a physical access token. RSA SmartID Ans: B Qus 188 : A password should be __________ characters in length to be considered a strong password. faster performance C. Software Settings . built-In D. complex password B. A. 12 D. 6 B. 10 C. domain local C. password B. smart card D. enhanced security B. centralized management D. A.
and Security Options? A. System Services Policies Ans: B Qus 193 : What separate Group Policy category allows files to be available to users. User Rights Assignment. Security Settings D.B. Local Policies C. every 7 seconds . PasswordCommonNameUsage C. every second B. PasswordSettingsPrecedence B. even when the users are disconnected from the network? A. nesting C. Offline Files D. Offline Mode Files B. Network Disconnected Files C. the system attempts to update the policy at what interval? A. Windows Settings C. Group Policy filtering Ans: C Qus 192 : What Computer Configuration node setting includes three subcategories: Audit Policy. security group filtering D. Account Policies B. LockoutThreshold Ans: B Qus 195 : If you set the refresh interval to zero. linking B. PasswordHistoryLength D. Event Log Policies D. Administrative Templates Ans: B Qus 191 : What advanced technique allows you to apply GPO settings to only one or more users or groups within a container by selectively granting the Apply Group Policy permission to one or more users or security groups? A. Unavailable Files Ans: C Qus 194 : Which of these is not an option when configuring Fine-Grained Password Policies? A.
Restricted C. Resultant Set of Policy (RSoP). path rule D. Disallowed Ans: A Qus 200 : What MMC snap-in provides a single access point to all aspects of Group Policy that were previously spread across other tools such as Active Directory Users and Computers. Assign B. which rule is always applied last? A.C. Basic User D. network zone rules Ans: C Qus 199 : By default. the Software Restriction Policies area has what value in the Default Security Level setting? A. planning B. evaluation D. hash rule B. Unrestricted B. Publish Ans: A Qus 198 : When implementing multiple Software Restriction Policy rules. Group Policy Editor B. Amend D. Require C. certificate rule C. Group Policy Management . every minute D. removal Ans: C Qus 197 : What option is helpful when you are deploying required applications to pertinent users and computers? A. and the Group Policy Management Editor? A. Active Directory Sites and Services. implementation C. every 7 minutes Ans: B Qus 196: Which of the following is not a phase of the software life cycle? A.
Auditing Ans: A Qus 204 : Active Directory writes transactions to the __________ log file. A. GPClone D. dcdiag B. repadmin D. Implementation D. Planning C. system B. Windows 2000 C. GPUpdate Ans: B Qus 201 : What command-line tool allows you to create and display an RSoP query from the command line? A. security C. transaction D. netdom C. GPEdit D. DNS Ans: C Qus 205 : What command-line tool can analyze the state of the domain controllers in the forest or enterprise and report any problems to assist in troubleshooting? A. Windows Vista Ans: B Qus 203 : Which mode in the Resultant Set of Policy Wizard is useful for documenting and understanding how combined policies are affecting users and computers? A. Windows XP B.C. nltest Ans: A . GPUpdate C. GPResult B. Windows Server 2003 D. Logging B. GPRSoP Ans: A Qus 202 : WMI filters cannot be evaluated on which operating system? A.
systematic forwarder D. HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE\\SYSTEM\\CurrentControlSet\\Services\\NTDS\\ C. Boolean forwarder C. caching-only server Ans: A Qus 210 : What will forward queries selectively based on the domain specified in the name resolution request? A. alias-based forwarder Ans: A . secondary DNS server D. WINS C. HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE\\SYSTEM\\CurrentControlSet\\Services\\ D. resolver C. forwarder B. conditional forwarder B. IP address B. DNS B. PPPoE D.Qus 206 : Configuring Active Directory diagnostic event logging requires that you edit what registry key? A. distinguished name C. host name D. HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE\\SYSTEM\\CurrentControlSet\\Services\\NTDS\\Diagnosti cs B. comments Ans: B Qus 208 : What can be configured to enable enterprise-wide NetBIOS name resolution for your clients and servers? A. HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE\\SYSTEM\\CurrentControlSet\\Diagnostics\\ Ans: A Qus 207 : Which of the following is not a column of the host table? A. DHCP Ans: B Qus 209 : What DNS server receives queries from other DNS servers that are explicitly configured to send them? A.
root CA Ans: D Qus 213 : Users with what predefined security role are tasked with issuing and managing certificates.dit file that cannot be modified and does not replicate its changes to other domain controllers within Active Directory. Enroll Ans: C Qus 215 : The __________ Domain Controller contains a copy of the ntds. A. Secondary B. Certificate Authority C. Autoenroll D. access point Ans: B Qus 212 : What is at the top level of a CA hierarchy? A. top CA B.Qus 211 : What is an entity that issues and manages digital certificates for use in a PKI. master CA D. Read-Only D. Mandatory Ans: C . CA Administrator B. such as a Windows Server 2008 server running the AD CS server role? A. including approving certificate enrollment and revocation requests? A. Read B. Primary C. PKI B. Certificate Manager C. Backup Operator D. Auditors Ans: B Qus 214 : What ACL specifically allows users or computers to be automatically issued certificates based on a template? A. ILM D. subordinate CA C. Write C.
New Administrative Security Groups D. Domain Functional Levels Ans: B Qus 221 : . schema B. weight D. two-way transitive trust C. cross-forest trust D.Qus 216 : What master database contains definitions of all objects in the Active Directory? A. adpromo B. adcreate Ans: B Qus 219 : What SRV record information serves as a mechanism to set up load balancing between multiple servers that are advertising the same SRV records? A. Role Delegation B. Admin Role Separation C. simple trust Ans: C Qus 218 : What command can you use to run the Active Directory Installation Wizard? A. domain controller Ans: A Qus 217 : What type of trust is new to Windows Server 2008 and is only available when the forest functionality is set to Windows Server 2008? A. global catalog C. priority B. dcpromo C. domainpromo D. time-to-live C. DNS D. port Ans: A Qus 220 : What feature makes it possible to configure a user as the local administrator of a specific RODC without making the user a Domain Admins with far-reaching authority over all domain controllers in your entire domain and full access to your Active Directory domain data? A. parent-child trust B.
30 minutes C. propagation Ans: B Qus 224 : How often does replication occur in intersite replication? A. A. intrasite Ans: A Qus 223 : What describes the amount of time that it takes for all domain controllers in the environment to contain the most up-to-date information? A.dit file of every other domain in the forest when sizing hardware for a global catalog server. convergence C. preferred C. designated Ans: B Qus 226 : As a rule of thumb.What command-line tool is used to create. 15 . 15 minutes B. verify. extrasite C. adtrust B. intersite B. 90 minutes D. extersite D. A. A. netdom C. 180 minutes Ans: D Qus 225 : The ISTG automatically assigns one server in each site as the bridgehead server unless you override this by establishing a list of __________ bridgehead servers. static D. you should estimate __________ percent of the size of the ntds. completion D. manual B. nslookup Ans: B Qus 222 : Domain controllers located in different sites will participate in __________ replication. delete. and reset trust relationships from the Windows Server 2008 command line? A. replication B. csvde D.
50 D. 10 D. Distribution D. 12 Ans: B Qus 228 : What is used to uniquely identify an object throughout the Active Directory domain? A. 2 B. A. domain accounts C. relative identifier Ans: D Qus 230 : Which of the following is not a type of user account that can be configured in Windows Server 2008? A. global catalog C. 70 Ans: C Qus 227 : How many FSMO roles does Active Directory support? A. domain identifier Ans: A Qus 229 : Each object’s SID consists of two components: the domain portion and the __________. Domain C. 5 C. security identifier B. A. 25 C. local accounts B. Local Ans: C .B. subnet mask D. Security B. FSMO role B. network accounts D. built-in accounts Ans: C Qus 231 : __________ groups are nonsecurity-related groups created for the distribution of information to one or more persons. relative identifier C. intermediate identifier D.
application installation. C:\\Windows\\CertLog D. Delegation of Control Wizard C. workstation. SecureID D.Qus 232 : __________ groups are used to consolidate groups and accounts that either span multiple domains or the entire forest. Universal Ans: D Qus 233 : A __________ is an alphanumeric sequence of characters that you enter with a username to access a server. Administrators have control over centralized configuration of user settings. or containers? A. Domain local C. biometric Ans: B Qus 234 : What tool allows you to utilize a simple interface to delegate permissions for domains. or shared resource. password C. A. OUs. Global B. All of the above Ans: D . A. C. Centralized backup of user files eliminates the need and cost of trying to recover files from a damaged drive. Built-in D. C:\\Windows\\system32\\CertLog C. Problems due to missing application files and other minor application errors often can be alleviated by the automation of application repairs. C:\\Windows\\system\\CertLog B. Administration Wizard Ans: B Qus 235 : Where is the certificate database located on a Certification Authority? A. D. PIN B. C:\\Windows\\system32\\CertLog32 Ans: B Qus 236 : Which of the following is an administrative benefit of using Group Policy? A. B. Delegation Wizard B. Delegation of Administration Wizard D. and desktop configuration.
AD GPO template set C. Limited Groups B. Propagate Ans: A Qus 239 : What policy setting is set to audit successes in the Default Domain Controllers GPO? A. defining Ans: C Qus 242 : How often are Computer Configuration group policies refreshed by default? A. Loopback Processing D.Qus 237 : What directory object includes subcontainers that hold GPO policy information? A. Restricted Groups C. AD GPO container set Ans: C Qus 238 : Configuring what setting on an individual GPO link forces a particular GPO’s settings to flow down through the Active Directory without being blocked by any child OUs? A. confining C. logon events Ans: C Qus 240 : What policy setting allows an administrator to specify group membership lists? A. Group Policy template B. system events B. stamping B. Group Policy container D. Strict Groups D. account management events D. Enforce B. Block Policy Inheritance C. policy change events C. tattooing D. Confined Groups Ans: B Qus 241 : What term means that the Group Policy setting continues to apply until it is reversed by using a policy that overwrites the setting? A. every 30 minutes .
every 120 minutes Ans: C Qus 243 : What process takes place from the time an application is evaluated for deployment in an organization until the time when it is deemed old or not suitable for use? A. software assignments Ans: C Qus 245 : What type of rule can be applied to allow only Windows Installer packages to be installed if they come from a trusted area of the network? A. software usage cycle Ans: A Qus 244 : What allows published applications to be organized within specific groupings for easy navigation? A. every 60 minutes C. and search for only those settings that have been configured D. software categories D. software longevity cycle C. path rule D. search for individual settings within a GPO by keyword. every 90 minutes D. A. Template B. all of the above Ans: D Qus 247 : __________ GPOs can act as templates when creating new GPOs for your organization. or policy extensions set in the GPOs C. import and copy GPO settings to and from the file system B. software duration cycle D. Base . software life cycle B. network zone rules Ans: D Qus 246 : Which of the following can be done from the Group Policy Management snap-in? A. permissions. certificate rule C. GUID. software classifications B. search for GPOs based on name.B. hash rule B. WMI filter. software methods C.
Performance Monitor C. full restore . Auditing Ans: B Qus 249 : WMI Filtering uses filters written in what language. Performance and Statistics Monitor Ans: C Qus 251 : What in the event log is indicated by a red circle with an X on it? A. PostGRE SQL B.C. WMI Query Language D. Implementation D. driver issue D. Logging B. Microsoft SQL Server C. Performance Log Viewer B. WIM Query Language Ans: C Qus 250 : What tool in Windows Server 2008 allows you to collect real-time information on your local computer or from a specific computer to which you have permissions? A. Planning C. Set Ans: C Qus 248 : Which mode in the Resultant Set of Policy Wizard allows administrators to simulate the effect of policy settings prior to implementing them on a computer or user? A. you need to perform what type of restore? A. problem C. stop error Ans: D Qus 252 : If you find yourself in a position where you need to restore an object or container within Active Directory that has been inadvertently deleted. Starter D. which is similar to structured query language (SQL)? A. nonauthoritative restore B. warning B. authoritative restore C. Reliability and Performance Monitor D.
secondary zone B. PKI Revocation List D. CA Expiration List Ans: A . PKI Expiration List C. host name D. forwarder zone Ans: B Qus 256 : What electronic piece of information proves the identity of the entity that has signed a particular document? A. client name B.D. electronic signature B. dns name C. aligned Ans: B Qus 255 : What type of zone forwards or refers requests to the appropriate server that hosts a primary zone for the selected query? A. server name Ans: C Qus 254 : In what type of query does the server that receives the name resolution request immediately respond to the requester with the best information it possesses? A. incremental restore Ans: B Qus 253 : What represents the computer’s IP address in applications and other references? A. PKI certification D. Certificate Revocation List B. stub zone C. recursive D. Certificate Authority C. primary zone D. iterative C. digital signature Ans: D Qus257 : What identifies certificates that have been revoked or terminated? A. formative B.
Cmd. Windows Validation B. = A Ques263: . Application Services C. 2. Volume Activation 2. 2 C. terminal machine D. virtual machine B. Volume Activation C. A. = D Ques259 What is Microsoft’s program for automating and managing the activation of products obtained using volume licenses? A.exe D.0 D. Windows Genuine Advantage Ans. = B Ques261: The Windows Server 2008 paging file is __________ times the amount of memory installed in the computer by default. = C Ques260: A __________ is a complete installation of an operating system that runs in a software environment emulating a physical computer.exe C. = A Ques262: Used with the Use parameter.exe B. terminal server Ans. A. Net. virtual server C. what command-line utility can be used to map drive letters to folders in logon scripts? A. 1. Ipconfig. Cscript.exe Ans.5 B.Ques258 The roles in the Add Roles Wizard fall into what three basic categories? A= Directory Services B. Network Services Ans. 3 Ans.5 D. Infrastructure Services D.
= B Ques266: What administrative tool consolidates the controls for printing components throughout the enterprise into a single console? A. thus preventing any one server from shouldering the entire traffic load? A. Backup Tape B. Print Management snap-in C. server clustering D. Server Core Ans. through the network B. = D Ques265: DFS can distribute access requests by using what feature.What Windows Server 2008 feature enables you to maintain previous versions of files on a server? A. Print Services role B. Offline Files Ans. load balancing Ans. Server Manager D. through another computer D. server clustering Ans. data collection D. data distribution B. = B Ques267: How is a local print device attached to a computer? A. through computer ports C. none of the above Ans. thus preventing any one server from shouldering the entire traffic load? A. data distribution B. data collection C. Shadow Copies C. = B Ques264: What feature of DFS distributes access requests. load balancing C. Shadow Files D. = B Ques268: What snap-in for MMC is an administrative tool that consolidates the controls for the printing components throughout the enterprise into a single console? .
Server Role Administration Ans. virtual directory C. None of the above Ans. = A Ques269: HTTP uses what well-known port number? A. 110 Ans. 80 B. Add Role Wizard D. secure key D. = A Ques273: What is the weakest of the challenge/response authentication methods supported by IIS7? A. 12 D. Role Manager B.A. Anonymous Authentication C. Device Manager D. Remote Desktop Connection B. = C Ques270: What determines how listeners will identify requests on a Website? A. Print and Fax Wizard C. 25 C. encrypted key Ans. = C Ques271: What allows a company to host the same documents on several different Websites without copying the documents to each content folder? A. Print Management B. public key B. binding D. icon-based interface Ans. Digest Authentication . private key C. Windows Process Activation Service C. Basic Authentication B. = B Ques272: Participants in what type of infrastructure are issued a public and a private key? A.
Per User C. = D Ques275: What XML-based directory service enables businesses to publish listings about their activities and the services they offer? A. permission translation B. = B Ques278: What type of licensing permits one user to connect to the terminal server no matter what device the user is running? A. permission flow D. which is called __________. resource allocation B. processor D. and the easiest way to provide those privileges is by adding the user to what group? A. scalability Ans. Per System . permission inheritance Ans. = A Ques274: Permissions tend to run down through a hierarchy. memory C. Windows Authentication Ans. ASP. = B Ques277: Users must have the appropriate privileges to access a terminal server. Remote Desktop Users C. = C Ques276: What component is most likely to be a bottleneck on a terminal server? A. SSI Ans. A. Domain Administrators Ans.D. ASP B. Terminal Users D. RDP Users B. UDDI D. Per Device B.NET C. permission propagation C.
protocol rollover D. Print+ Ans. Print Driver 6.1 C. = B Ques279: What Windows Server 2008 feature eliminates the need for the printer driver on the terminal server? A. = C Ques283: . Windows CE B. modular operating system is designed for devices with minimal amounts of memory? A. = A Ques281: The TS Gateway role service enables Terminal Services to support Internet clients securely using the same tunneling concept as a VPN connection except. SSH C. RDP D. Proprietary OS C. the computers encapsulate RDP traffic within what protocol? A. protocol negotiation C. Windows XPe D. Easy Print B. in this case. Linux Ans. SSL Ans. = D Ques282: What process do clients and the server use to negotiate the most efficient protocol to use when you enable both the RTSP and HTTP protocols on a Windows Media Services server? A. multicast B. Per OU Ans. HTTP B. Quick Print D. multicast rollover Ans.D. = A Ques280: What real-time.
Digital File Management Ans. Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP) B. Windows Image Formatting Ans. Digital Media Management C. File Transfer Protocol (FTP) D. POP B. HTTP D. Redundant Array of Independent Disks Ans. Windows PE B. Redundant Array of Interoperative Disks B. PHP Ans. SMTP C. Digital Authenticity Management D. Standard Media Protocol (SMP) Ans. = B Ques286: What does RAID stand for? A. A. Windows Deployment Services D. = A . even by users who have the appropriate credentials and permissions to access the information? A. Digital Rights Management B.What type of server must you install to provide users with email capabilities in Windows SharePoint Server? A. = A Ques285: The Windows Server 2008 version of Windows Media Services uses what protocol to stream multimedia content? A. = D Ques287: When deploying a server using a WDS installation. Repetitive Array of Independent Disks C. the client downloads a boot image that loads __________. Windows Software Update Services C. Redundant Array of Interpretive Disks D. = B Ques284: What enables administrators to protect specific types of information from unauthorized consumption and distribution. Real Time Streaming Protocol (RTSP) C.
ownership D.NET Extensibility D. A. 2 C. . Anonymous Authentication C. = A Ques290: Which service enables IIS to respond to a variety of incoming message types and not just HTTP? A.Ques288: The process of granting a user access to a file server share by reading their permissions is called __________. Digest Authentication D. Role Manager B. Add Role Wizard Ans. using the ASP. delegation Ans. = A Ques289: How many fax job queues can be on a single system? A. Windows Process Activation Service (WPAS) D. 1 B. Directory Services . = C Ques292: What is the only authentication method integrated into IIS7 that IIS7 enables by default? A. 4 Ans. authorization B. Basic Authentication B. Server Role Administration C.Ans.Net extensibility model and the . Terminal Services B. Windows Authentication . File Transfer Protocol (FTP) C.NET application programming interfaces (APIs)? A. authentication C. = C Ques291: Which service enables developers to modify the functionality of the Web server. 3 D.
A. XML Ans. = B Ques293: Which listener enables IIS7 to receive client requests using ports other than port 80 and protocols other than HTTP? A. resource authorization policies . = A Ques295: What role configures a computer to function as a Terminal Services licensing Server. IIS B. NET. TS Gateway C. the SMTP server is integrated into __________. Terminal Server D. = B Ques297: What is used to specify which Internet users are allowed to use a terminal server? A. XP D. NET.PIPE B. TS Session Broker B. Microsoft SQL Server Ans. = D Ques296: The Easy Print driver is based on what document format introduced in Windows Vista and Windows Server 2008? A. enabling it to allocate client access licenses (CALs) to clients? A. TS Licensing Ans. = D Ques294: When installed. PXS B. XPS C.MSMQ C. connection authorization policies B. All of the above Ans. Windows Server 2008 C. NET.TCP D.Ans. UDDI D.
user authorization policies Ans. and a connectionless class without acknowledgments? A. FC1 B. FC4 Ans. FC3 D. iSCSI Initiator B. server D. including the frame format and three service classes: a connection-oriented class. Storage Explorer Ans. Group Policy objects B. FC2 C. = A Ques:298 What specifies the terminal servers on the private network that users are permitted to access? A. client C. Storage Manager for SANs C. a connectionless class with acknowledgments.C. connection authorization policies D. = D Ques299: Which component registers and locates iSCSI initiators and targets? A. Group Policy objects D. = C Ques300: Which of the following defines the basic transport mechanism of a Fibre Channel network. . = B Ques301: Network File System (NFS) places the bulk of the file sharing process on the __________. Internet Storage Name Server D. A. resource authorization policies Ans. = B Ques302: Network File System (NFS) places the bulk of the file-sharing process on the __________. File Manager Ans. storage device B. user authorization policies C.
WWW_IUSRS B.A. print spooler B. = D Ques303: What increases the production capability of a single printer by connecting it to multiple print devices? A. Integrated C.exe Ans. Basic D. generic request pipeline for all protocol listeners and application development environments? A. = C Ques305: In what application pool mode does IIS7 use the new.exe C. = B Ques306: What is the executable program file for the RDC client? A. client Ans. print queue Ans.exe B. print priority C. Mstsc. = C Ques304: The IIS7 built-in account IUSR is a member of what group? A. = C Ques307. When you obtain a certificate from an external CA. File Manager C. which of these tasks must you complete? . rdp. Classic B. IIS_GROUP Ans.exe D. msrdp. storage device D. server B. msrdcc. IIS_WWWUSRS C. IIS_IUSRS D. Enhanced Ans. either public or local. printer pool D.
Windows Image Formatting D. C. disk structure B. dynamic disk Ans.exe . file structure C. Install the certificate on the TS Gateway server. primary disk D. Internet Printing C. disk system Ans. Print Server D. Install multiple root certificates. Set up SSH access to the TS Gateway server. Print Management Ans.A. = A Ques311: What is the underlying disk drive structure that enables you to store information on your computer? A. Windows Software Update Services B. which provides centralized printer management for an entire enterprise network? A. Net. B. Windows Deployment Services C. None of the above Ans. LPD Service B. = B Ques308: What role is included with Windows Server 2008 and enables you to perform unattended installations of Windows Server 2008 and other operating systems on remote computers? A. = B Ques309: What role service of the Print Services role installs the Print Management snap-in for MMC. = C Ques310: Newly installed disks in Windows Server 2008 always appear first as what type of disk? A. basic disk B. simple disk C. D. Windows PE Ans. = C Ques312: What command-line utility along with the Use parameter can be used to map drive letters to folders in logon scripts? A. file system D.
exe Ans. map drives D. Internet Printing role C. all of the above Ans.exe D. Server Manager Console B. Cmd. Cscript. Print Management console Ans. = D Ques315: What is the new platform-independent document format included with Windows 2008 and Windows Vista that allows print job files to use a single format for their entire journey to the print device? A. disk drives B. Remote File Services D. Distributed File System B. = A Ques313: Which of the following items simplifies the process of locating files and folders on network servers? A. XML Paper Specification (XPS) Ans. Distributed Server Manager C. All of the above Ans. = D Ques316: What tool do printing administrators on large enterprise networks use to keep track of print devices? A. = A Ques314: What will the Window’s Server 2008 Deploying a File Server default allow you to manage on the server? A. Web Server (IIS) role B. printer command location B. Print Management D. printer color level . Ipconfig.exe C. printer pool D. share folders C. = D Ques317: What does PCL stand for? A. LPD Services C.B.
fault tolerance B. Application server C. Windows Deployment interface . = D Ques319: What application layer protocol enables a client to connect to a remote server. Web server Ans. Windows Process Activation Service C. binding D. graphical interface C. the Internet B. and copy files in either direction between the two computers? A. File Transfer Protocol (FTP) B. = D Ques318: Windows Server 2008 includes a Fax Server role that allows users to send faxes from __________. = C Ques322: What type of interface that is integrated into most browser applications is used most often by FTP clients? A. live hosting C. routers D. = D Ques321: What determines how listeners will identify requests on a Website? A. A. icon-based interface Ans. = A Ques320: Which feature enables you to use a Website to publish files located anywhere on the network? A. printer case lever D. virtual directories Ans.C. their desktops Ans. perform rudimentary file management tasks. Remote Desktop Connection B. printer control language Ans. mobile phones C. resource allocation D. IIS Services D. touch pad interface B.
C:\\wwwpub\\inetroot Ans. certification initiator Ans. Per System D. administration B. = B Ques323: When IIS is installed. CGI B.D. usually by requiring the user to supply some sort of token. Per Device B. UDDI D. = A Ques324: What is the process of confirming a user’s identity. or handheld. enabling a Web server to execute applications without spawning a separate process for each incoming request? A. = A . Per OU Ans. certificate provider C. terminal. = B Ques325: A digital certificate is an electronic credential issued by a __________. such as a computer. to connect to the terminal server no matter who is using it? A. authentication C. = B Ques327: What licensing mode permits one client device. A. Windows System Image interface Ans. certification authority D. certificate server B. = C Ques326: What was designed to be an alternative to CGI. Per User C. ISAPI C. such as a password or certificate? A. SSI Ans. association D. confirmation Ans. C:\\WINDOWS\\inetpub\\wwwroot D. C:\\wwwroot\\inetpub C. C:\\inetpub\\wwwroot B. where is the root directory of the default Website placed? A.
Ques328: What is the modern equivalent of mainframe computing in which servers perform most of the processing and clients are relatively simple devices that provide the user interface? A. Role Services B. Terminal Services C. Domain Services D. Function Services Ans. = B Ques329: What are the advantages of Terminal Services? A. reduced client hardware requirements B. simplified application deployment C. easy configuration and updates D. all of the above Ans. = D Ques330: What type of files store Remote Desktop Client settings in a recallable and portable form? A. RDC files B. RDP files C. RDP packages D. RDC packages Ans. = B Ques331: The process of installing a TS Licensing server and preparing it for use consists of four basic steps. What is the first of these steps? A. Activate the TS Licensing server. B. Install the TS Licensing role service. C. Configure the licensing settings on the terminal servers. D. Install the TS CALs on the TS Licensing server. Ans. = B Ques332: What has the technology of choice been for remote network access in recent years? A. SSL B. HTTP C. VPN D. SSH Ans. = C Ques333:
What new Windows Server 2008 Terminal Services role service enables Internet users to access terminal servers on private networks despite intervening firewalls and network access translation (NAT) servers? A. Terminal Services Gateway B. TS Web Access C. TS RemoteApp D. RemoteApp Integration Ans. = A Ques334: What Microsoft technology allows you to package your content in a secure form and issue licenses that provide authorized users with limited access to the content? A. Windows Media Rights Manager B. Windows Server Update Services C. Digital Rights Management D. Windows SharePoint Services Ans. = A Ques335: What converts content into the Windows Media format and sends it to the Windows Media Services server for real-time distribution? A. Windows Media Services B. Windows Media Player C. Windows Media Center D. Windows Media Encoder Ans. = D Ques336: You can access the administration interface for Windows SharePoint Services by selecting what from the Administrative Tools program group? A. Active Directory Users and Computers B. Computer Management C. SharePoint 3.0 Central Administration D. Active Directory Sites and Services Ans. = C Ques337: Because any device on a SAN can communicate with any other device on the same SAN, high-speed data transfers can occur in which of the following ways? A. server to storage B. client to server C. client to client D. client to storage Ans. = A Ques338:
What capability of the File Services role consists of two role services that allow administrators to create a virtual directory tree consisting of folders stored on different servers and to maintain duplicate copies of that information? A. Windows Search Services B. Distributed File System C. File Server Resources Manager D. Single Instance Store Ans. = B Ques339: What is the combination of Allow permissions and Deny permissions called that a security principal receives for a given system element, whether explicitly assigned, inherited, or received through a group membership? A. effective permissions B. special permissions C. extended permissions D. NTFS permissions Ans. = A Ques340: Windows Server 2008 computers must run which protocol service to send email messages? A. Email Router Protocol (ERP) B. Default Email Protocol (DEP) C. Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) D. Simple Modem Target Protocol (SMTP) Ans. = C Ques341: To browse for print servers on the network, you must activate __________. A. devices B. the Print Management Tool C. the Network Discovery Setting D. Administrative Tools Ans. = C Ques342: What feature enables IIS7 to log additional diagnostic information and details on reasons for failures? A. directory services B. Failed Request Tracing C. UDDI services D. print services Ans. = B Ques343:
= B Ques348: What port number is used by the RDP protocol by default? . Forest D. medium process B. Terminal Services licensing mode Ans. = B Ques346: Which TS server licensing scope publishes license server information in the Active Directory database. licensing server licensing mode D. terminal server discovery mode B. enabling terminal servers to discover licensing servers running on any computer in the same forest? A. Digest Authentication D. Workgroup Ans.What is the only authentication method integrated into IIS7 that is enabled by default? A. = D Ques345: What role service balances the client load among multiple terminal servers and saves session state information so that clients can reconnect to the same session from which they disconnected? A. = C Ques347: What option specifies how the terminal server will locate a TS Licensing server? A. Anonymous Authentication C. pooled process C. Tree B. Basic Authentication B. licensing server discovery mode C. Web garden Ans. Domain C. TS Web Access D. TS Gateway B. TS Session Broker C. TS Licensing Ans. Windows Authentication Ans. = B Ques344: Which application pool type consists of multiple applications serviced by multiple worker processes? A. isolated process D.
21 D. Configure the client to use the TS Gateway. C. arbitrated fabric (FC-AF) D. = C Ques351: What Windows Media Player feature includes several techniques. Obtain and install a certificate for the TS Gateway server. = C Ques352: Since 2007. 80 Ans. such as Fast Start and Fast Cache that enable the player to begin displaying content more quickly. 10. 3389 B. thus improving the user experience? A.000 B. = D Ques353: Windows Server 2008 file server with 1 gigabyte of memory can support approximately how many remote file handles? A. 100. 443 C. Advanced Streaming B.000 . D. which of the following options has become the more popular Fibre Channel solution? A. Stream+ Ans. encapsulating D. Enhanced Streaming C. = A Ques349: What technique encapsulates an entire client/server session within another protocol? A. propagating C. = D Ques350: What is the final step involved in deploying a TS Gateway server? A. networking B. Create resource authorization policies. arbitrated loop (FC-AL) C. Ans.A. switched fabric (FC-SW) Ans. B. point-to-point (FC-P2P) B. Fast Streaming D. Install the TS Gateway role service. tunneling Ans.
desktop composition D. IIS_WWWUSRS C. 1. = B Ques355: The anonymous user account in IIS7 is a built-in account called IUSR. 100 Ans. Windows Process Activation Service D. Aero composition Ans. which is a member of what group? A. desktop smoothing C. IIS_IUSRS D. Request Filtering B. This is known as __________. User Name Mapping C. = A Ques357: What experience option enables the RDC client to duplicate the graphics-rendering capabilities of Windows Vista. protected services mode C. Process Model . WWW_IUSRS B.C. A. worker process isolation mode B. = C Ques356: Because each application pool occupies its own protected address space. = A Ques354: What lookup service maintains a list of UNIX accounts by using their UID and GID values as well as their equivalent Windows or Active Directory accounts? A. font smoothing B. most notably the Aero glass effect? A. None of the above Ans. ISAPI extensions Ans. a crashed application cannot affect any process running outside of that pool. = C Ques358: Which of the following is NOT a Windows Process Activation Service feature that TS Web Access requires? A. User Mapping Function D. IIS_GROUP Ans. Name User Map B.000 D.
D Ques. 362 IPv4 addresses are commonly represented by using what type of notation? A. updates C. subnetting B. a smaller network B. a larger network C. D. = A Ques359: Cluster servers should use the same software environment. 361 The routing service included with Windows Server 2008 is better suited for __________. the operating system B. A. which consists of all of the following elements except __________. 360 Of the several key components of subnetting that are listed below. 363 . Systems within a subnet need not be burdened with information about external network addressing. a mid-size network D. Systems within the same subnet can communicate indirectly with the external network. disk size Ans. Configuration APIs Ans. Systems within the same subnet will not share the same network address. A. = D Ques.C.NET Environment D. C. C Ques. classful addressing D. large amounts of traffic Ans. . Active Directory D. B. Systems within the same subnet that share the same network address do not require any information about external network addressing. CIDR C. dotted-decimal Ans. which is the most accurate description? A. Ans. A Ques.
C Ques. striped volume B. name resolution Ans. Windows Command Line D. E-Mail D. Volume Activation Management Tool (VAMT) Ans. assign addresses C. subnetting C. 365 A Server Core installation includes which of the following programs? A. Initial Configuration Tasks B. A. whereas it was an optional feature under IPv4? A. 366 You can configure network settings on a Windows Server 2008 computer by using a number of different tools with the exception of which of the following? A. telephone B. Start menu Ans. manage protocols . B Ques. manage resources B. IP security B. simple volume C. Outlook Express C. Windows Explorer B. mirrored volume Ans. DNS security D. spanned volume D. 367 Which method is not a possibility when activating A MAK key? A. Server Manager consoles C. Windows Notepad D. File and Print Sharing Wizard Ans. 364 Which type of volume consists of free space contained on a single physical disk? A. host configuration D. 368 The core function of DHCP is to __________.Which feature is an integral part of IPv6. D Ques. A Ques. Internet C. C Ques.
372 Which of the following is not a forward or reverse lookup zone type? A. DHCPOFFER C. stub Ans. TTL D. server options B. in seconds. 373 Which of the following is a 32-bit integer representing the maximum time. Resource Record Data Ans. temp. Dhcp. Temp. secondary C. integrated D. A.Ans. primary B.log D.DHCPNACK D. 371 Which file is used by the DHCP database as a temporary storage file during database index maintenance operations (this file sometimes resides in the %systemroot %\\System32\\Dhcp directory after a system failure)? A. 370 Which of the following apply to all clients within a scope and are the most frequently used set of options? A. DHCPACK B. D Ques. C . class options D. that a DNS server or client caches this resource record before it is discarded? A. Owner B.log B. C Ques. B Ques. B Ques.edb Ans. client options Ans. B Ques. J50.mdb C. scope options C. DHCPINFORM Ans. Class C. 369: All DHCP servers that receive the DHCPDISCOVER message and have a valid configuration for the client will broadcast __________.
127. 376 How can you view the IP routing table? A. none of the above Ans. 255. custom configuration Ans. command prompt C. recursive D. simple C. iterative B.0. both B and C Ans. A. such as the Internet? A. DNS servers in the forest B. 379 .0 C. D Ques.0. DNS servers in the domain C.255. C Ques. dial-up networking C. domain controllers in the forest Ans.0 B. A. both B & C D. remote access B. 375 You can use the DNS console to manually or automatically test DNS servers by submitting all of the following queries except __________.0. 378 What type of connectivity creates a secure point-to-point connection across either a private network or a public network. 374 A conditional forwarder in an Active Directory environment can be replicated to any of the following except all __________. 224. Routing and Remote Access console B. virtual private network D.255. domain controllers in the domain D.0 D.0.Ques. 0.0. D Ques. C Ques.255 Ans. D Ques. 377 Which of the following is the limited broadcast address that is general for all networks and routers? A.0.
permissions you will grant to users D.What term refers to the device that is seeking access to the network. B Ques. authenticator B. A Ques. B Ques. verifier D. supplicant C. A. NTFS C. A. DFS Topology Ans. online file settings you will use for the shares Ans. share B. DFS Remediation B. 384 What computer (or standalone device) receives print jobs from clients and sends them to print devices that are either locally attached or connected to the network? . 383 The Distributed File System (DFS) implemented in the Windows Server 2008 File Services role includes two technologies: DFS Namespaces and __________. your strategy for creating shared folders should consist of all the following information except what __________. you must grant them __________ permissions. names you will assign to the shares C. 380 How many active partitions can you have per hard drive? A 1 B 2 C 3 D 4 Ans. registry Ans. both A & B D. C Ques. folders you will share B. D Ques. Authentication Server Ans. such as a laptop attempting to access a wireless access point? A. 381 Regardless of the size of your network. DFS Replication C. DNS Replication D. 382: For network users to be able to access a shared folder on an NTFS drive. A.
Printer > Use Printer Offline D. D Ques. printer driver Ans. Installing a printer B. administrative roles D. 389 Which of the following is not a built-in Data Collector Set within Windows Server 2008? A. A Ques. Performance Logs and Alerts B. System Monitor . proper permissions Ans. D Ques. 387 Just as with folder shares. D Ques. Printer > Pause Printing Ans.A. Deploy printers to client computers using Group Policy D Create custom views Ans. 388 Which of the following is the most frequently used view within the Reliability and Performance Monitor? A. System Diagnostics C. printer D. Server Performance Advisor D. 385 Which document management menu command causes the print server to stop sending jobs to the print device until you resume it by selecting the same menu item again? A. print server C. what must clients have to access a shared printer? A. security clearance C. print device B. B Ques. Access the print queues and Properties sheets for all of the network printers in the enterprise C. Performance Monitor Ans. Document > Pause C. Document > Restart B. LAN Diagnostics B. 386 Which of the following is not an option with the Print Services Management Console? A. drivers B. System Monitor C.
Authentication exemption C. B Ques. 390 When you first launch Network Monitor. LMv2 Authentication B. cryptographic checksum C. Isolation D. Group Policy updates B. Tunnel B. C Ques. NTLMv2 Authentication D. such as membership in a particular Active Directory domain? A. C . 393 Which middle-of-the-road form of NTLM authentication was used to improve upon the security of LM Authentication? A. multilanguage features Ans. shared cryptography B. F9 C. C Ques. mutual authentication D. NTLM Authentication C. F8 B. filtered methodology Ans. F11 Ans. critical updates C. 391 Which of the following is not a category for the Windows operating system updates? A. None of the above Ans. 392 What rule allows you to restrict inbound and outbound connections based on certain sets of criteria. what key do you press to begin capturing network traffic? A. recommended downloads D.D. after which only trusted systems can communicate with each other? A. A Ques. Server to server Ans. F10 D. C Ques. 394 Which process is used to establish trust between communicating systems. System Performance Ans.
802. IPSec Driver field B. D Ques. A Ques.Ques. C Ques. IP Filter field D. System Health Validator Ans. Write ACL C. 400: . Health Registration Authority B. NDES B. Certificate Revocation List D. NAP Agent D. SPI field Ans. IKE Authentication field C. Online Responder Ans. 398: What feature allows users or computers to manually request a certificate based a template? A. 399: Which element of Active Directory Certificate Services utilizes the Online Certificate Status Protocol to act in response to client requests? A. Terminal Services Gateway (TS Gateway) enforcement<i> Ans. Read ACL D. Internet Protocol Security (IPSec) enforcement B. 396 : Who maintains information about the health of the NAP client computer and transmits information between the NAP Enforcement Clients and the System Health Agents? A. Enroll ACL B. Autoenroll ACL Ans. System Health Agent C. VPN enforcement C. subordinate CA C. D Ques. 397 : Which enforcement method allows authorized remote users to connect to resources on an internal corporate or private network from any Internet-connected device? A.1X enforcement D. 395 Which field does the IPSec driver use to match the correct SA with the correct packet? A. D Ques.
Secret Copies of Shared Folders B. Shared Copies of Shadow Folders Ans. Shadow Copies of Shared Folders D. C .Which Windows feature allows users to perform self-service restores of previous versions of files and folders in case of accidental deletion or unwanted modifications? A. Shadow Copies of Secret Folders C.
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