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Based on assessment, you classified a 3-month old infant with the chief complaint of diarrhea in the category of SOME DEHYDRATION. Based on IMCI management guidelines, which of the following will you do? A. Bring the infant to the nearest facility where IV fluids can be given. B. Supervise the mother in giving 200 to 400 ml. of Oresol in 4 hours. C. Give the infant¶s mother instructions on home management. D. Keep the infant in your health center for close observation. Answer: (B) Supervise the mother in giving 200 to 400 ml. of Oresol in 4 hours. In the IMCI management guidelines, SOME DEHYDRATION is treated with the administration of Oresol within a period of 4 hours. The amount of Oresol is best computed on the basis of the child¶s weight (75 ml/kg body weight). If the weight is unknown, the amount of Oresol is based on the child¶s age. 2. A mother is using Oresol in the management of diarrhea of her 3-year old child. She asked you what to do if her child vomits. You will tell her to A. Bring the child to the nearest hospital for further assessment. B. Bring the child to the health center for intravenous fluid therapy. C. Bring the child to the health center for assessment by the physician. D. Let the child rest for 10 minutes then continue giving Oresol more slowly. Answer: (D) Let the child rest for 10 minutes then continue giving Oresol more slowly. If the child vomits persistently, that is, he vomits everything that he takes in, he has to be referred urgently to a hospital. Otherwise, vomiting is managed by letting the child rest for 10 minutes and then continuing with Oresol administration. Teach the mother to give Oresol more slowly. 3. A 1 ½ year old child was classified as having 3rd degree protein energy malnutrition, kwashiorkor. Which of the following signs will be most apparent in this child? A. Voracious appetite B. Wasting C. Apathy D. Edema Answer: (D) Edema Edema, a major sign of kwashiorkor, is caused by decreased colloidal osmotic pressure of the blood brought about by hypoalbuminemia. Decreased blood albumin level is due a protein-deficient diet. 4. Assessment of a 2-year old child revealed ³baggy pants´. Using the IMCI guidelines, how will you manage this child? A. Refer the child urgently to a hospital for confinement. B. Coordinate with the social worker to enroll the child in a feeding program. C. Make a teaching plan for the mother, focusing on menu planning for her child. D. Assess and treat the child for health problems like infections and intestinal parasitism. Answer: (A) Refer the child urgently to a hospital for confinement. ³Baggy pants´ is a sign of severe marasmus. The best management is urgent referral to a hospital. 5. During the physical examination of a young child, what is the earliest sign of xerophthalmia that you may observe? A. Keratomalacia B. Corneal opacity C. Night blindness D. Conjunctival xerosis Answer: (D) Conjunctival xerosis The earliest sign of Vitamin A deficiency (xerophthalmia) is night blindness. However, this is a functional change, which is not observable during physical examination.The earliest visible lesion is conjunctival xerosis or dullness of the conjunctiva due to inadequate tear production. 6. To prevent xerophthalmia, young children are given Retinol capsule every 6 months. What is the dose given to preschoolers? A. 10,000 IU B. 20,000 IU C. 100,000 IU D. 200,000 IU Answer: (D) 200,000 IU Preschoolers are given Retinol 200,000 IU every 6 months. 100,000 IU is given once to infants aged 6 to 12 months. The dose for pregnant women is 10,000 IU. 7. The major sign of iron deficiency anemia is pallor. What part is best examined for pallor? A. Palms B. Nailbeds C. Around the lips D. Lower conjunctival sac
Its feeding time is usually during the daytime. During an impending epidemic. convulsions.U. Cough for more than 30 days Answer: (A) Inability to drink A sick child aged 2 months to 5 years must be referred urgently to a hospital if he/she has one or more of the following signs: not able to feed or drink. Signs of severe dehydration D. Give measles vaccine to babies aged 6 to 8 months. Following the IMCI assessment guide. iron and/or iodine. What is the best course of action when there is a measles epidemic in a nearby municipality? A. Which of these is most effective in the control of Dengue fever? A. a child is given 200. A mother brought her daughter. Ask if the fever is present everyday. Instruct mothers to keep their babies at home to prevent disease transmission.Answer: (A) Palms The anatomic characteristics of the palms allow a reliable and convenient basis for examination for pallor.000 IU regardless of when the last dose was given. to the RHU because of cough and colds. Tetracycline eye ointment for corneal opacity D. Planting of neem or eucalyptus trees B. wheat flour. Teaching people in endemic areas to use chemically treated mosquito nets Answer: (B) Destroying breeding places of mosquitoes Aedes aegypti. of Retinol C. 10. Instruct mothers to feed their babies adequately to enhance their babies¶ resistance. 14. Stream seeding with larva-eating fish B. Answer: (A) Give measles vaccine to babies aged 6 to 8 months. Bread C. Do a tourniquet test. Answer: (B) Ask where the family resides. B. vomits everything. Determining whether a place is endemic or not D. 9. 12. where he/she was brought and whether he/she stayed overnight in that area. D. R. breeds in stagnant. Give babies aged 6 to 11 months one dose of 100.A. The following are strategies implemented by the Department of Health to prevent mosquito-borne diseases.A. Ordinarily. C. ask if the child had traveled within the past 6 months. Management of a child with measles includes the administration of which of the following? A. It has a cyclical pattern of occurrence. Inability to drink B. what will you do? A. abnormally sleepy or difficult to awaken. Food fortification is one of the strategies to prevent micronutrient deficiency conditions. sugar and cooking oil with Vitamin A.000 IU. measles vaccine is given at 9 months of age. Antibiotics to prevent pneumonia C. Because malaria is endemic. D. unlike malaria which is endemic in certain parts of the country. the vector of Dengue fever. one dose may be given to babies aged 6 to 8 months. the first question to determine malaria risk is where the client¶s family resides. If the area of residence is not a known endemic area. 11. Growing larva-eating fish in mosquito breeding places . B. Chemoprophylaxis of non-immune persons going to endemic areas D. 13. Sugar B.000 I. 8976 mandates fortification of rice. clear water. Get a specimen for blood smear. Residual spraying of insecticides at night C. Gentian violet on mouth lesions B. Which of the following is among these food items? A. Destroying breeding places of mosquitoes C. 4 years old. Ask where the family resides. High grade fever C. 8. Secondary prevention for malaria includes A. Margarine D. A mother brought her 10 month old infant for consultation because of fever. To determine malaria risk. which of the following is a danger sign that indicates the need for urgent referral to a hospital? A. which started 4 days prior to consultation. 8976 mandates fortification of certain food items. Retinol capsule regardless of when the last dose was given Answer: (D) Retinol capsule regardless of when the last dose was given An infant 6 to 12 months classified as a case of measles is given Retinol 100. however. Filled milk Answer: (A) Sugar R. The mother is instructed that the baby needs another dose when the baby is 9 months old.
3 skin lesions. . unexplained weight loss. positive slit skin smear Answer: (D) 5 skin lesions. Sputum negative cavitary cases B. Thickened painful nerves D. Schistosoma Answer: (B) Pinworm Pinworm ova are deposited around the anal orifice. positive slit skin smear A multibacillary leprosy case is one who has a positive slit skin smear and at least 5 skin lesions. 15. negative slit skin smear B. In the Philippines. Sinking of the nosebridge Answer: (C) Thickened painful nerves The lesion of leprosy is not macular. 5 skin lesions. what innovation is being implemented in DOTS? A. chest pain lasting for 2 weeks or more not attributed to other conditions. Which of the following signs indicates the need for sputum examination for AFB? A. Inability to close the eyelids (lagophthalmos) and sinking of the nosebridge are late symptoms. 5 skin lesions. Cough for 3 weeks D. 18. Intestinal perforation Answer: (B) Liver cirrhosis The etiologic agent of schistosomiasis in the Philippines is Schistosoma japonicum. progressive. preferably a health worker accessible to the client. 21. plus one or more of the following signs: fever for 1 month or more. Hookworm D. Which clients are considered targets for DOTS Category I? A. sweating and hair growth over the lesion. Relapses and failures of previous PTB treatment regimens D. 16. Having the health worker follow up the client at home B. Scotch tape swab is done to check for which intestinal parasite? A. monitors the client¶s compliance to the treatment. and hemoptysis. Having a target list to check on whether the patient has collected his monthly supply of drugs Answer: (B) Having the health worker or a responsible family member monitor drug intake Directly Observed Treatment Short Course is so-called because a treatment partner. Bladder cancer D. negative slit skin smear D. It is characterized by a change in skin color (either reddish or whitish) and loss of sensation. Liver damage is a consequence of fibrotic reactions to schistosoma eggs in the liver. Liver cirrhosis C. such as TB osteomyelitis. Diagnosis of leprosy is highly dependent on recognition of symptoms. 17. The other choices are for primary prevention. Macular lesions B. Inability to close eyelids C. Having the health worker or a responsible family member monitor drug intake C. Having the patient come to the health center every month to get his medications D. 19. 3 skin lesions. Ascaris B. Clients diagnosed for the first time through a positive sputum exam Answer: (D) Clients diagnosed for the first time through a positive sputum exam Category I is for new clients diagnosed by sputum examination and clients diagnosed to have a serious form of extrapulmonary tuberculosis.Answer: (C) Determining whether a place is endemic or not This is diagnostic and therefore secondary level prevention. Pinworm C. 20. To improve compliance to treatment. Clients returning after a default C. Liver cancer B. Hematemesis B. Chest pain for 1 week Answer: (C) Cough for 3 weeks A client is considered a PTB suspect when he has cough for 2 weeks or more. which condition is the most frequent cause of death associated with schistosomiasis? A. which affects the small intestine and the liver. Fever for 1 week C. Which of the following clients should be classified as a case of multibacillary leprosy? A. positive slit skin smear C. Which of the following is an early sign of leprosy? A. night sweats.
55 D. 29. Severe febrile disease Answer: (B) Severe dehydration The order of priority in the management of severe dehydration is as follows: intravenous fluid therapy. severe conditions generally require urgent referral to a hospital. Estimate the number of infants in the barangay. tehn urgent referral to the hospital is done. Proper disposal of human excreta and personal hygiene D. Building of foot bridges C. the level of this approved type of water facility is A. Use of sterile syringes and needles B. referral to a facility where IV fluids can be initiated within 30 minutes. Cutting the cycle at this stage is the most effective way of preventing the spread of the disease to susceptible hosts. For prevention of hepatitis A. Severe pneumonia D. multiply total population by 3%. you decided to conduct health education activities. Which biological used in Expanded Program on Immunization (EPI) should NOT be stored in the freezer? A. 50 C. Oresol/orem. Measles vaccine D. Use of molluscicides B. You will conduct outreach immunization in a barangay with a population of about 1500. 8 D. OPV and measles vaccine are highly sensitive to heat and require freezing. 5 C. . such as rubber boots Answer: (C) Proper use of sanitary toilets The ova of the parasite get out of the human body together with feces. Severe dehydration C. 27. Hepatitis B is transmitted through infected body secretions like blood and semen. In Integrated Management of Childhood Illness. 24. 28. 26. III D. The appropriate storage temperature of DPT is 2 to 8° C only. You will say that there is slow capillary refill when the color of the nailbed that you pressed does not return within how many seconds? A. 60 Answer: (A) 45 To estimate the number of infants. 10 Answer: (A) 3 Adequate blood supply to the area allows the return of the color of the nailbed within 3 seconds. Oral polio vaccine C. MMR Answer: (A) DPT DPT is sensitive to freezing. What is the most effective way of controlling schistosomiasis in an endemic area? A. I B.22. Mastoiditis B. MMR is not an immunization in the Expanded Program on Immunization. 23. A client was diagnosed as having Dengue fever. IV Answer: (B) II A communal faucet or water standpost is classified as Level II. A. Use of protective footwear. Proper use of sanitary toilets D. 45 B. Immediate reporting of water pipe leaks and illegal water connections Answer: (A) Use of sterile syringes and needles Hepatitis A is transmitted through the fecal oral route. Which of the following is IRRELEVANT? A. Safe food preparation and food handling by vendors C. When residents obtain water from an artesian well in the neighborhood. When the foregoing measures are not possible or effective. II C. 3 B. Oresol/nasogastric tube. DPT B. Which of the following severe conditions DOES NOT always require urgent referral to a hospital? A.
Among the following diseases. Use of chemically treated mosquito nets B. Among children aged 2 months to 3 years. Human beings are the major reservoir of malaria. Answer: (B) Instruct the mother to give the child Oresol. Seeding of breeding places with larva-eating fish C. whereas diphtheria is through direct and indirect contact with respiratory secretions. clear water. Steptococcus pneumoniae D. Stream seeding B. The pathognomonic sign of measles is Koplik¶s spot. such as those with basil or citronella Answer: (C) Destruction of breeding places of the mosquito vector Anopheles mosquitoes breed in slow-moving. Viral conjunctivitis B. 31. Skin on the abdomen D. Morbillivirus C. The use of larvivorous fish in malaria control is the basis for which strategy of malaria control? A. Buccal mucosa C. Hemophilus influenzae B. Diphtheria D. Acute poliomyelitis is spread through the fecal-oral route and contact with throat secretions. The Anopheles mosquito takes his blood meal from the animal and goes back to its breeding place. Acute poliomyelitis C. The child had a positive tourniquet test result. Which of the following is NOT appropriate for malaria control? A. such as mountain streams. which is the most appropriate measure that the PHN may carry out to prevent Dengue shock syndrome? A. 35. You may see Koplik¶s spot by inspecting the _____. Stream seeding B. the most prevalent form of meningitis is caused by which microorganism? A.30. Instruct the mother to give the child Oresol. Nasal mucosa B. C. Destruction of breeding places D. Skin on the antecubital surface Answer: (B) Buccal mucosa Koplik¶s spot may be seen on the mucosa of the mouth or the throat. In the absence of other signs. Stream clearing C. Since the child does not manifest any other danger sign. 33. Zooprophylaxis Answer: (D) Zooprophylaxis Zooprophylaxis is done by putting animals like cattle or dogs close to windows or doorways just before nightfall. D. A. Insert an NGT and give fluids per NGT. which is airborne? A. Destruction of breeding places D. B. Destruction of breeding places of the mosquito vector D. Use of mosquito-repelling soaps. Neisseria meningitidis Answer: (A) Hemophilus influenzae Hemophilus meningitis is unusual over the age of 5 years. A 3-year old child was brought by his mother to the health center because of fever of 4-day duration. Mosquito-borne diseases are prevented mostly with the use of mosquito control measures. Zooprophylaxis Answer: (A) Stream seeding Stream seeding is done by putting tilapia fry in streams or other bodies of water identified as breeding places of the Anopheles mosquito 36. Morbillivirus is the etiology of measles. the peak incidence is in children less than 6 months of age. Streptococcus pneumoniae and Neisseria meningitidis may cause meningitis. 32. thereby preventing infection of humans. maintenance of fluid balance and replacement of fluid loss may be done by giving the client Oresol. In developing countries. Start the patient on intravenous fluids STAT. 34. but age distribution is not specific in young children. . Measles Answer: (D) Measles Viral conjunctivitis is transmitted by direct or indirect contact with discharges from infected eyes. Refer the client to the physician for appropriate management. Which of the following strategies in malaria control is based on this fact? A. Stream clearing C.
Refer the client to the physician since he is the best person to reveal the result to the client. You are the PHN in the city health center. Which is the BEST control measure for AIDS? A. haematobium in Africa and the Middle East. the client noted yellowish discoloration of his sclera. Based on his history. A negative supplementary test result means that the ELISA result was false and that. History showed that he waded in flood waters about 2 weeks before the onset of symptoms. which specie of schistosoma is endemic in certain regions? A. since the ELISA result may be false. such as MWSS. japonicum C. Dysentery Answer: (B) Cholera Passage of profuse watery stools is the major symptom of cholera.37. MWSS provides water to Manila and other cities in Metro Manila. malayensis D. Amebiasis D. are classified as level III. Which of the following opportunistic infections is characterized by tonsillopharyngitis? A. Infectious mononucleosis C. What is the best course of action that you may take? A. S. Cholera C. The client is most probably suffering from which condition? A. such as Western blot. Using a condom during each sexual contact C. A 4-year old client was brought to the health center with the chief complaint of severe diarrhea and the passage of ³rice water´ stools. mansoni B. 42. Refer the client for a supplementary test. Accompanying symptoms were muscle pains and body malaise. IV Answer: (C) III Waterworks systems. A 32-year old client came for consultation at the health center with the chief complaint of fever for a week. malayensis only in peninsular Malaysia. Both amebic and bacillary dysentery are characterized by the presence of blood and/or mucus in the stools. focusing on the practice of high risk behaviors. since the ELISA result may be false. A client having a reactive ELISA result must undergo a more specific test. the client is not infected. S. such as Western blot. Transmission occurs mostly through sexual intercourse and exposure to blood or tissues. 43. Tetanus D. C. The most frequent causes of death among clients with AIDS are opportunistic diseases. S. Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia . mansoni is found mostly in Africa and South America. This is an example of which level of water facility? A. which disease condition will you suspect? A. 41. Cytomegalovirus disease D. Leptospirosis Answer: (D) Leptospirosis Leptospirosis is transmitted through contact with the skin or mucous membrane with water or moist soil contaminated with urine of infected animals. Giardiasis B. II C. Answer: (D) Refer the client for a supplementary test. His result was positive. 39. Hepatitis B C. Making sure that one¶s sexual partner does not have signs of AIDS Answer: (A) Being faithful to a single sexual partner Sexual fidelity rules out the possibility of getting the disease by sexual contact with another infected person. most probably. I B. japonicum S. 38. such as Western blot. Get a thorough history of the client. Ask the client to be accompanied by a significant person before revealing the result. S. III D. B. A week after the start of fever. Avoiding sexual contact with commercial sex workers D. like rats. Respiratory candidiasis B. A client underwent screening for AIDS using ELISA. S. haematobium Answer: (B) S. steatorrhea. In the Philippines. Hepatitis A B. therefore. D. Giardiasis is characterized by fat malabsorption and. 40. Being faithful to a single sexual partner B. and S.
44. the more susceptible he becomes to the complications of chicken pox. Contamination is by food handling by persons with staphylococcal skin or eye infections. Community survey C. sore throat and lymphadenopathy. such as AZT. In post-adolescent males. If the child is not abnormally sleepy or difficult to awaken c. but does not cure the underlying immunodeficiency. They shorten the period of communicability of the disease. They reduce the risk of opportunistic infections C. Answer: (D) Consult a physician who may give them rubella immunoglobulin. A. such as pneumonia. All cooking and eating utensils must be thoroughly washed. This is contraindicated in pregnancy. Contact tracing B. B. To prevent congenital rubella. B. Consult at the health center where rubella vaccine may be given. Antiretroviral agents reduce the risk of opportunistic infections and prolong life. C. Answer: (D) They are able to bring about a cure of the disease condition. Which of the following is NOT included in checking for danger signs? a. a specific prophylactic against German measles. the more susceptible he becomes to the complications of chicken pox. 47. If the child has had convulsions. c & d are all danger signs that should be checked always. A barangay had an outbreak of German measles. Proper handwashing during food preparation is the best way of preventing the condition. Answer: (A) The older one gets. may be given to pregnant women. To prevent an outbreak in the community. 46.Answer: (B) Infectious mononucleosis Cytomegalovirus disease is an acute viral disease characterized by fever. Rubella vaccine is made up of attenuated German measles viruses. Which of the following would you emphasize regarding prevention of staphylococcal food poisoning? A. Another danger sign is when child is abnormally sleepy or difficult to awaken . Chicken pox is usually more severe in adults than in children. You were invited to be the resource person in a training class for food handlers. 45. In a mothers¶ class. Food handlers and food servers must have a negative stool examination result. A single attack of chicken pox will prevent future episodes. Immune globulin. If the child vomits everything he or she takes in. are used in the management of AIDS. Advice them on the signs of German measles. They are able to bring about a cure of the disease condition. such as markets and moviehouses. 49. Which of the following is NOT an action expected of these drugs. There is no known treatment for AIDS. d. Elderly clients C. Young adult males D. including conditions such as shingles. Antiretroviral agents. Symptoms of this food poisoning are due to staphylococcal enterotoxin. Young infants Answer: (C) Young adult males Epididymitis and orchitis are possible complications of mumps. Complications. Answer: B ± a. such as sexually transmitted diseases. what is the BEST advice that you can give to women in the first trimester of pregnancy in the barangay? A. C. D. B. quarantine may be imposed by health authorities. D. Consult a physician who may give them rubella immunoglobulin. They prolong the life of the client with AIDS. Pregnant women B. which is the BEST method that may be undertaken by the public health nurse? A. To determine possible sources of sexually transmitted infections. Avoid crowded places. The older one gets. you discussed childhood diseases such as chicken pox. Mass screening tests D. Complications to infectious parotitis (mumps) may be serious in which type of clients? A. If the child is not able to drink or breastfeed. A child is aged from 2 months to 5 years. bilateral inflammation of the testes and epididymis may cause sterility. C. Food must be cooked properly to destroy staphylococcal microorganisms. not the microorganisms themselves. 50. Interview of suspects Answer: (A) Contact tracing Contact tracing is the most practical and reliable method of finding possible sources of person-to-person transmitted infections. B. 48. D. Answer: (D) Proper handwashing during food preparation is the best way of preventing the condition. are higher in incidence in adults. D. b. Chicken pox vaccine is best given when there is an impending outbreak in the community. Which of the following statements about chicken pox is correct? A.
Red Answer: C ± Green ± simple advice on home management 53. 3 months B. you discuss proper breastfeeding technique. When the baby has properly latched on to the breast.. Pink c. Yellow d. slow sucks. And. Frequent washing dries up the nipples. especially the baby¶s iron requirement. which of the following will you do? A. Pneumonia c. 58. Under what classification are you going to teach the mother or other caregivers on how to give oral drugs and treat local infections at home. 6 months C. which causes uterine contraction. his mouth is wide open. and ferrous sulfate is taken for two months after delivery. 57. No pneumonia. the nurse treats a local infection. 54. Pink c. a 3 year old child. Answer: (D) Explain to her that putting the baby to breast will lessen blood loss after delivery.no chest indrawing .U. 1 year D. Green d. The baby¶s mouth is only partly open. To make sure that the baby is able to get the colostrum D.. cough or cold d. During a home visit. None of the above . The mother does not feel nipple pain.000 I. 1 capsule A capsule of Retinol 200. Which is of these is a sign that the baby has ³latched on´ to the breast properly? A. To stimulate milk production by the mammary acini C. She performed interventions under what category? a. and much of the areola is inside his mouth. Red Answer: B ± Yellow ± specific medical treatment and advice is usually done at the clinic and it is under Yellow category. you¶re right! The mother does not feel nipple pain. In a mothers¶ class. c. Malunggay capsule B. Explain to her that putting the baby to breast will lessen blood loss after delivery. B. Potassium iodate is given during pregnancy. Potassium iodate 200 mg.U. 55. SITUATION: Baby Glenn. The child is being brought to the health center because of cough and diarrhea. malunggay capsule is not routinely administered after delivery. A. You explain to a breastfeeding mother that breast milk is sufficient for all of the baby¶s nutrient needs only up to ____. What is Baby Glenn¶s classification for cough or difficult breathing? a. Retinol 200. he takes deep. Ferrous sulfate 100 mg. There was no General Danger Sign (GDS). Answer: (B) The mother does not feel nipple pain. weighs 15 kg. Lactation begins 1 to 3 days after delivery. Tell her that lactation begins within a day after delivery.no stridor or fastbreathing. which initiates lactation. To allow the woman to practice breastfeeding in the presence of the health worker Answer: (B) To stimulate milk production by the mammary acini Suckling of the nipple stimulates prolactin reflex (the release of prolactin by the anterior pituitary gland). making them prone to the formation of fissures. A primigravida is instructed to offer her breast to the baby for the first time within 30 minutes after delivery.000 I. Nipple stretching exercises are done when the nipples are flat or inverted. gives oral drugs advices. OD C. D. rapid sucks. 2 years Answer: (B) 6 months After 6 months. 1 capsule D. Instruct her to wash her nipples before and after each breastfeeding. and teaches the caregiver. In preparing a primigravida for breastfeeding. Yellow d. Severe Pneumonia or Very severe Disease b.000 IU is given within 1 month after delivery. 56. C. Green b. What is given to a woman within a month after the delivery of a baby? A.51. Teach her nipple stretching exercises if her nipples are everted. Upon the assessment for diarrhea . The baby takes shallow. Suckling of the nipple stimulates the release of oxytocin by the posterior pituitary gland. B. Only the mother¶s nipple is inside the baby¶s mouth. the baby¶s nutrient needs. C. 52. can no longer be provided by mother¶s milk alone. the health worker decides that the patient has a sunken eyes and a skin pinch that goes back very slowly. To initiate the occurrence of milk letdown B. D. 1 capsule Answer: (C) Retinol 200. What is the purpose of offering the breast this early? A.
infection b. Next. none of the above 69. gentian violet d. Giving oresol at home b. Giving oresol at the health center c. The health worker asked if Mandy had convulsions. Plan A d. What is the classification for baby Clarisse in the fever box? a. What is the treatment of measles with mouth complication? a. Upon assessment. none of the above SITUATION: . Mandy is awake and conscious.Her skin pinch goes back very slowly.10 kg child is being brought by her mother to the health center because she had diarrhea . what is her best alternative? a. Give first dose of appropriate antibiotic d. 63. Mandy is too weak to lift her head let alone sip from a cup. Oral antimalarial drug c. Malaria c. Plan C b. Very severe Febrile Disease/ Malaria b. No dehydration d. D5 LR d. Abnormally sleepy or difficult to awaken 64. Fever: Malaria unlikely d. give oresol by mouth (NGT) b. and asked the mother if Mandy experienced that . What is the best treatment of the above identified classification? a. a. The health worker checked for the child¶s General Danger sign (GDS) . severe dehydration c. salt water and gentian violet b. First dose of antibiotic then refer b. betadine and gentian violet c. None of the above 60. none of the above 67. They live in a Malaria risk area. none of the above 66. rash and red eyes. Refer to the hospital without rehydration d. measles with mouth or eyes complication c. she said none. Convulsions d. Plan C means. The health worker ask if Mandy is able to drink or breastfeed . D5 NaCl c. Give antibiotic for 5 days c. If the nurse is not trained to give intravenous fluid in cases of severe dehydration . What is the likely cause of Mandy¶s General Danger Sign (GDS) ? a. give oresol in a cup c.5 degree Celsius and above d. Send a referral note with the patient 65. Plan B c. Finish the whole assessment quickly and refer the child urgently c. described to the mother what is convulsion . Counsel on how to soothe the throat and relieve the cough with a safe remedy d. What is the treatment for the classification identified above? a. What is the classification for measles? a. a two year old. Rehydrate according to plan c b. 14 kg. Giving intravenous therapy d. None of the above 62. Severe Complicated Measles b. What is Baby Glenn¶s classification for diarrhea? a. none of the above 70. was brought by her mother at the health center because she had cough. she said no . Vomits everything c. measles d. this is her initial visit. first dose of Quinine then refer b.59. Give Paracetamol for temperature 38. 68. None of the above 61. What will the health worker do next? a. What is Mandy¶s General Danger Sign? a. the health worker finds a generalized rash all over the child¶s body and few mouth ulcers. None of the above SITUATION: Mandy. the health worker asked the mother if the child had been vomiting . plain LR b. The IV fluid suggested for rehydration. Not able to drink or breastfed b. fever. severe Dehydration b. The health worker encircled the sign she previously identified and ticked yes. none of the above SITUATION: BABY CLARISSE 2 year old. a. none of the above 71. What is the best action of the nurse for the classification identified above? a. Some dehydration c. the mother said no . influenza d.
none of the above 83. Severe Malnutrition b. right after performing the test b. Severe Persistent Diarrhea and Dysentery b. Severe anemia c. clean cloth b. nutrient rich semi solid foods d. What is used to wick the child¶s ears? a. ½ tablet b. no visible severe wasting and no edema of both feet. 77. treat to prevent low blood sugar then refer b. 50 to 100 cc after each loose stool d. none of the above 76. What is the best treatment for the classification identified above? a. is a 4 year old child. her mother brought her to the hospital because she has diarrhea. none of the above 78. and she is not restless or irritable . Persistent diarrhea and Dysentery c. First dose of Antibiotic then refer b. none of the above 75. Some dehydration c. breastmilk d. none of the above 82. How much mebendazole will be given to a 4 year old child like Molly . 48 hours after performing the test d. When should he return to have the test read? a. Vitamin A . none of the above 79. 650cc b. 1 week after performing the test . What will be the health worker¶s classification for malnutrition and anemia? a. one year d. buko juice c. The signs ear discharge for 25 days . The nurse performs a PPD test on his right forearm today. chronic ear infection c. Counsel on feeding d. cotton buds c. What is Menchu¶s classification for dehydration? a. none of the above 81. Severe Dehydration b. What are the classification of Menchu for persistent diarrhea and bloody stool? a. 750 cc c. when offered fluids Menchu drinks eagerly. anemia d. Give antibiotic for 5 days c. goat¶s milk b. acute ear infection d. 3 months b. How much oresol will the health worker give Menchu for the classification identified above? a. iron and mebendazole c. What is the type of milk contraindicated for children with persistent diarrhea? a. What is the best treatment for the classification identified above? a. The skin pinch goes back immediately. a. ¼ tablet d. Mastoiditis b. none of the above Molly then is assessed for malnutrition and anemia. 1 tablet c. cow¶s milk c. none of the above 74. Her eyes were sunken. without ear pain puts the child in what classification? a. What is the replacement of the abovementioned milk in the care of a child who has persistent diarrhea. 24 hours after performing the test c. Menchu is not abnormally sleepy or difficult to awaken . 80. gauze d. The mother said that the diarrhea has been there for 21 days and there is blood in the stool. Dry the ear by wicking and Quinolone otic drops d. rice water b. She does not have General Danger Sign (GDS) and does not have cough or difficult breathing. Ben was subjected for a PPD test. suppose she has anemia.Menchu is a 14 months old baby. none of the above 84. No dehydration 73. The interval of deworming for uderfive children is. 72. a. a. The health worker find some palmar pallor for Molly. There was no ear pain and there is no swelling behind the ears. none of the above Molly . No dehydration and Dysentery d. She weighs 10 kg. She was brought by her mother to the health center because of ear discharges on the left ear. 6 months c.
Option D: It is not transmitted through skin contact. Esophageal C. Which of the following diagnostic tests is definitive for tuberculosis? a. For which of the following reasons is this done? a. tuberculin test Answer C ± The sputum culture for Mycobacterium tuberculosis is the only method of confirming the diagnosis. If read too early or too late. To educate the public the prevention of influenza. A chest x-ray can¶t determine if this is a primary or secondary infection. the school nurse should advise the student to: . Sexual Contact D. droplet. 3. 87. burn soiled clothes. 85. Dogs ANSWER: C Snails of species Oncomelia Quadrasi is the most common intermediate host for Schistosomiasis. chest x-ray b. A group of PHN went to the area to disseminate necessary information requiring early detection. to confirm the diagnosis b. B and D are not the host for Schistosomiasis.) Education of the public as to sanitary hazard from spitting. the results won¶t be accurate. The drug of choice for Schistosomiasis is: A. Rats C. What is the host of Schistosoma Japonicum? A.g. Sputum culture confirms the diagnosis. mantoux test c. sneezing and coughing. Option A: This maybe used as an alternative drug for schistosomiasis. 2. Option C: This is one of the PUBLIC health nursing responsibilities of the nurse. indirect e. Option A. A client with a positive Mantoux test result will be sent for a chest x ± ray. Communicable diseases are most prevalent in Brgy. to determine if this is a primary or secondary infection d. Option C: This is the drug of choice for Filariasis. by articles contaminated with discharges of nose and throat of infected person or it can also be transmitted AIRBORNE. Praziquantel C. How is Influenza transmitted? A. Option D: Quinidne S04 is used for Malaria. Option C: Microorganism is not found in the reproductive area but in the nasopharyngeal secretions. Influenza Virus is the etiologic agent of Influenza occuring in local and sporadic cases. 88. Snails D. Skin Contact ANSWER: A Possible mode of transmission for influenza are through direct contact e. D. prevent cross infection.g. avoid spitting in public places. to determine the extent of lesions Answer C ± If the lesions are large enough. B. Problemado. 90. glasses and eating utensils. Hetrazan D.) Active Immunization with Influenza Vaccine. Lesions in the lung may not be big enough to be seen on X-ray. control and cure of the different communicable diseases. Quinidine Sulfate ANSWER: B Praziquantel (Biltricide) is the Drug of choice for all species of Schistosoma parasite. There can be false ± positive and false negative skin test results. If a student is sick. 91. to determine if a repeat skin test is needed c. Skin tests maybe falsely positive or falsely negative. sputum culture d. isolate patient. the chest X-ray will show their presence in the lungs. 86.Answer C ± PPD tests should be read in 48 to 72 hours. Airborne B. the nurse must teach to: A. Option A: This is part of the nursing care for a patient with influenza to prevent its spread. ANSWER: B Methods of Prevention and Control for influenza include 3 measures: 1. Option B: This is not a mode of transmission. Metrofinate B. 89.) Avoid use of common towels. C. Mosquitoes B.
timori ANSWER: A ± no such thing as F. Bacteria c. Nystatine . Pandy¶s test b. Protozoa ANSWER: A 94. Poker¶s sign d.A. D. Virus b. Lumbar puncture c. The classical signs of leprosy except: a. Option C and D: Patient is advise to rest. Chronic ulcer ANSWER: C ± is for schistosomiasis 95. Wuchereria bancrofti c. ANSWER: A The nurse should advise the student to stay at home and rest to prevent the spread of infection and to promote recovery. and all diarrheal diseases D: for ringworm 99. a. Option C: The student is advise to rest. rest and eat often. Madarosis b. Filariasis japonicum b. B. B. Bruga malai d. C. Night sweats ANSWER: C A and B: is for dengue D: for TB 98. eat proper food. Paroxysmal cough beyond 2 weeks lasting for 2-3 months b. The causative agent for filariasis except: a. Abdominal pain c. D. keep warm and free form drafts. When at home. High fever b. a. Paroxysmal cough beyond 3 weeks lasting for 2-3 months ANSWER: A 97. Wood¶s light ANSWER: A B: is for meningitis and encephalitis C: is for shistosomiasis. stay at home. Stool exam d. B. Diagnostic exam for poliomyelitis: a. The classical sign of poliomyelitis: a. The avian flu is caused by a. continue playing mahjong. sleep. the visiting nurse must contact patient to: A. The drug of choice for patients with thrush. 96. Option D: This is one of the hygenic measures but not related to the question. The classical sign of pertussis: a. Fungus d. Katayama fever d. Lagopthalmus c. help prepare food in the kitchen. ANSWER: A One of the nursing care is to make sure that patient is kept warm and free from draft to prevent pneumonia complications and hasten recovery. 93. 92. attend school but not play. have daily bath. C. Paroxysmal cough beyond 3 weeks lasting for 2-4 months d. japonicum. Paroxysmal cough beyond 1 weeks lasting for 3-4 months c. Doxycycline b. Option B: Although this is necessary but the important responsibilty here is to prevent the spread of infection. Option B: The patient is advised to rest but patient is put on diet as tolerated.
Mebendazole ANSWER: B A: for Chlamydia C: for gonorrhea. Biological weapon b. Western weapon c. a. diphtheria. rabies D: for capilariasis 100.Anthrax is also known as.c. Industrial weapon . tetanus. syphilis. Powder weapon d. Penicillin d.
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