AIEEE 2010

Answers by
(Division of Aakash Educational Services Ltd.)

CODE
Q.N. A
01. 02. 03. 04. 05. 06. 07. 08. 09. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. 21. 22. 23. 24. 25. 26. 27. 28. 29. 30. 1 2 3 3 4 1 2 3 2 3 4 3 2 2 2 3 3 1 3 1 4 3 1 1 4 4 4 1 4 1

CODE
D
2 3 1 4 4 3 2 2 3 3 4 2 1 2 1 1 1 3 4 4 4 2 3 2 2 3 1 1 2 2

CODE
D
2 3 1 4 2 4 1 2 2 3 2 2 3 1 2 1 1 4 2 3 3 4 4 4 3 2 4 1 3 4

B
1 2 3 1 1 3 2 1 2 1 3 3 2 2 3 1 1 4 2 3 4 2 4 4 4 1 1 1 4 4

C
1 1 1 4 4 2 2 4 4 4 3 4 3 3 2 2 2 1 3 1 1 2 3 3 3 4 2 3 4 4

Q.N. A
31. 32. 33. 34. 35. 36. 37. 38. 39. 40. 41. 42. 43. 44. 45. 46. 47. 48. 49. 50. 51. 52. 53. 54. 55. 56. 57. 58. 59. 60. 4 3 1 4 1 3 3 2 2 1 4 3 2 3 2 4 1 4 1 1 4 3 3 3 3 2 2 4 2 3

B
4 4 3 4 2 4 1 4 1 1 4 1 2 2 1 3 1 1 3 4 1 1 3 2 3 3 3 4 2 2

C
4 4 1 2 4 3 4 2 2 1 2 1 2 3 4 3 4 3 3 1 4 1 2 1 2 4 1 3 2 4

Q.N. A
61. 62. 63. 64. 65. 66. 67. 68. 69. 70. 71. 72. 73. 74. 75. 76. 77. 78. 79. 80. 81. 82. 83. 84. 85. 86. 87. 88. 89. 90. 3 2 3 4 4 2 1 2 2 4 1 1 1 1 3 4 3 3 2 2 2 2 3 4 4 3 3 1 1 3

B
2 3 2 3 4 1 4 3 1 2 2 1 3 1 1 4 3 1 2 2 3 2 1 4 1 3 1 4 3 4

C
3 4 1 4 4 2 1 3 4 1 3 2 2 4 2 4 1 1 1 4 2 4 2 1 4 4 3 3 3 3

D
1 2 4 3 4 4 2 4 2 3 3 2 4 2 2 4 2 2 1 2 3 1 4 1 1 3 3 1 1 1

Though every care has been taken to provide the answers correctly but the Institute shall not be responsible for error, if any.

(Division of Aakash Educational Services Ltd.)
Regd. Office: Aakash Tower, Plot No. 4, Sector-11, Dwarka, New Delhi-110075. Ph.: (011) 47623456. Fax: (011) 47623472 Toll Free: 1800-102-2727
BRANCHES AT: Delhi-West: A-1/18, Janak Puri, New Delhi-58. Ph.: (011) 47011456 Delhi-South: D-15, South Extension, Part-II, New Delhi-110049. Ph.: (011) 43123200 / 234 Greater Noida: (0120) 2396398/9, 9312230403 Faridabad: S.C.O. No. 87, 1st Floor, Shopping Centre, Sector-16, Faridabad, Haryana-121002. Ph.: (0129) 4171184/85, 9312230703 Chandigarh: S.C.O. 332-334, Top Floor, Sector-34A, Chandigarh-160034. Ph: (0172) 4333800/1/2. Fax: (0172) 4333820. Dehradun: (0135) 3298167/68, 6455995/96, 2742120. Jaipur: 423B, Surya Nagar, Gopalpura Byepass, Jaipur, Rajasthan. Ph.: (0141) 2504725 / 26 Mumbai (Andheri) 406, Sagar Avenue, SV Road, 4th Floor, Andheri (West), Mumbai-58. Ph : (022) 26256986/87 (Dadar) (022) 24321556 (Vashi) (022) 27814411 Pune: (020) 26856 466/566/588 (Vishrantwadi) (020) 32542903. Rohtak: Kadian Complex, 1st Floor, Shiela Byepass Chowk, Rohtak, Haryana-124001. Ph: (01262) 655093/94, 9315141656 OTHER CENTRES AT: Amritsar: (0183) 2222407/8 Bathinda: (0164) 5090632 Bhubaneswar Ph.: (0674) 2513088-90 Bokaro: 09304101655, 09204791301 / 02 Delhi-North: 47020406/7/8/9. Delhi-East: (011) 22756896/97 Dhanbad: (0326) 6553801/2/3/4 Dibrugarh: (0373) 2303180 Gorakhpur: (0551) 2205380 Gurgaon: (0124) 4114211, 09717508555 Guwahati Ph.: (0361) 2463882, 2607811 Haldwani: 09997699977, 08057122333/33444, 08954444423 Hisar: (01662)272764/65, 09215929703 Hyderabad: (040) 23737402, 32447261, 9052014849 Jammu: 9205044727 Jamshedpur: (0657) 2233851 Kanpur: (0512) 2503867/53 Kolkata (Central) Ph.: (033) 22891758/59 (North) Ph.: (033) 23202008/9 Lucknow Ph.: (0522) 2325064/65 Ludhiana: (0161) 6514599, 9216195095, 9216395095 Nagpur: 9326617697 Patna (0612) 0612-2332023/040/569 Ranchi Ph.: (0651) 2330562/63 Siliguri: (0353) 2545468/469 Sonepat: (0130) 2230010. VaranasI: (0542) 2314975 INFORMATION CENTRES AT: Chennai: 0442-6209607, 9380029607 Hamirpur: 9318989643/44 Hyderabad: 040-66102991, 9396775000 Indore: 0731-4239679, 9302184721 / 23 / 24 Kalu Sarai: (011) 46080497/98, 9312230103 / 303 Kanpur: 0512-2503594, 9358547135, 9335151568 Kota: 0744-3237788, 9352027261/2 Patna: (0612) 6531267 E-mail: iitjee@aakashiitjee.com | Website: www.aakashiitjee.com | SMS Aakash to 56677

TOP RANKERS ALWAYS FROM AAKASH

(Division of Aakash Educational Services Lt d. )

XII Electricity Easy Medium Tough Total 1 4 0 5 XI syllabus

ANALYSIS OF PHYSICS PORTION OF AIEEE 2010
XI XII XI XII XII Heat & Thermodynamics 0 0 1 1 12

XI

XI Total 7 21 2 30

Modern Unit and Magnetism Mechanics Optics Waves Physics Measurements 0 4 0 4 XII syllabus 3 5 1 9 18
Electricity Heat & Thermodynamics Magnetism

3 3 0 6

0 3 0 3

0 1 0 1

0 1 0 1

Distribution of Level of Questions in Physics

Topic wise distribution in Physics
10% 20%

7% 23% 70%

3%

3% 17%

3%
14%

Mechanics Modern Physics Optics Unit and Measurements Waves

30%

Easy

Medium

Tough

Percentage Portion asked from Syllabus of Class XI & XII

40%
60%

XI syllabus

XII syllabus

) ANALYSIS OF CHEMISTRY PORTION OF AIEEE 2010 Organic Chemistry Easy Medium Tough Total 7 2 1 10 Inorganic Chemistry 2 2 1 5 Physical Chemistry 6 6 3 15 Total 15 10 5 30 XI syllabus 13 XII syllabus 17 Topic wise distribution in Chemistry Distribution of Level of Question in Chemistry 17% 33% 50% 50% 17% 33% Easy Medium Tough Organic Chemistry Inorganic Chemistry Physical Chemistry Percentage Portion asked from Syllabus of Class XI & XII 43% 57% XI syllabus XII syllabus .(Division of Aakash Educational Services Lt d.

(Division of Aakash Educational Services Lt d. ) XII Calculus Easy Medium Tough Total 4 2 3 9 XI syllabus XI ANALYSIS OF MATHEMATICS PORTION OF AIEEE 2010 XII XI XI XI XI Algebra (XII) 0 1 2 3 Algebra (XI) 0 4 1 5 XII syllabus Coordinate Geometry 2 1 0 3 16 Probability Statistics 1 1 0 2 1 1 0 2 XII 3-D (XII) 1 1 0 2 XII Vectors 2 0 0 2 Total 11 12 7 30 Trigonom etry 0 1 1 2 14 Distribution of Level of Questions in Mathematics Calculus Trigonometry Algebra (XII) Topic wise distribution in Mathematics 7% 7% 30% 17% 23% 37% Algebra (XI) Coordinate Geometry Probability Statistics 7% 6% 40% 10% 10% 6% 3-D (XII) Easy Medium Tough Vectors Percentage Portion asked from Syllabus of Class XI & XII 53% 47% XI syllabus XII syllabus .

Candidates will be awarded marks as stated above in Instructions No.DATE : 25/04/2010 Code - A Regd. 40 to 42 and 58 to 60 consist of EIGHT (8) marks each for each correct response. MLU. No candidate is allowed to carry any textual material. except the Admit Card inside the examination hall/room. The Answer Sheet is kept inside this Test Booklet. Use of pencil is strictly prohibited. When you are directed to open the Test Booklet. ¼ (one-fourth) marks will be deducted for indicating incorrect response of each question. 10. The maximum marks are 432. printed or written. 3. The distribution of marks subjectwise in each part is as under for each correct response. 67 to 69 and 84 to 86 consist of EIGHT (8) marks each for each correct response 6. Part A – PHYSICS (144 marks) –Questions No. However the candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them. The Test Booklet consists of 90 questions. 4. The test is of 3 hours duration. pager. 70 to 83 and 87 to 90 consist of FOUR (4) marks each and Questions No. 9. 31 to 39 and 43 to 57 consist of FOUR (4) marks each and Questions No. take out the Answer Sheet and fill in the particulars carefully. New Delhi-110075 Ph. Immediately fill in the particulars on this page of the Test Booklet with Blue/Black Ball Point Pen. mobile phone. 5 for correct response of each question. 61 to 66. Part C – MATHEMATICS (144 marks) – Questions No. . Chemistry & Mathematics) Max. the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty in the Room/Hall.: 011-47623456 Fax : 011-47623472 Time : 3 hrs. Office : Aakash Tower. 2. The CODE for this Booklet is A. the candidate should immediately report the matter to the Invigilator for replacement of both the Test Booklet and the Answer Sheet Do not fold or make any stray marks on the Answer Sheet. etc. On completion of the test. There are three parts in the question paper. 1 to 20 and 23 to 26 consist of FOUR (4) marks each and Questions No. Plot No. In case of discrepancy. 8. 5. 7. any electronic device. Sec-11. bits of papers. Dwarka. Part B – CHEMISTRY (144 marks) – Questions No. 21 to 22 and 27 to 30 consist of EIGHT (8) marks each for each correct response. Make sure that the CODE printed on Side-2 of the Answer Sheet is the same as that on this booklet. Marks: 432 Important Instructions : 1. No deduction from the total score will be made if no response is indicated for an item in the answer sheet. Solutions for AIEEE 2010 (Physics.-4.

As energy is released. where μ0 and μ2 are positive constants and I is the intensity of the light beam. ⇒ E2 > E1. μ = ⇒ v = a ka v μ0 + μ2 I of A As intensity is maximum at centre.AIEEE . The initial shape of the wavefront of the beam is (1) Planar (2) Convex (3) Concave (4) Convex near the axis and concave near the periphery Ans. axial ray Aakash IIT-JEE .) nucleus is E1 and that for the daughter nuclei is E2. Then 3. 6. it will (1) Travel as a cylindrical beam (2) Diverge (3) Converge (4) Diverge near the axis and converge near the periphery (D Ans. axial ray will travel slowest. Office : Aakash Tower. So. The intensity of the beam is decreasing with increasing radius.Regd. i vi s v= Directions : Questions number 4-5 are based on the following paragraph. so v ision minimum on the axis. To compensate for the path. The speed of light in the medium is (1) Maximum on the axis of the beam (2) Minimum on the axis of the beam (3) The same everywhere in the beam (4) Directly proportional to the intensity I Ans. Given μ = μ0 + μ2I c c sh Also. Statement-1 : When ultraviolet light is incident on a photocell. 4. binding energy per nucleon of products is more than that of reactants. its stopping potential is V0 and the maximum kinetic energy of the photoelectrons is K max. The speed of daughter nuclei is (1) c M each. (2) Sol. (1) Sol. (3) Sol. choose the one that best describes the two statements. Energy released Q = Δmc2 1⎛ M ⎞ 1⎛ M ⎞ Q = ⎜ ⎟ v2 + ⎜ ⎟ v2 2⎝ 2 ⎠ 2⎝ 2 ⎠ Δmc 2 = M 2 v 2 5. the rays will bend towards axis. Dwarka. 1. d E n atiobinding energy per nucleon for the parent The uc (1) E1 = 2 E2 (3) E1 > E2 (2) E2 = 2 E1 (4) E2 > E1 2 Δm rvic c e M al S e td sL .: 011-47623417/23 Fax : 47623472 (2) . As the beam is initially parallel. (4) Sol. Statement-2 : Photoelectrons are emitted with speeds ranging from zero to a maximum value because of the range of frequencies present in the incident light. New Delhi-75 Ph. Ans. A nucleus of mass M + Δm is at rest and decays into two daughter nuclei of equal mass Speed of light is c. As the beam enters the medium. When the ultraviolet light is replaced by X-rays.2010 (Code-A) PART–A : PHYSICS Directions : Questions number 1-3 are based on the following paragraph. 2. it will lag behind. An initially parallel cylindrical beam travels in a medium of refractive index μ(I) = μ0 + μ2I. 2 Δm M + Δm 2 Δm M (2) c Δm M + Δm Δm M (3) c Ans. Plot No. both V0 and Kmax increase. Directions : Questions number 6-7 contain Statement-I and Statement-2. Of the four choices given after the statements. 4. Sector-11. the shape of wavefront is planar. As the beam enters the medium. (3) (4) c Sol.

final momentum will become (zero. Two long parallel wires are at a distance 2d apart.2010 (Code-A) (1) Statement-1 is true. Statement-2 is the not the correct explanation of Statement-1 (4) Statement-1 is false. field changes sign from positive to negative. field will remain negative. Statement-2 is false (2) Statement-1 is true.AIEEE . Statement-2 is true. Statement-2 is true. Taking up as positive. The figure shows the position–time (x-t) graph of one-dimensional motion of a body of mass 0. So. (1) Sol. Statement-2 is incorrect.)B X′ d B (4) X X′ d d Ans. Sector-11. Statement-2 is false (2) Statement-1 is true.4 × (1 + 1) = 0.2 Ns (3) 0.: 011-47623417/23 Fax : 47623472 . Statement-2 is true Ans. X-rays frequency is more than that of UV rays. The magnitude of each impulse is o fA no a k as d hE u n a ti o c a i ce e rv lS td sL d . 8.8 Ns 9.8 Ns (2) 0. field increases in magnitude from zero to large value. x (m) 2 (1) A I (2) B I (3) 0 2 4 6 8 10 12 14 16 t (s) (1) 0.4 kg. Aakash IIT-JEE . The variation of the magnetic field B along the line XX′ is given by B (1) X X′ d d B (2) X X′ d d (3) X is Sol. Photoelectrons are emitted with a range of kinetic energies because different electrons have different binding energies. I = Δp = m|Δv| = 0. (2) Sol. whereas initial momentum is not zero. Statement-2 is true. Statement-2 is true Ans. KEmax and stopping potential increase. If the particle moving in same direction loseiall their Div energy. Statement-2 is the correct explanation of Statement-1 (3) Statement-1 is true. Statement-2 is the correct explanation of Statement-1 (3) Statement-1 is true. from B to +∞. Office : Aakash Tower.6 Ns (3) As one moves from A to B. Statement-2 is true. Statement-2 : Principle of conservation of momentum holds true for all kinds of collisions. and as one moves from –∞ to A.Regd. 4. (2) Ans.4 Ns (4) 1. Plot No. in region 1. Dwarka. As one moves in region 3. Statement-2 is the not the correct explanation of Statement-1 (4) Statement-1 is false. (1) Statement-1 is true. New Delhi-75 Ph. (3) Sol. field decreases from a large value to zero. becoming zero at mid point. They carry steady equal currents flowing out of the plane of the paper as shown. 7. Statement-1 : Two particles moving in the same direction do not lose all their energy in a completely inelastic collision.

which of the following pictures represents its equilibrium positions? Now. The combination of gates shown below yields (3) – Ans. ball must sink in oil alone. 4.023. Office : Aakash Tower. 5. ball must float in water. dq = (1) q dθ π dq θ θ + dθ θ (0. New Delhi-75 Ph. 5 Ans.1 × 10–3 are (1) 4. (3) Sol. ρ > ρoil . (3) Sol. 2 (3) 5. As ρ < ρwater . Plot No. 2 O (1) q 2 π2 ε 0 r 2 q 4 π ε0 r 2 2 ˆ j (2) ˆ j ˆ j ˆ j 0. The respective number of significant figures for the numbers 23. 2 (4) 5. Sector-11. 1. By symmetry. A ball is made of a material of density ρ where ρoil < ρ < ρwater with ρoil and ρwater representing the densities of oil and water.0003 → 1 2. The oil and water are immiscible.25 (3) 0. respectively. 0) dE Oil Water (2) Water Oil E= –∫ π q 2 2 0 4π ε 0 r sin θ dθ ˆ = j –q 2 π 2 ε0 r 2 ˆ j 12.75 T1 4 13.1 × 10–3 → 2 14.Regd.023 → 5 (2) 5. (4) (4) – 2 π ε0 r 2 A Sol. (2) (2) OR gate (4) XOR gate j E = – ∫ dE sin θ ˆ dq ⎡ ⎤ E = – ⎢∫ sin θ ⎥ ˆ j 4πε0 r 2 ⎣ ⎦ Aakash IIT-JEE . Dwarka. 0. If during the adiabatic expansion part of the cycle the volume of the gas increases from V to 32 V.: 011-47623417/23 Fax : 47623472 (4) . 23. ∫ dE cos θ =0 X B (1) NAND gate (3) NOT gate Ans. 11.AIEEE .2010 (Code-A) 10.0003 and 2. (2) Sol. A thin semi-circular ring of radius r has a positive charge q distributed uniformly over it.75 Ans. the efficiency of the engine is (1) 0.99 (3) Oil Water Water (4) Oil Ans. The net field T1V1γ –1 = T2V2γ –1 γ –1 E at the centre O is ^ j (D i ^ i q 4 π2 ε 0 r 2 q 2 v n i si o o ka Aa f s d hE uη = n a ti o c T1 ⎛ V2 ⎞ ice 7 = ⎜ erv = ( 32 ) 5 – 1 = (32)2/5 = 4 T2 S⎟ ⎝ lV1 ⎠ td sL .) a 1– T2 1 = 1 – = 0. A diatomic ideal gas is used in a Carnot engine as the working substance. 1. If the above ball is in equilibrium in a mixture of this oil and water. For adiabatic expansion (2) 0. 4.5 (4) 0.

This is range of X-rays. On taking out the inductor from the circuit the current leads the voltage by 30º. A NOT A· B = A + B =A+B B NAND Sol.AIEEE . 2 proton and 2 neutron i on lost. Let there be a spherically symmetric charge distribution with charge density varying as ⎛5 r ⎞ ρ( r ) = ρ0 ⎜ – ⎟ upto r = R. In a series LCR circuit R = 200 Ω and the voltage and the frequency of the main supply is 220 V and 50 Hz respectively. (3) (5) V ( R1 + R2 ) V at t = 0 and at t = ∞ R1 R2 R2 V at t = 0 and R2 (3) Ans. (2) Sol. (3) (4) VR1 R2 2 2 R1 + R2 at t = ∞ Aakash IIT-JEE . P = nhν 4 × 103 = 1020 × 6. Charge enclosed by a Gaussian sphere of radius r(< R) is ⎛5 r ⎞ Qin = ∫ ρ dV = ∫ ρ 0 ⎜ – ⎟ 4πr 2 dr ⎝4 R⎠ 0 r B NOT ⎡5 r 3 4 πr 4 ⎤ = ρ0 ⎢ × 4 π – ⎥ 3 4R ⎦0 ⎣4 ⎡5 πr 4 ⎤ = ρ0 ⎢ πr 3 – ⎥ R ⎦ ⎣3 E= Qin ρ r ⎡5 r ⎤ = 0 ⎢ – ⎥ 2 4 πε0 r 4ε 0 ⎣ 3 R ⎦ r 15.Regd. New Delhi-75 Ph. In the circuit shown below. (3) Sol. 4. P = εvIvcosφ = εv 2 ε r2 ic v cos φ = ev SR Z al 2 (2) 305 W (4) 0 W 16.63 (2) X-rays (4) Microwaves 18.: 011-47623417/23 Fax : 47623472 . ⎝4 R⎠ where r is the distance from the origin. Office : Aakash Tower.63 × 10–34 × ν ν= 4 × 10 17 Hz . Sector-11. The power dissipated in the LCR circuit is (1) 242 W (3) 210 W Ans. the key K is closed at t = 0. 1 i vi s (D neutron is increased np = Z – 2 × 3 – 2 × 1 = Z – 8 nn = (A – Z) – 2 × 3 + 2 = A – Z – 4 k as d hE = n a ti o uc (220) 200 = 48400 = 242 W 200 19. A radioactive nucleus (initial mass number A and atomic number Z) emits 3 α-particles and 2 positrons. Plot No. 6. and ρ(r) = 0 for r > R. On taking out the capacitance from the circuit the current lags behind the voltage by 30º. For each position emission.2010 (Code-A) A Sol. 1 proton is lost. The electric field at a distance r(r < R) from the origin is given by V V ( R1 + R2 ) at t = 0 and at t = ∞ R2 R1 R2 (2) VR1 R2 2 2 R1 + R2 at t = 0 and V at t = ∞ R2 (1) ρ0 r ⎛ 5 r ⎞ – 3ε 0 ⎜ 4 R ⎟ ⎝ ⎠ ρ0 r 4 ε0 ⎛5 r ⎞ ⎜3– R⎟ ⎝ ⎠ (2) 4 πρ0 r ⎛ 5 r ⎞ – 3ε 0 ⎜ 3 R ⎟ ⎝ ⎠ 4ρ 0 r ⎛ 5 r ⎞ – 3ε 0 ⎜ 4 R ⎟ ⎝ ⎠ (3) (4) Ans. (1) Sol. (4) f Aa oare For each α emission. The ratio of number of neutrons to that of protons in the final nucleus will be (1) A–Z– 4 Z–2 A–Z– 4 Z–8 (2) A–Z–8 Z–4 A – Z – 12 Z–4 e td sL . Dwarka. The current through the battery is V K L R2 (1) R1 17. the radiation belongs to a part of the spectrum called (1) γ-rays (3) Ultraviolet rays Ans.) (3) Ans. The series LCR will be in resonance So. If a source of power 4 kW produces 1020 photons/ second.

Blv R dy x = ⇒ ydy = xdx dx y ⇒ y2 = x2 + constant 21.AIEEE .5 N Ans. The equation of a wave on a string of linear mass density 0.2010 (Code-A) Sol. The set-up is placed in a uniform magnetic field going into the plane of the paper.I= R R Blv 2 Blv . (1) Sol. The three currents I1. I = V R2 At t = ∞. ⎢ ⎝ 0.I= 6R 3R (2) I 1 = – I 2 = (3) I 1 = I 2 = Blv 2 Blv .04 kg m–1 is given by q 2 (q0 )2 –2 t /RC = e = U 0 e –2t /RC Sol. (4) 1 2 (2) 1 (4) 1 4 2ε = R 3R R+ 2 ε ε I1 = . (1) (2) 4. no current flows through inductor So.) I ε = Bvl R I2 R (D (1) 2 (3) Ans. A rectangular loop has a sliding connector PQ of length l and resistance R Ω and it is moving with a speed v as shown. (3) Sol.25 N (3) 12.I= 3R 3R (4) I 1 = I 2 = I = Ans.5 N When charge becomes times.: 011-47623417/23 Fax : 47623472 (6) . dy dx = Ky . I2 and I are P l RΩ RΩ I I1 Q v RΩ I2 ˆ ˆ 20.50(m ) ⎠ ⎥ ⎣ ⎦ The tension in the string is (1) 6. energy becomes 16 4 So. The general equation for its path is (1) y2 = x2 + constant (2) y = x2 + constant (3) y2 = x + constant (4) xy = constant Ans.04(s ) 0. t1 = one half life. At t = 0.02(m)sin ⎢ 2 π ⎜ ⎟⎥ . = Kx dt dt ( ) (1) I 1 = I 2 = Blv Blv . U = 2C 2C q = q0 e – t /RC ⎡ ⎛ t ⎞⎤ x – y = 0. Dwarka. New Delhi-75 Ph. where K is a constant. A particle is moving with velocity v = K yi + xj . Plot No. inductor behaves as a conductor So. 4. while t2 = 4 half lives Aakash IIT-JEE . Suppose t1 is the time taken ash k for the energy stored in the capacitor to reduce a f A to half its initial value and t2 is the time taken for the no si o ivalue. I2 = 3R 3R I= ε where ε = Bvl 23. 1 1 times. I = V ( R1 R2 ) ( R1 + R2 ) 22. Office : Aakash Tower. Then charge to reduce to one-fourth its initial iv t the ratio 1 will be t2 Ed u n a ti o c R a i ce e rv lS I1 td sL .Regd.0 N (4) 0. Sector-11. Let C be the capacitance of a capacitor discharging through a resistor R.

9 ms–2 in vertical direction (2) 4. (4) (2) 4 (4) 2 2 v2 ˆ v j (4) – cos θ i – sin θ ˆ R R Ans. At a time t< v0 sin θ .9 m/s 4 4⎠ 2 ⎝ v (D i is o i on fA s a ka uc Ed h where ˆ (3) mgna t cos θ k v0 a ti o i ce e rv lS 1 2 ˆ (4) – mg v0 t cos θ k 2 ˆ ˆ j i .2010 (Code-A) ⎛ 2π ⎞ ω ⎜ 0. (1) 2 Sol. For a particle in uniform circular motion.8 Ans. y and z-axis respectively Ans.AIEEE . the angular momentum of the particle is g A B y v0 θ 60º (1) 4. the dielectric constant of the liquid is (1) 1 (3) 3 Ans. New Delhi-75 Ph.: 011-47623417/23 Fax : 47623472 .5)2 × 0.04 k ⎛ 2π ⎞ ⎜ 0.04 μ = 6. What is the relative vertical acceleration of A with respect to B? θ (R. L = ∫ τ dt ˆ L = – ∫ mg x dt k ˆ = – ∫ mg v0 cos θ t dt k 25. 4. The strings make an angle of 30° with each other. If density of the material of the sphere is 1. Two identical charged spheres are suspended by strings of equal lengths. Dwarka.5 m/s Sol. the acceleration a at a point P(R. v = = 0. a A(along vertical) = g sin 60º 30º (1) x 1 ˆ mg v0 t 2 cos θ i td. When suspended in a liquid of density 0. θ) θ 26. (4) (7) Aakash IIT-JEE . the angle remains the same. ˆ and k are unit vectors along x. θ) on the circle of radius R is (Here θ is measured from the x-axis) v2 ˆ v2 ˆ j i+ (1) R R 2 v2 ˆ v j (2) – cos θ i + sin θ ˆ R R 2 v2 ˆ v j sin θ i + cos θ ˆ R R = – mg v0 cos θ t 2 ˆ k 2 (3) – 27.04 ⎟ ⎝ ⎠ = 0.9 ms–2 in horizontal direction (3) 9.25 N 24. a = 2 –v 2 ˆ v sin θ ˆ cos θ i – j R R a T v= ⇒ T = μv 2 = (12.50 ⎟ ⎝ ⎠ Sol. Office : Aakash Tower. Sector-11.50 = 12. Angular momentum.Regd.)(2) –mg v0 t 2 cos θ ˆ j 2 sL ms–2 in vertical direction (4) Zero aB(along vertical) = g sin 2 30º ⎛3 1⎞ g 2 ⇒ a( A /B ) along vertical = g ⎜ – ⎟ = = 4. A small particle of mass m is projected at an angle θ with the x-axis with an initial velocity v0 in the x-y plane as shown in the figure.8 g cm–3.6 g cm–3. (4) Sol. Two blocks A and B are placed on the two planes. Plot No. Two fixed frictionless inclined planes making an angle 30º and 60º with the vertical are shown in the figure.

AIEEE . If the dissociation energy of the molecule is D = [U(x = ∞) – Uat equilibrium].2)2 ≈ 14 m/s2 29. D is 12 a − b = 1 =2 0. y) O (1) 14 m/s2 (3) 12 m/s2 Ans.2 m/s2 ⇒ = 6b x7 6 ⇒ x = 2a b a ⎛ 2a ⎞ ⎜ ⎝ b ⎟ ⎠ 2 ⇒ U (at equilibrium) = − b ⎛ 2a ⎞ ⎜ ⎝ b ⎟ ⎠ v = 3t2 dv = 6t dt At t = 2 s v = 12 m/s = At x = ∞ . U = b2 12 a brvi −e 12l S 6 xa x n a (4) b2 4a ce td sL .) y B m P(x. S = t3 + 5 dS = 3t 2 dt A v xD ( i is o i on fA sh a ka E a du c ti o At equilibrium −12 a x 13 12 a x 13 dU =0 dx =0 ⇒ + 6b x7 20 (2) 13 m/s2 (4) 7.8 1− 1. where a and b are x x6 constants and x is the distance between the atoms. ⇒ ac = θ T F a= (12)2 144 = = 7. Dwarka.Regd. (1) Sol.2010 (Code-A) Sol.: 011-47623417/23 Fax : 47623472 (8) . The movement of P is such that it sweeps out a length s = t3 + 5. Office : Aakash Tower. F = mg tanθ in oil F ′ = mg ′ tan θ g F 1 = ⇒k= ρ⎞ F′ g′ ⎛ ⎜ 1− ⎟ ⎝ σ⎠ 12 2 + (7. (4) Sol. New Delhi-75 Ph.2 m/s 20 20 dv = 12 m/s 2 dt 2 ac + at2 = mg For equilibrium. U = 0 ⇒ D= b 2 b 2 −b 2 − = 4a 2 a 4a b2 4a Aakash IIT-JEE . A point P moves in counter-clockwise direction on a circular path as shown in the figure. The radius of the path is 20 m. The potential energy function for the force between two atoms in a diatomic molecule is approximately given by U ( x ) = . The acceleration of P when t = 2 s is nearly (3) Ans. 4. Plot No. where s is in metres and t is in seconds. Sector-11.6 (1) b2 6a (2) b2 2a 28.

034 M 3 (3) The concentration of CO2 − is greater than of A that 3 − i on of HCO 3 vi s H+ and 5 × 10–13 = 0.2 × 10–5 g Solubility product of silver bromide is 5.2 × 10–10 g (4) 6. Two conductors have the same resistance at 0°C but their temperature coefficients of resistance are α1 and α2. The correct sequence which shows decreasing order n al of theio t ionic radii of the elements is u ca (1) Ed O2– > F– > Na+ > Mg2+ > Al3+ as h (2) Al3+ > Mg2+ > Na+ > F– > O2– (3) Na+ > Mg2+ > Al3+ > O2– > F– (4) Na+ > F– > Mg2+ > O2– > Al3+ Ans.0 × 10–13.034 M solution of the carbonic acid.) (4) The concentrations of approximately equal Ans. α + α 1 2 Ans. (1) ⇒ αP = α1 + α 2 2 PART–B : CHEMISTRY 31. (4) Sol. 278 K NaNO HBF the compounds 'A' and 'B' respectively are (1) Nitrobenzene and chlorobenzene (2) Nitrobenzene and fluorobenzene (3) Phenol and benzene (4) Benzene diazonium chloride and fluorobenzene Ans. The respective temperature coefficients of their series and parallel combinations are nearly (1) α1 + α2 α1 + α2 .2 × 10–9 g/L ak rv Se 33. Sector-11. − HCO 3 (D i − HCO 3 are are approximately Decreasing ionic radii with increasing effective nuclear charge for isoelectronic species. α 1α 2 (4) α 1 + α 2 . O > F > Na > Mg > Al 2– – + 2+ 3+ td sL . Rα s = R1 α 1 + R2 α 2 = + dT dT dT As R1 = R2 ⇒ R = R1 + R2 = 2R1 ⇒ α= α1 + α 2 2 (2) α 1 + α2 . [Ag+] = 0.05. Since K2 < < K1 ∴ Conc. α1 + α 2 2 α1 + α 2 2 1 1 1 = + RP R1 R2 1 dRP 1 dR1 1 dR2 = 2 + 2 2 dT dT R2 dT RP R1 αP RP = α1 α 2 + R1 R2 (3) α 1 + α 2 .0 × 10–8 g (3) 1.AIEEE .2010 (Code-A) 30. Plot No. (1) Sol. 2 2 Sol. [Br–] = x M Ksp = [Ag+] [Br–] Aakash IIT-JEE . of H+ and same.Regd. (4) (9) Ans. The NH2 2 4 ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯ A ⎯⎯⎯ B → → HCl . 34. New Delhi-75 Ph.2 × 10–9 g (2) 1.2 × 10–7 and K2 = 4. (1) The concentration of H+ is double that of CO 2 − 3 (2) The concentration of CO 2 − is 0. Office : Aakash Tower. In aqueous solution the ionisation constants for carbonic acid are K1 = 4. RS = R1 + R2 dRS dR1 dR2 . Dwarka. (3) Sol.05 M solution of silver nitrate to start the precipitation of AgBr is (1) 5.8 × 10–11 Select the correct statement for a saturated 0. 32. In the chemical reactions.05 × x x = 10–11 M KBr ∴ Solubility ofice is (120 × 10–11) or 1. 4. quantity of potassium bromide (molar mass taken as 120 g mol–1) to be added to 1 litre of 0.: 011-47623417/23 Fax : 47623472 .

If 10–4 dm3 of water is introduced into a 1. (1) Sol. If sodium sulphate is considered to be completely dissociated into cations and anions in aqueous solution.46 × 10–2 mol 38.Regd. H SO H5C6CH2CH2 (1) C = CH2 H3C H5C6 H C= C H CH(CH3)2 OH | ⊕ Anhy. Sector-11.0558 K (2) 0.53 × 10–2 mol Ans.: 011-47623417/23 Fax : 47623472 .86 × ΔTf = 0.314 J K–1 mol–1) (1) 1.01 mol of sodium sulphate is dissolved in 1 kg of water. 4. when 0. HCl) io i vi s no ka Aa f s d hE u n– oO a H tiAcid a c l Se e td sL H . Dwarka.2010 (Code-A) Ans.314 × 300 (2) 5.0744 K (10) H C6H5 (4) Ans. New Delhi-75 Ph.0558 K 0. (3) Sol.7 × 10−3 = 1. NaNO2 HCl .0 dm3 flask at 300 K. the change in freezing point of water (ΔTf).ZnCl+ HCl CH3 −C −CH2 −CH3 ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯ CH3 −C −CH2 CH3 → | | CH3 CH3 More reactive More stable tertiary carbocation (2) C6H5CH2 (3) CH3 C= C CH3 37. 278 K N ≡ NCl HBF4 Δ Benzene diazonium chloride F Sol.AIEEE . From amongst the following alcohols the one that would react fastest with conc. R = 8.56 × 10–3 mol (4) 4. Plot No.86 K kg mol–1) (1) 0. The main product of the following reaction is 2 4 C 6 H 5 CH 2 CH(OH)CH(CH 3 )2 ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯ ? → conc. (3) NH2 Sol.314 × 3 36.0372 K (4) 0. ΔTf = i Kfm i for Na2SO4 is 3(100% ionisation) Fluorobenzene ΔTf = 3 × 1.0186 K (3) 0.) O O – P– O +H – O – H OH H Base 39.01 1 35. (2) (2) (ii) only (4) (iii) only n= 31. Office : Aakash Tower.27 × 10–3 mol (3) 1. is (1) 1-Butanol (2) 2-Butanol O Sol. Three reactions involving H2 PO − are given below 4 (i) H3 PO 4 + H2 O → H3 O + + H2 PO − 4 − 2 (ii) H2 PO 4 + H 2 O → H2 PO 4 − + H3 O+ − (iii) H2 PO 4 + OH− → H3PO 4 + O2 − In which of the above does H2 PO − act as an acid? 4 (1) (i) only (3) (i) and (ii) Ans.27 × 10 −3 8. (2) CH(CH3)2 C= C H H Aakash IIT-JEE . Alcohols which give more stable carbocation is more (D reactive with Lucas reagent (Anhy. O – P – O – rvic O–H H + (3) 2-Methylpropan-2-ol (4) 2-Methylpropanol Ans. HCl and anhydrous ZnCl2. PV = nRT 3170 × 10–3 = n × 8. is (Kf = 1. how many moles of water are in the vapour phase when equilibrium is established? (Given : Vapour pressure of H 2 O at 300 K is 3170 Pa. ZnCl2 + conc.

AIEEE .6 × 10 −18 4 = ELi +2 9 E Li +2 = hc Sol. the vapour pressures ofan ideal the two ti o ucamixing.41 ×rvic J/atom 10–17 9 × 19. The energy of the first stationary state (n = 1) of Li2+ is (1) 8.023 × 10 23 242 × 103 Ans. P = X A PA + X B PB = 494 nm 41.307 0.02 × 1023 mol–1) (1) 494 nm (3) 640 nm Ans.82 × 10–17 J atom–1 (2) 4.41 × 10–17 J atom–1 (4) –2.Regd.25 + 0.5 kPa (3) 36.494 × 10 −6 0 0 Sol.023 × 10 λ= 23 J /atom 6. %N = = 1.5 42.8 × 10 −26 × 6.307 = 47.5 (3) 47.307 × 105 + × 45 0. (3) CH3 Extension of conjugation (More stable) ∴ Major product CH3 (B) CH2–CH = C CH3 (Minor) Sol. Dwarka.4 (2) 59.1 × (20 − 15) 29.1 kPa (2) 72.6 × 10–18 atom–1.41 × 10–16 J atom–1 (3) –4. Sector-11. The energy required to break one mole of Cl – Cl bonds in Cl2 is 242 kJ mol–1. On d ∴ Energy of orbit of Li+2 is –4. At 373 K. (1) (2) 594 nm (4) 700 nm 19.0 kPa (4) 96.6 × 10 −18 .7 29. Plot No. 29.2 × 10–15 J atom–1 Ans.023 × 10 23 242 × 103 6.: 011-47623417/23 Fax : 47623472 . E EHe+ Li +2 = 2 ZHe+ Z 2 +2 Li 40. The longest wavelength of light capable of breaking a single Cl – Cl bond is (c = 3 × 108 ms–1 and NA = 6.) 4 Lt d Se es liquid components (heptane and octane) are 105 kPa and 45 kPa respectively. Office : Aakash Tower.1 M HCl solution.96 ≈ 72 kPa Aakash IIT-JEE .2 kPa ∴ = 19.6 × 10 −34 × 3 × 108 λ v (D i i si o fA no a h k as 43.25 0. E = λ E= 242 × 103 6.2010 (Code-A) Sol. (2) = 0.5 mg of an organic compound containing nitrogen was digested according to Kjeldahl's method and the evolved ammonia was absorbed in 20 mL of 0.41 × 10–17 J/atom n al = 4.0 g of heptane and 35 g of octane will be (molar mass of heptane = 100 g mol–1 and of octane = 114 g mol–1) (1) 144.4 NV W 1.25 + 0. heptane and octane from E solution. H OH CH2–CH–CH CH3 CH3 O H Ans. The percentage of nitrogen in the compound is (1) 29.127 + 24. Vapour pressure of the solution obtained by mixing 25.307 114 P= 0.7 (11) nheptane = noctane = 25 = 0.4 × 0. The excess of the acid required 15 mL of 0.1 M NaOH solution for complete neutralisation.5 × 10 −3 CH2–CH–CH = 700 = 23. New Delhi-75 Ph. (4) H CH3 CH3 CH3 CH—CH –C H (A) CH3 CH = CH–CH (A) (B) H CH3 Sol.84 = 71. 4.0 (4) 23. Ionisation energy of He+ is 19.25 100 35 = 0.

: 011-47623417/23 Fax : 47623472 . (4) Sol. Which one of the following has an optical isomer? (1) [Zn(en)2]2+ (2) [Zn(en)(NH3)2]2+ (3) [Co(en)3]3+ (4) Ans.) e rv (2) 4. (1) (12) 44 amu Aakash IIT-JEE . Formation of carbocation is rate determining step in s k SN1 reaction. New Delhi-75 Ph.AIEEE . (2) Br Br (B) Me 2 4 Al 2 O 3 → Al + O 2 . The Gibbs energy for the decomposition Al2O3 at 500°C is as follows Me (A) (1) A > B > C (3) B > A > C Ans. Rate depends only on slow step (2) B only (4) Neither (A) nor (B) Exist as enantiomeric pair ⎡ Co ( en ) 3 ⎤ ⎣ ⎦ 45.2010 (Code-A) 44.0 a du c (1) 5. no 3 3 io reaction i vi s ΔG = 966 kJ/mol (D Me Me ⇒ 4e– are involved > Me > Me Br ∴ ΔG = – nFE Br Br decreasing order of SN1 reactivity 966 × 103 = –4 × 96500 × E 46.5 V Sol.5 V (4) 2. 4. Sector-11. (3) [Co(H2O)4(en)]3+ 47. Office : Aakash Tower. Consider the reaction Cl2 (aq) + H2S (aq) → S(s) + 2H+(aq) + 2Cl–(aq) The rate equation for this reaction is rate = k [Cl2] [H2S] Which of these mechanisms is/are consistent with this rate equation? 3+ N N Sol. The alkene (1) Ethane (2) Propene (3) 1-butene (4) 2-butene Ans. Δ r G = +966kJ mol −1 3 3 The correct order of SN1 reactivity is (2) B > C > A (4) C > B > A td The potential difference needed for electrolytic s Lat 500°C is at least reduction of Ale 3 ic2O E h Ans. Plot No. Consider the following bromides Me 3+ Me Br (C) 48. Hence alkyl halide which gives more a 2 4 f Aa stable carbocation is more reactive towards SN1 Al 2 O3 ⎯⎯ Al + O 2 → Sol.0 VS l . (1) Sol.5 V 4 × 965 ∴ 2.Regd. Dwarka. H2S ⇔ H+ + HS– (fast equilibrium) N N N N Optically active N N N N Cl2 + HS– → 2Cl– + H+ + S (slow) (1) A only (3) Both (A) & (B) Ans. Co N N Co 3+ A. (4) a ti o n V (3) 3. One mole of a symmetrical alkene on ozonolysis gives two moles of an aldehyde having a molecular mass of 44 u. CH3 E=− 966 V = −2. The correct order of increasing basicity of the given conjugate bases (R = CH3) is (1) RCOO < HC ≡ C < NH 2 < R (2) RCOO < HC ≡ C < R < NH 2 CH CH CH3 (i) O3 (ii) Zn-H2O CH3 CHO (3) R < HC ≡ C < RCOO < NH 2 (4) RCOO < NH 2 < HC ≡ C < R Ans.5 V potential difference is required 49. Cl2 + H2S → H+ + Cl– + Cl+ + HS– (slow) Cl+ + HS– → H+ + Cl– + S (fast) B.

At 25°C.001 M Mg2+ ions? (1) 8 (3) 10 (13) (2) 9 (4) 11 C 3 Me Me mirror image 3-methyl-1-pentene ∴ Chiral Chiral Non superimposable Aakash IIT-JEE . In fcc crystal. Out of the following. the solubility product of Mg(OH) 2 is 1. R + r = Θ Θ a 2 Ans. 6 (4) Polystyrene ∴ Vacancies are 26% and 32% n al Se 51.AIEEE .g. Sector-11. New Delhi-75 Ph. ΔG = ΔH – TΔS For equilibrium ΔG = 0 For spontaneous reaction. it will also have very strong intermolecular hydrogen bonding between N H O C group of H 1 2 H Et Et C two polyamide chains 55. is (1) Natural rubber (2) Teflon (3) Nylon 6. ΔH and ΔS were found to be both +ve. The edge length of a face centered cubic cell of an ionic substance is 508 pm. Plot No. At which pH.E d. However Θ Θ 52. If Te is the temperature at equilibrium. hydrogen bonding. Hence N H 2 is more basic than HC ≡ C 50. 6 involves amide linkage therefore. 4. a of A (D Ans. (3) ∴ 110 + r = r = 144 pm 508 = 254 2 Lt Sol. will Mg2+ ions start precipitating in the form of Mg(OH) 2 from a solution of 0. the reaction would be spontaneous when (1) T = Te (3) T > Te Ans. ΔG < 0 ∴ T > Te 53. Nylon 6. (3) Sol. Packing fractions of fcc and bcc lattices are 74% and ce s 68% rvi h k as 54. Dwarka. For a particular reversible reaction at temperature T.: 011-47623417/23 Fax : 47623472 . If the radius of the cation is 110 pm. Percentages of free space in cubic close packed structure and in body centered packed structure are respectively (1) 48% and 26% (2) 30% and 26% (3) 26% and 32% (4) 32% and 48% (2) Te > T (4) Te is 5 times T sp hybridized carbon is more electronegative than sp3 N. the radius of the anion is (1) 144 pm (2) 288 pm (3) 398 pm (4) 618 pm Ans. (3) Sol.0 × 10 –11 . (1) Sol. (4) Sol. Office : Aakash Tower. increasing basic strength As sp 3 C is less electronegative than sp3 N alkyl carbanion ( R ) is more basic than N H 2 . ) ti o ucapolymer containing strong intermolecular forces d The e. the alkene that exhibits optical i on isomerism is i vi s (1) 2-methyl-2-pentene (2) 3-methyl-2-pentene (3) 4-methyl-1-pentene (4) 3-methyl-1-pentene Ans.Regd.2010 (Code-A) R − COO < HC ≡ C Θ < N H 2 < R → Sol.

5 Moles of AgCl precipitated = It means 3Cl – are released by one molecule of complex ∴ [Co(NH3)6]Cl3 E o 2 + /CO = −0. is 2.50 to 0. i ce td sL . The chloride ions obtained in solution were treated with excess of AgNO3 to give 4. Mn > Cr > Fe > Co E o 2 + /Mn = −1. the average bond enthalpy of sh N — H bond is NH3 is a ka (1) –1102 kJ mol–1 (2) –964 kJ mol–1 (3) +352 kJ mol–1 (4) +1056 kJ mol–1 Ans. Dwarka.5 g mol–1).18 Mn E o 2 + /Cr = −0. If the enthalpy of formation NH3 nal–46. The standard enthalpy of formation of Se kJ mol–1. (3) Sol. Mn.001 × [OH–]2 ∴ [OH–] = 10–4 M pOH = 4.25 = = 0.5 4 − 78 = 0. The time for half life period of a certain reaction 1 3 N 2 + H2 ⎯⎯ NH 3 → 2 2 ΔHNH3 = −46 kJ 1 3 NH3 ⎯⎯ N 2 + H2 → 2 2 1 3 46 = 3ΔHN −H − × ( 712 ) − × 436 2 2 ΔH N −H = 352 kJ /mol Ans. pH = 10 56. Moles of complex = 1 × 10–11 = 0. When the initial → concentration of the reactant 'A'. (2) Sol.) 58.01 267.25 h K 1 (14) Aakash IIT-JEE .5 − 0. 4. K = a 2 = =1 2t 1 2 × 1 2 t= C 0 − C t 0.78 g of AgCl (molar mass = 143. Carbohydrates i si o not amides and hence it does not give biuret test. (3) Sol. The correct order of Eo 2 + /M values with negative M sign for the four successive elements Cr.033 143. Div ( A ⎯⎯ Products is 1 h.25 h rv 60.5 h (2) 4 h (4) 0.2010 (Code-A) Ans. Biuret test is not given by (1) Proteins (3) Polypeptides Ans.0 mol L–1.44 Fe (2) Mn > Cr > Fe > Co (4) Fe > Mn > Cr > Co 2.91 Cr E o 2 + /Fe = −0.675 = 0. (4) Sol.Regd.AIEEE .5 g mol–1) is passed through a cation exchanger. The formula of the complex is (At.25 mol L –1 if it is a zero order reaction? (1) 1 h (3) 0. New Delhi-75 Ph.28 CO 57. Ksp = [Mg+2] [OH–]2 59.675 g of CoCl3. Plot No. Sector-11. Fe and Co is (1) Cr > Mn > Fe > Co (3) Cr > Fe > Mn > Co Ans. (2) Carbohydrates (4) Urea fA n o are Biuret test is only given by amides. A solution containing 2. how much time does it take for its concentration to come from 0. (2) Sol.6NH3 (molar mass = 267. (2) Sol. mass of Ag = 108 u) (1) [CoCl(NH3)5]Cl2 (2) [Co(NH3)6]Cl3 (3) [CoCl2(NH3)4]Cl (4) [CoCl3(NH3)3] Ans.: 011-47623417/23 Fax : 47623472 .0 is a io of tH2 from its atoms is –436 kJ mol–1 and that of uc Ed N2 is – 712 kJ mol–1. Office : Aakash Tower.

1) and (–1.ω] = –[ω2 + ω] = –(–1) = 1 64. 0) O (1. then β = –ω2 where ω3 = 1 α2009 + β2009 = (–ω)2009 + (–ω2)2009 = – [(ω3)669. y are real numbers and x = wy for some rational number w}. The number of complex numbers z such that |z – 1| = |z + 1| = |z – i| equals (1) 0 (3) 2 Ans. Dwarka. α and β are roots of the equation x2 – x + 1 = 0.ω2 + (ω3)1337. 1) (D (–1.AIEEE . Sector-11.2010 (Code-A) PART–C : MATHEMATICS 61. (2) Sol. |z – 1| = |z + 1| = |z – i| Clearly z is the circumcentre of the triangle formed by the vertices (1. then β = –ω α = –ω. p and q are integers such that n. (4) Sol. then α2009 + β2009 = (1) –2 (3) 1 Ans. Office : Aakash Tower. ⎧⎛ m p ⎞ ⎪ S = ⎨⎜ . R is not an equivalence relation because 0 R 1 but 1 R 0 . αβ = 1 ⇒ x= 1 ± 3i 1 + 3i 1 – 3i . S is an equivalence relation. y) | x. Then (1) R is an equivalence relation but S is not an equivalence relation (2) Neither R nor S is an equivalence relation (3) S is an equivalence relation but R is not an equivalence relation (4) R and S both are equivalence relations Ans.Regd. The given system of linear equations can be put in the matrix form as |z + i| We have. (3) Sol. n . 4. If α and β are the roots of the equation x2 – x + 1 = 0. Consider the following relations : R = {(x. which is unique. (2) 1 (4) ∞ (1) Infinite number of solutions rvic (0. ⎪⎝ n q ⎠ ⎩ Sol. ⇒ α + β = 1. New Delhi-75 Ph.: 011-47623417/23 Fax : 47623472 . 63. 0) io i vi s n of A sh a ka E ti o ucaA unique solutions (3) d (4) No solution (2) Exactly 3 solutions na l Se e td sL . Plot No. 0) and (0. . 2 2 2 q ≠ 0 and qm = pn}. ⇒ x = –ω or ω2 Thus. 0).) Ans. (3) (15) (2) –1 (4) 2 ⎡ 1 2 1 ⎤ ⎡ x1 ⎤ ⎡ 3 ⎤ ⎢ 2 3 1 ⎥ ⎢ x ⎥ = ⎢ 3⎥ ⎢ ⎥⎢ 2⎥ ⎢ ⎥ ⎢ 3 5 2 ⎥ ⎢ x3 ⎥ ⎢ 1 ⎥ ⎣ ⎦⎣ ⎦ ⎣ ⎦ ⎡ 1 2 1 ⎤ ⎡ x1 ⎤ ⎡ 3 ⎤ ~ ⎢ 0 –1 –1⎥ ⎢ x2 ⎥ = ⎢–3⎥ by R2 → R2 − 2 R1 ⎢ ⎥⎢ ⎥ ⎢ ⎥ ⎢ 0 –1 –1⎥ ⎢ x3 ⎥ ⎢–8⎥ R3 → R3 − 3R1 ⎣ ⎦⎣ ⎦ ⎣ ⎦ ⎡ 1 2 1⎤ ⎡ x1 ⎤ ⎡ 3⎤ ~ ⎢0 1 1⎥ ⎢x2 ⎥ = ⎢ 3⎥ ⎢ ⎥⎢ ⎥ ⎢ ⎥ ⎢0 0 0 ⎥ ⎢ x3 ⎥ ⎢ 5⎥ ⎣ ⎦⎣ ⎦ ⎣ ⎦ R3 → R3 − R2 Clearly the given system of equations has no solution. ⎟ m . Aakash IIT-JEE . Consider the system of linear equations: x1 + 2x2 + x3 = 3 2x1 + 3x2 + x3 = 3 3x1 + 5x2 + 2x3 = 1 The system has 62. α = –ω2.

which is an absurd result. ) (2) –4 (4) –2 (D io i vi s no f Aa h k as uc Ed a ti = 1 and p(1) = 41. p(0) x →∞ n ax ) o f( ⇒ l 2 = 1 ⇒ l = 1. x →∞ f (2 x ) =l f ( x) Urn A Urn B Two balls from urn A and two balls from urn B can be selected in 3C2 × 9C2 ways = 3 × 36 = 108 66. Urn A has 3 distinct red balls and urn B has 9 distinct blue balls. 1]. we get. for all x ∈ [0. g(x) = [ f(2f(x) + 2)]2 g′(x) = 2[ f(2f(x) + 2)] × f ′(2f(x) + 2) × 2f ′(x) ⇒ g′(0) = 2[ f(2 f(0) + 2)] × f ′ (2 f(0) + 2) × 2f ′(0) = 2[f(0)] × f ′(0) × 2f ′(0) = 2 × –1 × 1 × 2 × 1 = –4 67. 0 = –5. f:R→R x →∞ lim f (3x ) =1 f (x) ⎛2 ⎞ f ⎜ x⎟ f (2 x) f (2 x ) 3 ⎠ = .: 011-47623417/23 Fax : 47623472 (16) . Let f : (–1.2010 (Code-A) Alter Subtracting the addition of first two equations from third equation. 4. ⎝ 2 ⎞ f (x ) f (x ) ⎛ f ⎜ x⎟ ⎝3 ⎠ ⎛x⎞ f⎜ ⎟ f (2x ) 1 3 = . → f : ( −1. (1) 3 2 (2) 2 3 ⇒ (4) 3 2 I = ∫ ( p( x ) + p(1 − x ))dx = ∫ 42. Office : Aakash Tower. Let g(x) = [f(2f(x) + 2)]2. 65.Regd. Then lim = x →∞ f ( x ) f ( x) I = ∫ p(x )dx = ∫ p(1 − x )dx 0 0 1 1 1 1 (1) 1 (3) Ans. (2) 36 (4) 108 Sol. (4) Sol. The number of ways in which this can be done is (1) 3 (3) 66 Ans. Then (1) ∫ p(x )dx 0 1 equals 41 (2) 21 (4) 42 (3) 41 Ans. 1]. We have. ⎝ ⎠ ⎛ 2 ⎞ f (x ) ⎛ 2x ⎞ f ⎜ x⎟ f⎜ ⎟ ⎝3 ⎠ f ⎛x⎞ ⎝ 3 ⎠ ⎜ ⎟ ⎝3⎠ 3 red balls 9 distinct blue balls Taking limit x → ∞ and lim We find that. Hence the given system of equation has no solution. Let f : R → R be a positive increasing function with x →∞ p′(x) = p′(1 – x). 1) → R be a differentiable function with f(0) = –1 and f ′(0) = 1. p(0) = 1. Let p(x) be a function defined on R such that sL f (3x ) erv lim l S = 1 p′(x) = p′(1 – x). i ce t d. There are two urns. (2) Sol. We have. p(1) = 41 p(x) = –p(1 – x) + C ⇒ 1 = –41 + C ⇒ C = 42 ⇒ p(x) + p(1 – x) = 42 lim f (3x ) f (2x ) = 1. 1) ⎯⎯ R f (0) = −1 f ′(0) = 1 1 1 l = 1× × 1 l 68. From each urn two balls are taken out at random and then transferred to the other. Sector-11. New Delhi-75 Ph. Dwarka.dx = 42 0 0 ⇒ I = 21 Aakash IIT-JEE . We have. (2) Sol. Then g′(0) = (1) 4 (3) 0 Ans.AIEEE . Plot No. . ∀ x ∈ [0.

The given differential equation can be put in the form 1 dy 1 − tan x = − sec x y 2 dx y dy 8 = 1− 3 dx x The tangent is parallel to x-axis. y = x+ 4 x2 ∫ 0 (cos x − sin x )dx + 5 π /4 π/4 ∫ (sin x − cos x )dx 3 π /2 5 π /4 + ∫ (cos x − sin x )dx = (4 2 − 2) sq. 3) ⇒ y=3 where c is a constant of integration ⇒ sec x = y ( tan x + c ) (17) Aakash IIT-JEE . (2) 4 2 + 2 (4) 4 2 + 1 3π is 2 O π 2 π 3π 2 Required area = π /4 n [2 × 148 + (n − 1) × –2] = 3000 2 ⇒ n2 – 149n + 3000 = 0 ⇒ (n – 24) (n – 125) = 0 ⇒ n = 24. . The equation of the tangent to the curve y = x + that is parallel to the x-axis. 125 Time taken by the person to count all notes = 10 + 24 = 34 minutes 70.2010 (Code-A) 69. hence ⇒ dy =0 dx ⇒ dz 1 + ( tan x ) z = + sec x .. New Delhi-75 Ph. Office : Aakash Tower.sec x = ∫ sec 2 xdx = tan x + c ⎛ dy ⎞ y−3 =⎜ ⎟ ( x − 2) = 0 ⎝ dx ⎠(2. If a1 = a2 = . = a10 = 150 and a10. a10.. Dwarka.. then (2) 34 minutes (4) 135 minutes 71. 4. are in A. units 4 x2 . with common difference = –2 ⇒ Let n be the time taken to count remaining 3000 notes.. then the time taken by him to count all notes is (1) 24 minutes (3) 125 minutes Ans. a11. (1) Sol. We have.... z = dx y ⇒ x3 = 8 ⇒ x=2 and y = 3 The equation of the tangent to the given curve at (2. are in an AP with common difference –2.P. . 72. Let an denote the number of notes he counts in the nth minute.. a12. Plot No. is (1) y = 0 (3) y = 2 Ans. 3) is which is linear is z I. (2) Sol. a11.: 011-47623417/23 Fax : 47623472 . (1) Sol. The area bounded by the curves y = cosx and y = sinx between the ordinates x = 0 and x = (1) 4 2 − 2 (3) 4 2 − 1 Ans. A person is to count 4500 currency notes. Sector-11. Solution of the differential equation i ce (2) y = 1 (4) y = 3 (D i v n i si o of A sh a ka E du c cosatio = y(sin x − y )dx .AIEEE ..) π is 2 (1) secx = (tanx + c)y (3) ytanx = secx + c (2) ysecx = tanx + c (4) tanx = (secx + c)y Ans. Number of notes person counts in 10 minutes. 0 < x < xdy n e al S rv td sL .F = e ∫ tan x dx = e ln sec x = sec x The solution is z. = 10 × 150 = 1500 Since. (4) Sol.Regd..

then the locus of p is (1) x = 1 (3) x = –1 Ans. We have are (2) (2.AIEEE . (1) Sol. 4. Locus of P from which two perpendicular tangents are drawn to the parabola is the directrix of the parabola Hence locus is. Then the distance between L c 3 23 15 17 15 ⇒ 2 b = 3 a + a × c . μ) = (–3. A line AB in three-dimensional space makes angles 45° and 120° with the positive x-axis and the positive y-axis respectively. 32). We have ˆ ˆ j (2) 2i – ˆ + 2 k ˆ j ˆ (4) i + ˆ – 2 k a×b + c = 0 ⇒ a× a×b + a×c = 0 ⇒ a .: 011-47623417/23 Fax : 47623472 (18) . Let a = ˆ − k and c = i − ˆ − k. rv b 5 5 b Se nal K must have equation Theo ti line u ca d y x hE x y 5 − 20 − =1 = a or 5 a 20 a Comparing with x y + =1 c 3 3⎞ ⎛ ⎜ Given 20 a = −3. Then the vector b satisfying a × b + c = 0 and a . New Delhi-75 Ph.) Lt d 13 32 32 s 8 + = 1 ⇒ice = − ∴ b = −20 Sol. –2) vi s o i on mutually ak fA as . c = 5a = − 4 ⎟ ⎝ ⎠ Distance between lines is a . The line L given by x y + = 1 passes through the 5 b point (13.b = 2 − 4 + 2 = 0 a . Dwarka. μ) = (1) (–3. (3) Sol.Regd. (3) (2) 45° (4) 75° Aakash IIT-JEE . Plot No. ˆ ˆ j ˆ b = 2i + 4 ˆ + k and c = λi + ˆ + μk j ˆ orthogonal. –3) Di ( (4) (3. b = 3 is 75.2010 (Code-A) ˆ j ˆ j ˆ 73. If AB makes an acute angle θ with the positive z-axis. If two tangents drawn from a point P to the parabola y 2 = 4x are at right angles. The line K is parallel to L and has the ( ) ( ) equation and K is (1) (3) Ans. c = 2λ + 4 + μ = 0 Thus λ = 1 – 2μ and 2 – 4μ + 4 + μ = 0 ⇒ 3μ = 6. (1) Sol. a × c = −2 i − j − k = 3 j − 3k − 2i − j − k = −2 i + 2 j − 4 k ⇒ b = −i + j − 2 k (2) (4) 17 23 17 ˆ ˆ j 74. ⇒ μ = 2 λ = –3 (λ. c = λ − 1 + 2μ = 0 b . a b + a × c = 0 ⇒ 3a − 2b + a × c = 0 ( ) 76. If the vectors a = i − ˆ + 2 k. then θ equals (1) 30° (3) 60° Ans. 3) Ans. 2) = −3 −1 23 20 = = 1 1 17 17 + 25 400 400 a−1 77. then (λ.b a − a . Sector-11. Office : Aakash Tower. (4) x y + = 1. 2) (3) (–2. x = –1 (2) 2x + 1 = 0 (4) 2x – 1 = 0 ˆ ˆ j (1) −i + ˆ − 2 k ˆ ˆ j (3) i – ˆ – 2 k Ans.

: 011-47623417/23 Fax : 47623472 (19) .AIEEE . Office : Aakash Tower. (2) Sol. (2) Sol. The probability that the three balls have different colours is (1) (3) Ans. Then tan 2α = 4 (1) (2) 56 33 19 (3) 12 Ans. Let S be a non-empty subset of R Consider the following statement : P : There is a rational number x ∈ S such that x > 0. For two data sets. The variance of the combined data set is (1) 5 2 (2) 11 2 13 2 (3) 6 Ans. cos245° + cos2120° + cos2θ = 1 1 1 + + cos2 θ = 1 2 4 ∴ cos 2 θ = 1 4 80. 4) r2 = 4 + 16 + 5 = 25 Distance of (2. each of size 5. (3) 4 5 79. 4. cos( α + β) = 20 (4) 7 (D i v n i si o o ka Aa f sh n a ti oX uc Ed ∑ ∴ ∴ E(X2al=S + 4 = 8 ) 4 2 i er td sL . (2) 1 3 (2) (4) 3 5 + 56 = 4 12 = 3 5 33 1− . four are blue and two are green. (2) =4 Sol. Dwarka. 4) from 3x – 4y = m must be less than radius ∴ |6 − 16 − m| <5 5 (2) –35 < m < 15 (4) 35 < m < 85 1 cos θ = ± ⇒ θ = 60o or 120 o 2 78. ∑ Yi = 20 i 2 i ∑X ∴ i ∑ (X ∑ (X + Yi ) = 30 + Yi2 ) = 145 145 55 11 −9 = = 10 10 2 4 ⇒ α + β ∈ 1st quadrant 5 5 ⇒ α – β ∈ 1st quadrant 13 ∴ Variance(combined data) = sin( α − β ) = 2α = (α + β) + (α – β) ∴ tan 2 α = tan(α + β) + tan(α − β) 1 − tan(α + β )tan(α − β) 82.Regd. β ≤ 25 16 π . Which of the following statements is the negation of the statement P ? (1) There is a rational number x ∈ S such that x≤0 (2) There is no rational number x ∈ S such that x≤0 (3) Every rational number x ∈ S satisfies x ≤ 0 (4) x ∈ S and x ≤ 0 ⇒ x is not rational Ans. E(X2) – (E(X))2 vice (4) 0 ≤ α. respectively. Sector-11. Let cos(α + β) = and let sin(α − β ) = .) = 40 E(Y2) – (E(Y))2 = 5 E(Y2) = 5 + 16 = 21 ∑Y 2 i = 105 = 10. An urn contains nine balls of which three are red. 4 12 2 7 2 23 1 21 Aakash IIT-JEE . Plot No. Three balls are drawn at random without replacement from the urn.2010 (Code-A) Sol. the variances are given to be 4 and 5 and the corresponding means are given to be 2 and 4. where 5 13 ⇒ –25 < 10 + m < 25 ∴ –35 < m < 15 81. New Delhi-75 Ph. The circle x2 + y2 = 4x + 8y + 5 intersects the line 3x – 4y = m at two distinct points if (1) –85 < m < –35 (3) 15 < m < 65 Ans. Centre ≡ (2.

Office : Aakash Tower. 2. Statement-1 : (Assertion) and Statement-2 : (Reason). 85 Statement-2 : If the four chosen numbers from an AP. ….AIEEE . 1 2 (2) 0 (4) –1 r 3 = (4) There is a regular polygon with R 2 Ans. Dwarka. Let f : R → R be defined by ⎧ k − 2 x . +2. For a regular polygon. A false statement among the following is (1) There is a regular polygon with r 1 = R 2 ⎛ * * 1⎞ ⎜ ⎟ Similarly ⎜ * 1 * ⎟ gives at least one nonsingular ⎜1 * * ⎟ ⎝ ⎠ 85. Consider ⎜ * 1 * ⎟ . By placing a1 in any one of ⎜ * * 1⎟ ⎝ ⎠ the 6 * position and 0 elsewhere. Plot No. is (1) Less than 4 (3) 6 Ans. +5}.Regd. if x ≤ −1 f (x) = ⎨ ⎩ 2 x + 3. New Delhi-75 Ph. 4. Four numbers are chosen at random (without replacement) from the set {1.4C .) –1 k+2≤1 ∴ k ≤ –1 Directions : Questions number 86 to 90 are Assertion Reason type questions. Each of these questions also has four alternative choices. The number of 3 × 3 non-singular matrices. then the set of all possible values of common difference is {+1. let r and R be the radii of the inscribed and the circumscribed circles.2010 (Code-A) Sol. Total number of cases = 9C3 = 84 Favourable cases = p= 24 2 = 84 7 3C . 3. We get 6 nonsingular matrices. Sector-11. 86. +3. (3) 2x + 3 k – 2x Sol. 83. then a possible value of k is (1) 1 (3) − Ans. only one of which is the correct answer. with four entries as 1 and all other entries as 0.: 011-47623417/23 Fax : 47623472 . You have to select the correct choice. R 2π n π r n a π = sin 2R n π a = tan 2r n vi s (D i ∴ r π = cos R n io fA no a h k as Ed ti o u ca n al S k e rv +2 i ce td sL 1 . Each of these questions contains two statements. if x > −1 r 1 = (2) There is a regular polygon with R 2 (3) There is a regular polygon with r 2 = R 3 If f has a local minimum at x = –1.2C 1 1 1 = 24 ⎛1 * * ⎞ ⎜ ⎟ Sol. +4. 20}. n=3 n=4 n=6 gives gives gives r 1 = R 2 r 1 = R 2 r 3 = R 2 84. (4) (20) (2) 5 (4) At least 7 Aakash IIT-JEE . (4) Sol. Statement-1 : The probability that the chosen numbers when arranged in some 1 order will form an AP is .

1. (1) Statement-1 is true. 6) and B(1. Office : Aakash Tower. 3. Let f : R → R be a continuous function defined by f ( x) = 1 e + 2e− x x S3 = ∑ j 2 j=1 10 10 Cj Statement-1 : S3 = 55 × 29 Statement-2 : S1 = 90 × 28 and S2 = 10 × 28 (1) Statement-1 is true. f (x) = 1 ex ex + + e− x + e− x 2 2 By AM – GM ex ex + + e− x + e− x ≥ 4 2 2 4 1 = 43/4 4 Aakash IIT-JEE . We observe that the line segment joining the points A(3.AIEEE . Statement-2 is not a correct explanation for Statement-1 (3) Statement-1 is true. Statement-2 : The plane x – y + z = 5 bisects the line segment joining A(3. 3 ) . Statement-2 is false.t. Statement-2 is true. Statement-2 is true Ans. Hence statement-2 is true. 4) has direction ratios 2. Statement-2 is true. Statement-2 is false (4) Statement-1 is false. 6) w. 1. The outcomes 2.: 011-47623417/23 Fax : 47623472 . Statement-2 is a correct explanation for Statement-1 (2) Statement-1 is true. 1 2 2 .r.2010 (Code-A) (1) Statement-1 is true. Statement-2 is a correct explanation for Statement-1 (2) Statement-1 is true. 2 which one proportional to 1. Statement-2 is true. Plot No. 4) in the plane x – y + z = 5. 8. Statement-2 is false (4) Statement-1 is false. Sector-11. 3. 4). Statement-2 is true. S2 = ∑ j 10C j and j=1 j=1 10 10 Sol. –1. Statement-2 is not a correct explanation for Statement-1 (3) Statement-1 is true. S2 = ∑ j 10C j = 10. New Delhi-75 Ph. for all x ∈ R. The image of the point (3. 1. Statement-2 is not a correct explanation for Statement-1 (3) Statement-1 is true. Dwarka. (D i vi s o i on fA sh a ka a ti duc Statement-1 E (1) Statement-2 e 0 < f (x ) ≤ l S: on a rvic e td sL 1 . Statement-2 is true. 6) is the mirror image of the point B(1. 87. is true. Statement-2 is true. 6) and B(1. Statement-2 is true Ans. Statement-2 is a correct explanation for Statement-1 (2) Statement-1 is true. Statement-2 is a correct explanation for Statement-1 (2) Statement-1 is true. Statement-2 is false (4) Statement-1 is false. (3) Sol. 4. 1 the direction ratios of the normal to the plane. Statement-2 is true.Regd. Statement-2 is true Ans. 89. (1) (21) ∴ Statement-1 is true. 20 is an AP with common difference 6. Only choice is (3). 1. for some c ∈ R. (1) Sol. Statement-2 is true Ans. Statement-2 is false (4) Statement-1 is false. Statement-2 is true. the plane x – y + z = 5 is x − 3 y − 1 z − 6 −2(3 − 1 + 6 − 5) = = = 1 1 1+1+1 −1 ⇒ x−3 y−1 z−6 = = = −2 1 −1 1 ⇒ x=3–2=1 y=1+2=3 z=6–2=4 which shows that statement-1 is true. Statement-1 : The point A(3.2 9 j=1 10 Statement-1 : f ( c ) = ∴ Statement-2 is false. 14. –2. Statement-2 is not a correct explanation for Statement-1 (3) Statement-1 is true. f (0) = 1 3 88. 3. (3) Sol. Let S1 = ∑ j( j − 1)10 C j .

(3) Sol. Equality holds if ex = 2e–x ⇒ e2x = 2. A + (det A)I = 0 comparing with A2 – I = 0. Statement-2 is a correct explanation for Statement-1 (2) Statement-1 is true. Statement-2 is not a correct explanation for Statement-1 (3) Statement-1 is true. it follows Tr A = 0. Statement-2 is true. Sector-11. (1) Statement-1 is true. Since f (c ) = 1 1 ≤ by intermediate value theorem 3 2 2 1 same c ∈ R. where I is 2 × 2 identity matrix.AIEEE . A satisfies A2 – Tr(A). Dwarka. Let A be a 2 × 2 matrix with non-zero entries and let A2 = I. New Delhi-75 Ph. Plot No. Define Tr(A) = sum of diagonal elements of A and |A| = determinant of matrix A. Statement-2 : |A| = 1.) Aakash IIT-JEE . |A| = –1. Office : Aakash Tower. 4. 3 90.2010 (Code-A) ∴ 0 < f (x ) ≤ 1 4 3/4 = 1 2 2 Statement-1 : Tr(A) = 0.: 011-47623417/23 Fax : 47623472 (22) . Statement-2 is true.Regd. (D io i vi s no ka Aa f s d hE u n a ti o c a i ce e rv lS td sL . Statement-2 is false (4) Statement-1 is false. Statement-2 is true Ans.

Sign up to vote on this title
UsefulNot useful

Master Your Semester with Scribd & The New York Times

Special offer: Get 4 months of Scribd and The New York Times for just $1.87 per week!

Master Your Semester with a Special Offer from Scribd & The New York Times