Module 11 A.

Aeroplane Aerodynamics
11A.01.1. Theory of Flight - Aeroplane Aerodynamics and Flight Controls.

Question Number. 1. As a subsonic aircraft speeds-up, its Centre of Pressure. Option A. moves forward. Option B. moves aft. Option C. is unaffected. Correct Answer is. moves aft. Explanation. Assuming that the aircraft is to remain at constant altitude, it must reduce its angle of attack as it speeds-up. This alone will move the CofP rearwards, in accordance with the sub-sonic angle of attack change theory. Question Number. 2. Wing spoilers, when used asymmetrically, are associated with. Option A. ailerons. Option B. rudder. Option C. elevators. Correct Answer is. ailerons. Explanation. Pallett Automatic Flight Control 4th Edition Page 51. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe TextbookPage 1-12. Question Number. 3. If an aircraft is yawing to the left, where would you position the trim tab on the rudder?. Option A. To the centre. Option B. To the right. Option C. To the left. Correct Answer is. To the left.

Explanation. Automatic flight control, Pallett, 4th Edition Page 43. Question Number. 4. If an aircraft is flying with a left wing low, where would you move the left aileron trim tab?. Option A. Down. Option B. Up. Option C. Moving the aileron trim tab will not correct the situation. Correct Answer is. Up. Explanation. Automatic flight control, Pallett, 4th Edition Page 43. Question Number. 5. When a leading edge flap is fully extended, what is the slot in the wing for?. Option A. To allow the flap to retract into it when it retracts. Option B. To re-energise the boundary layer. Option C. To increase the lift. Correct Answer is. To re-energise the boundary layer. Explanation. Pallett Automatic Flight Control 2nd Edition Page 50. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 1-32. Question Number. 6. With respect to differential aileron control, which of the following is true?. Option A. The up going Aileron moves through a smaller angle than the down going aileron. Option B. The up going and down going ailerons both deflect to the same angle. Option C. The down going aileron moves through a smaller angle than the up going aileron. Correct Answer is. The down going aileron moves through a smaller angle than the up going aileron. Explanation. Mechanics of Flight, Kermode, Page 301. The down going aileron moves less, to reduce the induced drag which causes adverse aileron yaw. Question Number. 7. The aeroplane fin is of symmetrical aerofoil section and will therefore provide a side-load. Option A. if a suitable angle of attack develops due either yaw or rudder movement. Option B. only if a suitable angle of attack develops due to yaw.

Option C. only when the rudder is moved. Correct Answer is. if a suitable angle of attack develops due either yaw or rudder movement. Explanation. Rudder deflection or yaw. Question Number. 8. An aircraft left wing is flying low. The aileron trimmer control to the left aileron trim tab in the cockpit would be. Option A. moved up causing the left aileron to move up. Option B. moved up causing the left aileron to move down. Option C. moved down causing the left aileron to move down. Correct Answer is. moved up causing the left aileron to move down. Explanation. Down aileron required - which requires up trim. Question Number. 9. The purpose of a slot in a wing is to. Option A. speed up the airflow and increase lift. Option B. act as venturi, accelerate the air and re-energise boundary layer. Option C. provide housing for the slat. Correct Answer is. act as venturi, accelerate the air and re-energise boundary layer. Explanation. A slot is to act as venturi, accelerate the air and re-energise boundary layer. Question Number. 10. Large flap deployment. Option A. has no effect on spanwise flow. Option B. causes increased spanwise flow towards tips on wing upper surface. Option C. causes increased spanwise flow towards tips on wing lower surface. Correct Answer is. causes increased spanwise flow towards tips on wing lower surface. Explanation. Flaps increase the pressure differential between top and bottom surfaces, increase tip vortices and spanwise flow. Question Number. 11. Which part of the wing of a swept-wing aircraft stalls first?.

Option A. Tip stalls first. Option B. Root stalls first. Option C. Both stall together. Correct Answer is. Tip stalls first. Explanation. The tip of a swept wing stalls first. Question Number. 12. During flight, an aircraft is yawing to the right. The aircraft would have a tendency to fly. Option A. right wing low. Option B. nose up. Option C. left wing low. Correct Answer is. right wing low. Explanation. The leading wing (left wing) has increased lift, causing it to rise. Question Number. 13. With a drop in ambient temperature, an aircraft service ceiling will. Option A. not be affected. Option B. lower. Option C. rise. Correct Answer is. rise. Explanation. As ambient temperature drops, density increases and aircraft performance increases. Question Number. 14. Extending a leading edge slat will have what effect on the angle of attack of a wing?. Option A. Increase the angle of attack. Option B. Decrease the angle of attack. Option C. No effect on angle of attack. Correct Answer is. Decrease the angle of attack. Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 15. To ensure that a wing stalls at the root first, stall wedges are. Option A. installed at the wing trailing edge at the wing root. Option B. installed at the wing trailing edge at the wing root. Option C. installed on the wing leading edge at the wing root. Correct Answer is. installed on the wing leading edge at the wing root. Explanation. NIL. Question Number. 16. With reference to differential aileron control. Option A. drag increases on the inner wing. Option B. drag decreases on the outer wing. Option C. drag increases on the outer wing. Correct Answer is. drag increases on the inner wing. Explanation. Automatic Flight Control, Pallett 4th Edition Page 41. A+P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 1-11. Question Number. 17. Dutch role is movement in. Option A. yaw and roll. Option B. yaw and pitch. Option C. pitch and roll. Correct Answer is. yaw and roll. Explanation. Avionic Fundamentals Jeppesen page 291. Question Number. 18. If an aircraft is aerodynamically stable. Option A. aircraft becomes too sensitive. Option B. aircraft returns to trimmed attitude. Option C. C of P moves back. Correct Answer is. aircraft returns to trimmed attitude. Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 19. Ailerons control the aircraft in the. Option A. longitudinal plane. Option B. directional plane. Option C. lateral plane. Correct Answer is. lateral plane. Explanation. Ailerons control the aircraft 'IN' the lateral axis, which is 'ABOUT' the longitudinal axis. Question Number. 20. An anti-balance tab is used. Option A. for trimming the aircraft. Option B. to give more feel to the controls. Option C. to relieve stick loads. Correct Answer is. to give more feel to the controls. Explanation. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook 1-29. Question Number. 21. Slats. Option A. act as an air brake. Option B. keep the boundary layer from separating for longer. Option C. increase the overall surface area and lift effect of wing. Correct Answer is. keep the boundary layer from separating for longer. Explanation. Jeppesen A & P technician airframe textbook page 1-32. Question Number. 22. Due to the change of lift forces resulting from the extension of flaps in flight. Option A. nose should be lowered, reducing AoA. Option B. nose should remain in the same position, maintaining same AoA. Option C. nose should be raised, increasing AoA. Correct Answer is. nose should be lowered, reducing AoA.

Explanation. The main purpose of flaps is to increase lift so that the pilot can lower the nose, increase decent angle and get a better view of the runway. Question Number. 23. Flight spoilers. Option A. can be used to decrease lift to allow controlled decent without reduction of airspeed. Option B. can be deployed on the down going wing in a turn to increase lift on that wing. Option C. can be used with differential ailerons to reduce adverse yaw in a turn. Correct Answer is. can be used to decrease lift to allow controlled decent without reduction of airspeed. Explanation. NIL. Question Number. 24. If the aircraft is flying nose heavy, which direction would you move the elevator trim tab?. Option A. Up to move elevator up. Option B. Down to move elevator up. Option C. Up to move elevator down. Correct Answer is. Down to move elevator up. Explanation. NIL. Question Number. 25. Wing tip vortices are strongest when. Option A. flying high speed straight and level flight. Option B. flying slowly at high angles of attack. Option C. flying into a headwind. Correct Answer is. flying slowly at high angles of attack. Explanation. NIL. Question Number. 26. Option A. elevator. Option B. flap. An example of a secondary flight control is a.

Option C. spoiler. Correct Answer is. spoiler. Explanation. Some would consider a Flap to be a secondary flight control. It is discounted in this question as it is technically a Lift Augmentation Device, rather than a 'control. Question Number. 27. A balance tab. Option A. assists the pilot to move the controls. Option B. is used to trim the appropriate axis of the aircraft. Option C. effectively increases the area of the control surface. Correct Answer is. assists the pilot to move the controls. Explanation. Jeppesen A & P Technician Textbook pg 1-29. Question Number. 28. Which wing increases drag when the ailerons are moved?. Option A. Both wings have an equal increase in drag. Option B. Both wings increase drag but the wing with the down-going aileron increases more. Option C. Both wings increase drag but the wing with the up-going aileron increases more. Correct Answer is. Both wings increase drag but the wing with the down-going aileron increases more. Explanation. Jeppesen A & P Technician Airframe Textbook page 1-26. Question Number. 29. Which flap will increase wing area and camber?. Option A. Split. Option B. Slot. Option C. Fowler. Correct Answer is. Fowler. Explanation. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 20. Question Number. 30. An automatic slat will lift by itself when the angle of attack is.

Option B. the camber of the top surface. sink. right spoilers remaining retracted. high. Question Number. A split flap increases lift by increasing. Option B. When the trailing edge flaps are lowered. Explanation. pitch nose down. left and right spoilers extending. Option B. pitch nose down. right spoilers extending. On aircraft fitted with spoilers for lateral control. Option A. NIL. low. Explanation. high or low. Correct Answer is. Question Number. Option C. Correct Answer is. Jeppesen A & P Technician Airframe Textbook page 1-30. Correct Answer is. Option C. NIL. 32. left spoilers extending. Explanation. Option C. . Question Number. the surface area. Due to the centre of pressure moving aft. the angle of attachment of the lower hinged portion. 33. Explanation. the aircraft will. left spoilers remaining retracted. pitch nose up. Option B. Correct Answer is. Option A. roll to the right is caused by. high. Option C. 31.Option A. left spoilers remaining retracted. Option A. right spoilers extending. the angle of attachment of the lower hinged portion.

Option A. 35. Option C. Question Number. Explanation. Option A. A Krueger flap is. decreasing wing drag. a leading edge slat which extends forward. increasing tailplane incidence. NIL. 34. Explanation. a flap which extends rearwards but does not lower. decreasing the stalling angle of the wing. NIL. Option A. increasing the stalling angle of the wing. Question Number. a type of slow roll. a leading edge flap which hinges forward. Option B. . Option B. primarily a pitching instability. Option B. decreasing tailplane incidence. a leading edge flap which hinges forward. up movement of the elevator trim tab. Dutch roll is. Option B. A leading edge slat is a device for. Option C. Jeppesen A & P Airframe Technician Textbook page 1-37 figure 1-64. Correct Answer is. On an aircraft with an all-moving tailplane. Correct Answer is.Question Number. pitch up is caused by. Question Number. 37. a combined yawing and rolling motion. Explanation. increasing the stalling angle of the wing. Option C. 36. Option A. Option C. decreasing tailplane incidence. Correct Answer is. Explanation. Correct Answer is. NIL. a combined yawing and rolling motion.

Changes in aircraft weight. what takes place?. Option A. Pressure increases. Option C. none of the above are correct. lift decreases. 38. Option B. cause corresponding changes in total drag due to the associated lift change. Option B.Question Number. boundary layer. NIL. When airflow velocity over an upper cambered surface of an aerofoil decreases. Fineness ratio. What is a controlling factor of turbulence and skin friction?. lift increases. Question Number. Option A. is known as. lift decreases. Explanation. Correct Answer is. camber layer. will only affect total drag if the lift is kept constant. 40. Aspect ratio. Explanation. Option C. Question Number. boundary layer. Pressure decreases. NIL. Explanation. Countersunk rivets used on skin exterior. lift increases. NIL. 41. Correct Answer is. in relation to the rest of the airflow. Correct Answer is. Pressure increases. Option C. Countersunk rivets used on skin exterior. will not affect total drag since it is dependant only upon speed. Pressure increases. Option A. Option C. 39. Option B. . Option B. The layer of air over the surface of an aerofoil which is slower moving. Option A. Question Number.

increase with an increase in weight. Option A. 43. be unaffected by aircraft weight changes since it is dependant upon the angle of attack. In a bank and turn. cause corresponding changes in total drag due to the associated lift change. lift decreases and drag increases. . Explanation. 42. Explanation. depends on the weight of the aircraft. 45. it is always constant. NIL. lift decreases and drag increases. Correct Answer is. extra lift is not required. Explanation. Option A. Option B. Option B. Option A. Explanation. When an aircraft stalls. Option C. lift and drag increase. NIL. increase with an increase in weight. extra lift is not required if thrust is increased. Question Number.Correct Answer is. Question Number. Option C. Question Number. The aircraft stalling speed will. Option B. Question Number. lift and drag increase. extra lift is required. Correct Answer is. Option A. Correct Answer is. cannot be varied. The angle of attack at which stall occurs. increase with an increase in weight. Option B. NIL. Option C. extra lift is required. 44. NIL.

49. . The stalling speed of an aircraft. NIL. 46. Question Number. Explanation. a steady rolling tendency which would be corrected by use of the ailerons. is increased when it is heavier. With an increase in the amount of flap deployment. Correct Answer is. the stalling angle of a wing. a fixed banked attitude which would be corrected by use of the rudder. a pitching moment which would be corrected by used of the elevators. Question Number. a steady rolling tendency which would be corrected by use of the ailerons. Option A. Option C. to trim the aircraft longitudinally. Correct Answer is. Option C. Correct Answer is. The primary function of a flap is. is increased when it is heavier. 47. Option B. Option C. NIL. to alter the lift of an aerofoil.Option C. Correct Answer is. Explanation. Question Number. 48. can be varied by using flaps and slats. Jeppesen A & P Technician Airframe Textbook page 1-30. Option A. A wing flap which has dropped or partially extended on one wing in flight will lead to. Explanation. Explanation. to alter the position of the centre of gravity. Option B. Option A. corrected Question Number. to alter the lift of an aerofoil. Option A. increases. NIL. Option B. can be varied by using flaps and slats. is increased when it is lighter. does not change.

Option B. 51. Option C. Correct Answer is. Question Number. decreases the angle at which its wing will stall. it only affects the stalling speed on that wing. Downward displacement of an aileron. will tend to cause an aircraft nose-up pitch. decreases. Option C. Correct Answer is. Option C. will tend to cause an aircraft nose down pitch. Correct Answer is. NIL. lower the nose. Option A. Question Number. may cause a nose-down or nose-up pitch depending upon the initial tailplane load. NIL. Explanation. increases the angle at which its wing stalls. Option B. the flap-induced downwash on the tailplane. 50. 52. decreases the angle at which its wing will stall. Due to the tailplane angle of attack change. Option B. keep the pitch attitude constant. NIL. has no effect on its wing stalling angle. to maintain the lift constant it would be necessary to. Explanation. will tend to cause an aircraft nose-up pitch. decreases. Correct Answer is. raise the nose. NIL. Option B. Question Number. Explanation. . remains the same. lower the nose. Due to the change in lift coefficient accompanying extension of the flaps. Option A. Option A. Option C. Explanation.

to the left. Flap and slat. to the right. Question Number.000 ft. Explanation. 30. Flap. Option C. an increase in gradient with wing speed. 18. Option C.000 ft. Explanation. Option C. Question Number. NIL. decrease in gradient with wing speed. no change in gradient with wing speed.000 ft. 36. Slat. moving the rudder right. 36. the trim tab on the rudder would be positioned. NIL. Slat. Option A. to the centre. Option B. 53. If an aircraft is yawing left. 54. Option A. decrease in gradient with wing speed. Question Number. Option B.000 ft. Option A. Induced drag curve characteristics of a slender delta wing are such that there is. 55.Question Number. 56. Correct Answer is. Which leading edge device improves the laminar flow over the wing?. Option C. Correct Answer is. moving the rudder right. Option B. NIL. Correct Answer is. Option B. moving the rudder left. to the left. NIL. Option A. Correct Answer is. The tropopause exists at about. Explanation. Explanation. .

either the leading or training edge. Option B. NIL. NIL. Explanation. Question Number. Option C. Option A. the leading edge. NIL. Correct Answer is. Option A. NIL. Correct Answer is. Question Number. do not change the stalling angle. move transition point forwards. Option B. Question Number. Option C. advance the onset of flow separation. Vortex generators are fitted to. Leading edge flaps. move transition point forwards. is lateral stability. decrease stalling angle of the wing. increase stalling angle of the wing. 57. Correct Answer is. Option B. 59. is longitudinal stability. Explanation. Correct Answer is. Option A. increase stalling angle of the wing. Option A. Explanation. is dutch roll. Explanation. Instability giving roll and yaw. Option B. 60. the leading edge. is dutch roll. move transition point rearwards. Krueger flaps are on. Option C. 58.Question Number. . the trailing edge. Option C.

Explanation. Explanation. NIL. increases drag with little lift coefficient increase. Option C. Option C. Theory of Flight .High Speed Flight. compressible. Option A. from intermediate to fully down. Option B. forms part of lower trailing edge. Option B. not affect lateral stability. Correct Answer is. Option B. 62. increases lift without a corresponding increase in drag. Explanation. NIL.7 is. Option A. NIL. is attached to the leading edge of the wing. 63. Option C. does not increase the wing area on deployment. A plain flap. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. Question Number. when deployed. 61.01. Question Number. increase lateral stability. A split flap. does not increase the wing area on deployment. .Question Number. decrease lateral stability. 11A.2. Sweepback will. increases drag with little lift coefficient increase. incompressible. Option A. increase lateral stability. Option B. Option A. Air above Mach 0. Question Number. is used only on high speed aircraft. 1. from intermediate to fully down.

tip stall on a straight wing aircraft. 4. Option A. pressure to decrease. . velocity to increase. Option A. Question Number. 2.Option C. An aircraft flying below the tropopause descends at a constant True Airspeed. A nose down change of trim (tuck-under) occurs due to shock induced. Correct Answer is. Option B. root stall on a delta wing aircraft. Correct Answer is. Question Number. Option B. Correct Answer is. increase. root stall on a delta wing aircraft. pressure to increase. compressible. pressure to increase. velocity to increase. Option C. Its Mach. Aircraft Flight Barnard and Philpot. Mechanics of Flight AC Kermode 10th Edition Page 340. Option C. Option B. Explanation. Explanation. tip stall on a delta wing aircraft. so mach number will decrease. Speed of sound INCREASES with DECREASING altitude. 3. Pallett Automatic Flight Control 2nd Edition Page 45. Option C. Option A. Mechanics of Flight AC Kermode 10th Edition Page 385. not change. Explanation. Explanation. Supersonic air passing through a divergent duct causes the. decrease. will. Correct Answer is. velocity to increase. Second Edition Page123. pressure to decrease. compressible only when above the speed of sound. No. velocity to decrease. decrease. Question Number.

10. some flow in the boundary layer is ALWAYS less than Mach 1. Option C. Option C. Explanation. supersonic. Question Number. Option C. Correct Answer is. as the definition of the boundary layer is 'airflow ranges from zero to 99% of free flow speed' However.Question Number. Option A. gradually moving back.000 ft. on the upper and lower surface and will move aft. Option B. Correct Answer is. Question Number. A dumb question. Before an aircraft reaches critical mach. Option B. 5. the nose pitches down because the CP moves rear. On a standard day. 8. A symmetrical aerofoil is accelerating through Mach 1 with an angle of attack of 0°. stationary. Sea level. Option A. by same definition. the nose pitches up because the CP moves Forward. on the upper and lower surface and will move aft. the aircraft buffets because the CP moves to the shock wave. A shock wave will form. Question Number. subsonic. on the upper surface only and move aft. At speeds greater than mach 1. Option A. 20. Option B. on the upper and lower surface and will move aft until the point of maximum camber. Sea level. the nose pitches down because the CP moves rear. . at which altitude will the speed of sound be the greatest?. Correct Answer is. 6. Option A. Shockwaves form on upper and lower surfaces BEGINNING at point of max curvature. Mechanics of Flight 10th edition Barnard and Philpott Pg 341. airflow in the boundary layer is. 7. Option C. Explanation. Option B.000 ft. subsonic. Explanation. Correct Answer is.

Explanation. NIL. Question Number. 9. Which of the following will increase the Critical Mach Number of an aerofoil?. Option A. Decreasing the fineness ratio of the wings. Option B. Increasing the aspect ratio of the wings. Option C. Using a thin airfoil and sweeping the wings back. Correct Answer is. Using a thin airfoil and sweeping the wings back. Explanation. NIL. Question Number. 10. As an aircraft accelerates through the transonic region, the centre of pressure tends to. Option A. turn into a shock wave. Option B. move rearward. Option C. move forward. Correct Answer is. move rearward. Explanation. NIL. Question Number. 11. Supersonic air going through an incipient shock wave will decrease its speed and. Option A. decrease temperature and increase density. Option B. increase temperature and increase density. Option C. increase temperature and decrease density. Correct Answer is. increase temperature and increase density. Explanation. Mechanics of Flight AC Kermode 10th Edition Page 326 fig 11.4. Question Number. 12. On an aircraft travelling at speeds greater than Mach 1 the boundary layer is thicker than if the aircraft were travelling slower than. Option A. Mach 1. Option B. stationary.

Option C. supersonic. Correct Answer is. stationary. Explanation. Boundary layer at supersonic speeds is very thin and considered negligible. Part of it is stationary. b) is the 'best' answer. Question Number. 13. At speeds above Mach 1, shockwaves will form above and below the wing. Option A. at both the leading edge and the trailing edge. Option B. at the leading edge. Option C. at the trailing edge. Correct Answer is. at both the leading edge and the trailing edge. Explanation. NIL. Question Number. 14. A high speed aircraft with MACH warning will. Option A. warn when Mcrit is reached. Option B. warn when Mcrit is reached. Option C. warn when Mach 1 has been exceeded. Correct Answer is. warn when Mcrit is reached. Explanation. Mach overspeed warning (aka 'henpecker' - cluck, cluck, cluck) is activated at Mcrit (shown by the barber pole on some ASIs). Question Number. 15. Above the critical mach number, the drag coefficient. Option A. remains the same. Option B. increases. Option C. decreases. Correct Answer is. increases. Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 16. At high Mach Numbers above Mach 2.2, some aircraft metals. Option A. lose their strength due to the kinetic heating effect. Option B. such as aluminium, become brittle. Option C. will shrink due to the extreme pressures involved. Correct Answer is. lose their strength due to the kinetic heating effect. Explanation. NIL. Question Number. 17. Mach trim operates. Option A. along the longitudinal axis. Option B. to reduce Dutch roll. Option C. along the lateral axis. Correct Answer is. along the longitudinal axis. Explanation. NIL. Question Number. 18. To increase critical mach number. Option A. the wings are swept. Option B. tailerons are fitted. Option C. elevons are fitted. Correct Answer is. the wings are swept. Explanation. NIL. Question Number. 19. An aircraft experiences a large loss of lift and a big increase in drag in straight and level flight, what would be the most probable cause?. Option A. Atmospheric conditions. Option B. Aircraft reached its critical mach number. Option C. Severe head winds. Correct Answer is. Aircraft reached its critical mach number. Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 20. A Mach Trimmer is a device which. Option A. prevents the aircraft from exceeding its critical Mach No. Option B. switches out trim control to prevent damage in the transonic speed range. Option C. automatically compensates for trim changes in the transonic region. Correct Answer is. automatically compensates for trim changes in the transonic region. Explanation. NIL. Question Number. 21. Critical Mach No. may be increased by. Option A. sweeping back the wing. Option B. using a higher thickness/chord ratio wing. Option C. using more powerful engines. Correct Answer is. sweeping back the wing. Explanation. NIL. Question Number. 22. Airflow either side of a normal shock wave is. Option A. sonic upstream, subsonic downstream. Option B. subsonic upstream, sonic downstream. Option C. sonic upstream and downstream. Correct Answer is. sonic upstream, subsonic downstream. Explanation. NIL. Question Number. 23. Mach Number is defined as. Option A. TAS divided by local speed of sound. Option B. speed of sound at sea level divided by local speed of sound. Option C. IAS divided by the local speed of sound. Correct Answer is. TAS divided by local speed of sound.

Explanation. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 66. Question Number. 24. The reason for sharp leading edged wings on high speed aircraft is to. Option A. enable the shockwave to be accurately positioned. Option B. decrease boundary layer. Option C. decrease wave drag. Correct Answer is. enable the shockwave to be accurately positioned. Explanation. NIL. Question Number. 25. Critical Mach Number is defined as. Option A. that free-stream Mach Number at which some part of the airflow over the aircraft becomes sonic. Option B. that number at which the airflow becomes supersonic. Option C. the minimum mach number at which the aircraft can go supersonic. Correct Answer is. that free-stream Mach Number at which some part of the airflow over the aircraft becomes sonic. Explanation. NIL. Question Number. 26. The transonic region is a region of. Option A. mixed airflow. Option B. all subsonic. Option C. all supersonic. Correct Answer is. mixed airflow. Explanation. NIL. Question Number. 27. Immediately downstream of an oblique shockwave is always. Option A. supersonic. Option B. the same as upstream. Option C. subsonic.

supersonic.

Question Number. 28. Wave drag. Option A. increases at the low speed stall. Option B. increases in the transonic region. Option C. increases in the supersonic region. Correct Answer is. increases in the transonic region. Explanation. NIL. Question Number. 29. For increased Mcrit. Option A. decrease sweepback. Option B. decrease sweepback. Option C. decrease thickness/chord ratio. Correct Answer is. decrease thickness/chord ratio. Explanation. NIL. Question Number. 30. Symptoms of shock stall are. Option A. buffet, loss of control, and instability. Option B. decrease in speed, buffet and movement of the centre of pressure. Option C. compressibility effects, buffet and loss of control. Correct Answer is. buffet, loss of control, and instability. Explanation. NIL. Question Number. 31. Sweepback increases Mcrit by. Option A. decreasing the amount of airflow over the highest point on the aerofoil section. Option B. increasing the amount of airflow over the highest point on the aerofoil section.

Option C. decreasing the amount of airflow over the lowest point on the aerofoil section. Correct Answer is. decreasing the amount of airflow over the highest point on the aerofoil section. Explanation. NIL. Question Number. 32. Mach number is. Option A. the ratio of the aircrafts TAS to the speed of sound at sea level. Option B. the ratio of the aircrafts IAS to the speed of sound at the same atmospheric conditions. Option C. the ratio of the aircrafts TAS to the speed of sound at the same atmospheric conditions. Correct Answer is. the ratio of the aircrafts TAS to the speed of sound at the same atmospheric conditions. Explanation. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control, David Harris Page 19. Question Number. 33. The critical Mach number is. Option A. the aircraft Mach. No. when the airflow reaches the speed of sound at some point on the aircraft. Option B. the Mach No. when a shock wave forms at the leading edge. Option C. the Mach No. when the aircraft reaches the speed of sound. Correct Answer is. the aircraft Mach. No. when the airflow reaches the speed of sound at some point on the aircraft. Explanation. NIL. Question Number. 34. Above the Critical Mach No. the drag coefficient will. Option A. remain the same. Option B. start to increas. Option C. start to decrease. Correct Answer is. start to increase. Explanation. NIL. Question Number. 35. A wing of low thickness/chord ratio, the Critical Mach No. will be. Option A. higher than a wing of high thickness/chord ratio.

Option B. lower than a wing of high thickness/chord ratio. Option C. the same as a wing of high thickness/chord ratio. Correct Answer is. higher than a wing of high thickness/chord ratio. Explanation. NIL. Question Number. 36. An aeroplane flying above the Critical Mach No. will usually experience. Option A. an oscillation in pitch. Option B. a nose up pitch. Option C. a nose down pitch. Correct Answer is. a nose down pitch. Explanation. NIL. Question Number. 37. Tuck-under can be counteracted by. Option A. trim tabs. Option B. aileron reversal. Option C. mach trim. Correct Answer is. mach trim. Explanation. NIL. Question Number. 38. What causes tuck under?. Option A. Shock stall. Option B. Aileron reversal. Option C. Flap back effect. Correct Answer is. Shock stall. Explanation. NIL. Question Number. 39. When does a shock stall occur?.

conditions. NIL. Option C. pressure and temperature increase. supersonic. NIL. NIL. decreases. Explanation. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. pressure decreases temperature increases.Option A. Option B. 42.A. Option B. . remains constant. Question Number. Question Number. Option A. Correct Answer is. the temperature in the troposphere. Correct Answer is. 41. Explanation. 40. At the critical Mach number of the aeroplane. Question Number. pressure and temperature decrease. Downstream of a normal shock wave. Option A. NIL. subsonic. supersonic. Explanation. Option A.S. Air either side of an oblique shockwave is generally. sonic. pressure and temperature increase. Option B. increases. Option C. Option C. At the critical Mach number of the aeroplane. When the aircraft reaches speed of sound in a dive. decreases. Option B. When the aircraft forward speed is above Mach One. Option C. With an increase in altitude under I. Explanation.

raises Mcrit. raises Mcrit. Increased sweepback. Correct Answer is. temperature. Option A. altitude. improves tip stall characteristics. Option C. Option C. Aerodynamic heating. 43. increases with skin friction. Option B. Option B. Explanation. Speed of sound varies with. Explanation. Option B. Option C. the same as upstream. decreases stability. subsonic. supersonic. Correct Answer is. Question Number. Correct Answer is. 45. NIL. increases as a function of airspeed. Question Number. NIL. pressure. subsonic. Explanation. Question Number. temperature.Question Number. Option A. Immediately downstream of a normal shockwave. Option A. 44. Option A. air is always. . Correct Answer is. Explanation. increases as a function of airspeed. Option B. decreases with altitude. Option C. NIL. NIL. 46.

backwards. Correct Answer is. an all moving tailplane may be used. 49. forwards. Question Number. fuel is pumped. An aircraft flying below the tropopause descends at a constant True Airspeed. Explanation. Option C. Option A. its Mach. area rule is used.Question Number. Question Number. NIL. Option C. an all moving tailplane may be used. To make flying controls more effective at high speed. Explanation. Option C. increase. area rule is used. Option C. To counter the effect of a shift of centre of pressure as an aircraft flies through the transonic region. NIL. 47. To overcome ineffective control surface problems in the transonic region. will. Option A. Option B. 50. decrease. Frise ailerons may be used. . vortex generators are used. Correct Answer is. hydraulic powered elevators may be used. Correct Answer is. Option A. remain the same. decrease. 48. Question Number. vortex generators are used. Option B. Option B. sideways. No. NIL. backwards. Correct Answer is. Option A. Explanation. Option B.

sonic speed to indicated airspeed. decrease. will. Option B. Option B. Tuck-under is caused by. root stall on a swept wing aircraft. NIL. The velocity of sound with an increase in altitude will. true airspeed to local sonic speed. its Mach. Option C. Option B. Option A. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems. An aircraft flying above the tropopause descends at a constant True Airspeed. remain the same. Question Number. 52. Question Number. increase. tip stall on a straight wing aircraft. Correct Answer is. No. 53. remain the same. Correct Answer is. Option A. 51.Explanation. Correct Answer is. Option C. decrease. NIL. Option A. tip stall on a swept wing aircraft. Explanation. increase. Option B. Question Number. Option C. David Harris Page 19. Question Number. Mach number equals the ratio of. Explanation. David Harris Page 19. Option A. Option C. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems. remain constant. true airspeed to local sonic speed. altitude to airspeed. decrease. 54. . Explanation.

Airframe Structures . Explanation. Correct Answer is.General Concepts. near the point of maximum curvature. near the point of maximum curvature. near the point of maximum curvature. a shock wave will appear initially. 55. In the transonic speed range. Option B. NIL. the position of the wing centre of pressure remains constant. the centre of pressure movement may become oscillatory. Option C.02a. Option A. Question Number. the centre of pressure initially moves forward. Question Number. decrease Mcrit. NIL. Option A. Option B. Explanation. the centre of pressure movement may become oscillatory. increase Mcrit. Correct Answer is. 57. . 1. The purpose of sweepback on an aerofoil is to. root stall on a swept wing aircraft. Explanation. then back. 11A. decrease drag. Correct Answer is. NIL. Option B. Zone 320 under the ATA system is. at the leading edge. Explanation.Correct Answer is. Option C. NIL. Option A. increase Mcrit. As the airspeed over a cambered wing is increased. 56. Question Number. Question Number. Option C.

Option A. 50 milliohms.005ohms. Option C. Option B. Option A. elongating or stretch. Explanation. Option B. Option B. vertical stabiliser. Aircraft Maintenance and Repair Kroes/Watkins/Delp Page 22. Special paint. Question Number. CAIPs EEL/1-6 3. Option C. 4. 3. 2. vertical stabiliser. Option B. Explanation. horizontal stabiliser. elongating or stretch. Option A. Tension is the stress of. twisting. Aircraft Electricity and Avionics (5th Edition) Eismin Page 343. How is damage to the nose cone of an aircraft prevented during a lightning strike?. Option C. crush or compression. central fuselage. . Earthing Strap. Bonding Strip. Question Number. Tension is the stress of elongation or stretch. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. 1/50 ohms.8. Correct Answer is. 0. Explanation. Option C.Option A. 50 milliohms. When doing a bonding check the maximum resistance between component and earth is. Correct Answer is. Explanation. Bonding Strip. Question Number.

lateral point on aircraft fuse. .Question Number. upper fuselage. Correct Answer is. Fuselage Stations are longitudinal measurements on the fuselage. 0. Correct Answer is. Explanation. 0. 0. 8. Option A. Question Number. CAAIPs Leaflet 9-1 Para. Option B. Option B.4. Explanation. lower fuselage. Correct Answer is. Question Number. longitudinal point on the aircraft fuselage. special paint. Option C. lower fuselage. Option A. Option C.5 in wide. ATA Zone 100 is. 7. special paint. ATA Zone 100 is lower fuselage (below floor). Explanation. Option B. Question Number.3. 6. 22 AWG. Option C. CAAIPs Leaflet 9-1 3.4. Composite materials are bonded by. Option A.1 (a). lateral point on aircraft wing.5 in wide. Explanation. 5. Option A. 3. Option C. copper wire. Correct Answer is. Option B.25 in wide and 22 AWG. aluminium wire. A Fuselage Station is a. longitudinal point on the aircraft fuselage. left-hand wing. The bonding lead to a remote aircraft component must be.

water lines and buttock lines. allows for damage to structure by distributing loads to other structure. Which of the following is an example of a fail safe structure?. allows for certain damage to the structure to go un-repaired between scheduled maintenance.5. Option A. Question Number. Correct Answer is. Option A. un-repaired between scheduled maintenance is applied only to secondary structure. A radome is protected from static electricity build-up by. Option A. longitudinal. Answer chosen due to a stringer's duplicity. CAIPs RL/2-5 Para 3. Explanation. Option C. 13. Option B. water lines and buttock lines. frame stations. Correct Answer is. conductive paint. CAIPs AL/7-2 para 6. Option B. Explanation. Stringer. Spar. . Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. Longeron.Question Number. Damage tolerant design. 12. corrected Question Number. conductive paint. conductive paint. frame stations. Option B. Question Number. Precise points are located on an aircraft by a system of. allows for certain damage to the structure to go. 10. 11. Explanation. Stringer. Option A. Option C. frame stations. bonding strips. Option C. Option C. vertical and lateral lines. Option B. vertical lines and lateral lines.

Option C. slip away under the action of forces. Correct Answer is. Option A. Explanation. Shear stress is described as. Explanation. Option B. The ground cable must be. Option B. 800. 600. Option B. Pressure cabin. compressing forces. Option A. In the ATA 100 zonal system the passenger entry door will have a designation of. 800. Control surfaces. Option B. The keyword is 'slip'. . Question Number. single strand copper wire 0. NIL. Option A. Option C. Correct Answer is.5 in. 14. Pressure cabin. Option C. cross sectional area. copper stranded 0. 400. but it is a terrible definition of shear stress.7. Checkout most modern aircraft Maintenance Manuals for zonal locations. Control surfaces. cross sectional area. CAIPs AL/7-2 2. slip away under the action of forces.Explanation. Question Number. Question Number. Option A. single strand 18 AWG. Question Number. Explanation. 17. pulling forces.5 in. 16. Correct Answer is. Option C. 15. Which area of the aircraft is subject to hoop stress?.

10.Correct Answer is. Option B. 245 inches from the datum line of the aircraft and 45 inches from the centreline of the right wing. Option B. Option C. 21. Explanation. Question Number.1 a (i). Special paint. Question Number. Correct Answer is. Where on the aircraft is FS245. Centre scale. Special grease on the hinges. Diverter strips. CAIPs RL/2-5 3. Option A. is known as. Diverter strips. Option A.5 in.3. A condition after which a permanent deformation of a material is caused. Zero. CAIPs AL/7-2 fig 15. Zero. Correct Answer is. 245 inches from the nose of the aircraft and 45 inches from the tip of the right wing. Explanation. Option A. bending. Option C. cross sectional area. CAIPs EEL/1-6 3. 20. Option C. Option B. How is the radome protected from lightning strike?. Explanation.2.2 B. Correct Answer is. 19. Option A. 245 inches from the datum line of the aircraft and 45 inches from the centreline of the right wing.4. Question Number. CAIPs EEL/1-6 3. Full scale deflection. single strand copper wire 0. 245 inches from the nose of the aircraft and 45 inches from the centreline of the right wing. . Explanation. If you short the two prongs with the single prong of a bonding tester together. what would the gauge read?. 18. Question Number. RWS45?.

Correct Answer is. Question Number. Option B. offers good damage resistance.1 (a) (ii). single strand 0. CAAIPs Leaflet 9-1 3. Explanation. Option B. Option C. Option C. Correct Answer is. Strain is 'deformation' but does not necessarily cause a permanent deformation. Question Number. Option A. Option C. Option A. Correct Answer is. Option C. 22. 18 AWG. bonded. 25. strain.3.Option B. Semi-monocoque construction. is used only for the fuselage. .25 inch. 23. Explanation. not bonded. Correct Answer is. Question Number. Option A. Most radio aerials are. Water Lines (WLs) are measured points on a. shear. utilizes the safe-life design concept. Question Number. Secondary bonding is usually provided with. insulated from the fuselage. stranded copper 0.25 inch. bonded. Jepessen A & P Technician Airframe textbook page 1-3. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook 12-56. 18 AWG. Explanation. strain. Option B. 24. Explanation. offers good damage resistance. Strain is 'best' of the answers.

Option B.3. Option C. horizontal line. Question Number. Question Number. Correct Answer is. Option C. Flying Hours. The various parts of the aircraft airframe are maintained at the same potential by.1 (ii). Correct Answer is. . Correct Answer is. What governs the ultimate fatigue life of an aircraft?. The cross sectional area of a secondary conductor must be not less than. 22 SWG * 0.2 Page 6. Explanation. Option C. Option C.2 Fig 15.Option A. Correct Answer is. Option A. bonding. Flying Hours. 26. Option B. earthing. bonding. 22 SWG * 0. 18 SWG for a single wire. CAAIPs Leaflet 9-1 3. NIL. Landings. vertical line. Explanation. Explanation. Option A. 27. 28.25. NIL. wing line. Explanation. Option A.5. static wicks. Question Number. Option B. Pressure Cycles. Option B. vertical line. 18 SWG for a single wire. AL/7.

NIL. compression. Option A. tension. conductive paint. Explanation. twisting and shear. NIL. partially by. Option A. Option C. Option B. Option B. compression. Question Number. Horizontal measurement lines. . torsion and strain. 29. Question Number. Option B. Measurements from the centre line. Explanation. Horizontal measurement lines. Aircraft fibreglass panels are protected against lighting strikes. 32. bonding. Question Number. NIL.Question Number. Option A. Option B. Option C. Explanation. flying hours. Correct Answer is. tension. compression. Option C. pressurization cycle. compression. 30. tension. The main forces on an aircraft structure are. conductive paint. 31. non-conductive paint. Option C. The life of the structure is counted by. Vertical measurement lines. torsion and shear. tension. Correct Answer is. pressurization cycle. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. Explanation. Option A. Measurements from the centre line. What are buttock lines?. torsion and shear. landings.

Wing stations are measured. NIL. Explanation. 34. Option A. Option A. NIL. Tensile. outboard from the fuselage centreline. Option A. NIL. Torsion. 33. Question Number. outboard from the fuselage centreline. Monocoque. Option A. Option C. A member taking a compression load is called a. Explanation. Explanation. Option B. NIL. Explanation. Option C. Option B. strut. strut. Tensile. Stringers are used in which of the following types of aircraft fuselage construction?. Option B. Question Number. Option B. . inboard from the wing upper surface. Semi-monocoque. outboard from the wing root. Question Number. Correct Answer is. Bending. Correct Answer is. Option C.Question Number. beam. Correct Answer is. Truss type. What load is a tie rod designed to accept?. Option C. Semi-monocoque. Correct Answer is. cable. 35. 36.

Question Number. Stringer. Skin. inches. Correct Answer is. Option A. These parts of the airframe are highly stressed and if damaged may cause failure of the aircraft and loss of life. Option A. inches. red. Fuselage station numbers are measured from the front of the aircraft in. Question Number. Frame. NIL. Option B. If a colour is used to identify primary structure. Skin. Correct Answer is. These are lightly stressed parts such as fairings. red. NIL. Option B. Option A. Which parts of the aircraft are classified secondary structures?. Option A. Option C. These parts of the airframe are highly stressed but if damaged will not cause failure of the aircraft. . it will be. Option C. Question Number. Which of the following is primary structure?. Correct Answer is. 37. 40. Option C. Option B. 39. Explanation. Explanation. Correct Answer is.Question Number. feet and inches. yellow. These parts of the airframe are highly stressed but if damaged will not cause failure of the aircraft. feet. green. Option C. Explanation. NIL. Option B. 38. wheel shields and minor component brackets etc.

42. If you are unable to identify a structure classification as either Primary or Secondary. Structure with built in redundancy is called. Option A. Option C. Question Number. 44. Safe-life. Question Number. what action should you adopt?. double safe. Fail-safe. Question Number. Correct Answer is. Explanation. is the property of a material to resist fracture. Upgrade it to primary.Explanation. is the deformation of a material caused by applied load. Correct Answer is. Option C. Option B. 41. Safe-life. is the load per unit area acting on a material. Option A. failsafe. Explanation. Question Number. . Option B. Correct Answer is. Stress. is the load per unit area acting on a material. Explanation. Option A. failsafe. AL/7-2 2. Option C. Option B.2. A piece of structure which must be replaced at a specified number of cycles. regardless of its physical condition is what type of item?. NIL. NIL. NIL. safe life. Option A. 43. Condition monitored. flying hours or years.

Explanation.Option B. Notice 65. Bending stresses are a combination of. Notice 89. torsional and compression stresses. Safe-life is. Paint it red and stamp it as tertiary. Option C. Question Number. Correct Answer is. NIL. tension and shear stresses. Option A. the maximum number of flying hours that should elapse before a major structural failure occurs. Option C. NIL. Question Number. Option A. Explanation. tension and compression stresses. tension and compression stresses. Option B. Correct Answer is. the minimum number of flying hours that should elapse before a major structural failure occurs. Question Number. Option B. 45. The Airworthiness Notice that refers to structural surveys is. Correct Answer is. the sharing of loads between adjacent members. Upgrade it to primary. Option C. Grade it as secondary. NIL. Explanation. Structural survey inspections are normally called up by the. 48. the maximum number of flying hours that should elapse before a major structural failure occurs. These AWNs are now transferred to CAP747. Explanation. 46. 47. Correct Answer is. Notice 89. Option B. Option C. . Option A. Question Number. Notice 79.

Question Number. Tip of vertical stabilise. Obscure question. Between front and rear spar. Butt Line (BL). electrically connected primary conductors. Correct Answer is. NIL. Option B. a sprayed coat of non-conductive paint. Option C. Question Number. Correct Answer is. Where are wing stations measured from?. Butt Line (BL). Option A. Question Number. Where is Zone 323?. manufacturer. Between rear spar and trailing edge. AWN 89. Explanation. maintenance engineer. Correct Answer is. . Option B. Correct Answer is. Water Line (WL). Zone Line (ZL). Option A. 51. Zone 324 is the tip of the vertical stab. Option A. Option C. a sprayed coat of conductive paint. Explanation. To prevent a system being affected by high current flows after a lightning strike to a composite aircraft. 49. electricity is discharged through. manufacturer. Explanation. electrically connected primary conductors. Airbus A320 AMM 06-20-00-00 shows zone 323 as between the front and rear spar of the vertical stab.Option A. Option C. but the fuselage centreline is 'technically' a buttock line of sorts. Option B. Option C. Option B. 50. operator. Between front and rear spar. Explanation.

Explanation. Option B. monocoque design. A structural member intended to resist compression is a. NIL. failsafe. Option B. Question Number. Correct Answer is. safe-life. Option B. Option A. Question Number. Option C. 55. . Option A. hogging. fatigued. sagging. Option C. If a redundant structure fails it becomes. Correct Answer is. 53. tie. An aircraft structure. 54. sagging. shedding. NIL. Wrinkling of the skin on the upper surface of the fuselage indicates. strut. Option A. failsafe. Question Number. fail-safe design. having multiple load paths. Correct Answer is. is known as a. Option C. Explanation.Question Number. 52. Option B. strut. Correct Answer is. Explanation. safe-life design. fail-safe design. web. NIL. Option A. Option C.

Torsion. Tension. a failsafe structure. Explanation. Shear. Option B. Explanation. Option A. Correct Answer is. Torsion. Compression. What are the four stresses to be considered when building an aircraft?. primary. water line. Option C. . a failsafe structure. Option B. A structure that has a high designed reserve strength would be classified as. Strain. Compression.Explanation. Question Number. 56. tertiary. Question Number. The measurement of the fuselage perpendicular to horizontal plane measured in inches from bottom of the fuselage is. A redundant structure is. Tension. Explanation. a safe-life structure. Torsion. NIL. Option A. 57. Tension. Question Number. water line. Stress. Torsion. Option C. 59. 58. Option A. Option A. butt line. Option B. NIL. Shear. NIL. on-condition structure. NIL. Question Number. Compression. Correct Answer is. Stress. Correct Answer is. Option C. fuselage station. Compression. Option B.

Option C. Option B. NIL. tension. The datum from which vertical locations refer. Option A. left wing tip. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. Option A. secondary. Airworthiness requirements for large aircraft are found in. tension. Explanation. centre line. . 63. Correct Answer is. shear. primary. The datum from which vertical locations refer. 61. nose. Question Number. A line below which redux bonding can not be used. An example of primary stress is. NIL. ANO 25. Option C. Option B. What is the water line?. 60. 62. Explanation. Option A. Correct Answer is. Question Number. tension. The datum from which vertical locations refer. NIL. Option B. Option A. centre line. Explanation. Lateral stations have station zero at the. Question Number. Option C.Option C. Explanation. Question Number. NIL.

CS 25. None is required. JAr25. 1. An Anthropomorphic Test Dummy (ATD) is strapped into a large aircraft forward facing seat.General Concepts. Correct Answer is. Soft rubber. JAR 25 is replaced by EASA Certification Specification CS 25. NIL. Explanation. JAR 25. Question Number. Explanation.562 (b) para 5. and if so to measure the force applied to the head in line with a specific Head Injury Criterion (HIC). to determine whether or not the ATD\'s head comes into contact with any structure or seat. Correct Answer is. and if so to measure the force applied to the head in line with a specific Head Injury Criterion (HIC). Option A. Option B. Question Number. It is put through a series of crash tests. What kind of seal is used on firewall bulkheads?. This is to. Option A. high strength and high ductility. 65. Option A. test the aircraft structure and seating mount points for structural integrity. Explanation. . Question Number.02b. high strength and high stiffness. 64. Option C. Option B. Option C. high stiffness and high ductility. to determine whether or not the ATD\'s head comes into contact with any structure or seat. Option C. 11A. high stiffness and high ductility. Fire-proof grommets. Diffusion bonding and superplastic forming provides. Option C.Option B. Correct Answer is. to measure the amount of force applied to the abdomen of the ATD to ensure it is not above 236 kg. CS 25. Option B. Airframe Structures .

Explanation. . help bonding of the topcoat. Option A. Explanation. Correct Answer is. 3. Option A. Option A. compression loads are taken by. Option B. solvent etch. Option B. The two processes in adhesive bonding is 'wetting and setting'. Prior to aluminium alloy bonding. 5. Option C. acid etch. provide shiny surface for the topcoat. Correct Answer is. Option B. Option C. stringers. Fire-proof grommets. 4. spreading and setting.1. A module 7 questions. Question Number. wetting and gripping. Option B.2. Correct Answer is. Phosphoric acid and chromic acid wash. bulkheads. The two stages in a good adhesive bond are.Correct Answer is. CAIPs BL/6-20 PAra. NIL. help bonding of the topcoat. provide flexible surface for the top coat. alkaline etch. Explanation. 2. Option A. Question Number. Option C. In semi-monocoque construction. Question Number. acid etch. The purpose of a primer is to. Explanation. we use. wetting and Setting. wetting and Setting. Question Number.

Which of the following statements is correct. Correct Answer is. frames. What opposes buckling in a semi-monocoque structure?. Option C. In a monocoque structure. PLI washers can only be used with self locking nuts and the washers should be used once. which component carries the majority of the loads?. Question Number. in relation to PLI washers used in critical bolted joints?. Option B. Explanation. Stringers. 6.5. Explanation. 2024.Option C.3. CAIPs AL/7. Option C.2 para 3. 7075. Explanation.6 (last sentence). Question Number. 9. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook 2-8. stringers. Explanation. Option A. Option B. PLI washers can only be used with self locking nuts and the washers should be used once. 2024. Option C. Most large transport aircraft skins are. providing they are used in critical bolted joints. Bulkheads. PLI washers can be affected by thread or nut friction or by lubrication. Option A. Question Number. 8. Correct Answer is. Question Number. Option A. . 7. Option B.4. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. PLI washers can be used more than once. Stringers. CAIP AL/7-2 para 2. 5056. CAIPs AL/7-8 Para 4. Frames.

Option A. Steel tape and spring balance. CAIPs BL/7-3.5 i. CAIPs AL/7-12 3. What material can be chromated as a protection against corrosion?. Option C. Cadmium plating. Longitudinal alignment method. Stringers. Cadmium plating. Option B. Aluminium alloys. Option C. A&P Mechanic Handbook Page 25-28.3. Correct Answer is. 12. Option B. Option C. Option A. Lateral alignment method. Question Number. Explanation. 11. Steel tape and spring balance. Correct Answer is. Longerons. Option B. Magnesium alloys. Explanation. Ferrous alloys. Option A. CAIPs BL/7-2. what method of measurement is normally used?. Question Number. Zinc plating. Magnesium alloys. Explanation. 10. Correct Answer is. Skin. Which anti-corrosive treatment is found on alloy steels?. Correct Answer is. Option B. Option C. . Skin.Option A. Nickel plating. When carrying out a symmetry check on a large aircraft. Question Number. Explanation.

because it is current.Question Number. and remove the shank with a metal punch. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. Option C. Explanation. should only be used once. We chose the former. chisel off the rivet head. 15. drill the head with a drill bit the same size as the rivet shank. metal with PVC coating and anti corrosive paint. metal with PVC coating and anti corrosive paint.1 says 'slightly smaller'. absorbent to soak up electrolyte. but CAIPs BL/6-29 para 10. chisel off the rivet head. and remove the shank with a metal punch. To remove a rivet. chisel off the rivet head. Pallett Page 24. Question Number. 14. drill the head with a drill bit slightly smaller than the rivet shank.1 says 'drill equal in diameter than that of the rivet'. Explanation. Option A. Correct Answer is. and remove the shank with a metal punch. chisel off the rivet head. . should only be used once. Option B. Battery trays are. Option C. Explanation. Option C. should only be used once. Option A. to seal the cabin. The primary purpose of sealant in use in pressurised aircraft is. drill the head with a drill bit the same size as the rivet shank. Option A. Paint remover substances. Question Number. are damaging to some aircraft parts. Aircraft Electrical Systems. and remove the shank with a metal punch.7. Option B. 13. metal for earthing purposes. Option B. are damaging to some aircraft parts. 16. Question Number. CAAIPs Leaflet 6-4 3. Option A.

jury strut. tear stopper. Question Number. Option B.Option B. Option C. according to separate manufacturer's documentations such as BAC. A bonded waffle doubler. to prevent corrosion. Option A. Option B. Option C. NIL. Option C.4). lubricate the collar. lubricate the shank and threads. Option A. Question Number.hi-shear. http://www. .htm. Explanation. Option A. to provide external streamlining. CAIPs AL/7-2 (crack stopper band fig. Option B. 17.com/content/aviation/14022/css/14022_156. When installing a 'Hi-lock' bolt. according to AMM and SRM chapter 51. Sealant or levelling compound is installed during structure repair:. Chapter 51 is General Practices. according to AMM and SRM chapter 51. Option C. Explanation. Explanation. 19. simply fit the bolt as they are prelubricated. Correct Answer is. What are the faying surfaces of a repair?.7 and http://www. also acts as a. Question Number. 3. shear tie. simply fit the bolt as they are prelubricated. 18. Correct Answer is. 20. according to SB instructions. it is necessary to.com/fasteners Question Number. to seal the cabin. as well as acting as a skin strengthener. tear stopper. Correct Answer is. CAIP AL/7-2 para. Explanation.tpub. Correct Answer is.

Question Number. NIL. Dissimilar metal fusion bonding is best for. Question Number. Option B. Option B. 15°C to 25°C and humidity above 60%. 22. Material under repair. Material under repair. BL/6-20 5. Edges of repair metal. 15°C to 25°C and humidity below 75%. Option A. Option C. Explanation. Option A. high strength high stiffness. Smooth contour of surface. Middle of repair. Option C. 23. . 21. So countersunk rivets do not need to be used. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. Option B.Option A. high strength high toughness. Option C. Correct Answer is. Question Number. Explanation. Open to interpretation. Correct Answer is. We have gone for 'material under repair' as the surfaces joined together. Explanation. Option A. Explanation. NIL. Added strength. Option C. Option B. The ideal conditions for paint spraying an aircraft are. high strength high stiffness. 20°C to 30°C and humidity below 70%. Smooth contour of surface. Why is a joggle joint used?. 15°C to 25°C and humidity below 75%. low strength high toughness.

To provide a smooth contour to surface. they can be ignored. Option B. When both sides of a structural repair are not easily reached. but the joggle does not provide the 'contour'. 26. Option C. Option B. Option A. Question Number. Hi lock bolt. Option B. Option C. What are the types of true bonded joints?. Option C. Mechanical and cemented. Option C. 24. With regard to extraneous spilt fluids. NIL. Blind rivet. Explanation. Correct Answer is. Pop rivet is not a blind fastener because the broken stem must be retrieved. . Question Number. Correct Answer is. Option A. Option A. To add strength. Mechanical and cemented. Option A. they provide extra protection. Mechanical and specific. they should only be cleaned up if they are on the external surface of the aircraft. 25. To provide a flush fit. Explanation. Why is a joggle joint used?. To provide a flush fit. Mechanical and specific.Question Number. NIL. Question Number. Correct Answer is. which type of fastener would you use?. Blind rivet. Pop rivet. Correct Answer is. Explanation. they may be harmful to the aircraft structure. they may be harmful to the aircraft structure. Option B. 27. Arguably c also. Explanation.

to slow its rate of propagation. A crack stopper is fitted. Option C. NIL. Remove all optional equipment. Correct Answer is. Option B. after a crack starts. 28. before a crack starts. before a crack starts.Question Number. 29. Question Number. cleats. Option A. What is the normal form of construction of a spar?. before a crack starts. Which of the following should be accomplished before jacking an aircraft?. Explanation. Two booms separated by a web. Determine the fuel tanks are empty. Option C. Two booms separated by a web. 31. . Option A. Option B. to slow its rate of propagation. Option C. 30. Option C. to prevent its initiation. Install critical stress panels or plates. Explanation. Question Number. Option B. Correct Answer is. Two webs separated by a boom. NIL. Skin panels may be strengthened by. Question Number. Install critical stress panels or plates. Option B. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. Option A. struts. Option A. stringers. Explanation. to slow its rate of propagation. NIL. One boom mounted under a web. stringers.

Option C. Option B. Option A. shares the loads. shares the loads. longitudinal fuselage members attached at each end to adjacent frames. Option A. NIL. Option C. NIL. Synthetic resins are made from nylon. skin. Question Number. Option A. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. takes all the loads in the skin. Question Number. 33. skin. Option B. One of the advantages of the semi-monocoque construction is that it. 32. In a fully monocoque fuselage. NIL. Explanation. acrylics. . asphalt. frames.Explanation. all the loads are carried by the. Question Number. Option C. longerons. vinyl and. compression ribs in cantilever wings. Explanation. vertical struts joining the upper and lower wings of a biplane. Explanation. NIL. Option B. acrylics. Option C. is easier to manufacture. 34. Option B. cellulose. Option A. 35. Question Number. Intercostals are.

longitudinal fuselage members attached at each end to adjacent frames. Option C. the battery compartment drain pipes will be. crack limiting joints. 38. . Joints that are designed to stop the propagation of cracks are known as. on the ramp with the aircraft on its wheels. Explanation. 39. NIL. stainless steel. an excessive fuel load on take-off. Option B. 36. failsafe joints. Explanation. Option B. 37. Explanation. a missed placed centre of gravity on landing. Option B. Question Number. If an aircraft has alkaline batteries. plastic. Option A. Option C. Question Number. Correct Answer is. secondary joints. Option A. failsafe joints. Option C. too much kinetic energy on landing. Option A. Correct Answer is. Option A. stainless steel. NIL. NIL. Correct Answer is. Question Number. too much kinetic energy on landing. Symmetry checks should be carried out. in the hangar with the aircraft on its wheels. An overweight landing is one in which the aircraft has. NIL. Question Number.Correct Answer is. aluminium alloy. Explanation. Option B.

Option C. Explanation. if they are located in the middle third of the length of the member. help bonding for top-coat. Option A. temperature. provide more aerodynamic finish for top-coat. help bonding for top-coat. NIL. Explanation. 42. The purpose of a wash primer and primer is to. Question Number. Option A. Option B. if the major axis of the dent is parallel to the tube axis irrespective of the location. NIL. Question Number. in the hanger with the aircraft on jacks. Jeppesen A&P Airframe Textbook. if they are located in the end thirds of the length of the member. 40. the visual indicator will indicate. . Correct Answer is. humidity. 41. humidity. Question Number. toxic gases. Explanation. Option A. in the hanger with the aircraft on jacks. 43. Option B. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. Option C. Explanation. Correct Answer is. Option C. The maximum permissible bow in a steel tube is. 1 in 600. Option C. When an item is cocooned. provide a flexible surface for top-coat. NIL. Option B. if they are located in the end thirds of the length of the member. Option A. Dents are generally not permitted in a tubular member. Question Number. page 6-8.

Cargo compartment depressurised. Explanation. Option B. Question Number. Question Number. Correct Answer is.Option B. Blowout panels are fitted to floors of pressurized aircraft to. Option A. CAAIPs Leaflet 6-4 p13. compression. provide access for pressurising the aircraft. Bending. Explanation. Question Number. Option B. provide venting should a differential pressure build up across the floor. Option C. Which loads do longerons resist?. stringers. cabin pressure caused floor to collapse.Aeroplanes . . 1 in 600. Airframe Structures . compression and tensile. compression and tensile. 1 in 400.1. Example DC10 Cargo door disaster. 45. provide access for pressurising the aircraft. Buckling in a semi-monocoque structure is prevented by. Torsional only. NIL. Option B. 1. Bending. Option C. Correct Answer is.03. 44. Blowout panels made compulsory thereafter. Explanation. 1 in 200. longerons. Bending. Option C. Correct Answer is. Option A. stringers. tensile and torsion. NIL. Option A. Explanation. provide venting should a differential pressure build up across the floor. Option C. Correct Answer is. 11A.Fuselage (ATA 52/53/56). bulkheads.

3. Option B. Option B. A cargo bay must have signs stating. but the weight is critical. Question Number. must be blanked off. Option C. Explanation. Usually. 5. Explanation. Correct Answer is. 2. pallet size is fixed. slight shrinkage due to age. Option A. larger coefficient of expansion than surrounding structure. Transport Category Aircraft Systems 9-3. Option C. maximum loadings. Option B. Acrylic windows must be able to flex in-situ because they have. Zone D Cargo compartment windows. 4. Acrylic has a thermal expansion approximately 8x that of aluminium alloy. Correct Answer is. Option A. no hazardous cargo. A fire zone in which a crew member could enter to fight a fire is. Option C. class E. Question Number. must be blanked off.Question Number. Option C. Option A. . are made from fire retardant Perspex. must have blinds pulled down. larger coefficient of expansion than surrounding structure. class A. Option B. Explanation. Option A. maximum dimensions. Correct Answer is. smaller coefficient of expansion than surrounding structure. maximum loadings. Question Number. class B.

1. Option C. Option B. Correct Answer is. Windscreen delamination is. . Explanation. Option A. Option B. 104°F. Option A. 104°F. windscreen peeling away from the airframe. 40°F. By door stops.1. 30°C to 50°C. 7. Option C. bubbling of the glass due to overheat. 8. 125°F. CAIPs AL/7-10 Para 5. Explanation. How are passenger door pressure loads transmitted to the fuselage structure?.1. 50°F to 70°F. Question Number. CAIPs AL/7-10 Para 6. class B. Question Number. 9. separation of the glass from the vinyl interlayer. separation of the glass from the vinyl interlayer. Explanation. What is the ideal storage temperature for windscreen panels?.Correct Answer is. 50°F to 70°F. 50°C to 70°C. CAIPs AL/7-4 Para 6. Question Number. Explanation. Transport Category Aircraft Systems Page 9-3 and JAR 25. which is 104°F. What is the maximum temperature of warm water which is used to clean dirty aircraft acrylic panels?. Option A.1 says 40°C. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. Option A. 6. Question Number. Option B. Option C.857.

10. Correct Answer is. . Option C. 12. Question Number. By the front legs while the back attachment provides anti rattle. Correct Answer is. 11. Option B.9. CAIPs AL/7-2 para 3. By the back legs while the front attachment provides anti rattle. PTFE. Option C. Explanation. aluminium. Both. Option C. How are passenger seats secured to the floor?. Correct Answer is.Option B. soft rubber. Under normal flight conditions which pane(s) take the differential pressure loads?. The back legs are secured as they have the upward load during a sudden stop. Explanation. soft rubber. By the pressure seal. NIL. By both front and back legs. A material commonly used for pressure bulkhead sealing is. By the back legs while the front attachment provides anti rattle. Question Number. Through the latching mechanism. Question Number. Option C. The inner panel has a small hole in it to let the pressure through to the outer panel. Option B. Correct Answer is. Passenger cabin windows are constructed with two panes and a seal between them. Explanation. Option B. Option A. Option A. Outer. Inner. Option A. Explanation. By door stops. Outer.

MEK. Option C. 14. Correct Answer is. the inner pane only.1. Option B. expansion of the metal due to heat. Acetone. Question Number. 13. Option A. the differential pressure can be taken by. Option A. galvanic corrosion of the metal. expansion of the acrylic due to heat. Explanation. to increase static strength. The purpose of the vinyl interlayer in window construction is. Which of the following is Perspex resistant to?. to improve on brittle behaviour. Kerosene. Option A. AL/7-4 para 4. Option B. Explanation. Option C. 16.1.3. AL/7-4 2. Option C. 15.Question Number. AL/7-10 3. both main panes. Option B. both main panes. Correct Answer is. Question Number. NIL. to enable inclusion of heater film. the scratch panel. Kerosene. allowance should be made for. expansion of the acrylic due to heat. Correct Answer is. Explanation. Correct Answer is. Option B. Option A. . In a pressurised aircraft cabin window. Question Number. When acrylic and sheet metal is joined together. Explanation. to improve on brittle behaviour. Option C.

2.783. The fatigue life of a pressure hull is based on. the blind down for flight. fire proof coatings. Explanation. the total number of pressurizations. fire proof coatings. 20. Question Number. Option B. Class D cargo bay windows require. Explanation. the seat backs fold forward at over wing emergency exits. Question Number. the number of negative differential pressure applications. Correct Answer is. Option A. Option B. Explanation. the number of explosive decompressions. the total number of pressurizations. the emergency exits are to be clearly signed. Option C. Option C. 18.1. Option B. On passenger aircraft of two or more zones.Question Number. Option B. double acrylic panels. . Option A. Option C. monolithic Nomex. Correct Answer is. AWN 80 Para. 17. Cargo bay panels are normally constructed from. Question Number. Correct Answer is. Option A. Correct Answer is. Fibreglass and resin. there should be at least one exit per zone. 19. Option C. Explanation. Option A. Fibreglass and resin.1. there should be at least one exit per zone.3 and 4. AL/3-23. NIL. Kevlar. JAR 25.

Option C. Explanation. Correct Answer is. Option C. Correct Answer is.Question Number. Option B. NIL. cleat. Option A. longerons. spars. Option B. are unpressurised. are pressurized. longerons. 22. . Option A. Correct Answer is. catches. 21. special attention should be given to the. undercarriage bays. 23. Option C. bulkhead. light microswitches. A partition within the aircraft's structure is called a. NIL. Option C. Question Number. Question Number. NIL. Option A. frames. The main longitudinal members in a fuselage are called. Correct Answer is. 24. In pressurized aircraft. Option A. are unpressurised. Option B. When inspecting stowage doors. Explanation. Explanation. Question Number. trim. may be pressurized or unpressurised. catches. bulkhead. frame. Option B.

stanchions. Explanation. rails. NIL. only carry pressure loads when the aircraft is at cruise altitude. stanchions. NIL. Question Number. one inch increments. Option A. 26. ant-ice and maintain strength and toughness. Seat track cutouts provide for various seat spacings. NIL. 27. never carry pressure loads. Option C. Option B. prevent misting and icing only. . Explanation. Option B. Question Number. usually in. Question Number. Option C. Option A. Option C. 28. Correct Answer is. Option C. 25. demist. Windshields are heated to. one foot increments. Option A. ant-ice and maintain strength and toughness. Option A. demist. Option B. Question Number. one inch increments. half inch increments. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. carry pressure loads. Explanation.Explanation. Option B. maintain strength and toughness only. The internal doors of an aircraft. NIL. Wall mounted flight attendant seats are fixed to. tracks.

never carry pressure loads. Option B.Correct Answer is. If heat is applied to the vinyl interlayer of an aircraft windscreen. Option B. Question Number. Methylated spirits. Correct Answer is. After installation of an acrylic window panel. MEK. not fully opened. NIL. Explanation. Option C. it may be operated. Methylated spirits. Question Number. NIL. protective paper and adhesive remaining on the panel may be removed by use of soap and water and. 29. Explanation. NIL. Correct Answer is. Option A. If an electrically operated cargo door lifting actuator fails. 32. NIL. be electrical ground power. Option B. not locked. . Question Number. manually by winding. Option C. Option A. Option C. A pressure door warning light illuminates only when the door is. not locked. Cellulose thinners. Correct Answer is. its ability to withstand impact will. by alternate actuators. locked. 31. Option A. Explanation. manually by winding. 30. Question Number. Explanation.

Correct Answer is. C. Option B.Option A. 34. the known slight shrinkage of the panel due to ageing. provision must be made for the relative movement of the panel and the frame for the reason of. Option B. Moisture drain valves in a pressurised fuselage. AL/7-4 2. Option A. 33. AL/7-2 3. Perspex is resistant to. Paraffin. Paraffin. Explanation.6 and fig 9. 35. Question Number. are open all the time to ensure the bilge areas are well drained. Option B. Acetone. Option C. Correct Answer is. Option A. NIL. the lower coefficient of expansion of the transparent panel when compared with the frame.3. the higher coefficient of expansion of the transparent panel when compared with the frame. decrease. Option B. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. increase. Question Number. Explanation. . Explanation. are open when the cabin is pressurised. Option A.C. NIL. Option C. Option C. the higher coefficient of expansion of the transparent panel when compared with the frame. Option C. are open when the cabin is depressurised. are open when the cabin is depressurised.T. Explanation. Question Number. When fitting a transparent plastic panel (acrylic) to a metal frame. not change. increase.

NIL. Question Number.Question Number. Option B. Option A. Option C. Explanation.6. 39. 38. Option C. On an inspection. AL/7-10 5. to ensure adequate ventilation of the underfloor areas. to equalise pressures above and below the floor after the loss of a cargo compartment door. Correct Answer is. Explanation. you are aware of vinyl bubbling. Option A. NIL. Only replace the window if the bubbling affects vision. Option B. Correct Answer is. Option B. from the inside.1. three structural panes. two structural panes. No action is required with this defect. Option A. Option A. NIL. 37. 36. Wide body transport aircraft have cabin floor vents. Passenger windows in jet transport aircraft normally have. Explanation. Correct Answer is. Replace the defective window. Question Number. . Explanation. Option B. Only replace the window if the bubbling affects vision. from the inside. from either side. Correct Answer is. What action is required?. Option C. Question Number. Option C. one structural pane. to provide access to class A cargo compartments in the event of fire. to equalise pressures above and below the floor after the loss of a cargo compartment door. two structural panes. A plug type window is fitted. from the outside.

Option C. spring pressure. Option B. always closed. NIL. Question Number. Drain holes in unpressurised areas are. Option C. Option B. Option C. 43. Question Number. Option A. from storage bottles. Class 'C' compartment. cabin pressurised air. either open or closed. Air is used to seal the cabin door in pressure cabins. always open. Class 'B' compartment. Explanation. cabin pressurised air. Option A. 40. Explanation. AL/7-2 3. Explanation. The source of this air is usually. . Option C. Option A. AL/7-2 3. Correct Answer is. cabin pressurised air. Class 'E' compartment. Option B. Question Number. rubber strips. Correct Answer is. Option B. Option A. Correct Answer is. A cargo compartment in which there is a separate approved smoke or fire detector system to give warning and means to shut off the ventilating airflow to the compartment is a. 41. cabin air pressure.6. cabin air pressure.Question Number.6. 42. Drain valves are normally closed by. always open.

Correct Answer is. Question Number. Correct Answer is. NIL. frames. Option B. Class 'E' compartment. the pressurisation cycles not including ground cycles.2. 1. Option C. 44. The life of a fuselage depends on. Correct Answer is. NIL. Option C. Question Number. Option B. 46. the pressurisation cycles excluding maximum differential. Option A.857 & Transport Category Aircraft Systems. A spar web will take loads in. Airframe Structures . Option A. . 'U' section. Question Number. Aircraft frames are constructed of. longerons. Option C. Correct Answer is. Explanation. Question Number. 45. 9-3. JAR25. 11A. NIL.Wings (ATA 57). Passenger cabin seat rails form part of the. I' section. Jeppesen. stringers. Option B.03. all pressurisation cycles.Aeroplanes . all pressurisation cycles. Explanation. Explanation. Explanation. Option A. 'Z' section. 'Z' section. longerons.

3. span 64 ft. spar cap. Option C. main spar. 2. span 64 ft. skin. mean chord 8 ft. span 8 ft. Option C. Correct Answer is. tension. takes bending and shear. The bending is taken by the booms (as compression-top and tension bottom) and the web takes the shear. mean chord 8 ft. Explanation. Option B. . span squared 64 ft... An aspect ratio of 8 could mean.Option A. Option A. Correct Answer is. Question Number. CAIPs AL/7-2 fig 2. swept-back wing. (Sometimes called a 'shear' web). mean chord 64 ft. chord 8 ft. Option B. shear. The main spar takes the wing bending and shear loads.. Correct Answer is. Option A. Option A. bending. usual airliner wing. Option B.. Option B. A cantilever wing is a. Correct Answer is. main spar. Question Number. Option C. Option C. 4. Explanation. Explanation. Aspect Ratio = span/mean chord. The spar as a whole. usual airliner wing. Question Number. Explanation. top wing of a biplane. Wing bending and shear loads are taken by. shear.

One that has external supporting struts. Correct Answer is. 12. Option A. spars. Question Number. Option B. fillet. NIL. One purpose of a rib is to. Fillet seal is the first coat. Option C.Question Number. One that has no external supporting struts. form the main lateral member in an aerofoil. Correct Answer is. 11. What is a cantilever wing?. maintain the correct contour of an aerofoils covering. ribs. Option A. One that folds for access to limited space. Option C. Option B. The principle load bearing members of the wing are. Explanation. Explanation. Option A. B737 ANN 28-11-00 page 811. Explanation. Option C. 9. brush coat. interfay. NIL. Option C. the 3 coats of sealant for repair fuel tanks leak are termed as fillet. support the bending loads on a fuselage. struts. spars. Question Number. 10. brush coat. maintain the correct contour of an aerofoils covering. . Option B. injection and prepack. Option B. Correct Answer is. Question Number. Option A. The final coat of sealing in a integral fuel tank is called.

Option C.uk/flightcontrols. wing upper skin. 15. Explanation. One that has no external supporting struts. NIL. front spar. slat track. A spar is tapered from root to tip because. a rib/spar joint. an area between two spar caps. Option C. slat track.Correct Answer is.b737. bending moment is greatest at the root. shear forces are greatest at the root. Airframe Structures . AL/7-2 para 4.03. Option B. NIL. Option A. Option C. 13. Explanation. a member between the spar and wing/fuselage connection. NIL.Stabilisers (ATA 55). bending moment is greatest at the root.htm 11A.Aeroplanes . 14.1. Option B. . Correct Answer is. Explanation. Question Number. The web of an 'I' beam takes mainly which type of load?. Option A. Question Number. Correct Answer is. Question Number. Correct Answer is. centre of lift occurs close to the root. Option A. Option B. 1. A spar web is. http://www. a member between the spar and wing/fuselage connection. Question Number.org. Explanation.3. A leading edge slat is attached to the.

Option B. Bending. longerons. skin panels. spar. 3. elevators. . ailerons. Tension. 4. which is done by lowering the trailing edge. 2. Question Number. stringers. Correct Answer is. spoilers. To correct for nose heaviness on an aircraft fitted with a variable incidence tailplane. rudder. Explanation. spar. the incidence of the tailplane would be. Shear. decreased. NIL. stringers. ailerons. Shear. spar. NIL. rudder. Question Number. rib. skin panels. rib. Option C. The four main structural items making up a horizontal stabiliser are. Option A.Option A. Option B. Option B. elevators. rib. rudder. stabiliser. stabiliser. spar. Correct Answer is. which is done by lowering the leading edge. Option B. Question Number. elevators. Correct Answer is. stabiliser. Option C. increased. Option A. rib. Option C. A 'web' always takes shear loads. decreased. Correct Answer is. Explanation. Explanation. bulkheads. The term 'empennage' incorporates. skin panels. NIL. which is done by lowering the leading edge. which is done by lowering the leading edge. Option A. Option C. decreased. skin panels. Explanation.

Option A. Elevators. Option A. Correct Answer is. Airframe Structures . directional stability about the normal axis. Option A. ailerons. Elevators. directional stability about the longitudinal axis. Correct Answer is. 11A. tabs. elevators. NIL. Question Number. Which of the following are primary control surfaces?. directional stability about the normal axis.03. Option C. NIL. Option C. 3. balance tab 1-23 -para 3. The fin helps to give. Option B. Explanation.Explanation. ailerons. rudder. Option B. Correct Answer is. . Option A. Roll spoilers. serves as a 'servo' system of balance. tabs. Explanation. will reduce aerodynamic loading. Aerodynamic balance. has same effect of the balance tab. 2. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook 1-22. 4.Aeroplanes . Explanation. rudder. 1. Option B. Elevators. Question Number. A&P Technician Airframe Textbook. roll spoilers. Construction such as horn balance and inset hinge balance installed on control surface assembly.4. Jeppesen 1-24 fig 1-59. Question Number. longitudinal stability about the normal axis.Flight Control Surfaces (ATA 55/57). has same effect of the balance tab. is meant to trim CG of control surfaces. Option C. Question Number.

Option A. . Option B. longitudinal axis. lateral axis. Question Number. Correct Answer is. servo tabs. Question Number. Option B. will cause CP to move towards the trailing edge and cause instability. The outboard ailerons on some large aircraft. Explanation. Correct Answer is. Explanation. Option A. Option B. are isolated at high speeds. Explanation. are isolated to improve sensitivity. are isolated at low speeds. Question Number. a horn balance. Flutter can be reduced by using. Option C. will cause CP to move towards the trailing edge and cause instability. NIL. NIL. 7. horizontal stabilizer. Option C. Explanation. lateral axis. 5. 8. An excess of aerodynamic balance would move the control surface centre of pressure. An elevator provides control about the. 6. NIL. Correct Answer is. mass balancing. Option C. Option A. NIL. will reduce aerodynamic loading. Option C. Correct Answer is.Option B. are isolated at high speeds. mass balancing. Question Number.

NIL. 11. Aileron. resulting in too much assistance. Explanation. rearwards. Option C. Option B. Explanation. 10. Option C. Option B. Option A. Correct Answer is. A flying control mass balance weight. NIL. forwards. tends to move the control surface C of G. 9. .Option A. resulting in loss of assistance. attach weights forward of the hinge line. Explanation. forwards. Correct Answer is. tends to move the control surface C of G close to the hinge line. Correct Answer is. The method employed to mass balance control surfaces is to. Question Number.close to the hinge line. allow the leading edge of the surface to project into the airflow. Option A. Question Number. Correct Answer is. Question Number. ensures that the C of G always acts to aid the pilot thus relieving control column load. keeps the control surface C of G as close to the trailing edge as possible. Option B. Elevator. resulting in an unstable overbalance. Rudder. Option A. attach weights forward of the hinge line. resulting in an unstable overbalance. Option B. What is attached to the rear of the vertical stabilizer?. NIL. Rudder. Explanation. NIL. rearwards. fit bias strips to the trailing edge of the surfaces. Option C. Option C.

Correct Answer is. assist the pilot in moving the control. high static friction in trim tab control tabs. A control surface is provided with aerodynamic balancing to. . Option A. Option A. Option B. NIL. by a horn at the extremity of the surface forward of the hinge line. Control surface flutter may be caused by. A 'frise' aileron is incorporated to. NIL. increase stability. equalize aileron drag in a turn. Option A. 15. Question Number. 13. Explanation. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 24 Para 7. Option C. by weights added to the control surface aft of the hinge line. provide aerodynamic balancing so assisting the pilot to move the control. assist the pilot in moving the control. Option B. by a horn at the extremity of the surface forward of the hinge line. equalize aileron drag in a turn. excessive play in trim tab attachments. decrease the drag when the control is deflected. Option B. Correct Answer is. Aerodynamic balance of a control surface may be achieved. Explanation. Option A. Question Number. Explanation. by a trimming strip at the trailing edge of the surface. Option C. Option C. Correct Answer is. Option B. excessive play in trim tab attachments. 12. incorrect angular movement of trim tabs. Correct Answer is. Option C. Question Number. ensure aileron control is retained at high angles of attack. Explanation. 14. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 24 Para 7.Question Number.

17. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 25 Para 7. Explanation. Option B. 18. is provided to. Question Number. NIL. Question Number. Correct Answer is. Option A. Option B. providing a portion of the control surface ahead of the hinge point. make the pilot aware of the aerodynamic forces encountered when moving the control. prevent control surface flutter. operated independently at which point in the length of cable the tensiometer is applied. providing a portion of the control surface ahead of the hinge point. Aerodynamic balancing of flight controls is achieved by. placing a weight ahead of the hinge point. The balance tab is an auxiliary surface fitted to a main control surface. Correct Answer is.2 . Correct Answer is. Option C. Option C. AL/3-24 para 4. Provide aerodynamic assistance for the pilot when moving the rudder. provide aerodynamic assistance for the pilot when moving the rudder. placing a weight in the leading edge of the control surface. operating automatically to assist the pilot in moving the controls. operating automatically to provide feel to the controls. 16. Option B. operating automatically to assist the pilot in moving the controls. Option A. Option C. Explanation. Explanation.Question Number. The extension to the rudder (shaded portion shown on the diagram). Option A.

Option B. make the flying controls easier to move. a rod projecting forward from the control surface with a weight on the end. give more feel to the control column. Question Number. Correct Answer is. the attachment of weights acting forward of the hinge line. Explanation. NIL. Explanation. Option C. Option B. The purpose of anti-balance tabs is to. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. Question Number. 19. Option B. prevent flutter of the flying controls.Question Number. 20. a rod projecting upward from the main control surface to which the control cables are attached. Option A. NIL. Explanation. fitting a balance tab. Option B. NIL. . a projection of the outer edge of the control surface forward of the hinge line. make the flying controls easier to move. A control surface is mass balanced by. A horn balance is. Correct Answer is. Option A. Option C. a projection of the outer edge of the control surface forward of the hinge line. Option C. 21. trim the aircraft. Option A. the attachment of weights acting on the hinge line. the attachment of weights acting forward of the hinge line. give more feel to the control column. Aerodynamic balance is used to. relieve stick loads. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 16 Question Number. Option C. 22. reduce the control load to zero. Explanation. Option A.

roll. Question Number. pitch. Option C.5. keeps the control surface C of G as close to the trailing edge as possible. Option B.Nacelles/Pylons (ATA 54). forged mounts and bolted to aircraft forged structure.03.Question Number. Explanation. Option A.Aeroplanes . Question Number. forged mounts and bolted to aircraft forged structure. Option A. NIL. tends to move the control surface C of G forward of the hinge line. engine. Option B. aluminium castings. . NIL. A pylon structural member supports the. Option C. centre section. Correct Answer is. Option A. 2. welded steel tubing. Airframe Structures . 23. Option C. Explanation. Question Number. tends to move the control surface C of G close to the hinge line. Correct Answer is. Explanation. Option A. 11A. yaw. A flying control mass balance weight. pitch. Correct Answer is. tends to move the control surface C of G close to the hinge line. Option B. 24. An elevator controls the aircraft motion in. Jet engines are usually mounted by. NIL. 1. Option B.

Correct Answer is. Turbo compressor. Used on air conditioning systems to supply air on ground. to control the flow to the cabin.Air Supply. Correct Answer is. Option A. Option B. 11A. Correct Answer is. Option A.04. Question Number. A spill valve opens. Explanation. . NIL. engine. to control the flow to the cabin. Which of the following can be used on the ground?. provide increased safety if the undercarriage collapses on landing. Explanation. to prevent an excessive pressure difference. CAIPs AL/3-23. Wing mounted podded engines and integral fuel tanks. Turbo fan.Option C. provide wing bending relief. Turbo fan. Turbo brake. Option A. Option B. 1. empennage. Option C. NIL. Correct Answer is. Option C. Explanation. Air Conditioning and Cabin Pressurisation (ATA 21) . Option C. reduce tailplane download.1. 3. Option B. Question Number. 2. to control the air from the cabin to outside. Question Number. provide wing bending relief. Explanation.

Option B. Explanation. Option B. hottest from an engine compressor bleed. Option B. Correct Answer is. 3.5 lbs per minute per person. Question Number. ensure that system differential pressure is not exceeded. AL/3-24 Fig. Correct Answer is. The function of an air mass flow control valve is to. Option A. AL/3-24 2.5. spill valves. BCAR Section D. Air supplied for pressurisation and conditioning is.3/2. The mass flow delivery from engine driven blowers is controlled by. automatic control devices. hottest from a compressor driven by an engine gear box. Option C. Question Number. Correct Answer is. engine speed variations. 0. Option C. 5. Option B. the same for both the above sources. . 4. 6. Option C. What is the minimum cabin air mass flow?. Option A. spill valves. Option A. hottest from an engine compressor bleed. Explanation. 3. control the airflow out of the cabin. Explanation. Correct Answer is. Question Number.Question Number. maintain a reasonably constant air mass flow into the cabin at all altitudes. 1 lbs per minute per person. maintain a reasonably constant air mass flow into the cabin at all altitudes. NIL. Explanation. 0. Option A. 10 lbs per minute per person.5 lbs per minute per person. Option C.

10. the warm air supply is provided by. The function of spill valves is to control. to spill overboard excess air delivered at S. Correct Answer is.L. maintain a reasonable mass flow of air into the cabin irrespective of aircraft altitude. In a Bleed Air air-conditioning system. Option C. Correct Answer is. Option B. the compressor of the gas turbine engine. the compressor of the gas turbine engine. Explanation. maintain a reasonable mass flow of air into the cabin irrespective of aircraft altitude. and lower altitudes. to relieve the pressure in the air supply ducting to atmosphere. Explanation. CAIPs AL/3-24 fig 3.Question Number. the engine exhaust heat. Option B. 7. Correct Answer is. ensure that constant airflow out of the cabin is dictated by cabin altitude. Correct Answer is. Question Number. Option B. Option A. the rate of pressurisation. air supply to the cabin. Option C. . Option A. CAIPs AL/3-24 fig 3. The purpose of a 'Spill' valve in a cabin air supply system is. to spill overboard excess air delivered at S. and lower altitudes. Option B. 9. Option C. Option A. cabin pressure differential. air supply to the cabin. The function of the mass airflow control valve is to. NIL. ensure system operating pressure is not exceeded. 8. Explanation. Question Number. Option A. to give a heating effect.L. Option C. the gas turbine exhaust. Question Number.

A refrigerant is used in which of the following?.2. 1. variable. Explanation. Explanation. 10 lbs/minute. Correct Answer is.831. Question Number. Whatever the captain sets. Option A. allow pilot to select the desired cabin altitude. ensure that a constant mass of air is delivered to cabin at all times. Question Number. NIL. 13. How much air is required for the Flight Deck?. ensure that a constant mass of air is delivered to cabin at all times. Air Conditioning and Cabin Pressurisation (ATA 21) . the amount of compressed air delivered to the cabin is. Option B. In most pressurization systems. reasonably constant irrespective of altitude. Option C. Option B. 11. Option A. ensure the cabin altitude remains constant during cruise at all altitudes. Option C.Explanation. Question Number. Air cycle machine. constant at any particular altitude but varies for different altitudes.04. Option C. 11A. 10 cubic feet/minute. depending on the amount selected by the cabin rate of change selector. The purpose of a mass flow controller is to. Question Number. NIL. Correct Answer is. reasonably constant irrespective of altitude. 12. Option A. Option B. NIL. Correct Answer is. JAR 25.Air Conditioning. Option A. . Explanation. 10 cubic feet/minute.

is a heat exchanger to superheat the vapour. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 16-30 or CAIPs AL/3-24 4. Question Number.com/content/aviation/14020/css/14020_106.Option B. 4. upstream of the turbine. 3. Option B. Option B. NIL. BCAR Section D6. downstream of turbine. In an air conditioning system. . Vapour cycle. Option C. Vapour cycle. Explanation. 120 feet per second. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. A water separator is located. Explanation. 5. Explanation.htm Question Number. Explanation. In typical vapour cycle system.tpub. delivers extra cooling effect when the aircraft is on ground. Option A. the sub-cooler. 2. Correct Answer is. http://www. downstream of turbine. 120 feet per second. is a heat exchanger to superheat the vapour. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 14-34. Question Number.2. Option A. cools the vapour further to prevent slugging. Pneumatic pump. Option C. Option C. downstream of heat exchanger. 40 feet per second. Question Number. Option A. 20 feet per second.3 fig 3. heat is added to air by. Option B. Correct Answer is. Option C. The velocity of air from the cabin ventilation system should not exceed.

Explanation. Pressure laws says Temperature is proportional to Pressure. Air exiting the compressor side of an ACM. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. Question Number. restricting duct outlets. Option C. Heat is added by varying the amount of compressor inlet air that bypasses the heat exchanger (Trim Air). CAIPs AL/3-24 Para 2. Option C. decrease the temperature of air.Option A. .2. no change in temperature or pressure as it is a centrifugal compressor. Explanation. drives compressor to increase temperature. restricting compressor inlet. Correct Answer is. Option B. will have increased pressure and temperature. Correct Answer is. will have decreased pressure and temperature. Option B. Option A. Explanation. Question Number. increase and decrease the temperature of air. Best answer we can get to a bad question. Option B. drives compressor to decrease temperature. Option C. Hence increase in pressure. The compressor is to INCREASE the temperature to increase the rate at which heat energy can be extracted. 8. Option B. Explanation. CAIP AL/3-24 para 4. Option A. Air conditioning systems. 6. Option C. drives compressor to pressurise aircraft.2 mentions pre-cooled air is compressed by action of compressor impeller and diffuser assembly. Question Number. increase the temperature of air. 7. An air cycle machine turbine. restricting compressor inlet.2. restricting compressor outlet. drives compressor to increase temperature. will have increased pressure and temperature. decrease the temperature of air. Option A.

Option C. Option B. At the inlet of the blower. the air goes through the. AL/3-24 Figure 3 (effect of the Spill Valve). At the inlet of the turbine. At high altitudes. At the outlet of the blower. Option A. Question Number. Option A. At the inlet to the cabin. CAIPs shows it at the outlet of the turbine (not one of the answers). Option B. B757 has an additional water trap at the inlet of the turbine. Option B. Option A. flow control valve. 10. Correct Answer is. At the outlet of the compressor. before distribution. AL/3-24 Figure 3. Question Number. TCV and mixer valve. In an air conditioning system.Question Number. TCV. Option C. It is not affected by altitude. Correct Answer is. Explanation. Option B. Question Number. Option C. Explanation. At the inlet of the turbine. Option A. At low altitudes. When does a 'blower' air conditioning system produce the most air?. Correct Answer is. It is not affected by altitude. Explanation. Option C. Where is the silencer located in a 'blower' air conditioning system?. 12. 9. Where is the water trap located in a bootstrap compressor?. At the inlet of the compressor. . 11. At the outlet of the blower.

In a cabin air recirculation system. NIL. reduce the air supply temperature. Option B. provide an emergency ram air supply. 15. 60% of fresh air. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. 16. 40% of fresh air. 60% of fresh air.Correct Answer is. varying cabin pressure. b737-400 amm ref 21-00-00 para 5b mentions TCV is located before distribution for pack temperature control for amount of hot air bypassing the Air Cycle Machine. Explanation. AL/3-24 4. reduce the air supply temperature. An air-to-air heat exchanger is provided to. Option C. Temperature control of cabin air is achieved by. Question Number. TCV. 40% of recirculated air. CAIPs AL/3-24 Fig 3. Option C. 14. Option B. regulating the amount of air by-passing the cooling system. b737-300 name the same valve as mixer valve. controlling the water vapour in the supply. 60% of recirculated air. Option A. Question Number. Option A. temperature conditioning is mainly achieved by. varying the ambient airflow to the heat exchanger. Explanation. Explanation. 13. Option A. regulating the amount of air by-passing the cooling system. Explanation. Option A. Question Number. 40% of recirculated air. In pressurized aircraft. Correct Answer is. recirculated air and fresh air are supplied in the proportions. Option B. 50% of fresh air. Question Number. Option C. increase the air supply temperature. 50% of recirculated air.2. .

17. 19. extracting heat from the pressurising air. Correct Answer is. reducing pressure and driving the units compressor. CAIPS AL/3-24 4. NIL. A cold air unit produces a drop in temperature by. air supply heated by the pressurising process. Heating for pressure cabins is obtained from. Explanation. Question Number. Heating for pressure cabins is obtained from.2. reducing pressure. 20. Correct Answer is. CAIPs AL/3-24 4. .Option B. adding heat to the pressurising air. Option A. A cold air unit allows for cabin temperatures to be. not affect the issue as it is automatically detected and vented overboard. Explanation. air supply heated by the pressurising process. Option A. driving the units compressor. contaminate the air. Question Number. Explanation. contaminate the air. Option B. an internal oil leak will. Correct Answer is. Option A. If pressurisation air supplies come from an engine compressor. driving the units compressor. Option B. AL/3-24 4. extracting heat from the pressurising air. Option C. Option B.2. Explanation. 18. Option C. reducing pressure and driving the units compressor. Correct Answer is. Question Number. Question Number. Option C. not contaminate the air. Option C.

air bled directly from engine or through blower. Explanation. a little more than ambient air temperature. Option C. same as ambient temperature. Option B. directing compressed air into a heat exchanger. bled from cabin air supply duct. this is an. Question Number. Correct Answer is. Cooling air for heat exchanger is taken from the ambient ram air which is control by varying opening of the ram air exhaust louvers. expanding hot air across a turbine which is driving a compressor. NIL. Option A. Ref B737-400 AMM 21-00-00 page 8. Option C. Question Number. ram air from ambient conditions. Explanation. 22. Option B.2. Explanation. When a 'muff' or air ducting is built around the engine exhaust system and air is directed around inside the muffler. Option B. In a turbo fan cold air system. 21. AL/3-24 3. ram air from ambient conditions. 23. Explanation. thermal heater. exhaust heater. Option C. Question Number. Correct Answer is. lower than ambient air temperature despite compression heating. the heat exchanger cooling air is. combustion heater. air supply to the cabin. despite compression heating. CAIPs AL/3-24 4. . exhaust heater.3. Correct Answer is. a little more than ambient air temperature. A cold air unit produces a drop in temperature by. Correct Answer is. expanding hot air across a turbine which is driving a compressor.Option A. Option A. Option B. Option A. Option C.

Option C. Explanation. temperature and pressure adjusted. Flap position switches. oxygen added. Option A. Option B. 26. Option B.P. Option A. Correct Answer is. When carrying out a ground pressure test. Option A. moisture removed. 60 percent. 27. The test involve both left and right engine. Option C. Question Number. and A. a G. Throttle switches. NIL. ground trolley and clean air.U. combination.U. Question Number. Explanation.Question Number. The ventilation air in the aircraft cabin must have a minimum humidity of. Question Number. Option A. 30 percent. 24. Option B. Correct Answer is. Conditioned air is. you should use the aircraft engines because you can test the whole. Ref AMM 21-00-05 page 201.P. NIL. Correct Answer is. the aircraft engines because you can test the whole system. the aircraft engines because you can test the whole system. temperature and pressure adjusted. Which of the following sometimes inhibits an air conditioning pack?. The ground pressure test is typically known as confidence check of airplane ability to maintain cabin pressure in flight on single pack operation for boeing term. Throttle switches. . Option C. 25. Explanation. Option B. Undercarriage switches.

B737 has the config where the air-conditioning air supply is taken from the pneumatic system which draw air from the 5th or 9th compressor stage of the gas turbine engine. 20 percent. The temperature within the cabin of the aircraft is normally maintained at. Option B. gas turbine compressor bleed air. In a Boot-Strap Air Conditioning supply system the source of compressed air is from. Option C. passed across an expansion turbine. gas turbine intake ram air. 18ºC to 24ºC. Correct Answer is. 18ºC to 24ºC. gas turbine compressor bleed air. 12ºC to 18ºC. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. Option C. the Left Pack operate at 24deg C and Right Pack at 18deg C. Option C. Option A. Option A. 30. Question Number. heat exchanger. the selectable range of temperature is between 18 and 29 deg C. Option B. Question Number. ram air at the wing leading edge.Option C. . 29. NIL. In a 'bootstrap' cooling system the supply of air is first passes across an expansion turbine. Option A. 20ºC to 24ºC. 28. Question Number. Ref AMM 21-00-00 page 8. then compressed and passed through a heat exchanger. NIL. Explanation. Explanation. Explanation. compressed then passed through a heat exchanger and across an expansion turbine. Option B. For alternate operation when all selectors to OFF. compressed then passed through a heat exchanger and across an expansion turbine. 30 percent. Correct Answer is. Explanation. B737-400 AMM ref 21-61-00 page 11. then directly to the.

Option A. Option C. or recharging a system which has been partly disconnected. by surface heat exchange in the C. Question Number. conversion of heat energy to mechanical energy in the C. Correct Answer is. 31. flush the system with a solvent. Question Number. 'before charging a newly installed system. Option B. Option B. be between 30% and 70%. Option A.U. The humidity within a passenger cabin should. Option A. pre-heat the system to 100°F. Option C. Option C.A. 25 ft/min. Explanation. The rate of flow of air from the punkha louvers should not be less than. conversion of heat energy to mechanical energy in the C.'.Question Number. not be less than 60%. Question Number. 34. apply suction to remove air and moisture. 200 ft/min.A.U. Before filling a vapour cycle cooling system. apply suction to remove air and moisture. .7(b) says. Explanation. Correct Answer is.A. Explanation. Correct Answer is. 300 ft/min. Option B. 25 ft/min. 32. Option A. be between 30% and 70%. Option C. 33. not be greater than 40%. Correct Answer is. by compression of ambient air across a turbine. NIL. One of the principles of cooling employed in an air cycle system is. all air should be evacuated IAW MM. Option B. CAIP AL/3-24 para 9. A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 770 Fig 16-34.U.

changing a liquid into a vapour. maintain human efficiency and comfort during flights at high altitudes. CAIP AL/3-24 figure 2. fan.2. . Option B. OR maintain human efficiency and comfort during flights at high altitudes. Option B. ensure that the air density within the cabin is maintained at a lower figure than outside the cabin in order to prevent moisture precipitation during rapid decompression. Option C. Correct Answer is. 36. In the case of a vapour cycle cooling. Option C. Correct Answer is. ensure that the air density within the cabin is maintained at a lower figure than outside the cabin in order to prevent moisture precipitation during rapid decompression. inter cooler or secondary heat exchanger. Option A. 35.Explanation. Question Number. Correct Answer is. An aircraft cabin is air conditioned and pressurized in order to. Subsequent to passing through the primary heat exchanger. Question Number. CAIP AL/3-23 para 2. thus increasing the fatigue life of the fuselage. Fan' is sometimes used to describe the compressor. the supply air in a turbo-fan cold air system flows to the. changing a vapour into a liquid. fan. 2) to provide a comfortable environment when flying at higher altitudes. ensure that the pressure within the fuselage is always less than the ambient pressure. AL/3-24 para 13.1 says 1) to maintain a safe cabin altitude relative to aircraft altitude. BCAR Section D. Explanation. Question Number. Explanation. Explanation. reducing the pressure of a vapour. Option A. Option A. Option C. changing a liquid into a vapour. system heat is removed from the charge air by.3. 37. turbine. Option B.

NIL. engine bleed air or blower air. temperature and humidity. vapour converts to a liquid. humidity. 40. ambient ram air. Question Number. When dissipating heat in a vapour cycle system. Option B. Explanation. Option A. Explanation. NIL. Option B. Option A. Option C. liquid converts to a vapour. International markings for air conditioning pipelines are. Correct Answer is. rectangles. Option C. vapour converts to a liquid. NIL. triangles. . Explanation. ambient ram air. the liquid sublimates. Option B. Question Number. 39. Correct Answer is.Question Number. Option C. Question Number. air bled from the main cabin supply duct. 41. temperature only. Correct Answer is. The effective temperature of a cabin is given by. thermal inertia and heat load. Explanation. The heat exchanger in a turbo-fan system is cooled by. dots. temperature. dots. NIL. Option B. Correct Answer is. Option A. Option A. 38. temperature and humidity. Option C.

Explanation. 11A. Correct Answer is. Question Number. smaller inlet area to outlet area). Option A. Option A.Pressurisation. Option A. restricting compressor outlet. Question Number. Air Conditioning and Cabin Pressurisation (ATA 21) . increase the pressure but decrease the temperature. on the ground. As an aircraft descends from cruising altitude (34. Option B. restricting duct outlets. decrease pressure and temperature of the charge air. 1. Correct Answer is. Option C. In an air conditioning system. . decrease. restricting compressor outlet. at high altitudes. Explanation.000ft). decrease pressure and temperature of the charge air.3. Question Number. restricting compressor inlet. 43. A cabin humidifier is operated. heat is added to the air by. NIL.Question Number. which is done via a centrifugal compressor (i. at low altitudes. 42. Explanation. Option C. not affect the charge air pressure. the cabin altitude must. Option A. Option B. at high altitudes. Option B. We think this is referring to the temperature rise in the ACM compressor. NIL. A turbo fan CAU used for air cycle cooling will. Option C. Correct Answer is.e.04. 44.

Option C. the cabin pressure to decrease. 3. Explanation. . If line leaks . Correct Answer is. Jeppesen A&P technician Airframe Textbook Page 14-20. Option C. Explanation. the cabin pressure to increase. the rate of pressurisation. cabin differential pressure. stay the same. Option A. Jeppesen A&P Airframe Technician Textbook Page 14-22. 2. Question Number. The purpose of the differential capsule in a pressure controller is to control. Option A. CAIPs AL/3-23. cabin air flow. valve will close. the cabin pressure to increase. The signal line between the controller and discharge valve is leaking. decrease. Explanation. The basic system of cabin pressurisation is to arrange a constant. cabin differential pressure. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 14-22. increase. Option C. Option B. Correct Answer is. Question Number. and cabin pressure will increase. Option C. Correct Answer is. Option B. 4. inlet and outlet. CAIPs AL/3-23. The discharge valve is opened by vacuum in the signal line. Option B. inlet and vary the outlet. Option A. Correct Answer is. it will not effect on cabin pressure. outlet and vary the inlet.Option B. Explanation. Question Number. inlet and vary the outlet. Jeppesen A&P technician Airframe Textbook Page 14-22. This will cause.

Correct Answer is. per min. Option C.Question Number. Option B. Question Number. 8. 500 ft. Explanation. Before carrying out a ground pressure check. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. the outflow valve will be fully open. With a pressurised aircraft at maximum differential pressure and a cabin pressure increase occurs. check all pitot and static lines are fitted. Explanation.3. check all pitot and static lines are fitted. let all pressurising air to be spilled overboard. the outflow valve will be shut. Option C. per min. CAIPs AL/3-23 Para 12. Option A. 7. the outflow valve will be fully open. let all pressurising air to be spilled overboard. Option A.5. Option A.. . have a constant mass flow. Question Number. the cabin pressure will be zero. let pressurisation to be switched off until leaks cause a drop in pressure. per min. 300 ft. 6. Option C.13. Question Number. 5. On touch-down of aircraft. turn on all instruments.2. A comfortable rate of cabin altitude climb for passengers is. Option B. Option A. Option B. 500 ft. Explanation. the differential capsule in the pressure controller will. CAIPs AL/3-23. per min. 100 ft. CAIPs AL/3-23 para 4. Correct Answer is. Option C. Option B. set altimeter to QNH.

Setting QFE is for the automatic control of the valves. 12.3. 11. Option B. set QFE. internal doors. aircraft altitude. Option C. it is necessary to. B737 Pressurization system senses the air-ground sw and the toggle sw FLT-GRD in the cockpit control. Correct Answer is. Prior to conducting a ground pressurisation test. Option A.4. cupboards etc. Upon touch down. all closed. all open.Explanation. cabin differential pressure. 9. Correct Answer is. Explanation. AL/3-23 12. Question Number. Before touch down. Option B. Question Number. Option A. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 14-23. In the flightdeck of a pressurised aircraft. Purpose to prevent rapid pressure bump. cabin differential pressure. Correct Answer is. all open. Option B. cabin pressure altitude. Cabin differential pressure is the pressure difference between. When pressurising the aircraft on the ground for test purposes. controller commands signal to close the discharge valve to 200ft below landing field elevation. controller drives discharge fully open. . there is a gauge that shows. Explanation. must be. 10. reset/disable the pressure controller. at RD position. Option C. Question Number. Option C. disconnect the emergency pressure relief valve. reset/disable the pressure controller. Explanation. Question Number. removed. Option A. The pressurisation system must be controlled manually.

Correct Answer is. Option B. Explanation. the pressure inside the aircraft and the ambient air pressure. Option B. Question Number. Option A. Cabin pressure is maintained by. if the engines are shut-down. Question Number. cabin remains at sea level untill maximum differential. During a pressurisation check at maximum differential. cabin ROC indicator gives indication of cabin seal efficiency. NIL. Option A. sea level air pressure and indicated dynamic pressure in the cabin. Correct Answer is. Option A. Option C. Option B. If the pressure controller is set to 0 ft. controlling the supply of air to the cabin. . 13. 14. NIL. Correct Answer is. maximum differential is reached immediately after take-off. Option C. Explanation. cabin ROC indicator gives indication of cabin seal efficiency. outflow valve opens immediately. Option C. Question Number. controlling the amount of air discharged from the cabin. 8. Explanation. Explanation. controlling the output of the compressor. controlling the amount of air discharged from the cabin. cabin will not pressurise. Option C. cabin will not pressurise. 15. NIL. the pressure inside the aircraft and the ambient air pressure. aircraft remains pressurised until the dump valve opens.000ft and standard barometric pressure. Correct Answer is. Option B. NIL.Option A.

Question Number. Option A.O.O. Correct Answer is.000 ft and sea level. 16.C.C. Correct Answer is. Option B.A.O. the differential pressure is constant. Question Number.C.C. Question Number. cabin pressure and ambient pressure. is less than ambient R. CAIPs AL/3-23 fig 2. Option A.O. most important in descent. warning lights. 8.O. Option B. most important in ascent. Option A. is less than ambient R.C. Explanation. Explanation. I. 19. Option C. the cabin R. Explanation. Option A. equally important in descent and ascent. Option C. Explanation. a double scale on the aircraft. a special instrument. 18. a double scale on the aircraft. CAIPs AL/3-23 Fig 3. Option B. cabin pressure and ambient pressure. Correct Answer is. is more than ambient R.O. CAIPs AL/3-23 fig 2. Option C. Correct Answer is.S. During normal pressurized climb following take-off. Cabin differential pressure is the difference between.C. conditions and aircraft altitude. Option C. the cabin R. CAIPs AL/3-23. Cabin rate of climb is shown by. . Question Number. the cabin R. most important in descent. Control of rate of change of cabin pressure is. 17. Option B.

pressure controller/dump valve combination. 23. and is at constant level (altitude) the system allows for. Option A. pressure controller/discharge valve combination. pressure controller/discharge valve combination. cabin pressure gauge. Correct Answer is.S. Option C. NIL. diff. When an aircraft has reached max. Option C. altitude at which cabin altitude equals outside air pressure. Option B. The control of ventilating and pressurising air released to atmosphere is achieved by a. 22. constant mass flow. CAIPs AL/3-23 fig 21.S.I. Option A. Option C. Correct Answer is.S. altitude corresponding to cabin pressure irrespective of the altitude for the aircraft. Question Number. Option A. cabin V. pressurisation to be switched off until leaks cause a drop in pressure. cabin V. Correct Answer is. Explanation.I. altitude corresponding to cabin pressure irrespective of the altitude for the aircraft. Question Number. discharge valve/inwards relief valve combination. 20. 21. Option C. Cabin altitude in pressurized flight is the. Rate of change of cabin pressure is most noticeably shown on a. pressure altitude of the cabin as corrected to mean sea level I. all pressurising air to be spilled overboard.A. conditions. Option B. Option B. Explanation.Question Number. Explanation. CAIPs AL/3-23 fig 3. Option A. Explanation. cabin altimeter. Question Number. CAIPs AL/3-23 9. Option B. Correct Answer is. constant mass flow. .

pressure controller should be adjusted. Pitot' and 'Static' lines during a cabin pressure test should be. Option A. Option B. discharge valve opens. discharge valve should be adjusted. Option B.000 ft. 25. at operational altitude the cabin altitude is below 10. Explanation.000 ft. Correct Answer is. mass flow ceases through the cabin. CAIPs AL/3-23 12. . Option C. 26.5. pressurisation does not start before aircraft is above 8. Option B. Correct Answer is.000 ft. Option A. pressure controller should be adjusted. Option C.2 iv. 24. connected. at operational altitude the cabin altitude is below 10. connected. Correct Answer is. CAIPs AL/3-23 Para 10. Question Number. CAIPs AL/3-23. discharge valve closes. Explanation. disconnected. the cabin is always maintained at sea level. Option C. Option C. Explanation. cross connected. 27. discharge valve opens. Pressurisation control ensures that. If the cabin pressure fails to reach its maximum cabin pressure differential the. Question Number.Question Number. Option B. Question Number. Option A. Correct Answer is.2.2. When the aircraft has reached its maximum cabin pressure differential the. discharge valve should be adjusted. Option A.

No. Option C. A cabin pressure air leak from the front of the fuselage is. Option B. 30.2.2. Pressure relief valve. Would you operate the flying controls during a cabin pressure ground test?. most desirable because it increases the air-flow. Pressure discharge valve. Pressure discharge valve. Occasionally. NIL.3. Option C. Option A. Option A. Question Number.9. AL/3-23 12. whilst the aircraft climbs to altitude. Explanation. Explanation. AL/7-11 3. Option B. Option B. cabin altitude climbs eventually to that of the aircraft. The principle of cabin pressurisation is. Correct Answer is. AL/3-23 12. Option A. Option A. Correct Answer is. Yes.10. Question Number. 29. 31. Question Number. Pressure regulator controller. 28.Explanation. Option C. Option C.3. the cabin climbs to a lower altitude. most undesirable because of the drag created. cabin altitude will always maintain a constant differential to that of aircraft altitude. not effective in any way. Question Number. . Correct Answer is. Explanation. most undesirable because of the drag created. Yes. Which component must be isolated when carrying out a ground cabin pressure test?. Option B.

The cabin altitude is. . If cabin height is set lower than airfield height when the aircraft is on the ground with squat switches overridden. all pressurized air is spilled to atmosphere. 33. Option B. NIL. Option B. Option A. regulating the position of the outflow valve. 35. Explanation. Question Number. NIL. the pressure system ceases to function until the cabin pressure is reduced. Explanation. Correct Answer is. constant mass airflow is permitted through the cabin. Option C. Correct Answer is. remain closed. regulating the mass flow into the cabin. Question Number. the cabin climbs to a lower altitude. regulating the position of the outflow valve. Question Number.Correct Answer is. Option A. the difference between cabin pressure and atmospheric pressure. not operate. Explanation. whilst the aircraft climbs to altitude. Option A. Correct Answer is. NIL. Explanation. then the outflow valve will normally. Option A. 32. Cabin pressure controller maintains a pre-set cabin altitude by. NIL. 34. Option C. regulating the position of the inward relief valve. When the cabin differential pressure has reached the required value and the height is maintained. Question Number. Option B. Option C. open. remain closed. constant mass airflow is permitted through the cabin.

Explanation. the outflow valves. remains constant. the dump control valves. . Option B. Option C. the equivalent height of the aircraft above sea level. Question Number. increases. the oxygen content.Option B. Option A. Correct Answer is. 37. CAIP AL/3-23 para 5. the vent valves. Correct Answer is. Explanation. Correct Answer is. 36. Option B. the actual height of the aircraft above sea level. the outflow valves. Option A. NIL. The cabin differential pressure is. the equivalent height of the aircraft above sea level. Your interpretation of the question may differ. The outflow of air from the cabin is regulated by. Question Number. Explanation. the actual height of the aircraft above sea level. the equivalent height of the aircraft above sea level. Option C. NIL. Option C. Option B. increases. but NOT as a percentage of the other gases in air. Option A. the difference between cabin pressure and atmospheric pressure. decreases. 38. the difference between cabin pressure and atmospheric pressure. Explanation. Question Number. Correct Answer is.1. Oxygen content increases as mass per unit volume. Option C. When air is pressurized.

Option A. Correct Answer is. Question Number. Option B. If cabin pressure is increasing. 8000 feet cabin conditions will be maintained at aircraft altitudes above 8000 feet. the atmospheric pressure decreases more quickly than the cabin pressure.000 ft is reached. the cabin rate of change indicator will show. Explanation. Rate of change of cabin pressure is. If an altitude of 8000 feet is selected on the cabin pressure controller and provided maximum cabin pressure differential is not exceeded. Explanation. selected by the pilot and controlled by the pressure controller. selected by the pilot and controlled by the pressure controller. Option A. 41. Option B. Option C. the pressurization system does not control pressure until 10. NIL. provided the rate of change is within the normally accepted limits. Explanation. . a rate of descent. zero. Correct Answer is. 8000 feet cabin conditions will be maintained at all aircraft altitudes from sea level. Option C. AL/3-23 Fig 2 Pg 3. NIL. Option A. During a normal climb from aerodrome level with the pressurization system 'ON'. 42. Option C. 39. Question Number. automatic. NIL. the atmospheric pressure decreases more quickly than the cabin pressure. Explanation. selected by the pilot and controlled by the spill valve. Option B. Option C. sea level cabin conditions will be maintained to 8000 feet aircraft altitude. Correct Answer is. Option B. Option A. 8000 feet cabin conditions will be maintained at aircraft altitudes above 8000 feet. a rate of descent.Question Number. 40. the cabin differential pressure is maintained constant. Question Number. Correct Answer is. a rate of climb.

5 PSI at cruising altitude. 8. 43. Option C. 11.Question Number. Explanation. 46. the height at which the aircraft is flying and by the selected cabin height. Explanation. 44. Option B. the cabin pressure would. Option A. the selected cabin height. Option A. Option B. Question Number. Option B. Question Number. Cabin differential is determined only by. An aircraft has a maximum differential pressure of 8. A silencer is installed in a pressurization system to reduce. the noise from the high speed of airflow within the system. Correct Answer is. NIL. remain at ground level pressure. decrease to a pressure equivalent to 8000 ft.9 PSI. the pressure inside the cabin at cruising altitude would be. Option C. whilst taxiing and activated the pressurization system. Option C.4 PSI. decrease to a pressure equivalent to about 500 ft.5 PSI. remain at ground level pressure. Correct Answer is. Question Number. the noise from the blowers and/or compressors in the system. Option A. 45. . Correct Answer is.5 PSI. 11. Option A. the height at which the aircraft is flying. If the ambient pressure is 2. Explanation. 8. Option B. the height at which the aircraft is flying and by the selected cabin height.4 PSI. NIL. AL3/23 Fig 2. If the pilot selected a cabin height of 8000 ft.

Option A. Explanation. Option C. engine noise coming through the ventilators. the pressurization ensures that. Question Number. the noise from the blowers and/or compressors in the system. the cabin pressure is equivalent to an altitude of less than 10. Option A. The pressure controller activates. NIL. Option C. 50. If an aircraft is operating at 40. the flight altitude set on the pressurization control panel may be 500 ft. when cabin pressure is decreasing. Option B. particularly. sea level pressure is maintained in the cabin. Explanation. Question Number. 48. Correct Answer is. Option B.000 ft. Option A. the blower or compressor. A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Chapter 14-20 lh column last para. .5. Explanation. during descent. the cabin discharge valve.Option C. AL/3-24 fig 3 and para 2. during descent. Question Number. Correct Answer is. To avoid discomfort. Option C. the rate of change of pressure should be low. more than the actual flight altitude so as to prevent.000 ft. Explanation. Question Number.000 ft. 47. the cabin pressure is equivalent to an altitude of less than 10. the cabin discharge valve. during ascent. the spill valve. 49. Correct Answer is. the cabin pressure is progressively increased until the operational height is reached. Option B. NIL. When cruising near the operational ceiling. Correct Answer is.

outflow valve position. Explanation. inward relief valve position. pressure controller hunting. The cabin rate of climb is shown. 53. Explanation. Correct Answer is.Option A. Option B. Cabin pressure controller maintains a particular cabin altitude by control of. Option A. Option A. Option A. extract surplus water from the charge air. Option C. Correct Answer is. collect any rain accompanying the ram air. Option C. Explanation. 51. outflow valve position. Question Number. a gauge being used. 52. inward relief valve operation. extract surplus water from the charge air. by a differential scale on the aircraft rate of climb indicator. on a specific indicator. NIL. pressure controller hunting. NIL. Option C. Correct Answer is. . Option C. Option B. Question Number. on a specific indicator. Option B. safety valve operation. Question Number. Option B. A water separator would be installed in a pressurization system to. NIL. as being inside or outside limits by green and red lights. Explanation. cabin mass air flow. extract water from the cabin air before it is discharged to atmosphere. Correct Answer is. NIL.

Safety and warning devices. CAIPs AL/3-23 para 4. bellows in the outflow valve. by. Option B. Option C. A cabin altitude is protected against reaching an altitude of 13. 1.4. rapid aircraft depressurisation. After cooling below 300°C it auto resets. Question Number. how is the heater reset?. Explanation. Option C. Correct Answer is. altitude sensor. Air Conditioning and Cabin Pressurisation (ATA 21) . Option B. Explanation. Option C. Option C. . 54.Question Number. after an overheat.000 ft. Correct Answer is. If the cabin altitude increases above the normal maximum. NIL. On ground only by engineer. Option A. closing all valves and inlets. Explanation. deploying life rafts. Question Number. On an aircraft employing a heater system on the air conditioning system. Correct Answer is. Option B. CAIP AL/3-23 para 7. 3. Ditching control is used for.04. 2. a warning light comes on in the cockpit.4. altitude sensor. Option B. an inward relief valve opens. Option A. closing all valves and inlets.4. compressor delivery is automatically boosted. 11A. After it cools the pilot resets. Question Number. Option A. a warning light comes on in the cockpit. Option A. cabin over pressure relief valve.

Option A. close the outflow valves. Explanation. CAIPs AL/3-23 6. increase ventilation. Question Number. Question Number. 4. . Correct Answer is.2 p. 7.i. achieve rapid depressurisation. Option B. Explanation. Option B. Inward vent valves will operate when. close the outflow valves. 5. Explanation. maintain cabin pressure at sea level.s. Option B. Ditching control is used to. Inward vent valves are fitted to. 1. Correct Answer is. cabin altitude exceeds aircraft altitude. Option C. CAIPs AL/3-2 fig 5 item Y. limit negative differentials. Question Number.s. Option A. Explanation.5 p. CAIPs AL/3-23 6. A&P Technician Airframe pg 14-30 under Safety Features. Inwards relief valves usually open at a negative differential pressure not exceeding. Option A. aircraft altitude exceeds cabin altitude. cabin altitude exceeds aircraft altitude. limit negative differentials. 0. depressurising after descent. limit positive differentials. Correct Answer is.i. Option B. CAAIPs Leaflet 5-2. Question Number.2. Option A. 6.2. On ground only by engineer.Correct Answer is. Option C. Option C.

to achieve maximum pressure differential. NIL. Option A. airport altitude selectors. safety relief valve. NIL. Option B. safety relief valve. Correct Answer is. Option C.5 p. Option A. Both position. Explanation.1.16 p. 9. Closed. 0. Explanation. Question Number. inwards relief valves. A safety valve will normally relieve at. Question Number. 11. Option C. Explanation. 0. Option C. Question Number. Correct Answer is. CAIPs AL/3-23 6. Option B. Correct Answer is. 10. . To what position is the inward relief valve spring loaded?. CAIPs AL/3-23 Para 5. Correct Answer is. Question Number.s. Open. Option A. Inward relief valves are interconnected in pressurized aircraft. lower differential pressure than the discharge valve. to allow controlled pressure during descent. Closed.i. Option B.Option C. Option A. to relieve cabin pressure and allow outside pressure to be greater.i. 8. Failure of the normal maximum pressure differential control is allowed for by fitting. to allow controlled pressure during descent. Explanation.s.

Option C. Explanation. NIL. Correct Answer is. a spill valve. an inward relief valve. Option C. The inward relief valve is usually set to operate at a cabin differential of. Option A. NIL. Correct Answer is. Question Number. Question Number. A negative differential pressure is prevented by. Question Number. after an aircraft has landed. -0. when cabin pressure is lower than ambient pressure. negative differential pressure.5 PSI. 14. +9. Option B. when climbing with pressurization OFF. Option C. Correct Answer is. An inward relief valve will operate. +0. Correct Answer is. Option C. Option A.25 PSI. higher differential pressure than the discharge valve. -0. Option B. when cabin pressure is lower than ambient pressure. . Explanation. Explanation.5 PSI.2. a blow off valve. higher differential pressure than the discharge valve. an inward relief valve. Option B.Option B. to restore ground level conditions is the cabin. 13.5 PSI. AL/3-23 6. Option A. NIL. Explanation. 12.

a high negative differential pressure. Explanation. Instruments/Avionic Systems . cabin safety relief valves. Option B.2.Question Number. Option B. the aircraft's indicated altitude is above decision height. NIL. 16. VSI. 2. Question Number. AL/3-23 6. inwards relief valve. Option C. Explanation. forces which would cause the aircraft to explode. Option C. Question Number. NIL. VSI. Explanation.1. Option B. the decision height is selected. Option C. 1. Correct Answer is. too high an internal pressure. 11A. the aircraft's indicated altitude is below decision height. cabin safety relief valves. 15. spill valves. . Correct Answer is. Option A. An inward relief valve is installed in a pressurization system to ensure that the pressure hull of an aircraft is not subjected to. Machmeter. a high negative differential pressure. Option A. Option A. The decision height light will illuminated when.Instrument Systems (ATA 31).05. Option A. Question Number. Option B. ASI. Option C. Failure of the normal maximum differential pressure control is catered for by. Correct Answer is. Which of these barometric instruments uses a restrictor to compute its output?.

Option B. Question Number. Option A. static pressure only. Altitude Module. In a Central Air Data Computer (CADC) system. In a Central Air Data Computer (ADC). the aircraft's indicated altitude is below decision height. Explanation. Option C. Altitude Module. Question Number. . Option C. Option A. NIL. Correct Answer is. Explanation. In a Central Air Data Computer. Option A. Question Number. Correct Answer is. indicated air speed and total air temperature. Option B. Mach information is derived from. 3. static air pressure. Question Number. altitude is produced from. Correct Answer is. indicated airspeed and altitude. Indicated Air Speed (IAS) is produced from. pitot and static pressures. pitot air pressure and total air temperature. Indicated Airspeed Module. Option A. 5. pitot pressure only. Mach Module. 6. pitot air pressure. Explanation. In a Central Air Data Computer (ADC). the rate of climb of an aircraft is produced in the. indicated airspeed and altitude. NIL. Option C. 4. NIL. Decision Height comes on at Decision Height and remains on as aircraft descends to landing. Option B. Explanation.Correct Answer is. Option B. static air pressure.

Correct Answer is. Explanation.500 ft. 7. Option C. 8. Option A. Option A. Altimeter. Air speed indicator. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. Jeppesen Avionics Fundamentals Page 223. Track altitude in a radio altimeter system begins at. NIL. 10 000 ft radio alt. Correct Answer is. An ECAM system is tested under the following conditions:-. vertical speed indicator. Option A. Explanation. Option C.000 ft. Option B. pitot and static air pressure. Which instrument are most likely to damage if you have a rapid drop in pressure. 2 500 ft radio alt. Altimeter. pitot and static air pressure. 10. 9. . 2 500 ft radio alt.Option C. 2. Option B. Question Number.500 ft. Question Number. Question Number. Option B. 500 ft. 2. Option C. Question Number. Explanation. Explanation. 1 000 ft radio alt. 10. when carrying out a pitot-static leak check?. Altimeter is most sensitive to rapid pressure changes. What is the maximum radio altimeter track altitude?. NIL.

Altimeter. Correct Answer is.ne. The runway heading is. Aircraft in the air with both engines running. Option B. tan of latitude. cos of latitude. cos of latitude. QFU. Question Number. Correct Answer is.tky. QDR. Explanation.html Question Number. Option C. when carrying out a pitot-static leak check?. http://www2. Option C. Explanation.3web. Air speed indicator. Correct Answer is. Apparent drift of a vertical gyro is a function of. Option A. Explanation. . Which instrument are most likely to damage if you have a rapid drop in pressure. Pallett Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems Page 103. Altimeter is most sensitive to rapid pressure changes. Option C. vertical speed indicator. 11. Aircraft on the ground with parking brake set/on. sin of latitude. Explanation.jp/~jahfa/kokuningen/Q. Correct Answer is. Altimeter. 13. QDM. Option B.Option A. NIL. Option C. Aircraft on the ground with one engine running. Option A. QFU. Pallett Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems Page 391. Question Number. Aircraft on the ground with parking brake set/on. Option B. Option B. 12. Option A.

. Option C. Rectification is to. Question Number. Explanation. Option C. Angle of attack.Question Number. Move probe up. Option C. 17. Option B. Option C. move probe up. Option A. Option B. Option B. Accelerometer. Option A. always. so it operates sooner. Option A. Option A. Question Number. Explanation. Correct Answer is. HIS. Where is alpha angle used?. Angle of Attack alarm is sounding too close to stall. Question Number. ADI. move probe down.Pallett Page 73. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. Explanation. EICAS. Correct Answer is. Option B. closer to the Leading Edge stagnation point. move probe up. above 10. always. IRS. Aircraft Instrument and Integrated Systems . 16. 15. always except on the ground.000 ft. Explanation. 14. move probe laterally. Pallett Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems Page 45. Aircraft Electricity and Avionics (5th Edition) Eismin Page 358. Radio marker information is displayed on. Angle of attack. ADI. A machmeter works.

1013. Option B. Option B.Question Number. NIL. 18. In Airways flying. Correct Answer is. Vibration monitoring signals are sent. via a signal conditioner to the gauge. Inner gimbal. 1013. Option C. . Correct Answer is. 1013. QFE. Explanation. carry out a check swing after fitment. Rotating vane. via a half-wave rectifier to the gauge. Option B. Option A. Question Number. Option A. A & P Technician Airframe Textbook Chap III page 592. fit the serviceable pre indexed flux valve into the same position as the unserviceable pre-indexed flux valve was removed from. Correct Answer is. Question Number. Question Number. NIL. Option A.25 mb or QNE. Where is the spinup/rundown brake on a gyro instrument?. Explanation. On replacing a pre-indexed flux valve you would. align the aircraft onto its A coefficient so that no error is induced.25. Explanation. Inner gimbal. 19. what is the barometric scale of the altimeter set to?. fit the serviceable pre indexed flux valve into the same position as the unserviceable pre-indexed flux valve was removed from.25. Option C. 21. Inner gimbal. Option B. Option C. QNH. 20. Option A.

Question Number. The restriction is to damp out surges in pressure. Option B. Option A. prevent FOD ingestion. Option A. via a signal conditioner to the gauge. zero and positive. The hot junction of thermocouple is. The hot junction is the sensor. in the instrument.Option C. reaches 2. This is to.500 ft. The 5 inches Hg refers to the 'suction' from ambient. Explanation. 25. Question Number. ambient and minus. Jeppesen Aircraft Instruments and Avionics Page 90. 24. dampen sudden pressure changes. Question Number. Correct Answer is. aft of the combustion chamber. Explanation. what happens to the display?. direct to the gauge. alt. Correct Answer is. Option B. This is from. aft of combustion chamber. Option C. Option C. ambient and minus. . Option C. Correct Answer is. Explanation. 22. in the combustion chamber. aft of combustion chamber. prevent FOD ingestion. Error warning in view. The vacuum system gauge reads 5 inches of mercury. When a rad. Option B. dampen sudden pressure changes. Option A. 23. Explanation. Question Number. Correct Answer is. Option A. zero and positive. A direct reading Bourdon gauge has a restriction in the inlet.

by kinetic heating. The suction gauge reads 5 inches of mercury. What are the primary colours for use in CRT displays?. blue. below ambient pressure.2. Explanation.Option B. above zero pressure. Option C. Correct Answer is. cyan. 29. goes out of view. 26. Question Number. alt. Correct Answer is. Yellow. Option A. Correct Answer is. Explanation. alt. green. Jeppesen Aircraft Radio Systems Page 195. . electrically. Rad. Rad. Question Number. Question Number. Red. Option A. Option B. blue. flag in view. green. by compressed bleed air. Explanation. above zero pressure. Correct Answer is. Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems. magenta. below ambient pressure. Rad. goes out of view. Option C. 27. Pitot tubes are heated. blue. Red. alt. Option B. Pallett Page 290. Explanation. The 5 inches Hg refers to the 'suction' from ambient. Red. yellow. Option A. CAIPs AL/10-1 Para 3. Option C. This is. electrically. Question Number. Option B. 28. Option C. Alpha vane signal could be fed to _________________when close to stall.

35. . Option B. Option C. The coefficient C is. 5 degrees. spirit level. Correct Answer is.Question Number. 3 degrees. aligns itself to the new heading of the aircraft after it has stabilised. Option B. Correct Answer is. the maximum allowable error is. CAIPs AL/10-5 9 note. remains in the same position attached to the aircraft structure. In a compass swing: North error -2 degrees. remains in the same position attached to the aircraft structure. an inclinometer. Correct Answer is. Question Number. Option B.Avionics Fundamentals Page 106-110. The alignment of pitot head is carried out with. Correct Answer is. Option C. Jeppesen . 36. 34. Question Number. Explanation. 33. 0 degrees. South error -2 degrees. Option A. +2 degrees. an inclinometer. Question Number. The sensing element of the flux valve. Explanation. When aligning an aircraft for a compass swing. an inclinometer. Explanation. Option A. aligns itself to the new heading as the aircraft turns. Option A. 1 degrees. The pitot head is fitted on the aircraft. Option B. Option C. AL/10-5 page 6 table 1 (-2)-(-2)/2 = 0. 0 degrees. Option A. Option C. -2 degrees. 5 degrees.

Option B. 37. on the ground only. Option A. Tied down. both on the ground only and in the air. AL/10-2 A rate gyro has only 2 axis of freedom. Question Number. 40. Tied down. Explanation. Question Number. toppling. Question Number. maximum at the pole. Correct Answer is.Explanation. on the ground only. Option A. 38. The Directional Gyro is checked every 15 minutes for. . Displacement. Option C. Option C. Option B. NIL. NIL. Correct Answer is. Explanation. Option A. on the air only. Question Number. erection. What kind of gyro is a rate gyro?. compensated by applying a constant torque. dependant on longitude. Space. Option A. drift. 39. Option C. Aircraft Instruments & Integrated SystemsPallett page 129. The apparent wander for directional gyros is. compensated by applying a constant torque. Option B. Correct Answer is. Option C. NIL. A radio altimeter system can be self tested. Option B. Explanation.

Question Number. EPR gauge reads just above 1. Option C. Option C. Question Number. Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems Pallett Page 192. Correct Answer is. on any heading.Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. error in roll when aircraft is turning. NIL. Question Number. Explanation. Transmitter is unserviceable. aircraft turning with an error in roll. Gauge requires re-calibration. Option A. With engine static and engine blanks fitted. Explanation. 42. when 90 degrees apart. Option C. when 45 degrees apart. . Option B. This is normal. gyro friction and unbalance. Option B. Option B. Explanation. 43. Random drift of a gyro is caused by. 41. Option A. Option B. Automatic Flight Control Pallett and Coyle Page 104. Angle between flinders bars determines their correcting influence. when parallel to each other. drift. Question Number. at 360 degrees. 44. Explanation. Option A. Coefficient A is adjusted. gyro friction and unbalance. Standby Compass adjusting magnets (Flinders Bars) exert the most amount of influence. Gauge requires re-calibration. Option A. Correct Answer is. when 90 degrees apart.

HSI. 52. INS. Option A.Option B. Correct Answer is. 51. Correct Answer is. Option B. 50. Option B. Option C. On an EADI the command bars show the. Question Number. When power is switched off. . Explanation. Option C. restricts outer gimbal. Where does the HSI receive GND speed information from?. Energised off. EICAS. Question Number. Pitot static probes. Avionics Fundamentals Page 185. ADI. restricts inner gimbal. Cautionary info. Option A. INS. Correct Answer is. restricts inner gimbal. ADI. NIL. Correct Answer is. 49. Which instrument shows Decision Height?. Option B. Option C. Explanation. Option A. Option C. Used for gimbal lock prevention. Question Number. Warning. Explanation. ECAM. Cautionary info. Question Number. stops outer gimbal. Avionics Fundamentals Page 128. Explanation. the gimbal brake.

57. Question Number. Option A. course and direction. An RMI has inputs from VOR and. 300 ft. . what senses the horizontal component of the earths magnetic field and where is it normally fitted?. 58. Correct Answer is. 59. Option A. Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems Pallett Page 194. Option A. Directional gyro mounted on the roll axis of the aircraft. Flux detectors fitted in the wing tips. NIL. Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems Pallett Page 182.Explanation. Question Number. In a compass system. Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems Pallett page 303. Option C. a remote compass input. 56. Option B. Correct Answer is. 200 ft. Option A. direction and attitude. course and attitude. Flux detectors fitted in the wing tips. Option B. Question Number. Option B. Question Number. an azimuth gyro. Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems Pallett page 303. course and direction. Explanation. Option B. Option C. Explanation. A precession device mounted on the yaw axis of the aircraft. an azimuth gyro. Option C. no other sources. the displays are. In a modern HSI. Explanation. Correct Answer is.

NIL. Option C. compressor outlet. faster. ILS approach. Explanation. 60. Option B. Compared to air driven gyros.gage-technique. Aircraft Radio Systems Powell Page 199. Option A. Correct Answer is. reservoir. Question Number.html Question Number. faster. What is apparent drift due to?. slower. Option B. Option C. 200 ft.Option C. the electric gyro runs. DME hold. reservoir. Correct Answer is. Explanation. 500 ft. Option A. DME hold. 62.co. Option C. NIL. Question Number.uk/instruments/readout-pneumatic. Option A. Explanation. Option A. compressor inlet.demon. Correct Answer is. 63. VOR hold. Aircraft Electricity and Electronics Eismin Page 358. Errors when aircraft banking. . An H on the EHSI indicates. A pneumatic indicator takes its indications from. Explanation. Option B. Question Number. 61. same speed. Correct Answer is. http://www.

Option B. True airspeed and speed of sound. Option A. 67. pointer is hidden behind a mask with off flag out of view. 66. Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems Pallett Page 102. 65. pitot to the capsule and static to the out side of the capsule. Indicated airspeed / temperature. Option A. True airspeed and speed of sound. Correct Answer is. Option C. Question Number. Option B. Earths rotation. Option C. Correct Answer is. Earths rotation. True airspeed / indicated airspeed. Option B. Correct Answer is. pointer goes to zero to show system is being monitored. the rad. Explanation. Question Number. Question Number. pitot to the capsule. static to the capsule. How does a machmeter work?. NIL. Avionic Systems: Operation and Maintenance Page 189. pitot to the capsule and static to the out side of the capsule. Kermode Mechanics of Flight 10th edition p339. Option C. continues to indicate but with a warning flag. pointer is hidden behind a mask with off flag out of view. Correct Answer is. Question Number. 64. Explanation. Option C. When changing a pitot static instrument with quick release couplings. Explanation.Option B. Above 2500 ft. An aircraft airspeed indicator has. Option A. . Explanation. alt. Gyro pivot friction. and Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight.

a leak check is not required. gives heading with respect to magnetic north. Explanation. Option B. two coils and an electromagnet. a leak check is only required if stated by manufacturer. gives heading with respect to magnetic north. Option B. be sluggish. Option C. NIL. changes it position after the aircraft heading is changed. Option A. The flux detector element. If rate feedback in a flight director goes open circuit. changes heading with the heading of the aircraft. Question Number. two coils only. Explanation. oscillate. 70. 68. Correct Answer is. two coils and a permanent magnet. a leak check is only required if stated by manufacturer. Question Number. The needle of a resolver is connected to. Option C. 69. NIL. a leak check is always required. Explanation. Option A. . Correct Answer is. oscillate. two coils only. Option C. Correct Answer is. Option A. position indication will. Option B. NIL. Question Number. Option C. Explanation. NIL.Option A. Correct Answer is. Option B. go hard over.

this is due to excessive high cabin altitude flying. Explanation. NIL. A remote compass compensator unit is replaced. Option A. 179 degrees. 72. 74. A compass swing must be performed. Torque synchro. http://www. Option C. Option C.silva.se/files/compass. The swing can be performed at a later date. 179 degrees. Question Number. To steer a true heading of 180 degrees the pilot must steer. Option A. 181 degrees. A compass has a residual deviation of +1 degree. AL/10-5 10. A compass swing must be performed.html#BUBBLES Question Number. . Option A. Torque synchro. Correct Answer is. How is a leading edge flap position indicated in the cockpit?. Option B. A measuring device. 73. Correct Answer is. AL/10-5 Table 1 columns 7 and 8. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. Option B. Explanation. Option C. Question Number. Explanation. Option C. NIL. Servomotor. this is due to insufficient de-aeration. Option A. 71. Option B. Explanation. If the compass fluid has bubbles at low altitude. Option B.Question Number. this has no influence on compass readings. Which of the following is correct?. this is due to insufficient de-aeration. No swing is required if the new heading is within 5 degrees of the old. 180 degrees.

increasing the rotor speed. Option C. If a constant torque is applied to a gyroscope. Square-Law compensation. increases with a lower rotor speed. Option B. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems. Option A. what type of compensation is there?. Option C. Option B. Option A. increases with a higher rotor speed. decrease the rate of precession. decreasing the rotor speed. In a Machmeter. 77. A gyroscopic body has its rigidity increased by. page 45. Correct Answer is. Option C. is unaffected by changes in rotor speed. 75. decreasing the mass of the rotor. 78. Correct Answer is. No effect. Increase the rotor speed. 76. . Decrease the rotor speed. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. Option C. decrease the rate of precession. Compensation is not required. Question Number. David Harris Page 33. Question Number. Explanation.Pallett. the rate of precession. increasing the rotor speed. Option A. David Harris Page 33. Option B. Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems . What effect on the rate of precession will a change of gyro rotor speed have?. Explanation. Option A. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems. Hair spring. Increase the rotor speed. Question Number. Square-Law compensation. increases with a lower rotor speed. Explanation. decrease the rate of precession.Question Number. Option B.

Option B. Question Number. for the first 40 seconds after initially switching 'ON'. Option A. Option C. 82. decreased reaction of the air from a fully open port. Correct Answer is. Option B. David Harris Page 33. torque motor fitted between the outer gimbal ring and the case controlled by a mercury switch in the fore and aft axis. torque motor fitted between the outer gimbal ring and the case controlled by a mercury switch in the athwartships axis. Option B. The normal erection supply to the mercury switches of the artificial horizon is disconnected. increased reaction of the air from a fully open port. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems. the gyro of an electrical artificial horizon is kept erect in pitch by a. Option A. Question Number. David Harris Page 33 (Real Drift). Question Number. Explanation. rotation of the earth. unbalance and bearing friction in the gyro. Question Number. Correct Answer is. unbalance and bearing friction in the gyro. Random drift of a gyro is caused by. 81. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems. Correct Answer is. David Harris Page 51 (see page 48 for 'athwartship). mercury switch in the fore and aft axis controlling a torque motor fitted between the inner and outer gimbal rings. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems. . increased reaction of the air from a bisected port. Explanation. Option C. increased reaction of the air from a bisected port. aircraft turning with an error in roll. Option A. 80. Explanation. torque motor fitted between the outer gimbal ring and the case controlled by a mercury switch in the fore and aft axis. During the normal straight and level flight. increased reaction of the air from a fully open port. Option C. 79. A pendulous vane type erection system fitted to a gyro horizon works on the principle of. Option A.Explanation.

2. to prevent the pitch switch giving a false indication due to centrifugal effects during a turn. Explanation. Option B. AL/3-23 12. give full erection control to the pitch switch during a turn. when the fast erection button is pressed. The fast erection push on an electrical gyro horizon must not be used for a set period after switching on because. 83. Explanation. Correct Answer is. Option C. Question Number. unbalance of the gimbals. overheating of the gyro rotor windings will occur. David Harris Page 51. Option B. bearing friction.3. the normal erection switch contact will burn out.2 a). Question Number. Option C. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems. during turns. Correct Answer is. 85. Question Number. give full erection control to the roll switch during a turn. Option C. Option A. Option A. Option B. Correct Answer is. the effect of the earth's rotation. David Harris Page 51 bottom. Correct Answer is. AL/10-2 9. excessive hunting will take place. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems.3. 84. .Option B. Explanation. Explanation. excessive hunting will take place. Option A. the effect of the earth's rotation. to prevent the pitch switch giving a false indication due to centrifugal effects during a turn. Apparent drift of a directional gyro is due to. The pitch/bank erection system is used in an electrical gyro horizon to. Option C. during turns.

a rate gyro. Explanation. The erection system on a directional gyroscope has. a switch on the inner gimbal controlling a motor on the outer gimbal.Question Number. 87. 89. Option C. NIL. In a Turn and Slip indicator. Option A. Question Number. Option A. Option C. the amount the gimbal ring moves would be increased if the. Question Number. David Harris Page 54. The Turn and Slip indicator employs. rotor speed decreases. a rate gyro. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control. Correct Answer is. it would under read. Option B. David Harris Page 46/7. Explanation. NIL. a switch on the inner gimbal controlling a motor on the outer gimbal. the effect of increasing the rotor speed would be. it would under read. rotor speed decreases. Option A. spring tension was increased. Correct Answer is. Explanation. Option B. angle through which the gyro moves in azimuth increases. it would over read. Option B. In a rate gyro used to detect movements about a vertical axis. . 88. Option C. Question Number. Correct Answer is. Option C. a switch on the outer gimbal controlling a motor on the inner gimbal. a switch on the inner gimbal controlling a motor on the inner gimbal. Correct Answer is. it would have no effect. an azimuth gyro. Explanation. 86. a vertical gyro. Option A. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems. Option B.

Correct Answer is. Option B. 22. 91. Correct Answer is. By a flux take-off device. Option B. Option B. 93. Option C. NIL.85º?. Why is a directional gyro inner gimbal restricted to +/.400 rpm. Explanation. 15 sine latitude. Option A. To prevent gyro going into gimbal lock. 15 sine longitude. By a switch on the inner gimbal. 4. Correct Answer is. Option B. To prevent outer gimbal rotating. Question Number. Option C. To prevent gyro going into gimbal lock. 15 cosine latitude. By a switch on the outer gimbal.Question Number. Question Number. Option C. 90.500 rpm. 2. . Option A.200 rpm. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control. Option A. 15 sine latitude. Question Number. The speed of the rotor in a Turn and Slip indicator is approximately. 92. Explanation. By a flux take-off device. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control. Explanation. David Harris Page 77/78. In a directional gyro. Option C. Correct Answer is. How is the information on a directional gyro outer gimbal taken off?. Option A. To ensure outer gimbal erection system works correctly. David Harris Page 53.200 rpm. 4. the inner/outer gimbal is corrected to.

Question Number. angular velocity of the rotor. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control. Correct Answer is. moment of inertia and angular velocity of the rotor. change in inductance to operate. 97. Explanation. generally rotate. Option A. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control. Option C. Question Number. Explanation. slower. Option B. both answers (a) and (b). the same speed. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control. David Harris Page 50/51. Option B. David Harris Page 37/8. Option B. Option C. Correct Answer is. The electrolyte switches used in gyro systems rely upon. both answers (a) and (b). angular velocity of the rotor only. compared to electric gyros. change in resistance to operate. Option B. David Harris Page 33. Option A. Question Number. 94. Option C. 96. faster. Option A. moment of inertia of the rotor only. . Question Number. Angular momentum of a gyro rotor depends on. Option A. moment of inertia of the rotor. Option C. Explanation. change in resistance to operate.Explanation. Air driven gyros. David Harris Page 53. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control. Precession of a gyro depends on. Correct Answer is. change in voltage applied to operate. moment of inertia and angular velocity of the rotor. 95.

mass and speed. Correct Answer is.I.000 rpm. Question Number.S.Correct Answer is.000 rpm. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control. pitot pressure. 15. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control. Question Number. Correct Answer is. directly proportional to applied force. Option B. David Harris Page 33. mass. directly proportional to applied force. Option B. Option B. 100. The speed of a vacuum driven gyro horizon rotor is approximately. Question Number. David Harris Page 46. A V. 15. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control. Option C. 15. Explanation. vacuum. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control. Option A. Option A. Correct Answer is. 98. Explanation. 99. Option A. Explanation. David Harris Page 33. 101. speed and radius of mass from spin axis. Option C. is connected to. Gyro rigidity is proportional to.000 rpm. inversely proportional to the applied force. David Harris Page 41. slower. speed and radius of mass from spin axis. mass. Option C. Question Number. . and radius of mass from spin axis. proportional to the square of the applied force. 4. Gyro precessional force is. Option A. Option B. Explanation. mass.200 rpm.

Option C. static pressure. Question Number. Question Number. to allow the gyro rotor to stop. Explanation. cancel errors caused in the static system when the aircraft yaws.2 8. Option C. 103.000 ft/minute rate of climb. Option A. 1. fifteen minutes should elapse. 102.S.Option C. 100 ft/minute rate of climb. three minutes should elapse. David Harris Page 22/23. Option A. . Option A. Option B. 105. Explanation. Correct Answer is. Explanation. before moving the instrument. cancel errors caused in the static system when the aircraft yaws. The Port and Starboard static vents on an aircraft are inter-connected to. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control. Which of the following would cause a displacement gyro to topple?. NIL. Correct Answer is. Question Number. Correct Answer is.1 c). After disconnecting the supply to an electrically operated gyro instrument it is recommended that. 1. AL/10. Explanation. pointer at position 1 on the upper half of the scale it indicates. Option B. Option C. With a V. 100 ft/minute rate of climb. Option B. 104. David Harris Page 24. Question Number. reduce compressibility error. three minutes should elapseq.I. Correct Answer is.000 ft/minute rate of climb. fifteen minutes should elapse. minimize errors caused by leaks in the system. static pressure.

Option C. vertically down. Inverting the gyro. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control. zero. David Harris Page 22. Correct Answer is. Option B. David Harris Page 22.Option A. 106. Correct Answer is. horizontal to left. horizontal to left. Option B. Option B. Explanation. the pressure in a V. Running gyro at low speed. Correct Answer is. will indicate. Question Number. On descent. David Harris Page 22. Option A. Question Number. In level flight. vertically up.S. Question Number.I. Option C. leads the case pressure. is the same as case pressure. Explanation. . Option A. Explanation. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control. a rate of climb. fitted in a pressurized aircraft would. leads the case pressure. Option C. Option A. lags the case pressure. Running gyro at low speed.S. A small constant leak in the case of V. Inverting the gyro. Option C. cause the instrument to indicate. zero.I. 108. Explanation.I. during level flight. 107.S. a rate of descent. a V. Correct Answer is. capsule. NIL. Option B.

7 PSI. the inner gimbal pivoted longitudinally. the inner gimbal pivoted laterally. NIL. the outer gimbal is pivoted longitudinally. Question Number. Option C. 100 millibar. the inner gimbal pivoted vertically. the inner gimbal pivoted laterally. David Harris Page 42. Option A. the outer gimbal is pivoted vertically.Question Number. Explanation. 14. David Harris Page 33. Option A. plane of rotation is in line with the precessional force. the outer gimbal is pivoted laterally. Correct Answer is. David Harris Page 47. 14. Explanation. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control.7 PSI. Question Number. In the directional gyro. plane of rotation is in line with the plane of the applied force. as long as the force is applied. 110. Correct Answer is. Option B. Correct Answer is. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control. A pressure of one atmosphere is equal to. 1 inch Hg. When a force is applied to a horizontal gyro. . 109. An artificial horizon has. Option C. Option B. Option B. Option C. Correct Answer is. Option A. 112. Option A. Option B. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control. the outer gimbal is pivoted vertically. 111. Explanation. Question Number. Explanation. the precession of the rotor will continue until. Option C. plane of rotation is in line with the plane of the applied force.

Explanation. Option B. 114. hundreds of feet per minute. Option A. The units on the calibrated scale of a V. Option A. Option C. are expressed in. inside of the capsule is connected to static pressure. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control. knots (kts). Option C. barometric pressure. Option A. barometric pressure. capsule and case are connected via a calibrated choke. David Harris Page 6. The millibar is a unit of. capsule is evacuated and sealed. the spin axis is vertical. 113. Correct Answer is.Question Number. David Harris Page 53. Correct Answer is. Question Number. Question Number. Option C. Option B. In an altimeter.S. atmospheric temperature. the spin axis is lateral. In the Turn and Slip indicator. Option B. NIL. 116. Correct Answer is. Option C. capsule is evacuated and sealed. Correct Answer is. Option B. hundreds of feet per minute. . Explanation.I. the. miles per hour (mph). barometric pressure. the spin axis is lateral. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control. Explanation. the spin axis is longitudinal. Question Number. Option A. 115.

Option A. Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems Page 131. Correct Answer is. Explanation. Option B. NACA duct. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control. Option A. At the lowest point of each vent line you would normally find a. A rate two turn is. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control. a venturi. Option B. 120. The rate of turn information from a turn coordinator (compared to a Turn and Slip) is.large aircraft are 1000s ft/min. less accurate. Question Number. self draining non-return valve.Explanation. Explanation. David Harris Page 54. Correct Answer is. a tapping from the induction manifold. Explanation. float valve. Option C. . 90 degrees per minute. 360 degrees per minute. Question Number. more instantaneous. a pitot head. Option B. 118. Option C. self draining non-return valve. Option A. 360 degrees per minute. 180 degrees per minute. Correct Answer is. David Harris Page 40. Option B. 117. Question Number. Question Number. Option A. 119. (Light aircraft only . Option C. NIL. a venturi. A standby air supply for gyro operation could be obtained from.

Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control. The capsule in a vertical speed indicator will be expanded when the aircraft is. Option A. blow through the lines with a clean low pressure air supply. Option B. balance weight. 124. If the pitot and static pipe lines were cross connected at the instrument panel connection. David Harris Page 8. David Harris Page 22/23. . Option A. Question Number. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. it is necessary to. AL/10-1 15. Temperature correction in a sensitive altimeter mechanism is provided by a. Question Number. carry out a leak test on the appropriate system(s). 121. Option C. more accurate. Option C. Option A. bi-metal U-spring acting on the capsule. Correct Answer is. bi-metal U-spring acting on the capsule. 122. Question Number. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control. descending. application of pressure to the pitot head would cause the. climbing.Option C. Option C. Question Number. David Harris Page 55.5. Explanation. Option B. Option B. descending. Explanation. calibrate the instrument concerned. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control. Explanation. 123. carry out a leak test on the appropriate system(s). After replacing an instrument of the pitot-static group. more accurate. in level flight. Explanation. U-spring acting on the capsule.

AL/10-1 15. vertical speed indicator to indicate descent. rate 1 turn. Correct Answer is. Question Number. vertical speed indicator to indicate descent. a continual precession in roll. Option A. NIL. Explanation. a pitch error and gyro topple. 125. Explanation. Option C. David Harris Page 54. altimeter reading to increase. altimeter reading to decrease. rate 1 turn. a roll error and gyro topple. Option B. Question Number. vertical speed indicator to indicate climb. Option C. Correct Answer is. Option B. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control. Option A. Option C. Explanation. A rate of turn indicator dial marked '2 minutes' refers to a. Correct Answer is. NIL. altimeter reading to decrease. Option A. whenever the pitot or static systems are disturbed. rate 2 turn. altimeter reading to decrease. Correct Answer is. Option B. vertical speed indicator to indicate descent. whenever the pitot or static systems are disturbed. 127. only when an instrument is changed.5. 126. rate 3 turn. Explanation. Question Number.Option A. Option C. only when a leak is suspected. . a continual precession in roll. Option B. A constant force applied to the inner gimbal of a vertical gyro would cause. A pitot or static leak check is carried out.

. Explanation. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control.Question Number. 14. 128.69°C. Option B. Option C. NIL. 212 deg. Respectively. 129. Correct Answer is. Option A. 15°C. Option A. 32°C. NIL. and 100 deg. in degrees from the aircraft's heading. A temperature of 59°F is equivalent to. the angle between True North and the longitudinal axis of the aircraft. and 100 deg. Correct Answer is. in degrees from the desired track. and 32 deg. 212 deg. Option C. the angle between True North and the actual track. Explanation. Option A. Question Number. Aircraft heading (HDG) is. Wind angle is the direction of the wind measured. Question Number. 130. The temperature of boiling water at standard pressure on the Fahrenheit and Centigrade scale is. Option B. the angle between True North and the desired track. Option B. Explanation. Option C. NIL. in degrees from True North. Option C. 15°C. Correct Answer is. respectively. Option B. Respectively. the angle between True North and the longitudinal axis of the aircraft. 100 deg. Correct Answer is. Respectively. Option A. 212 deg. in degrees from True North. 131. and 100 deg. Question Number. Explanation. David Harris Page 87.

Limit stops are fitted in an artificial horizon to. Option C. Question Number. Explanation. 133. Option B.cfm Question Number. limit the outer gimbal movement. different variation. zero variation. Position error is caused by. 134.Question Number. Option B. Correct Answer is. prevent gimbal lock. Option A. Option C. Question Number. by a torque synchro. by a control synchro. mechanical imperfections in an instrument.af. https://ntc. by a differential synchro. Explanation. pitot head position. NIL. The electrical output from a remote gyro to an attitude director indicator is. instrument location in the instrument panel. Option C. Option A.mil/ops/DOT/school/L23CockpitFam/magneticcompass. . Explanation. Correct Answer is. pitot head position. Option A. Agonic lines link places of. 132. NIL. zero variation. 135. Correct Answer is. Option A. prevent gimbal lock. Option B. reduce gimbal nutation. by a control synchro. zero variation. Option C. Avionics Fundamentals Page 93 Fig 5-20. Option B. NIL.cap. Correct Answer is. Explanation.

Option C. Option A. eddy current or air dash pot. To convert degrees Centigrade to degrees Kelvin. rotated faster than air driven gyros. Option A. viscous. 139. Option B. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. NIL. eddy current or air dash pot. Question Number. Option A. Option C. by a torque synchro. NIL. eddy current or variable spring. Explanation. The electrical output from a remote gyro to an attitude director indicator is. viscous. Option B. 137. Electrical driven gyros are. 138. by a control synchro. add 273 degrees. Question Number. by a control synchro. viscous. use the formula (deg C * 9/5) + 32. Option C. rotated at the same speed as air driven gyros. Correct Answer is. Explanation. rotated at the same speed as air driven gyros. Option A. by a differential synchro. Question Number. 136. Damping on a RATE GYRO can be either. Explanation.Question Number. Option B. add 273 degrees. rotated faster than air driven gyros. Option C. NIL. Option B. . add 112 degrees. Correct Answer is. Damping on a RATE GYRO can be either.

a torque applied to the inner gimbal ring of a vertical gyro will cause the. Explanation. Correct Answer is. In a ratiometer temperature indicating circuit. 141. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems. Correct Answer is. The supply of Desynn indicating system. 143. inner ring to move.Explanation. Explanation. full scale deflection. David Harris Page 41. Option C. outer ring to move. Option A. mid scale deflection. This will give. Option B. Option A. will not affect the aneroid capsule. Question Number. If the bulb circuit is broken. Option C. 142. and that drives it toward fsd. When an aircraft is descending. no scale deflection. will cause the aneroid capsule to expand. the resistance will be infinite. outer and inner ring to move. Explanation. the pressure in the altimeter case. will cause the aneroid capsule to contract. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems. will cause the aneroid capsule to contract. . Option B. Question Number. Correct Answer is. NIL. David Harris Page 5. Think of it this way .resistance increases with temperature. Question Number. 140. Option C. Option B. Question Number. Option A. outer ring to move. With the gyro at normal running speed. there is a break in the circuit to the bulb. full scale deflection.

by the static system. Explanation. David Harris Page 9. Option B. NIL. Correct Answer is. Option C. is alternating current at 50 c/s. Option C. removing the static connector from its static vent after waiting for a period of three minutes. Option A. Option C. standards. indicates that the aircraft is in a region of high pressure and the reading must be corrected to I. An altimeter is operated. 144. Correct Answer is. indicates that the instrument is unserviceable. is alternating current at 400 c/s. Correct Answer is.Option A. by the pitot system.S. Question Number. After using a pitot-static test set the pressure in the aircraft static system should be released to the atmosphere by. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems. Question Number. Option B. by the vacuum system. Option B. Option A. A sensitive altimeter reading 100 ft.A. removing the static connector from its static vent. Option A. Option C. . by the static system. NIL. is direct current. Explanation. Option B. Correct Answer is. NIL. indicates that the instrument is unserviceable. 146. venting the static system via an internal bleed in the test set. is direct current. above sea level. Explanation. Explanation. Question Number. 145. indicates that the airfield is 100 ft. when the millibar scale is set to the atmospheric pressure at airfield level (QFE). venting the static system via an internal bleed in the test set.

absolute pressure. Both vertical and horizontal. Option B. Option A. Option A. Correct Answer is. 149. Explanation. rotor. Correct Answer is. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems. . 148. Horizontal. Question Number. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems. Compensates for non-linear tension in the hairspring. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems. 147. Corrects for capsule elasticity. Horizontal. instrument case. Option A. Option C. David Harris Page 36. differential pressure. absolute pressure. Explanation. Question Number. absolute pressure. Option A. Option C. The capsule in an altimeter responds to. instrument case. Correct Answer is. Option C. Option C. Option B. Correct Answer is.Question Number. The aeroplane monitor on the artificial horizon is fitted to the. Explanation. Corrects for capsule elasticity. Compensates for change in density. inner gimbal. David Harris Page 5. Vertical. Question Number. David Harris Page 8. 150. Option B. Which axis does the directional gyro spin on?. What is the purpose of the bimetallic strip in the altimeter?. Option B.

Explanation. Option B. mach number and temperature. Question Number. 154. 153. over a conventional one is. Option A. vertical gyro. as the density decreases with altitude. Option C. Option A. 152. airspeed and temperature.S. it does not require pitot/static pressure. For a particular I. David Harris Page 5. Explanation. Question Number. rate gyro. it has an accelerometer which prevents the lag of a conventional one. Option B.S. Option A. Correct Answer is. directional gyro. Explanation. mach number and temperature. Option C. 151. Correct Answer is. True airspeed in an Air Data Computer is a function of. Option B.A. Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems Pallett Page 272. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems. The type of gyro used in a gyro compass is a. it has an accelerometer which prevents the lag of a conventional one. Option C. increases. Option C. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems. Question Number. Option B. David Harris Page 27. Question Number. it does not require warming up.A. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems. increases. David Harris Page 24.I. Option A. increases. Correct Answer is. mach number and temperatureq.S. The advantage of an instantaneous V. remains the same.Explanation. . the T.

NIL. . Explanation. In a Bourdon tube. 157. oval cross section. Option B. is silica-gel. Option C. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems David Harris Page 182 Figure 7. Option C. Explanation. Question Number. Option B. directional gyro. Decrease the rotor speed. 155. Correct Answer is. 158. 156. one end is sealed and the other end open to the pressure source. decrease the rate of precession. is sodium-bicarbonate. Correct Answer is. Question Number. What effect on the rate of precession will a change of gyro rotor speed have?. Question Number. Option A. A desiccant used in the storage of instruments. Option A. Question Number.1. decrease the rate of precession. is silica-gel. Option A.Correct Answer is. Increase the rotor speed. oval cross section. Bourdon Tubes have. No effect. Explanation. NIL. Option B. decrease the rate of precession. Option C. is silica-gel. NIL. Option A. In a Bourdon tube. Correct Answer is. circular cross section. toroidal cross section. Option B. Increase the rotor speed. Explanation.

Correct Answer is. The distance readout on an HSI is. Correct Answer is. castor-oil. from the aircraft DME system. . Option C. 159. from the aircraft ATC system. Option A. Explanation. http://www. dialled in by the pilot.htm Question Number. NIL. Question Number. one end is sealed and the other end open to the pressure source. Option B.Option C. Option C. Pressure gauge calibrators (Dead Weight Testers) use the. Charle's Law. and its gimbal restrained either electrically or by a spring. from the aircraft DME system. Brahm's press principle. Option B. Brahm's press principle. 160. Explanation. Option C. is known as. Option A. Correct Answer is. castor-oil. NIL.bcmsensor. 161. The fluid suitable for use in a Dead Weight Tester is. Option B. kerosene. NIL. A gyroscope having one plane of freedom at right angles to the plane of rotation.com/pressure/datasheets/PDH. Question Number. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems David Harris Page 182. Explanation. Boyle's Law. Explanation. one end is sealed and the other end open to atmosphere. Option A. Correct Answer is. Question Number. 162. anti-freeze oil.

What is the purpose of the hair spring in a Bourdon tube pressure gauge?. Option C. Correct Answer is.Option A. Option A. a rate gyro. an earth gyro. Explanation. Option A. NIL. Option B. weight or mass. Option C. Question Number. Option B. To reduce 'backlash'. The ADIs attitude information is normally obtained from the aircraft's. David Harris Page 52. 165. To reduce 'backlash'. a rate gyro. Pressure may be expressed in. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. a tied gyro. Explanation. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems. attitude rate gyros. vertical gyros. Option A. Question Number. force per unit area. Explanation. Explanation. . force per unit volume. Option C. Question Number. To return the pointer to zero. NIL. vertical gyros. directional gyros. 164. NIL. Option B. Correct Answer is. Option B. To act a controlling force. Option C. 163. force per unit area.

Explanation. Option C. the applied pressure referred to a perfect vacuum. 166. Option A. Option C. Option A. NIL. 1¼°. Option C. An absolute pressure gauge measures. Option B. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems David Harris Page 182. One dot VOR deviation represents. has anti-clockwise pointer movement if Bourdon tube operated.Question Number. 169. absolute pressure minus atmospheric pressure. NIL. absolute pressure minus atmospheric pressure. Option A. Gauge pressure as indicated on a direct reading Bourdon Tube pressure gauge is equal to. Option B. Option C. Option A. 5°. pressures extremely accurately. cannot be of the Bourdon tube type. Correct Answer is. Option B. has the Bourdon tube reversed within the case. Option B. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. Question Number. 167. Explanation. atmospheric pressure minus absolute pressure. Correct Answer is. cannot be of the Bourdon tube type. Explanation. the applied pressure referred to a perfect vacuum. Explanation. 5°. Question Number. 2 miles. . 168. the applied pressure referred to atmospheric pressure. An instrument used for measuring negative pressures. Question Number. absolute pressure plus atmospheric pressure. NIL.

a VOR station. Option A. With an aircraft on the ground and QNH set on the millibar scale of the altimeter.s.3 p. To fill a Dead Weight Tester. screw in hand wheel and fill reservoir. such as a hydraulic brake pressure gauge. screw out hand wheel and fill reservoir. 171. Explanation. Option C. an ILS station.7 p. Explanation. Option C.7 p. Question Number. Option B.s.i. NIL. Question Number. a VOR station. Correct Answer is. Question Number. an ADF station. Explanation.s. Option B.i. A pressure gauge. Option A.000 p.s. 1.i. 173.i. Option A. In terms of absolute pressure. Correct Answer is.Question Number. 1. Option C. the airfield height. 170. 172. Option A. remove platform and fill cylinder.i. 985. zero.014. Correct Answer is.s. indicates 1.014. off scale.000 p. Option B. NIL. this represents. screw out hand wheel and fill reservoir. the altimeter will read. Option C. 1. Option B. . The to/from indicator on an HSI informs the pilot of which direction he is tracking relative to. NIL.

the airfield height. varies with the. Option B.Correct Answer is. QFE is set and it should read airfield height. aircraft ADF system. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems. Option A. David Harris Page 9. Option B. Correct Answer is. 177. Question Number.S. Correct Answer is. Question Number. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems. the standard sea level barometric pressure is always set on the millibar scale. Explanation.I. compass system. 176. NIL. the ambient air pressure is set on the millibar scale. David Harris Page 15. Explanation. square of the speed. The applied pressure to an A. the ambient air pressure is set on the millibar scale. Option B. is pitot pressure only. The HSI compass card is positioned by the. Option A. is static pressure only. Explanation. 175. . heading select knob. compass system. When checking a sensitive altimeter on a pre-flight inspection. Option C. Option A. 174. cube root of the speed. square root of the speed.I.S. Option B. Explanation. Option A. The supply to an A. Option C. square of the speed. Question Number. the ambient air pressure corrected for temperature is set on the millibar scale. Option C. Correct Answer is. Question Number.

S. Correct Answer is. Question Number. are pitot and static pressure. greater than the ground speed. NIL. If an aircraft flying in still air at 400 knots. Question Number. NIL. are pitot and static pressure. Correct Answer is. Option A. Correct Answer is. the sum of the amplitude of the two modulations.f. encounters a head wind of 50 knots. Question Number. Option C. equal to the ground speed.Option C. climbing. Option A. 179. Correct Answer is. Question Number. Option B. Explanation. If an aircraft is flying straight and level in still air. 181. Option B. David Harris Page 13. less than the ground speed. Explanation. The capsule for an A. equal to the ground speed. David Harris Page 13. the difference between the amplitudes on the two modulations. decelerating. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems. its ground speed is. . Option C.I. the difference between the amplitudes on the two modulations. Explanation. carriers. Option C. airspeed will be. Explanation. 180. 178. Option B. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems. the difference in amplitude of the two r. will be expanding when the aircraft is. accelerating. The deflection of the ADI command bars when flying a localiser approach is proportional to. Option A. accelerating.

Question Number. Option C. the aircraft relative to the local sonic speed.I. 400 knots. Option B. Explanation. Correct Answer is.Option A. Option A. Option A. Explanation. sound relative to the aircraft's altitude. 450 knots. 350 knots. Explanation. one coil. two coils. Option C. NIL. the aircraft relative to the speed of sound at ground level. bi-metal corrector is employed. Question Number. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. 184. Explanation.S. a. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems. two coils.. A machmeter is an instrument which indicates the speed of. Option C. and Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems Pallett Page 45. Option B. three coils. ranging bar and screws are fitted. Question Number.18 and text below. Option A.4 and para below. 350 knots. 182. To provide a linear scale on an A. 10 to 1 gearing is used. Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems Pallett Page 44 fig 2. the aircraft relative to the local sonic speed. Option B. 183. Correct Answer is. Option B. Option C. The moving element of a ratiometer has. David Harris Page 19. ranging bar and screws are fitted. . Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems Page 186 Fig 7.

Explanation. 120° and FROM. Option B. Option A. 188. 120° and FROM. The command bars in a flight director system indicate.25 and the barometric pressure at that time was 1020. Question Number.Question Number. Option B. An aircraft flying towards a VOR station shows indications of 120° and 'TO'. Option B. below zero feet (negative altitude). the altimeter should read. Option A. Question Number. instrument case. true horizon. zero feet. the actual path with respect to required path. . 186. 300° and TO. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. When carrying out a pressure leak test on an altimeter. Option C. 187. Option C. Explanation. pressure chamber. you are checking for leaks in the. Option B. NIL. capsule stack. 185. below zero feet (negative altitude). Option C. instrument case. 300° and FROM. positive altitude. Assuming aircraft is on the ground. the required path with respect to actual path. If an altimeter millibar scale was set to 1013. Correct Answer is. Option A. on the same course. Question Number. Option C. Option A. After passing over thestation. Jepessen A & P Technician Textbook p11-9. the indications will be. Explanation.

the relative bearing. The attachment bolts should be tightened in an anti-clockwise direction around the window. using fluid. Option B. On a conventional RMI the angle between the compass datum and the radio pointer arrow is. Question Number. Option A. the complimentary bearing. NIL. . Explanation. precautions should be taken that the bonding tag is attached to the correct attachment bolt. NIL. NIL. Option A. precautions must be taken to ensure that the attachment bolts are of the specified type. Option B. Correct Answer is. Explanation.Correct Answer is. the magnetic bearing. locking. zero variation. 192. Question Number. 190. 189. Option B. When changing a windscreen panel which has a standby magnetic compass located in the vicinity. Question Number. Question Number. Correct Answer is. the relative bearing. Option C. Isogonal lines link places of. Option A. using fluid. Option C. Explanation. precautions must be taken to ensure that the attachment bolts are of the specified type. NIL. Explanation. 191. A compass is made aperiodic by. Option A. tying it to the case. Correct Answer is. Option C. the required path with respect to actual path.

different variation. Explanation. Correct Answer is. what is the Calibrated Airspeed?. 278 knots. In an Artificial Horizon. Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems Pallett Page 81. Option C. 195. 662 knots. Option A. David Harris Page 49 (acceleration error). Question Number. If True Airspeed is 470 knots. In an artificial horizon Pendulosity Error is caused by. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems. Explanation. 550 knots. displacement of erection control device. Correct Answer is. Explanation. Question Number. what is the Equivalent Air speed?. Option A. 293 knots. If the Airspeed Indicator reading is 300 Knots. 193. Question Number. 304 knots. Correct Answer is. equal variation. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems. Option C. Option A. Erection Error is caused by. Question Number. bottom heaviness of inner gimbals. 196. equal variation. Explanation. Correct Answer is. Option C. bottom heaviness of inner gimbals. 296 knots.Option B. Option B. 278 knots. Option B. Option B. . 194. David Harris Page 14. 304 knots. Option C. True airspeed is always higher than EAS (or IAS) at any altitude above Sea Level. bottom lightness of inner gimbals.

Option A. Question Number. 197. Correct Answer is. A Vertical Speed indicator Metering Unit Consist of. Explanation. the course deviation bar. Explanation. NIL. Question Number. both lateral and longitudinal axis. David Harris Page 64/65. longitudinal axis. Flux Valve senses angle of horizontal component with respect to the aircraft's. Option C. Correct Answer is. NIL. Explanation. NIL. Question Number. Option C. 198. Correct Answer is. bottom lightness of inner gimbals. lateral axis. Option A. Option C. displacement of erection control device. Option A. the course deviation bar. Option B. Option B. both a) & b). Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems. a capillary. . 199. Option C. Correct Answer is. Explanation. The manual VOR input is for. both a) & b). Option B. the radio magnetic indicator. the ADI. Option B. an orifice. longitudinal axis. displacement of erection control device. Option A. bottom heaviness of inner gimbals.

Explanation. Option B.hpg.3. Option B. Download TGL No. http://www. Option C. 204.com. when Mcrit is reached. pitot and static. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. +/-50ft for instrument error. pitot and static.300ft system. +/-50ft for instrument error. Machmeters work on. Option C. Option A. Explanation.com/library.300ft system.Question Number. Option A. altitude information. selection of altitude. Aircraft certified before 1997 with RVSM.8. Question Number. Option B. Correct Answer is.htm Para.200ft system. Option C. . Explanation. maximum tolerance for the system is. pitot.6 at http://www2. Option B. static.eur-rvsm. when Mcrit is reached. approach to or deviation from selected altitude. 207. An aircraft with Mach warning will warn. approach to or deviation from selected altitude. NIL. +/-50ft for instrument error. Option A. Question Number. 206. when envelope limit is reached. Correct Answer is. when Mach 1 is exceeded.htm Question Number.domingoaereo. +/. Purpose of Altitude Alerting is to warn the pilot of. NIL.500ft system tolerance. +/. Option C. Option A.br/Boeing727/Manual/warnings.ig. +/. +/. 205.

radar. VOR. NIL. It is required. Option A. The fluid is not aerated properly. Question Number. misalignment of pitot head. to compensate for expansion of the fluid. Option C. Option B. The earth's magnetic field is. compression of air in the tube at high speed. vertical across the earth. plan.Explanation. Explanation. VOR. There is an air bubble in the compass. 211. 208. It is due to high altitude. Question Number. Correct Answer is. plan. NIL. Correct Answer is. attitude. Option C. Explanation. Option A. radar. Option A.David Harris P17 ASI Errors (3). map. map. vertical at the poles. ILS. attitude. Correct Answer is. Question Number. Option A. compression of air in the tube at high speed. Question Number. 210. Option B. ILS. map. Option B. horizontal at the magnetic equator. Option B. plan. Option C. . vertical at the poles. horizontal across the earth. Option C. VOR. NIL. ILS. Explanation. Compressibility error in a pitot head is caused by. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems . ILS. An HSI provides what information?. 209. blockage in the pitot tube. horizontal at the magnetic equator. VOR.

Question Number. Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems Pallett Page 189. . Option C. the pilot must resume control and land the aircraft. reflected signal from aircraft's own radar. Explanation.C.C.C. Option B. Option A. Instruments/Avionic Systems . voltage at twice the frequency of the excitation voltage.C. Explanation. Option B. the pilot must resume control and land the aircraft. Explanation. rectified D. Question Number.05. voltage at twice the frequency of the excitation voltage. 212. the autoland can continue. A. Pallett Automatic Flight Control p211. 3. Correct Answer is. NIL. Primary Radar is. 2. voltage. Correct Answer is. Explanation. A. but the Wxr and TCAS are also 'primary radar'. voltage at the same frequency as the excitation voltage. Option C. A. Correct Answer is. interrogation of aircraft's transponder.2.Correct Answer is. When an autopilot is Fail Passive. Option B..Avionic Systems. the aircraft reverts to fail operational autopilot. distance measuring equipment gives. reflected signal from aircraft's own radar. ATC is ground use. Option C. It is due to high altitude. 1. Option A. Question Number. Option A. for ground use only. Question Number. On an aircraft's navigation display. 11A. A flux detector output is a.

Option C. . Option C. Explanation. EHSI & EADI. Option B. 6. to actuate on. 5. OK.Option A. Explanation. the question was written in February!. the database is updated every. Option A. radio deviation is shown on the. to actuate off. ground range to beacon. slant range to beacon. Radio deviation is VOR or ILS. 3 Months. Option A. Correct Answer is. Option B. Option C. Autopilot servo brake is energised. Question Number. Question Number. Question Number. On a flight management system. 1 Month. 4. to actuate off. Explanation. Correct Answer is. Option B. Explanation. slant range to beacon. at the same time as the clutch. Jeppesen A & P Technician Airframe Textbook page 12-17. EHSI & EADI. The deviation indicator is duplicated. height and range to beacon. On a modern aircraft flight instrument display system. Correct Answer is. 2 Months. Option B. Option C. It is on the EHSI and EADI. Correct Answer is. Option A. 1 Month. Pallett Aircraft Electrical Systems 3rd Edition Page 142. EADI. EHSI.

Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 12-13. 8. 121. However. VOR.Question Number. 121. Option A.5 Hz. JAR OPS 1. Question Number. Option B. Option B.1 MHz is what frequency?. 9. prohibit them on Transport Category aircraft. Heavy passenger aircraft. Option A. 125. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 12-25. 112. ILS.no direct reference to them being 'essential' on light aircraft is found. 121. Option C.5 Hz. ANO Schedule 4 Scale N and Article 47. 123. Option C.820 or 1.5 Hz. Option B. Question Number.5 Hz. Option A. Aerial work aircraft. 7. Correct Answer is. Option B. VHF. Light aircraft. Question Number. 118-137 MHz is VHF frequency. Emergency frequency is. Option C. Option C. Correct Answer is. Explanation. VHF. . Explanation. 10. VOR. Correct Answer is.5 MHz is what frequency?. Explanation. Light aircraft.850. VOR. ILS. Option A. Correct Answer is. Which category are hand mikes considered essential?. VHF.

13. 11. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 12-36. do not use cellulose paint. Less than 112 MHz odd decimals are ILS. Pallett Automatic Flight Control 2nd Edition Page 81.Explanation. do not use cellulose paint. Question Number. . Three. Option B. Explanation. CAIPs RL/2-2 8. Option B. Polyurethane. Three. green. Four. Question Number. Option A.2. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. blue. Question Number. Two. Option A. On a fibreglass aerial. 112-118 MHz is VOR frequency. use cellulose paint. use any paint. Not cellulose. Explanation.1. Option C. Option C. Correct Answer is. white. white. 14. Question Number. blue. Option C. what paint should be used?. 12.1. Jeppesen A&P. amber. Option A.2. Not cellulose. When painting a neoprene coated radio antenna. Option B. How many axis does the aircraft autopilot control?. Option A. ILS marker beacon lights are. Option B. Technician Airframe Textbook Page 12-14. Explanation. Cellulose only. CAIPs RL/2-2 8.

5 MHz.850 c. Explanation. An autopilot PFCU servo brake is. Option A. Explanation. energised at the same time as the clutch. Correct Answer is. energised off. Question Number. Option B.Option C. Option B. . Option A. Correct Answer is. a VOR frequency. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 12-24. energised off. Explanation. energised on. Explanation. a HF frequency. blue. Correct Answer is. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 12-24. Option C. 122. The aviation distress frequency is. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 12-25. Option B. Option C. an ILS frequency. 121. Pallett Page 142. 121.1 MHz is. 111. Jeppesen Aircraft Radio Systems Page 69 shows this as a localiser frequency. green.820 or 1. amber. 16. Option A.5 MHz. amber. Aircraft Electrical Systems.5 MHz. 121. JAR OPS 1.5 kHZ. Correct Answer is. 17. Option C. 15. an ILS frequency. Question Number. Aircraft Electricity and Avionics (5th Edition) Eismin Page 312. Question Number. white. blue.

Correct Answer is. Low Frequency. Option B. Correct Answer is. 18. Option C. A radar altimeter in track mode is effective to. High Frequency. Aircraft Electricity and Electronics. a VOR frequency. Also Aircraft Radio Systems by James Powell Page 101. Correct Answer is. 21. Decca navigation is low frequency.324. 112. Explanation. Correct Answer is. Question Number. 19.Question Number. a VOR frequency. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 12-14. 112 . DME. Which of the following has an hyperbolic curve?. Explanation. VOR. Loran C. 100 ft. . Option C. an ADF frequency. 2500 ft. ILS. Option A. Option C. Option B. Loran C. Option A. 20. Question Number. Option B. What does a Decca Navigation system operate on?. 2500 ft.1 MHz is. Option A. Jeppesen Avionic Fundamentals Page 153. Option A.118 MHz are VOR frequencies. Option C. Low Frequency. Loran C is a type of LF Navigation. 2000 ft. Option B. Question Number. Very High Frequency. Eismin Page 323 . Explanation. Explanation.

Explanation. to limit the range of control movement.000 feet. . Option A.500 feet. Correct Answer is.500 feet. Option A. Correct Answer is. 15° above the horizon with respect to the viewer. A GPS satellite will come into view. Option C. Correct Answer is. private aircraft.0 to 100 feet. Explanation. from 0 to 2. transport category aircraft only. Pallett Automatic Flight Control Pg 289. 25. Question Number. Correct Answer is. to protect the servo motor in the event of inadvertent runaway. ANO Schedule 4 Scale N. above 10. 10° above the horizon with respect to the viewer. Option B. Option A. Option B. Question Number. from 0 to 2. Explanation. 24. The purpose of the clutch in an autothrottle servo is. Question Number. Track mode of an RA is operational. 22. 15° above the horizon with respect to the viewer. transport category aircraft only. Option C. to allow the pilot to override. aerial work and transport category aircraft. Restrictions to the use of hand held microphones apply to. 23. Option B. to allow the pilot to override. Option A. from 1. Elevation mask' is 15 degrees. Option C.Question Number. Option B. 20° above the horizon with respect to the viewer. Option C.

3. Correct Answer is. 2. lightning strikes. both ends. Option A.Explanation. 3 cm. Explanation. skin to air particle collisions. Option B. How many aerials are there in a TCAS system?. Correct Answer is. 3 cm. . HF radiation. Option B.2500 ft Jeppesen Avionic Fundamentals Page 223. Explanation. 5 cm. 29. Question Number. Correct Answer is. 26. Precipitation static is caused by. Option C. Aircraft Electricity and Electronics . the front end. Option B. 28. Option A. HF aerials have weak points designed at. skin to air particle collisions. Option C. Question Number. 1. Wavelength of band radar is. Option C. the back end. Question Number. Avionic Systems: Operation and Maintenance page 160. Option B. Option A. 10 m.Eismin page 211. Introduction to Avionics Dale Cundy Page 82. The radio altimeter is operational from 0 . Explanation. Option A. Option C. 2. Question Number. 27.

CAT II ILS Runway Visual Range (RVR) is 'not less than 1200ft'. Option C. 1090 MHz. 1200 ft. 1090 MHz. Option A. Explanation. CAIPs RL/2-2 para 2. Correct Answer is. When flaps are lowered. Elevators. Option A. 1200 ft. A&P Airframe Technician Textbook Pg 12-35.2. Question Number. Option B. Option B.Correct Answer is. 1000 ft. 33. Avionic Fundamentals page 211. increase the angle of incidence of the THS. angle of incidence remains the same. Question Number. What is the reply frequency of an aircraft transponder?. 30. Ref: Avionic Fundamentals page 199. Ailerons. 1000 MHz. Explanation. the automatic trim system will. the back end. THS. THS. Option B. Explanation. 1030 MHz. Option C. CAT 2 RVR limit is. Explanation. With autopilot engaged. which control surface is inhibited?. Question Number.000 ft. Option B. Correct Answer is. 10. Correct Answer is. . 32. Option C. Question Number.4. Option A. Option A. 31.

35. LORAN C. a pitch command input will cause. Explanation. LORAN C. moves in pitch and roll. After thrust reverser has deployed beyond 90% so that TO/GA can be selected in case of emergency. Pallett Automatic Flight Control Page 286. Option B. . moves in pitch and roll. Explanation. A&P Airframe Technician Textbook Pg 12-47 (Parallel system). decrease the angle of incidence of the THS. the control column. 36. Option A. This is assuming it is a non-fly-by-wire aircraft. In aircraft with an autopilot and an auto trim. Option B. ILS. moves in pitch. Option A. On landing. does not move. On selection of thrust reverse. Option B. Explanation. Correct Answer is. Explanation. NIL. Jeppesen Avionic Fundamentals Page 153. Correct Answer is. In autopilot. Option A. Question Number. A hyperbolic system is.Option C. Correct Answer is. Option A. VOR. When is autothrottle disengaged?. Option C. 34. Option C. decrease the angle of incidence of the THS. Option C. Loran C is a type of Omega Navigation. On selection of thrust reverse. Question Number. Question Number. Question Number. 37. Correct Answer is. column to move and trim system to move.

One current. Amount of times reply signal is sent per second.This is assuming it is a non-fly-by-wire aircraft. Explanation. A hyperbolic system is. Option A. How many programs can a FMC store?. column to move and trim system to move. Option B. Option B. Option A. Question Number. Explanation. 400 m. Two. Option A. A&P Technician Airframe Textbook 12-47 . Question Number. Correct Answer is. 39. In regard to the aircraft transponder. Amount of times reply signal is sent per second. Boeing 757 chapter 34-61-00 page 201. Question Number. CAT II ILS Runway Visual Range (RVR) is 'not less than 1200ft'. Amount of times interrogating signal is sent per second. column will not move and trim system will move. column to move but trim system not to move. One active and one standby. NIL. Explanation. 1200 ft = 400m Ref: Avionic Fundamentals page 199. Option C. 38. Correct Answer is. Number of pulses per signal. One active and one standby. . Option C. 200 m. Correct Answer is. Both active. what is the pulse frequency?. 40. 800 m. Option C. Two. 400 m.Option B. Option C. Correct Answer is. Explanation. Two. Pallett Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems Page 399 on. Option B.

take off. Pallett Automatic Flight Control 4th Edition Page 286. Option A. 42. Correct Answer is. Option A. approach. Explanation. How does an IRS calculate velocity?. 43. EPR and speed for autothrottle is activated at. pitch. Localizer. Option B. roll. Correct Answer is. Option B. Option A. Explanation. Option B. take off. what controls pitch mode?. Correct Answer is.Question Number. Integration of accelerometers. Double integration of accelerometers. Pallett Automatic Flight Control 4th Edition Page 187. Option C. Explanation. Question Number. . Integration of accelerometers. VOR. Option C. Question Number. Option A. Pallett Automatic Flight Control 4th Edition Page 187. Differentiation of laser gyro. yaw. Option C. Correct Answer is. In an autopilot. Question Number. Glideslope controls autopilot in. Explanation. Glideslope. pitch. Option C. 41. Glideslope. Option B. 44. Pallett Automatic Flight Control 4th Edition Page 191. cruise.

Ability to store 6 waypoints. 17 m. An AFCS uses VOR and ILS (RA is not ground based). DME. 48. RA. Option C. Option B. Correct Answer is. See Module 11 Forum. Indicates bearing and airspeed until next active waypoint. Question Number. Static dischargers help eliminate radio interference by dissipating static electricity into the atmosphere at. ILS. the static discharge occurs at lower current and more frequently'. What is the wavelength of C band radar?. Correct Answer is. Option A. What is B-RNAV?. Option C. high voltage levels. ADF. Option A. Reference found in an older version of A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 700 (Not in latest edition). ILS. Question Number. low current levels. Indicates bearing and airspeed until next active waypoint. Explanation. VOR. Option B. Option C. all voltage levels. Question Number. 45. ADF.Question Number. 46. . Option B. Correct Answer is. ILS. Explanation. 47. ILS. An Automatic Flight Control System receives inputs from the following ground based transmitters. Option A. VOR. Explanation. 7 cm. Quote 'If the aircraft is equipped with static dischargers. Indicates true airspeed. Option B. Option A. low current levels.

Option C. 53.Option A. Option A. processing unit. Option B. Option C. Option B. Explanation. control. Option C. Page 231. What is the colour of the middle marker beacon?. Option B. 55. course deviation bar.af.Avionics Fundamentals. Correct Answer is. Explanation. a PCU. Pallett. Page 219 fig 14-2. receiver. Correct Answer is.robins. Explanation. The mach trim is initiated by. an electric motor. Amber. processing unit. Option A. Correct Answer is.htm . Blue. the autopilot motor. Option B. RMI. Correct Answer is.mil/lkn/jssmogps. satellites. B737 MM Chapter 34-31-02. Automatic Flight Control. user. glideslope. 54. interactive console. Explanation. Question Number. Question Number. White. Question Number. A GPS system is formed from. NIL. Jeppesen . display unit. control. http://www. user. space. Amber. space. course deviation bar. the autopilot motor. Option A. Option C.

Explanation. 56. Jeppesen Avionics Fundamentals Page 99. Explanation. Option A. Jeppesen Avionics Fundamentals Page 99. glideslope first. can be connected to either side. Correct Answer is. 58. Option A. aligned to the true north. Correct Answer is. Option B. Explanation. Option C. have rotational parts. . Option B. Question Number. Correct Answer is. Option C. it. 59. Option B. Automatic Flight Control Pallett Page 184-185.Question Number. Correct Answer is. Option C. must be connected to the right side. Explanation. have movable parts. localiser first. followed by localiser. do not have rotational parts. 57. Option A. Laser gyros are. localiser first. Option C. followed by glideslope. For aircraft with dual CMCs. Question Number. Question Number. must be connected to the left side. must be connected to the left side. Aircraft Electricity and Electronics Fifth Edition Eismin Chap 13 page 271. aligned to the aircraft structure. followed by glideslope. Option B. Laser gyros. do not have rotational parts. aligned to the aircraft structure. aligned to the magnetic north. when only one CMC isavailable. in any order. A radio coupled approach is. Option A.

60. 62. Option A. Avionic Fundamentals page 263. Option C. Question Number. Option B. changes with radio altitude. Correct Answer is. Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems Page 426. The rate of G/S warning in GPWS. VHF. Question Number. What frequency are VOR and ILS?. Option B. Option B. UHF. Question Number. Option B. does not change. Option A. Correct Answer is. for turn command back-up. changes with radio altitude. 4th Edition Page 121/122. HF. Option C. Automatic Flight Control. marker beacons.Question Number. 61. Option C. VHF. HF communications. Jepessen A & P Technician Textbook p12-3 fig 12-2 shows HF COMM as 2-30 MHz. for turn coordination. Pallett. 63. Explanation. changes with barometric altitude. A radio frequency of 16 MHz would be used for. Option C. Explanation. Explanation. Explanation. for turn coordination. . for yaw damping compensation. Aileron signal is fed to the rudder channel. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. Option A. weather radar. HF communications. Option A.

JAR 25. Option B. 66. Correct Answer is. Explanation. . Option B. Option A. on right side of control wheel. Option C. on side of control wheel furthest from throttles. by calendar date monthly. in the air by the pilot. 67. VHF. After touch down and thrust reversers are deployed. 64. Automatically switches off. Pilot's instinctive cut-out buttons are positioned. Option C. UHF. Automatic Flight Control Pallett and Coyle Page 286. ILS and VOR operate in which range. Option A. VHF. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook 12-1. Advances throttles. Explanation. Option A. Automatically switches off. HF. An aircraft lands in autoland. on side of control wheel furthest from throttles. Explanation. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. Option C. on the ground by the pilot. Question Number.Question Number. Option A.1329 (d). Question Number. Stays armed for go around in an emergency. Question Number. Option B. Option C. 65. FMC secondary flight-plan is selected. Option B. on left side of control wheel. What happens to autothrottle?.

a localizer. Explanation. in the air by the pilot. 68. a glide slope and the marker beacons. 71. FMC has a primary (active) and a secondary (alternative) stored flight plan. Question Number. the glideslope provides. 69. lateral steering. Aircraft Radio Systems by James Powell page 69. Correct Answer is. throttle'.Correct Answer is. Option C. GPWS operating in mode 1 and 2 when close to ground will give. distance checks. a localizer and a glide slope. Option A. Option A. In ILS. vertical steering. NIL. undercarriage. Option B. a localizer. fly left. Question Number. Explanation. Option A. If the 90 Hz tone modulation in a localizer receiver predominates. 70. red caption and aural 'whoop whoop pull up'. Explanation. Question Number. Question Number. vertical steering. Aircraft Radio Systems by James Powell page 69. . Correct Answer is. Option B. Option C. flaps. The components of an ILS are. amber warning. red caption and aural 'pull up. Option A. a localizer and the marker beacons. the deviation indicator will show. Option C. a glide slope and the marker beacons. Explanation. Option B. red caption and aural 'whoop whoop pull up'. Correct Answer is.

Correct Answer is. . Option C. An inertial navigation unit uses pin programming for. glideslope. 73.Option B. take off. Option C. take off. Option A. Correct Answer is. Aircraft Radio Systems by James Powell page 73. Question Number. Explanation. Question Number. glideslope. Autopilot will operate above what altitude?. Option B. fly right. Option A. NIL. Correct Answer is. the flag. A radio coupled autopilot in pitch uses. Question Number. approach. Explanation. 500 ft. Question Number. 74. ADF. Option C. Option B. NIL. Option A. Explanation. fly right. 72. Option C. Option B. cruise. NIL. 1000 ft. 500 ft. EPR and thrust modes in autothrottle are the only modes that can be selected in. VOR. 75. 750 ft. Correct Answer is. Explanation.

Correct Answer is. FMC via CDU. GPWS has only connection to the RA. ctr or right side! The unit is universal for all. Option C. Question Number. GPWS will show a fault if the following fails:. all gimbals. Question Number. 78. Dataplate on the FMC. Pressure altimeter. Option B. Air speed indicator. Radio altimeter. Option B. Correct Answer is.Option A. Radio altimeter. . location. location. Option B. Option C. Explanation. NIL. How can it be verified if FMC update is correct?. aircraft type. It does use barometric vertical speed however. FMC via CDU. Explanation. Explanation. all gimbals. Option C. 77. INS has mercury switches on. magnetic orientation. Option C. outer gimbal. BITE. Correct Answer is. Option A. Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems Pallett Page 116. Pin programming for IRU`s and INU`s are carried out on the aircraft rack mounted side. inner gimbal. Correct Answer is.e left. Option B. Question Number. Explanation. 76. Of the three. The purpose being to tell the installed unit which position it is serving within the aircraft i. Option A. Option A.

Option C. down. nowhere . By using an alternate frequency. Option A. 90 Hz left of runway centreline. Correct Answer is. Option B. How does an aircraft distinguish its own Distance Measuring Equipment reply from those for other aircraft?. up. By modulation of an audio tone. 82. By changing at random the time delay between the pulse pairs of the interrogation signal. 150 Hz above the glide path. Explanation.Question Number.this is normal on an ILS approach. 90 Hz left of runway centreline. Option C. Option A. Option C. 150 Hz left of runway centerline. NIL.95 MHz. Aircraft Radio Systems Powell Page 70. 108. 79. 190 . By changing at random the time delay between the pulse pairs of the interrogation signal. Correct Answer is. In what frequency range does the automatic direction finding (ADF) system operate?. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 12-13. Option A. Option C. Option B. What modulation is used for the beams of a localiser in an ILS?. If the runway picture in the EADI moves down during an ILS approach. down.117. 90 Hz right of runway centreline. 80. Option B. 190 . Question Number. Option A. Correct Answer is. Explanation. 1025 . Question Number.1759 KHz. 81. 150 Hz right of runway centerline. the aircraft must fly.00 . Option B. 150 Hz right of runway centerline.1150 KHz. . Question Number.1759 KHz. Correct Answer is. Explanation. 90 Hz below the glide path.

89. Correct Answer is. Question Number. Option C. Option A. To ensure that there is no radar transmission with aircraft on ground. http://www. Explanation. every 28 days. NIL. Flaps/undercarriage. 88. How does it operate?. . Explanation. Correct Answer is.Option B.htm Question Number. NIL. Flaps/undercarriage. To provide stabilisation for the radar antenna. Explanation. every 28 days. Azimuth and elevation transmitters produce a narrow beam which is rapidly scanned TO and FRO or UP and DOWN. Azimuth and elevation transmitters produce a narrow beam which is rapidly scanned TO and FRO or UP and DOWN. The FMS navigation database is updated. Option B. Option B. Correct Answer is. 87. To place the weather radar target in azimuth and distance for the display. Aircraft Radio Systems Powell Page 224. Rudder/ailerons. Which systems provide envelope modulation information for a Ground Proximity Warning System (GPWS). daily. Option C. Question Number. NIL. Option A. Option A. It operates in the same manner as ILS but utilises higher frequencies. Explanation. Autothrottle. It operates in conjunction with DME at lower frequencies than ILS. Option B. after a B or C check has been completed. Option C. Option C. Correct Answer is. The Time Reference Scanning Beam (TRSB) corresponds to ILS localiser and glidepath.artietheairplane.com/radar.

correction. 93. suspended between two springs in a tube. resolved. correction . in c. Question Number. Option B. Option A. Error.Question Number. Option B. a mass suspended in free air. . Explanation. Option A. Option A. not the accelerometers. follow up. it is the system which is strapdown. (Note: the mass is suspended in fluid. an azimuth gyro system. In a modern aircraft the ACARS system is used primarily for. Option B. 90. as part of the passenger telephone system. Question Number. Option C. Option B. Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems Pallett Page 256. Question Number. In an INS system the accelerometer is a mass. Correct Answer is. three strap down accelerometers. Explanation. What are the main areas of the autopilot?. ring laser gyros. ring laser gyros. communications between the aircraft and base. azimuth gyro is not the only type of gyro involved). command. Option C. a remotely mounted mass on the airframe. reporting defects on the aircraft automatically. Option C. 91. In an IRS system you would expect to find. Correct Answer is. (Note: in b. follow up. Assuming they mean a strapdown system. Error. 92. and is not remote). Option C. NIL. suspended between two springs in a tube. demand. demand. Explanation. communications between the aircraft and base. correction. Option A. Error. Correct Answer is.

136 MHz. . flightdeck. first officer.Correct Answer is. command. Explanation. Option B. Low Tone. Option C.112 MHz. Option C. captain. Option A. Option A. JAR 25. 108 . Question Number. HF. Question Number. 108 .136 MHz. VHF frequency is. Channel 3 on a CVR records. 96. Option B. The call system for the captain will have the audio signal of a. Aircraft Electricity and Electronics Eismin Page 295. Correct Answer is. Question Number. hi tone chime. 95.118 MHz. Question Number. follow up. horn. Explanation. Correct Answer is. NIL. Explanation. DME works on the frequency of. Option B.1457. Option A. hi tone chime. 94. 108 . Correct Answer is. flightdeck. Option B. 97. Explanation. VHF. correction. Error. 108 . Option C. Option A. B737.

Option A. both loop and sense aerial. A radial is referenced. 100. How is the next database on the FMC activated?. on a compass. Option B. loop aerial. Question Number. NIL. Option C. Manually. Option B. 99. Manually in the air. What GPWS mode gives a 'Whoop Whoop. Correct Answer is. both loop and sense aerial. NIL. UHF. from a beacon. Question Number. Question Number. Explanation. Option A. Explanation. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. on the ground. . 98. NIL. Option A. Option C. on the ground. Explanation. ADF works by using. Option A. UHF. Automatically by due date. Mode 6.Option C. Explanation. Option B. Question Number. Correct Answer is. 101. from a beacon. Aircraft Electricity and Electronics Eismin Page 310 and 278. to a VOR. Pull-up' command?. sense aerial. Manually. Option C.

Mode A. Correct Answer is. Question Number. 104. Option B. A transponder that is compatible for use with a TCAS system would be. Explanation. Option B. on inner gimbal ring. Option B. Mode 2.19. uses 24 satellites equally spaced around 6 orbits. NIL. Transport Category Aircraft Systems Page 9. Mode S. on outer gimbal ring. Mode 3. Correct Answer is. Option A. Explanation. Option A. Option C. 105.Option B. Correct Answer is. on inner gimbal ring. Option C. Explanation. Mode C. Option C. Question Number. Option A. on both gimbal rings. Introduction to TCAS version 7 US Department of Transport FAA Page 17 (Target Surveillance). 103. . uses 24 satellites equally spaced around 6 orbits. NIL. Correct Answer is. uses 21 satellites equally spaced around 7 orbits. Option C. GPS. uses 18 satellites equally spaced around 6 orbits. Question Number. Explanation. The IRS laser gyro is a. Mode S. Mode 2. Question Number. Random precession of the inner gimbal ring is detected by placing mercury switches. 102.

has a stabilized platform. Option B. Option C. The laser ring gyro. White diamonds. . Question Number. White circles. Option B. What manoeuvre does TCAS II advise the pilot to make?. Introduction to TCAS version 7 US Department of Transport FAA Page 27 (Threat Detection). Explanation. red squares and amber circles. rate gyro. Option B. RA. Correct Answer is. either RA or TA. TA. Explanation. Question Number. Question Number. Eismin Page 373. does not have gimbal and rotating parts. White diamonds. Option C. Eismin Page 373. red diamonds and amber circles. Correct Answer is. Option C. Option A. displaced gyro. rate gyro. 108. Correct Answer is. 107. does not have gimbal. red diamonds and amber squares. Aircraft Electricity and Electronics 5th Ed. White squares. Introduction to TCAS version 7 US Department of Transport FAA Page 27 (Threat Detection). Explanation. red squares and amber circles. displacement gyro. RA. Aircraft Electricity and Electronics 5th Ed. 106. Option B.Option A. Explanation. does not have gimbal and rotating parts. What are the shapes of traffic shown on a TCAS display ?. Rate integrated gyro. Option C. Option A. Option A. Correct Answer is.

Correct Answer is. Auto Trim is inhibited. Manually through a clutch on the throttle levers. Where is the autothrottle disconnect switch?. 110. . Option B. Fail Operable. Option C. Explanation. Option A. Explanation. Option A. 3 autopilot computers are considered. NIL. Fail Passive. NIL. Correct Answer is. NIL. Question Number. Correct Answer is. Question Number. Fail resistant. Option A. NIL. Option B. 109. Option B. the. Explanation. Within reach of the Captain. Mach trim is inhibited. It is not possible. Manually through a clutch on the throttle levers. Option C. 112. Within reach of both pilots. Within reach of the First Officer. Auto Trim is inhibited. Within reach of both pilots. Option C. Option A. 111. Correct Answer is. In autopilot with THS in motion. Option C. Option B. How can a pilot over-ride the auto-throttle?. By deselecting auto-throttle first. Explanation. Question Number.Question Number. Fail Operable. elevator is inhibited.

Gear position warning. 114. LF. The ILS marker beacon operates at a frequency of. Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems Pallett page 406. the failed FMS has a blank screen. it has no effect. Explanation. Aircraft Electricity and Electronics Eismin page 311. Decca navigation uses. LF. NIL. because the second FMS was in the stand-by mode. Stall warning. HF. Explanation. 116. Option C. Resolution Advisories. Option B. VHF. There are two FMS installed on the aircraft. 113.com/~jproc/hyperbolic/decca.Question Number. Correct Answer is. 75 MHz. Option A. Option B. http://webhome. Explanation.html Question Number. NIL. now it is active. Option C. Option B. Option A. . Explanation. Correct Answer is. Question Number. 115. If one FMS fails during flight. Option A. Option C. Option A. 50 MHz. 75 MHz. the whole FMS system is unserviceable until the pilot switches over to standby. Stall warning. 100 MHz.idirect. Which of the following has priority over TCAS warnings?. Correct Answer is. Question Number. Correct Answer is. Option B. the failed FMS has a blank screen. Option C.

Explanation. Correct Answer is. http://www. alt.asp Question Number. Option C. 119. the RMI. a series of slots and wave guides. system?. TCAS. 118. 3 satellites. Aircraft Electricity and Electronics Eismin page 342. 4 satellites. a Doppler antenna. The manual input for the VOR course corrector is related to. Option B. Option A. the CDI offset bar. 120. Which of the following systems is inhibited when a test is performed of the rad. Option C. Correct Answer is. 117.Question Number. To obtain an accurate GPS fix. A flat plate antenna is a. the CDI offset bar. Aircraft Electricity and Electronics Eismin Pages 319. Option B. Question Number. 4 satellites. altitude alert. a series of slots and wave guides. Option B. GPWS. Option C. Question Number. Option A. the ILS system. Option A.tycoelectronics. the GPS receiver must be in line of sight of.com/gps/basics. Option C. Option A. . Explanation. 6 satellites. Explanation. Correct Answer is. Option B. NIL. parabolic antenna. 4 satellites are required to provide height information as well as position.

The autothrottle system at touchdown will.Correct Answer is. Option C. Altitude and interrogation. Question Number. Option A. go to idle. go to idle and disconnect. Aircraft Electricity and Electronics Eismin Pages 318 and 319. Option A. Option B. Before decision height. Question Number. Avionics Fundamentals Page 211. Option C. Correct Answer is. 20 satellites and 5 standby satellite. A Mode C transponder gives the following info:. 121. Explanation. GPWS. Option A. 24 satellites and 1 standby satellites. NIL. When will the decision height aural warning sound?. Explanation. Explanation. Altitude. Explanation. 124. Altitude. Correct Answer is. Pallett Automatic Flight Control Page 286. At decision height. Option A. 21 satellites and 3 standby satellites. Option C. Question Number. go to idle and disconnect. Interrogation. 123. . Option B. apply reverse thrust. 21 satellites and 3 standby satellites. The GPS satellite system consists of. 122. Option B. Option B. Question Number. Correct Answer is.

Option C. Question Number. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems. Question Number. accelerometers on a stable platform and gyros fixed to the airframe. 127. for the database of aircraft landing altitudes. 128. Option A. 126. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems. After decision height. accelerometers and gyros fixed to the airframe. Before the aeroplane is moved from the loading pier. accelerometers fixed to the airframe and gyros on a stable platform. 125. Explanation. Correct Answer is. Option A. Correct Answer is. Option B. Correct Answer is. under CAA Rules. NIL. the pilot must. Explanation. Option B. insert the latitude and longitude of the pier into the INS. Question Number.Option C. Correct Answer is. accelerometers and gyros fixed to the airframe. to compensate for FMC position on the aircraft. non-linear force. Option A. FMCS Pin Programming is allowed. insert the latitude and longitude of the first waypoint into the INS. Explanation. to compensate for FMC position on the aircraft. Option A. Explanation. David Harris Page 82. NIL. Question Number. set the altitude to be fed into the INS. Option C. A force re-balance accelerometer in an IN system has the acceleration force balanced by a. insert the latitude and longitude of the pier into the INS. At decision height. Option C. A 'strap-down' inertial navigation system has. Option B. . David Harris Page 90.

10-3 g. the effect of the earth's rotation on a stable platform. 10-6 g. gyro wander. platform misalignment. Option C. 131. Coriolis effect is the result of. Correct Answer is. Option A. A laser gyro output is. Option A. Option B. In an IN system. 132. Explanation. . Correct Answer is. An accelerometer in an IN system must be able to detect accelerations down to.Option B. Correct Answer is. Option C. NIL. directly proportional to angular turning rate. directly proportional to angular turning rate. Option B. Question Number. Option C. David Harris Page 33. Explanation. linear force. David Harris Page 85. Question Number. linear force. Option C. Question Number. constant force. directly proportional to frequency addition. The Inertial Navigation System computes distance from acceleration by. Explanation. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control. Option B. 10-6 g. inversely proportional to angular turning rate. the effect of the earth's rotation on a stable platform. 130. NIL. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems. Correct Answer is. Option A. Question Number. 129. Explanation. 10-2 g.

135. two successive integrations. Question Number. torquing the gyros. David Harris Page 81. Option A. force balance system. orthogonally. Option C. Question Number. re-aligning the stable platform. David Harris Page 76. Option A. two successive integrations. Correct Answer is. a single integration. linear spring. David Harris Page. 133. Question Number. Option A. . the output of the accelerometer is linear because of a. Correct Answer is. The three accelerometers on a stable platform are mounted. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control. Option B. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control. adding a correction term to the accelerometer outputs. a differential followed by an integration. Explanation. 120 degrees apart. NIL. Option C. Coriolis effect is corrected for by. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control. Option B. 134. parallel to each other. Option B. Explanation. Explanation. Option C. orthogonally.Option A. adding a correction term to the accelerometer outputs. force balance system. Correct Answer is. Option B. pendulous suspension. Explanation. Correct Answer is. In an IN system. Option C.

Question Number. Question Number. 15 degrees per hour. In a gimbal system. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control. Option C. Correct Answer is. the purpose of the stable platform is to. Correct Answer is. Option B. stop the gyros from toppling. azimuth gimbal. David Harris Page 77/78. 138. Option A. Option B. Question Number. 5 degrees per hour. azimuth gimbal. David Harris Page 37. 136. 84 degrees per hour. the stable platform is the. Option A. Option C. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control. Option C. David Harris Page 77. provide attitude reference. Explanation. prevent unwanted acceleration affecting the accelerometers. Option A. 139. prevent unwanted acceleration affecting the accelerometers. Option C. Correct Answer is. Option B. 137. Explanation. Option B. Earth rate is approximately. Correct Answer is. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control. Explanation. pitch gimbal. The type of gyro generally used in an IN system is a.Question Number. 15 degrees per hour. Explanation. Option A. David Harris Page 77. rate integrating gyro. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control. rate integrating gyro. roll gimbal. displacement gyro. In an IN system. rate gyro. .

A Schuler pendulum has a period of oscillation of. Explanation. 140. Option C. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control.4 minutes. 142. When the inertial platform is torqued to perform like a Schuler pendulum. Option C. Explanation.4 seconds. David Harris Page 86. 8. Correct Answer is. Option B. Option B. satellites. Question Number. Question Number. Option A. the platform oscillates with respect to the local vertical. Option B. 141. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control. air data computer. Question Number. three gimbals. 84.4 minutes. Option A. Explanation. David Harris Page 86. . Correct Answer is. Option A. the platform remains fixed with respect to the local vertical. the platform rotates with respect to the aircraft. 143. Option C. four gimbals. 84. Option C. air data computer. Option B. Correct Answer is. NIL. 84. Doppler system.Question Number. An IN system requires data from the. four gimbals. Option A.4 minutes. NIL. To prevent gimbal lock on the stable platform it is normal to use. the platform oscillates with respect to the local vertical. Explanation. Correct Answer is. a pitch gimbal.

Explanation. Option C. actual track across the earth's surface. parallel to each other. 145. angle in degrees that aircraft track is left or right of desired track. The output of an INS can be fed to. Option C. perpendicular distance from the desired track. perpendicular distance from the desired track. Correct Answer is. Option C. Option A. attitude indicators. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control. Option A. 146. 90º to each other. Correct Answer is. David Harris Page 88.U. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control. Option C. Option A. when an error is detected. attitude indicators. Correct Answer is. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control. 144.D. two minutes before the next waypoint. David Harris Page 85. Option B. the C. Correct Answer is. two minutes before the next waypoint. Question Number.Question Number. Option B. When in manual mode. thirty seconds before a track change is required. David Harris Page 89. altimeters. alert lamp of the IN system will flash. vertical speed indicators. Option B. Explanation. Option A. The three accelerometers on a strapdown platform are mounted. 147. 120º apart. Question Number. TK (cross track) is the. 90º to each other. Explanation. Question Number. . Option B.

N. David Harris Page 78. before the aircraft moves?. Question Number. Correct Answer is. to feed information to the Captain and 1st Officers ADI displays. platform has. Correct Answer is. 3 accelerometers and 2 gyros (pitch and roll).S. Question Number. 150. Correct Answer is. 3 axis accelerometer.N. Using I. great circle arc. David Harris Page 81. course directed by ground station.S. Option B.N. Option C.S. great circle arc. Waypoints. Present position.T. rhumb line. Option B. 2 accelerometers and 3 gyros. NIL. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control. Option A. when navigation information is lost. Option A. NIL. A basic I. Option A. Explanation. 151. Option C. Present position.A. Option C. . Explanation. Option A. E. 149. Selection of the INS Mode Selector Unit (MSU) to ATT REF is made. Question Number.Explanation. an aircraft flie. 2 accelerometers and 3 gyros. Question Number. Option B. 148. Option C. Explanation. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control. What must be entered in to the I. when attitude information is lost. Option B.

NIL. Option A. . switched by weight-off switches in the undercarriage. Option A. standby power when airborne. the earth's rotational rate (15°/hour) times the sine of the latitude. Explanation.Correct Answer is. the vectorial addition of TAS and GS. distance perpendicular from the selected track. both when airborne and on the ground. the vectorial addition of IAS and TAS. standby power only when on the ground. Explanation. the earth's rotational rate (15°/hour) times the cosine of the latitude. to maintain the alignment phase. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control. difference in degrees that the aircraft track is to the right or left of the desired track. Option C. Question Number. the Battery Unit provides. The Earth Rate Compensation is computed from. the earth's rotational rate (15°/hour) times the sine of the latitude. Question Number. Option A. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control. both when airborne and on the ground. Option B. Correct Answer is. Option B. 154. when navigation information is lost. 155. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control. difference in degrees from True North in a clockwise direction from the desired track. Correct Answer is. Question Number. Option C. Explanation. 153. Option B. David Harris Page 85. David Harris Page 88. Option C. Control Display Unit (CDU) selection of TKE displays. Option B. Correct Answer is. difference in degrees that the aircraft track is to the right or left of the desired track. the earth's rotational rate (15°/hour) times the sine of thelongitude. INS wind speed is calculated from. Explanation. 152. Question Number. For the INS. David Harris Page 85. Option A.

NIL. Option B. Question Number. Question Number. Option B. Correct Answer is. Option B. Explanation. VHF nav system.2 must both have the same latitude and longitude present position entered. takes 10 minutes and present position must be entered before alignment. 163.Option B. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems. Correct Answer is. The localiser deviation signal for the flight director comes from the. 1 and No. optical 'backscatter' does not cause the contra-rotating beams to lock together. flight director computer. The heading error signal used in the heading select mode. takes 10 minutes and present position can be entered any time during the alignment. Option C. VHF comm system. Explanation. entered present latitude and longitude must agree with the latitude and longitude at the last power down. . Option A. Question Number. optical 'backscatter' does not cause the contra-rotating beams to lock together. 161. VHF nav system. Option A. latitude entered must be within given limits of the latitude computed by IRU. Explanation. Correct Answer is. Question Number. Explanation. Option C. A laser gyro dither mechanism ensures that. David Harris Page 47. NIL. 160. NIL. Option A. takes 10 minutes and present position can be entered any time during the alignment. Correct Answer is. For an IRS system to pass the 'Alignment System Performance Test' the. 162. the contra-rotating beams are synchronised together. latitude entered must be within given limits of the latitude computed by IRU. the No. Option C. that the two contra-rotating beams each operate at different frequencies. Option C.

Correct Answer is. 150 Hz. distance to touch down. turn left. Option B. Correct Answer is. Option B. 90 Hz. Option A. When an aircraft is flying along the extended centre line of the runway it is in the. Explanation. straight ahead. Explanation. turn right. 90 Hz modulation sector. the horizontal plane. Question Number. Option A. turn right. Explanation. NIL. as seen from the localiser transmitter. The correct sense demand generated for a selected heading 180°. . NIL. 167. Question Number. Option B. Question Number. Option C. The localiser modulation signal to the left of the localiser centre line. equi-signal sector. Option C. Option C. 169. Option A. 150 Hz modulation sector. Correct Answer is. 168. is.Question Number. the vertical plane. The localiser system offers approach guidance to the runway in terms of. It says 'as seen from the localiser transmitter'. 170. equi-signal sector. Option B. Option A. 90 KHz. Correct Answer is. the horizontal plane. 150 Hz. Option C. when the aircraft heading is 150° is.

Option B. Correct Answer is. are paired and one frequency selector suffices for both. Aircraft Radio Systems. The glideslope equipment operates in the. Option B. . the vertical plane. Question Number. adjacent to the touch-down point of the runway. page 206. Option B. the horizontal plane. UHF band. are fixed and common to all runways thereforefrequency selection is not necessary. The glideslope transmitter is located. Option C. Option A. Pallett. page 181 (bottom of the page) and Aircraft Radio Systems. NIL. Option C. Powell. the vertical plane. Explanation. VHF band. Fig. distance to touchdown. Option A.5. 173. 174. page 71 and Avionics Fundamentals. at the approach end of the runway. are paired and one frequency selector suffices for both. Question Number. Automatic Flight Control Pallett Page 181. Question Number. Correct Answer is. The glideslope system offers approach guidance to runways in terms of. have to be selected separately. Option A. Explanation. Jeppesen. Option C. at the end opposite to the approach end of the runway. 5. Explanation. Automatic Flight Control. Option C.Explanation. 172. Correct Answer is. Option B. Question Number. page 72. 171. HF band. Powell. adjacent to the touch-down point of the runway. The glideslope and localiser frequencies. Option A.

177. the phase of one 30 Hz modulation with that of a 9960 Hz modulation. Option A. Correct Answer is. 176. VHF band. Option B. Option C. Option A. the phase of two 30 Hz modulations. Explanation. Option B.Underdown and DavidCockburn Page 72.Correct Answer is. HF band. Powell Pages 59 and 60 and Radio Aids. The aircraft equipment determines the bearing of a ground station by comparing. NIL. infinite. . Option C. The localiser equipment operates in the.2 MHz. 178. 720 in 360°.9 MHz. VHF band. Question Number. Question Number. Question Number. R. Option B. 127. Explanation. Aircraft Radio Systems. i. infinite. Question Number. The number of different radials provided by a ground station is. Explanation. Option C.e.B. 103. Option A. Automatic Flight Control Pallett Page 181. Option A. Automatic Flight Control Pallett Page 181. the amplitude of two 30 Hz modulations. Which of the following frequencies is allocated to VOR?. the phase of two 30 Hz modulations. Explanation. UHF band. Correct Answer is. 180 per quadrant. Option B. UHF band. 175. 360. Correct Answer is.

Explanation. 114. Correct Answer is. not bonded. Question Number. Aerial masts may be damaged by. Option C. bonded. Option A. Option C. bonded. 180° out of phase.3 MHz. Skydrol hydraulic fluids.3 MHz. NIL. Option C. Powell Pages 58 All frequencies between 112. Option B. Option A. 181. Explanation. in phase. insulated from the fuselage. Explanation. 180° out of phase.95 MHz (HighPower VORs) and all odd frequencies between 108. Aircraft is due South of the station. Correct Answer is. 180. Option B. Correct Answer is. 270° out of phase. killfrost anti-icing fluid. Option B. water.00 and 111.95 MHz (Terminal VORs). Correct Answer is.Option C. 114. Question Number. When an aircraft is heading due north (magnetic) towards a VOR station the reference and variable signals will be. Explanation. . NIL. Skydrol hydraulic fluids. 179.00 and 117. Option A. Question Number. Aircraft Radio Systems. Most radio aerial masts are.

Question Number. Option A. Correct Answer is.com/marker_beacon_receiver. 185. 3500 ft. Option C. The middle marker modulation is keyed with. Aircraft Electricity and Electronics Eismin Pages 311-312.avionicswest. 184. Correct Answer is. . alternate dots and dashes. 3000 Hz. dashes. Explanation. 183. 182. both visually and aurally. Option C. alternate dots and dashes. dots. 3500 ft. Explanation. aurally. Option B. Option B. Option C. Correct Answer is. Option C.Question Number. The modulation of the outer marker is.htm Question Number. Option A. Option A. http://www. Question Number. 1300 Hz. Explanation. Correct Answer is. 400 Hz. Option B. both visually and aurally. 7 miles. Explanation. The approximate distance of the middle marker from the runway threshold is. 400 Hz. NIL. Option B. Option A. Aircraft Electricity and Electronics Eismin Pages 311. Marker information is usually provided to the pilot. NIL. visually. 3 miles.

Option A. 188. ILS. Incompatible Flight Director modes are. NIL. Option B. Aircraft Electricity and Electronics Eismin Pages 3o6 and 307. the rapid rate of the VOR signal over the cone of confusion. Question Number. 189. Option C. An over station sensor (OSS) detects. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. VRU and compass. Explanation. Option A. Correct Answer is. Option A. they both have the same sensitivity. Option B. Option C. radio deviation signals proportional to distance from a localiser transmitter. Option C. altitude hold and ILS. Question Number. Explanation. Option C. VOR. VOR and glidepath. ILS. NIL. . NIL. 187. Question Number. The most sensitive system between ILS and VOR is. Option A. 186. Explanation. Option B. radio deviation signals proportional to distance from a VOR transmitter. variable phase signal. Explanation. Option B. The VOR system comprises. reference phase signal. altitude hold and ILS. Correct Answer is. the rapid rate of the VOR signal over the cone of confusion. variable and reference phase signals.Question Number. variable and reference phase signals.

192. Question Number. side of the controls away from the throttles. Option A. Explanation. Option A. Explanation. 191. no indication. Option B. How does the flight director computer differentiate between VOR and ILS frequencies?. the TO/FROM indicator would show. Option B. Option A. Explanation. the UHF band. Correct Answer is. If an aircraft is flying on a heading of 000 away from a VOR station. NIL. Correct Answer is. Option B. Option A. to. 190. right of the control column. . Option C. Aircraft Electricity and Electronics Eismin Page 308. frequencies of 108 to 118 MHZ. the UHF band. Frequency discriminator in receiver. Option C. from. left of the control column. the VHF band. from. The pilots instinctive autopilot disengage button is on the. Option C. Question Number. Question Number. The glideslope transmitter operates on. Option C. NIL. 193. Option B. Frequency discriminator in receiver. Correct Answer is. Trigger pulse from ground station.Question Number. Discriminator on control panel.

For an aircraft to be certified for automatic landing. disconnect the autothrottle. 197. can only be switched off by re-engaging the autopilot. Correct Answer is. switches off after a time interval. Option C. is switched off by the instinctive cut-out button. an autothrottle system is. Question Number. Automatic Flight Control Pallett Page 279. 196. Explanation. a matter of choice for the operator. 195. JAR AWO Para 153. Option C. Option B. the application of reverse thrust will. . Question Number. side of the controls away from the throttles. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems. Question Number. a decision height of 50ft. Question Number. 194. If the autopilot automatically disconnects in the autoland mode. Explanation. Explanation. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. JAR AWO Para 306 b. drive the throttles to the reverse thrust position. Option A. a decision height depending on RVR. dependent on the operation of the aircraft at slow speeds.Correct Answer is. Option C. no decision height. the audible warning. mandatory. Option B. A category 3B aircraft using fail operational automatic landing equipment will have. is switched off by the instinctive cut-out button. Option B. David Harris Page 133. Option B. Option A. Explanation. Option A. With autothrottle engaged. a decision height of 50ft. dependent on the operation of the aircraft at slow speeds. Option A.

Correct Answer is. 1090 MHz. 4133 MHz. #1 HF system operation is inhibited during #2 operation. disconnect the autothrottle. #1 HF system can transmit but not receive. #1 HF system operation is inhibited during #2 operation.. L band DME transmits on a frequency of. 201. supply altitude readout. mute the DME operation during transmit phase. Option A. NIL. drive the throttles to the minimum thrust position. Explanation. . Question Number. Explanation. Correct Answer is. Option B. Option C. Question Number. Explanation. Option B. Correct Answer is. NIL. both systems can be operated simultaneously. 2210 MHz. side lobe suppression acts to. Function of ADF & VOR and DME in navigation system with reference to aircraft and beacon is. Option A. During ATC transponder operation. Question Number. Question Number. 1090 MHz. Option A. 200. Option B.Option C. Option C. Correct Answer is. During operation of a twin HF radio system transceiver. Explanation. 199. NIL. NIL. mute the DME operation during transmit phase. 198. Option C. mute coms transmission during transponder operation.

Question Number. The aerial becomes capacitively reactive. Which two frequencies are paired?. Correct Answer is. 7 ft. Option B. None of above. Option A.Option A. NIL. The aerial becomes inductively capacitive. Glideslope and localizer. What happens if frequency decreases without altering the physical length of aerial?. Question Number. 202. Correct Answer is. Explanation. Option C. 700 ft. Jeppesen A & P Technician Airframe Textbook page 12-24. Glideslope and localizer. the first provides distance between aircraft and beacon and latter provides bearing line from aircraft to beacon. the first provides bearing line from aircraft to beacon and latter provides distance between aircraft and beacon. Localizer beam width is the angle where the two edges of beam are apart at the runway threshold by. Option C. 204. 700 ft. Explanation. Question Number. Localizer and DME. Explanation. . Avionics Fundamentals Page 200. 203. DME and Glideslope. Option A. The aerial becomes inductively reactive. Option C. Option C. NIL. the first provides bearing line from aircraft to beacon and latter provides distance between aircraft and beacon. Option B. 70 ft. Correct Answer is. Option A. Option B. The aerial becomes capacitively reactive. Option B. Correct Answer is. Explanation.

Correct Answer is. Question Number. Most aerials are. resistive. 205. Correct Answer is. inductive. NIL. Option A. to give control surface feel. 208. The aerial becomes inductively reactive. Option A. Explanation. Correct Answer is. Aerials provide optimum output at one particular frequency. Option B. What happens if frequency increases without altering the physical length of aerial?. Correct Answer is. to allow it to be overridden at a certain force. Option B.Question Number. NIL. Option B. Question Number. bonded. Option B. Explanation. Option C. when its load is purely. Explanation. The torque pre-set in an autopilot system is. 207. capacitive. The aerial becomes capacitively reactive. not bonded. to stop the motor overheating. Option C. Question Number. resistive. bonded. The aerial becomes inductively reactive. The aerial becomes inductively capacitive. Option C. NIL. to allow it to be overridden at a certain force. Option C. Option A. NIL. Explanation. made from non-conductive material. . Option A. 206.

210. Explanation. Option B. aircraft structure. Triplex autopilot is. fail operational. magnetic north. Correct Answer is. rotating parts. 211. Blue. Question Number. Question Number. Question Number. Option C. The Middle Marker beacon is what colour?. Option C. no rotating parts. White. A laser gyro has moving parts (dither motor vibrates) but not rotating parts. Explanation. Amber. Option B. no rotating parts. . Option C. Laser gyros have. Option A. 209. Option B. Laser gyros are aligned to. Amber.Question Number. Option A. Explanation. Correct Answer is. aircraft structure. Correct Answer is. Option C. 212. Option A. NIL. moving parts. Option A. fail passive. true north. fail soft. fail operational. Option B. NIL. Correct Answer is.

ILS. The airspeed indicator. Explanation. 215.Explanation. 1. a satellite communication system. Explanation. Option B. Option B. a navigation system. Option C. VOR. 216. ILS. a way of reporting defects to maintenance base in flight. ACARS is. Question Number. 213. Option B. ADF. NIL. Option C. ADC. 214. FMCS does not normally utilise ADF. Explanation. Option A. DME. Option A. The altimeter. Automatic Flight Control Pallett Page 282. Correct Answer is. VOR. Option A. The ATC control panel. Option B. DME. 3 (one is used for redundancy). Question Number. ADC. Correct Answer is. Option C. Question Number. How many data bases are required in an FMS system?. Flight management control system (FMCS) utilises. ADF. The ATC control panel. a way of reporting defects to maintenance base in flight. Correct Answer is. . DME. Option A. Aircraft Electricity and Electronics Eismin Page 250. Option C. 2. Where is an ATC transponder mode 'A' selected ON?. Question Number. ILS.

Signal returned from a transponder. NIL. when is EPR or thrust mode used?. 2.Pallet 3rd edition page 284 3rd paragraph.J. Cruise. 217. What channel of the autopilot does the glideslope control?. Pitch. Option A. Explanation. Take-off. Option B. Option B. Approach. Yaw. Question Number. 218. Question Number. Explanation. Correct Answer is. NIL. Explanation. Option C. Excessive descent rate. Take-off. Pitch. Option A. Roll. Excessive descent rate. excessive terrain closure rate. Option B. Question Number. A backup radar on an airfield. E. . Reflected radar bounce from an aircraft. Signal returned from a transponder. Option A.Correct Answer is. unsafe terrain clearance. Option C. Question Number. Option B. What is secondary radar?. Correct Answer is.H. What is Mode 1 & 2 of GPWS used for?. Explanation. Option C. In an autothrottle system. Option A. Correct Answer is. NIL. 219. 220.

Option A. 3. 11A.Option C. Correct Answer is. altitude loss after take-off. NIL. Option C. cells begin to gas freely. Option B. Correct Answer is.180. Option A. A lead-acid battery is considered to be fully charged when the. SG and voltage remain constant for specified period. Explanation. Question Number. VLF. Option A. how many axis are used?. Explanation.8 and Pallett Aircraft Electrical Systems 3rd Edition Page 23. For radio communication over a distance of over 250 miles we use. excessive terrain closure rate. NIL. Explanation. Option B. 1. SG and voltage remain constant for specified period. NIL. when on approach to landing. Correct Answer is. Option C. 221. Excessive descent rate. Option B. Electrical Power (ATA 24).06. . 4. Question Number. 222. Option C. HF. HF.4. 3. 2. Correct Answer is. Explanation. Question Number. Autopilot. EEL/1-1 4. VHF. Excessive terrain closure rate. SG reaches 1.

3. . 4. Option C. in-phase with other generators and ABC. must be in-phase prior to paralleling. Option C. Option C. Option C. current. 2. 90 degrees out-of-phase and ABC. current. power. The preferred method of battery charging a Ni-Cad battery is constant. is unimportant. is important if the first generator fails. Option B. load and phase rotation. Option B. Correct Answer is. Explanation. Explanation.1. On an unparalleled twin generator alternating current system. Question Number. Option A. To parallel an alternating current generator with one or more other generators. in-phase with other generators and ABC. Explanation. charges at a fairly constant rate because generator voltage remains constant. Question Number. in-phase with other generators and CBA only. A battery in situ on an aircraft. Option A. Option A. CAIPs EEL/1-5 Para 4. the phase of the second generator to be brought on line. is unimportant. Option B. voltage. phase A must be. may charge slowly if initial battery voltage is low. may charged at an excessive rate if initial battery voltage is low. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. Explanation. Question Number. Option B. may charged at an excessive rate if initial battery voltage is low. frequency.Question Number. Option A. 5. voltage. NIL. AC generators are paralleled for phase. Correct Answer is. The question says it is unparalleled.

206V. the same as bus voltage. The 10 ohm shunt. 212V. On the direct current short shunt generator circuit shown. Option C. Option C. Option B. 6. allow excessive current to the load circuit.Question Number. Option A. but only by 0. prevent excessive current to the field circuit. Option B. Correct Answer is. 7.06 ohm).06 ohm and the 100 ohm load. above bus voltage. 200V. On a direct current circuit. . Explanation.06 ohm and the 0.12V (across the 0. What is the voltage across the shunt winding?. Correct Answer is. 8. 0.06/100 * 200V = 0. prevent excessive current to the load circuit. the paralleling relay contacts close when the oncoming generators voltage is. output voltage at the load is 200V. The generator output is split between the 0. NIL. So the voltage across the shunt winding is closer to 200V than the other two answers. Option C.04 ohm are the field windings. Option A. Option A. current limiters. On a direct current twin generator system. Question Number. 200V. below bus voltage. Question Number. prevent excessive current to the load circuit. Option B. Explanation.

NIL. Current. Power. Option A. Option B. Option C. above bus voltage. Option A. Option C. NIL. Resistor placed across terminals. Battery. either series or parallel depending on the design. When a current transformer is disconnected. Correct Answer is. PMG. Option C. 12. RAT. Question Number. Explanation. PMG is main supply for GCU. 11. Question Number. Option A. Terminals shorted. What does the differential sensing coil sense?. Explanation. 10. Question Number. Option B. Where does the GCU gets its power?. . Correct Answer is. Volts. Option A. Pallett Aircraft Electrical Systems 3rd Edition Page 61. Current. Question Number. Explanation. 9. Terminals shorted.Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. battery is back up power for GCU. Left open circuit. Option B. what should be done?. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 7-24. PMG. Galley loads are wired in. Explanation.

equalising circuits which control the field excitation of the generators. over-voltage and under-voltage protection circuits. equalising circuits which control the speed of the generators. 19. Option A. Option A. Generators are always controlled by adjusting the field strength. Question Number. Weak spring tension of the brushes can cause excessive sparking. Option B. the generator which takes more than its reactive power share is protected by. weak spring tension. Sharing of electrical loads by paralleled DC generators is controlled by. Correct Answer is. Option C. Explanation. Option A. Question Number. Question Number. Question Number. automatic load shedding. equalising circuits which control the field excitation of the generators. over-voltage and under-voltage protection circuits. 17. Explanation.Explanation. brushes positioned on MNA. weak spring tension. over-current and under-current protection circuits. 16. Option C. rotating field diode failure. Explanation. . over-excitation and under-excitation protection circuits. Correct Answer is. Before checking the SG of a battery recently removed from an aircraft. Option C. In a multi-generator system. Option B. Phase relationship is unimportant in an unparalleled system (although answer b says it will be paralleled. Pallett Aircraft Electrical Systems 3rd Edition Page 49. thereby changing the question???). Changing the speed would also change the frequency and thus the phase relationship. 18. Correct Answer is. Excessive commutator sparking can be caused by. Option B.

1 . Question Number.Option A. suppress arching when relay is opening and closing. Explanation. Option C. EF. prevent back EMF and allow faster switching. prevent the coil being fitted the wrong way. Option B. Explanation. NIL. Over-voltage protection circuits are activated. Correct Answer is. On an AC external power plug. Option A. http://homepages. dependent on the magnitude of the overvoltage. before the over voltage limit is exceeded. Option B. Question Number. take the temperature of the electrolyte. Option C. carry out a capacity test. Option B. allow to stabilise for one hour. CD.hills/Solenoids/SolenoidsBody. Option C. after a fixed time delay. 21. Option A. EF. Explanation. Pallett Aircraft Electrical Systems 3rd Edition Page 72. 20. Pallett Aircraft Electrical Systems 3rd Edition Page 119. prevent back EMF and allow faster switching.net/~paul. Correct Answer is. the interlock circuit is controlled by pins. CAIPs EEL/1-1. AB.which. Question Number. 22. dependent on the magnitude of the overvoltage. A diode connected across a coil will. Explanation. Option C.html Para 7. Option B. Correct Answer is. take the temperature of the electrolyte. Correct Answer is. Option A.

Question Number. is detected on generator neutral circuit. so c is the 'least incorrect'. under frequency will NOT trip the relay. uses the volts coil to trip the GCR. Over-frequency and over-volts. Under-frequency and under-volts. generator voltage falls to zero. Correct Answer is. 26. Option B. Correct Answer is. Pallett Aircraft Electrical Systems 3rd Edition Page 4. Option C. Option C. detects current difference between source and load. Option C. detects current difference between source and load. Differential protection in a generating system. battery is disconnected from bus. Option A. Option C. is detected using all phases. On some aircraft. is detected using any phase. Option B. 25. Option A. Option A. Correct Answer is. A and b are both wrong because under and over voltage will both trip the relay. Explanation. Over-frequency and under-frequency. is detected on generator neutral circuit. Option B. Explanation. Question Number. Which fault does not always trip the GCR?. detects voltage difference between source and load. Correct Answer is. & B737 Manual. Option B. Explanation. Question Number. 24. Explanation. Pallett Aircraft Electrical Systems 3rd Edition Page 121. . 23. Pallett Aircraft Electrical Systems 3rd Edition Page 121. Option A.Question Number. Open phase sensing on a current transformer. captain's instruments will be powered from the standby bus. Over-frequency and under-frequency. battery is disconnected from bus. If the battery is switched off in flight. the.

Correct Answer is. Explanation. E and F. Correct Answer is. generator rotates but is not on line. Option B. Option B. Option C. A and B. Question Number. Correct Answer is. only in the battery workshop. generator must be stationary. Explanation. Pallett Aircraft Electrical Systems 3rd Edition Page 4. Option A. Option A. Option A. Option B. generator must be stationary. 30. the voltage regulator. 29. Voltage is controlled by. when fully charged. C and N. . The voltage is controlled by the voltage regulator. 28. Option C. The ground interlock pins are numbered. Pallett Aircraft Electrical Systems 3rd Edition Page 72. Option A. only in the battery workshop. the swashplate. To flash a generator field the.Question Number. at any time. generator is on line and producing a voltage less than the flashing voltage. 27. Option B. Explanation. Option C. Correct Answer is. E and F. the voltage regulator. the constant speed drive. Distilled water should be added to a ni-cad battery. Question Number. Question Number. Option C.

Jeppesen A&P Airframe Technician Page 7-31. Correct Answer is. Question Number. Option C. Explanation. Option B. 33. excessive charging current. overloading the generator drive and shearing of splines. undervoltage. Correct Answer is. Option C. Explanation. Question Number. Option A. 32. Overflowing electrolyte in a ni-cad battery indicates. overcurrent. Boric acid. Question Number. Before operating generators in parallel. CAIP EEL/1-3 para 4. excessive charging current. During a normal engine shutdown. not enough charging current. Question Number. Bicarbonate of soda. their voltages should be matched to prevent. What would you use to neutralise nicad battery spillage?. generator tripping is initiated by. 34. Option A. Option A. 31. Option B. voltage spikes of sufficient magnitude to trigger GCU overvoltage circuits. Explanation. . Option A. Option C. Boric acid. undervoltage. 7-32. low electrolyte temperature. Option C. Correct Answer is. Option B. Boric acid. underfrequency. large circulating currents developing. Pallett Aircraft Electrical Systems 3rd Edition Page 120. Distilled water. Option B.Explanation.

it is important to maintain generatoroutputs at the same voltage. Placing the battery master switch to off during flight will. to prevent a circulating current of considerable magnitude developing between two or more generators. NIL. Explanation. speed up operation by reducing back EMF. Question Number. Option C. must be synchronised prior to paralleling. disconnect all power to the main busbar.net/~paul.1 Question Number. The Battery master switch simply connects the battery to the main busbar. Option C. must be synchronised prior to paralleling. to prevent a circulating current of considerable magnitude developing between two or more generators. Option B. to prevent a circulating current developing between two or more TRUs. Correct Answer is. 39. Option B. 41.Option C. Option A. NIL. Option C. isolate the battery from the main busbar. shut down the APU. to prevent CSD shock loading. ensure smooth contactor operation. isolate the battery from the main busbar. 40. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. http://homepages. Explanation. prevent contact bounce. Explanation. Correct Answer is.hills/Solenoids/SolenoidsBody. Question Number. Option A. . allowing it to be charged from the generator(s). Pallett Aircraft Electrical Systems 3rd Edition Page 48. Option B. Diodes are placed across a contactor to.which. Option A. speed up operation by reducing back EMF.html Para 7. Whilst operating paralleled AC constant frequency generators. Explanation.

Option A. Correct Answer is. Option B. low oil temperature. Correct Answer is. an hydraulically actuated swash plate. does not need a voltage controller because voltage is kept constant. low oil temperature. low oil pressure. . CSD warning lights on the flight deck normally indicate. Option C. Explanation. a CSD. low oil pressure. uses a voltage coil in series with generator output. 44. Option B. Explanation. Option B. Option A. uses a voltage coil in parallel with generator output. Correct Answer is. NIL. An AC generator used with a CSD. uses a voltage coil in parallel with generator output. does not need a voltage controller because current is kept constant. Option C. page 7-50. Aircraft Electricity and Electronics. low oil pressure. Option A. Jeppesen A&P Airframe Technician Textbook . Question Number. high oil pressure. needs a voltage controller to maintain voltage with increasing load. high oil temperature. Eismin page 199-200. 42. Question Number. Question Number. Option C.Question Number. an IDG. Correct Answer is. Option A. Explanation. Explanation. 43. The output frequency of a hydraulically driven standby generator is controlled by. Option C. needs a voltage controller to maintain voltage with increasing load. NIL. high oil temperature. Option B. an hydraulically actuated swash plate. 45. A voltage regulator installed in series with a generator field. uses a current coil in parallel with generator output.

. Power to a GCU is supplied. 47. Option B. 48. Wires in hot temperature areas should be bound with. Question Number. Option A. Teflon. Correct Answer is. 49. high oil temperature / low oil pressure. Explanation. Jeppesen A&P Airframe Technician Textbook . battery is back up power for GCU. Correct Answer is. page 7-50. Option B. Nomex. PMG is main supply for GCU. Option B. High oil temperature / low oil quantity.Question Number. by the generator output only. differential protection and undervoltage. by the battery bus or rectified generator output. high oil temperature / low oil pressure. Question Number. PVC. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 7-24. NIL. Option A. Trip signals for a GCR are. Correct Answer is. Option A. overfrequency and undervoltage. Teflon. low oil quantity / low oil temperature. differential protection and undervoltage. initially by a 'field tickling' supply and then PMG output. Question Number. Abnormal CSD operation is monitored on the flight deck by observing indications of. Correct Answer is. underfrequency and overcurrent. Option C. Explanation. Explanation. initially by a 'field tickling' supply and then PMG output. Option A. 46. Option B. Option C. Option C. Option C.

Over-voltage condition trips the generator. Option C. 50. 100°C above the specified. Eismin. it will trip the GCR. CSD unit. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. 52. closing of fuel and hydraulic valves. Question Number. it will trip the GCR. or 100°C (approx) above the heatshrink temperature. Option C. 53. Option C.Explanation. page 203. Speed of an HMG is controlled by a. Explanation. High voltages on a generator in a parallel system should be prevented because. amplitude of voltage. it will cause high circulating current in the bus / other generators. Option B. A heat gun should be operated at. Option A. Option A. . Option B. Option B. the specified temperature. Option B. Inverse time delay -c could also be considered correct. This is probably referring to the Teflon tape referred to in Aircraft Electricity and Electronics by Eismin 5th Edition Page 69. Question Number. The time taken to trip the GCU depends on.11. A heat gun should be operated at the specified temperature. swashplate. Correct Answer is. it will damage the drive shaft. Option A. Option A. amplitude of voltage. time delay circuit. Explanation. Also AC43 Para. Aircraft Electricity and Electronics. Question Number. 51. Question Number. the specified temperature. Explanation. 100°C below the specified.96 z and Appendix 1 (Teflon is Dupont tradename for PTFE). NIL.

low retentivity. Speed of an HMG is controlled by a swashplate. Explanation. low coercivity.32 for charger disconnect system. remain the same. the SG will. Question Number. The power supply to the battery charger will be interrupted. Explanation. high retentivity. 54. decrease. Option B. . Option C. density decreases. Question Number. but mass remains constant. Explanation. The battery charger will switch to trickle charge mode. Option A. 56. B737 switches to trickle charge. Correct Answer is. Explanation. 55. Option C. Option B. Option A. with temperature. Option C. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. What will happen if the aircraft battery becomes overheated?. increase. Question Number. ID unit. When the temperature increases in a lead acid battery. Since volume increases. Option B.Option C. swashplate. The hot battery bus will be disconnected from the battery. However. low coercivity. high retentivity. low coercivity. A permanent magnet should have. Correct Answer is. decrease. A permanent magnet should have a low coercivity (so it is easy to magnetise) and high retentivity (so it is difficult to demagnetise). The battery charger will switch to trickle charge mode. Option A. see Pallett Aircraft Electrical Systems 3rd Edition Figure 1. high coercivity. low retentivity.

B767 MM 42-41-00 quote: 'The BPCU shares status information with the GCU's. the electrolyte level is higher level than normal. Correct Answer is. Explanation. the electrolyte level is higher level than normal. When a ni-cad battery is fully charged. by IDG. Question Number. Option A. by angle of swash plate. Explanation. By means of a remote trimmer. 60. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook 7-32. an IRS. the electrolyte level is lower than normal. Question Number. a GCU. 57. Adjusted with a remote trimmer. 58. a BPCU. 59. Correct Answer is. the electrolyte level stays the same. Electrical load on aircraft is controlled by. The BPCU controls all electrical buses and controls load shedding. . Control of an HPG is via a swashplate. By means of a remote trimmer. Option B. Explanation. Option A. Explanation. Option A. by angle of swash plate. Option B. where would you adjust it?. On the GCU. Option B. On testing a generator it is found to require adjusting. Option C. Option A. Option C. Question Number.Question Number.'. Option B. Correct Answer is. Control of hydraulically powered emergency electrical generator frequency is. a BPCU. In the cockpit on the flight engineers panel. Correct Answer is. Option C. by CSU. Option C.

Question Number. the pilot observes on the battery charger indicator. there is a problem with the charging circuit and he must shut-down the engines. an initial high current draw followed by a rapid decrease in current. Option C. Option B. is only allowed in the shop. Option A. 62. This is normal. 1. Explanation. Question Number. Next find current in Primary = 4 * 3/10 = 12/10 = 1.2A. Option B. After engine start using a Ni-Cad battery. It needs topping up. Topping up a Ni-Cad battery in situ.4. is not allowed. Option A. Explanation. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. . Correct Answer is. no cause for concern. 64. It must be replaced. In a lead-acid battery after numerous checks. 3 A. is not allowed. Option A. Question Number. Option C. 0. 1. Option B. What is the current drawn from the source?. Option C.2 A. A 4:1 step-up transformer receives 120VAC in its primary and has 1600 Ohms resistance in its secondary. Find current in secondary I = V/R = 480/1600 = 3/10A. is permitted. 61. Explanation. no cause for concern. 63.2 A. the battery is faulty.3 A. one cell has low reading. Question Number. Option A. Option B. CAIPs EEL/1-3 Para 6.

1. An external power plug has two short pins. Option B. ground handling bus. 67. Option A. 30 minutes. to allow monitoring and trimming from the flight deck. Correct Answer is. 68. Option C. Explanation. The purpose of a synchronising bus bar is. NIL. It must be replaced. 60 minutes. Correct Answer is. Option C.2 .now transferred to CAP 747 GR no 4. Aircraft Electrical Systems Pallett Page 51 and 52. Correct Answer is. Question Number. Explanation. AWN 81 para 3. Question Number. Question Number. 66. the interlock circuit. . Explanation. Option B. a guide for correct alignment of the plug in the socket. Correct Answer is. To confirm the state of charge of a ni-cad battery. What time duration would the battery be expected to power essential equipment?. Option A. Explanation. These are used for. Pallett Page 290.Option C. the interlock circuit. Question Number. Option B. It is defective. Option C. to allow monitoring and trimming from the flight deck. to monitor total current load. 30 minutes. Forever. A short range passenger aircraft has complete electrical failure. to enable two propeller systems to be synchronised. Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems. Option A. 65.

Option C. Option B. should not be done on the aircraft.3. AC generators in parallel. Correct Answer is. can be done on the aircraft. check voltage and check the SG of each cell. Option A. . 71.Option A.6 and 4. measure the discharge time. 100 Amps. Option B. NIL. CAIPs EEL/1-4 4. AC and DC generators in parallel. Option C. should not be done on the aircraft.but would be difficult). should only be done if 50% of the width and 80% of the length is already being done. Option A. subject the battery to load and check the voltage. Generator brush bedding. Question Number. 69. Option C. AC generators in parallel.6 (Does not say that it cannot be done on the aircraft . subject the battery to load.5. measure the discharge time. CAIPs EEL/1-3 4. Option B. Explanation. Question Number. Explanation. 70. Explanation. Option A. DC generators in parallel. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. What is the amperage at point '' to the nearest amp?.7. Question Number. Circulating currents are associated with.

101 Amps. AC electrical generators only. Question Number. Option B. AC and DC electrical generators. Explanation. 102 Amps. Correct Answer is. Option C. Explanation. 101 Amps. Option A. 100 volts accross far right load. Battery charging procedures can be found in ATA. Chapter 24 Section 31. AC or DC. Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems. 74. Pallett 3rd edition Page 32. Total current at '' is 100 + 1 = 101 Amps. AC or DC. (Ohms Law). Option B. AC. Question Number. I = V/R = 100/100 = 1A through 100 ohm load. Option C. Option C. (Kirkchoff's Law). . Option A. DC electrical generators only. Option B. NIL. Paralleling is used for. Explanation. Correct Answer is. Pitot tubes are heated by. Chapter 31 Section 21. Question Number. DC. Correct Answer is. 73. Option C.Option B. therefore 100 volts also accross 100ohm load (parallel circuit theory). AC and DC electrical generators. Chapter 24 Section 21. 72. Option A.

Maximum battery temperature on charging before protection circuit starts is. 144 degrees C. in series with the field and changes resistance with surface area contact. 144 degrees F. Explanation. fluctuating. In a carbon pile regulator. Option B. constant voltage. . CAIPs EEL/1-2 3. Option A. Explanation. Option A. NIL. 78. 76. Correct Answer is. constant current until a predetermined limit when it automatically switches to constant voltage. 144 degrees F. Explanation. Question Number. 71 degrees F. constant current. Option C. Option A. stationary. Question Number. Question Number. Option B. Option B. Chapter 24 Section 31. Option B. NIL. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. Option C. constant voltage. 75. 77. Option A. The output of a carbon pile regulator with no variation of loading is. the battery is charged by. Option C. If an aircraft has no battery charger. in series with the field and changes resistance with changing length. in parallel with the field and changes resistance with changing length. Explanation.1. the resistive element is. in series with the field and changes resistance with surface area contact.Correct Answer is. Question Number. NIL.

80. voltage coil. In a transistor voltage regulator. . Explanation. Inductive reactive load causes. voltage and current coil. 79. NIL. Question Number. Option B. Option B. Explanation. Explanation. decreases frequency. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. Question Number. current coil. decreases output voltage. CAIPs EEL/1-2 3. transformers and transistors.1. 81. Question Number. Correct Answer is. Question Number. Option A. 18. 17. decreases frequency. Option C. Option A. increase in torque and increase in heat dissipated. Explanation. zeners and transistors. Option B. Correct Answer is. Option A. the voltage output is controlled by. CAIPs EEL/1-2 3.1. A paralleled relay for a DC system is energised and connected by. Option C. Option A. stationary.Option C. Option C. zeners and transistors. 82. Pallett Aircraft Electrical Systems Page 16. diodes and transformers. increases output voltage and increases frequency. pulse width modulating.3. voltage and current coil.1. Increasing the real load primarily.

Question Number. rotating at idle. One of the main purposes of a CSD is to. Option A. 84. Differential protection in an AC system protects against. the engine should be. Option C. reactive power from the generator that does work. real power from the generator that does work. stationary. real power from the generator that does work. Correct Answer is. line-line-line. Option B. 85. Option C. Explanation. stationary. Option C. Option B. rotating at Nsync. Aircraft Electrical Systems. NIL. Explanation. no effect on torque but produces extra heat dissipated. Question Number. Correct Answer is. Question Number. Correct Answer is. a reverse current flowing from the battery. line-line. Option B. Correct Answer is. apparent power from the generator that does work. no effect on torque but produces extra heat dissipated. short circuits. Option A. NIL.Option B. Question Number. The power factor of an AC generator identifies the proportion of. Pallett Page 121. NIL. Explanation. 83. line-earth faults. 86. . When resetting the CSD on the ground. Option C. increase in torque only. Explanation. short circuits. Option A.

89. it would be an indication that the. Option C. CSD driveshaft had sheared. If voltage and frequency of the generator drop to zero in flight. remain constant and amperage output increases. Explanation. NIL. activation of the time delay circuit. Option C. Correct Answer is. Question Number. Explanation. 88. maintain constant load on the generator. Option B. NIL. generator output voltage will. the most likely consequence is. Option A. deactivation of the field regulatory TRs. Option B. as aircraft electrical load increases. prevent engine overload. Assuming all systems are operating normally. remain constant and amperage output increases. Option B. Option A. 87. activation of the time delay circuit. Explanation. In an undervolt condition in an AC generator system. decrease and amperage output increases.Option A. Correct Answer is. Question Number. phase sequence detection circuit has operated. . energise the bus tie relay. NIL. Option C. Option A. Explanation. bus tie interlock is inoperative. Pallett Aircraft Electrical Systems Page 37. Correct Answer is. enable generators to be paralleled. Correct Answer is. Option B. Option C. CSD driveshaft had sheared. Question Number. increases and amperage output increases. enable generators to be paralleled.

Explanation. Option A. How is an aircraft battery rated?. Ampere hours. Positive to external power relay. When installing multiple batteries on aircraft. Explanation. Option B. Airstream. Correct Answer is. Question Number. 91. Option A. Fan. Option A. Compressor. What is the small pin on the DC ground power connector?. 93. Explanation. Question Number. either parallel or series and switched between as an option. Explanation. Ram Air Turbine. Correct Answer is. Pallett Page 23/26/27. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. 90. Option B. Option C. series. Aircraft Electrical Systems. Aircrfat Electrical Systems Pallett Page 21. . 92. Airstream. Aircraft Electrical Systems. How is RAT driven?. Positive to battery relay. Option C. Watts. Positive to external power relay. Joules. Option C. they are connected in. Option B. Ground or earth. Pallett Page 70. parallel. Option A. Option B.Question Number. Option C. Ampere hours. Question Number. either parallel or series and switched between as an option.

Aircraft Electrical Systems Pallett Page 138 (reduces Back EMF). To allow flow in the event of failure of the relay. Question Number. Option A. voltage regulating coil in series. 94. voltage regulating coil in parallel. Correct Answer is. The short prongs are for DC only. increased torque and reduced speed. What are the 2 short prongs on an AC plug for?. increased torque and speed. To prevent arcing during plug connection / disconnection. Option C. Correct Answer is. increased torque and speed. current regulation coil in series. Option B. Question Number. To prevent arcing during plug connection / disconnection. A reduction in field strength of a DC shunt motor driving a constant load will result in. current regulation coil in series. 97. Pallett pg 72. Correct Answer is. Option B. Option A. Option B. Correct Answer is. Question Number. Option C. Option C. Option B.Question Number. Option A. . To speed up the operation. To help plug location/fit. To prevent back-flow of current in the EMF coil. To prevent back-flow of current in the EMF coil. 96. Option A. Explanation. Option C. reduced torque and increased speed. 95. Aircraft Electrical System. Pallett Page 11. What is the purpose of diode in a power GCR?. A vibration contact voltage regulator consists of a shunt winding and a. Aircraft Electrical Systems. Using AC current to pull on interlock circuit. Explanation. Explanation.

circulating currents. Aircraft Electrical Systems Pallett Page 70. trips after a time delay inversely proportional to overvolt amplitude. the purpose of the synchronising bus-bar is to. caused by resistance of the coil. Question Number. .com/search?q=define:Eddy+Currents Question Number. positive. The diode is to prevent the high current flow in the coil due to induction as the relay switches off. Option B.google. trips after a time delay. Option C. Option C. Option B. circulating currents. Question Number. supply essential services.Explanation. The small pins in the power connector plug are. negative. neutral. caused by heating effect of the coil. When an overvolt is present on an AC generator system. Explanation. Option B. Option A. NIL. 98. Option B. 100. Option A. Aircraft Electrical Systems Pallett Page 119/120. provide a means of monitoring the load. provide interconnection between the generator load busbars. Option C. Question Number. positive. Eddy currents are. Option A. In an AC distribution system. the tripping circuit. Option A. trips after a time delay inversely proportional to overvolt amplitude. Explanation. Correct Answer is. trips at a set level. http://www. Correct Answer is. Option C. 101. Explanation. 99. Correct Answer is.

Aircraft Electrical Systems Pallett Page 81. Question Number. Option A. 104. rectification. Correct Answer is.Correct Answer is. . Zener diodes are for. KVA & KW. Option A. in series with the field windings. Explanation. differential protection. Option C. in parallel with the field windings. across the generator output. Option C. Explanation. 102. voltage stabilisation. Question Number. Correct Answer is. Explanation. Option B. An old Module 4 question. Option C. load monitoring. AC generator output indications are measured in. Aircraft Electrical Systems Pallett Page 121. Although Zener diodes can be used (back-to-back) to protect equipment from voltage spikes (voltage stabilisation) they are more commonly associated with voltage regulation. Question Number. voltage regulation. Correct Answer is. EEL/1-2 Page 5. 105. phase sequence monitoring. Vibrating contact voltage regulator sensing coil is. in parallel with the field windings. Aircraft Electrical Systems Page 11. Option A. Option A. Option B. A current transformer connected across the neutral of a 3 phase generator is for. provide interconnection between the generator load busbars. voltage regulation. Question Number. 103. Explanation. differential protection. Option B.

Question Number. from which KW can be calculated).Option B. 106. Option C. Option C. less current to the busbar. Load shedding allows. Option A. In the event of complete AC generator failure in an AC split bus-bar generation system. Correct Answer is. By power fed from a battery supplied static inverter. . Question Number. Pulse width modulated DC. Option A. The answer here depends upon which output they are referring. a DC generator is rated in KW only. How may the output of a transistorised voltage regulator be described?. one to the generator field (pulse width modulated on a transistorised regulator) and one to the busbar (constant voltage but variable current depending on load). By power fed from static inverter only. Option B. A voltage regulator has two outputs. KW. how is power maintained to the essential AC bus-bar?. 108. Option A. By power fed from a hot battery bus-bar only. more voltage to the busbar. Option C. Correct Answer is. Explanation. Slightly variable DC. KVA & KW. Load shedding is carried out to reduce current (voltage is constant). 107. Question Number. Option B. Variable AC. Option C. Pulse width modulated DC. Explanation. However. By power fed from a battery supplied static inverter. Option B. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. more current to the busbar. Explanation. An AC generator is rated in KVA and KW (or KVA and power factor. less current to the busbar. KW & KVAR.

Option C. Option B. Under-frequency. Option A. Generator power pilot relay. Option C. kVA. Question Number. Generator control relay. 109. Correct Answer is.5 (d). Question Number. On engine shutdown. . in series with the field to prevent oscillations. kVA. EEL/1-2 3. In what units are static inverters rated?.4. Which components within a generator control unit connects the output of the field power supply to the generator exciter?. Option A. Correct Answer is. Explanation. (Never heard of a 'generator power pilot relay'). In a generator system. to prevent voltage overshoot. a stability winding is used. 5. Question Number. Generator line contactor. Explanation. 111.Explanation. VA or KVA. 112. Not sure of the point of this question. Correct Answer is. Explanation. what prevents GCR being tripped?. The GCR is the only one which is (sometimes) 'within' the GCU. kW.2. Option B. Option A. Option B. Aircraft Electrical Systems Pallett Page 78 Fig. Option A. 110. Generator control relay. just like an AC generator. Option C. to control output current. Question Number. kVAR. to prevent voltage overshoot.

bus bar voltage rises. What controls output from the generator?. 116. Explanation. GCU. phase rotation does not matter. Correct Answer is. on the ground only. 118. Option C.Question Number. has full descriptions of all 3 units. CBA must equal CBA. GCU. it can be reset. Option A. Question Number. Eismin. Option A. Option A. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. bus bar current rises. after the fault has been cleared. NIL. bus bar current decreases. Option B. In a paralleled AC generator system both A phases must be in synchronisation and. BPCU. Option A. Option B. When a field relay trips the generator off-line. Option B. When loads are shed from a busbar automatically. . by cycling the generator switch. Correct Answer is. bus bar current decreases. Question Number. Explanation. CBA must equal ABC. NIL. Explanation. Question Number. Option B. Explanation. Option C. Aircraft Electricity and Electronics. on the ground only. CBA must equal CBA. Option C. Option C. 119. 117. ELCU. NIL.

electrolyte temperature. Option C. control relay is tripped only. During normal engine shut-down. breaker is tripped only. Option C. Explanation. voltage is below battery voltage. . 121. The generator warning light will come on when.Question Number. Option C. Option A. Correct Answer is. NIL. charge. Question Number. When replacing a current transformer. 120. charge. Option C. it can be fitted any way round. Option B. Explanation. voltage is below battery voltage. the generator. electrolyte level. breaker is tripped only. Option A. Specific Gravity in a lead acid battery should give an indication of. voltage/current selection must be made prior to fitting. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. breaker and control relay are both tripped. Option A. Option A. voltage is above battery voltage. Option B. it can only be fitted one way round. Explanation. voltage is too high. 122. 123. Question Number. Correct Answer is. NIL. B757 Maintenance Training Manual. Option B. Question Number. Option B. it can only be fitted one way round.

Correct Answer is. decrease as the engine speed increases. Option B. citric acid. 125. increase as the engine speed increases. 124. What is the function of the generator control relay?. Explanation. Bring the generator on-line. Question Number. Correct Answer is. Bring the generator on-line. Option A. Question Number. The economy coil on a relay. Explanation. Option B. Option C. Option A. NIL. 126. reduces current required to hold closed. NIL. Option B. Option B. reduces current required to hold closed. Option C. sodium bicarbonate. Option C. Explanation. Control output voltage. NIL. Decreases due to the back EMF as engine speed increases. Option C.Explanation. decrease as the engine speed increases. Correct Answer is. Option A. makes it cheaper to make. Question Number. The current consumed by a DC starter motor will. borax powder. remain constant. reduces current required to close. . A neutralising agent for sulphuric acid is. Connect the generator to the busbar. 127. Option A. Question Number.

Option B. restores magnetism. 129. Correct Answer is. Explanation. 130. Electrolyte temperature. each generator supplies its own bus and distribution system in normal operation. When checking SG of electrolyte of lead acid battery. NIL. Flashing a generator field.4. what should be taken into account?.Correct Answer is. Question Number. Ambient temperature. Option C. Option A. generators are paralleled on connection to the tie bus. How do you check condition of Ni-Cad battery in situ?. Explanation. Option A. .3. Option C. Option A. Jeppesen A & P Technician Airframe Textbook p 7-30 refers. Explanation. Explanation. Battery charge. Electrolyte temperature. Option C. Question Number. Question Number. Option A. NIL. when battery is on load. Correct Answer is. Option B. In a split bus power distribution system. power is split between 115V AC and 28V DC. each generator supplies its own bus and distribution system in normal operation. By voltmeter in the cockpit. decreases resistance. EEL/1-1 4. Correct Answer is. Option B. increases resistance. 128. sodium bicarbonate. 131. restores magnetism. Question Number.

135. Correct Answer is. modifies generator field excitation current. modifies generator field excitation current. Option A. By voltmeter in the cockpit. Question Number. Explanation. .2. Explanation. Pallett Page 23. modifies generator field excitation voltage. Explanation. A vibrating type voltage regulator uses a volts coil. The purpose of the economy contacts in a relay is to. Option C. Option B. EEL/1-2 3. when battery is on load.1. Correct Answer is. NIL. Aircraft Electrical Systems. The reactive load circuit in a multi-engined AC generator system. 134. reduce the current required to hold the contacts closed. Option C. Option C. Aircraft Electrical Systems. Option B. Explanation. prevent contact pitting and burning. modifies generator drive speed. Pallett Page 49. in series with the current coil. in series with the generator output. Correct Answer is. reduce the current required to hold the contacts closed. Question Number. A vibrating contact voltage regulator has. By voltmeter connected to the battery terminal. Option C. Option A. in parallel with the generator output. Option B. Question Number. By voltmeter in the cockpit when battery is off load.Option B. Option A. 132. Question Number. close the auxiliary contacts before the main contacts. in parallel with the generator output. 133. Correct Answer is.

only off the aircraft.3 Page 3 Para 3. Brush bedding-in on a starter generator can be carried out. when 80 percent of the brush area has been previously bedded in. Correct Answer is. Option A. 137. only off the aircraft. EEL/1-2 Figure 3. An AC generator connected to a CSD requires. on the bench. Question Number.4. Correct Answer is. Evaporation. Option C. during flight. Correct Answer is. Option B. Over charging current.Option A. a separate voltage regulator. a resistor in series with the points. Option A. Correct Answer is. . 138. no voltage regulator as the CSD will control generator frequency. Explanation.1. a separate voltage regulator. Question Number. a resister in parallel with the points. a volts coil in parallel with the points. What would be the cause of a low electrolyte level in a nicad battery?. Explanation. NIL. a resister in parallel with the points. Option C. Option B. Over charging current. no voltage regulator as the CSD will control the voltage. Explanation. Option B. Option B. CAIPs EEL/1. Explanation. Undercharging current. Option A. Option C. Question Number. Option C. 136. NIL.

The total plate area of the battery. The method used to rapidly charge a nickel-cadmium battery utilizes. Question Number. Aircraft Electricity and Electronics Thomas Eismin 5th Edition page 200. 144. . 145. most of the acid is in the solution. Option C. Correct Answer is. thereby increasing the specific gravity of the solution. Option A. Explanation. Option B. Explanation. The state-of-charge of the battery. have current passing through them from the higher loaded generator to the lower. A fully charged lead-acid battery will not freeze until extremely low temperatures are reached because. The state-of-charge of the battery. Correct Answer is. have current passing through them from the higher loaded generator to the lower.6. constant voltage and varying current. Option A. Option C. the acid is in the plates. constant current and constant voltage. Option B.Question Number. Option C. 143. Option A. Question Number. Option B. Option C. CAIPs EEL/1-1 4. The equalizing coils on voltage regulators will. 142. increased internal resistance generates sufficient heat to prevent freezing.2. Option B. Option A. be connected to each other when the generators are paralleled. The ampere-hour capacity of the battery. Question Number. constant current and varying voltage. What determines the amount of current which will flow through a battery while it is being charged by a constant voltage source?. most of the acid is in the solution. NIL. Explanation. have current passing through them only when the generators are not paralleled. Correct Answer is.

Option C. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. excessive plate sulphation.11. If the current drawn from No.Correct Answer is. excessive gassing.2 (h). constant voltage and varying current. Option A. in the same direction as the current flow in the voltage coil. normal operation. normal battery service life. increased explosion and/or fire hazard. The servicing and charging of nickel-cadmium and lead-acid batteries together in the same service area is likely to result in. Explanation. reducing the output of No.5.2 generator equalizing coil will flow. Option C. Option B. Aircraft Electrical Systems Page 23 and Aircraft Electricity and Electronics Eismin Page 50 but see also CAIPs EEL/13 4. in the same direction as the current flow in the voltage coil. the current in the No. . Aircraft Electricity and Electronics Eismin Page 52.2 generator. excessive gassing. reducing the output of No. Option A. Explanation. Question Number. Option A.1 generator of a twin generator DC system is less than that drawn from No. NIL.2 generator. Option B.2 generator.1. CAIPs EEL/1-3 4. contamination of both types of batteries. contamination of both types of batteries. in the same direction as the current flow in the voltage coil. increasing the output of No. Question Number. Option C. 148. 147. The presence of small amounts of potassium carbonate deposits on the top of nickel-cadmium battery cells that have been in service for time is an indication of. 146. Explanation. CAIPs EEL/2-1 Page 1 Para 2. Option B. reducing the output of No.2 generator.2 generator. Question Number. in the opposite direction to the current flow in the voltage coil. Explanation.

Jeppesen A & P Technician Airframe Textbook p7-25. Option A. Explanation. Option C. Option A. for when it is disconnected from the generator. Correct Answer is. for low oil pressure. for low oil pressure. Option A. Correct Answer is. 152. Option B. resetting can only be carried out on the ground. it will automatically reset itself when the fault is rectified. in a discharged condition. Question Number. In a constant frequency AC system.S. operation of the Disconnect Solenoid will disconnect the generator drive and. generator drive torque. 149. A constant speed drive unit has a warning light indication. voltage regulator. 151. Option B. NIL. being charged. Question Number. resetting can only be carried out on the ground. for low speed. driven generator. Option C. Option A. in a discharged condition. real load sharing is achieved by regulating the. Option B. 150. it can only be reset when all loads are switched off. Question Number. Explanation.Question Number. Pallett Page 48-49. Correct Answer is. generator speed. under load condition. Aircraft Electrical Systems. . Option C. On a C. The electrolyte of a nickel-cadmium battery is the lowest when the battery is. Explanation. Correct Answer is. Option C. Option B. generator drive torque.

Explanation. The purpose of 'field flashing' is to. 154. Question Number. AC to DC. How can the state-of-charge of a nickel-cadmium battery be determined?. Question Number. AC to a higher frequency AC.4. 153. By measuring discharge. NIL. test the insulation resistance of a field winding with a 1000V supply. electrolyte becomes absorbed in the plates. Question Number. Question Number. change the polarity of residual magnetism in a field winding. Explanation. Option A. fluid evaporates through vents. The purpose of an inverter is to convert. Correct Answer is. Option B. Correct Answer is. DC to AC. Explanation. fluid level was not periodically replenished. Option A. 156. change the polarity of residual magnetism in a field winding. Option A. electrolyte becomes absorbed in the plates. . Option B. 155. Pallett Page 4. Option B. measure the residual magnetism in a field winding 24 hours after the field supply is removed. Option A.Explanation. Option C. DC to AC. Option B. a) could also be correct. EEL/1-3 3. Option C. Aircraft Electrical Systems. Jeppesen AandP Technician Airframe Textbook page 7-32 and 7-33. By the level of the electrolyte. Correct Answer is.2. Nickel-cadmium batteries which are stored for a long period of time will show a low fluid level because the. Option C.

In nickel-cadmium batteries. Option A. Explanation.6. modifies the effect of the voltage sensing coil. The cell temperature will run too low for proper output. 159. Explanation. toward the end of the charging cycle. CAIPs EEL/1-3 4. The equalising coil in the carbon pile regulator. Explanation.Option C. Correct Answer is. Option A. toward the end of the charging cycle. . By measuring discharge. Excessive spewing will occur during the charging cycle. Option B. causes a decrease in internal resistance. Question Number. when the electrolyte level is low. 158. Option B. CAIPs EEL/1-3 4. causes an increase in internal resistance. CAIPs EEL/1-3 4. Option A. if they are defective. causes a decrease in internal resistance. increases cell voltage. a rise in cell temperature. Correct Answer is. Question Number. Explanation. Option A. Correct Answer is. When a charging current is applied to a nickel-cadmium battery. 157. 160. the cells emit gas only. Excessive spewing will occur during the charging cycle.8 (a).5. Question Number. CAIPs EEL/1-3 4. Option C.3. What may result if water is added to a nickel-cadmium battery when it is not fully charged?. Question Number. Option C. Option C. Correct Answer is.5. Option B. By measuring the specific gravity of the electrolyte.5. No adverse results since water may be added anytime.5.

The electrolyte in a lead-acid battery contains. overvoltage of capacitive devices. Question Number. overheating of inductive devices. generator speed. In the procedure to be followed after spillage of battery acid. In a constant frequency AC system. Pallett Aircraft Electrical Systems Page 48. Question Number. generator drive torque. becomes inoperative when the undervolt relay energises. 163. overheating of inductive devices. sulphuric acid. 161. Option B. Option A. Option C. Explanation. voltage regulator.Option B. Question Number. Option A. Explanation. Table 1. Option B. Question Number. reactive load sharing is achieved by regulating the. 162. Correct Answer is. overspeeding of AC motors. Option B. NIL. Option C. is connected in series with the carbon pile. Explanation. neutralizing may be carried out. 164. . Inductive devices will pass more current if it is lower frequency. sulphuric acid. Pallett Aircraft Electrical Systems Page 22. hydrochloric acid. Correct Answer is. nitric acid. Correct Answer is. voltage regulator. modifies the effect of the voltage sensing coil. Explanation. Option A. Option C. Under-frequency in an AC supply would cause. Option C. Correct Answer is.

sulphuric acid must be added.6. Question Number. To restore the level of electrolyte which has been lost due to normal gassing during battery charging. distilled water must be added. 120 degrees apart. Correct Answer is. Explanation. NIL. . Option B. Explanation. with a dilute solution of sodium bicarbonate. 120 degrees apart. by applying a coating of petroleum jelly. Option B. NIL. CAIPS EEL/1-1 4. distilled water must be added. Question Number. second. Correct Answer is. Option A.1. Correct Answer is. 180 degrees apart. 167. with a dilute solution of sodium bicarbonate. Option C. by washing with distilled water.Option A. 90 degrees apart. Option A. revolution. Option C. Option C. second. Option C. Explanation. Correct Answer is. Option B. minute. Question Number. electrolyte of the same specific gravity as that contained in the battery must be added. The three voltages of a three phase generator are. Option A. Explanation. NIL. 166. Frequency (Hz) is the number of cycles per. 165. Option B.

number of conductors in the armature. Option A. 168. line volts equals 1. strength of the magnetic field. Correct Answer is.Question Number. Explanation. line volts equals phase volts. Option C. NIL. NIL. Option B. circuit is 4 amps and the reactive is 3 amps. Option C. 169. Explanation. Question Number. 170. The only practical method of maintaining a constant voltage output from an aircraft generator under varying conditions of speed and load is to vary the. line volts equals phase volts. Option A. has 6 cells. 5 triangle in this case. 5 amps. Question Number. 5 amps. has 24 cells.C. 4. Option B. Ammeter reading willbe.73 line volts. speed at which the armature rotates. Question Number. has 6 cells. Option A. Explanation.73 phase volts. 3. Option C. A 12 volt lead-acid battery. 171. Option B. Option C.4 amps. . Option A. In a delta connected generator. Correct Answer is. phase volts equals 1. has 12 cells. 3. The active component of an A. Total current is the vector sum of active (real) and reactive currents. Option B. 7 amps. Correct Answer is.

Question Number. Option A. Question Number. Option B. each cell should be checked as the readings may differ. Question Number. Correct Answer is. otherwise b is the answer. Hydraulic pump. one cell only need be checked as the remainder will read the same. S. decrease and the amperage output will increase. Explanation.G. and voltage remain constant for specified period. Explanation. Which aircraft circuit would be most likely to use frequency wild 200V AC?. Option A. Assuming no voltage regulator is considered. NIL. remain constant and the amperage output will increase. Option A. remain constant and the amperage output will decrease. strength of the magnetic field. Option C. 175. Question Number. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is.180. the voltage will. Option C. Option C. 172. reaches 1. decrease and the amperage output will increase. Option B. Standby compass. When checking the specific gravity of the electrolyte in a battery. 174.Correct Answer is.G. only the end cells need be checked as they contain the terminals. and voltage remain constant for specified period. A lead-acid battery is considered to be fully charged when the. Explanation. cells begin to gas freely.7. Option B. S. NIL.G. Explanation. S. 173. Option A. Option B. As the generator load is increased (within its rated capacity). . each cell should be checked as the readings may differ. CAIPs EEL/1-1 4.

Explanation. armature current. Option B. Explanation.8 has a maximum continuous power output of. the connectors may be painted. Option B. Any heating or lighting circuit can be frequency wild. Option A. Correct Answer is. 177. Question Number. Option A. Option C. CAIPs EEL/1-1 4. To prevent corrosion at the terminals of a lead-acid battery. NIL. petroleum jelly may be applied to the connections. engine speed. Question Number. Correct Answer is. 176.G. Before taking S. Windscreen heating.G. Option B. Option A.Option C. . 178. Option A. readings of a lead-acid battery recently removed from an aircraft. Correct Answer is. field current. petroleum jelly may be applied to the connections. 24 Kw. 179. Question Number. the battery must be charged at the 10 hour rate for one hour. The output of a DC generator is controlled by varying the. Explanation. field current. Correct Answer is. Question Number. a period of 1 hour should have elapsed to allow the S. Option C.2 (vi). Explanation. the electrolyte temperature must be noted. NIL. the electrolyte temperature must be noted. Windscreen heating. copper connectors are used. to stabilize. A generator rated at 30 kVA power factor 0. Option C.

60 amps for 10 hours. Correct Answer is. 181. Option C. Question Number. remains constant with changes in the state of charge but is a useful guide to the amount of acid contained in the electrolyte. Option A. 6 amps for 10 hours. The specific gravity of the electrolyte in a lead-acid battery. Explanation. 24V with 25 ampere hour capacity. 12V with 50 ampere hour capacity. Question Number. Two 12V 25 ampere batteries connected in series will produce. Correct Answer is. . 6 amps for 10 hours.Option B. Option C. Correct Answer is. 24V with 25 ampere hour capacity. A battery which is assumed to be 100% efficient and to have a capacity of 60 ampere-hours at the 10 hour rate will deliver. Option B. Option B. 12V with 25 ampere hour capacity. 30 kW. NIL. 60 amps for 10 hours or 6 amps for 10 hours depending upon the rate of demand. Explanation. PF = TP/AP 0. remains substantially constant regardless of the state of charge and is not therefore a guide to the state of charge. Explanation. OR changes with the state of charge and is therefore a measure of the state of charge. 180. Option B. Correct Answer is. NIL. Option A. Question Number.5 kW. Option A. 24 kW. changes with the state of charge and is therefore a measure of the state of charge. NIL.8 = TP/30 TP = 24. 182. remains substantially constant regardless of the state of charge and is not therefore a guide to the state of charge. Option C. Explanation. Option C. 37.

AC at 50 c. Question Number. 183. Option C. Option C.C. for battery charging.Question Number.p. if the load increases the generator output voltage will. inverter would be required. Option B. transformer and rectifier would be required. Option A. Correct Answer is. Explanation. For battery charging. DC. the battery contactor isolates the battery from the generator. As an installed battery becomes fully charged by the aircraft generator.s. the electrical supply connected to the battery must be. an A. NIL. AC at 400 c.C. Option B. Option B.s. NIL. NIL. power on the bus bar you require 28V D. the battery voltage nears its nominal level so the charging current decreases. remain constant. On a DC shunt generator without a voltage regulator. 185. Option B. . 186.C. Question Number. decrease. Correct Answer is. Option A. the generator voltage decreases to supply the steadily decreasing current. 184. a D. Explanation. Option C. When using A. decrease. Explanation. Option A. the battery voltage nears its nominal level so the charging current decreases. Correct Answer is.p. Option C. transformer and rectifier would be required.C. an A. Option A. Question Number.C. DC. increase.

24V e. Correct Answer is.C. 12V e. thermal runaway. slip rings. the electrical circuits must be isolated before installing shorting strips. Option A. Explanation. If a nicad battery overheats. a load is applied to the battery and the voltmeter reading noted. with twice the capacity of each battery.m. NIL. Option A. an A. it is an indication of. Option B. Explanation. 189. Option B. 188. NIL.f. Option A. Option B. a hydrometer must be used. Question Number. Option C. Option C. NIL. . Correct Answer is.f. 12V e. a load is applied to the battery and the voltmeter reading noted. with twice the capacity of each battery. the generator is not connected to the bus bar. slip rings via commutator.f. NIL.m. 187. The output from an AC generator is taken from. Explanation. thermal runaway. with twice the capacity of each battery. Correct Answer is. Question Number. 24V e.m. Option A. Option C. 190. transformer and rectifier would be required. When checking a nicad battery in situ for serviceability. Explanation. the generator voltage regulator setting is too low. with the same capacity as each battery. Option B.Correct Answer is. Question Number. Question Number. Two similar 12V batteries connected in parallel will produce.f.m.

Option B. in a totally dry condition. Correct Answer is. Option C. Option A. Explanation. Correct Answer is. in the fully discharged condition. by a complete discharge and a measured recharge. 192. A DC generator will be connected to the busbar after the RCCO contacts close due to. CAIPs EEL/1-3 8. NIL. If a nickel cadmium aircraft battery is not required for immediate service. Load sharing on a DC generation system is achieved by. in the fully charged condition. connections on the stator. Correct Answer is. Option A. in the fully discharged condition. Option B. circulating currents affecting the carbon pile for voltage trimming. connections on the stator. Option B. by a complete discharge and a measured recharge. 194. Option A. Question Number. EEL/1-3 4. Question Number. Explanation. Option C. . NIL. by checking the voltage of each cell under load. Explanation. Explanation. the load differences causing torque signals to vary the engine speed. circulating currents affecting the carbon pile for voltage trimming. tachogenerators varying the generators outputs as the engine speed varies. Question Number. it should be stored.6. 191. Option A. 193.Option C. The correct way to determine the state of charge of a nickel-cadmium battery is. Question Number.5. Option C. increasing battery voltage. by checking the specific gravity of each cell. Correct Answer is.

Option B. a differential voltage of 0.5V battery voltage higher than generator. Option C. increasing generator voltage. Correct Answer is. increasing generator voltage. Explanation. NIL. Question Number. 195. Spillage of a lead acid electrolyte is detected by. Option A. indicating paper that turns red. Option B. litmus paper that turns black. Option C. indicating paper that turns blue. Correct Answer is. indicating paper that turns red. Explanation. Acid turns litmus paper red. Question Number. 196. To restore electrolyte after spillage. Option A. add distilled water only. Option B. add a mixture of acid and water of the same s.g. as that in the battery. Option C. add acid only. Correct Answer is. add a mixture of acid and water of the same s.g. as that in the battery. Explanation. Jeppson A & P Airframe Technician P7-28. Question Number. 197. When a DC generator fails, the pilot will receive the following indications:-. Option A. Zero current on the ammeter and a red PFWL. Option B. Rising voltage and current discharge with a red PFWL. Option C. An audio bell and red PFWL. Correct Answer is. Zero current on the ammeter and a red PFWL. Explanation. NIL. Question Number. 198. The purpose of an inverter is to convert.

Option A. DC to AC. Option B. AC to DC. Option C. AC to a higher frequency AC. Correct Answer is. DC to AC. Explanation. Aircraft Electrical Systems Pallett Page 66. Question Number. 199. With a vibrating-contact type voltage regulator the adjustment of generator voltage is carried out by.

Option A. adjustment of voltage coil resistance. Option B. alteration of the field resistance. Option C. alteration of contact spring tension. Correct Answer is. alteration of contact spring tension. Explanation. Aircraft Electrical Systems, Pallett Page 12, and Aircraft Electricity and Electronics - Eismin Page 199. Question Number. 200. Battery SG is measured using a. Option A. hypsometer. Option B. hygrometer. Option C. hydrometer. Correct Answer is. hydrometer. Explanation. NIL. Question Number. 201. A battery for use on aircraft must have a capacity of. Option A. 80%. Option B. 90%. Option C. 50%. Correct Answer is. 80%. Explanation. NIL. http://www.energysys.com/defense/documents/aft_manual.pdf

Question Number. 202. When connecting aircraft batteries, the last lead to connect is the. Option A. positive. Option B. negative. Option C. positive earth. Correct Answer is. negative. Explanation. NIL. Question Number. 203. Polarization in a cell is. Option A. the fact that hydrogen bubbles form on the -ve plate. Option B. the fact that as a battery discharges, the -ve plate's potential approaches that of the +ve plate's. Option C. the establishing of a potential across the cell. Correct Answer is. the fact that hydrogen bubbles form on the -ve plate. Explanation. NIL. Question Number. 204. Battery capacity is checked by. Option A. discharging at a constant current and checking the time taken to reach the discharged state. Option B. measuring the terminal voltage whilst on load and multiplying by the current drawn. Option C. discharging while maintaining the voltage constant by varying a resistor in the circuit and checking the time to be discharged. Correct Answer is. discharging at a constant current and checking the time taken to reach the discharged state. Explanation. Pallett Aircraft Electrical Systems Page 21. Question Number. 205. The frequency of an AC generator is dependant on the. Option A. number of pairs of poles and the speed of the rotor. Option B. field strength and the speed of the generator. Option C. number of conductors and the field strength. Correct Answer is. number of pairs of poles and the speed of the rotor.

Explanation. NIL. Question Number. 206. To adjust the voltage output of an AC generator, whilst maintaining constant frequency, it is necessary to. Option A. alter the driving speed. Option B. alter the reactance of the stator winding circuit. Option C. alter the field current. Correct Answer is. alter the field current. Explanation. Pallett Aircraft Electrical Systems Page 46. Question Number. 207. In a paralleled AC generation system load sharing is for. Option A. real and reactive load. Option B. real load only. Option C. reactive load only. Correct Answer is. real and reactive load. Explanation. NIL. Question Number. 208. Single phase components in a 3 phase system may be connected between. Option A. any phase and earth or between any two phases. Option B. the phase and earth only. Option C. phases A and B only. Correct Answer is. any phase and earth or between any two phases. Explanation. NIL. Question Number. 209. A frequency wild supply would be suitable for. Option A. 3-phase torque motors. Option B. deicing loads.

Option C. instruments and navigation systems. Correct Answer is. deicing loads. Explanation. NIL. Question Number. 210. Three 12V, 40Ah accumulators in series would give. Option A. 36V 40Ah. Option B. 12V 120Ah. Option C. 36V 120Ah. Correct Answer is. 36V 40Ah. Explanation. NIL. Question Number. 211. Three 12V, 40Ah accumulators in parallel would give. Option A. 12V 40Ah. Option B. 36V 120Ah. Option C. 12V 120Ah. Correct Answer is. 12V 120Ah. Explanation. NIL. Question Number. 212. An inverter can be an AC generator driven by. Option A. an AC motor. Option B. either an AC or DC motor. Option C. a DC motor. Correct Answer is. a DC motor. Explanation. NIL. Question Number. 213. When mixing electrolyte for lead acid batteries. Option A. add water to acid.

Option B. add acid to water. Option C. the method of mixing is unimportant. Correct Answer is. add acid to water. Explanation. NIL. Question Number. 214. The RPM of a 6 pole, 400 Hz alternator is. Option A. 4000. Option B. 6000. Option C. 8000. Correct Answer is. 8000. Explanation. 400/3 * 60. Question Number. 215. The ratio between apparent power and true power is the. Option A. efficiency. Option B. power factor. Option C. power rating. Correct Answer is. power factor. Explanation. Pallett Aircraft Electrical Systems Page 3. Question Number. 216. Apparent power is measured in. Option A. Volt Amps. Option B. Kilovolts. Option C. Watts. Correct Answer is. Volt Amps. Explanation. Pallett Aircraft Electrical Systems Page 35. Question Number. 217. A Ni-Cad battery consists of 19, 1.2 volt cells. What will be the nominal battery output?.

Option A. 20V. Option B. 24V. Option C. 22V. Correct Answer is. Explanation. NIL.

22V.

Question Number. 218. The preferred method of battery charging a Ni-Cad battery is constant. Option A. speed. Option B. voltage. Option C. current. Correct Answer is. current. Explanation. NIL. Question Number. 219. When operating two AC generators unparalleled, the phase of each. Option A. must be in opposition to one another. Option B. must be synchronized. Option C. is unimportant. Correct Answer is. is unimportant. Explanation. It says 'UNparalleled'. Question Number. 220. When the GPU is connected to the aircraft. Option A. it supplies essential services. Option B. it is not paralleled with the aircraft generator. Option C. it is paralleled with the aircraft generator. Correct Answer is. it is not paralleled with the aircraft generator. Explanation. NIL.

capacitive circuits. varying the field current. Option A. To parallel an alternator with another alternator the alternators must have the same. frequency. Explanation. NIL. Option B. Correct Answer is. Option B. Explanation.Question Number. RPM and phase relationship. inductive circuits. Explanation. Frequency wild' alternators supply. 227. Option B. CSDU (constant speed drive unit). Question Number. 228. Option B. Correct Answer is. keeping engine rpm constant. output shaft torque. output shaft rpm. Option A. voltage and phase relationship. Question Number. Option C. Option C. NIL. Option A. Speed of an alternator may be controlled by. 225. frequency. resistive circuits. Option C. output voltage. Question Number. voltage and phase relationship. frequency. . frequency. RPM and speed. NIL. Correct Answer is. The real load of an alternator is directly related to. output shaft torque. Option A. resistive circuits. 226. Correct Answer is. Option C. CSDU (constant speed drive unit).

230. Question Number. normally higher when the machine is hot. The term 'random paralleling' means the incoming alternator's output voltage frequency and phase relationship is. Correct Answer is. . Question Number. Pallett Aircraft Electrical Systems Page 48. Permanent magnets are mounted between the exciter field poles. not the same. Option B. Insulation resistance of electrical machines is. before full output is available from the voltage regulator?.Explanation. Option B. Permanent magnets are mounted between the exciter field poles. How is initial voltage build-up ensured in a brushless generating system. Option C. Option B. 231. Pallett Page 45 and diagram. Option C. keep the exciter field resistance nearly constant at varying temperatures. Question Number. A switch must be operated by the crew to provide excitation form the dc busbar to bring generator on line. Aircraft Electrical Systems. keep the resistance of the rectifiers nearly constant at varying temperatures. Option A. compensate for temperature changes in the main AC stator windings. Correct Answer is. Option A. The purpose of a thermistor in a brushless AC generator is to. keep the exciter field resistance nearly constant at varying temperatures. Option C. 232. Explanation. normally lower when the machine is hot. NIL. Option A. normally higher when the machine is hot. Question Number. not affected by change of temperature of machine. 229. NIL. Excitation form the DC busbars is automatically provided during the start sequence. Explanation. Explanation. Correct Answer is. Option A.

Option B. Explanation. Correct Answer is. Option C. Automatic synchronising means that the incoming alternator's voltage and frequency. Option B. crash engagement. Explanation. NIL. NIL. Option B. One lamp is connected across corresponding phases of two alternators. Option A. an be checked at the system's electrical panel by selecting the relevant alternator. Question Number. Option A. cannot be checked. 233. disconnection of the other alternators. NIL. Option C. Option A. Question Number. Correct Answer is. The danger of random paralleling is the possibility of. Correct Answer is. the lamp is either at maximum brightness or is extinguished. the lamp is maximum brightness. Explanation. can be synchronised using the two lamps provided at the system's panel. the outputs are constant. Question Number. 234. Option B. Explanation. 235. . crash engagement. an be checked at the system's electrical panel by selecting the relevant alternator. Option C. the lamp is extinguished. Correct Answer is. not the same. Option C. ground power disconnection. the lamp is extinguished. They will be synchronised when. the same. NIL.

is adjusted with the engine stationary. Low oil temperature and low oil press. Question Number. Option A. What is monitored in a constant speed drive?. 238. all normal services required by flight and ground crew. 239. Option B. Hi oil temperature and low oil press. Explanation. Question Number. Option C. is adjusted with the engine running. Correct Answer is. all normal services required by flight and ground crew. Low oil press and CSD speed. Question Number. The CSD or IDG speed governor setting. NIL. Option B. 237. NIL. Option B. NIL. Option B. The APU generator can normally be. used during flight as a back up supply if the main aircraft supply fails. Correct Answer is. . 236. Correct Answer is. is adjusted with the engine stationary. An external ground power supply can be used for.Question Number. used during flight as a back up supply if the main aircraft supply fails. is not allowed to be adjusted. Correct Answer is. Explanation. Option C. Option C. only the emergency busbar services. Option A. only the ground handling busbar services. Option A. connected in parallel with the ground power supply. Explanation. Explanation. Option A. connected in parallel with the aircraft's main generators. Option C. NIL. Hi oil temperature and low oil press.

Explanation. Correct Answer is. single phase to direct current. Option B. CAAIPS Leaflet 6-4 Page 13. battery bus bar. . main bus bar. Galley loads are supplied from the. not affected by length of cable. Option C. Option A. direct current to AC.net/documents/wiring/cable_impedance. Option C. Explanation. Option A. fully charged condition. NIL. dry condition. Option C. Explanation.html Question Number. Option A. 241. 240. Correct Answer is. main bus bar. three phase AC to direct current. Correct Answer is. fully discharged condition. Question Number. single phase to direct current. The impedance on a run of co-axial cable is. A ni-cad battery is stored in the. Option B. Transformer rectifier unit (TRUs) change. Option C. proportional to the length of cable. 242. Correct Answer is. http://www. not affected by length of cable. Option B. ground service bus. Option A.epanorama. NIL. Question Number. Explanation. inversely proportional to the length of cable. Option B. fully discharged condition.Question Number. NIL. 243.

A frequency wild AC generator is used for. Prevent spikes. replace the battery. It is known as a 'flywheel diode'. What should you do if the electrolyte is found to be low in one cell of a lead acid battery?. Question Number. Explanation. instruments. 245. 246. Cell is defective. Question Number. Option B. Top-up the individual cell with distilled water. deicing loads. fluorescent lights. NIL. Option C. Option B. Option C. deicing loads. Correct Answer is. Class C. Cargo and baggage compartments in which a fire is completely confined come under. To prevent current going the wrong way. Option A. Option C. Explanation.07a. 244. NIL. Correct Answer is. Option A. Question Number. Prevent spikes. Correct Answer is. Top-up the individual cell with distilled water. 1.Question Number. Option B. Prevent bounce. Option A. Class D. Explanation. Equipment and Furnishings (ATA 25). Option A. What is the purpose of the diode on a contactor?. Option B. 11A. Replace the defective cell. .

Option A. Life jackets are inflated with cylinders of. CO2. CO2. JAR 25. Question Number. oxygen. 2. 5 inches.3 (now in CAP747). All inflatable emergency equipment are inflated with CO2. Class D. 4. Question Number. 15. Option C. Question Number. The minimum passenger aisle width for an aircraft with a seating capacity of 20 or more is. Explanation. CO2. Question Number.Option C. Nitrogen. Explanation. Explanation. . Aircraft emergency escape slides are usually pressurised with. Option C. Correct Answer is. helium. 3 inches. 3 inches.857. Explanation. Correct Answer is. Option A. Class B. Correct Answer is. Option B. AWN 64 Para 4. Option A. 5. Vertical projected separation between seat rows must be. Option C. 4 b All inflatable safety equipment use CO2. CO2. 3. CAIPs AL/3-12. Option B. Option B. 4 inches. air. Option A. Correct Answer is.

Question Number. Question Number. Toilets must have a smoke detection. . 15. BCARs. AWN 99. any pin could be checked by connecting directly to ground. 24.3 on. Leaflet 5-2 4. ANO. Option C. Option C. Option A. Question Number.6. JAR 25.1 and CAIPs AL/3-12 4. Where would you find information regarding galley equipment?. Explanation.Option B. 6. Every 12 months. CAIPs EEL/1-73. AWN 99. In accordance with the AMM. all three pins must be shorted together and grounded to the cartridge body. Explanation.1. 9. Correct Answer is. Option B.815. dependant upon aircraft type. Option B. Option A. Explanation. Correct Answer is. Question Number. Explanation. Option A. Testing of the cartridges is the same procedure as testing fire bottle cartridges. 8. Option C. CAP 747. 7. all three pins must be shorted together and grounded to the cartridge body. How often are life jackets inspected?. In accordance with the manufacturers specification. In accordance with the manufacturers specification. When testing emergency slide bottles. Option B. Correct Answer is. Option C. one pin must be grounded to the cartridge body at one time. Correct Answer is.

NIL. Option B. Option C. JAR 25. 12. be briefed by the cabin crew. Explanation. Explanation. With warm water with low alkalinity soap. Explanation. Question Number. . connected to a pump to pump the smoke out. be rapid and obvious with easily and readily displayed instructions adjacent to the liferafts.854 says a) or b). Option B. Cabin operations manual. Option C. NIL. Option A. Option C. JARs. 11. Where would you find information on life-raft deployment?. Correct Answer is. Option B. With warm water with low alkalinity soap. Explanation. the liferafts deployment will. Cabin safety on-board card. Option A. light in the cockpit. Option B. NIL. Question Number. Correct Answer is. With white spirit. Option A. Option C. be rapid and obvious with easily and readily displayed instructions adjacent to the liferafts. Correct Answer is. have detailed instructions in a booklet in a seat pocket. 10. light in the cockpit. Correct Answer is. After a successful ditching. aural and visual warning in the main cabin. With MEK. Cabin operations manual. Question Number. How do you clean seat belts?.Option A.

The cylinder in a life jacket is inflated using. Option A. Explanation. 15. Question Number. Option C. CAAIPs Leaflet 5-7. NIL. 15g. CO2. 9g. Option B. Option B. Where the aircraft passenger seating capacity exceeds 149 but less than 200 then:. AL/3-12 2. Airworthiness Notice 79. Correct Answer is. 2 megaphones are required. Option C. 3 megaphones are required. CO2. Correct Answer is.Question Number. 9g. Option C. Option C. Correct Answer is. Explanation. Explanation. Option B. Option B. Explanation. 13. 12g.1421. nitrogen. . Question Number.561 and 25. JAR 25. Type and Quantity of emergency equipment to be carried is specified in which document?. Option A. 14. Option A. Schedule 4 of the ANO. Schedule 4 of the ANO. 2 megaphones are required. Question Number. JAR Ops 1. 1 megaphone is required. Option A. Correct Answer is. 16.810. compressed air. Megaphones must be stowed so they can withstand an inertia force of.

the CofG limits of the aircraft could be exceeded under careful monitored circumstances. When loading a cargo aircraft. Cargo nets are manufactured from. A galley trolley will be designed to.6.07b.11A. Explanation. not exceed the floor loading limits. 3. not exceed the floor loading limits. Correct Answer is. 4. 26 inches. Question Number. 24 inches. Cargo nets are made from nylon or polyester (not polypropylene). Option A. Option A. not exceed the floor limits more than 3 times in one hour. hessian.1. does not matter as the trolleys move. Option C. Option C. Question Number. nylon. Option A. Correct Answer is. Option C. Question Number. Explanation. Option B. Option B. . AWN 99 para 5. Equipment and Furnishings (ATA 25). polypropylene. 26 inches. 28 inches. Explanation. Question Number. Option A. Option B. Correct Answer is. the weight limits of the aircraft could be exceeded under careful monitored circumstances. nylon. AWN 64 Para 4. 1. What is the minimum separation between a seat back cushion and another seat or fixed structure?. Option B. 2.

uncontrolled equipment. Galley trolleys must have placards indicating. Must be stowed for take-off. NIL. Must be stowed for take-off. Option A. Explanation. has no capacity for digital information processing and transmitting. flight number. landing and turbulence. Option B. location. 4. Explanation. is installed with seat electronic unit and multiplexing techniques. Option A. Option C. Option A. Question Number. Option B. Hot fluids in an aircraft galley must have closed container lids at temperatures above. the manufacturer specifies the maximum floor loads. 5. is installed with seat electronic unit and multiplexing techniques. PTV = Personal Television. Question Number. Option B. maximum weight.Option C. AWN 99 4. 65°C. flight number. Correct Answer is. 7. 8.2. minimum equipment. Explanation. 6. . position. the manufacturer specifies the maximum floor loads. Correct Answer is.11. landing and turbulence. Question Number. Option A. uncontrolled equipment. Correct Answer is. PTV type entertainment equipment. Galley equipment which does not need electrical power is called. AWN 99 5. Correct Answer is. Question Number. Option C. position. Explanation.1. is not the part of maintenance schedule. controlled equipment. Option C.

side cart guides and fore and aft latches. 45°C. Option A. netting. . Option C. Option B. Question Number. AWN 64 Para. Question Number. To reset the light. 10. Attendant call is achieved by pressing a button on the passenger service unit (PSU). 45°C. Correct Answer is. Option C. Question Number.2. On large aeroplanes. Explanation. Option B. containerised cargo is held down by. Correct Answer is.2. a reset switch on the attendants panel is operated. Option A. the button is pushed again. Option A. the button is pushed again. Option C. you can only fit seats as stated in the Declaration of Design and Performance (DPP). Option C. Explanation. Explanation. CAP 455 AWN No. Option B. you can only fit seats facing forward.Option B. you can fit seats facing forward or rearward. NIL. Correct Answer is. 11. NIL. side cart guides and fore and aft latches.2. 55°C. rope. Explanation.99 5. you can only fit seats as stated in the Declaration of Design and Performance (DPP). With regard to forward/rearward passenger seat installation. 9. Correct Answer is. the button is pulled out.

hydraulics.1. Explanation. 1500 psi. Fire Protection (ATA 26). Question Number. the light extinguishes. a controlled item. a controlled item. Correct Answer is. B757 AMM. AWN99 Para 4. Option C. 1. Explanation. Option B. Explanation. Correct Answer is. 600 psi. the light goes off. 7 inches. goes off. Question Number. 11A.08a. Option C. 3 inches. goes off.2 Dimension C. goes off.Question Number. Option A. 600 psi. On pulling the fire handle. . Correct Answer is. the generator goes off line. Option B. A galley catering trolley with electrics is classed as. Question Number. 12. CAP 747 GR No. the light remains on. Option A. Option B. Engine wing firebottles should be charged with nitrogen at 15°C to. 2. Correct Answer is. Option C. as it is removable. Option C. The minimum vertical projected separation between seat rows is. bleed air and generator goes off. the light remains on. 13. an uncontrolled item. Option A. 1250 psi. stays on. the generator goes off line. Option A. the generator goes off line. 5 inches. 3 inches. Option B. neither. the aural warning.

the system will not work. the system and the extinguishing system are the same. Option A. Option B.857. class B compensation. Question Number. Correct Answer is. Option C. class A compensation. there is a break. Option B. 3.. Correct Answer is. the signal passes through the centre and back through the outer to give warning. the system is the same but the extinguishant is different. Option C. there is a short to earth. it checks the integrity of the contacts. When a fire test on a Systron Donor fire detector system is carried out. A fire that can be put out by a crew member in a cargo bay is in a. the system will work but not test satisfactory. CAIPs AL/3-9 Para 4. if. Explanation. Explanation. Option A. 6.Explanation. Question Number. Transport Category Aircraft Systems Page 9-7. Option A. there is a break. the system will work but not test satisfactory.2. . Option C. class D compensation.1. Correct Answer is. Explanation. Option C. a signal passes through the unbroken centre conductor to produce the warning. Transport Category Aircraft Systems Page 9-3 and JAR 25. Question Number. class B compensation. JAR 25 1203 f2. there is a break. 5. the system and the extinguishing system are the same. the system is different but the extinguishant is the same. the system will work but not test satisfactory. A fire detection zone wiring can pass through another fire zone when. 4. Option A. Option B. Pallett Aircraft Electrical Systems 3rd EditionPage 166". Option B. Question Number. In a capacitive fire detection system.

Option B. Option B. Explanation. using master warning visual and aural signals. Lavatories must have. When inspecting lavatory installations. Jeppesen a+p Technician Airframe Textbook page 11-6 b describes a systron-donner system. 7. . Option B. using master warning visual signals only. Option A. No Smoking' sign should be fitted next to the ashtrays only. Option A. Question Number. the ashtray must be made of a thermoplastic material. AWN 83 5. A fire detection loop must be capable of. the ashtray should not be located close to the toilet paper holder. Freon extinguisher with black ball markings indicating when discharged. JAR 25-854 a. Question Number. Correct Answer is. Question Number. detecting fire/overheat condition within 5 seconds and extinguishing such that after 30 seconds the condition is no longer present. b. Option C. Correct Answer is. Explanation. 8. Correct Answer is.2.Correct Answer is. Explanation.This is the same system the CAA call a sensor/responder system in CAIPs EEL/1-7 para 2. in the disposal container. the ashtray should not be located close to the toilet paper holder. water/glycol extinguisher with white ball markings indicating when discharged. it checks the integrity of the contacts. Option C. Explanation. using master warning visual and aural signals. Freon extinguisher with black ball markings indicating when discharged.4 in para d. Freon extinguisher with white ball markings indicating when discharged. The temperature sensitive strip changes color from white to black at the indicated temp. Option A. Option C. B737 MM 26-24-00 pg1. Aircraft Electrical Systems Pallett Page 163.4. 9.

Option C.3. Option C. 13. Question Number. A Systron-Donner fire detection system uses. Correct Answer is.Question Number. Option B. Correct Answer is. Both aural and a red light. DC. AL/3-26 2. Correct Answer is. DC. 10. 12. Option B. to protect against freezing at altitude. Explanation. Aural. to protect against continuous flushing. nitrogen gas. Red light. Explanation. Question Number. Correct Answer is. to protect against the dangers of smoke and fire in the event of an overheat. Option C. Option B. Question Number. Transport Category Aircraft Systems. AC or DC. Option A. Jeppesen Page 9-22. NIL. helium gas. Option A. Engine fire bottle pressure switches are operated by. to protect against the dangers of smoke and fire in the event of an overheat. AC. Option C. oxygen gas. Both aural and a red light. 11. Explanation. What external warning is there for an APU fire?.2. Option A. A toilet is fitted with thermal protection. helium gas. Option A.8. . Option B. AWN 57 Para. Explanation.

org. Correct Answer is. Option C.2.b737. Option A. Volts drop. Generator remains on line to provide electrical power. Option A. function check. operates fire extinguisher only. Option A. Option C. 17. NIL. 15. Dirty contacts. 14. every five years. Explanation. cuts off field current. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is.uk/fireprotection.htm Question Number. EEL/1-7 2. continuity check. When the fire handle is operated it. cuts off field current. A cockpit check on the engine firewire system is a. http://www. only when equipment items fail random tests. hydraulics and fuel and operates fire extinguishers. Integrity comparator. Fire tests on aircraft internal furnishings must be carried out. B747-400 AMM. 16.Question Number. continuity check. Question Number. Dirty contacts. Explanation. Option B. . Option A. hydraulics and fuel and operates fire extinguishers. only when equipment items fail random tests. Explanation. cuts off fuel and hydraulics. Option B. NIL. in a Systron Donner fire detection system?. Option C. What is the contamination monitor for. Question Number.4 (d). every two years. Option B. Option B. calibration check. Option C. Correct Answer is. Explanation.

Option B. A continuity check. 21. 20. Option A. what causes the firewire caption to come on when heat is applied?. Option C. Option B.Question Number. Explanation. Correct Answer is. Option A. NIL. A continuity check. Option C. Option B. Jeppesen A&P Airframe Technician Textbook Page 16-8 Lindberg System. Bottles are fired. Safety ohmmeter is used to check voltage. Correct Answer is. Pressure. What test is carried out to ensure serviceability of a squib?. Toilet fire detection issues can be found in. Question Number. Option B. every 2 years. Capacitance increase. CAAIPs. Explanation. Explanation. Fireproofing of cabin material should be done. 19. Pressure. Option A. Option C. Trick question. every 5 years. when a sample fails. Question Number. A continuity check is carried out . when a sample fails. AWN 80. Option C. Continuity. Question Number. But a safety ohmmeter does not check voltage. Option A. 18. AWN 83. . Correct Answer is.with a safety ohmmeter. In a gas firewire system.

NIL. Option C. Option B. Option A. Option B. Explanation. Option A. lamp detecting 2% smoke. same potential as ground. C. Option A. AWN 83 . Transport Category Aircraft Systems Page 9. Light in the cabin. The outside casing of a firewire has. Option C. Correct Answer is.Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. 115VDC potential above ground. photoelectric cell detecting 2% smoke. 24. Question Number. photoelectric cell detecting 10% smoke. D. Option C. 25. Correct Answer is. same potential as ground. A cargo compartment which will contain a fire itself and ventilate is a class. Option B. Smoke detectors consist of a. JAR 25. . Question Number. Explanation. Question Number. Option A. Either a light or an audible warning in the cabin. 22. In a toilet smoke condition.2. A. D.857. Question Number. Explanation. AWN 83.now transferred to CAP 747 GR no 20. photoelectric cell detecting 10% smoke. what would be the indication?. 28VDC potential above ground. 23. Option B. Explanation.

Option C. Audible warning in the cabin. Correct Answer is. Either a light or an audible warning in the cabin. Explanation. JAR 25.854. Question Number. 26. What do you check when carrying out an insulation check on a continuous firewire loop?. Option A. The firewire, sensor & controller. Option B. The outside of the firewire to earth. Option C. The firewire. Correct Answer is. The firewire. Explanation. Pallets Aircraft Electrical System Third Edition page 163 fig 10.17. Question Number. 27. When the fire-handle switch is pulled, a. Option A. red warning light stays on. Generator, hydraulics & fuel stays on. Option B. red warning light goes off. Generator goes offline. Option C. red warning light stays on. Generator, hydraulics, & fuel is cut off. Correct Answer is. red warning light stays on. Generator, hydraulics, & fuel is cut off. Explanation. B737 MM. Warning light is an indication of fire. Light goes off only when fire is extinguished. 11A.08b. Fire Protection (ATA 26). Question Number. 1. What are the minimum number of fire bottles in a cabin with 201- 300 people?. Option A. 3 BCF. Option B. 4 Fire Extinguishers. Option C. 4 Methyl Bromide. Correct Answer is. 4 Fire Extinguishers. Explanation. JAR OPS 1.790, AWN 60.

Question Number. 2. How often do hand-held extinguishers have to be weighed?. Option A. Bi-annually. Option B. Every 5 years. Option C. Annually. Correct Answer is. Annually. Explanation. CAIPs AL/3-10 para 6.3 and 7.1. Question Number. 3. The weight of an extinguisher is stamped. Option A. on bracket. Option B. on head fitting. Option C. on base of body. Correct Answer is. on head fitting. Explanation. CAIPs AL/3-10, para 6.3. Question Number. 4. How can fire extinguisher be identified as being used?. Option A. Check the tell-tale wire. Option B. Weighed. Option C. Check the pressure. Correct Answer is. Weighed. Explanation. AL/3-10 6.3. Question Number. 5. Portable fire extinguishers are operated by. Option A. turning upside down and squeeze button/trigger. Option B. breaking the tell tale/tamper-proof seal then operated by the handle. Option C. one single operation until fire extinguisher is empty. Correct Answer is. breaking the tell tale/tamper-proof seal then operated by the handle. Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 6. How many fire extinguishers are required on an aircraft with 501 passengers?. Option A. 6. Option B. 7. Option C. 5. Correct Answer is. 7. Explanation. JAR 25.851. Question Number. 7. How many fire extinguishers are required on an aircraft having 401 - 500 passengers?. Option A. 6. Option B. 8. Option C. 5. Correct Answer is. 6. Explanation. JAR 25.851. Question Number. 8. CO2 fire extinguishers are used on. Option A. all fires in fuselage. Option B. engines only. Option C. baggage holds only. Correct Answer is. all fires in fuselage. Explanation. AL/3-10 3.3. 11A.09. Flight Controls (ATA 27). Question Number. 1. In an aircraft flying control system employing servo-tabs, the installation of external ground locks to the main control surface. Option A. would not prevent movement of the control column. Option B. is unnecessary since the system is irreversible and therefore the control surface cannot be displaced by the wind.

Option C. would also prevent movement of the control column. Correct Answer is. would not prevent movement of the control column. Explanation. Aircraft Flight Barnard and Philpot, Second Edition Page 253 (first line). Question Number. 2. A full time yaw damper system detects. Option A. band pass frequencies. Option B. all frequencies. Option C. only low frequencies. Correct Answer is. band pass frequencies. Explanation. Pallett Automatic Flight Control 4th Edition Page 222 on. Question Number. 3. With respect to flight spoilers, they. Option A. can operate both on the ground and in flight. Option B. only operate on the ground. Option C. only operate in flight. Correct Answer is. can operate both on the ground and in flight. Explanation. Flight spoilers are used in flight and on the ground. However Ground spoilers can ONLY be used on the ground. Jeppesen Transport Category Aircraft Systems Page 5-6. Pallett Automatic Flight Control 2nd Edition Page 51. Question Number. 4. The bearing used in a fibre pulley is. Option A. a ball bearing. Option B. a roller bearing. Option C. a plain bearing. Correct Answer is. a ball bearing. Explanation. Ball bearings are used in fibre pulleys. Question Number. 5. When the primary stops fitted to a control run have been contacted.

Option A. a clearance exists at the secondary stops. Option B. the secondary stops have been over-ridden. Option C. the secondary stops will just be in contact. Correct Answer is. a clearance exists at the secondary stops. Explanation. The clearance is on the secondary stops. Question Number. 6. Excessive wear on both sides of the control cable pulley groove is evidence of. Option A. excessive cable tension. Option B. pulley misalignment. Option C. cable misalignment. Correct Answer is. pulley misalignment. Explanation. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 1-45. Question Number. 7. A universal protractor used to measure degrees of aileron travel should be zeroed. Option A. when the aircraft is in level flight attitude. Option B. with the aileron in the neutral position. Option C. with the aileron in the down position. Correct Answer is. with the aileron in the neutral position. Explanation. Jeppesen A&P technician Airframe Textbook Page 1-40. Question Number. 8. A flying control static friction check. Option A. can only be carried out during flight. Option B. demonstrates the force the pilot requires to overcome system inertia and move the controls. Option C. will demonstrate that a high force is always necessary to operate non-powered controls. Correct Answer is. demonstrates the force the pilot requires to overcome system inertia and move the controls. Explanation. A static friction check demonstrates the force the pilot requires to overcome system inertia and move the controls.

Question Number. 9. What is an aileron balance cable for?. Option A. To allow the cable to be tensioned. Option B. To correct for wing heaviness. Option C. To allow aircraft to fly hands off. Correct Answer is. To allow the cable to be tensioned. Explanation. Jeppesen A&P technician Airframe Textbook Page 1-27. Question Number. 10. With the elevator trim wheel adjusted fully aft. (nose up), range of movement of the elevator is restricted. Option A. would make no difference to the movement. Option B. for 'down' travel movement. Option C. for 'up' travel movement. Correct Answer is. for 'up' travel movement. Explanation. Use of trim reduces the associated control movement direction range. Question Number. 11. On the ground, spoilers/speedbrakes deploy to. Option A. 15°. Option B. 30°. Option C. 60°. Correct Answer is. 60°. Explanation. Transport Category Aircraft Systems Jeppesen Page 5-6. In the air - 30 degrees and a further 15 degrees with ailerons. Question Number. 12. A horn balance on a control will. Option A. increase degree of movement at high speed. Option B. decrease degree of movement at low speed. Option C. decrease degree of movement at high speed. Correct Answer is. increase degree of movement at high speed. Explanation. For a given pilot effort, the horn balance increases movement.

Question Number. 13. In normal flight, if the control column is pulled back, a servo tab fitted to the elevator will. Option A. move up. Option B. remain in line with the elevator. Option C. move down. Correct Answer is. move down. Explanation. NIL. Question Number. 14. In normal flight, if the control wheel is moved to the left, then the aileron on the right wing will. Option A. decrease the angle of attack of the right hand wing. Option B. increase the angle of attack of the right hand wing. Option C. keep the angle of attack of the right wing constant. Correct Answer is. increase the angle of attack of the right hand wing. Explanation. Could also be answered 'b', depending on whether it means the cause or the effect. The downgoing aileron (the right one) has an increase in AoA locally, which makes the wing lift, thusreducing the AoA of the wing as a whole. Choose your interpretation. Question Number. 15. On an aircraft fitted with elevons in normal flight, if a column is moved forward, the elevons will.

Option A. remain stationary. Option B. both move down. Option C. both move up. Correct Answer is. both move down. Explanation. NIL.

Question Number.

16.

To avoid moments bending the root of the wing, the aircraft will be fitted with.

Option A. integrated fuel monitoring system. Option B. symmetrical flight control trim. Option C. automatic trim control for controlled turns and rudder movements. Correct Answer is. symmetrical flight control trim. Explanation. Probably referring to Load Alleviation Function. Jeppesen Transport Category Aircraft Systems Page 5-29. Question Number. 17. A yaw damper gain could be fitted with. Option A. decreases sensitivity for decreased speed. Option B. increased sensitivity for increased speed. Option C. decreases sensitivity for increased speed. Correct Answer is. increased sensitivity for increased speed. Explanation. Automatic Flight Control, Pallett Page 223. Question Number. 18. In an aircraft system employing balance tabs, the installation of external ground locks between the control surface and the balance tabs. Option A. would prevent the movement of the control column. Option B. is unnecessary since the system is irreversible. Option C. would not prevent the movement of the control column. Correct Answer is. would prevent the movement of the control column. Explanation. A+P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 1-29. Question Number. 19. The two switches for pitch trim are located. Option A. on the control column acting like an 'AND' switch. Option B. on the control column with the captain having priority over the First Officer. Option C. on the control column acting like an 'OR' switch. Correct Answer is. on the control column acting like an 'AND' switch. Explanation. The 'split' trim switch has one half closing a relay to 'enable' power to the trim motor, and to engage the clutch. The other switch half is to supply the power to the motor. Both must be operated together, to operate the trim.

symmetrical application of ailerons. wing root bending moments are reduced by. In fully Fly By Wire aircraft. 23. Correct Answer is. Option B. Option B. If the flaps are sluggish or erratic on final approach. Avionic Fundamentals page 292. airspeed. Option C. transfer of fuel from one wing tank to another. Jeppesen Transport Category Aircraft Systems Page 5-19. operation of the elevator. Option C. 21. the possible cause may be. flap motor internal leakage. Option B. Explanation. flap tracks out of rigging. flap motor internal leakage. Decrease drag on the up going wing. Yaw damping rate changes with. altitude. Option B. Increase drag on the up going wing. Question Number. Option A. Help pilot overcome aerodynamic loads. . Option C. Correct Answer is. What is the main purpose of a frize aileron?. Option A. Option A. Correct Answer is. bearing seized. Correct Answer is. Explanation. 20. Decrease drag on the up going wing. CAIPs EEL/1-2. Option A.Question Number. 22. Option C. symmetrical application of ailerons. Question Number. Explanation. Question Number. flap position. airspeed.

moves down at impending stall. A wing mounted stall warning vane. 24. Oscillation and hunting of flight control surface are prevented by. Option B.Explanation. which is on the downgoing wing. Option B. Remain in last position. 25. Droop. Question Number. Eismin 5th Edition Page-370.Pallett 3rd edition. 27.321%. Option A. Option A. 7%. Option C. This is to prevent a hydraulic lock and permit manual reversion. 4%. Aircraft Electricity and Electronics. Option C. Option A. para 2). 26. "The drop in pressure releases a valve which lets the fluid pass easily from one side of actuator piston to the other.J. feedback from control surface. Option C. . feedback from the servo motor. Correct Answer is. Stick shaker activates at a speed which is above the stalling speed by. Question Number.H. 10. Question Number. Go to neutral. page-157 (feedback. The Frise aileron increases drag on the up-going aileron. fitting a tachogenerator." Question Number. Explanation. Correct Answer is. And Vise versa on the other aileron. Surfaces behave like manually controlled surfaces. fitting a tachogenerator. Explanation. Option B. Droop. What happens to a hydraulically operated flight control surface when pressure is removed?. 7%. Option A. Correct Answer is. Explanation. Automatic Flight Control by E.

flight augmentation computer. Option C. Option B. 31. flight control computer. Correct Answer is. Option B. On a full fly-by-wire system. In a fly-by-wire aircraft. Correct Answer is. . Correct Answer is. Flight management computer. rudder and THS will move. Explanation. moves up at impending stall. 29. gives a visual indication of impending stall. what controls the roll spoilers?. ailerons and rudder will move.Option B. Option A. 28. Flight control computer. 30. Option C. flight management and guidance computer. Transport Category Aircraft Systems Page 5-26. Flight control computer. Explanation. Correct Answer is. Question Number. Option C. Option A. Option C. ailerons. NIL. NIL. rudder and elevators will move. During an autopilot controlled turn. ailerons. a speedbrake screwjack servomotor is controlled by the. Flight augmentation computer. Explanation. Question Number. rudder and elevators will move. Mass balance weights are used to. moves up at impending stall. flight control computer. Transport Category Aircraft Systems Page 5-26. Option B. Question Number. Option A. Question Number. Explanation. ailerons.

Option A. Correct Answer is. balance the trailing edge of flying control surfaces. Option B. Active load control involves. Explanation. protect the servo motor. Option B. Correct Answer is. Explanation. Automatic Flight Control Pallett and Coyle Page 292. prevent control surface runaway. Option A. NIL. Option A. Question Number. Question Number. intervention & monitoring the human pilot. elevator and stab. Active load control uses. aileron and spoiler. aileron and spoiler. counteract flutter on control surfaces. Option C. Option C. 34. 33. Option A. Explanation. Option C. Correct Answer is. Option B. balance the tabs. limiting the deflection of control surface with airspeed. counteract flutter on control surfaces. varying lift force to control vertical movement of the aircraft. Explanation. Option B. The purpose of the autopilot servo-motor torque setting is to. Correct Answer is. varying lift force to control vertical movement of the aircraft. Transport Category Aircraft Systems 5-29 (Load Alleviation Function). prevent control surface runaway. Automatic Flight Control Pallett and Coyle. damp the system oscillation. elevator and aileron. Option C. 32. . Question Number.

36. Option A. A320 Ground Spoiler Logic diagram . Option C. prevent nose pitching down. Explanation. Flight Augmentation Computers. Option A. In a fully Fly By Wire Aircraft. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. Option C. Flight Augmentation Computers. http://www. Question Number. pitch of aircraft in cruise. continued pitch input. electric flight control unit. Explanation.Question Number. prevent adverse yaw in a turn. prevent adverse yaw in a turn.uk/flightcontrols. Question Number.org. Option C. Option B. continued pitch input. Transport Category Aircraft Systems Page 5-26. Question Number.b737. 37.htm. Aileron input is fed into the yaw damper system to. Explanation. Correct Answer is. Option A. Flight Guidance and Management Computer. prevent nose pitching up. Option B. Pitch trimming in autopilot is initiated by. rudder trim is nulled by the. C of G movement. ground spoilers are deployed automatically when the aircraft is on ground and. NIL. Option B. Correct Answer is. 38. thrust reversers are deployed. weight on ground switch is activated. thrust reversers are deployed. brakes are deployed. . Option B. 35.also. In a fully Fly By Wire aircraft. Option C. Option A.

Option B. Option B. 42. Question Number. Option B. In an automatic flight control system. Differential aileron control will. Option C. Correct Answer is. ELAC and SEC. During manual control only. what controls stabilizer trim?. mass balance. 39. Option A. cause a nose up moment. Option C. Option A. If the elevator is deflected over a long time. Option A. Explanation. During either manual or automatic control. when may the yaw damper be applied?. During either manual or automatic control. Question Number.226. Correct Answer is. During automatic control only. . Flutter can be prevented by. ELAC. Question Number. prevent yawing in conjunction with rudder input. cause a nose down moment. NIL. Correct Answer is. Transport Category Aircraft Systems 5-23. 41. On a fly-by-wire aircraft. Option C. the AFCS trims the horizontal stabilizer to eliminate the elevator deflection load. Option A. Question Number. Explanation. Option B.Explanation. prevent yawing in conjunction with rudder input. trim tabs. 40. SEC. Automatic Flight Control Pallett Page 222 . Explanation. ELAC and SEC.

autopilot must be engaged. Pallett Page 213 . operation of the trim controls is required. Automatic Flight Control. one is up one is down. autopilot need not be engaged. Explanation. 43. Option B. NIL. Option A. autopilot need not be engaged. Question Number. balance panels. In an autopilot coordinated turn. Option A. 45. the ailerons are faired. Question Number. Correct Answer is. Option B. Fast/Slow indication. 46. In a fully fly by wire system. the ailerons are neutralised (faired) and the aircraft will hold the turn. How is automatic angle of attack protection provided?. A319/A320/A321 Flight Crew Operating Manual. Correct Answer is. Option C. Explanation. Due to the aircraft's neutral lateral stability.218. Question Number. Question Number. Option B. both ailerons are down. Option A. Correct Answer is. if the elevator loses all electrical power. mass balance.Option C. servos move to neutral and lock. . Explanation. Option C. Correct Answer is. servos remain stationary and provide damping. when the turn angle is reached. 44. servos remain stationary and provide damping. Option A. Explanation. In an auto trim system. for the trim system to operate. Option C. the ailerons are faired. servos lock at last position.

landing gear up and locked. Explanation. NIL. Autothrottle applying more power. NIL. flaps are extended. . has no effect on the aircraft's operation. Correct Answer is. Option B. 49. flaps are retracted. Fly-by-wire load alleviation function in turbulent weather conditions will result in. Option B.Option B. Correct Answer is. Option C. 48. Question Number. A single failure of fly by wire. NIL. ailerons moving symmetrically upward. Question Number. will limit the flight profile. Option A. Correct Answer is. 47. 50. spoiler moving symmetrically upward. How is the stabiliser automatically controlled in normal manual operation?. Question Number. Correct Answer is. Option A. Option A. has no effect on the aircraft's operation. Option C. Option C. Question Number. Explanation. Reduce flap deployment. Explanation. will reduce the operational height and speed. Autotrim will switch to 'slow' when. ailerons and spoiler moving symmetrically upward. Option C. NIL. Autothrottle applying more power. ailerons and spoiler moving symmetrically upward. Option B. flaps are retracted. Explanation.

increases feel as airspeed increases.V. Option B. Question Number. increases rudder movement with increase in airspeed. restricts rudder movement with increase in airspeed. Correct Answer is.D. Mach/Speed Trim. Option B. Option C. Explanation.D.V. Explanation. Mach/Speed Trim. Correct Answer is. an R. NIL. 51. Elevons combine the functions of both. Spoiler position feedback is provided by a. Electric Trim. Option A. NIL. Option A. Option B. 52. Option C. Question Number. a microswitch. Option A. Correct Answer is.T. Question Number. . NIL. elevator and aileron.T. rudder and aileron.C. rudder and elevator. 53. Option C. an R. Explanation. elevator and aileron. Pitch Trim. Explanation. Rudder 'Q' limiting. Option B. a S. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 1-16 Fig 1-36. Option C.Option A.M. restricts rudder movement with increase in airspeed. Correct Answer is.

To decrease the drag and decrease the rate of yaw and turn. Option B.tpub. has the actuator rams co-axial. .F.htm Question Number.U. To increase the drag to increase the rate of yaw and turn. 56. Has no effect on rate of yaw and turn. Option B. Explanation. NIL. NIL. Option A. 57. Correct Answer is. Option B. has two control surfaces under its control. prevent adverse yaw. Option C. Explanation. Correct Answer is. Explanation. prevent adverse yaw. for proportional control systems. has the actuator rams parallel. Correct Answer is. A tandem P. Option C. http://www. Explanation. NIL. for power operated control systems. 55. Option A. compensate for aileron reversal. for power operated control systems. minimise flutter.C. Option C.com/content/engine/14105/css/14105_157. 54. Question Number.Question Number. To increase the drag to increase the rate of yaw and turn. Question Number. Option A. NIL. has the actuator rams co-axial. A differential aileron system is designed to. Option C. What is the purpose of a differential Frise aileron?. Option A. An artificial feel system is required. for power assisted control systems. Option B. Correct Answer is.

An artificial feel system is necessary in a powered flying control system to. Option B. Question Number. prevent overloading of the power control units. Option C. 59. compensate for low temperature only. maintain preset cable tensions during flight. ailerons and spoilers. Option C. Option A. Option A. Correct Answer is. Active load control uses. automatic and instantaneous.Question Number. Option C. provide the pilot with simulated stick forces. Explanation. possible. . maintain preset cable tensions during flight. NIL. operated by the standby hydraulic system. 61. Option B. Correct Answer is. ailerons and spoilers. but not recommended. 58. Option A. NIL. Option A. In the event of hydraulic failure in a power control system. Correct Answer is. increasing the sensitivity of the control system. 60. provide the pilot with simulated stick forces. Explanation. automatic and instantaneous. Correct Answer is. a requirement of the manual reversion is that it must be. The purpose of control cable regulators is to. Explanation. compensate for high temperature only. NIL. Option B. Option B. Option C. elevator and stab. Question Number. elevator and ailerons. Question Number.

rudder. Range of movements of power operated flying control surfaces are limited by. Question Number. elevator. The purpose of the Servo Valve in a power operated control is. Explanation. NIL. rudder. Option B. to direct hydraulic fluid to the jack in response to the pilots control in cockpit. travel of the jack body. Option A. . Question Number. Correct Answer is. Option C. Correct Answer is. Explanation. to revert the system to manual operation. rudder. elevato. Option A. Option C. 62. to provide pressure to operate the control. ailerons. Option A. Option B. NIL. 63. 65. 64. The aircraft is controlled about the normal axis by the. Option A. mechanical stops in the control system. NIL. Correct Answer is. Option B. Option C. travel of the jack ram. Question Number. The aircraft is controlled about the lateral axis by the. Option B. ailerons. Option C. NIL. Explanation. elevator. Question Number. mechanical stops in the control system.Explanation.

together only. The aircraft is controlled about the longitudinal axis by the. Option B. ailerons. rudder. 69. Option A. will move. Option C. NIL. to direct hydraulic fluid to the jack in response to the pilots control in cockpit. Question Number. Explanation. Option C. either opposite each other or together. Question Number. Ruddervators when moved. Explanation. Option B.Correct Answer is. depending on the selection. Correct Answer is. either opposite each other or together. Explanation. Option C. 68. Option A. ailerons. the stick forces when pitching the nose down will be very high. depending on the selection. Option B. Question Number. 67. As a consequence of the C of G being close to its aft limit. A stick shaker is a device which. Option A. vibrates the control column near stalling speed. 66. helps extricate an aircraft from soft ground. Question Number. elevator. NIL. Explanation. gives a short period of extra lift to assist take off. Jeppesen A & P Technician Textbook page 12-38. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 16. Option A. opposite to each other only. . Option B. Correct Answer is. the stick forces to manoeuvre longitudinally will be low due to the low stability. Correct Answer is. vibrates the control column near stalling speed.

Option A. Option C. via a fixed linkage. Question Number. this may be compensated for by. the stick forces when pitching the nose down will be very high. Explanation. 71. directly by the pilot to produce forces which in turn move the main control surfaces. changes. Explanation. operating the flightdeck/cockpit controls until the system is against the primary stops. when the C. due to the high longitudinal stability. by a trim wheel and moves in the opposite direction to the main control surfaces when moved.Option C. A servo tab is operated. Option B. Correct Answer is. 73. operating the flightdeck/cockpit controls until the system is against the primary stops. Option C. Question Number. 72. moving them by hand directly until against the secondary stops. and moves in the same direction as the main control surfaces. Option A. An anti-balance tab is moved. Option B. Correct Answer is. . Option B. via a fixed linkage. The higher speed of the high wing in a banked turn causes it to have more drag than the low wing. automatically. directly by the pilot to produce forces which in turn move the main control surfaces. NIL. Explanation. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 23. the stick forces will be high in fore and aft pitch. Explanation. Option A. Correct Answer is. Question Number. Question Number. Correct Answer is. hydraulically. NIL. NIL. moving them by hand directly until against the primary stops. 70. Option C.G. they must be positioned by. When checking full range of control surface movement.

Explanation. Fowler flap. increasing the 'nose up' pitch by use of the elevators. The type of flap which extends rearwards when lowered is called a. 76. operating the ailerons into the opposite sense once the correct angle of bank has been reached. Fowler flap. NIL. Rudder. NIL. Option A. Explanation. Correct Answer is. Option B. Which of the following trailing edge flaps give an increase in wing area?. Fowler flap. . Option A. Fowler flap.Option A. Question Number. 75. Slotted flap. Option B. Tailplane. Correct Answer is. use of the rudder control. NIL. Explanation. NIL. plain flap. Which of the following is not a primary flying control?. Option C. Elevator. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. Option C. split flap. Option B. Option B. Question Number. Split flap. Question Number. Option A. use of the rudder control. Option C. Option C. 74. Explanation. Tailplane.

Option B. Question Number. Option A. Spring tabs. Option B. ailerons. Explanation. 80. ailerons. Option B. NIL. Option C. Option A. Correct Answer is. Question Number. Correct Answer is. Question Number. What is fitted on the aircraft to enable the pilot to reduce his speed rapidly in event of severe turbulence. servo tab. Balance tabs. Option C. rudder.Question Number. Explanation. elevators. 77. Lift dumpers. When spoilers are used asymmetrically. What is used to correct any tendency of the aircraft to move towards an undesirable flight attitude?. geared balance tab. Option C. or speed tending to rise above the Never Exceed Limit?. Trim tabs. Explanation. Option A. . 78. Option C. Air brakes. geared balance tab. Air brakes. Correct Answer is. Option A. A tab which assists the pilot to move a flying control by moving automatically in the opposite direction to the control surface is called a. 79. NIL. Option B. they combine with. Wheel brakes. trim tab. NIL.

stay at neutral. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems Page 168. remain in the position they were when power was removed. A stick shaker operates. the flying control surfaces. With hydraulic ram operated flying controls. Correct Answer is. NIL. Option A. droop. 82. 84. droop. Option C. Question Number. Option B. Option A. Option B. at the onset of the stall. transmit pilot input to the control surfaces. Q feel. Question Number. Question Number. Option C. Correct Answer is. transmit pilot input to the control surfaces. 81. NIL. Explanation. Explanation. . Option A. Option C. Powered flying control actuators. when the pressure is reduced to zero.Correct Answer is. Explanation. Option B. Question Number. the feel required is normally supplied by. Correct Answer is. provide feedback to the pilot. 83. just before the stall. NIL. are operated by the autopilot only. Trim tabs. Explanation. In a power assisted flight control system. just before the stall. Option A. after the stall.

pitot and static pressures. Question Number.2. Question Number. pitch trim is not affected. air loads on the control surfaces. air loads on the control surfaces. Option C. Option C. Spoiler panels are positioned so that when deployed. pitot and static pressures. Q feel units use.1 Power 'assisted' controls have aerodynamic feedback. Correct Answer is. nulling of the servo valve. 86. nulling of the servo valve. . NIL.Option B. Option B. Option A. Option C. stretching springs. Explanation. pitot pressure only. Nulling the servo valve produces a hydraulic lock. Option C. Avionics Fundamentals pg 257 fig 17-31. Option A. Correct Answer is. roll will not occur. Explanation. 87. Option B. Explanation. Correct Answer is. the jack ram being attached to structure.1 and 8. "Irreversibility of a fully powered control surface is provided by. 85. air loads on the control surface. Question Number. Explanation." Option A. Correct Answer is. static pressure only. pitch trim is not affected. Option B. Power 'operated'controls use a Q feel system. no yaw takes place. AL/3-7 8.

Option A. a speed brake lever only.Question Number. 88. Correct Answer is. Option C. 91. Question Number. the aileron control wheel and speed brake lever. Explanation. Option B. Explanation. due to the increase in speed and size of aircraft. on the leading edge of the wing. NIL. on the elevator control system. Spoiler panels are controlled by. Lift transducer. . Explanation. because the pilot has too many tasks to perform. A lift transducer is normally fitted. Question Number. NIL. Correct Answer is. Option C. aileron drag being reduced on the inner wing in a turn. Option C. due to the increase in speed and size of aircraft. Option A. aileron drag being reduced on the outer wing in a turn. Powered flight control systems are used on transport aircraft. Correct Answer is. A differential aileron control system results in. Option A. 90. because at low level air density is high. aileron drag being reduced on the outer wing in a turn. Option B. Explanation. Correct Answer is. Option A. Question Number. also known as a stall sensor. NIL. Option B. to the nose area of the aircraft. on the leading edge of the wing. Option C. aileron drag being compensated by small rudder movements. Option B. the aileron control wheel only. 89. the aileron control wheel and speed brake lever.

Correct Answer is. the control system computer." Option A. NIL. go to full up. Question Number. lock the speed brakes down during flight. Explanation. 94. the hydraulic actuator. Correct Answer is. yawing. 92. Option B. "If electrical power is removed from a fly by wire spoiler system. Option C. Option C. Question Number. Question Number. NIL. Option B. Explanation. pitch changes. the follow-up transducer is fitted to. prevent inadvertent operation. Option C. Option A. Explanation.Question Number. the hydraulic actuator. Asymmetric flap operation is prevented to keep to a minimum the tendancy of. the spoiler panels. Option C. remain where they are. go to down if any are not already down. 95. Option B. NIL. Correct Answer is. 93. In a fly-by-wire control system. go to down if any are not already down. prevent inadvertent operation. Option B. rolling. . The down position of the speed brake lever is detented to. Option A. allow the ground speed brakes to be used on touchdown. Option A. the pilots input.

A series type yaw damper. Explanation. Explanation. Option C. rolling. greater than 50%. the elevators move up and the left aileron moves down. Option B. Option C. but variable for stick movement. greater than 75%. 97. the down-going aileron more travel than the up-going one. Option A. Question Number. . Question Number. 96. High thrust stall warning is activated when the thrust of opposite engine reads. greater than 75%. the left aileron moves up and the elevators move up. Option A. NIL. NIL. Option B. greater than 90%. the elevators move down and the left aileron moves down. A differential aileron control is one which gives. Correct Answer is. moves the rudder and the ailerons to damp out Dutch roll. When the control column is moved back and the hand-wheel turned to the left. Option A. Correct Answer is. a larger aileron up travel than down. Option B. NIL. Question Number. equal aileron travel in each direction. Explanation. 99. the left aileron moves up and the elevators move up. moves the rudder pedals and the rudder. Option C. a larger aileron up travel than down. Option B.Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. 98. Question Number. Explanation. Option A. NIL.

vibrates the elevators to cause buffeting of the airframe. Question Number. right spoiler remaining retracted. moves the rudder only. elevator down. right aileron moves down. A stick shaker. Correct Answer is. Option C. Explanation. Option C. Question Number. NIL. Question Number.2 and Transport Category Aircraft Systems Page 211. Correct Answer is. Option B. Option A.3. Correct Answer is. elevator up. 100. left aileron moves up. is a linear actuator attached to the base of the control column. NIL. elevator down. 101. If the control column is moved forward and to the left. Explanation. left spoiler remaining retracted. right aileron down. left aileron moves down. Option A. an aileron trim tab fitted to the port aileron will. left spoiler remaining retracted. NIL. 103. 102. Option C. left aileron moves up.Option C. AL/3-21 page 22 para 13. right aileron down. roll to the right is caused by. Question Number. On an aircraft fitted with spoilers for lateral control. left spoiler extending. right aileron up. Explanation. right spoiler extending. Correct Answer is. moves the rudder only. right spoiler extending. is an eccentric flywheel driven by an electric motor and mounted on the control column. Option B. elevator down. Option A. Explanation. Option B. . is an eccentric flywheel driven by an electric motor and mounted on the control column. left aileron moves up. When an aileron trim control in the cockpit is moved to counteract a tendency to fly left wing low. both spoilers extending.

The elevator trim tab has moved up. . NIL. Option B. What was the direction of travel of the trim tab?. Option C. The elevator trim tab has moved down. Option A. Explanation. NIL. Question Number. Correct Answer is. The elevator trim tab has moved down. Option A. decrease cable tension in cold weather. A tension regulator in the flight control cable system of a large all metal aircraft is used primarily to. The port elevator tab has moved up and starboard moved down. 104. Option A. move up and this will cause the left aileron to move down and the right aileron to move up. increase cable tension in cold weather.Option A. Explanation. stainless steel. move up and cause the left aileron to move down and the right aileron to move down to a lesser degree. 106. retain a set tension. Option C. retain a set tension. NIL. move up and cause the left aileron to move down and the right aileron to move down to a lesser degree. Explanation. 105. Pulleys in a flight control system are made from. Question Number. Option B. Tufnol or aluminium alloy. Option C. You have adjusted the elevator trim tab to correct for nose heavy. Correct Answer is. Option B. Tufnol or aluminium alloy. Option B. Correct Answer is. Option C. Explanation. Question Number. brass. Correct Answer is. NIL. move up and cause the left aileron to move down but the right aileron will remain neutral.

Question Number. Correct Answer is. Option A. flap position. 107. dutch roll frequency. Option C. Correct Answer is. fast/slow switch. dutch roll frequency. 108. Option B. Question Number. Option A. throttle lever. The alpha vane signal can be fed to __________ when the aircraft is close to stall. Correct Answer is. Option C. then the. 109. Option B. . Correct Answer is. Option A. Option B. aircraft tends to go nose up. aircraft tends to go nose up. Explanation. Option B. NIL. locks the ailerons and elevators. dampens the rudder movement. NIL. Option C. Question Number. Explanation. pitch Frequency. An interrupter arm incorporated in a flying control locking mechanism. aircraft tends to roll to the right. throttle lever. 110. Option A. Option C. The yaw damper must be designed to allow the rudder to control in response to the aircraft's. Moving the elevator trim wheel fully aft. roll frequency. Question Number. restricts movement of the throttles. restricts movement of the throttles. NIL. aircraft tends to go nose down. Explanation.

111. Correct Answer is. the closed position. Ground spoilers are used to. Question Number. are isolated to improve sensitivity. decrease wing loading on landing. 112. Option A. decrease wing loading on landing. NIL. Fuel Systems (ATA 28). Option C. are isolated to prevent aileron reversal. The effect of the rudder on an aircraft can be increased by. increase wing loading on take-off. prevent FOD ingestion into the engines on landing and taxiing. decreasing the velocity of the aircraft. Option B. 11A. Explanation. Option A. Question Number. The outboard ailerons on some aircraft. increasing the altitude of the aircraft. Correct Answer is. Option A. NIL. 1. Option B. increasing the distance of the control surfaces from the aircraft's centre of gravity.Explanation. . Option A. are isolated at slow speeds. Explanation. Option C. Explanation.10. Option C. 113. A fuel crossfeed valve is usually in. Question Number. Option B. increasing the distance of the control surfaces from the aircraft's centre of gravity. Correct Answer is. NIL. NIL. are isolated to prevent aileron reversal. Question Number.

Explanation.30 pg1. Option C. by internal cooling. 737 MM 28-22-00 Page 1. 28 V DC bus. 4. A320 FCOM 28. air or vapour systems. CAIPs AL/3-17 5. Question Number. Option A. air or vapour systems. 115 V AC. 2. Fuel cross feed valves are operated by the. 3. the closed position. by the fuel. Question Number. Explanation. Correct Answer is. Option A.Option B. Explanation. Sliding couplings in fuel systems are used on. by air. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is.3. high pressure systems. by the fuel. Option C. Question Number. Option B. Question Number. Option B. its last position. 28 V DC bus. battery. Option C. Fuel systems that are interconnected must have. NIL. Option A. Fuel crossfeed valves must be closed for flight. . Correct Answer is. Option B. Option C.8. the open position. Explanation. 5. low pressure systems. A fuel cross-feed valve is lubricated.

it is applied wet and flushed out. Correct Answer is. Option C. 8. . Explanation. CAIPs AL/3-17. Question Number. no change. Option A. separate venting for each tank. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is.Option A. Option B. When refuelling. Explanation. Explanation. 7. increases. Option A. The dielectric constant of kerosene is more than that of air. Option C. no airspace. air spaces interconnected. it is important not to fill the expansion space in the tank. Question Number. B757 MM Chapter 28-41-00. system capacitance. 6. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 15-18. When using Biopor microbial fuel growth treatment. increases. Option B. Option C. it is added to the fuel and burnt. decreases. Correct Answer is. it is added to the fuel and burnt. Option B. Question Number. air spaces interconnected. it is important not to fill the expansion space in the tank. it is applied dry and left. As fuel level increases. Option B. Explanation. Jeppesen Aircraft Gas Turbine Powerplants 7-3. Option C. it is important to fill the expansion space in the tank. Option A. the fuel nozzle will automatically cut off the supply when the tank is full.

Explanation. Question Number. . Option A. Question Number. Option C. 10. green sludge. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 15-38.14.1. engine inlet. Explanation. AL/10-3 11. 11. Bladder type fuel tanks are secured by. tanks completely empty. 9. Option A. Explanation. contact adhesive. bolts. Correct Answer is. tank outlet. AL/3-15 4. Correct Answer is. Option A. Option B.1. a fuel flow test should be carried out at. press type rivets. tanks empty apart from unusable fuel. red dots.3 says press studs or cords. Explanation. After a tank bag has been replaced. A zero fuel test on a fuel quantity indicating system is carried out with. 12. tanks completely full. Option C. engine inlet. NIL. Option B. Option B. brown black slime. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. tanks empty apart from unusable fuel. Option C. Question Number. Option A.e. tank shut-off valve point. brown black slime. Microbial growth is. Option B.Question Number. press type rivets. Option C.

stop engine from using tank during transfer. the expansion space must be 2% of the tank capacity. Explanation. JAR 25. Option C. JAR 25. Option B. 16. provide overflow facility to dump fuel. In a fuel system with interconnected vents. If an aircraft has ability to transfer fuel in flight. protection against overfill for tanks and fuel system. Question Number. Option B. shut off fuel before structural damage. shut off fuel before structural damage. the expansion space must be 2% of the tank capacity. the expansion space must be 10% of the tank capacity.969. In biologically contaminated fuel. tank where fuel is fed from both tanks to engine inlet. Correct Answer is. Option C.Question Number. corrosion takes place. 15. the bottom 2 inches of the tank. below the fungal colonies.3. Question Number. Option A. Option A. Option B.957. Explanation. Explanation. Option A. protection against overfill for tanks and fuel system. vents to allow overfueling. AL/3-15 para 8. . Option C. Correct Answer is. Option C. Question Number. 14. JAR 25. Correct Answer is. 13. below the fungal colonies. Explanation. provision must be made to.969. Option A. Correct Answer is. the top of the tank. an expansion space is not required. Fuel tanks interconnected must have. Option B.

A nozzle. mechanical reversion. Option C. Option A. 20 PSI.Question Number. Correct Answer is. Option C. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. any tank to any engine. Option B. Option A. Question Number. 17. Option C. tank to tank. 40 PSI. B737 MM 28-22-00 Page 1. Option C. any tank to any engine. soft reversion. Correct Answer is. Explanation. Option B. When a FADEC system loses air data input it goes to. 40 PSI. What is fitted to the fuel jettison pipe to prevent vaporisation?. Option A. Option B. 20. An anti-corona device. hard reversion. left tank to right tank. .4 says 'up to 50 psi'. Option B. A corona device. Question Number. Pressure refuelling is carried out at. 18. TTS FADEC Booklet Page 13. Option A. Explanation. 19. AL/3-17 5. An anti-corona device. Cross feed valves permit fuel transfer from. Explanation. 15 PSI. soft reversion. Question Number.

AL/3-15 9. The purpose of a scavenge system within a fuel system is. be full. 24. Option A. NIL. Question Number. to ensure that any water in the fuel is constantly dispersed thus reducing microbiological contamination. What happens to the capacitance in a fuel contents gauge as fuel is used?. Option B. Question Number. have some fuel left in to prevent sealant from deteriorating/drying out. Option C. be empty. . Explanation. the fuel tanks should. Option C. 23. Option B. Decreases. Option A. Option A. Integral fuel booster pumps. require ram air cooling. to ensure that all unused fuel is returned to the tanks efficiently. 22. Option B. Option B. Explanation. When an aircraft is put into storage for medium / long periods. Question Number. Decreases. Option A. Increases.3. NIL. Question Number. require no cooling. Option C. have some fuel left in to prevent sealant from deteriorating/drying out. Explanation. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. lets the fuel do cooling. 21.Explanation. Depends on altitude. lets the fuel do cooling. Option C. Correct Answer is. to ensure that all available fuel can be used. Aircraft Electricity and Electronics Eismin Page 353.

Question Number. the tank should be filled as full as possible. Option A. By a fuel boost pump. Explanation. Option C. Question Number. NIL. the engine driven pump fails. the booster pump fails. By a gravity feed pump. filter popped or pump fail. Option B. In a light fixed wing aircraft. Option A. Transport Category Aircraft Systems Page 6. A fuel tank suction valve will open when. How is fuel supplied to a turbine engine?. By a fuel boost pump. 28. the tank does not pressurise. Explanation. By suction from the engine driven fuel pump.Correct Answer is. ice blockage.17. NIL. Option B. Correct Answer is. Option C. Correct Answer is. Option A. 27. Question Number. ice blockage. Question Number. Option C. Correct Answer is. Explanation. both the engine driven and booster pump fail. the booster pump fails. Explanation. to ensure that any water in the fuel is constantly dispersed thus reducing microbiological contamination. pump failure. the fuel warning light indicates. Option A. To prevent water condensation in a fuel tank. filter popped or pump fail. . 26. 25. NIL. Option B.

cabin air is bled around the tank. which of the following is most prone to leaks?. When a fuel jettison valve is in transit. Question Number. Option C. 31.Option B. . NIL. Option C. amber and cross line. Explanation. the filler cap should be left open. Option A. Correct Answer is. Flexible. 30. Explanation. Correct Answer is. Option A. NIL. 29. ram air is circulated around the tank. Integral. Integral. amber and in line. the magnetic indicator would show. Rigid. Option B. Option C. Question Number. Explanation. Option C. Option B. Question Number. NIL. a shroud vent and overboard drain is fitted. Option A. green and in line. Explanation. cabin air is bled around the tank. Correct Answer is. When considering the basic categories of fuel tank construction. the tank should be filled as full as possible. Option B. NIL. amber and cross line. Correct Answer is. To protect the centre tank fuselage area from a vapour build up. the tank should be filled with the minimum fuel possible.

this could be caused by. close the HP fuel lock. Option C. Explanation. the APU fuel feed. After first pulling teh firebottle CBs. pull the fire handle. the pressure outlet check valve is not correctly seated. pull the fire handle. close the cross bleed valve. A shroud vent and overload drain would normally be found on. Option A. fuel tank vent pipes. Option B. fuel is observed running out of the boost pump canister. two three-phase AC motors. Option C. fuel draining out of the pressure switch bleed. Option A. Option B. NIL. 32. Option C.Question Number. Explanation. fuel tank vent pipes. Correct Answer is. Option B. Option A. 35. Crossfeed valves are normally fitted with. NIL. Question Number. fuel jettison system. To shut-off the LP fuel supply to the engine for the purpose of engine removal you would. two 28V DC motors. two single phase AC motors. Correct Answer is. Explanation. the pressure outlet check valve is not correctly seated. Correct Answer is. two 28V DC motors. Question Number. Option C. Option A. 34. fuel leaking past the inlet screens. Question Number. . 33. NIL. Explanation. Option B. On removal of a fuel tank booster pump. Correct Answer is.

Option A. prevent the dumping of the outer tanks. NIL. Option C. Option C. Correct Answer is. Question Number.1. prevent the dumping of the outer tanks. use the maximum volume for fuel and have the minimum amount of weight. 38. Option C. A check valve is fitted to a fuel jettison system to. Before installation the linen bag should be wetted with. Kerosene. prevent the centre from being defuelled. seep. Explanation. AL/3-15 page 8 para 5. Calcium Chromate tablets can be fitted in integral tanks. Option B. Option A. Option B. run. Methylated Spirit. NIL. Option A. Question Number. Water. 36.Question Number. Correct Answer is. Water. The advantages of integral fuel tanks are that they. 37. A leak from a fuel tank which manifests as fuel dripping from the tank is classified as a. Option B. more durable and easier to maintain. Explanation. Question Number. are easier to design and construct and use the maximum volume of fuel. stain. . Option A. 39. Option C. run. automatically stop the fuel jettison operation after a period of time. are cheaper to manufacture.4. Option B. Correct Answer is. Explanation.

However. we have interpreted it as 'every engine is fed from the same system'. a parallel system. is to relieve the pump of load when the operation of services is complete and the accumulator charged with fluid. Hydraulic Power (ATA 29). CAIPs AL/3-21 Para 7. . the same system for each engine. Option A. 40. On Large transport aircraft fuel is delivered to each engine using. compressing the air charge in an accumulator. is to prevent creep in jack operated services which have several selected positions. Option B. Option B. Explanation.11. A purpose of a 'cut-out' in a hydraulic system." 11A. Explanation. Option A. compressing the air charge in an accumulator.2. Correct Answer is. a separate system for each engine. the use of a pressure/heat exchanger. and all three answers arguably correct. NIL. is to limit loss of fluid in the event of pipe fracture. Correct Answer is. 1. Question Number. Option A. use the maximum volume for fuel and have the minimum amount of weight. the same system for each engine. Correct Answer is. Hydraulic pressure can be restored by. "This question can be interpreted an many ways. Option C.Correct Answer is. Explanation. Question Number. based upon the fact that the fuel system can feed any engine from any tank. Option C. Option B. Option C. is to relieve the pump of load when the operation of services is complete and the accumulator charged with fluid. Question Number. 2. compressing the fluid in a reservoir. CAIPs AL/3-21 5. Explanation.

Explanation. Increase in fluid pressure. maintain a high pressure to all systems. Option A. Option C. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 8-44. dampen pressure inputs. Green. Option A. Question Number. Question Number. Explanation. 5. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. What is the colour of the band on a hydraulic seal?. 4. Yellow. Option A. White. In the case drain. Jeppesen Transport Category Aircraft Systems 7-10 and 7-8. allow continued press to essential systems during times of reduced supply. Explanation. Option A. Increase in fluid temperature. 3. Option B. . Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 8-31 Also known as priority valves CAIPs AL/3-21 5. Green. 6. Option B. Correct Answer is. Option B. Fluid loss. Correct Answer is. What happens if a component has an internal hydraulic leak?. allow continued press to essential systems during times of reduced supply. Option B.3. A maintainer valve in an hydraulic system will. Question Number.Question Number. Increase in fluid temperature. Option C. Option C. In the suction line. Where is the temperature overheat switch located in a hydraulic pump?. In the case drain. In the pressure line. Option C.

Option B. store fluid under pressure. Option B. 8. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook 8-16. Option A.Explanation. Correct Answer is. Question Number. Hi acidity is a common problem revealed after an oil system analysis. Increase in temperature is an indication of internal leaks. Option C. Option A. Option A. to fail-safe open. Increase viscosity. Option C. provide additional fluid if leaks occur. Increase acidity. 9. Increase alkalinity. Energised both open and closed depending on cockpit selection. Question Number. Energised Closed for fail-safe. Explanation. How do you prevent hydraulic fluid frothing?. 7. Question Number. Option B. Correct Answer is. Accumulators as fitted to aircraft hydraulic systems. Correct Answer is. 10. Option B. Option C. How is the hydraulic pump depressurising solenoid actuated?. Vent Reservoir to atmosphere. Explanation. . Energised Open. By pressurising. Pass over a tray. Increase acidity. The depressurising valve (sometimes called an 'offloading valve') is energised closed. are only ever used in an emergency. Explanation. Energised Closed for fail-safe. Option C. What happens to hydraulic fluid when it is overheated?. Option A. By pressurising. Question Number.

. ethylene propylene or Teflon. alkalinity. butyl rubber.3. show pressure and source of hydraulics. natural rubber. show fluid temperature and quantity. Correct Answer is. Overheating causes acidity. Option B. CAIPs AL/3-21 Para 3. Option A. Option C. 11.1. Question Number. viscosity. 13. 14. 12. Option B. Option A. A Skydrol hydraulic fluid seal would be made of. ethylene propylene or Teflon.Correct Answer is. Explanation. Option C. acidity. synthetic rubber. Question Number. Option B. Explanation. Option C. Explanation. illuminate a light in the cockpit when the system is ready. store fluid under pressure. butyl rubber. Correct Answer is. Explanation. A normal hydraulic system will. Question Number. acidity. but they are not 'normal'. CAIPs AL/3-21 Para 7. A constant volume hydraulic system uses what to relieve pressure in system when no services are being used?. Synthetic hydraulic fluid subjected to overheating is high in. Option A. Question Number. Correct Answer is. Some systems show temperature. Option A. show pressure and source of hydraulics. Pressure relief valve.

Question Number. ACOV. Correct Answer is. Option C. Option B. angle of swashplate. 300 PSI. restriction valve. 16.2. Option C. 3000 PSI. Question Number. NIL. ACOV.Option B. Question Number. flush with any hydraulic oil. Explanation. Option A. Question Number. . Correct Answer is. When flushing hydraulic systems. Option C. flush with same hydraulic oil. Hydraulic systems normally operate at. Option B. Option C. When replenishing a hydraulic system. flush with methylated spirit. Option A. 18. Return line back to pump. Correct Answer is. Transport Category Aircraft Systems Jeppesen Pages 7-5 & 7-7. 1800 PSI. CAIPs AL/3-21 12. 17. Option B. IDG. NIL. Explanation. angle of swashplate. Explanation. Option A. 3000 PSI. flush with same hydraulic oil. The control of hydraulically powered emergency electrical generator frequency is by. 15. Explanation. Correct Answer is.

Option C. Option C. 20. How do you remove air from hydraulic fluid?. Explanation. Transport Category Aircraft Systems Jeppesen Page 7-2. . Option B. 21. de-energised to start the pump. Question Number. energised to the run position.Option A. used to prevent anything happening until there is hydraulic pressure. Option C. use two spanners to stop pipe from twisting. Option C. Pass through a restriction. When replacing a flexible pipe. NIL. Pass over a tray. Option A. use any hydraulic fluid made by the same manufacturer. Correct Answer is. do a bonding check. Explanation. Option A. A pressure control relay in a hydraulic pump is. Option B. 19. use the same/correct hydraulic fluid. Pass over a tray. use the same/correct hydraulic fluid. Option B. NIL. AL/3-13 6. Option B. Vent to atmosphere. Question Number. tighten only hand tight. de-energised to start the pump. Correct Answer is. Explanation. Correct Answer is. use any hydraulic fluid. Explanation. use two spanners to stop pipe from twisting. Question Number. Option A.5. Correct Answer is.

22. half way position. Option B. regulators. Option A. a rubber 'T' section ring sandwiched between two Teflon rings. Option C. Question Number. maximum stroke. Question Number. a square section rubber ring within a steel washer. Constant delivery is constant flow rate. reverse flow. Explanation. Correct Answer is. Question Number. Explanation. 24. a rubber 'T' section ring sandwiched between two Teflon rings. 25. 23. pump cavitation. maximum stroke. Option B. Option C. NIL. A variable angled pump starts at. A check flow valve in a hydraulic system prevents. Correct Answer is. Explanation. regulators. servo pressure. Option A. gears. CAIPs AL/3-23. Option C. A constant delivery pump has its output varied with. Option A. Option B. reverse flow. Option A. . NIL. A duplex seal consist of. Correct Answer is. Option B. Option C. a hard rubber square section ring with a soft rubber square section inner ring.Question Number. Explanation. Correct Answer is. minimum stroke. overpressure.

Option C. Option B. Option C. pump. 26. Question Number. filter. 29. AL/3-21 4.Question Number. Option B. most of the major components of the system are included in a self contained unit.3. Hydraulic oil accumulator. Drive Shaft. Question Number. 28. A fixed volume axial pump contains the following rotating parts. Drive Shaft. Swash Plate & Cylinder Block. Swash Plate & Valve Block. there is no pressure at the selector valves when no functions are required.1-12. When selected on. Correct Answer is. Option A. . Explanation. Variable swashplate pump. AL/3-21 12. selector valve. Option A. Jeppeson A & P Technician Airframe P8-15. When selected off. Explanation. What constitutes a hydraulic power pack?. pressure is maintained at the selector valves at all times. Correct Answer is. When selected off. Swash Plate & Valve Block.2. Option A. selector valve. Reservoir. Reservoir. Explanation. Question Number. Option B. Swash Plate & Cylinder Block. Explanation. AL/3-21 Figure 2. Option B. Option C. Option C. When there is sufficient hydraulic pressure available. Drive Shaft. An hydraulic closed system is one where. Correct Answer is. 27. Correct Answer is. When is an hydraulic de-pressurising valve energised?. pressure is maintained at the selector valves at all times. Option A. filter. pump.

A thermal relief valve is fitted to an hydraulic system to. NIL. Option B. Option B. absorb pressure surges. Option A. prevent a leak back of pressure. the type of fluid used to pressure test the pipe. Question Number. Option C. rapid depressurisation of system. Option C. Explanation. rapid fluctuations of instruments. Explanation. Question Number.Question Number. Correct Answer is. pump cavitation. 30. A marker number on a pipe indicates. Explanation. NIL. 33. the specification of the pipe throughout the pipe run. Option B. Correct Answer is." Option A. absorb pressure surges. minimize the possibility of pump cavitation. the specification of the pipe throughout the pipe run. NIL. Option C. Option A. If an accumulator loses air pressure there will be. Option B. rapid fluctuations of instruments. the thickness of the wall on the pipe. Correct Answer is. "One reason for fitting an accumulator in an hydraulic system is to. Option C. 32. . 31. prevent excess temperature. Option A. relieve excess pressure. relieve excess pressure. Question Number.

landing gear and doors. The purpose of a mechanical sequence valve is to ensure the operation of. preventing fluid loss from a leaking jack. AL/3-21 6.4. Correct Answer is. control the rate of system operation. Explanation. Restrictor valves in an hydraulic system are used to. Option C. A shuttle valve is used for.2. maintaining fluid press when the emergency system fails. control the rate of system operation. accumulator. change over from main to auxiliary system in the case of failure. restrict the rate of pressure build up. Option A. Explanation. Option C. Thermal relief valves relieve the pressure build-up due to excessive temperature. 34. selector. 36. Question Number. Correct Answer is. 37. NIL. Option B. limit the maximum pressure. Question Number. Option A. AL/3-21 6. A component in a hydraulic system which ensures instantaneous action when a service is selected is. Option A. Option A. Option B. Explanation. engine driven pump. accumulator. relieve excess pressure. . 35. Option B. Question Number. Explanation. Question Number.Correct Answer is. change over from main to auxiliary system in the case of failure. Correct Answer is. Option C.

3000 PSI. Option B. Question Number. Correct Answer is. Option A. Option A. landing gear and doors. Explanation. Question Number. . 39. 3000 PSI. direct fluid to the hydraulic actuator.Option B. Option A. When the hydraulic system pressure of 3000 PSI is reached. the air pressure is. The purpose of a non-return valve is to. Option C. Option B. Question Number. direct fluid to the hydraulic actuator. restrict the movement of components. AL/3-21 Page 10. Explanation. allow a full flow from the valve. Correct Answer is. The end fittings on a NRV are normally different to. NIL. prevent incorrect installation. 1000 PSI. Option C. 4000 PSI. Explanation. Correct Answer is. NIL. Option B. 38. isolate one component from another. prevent incorrect installation. brake anti-skid units. Option C. Option C. 40. facilitate bleeding of the system. A hydraulic accumulator is charged with initial air pressure of 1000 PSI. AL/3-21 Page 10. Correct Answer is. Explanation. safety switches.

During a leak test of an hydraulic system. Correct Answer is. 42. low accumulator pressure. . Option A. Hand pumps are normally single cylinder double acting because of the. Option B. NIL. system pressure. piston ram displacement. two NRVS fitted. Option B.Question Number. Question Number. require an automatic cut-out valve and accumulator in the system. Option B. NIL. Constant delivery hydraulic pumps. Question Number. Correct Answer is. Option A. Automatic cut-out valve hammering is caused by. Option A. two NRVS fitted. 44. CAIPs AL/3-21 Page 6. must be at maximum. relief valve. Explanation. Explanation. Option C. require an automatic cut-out valve and accumulator in the system. 41. Option C. Explanation. moisture in the fluid. require an automatic cut-out valve in the system. is not important. NIL. Question Number. must be minimum working. Correct Answer is. Option A. Explanation. are self idling. must be at maximum. low accumulator pressure. relief valve set too high. 43. Option C. Option C. Option B. Correct Answer is.

. Option B. the fluid pressure must be released. Option A. Question Number. 47. the pilot. 46. Correct Answer is. Question Number. all air must be bled from the system. a striker pin. NIL. NIL. Option B.Question Number. Option C. Correct Answer is. Mechanical sequence valves are operated by. Question Number. a striker pin. Option C. AL/3-21 13. minimize the possibility of pump cavitation. minimize the possibility of pump cavitation. Before checking the initial pressure in the hydraulic accumulator. Pressure relay valves are fitted. Option A. 45. Correct Answer is. Explanation. Explanation. Option A. before a pressure gauge. before a pressure sequence valve. Option B. 48. the reservoir must be checked for correct level. Hydraulic reservoirs are pressurized to. the operation of a NRV. Explanation. Explanation. before a pressure relief valve. Option A. Option C. provide a reserve of stored energy. Option C. the fluid pressure must be released.3. Option B. before a pressure gauge. CAIPs AL/3-21 Para 15 Page 7. Correct Answer is. maintain a constant fluid level.2.

prevent the hydraulic lock forming. Correct Answer is. only the specified fluid. Correct Answer is. limit pump wear. Option B. Option C. . Question Number. to maintain a back pressure to the accumulator. Question Number. Option A. Correct Answer is. accumulator and relay valve. Option A. 52. to ensure a supply of fluid to essential services in the event of system failure. Option B. A maintaining valve is fitted to a hydraulic system. 49. any fluid of the same specific gravity. to ensure a supply of fluid to essential services in the event of system failure. Explanation. Option B. NIL. Option C. any hydraulic fluid available. Option C. Question Number. it is permissible to use. The essential components of a hydraulic system of the constant delivery type are an. 50. In aircraft hydraulic systems. NIL. accumulator and shuttle valve.Question Number. accumulator and automatic cut-out valve. prevent the hydraulic lock forming. NIL. 51. Correct Answer is. An automatic cut-out valve will. Explanation. accumulator and automatic cut-out valve. Option A. Option A. relieve excessive pressure to return. raise fluid boiling point. Explanation. Option C. Option B. only the specified fluid.

AL/3-21 3. A RAT hydraulic pump is for. Explanation. Option A. Option A. Question Number. landing gear and auto-brake systems. Option A. 53. Explanation. Option B.3. Explanation. Option C. NIL. Correct Answer is. A&P Technician Airframe Textbook 8-14.Explanation. Question Number. provides cooling for the fluid. Butyl Rubber. Natural Rubber. Butyl Rubber. Option C. senses fluid temperature change. Option A. Option B. flying controls if hydraulic power lost. any clean hydraulic fluid. NIL. Question Number. senses fluid pressure. the same type of fluid as used in the system. Question Number. Option C. the same type of fluid as used in the system. Synthetic Rubber. Option B. Hydraulic systems are normally flushed with. 55. A thermal relief valve. senses fluid pressure. 56. Option C. . Phosphate Ester hydraulic fluid requires which kind of seals?. 54. nose wheel steering. methylated spirits. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. Option B.

Hand pumps in hydraulic systems are normally. a pressure reducing valve is used. the bottom of the reservoir. Correct Answer is. Question Number. Hydraulic hand-pump fluid supply is taken from. 60. Option B. single acting. Question Number. NIL. a pressure regulating valve is used. Option B. AL3-21 8. Jeppeson A & P technician Airframe P8-23. a stack pipe higher than the normal level. Question Number. Option C. the bottom of the reservoir.Correct Answer is. 57. flying controls if hydraulic power lost. Option A. NIL. a pressure relief valve is used. Option A. area * volume. Option C. 59. Explanation. Explanation. Explanation. To enable an hydraulic system to operate two components requiring different pressures. Correct Answer is. Question Number. low pressure. Option C. .1. Option A. The force exerted by a hydraulic cylinder is equal to. Explanation. double acting. a tap into a convenient return line. Option B. a pressure reducing valve is used. double acting. Correct Answer is. Option A. Option B. 58. area * pressure.

Question Number. 61. Question Number. contracts in length and expands in diameter. Explanation. contracts in length and diameter. . Option C. Option C. 63. Question Number. The reason why slack must be left in a flexible hose during installation. has the rams parallel. Option B. A tandem PFCU. Correct Answer is. 62. contracts in length and expands in diameter. Option B. A&P Mechanics General Handbook page 115.12. is a flexible hose under pressure. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. Ice and Rain Protection (ATA 30). a fixed volume pump. Explanation. NIL. Option A. Explanation. area * pressure. pressures above 3000 PSI. Option C. NIL. Option A.Option C. a fixed volume pump. Correct Answer is. Option B. pressure * stroke. Explanation. has the actuator rams co-axial. NIL. expands in length and diameter. has the actuator rams co-axial. An automatic cut-out valve is necessary in a hydraulic system with. has two control surfaces under its control. Option A. 11A. a variable volume pump.

Screwdriver torque test. Option B. Option C. Option B. more efficient.' Ref: CAIPs AL/11-6. Correct Answer is. Retard rotation [of the detector] with slight thumb pressure using a torque screwdriver. Question Number. Option C. impact resistance enhancement. . Explanation. Option C. Question Number. The advantage of leading edge fluid de-icing is aerodynamic shape is not disturbed. 70°C at 100 PSI. By a motor load test. Windshield heating provides. Explanation. 2. Correct Answer is. Option A. At what pressure and temperature is anti ice fluid applied?. CAIPs AL/11-3 5. The advantage of leading edge fluid de-icing is. Correct Answer is. How is a serrated rod ice detector bench tested?. less of a fire hazard. Correct Answer is. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 13-6 (last paragraph). Option A. 70°C at 100 PSI. 70°F at 10 PSI. aerodynamic shape is not disturbed. impact resistance enhancement. 1. Option B. 3. Option A.2. Screwdriver torque test. thermal expansion for a tighter fit. Option A. Motor test and go/no-go gap measurement. 7°F at 100 PSI. Explanation. Option C. Explanation. Question Number.2. 4. increases strength to resist cabin pressure. aerodynamic shape is not disturbed. Option B.Question Number.

2. Pallett. Explanation. Aircraft Electrical Systems.2. Option C. Option C. Ice formation on wings is due to. Correct Answer is. Option B. supercooled water changing state on contact with the wing. AL/11-6 3. one system for both sides but with the same power source. Option A. 8. ice crystals forming layers on contact with the wing. Explanation. independent on each side with different power sources. Page 178. Question Number. .Question Number. Option B.2. On a 'hot rod' type of ice detector. CAIPs AL/11-1 4. Correct Answer is. Option A. independent on each side with different power sources. Explanation. suspended ice crystals melting on contact with the wing and instantly re-freezing. 5. On large transport aircraft. Option C. 7. Option C. supercooled water changing state on contact with the wing.1. Prior to securing a leading edge de-icing boot you must. when selected by the crew. paint the surface. remove all paint. Correct Answer is. Question Number. independent on each side but with the same power source. 6. Option B. the windshield wiper system is. shave rivet to prevent further abrasion. Correct Answer is. Question Number. Option A. when selected by the crew. Option A. it is switched on. Option B. remove all paint. all the time. when in the air.

sealed window. Explanation. Question Number. AL/11-6 2. Option C. Option C. CAIPs AL/3-24 fig 1. Option A. goes out immediately. provide more efficient deicer cycles.4. Option A. Question Number. Correct Answer is. When a vibrating rod ice detector has de-iced. Question Number. goes out after a set period of time. Option C. In a cockpit window heater system. Option B.1. goes out after one more cycle. prevent electrical static build up. supplies DC power for heating. CAIPs AL/11-1 3. prevent electrical static build up. 12. provide smoother airflow over leading edge. Correct Answer is. Explanation. air from the cabin. the warning lamp on the flight deck. supplies AC Power for heating. an electrical heating element. CAIPs AL/11-6 3. Question Number. Option A. goes out after a set period of time. 11. 10. Correct Answer is. Option B. 9.Explanation. Option A. De-misting of passenger windows is provided by. Option B. Explanation. the autotransformer.4 (unless they mean 'bonded' as in cemented. air from the cabin. . Option C. In which case the answer is b). steps up output for severe weather conditions. A deicer boot is completely bonded to the leading edge to. Option B.

Correct Answer is. Option C. http://www. Windscreen autotransformers. use engine bleed air at high velocity to remove water droplets from windscreen. NIL. Explanation.htm Question Number. when rain is on windows and spread by wipers.b737. use a pneumatic motor to drive windscreen wipers. Option A. A&P Airframe Textbook Page 13-17. Question Number. Jeppesen. Option B. Aircraft Electrical Systems Pallett Page 62/63 (Note: a transformer cannot 'supply'.org. . Windscreen wiper torque tests are carried out at. Option A. Question Number. Pneumatic rain removal systems. Windshield rain repellent is applied. Option A. Correct Answer is. steps up output for severe weather conditions. 15. the shaft end. centre point of the blade. Jeppesen A & P Technician Airframe Textbook page 13-18. Option C. 16.Correct Answer is. Explanation. Option A. use engine bleed air at high velocity to remove water droplets from windscreen.uk/iceandrain. step down voltage. the shaft end. Option C. Explanation. 14. Option B. 13. when rain is on windows and spread by wipers. before rain and spread on window surface by wipers. Explanation. are not permitted on large transport aircraft. step up voltage. Option B. when in heavy rain so vision is unobscured. Question Number. Option B. blade attachment end. Correct Answer is.

Option C. Question Number. they should be switched on for five minutes to allow to stabilise before taking ammeter readings. they can only be checked by noting the temperature rise of the probe. Option B. and which is dense. . AL/11-4 4. Option A. 18. hoar Frost. When testing pitot head heaters. they must only be switched on for the minimum time required to check serviceability.2. increased torque caused by ice formation slowing the rotating wheel and illuminating a warning light in the cockpit. Explanation. 19.Option C. ice formation stopping the rotation of a rotary knife edge and illuminating a warning light in the cockpit. they must only be switched on for the minimum time required to check serviceability. glaze Ice. Option A. Correct Answer is. Question Number. Option C. decreased torque caused by ice formation slowing the rotating wheel and illuminating a warning light in the cockpit. Pallett. Explanation. An ice deposit formed when liquid water flows over the airframe before freezing.2. glaze Ice. Correct Answer is. A rotary knife edge ice detector provides warning of ice by. Correct Answer is. step up voltage. rime Ice. Option C. Correct Answer is. page 174. are used to supply extra current under difficult conditions. Explanation. Option A. Question Number. Aircraft Electrical Systems. OR increased torque caused by ice formation slowing the rotating wheel and illuminating a warning light in the cockpit. Option B. Explanation. 17. NIL. decreased torque caused by ice formation slowing the rotating wheel and illuminating a warning light in the cockpit. Option B. NIL. tough and sticks closely to the surface is called.

Explanation. frequency wild generator. Windscreen heating is supplied from. a short circuit. 20. Pallett. Correct Answer is. 21. Option A. Explanation. Option A. nylon. Monel. Option B. nylon. NIL. DC generator. frequency wild generator. Correct Answer is. normal. Option C. fig. Option B. NIL. direct to the windscreen. page173. stainless steel. Explanation. frequency wild generator. Option B. Question Number.Question Number. Option B. an open circuit. NIL.10-29. The usual material for pipelines in a fluid deice system. via a rectifier. Option C. direct to the windscreen. Aircraft Electrical Systems. engine compressors. via a transformer. engine compressors. Question Number. Option C. Option A. Option C. a combustion heater. Question Number. The most probable cause would be. Correct Answer is. a short circuit. Explanation. A wing thermal anti-ice annunciator is illuminated permanently in flight deck without selection being made. . 23. Correct Answer is. 22. air conditioning ducting. Option A. Air for anti-icing of the wings is obtained from.

internal leakage. Landing Gear (ATA 32). Option B. CAAIPs Leaflet 6-8 para 5. air in the system. When operating a windscreen wiper on the ground. Explanation.1. place soft cloth between blade and window. AC20-147. Glaze ice. Correct Answer is. Option B. make sure to. use water as lubricant when operating. air in the system. Option A. CAAIPs 5-8 Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 9-31. wheel hub. use slow wiper only. Glime ice. Explanation. 2. Option A. 1. Option C. Option A. Correct Answer is. Glaze ice. Option C.Question Number. Option A. Question Number. 25. Option B. external leakage. Question Number.2.13. 24. Correct Answer is. 11A. Explanation. What is run-back ice?. Option C. Option B. Question Number. use water as lubricant when operating. brake drum. . Over inflated tyres may cause damage to the. Rime ice. Spongy brakes are usually a result of.

www. Option C. increasing the pressure and applying the brakes rapidly. front of the wheels are closer together.1. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 9-47 CAIPs AL/3-18 15. positive camber is when the. Correct Answer is. 6. A brake debooster valve is provided for. Correct Answer is. Option C. bottom of the wheels are closer together.I. Option B. NIL. applying brake pressure slowly and releasing the the brakes quickly. wheel flange. Option A. Explanation. Tubeless tyres are stored. vertically. Option B. at 15 to 20 P. Option A. 5. decreasing the pressure and slowly releasing the brakes.army. applying brake pressure slowly and releasing the the brakes quickly. Explanation. Question Number. Question Number. Option A. Explanation. On a wheel bogie unit. top of the wheels are closer together. Option A. vertically.adtl.html Question Number. 3. A badly corroded and pitted brake disk will. Correct Answer is.Option C. Option B. Question Number. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 1-32. . and should be replaced. Correct Answer is. horizontally maximum of four high with smallest diameter tyre on top. wear brake pads too quickly. bottom of the wheels are closer together. Option C.mil/cgi-bin/atdl/fm/1-509/ch10.S. wheel flange. 4. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 9-13. Explanation.

CAIPs AL/3-6. 7. Option A. Explanation.Option B. 8. Option A. Question Number.the separator has bottomed.733. AWN 70. Option B. The leg is serviceable . wear brake pads too quickly. Correct Answer is. Option B. Option C. Option B. 10. Leaking air/oil seals. Correct Answer is. Option C. and should be replaced. Section Width. Option C. be serviceable. When servicing an oleo.75 refer to. Badly corroded brakes should be replaced. and provide better grip. 5% by pressure.1. Question Number. Option A. Section Width. Question Number. CAIPs AL/3-18 3. Explanation. Correct Answer is. Bead diameter. Option C.75-14. How much oxygen is in a tyre (as a maximum)?. A tyre specification 32 x 10. Explanation. Correct Answer is. 5% by volume. produce a loss of fluid. 5% by volume. The type of fluid in an oleo strut will depend upon. fluid comes out of the air valve when the leg is depressurised?. What does the 10. Question Number. Separator plate stuck open. Overall diameter. 15% by volume. . Explanation. 9.the separator has bottomed. and JAR 25. The leg is serviceable .

Option B. may be used to slow down undercarriage extension. heat generated in operation of the system. the type of seal material. CAIPs AL/3-6 Page 7&8. Correct Answer is. Explanation. Option A. damp the rebound. separate the oil from the air. Correct Answer is. The type of fluid in an oleo strut will depend upon heat generated in operation of the system. Option C. absorb the landing shock. may be used to slow down undercarriage extension. The function of the oil in a shock absorber is to. Explanation. 13. restrict the extent of travel of the undercarriage. type of fluid most readily available.Option A. Question Number. Question Number. 11. NIL. Explanation. Question Number. Correct Answer is. Option A. Option C. Correct Answer is. permit free flow of oil during compression and restriction of oil during extension. heat generated in operation of the system. speed up the flow in one direction. restrict the compression of the air. Explanation. The purpose of the flutter plate in a shock absorber is to. damp the rebound. Option C. . Jeppesen A&P technician Airframe Textbook Page 9-5. Option A. 12. Option B. Option B. Option C. A restrictor valve. ensure the separator does not bottom. permit free flow of oil during compression and restriction of oil during extension. Option B.

CAIPs AL/3-18 3. Option C. CAIPS AL3-18 para 15-1 and 15-3. Option A. symmetry. tracking. Aircraft Electrical Systems Pallett Page 176. Question Number. tracking. Option B. Explanation. Question Number. Made up wheels should be stored. Option C. Correct Answer is. a red light is illuminated n the flight deck. Correct Answer is. Explanation. tracking. . Option B. splay. Outer diameter. symmetry. out of adjustment sensor. camber. Option A.Question Number. Correct Answer is. 15. 17. A+P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 9-13. These markings are found on a tyre32 x 10. 14. Question Number. Explanation. camber. symmetry. wiring problem. out of adjustment sensor. When checking for alignment of a MLG. qwidth. The possible causes are. Outer diameter. shorted sensor.What does the number 32 mean?. tracking. Correct Answer is. vertical at working pressure. twist. Option C.1.45 R 14. Option A. Option C. Option B. symmetry. "After MLG down and securely locked. Explanation. 16. horizontal no more than 4 high. Option B. check. Inner diameter. vertical at 20/30 PSI charge. vertical at 20/30 PSI charge." Option A.

CAAIPs Leaflet 5-7 2. 18. Explanation. Option A. breather points. Option C. Explanation. Correct Answer is. Option B. albeit the overpressure as a result of temperature rise. to provide a wear indication. Question Number.4.Question Number. 19. a retainer plate. Fuse plugs in aircraft tyres are.6. Explanation. bolts. for overpressure protection. Option B.1. Question Number. for over temperature protection. the flange is secured by. . Question Number. Option A. Option A.7. to deflate the tyre before removal.2 Fuse plugs protect the tyre from explosion due to overpressure. Option B. a lock ring. A breaker strip in an aircraft tyre is. a lock ring. to provide strength. Correct Answer is. Option C. Option A. CAIPs AL/3-18 4. for overpressure protection. 21. AL/3-19 3. 20. Correct Answer is. breather points. Option C.1. CAIPs AL/3-18 3. military reference. the light part of the tyre. A green/grey dot marking on aircraft tyre casing represents. Option C. Option B. In detachable flange type wheels. to indicate the position for tyre levers.

opposite the charging valve. Option B. Option B. Option A. Question Number. a faulty actuator. NIL. Option B. www. On selection of MLG down. breather points.dunlopaircrafttyres. . AL/3-6 3. NIL. on the other side of the wheel opposite to the charging valve. The cause is. Option A. normal.6. Option C. military reference. Question Number. gear lowered at too high an airspeed. the light part of the tyre. Option A. a faulty selector valve. to provide strength. Option B. Correct Answer is. Explanation. 23. Explanation. Explanation.com/tyrecare/dm1172/dm1172. Option C. the light part of the tyre. Correct Answer is.3. Question Number. the red dot should be positioned. CAIPs AL/3-18 3. CAAIPs Leaflet 5-7 3. 24.7.pdf Question Number. Option A. Option C.Correct Answer is. When fitting a tyre. 25. caused by a leaky seal. a faulty selector valve. this is.3 iii. 22. caused by a leaky seal. A red dot / triangle mark on aircraft tyres means. Explanation. due to excessive charging pressure. If fluid leaks along with air whilst oleo charging. the gear extends then begins to retract again. Correct Answer is.

A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 9-20 'Carbon Brakes'. . Composite brake units. Explanation. Option A.2. Question Number. the emergency system. Option C. Question Number. Correct Answer is. have less weight than normal brake units and have increased efficiency at high temperatures. tubeless tyres. Explanation. it tends to creep back up. Correct Answer is. Dunlop Aircraft Tyres General Servicing Instructions Para 3. Option B. Question Number. adjacent to the charging valve. a stuck relief valve. A restrictor valve can be used. NIL. to increase the speed of the undercarriage extension. Question Number. Correct Answer is. Option A. Explanation. Option B. Option C. 28. have less weight than normal brake units but fade away at high temperatures. to reduce the speed of the undercarriage extension. Explanation. have less weight than normal brake units and have increased efficiency at high temperatures. Option A. The fault could be.10. adjacent to the charging valve. 27. Correct Answer is.2. Option A. 29. to reduce the speed of the undercarriage extension. to increase the speed of undercarriage retraction. CAIPs AL/3-6 4. a leaky selector valve. 26. Option B. When an undercarriage is lowered. a leaky selector valve.1.Option C. weigh the same as normal brake units and fade away athigh temperatures. Option C. Vents holes are found on.

AL/3-18 2. to align for nose wheel on nose undercarriage retraction. Question Number. tubed and tubeless tyres. Option A. Option A. 150°C. Option C. Option C. Correct Answer is. Explanation. Explanation. Option B. Tyre moving around the wheel. 31. to align for nose wheel on nose undercarriage retraction. Explanation. Correct Answer is. Vertical movement of the tyre. NIL. Option B. The cam plate in a nose undercarriage is. At what temperature does a yellow fuse plug melt at?. Question Number. Leaflet 5-7 Para 9 . Option C. 200°C. A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 9-42 says both tubed and tubeless. What is tyre creep related to?. Boeing 757 Carbon Brake wheel. tubed and tubeless tyres. Tyre moving around the wheel. 250°C. tubed tyres. 200°C. Option B.Yellow Plug Temperature 390°F. Correct Answer is. 32. Option A. 30. Description and Operation 32-42-82 Part AHA1648 . part of the shimmy damper. Explanation. for alignment of the nose wheel steering on nose undercarriage extension. Question Number. Option C. Horizontal movement of the tyre.Option B. Correct Answer is.4. So does Dunlop General Servicing Instructions.

Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 10-37. 36. 35. Aquaplaning' can be reduced by. Question Number. To reduce vibration and shimmy. Correct Answer is. . Option C. increased flaring. any oil can be used. Option B. Option C. Explanation. brakes release on falling torque. Option B. Question Number. Explanation. brakes are modulated to give most efficient braking. an anti-skid device. Option A. Option C. What decides the type of oil used in an undercarriage leg?. Explanation. The material of the leg. Correct Answer is. Option B.Question Number. NIL. Correct Answer is. . The types of seals the leg uses. To centralise the nose leg assembly during an up selection. brakes are modulated to give most efficient braking. Question Number. To reduce vibration and shimmy. In an anti-skid system. Option A. NIL. 34. Option C.Why is a hydraulic damper fitted to a nose wheel steering system?. an anti-skid device. Explanation. To centralise the nose wheel during an up selection. brakes release on rising torque. Neither. 33. NIL. Option A. lowering slats. The types of seals the leg uses. Option A. Option B. Correct Answer is.

Question Number. 37. If an undercarriage oleo has insufficient deflection, the likely cause is. Option A. oil level too high. Option B. loss of pressure/leakage. Option C. air pressure too high. Correct Answer is. air pressure too high. Explanation. NIL. Question Number. 38. A Maxaret is used in what system?. Option A. Tyre inflation. Option B. Skid control. Option C. Self centring landing gear. Correct Answer is. Skid control. Explanation. NIL. Question Number. 39. The pilot receives an audible warning on the flight deck as the aircraft is descending to land. The most likely reason for this warning is. Option A. the airspeed is too high. Option B. the landing gear is not locked down. Option C. the rate of descent is too high. Correct Answer is. the landing gear is not locked down. Explanation. Jeppesen A & P Airframe Technician Textbook page 10-12. Question Number. 40. A restrictor in the landing gear hydraulic retraction and lowering system is positioned in the. Option A. landing gear up line. Option B. landing gear down line. Option C. return line from the landing gear selector.

Correct Answer is. landing gear up line. Explanation. The restrictor is placed in the retraction line to slow the rate of exit of fluid from the jack on extension, to slow the rate of extension. CAIPs AL/3-6 fig 4 sows them in the down line - this is a well known error in CAIPs. Question Number. 41. Wheel speed information is used in auto speed brake systems. Option A. to stow the spoilers automatically when the aircraft has nearly stopped. Option B. to ensure the aircraft has touched down and to give a slight time lapse before spoiler deployment. Option C. to ensure the aircraft is still rolling. Correct Answer is. to ensure the aircraft has touched down and to give a slight time lapse before spoiler deployment. Explanation. NIL. Question Number. 42. A fusible plug fitted to an aircraft wheel prevents. Option A. over inflation of tyres during servicing. Option B. brakes seizure, if brake stators and rotors weld together under excessive temperatures. Option C. tyre bursts due to high temperatures created by excessive braking. Correct Answer is. tyre bursts due to high temperatures created by excessive braking. Explanation. CAAIPs Leaflet 5-8 para 3.1.3 and A&P Technician Airframe Textbook 9-6. Question Number. 43. If the shuttle valve was stuck in the normal position. Option A. neither system will be available. Option B. emergency braking will not be available. Option C. normal braking will not be available. Correct Answer is. emergency braking will not be available. Explanation. NIL. Question Number. 44. The breaker strip of a tyre is fitted. Option A. between the apex strip and the casing piles.

Option B. between the bead and the casing piles. Option C. between the tread rubber and the casing piles. Correct Answer is. between the tread rubber and the casing piles. Explanation. CAAIP Leaflet 5-7 fig 1. Question Number. 45. Nose wheel steering in a modern aircraft is by. Option A. rudder pedals. Option B. the control column. Option C. a separate pilot operated control. Correct Answer is. a separate pilot operated control. Explanation. NIL. Question Number. 46. The fusible plugs installed in some aircraft wheel will. Option A. facilitate servicing of the wheel assembly. Option B. melt at a specified elevated temperature. Option C. eliminate the need to check air pressure Correct Answer is. melt at a specified elevated temperature. Explanation. NIL. Question Number. 47. Excessive wear in the shoulder area of an aircraft tyre is an indication of. Option A. under-inflation. Option B. over-inflation. Option C. excessive toe-in. Correct Answer is. under-inflation. Explanation. NIL. Question Number. 48. Ribbed tyres with marker tie bars may be worn to.

Option A. the top of the tie bar. Option B. the base of the tie bar. Option C. 1 mm from the rib base. Correct Answer is. the top of the tie bar. Explanation. NIL. Question Number. 49. On large aircraft, bogie type undercarriages are used to. Option A. spread the weight over a large area. Option B. absorb increased landing shock. Option C. prevent skidding. Correct Answer is. spread the weight over a large area. Explanation. NIL. Question Number. 50. To position the bogie beam at a suitable angle for retraction and landing, a. Option A. castoring damper is used. Option B. snubber is used. Option C. hop damper is used. Correct Answer is. hop damper is used. Explanation. NIL. Question Number. 51. On large aircraft, braked wheel assemblies are normally inflated with. Option A. nitrogen. Option B. an argon and CO2 mixture. Option C. nitrogen and not more than 5% of air. Correct Answer is. nitrogen and not more than 5% of air. Explanation. JAR 25.733 (e).

Question Number. 52. Brake deboosters. Option A. increase the hydraulic pressure entering the brakes. Option B. reduce the hydraulic pressure entering the brakes. Option C. assist the operation of the anti-skid unit. Correct Answer is. reduce the hydraulic pressure entering the brakes. Explanation. NIL. Question Number. 53. A modulator is fitted in conjunction with. Option A. brake control valves. Option B. non-return valve. Option C. anti-skid units. Correct Answer is. anti-skid units. Explanation. AL/3-21 6.6. Question Number. 54. In the case of pressurized aircraft, the nose-wheel bay. Option A. is pressurized to a value higher than ambient but less than cabin pressure. Option B. is subject to cabin pressure. Option C. is not pressurized. Correct Answer is. is not pressurized. Explanation. NIL. Question Number. 55. An undercarriage that has the axle mounted directly onto the shock absorber is of which type. Option A. Articulated. Option B. Hydro Mechanical. Option C. Direct Acting. Correct Answer is. Direct Acting. Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 56. The minimum aquaplaning ground speed is. Option A. 9.6 times the root square of the tyre pressure in psi. Option B. 8.6 times the root square of the tyre pressure in psi. Option C. 8.6 times the tyre pressure in bar. Correct Answer is. 8.6 times the root square of the tyre pressure in psi. Explanation. http://www.gremline.com/page13.html Question Number. 57. Tubed tyres are stored. Option A. horizontally, up to 4 in total staggering them to prevent distortion of beads. Option B. horizontally, up to 4 in total in a rack with supporting tubes so each tyre is supported at 2 points. Option C. horizontally, up to 4 in total with the smallest at the top. Correct Answer is. horizontally, up to 4 in total in a rack with supporting tubes so each tyre is supported at 2 points. Explanation. CAAIPs Leaflet 5-7 15.2.1 and 15.2.2. Question Number. 58. On a main landing gear, what is positive camber?. Option A. Top of wheels closer to fuselage. Option B. Front of wheels closer to fuselage. Option C. Bottom of wheels closer to fuselage. Correct Answer is. Bottom of wheels closer to fuselage. Explanation. http://www.desertrides.com/reference/terms.php#C Question Number. 59. When the landing gear is locked up, the cockpit indicator shows. Option A. red light. Option B. no indication. Option C. green light. Correct Answer is. no indication. Explanation. Jeppesen A & P Airframe Technician Textbook page 10-12.

Question Number. 60. When checking the alignment of a main landing gear, check. Option A. symmetry, tracking, camber. Option B. symmetry, tracking, twist. Option C. symmetry, tracking, splay. Correct Answer is. symmetry, tracking, camber. Explanation. NIL. Question Number. 61. Tyre creep could be caused by. Option A. overpressure. Option B. excessive wear. Option C. under pressure. Correct Answer is. under pressure. Explanation. NIL. Question Number. 62. When inflating a tyre and you notice ice in the valve stem. Option A. heat the valve stem gently with a blow torch. Option B. wait for ice to melt before carrying on with inflation. Option C. carry on inflating as ice in the valve stem is no problem. Correct Answer is. wait for ice to melt before carrying on with inflation. Explanation. NIL. Question Number. 63. A method of helping to prevent aquaplaning is by fitting tyres which have. Option A. water dispersing treads. Option B. a plain tread. Option C. twin contact. Correct Answer is. water dispersing treads.

Explanation. NIL. Question Number. 64. Un-mounted tubeless tyres must be stored. Option A. vertically. Option B. horizontally. Option C. in the manufactures boxes. Correct Answer is. vertically. Explanation. AL/3-18 15.1. Question Number. 65. With a single oleo leg with a stub axle used, the torque links will. Option A. keep the wheel in track. Option B. assist the wheel to castor. Option C. allow the wheel to shimmy. Correct Answer is. keep the wheel in track. Explanation. Jeppesen A & P Airframe Technician textbook page 9-12. Question Number. 66. When fitting a tyre to a hub, the red spot on the tyre should be in line with. Option A. maker's serial number. Option B. the valve assembly. Option C. opposite side to the valve assembly. Correct Answer is. the valve assembly. Explanation. Jeppesen A & P Airframe Technician Textbook page 9-49. Question Number. 67. A red or yellow line on an inner tube would indicate. Option A. light spot. Option B. balance indicator. Option C. heavy spot.

With aircraft lights . Emergency floor lighting system is inoperative. Starboard light red. Option B. application of the brakes and checking indicator pin protrusion. port light green. NIL. the aircraft is allowed to fly empty to a main base.14. Starboard light green. 11A. Lights (ATA 33). the aircraft is allowed to fly in daylight conditions only. Option C. 3. Option A. Question Number. measuring the protrusion of the indicator pins with the brakes released. using a go-no go gauge to measure the gap between the cylinder and the thrust plate.which of the following is true?. 32-42-98. tail light White. Question Number. tail light Red. port light red. Option A. the aircraft is allowed to fly empty to a main base. Correct Answer is. Explanation. brake wear is checked by. . port light red. No reference found. Pallett Aircraft Electrical Systems 3rd Edition Page 145. the aircraft is not allowed to fly until repaired. Question Number. Option C. Option C. Correct Answer is. Starboard light red. A fluorescent tube contains. Starboard light green. port light green. tail light white. Dunlop component maintenance manual Ch. Correct Answer is. Question Number. application of the brakes and checking indicator pin protrusion. On a multi-brake unit with automatic adjusters. Can fly without passengers in accordance with the MEL. Explanation. then.Correct Answer is. 1. 68. 2. heavy spot. tail light white. Explanation. Option B. Option B. Explanation. Option A.

Correct Answer is.html Question Number. Correct Answer is. AWN 56 2. 11°.mis. Option B. orange coatings. phosphor coatings. at the rear of the aircraft 110 degrees either side of dead astern. Explanation. of at least 3 lumens. of at least 3 candelas. CAP 393 Rules of the Air Rule 11 (2) (a) (iii). Explanation. Option C. How many floor path lights can you fly with unserviceable?. rare gases and mercury vapour. at the rear of the aircraft 70 degrees either side of dead astern. Option C. Option B. Option A. A white steady light is required. Option A. iodine coatings and rare gases. 15°. 5. Option C. rare gases and mercury vapour. of at least 3 candelas. of at least 3 candelas. Correct Answer is. Option B. Option A. 15%. Explanation. at the rear of the aircraft 110 degrees either side of dead astern. 11°. Option B.Option A. 4. rare gases and mercury vapour. Pallett Aircraft Electrical Systems 3rd Edition Page 146 Fig 10-1. 20%. Explanation. Question Number. . 25%. Option C. http://www. What is the arc of a landing light?. Question Number. phosphor coatings.11. 20°. at the rear of the aircraft 70 degrees either side of dead astern.users.net/~pthrush/lighting/flour. 25%. 6. Correct Answer is.

Option C. Transport Category Aircraft Systems Jeppesen Page 7-2. Correct Answer is. The visible angle of a white tail navigation light is. Aircraft Electricity and Electronics. 110°. Option A. 11°. 7. battery bus and ground services bus. red. Correct Answer is.1387. . Option C. Pallett Aircraft Electrical Systems 3rd Edition Page 146. 8. and JAR 25. Question Number. Upper and lower strobe lights are coloured. Option C. Option B. Option B. 10. Option A. and JAR 25. Eismin 5th edition page 256. Option A. 140°. Wing navigation lights must be visible through which angle?. Option B.1387. and EEL/1-10 301 a). Cockpit dome lighting is provided by the. Correct Answer is. Option B. 110°. Explanation. Explanation. 180°. battery bus and ground services bus. Option C. 110°. battery bus. Explanation. Aircraft Electrical Systems Pallett Page 146. Correct Answer is. white.Question Number. 9. Option A. green. ground services bus. Explanation. 140°. Question Number. 125°. red. Question Number.

15% obscured. . What will happen if the Master Dim and test switch is switched to the on position?. Option B. Rectangular indicator lights will illuminate. Option B. Option C. Explanation. Option B. Correct Answer is. 10%. How many emergency lights are allowed to be inoperative?. 12. Question Number. Option A. Correct Answer is. All lights will illuminate. Question Number. Option A. AC handling bus. Option A. BAe 146 AMM (AC ground service busbar) although other aircraft (A340. 14.Question Number. Correct Answer is.1. 25%. Option B. 20% obscured. Option C.11. Option A. Rectangular indicator lights will illuminate. JAR 25. Cargo bay lights on a modern aircraft are supplied by. and CAAIPs Leaflet 5-11 2. DC handling bus. 25%. NIL. AC handling bus. 11. Escape route lighting must not have more than. Option C. Explanation. NIL. Correct Answer is. None. Option C. 13. Explanation. B747) use 28VDC ground bus. 10% obscured. Dome lights will illuminate. the battery bus. Explanation.812 (l) (1). 20% obscured. Question Number.

60°. Armed. flight. Option A. Each one is switched on individually at passenger panel. Cabin fluorescent lighting circuits are supplied with. Option A. 28 V DC. Explanation. Each one is switched on individually at passenger panel. 50°. Option B. 50°. Question Number. Question Number. Option A. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 7-76 (figure 7-115). 16. Option C. 115 V AC. By using a READ LIGHT TEST switch on the cabin attendant panel. 17. Aircraft Electrical Systems Pallett Page 146. Option B. Correct Answer is. Option B. Option C. 115 V AC. The angle of a runway turnoff light is. By using a READ LIGHT TEST switch at any passenger panel. In what position should the selector switch be for a standby and emergency lighting system during . Correct Answer is. 28 V AC. Option A. Explanation. How are passenger reading lights normally tested?. Correct Answer is. ON. Option C. Explanation. NIL. OFF. Option C. Option B. Question Number. 18.Question Number. 15. 40°.

engine scanning lights. 22. engine scanning lights. 11 (2) (d). Explanation. Option B. 20 candelas. Question Number. Option C. Correct Answer is.Correct Answer is. The linkage must be repositioned and latched when the aircraft is on the ground. 20. Question Number. 15%. logo lights. 25%. 19. baggage compartment lights. refuelling lights. EEL/1-10 3. Explanation. The emergency lighting system must be designed so that after any single transverse vertical separation of the fuselage during crash landing the maximum amount of emergency lighting that fails is. JAR 25. Explanation. baggage compartment lights. Option C. Service lights include. baggage compartment lights.5. Option C. A rotating beacon must have a minimum light rating of. avionics bay lights. . how is it reset?. avionics bay lights. Explanation. Option A. Transport Category Aircraft Systems 11-23. 50 candelas. 10%. Option B. Option A. 21. 100 candelas. Option A. refuelling lights. Question Number. Armed.812. refuelling lights. Option B. If the 'blow-back' device on a landing lamp operates. Question Number. 20 candelas. 25%. Correct Answer is. Option A. avionics bay lights. Correct Answer is. CAP 393 Section 2 Rules of the Air Para.

Correct Answer is. Explanation. Option B. EEL/1-10 5. 2 minutes.1. Select full 'RETRACT'. The rear light of an aircraft must be white and. Option B. must show through an inclusive angle of.8. are instantly seen in dark areas by persons who are not dark adapted.Option B. 2 minutes. 140 degrees and be 3 candelas minimum. in addition. That time period is at least. EEL/1-10 4. The unit must be replaced because of the high stress loads experienced. Correct Answer is. Explanation. Self-illuminating signs. are self powered and contain phosphor and helium gas. Question Number. CAP 393 Section 2 Rules of the Air Para 2 a iii and CAIPs EEL/1-10 3. Explanation. Select full 'RETRACT'.5. require a period of daylight. Correct Answer is. 23. 5 minutes.3. Option C. Correct Answer is.1 c). Option C. Option A. Option C. 1 minute. Explanation. or intense artificial light to operate. EEL/1-10 3. . 140 degrees and be 3 candelas minimum. It cannot. 110 degrees and be 5 candelas minimum. 24. Question Number. Option A. 25. Option C. Option B. 110 degrees and be 40 candelas minimum. Before touching or disconnecting a strobe light head. Question Number. are instantly seen in dark areas by persons who are not dark adapted. Option A. a time period must elapse to avoid electrical shock or burning.

In the CWS system.com/cgi/kds?\$=main/special/real777 Question Number. Pallett .they are wired in parallel. Option A. Option A. Option B. parallel with the light and the transistor is not conducting. Explanation. green. 27. to reduce the effect of lightning on the pilot's sight. Pallett . Correct Answer is. Option B. Correct Answer is.they are wired in series. When an annunciator light is selected to 'DIM'. Captain and First Officer's 'Dome' lights can be dimmed. Option C. First Officer's only in emergency mode. amber. red. Explanation. http://www. Option B. Question Number. to reduce the effect of lightning on the pilot's sight.Aircraft Electrical Systems.4. amber. Option C. CAIPs EEL/1-10 4. . because lightning has less effect on fluorescent lamp units. Option B.Question Number.flightsim. Question Number. The transistor is conducting all the time the light is switched on. Option A. 29. Explanation. series with the light and the transistor is conducting. Option C. series with the light and the transistor is conducting. series with the light and the transistor is not conducting.Aircraft Electrical Systems. Page 153. together . individually . Explanation. Option C. Option A. 26. the caution light is coloured. Correct Answer is. together . and the glare-shield lights are automatically dimmed. Page 153. NIL. Storm lights are usually fluorescent lights that are switched on. 28. the resistor is in.they are wired in series. Correct Answer is.1.

at 40 inch intervals. Option B. Duct overheat. Option A. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is.1. landing Light. Option A. at 60 inch intervals.7. Option A. self illuminating lights. 33. Option C. Hydraulic pump failure. Option C. Question Number. Option B. Tritium Gas is used in a. 32. Explanation. Question Number. Question Number. Xenon.Question Number. 30. Option A. On a CWS. Fire warning. strobe light. at 40 inch intervals. at 70 inch intervals. What inert gas is used in a typical strobe light?. Option B. NIL. Option C. Fire warning. Halon. Floor proximity lighting is a mandatory requirement and each light should be spaced. . 31. Xenon. Explanation. self illuminating lights. Option C. Freon. Explanation. NIL. which has the highest priority?. Correct Answer is. Option B. CAAIPs Leaflet 5-11 2. Correct Answer is.

Single circuit. no reference has been found. Helium gas and white. Option A. EEL/1-10 3. Explanation. Question Number. 35. The aircraft has a partial failure of its emergency lighting system. Option C. Option B. continue with reduced passenger load. Single circuit. Option B. 36. Option A. 37. queried it with the CAA. Individual circuits. Correct Answer is. Option C. Xenon Gas and blue-white.000ft and descending. However. Option B. Correct Answer is. Question Number. A strobe light is a light unit that takes form of glass tube filled with which gas and its light colour is what?. Option A. 34. EEL/1-10 4. He was told (by the CAA assessor)that the answer is b.1. Dual circuit. Aircraft Electricity and Electronics Eismin Page 250.2. Correct Answer is. Explanation. Explanation. Neon gas and blue. Question Number. Option A.8. Navigation lights are supplied by the following circuit. Option C. Automatic no smoking sign will illuminate. A club66 user who got this question. below 10. . continue with reduced passenger load.Explanation. Xenon Gas and blue-white. ground the aircraft. Question Number. ferry flight to main base for rectification.3.

Anoxia is due to. Option A. a hygrometer using the dew point method. below 10. CAIPs AL/3-25 Para 6. Question Number. 3. Question Number. when landing gear doors are not closed. Option C. . all the time. Option B. To measure moisture in an oxygen system use. Option C. CAAIPs Leaflet 5-9 Para 2.4. Option C. lack of oxygen. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 14-10. when the user breathes in.1. release of nitrogen bubbles in the blood. 1. lack of oxygen. Explanation. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. Option B.Option B.15. low air pressure on the body. a hygrometer using the dew point method. when the user breathes in. Option A. Explanation. litmus paper. Oxygen (ATA 35). 11A. NIL. Option A. Question Number. 2. The dilutor demand regulator functions. only when the supply valve is opened by the user.000ft and descending. Correct Answer is. when landing gear is up. Explanation. Option C. Correct Answer is. Option B. Explanation. a glass plate.

Explanation. Option B.Question Number. Question Number.2. Option C. Explanation. Option A. Explanation. may be stencilled on the neck of the cylinder. Option C. Question Number. Supernumerator regular. Thermal Relief Valve. Oxygen cylinder test dates. Loose connection.2. As the cabin altitude reaches 3042 metres. Breathing regulator. CAIPs AL/3-25 para 4. Correct Answer is. 5. 6. are painted in white on the cylinder. 02 system pressure has leaked away after charging. the 02 masks deploy automatically and the crew must activate the system from the cockpit. Explanation. Option B. Correct Answer is. Question Number. Correct Answer is. where would you most likely find the cause?. are variable depending on discharge. Option B. Option B. Temperature compensator. Correct Answer is. the 02 masks deploy automatically and hang half way extended. If an O2 system is leaking. 4. 7. Breathing mask will only leak if system is turned on. the 02 masks deploy automatically and the crew activates the system from the emergency panel. NIL. Option C. Option C. Option A. Breathing mask. Breathing regulator. are painted in white on the cylinder. What is the most probable cause?. Option A. Option A. the 02 masks deploy automatically and hang half way extended. No TRV on O2 system. Loose connection. .

Explanation.9. an over temperature indicator. Oxygen cylinders are normally fitted with. an overpressure indicator. . when breathing. Correct Answer is. pressure and quantity gauges. a demand regulator. Correct Answer is. pressure and quantity gauges. A&P Technician Airframe Textbook 14-9. 9. Question Number. Option B. Option C. green in colour with a RH thread. green in colour with a RH thread. Option B. when breathing. Option C. Question Number. Option A. 11. Option C. Option A. black in colour with a RH thread. oxygen purity gauge. a demand regulator. Correct Answer is. 8. Explanation. Option A.Question Number. CAAIPs Leaflet 5-9 p9 para 4. Portable oxygen bottles are fitted with. A demand regulator in a portable oxygen bottle opens. 10. Option C. American made crew oxygen cylinders are. all the time. Correct Answer is. Option A. Option B. temperature gauge. green in colour with a LH thread. Explanation. when 100% selected. NIL. Option B. Question Number.

5. Freon. Option C. What pressure are oxygen cylinders usually pressurised to?. Option C. 3000 PSI. Option B. 14. Sodium chlorate and iron using a mechanical detonator producing O2 when mixed with air. Correct Answer is. turned on by crew. Option A. Option C. Question Number. 15. . CAAIP Leaflet 5-9 para 5. Option A. Explanation. Explanation.1. Option B. CAAIP\'s Leaflet 5-9 p7 para 4. Question Number.3(e). Sodium chlorate and iron mixed by an electronic detonator. Option B. What is the principle of an O2 generator?.3 states green for cylinders for American origin. Sodium chlorate and iron mixed by an electronic detonator.2. Question Number. Sodium chloride and iron mixed by an electronic detonator.1 and A&P Technician Airframe Textbook 14-8.Explanation. AL/3-25 4. 300 PSI. 13. 1800 PSI. Option C. O2. CAIPs AL/3-25 3. O2. and CAAIPs Leaflet 5-9 3. 12.2. Option A. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. Option A. N2. (l/h threads are for charging points). Option B. once charged should be. Question Number. Oxygen storage cylinders. Which connector has a left hand thread?.13.3. 1800 PSI. turned on and safety wire-locked. Explanation. turned off.

Option C. the user breathes in. Correct Answer is. Question Number. 17.13. Question Number. an hydraulic system. Where are the left handed threads found in an oxygen system?. NIL. Option A. A thermal compensator is used in. Option C. 16. an oxygen system. 19. a fuel system. an oxygen system. turned on and safety wire-locked. passed into the bottle at any rate as this does not affect temperature. Option A.3(e). A&P Mechanic Airframe Handbook Page 598. Question Number. . CAAIP Leaflet 5-9 para 5. passed into the bottle slowly to keep the temperature at approximately ambient. passed into the bottle as quickly as possible to keep the temperature down.Correct Answer is. passed into the bottle slowly to keep the temperature at approximately ambient. Option B. Charging connection. Portable O2 diluter demand valve works when. Option A. the oxygen is. Correct Answer is. 100% is selected. CAIPs AL/3-25 4. Explanation. When charging an oxygen bottle with gaseous oxygen. Explanation. Option B. Option A. Option C. Shut-off valve. Line valve. Question Number. Charging connection. Option B. 18. Correct Answer is.12. Option B. Explanation. Explanation.

only be wire locked with telltale wire. Correct Answer is. Explanation. a change in colour. 5 years.Option B. 30 minutes. wire locked open. Explanation. Option A. a change in colour. and A&P Technician Airframe Textbook 14-8 and CAAIPs Leaflet 5-9 3. Option C. 15 minutes. Question Number. Option C. Option C. AL/3-25. Option C. Explanation.1439. 15 minutes. Jeppesen A & P Technician Airframe Textbook page 14-8 or CAAIP\'s Leaflet 5-9 p16. Option A. 27. Explanation. AL/3-25. Correct Answer is. 24. Oxygen equipment must be carried by aircraft capable of flying above. 26. Option B. A chemical oxygen generator has a supply duration of at least. Question Number.6. A discharged chemical generator is indicated by. Correct Answer is. wire locked closed. 5 years. Question Number. a broken tell-tale wire. 25. Option B. 10 years. Option A. . 5 minutes. Correct Answer is. AL/3-25.3 and JAR 25. The oxygen line service valve must be. wire locked open. Option B. a protruding pin. Question Number.

Pressure breathing systems must be used at altitudes. below 40. Option B. below 10. 30.000 ft. 25.000 ft. Option C.000 ft. Correct Answer is. 4. at a maximum of 12.000 ft. 4. AL/3-25 3. AL/3-25 table 1. AL/3-25 Table 1. 25.000 ft. Correct Answer is. The critical altitude for oxygen requirement is approximately. Correct Answer is.1. Explanation. 38. If oxygen is not being supplied in normal flight conditions. . Option C.000 ft. Option A. at or below 8. the cabin altitude must be. Question Number.000 ft. 28.000 ft. at or below 8. above 40. Option C. Option B.000 ft. Explanation. 8. above 40.000ft. Correct Answer is. Explanation. Question Number. above 30. Option B. 10.000 ft.000ft. Option B. CAIPs AL/3-23. Option A. Question Number.000 ft. Explanation. 10.000 ft.000 ft.000ft. 29. Option A. Option C.Option A.

CAAIP\'s Leaflet 5-9 p8 para 4. Option B. Option B. Option B. Question Number. Correct Answer is. stainless steel. only when the supply has been regulated by the pilot. Option C. Correct Answer is. 32. Correct Answer is. each member of the crew has a continuous oxygen supply. The cylinder of a portable oxygen set is made of. oxygen is supplied. Option A. 100% oxygen supply as the user inhales. Question Number. 100% oxygen at positive pressure. Explanation. AL/3-25 fig 3. Correct Answer is.7 ©. Explanation. only when the supply has been regulated by the pilot. selection of emergency on this regulator will result in. 34. Explanation. alloy steel. on passenger inhaling into the mask. NIL. .Question Number. In the diluter demand oxygen system. Question Number. Option A. Option A. 33. AL/3-25 3. In a continuous flow oxygen system. alloy steel. 100% oxygen continuous flow at positive pressure. Option C. In a diluter demand oxygen system. when the mask is plugged into the socket. each member of the crew has a regulator. 100% oxygen continuous flow at positive pressure. Option C. oxygen is supplied with a continuous pressure flow. Option B. Option C. Explanation. 31.6. each member of the crew has a regulator. aluminium. Option A.

1. 36. 200 2250 litres. Option B. Option A. Explanation. litres/minute. Question Number. Option B.s.i. Option C. Option A. AL/3-25 3. pounds/minute. Explanation. every 4 years.000 p.s. 38. Question Number. Rate of flow of oxygen is given in.i. Oxygen bottle capacity varies between.s. Option A. Explanation. Correct Answer is. every 3 years. 35. Option C. every 4 years. Explanation. Correct Answer is. 80 2250 litres.i. Oxygen cylinders are removed for overhaul and tested. Portable oxygen cylinders are normally charged to. Option C. litres/pounds. 100 3200 litres. AL/3-25 5.6. Correct Answer is. 1.i.800 p. NIL. litres/minute.8. AL/3-25 4.2.Question Number. Correct Answer is. 80 2250 litres. Option C. Question Number.200 p. Option B. Option B. 37. every 6 years.s. Option A.800 p. 2. 1. .

39. cylinder pressure is left at 200/300 p.i. is relieved by a bursting disc. 40. Explanation. Option B.s. Question Number. cylinder pressure is left at 300/400 p. Question Number. cylinder pressure is left at 100/200 p. Question Number. stamped on the neck ring. left in the 'on' position.Question Number. 42. wire locked in the 'on'. Option B. Correct Answer is. Option B. .s. Oxygen bottle test and working pressures can be found. is relieved by a bursting disc. Option C. Explanation. Option A. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. is relieved by under pressurising the bottle. CAAIP\'s Leaflet 5-9 para 5. Option C. After installation. stencilled on the bottle. Option A. Correct Answer is.2 and Leaflet 5-9 5. left in the 'off' position until required.9.2.i. the oxygen bottle on/off valve is. is relieved by a thermostat.s. Option A.i.i. 41. AL/3-25 4. Option A. wire locked in the 'on'.6. Option C. stamped on the neck ring. Explanation. stamped on a metal label. cylinder pressure is left at 200/300 p. Option B. Dangerous pressure rise in oxygen cylinders.2 (h).13. AL/3-25 4.s. To avoid condensation forming in an oxygen cylinder. Option C.

Option A. . carbon fibres. by visual inspection. pressure indicators. Satisfactory operation of the oxygen systems is indicated by. by an arrow. Question Number. Option B. by colour coding. sintered bronze. Question Number. Option B. The pressure used in the system. Option B. 43. Oxygen filters are made of. sintered bronze. AL/3-25 Page 8. AL/3-25 Page 8. Option C. Correct Answer is. Option C. Option A. The pressure used in the system. 45. Explanation. Question Number. Option C. The whims of the aircraft designer. by an arrow.Explanation. Question Number. AL/3-25 4. Correct Answer is. Explanation. 46. flow indicators.5. Option A. Option B. The length of the pipe runs.3. Option C. AL/3-25 5. Correct Answer is. Option A. Explanation. 44. The direction of flow in an oxygen non return valve is indicated. lack of Anoxia.1 ii). steel wool. What determines the material used for oxygen pipe lines?.

Option C. Correct Answer is. . MIL-L-25567B. Question Number. leak testing solution to Spec.2. Option C. Explanation. rectangles. black with a white collar. diamonds. Explanation.Correct Answer is. Explanation. Teflon tape may be used. CAAIP's Leaflet 5-9 p9 para 4. Option A. rectangles. dots. soapy water. Option B. Question Number. 50. Cylinders containing purified oxygen for breathing are painted. ZAL/3-25 4. Question Number. Teflon tape may be used. Option B.2. Option B. If a binding thread needs attention on an oxygen system. no lubricant may be used whatsoever.11. Explanation. distilled water may be used sparingly. Option B. Correct Answer is. white with a black collar. 49. Question Number. black with a white collar. The international marking for a breathing oxygen pipeline is a series of. Option A. flow indicators. Option A. black. NIL. Correct Answer is. Option A. Option C. NIL. 47. 48. A suitable leak detecting solution for use on oxygen systems is.

Explanation. Option A. traces of oils or greases. Question Number.12. Explanation. Option B. AL/3-25 5. Correct Answer is. NIL. Question Number. Option A. Explanation. . leak testing solution to Spec. acrylic based plastic materials. Option C. http://www. Option C. traces of oils or greases.2 (vi).7. When working in the vicinity of an oxygen system.1. passed into the bottle slowly to keep temperature at approximately ambient. Option A. no electrical power must be used. A chemical oxygen generator operates at. 53. passed into the bottle slowly to keep temperature at approximately ambient. 45°C at 10 psi for 15 minutes. Option C.html Question Number. particular care must be taken to avoid leaving. When charging an oxygen bottle with gaseous oxygen. 54. Question Number. Correct Answer is. In areas closely associated with oxygen systems. Correct Answer is.com/chemsol/lubricants. grease free medical soap. passed into the bottle at any rate as this does not affect temperature.Option C. Option A. Correct Answer is. Explanation. AL/3-21 3. Option B. oil must not come into contact with the system. the area must be well ventilated. AL/3-25 5. passed into the bottle as quickly as possible to keep the temperature down. magnesium particles. Option B. the oxygen is. MIL-L-25567B. 52. 51. oil must not come into contact with the system.chemsol. A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Chapter 14-19 rh column 2nd para.

slacken off the retaining straps first. applied to all except the first two threads and not more than one complete wrap of tape. Question Number.7. applied to all except the first two threads and not more than 3 complete wraps of tape. When charging an oxygen bottle in situ. applied to all except the first two threads and not more than 3 complete wraps of tape. Option C. pressure. The application of thread lubrication tape in an oxygen system should be. Option C. 45°K at 10 psi for 15 minutes. charge slowly through a water trap.2. Option C. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. Explanation. 45°F at 10 psi for 15 minutes. 58. 57. 56.5. AL/3-25 5. 55. Question Number. . Option C. applied to all the threads and not more than one complete wrap of tape. Option B. Option A.2. Explanation. temperature. Correct Answer is. charge in accordance with the temperature/pressure graph. pressure. Option A. Question Number. purity. Explanation.12.2 (vi) (a). charge in accordance with the temperature/pressure graph. The gauge fitted to an oxygen bottle indicates. Option B. 45°C at 10 psi for 15 minutes. Correct Answer is. CAAIPs Leaflet 5-9 Para 5. Option B. Explanation. Option A. High pressure lines in oxygen systems are made of. AL/3-25 3.Option B. AL/3-25 4. Question Number.

. Lubricate oxygen connector threads using. Option C. hellerene. The indicator pin would be protruding.3. stainless steel. Explanation. measuring the flow rate from the regulator. removing moisture from the system. Question Number. pressure testing the system. Explanation. By a change in colour of heat sensitive paint. Option B. aluminium alloy. Question Number. Explanation. Correct Answer is. How is an expended chemical oxygen generator indicated?. Option A. Option B. WD40. Option A. removing moisture from the system. Question Number.1. 61. NIL. Option C. NIL. By a change in colour of heat sensitive paint. CAAIPs Leaflet 5-9 p8 para 4. Option C. stainless steel. 59. titanium. Teflon tape.Option A. Correct Answer is. Option B. CAAIPs Leaflet 5-9 p19 para 6. Option A. Explanation. 60. Correct Answer is. A pressure seal would be broken. Oxygen purging is a process of. Correct Answer is. Option B. Option C. Teflon tape.

Option A. piston type. Explanation. piston type. Option A. CAAIP\'s Leaflet 6. Correct Answer is. Option C. non-essential equipment. Option A. Explanation. Although smaller systems may have avane type. Option A. just the moisture trap. 3. a sniff test is used. Correct Answer is. pass 72 litres/min through a filter paper in a clean glass. essential equipment. it dumps. CAIPs AL/3-22. Option B.16. 11A. Option C. Question Number. the maintainer valve will be fitted in supply lines to. Option B. The pneumatic system pump is a. 62. Question Number.Question Number. 1. Question Number. a hygrometer is used. To check an oxygen system for moisture.4. just the moisture trap. Correct Answer is. . non-essential equipment. centrifugal type. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 8-54. Option C. Option B. Explanation. the system between compressor and regulator valve. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 8-56. Pneumatic/Vacuum (ATA 36). In a pneumatic system. a hygrometer is used. 2. the whole system.1. Option B. Option C. When the moisture separator is purged in a pneumatic system. Correct Answer is. all equipment. rotor vane type.

CAIPs AL/3-23 4. butterfly pump. High pressure pneumatic pump is a. CAIPs AL/3-22. Explanation. if the drain plug for oil and water is left open for long periods of . butterfly pump. 5. Correct Answer is. 7. between the compressor and the PRV. If the pneumatic water drain trap is left open for a long time it will drain. Although they protect the flow to the essential systems. Option B. Explanation. reciprocating pump. Option C. the system would. 4. spur gear. Option B. they do so by being situated in the non-essential lines. reciprocating pump. CAIPs AL/3-22 Fig 1. Correct Answer is. just the moisture trap. Option A. Question Number.1. Option C. and closing off if the pressure drops. centrifugal Compressor. Option A. Option B. Maintainer valves work in same way as those in hydraulic systems (hence the reference). reciprocating pump. all the system. Option C. Question Number.1. Question Number. between the compressor and the PRV. 6. reciprocating pump. Question Number. Correct Answer is. CAIPs AL/3-23 4. Explanation. On a high pressure pneumatic system. time. Option A. High pressure pneumatic source is a.Explanation.

8. Option B.17. 9.Option A. NIL. Explanation. lose all pressure. What type of compressor is used on a pneumatic system?. It must be pressure controlled. Option B. It must be temperature controlled. Option C. NRVs to prevent compressors driving each other. Spur gear type. Correct Answer is. http://www. NRVs to prevent compressors driving each other. lose pressure from the compressor side only. Two compressors driven by separate engines use. Option A. Correct Answer is. 10. What is important about the air entering a dry air pump?. Water/Waste (ATA 38). . Interconnected to share loads. NIL. Option A. AL/3-22 figure 1. NIL. Explanation.com/news/maint/182905-1. Correct Answer is. Question Number. 11A. Correct Answer is.html Question Number. PRVs. Positive displacement type. Question Number. lose pressure from the compressor side only. Explanation. Option C. lose pneumatic pressure partially. Option B. Positive displacement type. It must be filtered. Option A. Option C. Option B. Option C. Rotary vane type. It must be filtered. Explanation.avweb.

Option A. water cooling. Option C.3. are not heated. Stop motor running beyond 10 seconds if timer become unserviceable. the seal of the valve is replaceable without draining the tanks. Question Number. are heated using low amperage in the Air and on ground. AWN 57. Option A. are heated using low amperage with the aircraft on ground only. . Explanation. are heated using low amperage with the aircraft on ground only. Correct Answer is. Option B. Correct Answer is. cooling fan on timer switch. 2. the whole drain assembly must be replaced. Correct Answer is. Waste water drain masts. thermal protection. 30-71 28VAC on ground and 115VAC in air. 3. 737 AMM ch. Explanation. Option A. Option B. 1. Option A. thermal protection. the seal of the valve is replaceable without draining the tanks. What is the purpose of thermal protection on electric toilet motor?. Option C. the seal is not replaceable. Option C. Prevent toilet freezing. Correct Answer is. the seal of the valve is replaceable without draining the tanks. AWN 57 Para. Explanation. Option C. Toilet flush motor is protected from overheat by. Option B. Question Number. 4. Question Number. Prevent motor overheating and become fire hazard.Question Number. the tank must be de-fuelled. Prevent motor overheating and become fire hazard. Option B.2.

Download an old copy from the Forum. Question Number. spring loaded closed. 7. Correct Answer is. AWN 79. installation of neoprene foam insulation. spring loaded open. Option B. 6. Option C. Option A. Toilet waste valves are. wrapping the pipes with heated tapes or ribbons. Option C. Question Number. ribbon heater. Option C. Correct Answer is. Question Number. wrapping the pipes with heated tapes or ribbons. Option A. NIL. NIL. Option B. All the AWNs listed have now been removed. AWN 83. AWN 80. spring loaded closed. placing the pipes adjacent to hot water piping. Explanation. Drinking water pipes are prevented from freezing by. Option A. Toilets are the subject of. NIL. hot air blower. not spring loaded. .Explanation. Option C. Option A. Question Number. Explanation. Option B. 8. Option B. The heater used on a drain mast would be a. 5. induction heater. Explanation. Correct Answer is. AWN 83.

On Board Maintenance Systems. Option A. Question Number. Option A. Close toilet until landing. Option C. existing faults page is selected on the CDU. The data will be stored in. You can use the toilet as the toxic chemical toilet. The real time on a CMC is when. A toilet recirculation fan is unserviceable in flight. IAW B737-400 mmel/ddg item 38-2. non-volatile memory. fault history page is selected on the CDU. Explanation. volatile memory. Close toilet until landing. One of the inputs in a CMC is autopilot controls. existing faults page is selected on the CDU.Correct Answer is. Question Number.DO NOT ENTER'. Correct Answer is. non-volatile memory. Option B. with lav door secured closed and placard 'INOPERATIVE. 11A. Option B. NIL. ground test page is selected on the CDU. Question Number. Aircraft Electricity and Avionics (5th Edition) Eismin Page 271. Explanation. It can be overcome by thermal compensating device. Explanation. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. the associate lavatory system may be inop. Option C. Option B. Aircraft Electricity and Avionics (5th Edition) Eismin Page 271. 2. .18. Toilet recirc fan is part of the lav system. Option A. erased only after end of sector. ribbon heater. Option C. 1. 9. Explanation.

In Fault History. . all faults are recorded in Non-Volatile memory. 5. not in Fault History or Test. 'Real time' means reporting of a fault as it occurs. In Test. NIL. where would you find a 'real time' fault?. the helicopter takes off. Option A. Correct Answer is. In Fault. when power is applied to the helicopter. 6. Option A. Question Number. Option C. all faults are recorded in Non-Volatile memory. Explanation. Question Number. the helicopters engines are started.Question Number. page 270-273. In a CMC system. Option B. Option C. only Primary Faults are recorded. Explanation. A modern aircraft CMC uses. Option B. a magnetic fault indicator. Explanation. Correct Answer is. Option C. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. A Flight Data Recorder is activated when. JAR Ops-3. Option C. Option A. 3. Question Number. Option B. all faults are recorded in Volatile memory. In an autoland aircraft fitted with a CMC. Aircraft Electricity and Electronics. the helicopters engines are started. 4. an LED display. Explanation. Aircraft Electricity and Avionics (5th Edition) Eismin Page 271. a CRT screen. Option B. In Fault. Option A. a CRT screen. Eismin.

sends information to the central maintenance cell. Option B.19. To purge and unpleasant odour/ moisture from an oxygen system you must. warning signals are generated by. Warning computer. CMC. detects the source of a fault. Option B. Explanation. 7. the tape can have been used previously if it is first bulk erased. Option C. completely empty and fill the system with oxygen at least 3 times. Option A. NIL. Option C. Option B. With a ACMS quick access recorder.Question Number. Option A. 9. Option B. the tape must not have been used before. 11A. Question Number. In a CMC. completely empty and fill the system with nitrogen at least 3 times. Explanation. An aircraft condition monitoring system. Question Number. FMC. 8. Correct Answer is. you must use digital tape. . Correct Answer is. NIL. Option A. stores information for long term error analysis. 1. Option C. Correct Answer is. Transport Category Aircraft Systems 11-5. Option A. Warning computer. Explanation. the tape can have been used previously if it is first bulk erased. stores information for long term error analysis. Question Number.

fall. Slat asymmetry may be monitored by using. Explanation. Option A. Question Number. Option A. Explanation. Option B. remain the same. completely empty and fill the system with nitrogen at least 3 times. Option B. remain the same. NIL. Explanation. 3. ensure conditioned air is distributed. If a reduction in pack outlet temp is demanded the temperature of the air at the outlet of the ACM compressor will. . the main fan is activated to. Option C.The ACM is unaffected. Option C. completely empty and fill the system with air at least 3 times. 2. spring actuators. Option C. Correct Answer is. ensure conditioned air is distributed and maintain positive duct pressure. position pick-offs. Explanation.Option C. torque sensors. ensure conditioned air is distributed and maintain positive duct pressure. NIL. In large air conditioning systems. Correct Answer is. Pack outlet temperature is determined by bypassing engine bleed air around the ACM (trim air). 4. Question Number. Correct Answer is. rise. Option B. position pick-offs. ensure positive duct pressure is maintained. Question Number. Option A. Correct Answer is. AMM 767 27-88-00.

checking the target clearance in the NEAR position against reference figures. ensuring the target contacts the sensor. 6. throttle microswitches. checking the target clearance in the FAR position against reference figures. Option B. Option C. flap microswitches. throttle microswitches. Pressurisation system operation may be inhibited by. checking the target clearance in the NEAR position against reference figures. 2 male spline portions seperated by a waisted section designed to shear should the pump seize. 8. Option B. In a constant colume hydraulic EDP the short shaft which engages with the engine gearbox would have. AMM 767 21-31-00. Option C.Question Number. Option C. an inner female splined portion and an outer male splined portion. Explanation. Option B. Option A. Explanation. Option A. Explanation. Correct Answer is. NIL. Option B. air/ground microswitches. 2 male spline portions seperated by a waisted section designed to shear should the pump seize. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. Option A. The rigging of a non magnetic proximity sensor requires. the fastener is accurately torqued. an interference fit hole is drilled. Hi-lok fastener installation requires that. Question Number. Question Number. Option C. 5. the shank is lubricated. 2 female splined portions separated by a waisted section. 7. Option A. . Question Number. an interference fit hole is drilled. NIL. Correct Answer is.

Option A. is selectable for each zone individually from the flight station. Correct Answer is. Hole is drilled 0. involves modulating the pack valve. CAAIPS. Option B. Option B. 11. Question Number. be completely covered in ice before causing an alarm to sound on the flight deck. Question Number.Explanation. Option B. Airworthiness Notice 99. is selectable for each zone individually from the flight station. Explanation. but is still asked on the exam. Correct Answer is. OR have a build up of ice on the leading edge that causes a warning light to illuminate on the flight deck. 12. Information on Galley equipment can be found in. A tyre valve cap is used to. Airworthiness Notice 99. have a build up of ice on the leading edge that causes a warning light to illuminate on the flight deck. Option A. NIL. Option C. Correct Answer is. Question Number. . Option C. Option A. all zone temperatures are controlled from one master switch. Hiloks are pre-lubricated. Now removed and included in CAP 747. BCAR Section L.0015 inch interference. Hi-lok/Hi-tique installation guide can be download from Tutorial Support Section. A pressure operated ice detector would. Question Number. prevent a leak. 10. AMM 767 21-61-00. Explanation. Explanation. Option C. 9. Option A. have a build up of ice that causes a torque switch to illuminate a flight deck annunciator. Large aircraft air conditioning systems cabin temperature control. be completely covered in ice before causing an alarm to sound on the flight deck.

Option C. secure the valve by screwing up to the shoulder of the wheel. . OR prevent a leak.Option B. secure the valve by screwing up to the valve base. secure the valve by screwing up to the shoulder of the wheel. Explanation. Correct Answer is. NIL.