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SAT TEST PREP
Prepare to show colleges what you know,
and what you know you can do. Find everything
in this booklet and more at:
www.collegeboard.com/satprep.
The SAT
®
Preparation Booklet
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SAT Preparation Booklet
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© 2008 The College Board. All rights reserved. College Board, Advanced Placement Program, AP, SAT, and the acorn logo are registered trademarks of the
College Board. achieve more, connect to college success, SAT Preparation Booklet, SAT Preparation Center, SAT Reasoning Test, SAT Subject Tests, The Official
SAT Study Guide, The Official SAT Question of the Day, and The Official SAT Online Course are trademarks owned by the College Board. PSAT/NMSQT is a
registered trademark of the College Board and National Merit Scholarship Corporation. All other products and services may be trademarks of their respective
owners. Visit the College Board on the Web: www.collegeboard.com.
Contents
The SAT
®
3
Why You Should Take the SAT® . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 3
Frequently Asked Questions . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 3
Approaches to Taking the SAT . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 3
The Critical Reading Section 5
Approaches to the Critical Reading Section . . . . . . . . . . . . . 5
Sentence Completions . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 5
Passage-Based Reading . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 6
The Mathematics Section 13
Calculator Policy . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 13
Approaches to the Mathematics Section . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 13
Mathematics Review . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 14
Multiple-Choice Questions . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 20
Student-Produced Response Questions . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 23
The Writing Section 26
Characteristics of Effective Writing . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 26
Improving Sentences . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 27
Identifying Sentence Errors. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 28
Improving Paragraphs . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 29
The Essay. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 31
Scoring the Essay . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 36
Scoring Guide . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 36
Official SAT Practice Test 37
About the Practice Test . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 37
Answer Sheet . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 38
Official SAT Practice Test . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 46
Correct Answers and Difficulty Levels . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 84
Scoring the Official SAT Practice Test . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 85
The College Board:
Connecting Students to College Success
The College Board is a not-for-profit membership asso-
ciation whose mission is to connect students to college
success and opportunity. Founded in 1900, the association
is composed of more than 5,400 schools, colleges, uni-
versities, and other educational organizations. Each year,
the College Board serves seven million students and their
parents, 23,000 high schools, and 3,500 colleges through
major programs and services in college admissions, guid-
ance, assessment, financial aid, enrollment, and teaching
and learning. Among its best-known programs are the
SAT®, the PSAT/NMSQT®, and the Advanced Placement
Program® (AP®). The College Board is committed to the
principles of excellence and equity, and that commitment
is embodied in all of its programs, services, activities, and
concerns. For further information, visit
www.collegeboard.com.

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1
2
`
The SAT
®
This booklet will answer your questions about the SAT
®

and help you prepare for test day.
Why You Should Take the SAT
®
Nearly every college and university in the United States accepts
and uses the SAT as part of its admissions process. Your SAT
score can help you get connected to the right colleges and help
you identify opportunities for scholarships.
Frequently Asked Questions
What’s on the SAT?
The SAT measures the skills you have learned in and
outside of the classroom and how well you can apply that
knowledge. It tests how you think, solve problems, and
communicate. The test is composed of three sections:
● Critical reading, which has sentence completion
and passage-based reading questions
● Mathematics, which is based on the math that
college-bound students typically learn during their
first three years of high school
● Writing, which has multiple-choice questions and
a written essay
How can I prepare for the SAT?
● Take a rigorous curriculum, study hard, and read
and write outside of the classroom.
● Take the PSAT/NMSQT® in your junior year.
● Review the sample questions, test-taking
approaches, and directions in this booklet.
● Take the official SAT practice test in this booklet
and review the answer explanations online.
● Access free online practice tools at
www.collegeboard.com/satprep.
How should I get ready for test day?
● Make sure you have on hand all the materials you
will need, such as a calculator, No. 2 pencils (no
mechanical pencils), a soft eraser, your Admission
Ticket, and an official photo ID.
● Check out the route to the test center and know
where the weekend entrances are located.
● Get a good night’s sleep.
● Leave yourself plenty of time so you’ll arrive at the
test center a little early.
How can I help myself feel as
confident as possible?
● Think positively.
● Stay focused.
● Concentrate only on what you are doing.
● Keep the test in perspective.
● Remember that you are in control.
What do I need to know about the
essay?
The purpose of the essay is to demonstrate not only how
well you write, but also how well you express and back up
a point of view. You will have 25 minutes to write your
essay, which will count for approximately 30 percent of
your writing score. The essay must be written with a No. 2
(soft-lead) pencil and will be scored as a first draft, not a
polished piece of writing.
Important Information
• Youhave3hoursand45minutestocom-
pletetheentiretest.
• Allmultiple-choicequestionsarescored
thesameway:onepointforeachcorrect
answer,andone-quarterpointsubtracted
forawronganswer.Nopointsaresub-
tractedforanswersleftblank.
• Youcanalwaystakethetestagain.One
outofeverytwohighschoolstudents
takestheSATatleasttwice.
• Remember:TheSATisonlyonefactor
collegeslookatwhentheyconsideryour
application.
• MakesureyouuseaNo.2pencil.Itisvery
importantthatyoufillintheentirecircle
ontheanswersheetdarklyandcompletely.
Ifyouchangeyourresponse,eraseitas
completelyaspossible.
Approaches to Taking the SAT
● All questions count the same, so answer the easy
questions first. The easier questions are usually at the
beginning of the section, and the harder ones are at
the end. The exception is in the critical reading section,
where questions are ordered according to the logic and
organization of each passage.
● Make educated guesses. You have a better chance of
guessing the right answer if you can rule out one or more
answer choices for multiple-choice questions.
● Skip questions that you really can’t answer. No points are
deducted if an answer is left blank.
● Limit your time on any one question. All questions are
worth the same number of points. If you need a lot of
time to answer a question, go on to the next one. Later,
you may have time to return to the question you skipped.
● Keep track of time. Don’t spend too much time on any
group of questions within a section.
● Use your test booklet as scratch paper.
● In your test booklet, mark the questions that you
skipped and to which you want to return.
● Check your answer sheet to make sure you are placing
your answers correctly.
The SAT
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For daily practice questions, visit The Offcial
SAT Question of the Day

at collegeboard.com/
qotd or sign up to receive it by e-mail. Each
question has a hint and an answer explanation.
SAT Preparation Booklet
4
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The Official SAT Online Course
TM
- Interactive inotruction
- Six ofBcial practice teoto
- Anover explanationo
- Innediate eooav ocoring
The Official SATStudy Guide
TM
- Eight ofBcial practice teoto
- Teot-taking approacheo
- Eree online ocore reporto
- Sanple eooavo and pronpto
To order, conplete Iten 17 on the regiotration
forn or vioit the link belov.
The Official SAT Question of the Day
TM
2009 Calendar
- Dailv practice queotiono
- Eree online anover explanationo and hinto
Get Ready for the
with Help from the
SAT
Test Maker
®
Order today!
collegeboard.com/satprep
b
The Critical Reading
Section
The critical reading section gives you a chance to show
how well you understand what you read. This section has
two types of questions:
● Sentence completions (19 questions)
● Passage-based reading (48 questions)
Note: Calculators may not be on your desk or used
on the critical reading section of the SAT.
Approaches to the Critical Reading
Section
● Work on sentence completion questions first. They
take less time to answer than the passage-based
reading questions.
● The difficulty of sentence completion questions
increases as you move through the section.
● Reading questions do not increase in difficulty
from easy to hard. Instead, they follow the logic
of the passage.
● The information you need to answer each reading
question is always in the passage(s). Reading care-
fully is the key to finding the correct answer. Don’t
be misled by an answer that looks correct but is
not supported by the actual text of the passage(s).
● Reading questions often include line numbers to
help direct you to the relevant part(s) of the pas-
sage. If one word or more is quoted exactly from
the passage, the line number(s) where that quota-
tion can be found will appear in the test question.
You may have to read some of the passage before
or after the quoted word(s), however, in order to
find support for the best answer to the question.
● Do not jump from passage to passage. Stay with a
passage until you have answered as many questions
as you can before you proceed to the next passage.
● If you don’t know what a word means in a sentence
completion or reading passage, consider related
words, familiar sayings and phrases, roots, prefixes,
and suffixes. Have you ever heard or seen a word
that may be related to it?
● In your test booklet, mark each question you don’t
answer so that you can easily go back to it later if
you have time.
● Remember that all questions are worth the same
number of points regardless of the type or difficulty.
Sentence Completions
Sentence completion questions measure your
● knowledge of the meanings of words;
● ability to understand how the different parts of a
sentence fit together logically.
Directions
Each sentence below has one or two blanks, each blank
indicating that something has been omitted. Beneath
the sentence are five words or sets of words labeled A
through E. Choose the word or set of words that, when
inserted in the sentence, best fits the meaning of the
sentence as a whole.
Example:
Hoping to ------- the dispute, negotiators
proposed a compromise that they felt would
be ------- to both labor and management.
(A) enforce . . useful
(B) end . . divisive
(C) overcome . . unattractive
(D) extend . . satisfactory
(E) resolve . . acceptable
a b c d ,
Answering Sentence Completion
Questions
One way to answer a sentence completion question with
two missing words is to focus first on just one of the
two blanks. If one of the words in an answer choice is
logically wrong, then you can eliminate the entire choice
from consideration.
● Look at the first blank in the above example.
Would it make sense to say that “negotiators” who
have “proposed a compromise” were hoping to
enforce or extend the “dispute”? No, so neither (A)
nor (D) can be the correct answer.
● Now you can focus on the second blank. Would
the “negotiators” have proposed a compromise that
they believed would be divisive or unattractive to
“both labor and management”? No, so (B) and (C)
can be eliminated, and only choice (E) remains.
● Always check your answer by reading the entire
sentence with your choice filled in. Does it make
sense to say, “Hoping to resolve the dispute, the
negotiators proposed a compromise that they felt
would be acceptable to both labor and manage-
ment”? Yes.
Correct answer: (E) / Difficulty level: Easy
The Critical Reading Section
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The Official SAT Online Course
TM
- Interactive inotruction
- Six ofBcial practice teoto
- Anover explanationo
- Innediate eooav ocoring
The Official SATStudy Guide
TM
- Eight ofBcial practice teoto
- Teot-taking approacheo
- Eree online ocore reporto
- Sanple eooavo and pronpto
To order, conplete Iten 17 on the regiotration
forn or vioit the link belov.
The Official SAT Question of the Day
TM
2009 Calendar
- Dailv practice queotiono
- Eree online anover explanationo and hinto
Get Ready for the
with Help from the
SAT
Test Maker
®
Order today!
collegeboard.com/satprep
SAT Preparation Booklet
c
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Sample Questions
1. Because King Philip’s desire to make Spain the
dominant power in sixteenth-century Europe ran
counter to Queen Elizabeth’s insistence on
autonomy for England, ------- was -------.
(A) reconciliation . . assured
(B) warfare . . avoidable
(C) ruination . . impossible
(D) conflict . . inevitable
(E) diplomacy . . simple
Be sure to look for key words and phrases as you read each
sentence. Words such as although, however, if, but, and since
are important to notice because they signal how the differ-
ent parts of a sentence are logically related to each other.
Words such as not and never are important because they
indicate negation. In the example above, the entire sentence
hinges on a few key words: “Because something ran counter
to something else, blank was blank.”
● The word “because” indicates that the information
in the first part of the sentence (the part before
the comma) explains the reason for the situation
described in the second part. The first part states
that what King Philip wanted (domination for
Spain) “ran counter to” what Queen Elizabeth
wanted (independence for England).
● Given that there was such a fundamental disagree-
ment between the two monarchs, would reconcilia-
tion be assured? Unlikely.
● Would warfare be avoidable? Hardly; warfare
might be unavoidable.
● Would ruination be impossible? No.
● Would diplomacy be simple? Not necessarily.
● Only choice (D) fits logically with the key words in
the sentence: Because what one person wanted ran
counter to what another person wanted, conflict
was inevitable.
Correct answer: (D) / Difficulty level: Medium
2. There is no doubt that Larry is a genuine -------:
he excels at telling stories that fascinate his
listeners.
(A) braggart (B) dilettante (C) pilferer
(D) prevaricator (E) raconteur
Some sentence completions contain a colon. This is a
signal that the words after the colon define or directly
clarify what came before. In this case, “he excels at telling
stories that fascinate his listeners” serves to define the word
raconteur, choice (E). None of the other words is directly
defined by this clause.
● A braggart may or may not excel at telling stories
and may actually annoy listeners.
● A dilettante is someone who dabbles at a career or
hobby and so may not excel at anything.
● A pilferer steals repeatedly, in small quantities; this
has nothing to do with storytelling.
● A prevaricator tells lies, but not necessarily in an
accomplished or fascinating way; and the sentence
refers to stories, not lies.
You should choose the word that best fits the meaning of
the sentence as a whole, and only choice (E) does so.
Correct answer: (E) / Difficulty level: Hard
Passage-Based Reading
The reading questions on the SAT measure your ability to
read and think carefully about several different passages
ranging in length from about 100 to about 850 words.
Passages are taken from a variety of fields, including the
humanities, social studies, natural sciences, and literary
fiction. They vary in style and can include narrative, argu-
mentative, and expository elements. Some selections con-
sist of a pair of related passages on a shared issue or theme;
in some of the questions, you are asked to compare and
contrast these passages.
The following kinds of questions may be asked about a
passage:
● Vocabulary in Context: These questions ask you to
determine the meanings of words from their con-
text in the reading passage.
● Literal Comprehension: These questions assess
your understanding of significant information
directly stated in the passage.
● Extended Reasoning: These questions measure
your ability to synthesize and analyze information
as well as to evaluate the assumptions made and
the techniques used by the author. Most of the
reading questions fall into this category. You may
be asked to identify cause and effect, make infer-
ences, recognize a main idea or an author’s tone,
or follow the logic of an analogy or an argument.
Answering Passage-Based Reading
Questions
Following are samples of the kinds of reading passages and
questions that may appear on your test. For each set of
sample materials:
● read the passage carefully;
● decide on the best answer to each question;
● read the explanation for the correct answer.
/
Some of the reading passages in the SAT are as short as a
paragraph or two, about 100 words in length. You will
also find one or more pairs of related short passages in
each edition of the test. Such material will be followed by
one to five questions that measure the same kinds of
reading skills that are measured by the questions following
longer passages.
Directions
The passages below are followed by questions based on
their content; questions following a pair of related passages
may also be based on the relationship between the paired
passages. Answer the questions on the basis of what is
stated or implied in the passages and in any introductory
material that may be provided.
Sample Questions
Questions 3-4 are based on the following passage.
“The rock was still wet. The animal
was glistening, like it was still swimming,”
recalls Hou Xianguang. Hou discovered the
unusual fossil while surveying rocks as a
paleontology graduate student in 1984, near
the Chinese town of Chengjiang. “My teach-
ers always talked about the Burgess Shale
animals. It looked like one of them. My
hands began to shake.”
Hou had indeed found a Naraoia like
those from Canada. However, Hou’s animal
was 15 million years older than its Canadian
relatives.
Some questions ask you to recognize the meaning of a word
as it is used in the passage.
3. In line 4, “surveying” most nearly means
(A) calculating the value of
(B) examining comprehensively
(C) determining the boundaries of
(D) polling randomly
(E) conducting a statistical study of
The word “surveying” has a number of meanings, several
of which are included in the choices above. In the context
of this passage, however, only (B) makes sense. A student
in the field of “paleontology” is one who studies prehistoric
life as recorded in fossil remains. One of the activities of a
paleontology student would be to examine rocks carefully
and “comprehensively” while looking for fossils.
● (A), (C), and (E) are incorrect because someone
who studies fossils would not calculate the “value”
of rocks, or determine the “boundaries” of rocks,
or conduct a “statistical study” of rocks.
● (D) is wrong because “polling” rocks makes no
sense at all.
Correct answer: (B) / Difficulty level: Easy
You may be asked to make an inference or draw a conclusion
about a statement made in the passage.
4. It can be inferred that Hou Xianguang’s “hands
began to shake” (line 9) because Hou was
(A) afraid that he might lose the fossil
(B) worried about the implications of his finding
(C) concerned that he might not get credit for his
work
(D) uncertain about the authenticity of the fossil
(E) excited about the magnitude of his discovery
In the passage, Hou states that the fossil that he found
“looked like” certain other fossils that his “teachers always
talked about.” He understands almost immediately, there-
fore, the significance of what he has found, and so (E) is
the correct answer: Hou’s hands were shaking because he
was “excited about the magnitude of his discovery.”
● (A) is wrong because there is no suggestion that
Hou was “afraid that he might lose the fossil.”
● (B) and (C) are wrong because the passage does
not indicate that Hou was “worried about” his dis-
covery or “concerned that he might not get credit.”
The passage indicates only that Hou recognized
that he had found something valuable.
● (D) is wrong because Hou’s immediate reaction
is that he thinks he has found an important fossil.
The first two sentences of the passage dramatize
the discovery; it is Hou’s excitement, not his uncer-
tainty, that causes him to tremble.
Correct answer: (E) / Difficulty level: Easy
Questions 5-8 are based on the following passage.
This passage is adapted from a novel written by a woman in
1899. The novel was banned in many places because of its
unconventional point of view.
It was eleven o’clock that night when
Mr. Pontellier returned from his night out.
He was in an excellent humor, in high spir-
its, and very talkative. His entrance awoke
his wife, who was in bed and fast asleep
when he came in. He talked to her while he
undressed, telling her anecdotes and bits of
news and gossip that he had gathered during
the day. She was overcome with sleep, and
answered him with little half utterances.
He thought it very discouraging that
his wife, who was the sole object of his
existence, evinced so little interest in things
which concerned him and valued so little
his conversation.
Mr. Pontellier had forgotten the bonbons
and peanuts that he had promised the boys.
Notwithstanding, he loved them very much
and went into the adjoining room where
they slept to take a look at them and make
Line
5
10
Line
5
10
15
20
The Critical Reading Section
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SAT Preparation Booklet
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An indescribable oppression, which
seemed to generate in some unfamiliar part
of her consciousness, filled her whole being
with a vague anguish. It was like a shadow,
like a mist passing across her soul’s summer
day. It was strange and unfamiliar; it was a
mood. She did not sit there inwardly
upbraiding her husband, lamenting at Fate,
which had directed her footsteps to the path
which they had taken. She was just having a
good cry all to herself. The mosquitoes suc-
ceeded in dispelling a mood which might
have held her there in the darkness half a
night longer.
The following morning Mr. Pontellier
was up in good time to take the carriage
which was to convey him to the steamer at
the wharf. He was returning to the city to
his business, and they would not see him
again at the Island till the coming Saturday.
He had regained his composure, which
seemed to have been somewhat impaired the
night before. He was eager to be gone, as he
looked forward to a lively week in the
financial center.
Following are 4 sample questions about this passage. In the
actual test, as many as 13 questions may appear with a pas-
sage of this length.
You may be asked to interpret information presented
throughout the passage and to evaluate the effect of the
language used by the author.
5. The narrator would most likely describe Mr.
Pontellier’s conduct during the evening as
(A) typically generous
(B) justifiably impatient
(C) passionate and irrational
(D) patronizing and self-centered
(E) concerned and gentle
This question asks you to consider a large portion of the
passage and to make an inference about the narrator’s view
of “Mr. Pontellier’s conduct during the evening.” To answer
such a question, you should look carefully at the particular
words used and the details mentioned in the passage. For
example, in the first paragraph, Mr. Pontellier awakens his
wife after his “night out”; he seems not to notice or care
that she has been sound asleep. In lines 38–47, the narrator
describes Mr. Pontellier speaking to his wife in a superior
and condescending manner about “a mother’s place” in
caring for children and about how hard he works at “his
brokerage business.”
● (A) and (E) are not correct because the narrator
does not depict Mr. Pontellier’s words and actions
during the evening as “generous” or “gentle.”
sure that they were resting comfortably. The
result of his investigation was far from
satisfactory. He turned and shifted the
youngsters about in bed. One of them began
to kick and talk about a basket full of crabs.
Mr. Pontellier returned to his wife with
the information that Raoul had a high fever
and needed looking after. Then he lit his
cigar and went and sat near the open door
to smoke it.
Mrs. Pontellier was quite sure Raoul had
no fever. He had gone to bed perfectly well,
she said, and nothing had ailed him all day.
Mr. Pontellier was too well acquainted with
fever symptoms to be mistaken. He assured
her the child was burning with fever at that
moment in the next room.
He reproached his wife with her inatten-
tion, her habitual neglect of the children. If
it was not a mother’s place to look after chil-
dren, whose on earth was it? He himself had
his hands full with his brokerage business.
He could not be in two places at once; mak-
ing a living for his family on the street, and
staying home to see that no harm befell
them. He talked in a monotonous, insistent
way.
Mrs. Pontellier sprang out of bed and
went into the next room. She soon came
back and sat on the edge of the bed, leaning
her head down on the pillow. She said noth-
ing, and refused to answer her husband
when he questioned her. When his cigar was
smoked out he went to bed, and in half a
minute was fast asleep.
Mrs. Pontellier was by that time thor-
oughly awake. She began to cry a little, and
wiped her eyes on the sleeve of her night-
gown. She went out on the porch, where she
sat down in the wicker chair and began to
rock gently to and fro.
It was then past midnight. The cottages
were all dark. There was no sound abroad
except the hooting of an old owl and the
everlasting voice of the sea, that broke like a
mournful lullaby upon the night.
The tears came so fast to Mrs. Pontellier’s
eyes that the damp sleeve of her nightgown
no longer served to dry them. She went on
crying there, not caring any longer to dry
her face, her eyes, her arms. She could not
have told why she was crying. Such experi-
ences as the foregoing were not uncommon
in her married life. They seemed never
before to have weighed much against the
abundance of her husband’s kindness and a
uniform devotion which had come to be
tacit and self-understood.
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9
● (B) is not correct because the narrator does not
suggest that Mr. Pontellier’s conduct with his wife
is justifiable.
● (C) is not correct; although Mr. Pontellier’s
behavior is selfish and inconsiderate, it is not
“passionate”

in fact, the narrator states that Mr.
Pontellier “talked in a monotonous, insistent way.”
● (D) is correct because it accurately character-
izes the narrator’s description of Mr. Pontellier’s
behavior during the evening, “patronizing and
self-centered.” Someone who is “patronizing” has
an attitude of superiority and thus treats others
as if they were less important.
Correct answer: (D) / Difficulty level: Medium
Some questions ask you to focus on a specific piece of infor-
mation presented in the passage.
6. In context, the description in lines 46-47 of Mr.
Pontellier’s way of speaking suggests the narrator’s
belief that his complaints are
(A) stumbling and confused
(B) familiar and not as urgent as he claims
(C) angry and sarcastic
(D) too complex to make sense to anyone but
himself
(E) both rational and thought-provoking
In lines 46–47, the narrator describes Mr. Pontellier’s “way
of speaking” as “monotonous, insistent.” Previously, Mr.
Pontellier had told his wife that one of their sons “had a
high fever and needed looking after,” and he had criticized
Mrs. Pontellier for her “habitual neglect of the children.”
These are seemingly serious matters, and yet Mr. Pontellier
is described as not at all excited in the way that he commu-
nicates his opinions to his wife.
● (A) is wrong because Mr. Pontellier speaks assert-
ively to his wife throughout the passage, not in a
“stumbling” or uncertain manner.
● (C) is wrong because statements that are “monoto-
nous” and “insistent” are not “angry and sarcastic.”
● (D) and (E) are wrong because the narrator does
not indicate that Mr. Pontellier’s statements to his
wife are “too complex to make sense” or “rational
and thought-provoking.” In fact, the terms “monot-
onous” and “insistent” suggest that the statements
are rather dull and simpleminded.
● The correct answer is (B) because concerns that are
voiced “in a monotonous, insistent way” are likely
to be ones that are oft-repeated and “familiar,” and
probably “not as urgent” as Mr. Pontellier claims.
The statement in lines 53–55 also supports this
answer: “When his cigar was smoked out he went
to bed, and in half a minute was fast asleep.”
Correct answer: (B) / Difficulty level: Hard
Some questions require you to make an inference or draw a
conclusion about what you have read.
7. In lines 56-92, Mrs. Pontellier’s reactions to her
husband’s behavior on returning home suggest that
(A) she accepts unquestioningly her role of caring
for the children
(B) this is one of the first times she has
acknowledged her unhappiness
(C) her marriage is not what is making her so
depressed
(D) she is angry about something that happened
before her husband went out
(E) she is not as worldly as her husband is
In these lines, Mrs. Pontellier cries for a long time while
sitting alone on the porch. Her husband’s treatment of
her has upset her greatly. The narrator indicates that such
behavior by Mr. Pontellier was “not uncommon” but
that Mrs. Pontellier had not previously been too bothered
by such incidents: “They seemed never before to
have weighed much against the abundance of her
husband’s kindness. . . .”
● (A) is not correct because the issue of “caring for
the children” is not the focus of this part of the
passage; Mrs. Pontellier’s feelings of sadness and
“oppression” in this passage are not related to the
issue of “her role” as a mother.
● (C) is not correct because it is precisely her rela-
tionship with her husband that has made her “so
depressed.”
● (D) is not correct because there is no indication in
the passage that “something that happened before
her husband went out” has made Mrs. Pontellier
“angry.” In fact, it is his behavior after his return
that upsets her.
● (E) is not correct because whether Mrs. Pontellier
is “as worldly as her husband” is irrelevant to her
reaction to his treatment of her; the passage sug-
gests not that she lacks sophistication, but that he
lacks consideration.
● (B) is correct because Mrs. Pontellier’s “strange and
unfamiliar” mood of “oppression” and “anguish”
marks a new realization on her part of her “unhap-
piness” with her husband.
Correct answer: (B) / Difficulty level: Medium
You may be asked to consider the overall description of a
character, event, or phenomenon across an entire passage.
8. The passage shows Mr. Pontellier as happiest
when he
(A) is attending to his children
(B) sits outside and smokes a cigar
(C) makes up with his wife after an argument
(D) has been away from home or is about to leave
home
(E) has showered his children with gifts of candy
The Critical Reading Section
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SAT Preparation Booklet
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The passage begins with Mr. Pontellier “in an excellent
humor,” having just returned after a night away from
home. He becomes less happy, however, when his wife is
too sleepy to talk with him, and when he discovers that
his son Raoul “had a high fever and needed looking after.”
Subsequently, he lectures his wife about their family roles
and responsibilities, finishes his cigar, and goes to bed. The
next morning, Mr. Pontellier has “regained his composure”
and is “eager to be gone, as he looked forward to a lively
week” away from his family at work.
● (A) and (E) are not correct because Mr. Pontellier
gets upset the one time that he is “attending to” his
sons, and he has forgotten to bring them the treats
that he had promised.
● (B) is not correct because Mr. Pontellier is
described as neither happy nor unhappy while he
smokes; there are other occasions in the passage
when he is happier.
● (C) is not correct because the passage never shows
Mr. Pontellier making up with his wife after their
argument.
● (D) is the correct answer based on the description
of a happy Mr. Pontellier at the beginning and the
end of the passage, when “he has been away from
home or is about to leave home.”
Correct answer: (D) / Difficulty level: Medium
Questions 9-12 are based on the following passages.
These two passages were adapted from autobiographical
works. In the first, a playwright describes his first visit to a
theater in the 1930’s; in the second, an eighteenth-century
writer describes two visits to theaters in London.
Passage 1
I experienced a shock when I saw a cur-
tain go up for the first time. My mother had
taken me to see a play at the Schubert
Theater on Lenox Avenue in Harlem in New
York City. Here were living people talking to
one another inside a large ship whose deck
actually heaved up and down with the swells
of the sea. By this time I had been going to
the movies every Saturday afternoon
—Charlie Chaplin’s little comedies, adven-
ture serials, Westerns. Yet once you knew
how they worked, movies, unlike the stage,
left the mind’s grasp of reality intact since
the happenings were not in the theater
where you sat. But to see the deck of the
ship in the theater moving up and down,
and people appearing at the top of a ladder
or disappearing through a door—where did
they come from and where did they go?
Obviously into and out of the real world of
Lenox Avenue. This was alarming.
And so I learned that there were two
kinds of reality, but that the stage was far
more real. As the play’s melodramatic story
developed, I began to feel anxious, for there
was a villain on board who had a bomb and
intended to blow everybody up. All over the
stage people were looking for him but he
appeared, furtive and silent, only when the
searchers were facing the other way. They
looked for him behind posts and boxes and
on top of beams, even after the audience
had seen him jump into a barrel and pull
the lid over him. People were yelling, “He’s
in the barrel,” but the passengers were deaf.
What anguish! The bomb would go off any
minute, and I kept clawing at my mother’s
arm, at the same time glancing at the the-
ater’s walls to make sure that the whole
thing was not really real. The villain was
finally caught, and we happily walked out
onto sunny Lenox Avenue, saved again.
Passage 2
I was six years old when I saw my first
play at the Old Drury. Upon entering the
theater, the first thing I beheld was the green
curtain that veiled a heaven to my imagina-
tion. What breathless anticipations I
endured! I had seen something like it in an
edition of Shakespeare, an illustration of the
tent scene with Diomede in Troilus and
Cressida. (A sight of that image can always
bring back in a measure the feeling of that
evening.) The balconies at that time, full of
well-dressed men and women, projected
over the orchestra pit; and the pilasters*
reaching down were adorned with a glister-
ing substance resembling sugar candy. The
orchestra lights at length rose. Once the bell
sounded. It was to ring out yet once again—
and, incapable of the anticipation, I reposed
my shut eyes in a sort of resignation upon
my mother’s lap. It rang the second time.
The curtain drew up—and the play was
Artaxerxes! Here was the court of ancient
Persia. I took no proper interest in the
action going on, for I understood not its
import. Instead, all my feeling was absorbed
in vision. Gorgeous costumes, gardens,
palaces, princesses, passed before me. It was
all enchantment and a dream.
After the intervention of six or seven
years I again entered the doors of a theater.
That old Artaxerxes evening had never done
ringing in my fancy. I expected the same
feelings to come again with the same occa-
sion. But we differ from ourselves less at
sixty and sixteen, than the latter does from
six. In that interval what had I not lost! At
six I knew nothing, understood nothing,
discriminated nothing. I felt all, loved all,
Line
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wondered all. I could not tell how, but I had
left the temple a devotee, and was returned a
rationalist. The same things were there
materially; but the emblem, the reference,
was gone. The green curtain was no longer a
veil, drawn between two worlds, the unfold-
ing of which was to bring back past ages, but
a certain quantity of green material, which
was to separate the audience for a given time
from certain of their fellows who were to
come forward and pretend those parts. The
lights—the orchestra lights—came up a
clumsy machinery. The first ring, and the
second ring, was now but a trick of the
prompter’s bell. The actors were men and
women painted. I thought the fault was in
them; but it was in myself, and the alteration
which those many centuries—those six
short years—had wrought in me.
* Pilasters are ornamental columns set into walls.
Following are four sample questions about this pair of
related passages. In the test, some questions will focus on
Passage 1, others will focus on Passage 2, and about half or
more of the questions following each pair of passages will
focus on the relationships between the passages.
Some questions require you to identify shared ideas or simi-
larities between the two related passages.
9. The authors of both passages describe
(A) a young person’s sense of wonder at first
seeing a play
(B) a young person’s desire to become a
playwright
(C) the similarities between plays and other art forms
(D) how one’s perception of the theater may
develop over time
(E) the experience of reading a play and then
seeing it performed
To answer this question, you have to figure out what these
two passages have in common. The subject of Passage 1 is
a child’s first visit to see a play performed in a theater, and
how captivated he was by the entire experience. Passage 2
describes two different visits to the theater; at age six the
child is entranced by the spectacle of the performance, but
“after the intervention of six or seven years” the older and
now more knowledgeable child is not so impressed. (A) is
the correct answer because all of Passage 1 and the first
half of Passage 2 describe “a young person’s sense of won-
der at first seeing a play.”
● (B) is wrong; even though the introduction to
these passages reveals that one of the authors is a
“playwright,” there is no mention in either passage
of a “desire to become a playwright.”
● (C) is wrong because Passage 1 mentions differ-
ences rather than “similarities” between plays and
movies, and Passage 2 does not mention any “other
art forms” at all.
● (D) is wrong because only Passage 2 discusses “how
one’s perception of the theater may develop over
time”—this subject is unmentioned in Passage 1.
● (E) is wrong because there is no reference in either
passage to “the experience of reading a play.”
Correct answer: (A) / Difficulty level: Easy
Some questions assess your comprehension of information
that is directly stated in a passage.
10. The “happenings” mentioned in line 14 refer to the
(A) work undertaken to produce a movie
(B) events occurring in the street outside the theater
(C) fantasies imagined by a child
(D) activity captured on the movie screen
(E) story unfolding on the stage
To answer this question correctly, you have to understand
lines 11–15, a rather complex sentence that makes an
important distinction in Passage 1. The author indicates
that, unlike plays, movies leave “the mind’s grasp of reality
intact,” because the “happenings” in a movie are not occur-
ring in the actual theater. Instead, images are projected on
a screen in the theater. Thus (D) is the correct answer; the
word “happenings” refers to the “activity captured on the
movie screen.”
● (A) and (B) are wrong because, when you insert
them in place of the word “happenings,” the sen-
tence in lines 11–15 makes no sense.
● (C) is wrong; even if the movies being referred to
include “fantasies” in them, they are not “imagined
by a child” but are actually projected on the movie
screen.
● (E) is wrong because, in line 14, “happenings”
refers to the “story unfolding” in a movie, not “on
the stage.”
Correct answer: (D) / Difficulty level: Medium
You may be asked to recognize the author’s tone or attitude in
a particular part of a passage, or in the passage as a whole.
11. In the final sentence of Passage 2 (“I thought . . . in
me”), the author expresses
(A) exultation (B) vindication (C) pleasure
(D) regret (E) guilt
Even though this question focuses on a single sentence,
you must understand the context in which the statement
occurs in order to determine the feeling expressed by the
author. In the second paragraph of Passage 2, the author
states that the experience of attending a play at age 12 or
13 was much different than at age 6. “The same things were
there materially” in the theater, but the older child knew
much more than the younger one about what was going
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The Critical Reading Section
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SAT Preparation Booklet
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on. Ironically, this increased knowledge actually decreased
the author’s pleasure in attending the play. “In that interval
what had I not lost!” the author exclaims in line 78. Where
the younger child saw nobles in “the court of ancient
Persia,” the older child saw “men and women painted.”
Thus the final sentence of Passage 2 expresses “regret” con-
cerning the changes that “those many centuries—those six
short years—had wrought” in the author. (D) is the correct
answer.
● (A) and (C) are incorrect because the author does
not feel “exultation” about or take “pleasure” in the
“alteration” that has occurred; on the contrary, the
author laments it.
● (B) is incorrect because there is no expression of
“vindication” in the final sentence; the author is
not trying to justify, support, or defend the expe-
riences described in the passage, but rather to
explain the changes that have occurred due to the
passing of time.
● (E) is incorrect because, even though the final sen-
tence states that the “fault” was not in the actors
but in the now more knowledgeable child, the
author feels no “guilt” about the change. There is
no way to avoid the passage of time (and the learn-
ing that goes along with it). Aging is not the child’s
“fault,” but the loss of a youthful sense of wonder
and innocence can still cause regret.
Correct answer: (D) / Difficulty level: Hard
Some questions require you to determine and compare the
primary purpose or main idea expressed in each passage.
12. Which of the following best describes the
difference between Passages 1 and 2 ?
(A) Passage 1 remembers an event with fondness,
while Passage 2 recalls a similar event with
bitter detachment.
(B) Passage 1 considers why the author responded
to the visit as he did, while Passage 2 supplies
the author’s reactions without further analysis.
(C) Passage 1 relates a story from a number of
different perspectives, while Passage 2
maintains a single point of view.
(D) Passage 1 treats the visit to the theater as a
disturbing episode in the author’s life, while
Passage 2 describes the author’s visit as joyful.
(E) Passage 1 recounts a childhood experience,
while Passage 2 examines how a similar
experience changed over time.
This question asks you to do two things: first, understand
the overall subject or purpose of each passage; second,
recognize an important “difference between” the two. The
correct answer is (E) because the entire first passage does
indeed tell the story of a particular “childhood experi-
ence”—a trip to the theater—whereas the second passage
describes two different trips to the theater and how the
“experience changed over time.”
● (A) is wrong because there is neither bitterness
nor “detachment” in Passage 2. In fact, the first
paragraph of Passage 2 expresses excitement
and “enchantment,” and the second paragraph
expresses disappointment and regret.
● (B) is wrong because Passage 2 includes a great
deal more than just “the author’s reactions” to
visiting the theater; most of the second paragraph
provides “further analysis” of what had changed
and why the reactions to the two visits were so
different.
● (C) is wrong because it reverses the two narrative
approaches in this pair of passages. Passage 1
“maintains a single point of view,” that of the
youthful first-time theatergoer, whereas the
author of Passage 2 presents at least two “different
perspectives,” that of the enchanted six-year-old
and of the older child returning to the theater.
● (D) is wrong because the author of Passage 1 does
not find his first visit to the theater “disturbing” in
a negative way. Although he feels “shock” when the
curtain goes up and anxiety during the play, these
responses merely indicate how effective and “real”
the performance was for him. In the end, the child
and his mother walked “happily” out of the theater.
Correct answer: (E) / Difficulty level: Easy
The Mathematics Section
13
The Mathematics Section
The mathematics section of the SAT contains two types of
questions:
● Standard multiple-choice (44 questions)
● Student-produced response questions that provide
no answer choices (10 questions)
Some questions are like those you may have seen in your
mathematics courses. The ability to reason logically in a
variety of situations, some of which may be new to you, is
tested throughout.
Calculator Policy
We recommend that you bring a calculator to use on the
mathematics section of the SAT. Every question on the test
can be solved without a calculator, but you will have an
advantage if you use a scientific or graphing calculator on
some questions.
Acceptable Calculators
Calculators permitted during testing are:
● Graphing calculators
● Scientific calculators
● Four-function calculators (not recommended)
If you have a calculator with characters that are one inch or
higher, or if your calculator has a raised display that might
be visible to other test-takers, you will be seated at the dis-
cretion of the test supervisor.
You will not be allowed to share calculators. You will be
dismissed and your scores will be canceled if you use your
calculator to share information during the test or to remove
test questions or answers from the test room.
Calculator Tips
● Remember to bring your calculator to the test.
Calculators will not be available at the test center. You
should be familiar with how to use the calculator
you bring to the test.
● Make sure your calculator is in good working
order and that batteries are fresh. If your calculator
fails during testing and you have no backup, you’ll
have to complete the test without it.
● Don’t buy an expensive, sophisticated calculator
just to take the test. Although you can use them
for the test, more sophisticated calculators are not
required for any problem.
● Don’t try to use a calculator on every question.
First, decide how you will solve the problem, and
then decide whether to use the calculator. The calcu-
lator is meant to aid you in problem solving, not to
get in the way.
● Get your thoughts down before using your calcula-
tor. It may help to do scratch work in the test book.
● Take the practice test in this booklet with a calcula-
tor at hand. This will help you determine how much
you will probably use a calculator the day of the test.
Unacceptable Calculators
The following calculators are not permitted:
● Models that have a QWERTY (i.e., typewriter)
keypad, either as part of hardware or software
● Models that have pen-input, stylus, or touch-screen
capability or have wireless or Bluetooth capability
● Models that use paper tape, “talk” or make unusual
noises, or require an electrical outlet
● Models that can access the Internet
● Models that have cell phone capability or have audio/
video recording capability
● Models that have a digital audio/video player or have
a camera
Approaches to the Mathematics
Section
● Familiarize yourself with the directions ahead of time.
● The test does not require you to memorize formulas.
Commonly used formulas are provided in the test
book at the beginning of each mathematics section. It
is up to you to decide which formula is appropriate.
● Read the problem carefully. Note key words that
tell you what the problem is asking. Ask yourself the
following questions before you solve each problem:
What is the question asking? What do I know?
● With some problems, it may be useful to draw a
sketch or diagram of the given information.
● Use the test book for scratch work. You are not
expected to do all the reasoning and figuring in your
head. You will not receive credit for anything writ-
ten in the booklet, but you will be able to check your
work easily later.
● Decide when to use a calculator.
● For multiple-choice questions, you may want to
refer to the answer choices before you determine
your answer.
● Eliminate choices. If you don’t know the correct
answer to a question, try some of the choices. It’s
sometimes easier to find the wrong answers than the
correct one. On some questions, you can eliminate all
the incorrect choices.
● Make sure your answer is a reasonable answer to
the question asked. This is especially true for
student-produced response questions, where no
answer choices are given.
● All figures are drawn to scale unless otherwise
indicated.
SAT Preparation Booklet
14
Mathematics Review
Number and Operations (20–25%)
● Arithmetic word problems (including percent,
ratio, and proportion)
● Properties of integers (even, odd, prime numbers,
divisibility, etc.)
● Rational numbers
● Sets (union, intersection, elements)
● Counting techniques
● Sequences and series (including exponential
growth)
● Elementary number theory
Algebra and Functions (35–40%)
● Substitution and simplifying algebraic expressions
● Properties of exponents
● Algebraic word problems
● Solutions of linear equations and inequalities
● Systems of equations and inequalities
● Quadratic equations
● Rational and radical equations
● Equations of lines
● Absolute value
● Direct and inverse variation
● Concepts of algebraic functions
● Newly defined symbols based on commonly used
operations
Geometry and Measurement (25–30%)
● Area and perimeter of a polygon
● Area and circumference of a circle
● Volume of a box, cube, and cylinder
● Pythagorean Theorem and special properties of
isosceles, equilateral, and right triangles
● Properties of parallel and perpendicular lines
● Coordinate geometry
● Geometric visualization
● Slope
● Similarity
● Transformations
Data Analysis, Statistics, and
Probability (10–15%)
● Data interpretation (tables and graphs)
● Descriptive statistics (mean, median, and mode)
● Probability
Number and Operations
● Integers: . . . , −4, −3, −2, −1, 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, . . .
(Note: zero is neither positive nor negative.)
● Consecutive Integers: Integers that follow in
sequence; for example, 22, 23, 24, 25. Consecutive
integers can be more generally represented by
n, n + 1, n + 2, n + 3, . . .
● Odd Integers: . . . , −7, −5, −3, −1, 1, 3, 5, 7, . . . ,
2 1 k + , . . . where k is an integer
● Even Integers: . . . , −6, −4, −2, 0, 2, 4, 6, . . . , 2k,
. . . , where k is an integer (Note: zero is an even
integer.)
● Prime Numbers: 2, 3, 5, 7, 11, 13, 17, 19, . . .
(Note: 1 is not a prime and 2 is the only even prime.)
● Digits: 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9
(Note: the units digit and the ones digit refer to the
same digit in a number. For example, in the number
125, the 5 is called the units digit or the ones digit.)
Percent
Percent means hundredths, or number out of 100. For
example, 40 percent means
40
100
or 0.40 or
2
5
.
Problem 1: If the sales tax on a $30.00 item is $1.80, what
is the sales tax rate?
Solution: $ . $ . 1 80
100
30 00 = ×
n

n = 6 6 , % so is the sales tax rate.
Percent Increase / Decrease
Problem 2: If the price of a computer was decreased from
$1,000 to $750, by what percent was the price decreased?
Solution: The price decrease is $250. The percent decrease
is the value of n in the equation
250
1 000 ,
=
n
100
. The value of
n is 25, so the price was decreased by 25%.
Note: n% increase means
increase
original
=
n
100
;

n% decrease means
decrease
original
=
n
100
.
The Mathematics Section
15
Average Speed
Problem: José traveled for 2 hours at a rate of 70 kilome-
ters per hour and for 5 hours at a rate of 60 kilometers per
hour. What was his average speed for the 7-hour period?
Solution: In this situation, the average speed was
total distance
total time
The total distance was
2 hr 70
km
hr






+ 5 hr 60
km
hr






= 440 km.
The total time was 7 hours. Thus, the average speed was
440
7
km
hr
= 62
6
7
kilometers per hour.
Note: In this example, the average speed over the 7-hour
period is not the average of the two given speeds, which
would be 65 kilometers per hour.
Sequences
Two common types of sequences that appear on the SAT
are arithmetic and geometric sequences.
An arithmetic sequence is a sequence in which successive
terms differ by the same constant amount.
For example: 3, 5, 7, 9, . . . is an arithmetic sequence.
A geometric sequence is a sequence in which the ratio of
successive terms is a constant.
For example: 2, 4, 8, 16, . . . is a geometric sequence.
A sequence may also be defined using previously defined
terms. For example, the first term of a sequence is 2, and
each successive term is 1 less than twice the preceding
term. This sequence would be 2, 3, 5, 9, 17, . . .
On the SAT, explicit rules are given for each sequence. For
example, in the sequence above, you would not be expect-
ed to know that the 6th term is 33 without being given
the fact that each term is one less than twice the preced-
ing term. For sequences on the SAT, the first term is never
referred to as the zeroth term.
Algebra and Functions
Factoring
You may need to apply these types of factoring:
x x x x
2
2 2 + = + ( )
x x x
2
1 1 1 − = + ( ) − ( )
x x x x x
2
2
2 1 1 1 1 + + = + ( ) + ( ) = + ( )
2 5 3 2 1 3
2
x x x x + − = − ( ) + ( )
Functions
A function is a relation in which each element of the
domain is paired with exactly one element of the range.
On the SAT, unless otherwise specified, the domain of any
function
f
is assumed to be the set of all real numbers x
for which f x ( )
is a real number. For example, if
f x x ( ) = + 2, the domain of

f

is all real numbers
greater than or equal to −2. For this function, 14 is paired
with 4, since f 14 14 2 16 4 ( ) = + = = .
Note: the symbol represents the positive, or principal,
square root. For example, 16 4 = , not ±4.
Exponents
You should be familiar with the following rules for
exponents on the SAT.
For all values of a b x y , , , :
x x x
a b a b
⋅ =
+

x x
a
b
a b
( )
=


xy x y
a
a a
( ) = ⋅
For all values of a b x y , , , : > > 0 0
x
x
x
a
b
a b
=


x
y
x
y
a
a
a






=

x
x
a
a

=
1
Also, x x
a
b
a b
= . For example, x x
2
3
2 3
= .
Note: For any nonzero number x , it is true that x
0
1 = .
Variation
Direct Variation: The variable y is directly proportional to
the variable x if there exists a nonzero constant k such that
y kx = .
Inverse Variation: The variable y is inversely proportional
to the variable x if there exists a nonzero constant k such
that y
k
x
xy k = = or .
Absolute Value
The absolute value of x is defined as the distance from x to
zero on the number line. The absolute value of x is written
as x . For all real numbers x:
x
x x
x x
=

− <



,
,
if
if
0
0
For example:

2 2 2 0
2 2 2 2 0
0 0
= >
− =− − = −
=





,
( ) ,
since
since <
SAT Preparation Booklet
16
Geometry and Measurement
Figures that accompany problems are intended to provide
information useful in solving the problems. They are drawn
as accurately as possible EXCEPT when it is stated in a
particular problem that the figure is not drawn to scale. In
general, even when figures are not drawn to scale, the rela-
tive positions of points and angles may be assumed to be in
the order shown. Also, line segments that extend through
points and appear to lie on the same line may be assumed
to be on the same line. A point that appears to lie on a line
or curve may be assumed to lie on the line or curve.
The text “Note: Figure not drawn to scale” is included with
the figure when degree measures may not be accurately
shown and specific lengths may not be drawn proportion-
ally. The following examples illustrate what information
can and cannot be assumed from figures.
Example 1:
Since AD and BE are line segments, angles ACB and DCE
are vertical angles. Therefore, you can conclude that x y = .
Even though the figure is drawn to scale, you should NOT
make any other assumptions without additional informa-
tion. For example, you should NOT assume that AC CD =
or that the angle at vertex E is a right angle even though
they might look that way in the figure.
Example 2:
Note: Figure not drawn to scale.
A question may refer to a triangle such as ABC above.
Although the note indicates that the figure is not drawn to
scale, you may assume the following from the figure:
● ABD and DBC are triangles.
● D is between A and C.
● A, D, and C

are points on a line.
● The length of AD is less than the length of AC.
● The measure of angle ABD is less than the measure
of angle ABC.
You may not assume the following from the figure:
● The length of AD is less than the length of DC.
● The measures of angles BAD and BDA are equal.
● The measure of angle ABD is greater than the
measure of angle DBC.
● Angle ABC is a right angle.
Properties of Parallel Lines

m
k
a° b°
c° d°
w° x°
y° z°
1. If two parallel lines are cut by a third line, the
alternate interior angles are congruent. In the
figure above,
c x w d = = and .
2. If two parallel lines are cut by a third line, the cor-
responding angles are congruent. In the figure,
a w b x c y d z = = = = , , , and .
3. If two parallel lines are cut by a third line, the sum
of the measures of the interior angles on the same
side of the transversal is 180°. In the figure,
c w d x + = + = 180 180 and .
Angle Relationships
60° 50°

y° z°
1. The sum of the measures of the interior angles of a
triangle is 180°. In the figure above,
x = 70
because
60 50 180 + + = x .
2. When two lines intersect, vertical angles are
congruent. In the figure,
y = 50.
3. A straight angle measures 180°. In the figure,
z = 130

because z + = 50 180.
The Mathematics Section
17
4. In any triangle, the longest side is opposite the
largest angle, and the shortest side is opposite the
smallest angle. In the figure below, a b c < < .

5. Two polygons are similar if and only if the lengths
of their corresponding sides are in the same ratio
and the measures of their corresponding angles are
equal.

If polygons ABCDEF and GHIJKL are similar,
then AF and GL are corresponding sides, so that
AF
GL
BC
HI x
= = = =
10
5
2
1
18
. Therefore, x HI = = 9 .
Note: AF means the line segment with endpoints A and F,
and AF means the length of AF.
Area and Perimeter
Rectangles
Area of a rectangle = length width = × × w
Perimeter of a rectangle
Circles
Area of a circle = πr
2
(where r is the radius)
Circumference of a circle = 2π π r d = (where d is the
diameter)
Triangles
Area of a triangle =
1
2
base altitude × ( )

Perimeter of a triangle = the sum of the lengths of the
three sides
Triangle inequality: The sum of the lengths of any two
sides of a triangle must be greater than the length of the
third side.
4. The sum of the measures of the interior angles of a
polygon can be found by drawing all diagonals of
the polygon from one vertex and multiplying the
number of triangles formed by 180°.
Since this polygon is divided into
3 triangles, the sum of the mea-
sures of its angles is 3 × 180°, or
540°.
Unless otherwise noted in the SAT, the term “polygon” will
be used to mean a convex polygon, that is, a polygon in
which each interior angle has a measure of less than 180°.
A polygon is “regular” if all its sides are congruent and all
its angles are congruent.
Side Relationships
1. Pythagorean Theorem: In any right triangle,
a b c
2 2 2
+ = , where c is the length of the longest
side and a and b are the lengths of the two
shorter sides.
To find the value of x,
use the Pythagorean
Theorem.
x
x
x
x
2 2 2
2
2
3 4
9 16
25
25 5
= +
= +
=
= =
2. In any equilateral triangle, all sides are congruent
and all angles are congruent.
Because the measure of
the unmarked angle is
60°, the measures of all
angles of the triangle are
equal; therefore, the
lengths of all sides of the
triangle are equal:
x y = = 10.
3. In an isosceles triangle, the angles opposite con-
gruent sides are congruent. Also, the sides opposite
congruent angles are congruent. In the figures
below, a b x y = = and .

SAT Preparation Booklet
18
Volume
Volume of a rectangular solid (or cube) = × × w h

( is the length, w is the width, and h is the height)
Volume of a right circular cylinder = πr h
2
(r is the radius of the base, and h is the height)
Be familiar with the formulas that are provided in the
Reference Information included with the test directions.
Refer to the test directions in the sample test in this
publication.
Coordinate Geometry
1. In questions that involve the x- and y-axes,
x-values to the right of the y-axis are positive
and x-values to the left of the y-axis are negative.
Similarly, y-values above the x-axis are positive
and y-values below the x-axis are negative. In an
ordered pair ( , ) x y , the x-coordinate is written first.
Point P in the figure above appears to lie at the
intersection of gridlines. From the figure, you can
conclude that the x-coordinate of P is −2 and the
y-coordinate of P is 3. Therefore, the coordinates
of point P are

( ) , −2 3 . Similarly, you can conclude
that the line shown in the figure passes through the
point with coordinates ( ) , − − 2 1 and the point ( ) , 2 2 .
2. Slope of a line
=
change in -coordinates
change in -coordin
y
x aates

Slope of PQ = =
4
2
2
Slope of =
− −
− −
= −
1 2
2 2
3
4
( )
A line that slopes upward as you go from left to
right has a positive slope. A line that slopes down-
ward as you go from left to right has a negative
slope. A horizontal line has a slope of zero. The
slope of a vertical line is undefined.
Parallel lines have the same slope. The product
of the slopes of two perpendicular lines is −1,
provided the slope of each of the lines is defined.
For example, any line perpendicular to line
above has a slope of
4
3
.
The equation of a line can be expressed as
y mx b = + , where m is the slope and b is the

y-intercept. Since the slope of line is −
3
4
,
the equation of line can be expressed
as y x b = − +
3
4
. Since the point ( ) , −2 1 is on the
line, x y = − = 2 1 and

must satisfy the equation.
Hence, 1
3
2
1
2
= + = − b b , so , and the equation
of line is y x = − −
3
4
1
2
.
3. A quadratic function can be expressed as
y a x h k = − ( ) +
2
where the vertex of the parabola
is at the point ( , ) h k and a ≠ 0. If a > 0, the
parabola opens upward; and if a < 0, the parabola
opens downward.
x
O
y
(–2, 4)
(1, 1)
The parabola above has its vertex at ( ) , −2 4 .
Therefore, h = −2 and k = 4. The equation can be
represented by y a x = + + ( ) 2 4
2
. Since the parab-
ola opens downward, we know that a < 0.
To find the value of a, we also need to know
another point on the parabola. Since we know
the parabola passes through the point ( , ), 1 1

x y = = 1 1 and

must satisfy the equation. Hence,

1 1 2 4
1
3
2
= + ( ) + = − a a , so . Therefore, an
equation for the parabola is

y x = − + ( ) +
1
3
2 4
2
.
The Mathematics Section
19
Data Analysis, Statistics, and
Probability
Measures of Center
An average is a statistic that is used to summarize data.
The most common type of average is the arithmetic mean.
The average (arithmetic mean) of a list of n numbers is
equal to the sum of the numbers divided by n.
For example, the mean of 2, 3, 5, 7, and 13 is equal to
2 3 5 7 13
5
6
+ + + +
= .
When the average of a list of n numbers is given, the sum
of the numbers can be found. For example, if the average
of six numbers is 12, the sum of these six numbers is
The median of a list of numbers is the number in the mid-
dle when the numbers are ordered from greatest to least or
from least to greatest. For example, the median of 3, 8, 2, 6,
and 9 is 6 because when the numbers are ordered,
2, 3, 6, 8, 9, the number in the middle is 6. When there is
an even number of values, the median is the same as the
mean of the two middle numbers. For example, the medi-
an of 6, 8, 9, 13, 14, and 16 is the mean of 9 and 13,
which is 11.
The mode of a list of numbers is the number that occurs
most often in the list. For example, 7 is the mode of 2, 7, 5,
8, 7, and 12. The list 2, 4, 2, 8, 2, 4, 7, 4, 9, and 11 has two
modes, 2 and 4.
Note: On the SAT, the use of the word average refers to the
arithmetic mean and is indicated by “average (arithmetic
mean).” An exception is when a question involves average
speed (see page 15). Questions involving median and mode
will have those terms stated as part of the question’s text.
Probability
Probability refers to the chance that a specific outcome can
occur. When outcomes are equally likely, probability can be
found by using the following definition:
number of ways that a specific outcome can occur
total number of possible outcomes
For example, if a jar contains 13 red marbles and 7 green
marbles, the probability that a marble selected from the jar
at random will be green is
Note: The phrase at random in the preceding example
means that each individual marble in the jar is equally
likely to be selected. It does not mean the two colors are
equally likely to be selected.
If a particular outcome can never occur, its probability
is 0. If an outcome is certain to occur, its probability
is 1. In general, if p is the probability that a specific out-
come will occur, values of p fall in the range 0 1 ≤ ≤ p .
Probability may be expressed as either a decimal, a fraction,
or a ratio.
SAT Preparation Booklet
20
out techniques you’ll be able to use again. Most problems
can be solved in a variety of ways, so don’t be concerned
if your method is different from the one given. Note that
the directions indicate that you are to select the best of the
choices given.
The questions that follow will give you an idea of the type
of mathematical thinking required to solve problems on
the SAT. First, try to answer each question yourself, and
then read the solutions that follow. These solutions may
give you new insights into solving the problems or point
Directions
Sample Questions
Below are seven examples of standard multiple-choice
questions. Following each question, you will find one or
two solutions.
1. A special lottery is to be held to select the student
who will live in the only deluxe room in a dormi-
tory. There are 100 seniors, 150 juniors, and 200
sophomores who applied. Each senior’s name is
placed in the lottery 3 times; each junior’s name,
2 times; and each sophomore’s name, 1 time.
If a student’s name is chosen at random from the
names in the lottery, what is the probability that a
senior’s name will be chosen?
(A)
1
8
(B)
2
9
(C)
2
7

(D)
3
8
(E)
1
2

Correct answer: (D) / Difficulty level: Medium
N
o
t
e
s
1. The use of a calculator is permitted.
2. All numbers used are real numbers.
3. Figures that accompany problems in this test are intended to provide information useful in solving the problems.
They are drawn as accurately as possible EXCEPT when it is stated in a specific problem that the figure is not
drawn to scale. All figures lie in a plane unless otherwise indicated.
4. Unless otherwise specified, the domain of any function f is assumed to be the set of all real numbers x for which
f (x) is a real number.
h
r
r
h
b
A = r
2
C = 2 r
A = bh V = wh
V = r
2
h
The number of degrees of arc in a circle is 360.
The sum of the measures in degrees of the angles of a triangle is 180.
b
a
c
c
2
= a
2
+ b
2
Special Right Triangles
x 3
2x
x
60°
30°
s
s
45°
45°
A = w
w
w
h
R
e
f
e
r
e
n
c
e

I
n
f
o
r
m
a
t
i
o
n
2 s
1
2
For this section, solve each problem and decide which is the best of the choices given. Fill in the corresponding circle on the
answer sheet. You may use any available space for scratch work.
To determine the probability that a senior’s name will be
chosen, you must determine the total number of seniors’
names that are in the lottery and divide this number
by the total number of names in the lottery. Since each
senior’s name is placed in the lottery 3 times, there
are 3 100 300 × = seniors’ names. Likewise, there are
2 150 300 × = juniors’ names and 1 200 200 × =
sophomores’ names in the lottery. The probability
that a senior’s name will be chosen is
300
300 300 200
300
800
3
8 + +
= = .
Multiple-Choice Questions
The Mathematics Section
21
NOONTIME TEMPERATURES IN HILO, HAWAII

Mon. Tue. Wed. Thu. Fri. Sat. Sun.
66 78 75 69 78 77 70
2. The table above shows the temperatures at noon, in
degrees Fahrenheit, in a city in Hawaii over a one-
week period. If m represents the median of these tem-
peratures, f represents the temperature that occurred
most often, and a represents the average (arithmetic
mean) of these seven temperatures, which of the
following is the correct order of m, f, and a ?
(A) a m f < <

(B) a f m < < (C) m a f < <

(D) m f a < < (E) a m f = <
Correct answer: (A) / Difficulty level: Medium
To determine the correct order of m, f, and a, it is helpful
to first place the seven temperatures in ascending order, as
shown below:
66 69 70 75 77 78 78
The median temperature is the middle temperature in
the ordered list, which is 75, so m = 75. The temperature
that occurred most often, or the mode, is 78, so f = 78. To
determine the average, you can add the seven numbers
together and divide by 7. However, you can determine
the relationship between the average and the median by
inspection. The three numbers greater than 75 are closer to
75 than are the three numbers smaller than 75. Therefore,
the average of the seven numbers will be less than 75. The
correct order of m, f, and a is a m f < < .
3. The projected sales volume of a video game
cartridge is given by the function s p
p a
( ) =
+
3000
2
,
where s is the number of cartridges sold, in
thousands; p is the price per cartridge, in dollars;
and a is a constant. If according to the projections,
100,000 cartridges are sold at $10 per cartridge,
how many cartridges will be sold at $20 per
cartridge?
(A) 20,000 (B) 50,000 (C) 60,000
(D) 150,000 (E) 200,000
Correct answer: (C) / Difficulty level: Medium
For 100,000 cartridges sold at $10 per cartridge,
s = 100 (since s is the number of cartridges sold,
in thousands) and p = 10. Substituting into the equation
yields 100
3000
2 10
=
( ) + a
. Solving this equation for a yields
100 20 3000
20 30
10
+ ( ) =
+ =
=
a
a
a
Since a is a constant, the function can be written as
s
p
p
( ) =
+
3000
2 10
. To determine how many cartridges will
be sold at $20 per cartridge, you need to evaluate
s 20
3000
2 20 10
60 ( ) =
( ) +
= . Since s is given in thousands,
there will be 60,000 cartridges sold at $20 per cartridge.
x
(1, 2)
y
O
4. In the xy-coordinate plane above, line contains the
points (0, 0) and (1, 2). If line m (not shown) contains
the point (0, 0) and is perpendicular to , what is an
equation of m ?
(A) y x = −
1
2
(B) y x = − +
1
2
1

(C) y x = −

(D) y x = − + 2

(E) y x = −2
Correct Answer: (A) / Difficulty level: Medium
Using the coordinates of the two points given on line ,


the slope of is
2 0
1 0
2


= .
Line m, which is perpendicular
to , will have a slope of −
1
2
, since slopes of perpendicular
lines are negative reciprocals of each other. An equation
of m can be written as y x b = − +
1
2
. Since line m also
contains point (0, 0), it follows that b = 0. Therefore, an
equation of line m is y x = −
1
2
.
SAT Preparation Booklet
22
Note: Figure not drawn to scale.
a b
c
5. If two sides of the triangle above have lengths 5
and 6, the perimeter of the triangle could be which
of the following?
I. 15
II. 20
III. 22
(A) I only (B) I and II only (C) I and III only
(D) II and III only (E) I, II, and III
Correct answer: (B) / Difficulty level: Hard
In questions of this type, statements I, II, and III should
each be considered independently of the others. In this
question, you must determine which of those statements
could be true.
● Statement I states that 15 could be the perimeter
of the triangle. This is true. If the perimeter of the
triangle is 15, and two sides have lengths 5 and
6, then the third side of the triangle would have
length 15 − (6 + 5), or 4. A triangle can have side
lengths of 4, 5, and 6. So the perimeter of the
triangle could be 15.
● Similarly, statement II is true. If 20 is the perimeter
of the triangle, then the third side of the triangle
would have length 20 – (6 + 5), or 9. A triangle can
have side lengths of 5, 6, and 9. So the perimeter of
the triangle could be 20.
● Finally, consider whether the triangle could have
a perimeter of 22. In this case, the length of the
third side would be 22 – (6 + 5) = 11. The triangle
inequality states that the sum of the lengths of any
two sides of a triangle must be greater than the
length of the third side. Since the sum of 5 and 6 is
not greater than 11, it follows that 5, 6, and 11 can-
not be the lengths of the sides of a triangle, and so
the given triangle cannot have a perimeter of 22.
Therefore, the correct answer to the question is I and II
only, which is choice (B).
6. If x
x
x
x
m
> = 1
3
and , what is the value of m ?
(A) −
7
2
(B) −3 (C) −
5
2

(D) −2 (E) −
3
2

Correct answer: (C) / Difficulty level: Medium
Since x can be written as x
1
2
and
1
3
x
can be
written as x
−3
, the left side of the equation is
x x x x x x
m
1
2
1
2
5
2
5
2
3
3
⋅ = = =








− −
. Since , the value
of m is −
5
2
.
7. If k is divisible by 2, 3, and 15, which of the follow-
ing is also divisible by these numbers?
(A) k + 5 (B) k + 15 (C) k + 20
(D) k + 30 (E) k + 45
Correct answer: (D) / Difficulty level: Medium
Since k is divisible by 2, 3, and 15, k must be a multiple
of 30, as 30 is the least common multiple of 2, 3, and 15.
Some multiples of 30 are 0, 30, 60, 90, and 120.
● If you add two multiples of 30, the sum will also be
a multiple of 30. For example, 60 and 90 are multiples
of 30, and their sum, 150, is also a multiple of 30.
● If you add a multiple of 30 to a number that is not
a multiple of 30, the sum will not be a multiple of
30. For example, 60 is a multiple of 30 and 45 is
not. Their sum, 105, is not a multiple of 30.
● The question asks which answer choice is divis-
ible by 2, 3, and 15—that is, which answer choice
is a multiple of 30. All the answer choices are in
the form of “k plus a number.” Only choice (D),
k + 30, is the sum of k and a multiple of 30. The
sum of k and 30 is also a multiple of 30, so the
correct answer is choice (D).
The Mathematics Section
23
Student-Produced Response Questions
Questions of this type have no answer choices provided.
Instead, you must solve the problem and fill in your answer
on a special grid. Ten questions on the test will be of this type.
It is very important for you to understand the directions
for entering answers on the grid. You will lose valuable
testing time if you read the directions for the first time
when you take the test.
A primary advantage of this format is that it allows you
to enter the form of the answer that you obtain, whether
whole number, decimal, or fraction. For example, if you
obtain 2/5, you can grid 2/5. If you obtain .4, you can grid .4.
Generally, you should grid the form of the answer that you
obtain naturally in solving the problem. The grid will only
hold numbers that range from 0 to 9999. Decimals and
fractions can also be gridded.
Each of the remaining questions requires you to solve the problem and enter your answer by marking the circles
in the special grid, as shown in the examples below. You may use any available space for scratch work.
Decimal Answers: If you obtain a decimal answer
with more digits than the grid can accommodate,
it may be either rounded or truncated, but it must
fill the entire grid. For example, if you obtain
an answer such as 0.6666..., you should record
your result as .666 or .667. A less accurate value
such as .66 or .67 will be scored as incorrect.
Acceptable ways to grid are:

2
3
Note: You may start your answers
in any column, space permitting.
Columns not needed should be left
blank.
Mark no more than one circle in any column.
Because the answer sheet will be machine-
scored, you will receive credit only if the circles
are filled in correctly.
Although not required, it is suggested that you
write your answer in the boxes at the top of the
columns to help you fill in the circles accurately.
Some problems may have more than one correct
answer. In such cases, grid only one answer.
No question has a negative answer.
Mixed numbers such as 3 must be gridded as
3.5 or 7 2. (If is gridded, it will be
interpreted as , not 3 .)
1
2
1
2
31
2






1
2
3
4
5
6
0
1
2
3
4
5
6
0
1
2
3
4
5
6
0
1
2
3
4
5
6
1
2
3
4
5
6
¥
0
1
2
3
4
5
0
1
2
3
4
5
0
1
2
3
4
5
1
2
3
4
5
6
¥
0
1
2
3
4
5
0
1
2
3
4
5
0
1
2
3
4
5
6
Answer: 2.5
Fraction
line Decimal
point
Write answer
in boxes.
Grid in
result.
Answer: 201
Either position is correct.
7
12
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
0
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
0
1
2
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5
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7
8
9
0
1
2
3
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5
6
7
8
9
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
0
1
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7
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9
0
1
2
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5
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7
8
9
0
1
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5
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7
8
9
1
2
3
4
0
1
2
3
4
0
1
2
3
4
0
1
2
3
4
0
1
2
3
4
0
1
2
3
0
1
2
3
1
2
3
Answer:

Below are the actual directions that you will find on the test—read them carefully.
● Do your best to be certain of your answer before
you grid it. If you erase your answer, do so com-
pletely. Incomplete erasures may be picked up by
the scoring machines as intended answers.
● Check your work if your answer does not fit on
the grid. If you obtain a negative value, a value
greater than 9999, or an irrational number, you
have made an error.
● Make an educated guess if you don’t know the
answer. On student-produced response (grid-in)
questions, you don’t lose points for wrong answers.
● Always enter your answer on the grid. Only
answers entered on the grid are scored. Your hand-
written answer at the top of the grid isn’t scored.
However, writing your answer at the top of the grid
may help you avoid gridding errors.
Approaches to Student-Produced
Response Questions
● Decide in which column you want to begin grid-
ding your answers before the test starts. This
strategy saves time. We recommend that you grid
the first (left-hand) column of the grid or that you
right-justify your answers.
● If the answer is zero, grid it in column 2, 3, or 4.
Zero has been omitted from column 1 to encour-
age you to grid the most accurate values for
rounded answers. For example, an answer of 1/8
could also be gridded as .125 but not as 0.12,
which is less accurate.
● A fraction does not have to be reduced unless it
will not fit the grid. For example, 15/25 will not
fit. You can grid 3/5, 6/10, or 9/15. The decimal
form, .6, can also be gridded.
SAT Preparation Booklet
24
9. For all positive integers a and b, let a ࡗ b be
defined by a ࡗ b =
+

a
a
b
1
1
. What is the value
of 4 ࡗ 2?
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
0
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
0
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
0
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
7 1 3
/
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
0
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
0
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
0
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
6 5 6
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
0
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
0
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
0
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
7 5 6
The words “let a ࡗ b be defined by” tell you that the symbol
ࡗ is not supposed to represent a common mathematical
operation but one that is made up for this question. To
evaluate 4 ࡗ 2, you substitute 4 for a and 2 for b in
the expression
a
a
b
+

1
1
.

This gives
4 1
4 1
2
+

, which equals
17
3
. The answer may be entered in the grid as 17/3 or as
5.66 or 5.67.
Difficulty level: Medium
10. Of the 6 courses offered by the music department
at her college, Kay must choose exactly 2 of them.
How many different combinations of 2 courses
are possible for Kay if there are no restrictions on
which 2 courses she can choose?
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
0
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
0
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
0
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9 9 9 9
5 1
There are 6 courses offered; let us refer to them as 1, 2, 3,
4, 5, and 6. One way to find the number of combinations is
to list all possible pairings. They are 1-2, 1-3, 1-4, 1-5, 1-6,
2-3, 2-4, 2-5, 2-6, 3-4, 3-5, 3-6, 4-5, 4-6, and 5-6. There are
15 combinations. Note that 1-2 and 2-1 represent the same
combination, so only one is in the list.
Sample Questions
Below are five examples of student-produced response
questions. Following each question, you will find a solution
and several ways to enter the correct answer.
4 7 5
3 8 1
x
x
− =
− =
8. What value of x satisfies both of the equations
above?

1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
0
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
0
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
0
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
1 2 /

1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
0
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
0
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
0
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
5

Since 4 7 5 x − = , the value of 4 7 5 5 x − − is either or .

4 7 5
4 12
3
x
x
x
− =
=
=

or
4 7 5
4 2
1
2
x
x
x
− = −
=
=
The two values of x that satisfy the first equation are
3 and
1
2
.
Since the value of is either 3 8 1 3 8 1 − = − x x , or −1.

3 8 1
8 2
1
4
− =
=
=
x
x
x

or
3 8 1
8 4
1
2
− = −
=
=
x
x
x
The two values of x that satisfy the second equation are
1
4
and
1
2
. You are asked to find the value of x that
satisfies both equations. That value is
1
2
. The answer can
be entered in the grid as 1/2 or .5.
Difficulty level: Hard
The Mathematics Section
25
You could also notice that there are 5 pairings that start
with course 1 and 4 additional pairings that start with
course 2, and so forth. The total number of combinations
is 5 4 3 2 1 15 + + + + = .
You could also solve the problem by noting that the total
number of permutations (that is, the number of differ-
ent ways 2 of 6 courses could be selected) is 6 for the first
course selected times 5 for the second course selected,
or 6 5 30 × = . To find the number of combinations, you
must divide the number of permutations by the number of
arrangements. For each pair of courses A-B selected,
the arrangement B-A is also possible. Therefore, there
are 2 arrangements. So the number of combinations is
30 2 15 ÷ = .
Difficulty level: Medium
11.
Let the function be defined by f f x x x ( ) = −
2
7 ++
+ ( ) =
10
1 0
.
, If what is one possible va f t llue of t ?

1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
0
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
0
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
0
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
1

1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
0
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
0
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
0
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
4
Since f x x x ( ) = − +
2
7 10, substituting t + ( ) 1 for x into
the function yields f t t t + ( ) = + ( ) − + ( ) + 1 1 7 1 10
2
, or
f t t t t + ( ) = + +
( )
− + ( ) + 1 2 1 7 7 10
2
, or
f t t t + ( ) = − + 1 5 4
2
.
Since f t + ( ) = 1 0, it follows that t t
2
5 4 0 − + = ,

or
t t − ( ) − ( ) = 1 4 0. Therefore, t t = = 1 4 or .
Another way to solve the question would be to use a
dummy variable k. For example, let k t = + 1.
f k k k k k ( ) = − + = − ( ) − ( )
2
7 10 5 2 .

Since k t = + 1
and f t + ( ) = 1 0,

it follows that f k ( ) = 0.

So
k k − ( ) − ( ) = 5 2 0, and therefore, k k = = 5 2 or .
Since or t k t t = − = = 1 4 1 , .
This question asks for one possible value of t. Either 1 or 4
satisfies the question being asked. Choose only one correct
answer (not both) to enter in the grid.
When there is a range of possible correct answers, your
gridded response must lie within the range. For example,
consider a problem for which all numbers between 4 and 5,
exclusive, are correct answers. For this problem, although
4.0002 is within the range 4 5 < < ( ) t , its rounded value
4.00 is not within the range and therefore would not be
considered a correct answer to the problem.
Difficulty level: Hard
12. Three parallel lines in a plane are intersected by
a fourth line, forming twelve angles. If one of the
angles has measure 28°, how many of the other
eleven angles have measure 28° ?
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
0
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
0
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
0
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
5
Drawing the figure described in the problem will help you
visualize the correct solution to the problem. The figure
below shows three parallel lines intersected by a fourth
line. The acute angle is labeled 28°.
28°
Using the fact that vertical angles and alternate interior
angles are equal, you can put a check showing the other
angles in the figure that also measure 28°, as shown below.
28°
There are 5 other angles that measure 28°. Therefore, the
correct answer to this problem is 5. The number 5 can be
gridded in any of the four columns on the answer grid.
Difficulty level: Easy
SAT Preparation Booklet
26
The Writing Section
The writing section includes both multiple-choice ques-
tions and a direct writing measure in the form of an essay.
The multiple-choice sections include:
● Improving sentences (25 questions)
● Identifying sentence errors (18 questions)
● Improving paragraphs (6 questions)
The multiple-choice sections measure your ability to
● communicate ideas clearly and effectively;
● improve a piece of writing through revision and
editing;
● recognize and identify sentence-level errors;
● understand grammatical elements and structures
and how they relate to one another in a sentence;
● recognize correctly formed grammatical structures;
● clearly express ideas through sentence combining
and use of transitional words and phrases;
● improve coherence of ideas within and among
paragraphs.
Note: Calculators may not be on your desk or be used on
the writing section of the SAT.
Characteristics of Effective Writing
Multiple-choice writing questions focus on common problems associated with four characteristics of effective writing. Illustrations of problems are given
below. The fifth category of questions requires recognition of correct sentences and effective writing strategies.
Writing problem Sentence illustrating the problem Should be...
1. Being consistent
Sequence of tenses After he broke his arm, he is home for two weeks. After he broke his arm, he was home for two weeks.
Shift of pronoun If you are tense, one should try to relax. If you are tense, you should try to relax.
Parallelism She skis, plays tennis, and flying hang gliders. She skis, plays tennis, and flies hang gliders.
Noun agreement Carmen and Sarah are both a pilot. Carmen and Sarah are both pilots.
Pronoun reference Several people wanted the job, so he or she filled
out the required applications.
Several people wanted the job, so they filled out the
required applications.
Subject–verb agreement There is eight people on the shore. There are eight people on the shore.
2. Expressing ideas logically
Coordination and subordination Tawanda has a rash, and she is probably allergic to
something.
Tawanda has a rash; she is probably allergic to
something.
Logical comparison Nathan grew more vegetables than his neighbor’s
garden.
Nathan grew more vegetables than his neighbor
grew.
Modification and word order Barking loudly, the tree had the dog's leash wrapped
around it.
Barking loudly, the dog wrapped its leash around
the tree.
3. Being clear and precise
Ambiguous and vague pronouns In the newspaper they say that few people voted. The newspaper reported that few people voted.
Diction He circumvented the globe on his trip. He circumnavigated the globe on his trip.
Wordiness There are many problems in the contemporary world
in which we live.
There are many problems in the contemporary world.
Improper modification If your car is parked here while not eating in the
restaurant, it will be towed away.
If you park here and do not eat in the restaurant, your
car will be towed away.
4. Following conventions
Pronoun case He sat between you and I at the stadium. He sat between you and me at the stadium.
Idiom Natalie had a different opinion for her. Natalie had a different opinion of her.
Comparison of modifiers Of the sixteen executives, Naomi makes more money. Of the sixteen executives, Naomi makes the most
money.
Sentence fragment Fred having to go home early. Fred has to go home early.
Comma splice Mary took time out of her busy schedule to visit her
aunt, John decided to continue working through the
summer.
Mary took time out of her busy schedule to visit her
aunt, but John decided to continue working through
the summer.
5. Recognizing effective writing Some sentences require students to recognize that there is no error.
The Writing Section
27
Improving Sentences
This question type measures your ability to
● recognize and correct faults in grammar and
sentence structure;
● recognize effective sentences that follow the con-
ventions of standard written English.
Directions
The following sentences test correctness and effective-
ness of expression. Part of each sentence or the entire
sentence is underlined; beneath each sentence are five
ways of phrasing the underlined material. Choice A
repeats the original phrasing; the other four choices
are different. If you think the original phrasing pro-
duces a better sentence than any of the alternatives,
select choice A; if not, select one of the other choices.
In making your selection, follow the requirements of
standard written English; that is, pay attention to
grammar, choice of words, sentence construction, and
punctuation. Your selection should result in the most
effective sentence—clear and precise, without awkward-
ness or ambiguity.
EXAMPLE:
Laura Ingalls Wilder published her first book
and she was sixty-five years old then.
(A) and she was sixty-five years old then
(B) when she was sixty-five
(C) at age sixty-five years old
(D) upon the reaching of sixty-five years
(E) at the time when she was sixty-five
a , c d e
Answering Improving Sentences
Questions
Read the entire sentence carefully but quickly and ask
yourself whether the underlined portion is correct or
whether it needs to be revised.
Remember that choice (A) is the same as the under-
lined portion. Even if you think that the sentence does
not require correction and that choice (A) is the correct
answer, it is a good idea to read each choice quickly to
make sure.
When reading choices (A) through (E), replace the under-
lined part of the sentence with each answer choice to
determine which revision results in a sentence that is clear
and precise and meets the requirements of standard writ-
ten English.
Look for common problem areas in sentences. These
include subject-verb agreement, parallelism, placement of
modifiers, and the use of relative clauses.
Remember that the right answer will be the one correct
version among the five choices.
Keep in mind that while the answer choices change, the
rest of the sentence stays the same.
In the example, connecting the two ideas (“Laura Ingalls
Wilder published her first book”) and (“she was sixty-five
years old then”) with the word “and” indicates that the
two ideas are equally important. The word “and” should
be replaced to establish the relationship between the two
ideas.
● The word “and” indicates that the two ideas it con-
nects are equally important. No.
● Replacing the word “and” with “when” clearly
expresses the information that the sentence is intended
to convey by relating Laura Ingalls Wilder’s age to her
achievement. Yes, but continue to look at the other
revisions.
● Using the word “at” results in a phrase that is not
idiomatic. No.
● The phrase “upon the reaching of ” also results in a
phrase that is not idiomatic. No.
● The phrase “at the time when she was sixty-five” is
awkward and wordy. No.
Correct answer: (B) / Difficulty level: Easy
Sample Questions
1. Scenes from the everyday lives of African
Americans, which are realistically depicted in the
paintings of Henry Ossawa Tanner.
(A) Scenes from the everyday lives of African
Americans, which are realistically depicted in
the paintings of Henry Ossawa Tanner.
(B) Scenes from the everyday lives of African
Americans being realistically depicted in the
paintings of Henry Ossawa Tanner.
(C) The paintings of Henry Ossawa Tanner
realistically depict scenes from the everyday
lives of African Americans.
(D) Henry Ossawa Tanner, in his realistic
paintings, depicting scenes from the everyday
lives of African Americans.
(E) Henry Ossawa Tanner, whose paintings
realistically depict scenes from the everyday
lives of African Americans.
For a sentence to be grammatically complete, it must
include both a subject and a main verb. When a sentence
lacks either a subject or a main verb, the result is a sentence
fragment. In this example, all options but (C) are sentence
fragments.
SAT Preparation Booklet
28
Directions
The following sentences test your ability to recognize
grammar and usage errors. Each sentence contains
either a single error or no error at all. No sentence
contains more than one error. The error, if there is
one, is underlined and lettered. If the sentence con-
tains an error, select the one underlined part that
must be changed to make the sentence correct. If the
sentence is correct, select choice E.
In choosing answers, follow the requirements of
standard written English.
EXAMPLE:
The other delegates and him immediately
A B C
accepted the resolution drafted by the
D
neutral states. No error
E
a , c d e
Answering Identifying Sentence
Errors Questions
Read the entire sentence carefully but quickly, paying
attention to the underlined choices (A) through (D). Ask
yourself whether any of the underlined words or phrases
in the sentence contains a grammar or usage error. Keep in
mind that some sentences do not contain an error.
Select the underlined word or phrase that must be changed
to make the sentence correct. Mark (E) No error if you
believe that the sentence is correct as written.
Develop the habit of looking for the most common mistakes
that people make in grammar: subject–verb agreement,
pronoun reference and agreement, and adjective/adverb
confusion.
In the example above, “The other delegates and him” are the
people who “immediately accepted the resolution,” and the
phrase “drafted by the neutral states” describes “the resolu-
tion.” Check each underlined word or phrase for correctness.
● The phrase “The other” correctly modifies the
word “delegates.”
● The pronoun “him” is in the wrong case. (One
would not say “him immediately accepted.”) “Him”
is an error, but go on to check the other choices,
especially if you are not sure.
● The word “immediately” correctly modifies the verb
“accepted.”
● The phrase “drafted by” correctly expresses the
action of the “neutral states.”
Correct answer: (B) / Difficulty level: Easy
● In (A), the phrase “Scenes . . . Americans” is modi-
fied by the dependent clause “which . . . Tanner,”
but there is no main verb.
● In (B), the phrase “Scenes . . . Tanner” contains no
main verb.
● In (D), the noun “Henry Ossawa Tanner” is modified
by “depicting” but is not combined with a main verb.
● And in (E), the noun “Henry Ossawa Tanner”
is modified by the dependent clause “whose . . .
Americans” but not combined with a main verb.
● (C) is correct. It is the only choice in which a sub-
ject (“The paintings of Henry Ossawa Tanner”) is
combined with a verb (“depict”) to express a com-
plete thought.
Correct answer: (C) / Difficulty level: Medium
2. Looking up from the base of the mountain, the
trail seemed more treacherous than it really was.
(A) Looking up
(B) While looking up
(C) By looking up
(D) Viewing
(E) Viewed
When a modifying phrase begins a sentence, it must logi-
cally modify the sentence’s subject; otherwise, it is a dan-
gling modifier. In this example, every option except (E) is a
dangling modifier.
● In (A), the phrase “Looking up from the base of
the mountain” does not logically modify the sub-
ject “the trail.” A person might stand at the base of
a mountain and look up at a trail, but it is illogical
to suggest that a trail looks up from the base of a
mountain.
● (B), (C), and (D) are simply variations of the error
found in (A). Each results in a sentence that illogi-
cally suggests that a trail was looking up from the
base of a mountain.
● (E) is correct. Although a trail cannot itself look up
from the base of a mountain, a trail can be viewed
by someone looking up from the base of a moun-
tain, so the phrase “Viewed from the base of the
mountain” logically modifies the subject “the trail.”
Correct answer: (E) / Difficulty level: Hard
Identifying Sentence Errors
This question type measures your ability to
● recognize faults in grammar and usage;
● recognize effective sentences that follow the
conventions of standard written English.
The Writing Section
29
Sample Questions
3. The students have discovered that they can address

A B
issues more effectively through letter-writing

C

campaigns and not through public

D
demonstrations. No error

E
● The error in this sentence occurs at (D). When a
comparison is introduced by the adverb “more,” as
in “more effectively,” the second part of the com-
parison must be introduced by the conjunction
“than” rather than “and not.”
● The other options contain no errors. In (A), the plural
verb “have discovered” agrees with the plural sub-
ject “students.” In (B), the plural pronoun “they”
correctly refers to the plural noun “students.”
In (C), the preposition “through” appropriately
expresses the means by which issues are addressed.
● The sentence may be corrected as follows: The stu-
dents have discovered that they can address issues
more effectively through letter-writing campaigns
than through public demonstrations.
Correct answer: (D) / Difficulty level: Medium
4. After hours of futile debate, the committee has

A
decided to postpone further discussion

B
of the resolution until their next meeting.

C D
No error

E
● The error in this sentence occurs at (D). A pro-
noun must agree in number (singular or plural)
with the noun to which it refers. Here, the singular
verb “has” establishes “the committee” as a singular
noun; therefore, the plural pronoun “their” is used
incorrectly.
● The other options contain no errors. In (A), the
preposition “After” appropriately introduces a
phrase that indicates when the committee made
its decision. In (B), “to postpone” is the verb form
needed to complete the description of the commit-
tee’s decision. In (C), the prepositional phrase “of
the resolution” appropriately specifies the subject
of the postponed discussion.
● The sentence may be corrected as follows: After
hours of futile debate, the committee has decided
to postpone further discussion of the resolution
until its next meeting.
Correct answer: (D) / Difficulty level: Hard
Improving Paragraphs
This type of question measures your ability to
● edit and revise sentences in the context of a para-
graph or entire essay;
● organize and develop paragraphs in a coherent and
logical manner;
● apply the conventions of standard written English.
Directions
The following passage is an early draft of an essay.
Some parts of the passage need to be rewritten.
Read the passage and select the best answers for the
questions that follow. Some questions are about
particular sentences or parts of sentences and ask
you to improve sentence structure or word choice.
Other questions ask you to consider organization
and development. In choosing answers, follow the
requirements of standard written English.
Answering Improving Paragraphs
Questions
To answer the improving paragraphs questions that accom-
pany the draft essay, you will need to note what sentences
need to be corrected and to know how each sentence relates
to the other sentences and to the essay as a whole.
Read the entire essay quickly to determine its overall
meaning. The essay is intended as a draft, so you will
notice errors.
In answering each question, make sure that your answer
about a particular sentence or group of sentences makes
sense in the context of the passage as a whole. Choose the
best answer from among the choices given, even if you can
imagine another correct response.
Sample Questions
Questions 5-7 are based on the following passage:
(1) Many times art history courses focus on the great
“masters,” ignoring those women who should have
achieved fame. (2) Often women artists like Mary Cassatt
have worked in the shadows of their male contemporaries.
(3) They have rarely received much attention during their
lifetimes.
(4) My art teacher has tried to make up for it by teaching
us about women artists and their work. (5) Recently she
came to class very excited; she had just read about a little-
known artist named Annie Johnson, a high school teacher
who had lived all of her life in New Haven, Connecticut.
(6) Johnson never sold a painting, and her obituary in
1937 did not even mention her many paintings.
SAT Preparation Booklet
30
(7) Thanks to Bruce Blanchard, a Connecticut business-
man who bought some of her watercolors at an estate sale.
(8) Johnson is finally starting to get the attention that she
deserved more than one hundred years ago. (9) Blanchard
now owns a private collection of hundreds of Johnson’s
works—watercolors, charcoal sketches, and pen-and-ink
drawings.
(10) There are portraits and there are landscapes.
(11) The thing that makes her work stand out are the por-
traits. (12) My teacher described them as “unsentimental.”
(13) They do not idealize characters. (14) Characters are
presented almost photographically. (15) Many of the peo-
ple in the pictures had an isolated, haunted look. (16) My
teacher said that isolation symbolizes Johnson’s life as an
artist.
5. In context, which is the best revision to the under-
lined portion of sentence 3 (reproduced below)?
They have rarely received much attention during
their lifetimes.
(A) In fact, they had
(B) Too bad these artists have
(C) As a result, these women have
(D) In spite of this, women artists
(E) Often it is the case that the former have
Although sentence 3 is not grammatically incorrect, its
relationship to the preceding sentence needs to be made
clearer. A transitional phrase should be added to empha-
size the cause-and-effect relationship between the stated
facts—women artists received little attention as a conse-
quence of having worked in the shadows of their male con-
temporaries—and the ambiguous pronoun “They” should
be replaced with a word or phrase that clearly refers to the
“women artists” and not the “male contemporaries” men-
tioned in sentence 2.
● (A), (B), and (D) are unsatisfactory because in each
case the transitional phrase (“In fact,” “Too bad,” or
“In spite of this”) fails to indicate the cause-and-
effect relationship. Moreover, both (A) and (B)
leave the ambiguity of the pronoun unresolved.
● (E) is unsatisfactory not only because it fails to
signal the cause-and-effect relationship, but also
because it is wordy and illogically combines the
adverbs “Often” and “rarely.”
● (C) is correct. The transitional phrase “As a result”
clearly indicates a cause-and-effect relationship,
and “these women” properly resolves the ambiguity
of the pronoun “They.”
Correct answer: (C) / Difficulty level: Hard
6. In context, which of the following revisions to sen-
tence 7 is most needed?
(A) Delete “Thanks to”.
(B) Move “Thanks to Bruce Blanchard” to the end
of sentence 7.
(C) Delete “who”.
(D) Change “her” to “Johnson’s”.
(E) Change the period to a comma and combine
sentence 7 with sentence 8.

Sentence 7 is a sentence fragment, with neither a subject
nor a main verb to finish the thought it has begun. It says
“Thanks to Bruce Blanchard,” but it does not say what
happened thanks to Bruce Blanchard. It should therefore
be joined to an independent clause, complete with sub-
ject and verb, that indicates what happened as a result of
Blanchard’s action.
● (A), (B), and (D) are unsatisfactory because each fails
to provide the main verb needed to complete the sen-
tence. Each results in another sentence fragment.
● Although (C) results in a complete sentence, the
sentence makes little sense in the context of the
paragraph because it suggests that Bruce Blanchard
is someone other than the Connecticut business-
man who bought the watercolors.
● (E) is correct. This change results in a grammati-
cally complete sentence that indicates what hap-
pened thanks to Bruce Blanchard’s efforts: Johnson
began to get the attention she deserved.
Correct answer: (E) / Difficulty level: Medium
7. In context, which of the following is the best version
of sentence 10 (reproduced below)?
There are portraits and there are landscapes.
(A) (As it is now)
(B) You can see both portraits and landscapes.
(C) Therefore, both portraits and landscapes are
among her works.
(D) Johnson painted both portraits and landscapes.
(E) Among them Johnson has portraits and landscapes.
In addition to being vague, sentence 10 contains no noun
to which the pronoun “her” in sentence 11 may refer. It
should be revised so that Johnson is clearly identified as
the painter of the portraits and landscapes.
● (A), (B), and (C) are unsatisfactory because they
do not mention Johnson.
● Though (E) does mention Johnson, it is mislead-
ing in that the words “Johnson has” suggest that
Johnson is the owner rather than the painter of the
portraits and landscapes.
● (D) is correct because it properly identifies Johnson
as the painter of the artworks and thus provides an
antecedent for the pronoun “her” in sentence 11.
Correct answer: (D) / Difficulty level: Easy
The Writing Section
31
The Essay
The essay measures your ability to
● develop a point of view on an issue presented in an
excerpt;
● support your point of view using reasoning and
examples from your reading, studies, experience, or
observations;
● follow the conventions of standard written English.
Approaches to the Essay
There are no short cuts to success on the SAT essay. You
will not receive high scores on your essay just because it is
long, or has five paragraphs, or uses literary examples. The
high school and college teachers who score the SAT reward
essays that insightfully develop a point of view with appro-
priate reasons and examples and that use language skill-
fully. So what can you do to write a successful SAT essay?
● Read the entire assignment. It’s all there to help
you. Every essay assignment contains a short
paragraph about the issue. Imagine that you are
talking to the author of the paragraph about the
issue. Would you argue with him or her, or agree?
What other ideas or examples would you bring up?
Answering these questions will help you develop
your own point of view.
● Don’t oversimplify. Developing your point of view
doesn’t mean coming up with as many examples as
you can. Rushing to give multiple relevant exam-
ples can lead you to oversimplify a complex topic.
An essay with one or two thoughtful, well-
developed reasons or examples is more likely to
get a high score than an essay with three short,
simplistic examples.
● There’s nothing wrong with “I.” You are asked to
develop your point of view on the issue, not give
a straight report of the facts. This is your opinion,
so feel free to use “I,” and give examples that are
meaningful to you, even ones from your personal
life or experiences. Of course you need to support
your ideas appropriately and show that you can
use language well, but remember: The essay is an
opportunity for you to say what you think about
an issue relevant to your life.
Directions
The essay gives you an opportunity to show how
effectively you can develop and express ideas. You
should, therefore, take care to develop your point of
view, present your ideas logically and clearly, and use
language precisely.
Your essay must be written on the lines provided on
your answer sheet—you will receive no other paper
on which to write. You will have enough space if you
write on every line, avoid wide margins, and keep
your handwriting to a reasonable size. Remember that
people who are not familiar with your handwriting
will read what you write. Try to write or print so that
what you are writing is legible to those readers.
Important Reminders:

A pencil is required for the essay. An essay written
in ink will receive a score of zero.

Do not write your essay in your test book. You
will receive credit only for what you write on your
answer sheet.

An off-topic essay will receive a score of zero.

If your essay does not reflect your original and
individual work, your test scores may be canceled.
You have twenty-five minutes to write an essay on the
topic assigned below.

Think carefully about the issue presented in the fol-
lowing excerpt and the assignment below.
Many persons believe that to move up the
ladder of success and achievement, they must
forget the past, repress it, and relinquish it.
But others have just the opposite view. They
see old memories as a chance to reckon with
the past and integrate past and present.
Adapted from Sara Lawrence-Lightfoot,
I’ve Known Rivers: Lives of Loss and
Liberation
Assignment: Do memories hinder or help people in their
effort to learn from the past and succeed in the present?
Plan and write an essay in which you develop your point
of view on this issue. Support your position with reasoning
and examples taken from your reading, studies, experience,
or observations.
Receive immediate essay scoring for this essay
prompt and many more in The Official SAT
Online Course

. Learn more at
collegeboard.com/satonlinecourse.
SAT Preparation Booklet
32
Sample Essays
Score of 6:
Without our past, our future would be a tortuous path
leading to nowhere. In order to move up the ladder of success
and achievement we must come to terms with our past and
integrate it into our future. Even if in the past we made mis-
takes, this will only make wiser people out of us and guide us
to where we are supposed to be.
This past year, I was auditioning for the fall play, “Cat
on a Hot Tin Roof.” To my detriment I thought it would be
a good idea to watch the movie in order to prepare. For two
hours I studied Elizabeth Taylor’s mannerisms, attitude,
and diction, hoping I could mimic her performance. I audi-
tioned for the part of “Maggie” feeling perfectly confident in
my portrayal of Elizabeth Taylor, however, I was unaware
that my director saw exactly what I had been thinking.
Unfortunately, I didn’t get the part, and my director told
me that he needed to see “Maggie” from my perspective, not
Elizabeth Taylor’s.
I learned from this experience, and promised myself I
would not try to imitate another actress, in order to create
my character. Perservering, I was anxious to audition for the
winter play just two months later. The play was Neil Simon’s
“Rumors,” and would get the opportunity to play “Chris,”
a sarcastic yet witty role, which would be my final perfor-
mance in high school. In order to develop my character, I
planned out her life just as I thought it should be, gave her
the voice I thought was right, and the rest of her char acter
unfolded beautifully from there. My director told me after
the first show that “Rumors” was the best work he’d ever
seen from me, and that he was amazed at how I’d devel-
oped such a believable character. Thinking back to my first
audition I was grateful for that chance I had to learn and
to grow, because without that mistake I might have tried to
base “Chris” off of someone I’d known or something I’d seen
instead of becoming my own character. I utilized the memo-
ry of the Elizabeth Taylor debacle to improve my approach to
acting and gave the best performance of my life so far.
This essay effectively and insightfully develops its point of
view (In order to move up the ladder of success and achieve-
ment we must come to terms with our past and integrate it
into our future) through a clearly appropriate extended
example drawing on the writer’s experience as an actor.
The essay exhibits outstanding critical thinking by pre-
senting a well-organized and clearly focused narrative that
aptly illustrates the value of memory. The essay also uses
language skillfully, demonstrating meaningful variety in
sentence structure (To my detriment I thought it would be
a good idea to watch the movie in order to prepare. For two
hours I studied Elizabeth Taylor’s mannerisms, attitude, and
diction, hoping I could mimic her performance. I auditioned
for the part of “Maggie” feeling perfectly confident in my por-
trayal of Elizabeth Taylor, however, I was unaware that my
director…). Despite minor errors, the essay demonstrates
clear and consistent mastery and is scored a 6.
Score of 6:
Memories act as both a help and a hinderance to the
success of someone. Many people advise you to learn from
the past and apply those memories so that you can effectively
succeed by avoiding repeating your past mistakes. On the
other hand, people who get too caught up with the past are
unable to move on to the future.
Elie Wiesel’s memoir Night perfectly exemplifies the
double nature of memories. Wiesel, a Jewish man, suffered
heavily throughout the Holocaust and Night is rife with
horrific descriptions of his experience. These memories help
to spread the view of what life was like. Through recounting
these memories, Wiesel is able to educate world readers
about the atrocities committed in hopes that the same
blatant violations of human rights are never repeated again.
Through reliving the Holocaust through his writing, Wiesel
was inspired to become proactive in the battle for civil rights.
Some would point to his peaceful actions and the sales of his
book and label him a success.
Despite the importance of recounting such memories,
Wiesel acknowledges the damage that memories can also
cause. Following his liberation from the Auschwitz concen-
tration camp, Wiesel was a bitter, jaded man. He could not
even write Night until several years later. The end of the
novel describes Wiesel’s gradual but absolute loss of faith
throughout the experience. His past experiences haunted him
for several years, rendering him passive. It was not until he
set aside his past that he could even focus on the future. Had
he remained so consumed with the pain and damage caused
in the past, he may never have achieved the success that he
has attained.
Overall, Wiesel’s experiences exemplify the importance
of the past as a guide. Wiesel’s past experiences helped to
guide him in later life, but it was not until he pushed them
aside that he could move on. To me this means that you
should rely on your past without letting it control you. Allow
your past to act as a guide, while making sure that you are
also living in the present and looking to the future.
This essay exhibits outstanding critical thinking by effec-
tively and insightfully developing its point of view (you
should rely on your past without letting it control you)
through the clearly appropriate example of Elie Wiesel’s
Holocaust memoir, Night. The essay demonstrates clear
coherence and smooth progression of ideas, carefully
contrasting Wiesel’s success in using his memories to gain
attention for his cause with the difficulty Wiesel faced in
dealing with those same powerful memories. The essay
uses language skillfully to convey Wiesel’s struggle (Despite
the importance of recounting such memories, Wiesel acknowl-
edges the damage that memories can also cause. Following
his liberation from the Auschwitz concentration camp, Wiesel
was a bitter, jaded man. He could not even write Night until
several years later). The essay demonstrates clear and con-
sistent mastery and receives a 6.
The Writing Section
33
Score of 5:
Memories and past experiences serve as a rail, a guid-
ing support, for people in an effort to succeed in the present.
People not only learn from the past, but the very act of going
through something provides experience for a person who is
to “move up the ladder of success and achievement”.
Some view failed experiences as a hinderance to future
success. This is very untrue because history has a tendency
of repeating itself, and in recognizing past failures, one can
learn how to successfully approach similar situations in
the future. An example of this is looking back in history to
WWI. Sedition acts at this time allowed for the imprison-
ment of anyone who voiced an opinion against the presi-
dent, or against the war. America recognized this shady
time in its past, and instead of covering it up in a move-
ment towards a more democratic nation, these acts were
published in textbooks and taught to students. Americans
saw the poor judgement of this situation and later with the
war in Iraq, approached “patriotism” differently. With this
present war, those adverse to the war are able to voice their
opinions without fear of imprisonment or death. In seeing
the undemocratic ways of an earlier era, America was able
to recognize the bad and try to reform it. If the Sedition Acts
had been forgotten then what is to say that they wouldn’t
come back? Remembering the failed times insures that
improvement is possible.
In my personal experience, I have found that the very act
of living through something not only matures me, but also
provides skills and knowledge. In remembering past events, I
am able to use them as reference, and sometimes assurance.
A personal example, somewhat juvenile, but also effective, is
when my first pet died. I was devastated and wanted to just
clear my mind of the event, but I didn’t. After time, I recov-
ered, but maintained the memory of this horrible tragedy.
Later in life, another pet died. I looked back to that memory
as a guide and learned from it that in time I would be fine
and to just hang on. In this situation, a memory served as a
reference and catalyzed in my personal growth and recovery.
Memories, good or bad, assist people in obtaining suc-
cess. Whether used as reference for guidance, or lessons
on what not to do, past experiences can only offer a gap
between the steps on the ladder of success. Forgetting the
past can and will only erase experience and knowledge from
a person and in affect hinder one in seeking achievement. In
looking at historical repeats and personal events, it is clear
that old memories can only aid in success.
This essay effectively develops its point of view (Memories
and past experiences serve as a rail, a guiding support, for
people in an effort to succeed in the present) through the
appropriate examples of dissent during wartime and
grieving for a pet, thus demonstrating strong critical think-
ing. Well organized and focused, the essay demonstrates
coherence and progression of ideas (In seeing the undemo-
cratic ways of an earlier era, America was able to recognize
the bad and try to reform it. If the Sedition Acts had been
forgotten then what is to say that they wouldn’t come back?
Remem bering the failed times insures that improvement is
possible). The essay also uses appropriate vocabulary and
demonstrates effective variety in sentence structure. To
earn a 6, this writer needs to achieve smoother progression
of ideas by using language more skillfully (the phrase “past
experiences can only offer a gap between the steps on the
ladder of success” seems to express the opposite of what
the writer intends). The essay demonstrates reasonably
consistent mastery and receives a 5.
Score of 5:
I agree with Ms. Sara Lawrence-Lightfoot in saying
that some people “see old memories as a chance to reckon
with the past and integrate past and present.” Many people
are so troubled by things that happened in their past that
they are not able to focus on the present. For example, in
the book Ceremony, by Leslie Marmon Silko, Tayo, the main
character, can not concentrate on the present because he
constantly hounds himself over things that happened dur-
ing World War II and his troubled childhood. However,
past memories can help people to succeed in the present. An
historical example of people learning from the past would
be the Marshall Plan. After the conclusion of World War II
there were many countries around the world in need of eco-
nomical assistence to help rebuild their war torn countries,
and the United States would have to be the one to provide
that assistence. Many American politicians thought it was
foolish for the US government to spend money abroad on
countries that would not be able to repay the loan for a long
time. However, George Marshall, a former general and later
Secretary of State under President Truman, remembered
how the exact same argument of “why should we spend
money on war torn nations that really owe us reparations?”
had been used after World War I towards Germany. The lack
of assistence towards Germany after World War I had caused
a gigantic economic depression in Germany that had made
the Mark (German money) virtually worthless. The German
people became so desperate that they started supporting an
extreme German nationalist named Adolf Hitler, who even-
tually started World War II. Marshall knew that if the US
did not help war torn Germany and, especially, Japan, we
could eventually have a World War III on our hands.
This focused essay effectively develops its point of view and
demonstrates strong critical thinking (Many people are so
troubled by things that happened in their past that they are
not able to focus on the present. . . . However, past memories
can help people to succeed in the present). The essay uses
appropriate reasoning and examples and demonstrates
coherence and progression of ideas (Many American politi-
cians thought it was foolish for the US government to spend
money abroad on countries that would not be able to repay
the loan for a long time. However, George Marshall . . .
remembered how the exact same argument . . . had been used
after World War I towards Germany). The essay also exhibits
facility in the use of language. To earn a score of 6, the
writer needs to achieve clearer coherence and smoother
progression of ideas by integrating the example of
Ceremony more effectively into the overall essay, perhaps
through an extended comparison of Tayo’s and Marshall’s
experiences of World War II. The essay demonstrates rea-
sonably consistent mastery and is scored a 5.
SAT Preparation Booklet
34
Score of 4:
Interestingly enough, I fall in the middle of these state-
ments. I believe that one should remember the past and
learn from those events. However, I also believe that many
bad memories harm the present and the future. The only
way to continue, many times, is to forget and forgive.
My brother, who is college, has proved to me the impor-
tance of getting good grades and actively participating in
extracorrecular activities. These two ideas helped him to get
into the prestegious college of the University of Notre Dame.
His education there will allow him to have a prosperous
career as an adult. Reviewing these facts and ideas has led
me to believe if I do the same, I will have a similar promising
career. Consequently, I have gotten good grades and have seen
interest from many prestigious programs.
Through my knowledge, I have learned that in many
bad instances, time to forget is very important. Ireland, for
example, had been persecuted for many hundreds of years
from 1000 AD to 1900 AD. After being granted the Irish Free
State, they attacked many parts of Britain for retribution of
those many years of being oppressed. Consequently there has
been on going hostility between the two peoples. This hostil-
ity has cost the lives of many hundreds of people. A quote
once said, “Violence begets violence” is the perfect phrase for
this warfare. The only way to stop the loss of life is to forget
and forgive; start anew.
Different situations require different actions to proceed
in a positive manner. Many times, people are required to use
both elements. For example, let’s forget this part and
concentrate on how to bring this positive part into light.
Both of the ideas on remembering and forgetting have their
reasons for existing and both are positive.
This essay provides adequate reasons and examples to
support both aspects of its point of view (I believe that
one should remember the past and learn from those events.
However, I also believe that many bad memories harm the
present and the future), thus demonstrating competent crit-
ical thinking. The essay is generally organized and focused
and features coherence and progression of ideas. Facility in
the use of language is adequate, despite some inconsisten-
cies (Through my knowledge, I have learned that in many
bad instances, time to forget is very important). The essay
also has some errors in grammar, usage, and mechanics. To
earn a higher score, the writer should provide additional
appropriate evidence and use critical thinking to extend
the discussion of situations in which “people are required
to use both elements.” The essay demonstrates adequate
mastery and receives a 4.
Score of 4:
The point of making mistakes is to learn from them.
If you don’t learn from what you do wrong, then making
mistakes has no silver lining, it is purely bad. I have come to
believe this through personal experience and watching others.
When climbing the “ladder of success,” each step gets
you closer to the top. Therefore each step is a mistake that
you learned from, a good decision, or even a stroke of luck.
How could a person climb that ladder without each and
every wooden rung to help them? I am human, therefor,
far from perfect, I make mistakes all of the time and I am a
better person because of that. You could almost say that the
more mistakes a person makes, the stronger a person they
are, assuming of course that they learn from them.
As a child I stole cookies from the cookie jar, lied to my
parents (still happens every once in awhile), and played
tricks on my brothers. I, in turn, got in trouble with my par-
ents and was punished. After that I learned that those things
aren’t okay. Now I tend to make different mistakes, such as,
going to places that aren’t safe for me, and giving up when
things get hard. Life is a huge cycle of making mistakes and
learning from them. That is why people can become so wise
and strong in what they do, they make good out of the bad.
I also see people close to me using problems and mis-
takes to make a good situation out of a bad one. My parents,
my brothers, and my closest friends are all slowly building
up the knowledge to be successful. How can a person be more
successful by forgetting what they have already learned?
That doesn’t push you forward it just holds a person back.
Even if a person wanted to forget their past, they couldn’t.
It’s like forgetting that if a stove is turned on and you touch
it, it will burn you.
This essay develops a point of view (Life is a huge cycle of
making mistakes and learning from them) with adequate
reasons and examples, thus demonstrating competent criti-
cal thinking. Generally organized and focused around the
notion that remembering past learning experiences is cru-
cial for success, the essay is marked by coherence and pro-
gression of ideas (As a child I stole cookies from the cookie
jar, lied to my parents . . . , and played tricks on my brothers.
I, in turn, got in trouble with my parents and was punished.
After that I learned that those things aren’t okay. Now I tend
to make different mistakes). The essay also exhibits adequate
facility in the use of language, despite some errors (I am
human, therefor, far from perfect, I make mistakes all of the
time and I am a better person because of that). To attain a
higher score, the writer needs to support and extend the
essay’s argument with additional focused examples of peo-
ple learning, or not learning, from their experiences. The
essay demonstrates adequate mastery and is scored a 4.
The Writing Section
35
Score of 3:
Memories can be helpful to some and hinder others. I
believe that memories from different aspects of ones life have
different consequences. One memory may be bad and it may
be best forgotten about, when trying to succeed. Though
some memories may give on strength to suceed in achieving
a higher status in life.
When a person completes a task they have done once
before, it trigers a memory and lets the reader reflect on that
particular time in life. For example, a sporting team at the
local high school makes it to the state championships, but
severly loses to their opponent, the next time they get to the
state championships they may think about the past and how
they lost before, and it may hinder there feelings and they
may once again lose. This demonstrates how a memory can
ruin a certain activity for ever. On the other hand a memory
can also help someone to move up the ladder of success. As
an example if a person has cancer and is given treatment
then diagnosed in remission they feel like they have beat the
cancer. When the patient in remission is later told that the
cancer has grown back, the patient might feel that they can
kill the cancer again because when looking at the past they
see they have beat it once why not beat it again. This demon-
strates how a memory can be helpful to a person. In this case
it did not help the person climb the ladder of success though
it helped the to continue climbing the ladder of life to the
extent that they were able to climb.
Those two short examples just go to demonstrate how
memories of the past can both help and hinder a person in
their path of not only success but also in the path of life.
This essay develops a point of view (Memories can be help-
ful to some and hinder others) and shows some critical
thinking by providing examples of the positive and nega-
tive effects of memories. However, the examples are limited
in focus, featuring some lapses in coherence and progres-
sion of ideas, and are thus inadequate to support the posi-
tion. The essay also demonstrates occasional problems
in sentence structure and mechanics. To achieve a higher
score, this writer needs to use critical thinking to clarify
and expand each example by adding additional focused
reasoning and details. The writer also needs to avoid using
run-on sentences (. . . when looking at the past they see they
have beat it once why not beat it again). The essay demon-
strates developing mastery and earns a 3.
Score of 2:
I think it is wrong to believe that to move up the ladder
of success and achievement, that they must forget the past,
repress it, and relinquish it. Everything you did and saw in
the past helps you to move on. Every single happy moment,
every mistake you make is getting a part of you. Your actions
become habits which creates your personality and helps you
to make your own experience. Therefore memories help peo-
ple in their effort to learn from the past and succeed in the
present. Everything we do has to do with our experiences in
the past, the way we get along with people or treat them, the
way we turn out to be an adult. If you don’t live with mak-
ing your own decisions, mistakes, and your experience with
people and the world or school you won’t have any examples
to compare or to handle any coming situations in the future.
If you get everything told you by someone, you will always
wait for other people to make decisions for you and won’t
have your own point of view. For succeed you have to know
what you want, to find that out, you have to have been
through some difficult situations in the PAST.
Although it expresses a point of view (I think it is wrong
to believe that to move up the ladder of success and achieve-
ment, that they must forget the past, repress it, and relinquish
it), this essay is seriously limited, exhibiting weak critical
thinking, insufficient use of evidence, and serious problems
with progression of ideas. The essay also demonstrates fre-
quent problems in usage, grammar, and sentence structure.
To achieve a higher score, the writer needs to develop the
point of view with reasons and specific examples instead
of merely repeating the same vague ideas (Everything you
did and saw in the past helps you to move on. . . . Everything
we do has to do with our experiences in the past). The essay
demonstrates little mastery and is scored a 2.
Score of 1:
My oppion on this topic are oposing memories and
favoring them. People do succed with repeating their memo-
ries. They might have horrible memories but also succeed
because they don’t repeat the past. I also think memories
should not rule the present. If you let the past overcome the
preset you won’t get any where. This is why memories should
be guidelines, not rules. If you repeat the past it won’t come
out as well as it did because the world has changed. See the
past will never change with the world, but the world will
change to overcome the past. So in conclusion don’t forget
the past or live in it, and the past is only guidelines.
This minimal essay demonstrates very little mastery, offer-
ing only a collection of general ideas in support of the
writer’s point of view (don’t forget the past or live in it, and
the past is only guidelines). The evidence presented is disor-
ganized and unfocused, resulting in a disjointed essay. To
earn a higher score, this writer needs to provide additional
focused evidence that develops the point of view, including
specific examples. The essay demonstrates very little mas-
tery and receives a 1.
SAT Preparation Booklet
36
Scoring the Essay
Essays are scored in a manner that is fair and consistent,
using a holistic approach. In holistic scoring, a piece of
writing is considered as a total work, the whole of which is
greater than the sum of its parts. Essays are scored by expe-
rienced high school teachers and college faculty members.
The majority of essay readers teach English, composition,
or language arts courses. Each essay is scored indepen dently
by two readers on a scale of 1 to 6, with 6 being the highest
score. The combined score for both readers will range from
2 to 12. If the two readers’ scores are more than one point
apart, a third reader resolves the discrepancy.
In scoring the essays, readers follow the scoring guide below.
The scoring guide describes the features typically found in
essays at each score point, including critical thinking, devel-
opment, organization, language use, and sentence structure.
A student can get a top score on the essay even with minor
errors in grammar, usage, and mechanics. The SAT essay
neither rewards nor penalizes formulaic approaches to writ-
ing, such as the five-paragraph essay.
There is no formula for effective writing, no single best
way to communicate an idea. Any essay that features clear
lines of reasoning, appropriate choices of evidence, ample
development of ideas, effective organization, and precise
use of language will receive a high score, regardless of style
or approach. Readers are trained to recognize and reward a
wide variety of essays at each score point.
SCORING GUIDE
SCORE OF 6 SCORE OF 5 SCORE OF 4
An essay in this category demonstrates clear and
consistent mastery, although it may have a few
minor errors. A typical essay
An essay in this category demonstrates reason-
ably consistent mastery, although it will have
occasional errors or lapses in quality. A typical
essay
An essay in this category demonstrates adequate
mastery, although it will have lapses in quality. A
typical essay
• effectively and insightfully develops a point
of view on the issue and demonstrates
outstanding critical thinking, using clearly
appropriate examples, reasons, and other
evidence to support its position
• effectively develops a point of view on the
issue and demonstrates strong critical thinking,
generally using appropriate examples, reasons,
and other evidence to support its position
• develops a point of view on the issue and
demonstrates competent critical thinking,
using adequate examples, reasons, and other
evidence to support its position
• is well organized and clearly focused,
demonstrating clear coherence and smooth
progression of ideas
• is well organized and focused, demonstrating
coherence and progression of ideas
• is generally organized and focused, demon-
strating some coherence and progression of
ideas
• exhibits skillful use of language, using a
varied, accurate, and apt vocabulary
• exhibits facility in the use of language, using
appropriate vocabulary
• exhibits adequate but inconsistent facility in
the use of language, using generally appropri-
ate vocabulary
• demonstrates meaningful variety in sentence
structure
• demonstrates variety in sentence structure • demonstrates some variety in sentence
structure
• is free of most errors in grammar, usage, and
mechanics
• is generally free of most errors in grammar,
usage, and mechanics
• has some errors in grammar, usage, and
mechanics
SCORE OF 3 SCORE OF 2 SCORE OF 1
An essay in this category demonstrates
developing mastery, and is marked by ONE OR
MORE of the following weaknesses:
An essay in this category demonstrates little
mastery, and is flawed by ONE OR MORE of the
following weaknesses:
An essay in this category demonstrates very little
or no mastery, and is severely flawed by ONE OR
MORE of the following weaknesses:
• develops a point of view on the issue, demon-
strating some critical thinking, but
may do so inconsistently or use inadequate
examples, reasons, or other evidence to
support its position
• develops a point of view on the issue that is
vague or seriously limited, and demonstrates
weak critical thinking, providing inappropriate
or insufficient examples, reasons, or other
evidence to support its position
• develops no viable point of view on the issue,
or provides little or no evidence to support its
position
• is limited in its organization or focus, or may
demonstrate some lapses in coherence or
progression of ideas
• is poorly organized and/or focused, or
demonstrates serious problems with coherence
or progression of ideas
• is disorganized or unfocused, resulting in a
disjointed or incoherent essay
• displays developing facility in the use of lan-
guage, but sometimes uses weak vocabulary
or inappropriate word choice
• displays very little facility in the use of
language, using very limited vocabulary or
incorrect word choice
• displays fundamental errors in vocabulary
• lacks variety or demonstrates problems in
sentence structure
• demonstrates frequent problems in sentence
structure
• demonstrates severe flaws in sentence
structure
• contains an accumulation of errors in grammar,
usage, and mechanics
• contains errors in grammar, usage, and
mechanics so serious that meaning is
somewhat obscured
• contains pervasive errors in grammar, usage,
or mechanics that persistently interfere with
meaning
Essays not written on the essay assignment will receive a score of zero.
The Writing Section
37
Official SAT Practice
Test
About the Practice Test
Take the practice test, which starts on page 46, to reinforce
your test-taking skills and to be more comfortable when
you take the SAT. This practice test will give you a good
idea of what to expect on the actual test. However, the test
you eventually take will differ in some ways. It may, for
example, contain a different number of reading passages,
and its sections may be in a different order.
Also, this practice SAT includes only nine of the ten subsec-
tions that the actual test contains. Section 4 is an unscored
subsection and has been omitted on this test because it
contains questions that may be used in future editions of
the SAT.
The practice test will help you most if you take it under
conditions as close as possible to those of the actual test.
Approaches to the Practice Test
● Set aside 3 hours and 20 minutes of uninterrupted
time. That way you can complete the entire test in
one sitting. Note: the total testing time is 3 hours
and 45 minutes, but you save 25 minutes because
the unscored section from this practice test was
omitted.
● Sit at a desk or table cleared of any other papers
or books. You won’t be able to take a dictionary,
books, notes, or scratch paper into the test room.
● Allow yourself the specified amount of time
for each section. Pace yourself by using a watch
(without an audible alarm), which is what you are
allowed on test day.
● Have a calculator at hand when you take the math-
ematics sections. This will help you determine how
much to use a calculator the day of the test. Use a
calculator with which you are familiar.
● Read the test instructions carefully. They are
reprinted from the back cover of the test book. On
test day, you will be asked to read them before you
begin answering questions.
● Make sure you use a No. 2 pencil. It is very impor-
tant that you fill in the entire circle on the answer
sheet darkly and completely. If you change your
response, erase it as completely as possible. It is
very important that you follow these instructions
when filling out your answer sheet.
● After you finish the test, read page 85 for instructions
on how to find your score. If you have access to the
Internet, visit collegeboard.com/satpracticetest to
review answer explanations or to see sample essays.
Finding Your Scores
To score your test, you can either enter your answers online
at collegeboard.com/satpracticetest and have your test
scored automatically, or you can score it yourself with the
instructions on page 85. To score the test yourself, you’ll
need to count the right and wrong answers for each sec-
tion, and then convert your “raw” score to the College
Board scale of 200 to 800.
With either scoring method, you’ll need to choose a score
for your essay. Use the Scoring Guide on page 36 to deter-
mine how your particular essay might be scored.
Reviewing Your Performance
After you score your practice test, review your performance
to see where your strengths and weaknesses are.
Ask yourself these questions:
● Did you run out of time before you finished a sec-
tion? Try to pace yourself so you will have time to
answer all the questions you can. Don’t spend too
much time on any one question.
● Did you hurry and make careless mistakes? You
may have misread the question, neglected to notice
a word like “except” or “best,” or solved for the
wrong value.
● Did you spend too much time reading directions?
You should be familiar with the test directions
so you don’t have to spend as much time reading
them when you take the actual test.
Visit collegeboard.com/satpracticetest to view answer
explanations for questions you answered incorrectly and to
read sample scored essays.
Official SAT Practice Test
The Official SAT Online Course
➢ Take this practice test online
➢ Receive an immediate essay score
➢ Practice with more tests and quizzes
Visit:
collegeboard.com/satonlinecourse
SAT Preparation Booklet
38
FORM
CODE
TEST
CENTER
PLEASE DO NOT WRITE IN THIS AREA
SERIAL #
2008-09 SAT Reasoning Test
TM
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Mid.
Init.










178581-001:654321 ISD7318
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College Board, SAT, and the acorn logo are registered trademarks of the College Board.
SAT Reasoning Test is a trademark owned by the College Board.
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Important: Fill in
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exactly as shown
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TEST FORM
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MARKS MUST BE COMPLETE
You must use a No. 2 pencil. Do not use a mechanical pencil. It is very important
that you fill in the entire circle darkly and completely. If you change your response, erase
as completely as possible. Incomplete marks or erasures may affect your score. It is
very important that you follow these instructions when filling out your answer sheet.
COMPLETE MARK
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I agree to the conditions on the front and back of the SAT Reasoning Test™ booklet. I also agree to use only a No. 2 pencil to complete my answer sheet.
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Official SAT Practice Test
39
Page 2
I prefer NOT to grant the College Board the right to use, reproduce, or publish my essay for any purpose
beyond the assessment of my writing skills, even though my name will not be used in any way in conjunction
with my essay. I understand that I am free to mark this circle with no effect on my score.
Begin your essay on this page. If you need more space, continue on the next page.
Continue on the next page, if necessary.
SECTION
1
IMPORTANT: USE A NO. 2 PENCIL. DO NOT WRITE OUTSIDE THE BORDER!
Words written outside the essay box or written in ink WILL NOT APPEAR in the copy
sent to be scored, and your score will be affected.
SAT Preparation Booklet
40
PLEASE DO NOT WRITE IN THIS AREA
SERIAL #
Page 3
Continuation of ESSAY Section 1 from previous page. Write below only if you need more space.
IMPORTANT: DO NOT START on this page—if you do, your essay may appear blank and your score may be affected.
Official SAT Practice Test
41
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Grid answers in the section below for SECTION 2 or SECTION 3 only if directed to do so in your
test book.
CAUTION
Student-Produced Responses
ONLY ANSWERS THAT ARE GRIDDED WILL BE SCORED. YOU WILL NOT RECEIVE
CREDIT FOR ANYTHING WRITTEN IN THE BOXES.
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Quality
Assurance
Mark
You must use a No. 2 pencil and marks must be complete. Do not use a mechanical pencil. It is
very important that you fill in the entire circle darkly and completely. If you change your response,
erase as completely as possible. Incomplete marks or erasures may affect your score.
COMPLETE MARK
EXAMPLES OF
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. .
0 0
.
A B C D
A B C D CCCCCCCC AA
SECT.
2 OR 3
ONLY
SAT Preparation Booklet
42
Quality
Assurance
Mark
9
31
32
33
34
35
36
37
38
39
40
21
22
23
24
25
26
27
28
29
30
11
12
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1
2
3
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5
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7
8
9
10
14
10
15
11
16
12
17
13
18
Grid answers in the section below for SECTION 4 or SECTION 5 only if directed to do so in your
test book.
Student-Produced Responses
Page 5
SECTION
5
ONLY ANSWERS THAT ARE GRIDDED WILL BE SCORED. YOU WILL NOT RECEIVE
CREDIT FOR ANYTHING WRITTEN IN THE BOXES.
31
32
33
34
35
36
37
38
39
40
21
22
23
24
25
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29
30
11
12
13
14
15
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20
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10
SECTION
4
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
You must use a No. 2 pencil and marks must be complete. Do not use a mechanical pencil. It is
very important that you fill in the entire circle darkly and completely. If you change your response,
erase as completely as possible. Incomplete marks or erasures may affect your score.
COMPLETE MARK
EXAMPLES OF
INCOMPLETE MARKS
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
1
2
3
4
5
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0 0
.
CAUTION
A B C D
A B C D CCCCCCCC AA
SECT.
4 OR 5
ONLY
S
e
c
t
io
n
4
, t
h
e
e
q
u
a
t
in
g

s
e
c
t
io
n
o
f t
h
is
p
r
a
c
t
ic
e

t
e
s
t
, h
a
s
b
e
e
n
o
m
it
t
e
d
.
Official SAT Practice Test
43
9
31
32
33
34
35
36
37
38
39
40
21
22
23
24
25
26
27
28
29
30
11
12
13
14
15
16
17
18
19
20
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10
14
10
15
11
16
12
17
13
18
SECTION
7
Grid answers in the section below for SECTION 6 or SECTION 7 only if directed to do so in your
test book.
Student-Produced Responses
ONLY ANSWERS THAT ARE GRIDDED WILL BE SCORED. YOU WILL NOT RECEIVE
CREDIT FOR ANYTHING WRITTEN IN THE BOXES.
PLEASE DO NOT WRITE IN THIS AREA
SERIAL #
Page 6
31
32
33
34
35
36
37
38
39
40
21
22
23
24
25
26
27
28
29
30
11
12
13
14
15
16
17
18
19
20
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10
SECTION
6
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
Quality
Assurance
Mark
You must use a No. 2 pencil and marks must be complete. Do not use a mechanical pencil. It is
very important that you fill in the entire circle darkly and completely. If you change your response,
erase as completely as possible. Incomplete marks or erasures may affect your score.
COMPLETE MARK
EXAMPLES OF
INCOMPLETE MARKS
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
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0 0
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.
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9

0
.

. .
0 0
.
CAUTION
A B C D
A B C D CCCCCCCC AA
SECT.
6 OR 7
ONLY
SAT Preparation Booklet
44
Quality
Assurance
Mark
Page 7
31
32
33
34
35
36
37
38
39
40
21
22
23
24
25
26
27
28
29
30
11
12
13
14
15
16
17
18
19
20
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10
SECTION
9
31
32
33
34
35
36
37
38
39
40
21
22
23
24
25
26
27
28
29
30
11
12
13
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18
19
20
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10
SECTION
10
31
32
33
34
35
36
37
38
39
40
21
22
23
24
25
26
27
28
29
30
11
12
13
14
15
16
17
18
19
20
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10
SECTION
8
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
You must use a No. 2 pencil and marks must be complete. Do not use a mechanical pencil. It is
very important that you fill in the entire circle darkly and completely. If you change your response,
erase as completely as possible. Incomplete marks or erasures may affect your score.
COMPLETE MARK
EXAMPLES OF
INCOMPLETE MARKS
A B C D
A B C D CCCCCCCC AA
Official SAT Practice Test
45
Page 8
CERTIFICATION STATEMENT
Copy the statement below (do not print) and sign your name as you would an official document.
I hereby agree to the conditions set forth online at www.collegeboard.com and/or in the SAT
®
Registration Booklet and certify that I am the
person whose name and address appear on this answer sheet.
Signature Date
PLEASE DO NOT WRITE IN THIS AREA
SERIAL #
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
SPECIAL QUESTIONS
A B C D E G H I J F
A B C D E G H I J F
A B C D E G H I J F
A B C D E G H I J F
A B C D E G H I J F
A B C D E G H I J F
A B C D E G H I J F
A B C D E G H I J F
By registering, you agreed not to share any specific test questions or essay topics with anyone by any form of communication, including,
but not limited to: email, text messages, or use of the Internet. Doing so can result in score cancellation and other possible sanctions.
SAT Preparation Booklet
46
ESSAY
Time — 25 minutes
Turn to page 2 of your answer sheet to write your ESSAY.
The essay gives you an opportunity to show how effectively you can develop and express ideas. You should, therefore, take
care to develop your point of view, present your ideas logically and clearly, and use language precisely.
Your essay must be written on the lines provided on your answer sheet —you will receive no other paper on which to write.
You will have enough space if you write on every line, avoid wide margins, and keep your handwriting to a reasonable size.
Remember that people who are not familiar with your handwriting will read what you write. Try to write or print so that what
you are writing is legible to those readers.
Important Reminders:
x A pencil is required for the essay. An essay written in ink will receive a score of zero.
x Do not write your essay in your test book. You will receive credit only for what you write on your
answer sheet.
x An off-topic essay will receive a score of zero.
x If your essay does not reflect your original and individual work, your test scores may be canceled.
You have twenty-five minutes to write an essay on the topic assigned below.
Think carefully about the issue presented in the following excerpt and the assignment below.
Nowadays nothing is private: our culture has become too confessional and self-expressive.
People think that to hide one’s thoughts or feelings is to pretend not to have those thoughts
or feelings. They assume that honesty requires one to express every inclination and impulse.
Adapted from J. David Velleman, “The Genesis of Shame”
Assignment: Should people make more of an effort to keep some things private? Plan and write an essay in which you
develop your point of view on this issue. Support your position with reasoning and examples taken from
your reading, studies, experience, or observations.
BEGIN WRITING YOUR ESSAY ON PAGE 2 OF THE ANSWER SHEET.
If you finish before time is called, you may check your work on this section only.
Do not turn to any other section in the test.
Official SAT Practice Test
47
SECTION 2
Time — 25 minutes
20 Questions
Turn to Section 2 (page 4) of your answer sheet to answer the questions in this section.
Directions: For this section, solve each problem and decide which is the best of the choices given. Fill in the corresponding
circle on the answer sheet. You may use any available space for scratch work.
1. If 10 x is 5 more than 10, what is the value of 2x ?
(A) 5
(B) 5
(C) 10
(D) 25
(E) 50
2. The result when a number is divided by 2 is equal to
the result when that same number is divided by 4.
What is that number?
(A) 4
(B) 2
(C) 0
(D) 2
(E) 4
SAT Preparation Booklet
48
3. If this page was folded along the dotted line in the
figure above, the left half of the letter W would
exactly coincide with the right half of W. Which of
the following letters, as shown, CANNOT be folded
along a vertical line so that its left half would coincide
with its right half?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
4. In the figure above, lines and k intersect at point Q.
If 40 m and 25, p what is the value of x ?
(A) 15
(B) 20
(C) 25
(D) 40
(E) 65
x y
2 3
0 3
1 6
2 9
4 15
5. Which of the following equations is satisfied by the
five pairs of numbers listed in the table above?
(A) y x
3
3
(B) y x 3 3
(C) y x 3 6
(D) y x
2
6
(E) y x
2
7
6. The circle graph above shows how David’s monthly
expenses are divided. If David spends $450 per month
for food, how much does he spend per month on his
car?
(A) $200
(B) $320
(C) $360
(D) $400
(E) $450
Official SAT Practice Test
49
7. If n and k are positive integers and 8 2 ,
n k
what is
the value of ?
n
k
(A)
1
4
(B)
1
3
(C)
1
2
(D) 3
(E) 4
8. In a certain store, the regular price of a refrigerator is
$600. How much money is saved by buying this refrig-
erator at 20 percent off the regular price rather than
buying it on sale at 10 percent off the regular price
with an additional discount of 10 percent off the sale
price?
(A) $6
(B) $12
(C) $24
(D) $54
(E) $60
9. If the function f is defined by ( ) 3 4, f x x
then 2 ( ) 4 f x
(A) 5 4 x
(B) 5 8 x
(C) 6 4 x
(D) 6 8 x
(E) 6 12 x
10. What is the greatest possible area of a triangle with
one side of length 7 and another side of length 10 ?
(A) 17
(B) 34
(C) 35
(D) 70
(E) 140
11. A total of 120,000 votes were cast for 2 opposing
candidates, Garcia and Pérez. If Garcia won by a ratio
of 5 to 3, what was the number of votes cast for Pérez?
(A) 15,000
(B) 30,000
(C) 45,000
(D) 75,000
(E) 80,000
12. If a positive integer n is picked at random from the
positive integers less than or equal to 10, what is the
probability that 5 3 14 n + ≤ ?
(A) 0
(B)
1
10
(C)
1
5
(D)
3
10
(E)
2
5
13. If t is a number greater than 1, then t
2
is how much
greater than t ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) t
(D) t t − ( ) 1
(E) t t − ( ) + ( ) 1 1
14. The height of a right circular cylinder is 5 and the
diameter of its base is 4. What is the distance from the
center of one base to a point on the circumference of
the other base?
(A) 3
(B) 5
(C) 29 (approximately 5.39)
(D) 33 (approximately 5.74)
(E) 41 (approximately 6.40)
SAT Preparation Booklet
50
15. If p and n are integers such that 0 p n and
2 2
12, p n which of the following can be the
value of ? p n
I. 1
II. 2
III. 4
(A) I only
(B) II only
(C) I and II only
(D) II and III only
(E) I, II, and III
Questions 16-18 refer to the following figure and
information.
The grid above represents equally spaced streets in a
town that has no one-way streets. F marks the corner
where a firehouse is located. Points W, X, Y, and Z
represent the locations of some other buildings. The
fire company defines a building’s m-distance as the
minimum number of blocks that a fire truck must travel
from the firehouse to reach the building. For example,
the building at X is an m-distance of 2, and the
building at Y is an m-distance of
1
2
from the
firehouse.
16. What is the m-distance of the building at W from the
firehouse?
(A) 2
(B) 2
1
2
(C) 3
(D) 3
1
2
(E) 4
1
2
17. What is the total number of different routes that a fire
truck can travel the m-distance from F to Z ?
(A) Six
(B) Five
(C) Four
(D) Three
(E) Two
18. All of the buildings in the town that are an m-distance
of 3 from the firehouse must lie on a
(A) circle
(B) square
(C) right isosceles triangle
(D) pair of intersecting lines
(E) line
Official SAT Practice Test
51
19. If x and y are positive integers, which of the
following is equivalent to 2 2
3
x x
y y
?
(A) 2
2
x
y
(B) 2
3 y y
x x
(C)
2
2 2 1
y y
x x
(D) 2 4 1
y y
x x
(E)
3
2 2 1
y
x x
20. If j , k , and n are consecutive integers such that
0 j k n and the units (ones) digit of the product
jn is 9, what is the units digit of k ?
(A) 0
(B) 1
(C) 2
(D) 3
(E) 4
S T O P
If you finish before time is called, you may check your work on this section only.
Do not turn to any other section in the test.
SAT Preparation Booklet
52
SECTION 3
Time — 25 minutes
24 Questions
Turn to Section 3 (page 4) of your answer sheet to answer the questions in this section.
Directions: For each question in this section, select the best answer from among the choices given and fill in the corresponding
circle on the answer sheet.
Each sentence below has one or two blanks, each blank
indicating that something has been omitted. Beneath
the sentence are five words or sets of words labeled A
through E. Choose the word or set of words that, when
inserted in the sentence, best fits the meaning of the
sentence as a whole.
Example:
Hoping to ------- the dispute, negotiators proposed
a compromise that they felt would be ------- to both
labor and management.
(A) enforce . . useful
(B) end . . divisive
(C) overcome . . unattractive
(D) extend . . satisfactory
(E) resolve . . acceptable
1. Many private universities depend heavily on -------, the
wealthy individuals who support them with gifts and
bequests.
(A) instructors (B) administrators
(C) monitors (D) accountants
(E) benefactors
2. One of the characters in Milton Murayama’s novel
is considered ------- because he deliberately defies
an oppressive hierarchical society.
(A) rebellious (B) impulsive (C) artistic
(D) industrious (E) tyrannical
3. Nightjars possess a camouflage perhaps unparalleled
in the bird world: by day they roost hidden in shady
woods, so ------- with their surroundings that they are
nearly impossible to -------.
(A) vexed . . dislodge
(B) blended . . discern
(C) harmonized . . interrupt
(D) impatient . . distinguish
(E) integrated . . classify
4. Many economists believe that since resources are
scarce and since human desires cannot all be -------,
a method of ------- is needed.
(A) indulged . . apportionment
(B) verified . . distribution
(C) usurped . . expropriation
(D) expressed . . reparation
(E) anticipated . . advertising
5. The range of colors that homeowners could use on the
exterior of their houses was ------- by the community’s
stringent rules regarding upkeep of property.
(A) circumscribed (B) bolstered
(C) embellished (D) insinuated
(E) cultivated
Official SAT Practice Test
53
The passages below are followed by questions based on their content; questions following a pair of related passages may also
be based on the relationship between the paired passages. Answer the questions on the basis of what is stated or implied in the
passages and in any introductory material that may be provided.
Questions 6-9 are based on the following passages.
Passage 1
I know what your e-mail in-box looks like, and it
isn’t pretty: a babble of come-ons and lies from hucksters
and con artists. To find your real e-mail, you must wade
through the torrent of fraud and obscenity known politely
as “unsolicited bulk e-mail” and colloquially as “spam.” 5
In a perverse tribute to the power of the online revolution,
we are all suddenly getting the same mail: easy weight
loss, get-rich-quick schemes, etc. The crush of these mes-
sages is now numbered in billions per day. “It’s becoming
a major systems and engineering and network problem,” 10
says one e-mail expert. “Spammers are gaining control of
the Internet.”
Passage 2
Many people who hate spam assume that it is protected
as free speech. Not necessarily so. The United States
Supreme Court has previously ruled that individuals 15
may preserve a threshold of privacy. “Nothing in the
Constitution compels us to listen to or view any unwanted
communication, whatever its merit,” wrote Chief Justice
Warren Burger in a 1970 decision. “We therefore categori-
cally reject the argument that a vendor has a right to send 20
unwanted material into the home of another.” With regard
to a seemingly similar problem, the Telephone Consumer
Protection Act of 1991 made it illegal in the United States
to send unsolicited faxes; why not extend the act to include
unsolicited bulk e-mail? 25
6. The primary purpose of Passage 1 is to
(A) make a comparison
(B) dispute a hypothesis
(C) settle a controversy
(D) justify a distinction
(E) highlight a concern
7. The primary purpose of Passage 2 is to
(A) confirm a widely held belief
(B) discuss the inadequacies of a ruling
(C) defend a controversial technology
(D) analyze a widespread social problem
(E) lay the foundation for a course of action
8. What would be the most likely reaction by the author
of Passage 1 to the argument cited in lines 16-21 of
Passage 2 (“Nothing . . . another”) ?
(A) Surprise at the assumption that freedom of speech
is indispensable to democracy
(B) Dismay at the Supreme Court’s vigorous defense
of vendors’ rights
(C) Hope that the same reasoning would be applied
to all unsolicited e-mail
(D) Concern for the plight of mass marketers facing
substantial economic losses
(E) Appreciation for the political complexity of
the debate about spam
9. Unlike the author of Passage 1, the author of Passage 2
(A) criticizes a practice
(B) offers an example
(C) proposes a solution
(D) states an opinion
(E) quotes an expert
Line
SAT Preparation Booklet
54
Questions 10-16 are based on the following passage.
The following passage is adapted from a novel set in
the early twentieth century. Mr. Beebe, a clergyman, is
speaking with Cecil Vyse about a mutual acquaintance,
Lucy Honeychurch. Miss Honeychurch has recently
returned from a journey with her older cousin and
chaperone, Miss Bartlett.
“Lucy Honeychurch has no faults,” said Cecil,
with grave sincerity.
“I quite agree. At present she has none.”
“At present?”
“I’m not cynical. I’m only thinking of my pet theory 5
about Miss Honeychurch. Does it seem reasonable that
she should play piano so wonderfully, and live so quietly?
I suspect that someday she shall be wonderful in both.
The water-tight compartments in her will break down,
and music and life will mingle. Then we shall have her 10
heroically good, heroically bad—too heroic, perhaps,
to be good or bad.”
Cecil found his companion interesting.
“And at present you think her not wonderful as far
as life goes?” 15
“Well, I must say I’ve only seen her at Tunbridge
Wells, where she was not wonderful, and at Florence.
She wasn’t wonderful in Florence either, but I kept
on expecting that she would be.”
“In what way?” 20
Conversation had become agreeable to them, and
they were pacing up and down the terrace.
“I could as easily tell you what tune she’ll play next.
There was simply the sense that she found wings and
meant to use them. I can show you a beautiful picture 25
in my diary. Miss Honeychurch as a kite, Miss Bartlett
holding the string. Picture number two: the string breaks.”
The sketch was in his diary, but it had been made after-
wards, when he viewed things artistically. At the time he
had given surreptitious tugs to the string himself. 30
“But the string never broke?”
“No. I mightn’t have seen Miss Honeychurch rise,
but I should certainly have heard Miss Bartlett fall.”
“It has broken now,” said the young man in low,
vibrating tones. 35
Immediately he realized that of all the conceited,
ludicrous, contemptible ways of announcing an engage-
ment this was the worst. He cursed his love of metaphor;
had he suggested that he was a star and that Lucy was
soaring up to reach him? 40
“Broken? What do you mean?”
“I meant,” Cecil said stiffly, “that she is going
to marry me.”
The clergyman was conscious of some bitter
disappointment which he could not keep out of his 45
voice.
“I am sorry; I must apologize. I had no idea you
were intimate with her, or I should never have talked
in this flippant, superficial way. You ought to have
stopped me.” And down in the garden he saw Lucy 50
herself; yes, he was disappointed.
Cecil, who naturally preferred congratulations
to apologies, drew down the corner of his mouth. Was
this the reaction his action would get from the whole
world? Of course, he despised the world as a whole; 55
every thoughtful man should; it is almost a test of
refinement.
“I’m sorry I have given you a shock,” he said
dryly. “I fear that Lucy’s choice does not meet with
your approval.” 60
10. Cecil’s remark in line 1 (“Lucy . . . faults”) is made
in a tone of
(A) great conviction
(B) studied neutrality
(C) playful irony
(D) genuine surprise
(E) weary cynicism
11. Mr. Beebe asks the question in lines 6-7 (“Does . . .
quietly”) primarily in order to
(A) raise an urgent concern
(B) anticipate a possible objection
(C) challenge a widely accepted theory
(D) note an apparent inconsistency
(E) criticize a popular pastime
12. Mr. Beebe’s statement, “The water-tight . . . bad”
(lines 9-11), suggests that Lucy will
(A) ultimately become a famous and respected
musician
(B) eventually play music in a less disciplined
fashion
(C) one day begin to live with great passion
(D) soon regret an impetuous decision
(E) someday marry a man who will be the
cause of her undoing
Line
Official SAT Practice Test
55
13. In line 24, “sense” most nearly means
(A) definition
(B) intelligence
(C) plausibility
(D) consensus
(E) impression
14. For Mr. Beebe, “Picture number two” (line 27)
represents
(A) a misleading occurrence
(B) a dangerous gamble
(C) an unlikely development
(D) an anticipated outcome
(E) an avoidable difficulty
15. Ultimately, Cecil views his remark in line 34
(“It . . . now”) as
(A) singularly poetic
(B) particularly memorable
(C) embarrassingly inapt
(D) excessively critical
(E) regrettably underhanded
16. The question in lines 39-40 (“had . . . him ”) suggests
that Cecil fears that Mr. Beebe will
(A) detect the lack of originality in his thinking
(B) consider him to be vain
(C) tell Lucy of his inappropriate remark
(D) distrust him as a confidant
(E) attempt to block his engagement to Lucy
SAT Preparation Booklet
56
Questions 17-24 are based on the following passage.
The following passage is adapted from a book published in
1999.
Calling it a cover-up would be far too dramatic. But for
more than half a century—even in the midst of some of
the greatest scientific achievements in history—physicists
have been quietly aware of a dark cloud looming on a
distant horizon. The problem is this: There are two 5
foundational pillars upon which modern physics rests.
One is general relativity, which provides a theoretical
framework for understanding the universe on the largest
of scales: stars, galaxies, clusters of galaxies, and beyond
to the immense expanse of the universe itself. The other 10
is quantum mechanics, which provides a theoretical
framework for understanding the universe on the small-
est of scales: molecules, atoms, and all the way down to
subatomic particles like electrons and quarks. Through
years of research, physicists have experimentally confirmed 15
to almost unimaginable accuracy virtually all predictions
made by each of these theories. But these same theoretical
tools inexorably lead to another disturbing conclusion:
As they are currently formulated, general relativity and
quantum mechanics cannot both be right. The two theories 20
underlying the tremendous progress of physics during
the last hundred years—progress that has explained the
expansion of the heavens and the fundamental structure
of matter—are mutually incompatible.
If you have not heard previously about this ferocious 25
antagonism, you may be wondering why. The answer is
not hard to come by. In all but the most extreme situations,
physicists study things that are either small and light (like
atoms and their constituents) or things that are huge and
heavy (like stars and galaxies), but not both. This means 30
that they need use only quantum mechanics or only general
relativity and can, with a furtive glance, shrug off the bark-
ing admonition of the other. For 50 years this approach
has not been quite as blissful as ignorance, but it has been
pretty close. 35
But the universe can be extreme. In the central depths of
a black hole, an enormous mass is crushed to a minuscule
size. According to the big bang theory, the whole of the
universe erupted from a microscopic nugget whose size
makes a grain of sand look colossal. These are realms that 40
are tiny and yet incredibly massive, therefore requiring
that both quantum mechanics and general relativity simul-
taneously be brought to bear. The equations of general
relativity and quantum mechanics, when combined, begin
to shake, rattle, and gush with steam like a decrepit auto- 45
mobile. Put less figuratively, well-posed physical questions
elicit nonsensical answers from the unhappy amalgam of
these two theories. Even if you are willing to keep the
deep interior of a black hole and the beginning of the
universe shrouded in mystery, you can’t help feeling that 50
the hostility between quantum mechanics and general
relativity cries out for a deeper level of understanding.
Can it really be that the universe at its most fundamental
level is divided, requiring one set of laws when things are
large and a different, incompatible set when things are 55
small?
Superstring theory, a young upstart compared with the
venerable edifices of quantum mechanics and general
relativity, answers with a resounding no. Intense research
over the past decade by physicists and mathematicians 60
around the world has revealed that this new approach to
describing matter at its most fundamental level resolves
the tension between general relativity and quantum
mechanics. In fact, superstring theory shows more:
within this new framework, general relativity and 65
quantum mechanics require one another for the theory
to make sense. According to superstring theory, the
marriage of the laws of the large and the small is not
only happy but inevitable. Superstring theory has the
potential to show that all of the wondrous happenings 70
in the universe—from the frantic dance of subatomic
quarks to the stately waltz of orbiting binary stars—are
reflections of one grand physical principle, one master
equation.
17. The “dark cloud” mentioned in line 4 refers to an
(A) atypical diagnosis
(B) unsupported hypothesis
(C) unknown threat
(D) evil influence
(E) important contradiction
18. Which pairing best represents the different models
of the universe presented in lines 7-14 ?
(A) Big and little
(B) Old and new
(C) Complex and simple
(D) Verified and undocumented
(E) Theoretical and practical
19. The author’s use of italics in line 20 serves primarily to
(A) draw attention to a commonly known hypothesis
(B) stress a speculative aspect of two theories
(C) support a difficult claim
(D) underscore a surprising point
(E) emphasize an area of agreement
Line
Official SAT Practice Test
57
20. The author uses the “automobile” (lines 45-46) to
represent equations that
(A) demand a professional’s attention
(B) are intrinsically unreliable
(C) do not work together effectively
(D) can be easily adjusted if necessary
(E) are based on dated mathematics
21. Which of the following, if available, would best
refute the author’s assertion about the “young upstart”
(line 57) ?
(A) Evidence that certain kinds of particles in nature
exceed the speed of light
(B) Confirmation of conditions that existed in the
earliest stages of the big bang
(C) Speculation that the deep interior of a black hole
is not as dense as scientists have believed
(D) Mathematical formulas that link general relativity
and quantum mechanics in the same realm
(E) Proof that the laws governing the universe depend
on the size of the system being studied
22. The primary reason described for the usefulness of the
theory mentioned in line 57 is its ability to
(A) explain new phenomena
(B) replace the theory of general relativity
(C) reinforce the predictions of quantum mechanics
(D) indicate where other theories are inapplicable
(E) reconcile two seemingly contradictory theories
23. Those who hold the “conclusion” referred to in line 18
would most likely believe that the “marriage” (line 68)
was an
(A) inevitable result of their research
(B) unjustifiable elevation of their hypotheses
(C) inadvisable use of research funds
(D) unfortunate consequence
(E) impossible outcome
24. The author uses dance imagery in lines 71-72 in order to
(A) suggest a similarity between the study of science
and the study of dance
(B) highlight the extremes found in the physical
world
(C) emphasize the different ways that binary stars
move
(D) illustrate the intricacy of the subatomic world
of quarks
(E) suggest the cohesive nature of both science and
dance
S T O P
If you finish before time is called, you may check your work on this section only.
Do not turn to any other section in the test.
SAT Preparation Booklet
58
SECTION 5
Time — 25 minutes
35 Questions
Turn to Section 5 (page 5) of your answer sheet to answer the questions in this section.
Directions: For each question in this section, select the best answer from among the choices given and fill in the corresponding
circle on the answer sheet.
The following sentences test correctness and effectiveness
of expression. Part of each sentence or the entire sentence
is underlined; beneath each sentence are five ways of
phrasing the underlined material. Choice A repeats the
original phrasing; the other four choices are different. If
you think the original phrasing produces a better sentence
than any of the alternatives, select choice A; if not, select
one of the other choices.
In making your selection, follow the requirements of
standard written English; that is, pay attention to grammar,
choice of words, sentence construction, and punctuation.
Your selection should result in the most effective
sentence—clear and precise, without awkwardness or
ambiguity.
EXAMPLE:
Laura Ingalls Wilder published her first book
and she was sixty-five years old then.
(A) and she was sixty-five years old then
(B) when she was sixty-five
(C) at age sixty-five years old
(D) upon the reaching of sixty-five years
(E) at the time when she was sixty-five
1. Since last September Patricia has been working at the
convenience store down the road.
(A) has been working
(B) works
(C) is working
(D) will be working
(E) worked
2. To help freshmen and sophomores in selecting their
courses, candid reviews of courses and instructors
compiled by juniors and seniors.
(A) candid reviews of courses and instructors
compiled by juniors and seniors
(B) candid reviews of courses and instructors being
compiled by juniors and seniors
(C) and to compile candid reviews of courses and
instructors by juniors and seniors
(D) juniors and seniors have compiled candid reviews
of courses and instructors
(E) with juniors and seniors compiling candid reviews
of courses and instructors
3. The landscape artist who designed New York City’s
Central Park believed that providing scenic settings
accessible to all would not only benefit the public’s
physical and mental health and also foster a sense of
democracy.
(A) and also foster a sense of democracy
(B) as it also fosters a sense of democracy
(C) and would foster a sense of democracy also
(D) but also foster a sense of democracy
(E) and foster a sense of democracy also
4. In areas where deer roam freely, residents must dress
to protect themselves against deer ticks that might
transmit diseases.
(A) areas where deer roam freely
(B) areas roamed by deer freely
(C) areas, freely roamed by deer
(D) areas, in which there are deer that roam freely
(E) areas which deer roam free
Official SAT Practice Test
59
5. Given the cost of a hardcover book, the price of it
typically hovers around $25, many consumers ask their
book dealers, “When will the paperback be out?”
(A) the price of it typically hovers
(B) and typically it hovers at a price
(C) which typically hovers
(D) in that it typically hovers
(E) they typically hover
6. The article featured the Sea Islands because many were
known there to live much as their ancestors of a
century ago had lived.
(A) many were known there to live
(B) they were known there for living
(C) many of the people there were known to live
(D) of the many people, they were there living
(E) of knowing that many people lived there
7. A poetic form congenial to Robert Browning was the
dramatic monologue, it let him explore a character’s
mind without the simplifications demanded by stage
productions.
(A) monologue, it let him explore
(B) monologue, which let him explore
(C) monologue that lets him explore
(D) monologue; letting him explore
(E) monologue by letting him do exploration of
8. Many eighteenth- and nineteenth-century Romantic
poets were believers in rebellion against social
conventions, express strong emotion, and the power
of imagination.
(A) were believers in rebellion against social
conventions, express strong emotion
(B) are believers in rebelling against social
conventions, strong emotions being expressed
(C) who believed in rebellion against social
conventions, express strong emotion
(D) believed in rebellion against social conventions, to
express strong emotions
(E) believed in rebellion against social conventions,
the expression of strong emotions
9. At the Constitutional Convention of 1787, the proposal
to replace the existing Articles of Confederation with a
federal constitution were met with fierce opposition.
(A) were met with
(B) having been met with
(C) it met
(D) met with
(E) met their
10. When for the first time the United States imported
more oil than it exported, Americans should have
realized that an energy crisis was imminent and could
happen in the future.
(A) was imminent and could happen in the future
(B) could happen imminently in the future
(C) will be imminent and happening soon
(D) is an imminent thing
(E) might be imminent
11. Intimacy, love, and marriage are three different, if
interrelated, subjects.
(A) different, if interrelated, subjects
(B) interrelated subjects, being, however, different
(C) different subjects, whereas they are interrelated
(D) different subjects when interrelated
(E) subjects that are different although being
interrelated
SAT Preparation Booklet
60
The following sentences test your ability to recognize
grammar and usage errors. Each sentence contains either
a single error or no error at all. No sentence contains more
than one error. The error, if there is one, is underlined
and lettered. If the sentence contains an error, select the
one underlined part that must be changed to make the
sentence correct. If the sentence is correct, select choice E.
In choosing answers, follow the requirements of standard
written English.
EXAMPLE:
The other
A
delegates and him
B
immediately
C
accepted the resolution drafted by
D
the
neutral states. No error
E
12. America’s first roller coaster ride, which opened in
A
1884 at Coney Island, Brooklyn, and capable of
B
a top speed
C
of only
D
six miles per hour. No error
E
13. The inflation rate in that country is so high that
A
even with
B
adjusted wages, most workers
C
can barely
D
pay for food and shelter. No error
E
14. Over the past
A
two years, apparel manufacturers have
B
worked to meeting
C
the revised federal standards
for the design
D
of uniforms. No error
E
15. Storing bread in the refrigerator delays drying
A
and the
growth of mold but increase
B
the rate at which
C
the
bread loses flavor
D
. No error
E
16. According to last week’s survey, most voters
were disappointed by
A
legislators’
B
inability working
C
together on
D
key issues. No error
E
17. When Marie Curie shared
A
the 1903 Nobel Prize for
Physics with two other
B
scientists—her husband
Pierre Curie and Henri Becquerel —she had been
C
the first woman to win
D
the prize. No error
E
18. Every spring in rural Vermont
A
the sound of sap
dripping
B
into galvanized metal buckets signal
C
the
beginning of the traditional season for gathering
D
maple syrup. No error
E
19. Those investors who
A
sold
B
stocks just before the
stock market crashed in 1929 were either
C
wise or
exceptional
D
lucky. No error
E
Official SAT Practice Test
61
20. Most of the sediment and nutrients of the
Mississippi River no longer
A
reach the coastal
wetlands, a phenomenon that has adversely
B
affected
C
the region’s
D
ecological balance.
No error
E
21. Most major air pollutants cannot be seen, although
large amounts of them
A
concentrated in
B
cities
are visible
C
as
D
smog. No error
E
22. The light emitted by high-intensity-discharge
car headlights are
A
very effective in activating
B
the reflective paints of road markers, thereby
C
making driving at night
D
safer. No error
E
23. During
A
the nineteenth century, Greek mythology
acquired renewed significance when both
B
poets and
painters turned to
C
the ancient myths for
D
subject
matter. No error
E
24. The museum is submitting
A
proposals to several
B
foundations in
C
the hope to gain
D
funds to build
a tropical butterfly conservatory. No error
E
25. In order
A
for the audience to believe in and
be engaged by
B
a Shakespearean character,
they have
C
to come across as a real person
D
on the stage. No error
E
26. Most of
A
the hypotheses that
B
Kepler developed
to explain physical forces were later rejected as
C
inconsistent to
D
Newtonian theory. No error
E
27. Lynn Margulis’s theory that
A
evolution is a process
involving
B
interdependency rather than competition
among organisms differs
C
dramatically from
most biologists
D
. No error
E
28. The Empire State Building, the Sears Tower, the
Canadian National Tower—each of these structures
A
was
B
the tallest
C
in the world at the time they were
D
built. No error
E
29. The cost of safely disposing
A
of the toxic chemicals
is approximately
B
five times what
C
the company paid
to purchase it.
D
No error
E
SAT Preparation Booklet
62
Directions: The following passage is an early draft of an
essay. Some parts of the passage need to be rewritten.
Read the passage and select the best answers for the
questions that follow. Some questions are about particular
sentences or parts of sentences and ask you to improve
sentence structure or word choice. Other questions ask you
to consider organization and development. In choosing
answers, follow the requirements of standard written
English.
Questions 30-35 refer to the following passage.
(1) On September 10, 1973, the United States Postal
Service issued a stamp honoring Henry Ossawa Tanner
(1859-1937), one of four stamps in the American Arts
series. (2) Acclaimed as an artist in the United States and
Europe at the turn of the century, Tanner was called the
“dean” of art by W. E. B. Du Bois. (3) But after his death,
Tanner’s work was largely forgotten. (4) And so it
remained, and even later, in 1969, the donation of one of
his paintings to the Smithsonian Institution aroused new
interest in the art of this American master. (5) Now his
works are on exhibit again. (6) You can even buy posters of
his paintings!
(7) One of his most famous works is a realistic painting
by the name of “The Banjo Lesson.” (8) It was inspired by
a poem of Paul Laurence Dunbar. (9) The painting isn’t
like a photograph. (10) The magnificence of his work can
be seen with each subtle brush stroke, each carefully
crafted detail. (11) The effect is truly beautiful. (12) If I
were to try to identify the dominant theme of the painting, I
would have to say that it is family cohesiveness because the
entire scene seems to emphasize the bond between the boy
and his grandfather.
30. Which is the best version of the underlined part of
sentence 2 (reproduced below) ?
Acclaimed as an artist in the United States and Europe
at the turn of the century, Tanner was called the
“dean” of art by W. E. B. Du Bois.
(A) (as it is now)
(B) century; Tanner was called the “dean” of art by
W. E. B. Du Bois
(C) century, Tanner, who was called “dean” of art by
W. E. B. Du Bois
(D) century, W. E. B. Du Bois calling Tanner the
“dean” of art
(E) century, it was W. E. B. Du Bois who called
Tanner the “dean” of art
31. Which is the best version of the underlined portion of
sentence 4 (reproduced below) ?
And so it remained, and even later, in 1969, the
donation of one of his paintings to the Smithsonian
Institution aroused new interest in the art of this
American master.
(A) (as it is now)
(B) remained, and even after that, in 1969,
(C) remained, but even then, in 1969,
(D) remained until 1969, when
(E) remained when in 1969
32. In context, which is the best revision of sentence 6
(reproduced below) ?
You can even buy posters of his paintings!
(A) It is amazing, you can buy posters of his
paintings.
(B) Even ordinary people like us can buy posters of
his paintings.
(C) Posters of his paintings had been sold.
(D) People can even buy his paintings as a poster.
(E) One can even buy posters of his paintings.
Official SAT Practice Test
63
33. In context, which is the best way to revise sentence 7
(reproduced below) ?
One of his most famous works is a realistic painting by
the name of “The Banjo Lesson.”
(A) Add “In contrast,” to the beginning of the
sentence.
(B) Change “a realistic painting by the name of” to
“the realistic painting”.
(C) Delete the words “of his most famous works”.
(D) Change “is” to “had been”.
(E) Delete “most famous”.
34. Which sentence is best inserted after sentence 7 ?
(A) The painting shows a man teaching his grandson
how to play the banjo.
(B) He finished “The Banjo Lesson” in 1893.
(C) In the painting, a bright light sets off the man and
boy.
(D) Banjos came to the United States from West
Africa.
(E) Portraits by Tanner show a psychological depth
and compassion.
35. Which is best to add to the beginning
of sentence 9 ?
(A) Although it is realistic,
(B) You can almost hear the music, but
(C) Photographs have a beauty of their own, but
(D) As a lifelike work,
(E) Some people just copy what they see;
S T O P
If you finish before time is called, you may check your work on this section only.
Do not turn to any other section in the test.
SAT Preparation Booklet
64
SECTION 6
Time — 25 minutes
18 Questions
Turn to Section 6 (page 6) of your answer sheet to answer the questions in this section.
Directions: This section contains two types of questions. You have 25 minutes to complete both types. For questions 1-8, solve
each problem and decide which is the best of the choices given. Fill in the corresponding circle on the answer sheet. You may
use any available space for scratch work.
4, 11, 18, . . .
1. In the sequence above, the first term is 4 and each term
after the first is 7 more than the previous term. What is
the 12th term of the sequence?
(A) 77
(B) 81
(C) 84
(D) 86
(E) 92
2. If x 2 49
2
, then x could be
(A) 9
(B) 7
(C) 2
(D) 5
(E) 9
3. The average (arithmetic mean) of t and y is 15, and
the average of w and x is 15. What is the average of
t, w, x, and y ?
(A) 7.5
(B) 15
(C) 22.5
(D) 30
(E) 60
Official SAT Practice Test
65
All of Kay’s brothers can swim.
4. If the statement above is true, which of the following
must also be true?
(A) If Fred cannot swim, then he is not Kay’s brother.
(B) If Dave can swim, then he is not Kay’s brother.
(C) If Walt can swim, then he is Kay’s brother.
(D) If Pete is Kay’s brother, then he cannot swim.
(E) If Mark is not Kay’s brother, then he cannot swim.
5. In the figure above, triangle ABC is inscribed in the
circle with center O and diameter . AC If , AB AO
what is the degree measure of ? ABO
(A) 15°
(B) 30°
(C) 45°
(D) 60°
(E) 90°
6. Each of the following is equivalent to
a
b
bc k +
EXCEPT
(A) a
c k
b
+
(B) a c
k
b
+
(C)
a
b
k bc +
(D) ac
ak
b
+
(E)
abc ak
b
+
7. In the figure above, , , AB CD and EF intersect at P.
If 90, 50, 60, 45, r s t u and 50, w what
is the value of x ?
(A) 45
(B) 50
(C) 65
(D) 75
(E) It cannot be determined from the information
given.
8. Based on the portions of the graphs of the functions
f and g shown above, what are all values of x
between 6 and 6 for which ? g x f x
(A) 6 3 x only
(B) 3 0 x only
(C) 0 3 x only
(D) 3 6 x only
(E) 6 3 and 0 3 x x
SAT Preparation Booklet
66
9. When her son’s class held its magazine drive,
Dr. Nelson bought 7 one-year magazine subscrip-
tions for the waiting room in her office. She bought
4 subscriptions that have 12 issues per year, 2
subscriptions that have 4 issues per year, and 1
subscription that has 52 issues per year. Altogether,
how many magazines will her office receive from these
subscriptions?
10. Three more than twice a number is equal to 4.
What is the number?
Official SAT Practice Test
67
SALES OF BOOK B
Total Number of
Copies Sold
End of 1st week 3200
End of 2nd week 5500
End of 3rd week 6800
End of 4th week 7400
End of 5th week 7700
11. The table above shows the total number of copies of
Book B that were sold by the end of each of the first
5 weeks of its publication. How many copies of the
book were sold during the 3rd week of its publication?
12. If
j
k
= 32 and k =
3
2
, what is the value of
1
2
j ?
x y z
x y z
+ + =
+ + =
3 600
400
13. In the system of equations above, what is the value
of x y + ?
14. There are 25 trays on a table in the cafeteria. Each tray
contains a cup only, a plate only, or both a cup and a
plate. If 15 of the trays contain cups and 21 of the trays
contain plates, how many contain both a cup and a
plate?
15. In the figure above, line intersects the x-axis at
2 x and the y-axis at 3. y If line m (not
shown) passes through the origin and is perpendicular
to line , what is the slope of line m ?
16. If 6 3 7 x and 0, x what is one possible
value of ? x
17. What is the product of the smallest prime number that
is greater than 50 and the greatest prime number that is
less than 50 ?
18. In the figure above, PQRS is a rectangle. The area of
᭝RST is 7 and PT PS
2
5
. What is the area of
PQRS ?
S T O P
If you finish before time is called, you may check your work on this section only.
Do not turn to any other section in the test.
SAT Preparation Booklet
68
SECTION 7
Time — 25 minutes
24 Questions
Turn to Section 7 (page 6) of your answer sheet to answer the questions in this section.
Directions: For each question in this section, select the best answer from among the choices given and fill in the corresponding
circle on the answer sheet.
Each sentence below has one or two blanks, each blank
indicating that something has been omitted. Beneath
the sentence are five words or sets of words labeled A
through E. Choose the word or set of words that, when
inserted in the sentence, best fits the meaning of the
sentence as a whole.
Example:
Hoping to ------- the dispute, negotiators proposed
a compromise that they felt would be ------- to both
labor and management.
(A) enforce . . useful
(B) end . . divisive
(C) overcome . . unattractive
(D) extend . . satisfactory
(E) resolve . . acceptable
1. Years of ------- lifting of heavy furniture had left him
too ------- to be able to stand erect for long periods of
time.
(A) profitable . . dumbfounded
(B) generous . . distracted
(C) onerous . . hesitant
(D) strenuous . . debilitated
(E) unstinting . . eminent
2. Canadian Lynn Johnston was named Cartoonist of
the Year in 1985, the first woman to be so -------.
(A) inspired (B) entrusted (C) honored
(D) employed (E) refined
3. Because the photographer believed that wild animals
should be ------- only in their various natural
surroundings, she ------- often in her career.
(A) depicted . . traveled
(B) displayed . . spoke
(C) captured . . protested
(D) domesticated . . roamed
(E) represented . . publicized
4. Folk painter Grandma Moses has become such
an enduring icon that many consider her -------
of America.
(A) an innovator (B) an emblem
(C) a successor (D) a detractor
(E) a lobbyist
5. Whether substances are medicines or poisons often
depends on dosage, for substances that are ------- in
small doses can be ------- in large.
(A) useless . . effective
(B) mild . . benign
(C) curative . . toxic
(D) harmful . . fatal
(E) beneficial . . miraculous
6. Critics dismissed the engineer’s seemingly creative
design as being -------, that is, underdeveloped and
lacking in sophistication.
(A) defunct (B) unorthodox (C) simplistic
(D) erroneous (E) ambiguous
7. The professor commented to other faculty members that
Sheila seemed temperamentally suited to the study of
logic, given her ------- for ------- intricate arguments.
(A) sympathy . . influencing
(B) penchant . . evading
(C) disregard . . unhinging
(D) contempt . . following
(E) bent . . analyzing
8. While traveling near the Sun, the comet Hale-Bopp
produced a ------- amount of dust, much more than the
comets Halley or Hyakutake.
(A) voracious (B) disposable (C) redundant
(D) superficial (E) prodigious
Official SAT Practice Test
69
The passages below are followed by questions based on their content; questions following a pair of related passages may also
be based on the relationship between the paired passages. Answer the questions on the basis of what is stated or implied in the
passages and in any introductory material that may be provided.
Questions 9-10 are based on the following passage.
Newspaper editor and political commentator Henry
Louis Mencken was a force of nature, brushing aside
all objects animal and mineral in his headlong rush
to the publicity that surely awaited him. He seized
each day, shook it to within an inch of its life, and 5
then gaily went on to the next. No matter where his
writing appeared, it was quoted widely, his pungently
outspoken opinions debated hotly. Nobody else could
make so many people so angry, or make so many others
laugh so hard. 10
9. In lines 4-5, the words “seized” and “shook” help
establish which aspect of Mencken’s personality?
(A) His code of honor
(B) His sense of humor
(C) His vindictiveness
(D) His intensity
(E) His petulance
10. The public response described in lines 6-8 most
strongly suggests that Mencken’s writings were
(A) authoritative
(B) controversial
(C) arrogant
(D) informal
(E) frivolous
Questions 11-12 are based on the following passage.
The ability to see the situation as your opponents see it,
as difficult as it may be, is one of the most important skills
that you can possess as a negotiator. You must know more
than simply that they see things differently. It is not
enough to study them like beetles under a microscope; 5
you need to know what it feels like to be a beetle. To
accomplish this you should be prepared to withhold
judgment as you “try on” their views. Your opponents
may well believe that their views are right as strongly
as you believe yours are. 10
11. The reference to beetles in lines 5-6 serves
to suggest that
(A) people need to be more attuned to their
surroundings
(B) effective negotiation is more of a science
than an art
(C) people can be made to do what they
would prefer not to do
(D) effective negotiation requires identify-
ing with a different viewpoint
(E) people feel uncomfortable when their
actions are under scrutiny
12. The primary purpose of the passage is to
(A) persuade people to defend their positions
on critical issues
(B) indicate a specific ability that is useful
in negotiation
(C) encourage people to be more accepting
of others
(D) argue that few people are fit for the
demands of negotiation
(E) suggest that negotiators should always
seek consensus
Line Line
SAT Preparation Booklet
70
Questions 13-24 are based on the following passages.
Passage 1 is from a 2003 book that examines the famous
“I Have a Dream” speech delivered by Martin Luther
King, Jr. at the historic March on Washington in August
1963. Passage 2 is from a 2000 biography of Martin Luther
King, Jr. written by an African American scholar.
Passage 1
The ability of the “I Have a Dream” speech to high-
light King’s early career at the expense of his later career
accounts for the tone of impatience and betrayal that often
appears when modern-day supporters of King’s agenda talk
about the speech. Former Georgia state legislator Julian 5
Bond said in 1986 that commemorations of King seemed to
“focus almost entirely on Martin Luther King the dreamer,
not on Martin King the antiwar activist, not on Martin King
the challenger of the economic order, not on Martin King
the opponent of apartheid, not on the complete Martin 10
Luther King.” One King scholar has proposed a ten-year
moratorium on reading or listening to the “I Have a Dream”
speech, in the hopes that America will then discover the
rest of King’s legacy.
This proposal effectively concedes that King’s mag- 15
nificent address cannot be recovered from the misuse
and overquotation it has suffered since his death. But
it is not clear that this is so. Even now, upon hearing the
speech, one is struck by the many forms of King’s genius.
Many people can still remember the first time they heard 20
“I Have a Dream,” and they tend to speak of that memory
with the reverence reserved for a religious experience. At
the very least, reflecting on the “I Have a Dream” speech
should be an opportunity to be grateful for the astonishing
transformation of America that the freedom movement 25
wrought. In just under a decade, the civil rights move-
ment brought down a system of segregation that stood
essentially unaltered since Reconstruction. King’s dreams
of an America free from racial discrimination are still some
distance away, but it is astounding how far the nation has 30
come since that hot August day in 1963. Segregation in
the South has been dismantled; there are no longer
“Whites Only” signs; segregationist governors do not
try to prevent Black children from entering public schools.
Toward the end of his life, King preached a sermon entitled 35
“Ingratitude,” in which he called ingratitude “one of the
greatest of all sins,” because the sinner “fail[s] to realize
his dependence on others.” The annual Martin Luther King
holiday is properly a day of national thanksgiving, a time
for the nation to recognize the immense debt it owes to 40
King and the thousands of heroes of the civil rights
movement for saving the soul of America.
Passage 2
Martin Luther King was at his best when he was
willing to reshape the wisdom of many of his intellec-
tual predecessors. He ingeniously harnessed their ideas 45
to his views to advocate sweeping social change. He
believed that his early views on race failed to challenge
America fundamentally. He later confessed that he had
underestimated how deeply entrenched racism was in
America. If Black Americans could not depend on good- 50
will to create social change, they had to provoke social
change through bigger efforts at nonviolent direct action.
This meant that Blacks and their allies had to obtain
political power. They also had to try to restructure
American society, solving the riddles of poverty 55
and economic inequality.
This is not the image of King that is celebrated on
Martin Luther King Day. Many of King’s admirers are
uncomfortable with a focus on his mature beliefs. They
seek to deflect unfair attacks on King’s legacy by shroud- 60
ing him in the cloth of superhuman heroism. In truth, this
shroud is little more than romantic tissue. King’s image
has often suffered a sad fate. His strengths have been
needlessly exaggerated, his weaknesses wildly over-
played. King’s true legacy has been lost to cultural 65
amnesia. As a nation, we have emphasized King’s
aspiration to save America through inspiring words
and sacrificial deeds. Time and again we replay the
powerful image of King standing on a national stage
in the shadow of the Lincoln Memorial mouthing per- 70
haps the most famous four words ever uttered by a Black
American: “I have a dream.” For most Americans, those
words capture King’s unique genius. They express his
immortal longing for freedom, a longing that is familiar
to every person who dares imagine a future beyond unjust 75
laws and unfair customs. The edifying universality of those
four words—who hasn’t dreamed, and who cannot identify
with people whose dreams of a better world are punished
with violence?—helps to explain their durability. But those
words survive, too, because they comfort folk who would 80
rather entertain the dreams of unfree people than confront
their rage and despair.
13. The authors of both passages agree that King’s “I Have
a Dream” speech
(A) had significant global as well as national influence
(B) has been imitated by many of King’s followers
(C) had a profound impact on many Americans
(D) was typical of King’s thought as a whole
(E) questioned the ethical beliefs of many Americans
Line
Official SAT Practice Test
71
14. It can be inferred that, for Julian Bond, a portrait of
“the complete Martin Luther King” (lines 10-11)
would
(A) celebrate King’s influence both within and out-
side the United States
(B) acknowledge the logical lapses in some of King’s
later work
(C) compare King with other significant figures of
his era
(D) achieve a balance between King’s earlier concerns
and his later ones
(E) reveal information about King’s personal as well
as his public life
15. The author of Passage 2 would most likely view Julian
Bond’s statement in lines 7-11 of Passage 1 with
(A) outright disapproval
(B) considerable surprise
(C) cynical mistrust
(D) cautious optimism
(E) complete agreement
16. In line 17, “suffered” most nearly means
(A) endured
(B) felt
(C) prolonged
(D) tolerated
(E) lamented
17. Lines 31-34 (“Segregation in . . . schools”) serve
primarily to
(A) express ambitious hopes for the future
(B) challenge the accuracy of historical
accounts
(C) provide a contrast with other cultures
(D) illustrate a point with particular examples
(E) defend a series of unusual occurrences
18. The author of Passage 1 mentions the “sermon”
(line 35) primarily in order to
(A) show King’s effectiveness as a public speaker
(B) demonstrate the broad range of King’s interests
(C) illustrate an important trait that King possessed
(D) question King’s ability to empathize with others
(E) remind readers of a significant obligation to King
19. The author of Passage 2 would most likely characterize
the view of King expressed in lines 38-42 of Passage 1
(“The annual . . . America”) as
(A) contradictory
(B) insightful
(C) atypical
(D) simplistic
(E) arrogant
20. Lines 57-58 (“This is . . . Day”) mark a transition
within Passage 2 from a
(A) consideration of King’s views to a critique
of people’s understanding of them
(B) challenge to King’s beliefs to an acceptance
of their cultural resonance
(C) discussion of King’s intellectual predecessors
to an analysis of his legacy
(D) celebration of King’s strengths to an exam-
ination of his weaknesses
(E) defense of King’s aspirations to an attack
on those who fail to support them
21. Lines 76-79 in Passage 2 (“The edifying . . .
durability”) are best described as
(A) contesting the notion of King’s historical
importance that is advanced by the author
of Passage 1
(B) providing an explanation for the view of
King’s speech that is expressed by the
author of Passage 1
(C) challenging the portrait of the civil rights
movement that is presented by the author
of Passage 1
(D) offering a humorous anecdote that sup-
ports a statement made by the author
of Passage 1
(E) dismissing a perspective that is similarly
rejected by the author of Passage 1
22. Unlike the author of Passage 2, the author of Passage 1
develops his or her argument by
(A) citing an authority with whom he or she disagrees
(B) referring to a famous speech delivered by King
(C) discussing the universal human trait of dreaming
(D) dismissing those who fail to understand the
subtlety of King’s thought
(E) assuming that his or her readers are completely
unfamiliar with King’s ideas
SAT Preparation Booklet
72
23. The author of Passage 2 would most likely argue
that commemorations focus on “Martin Luther King
the dreamer” (line 7 of Passage 1) because people
find this aspect of King to be
(A) courageous
(B) unpretentious
(C) reassuring
(D) provocative
(E) unexpected
24. Which best characterizes the overall relationship
between the two passages?
(A) Passage 2 rejects the political goals that are
described in Passage 1.
(B) Passage 2 helps account for the responses to a
speech discussed in Passage 1.
(C) Passage 2 romanticizes a person who is
objectively depicted in Passage 1.
(D) Passage 2 recounts the history of a national
holiday that is celebrated in Passage 1.
(E) Passage 2 reflects on a figure who is
denounced in Passage 1.
S T O P
If you finish before time is called, you may check your work on this section only.
Do not turn to any other section in the test.
Official SAT Practice Test
73
SECTION 8
Time — 20 minutes
16 Questions
Turn to Section 8 (page 7) of your answer sheet to answer the questions in this section.
Directions: For this section, solve each problem and decide which is the best of the choices given. Fill in the corresponding
circle on the answer sheet. You may use any available space for scratch work.
1. On Wednesday Heather ran 3 miles in 30 minutes.
If she ran for 45 minutes at this rate on Thursday,
how far did Heather run on Thursday?
(A) 3.5 miles
(B) 4 miles
(C) 4.5 miles
(D) 5 miles
(E) 5.5 miles
2. If ( ) , 2 6 m k then mk
(A) 3
(B) 4
(C) 5
(D) 6
(E) 12
3. If 3 times a number is equal to
3
2
, what is the number?
(A)
1
3
(B)
1
2
(C)
2
3
(D) 2
(E) 3
SAT Preparation Booklet
74
4. In the figure above, CDE is an equilateral triangle
and ABCE is a square with an area of 1. What is the
perimeter of polygon ABCDE ?
(A) 4
(B) 5
(C) 6
(D) 7
(E) 8
5. On the number line above, the tick marks are equally
spaced and their coordinates are shown. Of these
coordinates, which has the smallest positive value?
(A) a
(B) b
(C) c
(D) d
(E) e
10, 18, 4, 15, 3, 21, x
6. If x is the median of the 7 numbers listed above,
which of the following could be the value of x ?
(A) 5
(B) 8
(C) 9
(D) 14
(E) 16
7. Two spheres, one with radius 7 and one with radius 4,
are tangent to each other. If P is any point on one
sphere and Q is any point on the other sphere, what is
the maximum possible length of PQ ?
(A) 7
(B) 11
(C) 14
(D) 18
(E) 22
NUMBER OF PREMIUM MEMBERS
Year 2000 2001 2002
Store A 250 400 750
Store B 500 1,000 1,250
AVERAGE NUMBER OF VIDEO
RENTALS PER PREMIUM MEMBER
AT STORE B
Year Rentals
2000 12
2001 15
2002 20
8. The first table above shows the number of premium
members at two video rental stores, A and B, during
the years 2000–2002. The second table shows the
average (arithmetic mean) number of video rentals per
premium member at store B during each of those
years. Based on this information, which of the
following best approximates the total number of video
rentals by premium members at Store B during the
years 2000–2002 ?
(A) 24,000
(B) 46,000
(C) 58,000
(D) 70,000
(E) 130,000
Official SAT Practice Test
75
9. In ᭝ABC above, , AB AC E is the midpoint of
, AB and D is the midpoint of . AC If AE x and
4, ED what is length BC ?
(A) 6
(B) 8
(C) 2x
(D) 4x
(E) 4
2
x
10. A student was given a piece of rope and told to cut
it into two equal pieces, keep one piece, and pass
the other piece to the next student. Each student was
to repeat this process until every student in the class
had exactly one piece of rope. Which of the following
could be the fraction of the original rope that one of
the students had?
(A)
1
14
(B)
1
15
(C)
1
16
(D)
1
17
(E)
1
18
11. Which of the following is the graph of a function f such
that 0 f x for exactly two values of x between
5 and 5 ?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
SAT Preparation Booklet
76
12. If x = 20 and y = 30 in the figure above, what is the
value of z ?
(A) 60
(B) 70
(C) 80
(D) 90
(E) 100
13. If x and y are integers, 7 16 y , and
x
y
2
5
,
how many possible values are there for x ?
(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) Four
(E) Five
14. Point O is the center of both circles in the figure
above. If the circumference of the large circle is 36 and
the radius of the small circle is half of the radius of the
large circle, what is the length of the darkened arc?
(A) 10
(B) 8
(C) 6
(D) 4
(E) 2
15. The graph above shows the number of George’s
unsold candy bars over a 10-day period. The points
on the graph all lie on which of the following lines?
(A) 10 120 y x
(B) 10 120 y x
(C) 12 120 y x
(D) 120 10 y x
(E) 120 12 y x
16. Let ᭢x be defined as x
x
+
1
for all nonzero
integers x. If ᭢x t = , where t is an integer,
which of the following is a possible value of t ?
(A) 1
(B) 0
(C) −1
(D) −2
(E) −3
S T O P
If you finish before time is called, you may check your work on this section only.
Do not turn to any other section in the test.
Official SAT Practice Test
77
SECTION 9
Time — 20 minutes
19 Questions
Turn to Section 9 (page 7) of your answer sheet to answer the questions in this section.
Directions: For each question in this section, select the best answer from among the choices given and fill in the corresponding
circle on the answer sheet.
Each sentence below has one or two blanks, each blank
indicating that something has been omitted. Beneath
the sentence are five words or sets of words labeled A
through E. Choose the word or set of words that, when
inserted in the sentence, best fits the meaning of the
sentence as a whole.
Example:
Hoping to ------- the dispute, negotiators proposed
a compromise that they felt would be ------- to both
labor and management.
(A) enforce . . useful
(B) end . . divisive
(C) overcome . . unattractive
(D) extend . . satisfactory
(E) resolve . . acceptable
1. The writer came to be labeled ------- because she
isolated herself in her apartment, shunning outside
contact.
(A) a loner (B) a miser (C) a connoisseur
(D) a conspirator (E) an ingenue
2. Some Tibetan nomads used yak butter as a -------, one
that often took the place of money in commercial
transactions.
(A) promotion (B) commodity (C) formula
(D) refund (E) register
3. Geysers vary widely: some may discharge -------,
whereas others may have only a brief explosive
eruption and then remain ------- for hours or days.
(A) violently . . dangerous
(B) continuously . . quiescent
(C) spontaneously . . unpredictable
(D) regularly . . active
(E) faintly . . imperceptible
4. Although the administration repeatedly threatened to
use its authority in order to ------- the student protestors
into submission, they refused to be intimidated.
(A) ease (B) delude (C) cajole
(D) bully (E) nudge
5. Only after the campaign volunteers became aware
of their candidate’s questionable motives could they
recognize the ------- statements made in his seemingly
------- speeches.
(A) insightful . . astute
(B) partisan . . callous
(C) cordial . . hostile
(D) duplicitous . . candid
(E) cunning . . surreptitious
6. No longer narrowly preoccupied with their own
national pasts, historians are increasingly ------- in
that they often take a transnational perspective.
(A) conciliatory (B) bombastic (C) mendacious
(D) cosmopolitan (E) jocular
SAT Preparation Booklet
78
The passage below is followed by questions based on its content. Answer the questions on the basis of what is stated or implied
in the passage and in any introductory material that may be provided.
Questions 7-19 are based on the following passage.
In the introduction to one of her dramas, a well-known
playwright and actor discusses some of her ideas about
acting.
Words have always held a particular power for me.
I remember leafing through a book of Native American
poems one morning while I was waiting for my Shakespeare
class to begin and being struck by a phrase from the preface,
“The word, the word above all, is truly magical, not only by 5
its meaning, but by its artful manipulation.”
This quote, which I added to my journal, reminded
me of something my grandfather had told me when I was
a girl: “If you say a word often enough it becomes your
own.” I added that phrase to my journal next to the quote 10
about the magic of words. When I traveled home to
Baltimore for my grandfather’s funeral a year after my
journal entry, I mentioned my grandfather’s words to my
father. He corrected me. He told me that my grandfather
had actually said, “If you say a word often enough, it 15
becomes you.” I was still a student at the time, but I knew
even then, even before I had made a conscious decision to
teach as well as act, that my grandfather’s words would be
important.
Actors are very impressionable people, or some would 20
say, suggestible people. We are trained to develop aspects
of our memories that are more emotional and sensory than
intellectual. The general public often wonders how actors
remember their lines. What’s more remarkable to me is
how actors remember, recall, and reiterate feelings and 25
sensations. The body has a memory just as the mind does.
The heart has a memory, just as the mind does. The act of
speech is a physical act. It is powerful enough that it can
create, with the rest of the body, a kind of cooperative
dance. That dance is a sketch of something that is inside a 30
person, and not fully revealed by the words alone. I came
to realize that if I were able to record part of the dance—
that is, the spoken part —and reenact it, the rest of the
body would follow. I could then create the illusion of being
another person by reenacting something she had said as she 35
had said it. My grandfather’s idea led me to consider that
the reenactment, or the reiteration, of a person’s words
would also teach me about that person.
I had been trained in the tradition of acting called
“psychological realism.” A basic tenet of psychological 40
realism is that characters live inside of you and that you
create a lifelike portrayal of the character through a process
of realizing your own similarity to the character. When I
later became a teacher of acting, I began to become more
and more troubled by the self-oriented method. I began to 45
look for ways to engage my students in putting themselves
in other people’s shoes. This went against the grain of the
psychological realism tradition, which was to get the char-
acter to walk in the actor’s shoes. It became less and less
interesting intellectually to bring the dramatic literature of 50
the world into a classroom of people in their late teens and
twenties, and to explore it within the framework of their
real lives. Aesthetically it seemed limited, because most
of the time the characters all sounded the same. Most char-
acters spoke somewhere inside the rhythmic range of the 55
students. More troubling was that this method left an
important bridge out of acting. The spirit of acting is the
travel from the self to the other. This “self-based” method
seemed to come to a spiritual halt. It saw the self as the
ultimate home of the character. To me, the search for char- 60
acter is constantly in motion. It is a quest that moves back
and forth between the self and the other.
I needed evidence that you could find a character’s psy-
chological reality by “inhabiting” that character’s words. I
needed evidence of the limitations of basing a character on 65
a series of metaphors from an actor’s real life. I wanted to
develop an alternative to the self-based technique, a tech-
nique that would begin with the other and come to the self,
a technique that would empower the other to find the actor
rather than the other way around. 70
7. The primary purpose of the first three paragraphs
(lines 1-38) is to
(A) describe the actor’s process of developing a role
(B) trace the beginnings of a personal philosophy
(C) analyze the grandfather’s insights into acting
(D) investigate the effect of words on interpersonal
relationships
(E) explore a viewpoint that the author is forced to
reverse
8. The author of the passage uses the quotation in
lines 5-6 primarily as a
(A) vivid expression of how she views words
(B) powerful example of what she sought in
Shakespeare
(C) scholarly citation linking her to poetic words
(D) comical introduction to a problem encountered by
every dramatic performer
(E) pragmatic assessment of the power of words for
beginning drama students
Line
Official SAT Practice Test
79
9. By presenting both versions of the grandfather’s words
(lines 9-10 and lines 15-16), the author primarily con-
veys the
(A) grandfather’s attempts to play with language
(B) grandfather’s enthusiasm in spite of her reaction
(C) father’s intervention in a private moment
(D) ambivalence she feels toward her grandfather
(E) significance of the grandfather’s message
10. The comparisons in lines 26-27 serve primarily to
(A) show the similarities that exist between dancing
and acting
(B) celebrate the broad range of memories that actors
learn to draw on
(C) justify the author’s adherence to conventional
acting theory
(D) explain why actors have difficulty interpreting
character
(E) enhance the author’s credibility as a technically
trained actor
11. In lines 29-34 (“a kind . . . follow”), the author uses the
idea of a dance to
(A) supply an image for the awkwardness some actors
experience
(B) illustrate a process that words can set in motion
(C) portray the enactment of a character as an exhila-
rating experience
(D) argue that acting requires physical agility
(E) show how a word can evoke multiple meanings
12. In line 34, “follow” most nearly means
(A) pursue
(B) result
(C) surpass
(D) join in
(E) listen carefully
13. In lines 39-62, the author reveals herself to be someone
who believes that
(A) teachers and students should examine controversial
issues together
(B) playwrights especially benefit from experience on
stage
(C) conventional approaches should be open to
questioning and reevaluation
(D) traditional methods often reflect the accumulated
insight of generations
(E) standard practices are the most suitable to teach to
beginners
14. Lines 39-70 present the author’s argument primarily by
(A) celebrating the appeal of a discredited tradition
(B) exploring the impact of her early experiences on
her acting
(C) explaining her reasons for rejecting a technique
(D) describing challenges commonly met by profes-
sional actors
(E) analyzing insights gained from debates with other
drama professors
15. The author’s explanation in the fourth paragraph sug-
gests that the “self-oriented method” (line 45) rests on
the assumption that
(A) audience members appreciate complex nuances of
character
(B) the playwright’s biography provides the main evi-
dence for interpreting character
(C) actors have already felt the full range of human
emotions
(D) actors are extremely independent and self-serving
people
(E) actors’ lives become fulfilled through their dra-
matic portrayals
SAT Preparation Booklet
80
16. Which statement best captures the author’s point in
lines 54-56 (“Most characters . . . students”) ?
(A) The characters spoke through the students’ own
rich cadences.
(B) Young drama students have an uncanny knack for
conveying character.
(C) Most students found class to be repetitious.
(D) Characterizations were confined by what the
students knew.
(E) The spontaneity that the students had hoped for
had not been achieved.
17. In line 60, the phrase “home of the character” most
nearly means
(A) way of understanding eccentricities
(B) social context surrounding a character
(C) environment for practicing acting
(D) forum in which the self is presented publicly
(E) source of a role’s psychological truth
18. In lines 63-64, “psychological reality” describes which
quality?
(A) The versatility of a performer
(B) The physical gestures of a character
(C) The essence of an identity
(D) The accuracy of an audience’s expectations
(E) The logical consistency of certain actions
19. The “metaphors” in line 66 are best described as
(A) private misgivings
(B) objective observations
(C) abstract equations
(D) memorable phrases
(E) personal comparisons
S T O P
If you finish before time is called, you may check your work on this section only.
Do not turn to any other section in the test.
Official SAT Practice Test
81
SECTION 10
Time — 10 minutes
14 Questions
Turn to Section 10 (page 7) of your answer sheet to answer the questions in this section.
Directions: For each question in this section, select the best answer from among the choices given and fill in the corresponding
circle on the answer sheet.
The following sentences test correctness and effectiveness
of expression. Part of each sentence or the entire sentence
is underlined; beneath each sentence are five ways of
phrasing the underlined material. Choice A repeats the
original phrasing; the other four choices are different. If
you think the original phrasing produces a better sentence
than any of the alternatives, select choice A; if not, select
one of the other choices.
In making your selection, follow the requirements of
standard written English; that is, pay attention to grammar,
choice of words, sentence construction, and punctuation.
Your selection should result in the most effective
sentence—clear and precise, without awkwardness or
ambiguity.
EXAMPLE:
Laura Ingalls Wilder published her first book
and she was sixty-five years old then.
(A) and she was sixty-five years old then
(B) when she was sixty-five
(C) at age sixty-five years old
(D) upon the reaching of sixty-five years
(E) at the time when she was sixty-five
1. In everything from finding comets to spotting
supernovae, amateur astronomers have become so
accomplished, and professional astronomers sometimes
seek their help.
(A) accomplished, and
(B) accomplished, also
(C) accomplished that
(D) accomplished therefore
(E) accomplished when
2. Since scientific advances are central to progress, basic
research deserving continuing support.
(A) basic research deserving continuing support
(B) basic research being what deserves continuing
support
(C) basic research deserves continuing support
(D) continuing support is deserved by basic research
(E) continuing support is what they deserve in basic
research
3. With Americans consuming sugar in record amounts,
nutritionists are urging the public to reduce its
consumption of sodas, which have largely replaced
other, more healthful, beverages.
(A) nutritionists are urging the public to reduce its
consumption of sodas, which
(B) nutritionists have been urging that the public
reduces its consumption of sodas; those
(C) the public ought to reduce its consuming of sodas,
as urged by nutritionists, because they
(D) nutritionists urge about reducing public soda
consumption, which
(E) less soda should be consumed by the public, urge
nutritionists, which
4. Experts disagree about what is the definition of
intelligence and how to measure it.
(A) what is the definition of intelligence and how to
measure it
(B) how to define intelligence, and also its
measurement
(C) how to define and measure intelligence
(D) defining intelligence as well as measurement
(E) the definition of intelligence and measuring it
SAT Preparation Booklet
82
5. The charges against the organization are being
investigated by a committee, it includes several
senators.
(A) committee, it includes
(B) committee; it including
(C) committee, and it will include
(D) committee, they include
(E) committee that includes
6. Travel writing often describes a journey of exploration
and endurance, a trip that is risky either because of
natural hazards but also because of political unrest.
(A) but also because of
(B) but also due to
(C) or because there was
(D) or because of
(E) or the cause is
7. Though they had earlier indicated otherwise, it was
eventually decided upon by the legislators to have the
bill passed.
(A) it was eventually decided upon by the legislators
to have the bill passed
(B) it was eventually decided upon by the legislators
to pass the bill
(C) the eventual decision of the legislators was for
passage of the bill
(D) the legislators’ eventual decision was passing
the bill
(E) the legislators eventually decided to pass the bill
8. Spread by rat fleas, millions of people in medieval
Europe were killed by bubonic plague.
(A) millions of people in medieval Europe were killed
by bubonic plague
(B) and millions of medieval Europeans killed by
bubonic plague
(C) this led to the killing of millions of medieval
Europeans by bubonic plague
(D) bubonic plague in medieval Europe was why
millions of people were killed
(E) bubonic plague killed millions of people in
medieval Europe
9. Traditional Jamaican music, enriched with rock, jazz,
and other modern rhythms from America, were the
basis for reggae.
(A) were the basis for
(B) have been a basis for
(C) become the basis of
(D) was the basis for
(E) being the basis of
10. James Barrie, the author of Peter Pan and
other plays, is noted for portraying adulthood
as unpleasant and childhood is glorified.
(A) childhood is glorified
(B) childhood as being glorious
(C) childhood as glorious
(D) childhood glorified
(E) glorified childhood
11. Medical insurance coverage that requires high monthly
premiums and that is beyond the financial means of
many people.
(A) that requires high monthly premiums and that is
(B) that requires high monthly premiums and it is
(C) requiring high monthly premiums are
(D) with the requirements of high monthly
premiums are
(E) that requires high monthly premiums is
12. Among the most flavorful cuisines in the United States,
New Orleans has also become one of the most popular.
(A) New Orleans has also become
(B) New Orleans has also become famous as
(C) the cuisine of New Orleans is also
(D) cuisines in New Orleans also have become
(E) also the cuisine of New Orleans is
Official SAT Practice Test
83
13. Meals prepared by the Algonquin Indians, who were
farmers as well as hunters, included more maize and
pumpkin than other Indian tribes.
(A) pumpkin than other Indian tribes
(B) pumpkin than did those prepared by other Indian
tribes
(C) pumpkin than that which other Indian tribes did
(D) pumpkin, and this was not the same as other
Indian tribes
(E) pumpkin; and other Indian tribes did not prepare
meals in this way
14. Born of Ibuza parents in Nigeria, novelist Buchi
Emecheta moved to England in 1962, since which she
has lived in North London.
(A) 1962, since which she has lived in North London
(B) 1962 and has lived since then in North London
(C) 1962, since then she has lived in North London
(D) 1962 and lived since then in North London
(E) 1962, and living in North London since that time
S T O P
If you finish before time is called, you may check your work on this section only.
Do not turn to any other section in the test.
SAT Preparation Booklet
84
Correct Answers and Difficulty Levels for the Official SAT Practice Test
Get a score report
and answer
explanations! Enter
your answers online at
collegeboard.com/
satpracticetest.
Scoring the Official SAT Practice Test
85
Scoring the Official SAT
Practice Test
To have your score calculated automatically, go to
collegeboard.com/satpracticetest. You’ll receive:
• A detailed score report
• Answer explanations
To calculate your score on paper, check your responses with the
correct answers on page 84. Fill in the blanks below and do the
calculations to get your mathematics, critical reading, and writing
raw scores. Use the tables on page 86 to find your scaled scores.
Get Your Mathematics Score
How many mathematics questions did you get right?
Section 2: Questions 1–20 ___________
Section 6: Questions 1–18 + ___________
Section 8: Questions 1–16 + ___________
Total = ___________(A)
How many multiple-choice math questions did you get wrong?
Section 2: Questions 1–20 ___________
Section 6: Questions 1–8 + ___________
Section 8: Questions 1–16 + ___________
Total = ___________
0.25 = ___________(B)
A - B= ___________
Math Raw Score
Round math raw score to the nearest whole number.
Use the table on page 86 to find your math scaled score.
Get Your Critical Reading Score
How many critical reading questions did you get right?
Section 3: Questions 1–24 ___________
Section 7: Questions 1–24 + ___________
Section 9: Questions 1–19 + ___________
Total = ___________(A)
×
How many critical reading questions did you get wrong?
Section 3: Questions 1–24 ___________
Section 7: Questions 1–24 + ___________
Section 9: Questions 1–19 + ___________
Total = ___________
0.25 = ___________(B)
A - B= ___________
critical reading
Raw Score
Round critical reading raw score to the nearest
whole number.
Use the table on page 86 to find your critical reading scaled score.
Get Your Writing Score
How many multiple-choice writing questions did you get right?
Section 5: Questions 1–35 ___________
Section 10: Questions 1–14+ ___________
Total = ___________(A)
How many multiple-choice writing questions did you get wrong?
Section 5: Questions 1–35 ___________
Section 10: Questions 1–14+ ___________
Total = ___________
0.25 = ___________(B)
A - B = ___________
writing multiple-choice
Raw Score
Round writing multiple-choice raw score to the nearest whole
number.
(C)
Use the table on page 86 to find your writing multiple-choice scaled
score.
Estimate your essay score using the Essay Scoring Guide on page 36.
2 = (D)
Use the table on page 87, your writing multiple-choice raw score
(C), and your essay score (D) to find your writing composite scaled
score.
×
×
×
SAT Preparation Booklet
86
Raw
Score
Critical
Reading
Scaled
Score
Math
Scaled
Score
Math
Scaled
Score
Critical
Reading
Scaled
Score
Raw
Score
Writing
Multiple-Choice
Scaled
Score*
Writing
Multiple-Choice
Scaled
Score*
SAT Score Conversion Table
67 800
66 800
65 800
64 790
63 770
62 760
61 740
60 730
59 720
58 700
57 690
56 680
55 670
54 670 800
53 660 790
52 650 760
51 640 740
50 630 720
49 620 710 80
48 620 700 78
47 610 690 75
46 600 680 73
45 600 670 71
44 590 660 70
43 580 650 68
42 570 640 67
41 570 640 66
40 560 630 64
39 550 620 63
38 550 610 62
37 540 600 61
36 530 590 60
35 530 590 59
34 520 580 58
33 520 570 57
32 510 560 56
31 500 550 55
30 500 540 54
29 490 540 53
28 480 530 52
27 480 520 51
26 470 510 50
25 460 500 49
24 460 490 48
23 450 480 47
22 440 480 46
21 440 470 45
20 430 460 44
19 420 450 43
18 410 440 42
17 410 430 41
16 400 420 40
15 390 420 39
14 380 410 38
13 380 400 38
12 370 390 37
11 360 380 36
10 350 370 35
9 340 360 34
8 330 350 33
7 320 330 32
6 310 320 31
5 300 310 30
4 290 290 29
3 270 280 27
2 260 260 26
1 240 240 24
0 220 220 22
-1 210 200 20
-2 200 200 20
and
below
This table is for use only with the test in this booklet.
* The writing multiple-choice score is reported on a 20-80 scale. Use the table on page 87 for the writing composite scaled score.
Scoring the Official SAT Practice Test
87
SAT Writing Composite Score Conversion Table
Writing MC
Raw Score 12 11 10 9 8 7 6 5 4 3 2 0
Essay Raw Score
49 800 800 800 790 770 750 740 720 710 700 680 670
48 800 800 780 760 740 720 710 690 680 670 650 640
47 790 770 760 740 720 700 690 670 660 640 630 620
46 770 750 740 720 700 680 670 650 640 630 610 600
45 760 740 720 710 690 670 650 640 630 610 590 580
44 740 730 710 700 670 660 640 620 610 600 580 570
43 730 720 700 680 660 640 630 610 600 590 570 560
42 720 700 690 670 650 630 620 600 590 570 560 550
41 710 690 680 660 640 620 610 590 580 560 550 540
40 700 680 670 650 630 610 600 580 570 550 540 530
39 690 680 660 640 620 600 590 570 560 550 530 520
38 680 670 650 630 610 600 580 560 550 540 520 510
37 670 660 640 630 610 590 570 550 540 530 510 500
36 660 650 630 620 600 580 560 550 530 520 500 490
35 660 640 620 610 590 570 550 540 530 510 490 480
34 650 630 620 600 580 560 550 530 520 500 490 480
33 640 620 610 590 570 550 540 520 510 490 480 470
32 630 620 600 580 560 540 530 510 500 490 470 460
31 620 610 590 580 550 540 520 500 490 480 460 450
30 610 600 580 570 550 530 510 500 480 470 450 440
29 610 590 570 560 540 520 500 490 480 460 440 430
28 600 580 570 550 530 510 490 480 470 450 440 430
27 590 570 560 540 520 500 490 470 460 440 430 420
26 580 570 550 530 510 490 480 460 450 440 420 410
25 570 560 540 530 500 490 470 450 440 430 410 400
24 560 550 530 520 500 480 460 450 430 420 400 390
23 560 540 520 510 490 470 450 440 430 410 390 380
22 550 530 520 500 480 460 450 430 420 400 390 380
21 540 520 510 490 470 450 440 420 410 390 380 370
20 530 520 500 480 460 440 430 410 400 390 370 360
19 520 510 490 480 460 440 420 410 390 380 360 350
18 520 500 480 470 450 430 410 400 390 370 350 340
17 510 490 480 460 440 420 410 390 380 360 350 340
16 500 490 470 450 430 410 400 380 370 360 340 330
15 490 480 460 450 430 410 390 370 360 350 330 320
14 490 470 450 440 420 400 380 370 360 340 320 310
13 480 460 450 430 410 390 380 360 350 330 320 310
12 470 460 440 420 400 380 370 350 340 330 310 300
11 460 450 430 420 400 380 360 350 330 320 300 290
10 460 440 420 410 390 370 350 340 330 310 290 280
9 450 430 420 400 380 360 350 330 320 300 290 280
8 440 430 410 390 370 350 340 320 310 300 280 270
7 430 420 400 390 360 350 330 310 300 290 270 260
6 420 410 390 380 360 340 320 310 290 280 260 250
5 410 400 380 370 350 330 310 300 280 270 250 240
4 400 390 370 360 340 320 300 290 270 260 240 230
3 390 380 360 350 330 310 290 280 260 250 230 220
2 380 370 350 330 310 290 280 260 250 240 220 210
1 370 350 340 320 300 280 260 250 240 220 210 200
0 350 340 320 300 280 260 250 230 220 210 200 200
-1 330 320 300 290 270 250 230 220 200 200 200 200
-2 310 300 280 270 250 230 210 200 200 200 200 200
-3 310 290 280 260 240 220 210 200 200 200 200 200
and below
Revised December 2006. This table is for use only with the test in this booklet.
70866-37366 • UNLWEBPDF78
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Contents
The SAT® . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 3 Why You Should Take the SAT® . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 3 Frequently Asked Questions . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 3 Approaches to Taking the SAT . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 3 The Critical Reading Section . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 5 Approaches to the Critical Reading Section . . . . . . . . . . . . . 5 Sentence Completions . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 5 Passage-Based Reading . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 6 The Mathematics Section . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 13 Calculator Policy . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 13 Approaches to the Mathematics Section . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 13 Mathematics Review . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 14 Multiple-Choice Questions . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 20 Student-Produced Response Questions . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 23 The Writing Section . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 26 Characteristics of Effective Writing . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 26 Improving Sentences . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 27 Identifying Sentence Errors. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 28 Improving Paragraphs . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 29 The Essay. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 31 Scoring the Essay . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 36 Scoring Guide . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 36 Official SAT Practice Test . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 37 About the Practice Test . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 37 Answer Sheet . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 38 Official SAT Practice Test . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 46 Correct Answers and Difficulty Levels . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 84 Scoring the Official SAT Practice Test . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 85

The College Board:
Connecting Students to College Success
The College Board is a not-for-profit membership association whose mission is to connect students to college success and opportunity. Founded in 1900, the association is composed of more than 5,400 schools, colleges, universities, and other educational organizations. Each year, the College Board serves seven million students and their parents, 23,000 high schools, and 3,500 colleges through major programs and services in college admissions, guidance, assessment, financial aid, enrollment, and teaching and learning. Among its best-known programs are the SAT®, the PSAT/NMSQT®, and the Advanced Placement Program® (AP®). The College Board is committed to the principles of excellence and equity, and that commitment is embodied in all of its programs, services, activities, and concerns. For further information, visit www.collegeboard.com.
© 2008 The College Board. All rights reserved. College Board, Advanced Placement Program, AP, SAT, and the acorn logo are registered trademarks of the College Board. achieve more, connect to college success, SAT Preparation Booklet, SAT Preparation Center, SAT Reasoning Test, SAT Subject Tests, The Official SAT Study Guide, The Official SAT Question of the Day, and The Official SAT Online Course are trademarks owned by the College Board. PSAT/NMSQT is a registered trademark of the College Board and National Merit Scholarship Corporation. All other products and services may be trademarks of their respective owners. Visit the College Board on the Web: www.collegeboard.com. 

SAT Preparation Booklet

The SAT®
This booklet will answer your questions about the SAT® and help you prepare for test day.

What do I need to know about the essay?
The purpose of the essay is to demonstrate not only how well you write, but also how well you express and back up a point of view. You will have 25 minutes to write your essay, which will count for approximately 30 percent of your writing score. The essay must be written with a No. 2 (soft-lead) pencil and will be scored as a first draft, not a polished piece of writing.
Important Information • You have 3 hours and 45 minutes to complete the entire test. • All multiple-choice questions are scored the same way: one point for each correct answer, and one-quarter point subtracted for a wrong answer. No points are subtracted for answers left blank. • You can always take the test again. One out of every two high school students takes the SAT at least twice. • Remember: The SAT is only one factor colleges look at when they consider your application. • Make sure you use a No. 2 pencil. It is very important that you fill in the entire circle on the answer sheet darkly and completely. If you change your response, erase it as completely as possible.

Why You Should Take the SAT®
Nearly every college and university in the United States accepts and uses the SAT as part of its admissions process. Your SAT score can help you get connected to the right colleges and help you identify opportunities for scholarships.

Frequently Asked Questions
What’s on the SAT?
The SAT measures the skills you have learned in and outside of the classroom and how well you can apply that knowledge. It tests how you think, solve problems, and communicate. The test is composed of three sections:
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Critical reading, which has sentence completion and passage-based reading questions Mathematics, which is based on the math that college-bound students typically learn during their first three years of high school Writing, which has multiple-choice questions and a written essay

How can I prepare for the SAT?
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Take a rigorous curriculum, study hard, and read and write outside of the classroom. Take the PSAT/NMSQT® in your junior year. Review the sample questions, test-taking approaches, and directions in this booklet. Take the official SAT practice test in this booklet and review the answer explanations online. Access free online practice tools at www.collegeboard.com/satprep.

Approaches to Taking the SAT

How should I get ready for test day?

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Make sure you have on hand all the materials you will need, such as a calculator, No. 2 pencils (no mechanical pencils), a soft eraser, your Admission Ticket, and an official photo ID. Check out the route to the test center and know where the weekend entrances are located. Get a good night’s sleep. Leave yourself plenty of time so you’ll arrive at the test center a little early.

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How can I help myself feel as confident as possible?
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All questions count the same, so answer the easy questions first. The easier questions are usually at the beginning of the section, and the harder ones are at the end. The exception is in the critical reading section, where questions are ordered according to the logic and organization of each passage. Make educated guesses. You have a better chance of guessing the right answer if you can rule out one or more answer choices for multiple-choice questions. Skip questions that you really can’t answer. No points are deducted if an answer is left blank. Limit your time on any one question. All questions are worth the same number of points. If you need a lot of time to answer a question, go on to the next one. Later, you may have time to return to the question you skipped. Keep track of time. Don’t spend too much time on any group of questions within a section. Use your test booklet as scratch paper. In your test booklet, mark the questions that you skipped and to which you want to return. Check your answer sheet to make sure you are placing your answers correctly.
For daily practice questions, visit The Official SAT Question of the Day™ at collegeboard.com/ qotd or sign up to receive it by e-mail. Each question has a hint and an answer explanation.
The SAT

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SAT Preparation Booklet

. Have you ever heard or seen a word that may be related to it? In your test booklet. so neither (A) nor (D) can be the correct answer.The Critical Reading Section The critical reading section gives you a chance to show how well you understand what you read. they follow the logic of the passage. familiar sayings and phrases. Sentence completions (19 questions) Passage-based reading (48 questions) Directions Each sentence below has one or two blanks. Don’t be misled by an answer that looks correct but is not supported by the actual text of the passage(s). Note: Calculators may not be on your desk or used on the critical reading section of the SAT. . prefixes. This section has two types of questions: ● ● Sentence Completions Sentence completion questions measure your ● ● knowledge of the meanings of words. useful (B) end . Remember that all questions are worth the same number of points regardless of the type or difficulty.the dispute. They take less time to answer than the passage-based reading questions. divisive (C) overcome . Would it make sense to say that “negotiators” who have “proposed a compromise” were hoping to enforce or extend the “dispute”? No. Reading questions often include line numbers to help direct you to the relevant part(s) of the passage. Approaches to the Critical Reading Section ● ● ● ● ● ● ● ● ● Work on sentence completion questions first. each blank indicating that something has been omitted. Beneath the sentence are five words or sets of words labeled A through E. in order to find support for the best answer to the question. If one word or more is quoted exactly from the passage. If one of the words in an answer choice is logically wrong. If you don’t know what a word means in a sentence completion or reading passage. Does it make sense to say. . Answering Sentence Completion Questions One way to answer a sentence completion question with two missing words is to focus first on just one of the two blanks. Example: Hoping to ------. satisfactory (E) resolve . best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole. Correct answer: (E) / Difficulty level: Easy The Critical Reading Section  . Now you can focus on the second blank. Reading carefully is the key to finding the correct answer. The information you need to answer each reading question is always in the passage(s). Do not jump from passage to passage. when inserted in the sentence. . unattractive (D) extend . Choose the word or set of words that. You may have to read some of the passage before or after the quoted word(s). however. the line number(s) where that quotation can be found will appear in the test question.to both labor and management. and suffixes. acceptable abcd. “Hoping to resolve the dispute. negotiators proposed a compromise that they felt would be ------. (A) enforce . the negotiators proposed a compromise that they felt would be acceptable to both labor and management”? Yes. Would the “negotiators” have proposed a compromise that they believed would be divisive or unattractive to “both labor and management”? No. mark each question you don’t answer so that you can easily go back to it later if you have time. ● ● ● Look at the first blank in the above example. and only choice (E) remains. . then you can eliminate the entire choice from consideration. so (B) and (C) can be eliminated. Reading questions do not increase in difficulty from easy to hard. Instead. ability to understand how the different parts of a sentence fit together logically. Always check your answer by reading the entire sentence with your choice filled in. consider related words. Stay with a passage until you have answered as many questions as you can before you proceed to the next passage. roots. The difficulty of sentence completion questions increases as you move through the section.

decide on the best answer to each question. but. In this case. in some of the questions. the entire sentence hinges on a few key words: “Because something ran counter to something else. social studies. Extended Reasoning: These questions measure your ability to synthesize and analyze information as well as to evaluate the assumptions made and the techniques used by the author. in small quantities. . or follow the logic of an analogy or an argument. . you are asked to compare and contrast these passages. choice (E).  SAT Preparation Booklet . make inferences. The first part states that what King Philip wanted (domination for Spain) “ran counter to” what Queen Elizabeth wanted (independence for England). however. There is no doubt that Larry is a genuine -------: he excels at telling stories that fascinate his listeners. Words such as although. inevitable (E) diplomacy . Only choice (D) fits logically with the key words in the sentence: Because what one person wanted ran counter to what another person wanted. The following kinds of questions may be asked about a passage: ● ● ● ● ● ● The word “because” indicates that the information in the first part of the sentence (the part before the comma) explains the reason for the situation described in the second part. and expository elements. Answering Passage-Based Reading Questions Following are samples of the kinds of reading passages and questions that may appear on your test. Would diplomacy be simple? Not necessarily. this has nothing to do with storytelling.Sample Questions 1. Correct answer: (E) / Difficulty level: Hard Passage-Based Reading The reading questions on the SAT measure your ability to read and think carefully about several different passages ranging in length from about 100 to about 850 words. Words such as not and never are important because they indicate negation.was -------. You may be asked to identify cause and effect. not lies. argumentative. In the example above. They vary in style and can include narrative. Most of the reading questions fall into this category. and only choice (E) does so. Given that there was such a fundamental disagreement between the two monarchs. Some selections consist of a pair of related passages on a shared issue or theme. including the humanities. Would warfare be avoidable? Hardly. and literary fiction. . simple Be sure to look for key words and phrases as you read each sentence. A braggart may or may not excel at telling stories and may actually annoy listeners. This is a signal that the words after the colon define or directly clarify what came before. Would ruination be impossible? No. blank was blank.” ● ● ● ● A dilettante is someone who dabbles at a career or hobby and so may not excel at anything. but not necessarily in an accomplished or fascinating way. and the sentence refers to stories. avoidable (C) ruination . You should choose the word that best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole. ● Vocabulary in Context: These questions ask you to determine the meanings of words from their context in the reading passage. assured (B) warfare . Because King Philip’s desire to make Spain the dominant power in sixteenth-century Europe ran counter to Queen Elizabeth’s insistence on autonomy for England. (A) braggart (B) dilettante (C) pilferer (D) prevaricator (E) raconteur Some sentence completions contain a colon. recognize a main idea or an author’s tone. Literal Comprehension: These questions assess your understanding of significant information directly stated in the passage. (A) reconciliation . warfare might be unavoidable. and since are important to notice because they signal how the different parts of a sentence are logically related to each other. . Passages are taken from a variety of fields. would reconciliation be assured? Unlikely. natural sciences. “he excels at telling stories that fascinate his listeners” serves to define the word raconteur. read the explanation for the correct answer. if. ● ● Correct answer: (D) / Difficulty level: Medium 2. For each set of sample materials: ● ● ● read the passage carefully. conflict was inevitable. impossible (D) conflict . A prevaricator tells lies. . None of the other words is directly defined by this clause. A pilferer steals repeatedly. ------.

● Line 5 10 ● (A). (C). therefore. A student in the field of “paleontology” is one who studies prehistoric life as recorded in fossil remains. Notwithstanding. She was overcome with sleep. The animal was glistening. Pontellier had forgotten the bonbons and peanuts that he had promised the boys. Pontellier returned from his night out. Hou states that the fossil that he found “looked like” certain other fossils that his “teachers always talked about. You will also find one or more pairs of related short passages in each edition of the test. In line 4. it is Hou’s excitement. who was in bed and fast asleep when he came in. Answer the questions on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passages and in any introductory material that may be provided. The novel was banned in many places because of its unconventional point of view.” Hou had indeed found a Naraoia like those from Canada. and (E) are incorrect because someone who studies fossils would not calculate the “value” of rocks.” (B) and (C) are wrong because the passage does not indicate that Hou was “worried about” his discovery or “concerned that he might not get credit. It looked like one of them. the significance of what he has found. and answered him with little half utterances. However. telling her anecdotes and bits of news and gossip that he had gathered during the day. “surveying” most nearly means (A) calculating the value of (B) examining comprehensively (C) determining the boundaries of (D) polling randomly (E) conducting a statistical study of The word “surveying” has a number of meanings. 3. Sample Questions Questions 3-4 are based on the following passage.” He understands almost immediately. evinced so little interest in things which concerned him and valued so little his conversation. He thought it very discouraging that his wife. Line 5 ● 10 (A) is wrong because there is no suggestion that Hou was “afraid that he might lose the fossil. 15 20 Correct answer: (B) / Difficulty level: Easy  . Hou discovered the unusual fossil while surveying rocks as a paleontology graduate student in 1984. The first two sentences of the passage dramatize the discovery. You may be asked to make an inference or draw a conclusion about a statement made in the passage. questions following a pair of related passages may also be based on the relationship between the paired passages. and so (E) is the correct answer: Hou’s hands were shaking because he was “excited about the magnitude of his discovery.” ● ● Directions The passages below are followed by questions based on their content. in high spirits. One of the activities of a paleontology student would be to examine rocks carefully and “comprehensively” while looking for fossils. that causes him to tremble. several of which are included in the choices above.” The passage indicates only that Hou recognized that he had found something valuable. about 100 words in length. who was the sole object of his existence.Some of the reading passages in the SAT are as short as a paragraph or two. In the context of this passage. and very talkative. or conduct a “statistical study” of rocks. He talked to her while he undressed. Mr. (D) is wrong because “polling” rocks makes no sense at all. however. “The rock was still wet. His entrance awoke his wife. like it was still swimming. or determine the “boundaries” of rocks. This passage is adapted from a novel written by a woman in 1899. “My teachers always talked about the Burgess Shale animals. only (B) makes sense. It was eleven o’clock that night when Mr. My hands began to shake. near the Chinese town of Chengjiang. Correct answer: (E) / Difficulty level: Easy Questions 5-8 are based on the following passage. he loved them very much and went into the adjoining room where they slept to take a look at them and make The Critical Reading Section Some questions ask you to recognize the meaning of a word as it is used in the passage. Such material will be followed by one to five questions that measure the same kinds of reading skills that are measured by the questions following longer passages. Hou’s animal was 15 million years older than its Canadian relatives. He was in an excellent humor. (D) is wrong because Hou’s immediate reaction is that he thinks he has found an important fossil. 4. It can be inferred that Hou Xianguang’s “hands began to shake” (line 9) because Hou was (A) afraid that he might lose the fossil (B) worried about the implications of his finding (C) concerned that he might not get credit for his work (D) uncertain about the authenticity of the fossil (E) excited about the magnitude of his discovery In the passage.” recalls Hou Xianguang. not his uncertainty.

One of them began to kick and talk about a basket full of crabs. They seemed never before to have weighed much against the abundance of her husband’s kindness and a uniform devotion which had come to be tacit and self-understood. Pontellier’s words and actions during the evening as “generous” or “gentle.25 30 35 40 45 50 55 60 65 70 75 sure that they were resting comfortably. Then he lit his cigar and went and sat near the open door to smoke it. It was like a shadow. as he looked forward to a lively week in the financial center. 5. There was no sound abroad except the hooting of an old owl and the everlasting voice of the sea. like a mist passing across her soul’s summer day. making a living for his family on the street. Mrs. Mrs. She began to cry a little. Mr. Pontellier awakens his wife after his “night out”. She said nothing. insistent way. she said. He was eager to be gone. He reproached his wife with her inattention. Pontellier was quite sure Raoul had no fever. She could not have told why she was crying. he seems not to notice or care that she has been sound asleep.” ● (A) and (E) are not correct because the narrator does not depict Mr. Pontellier’s conduct during the evening as (A) typically generous (B) justifiably impatient (C) passionate and irrational (D) patronizing and self-centered (E) concerned and gentle This question asks you to consider a large portion of the passage and to make an inference about the narrator’s view of “Mr. He could not be in two places at once. not caring any longer to dry her face. which seemed to have been somewhat impaired the night before. Pontellier sprang out of bed and went into the next room. She was just having a good cry all to herself. He had gone to bed perfectly well. He had regained his composure. and they would not see him again at the Island till the coming Saturday. you should look carefully at the particular words used and the details mentioned in the passage. He talked in a monotonous. and staying home to see that no harm befell them. Mr. The tears came so fast to Mrs. the narrator describes Mr. In lines 38–47. Mrs. that broke like a mournful lullaby upon the night. it was a mood. which had directed her footsteps to the path which they had taken. If it was not a mother’s place to look after children.”  SAT Preparation Booklet . The result of his investigation was far from satisfactory. and nothing had ailed him all day. Pontellier’s eyes that the damp sleeve of her nightgown no longer served to dry them.” To answer such a question. It was then past midnight. Pontellier was up in good time to take the carriage which was to convey him to the steamer at the wharf. Pontellier’s conduct during the evening. For example. She did not sit there inwardly upbraiding her husband. She went out on the porch. Mr. Such experiences as the foregoing were not uncommon in her married life. In the actual test. She soon came back and sat on the edge of the bed. where she sat down in the wicker chair and began to rock gently to and fro. filled her whole being with a vague anguish. The following morning Mr. her eyes. and refused to answer her husband when he questioned her. He assured her the child was burning with fever at that moment in the next room. whose on earth was it? He himself had his hands full with his brokerage business. as many as 13 questions may appear with a passage of this length. lamenting at Fate. and in half a minute was fast asleep. her habitual neglect of the children. She went on crying there. It was strange and unfamiliar. Pontellier speaking to his wife in a superior and condescending manner about “a mother’s place” in caring for children and about how hard he works at “his brokerage business. Following are 4 sample questions about this passage. in the first paragraph. Pontellier was by that time thoroughly awake. He turned and shifted the youngsters about in bed. her arms. which seemed to generate in some unfamiliar part of her consciousness. The cottages were all dark. When his cigar was smoked out he went to bed. Pontellier returned to his wife with the information that Raoul had a high fever and needed looking after. Pontellier was too well acquainted with fever symptoms to be mistaken. He was returning to the city to his business. and wiped her eyes on the sleeve of her nightgown. The narrator would most likely describe Mr. The mosquitoes succeeded in dispelling a mood which might have held her there in the darkness half a night longer. You may be asked to interpret information presented throughout the passage and to evaluate the effect of the language used by the author. 80 85 90 95 100 An indescribable oppression. leaning her head down on the pillow.

the narrator describes Mr.” (D) and (E) are wrong because the narrator does not indicate that Mr. Pontellier “talked in a monotonous.” and probably “not as urgent” as Mr. Mrs. or phenomenon across an entire passage. Correct answer: (B) / Difficulty level: Medium You may be asked to consider the overall description of a character. Pontellier’s reactions to her husband’s behavior on returning home suggest that (A) she accepts unquestioningly her role of caring for the children (B) this is one of the first times she has acknowledged her unhappiness (C) her marriage is not what is making her so depressed (D) she is angry about something that happened before her husband went out (E) she is not as worldly as her husband is In these lines. Pontellier had told his wife that one of their sons “had a high fever and needed looking after.” ● Correct answer: (D) / Difficulty level: Medium Some questions ask you to focus on a specific piece of information presented in the passage. Pontellier is described as not at all excited in the way that he communicates his opinions to his wife. Pontellier cries for a long time while sitting alone on the porch. event.” ● ● (A) is not correct because the issue of “caring for the children” is not the focus of this part of the passage. Pontellier’s “way of speaking” as “monotonous. 6. ● ● ● ● ● ● (A) is wrong because Mr. Mrs.” In fact. “patronizing and self-centered. insistent way. In context. (C) is wrong because statements that are “monotonous” and “insistent” are not “angry and sarcastic. Her husband’s treatment of her has upset her greatly. Pontellier is “as worldly as her husband” is irrelevant to her reaction to his treatment of her. Pontellier’s behavior is selfish and inconsiderate. 8. Mrs. The correct answer is (B) because concerns that are voiced “in a monotonous. insistent way” are likely to be ones that are oft-repeated and “familiar.” Someone who is “patronizing” has an attitude of superiority and thus treats others as if they were less important. . Pontellier’s behavior during the evening. Pontellier’s conduct with his wife is justifiable. (C) is not correct. Pontellier “angry. Some questions require you to make an inference or draw a conclusion about what you have read. The passage shows Mr.” and he had criticized Mrs. but that he lacks consideration. the passage suggests not that she lacks sophistication. The narrator indicates that such behavior by Mr. Pontellier’s statements to his wife are “too complex to make sense” or “rational and thought-provoking. it is his behavior after his return that upsets her. although Mr. the narrator states that Mr. . Pontellier for her “habitual neglect of the children.” (D) is not correct because there is no indication in the passage that “something that happened before her husband went out” has made Mrs. Pontellier’s feelings of sadness and “oppression” in this passage are not related to the issue of “her role” as a mother. In lines 56-92. Pontellier’s “strange and unfamiliar” mood of “oppression” and “anguish” marks a new realization on her part of her “unhappiness” with her husband. (E) is not correct because whether Mrs. Pontellier speaks assertively to his wife throughout the passage. 7.” (D) is correct because it accurately characterizes the narrator’s description of Mr. Mr. not in a “stumbling” or uncertain manner.” Previously. Pontellier had not previously been too bothered by such incidents: “They seemed never before to have weighed much against the abundance of her husband’s kindness. (C) is not correct because it is precisely her relationship with her husband that has made her “so depressed. and in half a minute was fast asleep. the terms “monotonous” and “insistent” suggest that the statements are rather dull and simpleminded. (B) is correct because Mrs. insistent. Pontellier was “not uncommon” but that Mrs. and yet Mr. the description in lines 46-47 of Mr.” In fact. it is not “passionate”—in fact.” These are seemingly serious matters. Pontellier as happiest when he (A) is attending to his children (B) sits outside and smokes a cigar (C) makes up with his wife after an argument (D) has been away from home or is about to leave home (E) has showered his children with gifts of candy The Critical Reading Section Correct answer: (B) / Difficulty level: Hard  . Pontellier claims. . The statement in lines 53–55 also supports this answer: “When his cigar was smoked out he went to bed.● ● ● (B) is not correct because the narrator does not suggest that Mr. Pontellier’s way of speaking suggests the narrator’s belief that his complaints are (A) stumbling and confused (B) familiar and not as urgent as he claims (C) angry and sarcastic (D) too complex to make sense to anyone but himself (E) both rational and thought-provoking In lines 46–47.

when “he has been away from home or is about to leave home. The curtain drew up—and the play was Artaxerxes! Here was the court of ancient Persia. finishes his cigar.The passage begins with Mr. All over the stage people were looking for him but he appeared. palaces. Upon entering the theater. In that interval what had I not lost! At six I knew nothing. These two passages were adapted from autobiographical works. After the intervention of six or seven years I again entered the doors of a theater. saved again. People were yelling. And so I learned that there were two kinds of reality. I took no proper interest in the action going on. It was all enchantment and a dream. unlike the stage. in the second. But to see the deck of the ship in the theater moving up and down. It was to ring out yet once again— and. They looked for him behind posts and boxes and on top of beams. the first thing I beheld was the green curtain that veiled a heaven to my imagination. I expected the same feelings to come again with the same occasion.” but the passengers were deaf. (A sight of that image can always bring back in a measure the feeling of that evening. gardens. That old Artaxerxes evening had never done ringing in my fancy. The next morning. He becomes less happy. This was alarming.” 35 40 more real. (C) is not correct because the passage never shows Mr. Pontellier has “regained his composure” and is “eager to be gone. Pontellier “in an excellent humor. and the pilasters* reaching down were adorned with a glistering substance resembling sugar candy. and when he discovers that his son Raoul “had a high fever and needed looking after. there are other occasions in the passage when he is happier. an illustration of the tent scene with Diomede in Troilus and Cressida. I reposed my shut eyes in a sort of resignation upon my mother’s lap. discriminated nothing. (B) is not correct because Mr. The orchestra lights at length rose. It rang the second time. even after the audience had seen him jump into a barrel and pull the lid over him. he lectures his wife about their family roles and responsibilities. Once the bell sounded. as he looked forward to a lively week” away from his family at work. (D) is the correct answer based on the description of a happy Mr. incapable of the anticipation. at the same time glancing at the theater’s walls to make sure that the whole thing was not really real. The villain was finally caught. What breathless anticipations I endured! I had seen something like it in an edition of Shakespeare. Mr. “He’s in the barrel. As the play’s melodramatic story developed. Instead. My mother had taken me to see a play at the Schubert Theater on Lenox Avenue in Harlem in New York City. full of well-dressed men and women. and I kept clawing at my mother’s arm. projected over the orchestra pit. and goes to bed. passed before me. than the latter does from six. Gorgeous costumes. By this time I had been going to the movies every Saturday afternoon —Charlie Chaplin’s little comedies. Here were living people talking to one another inside a large ship whose deck actually heaved up and down with the swells of the sea. adventure serials. when his wife is too sleepy to talk with him. But we differ from ourselves less at sixty and sixteen. furtive and silent. for I understood not its import. Westerns. all my feeling was absorbed in vision. Passage 2 I was six years old when I saw my first play at the Old Drury. Pontellier at the beginning and the end of the passage. Pontellier is described as neither happy nor unhappy while he smokes. a playwright describes his first visit to a theater in the 1930’s. princesses. and people appearing at the top of a ladder or disappearing through a door—where did they come from and where did they go? Obviously into and out of the real world of Lenox Avenue. movies. but that the stage was far SAT Preparation Booklet 50 55 60 Line 5 65 10 70 15 75 20 80 10 . Yet once you knew how they worked. an eighteenth-century writer describes two visits to theaters in London. What anguish! The bomb would go off any minute.” Subsequently. 45 Correct answer: (D) / Difficulty level: Medium Questions 9-12 are based on the following passages.) The balconies at that time. Pontellier gets upset the one time that he is “attending to” his sons. however. for there was a villain on board who had a bomb and intended to blow everybody up.” having just returned after a night away from home. ● 25 30 ● ● ● (A) and (E) are not correct because Mr. left the mind’s grasp of reality intact since the happenings were not in the theater where you sat. understood nothing. In the first. Pontellier making up with his wife after their argument. loved all. only when the searchers were facing the other way. I began to feel anxious. I felt all. and he has forgotten to bring them the treats that he had promised. and we happily walked out onto sunny Lenox Avenue. Passage 1 I experienced a shock when I saw a curtain go up for the first time.

they are not “imagined by a child” but are actually projected on the movie screen. and was returned a rationalist. I thought the fault was in them. but “after the intervention of six or seven years” the older and now more knowledgeable child is not so impressed. the word “happenings” refers to the “activity captured on the movie screen. was gone. (A) is the correct answer because all of Passage 1 and the first half of Passage 2 describe “a young person’s sense of wonder at first seeing a play. but it was in myself. The same things were there materially. drawn between two worlds. at age six the child is entranced by the spectacle of the performance. and how captivated he was by the entire experience. The green curtain was no longer a veil.” ● * Pilasters are ornamental columns set into walls.” (C) is wrong because Passage 1 mentions differences rather than “similarities” between plays and Even though this question focuses on a single sentence. The authors of both passages describe (A) a young person’s sense of wonder at first seeing a play (B) a young person’s desire to become a playwright (C) the similarities between plays and other art forms (D) how one’s perception of the theater may develop over time (E) the experience of reading a play and then seeing it performed To answer this question. (C) is wrong. The author indicates that. even though the introduction to these passages reveals that one of the authors is a “playwright. movies leave “the mind’s grasp of reality intact. or in the passage as a whole. In the final sentence of Passage 2 (“I thought .” Correct answer: (A) / Difficulty level: Easy Some questions assess your comprehension of information that is directly stated in a passage. and Passage 2 does not mention any “other art forms” at all. and the alteration which those many centuries—those six short years—had wrought in me. you have to figure out what these two passages have in common. (D) is wrong because only Passage 2 discusses “how one’s perception of the theater may develop over time”—this subject is unmentioned in Passage 1.” because the “happenings” in a movie are not occurring in the actual theater.” the sentence in lines 11–15 makes no sense. Instead. even if the movies being referred to include “fantasies” in them. 10. others will focus on Passage 2. in me”). you must understand the context in which the statement occurs in order to determine the feeling expressed by the author. (E) is wrong because there is no reference in either passage to “the experience of reading a play. Some questions require you to identify shared ideas or similarities between the two related passages.” Correct answer: (D) / Difficulty level: Medium You may be asked to recognize the author’s tone or attitude in a particular part of a passage. Following are four sample questions about this pair of related passages. In the test. In the second paragraph of Passage 2. not “on the stage. and about half or more of the questions following each pair of passages will focus on the relationships between the passages. “The same things were there materially” in the theater. you have to understand lines 11–15. a rather complex sentence that makes an important distinction in Passage 1. the unfolding of which was to bring back past ages. some questions will focus on Passage 1. 11. The lights—the orchestra lights—came up a clumsy machinery. and the second ring. unlike plays.” there is no mention in either passage of a “desire to become a playwright. ● ● movies. The actors were men and women painted. but a certain quantity of green material. “happenings” refers to the “story unfolding” in a movie. The first ring. when you insert them in place of the word “happenings. images are projected on a screen in the theater. but the emblem.85 90 95 wondered all. . but the older child knew much more than the younger one about what was going The Critical Reading Section 11 .” ● ● ● (A) and (B) are wrong because. the author expresses (A) exultation (B) vindication (D) regret (E) guilt (C) pleasure ● (B) is wrong. Passage 2 describes two different visits to the theater. Thus (D) is the correct answer. was now but a trick of the prompter’s bell. which was to separate the audience for a given time from certain of their fellows who were to come forward and pretend those parts. the reference. the author states that the experience of attending a play at age 12 or 13 was much different than at age 6. I could not tell how. but I had left the temple a devotee. The subject of Passage 1 is a child’s first visit to see a play performed in a theater. 9. in line 14. The “happenings” mentioned in line 14 refer to the (A) work undertaken to produce a movie (B) events occurring in the street outside the theater (C) fantasies imagined by a child (D) activity captured on the movie screen (E) story unfolding on the stage To answer this question correctly. (E) is wrong because. .

(D) is the correct answer. most of the second paragraph provides “further analysis” of what had changed and why the reactions to the two visits were so different. Ironically. (C) Passage 1 relates a story from a number of different perspectives. (D) is wrong because the author of Passage 1 does not find his first visit to the theater “disturbing” in a negative way. this increased knowledge actually decreased the author’s pleasure in attending the play. (E) is incorrect because. (E) Passage 1 recounts a childhood experience. recognize an important “difference between” the two.” that of the youthful first-time theatergoer. (D) Passage 1 treats the visit to the theater as a disturbing episode in the author’s life. (A) is wrong because there is neither bitterness nor “detachment” in Passage 2.” the older child saw “men and women painted. whereas the author of Passage 2 presents at least two “different perspectives. while Passage 2 examines how a similar experience changed over time. Correct answer: (E) / Difficulty level: Easy 1 SAT Preparation Booklet .on. “In that interval what had I not lost!” the author exclaims in line 78. Passage 1 “maintains a single point of view. second. Which of the following best describes the difference between Passages 1 and 2 ? (A) Passage 1 remembers an event with fondness. the author laments it.” ● ● ● (A) and (C) are incorrect because the author does not feel “exultation” about or take “pleasure” in the “alteration” that has occurred. while Passage 2 recalls a similar event with bitter detachment. (C) is wrong because it reverses the two narrative approaches in this pair of passages. (B) is wrong because Passage 2 includes a great deal more than just “the author’s reactions” to visiting the theater. the first paragraph of Passage 2 expresses excitement and “enchantment.” Thus the final sentence of Passage 2 expresses “regret” concerning the changes that “those many centuries—those six short years—had wrought” in the author. while Passage 2 supplies the author’s reactions without further analysis. There is no way to avoid the passage of time (and the learning that goes along with it). the author is not trying to justify. while Passage 2 describes the author’s visit as joyful. or defend the experiences described in the passage.” but the loss of a youthful sense of wonder and innocence can still cause regret. these responses merely indicate how effective and “real” the performance was for him. on the contrary. while Passage 2 maintains a single point of view. even though the final sentence states that the “fault” was not in the actors but in the now more knowledgeable child. Although he feels “shock” when the curtain goes up and anxiety during the play. 12.” that of the enchanted six-year-old and of the older child returning to the theater. In the end. support. (B) Passage 1 considers why the author responded to the visit as he did. but rather to explain the changes that have occurred due to the passing of time. (B) is incorrect because there is no expression of “vindication” in the final sentence. ● This question asks you to do two things: first. The correct answer is (E) because the entire first passage does indeed tell the story of a particular “childhood experience”—a trip to the theater—whereas the second passage describes two different trips to the theater and how the “experience changed over time. Where the younger child saw nobles in “the court of ancient Persia.” and the second paragraph expresses disappointment and regret. the author feels no “guilt” about the change. ● ● ● Correct answer: (D) / Difficulty level: Hard Some questions require you to determine and compare the primary purpose or main idea expressed in each passage. Aging is not the child’s “fault. In fact. the child and his mother walked “happily” out of the theater. understand the overall subject or purpose of each passage.

Decide when to use a calculator. You will not receive credit for anything written in the booklet. Calculators will not be available at the test center. This is especially true for student-produced response questions.The Mathematics Section The mathematics section of the SAT contains two types of questions: ● ● ● ● Standard multiple-choice (44 questions) Student-produced response questions that provide no answer choices (10 questions) Get your thoughts down before using your calculator. You will not be allowed to share calculators. First. Don’t buy an expensive. or touch-screen capability or have wireless or Bluetooth capability ● Models that use paper tape. Unacceptable Calculators The following calculators are not permitted: ● Models that have a QWERTY (i. you can eliminate all the incorrect choices. sophisticated calculator just to take the test. you will be seated at the discretion of the test supervisor. Note key words that tell you what the problem is asking. Although you can use them for the test. where no answer choices are given. If your calculator fails during testing and you have no backup. decide how you will solve the problem. more sophisticated calculators are not required for any problem. It is up to you to decide which formula is appropriate. you’ll have to complete the test without it. Ask yourself the following questions before you solve each problem: What is the question asking? What do I know? With some problems. Don’t try to use a calculator on every question. or if your calculator has a raised display that might be visible to other test-takers. try some of the choices. but you will be able to check your work easily later. is tested throughout. Commonly used formulas are provided in the test book at the beginning of each mathematics section. The ability to reason logically in a variety of situations. Make sure your answer is a reasonable answer to the question asked. You will be dismissed and your scores will be canceled if you use your calculator to share information during the test or to remove test questions or answers from the test room. it may be useful to draw a sketch or diagram of the given information.e. It’s sometimes easier to find the wrong answers than the correct one. You are not expected to do all the reasoning and figuring in your head. Read the problem carefully.. You should be familiar with how to use the calculator you bring to the test. Make sure your calculator is in good working order and that batteries are fresh. “talk” or make unusual noises. typewriter) keypad. either as part of hardware or software ● Models that have pen-input. you may want to refer to the answer choices before you determine your answer. All figures are drawn to scale unless otherwise indicated. some of which may be new to you. stylus. ● ● ● Calculator Tips ● ● ● ● Remember to bring your calculator to the test. If you don’t know the correct answer to a question. Take the practice test in this booklet with a calculator at hand. Every question on the test can be solved without a calculator. Eliminate choices. but you will have an advantage if you use a scientific or graphing calculator on some questions. For multiple-choice questions. On some questions. The calculator is meant to aid you in problem solving. and then decide whether to use the calculator. This will help you determine how much you will probably use a calculator the day of the test. Acceptable Calculators Calculators permitted during testing are: ● ● ● Approaches to the Mathematics Section ● ● Graphing calculators Scientific calculators Four-function calculators (not recommended) If you have a calculator with characters that are one inch or higher. The Mathematics Section 13 . ● ● ● ● ● Familiarize yourself with the directions ahead of time. or require an electrical outlet ● Models that can access the Internet ● Models that have cell phone capability or have audio/ video recording capability ● Models that have a digital audio/video player or have a camera Some questions are like those you may have seen in your mathematics courses. Use the test book for scratch work. The test does not require you to memorize formulas. It may help to do scratch work in the test book. not to get in the way. Calculator Policy We recommend that you bring a calculator to use on the mathematics section of the SAT.

For example. what is the sales tax rate? n Solution: $1. . 2k + 1.) Prime Numbers: 2. . −4. . 1. . n + 1.80 = × $30. −2. n + 3. 7. . The percent decrease n 250 is the value of n in the equation = . cube. (Note: zero is neither positive nor negative. . −3. . −6. the 5 is called the units digit or the ones digit. . −2. by what percent was the price decreased? Solution: The price decrease is $250. 40 percent means 100 5 Problem 1: If the sales tax on a $30. equilateral. 1. . . Consecutive integers can be more generally represented by n. and proportion) Properties of integers (even. 24. 1. median.80. Note: n% increase means n% decrease means n increase = . . 17. . Odd Integers: . . original 100 n decrease = . 5. and mode) Probability 14 SAT Preparation Booklet . Statistics. 4. . etc. For 40 2 or 0. 22.40 or . 6. . . 2k . Geometry and Measurement (25–30%) Percent Increase / Decrease ● ● ● ● ● ● ● ● ● ● Area and perimeter of a polygon Area and circumference of a circle Volume of a box. 0. 000 100 n is 25. ratio.00 100 n = 6. . 8. original 100 Data Analysis. divisibility. prime numbers.) Rational numbers Sets (union. where k is an integer Even Integers: .) ● ● ● ● Algebra and Functions (35–40%) ● ● ● ● ● ● ● ● ● ● ● ● Substitution and simplifying algebraic expressions Properties of exponents Algebraic word problems Solutions of linear equations and inequalities Systems of equations and inequalities Quadratic equations Rational and radical equations Equations of lines Absolute value Direct and inverse variation Concepts of algebraic functions Newly defined symbols based on commonly used operations Percent Percent means hundredths. 6. . 7.000 to $750. . . so 6% is the sales tax rate. . −4. 25. 4. 19. so the price was decreased by 25%. example. for example. 2. . in the number 125. and Probability (10–15%) ● ● ● Data interpretation (tables and graphs) Descriptive statistics (mean. . 3. elements) Counting techniques Sequences and series (including exponential growth) Elementary number theory Integers: . 2. 0. intersection. and right triangles Properties of parallel and perpendicular lines Coordinate geometry Geometric visualization Slope Similarity Transformations Problem 2: If the price of a computer was decreased from $1. . .Mathematics Review Number and Operations (20–25%) ● ● ● ● ● ● ● Number and Operations ● ● Arithmetic word problems (including percent. .) Digits: 0. . and cylinder Pythagorean Theorem and special properties of isosceles. The value of 1. 9 (Note: the units digit and the ones digit refer to the same digit in a number. 5. 23. 4.00 item is $1. 3. (Note: 1 is not a prime and 2 is the only even prime. −5. where k is an integer (Note: zero is an even integer. 7. . 11. . or number out of 100. . −7. . 13. −1.) Consecutive Integers: Integers that follow in sequence. 2. odd. 3. . −1. n + 2. 3. 5. . −3.

y : x a ⋅ x b = x a+ b Sequences Two common types of sequences that appear on the SAT are arithmetic and geometric sequences. For sequences on the SAT. 9. For example. For example. . . 4. 16 = 4 . with 4. 7. For all values of a. Thus. . is an arithmetic sequence. that y = x Absolute Value The absolute value of x is defined as the distance from x to zero on the number line. For example: 2. 9. Exponents You should be familiar with the following rules for exponents on the SAT. The absolute value of x is written as x . the average speed was 440 km 6 = 62 kilometers per hour. On the SAT. A sequence may also be defined using previously defined terms. the domain of any function f is assumed to be the set of all real numbers x for which f ( x ) is a real number. For example. square root. f (x) = x + 2 . if x < 0 Algebra and Functions Factoring You may need to apply these types of factoring: x 2 + 2 x = x ( x + 2) x 2 + 2 x + 1 = ( x + 1) ( x + 1) = ( x + 1) x 2 − 1 = ( x + 1) ( x − 1) 2 For example: 2 x 2 + 5 x − 3 = ( 2 x − 1) ( x + 3) ⎧ 2 = 2. x. the domain of f is all real numbers The total distance was ⎛ km ⎞ ⎛ km ⎞ 2 hr ⎜ 70 ⎟ + 5 hr ⎜ 60 hr ⎟ = 440 km. x > 0. b. . x b = b x a . For example. Variation Direct Variation: The variable y is directly proportional to the variable x if there exists a nonzero constant k such that y = kx . explicit rules are given for each sequence. . On the SAT. the average speed was total distance total time Functions A function is a relation in which each element of the domain is paired with exactly one element of the range.Average Speed Problem: José traveled for 2 hours at a rate of 70 kilometers per hour and for 5 hours at a rate of 60 kilometers per hour. A geometric sequence is a sequence in which the ratio of successive terms is a constant. 3. since f (14 ) = 14 + 2 = 16 = 4 . if x ≥ 0 x =⎨ ⎩− x . 5. the first term is never referred to as the zeroth term. . . This sequence would be 2. ( xa ) ⎛ x⎞ ⎜ ⎟ ⎝ y⎠ b = x a⋅b ( xy )a x −a = 2 3 = x a ⋅ ya For all values of a. 14 is paired Note: the symbol represents the positive. 16. if greater than or equal to −2 . 7 hr 7 Note: In this example. . x 3 = x2 . For this function. since −2 < 0 ⎪ ⎩ 0 =0 The Mathematics Section 15 . and each successive term is 1 less than twice the preceding term. the first term of a sequence is 2. For all real numbers x : ⎧ x . or principal. b. not ±4. 8. it is true that x 0 = 1. the average speed over the 7-hour period is not the average of the two given speeds. An arithmetic sequence is a sequence in which successive terms differ by the same constant amount. Note: For any nonzero number x . unless otherwise specified. ⎝ ⎝ ⎠ hr ⎠ The total time was 7 hours. 5. What was his average speed for the 7-hour period? Solution: In this situation. 17. which would be 65 kilometers per hour. y > 0: xa = x a−b xb a a = xa ya 1 xa Also. since 2 > 0 ⎪ ⎨ −2 =− (−2) = 2. in the sequence above. you would not be expected to know that the 6th term is 33 without being given the fact that each term is one less than twice the preceding term. Inverse Variation: The variable y is inversely proportional to the variable x if there exists a nonzero constant k such k or xy = k . is a geometric sequence. For example. . For example: 3.

Also. The measures of angles BAD and BDA are equal. vertical angles are congruent. and d = z. Example 1: You may not assume the following from the figure: ● ● ● ● The length of AD is less than the length of DC . Angle Relationships x° 60° 50° z° y° Note: Figure not drawn to scale. Even though the figure is drawn to scale. y = 50 . Although the note indicates that the figure is not drawn to scale. Since AD and BE are line segments. and C are points on a line. In the figure above. The length of AD is less than the length of AC . The measure of angle ABD is less than the measure of angle ABC. 3. you may assume the following from the figure: ● ● ● ● ● 1. In the figure above. In the figure. If two parallel lines are cut by a third line. A straight angle measures 180°. you should NOT assume that AC = CD or that the angle at vertex E is a right angle even though they might look that way in the figure. c = y. The text “Note: Figure not drawn to scale” is included with the figure when degree measures may not be accurately shown and specific lengths may not be drawn proportionally. the corresponding angles are congruent. even when figures are not drawn to scale. c = x and w = d . They are drawn as accurately as possible EXCEPT when it is stated in a particular problem that the figure is not drawn to scale. z = 130 because z + 50 = 180. For example. ABD and DBC are triangles. A point that appears to lie on a line or curve may be assumed to lie on the line or curve. SAT Preparation Booklet 2. When two lines intersect. you can conclude that x = y. The following examples illustrate what information can and cannot be assumed from figures. Properties of Parallel Lines k a° b° c° d° w° x° y° z° m 1. the relative positions of points and angles may be assumed to be in the order shown. 2. If two parallel lines are cut by a third line. x = 70 because 60 + 50 + x = 180. In the figure. Angle ABC is a right angle. The measure of angle ABD is greater than the measure of angle DBC . D . 3. Example 2: If two parallel lines are cut by a third line. Therefore. In the figure. In general. 16 . D is between A and C . A question may refer to a triangle such as ABC above. you should NOT make any other assumptions without additional information. line segments that extend through points and appear to lie on the same line may be assumed to be on the same line. a = w.Geometry and Measurement Figures that accompany problems are intended to provide information useful in solving the problems. b = x . A. angles ACB and DCE are vertical angles. In the figure. The sum of the measures of the interior angles of a triangle is 180°. the sum of the measures of the interior angles on the same side of the transversal is 180°. c + w = 180 and d + x = 180. the alternate interior angles are congruent.

GL HI x 5 1 Note: AF means the line segment with endpoints A and F . Area of a triangle = Triangle inequality: The sum of the lengths of any two sides of a triangle must be greater than the length of the third side. A polygon is “regular” if all its sides are congruent and all its angles are congruent. x 2 = 32 + 4 2 x 2 = 9 + 16 x 2 = 25 x = 25 = 5 If polygons ABCDEF and GHIJKL are similar.4. In any equilateral triangle. a polygon in which each interior angle has a measure of less than 180°. 4. Area and Perimeter Rectangles Area of a rectangle = length × width = Perimeter of a rectangle Circles Area of a circle = π r 2 (where r is the radius) Circumference of a circle = 2π r = π d (where d is the diameter) Triangles 1 ( base × altitude) 2 Perimeter of a triangle = the sum of the lengths of the three sides ×w 3. Unless otherwise noted in the SAT. the lengths of all sides of the triangle are equal: x = y = 10 . Since this polygon is divided into 3 triangles. or 540°. 2. a = b and x = y . In the figures below. and the shortest side is opposite the smallest angle. use the Pythagorean Theorem. the measures of all angles of the triangle are equal. In any triangle. Side Relationships 1. In the figure below. Therefore. Also. Because the measure of the unmarked angle is 60°. Two polygons are similar if and only if the lengths of their corresponding sides are in the same ratio and the measures of their corresponding angles are equal. where c is the length of the longest side and a and b are the lengths of the two shorter sides. then AF and GL are corresponding sides. a 2 + b 2 = c 2 . The Mathematics Section 17 . x = 9 = HI . a < b < c. all sides are congruent and all angles are congruent. the longest side is opposite the largest angle. the sum of the measures of its angles is 3 × 180°. In an isosceles triangle. therefore. To find the value of x . and AF means the length of AF . 5. the term “polygon” will be used to mean a convex polygon. that is. The sum of the measures of the interior angles of a polygon can be found by drawing all diagonals of the polygon from one vertex and multiplying the number of triangles formed by 180°. Pythagorean Theorem: In any right triangle. so that AF 10 2 BC 18 = = = = . the sides opposite congruent angles are congruent. the angles opposite congruent sides are congruent.

the coordinates of point P are (−2. the x-coordinate is written first. 3 The equation of a line can be expressed as y = mx + b. Since the point (−2. you can conclude that the line shown in the figure passes through the point with coordinates (−2. so a = − . 1 = 1. Since the slope of line is − . Since we know the parabola passes through the point (1. the parabola opens upward. 3). 4 the equation of line can be expressed 3 as y = − x + b . 4 2 Coordinate Geometry Hence.Volume Volume of a rectangular solid (or cube) = × w × h ( is the length. y). Point P in the figure above appears to lie at the intersection of gridlines. y-values above the x-axis are positive and y-values below the x-axis are negative. 3 1 + b. and if a < 0. Refer to the test directions in the sample test in this publication. Therefore. Therefore. k ) and a ≠ 0 . 2). x = 1 and y = 1 must satisfy the equation. Slope of a line = change in y-coordinates change in x -coordinates 3. any line perpendicular to line 4 above has a slope of . you can conclude that the x-coordinate of P is −2 and the y-coordinate of P is 3. and h is the height) Be familiar with the formulas that are provided in the Reference Information included with the test directions. The product of the slopes of two perpendicular lines is −1. From the figure. 4) (1. h = −2 and k = 4. 1 2 1 = a (1 + 2 ) + 4. To find the value of a. −1) and the point (2. 1) is on the 4 line. the parabola opens downward. x-values to the right of the y-axis are positive and x-values to the left of the y-axis are negative.and y-axes. For example. and the equation 2 2 3 1 of line is y = − x − . If a > 0. w is the width. Similarly. provided the slope of each of the lines is defined. Similarly. In an ordered pair ( x . an 3 1 2 equation for the parabola is y = − ( x + 2 ) + 4. A line that slopes upward as you go from left to right has a positive slope. where m is the slope and b is the 3 y-intercept. A quadratic function can be expressed as y = a ( x − h ) + k where the vertex of the parabola 2 is at the point ( h. 4 ). and h is the height) Volume of a right circular cylinder = π r 2 h (r is the radius of the base. 1) O x 2. A line that slopes downward as you go from left to right has a negative slope. Therefore. The slope of a vertical line is undefined. x = − 2 and y = 1 must satisfy the equation. In questions that involve the x. we also need to know another point on the parabola. Hence. 1). Slope of PQ = Slope of = 4 =2 2 1 − (−2) 3 = − −2 − 2 4 The parabola above has its vertex at (−2. Since the parabola opens downward. 3 18 SAT Preparation Booklet . we know that a < 0. The equation can be represented by y = a( x + 2)2 + 4. Parallel lines have the same slope. so b = − . y (–2. A horizontal line has a slope of zero.

14. Note: On the SAT. and 16 is the mean of 9 and 13. 9. It does not mean the two colors are equally likely to be selected. if p is the probability that a specific outcome will occur. For example. When outcomes are equally likely. 9. and Probability Measures of Center An average is a statistic that is used to summarize data. For example. 6. which is 11. 2. 5. if the average of six numbers is 12. 4. If an outcome is certain to occur. and 13 is equal to 2 + 3 + 5 + 7 + 13 = 6. 3. 7. a fraction. When there is an even number of values. 8. the median of 6. 4. values of p fall in the range 0 ≤ p ≤ 1. For example. Probability may be expressed as either a decimal. probability can be found by using the following definition: number of ways that a specific outcome can occur total number of possible outcomes For example. 2 and 4. the median is the same as the mean of the two middle numbers. 7. its probability is 0. the sum of the numbers can be found. 8. if a jar contains 13 red marbles and 7 green marbles.Data Analysis. 13. 3. 8. 7 is the mode of 2. 5 Probability Probability refers to the chance that a specific outcome can occur.” An exception is when a question involves average speed (see page 15). 4. The mode of a list of numbers is the number that occurs most often in the list. If a particular outcome can never occur. 8. Questions involving median and mode will have those terms stated as part of the question’s text. In general. The most common type of average is the arithmetic mean. 5. the use of the word average refers to the arithmetic mean and is indicated by “average (arithmetic mean). its probability is 1. the probability that a marble selected from the jar at random will be green is When the average of a list of n numbers is given. 6. The Mathematics Section 19 . and 9 is 6 because when the numbers are ordered. 2. The average (arithmetic mean) of a list of n numbers is equal to the sum of the numbers divided by n. the sum of these six numbers is The median of a list of numbers is the number in the middle when the numbers are ordered from greatest to least or from least to greatest. 7. 2. the mean of 2. For example. 2. or a ratio. the number in the middle is 6. Note: The phrase at random in the preceding example means that each individual marble in the jar is equally likely to be selected. Statistics. The list 2. For example. 9. 7. the median of 3. and 11 has two modes. and 12. 8.

the domain of any function f is assumed to be the set of all real numbers x for which f (x) is a real number. These solutions may give you new insights into solving the problems or point out techniques you’ll be able to use again. Following each question. 300 + 300 + 200 800 8 (B) (D) 3 8 2 9 (C) (E) 1 2 2 7 Correct answer: (D) / Difficulty level: Medium 20 SAT Preparation Booklet . You may use any available space for scratch work. you must determine the total number of seniors’ names that are in the lottery and divide this number by the total number of names in the lottery. If a student’s name is chosen at random from the names in the lottery. All figures lie in a plane unless otherwise indicated. and then read the solutions that follow. so don’t be concerned if your method is different from the one given. what is the probability that a senior’s name will be chosen? (A) 1 8 To determine the probability that a senior’s name will be chosen.Multiple-Choice Questions The questions that follow will give you an idea of the type of mathematical thinking required to solve problems on the SAT. Figures that accompany problems in this test are intended to provide information useful in solving the problems. They are drawn as accurately as possible EXCEPT when it is stated in a specific problem that the figure is not drawn to scale. Since each senior’s name is placed in the lottery 3 times. 3. 2 times. solve each problem and decide which is the best of the choices given. 1. Each senior’s name is placed in the lottery 3 times. The use of a calculator is permitted. there are 2 × 150 = 300 juniors’ names and 1 × 200 = 200 sophomores’ names in the lottery. Unless otherwise specified. you will find one or two solutions. try to answer each question yourself. there are 3 × 100 = 300 seniors’ names. The sum of the measures in degrees of the angles of a triangle is 180. 2. First. 4. Fill in the corresponding circle on the answer sheet. 1 time. There are 100 seniors. Directions For this section. 150 juniors. Most problems can be solved in a variety of ways. Likewise. A special lottery is to be held to select the student who will live in the only deluxe room in a dormitory. each junior’s name. The probability that a senior’s name will be chosen is 300 300 3 = = . Sample Questions Below are seven examples of standard multiple-choice questions. and each sophomore’s name. 1. Note that the directions indicate that you are to select the best of the choices given. All numbers used are real numbers. and 200 sophomores who applied. Reference Information Notes r A= C=2 r r2 w A= w h w b 1 A = 2 bh V = wh h r h b a V = r 2h c 2x 30° 60° x s 45° s 2 45° c2 = a2 + b2 s x 3 Special Right Triangles The number of degrees of arc in a circle is 360.

in thousands) and p = 10. and a is a < m < f .000 Correct answer: (C) / Difficulty level: Medium 4. you can add the seven numbers together and divide by 7. since slopes of perpendicular 2 the slope of is lines are negative reciprocals of each other. The projected sales volume of a video game 3000 . 70 For 100. p is the price per cartridge. Therefore. f. in dollars. In the xy-coordinate plane above. f. line contains the points (0. in thousands. Line m. which is perpendicular 1− 0 1 to . HAWAII Mon. 75 69 Fri. Since line m also 2 contains point (0. cartridge is given by the function s ( p ) = 2p + a where s is the number of cartridges sold. 2). which of the following is the correct order of m. you can determine the relationship between the average and the median by inspection. To determine how many cartridges will s ( p) = 2 p + 10 be sold at $20 per cartridge. s = 100 (since s is the number of cartridges sold. 100. 78 Wed. However. Tue.000 cartridges are sold at $10 per cartridge. 2 The Mathematics Section 21 .000 (C) 60. so f = 78. If m represents the median of these temperatures. The correct order of m. f represents the temperature that occurred most often. To determine the average.000 (B) 50.000 (E) 200. which is 75. will have a slope of − . Substituting into the equation 3000 yields 100 = . 0) and (1. y (1. Solving this equation for a yields 2 (10 ) + a 100 ( 20 + a ) = 3000 20 + a = 30 a = 10 The table above shows the temperatures at noon. The temperature that occurred most often. the average of the seven numbers will be less than 75. 77 Sun.000 cartridges sold at $20 per cartridge. The three numbers greater than 75 are closer to 75 than are the three numbers smaller than 75. If according to the projections. as shown below: 66 69 70 75 77 78 78 Since a is a constant. and a represents the average (arithmetic mean) of these seven temperatures. 2−0 = 2. 2) O x The median temperature is the middle temperature in the ordered list. Thu. and a is a constant. and a. Since s is given in thousands. it follows that b = 0. how many cartridges will be sold at $20 per cartridge? (A) 20. 78 Sat. in a city in Hawaii over a oneweek period. is 78. 3. or the mode. so m = 75. and a ? (A) a < m < f (B) a < f < m (E) a = m < f (C) m < a < f (D) m < f < a Correct answer: (A) / Difficulty level: Medium To determine the correct order of m. If line m (not shown) contains the point (0. f. in degrees Fahrenheit. an 1 equation of line m is y = − x. it is helpful to first place the seven temperatures in ascending order.000 cartridges sold at $10 per cartridge. what is an equation of m ? 1 1 (B) y = − x + 1 (C) y = − x (A) y = − x 2 2 (D) y = − x + 2 (E) y = −2 x Correct Answer: (A) / Difficulty level: Medium Using the coordinates of the two points given on line .NOONTIME TEMPERATURES IN HILO. 2 ( 20 ) + 10 there will be 60. An equation 1 of m can be written as y = − x + b . the function can be written as 3000 . 0). you need to evaluate 3000 s ( 20 ) = = 60 . 66 2. 0) and is perpendicular to .000 (D) 150. Therefore.

Therefore. is also a multiple of 30. and III should each be considered independently of the others. which is choice (B). the left side of the equation is 1 Since x can be written as x 2 and ⎛1 ⎜ ⎞ ⎠ x 2 ⋅ x −3= x ⎝ 2 5 of m is − . or 9. k must be a multiple of 30. 6. 20 III. If 20 is the perimeter of the triangle. and their sum. as 30 is the least common multiple of 2. is the sum of k and a multiple of 30.” Only choice (D). So the perimeter of the triangle could be 20. Finally. A triangle can have side lengths of 4. it follows that 5. 3. and 6. 22 (A) I only (B) I and II only (C) I and III only (D) II and III only (E) I. and 120. 60 is a multiple of 30 and 45 is not. Some multiples of 30 are 0. the perimeter of the triangle could be which of the following? I. Their sum. The question asks which answer choice is divisible by 2. ● 7. If x > 1 and (A) − 7 2 x x3 = x m. For example. Similarly. the sum will also be a multiple of 30. 60. 2 1 −3⎟ =x − 5 2.a c b 6. If k is divisible by 2. ● ● ● If you add two multiples of 30. and 9. the correct answer to the question is I and II only. For example. In this case. statement II is true. and 15—that is. the sum will not be a multiple of 30. 150. 3. A triangle can have side lengths of 5. is not a multiple of 30. then the third side of the triangle would have length 20 – (6 + 5). All the answer choices are in the form of “k plus a number. 3. and 15. you must determine which of those statements could be true. which answer choice is a multiple of 30. and 15. k + 30. If two sides of the triangle above have lengths 5 and 6. If the perimeter of the triangle is 15. 5. If you add a multiple of 30 to a number that is not a multiple of 30. Since x − 5 2 = x m. 105. Correct answer: (D) / Difficulty level: Medium Since k is divisible by 2. This is true. then the third side of the triangle would have length 15 − (6 + 5). what is the value of m ? (B) − 3 (D) −2 (E) − 3 2 (C) − 5 2 Note: Figure not drawn to scale. 60 and 90 are multiples of 30. II. 22 SAT Preparation Booklet . II. and III Correct answer: (C) / Difficulty level: Medium 1 can be x3 −3 written as x . and 15. which of the following is also divisible by these numbers? (A) k + 5 (D) k + 30 (B) k + 15 (E) k + 45 (C) k + 20 ● ● Statement I states that 15 could be the perimeter of the triangle. In this question. and two sides have lengths 5 and 6. 6. 30. The triangle inequality states that the sum of the lengths of any two sides of a triangle must be greater than the length of the third side. statements I. The sum of k and 30 is also a multiple of 30. 90. consider whether the triangle could have a perimeter of 22. or 4. and 11 cannot be the lengths of the sides of a triangle. 5. the length of the third side would be 22 – (6 + 5) = 11. 3. So the perimeter of the triangle could be 15. Since the sum of 5 and 6 is not greater than 11. so the correct answer is choice (D). and so the given triangle cannot have a perimeter of 22. the value Correct answer: (B) / Difficulty level: Hard In questions of this type. 15 II.

For example. In such cases. A fraction does not have to be reduced unless it will not fit the grid.67 will be scored as incorrect. it may be either rounded or truncated. • Mixed numbers such as 3 1 must be gridded as 2 3. you should record your result as . However. you should grid the form of the answer that you obtain naturally in solving the problem. Each of the remaining questions requires you to solve the problem and enter your answer by marking the circles in the special grid. This strategy saves time. with more digits than the grid can accommodate. decimal.. or 4. 3.12. it is suggested that you write your answer in the boxes at the top of the columns to help you fill in the circles accurately. grid it in column 2. Write answer in boxes. Columns not needed should be left blank. Decimals and fractions can also be gridded. space permitting. If you obtain a negative value. For example. grid only one answer. you can grid 2/5. Generally. it will be ¥ 0 1 2 3 4 1 2 3 4 5 6 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 1 2 3 4 5 6 0 1 2 3 4 5 0 1 2 3 4 5 0 1 2 3 4 5 ¥ 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 1 2 3 4 5 0 1 2 3 4 5 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 31 1 interpreted as . • Because the answer sheet will be machinescored. If you obtain .5 or 7 2.6666. but it must fill the entire grid. Answer: 201 7 Answer: 12 Answer: 2. or 9/15. you must solve the problem and fill in your answer on a special grid. 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 Note: You may start your answers in any column. whether whole number. a value greater than 9999. For example. Make an educated guess if you don’t know the answer. an answer of 1/8 could also be gridded as . you have made an error. The Mathematics Section 23 . The grid will only hold numbers that range from 0 to 9999.6. • No question has a negative answer. A primary advantage of this format is that it allows you to enter the form of the answer that you obtain. It is very important for you to understand the directions for entering answers on the grid. Only answers entered on the grid are scored. Check your work if your answer does not fit on the grid. The decimal form. if you obtain 2/5. Your handwritten answer at the top of the grid isn’t scored. Zero has been omitted from column 1 to encourage you to grid the most accurate values for rounded answers.5 Either position is correct.666 or . Below are the actual directions that you will find on the test—read them carefully. do so completely. A less accurate value such as . Instead. writing your answer at the top of the grid may help you avoid gridding errors. you can grid . If you erase your answer. 2 Acceptable ways to grid are: 3 • Mark no more than one circle in any column. You will lose valuable testing time if you read the directions for the first time when you take the test. or fraction. 6/10.. 15/25 will not fit. If the answer is zero. • Some problems may have more than one correct answer.667. Incomplete erasures may be picked up by the scoring machines as intended answers. For example. We recommend that you grid the first (left-hand) column of the grid or that you right-justify your answers. Fraction line 0 1 2 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 Decimal point 1 2 3 4 0 1 2 3 4 0 1 2 3 4 0 1 2 3 4 1 2 3 0 1 2 3 4 0 1 2 3 0 1 2 3 Grid in result. not 3 . if you obtain an answer such as 0.125 but not as 0. you will receive credit only if the circles are filled in correctly. Ten questions on the test will be of this type. Always enter your answer on the grid. or an irrational number. can also be gridded.66 or . as shown in the examples below. • Decimal Answers: If you obtain a decimal answer • Although not required.Student-Produced Response Questions Questions of this type have no answer choices provided.) 2 2 5 6 Approaches to Student-Produced Response Questions ● ● ● Decide in which column you want to begin gridding your answers before the test starts. . You can grid 3/5.4. which is less accurate. You may use any available space for scratch work.4.. On student-produced response (grid-in) questions. ● ● ● ● Do your best to be certain of your answer before you grid it. you don’t lose points for wrong answers. (If is gridded.

1-3. 3-5. 2-6.67. 3-6. You are asked to find the value of x that 4 2 1 satisfies both equations. you substitute 4 for a and 2 for b in 42 + 1 ab + 1 . 3. you will find a solution and several ways to enter the correct answer. 1-6. 1-4. 4x − 7 = 5 4 x = 12 x =3 4x − 7 = −5 4x = 2 1 x= 2 The words “let a b be defined by” tell you that the symbol is not supposed to represent a common mathematical operation but one that is made up for this question. To evaluate 4 2. This gives . For all positive integers a and b. so only one is in the list. 2-3. 4-5. and 6. Difficulty level: Hard There are 6 courses offered. 5. the value of 4 x − 7 is either 5 or −5. 3 − 8x = 1 8x = 2 1 x = 4 3 − 8x = −1 8x = 4 1 x = 2 or 15 0 1 2 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 The two values of x that satisfy the second equation are 1 1 and . 2 Since 3 − 8 x = 1. let us refer to them as 1. 1-5. Difficulty level: Medium 10. They are 1-2. 2-5. Kay must choose exactly 2 of them.5. 3-4. 2-4. The answer can 2 be entered in the grid as 1/2 or . 4. What is the value defined by a b = a−1 of 4 2? 17 0 1 2 3 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 / 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 3 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 5 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 66 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 5 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 67 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 8. How many different combinations of 2 courses are possible for Kay if there are no restrictions on which 2 courses she can choose? or The two values of x that satisfy the first equation are 1 3 and . That value is . and 5-6.66 or 5. What value of x satisfies both of the equations above? 1/ 2 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 5 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 4 5 6 7 8 9 Since 4 x − 7 = 5. which equals the expression 4−1 a −1 17 . let a b be ab + 1 .Sample Questions Below are five examples of student-produced response questions. 4x − 7 = 5 3 − 8x = 1 9. Following each question. 24 SAT Preparation Booklet . 2. Note that 1-2 and 2-1 represent the same combination. One way to find the number of combinations is to list all possible pairings. There are 15 combinations. the value of 3 − 8 x is either 1 or −1. Of the 6 courses offered by the music department at her college. The answer may be entered in the grid as 17/3 or as 3 5. 4-6.

Therefore. If one of the angles has measure 28°. Therefore. there are 2 arrangements. When there is a range of possible correct answers. Since t = k − 1. Choose only one correct answer (not both) to enter in the grid. There are 5 other angles that measure 28°. and so forth. Difficulty level: Hard 12. you can put a check showing the other angles in the figure that also measure 28°. you must divide the number of permutations by the number of arrangements. Since k = t + 1 Using the fact that vertical angles and alternate interior angles are equal.00 is not within the range and therefore would not be considered a correct answer to the problem. are correct answers. or (t − 1) (t − 4 ) = 0. So the number of combinations is 30 ÷ 2 = 15. The total number of combinations is 5 + 4 + 3 + 2 + 1 = 15. For example. consider a problem for which all numbers between 4 and 5. You could also solve the problem by noting that the total number of permutations (that is. your gridded response must lie within the range. or 2 Drawing the figure described in the problem will help you visualize the correct solution to the problem. forming twelve angles. f ( k ) = k 2 − 7k + 10 = ( k − 5) ( k − 2 ). the correct answer to this problem is 5. or f ( t + 1) = t 2 − 5t + 4. the number of different ways 2 of 6 courses could be selected) is 6 for the first course selected times 5 for the second course selected. Difficulty level: Medium 11. the arrangement B-A is also possible. For example. it follows that t 2 − 5t + 4 = 0. as shown below. Either 1 or 4 satisfies the question being asked. f ( t + 1) = t 2 + 2t + 1 − ( 7t + 7 ) + 10. and therefore.0002 is within the range ( 4 < t < 5) . it follows that f ( k ) = 0. The number 5 can be gridded in any of the four columns on the answer grid. The figure below shows three parallel lines intersected by a fourth line. what is one possible value of t ? This question asks for one possible value of t. For this problem. Three parallel lines in a plane are intersected by a fourth line. Therefore. For each pair of courses A-B selected. t = 1 or t = 4 . Difficulty level: Easy The Mathematics Section 25 . k = 5 or k = 2. t = 4 or t = 1. 28° and f (t + 1) = 0. its rounded value 4. Another way to solve the question would be to use a dummy variable k. If f (t + 1) = 0. So ( k − 5) ( k − 2) = 0. Let the function f be defined by f ( x ) = x 2 − 7 x + 10. substituting ( t + 1) for x into the function yields f ( t + 1) = ( t + 1) − 7 ( t + 1) + 10. exclusive. To find the number of combinations. how many of the other eleven angles have measure 28° ? 5 0 1 2 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 3 1 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 4 0 1 4 2 5 3 6 4 7 5 8 6 9 7 8 9 Since f ( x ) = x 2 − 7 x + 10 . let k = t + 1. ( ) 28° Since f (t + 1) = 0.You could also notice that there are 5 pairings that start with course 1 and 4 additional pairings that start with course 2. or 6 × 5 = 30. although 4. The acute angle is labeled 28°.

If your car is parked here while not eating in the restaurant. Nathan grew more vegetables than his neighbor’s garden. and she is probably allergic to something. so they filled out the required applications. he was home for two weeks. he is home for two weeks. Illustrations of problems are given below. Note: Calculators may not be on your desk or be used on the writing section of the SAT. He circumvented the globe on his trip. After he broke his arm. plays tennis. Mary took time out of her busy schedule to visit her aunt. you should try to relax. it will be towed away. so he or she filled out the required applications. the tree had the dog's leash wrapped around it. In the newspaper they say that few people voted. Being clear and precise Ambiguous and vague pronouns Diction Wordiness Improper modification 4. Following conventions Pronoun case Idiom Comparison of modifiers Sentence fragment Comma splice He sat between you and I at the stadium. recognize and identify sentence-level errors. Natalie had a different opinion of her. The newspaper reported that few people voted. There is eight people on the shore. plays tennis. Fred has to go home early. Barking loudly. Carmen and Sarah are both a pilot. Recognizing effective writing Some sentences require students to recognize that there is no error. Tawanda has a rash. and flying hang gliders. Barking loudly. Several people wanted the job. Carmen and Sarah are both pilots. ● ● ● ● ● ● improve a piece of writing through revision and editing. There are many problems in the contemporary world. she is probably allergic to something. Tawanda has a rash. Expressing ideas logically Coordination and subordination Logical comparison Modification and word order 3. There are eight people on the shore. Mary took time out of her busy schedule to visit her aunt. Fred having to go home early. 5. Characteristics of Effective Writing Multiple-choice writing questions focus on common problems associated with four characteristics of effective writing. Several people wanted the job. understand grammatical elements and structures and how they relate to one another in a sentence. recognize correctly formed grammatical structures. one should try to relax. Naomi makes the most money. If you are tense. There are many problems in the contemporary world in which we live. If you park here and do not eat in the restaurant. Being consistent Sequence of tenses Shift of pronoun Parallelism Noun agreement Pronoun reference Subject–verb agreement 2. Natalie had a different opinion for her. Of the sixteen executives. The multiple-choice sections include: ● Improving sentences (25 questions) ● Identifying sentence errors (18 questions) ● Improving paragraphs (6 questions) The multiple-choice sections measure your ability to ● communicate ideas clearly and effectively. She skis. the dog wrapped its leash around the tree. Nathan grew more vegetables than his neighbor grew.. Of the sixteen executives. If you are tense. 26 SAT Preparation Booklet . clearly express ideas through sentence combining and use of transitional words and phrases. The fifth category of questions requires recognition of correct sentences and effective writing strategies. She skis. and flies hang gliders.. Naomi makes more money.The Writing Section The writing section includes both multiple-choice questions and a direct writing measure in the form of an essay. John decided to continue working through the summer. He sat between you and me at the stadium. Sentence illustrating the problem Should be. Writing problem 1. He circumnavigated the globe on his trip. After he broke his arm. improve coherence of ideas within and among paragraphs. but John decided to continue working through the summer. your car will be towed away.

depicting scenes from the everyday lives of African Americans. If you think the original phrasing produces a better sentence than any of the alternatives. EXAMPLE: Laura Ingalls Wilder published her first book and she was sixty-five years old then. These include subject-verb agreement. Using the word “at” results in a phrase that is not idiomatic. (B) Scenes from the everyday lives of African Americans being realistically depicted in the paintings of Henry Ossawa Tanner. beneath each sentence are five ways of phrasing the underlined material. No. In the example. No. which are realistically depicted in the paintings of Henry Ossawa Tanner. it is a good idea to read each choice quickly to make sure. Keep in mind that while the answer choices change. sentence construction. (D) Henry Ossawa Tanner. In making your selection.Improving Sentences This question type measures your ability to ● ● Remember that the right answer will be the one correct version among the five choices. Replacing the word “and” with “when” clearly expresses the information that the sentence is intended to convey by relating Laura Ingalls Wilder’s age to her achievement. which are realistically depicted in the paintings of Henry Ossawa Tanner. without awkwardness or ambiguity. select choice A. The word “and” should be replaced to establish the relationship between the two ideas. choice of words. The phrase “upon the reaching of ” also results in a phrase that is not idiomatic. select one of the other choices. all options but (C) are sentence fragments. connecting the two ideas (“Laura Ingalls Wilder published her first book”) and (“she was sixty-five years old then”) with the word “and” indicates that the two ideas are equally important.cde ● ● ● The word “and” indicates that the two ideas it connects are equally important. in his realistic paintings. Choice A repeats the original phrasing. placement of modifiers. recognize effective sentences that follow the conventions of standard written English. replace the underlined part of the sentence with each answer choice to determine which revision results in a sentence that is clear and precise and meets the requirements of standard written English. In this example. No. (A) Scenes from the everyday lives of African Americans. and punctuation. When a sentence lacks either a subject or a main verb. the other four choices are different. Even if you think that the sentence does not require correction and that choice (A) is the correct answer. Your selection should result in the most effective sentence—clear and precise. follow the requirements of standard written English. that is. but continue to look at the other revisions. Scenes from the everyday lives of African Americans. Remember that choice (A) is the same as the underlined portion. The Writing Section 27 . The phrase “at the time when she was sixty-five” is awkward and wordy. (A) and she was sixty-five years old then (B) when she was sixty-five (C) at age sixty-five years old (D) upon the reaching of sixty-five years (E) at the time when she was sixty-five a. No. if not. Answering Improving Sentences Questions Read the entire sentence carefully but quickly and ask yourself whether the underlined portion is correct or whether it needs to be revised. For a sentence to be grammatically complete. (E) Henry Ossawa Tanner. Correct answer: (B) / Difficulty level: Easy Sample Questions 1. Yes. (C) The paintings of Henry Ossawa Tanner realistically depict scenes from the everyday lives of African Americans. pay attention to grammar. parallelism. the rest of the sentence stays the same. whose paintings realistically depict scenes from the everyday lives of African Americans. Part of each sentence or the entire sentence is underlined. the result is a sentence fragment. Look for common problem areas in sentences. ● ● recognize and correct faults in grammar and sentence structure. When reading choices (A) through (E). and the use of relative clauses. Directions The following sentences test correctness and effectiveness of expression. it must include both a subject and a main verb.

If the sentence is correct. but go on to check the other choices.”) “Him” is an error.” and the phrase “drafted by the neutral states” describes “the resolution. In choosing answers. select the one underlined part that must be changed to make the sentence correct. select choice E. “The other delegates and him” are the people who “immediately accepted the resolution. if there is one. The word “immediately” correctly modifies the verb “accepted.” Check each underlined word or phrase for correctness. . No error E a. the noun “Henry Ossawa Tanner” is modified by “depicting” but is not combined with a main verb. it must logically modify the sentence’s subject. but it is illogical to suggest that a trail looks up from the base of a mountain.cde Correct answer: (C) / Difficulty level: Medium 2. Mark (E) No error if you believe that the sentence is correct as written. . In (D). (A) Looking up (B) While looking up (C) By looking up (D) Viewing (E) Viewed When a modifying phrase begins a sentence. ● Answering Identifying Sentence Errors Questions Read the entire sentence carefully but quickly. Ask yourself whether any of the underlined words or phrases in the sentence contains a grammar or usage error. . is underlined and lettered. . and (D) are simply variations of the error found in (A). (C) is correct. the noun “Henry Ossawa Tanner” is modified by the dependent clause “whose . Americans” is modified by the dependent clause “which . And in (E). the phrase “Scenes . .” Correct answer: (E) / Difficulty level: Hard Identifying Sentence Errors This question type measures your ability to ● ● recognize faults in grammar and usage. . In the example above. pronoun reference and agreement. and adjective/adverb confusion. (One would not say “him immediately accepted. Tanner. Americans” but not combined with a main verb. especially if you are not sure. EXAMPLE: The other delegates and him immediately A B C accepted the resolution drafted by the D neutral states. paying attention to the underlined choices (A) through (D).” Correct answer: (B) / Difficulty level: Easy 28 SAT Preparation Booklet . ● ● ● ● In (A). every option except (E) is a dangling modifier. the trail seemed more treacherous than it really was.” The pronoun “him” is in the wrong case. Tanner” contains no main verb. In this example. Although a trail cannot itself look up from the base of a mountain. If the sentence contains an error.” A person might stand at the base of a mountain and look up at a trail. In (B).● ● ● ● ● In (A). Each sentence contains either a single error or no error at all. a trail can be viewed by someone looking up from the base of a mountain. so the phrase “Viewed from the base of the mountain” logically modifies the subject “the trail. follow the requirements of standard written English. the phrase “Scenes . Directions The following sentences test your ability to recognize grammar and usage errors. the phrase “Looking up from the base of the mountain” does not logically modify the subject “the trail. The error. (C).” but there is no main verb. Each results in a sentence that illogically suggests that a trail was looking up from the base of a mountain. Develop the habit of looking for the most common mistakes that people make in grammar: subject–verb agreement. . It is the only choice in which a subject (“The paintings of Henry Ossawa Tanner”) is combined with a verb (“depict”) to express a complete thought. (E) is correct. recognize effective sentences that follow the conventions of standard written English. it is a dangling modifier. .” The phrase “drafted by” correctly expresses the action of the “neutral states. Keep in mind that some sentences do not contain an error. otherwise. (B). No sentence contains more than one error. ● ● The phrase “The other” correctly modifies the word “delegates. Select the underlined word or phrase that must be changed to make the sentence correct. Looking up from the base of the mountain.

and her obituary in 1937 did not even mention her many paintings.” In (B). The sentence may be corrected as follows: After hours of futile debate. In (B). Choose the best answer from among the choices given. Here.” The other options contain no errors. Some questions are about particular sentences or parts of sentences and ask you to improve sentence structure or word choice. The other options contain no errors. Some parts of the passage need to be rewritten. therefore. In answering each question. “to postpone” is the verb form needed to complete the description of the committee’s decision. the committee has decided to postpone further discussion of the resolution until its next meeting. Directions ● The following passage is an early draft of an essay.Sample Questions 3. she had just read about a littleknown artist named Annie Johnson. (2) Often women artists like Mary Cassatt have worked in the shadows of their male contemporaries. you will need to note what sentences need to be corrected and to know how each sentence relates to the other sentences and to the essay as a whole. A pronoun must agree in number (singular or plural) with the noun to which it refers. the singular verb “has” establishes “the committee” as a singular noun. The sentence may be corrected as follows: The students have discovered that they can address issues more effectively through letter-writing campaigns than through public demonstrations. the plural pronoun “they” correctly refers to the plural noun “students. The students have discovered that they can address A B issues more effectively through letter-writing C campaigns and not through public D demonstrations. In (A). In choosing answers. When a comparison is introduced by the adverb “more. Other questions ask you to consider organization and development. (6) Johnson never sold a painting.” as in “more effectively. so you will notice errors. No error E The error in this sentence occurs at (D).” In (C). the plural pronoun “their” is used incorrectly. even if you can imagine another correct response. (5) Recently she came to class very excited. Connecticut. Read the passage and select the best answers for the questions that follow. (3) They have rarely received much attention during their lifetimes. In (A). the plural verb “have discovered” agrees with the plural subject “students.” the second part of the comparison must be introduced by the conjunction “than” rather than “and not. In (C). ● Sample Questions Questions 5-7 are based on the following passage: (1) Many times art history courses focus on the great “masters. the preposition “After” appropriately introduces a phrase that indicates when the committee made its decision. the preposition “through” appropriately expresses the means by which issues are addressed. make sure that your answer about a particular sentence or group of sentences makes sense in the context of the passage as a whole. C D No error E The error in this sentence occurs at (D). ● ● Answering Improving Paragraphs Questions To answer the improving paragraphs questions that accompany the draft essay. Improving Paragraphs This type of question measures your ability to ● ● ● edit and revise sentences in the context of a paragraph or entire essay. The essay is intended as a draft. a high school teacher who had lived all of her life in New Haven. Read the entire essay quickly to determine its overall meaning.” ignoring those women who should have achieved fame. After hours of futile debate. ● ● Correct answer: (D) / Difficulty level: Hard The Writing Section 29 . organize and develop paragraphs in a coherent and logical manner. follow the requirements of standard written English. the prepositional phrase “of the resolution” appropriately specifies the subject of the postponed discussion. apply the conventions of standard written English. the committee has A decided to postpone further discussion B of the resolution until their next meeting. Correct answer: (D) / Difficulty level: Medium 4. (4) My art teacher has tried to make up for it by teaching us about women artists and their work.

(E) is unsatisfactory not only because it fails to signal the cause-and-effect relationship.” Correct answer: (C) / Difficulty level: Hard ● (A). the sentence makes little sense in the context of the paragraph because it suggests that Bruce Blanchard is someone other than the Connecticut businessman who bought the watercolors.” (13) They do not idealize characters. (D) is correct because it properly identifies Johnson as the painter of the artworks and thus provides an antecedent for the pronoun “her” in sentence 11. which is the best revision to the underlined portion of sentence 3 (reproduced below)? They have rarely received much attention during their lifetimes. Each results in another sentence fragment.” or “In spite of this”) fails to indicate the cause-andeffect relationship.(7) Thanks to Bruce Blanchard. (D) Change “her” to “Johnson’s”. (B). and “these women” properly resolves the ambiguity of the pronoun “They. (14) Characters are presented almost photographically.” (C) is correct. (16) My teacher said that isolation symbolizes Johnson’s life as an artist. (E) is correct. (B) Move “Thanks to Bruce Blanchard” to the end of sentence 7. (E) Among them Johnson has portraits and landscapes. (B). (B). In context. (C) Therefore. (C) Delete “who”. (9) Blanchard now owns a private collection of hundreds of Johnson’s works—watercolors. but also because it is wordy and illogically combines the adverbs “Often” and “rarely. (D) Johnson painted both portraits and landscapes. It should therefore be joined to an independent clause. ● 6. ● ● ● ● (A). It should be revised so that Johnson is clearly identified as the painter of the portraits and landscapes. (12) My teacher described them as “unsentimental. A transitional phrase should be added to emphasize the cause-and-effect relationship between the stated facts—women artists received little attention as a consequence of having worked in the shadows of their male contemporaries—and the ambiguous pronoun “They” should be replaced with a word or phrase that clearly refers to the “women artists” and not the “male contemporaries” mentioned in sentence 2. (11) The thing that makes her work stand out are the portraits. they had (B) Too bad these artists have (C) As a result. In context. (8) Johnson is finally starting to get the attention that she deserved more than one hundred years ago. it is misleading in that the words “Johnson has” suggest that Johnson is the owner rather than the painter of the portraits and landscapes. (E) Change the period to a comma and combine sentence 7 with sentence 8. sentence 10 contains no noun to which the pronoun “her” in sentence 11 may refer.” but it does not say what happened thanks to Bruce Blanchard. with neither a subject nor a main verb to finish the thought it has begun. which of the following revisions to sentence 7 is most needed? (A) Delete “Thanks to”. (A) In fact. and (C) are unsatisfactory because they do not mention Johnson. 5. ● ● ● (A). haunted look. Although (C) results in a complete sentence. and (D) are unsatisfactory because in each case the transitional phrase (“In fact. these women have (D) In spite of this. that indicates what happened as a result of Blanchard’s action. charcoal sketches. which of the following is the best version of sentence 10 (reproduced below)? There are portraits and there are landscapes. its relationship to the preceding sentence needs to be made clearer. (15) Many of the people in the pictures had an isolated. (10) There are portraits and there are landscapes. This change results in a grammatically complete sentence that indicates what happened thanks to Bruce Blanchard’s efforts: Johnson began to get the attention she deserved. women artists (E) Often it is the case that the former have Although sentence 3 is not grammatically incorrect. Moreover. and pen-and-ink drawings. Though (E) does mention Johnson. In context. a Connecticut businessman who bought some of her watercolors at an estate sale. both (A) and (B) leave the ambiguity of the pronoun unresolved. In addition to being vague. The transitional phrase “As a result” clearly indicates a cause-and-effect relationship. Correct answer: (E) / Difficulty level: Medium 7. (A) (As it is now) (B) You can see both portraits and landscapes. both portraits and landscapes are among her works.” “Too bad. and (D) are unsatisfactory because each fails to provide the main verb needed to complete the sentence. Correct answer: (D) / Difficulty level: Easy 30 SAT Preparation Booklet . It says “Thanks to Bruce Blanchard. Sentence 7 is a sentence fragment. complete with subject and verb.

You should. You will have enough space if you write on every line. Developing your point of view doesn’t mean coming up with as many examples as you can. or has five paragraphs.” and give examples that are meaningful to you. Support your position with reasoning and examples taken from your reading. You will not receive high scores on your essay just because it is long. Rushing to give multiple relevant examples can lead you to oversimplify a complex topic. present your ideas logically and clearly. This is your opinion. repress it. An essay with one or two thoughtful. Every essay assignment contains a short paragraph about the issue. If your essay does not reflect your original and individual work. even ones from your personal life or experiences. Many persons believe that to move up the ladder of success and achievement. experience.” You are asked to develop your point of view on the issue. welldeveloped reasons or examples is more likely to get a high score than an essay with three short. Learn more at collegeboard. The Writing Section 31 . and relinquish it. but remember: The essay is an opportunity for you to say what you think about an issue relevant to your life. Your essay must be written on the lines provided on your answer sheet—you will receive no other paper on which to write. There’s nothing wrong with “I. or uses literary examples. Important Reminders: ● develop a point of view on an issue presented in an excerpt. and keep your handwriting to a reasonable size.com/satonlinecourse. avoid wide margins. So what can you do to write a successful SAT essay? ● • • • • ● ● Read the entire assignment. therefore. It’s all there to help you. Do not write your essay in your test book. Would you argue with him or her. Don’t oversimplify. studies. The high school and college teachers who score the SAT reward essays that insightfully develop a point of view with appropriate reasons and examples and that use language skillfully. not give a straight report of the facts. simplistic examples. Receive immediate essay scoring for this essay prompt and many more in The Official SAT Online Course™. support your point of view using reasoning and examples from your reading. or observations. Imagine that you are talking to the author of the paragraph about the issue. An off-topic essay will receive a score of zero. your test scores may be canceled. Approaches to the Essay There are no short cuts to success on the SAT essay. and use language precisely. You have twenty-five minutes to write an essay on the topic assigned below. follow the conventions of standard written English. An essay written in ink will receive a score of zero. they must forget the past. Think carefully about the issue presented in the following excerpt and the assignment below. Try to write or print so that what you are writing is legible to those readers. or agree? What other ideas or examples would you bring up? Answering these questions will help you develop your own point of view. But others have just the opposite view. take care to develop your point of view. A pencil is required for the essay. Of course you need to support your ideas appropriately and show that you can use language well. or observations. I’ve Known Rivers: Lives of Loss and Liberation Assignment: Do memories hinder or help people in their effort to learn from the past and succeed in the present? Plan and write an essay in which you develop your point of view on this issue. studies. Adapted from Sara Lawrence-Lightfoot. They see old memories as a chance to reckon with the past and integrate past and present. Remember that people who are not familiar with your handwriting will read what you write. so feel free to use “I.The Essay The essay measures your ability to ● ● Directions The essay gives you an opportunity to show how effectively you can develop and express ideas. experience. You will receive credit only for what you write on your answer sheet.

In order to move up the ladder of success and achievement we must come to terms with our past and integrate it into our future. On the other hand.” and would get the opportunity to play “Chris. Many people advise you to learn from the past and apply those memories so that you can effectively succeed by avoiding repeating your past mistakes. Overall. I didn’t get the part. Wiesel acknowledges the damage that memories can also cause. Night. in order to create my character. His past experiences haunted him for several years. carefully contrasting Wiesel’s success in using his memories to gain attention for his cause with the difficulty Wiesel faced in dealing with those same powerful memories. I utilized the memory of the Elizabeth Taylor debacle to improve my approach to acting and gave the best performance of my life so far. Allow your past to act as a guide. and promised myself I would not try to imitate another actress. This essay effectively and insightfully develops its point of view (In order to move up the ladder of success and achievement we must come to terms with our past and integrate it into our future) through a clearly appropriate extended example drawing on the writer’s experience as an actor. Unfortunately. Following his liberation from the Auschwitz concentration camp. this will only make wiser people out of us and guide us to where we are supposed to be. not Elizabeth Taylor’s. I auditioned for the part of “Maggie” feeling perfectly confident in my portrayal of Elizabeth Taylor. The essay uses language skillfully to convey Wiesel’s struggle (Despite the importance of recounting such memories. hoping I could mimic her performance. The essay exhibits outstanding critical thinking by presenting a well-organized and clearly focused narrative that aptly illustrates the value of memory. In order to develop my character. he may never have achieved the success that he has attained. I learned from this experience. Wiesel. people who get too caught up with the past are unable to move on to the future.” a sarcastic yet witty role. “Cat on a Hot Tin Roof. Wiesel is able to educate world readers about the atrocities committed in hopes that the same blatant violations of human rights are never repeated again. Wiesel’s past experiences helped to guide him in later life. My director told me after the first show that “Rumors” was the best work he’d ever seen from me. the essay demonstrates clear and consistent mastery and is scored a 6. and my director told me that he needed to see “Maggie” from my perspective. hoping I could mimic her performance. The essay demonstrates clear coherence and smooth progression of ideas. He could not even write Night until several years later). Wiesel’s experiences exemplify the importance of the past as a guide. attitude. attitude. Wiesel was a bitter. The end of the novel describes Wiesel’s gradual but absolute loss of faith throughout the experience. because without that mistake I might have tried to base “Chris” off of someone I’d known or something I’d seen instead of becoming my own character. gave her the voice I thought was right. This essay exhibits outstanding critical thinking by effectively and insightfully developing its point of view (you should rely on your past without letting it control you) through the clearly appropriate example of Elie Wiesel’s Holocaust memoir. Wiesel was a bitter. Even if in the past we made mistakes. rendering him passive. however. The play was Neil Simon’s “Rumors. our future would be a tortuous path leading to nowhere.” To my detriment I thought it would be a good idea to watch the movie in order to prepare. This past year. and that he was amazed at how I’d developed such a believable character. Despite minor errors. Despite the importance of recounting such memories. I planned out her life just as I thought it should be. These memories help to spread the view of what life was like. Some would point to his peaceful actions and the sales of his book and label him a success. Following his liberation from the Auschwitz concentration camp. while making sure that you are also living in the present and looking to the future. The essay demonstrates clear and consistent mastery and receives a 6. 32 SAT Preparation Booklet . Wiesel was inspired to become proactive in the battle for civil rights. For two hours I studied Elizabeth Taylor’s mannerisms. It was not until he set aside his past that he could even focus on the future. which would be my final performance in high school. Had he remained so consumed with the pain and damage caused in the past. Through recounting these memories. To me this means that you should rely on your past without letting it control you. and diction. I was unaware that my director saw exactly what I had been thinking. and diction. I was unaware that my director…). demonstrating meaningful variety in sentence structure (To my detriment I thought it would be a good idea to watch the movie in order to prepare. a Jewish man. He could not even write Night until several years later. suffered heavily throughout the Holocaust and Night is rife with horrific descriptions of his experience. however. The essay also uses language skillfully. For two hours I studied Elizabeth Taylor’s mannerisms. I auditioned for the part of “Maggie” feeling perfectly confident in my portrayal of Elizabeth Taylor.Sample Essays Score of 6: Without our past. jaded man. Thinking back to my first audition I was grateful for that chance I had to learn and to grow. but it was not until he pushed them aside that he could move on. jaded man. Perservering. Through reliving the Holocaust through his writing. and the rest of her character unfolded beautifully from there. Score of 6: Memories act as both a help and a hinderance to the success of someone. Wiesel acknowledges the damage that memories can also cause. I was anxious to audition for the winter play just two months later. Elie Wiesel’s memoir Night perfectly exemplifies the double nature of memories. I was auditioning for the fall play.

I was devastated and wanted to just clear my mind of the event. these acts were published in textbooks and taught to students. approached “patriotism” differently. . The essay demonstrates reasonably consistent mastery and receives a 5. those adverse to the war are able to voice their opinions without fear of imprisonment or death. A personal example. Later in life. for people in an effort to succeed in the present. a guiding support. The essay also exhibits facility in the use of language. With this present war. An historical example of people learning from the past would be the Marshall Plan. For example. I have found that the very act of living through something not only matures me. but I didn’t. Some view failed experiences as a hinderance to future success. but also provides skills and knowledge. Well organized and focused. one can learn how to successfully approach similar situations in the future. To earn a score of 6. To earn a 6. it is clear that old memories can only aid in success. George Marshall. The Writing Section 33 . . thus demonstrating strong critical thinking. this writer needs to achieve smoother progression of ideas by using language more skillfully (the phrase “past experiences can only offer a gap between the steps on the ladder of success” seems to express the opposite of what the writer intends). If the Sedition Acts had been forgotten then what is to say that they wouldn’t come back? Remembering the failed times insures that improvement is possible). the writer needs to achieve clearer coherence and smoother progression of ideas by integrating the example of Ceremony more effectively into the overall essay. . by Leslie Marmon Silko. and the United States would have to be the one to provide that assistence. I looked back to that memory as a guide and learned from it that in time I would be fine and to just hang on. . who eventually started World War II. . and instead of covering it up in a movement towards a more democratic nation. However. a guiding support. can not concentrate on the present because he constantly hounds himself over things that happened during World War II and his troubled childhood. . In remembering past events. I recovered. I am able to use them as reference. After time.” Many people are so troubled by things that happened in their past that they are not able to focus on the present. good or bad. Japan. In seeing the undemocratic ways of an earlier era. America was able to recognize the bad and try to reform it. Sara Lawrence-Lightfoot in saying that some people “see old memories as a chance to reckon with the past and integrate past and present. a former general and later Secretary of State under President Truman. past experiences can only offer a gap between the steps on the ladder of success. somewhat juvenile. In this situation. the main character. is when my first pet died. and sometimes assurance. If the Sedition Acts had been forgotten then what is to say that they wouldn’t come back? Remembering the failed times insures that improvement is possible. Marshall knew that if the US did not help war torn Germany and. America recognized this shady time in its past. for people in an effort to succeed in the present) through the appropriate examples of dissent during wartime and grieving for a pet. The essay uses appropriate reasoning and examples and demonstrates coherence and progression of ideas (Many American politicians thought it was foolish for the US government to spend money abroad on countries that would not be able to repay the loan for a long time. America was able to recognize the bad and try to reform it. or lessons on what not to do. past memories can help people to succeed in the present). This focused essay effectively develops its point of view and demonstrates strong critical thinking (Many people are so troubled by things that happened in their past that they are not able to focus on the present. This essay effectively develops its point of view (Memories and past experiences serve as a rail. The essay also uses appropriate vocabulary and demonstrates effective variety in sentence structure. but the very act of going through something provides experience for a person who is to “move up the ladder of success and achievement”. George Marshall . but maintained the memory of this horrible tragedy. we could eventually have a World War III on our hands. and in recognizing past failures. especially. Tayo. The German people became so desperate that they started supporting an extreme German nationalist named Adolf Hitler. remembered how the exact same argument . perhaps through an extended comparison of Tayo’s and Marshall’s experiences of World War II. Memories. An example of this is looking back in history to WWI. past memories can help people to succeed in the present. The essay demonstrates reasonably consistent mastery and is scored a 5. The lack of assistence towards Germany after World War I had caused a gigantic economic depression in Germany that had made the Mark (German money) virtually worthless. the essay demonstrates coherence and progression of ideas (In seeing the undemocratic ways of an earlier era. People not only learn from the past. or against the war. However. However. Sedition acts at this time allowed for the imprisonment of anyone who voiced an opinion against the president. remembered how the exact same argument of “why should we spend money on war torn nations that really owe us reparations?” had been used after World War I towards Germany. This is very untrue because history has a tendency of repeating itself. Americans saw the poor judgement of this situation and later with the war in Iraq. Whether used as reference for guidance. assist people in obtaining success. in the book Ceremony. but also effective. In my personal experience. .Score of 5: Memories and past experiences serve as a rail. After the conclusion of World War II there were many countries around the world in need of economical assistence to help rebuild their war torn countries. Score of 5: I agree with Ms. However. another pet died. Forgetting the past can and will only erase experience and knowledge from a person and in affect hinder one in seeking achievement. Many American politicians thought it was foolish for the US government to spend money abroad on countries that would not be able to repay the loan for a long time. In looking at historical repeats and personal events. had been used after World War I towards Germany). a memory served as a reference and catalyzed in my personal growth and recovery.

the writer needs to support and extend the essay’s argument with additional focused examples of people learning. going to places that aren’t safe for me. . it is purely bad. the stronger a person they are. The only way to continue. That is why people can become so wise and strong in what they do. my brothers. 34 SAT Preparation Booklet . I will have a similar promising career. . Now I tend to make different mistakes. I also believe that many bad memories harm the present and the future. “Violence begets violence” is the perfect phrase for this warfare. When climbing the “ladder of success. thus demonstrating competent critical thinking. such as. had been persecuted for many hundreds of years from 1000 AD to 1900 AD. lied to my parents (still happens every once in awhile). for example. is to forget and forgive. Consequently. despite some inconsistencies (Through my knowledge. and giving up when things get hard. This hostility has cost the lives of many hundreds of people. Through my knowledge. the essay is marked by coherence and progression of ideas (As a child I stole cookies from the cookie jar. Now I tend to make different mistakes). and played tricks on my brothers.Score of 4: Interestingly enough. I. Generally organized and focused around the notion that remembering past learning experiences is crucial for success. they attacked many parts of Britain for retribution of those many years of being oppressed. The essay also has some errors in grammar. For example. a good decision. I make mistakes all of the time and I am a better person because of that. I have gotten good grades and have seen interest from many prestigious programs. This essay provides adequate reasons and examples to support both aspects of its point of view (I believe that one should remember the past and learn from those events. lied to my parents . who is college. If you don’t learn from what you do wrong. despite some errors (I am human. These two ideas helped him to get into the prestegious college of the University of Notre Dame. let’s forget this part and concentrate on how to bring this positive part into light. You could almost say that the more mistakes a person makes. from their experiences. got in trouble with my parents and was punished. However. therefor. Reviewing these facts and ideas has led me to believe if I do the same. therefor. Ireland. Both of the ideas on remembering and forgetting have their reasons for existing and both are positive. The essay is generally organized and focused and features coherence and progression of ideas. The essay also exhibits adequate facility in the use of language. assuming of course that they learn from them. I also believe that many bad memories harm the present and the future). How could a person climb that ladder without each and every wooden rung to help them? I am human. I also see people close to me using problems and mistakes to make a good situation out of a bad one. they make good out of the bad. got in trouble with my parents and was punished. I have learned that in many bad instances. His education there will allow him to have a prosperous career as an adult. I believe that one should remember the past and learn from those events. people are required to use both elements. My parents. After being granted the Irish Free State. Different situations require different actions to proceed in a positive manner. then making mistakes has no silver lining. After that I learned that those things aren’t okay.” each step gets you closer to the top. I. Many times. However. The essay demonstrates adequate mastery and is scored a 4. To earn a higher score. To attain a higher score. in turn. This essay develops a point of view (Life is a huge cycle of making mistakes and learning from them) with adequate reasons and examples. I have learned that in many bad instances. Life is a huge cycle of making mistakes and learning from them. far from perfect. Consequently there has been on going hostility between the two peoples. or not learning. many times. How can a person be more successful by forgetting what they have already learned? That doesn’t push you forward it just holds a person back. As a child I stole cookies from the cookie jar. . My brother. the writer should provide additional appropriate evidence and use critical thinking to extend the discussion of situations in which “people are required to use both elements. thus demonstrating competent critical thinking. usage. After that I learned that those things aren’t okay. it will burn you. they couldn’t. start anew. Facility in the use of language is adequate. in turn. I make mistakes all of the time and I am a better person because of that). I have come to believe this through personal experience and watching others. Even if a person wanted to forget their past.” The essay demonstrates adequate mastery and receives a 4. Therefore each step is a mistake that you learned from. Score of 4: The point of making mistakes is to learn from them. The only way to stop the loss of life is to forget and forgive. has proved to me the importance of getting good grades and actively participating in extracorrecular activities. and my closest friends are all slowly building up the knowledge to be successful. far from perfect. and played tricks on my brothers. time to forget is very important. A quote once said. and mechanics. time to forget is very important). or even a stroke of luck. It’s like forgetting that if a stove is turned on and you touch it. I fall in the middle of these statements.

the patient might feel that they can kill the cancer again because when looking at the past they see they have beat it once why not beat it again. featuring some lapses in coherence and progression of ideas. and relinquish it. Every single happy moment. The essay demonstrates developing mastery and earns a 3. This minimal essay demonstrates very little mastery. On the other hand a memory can also help someone to move up the ladder of success. When a person completes a task they have done once before. I also think memories should not rule the present. This demonstrates how a memory can ruin a certain activity for ever. If you don’t live with making your own decisions. People do succed with repeating their memories. When the patient in remission is later told that the cancer has grown back. and the past is only guidelines. The essay demonstrates very little mastery and receives a 1. not rules. . the writer needs to develop the point of view with reasons and specific examples instead of merely repeating the same vague ideas (Everything you did and saw in the past helps you to move on. In this case it did not help the person climb the ladder of success though it helped the to continue climbing the ladder of life to the extent that they were able to climb. and sentence structure. you will always wait for other people to make decisions for you and won’t have your own point of view. but the world will change to overcome the past. See the past will never change with the world. . grammar. This essay develops a point of view (Memories can be helpful to some and hinder others) and shows some critical thinking by providing examples of the positive and negative effects of memories. it trigers a memory and lets the reader reflect on that particular time in life. when trying to succeed. To earn a higher score. The evidence presented is disorganized and unfocused. and relinquish it). repress it. Those two short examples just go to demonstrate how memories of the past can both help and hinder a person in their path of not only success but also in the path of life. Everything you did and saw in the past helps you to move on. the way we get along with people or treat them. This is why memories should be guidelines. For succeed you have to know what you want. and are thus inadequate to support the position. The essay demonstrates little mastery and is scored a 2. repress it. mistakes. If you get everything told you by someone. the examples are limited in focus. Though some memories may give on strength to suceed in achieving a higher status in life. Everything we do has to do with our experiences in the past. resulting in a disjointed essay. This demonstrates how a memory can be helpful to a person. exhibiting weak critical thinking. The essay also demonstrates frequent problems in usage. The Writing Section 35 . Your actions become habits which creates your personality and helps you to make your own experience. and your experience with people and the world or school you won’t have any examples to compare or to handle any coming situations in the future. this essay is seriously limited. If you repeat the past it won’t come out as well as it did because the world has changed. The essay also demonstrates occasional problems in sentence structure and mechanics.Score of 3: Memories can be helpful to some and hinder others. the next time they get to the state championships they may think about the past and how they lost before. a sporting team at the local high school makes it to the state championships. Score of 1: My oppion on this topic are oposing memories and favoring them. including specific examples. this writer needs to provide additional focused evidence that develops the point of view. To achieve a higher score. As an example if a person has cancer and is given treatment then diagnosed in remission they feel like they have beat the cancer. Score of 2: I think it is wrong to believe that to move up the ladder of success and achievement. when looking at the past they see they have beat it once why not beat it again). and serious problems with progression of ideas. this writer needs to use critical thinking to clarify and expand each example by adding additional focused reasoning and details. The writer also needs to avoid using run-on sentences (. Everything we do has to do with our experiences in the past). For example. If you let the past overcome the preset you won’t get any where. . To achieve a higher score. and the past is only guidelines). One memory may be bad and it may be best forgotten about. . every mistake you make is getting a part of you. They might have horrible memories but also succeed because they don’t repeat the past. the way we turn out to be an adult. that they must forget the past. offering only a collection of general ideas in support of the writer’s point of view (don’t forget the past or live in it. Therefore memories help people in their effort to learn from the past and succeed in the present. I believe that memories from different aspects of ones life have different consequences. insufficient use of evidence. but severly loses to their opponent. that they must forget the past. you have to have been through some difficult situations in the PAST. and it may hinder there feelings and they may once again lose. However. . Although it expresses a point of view (I think it is wrong to believe that to move up the ladder of success and achievement. So in conclusion don’t forget the past or live in it. to find that out.

demonstrates competent critical thinking. but sometimes uses weak vocabulary or inappropriate word choice • lacks variety or demonstrates problems in sentence structure • contains an accumulation of errors in grammar. and mechanics. usage. The SAT essay neither rewards nor penalizes formulaic approaches to writing. or mechanics that persistently interfere with meaning Essays not written on the essay assignment will receive a score of zero. using very limited vocabulary or incorrect word choice • demonstrates frequent problems in sentence structure • contains errors in grammar. appropriate choices of evidence. and apt vocabulary • demonstrates meaningful variety in sentence structure • is free of most errors in grammar. effective organization. using adequate examples. a piece of writing is considered as a total work. reasons. A student can get a top score on the essay even with minor errors in grammar. a third reader resolves the discrepancy. A typical essay • effectively develops a point of view on the • develops a point of view on the issue and issue and demonstrates strong critical thinking. Readers are trained to recognize and reward a wide variety of essays at each score point. In scoring the essays. If the two readers’ scores are more than one point apart. or language arts courses. demonstrating some coherence and progression of ideas • exhibits adequate but inconsistent facility in the use of language. and precise use of language will receive a high score. and other evidence to support its position • is well organized and clearly focused. and mechanics • is generally organized and focused. including critical thinking. and is marked by ONE OR MORE of the following weaknesses: • develops a point of view on the issue. A typical essay SCORE OF 4 An essay in this category demonstrates adequate mastery. and mechanics SCORE OF 5 An essay in this category demonstrates reasonably consistent mastery. resulting in a demonstrates serious problems with coherence disjointed or incoherent essay or progression of ideas • displays very little facility in the use of language. using clearly appropriate examples. Essays are scored by experienced high school teachers and college faculty members. reasons. readers follow the scoring guide below. and is severely flawed by ONE OR MORE of the following weaknesses: • develops no viable point of view on the issue. The combined score for both readers will range from 2 to 12. The majority of essay readers teach English. development. and mechanics SCORE OF 2 An essay in this category demonstrates little mastery. or may demonstrate some lapses in coherence or progression of ideas • displays developing facility in the use of language. A typical essay • effectively and insightfully develops a point of view on the issue and demonstrates outstanding critical thinking. using appropriate vocabulary • demonstrates variety in sentence structure • is generally free of most errors in grammar. or provides little or no evidence to support its position • is poorly organized and/or focused. using a holistic approach. usage. ample development of ideas. Any essay that features clear lines of reasoning. generally using appropriate examples. usage. although it will have lapses in quality. usage. composition. organization. reasons. although it will have occasional errors or lapses in quality. and mechanics so serious that meaning is somewhat obscured • displays fundamental errors in vocabulary • demonstrates severe flaws in sentence structure • contains pervasive errors in grammar. usage. The scoring guide describes the features typically found in essays at each score point. and mechanics SCORE OF 3 An essay in this category demonstrates developing mastery. There is no formula for effective writing. demonstrating some critical thinking. and other and other evidence to support its position evidence to support its position • is well organized and focused. providing inappropriate or insufficient examples. or other evidence to support its position SCORE OF 1 An essay in this category demonstrates very little or no mastery. although it may have a few minor errors. or other evidence to support its position • is limited in its organization or focus. with 6 being the highest score. reasons. and sentence structure. usage. using a varied.Scoring the Essay Essays are scored in a manner that is fair and consistent. Each essay is scored independently by two readers on a scale of 1 to 6. SCORING GUIDE SCORE OF 6 An essay in this category demonstrates clear and consistent mastery. regardless of style or approach. no single best way to communicate an idea. language use. such as the five-paragraph essay. demonstrating coherence and progression of ideas • exhibits facility in the use of language. reasons. In holistic scoring. and is flawed by ONE OR MORE of the following weaknesses: • develops a point of view on the issue that is vague or seriously limited. usage. but may do so inconsistently or use inadequate examples. the whole of which is greater than the sum of its parts. or • is disorganized or unfocused. demonstrating clear coherence and smooth progression of ideas • exhibits skillful use of language. and demonstrates weak critical thinking. 36 SAT Preparation Booklet . using generally appropriate vocabulary • demonstrates some variety in sentence structure • has some errors in grammar. accurate.

Official SAT Practice Test
About the Practice Test
Take the practice test, which starts on page 46, to reinforce your test-taking skills and to be more comfortable when you take the SAT. This practice test will give you a good idea of what to expect on the actual test. However, the test you eventually take will differ in some ways. It may, for example, contain a different number of reading passages, and its sections may be in a different order. Also, this practice SAT includes only nine of the ten subsections that the actual test contains. Section 4 is an unscored subsection and has been omitted on this test because it contains questions that may be used in future editions of the SAT. The practice test will help you most if you take it under conditions as close as possible to those of the actual test.

Finding Your Scores
To score your test, you can either enter your answers online at collegeboard.com/satpracticetest and have your test scored automatically, or you can score it yourself with the instructions on page 85. To score the test yourself, you’ll need to count the right and wrong answers for each section, and then convert your “raw” score to the College Board scale of 200 to 800. With either scoring method, you’ll need to choose a score for your essay. Use the Scoring Guide on page 36 to determine how your particular essay might be scored.

Reviewing Your Performance
After you score your practice test, review your performance to see where your strengths and weaknesses are. Ask yourself these questions:

Approaches to the Practice Test

Set aside 3 hours and 20 minutes of uninterrupted time. That way you can complete the entire test in one sitting. Note: the total testing time is 3 hours and 45 minutes, but you save 25 minutes because the unscored section from this practice test was omitted. Sit at a desk or table cleared of any other papers or books. You won’t be able to take a dictionary, books, notes, or scratch paper into the test room. Allow yourself the specified amount of time for each section. Pace yourself by using a watch (without an audible alarm), which is what you are allowed on test day. Have a calculator at hand when you take the mathematics sections. This will help you determine how much to use a calculator the day of the test. Use a calculator with which you are familiar. Read the test instructions carefully. They are reprinted from the back cover of the test book. On test day, you will be asked to read them before you begin answering questions. Make sure you use a No. 2 pencil. It is very important that you fill in the entire circle on the answer sheet darkly and completely. If you change your response, erase it as completely as possible. It is very important that you follow these instructions when filling out your answer sheet. After you finish the test, read page 85 for instructions on how to find your score. If you have access to the Internet, visit collegeboard.com/satpracticetest to review answer explanations or to see sample essays.

Did you run out of time before you finished a section? Try to pace yourself so you will have time to answer all the questions you can. Don’t spend too much time on any one question. Did you hurry and make careless mistakes? You may have misread the question, neglected to notice a word like “except” or “best,” or solved for the wrong value. Did you spend too much time reading directions? You should be familiar with the test directions so you don’t have to spend as much time reading them when you take the actual test.

Visit collegeboard.com/satpracticetest to view answer explanations for questions you answered incorrectly and to read sample scored essays.

The Official SAT Online Course
➢ Take this practice test online

➢ Receive an immediate essay score ➢ Practice with more tests and quizzes Visit: collegeboard.com/satonlinecourse

Official SAT Practice Test The Writing Section

37

Please note: The appearance of the answer sheet in this booklet may differ from the answer sheet you see on test day.

2008-09 SAT Reasoning Test
MARKS MUST BE COMPLETE COMPLETE MARK
A EXAMPLES OF INCOMPLETE MARKS A B B C C D D

TM

You must use a No. 2 pencil. Do not use a mechanical pencil. It is very important that you fill in the entire circle darkly and completely. If you change your response, erase as completely as possible. Incomplete marks or erasures may affect your score. It is very important that you follow these instructions when filling out your answer sheet.

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TEST FORM
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May 3 A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 Jun Jul Aug Sep Oct Nov Dec

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71231-36390 • NS68E4700 • Printed in U.S.A. © 2008 The College Board. All rights reserved. College Board, SAT, and the acorn logo are registered trademarks of the College Board. SAT Reasoning Test is a trademark owned by the College Board. 178581-001:654321 ISD7318

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PLEASE DO NOT WRITE IN THIS AREA

SERIAL #
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SAT Preparation Booklet

SECTION

I prefer NOT to grant the College Board the right to use, reproduce, or publish my essay for any purpose beyond the assessment of my writing skills, even though my name will not be used in any way in conjunction with my essay. I understand that I am free to mark this circle with no effect on my score. IMPORTANT: USE A NO. 2 PENCIL. DO NOT WRITE OUTSIDE THE BORDER! Words written outside the essay box or written in ink WILL NOT APPEAR in the copy sent to be scored, and your score will be affected.

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Begin your essay on this page. If you need more space, continue on the next page.

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Continue on the next page, if necessary.

Official SAT Practice Test

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Continuation of ESSAY Section 1 from previous page. Write below only if you need more space. IMPORTANT: DO NOT START on this page—if you do, your essay may appear blank and your score may be affected.

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SAT Preparation Booklet

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 . 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 14 ⁄ . 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 . 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 .COMPLETE MARK A EXAMPLES OF INCOMPLETE MARKS A B B C C D D You must use a No. . . 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 . 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 . 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 . 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 . 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 . 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 . 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 . 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 Assurance Mark ⁄ . 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 . 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 SECT. 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 ⁄ . 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 . 2 OR 3 ONLY . 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 . 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 . erase as completely as possible. YOU WILL NOT RECEIVE Quality CREDIT FOR ANYTHING WRITTEN IN THE BOXES. . If you change your response. 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 ⁄ . 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 . Incomplete marks or erasures may affect your score. 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 12 ⁄ ⁄ . SECTION 2 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 A A A A A A A A A A B B B B B B B B B B C C C C C C C C C C D D D D D D D D D D E E E E E E E E E E 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 A A A A A A A A A A B B B B B B B B B B C C C C C C C C C C D D D D D D D D D D E E E E E E E E E E 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 A A A A A A A A A A B B B B B B B B B B C C C C C C C C C C D D D D D D D D D D E E E E E E E E E E 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 A A A A A A A A A A B B B B B B B B B B C C C C C C C C C C D D D D D D D D D D E E E E E E E E E E A A A A A A A A A A B B B B B B B B B B C C C C C C C C C C D D D D D D D D D D E E E E E E E E E E A A A A A A A A A A B B B B B B B B B B C C C C C C C C C C D D D D D D D D D D E E E E E E E E E E A A A A A A A A A A B B B B B B B B B B C C C C C C C C C C D D D D D D D D D D E E E E E E E E E E A A A A A A A A A A B B B B B B B B B B C C C C C C C C C C D D D D D D D D D D E E E E E E E E E E SECTION 3 CAUTION Grid answers in the section below for SECTION 2 or SECTION 3 only if directed to do so in your test book. Do not use a mechanical pencil. 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 . 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 18 ⁄ ⁄ . 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 ⁄ . 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 17 ⁄ ⁄ . 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 Page 4 Official SAT Practice Test 41 . Student-Produced Responses 9 ⁄ ⁄ . 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 ⁄ . 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 11 ⁄ . 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 . ONLY ANSWERS THAT ARE GRIDDED WILL BE SCORED. 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 . 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 . 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 . 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 . It is very important that you fill in the entire circle darkly and completely. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 . 2 pencil and marks must be complete. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 15 ⁄ . 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 16 ⁄ ⁄ . 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 13 ⁄ ⁄ .

0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 . 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 . S ed no sectio s been omitt a test. 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 11 ⁄ . 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 . 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 . 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 17 ⁄ ⁄ . 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 ⁄ . 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 ⁄ . 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 . 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 ⁄ . 4 OR 5 ONLY . 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 . 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 16 ⁄ ⁄ . erase as completely as possible. 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 18 ⁄ ⁄ . 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 Page 5 42 SAT Preparation Booklet . 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 SECT.COMPLETE MARK EXAMPLES OF INCOMPLETE MARKS A A B B C C D D You must use a No. 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 . 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 . ONLY ANSWERS THAT ARE GRIDDED WILL BE SCORED. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 . 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 ⁄ . 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 . 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 13 ⁄ ⁄ . 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 . h A A A A A A A A B B B B B B B B A A A A A A A A B B B B B B B B C C C C C C C C D D D D D D D D E E E E E E E E 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 A A B B 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 A A B B C C D D E E 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 A A A A A A A A A A B B B B B B B B B B C C C C C C C C C C D D D D D D D D D D E E E E E E E E E E 1 2 3 SECTION 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 A A A A A A A A A A B B B B B B B B B B C C C C C C C C C C D D D D D D D D D D E E E E E E E E E E A A A A A A A A A A B B B B B B B B B B C C C C C C C C C C D D D D D D D D D D E E E E E E E E E E A A A A A A A A A A B B B B B B B B B B C C C C C C C C C C D D D D D D D D D D E E E E E E E E E E A A A A A A A A A A B B B B B B B B B B C C C C C C C C C C D D D D D D D D D D E E E E E E E E E E 5 CAUTION Grid answers in the section below for SECTION 4 or SECTION 5 only if directed to do so in your test book. If you change your response. 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 ⁄ . th ection f this pract . Do not use a mechanical pencil. . 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 . It is very important that you fill in the entire circle darkly and completely. 2 pencil and marks must be complete. 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 . . Student-Produced Responses Quality Assurance Mark 9 ⁄ ⁄ . 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 15 ⁄ . 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 . 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 . . 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 . 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 . 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 . 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 . 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 14 ⁄ . 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 . Incomplete marks or erasures may affect your score. 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 . 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 12 ⁄ ⁄ . YOU WILL NOT RECEIVE CREDIT FOR ANYTHING WRITTEN IN THE BOXES. 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 . C C C C C C C C C C D D D D D D D D D D E E E E E E E E E E 1 2 3 SECTION 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 A A A A A A A A A A B B B B B B B B B B C C C C C C C C C C D D D D D D D D D D E E E E E E E E E E 4 ting e equa ice 4.

It is very important that you fill in the entire circle darkly and completely. 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 SECT. 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 16 ⁄ ⁄ . 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 . . 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 ⁄ . 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 ⁄ . 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 12 ⁄ ⁄ . 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 . YOU WILL NOT RECEIVE CREDIT FOR ANYTHING WRITTEN IN THE BOXES. If you change your response. erase as completely as possible. 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 11 ⁄ . 6 OR 7 ONLY . 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 . 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 17 ⁄ ⁄ . . SECTION 6 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 A A A A A A A A A A B B B B B B B B B B C C C C C C C C C C D D D D D D D D D D E E E E E E E E E E 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 A A A A A A A A A A B B B B B B B B B B C C C C C C C C C C D D D D D D D D D D E E E E E E E E E E 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 A A A A A A A A A A B B B B B B B B B B C C C C C C C C C C D D D D D D D D D D E E E E E E E E E E 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 A A A A A A A A A A B B B B B B B B B B C C C C C C C C C C D D D D D D D D D D E E E E E E E E E E SECTION 7 CAUTION 1 A B C D E 11 A B C D E 21 A B C D E 31 A B C D E 2 A B C D E 12 A B C D E 22 A B C D E 32 A B C D E 3 A B C D E 13 A B C D E 23 A B C D E 33 A B C D E 4 A B C D E 14 A B C D E 24 A B C D E 34 A B C D E 5 A B C D E 15 A B C D E 25 A B C D E 35 A B C D E 6 A B C D E 16 A B C D E 26 A B C D E 36 A B C D E 7 A B C D E 17 A B C D E 27 A B C D E 37 A B C D E 8 A B C D E 18 A B C D E 28 A B C D E 38 A B C D E 9 A B C D E 19 A B C D E 29 A B C D E 39 A B C D E 10 A B C D E 20 A B C D E 30 A B C D E 40 A B C D E Grid answers in the section below for SECTION 6 or SECTION 7 only if directed to do so in your test book. 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 . Quality Student-Produced Responses 9 ⁄ ⁄ . 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 18 ⁄ ⁄ . 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 15 ⁄ . 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 . 2 pencil and marks must be complete. 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 Page 6 8 9 PLEASE DO NOT WRITE IN THIS AREA SERIAL # Official SAT Practice Test 43 . 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 . Incomplete marks or erasures may affect your score. 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 . 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 . 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 Assurance Mark ⁄ . 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 . 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 .COMPLETE MARK A EXAMPLES OF INCOMPLETE MARKS A B B C C D D You must use a No. 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 ⁄ . 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 . 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 . 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 14 ⁄ . ONLY ANSWERS THAT ARE GRIDDED WILL BE SCORED. 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 ⁄ . 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 . 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 . . Do not use a mechanical pencil. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 . 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 . 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 . 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 . 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 . 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 . 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 . 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 13 ⁄ ⁄ . 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 .

erase as completely as possible. 1 2 3 SECTION 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 A A A A A A A A A A B B B B B B B B B B C C C C C C C C C C D D D D D D D D D D E E E E E E E E E E 8 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 A A A A A A A A A A B B B B B B B B B B C C C C C C C C C C D D D D D D D D D D E E E E E E E E E E 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 A A A A A A A A A A B B B B B B B B B B C C C C C C C C C C D D D D D D D D D D E E E E E E E E E E 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 A A A A A A A A A A B B B B B B B B B B C C C C C C C C C C D D D D D D D D D D E E E E E E E E E E 1 2 3 SECTION 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 A A A A A A A A A A B B B B B B B B B B C C C C C C C C C C D D D D D D D D D D E E E E E E E E E E 9 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 A A A A A A A A A A B B B B B B B B B B C C C C C C C C C C D D D D D D D D D D E E E E E E E E E E 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 A A A A A A A A A A B B B B B B B B B B C C C C C C C C C C D D D D D D D D D D E E E E E E E E E E 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 A A A A A A A A A A B B B B B B B B B B C C C C C C C C C C D D D D D D D D D D E E E E E E E E E E Quality Assurance Mark 1 2 3 SECTION 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 A A A A A A A A A A B B B B B B B B B B C C C C C C C C C C D D D D D D D D D D E E E E E E E E E E 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 A A A A A A A A A A B B B B B B B B B B C C C C C C C C C C D D D D D D D D D D E E E E E E E E E E 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 A A A A A A A A A A B B B B B B B B B B C C C C C C C C C C D D D D D D D D D D E E E E E E E E E E 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 A A A A A A A A A A B B B B B B B B B B C C C C C C C C C C D D D D D D D D D D E E E E E E E E E E Page 7 44 SAT Preparation Booklet . Incomplete marks or erasures may affect your score. It is very important that you fill in the entire circle darkly and completely. If you change your response. 2 pencil and marks must be complete. Do not use a mechanical pencil.COMPLETE MARK EXAMPLES OF INCOMPLETE MARKS A A B B C C D D You must use a No.

text messages. Signature Date By registering. I hereby agree to the conditions set forth online at www. but not limited to: email.collegeboard. Doing so can result in score cancellation and other possible sanctions. SPECIAL QUESTIONS 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 A A A A A A A A B B B B B B B B C C C C C C C C D D D D D D D D E E E E E E E E F F F F F F F F G G G G G G G G H H H H H H H H I I I I I I I I J J J J J J J J Page 8 PLEASE DO NOT WRITE IN THIS AREA SERIAL # Official SAT Practice Test 45 . or use of the Internet. including.com and/or in the SAT ® Registration Booklet and certify that I am the person whose name and address appear on this answer sheet. you agreed not to share any specific test questions or essay topics with anyone by any form of communication.CERTIFICATION STATEMENT Copy the statement below (do not print) and sign your name as you would an official document.

Remember that people who are not familiar with your handwriting will read what you write. take care to develop your point of view. They assume that honesty requires one to express every inclination and impulse. Nowadays nothing is private: our culture has become too confessional and self-expressive. If your essay does not reflect your original and individual work. Important Reminders: A pencil is required for the essay. Think carefully about the issue presented in the following excerpt and the assignment below. You will have enough space if you write on every line. David Velleman. Do not write your essay in your test book.ESSAY Time — 25 minutes Turn to page 2 of your answer sheet to write your ESSAY. You have twenty-five minutes to write an essay on the topic assigned below. avoid wide margins. Your essay must be written on the lines provided on your answer sheet— you will receive no other paper on which to write. An essay written in ink will receive a score of zero. The essay gives you an opportunity to show how effectively you can develop and express ideas. If you finish before time is called. Support your position with reasoning and examples taken from your reading. 46 SAT Preparation Booklet . Adapted from J. or observations. “The Genesis of Shame” Assignment: Should people make more of an effort to keep some things private? Plan and write an essay in which you develop your point of view on this issue. and keep your handwriting to a reasonable size. your test scores may be canceled. you may check your work on this section only. BEGIN WRITING YOUR ESSAY ON PAGE 2 OF THE ANSWER SHEET. You will receive credit only for what you write on your answer sheet. therefore. People think that to hide one’s thoughts or feelings is to pretend not to have those thoughts or feelings. and use language precisely. An off-topic essay will receive a score of zero. experience. studies. You should. Try to write or print so that what you are writing is legible to those readers. present your ideas logically and clearly. Do not turn to any other section in the test.

solve each problem and decide which is the best of the choices given. What is that number? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) 4 2 0 2 4 Official SAT Practice Test 47 . The result when a number is divided by 2 is equal to the result when that same number is divided by 4. what is the value of 2x ? 2. Directions: For this section. Fill in the corresponding circle on the answer sheet. 1. You may use any available space for scratch work. If 10 (A) 5 (B) 5 (C) 10 (D) 25 (E) 50 x is 5 more than 10.SECTION 2 Time — 25 minutes 20 Questions Turn to Section 2 (page 4) of your answer sheet to answer the questions in this section.

If David spends $450 per month for food.x y 2 0 1 2 3. Which of the following equations is satisfied by the five pairs of numbers listed in the table above? (A) y (B) y (C) y (D) y (E) y x 3 3 3 6 6 7 (A) (B) (C) 3x 3x x x 2 2 (D) (E) 6. what is the value of x ? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) 15 20 25 40 65 (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) $200 $320 $360 $400 $450 48 SAT Preparation Booklet . how much does he spend per month on his car? 4. The circle graph above shows how David’s monthly expenses are divided. as shown. In the figure above. If this page was folded along the dotted line in the figure above. CANNOT be folded along a vertical line so that its left half would coincide with its right half? 3 3 6 9 15 4 5. Which of the following letters. lines and k intersect at point Q. If m 40 and p 25. the left half of the letter W would exactly coincide with the right half of W.

If t is a number greater than 1. what is the probability that 5n + 3 ≤ 14 ? (A) (B) 0 1 10 1 5 3 10 2 5 8. what is 11.000 30. then 2 f ( x ) (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) 5x 5x 6x 6x 6x 4 8 4 8 12 4 (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) 1 2 t t (t − 1) (t − 1) (t + 1) 14.74) (E) 41 (approximately 6.000 45. Garcia and Pérez.000 votes were cast for 2 opposing candidates.000 75.7.000 (D) 3 (E) 4 12. In a certain store. then t is how much greater than t ? 2 9. If a positive integer n is picked at random from the positive integers less than or equal to 10.39) (D) 33 (approximately 5. If Garcia won by a ratio of 5 to 3. The height of a right circular cylinder is 5 and the diameter of its base is 4. What is the greatest possible area of a triangle with one side of length 7 and another side of length 10 ? (A) 17 (B) 34 (C) 35 (D) 70 (E) 140 (A) 3 (B) 5 (C) 29 (approximately 5.40) Official SAT Practice Test 49 . what was the number of votes cast for Pérez? 1 (A) 4 (B) (C) 1 3 1 2 (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) 15. If the function f is defined by f ( x) 3x 4. If n and k are positive integers and 8n n the value of ? k 2k . the regular price of a refrigerator is $600. A total of 120. What is the distance from the center of one base to a point on the circumference of the other base? 10.000 80. How much money is saved by buying this refrigerator at 20 percent off the regular price rather than buying it on sale at 10 percent off the regular price with an additional discount of 10 percent off the sale price? (C) (D) (E) (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) $6 $12 $24 $54 $60 13.

15. the building at X is an m-distance of 2. X. Y. and III 16. and the 1 building at Y is an m-distance of from the 2 firehouse. 4 (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) I only II only I and II only II and III only I. II. and Z represent the locations of some other buildings. 17. If p and n are integers such that p n 0 and p 2 n2 12. F marks the corner where a firehouse is located. All of the buildings in the town that are an m-distance of 3 from the firehouse must lie on a The grid above represents equally spaced streets in a town that has no one-way streets. 2 III. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) circle square right isosceles triangle pair of intersecting lines line 50 SAT Preparation Booklet . What is the m-distance of the building at W from the firehouse? (A) 2 (B) 2 (C) 3 1 2 1 (E) 4 2 (D) 3 1 2 Questions 16-18 refer to the following figure and information. Points W. 1 II. For example. The fire company defines a building’s m-distance as the minimum number of blocks that a fire truck must travel from the firehouse to reach the building. which of the following can be the value of p n ? I. What is the total number of different routes that a fire truck can travel the m-distance from F to Z ? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) Six Five Four Three Two 18.

If x and y are positive integers. Official SAT Practice Test 51 . you may check your work on this section only. If j . k . and n are consecutive integers such that 0 j k n and the units (ones) digit of the product jn is 9. which of the following is equivalent to 2 x 3y 2x y ? (A) 2x y 2y 20. Do not turn to any other section in the test. what is the units digit of k ? (B) 2 (C) (D) (E) x y y y 3 x 2x 4x y 2x y 2y 2x 2x 2x 1 (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) 0 1 2 3 4 1 3 1 STOP If you finish before time is called.19.

. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) enforce . (A) rebellious (B) impulsive (C) artistic (D) industrious (E) tyrannical 5.the dispute. select the best answer from among the choices given and fill in the corresponding circle on the answer sheet. One of the characters in Milton Murayama’s novel is considered ------. dislodge blended .to both labor and management. Directions: For each question in this section.Time — 25 minutes 24 Questions SECTION 3 Turn to Section 3 (page 4) of your answer sheet to answer the questions in this section. when inserted in the sentence. . Example: Hoping to ------. Nightjars possess a camouflage perhaps unparalleled in the bird world: by day they roost hidden in shady woods. Many private universities depend heavily on -------. . (A) circumscribed (C) embellished (E) cultivated (B) bolstered (D) insinuated 52 SAT Preparation Booklet . best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole. . . Each sentence below has one or two blanks. a method of ------. classify 4. acceptable 3. .because he deliberately defies an oppressive hierarchical society. satisfactory resolve . divisive overcome . useful end . . . . . the wealthy individuals who support them with gifts and bequests. The range of colors that homeowners could use on the exterior of their houses was ------. Many economists believe that since resources are scarce and since human desires cannot all be -------.by the community’s stringent rules regarding upkeep of property. . (A) instructors (B) administrators (C) monitors (D) accountants (E) benefactors 2. advertising 1. discern harmonized . interrupt impatient . negotiators proposed a compromise that they felt would be ------. unattractive extend .is needed. distinguish integrated . so ------. . (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) vexed . . (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) indulged . reparation anticipated . Beneath the sentence are five words or sets of words labeled A through E. apportionment verified . . Choose the word or set of words that. each blank indicating that something has been omitted. expropriation expressed . .with their surroundings that they are nearly impossible to -------. distribution usurped .

” In a perverse tribute to the power of the online revolution.” With regard to a seemingly similar problem. Unlike the author of Passage 1. Not necessarily so. What would be the most likely reaction by the author of Passage 1 to the argument cited in lines 16-21 of Passage 2 (“Nothing . “We therefore categori20 cally reject the argument that a vendor has a right to send unwanted material into the home of another. get-rich-quick schemes. To find your real e-mail. questions following a pair of related passages may also be based on the relationship between the paired passages.The passages below are followed by questions based on their content. Passage 1 I know what your e-mail in-box looks like. the author of Passage 2 (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) criticizes a practice offers an example proposes a solution states an opinion quotes an expert Official SAT Practice Test 53 . The primary purpose of Passage 2 is to (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) confirm a widely held belief discuss the inadequacies of a ruling defend a controversial technology analyze a widespread social problem lay the foundation for a course of action 8. etc. The primary purpose of Passage 1 is to (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) make a comparison dispute a hypothesis settle a controversy justify a distinction highlight a concern 7.” Passage 2 Many people who hate spam assume that it is protected as free speech. why not extend the act to include 25 unsolicited bulk e-mail? 6. and it isn’t pretty: a babble of come-ons and lies from hucksters and con artists. Answer the questions on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passages and in any introductory material that may be provided. “Nothing in the Constitution compels us to listen to or view any unwanted communication. the Telephone Consumer Protection Act of 1991 made it illegal in the United States to send unsolicited faxes. . “It’s becoming 10 a major systems and engineering and network problem. . The United States 15 Supreme Court has previously ruled that individuals may preserve a threshold of privacy. another”) ? (A) Surprise at the assumption that freedom of speech is indispensable to democracy (B) Dismay at the Supreme Court’s vigorous defense of vendors’ rights (C) Hope that the same reasoning would be applied to all unsolicited e-mail (D) Concern for the plight of mass marketers facing substantial economic losses (E) Appreciation for the political complexity of the debate about spam 9.” says one e-mail expert. Questions 6-9 are based on the following passages. “Spammers are gaining control of the Internet. whatever its merit. we are all suddenly getting the same mail: easy weight loss. The crush of these messages is now numbered in billions per day.” wrote Chief Justice Warren Burger in a 1970 decision. you must wade Line through the torrent of fraud and obscenity known politely 5 as “unsolicited bulk e-mail” and colloquially as “spam.

There was simply the sense that she found wings and meant to use them. Miss Honeychurch has recently returned from a journey with her older cousin and chaperone. .” Cecil said stiffly. suggests that Lucy will (A) ultimately become a famous and respected musician (B) eventually play music in a less disciplined fashion (C) one day begin to live with great passion (D) soon regret an impetuous decision (E) someday marry a man who will be the cause of her undoing 30 35 40 45 54 SAT Preparation Booklet . “I fear that Lucy’s choice does not meet with 60 your approval. She wasn’t wonderful in Florence either. He cursed his love of metaphor. Cecil. Then we shall have her heroically good. . perhaps. Miss Bartlett holding the string. I’m only thinking of my pet theory about Miss Honeychurch. Mr. quietly”) primarily in order to (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) raise an urgent concern anticipate a possible objection challenge a widely accepted theory note an apparent inconsistency criticize a popular pastime 20 25 12. You ought to have 50 stopped me. Line 5 “I am sorry. Mr. Beebe’s statement. when he viewed things artistically. who naturally preferred congratulations to apologies.” “It has broken now.” The sketch was in his diary. and they were pacing up and down the terrace. . “that she is going to marry me. yes. Lucy Honeychurch. and at Florence. Was this the reaction his action would get from the whole 55 world? Of course. Does it seem reasonable that she should play piano so wonderfully. ludicrous. with grave sincerity. a clergyman. but I kept on expecting that she would be. Mr. The water-tight compartments in her will break down. he despised the world as a whole. or I should never have talked in this flippant. I must say I’ve only seen her at Tunbridge Wells. superficial way. Cecil’s remark in line 1 (“Lucy . Miss Bartlett. but I should certainly have heard Miss Bartlett fall. bad” (lines 9-11). where she was not wonderful.” And down in the garden he saw Lucy herself. drew down the corner of his mouth.” “At present?” “I’m not cynical. every thoughtful man should. I had no idea you were intimate with her. Picture number two: the string breaks.” The clergyman was conscious of some bitter disappointment which he could not keep out of his voice.” “In what way?” Conversation had become agreeable to them. heroically bad —too heroic. Miss Honeychurch as a kite. .” said Cecil. contemptible ways of announcing an engagement this was the worst. and live so quietly? I suspect that someday she shall be wonderful in both. faults”) is made in a tone of (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) great conviction studied neutrality playful irony genuine surprise weary cynicism 10 15 11. “I quite agree. he was disappointed. At the time he had given surreptitious tugs to the string himself. . I mightn’t have seen Miss Honeychurch rise. to be good or bad. it is almost a test of refinement. vibrating tones.” said the young man in low. but it had been made afterwards. At present she has none.” 10. Immediately he realized that of all the conceited. is speaking with Cecil Vyse about a mutual acquaintance.” Cecil found his companion interesting. “Lucy Honeychurch has no faults. Beebe asks the question in lines 6-7 (“Does . “And at present you think her not wonderful as far as life goes?” “Well. Beebe. “I’m sorry I have given you a shock. “The water-tight . had he suggested that he was a star and that Lucy was soaring up to reach him? “Broken? What do you mean?” “I meant.Questions 10-16 are based on the following passage.” he said dryly. “I could as easily tell you what tune she’ll play next. “But the string never broke?” “No. and music and life will mingle. . I can show you a beautiful picture in my diary. I must apologize. The following passage is adapted from a novel set in the early twentieth century.

“sense” most nearly means (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) definition intelligence plausibility consensus impression 15. Beebe will (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) detect the lack of originality in his thinking consider him to be vain tell Lucy of his inappropriate remark distrust him as a confidant attempt to block his engagement to Lucy Official SAT Practice Test 55 . Ultimately. now”) as (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) singularly poetic particularly memorable embarrassingly inapt excessively critical regrettably underhanded 14. “Picture number two” (line 27) represents (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) a misleading occurrence a dangerous gamble an unlikely development an anticipated outcome an avoidable difficulty 16. . Cecil views his remark in line 34 (“It . .13. In line 24. . The question in lines 39-40 (“had . . For Mr. Beebe. him ”) suggests that Cecil fears that Mr.

17. But for more than half a century—even in the midst of some of the greatest scientific achievements in history—physicists have been quietly aware of a dark cloud looming on a distant horizon. the marriage of the laws of the large and the small is not only happy but inevitable. Superstring theory has the potential to show that all of the wondrous happenings in the universe—from the frantic dance of subatomic quarks to the stately waltz of orbiting binary stars—are reflections of one grand physical principle.Questions 17-24 are based on the following passage. According to the big bang theory. and all the way down to subatomic particles like electrons and quarks. Calling it a cover-up would be far too dramatic. According to superstring theory. begin to shake. an enormous mass is crushed to a minuscule size. superstring theory shows more: within this new framework. The equations of general relativity and quantum mechanics. clusters of galaxies. physicists have experimentally confirmed to almost unimaginable accuracy virtually all predictions made by each of these theories. rattle. but not both. with a furtive glance. These are realms that are tiny and yet incredibly massive. The answer is not hard to come by. The author’s use of italics in line 20 serves primarily to (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) draw attention to a commonly known hypothesis stress a speculative aspect of two theories support a difficult claim underscore a surprising point emphasize an area of agreement 45 56 SAT Preparation Booklet . The problem is this: There are two foundational pillars upon which modern physics rests. which provides a theoretical framework for understanding the universe on the smallest of scales: molecules. Put less figuratively. In fact. The other is quantum mechanics. Through years of research. requiring one set of laws when things are large and a different. answers with a resounding no. This means that they need use only quantum mechanics or only general relativity and can. and gush with steam like a decrepit automobile. If you have not heard previously about this ferocious antagonism. and beyond to the immense expanse of the universe itself. general relativity and quantum mechanics require one another for the theory to make sense. but it has been pretty close. But these same theoretical tools inexorably lead to another disturbing conclusion: As they are currently formulated. For 50 years this approach has not been quite as blissful as ignorance. one master equation. galaxies. therefore requiring that both quantum mechanics and general relativity simultaneously be brought to bear. atoms. The “dark cloud” mentioned in line 4 refers to an (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) atypical diagnosis unsupported hypothesis unknown threat evil influence important contradiction 25 30 18. physicists study things that are either small and light (like atoms and their constituents) or things that are huge and heavy (like stars and galaxies). But the universe can be extreme. you may be wondering why. Even if you are willing to keep the deep interior of a black hole and the beginning of the universe shrouded in mystery. In all but the most extreme situations. One is general relativity. you can’t help feeling that the hostility between quantum mechanics and general relativity cries out for a deeper level of understanding. Which pairing best represents the different models of the universe presented in lines 7-14 ? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) Big and little Old and new Complex and simple Verified and undocumented Theoretical and practical 35 40 19. well-posed physical questions elicit nonsensical answers from the unhappy amalgam of 50 Line 5 55 60 10 65 15 70 20 these two theories. The following passage is adapted from a book published in 1999. Intense research over the past decade by physicists and mathematicians around the world has revealed that this new approach to describing matter at its most fundamental level resolves the tension between general relativity and quantum mechanics. shrug off the barking admonition of the other. the whole of the universe erupted from a microscopic nugget whose size makes a grain of sand look colossal. The two theories underlying the tremendous progress of physics during the last hundred years—progress that has explained the expansion of the heavens and the fundamental structure of matter— are mutually incompatible. a young upstart compared with the venerable edifices of quantum mechanics and general relativity. Can it really be that the universe at its most fundamental level is divided. incompatible set when things are small? Superstring theory. when combined. In the central depths of a black hole. general relativity and quantum mechanics cannot both be right. which provides a theoretical framework for understanding the universe on the largest of scales: stars.

Official SAT Practice Test 57 .20. The author uses dance imagery in lines 71-72 in order to (A) suggest a similarity between the study of science and the study of dance (B) highlight the extremes found in the physical world (C) emphasize the different ways that binary stars move (D) illustrate the intricacy of the subatomic world of quarks (E) suggest the cohesive nature of both science and dance STOP If you finish before time is called. Those who hold the “conclusion” referred to in line 18 would most likely believe that the “marriage” (line 68) was an (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) inevitable result of their research unjustifiable elevation of their hypotheses inadvisable use of research funds unfortunate consequence impossible outcome 21. The author uses the “automobile” (lines 45-46) to represent equations that (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) demand a professional’s attention are intrinsically unreliable do not work together effectively can be easily adjusted if necessary are based on dated mathematics 23. would best refute the author’s assertion about the “young upstart” (line 57) ? (A) Evidence that certain kinds of particles in nature exceed the speed of light (B) Confirmation of conditions that existed in the earliest stages of the big bang (C) Speculation that the deep interior of a black hole is not as dense as scientists have believed (D) Mathematical formulas that link general relativity and quantum mechanics in the same realm (E) Proof that the laws governing the universe depend on the size of the system being studied 22. Do not turn to any other section in the test. Which of the following. The primary reason described for the usefulness of the theory mentioned in line 57 is its ability to (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) explain new phenomena replace the theory of general relativity reinforce the predictions of quantum mechanics indicate where other theories are inapplicable reconcile two seemingly contradictory theories 24. you may check your work on this section only. if available.

beneath each sentence are five ways of phrasing the underlined material. 2. Your selection should result in the most effective sentence—clear and precise. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) and also foster a sense of democracy as it also fosters a sense of democracy and would foster a sense of democracy also but also foster a sense of democracy and foster a sense of democracy also The following sentences test correctness and effectiveness of expression. Directions: For each question in this section. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) and she was sixty-five years old then when she was sixty-five at age sixty-five years old upon the reaching of sixty-five years at the time when she was sixty-five 1. In areas where deer roam freely. Since last September Patricia has been working at the convenience store down the road. (A) candid reviews of courses and instructors compiled by juniors and seniors (B) candid reviews of courses and instructors being compiled by juniors and seniors (C) and to compile candid reviews of courses and instructors by juniors and seniors (D) juniors and seniors have compiled candid reviews of courses and instructors (E) with juniors and seniors compiling candid reviews of courses and instructors 3. Choice A repeats the original phrasing. To help freshmen and sophomores in selecting their courses.Time — 25 minutes 35 Questions SECTION 5 Turn to Section 5 (page 5) of your answer sheet to answer the questions in this section. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) has been working works is working will be working worked 4. The landscape artist who designed New York City’s Central Park believed that providing scenic settings accessible to all would not only benefit the public’s physical and mental health and also foster a sense of democracy. select choice A. if not. follow the requirements of standard written English. without awkwardness or ambiguity. freely roamed by deer areas. select one of the other choices. and punctuation. the other four choices are different. In making your selection. residents must dress to protect themselves against deer ticks that might transmit diseases. choice of words. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) areas where deer roam freely areas roamed by deer freely areas. candid reviews of courses and instructors compiled by juniors and seniors. EXAMPLE: Laura Ingalls Wilder published her first book and she was sixty-five years old then. pay attention to grammar. Part of each sentence or the entire sentence is underlined. in which there are deer that roam freely areas which deer roam free 58 SAT Preparation Booklet . select the best answer from among the choices given and fill in the corresponding circle on the answer sheet. that is. If you think the original phrasing produces a better sentence than any of the alternatives. sentence construction.

subjects interrelated subjects. it let him explore monologue. and the power of imagination. being. “When will the paperback be out?” (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) the price of it typically hovers and typically it hovers at a price which typically hovers in that it typically hovers they typically hover 9. many consumers ask their book dealers. whereas they are interrelated different subjects when interrelated subjects that are different although being interrelated 8. the price of it typically hovers around $25. letting him explore monologue by letting him do exploration of 11. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) was imminent and could happen in the future could happen imminently in the future will be imminent and happening soon is an imminent thing might be imminent 7. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) monologue. The article featured the Sea Islands because many were known there to live much as their ancestors of a century ago had lived. and marriage are three different. to express strong emotions (E) believed in rebellion against social conventions. subjects.and nineteenth-century Romantic poets were believers in rebellion against social conventions. Americans should have realized that an energy crisis was imminent and could happen in the future. (A) were believers in rebellion against social conventions. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) different. Intimacy. they were there living of knowing that many people lived there 10. At the Constitutional Convention of 1787. express strong emotion (D) believed in rebellion against social conventions. however. A poetic form congenial to Robert Browning was the dramatic monologue. it let him explore a character’s mind without the simplifications demanded by stage productions. Many eighteenth. the proposal to replace the existing Articles of Confederation with a federal constitution were met with fierce opposition. which let him explore monologue that lets him explore monologue.5. strong emotions being expressed (C) who believed in rebellion against social conventions. express strong emotion (B) are believers in rebelling against social conventions. the expression of strong emotions Official SAT Practice Test 59 . love. if interrelated. different different subjects. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) many were known there to live they were known there for living many of the people there were known to live of the many people. express strong emotion. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) were met with having been met with it met met with met their 6. if interrelated. When for the first time the United States imported more oil than it exported. Given the cost of a hardcover book.

No error E were disappointed by legislators’ inability working B A together on key issues.The following sentences test your ability to recognize grammar and usage errors. and capable of B a top speed of only six miles per hour. most workers can barely B C pay for food and shelter. select choice E. The inflation rate in that country is so high that 18. select the one underlined part that must be changed to make the sentence correct. When Marie Curie shared the 1903 Nobel Prize for 12. EXAMPLE: 15. In choosing answers. No error C D E 13. No error D E C 16. America’s first roller coaster ride. Over the past two years. Storing bread in the refrigerator delays drying and the A growth of mold but increase the rate at which the B bread loses flavor . No sentence contains more than one error. No error E 14. Every spring in rural Vermont the sound of sap A even with adjusted wages. most voters The other delegates and him immediately A B C accepted the resolution drafted by the D neutral states. if there is one. According to last week’s survey. The error. apparel manufacturers have A dripping into galvanized metal buckets signal the C B beginning of the traditional season for gathering D maple syrup. No error D E 60 SAT Preparation Booklet . No error D E C 17. follow the requirements of standard written English. No error E 19. No error D E A 1884 at Coney Island. is underlined and lettered. Brooklyn. which opened in A Physics with two other scientists —her husband B Pierre Curie and Henri Becquerel—she had been C the first woman to win the prize. If the sentence is correct. Each sentence contains either a single error or no error at all. Those investors who sold stocks just before the D B A worked to meeting the revised federal standards C for the design of uniforms. No error D E B A stock market crashed in 1929 were either wise or C exceptional lucky. If the sentence contains an error.

No error D E 27. the Sears Tower. The Empire State Building. No error D E B A foundations in the hope to gain funds to build C D a tropical butterfly conservatory. The light emitted by high-intensity-discharge A involving interdependency rather than competition B among organisms differs dramatically from C most biologists . During the nineteenth century. No error D E 28. thereby C making driving at night safer. Lynn Margulis’s theory that evolution is a process 22. B they have to come across as a real person C on the stage. No error E 29. a phenomenon that has adversely B affected the region’s ecological balance. The museum is submitting proposals to several D D A is approximately five times what the company paid C B to purchase it. Most major air pollutants cannot be seen.20. although A be engaged by a Shakespearean character. The cost of safely disposing of the toxic chemicals A acquired renewed significance when both poets and B painters turned to the ancient myths for subject C matter. In order for the audience to believe in and Mississippi River no longer reach the coastal A wetlands. No error D E car headlights are very effective in activating A B the reflective paints of road markers. Most of the hypotheses that Kepler developed D D A B to explain physical forces were later rejected as C large amounts of them concentrated in cities A B are visible as smog. the 23. No error E 24. No error E 26. Most of the sediment and nutrients of the 25. C No error E 21. Greek mythology Canadian National Tower—each of these structures A was the tallest in the world at the time they were B C built. No error E Official SAT Practice Test 61 . No error C D E inconsistent to Newtonian theory.

Du Bois (C) century. B. B. the donation of one of his paintings to the Smithsonian Institution aroused new interest in the art of this American master. (12) If I were to try to identify the dominant theme of the painting. (6) You can even buy posters of his paintings! (7) One of his most famous works is a realistic painting by the name of “The Banjo Lesson. (3) But after his death. you can buy posters of his paintings. B. Tanner. in 1969. E. (D) People can even buy his paintings as a poster. Du Bois. E. Some parts of the passage need to be rewritten. (4) And so it remained. who was called “dean” of art by W. Questions 30-35 refer to the following passage. (C) Posters of his paintings had been sold. E. in 1969. 62 SAT Preparation Booklet . it was W. Read the passage and select the best answers for the questions that follow.” (8) It was inspired by a poem of Paul Laurence Dunbar. (E) One can even buy posters of his paintings. in 1969. (2) Acclaimed as an artist in the United States and Europe at the turn of the century. 1973. but even then. Tanner’s work was largely forgotten. Which is the best version of the underlined portion of sentence 4 (reproduced below) ? And so it remained. Some questions are about particular sentences or parts of sentences and ask you to improve sentence structure or word choice. remained. (B) Even ordinary people like us can buy posters of his paintings. each carefully crafted detail. (5) Now his works are on exhibit again. (10) The magnificence of his work can be seen with each subtle brush stroke. and even later. and even after that. follow the requirements of standard written English. the United States Postal Service issued a stamp honoring Henry Ossawa Tanner (1859-1937). Tanner was called the “dean” of art by W. 30. W. Which is the best version of the underlined part of sentence 2 (reproduced below) ? Acclaimed as an artist in the United States and Europe at the turn of the century. (1) On September 10. Tanner was called the “dean” of art by W. which is the best revision of sentence 6 (reproduced below) ? You can even buy posters of his paintings! (A) It is amazing. Other questions ask you to consider organization and development. in 1969. B. (A) (as it is now) (B) century. E. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) (as it is now) remained. Du Bois calling Tanner the “dean” of art (E) century. In context. remained until 1969. B.Directions: The following passage is an early draft of an essay. In choosing answers. Du Bois who called Tanner the “dean” of art 31. and even later. I would have to say that it is family cohesiveness because the entire scene seems to emphasize the bond between the boy and his grandfather. the donation of one of his paintings to the Smithsonian Institution aroused new interest in the art of this American master. when remained when in 1969 32. one of four stamps in the American Arts series. Tanner was called the “dean” of art by W. E. Du Bois (D) century. (9) The painting isn’t like a photograph. (11) The effect is truly beautiful. E. B. Du Bois.

(D) Banjos came to the United States from West Africa. STOP If you finish before time is called. (C) In the painting. In context. (B) Change “a realistic painting by the name of” to “the realistic painting”. which is the best way to revise sentence 7 (reproduced below) ? One of his most famous works is a realistic painting by the name of “The Banjo Lesson.33. (A) The painting shows a man teaching his grandson how to play the banjo. Some people just copy what they see. Do not turn to any other section in the test. but Photographs have a beauty of their own. you may check your work on this section only. a bright light sets off the man and boy. Which sentence is best inserted after sentence 7 ? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) Although it is realistic. Official SAT Practice Test 63 . 34.” to the beginning of the sentence. (E) Portraits by Tanner show a psychological depth and compassion. but As a lifelike work.” 35. (C) Delete the words “of his most famous works”. (D) Change “is” to “had been”. You can almost hear the music. (B) He finished “The Banjo Lesson” in 1893. Which is best to add to the beginning of sentence 9 ? (A) Add “In contrast. (E) Delete “most famous”.

and the average of w and x is 15. You may use any available space for scratch work.SECTION 6 Time — 25 minutes 18 Questions Turn to Section 6 (page 6) of your answer sheet to answer the questions in this section.5 30 60 2. 4. x. solve each problem and decide which is the best of the choices given.5 15 22. Directions: This section contains two types of questions. In the sequence above. 11. Fill in the corresponding circle on the answer sheet. The average (arithmetic mean) of t and y is 15. . the first term is 4 and each term after the first is 7 more than the previous term. . What is the average of t. For questions 1-8. You have 25 minutes to complete both types. . w. If x (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) 2 9 7 2 5 9 2 49. and y ? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) 7. 18. What is the 12th term of the sequence? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) 77 81 84 86 92 3. 1. then x could be 64 SAT Preparation Booklet .

If Walt can swim. then he is not Kay’s brother. and w 50. If r 90. In the figure above. s 50. then he cannot swim. and EF intersect at P. If AB AO. then he is Kay’s brother. 7. t 60. what is the value of x ? 5. If Dave can swim.All of Kay’s brothers can swim. AB. 6. If Mark is not Kay’s brother. what is the degree measure of ABO ? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) 15° 30° 45° 60° 90° (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) 45 50 65 75 It cannot be determined from the information given. u 45. Each of the following is equivalent to a bc + k b EXCEPT (A) a c + k b k b 8. which of the following must also be true? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) If Fred cannot swim. CD. In the figure above. Based on the portions of the graphs of the functions f and g shown above. then he is not Kay’s brother. 4. then he cannot swim. triangle ABC is inscribed in the circle with center O and diameter AC. what are all values of x between 6 and 6 for which g x f x ? (B) a c + (C) a k + bc b ak b (D) ac + (E) abc + ak b (A) 6 x 3 only (B) 3 x 0 only (C) 0 x 3 only (D) 3 x 6 only (E) 6 x 3 and 0 x 3 Official SAT Practice Test 65 . If Pete is Kay’s brother. If the statement above is true.

What is the number? 66 SAT Preparation Booklet . She bought 4 subscriptions that have 12 issues per year. how many magazines will her office receive from these subscriptions? 10. Dr. When her son’s class held its magazine drive. Three more than twice a number is equal to 4. and 1 subscription that has 52 issues per year.9. Altogether. 2 subscriptions that have 4 issues per year. Nelson bought 7 one-year magazine subscriptions for the waiting room in her office.

The table above shows the total number of copies of Book B that were sold by the end of each of the first 5 weeks of its publication. how many contain both a cup and a plate? 18. or both a cup and a plate. How many copies of the book were sold during the 3rd week of its publication? 12. The area of 2 PS . In the system of equations above. What is the product of the smallest prime number that is greater than 50 and the greatest prime number that is less than 50 ? 14. what is the value of x + y ? x 3 value of x ? 7 and x 0. Official SAT Practice Test 67 . line intersects the x-axis at 2 and the y-axis at y x 3. Do not turn to any other section in the test. PQRS is a rectangle. If j 3 1 = 32 and k = . What is the area of RST is 7 and PT 5 PQRS ? STOP If you finish before time is called. what is the slope of line m ? 16. you may check your work on this section only. There are 25 trays on a table in the cafeteria. Each tray contains a cup only. If 15 of the trays contain cups and 21 of the trays contain plates. If 6 x + y + 3z = 600 x + y + z = 400 13. If line m (not shown) passes through the origin and is perpendicular to line . what is one possible 17. In the figure above. a plate only. In the figure above.SALES OF BOOK B Total Number of Copies Sold End of 1st week 3200 End of 2nd week 5500 End of 3rd week 6800 End of 4th week 7400 End of 5th week 7700 11. what is the value of j ? k 2 2 15.

debilitated unstinting . each blank indicating that something has been omitted. (A) voracious (B) disposable (C) redundant (D) superficial (E) prodigious 68 SAT Preparation Booklet . Whether substances are medicines or poisons often depends on dosage. . Beneath the sentence are five words or sets of words labeled A through E. toxic harmful .in large. . Critics dismissed the engineer’s seemingly creative design as being -------. dumbfounded generous . the comet Hale-Bopp produced a ------. much more than the comets Halley or Hyakutake. . Choose the word or set of words that. satisfactory resolve . The professor commented to other faculty members that Sheila seemed temperamentally suited to the study of logic. evading disregard . (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) enforce . following bent . underdeveloped and lacking in sophistication. While traveling near the Sun. (A) inspired (B) entrusted (C) honored (D) employed (E) refined 3. Each sentence below has one or two blanks. distracted onerous . .to be able to stand erect for long periods of time.for ------.amount of dust.intricate arguments. Directions: For each question in this section. . negotiators proposed a compromise that they felt would be ------. . the first woman to be so -------. effective mild . . for substances that are ------. unattractive extend . . that is. given her ------.to both labor and management. . useful end . she ------. . acceptable 4. . (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) useless . . eminent 6. influencing penchant .Time — 25 minutes 24 Questions SECTION 7 Turn to Section 7 (page 6) of your answer sheet to answer the questions in this section. fatal beneficial . . (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) profitable .often in her career.only in their various natural surroundings. Example: Hoping to ------. .the dispute. . Because the photographer believed that wild animals should be ------. . divisive overcome . benign curative .lifting of heavy furniture had left him too ------. . (A) an innovator (B) an emblem (C) a successor (D) a detractor (E) a lobbyist 5. roamed represented . spoke captured . hesitant strenuous . Folk painter Grandma Moses has become such an enduring icon that many consider her ------of America. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) depicted . . . . traveled displayed . Canadian Lynn Johnston was named Cartoonist of the Year in 1985. . Years of ------. . select the best answer from among the choices given and fill in the corresponding circle on the answer sheet. when inserted in the sentence. (A) defunct (B) unorthodox (C) simplistic (D) erroneous (E) ambiguous 7. best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole. .in small doses can be ------. analyzing 2. . (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) sympathy . publicized 8. unhinging contempt . . protested domesticated . miraculous 1.

In lines 4-5. The reference to beetles in lines 5-6 serves to suggest that (A) people need to be more attuned to their surroundings (B) effective negotiation is more of a science than an art (C) people can be made to do what they would prefer not to do (D) effective negotiation requires identifying with a different viewpoint (E) people feel uncomfortable when their actions are under scrutiny 12. Answer the questions on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passages and in any introductory material that may be provided. He seized 5 each day. or make so many others 10 laugh so hard. brushing aside all objects animal and mineral in his headlong rush Line to the publicity that surely awaited him. Your opponents may well believe that their views are right as strongly 10 as you believe yours are. you need to know what it feels like to be a beetle. The public response described in lines 6-8 most strongly suggests that Mencken’s writings were (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) authoritative controversial arrogant informal frivolous Official SAT Practice Test 69 . Nobody else could make so many people so angry. questions following a pair of related passages may also be based on the relationship between the paired passages. Questions 9-10 are based on the following passage. 11. as difficult as it may be.The passages below are followed by questions based on their content. It is not 5 enough to study them like beetles under a microscope. You must know more Line than simply that they see things differently. his pungently outspoken opinions debated hotly. To accomplish this you should be prepared to withhold judgment as you “try on” their views. and then gaily went on to the next. the words “seized” and “shook” help establish which aspect of Mencken’s personality? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) His code of honor His sense of humor His vindictiveness His intensity His petulance Questions 11-12 are based on the following passage. shook it to within an inch of its life. 9. The ability to see the situation as your opponents see it. The primary purpose of the passage is to (A) persuade people to defend their positions on critical issues (B) indicate a specific ability that is useful in negotiation (C) encourage people to be more accepting of others (D) argue that few people are fit for the demands of negotiation (E) suggest that negotiators should always seek consensus 10. No matter where his writing appeared. is one of the most important skills that you can possess as a negotiator. Newspaper editor and political commentator Henry Louis Mencken was a force of nature. it was quoted widely.

but it is astounding how far the nation has come since that hot August day in 1963. They also had to try to restructure American society. 13. Passage 2 Martin Luther King was at his best when he was willing to reshape the wisdom of many of his intellectual predecessors. But those words survive. and who cannot identify with people whose dreams of a better world are punished with violence?— helps to explain their durability. Passage 1 is from a 2003 book that examines the famous “I Have a Dream” speech delivered by Martin Luther King. Jr. King preached a sermon entitled “Ingratitude. King’s image has often suffered a sad fate. Segregation in the South has been dismantled. reflecting on the “I Have a Dream” speech should be an opportunity to be grateful for the astonishing transformation of America that the freedom movement wrought. not on Martin King the antiwar activist. Time and again we replay the powerful image of King standing on a national stage in the shadow of the Lincoln Memorial mouthing perhaps the most famous four words ever uttered by a Black American: “I have a dream. In truth. this shroud is little more than romantic tissue. we have emphasized King’s aspiration to save America through inspiring words and sacrificial deeds. Toward the end of his life. one is struck by the many forms of King’s genius. This meant that Blacks and their allies had to obtain political power. As a nation. Even now. Many of King’s admirers are uncomfortable with a focus on his mature beliefs. Passage 1 The ability of the “I Have a Dream” speech to highlight King’s early career at the expense of his later career accounts for the tone of impatience and betrayal that often appears when modern-day supporters of King’s agenda talk about the speech. at the historic March on Washington in August 1963. not on the complete Martin Luther King. solving the riddles of poverty and economic inequality. in the hopes that America will then discover the rest of King’s legacy.” The annual Martin Luther King holiday is properly a day of national thanksgiving. Passage 2 is from a 2000 biography of Martin Luther King. Jr. segregationist governors do not try to prevent Black children from entering public schools. because they comfort folk who would rather entertain the dreams of unfree people than confront their rage and despair. His strengths have been needlessly exaggerated. a time for the nation to recognize the immense debt it owes to King and the thousands of heroes of the civil rights movement for saving the soul of America. He believed that his early views on race failed to challenge America fundamentally. King’s dreams of an America free from racial discrimination are still some distance away.” and they tend to speak of that memory with the reverence reserved for a religious experience. there are no longer “Whites Only” signs. This proposal effectively concedes that King’s magnificent address cannot be recovered from the misuse and overquotation it has suffered since his death. They express his immortal longing for freedom.Questions 13-24 are based on the following passages. If Black Americans could not depend on goodwill to create social change. the civil rights movement brought down a system of segregation that stood essentially unaltered since Reconstruction.” in which he called ingratitude “one of the greatest of all sins. This is not the image of King that is celebrated on Martin Luther King Day.” One King scholar has proposed a ten-year moratorium on reading or listening to the “I Have a Dream” speech. a longing that is familiar to every person who dares imagine a future beyond unjust laws and unfair customs. upon hearing the speech.” because the sinner “fail[s] to realize his dependence on others. Many people can still remember the first time they heard “I Have a Dream. not on Martin King the challenger of the economic order. He later confessed that he had underestimated how deeply entrenched racism was in America. At the very least. In just under a decade. The authors of both passages agree that King’s “I Have a Dream” speech (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) had significant global as well as national influence has been imitated by many of King’s followers had a profound impact on many Americans was typical of King’s thought as a whole questioned the ethical beliefs of many Americans 45 50 Line 5 55 10 60 15 65 20 70 25 75 30 80 35 40 70 SAT Preparation Booklet . those words capture King’s unique genius. too. The edifying universality of those four words— who hasn’t dreamed. But it is not clear that this is so. He ingeniously harnessed their ideas to his views to advocate sweeping social change. they had to provoke social change through bigger efforts at nonviolent direct action. his weaknesses wildly overplayed. not on Martin King the opponent of apartheid. King’s true legacy has been lost to cultural amnesia. written by an African American scholar.” For most Americans. They seek to deflect unfair attacks on King’s legacy by shrouding him in the cloth of superhuman heroism. Former Georgia state legislator Julian Bond said in 1986 that commemorations of King seemed to “focus almost entirely on Martin Luther King the dreamer.

“suffered” most nearly means (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) endured felt prolonged tolerated lamented 17. durability”) are best described as (A) contesting the notion of King’s historical importance that is advanced by the author of Passage 1 (B) providing an explanation for the view of King’s speech that is expressed by the author of Passage 1 (C) challenging the portrait of the civil rights movement that is presented by the author of Passage 1 (D) offering a humorous anecdote that supports a statement made by the author of Passage 1 (E) dismissing a perspective that is similarly rejected by the author of Passage 1 22. . The author of Passage 2 would most likely characterize the view of King expressed in lines 38-42 of Passage 1 (“The annual .14. for Julian Bond. Day”) mark a transition within Passage 2 from a (A) consideration of King’s views to a critique of people’s understanding of them (B) challenge to King’s beliefs to an acceptance of their cultural resonance (C) discussion of King’s intellectual predecessors to an analysis of his legacy (D) celebration of King’s strengths to an examination of his weaknesses (E) defense of King’s aspirations to an attack on those who fail to support them 21. Unlike the author of Passage 2. a portrait of “the complete Martin Luther King” (lines 10-11) would (A) celebrate King’s influence both within and outside the United States (B) acknowledge the logical lapses in some of King’s later work (C) compare King with other significant figures of his era (D) achieve a balance between King’s earlier concerns and his later ones (E) reveal information about King’s personal as well as his public life 15. schools”) serve primarily to (A) express ambitious hopes for the future (B) challenge the accuracy of historical accounts (C) provide a contrast with other cultures (D) illustrate a point with particular examples (E) defend a series of unusual occurrences 18. . . the author of Passage 1 develops his or her argument by (A) (B) (C) (D) citing an authority with whom he or she disagrees referring to a famous speech delivered by King discussing the universal human trait of dreaming dismissing those who fail to understand the subtlety of King’s thought (E) assuming that his or her readers are completely unfamiliar with King’s ideas 16. . . . America”) as (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) contradictory insightful atypical simplistic arrogant 20. It can be inferred that. Lines 76-79 in Passage 2 (“The edifying . Lines 57-58 (“This is . Lines 31-34 (“Segregation in . . The author of Passage 2 would most likely view Julian Bond’s statement in lines 7-11 of Passage 1 with (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) outright disapproval considerable surprise cynical mistrust cautious optimism complete agreement 19. . In line 17. The author of Passage 1 mentions the “sermon” (line 35) primarily in order to (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) show King’s effectiveness as a public speaker demonstrate the broad range of King’s interests illustrate an important trait that King possessed question King’s ability to empathize with others remind readers of a significant obligation to King Official SAT Practice Test 71 .

Do not turn to any other section in the test. The author of Passage 2 would most likely argue that commemorations focus on “Martin Luther King the dreamer” (line 7 of Passage 1) because people find this aspect of King to be (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) courageous unpretentious reassuring provocative unexpected 24. STOP If you finish before time is called. Which best characterizes the overall relationship between the two passages? (A) Passage 2 rejects the political goals that are described in Passage 1.23. 72 SAT Preparation Booklet . you may check your work on this section only. (C) Passage 2 romanticizes a person who is objectively depicted in Passage 1. (D) Passage 2 recounts the history of a national holiday that is celebrated in Passage 1. (E) Passage 2 reflects on a figure who is denounced in Passage 1. (B) Passage 2 helps account for the responses to a speech discussed in Passage 1.

1. If she ran for 45 minutes at this rate on Thursday. On Wednesday Heather ran 3 miles in 30 minutes.5 miles 4 miles 4. You may use any available space for scratch work. then mk 3. how far did Heather run on Thursday? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) 3.5 miles 6. Fill in the corresponding circle on the answer sheet. Directions: For this section. solve each problem and decide which is the best of the choices given. what is the number? 2 1 3 1 (B) 2 2 (C) 3 (D) 2 (E) 3 2. If 3 times a number is equal to (A) 3 . If ( 2m) k (A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 5 (D) 6 (E) 12 Official SAT Practice Test 73 .5 miles 5 miles 5.SECTION 8 Time — 20 minutes 16 Questions Turn to Section 8 (page 7) of your answer sheet to answer the questions in this section.

000 (E) 130. Two spheres.000 (C) 58. 3. which of the following best approximates the total number of video rentals by premium members at Store B during the years 2000–2002 ? (A) 24. The second table shows the average (arithmetic mean) number of video rentals per premium member at store B during each of those years.000 74 SAT Preparation Booklet . what is the maximum possible length of PQ ? 4.000 2002 750 1. are tangent to each other. In the figure above. 21. If P is any point on one sphere and Q is any point on the other sphere. the tick marks are equally spaced and their coordinates are shown. 18.250 5. x 6. which has the smallest positive value? AVERAGE NUMBER OF VIDEO RENTALS PER PREMIUM MEMBER AT STORE B Year 2000 2001 2002 Rentals 12 15 20 (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) a b c d e 10. 15. A and B. one with radius 7 and one with radius 4. On the number line above. which of the following could be the value of x ? (A) 5 (B) 8 (C) 9 (D) 14 (E) 16 8. 4. What is the perimeter of polygon ABCDE ? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) 7 11 14 18 22 (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) 4 5 6 7 8 NUMBER OF PREMIUM MEMBERS Year Store A Store B 2000 250 500 2001 400 1. Based on this information.000 (B) 46.7.000 (D) 70. during the years 2000–2002. CDE is an equilateral triangle and ABCE is a square with an area of 1. Of these coordinates. If x is the median of the 7 numbers listed above. The first table above shows the number of premium members at two video rental stores.

what is length BC ? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) 6 8 2x 4x 2 4x x and (C) (D) 10. A student was given a piece of rope and told to cut it into two equal pieces. In ABC above. If AE ED 4. keep one piece. Which of the following could be the fraction of the original rope that one of the students had? (E) (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) 1 14 1 15 1 16 1 17 1 18 Official SAT Practice Test 75 . Which of the following is the graph of a function f such 0 for exactly two values of x between that f x 5 and 5 ? (A) (B) 9. E is the midpoint of AB.11. Each student was to repeat this process until every student in the class had exactly one piece of rope. AB AC . and pass the other piece to the next student. and D is the midpoint of AC.

what is the value of z ? (A) 60 (B) 70 (C) 80 (D) 90 (E) 100 15. Do not turn to any other section in the test. 5 how many possible values are there for x ? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) One Two Three Four Five (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) y y y y y 10 x 10 x 12 x 120 120 120 120 120 10 x 12 x 16. where t is an integer.12. Let 1 for all nonzero x integers x. If x = 20 and y = 30 in the figure above. Point O is the center of both circles in the figure above. 7 y 16. If x = t . If x and y are integers. which of the following is a possible value of t ? x be defined as x + (A) 1 (B) 0 (C) −1 (D) −2 (E) −3 14. and x y 2 . 76 SAT Preparation Booklet . The graph above shows the number of George’s unsold candy bars over a 10-day period. what is the length of the darkened arc? (A) 10 (B) 8 (C) 6 (D) 4 (E) 2 STOP If you finish before time is called. you may check your work on this section only. If the circumference of the large circle is 36 and the radius of the small circle is half of the radius of the large circle. The points on the graph all lie on which of the following lines? 13.

Each sentence below has one or two blanks. Directions: For each question in this section. The writer came to be labeled ------. callous cordial .for hours or days. . (A) promotion (B) commodity (D) refund (E) register (C) formula 6. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) insightful . . . each blank indicating that something has been omitted. useful end . imperceptible 4. . historians are increasingly ------. best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole. acceptable 3. they refused to be intimidated. . . candid cunning . negotiators proposed a compromise that they felt would be ------. (A) conciliatory (B) bombastic (D) cosmopolitan (E) jocular (C) mendacious Official SAT Practice Test 77 . (A) ease (B) delude (C) cajole (D) bully (E) nudge 5.speeches.in that they often take a transnational perspective. active faintly . Choose the word or set of words that. .statements made in his seemingly ------. Only after the campaign volunteers became aware of their candidate’s questionable motives could they recognize the ------. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) violently . . . . select the best answer from among the choices given and fill in the corresponding circle on the answer sheet. unattractive extend .because she isolated herself in her apartment. when inserted in the sentence.the dispute. satisfactory resolve . whereas others may have only a brief explosive eruption and then remain ------. astute partisan . quiescent spontaneously . (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) enforce . Although the administration repeatedly threatened to use its authority in order to ------. hostile duplicitous . shunning outside contact. . Example: Hoping to ------. .the student protestors into submission.to both labor and management. Geysers vary widely: some may discharge -------. . .Time — 20 minutes 19 Questions SECTION 9 Turn to Section 9 (page 7) of your answer sheet to answer the questions in this section. divisive overcome . No longer narrowly preoccupied with their own national pasts. . surreptitious 1. one that often took the place of money in commercial transactions. (A) a loner (B) a miser (C) a connoisseur (D) a conspirator (E) an ingenue 2. Beneath the sentence are five words or sets of words labeled A through E. Some Tibetan nomads used yak butter as a -------. dangerous continuously . unpredictable regularly .

I began to look for ways to engage my students in putting themselves in other people’s shoes. the word above all.” This quote. The body has a memory just as the mind does. because most of the time the characters all sounded the same. which was to get the character to walk in the actor’s shoes. reminded me of something my grandfather had told me when I was a girl: “If you say a word often enough it becomes your own. Most characters spoke somewhere inside the rhythmic range of the students. with the rest of the body. The author of the passage uses the quotation in lines 5-6 primarily as a (A) vivid expression of how she views words (B) powerful example of what she sought in Shakespeare (C) scholarly citation linking her to poetic words (D) comical introduction to a problem encountered by every dramatic performer (E) pragmatic assessment of the power of words for beginning drama students 25 30 35 40 78 SAT Preparation Booklet . We are trained to develop aspects of our memories that are more emotional and sensory than intellectual. the spoken part— and reenact it. I came to realize that if I were able to record part of the dance— that is. the search for character is constantly in motion. That dance is a sketch of something that is inside a person. I could then create the illusion of being another person by reenacting something she had said as she had said it. is truly magical. The primary purpose of the first three paragraphs (lines 1-38) is to (A) (B) (C) (D) describe the actor’s process of developing a role trace the beginnings of a personal philosophy analyze the grandfather’s insights into acting investigate the effect of words on interpersonal relationships (E) explore a viewpoint that the author is forced to reverse 8. just as the mind does. 7. a kind of cooperative dance. I needed evidence that you could find a character’s psychological reality by “inhabiting” that character’s words. or the reiteration. “The word. not only by its meaning. and to explore it within the framework of their real lives. When I 50 Line 5 55 10 60 15 65 20 70 later became a teacher of acting. Questions 7-19 are based on the following passage. which I added to my journal. and reiterate feelings and sensations. but I knew even then. or some would say. The heart has a memory. It is a quest that moves back and forth between the self and the other. The act of speech is a physical act. that my grandfather’s words would be important. 45 In the introduction to one of her dramas. the rest of the body would follow. I had been trained in the tradition of acting called “psychological realism. it becomes you. I wanted to develop an alternative to the self-based technique.” A basic tenet of psychological realism is that characters live inside of you and that you create a lifelike portrayal of the character through a process of realizing your own similarity to the character. even before I had made a conscious decision to teach as well as act. I needed evidence of the limitations of basing a character on a series of metaphors from an actor’s real life. It is powerful enough that it can create. It became less and less interesting intellectually to bring the dramatic literature of the world into a classroom of people in their late teens and twenties.” I added that phrase to my journal next to the quote about the magic of words. More troubling was that this method left an important bridge out of acting. but by its artful manipulation. recall. He told me that my grandfather had actually said. Words have always held a particular power for me.The passage below is followed by questions based on its content. What’s more remarkable to me is how actors remember.” I was still a student at the time. I began to become more and more troubled by the self-oriented method. I remember leafing through a book of Native American poems one morning while I was waiting for my Shakespeare class to begin and being struck by a phrase from the preface. When I traveled home to Baltimore for my grandfather’s funeral a year after my journal entry. suggestible people. To me. a well-known playwright and actor discusses some of her ideas about acting. “If you say a word often enough. I mentioned my grandfather’s words to my father. and not fully revealed by the words alone. This went against the grain of the psychological realism tradition. The general public often wonders how actors remember their lines. a technique that would empower the other to find the actor rather than the other way around. Aesthetically it seemed limited. My grandfather’s idea led me to consider that the reenactment. The spirit of acting is the travel from the self to the other. Answer the questions on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passage and in any introductory material that may be provided. This “self-based” method seemed to come to a spiritual halt. It saw the self as the ultimate home of the character. He corrected me. a technique that would begin with the other and come to the self. of a person’s words would also teach me about that person. Actors are very impressionable people.

“follow” most nearly means (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) pursue result surpass join in listen carefully Official SAT Practice Test 79 . the author primarily conveys the (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) grandfather’s attempts to play with language grandfather’s enthusiasm in spite of her reaction father’s intervention in a private moment ambivalence she feels toward her grandfather significance of the grandfather’s message 13. Lines 39-70 present the author’s argument primarily by (A) celebrating the appeal of a discredited tradition (B) exploring the impact of her early experiences on her acting (C) explaining her reasons for rejecting a technique (D) describing challenges commonly met by professional actors (E) analyzing insights gained from debates with other drama professors 15. The comparisons in lines 26-27 serve primarily to (A) show the similarities that exist between dancing and acting (B) celebrate the broad range of memories that actors learn to draw on (C) justify the author’s adherence to conventional acting theory (D) explain why actors have difficulty interpreting character (E) enhance the author’s credibility as a technically trained actor 11. In lines 39-62. the author reveals herself to be someone who believes that (A) teachers and students should examine controversial issues together (B) playwrights especially benefit from experience on stage (C) conventional approaches should be open to questioning and reevaluation (D) traditional methods often reflect the accumulated insight of generations (E) standard practices are the most suitable to teach to beginners 14. The author’s explanation in the fourth paragraph suggests that the “self-oriented method” (line 45) rests on the assumption that (A) audience members appreciate complex nuances of character (B) the playwright’s biography provides the main evidence for interpreting character (C) actors have already felt the full range of human emotions (D) actors are extremely independent and self-serving people (E) actors’ lives become fulfilled through their dramatic portrayals 10.9. the author uses the idea of a dance to (A) supply an image for the awkwardness some actors experience (B) illustrate a process that words can set in motion (C) portray the enactment of a character as an exhilarating experience (D) argue that acting requires physical agility (E) show how a word can evoke multiple meanings 12. . In line 34. follow”). . In lines 29-34 (“a kind . By presenting both versions of the grandfather’s words (lines 9-10 and lines 15-16).

(C) Most students found class to be repetitious. (E) The spontaneity that the students had hoped for had not been achieved. students”) ? (A) The characters spoke through the students’ own rich cadences. the phrase “home of the character” most nearly means (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) way of understanding eccentricities social context surrounding a character environment for practicing acting forum in which the self is presented publicly source of a role’s psychological truth 18. Do not turn to any other section in the test. (B) Young drama students have an uncanny knack for conveying character. 17. In lines 63-64. In line 60. “psychological reality” describes which quality? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) The versatility of a performer The physical gestures of a character The essence of an identity The accuracy of an audience’s expectations The logical consistency of certain actions 19. The “metaphors” in line 66 are best described as (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) private misgivings objective observations abstract equations memorable phrases personal comparisons STOP If you finish before time is called. 80 SAT Preparation Booklet .16. Which statement best captures the author’s point in lines 54-56 (“Most characters . you may check your work on this section only. . (D) Characterizations were confined by what the students knew. .

which have largely replaced other. as urged by nutritionists. Directions: For each question in this section. without awkwardness or ambiguity. more healthful. Experts disagree about what is the definition of intelligence and how to measure it. Your selection should result in the most effective sentence—clear and precise. nutritionists are urging the public to reduce its consumption of sodas. the other four choices are different. (A) what is the definition of intelligence and how to measure it (B) how to define intelligence. and also its measurement (C) how to define and measure intelligence (D) defining intelligence as well as measurement (E) the definition of intelligence and measuring it The following sentences test correctness and effectiveness of expression. and professional astronomers sometimes seek their help. because they (D) nutritionists urge about reducing public soda consumption. those (C) the public ought to reduce its consuming of sodas.Time — 10 minutes 14 Questions SECTION 10 Turn to Section 10 (page 7) of your answer sheet to answer the questions in this section. In making your selection. select one of the other choices. that is. 2. which (E) less soda should be consumed by the public. beverages. follow the requirements of standard written English. and punctuation. (A) nutritionists are urging the public to reduce its consumption of sodas. Part of each sentence or the entire sentence is underlined. In everything from finding comets to spotting supernovae. sentence construction. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) accomplished. select the best answer from among the choices given and fill in the corresponding circle on the answer sheet. and accomplished. urge nutritionists. also accomplished that accomplished therefore accomplished when Official SAT Practice Test 81 . amateur astronomers have become so accomplished. beneath each sentence are five ways of phrasing the underlined material. choice of words. EXAMPLE: Laura Ingalls Wilder published her first book and she was sixty-five years old then. Since scientific advances are central to progress. if not. With Americans consuming sugar in record amounts. which (B) nutritionists have been urging that the public reduces its consumption of sodas. which 4. Choice A repeats the original phrasing. If you think the original phrasing produces a better sentence than any of the alternatives. (A) basic research deserving continuing support (B) basic research being what deserves continuing support (C) basic research deserves continuing support (D) continuing support is deserved by basic research (E) continuing support is what they deserve in basic research 3. select choice A. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) and she was sixty-five years old then when she was sixty-five at age sixty-five years old upon the reaching of sixty-five years at the time when she was sixty-five 1. pay attention to grammar. basic research deserving continuing support.

Medical insurance coverage that requires high monthly premiums and that is beyond the financial means of many people. is noted for portraying adulthood as unpleasant and childhood is glorified. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) committee. millions of people in medieval Europe were killed by bubonic plague. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) were the basis for have been a basis for become the basis of was the basis for being the basis of 6. (A) it was eventually decided upon by the legislators to have the bill passed (B) it was eventually decided upon by the legislators to pass the bill (C) the eventual decision of the legislators was for passage of the bill (D) the legislators’ eventual decision was passing the bill (E) the legislators eventually decided to pass the bill 8. Traditional Jamaican music. enriched with rock. jazz. the author of Peter Pan and other plays. a trip that is risky either because of natural hazards but also because of political unrest. it includes committee. Travel writing often describes a journey of exploration and endurance. James Barrie. and it will include committee. were the basis for reggae. The charges against the organization are being investigated by a committee. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) New Orleans has also become New Orleans has also become famous as the cuisine of New Orleans is also cuisines in New Orleans also have become also the cuisine of New Orleans is (A) (B) (C) (D) 82 SAT Preparation Booklet . it includes several senators. and other modern rhythms from America. Among the most flavorful cuisines in the United States. it was eventually decided upon by the legislators to have the bill passed. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) childhood is glorified childhood as being glorious childhood as glorious childhood glorified glorified childhood 7. New Orleans has also become one of the most popular. Though they had earlier indicated otherwise.5. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) but also because of but also due to or because there was or because of or the cause is 10. Spread by rat fleas. it including committee. that requires high monthly premiums and that is that requires high monthly premiums and it is requiring high monthly premiums are with the requirements of high monthly premiums are (E) that requires high monthly premiums is 12. they include committee that includes 9. (A) millions of people in medieval Europe were killed by bubonic plague (B) and millions of medieval Europeans killed by bubonic plague (C) this led to the killing of millions of medieval Europeans by bubonic plague (D) bubonic plague in medieval Europe was why millions of people were killed (E) bubonic plague killed millions of people in medieval Europe 11.

and living in North London since that time STOP If you finish before time is called. Born of Ibuza parents in Nigeria. you may check your work on this section only. since then she has lived in North London 1962 and lived since then in North London 1962. Official SAT Practice Test 83 . who were farmers as well as hunters. since which she has lived in North London 1962 and has lived since then in North London 1962. and this was not the same as other Indian tribes (E) pumpkin. Do not turn to any other section in the test. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) 1962. since which she has lived in North London.13. included more maize and pumpkin than other Indian tribes. novelist Buchi Emecheta moved to England in 1962. Meals prepared by the Algonquin Indians. and other Indian tribes did not prepare meals in this way 14. (A) pumpkin than other Indian tribes (B) pumpkin than did those prepared by other Indian tribes (C) pumpkin than that which other Indian tribes did (D) pumpkin.

84 SAT Preparation Booklet .Correct Answers and Difficulty Levels for the Official SAT Practice Test Get a score report and answer explanations! Enter your answers online at collegeboard.com/ satpracticetest.

B = ___________ Math Raw Score Round math raw score to the nearest whole number. × 2 = (D) Use the table on page 87. Get Your Critical Reading Score How many critical reading questions did you get right? Section 3: Questions 1–24 ___________ Section 7: Questions 1–24 + ___________ Section 9: Questions 1–19 + ___________ Total = ___________(A) Estimate your essay score using the Essay Scoring Guide on page 36. go to collegeboard. How many critical reading questions did you get wrong? Section 3: Questions 1–24 ___________ Section 7: Questions 1–24 + ___________ Section 9: Questions 1–19 + ___________ Total = ___________ × 0. Section 10: Questions 1–14 + ___________ Total = ___________ × 0. Get Your Writing Score How many multiple-choice writing questions did you get right? Section 5: Questions 1–35 ___________ Section 6: Questions 1–8 + ___________ Section 8: Questions 1–16 + ___________ Total = ___________ Section 10: Questions 1–14 + ___________ Total = ___________(A) How many multiple-choice writing questions did you get wrong? Section 5: Questions 1–35 ___________ × 0. (C) Use the table on page 86 to find your writing multiple-choice scaled score. critical reading. Get Your Mathematics Score How many mathematics questions did you get right? Section 2: Questions 1–20 ___________ Section 6: Questions 1–18 + ___________ Section 8: Questions 1–16 + ___________ Total = ___________(A) How many multiple-choice math questions did you get wrong? Section 2: Questions 1–20 ___________ Use the table on page 86 to find your critical reading scaled score. Scoring the Official SAT Practice Test 85 .com/satpracticetest. You’ll receive: • A detailed score report • Answer explanations To calculate your score on paper. and your essay score (D) to find your writing composite scaled score. and writing raw scores. check your responses with the correct answers on page 84.B = ___________ writing multiple-choice Raw Score Round writing multiple-choice raw score to the nearest whole number. your writing multiple-choice raw score (C). Fill in the blanks below and do the calculations to get your mathematics. Use the table on page 86 to find your math scaled score.Scoring the Official SAT Practice Test To have your score calculated automatically. Use the tables on page 86 to find your scaled scores.25 = ___________(B) A .25 = ___________(B) A .B = ___________ critical reading Raw Score Round critical reading raw score to the nearest whole number.25 = ___________(B) A .

* The writing multiple-choice score is reported on a 20-80 scale. Use the table on page 87 for the writing composite scaled score. 86 SAT Preparation Booklet .SAT Score Conversion Table Critical Reading Scaled Score 800 800 800 790 770 760 740 730 720 700 690 680 670 670 660 650 640 630 620 620 610 600 600 590 580 570 570 560 550 550 540 530 530 520 520 510 Writing Multiple-Choice Scaled Score* Critical Reading Scaled Score 500 500 490 480 480 470 460 460 450 440 440 430 420 410 410 400 390 380 380 370 360 350 340 330 320 310 300 290 270 260 240 220 210 200 Writing Math Multiple-Choice Scaled Scaled Score Score* 550 540 540 530 520 510 500 490 480 480 470 460 450 440 430 420 420 410 400 390 380 370 360 350 330 320 310 290 280 260 240 220 200 200 55 54 53 52 51 50 49 48 47 46 45 44 43 42 41 40 39 38 38 37 36 35 34 33 32 31 30 29 27 26 24 22 20 20 Raw Score 67 66 65 64 63 62 61 60 59 58 57 56 55 54 53 52 51 50 49 48 47 46 45 44 43 42 41 40 39 38 37 36 35 34 33 32 Math Scaled Score Raw Score 31 30 29 28 27 26 25 24 23 22 21 20 19 18 17 16 15 14 13 12 11 10 9 8 7 6 5 4 3 2 1 0 -1 -2 and below 800 790 760 740 720 710 700 690 680 670 660 650 640 640 630 620 610 600 590 590 580 570 560 80 78 75 73 71 70 68 67 66 64 63 62 61 60 59 58 57 56 This table is for use only with the test in this booklet.

SAT Writing Composite Score Conversion Table Essay Raw Score Writing MC Raw Score 49 48 47 46 45 44 43 42 41 40 39 38 37 36 35 34 33 32 31 30 29 28 27 26 25 24 23 22 21 20 19 18 17 16 15 14 13 12 11 10 9 8 7 6 5 4 3 2 1 0 -1 -2 -3 and below 12 800 800 790 770 760 740 730 720 710 700 690 680 670 660 660 650 640 630 620 610 610 600 590 580 570 560 560 550 540 530 520 520 510 500 490 490 480 470 460 460 450 440 430 420 410 400 390 380 370 350 330 310 310 11 800 800 770 750 740 730 720 700 690 680 680 670 660 650 640 630 620 620 610 600 590 580 570 570 560 550 540 530 520 520 510 500 490 490 480 470 460 460 450 440 430 430 420 410 400 390 380 370 350 340 320 300 290 10 800 780 760 740 720 710 700 690 680 670 660 650 640 630 620 620 610 600 590 580 570 570 560 550 540 530 520 520 510 500 490 480 480 470 460 450 450 440 430 420 420 410 400 390 380 370 360 350 340 320 300 280 280 9 790 760 740 720 710 700 680 670 660 650 640 630 630 620 610 600 590 580 580 570 560 550 540 530 530 520 510 500 490 480 480 470 460 450 450 440 430 420 420 410 400 390 390 380 370 360 350 330 320 300 290 270 260 8 770 740 720 700 690 670 660 650 640 630 620 610 610 600 590 580 570 560 550 550 540 530 520 510 500 500 490 480 470 460 460 450 440 430 430 420 410 400 400 390 380 370 360 360 350 340 330 310 300 280 270 250 240 7 750 720 700 680 670 660 640 630 620 610 600 600 590 580 570 560 550 540 540 530 520 510 500 490 490 480 470 460 450 440 440 430 420 410 410 400 390 380 380 370 360 350 350 340 330 320 310 290 280 260 250 230 220 6 740 710 690 670 650 640 630 620 610 600 590 580 570 560 550 550 540 530 520 510 500 490 490 480 470 460 450 450 440 430 420 410 410 400 390 380 380 370 360 350 350 340 330 320 310 300 290 280 260 250 230 210 210 5 720 690 670 650 640 620 610 600 590 580 570 560 550 550 540 530 520 510 500 500 490 480 470 460 450 450 440 430 420 410 410 400 390 380 370 370 360 350 350 340 330 320 310 310 300 290 280 260 250 230 220 200 200 4 710 680 660 640 630 610 600 590 580 570 560 550 540 530 530 520 510 500 490 480 480 470 460 450 440 430 430 420 410 400 390 390 380 370 360 360 350 340 330 330 320 310 300 290 280 270 260 250 240 220 200 200 200 3 700 670 640 630 610 600 590 570 560 550 550 540 530 520 510 500 490 490 480 470 460 450 440 440 430 420 410 400 390 390 380 370 360 360 350 340 330 330 320 310 300 300 290 280 270 260 250 240 220 210 200 200 200 2 680 650 630 610 590 580 570 560 550 540 530 520 510 500 490 490 480 470 460 450 440 440 430 420 410 400 390 390 380 370 360 350 350 340 330 320 320 310 300 290 290 280 270 260 250 240 230 220 210 200 200 200 200 0 670 640 620 600 580 570 560 550 540 530 520 510 500 490 480 480 470 460 450 440 430 430 420 410 400 390 380 380 370 360 350 340 340 330 320 310 310 300 290 280 280 270 260 250 240 230 220 210 200 200 200 200 200 Revised December 2006. Scoring the Official SAT Practice Test 87 . This table is for use only with the test in this booklet.

... Physics Mathematics Levels 1 & 2 U...................SAT Program Test Calendar 2008-09 TEST DATES REGISTRATION DEADLINES Early (international only) Regular Late (domestic only) OCT 4 Aug 26 Sep 9 Sep 16 NOV 1 Sep 10 Sep 26 Oct 10 DEC 6 Oct 15 Nov 5 Nov 18 JAN 24 Dec 3 Dec 26 Jan 6 MAR 14 NA Feb 10 Feb 24 MAY 2 Mar 11 Mar 31 Apr 9 JUN 6 Apr 15 May 5 May 15 Note: If you miss a test............. Ghana............................50 (available only if you have registered before) Change Fee (test type.... ..$38 International Processing Fee.................................. Fees for 2008-09 Registration and Test Fees SAT Reasoning Test...... The only test offered in March is the SAT Reasoning Test...... Korean........$50 Essay score verification ............$12......... banks or other forms of payment not listed as acceptable in this booklet....$12 Additional Service Fees Hand-Scoring/Score Verification Request: Multiple-choice score verification ..............................FREE Official Score Report (automatically mailed)........ and it is only administered in U...................S............ Visit www......... or Togo. Use the early international deadline when registering through an SAT International Representative or requesting the opening of a test center closer to home......... SAT Reasoning Test™ SAT Subject Tests™ Literature Biology E/M...... French...... international mail must be received by the deadlines....50 Fees for Sending Your Scores Score report requests at registration ....... $12....................$21 (Additional fees may apply..S.FREE Request by phone (per call) ....... or canceled after shipment................. We will return unprocessed all registrations and orders received with cash or checks drawn on non-U....................... History World History Languages: Reading Only French.. Chemistry...........add $9 each Additional Processing Fees (Add to total test fees) Register by phone ........................... Orders cannot be refunded.................com for a list of approximate score availability dates... Modern Hebrew Latin Italian Languages with Listening Chinese........$18 SAT Student Answer Service* .$23 Note: Standby testing is not allowed in Benin.......... Official score reports are mailed about five weeks after the test. Sunday test dates immediately follow the Saturday test dates.......... You may take only one listening test at that time....... Spanish German...... or date change)..............$26 Additional surcharge (India & Pakistan) .... 4 included Additional score report requests* ..S. German............ 70866-37366 • UNLWEBPDF78 743864 *Fees are nonrefundable except as noted with an asterisk................. Some scores may take longer to report.... Nigeria...................... Japanese............... and Spanish Language Tests with Listening are only offered in November............collegeboard.... add $20 All other Subject Tests.......... $7 (for overpayments and duplicate payments) Payment Notes Do not send cash........ see the SAT Registration Booklet for information about flexible score reports at no charge...$22 Late Fee ............... See the SAT Registration Booklet for more information...............$50 Refund processing fee .................50 each (Fee-waiver users. You must have missed your test date to receive a refund for these services....... call Customer Service to reschedule (you will need to pay the test change fee)..... Fees for Receiving Your Scores Scores by Web ... We reserve the right to electronically collect payments by check...) Student Answer Service Fees SAT Question-and-Answer Service* ..... returned..... $20 Language Test with Listening................$23 Standby Fee . $10 RUSH order (per order) .. Cameroon. centers........ $9.. Kenya...............................) Additional score report processing fees: Request by Web or mail ....... Domestic mail must be postmarked by the deadlines...................... ADMISSION TICKET MAILINGS Begin Mail Date End Mail Date Aug 11 Sep 24 Sep 8 Oct 22 Oct 15 Nov 26 Dec 1 Jan 14 Jan 21 Mar 4 Mar 9 Apr 22 Apr 13 May 27 Score Reports: Scores are available online and by phone several weeks after the test date......... center........ $27 Scores retrieved from archive .................. $45 Subject Tests Basic Subject Test Fee (per registration).......FREE Scores by phone (per call)......

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