SAT

Preparation Booklet

2007-08
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SAT Preparation Booklet
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Contents
SAT Reasoning Test
TM
. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 3
Frequently Asked Questions . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 3
Approaches to Taking the SAT® . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 3
The Critical Reading Section. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 5
Approaches to the Critical Reading Section . . . . . . . . . . . . . 5
Sentence Completions . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 5
Passage-Based Reading . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 6
The Mathematics Section. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 13
Calculator Policy . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 13
Approaches to the Mathematics Section . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 13
Mathematics Review . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 14
Multiple-Choice Questions . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 20
Student-Produced Response Questions . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 23
The Writing Section . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 26
Characteristics of Effective Writing . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 26
Improving Sentences . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 27
Identifying Sentence Errors. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 28
Improving Paragraphs . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 29
The Essay. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 31
Scoring the Essay . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 36
Scoring Guide . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 36
Official SAT Practice Test. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 37
About the Practice Test . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 37
Answer Sheet . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 38
Official SAT Practice Test . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 46
Correct Answers and Difficulty Levels . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 84
Scoring the Official SAT Practice Test . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 85
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SAT Reasoning Test

This booklet will answer your questions about the SAT
Reasoning Test™ and help you prepare for test day.
Frequently Asked Questions
Why should I take the SAT
®
?
Nearly every college and university in the U.S. accepts and
uses the SAT as part of its admissions process. In addition,
your SAT score can help you get connected to the right col-
leges and help you identify opportunities for scholarships.
What’s on the SAT?
The SAT measures the critical thinking skills that demon-
strate how well you analyze and solve problems. The test is
composed of three sections:
● Critical reading, which has sentence completion
and passage-based reading questions
● Mathematics, which is based on the math that
college-bound students typically learn during their
first three years of high school
● Writing, which has multiple-choice questions and
a written essay
How can I prepare for the SAT?
● Take the PSAT/NMSQT® in your junior year.
● Review the sample questions, test-taking
approaches, and directions in this booklet.
● Take the official SAT practice test in this booklet
and review the answer explanations online.
● Visit the SAT Preparation Center™ at
www.collegeboard.com/satprep.
How should I get ready for test day?
● Make sure you have on hand all the materials you
will need, such as a calculator, No. 2 pencils (no
mechanical pencils), a soft eraser, your Admission
Ticket, and an official photo ID.
● Check out the route to the test center and know
where the weekend entrances are located.
● Get a good night’s sleep.
● Leave yourself plenty of time so you’ll arrive at the
test center a little early.
How can I help myself feel as
confident as possible?
● Think positively.
● Stay focused.
● Concentrate only on what you are doing.
● Keep the test in perspective.
● Remember that you are in control.
What do I need to know about the
essay?
The purpose of the essay is to demonstrate not only how
well you write, but also how well you express and back up
a point of view. You will have 25 minutes to write your
essay, which will count for approximately 30 percent of
your writing score. The essay must be written with a No. 2
(soft-lead) pencil and will be scored as a first draft, not a
polished piece of writing.
Important Information
• You have 3 hours and 45 minutes to com-
plete the entire test.
• All multiple-choice questions are scored
the same way: one point for each correct
answer, and one-quarter point subtracted
for a wrong answer. No points are sub-
tracted for answers left blank.
• You can always take the test again. One
out of every two high school students
takes the SAT at least twice.
• Remember: The SAT is only one factor
colleges look at when they consider your
application.
• Make sure you use a No. 2 pencil. It is very
important that you fill in the entire circle
on the answer sheet darkly and completely.
If you change your response, erase it as
completely as possible.
Approaches to Taking the SAT
● Answer easy questions first. The easier questions are
usually at the beginning of the section, and the harder
ones are at the end. The exception is in the critical
reading section, where questions are ordered according
to the logic and organization of each passage.
● Make educated guesses. If you can rule out one or
more answer choices for multiple-choice questions,
you have a better chance of guessing the right answer.
● Skip questions that you really can’t answer. No
points are deducted if an answer is left blank.
● Limit your time on any one question. All ques-
tions are worth the same number of points. If you
need a lot of time to answer a question, go on to
the next one. Later, you may have time to return to
the question you skipped.
● Keep track of time. Don’t spend too much time on
any group of questions within a section.
● Use your test booklet as scratch paper.
● Mark the questions in your booklet that you
skipped and want to return to.
● Check your answer sheet to make sure you are
answering the right question.
SAT Reasoning Test
For daily practice questions, visit The Official
SAT Question of the Day

at collegeboard.com/
qotd or sign up to receive it by e-mail. Each
question has a hint and an answer explanation.
SAT Preparation Booklet
4
The Official SAT Online Course
TM
• Interactive instruction
• 6 official practice tests
• Answer explanations
• Immediate essay scoring
The Official SATStudy Guide
TM
• 8 official practice tests
• Test-taking approaches
• Free online score reports
• Sample essays and prompts
To order, complete Item 17 on the registration
form or visit the link below.
The Official SAT Question of the Day
TM
2008 Calendar
• Daily practice questions
• Free online answer explanations and hints
Get Ready for the
with Help from the
SAT
Test Maker
®
Order today!
collegeboard.com/satprep
5
The Critical Reading
Section
The critical reading section gives you a chance to show
how well you understand what you read. This section has
two types of questions:
● Sentence completions (19 questions)
● Passage-based reading (48 questions)
Note: Calculators may not be on your desk or used
on the critical reading section of the SAT.
Approaches to the Critical Reading
Section
● Work on sentence completion questions first. They
take less time to answer than the passage-based
reading questions.
● The difficulty of sentence completion questions
increases as you move through the section.
● Reading questions do not increase in difficulty
from easy to hard. Instead, they follow the logic
of the passage.
● The information you need to answer each reading
question is always in the passage(s). Reading care-
fully is the key to finding the correct answer. Don’t
be misled by an answer that looks correct but is
not supported by the actual text of the passage(s).
● Reading questions often include line numbers to
help direct you to the relevant part(s) of the pas-
sage. If one word or more is quoted exactly from
the passage, the line number(s) where that quota-
tion can be found will appear in the test question.
You may have to read some of the passage before
or after the quoted word(s), however, in order to
find support for the best answer to the question.
● Do not jump from passage to passage. Stay with a
passage until you have answered as many questions
as you can before you proceed to the next passage.
● If you don’t know what a word means in a sentence
completion or reading passage, consider related
words, familiar sayings and phrases, roots, prefixes,
and suffixes. Have you ever heard or seen a word
that may be related to it?
● In your test booklet, mark each question you don’t
answer so that you can easily go back to it later if
you have time.
● Remember that all questions are worth the same
number of points regardless of the type or difficulty.
Sentence Completions
Sentence completion questions measure your
● knowledge of the m eanings of words.
● ability to understand how the different parts of a
sentence fit together logically.
Directions
Each sentence below has one or two blanks, each blank
indicating that something has been omitted. Beneath
the sentence are five words or sets of words labeled A
through E. Choose the word or set of words that, when
inserted in the sentence, best fits the meaning of the
sentence as a whole.
Example:
Hoping to ------- the dispute, negotiators
proposed a compromise that they felt would
be ------- to both labor and management.
(A) enforce . . useful
(B) end . . divisive
(C) overcome . . unattractive
(D) extend . . satisfactory
(E) resolve . . acceptable
a b c d ,
Answering Sentence Completion
Questions
One way to answer a sentence completion question with
two missing words is to focus first on just one of the
two blanks. If one of the words in an answer choice is
logically wrong, then you can eliminate the entire choice
from consideration.
● Look at the first blank in the above example.
Would it make sense to say that “negotiators” who
have “proposed a compromise” were hoping to
enforce or extend the “dispute”? No, so neither (A)
nor (D) can be the correct answer.
● Now you can focus on the second blank. Would
the “negotiators” have proposed a compromise that
they believed would be divisive or unattractive to
“both labor and management”? No, so (B) and (C)
can be eliminated, and only choice (E) remains.
● Always check your answer by reading the entire
sentence with your choice filled in. Does it make
sense to say, “Hoping to resolve the dispute, the
negotiators proposed a compromise that they felt
would be acceptable to both labor and manage-
ment”? Yes.
Correct answer: (E) / Difficulty level: Easy
The Critical Reading Section
SAT Preparation Booklet
6
Sample Questions
1. Because King Philip’s desire to make Spain the
dominant power in sixteenth-century Europe ran
counter to Queen Elizabeth’s insistence on
autonomy for England, ------- was -------.
(A) reconciliation . . assured
(B) warfare . . avoidable
(C) ruination . . impossible
(D) conflict . . inevitable
(E) diplomacy . . simple
Be sure to look for key words and phrases as you read each
sentence. Words such as although, however, if, but, and since
are important to notice because they signal how the differ-
ent parts of a sentence are logically related to each other.
Words such as not and never are important because they
indicate negation. In the example above, the entire sentence
hinges on a few key words: “Because something ran counter
to something else, blank was blank.”
● The word “because” indicates that the information
in the first part of the sentence (the part before
the comma) explains the reason for the situation
described in the second part. The first part states
that what King Philip wanted (domination for
Spain) “ran counter to” what Queen Elizabeth
wanted (independence for England).
● Given that there was such a fundamental disagree-
ment between the two monarchs, would reconcilia-
tion be assured? Unlikely.
● Would warfare be avoidable? Hardly; warfare
might be unavoidable.
● Would ruination be impossible? No.
● Would diplomacy be simple? Not necessarily.
● Only choice (D) fits logically with the key words in
the sentence: Because what one person wanted ran
counter to what another person wanted, conflict
was inevitable.
Correct answer: (D) / Difficulty level: Medium
2. There is no doubt that Larry is a genuine -------:
he excels at telling stories that fascinate his
listeners.
(A) braggart (B) dilettante (C) pilferer
(D) prevaricator (E) raconteur
Some sentence completions contain a colon. This is a
signal that the words after the colon define or directly
clarify what came before. In this case, “he excels at telling
stories that fascinate his listeners” serves to define the word
raconteur, choice (E). None of the other words is directly
defined by this clause.
● A braggart may or may not excel at telling stories
and may actually annoy listeners.
● A dilettante is someone who dabbles at a career or
hobby and so may not excel at anything.
● A pilferer steals repeatedly, in small quantities; this
has nothing to do with storytelling.
● A prevaricator tells lies, but not necessarily in an
accomplished or fascinating way; and the sentence
refers to stories, not lies.
You should choose the word that best fits the meaning of
the sentence as a whole, and only choice (E) does so.
Correct answer: (E) / Difficulty level: Hard
Passage-Based Reading
The reading questions on the SAT measure your ability to
read and think carefully about several different passages
ranging in length from about 100 to about 850 words.
Passages are taken from a variety of fields, including the
humanities, social studies, natural sciences, and literary
fiction. They vary in style and can include narrative, argu-
mentative, and expository elements. Some selections con-
sist of a pair of related passages on a shared issue or theme;
in some of the questions, you are asked to compare and
contrast these passages.
The following kinds of questions may be asked about a
passage:
● Vocabulary in Context: These questions ask you to
determine the meanings of words from their con-
text in the reading passage.
● Literal Comprehension: These questions assess
your understanding of significant information
directly stated in the passage.
● Extended Reasoning: These questions measure
your ability to synthesize and analyze information
as well as to evaluate the assumptions made and
the techniques used by the author. Most of the
reading questions fall into this category. You may
be asked to identify cause and effect, make infer-
ences, recognize a main idea or an author’s tone,
and follow the logic of an analogy or an argument.
Answering Passage-Based Reading
Questions
Below are samples of the kinds of reading passages and
questions that may appear on your test. For each set of
sample materials,
● read the passage carefully.
● decide on the best answer to each question.
● read the explanation for the correct answer.
7
Some of the reading passages in the SAT are as short as a
paragraph or two, about 100 words in length. You will
also find one or more pairs of related short passages in
each edition of the test. Such material will be followed by
one to five questions that measure the same kinds of
reading skills that are measured by the questions following
longer passages.
Directions
The passages below are followed by questions based on
their content; questions following a pair of related passages
may also be based on the relationship between the paired
passages. Answer the questions on the basis of what is
stated or implied in the passages and in any introductory
material that may be provided.
Sample Questions
Questions 3-4 are based on the following passage.
“The rock was still wet. The animal
was glistening, like it was still swimming,”
recalls Hou Xianguang. Hou discovered the
unusual fossil while surveying rocks as a
paleontology graduate student in 1984, near
the Chinese town of Chengjiang. “My teach-
ers always talked about the Burgess Shale
animals. It looked like one of them. My
hands began to shake.”
Hou had indeed found a Naraoia like
those from Canada. However, Hou’s animal
was 15 million years older than its Canadian
relatives.
Some questions ask you to recognize the meaning of a word
as it is used in the passage.
3. In line 4, “surveying” most nearly means
(A) calculating the value of
(B) examining comprehensively
(C) determining the boundaries of
(D) polling randomly
(E) conducting a statistical study of
The word “surveying” has a number of meanings, several
of which are included in the choices above. In the context
of this passage, however, only (B) makes sense. A student
in the field of “paleontology” is one who studies prehistoric
life as recorded in fossil remains. One of the activities of a
paleontology student would be to examine rocks carefully
and “comprehensively” while looking for fossils.
● (A), (C), and (E) are incorrect because someone
who studies fossils would not calculate the “value”
of rocks, or determine the “boundaries” of rocks,
or conduct a “statistical study” of rocks.
● (D) is wrong because “polling” rocks makes no
sense at all.
Correct answer: (B) / Difficulty level: Easy
You may be asked to make an inference or draw a conclusion
about a statement made in the passage.
4. It can be inferred that Hou Xianguang’s “hands
began to shake” (line 9) because Hou was
(A) afraid that he might lose the fossil
(B) worried about the implications of his finding
(C) concerned that he might not get credit for his
work
(D) uncertain about the authenticity of the fossil
(E) excited about the magnitude of his discovery
In the passage, Hou states that the fossil that he found
“looked like” certain other fossils that his “teachers always
talked about.” He understands almost immediately, there-
fore, the significance of what he has found, and so (E) is
the correct answer: Hou’s hands were shaking because he
was “excited about the magnitude of his discovery.”
● (A) is wrong because there is no suggestion that
Hou was “afraid that he might lose the fossil.”
● (B) and (C) are wrong because the passage does
not indicate that Hou was “worried about” his dis-
covery or “concerned that he might not get credit.”
The passage indicates only that Hou recognized
that he had found something valuable.
● (D) is wrong because Hou’s immediate reaction
is that he thinks he has found an important fossil.
The first two sentences of the passage dramatize
the discovery; it is Hou’s excitement, not his uncer-
tainty, that causes him to tremble.
Correct answer: (E) / Difficulty level: Easy
Questions 5-8 are based on the following passage.
This passage is adapted from a novel written by a woman in
1899. The novel was banned in many places because of its
unconventional point of view.
It was eleven o’clock that night when
Mr. Pontellier returned from his night out.
He was in an excellent humor, in high spir-
its, and very talkative. His entrance awoke
his wife, who was in bed and fast asleep
when he came in. He talked to her while he
undressed, telling her anecdotes and bits of
news and gossip that he had gathered during
the day. She was overcome with sleep, and
answered him with little half utterances.
He thought it very discouraging that
his wife, who was the sole object of his
existence, evinced so little interest in things
which concerned him and valued so little
his conversation.
Mr. Pontellier had forgotten the bonbons
and peanuts that he had promised the boys.
Notwithstanding, he loved them very much
and went into the adjoining room where
they slept to take a look at them and make
Line
5
10
Line
5
10
15
20
The Critical Reading Section
SAT Preparation Booklet
8
An indescribable oppression, which
seemed to generate in some unfamiliar part
of her consciousness, filled her whole being
with a vague anguish. It was like a shadow,
like a mist passing across her soul’s summer
day. It was strange and unfamiliar; it was a
mood. She did not sit there inwardly
upbraiding her husband, lamenting at Fate,
which had directed her footsteps to the path
which they had taken. She was just having a
good cry all to herself. The mosquitoes suc-
ceeded in dispelling a mood which might
have held her there in the darkness half a
night longer.
The following morning Mr. Pontellier
was up in good time to take the carriage
which was to convey him to the steamer at
the wharf. He was returning to the city to
his business, and they would not see him
again at the Island till the coming Saturday.
He had regained his composure, which
seemed to have been somewhat impaired the
night before. He was eager to be gone, as he
looked forward to a lively week in the
financial center.
Following are 4 sample questions about this passage. In the
actual test, as many as 13 questions may appear with a pas-
sage of this length.
You may be asked to interpret information presented
throughout the passage and to evaluate the effect of the
language used by the author.
5. The narrator would most likely describe Mr.
Pontellier’s conduct during the evening as
(A) typically generous
(B) justifiably impatient
(C) passionate and irrational
(D) patronizing and self-centered
(E) concerned and gentle
This question asks you to consider a large portion of the
passage and to make an inference about the narrator’s view
of “Mr. Pontellier’s conduct during the evening.” To answer
such a question, you should look carefully at the particular
words used and the details mentioned in the passage. For
example, in the first paragraph, Mr. Pontellier awakens his
wife after his “night out”; he seems not to notice or care
that she has been sound asleep. In lines 38–47, the narrator
describes Mr. Pontellier speaking to his wife in a superior
and condescending manner about “a mother’s place” in
caring for children and about how hard he works at “his
brokerage business.”
● (A) and (E) are not correct because the narrator
does not depict Mr. Pontellier’s words and actions
during the evening as “generous” or “gentle.”
sure that they were resting comfortably. The
result of his investigation was far from
satisfactory. He turned and shifted the
youngsters about in bed. One of them began
to kick and talk about a basket full of crabs.
Mr. Pontellier returned to his wife with
the information that Raoul had a high fever
and needed looking after. Then he lit his
cigar and went and sat near the open door
to smoke it.
Mrs. Pontellier was quite sure Raoul had
no fever. He had gone to bed perfectly well,
she said, and nothing had ailed him all day.
Mr. Pontellier was too well acquainted with
fever symptoms to be mistaken. He assured
her the child was burning with fever at that
moment in the next room.
He reproached his wife with her inatten-
tion, her habitual neglect of the children. If
it was not a mother’s place to look after chil-
dren, whose on earth was it? He himself had
his hands full with his brokerage business.
He could not be in two places at once; mak-
ing a living for his family on the street, and
staying home to see that no harm befell
them. He talked in a monotonous, insistent
way.
Mrs. Pontellier sprang out of bed and
went into the next room. She soon came
back and sat on the edge of the bed, leaning
her head down on the pillow. She said noth-
ing, and refused to answer her husband
when he questioned her. When his cigar was
smoked out he went to bed, and in half a
minute was fast asleep.
Mrs. Pontellier was by that time thor-
oughly awake. She began to cry a little, and
wiped her eyes on the sleeve of her night-
gown. She went out on the porch, where she
sat down in the wicker chair and began to
rock gently to and fro.
It was then past midnight. The cottages
were all dark. There was no sound abroad
except the hooting of an old owl and the
everlasting voice of the sea, that broke like a
mournful lullaby upon the night.
The tears came so fast to Mrs. Pontellier’s
eyes that the damp sleeve of her nightgown
no longer served to dry them. She went on
crying there, not caring any longer to dry
her face, her eyes, her arms. She could not
have told why she was crying. Such experi-
ences as the foregoing were not uncommon
in her married life. They seemed never
before to have weighed much against the
abundance of her husband’s kindness and a
uniform devotion which had come to be
tacit and self-understood.
80
85
90
95
100
25
30
35
40
45
50
55
60
65
70
75
9
● (B) is not correct because the narrator does not
suggest that Mr. Pontellier’s conduct with his wife
is justifiable.
● (C) is not correct; although Mr. Pontellier’s
behavior is selfish and inconsiderate, it is not
“passionate”

in fact, the narrator states that Mr.
Pontellier “talked in a monotonous, insistent way.”
● (D) is correct because it accurately character-
izes the narrator’s description of Mr. Pontellier’s
behavior during the evening, “patronizing and
self-centered.” Someone who is “patronizing” has
an attitude of superiority and thus treats others
as if they were less important.
Correct answer: (D) / Difficulty level: Medium
Some questions ask you to focus on a specific piece of infor-
mation presented in the passage.
6. In context, the description in lines 46-47 of Mr.
Pontellier’s way of speaking suggests the narrator’s
belief that his complaints are
(A) stumbling and confused
(B) familiar and not as urgent as he claims
(C) angry and sarcastic
(D) too complex to make sense to anyone but
himself
(E) both rational and thought-provoking
In lines 46–47, the narrator describes Mr. Pontellier’s “way
of speaking” as “monotonous, insistent.” Previously, Mr.
Pontellier had told his wife that one of their sons “had a
high fever and needed looking after,” and he had criticized
Mrs. Pontellier for her “habitual neglect of the children.”
These are seemingly serious matters, and yet Mr. Pontellier
is described as not at all excited in the way that he commu-
nicates his opinions to his wife.
● (A) is wrong because Mr. Pontellier speaks assert-
ively to his wife throughout the passage, not in a
“stumbling” or uncertain manner.
● (C) is wrong because statements that are “monoto-
nous” and “insistent” are not “angry and sarcastic.”
● (D) and (E) are wrong because the narrator does
not indicate that Mr. Pontellier’s statements to his
wife are “too complex to make sense” or “rational
and thought-provoking.” In fact, the terms “monot-
onous” and “insistent” suggest that the statements
are rather dull and simpleminded.
● The correct answer is (B) because concerns that are
voiced “in a monotonous, insistent way” are likely
to be ones that are oft-repeated and “familiar,” and
probably “not as urgent” as Mr. Pontellier claims.
The statement in lines 53–55 also supports this
answer: “When his cigar was smoked out he went
to bed, and in half a minute was fast asleep.”
Correct answer: (B) / Difficulty level: Hard
Some questions require you to make an inference or draw a
conclusion about what you have read.
7. In lines 56-92, Mrs. Pontellier’s reactions to her
husband’s behavior on returning home suggest that
(A) she accepts unquestioningly her role of caring
for the children
(B) this is one of the first times she has
acknowledged her unhappiness
(C) her marriage is not what is making her so
depressed
(D) she is angry about something that happened
before her husband went out
(E) she is not as worldly as her husband is
In these lines, Mrs. Pontellier cries for a long time while
sitting alone on the porch. Her husband’s treatment of
her has upset her greatly. The narrator indicates that such
behavior by Mr. Pontellier was “not uncommon” but
that Mrs. Pontellier had not previously been too bothered
by such incidents: “They seemed never before to
have weighed much against the abundance of her
husband’s kindness. . . .”
● (A) is not correct because the issue of “caring for
the children” is not the focus of this part of the
passage; Mrs. Pontellier’s feelings of sadness and
“oppression” in this passage are not related to the
issue of “her role” as a mother.
● (C) is not correct because it is precisely her rela-
tionship with her husband that has made her “so
depressed.”
● (D) is not correct because there is no indication in
the passage that “something that happened before
her husband went out” has made Mrs. Pontellier
“angry.” In fact, it is his behavior after his return
that upsets her.
● (E) is not correct because whether Mrs. Pontellier
is “as worldly as her husband” is irrelevant to her
reaction to his treatment of her; the passage sug-
gests not that she lacks sophistication, but that he
lacks consideration.
● (B) is correct because Mrs. Pontellier’s “strange and
unfamiliar” mood of “oppression” and “anguish”
marks a new realization on her part of her “unhap-
piness” with her husband.
Correct answer: (B) / Difficulty level: Medium
You may be asked to consider the overall description of a
character, event, or phenomenon across an entire passage.
8. The passage shows Mr. Pontellier as happiest
when he
(A) is attending to his children
(B) sits outside and smokes a cigar
(C) makes up with his wife after an argument
(D) has been away from home or is about to leave
home
(E) has showered his children with gifts of candy
The Critical Reading Section
SAT Preparation Booklet
10
The passage begins with Mr. Pontellier “in an excellent
humor,” having just returned after a night away from
home. He becomes less happy, however, when his wife is
too sleepy to talk with him, and when he discovers that
his son Raoul “had a high fever and needed looking after.”
Subsequently, he lectures his wife about their family roles
and responsibilities, finishes his cigar, and goes to bed. The
next morning, Mr. Pontellier has “regained his composure”
and is “eager to be gone, as he looked forward to a lively
week” away from his family at work.
● (A) and (E) are not correct because Mr. Pontellier
gets upset the one time that he is “attending to” his
sons, and he has forgotten to bring them the treats
that he had promised.
● (B) is not correct because Mr. Pontellier is
described as neither happy nor unhappy while he
smokes; there are other occasions in the passage
when he is happier.
● (C) is not correct because the passage never shows
Mr. Pontellier making up with his wife after their
argument.
● (D) is the correct answer based on the description
of a happy Mr. Pontellier at the beginning and the
end of the passage, when “he has been away from
home or is about to leave home.”
Correct answer: (D) / Difficulty level: Medium
Questions 9-12 are based on the following passages.
These two passages were adapted from autobiographical
works. In the first, a playwright describes his first visit to a
theater in the 1930’s; in the second, an eighteenth-century
writer describes two visits to theaters in London.
Passage 1
I experienced a shock when I saw a cur-
tain go up for the first time. My mother had
taken me to see a play at the Schubert
Theater on Lenox Avenue in Harlem in New
York City. Here were living people talking to
one another inside a large ship whose deck
actually heaved up and down with the swells
of the sea. By this time I had been going to
the movies every Saturday afternoon
—Charlie Chaplin’s little comedies, adven-
ture serials, Westerns. Yet once you knew
how they worked, movies, unlike the stage,
left the mind’s grasp of reality intact since
the happenings were not in the theater
where you sat. But to see the deck of the
ship in the theater moving up and down,
and people appearing at the top of a ladder
or disappearing through a door—where did
they come from and where did they go?
Obviously into and out of the real world of
Lenox Avenue. This was alarming.
And so I learned that there were two
kinds of reality, but that the stage was far
more real. As the play’s melodramatic story
developed, I began to feel anxious, for there
was a villain on board who had a bomb and
intended to blow everybody up. All over the
stage people were looking for him but he
appeared, furtive and silent, only when the
searchers were facing the other way. They
looked for him behind posts and boxes and
on top of beams, even after the audience
had seen him jump into a barrel and pull
the lid over him. People were yelling, “He’s
in the barrel,” but the passengers were deaf.
What anguish! The bomb would go off any
minute, and I kept clawing at my mother’s
arm, at the same time glancing at the the-
ater’s walls to make sure that the whole
thing was not really real. The villain was
finally caught, and we happily walked out
onto sunny Lenox Avenue, saved again.
Passage 2
I was six years old when I saw my first
play at the Old Drury. Upon entering the
theater, the first thing I beheld was the green
curtain that veiled a heaven to my imagina-
tion. What breathless anticipations I
endured! I had seen something like it in an
edition of Shakespeare, an illustration of the
tent scene with Diomede in Troilus and
Cressida. (A sight of that image can always
bring back in a measure the feeling of that
evening.) The balconies at that time, full of
well-dressed men and women, projected
over the orchestra pit; and the pilasters*
reaching down were adorned with a glister-
ing substance resembling sugar candy. The
orchestra lights at length rose. Once the bell
sounded. It was to ring out yet once again—
and, incapable of the anticipation, I reposed
my shut eyes in a sort of resignation upon
my mother’s lap. It rang the second time.
The curtain drew up—and the play was
Artaxerxes! Here was the court of ancient
Persia. I took no proper interest in the
action going on, for I understood not its
import. Instead, all my feeling was absorbed
in vision. Gorgeous costumes, gardens,
palaces, princesses, passed before me. It was
all enchantment and a dream.
After the intervention of six or seven
years I again entered the doors of a theater.
That old Artaxerxes evening had never done
ringing in my fancy. I expected the same
feelings to come again with the same occa-
sion. But we differ from ourselves less at
sixty and sixteen, than the latter does from
six. In that interval what had I not lost! At
six I knew nothing, understood nothing,
discriminated nothing. I felt all, loved all,
Line
5
10
15
20
45
50
55
60
65
70
75
80
25
30
35
40
wondered all. I could not tell how, but I had
left the temple a devotee, and was returned a
rationalist. The same things were there
materially; but the emblem, the reference,
was gone. The green curtain was no longer a
veil, drawn between two worlds, the unfold-
ing of which was to bring back past ages, but
a certain quantity of green material, which
was to separate the audience for a given time
from certain of their fellows who were to
come forward and pretend those parts. The
lights—the orchestra lights—came up a
clumsy machinery. The first ring, and the
second ring, was now but a trick of the
prompter’s bell. The actors were men and
women painted. I thought the fault was in
them; but it was in myself, and the alteration
which those many centuries—those six
short years—had wrought in me.
* Pilasters are ornamental columns set into walls.
Following are four sample questions about this pair of
related passages. In the test, some questions will focus on
Passage 1, others will focus on Passage 2, and about half or
more of the questions following each pair of passages will
focus on the relationships between the passages.
Some questions require you to identify shared ideas or simi-
larities between the two related passages.
9. The authors of both passages describe
(A) a young person’s sense of wonder at first
seeing a play
(B) a young person’s desire to become a
playwright
(C) the similarities between plays and other art forms
(D) how one’s perception of the theater may
develop over time
(E) the experience of reading a play and then
seeing it performed
To answer this question, you have to figure out what these
two passages have in common. The subject of Passage 1 is
a child’s first visit to see a play performed in a theater, and
how captivated he was by the entire experience. Passage 2
describes two different visits to the theater; at age six the
child is entranced by the spectacle of the performance but,
“after the intervention of six or seven years,” the older and
now more knowledgeable child is not so impressed. (A) is
the correct answer because all of Passage 1 and the first
half of Passage 2 describe “a young person’s sense of won-
der at first seeing a play.”
● (B) is wrong; even though the introduction to
these passages reveals that one of the authors is a
“playwright,” there is no mention in either passage
of a “desire to become a playwright.”
● (C) is wrong because Passage 1 mentions differ-
ences rather than “similarities” between plays and
movies, and Passage 2 does not mention any “other
art forms” at all.
● (D) is wrong because only Passage 2 discusses “how
one’s perception of the theater may develop over
time”—this subject is unmentioned in Passage 1.
● (E) is wrong because there is no reference in either
passage to “the experience of reading a play.”
Correct answer: (A) / Difficulty level: Easy
Some questions assess your comprehension of information
that is directly stated in a passage.
10. The “happenings” mentioned in line 14 refer to the
(A) work undertaken to produce a movie
(B) events occurring in the street outside the theater
(C) fantasies imagined by a child
(D) activity captured on the movie screen
(E) story unfolding on the stage
To answer this question correctly, you have to understand
lines 11–15, a rather complex sentence that makes an
important distinction in Passage 1. The author indicates
that, unlike plays, movies leave “the mind’s grasp of reality
intact,” because the “happenings” in a movie are not occur-
ring in the actual theater. Instead, images are projected on
a screen in the theater. Thus (D) is the correct answer; the
word “happenings” refers to the “activity captured on the
movie screen.”
● (A) and (B) are wrong because, when you insert
them in place of the word “happenings,” the sen-
tence in lines 11–15 makes no sense.
● (C) is wrong; even if the movies being referred to
include “fantasies” in them, they are not “imagined
by a child” but are actually projected on the movie
screen.
● (E) is wrong because, in line 14, “happenings”
refers to the “story unfolding” in a movie, not “on
the stage.”
Correct answer: (D) / Difficulty level: Medium
You may be asked to recognize the author’s tone or attitude in
a particular part of a passage, or in the passage as a whole.
11. In the final sentence of Passage 2 (“I thought . . . in
me”), the author expresses
(A) exultation (B) vindication (C) pleasure
(D) regret (E) guilt
Even though this question focuses on a single sentence,
you must understand the context in which the statement
occurs in order to determine the feeling expressed by the
author. In the second paragraph of Passage 2, the author
states that the experience of attending a play at age 12 or
13 was much different than at age 6. “The same things were
there materially” in the theater, but the older child knew
much more than the younger one about what was going
85
90
95
The Critical Reading Section
11
SAT Preparation Booklet
12
on. Ironically, this increased knowledge actually decreased
the author’s pleasure in attending the play. “In that interval
what had I not lost!” the author exclaims in line 78. Where
the younger child saw nobles in “the court of ancient
Persia,” the older child saw “men and women painted.”
Thus the final sentence of Passage 2 expresses “regret” con-
cerning the changes that “those many centuries—those six
short years—had wrought” in the author. (D) is the correct
answer.
● (A) and (C) are incorrect because the author does
not feel “exultation” about or take “pleasure” in the
“alteration” that has occurred; on the contrary, the
author laments it.
● (B) is incorrect because there is no expression of
“vindication” in the final sentence; the author is
not trying to justify, support, or defend the expe-
riences described in the passage, but rather to
explain the changes that have occurred due to the
passing of time.
● (E) is incorrect because, even though the final sen-
tence states that the “fault” was not in the actors
but in the now more knowledgeable child, the
author feels no “guilt” about the change. There is
no way to avoid the passage of time (and the learn-
ing that goes along with it). Aging is not the child’s
“fault,” but the loss of a youthful sense of wonder
and innocence can still cause regret.
Correct answer: (D) / Difficulty level: Hard
Some questions require you to determine and compare the
primary purpose or main idea expressed in each passage.
12. Which of the following best describes the
difference between Passages 1 and 2 ?
(A) Passage 1 remembers an event with fondness,
while Passage 2 recalls a similar event with
bitter detachment.
(B) Passage 1 considers why the author responded
to the visit as he did, while Passage 2 supplies
the author’s reactions without further analysis.
(C) Passage 1 relates a story from a number of
different perspectives, while Passage 2
maintains a single point of view.
(D) Passage 1 treats the visit to the theater as a
disturbing episode in the author’s life, while
Passage 2 describes the author’s visit as joyful.
(E) Passage 1 recounts a childhood experience,
while Passage 2 examines how a similar
experience changed over time.
This question asks you to do two things: first, understand
the overall subject or purpose of each passage; second,
recognize an important “difference between” the two. The
correct answer is (E) because the entire first passage does
indeed tell the story of a particular “childhood experi-
ence”—a trip to the theater—whereas the second passage
describes two different trips to the theater and how the
“experience changed over time.”
● (A) is wrong because there is neither bitterness
nor “detachment” in Passage 2. In fact, the first
paragraph of Passage 2 expresses excitement
and “enchantment,” and the second paragraph
expresses disappointment and regret.
● (B) is wrong because Passage 2 includes a great
deal more than just “the author’s reactions” to
visiting the theater; most of the second paragraph
provides “further analysis” of what had changed
and why the reactions to the two visits were so
different.
● (C) is wrong because it reverses the two narrative
approaches in this pair of passages. Passage 1
“maintains a single point of view,” that of the
youthful first-time theatergoer, whereas the
author of Passage 2 presents at least two “different
perspectives,” that of the enchanted six-year-old
and of the older child returning to the theater.
● (D) is wrong because the author of Passage 1 does
not find his first visit to the theater “disturbing” in
a negative way. Although he feels “shock” when the
curtain goes up and anxiety during the play, these
responses merely indicate how effective and “real”
the performance was for him. In the end, the child
and his mother walked “happily” out of the theater.
Correct answer: (E) / Difficulty level: Easy
The Mathematics Section
13
The Mathematics Section
The mathematics section of the SAT contains two types of
questions:
● Standard multiple-choice (44 questions)
● Student-produced response questions that provide
no answer choices (10 questions)
Some questions are like questions you may have seen in
your mathematics courses. The ability to reason logically in
a variety of situations, some of which may be new to you, is
tested throughout.
Calculator Policy
We recommend that you bring a calculator to use on the
mathematics section of the SAT. Every question on the test
can be solved without a calculator; however, using a calcula-
tor on some questions may be helpful to you. A scientific or
graphing calculator is recommended.
Acceptable Calculators
Calculators permitted during testing are:
● Graphing calculators
● Scientific calculators
● Four-function calculators (not recommended)
If you have a calculator with characters that are 1 inch or
higher, or if your calculator has a raised display that might
be visible to other test-takers, you will be seated at the dis-
cretion of the test supervisor.
You will not be allowed to share calculators. You will be
dismissed and your scores will be canceled if you use your
calculator to share information during the test or to remove
test questions or answers from the test room.
Calculator Tips
● Remember to bring your calculator to the test.
Calculators will not be available at the test center. You
should be familiar with how to use the calculator
you bring to the test.
● Make sure your calculator is in good working
order and that batteries are fresh. If your calculator
fails during testing and you have no backup, you’ll
have to complete the test without it.
● Don’t buy an expensive, sophisticated calculator
just to take the test. Although you can use them
for the test, more sophisticated calculators are not
required for any problem.
● Don’t try to use a calculator on every question.
First, decide how you will solve the problem, and
then decide whether to use the calculator. The calcu-
lator is meant to aid you in problem solving, not to
get in the way.
● Get your thoughts down before using your calcula-
tor. It may help to do scratchwork in the test book.
● Take the practice test in this booklet with a calcula-
tor at hand. This will help you determine how much
you will probably use a calculator the day of the test.
Unacceptable Calculators
Unacceptable calculators are those that:
● use QWERTY (typewriter-like) keypads
● require an electrical outlet
● “talk” or make unusual noises
● use paper tape
● are electronic writing pads, pen input/stylus-driven
devices, pocket organizers, cell phones, powerbooks,
or handheld or laptop computers
Approaches to the Mathematics
Section
● Familiarize yourself with the directions ahead of time.
● The test does not require you to memorize for-
mulas. Commonly used formulas are provided in
the test book at the beginning of each mathematics
section. It is up to you to decide which formula is
appropriate.
● Read the problem carefully. Note key words that
tell you what the problem is asking. Ask yourself the
following questions before you solve each problem:
What is the question asking? What do I know?
● With some problems, it may be useful to draw a
sketch or diagram of the given information.
● Use the test book for scratchwork. You are not
expected to do all the reasoning and figuring in your
head. You will not receive credit for anything writ-
ten in the booklet, but you will be able to check your
work easily later.
● Decide when to use a calculator.
● For multiple-choice questions, you may want to
refer to the answer choices before you determine
your answer.
● Eliminate choices. If you don’t know the correct
answer to a question, try some of the choices. It’s
sometimes easier to find the wrong answers than the
correct one. On some questions, you can eliminate all
the incorrect choices.
● Make sure your answer is a reasonable answer to
the question asked. This is especially true for
student-produced response questions, where no
answer choices are given.
● All figures are drawn to scale unless otherwise
indicated.
SAT Preparation Booklet
14
Mathematics Review
Number and Operations (20–25%)
● Arithmetic word problems (including percent,
ratio, and proportion)
● Properties of integers (even, odd, prime numbers,
divisibility, etc.)
● Rational numbers
● Sets (union, intersection, elements)
● Counting techniques
● Sequences and series (including exponential
growth)
● Elementary number theory
Algebra and Functions (35–40%)
● Substitution and simplifying algebraic expressions
● Properties of exponents
● Algebraic word problems
● Solutions of linear equations and inequalities
● Systems of equations and inequalities
● Quadratic equations
● Rational and radical equations
● Equations of lines
● Absolute value
● Direct and inverse variation
● Concepts of algebraic functions
● Newly defined symbols based on commonly used
operations
Geometry and Measurement (25–30%)
● Area and perimeter of a polygon
● Area and circumference of a circle
● Volume of a box, cube, and cylinder
● Pythagorean Theorem and special properties of
isosceles, equilateral, and right triangles
● Properties of parallel and perpendicular lines
● Coordinate geometry
● Geometric visualization
● Slope
● Similarity
● Transformations
Data Analysis, Statistics, and
Probability (10–15%)
● Data interpretation (tables and graphs)
● Descriptive statistics (mean, median, and mode)
● Probability
Number and Operations
● Integers: . . . , −4, −3, −2, −1, 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, . . .
(Note: zero is neither positive nor negative.)
● Consecutive Integers: Integers that follow in
sequence; for example, 22, 23, 24, 25. Consecutive
integers can be more generally represented by
n, n + 1, n + 2, n + 3, . . .
● Odd Integers: . . . , −7, −5, −3, −1, 1, 3, 5, 7, . . . ,
2 1 k + , . . . where k is an integer
● Even Integers: . . . , −6, −4, −2, 0, 2, 4, 6, . . . , 2k,
. . . , where k is an integer (Note: zero is an even
integer.)
● Prime Numbers: 2, 3, 5, 7, 11, 13, 17, 19, . . .
(Note: 1 is not a prime and 2 is the only even prime.)
● Digits: 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9
(Note: the units digit and the ones digit refer to the
same digit in a number. For example, in the number
125, the 5 is called the units digit or the ones digit.)
Percent
Percent means hundredths, or number out of 100. For
example, 40 percent means
40
100
or 0.40 or
2
5
.
Problem 1: If the sales tax on a $30.00 item is $1.80, what
is the sales tax rate?
Solution: $ . $ . 1 80
100
30 00 = ×
n

n = 6 6 , % so is the sales tax rate.
Percent Increase / Decrease
Problem 2: If the price of a computer was decreased from
$1,000 to $750, by what percent was the price decreased?
Solution: The price decrease is $250. The percent decrease
is the value of n in the equation
250
1 000 ,
=
n
100
. The value of
n is 25, so the price was decreased by 25%.
Note: n% increase means
increase
original
=
n
100
;

n% decrease means
decrease
original
=
n
100
.
The Mathematics Section
15
Average Speed
Problem: José traveled for 2 hours at a rate of 70 kilome-
ters per hour and for 5 hours at a rate of 60 kilometers per
hour. What was his average speed for the 7-hour period?
Solution: In this situation, the average speed was
total distance
total time
The total distance was
2 hr 70
km
hr






+ 5 hr 60
km
hr






= 440 km.
The total time was 7 hours. Thus, the average speed was
440
7
km
hr
= 62
6
7
kilometers per hour.
Note: In this example, the average speed over the 7-hour
period is not the average of the two given speeds, which
would be 65 kilometers per hour.
Sequences
Two common types of sequences that appear on the SAT
are arithmetic and geometric sequences.
An arithmetic sequence is a sequence in which successive
terms differ by the same constant amount.
For example: 3, 5, 7, 9, . . . is an arithmetic sequence.
A geometric sequence is a sequence in which the ratio of
successive terms is a constant.
For example: 2, 4, 8, 16, . . . is a geometric sequence.
A sequence may also be defined using previously defined
terms. For example, the first term of a sequence is 2, and
each successive term is 1 less than twice the preceding
term. This sequence would be 2, 3, 5, 9, 17, . . .
On the SAT, explicit rules are given for each sequence. For
example, in the sequence above, you would not be expect-
ed to know that the 6th term is 33 without being given
the fact that each term is one less than twice the preced-
ing term. For sequences on the SAT, the first term is never
referred to as the zeroth term.
Algebra and Functions
Factoring
You may need to apply these types of factoring:
x x x x
2
2 2 + = + ( )
x x x
2
1 1 1 − = + ( ) − ( )
x x x x x
2
2
2 1 1 1 1 + + = + ( ) + ( ) = + ( )
2 5 3 2 1 3
2
x x x x + − = − ( ) + ( )
Functions
A function is a relation in which each element of the
domain is paired with exactly one element of the range.
On the SAT, unless otherwise specified, the domain of any
function
f
is assumed to be the set of all real numbers x
for which f x ( )
is a real number. For example, if
f x x ( ) = + 2, the domain of

f

is all real numbers
greater than or equal to −2. For this function, 14 is paired
with 4, since f 14 14 2 16 4 ( ) = + = = .
Note: the symbol represents the positive, or principal,
square root. For example, 16 4 = , not ± 4.
Exponents
You should be familiar with the following rules for
exponents on the SAT.
For all values of a b x y , , , :
x x x
a b a b
⋅ =
+

x x
a
b
a b
( )
=


xy x y
a
a a
( ) = ⋅
For all values of a b x y , , , : > > 0 0
x
x
x
a
b
a b
=


x
y
x
y
a
a
a






=

x
x
a
a

=
1
Also, x x
a
b
a b
= . For example, x x
2
3
2 3
= .
Note: For any nonzero number x , it is true that x
0
1 = .
Variation
Direct Variation: The variable y is directly proportional to
the variable x if there exists a nonzero constant k such that
y kx = .
Inverse Variation: The variable y is inversely proportional
to the variable x if there exists a nonzero constant k such
that y
k
x
xy k = = or .
Absolute Value
The absolute value of x is defined as the distance from x to
zero on the number line. The absolute value of x is written
as x . For all real numbers x:
x
x x
x x
=

− <



,
,
if
if
0
0
For example:

2 2 2 0
2 2 2 2 0
0 0
= >
− =− − = −
=





,
( ) ,
since
since <
SAT Preparation Booklet
16
Geometry and Measurement
Figures that accompany problems are intended to provide
information useful in solving the problems. They are drawn
as accurately as possible EXCEPT when it is stated in a
particular problem that the figure is not drawn to scale. In
general, even when figures are not drawn to scale, the rela-
tive positions of points and angles may be assumed to be in
the order shown. Also, line segments that extend through
points and appear to lie on the same line may be assumed
to be on the same line. A point that appears to lie on a line
or curve may be assumed to lie on the line or curve.
The text “Note: Figure not drawn to scale” is included with
the figure when degree measures may not be accurately
shown and specific lengths may not be drawn proportion-
ally. The following examples illustrate what information
can and cannot be assumed from figures.
Example 1:
Since AD and BE are line segments, angles ACB and DCE
are vertical angles. Therefore, you can conclude that x y = .
Even though the figure is drawn to scale, you should NOT
make any other assumptions without additional informa-
tion. For example, you should NOT assume that AC CD =
or that the angle at vertex E is a right angle even though
they might look that way in the figure.
Example 2:
Note: Figure not drawn to scale.
A question may refer to a triangle such as ABC above.
Although the note indicates that the figure is not drawn to
scale, you may assume the following from the figure:
● ABD and DBC are triangles.
● D is between A and C.
● A, D, and C

are points on a line.
● The length of AD is less than the length of AC.
● The measure of angle ABD is less than the measure
of angle ABC.
You may not assume the following from the figure:
● The length of AD is less than the length of DC.
● The measures of angles BAD and BDA are equal.
● The measure of angle ABD is greater than the
measure of angle DBC.
● Angle ABC is a right angle.
Properties of Parallel Lines

m
k
a° b°
c° d°
w° x°
y° z°
1. If two parallel lines are cut by a third line, the
alternate interior angles are congruent. In the
figure above,
c x w d = = and
2. If two parallel lines are cut by a third line, the cor-
responding angles are congruent. In the figure,
a w b x c y d z = = = = , , , and
3. If two parallel lines are cut by a third line, the sum
of the measures of the interior angles on the same
side of the transversal is 180°. In the figure,
c w d x + = + = 180 180 and
Angle Relationships
60° 50°

y° z°
1. The sum of the measures of the interior angles of a
triangle is 180°. In the figure above,
x = 70 because 60 50 180 + + = x
2. When two lines intersect, vertical angles are
congruent. In the figure,
y = 50
3. A straight angle measures 180°. In the figure,
z = 130

because z + = 50 180
The Mathematics Section
17
4. In any triangle, the longest side is opposite the
largest angle, and the shortest side is opposite the
smallest angle. In the figure below, a b c < < .

5. Two polygons are similar if and only if the lengths
of their corresponding sides are in the same ratio
and the measures of their corresponding angles are
equal.

If polygons ABCDEF and GHIJKL are similar, then AF
and GL are corresponding sides, so that
AF
GL
BC
HI x
= = = =
10
5
2
1
18
. Therefore, x HI = = 9 .
Note: AF means the line segment with endpoints A and F,
and AF means the length of AF.
Area and Perimeter
Rectangles
Area of a rectangle = length width = × × l w
Perimeter of a rectangle
Circles
Area of a circle = πr
2
(where r is the radius)
Circumference of a circle = 2π π r d = (where d is the
diameter)
Triangles
Area of a triangle =
1
2
base altitude × ( )

Perimeter of a triangle = the sum of the lengths of the
three sides
Triangle Inequality: The sum of the lengths of any two
sides of a triangle must be greater than the length of the
third side.
4. The sum of the measures of the interior angles of a
polygon can be found by drawing all diagonals of
the polygon from one vertex and multiplying the
number of triangles formed by 180°.
Since this polygon is divided into
3 triangles, the sum of the mea-
sures of its angles is 3 × 180°, or
540°
Unless otherwise noted in the SAT, the term “polygon” will
be used to mean a convex polygon, that is, a polygon in
which each interior angle has a measure of less than 180°.
A polygon is “regular” if all its sides are congruent and all
its angles are congruent.
Side Relationships
1. Pythagorean Theorem: In any right triangle,
a b c
2 2 2
+ = , where c is the length of the longest
side and a and b are the lengths of the two
shorter sides.
To find the value of x,
use the Pythagorean
Theorem.
x
x
x
x
2 2 2
2
2
3 4
9 16
25
25 5
= +
= +
=
= =
2. In any equilateral triangle, all sides are congruent
and all angles are congruent.
Because the measure of
the unmarked angle is
60°, the measures of all
angles of the triangle are
equal; and, therefore, the
lengths of all sides of the
triangle are equal:
x y = = 10.
3. In an isosceles triangle, the angles opposite con-
gruent sides are congruent. Also, the sides opposite
congruent angles are congruent. In the figures
below, a b x y = = and .

SAT Preparation Booklet
18
Volume
Volume of a rectangular solid (or cube) = × × w h

(is the length, w is the width, and h is the height)
Volume of a right circular cylinder = πr h
2
(r is the radius of the base, and h is the height)
Be familiar with the formulas that are provided in the
Reference Information included with the test directions.
Refer to the test directions in the sample test in this
publication.
Coordinate Geometry
1. In questions that involve the x- and y-axes,
x-values to the right of the y-axis are positive
and x-values to the left of the y-axis are negative.
Similarly, y-values above the x-axis are positive
and y-values below the x-axis are negative. In an
ordered pair ( , ) x y , the x-coordinate is written first.
Point P in the figure above appears to lie at the
intersection of gridlines. From the figure, you can
conclude that the x-coordinate of P is −2 and the
y-coordinate of P is 3. Therefore, the coordinates
of point P are

( ) , −2 3 . Similarly, you can conclude
that the line shown in the figure passes through the
point with coordinates ( ) , − − 2 1 and the point ( ) , 2 2 .
2. Slope of a line
=
change in -coordinates
change in -coordin
y
x aates

Slope of PQ = =
4
2
2
Slope of l =
− −
− −
= −
1 2
2 2
3
4
( )
A line that slopes upward as you go from left to
right has a positive slope. A line that slopes down-
ward as you go from left to right has a negative
slope. A horizontal line has a slope of zero. The
slope of a vertical line is undefined.
Parallel lines have the same slope. The product
of the slopes of two perpendicular lines is −1,
provided the slope of each of the lines is defined.
For example, any line perpendicular to line
above has a slope of
4
3
.
The equation of a line can be expressed as
y mx b = + , where m is the slope and b is the

y-intercept. Since the slope of line is −
3
4
,
the equation of line can be expressed
as y x b = − +
3
4
. Since the point ( ) , −2 1 is on
the line, x y = − = 2 1 and

must satisfy the equa-
tion. Hence, 1
3
2
1
2
= + = − b b , so , and the
equation of line is y x = − −
3
4
1
2
.
3. A quadratic function can be expressed as
y a x h k = − ( ) +
2
where the vertex of the parabola
is at the point ( , ) h k and a ≠ 0. If a > 0, the
parabola opens upward; and if a < 0, the parabola
opens downward.
x
O
y
(–2, 4)
(1, 1)
The parabola above has its vertex at ( ) , −2 4 .
Therefore, h = −2 and k = 4. The equation can be
represented by y a x = + + ( ) 2 4
2
. Since the parab-
ola opens downward, we know that a < 0.
To find the value of a, we also need to know
another point on the parabola. Since we know
the parabola passes through the point ( , ), 1 1

x y = = 1 1 and

must satisfy the equation. Hence,

1 1 2 4
1
3
2
= + ( ) + = − a a , so . Therefore, an
equation for the parabola is

y x = − + ( ) +
1
3
2 4
2
.
The Mathematics Section
19
Data Analysis, Statistics, and
Probability
Measures of Center
An average is a statistic that is used to summarize data.
The most common type of average is the arithmetic mean.
The average (arithmetic mean) of a list of n numbers is
equal to the sum of the numbers divided by n.
For example, the mean of 2, 3, 5, 7, and 13 is equal to
2 3 5 7 13
5
6
+ + + +
= .
When the average of a list of n numbers is given, the sum
of the numbers can be found. For example, if the average
of six numbers is 12, the sum of these six numbers is
The median of a list of numbers is the number in the mid-
dle when the numbers are ordered from greatest to least or
from least to greatest. For example, the median of 3, 8, 2, 6,
and 9 is 6 because when the numbers are ordered,
2, 3, 6, 8, 9, the number in the middle is 6. When there is
an even number of values, the median is the same as the
mean of the two middle numbers. For example, the medi-
an of 6, 8, 9, 13, 14, and 16 is the mean of 9 and 13,
which is 11.
The mode of a list of numbers is the number that occurs
most often in the list. For example, 7 is the mode of 2, 7, 5,
8, 7, and 12. The list 2, 4, 2, 8, 2, 4, 7, 4, 9, and 11 has two
modes, 2 and 4.
Note: On the SAT, the use of the word average refers to the
arithmetic mean and is indicated by “average (arithmetic
mean).” An exception is when a question involves average
rate (see page 15). Questions involving median and mode
will have those terms stated as part of the question’s text.
Probability
Probability refers to the chance that a specific outcome can
occur. When outcomes are equally likely, probability can be
found by using the following definition:
number of ways that a specific outcome can occur
total number of possible outcomes
For example, if a jar contains 13 red marbles and 7 green
marbles, the probability that a marble selected from the jar
at random will be green is
If a particular outcome can never occur, its probability
is 0. If an outcome is certain to occur, its probability
is 1. In general, if p is the probability that a specific out-
come will occur, values of p fall in the range 0 1 ≤ ≤ p .
Probability may be expressed as either a decimal, a fraction,
or a ratio.
SAT Preparation Booklet
20
out techniques you’ll be able to use again. Most problems
can be solved in a variety of ways, so don’t be concerned
if your method is different from the one given. Note that
the directions indicate that you are to select the best of the
choices given.
The questions that follow will give you an idea of the type
of mathematical thinking required to solve problems on
the SAT. First, try to answer each question yourself, and
then read the solutions that follow. These solutions may
give you new insights into solving the problems or point
Directions
Sample Questions
Below are seven examples of standard multiple-choice
questions. Following each question, you will find one or
two solutions.
1. A special lottery is to be held to select the student
who will live in the only deluxe room in a dormi-
tory. There are 100 seniors, 150 juniors, and 200
sophomores who applied. Each senior’s name is
placed in the lottery 3 times; each junior’s name,
2 times; and each sophomore’s name, 1 time.
If a student's name is chosen at random from the
names in the lottery, what is the probability that a
senior's name will be chosen?
(A)
1
8
(B)
2
9
(C)
2
7

(D)
3
8
(E)
1
2

Correct answer: (D) / Difficulty level: Medium
N
o
t
e
s
1. The use of a calculator is permitted.
2. All numbers used are real numbers.
3. Figures that accompany problems in this test are intended to provide information useful in solving the problems.
They are drawn as accurately as possible EXCEPT when it is stated in a specific problem that the figure is not
drawn to scale. All figures lie in a plane unless otherwise indicated.
4. Unless otherwise specified, the domain of any function f is assumed to be the set of all real numbers x for which
f (x) is a real number.
h
r
r
h
b
A = r
2
C = 2 r
A = bh V = wh
V = r
2
h
The number of degrees of arc in a circle is 360.
The sum of the measures in degrees of the angles of a triangle is 180.
b
a
c
c
2
= a
2
+ b
2
Special Right Triangles
x 3
2x
x
60°
30°
s
s
45°
45°
A = w
w
w
h
R
e
f
e
r
e
n
c
e

I
n
f
o
r
m
a
t
i
o
n
2 s
1
2
For this section, solve each problem and decide which is the best of the choices given. Fill in the corresponding circle on the
answer sheet. You may use any available space for scratchwork.
To determine the probability that a senior’s name will be
chosen, you must determine the total number of seniors’
names that are in the lottery and divide this number
by the total number of names in the lottery. Since each
senior’s name is placed in the lottery 3 times, there
are 3 100 300 × = seniors’ names. Likewise, there are
2 150 300 × = juniors’ names and 1 200 200 × =
sophomores’ names in the lottery. The probability
that a senior’s name will be chosen is
300
300 300 200
300
800
3
8 + +
= = .
Multiple-Choice Questions
The Mathematics Section
21
NOONTIME TEMPERATURES IN HILO, HAWAII

Mon Tue Wed Thu Fri Sat Sun
66 78 75 69 78 77 70
2. The table above shows the temperatures at noon, in
degrees Fahrenheit, in a city in Hawaii over a one-
week period. If m represents the median of these tem-
peratures, f represents the temperature that occurred
most often, and a represents the average (arithmetic
mean) of these seven temperatures, which of the
following is the correct order of m, f, and a ?
(A) a m f < <

(B) a f m < < (C) m a f < <

(D) m f a < < (E) a m f = <
Correct answer: (A) / Difficulty level: Medium
To determine the correct order of m, f, and a, it is helpful
to first place the seven temperatures in ascending order as
shown below:
66 69 70 75 77 78 78
The median temperature is the middle temperature in
the ordered list, which is 75, so m = 75. The temperature
that occurred most often, or the mode, is 78, so f = 78. To
determine the average, you can add the seven numbers
together and divide by 7. However, you can determine
the relationship between the average and the median by
inspection. The three numbers greater than 75 are closer to
75 than are the three numbers smaller than 75. Therefore,
the average of the seven numbers will be less than 75. The
correct order of m, f, and a is a m f < < .
3. The projected sales volume of a video game
cartridge is given by the function s p
p a
( ) =
+
3000
2
,
where s is the number of cartridges sold, in
thousands; p is the price per cartridge, in dollars;
and a is a constant. If according to the projections,
100,000 cartridges are sold at $10 per cartridge,
how many cartridges will be sold at $20 per
cartridge?
(A) 20,000 (B) 50,000 (C) 60,000
(D) 150,000 (E) 200,000
Correct answer: (C) / Difficulty level: Medium
For 100,000 cartridges sold at $10 per cartridge,
s = 100 (since s is the number of cartridges sold,
in thousands) and p = 10. Substituting into the equation
yields 100
3000
2 10
=
( ) + a
. Solving this equation for a yields
100 20 3000
20 30
10
+ ( ) =
+ =
=
a
a
a
Since a is a constant, the function can be written as
s
p
p
( ) =
+
3000
2 10
. To determine how many cartridges will
be sold at $20 per cartridge, you need to evaluate
s 20
3000
2 20 10
60 ( ) =
( ) +
= . Since s is given in thousands,
there will be 60,000 cartridges sold at $20 per cartridge.
x
(1, 2)
y
O
4. In the xy-coordinate plane above, line contains the
points (0, 0) and (1, 2). If line m (not shown) contains
the point (0, 0) and is perpendicular to , what is an
equation of m ?
(A) y x = −
1
2
(B) y x = − +
1
2
1

(C) y x = −

(D) y x = − + 2

(E) y x = −2
Correct Answer: (A) / Difficulty level: Medium
Using the coordinates of the two points given on line ,


the slope of is
2 0
1 0
2


= .
Line m, which is perpendicular
to , will have a slope of −
1
2
, since slopes of perpendicular
lines are negative reciprocals of each other. An equation
of m can be written as y x b = − +
1
2
. Since line m also
contains point (0, 0), it follows that b = 0. Therefore, an
equation of line m is y x = −
1
2
.
SAT Preparation Booklet
22
Note: Figure not drawn to scale.
a b
c
5. If two sides of the triangle above have lengths 5
and 6, the perimeter of the triangle could be which
of the following?
I. 15
II. 20
III. 22
(A) I only (B) I and II only (C) I and III only
(D) II and III only (E) I, II, and III
Correct answer: (B) / Difficulty level: Hard
In questions of this type, statements I, II, and III should
each be considered independently of the others. In this
question, you must determine which of those statements
could be true.
● Statement I states that 15 could be the perimeter
of the triangle. This is true. If the perimeter of the
triangle is 15, and two sides have lengths 5 and
6, then the third side of the triangle would have
length 15 − (6 + 5), or 4. A triangle can have side
lengths of 4, 5, and 6. So the perimeter of the
triangle could be 15.
● Similarly, statement II is true. If 20 is the perimeter
of the triangle, then the third side of the triangle
would have length 20 – (6 + 5), or 9. A triangle can
have side lengths of 5, 6, and 9. So the perimeter of
the triangle could be 20.
● Finally, consider whether the triangle could have a
perimeter of 22. In this case, the length of the third
side would be 22 – (6 + 5) = 11. By the Triangle
Inequality, the sum of the lengths of any two sides
of a triangle must be greater than the length of the
third side. Since the sum of 5 and 6 is not greater
than 11, it follows that 5, 6, and 11 cannot be the
lengths of the sides of a triangle, and so the given
triangle cannot have a perimeter of 22.
Therefore, the correct answer to the question is I and II
only, which is choice (B).
6. If x
x
x
x
m
> = 1
3
and , what is the value of m ?
(A) −
7
2
(B) −3 (C) −
5
2

(D) −2 (E) −
3
2

Correct answer: (C) / Difficulty level: Medium
Since x can be written as x
1
2
and
1
3
x
can be
written as x
−3
, the left side of the equation is
x x x x x x
m
1
2
1
2
5
2
5
2
3
3
⋅ = = =








− −
. Since , the value
of m is −
5
2
.
7. If k is divisible by 2, 3, and 15, which of the follow-
ing is also divisible by these numbers?
(A) k + 5 (B) k + 15 (C) k + 20
(D) k + 30 (E) k + 45
Correct answer: (D) / Difficulty level: Medium
Since k is divisible by 2, 3, and 15, k must be a multiple
of 30, as 30 is the least common multiple of 2, 3, and 15.
Some multiples of 30 are 0, 30, 60, 90, and 120.
● If you add two multiples of 30, the sum will also be
a multiple of 30. For example, 60 and 90 are multiples
of 30 and their sum, 150, is also a multiple of 30.
● If you add a multiple of 30 to a number that is not
a multiple of 30, the sum will not be a multiple of
30. For example, 60 is a multiple of 30 and 45 is
not. Their sum, 105, is not a multiple of 30.
● The question asks which answer choice is divis-
ible by 2, 3, and 15—that is, which answer choice
is a multiple of 30. All the answer choices are in
the form of “k plus a number.” Only choice (D),
k + 30, is the sum of k and a multiple of 30. The
sum of k and 30 is also a multiple of 30, so the
correct answer is choice (D).
The Mathematics Section
23
Student-Produced Response Questions
Questions of this type have no answer choices provided.
Instead, you must solve the problem and fill in your answer
on a special grid. Ten questions on the test will be of this type.
It is very important for you to understand the directions for
entering answers on the grid. You will lose valuable testing
time if you read the directions for the first time when you
take the test.
A primary advantage of this format is that it allows you
to enter the form of the answer that you obtain, whether
whole number, decimal, or fraction. For example, if you
obtain 2/5, you can grid 2/5. If you obtain .4, you can grid .4.
Generally, you should grid the form of the answer that you
obtain naturally in solving the problem. The grid will only
hold numbers that range from 0 to 9999. Decimals and
fractions can also be gridded.
Each of the remaining questions requires you to solve the problem and enter your answer by marking the circles
in the special grid, as shown in the examples below. You may use any available space for scratchwork.
Decimal Answers: If you obtain a decimal answer
with more digits than the grid can accommodate,
it may be either rounded or truncated, but it must
fill the entire grid. For example, if you obtain
an answer such as 0.6666..., you should record
your result as .666 or .667. A less accurate value
such as .66 or .67 will be scored as incorrect.
Acceptable ways to grid are:
2
3
Note: You may start your answers
in any column, space permitting.
Columns not needed should be left
blank.
Mark no more than one circle in any column.
Because the answer sheet will be machine-
scored, you will receive credit only if the circles
are filled in correctly.
Although not required, it is suggested that you
write your answer in the boxes at the top of the
columns to help you fill in the circles accurately.
Some problems may have more than one correct
answer. In such cases, grid only one answer.
No question has a negative answer.
Mixed numbers such as 3 must be gridded as
3.5 or 7 2. (If is gridded, it will be
interpreted as , not 3 .)
1
2
1
2
31
2






1
2
3
4
5
6
0
1
2
3
4
5
6
0
1
2
3
4
5
6
0
1
2
3
4
5
6
1
2
3
4
5
6
¥
0
1
2
3
4
5
0
1
2
3
4
5
0
1
2
3
4
5
1
2
3
4
5
6
¥
0
1
2
3
4
5
0
1
2
3
4
5
0
1
2
3
4
5
6
Answer: 2.5
Fraction
line Decimal
point
Write answer
in boxes.
Grid in
result.
Answer: 201
Either position is correct.
7
12
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
0
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
0
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
0
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
0
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
0
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
0
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
1
2
3
4
0
1
2
3
4
0
1
2
3
4
0
1
2
3
4
0
1
2
3
4
0
1
2
3
0
1
2
3
1
2
3
Answer:

Below are the actual directions that you will find on the test—read them carefully.
● Do your best to be certain of your answer before
you grid it. If you erase your answer, do so com-
pletely. Incomplete erasures may be picked up by
the scoring machines as intended answers.
● Check your work if your answer does not fit on
the grid. If you obtain a negative value, a value
greater than 9999, or an irrational number, you
have made an error.
● Make an educated guess if you don’t know the
answer. On student-produced response (grid-in)
questions, you don’t lose points for wrong answers.
● Always enter your answer on the grid. Only
answers entered on the grid are scored. Your hand-
written answer at the top of the grid isn’t scored.
However, writing your answer at the top of the grid
may help you avoid gridding errors.
Approaches to Student-Produced
Response Questions
● Decide in which column you want to begin grid-
ding your answers before the test starts. This
strategy saves time. We recommend that you grid
the first (left-hand) column of the grid or that you
right-justify your answers.
● If the answer is zero, grid it in column 2, 3, or 4.
Zero has been omitted from column 1 to encour-
age you to grid the most accurate values for
rounded answers. For example, an answer of 1/8
could also be gridded as .125 but not as 0.12,
which is less accurate.
● A fraction does not have to be reduced unless it
will not fit the grid. For example, 15/25 will not
fit. You can grid 3/5, 6/10, or 9/15. The decimal
form, .6, can also be gridded.
SAT Preparation Booklet
24
9. For all positive integers a and b, let a ࡗ b be
defined by a ࡗ b =
+

a
a
b
1
1
. What is the value
of 4 ࡗ 2?
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
0
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
0
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
0
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
7 1 3
/
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
0
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
0
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
0
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
6 5 6
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
0
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
0
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
0
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
7 5 6
The words “let a ࡗ b be defined by” tell you that the symbol
ࡗ is not supposed to represent a common mathematical
operation but one that is made up for this question. To
evaluate 4 ࡗ 2, you substitute 4 for a and 2 for b in
the expression
a
a
b
+

1
1
.

This gives
4 1
4 1
2
+

, which equals
17
3
. The answer may be entered in the grid as 17/3 or as
5.66 or 5.67.
Difficulty level: Medium
10. Of the 6 courses offered by the music department
at her college, Kay must choose exactly 2 of them.
How many different combinations of 2 courses
are possible for Kay if there are no restrictions on
which 2 courses she can choose?
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
0
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
0
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
0
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9 9 9 9
5 1
There are 6 courses offered; let us refer to them as 1, 2, 3,
4, 5, and 6. One way to find the number of combinations is
to list all possible pairings. They are 1-2, 1-3, 1-4, 1-5, 1-6,
2-3, 2-4, 2-5, 2-6, 3-4, 3-5, 3-6, 4-5, 4-6, and 5-6. There are
15 combinations. Note that 1-2 and 2-1 represent the same
combination, so only one is in the list.
Sample Questions
Below are five examples of student-produced response
questions. Following each question, you will find a solution
and several ways to enter the correct answer.
4 7 5
3 8 1
x
x
− =
− =
8. What value of x satisfies both of the equations
above?

1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
0
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
0
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
0
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
1 2 /

1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
0
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
0
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
0
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
5

Since 4 7 5 x − = , the value of 4 7 5 5 x − − is either or .

4 7 5
4 12
3
x
x
x
− =
=
=

or
4 7 5
4 2
1
2
x
x
x
− = −
=
=
The two values of x that satisfy the first equation are
3 and
1
2
.
Since the value of is either 3 8 1 3 8 1 − = − x x , or −1.

3 8 1
8 2
1
4
− =
=
=
x
x
x

or
3 8 1
8 4
1
2
− = −
=
=
x
x
x
The two values of x that satisfy the second equation are
1
4
and
1
2
. You are asked to find the value of x that
satisfies both equations. That value is
1
2
. The answer can
be entered in the grid as 1/2 or .5.
Difficulty level: Hard
The Mathematics Section
25
You could also notice that there are 5 pairings that start
with course 1 and 4 additional pairings that start with
course 2, and so forth. The total number of combinations
is 5 4 3 2 1 15 + + + + = .
You could also solve the problem by noting that the total
number of permutations (that is, the number of differ-
ent ways 2 of 6 courses could be selected) is 6 for the first
course selected times 5 for the second course selected,
or 6 5 30 × = . To find the number of combinations, you
must divide the number of permutations by the number of
arrangements. For each pair of courses A-B selected,
the arrangement B-A is also possible. Therefore, there
are 2 arrangements. So the number of combinations is
30 2 15 ÷ = .
Difficulty level: Medium
11.
Let the function be defined by f f x x x ( ) = −
2
7 ++
+ ( ) =
10
1 0
.
, If what is one possible va f t llue of t ?

1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
0
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
0
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
0
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
1

1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
0
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
0
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
0
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
4
Since f x x x ( ) = − +
2
7 10, substituting t + ( ) 1 for x into
the function yields f t t t + ( ) = + ( ) − + ( ) + 1 1 7 1 10
2
, or
f t t t t + ( ) = + +
( )
− + ( ) + 1 2 1 7 7 10
2
, or
f t t t + ( ) = − + 1 5 4
2
.
Since f t + ( ) = 1 0, it follows that t t
2
5 4 0 − + = ,

or
t t − ( ) − ( ) = 1 4 0. Therefore, t t = = 1 4 or .
Another way to solve the question would be to use a
dummy variable k. For example, let k t = + 1.
f k k k k k ( ) = − + = − ( ) − ( )
2
7 10 5 2 .

Since k t = + 1
and f t + ( ) = 1 0,

it follows that f k ( ) = 0.

So
k k − ( ) − ( ) = 5 2 0, and therefore, k k = = 5 2 or .
Since or t k t t = − = = 1 4 1 , .
This question asks for one possible value of t. Either 1 or 4
satisfies the question being asked. Choose only one correct
answer (not both) to enter in the grid.
When there is a range of possible correct answers, your
gridded response must lie within the range. For example,
consider a problem for which all numbers between 4 and 5,
exclusive, are correct answers. For this problem, although
4.0002 is within the range 4 5 < < ( ) t , its rounded value
4.00 is not within the range and therefore would not be
considered a correct answer to the problem.
Difficulty level: Hard
12. Three parallel lines in a plane are intersected by
a fourth line, forming twelve angles. If one of the
angles has measure 28°, how many of the other
eleven angles have measure 28° ?
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
0
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
0
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
0
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
5
Drawing the figure described in the problem will help you
visualize the correct solution to the problem. The figure
below shows three parallel lines intersected by a fourth
line. The acute angle is labeled 28°.
28°
Using the fact that vertical angles and alternate interior
angles are equal, you can put a check showing the other
angles in the figure that also measure 28°, as shown below.
28°
There are 5 other angles that measure 28°. Therefore, the
correct answer to this problem is 5. The number 5 can be
gridded in any of the four columns on the answer grid.
Difficulty level: Easy
SAT Preparation Booklet
26
The Writing Section
The writing section includes both multiple-choice ques-
tions and a direct writing measure in the form of an essay.
The multiple-choice sections include:
● Improving sentences (25 questions)
● Identifying sentence errors (18 questions)
● Improving paragraphs (6 questions)
The multiple-choice sections measure your ability to
● communicate ideas clearly and effectively.
● improve a piece of writing through revision and
editing.
● recognize and identify sentence-level errors.
● understand grammatical elements and structures
and how they relate to each other in a sentence.
● recognize correctly formed grammatical structures.
● clearly express ideas through sentence-combining
and use of transitional words and phrases.
● improve coherence of ideas within and among
paragraphs.
Note: Calculators may not be on your desk or be used on
the writing section of the SAT.
Characteristics of Effective Writing
Multiple-choice writing questions focus on common problems associated with four characteristics of effective writing. Illustrations of problems are given
below. The fifth category of questions requires recognition of correct sentences and effective writing strategies.
Writing problem Sentence illustrating the problem Should be...
1. Being consistent
Sequence of tenses After he broke his arm, he is home for two weeks. After he broke his arm, he was home for two weeks.
Shift of pronoun If you are tense, one should try to relax. If you are tense, you should try to relax.
Parallelism She skis, plays tennis, and flying hang gliders. She skis, plays tennis, and flies hang gliders.
Noun agreement Carmen and Sarah are both a pilot. Carmen and Sarah are both pilots.
Pronoun reference Several people wanted the job, so he or she filled
out the required applications.
Several people wanted the job, so they filled out the
required applications.
Subject-verb agreement There is eight people on the shore. There are eight people on the shore.
2. Expressing ideas logically
Coordination and subordination Tawanda has a rash, and she is probably allergic to
something.
Tawanda has a rash; she is probably allergic to
something.
Logical comparison Nathan grew more vegetables than his neighbor’s
garden.
Nathan grew more vegetables than his neighbor
grew.
Modification and word order Barking loudly, the tree had the dog's leash wrapped
around it.
Barking loudly, the dog wrapped its leash around
the tree.
3. Being clear and precise
Ambiguous and vague pronouns In the newspaper they say that few people voted. The newspaper reported that few people voted.
Diction He circumvented the globe on his trip. He circumnavigated the globe on his trip.
Wordiness There are many problems in the contemporary world
in which we live.
There are many problems in the contemporary world.
Improper modification If your car is parked here while not eating in the
restaurant, it will be towed away.
If you park here and do not eat in the restaurant, your
car will be towed away.
4. Following conventions
Pronoun case He sat between you and I at the stadium. He sat between you and me at the stadium.
Idiom Natalie had a different opinion for her. Natalie had a different opinion of her.
Comparison of modifiers Of the sixteen executives, Naomi makes more money. Of the sixteen executives, Naomi makes the most
money.
Sentence fragment Fred having to go home early. Fred has to go home early.
Comma splice Mary took time out of her busy schedule to visit her
aunt, John decided to continue working through the
summer.
Mary took time out of her busy schedule to visit her
aunt, but John decided to continue working through
the summer.
5. Recognizing effective writing Some sentences require students to recognize that there is no error.
The Writing Section
27
Improving Sentences
This question type measures your ability to
● recognize and correct faults in grammar and
sentence structure.
● recognize effective sentences that follow the con-
ventions of standard written English.
Directions
The following sentences test correctness and effective-
ness of expression. Part of each sentence or the entire
sentence is underlined; beneath each sentence are five
ways of phrasing the underlined material. Choice A
repeats the original phrasing; the other four choices
are different. If you think the original phrasing pro-
duces a better sentence than any of the alternatives,
select choice A; if not, select one of the other choices.
In making your selection, follow the requirements of
standard written English; that is, pay attention to
grammar, choice of words, sentence construction, and
punctuation. Your selection should result in the most
effective sentence—clear and precise, without awkward-
ness or ambiguity.
EXAMPLE:
Laura Ingalls Wilder published her first book
and she was sixty-five years old then.
(A) and she was sixty-five years old then
(B) when she was sixty-five
(C) at age sixty-five years old
(D) upon the reaching of sixty-five years
(E) at the time when she was sixty-five
a , c d e
Answering Improving Sentences
Questions
Look carefully at the underlined portion of the sentence
because it may have to be revised. Keep in mind that the
rest of the sentence stays the same. Follow the two steps
below in answering each improving sentences question.
Step 1: Read the entire sentence carefully but quickly and
ask yourself whether the underlined portion is correct or
whether it needs to be revised.
In the example above, connecting the two ideas (“Laura
Ingalls Wilder published her first book”) and (“she was
sixty-five years old then”) with the word “and” indicates
that the two ideas are equally important. The word “and”
should be replaced to establish the relationship between
the two ideas.
Step 2: Read choices (A) through (E), replacing the under-
lined part with each answer choice to determine which
revision results in a sentence that is clear and precise and
meets the requirements of standard written English.
Remember that choice (A) is the same as the underlined
portion. Even if you think that the sentence does not
require correction and choice (A) is the correct answer, it
is a good idea to read each choice quickly to make sure.
● The word “and” indicates that the two ideas it con-
nects are equally important. No.
● Replacing the word “and” with “when” clearly
expresses the information that the sentence is intended
to convey by relating Laura Ingalls Wilder’s age to her
achievement. Yes, but continue to look at the other
revisions.
● Using the word “at” results in a phrase that is not
idiomatic. No.
● The phrase “upon the reaching of ” also results in a
phrase that is not idiomatic. No.
● The phrase “at the time when she was sixty-five” is
awkward and wordy. No.
Correct answer: (B) / Difficulty level: Easy
Sample Questions
1. Scenes from the everyday lives of African
Americans, which are realistically depicted in the
paintings of Henry Ossawa Tanner.
(A) Scenes from the everyday lives of African
Americans, which are realistically depicted in
the paintings of Henry Ossawa Tanner.
(B) Scenes from the everyday lives of African
Americans being realistically depicted in the
paintings of Henry Ossawa Tanner.
(C) The paintings of Henry Ossawa Tanner
realistically depict scenes from the everyday
lives of African Americans.
(D) Henry Ossawa Tanner, in his realistic
paintings, depicting scenes from the everyday
lives of African Americans.
(E) Henry Ossawa Tanner, whose paintings
realistically depict scenes from the everyday
lives of African Americans.
For a sentence to be grammatically complete, it must
include both a subject and a main verb. When a sentence
lacks either a subject or a main verb, the result is a sentence
fragment. In this example, all options but (C) are sentence
fragments.
SAT Preparation Booklet
28
Directions
The following sentences test your ability to recognize
grammar and usage errors. Each sentence contains
either a single error or no error at all. No sentence
contains more than one error. The error, if there is
one, is underlined and lettered. If the sentence con-
tains an error, select the one underlined part that
must be changed to make the sentence correct. If the
sentence is correct, select choice E.
In choosing answers, follow the requirements of
standard written English.
EXAMPLE:
The other delegates and him immediately
A B C
accepted the resolution drafted by the
D
neutral states. No error
E
a , c d e
Answering Identifying Sentence
Errors Questions
Ask yourself if any of the underlined words and phrases
in the sentence contains a grammar or usage error. Follow
the two steps below in answering each identifying sentence
errors question.
Step 1: Read the entire sentence carefully but quickly, pay-
ing attention to underlined choices (A) through (D). Keep
in mind that some sentences do not contain an error.
In the example above, “The other delegates and him” are the
people who “immediately accepted the resolution,” and the
phrase “drafted by the neutral states” describes “the resolu-
tion.” Check each underlined word or phrase for correctness.
● The phrase “The other” correctly modifies the
word “delegates.”
● The pronoun “him” is in the wrong case. (One
would not say “him immediately accepted.”) “Him”
is an error, but go on to check the other choices,
especially if you are not sure.
● The word “immediately” correctly modifies the verb
“accepted.”
● The phrase “drafted by” correctly expresses the
action of the “neutral states.”
Step 2: Select the underlined word or phrase that needs
to be changed to make the sentence correct. Mark (E) No
error if you believe that the sentence is correct as written.
In this case, select choice (B) because the underlined word
“him” must be changed to “he” to make the sentence correct.
Correct answer: (B) / Difficulty level: Easy
● In (A), the phrase “Scenes . . . Americans” is modi-
fied by the dependent clause “which . . . Tanner,”
but there is no main verb.
● In (B), the phrase “Scenes . . . Tanner” contains no
main verb.
● In (D), the noun “Henry Ossawa Tanner” is modified
by “depicting” but is not combined with a main verb.
● And in (E), the noun “Henry Ossawa Tanner”
is modified by the dependent clause “whose . . .
Americans” but not combined with a main verb.
● (C) is correct. It is the only choice in which a sub-
ject (“The paintings of Henry Ossawa Tanner”) is
combined with a verb (“depict”) to express a com-
plete thought.
Correct answer: (C) / Difficulty level: Medium
2. Looking up from the base of the mountain, the
trail seemed more treacherous than it really was.
(A) Looking up
(B) While looking up
(C) By looking up
(D) Viewing
(E) Viewed
When a modifying phrase begins a sentence, it must logi-
cally modify the sentence’s subject; otherwise, it is a dan-
gling modifier. In this example, every option except (E) is a
dangling modifier.
● In (A), the phrase “Looking up from the base of
the mountain” does not logically modify the sub-
ject “the trail.” A person might stand at the base of
a mountain and look up at a trail, but it is illogical
to suggest that a trail looks up from the base of a
mountain.
● (B), (C), and (D) are simply variations of the error
found in (A). Each results in a sentence that illogi-
cally suggests that a trail was looking up from the
base of a mountain.
● (E) is correct. Although a trail cannot itself look up
from the base of a mountain, a trail can be viewed
by someone looking up from the base of a moun-
tain, so the phrase “Viewed from the base of the
mountain” logically modifies the subject “the trail.”
Correct answer: (E) / Difficulty level: Hard
Identifying Sentence Errors
This question type measures your ability to
● recognize faults in grammar and usage.
● recognize effective sentences that follow the
conventions of standard written English.
The Writing Section
29
Sample Questions
3. The students have discovered that they can address

A B
issues more effectively through letter-writing

C

campaigns and not through public

D
demonstrations. No error

E
● The error in this sentence occurs at (D). When a
comparison is introduced by the adverb “more,” as
in “more effectively,” the second part of the com-
parison must be introduced by the conjunction
“than” rather than “and not.”
● The other options contain no errors. In (A), the plural
verb “have discovered” agrees with the plural sub-
ject “students.” In (B), the plural pronoun “they”
correctly refers to the plural noun “students.”
In (C), the preposition “through” appropriately
expresses the means by which issues are addressed.
● The sentence may be corrected as follows: The stu-
dents have discovered that they can address issues
more effectively through letter-writing campaigns
than through public demonstrations.
Correct answer: (D) / Difficulty level: Medium
4. After hours of futile debate, the committee has

A
decided to postpone further discussion

B
of the resolution until their next meeting.

C D
No error

E
● The error in this sentence occurs at (D). A pro-
noun must agree in number (singular or plural)
with the noun to which it refers. Here, the singular
verb “has” establishes “the committee” as a singular
noun; therefore, the plural pronoun “their” is used
incorrectly.
● The other options contain no errors. In (A), the
preposition “After” appropriately introduces a
phrase that indicates when the committee made
its decision. In (B), “to postpone” is the verb form
needed to complete the description of the commit-
tee’s decision. In (C), the prepositional phrase “of
the resolution” appropriately specifies the subject
of the postponed discussion.
● The sentence may be corrected as follows: After
hours of futile debate, the committee has decided
to postpone further discussion of the resolution
until its next meeting.
Correct answer: (D) / Difficulty level: Hard
Improving Paragraphs
This type of question measures your ability to
● edit and revise sentences in the context of a para-
graph or entire essay.
● organize and develop paragraphs in a coherent and
logical manner.
● apply the conventions of standard written English.
Directions
The following passage is an early draft of an essay.
Some parts of the passage need to be rewritten.
Read the passage and select the best answers for the
questions that follow. Some questions are about
particular sentences or parts of sentences and ask
you to improve sentence structure or word choice.
Other questions ask you to consider organization
and development. In choosing answers, follow the
requirements of standard written English.
Answering Improving Paragraphs
Questions
To answer the improving paragraphs questions that
accompany the draft essay, you will need to note what
sentences need to be corrected and to know how each of
the sentences relates to one another and to the essay as a
whole. Follow the steps below to answer the questions.
Step 1: Read the entire essay quickly to determine its over-
all meaning. The essay is intended as a draft, so you will
notice errors.
Step 2: In answering each question, make sure that your
answer about a particular sentence or group of sentences
makes sense in the context of the passage as a whole.
Choose the best answer from among the choices given,
even if you can imagine another correct response.
Sample Questions
Questions 5-7 are based on the following passage:
(1) Many times art history courses focus on the great
“masters,” ignoring those women who should have
achieved fame. (2) Often women artists like Mary Cassatt
have worked in the shadows of their male contemporaries.
(3) They have rarely received much attention during their
lifetimes.
(4) My art teacher has tried to make up for it by teaching
us about women artists and their work. (5) Recently she
came to class very excited; she had just read about a little-
known artist named Annie Johnson, a high school teacher
who had lived all of her life in New Haven, Connecticut.
(6) Johnson never sold a painting, and her obituary in
SAT Preparation Booklet
30
1937 did not even mention her many paintings. (7) Thanks
to Bruce Blanchard, a Connecticut businessman who
bought some of her watercolors at an estate sale. (8) Johnson
is finally starting to get the attention that she deserved
more than one hundred years ago. (9) Blanchard now owns
a private collection of hundreds of Johnson’s works—
watercolors, charcoal sketches, and pen-and-ink drawings.
(10) There are portraits and there are landscapes.
(11) The thing that makes her work stand out are the por-
traits. (12) My teacher described them as “unsentimental.”
(13) They do not idealize characters. (14) Characters are
presented almost photographically. (15) Many of the peo-
ple in the pictures had an isolated, haunted look. (16) My
teacher said that isolation symbolizes Johnson’s life as an
artist.
5. In context, which is the best revision to the under-
lined portion of sentence 3 (reproduced below)?
They have rarely received much attention during
their lifetimes.
(A) In fact, they had
(B) Too bad these artists have
(C) As a result, these women have
(D) In spite of this, women artists
(E) Often it is the case that the former have
Although sentence 3 is not grammatically incorrect, its
relationship to the preceding sentence needs to be made
clearer. A transitional phrase should be added to empha-
size the cause-and-effect relationship between the stated
facts—women artists received little attention as a conse-
quence of having worked in the shadows of their male con-
temporaries—and the ambiguous pronoun “They” should
be replaced with a word or phrase that clearly refers to the
“women artists” and not the “male contemporaries” men-
tioned in sentence 2.
● (A), (B), and (D) are unsatisfactory because in each
case the transitional phrase (“In fact,” “Too bad,” or
“In spite of this”) fails to indicate the cause-and-
effect relationship. Moreover, both (A) and (B)
leave the ambiguity of the pronoun unresolved.
● (E) is unsatisfactory not only because it fails to
signal the cause-and-effect relationship, but also
because it is wordy and illogically combines the
adverbs “Often” and “rarely.”
● (C) is correct. The transitional phrase “As a result”
clearly indicates a cause-and-effect relationship,
and “these women” properly resolves the ambiguity
of the pronoun “They.”
Correct answer: (C) / Difficulty level: Hard
6. In context, which of the following revisions to sen-
tence 7 is most needed?
(A) Delete “Thanks to”.
(B) Move “Thanks to Bruce Blanchard” to the end
of sentence 7.
(C) Delete “who”.
(D) Change “her” to “Johnson’s”.
(E) Change the period to a comma and combine
sentence 7 with sentence 8.

Sentence 7 is a sentence fragment, with neither a subject
nor a main verb to finish the thought it has begun. It says
“Thanks to Bruce Blanchard,” but it does not say what
happened thanks to Bruce Blanchard. It should therefore
be joined to an independent clause, complete with sub-
ject and verb, that indicates what happened as a result of
Blanchard’s action.
● (A), (B), and (D) are unsatisfactory because each fails
to provide the main verb needed to complete the sen-
tence. Each results in another sentence fragment.
● Although (C) results in a complete sentence, the
sentence makes little sense in the context of the
paragraph because it suggests that Bruce Blanchard
is someone other than the Connecticut business-
man who bought the watercolors.
● (E) is correct. This change results in a grammati-
cally complete sentence that indicates what hap-
pened thanks to Bruce Blanchard’s efforts: Johnson
began to get the attention she deserved.
Correct answer: (E) / Difficulty level: Medium
7. In context, which of the following is the best version
of sentence 10 (reproduced below)?
There are portraits and there are landscapes.
(A) (As it is now)
(B) You can see both portraits and landscapes.
(C) Therefore, both portraits and landscapes are
among her works.
(D) Johnson painted both portraits and landscapes.
(E) Among them Johnson has portraits and landscapes.
In addition to being vague, sentence 10 contains no noun
to which the pronoun “her” in sentence 11 may refer. It
should be revised so that Johnson is clearly identified as
the painter of the portraits and landscapes.
● (A), (B), and (C) are unsatisfactory because they
do not mention Johnson.
● Though (E) does mention Johnson, it is mislead-
ing in that the words “Johnson has” suggest that
Johnson is the owner rather than the painter of the
portraits and landscapes.
● (D) is correct because it properly identifies Johnson
as the painter of the artworks and thus provides an
antecedent for the pronoun “her” in sentence 11.
Correct answer: (D) / Difficulty level: Easy
The Writing Section
31
The Essay
The essay measures your ability to
● develop a point of view on an issue presented in an
excerpt.
● support your point of view using reasoning and
examples from your reading, studies, experience, or
observations.
● follow the conventions of standard written English.
Approaches to the Essay
There are no short cuts to success on the SAT essay. You
will not receive high scores on your essay just because it is
long, or has five paragraphs, or uses literary examples. The
high school and college teachers who score the SAT reward
essays that insightfully develop a point of view with appro-
priate reasons and examples and that use language skill-
fully. So what can you do to write a successful SAT essay?
● Read the entire assignment. It’s all there to help
you. Every essay assignment contains a short
paragraph about the issue. Imagine that you are
talking to the author of the paragraph about the
issue. Would you argue with him or her, or agree?
What other ideas or examples would you bring up?
Answering these questions will help you develop
your own point of view.
● Don’t oversimplify. Developing your point of view
doesn’t mean coming up with as many examples as
you can. Rushing to give multiple relevant exam-
ples can lead you to oversimplify a complex topic.
An essay with one or two thoughtful, well-
developed reasons or examples is more likely to
get a high score than an essay with three short,
simplistic examples.
● There’s nothing wrong with “I.” You are asked to
develop your point of view on the issue, not give
a straight report of the facts. This is your opinion,
so feel free to use “I,” and give examples that are
meaningful to you, even ones from your personal
life or experiences. Of course you need to support
your ideas appropriately and show that you can
use language well, but remember: the essay is an
opportunity for you to say what you think about
an issue relevant to your life.
Directions
The essay gives you an opportunity to show how
effectively you can develop and express ideas. You
should, therefore, take care to develop your point of
view, present your ideas logically and clearly, and use
language precisely.
Your essay must be written on the lines provided on
your answer sheet—you will receive no other paper
on which to write. You will have enough space if you
write on every line, avoid wide margins, and keep
your handwriting to a reasonable size. Remember that
people who are not familiar with your handwriting
will read what you write. Try to write or print so that
what you are writing is legible to those readers.
Important Reminders:

A pencil is required for the essay. An essay written
in ink will receive a score of zero.

Do not write your essay in your test book. You
will receive credit only for what you write on your
answer sheet.

An off-topic essay will receive a score of zero.

If your essay does not reflect your original and
individual work, your test scores may be canceled.
You have 25 minutes to write an essay on the topic
assigned below.

Think carefully about the issue presented in the fol-
lowing excerpt and the assignment below.
Many persons believe that to move up the
ladder of success and achievement, they must
forget the past, repress it, and relinquish it.
But others have just the opposite view. They
see old memories as a chance to reckon with
the past and integrate past and present.
Adapted from Sara Lawrence-Lightfoot,
I’ve Known Rivers: Lives of Loss and
Liberation
Assignment: Do memories hinder or help people in their
effort to learn from the past and succeed in the present?
Plan and write an essay in which you develop your point
of view on this issue. Support your position with reasoning
and examples taken from your reading, studies, experience,
or observations.
Receive immediate essay scoring for this essay
prompt and many more in The Official SAT
Online Course

. Learn more at
collegeboard.com/satonlinecourse.
SAT Preparation Booklet
32
Sample Essays
Score of 6:
Without our past, our future would be a tortuous path
leading to nowhere. In order to move up the ladder of success
and achievement we must come to terms with our past and
integrate it into our future. Even if in the past we made mis-
takes, this will only make wiser people out of us and guide us
to where we are supposed to be.
This past year, I was auditioning for the fall play, “Cat
on a Hot Tin Roof.” To my detriment I thought it would be
a good idea to watch the movie in order to prepare. For two
hours I studied Elizabeth Taylor’s mannerisms, attitude,
and diction, hoping I could mimic her performance. I audi-
tioned for the part of “Maggie” feeling perfectly confident in
my portrayal of Elizabeth Taylor, however, I was unaware
that my director saw exactly what I had been thinking.
Unfortunately, I didn’t get the part, and my director told
me that he needed to see “Maggie” from my perspective, not
Elizabeth Taylor’s.
I learned from this experience, and promised myself I
would not try to imitate another actress, in order to create
my character. Perservering, I was anxious to audition for the
winter play just two months later. The play was Neil Simon’s
“Rumors,” and would get the opportunity to play “Chris,”
a sarcastic yet witty role, which would be my final perfor-
mance in high school. In order to develop my character, I
planned out her life just as I thought it should be, gave her
the voice I thought was right, and the rest of her char acter
unfolded beautifully from there. My director told me after
the first show that “Rumors” was the best work he’d ever
seen from me, and that he was amazed at how I’d devel-
oped such a believable character. Thinking back to my first
audition I was grateful for that chance I had to learn and
to grow, because without that mistake I might have tried to
base “Chris” off of someone I’d known or something I’d seen
instead of becoming my own character. I utilized the memo-
ry of the Elizabeth Taylor debacle to improve my approach to
acting and gave the best performance of my life so far.
This essay effectively and insightfully develops its point of
view (In order to move up the ladder of success and achieve-
ment we must come to terms with our past and integrate it
into our future) through a clearly appropriate extended
example drawing on the writer’s experience as an actor.
The essay exhibits outstanding critical thinking by pre-
senting a well-organized and clearly focused narrative that
aptly illustrates the value of memory. The essay also uses
language skillfully, demonstrating meaningful variety in
sentence structure (To my detriment I thought it would be
a good idea to watch the movie in order to prepare. For two
hours I studied Elizabeth Taylor’s mannerisms, attitude, and
diction, hoping I could mimic her performance. I auditioned
for the part of “Maggie” feeling perfectly confident in my por-
trayal of Elizabeth Taylor, however, I was unaware that my
director…). Despite minor errors, the essay demonstrates
clear and consistent mastery and is scored a 6.
Score of 6:
Memories act as both a help and a hinderance to the
success of someone. Many people advise you to learn from
the past and apply those memories so that you can effectively
succeed by avoiding repeating your past mistakes. On the
other hand, people who get too caught up with the past are
unable to move on to the future.
Elie Wiesel’s memoir Night perfectly exemplifies the
double nature of memories. Wiesel, a Jewish man, suffered
heavily throughout the Holocaust and Night is rife with
horrific descriptions of his experience. These memories help
to spread the view of what life was like. Through recounting
these memories, Wiesel is able to educate world readers
about the atrocities committed in hopes that the same
blatant violations of human rights are never repeated again.
Through reliving the Holocaust through his writing, Wiesel
was inspired to become proactive in the battle for civil rights.
Some would point to his peaceful actions and the sales of his
book and label him a success.
Despite the importance of recounting such memories,
Wiesel acknowledges the damage that memories can also
cause. Following his liberation from the Auschwitz concen-
tration camp, Wiesel was a bitter, jaded man. He could not
even write Night until several years later. The end of the
novel describes Wiesel’s gradual but absolute loss of faith
throughout the experience. His past experiences haunted him
for several years, rendering him passive. It was not until he
set aside his past that he could even focus on the future. Had
he remained so consumed with the pain and damage caused
in the past, he may never have achieved the success that he
has attained.
Overall, Wiesel’s experiences exemplify the importance
of the past as a guide. Wiesel’s past experiences helped to
guide him in later life, but it was not until he pushed them
aside that he could move on. To me this means that you
should rely on your past without letting it control you. Allow
your past to act as a guide, while making sure that you are
also living in the present and looking to the future.
This essay exhibits outstanding critical thinking by effec-
tively and insightfully developing its point of view (you
should rely on your past without letting it control you)
through the clearly appropriate example of Elie Wiesel’s
Holocaust memoir, Night. The essay demonstrates clear
coherence and smooth progression of ideas, carefully
contrasting Wiesel’s success in using his memories to gain
attention for his cause with the difficulty Wiesel faced in
dealing with those same powerful memories. The essay
uses language skillfully to convey Wiesel’s struggle (Despite
the importance of recounting such memories, Wiesel acknowl-
edges the damage that memories can also cause. Following
his liberation from the Auschwitz concentration camp, Wiesel
was a bitter, jaded man. He could not even write Night until
several years later). The essay demonstrates clear and con-
sistent mastery and receives a 6.
The Writing Section
33
Score of 5:
Memories and past experiences serve as a rail, a guid-
ing support, for people in an effort to succeed in the present.
People not only learn from the past, but the very act of going
through something provides experience for a person who is
to “move up the ladder of success and achievement”.
Some view failed experiences as a hinderance to future
success. This is very untrue because history has a tendency
of repeating itself, and in recognizing past failures, one can
learn how to successfully approach similar situations in
the future. An example of this is looking back in history to
WWI. Sedition acts at this time allowed for the imprison-
ment of anyone who voiced an opinion against the presi-
dent, or against the war. America recognized this shady
time in its past, and instead of covering it up in a move-
ment towards a more democratic nation, these acts were
published in textbooks and taught to students. Americans
saw the poor judgement of this situation and later with the
war in Iraq, approached “patriotism” differently. With this
present war, those adverse to the war are able to voice their
opinions without fear of imprisonment or death. In seeing
the undemocratic ways of an earlier era, America was able
to recognize the bad and try to reform it. If the Sedition Acts
had been forgotten then what is to say that they wouldn’t
come back? Remembering the failed times insures that
improvement is possible.
In my personal experience, I have found that the very act
of living through something not only matures me, but also
provides skills and knowledge. In remembering past events, I
am able to use them as reference, and sometimes assurance.
A personal example, somewhat juvenile, but also effective, is
when my first pet died. I was devastated and wanted to just
clear my mind of the event, but I didn’t. After time, I recov-
ered, but maintained the memory of this horrible tragedy.
Later in life, another pet died. I looked back to that memory
as a guide and learned from it that in time I would be fine
and to just hang on. In this situation, a memory served as a
reference and catalyzed in my personal growth and recovery.
Memories, good or bad, assist people in obtaining suc-
cess. Whether used as reference for guidance, or lessons
on what not to do, past experiences can only offer a gap
between the steps on the ladder of success. Forgetting the
past can and will only erase experience and knowledge from
a person and in affect hinder one in seeking achievement. In
looking at historical repeats and personal events, it is clear
that old memories can only aid in success.
This essay effectively develops its point of view (Memories
and past experiences serve as a rail, a guiding support, for
people in an effort to succeed in the present) through the
appropriate examples of dissent during wartime and
grieving for a pet, thus demonstrating strong critical think-
ing. Well organized and focused, the essay demonstrates
coherence and progression of ideas (In seeing the undemo-
cratic ways of an earlier era, America was able to recognize
the bad and try to reform it. If the Sedition Acts had been
forgotten then what is to say that they wouldn’t come back?
Remem bering the failed times insures that improvement is
possible). The essay also uses appropriate vocabulary and
demonstrates effective variety in sentence structure. To
earn a 6, this writer needs to achieve smoother progression
of ideas by using language more skillfully (the phrase “past
experiences can only offer a gap between the steps on the
ladder of success” seems to express the opposite of what
the writer intends). The essay demonstrates reasonably
consistent mastery and receives a 5.
Score of 5:
I agree with Ms. Sara Lawrence-Lightfoot in saying
that some people “see old memories as a chance to reckon
with the past and integrate past and present.” Many people
are so troubled by things that happened in their past that
they are not able to focus on the present. For example, in
the book Ceremony, by Leslie Marmon Silko, Tayo, the main
character, can not concentrate on the present because he
constantly hounds himself over things that happened dur-
ing World War II and his troubled childhood. However,
past memories can help people to succeed in the present. An
historical example of people learning from the past would
be the Marshall Plan. After the conclusion of World War II
there were many countries around the world in need of eco-
nomical assistence to help rebuild their war torn countries,
and the United States would have to be the one to provide
that assistence. Many American politicians thought it was
foolish for the US government to spend money abroad on
countries that would not be able to repay the loan for a long
time. However, George Marshall, a former general and later
Secretary of State under President Truman, remembered
how the exact same argument of “why should we spend
money on war torn nations that really owe us reparations?”
had been used after World War I towards Germany. The lack
of assistence towards Germany after World War I had caused
a gigantic economic depression in Germany that had made
the Mark (German money) virtually worthless. The German
people became so desperate that they started supporting an
extreme German nationalist named Adolf Hitler, who even-
tually started World War II. Marshall knew that if the US
did not help war torn Germany and, especially, Japan, we
could eventually have a World War III on our hands.
This focused essay effectively develops its point of view and
demonstrates strong critical thinking (Many people are so
troubled by things that happened in their past that they are
not able to focus on the present. . . . However, past memories
can help people to succeed in the present). The essay uses
appropriate reasoning and examples and demonstrates
coherence and progression of ideas (Many American politi-
cians thought it was foolish for the US government to spend
money abroad on countries that would not be able to repay
the loan for a long time. However, George Marshall . . .
remembered how the exact same argument . . . had been used
after World War I towards Germany). The essay also exhibits
facility in the use of language. To earn a score of 6, the
writer needs to achieve clearer coherence and smoother
progression of ideas by integrating the example of
Ceremony more effectively into the overall essay, perhaps
through an extended comparison of Tayo’s and Marshall’s
experiences of World War II. The essay demonstrates rea-
sonably consistent mastery and is scored a 5.
SAT Preparation Booklet
34
Score of 4:
Interestingly enough, I fall in the middle of these state-
ments. I believe that one should remember the past and
learn from those events. However, I also believe that many
bad memories harm the present and the future. The only
way to continue, many times, is to forget and forgive.
My brother, who is college, has proved to me the impor-
tance of getting good grades and actively participating in
extracorrecular activities. These two ideas helped him to get
into the prestegious college of the University of Notre Dame.
His education there will allow him to have a prosperous
career as an adult. Reviewing these facts and ideas has led
me to believe if I do the same, I will have a similar promising
career. Consequently, I have gotten good grades and have seen
interest from many prestigious programs.
Through my knowledge, I have learned that in many
bad instances, time to forget is very important. Ireland, for
example, had been persecuted for many hundreds of years
from 1000 AD to 1900 AD. After being granted the Irish Free
State, they attacked many parts of Britain for retribution of
those many years of being oppressed. Consequently there has
been on going hostility between the two peoples. This hostil-
ity has cost the lives of many hundreds of people. A quote
once said, “Violence begets violence” is the perfect phrase for
this warfare. The only way to stop the loss of life is to forget
and forgive; start anew.
Different situations require different actions to proceed
in a positive manner. Many times, people are required to use
both elements. For example, let’s forget this part and
concentrate on how to bring this positive part into light.
Both of the ideas on remembering and forgetting have their
reasons for existing and both are positive.
This essay provides adequate reasons and examples to
support both aspects of its point of view (I believe that
one should remember the past and learn from those events.
However, I also believe that many bad memories harm the
present and the future), thus demonstrating competent crit-
ical thinking. The essay is generally organized and focused
and features coherence and progression of ideas. Facility in
the use of language is adequate, despite some inconsisten-
cies (Through my knowledge, I have learned that in many
bad instances, time to forget is very important). The essay
also has some errors in grammar, usage, and mechanics. To
earn a higher score, the writer should provide additional
appropriate evidence and use critical thinking to extend
the discussion of situations in which “people are required
to use both elements.” The essay demonstrates adequate
mastery and receives a 4.
Score of 4:
The point of making mistakes is to learn from them.
If you don’t learn from what you do wrong, then making
mistakes has no silver lining, it is purely bad. I have come to
believe this through personal experience and watching others.
When climbing the “ladder of success,” each step gets
you closer to the top. Therefore each step is a mistake that
you learned from, a good decision, or even a stroke of luck.
How could a person climb that ladder without each and
every wooden rung to help them? I am human, therefor,
far from perfect, I make mistakes all of the time and I am a
better person because of that. You could almost say that the
more mistakes a person makes, the stronger a person they
are, assuming of course that they learn from them.
As a child I stole cookies from the cookie jar, lied to my
parents (still happens every once in awhile), and played
tricks on my brothers. I, in turn, got in trouble with my par-
ents and was punished. After that I learned that those things
aren’t okay. Now I tend to make different mistakes, such as,
going to places that aren’t safe for me, and giving up when
things get hard. Life is a huge cycle of making mistakes and
learning from them. That is why people can become so wise
and strong in what they do, they make good out of the bad.
I also see people close to me using problems and mis-
takes to make a good situation out of a bad one. My parents,
my brothers, and my closest friends are all slowly building
up the knowledge to be successful. How can a person be more
successful by forgetting what they have already learned?
That doesn’t push you forward it just holds a person back.
Even if a person wanted to forget their past, they couldn’t.
It’s like forgetting that if a stove is turned on and you touch
it, it will burn you.
This essay develops a point of view (Life is a huge cycle of
making mistakes and learning from them) with adequate
reasons and examples, thus demonstrating competent criti-
cal thinking. Generally organized and focused around the
notion that remembering past learning experiences is cru-
cial for success, the essay is marked by coherence and pro-
gression of ideas (As a child I stole cookies from the cookie
jar, lied to my parents . . . , and played tricks on my brothers.
I, in turn, got in trouble with my parents and was punished.
After that I learned that those things aren’t okay. Now I tend
to make different mistakes). The essay also exhibits adequate
facility in the use of language, despite some errors (I am
human, therefor, far from perfect, I make mistakes all of the
time and I am a better person because of that). To attain a
higher score, the writer needs to support and extend the
essay’s argument with additional focused examples of peo-
ple learning, or not learning, from their experiences. The
essay demonstrates adequate mastery and is scored a 4.
The Writing Section
35
Score of 3:
Memories can be helpful to some and hinder others. I
believe that memories from different aspects of ones life have
different consequences. One memory may be bad and it may
be best forgotten about, when trying to succeed. Though
some memories may give on strength to suceed in achieving
a higher status in life.
When a person completes a task they have done once
before, it trigers a memory and lets the reader reflect on that
particular time in life. For example, a sporting team at the
local high school makes it to the state championships, but
severly loses to their opponent, the next time they get to the
state championships they may think about the past and how
they lost before, and it may hinder there feelings and they
may once again lose. This demonstrates how a memory can
ruin a certain activity for ever. On the other hand a memory
can also help someone to move up the ladder of success. As
an example if a person has cancer and is given treatment
then diagnosed in remission they feel like they have beat the
cancer. When the patient in remission is later told that the
cancer has grown back, the patient might feel that they can
kill the cancer again because when looking at the past they
see they have beat it once why not beat it again. This demon-
strates how a memory can be helpful to a person. In this case
it did not help the person climb the ladder of success though
it helped the to continue climbing the ladder of life to the
extent that they were able to climb.
Those two short examples just go to demonstrate how
memories of the past can both help and hinder a person in
their path of not only success but also in the path of life.
This essay develops a point of view (Memories can be help-
ful to some and hinder others) and shows some critical
thinking by providing examples of the positive and nega-
tive effects of memories. However, the examples are limited
in focus, featuring some lapses in coherence and progres-
sion of ideas, and are thus inadequate to support the posi-
tion. The essay also demonstrates occasional problems
in sentence structure and mechanics. To achieve a higher
score, this writer needs to use critical thinking to clarify
and expand each example by adding additional focused
reasoning and details. The writer also needs to avoid using
run-on sentences (. . . when looking at the past they see they
have beat it once why not beat it again). The essay demon-
strates developing mastery and earns a 3.
Score of 2:
I think it is wrong to believe that to move up the ladder
of success and achievement, that they must forget the past,
repress it, and relinquish it. Everything you did and saw in
the past helps you to move on. Every single happy moment,
every mistake you make is getting a part of you. Your actions
become habits which creates your personality and helps you
to make your own experience. Therefore memories help peo-
ple in their effort to learn from the past and succeed in the
present. Everything we do has to do with our experiences in
the past, the way we get along with people or treat them, the
way we turn out to be an adult. If you don’t live with mak-
ing your own decisions, mistakes, and your experience with
people and the world or school you won’t have any examples
to compare or to handle any coming situations in the future.
If you get everything told you by someone, you will always
wait for other people to make decisions for you and won’t
have your own point of view. For succeed you have to know
what you want, to find that out, you have to have been
through some difficult situations in the PAST.
Although it expresses a point of view (I think it is wrong
to believe that to move up the ladder of success and achieve-
ment, that they must forget the past, repress it, and relinquish
it), this essay is seriously limited, exhibiting weak critical
thinking, insufficient use of evidence, and serious problems
with progression of ideas. The essay also demonstrates fre-
quent problems in usage, grammar, and sentence structure.
To achieve a higher score, the writer needs to develop the
point of view with reasons and specific examples instead
of merely repeating the same vague ideas (Everything you
did and saw in the past helps you to move on. . . . Everything
we do has to do with our experiences in the past). The essay
demonstrates little mastery and is scored a 2.
Score of 1:
My oppion on this topic are oposing memories and
favoring them. People do succed with repeating their memo-
ries. They might have horrible memories but also succeed
because they don’t repeat the past. I also think memories
should not rule the present. If you let the past overcome the
preset you won’t get any where. This is why memories should
be guidelines, not rules. If you repeat the past it won’t come
out as well as it did because the world has changed. See the
past will never change with the world, but the world will
change to overcome the past. So in conclusion don’t forget
the past or live in it, and the past is only guidelines.
This minimal essay demonstrates very little mastery, offer-
ing only a collection of general ideas in support of the
writer’s point of view (don’t forget the past or live in it, and
the past is only guidelines). The evidence presented is disor-
ganized and unfocused, resulting in a disjointed essay. To
earn a higher score, this writer needs to provide additional
focused evidence that develops the point of view, including
specific examples. The essay demonstrates very little mas-
tery and receives a 1.
SAT Preparation Booklet
36
Scoring the Essay
Essays are scored in a manner that is fair and consistent,
using a holistic approach. In holistic scoring, a piece of
writing is considered as a total work, the whole of which is
greater than the sum of its parts. Essays are scored by expe-
rienced high school teachers and college faculty members.
The majority of essay readers teach English, composition,
or language arts courses. Each essay is scored indepen dently
by two readers on a scale of 1 to 6, with 6 being the highest
score. The combined score for both readers will range from
2 to 12. If the two readers’ scores are more than one point
apart, a third reader resolves the discrepancy.
In scoring the essays, readers follow the scoring guide below.
The scoring guide describes the features typically found in
essays at each score point, including critical thinking, devel-
opment, organization, language use, and sentence structure.
A student can get a top score on the essay even with minor
errors in grammar, usage, and mechanics. The SAT essay
neither rewards nor penalizes formulaic approaches to writ-
ing, such as the five-paragraph essay.
There is no formula for effective writing, no single best
way to communicate an idea. Any essay that features clear
lines of reasoning, appropriate choices of evidence, ample
development of ideas, effective organization, and precise
use of language will receive a high score, regardless of style
or approach. Readers are trained to recognize and reward a
wide variety of essays at each score point.
SCORING GUIDE
SCORE OF 6 SCORE OF 5 SCORE OF 4
An essay in this category demonstrates clear and
consistent mastery, although it may have a few
minor errors. A typical essay
An essay in this category demonstrates reason-
ably consistent mastery, although it will have
occasional errors or lapses in quality. A typical
essay
An essay in this category demonstrates adequate
mastery, although it will have lapses in quality. A
typical essay
• effectively and insightfully develops a point
of view on the issue and demonstrates
outstanding critical thinking, using clearly
appropriate examples, reasons, and other
evidence to support its position
• effectively develops a point of view on the
issue and demonstrates strong critical thinking,
generally using appropriate examples, reasons,
and other evidence to support its position
• develops a point of view on the issue and
demonstrates competent critical thinking,
using adequate examples, reasons, and other
evidence to support its position
• is well organized and clearly focused,
demonstrating clear coherence and smooth
progression of ideas
• is well organized and focused, demonstrating
coherence and progression of ideas
• is generally organized and focused, demon-
strating some coherence and progression of
ideas
• exhibits skillful use of language, using a
varied, accurate, and apt vocabulary
• exhibits facility in the use of language, using
appropriate vocabulary
• exhibits adequate but inconsistent facility in
the use of language, using generally appropri-
ate vocabulary
• demonstrates meaningful variety in sentence
structure
• demonstrates variety in sentence structure • demonstrates some variety in sentence
structure
• is free of most errors in grammar, usage, and
mechanics
• is generally free of most errors in grammar,
usage, and mechanics
• has some errors in grammar, usage, and
mechanics
SCORE OF 3 SCORE OF 2 SCORE OF 1
An essay in this category demonstrates
developing mastery, and is marked by ONE OR
MORE of the following weaknesses:
An essay in this category demonstrates little
mastery, and is flawed by ONE OR MORE of the
following weaknesses:
An essay in this category demonstrates very little
or no mastery, and is severely flawed by ONE OR
MORE of the following weaknesses:
• develops a point of view on the issue, demon-
strating some critical thinking, but
may do so inconsistently or use inadequate
examples, reasons, or other evidence to
support its position
• develops a point of view on the issue that is
vague or seriously limited, and demonstrates
weak critical thinking, providing inappropriate
or insufficient examples, reasons, or other
evidence to support its position
• develops no viable point of view on the issue,
or provides little or no evidence to support its
position
• is limited in its organization or focus, or may
demonstrate some lapses in coherence or
progression of ideas
• is poorly organized and/or focused, or
demonstrates serious problems with coherence
or progression of ideas
• is disorganized or unfocused, resulting in a
disjointed or incoherent essay
• displays developing facility in the use of lan-
guage, but sometimes uses weak vocabulary
or inappropriate word choice
• displays very little facility in the use of
language, using very limited vocabulary or
incorrect word choice
• displays fundamental errors in vocabulary
• lacks variety or demonstrates problems in
sentence structure
• demonstrates frequent problems in sentence
structure
• demonstrates severe flaws in sentence
structure
• contains an accumulation of errors in grammar,
usage, and mechanics
• contains errors in grammar, usage, and
mechanics so serious that meaning is
somewhat obscured
• contains pervasive errors in grammar, usage,
or mechanics that persistently interfere with
meaning
Essays not written on the essay assignment will receive a score of zero.
37
Official SAT Practice
Test
About the Practice Test
Take the practice test, which starts on page 46, to reinforce
your test-taking skills and to be more comfortable when
you take the SAT. This practice test will give you a good
idea of what to expect on the actual test. However, the test
you eventually take will differ in some ways. It may, for
example, contain a different number of reading passages,
and its sections may be in a different order.
Also, this practice SAT includes only nine of the ten sections
that the actual test contains. Section 7 is an unscored sec-
tion and has been omitted on this test because it contains
questions that may be used in future editions of the SAT.
The practice test will help you most if you take it under
conditions as close as possible to those of the actual test.
Approaches to the Practice Test
● Set aside 3 hours and 20 minutes of uninterrupted
time. That way you can complete the entire test in
one sitting. Note: the total testing time is 3 hours
and 45 minutes, but you save 25 minutes because
the unscored section from this practice test was
omitted.
● Sit at a desk or table cleared of any other papers
or books. You won’t be able to take a dictionary,
books, notes, or scratch paper into the test room.
● Allow yourself the specified amount of time
for each section. Pace yourself by using a watch
(without an audible alarm), which is what you are
allowed on test day.
● Have a calculator at hand when you take the math-
ematics sections. This will help you determine how
much to use a calculator the day of the test. Use a
calculator with which you are familiar.
● Read the test instructions carefully. They are
reprinted from the back cover of the test book. On
test day, you will be asked to read them before you
begin answering questions.
● Make sure you use a No. 2 pencil. It is very impor-
tant that you fill in the entire circle on the answer
sheet darkly and completely. If you change your
response, erase it as completely as possible. It is
very important that you follow these instructions
when filling out your answer sheet.
● After you finish the test, read page 85 for instructions
on how to find your score. If you have access to the
Internet, visit collegeboard.com/satpracticetest to
review answer explanations or to see sample essays.
Finding Your Scores
To score your test, you can either enter your answers online
at collegeboard.com/satpracticetest and have your test
scored automatically, or you can score it yourself with the
instructions on page 85. To score the test yourself, you’ll
need to count the right and wrong answers for each sec-
tion, and then convert your “raw” score to the College
Board scale of 200 to 800.
With either scoring method, you’ll need to choose a score
for your essay. Use the Scoring Guide on page 36 to deter-
mine how your particular essay might be scored.
Reviewing Your Performance
After you score your practice test, review your performance
to see where your strengths and weaknesses are.
Ask yourself these questions:
● Did you run out of time before you finished a sec-
tion? Try to pace yourself so you will have time to
answer all the questions you can. Don’t spend too
much time on any one question.
● Did you hurry and make careless mistakes? You
may have misread the question, neglected to notice
a word like “except” or “best,” or solved for the
wrong value.
● Did you spend too much time reading directions?
You should be familiar with the test directions
so you don’t have to spend as much time reading
them when you take the actual test.
Visit collegeboard.com/satpracticetest to view answer
explanations for questions you answered incorrectly and to
read sample scored essays.
Official SAT Practice Test
The Official SAT Online Course
➢ Take this practice test online
➢ Receive an immediate essay score
➢ Practice with more tests and quizzes
Visit:
collegeboard.com/satonlinecourse
SAT Preparation Booklet
38
FORM
CODE
TEST
CENTER
PLEASE DO NOT WRITE IN THIS AREA
SERIAL #
2007-08 SAT Reasoning Test
TM
Female Male
SEX 5
REGISTRATION NUMBER 6
(Copy from Admission Ticket.)
TEST BOOK
SERIAL NUMBER
10
(Copy from front of test book.)
11
(Supplied by Test Center
Supervisor.)
SOCIAL SECURITY
NUMBER
7
FOR OFFICIAL USE
ONLY
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Last Name
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YOUR NAME
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First Name
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Mid.
Init.










174267-001:654321 ISD6542
© 2007 The College Board. All rights reserved.
College Board, SAT, and the acorn logo are registered trademarks of the College Board.
SAT Reasoning Test is a trademark owned by the College Board.
I turned in my registration form today.
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ZIP
CODE
4
Important: Fill in
items 8 and 9
exactly as shown
on the back of test
book.
00272-36390 • NS67E3600 • Printed in U.S.A.
737667
TEST FORM
(Copy from back of test book.)
9
(Copy and grid as on
back of test book.)
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MARKS MUST BE COMPLETE
You must use a No. 2 pencil. Do not use a mechanical pencil. It is very important
that you fill in the entire circle darkly and completely. If you change your response, erase
as completely as possible. Incomplete marks or erasures may affect your score. It is
very important that you follow these instructions when filling out your answer sheet.
COMPLETE MARK
EXAMPLES OF
INCOMPLETE MARKS
(Print)
1
Last First M.I.
Your Name:
I agree to the conditions on the front and back of the SAT Reasoning Test™ booklet. I also agree to use only a No. 2 pencil to complete my answer sheet.
Signature:
Home Address:
Date:
Center:
(Print)
City State
City
Number and Street
Home Phone: ( )
State/Country
Zip Code
(Print)
(Print)
DATE OF
BIRTH
MONTH DAY YEAR
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Official SAT Practice Test
39
Page 2
I prefer NOT to grant the College Board the right to use, reproduce, or publish my essay for any purpose
beyond the assessment of my writing skills, even though my name will not be used in any way in conjunction
with my essay. I understand that I am free to mark this circle with no effect on my score.
Begin your essay on this page. If you need more space, continue on the next page.
Continue on the next page, if necessary.
SECTION
1
IMPORTANT: USE A NO. 2 PENCIL. DO NOT WRITE OUTSIDE THE BORDER!
Words written outside the essay box or written in ink WILL NOT APPEAR in the copy
sent to be scored, and your score will be affected.
SAT Preparation Booklet
40
PLEASE DO NOT WRITE IN THIS AREA
SERIAL #
Page 3
Continuation of ESSAY Section 1 from previous page. Write below only if you need more space.
IMPORTANT: DO NOT START on this page—if you do, your essay may appear blank and your score may be affected.
Official SAT Practice Test
41
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SECTION
3
Grid answers in the section below for SECTION 2 or SECTION 3 only if directed to do so in your
test book.
CAUTION
Student-Produced Responses
ONLY ANSWERS THAT ARE GRIDDED WILL BE SCORED. YOU WILL NOT RECEIVE
CREDIT FOR ANYTHING WRITTEN IN THE BOXES.
Page 4
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SECTION
2
A B C D E
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A B C D E
Quality
Assurance
Mark
You must use a No. 2 pencil and marks must be complete. Do not use a mechanical pencil. It is
very important that you fill in the entire circle darkly and completely. If you change your response,
erase as completely as possible. Incomplete marks or erasures may affect your score.
COMPLETE MARK
EXAMPLES OF
INCOMPLETE MARKS
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A B C D
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SAT Preparation Booklet
42
Quality
Assurance
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Grid answers in the section below for SECTION 4 or SECTION 5 only if directed to do so in your
test book.
Student-Produced Responses
Page 5
SECTION
5
ONLY ANSWERS THAT ARE GRIDDED WILL BE SCORED. YOU WILL NOT RECEIVE
CREDIT FOR ANYTHING WRITTEN IN THE BOXES.
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SECTION
4
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
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A B C D E
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A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
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A B C D E
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A B C D E
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A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
You must use a No. 2 pencil and marks must be complete. Do not use a mechanical pencil. It is
very important that you fill in the entire circle darkly and completely. If you change your response,
erase as completely as possible. Incomplete marks or erasures may affect your score.
COMPLETE MARK
EXAMPLES OF
INCOMPLETE MARKS
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0
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0 0
.
CAUTION
A B C D
A B C D CCCCCCCC AA
Official SAT Practice Test
43
9
31
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40
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18
SECTION
7
Grid answers in the section below for SECTION 6 or SECTION 7 only if directed to do so in your
test book.
Student-Produced Responses
ONLY ANSWERS THAT ARE GRIDDED WILL BE SCORED. YOU WILL NOT RECEIVE
CREDIT FOR ANYTHING WRITTEN IN THE BOXES.
PLEASE DO NOT WRITE IN THIS AREA
SERIAL #
Page 6
31
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10
SECTION
6
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
Quality
Assurance
Mark
You must use a No. 2 pencil and marks must be complete. Do not use a mechanical pencil. It is
very important that you fill in the entire circle darkly and completely. If you change your response,
erase as completely as possible. Incomplete marks or erasures may affect your score.
COMPLETE MARK
EXAMPLES OF
INCOMPLETE MARKS
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
1
2
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7
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0 0
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CAUTION
A B C D
A B C D CCCCCCCC AA
S
e
c
t
io
n
7
, t
h
e
e
q
u
a
t
in
g

s
e
c
t
io
n
o
f t
h
is
p
r
a
c
t
ic
e

t
e
s
t
, h
a
s
b
e
e
n
o
m
it
t
e
d
.
SAT Preparation Booklet
44
Quality
Assurance
Mark
Page 7
31
32
33
34
35
36
37
38
39
40
21
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10
SECTION
9
31
32
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34
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36
37
38
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40
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30
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SECTION
10
31
32
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34
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36
37
38
39
40
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2
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5
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8
9
10
SECTION
8
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
You must use a No. 2 pencil and marks must be complete. Do not use a mechanical pencil. It is
very important that you fill in the entire circle darkly and completely. If you change your response,
erase as completely as possible. Incomplete marks or erasures may affect your score.
COMPLETE MARK
EXAMPLES OF
INCOMPLETE MARKS
A B C D
A B C D CCCCCCCC AA
Official SAT Practice Test
45
8 FORM CODE
(Copy and grid as on
back of test book.)
G M C M




5 1 4



9
TEST FORM
(Copy from back of test book.)
0 6 1 3 5 1 4
YOUR NAME (PRINT)
LAST FIRST MI
TEST CENTER
NUMBER NAME OF TEST CENTER ROOM NUMBER
SAT Reasoning Test — General Directions
Timing
• You will have 3 hours and 45 minutes to work on this test.
• There are ten separately timed sections:
One 25-minute essay
Six other 25-minute sections
Two 20-minute sections
One 10-minute section
• You may work on only one section at a time.
• The supervisor will tell you when to begin and end each section.
• If you finish a section before time is called, check your work on that section.
You may NOT turn to any other section.
• Work as rapidly as you can without losing accuracy. Don’t waste time on
questions that seem too difficult for you.
Marking Answers
• Be sure to mark your answer sheet properly.
• You must use a No. 2 pencil.
• Carefully mark only one answer for each question.
• Make sure you fill the entire circle darkly and completely.
• Do not make any stray marks on your answer sheet.
• If you erase, do so completely. Incomplete erasures may be scored as
intended answers.
• Use only the answer spaces that correspond to the question numbers.
Using Your Test Book
• You may use the test book for scratchwork, but you will not receive credit
for anything written there.
• After time has been called, you may not transfer answers to your answer
sheet or fill in circles.
• You may not fold or remove pages or portions of a page from this book,
or take the book or answer sheet from the testing room.
Scoring
• For each correct answer, you receive one point.
• For questions you omit, you receive no points.
• For a wrong answer to a multiple-choice question, you lose one-fourth of
a point.
If you can eliminate one or more of the answer choices as wrong,
you increase your chances of choosing the correct answer and
earning one point.
If you can’t eliminate any choice, move on. You can return to the
question later if there is time.
• For a wrong answer to a student-produced response (“grid-in”) math
question, you don’t lose any points.
• Multiple-choice and student-produced response questions are machine
scored.
• The essay is scored on a 1 to 6 scale by two different readers. The total
essay score is the sum of the two readers’ scores.
• Off-topic essays, blank essays, and essays written in ink will receive a
score of zero.
• If your essay does not reflect your original and individual work, your test
scores may be canceled.
The passages for this test have been adapted from published material.
The ideas contained in them do not necessarily represent the opinions of the College Board.
IMPORTANT: The codes below are unique to
your test book. Copy them on your answer sheet
in boxes 8 and 9 and fill in the corresponding
circles exactly as shown.
DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOK UNTIL THE
SUPERVISOR TELLS YOU TO DO SO.
SAT Preparation Booklet
46
The essay gives you an opportunity to show how effectively you can develop and express ideas. You should, therefore, take
care to develop your point of view, present your ideas logically and clearly, and use language precisely.
Your essay must be written on the lines provided on your answer sheet —you will receive no other paper on which to write.
You will have enough space if you write on every line, avoid wide margins, and keep your handwriting to a reasonable size.
Remember that people who are not familiar with your handwriting will read what you write. Try to write or print so that what
you are writing is legible to those readers.
Important Reminders:
x Do not write your essay in your test book. You will receive credit only for what you write on your
answer sheet.
x If your essay does not reflect your original and individual work, your test scores may be canceled.
You have twenty-five minutes to write an essay on the topic assigned below.
Given the importance of human creativity, one would think it should have a high priority among
our concerns. But if we look at the reality, we see a different picture. Basic scientific research is
minimized in favor of immediate practical applications. The arts are increasingly seen as
dispensable luxuries. Yet as competition heats up around the globe, exactly the opposite strategy
is needed.
Invention
studies, experience, or observations.
If you finish before time is called, you may check your work on this section only.
Do not turn to any other section in the test.
Turn to page 2 of your answer sheet to write your ESSAY.
Is creativity needed more than ever in the world today? Plan and write an essay in which you develop your
ESSAY
x A pencil is required for the essay. An essay written in ink will receive a score of zero.
Think carefully about the issue presented in the following excerpt and the assignment below.
Adapted from Mihaly Csikszentmihalyi, Creativity: Flow and the Psychology of Discovery and
Assignment:
Time — 25 minutes
x An off-topic essay will receive a score of zero.
BEGIN WRITING YOUR ESSAY ON PAGE 2 OF THE ANSWER SHEET.
point of view on this issue. Support your position with reasoning and examples taken from your reading,
Official SAT Practice Test
47
SECTION 2
Time — 25 minutes
18 Questions
Turn to Section 2 (page 4) of your answer sheet to answer the questions in this section.
Directions: This section contains two types of questions. You have 25 minutes to complete both types. For questions 1-8, solve
each problem and decide which is the best of the choices given. Fill in the corresponding circle on the answer sheet. You may
use any available space for scratchwork.
1. If 4 3 19 t u + + = , then t u + =
(A) 3
(B) 4
(C) 5
(D) 6
(E) 7
2. In the figure above, three lines intersect at a point.
If f = 85 and c = 25, what is the value of a ?
(A) 60
(B) 65
(C) 70
(D) 75
(E) 85
SAT Preparation Booklet
48
3. If Marisa drove n miles in t hours, which of the
following represents her average speed, in miles per
hour?
(A)
n
t
(B)
t
n
(C)
1
nt
(D) nt
(E) n t
2
4. If a is an odd integer and b is an even integer, which
of the following is an odd integer?
(A) 3b
(B) a + 3
(C) 2 a b +
(D) a b + 2
(E) 2a b +
5. In the coordinate plane, the points F 2 1 , , G 1 4 , ,
and H 4 1 , lie on a circle with center P. What are the
coordinates of point P ?
(A) 0 0 ,
(B) 1 1 ,
(C) 1 2 ,
(D) 1 2 ,
(E) 2 5 2 5 . , .
6. The graph of ( ) y f x is shown above. If
3 6, x for how many values of x does
( ) 2 ? f x
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
7. If the average (arithmetic mean) of t and t + 2 is x
and if the average of t and t − 2 is y, what is the
average of x and y ?
(A) 1
(B)
t
2
(C) t
(D) t +
1
2
(E) 2t
8. For all numbers x and y, let x y ᭝ be defined
as x y x xy y ᭝
2 2
. What is the value
of ( ) ? 3 1 1 ᭝ ᭝
(A) 5
(B) 13
(C) 27
(D) 170
(E) 183
Official SAT Practice Test
49
9. Morgan’s plant grew from 42 centimeters to
57 centimeters in a year. Linda’s plant, which was
59 centimeters at the beginning of the year, grew twice
as many centimeters as Morgan’s plant did during the
same year. How tall, in centimeters, was Linda’s plant at
the end of the year?
10. Since the beginning of 1990, the number of squirrels
in a certain wooded area has tripled during every
3-year period of time. If there were 5,400 squirrels in
the wooded area at the beginning of 1999, how many
squirrels were in the wooded area at the beginning
of 1990 ?
SAT Preparation Booklet
50
11. In the figure above, triangles ABC and CDE are
equilateral and line segment AE has length 25. What
is the sum of the perimeters of the two triangles?
12. Marbles are to be removed from a jar that contains 12
red marbles and 12 black marbles. What is the least
number of marbles that could be removed so that the
ratio of red marbles to black marbles left in the jar will
be 4 to 3 ?
x v
v t
x pt
=
=
=
3
4
13. For the system of equations above, if x 0, what is
the value of p ?
14. If 2 1 1, x what is one possible value of x ?
Official SAT Practice Test
51
15. For what positive number is the square root of the
number the same as the number divided by 40 ?
16. In rectangle ABDF above, C and E are midpoints of
sides BD and , DF respectively. What fraction of
the area of the rectangle is shaded?
17. The graph above shows the amount of water
remaining in a tank each time a pail was used to
remove x gallons of water. If 5 gallons were in the
tank originally and
1
2
3
gallons remained after the
last pail containing x gallons was removed, what
is the value of x ?
18. If 0 ≤ ≤ x y and x y x y + − − ≥
2 2
25, what
is the least possible value of y ?
S T O P
If you finish before time is called, you may check your work on this section only.
Do not turn to any other section in the test.
SAT Preparation Booklet
52


-10-

SECTION 3
Time — 25 minutes
35 Questions

Turn to Section 3 (page 4) of your answer sheet to answer the questions in this section.

Directions: For each question in this section, select the best answer from among the choices given and fill in the corresponding
circle on the answer sheet.

The following sentences test correctness and effectiveness
of expression. Part of each sentence or the entire sentence
is underlined; beneath each sentence are five ways of
phrasing the underlined material. Choice A repeats the
original phrasing; the other four choices are different. If
you think the original phrasing produces a better sentence
than any of the alternatives, select choice A; if not, select
one of the other choices.
In making your selection, follow the requirements of
standard written English; that is, pay attention to grammar,
choice of words, sentence construction, and punctuation.
Your selection should result in the most effective
sentence—clear and precise, without awkwardness or
ambiguity.

EXAMPLE:
Laura Ingalls Wilder published her first book
and she was sixty-five years old then.
(A) and she was sixty-five years old then
(B) when she was sixty-five
(C) at age sixty-five years old
(D) upon the reaching of sixty-five years
(E) at the time when she was sixty-five


1. The poet Claude McKay was a native of Jamaica who
spent most of his life in the United States but writing
some of his poems in the Jamaican dialect.
(A) The poet Claude McKay was a native of Jamaica
who spent most of his life in the United States
but writing
(B) Being that he was a Jamaican who spent
most of his life in the United States, the
poet Claude McKay writing
(C) Although a native of Jamaica, the poet Claude
McKay spent most of his life in the United
States, he wrote
(D) Although the poet Claude McKay spent
most of his life in the United States, he
was a native of Jamaica and wrote
(E) Because he was a native of Jamaica who spent
most of his life in the United States, the poet
Claude McKay writing

2. Many ancient Eastern rulers favored drinking vessels
made of celadon porcelain because of supposedly
revealing the presence of poison by cracking.
(A) because of supposedly revealing the presence of
poison
(B) for being supposed that it would reveal the
presence of poison
(C) because of being supposed to reveal
poison in it
(D) for it was supposed to reveal that there is poison
(E) because it was supposed to reveal the presence of
poison

3. John believes that plants respond to human attention,
which causes his talking to his African violets every
night.
(A) attention, which causes his talking
(B) attention and talking is what is done
(C) attention and his talks
(D) attention; for this reason has been his talking
(E) attention; he therefore talks

4. All the demands on soprano Kathleen Battle for
operatic performances, solo concerts, and special guest
appearances, tempting her to sing too often and
straining her voice.
(A) appearances, tempting her to sing too often and
straining
(B) appearances not only tempt her to sing too often
plus they strain
(C) appearances tempts her not only into singing too
often but then she strains
(D) appearances, tempting her into singing too often
and she therefore strains
(E) appearances tempt her to sing too often and strain

a,cde
Official SAT Practice Test
53


-11-

5. One reason that an insect can walk on walls while a
human cannot is that the mass of its tiny body is far
lower than humans.
(A) far lower than humans
(B) far lower than that of a human’s body
(C) lower by far than humans
(D) far lower than a human
(E) far lower than is a human’s body

6. In the 1980’s, the median price of a house more than
doubled, generally outdistancing the rate of inflation.
(A) generally outdistancing the rate of inflation
(B) generally this outdistanced the rate of inflation
(C) and the result was the general outdistancing of
inflation
(D) the general rate of inflation was thus outdistanced
(E) thus generally inflation had been outdistanced

7. In the nineteenth century, reproductions of cathedrals
or castles made entirely of ice was often a popular
feature in North American winter carnivals.
(A) was often a popular feature
(B) often were popular features
(C) often was featured popularly
(D) often being popular features
(E) have been featured popularly

8. A fine orchestral performance will exhibit the skills of
the musicians, their abilities to work as an ensemble,
and how he or she responds to the conductor.
(A) how he or she responds
(B) how to respond
(C) their responding
(D) their responses
(E) they respond

9. The African tsetse fly does not need a brain, everything
it has to do in life is programmed into its nervous
system.
(A) brain, everything
(B) brain due to everything which
(C) brain, for everything
(D) brain; since, everything
(E) brain whereas everything

10. She was concerned about how Hank would react to
the incident, but in searching his face, he did not
seem to be at all embarrassed or troubled.
(A) in searching his face, he did not seem to be
(B) by searching his face, it showed that he
was not
(C) a search of his face showed that he seemed not
(D) searching his face, he did not seem to be
(E) his face being searched showed that he
was not

11. Explaining modern art is impossible, partly because of
its complexity but largely because of it rapidly
changing.
(A) of it rapidly changing
(B) it makes rapid changes
(C) of the rapidity with which it changes
(D) changing it is rapid
(E) it changes so rapid

SAT Preparation Booklet
54


-12-


The following sentences test your ability to recognize
grammar and usage errors. Each sentence contains either
a single error or no error at all. No sentence contains more
than one error. The error, if there is one, is underlined
and lettered. If the sentence contains an error, select the
one underlined part that must be changed to make the
sentence correct. If the sentence is correct, select choice E.
In choosing answers, follow the requirements of standard
written English.

EXAMPLE:

The other
A
delegates and him
B
immediately
C

accepted the resolution drafted by
D
the
neutral states. No error
E



12. The ambassador was entertained lavish
A
by
Hartwright, whose company
B
has
C
a monetary
interest in
D
the industrial development of the
new country. No error
E

13. Among
A
the discoveries made possible by
B

the invention of
C
the telescope they found
D
that
dark spots existed on the Sun in varying numbers.
No error
E

14. This liberal arts college has
A
decided requiring
B

all students to study
C
at least one
D
non-European
language. No error
E

15. Twenty-five years after
A
Alex Haley’s Roots stimulate
B

many people to research
C
their family histories, new
technology has been developed to make the task
easier
D
. No error
E

16. For months the press had praised Thatcher’s handling
of the international crisis, and
A
editorial views changed
quickly
B
when
C
the domestic economy worsened
D
.
No error
E

17. Experiments have shown
A
that human skin provides
B

natural protection against a surprising
C
large
number of
D
infectious bacteria. No error
E

18. In the aggressive society created by
A
William Golding
in Lord of the Flies, both Ralph and Jack emerge
early on
B
as the leader
C
of
D
the lost boys. No error
E


19. More than forty years have passed
A
since
B
a quarter
of a million people marched on Washington, D.C.,
in an attempt
C
to secure
D
civil rights for Black
Americans. No error
E

a,cde
Official SAT Practice Test
55


-13-

20. Careful analysis of pictures of the Moon reveal
A
that
parts of the Moon’s surface are
B
markedly
C
similar to
parts of the Earth’s
D
. No error
E

21. London differs from
A
other cities, such as
B
Paris and
New York, in that
C
its shopping areas are so widely
D

spread out. No error
E


22. The architect’s research shows that even when builders
construct
A
houses of stone
B
, they still
C
use the hammer
more than any tool
D
. No error
E

23. Of
A
the two options, neither
B
the system of appointing
judges to the bench nor the process of electing
C
judges
are
D
entirely satisfactory. No error
E

24. Carlos cherished the memory of the day when him
A

and his sister Rosa were presented
B
with awards
in recognition of
C
meritorious service to
D
the
community. No error
E



25. The famous filmmaker had a tendency
A
of changing
B

his recollections, perhaps out of boredom
C
at having
D

to tell interviewers the same story over and over.
No error
E

26. Norwegian writer Sigrid Undset is like
A
the novelist Sir
Walter Scott in
B
her use of historical backgrounds, but
unlike his books
C
, she dwells on the psychological
aspects of
D
her characters. No error
E

27. The television station has received
A
many complaints
about
B
the clothing advertisements, which some
C

viewers condemn to be
D
tasteless. No error
E

28. The relationship between goby fish and striped shrimp
are truly
A
symbiotic, for neither
B
can survive
C
without
D

the other. No error
E

29. Winston Churchill, unlike
A
many English prime
ministers before him
B
, had deep insight into
C
the
workings of
D
the human mind. No error
E


SAT Preparation Booklet
56
-14-
Directions: The following passage is an early draft of an
essay. Some parts of the passage need to be rewritten.
Read the passage and select the best answers for the
questions that follow. Some questions are about particular
sentences or parts of sentences and ask you to improve
sentence structure or word choice. Other questions ask you
to consider organization and development. In choosing
answers, follow the requirements of standard written
English.
Questions 30-35 are based on the following passage.
(1) My father has an exceptional talent. (2) The
ability to understand people. (3) When I have a problem
that I think no one else will understand, I take it to my
father. (4) He listens intently, asks me some questions,
and my feelings are seemingly known by him exactly.
(5) Even my twin sister can talk to him more easily than
to me. (6) Many people seem too busy to take the time
to understand one another. (7) My father, by all
accounts, sees taking time to listen as essential to any
relationship, whether it involves family, friendship, or
work.
(8) At work, my father’s friends and work associates
benefit from this talent. (9) His job requires him to attend
social events and sometimes I go along. (10) I have
watched him at dinner; his eyes are fixed on whoever is
speaking, and he nods his head at every remark. (11) My
father emerges from such a conversation with what I believe
is a true sense of the speaker’s meaning. (12) In the same
way, we choose our friends.
(13) My father’s ability to listen affects his whole
life. (14) His ability allows him to form strong
relationships with his coworkers and earns him
lasting friendships. (15) It allows him to have open
conversations with his children. (16) Furthermore, it
has strengthened his relationship with my mother.
(17) Certainly, his talent is one that I hope to develop
as I mature.
30. Of the following, which is the best way to revise and
combine sentences 1 and 2 (reproduced below) ?
My father has an exceptional talent. The ability to
understand people.
(A) My father has an exceptional talent and the ability
to understand people.
(B) My father has an exceptional talent that includes
the ability to understand people.
(C) My father has an exceptional talent: the ability to
understand people.
(D) My father has an exceptional talent, it is his
ability to understand people.
(E) Despite my father’s exceptional talent, he still has
the ability to understand people.
31. Of the following, which is the best way to phrase
sentence 4 (reproduced below) ?
He listens intently, asks me some questions, and my
feelings are seemingly known by him exactly.
(A) (As it is now)
(B) Listening intently, he will ask me some questions
and then my exact feelings are seemingly known
to him.
(C) As he listens to me and asks me some questions,
he seems to be knowing exactly my feelings.
(D) He listened to me and asked me some questions,
seeming to know exactly how I felt.
(E) He listens intently, asks me some questions, and
then seems to know exactly how I feel.
32. In sentence 7, the phrase by all accounts is best
replaced by
(A) however
(B) moreover
(C) to my knowledge
(D) like my sister
(E) but nevertheless
33. Which of the following sentences should be omitted to
improve the unity of the second paragraph?
(A) Sentence 8
(B) Sentence 9
(C) Sentence 10
(D) Sentence 11
(E) Sentence 12
Official SAT Practice Test
57


-15-

34. In context, which of the following is the best way to
phrase the underlined portion of sentence 16
(reproduced below) ?
Furthermore, it has strengthened his relationship with
my mother.
(A) (As it is now)
(B) Further strengthening
(C) But it strengthens
(D) However, he is strengthening
(E) Considering this, he strengthens

35. A strategy that the writer uses within the third
paragraph is to
(A) make false assumptions and use exaggeration
(B) include difficult vocabulary
(C) repeat certain words and sentence patterns
(D) argue in a tone of defiance
(E) turn aside from the main subject















S T O P
If you finish before time is called, you may check your work on this section only.
Do not turn to any other section in the test.

SAT Preparation Booklet
58



SECTION 4
Time — 25 minutes
23 Questions

Turn to Section 4 (page 5) of your answer sheet to answer the questions in this section.

Directions: For each question in this section, select the best answer from among the choices given and fill in the corresponding
circle on the answer sheet.

Each sentence below has one or two blanks, each blank
indicating that something has been omitted. Beneath
the sentence are five words or sets of words labeled A
through E. Choose the word or set of words that, when
inserted in the sentence, best fits the meaning of the
sentence as a whole.
Example:
Hoping to ------- the dispute, negotiators proposed
a compromise that they felt would be ------- to both
labor and management.
(A) enforce . . useful
(B) end . . divisive
(C) overcome . . unattractive
(D) extend . . satisfactory
(E) resolve . . acceptable


1. Scientific discoveries are often thought of as the result
of ------- effort, but many discoveries have, in fact,
arisen from ------- or a mistake.
(A) conscientious . . a method
(B) incidental . . a mishap
(C) collaborative . . a design
(D) persistent . . an extension
(E) systematic . . an accident

2. Nations that share a border are, by definition, -------.
(A) allied (B) partisan (C) contiguous
(D) pluralistic (E) sovereign

3. Much of this author’s work, unfortunately, is -------,
with ------- chapter often immediately following a
sublime one.
(A) mystical . . a superior
(B) uneven . . a mediocre
(C) predictable . . an eloquent
(D) enthralling . . a vapid
(E) flippant . . an intelligible

4. In young children, some brain cells have a ------- that
enables them to take over the functions of damaged
or missing brain cells.
(A) fragility (B) reminiscence
(C) perniciousness (D) whimsicality
(E) plasticity

5. “Less government spending” is ------- of this political
party, a belief shared by most party members.
(A) an acronym (B) a retraction (C) a tenet
(D) a plight (E) a prospectus

abcd,
Official SAT Practice Test
59


-
The passages below are followed by questions based on their content; questions following a pair of related passages may also
be based on the relationship between the paired passages. Answer the questions on the basis of what is stated or implied in the
passages and in any introductory material that may be provided.

Questions 6-7 are based on the following passage.
Duke Ellington considered himself “the world’s greatest
listener.” In music, hearing is all. Judging by the two or
three thousand pieces of music Ellington wrote, he could
probably hear a flea scratching itself and put that rhythm
into one of his compositions. For him the sounds of the 5
world were the ingredients he mixed into appetizers,
main courses, and desserts to satisfy the appetite of his
worldwide audience. He wasn’t averse to going out in
a boat to catch the fish himself. He would raise the fowl
himself. But when that musical meal appeared before you 10
none of the drudgery showed.

6. The author most likely refers to the “flea” in line 4
in order to
(A) highlight Ellington’s prodigious memory
(B) emphasize the quality of Ellington’s listening
skills
(C) indicate Ellington’s interest in different animal
sounds
(D) suggest that Ellington’s compositions were
marked by rhythmic similarities
(E) imply that Ellington could be overly concerned
about minutia

7. In lines 5-11 (“For him . . . drudgery showed”),
the author’s point is primarily developed through
the use of
(A) comparison and contrast
(B) appeal to emotion
(C) exaggeration
(D) metaphor
(E) humor

Questions 8-9 are based on the following passage.
In the summer of 1911, the explorer Hiram Bingham III
bushwhacked his way to a high ridge in the Andes of Peru
and beheld a dreamscape out of the past. There, set against
looming peaks cloaked in snow and wreathed in clouds,
was Machu Picchu, the famous “lost city” of the Incas. 5
This expression, popularized by Bingham, served as
a magical elixir for rundown imaginations. The words
evoked the romanticism of exploration and archaeology
at the time. But finding Machu Picchu was easier than
solving the mystery of its place in the rich and powerful 10
Inca empire. The imposing architecture attested to the skill
and audacity of the Incas. But who had lived at this isolated
site and for what purpose?

8. The words “magical elixir” (line 7) primarily
emphasize the
(A) motivation for an expedition
(B) captivating power of a phrase
(C) inspiration behind a discovery
(D) creative dimension of archaeology
(E) complexity of an expression

9. The “mystery” discussed in lines 10-13 is most
analogous to that encountered in which of the
following situations?
(A) Being unable to locate the source of materials
used to construct an ancient palace
(B) Being unable to reconcile archaeological evi-
dence with mythical descriptions of an
ancient city
(C) Being unable to explain how ancient peoples
constructed imposing monuments using
only primitive technology
(D) Being unable to understand the religious
function of a chamber found inside an
ancient temple
(E) Being unable to discover any trace of a civ-
ilization repeatedly mentioned by ancient
authors

Line Line
SAT Preparation Booklet
60


-
Questions 10-14 are based on the following passage.
This passage is from the preface to a 1997 book by
a United States journalist detailing a disagreement
between doctors and family members about a child’s
medical treatment at a hospital in California.
Under my desk I keep a large carton of cassette tapes.
Though they have all been transcribed, I still like to listen
to them from time to time.
Some are quiet and easily understood. They are filled
with the voices of American doctors, interrupted occasion- 5
ally by the clink of a coffee cup or beep of a pager. The
rest —more than half of them—are very noisy. They are
filled with the voices of the Lees family, Hmong refugees
from Laos who came to the United States in 1980. Against
a background of babies crying, children playing, doors 10
slamming, dishes clattering, a television yammering, and an
air conditioner wheezing, I can hear the mother’s voice, by
turns breathy, nasal, gargly, or humlike as it slides up and
down the Hmong language’s eight tones; the father’s voice,
louder, slower, more vehement; and my interpreter’s voice, 15
mediating in Hmong and English, low and deferential in
each. The hubbub summons sense-memories: the coolness
of the red metal folding chair, reserved for guests, that was
always set up when I arrived in the apartment; the shadows
cast by the amulet that hung from the ceiling and swung in 20
the breeze on its length of grocer’s twine; the tastes of
Hmong food.
I sat on the Lees’ red chair for the first time on
May 19, 1988. Earlier that spring I had come to Merced,
California, because I had heard that there were some 25
misunderstandings at the county hospital between its
Hmong patients and medical staff. One doctor called them
“collisions,” which made it sound as if two different kinds
of people had rammed into each other, head on, to the
accompaniment of squealing brakes and breaking glass. 30
As it turned out, the encounters were messy but rarely
frontal. Both sides were wounded, but neither side seemed
to know what had hit it or how to avoid another crash.
I have always felt that the action most worth watching
occurs not at the center of things but where edges meet. 35
I like shorelines, weather fronts, international borders.
These places have interesting frictions and incongruities,
and often, if you stand at the point of tangency, you can
see both sides better than if you were in the middle of either
one. This is especially true when the apposition is cultural. 40
When I first came to Merced, I hoped that the culture of
American medicine, about which I knew a little, and the
culture of the Hmong, about which I knew nothing, would
somehow illuminate each other if I could position myself
between the two and manage not to get caught in the cross- 45
fire. But after getting to know the Lees family and their
daughter’s doctors and realizing how hard it was to blame
anyone, I stopped analyzing the situation in such linear
terms. Now, when I play the tapes late at night, I imagine
what they would sound like if I could splice them together, 50
so the voices of the Hmong and those of the American
doctors could be heard on a single tape, speaking a
common language.

10. In line 17, “summons” most nearly means
(A) sends for
(B) calls forth
(C) requests
(D) orders
(E) convenes

11. It can be inferred from lines 27-33 that “collisions”
was NOT an apt description because the
(A) clash between Hmong patients and medical
staff was indirect and baffling
(B) Hmong patients and the medical staff were
not significantly affected by the encounters
(C) medical staff was not responsible for the
dissatisfaction of the Hmong patients
(D) misunderstandings between the Hmong
patients and the medical staff were easy to
resolve
(E) disagreement reached beyond particular
individuals to the community at large

12. Which of the following views of conflict is best
supported by lines 37-40 (“These . . . one”) ?
(A) Efforts to prevent conflicts are not always
successful.
(B) Conflict can occur in many different guises.
(C) In most conflicts, both parties are to blame.
(D) You can understand two parties that have resolved
their conflicts better than two parties that are
currently in conflict.
(E) You can learn more about two parties in conflict
as an observer than as an involved participant.

Line
Official SAT Practice Test
61


-
13. According to lines 41-46 (“When I . . . crossfire”), the
author’s initial goal was to
(A) consider the perspectives of both the American
doctors and the Lees family to see what insights
might develop
(B) serve as a counselor to the county hospital’s
Hmong patients in order to ease their anxieties
(C) work out a compromise between the American
doctors and the Lees family
(D) acquire a greater knowledge of how the American
medical culture serves patients
(E) try to reduce the misunderstandings between the
American doctors and the Lees family and
promote good will

14. At the end of the passage, the author suggests that
it would be ideal if the
(A) differences between the Lees family and the
American doctors could be resolved quickly
(B) concerns and opinions of the Lees family and
the American doctors could be merged
(C) American doctors could take the time to learn
more about their Hmong patients
(D) Hmong patients could become more vocal in
defense of their rights
(E) Hmong patients could get medical treatment
consistent with their cultural beliefs

SAT Preparation Booklet
62


-
Questions 15-23 are based on the following passages.
“Cloning” is the creation of a new individual from the
unique DNA (or genetic information) of another. The suc-
cessful cloning of a sheep named Dolly in 1997 sparked
a debate over the implications of cloning humans. Each
of the passages below was written in 1997.

Passage 1
Cloning creates serious issues of identity and individual-
ity. The cloned person may experience concerns about his
or her distinctive identity, not only because the person will
be in genotype (genetic makeup) and appearance identical to
another human being, but, in this case, because he or she 5
may also be twin to the person who is the “father” or
“mother”—if one can still call them that. What would be
the psychic burdens of being the “child” or “parent” of your
twin? The cloned individual, moreover, will be saddled
with a genotype that has already lived. He or she will not 10
be fully a surprise to the world.
People will likely always compare a clone’s perfor-
mance in life with that of the original. True, a cloned
person’s nurture and circumstances in life will be different;
genotype is not exactly destiny. Still, one must also expect 15
parental and other efforts to shape this new life after the
original—or at least to view the child with the original
vision always firmly in mind. Why else then would they
clone from the star basketball player, mathematician, and
beauty queen—or even dear old dad—in the first place? 20
Since the birth of Dolly, there has been a fair amount of
doublespeak on this matter of genetic identity. Experts have
rushed in to reassure the public that the clone would in no
way be the same person, or have any confusions about his
or her identity; they are pleased to point out that the clone 25
of film star Julia Roberts would not be Julia Roberts. Fair
enough. But one is shortchanging the truth by emphasizing
the additional importance of the environment, rearing, and
social setting: genotype obviously matters plenty. That,
after all, is the only reason to clone, whether human beings 30
or sheep. The odds that clones of basketball star Larry Bird
will play basketball are, I submit, infinitely greater than
they are for clones of jockey Willie Shoemaker.

Passage 2
Given all the brouhaha, you’d think it was crystal clear
why cloning human beings is unethical. But what exactly 35
is wrong with it? What would a clone be? Well, he or she
would be a complete human being who happens to share
the same genes with another person. Today, we call such
people identical twins. To my knowledge no one has
argued that twins are immoral. “You should treat all clones 40
like you would treat all monozygous [identical] twins or
triplets,” concludes Dr. H. Tristam Engelhardt, a professor
of medicine at Baylor and a philosopher at Rice University.
“That’s it.” It would be unethical to treat a human clone as
anything other than a human being. 45
Some argue that the existence of clones would undermine
the uniqueness of each human being. “Can individuality,
identity, and dignity be severed from genetic distinctive-
ness, and from belief in a person’s open future?” asks
political thinker George Will. Will and others have 50
fallen under the sway of what one might call “genetic
essentialism,” the belief that genes almost completely
determine who a person is. But a person who is a clone
would live in a very different world from that of his or her
genetic predecessor. With greatly divergent experiences, 55
their brains would be wired differently. After all, even
twins who grow up together are separate people—distinct
individuals with different personalities and certainly no
lack of Will’s “individuality, identity, and dignity.”
But what about cloning exceptional human beings? 60
George Will put it this way: “Suppose a clone of
basketball star Michael Jordan, age 8, preferred violin to
basketball? Is it imaginable? If so, would it be tolerable
to the cloner?” Yes, it is imaginable, and the cloner would
just have to put up with violin recitals. Kids are not com- 65
mercial property. Overzealous parents regularly push their
children into sports, music, and dance lessons, but given the
stubborn nature of individuals, those parents rarely manage
to make kids stick forever to something they hate. A ban on
cloning wouldn’t abolish pushy parents. 70

15. The authors of both passages agree that
(A) genetic characteristics alone cannot determine
a person’s behavior
(B) a formal code of ethical rules will be needed once
human beings can be cloned
(C) people who are cloned from others may have
greater professional opportunities
(D) identical twins and triplets could provide useful
advice to people related through cloning
(E) cloning human beings is a greater technological
challenge than cloning sheep

16. In line 13, the author of Passage 1 uses the word
“True” to indicate
(A) acknowledgement that the passage’s opening
arguments are tenuous
(B) recognition of a potential counterargument
(C) conviction about the accuracy of the facts
presented
(D) distrust of those who insist on pursuing
cloning research
(E) certainty that cloning will one day become
commonplace

Line
Official SAT Practice Test
63


-
17. The question in lines 18-20 (“Why else . . . first place”)
chiefly serves to
(A) suggest that some issues are not easily resolved
(B) argue for the importance of parents in the lives
of children
(C) offer an anecdote revealing the flaw in a popular
misconception
(D) imply that cloning might displace more familiar
means of reproduction
(E) suggest the value perceived in a person who
might be selected for cloning

18. In line 21, “fair” most nearly means
(A) considerable
(B) pleasing
(C) ethical
(D) just
(E) promising

19. The author of Passage 1 mentions two sports stars
(lines 31-33) in order to
(A) argue against genetic analysis of any sports
star’s physical abilities
(B) distinguish between lasting fame and mere
celebrity
(C) clarify the crucial role of rigorous, sustained
training
(D) highlight the need for greater understanding of
the athletes’ genetic data
(E) suggest that athletes’ special skills have a genetic
component

20. In line 49, “open” most nearly means
(A) overt
(B) frank
(C) unrestricted
(D) unprotected
(E) public

21. In line 55, “divergent experiences” emphasizes that
which of the following is particularly important for
a developing child?
(A) Character
(B) Heritage
(C) Intelligence
(D) Environment
(E) Personality

22. In the quotation in lines 61-64, George Will
primarily draws attention to
(A) a weakness inherent in cloning theory
(B) a goal that some advocates of cloning
might share
(C) the limitations of human individuality
(D) the likelihood that children will rebel
against their parents
(E) the extent to which a cloned person
might differ from the original person

23. Both passages base their arguments on the unstated
assumption that
(A) genetic distinctiveness is crucial to human
survival as a species
(B) public concern about human cloning will
eventually diminish
(C) human cloning is a genuine possibility in
the future
(D) individualism is less prized today than it has
been in the past
(E) technological advances have had a mostly
positive impact on society


















S T O P
If you finish before time is called, you may check your work on this section only.
Do not turn to any other section in the test.
SAT Preparation Booklet
64
Unauthorized copying or reuse of
any part of this page is illegal.
SECTION 5
Time — 25 minutes
20 Questions
Turn to Section 5 (page 5) of your answer sheet to answer the questions in this section.
Directions: For this section, solve each problem and decide which is the best of the choices given. Fill in the corresponding
circle on the answer sheet. You may use any available space for scratchwork.
1. Each of the following is a factor of 80 EXCEPT
(A) 5
(B) 8
(C) 12
(D) 16
(E) 40
k wx
m w k
=
= − ( )
3
1
2. If k and m are defined by the equations above, what is
the value of m when w 4 and x 1 ?
(A) 0
(B) 3
(C) 12
(D) 24
(E) 36
3. There are five houses on each side of a street, as
shown in the figure above. No two houses next to
each other on the same side of the street and no two
houses directly across from each other on opposite
sides of the street can be painted the same color. If the
houses labeled G are painted gray, how many of the
seven remaining houses cannot be painted gray?
(A) Two
(B) Three
(C) Four
(D) Five
(E) Six
Official SAT Practice Test
65
Unauthorized copying or reuse of
any part of this page is illegal.
4. If 7 7 7
3 12 n
× = , what is the value of n ?
(A) 2
(B) 4
(C) 9
(D) 15
(E) 36
PRICES
INVENTORY
CAPACITY
Table Chair Warehouse
1990 $240 $25 X Y Z
1995 $265 $30 Tables 30 80 30
2000 $280 $36 Chairs 125 200 140
5. A furniture company makes one style of tables and
chairs. The chart on the left above gives the prices of
these tables and chairs in three different years. The
chart on the right gives the maximum number of tables
and chairs that can be stocked in each of three ware-
houses, X, Y, and Z. Based on the prices shown, what
was the maximum possible value of the table and chair
inventory in warehouse Y in 1995 ?
(A) $23,950
(B) $26,500
(C) $27,200
(D) $28,400
(E) $29,500
6. In the figure above, which of the following is greatest?
(A) a
(B) b
(C) c
(D) d
(E) e
7. Which of the following could be the equation of the
graph above?
(A)
2
2 y x
(B)
2
( 2) y x
(C)
2
2 y x
(D)
2
( 2) y x
(E)
2
2 y x
8. What is the total number of right angles formed by the
edges of a cube?
(A) 36
(B) 24
(C) 20
(D) 16
(E) 12
9. If p t 1 3 0 and p is positive, what is the
value of t ?
(A) 3
(B) 1
(C) 0
(D) 1
(E) 3
SAT Preparation Booklet
66
Unauthorized copying or reuse of
any part of this page is illegal.
, x y
0, 100
1, 99
2, 96
10. Which of the following equations describes y in terms
of x for all ordered pairs in the table above?
(A)
2
100 y x
(B) 100 y x
(C) 100 2 y x
(D) 100 4 y x
(E) 100 100 y x
11. A stamp collecting club calculated that the average
(arithmetic mean) number of stamps in its members’
10 collections was 88. However, it was discovered that
2 numbers in the calculations were entered incorrectly.
The number 55 was entered as 75 and the number 78
as 88. What is the correct average number of stamps in
the 10 collections?
(A) 91
(B) 89
(C) 87
(D) 86
(E) 85
12. In the figure above, what is the slope of line ?
(A)
r
s
(B)
r
s
(C)
s
r
(D)
s
r
(E)
1
rs
13. In the figure above, if || m and r = 91, then t u + =
(A) 178
(B) 179
(C) 180
(D) 181
(E) 182
14. If x is the coordinate of the indicated point on the
number line above, which of the lettered points has
coordinate −2x ?
(A) A
(B) B
(C) C
(D) D
(E) E
15. Points X and Y are two different points on a circle.
Point M is located so that line segment XM and
line segment YM have equal length. Which of the
following could be true?
I. M is the center of the circle.
II. M is on arc . XY
III. M is outside of the circle.
(A) I only
(B) II only
(C) I and II only
(D) II and III only
(E) I, II, and III
Official SAT Practice Test
67
Unauthorized copying or reuse of
any part of this page is illegal.
16. The graphs of the functions f and g are lines, as
shown above. What is the value of f g 3 3 ?
(A) 1.5
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5.5
17. If A is the set of prime numbers and B is the set of
two-digit positive integers whose units digit is 5, how
many numbers are common to both sets?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Five
(E) Nine
18. If 75 percent of m is equal to k percent of 25, where
k 0, what is the value of
m
k
?
(A)
3
16
(B)
1
3
(C)
3
4
(D) 3
(E)
16
3
19. R is the midpoint of line segment , PT and Q is the
midpoint of line segment . PR If S is a point between
R and T such that the length of segment QS is 10
and the length of segment PS is 19, what is the
length of segment ? ST
(A) 13
(B) 14
(C) 15
(D) 16
(E) 17
20. A telephone company charges x cents for the first
minute of a call and charges for any additional time
at the rate of y cents per minute. If a certain call
costs $5.55 and lasts more than 1 minute, which of
the following expressions represents the length of
that call, in minutes?
(A)
555 x
y
(B)
555 x y
y
(C)
555 x y
y
(D)
555 x y
y
(E)
555
x y
S T O P
If you finish before time is called, you may check your work on this section only.
Do not turn to any other section in the test.
SAT Preparation Booklet
68


SECTION 6
Time — 25 minutes
25 Questions

Turn to Section 6 (page 6) of your answer sheet to answer the questions in this section.

Directions: For each question in this section, select the best answer from among the choices given and fill in the corresponding
circle on the answer sheet.

Each sentence below has one or two blanks, each blank
indicating that something has been omitted. Beneath
the sentence are five words or sets of words labeled A
through E. Choose the word or set of words that, when
inserted in the sentence, best fits the meaning of the
sentence as a whole.
Example:
Hoping to ------- the dispute, negotiators proposed
a compromise that they felt would be ------- to both
labor and management.
(A) enforce . . useful
(B) end . . divisive
(C) overcome . . unattractive
(D) extend . . satisfactory
(E) resolve . . acceptable


1. Common garlic has ------- properties; during the
First World War British medics saved thousands
of lives by wrapping wounds with garlic-soaked
bandages.
(A) curative (B) flavoring (C) inferior
(D) questionable (E) infamous

2. In her poems, Alice Walker retrieves and ------- parts
of Black culture that some have been all too quick to
------- the past as fossilized artifacts.
(A) revitalizes . . consign to
(B) conjoins . . exclude from
(C) realigns . . salvage from
(D) diffuses . . defer to
(E) refracts . . impose on

3. The modest acceptance speech of the Academy Award-
winning actress revealed a ------- that contrasted with
her uninhibited screen performances.
(A) theatricality (B) sullenness
(C) flamboyance (D) reserve
(E) nonchalance

4. Because howler monkeys rarely come out of the trees
in their arboreal habitat, the continued well-being of
the rain forest is ------- to their survival.
(A) inadequate (B) tangential
(C) indispensable (D) baneful
(E) expeditious

5. Doug was both ------- and -------: he possessed
penetrating acuity and discernment and was also
extremely humble.
(A) diligent . . supercilious
(B) perspicacious . . unpretentious
(C) obtuse . . penitent
(D) sagacious . . imposing
(E) apologetic . . unassuming

6. The Mona Lisa, shipped in a private cabin and received
by important dignitaries, was treated more like -------
than a painting upon its arrival in the United States.
(A) a perfectionist (B) a maverick (C) a potentate
(D) an ascetic (E) an interloper

7. Despite its patent -------, this belief has become
so ------- that no amount of rational argument
will suffice to eradicate it.
(A) validity . . inconsequential
(B) implausibility . . entrenched
(C) credibility . . prevalent
(D) absurdity . . outmoded
(E) novelty . . infrequent

8. The charlatan’s seemingly frank and open demeanor
was actually a ------- means of enlisting his patient’s
confidence.
(A) disingenuous (B) debilitating
(C) diminutive (D) cathartic
(E) prosaic

abcd,
Official SAT Practice Test
69


-29-
The passages below are followed by questions based on their content; questions following a pair of related passages may also
be based on the relationship between the paired passages. Answer the questions on the basis of what is stated or implied in the
passages and in any introductory material that may be provided.

Questions 9-13 are based on the following passages.
Passage 1
It is striking how our culture has wholeheartedly
adopted the recycling ethic. Most parents have probably
received humbling lectures from their children after tossing
a glass jar or newspaper in the trash can. But the popularity
of recycling is even more surprising considering the incon- 5
veniences associated with it. Who hasn’t experienced the
annoyance of trying to satisfy complicated rules about what
can and cannot be recycled? Glass jars—but not their tops?
Plastics number 1 and 2—but not number 3? Still there is
no sign that the public is becoming impatient, so convinced 10
are people of the virtues of recycling.
Passage 2
Mandatory recycling programs aren’t good for posterity.
They offer mainly short-term benefits to a few groups—
like politicians and waste-handling corporations—while
diverting money from genuine social and environmental 15
problems. Recycling programs actually consume resources.
They require extra administrators and a continual public
relations campaign explaining what to do with dozens of
different products—recycle milk jugs but not milk cartons,
index cards but not construction paper. Collecting a ton of 20
recyclable items is three times more expensive than collect-
ing a ton of garbage because crews pick up less material
at each stop. Recycling may be the most wasteful activity
in the modern United States: a waste of time and money,
a waste of human and natural resources. 25

9. Which statement best characterizes the relationship
between Passage 1 and Passage 2 ?
(A) Passage 1 presents ethical objections to an action
that Passage 2 also censures.
(B) Passage 1 mocks a group of people that Passage 2
praises.
(C) Passage 1 describes a cultural phenomenon that
Passage 2 criticizes.
(D) Passage 1 discusses the historical foundations
of recycling, whereas Passage 2 considers
the future of recycling.
(E) Passage 1 describes people’s fascination with
recycling, whereas Passage 2 explains the
process of sorting recyclables.

10. Unlike Passage 1, Passage 2 focuses primarily on
recycling’s
(A) philosophical foundations
(B) economic impact
(C) popular appeal
(D) moral implications
(E) environmental benefits

11. The author of Passage 2 would most likely characterize
the “people” mentioned in line 11 as
(A) emotional
(B) indecisive
(C) unmotivated
(D) undemanding
(E) uninformed

12. The authors of both passages would most likely agree
that recycling rules are
(A) convoluted
(B) commendable
(C) unethical
(D) antiquated
(E) unenforceable

13. Compared to the tone of Passage 2, the tone of
Passage 1 is more
(A) pessimistic
(B) arrogant
(C) critical
(D) scholarly
(E) tempered

Line
SAT Preparation Booklet
70


-30-
Questions 14-25 are based on the following passage.
This passage is taken from a novel set in early twentieth-
century England. Mrs. Deverell is the widow of a shop-
keeper who lived and worked in Volunteer Street; their
daughter Angel has become a best-selling novelist. Here,
Mrs. Deverell finds herself in a new home that she and
Angel share in the prosperous village of Alderhurst.
“I never thought I would live in such a beautiful place,”
Mrs. Deverell told Angel when they first moved in. But
nowadays she often suffered from the lowering pain of
believing herself happy when she was not. “Who could
be miserable in such a place?” she asked. Yet, on misty 5
October evenings or on Sundays, when the church bells
began, sensations she had never known before came
over her.
She sometimes felt better when she went back to see
her friends on Volunteer Street; but it was a long way to 10
go. Angel discouraged the visits, and her friends seemed
to have changed. Either they put out their best china and
thought twice before they said anything, or they were
defiantly informal—“You’ll have to take us as you find
us”—and would persist in making remarks like “Pardon 15
the apron, but there’s no servants here to polish the grate.”
In each case, they were watching her for signs of grandeur
or condescension. She fell into little traps they laid and
then they were able to report to the neighbors. “It hasn’t
taken her long to start putting on airs.” She had to be 20
especially careful to recognize everyone she met, and
walked up the street with an expression of anxiety which
was misinterpreted as disdain.
The name “Deverell Family Grocer” stayed for a long
time over the shop, and she was pleased that it should, 25
although Angel frowned with annoyance when she heard
of it. Then one day the faded name was scraped and burnt
away, and on her next visit to Volunteer Street, she saw
that “Cubbage’s Stores” was painted there instead. She felt
an unaccountable panic and dismay at the sight of this and 30
at the strange idea of other people and furniture in those
familiar rooms. “Very nice folk,” she was told. “She’s
so friendly. Always the same. And such lovely kiddies.”
Mrs. Deverell felt slighted and wounded; going home
she was so preoccupied that she passed the wife of the 35
landlord of The Volunteer without seeing her. “I wouldn’t
expect Alderhurst people to speak to a barkeep’s wife,”
the woman told everyone in the saloon bar. “Even though
it was our Gran who laid her husband out when he died.”
All of their kindnesses were remembered and brooded 40
over; any past kindness Mrs. Deverell had done—and
they were many—only served to underline the change
which had come over her.
At a time of her life when she needed the security of
familiar things, these were put beyond her reach. It seemed 45
to her that she had wasted her years acquiring skills which
in the end were to be of no use to her: her weather-eye for
a good drying day; her careful ear for judging the gentle
singing sound of meat roasting in the oven; her touch for
the freshness of meat; and how, by smelling a cake, she 50
could tell if it were baked. These arts, which had taken
so long to perfect, fell now into disuse. She would never
again, she grieved, gather up a great fragrant line of
washing in her arms to carry indoors. One day when they
had first come to the new house, she had passed through 55
the courtyard where sheets were hanging out: she had
taken them in her hands and, finding them just at the right
stage of drying, had begun to unpeg them. They were
looped all about her shoulders when Angel caught her.
“Please leave work to the people who should do it,” she 60
had said. “You will only give offense.” She tried hard
not to give offense; but it was difficult. The smell of
ironing being done or the sound of eggs being whisked
set up a restlessness which she could scarcely control.
The relationship of mother and daughter seemed to 65
have been reversed, and Angel, now in her early twenties,
was the authoritative one; since girlhood she had been
taking on one responsibility after another, until she had
left her mother with nothing to perplex her but how to
while away the hours when the servants were busy and 70
her daughter was at work. Fretfully, she would wander
around the house, bored, but afraid to interrupt; she was
like an intimidated child.

14. Which interpretation of Mrs. Deverell’s statement
in line 1 (“I never . . . place”) is most fully supported
by the rest of the passage?
(A) It reveals an unsatisfied longing for beauty and
comfort.
(B) It suggests that Mrs. Deverell is unprepared for
her new life.
(C) It illustrates Mrs. Deverell’s desire to impress
her old friends.
(D) It hints at Mrs. Deverell’s increasing discomfort
with her daughter’s career.
(E) It indicates Mrs. Deverell’s inability to be happy
in any environment.

15. The “sensations” (line 7) might best be described
as feelings of
(A) anger and bitterness
(B) reverence and gratitude
(C) dejection and isolation
(D) nostalgia and serenity
(E) empathy and concern

Line
Official SAT Practice Test
71


-31-
16. The primary purpose of the second paragraph
(lines 9-23) is to show Mrs. Deverell’s
(A) surprise that her friends have not forgotten her
(B) nostalgia for her old neighborhood
(C) feelings of superiority toward her friends
(D) embarrassment about her former neighborhood
(E) changing relationship with her friends

17. The author most likely quotes Mrs. Deverell’s friends
in lines 14-16 in order to
(A) voice a concern
(B) dismiss a belief
(C) illustrate an attitude
(D) cite an authority
(E) mock an undertaking

18. The speaker of the sentence quoted in lines 15-16
(“Pardon . . . grate”) most likely intends to
(A) account for a peculiar style of dress
(B) bemoan the lack of adequate help around
the house
(C) frankly apologize for the messiness of
the family’s home
(D) indirectly express resentment about
a difference in social status
(E) overtly call attention to Mrs. Deverell’s
arrogant behavior

19. Mrs. Deverell’s reaction to the remarks quoted
in lines 32-33 suggests that she thinks that these
remarks
(A) contain an implicit criticism
(B) mischaracterize the new family
(C) are a poor attempt at humor
(D) stem from an old grudge
(E) insult the memory of her husband

20. Lines 40-43 (“All of . . . her”) suggest which of the
following about the customers in the saloon bar?
(A) They do not recall those occasions when
Mrs. Deverell was kind to them.
(B) They feel that Mrs. Deverell is still essentially
the same person that she has always been.
(C) They are not especially well acquainted with
Mrs. Deverell.
(D) They are more generous toward themselves
than they are toward Mrs. Deverell.
(E) They do not generally share the opinions of
the barkeeper’s wife.

21. Lines 45-52 (“It . . . disuse”) suggest which of the
following about the way that Mrs. Deverell had viewed
the task of running a household?
(A) She had believed some elements of it were
beneath her.
(B) She had understood the importance of its
sensory aspects.
(C) She had developed a regimented system.
(D) She had been afraid to ask Angel for her help.
(E) She had relied on household help to perform
certain chores.

22. The use of “arts” in line 51 most directly
emphasizes the
(A) pride Mrs. Deverell’s family took in
her housekeeping skills
(B) expertise Mrs. Deverell brought to her
household tasks
(C) importance of maintaining an orderly home
(D) rewards of preparing elaborate meals
(E) pleasure Mrs. Deverell found in teaching
young servants

SAT Preparation Booklet
72


23. Angel’s comments in lines 60-61 (“‘Please . . .
offense’”) imply that
(A) Mrs. Deverell has inadequate housekeeping
experience
(B) many people enjoy the opportunity to perform
household tasks
(C) Mrs. Deverell often hurts the feelings of others
(D) domestic tasks are unsuitable for Mrs. Deverell’s
new social status
(E) Mrs. Deverell is not a particularly efficient
worker

24. In line 69, “perplex” most nearly means
(A) trouble
(B) bewilder
(C) astonish
(D) entangle
(E) embarrass
25. In line 73, the author compares Mrs. Deverell to
an “intimidated child” primarily in order to
(A) criticize Mrs. Deverell for her naive view
of the world
(B) show that Mrs. Deverell continues to be
diminished in her new home
(C) imply that Mrs. Deverell cannot live up
to her responsibilities
(D) indicate the simplicity of Mrs. Deverell’s
new life
(E) justify Angel’s dismissal of her mother’s
feelings


































S T O P
If you finish before time is called, you may check your work on this section only.
Do not turn to any other section in the test.
Official SAT Practice Test
73
SECTION 8
Time — 20 minutes
16 Questions
Turn to Section 8 (page 7) of your answer sheet to answer the questions in this section.
Directions: For this section, solve each problem and decide which is the best of the choices given. Fill in the corresponding
circle on the answer sheet. You may use any available space for scratchwork.
1. Conall had a box of 36 candy bars to sell for a class
fundraiser. He sold 10 of the bars on his own, and
his mother sold half of the remaining bars to her
coworkers. If no other bars were sold, what fraction
of Conall’s original 36 bars remained unsold?
(A)
5
8
(B)
11
36
(C)
1
3
(D)
13
36
(E)
7
18
2. In ᭝PQR above, PR QR = . Which of the following
must be true?
(A) u x =
(B) x v =
(C) x z =
(D) y x =
(E) y z =
SAT Preparation Booklet
74
3. The bar graph above shows the number of tons of
beans produced on a large farm for the years 1985
through 1991. For which of the following two-year
periods was the average (arithmetic mean) bean
production closest to the bean production in 1985 ?
(A) 1986-1987
(B) 1987-1988
(C) 1988-1989
(D) 1989-1990
(E) 1990-1991
4. Marcus can spend no more than $120 on jeans and
shirts for school. He buys 3 pairs of jeans at $32
each. If x represents the dollar amount he can spend
on shirts, which of the following inequalities could
be used to determine the possible values for x ?
(A) 3 32 120 ؒ x
(B) ( ) 3 32 120 ؒ x
(C) 3 32 120 ؒ x
(D) 3 32 120 ؒ x
(E) x 3 32 ؒ
5. If y is directly proportional to x, which of the
following could be the graph that shows the
relationship between y and x ?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
6. What is the perimeter of the trapezoid above?
(A) 52
(B) 72
(C) 75
(D) 80
(E) 87
Official SAT Practice Test
75
7. A store discounts merchandise by 10 percent of the
original price at the end of each week and stops when
the merchandise is priced at 50 percent of the original
price. Which of the following graphs could correctly
represent the price of an article of merchandise over
an eight-week period?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
8. If
x y
a b
+

=
2
3
, then
9 9
10 10
x y
a b
+

=
(A)
9
10
(B)
20
23
(C)
20
27
(D)
2
3
(E)
3
5
9. The interior dimensions of a rectangular fish tank are
4 feet long, 3 feet wide, and 2 feet high. The water
level in the tank is 1 foot high. All of the water in this
tank is poured into an empty second tank. If the interior
dimensions of the second tank are 3 feet long, 2 feet
wide, and 4 feet high, what is the height of the water in
the second tank?
(A) 0.5 ft
(B) 1 ft
(C) 1.5 ft
(D) 2 ft
(E) 4 ft
1 2 3 , ,
10. If m, n, and k are to be assigned different values from
the list above, how many different values will be
possible for the expression m n
k
?
(A) Three
(B) Four
(C) Five
(D) Eight
(E) Nine
SAT Preparation Booklet
76
NUMBER OF EMPLOYEES AT COMPANY X
First Shift Second Shift
Salary over $30,000 30 10
Salary $30,000 or less 40 20
11. The table above shows the number of employees at
Company X classified according to work shift and
salary. If a second-shift employee will be picked at
random, what is the probability that the employee’s
salary is over $30,000 ?
(A)
1
2
(B)
1
3
(C)
1
10
(D)
2
3
(E)
2
5
12. If x is a positive integer satisfying x k
7
and
x m
9
, which of the following must be equal
to x
11
?
(A)
m
k
2
(B) m k
2
(C) m
2
7
(D) 2
3
k
m
(E) k 4
13. After the first term in a sequence of positive integers,
the ratio of each term to the term immediately
preceding it is 2 to 1. What is the ratio of the
8th term in this sequence to the 5th term?
(A) 6 to 1
(B) 8 to 5
(C) 8 to 1
(D) 64 to 1
(E) 256 to 1
14. In the figure above, the smaller circles each have
radius 3. They are tangent to the larger circle at
points A and C, and are tangent to each other at
point B, which is the center of the larger circle.
What is the perimeter of the shaded region?
(A) 6
(B) 8
(C) 9
(D) 12
(E) 15
15. Each of the following inequalities is true for some
values of x EXCEPT
(A) x x x
2 3
(B) x x x
3 2
(C) x x x
2 3
(D) x x x
3 2
(E) x x x
3 2
16. In the figure above, AC = 6 and BC = 3. Point P
(not shown) lies on AB between A and B such that
. CP AB Which of the following could be the length
of CP ?
(A) 2
(B) 4
(C) 5
(D) 7
(E) 8
S T O P
If you finish before time is called, you may check your work on this section only.
Do not turn to any other section in the test.
Official SAT Practice Test
77


-47-
SECTION 9
Time — 20 minutes
19 Questions

Turn to Section 9 (page 7) of your answer sheet to answer the questions in this section.

Directions: For each question in this section, select the best answer from among the choices given and fill in the corresponding
circle on the answer sheet.

Each sentence below has one or two blanks, each blank
indicating that something has been omitted. Beneath
the sentence are five words or sets of words labeled A
through E. Choose the word or set of words that, when
inserted in the sentence, best fits the meaning of the
sentence as a whole.
Example:
Hoping to ------- the dispute, negotiators proposed
a compromise that they felt would be ------- to both
labor and management.
(A) enforce . . useful
(B) end . . divisive
(C) overcome . . unattractive
(D) extend . . satisfactory
(E) resolve . . acceptable


1. Unable to discover how the fire started, the inspectors
filed a tentative report stating that the cause was -------.
(A) noteworthy (B) definitive (C) fundamental
(D) conclusive (E) indeterminate

2. The celebrants at the ------- party for Cinco De Mayo
were understandably ------- by the spectacle of the
mariachi bands and the colorful piñatas for the
children.
(A) somber . . amused
(B) lavish . . dazzled
(C) novel . . jaded
(D) mundane . . astounded
(E) joyous . . stymied

3. “Hawaii” refers both to the group of islands known
as the Hawaiian islands and to the largest island in
that -------.
(A) flora (B) sierra (C) archipelago
(D) flotilla (E) savanna

4. Given the exponential growth of scientific knowledge,
medicine is far less ------- unsubstantiated fads than
it used to be; its record of folly, however, remains
an undeniable -------.
(A) suspicious of . . qualification
(B) averse to . . encumbrance
(C) vulnerable to . . embarrassment
(D) dependent on . . impossibility
(E) ignorant of . . oversight

5. The aspiring writer, who remained ------- even after
being rejected by several major publishers, felt certain
of achieving literary -------.
(A) hopeless . . vindication
(B) disgruntled . . talent
(C) optimistic . . abasement
(D) undaunted . . celebrity
(E) obsequious . . neglect

6. Fred often used ------- to achieve his professional
goals, even though such artful subterfuge alienated
his colleagues.
(A) chicanery (B) diligence (C) bombast
(D) disputation (E) consensus

abcd,
SAT Preparation Booklet
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The passage below is followed by questions based on its content. Answer the questions on the basis of what is stated or implied
in the passage and in any introductory material that may be provided.

Questions 7-19 are based on the following passage.
In the following passage from a newspaper commentary
written in 1968, an architecture critic discusses old
theaters and concert halls.
After 50 years of life and 20 years of death, the great
Adler and Sullivan Auditorium in Chicago is back in
business again. Orchestra Hall, also in Chicago, was
beautifully spruced up for its sixty-eighth birthday. In
St. Louis, a 1925 movie palace has been successfully 5
transformed into Powell Symphony Hall, complete with
handsome bar from New York’s demolished Metropolitan
Opera House.
Sentimentalism? Hardly. This is no more than a
practical coming of cultural age, a belated recognition 10
that fine old buildings frequently offer the most for the
money in an assortment of values, including cost, and
above all, that new cultural centers do not a culture
make. It indicates the dawning of certain sensibilities,
perspectives, and standards without which arts programs 15
are mockeries of everything the arts stand for.
The last decade has seen city after city rush pell-mell
into the promotion of great gobs of cultural real estate. It
has seen a few good new theaters and a lot of bad ones,
temples to bourgeois muses with all the panache of sub- 20
urban shopping centers. The practice has been to treat the
arts in chamber-of-commerce, rather than in creative,
terms. That is just as tragic as it sounds.
The trend toward preservation is significant not only
because it is saving and restoring some superior buildings 25
that are testimonials to the creative achievements of other
times, but also because it is bucking the conventional
wisdom of the conventional power structure that provides
the backing for conventional cultural centers to house the
arts. 30
That wisdom, as it comes true-blue from the hearts and
minds of real estate dealers and investment bankers, is that
you don’t keep old buildings; they are obsolete. Anything
new is better than anything old and anything big is better
than anything small, and if a few cultural values are lost 35
along the way, it is not too large a price to pay. In addition,
the new, big buildings must be all in one place so they will
show. They’ll not only serve the arts, they’ll improve the
surrounding property values. Build now, and fill them later.
At the same time, tear down the past, rip out cultural 40
roots, erase tradition, rub out the architectural evidence that
the arts flowered earlier in our cities and enriched them and
that this enrichment is culture. Substitute a safe and sanitary
status symbol for the loss. Put up the shiny mediocrities of
the present and demolish the shabby masterpieces of the 45
past. That is the ironic other side of the “cultural explosion”
coin. In drama, and in life, irony and tragedy go hand in
hand.
Chicago’s Auditorium is such a masterpiece. With its
glowing, golden ambiance, its soaring arches and super- 50
stage from which whispers can be heard in the far reaches
of the theater, it became a legend in its own time. One of
the great nineteenth-century works of Louis Sullivan and
Dankmar Adler and an anchor point of modern architectural
history, it has been an acknowledged model of acoustical 55
and aesthetic excellence. (Interestingly, the Auditorium is
a hard theater in which to install microphones today, and
many modern performers, untrained in balance and pro-
jection and reliant on technical mixing of sound, find it
hard to function in a near-perfect house.) 60
Until October 1967, the last performance at the Auditor-
ium was of Hellzapoppin’ in 1941, and the last use of the
great stage was for bowling alleys during the Second World
War. Closed after that, it settled into decay for the next
20 years. Falling plaster filled the hall, and the golden ceil- 65
ing was partly ruined by broken roof drains. Last fall the
Auditorium reopened, not quite in its old glory, but close
to it. The splendors of the house were traced in the eight-
candlepower glory of carbon-filament lightbulbs of the
same kind used in 1889 when the theater, and electricity, 70
were new. Their gentle brilliance picked out restored archi-
tectural features in warm gilt and umber.
We have never had greater technical means or expertise
to make our landmarks bloom. The question is no longer
whether we can bring old theaters back to new brilliance, 75
but whether we can fill them when they’re done. As with
the new centers, that will be the acid cultural test.

7. The principal function of the opening paragraph is to
(A) introduce the concept of conventional arts centers
(B) illustrate the trend toward revitalization of cultural
landmarks
(C) explore the connection between classical archi-
tecture and the arts
(D) provide an explanation for the theater’s resurgent
popularity
(E) contrast the beauty of old theaters with ordinary
modern buildings

Line
Official SAT Practice Test
79


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8. On the basis of information provided in the rest of the
passage, the word “death” (line 1) best conveys
(A) flagging attendance
(B) wartime malaise
(C) demolition
(D) neglect
(E) disrepute

9. The bar mentioned in line 7 had apparently been
(A) costly but symbolic
(B) beautiful but outdated
(C) enlarged and elongated
(D) treasured and imitated
(E) rescued and relocated

10. The question in line 9 is intended to
(A) expose the folly of the new construction
(B) convey the emotional burdens of the past
(C) provide a typical explanation for the renovations
(D) lament the decline of cultural values
(E) address the public’s indifference toward old
buildings

11. In lines 13-14, the phrase “new . . . make” most
directly suggests that
(A) modern architects lack the artistic reputations of
their predecessors
(B) the commercial treatment of culture encourages
art that is mass-produced
(C) culture evolves out of tradition and cannot be
instantly created
(D) historically significant venues positively influence
the creative process
(E) new cultural centers should be constructed in
collaboration with artists

12. The description in lines 20-21 (“temples . . . centers”)
best serves to
(A) scorn the architects’ commitment to historically
accurate renovations
(B) mock the timeworn theatrical works showcased in
modern cultural centers
(C) deprecate the appearance and character of many
new theaters
(D) downplay the government’s efforts to support the
arts
(E) poke good-humored fun at commercial
establishments

13. As described in lines 17-23, the “practice” refers to the
(A) commercialization of culture
(B) preservation of cultural treasures
(C) construction of shopping centers
(D) government funding of the arts
(E) distortion of theatrical works

14. In lines 27-30, the author uses the word “conventional”
several times in order to
(A) reveal the performers’ frustration with modern
theaters
(B) disparage the present-day treatment of the arts
(C) parody the creative efforts of contemporary artists
(D) emphasize the absurdity of a purely aesthetic
approach to the arts
(E) exaggerate the importance of tradition in the arts

15. The fifth paragraph (lines 31-39) primarily serves to
(A) criticize the way in which cultural buildings are
viewed as commodities
(B) assess the positive impact of the architects’
backlash against mediocrity
(C) contrast the business practices of real estate
brokers with those of bankers
(D) enumerate the costs and benefits of restoring
historic landmarks
(E) question the importance of the arts to society

SAT Preparation Booklet
80



16. What does the imagery in lines 40- 43 suggest?
(A) The dawning of an enlightened artistic sensibility
has stimulated support for preserving historic
theaters.
(B) The ill-conceived mandate to destroy architectural
masterpieces epitomizes the censorship of
creative expression.
(C) The desire for societal status symbols drives the
construction of grandiose cultural centers.
(D) The demolition of a historic landmark is
tantamount to the destruction of an invaluable
cultural legacy.
(E) The restoration of intimate old theaters will speed
the demise of large new arenas.

17. In lines 49-56, the description of the building primarily
serves to
(A) convey an appreciation for the technical
complexities of renovating theaters
(B) illustrate how nineteenth-century architecture
directly influenced modern building design
(C) highlight some unique aspects of an example
of fine architecture
(D) explain why some people disdain innovative
architecture
(E) show how restoration can strip a building of
its unique character

18. In lines 56-60, the author’s comment about micro-
phones implies that
(A) the near-perfect acoustics in a new theater divert
attention from the building’s aesthetic flaws
(B) audience members seated in the theater’s balcony
cannot fully appreciate the nuances of the
performers’ intonations
(C) the performances of modern-day actors tend to be
overly dependent on technology
(D) the absence of technically sophisticated
equipment has jeopardized the sound quality of
performances
(E) old theaters can remain viable because they
readily accommodate the new sound technology
that enhances a performance

19. Which challenge is emphasized by the author in the
final paragraph (lines 73-77) ?
(A) Designating theaters as historical landmarks
(B) Renewing a respect for architecture
(C) Providing opportunities for new artists
(D) Reviving classical plays
(E) Attracting appreciative audiences


























S T O P
If you finish before time is called, you may check your work on this section only.
Do not turn to any other section in the test.
Official SAT Practice Test
81


-52-

SECTION 10
Time — 10 minutes
14 Questions

Turn to Section 10 (page 7) of your answer sheet to answer the questions in this section.

Directions: For each question in this section, select the best answer from among the choices given and fill in the corresponding
circle on the answer sheet.

The following sentences test correctness and effectiveness
of expression. Part of each sentence or the entire sentence
is underlined; beneath each sentence are five ways of
phrasing the underlined material. Choice A repeats the
original phrasing; the other four choices are different. If
you think the original phrasing produces a better sentence
than any of the alternatives, select choice A; if not, select
one of the other choices.
In making your selection, follow the requirements of
standard written English; that is, pay attention to grammar,
choice of words, sentence construction, and punctuation.
Your selection should result in the most effective
sentence—clear and precise, without awkwardness or
ambiguity.

EXAMPLE:
Laura Ingalls Wilder published her first book
and she was sixty-five years old then.
(A) and she was sixty-five years old then
(B) when she was sixty-five
(C) at age sixty-five years old
(D) upon the reaching of sixty-five years
(E) at the time when she was sixty-five


1. People were unprepared for the sinking of the
Titanic simply because of believing that the ship
was unsinkable.
(A) of believing that the ship was unsinkable
(B) of having a belief in the ship as unsinkable
(C) they believed that the ship was unsinkable
(D) they believed the unsinkable nature of
the ship
(E) of a belief on their part of an
unsinkable ship

2. When the weather forecaster predicts a severe storm,
this is when people usually rush to the supermarket to
stock up on groceries.
(A) storm, this is when people usually rush
(B) storm is usually when people are rushing
(C) storm is why people usually rush
(D) storm, people usually rush
(E) storm, it usually rushes people

3. When, after bleak and lonely years in an English
public school, he returned to India, there was suddenly
perceived by himself a strong desire to write about the
people and land he loved.
(A) there was suddenly perceived by himself
(B) he suddenly was perceived
(C) suddenly the feeling that came to him being
(D) he suddenly felt
(E) suddenly he had the feeling of

4. Curiosity about other people, about the ways they think
and act, has caused Jeff to meet some fascinating
characters as well as people which also really bore
him.
(A) people which also really bore him
(B) he encountered really boring people
(C) very boring people are also met
(D) some very boring people
(E) very boring people also

5. During seasons when ticks carrying Lyme disease are
most prevalent, signs could be posted to deter hikers
about their venturing into tick-infested areas.
(A) about their venturing
(B) from their venturing
(C) from venturing
(D) by not venturing
(E) not to venture

a,cde
SAT Preparation Booklet
82


-53-
6. After Morris had spent ten minutes giving an answer,
Claudette found he had given her only one item of
information beyond what she already knew.
(A) beyond what she already knew
(B) beyond what she knows already
(C) beyond her knowledge at the current time
(D) to add to what she knew already presently
(E) in addition to her present knowledge then

7. Although the kings and queens of England are
considered Canada’s monarchs, true political power
lies with the prime minister, that person is elected by
the Canadian citizenry.
(A) true political power lies with the prime minister,
that person is elected
(B) the person who holds true political power is the
prime minister, which is elected
(C) true political power lies with the prime minister,
who is elected
(D) the prime minister, the source of true political
power, elected
(E) true political power is with the prime minister and
is elected

8. Led by vocalist Marlena McGhee Smalls, Gullah
tradition is preserved by the help of the Hallelujah
Singers of South Carolina through songs and stories.
(A) Gullah tradition is preserved by the help of the
Hallelujah Singers of South Carolina through
songs and stories
(B) the Hallelujah Singers of South Carolina help to
preserve Gullah tradition through songs and
stories
(C) the songs and stories of Gullah tradition are
preserved through the Hallelujah Singers
of South Carolina
(D) it is the Hallelujah Singers that help to preserve
the songs and stories of Gullah tradition in South
Carolina
(E) South Carolina’s Gullah tradition is preserved
through songs and stories by the Hallelujah
Singers

9. Astronomy is the study of celestial bodies in outer
space, especially their positions, dimensions,
movements, and composition.
(A) especially their positions, dimensions, move-
ments, and composition
(B) and especially they are concerned with their
positions, dimensions, movements, and
composition
(C) especially studying their positions, dimensions,
movements, and composition
(D) especially their positions, dimensions, move-
ments, and with their composition
(E) with special study of their positions, dimensions,
movements, and including composition

10. All the talk about controlling noise, keeping rivers
clean, and planting trees have not impressed people
enough to be bringing about major changes in laws and
lifestyles.
(A) have not impressed people enough to be bringing
(B) have not made enough of an impression on people
to bring
(C) have not made people impressed enough to bring
(D) has not impressed people enough to bring
(E) has not made enough people impressed for
bringing

11. The furnace exploded, blowing off the door, spraying
greasy soot all over the basement floor, and it would
rattle furniture and windowpanes throughout the
building.
(A) it would rattle
(B) it rattled
(C) causing the rattling of
(D) the result was to rattle
(E) rattling


Official SAT Practice Test
83


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12. The adaptation of a novel for the screen often requires
major adjustments in plot because the one art form
differs from the other in having other character-
revelation techniques.
(A) because the one art form differs from the other in
having other character-revelation techniques
(B) because the two art forms reveal character
in different ways
(C) because of the differing ways the two may use for
revealing a character
(D) inasmuch as there are different ways in the two art
forms for character revelation
(E) insofar as the two differ in how to reveal character

13. The opposing opinions expressed were that the school
should be torn down and, on the other hand, to keep it as
a historical landmark.
(A) were that the school should be torn down and, on
the other hand, to keep it
(B) was that the school should be torn down
or kept
(C) were that the school should be torn down and that
it should be kept
(D) were about them tearing the school down and
them keeping the school
(E) were if they should tear the school down and
keeping it

14. Feeling, perhaps, that their votes do not matter, the
number of young people going to the polls
are becoming increasingly smaller.
(A) the number of young people going to the polls are
becoming increasingly smaller
(B) the number of young people going to the polls is
increasingly smaller
(C) increasingly smaller numbers of young
people are going to the polls
(D) young people are going to the polls in
increasingly smaller numbers
(E) young people, who in increasingly smaller
numbers are going to the polls


































S T O P
If you finish before time is called, you may check your work on this section only.
Do not turn to any other section in the test.


SAT Preparation Booklet
84
Correct Answers and Difficulty Levels for the Official SAT Practice Test
Section 4
COR. DIFF. COR. DIFF.
ANS. LEV. ANS. LEV.
1. E 1 13. A 3
2. C 3 14. B 3
3. B 3 15. A 2
4. E 5 16. B 3
5. C 5 17. E 3
6. B 1 18. A 1
7. D 2 19. E 3
8. B 5 20. C 2
9. D 5 21. D 3
10. B 3 22. E 2
11. A 3 23. C 3
12. E 2
Number correct
Number incorrect
Section 6
COR. DIFF. COR. DIFF.
ANS. LEV. ANS. LEV.
1. A 1 13. E 4
2. A 3 14. B 3
3. D 4 15. C 3
4. C 3 16. E 2
5. B 4 17. C 1
6. C 5 18. D 2
7. B 5 19. A 3
8. A 5 20. D 5
9. C 2 21. B 3
10. B 2 22. B 3
11. E 2 23. D 2
12. A 4 24. A 3
25. B 3
Number correct
Number incorrect
Section 9
COR. DIFF. COR. DIFF.
ANS. LEV. ANS. LEV.
1. E 1 11. C 3
2. B 2 12. C 4
3. C 3 13. A 3
4. C 3 14. B 5
5. D 4 15. A 3
6. A 5 16. D 3
7. B 3 17. C 3
8. D 2 18. C 3
9. E 3 19. E 3
10. C 4
Number correct
Number incorrect
Section 2
Multiple-Choice
Questions
Student-Produced
Response Questions
COR. DIFF. COR. DIFF.
ANS. LEV. ANS. LEV.
1. B 1 9. 89 1
2. C 1 10. 200 2
3. A 1 11. 75 3
4. D 2 12. 3 3
5. B 3 13. 12 3
6. D 4 14. 0 < x < 1 3
7. C 4 15. 1600 3
8. E 4 16. 5/8 or .625 4
17. 1/3 or .333 4
18. 5/2 or 2.5 5
Number correct Number correct
(9-18)
Number incorrect
Section 5
COR. DIFF. COR. DIFF.
ANS. LEV. ANS. LEV.
1. C 1 11. E 3
2. E 1 12. A 3
3. E 2 13. A 3
4. C 2 14. E 4
5. C 1 15. E 4
6. D 2 16. E 3
7. A 2 17. A 4
8. B 2 18. B 4
9. E 2 19. E 4
10. A 3 20. C 5
Number correct
Number incorrect
Section 8
COR. DIFF. COR. DIFF.
ANS. LEV. ANS. LEV.
1. D 1 9. D 3
2. E 1 10. A 3
3. A 1 11. B 3
4. C 2 12. A 4
5. D 2 13. C 4
6. D 3 14. D 4
7. C 3 15. C 5
8. E 3 16. A 5
Number correct
Number incorrect
Section 3
COR. DIFF. COR. DIFF. COR. DIFF. COR. DIFF.
ANS. LEV. ANS. LEV. ANS. LEV. ANS. LEV.
1. D 2 10. C 5 19. E 2 28. A 3
2. E 1 11. C 5 20. A 5 29. E 3
3. E 1 12. A 1 21. E 3 30. C 3
4. E 3 13. D 3 22. D 3 31. E 3
5. B 3 14. B 1 23. D 4 32. A 3
6. A 3 15. B 1 24. A 1 33. E 3
7. B 3 16. A 3 25. B 5 34. A 3
8. D 3 17. C 3 26. C 5 35. C 3
9. C 3 18. C 3 27. D 5
Number correct
Number incorrect
Section 10
COR. DIFF. COR. DIFF. COR. DIFF.
ANS. LEV. ANS. LEV. ANS. LEV.
1. C 1 6. A 1 11. E 3
2. D 1 7. C 2 12. B 3
3. D 1 8. B 3 13. C 4
4. D 1 9. A 3 14. D 5
5. C 3 10. D 3
Number correct
Number incorrect
NOTE: Difficulty levels are estimates of question difficulty for a reference group of college-bound seniors.
Difficulty levels range from 1 (easiest) to 5 (hardest).
Critical Reading
Mathematics
Writing
Get a score report
and answer
explanations! Enter
your answers online at
collegeboard.com/
satpracticetest.
Scoring the Official SAT Practice Test
85
Scoring the Official SAT Practice Test
To have your score calculated automatically, and to access answer
explanations, go to collegeboard.com/satpracticetest and enter
your answers online. To calculate your score on paper, check your
responses against the correct answers on page 84 and then fill in the
blanks below.
Get Your Critical Reading Score
How many critical reading questions did you get right?
Section 4: Questions 1–23 ___________
Section 6: Questions 1–25 + ___________
Section 9: Questions 1–19 + ___________
Total = ___________(A)
How many critical reading questions did you get wrong?
Section 4: Questions 1–23 ___________
Section 6: Questions 1–25 + ___________
Section 9: Questions 1–19 + ___________
Total = ___________
× 0.25 = ___________(B)
A − B = ___________
Critical Reading
Raw Score
Round this raw score to the nearest whole number.
Use the table on page 86 to find your critical reading scaled score.
Get Your Mathematics Score
How many mathematics questions did you get right?
Section 2: Questions 1–18 ___________
Section 5: Questions 1–20 + ___________
Section 8: Questions 1–16 + ___________
Total = ___________(A)
How many multiple-choice math questions did you get wrong?
Section 2: Questions 1– 8 ___________
Section 5: Questions 1–20 + ___________
Section 8: Questions 1–16 + ___________
Total = ___________
× 0.25 = ___________(B)
A − B = ___________
Mathematics
Raw Score
Round this raw score to the nearest whole number.
Use the table on page 86 to find your mathematics scaled score.
Get Your Writing Score
How many multiple-choice writing questions did you get right?
Section 3: Questions 1–35 ___________
Section 10: Questions 1–14 + ___________
Total = ___________(A)
How many multiple-choice writing questions did you get wrong?
Section 3: Questions 1–35 ___________
Section 10: Questions 1–14 + ___________
Total = ___________
× 0.25 = ___________(B)
A − B = ___________
Writing Multiple-Choice
Raw Score
Round this raw score to the nearest whole number.
(C)
Use the table on page 86 to find your writing multiple-choice scaled
score.
Estimate your essay score using the Scoring Guide on page 36.
× 2 = (D)
Use the table on page 87, your writing multiple-choice raw score
(C), and your essay score (D) to find your writing composite scaled
score.
SAT Preparation Booklet
86
SAT Score Conversion Table
Raw
Score
Critical
Reading
Scaled
Score
Math
Scaled
Score
Writing
Multiple-Choice
Scaled
Score*
Raw
Score
Critical
Reading
Scaled
Score
Math
Scaled
Score
Writing
Multiple-Choice
Scaled
Score*
67 800 31 510 560 56
66 800 30 500 550 55
65 800 29 490 540 54
64 790 28 490 530 53
63 770 27 480 520 52
62 750 26 470 520 51
61 740 25 470 510 50
60 720 24 460 500 49
59 710 23 450 490 49
58 700 22 450 480 48
57 690 21 440 470 47
56 680 20 440 460 46
55 670 19 430 450 45
54 660 800 18 420 450 44
53 650 790 17 420 440 43
52 650 760 16 410 430 42
51 640 740 15 400 420 41
50 630 720 14 400 410 40
49 620 710 80 13 390 400 39
48 620 700 80 12 380 390 38
47 610 690 77 11 370 380 37
46 600 680 75 10 370 370 36
45 600 670 73 9 360 360 35
44 590 660 71 8 350 340 34
43 580 650 70 7 340 330 33
42 580 650 68 6 330 320 31
41 570 640 67 5 320 310 30
40 560 630 66 4 310 290 28
39 560 620 65 3 300 280 27
38 550 610 63 2 280 260 25
37 540 610 62 1 270 250 23
36 540 600 61 0 250 230 21
35 530 590 60 -1 230 210 20
34 520 580 59 -2 210 200 20
33 520 570 58 -3
and below
200 200 20
32 510 570 57
This table is for use only with the test in this booklet.
* The writing multiple-choice score is reported on a 20-80 scale. Use the table on page 87 for the writing composite scaled score.
Scoring the Official SAT Practice Test
87
Writing MC
Raw Score
Essay Raw Score
12 11 10 9 8 7 6 5 4 3 2 0
49 800 800 800 800 790 770 750 730 720 700 690 680
48 800 800 800 780 760 750 730 710 700 680 670 660
47 800 790 770 760 740 720 700 690 670 660 640 630
46 780 770 750 740 720 700 690 670 650 640 620 610
45 770 750 740 720 700 690 670 650 640 620 610 600
44 750 740 720 710 690 670 660 640 630 610 590 580
43 740 730 710 700 680 660 640 630 610 600 580 570
42 730 720 700 690 670 650 630 610 600 580 570 560
41 720 710 690 670 660 640 620 600 590 570 560 550
40 710 690 680 660 640 630 610 590 580 560 550 540
39 700 680 670 650 630 620 600 580 570 550 540 530
38 690 680 660 640 630 610 590 570 560 540 530 520
37 680 670 650 640 620 600 580 560 550 530 520 510
36 670 660 640 630 610 590 570 560 540 530 510 500
35 660 650 630 620 600 580 560 550 530 520 500 490
34 650 640 620 610 590 570 560 540 520 510 490 480
33 650 630 620 600 580 560 550 530 520 500 480 470
32 640 620 610 590 570 550 540 520 510 490 480 470
31 630 620 600 580 570 550 530 510 500 480 470 460
30 620 610 590 580 560 540 520 510 490 480 460 450
29 610 600 580 570 550 530 520 500 480 470 450 440
28 610 590 580 560 540 520 510 490 480 460 440 430
27 600 590 570 550 540 520 500 480 470 450 440 430
26 590 580 560 550 530 510 490 480 460 440 430 420
25 580 570 550 540 520 500 480 470 450 440 420 410
24 580 560 550 530 510 490 480 460 450 430 410 400
23 570 550 540 520 500 490 470 450 440 420 410 400
22 560 550 530 520 500 480 460 440 430 410 400 390
21 550 540 520 510 490 470 450 440 420 410 390 380
20 550 530 520 500 480 460 450 430 420 400 380 370
19 540 520 510 490 470 450 440 420 410 390 380 370
18 530 520 500 490 470 450 430 410 400 380 370 360
17 520 510 490 480 460 440 420 410 390 380 360 350
16 510 500 480 470 450 430 420 400 390 370 350 340
15 510 490 480 460 440 420 410 390 380 360 340 330
14 500 490 470 450 440 420 400 380 370 350 340 330
13 490 480 460 450 430 410 390 380 360 340 330 320
12 480 470 450 440 420 400 380 370 350 340 320 310
11 470 460 440 430 410 390 380 360 350 330 310 300
10 470 450 440 420 400 380 370 350 340 320 300 290
9 460 440 430 410 390 370 360 340 330 310 300 290
8 450 430 420 400 380 370 350 330 320 300 290 280
7 440 430 410 390 380 360 340 320 310 290 280 270
6 430 410 400 380 360 350 330 310 300 280 270 260
5 420 400 390 370 350 330 320 300 290 270 260 250
4 410 390 380 360 340 320 310 290 280 260 240 230
3 390 380 360 350 330 310 290 280 260 250 230 220
2 380 360 350 330 310 290 280 260 250 230 220 200
1 360 350 330 320 300 280 260 240 230 210 200 200
0 340 330 310 300 280 260 240 230 210 200 200 200
-1 320 310 290 280 260 240 230 210 200 200 200 200
-2
and below
310 300 280 270 250 230 210 200 200 200 200 200
This table is for use only with the test in this booklet.
SAT Writing Composite Score Conversion Table
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Contents
SAT Reasoning TestTM . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 3 Frequently Asked Questions . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 3 Approaches to Taking the SAT® . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 3 The Critical Reading Section . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 5 Approaches to the Critical Reading Section . . . . . . . . . . . . . 5 Sentence Completions . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 5 Passage-Based Reading . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 6 The Mathematics Section . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 13 Calculator Policy . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 13 Approaches to the Mathematics Section . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 13 Mathematics Review . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 14 Multiple-Choice Questions . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 20 Student-Produced Response Questions . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 23 The Writing Section . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 26 Characteristics of Effective Writing . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 26 Improving Sentences . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 27 Identifying Sentence Errors. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 28 Improving Paragraphs . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 29 The Essay. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 31 Scoring the Essay . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 36 Scoring Guide . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 36 Official SAT Practice Test. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 37 About the Practice Test . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 37 Answer Sheet . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 38 Official SAT Practice Test . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 46 Correct Answers and Difficulty Levels . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 84 Scoring the Official SAT Practice Test . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 85

The College Board:
Connecting Students to College Success
The College Board is a not-for-profit membership association whose mission is to connect students to college success and opportunity. Founded in 1900, the association is composed of more than 5,200 schools, colleges, universities, and other educational organizations. Each year, the College Board serves seven million students and their parents, 23,000 high schools, and 3,500 colleges through major programs and services in college admissions, guidance, assessment, financial aid, enrollment, and teaching and learning. Among its best-known programs are the SAT®, the PSAT/NMSQT®, and the Advanced Placement Program® (AP®). The College Board is committed to the principles of excellence and equity, and that commitment is embodied in all of its programs, services, activities, and concerns. For further information, visit www.collegeboard.com.
© 2007 The College Board. All rights reserved. College Board, Advanced Placement Program, AP, SAT, and the acorn logo are registered trademarks of the College Board. connect to college success, SAT Reasoning Test, SAT Subject Tests, The Official SAT Study Guide, The Official SAT Question of the Day, The Official SAT Online Course, and SAT Preparation Center are trademarks owned by the College Board. PSAT/NMSQT is a registered trademark of the College Board and National Merit Scholarship Corporation. All other products and services may be trademarks of their respective owners. Visit the College Board on the Web: www.collegeboard.com.

2

SAT Preparation Booklet

SAT Reasoning Test™
This booklet will answer your questions about the SAT Reasoning Test™ and help you prepare for test day.

What do I need to know about the essay?
The purpose of the essay is to demonstrate not only how well you write, but also how well you express and back up a point of view. You will have 25 minutes to write your essay, which will count for approximately 30 percent of your writing score. The essay must be written with a No. 2 (soft-lead) pencil and will be scored as a first draft, not a polished piece of writing.
Important Information • You have 3 hours and 45 minutes to complete the entire test. • All multiple-choice questions are scored the same way: one point for each correct answer, and one-quarter point subtracted for a wrong answer. No points are subtracted for answers left blank. • You can always take the test again. One out of every two high school students takes the SAT at least twice. • Remember: The SAT is only one factor colleges look at when they consider your application. • Make sure you use a No. 2 pencil. It is very important that you fill in the entire circle on the answer sheet darkly and completely. If you change your response, erase it as completely as possible.

Frequently Asked Questions
Why should I take the SAT®?
Nearly every college and university in the U.S. accepts and uses the SAT as part of its admissions process. In addition, your SAT score can help you get connected to the right colleges and help you identify opportunities for scholarships.

What’s on the SAT?
The SAT measures the critical thinking skills that demonstrate how well you analyze and solve problems. The test is composed of three sections:
● ●

Critical reading, which has sentence completion and passage-based reading questions Mathematics, which is based on the math that college-bound students typically learn during their first three years of high school Writing, which has multiple-choice questions and a written essay

How can I prepare for the SAT?
● ● ● ●

Take the PSAT/NMSQT® in your junior year. Review the sample questions, test-taking approaches, and directions in this booklet. Take the official SAT practice test in this booklet and review the answer explanations online. Visit the SAT Preparation Center™ at www.collegeboard.com/satprep.

Approaches to Taking the SAT

How should I get ready for test day?

● ● ●

Make sure you have on hand all the materials you will need, such as a calculator, No. 2 pencils (no mechanical pencils), a soft eraser, your Admission Ticket, and an official photo ID. Check out the route to the test center and know where the weekend entrances are located. Get a good night’s sleep. Leave yourself plenty of time so you’ll arrive at the test center a little early.

● ●

● ● ● ●

How can I help myself feel as confident as possible?
● ● ● ● ●

Think positively. Stay focused. Concentrate only on what you are doing. Keep the test in perspective. Remember that you are in control.

Answer easy questions first. The easier questions are usually at the beginning of the section, and the harder ones are at the end. The exception is in the critical reading section, where questions are ordered according to the logic and organization of each passage. Make educated guesses. If you can rule out one or more answer choices for multiple-choice questions, you have a better chance of guessing the right answer. Skip questions that you really can’t answer. No points are deducted if an answer is left blank. Limit your time on any one question. All questions are worth the same number of points. If you need a lot of time to answer a question, go on to the next one. Later, you may have time to return to the question you skipped. Keep track of time. Don’t spend too much time on any group of questions within a section. Use your test booklet as scratch paper. Mark the questions in your booklet that you skipped and want to return to. Check your answer sheet to make sure you are answering the right question.
For daily practice questions, visit The Official SAT Question of the Day™ at collegeboard.com/ qotd or sign up to receive it by e-mail. Each question has a hint and an answer explanation.
SAT Reasoning Test

3

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SAT Preparation Booklet

Reading questions often include line numbers to help direct you to the relevant part(s) of the passage. Sentence completions (19 questions) Passage-based reading (48 questions) Directions Each sentence below has one or two blanks. (A) enforce . negotiators proposed a compromise that they felt would be ------. Note: Calculators may not be on your desk or used on the critical reading section of the SAT. satisfactory (E) resolve . Approaches to the Critical Reading Section ● ● ● ● ● ● ● ● ● Work on sentence completion questions first. unattractive (D) extend . “Hoping to resolve the dispute.to both labor and management. then you can eliminate the entire choice from consideration. each blank indicating that something has been omitted. Instead. Reading carefully is the key to finding the correct answer. Beneath the sentence are five words or sets of words labeled A through E. Don’t be misled by an answer that looks correct but is not supported by the actual text of the passage(s). Reading questions do not increase in difficulty from easy to hard. when inserted in the sentence. Does it make sense to say. If one of the words in an answer choice is logically wrong. If one word or more is quoted exactly from the passage. The difficulty of sentence completion questions increases as you move through the section. roots. Would it make sense to say that “negotiators” who have “proposed a compromise” were hoping to enforce or extend the “dispute”? No. divisive (C) overcome . You may have to read some of the passage before or after the quoted word(s). . . If you don’t know what a word means in a sentence completion or reading passage. . and only choice (E) remains. ● ● ● Look at the first blank in the above example. Choose the word or set of words that. Stay with a passage until you have answered as many questions as you can before you proceed to the next passage. Do not jump from passage to passage. best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole. however. The information you need to answer each reading question is always in the passage(s). ability to understand how the different parts of a sentence fit together logically. so neither (A) nor (D) can be the correct answer. Remember that all questions are worth the same number of points regardless of the type or difficulty. This section has two types of questions: ● ● Sentence Completions Sentence completion questions measure your ● ● knowledge of the meanings of words. consider related words. the line number(s) where that quotation can be found will appear in the test question. Have you ever heard or seen a word that may be related to it? In your test booklet. Answering Sentence Completion Questions One way to answer a sentence completion question with two missing words is to focus first on just one of the two blanks. mark each question you don’t answer so that you can easily go back to it later if you have time. prefixes. Example: Hoping to ------. the negotiators proposed a compromise that they felt would be acceptable to both labor and management”? Yes. . Always check your answer by reading the entire sentence with your choice filled in. useful (B) end . Now you can focus on the second blank. They take less time to answer than the passage-based reading questions. and suffixes. Would the “negotiators” have proposed a compromise that they believed would be divisive or unattractive to “both labor and management”? No.The Critical Reading Section The critical reading section gives you a chance to show how well you understand what you read. they follow the logic of the passage. Correct answer: (E) / Difficulty level: Easy The Critical Reading Section 5 . . in order to find support for the best answer to the question.the dispute. familiar sayings and phrases. so (B) and (C) can be eliminated. acceptable abcd.

Some selections consist of a pair of related passages on a shared issue or theme. Would ruination be impossible? No. Given that there was such a fundamental disagreement between the two monarchs. ● ● ● read the passage carefully. argumentative. make inferences. and expository elements. Would warfare be avoidable? Hardly. avoidable (C) ruination . and only choice (E) does so. 6 SAT Preparation Booklet . this has nothing to do with storytelling. Only choice (D) fits logically with the key words in the sentence: Because what one person wanted ran counter to what another person wanted. (A) reconciliation . ● Vocabulary in Context: These questions ask you to determine the meanings of words from their context in the reading passage. Words such as not and never are important because they indicate negation. and follow the logic of an analogy or an argument. A prevaricator tells lies.” ● ● ● ● A dilettante is someone who dabbles at a career or hobby and so may not excel at anything. ------. In the example above. blank was blank. . Passages are taken from a variety of fields.was -------. including the humanities. (A) braggart (B) dilettante (C) pilferer (D) prevaricator (E) raconteur Some sentence completions contain a colon. . but. warfare might be unavoidable. Literal Comprehension: These questions assess your understanding of significant information directly stated in the passage. . They vary in style and can include narrative. You should choose the word that best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole. This is a signal that the words after the colon define or directly clarify what came before. decide on the best answer to each question. and literary fiction. Answering Passage-Based Reading Questions Below are samples of the kinds of reading passages and questions that may appear on your test. you are asked to compare and contrast these passages. would reconciliation be assured? Unlikely. simple Be sure to look for key words and phrases as you read each sentence. read the explanation for the correct answer. social studies. if.Sample Questions 1. inevitable (E) diplomacy . but not necessarily in an accomplished or fascinating way. Because King Philip’s desire to make Spain the dominant power in sixteenth-century Europe ran counter to Queen Elizabeth’s insistence on autonomy for England. The following kinds of questions may be asked about a passage: ● ● ● ● ● ● The word “because” indicates that the information in the first part of the sentence (the part before the comma) explains the reason for the situation described in the second part. Extended Reasoning: These questions measure your ability to synthesize and analyze information as well as to evaluate the assumptions made and the techniques used by the author. assured (B) warfare . Words such as although. impossible (D) conflict . however. For each set of sample materials. recognize a main idea or an author’s tone. not lies. and since are important to notice because they signal how the different parts of a sentence are logically related to each other. Most of the reading questions fall into this category. ● ● Correct answer: (D) / Difficulty level: Medium 2. Correct answer: (E) / Difficulty level: Hard Passage-Based Reading The reading questions on the SAT measure your ability to read and think carefully about several different passages ranging in length from about 100 to about 850 words. natural sciences. You may be asked to identify cause and effect. in small quantities. A braggart may or may not excel at telling stories and may actually annoy listeners. choice (E). the entire sentence hinges on a few key words: “Because something ran counter to something else. None of the other words is directly defined by this clause. Would diplomacy be simple? Not necessarily. conflict was inevitable. “he excels at telling stories that fascinate his listeners” serves to define the word raconteur. There is no doubt that Larry is a genuine -------: he excels at telling stories that fascinate his listeners. in some of the questions. . In this case. A pilferer steals repeatedly. The first part states that what King Philip wanted (domination for Spain) “ran counter to” what Queen Elizabeth wanted (independence for England). . and the sentence refers to stories.

3. Answer the questions on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passages and in any introductory material that may be provided. about 100 words in length. and (E) are incorrect because someone who studies fossils would not calculate the “value” of rocks. only (B) makes sense. Such material will be followed by one to five questions that measure the same kinds of reading skills that are measured by the questions following longer passages. In line 4. One of the activities of a paleontology student would be to examine rocks carefully and “comprehensively” while looking for fossils. His entrance awoke his wife. (C). Hou discovered the unusual fossil while surveying rocks as a paleontology graduate student in 1984.” recalls Hou Xianguang. It can be inferred that Hou Xianguang’s “hands began to shake” (line 9) because Hou was (A) afraid that he might lose the fossil (B) worried about the implications of his finding (C) concerned that he might not get credit for his work (D) uncertain about the authenticity of the fossil (E) excited about the magnitude of his discovery In the passage.” Hou had indeed found a Naraoia like those from Canada. In the context of this passage. and very talkative. evinced so little interest in things which concerned him and valued so little his conversation. 4.” ● ● Directions The passages below are followed by questions based on their content. “surveying” most nearly means (A) calculating the value of (B) examining comprehensively (C) determining the boundaries of (D) polling randomly (E) conducting a statistical study of The word “surveying” has a number of meanings. questions following a pair of related passages may also be based on the relationship between the paired passages. ● Line 5 10 ● (A). that causes him to tremble.” The passage indicates only that Hou recognized that he had found something valuable. and answered him with little half utterances. Hou’s animal was 15 million years older than its Canadian relatives. therefore. Notwithstanding. (D) is wrong because “polling” rocks makes no sense at all. it is Hou’s excitement. Pontellier returned from his night out. You may be asked to make an inference or draw a conclusion about a statement made in the passage. Correct answer: (B) / Difficulty level: Easy 15 20 7 . not his uncertainty. Hou states that the fossil that he found “looked like” certain other fossils that his “teachers always talked about. the significance of what he has found.” He understands almost immediately. who was in bed and fast asleep when he came in. This passage is adapted from a novel written by a woman in 1899. or conduct a “statistical study” of rocks. Line 5 ● 10 (A) is wrong because there is no suggestion that Hou was “afraid that he might lose the fossil. It looked like one of them. However. telling her anecdotes and bits of news and gossip that he had gathered during the day. Sample Questions Questions 3-4 are based on the following passage. and so (E) is the correct answer: Hou’s hands were shaking because he was “excited about the magnitude of his discovery. He talked to her while he undressed. however. he loved them very much and went into the adjoining room where they slept to take a look at them and make The Critical Reading Section Some questions ask you to recognize the meaning of a word as it is used in the passage. He thought it very discouraging that his wife. Correct answer: (E) / Difficulty level: Easy Questions 5-8 are based on the following passage. (D) is wrong because Hou’s immediate reaction is that he thinks he has found an important fossil. who was the sole object of his existence. The novel was banned in many places because of its unconventional point of view. “My teachers always talked about the Burgess Shale animals. near the Chinese town of Chengjiang. Mr. “The rock was still wet. My hands began to shake. in high spirits.” (B) and (C) are wrong because the passage does not indicate that Hou was “worried about” his discovery or “concerned that he might not get credit. A student in the field of “paleontology” is one who studies prehistoric life as recorded in fossil remains. The animal was glistening. She was overcome with sleep. Pontellier had forgotten the bonbons and peanuts that he had promised the boys. The first two sentences of the passage dramatize the discovery.Some of the reading passages in the SAT are as short as a paragraph or two. several of which are included in the choices above. He was in an excellent humor. You will also find one or more pairs of related short passages in each edition of the test. or determine the “boundaries” of rocks. like it was still swimming. It was eleven o’clock that night when Mr.

Pontellier’s eyes that the damp sleeve of her nightgown no longer served to dry them. Pontellier’s conduct during the evening. not caring any longer to dry her face. as many as 13 questions may appear with a passage of this length. in the first paragraph. The cottages were all dark. that broke like a mournful lullaby upon the night. She went out on the porch. as he looked forward to a lively week in the financial center. and staying home to see that no harm befell them. Mr. She did not sit there inwardly upbraiding her husband. He had regained his composure. the narrator describes Mr. In lines 38–47. He assured her the child was burning with fever at that moment in the next room. Mr. and nothing had ailed him all day. He turned and shifted the youngsters about in bed. One of them began to kick and talk about a basket full of crabs. She could not have told why she was crying. Pontellier sprang out of bed and went into the next room. and wiped her eyes on the sleeve of her nightgown. Pontellier’s words and actions during the evening as “generous” or “gentle. They seemed never before to have weighed much against the abundance of her husband’s kindness and a uniform devotion which had come to be tacit and self-understood. He was eager to be gone.” 8 SAT Preparation Booklet . When his cigar was smoked out he went to bed.” ● (A) and (E) are not correct because the narrator does not depict Mr. it was a mood. Pontellier was up in good time to take the carriage which was to convey him to the steamer at the wharf. If it was not a mother’s place to look after children. Then he lit his cigar and went and sat near the open door to smoke it. making a living for his family on the street. It was strange and unfamiliar. For example. He was returning to the city to his business. and in half a minute was fast asleep. her habitual neglect of the children. which had directed her footsteps to the path which they had taken. In the actual test. lamenting at Fate. The result of his investigation was far from satisfactory. she said. She began to cry a little. and they would not see him again at the Island till the coming Saturday. The mosquitoes succeeded in dispelling a mood which might have held her there in the darkness half a night longer. It was like a shadow. Pontellier speaking to his wife in a superior and condescending manner about “a mother’s place” in caring for children and about how hard he works at “his brokerage business. Mrs. The narrator would most likely describe Mr. like a mist passing across her soul’s summer day. he seems not to notice or care that she has been sound asleep. He could not be in two places at once. Mrs. Pontellier was quite sure Raoul had no fever. She was just having a good cry all to herself. The tears came so fast to Mrs. She soon came back and sat on the edge of the bed. He reproached his wife with her inattention. filled her whole being with a vague anguish. where she sat down in the wicker chair and began to rock gently to and fro. Pontellier’s conduct during the evening as (A) typically generous (B) justifiably impatient (C) passionate and irrational (D) patronizing and self-centered (E) concerned and gentle This question asks you to consider a large portion of the passage and to make an inference about the narrator’s view of “Mr. Such experiences as the foregoing were not uncommon in her married life. her eyes. She said nothing. She went on crying there. It was then past midnight. There was no sound abroad except the hooting of an old owl and the everlasting voice of the sea. Pontellier was by that time thoroughly awake. The following morning Mr. you should look carefully at the particular words used and the details mentioned in the passage. her arms. He talked in a monotonous. whose on earth was it? He himself had his hands full with his brokerage business. 5. leaning her head down on the pillow. Following are 4 sample questions about this passage. Pontellier awakens his wife after his “night out”. He had gone to bed perfectly well. Pontellier was too well acquainted with fever symptoms to be mistaken. Mr. which seemed to generate in some unfamiliar part of her consciousness.” To answer such a question. Pontellier returned to his wife with the information that Raoul had a high fever and needed looking after. You may be asked to interpret information presented throughout the passage and to evaluate the effect of the language used by the author. 80 85 90 95 100 An indescribable oppression. insistent way. Mrs.25 30 35 40 45 50 55 60 65 70 75 sure that they were resting comfortably. which seemed to have been somewhat impaired the night before. and refused to answer her husband when he questioned her.

Pontellier for her “habitual neglect of the children. .” These are seemingly serious matters.” (D) and (E) are wrong because the narrator does not indicate that Mr. event. (C) is not correct. ● ● ● ● ● ● (A) is wrong because Mr. Pontellier had not previously been too bothered by such incidents: “They seemed never before to have weighed much against the abundance of her husband’s kindness. Pontellier’s statements to his wife are “too complex to make sense” or “rational and thought-provoking. Correct answer: (B) / Difficulty level: Medium You may be asked to consider the overall description of a character. it is his behavior after his return that upsets her. “patronizing and self-centered. 8. Pontellier “talked in a monotonous. Pontellier’s feelings of sadness and “oppression” in this passage are not related to the issue of “her role” as a mother. (C) is not correct because it is precisely her relationship with her husband that has made her “so depressed.” In fact. Pontellier’s behavior is selfish and inconsiderate. Pontellier as happiest when he (A) is attending to his children (B) sits outside and smokes a cigar (C) makes up with his wife after an argument (D) has been away from home or is about to leave home (E) has showered his children with gifts of candy The Critical Reading Section Correct answer: (B) / Difficulty level: Hard 9 . Pontellier is “as worldly as her husband” is irrelevant to her reaction to his treatment of her. 7.” (D) is correct because it accurately characterizes the narrator’s description of Mr.● ● ● (B) is not correct because the narrator does not suggest that Mr. the terms “monotonous” and “insistent” suggest that the statements are rather dull and simpleminded.” Previously. Pontellier’s conduct with his wife is justifiable. Pontellier is described as not at all excited in the way that he communicates his opinions to his wife. 6.” ● Correct answer: (D) / Difficulty level: Medium Some questions ask you to focus on a specific piece of information presented in the passage. and in half a minute was fast asleep. although Mr. Pontellier “angry. it is not “passionate”—in fact. the passage suggests not that she lacks sophistication. but that he lacks consideration. Mr.” Someone who is “patronizing” has an attitude of superiority and thus treats others as if they were less important. In context. the description in lines 46-47 of Mr. Pontellier was “not uncommon” but that Mrs. Pontellier’s “strange and unfamiliar” mood of “oppression” and “anguish” marks a new realization on her part of her “unhappiness” with her husband. Pontellier’s way of speaking suggests the narrator’s belief that his complaints are (A) stumbling and confused (B) familiar and not as urgent as he claims (C) angry and sarcastic (D) too complex to make sense to anyone but himself (E) both rational and thought-provoking In lines 46–47. Pontellier’s “way of speaking” as “monotonous. Pontellier’s behavior during the evening. The correct answer is (B) because concerns that are voiced “in a monotonous.” ● ● (A) is not correct because the issue of “caring for the children” is not the focus of this part of the passage.” (D) is not correct because there is no indication in the passage that “something that happened before her husband went out” has made Mrs. the narrator describes Mr. . The statement in lines 53–55 also supports this answer: “When his cigar was smoked out he went to bed. The narrator indicates that such behavior by Mr. Her husband’s treatment of her has upset her greatly. Pontellier had told his wife that one of their sons “had a high fever and needed looking after. Pontellier speaks assertively to his wife throughout the passage. . Mrs. not in a “stumbling” or uncertain manner.” In fact. insistent.” and probably “not as urgent” as Mr. Pontellier cries for a long time while sitting alone on the porch. (B) is correct because Mrs. The passage shows Mr. insistent way. (C) is wrong because statements that are “monotonous” and “insistent” are not “angry and sarcastic. Pontellier claims. the narrator states that Mr. or phenomenon across an entire passage. and yet Mr. Pontellier’s reactions to her husband’s behavior on returning home suggest that (A) she accepts unquestioningly her role of caring for the children (B) this is one of the first times she has acknowledged her unhappiness (C) her marriage is not what is making her so depressed (D) she is angry about something that happened before her husband went out (E) she is not as worldly as her husband is In these lines. insistent way” are likely to be ones that are oft-repeated and “familiar. In lines 56-92. Mrs. (E) is not correct because whether Mrs. Some questions require you to make an inference or draw a conclusion about what you have read. Mrs.” and he had criticized Mrs.

loved all. in the second. movies. (D) is the correct answer based on the description of a happy Mr. Pontellier has “regained his composure” and is “eager to be gone. Gorgeous costumes. a playwright describes his first visit to a theater in the 1930’s. furtive and silent. That old Artaxerxes evening had never done ringing in my fancy. only when the searchers were facing the other way. After the intervention of six or seven years I again entered the doors of a theater. Here were living people talking to one another inside a large ship whose deck actually heaved up and down with the swells of the sea. 45 Correct answer: (D) / Difficulty level: Medium Questions 9-12 are based on the following passages. and people appearing at the top of a ladder or disappearing through a door—where did they come from and where did they go? Obviously into and out of the real world of Lenox Avenue. These two passages were adapted from autobiographical works. and I kept clawing at my mother’s arm. and the pilasters* reaching down were adorned with a glistering substance resembling sugar candy. there are other occasions in the passage when he is happier. Passage 1 I experienced a shock when I saw a curtain go up for the first time. an eighteenth-century writer describes two visits to theaters in London.” 35 40 more real. I reposed my shut eyes in a sort of resignation upon my mother’s lap. saved again. They looked for him behind posts and boxes and on top of beams. as he looked forward to a lively week” away from his family at work. Pontellier “in an excellent humor. for there was a villain on board who had a bomb and intended to blow everybody up. all my feeling was absorbed in vision. Westerns. princesses. (C) is not correct because the passage never shows Mr. (B) is not correct because Mr. for I understood not its import. unlike the stage. projected over the orchestra pit. and when he discovers that his son Raoul “had a high fever and needed looking after. understood nothing. the first thing I beheld was the green curtain that veiled a heaven to my imagination.” Subsequently. It was all enchantment and a dream. gardens. Upon entering the theater.) The balconies at that time. As the play’s melodramatic story developed. when “he has been away from home or is about to leave home. All over the stage people were looking for him but he appeared. Once the bell sounded. left the mind’s grasp of reality intact since the happenings were not in the theater where you sat. (A sight of that image can always bring back in a measure the feeling of that evening. I expected the same feelings to come again with the same occasion. What breathless anticipations I endured! I had seen something like it in an edition of Shakespeare. Pontellier making up with his wife after their argument. It rang the second time. passed before me. incapable of the anticipation. It was to ring out yet once again— and.The passage begins with Mr. Pontellier gets upset the one time that he is “attending to” his sons. he lectures his wife about their family roles and responsibilities. Instead. and goes to bed. But to see the deck of the ship in the theater moving up and down. He becomes less happy. adventure serials.” having just returned after a night away from home. My mother had taken me to see a play at the Schubert Theater on Lenox Avenue in Harlem in New York City. But we differ from ourselves less at sixty and sixteen. And so I learned that there were two kinds of reality. I took no proper interest in the action going on. People were yelling. ● 25 30 ● ● ● (A) and (E) are not correct because Mr. however. By this time I had been going to the movies every Saturday afternoon —Charlie Chaplin’s little comedies. but that the stage was far SAT Preparation Booklet 50 55 60 Line 5 65 10 70 15 75 20 80 10 . Mr. finishes his cigar. This was alarming. I felt all. I began to feel anxious. What anguish! The bomb would go off any minute. even after the audience had seen him jump into a barrel and pull the lid over him. The orchestra lights at length rose. at the same time glancing at the theater’s walls to make sure that the whole thing was not really real. The curtain drew up—and the play was Artaxerxes! Here was the court of ancient Persia. full of well-dressed men and women. when his wife is too sleepy to talk with him. palaces. Pontellier is described as neither happy nor unhappy while he smokes. an illustration of the tent scene with Diomede in Troilus and Cressida. discriminated nothing. and he has forgotten to bring them the treats that he had promised. The villain was finally caught. and we happily walked out onto sunny Lenox Avenue. Yet once you knew how they worked. Passage 2 I was six years old when I saw my first play at the Old Drury. than the latter does from six.” but the passengers were deaf. “He’s in the barrel. Pontellier at the beginning and the end of the passage. In the first. The next morning. In that interval what had I not lost! At six I knew nothing.

(E) is wrong because. The actors were men and women painted. . 11. The authors of both passages describe (A) a young person’s sense of wonder at first seeing a play (B) a young person’s desire to become a playwright (C) the similarities between plays and other art forms (D) how one’s perception of the theater may develop over time (E) the experience of reading a play and then seeing it performed To answer this question. not “on the stage. The author indicates that. (A) is the correct answer because all of Passage 1 and the first half of Passage 2 describe “a young person’s sense of wonder at first seeing a play. when you insert them in place of the word “happenings. and Passage 2 does not mention any “other art forms” at all. In the final sentence of Passage 2 (“I thought . and was returned a rationalist. or in the passage as a whole. but it was in myself. the author expresses (A) exultation (B) vindication (D) regret (E) guilt (C) pleasure ● (B) is wrong. The green curtain was no longer a veil. Some questions require you to identify shared ideas or similarities between the two related passages. even if the movies being referred to include “fantasies” in them. The same things were there materially. The subject of Passage 1 is a child’s first visit to see a play performed in a theater. unlike plays. (D) is wrong because only Passage 2 discusses “how one’s perception of the theater may develop over time”—this subject is unmentioned in Passage 1. “The same things were there materially” in the theater. In the second paragraph of Passage 2. was now but a trick of the prompter’s bell. but a certain quantity of green material. even though the introduction to these passages reveals that one of the authors is a “playwright.” (C) is wrong because Passage 1 mentions differences rather than “similarities” between plays and Even though this question focuses on a single sentence. The lights—the orchestra lights—came up a clumsy machinery. 9. “after the intervention of six or seven years. “happenings” refers to the “story unfolding” in a movie.” because the “happenings” in a movie are not occurring in the actual theater. (E) is wrong because there is no reference in either passage to “the experience of reading a play. The first ring. (C) is wrong. which was to separate the audience for a given time from certain of their fellows who were to come forward and pretend those parts. was gone. in me”).” ● * Pilasters are ornamental columns set into walls. . and the alteration which those many centuries—those six short years—had wrought in me. The “happenings” mentioned in line 14 refer to the (A) work undertaken to produce a movie (B) events occurring in the street outside the theater (C) fantasies imagined by a child (D) activity captured on the movie screen (E) story unfolding on the stage To answer this question correctly. and the second ring. a rather complex sentence that makes an important distinction in Passage 1. at age six the child is entranced by the spectacle of the performance but. Instead.” there is no mention in either passage of a “desire to become a playwright. the unfolding of which was to bring back past ages. you have to understand lines 11–15.” the older and now more knowledgeable child is not so impressed.” ● ● ● (A) and (B) are wrong because. In the test. the word “happenings” refers to the “activity captured on the movie screen. Passage 2 describes two different visits to the theater.” the sentence in lines 11–15 makes no sense. some questions will focus on Passage 1.” Correct answer: (D) / Difficulty level: Medium You may be asked to recognize the author’s tone or attitude in a particular part of a passage. movies leave “the mind’s grasp of reality intact.85 90 95 wondered all. but the emblem. I could not tell how. but I had left the temple a devotee. Thus (D) is the correct answer. you have to figure out what these two passages have in common. images are projected on a screen in the theater. 10. drawn between two worlds. the reference. others will focus on Passage 2. the author states that the experience of attending a play at age 12 or 13 was much different than at age 6. I thought the fault was in them. and how captivated he was by the entire experience. and about half or more of the questions following each pair of passages will focus on the relationships between the passages. Following are four sample questions about this pair of related passages. but the older child knew much more than the younger one about what was going The Critical Reading Section 11 . you must understand the context in which the statement occurs in order to determine the feeling expressed by the author. ● ● movies. in line 14. they are not “imagined by a child” but are actually projected on the movie screen.” Correct answer: (A) / Difficulty level: Easy Some questions assess your comprehension of information that is directly stated in a passage.

(A) is wrong because there is neither bitterness nor “detachment” in Passage 2. Aging is not the child’s “fault. while Passage 2 maintains a single point of view. support.” Thus the final sentence of Passage 2 expresses “regret” concerning the changes that “those many centuries—those six short years—had wrought” in the author. (E) is incorrect because. In the end. while Passage 2 examines how a similar experience changed over time.on. (C) is wrong because it reverses the two narrative approaches in this pair of passages. or defend the experiences described in the passage. while Passage 2 supplies the author’s reactions without further analysis. while Passage 2 describes the author’s visit as joyful. Although he feels “shock” when the curtain goes up and anxiety during the play. The correct answer is (E) because the entire first passage does indeed tell the story of a particular “childhood experience”—a trip to the theater—whereas the second passage describes two different trips to the theater and how the “experience changed over time.” the older child saw “men and women painted. ● ● ● Correct answer: (D) / Difficulty level: Hard Some questions require you to determine and compare the primary purpose or main idea expressed in each passage. Passage 1 “maintains a single point of view. (E) Passage 1 recounts a childhood experience. (B) Passage 1 considers why the author responded to the visit as he did. but rather to explain the changes that have occurred due to the passing of time. (D) Passage 1 treats the visit to the theater as a disturbing episode in the author’s life. In fact.” ● ● ● (A) and (C) are incorrect because the author does not feel “exultation” about or take “pleasure” in the “alteration” that has occurred. the first paragraph of Passage 2 expresses excitement and “enchantment. Which of the following best describes the difference between Passages 1 and 2 ? (A) Passage 1 remembers an event with fondness. the author is not trying to justify.” but the loss of a youthful sense of wonder and innocence can still cause regret. the child and his mother walked “happily” out of the theater. Correct answer: (E) / Difficulty level: Easy 12 SAT Preparation Booklet . on the contrary. (B) is incorrect because there is no expression of “vindication” in the final sentence. “In that interval what had I not lost!” the author exclaims in line 78. this increased knowledge actually decreased the author’s pleasure in attending the play. these responses merely indicate how effective and “real” the performance was for him. (D) is the correct answer. while Passage 2 recalls a similar event with bitter detachment. ● This question asks you to do two things: first.” that of the youthful first-time theatergoer. second. understand the overall subject or purpose of each passage. (D) is wrong because the author of Passage 1 does not find his first visit to the theater “disturbing” in a negative way. (C) Passage 1 relates a story from a number of different perspectives. recognize an important “difference between” the two.” that of the enchanted six-year-old and of the older child returning to the theater. 12. whereas the author of Passage 2 presents at least two “different perspectives. the author laments it. most of the second paragraph provides “further analysis” of what had changed and why the reactions to the two visits were so different.” and the second paragraph expresses disappointment and regret. (B) is wrong because Passage 2 includes a great deal more than just “the author’s reactions” to visiting the theater. There is no way to avoid the passage of time (and the learning that goes along with it). the author feels no “guilt” about the change. Where the younger child saw nobles in “the court of ancient Persia. Ironically. even though the final sentence states that the “fault” was not in the actors but in the now more knowledgeable child.

A scientific or graphing calculator is recommended. ● ● Calculator Tips ● ● ● ● ● ● Remember to bring your calculator to the test. Every question on the test can be solved without a calculator. you’ll have to complete the test without it. For multiple-choice questions. Eliminate choices. or handheld or laptop computers Some questions are like questions you may have seen in your mathematics courses. First. you can eliminate all the incorrect choices. The test does not require you to memorize formulas. It’s sometimes easier to find the wrong answers than the correct one. It is up to you to decide which formula is appropriate. however. decide how you will solve the problem. not to get in the way. but you will be able to check your work easily later. This is especially true for student-produced response questions. Take the practice test in this booklet with a calculator at hand. Make sure your calculator is in good working order and that batteries are fresh. If you don’t know the correct answer to a question. If your calculator fails during testing and you have no backup. cell phones. The ability to reason logically in a variety of situations. it may be useful to draw a sketch or diagram of the given information. try some of the choices. using a calculator on some questions may be helpful to you. Use the test book for scratchwork. and then decide whether to use the calculator. Note key words that tell you what the problem is asking. pen input/stylus-driven devices. Commonly used formulas are provided in the test book at the beginning of each mathematics section. you will be seated at the discretion of the test supervisor. Calculator Policy We recommend that you bring a calculator to use on the mathematics section of the SAT. sophisticated calculator just to take the test. Don’t buy an expensive. powerbooks. Although you can use them for the test. ● ● ● Familiarize yourself with the directions ahead of time. You will be dismissed and your scores will be canceled if you use your calculator to share information during the test or to remove test questions or answers from the test room. It may help to do scratchwork in the test book. some of which may be new to you. Ask yourself the following questions before you solve each problem: What is the question asking? What do I know? With some problems. more sophisticated calculators are not required for any problem.The Mathematics Section The mathematics section of the SAT contains two types of questions: ● ● ● ● Standard multiple-choice (44 questions) Student-produced response questions that provide no answer choices (10 questions) Get your thoughts down before using your calculator. Decide when to use a calculator. Read the problem carefully. pocket organizers. Don’t try to use a calculator on every question. You should be familiar with how to use the calculator you bring to the test. On some questions. Unacceptable Calculators Unacceptable calculators are those that: ● use QWERTY (typewriter-like) keypads ● require an electrical outlet ● “talk” or make unusual noises ● use paper tape ● are electronic writing pads. You are not expected to do all the reasoning and figuring in your head. The calculator is meant to aid you in problem solving. you may want to refer to the answer choices before you determine your answer. Make sure your answer is a reasonable answer to the question asked. You will not be allowed to share calculators. where no answer choices are given. Calculators will not be available at the test center. The Mathematics Section 13 . is tested throughout. All figures are drawn to scale unless otherwise indicated. This will help you determine how much you will probably use a calculator the day of the test. or if your calculator has a raised display that might be visible to other test-takers. Approaches to the Mathematics Section ● ● Acceptable Calculators Calculators permitted during testing are: ● ● ● Graphing calculators Scientific calculators Four-function calculators (not recommended) ● If you have a calculator with characters that are 1 inch or higher. You will not receive credit for anything written in the booklet.

. where k is an integer (Note: zero is an even integer. . and proportion) Properties of integers (even. 7. cube. . .) Consecutive Integers: Integers that follow in sequence.80 = × $30. −1. Note: n% increase means n% decrease means n increase = . For example. (Note: 1 is not a prime and 2 is the only even prime. 2k + 1. . n + 1. 11. 8.80. equilateral. so the price was decreased by 25%. odd. 0. where k is an integer Even Integers: . (Note: zero is neither positive nor negative. −3. −2. 3. n + 2. divisibility. in the number 125. or number out of 100. . by what percent was the price decreased? Solution: The price decrease is $250. −6. . 19. 9 (Note: the units digit and the ones digit refer to the same digit in a number. prime numbers. and right triangles Properties of parallel and perpendicular lines Coordinate geometry Geometric visualization Slope Similarity Transformations Problem 2: If the price of a computer was decreased from $1. .) ● ● ● ● Algebra and Functions (35–40%) ● ● ● ● ● ● ● ● ● ● ● ● Substitution and simplifying algebraic expressions Properties of exponents Algebraic word problems Solutions of linear equations and inequalities Systems of equations and inequalities Quadratic equations Rational and radical equations Equations of lines Absolute value Direct and inverse variation Concepts of algebraic functions Newly defined symbols based on commonly used operations Percent Percent means hundredths. and Probability (10–15%) ● ● ● Data interpretation (tables and graphs) Descriptive statistics (mean. 22.) Digits: 0. Statistics. . . 4. 7. . −7. and mode) Probability 14 SAT Preparation Booklet .Mathematics Review Number and Operations (20–25%) ● ● ● ● ● ● ● Number and Operations ● ● Arithmetic word problems (including percent.40 or . and cylinder Pythagorean Theorem and special properties of isosceles. . etc. . 2k .000 to $750. median. −3. intersection. 40 percent means 100 5 Problem 1: If the sales tax on a $30. 5. elements) Counting techniques Sequences and series (including exponential growth) Elementary number theory Integers: . . 3. 5. . . 000 100 n is 25. . −5. 24. 23. 25. . 7. 3. the 5 is called the units digit or the ones digit. −2.) Rational numbers Sets (union. For 40 2 or 0. example. Odd Integers: . 1. 0. .00 100 n = 6. 5. . . so 6% is the sales tax rate. . 2. 2. original 100 Data Analysis. . −4. 17. .00 item is $1.) Prime Numbers: 2. The value of 1. . 1. . original 100 n decrease = . . . Geometry and Measurement (25–30%) Percent Increase / Decrease ● ● ● ● ● ● ● ● ● ● Area and perimeter of a polygon Area and circumference of a circle Volume of a box. . . 4. 6. −1. what is the sales tax rate? n Solution: $1. 3. 6. 1. n + 3. 13. . Consecutive integers can be more generally represented by n. 4. . The percent decrease n 250 is the value of n in the equation = . for example. 2. −4. ratio. .

The absolute value of x is written as x . y : x a ⋅ x b = x a+ b Sequences Two common types of sequences that appear on the SAT are arithmetic and geometric sequences. Inverse Variation: The variable y is inversely proportional to the variable x if there exists a nonzero constant k such k or xy = k . 5. . with 4. For example: 2. x b = b x a . and each successive term is 1 less than twice the preceding term. 9. . if greater than or equal to −2 . unless otherwise specified. you would not be expected to know that the 6th term is 33 without being given the fact that each term is one less than twice the preceding term. if x ≥ 0 x =⎨ ⎩− x . f (x) = x + 2 . For example. since f (14 ) = 14 + 2 = 16 = 4 . For example. 14 is paired Note: the symbol represents the positive. the average speed was 440 km 6 = 62 kilometers per hour. 5. This sequence would be 2. since 2 > 0 ⎪ ⎨ −2 =− (−2) = 2. . For example: 3. On the SAT. b. the average speed over the 7-hour period is not the average of the two given speeds. is an arithmetic sequence. the domain of f is all real numbers The total distance was ⎛ km ⎞ ⎛ km ⎞ 2 hr ⎜ 70 ⎟ + 5 hr ⎜ 60 hr ⎟ = 440 km. 16 = 4 . the domain of any function f is assumed to be the set of all real numbers x for which f ( x ) is a real number. For all real numbers x : ⎧ x . . the average speed was total distance total time Functions A function is a relation in which each element of the domain is paired with exactly one element of the range. A sequence may also be defined using previously defined terms. x.Average Speed Problem: José traveled for 2 hours at a rate of 70 kilometers per hour and for 5 hours at a rate of 60 kilometers per hour. For example. 17. or principal. Thus. A geometric sequence is a sequence in which the ratio of successive terms is a constant. 16. Variation Direct Variation: The variable y is directly proportional to the variable x if there exists a nonzero constant k such that y = kx . 4. not ± 4. For all values of a. 3. For example. is a geometric sequence. 7 hr 7 Note: In this example. in the sequence above. What was his average speed for the 7-hour period? Solution: In this situation. ( xa ) ⎛ x⎞ ⎜ ⎟ ⎝ y⎠ b = x a⋅b ( xy )a x −a = 2 3 = x a ⋅ ya For all values of a. . For sequences on the SAT. y > 0: xa = x a−b xb a a = xa ya 1 xa Also. . x > 0. b. Exponents You should be familiar with the following rules for exponents on the SAT. x 3 = x2 . For this function. square root. . 8. the first term of a sequence is 2. An arithmetic sequence is a sequence in which successive terms differ by the same constant amount. 9. On the SAT. explicit rules are given for each sequence. if x < 0 Algebra and Functions Factoring You may need to apply these types of factoring: x 2 + 2 x = x ( x + 2) x 2 + 2 x + 1 = ( x + 1) ( x + 1) = ( x + 1) x 2 − 1 = ( x + 1) ( x − 1) 2 For example: 2 x 2 + 5 x − 3 = ( 2 x − 1) ( x + 3) ⎧ 2 = 2. ⎝ ⎝ ⎠ hr ⎠ The total time was 7 hours. it is true that x 0 = 1. . Note: For any nonzero number x . For example. 7. that y = x Absolute Value The absolute value of x is defined as the distance from x to zero on the number line. . the first term is never referred to as the zeroth term. which would be 65 kilometers per hour. since −2 < 0 ⎪ ⎩ 0 =0 The Mathematics Section 15 .

In the figure. y = 50 3. A straight angle measures 180°. SAT Preparation Booklet 2. the relative positions of points and angles may be assumed to be in the order shown. Also. b = x . The following examples illustrate what information can and cannot be assumed from figures. line segments that extend through points and appear to lie on the same line may be assumed to be on the same line. Therefore. and d = z 3. A. Since AD and BE are line segments. Even though the figure is drawn to scale. In the figure above. a = w. even when figures are not drawn to scale. you may assume the following from the figure: ● ● ● ● ● 1. the corresponding angles are congruent. In the figure above. x = 70 because 60 + 50 + x = 180 ABD and DBC are triangles. The text “Note: Figure not drawn to scale” is included with the figure when degree measures may not be accurately shown and specific lengths may not be drawn proportionally. you should NOT assume that AC = CD or that the angle at vertex E is a right angle even though they might look that way in the figure. When two lines intersect. the sum of the measures of the interior angles on the same side of the transversal is 180°. Although the note indicates that the figure is not drawn to scale. and C are points on a line. The measures of angles BAD and BDA are equal. The measure of angle ABD is less than the measure of angle ABC. z = 130 because z + 50 = 180 16 . A question may refer to a triangle such as ABC above. angles ACB and DCE are vertical angles. D . Example 1: You may not assume the following from the figure: ● ● ● ● The length of AD is less than the length of DC . The length of AD is less than the length of AC . the alternate interior angles are congruent. you can conclude that x = y. you should NOT make any other assumptions without additional information. The sum of the measures of the interior angles of a triangle is 180°. If two parallel lines are cut by a third line. Properties of Parallel Lines k a° b° c° d° w° x° y° z° m 1. If two parallel lines are cut by a third line. In general. c = y. They are drawn as accurately as possible EXCEPT when it is stated in a particular problem that the figure is not drawn to scale. c + w = 180 and d + x = 180 Angle Relationships x° 60° 50° z° y° Note: Figure not drawn to scale. A point that appears to lie on a line or curve may be assumed to lie on the line or curve. In the figure. Example 2: If two parallel lines are cut by a third line. D is between A and C . In the figure. In the figure. Angle ABC is a right angle. c = x and w = d 2. The measure of angle ABD is greater than the measure of angle DBC . vertical angles are congruent.Geometry and Measurement Figures that accompany problems are intended to provide information useful in solving the problems. For example.

In the figure below. Unless otherwise noted in the SAT. where c is the length of the longest side and a and b are the lengths of the two shorter sides. or 540° 4. so that AF 10 2 BC 18 = = = = . the term “polygon” will be used to mean a convex polygon. all sides are congruent and all angles are congruent. and the shortest side is opposite the smallest angle. 5. a < b < c. the measures of all angles of the triangle are equal. Pythagorean Theorem: In any right triangle. The sum of the measures of the interior angles of a polygon can be found by drawing all diagonals of the polygon from one vertex and multiplying the number of triangles formed by 180°. Area of a triangle = Triangle Inequality: The sum of the lengths of any two sides of a triangle must be greater than the length of the third side. a = b and x = y .4. use the Pythagorean Theorem. In the figures below. The Mathematics Section 17 . a polygon in which each interior angle has a measure of less than 180°. the sum of the measures of its angles is 3 × 180°. and AF means the length of AF . the angles opposite congruent sides are congruent. x 2 = 32 + 4 2 x 2 = 9 + 16 x 2 = 25 x = 25 = 5 If polygons ABCDEF and GHIJKL are similar. 2. and. In any equilateral triangle. the longest side is opposite the largest angle. Therefore. therefore. that is. Also. a 2 + b 2 = c 2 . In any triangle. In an isosceles triangle. Because the measure of the unmarked angle is 60°. A polygon is “regular” if all its sides are congruent and all its angles are congruent. GL 5 1 HI x Note: AF means the line segment with endpoints A and F . Area and Perimeter Rectangles Area of a rectangle = length × width = l × w Perimeter of a rectangle Circles Area of a circle = π r 2 (where r is the radius) Circumference of a circle = 2π r = π d (where d is the diameter) Triangles 1 ( base × altitude) 2 Perimeter of a triangle = the sum of the lengths of the three sides 3. Two polygons are similar if and only if the lengths of their corresponding sides are in the same ratio and the measures of their corresponding angles are equal. x = 9 = HI . To find the value of x . the sides opposite congruent angles are congruent. the lengths of all sides of the triangle are equal: x = y = 10 . Side Relationships 1. then AF and GL are corresponding sides. Since this polygon is divided into 3 triangles.

the coordinates of point P are (−2.and y-axes. From the figure. Therefore. For example. the parabola opens upward. Similarly. The slope of a vertical line is undefined. In questions that involve the x. Parallel lines have the same slope. A horizontal line has a slope of zero. y (–2. Since we know the parabola passes through the point (1. The product of the slopes of two perpendicular lines is −1. Since the parabola opens downward. 1 2 1 = a (1 + 2 ) + 4. Slope of a line = change in y-coordinates change in x -coordinates is at the point ( h. 4) (1. w is the width. and h is the height) Be familiar with the formulas that are provided in the Reference Information included with the test directions. y-values above the x-axis are positive and y-values below the x-axis are negative. so b = − . we know that a < 0. 1) is on 4 the line. k ) and a ≠ 0 . Similarly.Volume Volume of a rectangular solid (or cube) = × w × h ( is the length. −1) and the point (2. 1) O x 2. so a = − . 3). To find the value of a. 4 2 3. Slope of PQ = Slope of l = 4 =2 2 1 − (−2) 3 = − −2 − 2 4 The parabola above has its vertex at (−2. Since the slope of line is − . Hence. A line that slopes downward as you go from left to right has a negative slope. 1 = + b. and the 2 2 3 1 equation of line is y = − x − . we also need to know another point on the parabola. the x-coordinate is written first. and if a < 0. Therefore. the parabola opens downward. 4 ). x = 1 and y = 1 must satisfy the equation. Point P in the figure above appears to lie at the intersection of gridlines. 2). you can conclude that the x-coordinate of P is −2 and the y-coordinate of P is 3. 3 18 SAT Preparation Booklet . If a > 0. Since the point (−2. h = −2 and k = 4. any line perpendicular to line 4 above has a slope of . 4 the equation of line can be expressed 3 as y = − x + b . x-values to the right of the y-axis are positive and x-values to the left of the y-axis are negative. In an ordered pair ( x . where m is the slope and b is the 3 y-intercept. A line that slopes upward as you go from left to right has a positive slope. you can conclude that the line shown in the figure passes through the point with coordinates (−2. an 3 1 2 equation for the parabola is y = − ( x + 2 ) + 4. Therefore. 1). A quadratic function can be expressed as y = a ( x − h ) + k where the vertex of the parabola 2 Coordinate Geometry 1. provided the slope of each of the lines is defined. Refer to the test directions in the sample test in this publication. and h is the height) Volume of a right circular cylinder = π r 2 h (r is the radius of the base. The equation can be represented by y = a( x + 2)2 + 4. y). 3 The equation of a line can be expressed as y = mx + b. x = − 2 and y = 1 must satisfy the equa3 1 tion. Hence.

7 is the mode of 2. 9. the median is the same as the mean of the two middle numbers. which is 11. 8. 13. 7. 2. Note: On the SAT. 4. The most common type of average is the arithmetic mean. For example. a fraction. 4. and Probability Measures of Center An average is a statistic that is used to summarize data. If an outcome is certain to occur. its probability is 0. and 13 is equal to 2 + 3 + 5 + 7 + 13 = 6.” An exception is when a question involves average rate (see page 15). For example. When there is an even number of values. 7. 2. 2. 3. the median of 6. the use of the word average refers to the arithmetic mean and is indicated by “average (arithmetic mean). if the average of six numbers is 12. its probability is 1. 6. The average (arithmetic mean) of a list of n numbers is equal to the sum of the numbers divided by n. 8.Data Analysis. 4. The list 2. 8. For example. If a particular outcome can never occur. 14. The mode of a list of numbers is the number that occurs most often in the list. In general. 7. 6. 5. When outcomes are equally likely. the median of 3. probability can be found by using the following definition: number of ways that a specific outcome can occur total number of possible outcomes For example. 5 Probability Probability refers to the chance that a specific outcome can occur. the mean of 2. values of p fall in the range 0 ≤ p ≤ 1. Questions involving median and mode will have those terms stated as part of the question’s text. the number in the middle is 6. and 11 has two modes. 3. 9. the probability that a marble selected from the jar at random will be green is When the average of a list of n numbers is given. For example. The Mathematics Section 19 . if p is the probability that a specific outcome will occur. For example. and 16 is the mean of 9 and 13. the sum of the numbers can be found. 5. Probability may be expressed as either a decimal. 7. if a jar contains 13 red marbles and 7 green marbles. and 12. 8. 2. 2 and 4. and 9 is 6 because when the numbers are ordered. the sum of these six numbers is The median of a list of numbers is the number in the middle when the numbers are ordered from greatest to least or from least to greatest. or a ratio. 9. Statistics. 8.

there are 3 × 100 = 300 seniors’ names. 2 times. Most problems can be solved in a variety of ways. there are 2 × 150 = 300 juniors’ names and 1 × 200 = 200 sophomores’ names in the lottery. Fill in the corresponding circle on the answer sheet. Each senior’s name is placed in the lottery 3 times. These solutions may give you new insights into solving the problems or point out techniques you’ll be able to use again. 3. There are 100 seniors. If a student's name is chosen at random from the names in the lottery. The probability that a senior’s name will be chosen is 300 300 3 = = . you will find one or two solutions. and then read the solutions that follow. Directions For this section. and each sophomore’s name. and 200 sophomores who applied. 1. Figures that accompany problems in this test are intended to provide information useful in solving the problems.Multiple-Choice Questions The questions that follow will give you an idea of the type of mathematical thinking required to solve problems on the SAT. Reference Information Notes r A= C=2 r r2 w A= w h w b 1 A = 2 bh V = wh h r h b a V = r 2h c 2x 30° 60° x s 45° s 2 45° c2 = a2 + b2 s x 3 Special Right Triangles The number of degrees of arc in a circle is 360. the domain of any function f is assumed to be the set of all real numbers x for which f (x) is a real number. The sum of the measures in degrees of the angles of a triangle is 180. All numbers used are real numbers. They are drawn as accurately as possible EXCEPT when it is stated in a specific problem that the figure is not drawn to scale. 300 + 300 + 200 800 8 (B) (D) 3 8 2 9 (C) (E) 1 2 2 7 Correct answer: (D) / Difficulty level: Medium 20 SAT Preparation Booklet . 4. Likewise. so don’t be concerned if your method is different from the one given. what is the probability that a senior's name will be chosen? (A) 1 8 To determine the probability that a senior’s name will be chosen. Sample Questions Below are seven examples of standard multiple-choice questions. Note that the directions indicate that you are to select the best of the choices given. You may use any available space for scratchwork. 1 time. First. Unless otherwise specified. 2. each junior’s name. All figures lie in a plane unless otherwise indicated. you must determine the total number of seniors’ names that are in the lottery and divide this number by the total number of names in the lottery. Since each senior’s name is placed in the lottery 3 times. try to answer each question yourself. 150 juniors. 1. Following each question. A special lottery is to be held to select the student who will live in the only deluxe room in a dormitory. The use of a calculator is permitted. solve each problem and decide which is the best of the choices given.

Tue 78 Wed 75 Thu 69 Fri 78 Sat 77 Sun 70 For 100. f represents the temperature that occurred most often. is 78. 0) and (1. f.NOONTIME TEMPERATURES IN HILO. f. in a city in Hawaii over a oneweek period. f. so f = 78. In the xy-coordinate plane above. HAWAII Mon 66 2. which is perpendicular 1− 0 1 to . 2−0 = 2. it is helpful to first place the seven temperatures in ascending order as shown below: 66 69 70 75 77 78 78 Since a is a constant. Since line m also 2 contains point (0. Therefore. An equation 1 of m can be written as y = − x + b . an 1 equation of line m is y = − x. and a is a < m < f . y (1.000 cartridges sold at $10 per cartridge. and a. how many cartridges will be sold at $20 per cartridge? (A) 20. The correct order of m.000 (E) 200. 2) O x The median temperature is the middle temperature in the ordered list. you can add the seven numbers together and divide by 7. it follows that b = 0. Substituting into the equation 3000 yields 100 = . will have a slope of − .000 (B) 50. 3. what is an equation of m ? 1 1 (B) y = − x + 1 (C) y = − x (A) y = − x 2 2 (D) y = − x + 2 (E) y = −2 x Correct Answer: (A) / Difficulty level: Medium Using the coordinates of the two points given on line . However. which of the following is the correct order of m. If according to the projections. you need to evaluate 3000 s ( 20 ) = = 60 . so m = 75. If line m (not shown) contains the point (0. and a ? (A) a < m < f (B) a < f < m (E) a = m < f (C) m < a < f (D) m < f < a Correct answer: (A) / Difficulty level: Medium To determine the correct order of m. which is 75. Solving this equation for a yields 2 (10 ) + a 100 ( 20 + a ) = 3000 20 + a = 30 a = 10 The table above shows the temperatures at noon. in thousands) and p = 10. The temperature that occurred most often. the average of the seven numbers will be less than 75. 0). The three numbers greater than 75 are closer to 75 than are the three numbers smaller than 75. or the mode. Since s is given in thousands.000 cartridges sold at $20 per cartridge. line contains the points (0. 0) and is perpendicular to . s = 100 (since s is the number of cartridges sold. in thousands.000 (D) 150. 2 The Mathematics Section 21 . Therefore. you can determine the relationship between the average and the median by inspection. 100.000 Correct answer: (C) / Difficulty level: Medium 4.000 cartridges are sold at $10 per cartridge. and a represents the average (arithmetic mean) of these seven temperatures. and a is a constant. p is the price per cartridge.000 (C) 60. To determine the average. The projected sales volume of a video game 3000 . 2 ( 20 ) + 10 there will be 60. in degrees Fahrenheit. the function can be written as 3000 . in dollars. If m represents the median of these temperatures. since slopes of perpendicular 2 the slope of is lines are negative reciprocals of each other. To determine how many cartridges will s ( p) = 2 p + 10 be sold at $20 per cartridge. Line m. cartridge is given by the function s ( p ) = 2p + a where s is the number of cartridges sold. 2).

then the third side of the triangle would have length 20 – (6 + 5). k must be a multiple of 30. All the answer choices are in the form of “k plus a number. ● ● ● If you add two multiples of 30. If k is divisible by 2. you must determine which of those statements could be true. is not a multiple of 30. If the perimeter of the triangle is 15. A triangle can have side lengths of 4. 30. For example. the sum will also be a multiple of 30. and 11 cannot be the lengths of the sides of a triangle. Correct answer: (D) / Difficulty level: Medium Since k is divisible by 2.” Only choice (D). 3. the length of the third side would be 22 – (6 + 5) = 11. 6. If two sides of the triangle above have lengths 5 and 6. 150. so the correct answer is choice (D). II. and 15. 20 III. consider whether the triangle could have a perimeter of 22. and 9. 22 SAT Preparation Booklet . 105. k + 30. which of the following is also divisible by these numbers? (A) k + 5 (D) k + 30 (B) k + 15 (E) k + 45 (C) k + 20 ● ● Statement I states that 15 could be the perimeter of the triangle. Since x − 5 2 = x m. 5. Since the sum of 5 and 6 is not greater than 11. or 9. and III Correct answer: (C) / Difficulty level: Medium 1 can be x3 −3 written as x . Their sum. and 6. Similarly. and two sides have lengths 5 and 6. 3. 22 (A) I only (B) I and II only (C) I and III only (D) II and III only (E) I. If you add a multiple of 30 to a number that is not a multiple of 30. For example. and 120. then the third side of the triangle would have length 15 − (6 + 5). A triangle can have side lengths of 5. and 15. 60 is a multiple of 30 and 45 is not. Some multiples of 30 are 0. 15 II.a c b 6. the perimeter of the triangle could be which of the following? I. the correct answer to the question is I and II only. Therefore. If x > 1 and (A) − 7 2 x x3 = x m. 5. In this question. or 4. So the perimeter of the triangle could be 15. and III should each be considered independently of the others. it follows that 5. 60 and 90 are multiples of 30 and their sum. II. what is the value of m ? (B) − 3 (D) −2 (E) − 3 2 (C) − 5 2 Note: Figure not drawn to scale. the sum of the lengths of any two sides of a triangle must be greater than the length of the third side. If 20 is the perimeter of the triangle. as 30 is the least common multiple of 2. statements I. which is choice (B). and so the given triangle cannot have a perimeter of 22. statement II is true. The sum of k and 30 is also a multiple of 30. 6. In this case. 60. So the perimeter of the triangle could be 20. By the Triangle Inequality. Finally. 2 1 −3⎟ =x − 5 2. ● 7. the sum will not be a multiple of 30. and 15. The question asks which answer choice is divisible by 2. 3. the left side of the equation is 1 Since x can be written as x 2 and ⎛1 ⎜ ⎞ ⎠ x 2 ⋅ x −3= x ⎝ 2 5 of m is − . is also a multiple of 30. 3. the value Correct answer: (B) / Difficulty level: Hard In questions of this type. This is true. and 15—that is. which answer choice is a multiple of 30. is the sum of k and a multiple of 30. 90.

• Because the answer sheet will be machinescored. If you obtain . you can grid 2/5. whether whole number. A primary advantage of this format is that it allows you to enter the form of the answer that you obtain. you can grid . it will be ¥ 0 1 2 3 4 1 2 3 4 5 6 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 1 2 3 4 5 6 0 1 2 3 4 5 0 1 2 3 4 5 0 1 2 3 4 5 ¥ 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 1 2 3 4 5 0 1 2 3 4 5 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 31 1 interpreted as .667. For example. Each of the remaining questions requires you to solve the problem and enter your answer by marking the circles in the special grid. Fraction line 0 1 2 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 Decimal point 1 2 3 4 0 1 2 3 4 0 1 2 3 4 0 1 2 3 4 1 2 3 0 1 2 3 4 0 1 2 3 0 1 2 3 Grid in result. • Mixed numbers such as 3 1 must be gridded as 2 3. Make an educated guess if you don’t know the answer. you should grid the form of the answer that you obtain naturally in solving the problem. Instead. if you obtain 2/5. it may be either rounded or truncated. you must solve the problem and fill in your answer on a special grid.125 but not as 0. do so completely.5 or 7 2. You can grid 3/5. For example. or an irrational number. We recommend that you grid the first (left-hand) column of the grid or that you right-justify your answers. or 4. On student-produced response (grid-in) questions. Always enter your answer on the grid. Ten questions on the test will be of this type. Below are the actual directions that you will find on the test—read them carefully. A fraction does not have to be reduced unless it will not fit the grid. decimal. For example. an answer of 1/8 could also be gridded as .) 2 2 5 6 Approaches to Student-Produced Response Questions ● ● ● Decide in which column you want to begin gridding your answers before the test starts.4. can also be gridded. For example.12. Incomplete erasures may be picked up by the scoring machines as intended answers. The Mathematics Section 23 . 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 Note: You may start your answers in any column. . ● ● ● ● Do your best to be certain of your answer before you grid it. 15/25 will not fit. Zero has been omitted from column 1 to encourage you to grid the most accurate values for rounded answers. Decimals and fractions can also be gridded. Write answer in boxes.66 or . which is less accurate. (If is gridded. This strategy saves time.. you will receive credit only if the circles are filled in correctly. grid it in column 2. In such cases. with more digits than the grid can accommodate. Columns not needed should be left blank.6.6666.Student-Produced Response Questions Questions of this type have no answer choices provided. if you obtain an answer such as 0. • No question has a negative answer. • Decimal Answers: If you obtain a decimal answer • Although not required. you should record your result as . You may use any available space for scratchwork. Answer: 201 7 Answer: 12 Answer: 2. 3. it is suggested that you write your answer in the boxes at the top of the columns to help you fill in the circles accurately. The decimal form.. The grid will only hold numbers that range from 0 to 9999. space permitting..67 will be scored as incorrect. as shown in the examples below. Check your work if your answer does not fit on the grid. grid only one answer. If you obtain a negative value. 6/10. If you erase your answer. or 9/15.666 or . Your handwritten answer at the top of the grid isn’t scored.5 Either position is correct. You will lose valuable testing time if you read the directions for the first time when you take the test. • Some problems may have more than one correct answer. a value greater than 9999. not 3 . However. A less accurate value such as . writing your answer at the top of the grid may help you avoid gridding errors. 2 Acceptable ways to grid are: 3 • Mark no more than one circle in any column. you have made an error.4. but it must fill the entire grid. or fraction. It is very important for you to understand the directions for entering answers on the grid. If the answer is zero. Generally. you don’t lose points for wrong answers. Only answers entered on the grid are scored.

2 Since 3 − 8 x = 1. 3-4. you substitute 4 for a and 2 for b in 42 + 1 ab + 1 . Difficulty level: Medium 10. 4x − 7 = 5 4 x = 12 x =3 4x − 7 = −5 4x = 2 1 x= 2 The words “let a b be defined by” tell you that the symbol is not supposed to represent a common mathematical operation but one that is made up for this question. 3-5. 4. 1-6. 2-6. How many different combinations of 2 courses are possible for Kay if there are no restrictions on which 2 courses she can choose? or The two values of x that satisfy the first equation are 1 3 and . 5. Of the 6 courses offered by the music department at her college. Following each question. so only one is in the list. 1-5.5. which equals the expression 4−1 a −1 17 . you will find a solution and several ways to enter the correct answer. For all positive integers a and b. One way to find the number of combinations is to list all possible pairings. 4x − 7 = 5 3 − 8x = 1 9.66 or 5. Kay must choose exactly 2 of them. Difficulty level: Hard There are 6 courses offered. 2. let us refer to them as 1. To evaluate 4 2. This gives . 2-4. What is the value defined by a b = a−1 of 4 2? 17 0 1 2 3 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 / 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 3 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 5 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 66 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 5 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 67 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 8. 1-4. the value of 4 x − 7 is either 5 or −5. You are asked to find the value of x that 4 2 1 satisfies both equations. 1-3. let a b be ab + 1 . 4-6. 3 − 8x = 1 8x = 2 1 x = 4 3 − 8x = −1 8x = 4 1 x = 2 or 15 0 1 2 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 The two values of x that satisfy the second equation are 1 1 and . They are 1-2.Sample Questions Below are five examples of student-produced response questions. 2-5. That value is . 4-5. and 6. 24 SAT Preparation Booklet . Note that 1-2 and 2-1 represent the same combination. The answer can 2 be entered in the grid as 1/2 or . 2-3. and 5-6. The answer may be entered in the grid as 17/3 or as 3 5. the value of 3 − 8 x is either 1 or −1. There are 15 combinations. 3. 3-6. What value of x satisfies both of the equations above? 1/ 2 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 5 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 4 5 6 7 8 9 Since 4 x − 7 = 5.67.

how many of the other eleven angles have measure 28° ? 5 0 1 2 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 3 1 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 4 0 1 4 2 5 3 6 4 7 5 8 6 9 7 8 9 Since f ( x ) = x 2 − 7 x + 10 . Either 1 or 4 satisfies the question being asked. The number 5 can be gridded in any of the four columns on the answer grid. The acute angle is labeled 28°. the number of different ways 2 of 6 courses could be selected) is 6 for the first course selected times 5 for the second course selected. you can put a check showing the other angles in the figure that also measure 28°. Therefore. Therefore. You could also solve the problem by noting that the total number of permutations (that is. When there is a range of possible correct answers. Since t = k − 1. or 6 × 5 = 30. Three parallel lines in a plane are intersected by a fourth line. Difficulty level: Hard 12. consider a problem for which all numbers between 4 and 5. or (t − 1) (t − 4 ) = 0. If f (t + 1) = 0. So ( k − 5) ( k − 2) = 0. For example. you must divide the number of permutations by the number of arrangements. are correct answers. f ( k ) = k 2 − 7k + 10 = ( k − 5) ( k − 2 ). it follows that t 2 − 5t + 4 = 0. Another way to solve the question would be to use a dummy variable k.You could also notice that there are 5 pairings that start with course 1 and 4 additional pairings that start with course 2.0002 is within the range ( 4 < t < 5) . there are 2 arrangements. what is one possible value of t ? This question asks for one possible value of t. ( ) 28° Since f (t + 1) = 0. Difficulty level: Medium 11. and so forth. For example. substituting ( t + 1) for x into the function yields f ( t + 1) = ( t + 1) − 7 ( t + 1) + 10. or f ( t + 1) = t 2 − 5t + 4. the correct answer to this problem is 5. f ( t + 1) = t 2 + 2t + 1 − ( 7t + 7 ) + 10. your gridded response must lie within the range. k = 5 or k = 2. Choose only one correct answer (not both) to enter in the grid. Therefore. If one of the angles has measure 28°. Difficulty level: Easy The Mathematics Section 25 . So the number of combinations is 30 ÷ 2 = 15.00 is not within the range and therefore would not be considered a correct answer to the problem. For this problem. its rounded value 4. There are 5 other angles that measure 28°. To find the number of combinations. and therefore. as shown below. The figure below shows three parallel lines intersected by a fourth line. although 4. let k = t + 1. or 2 Drawing the figure described in the problem will help you visualize the correct solution to the problem. For each pair of courses A-B selected. forming twelve angles. it follows that f ( k ) = 0. The total number of combinations is 5 + 4 + 3 + 2 + 1 = 15. t = 1 or t = 4 . the arrangement B-A is also possible. t = 4 or t = 1. exclusive. Let the function f be defined by f ( x ) = x 2 − 7 x + 10. Since k = t + 1 Using the fact that vertical angles and alternate interior angles are equal. 28° and f (t + 1) = 0.

If your car is parked here while not eating in the restaurant. Natalie had a different opinion of her. 5. There are eight people on the shore. and flies hang gliders. There is eight people on the shore. your car will be towed away. There are many problems in the contemporary world in which we live. recognize and identify sentence-level errors. Mary took time out of her busy schedule to visit her aunt. Being consistent Sequence of tenses Shift of pronoun Parallelism Noun agreement Pronoun reference Subject-verb agreement 2. In the newspaper they say that few people voted. and flying hang gliders. Several people wanted the job. Fred having to go home early. Nathan grew more vegetables than his neighbor’s garden. recognize correctly formed grammatical structures. Writing problem 1. 26 SAT Preparation Booklet . he is home for two weeks.. Fred has to go home early. understand grammatical elements and structures and how they relate to each other in a sentence. If you park here and do not eat in the restaurant. so he or she filled out the required applications. If you are tense. she is probably allergic to something. Recognizing effective writing Some sentences require students to recognize that there is no error. Characteristics of Effective Writing Multiple-choice writing questions focus on common problems associated with four characteristics of effective writing. The multiple-choice sections include: ● Improving sentences (25 questions) ● Identifying sentence errors (18 questions) ● Improving paragraphs (6 questions) The multiple-choice sections measure your ability to ● communicate ideas clearly and effectively. Barking loudly. Expressing ideas logically Coordination and subordination Logical comparison Modification and word order 3. Several people wanted the job. He sat between you and me at the stadium. Nathan grew more vegetables than his neighbor grew. There are many problems in the contemporary world. Barking loudly. Mary took time out of her busy schedule to visit her aunt. John decided to continue working through the summer. he was home for two weeks. it will be towed away. you should try to relax. Being clear and precise Ambiguous and vague pronouns Diction Wordiness Improper modification 4. Tawanda has a rash. ● ● ● ● ● ● improve a piece of writing through revision and editing. the tree had the dog's leash wrapped around it. the dog wrapped its leash around the tree. Naomi makes the most money. so they filled out the required applications. He circumvented the globe on his trip. clearly express ideas through sentence-combining and use of transitional words and phrases. Of the sixteen executives. She skis.. Carmen and Sarah are both pilots. Of the sixteen executives. The newspaper reported that few people voted. Sentence illustrating the problem Should be. Following conventions Pronoun case Idiom Comparison of modifiers Sentence fragment Comma splice He sat between you and I at the stadium. After he broke his arm. Note: Calculators may not be on your desk or be used on the writing section of the SAT. She skis. one should try to relax. Carmen and Sarah are both a pilot. Illustrations of problems are given below. plays tennis. Tawanda has a rash. If you are tense. After he broke his arm. The fifth category of questions requires recognition of correct sentences and effective writing strategies. He circumnavigated the globe on his trip. improve coherence of ideas within and among paragraphs. but John decided to continue working through the summer. plays tennis. and she is probably allergic to something. Natalie had a different opinion for her. Naomi makes more money.The Writing Section The writing section includes both multiple-choice questions and a direct writing measure in the form of an essay.

choice of words. In making your selection. For a sentence to be grammatically complete. that is. if not. The phrase “upon the reaching of ” also results in a phrase that is not idiomatic. In this example. No. No. (E) Henry Ossawa Tanner. the other four choices are different. and punctuation. Scenes from the everyday lives of African Americans. EXAMPLE: Laura Ingalls Wilder published her first book and she was sixty-five years old then. which are realistically depicted in the paintings of Henry Ossawa Tanner. replacing the underlined part with each answer choice to determine which revision results in a sentence that is clear and precise and meets the requirements of standard written English. (B) Scenes from the everyday lives of African Americans being realistically depicted in the paintings of Henry Ossawa Tanner. Correct answer: (B) / Difficulty level: Easy Sample Questions 1. in his realistic paintings. Part of each sentence or the entire sentence is underlined. (C) The paintings of Henry Ossawa Tanner realistically depict scenes from the everyday lives of African Americans. sentence construction. follow the requirements of standard written English. beneath each sentence are five ways of phrasing the underlined material. Yes. the result is a sentence fragment. Answering Improving Sentences Questions Look carefully at the underlined portion of the sentence because it may have to be revised. pay attention to grammar. ● ● Directions The following sentences test correctness and effectiveness of expression. (D) Henry Ossawa Tanner. No. The phrase “at the time when she was sixty-five” is awkward and wordy. When a sentence lacks either a subject or a main verb. it is a good idea to read each choice quickly to make sure. Remember that choice (A) is the same as the underlined portion. If you think the original phrasing produces a better sentence than any of the alternatives. but continue to look at the other revisions. Replacing the word “and” with “when” clearly expresses the information that the sentence is intended to convey by relating Laura Ingalls Wilder’s age to her achievement. whose paintings realistically depict scenes from the everyday lives of African Americans. select one of the other choices. select choice A. depicting scenes from the everyday lives of African Americans. recognize effective sentences that follow the conventions of standard written English. The Writing Section 27 . The word “and” should be replaced to establish the relationship between the two ideas. Follow the two steps below in answering each improving sentences question. Choice A repeats the original phrasing. Even if you think that the sentence does not require correction and choice (A) is the correct answer.cde ● ● ● The word “and” indicates that the two ideas it connects are equally important. (A) Scenes from the everyday lives of African Americans. Using the word “at” results in a phrase that is not idiomatic. In the example above. Step 1: Read the entire sentence carefully but quickly and ask yourself whether the underlined portion is correct or whether it needs to be revised. Step 2: Read choices (A) through (E). it must include both a subject and a main verb. connecting the two ideas (“Laura Ingalls Wilder published her first book”) and (“she was sixty-five years old then”) with the word “and” indicates that the two ideas are equally important. No. Your selection should result in the most effective sentence—clear and precise. Keep in mind that the rest of the sentence stays the same.Improving Sentences This question type measures your ability to ● ● recognize and correct faults in grammar and sentence structure. without awkwardness or ambiguity. (A) and she was sixty-five years old then (B) when she was sixty-five (C) at age sixty-five years old (D) upon the reaching of sixty-five years (E) at the time when she was sixty-five a. which are realistically depicted in the paintings of Henry Ossawa Tanner. all options but (C) are sentence fragments.

especially if you are not sure. . Although a trail cannot itself look up from the base of a mountain. the noun “Henry Ossawa Tanner” is modified by the dependent clause “whose . Step 1: Read the entire sentence carefully but quickly. ● ● ● ● In (A). . it must logically modify the sentence’s subject.” The pronoun “him” is in the wrong case.” Step 2: Select the underlined word or phrase that needs to be changed to make the sentence correct. In choosing answers. Tanner” contains no main verb. the phrase “Scenes .” The phrase “drafted by” correctly expresses the action of the “neutral states. but it is illogical to suggest that a trail looks up from the base of a mountain. In this case.cde Correct answer: (C) / Difficulty level: Medium 2.” Check each underlined word or phrase for correctness.” A person might stand at the base of a mountain and look up at a trail. select choice E. . (B). the noun “Henry Ossawa Tanner” is modified by “depicting” but is not combined with a main verb. (A) Looking up (B) While looking up (C) By looking up (D) Viewing (E) Viewed When a modifying phrase begins a sentence. a trail can be viewed by someone looking up from the base of a mountain. Follow the two steps below in answering each identifying sentence errors question. so the phrase “Viewed from the base of the mountain” logically modifies the subject “the trail. No error E a.● ● ● ● ● In (A). If the sentence contains an error.” and the phrase “drafted by the neutral states” describes “the resolution. select the one underlined part that must be changed to make the sentence correct. Americans” is modified by the dependent clause “which . In this example. “The other delegates and him” are the people who “immediately accepted the resolution. the trail seemed more treacherous than it really was. select choice (B) because the underlined word “him” must be changed to “he” to make the sentence correct. Directions The following sentences test your ability to recognize grammar and usage errors. . (E) is correct. (C). The error. EXAMPLE: The other delegates and him immediately A B C accepted the resolution drafted by the D neutral states. No sentence contains more than one error. Mark (E) No error if you believe that the sentence is correct as written.”) “Him” is an error. . . and (D) are simply variations of the error found in (A). . If the sentence is correct. paying attention to underlined choices (A) through (D). recognize effective sentences that follow the conventions of standard written English. It is the only choice in which a subject (“The paintings of Henry Ossawa Tanner”) is combined with a verb (“depict”) to express a complete thought. the phrase “Scenes . ● Answering Identifying Sentence Errors Questions Ask yourself if any of the underlined words and phrases in the sentence contains a grammar or usage error. In (B). Keep in mind that some sentences do not contain an error. And in (E). but go on to check the other choices. Tanner. In the example above. it is a dangling modifier. follow the requirements of standard written English. if there is one. Correct answer: (B) / Difficulty level: Easy 28 SAT Preparation Booklet . (One would not say “him immediately accepted.” but there is no main verb. Each sentence contains either a single error or no error at all. Looking up from the base of the mountain. is underlined and lettered. Each results in a sentence that illogically suggests that a trail was looking up from the base of a mountain. The word “immediately” correctly modifies the verb “accepted. every option except (E) is a dangling modifier. . In (D).” Correct answer: (E) / Difficulty level: Hard Identifying Sentence Errors This question type measures your ability to ● ● ● ● recognize faults in grammar and usage. (C) is correct. the phrase “Looking up from the base of the mountain” does not logically modify the subject “the trail. The phrase “The other” correctly modifies the word “delegates. Americans” but not combined with a main verb. otherwise.

In (A). Here. The sentence may be corrected as follows: After hours of futile debate. (4) My art teacher has tried to make up for it by teaching us about women artists and their work.” ignoring those women who should have achieved fame. the committee has decided to postpone further discussion of the resolution until its next meeting. Step 1: Read the entire essay quickly to determine its overall meaning. Correct answer: (D) / Difficulty level: Medium 4. Some questions are about particular sentences or parts of sentences and ask you to improve sentence structure or word choice. Follow the steps below to answer the questions. In (A). the plural pronoun “their” is used incorrectly.” the second part of the comparison must be introduced by the conjunction “than” rather than “and not. Choose the best answer from among the choices given. the plural verb “have discovered” agrees with the plural subject “students. you will need to note what sentences need to be corrected and to know how each of the sentences relates to one another and to the essay as a whole. Directions ● The following passage is an early draft of an essay. The essay is intended as a draft. In (C). The other options contain no errors. “to postpone” is the verb form needed to complete the description of the committee’s decision. Improving Paragraphs This type of question measures your ability to ● ● ● edit and revise sentences in the context of a paragraph or entire essay. ● Sample Questions Questions 5-7 are based on the following passage: (1) Many times art history courses focus on the great “masters. a high school teacher who had lived all of her life in New Haven. (5) Recently she came to class very excited. Other questions ask you to consider organization and development. she had just read about a littleknown artist named Annie Johnson. When a comparison is introduced by the adverb “more. No error E The error in this sentence occurs at (D). follow the requirements of standard written English. Read the passage and select the best answers for the questions that follow. (6) Johnson never sold a painting. so you will notice errors. C D No error E The error in this sentence occurs at (D). the preposition “through” appropriately expresses the means by which issues are addressed. organize and develop paragraphs in a coherent and logical manner.” In (C). Step 2: In answering each question. In choosing answers. Some parts of the passage need to be rewritten. even if you can imagine another correct response. In (B). apply the conventions of standard written English. (2) Often women artists like Mary Cassatt have worked in the shadows of their male contemporaries. The sentence may be corrected as follows: The students have discovered that they can address issues more effectively through letter-writing campaigns than through public demonstrations. The students have discovered that they can address A B issues more effectively through letter-writing C campaigns and not through public D demonstrations. the committee has A decided to postpone further discussion B of the resolution until their next meeting. A pronoun must agree in number (singular or plural) with the noun to which it refers.” The other options contain no errors. Connecticut. and her obituary in The Writing Section ● ● Correct answer: (D) / Difficulty level: Hard 29 .” In (B).” as in “more effectively. the singular verb “has” establishes “the committee” as a singular noun. the preposition “After” appropriately introduces a phrase that indicates when the committee made its decision.Sample Questions 3. ● ● Answering Improving Paragraphs Questions To answer the improving paragraphs questions that accompany the draft essay. (3) They have rarely received much attention during their lifetimes. make sure that your answer about a particular sentence or group of sentences makes sense in the context of the passage as a whole. After hours of futile debate. the prepositional phrase “of the resolution” appropriately specifies the subject of the postponed discussion. the plural pronoun “they” correctly refers to the plural noun “students. therefore.

The transitional phrase “As a result” clearly indicates a cause-and-effect relationship. (9) Blanchard now owns a private collection of hundreds of Johnson’s works— watercolors. ● ● ● ● (A). A transitional phrase should be added to emphasize the cause-and-effect relationship between the stated facts—women artists received little attention as a consequence of having worked in the shadows of their male contemporaries—and the ambiguous pronoun “They” should be replaced with a word or phrase that clearly refers to the “women artists” and not the “male contemporaries” mentioned in sentence 2. (16) My teacher said that isolation symbolizes Johnson’s life as an artist. which of the following is the best version of sentence 10 (reproduced below)? There are portraits and there are landscapes. it is misleading in that the words “Johnson has” suggest that Johnson is the owner rather than the painter of the portraits and landscapes. In context. 5. Correct answer: (E) / Difficulty level: Medium 7.” (C) is correct. the sentence makes little sense in the context of the paragraph because it suggests that Bruce Blanchard is someone other than the Connecticut businessman who bought the watercolors. (D) is correct because it properly identifies Johnson as the painter of the artworks and thus provides an antecedent for the pronoun “her” in sentence 11. (E) Among them Johnson has portraits and landscapes. (E) is unsatisfactory not only because it fails to signal the cause-and-effect relationship. and pen-and-ink drawings. (B) Move “Thanks to Bruce Blanchard” to the end of sentence 7. (B). Though (E) does mention Johnson. Moreover. In context. which of the following revisions to sentence 7 is most needed? (A) Delete “Thanks to”. (7) Thanks to Bruce Blanchard. (12) My teacher described them as “unsentimental.” (13) They do not idealize characters. charcoal sketches. (B). both portraits and landscapes are among her works. a Connecticut businessman who bought some of her watercolors at an estate sale. ● 6. both (A) and (B) leave the ambiguity of the pronoun unresolved. (15) Many of the people in the pictures had an isolated. sentence 10 contains no noun to which the pronoun “her” in sentence 11 may refer. (C) Therefore. haunted look. and “these women” properly resolves the ambiguity of the pronoun “They. (E) is correct.1937 did not even mention her many paintings. they had (B) Too bad these artists have (C) As a result. This change results in a grammatically complete sentence that indicates what happened thanks to Bruce Blanchard’s efforts: Johnson began to get the attention she deserved. its relationship to the preceding sentence needs to be made clearer. with neither a subject nor a main verb to finish the thought it has begun. (14) Characters are presented almost photographically. complete with subject and verb.” “Too bad. In context. Each results in another sentence fragment. (8) Johnson is finally starting to get the attention that she deserved more than one hundred years ago. that indicates what happened as a result of Blanchard’s action. and (D) are unsatisfactory because each fails to provide the main verb needed to complete the sentence. (C) Delete “who”. these women have (D) In spite of this. (B). (11) The thing that makes her work stand out are the portraits. and (C) are unsatisfactory because they do not mention Johnson. Sentence 7 is a sentence fragment. which is the best revision to the underlined portion of sentence 3 (reproduced below)? They have rarely received much attention during their lifetimes.” or “In spite of this”) fails to indicate the cause-andeffect relationship. (D) Johnson painted both portraits and landscapes. It should be revised so that Johnson is clearly identified as the painter of the portraits and landscapes. (E) Change the period to a comma and combine sentence 7 with sentence 8. but also because it is wordy and illogically combines the adverbs “Often” and “rarely. It says “Thanks to Bruce Blanchard. (10) There are portraits and there are landscapes. and (D) are unsatisfactory because in each case the transitional phrase (“In fact. women artists (E) Often it is the case that the former have Although sentence 3 is not grammatically incorrect. In addition to being vague. (A) (As it is now) (B) You can see both portraits and landscapes. (D) Change “her” to “Johnson’s”. It should therefore be joined to an independent clause. (A) In fact. ● ● ● (A). Although (C) results in a complete sentence.” but it does not say what happened thanks to Bruce Blanchard.” Correct answer: (C) / Difficulty level: Hard ● (A). Correct answer: (D) / Difficulty level: Easy 30 SAT Preparation Booklet .

repress it. Approaches to the Essay There are no short cuts to success on the SAT essay. follow the conventions of standard written English. or observations. I’ve Known Rivers: Lives of Loss and Liberation Assignment: Do memories hinder or help people in their effort to learn from the past and succeed in the present? Plan and write an essay in which you develop your point of view on this issue. studies. Do not write your essay in your test book. experience. There’s nothing wrong with “I. If your essay does not reflect your original and individual work. therefore. or uses literary examples. your test scores may be canceled. Important Reminders: ● develop a point of view on an issue presented in an excerpt.” and give examples that are meaningful to you. take care to develop your point of view. Your essay must be written on the lines provided on your answer sheet—you will receive no other paper on which to write. The high school and college teachers who score the SAT reward essays that insightfully develop a point of view with appropriate reasons and examples and that use language skillfully. A pencil is required for the essay.com/satonlinecourse. Would you argue with him or her.” You are asked to develop your point of view on the issue. Remember that people who are not familiar with your handwriting will read what you write. The Writing Section 31 . It’s all there to help you. experience. You will have enough space if you write on every line. But others have just the opposite view. not give a straight report of the facts. You will not receive high scores on your essay just because it is long. they must forget the past. An essay with one or two thoughtful. or observations. You should. Adapted from Sara Lawrence-Lightfoot. An essay written in ink will receive a score of zero. and relinquish it. support your point of view using reasoning and examples from your reading. simplistic examples. Every essay assignment contains a short paragraph about the issue. Receive immediate essay scoring for this essay prompt and many more in The Official SAT Online Course™. Of course you need to support your ideas appropriately and show that you can use language well. and keep your handwriting to a reasonable size. Don’t oversimplify. or has five paragraphs. avoid wide margins. welldeveloped reasons or examples is more likely to get a high score than an essay with three short. Try to write or print so that what you are writing is legible to those readers. Many persons believe that to move up the ladder of success and achievement. This is your opinion. studies. So what can you do to write a successful SAT essay? ● • • • • ● ● Read the entire assignment. and use language precisely. Rushing to give multiple relevant examples can lead you to oversimplify a complex topic. Support your position with reasoning and examples taken from your reading. or agree? What other ideas or examples would you bring up? Answering these questions will help you develop your own point of view. You have 25 minutes to write an essay on the topic assigned below. You will receive credit only for what you write on your answer sheet. so feel free to use “I. present your ideas logically and clearly. Developing your point of view doesn’t mean coming up with as many examples as you can. Learn more at collegeboard. They see old memories as a chance to reckon with the past and integrate past and present.The Essay The essay measures your ability to ● ● Directions The essay gives you an opportunity to show how effectively you can develop and express ideas. Imagine that you are talking to the author of the paragraph about the issue. An off-topic essay will receive a score of zero. even ones from your personal life or experiences. but remember: the essay is an opportunity for you to say what you think about an issue relevant to your life. Think carefully about the issue presented in the following excerpt and the assignment below.

attitude. this will only make wiser people out of us and guide us to where we are supposed to be. I utilized the memory of the Elizabeth Taylor debacle to improve my approach to acting and gave the best performance of my life so far. and the rest of her character unfolded beautifully from there. These memories help to spread the view of what life was like. Elie Wiesel’s memoir Night perfectly exemplifies the double nature of memories. Through reliving the Holocaust through his writing. and promised myself I would not try to imitate another actress. The essay exhibits outstanding critical thinking by presenting a well-organized and clearly focused narrative that aptly illustrates the value of memory. Had he remained so consumed with the pain and damage caused in the past. jaded man. The essay demonstrates clear and consistent mastery and receives a 6. because without that mistake I might have tried to base “Chris” off of someone I’d known or something I’d seen instead of becoming my own character. a Jewish man.” and would get the opportunity to play “Chris. This essay exhibits outstanding critical thinking by effectively and insightfully developing its point of view (you should rely on your past without letting it control you) through the clearly appropriate example of Elie Wiesel’s Holocaust memoir. Wiesel. The essay also uses language skillfully. carefully contrasting Wiesel’s success in using his memories to gain attention for his cause with the difficulty Wiesel faced in dealing with those same powerful memories. demonstrating meaningful variety in sentence structure (To my detriment I thought it would be a good idea to watch the movie in order to prepare. rendering him passive. hoping I could mimic her performance. Wiesel acknowledges the damage that memories can also cause. suffered heavily throughout the Holocaust and Night is rife with horrific descriptions of his experience. 32 SAT Preparation Booklet . Wiesel was a bitter. I was anxious to audition for the winter play just two months later. Unfortunately. Score of 6: Memories act as both a help and a hinderance to the success of someone.Sample Essays Score of 6: Without our past. our future would be a tortuous path leading to nowhere. and diction. This essay effectively and insightfully develops its point of view (In order to move up the ladder of success and achievement we must come to terms with our past and integrate it into our future) through a clearly appropriate extended example drawing on the writer’s experience as an actor. attitude. Through recounting these memories. Some would point to his peaceful actions and the sales of his book and label him a success. I was auditioning for the fall play. “Cat on a Hot Tin Roof. My director told me after the first show that “Rumors” was the best work he’d ever seen from me.” To my detriment I thought it would be a good idea to watch the movie in order to prepare. but it was not until he pushed them aside that he could move on.” a sarcastic yet witty role. Following his liberation from the Auschwitz concentration camp. the essay demonstrates clear and consistent mastery and is scored a 6. I was unaware that my director…). gave her the voice I thought was right. however. Following his liberation from the Auschwitz concentration camp. He could not even write Night until several years later. Many people advise you to learn from the past and apply those memories so that you can effectively succeed by avoiding repeating your past mistakes. The end of the novel describes Wiesel’s gradual but absolute loss of faith throughout the experience. For two hours I studied Elizabeth Taylor’s mannerisms. The essay uses language skillfully to convey Wiesel’s struggle (Despite the importance of recounting such memories. On the other hand. hoping I could mimic her performance. I auditioned for the part of “Maggie” feeling perfectly confident in my portrayal of Elizabeth Taylor. Wiesel’s past experiences helped to guide him in later life. while making sure that you are also living in the present and looking to the future. To me this means that you should rely on your past without letting it control you. The play was Neil Simon’s “Rumors. Thinking back to my first audition I was grateful for that chance I had to learn and to grow. and that he was amazed at how I’d developed such a believable character. I learned from this experience. His past experiences haunted him for several years. and my director told me that he needed to see “Maggie” from my perspective. I was unaware that my director saw exactly what I had been thinking. Overall. and diction. In order to develop my character. not Elizabeth Taylor’s. I didn’t get the part. Wiesel’s experiences exemplify the importance of the past as a guide. people who get too caught up with the past are unable to move on to the future. in order to create my character. He could not even write Night until several years later). which would be my final performance in high school. Wiesel acknowledges the damage that memories can also cause. Perservering. Despite the importance of recounting such memories. It was not until he set aside his past that he could even focus on the future. Despite minor errors. For two hours I studied Elizabeth Taylor’s mannerisms. however. Even if in the past we made mistakes. Wiesel is able to educate world readers about the atrocities committed in hopes that the same blatant violations of human rights are never repeated again. jaded man. In order to move up the ladder of success and achievement we must come to terms with our past and integrate it into our future. Allow your past to act as a guide. The essay demonstrates clear coherence and smooth progression of ideas. I auditioned for the part of “Maggie” feeling perfectly confident in my portrayal of Elizabeth Taylor. he may never have achieved the success that he has attained. I planned out her life just as I thought it should be. This past year. Wiesel was a bitter. Wiesel was inspired to become proactive in the battle for civil rights. Night.

the writer needs to achieve clearer coherence and smoother progression of ideas by integrating the example of Ceremony more effectively into the overall essay. To earn a 6. Tayo. Well organized and focused. Sedition acts at this time allowed for the imprisonment of anyone who voiced an opinion against the president. but also effective. An example of this is looking back in history to WWI. a former general and later Secretary of State under President Truman. Forgetting the past can and will only erase experience and knowledge from a person and in affect hinder one in seeking achievement. In my personal experience. Score of 5: I agree with Ms. the main character. it is clear that old memories can only aid in success. perhaps through an extended comparison of Tayo’s and Marshall’s experiences of World War II. Americans saw the poor judgement of this situation and later with the war in Iraq. . approached “patriotism” differently. If the Sedition Acts had been forgotten then what is to say that they wouldn’t come back? Remembering the failed times insures that improvement is possible). America recognized this shady time in its past. The essay uses appropriate reasoning and examples and demonstrates coherence and progression of ideas (Many American politicians thought it was foolish for the US government to spend money abroad on countries that would not be able to repay the loan for a long time. but also provides skills and knowledge. The essay also uses appropriate vocabulary and demonstrates effective variety in sentence structure. can not concentrate on the present because he constantly hounds himself over things that happened during World War II and his troubled childhood. but maintained the memory of this horrible tragedy. . However. Marshall knew that if the US did not help war torn Germany and. Later in life. a guiding support. one can learn how to successfully approach similar situations in the future. However. by Leslie Marmon Silko. these acts were published in textbooks and taught to students. . If the Sedition Acts had been forgotten then what is to say that they wouldn’t come back? Remembering the failed times insures that improvement is possible. past experiences can only offer a gap between the steps on the ladder of success. a guiding support. Some view failed experiences as a hinderance to future success. but the very act of going through something provides experience for a person who is to “move up the ladder of success and achievement”. and instead of covering it up in a movement towards a more democratic nation. With this present war. I was devastated and wanted to just clear my mind of the event. remembered how the exact same argument . People not only learn from the past. However. I looked back to that memory as a guide and learned from it that in time I would be fine and to just hang on. . I am able to use them as reference. and sometimes assurance. assist people in obtaining success. The essay also exhibits facility in the use of language.” Many people are so troubled by things that happened in their past that they are not able to focus on the present. This essay effectively develops its point of view (Memories and past experiences serve as a rail. and the United States would have to be the one to provide that assistence. I have found that the very act of living through something not only matures me. we could eventually have a World War III on our hands. remembered how the exact same argument of “why should we spend money on war torn nations that really owe us reparations?” had been used after World War I towards Germany. This is very untrue because history has a tendency of repeating itself. Japan. for people in an effort to succeed in the present. good or bad. An historical example of people learning from the past would be the Marshall Plan. To earn a score of 6. but I didn’t. For example. those adverse to the war are able to voice their opinions without fear of imprisonment or death. for people in an effort to succeed in the present) through the appropriate examples of dissent during wartime and grieving for a pet. especially. past memories can help people to succeed in the present. America was able to recognize the bad and try to reform it. the essay demonstrates coherence and progression of ideas (In seeing the undemocratic ways of an earlier era. who eventually started World War II. The essay demonstrates reasonably consistent mastery and is scored a 5. thus demonstrating strong critical thinking. Memories. another pet died. This focused essay effectively develops its point of view and demonstrates strong critical thinking (Many people are so troubled by things that happened in their past that they are not able to focus on the present. had been used after World War I towards Germany). . a memory served as a reference and catalyzed in my personal growth and recovery. somewhat juvenile. George Marshall . in the book Ceremony. I recovered. Many American politicians thought it was foolish for the US government to spend money abroad on countries that would not be able to repay the loan for a long time. this writer needs to achieve smoother progression of ideas by using language more skillfully (the phrase “past experiences can only offer a gap between the steps on the ladder of success” seems to express the opposite of what the writer intends). In this situation. George Marshall. or against the war.Score of 5: Memories and past experiences serve as a rail. The German people became so desperate that they started supporting an extreme German nationalist named Adolf Hitler. After time. Whether used as reference for guidance. is when my first pet died. and in recognizing past failures. . . America was able to recognize the bad and try to reform it. past memories can help people to succeed in the present). The lack of assistence towards Germany after World War I had caused a gigantic economic depression in Germany that had made the Mark (German money) virtually worthless. In looking at historical repeats and personal events. In remembering past events. A personal example. The essay demonstrates reasonably consistent mastery and receives a 5. Sara Lawrence-Lightfoot in saying that some people “see old memories as a chance to reckon with the past and integrate past and present. However. or lessons on what not to do. In seeing the undemocratic ways of an earlier era. The Writing Section 33 . After the conclusion of World War II there were many countries around the world in need of economical assistence to help rebuild their war torn countries.

got in trouble with my parents and was punished. I have come to believe this through personal experience and watching others. I make mistakes all of the time and I am a better person because of that. Now I tend to make different mistakes. Therefore each step is a mistake that you learned from. far from perfect. Now I tend to make different mistakes). had been persecuted for many hundreds of years from 1000 AD to 1900 AD. therefor. assuming of course that they learn from them. You could almost say that the more mistakes a person makes. Score of 4: The point of making mistakes is to learn from them. is to forget and forgive. This essay provides adequate reasons and examples to support both aspects of its point of view (I believe that one should remember the past and learn from those events. These two ideas helped him to get into the prestegious college of the University of Notre Dame. let’s forget this part and concentrate on how to bring this positive part into light. This essay develops a point of view (Life is a huge cycle of making mistakes and learning from them) with adequate reasons and examples. Consequently. and my closest friends are all slowly building up the knowledge to be successful. That is why people can become so wise and strong in what they do. Both of the ideas on remembering and forgetting have their reasons for existing and both are positive. 34 SAT Preparation Booklet . thus demonstrating competent critical thinking. Different situations require different actions to proceed in a positive manner. As a child I stole cookies from the cookie jar. How could a person climb that ladder without each and every wooden rung to help them? I am human. My parents. in turn. in turn. . I also see people close to me using problems and mistakes to make a good situation out of a bad one. Reviewing these facts and ideas has led me to believe if I do the same. or even a stroke of luck. and giving up when things get hard. lied to my parents (still happens every once in awhile). After that I learned that those things aren’t okay. time to forget is very important). it will burn you. got in trouble with my parents and was punished. usage. the essay is marked by coherence and progression of ideas (As a child I stole cookies from the cookie jar. my brothers. the writer needs to support and extend the essay’s argument with additional focused examples of people learning. and mechanics. despite some errors (I am human. “Violence begets violence” is the perfect phrase for this warfare. To attain a higher score. After that I learned that those things aren’t okay. lied to my parents . My brother. they attacked many parts of Britain for retribution of those many years of being oppressed. who is college. The essay also exhibits adequate facility in the use of language. . The only way to stop the loss of life is to forget and forgive. I believe that one should remember the past and learn from those events. I have gotten good grades and have seen interest from many prestigious programs. Through my knowledge. going to places that aren’t safe for me. I make mistakes all of the time and I am a better person because of that).” each step gets you closer to the top. Even if a person wanted to forget their past. I also believe that many bad memories harm the present and the future. His education there will allow him to have a prosperous career as an adult. The essay demonstrates adequate mastery and is scored a 4. or not learning. A quote once said. despite some inconsistencies (Through my knowledge. For example. How can a person be more successful by forgetting what they have already learned? That doesn’t push you forward it just holds a person back. thus demonstrating competent critical thinking. I have learned that in many bad instances. Generally organized and focused around the notion that remembering past learning experiences is crucial for success. it is purely bad. When climbing the “ladder of success. I also believe that many bad memories harm the present and the future). This hostility has cost the lives of many hundreds of people. a good decision. The essay is generally organized and focused and features coherence and progression of ideas. from their experiences. Ireland. for example. I. Life is a huge cycle of making mistakes and learning from them. I.” The essay demonstrates adequate mastery and receives a 4. such as. many times. . Facility in the use of language is adequate. and played tricks on my brothers. I will have a similar promising career. and played tricks on my brothers. they make good out of the bad. the writer should provide additional appropriate evidence and use critical thinking to extend the discussion of situations in which “people are required to use both elements. It’s like forgetting that if a stove is turned on and you touch it. I have learned that in many bad instances. the stronger a person they are. Many times. far from perfect. then making mistakes has no silver lining. The essay also has some errors in grammar. However. start anew.Score of 4: Interestingly enough. After being granted the Irish Free State. However. they couldn’t. people are required to use both elements. Consequently there has been on going hostility between the two peoples. therefor. The only way to continue. To earn a higher score. has proved to me the importance of getting good grades and actively participating in extracorrecular activities. time to forget is very important. If you don’t learn from what you do wrong. I fall in the middle of these statements.

offering only a collection of general ideas in support of the writer’s point of view (don’t forget the past or live in it. This demonstrates how a memory can ruin a certain activity for ever. Everything we do has to do with our experiences in the past). and serious problems with progression of ideas. exhibiting weak critical thinking. As an example if a person has cancer and is given treatment then diagnosed in remission they feel like they have beat the cancer. when looking at the past they see they have beat it once why not beat it again). The essay demonstrates little mastery and is scored a 2. but the world will change to overcome the past. Though some memories may give on strength to suceed in achieving a higher status in life. This essay develops a point of view (Memories can be helpful to some and hinder others) and shows some critical thinking by providing examples of the positive and negative effects of memories. the way we turn out to be an adult. featuring some lapses in coherence and progression of ideas. See the past will never change with the world. The evidence presented is disorganized and unfocused. The essay demonstrates developing mastery and earns a 3. To achieve a higher score. Therefore memories help people in their effort to learn from the past and succeed in the present. Everything you did and saw in the past helps you to move on. If you repeat the past it won’t come out as well as it did because the world has changed. I believe that memories from different aspects of ones life have different consequences. you have to have been through some difficult situations in the PAST. . On the other hand a memory can also help someone to move up the ladder of success. insufficient use of evidence. when trying to succeed. that they must forget the past. . it trigers a memory and lets the reader reflect on that particular time in life. . Although it expresses a point of view (I think it is wrong to believe that to move up the ladder of success and achievement. repress it. This demonstrates how a memory can be helpful to a person. every mistake you make is getting a part of you. and are thus inadequate to support the position. The essay also demonstrates occasional problems in sentence structure and mechanics. For succeed you have to know what you want. not rules. If you let the past overcome the preset you won’t get any where. and relinquish it). the examples are limited in focus. you will always wait for other people to make decisions for you and won’t have your own point of view. When the patient in remission is later told that the cancer has grown back. The writer also needs to avoid using run-on sentences (. Those two short examples just go to demonstrate how memories of the past can both help and hinder a person in their path of not only success but also in the path of life. One memory may be bad and it may be best forgotten about. People do succed with repeating their memories. that they must forget the past. The essay also demonstrates frequent problems in usage. To earn a higher score. and the past is only guidelines). Every single happy moment. the way we get along with people or treat them. the patient might feel that they can kill the cancer again because when looking at the past they see they have beat it once why not beat it again. this writer needs to provide additional focused evidence that develops the point of view. Score of 2: I think it is wrong to believe that to move up the ladder of success and achievement. . The Writing Section 35 . Everything we do has to do with our experiences in the past. grammar. When a person completes a task they have done once before. To achieve a higher score. to find that out. resulting in a disjointed essay. the next time they get to the state championships they may think about the past and how they lost before. For example. Score of 1: My oppion on this topic are oposing memories and favoring them. but severly loses to their opponent. repress it. and the past is only guidelines. This is why memories should be guidelines.Score of 3: Memories can be helpful to some and hinder others. In this case it did not help the person climb the ladder of success though it helped the to continue climbing the ladder of life to the extent that they were able to climb. If you get everything told you by someone. this writer needs to use critical thinking to clarify and expand each example by adding additional focused reasoning and details. If you don’t live with making your own decisions. the writer needs to develop the point of view with reasons and specific examples instead of merely repeating the same vague ideas (Everything you did and saw in the past helps you to move on. The essay demonstrates very little mastery and receives a 1. a sporting team at the local high school makes it to the state championships. They might have horrible memories but also succeed because they don’t repeat the past. However. and relinquish it. Your actions become habits which creates your personality and helps you to make your own experience. This minimal essay demonstrates very little mastery. . and it may hinder there feelings and they may once again lose. including specific examples. this essay is seriously limited. I also think memories should not rule the present. and your experience with people and the world or school you won’t have any examples to compare or to handle any coming situations in the future. and sentence structure. So in conclusion don’t forget the past or live in it. mistakes.

There is no formula for effective writing. accurate. using generally appropriate vocabulary • demonstrates some variety in sentence structure • has some errors in grammar. usage. or other evidence to support its position • is limited in its organization or focus. using very limited vocabulary or incorrect word choice • demonstrates frequent problems in sentence structure • contains errors in grammar. A typical essay • effectively and insightfully develops a point of view on the issue and demonstrates outstanding critical thinking. resulting in a demonstrates serious problems with coherence disjointed or incoherent essay or progression of ideas • displays very little facility in the use of language. and mechanics SCORE OF 2 An essay in this category demonstrates little mastery. using clearly appropriate examples. demonstrating some critical thinking. usage. no single best way to communicate an idea. a piece of writing is considered as a total work. A student can get a top score on the essay even with minor errors in grammar. and is severely flawed by ONE OR MORE of the following weaknesses: • develops no viable point of view on the issue. appropriate choices of evidence. reasons. ample development of ideas. using appropriate vocabulary • demonstrates variety in sentence structure • is generally free of most errors in grammar. or mechanics that persistently interfere with meaning Essays not written on the essay assignment will receive a score of zero. The majority of essay readers teach English. but may do so inconsistently or use inadequate examples. In scoring the essays. and is marked by ONE OR MORE of the following weaknesses: • develops a point of view on the issue. Essays are scored by experienced high school teachers and college faculty members. demonstrates competent critical thinking. usage. with 6 being the highest score. development. and mechanics so serious that meaning is somewhat obscured • displays fundamental errors in vocabulary • demonstrates severe flaws in sentence structure • contains pervasive errors in grammar. and precise use of language will receive a high score. The combined score for both readers will range from 2 to 12. readers follow the scoring guide below. usage. although it will have lapses in quality. Readers are trained to recognize and reward a wide variety of essays at each score point. and other and other evidence to support its position evidence to support its position • is well organized and focused. demonstrating some coherence and progression of ideas • exhibits adequate but inconsistent facility in the use of language. and mechanics. demonstrating clear coherence and smooth progression of ideas • exhibits skillful use of language. using a varied. Each essay is scored independently by two readers on a scale of 1 to 6. providing inappropriate or insufficient examples. or other evidence to support its position SCORE OF 1 An essay in this category demonstrates very little or no mastery. language use. usage. demonstrating coherence and progression of ideas • exhibits facility in the use of language. and other evidence to support its position • is well organized and clearly focused. generally using appropriate examples. usage. A typical essay SCORE OF 4 An essay in this category demonstrates adequate mastery. and mechanics SCORE OF 5 An essay in this category demonstrates reasonably consistent mastery. and mechanics SCORE OF 3 An essay in this category demonstrates developing mastery. but sometimes uses weak vocabulary or inappropriate word choice • lacks variety or demonstrates problems in sentence structure • contains an accumulation of errors in grammar. organization. reasons. including critical thinking. If the two readers’ scores are more than one point apart. and is flawed by ONE OR MORE of the following weaknesses: • develops a point of view on the issue that is vague or seriously limited. and demonstrates weak critical thinking. reasons. effective organization. reasons. In holistic scoring. the whole of which is greater than the sum of its parts. although it will have occasional errors or lapses in quality. using a holistic approach. a third reader resolves the discrepancy. and apt vocabulary • demonstrates meaningful variety in sentence structure • is free of most errors in grammar. or • is disorganized or unfocused. A typical essay • effectively develops a point of view on the • develops a point of view on the issue and issue and demonstrates strong critical thinking. composition. and sentence structure. or provides little or no evidence to support its position • is poorly organized and/or focused. Any essay that features clear lines of reasoning. using adequate examples. or may demonstrate some lapses in coherence or progression of ideas • displays developing facility in the use of language. The scoring guide describes the features typically found in essays at each score point. 36 SAT Preparation Booklet . such as the five-paragraph essay. regardless of style or approach.Scoring the Essay Essays are scored in a manner that is fair and consistent. SCORING GUIDE SCORE OF 6 An essay in this category demonstrates clear and consistent mastery. although it may have a few minor errors. reasons. or language arts courses. The SAT essay neither rewards nor penalizes formulaic approaches to writing. usage. and mechanics • is generally organized and focused.

Official SAT Practice Test
About the Practice Test
Take the practice test, which starts on page 46, to reinforce your test-taking skills and to be more comfortable when you take the SAT. This practice test will give you a good idea of what to expect on the actual test. However, the test you eventually take will differ in some ways. It may, for example, contain a different number of reading passages, and its sections may be in a different order. Also, this practice SAT includes only nine of the ten sections that the actual test contains. Section 7 is an unscored section and has been omitted on this test because it contains questions that may be used in future editions of the SAT. The practice test will help you most if you take it under conditions as close as possible to those of the actual test.

Finding Your Scores
To score your test, you can either enter your answers online at collegeboard.com/satpracticetest and have your test scored automatically, or you can score it yourself with the instructions on page 85. To score the test yourself, you’ll need to count the right and wrong answers for each section, and then convert your “raw” score to the College Board scale of 200 to 800. With either scoring method, you’ll need to choose a score for your essay. Use the Scoring Guide on page 36 to determine how your particular essay might be scored.

Reviewing Your Performance
After you score your practice test, review your performance to see where your strengths and weaknesses are. Ask yourself these questions:

Approaches to the Practice Test

Set aside 3 hours and 20 minutes of uninterrupted time. That way you can complete the entire test in one sitting. Note: the total testing time is 3 hours and 45 minutes, but you save 25 minutes because the unscored section from this practice test was omitted. Sit at a desk or table cleared of any other papers or books. You won’t be able to take a dictionary, books, notes, or scratch paper into the test room. Allow yourself the specified amount of time for each section. Pace yourself by using a watch (without an audible alarm), which is what you are allowed on test day. Have a calculator at hand when you take the mathematics sections. This will help you determine how much to use a calculator the day of the test. Use a calculator with which you are familiar. Read the test instructions carefully. They are reprinted from the back cover of the test book. On test day, you will be asked to read them before you begin answering questions. Make sure you use a No. 2 pencil. It is very important that you fill in the entire circle on the answer sheet darkly and completely. If you change your response, erase it as completely as possible. It is very important that you follow these instructions when filling out your answer sheet. After you finish the test, read page 85 for instructions on how to find your score. If you have access to the Internet, visit collegeboard.com/satpracticetest to review answer explanations or to see sample essays.

Did you run out of time before you finished a section? Try to pace yourself so you will have time to answer all the questions you can. Don’t spend too much time on any one question. Did you hurry and make careless mistakes? You may have misread the question, neglected to notice a word like “except” or “best,” or solved for the wrong value. Did you spend too much time reading directions? You should be familiar with the test directions so you don’t have to spend as much time reading them when you take the actual test.

Visit collegeboard.com/satpracticetest to view answer explanations for questions you answered incorrectly and to read sample scored essays.

The Official SAT Online Course
➢ Take this practice test online

➢ Receive an immediate essay score ➢ Practice with more tests and quizzes Visit: collegeboard.com/satonlinecourse

Official SAT Practice Test

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0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 . 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 . 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 . 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 14 ⁄ . 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 . Student-Produced Responses 9 ⁄ . 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 . 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 . 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 15 ⁄ . 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 . 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 . 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 . If you change your response. . 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 . ONLY ANSWERS THAT ARE GRIDDED WILL BE SCORED. 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 Page 4 Official SAT Practice Test 41 . 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 18 ⁄ ⁄ . 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 12 ⁄ ⁄ . 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 16 ⁄ ⁄ . 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 ⁄ . 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 ⁄ . 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 ⁄ . SECTION 2 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 A A A A A A A A A A B B B B B B B B B B C C C C C C C C C C D D D D D D D D D D E E E E E E E E E E 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 A A A A A A A A A A B B B B B B B B B B C C C C C C C C C C D D D D D D D D D D E E E E E E E E E E 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 A A A A A A A A A A B B B B B B B B B B C C C C C C C C C C D D D D D D D D D D E E E E E E E E E E 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 A A A A A A A A A A B B B B B B B B B B C C C C C C C C C C D D D D D D D D D D E E E E E E E E E E A A A A A A A A A A B B B B B B B B B B C C C C C C C C C C D D D D D D D D D D E E E E E E E E E E A A A A A A A A A A B B B B B B B B B B C C C C C C C C C C D D D D D D D D D D E E E E E E E E E E A A A A A A A A A A B B B B B B B B B B C C C C C C C C C C D D D D D D D D D D E E E E E E E E E E A A A A A A A A A A B B B B B B B B B B C C C C C C C C C C D D D D D D D D D D E E E E E E E E E E SECTION 3 CAUTION Grid answers in the section below for SECTION 2 or SECTION 3 only if directed to do so in your test book. 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 . 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 . 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 . 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 . 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 . 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 11 ⁄ ⁄ . 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 . 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 . 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 . YOU WILL NOT RECEIVE Quality CREDIT FOR ANYTHING WRITTEN IN THE BOXES. Incomplete marks or erasures may affect your score. 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 . 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 . It is very important that you fill in the entire circle darkly and completely. Do not use a mechanical pencil. . 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 17 ⁄ ⁄ . 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 ⁄ . 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 Assurance Mark ⁄ . 2 pencil and marks must be complete. 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 . 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 . 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 . erase as completely as possible. 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 .COMPLETE MARK A EXAMPLES OF INCOMPLETE MARKS A B B C C D D You must use a No. 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 13 ⁄ ⁄ .

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 . 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 18 ⁄ ⁄ . 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 . 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 ⁄ . 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 . 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 . 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 13 ⁄ ⁄ . . 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 . 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 . 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 ⁄ . 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 16 ⁄ ⁄ . 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 . 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 15 ⁄ . 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 . YOU WILL NOT RECEIVE CREDIT FOR ANYTHING WRITTEN IN THE BOXES. erase as completely as possible. 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 . 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 .COMPLETE MARK EXAMPLES OF INCOMPLETE MARKS A A B B C C D D You must use a No. 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 14 ⁄ . 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 . . 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 17 ⁄ ⁄ . 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 ⁄ . 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 . Student-Produced Responses Quality Assurance Mark 9 ⁄ . C C C C C C C C C C D D D D D D D D D D E E E E E E E E E E 1 2 3 SECTION 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 A A A A A A A A A A B B B B B B B B B B C C C C C C C C C C D D D D D D D D D D E E E E E E E E E E 4 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 A A A A A A A A A A B B B B B B B B B B 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 A A A A A A A A A A B B B B B B B B B B C C C C C C C C C C D D D D D D D D D D E E E E E E E E E E 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 A A A A A A A A A A B B B B B B B B B B C C C C C C C C C C D D D D D D D D D D E E E E E E E E E E 1 2 3 SECTION 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 A A A A A A A A A A B B B B B B B B B B C C C C C C C C C C D D D D D D D D D D E E E E E E E E E E A A A A A A A A A A B B B B B B B B B B C C C C C C C C C C D D D D D D D D D D E E E E E E E E E E A A A A A A A A A A B B B B B B B B B B C C C C C C C C C C D D D D D D D D D D E E E E E E E E E E A A A A A A A A A A B B B B B B B B B B C C C C C C C C C C D D D D D D D D D D E E E E E E E E E E 5 CAUTION Grid answers in the section below for SECTION 4 or SECTION 5 only if directed to do so in your test book. 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 11 ⁄ ⁄ . 2 pencil and marks must be complete. 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 . 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 12 ⁄ ⁄ . 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 . 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 Page 5 42 SAT Preparation Booklet . 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 ⁄ . 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 . It is very important that you fill in the entire circle darkly and completely. ONLY ANSWERS THAT ARE GRIDDED WILL BE SCORED. Do not use a mechanical pencil. If you change your response. 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 . 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 . 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 ⁄ . 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 . 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 . 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 . 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 . 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 . 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 . Incomplete marks or erasures may affect your score. 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 .

It is very important that you fill in the entire circle darkly and completely. 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 . erase as completely as possible. 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 ⁄ . h Student-Produced Responses ONLY ANSWERS THAT ARE GRIDDED WILL BE SCORED. 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 . 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 . 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 . 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 . 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 . 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 Page 6 8 9 PLEASE DO NOT WRITE IN THIS AREA SERIAL # Official SAT Practice Test 43 . 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 . 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 . 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 . 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 . 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 17 ⁄ ⁄ . 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 13 ⁄ ⁄ . 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 . S ed no sectio s been omitt a test. 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 .COMPLETE MARK A EXAMPLES OF INCOMPLETE MARKS A B B C C D D You must use a No. 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 12 ⁄ ⁄ . 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 15 ⁄ . 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 Assurance Mark ⁄ . 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 . 2 pencil and marks must be complete. YOU WILL NOT RECEIVE CREDIT FOR ANYTHING WRITTEN IN THE BOXES. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 . Quality 9 ⁄ . . ting e equa ice 7. 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 . Do not use a mechanical pencil. 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 14 ⁄ . 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 . 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 11 ⁄ ⁄ . SECTION 6 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 A A A A A A A A A A B B B B B B B B B B C C C C C C C C C C D D D D D D D D D D E E E E E E E E E E 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 A A A A A A A A A A B B B B B B B B B B C C C C C C C C C C D D D D D D D D D D E E E E E E E E E E 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 A A A A A A A A A A B B B B B B B B B B C C C C C C C C C C D D D D D D D D D D E E E E E E E E E E 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 A A A A A A A A A A B B B B B B B B B B C C C C C C C C C C D D D D D D D D D D E E E E E E E E E E SECTION 7 CAUTION 1 A B C D E 11 A B C D E 21 A B C D E 31 A B C D E 2 A B C D E 12 A B C D E 22 A B C D E 32 A B C D E 3 A B C D E 13 A B C D E 23 A B C D E 33 A B C D E 4 A B C D E 14 A B C D E 24 A B C D E 34 A B C D E 5 A B C D E 15 A B C D E 25 A B C D E 35 A B C D E 6 A B C D E 16 A B C D E 26 A B C D E 36 A B C D E 7 A B C D E 17 A B C D E 27 A B C D E 37 A B C D E 8 A B C D E 18 A B C D E 28 A B C D E 38 A B C D E 9 A B C D E 19 A B C D E 29 A B C D E 39 A B C D E 10 A B C D E 20 A B C D E 30 A B C D E 40 A B C D E Grid answers in the section below for SECTION 6 or SECTION 7 only if directed to do so in your test book. 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 . 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 ⁄ . If you change your response. 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 . 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 ⁄ . 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 ⁄ . . 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 . 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 . 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 . 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 16 ⁄ ⁄ . 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 . Incomplete marks or erasures may affect your score. 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 18 ⁄ ⁄ . 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 . 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 . th ection f this pract .

It is very important that you fill in the entire circle darkly and completely. Do not use a mechanical pencil. If you change your response. 1 2 3 SECTION 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 A A A A A A A A A A B B B B B B B B B B C C C C C C C C C C D D D D D D D D D D E E E E E E E E E E 8 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 A A A A A A A A A A B B B B B B B B B B C C C C C C C C C C D D D D D D D D D D E E E E E E E E E E 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 A A A A A A A A A A B B B B B B B B B B C C C C C C C C C C D D D D D D D D D D E E E E E E E E E E 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 A A A A A A A A A A B B B B B B B B B B C C C C C C C C C C D D D D D D D D D D E E E E E E E E E E 1 2 3 SECTION 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 A A A A A A A A A A B B B B B B B B B B C C C C C C C C C C D D D D D D D D D D E E E E E E E E E E 9 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 A A A A A A A A A A B B B B B B B B B B C C C C C C C C C C D D D D D D D D D D E E E E E E E E E E 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 A A A A A A A A A A B B B B B B B B B B C C C C C C C C C C D D D D D D D D D D E E E E E E E E E E 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 A A A A A A A A A A B B B B B B B B B B C C C C C C C C C C D D D D D D D D D D E E E E E E E E E E Quality Assurance Mark 1 2 3 SECTION 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 A A A A A A A A A A B B B B B B B B B B C C C C C C C C C C D D D D D D D D D D E E E E E E E E E E 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 A A A A A A A A A A B B B B B B B B B B C C C C C C C C C C D D D D D D D D D D E E E E E E E E E E 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 A A A A A A A A A A B B B B B B B B B B C C C C C C C C C C D D D D D D D D D D E E E E E E E E E E 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 A A A A A A A A A A B B B B B B B B B B C C C C C C C C C C D D D D D D D D D D E E E E E E E E E E Page 7 44 SAT Preparation Booklet . erase as completely as possible. 2 pencil and marks must be complete. Incomplete marks or erasures may affect your score.COMPLETE MARK EXAMPLES OF INCOMPLETE MARKS A A B B C C D D You must use a No.

Official SAT Practice Test 45 . The passages for this test have been adapted from published material. • For a wrong answer to a student-produced response (“grid-in”) math question. you receive no points. • Work as rapidly as you can without losing accuracy. • For a wrong answer to a multiple-choice question. • After time has been called. • If your essay does not reflect your original and individual work. • Multiple-choice and student-produced response questions are machine scored. or take the book or answer sheet from the testing room. you receive one point. • The essay is scored on a 1 to 6 scale by two different readers. you may not transfer answers to your answer sheet or fill in circles. You may NOT turn to any other section. • The supervisor will tell you when to begin and end each section. blank essays. • • • • • • • Scoring • For each correct answer. • If you finish a section before time is called. Don’t waste time on questions that seem too difficult for you.YOUR NAME (PRINT) LAST TEST CENTER NUMBER NAME OF TEST CENTER ROOM NUMBER FIRST MI SAT Reasoning Test — General Directions Timing • You will have 3 hours and 45 minutes to work on this test. Copy them on your answer sheet in boxes 8 and 9 and fill in the corresponding circles exactly as shown. Carefully mark only one answer for each question. • Off-topic essays. move on. IMPORTANT: The codes below are unique to your test book. but you will not receive credit for anything written there. do so completely. you lose one-fourth of a point. Do not make any stray marks on your answer sheet. Marking Answers • Be sure to mark your answer sheet properly. check your work on that section. You can return to the question later if there is time. The ideas contained in them do not necessarily represent the opinions of the College Board. If you can eliminate one or more of the answer choices as wrong. you increase your chances of choosing the correct answer and earning one point.) 0 6 1 3 5 1 4 8 FORM CODE (Copy and grid as on back of test book. you don’t lose any points. 9 TEST FORM (Copy from back of test book. your test scores may be canceled. • There are ten separately timed sections: One 25-minute essay Six other 25-minute sections Two 20-minute sections One 10-minute section • You may work on only one section at a time. and essays written in ink will receive a score of zero.) GMCM 5 1 4 • • • • • You must use a No. 2 pencil. If you erase. Incomplete erasures may be scored as intended answers. • Use only the answer spaces that correspond to the question numbers. Using Your Test Book • You may use the test book for scratchwork. DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOK UNTIL THE SUPERVISOR TELLS YOU TO DO SO. The total essay score is the sum of the two readers’ scores. • You may not fold or remove pages or portions of a page from this book. If you can’t eliminate any choice. Make sure you fill the entire circle darkly and completely. • For questions you omit.

An essay written in ink will receive a score of zero. But if we look at the reality. Given the importance of human creativity. Think carefully about the issue presented in the following excerpt and the assignment below. we see a different picture. Yet as competition heats up around the globe. Important Reminders: A pencil is required for the essay. Remember that people who are not familiar with your handwriting will read what you write. You have twenty-five minutes to write an essay on the topic assigned below. BEGIN WRITING YOUR ESSAY ON PAGE 2 OF THE ANSWER SHEET. studies. The essay gives you an opportunity to show how effectively you can develop and express ideas. 46 SAT Preparation Booklet .ESSAY Time — 25 minutes Turn to page 2 of your answer sheet to write your ESSAY. Do not write your essay in your test book. and keep your handwriting to a reasonable size. or observations. If your essay does not reflect your original and individual work. Try to write or print so that what you are writing is legible to those readers. If you finish before time is called. exactly the opposite strategy is needed. take care to develop your point of view. therefore. present your ideas logically and clearly. Your essay must be written on the lines provided on your answer sheet— you will receive no other paper on which to write. The arts are increasingly seen as dispensable luxuries. You should. your test scores may be canceled. You will have enough space if you write on every line. You will receive credit only for what you write on your answer sheet. avoid wide margins. experience. one would think it should have a high priority among our concerns. you may check your work on this section only. An off-topic essay will receive a score of zero. Support your position with reasoning and examples taken from your reading. Adapted from Mihaly Csikszentmihalyi. and use language precisely. Creativity: Flow and the Psychology of Discovery and Invention Assignment: Is creativity needed more than ever in the world today? Plan and write an essay in which you develop your point of view on this issue. Do not turn to any other section in the test. Basic scientific research is minimized in favor of immediate practical applications.

Fill in the corresponding circle on the answer sheet. If 4 t + u + 3 = 19. If f = 85 and c = 25. three lines intersect at a point. For questions 1-8.SECTION 2 Time — 25 minutes 18 Questions Turn to Section 2 (page 4) of your answer sheet to answer the questions in this section. You have 25 minutes to complete both types. In the figure above. You may use any available space for scratchwork. 1. then t + u = (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) 3 4 5 6 7 2. what is the value of a ? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) 60 65 70 75 85 Official SAT Practice Test 47 . Directions: This section contains two types of questions. solve each problem and decide which is the best of the choices given.

0 (B) 1. which of the following is an odd integer? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) 3b a +3 2a +b a + 2b 2a + b 7. If a is an odd integer and b is an even integer. If the average (arithmetic mean) of t and t + 2 is x and if the average of t and t − 2 is y. In the coordinate plane. 5 (D) t + (E) 2t 1 2 8. What are the coordinates of point P ? (A) 0. 5. in miles per hour? (A) n t t (B) n 1 (C) nt (D) nt (E) n 2 t 6. 4 . 1 (C) 1. If Marisa drove n miles in t hours. For all numbers x and y. and H 4. 2 (E) 2.3. for how many values of x does f ( x) 2 ? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) None One Two Three More than three 4. 1 lie on a circle with center P. G 1. what is the average of x and y ? (A) 1 (B) t 2 (C) t 5. let x y be defined as x y x 2 xy y . If 3 x 6. the points F 2. What is the value 2 of (3 1) (A) 5 (B) 13 (C) 27 (D) 170 (E) 183 1? 48 SAT Preparation Booklet . 2. 2 (D) 1. which of the following represents her average speed. The graph of y f ( x) is shown above. 1 .

400 squirrels in the wooded area at the beginning of 1999. Linda’s plant. how many squirrels were in the wooded area at the beginning of 1990 ? Official SAT Practice Test 49 . grew twice as many centimeters as Morgan’s plant did during the same year. How tall. If there were 5. which was 59 centimeters at the beginning of the year. the number of squirrels in a certain wooded area has tripled during every 3-year period of time. in centimeters. was Linda’s plant at the end of the year? 10.9. Since the beginning of 1990. Morgan’s plant grew from 42 centimeters to 57 centimeters in a year.

Marbles are to be removed from a jar that contains 12 red marbles and 12 black marbles. What is the sum of the perimeters of the two triangles? 14. If 2x 1 1. what is one possible value of x ? 12. In the figure above. what is 11.x = 3v v = 4t x = pt 13. triangles ABC and CDE are equilateral and line segment AE has length 25. For the system of equations above. What is the least number of marbles that could be removed so that the ratio of red marbles to black marbles left in the jar will be 4 to 3 ? 50 SAT Preparation Booklet . if x the value of p ? 0.

What fraction of the area of the rectangle is shaded? 18. C and E are midpoints of sides BD and DF . Official SAT Practice Test 51 . you may check your work on this section only. Do not turn to any other section in the test. For what positive number is the square root of the number the same as the number divided by 40 ? 17. In rectangle ABDF above. what STOP If you finish before time is called. If 5 gallons were in the 1 tank originally and 2 gallons remained after the 3 last pail containing x gallons was removed. If 0 ≤ x ≤ y and x + y − x − y is the least possible value of y ? 2 2 ≥ 25.15. The graph above shows the amount of water remaining in a tank each time a pail was used to remove x gallons of water. what is the value of x ? 16. respectively.

pay attention to grammar. which causes his talking to his African violets every night. if not.SECTION 3 Time — 25 minutes 35 Questions Turn to Section 3 (page 4) of your answer sheet to answer the questions in this section. choice of words. John believes that plants respond to human attention. In making your selection. for this reason has been his talking attention. tempting her into singing too often and she therefore strains (E) appearances tempt her to sing too often and strain 52 SAT Preparation Booklet -10- . that is. tempting her to sing too often and straining (B) appearances not only tempt her to sing too often plus they strain (C) appearances tempts her not only into singing too often but then she strains (D) appearances. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) and she was sixty-five years old then when she was sixty-five at age sixty-five years old upon the reaching of sixty-five years at the time when she was sixty-five 2. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) attention. sentence construction. the poet Claude McKay writing (C) Although a native of Jamaica. he was a native of Jamaica and wrote (E) Because he was a native of Jamaica who spent most of his life in the United States. EXAMPLE: Laura Ingalls Wilder published her first book and she was sixty-five years old then. (A) appearances. without awkwardness or ambiguity. solo concerts. Many ancient Eastern rulers favored drinking vessels made of celadon porcelain because of supposedly revealing the presence of poison by cracking. select one of the other choices. (A) because of supposedly revealing the presence of poison (B) for being supposed that it would reveal the presence of poison (C) because of being supposed to reveal poison in it (D) for it was supposed to reveal that there is poison (E) because it was supposed to reveal the presence of poison 3. and punctuation. the poet Claude McKay writing 4. Choice A repeats the original phrasing. beneath each sentence are five ways of phrasing the underlined material. select the best answer from among the choices given and fill in the corresponding circle on the answer sheet. and special guest appearances. The following sentences test correctness and effectiveness of expression. Part of each sentence or the entire sentence is underlined. follow the requirements of standard written English. he therefore talks a. select choice A. (A) The poet Claude McKay was a native of Jamaica who spent most of his life in the United States but writing (B) Being that he was a Jamaican who spent most of his life in the United States. he wrote (D) Although the poet Claude McKay spent most of his life in the United States. Your selection should result in the most effective sentence—clear and precise. If you think the original phrasing produces a better sentence than any of the alternatives. the poet Claude McKay spent most of his life in the United States. which causes his talking attention and talking is what is done attention and his talks attention. All the demands on soprano Kathleen Battle for operatic performances. the other four choices are different. The poet Claude McKay was a native of Jamaica who spent most of his life in the United States but writing some of his poems in the Jamaican dialect. tempting her to sing too often and straining her voice. Directions: For each question in this section.cde 1.

(A) in searching his face. but in searching his face. it showed that he was not (C) a search of his face showed that he seemed not (D) searching his face. In the 1980’s. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) far lower than humans far lower than that of a human’s body lower by far than humans far lower than a human far lower than is a human’s body 9. the median price of a house more than doubled. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) was often a popular feature often were popular features often was featured popularly often being popular features have been featured popularly 10. since. In the nineteenth century. She was concerned about how Hank would react to the incident. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) how he or she responds how to respond their responding their responses they respond -11- Official SAT Practice Test 53 . everything it has to do in life is programmed into its nervous system. he did not seem to be (E) his face being searched showed that he was not 11. everything brain whereas everything 6. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) brain. and how he or she responds to the conductor. (A) generally outdistancing the rate of inflation (B) generally this outdistanced the rate of inflation (C) and the result was the general outdistancing of inflation (D) the general rate of inflation was thus outdistanced (E) thus generally inflation had been outdistanced 7.5. One reason that an insect can walk on walls while a human cannot is that the mass of its tiny body is far lower than humans. he did not seem to be at all embarrassed or troubled. their abilities to work as an ensemble. generally outdistancing the rate of inflation. for everything brain. reproductions of cathedrals or castles made entirely of ice was often a popular feature in North American winter carnivals. partly because of its complexity but largely because of it rapidly changing. everything brain due to everything which brain. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) of it rapidly changing it makes rapid changes of the rapidity with which it changes changing it is rapid it changes so rapid 8. The African tsetse fly does not need a brain. Explaining modern art is impossible. A fine orchestral performance will exhibit the skills of the musicians. he did not seem to be (B) by searching his face.

The error. This liberal arts college has decided requiring B A A in Lord of the Flies. both Ralph and Jack emerge early on as the leader of the lost boys. Twenty-five years after Alex Haley’s Roots stimulate A B many people to research their family histories. select choice E. EXAMPLE: 15. If the sentence is correct.. No error E 13. select the one underlined part that must be changed to make the sentence correct. C B No error D a. No error E all students to study at least one non-European C D language. D.C. and editorial views changed A quickly when the domestic economy worsened . new C technology has been developed to make the task easier . No error E 14. The ambassador was entertained lavish by A E 17. Each sentence contains either a single error or no error at all. is underlined and lettered. in an attempt to secure civil rights for Black C D Americans. No error E 16. No error D E The other delegates and him immediately A B C accepted the resolution drafted by the D neutral states. No error E 54 SAT Preparation Booklet -12- .cde 12. More than forty years have passed since a quarter A B of a million people marched on Washington. For months the press had praised Thatcher’s handling of the international crisis. No sentence contains more than one error. Experiments have shown that human skin provides Hartwright. No error D E B 18. if there is one. No error B C D E 19. In the aggressive society created by William Golding A B the invention of the telescope they found that C D dark spots existed on the Sun in varying numbers. Among the discoveries made possible by A natural protection against a surprising large C number of infectious bacteria. In choosing answers.The following sentences test your ability to recognize grammar and usage errors. If the sentence contains an error. whose company has a monetary B C interest in the industrial development of the D new country. follow the requirements of standard written English.

Winston Churchill. No error D E 23. The relationship between goby fish and striped shrimp are truly symbiotic. Of the two options. neither the system of appointing A B judges to the bench nor the process of electing judges C are entirely satisfactory. No error E 22. No error E 29. The architect’s research shows that even when builders D A Walter Scott in her use of historical backgrounds. Carlos cherished the memory of the day when him A A the other. they still use the hammer A B more than any tool . perhaps out of boredom at having C D to tell interviewers the same story over and over. The famous filmmaker had a tendency of changing A parts of the Moon’s surface are markedly similar to B parts of the Earth’s . which some B C viewers condemn to be tasteless. No error 21. in that its shopping areas are so widely C spread out. had deep insight into the B C workings of the human mind. No error D E -13- Official SAT Practice Test 55 . Careful analysis of pictures of the Moon reveal that 25. but B unlike his books . No error D E C A B his recollections. No error E B C D and his sister Rosa were presented with awards B in recognition of meritorious service to the C D community. No error D E C 27. Norwegian writer Sigrid Undset is like the novelist Sir A B New York. unlike many English prime A ministers before him . The television station has received many complaints A about the clothing advertisements. No error D E 28. for neither can survive without 24. No error D E construct houses of stone .20. such as Paris and E 26. she dwells on the psychological C aspects of her characters. London differs from other cities.

I take it to my father. it is his ability to understand people. (11) My father emerges from such a conversation with what I believe is a true sense of the speaker’s meaning. (C) My father has an exceptional talent: the ability to understand people. we choose our friends. asks me some questions. (12) In the same way. Of the following. 30. (A) My father has an exceptional talent and the ability to understand people. and my feelings are seemingly known by him exactly. (10) I have watched him at dinner. (8) At work. friendship. he will ask me some questions and then my exact feelings are seemingly known to him. seeming to know exactly how I felt.Directions: The following passage is an early draft of an essay. The ability to understand people. (1) My father has an exceptional talent. his talent is one that I hope to develop as I mature. (E) Despite my father’s exceptional talent. (6) Many people seem too busy to take the time to understand one another. (7) My father. sees taking time to listen as essential to any relationship. (A) (As it is now) (B) Listening intently. Questions 30-35 are based on the following passage. which is the best way to phrase sentence 4 (reproduced below) ? He listens intently. Other questions ask you to consider organization and development. In sentence 7. by all accounts. Some questions are about particular sentences or parts of sentences and ask you to improve sentence structure or word choice. (16) Furthermore. (17) Certainly. asks me some questions. Which of the following sentences should be omitted to improve the unity of the second paragraph? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) Sentence 8 Sentence 9 Sentence 10 Sentence 11 Sentence 12 56 SAT Preparation Booklet -14- . my father’s friends and work associates benefit from this talent. (4) He listens intently. (2) The ability to understand people. he still has the ability to understand people. (15) It allows him to have open conversations with his children. which is the best way to revise and combine sentences 1 and 2 (reproduced below) ? My father has an exceptional talent. (D) He listened to me and asked me some questions. his eyes are fixed on whoever is speaking. or work. Read the passage and select the best answers for the questions that follow. Some parts of the passage need to be rewritten. (13) My father’s ability to listen affects his whole life. 31. (E) He listens intently. Of the following. whether it involves family. (14) His ability allows him to form strong relationships with his coworkers and earns him lasting friendships. it has strengthened his relationship with my mother. and then seems to know exactly how I feel. In choosing answers. asks me some questions. and he nods his head at every remark. follow the requirements of standard written English. (5) Even my twin sister can talk to him more easily than to me. (9) His job requires him to attend social events and sometimes I go along. 32. (C) As he listens to me and asks me some questions. (3) When I have a problem that I think no one else will understand. and my feelings are seemingly known by him exactly. the phrase by all accounts is best replaced by (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) however moreover to my knowledge like my sister but nevertheless 33. (D) My father has an exceptional talent. (B) My father has an exceptional talent that includes the ability to understand people. he seems to be knowing exactly my feelings.

which of the following is the best way to phrase the underlined portion of sentence 16 (reproduced below) ? Furthermore. he strengthens (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) make false assumptions and use exaggeration include difficult vocabulary repeat certain words and sentence patterns argue in a tone of defiance turn aside from the main subject STOP If you finish before time is called. In context. Do not turn to any other section in the test. A strategy that the writer uses within the third paragraph is to (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) (As it is now) Further strengthening But it strengthens However. he is strengthening Considering this. 35. -15- Official SAT Practice Test 57 .34. you may check your work on this section only. it has strengthened his relationship with my mother.

with ------. . an extension systematic . (A) fragility (B) reminiscence (C) perniciousness (D) whimsicality (E) plasticity 5. . . unfortunately. . a method incidental . .that enables them to take over the functions of damaged or missing brain cells. (B) partisan (C) contiguous (A) allied (D) pluralistic (E) sovereign 3. in fact. acceptable 2.or a mistake. . arisen from ------. divisive overcome . an accident 58 SAT Preparation Booklet . Each sentence below has one or two blanks. (A) an acronym (B) a retraction (D) a plight (E) a prospectus (C) a tenet 1. when inserted in the sentence. an eloquent enthralling . a belief shared by most party members. . useful end . by definition. . Directions: For each question in this section. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) conscientious .SECTION 4 Time — 25 minutes 23 Questions Turn to Section 4 (page 5) of your answer sheet to answer the questions in this section. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) enforce . a vapid flippant . -------. Beneath the sentence are five words or sets of words labeled A through E. . .the dispute. Nations that share a border are. “Less government spending” is ------. Scientific discoveries are often thought of as the result of ------. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) mystical . best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole. some brain cells have a ------. Choose the word or set of words that. is -------.of this political party. a mediocre predictable . satisfactory resolve . a design persistent . .to both labor and management. Example: Hoping to ------. select the best answer from among the choices given and fill in the corresponding circle on the answer sheet. unattractive extend . a superior uneven . .effort. In young children. . 4. an intelligible abcd.chapter often immediately following a sublime one. . but many discoveries have. each blank indicating that something has been omitted. . a mishap collaborative . Much of this author’s work. negotiators proposed a compromise that they felt would be ------.

Answer the questions on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passages and in any introductory material that may be provided. The words evoked the romanticism of exploration and archaeology at the time. The imposing architecture attested to the skill and audacity of the Incas. In lines 5-11 (“For him . There. He would raise the fowl 10 himself.” In music. Duke Ellington considered himself “the world’s greatest listener. hearing is all. questions following a pair of related passages may also be based on the relationship between the paired passages. He wasn’t averse to going out in a boat to catch the fish himself. set against Line looming peaks cloaked in snow and wreathed in clouds. The author most likely refers to the “flea” in line 4 in order to (A) highlight Ellington’s prodigious memory (B) emphasize the quality of Ellington’s listening skills (C) indicate Ellington’s interest in different animal sounds (D) suggest that Ellington’s compositions were marked by rhythmic similarities (E) imply that Ellington could be overly concerned about minutia 7. . But when that musical meal appeared before you none of the drudgery showed. the author’s point is primarily developed through the use of (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) comparison and contrast appeal to emotion exaggeration metaphor humor Questions 8-9 are based on the following passage. But finding Machu Picchu was easier than 10 solving the mystery of its place in the rich and powerful Inca empire. In the summer of 1911. For him the sounds of the world were the ingredients he mixed into appetizers. 5 was Machu Picchu. The words “magical elixir” (line 7) primarily emphasize the (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) motivation for an expedition captivating power of a phrase inspiration behind a discovery creative dimension of archaeology complexity of an expression 9.The passages below are followed by questions based on their content. 6. he could Line probably hear a flea scratching itself and put that rhythm 5 into one of his compositions. served as a magical elixir for rundown imaginations. This expression. . main courses. But who had lived at this isolated site and for what purpose? 8. popularized by Bingham. the explorer Hiram Bingham III bushwhacked his way to a high ridge in the Andes of Peru and beheld a dreamscape out of the past. The “mystery” discussed in lines 10-13 is most analogous to that encountered in which of the following situations? (A) Being unable to locate the source of materials used to construct an ancient palace (B) Being unable to reconcile archaeological evidence with mythical descriptions of an ancient city (C) Being unable to explain how ancient peoples constructed imposing monuments using only primitive technology (D) Being unable to understand the religious function of a chamber found inside an ancient temple (E) Being unable to discover any trace of a civilization repeatedly mentioned by ancient authors - Official SAT Practice Test 59 . and desserts to satisfy the appetite of his worldwide audience. the famous “lost city” of the Incas. Questions 6-7 are based on the following passage. drudgery showed”). Judging by the two or three thousand pieces of music Ellington wrote.

I like shorelines. Under my desk I keep a large carton of cassette tapes. both parties are to blame. This passage is from the preface to a 1997 book by a United States journalist detailing a disagreement between doctors and family members about a child’s medical treatment at a hospital in California. reserved for guests. and often. As it turned out. to the accompaniment of squealing brakes and breaking glass. One doctor called them “collisions. The rest— more than half of them—are very noisy. These places have interesting frictions and incongruities. California. and an air conditioner wheezing. when I play the tapes late at night. by turns breathy. “summons” most nearly means (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) sends for calls forth requests orders convenes Line 5 10 11. but neither side seemed to know what had hit it or how to avoid another crash. They are filled with the voices of American doctors. that was always set up when I arrived in the apartment. so the voices of the Hmong and those of the American doctors could be heard on a single tape. would somehow illuminate each other if I could position myself between the two and manage not to get caught in the crossfire.Questions 10-14 are based on the following passage. the tastes of Hmong food. I hoped that the culture of American medicine. .” which made it sound as if two different kinds of people had rammed into each other. slower. I sat on the Lees’ red chair for the first time on May 19. international borders. In line 17. When I first came to Merced. This is especially true when the apposition is cultural. because I had heard that there were some misunderstandings at the county hospital between its Hmong patients and medical staff. louder. I have always felt that the action most worth watching occurs not at the center of things but where edges meet. I can hear the mother’s voice. a television yammering. low and deferential in each. 1988. Though they have all been transcribed. about which I knew a little. (D) You can understand two parties that have resolved their conflicts better than two parties that are currently in conflict. (B) Conflict can occur in many different guises. Hmong refugees from Laos who came to the United States in 1980. I still like to listen to them from time to time. doors slamming. and my interpreter’s voice. weather fronts. The hubbub summons sense-memories: the coolness of the red metal folding chair. or humlike as it slides up and down the Hmong language’s eight tones. the shadows cast by the amulet that hung from the ceiling and swung in the breeze on its length of grocer’s twine. if you stand at the point of tangency. Some are quiet and easily understood. the encounters were messy but rarely frontal. 15 20 25 30 35 40 45 60 SAT Preparation Booklet - . children playing. But after getting to know the Lees family and their daughter’s doctors and realizing how hard it was to blame anyone. (E) You can learn more about two parties in conflict as an observer than as an involved participant. one”) ? (A) Efforts to prevent conflicts are not always successful. (C) In most conflicts. Against a background of babies crying. Which of the following views of conflict is best supported by lines 37-40 (“These . dishes clattering. the father’s voice. They are filled with the voices of the Lees family. 10. I imagine 50 what they would sound like if I could splice them together. It can be inferred from lines 27-33 that “collisions” was NOT an apt description because the (A) clash between Hmong patients and medical staff was indirect and baffling (B) Hmong patients and the medical staff were not significantly affected by the encounters (C) medical staff was not responsible for the dissatisfaction of the Hmong patients (D) misunderstandings between the Hmong patients and the medical staff were easy to resolve (E) disagreement reached beyond particular individuals to the community at large 12. . Earlier that spring I had come to Merced. and the culture of the Hmong. nasal. Both sides were wounded. more vehement. about which I knew nothing. you can see both sides better than if you were in the middle of either one. head on. Now. I stopped analyzing the situation in such linear terms. mediating in Hmong and English. gargly. speaking a common language. interrupted occasionally by the clink of a coffee cup or beep of a pager.

the author suggests that it would be ideal if the (A) differences between the Lees family and the American doctors could be resolved quickly (B) concerns and opinions of the Lees family and the American doctors could be merged (C) American doctors could take the time to learn more about their Hmong patients (D) Hmong patients could become more vocal in defense of their rights (E) Hmong patients could get medical treatment consistent with their cultural beliefs - Official SAT Practice Test 61 . .13. crossfire”). . the author’s initial goal was to (A) consider the perspectives of both the American doctors and the Lees family to see what insights might develop (B) serve as a counselor to the county hospital’s Hmong patients in order to ease their anxieties (C) work out a compromise between the American doctors and the Lees family (D) acquire a greater knowledge of how the American medical culture serves patients (E) try to reduce the misunderstandings between the American doctors and the Lees family and promote good will 14. According to lines 41-46 (“When I . At the end of the passage.

and dignity be severed from genetic distinctiveness.” It would be unethical to treat a human clone as anything other than a human being. the author of Passage 1 uses the word “True” to indicate (A) acknowledgement that the passage’s opening arguments are tenuous (B) recognition of a potential counterargument (C) conviction about the accuracy of the facts presented (D) distrust of those who insist on pursuing cloning research (E) certainty that cloning will one day become commonplace 20 25 30 62 SAT Preparation Booklet - . H. and dance lessons. their brains would be wired differently. a cloned person’s nurture and circumstances in life will be different. after all. whether human beings or sheep. Overzealous parents regularly push their children into sports. I submit. A ban on cloning wouldn’t abolish pushy parents. What would be the psychic burdens of being the “child” or “parent” of your twin? The cloned individual.” the belief that genes almost completely determine who a person is. genotype is not exactly destiny. in this case. and dignity. identity. The successful cloning of a sheep named Dolly in 1997 sparked a debate over the implications of cloning humans. a professor 35 45 50 55 Line 5 60 10 65 15 70 of medicine at Baylor and a philosopher at Rice University. would it be tolerable to the cloner?” Yes. music. will be saddled with a genotype that has already lived. In line 13. or have any confusions about his or her identity. 15.” But what about cloning exceptional human beings? George Will put it this way: “Suppose a clone of basketball star Michael Jordan. but given the stubborn nature of individuals.Questions 15-23 are based on the following passages. and from belief in a person’s open future?” asks political thinker George Will. rearing. “Cloning” is the creation of a new individual from the unique DNA (or genetic information) of another. he or she would be a complete human being who happens to share the same genes with another person. Each of the passages below was written in 1997. because he or she may also be twin to the person who is the “father” or “mother”—if one can still call them that. infinitely greater than they are for clones of jockey Willie Shoemaker. they are pleased to point out that the clone of film star Julia Roberts would not be Julia Roberts. is the only reason to clone. With greatly divergent experiences. you’d think it was crystal clear why cloning human beings is unethical. “Can individuality. and social setting: genotype obviously matters plenty. Passage 1 Cloning creates serious issues of identity and individuality. Passage 2 Given all the brouhaha. mathematician. Some argue that the existence of clones would undermine the uniqueness of each human being. That. But what exactly is wrong with it? What would a clone be? Well. Fair enough.” concludes Dr. Today. True. it is imaginable. and the cloner would just have to put up with violin recitals. Still. The odds that clones of basketball star Larry Bird will play basketball are. The cloned person may experience concerns about his or her distinctive identity. even twins who grow up together are separate people—distinct individuals with different personalities and certainly no lack of Will’s “individuality. People will likely always compare a clone’s performance in life with that of the original. preferred violin to basketball? Is it imaginable? If so. those parents rarely manage to make kids stick forever to something they hate. The authors of both passages agree that (A) genetic characteristics alone cannot determine a person’s behavior (B) a formal code of ethical rules will be needed once human beings can be cloned (C) people who are cloned from others may have greater professional opportunities (D) identical twins and triplets could provide useful advice to people related through cloning (E) cloning human beings is a greater technological challenge than cloning sheep 16. “You should treat all clones like you would treat all monozygous [identical] twins or triplets. age 8. Tristam Engelhardt. “That’s it. Why else then would they clone from the star basketball player. Kids are not commercial property. He or she will not be fully a surprise to the world. Experts have rushed in to reassure the public that the clone would in no way be the same person. there has been a fair amount of doublespeak on this matter of genetic identity. But a person who is a clone would live in a very different world from that of his or her genetic predecessor. one must also expect parental and other efforts to shape this new life after the original— or at least to view the child with the original vision always firmly in mind. But one is shortchanging the truth by emphasizing the additional importance of the environment. identity. To my knowledge no one has 40 argued that twins are immoral. Will and others have fallen under the sway of what one might call “genetic essentialism. moreover. but. not only because the person will be in genotype (genetic makeup) and appearance identical to another human being. After all. we call such people identical twins. and beauty queen—or even dear old dad—in the first place? Since the birth of Dolly.

George Will primarily draws attention to (A) a weakness inherent in cloning theory (B) a goal that some advocates of cloning might share (C) the limitations of human individuality (D) the likelihood that children will rebel against their parents (E) the extent to which a cloned person might differ from the original person 23. sustained training (D) highlight the need for greater understanding of the athletes’ genetic data (E) suggest that athletes’ special skills have a genetic component 20.17. - Official SAT Practice Test 63 . In line 21. The question in lines 18-20 (“Why else . In line 49. you may check your work on this section only. . “divergent experiences” emphasizes that which of the following is particularly important for a developing child? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) Character Heritage Intelligence Environment Personality 22. The author of Passage 1 mentions two sports stars (lines 31-33) in order to (A) argue against genetic analysis of any sports star’s physical abilities (B) distinguish between lasting fame and mere celebrity (C) clarify the crucial role of rigorous. In line 55. In the quotation in lines 61-64. “fair” most nearly means (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) considerable pleasing ethical just promising 21. Both passages base their arguments on the unstated assumption that (A) genetic distinctiveness is crucial to human survival as a species (B) public concern about human cloning will eventually diminish (C) human cloning is a genuine possibility in the future (D) individualism is less prized today than it has been in the past (E) technological advances have had a mostly positive impact on society 19. Do not turn to any other section in the test. . first place”) chiefly serves to (A) suggest that some issues are not easily resolved (B) argue for the importance of parents in the lives of children (C) offer an anecdote revealing the flaw in a popular misconception (D) imply that cloning might displace more familiar means of reproduction (E) suggest the value perceived in a person who might be selected for cloning 18. “open” most nearly means (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) overt frank unrestricted unprotected public STOP If you finish before time is called.

SECTION 5 Time — 25 minutes 20 Questions Turn to Section 5 (page 5) of your answer sheet to answer the questions in this section. No two houses next to each other on the same side of the street and no two houses directly across from each other on opposite sides of the street can be painted the same color. Directions: For this section. Fill in the corresponding circle on the answer sheet. 1. how many of the seven remaining houses cannot be painted gray? k = 3wx m = ( w − 1)k 2. Each of the following is a factor of 80 EXCEPT (A) 5 (B) 8 (C) 12 (D) 16 (E) 40 3. what is the value of m when w 4 and x 1? (A) 0 (B) 3 (C) 12 (D) 24 (E) 36 (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) Two Three Four Five Six 64 SAT Preparation Booklet . solve each problem and decide which is the best of the choices given. as shown in the figure above. You may use any available space for scratchwork.Unauthorized copying or reuse of any part of this page is illegal. If the houses labeled G are painted gray. There are five houses on each side of a street. If k and m are defined by the equations above.

what is the value of n ? n 3 12 (A) 2 (B) 4 (C) 9 (D) 15 (E) 36 PRICES Table 1990 1995 2000 $240 $265 $280 Chair $25 $30 $36 Tables Chairs INVENTORY CAPACITY Warehouse X 30 125 Y 80 200 Z 30 140 (A) y (B) y (C) y (D) y 7.200 $28. Based on the prices shown.400 $29.Unauthorized copying or reuse of any part of this page is illegal.950 $26. If p 1 t value of t ? 6. What is the total number of right angles formed by the edges of a cube? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) 36 24 20 16 12 9.500 8. which of the following is greatest? 3 0 and p is positive. The chart on the right gives the maximum number of tables and chairs that can be stocked in each of three warehouses. Which of the following could be the equation of the graph above? x2 (x x2 (x 2 x2 2 2)2 2 2)2 5. 4. what was the maximum possible value of the table and chair inventory in warehouse Y in 1995 ? (E) y (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) $23. In the figure above. Y. X. If 7 × 7 = 7 .500 $27. what is the (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) a b c d e (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) 3 1 0 1 3 Official SAT Practice Test 65 . and Z. A furniture company makes one style of tables and chairs. The chart on the left above gives the prices of these tables and chairs in three different years.

In the figure above. Points X and Y are two different points on a circle. The number 55 was entered as 75 and the number 78 as 88. Point M is located so that line segment XM and line segment YM have equal length. 100 1. what is the slope of line ? 15. II. y 0. Which of the following could be true? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) r s r s s r s r 1 rs I. M is the center of the circle. then t + u = (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) y y y y y 100 100 100 100 100 x2 x 2x 4x 100 x (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) 178 179 180 181 182 11. However. and III 66 SAT Preparation Booklet . M is outside of the circle. In the figure above. 99 2. M is on arc XY . if || m and r = 91. x.Unauthorized copying or reuse of any part of this page is illegal. III. Which of the following equations describes y in terms of x for all ordered pairs in the table above? 13. II. If x is the coordinate of the indicated point on the number line above. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) I only II only I and II only II and III only I. which of the lettered points has coordinate −2 x ? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) A B C D E 12. What is the correct average number of stamps in the 10 collections? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) 91 89 87 86 85 14. 96 10. it was discovered that 2 numbers in the calculations were entered incorrectly. A stamp collecting club calculated that the average (arithmetic mean) number of stamps in its members’ 10 collections was 88.

If S is a point between R and T such that the length of segment QS is 10 and the length of segment PS is 19. If A is the set of prime numbers and B is the set of two-digit positive integers whose units digit is 5. Do not turn to any other section in the test. you may check your work on this section only. If a certain call costs $5. in minutes? (A) (A) (B) (C) (D) 3 16 1 3 3 4 3 555 x y 555 555 555 x y x y x y y y y (B) (C) (D) (E) 16 (E) 3 555 x y STOP If you finish before time is called.Unauthorized copying or reuse of any part of this page is illegal. and Q is the midpoint of line segment PR. If 75 percent of m is equal to k percent of 25. A telephone company charges x cents for the first minute of a call and charges for any additional time at the rate of y cents per minute. The graphs of the functions f and g are lines.5 2 3 4 5. how many numbers are common to both sets? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) None One Two Five Nine 18. which of the following expressions represents the length of that call. as g3 ? shown above.55 and lasts more than 1 minute. 19. what is the value of k 20. R is the midpoint of line segment PT . Official SAT Practice Test 67 . What is the value of f 3 (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) 1. what is the length of segment ST ? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) 13 14 15 16 17 16.5 17. where m ? k 0.

divisive overcome . . (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) revitalizes . . . Common garlic has ------. .means of enlisting his patient’s confidence. defer to refracts .SECTION 6 Time — 25 minutes 25 Questions Turn to Section 6 (page 6) of your answer sheet to answer the questions in this section. each blank indicating that something has been omitted. . the continued well-being of the rain forest is ------.and -------: he possessed penetrating acuity and discernment and was also extremely humble. satisfactory resolve . Directions: For each question in this section.the dispute. . unattractive extend . impose on 8. useful end . . . (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) enforce . best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole. select the best answer from among the choices given and fill in the corresponding circle on the answer sheet. (A) disingenuous (C) diminutive (E) prosaic (B) debilitating (D) cathartic 3. . The modest acceptance speech of the Academy Awardwinning actress revealed a ------. . outmoded novelty . imposing apologetic . unassuming abcd. In her poems. during the First World War British medics saved thousands of lives by wrapping wounds with garlic-soaked bandages. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) diligent . when inserted in the sentence. . unpretentious obtuse . salvage from diffuses . inconsequential implausibility . . Alice Walker retrieves and ------. exclude from realigns . (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) validity . entrenched credibility . supercilious perspicacious . penitent sagacious . (A) theatricality (B) sullenness (C) flamboyance (D) reserve (E) nonchalance 68 SAT Preparation Booklet . (A) inadequate (B) tangential (D) baneful (C) indispensable (E) expeditious 5. infrequent 1. Despite its patent -------. .properties. (A) a perfectionist (B) a maverick (C) a potentate (D) an ascetic (E) an interloper 7. The Mona Lisa.parts of Black culture that some have been all too quick to ------. shipped in a private cabin and received by important dignitaries. . .that no amount of rational argument will suffice to eradicate it.the past as fossilized artifacts. . this belief has become so ------. Choose the word or set of words that. The charlatan’s seemingly frank and open demeanor was actually a ------. prevalent absurdity . .that contrasted with her uninhibited screen performances. Beneath the sentence are five words or sets of words labeled A through E. acceptable 4. consign to conjoins .to both labor and management. (A) curative (B) flavoring (C) inferior (D) questionable (E) infamous 2. Each sentence below has one or two blanks. . . Example: Hoping to ------. . Doug was both ------. 6. Because howler monkeys rarely come out of the trees in their arboreal habitat.to their survival. negotiators proposed a compromise that they felt would be ------. was treated more like ------than a painting upon its arrival in the United States.

Answer the questions on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passages and in any introductory material that may be provided. Questions 9-13 are based on the following passages. (C) Passage 1 describes a cultural phenomenon that Passage 2 criticizes. (E) Passage 1 describes people’s fascination with recycling. so convinced are people of the virtues of recycling. whereas Passage 2 explains the process of sorting recyclables. 25 a waste of human and natural resources. (D) Passage 1 discusses the historical foundations of recycling. questions following a pair of related passages may also be based on the relationship between the paired passages. Passage 2 focuses primarily on recycling’s (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) philosophical foundations economic impact popular appeal moral implications environmental benefits 11. Which statement best characterizes the relationship between Passage 1 and Passage 2 ? (A) Passage 1 presents ethical objections to an action that Passage 2 also censures. whereas Passage 2 considers the future of recycling. 9. Unlike Passage 1. the tone of Passage 1 is more (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) pessimistic arrogant critical scholarly tempered -29- Official SAT Practice Test 69 . 10. But the popularity 5 of recycling is even more surprising considering the inconveniences associated with it. Recycling programs actually consume resources. Recycling may be the most wasteful activity in the modern United States: a waste of time and money. Passage 1 It is striking how our culture has wholeheartedly adopted the recycling ethic. Compared to the tone of Passage 2. Passage 2 Mandatory recycling programs aren’t good for posterity. The authors of both passages would most likely agree that recycling rules are (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) convoluted commendable unethical antiquated unenforceable 13. They require extra administrators and a continual public relations campaign explaining what to do with dozens of different products—recycle milk jugs but not milk cartons. The author of Passage 2 would most likely characterize the “people” mentioned in line 11 as (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) emotional indecisive unmotivated undemanding uninformed 12. Most parents have probably received humbling lectures from their children after tossing Line a glass jar or newspaper in the trash can. (B) Passage 1 mocks a group of people that Passage 2 praises. Who hasn’t experienced the annoyance of trying to satisfy complicated rules about what can and cannot be recycled? Glass jars — but not their tops? Plastics number 1 and 2— but not number 3? Still there is 10 no sign that the public is becoming impatient. They offer mainly short-term benefits to a few groups— like politicians and waste-handling corporations—while 15 diverting money from genuine social and environmental problems.The passages below are followed by questions based on their content. 20 index cards but not construction paper. Collecting a ton of recyclable items is three times more expensive than collecting a ton of garbage because crews pick up less material at each stop.

She fell into little traps they laid and then they were able to report to the neighbors. The smell of ironing being done or the sound of eggs being whisked set up a restlessness which she could scarcely control. bored. Which interpretation of Mrs. and how. they were watching her for signs of grandeur or condescension. Mrs. and she was pleased that it should. Always the same. she had passed through the courtyard where sheets were hanging out: she had taken them in her hands and. and her friends seemed to have changed. The “sensations” (line 7) might best be described as feelings of (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) anger and bitterness reverence and gratitude dejection and isolation nostalgia and serenity empathy and concern 20 25 30 35 40 45 70 SAT Preparation Booklet -30- .Questions 14-25 are based on the following passage. “I never thought I would live in such a beautiful place. Deverell’s increasing discomfort with her daughter’s career. “She’s so friendly. but there’s no servants here to polish the grate. was the authoritative one. (B) It suggests that Mrs. any past kindness Mrs.” the woman told everyone in the saloon bar. These arts. Yet. Either they put out their best china and thought twice before they said anything. “Who could be miserable in such a place?” she asked.” All of their kindnesses were remembered and brooded over. Angel discouraged the visits. but afraid to interrupt. going home she was so preoccupied that she passed the wife of the landlord of The Volunteer without seeing her. The relationship of mother and daughter seemed to have been reversed. she saw that “Cubbage’s Stores” was painted there instead.” Mrs. One day when they had first come to the new house. Deverell is the widow of a shopkeeper who lived and worked in Volunteer Street. (D) It hints at Mrs. sensations she had never known before came over her. Fretfully. “Even though it was our Gran who laid her husband out when he died. finding them just at the right stage of drying. And such lovely kiddies. she grieved. She sometimes felt better when she went back to see her friends on Volunteer Street. Deverell’s inability to be happy in any environment. by smelling a cake.” She had to be especially careful to recognize everyone she met. Here. (C) It illustrates Mrs. she could tell if it were baked. “Very nice folk. The name “Deverell Family Grocer” stayed for a long time over the shop. place”) is most fully supported by the rest of the passage? (A) It reveals an unsatisfied longing for beauty and comfort.” she had said. This passage is taken from a novel set in early twentiethcentury England. . their daughter Angel has become a best-selling novelist. fell now into disuse. she would wander around the house. Deverell felt slighted and wounded. “Please leave work to the people who should do it. (E) It indicates Mrs. on misty October evenings or on Sundays. gather up a great fragrant line of washing in her arms to carry indoors. But nowadays she often suffered from the lowering pain of believing herself happy when she was not. They were looped all about her shoulders when Angel caught her. Deverell told Angel when they first moved in. although Angel frowned with annoyance when she heard of it. Deverell’s desire to impress her old friends.” In each case. Deverell is unprepared for her new life. and walked up the street with an expression of anxiety which was misinterpreted as disdain.” she was told. “I wouldn’t expect Alderhurst people to speak to a barkeep’s wife. “You will only give offense. her touch for the freshness of meat. and on her next visit to Volunteer Street. these were put beyond her reach. It seemed to her that she had wasted her years acquiring skills which in the end were to be of no use to her: her weather-eye for 50 55 Line 5 60 10 65 15 70 a good drying day. 14. “It hasn’t taken her long to start putting on airs. her careful ear for judging the gentle singing sound of meat roasting in the oven. since girlhood she had been taking on one responsibility after another. Deverell’s statement in line 1 (“I never . but it was difficult. now in her early twenties. Deverell finds herself in a new home that she and Angel share in the prosperous village of Alderhurst. She would never again. At a time of her life when she needed the security of familiar things. had begun to unpeg them. .” She tried hard not to give offense. She felt an unaccountable panic and dismay at the sight of this and at the strange idea of other people and furniture in those familiar rooms. Deverell had done—and they were many— only served to underline the change which had come over her. but it was a long way to go. Then one day the faded name was scraped and burnt away. 15. she was like an intimidated child. and Angel. until she had left her mother with nothing to perplex her but how to while away the hours when the servants were busy and her daughter was at work. when the church bells began.” Mrs. Mrs. which had taken so long to perfect. or they were defiantly informal—“You’ll have to take us as you find us”—and would persist in making remarks like “Pardon the apron.

(C) They are not especially well acquainted with Mrs. (E) She had relied on household help to perform certain chores. The author most likely quotes Mrs. (B) They feel that Mrs. Deverell’s friends in lines 14-16 in order to (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) voice a concern dismiss a belief illustrate an attitude cite an authority mock an undertaking 18. . Deverell is still essentially the same person that she has always been. The use of “arts” in line 51 most directly emphasizes the (A) pride Mrs. 22. (D) They are more generous toward themselves than they are toward Mrs. Deverell. (D) She had been afraid to ask Angel for her help. . Deverell brought to her household tasks (C) importance of maintaining an orderly home (D) rewards of preparing elaborate meals (E) pleasure Mrs. Deverell had viewed the task of running a household? (A) She had believed some elements of it were beneath her. . Deverell’s family took in her housekeeping skills (B) expertise Mrs. disuse”) suggest which of the following about the way that Mrs. Lines 40-43 (“All of . her”) suggest which of the following about the customers in the saloon bar? (A) They do not recall those occasions when Mrs. Deverell found in teaching young servants 17.16. Deverell’s (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) surprise that her friends have not forgotten her nostalgia for her old neighborhood feelings of superiority toward her friends embarrassment about her former neighborhood changing relationship with her friends 20. . (E) They do not generally share the opinions of the barkeeper’s wife. . Lines 45-52 (“It . Mrs. Deverell’s reaction to the remarks quoted in lines 32-33 suggests that she thinks that these remarks (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) contain an implicit criticism mischaracterize the new family are a poor attempt at humor stem from an old grudge insult the memory of her husband -31- Official SAT Practice Test 71 . Deverell was kind to them. Deverell. 21. (B) She had understood the importance of its sensory aspects. (C) She had developed a regimented system. The speaker of the sentence quoted in lines 15-16 (“Pardon . The primary purpose of the second paragraph (lines 9-23) is to show Mrs. grate”) most likely intends to (A) account for a peculiar style of dress (B) bemoan the lack of adequate help around the house (C) frankly apologize for the messiness of the family’s home (D) indirectly express resentment about a difference in social status (E) overtly call attention to Mrs. Deverell’s arrogant behavior 19. .

72 SAT Preparation Booklet . In line 69. Deverell has inadequate housekeeping experience (B) many people enjoy the opportunity to perform household tasks (C) Mrs. Angel’s comments in lines 60-61 (“‘Please . you may check your work on this section only. Deverell continues to be diminished in her new home (C) imply that Mrs. Deverell to an “intimidated child” primarily in order to (A) criticize Mrs. Deverell’s new life (E) justify Angel’s dismissal of her mother’s feelings STOP If you finish before time is called. Deverell for her naive view of the world (B) show that Mrs. Deverell cannot live up to her responsibilities (D) indicate the simplicity of Mrs.23. the author compares Mrs. . . Deverell’s new social status (E) Mrs. Do not turn to any other section in the test. “perplex” most nearly means (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) trouble bewilder astonish entangle embarrass 25. offense’”) imply that (A) Mrs. Deverell often hurts the feelings of others (D) domestic tasks are unsuitable for Mrs. Deverell is not a particularly efficient worker 24. In line 73.

PR = QR. Directions: For this section. He sold 10 of the bars on his own.SECTION 8 Time — 20 minutes 16 Questions Turn to Section 8 (page 7) of your answer sheet to answer the questions in this section. In PQR above. Which of the following must be true? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) u x x y y = = = = = x v z x z Official SAT Practice Test 73 . Fill in the corresponding circle on the answer sheet. solve each problem and decide which is the best of the choices given. If no other bars were sold. Conall had a box of 36 candy bars to sell for a class fundraiser. You may use any available space for scratchwork. 1. what fraction of Conall’s original 36 bars remained unsold? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) 5 8 11 36 1 3 13 36 7 18 2. and his mother sold half of the remaining bars to her coworkers.

For which of the following two-year periods was the average (arithmetic mean) bean production closest to the bean production in 1985 ? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) 1986-1987 1987-1988 1988-1989 1989-1990 1990-1991 (C) (D) (E) 4.5. which of the following could be the graph that shows the relationship between y and x ? (A) (B) 3. He buys 3 pairs of jeans at $32 each. What is the perimeter of the trapezoid above? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) 52 72 75 80 87 74 SAT Preparation Booklet . The bar graph above shows the number of tons of beans produced on a large farm for the years 1985 through 1991. Marcus can spend no more than $120 on jeans and shirts for school. If y is directly proportional to x. which of the following inequalities could be used to determine the possible values for x ? (A) 3 (B) (3) (C) 3 (D) 3 (E) x 32 32 32 32 3 x x x x 32 120 120 120 120 6. If x represents the dollar amount he can spend on shirts.

If the interior dimensions of the second tank are 3 feet long. 2 feet wide. how many different values will be possible for the expression m n k ? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) Three Four Five Eight Nine Official SAT Practice Test 75 . 3 feet wide. Which of the following graphs could correctly represent the price of an article of merchandise over an eight-week period? 8. n. and 4 feet high.5 ft 2 ft 4 ft 1.5 ft 1 ft 1. and k are to be assigned different values from the list above. A store discounts merchandise by 10 percent of the original price at the end of each week and stops when the merchandise is priced at 50 percent of the original price. The interior dimensions of a rectangular fish tank are 4 feet long.7. All of the water in this tank is poured into an empty second tank. If 9x + 9 y x + y 2 = . then = 10 a − 10b 3 a −b 9 10 20 23 20 27 2 3 3 5 (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) (A) (B) (C) 9. 3 (E) 10. and 2 feet high. 2. If m. what is the height of the water in the second tank? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) (D) 0. The water level in the tank is 1 foot high.

you may check your work on this section only. Each of the following inequalities is true for some values of x EXCEPT 12. Which of the following could be the length of CP ? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) 2 4 5 7 8 (A) 6 to 1 (B) 8 to 5 (C) 8 to 1 (D) 64 to 1 (E) 256 to 1 STOP If you finish before time is called.000 ? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) 1 2 1 3 1 10 2 3 2 5 14. AC = 6 and BC = 3. The table above shows the number of employees at Company X classified according to work shift and salary. the smaller circles each have radius 3.000 or less 30 40 Second Shift 10 20 11.000 Salary $30. If x is a positive integer satisfying x 7 k and (A) x (B) x (C) x 2 (D) x (E) x 3 3 x2 x3 x3 x x 2 x3 x2 x x 2 x 9 11 m. What is the ratio of the 8th term in this sequence to the 5th term? CP AB.NUMBER OF EMPLOYEES AT COMPANY X First Shift Salary over $30. Do not turn to any other section in the test. They are tangent to the larger circle at points A and C. 76 SAT Preparation Booklet . what is the probability that the employee’s salary is over $30. which of the following must be equal ? 2 to x (A) m k x (B) m 2 (C) m 2 (D) 2 k k 7 m 3 (E) k 4 16. and are tangent to each other at point B. If a second-shift employee will be picked at random. which is the center of the larger circle. the ratio of each term to the term immediately preceding it is 2 to 1. After the first term in a sequence of positive integers. Point P (not shown) lies on AB between A and B such that 13. In the figure above. What is the perimeter of the shaded region? (A) 6 (B) 8 (C) 9 (D) 12 (E) 15 15. In the figure above.

Fred often used ------. . Beneath the sentence are five words or sets of words labeled A through E. satisfactory resolve . . . the inspectors filed a tentative report stating that the cause was -------. . Example: Hoping to ------. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) somber . The celebrants at the ------. . . oversight abcd. The aspiring writer. (A) noteworthy (B) definitive (C) fundamental (D) conclusive (E) indeterminate 2. stymied 6. .unsubstantiated fads than it used to be. who remained ------. select the best answer from among the choices given and fill in the corresponding circle on the answer sheet. .to achieve his professional goals. . . talent optimistic . impossibility ignorant of . . acceptable 3. (A) flora (B) sierra (C) archipelago (D) flotilla (E) savanna 4. best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole. even though such artful subterfuge alienated his colleagues. . abasement undaunted . Directions: For each question in this section. dazzled novel . Given the exponential growth of scientific knowledge. each blank indicating that something has been omitted. 5. vindication disgruntled . jaded mundane . “Hawaii” refers both to the group of islands known as the Hawaiian islands and to the largest island in that -------. unattractive extend . Each sentence below has one or two blanks. encumbrance vulnerable to . . embarrassment dependent on . when inserted in the sentence. . felt certain of achieving literary -------. amused lavish . astounded joyous . .even after being rejected by several major publishers. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) suspicious of . Unable to discover how the fire started. qualification averse to . . . remains an undeniable -------. celebrity obsequious . divisive overcome . (A) chicanery (B) diligence (C) bombast (D) disputation (E) consensus -47- Official SAT Practice Test 77 .SECTION 9 Time — 20 minutes 19 Questions Turn to Section 9 (page 7) of your answer sheet to answer the questions in this section. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) enforce .by the spectacle of the mariachi bands and the colorful piñatas for the children. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) hopeless . medicine is far less ------. its record of folly. negotiators proposed a compromise that they felt would be ------. . . .party for Cinco De Mayo were understandably ------. Choose the word or set of words that. neglect 1. however. useful end .the dispute.to both labor and management.

untrained in balance and projection and reliant on technical mixing of sound. is that you don’t keep old buildings. an architecture critic discusses old theaters and concert halls. In the following passage from a newspaper commentary written in 1968. and in life. Sentimentalism? Hardly. it settled into decay for the next 20 years. that will be the acid cultural test. and many modern performers. (Interestingly. Chicago’s Auditorium is such a masterpiece. That is the ironic other side of the “cultural explosion” coin. not quite in its old glory. erase tradition. Answer the questions on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passage and in any introductory material that may be provided. It has seen a few good new theaters and a lot of bad ones. Questions 7-19 are based on the following passage. rub out the architectural evidence that the arts flowered earlier in our cities and enriched them and that this enrichment is culture. were new. Put up the shiny mediocrities of the present and demolish the shabby masterpieces of the past. the last performance at the Auditorium was of Hellzapoppin’ in 1941. and fill them later. This is no more than a practical coming of cultural age. Last fall the Auditorium reopened. the Auditorium is a hard theater in which to install microphones today. Orchestra Hall. The principal function of the opening paragraph is to (A) introduce the concept of conventional arts centers (B) illustrate the trend toward revitalization of cultural landmarks (C) explore the connection between classical architecture and the arts (D) provide an explanation for the theater’s resurgent popularity (E) contrast the beauty of old theaters with ordinary modern buildings 50 Line 5 55 10 60 15 65 20 70 25 75 30 35 40 45 78 SAT Preparation Booklet -48- . was beautifully spruced up for its sixty-eighth birthday. including cost. it has been an acknowledged model of acoustical and aesthetic excellence. At the same time. and standards without which arts programs are mockeries of everything the arts stand for. that new cultural centers do not a culture make. That is just as tragic as it sounds. They’ll not only serve the arts. and the last use of the great stage was for bowling alleys during the Second World War. The last decade has seen city after city rush pell-mell into the promotion of great gobs of cultural real estate. perspectives. Build now. but also because it is bucking the conventional wisdom of the conventional power structure that provides the backing for conventional cultural centers to house the arts. as it comes true-blue from the hearts and minds of real estate dealers and investment bankers. The splendors of the house were traced in the eightcandlepower glory of carbon-filament lightbulbs of the same kind used in 1889 when the theater. It indicates the dawning of certain sensibilities. In St. but whether we can fill them when they’re done. The question is no longer whether we can bring old theaters back to new brilliance. and above all. In drama. a 1925 movie palace has been successfully transformed into Powell Symphony Hall. 7. and electricity. also in Chicago. Anything new is better than anything old and anything big is better than anything small. and the golden ceiling was partly ruined by broken roof drains. its soaring arches and superstage from which whispers can be heard in the far reaches of the theater.) Until October 1967. but close to it. As with the new centers. terms. the new. rip out cultural roots. Falling plaster filled the hall. Louis. Substitute a safe and sanitary status symbol for the loss. temples to bourgeois muses with all the panache of suburban shopping centers. they’ll improve the surrounding property values. Closed after that. complete with handsome bar from New York’s demolished Metropolitan Opera House. they are obsolete. That wisdom. After 50 years of life and 20 years of death. it is not too large a price to pay. rather than in creative. We have never had greater technical means or expertise to make our landmarks bloom. a belated recognition that fine old buildings frequently offer the most for the money in an assortment of values. it became a legend in its own time. In addition. The trend toward preservation is significant not only because it is saving and restoring some superior buildings that are testimonials to the creative achievements of other times. irony and tragedy go hand in hand. find it hard to function in a near-perfect house. tear down the past. golden ambiance. One of the great nineteenth-century works of Louis Sullivan and Dankmar Adler and an anchor point of modern architectural history. The practice has been to treat the arts in chamber-of-commerce. and if a few cultural values are lost along the way. big buildings must be all in one place so they will show. Their gentle brilliance picked out restored architectural features in warm gilt and umber. the great Adler and Sullivan Auditorium in Chicago is back in business again.The passage below is followed by questions based on its content. With its glowing.

On the basis of information provided in the rest of the passage. As described in lines 17-23. the phrase “new . In lines 13-14. The fifth paragraph (lines 31-39) primarily serves to (A) criticize the way in which cultural buildings are viewed as commodities (B) assess the positive impact of the architects’ backlash against mediocrity (C) contrast the business practices of real estate brokers with those of bankers (D) enumerate the costs and benefits of restoring historic landmarks (E) question the importance of the arts to society 11. . the author uses the word “conventional” several times in order to (A) reveal the performers’ frustration with modern theaters (B) disparage the present-day treatment of the arts (C) parody the creative efforts of contemporary artists (D) emphasize the absurdity of a purely aesthetic approach to the arts (E) exaggerate the importance of tradition in the arts 15. . make” most directly suggests that (A) modern architects lack the artistic reputations of their predecessors (B) the commercial treatment of culture encourages art that is mass-produced (C) culture evolves out of tradition and cannot be instantly created (D) historically significant venues positively influence the creative process (E) new cultural centers should be constructed in collaboration with artists -49- Official SAT Practice Test 79 . . centers”) best serves to (A) scorn the architects’ commitment to historically accurate renovations (B) mock the timeworn theatrical works showcased in modern cultural centers (C) deprecate the appearance and character of many new theaters (D) downplay the government’s efforts to support the arts (E) poke good-humored fun at commercial establishments 13. . The description in lines 20-21 (“temples . In lines 27-30. The bar mentioned in line 7 had apparently been (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) costly but symbolic beautiful but outdated enlarged and elongated treasured and imitated rescued and relocated 10. The question in line 9 is intended to (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) expose the folly of the new construction convey the emotional burdens of the past provide a typical explanation for the renovations lament the decline of cultural values address the public’s indifference toward old buildings 14.8. the “practice” refers to the (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) commercialization of culture preservation of cultural treasures construction of shopping centers government funding of the arts distortion of theatrical works 9. the word “death” (line 1) best conveys (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) flagging attendance wartime malaise demolition neglect disrepute 12.

16. What does the imagery in lines 40. the author’s comment about microphones implies that (A) the near-perfect acoustics in a new theater divert attention from the building’s aesthetic flaws (B) audience members seated in the theater’s balcony cannot fully appreciate the nuances of the performers’ intonations (C) the performances of modern-day actors tend to be overly dependent on technology (D) the absence of technically sophisticated equipment has jeopardized the sound quality of performances (E) old theaters can remain viable because they readily accommodate the new sound technology that enhances a performance 19. In lines 56-60. (E) The restoration of intimate old theaters will speed the demise of large new arenas. 17. (B) The ill-conceived mandate to destroy architectural masterpieces epitomizes the censorship of creative expression. the description of the building primarily serves to (A) convey an appreciation for the technical complexities of renovating theaters (B) illustrate how nineteenth-century architecture directly influenced modern building design (C) highlight some unique aspects of an example of fine architecture (D) explain why some people disdain innovative architecture (E) show how restoration can strip a building of its unique character 18. Which challenge is emphasized by the author in the final paragraph (lines 73-77) ? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) Designating theaters as historical landmarks Renewing a respect for architecture Providing opportunities for new artists Reviving classical plays Attracting appreciative audiences STOP If you finish before time is called. (D) The demolition of a historic landmark is tantamount to the destruction of an invaluable cultural legacy. In lines 49-56. (C) The desire for societal status symbols drives the construction of grandiose cultural centers. Do not turn to any other section in the test. you may check your work on this section only. 80 SAT Preparation Booklet .43 suggest? (A) The dawning of an enlightened artistic sensibility has stimulated support for preserving historic theaters.

During seasons when ticks carrying Lyme disease are most prevalent. the other four choices are different. people usually rush storm. about the ways they think and act. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) about their venturing from their venturing from venturing by not venturing not to venture -52- Official SAT Practice Test 81 . if not. select the best answer from among the choices given and fill in the corresponding circle on the answer sheet. sentence construction. Curiosity about other people. after bleak and lonely years in an English public school. follow the requirements of standard written English. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) and she was sixty-five years old then when she was sixty-five at age sixty-five years old upon the reaching of sixty-five years at the time when she was sixty-five 2. People were unprepared for the sinking of the Titanic simply because of believing that the ship was unsinkable. When. select one of the other choices. signs could be posted to deter hikers about their venturing into tick-infested areas. this is when people usually rush to the supermarket to stock up on groceries. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) people which also really bore him he encountered really boring people very boring people are also met some very boring people very boring people also a. If you think the original phrasing produces a better sentence than any of the alternatives. (A) (B) (C) (D) of believing that the ship was unsinkable of having a belief in the ship as unsinkable they believed that the ship was unsinkable they believed the unsinkable nature of the ship (E) of a belief on their part of an unsinkable ship 5.SECTION 10 Time — 10 minutes 14 Questions Turn to Section 10 (page 7) of your answer sheet to answer the questions in this section. he returned to India. EXAMPLE: Laura Ingalls Wilder published her first book and she was sixty-five years old then. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) storm. Choice A repeats the original phrasing.cde 1. Your selection should result in the most effective sentence—clear and precise. beneath each sentence are five ways of phrasing the underlined material. In making your selection. without awkwardness or ambiguity. has caused Jeff to meet some fascinating characters as well as people which also really bore him. When the weather forecaster predicts a severe storm. select choice A. and punctuation. this is when people usually rush storm is usually when people are rushing storm is why people usually rush storm. The following sentences test correctness and effectiveness of expression. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) there was suddenly perceived by himself he suddenly was perceived suddenly the feeling that came to him being he suddenly felt suddenly he had the feeling of 4. pay attention to grammar. it usually rushes people 3. that is. choice of words. Part of each sentence or the entire sentence is underlined. there was suddenly perceived by himself a strong desire to write about the people and land he loved. Directions: For each question in this section.

(A) true political power lies with the prime minister. dimensions. blowing off the door. (A) especially their positions. movements. elected (E) true political power is with the prime minister and is elected 8. movements. dimensions. movements. movements. and it would rattle furniture and windowpanes throughout the building. movements. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) beyond what she already knew beyond what she knows already beyond her knowledge at the current time to add to what she knew already presently in addition to her present knowledge then 9. The furnace exploded. movements. that person is elected (B) the person who holds true political power is the prime minister. All the talk about controlling noise. true political power lies with the prime minister. keeping rivers clean. which is elected (C) true political power lies with the prime minister. Claudette found he had given her only one item of information beyond what she already knew. and composition (D) especially their positions. Gullah tradition is preserved by the help of the Hallelujah Singers of South Carolina through songs and stories. that person is elected by the Canadian citizenry. Led by vocalist Marlena McGhee Smalls. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) it would rattle it rattled causing the rattling of the result was to rattle rattling 7. (A) have not impressed people enough to be bringing (B) have not made enough of an impression on people to bring (C) have not made people impressed enough to bring (D) has not impressed people enough to bring (E) has not made enough people impressed for bringing 11. especially their positions. After Morris had spent ten minutes giving an answer. and with their composition (E) with special study of their positions. spraying greasy soot all over the basement floor. dimensions. and composition (C) especially studying their positions. Although the kings and queens of England are considered Canada’s monarchs. the source of true political power. who is elected (D) the prime minister. and composition (B) and especially they are concerned with their positions. and planting trees have not impressed people enough to be bringing about major changes in laws and lifestyles. dimensions. dimensions. (A) Gullah tradition is preserved by the help of the Hallelujah Singers of South Carolina through songs and stories (B) the Hallelujah Singers of South Carolina help to preserve Gullah tradition through songs and stories (C) the songs and stories of Gullah tradition are preserved through the Hallelujah Singers of South Carolina (D) it is the Hallelujah Singers that help to preserve the songs and stories of Gullah tradition in South Carolina (E) South Carolina’s Gullah tradition is preserved through songs and stories by the Hallelujah Singers 82 SAT Preparation Booklet -53- . dimensions. and composition. Astronomy is the study of celestial bodies in outer space.6. and including composition 10.

that their votes do not matter.12. The adaptation of a novel for the screen often requires major adjustments in plot because the one art form differs from the other in having other characterrevelation techniques. Feeling. (A) the number of young people going to the polls are becoming increasingly smaller (B) the number of young people going to the polls is increasingly smaller (C) increasingly smaller numbers of young people are going to the polls (D) young people are going to the polls in increasingly smaller numbers (E) young people. (A) because the one art form differs from the other in having other character-revelation techniques (B) because the two art forms reveal character in different ways (C) because of the differing ways the two may use for revealing a character (D) inasmuch as there are different ways in the two art forms for character revelation (E) insofar as the two differ in how to reveal character 13. to keep it as a historical landmark. on the other hand. Do not turn to any other section in the test. The opposing opinions expressed were that the school should be torn down and. the number of young people going to the polls are becoming increasingly smaller. who in increasingly smaller numbers are going to the polls STOP If you finish before time is called. you may check your work on this section only. -54- Official SAT Practice Test 83 . perhaps. to keep it (B) was that the school should be torn down or kept (C) were that the school should be torn down and that it should be kept (D) were about them tearing the school down and them keeping the school (E) were if they should tear the school down and keeping it 14. on the other hand. (A) were that the school should be torn down and.

5. 8. DIFF. 34. ANS. 12. ANS. COR. COR. 9. 17. 11. 4. 29. Section 6 COR. DIFF. LEV. 17. E B C D 3 3 4 5 Number correct Number incorrect Number correct Number incorrect Get a score report and answer explanations! Enter your answers online at collegeboard.333 5/2 or 2. ANS.com/ satpracticetest. 31. 3. 10. 12. 15. 7. A A D C B C B A C B E A 1 3 4 3 4 5 5 5 2 2 2 4 13. 4. 11. LEV. 10. C C A D B B A C C 5 5 1 3 1 1 3 3 3 19. 17. 89 200 75 3 12 0<x<1 1600 5/8 or . 5. DIFF. 14. 15. 18. 13. 14. 10. E B C C D A B D E C 1 2 3 3 4 5 3 2 3 4 11. ANS. 14. C E E C C D A B E A 1 1 2 2 1 2 2 2 2 3 11. 9. LEV. 24. 1. 14. ANS. LEV. COR. 3. 19. 7. 16. 8. 16. 8. 8.Correct Answers and Difficulty Levels for the Official SAT Practice Test Critical Reading Section 4 COR. 3. Section 9 COR. LEV. 12. 4. 9. Section 10 COR. 25. 7. 14. ANS. COR. 26. D A B A C D C A 3 3 3 4 4 4 5 5 Number correct Number incorrect Number correct (9-18) Number correct Number incorrect Number correct Number incorrect Writing COR. 21. 5. 6. 10. 9. 22. DIFF. LEV. 5. DIFF. 17. C C A B A D C C E 3 4 3 5 3 3 3 3 3 Number correct Number incorrect Number correct Number incorrect Number correct Number incorrect Mathematics Multiple-Choice Questions COR. 20. 11. 3. DIFF. E A A E E E A B E C 3 3 3 4 4 3 4 4 4 5 1. COR. DIFF. 84 SAT Preparation Booklet . 17. 18.625 1/3 or . ANS. 19. DIFF. 15. 7. 15. 11. 22. 12. 8. 6. LEV. 12. 17. 13. 7. 2. DIFF. 10. LEV. COR. Section 8 COR. 23. 20. 16. 7. LEV. LEV. B C A D B D C E 1 1 1 2 3 4 4 4 9. 13. 2. D E A C D D C E 1 1 1 2 2 3 3 3 9. ANS. 2. DIFF. A B A B E A E C D E C 3 3 2 3 3 1 3 2 3 2 3 1. DIFF. 8. 35. 22. 12. 6. DIFF. 6. 18. NOTE: Difficulty levels are estimates of question difficulty for a reference group of college-bound seniors. 9. 18. Section 5 COR. 5. 6. COR. 15. E A E D D A B C D 2 5 3 3 4 1 5 5 5 28. 11. DIFF. 3. Difficulty levels range from 1 (easiest) to 5 (hardest). 16. 7. 21. ANS. 20. LEV. 32. ANS. 19. 3. ANS. D E E E B A B D C 2 1 1 3 3 3 3 3 3 10. 5. C D D D C 1 1 1 1 3 6. ANS. 4. 15. 12. 2. ANS. 1. ANS. ANS. 27. 4. DIFF. LEV. LEV. 20. DIFF. ANS. LEV. DIFF. 16. 4. 6. COR. ANS. 12. 2. A C B A D 1 2 3 3 3 11. LEV. LEV. 10. ANS. LEV. 30. LEV. 23. 15. 18. E C B E C B D B D B A E 1 3 3 5 5 1 2 5 5 3 3 2 13. 23. 33. Section 3 COR. 18. 4. 14. 6. LEV. 16. 7. 8. DIFF. E B C E C D A D B B D A B 4 3 3 2 1 2 3 5 3 3 2 3 3 1. 21. ANS. 24.5 1 2 3 3 3 3 3 4 4 5 1. 2. 1. 3. 8. Section 2 Student-Produced Response Questions COR. COR. 16. 5. 5. 10. 4. 13. 2. 2. 13. 25. 9. 19. 3. 13. DIFF. DIFF. A E C E A E A C 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 1. 14. 14.

Section 6: Questions 1–25 + ___________ Section 9: Questions 1–19 + ___________ Total = ___________ Get Your Writing Score How many multiple-choice writing questions did you get right? Section 3: Questions 1–35 ___________ × 0. To calculate your score on paper. and your essay score (D) to find your writing composite scaled score. Total = ___________ × 0. Section 5: Questions 1–20 + ___________ Section 8: Questions 1–16 + ___________ Total = ___________(A) Estimate your essay score using the Scoring Guide on page 36. and to access answer explanations. How many multiple-choice math questions did you get wrong? Section 2: Questions 1– 8 ___________ Section 5: Questions 1–20 + ___________ Section 8: Questions 1–16 + ___________ Total = ___________ Get Your Critical Reading Score How many critical reading questions did you get right? Section 4: Questions 1–23 ___________ × 0. go to collegeboard. Scoring the Official SAT Practice Test 85 .com/satpracticetest and enter your answers online.25 = ___________(B) A − B = ___________ Mathematics Raw Score Round this raw score to the nearest whole number. Section 6: Questions 1–25 + ___________ Section 9: Questions 1–19 + ___________ Total = ___________(A) How many critical reading questions did you get wrong? Section 4: Questions 1–23 ___________ Use the table on page 86 to find your mathematics scaled score. (C) Use the table on page 86 to find your writing multiple-choice scaled score. × 2 = (D) Use the table on page 87. check your responses against the correct answers on page 84 and then fill in the blanks below. Section 10: Questions 1–14 + ___________ Total = ___________(A) How many multiple-choice writing questions did you get wrong? Section 3: Questions 1–35 ___________ Section 10: Questions 1–14 + ___________ Use the table on page 86 to find your critical reading scaled score.25 = ___________(B) Get Your Mathematics Score How many mathematics questions did you get right? Section 2: Questions 1–18 ___________ A − B = ___________ Writing Multiple-Choice Raw Score Round this raw score to the nearest whole number.Scoring the Official SAT Practice Test To have your score calculated automatically.25 = ___________(B) A − B = ___________ Critical Reading Raw Score Round this raw score to the nearest whole number. your writing multiple-choice raw score (C).

* The writing multiple-choice score is reported on a 20-80 scale. 86 SAT Preparation Booklet .SAT Score Conversion Table Critical Reading Scaled Score 800 800 800 790 770 750 740 720 710 700 690 680 670 660 650 650 640 630 620 620 610 600 600 590 580 580 570 560 560 550 540 540 530 520 520 510 Writing Multiple-Choice Scaled Score* Critical Reading Scaled Score 510 500 490 490 480 470 470 460 450 450 440 440 430 420 420 410 400 400 390 380 370 370 360 350 340 330 320 310 300 280 270 250 230 210 200 Writing Multiple-Choice Scaled Score* 56 55 54 53 52 51 50 49 49 48 47 46 45 44 43 42 41 40 39 38 37 36 35 34 33 31 30 28 27 25 23 21 20 20 20 Raw Score 67 66 65 64 63 62 61 60 59 58 57 56 55 54 53 52 51 50 49 48 47 46 45 44 43 42 41 40 39 38 37 36 35 34 33 32 Math Scaled Score Raw Score 31 30 29 28 27 26 25 24 23 22 21 20 19 18 17 16 15 14 13 12 11 10 9 8 7 6 5 4 3 2 1 0 -1 -2 -3 and below Math Scaled Score 560 550 540 530 520 520 510 500 490 480 470 460 450 450 440 430 420 410 400 390 380 370 360 340 330 320 310 290 280 260 250 230 210 200 200 800 790 760 740 720 710 700 690 680 670 660 650 650 640 630 620 610 610 600 590 580 570 570 80 80 77 75 73 71 70 68 67 66 65 63 62 61 60 59 58 57 This table is for use only with the test in this booklet. Use the table on page 87 for the writing composite scaled score.

Scoring the Official SAT Practice Test 87 .SAT Writing Composite Score Conversion Table Writing MC Raw Score 49 48 47 46 45 44 43 42 41 40 39 38 37 36 35 34 33 32 31 30 29 28 27 26 25 24 23 22 21 20 19 18 17 16 15 14 13 12 11 10 9 8 7 6 5 4 3 2 1 0 -1 -2 and below 12 800 800 800 780 770 750 740 730 720 710 700 690 680 670 660 650 650 640 630 620 610 610 600 590 580 580 570 560 550 550 540 530 520 510 510 500 490 480 470 470 460 450 440 430 420 410 390 380 360 340 320 310 11 800 800 790 770 750 740 730 720 710 690 680 680 670 660 650 640 630 620 620 610 600 590 590 580 570 560 550 550 540 530 520 520 510 500 490 490 480 470 460 450 440 430 430 410 400 390 380 360 350 330 310 300 10 800 800 770 750 740 720 710 700 690 680 670 660 650 640 630 620 620 610 600 590 580 580 570 560 550 550 540 530 520 520 510 500 490 480 480 470 460 450 440 440 430 420 410 400 390 380 360 350 330 310 290 280 9 800 780 760 740 720 710 700 690 670 660 650 640 640 630 620 610 600 590 580 580 570 560 550 550 540 530 520 520 510 500 490 490 480 470 460 450 450 440 430 420 410 400 390 380 370 360 350 330 320 300 280 270 8 790 760 740 720 700 690 680 670 660 640 630 630 620 610 600 590 580 570 570 560 550 540 540 530 520 510 500 500 490 480 470 470 460 450 440 440 430 420 410 400 390 380 380 360 350 340 330 310 300 280 260 250 Essay Raw Score 7 6 770 750 750 730 720 700 700 690 690 670 670 660 660 640 650 630 640 620 630 610 620 600 610 590 600 580 590 570 580 560 570 560 560 550 550 540 550 530 540 520 530 520 520 510 520 500 510 490 500 480 490 480 490 470 480 460 470 450 460 450 450 440 450 430 440 420 430 420 420 410 420 400 410 390 400 380 390 380 380 370 370 360 370 350 360 340 350 330 330 320 320 310 310 290 290 280 280 260 260 240 240 230 230 210 5 730 710 690 670 650 640 630 610 600 590 580 570 560 560 550 540 530 520 510 510 500 490 480 480 470 460 450 440 440 430 420 410 410 400 390 380 380 370 360 350 340 330 320 310 300 290 280 260 240 230 210 200 4 720 700 670 650 640 630 610 600 590 580 570 560 550 540 530 520 520 510 500 490 480 480 470 460 450 450 440 430 420 420 410 400 390 390 380 370 360 350 350 340 330 320 310 300 290 280 260 250 230 210 200 200 3 700 680 660 640 620 610 600 580 570 560 550 540 530 530 520 510 500 490 480 480 470 460 450 440 440 430 420 410 410 400 390 380 380 370 360 350 340 340 330 320 310 300 290 280 270 260 250 230 210 200 200 200 2 690 670 640 620 610 590 580 570 560 550 540 530 520 510 500 490 480 480 470 460 450 440 440 430 420 410 410 400 390 380 380 370 360 350 340 340 330 320 310 300 300 290 280 270 260 240 230 220 200 200 200 200 0 680 660 630 610 600 580 570 560 550 540 530 520 510 500 490 480 470 470 460 450 440 430 430 420 410 400 400 390 380 370 370 360 350 340 330 330 320 310 300 290 290 280 270 260 250 230 220 200 200 200 200 200 This table is for use only with the test in this booklet.

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