# MCA – MODEL QUESTIONS I. 1.

If (64)2 – (36)2 = 20z, the va lue of z is a)70 b)180 c)120 d)140
Which one of the following fraction is the smallest? a)13/16 b)15/19 c)17/21 d)7/8 1 litre of water weights 1 kg. How many cubic millimeters of water will weigh 0.1gm? a)0.1 b)1 c)10 d)100 A tin of oil was 4/5 full. When 6 bottles of oil were taken out and four bottles of oil were poured into it, it was ¾ full. How man y bottles of oil can the tin contain? a)40 b)20 c) 30 d)10

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In a garden, there are 10 rows and 12 columns of mango trees. The distance between two trees is 2 meters and a distance of one meter is left from all sides of the boundary of the garden. The length of the garden is a)20 m b)22 m c)24 m d)26 m
A man d istributed Rs 100 equally among his friends. If there had been 5 more friends, each would have received one rupees less . How many friends had he? a)20 b)25 c)30 d)35 The least perfect square number divisible by 3,4,5,6 and 8 is a)900 b)1200 c)2500 d)3600 If v5 = 2.236, then the value of 1/v5 is a).367 b).745 c).447 d).545 A man spends Rs 1800 monthly on monthly for the next eight months income is a)Rs 2000 c)Rs 2400 an average for the first four months and Rs 2000 and saves Rs 5600 a year. His average monthly b)Rs 2200 d)r s 2600

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The sum of the ages of A,B,and C is 96 years. To find out B’s age, which of the following information given in the statements P and Q is/are sufficient? P: A is 6 years older than C Q:The total of B and C’s ages is 56 years. A)P C) BOTH P AND Q B)Q D) NONE OF THE P AND Q

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Average age of A and B is 24 years and the average age of B,C and D is 22 year s. The sum of the ages of A,B,C and D is a)90 years b)96 years c)114 years d) the data is inadequate

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If 5v5 x 53 ÷5-3/2 =5 a+2 , then the value of a is a)4 b)5 c)6 d)8
In a public school ,1/5 th of girls and ¼ th of boys are under 12 years of age. If the total strength of the school is 1000 and numb er of gir ls is 2/5 th of the total, what part of the total strength of the school is accounted for by those which are 12 years or more of age? a)23% b)45% c)55% d)77% A shopkeeper bought a n article for Rs 319.60 . Approximately, at which price should he sell the article to make 25% profit? a)Rs 500 b)Rs 450 c)Rs 400 d)R s 600 20 litres of a mixture contains milk and the water in the ratio 5:3. If 4 litres of this mixture are replaced by 4 litres of milk, the ratio of milk to water in the new mixtur e will be come a)2:1 b)7:3 c)8:3 d)4:3 If 8 men working 9 hours a day can build a wall 18 m long, 2m wide and 12 m high in a day, how many men will be required to build a wall 32 m long, 5 m wide and 9m high, working 6 hours a day in 8 days? a)45 b)40 c)48 d)50 20 men complete one third of a piece of work in 20 days. How many more men should be employed to finish th e rest of the work in 25 more days? a)10 b)12 c)15 d)20 Two trains running in the same direction at 65 kmph and 47 kmph, completely pass one another in 1 minute. If the length of the first train is 125 m, the length of the second train is a)125 m b)150 m c)175 m d)200 m A man rows 13 km upstream in 5 hours and also 28 km downstream in 5 hours. The velocity of t he stream is a) 1.5 km/hr b) 2 km/hr c) 2.5km/hr d) 3 km/hr If the side of the square is increased by 5 cm, the area increased by 165 sq.cm. The side of the square is a)13cm b)14cm c)15cm d)12cm

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Two cubes have their volumes in t he ratio 8:27. The ratio of their surface area is a)2:3 b)3:2 c)4:9 d)64:729 Choose the one number which is similar to the numbers in the given set Given Set: 992,733,845,632 a)114 b)326 c)425 d)947 If TAP is coded as SZO, then how is FREEZE coded? a)EQDFYG b )ESDFYF c)GQFDYF d )EQDDYD If ROSE is coded as 6821,CHAIR is coded as 73456 and PREACH is coded as 961473, what will be the code for SEARCH? a)246173 b)214673 c)214763 d)216473

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25. X introduces Y saying, “He is the husband of the grand daughter of the father of my father”.How is Y related to X? a)brother b)son c)brother- in -law d)nephew 26. A party consists of grandmother, father, mother ,four sons and their wives and one son and two daughters to each of the sons. How many females are there is all? a)14 b)16 c)18 d)24 27.
There are 5 different houses, A to E, in a ro w, A is to the r ight of B and E is to the left of C and right of A. B is to the right of D. Which of the houses is in the middle? a)A b)B c)D d )E The ratio of the volume of a cube to that of a sphere which will fit inside the cube is a)4:? b)4:3? c)6: ? d)2: ? In a 200 meters race A beats B by 35 m or 7seconds.A’s time over the course is a)40sec b)47sec c)35sec d)33sec On 8 th february 1995 it was Wednesday. The day of the week on 8th Feb ruary 1994 was a)wednesday b)tuesday c)thursday d)friday

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II. Fill in the Blanks

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1,4,2,8,6,24,22,88,(…) a)86 c)154

b)90 d)352

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Which term will replace the question mark in the series: ABD,DGK,HMS,MTB,SBL,…? a)ZKW b)ZKU c)ZAB d )XKW Which number would be replace question mark in the series 0,6,24,60,120,210,…? a)336 b)290 c)240 d)504 3:11::7 :…? a)22 c)18

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b)29 d)51

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Find the wrong number in the series:3,8,15,24,34,48,63 ? a)15 b)24 c)34 d)48
III. L ook careful ly a t the sequence of sy mbols t o find the next patter n .

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IV. Thr ee of the words wil l be in the sam e classif ication ; the r em ain ing o ne will no t be. Your a nswer wil l be the one word that doe s N OT b elong to the sam e classifica tio n as the others.

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Which word does NOT be long with the others? a)Poland b)Korea c)Spain d)Italy Which word does NOT be long with the others? a)carrot b)potato c)Tomato d)Beetroot Which word does NOT be long with the others? a)Nephrology b )Entomology c)Astrology d)Mycology Which word does NOT be long with the others? a) Sutlej b )Hirakud c) Aswan d )Pony Which word does NOT be long with the others? a) Telephone b)X-ray c) Radio d)Computer
V. Stu dy the Circle grap h careful ly an d ans wer the question s g ive n below 46 to 50.

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Sports

Others, 10% Golf, 12.50%

Tennis Basket ball Football cricket Hockey Golf Others

Hockey, 15%

Football, 15%

cricket, 25%

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The ratio of the total amount spent on football to that sp ent on hockey is a)1:15 b)1:1 c)15:1 d)3:20 If the total amount spent on sports during the year was Rs 1,20,000,00. How much was spent on basketball? a)Rs 9,50,000 b)Rs 10,00,000 c)Rs 12,00,000 d)Rs 15,00,000

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Graph shows that the most popular game of the country is a)Hockey b)Football c)Cricket d )Tennis Out of the following , the country spent the same amount on a)Hockey and Tennis b )Golf and Basketball c)Cricket and Football d)Hockey and Golf If the Total amount Spent on Sports during the year was Rs 1,50,00,000, the amount spent on cricket and hockey together was a)Rs 60,00,000 b)Rs 50 ,00,000 c)Rs 37,50,000 d)Rs 25 ,00,000

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VI. Ch oose the odd pair of words.

51. 52. 53. 54. 55.

(a) Painter : Gallery (d) Farmer : Field (a) Cow : Calf (d) Tortoise : Turtle (a) Volume : Litre (d ) Pressure : Ba rome ter (a) Farmer : Ploug h (d) Jockey : Tack

(b) Actor : Stage

(c) Mason : Wall

(b) Dog : Bitch (b) Time : Seconds

(c) Lion : Cub

(c) Length : Metre

(b) Butcher : Chopper

(c) Author : Book

(a) Ornithology : Birds (d) Phycology : Algae

(b) Mycology : Fungi

(c) Biology : Botan y

VII . Ch oose the gro up of letters which is diffe rent from others.

56. 57. 58. 59. 60.

(a) BCD (d) GHI (a) POCG (d) FQMV (a) CZHK (d) SUNO (a) BDGK (d) MORU (a) PH3 (d) VK2

(b) KMN

(c) QRS (c) BUDX (c) XUBU

(b) KLIZ (b) MLAG

(b) JLOS

(c) NPSW

(b) XD6

(c) JB5

VIII. Each question below is given a pas sage followed by several inferences. Examine each inference separately in the co ntext of the passage and decide on the degree of truth or falsity . Mark your answer as: (a) if the inference is ‘definitely true’ (b) if the inference is ‘probably true’ (c) if you think the data are inadequate (d) if you think the inference is ‘definitely false’. A tiger, when killing its natural pre y, which it d oes either by stalking or lying in wa it for it, depends for the success of its attack o n its speed and, to a lesser extent, on the condition of its teeth and claws. When , therefore, a tiger is suffering from one or more painful wounds or when its teeth are missing or defective and its claws are worn down, and it is unable to catch animals it ha s been accustomed to eating, it is drive n be the necess ity to killing human beings.

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Human beings are the natural prey of tigers Sharp claws are needed by the tigers to kill animals in the forest. Old age propels tigers to take to man eating. Thou gh state cultivates only 3.2 lakh tones of mangoes, they are of premium quality and with mangoes becoming second most consumed fruit in the world after grapes, the governmen t has been trying exporting it through sea route which is cheaper. An experiment which was done in this regar d last year has proved successful.

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Quality of mangoes is an important factor in exports The state also exports good quality grapes. In each question below is given a statement followed by two assumptions numbered I and II. Consider the statement and decide which of the give n assumptions is implicit.

(a) If only as sumption I is implicit (b) Only if assumption II is implicit (c) If either I or II is implicit (d) If neither I nor II is i mplicit 66.
The government has decided to pay compensation to the tune of Rs.1 lakh to the family members of those who are killed in ra ilway accidents. Assumptions: I. The government has enough funds to meet the expenses due to compensation II. There may be reduction in inciden ts of railway accidents in near future. The management of XYZ Pvt. Ltd. Asked the worker’s union to call off strike immed iately otherwise the management would be forced to close down the factory. Assumptions: III. No alternative other than closing down the factory is left for the management of XYZ Pvt. Ltd. IV. Such threat may have some effect on the worker’s union.

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Computer education should start at schools itself . Assumptions: V. Learning computers is easy VI. Comp uter education fetches job easily. His recent investment in the shares of company A is only a ga mble. Assumptions: VII. He may incur loss on his investment. VIII. He may gain from his inve stment. Traffic jams on most of the roads in the city have become a regular feature during monsoon Assumptions: IX. Material used for road construction cannot withstand the fury of monsoon resu lting into innumerable pot holes on the roads . X. Numb er of vehicles coming on the roads is much more in monsoon as compared to other seasons.

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X. In each question below is given two statemen ts followed by two conclusions numbered I and II . Take the given t wo statements to be true if they seem to be at variance fro m commonly known facts. Decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the two given statements, disregarding commonly known facts. a) b) c) d) 71.
if only conclusion I follows if only conclusion II follows if either conclusion I or II follows if neit her co nclusion I nor II follows

All roa ds are waters. Some waters are boats. Conclusions: I. Some boats are roads II. All waters a re boats. Some swo rds are sharp. All swor ds are rusty. Conclusions: I. Some rus ty things are sharp. II. Some rus ty things are not s harp. All mangoes are golden in colour. No Golden co loured things are cheap. Conclusions: II. All mangoes are cheap. III. Golde n coloured mangoes are not cheap. No bat is ball. No ball is w icket. Conclusions: IV. No bat is wicket. V. All wickets are bats. Some men a re educated. Educated persons prefer small families. Conclusions: VI. All families are educated VII. Some men prefer small families.

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It is a wasteful process XIV. 83. XII. Choo se the Synonym for th e given words . It is an age of advertising. Modern methods of far ming are too expensive. Is pen mightier than a sword? Arguments: XV. the product will not be sold X. 78. The money spent on advertising is ve ry huge and it inflates the cost of the product. Such matter can only be solved by lega l means. 76. Our generous behaviour and goodwill will be considered as our weakness. ABSTEMIOUS a) Licent ious c) Sparing INAMORATA a) Anger c) Sweetheart PROGNOSIS a) Scheme c) Preface SPORADIC a) Epide mic c) Occas ional b) Miserly d) Fastidious b) Jealousy d) Opera singer b) Forecast d) Identification b) Whirling d) Stagnant . Should there be a ban on product advertising? Arguments: IX.XI. 79. No. Yes. 81. (a) (b) (c) (d) If only argument I is strong. Yes. Goodwill always p ays dividend VIII. No. Should ch ildren be lega lly made responsible to take care of their parents during old age? Arguments: XI. XII. No. 84. 82. Each of the following questions consist of a statement followe d by two argu ments I and II . 77. Yes. Writers influence the thinking of the people XVI. Yes. Unless your advertisement is better than your other competitors. Should our country extend generous behaviour and goodwill to our erring and nag ging neighbours? Arguments: VII. No. Yes. If only argument II is strong If neither I nor II is strong If both I and II are strong. Yes. With the help of physical force one can conquer all. Only this will bring relief to poor parents Should shifting agriculture be practiced? Arguments: XIII. 80.

a) Traditionalists c) Aesthetes b) Pragma tists d) Crafts people . Many of Herbert’s poems are mere bundles if _______________ of metaphor. 87. a) Sensual c) Ephemeral b) Mundane d) Superficial 94. a) Incitements c) Portrayals b) Oddities d) Ramifica tions 93. quaint and crabbed to the last degree. LEVITY a) Humour c) Haste MENDACIOUS a) Opulent c) Trustworthy CHIMERICAL a) Numerical c) Obv ious DASTARD a) Honourable c) Sturdy JEJUNE a) Morose c) Mature b) Sobriety d) Gruesomeness b) Grave d) Inexpensive b) Real d) Heavenly b) Courageous d) Determined b) Natural d) Accurate XIV. he gave his _______________ hesistatingly. 90. 86. PARAMOUNT a) Above others in rank of authority b) Famous c) Wide and extensive d) Very important XIII . many of today’s movies seem des igned to have only _____________ appeal. Choose the A nto nym for the give n words. a) Ascent b) Condone c) Assent d) Signature In contrast to the durability of the old classic movies. 91. a) Pettifoggers c) Amba ssadors b) Buccaneers d) Whistleb lowers 92. The departmen t can use informatio n received from diss atisfied employees and _______________ to launch an investigation against the co mpany. While the ancient Greek artists valued beauty. 88. 89. Thou gh the Chief had faith in us. they were ultimately _______________ who felt tha t function dictated form. 95.85. Fill in the blanks with the su itable words given.

The base 10 (or decimal .XV. 96. How many bits is a byte? a) 4 c) 16 b) 8 d) 32 100.. b) 0xFFFF d) 0Xffffff '..BAK' extension refers usually to wha t kind of file? a) Backup file c) Animation/movie file b) Audio file d) MS Encarta docu ment 98. Which computer uses vacuum tubes. a) Data Out System c) Disk Operating System b) Disk Out System d) Data Operating System 99.? a) 0xFFFFF c) 0xFFF 97. Ch oose the Correct answe r.our normal way o f counting) number 65535 is represented in hexadecimal as. a) EDVAC c) IBM b) ENIAC d) UNIVAC ANSWER Q. The letters...No 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 Ans d b d a b a d c c c d a d c b d b c a b c c . "DOS" st and for. switches and wired plug boards to implement programming.

23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 d b c a a c d b a a a d c d b c d d b c c a b b d c b a c b d c c b d c d a d a c a c a b a c a d a b d .

75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 b d d c a a c c d c d b c b b c a a c c b b a c b b .

using only the i nformation give n in the passage. 6.-----------------------------------HOD / MCA . VERBAL REASONING . or you have insufficient info rmati on to answer. NUMERICAL REASONING 2. Rea d the passage carefully and the n.COMPREHENSION EXERCISE It is a se lection of a passage of text which will be followed by four stateme nts. NUMERICAL REASONING: GRAPHS AND TABLES 3. Logical Reasoning ( Sequences ) 4. NON-VERBAL REASONING TEST • Diagrammatic and Pictorial Form 5. Basic Knowledge of Computers -----------------------------------------------------------------Total Number of Question : 100 --------------------------------.SRM UNIVERSITY MCA ENTRANCE EXAMINATIO N – MAY 2010 Question Paper Pattern 1. VERBAL (Synonyms and antonyms) 7. definite ly unt rue . for each statement choose whet her it is definitely t rue .

• • Data Interpretation based on text. International organizations • Social issues. Politics etc. Partnership & Time – Speed – Distance. Graphs representing Area. Finance. PART 2. . identifying Strong arguments and Weak arguments. Identifying Probably true. Sports. Top officials of big companies. Percentages. Pie chart. idioms. • Puzzles. definitely false kind of statement. Syllogisms. Statements and Conclusions. Antonyms. Sentence Correction. identifying next number in series. Syllogisms. REASONING: (20 Questions) To evaluate the candidate’s skill on Logical reasoning • Critical reasoning. Graphs can be Column graphs. Visual reasoning. Matrix arrangements. History. identifying valid inferences. definitely true. Family tree – identifying relationship among group of people. Assumption – Premise – Conclusion. Entertainment. Linear arrangements. punctuation and the like. QUANTITATIVE: (20 Questions) To evaluate the skill on solving mathematical problems of graduate level including those learnt in plus two or equivalent level. Ratios. odd man out. Sentence completion. Venn Diagram. Bar Graphs. etc. grammar. Business. Major corporate events • Famous award and prizes • Science. etc. • • • Ratios and Proportion. • Comprehension of passage • Verbal Reasoning. Symbol Based problems. Functions. Probably false. Coding and decoding. Statements and assumptions. PART 5: GK/CA/BA: (20 Questions) To evaluate the candidate’s skill on General knowledge. Sequencing. Work and time Probability. Geography. Cause and Effect. Fill in the Blanks.MBA & PGPM SYLLABUS SYLLABUS AND PATTERN The question paper will have 5 parts with the following topics: PART 1. Jumbled paragraphs with 4 or 5 sentences • Sentence Correction. DATA INTERPRETATION: (20 Questions) To evaluate the candidate’s ability to pick out critically the data and apply the data to business decisions from given typical business situations. Punch line of companies. Assertion and reasons. current affairs and Business Affairs • Current Affairs. Automobiles. Permutations & Combinations PART 3. one word substitution. Different usage of same word etc. Percentages. PART 4: ENGLISH: (20 Questions) To evaluate the skill of the candidate on written English with questions on errors in usage. Line charts. Algebra and Profit & Loss Averages. Data Interpretation based on graphs and tables. In – equations.

He replied that there were a ll sparrows but six. How many routes does he know from Bristol to Car lisle? . a ll pigeons but six. Al l but nine died. How many was he left w ith? Nil 8 9 17 3) Aruna cut a cake into two halves and cuts one half into smal ler pieces of equal size. If he attempted 48 sums in all . and all ducks but six. how many did he solve correct ly? a) 12 b) 16 c) 18 d) 24 6) The number of bo ys in a cl ass is three times the nu mber of gir ls. H ow many birds he had in the bag in a ll? a) 9 b) 18 c) 27 d) 36 2) a) b) c) d) A shepherd had 17 sheep. 1) A bird shooter was asked how ma ny birds he ha d in the bag. If she has seven pieces of the cake in all with her. Each of the smal l pieces is twenty grams in we ight. Whic h one of the fol lowing numbers cann ot represent the total nu mber of children in the cl ass? a) 48 b) 44 c) 42 d) 40 7) A motorist knows four different routes from Br istol to Birmingham. How may handshakes wil l there be together? a) 20 b) 45 c) 55 d) 90 5) A student got twice as many su ms wro ng as he got r ight.MODEL QUESTIONS – MBA Direction for questions 1 to 30 : Answer each of the questions indepen dently. how heavy was the ori ginal cake? a) 120 grams b) 140 grams c) 240 grams d) 280 grams 4) At the end of a business conference the ten people present all shake hands with each other once. From Birmingham to Sheffi eld he knows three differ ent routes and from S heffield to Carlisle he knows two different routes.

The length of the garden is a) 20m b) 22m c) 24m d) 26m 12) A farmer bui lt a fence around his square plot.5 each.a) b) c) d) 4 8 12 24 8) A pineapple costs Rs. He used 27 f enc e poles on each side of the square. gives 112. A wat ermelon costs Rs. The d istance between the two trees is 2 metres and a distance of one meter is left from al l sides of the boundary of the garden. X spends Rs. How many p oles did he need together? a) 100 b) 104 c) 108 d) None of these 13) An enterprising businessma n earns an income of Re>1 on the first day of his business. then how man y times do y ou write 3? a) 11 b) 18 c) 20 d) 21 10) The tota l number of digits used in numbering the pages of a book hav pages is a) 732 b) 990 c) 1098 d) 1305 ing 366 11) In a garden. a) 7 . On every subse quent day. 38 on these fruits.7 each. One the 10 th day of business. The number of pineapples purchased is a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) data insuff icient 9) If you write down al l the numbers from 1 to 100 . his income is a) Rs (2)9 b) Rs (2)1 0 c) Rs 10 d) Rs (10) 2 14) Find the nu mber which when ad ded to itself 13 times. there a re 10 rows and 12 columns of mango trees. he earns an inco me which is just dou ble of that made o n the previous day.

every three guests used a b owl of dal between them and every four used a bowl of meat between them. then what percent of the population is literate? a) 20% b) 25% c) 50% d) 75% 16) A fires 5 shots to B’s 3 but A ki lls only once in 3 shots wi le B kills once in 2 shots. how man y passe ngers entered the bus? a) 15 b) 30 c) 36 d) 45 20) A num ber con sists of two digits whose sum is 11. There were altogether 6 5 dishes. Now. number of men an d wome n is equal.b) 8 c) 9 d) 11 15) In a city. What is the num ber? a) 47 b) 65 c) 83 d) 92 . The number of women in the bus is half of the number of men. If 27 is added to the n umber. how ma ny alterations wi ll be required for 60 shirts? a) 24 b) 123 c) 133 d) 143 18) At a dinner party every two guests used a bowl of r ice between them. In city Y.. 10 men lea ve the bus and five women enter. 40% of the adults are illiterate while 85% of the chi ldren are literate. A has k illed a) 30 birds b) 60 birds c) 72 birds d) 90 birds 17) If every 2 out of 3 readymade shirts need alterat ions in the slee ves. then the digits change the ir places. In the beg inning. When B has missed 27 times. and every 4 out of 5 need it in the bod y. How many guests were present at the party? a) 60 b) 65 c) 90 d) None of these 19) A bus starts from city X. If the ratio of the adults to that of the chi ldren is 2:3.

How man y clubs d oes he h old? a) 4 b) 5 c) 6 d) 7 . sweets were to be equally d istributed am ong 175 children in a school. The number of 25 pa ise co ins is a) 120 b) 124 c) 144 d) 20 0 25) A man has Rs 480 in the denominations of one-rupee notes. The number of notes of each denomination is equal. What is the total number of notes t hat he has? a) 45 b) 60 c) 75 d) 90 26) On children’s day . then 4 cats would k ill 4 mice in how many days? a) 1 day b) 4 day c) 40 days d) 100 days 23) Two bus tic kets from c ity A to B and three t ickets from city A to C cost Rs 77 but three tic kets from c ity A to B and two tic kets from city A to C cost Rs.73.rupee notes . how long w ill it take to str ike ten? a) 7 seconds b) 9 seconds c) 10 seconds d) none of these 22) If 100 cats k ill 100 mice in 100 days. What are the fares for cities B and C from A? a) Rs4 and Rs23 b) Rs13 and Rs 17 c) Rs 15 and Rs 14 d) Rs 17 and Rs 13 24) A total of 324 coins of 2 0 paise and 25 pa ise make a sum of Rs 71. tenrupee notes. Actua lly on the children’s day 35 chi ldren were absent and therefore each child got 4 sweets extra. five .21) If a clock takes se ven seconds t o strike se ven. There are tw ice as many hearts as diamon ds. of wh ich seven are black and six are red. Total how many sweets were avai lable for distr ibution? a) 2400 b) 2480 c) 2680 d) 2800 27) A player holds 13 cards of four sui ts.

the nu mber of keepers is a) 5 b) 8 c) 10 d) 15 Family/B lood Relat ion qualms 31) Pointing to a photograph.5. If the total number of feet be 2 24 more than the num ber of heads in the caravan.7.28) In a fami ly. 10 and 12 seconds. I have no brother or sister but that ma n’s father is my father’s so n. He is the son of only s on of m y grandfather. Who se photograph was it? a) b) c) d) His own His sons His fathers Hish nephews 32) Pointing towards a boy. a man said. each daughter has the same n umber of brothers s s he has sisters and each son ha s twice as many sisters as he has brothers. Veena said.” How is Moni ka related to Reena? a) b) c) d) Aunt Niece Cousin Data inadequate . How is that boy related to Veena? a) b) c) d) Uncle Brother Cousion Data inadequate 33) Introducing Reena. Monika said. there are 4 5 goats and 8 came ls with some keepers. How many times wil l they tol l together in one ho ur excluding the one at the start? a) 7 b) 8 c) 9 d) 11 30) In a group of cows and he ns . How man y sons are there in the fami ly? a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 5 29) Five bells begin to tol l together and toll respecti vely at interva ls of 6. “She is the only daughter of my father’s o nly daughter.

How old is Do lly? 36) a)12 b)16 C)24 d)30 37) Avera ge age of 10 boys in a hostel comes out to be 14. the rat io of the ir ages after 4 yea rs will be a)5:4 b)2:3 c)5:6 d)3:2 Ratio of Dol ly and Vandana ’s age is 2:3 and the sum of their ages is 60 years. A is on the ri ght of C.E .D.F amd G are standing in a line. B. 38) Who is on the extreme right? a) b) c) d) B E F G 39) Who is exactly in the middle? a) A b) C c) D .34) Pointing to a man. D and F have two children between them. A and D have one chi ld between th em.” How is the woman related to the mother? a) b) c) d) Mother Daughter Sister Grandm other Age Doubts 35) Sonu and Man u’s age rat io is 4:3. “ H is mother is the only daughter of my m other. If sum of their a ges is 28 years. G is to the ri ght of D and to the left of B. How old the new recruit must be ? a)4 b)5 c)12 d)3 For Queations 38-4 0 Seven chi ldren A. a woman said. E and B have two chi ldren between them.C. A new admission brought down t heir average age by one year.

E and F are sitting in two rows. E is not at the end of any row. who wi ll be the nei ghbors of D in the new position? a) C and A b) F and B c) Only B d) Only A Direction for questions (Q45 -49) Read the fol lowing information carefu lly and answer the questions that follow:- .B. is s itting diagonal ly opposite to D. D is second to the left of F. 41) Which of the fol lowing are sitting diagonal ly opposite to each other? a) b) c) d) F and C D and A A and C A and F 42) Which of the fol lowing are in the same row? a) b) c) d) A and E E and D C and B A and B 43) Which of the fol lowing are in one of the two rows? a) FBC b) CEB c) DBF d) AEF 44) After interchanging w ith seat w ith E.C. C the neighbour of E. three in each. B is the nei ghbour of F.d) E 40) Who is on the extreme left? a) b) c) d) A B C D Direction (Qs 41-44) Six persons A.D.

The topmost row had the display of jam bottles. Biscuits are arranged above the tins of chocolates but below the rows of packets of chips. Hindi . Accountancy a nd Hindi . 45) Economics is between which of the fol lowing books? a) Accounta ncy an d Education b) Psych ology and Hindi c) English and Psychology d) Psych ology and Sociology 46) Which three books a re between Accounta ncy an d Hindi? a) b) c) d) English . Sociology is on the top of all the books. lying on a table one above the other. English. Education and Accou ntancy. cakes are at the bott om an d the bottles of peppermints are bwlow the chocolates. Accounta ncy is immediate ly below Education which is immediately below Sociology. Hindi is immediate ly below Psychology. the items were ar ranged in a shelf consisting of s ix rows. Econo mics is immediate ly above Psychology b ut not in the middle. which book wi ll be between psych ology and Sociology? a) b) c) d) Accounta ncy Psych ology Hindi Econo mics 48) Books of which subject is at the sixth position from the top? a) b) c) d) English Hindi Mathematics History 49) Counting from the right to which subject does the 8th book belong? a) b) c) d) Accounta ny English Hindi History 50) In a shop. Econo mics. Socio logy. Psychology and Hindi Cannot be determined 47) If Soc iology and Eng lish . Economics and Psychology Econo mics.There are se ven books one each on Psychology. Psychology and Ed ucation Econo mics. Where exactly are the bottles of peppermints? Mention the place from the top? . Education and Psych ology interchange thei r posit ions .

C .E.C D.C b) B.E 53) E is heav ier than which of the fol lowing two art icles? a) b) c) d) D.Answer the questions based on the following information. 51) Which of the fol lowing is the lightest in we ight? a) b) c) d) A B C D 52) E is lighter in weight than which of the other two artic les? a) b) c) d) e) A.D. B weighs four and half times as much as C. C wei ghs half as much as D. B. E weighs less than A but m ore than C.D.C A.E. D weighs half as much as E. A weighs twic e as much as B.B 54) Which of the fol lowing articles is the heav iest in weight? a) b) c) d) A B C D 55) Which of the fol lowing represents the descending order of wei ghts of the arti cles? a) A.D.B D.B.a) b) c) d) 2nd 3rd 4th 5th Directions for questions 5 1 to 55:.B D.C A.A.C.C A.B B.and E each hav ing a different we ight. A black smith has fi ve iron artic les A.

D – 85. B – 70.C. One who offered C or D could not offer F.B.c) E. B d) C. F – 35 56) How many combinations were permitted? a) b) c) d) 4 5 6 7 57) How many candidates in a ll appeared for the examination? a) b) c) d) 120 130 140 380 58) How many candidates offered the combination A+B+C? a) b) c) d) 15 20 35 70 59) How many candidates combined C with D? a) b) c) d) 15 20 35 70 60) How many can didates offered B w ith F? a) 15 b) 20 c) 35 .A. six subjects were ava ilable for a candidate of which only three had to be offered under the follow ing conditions: One who offered A had to offer B a lso and vice versa.D.D. E Direction for questions 56 to 6 0: Read the information g iven below and answer the questions that follow:In an examination.A. The d istribution of the candidates over the subject s was as fol lows: A – 70. E – 70. C – 90. One who offered A could not offer E.

66 to 70) : Answer the questions on t he basis of the fol lowing tab le. the amount of investment ma de was the least as compared to average investment m ade by all the companies over the years? a) 1998 b) 1999 c) 2000 d) None of these 62) 63) 64) 65) In which year. the percentage change in the total amount of investment made is the hi ghest over its immediately preced ing year? a) 2002 b) 2000 c) 2001 d) None of these Directions (Q. has the a mount of investment made decreased continuo usly over the years? a) V b) IV c) III d) None of these In which year.d) 70 Directions (Q6 1 to 65) : These questions are based o n the data given in the fol lowing table showing investments made by the five companies over the year ( in lakh of rupees) Company \years I II III IV V Total 1998 40 58 62 66 30 256 1999 42 62 58 28 34 224 2000 100 46 54 66 64 330 2001 70 92 44 74 78 358 2002 150 84 32 96 94 456 61) Which com pany made m ore than 25percent of the total investment made b y all the companies in 2 001? a) I b) II c) IV d) None of these For which compan y has the amo unt of investment made incre ased continuo usly over the year? a) I b) II c) III d) V For which compan y. .

0 00 per 70) . Percentage of Results for Subjects College Maths Physics Chemistry Zoology Botany A 52 65 62 47 40 B 47 62 52 35 38 C 53 70 46 54 39 D 35 72 58 62 57 66) Taking all the co lleges in to account which subject has s hown highest percentage result? a) Chemistry b) Maths c) Zoology d) Physics Taking the performance in a ll the subjects into account which colle ge has shown highest le vel of percentage results? a) D b) A c) B d) C Seeing the performance of a ll the four col leges together wh ich combination of groups has s hown lowest le vel of percentage results? a) Zoology and Botany b) Physics and C hemistry c) Maths and Ph ysics d) Chemistry and Botan y Taking all the co lleges into account which subject has sh own lowest percentage result? a) Maths b) Physics c) Chemistry d) Botany 67) 68) 69) Taking the performance in a ll subjects in to account which col lege has shown lowest l evel? a) A b) B c) C d) D Direct ions (Q. 7 1 to 75) : These qu estions refer to the fo llowing circle graph showing the expen diture distr ibution of a certa in fami ly. The fam ily spend s Rs.11.Assume al l colleges sent equal number of candidates in al l subjects for the examination.

20 0 d) Rs.month.80 0 c) Rs.1.1. taxes and trans portation co mbined? a) 100 b) 110 c) 120 d) 126 How muc h more m oney per mo nth is spent by the family on food as co mpared to the rent? a) Rs.20 0 c) Rs.1.550 How muc h are its annual taxes? a) Rs.30 0 b) Rs.1.10 0 b) Rs.1.9. will be: a) Rs.2.2. 000 per month an d distribution on var ious items remain the same. EXPENDITURE DISTRIBUTION OF A CERTAIN FAMILY Entertainment 10% Clothing 15% Rent 20% Taxes 12% Transport Miscelleneous 8% 5% Food 30% 71) How muc h it spends o n Food per m onth? a) Rs.1.1. then the mo nthly ex penses on both.40 0 d) Rs.60 0 c) Rs.2.1.1.10 0 c) Rs.13.08 0 How man y degrees should there be in the central ang le showing c lothing.32 0 b) Rs.1.80 0 b) Rs.220 72) 73) 74) 75) .40 0 If the expenditure budget of the family is raised to Rs.34 0 d) Rs.3. the entertainment and the transport.50 0 d) Rs.

80) .Z Aus USA Canada Japan EEC Isreal India COUNTRIES Series1 76) The above chart shows : a) The annual yi eld of mi lk produced in each country b) Annual consumption of milk in each country c) Annual yield of m ilk produced per cattle in each country d) Annual yield of m ilk given by each animal in each country The runner up in the mi lk yield per catt le per year is: a) India b) U. 77) 78) 79) From the bar chart . it appears that the white revolution has been most successful in: a) India b) U.A. Z.A. d) Yearly per catt le yield of m ilk in Israel is three t imes that of N.S.Directions (Q. c) Per catt le year ly yield of mi lk in Austral ia and EEC equal that of Israe l.S. b) USA produces one tonne more milk per cattle than Japan. then it will : a) Exceed that of Israel b) Be equal that of Austra lia c) Be equal that of Canada d) Be 7 times mo re than that of N. c) Japan d) Inadequate data If the mi lk yield per catt le per year is increased by ten times in India . MILK YIELD FOR MAJOR COUNTRIES PER HEAD OF CATTLE PER HEAD MILK YIELD (TONNES PER YEAR) 12 10 8 6 4 2 0 N.Z. c) Japan d) Inadequate data Which of the fol lowing statement is cor rect? a) Per catt le yield of m ilk in Indi a is as much t hat of N. 76 to 80) Refer to the bar chart given be low to answer these question s.Z.

II .C and D appeared in four papers.III and IV in a test. 81 to 85): Production of differ Year \ types A B 1992 180 60 1993 210 90 1994 135 30 1995 190 85 1996 260 95 1997 240 140 ent types of sco oters in a compan y:C D E 84 100 76 32 80 48 44 95 85 69 125 115 120 80 120 161 90 185 81) In which year was the production of B-type scoo ter close to its a verage production over given years? a) 1995 b) 1993 c) 1992 d) 1994 In which year the production of D-type sc ooters was ma ximum? a) 1993 b) 1994 c) 1995 d) 1996 What was the ap proximate percen tage of production of A -type sco oter in 1 995 to its total production over the years? a) 20 b) 15 c) 23 d) 40 In which of the fol lowing pairs of years was the total production of E -type scooter two lakhs? a) 1993&1995 b) 1995&1997 c) 1994&1997 d) None 82) 83) 84) 85) In which year the total production of al l types of scooters was minimum? a) 1994 b) 1996 c) 1997 d) 1995 Directions: (Q.Directions ( Q. I.86 to 90): Four stude nts A. Their scores out of 100 a re given be low:- Students \papers I A 60 B 59 II 81 43 III 45 51 IV 55 A .B.

In the 1 3th Lok Sabha there were only 43 women MPs out of a total of 543. just o ne perusal of the female infant mortal ity figures. A lmost predictably. the manifestos of major politi cal parties have a lways encouraged women ’s partic ipation. opted for the last resort: a reser vation of seats for women in parl iament and State Assemblies. th is too was a mira ge. 86) Which candidate has secured betwee n 60-65 % mar ks in agreegate? a) A b) B c) C d) D Who has obtained the lowest avera ge in aggregate? a) A b) B c) C d) D Who has obtained the highest avera ge? a) A b) B c) C d) D 87) 88) 89) In which paper the lowest marks were obtained by the candidates? a) I b) II c) III d) IV Which candidate has secured the highest percentage in the papers appeared? a) A b) B c) C d) D 90) Comprehen sion The Constitution guarantees every c itizen the fundamental ri ght to equality. th is gender. it is not surprising figure. women ’s organization denied a pla ce on merit. . Read the above table and answer below mentioned question s 1-5. A las.C D 74 72 A 76 71 A 65 68 Where “A” stan ds for absen t. Part ies wh ich look at everything w ith a vote bank in mind seemed to en dorse this. Yet afte r 50 years of independe nce. the literacy rates and the employment opportunities for women is sufficient evidence that discrimination exists. It has been a charade. for never has women ’s representation in parl iament bee n more than 10 percent. Historically. So. b ias is evident in our polit ical system as wel l.

some p oliticians want the b ill to include further quotas for women from a mong minorit ies and backward castes. but refuse to hear any argument for Kashmir. the idea is the same. At a t ime when caste I the trump card. . B) Hence what should worry New De lhi is that the idea of holding referendum has won a fresh lease of life.1 Direction for questions 96 to 1 00: The sentences given in each question. making comparison odious. Each sentence is labeled with a letter. when properly sequenced. 91) The problem ra ised in the passage re flects badly on our a) Political system b) Socia l behav ior c) Indiv idual behavior d) Behav ior of group of peo ple 92) According to the passage. C) Strangely many Indians support the cause of Tibet and Eelam. but in al l three. A survey shows that there is a g enera l antipathy towards the bill. form a coherent paragraph. The reasons are ve ry clear: Men just do n’t wan t to vacate thei r seats of power.91 c) 43 d) 9.But there is another aspect also. There is more to it. the Scots held a referendum to install the ir own par liament and the da y may not be t oo far off when the Scots h old a refer endum on whet her to recede or not. D) The reason and histories certa inly are d ifferent. pol itical parties have mostly in mind a) Economic prosperity b) Vote bank c) Peoples we lfare d) Patriot ism 93) “Trump card” means a) Trying to move a dead horse b) Playing the card cautiously c) Sabotaging all the moves by others d) Mak ing the final jolt for success 94) The sentences “ Men ju st don’t want to vacate their seats of power” means a) Lust for power b) Desire to serve the nat ion c) Convict ion in ones own p olitical abilities d) Polit ical corruption 95) What is the percentage of women in the 1 3th Lok S abha? a) 10 b) 7. Choose the most logica l order of sentences from a mong the four given choices to construct a coherent paragraph. It is a classic case of double speak. 96) A) In United K ingdom.

BCDA b.a.DBCA A) The stories p lanted in the international media about the yields of the Indian tests highl ighted the l imitations of the mo nitoring system. you have to establish the same relationship with the other two objects. C) For even before internet shop ping can take roots and gain the acceptance of consumers.ABCD c.BCDA b. C) Such meas ures are likely to result in reduction in the term deposit rates. B) An international comparative study of elect ronic commerce cond ucted b y Consumers International. when there was a race to a cquire more and more nuclear weapons.ACBD d.BACD b. it is logical for US senators t o take the stand that Washington should not foreclose its right to continue with nuclear test ing.BDAC c. D) It p layed an important part in bring ing about sign ificant reduction in the nuclear arsena l of Russia and brought thro ugh various treat ies. found t hat internet sho pping is more r isky than the u sual visit to the market place . a.CABD Direction for questions 101 to 106: Two objects . B) In the ear ly days.DCBA A) Currently the term deposit rates of maturity of over three years are around 10 percent. B) US intelligence agenc ies have expressed reservat ions on their abi lity to detect small y ield tests. the Central Bank m ight dec ide to reduce the bank rates and the stipulated rat io of total deposits held by commercial banks to be mainta ined with the RBI. B) The continuous low inf lation rates at around tow percent might prom pt the RBI to take measures to reduce interest rates in the busy season credit policy to be ann ounced o n October 29.BACD A) The survey conducte d by 12 consu mer organizat ions which ordered more than 150 items from 17 countries has foun d that almost al l consu mer rights like safety and priva cy have been infr inged . t he problem was that of preventing the actual use of nuclea r weapons.ABCD 97) b. Ma laysia.BDCA c.DCBA d. events or concepts are re lated in some way.ABCD d. events or concept s on the basis of the alternat ives given below each questions: - .CBAD d. D) Consu mers wh o want to sh op through t he internet had better watch out. a. C) Pugwash was set up to enc ourage dialogue between the pol itical leadership and the scientif ic community to prevent things from gett ing out of hand .DCBA c. a) ABCD b)ACDB c)BDCA d)BCDA 98) 99) 100) A) And there hasn’t been any drastic increase in the number of nuclear weapons recently. I think we ha ve come far. C) While obfuscation on the China-Pakistan prol iferation axis may suit the US Presidents’s D) Presented with a p icture of nuclea r threats. several unfair t rade pract ices of reta ilers setting up sho ps on the world w ide web have come to l ight. D) To this end. a.

Cho ose the pair of words which best expresses t he relationship simi lar to that expressed in the capital ized pair . 106) Machines and Pull ies a) b) c) d) Knife and Fruits Car and Wheels Bread and Butter Iron and Do ors Chemistry and science 107) a) Painting and Arts b) Medic ine and Surgery c) Geography an d History .101) Light: Sun: : Heat : ? a) b) c) d) Electricity Moon Fire Star Parrot: Ca ge: : Man: ? 102) a) b) c) d) Home Motor car Prison Forest Disease : Health: : Freedom: ? 103) a) b) c) d) Slavery Pleasure Plight Beauty Ocean: Pond: : Deep? 104) a) b) c) d) River Canal Shallow Filthy Butter: Milk: : Oil: ? 105) a) b) c) d) Cow Seeds Curd Grains Direction for questions 107 to 110: Each question has a pair of c apita lized words followed by four pairs of words.

d) Law and culture 108) Carpenter and W ood a) b) c) d) Goldsmith and Gold Blacksmith and Iron Engineer and Machines All of these Class and Teacher 109) a) b) c) d) College and Pr incipa l Books and Librar ian Worksho p and Foreman All of these Writer and poet 110) a) b) c) d) Poems an d Songs Prose and Poetr y Books and Lesso ns Letters and Words Direction for questions 111 to 115: Two objects . events or concepts are re lated in some way. you have to establish the same re lationship with t he other two ob jects. events or concept s on the basis of the alternat ives given below each questions: 111) 12 : 35 : : 16: ? a) b) c) d) 63 32 28 55 17: 19 : : 47 : ? 112) a) b) c) d) 53 59 41 34 42 : 56 : : 110 : ? 113) a) b) c) d) 132 136 18 140 3: 10 : : 8 : ? 114) a) 10 .

gr eate r segmentation and increased mobility are the added factors. products and services c) it influences every aspect of life d) it brings out the glamour of modern lif e 117) 118) What is netizen-driven society? a) a society crazy about internet b) a society cr ippled by internet c) a society exploited by internet d) a society making the optimum use of internet What are the major concern s of cons umers? a) support for the Green Movement b) urge for natura l food c) environmental issues and increased mo bility d) health and food matters How would yo u describe the passage? a) informati ve b) educative c) instructiv e d) interest ing 119) 120) . Today. the Green Movement supported by media coverag e has been creating urge for natural food. cons umers have beco me quite concerned a bout health issues and are tak ing a great interest in food matters. markets a ll over the world a re going through a phase of metam orphosis. 116) What d oes the word ‘meta morphosis’ stan d for ? a) change in nature b) change in market c) change in life-sty le d) development in growth What is the unique role of v isual media? a) it creates new markets b) it regularly exposes a newer l ife-sty le.b) 13 c) 17 d) 14 115) 28: 126 : : 126 : ? a) b) c) d) 127 28 56 81 Direction for questions 116 to 120: Read the comprehen sion and a nswer the questio ns Due to the me dia commu nication explosion and the effect of g lobalization. Envi ronmental issues. products and services to the fast expanding netizen driven soci ety. The visual media is regularly exposing a newer life-sty le. Besides.

Kha re (c) Justice R. K rishna (b) Uma Bharti (c) Yediurappa (d) Y. S. Nair 122) Who a mong the fol lowing is the new Chie f Minister of Karnataka ? (a) S. K. Rajasekhara Reddy 123) Who a mong the fol lowing has won the Miss Universe 2004 crown ? (a) Jennifer Haw kins (b) Shandi Finnessey (c) Alba Reyes (d) None of these 124) A solemn ceremony to mark the 60th Anniversary of D-Day landings of the A llies troops during the Second World War. N. M. C. Sorabjee (d) T. A.121) Who among the following has been appointed the National Secur ity Adv iser by the UPA Gov ernment ? (a) Brajesh M ishra (b) Shiv shankar menon (c) Soli J. was he ld in (a) Pearl Harbour (b) Norman dy (c) New York (d) Lisbon 125) Which of the fol lowing c ricketers holds the world record of maximum number of sixes in Tests ? (a) Chris Carins (Ne w Zealand) (b) Viv Richards (West Indies) (c) Sachin Tendulkar (India) (d) Wasim Akram (Pa kistan) 126) Who a mong the fol lowing has been appointed the new C hief Justice of India ? (a) Justice Rajendra Babu (b) Justice V. Lahoti (d) None of these 127) Who among the following sports persons got the honour of lighting the O lympic f lame at the Major Dhyan Chand Sta dium .

Beenamol 128) Who a mong the fol lowing has been appointed new chairman of the Nat ional Commission for Farmers ? (a) Ajit Singh (b) K. C. S. Meenakshi (d) S. M.in New De lhi recently ? (a) Anjal i Bhagwat (b) Abhinav B indra (c) Viswanathan Anan d (d) K. Pant (c) Dr. Swam inathan (d) Sharad Pawar 129) Which of the fol lowing p lanets crossed the face of the sun (in trans it) after 122 years rec ently ? (a) Mars (b) Venus (c) Jupiter (d) Saturn Which of the fol lowing countries was readmitted to the Commo nwealth recently ? (a) Nepal (b) Myanmar (c) Pakistan (d) None of these 130) 131) The wor ld gove rning body of which of the fol lowing sports celebrated its 100 years in existence recent ly ? (a) Football (b) Hockey (c) Badminton (d) Cricket 132) Wh o among the fol lowing won the men? s singles t itle of the French Open 2004 ? (a) Guillermo Coria (b) Roger Federer (c) Andy R oddick (d) Gaston Gau dio 133) Who is India?s f irst Woman Grand Master in Chess ? (a) Aarthie Ramaswamy (b) Koneru Hu mpy (c) S. Vijaya lakshmi . M.

which one of the fol lowing were the f irst to come to India as traders ? (a) Portuguese (b) Dutch .134) The age of a tree can be determined by (a) Measuring its he ight (b) Measuring its diameter (c) Analyzing its sap (d) Counting the annual growth rings of its stem Which one of the following pairs is not correct ly matched ? Mountains Continent s (a) The Rocky : North America (b) The Andes : South America (c) The A lps : Europe (d) The Ural : Africa Which of the fol lowing pa irs is corre ctly matched ? (a) ?Purna Swaraj? Resolution : (b) Martyrdom of Sardar Bhagat S ingh : (c) Formation of the Co ngress Social ist Party : (d) Simla Confeence : 135) 136) 1929 1931 1939 1940 137) The Lingaraja Temple bui lt during the medie val period is at (a) Bhubaneswar (b) Khajuraho (c) Madurai (d) Mount Ab u Which one of the following is essentia lly a solo dance ? (a) Kuchipudi (b) Kathak (c) Manipuri (d) Mohiniattam The deepest oceanic trench ?Mar iana? is located in (a) Atlanti c Ocean (b) Arctic Ocean (c) Pacific Ocean (d) Indian Ocean 138) 139) 140) Although fog consists of fine drops of water. we c annot see c learly through it because (a) The light rays undergo total internal reflection in the drops (b) Fine drops of water in fog polar ize the light (c) The fine drops are opaque to t he light (d) The drops scatter most of the li ght 141) During the Mugha l period.

Kamet (d) Kanchenj unga A rift valley is formed mainly due to (a) The forces of tension in the earth?s crust (b) The subsidence of the floor of a river valley (c) The valley fo rmed after the formation of fold mountains (d) The deepening of a valley by ice action 143) 144) 145) Who is the author of the book. ?The Man Who Divided India? ? (a) Arun Sho urie (b) Dominique Lapierre (c) Rafiq Zakaria (d) Salman Rush die By what name do we know the Mah omedan Anglo -Oriental School? a) Banaras Hindu Un iversity b) Aligarh Musl im University c) Mumbai University d) Delh i University Who c onfers the National c ivil and gal lantry awards? a) Prime M inister b) Chief M inisters c) Pres ident d) Defence M inister What are cal led ‘Kabas’ at the Karni Dev i temple at Deshnok in Rajasthan? a) Cats b) Tigers c) Rats d) Rabbits In which capita l city is the Charbagh Rai lway Stadium is located? a) Ahmedabad b) Chen nai c) Bang alore 146) 147) 148) 149) .(c) (d) 142) Danish Engl ish Who a mong the fol lowing Delhi Sultans is known for introducing market control mechanism ? (a) Iltutmish (b) Balban (c) Alauddin Khalj i (d) Firoze Tughlaq Which one of the following mountain peaks of the Himalayas is NO T in India ? (a) Annap urna (b) Nanda Devi (c) Mt.

no 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90 Ans B D C B B D A A D B A B D A C C B B B D C C D B A A B A B D Q.d) Lucknow 150) Pandit Jasraj is the le ading exponent of which gharana? a) The mewat i b) The Pars i c) Agarwa ls d) None of these ANS WER Q.no 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 Ans B B D A D C C D C A C C A C B B A D D B A A A C B A B D D A Q.no 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 Ans B B D A A C D C C C D A C A C A C D B D C A B A A A C B D C Q.no Ans 1 A 2 C 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 C B B C D C C B B B A B D D C A D A D D B B D D C B B A Q.no 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150 Ans B C A B A C A C B C A D B D D B A D C D A C A A C B C C D A .

Design of Jigs and Fixtures and Press Tools (xiii) Operations Research. Processing of Plastics and Computer Aided Manufacturing (xii) Product Design. Other Topics (i)Mechanics and Machine Design (ii) Material Science and Metallurgy (iii) Thermo dynamics (iv) Refrigeration and Air Conditioning (v) Production Technology (vi) Automotive Engines (vii) Automotive Transmission (viii) Strength of Materials (ix) Casting. Electrical (Code 03) Mathematics (i) Vector calculus (ii) Determinants and Matrices (iii) Analytic function theory (iv) Calculus and ordinary Differential Equations (v) Numerical Methods (vi) Probability and Statistics. metal forming and metal joining processes (x) Tool Engineering. PROG RAM M ES The questions will be set at the corresponding degree level. Other Topics (i) Mechanics of Solids and Structural Analysis (ii) Concrete and Steel Structure (iii) Soil Mechanics and Geo Technical Engineering (iv) Fluid Mechanics and Water Resources Engineering (v) Environmental Engineering (vi) Surveying (vii) Transportation Engineering (viii) Remote Sensing (ix) Geographic Information Systems (GIS). SYLLABUS Civil (Code 01) Mathematics (i) Vector calculus (ii) Determinants and Matrices (iii) Analytic function theory (iv) Calculus and ordinary Differential Equations (v) Numerical Methods (vi) Probability and Statistics.PAT TERN OF ENTR ANC E EXAMINATI ON . (xiv) Operations Management (xv) Quality Control Reliability and Maintenance. Mechanical (Code 02) Mathematics (i) Vector calculus (ii) Determinants and Matrices (iii) Analytic function theory (iv) Calculus and ordinary Differential Equations (v) Numerical Methods (vi) Probability and Statistics. Each correct answer carries 3 marks and each wrong answer carries negative mark of 1. The question paper consists of 100 questions with duration of 150 mts. . Cost Estimate. Process Planning. Metrology and inspection (xi) Engineering Materials.TECH . The questions will be of scholastic aptitude type. Machine tool operation.2010 For M .

Other Topics (i) Discrete Mathematical Structures (ii) Micro Processor and Hardware Systems (iii) Computer Organization and Architecture (iv) System Programming including Assemblers. Chemical (Code 07) Mathematics (i) Vector calculus (ii) Determinants and Matrices (iii) Analytic function theory (iv) Calculus and ordinary Differential Equations (v) Numerical Methods (vi) Probability and Statistics.Other Topics (i) Circuit Theory (ii) Network Analysis and Synthesis (iii)DC & AC Machines (iv) Electronic Circuits (v) Power Electronics (vi) Control Systems (vii) Power System Analysis (viii) Microprocessors. Computer Science (Code 06) Mathematics (i) Vector calculus (ii) Determinants and Matrices (iii) Analytic function theory (iv) Calculus and ordinary Differential Equations (v) Numerical Methods (vi) Probability and Statistics. Data Structures and Algorithms (vi) Database Systems (vii) Computer Networks. . Other Topics (i) Electron Devices (ii) Linear and Digital Integrated Circuits (iii) Electronic circuits (vi) Transducers and Industrial Instrumentation (v) Microprocessors and Microcontrollers (vi) Network Analysis (vii) Control systems (viii) Biomedical Instrumentation (ix) Electrical and Electronic measurements and instrumentation (x) Process control. Compilers and Operating Systems (v) Programming Methodology. Other Topics (i) Networks (ii) Electronic Devices (iii) Analog Circuits (iv) Digital circuits and microprocessors (v) Signals and Systems (vi) Control Systems (vii) Communications (viii) Electromagnetics Instrumentation (Code 05) Mathematics (i) Vector calculus (ii) Determinants and Matrices (iii) Analytic function theory (iv) Calculus and ordinary Differential Equations (v) Numerical Methods (vi) Probability and Statistics. Electronics (Code 04) Mathematics (i) Vector calculus (ii) Determinants and Matrices (iii) Analytic function theory (iv) Calculus and ordinary Differential Equations (v) Numerical Methods (vi) Probability and Statistics.

Other Topics (i) Environmental Pollution (ii) Environmental Biotechnology (iii) Thermodynamics (iv) Ecology (v) Environmental Conservation (vi) Water Resources (vii) Ecology and Sustainable Development (viii) Remote Sensing (ix) Energy and Environmental (x) Environmental Impact Assessment (xi) Current Topics in Environmental Sciences (xii) Soil Pollution and Solid Waste Management (xiii) Natural Hazards (xiv) Environmental and Occupational Health . Bio Technology (Code 08) Cell Structure – Function – Properties of Nucleic Acids . Softwares – Data base Management – Electronic Surveying – GPS – EDM – Radar – Hydrology – Geological Remote Sensing – Soils – Pollution – Coastal zone – Urban Planning – Disaster.Other Topics (i) Chemical process calculations (ii) Chemical Process Industries (iii) Mechanical Operations (iv) Fluid Mechanics (v) Heat Transfer (vi) Mass Transfer (vii) Thermodynamics (viii) Chemical Reaction Engineering (ix ) Instrumentation & Control (x) Process Engineering Economics. Other Topics Probability Theory – Physics of Remote Sensing – Sensor – Electromagnetic Radiation – Satellites – Photogrammetry – Surveying – Cartography – Digital Image Processing – GIS – Hardwares. Recombinant proteins – Microbial Growth Kinetics – Biosaftey – Bioethics and Intellectual Property Rights – Bio conversion – Fermentation Kinetics – Bioreactors. Environmental (Code 10) Mathematics (i) Vector calculus (ii) Determinants and Matrices (iii) Analytic function theory (iv) Calculus and ordinary Differential Equations (v) Numerical Methods (vi) Probability and Statistics.Protein Synthesis – Gene Manipulation – Transgenic Microbes.Genomics and Proteomics – Computer Applications in Bio Technology -Nano Biotechnology – Application of Bio Technology – Systems Biotechnology. GIS (Code 09) Mathematics (i) Vector calculus (ii) Determinants and Matrices (iii) Analytic function theory (iv) Calculus and ordinary Differential Equations (v) Numerical Methods (vi) Probability and Statistics. Plants and Animals – Metabolism and Bio Energetics – Gene Regulation – Enzyme Kinetics – Fermentation Process – Production of commercially important enzymes.

Heat Exchangers. design. size reduction and mixing. aseptic processing. properties of food. Conduction. Ideal Gas Mixtures and Psychometrics. Growth. Heat transfer in bioprocesses. stains and staining techniques. types. distillation. Enzymes-production-primary and secondary metabolites. extrusion. Basic bioprocess engineering and reactor concepts. isolation of microorganism. Fermentation-Process. Coenzymes. Fermented food products. mechanical separations. Heat Transfer through a Composite Wall. Elements in protein bio synthesis-Nucle ic acids and their importance. Downstream processin g unit operations. pasteurization. Forced Convection. One-dimensional Heat Conduction. non-thermal food processing. nutrition and physiology of microorganism. Fluid flow and mixing in bioreactors. Process instrumentation Food Engineering: Dimensions and units. Vitamins and their functions in the body. bakery and confectionary. Energy Balances/Conservation of Energy. mass and energy balances. application in food industry. Mass transfer in bioprocess. Cofactors. Food safety and waste management. identification. Elements of carbohydrates. . sugar cane processing.Food Processing (Code 11) Bioprocess Engineering: Properties of Vapors and Gases. fat and protein metabolism. dairy plant engineering. fat and oil processing. Steady-state Heat Transfer. meat and poultry processin g. microbial spoilage in food. Food Requirements. cereal processing. food preservation. crystallization. Minerals and their functions in body. Reaction and cell growth kinetics. Evaporation. beneficial microorganism. storage. blanching. Overall Heat Transfer Coefficient. drying. Entropy. Radiation Heat Transfer. food packaging technology Biochemistry and nutrition: Enzymes. material handling. microbial genetics. Stoichiometry . Elements of photosynthesis . probiotic and prebiotic. sterilization. Microbiology: Microorganism. diseases and control.

0) b) (0. d) one 3. 6.1) 5.Tech Civil (Section code 01) 1.0) Solution of Differential equation (a) c) b) d) is analytic at the print (a) (0. Radius of curvature of (a) b) at c) is d) is d) (1. Probability of getting one head when two coins are based is a) b) c) d) Run of the matrix a) 2 b) 3 is c) 1 d) zero is 9.1) is 4.0) d) Nowhere analytic 7.MODEL QUESTIONS – M. Saddle point of the function (a) (a. The sum of eigen values of A2 where A = a) 11 b) 12 c) 13 d) 14 .a) b) c) (a. c) (1. 10. Order of convergence in Newton-Raphson method is (a) One b) Two c) Three d) Four 8. Maximum directional derivative of a scalar point function a) b) c) Zero d) none of these The value of curl (grad ) is (a) b) c) Zero is 2.

What is the right support moment reaction a) 37. and moment of inertia 2. A cantilever is subjected to a) Always sagging moment b) Always hogging moment c) Both sagging and hogging moments together d) Can not say A simply supported beam of span 6000 mm is subjected to a udl of 30000 N/m.5 kNm b) 98. Young’s modulus 2. 17.39 X 109 mm4 .75 X 105 N/mm2 c) 2.5 X 105 N/mm2 d) none of the above.000415 d) 0. A steel bar of length 2m.5 kNm c) 120 kNm d) 112.278 b) 3. If the modulus of elasticity is 2.003. 13.00083 and the longitudinal strain 0. the maximum deflection is a) 1 mm b) 0.10 m c) 10 mm d) 1m A fixed beam of span 8 m supports a load of 100 kN at 6m from left end.61 c) 0. X 105 N/mm2 is subjected to a rise in temperature of 500 C.30.1 X 105 N/mm2. area of cross section 50 mm2 . the bulk modulus is a) 3 X 105 N/mm2 b) 1. 14. 15. and Poisson’s ratio 0.015 For a material if the Young’s modulus is 2.5N/mm2 c) 0 d) 60 N/mm2 In an experiment conducted on a metal bar the lateral strain was found to be 0. 12. The Poisson’s ratio is a) 0.1 X 104 N/mm2 .5 kNm The central reaction of a two span continuous beam of equal spans of ‘l’ each subjected to a udl of w per unit length is 2wl a) 8 3wl b) 8 4wl c) 8 5wl d) 4 .11. 16. If the bar is free to expand the stress induced in the bars is a) 100N/mm2 b) 58.

The reaction at the spring support is a) 5 kN b) 10 kN c) 0. 24. 33 kN b) 66. 21.18.5 kN d) 0. 26. single storey portal frame with two roller supports is a) Stable .10kN The conjugate beam of an over hanging beam with overhangs on both sides has a) 4 simple supports b) 2 internal hinges with ends free c) 2 ends fixed and two internal hinges d) two fixed supports A single bay.67 kN c) 16. The reaction at the left support of a simply supported beam of span 8 m subjected to a uniformly varying load of zero intensity at left support and 25 kN/m at right end is a) 33. 22. 25. 19. 23.16 kN d) none of the above The degree of static indeterminacy of a two bay single storey frame whose supports are hinged is a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 5 The degree of kinematic indeterminacy of a fixed beam is a) 0 b) 1 c) 2 d) 3 A three hinged arch is a) Statically determinate b) Statically indeterminate c) externally indeterminate. internally determinate d) none of the above  36 − 12 The value of a21 of the stiffness matrix of a structure   is a 21 12  a) 12 b) -12 c) 36 d) -36 In matrix method of analysis the size of the flexibility matrix for a 3 span continuous beam using force method is a) 1 X 1 b) 2 X 2 c) 3 X 3 d) 4 x 4 A beam has a spring support of stiffness of 100 kN/m and it undergoes a displacement of 5 mm due to applied loads. 20.

32. 33. The reaction at the right end is a) 6 kN upwards b) 24 kN upwards c) 24 kN downwards d) 24 kN upwards Highway plan for India was first formulated in 1943 at a conference held at a) Madras b) Bomby c) Hyderabad d) Nagpur In a contour map the contour interval is 15 m and the ruling gradient is 1 in 20. The proposed road length between two consecutive contours is a) 150 m b) 200 m c) 300 m d) 400 m Chose from following which is not associated with sight distances a) Stopping sight distance b) Overtaking sight distance c) Minimum distance of visibility of an object from the seat of the driver d) Safe sight distance for entering the uncontrolled intersections Lemniscate is a a) Transition curve b) Term associated with extra widening of horizontal curve c) Term associated with speed of vehicles . The effective length of column fixed at one end and hinged at the other is a) 0. b) Unstable c) Determinate and stable d) Indeterminate and stable The position of the moving load for the occurrence of maximum bending moment at a section located at L/3 from left support of a simply supported beam is a) At mid span b) At L/3 from right support c) At L/3 from left support d) None of the above The distribution of bending and shear stresses across a rectangular section. 34. 30. 28.5L b) 2L c) L L d) 2 A simply supported beam of span 6 m is subjected to a clockwise couple of 36 kNm at 4 m from left end. respectively is a) Parabolic and linear b) Linear and parabolic c) Linear and spiral d) Linear and exponential 29.27. 31.

0763 N/m and the angle of contact is 60 0. 40.97-1.35-1. 38.3 kN .286 X 10 -4 m b) 5. the speed of vehicles is 50 kmph and average centre to centre spacing of vehicles is 12 m. 41.5-1.02 Double clover leaf is a) A type of grade separator at an intersection b) A type of tree grown on the pathway c) A type of horizontal transition curve d) A type of vertical curve The dimensions of coefficient of viscosity are a) FL -2T b) FL -2T2 c) F 2L-2T d) FL-2T -1 A capillary tube of inside diameter 5 mm is dipped in water.286 X 10 -3 m c) 5.286 X 10 -2 m The total pressure on a rectangular plate of dimensions 0. the capillary rise is a) 5. 43. The capacity of the road is a) 600 b) 2500 c) 144 d) 4167 CBR stands for a) California Bending Resistance b) California Bending Reaction c) California Bearing Reaction d) California Bearing Ratio Westergaard method of highway design is associated with a) Bituminous pavement b) WBM c) Earthen pavement d) Rigid pavement The spacing of expansion joints of a rigid pavement with smooth interface at joint and laid in winter is a) 50-60 m b) 100-140 m c) 90-120 m d) < 50 m 39.6 kN b) 10.8 b) 2. 37.286 X 10 -5 m d) 5.6m X 1m placed with its shorter side horizontal. 42. is a) 20. If the surface tension is 0. the surface being immersed vertically in water and the upper edge being 3 m below free surface.8 c) 1.5-2. Specific gravity of bitumen is a) 1. 36.38 d) 0. d) A type of grade separator In a single lane road.35.

57 kN d) none of the above Pelton wheel will be a preferred turbine under a) Low head.44. high discharge d) Low head high discharge The Kharif season is characterized by . The most economical rectangular channel has a depth of flow equals to a) half the breadth b) ¼ of breadth c) breadth d) twice the breadth The force generated by a 50 mm diameter water jet against a flat plate held normal to axis of stream whose velocity is 40 m/s is a) 3. c) 41. 47. 51. low discharge c) High head. 45. The resultant velocity at (2.2 kN d) 5. the stream function is given by ψ = 2x2-y2 .3) is a) 2 b) 10 c) -2 d) 12 Reynold’s number is the ratio of a) b) c) d) Inertia forces pressure forces Inertia forces gravity forces Inertia forces viscous forces Inertia forces surface forces 46.15 kN In a fluid flow. To measure low discharges the preferable notch is a) Rectangular b) Trapezoidal c) Circular d) Triangular Hydraulic depth in open channel flow is ratio of area of cross sec tion a) top width area of cross sec tion b) bottom width area of cross sec tion c) depth of flow area of cross sec tion d) wetted perimeter 48. 49.20 kN b) 6. 50. low discharge b) High head.28 kN c) 1.

0. The hydraulic mean radius is a) 1. 59. 53.015. 56.71m2 .2885 m and area of cross section 12. 54.52.57m Which one of the following does not belong to canal regulation structure? a) Canal drop b) Cross regulator c) Canal escape d) Super passage A siphon aqueduct is provided a) As outlet in dams b) When canal crosses a river whose HFL is less than the FSL of the canal c) When canal crosses a river whose HFL is more than the FSL of the canal d) When canal crosses a river whose HFL is equal to FSL of the canal In canal headworks cutoffs are provided a) To prevent cavitation b) To guard against scouring and piping c) To control floods d) To prevent road vehicles falling into canal The suitable type of dam in a plain terrain with broad valleys is a) Masonry dam b) Arch dam c) Concrete dam d) Earthen embankment dam Freeboard in a dam is 58.5 m.67m d) 1.42 m b) 0. irrigated over an area of 10 sq. 55. bed slope of 1 in 1600. The discharge is a) 50 m3 b) 25 m3 c) 15 m3 d) 29 m3 Regime of flow in an open channel is characterized by a) Plane bed with no motion b) Ripples and dunes c) Transition d) All of the above A trapezoidal channel of side slope 1H:2V has a depth of flow of 2 m and a base width of 16. 60.0242 m c) 0. the duty is a) 2. a) Less number of rainy days b) Rise in temperature c) Large number of rainy days d) None of the above For a particular crop. . km with a base period of 28 days.242 m d) none of the above A canal has a hydraulic mean radius of 1.87m c) 1. 57. Manning’s constant.77m b) 1.

61.

62.

63.

64.

65.

a) Extra vertical distance between the reservoir bed and crest of embankment b) Extra vertical distance between the foot of spillway and crest of embankment c) Extra vertical distance between the still water surface in the reservoir and crest of embankment d) Extra vertical distance between the canal outlet and crest of embankment Value of E adopted for structural steel sections in code is a) 210 MPa b) 210 GPa c) 210 Pa d) 2.1 X 10 4N/mm2 Minimum thickness of steel directly exposed to weather and is fully accessible for cleaning and repairing is a) 3 mm b) 4 mm c) 5 mm d) 6 mm When steel structural members are designed for wind load combination, the stresses are a) Increased by 33% b) Decreased by 33% c) Increased by 25% d) Decreased by 25% The permissible stresses axial tension in steel is a) 0.66fy b) 0.45f y c) 0.50f y d) 0.60fy Rivets subjected to both shear and axial tension are designed to satisfy
τ vf , cal τ vf τ vf , cal τ vf σ tf ,cal σ tf σ tf ,cal σ tf

a) b) c) d) 66.

+ +

≤ 1 .0 ≤ 1 .4

τ vf , cal τ vf
τ vf , cal τ vf

+
+

σ tf ,cal σ tf σ tf ,cal
σ tf

≤ 1.1
≤ 1 .2

Minimum pitch of rivets shall not be less than a) 3.5 times the nominal diameter of the rivet b) 2.5 times the nominal diameter of the rivet c) 4.5 times the nominal diameter of the rivet d) 5.5 times the nominal diameter of the rivet

67.

In plastic analysis the shape factor of rectangular section is

68.

69.

70.

71.

72.

73.

74.

75.

76.

a) 1.67 b) 1.1 c) 2.1 d) none of the above Purlins are designed for a) Bending about major axis only b) Bending about minor and major axes c) Shear only d) Axial tension only Lacings are provided a) In gantry girders b) Plate girders c) Tension members d) Compression members In pitched roof sheds, for normally adopted slopes the wind acts a) Away from the roofing sheet b) Towards the roofing sheet c) Horizontally d) None of the above The modulus of elasticity of concrete of grade 25 is a) 2.5 X 104 N/mm2 b) 2.5 X 105N/mm2 c) 2.85 X 104 N/mm2 d) 2.85 X 105 N/mm2 For making concrete the pH value of water shall not be less than a) 3 b) 4 c) 5 d) 6 In accordance with IS456:2000, M55 concrete falls under a) Low strength category b) Ordinary strength category c) Standard strength category d) High strength category The maximum workability is required for a) Blinding concrete b) Tremie concrete c) Strip footings d) columns Minimum amount of cement content required for RCC exposed to moderate weather conditions is a) 420 kg/m3 b) 380 kg/m3 c) 360 kg/m3 d) 300 kg/m3 The effective flange width of ‘L’ beam may be taken as a) l0/12 + bw+3Df b) l0/18 + bw+3Df c) l0/6 + bw+3Df d) l0/4 + bw+3Df

77.

For cantilever beams, the basic value of span to effective depth ratio shall not be greater than a) 7 b) 20 c) 26 d) 6 A RCC compression member may be considered as short when a) Le x/D is less than 12 b) Le y/b is less thn 12 c) Le x /D or Ley/b less than 12 L + Ley d) ex is less than 12 b+ D Partial safety factor for steel in RCC is a) 1.25 b) 1.15 c) 1.05 d) 0.95 In limit state of collapse, in flexure, the maximum strain in the tension reinforcement in the section at failure is fy a) 0.002 + 1.15E s b) 0.0035 + c) 0.002 +
fy

78.

79.

80.

1.15 E s fy
fy

1.5E s

81.

82.

83.

84.

1 .5 E s The limiting value of depth of neutral axis depends on a) Grade of steel reinforcement and grade of concrete b) Grade of steel and depth of section c) Grade of concrete alone d) None of the above Shear reinforcement may be provided in the form of a) Vertical stirrups b) Inclined stirrups c) Bent up bars along with stirrups d) All of above The pitch of 6 mm diameter transverse reinforcement in a RCC column of cross section 300 mm X 500 mm, with 12mm diameter longitudinal reinforcement is a) 300 mm b) 190 mm c) 250 mm d) 200 mm The maximum permissible percentage of longitudinal reinforcement in RCC column is a) 3% b) 6%

d) 0.0035 +

85.

86.

87.

88.

89.

90.

91.

92.

c) 9% d) 10% A slab of 150 mm thickness is provided with HYSD distribution bars. The spacing of 8 mm bars is a) 275 mm b) 300 mm c) 450 mm d) 150 mm The unit weight of undisturbed soil sample in wet condition is 18 kN/m3 ant its water content was found to be 8%. The dry unit weight of soil is a) 1.67 kN/m3 b) 16.7 kN/m3 c) 15 kN/m3 d) 14 kN/m3 For a sample of soil the liquid limit is 50% , the plastic limit is 30% and the flow index is 27. The toughness index is a) 0.67 b) 0.57 c) 0.90 d) none of the above The capillary rise in a soil with effective diameter D10 ,0.05 mm, void ratio 0.45, and empirical constant C as 0.5 is a) 3.3 m b) 2.2 m c) 1.2 m d) none of the above If the backfill of a retaining wall has a surcharge of 15 kN/m2, the active pressure at the base of the retaining wall located 3 m below the backfill, assuming an angle of repose of 300 is a) 15 kN/m2 b) 45 kN/m2 c) 5 kN/m2 d) 22.5 kN/m2 The bearing capacity calculated using Terzaghi’s equation for a purely cohesionless soil of unit weight 17 kN/m3for a strip footing of breadth 2m if there is no surcharge, assuming Nf = 20 is a) 300 kN/m2 b) 310 kN/m2 c) 320 kN/m2 d) 340 kN/m2 The time taken by a 6m thick doubly drained layer of clay to consolidate by 50% of ultimate settlement, if Cv=0.03 X 10-4/min. and time factor = 0.197 a) 947 days b) 1894 days c) 473 days d) none of the above In a chain survey, before commencement of the survey the chain was found to be exactly 30 m. But after measuring 1000 m it was found to be 100 mm too long. The correct length of the line is a) 996.68 m b) 998.34 m

The ultimate I stage BOD with reaction constant of 0. Population of a certain town in 2001 was 60000.67 m The whole circle bearing of N 650 12 ‘ E is a) 1550 12’ b) 650 12’ c) 1140 48’ d) none of the above Three sides of a triangular area are 10 m. 97. If annual rate of growth of population is 2%.20/day is a) 444 mg/l b) 333 mg/l c) 222 mg/l d) 111 mg/l .9% of water b) 89.8 million liters of raw water per day for a detention period of 5 hours is a) 475 m3 b) 375 m3 c) 575 m3 d) 675 m3 Slow sand filters have a bacterial removal efficiency of a) 98%-99% b) 92%-93% c) 89%-90% d) 88%-89% Sewage is made up of a) 99.93.9% of water A sewage has a 5 day BOD at 200 C 200 mg/l.9% of water c) 79.284 and 1.9% of water d) 69. 94.40 and 100. c) 1003.5 m2 b) 59. The additive and multiplying constants of the tacheometer respectively are 0. The distance between the instrument and the staff station is a) 10 m b) 20 m c) 30 m d) none of the above 96. The enclosed area is a) 18. 98.780. and 12 m.81 m2 c) 108 m2 d) 112. the projected population in 2031 will be a) 208681 b) 108681 c) 106881 d) 108861 Volume of water tank required to treat 1.33 m d) 1001. 100. 99.68 m2 The stadia readings with a horizontal sight on a vertical staff were 1. 15 m. 95.

Saddle point of the function (b) (a. d) one 3. Two links which are fixed b. Maximum directional derivative of a scalar point function a) b) c) Zero d) none of these The value of curl (grad ) is (b) b) c) Zero is 2. Order of convergence in Newton-Raphson method is (b) One b) Two c) Three d) Four 8.a) b) c) (a. A kinematic pair is a joint of a.Mechanical (Section code 02) 1. The sum of eigen values of A2 where A = a) 11 b) 12 c) 13 d) 14 11.0) d) Nowhere analytic 7. Probability of getting one head when two coins are based is a) b) c) d) Run of the matrix a) 2 b) 3 is c) 1 d) zero is 9. Radius of curvature of (b) b) at c) is d) is d) (1.1) is 4.0) b) (0. Two links having same velocity .0) Solution of Differential equation (b) c) b) d) is analytic at the print (b) (0.1) 5. 10. c) (1. 6.

In simple harmonic motion. Double slider crank chain b. Four bar chain d. Have three instantaneous centres and these three centres lie on a straight line c. A bolt and nut form a a. n b 2 n c. If a mechanism has n-links. (n-2) binary joints d. To serve as a support d. 2π k g k 2g 19. None of the above 12. 17. the joint is equivalent to a.c. Crossed slider crank chain 16. Have two instantaneous centre and these two centres lie on a circle . 2π h g 2k g b. then the number of instantaneous centres would be equal to n(n − 1) a. All of the above b. The minimum period of a compound pendulum is equal to a. Transmit motion c. (n-1) 2 The Ackermann steering gear is the inversion of a a. d. The function of an element is to a. acceleration is proportional to a. Square of velocity 18. Square of displacement b. To guide other elements 14. Two links having relative motion between them d.(2n-1) binary joints 15. Velocity d. 2π d. b. 2π c. Spherical pair If ‘n’ links are connected at the same joint. Rolling pair d. Having three instantaneous centres and these these centres lie on a curved line b. Screw pair 13. (n-3) binary joints b. (n-1) binary joints c. Slider crank chain c. Turning pair c. Displacement c. Have only one instantaneous centre d. Kennedy’s theorem states that any three bodies moving relatively to each other a.

Instantaneous value of ω b.In which of the following mechanism. Whitworth quick return mechanism c. 27. endurance limit stress/working stress d. ultimate stress/working stress b. The equivalent co-efficient of friction for V-threads is a)equal to actual coefficient of friction b)less than actual co-efficient of friction c) greater than actual co-efficient of friction d) none of the above 25. For a solid shaft of diameter D. equal to 50% d. Tangent cam mechanism d. for a component subjected to fatigue loading. none of the above A machine is said to be self-locking if efficiency of the machine is a. geometry and material of the component d. The product of moment of inertia and angular velocity is known as a. π D3 64 b. 21. both a) and b) d. none of the above 28. the coriolis component of acceleration exists a. is given by a. less than 50% 24. it fails under stresses considerably lower than the ultimate stress. none of the above 26. π D3 32 . creep b.overstrain The factor of safety. All of the above 20. Kinetic energy b. angular torque d. The rate at which the axis of spin changes its speed c. more than 50% c. geometry of the machine component b. ultimate stress/endurance limit stress c. When a material is subjected to varying stresses. none of the above 22.stress concentration d. Angular momentum c. material of the machine component c. Stress concentration factor is a function of a. Such type of failure of material is known as a. the polar modulus of section is equal to a. shaper mechanism b. fatigue c. equal to 100% 23. b. The gyroscopic acceleration depends upon a.

whose upper and lower deviation is zero 33.thread b. elasticity d. yield point d. upper limit d. two times c. Hook’s law holds good up to a. proportional limit c. The ratio of lateral strain to longitudinal strain is called a. C= mE 2( m + 1) 2( m + 1) mE 38. whose upper deviation is zero d. C= mE 3(m − 2) 3(m − 2) mE b. basic size b. lower limit c. whose lower deviation is zero b. π D4 64 If the diameter of a solid shaft is increased two times. increases by hot working b. Poisson’s ratio c.c.S. eight times b. acme thread 34. C= c. ductility b. four times d. 29. elastic limit b. increased by cold working c. the torque transmitted will be a. C= d.plasticity c. decreases by cold working d. modulus of rigidity b. bulk modulus d. If ‘L’ be the length and ‘D’ be the diameter of a cylindrical rod. Basic shaft is one a. sixteen times 30. B. actual size 32. The modulus of elasticity (E) and modulus of rigidity c) are related by a.resilience 37.W. The property of a material by virtue of which a body returns to its original shape after removal of the load is known as a. Which one of the following threads is not used for transmission of power ? a. plastic limit 35. π D3 16 d. none of the above 31. none of the above c. The smallest permissible size for a dimension is known as a. then volumetric strain of the rod is equal to . buttress thread d. modulus of elasticity 36. Fatigue strength a. Square thread c.

the plane normal to the axis of Loading carries a. parabola with maximum ordinate at the cantilever end c. Mohr’s circle is used to determine the stresses on an Oblique plane a. The maximum shear stress induced in a member which is subjected to an axial load is equal to a. maximum normal stress c.000 kgf. 1000 kgf c. maximum c. minimum In which of the following cases. minimum normal stress c. any one of the above A cantilever of length (l) carries a point load(W) at the free end. maximum normal stress d. strain of length plus strain of diameter c. two unequal unlike principal stresses c.a. maximum shear stress b.750 kgf d.0 b. triangle with maximum ordinate at the cantilever end . all of the above 44. none of the above 40. half of maximum normal stress d. encastered beam 45. A Plane makes an angle of 300 to the cross-section. If a beam is fixed at both its ends. A member of cross-sectional area 10 cm2 is subjected to an axial load of 10. Principal plane is a plane on which shear stress is a. average of maximum and minimum d. built-in beam d. 433 kgf 43. strain of length + twice the strain of diameter 39. b. triangle with maximum ordinate at the free end d. zero 42. strain of length If a member is subjected to an axial tensile load . The normal stress on this plane will be a. The bending moment diagram will be a a. b. b. thrice the maximum normal stress 41. parabola with maximum ordinate at the centre of the beam b. two unequal like principal stresses b. fixed beam c. twice the maximum normal stress b. it is called a a. direct tensile stress in one plane accompanied by a shear stress d. strain of diameter d.

Minimum work in compressor is possible when the adiabatic index n is equal to a.Vacuum c. Work 55.46. Temperature change c. Space 48. Isentropic 56. 30% b. Isobaric c. 50% 53. 33% c. butyl rubber b. Heat b. Zero pressure d. 40% d. 1 Nm 50.4 d. Second law of thermodynamics defines a.000 J/s and gives output of 9 kW. natural rubber c. Mass Transfer d.1. all of the above 47. A heat engine is supplied with heat rate of 30. 1 N/m b. One 54.1.1.0 51. Zero d. 1 Nm/s c. Expansion process in nozzles is a. Enthalpy b. Isochoric d. Heat Transfer b.1 b. zero b. maximum d. ___________ is a type of composite materials . synthetic rubber d. One Watt is equal to a.1. maximum b. No liquid can exists as liquid at a. Isothermal b. neoprene rubber 57. a. Minimum c. Pressure c. Density 49.25 c. Temperature d. ____ is used in the study of visco elasticity. state 52. Thermal efficiency of engine will be a. Entropy change depends on a. The bending moment on a section is maximum where shearing force is a. Which of the following is not the intensive property ? a. 1 Nm/h d. Diesel cycle efficiency is maximum when the cut-off is a. Temperature d. – 273 K b. minimum c. Entropy c.

Filler material 66. none of above 63. ____________is an example of laminated composite a . cast iron. Spinning operation is carried out on a. c. Flux c. Weld Defect d. carburizing flame is used to weld metals like a. Nickel. machine moulding 62. 1250. sand d. hair like single crystals of about 10^4cm diameter. H2O b. hard sand. D. hydraulic press. ethane 59. b. steel b. c. bench moulding. b. Welding electrode b. copper and brass c. phenol c. Aluminum. None of above . 1000.a. d. 1400. b. phenol formaldehyde d. ethane 61. a.plywood c. steel . stainless steel. milling machine 65. Monel etc.ethane 58. whiskers d. d.concrete c. methane b. lathe. Zinc die casting. C. The pouring temperature for grey cast iron is a. ____________ are very thin filaments. ethane 60. cubes c. d. spheres b. Weld spatter refers to a. 1550 64. d. mechanical press. methane b reinforced composite d . c. pit moulding. ___________ is an agglomerated structure. green sand moulding. In centrifugal casting cores are made of a. a . The match pattern is used in a. b.

5 times the rod diameter Seam welding is a. Both AC and DC Welding d. 73. Self centering chuck c. Twice the rod diameter d. Chuck for holding irregular shaped objects d. The commonly used flux for brazing is a. Multi spot welding process b. dirt d. Independent chuck b. distortion and warping carburizing flame has a. Decrease cutting speed d. 3 zones d. None of the above Three jaw chuck is a a. Rectified supply Arc length in arc welding should be equal to a. 75. 71. DC Welding c. . Half the diameter of electrode rod b. Rod diameter c. Increase feed rate c. Continuous spot welding process c. Soft iron fluxes are used in welding in order to protect the molten metal and the surfaces to be jointed from a. Increase cutting speed arc stability is better with a. 74. 2 zones c. None of the above Axis of the cutter rotation is parallel in 68. 70. 69. Increase depth of cut b. oxidation b. 72. Used for welding cylindrical objects d. 2. Soft silver d. Borax c. Resin b. 1 zone b. AC welding b. carburizing c.67. no zone To remove maximum material per minute with the same tool life a.

Slab milling b. Peripheral milling b. 77. Two worktables b. b. Program start b. Climb milling b. Slot milling c. d. Two jobs d. c. Jump milling c. d. Rapid positioning of tool dwell Co ordinates between xyz Interpolation cycle 79. Face milling c. Programming in incremental coordinates Input values Programming in absolute coordinates Interpolation cycle 81. M 30 refers to ____________ a. G 90 refer to _____________ a. Top milling d. b. None of the above In Bed type milling machine. Vertical milling d. Rapid positioning of tool b. Coolant OFF 82. machine dwell c. 80. Coolant ON d. c. machine off . 78.76. M 05 refers to ____________ a. the word ‘Duplex’ means a. Straddle milling Other name for Down milling is a. a. Horizontal milling Cutter machines the side of the work piece in a. Two columns c. Side milling d. Two spindles G 40 refers to _______________ a. Program stop c.

90. decrease in unit cost production d. 30% c. Machine ON 83.d. increase in fixed cost b. Cast iron b. aluminum c. None of the above Difference of actual sales and break even point is called a. contribution d. unit price-unit variable cost d.price cost margin c. lean The quantity of heat lost to the cooling water in an IC Engine is about a. 10% b. very rich d. 50% d. 70% In a diesel engine higher combustion chamber wall temperature will a. reduce exhaust temperature d. 89. stoichiometric c. 87. 86. Piston rings are usually made of a. increase in variable cost c. . somewhat richer than chemically correct mixture b. unit variable cost c. margin of safety b. phosphor bronze d. b. Knock in the CI Engine is charecterised by a. none of the statements are correct The highest flame speed is obtained with an air fuel ratio a. carbon steel 84. increase knocking tendency c. sudden auto ignition of the mixture at the end of the combustion period c. All the above 85. reduce knocking tendency b. have no influence on combustion process Break even point is the ratio of fixed cost to a. unit price b. knock does not occur in diesel engines d. 88. None of the above Break even point increases with a. sudden auto ignition of the mixture at the very beginning of the combustion process.

Spinning Compression molding is ideal for a. Cold drawing d. direct labour b. Forging c. Plastics b. Work piece moves from one station to another with separate operation done in each station d. Non ferrous materials Injection molding is ideal for a. direct material c. Non ferrous materials d. Thermosetting plastics b. 93. Welding d. Extrusion Strech forming is a process of a. travel chart b. 98. introduction of computers in manufacturing c. . 97. None of above In combination dies a. Two or more cutting operations can be performed simultaneously b. Cutting and formation operations are combined and carried out in single operation c. gnat chart 92. Thermosetting plastics c. Cold rolling b. Thermo plastics c. All of the above FMS mainly helps in a. 96. 94.providing flexibility in layout A compact estimate about the amount of materials handling between various work stations is obtained from a. 95. Overhead rate is the ratio of total overhead charges to a. reduction in setup time d .91. None of the above Seam less tubes in mass production are done by a. Spinning c. providing manufacturing flexibility for switch over new products b. Rolling b. Thermo plastics d. direct labour+direct material d.

is a method for producing exact no. improves reliability d. applies only to milling machines b. all of the above Numeric control a.of parts per hour c. bin chart 99. reduces cost b. increases yield c. all of the above 100. . string diagram d. Use of modern control technology in automation systems a. is a method of controlling by means of a set of instructions d.c.

Probability of getting one head when two coins are based is a) b) c) d) Run of the matrix a) 2 b) 3 is c) 1 d) zero is 9. c) (1.0) b) (0. Saddle point of the function (c) (a. Radius of curvature of (c) b) at c) is d) is d) (1.a) b) c) (a. Maximum directional derivative of a scalar point function a) b) c) Zero d) none of these The value of curl (grad ) is (c) b) c) Zero is 2. Which of the following parameters is not specified for digital IC’s? a) gate dissipation b) propagation delay . The sum of eigen values of A2 where A = a) 11 b) 12 c) 13 d) 14 11. 6. Order of convergence in Newton-Raphson method is (c) One b) Two c) Three d) Four 8.0) Solution of Differential equation (c) c) b) d) is analytic at the print (c) (0. 10.0) d) Nowhere analytic 7.1) 5.Electrical (Section code 03) 1. d) one 3.1) is 4.

RIM and SIM deals with a) masking of interrupts c) serial data communication b) pending of interrupts d) all the above . PUSH and POP operation can be done for a) 8 bit registers c) PSW alone b) 16 bit register pair alone d) both b) and c) 17. A circuit in which the output voltage waveform is the integral of the input voltage waveform a) integrator b) differentiator d) comparator c) logarithmic amplifier 16.39 RC c) 0. An op-amp can amplify only a) dc signals b) ac signals c) both ac & dc signals d) none of the above 15. ‘RST n’ refers to a) Reset operations c) Software interrupts b) restart operations d) hardware interrupt 18. one quasi stable d) none of these 14.c) Noise margin d) band – width 12. The astable multivibrator has a) two stable states c) two quasi-stable states b) one stable.69 / RC d) 1.69 RC b) 1/1. Frequency of the square wave in Hz generated by an astable multivibrator is given by a) 1/0.38 / RC 13.

S1 alone c) ALE d) both a) and b) 22.W R d) all the above 20. then it is called.19. a) hardware controlled I/O b) program controlled I/O d) I/O controlled by hardware c) I/O controlled I/O signals 23. A four bit number is given as 1001. Its one’s complement is a) 1001 b) 1110 c) 0110 d) 0111 . The opcode fetch machine cycle is similar to a) Memory read b) memory write c) I/O read d) I/O write 21. The microprocessor differentiates the address and data using a) AD0 . How many address lines are needed to address each memory location is 4096 x 4 memory chip? a) 10 b) 11 c) 12 d) 16 26. When the microprocessor checks the status bit associated with the I/O devices for data transfer. The following signals decides the machine cycle a) Io/ M b) S0. USART is a) 8250 b) 8251 c) 8253 d) 8254 24. The number of interrupts in 8051 is a) 5 b) 6 c) 7 d) 8 25.AD7 b) ALE c) R D .

-OR and AND gate b) EX-OR and OR gate d) four NAND gates 31. it can be approximated best by a) sT G(s) = b) 1+sT c) 1-sT d) 1 1 + sT 33. An AND gate is a a) sequential circuit c) memory circuit b) combinational circuit d) relaxation circuit 30. The transfer function of a transportation lag is e-sT . This system is operated in closed-loop with unity feedback. K . The value 25 in octal system is a) 40 b) 20 c) 400 d) 200 29.27. The second order system defined by 25 is given a step input. The gates required to build an half adder are a) EX-OR and NOR gate c) EX. s (1 + sT ) The closed-loop system is a) Stable b) unstable c) marginally stable d) conditionally stable .2s b) 1. Exclusive OR followed by an inverter has the property a) output high for input word of even parity b) output high for input word of odd parity c) output is 1’s complement of input word d) output is 2’s complement of input word 28. If the lag is small compared with the time constants of the system.6s c) 2s d) 2s 32. The ( s + 5s + 25 ) 2 time taken for the output to settle within ± 2% of input is a) 1.

what controller would you recommend? b) PD controller c) PI controller d) PID a) P controller controller 35. A system whose present output depends only on present and past inputs is called a) Non-causal system c) FIR system b) causal system d) IIR systems 39. The steady state error of a stable. The frequency at which the Nyquist diagram crosses the negative real axis is known as a) gain crossover frequency c) damping frequency b) phase crossover frequency d) natural frequency 37. type 0 unity feedback system for a unit step function is a) 0 b) 1 1 + Kp c) ∞ d) 1 Kp 38. The transfer function C/R of the block diagram given below is a) G1G 2 G 3 1 + G1G 2 G 3 H 1 b) G1G 3 + G2 1 + G2 H 1 c) G1G 2 GG G + G3 d) 1 2 3 1 + G1G 2 H 1 1 + G2 H 1 36.34. Z-transform of unit impulse signal is a) 1 1 − z −1 b) 1 1 + z −1 c) 1 d) -1 . If stability error for step input and speed of response be the criteria for design.

A double beam oscilloscope has a) two screens c) two different phosphor coatings b) two electron guns d) one waveform divided into two parts 43. The function of shunt in an ammeter is to b) increase the sensitivity of the a) bypass the current ammeter c) increase the resistance of ammeter d) none of the above 44. A digital voltmeter uses an A/D converter which needs a start pulse. In the measurement of power by two wattmeter method. when the readings of the two watt meters are equal and opposite. Megger is used to measure a) breakdown voltage of insulation c) insulation resistance b) earth resistance d) none of the above 45.5 leading d) power factor is 0.real additions a) 4N (N-1) b) 4N c) N2 d) N (N-1) 41. uses an analog comparator and has relatively fixed conversion time independent of the applied voltage. Direct DFT requires -------------.40. it can be concluded that a) power factor is zero c) power factor is unity b) power factor is 0. The A/D converter is a) successive approximation converter c) dual slope approximation converter b) digital approximation converter d) all the above .5 lagging 42.

R is the load resistance and α is the duty cycle. the output voltage can be controlled by PWM by varying a) T. Average output voltage of this chopper a) α Vs b) (1-α) Vs c) Vs | α d) Vs / (1. value d) average value 52. keeping T constant d) TOFF .1µF determine Q=? a) 31. A Hurwitz polynomial has . Inverter converts a) ac voltage into dc voltage b) dc voltage into ac voltage c) ac voltage of supply frequency into an ac voltage of desired frequency d) boosts the voltages 49.46. keeping TOFF constant b) TON.62 b) 41. keeping TON constant c) T.62 53.62 c) 51. keeping T constant 47. L=0. a BJT has a) lower switching losses but higher conduction loss b) higher switching losses and higher conduction loss c) higher switching losses but lower conduction loss d) lower switching losses and lower conduction loss 51. Vs is the source voltage. for periodic time T. In a series RLC circuit R = 10 Ω.62 d) 61. Parallel inverter employs--------------a) Natural commutation b) Forced commutation c) Auxillary current commutationd) Complementary voltage commutation 50.α) 48. Phase difference between the two waveforms can be compared only when they have same a) Frequency b) peak valuec) rms. In dc chopper. As compared to power MOSFET.01H and C=0. For a type A chopper.

d) poles on the jω axis only The system described by the equation F(s) = s4+2s3+3s 2+6s+K.d l = I ∫ H . is given by a) c) ∫ H . PV bus should be converted to PQ bus while doing power flow analysis if a) number of PV buses is more than the number of PQ buses b) Q limit is violated . ds = Q d) none of the above 57.H 2 c) 1 H xB 2 d) none of the above 59. The transfer function of an electrical low-pass RC network is a) sRC 1 + sRC b) 1 1 + sRC c) RC 1 + sRC d) s 1 + sRC 56.a) zeros only in the left half of the s-plane b) poles only in the left half of the s-plane c) zeros anywhere in the s-plane 54. Gauss law is given by a) ∇ 2 V = ρ σ b) ∇ 2 V = 0 c) ∫∫ S D . ds = I b) ∫ H d l = I d) none of the above 58. Energy density in magnetic fields is given by the equation a) 1 BxH 2 b) 1 B. according to Routh Hurwitz’s criteria. Which of the following voltage is not very common a) 11KV b) 22KV c) 6.6KV d) 177KV 60. Ampere’s circuital law. in its integral form. is a) unstable for all values of K c) stable if K < 0 b) stable if K ≥ 0 d) stable for all values of K 55.

The load flow equations for FDPF method is a) [ ∆p / |∆ V|] = [B1 ] [∆ s] c) [∆Q / |∆ V|] = [B1 ] [∆ s] b) [∆p / |∆ V|] = [B1 ] x [∆ s] d) none of the above 62. In the inverse time current relays a) The operating time reduces as the actuating quantity increases in magnitude b) The operating time increases as the actuating quantity increases in magnitude c) life time reduces as the operating current value increases in magnitude d) all the above 66. For the operation of directional over current relay a) Directional unit alone should be operated b) Over current unit alone should be operated . The number of iterations is constant for a) G.c) number of slack bus is less compare to PV bus d) none of the above 61. LG fault is more severe than 3L fault a) always b) never c) if the generator neutrals is solidly grounded d) if the neutral is left un connected 64.S method b) N-R method c) both a& b d) none of the above 63. The back up relays a) Supplementing the primary relays b) Operating time may be more than primary relay c) act as primary relays when primary relays are taken off for maintenance d) all the above 65.

The phenomenon of rise in voltage at the receiving end of the open-circuited or lightly loaded line is called the a) See beck effect b) ferranti effect c) proximity effect d) skin effect 69. In a class –A amp. induction extends over 360o because Q-point is a) located on load line c) centered on load line b) located near saturation point d) located at or near cut-off 72. A Diac is equivalent a a) pair of SCR’s c) diode & two resistors b) pair of 4 layer SCRs d) triac with two gate . Wein bridge oscillator is most often used whenever a) wide range of high purity sine waves is to be generated b) high feedback ratio is needed c) square output waves are required d) extremely high resonant frequencies are required. CE amplifier is characteried by a) low voltage gain c) moderate power gain b) single phase reversal d) very high output impedance 71. Which system needs lightning arrestor of least voltage rating? a) Solid ground neutral system b) insulated neutral system reactance grounded neutral c) Resistance grounded neutral system d) system 68.c) both Directional and o/c units should operate d) none of the above 67. 70.

Which of the following statement is wrong? In a multivibrator a) Output is available continuously b) feedback between two stages is 100% c) positive Feedback is employed d) when one Transfer in on.m. Current flow in a semiconductor depends on the phenomenon of a) drift b) diffusion c) recombination d) all the above 77. Synchronous motor develops maximum power when load angle is a) 45o b) 60 o c) 90 o d) 120 o . the other is OFF 74. The main use of a emitter follower is as a) power amplifier c) low input impedance circuit b) impedance matching device d) follower of base signal 79.f of a DC motor vanishes suddenly? a) the motor will stop c) the armature will burn b) the motor will continue to run d) the motor will run noisy 80. Which stage of a dc power supply uses a zener as the main component? a) rectifier b) voltage divider c) regulator d) filter 76. The input impedance h11 of a network with output shorted is given by the ratio a) v1 / i1 b) v1 / v2 c) i2 / i1 d) i2 / v 2 78.73. What will happen if the back e. Which of the following approximations is often used in electronic circuits? a) Ic ≅ IE b) IB ≅ IE c) IB ≅ IC d) IE ≅ IB + Ic 75.

In an induction motor. A brake test on DC motors is usually restricted to a) small horse power motors b) variable speed motor .percent of its full voltage value.81. the interpole winding is connected a) in series with the field winding b) in parallel with the field winding c) in series with the armature winding d) in parallel with the armature winding 85. its a) power factor will increase decrease c) magnetising current will increase b) magnetising current will d) power factor will decrease 82. its starting current is reduced to ------------. 6 pole induction motor has 54 stator slots and 48 rotor slots. A 3-phase. The test(s) needed to be performed to determine the leakage reactance of transformer are a) OC b) SC c) OC and SCd) Test by an impedance bridge a 87. 86. In a dc machine. If stator voltage of a squirrel cage induction motor is reduced to one-half of its normal value. the rotor reactance per phase is proportional to a) s b) 1/s c) 1/s2 d) s2 84. The motor will have a tendency of a) cogging b) crawling c) noisy operation d) developing cusps in torque-speed characteristics. a) 75 b) 60 c) 50 d) 15 83. If air gap of an induction motor is increased.

The transfer function of a first order LPF is a) AoWh S + wh Ao ( S 2 + Wo 2 ) ( S + wh) b) AoY1Y2 S AoWh 2 S 2 + α Wos + wh 2 c) d) 92. Storage time in transistors occurs when it is operating in a) active region b) cut-off region c) saturation region d) active or saturation region . the output should be a) +V b) –V c) depends on factor Av d) zero 93.c) high speed motors d) open frame type motor 88. If both inputs of an op amp are at the same potential V. The auto – starters can be used to start cage induction motor of the following type a) star connected only c) both a) & b) b) delta connected only d) none of the above 90. The power drawn by the primary winding of a transformer on no-load is predominantly absorbed by a) copper loss c) copper loss + core loss b) core loss d) eddy current 91. Hunting in a synchronous motor can not be due to a) variable supply voltage c) variable load b) variable frequency d) windage friction 89.

The h parameters of a transistor depend on it a) configuration c) temp b) operating point d) all of the above 100.1 to 100 d) 100. The advantage of using negative FB in an amplifier is that its gain can be made practically independent of a) temperature changes c) frequency b) age of components d) all of the above 99. an increase in base current causes increase in a) Ic only b) IE only c) both Ic & IE d) leakage circuit . If is a BJT. The advantage of self – correcting code is that a) it is a weighted code c) it is easy to decode electronically b) it has even parity d) all of these 96.0 b) 1. In a properly connected BJT. in what range does the value of its β lie? a) 0.1 to 1.94.01 to 10 c) 10. The leakage current of a PN diode is caused by a) heat energy c) barrier potential b) chemical energy d) majority carriers 98. IB = 100µA & IC =10µA. K – map method of simplification can only be applied when the given function is in a) sum of product form c) canonical form b) product of sum form d) can be applied to all form 95.1 to 1000 97.

Order of convergence in Newton-Raphson method is (d) One b) Two c) Three d) Four 8.0) b) (0.1) is 4. Maximum directional derivative of a scalar point function a) b) c) Zero d) none of these The value of curl (grad ) is (d) b) c) Zero is 2. Radius of curvature of (d) b) at c) is d) is d) (1. The sum of eigen values of A2 where A = a) 11 b) 12 c) 13 d) 14 . c) (1. Probability of getting one head when two coins are based is a) b) c) d) 9. Run of the matrix a) 2 b) 3 is c) 1 d) zero is 10.1) 5.0) d) Nowhere analytic 7.0) Solution of Differential equation (d) c) b) d) is analytic at the print (d) (0. d) one 3. 6.a) b) c) (a. Saddle point of the function (d) (a.Electronics (Section code 04) 1.

The nodal analysis is primarily based on the application of a) KVL b) KCL c) Ohm’s law d) both b) and c) are correct 12. For star-to-delta transformation which of the following statement is true? R 2 R3 a) R A = R 1 of these R2 R3 b) RA = R1 + R2 + R1 3 c) RA = RB = RC d) None 15. 14.2 A. The P. Thevenin resistance of the circuit shown below across its terminals A and B is _______ ohm a) 6Ω b) 3Ω c) 9Ω d) 2Ω 13.F.5 A d) 1. 16. The applied voltage will be .25 A c) 0. a) 0.0 A The current flowing in the circuit shown below is i(t) = 2 sin 500 t A. of an R-C circuit is a) zero c) 1.0 d) between zero and – 1.0.11. b) 0. The current following through the load RL in the circuit given below is.0 b) between zero and 1.

b) 20 cos 500 tV c) 28. Maxwell’s divergence equation for the magnetic field is given by . The Fourier series for the following waveform is given by a) b) c) d) 19. An LC-driving point impedance function is s3 + s 2 + s +1 s2 + 2s + 5 4 2 b) s + 2 s + s + 1 s2 + 5 a) c) s4 +1 s3 + 2 s2 d) 2( + 1) s 18.28 sin (500 t + 45o )V d) 30.5 cos (500 t + 30 o )V 17.a) 20 sin 500 t V. f (? t) = 4A/p2 {sin ? t – 1/9 sin 3? t + ……} f (? t) = 8A/p2 {sin ? t – 1/9 sin 3? t + ……} f (? t) = 4A/p2 {sin 2? t – 1/9 sin 4?t + ……} f (? t) = 4A/p2 {1/3 sin 3? t – 1/9 sin 9? t + …} What is the driving-point impedance at port one with port two open circuited for the figure shown? a) 4 Ω b) 5 Ω c) 3 Ω d) 6 Ω 20.

then the induced currents in the two loops A and B will be a) clockwise in both A and B b) anticlockwise in both A and B c) anticlockwise in B and clockwise in B d) clockwise in A and Anticlockwise in B. If the current in the straight wire is decreasing. A straight current-carrying conductor and two conducting loops A and B are shown in the given figure.a) ∇ x B = 0 b) ∇. The space surrounding a charge body. If the vectors A and B are conservative then a) Ax B is solenoidal c) A + B is solenoidal solendoidal → → → → b) Ax B is conservative d) → → A − B is → → 22. A wire of length L m carrying I ampere is bent in the form of a circle. Lenz’s law is a consequence of the law of conservation of a) charge b) mass c) momentum d) energy 26. → → c) ∇XB = ρ d) ∇. A coil carrying electric current is placed in uniform magnetic field then a) torque is formed c) Both a) and b) are correct b) emf is induced d) None of these 25. . Its magnetic moment will be a) IL/4p b) IL2/4 p c) I2L2/4p d) LI2 /4p 24. 23. electric flux density D is related to electric intensity E by the equation a) D = e0E E/ er b) D = e0 er E c) D = E/ e0 er d) D = e0 27.B = ρ .B = 0 21. For any medium. within which the influence of its charge extends is called a) coulombs b) electric field c) electric intensity d) lines of force.

the average value of output dc voltage is given by a) Vdc = Vm (1 − cosθ1 ) 2π Vm (cosθ1 − 1) π b) Vdc = 2Vm (1 + cosθ1 ) π Vm (cos θ1 + 1) 2π c) Vdc = d) Vdc = . b) doping c) ionization d) 31.28. 34. For a half-wave controlled rectifier. Avalanche breakdown is primarily dependent on the phenomenon of a) collision recombination. Semiconductor materials have ……….ICO d) IC = ß IE 33. b) providing a silver displays c) giving two types of 32. and LCD has the distinct advantage of a) extremely low power requirement c) being extremely thin displays. cathode and two gates. As compared to a LED. bonds. a) ionic b) convalent c) mutual d) metallic 30. The major component of a MOS IC is a/an a) FET b) MOSFET c) BJT d) SCR 35..” This statement is attributed to a) Lenz’s Law Coulomb’s Law b) Faraday’s Law c) Maxwell’s Law d) 29. cathode and a gate c) two anodes and one gate b) two bases and one emitter d) anode. A unjunction transistor has a) anode. The force of attraction or repulsion between two charges q1 and q2 at a distance d metres apart is proportional to the product of charges q1 and q2 and inversely proportional to the square of the distance between the two charges. The value of total collector current in a CB circuit is a) I C = aIE b) Ic = a IE + ICO c) IC = a IE .

42. CE amplifier is characteristed by a) low voltage gain c) signal phase reversal b) moderate power gain d) very high output impedance. are connected in cascade. The transient response occurs only in a) resistive circuits c) capacitive circuits b) inductive circuits d) Both b) and c) are correct 43. . The PIV of a half-wave rectifier circuit with a shunt capacitor filter is a) 2 Vsm b) Vsm c) Vsm/2 d) 2 Vsm 37. 40. If Barkhausen criterion is not fulfilled by an oscillator circuit.36. An electronic oscillator is a) just like an alternator c) an amplifier with feedback b) nothing but an amplifier d) a converter of dc to ac energy. A practical current source consists of a) an ideal current source in series with an impedance b) an ideal current source in parallel with an impedance c) Both a) and b) are correct d) None of these. 39. Neglecting any loading effect. If the mobilities of electrons and holes are 400 and 600 cm2/Csec respectively. In a astable multi vibrator a) ß = 1 b) ßA = 1 c) ß > 1 d) ß < 1 41. The electron and hole concentration in an N-type semiconductor is 1016/cm2 and 1016/cm2 . the conductivity of the material approximately is a) 1032 x e b) 1019 x e c) 4 x 1018 x e d) None of these Three identical tuned amplifiers. the overall bandwidth will be about a) 51 kHz b) 71 kHz c) 100 kHz d) 173 kHz 44. it will a) stop oscillating c) become an amplifier b) produce damped wave continuously d) produce high-frequency whistles. each of bandwidth 100 kHz. 38.

b) ABA + B c) A + B d) A B When an input electrical signal A = 10100 is applied to a NOT gate. we get a) AB 49. y b) NOR of x. 47. F represents a) NAND of x. hfe RL/hie RL/RF The chief reason why digital computers use complemental subtraction is that it a) simplifies their circuitry b) is a very simple process d) avoids direct subtraction. its output signal is a) 01011 b) 10101 c) 10100 d) 00101 50. In the following figures below. c) hfe . y . hfe RL/hie RL/RF b) RF /RL . d) RF/RL . For this circuit. When we deorganize AB . Electronics is the branch of engineering which deals with flow of electrons through a) Semiconductor b) gas c) vaccum d) All of these. the current and voltage gains would respectively be a) hfe . The circuit shown in the figure below represents a feedback amplifier. 46.45. c) can handle negative numbers easily 48.

b) II. respectively. respectively d) III. The ASCII a) is a subset of 8-bit EBCDIC b) is used only in Western counties c) is version II of the ASC standard d) has 128 characters. y 51. Which of the following represent Commutative law. In 8085. 53. III. d) Half-adder carry of x. I. II and I.c) Half-adder sum of x. 55. b) µ P clock. including 32 control characters. I. respectively c) III. The number of flip-flops required in a module N counter is a) log2 (N) + 1 log2 (N – 1). Associative law. What is the form of the Boolean expression AB+BC= Y? a) Product-of-sums. b) [log2 (N + 1)] c) [log2 (N)] d) 56. ROMs. C II A. and II. Mnemonic symbols are used to a) denote address c) denote errors b) employ hamming code d) assist human memory 57.C II A+B = B+A a) I. A microcomputer is a minimum combination of a) µ P and clock. (B+C) = A. y Which of the following logic families has the maximum functional capacity? a) SSI b) MSI c) LSI d) VLSI 52. B). interrupts except TRAP are disabled (check the incorrect statement) by a) a DI instruction b) a system reset d) None of these c) acknowledgement of a previous in terrupt 58. and Distributive law? I A.c) Karanaugh map.B + A. and III. and II. . C) = (A. (B. respectively 54. b) Sum-of-products. D) Matrix.

Which of the following flag conditions are not available in 8085 processor? a) Zero flag c) Overflow flag b) Parity flag d) Auxiliary carry flag. The 8085 A instruction that takes maximum number of machine cycles for execution is a) STA Addr b) MVI. MOSFET uses the electric field of a) gate capacitance to control the channel current b) barrier potential of p-n junction to control the channel current c) both A and B d) None of these 66.c) µ P. clock. 62. RAMs and ROMs. 65. A 555 timer can be used as a) an astable multivibrator only b) a monostable multivibrator only c) a frequency divider only d) an astable multivibrator or a monostable multivibrator or a frequency divider . d) µ P. 61. clock. ROM. Block or buffer caches are used to a) improve disk performance b) handle interrupts c) increase the capacity of main memory d) speed up main memory read operation. IC 8253 programmable interval timers are programmed with a) Binary data only c) Binary and BCD data both b) BCD data only d) None of these. Which of the following system is digital? a) PPM b) PFM c) PWM d) PCM 64. 63. data c) OUT Port d) CALL Addr. PIA The physical part or electronic circuitry of a computer system is called a) hardware b) software device c) microprocessor d) peripheral 60. and ACIA 59. RAM.

Which of the following statements is not true for an ideal current-to-voltage transducer? a) Zero input impedance b) Infinite input impedance. The circuit shown below is an/a a) integrator c) high-pass filter 72.pass filter d) band-pass filter The function of bleeder resistance in filter circuits is a) to maintain minimum current necessary for optimum inductor filter operation. In an oscillator. signal b) in phase with the output signal d) out of phase with the output 70. c) out of phase with input signal. The overall voltage gain of the amplifier shown below is a) 50 69. d) A fixed relation between input current and output voltage 68. b) low.67. The number of diodes required in a bridge rectifier circuit is a) one b) two c) three d) four 71.000 d) 10. the feedback signal is a) in phase with the input signal. . b) 100 c) 1.000. c) Zero output impedance.

76. 74. then F(0) is ∞ a) ∞ −∞ ∫ f (t )dt ∞ 2 b) −∞ ∫ ∞ 2 f (t ) dt c) −∞ ∫ tf (t ) dt d) −∞ ∫ tf (t )dt The auto correlation of a wide-sense stationary random process is given by e2| τ| . b) 1 / j? c) 1/j ? + pδ(?) d) 1/? + 2pδ (? ) Let F (?) b e the Fourier transform of a function f(t). Laplace transform of sin (? t +a) is ω  s  exp  a) 2 α 2 exp  s   2 b) 2  αω   αω  s +ω   s +a   α  s  exp  2  αω  s +a   2 ω  s  exp  2  αω  s +a   2 . The major advantage of a bridge rectifier is that a) no centre-tap transformer is required. c) peak inverse voltage of each diode is half of that for a full-wave rectifier d) the output is more smooth. 73. which one of the following is the correct Fourier transform of the unit step signal u(t) = 1 for t > 0 = 0 for t < 0 a) p δ (?) 75. c) To provide discharge path to capacitors so that output becomes zero when the circuit has been denergised d) All of these. The peak value of the spectral density is b) 1 c) e -1/2 d) e a) 2 77.b) to work as voltage divider in order to provide variable output from the supply. b) the required peak inverse voltage of each diode is double of that for a fullwave rectifier.

2 and 3 b) 1 and 2 c) 1 and 3 d) 2 and 3 .5) 1. b) exp (.c) d) 78.5)( z − 0.5 t Consider the following statements regarding a linear discrete-time system H ( z) = z2 +1 ( z + 0. The steady-state output is zero for a sinusoidal discrete-time input of frequency equal to one-fourth the sampling frequency. 2s + 5 Inverse Laplace transform of the function 2 s + 5s + 6 a) 2 exp (-2. 2.5t) cosh 0.2t) – exp (-3t) d) 2 exp (-2. Which of these statements are correct? a) 1.5 t) cos 0.5 t c) 2 exp (-2.5t) sinh 0.5 t 80. a) The function f(t) shown in the given figure will have Lab place transform as 1 1 − s 1 − 2s − e − 2e s2 s s 1 (1 − e − s − s − e −2 s ) 2 s 1 (1 − e − s − s − e −2 s ) s b) c) d) 1 (1 − e − s − se −2 s ) 2 s 79. 3. The system is stable. The initial value h(0) of the impulse response is -4.

81. d) Consider the compound system shown in the above figure. If the transfer function of the first system is given . 5 2 5 4 A 1 1 4 5 A Voltage signal v (t) has the following Fourier transform: e − jωd V ( jω) =  0 for | ω |< 1 for | ω |> 1 The energy that would be dissipated in a 1 Ω resistor fed from v(t) is a) 2 Joules π 1 Joules π b) 2 e −2 d Joules π 1 Joules 2π c) 83. z – transform 5. Odd function wave symmetry B 2 5 2 1 C 3 3 1 2 D Codes: a) b c) d) 82. Exponential form of Fourier series 2. Its output is equal to input with a delay of two units. Convolution integral d) ∫ f (τ) f (t −τ)dτ 1 2 0 4. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists: List I List II a) b) f (t ) = − f ( −t 0 ) 1. Fourier transform n =−∞ 1 ∑ C n e mω t 0 ∞ c) −∞ ∫ f (t)e 1 − jwt dt 3.

8 a) H2(z) = z −2 − 0. a) overdamped c) undamped b) underdamped d) critically damped 85. A telephone system is a) Point-to-multipoint system b) Local area network .8 z −3 1 − 0.4 z −1 b) H2(z) = z −2 − 0. 88. The unit step response of the systems will be. Modern FM receivers use de-emphasis circuit for a) reducing high frequency noise b) reducing the amplitude of high frequencies in the audio signal c) increasing the amplitude of higher modulating frequencies d) making demodulation easy. Which one of the following is the response y(t) of a causal LTI system described by H(s) = ( s + 1) for a given input x(t) = e -t u(t)? s + 2s + 2 2 a) y(t) = e-t sintu(t) c) y(t) = sin (t – 1) u (t – 1) 86. then the transfer function of the second system would be z − 0 . b) y(t) = e-(t – 1) sin (t -1) u (t – 1) d) y(t) = e-t cost u(t) The poles of a digital filter with linear phase response can lie a) only at z = 0 c) only inside the unit circle but not at z = 0 =0 line b) only on the unit circle d) on the left side of Real (z) 87.2 z −3 1 − 0. 89. Demodulation a) is performed at the transmitting station c) rectifies modulated signal b) removes side-bands d) is opposite of modulation.5 z −1 z −2 − 0.2 z −3 1 − 0.4 z −1 z −1 − 0.8 z −3 1 + 0.5 z −1 c) H2(z) = 84.by H1(z) = z − 0 . d) H2(z) = Two identical first-order systems have been cascaded non-interactively.5 .

c) Switched system 90. b) continuous c) discrete d) None 94. 96. which one is not a potential application of fiber optics? a) Sensor c) Image transmission b) Power transmission. The advantage of waveguides over coaxial line is that a) these are simpler to manufacture c) higher operating frequencies are possible b) power losses are lower d) All of these. Signal-to-quantization noise ratio in A-law companding for voice PCM a) remains essentially unchanged irrespective of talkers b) changes with talkers arbitrarily c) increases linearly with the voice level of the talker d) cannot be determined. The VSB signal is produced from the DSB signal by employing a) simpler filters c) ring modulator b) balance modulator d) phase-shift circuit 97. 91. The SSB demodulator is known as a) balance modulation b) product demodulation . the frequency spectrum is a) periodic of these. For periodic time function. 95. d) Signal transmission 92. Strip-line is analogous to a) flattened co-axial line c) wave guide b) parallel-wire line d) None of these. Most audio communication utilizes frequencies in the range a) 100 Hz – 1 kHz c) 100 Hz – 30 kHz b) 100 Hz – 3 kHz d) None of these. d) Point-to-point system. 93.

d) None of these. The height of the transmitting antenna is 225 m above ground level. For transmission of normal speech signal. .c) amplitude discrimination 98. b) 8 kHz c) 4 kHz d) None 100. Its radio horizon will be a) 60 km b) 76 km c) 120 km d) 225 km. The highest harmonic generated in human voice is a) 1 kHz b) 3 KHz c) 5 KHz d) 10 KHz 99. the PCM channel needs a bandwidth of a) 64 kHz of these.

Probability of getting one head when two coins are based is a) b) c) d) Run of the matrix a) 2 b) 3 is c) 1 d) zero is 9. The sum of eigen values of A2 where A = a) 11 b) 12 c) 13 d) 14 11. Order of convergence in Newton-Raphson method is (e) One b) Two c) Three d) Four 8.0) d) Nowhere analytic 7. The chemical reaction involved in epitaxial growth takes place at a temperature of about . Maximum directional derivative of a scalar point function a) b) c) Zero d) none of these The value of curl (grad ) is (e) b) c) Zero is 2.1) is 4.0) b) (0. Radius of curvature of (e) b) at c) is d) is d) (1. Saddle point of the function (e) (a. c) (1.0) Solution of Differential equation (e) c) b) d) is analytic at the print (e) (0. d) one 3.Instrumentation (Section code 05) 1.a) b) c) (a. 6. 10.1) 5.

The diffusion current is proportional to a)applied electric field b)concentration gradient of charge carrier c) square of the applied electric field d)None of the above 15.a)500° C b)1000° C c) 1200° C d) 1500° C 12.1 micron c)1 micron d) 2 micron . In a CE amplifier. the width of the depletion layer is of the order of a)100 A° b) 0. In Tunnel diode. LED uses a)radiative combination c)energy transfer from one electron to another electrons b)formation of photons d)formation of 19. The epitaxial growth may be of a) n type only b) p type only c) either type d) none of the above 18. thermal runaway is unconditionally avoided if a)VCE = VCC /2 b)VCE < VCC /2 c) VCE > VCC /2 d) VCE = 0 13. The concentration of minority carrier at JC in the base region of a PNP transistor operating in the active region is a)zero b) same as at JC c) same as at JE d)same as at JB 17. Transistor amplifier configuration which simultaneously provides high current gain and high voltage gain is a)CB configuration b)CE configuration c)CCconfiguration b)All of the above 14. The dynamic resistance ‘r’ of a diode varies as a) 1/I b)1/ I2 c) I d) I2 16.

None 29. 1 d. Square wave c. Which of the following is basically a square wave generator? a) Colpitt oscillator c) Astable Multivibrator b) Hartley oscillator d) None of the above. Results in internal oscillations d. Mod(Ac/Ad) c. 27. Increases phase shift c. Bandwidth is infinity d.1 26. . Sine wave b. None In an ideal op – amp. Closed loop gain of a non inverting amplifier is ______ a. 14 pin DIP b.20dB decade b. Cosine wave d.none 25. Wien bridge uses ___________________ feedback a) Negative b) Positive c) Both negative & positive d) None of the above 30. All of the above 22. Voltage gain is infinity c. None A first order low pass filter has roll off rate of ________ a. In operational amplifiers. Reduces loop gain b. Output impedance is equal to zero 21. high input impedance _______ a. Common mode rejection ratio can be defined as ________ a. A triangular wave can be generated by integrating a ________ a. – (Rf/R1). – (Rf/R1) c.20. __________ a. 1+ (Rf/R1) b.none 28. b.1 24. 0 d. The 556 time is a ________ a. (off time / total time period) d. – 40 dB decade c. none 23. 1+ (Rf/R1 ) c. Mod(Ad /A c) d. b. b. None Duty cycle D is defined as a. .1 b.60 dB decade d. 16 pin DIP c. Closed loop gain of an inverting amplifier is ______ a.(on time / total time period) c. 8 pin DIP d. .

A clamping circuit is known as _____________________ a) AC restoration circuit c) DC restoration circuit b) DC suppression circuit d) AC bypass circuit 37. a) Linear b) Logarithmic c) Half power d) Square law 34. 33. IGFET is a_______________________ device. Thermal run away occurs in ______________________ a) BJT b) JFET c) MOSFET d) all the above 35.31. Schmitt trigger is also known as ________________________ a) Squaring circuit c) Blocking oscillator b) Sinusoidal circuit d) Sweep circuit. A JFET can operate in _________________________________ a) Depletion mode b) Enhancement mode d) Neither depletion nor c) Depletion & Enhancement modes enhancement mode 38. 32. A Triac is a_______________________ switch a) Unidirectional b) Bi-directional c) either of the above d) all the above 36. The operation of a Pirani gauge is based on a) ionization of gas at low pressure b) variation of volume with pressure c) variation of viscosity with pressure . The gain of an ideal oscillator is ______________________ a) Unity b) Zero c)Infinity d) Slightly more than unity.

The development of a transverse electric potential gradient in a current carrying conductor. A potentiometer transducer with a stroke length of 5cm has a total resistance of 10KO. upon the application of a magnetic field at right angles to the direction of current is known as a)Piezoelectric effect b)Hall effect c) Elastic effect d)Magnetostrictive effect 44.d) variation of thermal conductivity of gas with pressure 39. Bellow’s expansion is usually against a spring.5V. A thermocouple used for temperature measurement is a a) b) c) d) first order transducer second order transducer zero order transducer third order transducer 42. what is the output of the potentiometer from that end? a) 3 volts b) 4 volts c) 1 volt d) 5 volts 43. Piezoelectric crystal is an example for __________transducer a) active b)primary c) digital d)passive 40. The spring is provided to a) b) c) d) increase sensitivity increase operating range increase linearity decrease hysteresis effect . The voltage across the potentiometer is 7. The degree of closeness with which a given value may be repeatedly measured is known as a)precision b)accuracy c) resolution d)hysteresis 45. when the wiper is 2 cm from one end. The value which occurs most frequently in a set of observation is known as a) median b)mode c)mean d) variance 41.

The output of a LVDT with input mechanical motion of 10Hz and excitation frequency 400Hz will contain frequencies a) 10Hz and 400Hz b)400 Hz only c)10 Hz only d)390 Hz and 410 Hz 47. Intel 8257 is a a)USART b)DMA c)PIC d)CRT 50. How many register banks are in 8051 micro controller? a)8 b)2 c)16 d)4 53. Which technology is used in third generation microprocessor? a)HMOS b)PMAS c)NMAS d)HCMAS 48. In which microprocessor Virtual memory concept was introduced first? a)8086 b)80186 c)80286 d)Pentium 4 49. Watch dog timer is introduced in which micro controller? a)8031 b)8051 c)8053 d)8096 52.59 PUSH PSW OUT 25 XRA A POP H a)59 b)25 c)00 d)FF 51.46. After the execution of POP instruction the Stack Pointer(SP) value will be a)SP+2 d)SP-1 b)SP-2 c)SP+1 . After executing the following program what will be the content of accumulator MVI A.

A coil when connected to 200 V. 50 Hz supply takes a current of 10A and dissipates 1200W. 3? d. The supply Voltage is 230 V. 9? c.5? b. 9? & 42mH c. If the current in the 8? resistor is 2A.33? 58.93mH b. A coil of relay has a resistance of 10 ? and an inductive reactance of 500?. 2? & 32mH d.54. Find the resistance and inductance of the coil a. A parallel network consists of three resistors of 4 ?. 3A & 2. How many T states are required to execute one CALL instruction? a)10 b)12 c)16 d)18 56. 8A & 3A 57. 50 Hz.5A c. What is the energy lost in the coil in 8 hrs? .5A b. 8 ? . and 32?. 12? & 59. what are the currents in the other resistors? a. 4A & 0. 5A & 3.5A d. Determine the equivalent resistance between A&B a. 5? & 23. 0.55mH 50. 3. What are the registers are affected when executing RET Instruction? a)A&B b)PSW&H c)HL&A d)PC&SP 55.

XL – 2Xc = 0 b. Calculate the final potential difference across the capacitor. Spinning Top d. 3A 61. Rotating Transducer b. Synchros In higher order systems. Three capacitors have capacitances of 10µF. potentiometer c. 10µF b. 9A c. Calculate the current a. At origin d. 150 V d. 50µF c. 16. a. 120V b. ? = 3 d. Coefficient of coupling between two magnetically coupled coils is given by a.9Wh d. the dominant poles are located _________ a.44 Wh 60. 33Wh A coil having a resistance of 6? and an inductance of 0. ? = 0 b. a. K=1/MvL1L2 d. 45µF 65. Close to origin b. a. 3. b. None The value of damping for an under damped system is ________ a. electro pneumatic converter Servo mechanics usually consists of ________ 69. 15µF & 20µF respectively. Rotating Transformer c. ? = 0. ? = 1 c. When the series AC circuit is at resonance. ________ _ cannot behave as final control element a. 80V 64.5A d. 25µF d. 100V c. 68. Selsyn is the trade name of ____ a. 67. 50 Hz supply. Away from origin c. control valve b. 8. . XL – Xc = 0 c. 9.5 66. 2XL – Xc = 0 d. Calculate the total capacitance when they are connected in parallel. stepper motor d. A 20µF capacitor is charged at a constant current of 5µA for 10 mins.95A b.03H is connected across a 100V. XL = 3Xc 62. K=M/vL1 L2 b. K=M/2vL1 L2 c.2Wh c.a. 5.K=2M/vL1L2 63.

power amplifier Which of the following is an error detector ? a.a. Integrate gyro 72. error signal c. mechanical output d. The recorded representation of bioelectric potentials generated by the muscles of the heart is called a)electroencephalogram c)electromyogram b)electrocardiogram d)elctroretinagram 77. Both d. none Systole is defined a)as the period of contraction of the heart muscles b)as the period of dilation of the heart cavities as they fill with blood c)both a&b d)none 74. Moment of inertia b. Spirometer is for the measurement of a)Blood pressure c)respiratory measurement b)blood flow d)temperature measurement 79. The recorded representation of bioelectric potentials generated by the neuronal activity of the brain is called a)electroencephalogram c)electromyogram b)electrocardiogram d)elctroretinagram 76. LVDT d. Rate gyro c. The natural pacemaker in the cardiovascular system is . The analogous element of Mass ’M’ in case of rotational system is _______ a. DC servomotor c. Dashpot c. AC servomotor b. None A gyroscope that uses derivative feedback is __________ a. control valve b. None 73. d. Free gyro b. Spring d. The type of servomotor best suited for low power application is ________ a. 75. relay 71. all 70. stepper motor c. b. The recorded representation of bioelectric potentials associated with muscle activity constitute a)electroencephalogram c)electromyogram b)electrocardiogram d)elctroretinagram 78.

a)Bundle of his b)sinoatrial node valve c)atrioventricle ring d)tricuspid 80. An amplitude modulated signal can be observed on a CRO by applying the following waveform to the “external trigger” input: . The type of A/D converter normally used in a 3 ½ digit multimeter is a)dual-slope integrating type b)voltage-to-frequency converter type c)flash(or parallel) type d)successive approximation type 85. The rate at which an action potential moves down a fiber is called a)conduction rate b)polarization rate c)depolarization rate d)repolarization rate 82.po2 oxygen.co2 c)both b)partial pressure of d)none 81. Oxygen tension “is a)partial pressure of oxygen . The bandwidth of an electroencephalogram (EEG) amplifier is a) dc to 0. b) 1 to 60 Hz d) 2000 to 10000 Hz A differential output high impedance signal source is connected to an instrumentation amplifier through two shielded cables. The best way to obtain a high CMMR is to connect the cable shields to a)output of the instrumentation amplifier b)mean of the two first stage outputs in the instrumentation amplifier c)common signal ground d)power supply ground 84.01 Hz c) 60 to 150 Hz 83.

5mV 88. A seismic type of transducer has a damping constant of 10. the new minimum operating frequency is a)500Hz b)1000Hz c)2000Hz d)4000Hz 87. If the connecting length is doubled. The minimum operating frequency of measurement is 1000Hz.a)the modulated waveform itself b)derivative of the modulated waveform c)the modulating waveform d)the carrier waveform 86. Majority of digital voltmeters are built with a Dual-slope ADC because a)Dual slope ADCs are less complex than other type of ADCs b) Dual slope ADCs are faster than other type of ADCs c)Dual slope ADCs can be designed to be insensitive to noise and interference d)Dual slope ADCs provide BCD outputs . A piezoelectric transducer is directly connected through a cable to an electronic voltmeter. Kelvin double is best suited for the measurement of a)Resistances of very low value b)Low value capacitance c)Resistance of very high values d)High value capacitance 89.275 volts. An 8 bit ADC outputs all 1’s when Vin =1. The quantization error is a)+5mV b)-5mV c)10mV d)±2. The transducer is designed to measure a)acceleration c)displacement b)velocity d)force 90.

Ep=error signal= 4t+6 where t=time.15 c)18. The controller output is 22% initially. The constant Ki=-0.43 m3/s d)6. An equal percentage valve has a maximum flow of 50m3/s and a minimum flow of 2 m3/s. If the full travel is 3cm. The range of error to cover 0 to 100% of controller output is known as a)Differential gap b)Reset windup c)Proportional band d)Offset Floating control mode is a)Continuous mode c)Composite mode b)Discontinuous mode d)Complex mode 93.53 m3/s c)2. If the settings are as follows kp = 2%.8% d)72.91.35 . 94.15% controller output per second per percentage error. Wien bridge is best suited for the measurement of a) Frequency b)Capacitance c) Inductance d)Resistance 92.85 m3/s b)3. The controller output after 2 seconds for a constant ep is a)15% b)20% c)31% d)42% 97. The phenomenon of reset windup may occur if the control algorithm contains a)P mode b)I mode c)D mode d)PD mode 95.4% 96. The proper Cv for a valve that must pump 150 gallons of ethyl alcohol per minute with a specific gravity of 0.the flow at 1 cm opening is a)5.23 b)24. A PI controller is used for control of certain process.32 m3/s 98.97 d)22. then the controller output in percentage after 2 minutes is a)50% b)60% c)68. ki=2% min. An integral controller is used for speed control with a set point of 12 rpm within a range of 10-15 rpm.8 at maximum pressure of 50 psi is a)20. p(0)=40%.

075 d)0.1 psi occurs across a constriction in a 5-cm diameter pipe.5 b)0.45z-1) is a)Stable b)Unstable c)Marginally stable d)None of the above . A pressure difference of 1.99. The flow rate in m3/s is a)0.0009 m3/s per Kpa. The sampled data control system whose open loop pulse transfer function is given by A(z)= z/(2. The constriction constant is 0.45z+1)(2.025 c)0.045 100.

d) one 3.0) b) (0. 6. Run of the matrix a) 2 b) 3 is c) 1 d) zero is 10. (a.0) Solution of Differential equation (f) c) b) d) is analytic at the print (f) (0.1) is 4.Computer Science (Secti on code 06) 1. Maximum directional derivative of a scalar point function a) b) c) Zero d) none of these The value of curl (grad ) is (f) b) c) Zero is 2. c) (1. Order of convergence in Newton-Raphson method is (f) One b) Two c) Three d) Four 8. Radius of curvature of (f) b) at c) is d) is d) (1.0) d) Nowhere analytic 7. Saddle point of the function b. The sum of eigen values of A2 where A = a) 11 b) 12 c) 13 d) 14 .1) 5.a) b) c) (a. Probability of getting one head when two coins are based is a) b) c) d) 9.

The probability that a<X = b. What are the eigen values of the following 2 x 2 matrix?  2 − 1  −4 5    a) -1 and 1 b) 1 and 6 c) 2 and 5 d) 4 and -1 17.2. The probability that at least one head and one tail turn up is 1 1 7 15 a) b) c) d) 16 8 8 16 13.3} is a) Neither reflexive nor symmetric b) Symmetric and reflexive . Let x be an integer which can take a value of 0 or 1. d) x = 1%x. c) x = x -1. b) x = 1-x. is equivalent to which one of the following? a) x = 1 + x. Four fair coins are tossed simultaneously. Let f(x) be the continuous probability density function of a random variable X. The minimum number of colours required to colour the vertices of a cycle with n nodes in such a way that no two adjacent nodes have the same colour is n(n − 1) n  a) 2n2 b) n2 c) d) n − 2   + 2 2 2  12. else x=0. What is the maximum number of edges in an acyclic undirected graph with n vertices? a) n-1 b) n c) n+1 d) 2n-1 15.11. 14. The binary relation S = φ (empty set) on set A = {1. is : a) f(b-a) b) fb)-fa) c) ∫ f (x )dx a b d) ∫ xf (x )dx a b 18. The statement if(x = = 0) x=1. What is the probability that a leap year selected at random will contain 53 Sundays? 1 2 3 a) b) c) d) None 7 7 7 16.

1 = A b) A. Race around condition exist in JK flip flop if a) J=0 k =1 b) J=1 k =0 c) J=0 k =0 d) J=1 k =1 . A PLA contains a) AND and OR gates c) An array of diodes b) A micro controller d) A PLL 23. S2 are true d) none 25. Dual of the statement (A+1) = 1 is a) A.c) Transitive and reflexive d) Transitive and symmetric 19.A =A 22. Every Flip flop is defined by a) characteristic expression c) both b) excitation table d) none 26. Which gate can be used to compare two bits? a) AND b) OR c) EX-OR d) NAND 20.0 = 0 c) A+A =A d) A. Which of the following statement is/are true? S1: In combinational circuits we require a memory unit to store past outputs S2: Parallel adder is a combinational circuit a) S1 is true b) S2 is true c) S1. A ' B 'C ' + A 'BC ' + ABC ' + AB 'C ' = a) B b) C ' c) C d) none 21. In a combinational circuit the outputs at any instant depend a) only on past input b) only on past output c) past as well present inputs instant d) only on the inputs present at that 24.

The number 43 in 2’s complement representation is a) (010101)2 b) (110101)2 c) (001010) 2 d) (101010)2 32. the LSB is a) 0 b) 1 c) 0 or 1 d) None 33. The storage place that holds data and instruction temporarily within CPU is called a) Accumulator b) Bus c) Register d) None 28. actions that are done by the hardware include a) saving all the register onto the stack b) saving the interrupt vector into a special register c) fetching the address of the interrupt handler d) Both a) and c) RST 7. When an odd number is converted into binary number. 30. Which of the following is an unweighted code? a) 8421 code b) 5211 code c) Excess 3 code d) 2421 code 34. PSW(Program Status Word) contains status of a) ALU(Arithmetic Logic Unit) b) Control unit c) CPU(Central Prcessing Unit) d) All . A multiplexor with a 4 bit data select input is a a) 4:1 mutliplexor b) 2:1 multiplexor c) 16:1 multiplexor d) 8:1 multiplexor 31.5 interrupt in 8085 microprocessor executes service routing form interrupt vector location a) 0000H b) 0075H c) 003CH d) 0034H 29.27. In implementing interrupts. In what representation does the 4-bit number 1001 represent -6? a) unsigned b) signed magnitude c) one’s complement d) two’s complement 35.

The number of memory references required by a CPU to execute immediate address instruction is a) 0 b) 1 c) 2 d) 3 38. Which of the following evaluation order is the best for above requirement? a) Topological sort b) Quick sort c) Bubble sort d) None of these . b) that it leaves the bus free for the CPU to access main memory. what is the average access time of CPU(assume hit ratio 80%)? a) 30ns b) 44ns c) 35ns d) 45ns 40. 43. c) that it combines multiple interrupts into one. RAID configuration of disks are used to provide a) fault tolerane b) high speed c) high data density d) none 41. Advantages of DMA over software transfers are a) lack of software overhead from loop-control instructions. A cache memory needs an access time of 20ns and main memory 120ns.36. d) both a) and c) Consider the grammar A → Aα | β . Hardwired control provides _________________ execution of machine instructions over microprogrammed control a) faster b) on expensively c) parallely d) concurrently 37. Which of the following is true? a) The grammar is LL(1) b) The grammar is not LL(1) c) The grammar is left recursive d) Both a) and c) 42. Number of address locations that can be identified by 12 address line is a) 64 b) 1024 c) 2048 d) 4096 39. Suppose value of A depends upon evaluation of B and C.

the effective instruction time if on the average a page fault occurs every k instruction is: j a) i + b) i + j *k c) (i + j) / k d) (j + j) * k k 48.44. smaller d) larger. 49. larger c) larger. In a virtual memory system the address space specified by the address lines of the CPU must be __________ than the physical memory size and ___________ than the secondary storage size. larger 47. c) polling d)cache 46. Consider the grammar S → aSbS | bSaS |∈ Which of the following is true? a) b) c) d) The grammar is ambiguous and string abab will have 2 parse trees The grammar is ambiguous and abab will have 3 parse trees The grammar is not ambiguous None of the above The principle of locality justifies the use of a) interrupts b) DMA memory 45. Increasing the RAM of a computer typically improves performance because . a) smaller. 50. Locality of reference implies that the page reference being made by a process a) will always be to the page used in the previous page reference b) is likely to be to one of the pages used in the last few page references c) will always be to one of the pages existing in memory d) will always lead to a page fault Which of the following is an example of a spooled device? a) The terminal used to enter the input data for the C program being executed b) An output device used to print the output of a number of jobs c) The secondary memory device in a virtual storage system d) The swapping area on a disc used by the swapper If an instruction takes i microseconds and a fault takes an additional j microseconds. smaller b) smaller.

. Which one of the following is NOT shared by the threads of the same process? a) Stack b) Address Space c) File Descriptor Table d) Message Queue 52. The optimal page replacement algorithm will select the page that a) has not been used for the longest time in the past b) will not be used for the longest time in the future c) has been used least number of times d) has been used most number of times Using a larger block size in a fixed block size file system leads to a) better disk throughput but poorer disk space utilization b) better disk throughput and better disk space utilization c) poorer disk throughput but better disk space utilization d) poorer disk throughput and poorer disk space utilization 56.a) Virtual memory increases c) Fewer page faults occur b) Large RAMs are faster d) Fewer segmentation faults occur 51. System calls are usually invoked by using a) A software interrupt b) Polling c) an indirect jump d) a privileged instruction 54. The number of new processes created is: a) n b) n( n + 1) 2 c) 2 n − 1 d) 3n − 1 53. A process executes the following segment of code: for(i=1. Which of the following scheduling algorithms is non-preemptive? a) Round Robin b) First-In First –Out c) Multilevel Queue Scheduling Feedback d) Multilevel Queue Scheduling with 55.i<=n.i++) fork( ).

The tree is traversed in pre-order and the values are printed out.2.57. Which of the following sequences is a valid output? a) 5 3 1 2 4 7 8 6 b) 5 3 1 2 6 4 8 7 c) 5 3 2 4 1 6 7 8 d) 5 3 1 2 4 7 6 8 59.8. The correct matching for the following pairs is (A) All pairs shortest paths (1) Greedy (B) Quick Sort (2) Depth-First search (C) Minimum weight spanning tree (3) Dynamic Programming (D) Connected Components (4) Divide and Conquer a) A-2 B-4 C-1 D-3 c) A-3 B-4 C-2 D-1 b) A-3 B-4 C-1 D-2 d) A-4 B-1 C-2 D-3 62. The main idea in overlay is to a) keep all the data into memory b) keep shared data only in memory c) keep only those data that are needed at that time d) all of the above During context switch which of the following is not necessary to save? a) General purpose registers b) TLB c) Program counter d) All of the above A binary search tree contains the value 1.6.4. 61. 60. Which one of the following algorithm design techniques is used in finding all pairs of shortest distances in a graph? a) Dynamic Programming b) Backtracking c) Greedy d) Divide and Conquer 63.7. Which of the following is false in context of Inter Process communication? a) Communicate with each other b) Synchronize their actions c) Share the same address space other d) Passing message to each 58. The number of articulation points of the following graph is .3.5.

membership c) membership.0. cardinality will be the slowest? a) union only b) intersection.0. }} . Suppose each set is represented as a linked list with elements in arbitrary order. The best data structure to check whether an arithmetic expression has balanced parentheses is a a) queue b) stack c) tree d) list 65. for (i=0. Which of the operations among union.a) 0 b) 1 c) 2 d) 3 64. Consider the following C-function: double foo (int n) { int i: double sum.i<n. intersection 66. if(n= = 0) return 1. else { sum=0. cardinality d) union.i++) sum += foo (i). return sum. intersection. membership.

The space complexity of the above function is a) O(1) b) O(n) c) O(n!) d) O(nn) 67. What is the worst-case time complexity of the best known algorithm to delete the node x from the list? a) O(n) b) O(log 2 n) c) O(log n) d) O(1) 69. temp = malloc (size of (struct node)). the data structure to be used is: a) Queue b) Stack c) Heap d) B-Tree 68. Queues serve a major role in a) simulation of recursion c) simulation of limited resource allocation 71. int num) { struct node * temp. temp → data = num. In linked list data is stored in a) adjacent location c) neither a) nor b) b) different location in memory d) none of the above 73. 70. To implement Dijkstra’s shortest path algorithm on unweighted graphs so that it runs in linear time. . void function (struct node **q. Which of the following is useful in traversing a given graph by breadth first search? a) stack b) set c) list d) queue 72. The postfix expression for the infix expression (A + B * (C + D)) / (F + D * E ) is a) (AB + CD + *F) / D + E * b) (ABCD * +F) / (+DE * +) c) (A * B + CD) / F * DE ++ d) None of the above b) simulation of arbitrary linked list d) expression evaluation. Let P be a singly linked list. Let Q be the pointer to an intermediate node X in the list. temp → link = *q.

dname. πcus tom er nam e (borrower × depositor ) d) πcustomer name (borrower × depos itor × loan ) c) 77. b) Each component of the array takes up only a small amount of memory c) Only a few elements are out of place d) The processor speed is very fast. count(*) from E. Find all customers who have an account at the bank but not a loan. Which of the following allows to submit queries at runtime? a) Dynamic SQL b) Embedded SQL c) Both A & B d) None 78. allows us to identify uniquely an entity in the entity set.D where edept=dno group by dno.dname.dname b) Select dno. The key which is a set of one or more attributes that taken collectively. deletion search etc.count(*) from E.dname c) Both A and B d) None . is called a) Primary key b) Partial keyc) Candidate key d) Super key 79. a) πcustomer name (depositor ) πcustomer name (borrower ) b) πcustomer name (borrowe r) πcustomer name (depositor ) 76. in a Binary Search Tree takes time in worst case equal to a) O(logn) b) O(n) c) O(nlogn) d) O(n2) 75. When should insertion sort be used? a) Each component of the array takes up a large amount of memory.D group by dno. All the basic operations like insertion. } This is the function for inserting an element in the linked list at a) beginning b) end c) middle d) none of these 74.*q = temp. Which of the following gives the number of employees in each department a) Select dno.

85. In dense index. index record contains a) A search key value and a pointer to the first record b) Longest search key value and a pointer to last record c) Smallest search key value and a pointer to the first location d) None of the above Which of the following is true? a) A file can have atmost one primary index or atmost one clustering index b) A file can have atleast one primary index or atleast one clustering index c) A file can have both primary index and clustering index d) None of the above In the given schedule 84. a) Deadlock can occur c) Can’t say b) Deadlock never occur d) None of these 86. ABC → E. If every attribute is a candidate key then the above table is in a) 1NF b) 2NF c) 3NF d) BCNF 82. d) 4 The number of candidate keys are a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 83.80. Which command undo all the updates performed by the SQL in the transaction? a) Rollback b) Commit c) Truncate d) Delete 81. Atomicity is managed by . Let F = R(ABCDE) be a relational schema and {AB → CD. C → A}be the set of functional dependencies.

Determined the frame rate. What is the process of inserting the header information of the layer and the data form the higher layer into the data frame? a) Encryption b) Compression c) Encapsulation d) Heading 90. 5µs 89. 5µs d) 5x104 fps. 400 kbps. 4µs b) 500 fps. a) 25000 fps. 200kbps.a) Transaction management component component c) Concurrency control component b) Recovery management d) None 87. 20µs. what is the sequence number after sending 100 packets? a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 5 92. A Multiplexer combines four 100-kbps channels using a time slot of 4 bits. what will the bridge do with the frame? a) Drop it b) Forward it to all ports except the port it came in from c) Hold it until the destination MAC address is discovered d) Block it A sender sends a series of packets to the same destination using 5-bit sequence numbers. frame duration. 4µs c) 25x103 fps. 400 kbps. Hub is a multi-port repeater Bridge has filtering capability The bridge changes the MAC address a) TFF b) FFT c) TTF d) FTT 91. If the sequence number starts with 0. . If a frame enters a bridge and the MAC address is not found in the MAC address table. State True or False. 40µs. Which layer of the OSI model is responsible for routing packets form one network to another? a) Transport layer b) Data Link layer c) Physical layer d) Session layer 88. 20µs. bit rate and bit duration. 200 Kbps. 40µs.

65 and the subnet mask 255. Match with the suitable one: List I A) Unidirectional traffic B) Multipoint C) Direct traffic between two devices D) Data Passes through hub List II 1) Mesh topology 2) Star topology 3) Bus topology 4) Ring topology a) A-4 B-1 C-2 D-3 c) A-2 B-3 C-4 D-1 b) A-3 B-4 C-1 D-2 d) A-4 B-3 C-1 D-2 94. then what is the longest frame that can be sent on the ring? a) 48KB b) 60KB c) 32KB d) none 96. A 24 Mbps token ring has a token holding time of 20ms. The company wants to set up an Ethernet network. Two important reasons that the Internet is organized as a hierarchy of networks for the purposes of routing are a) least cost and maximum free circuit availability b) scale and administrative autonomy c) message complexity and speed of convergence d) link cost changes and link failure Given an IP address 201.255.78. What is the subnet address? 98.255.14.224.93. Dijkstra’s algorithm is used to a) Create LSA’s c) Calculate routing tables b) Flood an internet with information d) Create a link state database 97. A company is expanding rapidly. many new people are being employed and in addition the employees keep changing offices. . What physical topology would they use? a) Bus b) Star c) Ring d) Mesh 95.

14.77.77. neither delivery nor correct sequencing of delivered packets (much like IP) d) None of these Telnet a) is used to send email c) is part of Netscape 100. c) UDP is a TCP Complement that offers a connectionless datagram service guaranteeing.64 99.64 d) 201. Which of the following statements accurately describes UDP? a) UDP is a member of the TCP/IP suite of protocols that governs the exchange of electronic mail between message transfer agents.a) 201.14. and the other a server. b) uses telephone lines d) is a protocol that allows for remote login .78. Both computers must support their respective roles: one must be a client.78. b) UDP is a member of the TCP/IP suite of protocols and is used to copy files between two computers on the Internet.14.66 b) 201.14.65 c) 201.

In contact process. The sum of eigen values of A2 where A = a) 11 b) 12 c) 13 d) 14 11. Probability of getting one head when two coins are based is a) b) c) d) Run of the matrix a) 2 b) 3 is c) 1 d) zero is 9.a) b) c) (a.0) Solution of Differential equation (g) c) b) d) is analytic at the print (g) (0. Maximum directional derivative of a scalar point function a) b) c) Zero d) none of these The value of curl (grad ) is (g) b) c) Zero is 2. Radius of curvature of (g) b) at c) is d) is d) (1. 10.1) is 4. 6.Chemical (Section code 07) 1.0) d) Nowhere analytic 7. Order of convergence in Newton-Raphson method is (g) One b) Two c) Three d) Four 8. d) one 3. c) (1. Saddle point of the function (f) (a.0) b) (0.1) 5. SO3 is absorbed in 97% H2SO4 and not in water because (a) SO3 gas is sparingly soluble in water .

we find that a) both temperature and pressure in former is less than that in the later b) both temperature and pressure in the former is more than that in the later c) temperature is more in the former whereas pressure is more in the later d) pressure is more in the former whereas temperature is less in the later 14.(b) Water forms an acid mist which is difficult to absorb (c) The purity of the acid is affected (d) Scale formation in absorber is to be avoided 12. Dacron or terylene fibres as compared to nylon fibres have a) better heat and acid resistant properties b) poorer resistance to alkalis c) poorer dyeability d) all ‘a’. because a) its calorific value is very less b) tar neutralizes that residual acids present in pitch c) it reduces viscosity and imparts fluidity for its transportation through pipelines at economic pressure drop d) all ‘a’. Unsaturated oils compared to saturated oils have a) lower melting point and higher reactivity to oxygen b) higher melting point and higher reactivity to oxygen c) lower melting point and lower reactivity to oxygen d) higher melting point and lower reactivity to oxygen 13. ‘b’ and ‘c’ . ‘b’ and ‘c’ 16. Pitch is always mixed with creosote oil when it is to be burnt in a burned. ‘b’ and ‘c’ 15. Mineral oils are preferred over fatty oils as a lubricant due to its a) b) c) d) poor oxidation stability and high gum forming tendency greater tendency of decomposition at elevated temperature hydrolysis tendency in presence of water all ‘a’. Comparing sulphate process with sulphite process.

5* 10 5 J d) 425. Viscosity index improver is added to the lubricant to a) reduce its viscosity b) increase its viscosity c) reduce the variation it its viscosity with temperature d) increase the variation it its viscosity with temperature 19. A system consisting of some fluid is stirred in a tank. ‘b’ and ‘c’ 20. The rate of work done on the system by the stirrer is 2. Phosphate rock is a raw material for the manufacture of a) phosphoric acid b) phosphorus c) superphosphates d) all ‘a’. Presence of carbonaceous matter in the sewage a) causes reduction in its dissolved oxygen content thereby endangering the life of aquatic creatures b) reduces sulphate ions to sulphides causing obnoxious smell c) increases the quantity of chlorine used for its purification d) all ‘a’.93 * 10 5 J b) 250KJ c) 350. A special manometer fluid has a specific gravity of 2.95 and is used to measure a pressure of 1.01325 bar. The latch holding the piston in position is suddenly removed and the gas is allowed to expand.7mm 21. Two kgs of CO2 gas is contained in a piston-cylinder assembly at a pressure of 6. The expansion is arrested when the volume is double the original volume. The piston has a mass of 5000kg and a surface area of 1m2 . ‘b’ and ‘c’ 18.7 mm b) 800mm c) 272.5 * 10 5 J 22.7mm d) 672. The heat generated due to stirring is dissipated to the surroundings. The amount of work appearing in the surroundings is found to be as a) 126.15 bar at a location where the barometric pressure is 760mmHg. If the heat transferred to the surroundings is 3400KJ/h. What height will the manometer fluid indicate? a) 472. the change in internal energy is found to be as .25hp.5 bar and a temperature of 300K. The friction of the piston on the walls is significant and cannot be ignored.17. The atmospheric pressure is 1.

A steam turbine using steam at 1368kpa and 645K and discharging saturated steam at 137kpa is used to generate power for certain chemical plant.8 bar b) 35. enthalpy of superheated steam at 1368kpa and 645K = 3200kJ/kg and enthalpy of saturated steam at 137kPa = 2690 kJ/kg. The density of gaseous ammonia at 473 K and 50 bar is 24.91* 10-2 m3/mol d) 8. The solubility of oxygen in water at 298 K for a partial pressure of oxygen at 0.53hp d) 115.38 J/s b) 533.56hp b) 313. The molar volume of air at 350K and at 1 bar (assuming air to behave as ideal gas) is determined as c) 5.381 m3 at 313K.61* 10-2 m3/mol b) 6.38 J/s d) 243. The Henry’s law constant for oxygen in water at 298K is 4.46hp c) 617.a) 733.0568 * 10 -4 moles/mole of water b) 1.6 bar 26.5 bar d) 13.47 bar c) 76.58 J/s c) 953.76 bar 27.28 * 10 -5 m3 /mol The pressure given by Vanderwaals equation is found to be as d) 51. The turbine acts adiabatically and the feed and discharge velocities may be considered equal.25 bar is found to be as a) 0.48J/s 23. From the steam tables.365 Nm 4/mol 2and b = 4.1675 * 10 -4 moles/mole of water ( c )1 .51* 10-2 m3/mol c) 2.23hp 24.3 kg/m3 .1987 * 10 -4 moles/mole of water d) 2. One Kilo mol CO2 occupies a volume of 0. The fugacity is estimated to be as e) 65. Take the vanderwaals constant to be a = 0.4*10 4 bar.8 bar c) 23.35 bar b) 44.5 bar d) 15. The theoretical horsepower developed by the turbine if it uses 1650kg steam per hour is calculated to be as b) 513.31* 10-2 m3/mol 25.354 * 10 -4 moles/mole of water .

Which statement is correct for this situation? a) inertial and drag forces are important b) Drag. 33. ( N Re less than 5). b) for unbaffled vessels and when Reynolds number is greater than 300. 35. For crushing of solids. d) When the Reynolds number is less than 300. c) When there is no vortex formation.5 J/kmol K b) -653. The work index in Bond’s Law for crushing of solids has the following dimension a)no units(dimensionless) b) KWh / ton c) KW/ton d) KWh m1/2 /ton At very low r.m. In power correlations for agitated vessels the effect of Froude number appears: a) for baffled vessels and when Reynolds number is less than 300.25 * 10 -3K -1. The molar volume of an organic liquid at 300 K and 1 bar is 0. the Rittinger’s law states that the work required for crushing is proportional to a) the new surface created b)the size reduction ratio c)the change in volume due to crushing d)none of these 30.28. gravitational and buoyancy forces are important . a) D b) D2 c) D3 d) D5 32. A spherical particle is falling slowly in a viscous liquid such that Reynolds number is less than one.p. Assuming ( ) P is constant in ∂T the pressure range 1 to 20 bar .6 a) -237.5 J/kmol K ( d) 131.1m 3/kmol and ∂V its coefficient of expansion is 1. 31. A fluid energy mill is used for a) Cutting b) grinding c) ultra grinding The weber number can be used to estimate a) ratio of inertial and surface tension forces b) ratio of inertial and compressibility forces c) ratio of inertial and centrifugal forces d) ratio of pressure and surface tension forces d) crushing 34.7 J/kmol K J/kmol K 29.the change in entropy if the pressure is increased to 20 bar at 300 K is found to be as c) -445. the power required for agitation is Proportional to Where D is the diameter of the impeller.

µ = viscosity) is flowing with velocity v in a tube of diameter D. 42.1 b) 0.5 For an ideal fluid flow the Reynolds number is a) 2100 b) 100 c) Zero d) infinity Fluidized beds are formed when: a) fluid friction is zero b) gravity force is less than fluid friction c) pressure forces equal gravity forces d) sum of fluid friction and pressure forces is equal and opposite to gravity 37. Let ?p be the pressure drop across the length L. For a laminar flow. 39. . The response of two tanks of same size and resistance in series is a) under damped b) critically damped c) over damped d) none of the above In a feed-back control system G and H denote open loop and closed loop transfer functions respectively.01 to 0. Stokes equation is valid in the Reynolds number range a) 0. 45. 46. forces. This represents: a) a first order system b) dead time system c) a first order time lag d) a second order system. 38.1 to 2 c) 2 to 10 d) 10 to 100.c) Drag force and gravitational forces are important d) None of the above 36. The output – input relationship is : a) G/(1 +G H) b) H/(1 + G) c) G/H d) H/G The transfer function of PID controller is a) K c (1 + (1/τI s ) + τD s ) b) K c (1 + τI s + τD s ) c) K c(1 + (1/τD s ) + τI s ) d) K c [1 + (1/τI s ) + (1/ τD s ) ] For an input forcing function. 41. x(t) = 2t2 . For the laminar flow of a fluid in a circular pipe of radius R. A Newtonian liquid ( ρ = density. ?p i s proportional to a) Lρv2/D b) Dρ v2/L c) Lµv/D2 d) µ v/L The type of process that most often can benefit from derivative control is: a) Flow b) Level c) Temperature d) Pressure The open loop transfer function of a control system is KR/(1 + Ts). 43. the laplace transform of this function is a) 2/s2 b) 4/ s2 c) 2/ s 3 d) 4/ s3 44. 40. the HagenPoiseuille equation predicts the volumetric flow rate to be proportional to a) R b) R2 c) R4 d) R0.

then the simple rate of return on investment is a) 15%b) 10%c) 1.5 lakhs. If the project life is 10 years. 55. . 53. 10 lakhs and the annual profit is Rs. 49.5-1 b) 1-5 c) 5-10d) 10-102 For condensation of pure vapors.5% d) 150% Direct costs component of the fixed capital consists of a) Contingency b) onsite and offsite costs c) labour costs d) raw material costs Indirect contact heat exchangers are preferred over direct heat exchangers because a) heat transfer coefficients are high b) there is no risk of contamination c) there is no mist formation d) cost of equipment is lower In a finned tube heat exchanger: a) only heat transfer area is augmented b) only film coefficient is augmented c) both heat transfer area and film coefficient are augmented d) none of the above The critical radius r of insulation on a pipe is given by a) r = 2k/h b) r = k/h c) r = k/2h d) r = h/k (Where k is the thermal conductivity of the insulation and h the heat transfer coefficient with the ambient) The advantage of using 1-2 shell and tube heat exchanger over 1-1 shell and tube heat exchanger is a) Lower tube side pressure drop b) Lower shell side pressure drop c) Higher tube side heat transfer coefficient d) Higher shell side heat transfer coefficient Grashof number is associated with : a) buoyancy effects b) free convection c) forced convection d) high temperature difference Prandtl number for water varies from a) 0.47. then a) hf = hd b) hf > hd c) hf < hd 48. 56. 52. if the heat transfer coefficients in filmwise and dropwise condensation are respectively hf and hd. 54.If step change is introduced into the system. 1. 50. 51. then the response will be a) under damped b) critically damped c) over damped d) none of the above The total investment in a project is Rs. The transfer function of a process is 16s2 + 8s + 4.

E/RT) The dimensions of rate constant for reaction 3A à B are (1/gmole)/min. The unit of A in the SI system will be a) W/m K b) W/m c) W/ m K2 d) None.R’s of volumes 5. 65.5 c) – 0. Therefore the reaction order is a) 0 b) 1 c) 2 d) 3 Choose the correct answer: An exothermic gas phase reaction proceeds according to the equation 3A + 2B à 2R.10 and 15 cu. the number of bubble caps per tray primarily depends on the a) allowable liquid velocity b) allowable gas velocity c) allowable gas and liquid velocities d) feed composition Lewis number = 1 signifies: a) Pr = Sc b) Pr = Re c) Sc = Re 58. The advantage of backward-feed multiple effect evaporators over forwardfeed units is that a) heat sensitive materials can be handled b) there is no additional cost of pumping c) most concentrated liquor is at highest temperature d) equal heat transfer coefficients exist in various effects. 64.T. the reaction rate constant is proportional to a) exp (.25 d) 0 From collision theory.S. 62. For the gaseous reaction 2A à B where the feed consists of 50 mol% A and 50 mol% inerts. The variation of thermal conductivity of a metal with temperature is often correlated using an expression of the for K = Ko + At. 59. .d) hf could be greater or smaller than hd 57. the expansion factor is a) 1 b) – 0. d) Nu = Sh 60.E/RT) b) exp ( . The sequence in which three C.m. will be connected in series to obtain the maximum production in a second order irreversible reaction is: a) 15 10 5 b) 5 10 15 c) 10 5 15 d) 10 15 5.E/2RT) c) T1/ 2exp ( .E/RT) d) Tm exp ( . A is just a number In distillation columns. Where K is the thermal conductivity and T is temperature (in k). 63. The equilibrium conversion for this reaction: a) increases with an increase in temperature b) decreases on dilution with an inert gas c) decrease with an increase in pressure d) is unaffected by the presence of a catalyst 61.

for saturated liquid feed a) q > 1 b) q < 1 c) q = 1 d) q = 0 70. In the absorption of a solute gas from a mixture containing inerts in a solvent. 73. high temperature C. the operating line a) lies above the equilibrium curve b) lies below the equilibrium curve c) can lie above or below the equilibrium curve d) is always parallel to the equilibrium curve In distillation where q is defined as the moles of liquid flow in the stripping section per mole of feed introduced. low CB b) low CA. It may therefore be concluded that: a) the process is liquid film controlled b) the gas is sparingly soluble in the solvent c) the transfer rate can be increased substantially by reducing the thickness of the liquid film d) the transfer rate can be increased substantially by reducing the thickness of the gas film The Knudsen diffusivity is dependent on : a) the molecular velocity only b) the pore radius of the catalyst only c) the molecular mean free path only d) the molecular velocity and pore radius of the catalyst Absorption towers are operated under conditions of A. low temperature For stripping of a gas in a counter current stripper. . pressure etc.66. low temperature D. high CB c) high CA. low pressure. low CB d) high CA. high temperature B. 68. low pressure. high CB 67. 71. high pressure. it has been found that the overall gas transfer coefficient is nearly equal to the individual gas film transfer coefficient.5CA CB We should have a) low CA. In a homogeneous gas phase reaction A + 2B à R + S what is the relationship between rA and rB : a) 2 rA = rB b) rA = 2 rB c) rA = rB d) none of the above The units of frequency factor in Arrhenius equation are a) the same as those of the rate constant b) depend on the order of the reaction c) depend on temperature. high pressure. of the reaction d) are cycles per unit time To maximize the formation of R in the simultaneous reactions A+Bà R rR = 2CA 0. 72.5 CB2 A+Bà S rS = 1. 69.

23 kg 100kg/h of a thermic fluid.36% c) 6.3kJ d) 5454.74.3kpa.51 kpa b) 2. The solubility of Na2CO3 at 278K is 9. The standard heat of formation of acetylene is calculated as a) 556. 76. 83.56 kg d) 12. The specific gravity of the liquid is a) 1. The heat capacity equation for the thermic fluid is given as Cp= 1.13 d) 266. The latent heat of vaporization of water at 298K is 43. is being indirectly heated in a heater from 380 K to 550 K.115 * 10 23 b) 30.115* 10 23 c) 60.225* 10 23 d) 80. the standard heat of combustion of carbon is -393.45*10 4 N/m2 b) 350. The standard heat of the above reaction at 298 K is calculated to be as : a) -3535.8kg/100kg of water.9.5 d) 4.84 kJ.5 kJ How many moles are there in 500g of oxygen? a) 31.5% b) 0. The partial pressure of water vapour is (a) 1.43kW b) 115. C5H12 (g) = -146. 4. 35.8 kJ Given is the reaction at 298K : C5 H12 (g) + 8O2 (g) ? 5 CO2 (g) +6 H20 (l). 80% of the carbonate is recovered as Na2 CO3.11% d) 4.5*10 4 N/m2 d) 490. The standard heat of formation are as follows: CO2 (g) = -393. 80. 77.82kg in a liquid.2636.0%(weight).6kJ c) 226.25 b) 15.4kJ.908 kJ b) -9876. The pressure of the gas by ideal equation is a) 600. where Cp is in KJ/kgK and T is in K.8 b) 3. 82.6kW Given that the standard heat of combustion of acetylene is -1299. the quantity of crystals formed is calculated to be as a) 32.324* 10 23 A body weighs 1.58 kg c) 76. The mass fraction and mass percent of Nacl is found to be as a) 1.51kpa c) 4.67kJ b) 357. The heat load on the heater in kW is calculated to be as a) 313. How many molecules are present in 691g K2CO3 ? a) 20.511.28kg b) 55. to be used as a heat transfer medium. 26.0109 kg water vapour per cubic meter of the mixture at 300K and 101. . 78.436 + 2.45*10 4 N/m2 Moist air contains 0.911% The molar volume of a gas mixture analyzing 40% nitrogen and 60% ethane at 325K is 4.9 The solubility of sodium chloride in water at 290K is 35.5*10 -4 m3 /mol.10H20 by evaporation of water and subsequent cooling to 278K. 81.625 c) 76.5kJ c) -2332.45 75.826kJ. On the basis of 100 kg of the solution treated. 0.61 kJ.0kg in air.18*10-3 T.967 kJ/mol.233 . H2 0 (l) = -241.75kJ d) 776.5 c) 6. 65.71 kpa An aqueous solution of sodium carbonate contains 15% carbonate by weight.5 *10 4 N/m2 c) 815.81kpa d) 6.51 kJ and the standard heat of formation of liquid water is -285.51kJ.77kW c) 287. 79.90kg in water and 0.7kW d) 545.

24kg/kgmol Carnot cycle consists of the following steps: a) two isothermals and two isentropics b) two isobarics and two isothermals c) two isochorics and two isobarics d) two isothermals and two isochorics. 94. .42kg/kgmol d) 73.55 kg/kgmol c) 24.84. The average molecular weight of the gas mixture is found to be as a) 35. b) Pseudoplastic d) Dilatant 92. 91. At the inversion point. 90. CO2-30%. The mass in Kgs of solution A required is a) 40kg b) 60kg c) 75kg d) 25kg A sewage gas sample is found to contain CH4 -68%. 87. 88. 86. It is required to make 100kg of a solution containing 40% salt by mixing solution A containing 25% salt and solution B containing 50% salt. NH3 – 2% on volume basis. the Joule-Thompson coefficient is a) positive b) negative c) Zero d) five The number of degree of freedom for a mixture of ice and water (liquid) are: a) 2 b) 3 c) 1 d) 0 The equation dU = TdS – PdV is applicable to infinitesimal changes occurring in: a) an open system of constant composition b) a closed system of constant composition c) an open system with changes in composition d) a closed system with changes in composition The change in Gibbs free energy for vapourization of a pure substance is a) positive b) negative c) Zero d) may be positive or negative Toothpaste is a a) Bingham plastic c) Newtonian liquid 85.53 kg/kgmol b) 55. 89. To produce talcum powder use a) Ball mill b) Hammer mill c) jet-mill d) Pin-mill Potential function is applicable only for a) irrotational flow b) turbulent flow (c ) steady flow d) none of these Reciprocating pumps are not able to compete with the centrifugal pump for industrial use mainly because these pumps have 93.

.a) very low speeds ( c) higher capital and maintenance cost 95. b) smaller discharge d) high vibrations In a free vortex. 98. 97. the a) velocity changes linearly with radial distance b) flow is necessarily rotational c) radial component of velocity is same everywhere d) streamlines are not circular For a binary mixture with low relative volatility. 100. 99. continous rectification to get pure products will require a) low reflux ratio b) less number of trays (c ) small cross section column d) high reflux ratio Mccabe-Thiele method a) uses molal units for material and energy balance b) uses weight fractions to express liquid and vapour composition c) can use any type of units d) is more accurate than Ponchan-Savarit method Fenske equation determines a) maximum number of ideal plates b) height of the distillation column c) minimum number of theoretical plates d) optimum reflux ratio To get high tray efficiency a) interfacial surface between liquid and gas phase should be large b) time of contact between the two phases should be less c) gas velocity should be very low d) liquid entrainment should be severe Plate efficiency a) is a function of the mass transfer between liquid and vapor b) increases due to foaming c) increases due to liquid entrainment d) increases due to weeping and dumping of liquid 96.

Bio Technology (Section code 08) 1. a) Ionchannels b) Vacuoles c) Capillaries d) Nexus What technique can be used to measure cell activity like a change in membrane potential? a) Ionchannel b) Apoptosis c) Patchclamp d) Ion exchange What role(s) does the cytoskeleton play in a living cell? a) Maintaining cell shape b) Movement c) Contraction d) All of these Which is SMALLEST of these four? a) Bacterium c) Virus Gram positive organisms have a) Dipicolinic acid c) Teichoic acid 2. 3. Acetoclastis is the process of a) Splitting of acetate into methane and carbon dioxide by methanogens b) Splitting of formate into formalin and carbon dioxide by methanogens c) Splitting of acetate into methane and carbon dioxide by alkaligens d) Splitting of formate into formalin and carbon dioxide by alkaligens BAC is expanded as a) Bacterial Accessing Catalogue b) Bacillus Anthrasis Culture c) Bacillus and Coccus d) Bacterial Artrifical Chromosome 10. Later examination of the cell showed the radioactivity to be concentrated in the a) Rough ER. Dye injected into a plant cell might be able to enter an adjacent cell through a a) Tight junction b) Gap junction c) Desmosome d) Plasmodesma A plant cell was grown in a test tube containing radioactive nucleotides. b) Peroxisome c) Smooth ER. the parts from which DNA is built. 7. b) Muraminic acid d) Acetic Acid 9. 4. 6. d) Nucleus Which of the following organelles is most important in providing energy to the cell? a) Mitochondrion b) Centrosome c) Nucleus d) Peroxisome Name the membrane valves that open and close for potassium efflux and sodium influx. b) Red blood cell d) Lymphocyte 8. . 5.

Layer of proteinaceous elements beneath the cell membrane in protozoa are called as a) Pellicle b) Prosthecae c) Trichomes d) Protenoids Population of cells all descended from a single pure isolate are called a) Clones b) Species c) Auxenic culture d) Strain Hard external covering or shell a) Coat c) Test 19.11. Glass column with an anaerobic lower zone and an aerobic upper zone is a) G. Fungal hypha that connects two compartments separated by a septum is called a a) Hyphal connection b) Clamp connection c) Nexus d) Gap junction Doubling time is the time required for a population to a) Double in number of biomass b) Double in number alone c) Double in both number and biomass d) None of the above Endospores are present in a) Acid Fast Bacilli c) Gram negative bacteria Fusiform bacteria are a) Needle shaped c) Fused at both the ends 12. b) Gram positive bacteria d) All of the above 14. b) Cell division d) Mitosis 18. Quantity of biomass carbon formed per unit of substrate carbon consumed is called a) Growth yield coefficient b) Growth rate constant c) Carbon substrate ratio d) Surface volume ratio Layer of hyphae.R. Column b) Winogradskys column . fertile in producing asci from the process of meiosis are called a) Hyphaneum b) Hymenium c) Hyphomenium d) Hypomanium Thread like infections means a) Binary fission c) Meiosis 16. 20. 13. b) Pear shaped d) Spindle shaped 15. 17. b) Peritheca d) Tentorium 21.

29. injection of a mixture of heat-killed smooth bacteria and living rough bacteria a) Kills the mouse b) Causes transfection 25. 30. 27. including the start codon and stop codon. b) Enrichment medium d) Specific medium 24. MacLeod. 31. An event in which transducing DNA fails to be incorporated into the recipient chromosome is a) Adjunct transduction b) Abortive transduction c) Degenerative transduction d) Distinctive transduction A mRNA is 336 nucleotides long.anaerobic column column.c) Areobic. . The number of amino acids in the protein translated from this mRNA is a) 333 b) 336 c) 111 d) 112 Which scientists gave experimental evidence that DNA is the genetic material? a) Avery. the ratio of purines : pyrimidines is: a) Variable b) Determined by the base sequence in RNA c) Always 1:1 e) Determined by the purines in the sense strand of DNA Which of the following molecules do not form part of DNA? a) Purine b) Pyrimidine c) Deoxyribose d) Ribose The transcription of DNA to a molecule of messenger RNA occurs: a) On the ribosomes b) In the cytosol c) In the nucleus d) Only during cell division Codons are composed of a) Triplet sequences of nucleotide bases in mRNA b) Triplet sequences of nucleotide bases in DNA c) Triplet sequences of amino acids in polypeptide chains d) Triplet sequences of deoxyribose sugars in DNA In Griffith's experiment. 28. and McCarty b) Garrod c) Watson and Crick d) Hershy and Chase In a double stranded DNA. 22. 26. d) Microbial separation Wild type is a) Strain of microorganism isolated from nature b) Strain of microorganism isolated from pure culture c) Strain of microorganism culture from ATCC d) Strain of microorganism cultured in natural conditions MacConkey medium is a a) Differential medium c) Transport medium 23.

35. 39. b) Mouse d) All the above 42. d) has no effect Which of the following is common to DNA and RNA a) Thymine b) Sugar c) Functions d) Guanine Which of the following is true of transfer RNA? a) It is responsible adding correct amino acid to a growing polypeptide. d) It is an important component of ribosomes. 34. 37. 36. c) It functions in transcription. b) CAP d) None 40. b) Right handed helix d) None of the above . Transcription and translation is separated by time and space for a) E.c) Causes transduction 32. b) It serves as the site of protein synthesis. b) Ribosome assembly site d) Translation initiation site 41. 38. Which of the following is most similar to the Watson-Crick helix? a) B-DNA b) A-DNA c) C-DNA d) Z-DNA Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of DNA? a) Antiparallel b) Composed of nucleotides c) Complementary d) Contains ribose Which is most preferred site for interaction of proteins with DNA a) Major groove b) Minor groove c) Phosphate backbone d) None DNA duplexes can be “melted” or “denatured” by a) Temperature b) pH c) Ionic strength d) All the above In replication the direction of DNA synthesis is a) 3’---5’ b) 5’---3’ c) Both d) None Inducer of lac operon is a) lacI c) allolactose Function of 5’cap of mRNA is a) Ribosome binding site c) Ribosome disassembly site Kozack sequence is found in a) Rice c) Homo sapiens 33. coli b) Virus c) Bacillus d) Mouse The A form of DNA exhibit -------a) Left handed helix c) Zig-zag 43. translation and replication.

Cofactor of Scuccinate dehydrogenase is a) FAD b) NAD c) NADH c) Cu Antimycine is the inhibitor of a) Glycolysis c) Electron transport chain 49.44. 54. 52. 53. b) Fructose d) Lactose 48. Glutathione is a) Tripeptide c) Lipids Invert Sugar is a) Glucose c) Sucrose b) Dipeptide d) Polysaccharide 47. The modification in the CTD tail of RNA polymerase is a) Acetylation b) Phosphorylation c) Methylation d) Demethylation Total number of ATP produced per complete oxidation of glucose a) 40 b) 2 c) 8 c) 38 45. a) Exponential b) Stationary c) Lag d) All the above In aerobic industrial microbial processes. Total number of ATP produced in complete oxidation of palmitic acid is a) 8 b) 38 c) 131 d) 129 Which amoung the following pathway is amphibolic nature a) Fatty acid biosynthesis b) Beeta oxidation c) Tricarboxylic acid cycle c) Electron transport chain The enzyme with higher affinity towards substrate will have Km of a) High b) Low c) 0 c) Affinity not related to Km Secondary metabolites appear predominantly in fermentor during which of the following stages. 46. one of the most difficult problems to solve is a) Maintaining an adequate energy source b) Adjusting a pH to a desired value and maintaining that value c) Providing adequate aeration d) Homogenous mixing 51. b) TCA cycle d) Oxidative phosphorylation 50. .

primary treatment consists of a) Physical separation only b) Biological separation only c) Chemical separation only d) All the above Which among is the following is fat soluble vitamin a) Vit B b) Vit C b) Vit D c) Vit H Amphibolic nature of TCA cycle is is due to a) Produce GTP c) Produce FADH2 d) Links cetabolism and anabolism d) Due to author name Polymorphism can be studied using restriction enzyme by a) Digestion mapping b) Ligation PCR c) RFLP d) RAPD 60. 57. b) Cheese making d) Beer making 59. Which of these is not an economical source of bulk carbon suitable for large scale industrial microbial processes? a) Cornsteep liquor b) Sucrose c) Whey d) All of these are economic source for bulk carbon Which of the following penicillin in current use represents an unmodified naturally occuring product? a) Ampicillin b) Penicillin G c) Methicillin d) Amoxicillin Wine yeast can tolerate upto a) 4-5% ethanol c) 20-22 % ethanol Enology is science of studying a) Bread making c) Wine making 56.55. 65. The holes in swiss cheese is produced by a) Gas producing by propionic acid bacteria b) Gas producing by lactic acid bacteria c) Gas producing by fungi d) Gas production by yeast A microbial guild is a) Groups of microbes of same species b) Several metabolic related populations interacting with each other c) Groups of metabolically related populations d) The location to which a microbe is adopted Volatile fatty acids produced in rumen are used for a) Methanogenesis b) Acetogenesis c) Sulfate reduction d) Food for ruminant In waste water treatment. 62. 61. b) 12-14% ethanol d) 30-34% of ethanol. 58. . 63. 64.

Vector used for cloning large DNA fragments is a) Plasmids b) Phagemids c) BAC d) None Cloning of unknown sequence can be done by a) RT PCR b) PCR RFLP c) Inverse PCR d) Nested PCR His-Tag is used for a) Protein purification c) RNA purification 73.66. 70. . b) DNA purification c) mRNA purification 75. 77. 71. 69. Nucleic acids are quantified by measuring the optical density (OD) at a) 230 nm b) 240 nm c) 260 nm c) 280 nm The most common temperature used for storage of restriction endonucleases is a) -20C b) 37C c) 27C d) -80C Theoretically. b) Phagemids c) All the above 72. annealing temperature of PCR should be a) Less than the melting temperature of the primers b) Equal to the melting temperature of the primers c) Higher than the melting temperature of the primers d) Constant regardless of the melting temperature of the primers 76. 74. RNAi is a) DNA amplification technique c) RNA amplification technique b) Is an enzyme d) RNA silencing technique 67. Enzyme that breaks the phosphodiester bond in DNA is a) DNA ligase b) Nucleotide kinase c) EcoR I d) Alkaline phosphatase Enzyme that makes the phosphodiester bond in DNA is a) Nucleotide kinase b) DNA ligase c) EcoR I d) Alkaline phosphatase The following is the promoter used in transgenic plants a) CaMV 35S b) GFP c) LacZ d) Trp The following is a dye used in real time PCR a) Bromophenol blue b) Excel Blue c) Navi Blue d) SYBR green Vectors used for cloning is a) Plasmids c) Phage 68.

78. 83. 81. their information content and the gene products they encode a) Genetics b) Genomics c) Ergonomics d) Proteomics Which type of genomics studies similarities and differences among the genomes of multiple organisms? a) Comparative genomics b) Structural genomics c) Functional genomics d) Proteomics Assigning a function for a gene is a) Cloning c) Validation 86. 85. The field that is concerned with the management and analysis of biological data using computers a) Statistics b) Genomics c) Bioinformatics d) Cheminformatics . The following is possible by plant transformation a) Transfer of genes from animals to plants b) Transfer of genes from plants to plants c) Transfer of genes from human to plants d) All the above The following may lead to gene silencing a) Antisense expression b) Cosuppression b) RNA interference c) All the above The chemical used for chain termination in DNA sequencing a) dNTP b) ddNTP c) Termination primer d) EDTA Salt from precipitated DNA can be removed by using a) Water b) 70% ethanol c) 50% ethanol d) All the above Movement of DNA in agarose gel is a) Inversely proportional to the molecular weight b) Directly proportional to the molecular weight c) Directly proportional to GC content d) Directly proportional to AT content Oligo dT can be used to purify a) RNA c) Non coding RNA 79. b) mRNA d) All the above 84. 82. 87. 80. The cofactor of Taq DNA polymerase is a) NAD b) ATP c) FAD d) MgCl2 The study of the molecular organization of genomes. b) Annotation d) None 88.

98. b) 3 billion base pairs d) 5 billion base pairs 96. 95. Small solid supports on to which are spotted hundreds of thousands of tiny drops of DNA that can be used to screen gene expression. a) DNA microarrays b) cDNA library c) Southern Arrays d) PCR Proteomics is: a) A branch of quantum physics b) The study of algal genomes c) The study of the entire collection of proteins expressed by an organism d) Analysis of gene expression The first dimension of separation for two-dimensional electrophoresis is based on a) Molecular mass b) Isoelectric point c) Folding d) PH 90. b) oligonucleotides .89. 91. 99. Which of the following is a 3D database a) PDB b) NCBI c) EMBL d) PIR Molecular visualization of proteins is done by using a) Rasmol b) Clustal W c) Blast d) RAPTOL The suitable server for homology modeling is a) Swiss PDB viewer b) HEX c) Autodock d) Dock Human genome contains about a) 2 billion base pairs c) 4 billion base pairs 93. 92. b) Software biocatalog d) all the above 100. 94. Which one is not the Genome database? a) GenBank b) TIGR c) GeneQuiz d) LIGAND To maintain computer files in an orderly fashion means to organize them a) Hierarchically b) Randomly c) Linearly d) Orthogonally Software which is used for progressive multiple sequence alignment a) CLUSTAL W b) OLIGO c) GA d) HMM Example for literature databases? a) Medline c) Flybase archives Affymetrix microarray is based on a) cDNA clones 97.

c) Plasmids d) All the above .

Radius of curvature of (h) b) at c) is d) is d) (1. 10. The sum of eigen values of A2 where A = a) 11 b) 12 c) 13 d) 14 11.0) b) (0. Saddle point of the function (g) (a.0) d) Nowhere analytic 7. c) (1.GIS (Section code 09) 1. 6. Probability of getting one head when two coins are based is a) b) c) d) Run of the matrix a) 2 b) 3 is c) 1 d) zero is 9.1) 5. The art of obtaining information about an object without being in physical contact with it is known as a) Photogrammetry . Order of convergence in Newton-Raphson method is (h) One b) Two c) Three d) Four 8.a) b) c) (a. d) one 3.0) Solution of Differential equation (h) c) b) d) is analytic at the print (h) (0.1) is 4. Maximum directional derivative of a scalar point function a) b) c) Zero d) none of these The value of curl (grad ) is (h) b) c) Zero is 2.

14. . 18. a) b) c) d) 15. 19.b) Optics c) Remote sensing d) Satellite Imaging 12. 16. Photogrammetry is a a) Advanced Surveying b) Irrigation of Hydrology c) Analysis of Structural d) None of the above The Photographs used in Photogrammetry are a) Aerial Photos and Terrestrial Photos b) Color photos c) B&W photos d) Color and B& W Photos Application of Phototgrammetry Road Alignment Environmental Management Management and Planning of Urban All the above Ballistic cameras are used for a) Positions in ground b) GCP. 17.Find out c) To calculate satellite trajectory d) None of the above The degree of tilt in a tilted photograph is a) 1° to 3° b) 1° to 7° c) 1° to 6° d) 1° to 5° ------------controls the amount of light entering the photographic camera a) Lens b) Shutter c) Aperture d) Diaphragm Horizon is visible in a) Vertical photograph b) Tilted photograph c) Low-oblique photograph d) High-oblique photograph The radial displacement of the image visible on the vertical photograph due to topography is known as a) Vertical distance b) Relief displacement c) Relief distance d) Relief difference 13.

measuring and interpreting photographs is known as a) Remote sensing b) Photogrammetry c) Cartography d) None of the above The point on the ground coinciding with the optical axis of the camera is known as a) Principle point b) Fiducial point c) Nadir d) Floating mark Orthophotos are a) Photographs without distortions b) Photographs with distortions c) Photographs with relief displacement d) Photographs with tilt Stereo pair Images are generated by a) Overlapping two Images b) Non-Overlapping two Images c) Over-lapping 3-Images d) None of these above Relief displacement is defined as a) Change in Height b) Change Shape c) Change in Size d) All Use of Stereoscope: a) Elimination of Parallax b) 3D-viewing c) Exact Projection of Height visualized d) All Titled photogrammetry requires a) Geometric Correction b) Linear Correction c) Angular Correction d) All Ortho photo are defined a) Rectified photo b) Uniform scale photo c) Geometrically Environment photo d) All 21.20. 27. 22. . 25. 26. The art and science of recording. 24. 23.

a) Mie Scattering.28. 35. . SOI stands for a) Soil and Oceanographic department of India b) Survey of India c) Soil of India d) All of the above Which of the following is a surveying technique? a) Trilateration b) Electronic distance measurement c) Reckoning d) All of the above Panchromatic images mean a) Black and white images b) Colored images c) Both a and b d) None of the above The arrangement of electromagnetic energy according to wavelength or frequency is known as a) Electronic spectrum b) Magnetic spectrum c) Electromagnetic spectrum d) Electronic distance measurement Wavelength range for the visible region ranges between a) Gamma<UV<Radio waves<visible<microwave<infrared b) Gamma <microwaves < Radio waves < visible <UV < infrared c) Gamma <Microwave < Radio waves <Visible < Microwave < UV d) Gamma <UV < visible <Infrared < micro waves < radio waves The region of atmosphere through which the electromagnetic radiations passes without attenuation is a) Atmospheric influences b) Atmospheric doors c) Atmospheric widows d) Atmospheric greenhouse Part of the electromagnetic energy is reflected from the surface of the matter. 32. 34. 33. b) Emission. 31. 30. which is independent to wavelength. b) Rayleigh Scattering c) Non-Selective scattering d) None. 29. d) Transmission _____________ is the type scattering. is called a) Scattering. c) Absorption.

36. 38. 43. 40. 41.67 µm are often known as a) Chlorophyll absorption bands b) Water absorption bands c) Normal wavelength bands d) Soil absorption bands Reflection from a flat surface is known as a) Diffuse reflection b) Specular reflection c) EMR reflection d) All the above Reflected radiation used for remote sensing is a) X-ray b) Visible c) Gamma rays d) Radio waves Which of the following is not a meteorological satellite? a) NOAA b) INSAT c) GOES d) IKONS RADAR stands for a) Radio Audio Development and Research 37. The IRS stands for a) International Resource satellite b) Indian Remote Sensing Satellite c) Indian Regional Satellite d) None of the above. .45 and 0. 39. 42. 44. Rayleigh scattering affects a) Shortwave visible region b) Long wave region c) Infrared region d) Microwave region Which of the following wavelength band is absorbed by Chlorophyll present in the leaf? a) Red and Green b) Red and Blue c) Blue and Green d) Red and Blue The size of the smallest object that can be discriminated by the sensor is a) Spectral resolution b) Spatial resolution c) Radiometric resolution d) Temporal resolution Wavelength bands centered at 0.

47.m b) 5. . 50.5m d) 1.61m Cartosat-1 has the spatial resolution of a) 5m b) 2m c) 2.5m d) 0.8m c) 23. 52.b) Regional application for Data Analysis and Research c) Radio Detection and Ranging d) None of the above 45. 51. GIS stands for a) Graphical Interface system b) Geographical International society c) Geographical Information system d) Geo intelligence system Raster data is represented by a) Line b) Points c) Polygons d) Grids Smallest unit of the picture is a) Cell b) Pixel c) Pictorial unit d) Pascal NAVSTAR stands for a) Navigation Satellite with Time and Ranging b) Navigation and Virtual Satellite for Television and Radios c) Navigation and Versatile Satellite d) None of the above GPS stands for a) Global Postal System b) Global Positioning Satellite c) Global Positioning System d) Global Pointing System Satellite clock is made up of a) Rubidium and quartz 48.5m 46. 49. Which of the following images having given spatial resolution will show more detail? a) 15.

d) Total station. 58. 57. ___________ used to measures the co-ordinates of the object on the Earth’s surface. 56. 59. . At present ___________ GPS satellites are operational a) 24 b) 30 c) 20 d) 27 The two GPS carrier waves are a) L1 and L2 b) C and A code c) P and Y code d) None of the above The code denied for Military purpose is a) Y-code b) P-code c) L-code d) S-code The properties that should be preserved while preparing a map are a) Distance b) Conformability c) Area d) All of the above Vehicle to carry the sensor is a) Sensor setup b) Platform c) Detector d) Processing Device to detect electromagnetic radiation: a) Detectors b) Sensors c) Platforms d) All the above When the sensor uses light system generated from its own source it is known as a) Passive remote sensing system b) Active remote sensing system 54.b) Rubidium and cesium c) Rubidium and francium d) Quartz 53. 60. a) GPS b) Clinometer c) Compass. 55.

64. The data acquired by the remote sensing system are recorded on a) CCT. 67. d) Film. 63. c) French. 66. 68. d) Russian Satellite.c) Both of above d) None of the above 61. c) CD-Rom. 65. . b) Floppy. Point & Polygon c) Grids d) None of the above 62. IFOV stands for a) International Field Observations b) Indian Field Observatory c) Instantaneous Field of View d) None of the above AWIFS stands for a) Advanced Wire Field System b) Advanced Wise Field Sensor c) Advanced Wide Field Sensor d) None of the above SLAR stands for a) Side Landing Airborne Rocket b) Side Looking Airborne Radar c) Satellite Lidar and Radar d) All the above IRS-ID-LISS IV Satellite is a) Indian Satellite. b) American Satellite. Which of the following methods may be used to input paper maps into a GIS? a) Manual digitizing b) Scanning c) Automatic digitizing d) All of the above A buffer zone around a point feature will be a a) Circle b) Rectangle c) Square d) Surface On which of the following the vector data model is based? a) Pixels b) Line.

72. 75. 71. 74.000 represent on the ground? a) 5 meters b) 50 meters c) 500 centimeters d) 50 centimeters The abbreviation CCD means a) Circular Circuit Display b) Circular Couple Device c) Charged Circuit Disc d) Charged Couple Disc Panchromatic film stands for a) Black & White b) Red & Black c) Blue & gray d) Red & Green Population data is a type of a) Attribute data b) Spatial data c) Vector data d) Measurable data Which of the following is not a data structure? a) Hierarchal b) Relational c) Network d) Overlay Parent-Child data relationship database is known as a) Hierarchal b) Relational c) Network d) All the above Which of the following is not the data input technique for computer? a) Scanning b) Digitizing c) Printing d) All the above Which of the following is not a map overlay technique? a) Point in polygon 70. line & polygon d) All the above What does 1 mm on a map drawn at a scale of 1:50. 76. On which of the following the raster data model is based? a) Grid cells or pixels b) Coordinates c) Point. 77.69. 73. .

81. b) Poor management of land resources c) Poor maintenance of soil d) All the above. Watershed management is a) To conserve the water b) To conserve the soil 79. what is the probability that two balls drawn are white and blue? a) 7/20 b) 8/20 c) 20/7 d) 6/20 ISO-hyets are drawn by a) Joining of rain gauge stations. 85.b) Line in polygon c) Point in line d) Polygon in polygon 78. What is the chance that a leap year selected at random will contain 53 Sundays? a) 2/7 b) 7/2 c) 3/7 d) 7/3 A bag contains 3 red. d) All the above. DBMS stand for? a) Database Maintain Software b) Digital Base Mapping System c) Database Management System d) Database Manipulation Software Server Principles involve a) Connecting all the clients b) Connecting all the software c) Connecting all the clients to the printer d) All the above Name of the secondary storage device in the computer system is a) Hard disk. b) Floppy. d) Drawing lines of equal precipitation depth for a given rainguages Wind erosion is caused by a) Storms of high intensity. 6 white and 7 blue balls. b) Drawing perpendiculars lines c) Drawing lines of equal elevations. 83. 82. c) CD or Compact-Disk. 80. 84. .

90. Kharif season falls during a) Jan-May. 91. d) March-October. 87. Soil Erosion by raindrops is called a) Rill erosion b) Inter –rill erosion c) Splash erosion d) Sheet erosion Which soil type has a low detachability rate?. 89. 93. the core is made of a material which is a) Impermeable b) Permeable c) Porous d) Sandy Sand dunes deposit is developed by a) Sea b) Wind c) Glacier d) Earth quakes Marble is a type of a) Volcanic rock b) Plutonic rock c) Sedimentary rock d) Metamorphic rock Evaporation is measured by a) Infiltrometer b) Pan-Evaporimeter c) Iso-heights d) None of these. c) June-Sept. 88. 92. . a) Find clay b) Coarse soil c) Silt loam d) Organic matter Water harvesting primarily means a) Collection and preservation of rainwater b) Harvesting water from drains c) Diverting water to rivers d) Removal of excess water from fields In an Embankment. b) Oct-April.c) To conserve the soil and water d) None of the above 86.

Which of the following materials has the highest porosity? a) Clay b) Silt. plains are called. a) Earth Quake b) Tsunami c) Land Slide d) All the above 95. 100. 98. 97. . Hydrological cycle consists of a) Precipitation b) Evaporation c) Transpiration d) All of these Hydrograph is related to a) Rainfall vs Time. a) Topography b) Geography c) Geology d) Land forms It is a slow or sudden downhill movement of slope forming surface materials under the force of gravity. Detachment of soil particles due to action of wind and water is called a) Erosion b) Sedimentation c) Siltation d) All the above Rainfall is measured by the instruments of a) Floating method b) Tipping Bucket. c) Simen Rain gauge. c) Sand d) Gravel The ground surface is means of irregular elevation and depressions. c) Runoff vs Time. d) All the above.94. shapes. b) Rainfall vs Runoff. 96. d) All the above. 99.

the temperature reaches a value of about --.1) 5. 6.a) b) c) (a.at 500C.0) Solution of Differential equation (i) c) b) d) is analytic at the print (i) (0. d) one 3.0) b) (0.0) d) Nowhere analytic 7. Probability of getting one head when two coins are based is a) b) c) d) 9. Radius of curvature of (i) b) at c) is d) is d) (1. Maximum directional derivative of a scalar point function a) b) c) Zero d) none of these The value of curl (grad ) is (i) b) c) Zero is 2. Run of the matrix a) 2 b) 3 is c) 1 d) zero is 10. a) 400oC b) 600o C c) 300oC d) 1200oC Nitric oxide is generated in 12. Saddle point of the function (h) (a. In thermosphere. Order of convergence in Newton-Raphson method is (i) One b) Two c) Three d) Four 8. c) (1. .Environmental (Section code 10) 1.1) is 4. The sum of eigen values of A2 where A = a) 11 b) 12 c) 13 d) 14 11.

16. Which of the following factors are responsible sometimes for affecting the Coloration of certain animals? a) Temperature b) Humidity c) Light ( d) All Which of the following activity in plants is affected by temperature? a) Morphology b) Physiology c) Biochemistry d) Distribution 18. Which of the following are the important sinks for most atmospheric gases? a) Oceans b) Plants c) Vegetation d) All Which of the following is the product of anaerobic biological decay? a) NH3 b) H2S c) CH4 d) All Which of the following is the major individual primary pollutants emitted by automobile exhaust? a) NOx b) SO2 c) CO d) O3 Which of the following nitrogen oxide is the major air pollutant released from exhaust of automobiles? a) NO b) N2O c) NO2 d) N2 O5 23. Hydrosphere includes a) Ocean and seas c) Glaciers b) Rivers. 24. lakes and streams d) All 14. The activities of plants are influenced by a) Quality of light (wavelength) c) Duration of light Nitrogen is an essential Constituent of a) Chlorophyll b) DNA b) Quantity of light (Intensity) d) All 20. . 19. Which of the following are natural ecosystems? a) Pond b) Lake c) Ocean d) All 22.a) Forest Fires b) Industrial and Domestic heating c) Internal combustion engines d) All 13. c) RNA d) All 21. The science which deals with the study of soil is called a) Soil science b) Pedology c) Edaphology Wetlands generally do not provide (a) Food b) Timber c) Fuel wood d) All Which of the following life process are controlled by temperature? a) Reproduction b) Migration c) Rate of embryonic Development d) All d) All 15. 17. 25.

Carbogen is a mixture of a) O2 and CO2 b) O2 and CO c) O2 and Cl2 d) O2 and He 28. 31. 38. 35. could occur if the wavelength of radiation is a) > 240 nm b) < 240nm c) 230-320 nm d) > 400 nm The quality of spring water mainly depends on geological and topographical conditions. 39. . 36. 37. a) Dust b) Smoke c) Fly ash d) Pollen grains 29. 34. water may be classified as a) Gravitational water b) Capillary water 30. 33. a) MgSO2 b) Mg Cl2 c) Na d) None Which of the following waste often have higher BOD values than COD values? a) Textile waste b) Diary waste c) Paper and pulp waste d) All Water tends to move down the soil by a) Cracks created by drying b) Earthworms c) Roots of plants d) All On the basis of water retention by soil . a) Urea b) Ammonia c) Thiourea d) Ammonium Chloride 27. Solids in gas aerosol particles includes.7 H2O b) Al2 (SO4)3.26. 18 H2O c) FeCl3 d) All Which of the following can be used independently as coagulant with lime? a) Ferric Sulphate b) Ferric chloride c) Both d) None The following salts present in boiler feed water may cause explosion and corrosion. Compared to vehicle powered by the internal combustion engines. 32. In Sonox process a nitrogen containing additive is used which is generally. So spring water may be a) Hard or soft b) Pure or Polluted c) Saline or Alkalined) All Odour in water can be eliminated by using a) Activated carbon b) Chlorination c) Aeration d) Chlorine dioxide Thermal power plants pollute the water by adding a) Heavy metals b) Heat c) Dissolved solids d) Inorganic Compounds Which of the following coagulant is temperature and pH sensitive? a) FeSO4 . fuel cell powered vehicles a) Have very high energy conversion efficiency b) Almost zero pollution c) Emit CO2 and water vapor only d) All are correct The reaction O2 + hv ? O + O.

66.1% Why pH measurement is an important factor in water analysis? a) Measures acidity and alkalinity b) Gives pure water c) Kills bacteria d) All What is BOD? a) Maximum amount of oxygen required b) Minimum amount of oxygen required c) Decomposition by chemicals d) None Why cow dung burning is hazardous to health? a) Benzopyrene in smokes b) Phosgene in smokes d) All What is sewage sludge? a) Solid waste after treatment 64.25 c)1. 65. Minimum work in compressor is possible when the adiabatic index n is equal to a) 1. b) Liquid waste c) Gases d) All . Sulphur content in Diesel oil should not be more than a) 10% b) 5% c) 1% d) 0. c) Benzene release 67.000 J/s and gives output of 9 kW.54. d) 0.3 mm c) 0. One Watt is equal to a) 1 N/m b) 1 Nm/s c) 1 Nm/h d) 1 Nm 55. 58.4 d)1. d) Work 59. d)16:1 62.1 b) 1.5 mm 63.2 mm b) 0.0 heat engine is supplied with heat rate of 30. Thermal efficiency of engine will be a) 30% b) 33% c) 40% d) 50% Diesel cycle efficiency is maximum when the cut-off is a) Maximum b) Minimum c) Zero d) One Second law of thermodynamics defines a) Enthalpy b) Entropy c) Temperature Expansion process in nozzles is a a) Isothermal b) Isobaric 56. 57. Flameless combustion means a) Inert gas combustion b) Invisible combustion c) Catalytic combustion d) Combustion in vacuum The theoretical air fuel ratio in petrol engine is a) 6:1 b) 9:1 c) 12:1 The spark plug gap is normally maintained at a) 0.4 mm 61. c) Isochoric d) Isentropic 60.

73. Why Gamma rays are not regarded as particles? a) No volume b) No mass c) No weight d) All 71. b) Teeth breaking c) Flourine deposition . 74. beta & gamma particles b) Alpha & beta particles c) Gamma rays d) All Radio active materials that emit alpha or beta particles are known as internal emitters. b) 1/110th of Bel c) 1/20th of Bel d) None 79. 75. b) Biologically active products d) None 70. What is land fill operation? a) Depositing of refuge b) Excavating of land d) All What are biofertilizers? a) Chemically active products c) Physically active products c) Compacting of land 69. d) All 76.68. b) Frequency of sound waves d) All 78. 81. Cosmic rays are mixtures of corpuscular and electromagnetic radiations? a) Contain alpha. The largest noise a man can hear without much discomfort is a) 80 dB b) 90 dB c) 50 dB d) 110 dB What is loudness? a) Intensity of sound waves c) Noise What is dB unit? a) 1/10th of Bel 77. Name some important sources of chromium a) Paint industry b) Alloy industry c) Glass industry d) All Cadmium is a cumulative poison. a) Frequency of sound b) Intensity of sound c) Time of exposure d) All When is a sound called musical sound? a) Periodic b) Regular c) Of long duration 72. What are the main parts of the body which are affected by cadmium poisoning? a) Lungs b) Kidneys c) Respiratory tract d) All What is dental fluorosis? a) Enamel of teeth loss d) None 80. a) It is helpful b) Severely affects the living tissues c) It destroy life d) None Infrared light is also called heat radiation? a) Produces warmth in man b) Produces heat c) Produces light d) None Mention the important factors responsible for the quality of unpleasantness of Sound waves.

89. b) Inorganic material c) Both a & b d) None 85.82. In conical projection which of the following property preserved a) Direction b) Motion c) Mass d) Equation Azimuthal projection is best suited for a) Mountain region b) Terrain region c) Polar region d) All The geographical coordinate system that make use of network of parallel and meridian is known as a) Graticule b) Direction c) Line d) Parallel The representation of real world picture with in the spatial frame work of a particular coordinate system known as a) Projection b) Map c) Globe d) All Buffer zone around a point feature will be a a) Circle b) Point c) Line d) Polygon 91. Why press mud is used as manure? a) Rich in organic matter b) High calorific value c) Good quality d) All TIN stands for a) Triangular Irregular network b) Triangle Irrigational Network c) Both a and b d) None The system for referring location and the earth is known as a) Attribute system b) Quardinate system c) Raster system d) Vector system RF stands for a) Representation fraction c) Rotation factor 87. 94. 84. Which of the following are known to be extremely toxic? a) Lead b) Cadmium c) Mercury How copper reaches the aquatic environment a) Physiological process b) Wet or dry deposition c) Mining action d) None What is solid waste? a) Organic material d) All 83. 92. . 93. b) Refraction factor d) All 90. What is biomethanization? a) Production of methane c) Decomposition b) Production of Biogas d) All 86. 88.

100. b) Aryabhatta d) Geo-eye 98. The raster data model is based on which of the following a) Grid cells or Pixels b) Tessellations c) Pessellations d) All What does 1mm on a map drawn at scale of 1in 50000 represented on the ground? a) 25m b) 50m c) 75m d) 100m Which of the following is not a type of map projection? a) Geographic b) Topography c) Stereograph d) Monograph 99. . The remote sensing image is a a) True colour c) Both a and b b) False colour composite d) None 96.95. Along track scanning is known as a) Push broom b) Whisk broom c) White broom d) Red broom The first satellite of India a) IRS c) Chandrayan-1 97.

8. 3.William d) Jhonson.fermentum b) B. 4. 9. 7. 5. Wilson b) Nicolas appret c) C.lactis c) Streptococcus thermophilus d) None of these The term single cell protein was coined by a) C. Which is not a Indicator microorganism? a) Listeria monocytogenes b) Mycobacterium tuberclosis c) Enterococcus faecalis d) Staphylococcus areas Example for food intoxication is a) Botulism b) Yersiniosis c) Shigellosis d) Vibriosis Food containing live microorganisms to actively enhance health by improving the balance of micro flora in the gut is called as a) Pre biotic b) Probiotic c) Biotic d) All the above Which is not a probiotic organism? a) L.L.S Which is not a fermented product from milk? a) Cheese b) Yogurt c) Kefir d) Tempeh Destruction of pathogenic organism is called as a) Pasteurization b) Sterilization c) Destruction d) None of these Time temperature combination for HTST a) 72o C for 15 sec b) 70o C for 15 sec c) 62o C for 15 sec d) 75o C for 15 sec Which is not an Antioxidant? a) Butylated hydroxy anisole (BHA) b) Butylated hydroxy toulene (BHT) c) t-butyl hydroxy quinoline(TBHQ) d) EDTA 2. 6. .Food Processing (Section code 11) 1.L.

0 to 8. Preservation of foods in sealed containers and which usually implies heat treatment s the principal factor in the prevention of spoilage is called a) b) c) d) Cold sterilization Canning Aseptic packaging Simmering 17. Which model is used to explain the cell structure of bacteria? a) b) c) d) Fluid mosaic model pumkin model Pasteur model None of the above 16. which of the following is most likely to be responsible for the spoilage? a) b) c) d) Bacteria only Molds only Yeast and molds Yeasts.10.2 5.1 11. molds and bacteria 15.6 to 6.2 to 4. Mordant is used in staining of flagella .9 3.3 to 2. In jam and jellies. 12. 13. Which has the optimum temperature range between 10 to 15 °C for easy growth? a) Thermophillic organism b) Mesophillic organism c) Psychrophillic organism d) Psychrotrophs By using hullers the average yield of white rice is obtained as a) 55-62% b) 62-64% c) 65-67% d) 68-71% pH of honey is a) b) c) d) 2.9 7. D value is indicated in a) b) c) d) Minute Degree Fahrenheit Log number Degree centigrade 14.

. Which staining technique is best suited to know the shape of microorganism? a) b) c) d) Positive staining Negative staining Fluorescent staining Acid fast staining 20.414 cm3 Which of the following has the highest thermal conductivity? a) Brick b) Sand c) Copper d) Wood Kopps rule is used to find a) Heat capacity of solids b) Molar heat capacity of gaseous c) Activation energy d) Heat capacity of liquids 22.a) b) c) d) 18. Fourier’s Law of heat conduction applies to a) Convection b) Conduction c) Radiation d) All the above 1 gm mole of the gaseous substance occupies a) 22.414 kg c) 22. Ethyl chloride Tannic acid Cetyl pyramidine chloride Pottassium picolinate Alcohol content is beer is (by weight) a) b) c) d) 3-4% 5-12% 20-23% 35-38% 19. Rum is a) b) c) d) Distilled liquor Un Distilled liquor Fortified wine By product of brewing industry 21.414 gm d) 22. 24.414 lit b) 22. 23.

Kcal/Kg mole C 29.chart is a graph related to Antoine equation a) Ostwald b) COX c) Mollier’s d) Enthalpy Concentration The dimension of dynamic viscosity is a) L-1T-1 b) L2T-1 c) LT-2 d) ML-1T-2 The value of gas constant ‘R’ is ----. 27. Dry air is a mixture a) Vapours b) Gases c) Both a) and b) d) Either a) or b) Claussius Clapergron equation applies to ------processes a) Sublimation b) Melting c) Vaporization d) All the above Economy of an evaporator is influenced by a) Steam pressure b) Temperature of the feed c) Number of effect d) Both b and c 26. .25. 31. the economy is a) 1 b) <1 c) >1 d) none of theses The rate of cell death follows--------------kinetics a) Second order b) Zero order c) First order d) Both b) and c) ----------. 33. In a continuous stirred tank Bio reactor all the cells will be completely washout when D is a) 1 b) <1 c) >1 d) 0 In a single effect evaporator. 30. 32. 28.

37. 41. 38. 39. Holo enzyme is a) Protein part along with non-protein part of an enzyme b) Prosthetic group c) Non-protein part of an enzyme .99 None of these 35. Idli is a a) Natural food b) Non vegetarian food c) Fermented food d) Baked food What may be a reason for the relative success of bacterial forms? a) Rapid multiplication in number b) High surface area to volume c) Rapid metabolic rates d) All of them The quantity of heat required to raise 1 kg of a substance by 1o C is known as a) Sensible heat b) Specific heat c) Latent heat d) Calorie Velocity of steam in a pipe depends on a) Number of bends b) Length of pipe c) Specific volume of steam d) None of the above In a sterilized soap bubble. 2.987 3. pressure inside it compare to external pressure is a) More b) Less c) Equal d) Unpredictable The unit of kinematic viscosity is a) Kg/m sec b) N/m2 c) m2 /sec d) m/N sec Wheat is ground into flour in a a) Roller crusher b) Impact mill c) Hammer crusher d) Fluid energy mill 36.a) b) c) d) 34. 40.79 1.

and cane sugar is ------------------a) Lactose and sucrose b) Sucrose and lactose c) Glucose and sucrose d) Lactose and sucrose Protein component of egg is a) Casein b) Albumin c) Olein d) Linolein Protein calorie malnutrition (PCM) leads to the disease a) Kwashiorkor and Marasmus b) Anemia c) Beri beri d) Dwarfism --------------is one of the amino fatty acids. 46. . 50. 47. 45. 48.d) Protein part of an enzyme 42. 49. One of the follwing is coenzyme a) ATP b) Riboflavin c) NADH2 d) Iron Coenzymes are vitamins a) True b) False c) True but not all vitamins d) None of these Ribose is a a) Ketopentose b) Aldohexose c) Keto hexose d) Aldoketose Amylose is a) Heteropolysaccharide b) Straight chain homo polysaccharide c) Branched chain polysaccharide d) Protein The carbohydrate moiety in bacterial cells a) Peptidoglycon b) Glucose and glucose c) Galactose and galactose d) Galactose and glucose Milk sugar is ---------------. 44. a) Glycine b) DOPA c) Tryptophan d) linoleic acid 43.

54. . 52.ATP molecules during electron transport a) 3 b) 2 c) 1 d) 5 The other name for vitamin A is a) Calciferol b) Niacin c) Retinol d) Ascorbic acid --------------is anti haemorrhagic vitamin a) Vitamin K b) Vitamin A c) Vitamin E d) Vitamin C Iodine deficiency in human beings lead to the disease called a) Osteoporosis b) Blindness c) Anemia d) Goitre Acetyl COA acid is a) 3 carbon compound b) 2 carbon compound c) 5 carbon compound d) none of the above Site of photolysis of water a) Grana thylakoids of plastids b) Cytoplasm c) Mitochondria d) Golgi apparatus Deposition of excess fat molecules in inner wall of artery leads to a) Aterio sclerosis b) Jaundice c) Beriberi d) None of these Transcription is the process of a) Generation of mRNA from nuclear DNA b) De nova synthesis of protein c) Cleavage of heterogeneous RNA d) Synthesis of long chain fatty acids. 56. 58. Trypsin and chymotrypsin are a) Vitamins b) Lipolytic enzyme c) Therapeutic agents d) Proteolytic enzymes 59. 57. Site of Tri carboxylic acid a) Cytolpasm of cells b) Mitochondria c) Lysosomes d) Peroxysomes Every NADH2 yields --------. 55.51. 60. 53.

64..61. Food containing live microorganisms to actively enhance health by improving the balance of micro flora in the gut is called as a) Pre biotic b) Probiotic c) Biotic d) All the above Entrance of microorganisms into the body through the ingestion of contaminated foods is called a) Food infection b) Food intoxication c) Food contamination d) None of these Among these which one is a bacterium? a) Alternaria b) Monilla c) Cryptococcus d) Pediococcus What is the antimicrobial constituent present in eggs a) Allicin b) Lysozyme c) Allyl isothiocynate d) Eugenol Cereal grains are ……. 66. 65.5 b) 2.in nature a) Hydrophilic b) Hydrophobic c) Hydrothermal d) Non thermal Percentage of Bran in Wheat is a) 13% b) 18% c) 14% d) 12% The differential speed b/w in the break roll is a) 1:2. 68. .5 In Parboiling .5 d) 3:2. 63. 67. 69.Gelatinization of starch takesplace during a) Soaking b) Drying c) Heating d) Steaming What are the raw materials can be used to manufacture fishmeal a) high fat fish b) small by catch fish c) waste from fish processing & filleting plants d) all the above 62.5:1 c) 2:2.

40 b) 1:0. saturated fatty acid c) c. 72. Which dairy product contains gelatin? a) butter b) cheese c) icecream d) rabri What is fat:casein ratio in cheddar cheese making? a) 1:0.50 c) 1:0. 73. 78.48 to 1:0. 74. . poly unsaturated fatty acid The common pigment used in glass manufacturing is a) Dye b) Metal salt c) Cashew nut shell oil d) none of these Biodegradable plastics is degradable a) completely within short time b) partially within short time 76.38 to 1:0.70.68 to 1:0.70 When the milk flows through the homogenisation value a) pressure head increases b) velocity head increases c) velocity head decreases d) pressure head is equal to velocity 75.58 to 1:0. unsaturated fatty acid d) d. ________ is the process to remove high melting glycerides in the oil a) degerming b) winterization c) both a&b d) none of the above _________ can serve as a good raw material for the preparation of amino acids a) b) c) d) Fish protein Meat protein Both a and b none of the above 71.60 d) 1:0. Unsaturated fatty are stabilized by a) hydrogenation b) antioxidants c) cold storage d) all the above Linoleic acid is example of a) essential fatty acid b) b. 77.

4 to 0.2 to 0.Polyethylene bags c) Esophagus d) d.5 d) 0.2cm c) 0.1 to 0.2 c) 0. 86. None of these Edible sausage casing is made with a) a)Sheep Gut b) b.All the above The wastes from meat industry are utilized by the process a) Steam smoking b) Rendering c) Smoking d) None of these Large crystals are formed at a) slow cooling b) Fast cooling c) a & b d) none of the above 80.Both a and b d) d.3 b) 0.1 to 0.8 to 1cm d) head space is not needed FPO recommended dosage level of so2 in fruit juice is a) 200ppm b) 500ppm c) 700ppm d) totally banned Ham is made from a) Tie of pig b) Rips of pig c) Belly of pig d) All the above When Rigor mortis occurs a) a. 85.After death c) c. 83. 81.3 to 0. best packaging method is a) MHP b) Vacuum c) MAP d) shrink-film wrapping technique Acid content in jelly is a) 0. For O2 sensitive food.7 Recommended head space for can is a) 0. 84.5cm b) 0.5 to 0.Before death b) b. . 82. 87.c) partially even after long period 79.

Distribution of components between a vapor phase and a liquid phase is called a) crystallization b) distillation c) evaporation d) mechanical separation Membrane pore size for reverse osmosis is a) 10-3-10-2 b) b)10-2-10-3 c) 10-4-10-3 d) d)10-1-10+1 Sedimentation by forming agglomerates or clusters is called a) flotation b) flocculation c) gravity settling d) none of the above Rate of penetration of medium into a bacterial cell does not depend on a) b) c) d) Nutrient of medium Growth phase Temperatures None of the above 89.88. 92. turbidostat does not have any limiting nutrient c) Turbidostat operates best at high dilution rates. the chemostat is most stable an effective at lower dilution rate d) All of the above 94. Turbidostat and chemostat are a) b) c) d) Continuous culture system Instrument to enumerate the microbial cells Type of sterilizer Type of fermenter 95. 91. 90. Which of the following statements is /are correct? a) b) c) d) Growth rate is reciprocal of generation time Generation time of Bacillus subtitles is 8 min at 370 C in broth Both a and b Neither a nor b 93. The difference between a chemostat and turbidostat is /are a) The dilution rate in a turbidostat varies and in chemostat it is constant b) Unlike chemostat. The rate of nutrient exchange in a chemostat is expressed as .

/ml Optical density None of the above 99. Total plate count method is being expressed in a) b) c) d) Number of cell/ml C. Maintenance energy Dilution rate Flow rate of medium through the culture vessel None of the above Which of the following stains can be used to differentiate between dead and living cells? a) b) c) d) Acridine orange Methylene blue Resazurin All of the above 97.F.U. Most heat resistant spores is a) b) c) d) Staphylococcus aureus Clostridium botalinum Cl.a) b) c) d) 96. DEFT is based on a) b) c) d) Conductance Direct microbial count using microscope Turbidity Cellular activity 98. sporogenes Bacillus stearothermophillus ANSWER Q.No 1 2 3 4 5 Ans d b d a b . During the dye reduction test using reassuring the colour change taking place is a) b) c) d) Blue to green Green to blue Pink to blue Blue to pink 100.

6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 a d c c c d a d c b d b c a b c c d b c a a c d b a a a d c d b c d d b c c a b b d c b a c b d c c b d c .

59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 d a d a c a c a b a c a d a b d b d d c a a c c d c d b c b b c a a c c b b a c b b .

After co llision both objects coalesce so that they move with a common v elocity v equal to a) 7.s d) m2/s Which of the following fou r statements is false ? a) b) c) d) A body can have zero velocity and still be accelerated A body can have a constant velocity and still have a varying speed A body can have a constant speed and still have a varying velocity The direction of the velocity of a body can chan ge when its acceleration is constant 4. θ ω  π θ b)  −   2ω ω   π  c)    2ω   2π θ  d)  −   ω ω The position of a particle moving along x – axis is given by x = 3t – 4t 2 +t 3 .MODE L QUESTI ONS – B. The time at which the displacement is max imum is: a) 5. 2 ms −1 3 b) 1 ms −1 c) 2 ms −1 d) 3 ms −1 The motion of planets in the solar system is an example of conservation of a) b) c) d) mass momentum angular momentum kinetic energy . The velocity of a particle depends upon t as V = A + Bt + ct 2 . .Physics 1. b) 1 m/s c) 13m/s d) None of these An object A of mass 2 kg is moving with a veloc ity of 3 ms −1 and collides head on with an object B of mass 1 kg moving in the opposite direction with a velocity of 4 ms −1 .Tech Part 1. Which of the following pairs DOES NOT have the same dim ensions? a) b) c) d) frequency and angular frequency angu lar velocity and veloc ity gradient velocity gradient and angu lar frequency angu lar frequency and potential energy gradient 2. If velocity is in m/s. where x is in metre and t in seconds . The average velocity of the particle in the time interval from t = 2 seconds to t = 4 seconds is a) 7m/s 6. b) m/s2 c) m. The displacement x of a body in motion is given by x = a sin ( ω t+ θ ). the unit of A will be a)m/s 3.

If the satellite is launched at an angle of 60 0 with s the vertical. a) 1 m 9 11. There are two bodies of masses 100 kg and 10. The acceleration is minimum at the mean position The potential energy is maximum at the mean position The kinetic energy is maximum at the mean position 13. b) 1 m 10 c) 1 m 11 d) 10 11 m A liquid will not wet the surface of a solid if its ang le of contact is a) b) c) d) zero less than 90 0 more than 90 0 90 0 12. 3 b) 1 : 3 c) 3 :1 d) 3 : 2 For a satellite.000 kg separated by a distance of 1m. What will be the wave velocity. if the rad ar gives 54 waves per minute and wavelen gth of the given wave is 10m? a) 4 m/s 14. The velocity time graphs of two bodies A and B are shown in figure. the intensity of grav itational field will be zero. escape velocity is 11 km . which of the following does not hold? a) b) c) d) The force on the particle is maximum at the ends. then escape velocity will be a) 11 km/s b) 11 3 km/s c) 11 km/s 3 d) 33 km/s 10. How long will it take far the sound to reach the earth? a) 10 s b) 1000 s c) 1 light year d) None of t hese . In a simple harmonic moti on (SHM). b) 6 m/s c) 9 m/s d) 5 m/s A bomb e xplodes on the moon.8. The ratio of their acceleration is: a) 1 : 9. At what distance from the smaller body.

1% mass is converted in to energy. for obtaining max imum current? a) 1.5V at all currents and a max imum power rating of 100 milliwatts.67 Ω d) 200 Ω 20. a) 140 days b) 280 day s c) 420 days d) 560 day s . Two identical samples of a gas are allowed to expand a) isothermally b) adiabatically Work done is a) b) c) d) more in the isothermal process more in the adiabatic process neither of them equal in both processes 17. The diode used in the circu it shown in the figure has a constant voltage drop of 0. In a p – n junction having dep letion layer of thickness 10 −6 m the pot en tial across it is 0. Half life of a radioactive substance is 140 days. The energy released by the fission of 1 kg mass will be a) 9 x 10 16 J b) 9 x 10 19 J c) 9 x 10 13 J d) 9 x 10 17 J 22. Two gas es are at absolute temperatures of 300k and 350 k respectively. What should be the value of the resistor R. The electric fie ld is --------------Vm −1 a) 10 7 b) 10 −6 c) 10 5 d) 10 −5 19. The radius o f sulphur nucleus is larger than that of Helium. Calculate the time for this substance when it reduces in to 1g. An ideal heat engine exhausting heat at 77 0 C is to have 30% efficiency . Initially there is 16g of the substance. The mass number of Helium is 4 an d that for sulphur is 32. Ra tio of average kinetic energy of their molecules is a) 7 : 6 b) 6 : 7 c) 36 : 49 d) 49 : 36 16.1 V. by a) 21. 8 times b) 4 times c) 2 times d) 8 times In Nuclear Fission 0. It must take heat at a) 127 0 c b) 227 0 c c) 327 0 c d) 673 0 c 18. connected in ser ies with the diode.15.5 Ω b) 5 Ω c) 6.

The quan tity that remains unchanged is a) charge Q b) Potential V c) Capacity C d) Energy U . b) 10 cm c) 33 cm d) None of these A parallel plate capacitor is first charged and then a dielectric slab is intro duced between the plates. The population inversion necessary for laser action used in solid state l asers is a) b) c) d) electrical discharge ine lastic atom – atom collision direct conversion optical pumping 26. how many fringes will be seen a) 62 b) 67 c) 75 d) 99 30. If the magnet experiences a torque of 5 Nm. b) yellow light c) green light d) red light In the Young’ s double slit ex perimen t using sodium light ( λ = 5898 Å). If the number of turns and area of cross section of the coil are do ubled. If the green colour ( λ = 5461Å is used . then the angle between the direction of magnetic field and magnet is a) π 6 b) π 4 c) π 3 d) π 2 27.24 eV d) 1. The ratio of the long wavelength limits of the Lyman and Balmer series of hydrogen is a) 27 : 5 b) 5 : 27 c) 4 : 1 d) 1 : 4 24. In the figure distance of the point from A where the electric field is zero is a) 20 cm 31. The reduction factor of a tangent galvanometer is K . Light of wavelen gth 5000 Å falls on a sen sitive plate with photoelectric work function of 1.48 eV c) 1.9 eV.23. The kinetic energy of the photoe lectron emitted will be a) 0.58 eV b) 2. A magnet of moment 2 Am 2 is placed in a uniform magnetic field of 5 Wb/m 2 . 92 fringes are seen.16 eV 25. then the reduction factor becomes a) K 2 b) 2 K c) K 2 d) 2 K 28. The Focal length of a convex lens will be maximum for a) blue light 29.

The equivalent resistance between A & B of the circuit shown in the given figure is a) 9 Ω b) 4 Ω c) 2 Ω d) 1 Ω 33.08 J b) 0.8 J c) 80 J d) 8 J . the thermo emf a) b) c) d) always increases always decreases may increase and decrease always remains constant 34. The energy stored in a coil of self inductance 40mH carrying a steady current of 2A is a) 0. A moving charge will produce a) b) c) d) only a magnetic field only a electric field both electric and magnetic field none of these 35.32. As the temperature of hot junction increases.

Y and Z? a) C H OH . (Tung ston) At the corners of the cube O . Na .6-Tribromophenol is for med whe n the organic compound ‘X’ reacts with ‘Y’ in the presence of Z. Lu(OH ) 3 & La(OH ) 3 La(OH ) 3 & Ce(OH ) 3 b) d) La(OH ) 3 & Lu(OH ) 3 Pm(OH ) 3 & Nd (OH ) 3 44. − 394 and − 286 KJ/mol respectively.Part 2.) (a) NaWO2 (b) NaWO3 (c) Na2WO3 (d) NaWO4 . separately in the solvents water and benzene are different. Assertion (A): Molar mass of acetic acid found by the depression of freezing point method.. Br2 . Identify the formula which is applicable to the conversion of 20% of the initial concentration of the reactant to the product in a first order reaction. R is the correct explanation for ‘A’ (b) Both A and R are correct.. Br . Reason (R):Water helps in ionization but benzenebrings association of acetic acid. H O 6 5 2 2 6 5 2 2 c) C6 H 5CHO. In the centre of the cube W .25 KJ/mol 41.01 M of its aqueous 38. (Formula of the compound is . In a cubic unit cell. CS b) C H OH ..303 K log 100 80 c) d) 42. Chloroform and alcoholic KOH can be used to differentiate (a) CH3CHO & CH3COCH3 (b) HCOOH & CH3COOH (c) CH3NH2 & (CH3) 2NH (d) C2H5OH & CH3OCH3 Strongest and the weakest bases among th e hydr oxide s of Lan than ides are respectively − a) c) 43. Br2 . (a) Both A and R are correct.303 5 log K 4 b) t 20% = t 20% = 2. Dissociation constant of a weak acid is 1 × solution. – Chemistry 36.2 KJ/mol a) +1412 KJ/mol c) +141. Br .303 100 log 20 K 2. (a) 4 (b) 3 (c) 10 (d) 12 10−6 at 25o C... H 2 O 40. (Rate constant = K) a) t 20% = t 20% = 2. (Oxygen) At the centre of the edges. Enthalpy of formation of C 2 H 4 ( g )CO 2 ( g ) and H 2 O(l ) at 25 0 C and I atm pres sure are 52.4. What are X.. In which of th e fo llowing pairs (of molec ules / ions) the central atom has the same hybridisation? a) c) − XeF 4 & ClO4 b) c) BeCl 2 & SO 2 + NH 3 & NH 4 BH 3 & ClF3 37. En thalpy of combustion of C 2 H 4 ( g )is b) -1412 KJ/mol d) -141. 2. Identify the correct option. Find the pO H of 0. but R is not the correct explanation for ‘A’ (c) A is true but R is false (d) A is false but R is true 39. the following ato m / ion occ upy th e posit ions as mentioned below. FeBr3 d) C 6 H 6 .303 100 log 5 20 2.

C6H5OH (c) C6H5N2Cl. N2 and HCl ? (a) C6H5N2Cl. To 100 gms of water.. H3PO2 . wh ich has the highest spin magnetic moment? (At . Vapour pressure of the solution is 2985 Nm-2. Assume that it is a dilute solution. As a re sult th e amount of (a) SO2 will decrease (b) SO2Cl2 will increase (c) Cl2 will increase (d) Cl2 will remain unchanged 48. Cu2Cl2 (d) C6H5N2Cl . No: Ti = 22. 3 (c) 8. 2. 50. 1. HCl (d) I 2 . resemble? Both are .. y and z are resp ectively (b) 6. 4 y Cr O2 Cl2 + 6 KHSO4 + z H2O. Hot H2O (b) C5H5N2Cl. 2. x. At a certain temperature vapour pressure of pure water is 3000 Nm−2. In which of the following aspects both physical ad sor ption and che m ical adsorption. 2.volatile solute is added. 5 gms of nonelectrolyte and non. (a) 90 (b) 180 (c) 200 (d) 270 54. 47. 6 (d) 4. W hic h o f the fo llow ing re acta nt s combine to produce C6H6. NaOH. find the molar mass of the solute. j X → l Y + m2 He + n i h 4 −1 β ° the number of beta particles ‘n’ 1 4 1 (l − j ) 2 (i − K ) b) (l − j ) + 2 m − l ) − 2m d) ( K 53. H2O In the nuclear transformation of X to Y is equal to a) c) 52. NH4OH (b) LiAlH4 (c) Conc. Which of the following reagents can convert acetone to acetic acid? (a) AgNO3 . SO 2 Cl 2 º SO 2 + Cl 2 (g) (g) (g) At equilibr ium volume of the reaction vessel is incre ase d... Ni = 28. Wh ich of th e fo llow ing in pairs is wrongly matched? I II (a) Terylene OH − CH2 − CH2OH (b) Nylon 6. (a) Cu2+ (b) Ti 3+ (c) Ni2+ (d) Mn2+ 46. dilute HCl A large increa se from the first to the second ionisation energy of an element ‘A ’ ca n be se en i f it s e lec tr onic configuration is (a) 1 S 2 2S 2 2P 6 3 S 1 (b) 1S 2 2 S 2 2P 6 3S 2 2 2 5 (c) 1S 2S 2P (d) 1S 2 2 S 2 2P 6 3S 2 3 P 2 49.. K2Cr 2O7 + x KCl + 6 H2SO4 → (a) 4.45. Mn = 25.6 NH2CH2(CH2) 4CH2NH2 (c) Buna-S-Rubber C6H5 CH = CH2 (d) Bakelite C2H5OH . 6 51. Cu = 29). (a) exothermic (b) multimolecular layered (c) reversible (d) found more at high temperature Among the following ions. HCl.

It is desired to increase the pH of the solution to 2. . of Sc = 21 .342 A° a) 1. 60. X-rays of wave-length 1. c) metal excess defect gives colour to the crystal d) metal deficiency defect can be found in the halides of alkali metals.8 A ° c) 0. b) frenkel defect alters the density of the crystal. a) schottky defect makes a crystal elec trically ch arged. 57. Which of the following conve rsions involve s gain of 5 electrons per ion? a) MnO4− → Mn 2 + b) CrO42− → Cr 3+ c) MnO 42 − → MnO 2 d) Cr2O72− → 2Cr 3+ 62.55.14 A in the first order reflection from a crysta l.3 – Dichlorobutane d) 1. 61. Then H 3O + ion concentration present initially should be b) Reduced to half d) Reduced by 10 times a) Also doubled c) Increased by 10 times 59.4 – Dichlorobu tane c) 2. No.65 gms of HCl. In the aqueo us medium. The inter planar distance in the crystal is (sin 30o is 0. W hic h a mo ng t he fo llow in g is a Polyamide Polymer? (a) Terylene (b) Buna-S-rubber (c) Polystyrene (d) Nylon 6.3 – Dichlorobu tane Decomposition of ozone can be caused by a) atomic he lium b) water vapour c) dust particles 64.5) 3 . Ti = 22 . which of the following ion is colourless ? (At. d) atomic ch lorine . Compound ‘A’ is a) Na2 O b) NaOH c) Na2 CO3 d) NaHCO3 Meso form can be obtained ina) 1. V = 23 & Fe = 26).28 A° b) 58. were reflected at an angle of 30 o. Sodium reacts with water to give H2 gas and the solution contains substance ‘A’ zinc metal reacts solution ‘A’ to give the same H 2 gas. • b) c) CH 3 CH CH 3 • CH 3 CH C 6 H 5 d) C 6 H 5 CH 2 CH 2 . 65.2 – Dichlorobutane b) 1. One litre of an aqueous solution has 3. (a) Sc 3+ (b) Ti3+ (c) V 3+ (d) Fe 3+ Among the following the most stable free radical is − a) CH 3 CH 2 56. Find the correct statement about crystal defects.6 Which among the following is used as antacid? (a) Aspirin (b) Phenacetin (c) Al( OH)3 + Mg(OH)2 (d) P-Hydroxy azo benzene. 63.14 A° d) 2.

amphoteric and acidic in nature respectively? a) CaO. BeCl2 Between actinide s and lanthan ides.75 c) 0. SiO2 c) CO . Normality of 0.125 b) 0. 70. 68.25 Which of the following sets cont ains oxides in the sequence of basic.50 d) 0. RbCl . CO2 . the complex formation tendency is more for a) lanthan ides because of high chemical reactivity b) lanthan ides due to greater stability. a) LiCl . c) actinides as they have variable oxidation states.25 M phosphorus acid H 3 PO3 is a) 0. . 69. d) actinides due to high charge to size ratio A solid mixture has ben zoic acid and naphthalene. RbCl b) RbCl . Al2 O3 . MgCl 2 d) MgCl 2 . BeCl 2 c) RbCl . Al2 O3 b) Al2 O3 . BeCl2 and MgCl 2 compounds with maximum and minimum ionic character are respectively. SiO2 . SO2 . From this naphthalene can be separated by using a) aqueous NaOH b) cold water c) benzene d) diethylet her 67.66. P2O5 d) BaO . SiO2 Among LiCl .

3. then a c + = _____ x y 1) 3 b) 1 c) 2 d) 5 x +1 y − 3 z + 2 = = and the point (0. 2) in the plane x+y+z = 9 is a) (1.P 72. c. 1. b) x+y+z=2 c) x+y+z=0 d) None of these Foot of the perpendicular from the point (2. -7) is −3 2 1 75. b and b. b) (3. b) G. then sin nx + cosec nx is equal to a) 2 n b) 2 c) 2 n-1 d) 2 n-1 73. c) H. 2. 0. The area of the quadrilateral formed by the tangents at the end points of latus rectum to the ellipse x2 y 2 + = 1 is 9 5 b) 9 sq units d) None of the above 27 sq units 4 27 c) sq units 2 a) . c are in 2 2 1 0 a) A.P. y are the A. respectively. then a.P a b αd − d 71. 1) The solution of the equation 9 x+78 = 32x+3 is a) 2 b) 3 c) 1/3 d) ½ 78. 3) c) (9. 7.P d) none of the above If sin x + cosec x = 2. The equation of the plane containing the line a) x+y+z = 1 76.M of a. c are in G. If a. b. 0) d) (2. 4 2   The value of tan cos −1 ( ) + tan −1 ( )  is 5 3   a) 1 16 b) 7 16 c) 16 7 d) none 74. 1) 77. 6. b. x.Maths – Part 3 1 If b c bα − c = 0 and ∝ ? .

1. x 2 ………x n. −6. −7 ) 81. then is eq ual to: 2  dx x + y  a) y x b) x y c) x2 y2 d) y2 x2 80.. n is a a a b) d) x +a a2 x 84. 6. 6. ∫ a) c) sin x − cos x 1 − sin 2x e sin x cos x dx = e sin x + c e sin x + co s x + c b) d) e sin x − cos x e cos x − sin x + c 82.    0 0 0   π (k ∈1) 2 π (k ∈1) 3 then A 3 will be a null matrix i f and only if a) θ = (2K + 1) θ = (4K − 1) θ = (3K − 1) b) c) π (k ∈1) 4 d) none of these 83. The value of sin 10° + sin 20 ° + sin 30° + ………. The image of the point (1. If A = If  cos q − sin q 0 A =  sin q cos q 0 . −7 ) (−1.. + s in 360 ° is a) 1 b) 0 c) -1 d) 2 . 7 ) b) d) (1. then the mean of a) c) x a ax x1 x 2 x . ..  x2 − y2  dy If cos −1  2 = log a. 3) on the line a) c) x y −1 z − 2 = = is 1 2 3 (1.79. 0. 7 ) (1. If x is the mean of n observations x1.

2) d) (1. then what is the number of students in the class? a) c) 31 43 b) d) 29 24 x +1 93. 930 Deepawali greeting cards are exchanged among st the students of a class. If every student sends a card to every other studen t. The degree and order of the differential eq uation y = px + a 2 p 2 + b 2 where p = dy is dx a) (2. 1) 9 1 3 The coefficient of the term independent of x in the expan sion of (1 + x + 2 x 3 )  x 2 −  is 3x  2 17 1 19 1 a) b) c) d) 54 3 54 4 A pack of play ing cards was found to contain only 51 cards . 88. The equation of the curve through the point (1. then its equation is _____ a) x 2 = -12y b) x2 = 12y c) y 2 = -12x d) y2=12x 90. b) (2.85. 2) c) (1. 1 x If f(x) = 2 x x ( x − 1) 3x ( x − 1) x ( x − 1) ( x − 2) a) 0 b) 1 ( x + 1) x then f(100) = ( x − 1) x ( x − 1) c) 100 d) -100 . 1) 86. then a 2+b2 is a − ib x + iy x2+y 2 0 b) d) 1 5 y −1 is x2 + x 91. and its directrix direction is y=3. ∫ 1 + cos x dx = x a) x tan( ) + C 2 x b) cot( ) + C c) log (1 + cos x ) + C d) log( x + sin x ) + C 2 x + sin x 89. 0) and whose slope is a) c) (y − 1)(x + 1) + 2x = 0 x (y − 1)(x + 1)+ 2 = 0 b) d) 2x ( y − 1) + x + 1 = 0 y (x + 1) − x = 0 92. then the probability that the missing card is blac k 1 1 25C 2 a) b) c) d) 3 2 51C 3 13 13 87. -3). if the first 13 cards which a re examined are all re d. If a) c) 1 x − iy = . If the focus of the parabola is at (0.

3 b) 6.. If A + B + C = ?. then the greatest and the least values of z + 1 are a) 3. + x n − n = 5050..... If a coin is tossed n times the probability that h ead will appear an odd no of times is a) 1 2n b) 1 2 n−1 c) 1 2 d) 2 5 99. 0 c) 4.94. If z + 4 ≤ 3.. + nnc n = a) n2n-1 b) (n+1)2n+1 c) n2n d) (n-1)2n+1 101.. then n equals x →1 x −1 10 b) 100 c) 150 d) 200 98.... If α is one root of the equation 4x 2 + 2x –1=0.. If lim a) x + x 2 + x 2 + ..... b) 2 c) 3 nc1 + 2 nc 2 + 3 nc 3 + …. The number of solutions of 3x 2 + 6 x + 7 + 5x 2 + 10 x + 14 = 4 − 2 x − x d) 4 2 is a) 1 100. then the other root may be a) c) 4 ∝3 − 3 ∝ 3 ∝3 − 4 ∝ b) d) 4 ∝3 + 3 ∝ 3α 2 + 4α 97. then B C ⋅ tan 2 2 sin A + sin B − sin C is equal to sin A + sin B + sin C a) c) tan tan b) d) tan A B ⋅ tan 2 2 A B C ⋅ tan ⋅ tan 2 2 2 tan (A + B )− tan C . The altitude fo a right circular cone of minimum volume circumscribed about a sphere of radius r is a) 2r b) 3r c)5r d) 4r 95. 0 d) none of the above 96.

g (x ) = x f (x ) = x 2 . g (x ) cannot be determined. y 2=x is a) 105. If one ticket is selected from these tickets at random. ………. 5040 9999 5030 9999 b) d) 5000 9999 none of the above The area of the region bounded by the two parabolas y=x 2. 9999. the probability that the number on the ticket will consist of all different digits. is: a) c) 104. d) 103. 0003. If g (f (x )) = sin x and f (g (x )) = sin x . 0002. There are 9999 tickets bearing numbers 0001. Then 2 ( ) a) f (x ) = sin 2 x. g (x ) = x b) c) f (x ) = sin x. The probab ility that x 2 + y 2 is divisible by 10 is a) 3 50 b) 4 25 c) 9 50 d) 7 50 . 1 3 b) 2 3 c) 1 d) 4 3 Two non -ne gative integers x and y are chosen at random with replacement.102. g (x ) = sin x f (x ).

hypothalamus a) 1 – d b) 1 – b c) 1 – a d) 1 – c 2–a 2–c 2–b 2–d a) sleep wake cycle b) swallowing and vomiting c) balance and maintenance d) sleep and respiratory centers 3–c 3–d 3–d 3–a 4–b 4–a 4–c 4–b 76. 1) Allergies results from an inappropriate and excessive immune response to common autrigens in the disease called hypersensitivity 2) When the immune system attacks and destroys ‘self’ cells and molecules the disease is called autoimmune disease. Medulla 2. Bracteoles are 5 to 8 in a) Pavonia odorata c) Malva sylvestris b) Hibiscus rosasinensis d) Abutilon indicum 72. Match the following 1. African sleeping sickness is caused by ________________ a) b) c) d) Trypanosoma gambiens Leishmania donavani Leishmaria tropica Giardia intestinatis 78.Biology – Part 4 71. 3) Graft between allogenic individuals are called heterograft. which is not an autoimmune disease a) Rhematoid arthritis c) Multiple sclerosis b) SCID d) Insulin dependent diabetes 77. cerebellum 3. Casparian thickening is absent in __________ cells of the root a) radial walls of endodermis c) opposie to protoxylem b) metaxylem element d) transverse wall of endodermis 74. . pons 4. The blood pressure is decreased by a) Insulin c) Interleukin b) Interferon d) Renin inhibitor 73. The shape of the metacentric chromosome is _________ a) V–shaped b) L–shaped c) Rod shaped d) C-shaped 75.

Meristematic cells are self perpetuating Uneven thickned cell wall is the characteristic features of scelerenchyma Macre-scleroids are present in the seed coat of pisum Sclerenchyma are shorter whereas fibres are longer b) 2 and 3 b) 3 and 4 d) 1 and 4 a) 1 and 2 83. Urea is synthesized by a) Kidney b) Pancrease c)Liver d) Gall bladder 84. Which of the following sentence is / are true 1. 1 and 2 are true but 3 and 4 are false. Tilapia a) 1 and 2 Naakkumeen Parameen Madavai Jilabi kendai c) 3 only d) 3 and 4 b) 2 only . Match the following 1) Biosystematics 2) Carolus Linnaeus 3) Biochemical mutation 4) More than two carpels a) 1 – a b) 1 – c c) 1 – b d) 1 – d 2–b 2–d 2–c 2–b 3–c 3–b 3–d 3–a a) Heteromerae b) Camp and Gily c) Sweden scientist d) Neurospora 4–d 4–a 4–a 4–c 82. Find the wrong match / matches 1. 3. Sardines 3. Photosynthesis is an oxidation – reduction reaction between ___________ a) Water and ATP c) Carbondioxide and NADP b) Water and carbondioxide d) Water and NADP 80. 2. 3 and 4 are true but 1 and 2 are false. 2 and 3 are true but 1 and 4 are false. 1 and 3 are true but 4 and 2 are false. Grey Mullets 4.4) In distal convoluted tubules the urine becomes hypertonic. Flat fish 2. 4. a) b) c) d) 79. Ephedrine is used to cure a) Pneumonia b) Cough c) Tuberculosis d) Skin infection 81.

Fisher and Sewall Wright G. 2. 4. Stebbins and August Weismann 86.L.H.85. Weinberg R. a) Parent and children c) Monozygous twins a) 1 – a b) 1 – d c) 1 – b d) 1 – c 87.A. The population genetics was provided in the form of law by _______________ a) b) c) d) H. Hardy and W. The fracture in which haematoma does not communicate with the outside is ________________ a) Green stick fracture c) Pathological fracture b) Stress fracture d) Closed fracture . A functional idea to understand. The percentage of recombination can be determined by __________ a) Crossing over frequency Linkage frequency c) No of recombinant offspring Total number of offspring b) Linkage frequency Total offsprings d) No of total frequency Total number of offspring 89. Match the following 1. 3. 2–b 2–a 2–d 2–b 3–c 3–c 3–a 3–a b) Dizygous twins d) Consanguine marriage 4–d 4–b 4–c 4–d Which one of the following is non-degradable waste a) Mining waste c) Leather b) Fibre and paper d) Waste from food processing 88.J Muller and Ernst Mayr G. Ketosis occur due to a) b) c) d) The low level of calcitonin The low level of insulin The high level of insulin The low level of parathormone 90.

Pick out the correct statements a) b) c) d) C3 plants are more photosynthetically efficient than C4 plants C4 plants are more photosynthetically efficient than C2 plants C3 plants are more photosynthetically efficient than C2 plants C4 plants are more photosynthetically efficient thanC3 plants 97. From pericycle ______________root arises a) Primary root c) Secondary root b) Lateral root d) Tertiary root 98. Co2. The electron carriers in the electron transport system are arranged in a) Three complexes c) Four complexes b) Two complexes d) Five complexes 96. Hydel power disadvantages a. Match the following sources of energy 1. The largest of all viruses is _______________ a) Pox viruses c) Adeno virus b) Poloma virus d) Rous sarcoma virus 92. affect the ecosystem b. Albinism is due to _________________ a) absense of melanin c) presence of melanin b) absense of vitamins d) absense of hormone 99. Thermal power 3. Phloem fibres are also called as a) Wood fibres c) Bast fibres b) Libriform fibres d) Supporting cells 95.91. The botanical name of ashwagantha is __________________ a) b) c) d) Withania somnifera Solalum trilobatum Cestrym divernum Pelunia hybrida 94. Lack of rumination and dull appearance of cattle are the symptoms for __________ disease a) Anthrax c) Constipation b) Cowpox d) Milk fever 93. Solar cells 2. fly ash . acid rain c. Co2.

5800 genes are present in the genome of a) Drosophila c) Yeast b) Chimpanzee d) Arabidopis thaliana 105.4. Which of the following is / are secondary lymphoid organ/s ? 1) Bursa of fabricius 2) Spleen 3) Bone marrow 4) Mucosa a) 1 and 2 b) 2 and 4 c) 1 and 3 d) 3 and 4 . The ovary is obliquely placed in the members of a) Solanaceae c) Euphorbiaceae b) Malvaceae d) Musaceae 103. Which of the following sentence is / are false 1) During kidney failure dialysis is done to filter the waste 2) Blood cells and proteins are not filtered by the machine 3) The blood leaves usually from a vein in the medulla and return to a near by artery after dialysis 4) Adrenalin act as anti inflammatory agent a) 1 and 2 b) 3 only c) 4 only d) 3 and 4 102. The inherent potential of any living plant probagule to develop into entire organism is called a) Totipotency c) Morphogenesis b) Organogenesis d) Differenciation 106. Fossil fuel a) 1 – d b) 1 – c c) 1 – a d) 1 – b 100. Which of the following sentences is / are not false ? 1) The primary site of infection is urethra in males in the disease gonorrhoea. 2) Pencillin was discovered by Alexander Flemming in the year 1929 3) Western Blot is a sensitive test used to detect HIV 4) The viruses integrated themselves with the bacterial genome is called lysogenic cycle a) 1 and 4 b) 2 and 3 3) 3 and 4 d) 1 and 2 104. Carcinogen 4–b 4–a 4–c 4–a Bio-degradable products produced through gene modification of soyabean is _______________ a) Paints c) Industrial lubricants b) Fibres d) Plastics 101. 2–c 2–d 2–b 2–d 3–a 3–b 3–d 3–c d.

In hexose phase _________ ATP molecules are consumed a) One b) Two c) Three d) No ATP 108. Catkin 2. Match the inflorescence with the flower 1. Helicoid cyme 3. Find the incorrect match a) Timber yielding b) Cotton c) Oil yielding d) Medicine Tectora grandis Gossypium hisatum Arachis hypogea Colo nitida 113. Name the insect which plays a vital role in tropical forests by pollinating trees a) grasshopper c) Bumble bee b) Honeybee d) Orchid bee 110. The air breathing fish among the following is a) Mrigal b) Rohu c) Catfish d) Mullet . Arrange the following in the correct route for a complete reflex are 1) Sense organ 3) Effector 5) Intermediate neuron a) b) c) d) 1→ 6→ 5→ 2→ 1→ 6→ 2→ 5→ 4→5→ 3→6→ 5→2→ 6→3→ 2→3 4→1 3→4 4→1 2) Effector neuron 4) Grey matter of spinal cord 6) Affector neuron 112. Umbellate cyme a) 1 – c b) 1 – a c) 1 – a d) 1 – b 2–a 2–d 2–b 2–c 3–a 3–d 3–c 3–d a) Pavonia odorata b) Withania somnifera c) Acalypha indica d) Solanum tuberosum 4–b 4–c 4–d 4–a 111. Axillary cyme 4.6 bisphosphate into glycerol dehyde 3 phosphate a) 1 and 3 b) 3 only c) 1 only d) 3 and 4 109.D Lysenko 4) The enzyme phosphofructokinase convert fructose 1.107. Which of the following sentences is / are not false ? 1) The slow initial phase is called lag phase 2) Gibberellin promote dormancy in potatotubers 3) The term vernalisation was first introduced by German scientist called T.

A normal ECG composed of five waves designated from left to right with the letters a) PRTS and Q c) QPRS and T b) PQRS and T d) PTRQ and S 116. 1. and 5 c) 1. and 4 Which is the correct sequence of Natural selection theory by Darwin ? 1) over production 3) survival of the fittest 5) Natural selection a) 1. 2. 1. 2. The genotype of carriers of sickle cell anaemia a) HbS HbS c) HbA Hb S b) HbA HbA d) HbN HbN 115. 2. 3. The major aspects of plant breeding are 1) 2) 3) 4) Selection of better crop Conducting experiments to assess the quality of crops Release of a variety Creation of useful variation Arrange them in correct order a) 4.114. and 4 119. 2. and 3 d) 2. 3. 3. and 1 c) 1. 4. b) 4. In kreb’s cycle dehydration occurs during the formation of a) Succinic acid c) Cis-aconitic acid b) Malic acid d) Ketoglutaric acid 118. 2. 3. Gibberella fusarium can break down __________ and reduce it to a nontoxic form a) cyanide c) Cadmium b) Mercury d) Chromium ---------------------- . and 5 d) 1. 3. Super coils are released by a) DNA polymerase c) Topoisomerase b) Primase d) DNA polymerase I. II and III 117. and 4 120. 2. 3. 4. 2. 3. and 4 2) variation 4) struggle for existence b) 1. 5. 5.

ANSWER 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 d Physics 36 d Chemistry 71 b Maths 71 b Biology a 37 c 72 b 72 d b 38 a 73 d 73 c b 39 b 74 c 74 a a 40 b 75 c 75 b a 41 c 76 b 76 b c 42 c 77 d 77 a a 43 b 78 d 78 a a 44 b 79 a 79 b c 45 a 80 c 80 b c 46 d 81 a 81 c c 47 c 82 d 82 d c 48 d 83 a 83 c d 49 a 84 b 84 b b 50 a 85 a 85 b a 51 d 86 a 86 d b 52 b 87 d 87 a c 53 b 88 a 88 c b 54 d 89 a 89 b c 55 a 90 b 90 d c 56 c 91 a 91 a d 57 b 92 a 92 c b 58 d 93 a 93 a a 59 d 94 d 94 c d 60 c 95 b 95 c a 61 c 96 a 96 d c 62 a 97 d 97 b d 63 b 98 c 98 a d 64 c 99 a 99 a c 65 d 100 a 100 c a 66 c 101 b 101 b c 67 d 102 a 102 a c 68 b 103 a 103 d c 69 d 104 a 104 c a 70 a 105 c 105 a 106 b 107 b 108 c 109 d 110 a 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 a d c c b c c b a a .

UNIT 4: Oscillations and Wave Motion Periodic motion-simple harmonic motion-equations of motion-oscillations of springsimple pendulum-free. -wavefront- . UNIT 5: Heat and Thermodynamics Kinetic theory of gases-postulates-pressure of a gas-specific heat capacity-relation between Cp and Cv -first law of thermodynamicsthermodynamic processes-isothermal al and adiabatic-reversible and irreversible process-second law of thermodynamics Carnot’s engine Heat transfer-conduction-convection-radiation-thermal conductivity of solids-black body radiations-Kirchoff’s law-Wien’s displacement law-Stefan’s law-Newton’s law of cooling. . Solids-elastic behaviour.B. forced and damped oscillations-resonance-applications-wave motions-longitudinal and transverse waves-velocity of wave motion in different mediaNewton’s formula-Laplace’s correction-super position of waves-progressive and standing wavessonometer-air columns-Doppler effect and its applications.applications. latitude and depth-gravitation potential-escape velocity and orbital velocity geostationary satellites-kepler’s laws of planetary motion.Tech .projectile motion-uniform circular motion-friction-laws of frictionapplications.. a measurements -errors in measurement significant figures. fundament l and derived units. acceleration due to gravity-variation of ‘g’ with altitude. UNIT 2: Mechanics Motion in one dimension-uniform and non-uniform motion-uniformly accelerated motion-scalar and vector quantities-Newton’s laws of motion-force and inertia-impulse and momentum -law of conservation of linear momentum -applications-motions in two dimension.centripetal force-centre of mass-torque-angular momentum and its conservation -moment of inertia-theorems of moment of inertia-work-energy-potential energy and kine energy-power-collision-elastic and inelastic collisions.I. Mechanics of Solids and Fluids The universal law of gravitation. UNIT 6: Ray and Wave Optics Reflection and refraction of light-total internal reflection-velocity of light determina tiondeviation and disper sion of light by a prism -Lens formul -magnification-power of lensa Combination of thin lenses in contact-Microscope-Astronomical telescope.Syllabus PART 1 – PHYSICS (35 Questions) UNIT 1: Units and Measurement Units for measurement system of units-S. dimensions-Dimensiona l analysis-applications. tic UNIT 3: Gravitation.stress-strain-Hooke’s law-Modulli of elasticity-relation between them-surface tension-capillarity-applications–viscosity-Poiseuille’s formula-Stokes law-applicationsstreamline and turbulent flow-reynolds number-Bernoulli’s theorem.

mass defectBainbridge mass spectrometer-nuclear forces neutron discovery-radioactivity-? .Earth’s magnetic field and magnetic elements-magnetic field due to a magnetic dipole-torque on a magnetic dipole-tangent law tangent galvanometer-deflection magnetome ter-magnetic properties of a material–dia. UNIT 9: Dual Nature of Matter and Nuclear Physics Matter waves-wave nature of particles-De Broglie wavelength-electron microscope. density. NOR. radius. Nuclear fission-nuclear reactor-nuclear fusion-hydrogen bomb cosmic rays-elementary particles. para and ferroma gnetic materialsapplications. mass. Nuclear properties. ?? and ?? decay-half life and mean life-artificial radio activity-radio isotopes-radio carbon dating-radiation hazards.Huygens principle-wave nature of light–interference -Young’s double slit experiment diffraction and polarization UNIT 7: Electricity and Magnetism Electrostatics-Coulomb’s inverse square law-dielectric constant-electric field-electric lines of force-electric dipole-electric potential-potential difference-electric flux-Gauss theorem-electrostatic induction-capacitor capacitors in parallel and series-action of points-lightning arrester electric current-drift velocity of electrons-Ohm’s law-electrical resistivity and conduct vity-super i conductivity-Kirchoff’s law-Wheatstone’s bridge-principle of potentiometer-electric power. isotopes. OR. AND.magnetic effects of electric current-Bio Savart law-force on a moving charge in an uniform magnetic field-moving coil galvanometer-conversion of a galvanometer into voltmeter and ammeter-Faraday’s law-Lenz law of electromagnetic induction-Self inductance-mutual inductanceFlemming’s righthand rule-methods of inducing emf-eddy current.Alternating currents-LCR series circuit-AC generator-Transformer UNIT 8: Atomic Physics and Relativity Atomic structure-properties of cathode rays and positive rays-specific charge of an electron-atom model-Thomson atom model-Rutherford atom model-Bohr atom modelmerits and demerits-quantum numbers -X-rays-production-properties-Bragg’s lawBragg’s X-ray spectrometerPhotoelectric effect-laser-spontaneous and stimulated emission-laser actioncharacteristics of laser light-ruby laser-applications of laser relativity-Einstein’s mass energy rela tion-variation of mass with velocity. UNIT 10: Electronics and Communication Semiconductors -doping-types-PN junction diode-biasing-diode as a Rectifiertransistors-transistor characteristics-amplifier-gain-feedback in amplifiers-logic gatesbasic logic gates-NOT. NAND-universal gates-De Morgan’s theoremsspace communic ation propagation . binding energy.

Graham’s law of diffusion. liquefaction of gases. . Charle’s law. Unit 2 Solutions Different methods for expressing concentra tion of solution-Molality. effect of catalyst. pressure. bcc and hcp lattices). s acid-base equilibria (including multistage ionization) and ionization constants. Ionic equilibrium: Weak and strong electrolytes. covalent and metallic solids. Solid State: Classification of solids: molecular. electrical. Equilibria involving chemica processes: Law of chemical equilibrium. packing in solids (fcc. calculations involving unit cell parameters. colligative properties of dilute solutions-relative lowering of vapour pressure. vapour pressure-composition.of electromagnetic waves in atmosphere -sky and space wave propagation-modulation types–demodulation-microwave s-radars. Vander Waals equation. Dalton’s law of partial pressure. root mean square are most probable velocities. Gaseous State: Measurable properties of gases. concept of absolute scale of temperature. real gases. factors affecting equilibrium concentra tion. Liquid State: Properties of liquids – vapour pressure. percentage (by volume and mass both). vapour pressure of solutions and Raoult’s law-ideal and non-ideal solutions. Le Chatelier’s princip le. abnormal value of molar mass. PART II – Chemistry(35 Questions) Unit 1 States of Matter Classification of matter into solid. equilibrium l constants (Kp and Kc) and their significance. various concepts of acids and bases (Arrhenius. ionic.Bronsted-Lawry and Lewi ) and their ionization. deviation from ideal behaviors. critical constants. concept of dynamic equilibrium. Van’t Hoff factor and its significance. compressibility factor. Avogadro’s law. ideal gas equation. significance of DG and DGo in chemical equilibria. kinetic theory of gases (only postulates). plots for ideal and non-ideal solutions. unit cell and lattices. Unit 3 Chemical Equilibrium Meaning of equilibrium. Henry’s law general characteristics of equilibrium involving physical processes. Bragg’s Law and its applications. voids. amorphous and crystalline solids (elementary idea). ionization of electrolytes. liquid-gas and solid-gas equilibria. determin ation of molecular mass using colligative properties. molarity. Gas laws-Boyle’s law. depression of freezing point. temperature. liquid and gaseous states. concept of average. Equilibria involving physical processes: Solid-liquid. magnetic and dielectric properties. mole fraction. imperfection in solids. elevation of boiling point and osmotic pressure. viscosity and surface tension and effect of temperature on them (qualitative treatment only).

EMF of a galvanic cell. enzyme cat alysis and its mechanism. corrosion and its prevention. o Electrolysis. emf of a galvanic cell and its measurement. Unit 4 Redox Reactions and Electrochemistry Oxidation and reduction as an electron transfer concept. internal energy and enthalpy changes. fuel cells. buffer solutions. nomencla ture). Balancing of oxidation-reduction equations. numerical. preparation and properties of colloids-Tyndall effect. different types of electrodes. Unit 6 Chemical Energetics and Chemical Thermodynamics Energy changes during a chemical reaction. multi molecular. Factors affecting rates of reactions-factors affecting rate of collisions encountered between the reactant molecules. Units of rates and specific rate constants. classification of colloids-lyophilic. emulsions and their characteristics. Order of reaction and effect of concentration (study will be confined to first order only). origin of enthalpy change in a reaction. Oxidation number (rule for assigning oxidation number. adsorption from solutions. Brownian movement. effect of temperature on the reaction rate. half-cell reactions. macro molecular and associated colloids (micelles). Catalysis-Homogeneous and heterogeneous. relationship between cell potential and Gibbs’s energy change. concept of activation energy. electrophoresis. colloids and suspensions. Unit 5 Surface Chemistry. factors affecting adsorption of gases on solids-Freundlich and Langmuir adsorption isotherms. Rate of reaction. specific and molar conductivities and their variation with concentr ation: Kohlrausch’s law and its applications. Enthalpies of reactions . redox re s actions in terms of oxidation number. Chemical Kinetics and Catalysis Adsorption-Physisorption and chemisorp tion and their characteristics. Dependence of EMF on concentrati n and temperature (Nernst equation and numerical problems based on it). electrode potentials including standard electrode potential. internal energy and enthalpy. dialysis. hydrolysis of salts and pH of their solutions. Hess’s law of constant heat summation. common ion effect. Theories of catalysis-adsorption theory-some of important industrial process using catalysts. catalyst. Electrolytic and metallic conduction. and selectivity of solid catalysts. based on these concepts. Electrochemical cells-Electrolytic and Galvanic cells. Order of a reaction (with suitable examples). lyophobic. Colloidal state-Distinction among true solutions. Redox reactions in aqueous solutions-electrochemical cells.ionization of water pH scale. conductance in electrolytic solutions. coagulation and flocculation. Rate law expression. Nernst equation and its applications. instantaneous rate of reaction and order of reaction. dry cell and lead accumulator. solubility of sparingly soluble salts and solubility products. activity.

oxides and oxyacids of phosphorus. dipole moment. Fajan’s rule. properties and uses. oxidation states and chemical reactivity. ionic radii and periodicity. Unit – 10 Chemistry of Non-metals Hydrogen ( unique position in periodic table. reactions and uses). Radioactive disintegration series. soline and interstitial Water and hydrogen peroxide. inorganic comp ounds of carbon – oxides. ionization enthalpy. s Unit – 9 Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure Covalent bonding: Concept of electronegativity. sigma and pi-bonds. occurrence. valence. bond length and bond energy. structure of water molecule and its aggregates. molecular orbital electronic configurations of homonulear diatomic molecules. properties-ionization energy.(enthalpy of neutralization. Nitric Acid – preparation. isotopes. Silicon – occurrence. periodic trends in properties of elements. compounds of Nitrogen – Ammonia. on Quantum mechanical approach to covalent bonding: Valence bond theory-Its important features. concept of hybridization involving s. DGo (Standard Gibbs energy change and equilibrium constant. Periodic trends in . properties. enthalpy of combustion. water softening. DS of the universe and D of the G system as criteria for spontaneity. Transition elements-d-block elements inner transition elements-f-block elements. electron affinity atomic radii. resonance. hard and soft water. i . chemical fert lizers. Element ry idea of metallic bonding. Inorganic Chemistry Unit – 8 Chemical Families-Periodic Properties Modern periodic law and present form of the periodic table. anti-bonding). s & p block elements. Valence Shell Electr Pair Repulsion (VSEPR) theory and shapes of simple molecules. halides. types of molecular orbitals (bonding. H a ydrogen bonding and its applications. Ox ides of Nitrogen. structure and uses. Carbon. Hydrides – molecular. hydrogen peroxide – preparation. Unit 7 Nuclear Chemistry Nature of radiations from radioactive substances. carbides. properties. elemental carbon. properties. LCAOs. enthalpy of fusion and vaporization) First law of thermodynamics-Spontaneity of processes. Artificial transmutation of elements. uses. lanthanide and actinides-general characteristics. p and d orbitals. physical and chemical properties of water. preparation and properties. Nuclear fission and Nuclear fusion: Isotopes and their applications: Radio carbon-dating. concept of bond order. Molecular orbital theory-Its important features. Nitrogen – Preparation. atomic and ionic radii. electron gain enthalpy. Nuclear reactions.

o Common types of organic reactions-Substitution. shapes of simple molecules-hybridization (s and p). chemistry of noble gases and their uses. properties and uses of Potassium dichromate and Potassium permangana te. Zinc and Mercury –occurrence and extraction. photography. carbocations and carbanions. addition. Electronic displacement in a covalent bond-inducctive effect. oxygen. physical properties. sulphides and sulphates Tin and Lead – occurrence and extraction. General properties of second and third r transition elements(GroupWise discussion). Unit –12 Transition Metals including Lanthanides Electronic configuration: General characteristic properties. oxides. properties and uses. Unit – 11 Heavy Metals Iron – Occurrence and extraction. halides and sulphide s. sulphate. resonance and hyperc njugation. halides. homologous series.Noble gases – discovery. Unit – 15 Hydrocarbons . -C?C. elimination and rearrangement. Inner Transition Elements: Generaldiscussion with special reference to oxidation states and lanthanide contr action.and those o containing halogens. Nomenclature : Isomerism in coordination compounds. ow Preparation and reactions. properties and uses. compounds -oxides. Organic Chemistry Unit – 14 Some Basic Principles of Organic Chemistry Tetravalency of carbon. electrophiles and nucleophiles . classification of organic compounds b ased on functi nal groups: -C=C-. coordination compounds . Nomenclature (Trivial and IUPAC) Covalent bond fission-Homolytic and heterolytic: free radicals. compounds – sulphides. nitrogen and sulphur. Unit 13 Coordination Chemistry and Organo Metallics Coordination compounds. Bonding in coordination compounds Werner’s coordination theory. First row transition metals and general properties of their compounds-oxides. halides. sulphides. stability of carbocation and free radicals. compounds of iron. Copper and silver – occurrence and extraction. compounds – oxides. halides. sulphides. halides and sulphates. isomerismstrctural and stereoisomerism. oxidation states of transition metals. alloy and steel. occurrence and isolation. Applications of . properties and uses. electromeric effect.

some important polymers with emphasis on their monomers and uses – polythene. halogens. reduction (Wolff Kishner and Clemmensen). general methods of preparation. Alkenes-Geometrical isomerism. gener methods of polymerizational addition and condensation. Reimer-Tiemann reaction. General me thods of preparation. properties and reaction. nylon. isomerism.polyester and bakelike. oxidation. and polymerization. Alkynes-Acidic character. reactions and uses. Cannizzaro reaction. copolymerization. reactions and uses. Addition to>C=o group. Aromatic hydrocarb ons-nomencla ture. Phenols : Acidic nature. benzene-structure and aromaticity. nitration. Chemical tests to distinguish between aldehydes and ketones. Haloform reaction. Grigard reagent. mechanism of electrophilic substitution: halogenation. mechanism of dehydration. Amines: Nomencla ture. acidity of-hydrogen. mechanism of halogenation of alkanes. properties. Aldehyde and Ketones: Nature of carbonyl group. NH3 and its derivatives). addition of hydrogen. oxidation.Classification. FriedelCraft’s alkylation and acylation. directive influence of functional group in monosubstituted benzene. electrophilic substitution reactions: halogenation. Nuclephil c-Nuclephi ic addition i l reaction (addition of HCN. secondary and tertiary alcohols. Alcohols: Identification of primary. nitration and sulphonation. mechanism of electrophilic addition: addition of hydrogen. relative reactivities of aldehydes and ketones Ethers: Structure. ozonolysis. structure. aldol condensa tion. Alkanes-Conformation: Sawhorse and Newman projections (of ethane). Unit – 16 Organic Compounds Containing Oxygen and Nitrogen General me thods of preparation. natural and synthetic rubber and vulcanization. properties. basic character and identification of primary. IUPAC nomencla ture. water. hydrogen halides (Markownikoff’s and peroxide effect). water and hydrogen halides. polymerization. Unit – 18 Bio Molecules . classification. halogens. secondary and tertiary amines and their basic character. Diazonium salts: Importance in synthetic organic chemistry . Carboxylic acids: Acidic strength andfactors affecting it. Unit – 17 Polymers General intr oduction and classification of polymers.

Chemica in food-preservatives. polypeptides. monosaccharide (glucose and s fructose). antimicrobials. maltose) s and polysaccharides (starch. ls artificial sweetening agents-common ex amples. tertiary and quaternary structure (qualitative idea only). denaturation of proteins. antiseptics. antibiotics. cleansing action. secondary. disinfectants. peptide bond. Antihistamine-their meaning and common examples. tranquilizers. proteins: primary.Carbohydra tes-Classification: aldoses and ketoses. Unit – 19 Chemistry in Everyday Life Chemicals in medicines-Analgesics. enzymes. antifertility drugs. lactose. Proteins-Elementary Idea of-amino acids. . Cleansing agents-Soaps and detergents. constituent monosaccharides of oligosacchoride (sucrose. glycogen). cellulose. antacids.

Geometric Series. UNIT 4 : Applications of Matrices and Determinants Computing the rank of a matrix . . adjoint and inverse of matrix. UNIT 9 : Sequences and Series Arithmetic. and H. general term and middle term. Properties of Binomial Co-efficients. triangle inequality.Special series: S n. Binomial Theorem for any index. into and onto mappings. S n 2 . Argand diagram. n 3 . UNIT 7 : Mathematical Induction and Its Applications Stating and interpreting the principle of mathematical induction. Symmetric functions of roots. Geometric and Harmonic progressions.M. Union. Using it to prove formulae and facts. UNIT 6: Permutations and Combinations Fundamental principle of counting.. Addition and multiplication of matrices. Algebra of complex numbers.M. UNIT 8: Binomial Theorem and its Applications Binomial Theorem for a positive integral index. mappings.M. square root of a complex number. Evaluation of determinants.Test of consistency and solution of simultaneous linear equations using determinants and matrices. nature of roots. and their algebraic properties. Relation between A. Summation using n. UNIT 3 : Matrices and Determinants Determinants and matrices of order two and three. Relations. Arithmetic. UNIT 5: Quadratic Equations Quadratic equations in real and complex number system and their solutions. Permutation as an arrangement and combination as selection. one-one.MATHEMATICS (35 Questions) UNIT 1 : Sets. S n 3 . composition of mappings. Meaning of P(n. UNIT 2 : Complex Numbers Complex numbers in the form a+ib and their representation in a plane. Relations and Functions Sets and their Representations. Modulus and Argument (or amplitude) of a complex number. Cube roots of unity. equivalence relations. Simple applications. Simple applications for approximations.r) and C(n.r). formation of quadratic equations with given roots. Relation between roots and co-efficients. intersection and complements of sets. equations reducible to quadratic equations – application to practical problems. Insertion of Arithmetic Geometric and Harmonic means between two given numbers.n 2 . G.PART III . properties of determinants. Exponential and Logarithmic series.

their order and degree. intercepts of a line on the coordinate axes. Rolle’s and Lagrange’s Mean Value Theorems. Inverse functions. angles between two lines. equation of the tangent. exponential and logarithmic functions. UNIT 15 : Circles in Two dimensions Standard form of equation of a circle. UNIT 14 : Straight Lines in Two dimensions Cartesian system of rectangular co-ordinates in a plane. Determining areas of the regions bounded by simple curves. Various forms of equations of a line. composite and implicit functions. trigonometric. Solution of differential equations by the method of separation of variables. differentiation of trigonometric. Integration by substitution. Limits.UNIT 10 : Differential Calculus Polynomials. points of intersection of a line and a circle with the centre at the origin and condition for a line to be tangent to the circle. distance formula. Evaluation of definite integrals. Solution of homogeneous and linear differential equations. Integral as limit of a sum. UNIT 11 : Applications of differential Calculus Rate of change of quantities. tangents and normals. translation of axes. condition for the general second degree equation to represent a pair of lines. condition for y = mx + c to be a tangent and point(s) of tangency. difference. condition for two intersecting circles to be orthogonal. UNIT 13 : Differential Equations Ordinary differential equations. condition for the collinearity of three points and section formula. logarithmic. rational. parallel and perpendicular lines. its radius and centre. general form of the equation of a circle. locus and its equation. conditions for concurrence of three lines. logarithmic and exponential functions. homogeneous equation of second degree in x and y. inverse trigonometric. UNIT 12 : Integral Calculus Integral as an anti-derivative. orthocentre and circumcentre of a triangle. derivatives of order upto two. Continuity. intersection of lines. ellipse and hyperbola) in standard forms. Integration using trigonometric identities. UNIT 16 : Conic Sections in Two dimensions Sections of cones. Fundamental integrals involving algebraic. Properties of definite integrals. centroid and in-centre of a triangle. Maxima and minima of functions of one variable. product and quotient of two functions. distance of a point from a line Equations of internal and external bisectors of angles between two lines. . point of intersection and angle between two lines. trigonometric. Formation of differential equations. monotonic -increasing and decreasing functions. equation of family of lines passing through the point of intersection of two lines. angle between pair of lines through the origin. and those of the type d 2 y/dx 2 = f(x) . equation of a family of circles through the intersection of two circles. equation of a circle when the end points of a diameter are given. by parts and by partial fractions. differentiation of the sum. combined equation of the bisectors of the angles between a pair of lines. equations of conic sections (parabola. Graphs of simple functions. exponential. coordinates of centroid. equation of a circle in the parametric form. area of a triangle. length of the tangent. slope of a line.

UNIT 17 : Vector Algebra Vectors and Scalars, addition of vectors, components of a vector in two dimensions and three dimensional space, scalar and vector products, scalar and vector triple product. Application of vectors to plane geometry. UNIT 18 : Measures of Central Tendency and Dispersion Calculation of Mean, median and mode of grouped and ungrouped data. Calculation of standard deviation, variance and mean deviation for grouped and ungrouped data. UNIT 19 : Probability Probability of an event, addition and multiplication theorems of probability and their applications; Conditional probability; Bayes’ Theorem, Probability distribution of a random variate; Binomial and Poisson distributions and their properties. UNIT 20 : Trigonometry Trigonometrical identities and equations. Inverse trigonometric functions and their properties. Properties of triangles, including centroid, incentre, circum-centre and orthocentre, solution of triangles. Heights and Distances

PART – IV Biology (50 Questions) Botany Unit I Taxonomy of Angiosperm

Types of classifications -Artificial, Natural, Phylogenetic - Biosystematics Binomial Nomencla ture - Herbaria and their uses – Bentham and Hooker's classification of plants - Families Malvaceae, Solanaceae - Euphorbiaceae, Musaceae and Economic Importance.
Unit II Plant Anatomy

Tissues and Tissue System - anatomy of monocot and Dicot roots - anatomy of Monocot and dicot stem and anatomy of dicot leaf.
Unit III Cell Biology and Genetics

Chromosomes- Structure and types - genes and genome- Linkage and crossing over – Gene mapp - recombination of chromosomes - mutation - chromosomal aberration – ing DNA as genetical material - Structure of DNA - replication of DNA - Structure of RNA and its type.
Unit IV: Biotechnology

Recombinant DNA Technolo - Transgenic plants with beneficial traits – plant tissue culture gy and its application - Protoplasmic fusion – Bioethics in plant genetic engineering.
Unit V Plant physiology

Photosynthesis - Significance - site of photosynthesis - photochemical and biosynthetic phases - electron transport system - cyclic and non cyclic photophosphorylation - C3 and C4 pathway - photorespiration – factor affecting photosynthesis – mode of nutri ion – autotrophic t heterotropic – saprophytic – parasitic and insectivorous plants – chemosynthes – respiration – is mechanism of glycolysis – kreb’scycle – pentose pathway – anaerobic respiration – respiratory quotient – compensa tion point - fermentation – plant growth – growth regulators – phytohormones – auxin – gibberellins – cytokinins – ethylene and abscisic acid – photoperiodism and vernali ation. s
Unit VI Biology in human welfare

Food production – breeding experiments – improved varieties and role of biofertilizer – crop diseases and their control – biopesticides – genetically modified food – biowar – biopiracy – biopatent – sustained agriculture and medicin plants including microbes – Economic al importance food yielding (rice) – Oil yielding (groundnut fibre yielding (cotton) and timber ) yielding (teak)
ZOOLOGY Unit I Human Physio logy Nutrition – introduction – carbohydrates – proteins – lipids – vitamins mineral – water – Balanced diet – calorie value – (ICBM standard ) – obesity – Hyperglycemia – hypoglycemi – a malnutrition. Digestion – enzymes and enzyme action – Brief account of following – Dental caries – Root canal therapy – peptic ulcer-Hernia-Appendici is – Gallbladder stone – Liver t cirrhosis – Hepatitis. Bones and Joints (Major types) fractures – Dislocations – Arthritis – Rickets and Osteomalasia – orthopaedies – Gout. Muscles – muscle action – muscle tone – Rigor Mortis – muscle pull (hernia) isometric and aerobic exercises (body building) myasthenia gravis. Respiration – Process of pulmonary respiration – inspiration Expiration – Exchange of gases at alveolar level – control of respiration – pneumonia – pleurisy – Tuberculosis – Bronchitis – Breathing exerci e. s Circulation – Functioning of heart origin and conduction of heart beat – Artificial pacemaker – coronary blood vessels and its significance – myocardial infraction – Angina pectoria – Angiogram – angioplasty and coronary bypass surgery – Atheroscler osis – heart attack – heart block – ECG and Echo Cardiography -heart valves-Rheumatic heart di ease (RHD ICCU-arterial and venous s ) systems-Blood pressure-pulse rate-heart transplantation- Resuscitation in heart attack (First aid) Blood component -functions-plasma-corpuscles-blood clotting-anticoagulants-Thrombosiss embolism-blood related diseases like polycythemia-Leukemia-Lymph fluid. Physiological Co ordination System:

Brain-functioning of different regions-memory-sleep-stroke- Alzheimer’s disease-meningi ist Brain fever-conditioned reflex-electroencephal graphy-Right brain left brain concept-spinal o cord – functioning-reflex action-CSF-chemica coordination-pituitary (Hormones of l adenohypo physis and their regulation) Thyroid-parathyroid hormones-insulin and glucogonHormones of adrenal cortex and medulla-Reproductive hormones-problems related to secretion, non secret of hormones. ion
Receptor Organs:

Eye-Focussing mechanism and photo chemistry of retina-short sightedness -LongsightednessOptometry-Retinopathy- cataract -Lens replacement- Nectalopia-Eye infection-conjunctivi iest Glucuoma- Eye care-Ear-Hearing mechanism -organ of corti-Hearing impairments and aidsNoise pollution and its importance-skin-melanin functions-Effect of solar radiation/UV Skin grafting-Dermatitis-Tongue-Gustatory reception.
Excretion:

Ureotelism-urea-Biosynthesis(ornithine cycle) Nephron- ultrafiltration -tubular reabsorption and tubular secretion-Renal failure-Dialysis kidney stone formation kidney transplantationDiabetes.
Reproductive System:

Brief account of spermatogenesis and oogenesis-menstrual cycle-in vitro fertilization-Birth control Unit II: Microbiology Introduction-History of medical microbiology-The influence of Pasteur, Koch and ListerVirology-structure Genetics culture and diseases-AIDS and its control-Bacteriology structure, Genetics and diseases-protozoan microbiology-Diseases oriented-pathogenecity of micro organism-anti microbial resistance chemotherapy. Single cell protein. Microbial culture technique and its applications –Strain Isolation and Improvement - Isolation of microbial products.
Unit III Immunology:

Innate immunity (Non specific)- anatomical Barriers-Physiological barriers-phagocytic barriers Lymphoida organs-Thymus- Bursa of fabricius-Peripheral Lymphoid organs-Lymph nodesl Spleen-antibodies- immuno globulins-regions of polypeptide chain-Transplantation immunology -classification of grafts-Genetic basis of organ transplant-immune sys tem disorder.
Unit IV: Modern Genetics and Animal Biotechnology

Introduction-scope-Human Genetics Karyotyping Chromosome gene mapping-Recombin ant DNA technology and segmenting genetic diseases – Human genome project-cloningTransgenic organisms- Genetically modified organism(GMO)-Gene therapy- Animal cell culture and its applications – Stem cell technology – Bioethics of genetic engineering in

animals. Bio informatics application DNA Sequencing and protein structure-Biological database. Unit V Environmental Science:

Human population and explosion-issue-Global Warming Crisis - Green house effect - Ozone layer depletion- waste management Biodiversity conservation (Biosphere reserve)Government and non-governmental organization involved-Energy crisis and environmental impact-poverty and environment Freshwater crisis and management. Unit VI Applied Biology:

Livestock and management Dairy-Breed of cattle-Miltch breed –Drought breed Dual purposecommon disea and control-Exotic and cross breeds–Techniquesadapted in cattle breeding. ses Poultry-Farming techniques- Breeds- Farming me thod - poultry diseases-Economic value Pisciculture-fish farming- Edible fishes of Tamil Nadu. Medical lab techniques-stethescopesphygmomonome ter Haemocytometer-urine sugar analysis-ECG-PQRST Wave CT ScanEndoscopic (Laproscopic) techniquesartificial pace maker-Auto analyzer.
Unit VII Theories of Evolution:

Lamarckism -Darwinism-Neodarwimsm/M odern concept of natural selection- species of concept-origin of species and isolating mechanism.

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(iii) (iv) Sense of perspective drawing Creating interesting two dimensional composition using given shapes or forms. The test shall be of objective type and comprise of topics related to. (v) (vi) (vii) Creating visual harmony using colours in given composition. Test –I Aesthetic Sensitivity is to evaluate candidate’s perception. Understanding of scale and sense of proportion Drawing from memory through pencil sketch on theme from day to day experiences. Visualising three dimensional objects from two dimensional drawings Visualising different sides of three dimensional object Analytical Reasoning Mental Ability Imaginative comprehension and expression Architectural awareness . (ii) Visualising and drawing the effects of light on the object and shadows cast on the surroundings. creativity and communication.B. (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v) (vi) Test – II The Drawing aptitude of the candidate shall be judged on the following aspects: (i) Ability to sketch a given object proportionately and rendering the same in visually appealing manner.Arch Program – Aptitude test in Architecture : Syllabus The Aptitude Test in Architecture shall consist of 2 papers: (2 hours 30 minutes duration) (i) Test – I – Aesthetic Sensitivity – 50 marks – duration of test:.30 minutes (ii) Test – II – Drawing -100 marks – duration of test – Two hours. and Architectural awareness. imagination and observation.

MODEL QUESTIONS – B.Arch Test – I – Aesthetic Sensitivity (50 marks ) PART A (each question 1 mark) A1. National centre for performing arts. TATA’s is located at (1) New Delhi (3) Hyderabad (2) Chennai (4) Mumbai . Big temple in Tanjore is also known as (1) Brighadeswara temple (3) Meenakshi Amman temple (2) Linga raja temple (4) Temple of 1000 pillar hall A3. Sun temple is located at (1) Bhuvaneshwar (3) Kolkata (2) Konark (4) Kajuraho A2. Jantar Manthar in Delhi is (1) A Temple (3) A Palace (2) (4) A Fort An astronomical observatory A4.

V. “Falling water” is designed by (1) LeCarbusier (3) Frank Lloyd Wright (2) B. Pantheon is the example of (1) Egyptian Architecture (3) Gothic architecture (2) Greek architecture (4) Sumerian Architecture A8. The Sydney opera house in Australia resembles a (1) Kangaroo (3) Ship with sails (2) Guitar (4) A mountain .A5. Golbumbaz tomb is located at (1) Agra (3) Mandu (2) Bijapur (4) Hyderabad A6.Doshi (4) Mumbai A7.

0m (4) 3. Identify the group of primary colours (1) Pink.A9. Standard parking space for a car (1) 1.0m A10.red&yellow (2) White.5mx6.5m (3) 2. black&browm (4) White. black&grey .5mX5m (2) 2. yellow & orange (3) Blue. Tread and Riser are elements of (1) Window (3) Door (2) Staircase (4) Foundation A12. Anthropometrics is the study of (1) Human dimensions (3) Beauty of building (2) Building materials (4) Weather A11.5mX2.0mX5.

A13. The five problem figures are in a sequence or order of their occurrence. Series The test divided into two parts. the figures provided have tentative answer not in . On the other hand. they have been arranged on the basic of some principle and you cannot change this order without violating the principle involved. Natural stone with maximum content of calcium used in building industry (1) Slate (3) Basalt (2) Marble (4) Granite A14. The first part consists of five problem figures and second part consists of five tentative answer figures. Which of the fallowing material is easily susceptible to corrosion (1) Plastic (3) Iron (2) Aluminium (4) Platinum A15. The largest historical Hindu temple in the world is at (1) Colombo (3) Madurai (2) Kathmandu (4) Angkor Wat PART – B (each questions 2 marks) B1.

B2. B3. This required figure is one among the five tentative answer figures.any order. all except one of which are similar in some aspect or quality. You are required to choose what would be the sixth figure in the series of problem figures. Identical figures . Classification In the diagram given below. Identify the one which is different from the others B4. Analogy Find out the relationship between the first and second problem figures and then select one figure from the five answer figures on the right which should be related to the third problem figures in the same way.

the B5. .&Z).C. Identify from the set of answer figures (A. a piece of paper is folded and then cut into a particular shape /design ( showing the direction of folding )( X.B.D) the correct figure which represents the design that the paper have after it’s unfolded.Y. Paper cutting and punching.Choose the identical figure from the given four figures in boxes on the right for the one on the left. Odd figures Select the odd figure from the given set of figures B6.

B7. C & D) when folded along the dotted line will form the figure on the extreme left. B. Identify the correct figure from the right that will form the extreme left figure when folded along the dotted line. The four alternative figures on the right side (A. Identify the monument . Identify the building 1 Victoria memorial 3 Rashtrapati bhavan 2 4 Vidhan soudha Jan tar mantar B9. B8.

. Identify correct elevation as indicated by arrow. Left hand side problem figure shows the view of an object. Identify the Structure 1 Bahai temple 3 Iskcon temple 2 4 Brila mandir Bal mandir PART C (each question 3 marks) C1.1 Teen darwaza 3 India gate 2 4 Buland darwaza Gateway of India B10.

C3. Left hand side problem figure shows the top view of an object. . Identify the correct top view. Find out the total number of surfaces of the object shown below. C4. Left hand side problem figure shows the view of an object. Identify the correct front view.C2. Which of the right hand side answer figures is the correct mirror image of the left hand side problem figure? C5.

Test – II – Drawing (100 marks) PART A (50 Marks) Imagine that you are inside a ticket counter of a cinema hall issuing tickets. showing the effect of light and shadow of the composition . and sketch the view of the people lined in the Queue as seen from inside the counter by you PART B (25 Marks) Compose a visually appealing composition with squares and circles using minimum of three and not more than six each. and color the composition with primary colours PART C (25 marks) Make an interesting three dimensional composition using three cubes and two cones.