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1. On-condition maintenance of reciprocating engine D. All of the above are correct.

is covered under
A. CAR series D part I. 9. S.S.I. Are
B. aircraft rule 70. A. solid structure items.
C. aircraft rule 72. B. structuallly significant instruction.
D. CAR series D part III. C. significant service instruction.
D. structural significant item.
2. Aircraft maintenance programme and their approval
are covered under 10. S.S.I are
A. IAF 60(2). A. structural assembly.
B. IAR 62. B. structural assembly which is judge significant
C. CAR series D part II. because of the reduction in aircraft residual strength.
D. Both a and c are correct. C. damage tolerant item.
D. None of the above.
3. Alert value means
A. maximum reliability index. 11. On-condition maintenance implies the philosophy
B. minimum reliability index. A. of fit and forget it.
C. maximum deviation from the normal operating B. of fit until failure.
limit but within the allowable operating range. C. a and b are correct.
D. None of the above. D. None of the above.

4. When the operator is in the alert area the RAO will 12. Condition monitoring implies the philosophy
A. monitor the corrective programmes closely to A. of fit and forget it.
determine their effectiveness and indicate the B. of fit until failure.
necessity of the amendment. C. Both a and b are correct.
B. keep the DGCA informed of the progress and D. None of the above.
effectiveness of the corrective programme.
C. inform the manufacturer of the aircraft for taking 13. Substantial damage means
corrective action. A. any damage beyond repair.
D. Both a and b is correct. B. any damage which necessitate the replacement of
any component.
5. Reliability is a function of C. any damage necessitating the replacement or
A. maintenance. extensive repair of any major component.
B. basic design. D. any damage beyond economical repair.
C. personal training.
D. All of the above. 14. Approved maintenance process is monitored by
A. hard time maintenance.
6. IAR 60 (2) authorise DGCA to B. on-condition maintenance.
A. specify the standard of balloons maintenance. C. Both a and b are correct.
B. specify the standard of glider maintenance. D. aircraft mechanical delay & PDR.
C. specify the standard of aircraft maintenance.
D. None of the above. 15. The continuing capability of the aircraft to
perform in a satisfactory manner the flight operation
7. Restoring an aircraft unit to it original design for which it was designed is termed as
performance level after replacing/re-working parts to A. maintenance.
a given standard is termed as B. condition monitoring.
A. maintenance. C. airworthiness.
B. overhaul. D. on-condition.
C. top overhaul.
D. None of the above. 16. Hard time maintenance is carried out at
A. calendar time.
8. An item is judge damage-tolerant B. no. of cycles.
A. if structural element or assembly is judged C. no. of landing.
significant because of reduction in aircraft residual D. any one of the above is correct.
strength or loss of structural function.
B. if it can sustain damage & the remaining structure 17. In an approved maintenance process, pilot report
can withstand reasonable load or excessive structural is computed as
deformation when the damage is detected. A. rate per 1000 hrs of operation/per 100 departures.
C. a and b are correct. B. rate per 100 hrs of operation/per 100 departures.
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C. rater per 1000 hrs of operation/per 500 departures. 26. The average fuel and oil consumption of engine
D. any one of the above is correct. will be recorded
A. after post overhaul test of the engine.
18. S.S.I.D contains B. after the partial/top overhaul or repair of the engine
A. significant structural item, method of inspection followed by a test run/test flight, as applicable.
and required corrective action. C. at periods approved as per the approved
B. supplemental structural inspection document. maintenance schedule.
C. approved programme to be included in a.c. manual. D. All the above are correct.
D. None of the above.
27. The daily upliftment of fuel and oil consumption
19. Every operator shall maintain a continuous record in aircraft fuel and oil register is signed by
of the engine parameter in a A. lincensed AME.
A. tabulated form. B. QCM.
B. graphical form. C. Dy QCM.
C. graphical form if feasible or tabulated form. D. any authorised person.
D. graphical & tabulated form.
28. The reliability of engines fitted to aircraft is
20. The engine parameters are recorded under measured in terms of
stabilized condition A. the number and nature of all in flight shut down in
A. during take off. relation to number of engine flight hours.
B. during landing. B. the number and nature of all flameouts in relation
C. during ground rein. to number of airframe flight hours.
D. during cruise level flying. C. the number and nature of all in-flight shut down in
relation to number of airframe hours.
21. The life record of all the engine acessories is D. the number and nature of all in flight shut down in
available in relation to propeller flight hours.
A. T.B.O charts.
B. J.L.B. 29. If the operator's reliability index is above the alert
C. Engine log book. value, he will
D. O/H procedure sheet. A. submit a corrective programme to the DGCA by
the 25th day of the month.
22. Every engine parameter has an alert value which B. submit a corrective programme to the DGCA by
is fixed by the 10th day of the month.
A. operator. C. submit a corrective programme to the RAO by the
B. DGCA. 25th day of the month.
C. RAO. D. submit a corrective programme to the RAO by the
D. operator in consultation with RAO. 10th day of the month.

23. Engine overhaul records are preserved for a period 30. Reliability index is
of A. the rate of total engine in-flight shut down per 100
A. one year. hours of engine operation on that particular type of
B. two years. airframe and engine combination.
C. five years. B. the rate of total engine in-flight shut down per 1000
D. ten years. hours of engine operation on that particular type of
airframe and engine combination.
24. Alert values are C. the rate of total engine in-flight shut down per 100
A. reference values only. hours of engine operation on that particular type of
B. accepting limits only. airframe.
C. both a and b are correct. D. the rate of total engine in-flight shut down per 100
D. None of the above. hours of engine operation on that particular type of
engine.
25. The average fuel and oil consumption of engine
will be recorded 31. Reliability monitoring unit for its functioning will
A. in the engine log log book. gather information from
B. in the aircraft log book. A. un-schedule maintenance & schedule maintenance.
C. by an AME. B. un-schedule removals.
D. both a and b are correct. C. sampling inspection.
D. All the above are correct.

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32. Alert value is numerically equal to A. category 'B'.
A. 'Mean value' plus "standard deviation". B. category 'C'.
B. 'Mean value' plus "two standard deviation". C. category 'D'.
C. 'Mean value' plus "mode value". D. category 'E'.
D. 'Mode value' plus "two standard deviation".
42. A firm approved in carrying out FTD of Avionics
33. The requirements to CAR are applicable to all sets is approved in
A. schedule airlines. A. category 'A'.
B. private airlines. B. category 'E'.
C. air taxi operator. C. category 'D'.
D. All are correct. D. category 'C'.

34. Alert notice is issued by 43. A firm approved in carrying out non-destructure
A. the DGCA. test of aircraft approved
B. the RAO. A. category 'A'.
C. the QCM. B. category 'B'.
D. the RMU. C. category 'D'.
D. category 'E'.
35. A person of issue of ATPL shall have
A. 1500 flight hours with 500 hours as PIC. 44. An organisation approved in carrying out
B. 2000 flight hours with 500 hours as PIC. propeller overhaul is approved in
C. 1500 flight hours with 1000 hours as PIC. A. category 'C'.
D. 3000 flight hours with 1000 hours as PIC. B. category 'B'.
C. category 'D'.
36. Validity of ATPL of pilot below 25 years of age is D. category 'E'.
A. 06 months.
B. 12 months. 45. Firms approvedin category 'E'
C. 18 months. A. can carry out maintenance of aircraft.
D. 24 months. B. can carry out manufacture of aircraft.
C. can carry out training of aircraft personel.
37. Alert Notice will be issued by the R.M.U. D. can carry out distribution of fuels.
A. to all concerned persons of the organisation.
B. in duplicate to the RAO. 46. A firm carrying out chemical analysis physical test
C. in duplicate to the RAO on 25th of every month. and metallurgical tests is approved in
D. Both a and c are correct. A. category 'E'.
B. category 'D'.
38. Organisation approved for manufacture of aircraft C. category "E & D'.
is approved in D. All these are correct.
A. category 'A'.
B. category 'C'. 47. One copy of all documents used in the system of
C. category 'B'. quality control in respect of activities performed
D. None of the above. including all incoming certification is preserved for a
minimum period of
39. A firm doing processing of aircraft components by A. one year.
electroplating, anodic treatment, metal spraying, heat B. two years.
treatment, etc. is approved in C. five years.
A. category 'A'. D. ten years.
B. category 'B'.
C. category 'D'. 48. Release and rejection notes are preserved for a
D. category 'F'. period of
A. six months.
40. A firm approved in category 'A' B. one year.
A. carries out maintenance of aircraft. C. two years.
B. carries out manufacture of aircraft. D. five years.
C. carries out storage & distribution. 49. Release notes are distributed as follows
D. carries out manufacture storage & distribution. A. 1st copy to consignee, 2nd copy to organisation
records.
41. A firm approved in carrying out C of A aircraft is B. 1st copy to organisation records, 2nd copy to
approved in consignee.
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C. 1st copy to supplier, 2nd copy to RAO. A. an organisation engaged in the manufacture of
D. 1st copy to RAO, 2nd copy to supplier. airframe, engine, aircraft components or items of
equipment to approved specifications and drawings.
50. First copy of 'Rejection note' is issued to B. an organisation engaged in the manufacture of
A. organisation records. aircraft.
B. supplier. C. an organisation engaged in the maintenance of
C. consignee. aircraft.
D. RAO. D. All the above are correct.

51. 'Release notes' is signed by 58. Type certificate means a certificate issued
A. a person approved by DGCA. A. to an organisation engaged in the manufacture of
B. a person approved by RAO. particular 'type of aircraft'.
C. a person named in terms of approval. B. to a particular type of aircraft or for a series of
D. Both a and c are correct. aircraft.
C. by RAO to signify the design of a type of aircraft,
52. Certificate of approval is cancelled by aircraft component or item of equipment.
A. DGCA. D. by DGCA to signify the design of a type of
B. RAO/DAI. aircraft, aircraft component or item of equipment.
C. Director of Airsafety.
D. Both b and c are correct. 59. An organisation engaged in manufacture of
aircraft component issues
53. To get type approval for an aircraft component A. certificate of maintenance.
equipment including instruments, one should submit B. certificate of airworthiness.
the following C. certificate of approval.
A. maintenance manual. D. certificate of manufacture.
B. detailed drawing.
C. type instruction & type service manual. 60. An organisation desiring approval in category 'B'
D. All of the above. for anodic oxidation will submit to DGCA
A. ten specimens of 8"x2"x16swg.
54. Which of the following statement is false? B. twelve specimens of 8"x2"x16swg.
A. in case any conponent or equipment fitted on C. ten specimens of 6"x2"x16swg.
aircraft is due for replacement earlier than the validity D. twelve specimens of 6"x2"x16swg.
of flight release certificate issued by AME, the FRC
automatically ceases to be valid the item or 61. 'Aircraft goods' means
component is not removed in a stipulated time. A. any part of the soundness and correct functioning
B. FRC is invalid if aircraft suffers any major damage. of which is essential to the continued airworthiness or
C. The validity of FRC is 12 hrs of operation of four safety of the aircraft.
days, whichever is earlier. B. aircraft components and items of equipment.
D. The pilot can certify pre-flight inspection schedule C. aircraft components or materials, including paints,
in respect of an aircraft engaged in non-schedule dopes, thinner, fuel lubricant and special petroleum
operation provided he is approved by DGCA. products intended in use in civil aircraft.
D. Both a & b are correct.
55. Approved maintenance organisation, maintaining
private aircraft may reflect the arrangement in their 62. Certificate of approval
A. Maintenance system manual. A. is a document issued by an approved organisation
B. Quality Control manual. and defines the scope of organisation.
C. Operation manual. B. is a document issued by an organisation to state its
D. Engineering Organisation manual. approval in category viz, 'A', 'B' etc.
C. is a document issued by DGCA to an approved
56. As per CAR series E part I, storing and organisation and giving the scope of approval.
distribution of previously certified aircraft goods by a D. Both a & b are correct.
firm is approved in
A. category 'C'. 63. A document accompanying the sale of aircraft
B. category 'D'. components, spares, materials and goods and
C. category 'A'. certifying that the same were obtained from an
D. category 'F'. approved source after manufacture /repair /overhaul is
called
57. Manufacturer means A. sale certificate.
B. release certificate.
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C. release note. B. RAO.
D. None of the above. C. DGCA in consultation with RAO.
D. Director Aeronautical Inspection.
64. Rejection note is a document
A. issued by DGCA to an approved organisation to 71. Maintenance System manual is approved by:
cover the return of aircraft component received under A. DGCA.
incoming certificate. B. DGCA in consultation with RAO.
B. issued by an approved organisation for purpose of C. Controller of Airworthiness.
advising the details of rejection of certified aircraft D. RAO in consultation with DGCA.
goods which fail to meet applicable requirements.
C. issued by RAO to cover the return of any aircraft 72. The manner of preparing inspection schedule and
component received under incoming release note. assigning periodicity wherever applicable in respect
D. Both a & c are correct. of periodic maintenance of aircraft component is
contained in
65. All AME's should be medically checked up by at A. Engineering Organisation manual.
least MBBS doctor once B. Q.C. manual.
A. in a year. C. M.S. manual.
B. in two years. D. None of the above.
C. in six years. 73. Procedure for release of aircraft by 'maintenance'
D. in five years. to 'operation' is contained in
A. Q.C.manual.
66. An organisation seeking approval in any of the B. M.S. manual.
categories A to G should C. Engineering Organisation manual.
A. apply to RAO in duplicate. D. Both a and b are correct.
B. apply to DGCA in duplicate.
C. apply to DGCA in duplicate along with the 74. As per rule 52 of IAR minimum mandatory
enclosures. instruments and equipments required for having single
D. apply to RAO in duplicate along with the engine are
enclosures. A. altimeter, ASI, RPM indicator.
B. altimetr, ASI, watch.
67. An organisation seeking approval will normally C. altimeter, ASI, fire extinguisher.
submit D. altimeter, ASI.
A. two different types of manual.
B. three different types of manual. 75. Installation of FDR is a must for
C. three different types of manual in three sets. issue/renewal/validity of C of A on
D. None of the above. A. all turbine engined aircraft.
B. all aircraft above 15000 kg.
68. Three different manuals required for approval of C. all turbine engined aircraft with AUW of 5700 kg
an organisation are and above.
A. Q.C. manual, M S Manual, Structural Repair D. all turbine engined aircraft with AUW of 15000 kg
manual. and above.
B. Q.C. manual, Structural Repair manual, Engine
Overhaul manual. 76. A sensitive altimeter and electrical power failure
C. Q.C. manual, Engine Overhaul manual M S indicator is a must on aircraft
manual. A. with AUW above 15000 kg and flying in IFR.
D. Q.C. manual, M S manual, Engineering B. manufactured after 30th June 1978.
Organisation manual. C. intended to cruising above 30000 feet.
D. on international flight over international waters.
69. Engineering Organisation manual is
A. approved by DGCA. 77. The installation of CVR is mandatory on all
B. approved by RAO. Indian registered aircraft with
C. organisational set-up (organisation tree) of the firm A. piston engines having AUW below 5700 kg.
with particular reference to the duties and B. turbine engine having AUW of 5700 kg or above.
responsibilities of the various major units of C. as in (b) having AUW of 15000 kg or above.
engineering facility like production, quality control D. None is correct.
D. approved by operator.
78. Certification of AME 'R' for flight release on
70. Quality Control manual is approved by private aircraft may not necessary if ground facilities
A. DGCA. are not available the certification may be deferred to
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A. inspection associated with next flight certification. 87. An AME desirous of an extension in category 'A'
B. next 100 hours schedule. (HA) on an aircraft of similar construction will have
C. align with any schedule within 50 hours. to show on additional experience of
D. Any one of the above. A. 12 months with 3 months recent experience.
B. 24 months with 6 months recent experience.
79. Mechanical stream means the trades of C. 6 months with 3 months recent experience.
A. airframe and engines. D. 6 months.
B. machine and engines.
C. instruments and autopilots. 88. An applicant applying for licence on helicopter of
D. None is correct. AUW below 3000 kg will have to show a total
aeronautical experience of four years both on airframe
80. Avionic stream means the trades of and engine simultaneously out of which
A. radido communication and navigation system. A. 12 months must be in type of helicopter applied
B. electrical and instruments system. with 3 month recent experience.
C. autopilots and radar systems. B. 12 months must be in type of helicopter applied
D. All are correct. with 6 month recent experience.
C. 24 months must be in type of helicopter applied
81. Concurrent experience means with 12 month recent experience.
A. experience acquired simultaneously in two or more D. 24 months must be in type of helicopter applied
allied categories of the same stream. with 6 month recent experience.
B. experience acquired simultaneously in two or more 89. AME licence in category 'B' is given to helicopter
allied categories of different streams. A. with AUW below 5700 kg.
C. experience acquired simultaneously on engine and B. with AUW below 15000 kg.
instruments system. C. with AUW below 3000 kg.
D. Both b and c are correct. D. with AUW below 2000 kg.

82. Recent experience means experience acquired in 90. Person having valid AME licence covering
the preceding aircraft below 5700 kg and desirous of having an
A. 24 months. extension of glider will have to show a recent
B. 12 months. experience of
C. 6 months. A. 12 months on particular type of glider.
D. 3 months. B. 6 months on particular type of glider.
C. 3 months on particular type of glider.
83. AME licence in category 'A' is equivalent to D. 1 month on particular type of glider.
A. ICAO type I licence.
B. ICAO type II licence. 91. AME licence is category 'D' is issued for all piston
C. ICAO type III lincece. engines
D. ICAO type IV licence. A. below 500 BHP.
B. below 450 BHP.
84. AME licence in category 'D' is equivalent to C. below 300 BHP.
A. ICAO type I licence. D. below 250 BHP.
B. ICAO type II licence.
C. ICAO type III licence. 92. For an extension on turbine engine in category 'C'
D. ICAO type IV licence. the candidate should have
A. 12 months experience on type on which 6 months
85. Paper IV of AME licence exam is related to should be recent experience.
specific type of B. 12 months experience on type on which 3 months
A. aircraft. should be recent experience.
B. engine. C. 24 months experience on type on which 12 months
C. electrical equipment. should be recent experience.
D. All are correct. D. 24 months experience on type on which 6 months
should be recent experience.
86. An AME desirous of an extension in category 'A'
(LA) on aircraft of similar construction will have to 93. For issue of licence in category 'V' the candidate
show an additional experience of must possess
A. three months. A. a valid RTR (Aero) licence issued by Ministry of
B. six months. Communications at the time of oral-cum-practical
C. twelve months. test.
D. None is correct. B. a licence in category E,I and R.
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C. BAMEC in category ES, IS, RN and have B. as a statutory requirement, non-compliance of
undergone an approved training course on integrated which is a violation.
avionics system. C. to meet the technological developments and
D. All are correct. changes in maintenance concept on sophisticated new
generation aircraft.
94. Licence in category 'X' is issued for D. All above are correct.
A. overhaul of V.P. propeller.
B. overhaul of radio equipment. 101. The purpose of itnroduction of CAR series C is
C. overhaul of electrical system installed on light A. to stipulate the requirement of recording, reporting,
aircraft. investigation, rectification and analysis of defect.
D. Both a and b are correct. B. to raise in general the safety consciousness of the
operator quality control organisation.
95. An applicant may be allowed to appear for paper C. to indicate an analytical approach to reliability
I, II and III of AME licence examination after he/she monitoring during maintenance to insure safety of
has acquired at least operation and timely preventive maintenance
A. 2 years of aeronautical engineering experience. measures.
B. 3 years of aeronautical engineering experience. D. to introduce a procedure by which operator
C. 3 years of aeronautical engineering experience in maintenance standard can be monitored from a
relevant category. distance.
D. 2 years of aeronautical engineering experience in
relevant category. 102. All major defects experienced by an organisation
engaged in maintenance/major maintenance
96. The licence in category R pertaining to heavy A. should only be reported to DGCA in the manner
aircraft will be endorsed as specified in the CAR.
A. valid for communication/navigation/radar system B. may also be reported to the manufacturer of the
installed on the under mentioned aircraft. aircraft / aircraft componentsw for seeking advice to
B. HF, VHF, ADF, VOR, ILS, VLF/Omega, DME prevent recurrence of defects.
weather radar etc. on particular type of aircraft. C. It is necessary for an operator to apprise the
C. 'valid for heavy aircraft'. manufacturer of major defects to undertake
D. Both a and b are correct. continuous assessment of structural integrity.
D. Both b & c are correct.
97. Airborne communication system includes
A. VHF, HF, CVR, FDR, audio equipment. 103. Reliability programme followed by the quality
B. VHF, HF, VLF/omega ADF, audio equipment. control organisation of a schedule operator is aimed at
C. VHF, HF, CVR, audio equipment. A. identifying potential problems.
D. VHF, HF, VOR, ILS audio equipment. B. optium utilisation of aircraft.
C. achieving operational economy.
98. Airborne navigation system includes D. keeping in force with present day technology.
A. ADF, VOR, ILS, VLF/OMEGA and CW hyperblic
equipment. 104. An "item of equipment" means
B. ADF, VHF, HF, FDR, VLF/omega and CW A. functionally significant item on aircraft.
hyperbolic equipment. B. an essential unit on aircraft for safety of aircraft or
C. WX Radar, DME, Radio altimeter, ATC its components.
transponder. C. it is a self contained unit.
D. WX Radar, VOR/DME, ILS, Radio altimeter, ATC D. a combination of all.
transponder.
105. The content/scope/frequency of preventive
99. Airborne radar system includes maintenance can be revised
A. ADF, WX Radar, VOR/ILS, ATC transponder. A. only when maker so desires.
B. ADF, VOR, Radar, VOR/ILS ATC transponder B. only when DGCA so desires.
HF. C. only when justification based on operator's
C. WX Radar, DME, Radio Altimeter, ATC experience is acceptable to DGCA.
transponder. D. only after incorporation of a major modification.
D. WX Radar, DME, ATC transponder.
106. A critical I.F.S.D means
100. CAR are issued by DGCA A. engine failure in air beyond pilot's control.
A. to amplify any specific aircraft rule for the B. any IFSD associated with training flights/test
understanding of the operator. flights.

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C. a "shut down" affected by pilot on observing 113. In determining the proven 'service life' of an
abnormal indication. aircraft or any of its component might be the factor
D. Both b & c are correct. that will be kept in view will be the
A. area of operation, manufacturer recommendation
107. According to CAR series D part II "condition and applicant's own service experience on similar type
monitoring" component means of components.
A. that contains those units and system which may be B. number of landings effecting on flight sector I.e.
operating for a limited period. shorthaul and longhaul operation.
B. either approved by DGCA or the QCM of the C. other operator service experience of similar
organisation. equipment.
C. that contains those units and system which may be D. All are correct.
inoperative in service for a limited period without
affecting the safety and airworthiness of the aircraft. 114. The periodical inspection schedules are prepared
D. a configuration deviation list (CDL) in respect of by the QCM of the firm and is submitted for approval.
transport category aircraft. This is not applicable in case of
A. non-schedule operators.
108. In the event of any damage caused to the aircraft B. private operators.
while taxying by an authorised individual it should be C. gliding clubs.
promptly intimated to D. schedule operators.
A. owner/operator of the aircraft.
B. International Airport authority of India. 115. The application form for change of ownership of
C. concerned regional/sub regional inspection office. aircraft is
D. Both a & c are correct. A. CA 23.
B. CA 28.
109. Aircraft certificated in aerobatic category may be C. CA 27.
used for D. CA 98.
A. research or experimental purpose.
B. racing aircraft. 116. With effect from 1st Jan 80 passenger safety
C. carrying passengers/mails/goods or for imparting information briefing card should be provided at every
training. passenger seat by
D. normal category after obtaining permission from A. schedule operator.
DGCA. B. non-schedule operator.
C. state aircraft.
110. While operating an agricultural aircraft the D. All the above are correct.
minimum requirement for preflight inspection
A. must be carried before each flight. 117. Deficiency list is to be approved by DGCA. This
B. may be carried out once before the first flight of is applicable to
the day unless the aircraft is suspected to have A. schedule operator.
suffered from any defect or damage. B. non-schedule operator.
C. need not be carried out if the flight release C. private operator.
certificate is valid. D. Both a & b are correct.
D. None of the above is correcty.
118. Alert value means maximum deviation from the
111. If the defects observed in the aircraft other than normal operating limit but within the allowable
public transport aircraft at places other than normal operating range which will not cause malfunction to
base they may be recorded in the an extent where aircraft safety is in jeopardy. This is
A. defect register which must be carried on board. applicable to
B. loose sheet for ultimate transferring to defect A. all aircraft engines.
register kept at normal base. B. piston engines only.
C. JLB for ultimate transferring to defect register. C. turbine engines only.
D. All the above are correct. D. small aircraft engine operator only.

112. As per CAR series 'C' part I the records 119. The formal for maintenance of records of fuel
associated with the defects and their rectification shall and oil uplift and consumption in respect of light
be preserved for a period of aircraft engine is given in
A. one year. A. advisory circular no. 4 of 1976.
B. six months. B. CAR series D part V.
C. two years. C. not given anywhere. The operator has to make for
D. Not required to be preserved. himself and get it approved by DGCA.
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D. AME notice no. 1 of 1970. 127. The maintenance schedule of an aircraft
organisation is approved by the
120. The grant of approval to an organisation in any A. Chief Aircraft Engineer of the organisation.
category will depend upon B. Quality Control Manager of only Indian Airlines
A. the request of the applicant. and Air India.
B. capability/capacity to perform the work. C. Controller or Director of Airworthiness of the
C. qualification of QCM/Dy QCM and other technical region.
staff. D. Only b & c are correct.
D. All the above are correct.
128. The dailyreview board meeting is obligatory on
121. How you will know the mandatory modification the part of schedule operator
status of your aircraft? A. to examine the nature of defect experience on the
A. From the pink page of relevant log book. previous day.
B. From the green page of log book. B. to satisfy if rectification action are adequate.
C. From the white page of log book. C. to decide action on defects of repetitive nature.
D. From the manufacturer. D. to discuss analysis and decide action on defects in
co-operation with AID.
122. All aircraft registered in India must have
A. fire extinguisher and defuelling means. 129. If during an investigation the cause of the defects
B. fire extinguisher and first aid Kit, contents of is attributed to wilful negligence of the aircraft
which, has been certified by an AME. maintenance engineer
C. play-card indicating up-to what estent smoking is A. the person concerned is suspended by the QCM
allowed. immediately.
D. Both b & c are correct. B. the offender is issued show-cause notice.
C. the Quality Control Manager should be taken in
123. As per IAR on aircraft involved in an accident consultation with the DGCA to avoid duplication of
which has major defect penal action.
A. aircraft engine caught fire during refuelling on the D. action by QCM should not be taken in consultation
departure day. with the DGCA to avoid duplication of penal action.
B. a passenger is badly injured during time of take off.
C. under-carriage accidentally retracts during a major 130. All major defects experienced by an organisation
inspection. during maintenance should be reported to DGCA
D. All the above are correct. A. in the manner specified in CAR.
B. should also be reported to the manufacturer of the
124. Mark the correct statement aircraft component for seeking advise on prevention
A. MEL does not include flying controls, complete of recurrence of similar defects.
engine and landing gears. C. or it is necessary for an operator to apprise the
B. MEL may not include items like galley equipment manufacturer of only structural defects.
entertainment systems, passengers, convenience D. Both a & b are correct.
equipment which do not effect the airworthiness of
the aircraft. 131. For effective monitoring of aircraft and engine
C. not withstanding the MEL, AME need not to system for functioning in flight, the crew member
certify the aircraft for flight release or a pilot need not should record all necessary parameter readings
to accept the aircraft for flight if it is feared that it is A. once during each sector of flight.
unsafe to do so. B. only under stabilised cruise condition.
D. All are correct. C. during climbing phase soon after take off.
D. only under emergency condition of flight.
125. Scope of approval of an organisation depends on
A. the capacity of the firm to undertake the job. 132. On public transport aircraft the defects reported
B. the equipment available and technical literature. by the pilot are recorded in
C. suitable & QCM & Dy QCM. A. jib column II.
D. All the above are correct. B. flight report book and the aircraft can only be
released for further flight when duly rectified by the
126. Only one of the following need not have the AME.
approval of the maintenance organisation C. flight report book only when the nature of the
A. private owner of aircraft. defect is major.
B. non-schedule operator. D. defect register maintained by the Quality Control
C. schedule operator. Manager to ensure corrective action.
D. aircraft owned by state govts.
9
133. Analytical study of in-flight instrument reading D. any one of the above.
of engine parameters (EGT/EPR/TAS/N1/N2) is
intended to 141. The purpose behind recording of defects and
A. evaluate alert values. inflight instrument reading is to achieve
B. detect in-service deterioration. A. smooth functioning of the reliability and statistical
C. establish aerodynamic cleanliness. quality control system.
D. determine reliability index. B. effective monitoring.
C. timely corrective action.
134. An alert notice in the event of system reliability D. All of the above.
exceeding alert value is issued by
A. manufacturer. 142. When an aircraft registered outside India is in
B. the DGCA. Indian territory sustains major damage or a major
C. the RMU. defect is found
D. the QCM. A. DGCA may prohibit the aircraft from flying.
B. DGCA should not prohibit the aircraft from flying
135. Reliability programme followed by the quality without concurrence of the appropriate authority of
control organisation of a schedule operator is aimed at the country of registration of the aircraft.
A. optimum utilisation of aircraft. C. instead of prohibiting the aircraft from flying
B. achieving operational economy. DGCA informs the fact to the country of registration
C. identifying potential areas. and allows the aircraft to fly.
D. keeping in pace with present day technology. D. None of the above is correct.

136. Aircraft noise level requirements 143. Critical shut-down are those
A. are applicable to supersonic aircraft. A. which cause aircraft structural damage, generate
B. relate to restriction only in the vicinity of airports. projection or fires adversely effecting the
C. may be exempted by DGCA for any aircraft or controllability of aircraft.
class of aircrafts. B. shut down for test or training.
D. should have been complied with an aircraft before C. those which cannot be put down or feathered.
21.12.85. D. Both a and c are correct.

137. The circumstances under which an aircraft may 144. A current list of all in-flight shut down rate,
be released with GPWS as unserviceable will be spelt engine hours flown and reliability index is submitted
out in in a consolidated manner to the RAO
A. M E L. A. by the 15th of each month.
B. C D L. B. by the end of each month.
C. Flight Manual. C. by the tenth of each month.
D. M S manual. D. None of the above.

138. Maintenance procedure for GPWS will be 145. When a new issue of any CAR parts becomes
included in effective
A. Quality Control Manual. A. the earlier parts stand cancelled.
B. Maintenance System Manual. B. the earlier issued stands cancelled.
C. Flight Manual. C. the earlier issue of that particular CAR part stands
D. appropriate maintenance schedule. cancelled.
D. the earlier series stand cancelled.
139. The contents of scope and frequency of
preventive maintenance can be revised 146. At present one copy of each CAR is supplied free
A. only when makers so desire. to
B. only when DGCA so desires. A. all AME's.
C. only when justification based on operator's B. all pilots.
experience is acceptable to DGCA. C. all owners/operators of the aircraft.
D. only after the incorporation of a major D. All the above.
modifications.
147. Reflection of the requirements of the CAR in the
140. A major defect investigation quality control-cum-maintenance system manual is
A. should not be done in haste. the responsibility of the
B. should be done with speed for timely A. operator/owner.
preventive/curative action. B. head of the organisation.
C. to pin-point the cause is more important. C. AME.
10
D. QCM. B. steady parking light and such switches may be
operated.
148. When minor changes are made to a CAR part C. no special precautions are necessary for ground
A. a new issue is issued. power supply.
B. a new part is issued. D. the ground power unit, tractor and similar
C. an amendment is issued. equipment shall be located outside the defined
D. new series are issued. "danger zone".

149. Whenever a new issue of a CAR part is issued it 156. The form used for applications for approcal of
is given firm in any of the categories mentioned in the CAR
A. an issue number. series E part I is
B. a part no. A. CA 180.
C. issue number along with the date of issue. B. CA 182.
D. issue number along with the date of issue & date of C. CA 28.
effectively. D. CA 23.

150. The certification to the effect that any servicing, 157. Mark the correct statement
modification, repair, inspection have been carried out A. A normal category aircraft can be used for only
in accordance with airworthiness requirements of the manoeuvre which is suitable for normal category.
DGCA is called B. Aerial work aircraft can be used for private and
A. certificate of maintenance. agricultural spraying.
B. certificate of flight release. C. Aerobatic category can be used for all categories.
C. certificate of maintenance review. D. None of the above.
D. release note.
158. On an India registered aircraft a mandatory
151. Public transport aircraft can modification is to be carried in a non-contracting
A. undertake aircraft work. state. The following can carry the modification:
B. also be a private aircraft. A. An approved person of the non-contracting state.
C. carry passengers but not cargo. B. A person having qualification recognised by
D. carry persons or cargo for renumeration. DGCA.
C. An approved person of contracting state.
152. Flight time as per aircraft rules means D. All of the above.
A. the moment aircraft first moves under its own
power for taking off until it comes to rest at the end of 159. The following documents have to be carried by
the flight. all aircraft on all flights:
B. synonymous to the term "block to block". A. C of A, C of R cockpit and emergency check-list.
C. synonymous to term "chock to chock". B. FRC, JLB.
D. All the above are correct. C. Route guide.
D. Both a & b are correct.
153. Contracting state as per aircraft rules means any
state 160. For taxying an aircraft, a person having AME cat
A. that has signed a bilateral agreement with another 'C' licence should possess the following:
state. A. RT licence if required.
B. contracted for a particular condition for carrying B. Qualified to use radio communications.
passengers. C. A person should know layout of aerodrome.
C. which is for the time-being a party to the D. a, b & care correct.
convention of the ICAO.
D. which is for the time-being a party to the IATA. 161. To get a type approval for an aircraft component
equipment including instruments should contain the
154. Flight manual is a manual following:
A. associated with the C of A. A. Maintenance manual.
B. associated with the C of R. B. Detailed drawings.
C. associated with the FRC. C. Types instructions and typed service manual.
D. which need not be carried on board. D. All the above.

155. During refuelling of aircraft 162. Disposable load is


A. aircraft radio and electrical, radar switches may A. Fuel that can be thrown out of the aircraft during
remain 'ON'. emergency conditions.
B. All persons and their belongings.
11
C. Empty load and variable load. B. C of R.
D. Fuel and oil which is unusable. C. type certificate.
D. log book.
163. Engine power check on ground is done on
helicopter by 170. Certificate of flight release shall be preserved for
A. an AME having vast experience. a period of
B. an AME having licence on that engine. A. one year from the date of issue.
C. flight crew. B. six months from the date of issue.
D. All the above. C. six months from the date of expiry.
D. None of the above is correct.
164. An aicraft which is flying in the vicinity of an
aerodrome and coming back without landing at any 171. An aircraft for agricultural operation is required
other place, should carry the following document (I) C to be imported into India. The minimum standard of
of A (II) C of R (III) Cockpit & Emergency check-list manufacture for issue of Indian C of A shall be
(IV) FRC (V) MEL (VI) Route Guide (VII) Pilot A. as laid down in CAA -B CAR secs 'K' & 'D'.
Crew Licences (VIII) Flight Manual if applicable. B. as laid down in FAA -FAR pts 23 & 25.
A. 1,2,3,4. C. as laid down by australian govt. for agricultural
B. 2,6,7,3. aircraft.
C. 4,5,8,3. D. Both (a) & (b) are correct.
D. All the above.
172. The two preventive maintenance processes are
165. The installation of flight data recorder is known as
mandatory on all Indian registered aircraft having A. hard time & condition monitoring.
A. turbine engines & permissible AUW of 5700 kg or B. hard time & conditioning.
above. C. on-condition & condition monitoring.
B. piston engine and permissible AUW of 5700 kg or D. on-condition & hard time.
above.
C. any type of engine and permissible AUW 5700 kg 173. The minimum conditions to be complied with
or above. under aircraft rules, before any aircraft is allowed to
D. as in (a) but permissible AUW of 15000 kg or be flown are:
above. A. the aircraft has been maintained as per stipulated
maintenance schedules by the DGCA.
166. A Minimum Equipment List (MEL) is a B. Maintenance has been carried out by appropriately
document licensed/authorised/approved person.
A. which contains those units and systems which may C. Maintenance carried out has been certified by
remain inoperative in service for a limited period. appropriately licensed/authorised/approved person in
B. approved by the DGCA. the specified period.
C. which contains those units and systems which may D. Aqll are correct.
be inoperative in service for a limited period without
effecting safety and airworthiness of the airc. 174. One of the following conditions does not result
D. Both (b) & (c) are correct. in automatic suspension of C of A
A. Whenever an aircraft develops a defect which
167. The quanitity of unusable fuel is required to be effects primary structure.
determined if not available in the flight manual before B. Whenever an aircraft is involved in forced landing.
A. C of A renewal. C. Approved inspection schedules are not completed
B. type certifcation of aircraft. when due.
C. complete overhaul of the aircraft. D. Whenever "lifted" components are not removed at
D. no. (a) above, as specified in operation manual. their stipulated T.B.S.'s.

168. Approved maintenance organisation maintaining 175. Certification of airworthiness of aircraft shows
private aircraft may reflect this arrangement in their that it is valid for normal category sub-division
A. maintenance system manual. "Private Aircraft". This aircraft can be used for
B. quality control manual. A. experimental purposes.
C. operation manual. B. aerial works.
D. engineering organisation manual. C. aerobatic purposes.
D. flying executives to their factory without any
169. For information regarding name and address of remuneration.
the owner of the aircraft the document referred to is
A. C of A.
12
176. A public transport aircraft is categorised in 184. Deficiency list includes
"Normal category" sub-division a) passenger. Can it A. wings, flight controls, landing gears.
execute any steep turns? B. complete Engine & its accessories.
A. No. C. galley equpment, entertainment system.
B. Yes. D. none of the above.
C. Limited bank if specified in flight manual.
D. Angle of bank should not exceed 60 degree due to 185. An AME after releasing the aircraft after
increase in G-forces. invoking MEL
A. shall inform the pilot of the aircraft of the same.
177. A manual associated with C of A containing B. shall inform the RAO of the same.
limitation within which the aircraft is considered to be C. shall make an entry in the technical log and placard
airworthy is called the inoperative system.
A. operating manual. D. Both (a) & (c) are correct.
B. Q C manual.
C. maintenance system manual. 186. Deficiency list (MEL) is applicable
D. flight manual. A. to transit station.
B. to terminal station.
178. 'cockpit check-list' and 'Emergency check-list' C. only to main base station.
are applicable as per rules on which of the following D. All the above.
category/classification of aircraft.
A. For all aircraft engaged in public transport. 187. When an aircraft is flying on MEL
B. For state aircraft. A. the operator has to inform the RAO in writing
C. For aircraft engaged in non-schedule operation within 24 hours.
including training aircraft. B. the operator has to inform the RAO and DGCA in
D. All aircraft registered in India. writing within 24 hours.
C. the operator has to inform the RAO in writing
179. MEL is applicable to aircraft operated by: within 24 hours if aircraft is released under the
A. private operator. purview of MEL from the parent base.
B. non-schedule operator. D. None of the above.
C. schedule & non-schedule operator.
D. by all aircraft having C of A. 188. The MEL pre-amble contains
A. procedure for release of aircraft with items of
180. MEL allows the aircraft to equipment unserviceable as per MEL.
A. keep on flying for unlimited period. B. when and where the defects/items will be
B. keep on flying for limited period. rectified/replaced.
C. fly from transit station to base station where C. defining the main base and transit stations.
maintenance facilities exist. D. (a), (b) & (c) are correct.
D. All the above are correct.
189. Cockpit and Emergency check-list are prepared
181. Invoking MEL for a period longer than under the purview of aircraft rule
absolutely necessary will result in A. 60 A.
A. increased crew load and increased airworthiness. B. 62 B.
B. increased crew load and decreased airworthiness. C. 7 B.
C. decreased crew load and increased airworthiness. D. 70 B.
D. decreased crew load and decreased airworthiness.
190. Cockpit check-list means
182. MMEL stands for A. a list containing items of inspections/actions to be
A. Main Minimum Equipment List. performed by the flight crew after the flight.
B. Manufacture Minimum Equipment List. B. a list containing items of inspections/actions to be
C. Master Minimum Equipment List. performed by the flight crew after and before the days
D. Mandatory Minimum Equipmet List. of flight.
C. a list containing items of inspections/actions to be
183. MEL is framed on performed by the flight crew in the order as listed and
A. operator experience. in the circumstances as indicated for ensuring safe
B. the basis of MMEL. operation of aircraft.
C. approval by DGCA. D. a list containing items of inspections/actions to be
D. All the above. performed by the flight crew & ground crew in the
order as listed and in the circumstances as indicated
for ensuring safe operation of a aircraft.
13
191. A list containing items of action to be performed B. a cross reference to the incoming certification
by the flight crew in the order as listed, whenever document.
emergent situations develop in flight on account of C. details from the outgoing certification of any
failures/malfunction of aircraft systems/components deviation from the approved design document.
and requiring extra alertness on the part of flight crew D. All the above are correct.
is
A. safety list. 198. 'Chief Instructor' is a mandatory requirement for
B. emergency list. organisation approved in
C. emergency check list. A. category 'A'.
D. Cockpit check-list. B. category'C'.
C. category 'F'.
192. A list containing items of inspections/action to be D. category 'G'.
performed by the flight crew in the order as listed and
in the circumstances as indicated for ensuring safe 199. The 'Pass marks' in approved training school
operation of aircraft is shall not be less than
A. check-list. A. 80%.
B. cockpit check-list. B. 70%.
C. emergency check-list. C. 60%.
D. safety list. D. 90%.

193. Bonded store is a store where 200. In case of re-examination of failed candidate in
A. airworthy and serviceable material are awaiting approved training school the passing mark shall not be
DGCA approval. less than
B. airworthy and serviceable material are awaiting A. 80%.
evidence of having been received from approved B. 90%.
sources. C. 70%.
C. material bear evidence of having been received D. 60%.
from approved sources.
D. airworthy and serviceable materials are awaiting 201. The duration of training period for specialised
manufacturer approval. course for specific aircraft/engines shall be decided by
A. DGCA.
194. Quarantine store is a store where B. RAO.
A. airtworthy and serviceable materials are awaiting C. manufacturer of aircraft/engines.
DGCA approval. D. organisation.
B. airworthy and serviceable material are awaiting
evidence of having been received from approved 202. In an organisation approved in category 'G'
sources. during any course the practical training shall not be
C. material bear evidence of having been received normally
from approved sources. A. less than 50% of total training time.
D. airworthy and serviceable materials are awaiting B. less than 40% of total training time.
manufacturer approval. C. more than 50% of total training time.
D. more than 40% of total training time.
195. Separate stores are maintained for
A. inflammable goods. 203. A candidate appearing for examination in any
B. bearings. approved course should have at least
C. propellers. A. 60% attendance.
D. hardwares. B. 70% attendance.
C. 80% attendance.
196. Incoming release notes or other equipvalent D. 90% attendance.
documents shall be preserved for
A. two years. 204. The Q.C.M. & Dy Q.C. M. are approved by the
B. five years. A. Chief Engineer of an airline operator.
C. ten years. B. controller of Airworthiness.
D. till the life of covered item. C. Managing Director of an organisation.
D. DGCA.
197. Release note contains
A. a cross reference to the outgoing certification 205. The maintenance schedule of an aircraft
document. organisation are approved by the
A. Chief Aircraft Engineer of the organisation.
14
B. Q.C.M of only Indian Airlines & Air India. A. extend co-operation to unauthorised officers of
C. controller of Director of Airworthiness of the A.I.D.
region. B. extend co-operation to unauthorised officers of
D. Both b and c are correct. A.I.D. in supervising the engineering activities.
C. Both a & b are correct.
206. The component life list is a part of D. Both a& b are not correct.
A. Maintenance System manual & may be revised as
per maker's recommendation. 213. A.I.D. Officers monitor the airworthiness
B. Quality Control manual & may be revised as per standards stipulated by D.G.C.A.
maker's recommendation. A. through medium of spot checks.
C. Maintenance system manyual and may be revised B. through investigation of defects reported to them.
in concurrence of the DGCA. C. through the D.G.C.A.
D. Quality control manual, once approved by DGCA D. Both a & b are correct.
can be revised by the Quality Control Manager.
214. Technical officers of R A O may require
207. When any component or item is drawn from the owners/operators to submit their aircraft/aircraft
bonded stores by the AME, he should ensure that components for inspection.
there is a A. whenever they like.
A. proper release note available. B. when the operator / owner is ready.
B. certificate of maintenance release available. C. at a pre-determined stage to ensure compliance
C. certificate of safety available. with prescribed airworthiness standards.
D. consignment note available. D. All the above.

208. Every Inidian registered aircraft is required to 215. The main objective of the Airworthiness
possess authority is to ensure
A. certificate of Airworthiness. A. design levels of reliability.
B. current and valid certificate of airworthiness before B. operating safety of civil registered aircraft.
it is flown. C. promulgation and enforcement of highest
C. certificate of Airworthiness only for test flight. achievable standards of airworthiness.
D. None of the above. D. All are correct.

209. To ensure that the aircraft has a current and valid 216. An unintentional landing effected on account of
C of A is the responsibiloity of failure/malfunction of an aircraft component or a
A. D.G.C.A. system is
B. Regional Airworthiness Office. A. forced landing.
C. Manufactuere of the Aircraft. B. heavy landing.
D. Owner/Operator of the Aircraft. C. normal landing.
D. emergency landing.
210. The aircraft is mainteined in airworthy condition
by subjecting the aircraft & component to 217. The maintenance process requiring assembly
A. periodical inspections as approved by D.G.C.A. inspection of aircraft and aircraft components at fixed
B. replace "lifed" components at intervals approved period is
by the D.G.C.A. A. preventive maintenance.
C. carry out repairs/modifications as required by B. hard time maintenance.
D.G.C.A. C. on-condition maintenance.
D. All the above are correct. D. None.

211. It is the responsibility of the owner to 218. The maintenance process for locating and
A. see his pilots operate the aircraft as per operating resolving problem areas through analytical study of
limitations. failure or malfunction not affecting safety of aircraft
B. report all defects encountered in flight or during is called
routine maintenance to A.I.D. A. hard time maintenance.
C. record such defects as per procedure specified in B. on-condition maintenance.
C.A.R. series 'C'. C. condition monitoring.
D. a,b,c are correct. D. preventive maintenance.

212. Operator co-operation to unauthorised officers of 219. Accomplishment of repetitive (1) visual
A.I.D. inspection or (2) physical measurement or (3) in
situ/bench test, etc. to determine the continued
15
serviceability of aircraft and aircraft components D. None.
without having to dismantle them completely and
before such components reach a critical stage in their 227. Training aircraft operators would furnish the
operation is termed as information concerning major defect/ incident
A. hard time maintenance. /accident to D.G.C.A.
B. on-condition maintenance. A. every month.
C. condition monitoring. B. every six months.
D. preventive maintenance. C. every three months.
D. None.
220. Preventive maintenance is
A. on-condition. 228. If the A.I.D. observes adverse 'trends' in
B. hard line. performance of aircraft he
C. on-condition and hard time. A. suggests additional preventive maintenance.
D. condition-monitoring. B. proposes varying the frequency of existing
preventive maintenance.
221. Condition monitoring is C. suggests incorporation of modifications on
A. hard time maintenance. mandatory basis.
B. preventive maintenance. D. All are correct.
C. a & b is correct.
D. None of the above. 229. Despatch reliability is the percentage ratio
between
222. Preventive maintenance is A. number of services which were delayed for more
A. hard time. than 15 minutes on account of engineering defects per
B. work performed at pre-determined intervals to 1000 Hrs.
maintain an aircraft, aircraft component or aircraft B. number of services which were delayed for more
system in an airworthy condition. than 15 minutes on account of engineering defects per
C. on condition. number of scheduled service during the period.
D. a, b, c are correct. C. number of services which were despatched in time
per 1000 hrs.
223. Private operator shall furnish the information D. number of services which were despatched in time
concerning major defect /incident /accident to the per no. of scheduled service during the period.
D.G.C.A.
A. every month. 230. If there is no information concerning individual
B. every six months. major defect /incident /accident the operator
C. every nine months. A. does not have to send any information to R.A.O.
D. every twelve months. B. does not have to send any information to D.G.C.A.
C. has to send a "NIL' information.
224. Non-schedule operators shall furnish the D. All the above.
information concerning major defect /incident
/accident to the D.G.C.A. 231. CAR is issued under rule
A. every month. A. 133 A.
B. every three months. B. 133 B.
C. every six months. C. 133 C.
D. every nine months. D. 62 B.

225. Schedule operators would furnish the 232. Procedure for issuing of CAR including
information concerning major defect / incident/ amendments, if any, is covered in CAR
accident to the D.G.C.A. A. series A part I.
A. every month. B. series B part I.
B. every six months. C. series B part II.
C. every nine months. D. series A part II.
D. every year.
233. CAR series A part III refers to
226. Aerial work operators shall furnish the A. procedure for issue of CAR.
information concerning major defect /incident B. objective of AID.
/accident to D.G.C.A. C. targets of AID.
A. every month. D. Both b & c are correct.
B. every six months.
C. every three months. 234. Mark the correct statement
16
A. CAR is issued bearing different series D. All are correct.
identification serial as I, II, III etc.
B. CAR is issued bearing different parts such as 242. Duties not required for safe operation of the
A,B,C etc. aircraft includes company required calls made
C. CAR is issued bearing different series A. for ordering galley supplies.
identification alphabetical letter such as series A,B,C B. for confirming passenger's connections.
etc. C. for promoting airlines.
D. None of the above. D. All are correct.

235. A current list of all CAR with amendments, is 243. No pilot may carry out acrobatic man cover in an
also issued aircraft unless
A. at the beginning of each year. A. a crash helmet is worn.
B. at the end of each year. B. a headgear is worn.
C. in the middle of each year. C. pilots wearing spectacles must weare flying
D. Both a & b are correct. goggles over and above the spectacles.
D. All are correct.
236. When substantial changes are made to a CAR
part 244. Minimum fuel and oil requirements for public
A. a new issue is issued. transport aircraft is contained in
B. a new part is issued. A. CAR series F part II.
C. new series are issued. B. CAR series F part III.
D. new series and part are issued. C. CAR series O part II.
D. CAR series O part III.
237. All pilots before flying as PIC of multi engined
aircraft of licensed air transport service shall 245. PIC shall ensure that the aircraft carries sufficient
demonstrate to a check pilot let down procedure amount of fuel for the flight considering
applicable to the aerodrome in use, variation in speed A. adverse affects of weather.
during descent not to exceed B. availability of an alternate aerodrome.
A. 5 MPH above the stipulated speed. C. emergency that may be expected during the flight.
B. 5 MPH below the stipulated speed. D. All are correct.
C. 5 MPH above or below the stipulated speed.
D. 10 MPH above or below the stipulated speed. 246. The fuel and oil carried in the case of propeller
driven aircraft when alternate airport is not required
238. While recovering from unusual altitude during shall be at least the amount sufficient to allow the
pilot check loss in height shall not exceed aircraft
A. 500 feet. A. to fly to the aerodrome to which the flight is
B. 1000 feet. planned.
C. 1500 feet. B. as in (a) and thereafter for a period of 30 minutes.
D. 2000 feet. C. as in (a) and thereafter for a period of 45 minutes.
D. as in (a) and thereafter for a period of 60 minutes.
239. The PIC of every aircraft shall before
commencing any flight satisfy himself of the 247. The fuel carried in case of propeller driven
A. valid flight release in respect of the aircraft. aircraft (when alternate airport is required) shall be at
B. sufficient length of runway is available. least the amount sufficient to allow the aircraft
C. engines are developing correct power. A. to fly to the aerodrome to which the flight is
D. All are correct. planned hence to an alternate.
B. as in (a) and thereafter for a period of 30 minutes.
240. The responsibility of briefing the passengers of C. as in (a) and thereafter for a period of 45 minutes.
smoking limitation lies with D. as in (a) and thereafter for a period of 60 minutes.
A. PIC.
B. Co-pilot. 248. The fuel carried on turbo jet aircraft (when an
C. AME. alternate aerodrome is not required) shall be at least
D. QCM. the amount sufficient to allow the aircraft
A. to fly to the aerodrome to which the flight is
241. Critical phase of flight includes planned.
A. taxying. B. as in (a) & to fly for 30 minutes.
B. take off and landing. C. as in (a) & to fly for 45 minutes.
C. all flight operations conducted below 10000 feet D. as in (a) & to fly for 30 minutes at holding speed at
except cruise flight. 450 metres above the destination aerodrome.
17
249. The fuel on board a turbo jet aircraft when no 256. A helicopter with performance such that in case
suitable alternate aerodrome is available to fly to of power unit failure at any point in the flight profile a
which the flight is planned and there-after for a period forced landing must be performed is called
of A. performance class I helicopter.
A. 30 minutes at normal cruise consumption. B. performance class II helicopter.
B. 45 minutes at normal cruise consumption. C. performance class III helicopter.
C. 60 minutes at normal cruise consumption. D. performance class IV helicopter.
D. 120 minutes at normal cruise consumption.
257. All helicopters below 2000 kg AUW must be
250. In computing fuel and oil required for aircraft equipped with
operation one should consider A. an accurate time piece showing time in hour
A. meteorological forecast. minutes and seconds.
B. anticipated ATC routing and traffic delays. B. pilot may use his personal watch in lieu of (a).
C. one instruments approach at the destination C. as in (b) provide the watch is accurate and shows
aerodrome including one missed approach. time in hours, minutes and seconds.
D. All are correct. D. All are correct.

251. Minimum fuel required for helicopter to fly 258. Helicopter operating in IFR condition in addition
under VFR condition is to to instruments in VFR flying shall have
A. fly to first point of intended landing. A. slip indicator.
B. as in (a) thereafter for 15 minutes. B. position lights.
C. as in (a) thereafter for 20 minutes. C. landing lights.
D. as in (a) thereafter for 45 minutes. D. All are correct.

252. Minimum fuel required for helicopter to fly 259. Helicopter which is intended to land in IMC shall
under IFR condition is to be provided with radio equipment capable of
A. fly to first point of intended landing. receiving signals providing
B. fly to first point of intended landing and then to A. guidance to a point from which a visual landing
alternate. can be effected.
C. as in (b) thereafter for 20 minutes. B. guidance to a point from which instrument landing
D. as in (b) thereafter for 45 minutes. can be effected.
C. guidance to ATC transponder.
253. Minimum fuel required for operation of D. guidance to WX radar.
supersonic aircraft
A. is same as for turbo prop aircraft. 260. All helicopters intended to be flown over water
B. is same as for turbo jet aircraft. shall be fitted with a permanent or rapidly deployable
C. is same as for helicopter. means of floatation if distance from land corresponds
D. None is correct. to more than
A. 10 minutes at normal cruise speed.
254. A helicopter with such performance that in case B. 15 minutes at normal cruise speed.
of critical power unit failure it is able to land on the C. 30 minutes at normal cruise speed.
rejected take off aread or safely condinue the flight to D. 45 minutes at normal cruise speed.
an appropriate landing area, depending on the failure
occurred is called 261. Flight data recorders are 'must' for all helicopters
A. performance class I helicopter. A. with AUW of over 7000 kg.
B. performance class II helicopter. B. with AUW of over 5700 kg.
C. performance class III helicopter. C. with AUW of over 2700 kg.
D. performance class IV helicopter. D. with AUW of over 2000 kg.

255. A helicopter with such performance that, in case 262. CVR's are must for all helicopter
of critical power unit failure it is able to safely A. with AUW of over 7000 kg.
continue the flight, except when the failure occurs B. with AUW of over 5700 kg.
prior to a defined point after take off or after a defined C. with AUW of over 2700 kg.
point before landing, in which case a forced landing D. with AUW of over 2000 kg.
may be required is called
A. performance class I helicopter. 263. FDR used on helicopter shall be
B. performance class II helicopter. A. type IV FDR.
C. performance class III helicopter. B. type III FDR.
D. performance class IV helicopter. C. type II FDR.
18
D. type I FDR. 272. Civil twilight ends in the
A. evening when the centre of sun's disc is 6 degree
264. FDR used on helicopter shall be capable of below the horizon.
retaining the information recorded during at least B. morning when the centre of sun's disc is 6 degree
A. the last 25 hours of operation. below the horizon.
B. the last 10 hours of operation. C. evening at 6 P.M.
C. the last one hour of operation. D. morning at 6 A.M.
D. the last 30 minutes of operation.
273. The colour of marking of 'break in points' in
265. CVR used on helicopters shall be capable of aircraft shall be
retaining the information recorded during at least A. red.
A. the last 25 hours of operation. B. yellow.
B. the last 10 hours of operation. C. outlined in white to contrast with the background.
C. the last one hour of operation. D. All are correct.
D. the least 30 minutes of operation.
274. Installation of anti-collision light is applicable to
266. Operation of helicopter is contained in all aircraft issued with C of A for the first time after
A. CAR series F part I. A. 31-12-1970.
B. CAR series F part IV. B. 31-12-184.
C. CAR series O part I. C. 01-12-1970.
D. CAR series O part IV. D. 01-12-1984.

267. Aerodrome operating minima is the limits of 275. All aeroplanes on flights over water shall be
usability of an aerodrome for either take-off or provided with one approved life jacket for each
landing usually expressed in times of person on board when flown beyond
A. MDA/G. A. 20 nautical miles away from land.
B. DA/H. B. 50 nautical miles away from land.
C. MDA/H. C. 100 nautical miles away from land.
D. All are correct. D. All are correct.

268. An alternate aerodrome 276. Flight recorders are not required for aircraft
A. is always the aerodrome of departure. below
B. may be aerodrome of departure. A. 15000 kg.
C. is at least 500 nautical miles from the aerodrome of B. 7000 kg.
departure. C. 5700 kg.
D. is at least 450 nautical miles from the aerodrome of D. None is correct.
departure.
277. The radio equipment installed in aircraft
269. Decision altitude (DA) is referenced to registered in India shall
A. mean sea level. A. not be operated in flight unless it has been
B. average sea level. inspected and certified as being in proper working
C. threshold elevation. order by a person authorised by the DGCA.
D. tower elevation. B. be installed and operated with a licence issued by
DGCA.
270. Decision height (DH) is referred to C. be operated only by a person who holds
A. mean sea level. appropriate licence issued by DGCA.
B. average sea level. D. All are correct.
C. threshold elevation.
D. tower elevation. 278. CAR series R Part I pertains to
A. aircraft radio equipment.
271. MDA/H is specified altitude or height in a B. installation of communication equipment.
A. non-precision approach below which descent may C. installation of navigation equipment.
be made without visual reference. D. installation of radar equipment.
B. non-precision approach below which descent may
not be made without visual reference. 279. While installing anew avionic system on an
C. precision approach below which descent may not aircraft in the absence of manufacturer's guidelines the
be made without visual reference. AME 'R' shall make a feasibility study to check that
D. precision approach below which descent may be A. empty weight of the aircraft remains same after
made without visual reference. installation.
19
B. empty weight C.G. remains same after installation. A. CAR series E part II.
C. loaded weight C.G. remains same after installation. B. CAR series E part III.
D. C.G. should remain in limit after installation. C. CAR series R part II.
D. CAR series R part III.
280. For approval of an avionic installation, in
absence of manufacturer's guidelines, AME 'R' shall 288. Maintenance check carried out on radio
submit the modification details along with equipments are
A. six copies of drawing to RAO. A. in situ checks & bench checks.
B. six copies of drawing to DGCA (Hqrs). B. bench check only.
C. three copies of drawing to RAO. C. boroscope checks.
D. three copies of drawing to DGCA (Hqrs). D. NDT checks.

281. On comletion of structural and electrical wiring 289. FRC of a radio communication system installed
on an aircraft the complete wiring shall be checked for on a flying training club aircraft is
A. continuity. A. valid for 24 hours.
B. insulation and continuity. B. 12 hours or 7 days elapsed time.
C. bonding and insulation. C. 10 hours or 4 days elapsed time.
D. All are correct. D. None is correct.

282. The antenna installed on aircraft shall be checked 290. FRC of a radio communication/navigation
by AME for proper insulation to ensure that system installed on a flying training club aircraft is
A. radio interference is least. A. valid for 24 hours.
B. static interference is maximum. B. valid for 200 hours.
C. precipitation static interference is minimum. C. valid for 90 days.
D. static interference is minimum. D. valid for 30 days.

283. After installation of new avionic system on an 291. During scheduled maintenance check or 180
aircraft the EWCG shall be amended accordingly by days inspection schedule of radio system it is a must
A. AME cat 'R'. to carry out
B. AME cat A & C. A. VSWR of HF & VHF transmitter.
C. AME cat A, C & R. B. bonding of RF cables.
D. AME cat 'B'. C. insulation of radio equipments.
D. All are correct.
284. Installation of a new avionic system on an
aircraft can be carried out only after obtaining 292. FTD checks of ADF, VHF, HF, VOR & ILS
A. the permission from DGCA. equipment are carried out
B. the permit from DGCA. A. once in six months.
C. short term aeromobile licence from WPC wing of B. once in a year (for valve equipment).
Ministry of Communications. C. once in 2 years (for valve equipment).
D. permanent aeromobile licence from WPC wing of D. None is correct.
Ministry of Communications.
293. Final test data check of solid state equipment
285. CAR series R part III pertains to shall be carried out
A. aircraft radio equipment. A. once in six months.
B. installation of aircraft radio equipment. B. once in a year.
C. maintenance of airborne radio equipment. C. once in 2 years.
D. installation and maintenance of airborne radio D. once in a 2 years linked with C of A or any major
equipment. check.

286. Aircraft shall be equipped with radio apparatus 294. Pilot shall file de-briefing report regarding the
as may be specified is required as per IAR range and performance of WX Radar, Omega NAV,
A. 9A. HIS, RMI, DME and R NAV after
B. 9 Sub-rule 3. A. the day's flying.
C. 51 A, sub-rule 3. B. 10 days of flying.
D. Both a and c are correct. C. 90 days of flying.
D. 180 days of flying.
287. Maintenance of airborne communication and 295. Aircraft after flying through electrical storm or
navigation equipments shall be carried out in lightning strike has to be inspected for
accordance with A. loop antenna which is to be demagnetised.
20
B. all digital and CRT indicator shall be inspected for D. 4 years.
any possible damage to glass components.
C. all antenna shall be inspected for any damage to 304. The service life of group B hoses are
the wire. A. 10 years.
D. All are correct. B. 8 years.
C. 6 years.
296. Major modifications regarding safety of aircraft D. 4 years.
radio equipment shall be carried out by
A. AME cat 'R'. 305. The service life of group A and group B hoses
B. AME cat 'B' (radio). can be increased by
C. AME cat A & B (radio). A. 8 years.
D. AME cat 'X' (radio). B. 6 years.
297. CAR series S part I pertains to storage of C. 4 years.
A. aircraft instruments. D. 2 years.
B. aircraft hardware.
C. aircraft engines. 306. Group 'A' hoses are
D. aircraft tyres. A. fuel, oil.
B. pneumatic pressure hoses.
298. Aircraft tyres should be stored vertically in racks C. hydraulic pressure hoses.
having support tubes so that each tyre is supported at D. All are correct.
two point on the treads. The tyres should be turned to
a new position 307. Group 'B' hoses are
A. every month or so. A. fuel, oil.
B. every 2 months or so. B. hydraulic return line and instrument hoses.
C. every 3 months or so. C. fuel return line.
D. every 6 months or so. D. All are correct.

299. The storage temperature of rubber parts should 308. The 'shelf life' of valve seats used in hydraulic
A. between 50 degree F and 70 degree F. system is
B. between 50 degree C and 70 degree C. A. 10 years from the cure date.
C. between 50 degree F and 90 degree F. B. 8 years from cure date.
D. between 50 degree C and 90 degree C. C. 6 years from the cure date.
D. 4 years from the cure date.
300. The relative humidity of the room where hoses
are stored shall be around 309. Rubber seals which have been stored for more
A. 50%. than four years should be checked for deterioration by
B. 60%. stretching the seal to
C. 65%. A. 10% of their internal dia and seeing for crack under
D. 75%. XIO magnification.
B. 20% of their internal dia and seeing for crack under
301. Aircraft hoses should be stored XIO magnification.
A. in coiled state. C. 10% of their external dia and seeing for crack
B. in coiled state supported in racks having support under XIO magnification.
tubes. D. 20% of their external dia and seeing for crack
C. in coiled state with french chalk sprayed. under XIO magnification.
D. in coiled and supported state so as to relieve
stresses. 310. The maximum service life of rubber seals shall
not exceed
302. The storage/shelf life of group A hoses are A. 8 years.
A. 10 years from the cure date. B. 6 years.
B. 6 years from the cure date. C. 5 years.
C. as in (a) before installation pressure test should be D. 4 years.
carried out 1.5 times the working pressure.
D. None is correct. 311. The calendar life of reciprocating engines are
A. 10 years.
303. The service life of group A houses are B. 8 years.
A. 10 years. C. 6 years.
B. 8 years. D. None is correct.
C. 6 years.
21
312. Series aircraft means manufacturer/DGCA, while effecting climb at the
A. aircraft manufactured in series. 'best climbing speed'.
B. arcraft supplied in series. D. All are correct.
C. aircraft belonging to 'A' series.
D. None is correct. 320. The responsibility of recording the results of test
flight lies entirely with
313. Flight test means the flying of an aircraft A. PIC.
A. without any passenger on board for the purpose B. Co-pilot.
assessing the deterioration in performance. C. Flight Engineer.
B. as in (a) and also assessing the satisfactory D. AME.
completion of maintenance.
C. as in (a) and can carry passengers. 321. The observed actual climb performance is related
D. as in (a) and (b) and can carry passengers. to the test condition
A. means altitude.
314. Test flight of an Indian airlines aircraft will be B. means temperature.
carried out C. means weight.
A. during C of A renewal. D. All are correct.
B. after 'top-overhaul'.
C. after 'block-overhaul'. 322. When an India registered aircraft suffers major
D. Both a and c are correct. damage of defect then it shall be the responsibility of
A. the operator to inform the RAO.
315. A private aircraft shall be flight tested B. the operator to inform the DGCA.
A. during C of A renewal. C. the operator to inform the DAI.
B. subsequent to change of an engine. D. None is correct.
C. for the purpose of evaluation of engine power.
D. All are correct. 323. On receipt of a report regarding major
defect/damage to an aircraft, officer incharge of RAO
316. On a four-engine aircraft the test flight may not A. may formally suspend the C of A.
be carried out after change of B. may suspend C of A, if reasonable doubts exist to
A. one engine provided satisfactory ground run has the safety of aircraft.
been carried out. C. may suspend C of A, if reasonable doubts exist to
B. two engines provided satisfactory ground run has the safety of aircraft or as to the safety of this type of
been carried out. aircraft to which the aircraft belongs.
C. three engines provided satisfactory ground run has D. Both a and b are correct.
been carried out.
D. All are correct. 324. The owner/operator during carrying out
rectification of major defect
317. Engine change means removal of an engine and A. shall not submit the aircraft to airworthiness
its replacement by officers for inspection.
A. an overhauled engine. B. shall submit the aircraft to airworthiness officers
B. re-installation of the engine in the same position. for inspection during rectification work.
C. engine removed from any position of the same C. shall submit the aircraft to airworthiness officers
aircraft to any other aircraft. for inspection only when rectification is complete.
D. All are correct. D. None is correct.

318. Test flight shall be continued if practicable at 325. When a suspended C of A is revalidated it is
A. maximum AUW. A. for one year.
B. minimum AUW. B. for the period the original revalidation would have
C. 3/4 of maximum AUW. lasted had the suspension not taken place.
D. 1/2 of maximum AUW. C. for six months.
D. Both b and c are correct.
319. The routine test flight procedure will at least
insure 326. Aircraft rule 53 and 53A together
A. that the cruise speed at the cruising engine power is A. prescribes the requirement regarding use of
within the range specified. material process to be used during maintenance of
B. that the stalling speed has not increased beyond the aircraft.
figure specified by the manufacturer/DGCA. B. prescribes the requirement regarding use of
C. that 'al-engine-operating' climbed performance is material process to be used during maintenance of
within acceptable limits specified by the
22
aircraft and also the persons authorised to certify the B. will be the same registraqtion number which was
maintenance of aircraft. given to aircraft of which airframe was a part.
C. prescribes the persons authorised to certify the C. in case of new fuselage or imported fuselage new
maintenance of aircraft. registration mark will be allotted.
D. prescribes the requirement regarding use of D. Both a and c are correct.
material process to be used during manufacture of
aircraft and also the persons authorised to certify the 334. Before starting rebuilding of an aircraft the
manufacture of aircraft. constructor must insure that
327. CAR series F part VI deals with A. proper history of parts are available.
A. rebuilding of aircraft. B. parts purchased are genuine.
B. rebuilding of damaged aircraft. C. parts are imported.
C. rebuilding of aircraft wreckage. D. Both a and b are correct.
D. All are correct.
335. AME under-taking the rebuilding of aircraft must
328. Only those aircraft are permitted to be rebuilt be endorsed in
A. which were earlier type certificated. A. category 'A'.
B. which were flying with C of A. B. category 'B".
C. which has sufficient data regarding maintenance C. category 'C'.
and prformance standards. D. category 'D'.
D. All are correct.
336. Aircraft parts are completely
329. Rebuilding means stripped/inspected /overhauled prior to assembling of
A. assembling an aircraft from parts which are already aircraft during rebuilding if the parts had been in
manufactured to an acceptable airworthiness standards storage for more than
and fitted in an aircraft to be type certificated. A. ten years.
B. assembling an aircraft from parts which are already B. eight years.
manufactured to an acceptable airworthiness standards C. five years.
and then fitted to type certificated aircraft. D. two years.
C. assembling an aircraft from parts approved by
AME to an acceptable airworthiness standards and 337. Series F part VII contains
then fitted to an aircraft to be type certificated. A. C of A renewal procedure.
D. None is correct. B. suspension of C of A.
C. spcial flight permit.
330. An approved firm can undertake the rebuilding D. None of the above.
of
A. all aircraft upto the weight 2000 kg. 338. Aircraft with suspended C of A due to defect or
B. all pressurised aircraft upto the weight 2000 kg. damage shall not undertake any flight without specific
C. all unpressurised aircraft upto the weight 2000 kg. permission of DGCA vide
D. all unpressurised aircraft upto the weight 3000 kg. A. Aircraft rule 55 sub-rule 2.
B. Aircraft rule 55 sub-rule 3.
331. Rebuilt aircraft will be assigned a serial number C. Aircraft rule 55 sub-rule 4.
by the constructor. This number will normally be the D. Aircraft rule 55 sub-rule 5.
number assigned
A. to the wing. 339. DGCA may permit special flight for an aircraft
B. to complete aircraft. when the C of A is suspended vide
C. to the fuselage. A. Aircraft rule 55 sub-rule 2.
D. None is correct. B. Aircraft rule 55 sub-rule 3.
C. Aircraft rule 55 sub-rule 4.
332. The constructor number in case of rebuilt aircraft D. Aircraft rule 55 sub-rule 5.
will be affixed
A. to the wing by permanent means. 340. A special flight authorisation is a permission
B. to the fuselage by permanent means. accorded
C. to the cockpit by permanent means. A. by DGCA.
D. All are correct. B. to ferry-fly an aircraft.
C. to carry special persons (VIPs).
333. Registration number assigned to a rebuilt aircraft D. Both a and b are correct.
A. will be the same registration number which was
given to aircraft of which fuselage was a part. 341. A special flight permit is a permission

23
A. to ferry fly to a base without passengers on board 348. Important schedules like heavy landing, post
where repairs, modifications and maintenance lighting strike, post propeller strike etc. should be
required to remove the suspension of the C of A can submitted to the RAO for approval in
be performed. A. duplicate.
B. for production flight testing new production B. triplicate.
aircraft. C. quadruplicate.
C. to authorise flight for special purposes. D. None.
D. All are correct.
349. All works on a/c must be recorded in the relevant
342. The operator who wishes to avail a special flight log books within
permit must submit an application to RAO indicating A. an hour of completion.
A. the crew required to operate the aircraft. B. six hours of completion.
B. the crew required to operate the equipment. C. 24 hours of completion.
C. the purpose of flight. D. 48 hours of completion.
D. All are correct.
350. If aircraft log book is not readily available
343. The RAO may authorise a special ferry flight because of aircraft being away from the base then
subject to A. one copy of log book entry should be kept in the
A. inspection or tests by the operation for determining JLB.
the safety of aircraft for the intended flight and B. one copy of log book entry should be sent to the
certified to that effect by appropriately licensed AME. RAO.
B. limitation that the operating weight on any ferry C. aone copy of log book entry should be sent to
flight must be the minimum necessary. DGCA.
C. manufacture for which the aircraft is limited. D. All are correct.
D. All are correct.
351. FRC will become invalid
344. Special flight authorisation issued by A. if unapproved parts are used.
regional/sub-regional airworthiness office is valid B. if unapproved manoeuvers are taken.
A. for one week. C. if aircraft suffers major damage.
B. upto arrival at destination airport. D. None of the above.
C. upto arrival at destination or date whichever is
applicable. 352. Validity of FRC of schedule operator including
D. All are correct. corporation is
A. 12 hours of aircraft operator operation.
345. On completion of special flight the operator with B. 24 hours.
render C. as stated in approved QC manual.
A. to RAO any abnormality encountered during flight. D. as stated in approved maintenance system manual.
B. to DGCA any abnormality encountered during
flight. 353. Validity of FRC of flying training aircraft
C. to DGCA action taken at base to render aircraft A. is valid for every 24 hours (one day).
airworthy. B. is valid for 12 hours of aircraft operation when
D. Both b and c are correct. aircraft is away from main base.
C. is valid for 4 days elapsed time when aircraft is
346. General requirements regarding maintenance and away from main base.
certification of Aircraft is dealt in D. All are correct.
A. CAR series F part V.
B. CAR series F part VI. 354. FRC of aerial work aircraft is
C. CAR series F part VII. A. 10 hours of aircraft operation or 7 days elapsed
D. CAR series F part VIII. time whichever is earlier.
B. 12 hours of aircraft operation or 4 days elapsed
347. Operator who do not have their own facility for time whichever is earlier.
maintenance and certification of aircraft C. 10 hours of aircraft operation or 4 days elapsed
A. can't maintain & fly their aircraft. time whichever is earlier.
B. have to request DGCA for certification. D. 12 hours of aircraft operation or 7 days elapsed
C. C of A of their a/c will be cancelled. time whichever is earlier.
D. can get maintenance and certification performed by
organisation approved for the purpose. 355. FRC of private aircraft is valid for
A. 50 hrs/30 days.
B. 25 hrs/15 days.
24
C. 10 hrs/7 days. 364. FRC is preserved for
D. Both a and b are correct. A. one month from the date of issue.
B. six months from the date of issue.
356. Validity of FRC of State Govt. aircraft is C. one year from the date of issue.
A. 50 hrs/30 days. D. Not required to be preserved.
B. 50 hrs/60 days.
C. decided by the RAO is consultation with the
operator. 365. Distribution of FRC is done as follows:
D. None is correct. A. one copy to RAO.
B. one copy is kept in aircraft.
357. Validity of FRc of Radio communication C. one copy is with organisation record.
equipment of training aircraft is D. Both b and c are correct.
A. 30 days elapsed time.
B. 60 days elapsed time. 366. Rule 53 of aircraft rule specifies that
C. 90 days elapsed time. A. all aircraft and aircraft component and items of
D. None is correct. equipment on such aircraft shall periodically be
inspected/overhauled and certified.
358. Validity of FRC of Radio navigation equipment B. all aircraft and aircraft component and items of
of training aircraft is equipment must be obtained from approved sources.
A. 30 days elapsed time. C. all aircraft and aircraft component and items of
B. 60 days elapsed time. equipment must possess a valid release note.
C. 90 days elapsed time. D. All are correct.
D. None is correct.
367. Schedule maintenance includes the following
359. Validity of FRC of Radio communication work
equipment of private aircraft is A. replacement of "life limited" item.
A. 30 days elapsed time. B. heavy landing schedule.
B. 60 days elapsed time. C. lighting sticks schedule.
C. 90 days elapsed time. D. All are correct.
D. 180 days elapsed time.
368. Unschedule maintenance includes the following
360. Validity of FRC of Radio navigation equipment work
of private aircraft is A. special inspections such as x-rays.
A. 30 days elapsed time. B. replacement of "lifed" components.
B. 60 days elapsed time. C. heavy landing schedule.
C. 90 days elapsed time. D. All are correct.
D. 180 days elapsed time.
369. Aging aircraft requires more frequent inspection
361. FRC for aircraft of AUW of 15000 kg and above of structural components for damage due to
is signed by A. environmental deterioration.
A. persons authorised in two category. B. accidental damage.
B. persons authorised in three category. C. fatigue.
C. persons authorised in four category. D. All are correct.
D. persons authorised in five category.
370. To ensure structural integrity of aging aircraft
362. In case of private aircraft the schedule of manufacturers have issued
inspection lower than 50 hrs may be carried out by A. SSIP.
A. the pilot holding C.P. licence on that particular B. CPCP.
type of aircraft. C. SSIP & CPCP.
B. the pilot having vast experience. D. fatigue prevention document.
C. the pilot having at least ALTP.
D. None is correct. 371. The owner/operator shall inform to RAO/sub-
RAO in writing at least 15 days in advance about the
363. Flight release certificate is signed in commencement of all the inspection schedules
A. duplicate. A. of 100 hrs and above.
B. triplicate. B. of over 100 hrs.
C. quadruplicate. C. of over 300 hrs.
D. None is correct. D. All are correct.

25
372. Regional airworthiness offices may grant ad-hoc C. 20 years, 51,000 hrs, 75,000 flight cydes.
extension to lives of inspection schedules and TBO's D. 25 years, 60,000 hrs, 60,000 flight cydes.
of components upto a maximum of
A. 10% or 50 hrs (whichever is less). 381. Design economic life of B 747 is
B. 3% or 3 months (whichever is less). A. 25 years, 20,000 hrs, 60,000 flight cydes.
C. 3% or 50 hrs (whichever is less). B. 25 years, 60,000 hrs, 75,000 flight cydes.
D. None is correct. C. 20 years, 60,000 hrs, 75,000 flight cydes.
D. 25 years, 51,000 hrs, 75,000 flight cydes.
373. Regional airworthiness offices may grant ad-hoc
extension to lives of inspection schedules and TBO's 382. Design economic life of B707 is
of components upto a maximum of A. 50 years, 60,000 hrs, 51,000 flight cydes.
A. 10% or 50 hrs (whichever is less). B. 50 years, 75,000 hrs, 60,000 flight cydes.
B. 3% or 50 hrs (whichever is less). C. 50 years, 20,000 hrs, 60,000 flight cydes.
C. 10% or 3 months (whichever is less). D. 20 years, 20,000 hrs, 60,000 flight cydes.
D. Both b and c are correct.
383. Design economic life of Douglas, F27 & HS-748
374. All completed maintenance schedules must be are
preserved for a minimum period of A. 20 years.
A. one year. B. 30 years.
B. two years. C. 40 years.
C. five years. D. 50 years.
D. ten years.
384. The control system of which duplicate
375. Damage due to environment in form of corrosion inspections are carried out are
and stress corrosion is A. flying controls.
A. environmental damage. B. engine controls.
B. corrosion damage. C. engine controls & flying controls.
C. fatigue damage. D. flying, engine and associated controls.
D. accidental damage.
385. Duplicate inspection of all control system shall
376. Aging aircraft are those aircraft which have be made
A. completed their life. A. after rigging.
B. completed their service life. B. before the first flight of all aircraft after assembly
C. completed their designed service life. and rigging.
D. completed their designed economic life. C. before the first flight after C of A.
D. before C of A flight.
377. Multiple site damage are
A. five or more dents on one site. 386. Duplicate inspection when the aircraft is at the
B. five or more cracks on one site which link up in to base is carried out by
longer crack. A. persons approved for the purpose in an approved
C. fatigue crack at number of fasteners which stand to organisation.
link up into longer crakcs. B. a flight engineer.
D. All are correct. C. a flight engineer whose licence is endorsed for the
type of aircraft.
378. At present SSID have been issued for D. Both a and c are correct.
A. B 200C, C 90A, B 737.
B. A 35, B 55, C 90a. 387. Duplicate inspection when the aircraft is away
C. B 737, B 747, HS 748. from the base in carried out by
D. J 3C, PA 12, FA 152. A. by a flight engineer whose licence is endorsed for
the aircraft.
379. Design economic life of Airbus is B. by any CPL holder.
A. 10 years. C. by a person specially authorised by the DGCA.
B. 20 years. D. Both a and b are correct.
C. 30 years.
D. 50 years. 388. RAO can authorise a person to carry out
duplicate inspection of aircraft if
380. Design economic life of B 737 is A. a person has at least 3 years general maintenance
A. 25 years, 51,000 hrs, 75,000 flight cydes. experience and 6 months experience of the type of
B. 20 years, 60,000 hrs, 60,000 flight cydes. aircraft involved.
26
B. a person has at least 3 years general maintenance D. CAR series F part XIV.
experience and 3 months maintenance experience on
the type of aircraft involved. 396. The C of A of gliders is renewed only during test
C. a person has at least 3 years general maintenance flight
experience and one year maintenance experience on A. stall test has been satisfactorily carried out.
the type of aircraft involved. B. spin test has been satisfactorily carried out.
D. All are correct. C. loop test has been satisfactorily carried out.
D. All are correct.
389. Series 'F' part XII deals with
A. inspection of wooden aircraft. 397. If 'loop test' is not carried out during test flight of
B. duplicate inspection of flying controls. a glider then its C of A
C. duplicate inspection of engine controls. A. will not be renewed.
D. Both b and c are correct. B. will not be renewed in any case.
C. will not be renewed temporarily.
390. Aircraft of composite contruction shall be D. will be renewed provided the glider is suitably
inspected before issue/renewal or validation of placarded that 'loop manoeuvres are prohibited.
certificate of airworthiness and thereafter in periods
not exceeding 398. Components and spare parts used on gliders
A. one year. A. should be covered by a release note.
B. two years. B. should be covered by a certificate of maintenance.
C. five years. C. should be covered by a rejection note.
D. ten years. D. None is correct.

391. Factors causing wood deterioration are 399. 'Certificate of safety' for gliders is valid for
A. chemical action of glue due to aging. A. six months.
B. mechanical forces mainly due to timber shrinkage. B. three months.
C. development of fungus. C. one month.
D. All are correct. D. one day.

392. Wooden aircraft exposed to large cyclic changes 400. 'Certificate of safety' for gliders should be
of temperature and humidity are especially prove to preserved for
A. timber shrinkage. A. one month.
B. glue deterioration. B. three months.
C. Both a and b are correct. C. six months.
D. None is correct. D. not required to be preserved.

393. Certificate of compliance is a certification to the 401. Gliders should be weighed


effect that all the works on A. on a routine basis.
A. the aircraft have been performed in accordance B. every three years.
with the requirements specified by DGCA. C. before issue of C of A.
B. the aircraft component have been performed in D. None is correct.
accordance with the requirements specified by
DGCA. 402. Procedures/work sheets pertaining to gliders
C. the glider component have been performed in which meet with accidents and damages beyond
accordance with the requirements specified by economical repairs shall be preserved
DGCA. A. for one year after the date of accident.
D. Both a and b are correct. B. for five years after the date of accident.
C. for ten years after the date of accident.
394. All gliders shall be equipped with D. for two years after the date of accident.
A. variomate.
B. RPM indicator. 403. When an approved flight manual is carried on
C. VOR. board the aircraft to form a part of the C of A, the C of
D. ADF. A is issued on form
A. CA 23.
395. The constructions of gliders shall be maintained B. CA 23A.
and overhauled in accordance with the procedure in C. CA 56.
A. CAR series I part I. D. CA 57.
B. CAR series I part II.
C. CAR series F part XIII.
27
404. Rejection note is a document issued byan continuous cycle of maintenance the aircraft is subject
approved organisation for the purpose of advising to
details of rejection of aircraft good/parts A. any schedule due and/or a 100 hrs inspection
A. for which high prices are quoted. schedule.
B. common to automobile industry. B. a major schedule next to 100 hrs inspection
C. ground equipment. schedule.
D. which fail to meet applicable requirement. C. a normal DI followed by a higher schedule of
inspection.
405. Scope of approval of an organisation depends on D. 500 hrs inspection schedule.
A. capacity of the firm to undertake the job.
B. equipment available and technical literating. 412. An aircraft above 2000 kg is required to be
C. suitable QCM & Dy. QCM. weighed
D. all the above. A. every two years.
B. every three years.
406. Only one of the following need not have the C. every three years unless required to be weighed in
approval of maintenance organisation accordance with para 4.3 of the CAR series 'X' part II.
A. private owner of aircraft. D. only when it sustains damage requiring extensive
B. non-schedule operator. repair.
C. shceduled airlines.
D. aircraft owned by State Govt. 413. The maintenance schedules of an organisation
are approved by the
407. The certificate of flightr release of an aircraft A. Chief Aircraft Engineer of the organisation.
below 15000 kg AUW remains valid provided the pre B. QCM of only Indian Airlines and Air India.
flight inspection is carried out by C. Controller of Director of Airworthiness of region.
A. a pilot as per approved schedule. D. Both b and c are correct.
B. an AME.
C. a pilot having AME licence also. 414. The lives of the components of an aircraft are
D. an approved person as per approved schedule. approved by
A. DGCA.
408. As per appendix 'A' of CAR series 'F' part IV and B. QCM.
aircraft certified in normal category shall not be used C. CAW of the region.
for purpose mentioned either in D. CE of an organisation.
A. special category or aerobatic category.
B. special category or passenger sub-division. 415. The C of A an imported aircraft can be
C. aerobatic category or aerial work sub-division. revalidated by the DGCA
D. racing aircraft sub-division or goods aircraft sub- A. if the C of A for export is issued by the country of
division. origin.
B. if the aircraft meets the type certificate issued by
409. An aircraft certified in sub-division of passenger the country of origin.
aircraft in normal category can undertake C. if it meets all requirements and standards laid
A. carriage of mails. down by the DGCA.
B. carriage of goods. D. All are correct.
C. aerial work.
D. None of the above. 416. C of A renewal of aircraft under continuous
maintenance system can be effected
410. As per CAR series 'F' part IV the duplicate A. while the aircraft is flying.
inspection of flight and engine controls of an aircraft B. after completion of the minimum of 100 hours
away from base can be carried out by a pilot inspection schedule.
A. provided his CPL/CHPL is endorsed on the type of C. provided all mandatory modifications and major
aircraft. defects are not outstanding.
B. or any AME or flight engineer. D. All are correct.
C. the answer (a) is correct subject to the condition
that person authorised as per para 3.3.1 of the CAR do 417. An aircraft can be ferry-flown only when the
the second check on arrival of the aircraft at the base. A. DGCA permits on application.
D. any 'B' and /or 'D' licensed engineer. B. pilot in command certifies it as safe.
C. QCM of the operator permits.
411. For the purpose of C of A revalidation if the D. None is correct.
aircraft has been maintained in accordance with

28
418. Weighing requirements in respect of aircraft less 425. For the purpose of snag rectification an aircraft
than 2000 kg AUW are can always be taxied from bay to the maintenance
A. every C of A renewal. hangar by
B. every three years. A. an appropriately licensed AME.
C. need not be re-weighed on routine basis. B. pilot under training may be allowed.
D. every overhaul. C. an individual authorised by the QCM of the firm.
D. None of the above is correct.
419. An aircraft for agricultural operation is required
to be imported in to India the minimum standard of 426. Ground proxiity warning system as per CAR
manufacture for issue of Indian C of A shall be series I part II is mandatory for all turbine engine
A. as laid down in CAA, B CAR section 'K' & 'D'. aeroplane registered in India after 1-7-79 which are
B. as laid down in FAA FAR parts 23 & 25. A. authorised to carry more than 30 passengers.
C. as laid down by Australian Govt. for agricultural B. having seating capacity of 100 or more.
aircraft. C. Both a and b are correct.
D. Both a and b are correct. D. None of f the above is correct as it is applicable to
all aircraft.
420. Certificate of Airworthiness of an aircraft shows
that it is valid for 'Normal category' - sub-division 427. An India registered aircraft having C of A as per
private aircraft. This aircraft is used for IAR can fly as
A. experimental purposes. A. passenger aircraft can fly as freight aircraft.
B. aerial-work. B. freight aircraft can fly as passenger aircraft
C. aerobatic purposes. provided seats are installed.
D. carriage of executives of his factory without any C. aerial work aircraft can be operated as public
remuneration. transport aircraft.
D. None is correct.
421. One of the following conditions does result in
automatic suspension if C of A 428. Mark the correct statement
A. whenever aircraft develops a defect that effects A. flight release should be preserved for six weeks.
primary structure. B. aircraft log book should be preserved for 5 years.
B. whenever an aircraft is involved in forced landing. C. journey log book should be preserved for 2 years.
C. approved inspection schedules are not completed D. None is correct.
when due.
D. whenever 'lifed' components are not remjoved as 429. For flight over water by public transport aircraft
stipulated in T.B.O.'s. at a distance of more than 100 nautical miles from the
shore the equipments required are
422. For powered gliders, following instruments are A. life saving rafts in sufficient number.
required B. two days food.
A. free air temperature gauge. C. survival radio equipment operated on VHF.
B. free air temperature gauge is not required if D. Both a and c are corret.
cqarburettor heating gauge is there.
C. oil temperature gauge. 430. An aircraft certificated in sub-division of
D. Both a and c are correct. passenger aircraft in normal category can undertake
A. carriage of mails.
423. Validity of flight release for radio equipment for B. carriage of goods.
flying club aircraft is C. aerial work.
A. 90 days. D. None is correct.
B. 30 days.
C. 50 hrs/30 days. 431. Gyro instruments are overhauled at every
D. 100 hrs/90 days. A. 2 years/1000 hours.
B. 1 year/2000 hours.
424. For purpose of C of A in case the final inspection C. 3 years/2000 hours.
is carried out after the expiry date of the C of A then D. 2 years.
the validity of the next currency of C of A would start
from the date of 432. Life of automatic pilots (except gyro units) are
A. test flight. A. 2 years.
B. inspection. B. 2 years/1000 hours.
C. expiry of C of A. C. 3 years/2000 hours.
D. None of the correct. D. one year.
433. Life of engine instruments are
29
A. 2 years. C. radio apparatus as required.
B. 2 years/1000 hours. D. All are correct.
C. 3 years/2000 hours.
D. one year. 442. All aeroplanes on all flights shall be equipped
with a seat/berth for each person over the age of
434. altimeters are to be overhauled A. two years.
A. every year. B. three years.
B. every alternate year. C. five years.
C. every 2 year. D. All are correct.
D. 2 years/3000 hours.
443. All aircraft issued with a C of A for the first time
435. Free air temperature gauge has to be after
A. overhauled every year. A. 1-9-76 shall have safety hareness for aircraft crew.
B. overhauled every 2 years. B. 1-10-76 shall have safety harness for aircraft crew.
C. bench-checked every 2 years. C. 1-12-86 shall have safety harness for aircraft crew.
D. bench-checked every 3 years. D. 1-1-87 shall have safety harness for aircraft crew.

436. Temperature required for storing of instruments 444. All aircraft shall be fitted with an ELT meeting
is requirements as laid down in
A. 15 degree centigrade. A. FAA TSO C 91a.
B. 15 degree centigrade to 25 degree centigrade. B. FAR Part 91.
C. 5 degree centigrade to 25 degree centigrade. C. B CAR C 91a.
D. below 5 degree centigrade. D. None of the above.

437. Places storing instruments shall have humidity 445. ELT of aircraft flying over land should be
below activated due to impact of more than
A. 60%. A. 3 g.
B. 70%. B. 4 g.
C. 75%. C. 5 g.
D. 80%. D. 8 g.

438. The shlelf life of instruments other than gyro 446. The requirement of ELT for training aircraft
instruments shall not exceed is/will be effected from
A. one year. A. 30th April 1992.
B. two years. B. 31st July 1992.
C. four years. C. 31st December 1992.
D. six years. D. 31st December 1993.

439. The shelf life of gyro instruments must not 447. The ELT must be installed on the aircraft
exceed A. as far as possible.
A. one year. B. in the Radome section.
B. one year and at the end of six months bearing C. as aft as possible.
lubricated as per maker's recommendations. D. in the centre of the aircraft.
C. two years.
D. two years and at the end of one year bearing 448. Aeroplane on flight over water shall be provided
lubricated as per maker's recommendations. with one approved life jacket for each person on board
A. when flown beyond 35 nautical miles.
440. Instruments installed on aircraft has not been B. when flown beyond 35 nautical miles away from
operated for a continuous period of six months the land.
A. The aircraft shall be subject to test flight before C. when the take off approach path is so disposed
use. over water that in the event of a mishap there would
B. shall be subject to bench check before use. be a possibility of ditching.
C. shall be subject to overhaul before use. D. All are correct.
D. All are correct.
449. Two sets of portable, water resistant, self-
441. Aircraft rule 57 requires that every aircraft shall survival radio equpment operated on VHF shall be
be fitted and equipped with carried on board on long range over water flights by
A. instruments as required. all
B. equipments as required. A. aircraft.
30
B. private aircraft only. A. 100 persons.
C. public transport aircraft only. B. 30 persons.
D. non-schedule operators. C. 10 persons.
D. 5 persons.
450. CHT gauge is mandatory on each
A. air-cooled engine having rated BHP above 250. 458. Unpressurised aeroplanes shall not be operated at
B. air-cooled engine having rated BHP above 300. altitude at which the atmosphere pressure in flight
C. water cooled engine having rated BHP above 250. crew/passenger compartments will be less than
D. Both a and c are correct. A. 700 metres.
B. 600 metres.
451. Aircraft certificated for night flying shall have C. 375 metres.
navigation light as D. All are correct.
A. red light on the right tip side and green light on left
tip side and red light near the tail. 459. Whenever a pressurised aeroplane flies at
B. red light on the left tip side and green light on right analtitude of 10000 to 13000 feet it shall carry
tip side and red light near the tail. sufficient stored breathing oxygen for
C. red light on the left tip side and green light on the A. all crew members and passengers.
right tip side and white light near the tail. B. pilot and co-pilot only.
D. All are correct. C. all crew members and 30% passengers.
D. all crew members and 10% passengers.
452. Electrical power failure indicator is mandatory
for 460. All pressurised aeroplanes are equpped with a
A. all aircraft above 5700 kg AUW. device to provide positive warning to the pilot of any
B. aircraft having AUW of 5700 kg and above. dangerous loss of pressurisation when they fly at an
C. all aircraft above 15000 kg AUW. altitude of
D. all aircraft, irrespective of weights. A. 4000 metres.
453. All turbine engined aeroplane of 5700 kg or B. 7600 metres.
more shall be provided with VOR and DME when C. 10000 metres.
flying at or above D. 13000 metres.
A. FL 180.
B. FL 200. 461. CAR series I part III deals with
C. FL 220. A. aircraft equipment.
D. FL 240. B. aircraft instruments.
C. maintenance of test equipment.
454. All jet aircraft imported in to the country for D. All are correct.
public transport shall be equpped with digital flight
data recorder (DFDR) capable of recording minimum 462. During a planned cloud flying glider can carry on
of board
A. 7 parameter continously for 25 hours. A. pilot and co-pilot.
B. 15 parameter continously for 25 hours. B. one passenger.
C. 25 parameter continously for 25 hours. C. two passengers.
D. 33 parameter continously for 25 hours. D. pilot and one passenger.

455. Black box contains 463. Glider certificated for cloud flying shall be
A. CVR, FDR/DFDR. equipped with
B. CVR, DFDR, ELT, DME/VOR. A. first aid kit.
C. CVR, DFDR, VOR/ILS. B. artificial horizon.
D. CVR, FDR, ELT, VOR/ILS. C. turn and bank indicator.
D. All are correct.
456. An anti-collision light, intended to attract
attention to the aircraft is mandatory for all aircraft 464. All helicopters shall be equipped with
A. having AUW of 3000 kg and above. A. RPM indicator for main rotor.
B. having AUW of 5700 kg and above. B. RPM indicator for tail rotor.
C. having AUW of 15000 kg and above. C. floats when operated over water beyond auto
D. All are correct. rotative/gliding distance from land.
D. Both a and c are correct.
457. For flight on which licensed navigator is required 465. When an unpressurised aeroplane flies at an
according to rules drift indicator is mandatory for altitude in such an atmospheric pressure is less than
machines with a seating capacity of more than
31
620 mb in its compartment it shall carry sufficiently B. as in (a), also to go to another place if it cannot
stored breathing oxygen for land at destination.
A. all crew members. C. as in (b) additionally the helicopter to fly for 45
B. for all crew and passengers. minutes at straight and normal flight with cruise
C. for all crew and 10% passengers. speed.
D. for all crew and 30% passengers. D. None of above.

466. Batteries used in the ELT must be replaced 473. Transistorised or IC equipped radio comm has to
A. when the transmitter has been in use for more than be certified in case of non-scheduled aerial work
1 cumulative hours. aircraft
B. when 50% of their useful life has expired. A. 200 hours/180 days.
C. when 50% of their useful life of charge (for B. 50 hours/30 days.
rechargeble batteries) has expired. C. 25 hours/15 days.
D. All are correct. D. 100 hours/90 days.

467. The requirement of ELT operating on 406.0 474. During refueling of aircraft
MHZ is/will be mandatory from A. aircraft radio electrical and radar swtiches may
A. 30th April 1992. remain 'on'.
B. 31st December 1992. B. steady parking light and such switches may be
C. 31st December 1993. operated.
D. None is correct. C. no special precaution is necessary for ground
power supply.
468. Spare electrical fuses of appropriate ratings for D. the ground power unit tractor and siilar equipment
replacement of those accessible in flight are carried on shall be located outside the defined 'danger zone'.
board. Their numbers should be at least
A. 1 of each rating. 475. Other conditions remaining unchanged during
B. 2 of each rating. refuelling of the aircraft
C. 3 of each rating. A. passengers embarking/disembarking are not
D. 4 of each rating. permitted under any condition.
B. smoking is not permitted within 30 metres from
469. The radio equipment installed on India registered aircraft or fuelling equipment.
aircraft shall be operated with C. a little spilage if, can be washed into the drain.
A. consent of DGCA. D. All the above statements are correct.
B. a license issued under the Indian Telegraph Act of
1895 and amended from time to time. 476. According to IAR check correct statement
C. a licence issued under the Indian Telegraph Act of A. helicopter is aeroplane.
1885 and amended from time to time. B. balloon is an aircraft.
D. None is correct. C. kite is a flying machine.
D. All are wrong.
470. Ammeters and voltmeters are
A. overhauled every two years. 477. For certification of ignition apparatus of light
B. bench checked every year. aircraft the AME should have his licence in
C. bench checked every two years. A. Category 'A'.
D. None is correct. B. Category 'B'.
C. Category 'C'.
471. The pilot friction of compass shall be determined D. Category 'X'.
by deflecting the compass needle 10 degrees and
allowing it to return to the magnetic Meridian. The 478. The Indian Aircraft Rule 61 9revised) became
change in indication from the original heading shall effective from
not exceed A. 1st Jan 1991.
A. one degree. B. 31st Jan 1991.
B. two degrees. C. 1st April 1991.
C. three degrees. D. 1st April 1992.
D. five degrees.
479. Application for appearing in the AME licence
472. Helicopter flying under IFR condition should examination is submitted on from
carry the following amount of fuel A. CA 9.
A. amount to reach the destination. B. CA 9 (Revised).
C. CA 9 (annex I).
32
D. CA 9 (Appendix A). A. of two months' duration.
B. of three months' duration for heavy aircraft.
480. The written paper of AME licence examination C. of one month duration for heavy aircraft.
comprised D. of one month duration for light aircraft.
A. general papers, basic papers.
B. general papers, basic papers & specific papers. 488. AME licence for helicopter in category 'A' & 'C'
C. basic papers and specific papers. is issued in combined form whose
D. general paperss and specific papers. A. AUW is below 5700 kg.
B. AUW is below 3000 kg.
481. The basic paper consists of C. AUW is below 2000 kg.
A. Paper I, II. D. None is correct.
B. Paper I, II, III.
C. Paper III. 489. A combined specific paper for airframe and
D. Paper II, III. engine is undertaken for helicopter whose
A. AUW is below 15000 kg.
482. The pass percentage in AME licence B. AUW is below 5700 kg.
examination is C. AUW is below 3000 kg.
A. 80%. D. AUW is below 2000 kg.
B. 70%.
C. 80% in quiz type and 70% in essay type. 490. A helicopter engineer in category 'A' can certify
D. 70% in quiz type and 60% in essay type. A. all parts of airframe for assembly and condition.
B. balancing and tracking of main rotor and tail rotor.
483. The pass percentage of specific paper is C. main gear boxes.
A. 80%. D. All are correct.
B. 70%.
C. 60%. 491. An AME licensed in category 'C' on helicopter
D. None of the above. can certify
A. balancing and tracking of main rotor and tail rotor.
484. Defence personnel appearing in AME licence B. main gear boxes intermediate gear boxes.
exam are exempted from appearing in C. engine mounts and cowls for condition & security
A. paper I, II, III. of attachment.
B. paper II, III. D. All are correct.
C. multiple chioce question of Paper I, II, III.
D. multiple choice question of paper II, III. 492. Certification of electrical system for condition,
proper functioning and rectification of minor defects
485. Those applicants who are not engaged in any of helicopter fall under purview of AME licensed in
organisation but meet all the requirements for A. category 'A'.
appearing in the AME licence exam B. category 'B'.
A. can't appear in the AME licence exam. C. category 'E'.
B. can't appear in the AME licence exam after D. category 'X'.
obtaining permission from the RAO.
C. can appear in the AME licence exam after getting 493. Endorsement of AME licence is contained in
his form forwarded by the QCM of the organisatioin A. CAR series L Part I.
he last worked. B. CAR series L Part II.
D. may directly send their application to Director of C. CAR series L Part III.
Airworthiness (CEO) New Delhi. D. CAR series L Part IV.

486. The candidates who have passed all the written 494. A candidate applying for endorsement in
papers and are due to appear in oral-cum-practical test category 'A' will be exempted from appearing in
for issue or extension of AME licence will be general paper III if he
intimated and CEO will issue for their oral form A. has vast experience.
A. CA 73 to the QCM of the candidate's organisation. B. has open rating in category 'D'.
B. CA 73 to the RAO of candidate's region. C. has endorsement in category 'C' and 'D'.
C. CA 63 to the RAO of candidate's region. D. has AME licence in category 'B' for the type of
D. CA 73 to the candidate. aircraft for which endorsement is required.

487. DGCA will recognize the approved course of a 495. According to appendix 'A' of CAR series 'L' part
foreign country provided it has been approved by that IV group V contains
country and is
33
A. pressurised twin turbine engine aeroplane not D. certification of replacement of approved
exceeding 5700 kg AUW. components.
B. pressurised twin piston engine aeroplane not
exceeding 5700 kg AUW. 502. A rating in category 'A' entitles the AME licence
C. piston engine helicopter not exceeding 5700 kg holder for
AUW. A. certification of major modification.
D. Both a and b are correct. B. certification of major repair.
C. certification of replacement of approved
496. In accordance with CAR series L Part IV all components.
turbine engine helicopter not exceeding 3000 kg D. All are correct.
AUW comes under
A. group IV. 503. The holder of category 'A' licence for light
B. group V. aircraft is entitled to issue
C. group VI. A. certificate of maintenance for instruments.
D. group VII. B. certificate of maintenance for electrical systems.
C. certificate of maintenance for autopilots.
497. Turbojet/Turbofan engines in accordance with D. All are correct.
CAR series L part IV appendix 'B' are in
A. group IV. 504. The holder of licence in category 'B' can issue
B. group V. A. certificate of maintenance for airframe.
C. group VI. B. certificate of maintenance for engine controls.
D. group VII. C. certificate of maintenance for engine fuel, oil &
coolant system.
498. Avionics system includes instruments, electrical D. All are correct.
and radio systems of
A. Boeing 737. 505. An AME licenced in category 'C' undertake
B. Boeing 747. A. dismantling of main casing of a turbine engine.
C. Airbus A 300. B. dismantling of main rotating assembles of a turbine
D. Airbus A 320. engine.
C. dismantling of piston engines, other than
499. The privileges of AME licence shall be exercised piston/cylinder assemblies.
only in respect of such operation D. None is correct.
A. and aircraft as are entered on his licence.
B. and airframes, powerplants, aircraft systems 506. Certification of DR compass will be done by
including electrical instruments and radio systems and person holding licence in
component as are entered on his licence. A. cat 'X' for compass.
C. Both a and b are correct. B. cat A with a note valid for DR compass.
D. None is correct. C. cat D with a note valid for DR compass.
D. Both b and c are correct.
500. An AME can exercise his privileges only
A. when within the preceding 24 months he has 507. A person will be deemed to be engaged in
exercised the appropriate privileges of AME for not aircraft maintenance if
less than 12 months. A. he has undergone an approved refresher course run
B. when within the preceding 24 months he has by approved training schools.
exercised the appropriate privileges of AME for not B. he is employed in production division of aircraft
less than six months. manufacturer.
C. when within the preceding 12 months he has C. he is employed as an AME in an airline.
exercised the appropriate privileges of AME for not D. All are correct.
less than 3 months.
D. when within the preceding 24 months he has 508. If an AME has certificated the work on
exercised the appropriate privileges of AME for not appropraite procedure sheets and is on outstation duty
less than 3 months. then the log book entry on his behalf can be made by
A. any other AME.
501. A rating in category 'A' entitles the AME licence B. Chief Engineer.
holder for C. Quality Control Manager.
A. certification of major modification. D. All are correct.
B. certification of major repair.
C. certification of minor repair. 509. Grant of open AME licences is contained in
A. CAR series L PART VII.
34
B. CAR series L part VI. B. held an AME 'R' licence for five years
C. CAR series L part V. continuously.
D. CAR series L part IV. C. Both a and b are correct.
D. None is correct.
510. Omnibus endorsement in respect of AME licence
in category 'A' & 'B' is given to cover 516. A composite construction of an aeroplane means
A. single engine airplanes with an AUW below 5700 A. its skin covering is of one material.
kg. B. its skin covering is of two different materials.
B. twin engine airplanes with an AUW below 5700 C. its skin covering is of two or more different
kg. materials.
C. twin engine airplanes with an AUW below 3000 D. its skin covering (including flight control surface)
kg. is of two or more different materials.
D. single engine airplanes with an AUW below 3000
kg. 517. An organisation seeking approval for cadmium
plating will submit to DGCA
511. 'Open' rating in category 'D' is given for piston A. three specimens of 3"x3/4"x16 swg.
engines not exceeding B. three specimens of 8"x2"x16swg.
A. 500 BHP. C. three specimens of 6"x1/2" round bar.
B. 400 BHP. D. all of the above.
C. 300 BHP.
D. 250 BHP. 518. An organisation seeking approval for any
electroplating will submit to DGCA
512. 'Open' rating in cat 'R' and 'X' is given for A. three specimens of 6"x1/2" round bar.
aircrafts B. three specimens of 3"x3/4"x16 swg.
A. with AUW below 15000 kg. C. twelve specimens of 3"x3/4"x16 swg.
B. with AUW below 5700 kg. D. None of the above.
C. with AUW below 3000 kg.
D. 'open' rating in cat 'X' is not given. 519. A firm seeking approval for hand chromium
plating has to submt
513. For obtaining an open rating on single engine A. three specimens of 6"x1/2" round bar.
aircraft of all metal contruction with AUW below B. three specimens of 12"x1/2" round bar.
3000 kg an AME should C. three specimens of 12"x1" round bar.
A. have held an AME licence for 5 years D. three specimens of 6"x1" round bar.
continuously.
B. have at least 5 types of aeroplanes endorsed on his 520. A certificate issued in respect of a complete
licence. aircraft by appropriately licensed AME/AME's
C. as in 'b' the weight of 3 aeroplanes should not approved or authorised persons certifying that the
exceed 3000 kg. aircraft has been inspected as per approved schedule
D. All are correct. and is airworthy in all respects and is safe for flight
for a period specified in the certificate, is called
514. For 'open rating endorsement' on all single A. certificate of flight release.
engined aircraft of composite construction with an B. certificate of flight approval.
AUW not exceedign 3000 kg the applicant should C. release note.
have D. certificate of maintenance.
A. held an AME licence in cat A/B for five years
continuously. 521. An organisation undertaking calibration of
B. alleast three types of aeroplanes of composite instruments of master gauges and tools as applied to
construction of which at least two should be single the activities of CAD is approved in
engined aircraft with AUW not exceeding 3000 kg. A. catory 'A'.
C. as in 'b' and licenced endorsed in cat A/B as B. catory 'D'.
applicable. C. catory 'F'.
D. All are correct. D. catory 'E'.

515. An applicant desirous of having an open rating in 522. An organisation approved in category 'D' after
category 'R" for aircraft below 5.700 kg AUW must completion of work issues a
have A. certificate of maintenance.
A. held an AME 'R' licence for three years B. certificate of manufacture.
continuously. C. test report.
D. rest flight report.
35
523. Certificate of manufacture contains 531. Check-list is carried
A. signature of AME. A. in safe place in aircraft.
B. firms approval number. B. in laminated form and is readily accessible to the
C. a and b are correct. flight crew in flight.
D. none of the above is correct. C. need not be carried on board it forms a part of
flight manual.
524. A firm approved in category 'E' can carry out D. both (b) & (c) are correct.
A. distribution of aviation fuel.
B. blending of aviation fuel. 532. Alteration to check-list on the basis of operator's
C. distribution of paints. own experience must be carried only after obtaining
D. Both a and b are correct. the concurrence of
A. DGCA.
525. The number allotted to a petroleum product B. RAO.
which is considered as one lot for sampling and listing C. Manufacturer.
is called D. FAA.
A. serial number.
B. batch number. 533. Alteration to the Check-list may also by made by
C. part number. A. RAO.
D. identification number. B. DGCA.
C. manufacturer.
526. Aviation fuel consigned for storage prior to D. Both (b) & (c) are correct.
loading into organisation fueling equipment shall be
certified on 534. CAR Series B part I pertains to
A. approved release note quoting batch no. A. cockpit & emergency check-lists.
B. test report number and specification. B. emergency check-list.
C. Both a and b are correct. C. deficiency list (MEL).
D. None of them is correct. D. None of the above.

527. The Indian Oil refueling station shall issue 535. CAR Series B part II pertains to
voucher to the customer with each consignment of A. cockpit & emergency check-lists.
aviation fuel B. emergency check-list.
A. to certify the quality of the product. C. deficiency list (MEL).
B. to certify the quantity of the product. D. None of the above.
C. to certify the contents of the product.
D. None of the above. 536. Any part, the soundness and correct functioning
of which when fitted on an aircraft is essential to the
528. Refueling voucher shall be continues airworthiness or safety of the aircraft or its
A. serially numbered with the batch number occupants is termed as
specification details and quantity to be delivered. A. aircraft system.
B. shall be prepared in triplicate. B. aircraft component.
C. Both a and b are correct. C. aircraft item.
D. None of them is correct. D. All the above.

529. Stores where materials bearing evidence of 537. A condition existing in an aircraft or aircraft
having been received from approved sources are component arising out of any cause other than damage
stocked called which would preclude it or another aircraft component
A. current store. from performing their intended function that would
B. quarantine store. reduce the expected service life of the aircraft or
C. airworthy store. aircraft component is termed as
D. bonded store. A. snag.
B. P D R.
530. Stores where airworthy and serviceable C. defect.
materials, awaiting evidence of having been received D. minor defect.
from approved sources are stocked is called
A. stand-by store. 538. Defect means
B. quarantine store. A. a condition existing in an aircraft or aircraft
C. airworthiness store. component arising from any cause other than damage.
D. bonded store.
36
B. a condition which preclude it or another aircraft 545. Initial information format of major defect
component from performing their intended function. contains
C. a condition which would reduce the expectable A. aircraft type & registration, date and place of
service life of the aircraft or aircraft component. occurrence, nature of defect.
D. All the above are correct. B. modification action taken, defect report as made by
the pilot/AME.
539. Maintenance means any type of C. no information.
A. overhaul, repair, adjustment, testing. D. Both a & b are correct.
B. inspection, testing, adjustment, repair.
C. overhaul, inspection, adjustment, testing, 546. Investigation of major defect shall be completed
treatment, repair, replacement or modification. A. within one month.
D. overhaul, inspection, adjustment, testing, B. within six months.
treatment, repair, replacement, reconditioning or C. within four months.
modification. D. within two months.

540. A defect of such a nature that reduces the safety 547. Which of the following forms a part of final
of the aircraft or its occupants and includes defects investigation report?
discovered as a result of the occurrence of any A. Apparent on actual cause of defect.
emergency or in the course of normal operation or B. Action taken by the operator against manufacturer.
maintenance is called C. Duration of defect.
A. repetitive defect. D. Aircraft type & registration.
B. minor defect.
C. major defect. 548. Mechanical delay is any delay of
D. defect. A. 15 minutes or more.
B. 30 inutes or more.
541. Repetitive defect means C. 15 minutes or more to schedule services.
A. a defect in an aircraft which recurs in spite of D. 30 minutes or more to schedule services.
rectification.
B. continuous defect. 549. Any mechanical delay has to be reported to the
C. a defect in an aircraft which recurs, in spite of RAO within
rectification attempt on the same aircraft. A. 24 hours.
D. a defect in an aircraft which recurs, in spite of B. 7 days.
rectification attempt on the same aircraft or on another C. 24 hours of receipt of information by the main base
aircraft of the same type. station.
D. None of the above.
542. An aircraft operator who operates its fleet whole
or part of it as per published schedule is known as a 550. The final defect investigation report has to be
A. normal operator. sent
B. private operator. A. in duplicate to DGCA.
C. schedule operator. B. in duplicate to RAO.
D. non-schedule operator. C. in triplicate to RAO.
D. in triplicate to DGCA.
543. All major detects shall be reported to concerned
RAO (AID) 551. Records associated with the defect shall be
A. within 24 hours. preserved for a period of
B. in writing. A. two weeks.
C. in writing or on telephone followed by written B. six weeks.
information. C. one year.
D. All are correct. D. ten years.

544. All particulars of the initial information format of 552. Component associated with major defect shall be
defect report shall be submitted by the operator to the preserved for a period of
RAO A. one week from the date of intimation of defect.
A. within one month. B. two weeks from the date of intimation of defect.
B. within four months. C. three weeks from the date of intimation of defect.
C. within 7 days. D. need not be preserved.
D. within 15 days.

37
553. Failure of a component or a system that results in C. JLB, (col XI).
taking emergency action in flight is a D. defect register.
A. defect.
B. major defect. 561. Series C Part-IV refers to
C. repetitive defect. A. reporting of defects observed on all aircraft.
D. minor defet. B. recording of in-flight instrument readings.
C. analytical study of in-flight instrument readings.
554. Which one of the following is known as major D. All the above.
defect
A. significant contamination of fuel. 562. If deterioration is observed in aircraft's
B. fuel starvation in flight. performance in respect of engine
C. none of the above. A. RAO may require accomplishment of such curative
D. Both a & b are correct. measures as considered necessary.
B. may even require replacement of the deteriorated
555. Defect leading to critical malfunctioning of any engine.
system or depriving the pilot some of the critical C. RAO may requrie the carrying out of test flight to
aspect of its controls is determine the increase in drag.
A. minor defect. D. Both a & b are correct.
B. major defect.
C. repetitive defect. 563. The main purpose of investigation of defects
D. snag. A. is to avoid recurrence of defects.
B. to find the person who has caused the defects.
556. Recording of in-flight instrument readings and C. as in (a) and to find the cause of defects.
reporting of flight defect is contained in CAR D. None of the above.
A. series A part II.
B. series C part I. 564. If it is determined that defect was caused by the
C. series C part II. careless and casual attitude or negligence of technical
D. series D part II. staff
A. DGCA will take action as per the aircraft Act and
557. Recording of all parameters readings, as aircraft rules against the staff.
indicated by the respective instruments under B. operator will take departmental penal action as per
appropriate columns of the approved flight report the rules against the staff.
including the A.V.M. readings is the responsibility of C. DGCA action does not stop an operator from
A. AME. taking penal action against its staff.
B. QCM. D. All of the above are correct.
C. Flight crew.
D. Chief Engineer. 565. All major defects shall be reported to RAO
A. in writing within 12 hours.
558. In-flight instruments reading should be recorded B. telephonically only.
A. at least once in each sector of flight. C. in writing (or telephone followed by a letter)
B. at least once in each sector of flight under within 24 hours (working hours of AID).
stabilized cruise condition. D. in writing when full information is available.
C. in the event of emergency condition of flight.
D. both b & c are correct. 566. After initial reporting of major defects to the
regional airworthiness office, the remaining detailed
559. If there is no defect reported by the crew in a information must be furnished within
previous day's flight A. 7 days in an approved defect report form.
A. AME will release the aircraft for next day's flight. B. 4 months, after awaiting investigation report.
B. AME will not release the aircraft for next day C. as in (a) followed by a defect investigation report
flight. within 4 months of the occurrence of the defect.
C. AME will consult the QCM and release the aircraft D. a period stated in the quality control manual.
for next day's flight.
D. AME will release the aircraft if a 'NIL' entry has 567. After the completion of 1st flight the pilot has
been made in the PDR by the pilot duly signed. not observed any defect…
A. the flight release shall be issued after 'NIL' entry
560. Defects observed at a place away from the been signed and dated by crew.
normal base are recorded in B. the flight release can be issued after carrying out
A. JLB. engg. Maintenance.
B. airframe log book, section III. C. the AME can write 'NIL' on behalf of pilot.
38
D. the 'NIL' report need not be signed. D. training school.

568. Approved release note contains 576. After completion of test flight pilot has not
A. series no. of engine if component is for engine. observed any defect
B. serial no. of aircraft if component is for airframe. A. the flight release shall be issued after 'NIL' entry
C. DGCA approval no. and date. has been signed and dated by crew.
D. signature of the chief engineer of the firm. B. the flight release can be issued after carrying out
engineering maintenance.
569. For making changes in maintenance control by C. the AME can write NIL on behalf of pilot.
reliability programme you need the due approval of D. the NIL report need not be signed.
A. owner of aircraft.
B. operator of aircraft. 577. Amendment of quality control-cum-maintenance
C. airworthiness authorities. system manual in accordance with latest issues of
D. C.E.M./QCM. CAR are the responsibility of
A. CEM/QCM.
570. Air & Fuel consumption in cause of light aircraft B. airworthiness authorities.
should be C. owner of the aircraft.
A. recorded in engine log look after 25 hours. D. operator of the aircraft.
B. recorded in engine and aircraft log books.
C. recorded after post overhaul of the engine. 578. Any commercial watchmaker/watch repairing
D. None of the above. agencies are permitted to overhaul/repair the
clock/watches installed on aircraft having AUW
571. FDR contains below
A. altitude, airspeed, magnetic heading, vertical A. 15000 Kgs.
acceleration against a time scale. B. no aircraft is permitted to have the watch repaired
B. time, altitude, airspeed & magnetic heading. from commercial watch maker.
C. vertical acceleration, altitude and airspeed against C. 2000 kgs.
time scale. D. 3000 kgs.
D. altitude, airspeed, magnetic heading against time
scale. 579. As per CAR series E part I storing & distribution
of previously certified aircraft/part, by a firm is
572. To get an organisation approved under approval approved in
system the organisation has to A. category 'C'.
A. fill CA-182 form. B. category 'D'.
B. fill one form and offer for inspection to RAO. C. category 'A'.
C. submit the form to DGCA headquarter for D. category 'F'.
inspection and approval.
D. Both b & c are correct. 580. Rejection note is a document issued by an
approved organisation for the purpose of advising
573. Entry in log book can be signed details of rejection of aircraft goods/parts
A. by appropriately licensed AME. A. for which high prices quoted.
B. by a technician. B. common to automobile industry.
C. by key persons of organisation. C. ground eqiupment.
D. by an AME having vast experience. D. which fails to meet applicable requirement.

574. Petroleum in bulk means 581. When an approved flight manual is carried on
A. petroleum contained in any receptacle of 900 litres. board the aircraft to form a part of the C of A is issued
B. petroleum contained in receptacle exceeding 900 on form
litres. A. CA 23.
C. petroleum contained in receptable but less than 900 B. CA 23A.
litres in capacity. C. CA 56.
D. None is correct. D. CA 57.

575. Approval under category 'E' according to CAR 582. Certification of maintenance release of aircraft
series E refers to component after major maintenance for aircraft AUW
A. fuel oil and lubricants storage & distribution. of 15000 kg and above can be done by
B. testing laboratories. A. any authorised person with appropriate BAMEC
C. manufacture of aircraft, aircraft component and and 3 years experience in the specific shop.
item of equipment.
39
B. any person having appropriate BAMEC with 590. Whenever an approved school introduces a new
requisite experience in specific training and QCM course or modifies the existing course DGCA should
approval. be informed at least
C. the key person of the concerned shop. A. two weeks in advance.
D. Any one of above as the circumstances demand. B. two months in advance.
C. one month in advance.
583. The DGCA can validate the type certificate of an D. not required to be informed.
imported component provided
A. it belongs to an aircraft issued with C of A by the 591. Quality control check of the products is carried
airworthiness authority of the country of out by
manufacturer. A. representative of DGCA.
B. it meets DGCA's standard. B. CEM.
C. it is approved by CAA/FAA only. C. QCM/Dy QCm.
D. Both A and b and correct. D. Both b and c are correct.

584. S.S.I.D identifies fatigue proof areas to specify 592. Regional airworthiness office receive the
A. appication of specific NDT. A. 1st copy of release note.
B. frequency of SSI. B. 1st copy of rejection note.
C. the damage tolerance retaining. C. 3rd copy of rejection note.
D. all of the above. D. Both a and b are correct.

585. An AME school shall submit to the DGCA for 593. CAR series 'F' part I refers to
approval of A. procedures relating to registration of aircraft.
A. a training manual. B. procedures relating to registration of microlight
B. a school organisation manual. aircraft.
C. quality control manual. C. procedures relating to registration of balloon.
D. Both a and b are correct. D. All are correct.

586. The chief instructor or his deputy shall keep the 594. IAR 30 empowers the Govt. of India
records of A. to register an aircraft in India.
A. progress records in respect of all students attending B. to import an aircraft in India.
ab-initio courses. C. to fly aircraft in India.
B. progress records in respect of all students attending D. to maintain an aircraft in India.
ab-initio courses of more than two months duration.
C. progress records in respect of all students attending 595. Rule 5 of the aircraft rules requires than no
ab-initio courses of any duration. person shall fly any aircraft unless
D. Both a and b are correct. A. it has been registered.
B. it bears nationality & registration.
587. Examination papers of an approved training C. it bears name & address of the owner.
school shall be preserved for a period of D. All are correct.
A. three months from the date of examination.
B. six months from the date of examination. 596. The nationality and registration mark should be
C. nine months from the date of examination. affixed on the aircraft in accordance with aircraft rule
D. twelve months from the date of examination. A. 37.
B. 30.
588. For any change in course material prior C. 35.
permission of D. 33.
A. DGCA is must.
B. RAO is must. 597. Registration of the aircraft by the DGCA
C. Controller/director of that region is must. A. is for the purpose of controlling the safety of
D. Both b and c are correct. aviation in India.
B. is for establishing the legal ownership of an
589. Instructors who are employed full time on aircraft.
instructional duties relating to specific types of C. Both a and b are correct.
aircraft/engine/equipment shall have job experience of D. None is correct.
A. not less than 100 hrs in a year (2 months).
B. not less than 200 hrs in a year (4 months). 598. An aircraft in India is registered in
C. not less than 500 hrs in a year (6 months). A. Three categories.
D. not less than 1000 hrs in a year (1 year). B. Two categories.
40
C. One category only. 606. For issue of a duplicate certificate of registration
D. Four cateries. the owner has to apply to
A. RAO.
599. Aircraft registered in category 'B' is B. DGCA.
A. owned by a citizen of India. C. DAI.
B. by a company or corporation registered. D. All of the above.
C. by a company whose chairman and at least two
thirds of directors are citizens of India. 607. When C of R of Indian registered aircraft is lost,
D. None of them is correct. for issuance of a duplicate C or R the owner has apply
600. An aircraft registered in category 'B' is owned by along with
A. a person residing/resident in or carrying on
business in India without citizenship. A. mutilated C of A.
B. a person resident/residing in or carrying on B. photostat copy of C or R.
business in India without citizenship. C. original C of A.
C. citizen of India. D. the prescribed fees.
D. a foreign national.
608. A register of all civil aircraft registered in India
601. Application for registration of aircraft is given in is maintained at
A. CA 23. A. Ministry of Civil Aviation.
B. CA 23A. B. DGCA.
C. CA 28. C. HAL.
D. CA 28 (appendix A). D. All of them are correct.

602. Certificate of registration is valid for 609. The nationality mark of all Indian registered
A. one year. aircraft are
B. six months. A. E.I.
C. two years. B. I.O.
D. None of the above. C. A.V.U.
D. V.T.
603. When an aircraft is solid to another person or
company or ceases to be owned by the owner 610. The size and method of affixing the registration
indicated on its certificate of registration its marking is given in
registration is deemed to have been cancelled in A. CAR series F part II.
accordance with B. CAR series F part III.
A. rule 30. C. car SERIES X part I.
B. rule 28. D. None of the above.
C. rule 28 (appendix A).
D. rule 33. 611. Procedure for issue/revalidation of type
certificate of aircraft and its Engines/propeller is
604. When a person buys an old aircraft already contained in
registered in India then the certificate of registration A. CAR series E part II.
must be accompanied by B. CAR series E part III.
A. the previous certificate of registration duly C. CAR series F part II.
endorsed on the reverse by the old owner. D. CAR series F part III.
B. an affidavit duly authenticated by notary
public/oath commissioner from the owner confirming 612. Aircraft rule 49 empowers
his ownership. A. the DGCA to revalidate C of A.
C. an affidavit indicating that he has sold the aircraft B. the DGCA to issue C of A.
to the new owner and has received the sale proceeds C. the DGCA to issue type certificate for aircraft.
in the full. D. All are correct.
D. All are correct.
613. DGCA issues type certificate to engine/propeller
605. Temporary certificate of registration is valid manufactured in India under the purview of aircraft
A. for one month. rules
B. for one week. A. 49A.
C. until the first landing at a custom aerodrome in B. 49B.
India. C. 49C.
D. until the validity of the C of A. D. 49.

41
614. Application for issue/revalidation of type B. to discuss specific design/manufacturing issues
certificate for aircraft is to be submitted in the form as with the airworthiness authority of the country of
in manufacturer.
A. IAR 49. C. Both a and b are correct.
B. IAR 49 c Annexure II. D. Both a and b are not correct.
C. CAR series F part II annexure U.
D. CAR series F part II Annexure II. 622. DGCA has to revalidate the type certificate of
imported aircraft
615. Application for revalidation of type certificate of A. just as it is.
rotor craft is submitted in the form as per the B. it can modify it.
A. CAR series F part I annexure I. C. it can impose special condition for safe operation
B. CAR series F part I annexure II. of aircraft in India.
C. CAR series F part II annexure II. D. it cannot modify it.
D. CAR series F part II annexure I.
623. Prior to carrying out the test to substantiate the
616. For revalidation of type certificate of an imported design the manufacturer shall submit to DGCA
light and transport aircraft the DGCA confirms that A. test flight report of the aircraft.
the aircraft meets with the requirements of B. test flight schedule of scrutiny and approval.
A. FAR 23 & 25. C. test schedule of scrutiny and approval.
B. BCAR 23 & JAR 25. D. None of the above is correct.
C. FAR 27 & 29.
D. Both a and b are correct. 624. The certification of aircraft/aircraft component
manufactured in India shall be done by approved
617. Type certificate of a rotor craft imported in India authorised person as per
can be revalidated by the DGCA if its design and A. aircraft rule 53.
construction confirms with the B. aircraft rule 53A.
A. FAR 23 & 25. C. aircraft rule 53B.
B. BCAR 23 & JAR 25. D. aircraft rule 53C.
C. FAR 27 & 29.
D. BCAR 27 & 29. 625. All relevant inspection records concerning
manufacture of the aircraft shall be preserved for a
618. An aero engine manufactured outside India can period of
be type certificated by the DGCA if it confirms to A. 1 year.
A. FAR 33. B. 2 years.
B. JAR 33. C. 5 years.
C. FAR 30. D. 10 years.
D. Both a and c are correct.
626. The test flight of a newly manufactured aircraft
619. DGCA revalidates the type certificate in respect shall be carried out as in accordance with
of engine/propeller under the purview of A. form CA 57.
A. Aircraft rule 49. B. form CA 56.
B. Aircraft rule 49A. C. approved manufacturer test flight schedule.
C. Aircraft rule 49B. D. test flight schedule approved by the DGCA.
D. Aircraft rule 49C.
627. For incorporating any modification in type
620. For revalidation of type certificate of the aircraft certification of aircraft/aircraft component
imported to India which of the following document is A. approval of DGCA is must.
not required B. written approval of manufacturer is must.
A. type-certificate. C. approval of QCM/CEM is must.
B. type-design datasheet. D. All are correct.
C. the basis on ETOPS certification if applicable.
D. Quality Control & Maintenance system manual. 628. A major modification is one
A. which has no appreciable effect on the weight and
621. Before revalidation of type certificate DGCA balance.
may visit the country of manufacturer B. which has no appreciable effect on the structural
A. to discuss specific design/manufacturing issues strength.
with the representative of the manufacturer. C. which has appreciable effect on the reliability and
operational characteristic affecting the airworthiness
of the aircraft/aircraft component.
42
D. None of them is correct. 636. When an AME licence has remained lapsed for a
period of more than one year but less than two years,
629. A minor modification is one his licence can be renewed after
A. which has appreciable effect on the weight and A. an oral check by the RAO.
balance. B. AME has appeared in the specific paper I.e. paper
B. which has appreciable effect on the structural IV.
strength. C. a warning to the AME.
C. which has appreciable effect on the flight D. All are correct.
characteristic of aircraft/aircraft component.
D. None of them is correct. 637. AME's shall submit their licence for renewal at
least
630. Designs submitted for type approval shall bear A. 7 days before expiring.
A. description title & drawing number. B. 15 days before expiring.
B. description title and date of issue. C. 30 days before expiring.
C. description title, issue number and date of issue. D. None is correct.
D. Both a and c are correct.
638. If an AME submits his licence between 15 days
631. A person holding open rating endorsement on his to 30 days after expiry
AME licence can exercise his privileges A. it will be renewed with a warning to AME.
A. straight way on a new aircraft. B. it will be renewed from the date of receipt.
B. after familiarising himself with the new aircraft for C. it will be renewed from the date of last validity.
a minimum period of six months. D. None is correct.
C. after familiarising himself with the new aircraft for
a minimum period of three months. 639. The licence of Indian AME's working aboard
D. after familiarising himself with the new aircraft for will be renewed
a minimum period of one month. A. by the airworthiness authority of the country where
they are working.
632. For renewal of AME licence the applicant has to B. by the airworthiness authority of the country where
apply on form they are working in consultation with the DGCA hqrs.
A. CA 29. C. by any authority acceptable to ICAO.
B. CA 29 (revised). D. by the DGCA Hqrs.
C. CA 68 B.
D. CA 68 A. 640. BAMEC is issued when a candidate passes
A. Paper I, II of AME licence exam.
633. AME's licence will be renewed only if in the B. Paper I, II, III of AME licence exam.
preceding 24 months he has been engaged in C. Paper I, II, III, IV of AME licence exam.
aeronautical engineering duties for a period of D. All are correct.
A. 24 months.
B. 18 months. 641. BAMEC is issued under the provision of
C. 12 months. A. CAR series L part VIII.
D. 6 months. B. CAR series L part VII.
C. CAR series L part VI.
634. Which of the following AME's will be D. CAR series L part V.
considered to be employed in AME activity and will
be considered for renewal of their licences 642. BAMEC is issued in
A. refuelling operation of approved aircraft fuel A. four categories.
vendors. B. five categories.
B. as a member of flying crew. C. six categories.
C. approved organisation stocking aircraft D. seven categories.
components.
D. All of the above. 643. The candidate for issuance of BAMEC must be
of
635. An AME to keep his licence valid will have to A. 17 years.
submit a medical certificate B. 18 years.
A. every 6 months. C. 20 years.
B. every 12 months. D. 21 years.
C. every 24 months.
D. it depends on the age of AME.

43
644. Application for grant of Authorisation to an B. triplicate, one copy to person, one copy to RAO
AME/approved person is forwarded to and one coyp to DGCA.
A. QCM. C. only single copy.
B. RAO/Sub-RAO. D. All are correct.
C. DGCA.
D. Chief Engineer. 652. Approval is valid for
A. 3 months.
645. An AME proposed for authorisation should be B. 6 months.
A. holder of current AME licence in relevant C. 12 months.
category. D. 24 months.
B. employed with the organisation on a full-time
basis. 653. Flight Engineer Examiners are appointed as per
C. having at least 3 months practical experience on rule
similar type of aircraft /engine /equipment etc. A. 41A, sub-rule to of IAR 1937.
D. All are correct. B. 61A, sub-rule to of IAR 1937.
C. CAR series L part V.
646. If authorisation is wanted for an aircraft having D. CAR series L part VI.
all AUW exceeding 5700 kg then the AME must
A. possess licence in category B. 654. A person appointed as Check Flight Engineer
B. possess at least 6 months practical experience on must have held a
similar type of aircraft. A. current F.E's licence for a minimum period of three
C. pass a familiatisation course on the aircraft with at years and at least 2000 hours flight experience as FE.
least 70% marks in the examination. B. Current F.E's licence for a minimum period of
D. All are correct. three years and at least 3000 hours flight experience
as FE.
647. Authorisation will not be issued to a person C. current F.E's licence for a minimum period of two
A. failing in the examination for issue of licence in years and at least 2000 hours flight experience as FE.
which the subject of authorisation is covered. D. None is correct.
B. being considered blameworthy in any investigation
of defect. 655. Flight Engineer Examiner should have at least
C. being considered blameworthy in any investigation 500 hours flight experience of which not less than
of accident by the DGCA during the preceding 6 A. 100 hours should be during six months preceding
months. the date of application.
D. All are correct. B. 100 hours should be during 12 months preceding
the date of application.
648. The validity of an authorisation may be extended C. 50 hours should be during 12 months preceding the
to a maximum period of date of application.
A. twleve months. D. 50 hours should be during six months preceding
B. six months. the date of application.
C. three months.
D. one month. 656. Flight Engineer Examiner appointment is valid
for
649. For grant of approval to certify overhaul the A. 24 months.
candidate should be of B. 12 months.
A. 17 years. C. 6 months.
B. 18 years. D. None is correct.
C. 20 years.
D. 21 years. 657. A Flight Engineer Examiner's appointment may
be renewed subject to the condition that he has
650. For grant of approvl a candidate must be A. 50 hours of flight experience as FE in preceding 6
A. 20 years of age. months.
B. at least a matriculate. B. 25 hours of flight experience as FE in preceding 6
C. Holding BAMEC in relevant category. months.
D. All are correct. C. 20 hours of flight experience as FE in preceding 6
months.
651. Approval is granted in D. 10 hours of flight experience as FE in preceding 6
A. duplicate, one copy to person and one copy to months.
RAO.
658. A Check Flight Engineer should be sponsored by
44
A. an approved organisation. A. 70%.
B. air transport operator. B. 80%.
C. Central Govt. Organisation. C. 90%.
D. State Govt. Organisation. D. None is correct.

659. In order to seek approved welder's certificate, 667. Re-examination in GETS can be held after 15
apart from other requirements the candidate is days break within
required to submit A. 30 days from the date of completion of the main
A. two different test pieces, as per DGCA course.
requirements. B. 45 days from the date of completion of the main
B. three different test pieces, as per FAA course.
requirements. C. 60 days from the date of completion of the main
C. three different test pieces, as per CAR series L part course.
VI. D. 90 days from the date of completion of the main
D. two one test piece, as per CAR series L part VI. course.

660. Welder's approval is issued 668. Candidate under GETS will have to repeat main
A. materialwise. course if he
B. processwise. A. fails to secure 80% marks in aggregate in main
C. material and processwise. course.
D. material and jointwise. B. fails in any one phase with less than 60% marks in
the main course.
661. Unpressurised aircraft operating at altitude C. fail in the tandem course.
between 620mb to 700 mb for more than thirty D. All are correct.
minutes of flight should be provided with
A. adequate supply of oxygen for crew plus 10% pax. 669. GETS candidate fails in three oral-cum-
B. all crew and passengers are to be provided with practicual examinations, he again undergoes a
sufficient oxygen. refresher course and will be again eligible for
C. only pilot and co-pilot are to be provided with A. three oral-cum-practical examinations.
oxygen. B. two oral-cum-practical examinations.
D. None is correct. C. only one oral-cum-practical examination.
D. None is correct.
662. Engineers undergoing training under GETS shall
have 670. If a GETS candidate fails in oral-cum-practical
A. degree in engineering. test again after taking the refresher course
B. P.G degree in engineering. A. he will get two more chances to appear in oral-
C. P.G degree in electronics. cum-practical test.
D. All are correct. B. he will get one more chance to appear in oral-cum-
practical test.
663. GETS is eligible to appear for paper I of C. he will have to take the main course again.
AME/BAMEC examination after the completion of D. All are correct.
A. 6 months of training.
B. 12 months of training. 671. The pass marks in refresher course of GETS is
C. 18 months of training. A. 70% in each phase and 80% in aggregate.
D. 24 months of training. B. 60% in each phase and 80% in aggregate.
C. 60% in each phase and 70% in aggregate.
664. GETS at present is run by D. 80% in each phase and 90% in aggregate.
A. Pawan Hans Ltd. 672. When an AME licence is lost by the holder
B. Indian Airlines & Air India. (other than act of God) then for a duplicate licence
C. Both a & b are correct. A. he has to pay no fees.
D. The passing marks in GETS is. B. he has to pay only half fees.
C. he has to submit FIR, of the lost licence.
665. The passing marks in GETS is D. Both b and c are correct.
A. 70% in each and 80% in aggregate.
B. 60% in each and 70% in aggregate. 673. An AME will have to pay no fees for issuance of
C. 80% in each and 90% in aggregate. a duplicate AME licence if
D. None is correct. A. the licence is more than 25 years old.
B. the licence is more than 20 years old.
666. Pass marks in GETS re-examination is C. the licence is more than 10 years old.
45
D. the licence is more than 5 years old. D. All are correct.

674. Mandatory modification/inspection is issued 682. A consolidated list of all


under the purview of aircraft rule mandatory/modifications /inspections of aircraft
A. 49A. engines and equipment are compiled and distributed
B. 49B. by
C. 49D. A. DGCA.
D. 51A. B. RAO.
C. manufacturer.
675. Mandatory modifications/inspections are carried D. approved organisation.
out in accordance with aircraft rule
A. 49A. 683. C of A will not be renewed if it is observed than
B. 49D. A. any modification is due on aircraft.
C. 50A. B. only mandatory modification is due on aircraft
D. 50D. component.
C. any inspection is due on item of equipment.
676. Aircraft rule 52 D. All are correct.
A. lays down the acceptable standards for
modification/repair. 684. CAR series 'O' part I deals with minimum
B. provides for incorporation of modification in requirements to be compiled with by operator engaged
aircraft. in
C. requires modification/inspection to be carried out A. schedule operator.
in aircraft. B. non-schedule operator.
D. All are correct. C. private aircraft.
D. All are correct.
677. Mandatory modifications/inspections prescribe
the mandatory action required for 685. Aircraft rule 140 requires than all aircraft
A. continued safe operation of the aircraft. owners/operators shall comply with
B. continued airworthiness of aircraft. A. the engineering requirements as specified by the
C. keeping the C of A valid. DGCA.
D. All are correct. B. the maintenance requirements as specified by the
DGCA.
678. Airworthiness directive means an instruction C. the safety requirements as specified by the DGCA.
issued by an airworthiness authority D. All are correct.
A. which amends an approved document.
B. which requires a modification. 686. List of components with approved overhaul lives
C. to keep aircraft, aircraft components in an is given in
airworthy condition. A. quality control manual.
D. All are correct. B. maintenance system manual.
C. engineering organisation manual.
679. Mandatory modifications and inspections are D. All are correct.
promulgated by
A. the manufacturer of the aircraft. 687. Single engined aircraft with retractable
B. the DGCA. undercarriage shall not be used in
C. the airworthiness authority. A. schedule, VFR operation.
D. the airworthiness authority of the country of B. non-schedule VFR operation.
manufacturer of aircraft. C. non-schedule night operation.
D. All are correct.
680. DGCA will declare only those service
bulletins/instructions as mandatory in respect of those 688. A multi-engined aircraft when loaded to the
A. whom DGCA thinks so. maximum gross weight shall be capable of
B. are issued in red colour. maintaining level flight with one engine inoperative at
C. in respect of which AD's are issued. an altitude of not less than
D. None of the above. A. 2000 feet above the valley level at the highest point
on the airroute.
681. DGCA will declare all modifications issued by B. 1000 feet above the valley level at the highest point
A. DGCA as mandatory. on the airroute.
B. FAA as mandatory. C. 3000 feet above the water.
C. CAA as mandatory. D. Both a and c are correct.
46
689. Operation manual is not a necessary requirement D. from ILS system.
of
A. non-schedule operator. 697. The required number of aircrew on a licensed air
B. schedule operator. transport service is found in aircraft
C. flying training aircraft. A. flight manual.
D. private aircraft. B. C of A.
C. C or R.
690. The maximum flight time and flight duty periods D. Both a and b are correct.
of flight crew members is contained in
A. quality control manual. 698. All pilots shall demonstrate to an examiner
B. maintenance system manual. approved by the DGCA that they are familiar
C. operation manual. A. with its loading.
D. All are correct. B. with ATC system.
C. a and b are correct.
691. The maximum flight altitude for each route as D. None is correct.
required for scheduled operations forms a part of
A. operation manual. 699. The first pilot of an airlines shall have made at
B. route guide. least
C. flight manual. A. one flight as first pilot along the route over which
D. All are correct. he is required to fly in VFR condition.
B. two flights as first pilot along the route over which
692. Operation manual contains he is required to fly in VFR conditions.
A. the procedure for refuelling the aircraft. C. three flights as first pilot along the route over
B. the condition under which oxygen shall be used. which he is required to fly VFR conditions.
C. a list of navigational equipment to be carried. D. as in (a) also in IFR condition.
D. All are correct.
700. All pilots while engaged on a licensed air
693. Information which will enable the pilot in transport service shall undergo a local proficiency
command to determine whether the flight may be check
continued should any instrument have become A. once a year.
inoperative is in B. once in two years.
A. flight manual. C. twice a year.
B. emergency check list. D. None is correct.
C. operation manual.
D. all are correct. 701. Proficiency check of licenced air transport
service pilots shall be carried out at an interval of
694. In the event of conflict between the contents of A. not less than 4 months and not more than 8 months.
flight crew operation manual and airplane flight B. not less than 3 months and not more than 6 months.
manual then precedence will be given to C. not less than 6 months and not more than 8 months.
A. operation manual. D. not less than 3 months and not more than 8 months.
B. flight manual.
C. flight crew operation manual. 702. Instruments rating check of a pilot is carried out
D. any one can be accepted. A. every year.
B. every two years.
695. For operation of single engined aircraft there C. twice a year.
shall be an emergency landing ground at intervals of D. every six months.
not more than
A. 150 miles. 703. The IR check of a pilot carried out by an
B. 260 miles. approved check pilot includes
C. 150 km. A. let down procedure applicable to the aerodrome in
D. 260 km. use.
B. recovery from spins.
696. When an aircraft is landing under INE, it shall be C. recovery from loops.
provided with a radio equipment capable of receiving D. All are correct.
signals
A. from VOR station. 704. During an IR check the pilot carries out 180
B. from ATC transponder. degree turns with 30 degree bank to port and starboard
C. providing guidance to a point from which visual variation in height shall not exceed
landing can be effected. A. 100 feet.
47
B. 150 feet. A. 60 cm.
C. 200 feet. B. 50 cm.
D. 300 feet. C. 20 cm.
D. 30 cm.
705. The expected climbed performance shall be
obtained from 713. The width of each letter of (except letter I) and
A. flight manual. the length of hyphens shall be
B. operations manual. A. two-third of the height of the letter.
C. pilot's notes. B. three-fourth of the height of the letter.
D. All are correct. C. three-eighth of the height of the letter.
D. one-half of the height of the letter.
706. The observed actual climb performance (in terms
of feet per minute) shall in no case be lower by more 714. The thickness of the lines of letters of
than registration marking shall be
A. 2% of the 'expected climbed performance'. A. one-eighth of the height of letter.
B. 3% of the 'expected climbed performance'. B. one-eighth of the width of letter.
C. 5% of the 'expected climbed performance'. C. one-sixth of the height of letter.
D. 7% of the 'expected climbed performance'. D. one-sixth of the width of letter.

707. ROC correction factor graph for constant speed 715. The separation between the letter of registration
propellers is available in marking shall not be less than
A. CAR series C part I. A. one-quarter of letters length.
B. CAR series C part II. B. one-quarter of letters width.
C. CAR series T part I. C. one-third of letters length.
D. CAR series T part II. D. one-third of letters width.

708. The varaiables of ROC graphs as given in CAR 716. The separation between the letters of registration
series T part II are marking shall not be less than
A. pressure altitude (in metres), temp (degree F). A. one-quarter of letters height.
B. pressure altitude (in feet), temp (degree C). B. one-third of letters height.
C. pressure altitude (in feet), temp (degree F) and rate C. two-third of letters height.
of climb factor. D. one-sixth of letters height.
D. pressure altitude (in metres), temp (degree F) and
rate of climb factor. 717. Weight and balance control of aircraft is dealt in
A. IAR 58.
709. The nationality and registration marks of an B. IAR 56.
airship appears C. IAR 49.
A. on the fuselage and wing. D. None is correct.
B. on the hull.
C. on the fuselage and stabilizer. 718. Aircraft weight schedule shall include
D. on the fuselage and vertical fin. A. type of engine.
B. type of aircraft.
C. registration marking of aircraft.
710. The registration marking on the aircraft shall D. Both b and c are correct.
appear
A. on the right half of the lower surface of the wing. 719. During weighing of aircraft the equipment
B. on the left half of the lower surface of the wing. installed are
C. as in (a) and on the fuselage. A. oil should be full.
D. as in (b) and on the fuselage. B. hydraulic fluid should be full.
C. all instruments should be installed.
711. The height of registration marks on an aircraft D. all are correct.
shall be at least
A. 60 cm. 720. The aircraft shall be weighed in the presence of
B. 50 cm. A. chief engineer.
C. 22 inches. B. QCM.
D. 50 inches. C. representative of RAO.
D. All are correct.
712. The height of registration marks on the aircraft
fuselage shall be at least
48
721. The weight schedule of an aircraft shall be B. two first aid kits and one physician kit.
retained C. three first aid kits and one physician kit.
A. for 10 years. D. one first aid kit only.
B. for 5 years.
C. for 2 years. 730. Physician's kit is must for all aircraft with a
D. till it is replaced by a fresh schedule. seating capacity of more than
A. 150.
722. The calculated C.G. position for 'take off & land B. 100.
before take off are computed for C. 60.
A. aerial work aircraft. D. 20.
B. private aricraft.
C. public transport aircraft. 731. To check on the aircraft that the first aid kits are
D. All are correct. intact and properly sealed is the respnosibility of
A. QCM.
723. The 'load sheets' of a schedule operator shall B. Pilot in command.
preserved for a period of C. AME.
A. one month from the date of issue. D. M.B.B.S. doctor.
B. six months from the date of issue.
C. one year from the date of issue. 732. The contents of the first aid kit of a public
D. two years from the date of issue. transport aircraft shall be examined by medical officer
once in
724. Mark the wrong statement A. 6 months.
A. During loading it must be ensured that the aircraft B. 12 months.
cabin floor loading limitation are not exceeded. C. 18 months.
B. The load must be securely tight. D. 24 months.
C. The load must be placed behind the passengers the
cabin. 733. The contents of the first aid kit of training
D. The load tying ropes must be of sufficient strength aircraft shall be examined by medical oficer once in
to withstand the loads imposed on it in flight. A. 6 months.
B. 12 months.
725. The first aid kit container shall be C. 18 months.
A. of steel. D. 24 months.
B. of aluminium alloy.
C. moisture and dust proof. 734. the training of the crew members of public
D. All are correct. transport aircraft engaged in schedule and non-
schedule services in application of first aid is
726. The words 'FIRST AID KIT' on first aid kit box undertaken by
shall by at least A. owner/operator.
A. 1 inch high. B. RAO.
B. 3/2 inches high. C. DGCA.
C. 2 inches high. D. Director of Air Safety.
D. 5/2 inches high.
735. Contents of the physician's kit shall be certified
727. First aid kit whenever used shall be replenished by
and certified by a A. Chief Medical Officer.
A. private medical practitioner. B. Medical Officer incharge.
B. Govt. medical practitioner. C. medical practitioner.
C. any medical practitioner. D. medical practitioner with at least M.B.B.S. degree.
D. any medical practitioner holding M.B.B.S. degree.
736. Details of furnishing materials used in aircraft
728. The drugs contained in the physician's kit are are contained in
intended to be administered only by A. CAR series F part IV.
A. an air hostess. B. CAR series X part IV.
B. PIC. C. FAR part 25.
C. Co-pilot. D. Both b and c are correct.
D. medical practitioner.
729. All aircraft with passenger-carrying capacity of 737. Furnishing material used on normal category
50 shall be equipped with aircraft for carrying passengers and havign AUW as
A. one first aid kit and one physician kit. 15000 kg or above shall be
49
A. self-extinguishing. D. as long as the log books are kept.
B. at least flame-resistant.
C. flame resistant. 746. Aircraft log books are made under the pursuance
D. Both a and c are correct. of
A. IAR 67.
738. Furnishing material used on private aircraft shall B. IAR 68.
be C. IAR 57.
A. self-extinguishing. D. None is correct.
B. at least flame-resistant.
C. flame resistant. 747. The number of different log books requirement
D. None is correct. for an aircraft as stated in CAR series X-part VI are
A. three.
739. Resistant to fire (as given in appendix F to FAR B. four.
25 part II) aircraft seats shall be installed in all aircraft C. five.
A. above 15,000 kg AUW. D. six.
B. above 5,700 kg AUW.
C. above 3,000 kg AUW. 748. DGCA shall issue
D. above 2,000 kg AUW. A. JLB.
B. Engine log book.
740. Concession means C. Airframe log book.
A. a permission by the DGCA for free flight. D. All are correct.
B. a permission by the DGCA to use a limited
quantity or material not in conformity with that 749. Detailed record of replacements, major repair &
approved by manufacturer. overhaul of aircraft component or system is entered in
C. a permission by the DGCA to rebuild an aircraft. the
D. Both b and c are correct. A. first section of the log book.
B. second section of the log book.
741. Requrest from grant of 'concessions' for use of C. third section of the log book.
material, effecting major modification is submitted to D. third section of the JLB.
A. DGCA.
B. RAO. 750. The third section of the airframe log book will
C. DGCA and RAO. contain
D. DAW. A. routine inspection records.
B. modification records.
742. Concession form is submitted to the RAO in C. replacement records.
A. duplicate. D. overhaul records.
B. triplicate.
C. quadruplicate. 751. The first section of journey log book contains
D. None is correct. A. routine inspection records.
B. minor repair records.
743. Concession application for carrying out minor C. major repair records.
repairs to aircraft secondary structure is submitted to D. None is correct.
A. QCM.
B. DGCA. 752. In accordance with CAR flight is recorded as
C. RAO. A. chock to chock.
D. DAW. B. take-off to touch down.
744. DGCA's prior approval is not required if a major C. take-off to touch down may be adopted after
repair is carried out strictly in conformity with the obtaining approval from RAO.
standard aeronautical practice spelt out in D. All are correct.
A. AC 43.13 manual, CAIP.
B. Civil Aircraft Inspection Procedures of CAA (UK). 753. When a component having its own log book is
C. BCAR 43, CAA 43, JAR 21. removed from aircraft, the reason for removal should
D. None is correct. be entered in
A. the component relevant log book.
745. An approved copy of concession form is B. flight log book and aircraft log book.
preserved by the applicant for C. aircraft log book.
A. 10 years. D. Both a and c are correct.
B. 2 years.
C. 2 years after the aircraft is withdrawn form use.
50
754. When an engine is changed, the hours flown, the 762. 'Group B' documents carried on board an India
serial members and part numbers as appropriate of registered aircraft is/are
'lifed' parts, which are not changed with the engine A. FRC.
should be entered in B. Flight Manual.
A. the relevant log book. C. C or R.
B. the log book of the replacement engine. D. All are correct.
C. as in (b) and also in aircraft log book.
D. as in (c) and also in JLB. 763. The documents as required in group A and group
B shall be carried on board all aircraft
755. When a pilot carries out an inspection schedule A. at all times.
of below 25 hours its entries will be made in the B. with AUW below 5700 kg.
A. JLB and signed by the pilot. C. with AUW below 15,000 kg.
B. flight log book & JLB and signed by the pilot. D. None is correct.
C. relevant log book and signed by an appropriately
licenced AME. 764. An aircraft which does not leave the vicinity of
D. relevant log book and signed by the pilot. its starting place and returns without landing
elsewhere to its starting place, needs to carry
756. Log books carried on board an aircraft are A. only documents, of group A.
A. JLB. B. only documents, of group B.
B. JLB, flight log book, aircraft log book. C. documents of group A and group B.
C. working copies of airframe and engine log books. D. None is correct.
D. Both a and c are correct.
765. Passenger safety information briefing card is
757. When an aircraft meets with an accident and is carried on
damaged beyond repair, then the A. all aircraft of 15,000 kg AUW or above.
A. aircraft log book is preserved for 2 years. B. all aircraft of 5,700 kg AUW or above.
B. engine log book is preserved for 2 years. C. all passenger aircraft of 15,000 kg AUW or above.
C. propeller log book is preserved for 2 years. D. all passenger aircraft of 5,700 kg AUW or above.
D. All are correct.
766. Application for type approval has to be submitted
758. Log book other than aircraft, engine & propeller in form
log book are preserved for A. as per annexure I of IAR 49A.
A. two years after the aircraft is withdrawn from use. B. as per annexure I of IAR 49.
B. ten years after the aircraft is withdrawn from use. C. as per annexure I of CAR series F part I.
C. ten years. D. as per annexure I of CAR series X part IX.
D. ten years from the date of last entry.
767. Application for type approval is submitted to
759. When aircraft engine log book is not kept in the A. DGCA.
manner and form as prescribed in aircraft rule 67 B. DGCA (via RAO).
A. the C of A will cease to be valid. C. DGCA (atten : Director of Aeronatucial
B. the C of A will be cancelled. Inspection).
C. the C or R will be cancelled. D. DGCA (Atten : Director of Airworthiness).
D. the FRC will be cancelled.
768. Application for type approval is submitted in
760. Valid documents are carried on board an India A. duplicate.
registered aircraft in accordance with B. triplicate.
A. CAR series X part VII. C. quadruplicate.
B. CAR series X part VII IAR 7. D. None is correct.
C. CAR series X part VII IAR 57.
D. CAR series X part VII IAR 67. 769. Applicant for type approval shall submit
A. C of A.
761. 'Group A' documents carried on board an India B. C of R.
registered aircraft are/is C. a complete list of drawing.
A. C or R. D. All are correct.
B. C of A.
C. FRC. 770. Along with the application for type approval the
D. All are correct. applicant should submit
A. C of A no of the aircraft.
B. nationality and registration marking of the aircraft.
51
C. endurance (based on operational experience). C. lays down the procedure of obtaining Indian
D. All are correct. certificate of airworthiness.
D. lays down the procedure of obtaining certificate of
771. If at any time the DGCA feels that the safety of airworthiness.
aircraft is jeopardised it can
A. cancel or suspend a type certificate. 778. For issuing of C of A the DGCA has to satisfy
B. endorse a type certificate. that the aircraft/rotor craft manufactured/imported
C. incorporate a modification in type certificate. meets the approved airworthiness standards of
D. All of them are correct. A. BCAR 23 & JAR 25.
B. FAR 23 & FAR 25.
772. For type certification of aircraft as per CAR C. FAR 27 & FAR 29.
series F part II annexure I D. All are correct.
A. three unmounted photographs of the aircraft have
to be submitted : size (10x15) cm. 779. C of A aircraft which do not fulfill the
B. three unmounted photographs of the aircraft have airworthiness standards as laid down by the DGCA
to be submitted: size not less than (10x15) cm. A. cannot be issued/renewed.
C. five unmounted photographs of the aircraft have to B. the operator may consult the DGCA (DAW) before
be submitted : size (10x15) cm. buying/importing such aircraft so that acceptance
D. five unmounted photographs of the aircraft have to standards is conveyed to him.
be submitted: size not less than (10x15) cm. C. both a and b are correct.
D. none of them is correct.
773. For obtaining type certificate of an aircraft the
manufacturer has to submit the following dimension 780. Application for obtaining C of A is to be
to the DGCA submitted in form
A. length of fuselage. A. CA 23 (Appendix A ).
B. length over all, height over all. B. CA 23A.
C. a and b are correct. C. CA 25 (Appendix A).
D. None is correct. D. CA 25.

774. For obtaining type certificate of a rotor craft the 781. For issuance of C of A the owner/operator shall
manufacturer has to submit the following dimension supply free of cost
to the DGCA A. original log books along with record of
A. length of fuselage. modification with a certificate from the Chief of
B. overall length. Inspection that no modification/airworthiness
C. diameter of main rotor and tail rotor, main rotor directive/inspection is pending.
blade chord. B. two sets of type certificate.
D. All are correct. C. two sets of MMEL.
D. all are correct.
775. Aircraft rule 50 empowers the
A. Govt. of India to issue/renew C of A. 782. In case any deficiency is noticed during
B. RAO to renew/revalidate c of A. inspection by airworthiness officer for issuance of C
C. DGCA to issue/revalidate C of A. of A
D. Both b and c are correct. A. the owner will be informed and he will be
responsible for making up all the deficiencies pointed
776. All aircraft registered in India must possess a out.
current and valid C of A before it is flown is a B. C of A will not be issued.
requirement as per C. the owner may be asked to carry out any
A. Aircraft rules 50. modification/airworthiness directives which is
B. Aircraft rules 30. considered essential for the safety of the aircraft.
C. Aircraft rules 15. D. both a and c are correct.
D. Aircraft rules 50 A.
783. For issuance of C of A partially filld Indian C of
A will be forwarded by the DGCA
777. CAR series 'F' part III A. to the manufacturer for completion.
A. lays down the procedure for obtaining certificate of B. to the owner/operator for completion.
registration. C. to the RAO/Sub-RAO for completion.
B. lays down the procedure for obtaining Indian D. All are correct.
certificate of registration.
784. Validity of C of A is
52
A. for one year. B. in special category.
B. for six months. C. in specific sub-division (s) certificated.
C. restricted in case it is found necessary in the D. None is correct.
interest of safety of aircraft.
D. Both a and b are correct. 793. Private aircraft means
A. all aircraft other than aerial work aircraft or public
785. C of A validity of imported aircraft is transport aircraft.
A. for one year. B. shall not be used for hire or reward.
B. for six months. C. shall not be used of any kind of remuneration.
C. the validity period shall begin from the date of D. All are correct.
issue of original export C of A.
D. both a and c are correct. 794. A state Govt. aircraft certificated in normal
category sub-division shall be a
786. Validity of C of A A. passenger aircraft.
A. is for one year. B. private aircraft.
B. is restricted in case it is found necessary in the C. research aircraft.
interest of safety of aircraft. D. racing aircraft.
C. shall begin from the date of issue of original export
C of A. 795. Research aircraft is a subdivision of
D. both a and c are correct. A. normal category.
B. aerobatic category.
787. Short-term C of A is issued for C. special category.
A. un-airworthy aircraft. D. experimental category.
B. aircraft imported from outside the country under
Indian registration marking. 796. Racing aircraft is a subdivision of
C. aircraft imported from outside the country under A. normal category.
foreign registration marking. B. aerobatic category.
D. aircraft having service life of less than one year. C. experimental category.
D. special category.
788. The DGCA may refuse a C of A to an aircraft if
A. he feels so. 797. Aircraft certificated in normal category shall not
B. required data are not made available. be used in
C. reasonable apprehension exists regarding its A. special category.
airworthiness. B. aerobatic category.
D. both b and c are correct. C. private category.
D. All are correct.
789. Documents which must accompany the
application for the issue of C of A are/is 798. Aircraft certificated in aerobatic category
A. form CA 83. A. may be used in special category.
B. form CA 84. B. may be used in normal category.
C. documents as required vide AME notice no 2 of C. may be used for experimental work.
1969. D. may be used for racing.
D. All of the above.
799. Limit load factors for structures of aircraft
790. The three general categories of aircraft are classified in normal category are between
A. normal, special, aerobatic. A. +2.5g & +3.8g & -1g & -1.5g.
B. passenger, mail, goods. B. +4.5g & +6g & -1.76g & -3g.
C. aerial, private, agricultural. C. +3.5g & +5g & -1.5g & -3g.
D. passenger, normal, special. D. +2.5g & +3.8g & -1.76g & -3g.

791. Normal category aircraft are 800. Limit load factors for structures of aircraft
A. passenger, mail. classified in aerobatic category are between
B. goods, aerial. A. +2.5g & +3.8g & -1g & -1.5g.
C. private, passenger. B. +4.5g & +6g & -1.76g & -3g.
D. All are correct. C. +3.5g & +5g & -1.5g & -3g.
D. +2.5g & +3.8g & -1.76g & -3g.
792. Aircraft certificated in normal category can be
used
A. in all sub-divisions.
53
801. Aircraft and other aeronautical products to be 809. Engine/propellers imported in India must
eligible for export to India must meet the accompany
requirements of A. export C of A.
A. FAR 15. B. airworthiness approval tag.
B. FAR 26. C. compliance with FAR 21 (sub part L).
C. FAR AD (87-01-40). D. both a and c are correct.
D. FAR 21.
810. Reconditioned/used/surplus parts must be
802. Class II & Class III aeronautical products for certified as per
export to India should be accompanied by
A. export C of A. A. FAR part 145.
B. airworthiness approval tag. B. FAR part 65.
C. airworthiness approval tag issued under part 21 of C. FAR part 43.
FAA. D. All are correct.
D. None of the above.
811. Requirement for renewal of C of A is contained
803. Class I aeronautical products for export to India in
should be accompanied by A. CAR series 'F' part IV.
A. export C of A. B. CAR series 'F' part III.
B. airworthiness approval tag. C. aircraft rule 5.
C. airworthiness approval tag issued under part 21 of D. both b and c are correct.
FAA.
D. None of the above. 812. Validity of C of A can be extended for
A. 3% of flight hours.
804. Complete aircraft comes under B. 10% of calendar period.
A. class I aeronautical product. C. no extension is granted.
B. class II aeronautical product. D. both a and b are correct.
C. class III aeronautical product.
D. class IV aeronautical product. 813. Application of renewal of C of A should be made
preferably
805. An aircraft which is being exported to India via A. 10 days in advance of expiry of C of A.
flyway should B. 15 days in advance of expiry of C of A.
A. display Indian nationality and registration marking. C. 7 days in advance of expiry of C of A.
B. display foreign nationality and registration D. none is correct.
marking.
C. have ferry flight authorisation. 814. In case of the C of A of the aircraft has expired
D. Both a and b are correct. then fcr renewal
A. the quantum of work required has to be decided by
806. Displaying of nationality and registration oficer incharge RAO.
marking upon the aircraft prior to being imported to B. the quantum of work required has to be dcided by
India is the responsibility of operator/QCM.
A. exporter of the aircraft. C. the quantum of work required has to be decided by
B. importer of the aircraft. manufacturer.
C. DGCA. D. None of the above.
D. FAA.
815. For renewal of C of A the operator has to submit
807. 'Noise standards' acceptable in India for issuance to RAO
of Indian C of A are A. All log books.
A. same as required for issuance of US C of A. B. JLB.
B. same as required for issuance of UK C of A. C. Procedure sheets cf past one year.
C. same as required for issuance of CAA C of A. D. All the above.
D. same as required in JAR 21.
816. For renewal of C of A the operator has to submit
808. Class II & III aeronautical products imported in to RAO
India must accompany A. C of A, C of R.
A. airworthiness approval tag. B. WT license.
B. compliance with FAR 21 (sub part R). C. Both a and b are correct.
C. compliance with FAR 21 (sub part P). D. None is correct.
D. compliance with FAR 20 (sub part L).
54
817. Renewal of certificate of airworthiness of Indian A. will start from the date of inspection.
registered aircraft abroad B. will start from the expiry of last C of A.
A. cannot be carried out and should be avoided. C. will start from the date of submitting the
B. can be carried out with full justification of such application.
exigencies to the DGCA. D. All are correct.
C. C of A will be renewed in the normal manner.
D. Both b and c are correct. 825. Application for renewal of C of A is submitted
on
818. C of A shall cease to be valid if A. form CA 25.
A. approved inspection schedule is completed when B. Appendix to form CA 25.
due. C. Appendix to CAR series 'F' part III.
B. 'lifted' components are replaced on expiry of D. Appendix to CAR series 'F' part IV.
stipulated lives.
C. unapproved repairs/modifications are carried out. 826. Suspended C of A will be revalidated
D. All are correct. A. only upto the date the previous currency of the C
of A had remained valid, if it had not been suspended.
819. If mandatory modifications are not carried out as B. for another one year.
and when called for C. cannot be revalidated.
A. the C of R will cease to be valid. D. None is correct.
B. the C of A will cease to be valid.
C. the WT license will cease to be valid. 827. Aircraft rules 55(1)
D. All are correct. A. provides for automatic suspension of C of A.
B. empowers the DGCA to suspend C of A.
820. Aircraft with AUW of 15000 kg and above are C. empowers the DGCA to cancel C of A.
required to be maintained by D. All are correct.
A. individual AMEs.
B. airlines. 828. DGCA can suspend or cancel the C of A of an
C. approved organisation. aircraft under the purview of
D. All are correct. A. Aircraft rules 55.
B. Aircraft rules 55 (1).
821. Aircraft with AUW below 5700 can be C. Aircraft rules 55 (2).
maintained by D. Aircraft rules 55A.
A. individual AMEs.
B. approved organisation. 829. Suspension of C of A is dealt in
C. authorised personnel of approved organisation. A. CAR series F part II.
D. All are correct. B. CAR series F part IV.
C. CAR series F part III.
822. Certificate of maintenance review in case of D. CAR series F part V.
aircraft with AUW of 15000 kg and above is issued
by 830. The certification of airworthiness of an aircraft
A. DGCA. shall be deemed to be suspended if
B. RAO. A. it is modified or repaired otherwise then in
C. QCM. accordance with approved procedure.
D. All are correct. B. suffers major damage.
C. develops a major defect.
823. Certificate of maintenance review in case of D. All are correct.
aircraft with AUW of 15000 kg and below is issued
by 831. Certification by AME 'R' for flight release of
A. individual AMEs. private aircraft may not be necessary if ground
B. AME having his license endorsed in cat 'B' to facilities are not available till
cover the type of aircraft involved. A. inspection associated with next flight certfication.
C. AME having his license endorsed in cat 'D' to B. next 100 hrs schedule.
cover the type of engine involved. C. align with any schedule within 50 hours.
D. Both b and c are correct. D. Any one of the above.

824. If the airworthiness officer completes the final 832. OAT gauge is a must
inspection of the aircraft and its document after the A. on all aircraft intended for flying.
expiry of the C of A then the validity of the next B. on aircraft undertaking night flying on VFR.
currency of C of A
55
C. on aircraft fitted with engine with carburettor air B. 300 kg.
temp. control but without carburettor air temperature C. 350 kg.
gauge. D. 450 kg.
D. Both a and b are correct.
842. All airworthy mcrolight aircraft should possess a
833. A two-way communication system and A. valid certificate of airworthiness.
navigation equipment are essential B. valid certificate of safety.
A. when an aircraft is flying under IFR. C. valid permit to fly.
B. when an aircraft is flying through controlled air D. All the above.
space.
C. suplemented with appropriate ground facilities. 843. The registration markings assigned to the
D. comprehensively all above. microlight aircraft shall be painted
A. on the lower surface of the wings.
834. CAR series L part I deals with B. also on each side of fuselage.
A. issue of AME licences. C. or on the upper half of the vertical fin.
B. classification of AME licences. D. All are correct.
C. experience requirements for issue of AME
licences. 844. A permanent placard should be affixed on the
D. Comprehensively all above. microlight aircraft in full view of the occupants
stating that
835. Aircraft rule 61 lays down the A. valid for day flying only.
A. minimum qualification for issue of AME licence. B. the aircraft has not been certificated for cloud
B. minimum experience for issue of AME licence. flying.
C. Both a and b are correct. C. the aircraft has not been certificated to
D. None is correct. international requirements.
D. All the above are correct.
836. Light aircraft means an aircraft
A. with AUW below 5700 kg. 845. Permit to fly is valid for
B. with AUW below 15000 kg. A. six months.
C. with AUW below 30000 kg. B. nine months.
D. None is correct. C. one year.
D. two years.
837. Heavy aircraft means an aircraft
A. with AUW of 5700 kg and above. 846. In respect of microlight aircraft a pilot can carry
B. with AUW of 15000 kg and above. out the pre flight and all inspections up to
C. with AUW of 3000 kg and above. A. 5 hours.
D. None is correct. B. 10 hours.
C. 20 hours.
838. Registration and airworthiness of Microlight D. 25 hours.
aircraft is contained in
A. CAR series F part XIV. 847. Only appropriately licensed AME can perform
B. CAR series F part XV. any schedule higher than
C. IAR 62. A. 10 hours in case of microlight aircraft.
D. IAR 62 B. B. 15 hours in case of microlight aircraft.
C. 20 hours in case of microlight aircraft.
839. Microlight aircraft includes D. 25 hours in case of microlight aircraft.
A. hang gliders.
B. powered hang gliders. 848. All columns of microlight aircraft log book
C. light aircraft. should be filled by
D. None is correct. A. an AME and signed by him.
B. an appropriately licensed AME.
840. Microlight aircraft means C. QCM and signed by him.
A. a single seater or two seater aircraft. D. the pilot and signed by him.
B. a fixed wing aircraft.
C. wing area not less than 10 sq meters. 849. A microlight aircraft shall not be flown over the
D. all are correct. entire air space over the territory of
A. Delhi.
841. Maximum AUM of a microlight aircraft is B. Jammu and Kashmir.
A. 250 kg. C. Tamilnadu.
56
D. Punjab. 859. The identification plate of balloon shows
A. registration markings.
850. A microlight aircraft shall not be flown over the B. constructor's name.
areas falling within C. balloon's serial number.
A. 10 km from international border. D. All the above.
B. 20 km from international border.
C. 25 km from international border. 860. Flight release for a balloon has to be issued carry
D. 50 km from international border. A. 24 hours.
B. 36 hours.
851. The restricted flying areas are notified by the C. 48 hours.
A. DGCA in consultation with the Home Ministry. D. seven days.
B. Defence Ministry.
C. Both a and b are correct. 861. A pilot can carry out inspection schedules up to
D. None of the above. A. 5 hours in case of balloons.
B. 10 hours in case of balloons.
852. Application for permit to fly for microlight C. 15 hours in case of balloons.
aircraft is submitted on D. 25 hours in case of balloons.
A. from CA 28.
B. appendix to CAR series F part II.
C. annex I to CAR series F part XIV. 862. Only an AME can carry out any inspection
D. from CA 182. schedule higher than
853. Requirement for manufacture registration and A. 10 hours in case of ballons.
airworthiness control of hot air balloons is contained B. 15 hours in case of ballons.
in C. 25 hours in case of ballons.
A. IAR 62. D. 50 hours in case of ballons.
B. IAR 15.
C. CAR series F part XIV. 863. Procedure/worksheet pertaining to balloon shall
D. CAR series F part XV. be preserved for at least
A. two years after completion of work.
854. Ballon means B. five years after completion of work.
A. a power-driven lighter than aircraft. C. ten years after completion of work.
B. a non power-driven lighter than aircraft. D. None of the above is correct.
C. a non power-driven heavier than aircraft.
D. a power-driven heavier than aircraft. 864. Records/worksheet pertaining to 'lifed'
components of balloons shall be preserved for
855. Envelope means the enclosure A. one year.
A. in which the lifting medium is contained. B. two years.
B. in which balloon is contained. C. five years.
C. which is used to accommodate balloon occupants. D. ten years.
D. which is used to cover the balloon.
865. All-India registered balloon must carry on board
856. 'Basket' of balloon means A. certificate of registration.
A. the container suspended beneath the envelope. B. certificate of airworthiness.
B. the container suspended beneath the balloon. C. cockpit and emergency check list in laminated
C. basket used for the balloon occupants. form.
D. Both a and c are correct. D. All the above are correct.

857. A hot air balloon used for personal flying a pilot 866. The operating of the balloon flight will only be
A. must have a permit to fly. undertaken during
B. must have a type certificate. A. day time under VFR condition.
C. need not have a type certificate. B. past noon session.
D. Both a and b are correct. C. pre noon session.
D. between sunrise to sunset.
858. All manned free balloons are required to be
registered as per 867. In general a flight manual contains
A. CAR series F part XV. A. three sections.
B. CAR series X part XV. B. four sections.
C. CAR series X part I. C. five section.
D. CAR series F part I. D. six sections.
57
868. Guidance for the preparation of flight manual is A. with aircraft in level flight altitude drawn the fuel
given in system from the lowest point in the supply line.
A. ICAO airworthiness technical manual Part III B. thereafter measure the quantity of residual fuel in
section (9) chapter II. each tank.
B. ICAO airworthiness technical manual Part II C. then additional at least 5 litres of fuel per main
section (9) chapter III. tank shall be added to arrive at the zero datum for the
C. ICAO airworthiness technical manual Part 9 fuel quantity gauge.
section III chapter II. D. All are correct.
D. ICAO airworthiness technical manual Part II
section III chapter 9. 876. The fuel gauges shall be calibrated with zero
datum at
869. If an approved flight manual is not ammended A. five litres.
up-to-date B. ten litres.
A. the C of A will be valid. C. zero litres.
B. the C of A would cease to be valid. D. unusable fuel.
C. the C or R would cease to be valid.
D. Both b and c are correct. 877. A fuel quantity gauge is calibrated
A. at every C of A.
870. All amendment incorporated in the flight manual B. at the time of installation.
of an imported aircraft shall be intimated to C. at the nearest major check.
A. RAO. D. All are correct.
B. sub-RAO.
C. DGCA. 878. A properly calibrated dip stick is carried on
D. Both a and b are correct. board
A. all aircraft.
871. Which aircraft rule prohibits use of component B. all light aircraft and helicopters.
items of equipments from being modified, repaired, C. all helicopters.
replaced, inspected or overhauled except by an D. all heavy aircraft.
approved person of contracting state whose approval
is recognised by the DGCA 879. Aircraft fuelling procedure is laid down in
A. Rule 60. A. CAR series H part II.
B. Rule 61. B. CAR series H part I.
C. Rule 56. C. IAR 25 A.
D. Rule 51. D. Both a and c are correct.

872. Normally no parts should be used from the parts 880. Fuelling zone is regarded as the area extending
pooled beyond A. 25 metres radially from the aircraft fuelling point.
A. 25 hours of operation. B. 15 metres radially from the aircraft fuelling point.
B. 50 hours of operation. C. 10 metres radially from the aircraft fuelling point.
C. 100 hours of operation. D. 06 metres radially from the aircraft fuelling point.
D. 200 hours of operation.
881. As a general guide the fuelling place should be at
873. The quantity of unusable fuel in most cases is least
included in the appropriate A. 30 metres from the hangar.
A. flight manual. B. 25 metres from the hangar.
B. QCM. C. 20 metres from the hangar.
C. cockpit check list. D. 15 metres from the hangar.
D. emergency check list.
882. The aircraft shall not be fuelled within
874. CAR series 'H' Part I deals with A. 30 metres of radar equipment in use.
A. unusable fuel supply. B. 25 metres of radar equipment in use.
B. calibration of fuel quantity gauge of aircraft. C. 20 metres of radar equipment in use.
C. calibration of fuel quantity gauge of helicopter. D. 15 metres of radar equipment in use.
D. All are correct.
883. The fuel quantity should be delivered in terms of
875. Light aircraft for which the unusable fuel data is A. density.
not available the procedure recommended to B. kg.
determine, is C. tonnes.
D. volume.
58
884. Exhaust of the refuelling vehicle shall not pass persons shall be evacuated from the effected area to a
over the place at least
A. fuelling hose. A. 6 metres from the spillage.
B. intake hose. B. 15 metres from the spillage.
C. both a and b is correct. C. 30 metres from the spillage.
D. none is correct. D. 43 metres from the spillage.

885. Whenever wing fuelling is employed the nozzle 892. Aircraft instruments shall be overhauled and
of the hose shall be bonded inspected in accordance with the requirement of
A. to the fuelling equipment. A. CAR series I part I.
B. to the fuelling equipment before filler capt is B. CAR series I part II.
removed. C. CAR series I part III.
C. to the aircraft structure before filler capt is D. All the above are correct.
removed.
D. None is correct. 893. Instruments shall be inspected prior to
installation to insure that
886. Fuelling operation shall cease when a turbo prop A. the instruments are approved for the type of
jet aircraft manoeuvres so as to bring the rear jet aircraft.
outlets within B. the range of the dial marking is adequate to reflect
A. 50 metres of the aircraft. correct operation of the aircraft power plant or
B. 43 metres of the fuelling equipment. equipment and to precisely indicate the appropriate
C. 30 m,etres of the aircraft. operating limitation.
D. 33 metres of the aircraft fuelling equipment. C. the range of any coloured sector marked on
instrument dials corresponds with the ranges specified
887. Vehicles moving in the danger zone shall be in the aircraft flight manual or aircraft/engine
fitted with manufacturer manual as applicable.
A. spark arrestors. D. All are correct.
B. flame traps.
C. fire extinguishers. 894. Aircraft magnetic compasses shall be calibrated
D. both a and b are correct. and compensated
A. at the time of initial installation of a compass.
888. No photographic flash bulbs and electronic flash B. as specified in operator's MS manual.
equipment shall be permitted to be used within C. after installation of a new electrical system.
A. 5 metres of fuelling equipment. D. All are correct.
B. 6 metres of fuelling equipment.
C. 15 metres of fuelling equipment. 895. Flame resistant material as per CAR Series X
D. 30 metres of fuelling equipment. part IV
A. is not susceptible to combustion to the point of
889. Fixed wing aircraft with a seating capacity of propagating a flame after ignition source is removed.
less than 20 shall B. susceptible to combustion or to the point of
A. be permitted to be refuelled with passengers on smouldering.
board. C. which will not catch fire at all.
B. not be permitted to be refuelled with passengers on D. which will not ignite fire to any material.
board.
C. be permitted to be refuelled with QCM consent. 896. The test flight is not necessary for an engine
D. None of them correct. change in an aircraft
A. having 4 engines.
890. Fixed wing aircraft with a seating capacity of B. having 2 engines.
less than 20 shall C. having single engine.
A. be permitted to be refuelled with passengers on D. only C above is wrong.
board.
B. not be permitted to be refuelled with passengers on 897. On a two-engine aircraft, a test flight after an
board. engine change is
C. be permitted to be refuelled with QCM consent. A. mandatory.
D. None of them correct. B. not mandatory.
C. mandatory for aircraft above 5700 kg AUW.
891. In case of fuel spillage during fuelling operation D. mandatory for aircraft above 15,000 kg AUW.
covering an area greater than 5 square metres, then all

59
898. A fire-proof metal plate is affixed on the aircraft 905. Jet aircraft allowed to be imported into India by
to indicate DGCA for air-taxi operations/charter hire for public
A. C of A number and its date of issue. transport shall not
B. name of manufacturer and date of manufacturer. A. have completed 50,000 pressurization cycles.
C. name and address of registered owner, registration B. have completed 45,000 pressurization cycles.
mark. C. have completed 30,000 pressurization cycles.
D. smoking is permitted. D. have completed 40,000 pressurization cycles.

899. Regarding the log books, mark the correct 906. DGCA would not allow any aircraft to be
statement: imported for operation if it is more than
A. In engine log book repairs are entered in section- A. 50 years old.
III. B. 25 years old.
B. In propeller log book, major repairs are entered in C. 20 years old.
section-2. D. 15 years old.
C. Log book entry must be made within 24 hours.
D. Component log book must be preserved for six 907. Turbo-prop aircraft allowed to be imported into
months after permanent withdrawal of component. India by DGCA for air taxi operation for public
transport shall not be
900. Aircraft having AUW less than 15000 kg should A. more than 20 years in age.
have seats upholstery, harness, belts etc. are made of B. more than 15 years in age.
A. self-extinguishing materials. C. more than 10 years in age.
B. flame resistance materials. D. None is correct.
C. no smoking type materials.
D. flame proof materials. 908. Turbo-prop aircraft allowed to be imported into
India by DGCA for air taxi operation for public
901. Validity or C of A in case of imported aircraft transport shall not have
shall A. completed 50,000 pressurization cycles.
A. be six months. B. completed 45,000 pressurization cycles.
B. be one year. C. completed 40,000 pressurization cycles.
C. begin from the date of issue of Indian C of A. D. completed 30,000 pressurization cycles.
D. begin from the date of issue of original export of C
of A and will normally be for a period of one year. 909. For the import of tools/equipments required for
maintenance/testing etc. of imported aircraft the
902. Validity of C of A would remain continuous importer
A. if the inspection is carried out more than one A. should contact FAA.
month in advance of the expiry date. B. should contact CAA.
B. if the inspection is carried out not more than 15 C. should contact DGCA.
days in advance of the expiry date. D. should obtain No Objection Certificate from
C. if the inspection is carried out not more than 7 days DGCA.
in advance of the expiry date.
D. if the inspection is carried out not more than 30 910. For the export of aircraft spares/items of
days in advance of the expiry date. equipment to be overhauled abroad in certain
exigencies the operator shall
903. If an aircraft makes a series of take-offs on the A. obtain a No Objection Certificate from DGCA.
same day, the pre-flight inspection may be carried out B. contact the aircraft manufacturer.
A. before each take-off. C. contact the airworthiness authority of place of
B. after every three take-offs. manufacturer.
C. once before the first flight of the day. D. Both b and c are correct.
D. None is correct.
911. Fuel in delivery hoses should be recirculated if
904. Jet aircraft allowed to be imported into India for no fuel has been dispensed from on in relation for a
air taxi operations/charter hire for public transport period of
shall not A. 7 days.
A. be more than 15 years in age. B. 3 days.
B. be more than 10 years in age. C. 2 days.
C. be more than 12 years in age. D. 24 hours.
D. None is correct.
912. All refuelling tanks shall be cleaned
A. once in two years.
60
B. once a year. 921. Fuel taken out of fuel bulk storage and aircraft
C. once in six months. fuelling vehicle for checking the state of fuel should
D. every month. be at least
A. 5 gallons.
913. All-lined tank should be inspected for lining B. 3.5 to 4.5 gallons.
defects and internally inspected for cleanliness C. 0.75 to 1 gallon.
A. every five years. D. None is correct.
B. every three years.
C. every two years. 922. Master gauges for checking fuel samples shall be
D. every year. calibrated once in
A. 10 years.
914. Fuelling vehicles should be purged of water and B. 5 years.
sediments C. 2 years.
A. once in three days. D. once a year.
B. once in two days.
C. every day. 923. Primary Indicator colour for AVGAS pipeline is
D. every week. A. Red.
B. Black.
915. Hose and protection filters of 100 mesh gauze C. Violet.
should be inspected D. Yellow.
A. every day.
B. every week. 924. Primary Indicator colour for Jet A-1 pipeline is
C. every fortnight. A. Red.
D. every month. B. Black.
C. Violet.
916. Water sampling extraction pits should be D. Yellow.
checked for water
A. daily. 925. Tank bottom sample of ATF shall be tested for
B. weekly. microbiological growth
C. monthly. A. once in two years.
D. yearly. B. once in 18 months.
C. once in a year.
917. Barrelled AVGAS is fit for use in aircraft if it is D. once in 6 months.
stored for a period less than
A. 12 months. 926. Aviation delivery hoses shall confirm to
B. 9 months. A. I.S./BS/API Specifications.
C. 6 months. B. IS/BS/DGCA Specifications.
D. 3 months. C. IS/DAW/BS Specifications.
D. IS/BS/DAW Specifications.
918. Barelled ATF is fit for use in aircraft if it is
stored for a period of less than 927. Deliveries of AVGAS from the vehicles should
A. 12 months. be made through a micrfilter with a nominal rating of
B. 9 months. A. 20 microns.
C. 6 months. B. 15 microns.
D. 3 months. C. 10 microns.
D. 5 microns.
919. AVGAS should be dispensed direct into aircraft
tanks only through 928. Vehicles delivering aviation turbine fuels should
A. 100 mesh gauze. be fitted with a microfilter or a filter separator monitor
B. 150 mesh gauze. with a nominal rating of
C. 180 mesh gauze. A. 20 microns.
D. 200 mesh gauze. B. 15 microns.
C. 10 microns.
920. Fuel is assessed as unsatisfactory for use in D. 5 microns.
aircraft if a sample shows
A. Globules of water. 929. A hand glider if unpowered weighs less than
B. Cloudiness. A. 300 kgs (AUW).
C. more than a trace of sediment. B. 250 kgs (AUW).
D. All are correct. C. 200 kgs (AUW).
61
D. 150 kgs (AUW). A. pilot incharge.
B. AME.
930. A single-seater powered hang glider weighs less C. person authorized by the DGCA.
than D. None is correct.
A. 375 kgs (AUW).
B. 300 kgs (AUW). 939. Hang glider must be equipped with
C. 275 Kgs (AUW). A. Altimeter, ASI, rpm gauge.
D. 150 Kgs (AUW). B. Altimeter, ASI, rpm gauge, ELT.
C. Altimeter, ASI & ELT.
931. A double seater powered hang glider weighs less D. ASI & ELT.
than
A. 375 Kgs (AUW). 940. The examiner/instructor for hang glider must be
B. 300 Kgs (AUW). approved by DGCA and shall have
C. 275 Kgs (AUW). A. 50 hrs of hang glider.
D. 150 Kgs (AUW). B. 25 hrs of hang glider.
C. 10 hrs of hang glider.
932. A powered hang glider at full power in level D. 25 hrs of hang glider and at least 10 hours on dual
flight should not be capable of more than machine.
A. 100 knots calibrated air speed.
B. 90 knots calibrated air speed. 941. Reweighing of Aircraft of AUW more than 2999
C. 80 knots calibrated air speed. kg shall be done
D. 70 knots calibrated air speed. A. every 5 years.
B. every 3 years.
933. Hang glider shall have a power-off stall speed C. every 2 years.
not exceeding D. every year.
A. 50 knots calibrated air speed.
B. 40 knots calibrated air speed. 942. The first aid kit container shall be of
C. 30 knots calibrated air speed. A. white background with red cross.
D. 25 knots calibrated air speed. B. red background with white cross.
C. green background with white cross.
934. All hang gliders before flight must possess a D. white background with green cross.
A. Valid c of A.
B. permit to fly. 943. Standard weight for CREW for load calculation
C. Both a and b are correct. in civil registered aircraft is taken as
D. None is correct. A. 85 kgs.
B. 75 kgs.
935. All hang gliders must possess C. 70 kgs.
A. Valid C of A. D. 65 kgs.
B. permit to fly.
C. C or R. 944. Standard weight for PASSENGER for load
D. Both b and c are correct. calculation in civil registered aircraft is taken as
A. 85 kgs.
936. Validity of permit to fly for hang glider is B. 75 kgs.
A. one year. C. 70 kgs.
B. six months. D. 65 kgs.
C. three months.
D. None is correct. 945. Standard weight for CHILDREN for load
calculation in civil registered aircraft is taken as
937. Higher than 50 hours inspection schedules and A. 50 kgs.
overhaul of powered hang glider engine and its B. 40 kgs.
components shall be carried out by C. 35 kgs.
A. pilots. D. 30 kgs.
B. AMES.
C. persons authorized by the DGCA. 946. Standard weight for INFANTS for load
D. None is correct. calculation in civil registered aircraft is taken as
A. 30 kgs.
938. Pre-flight inspection and inspection schedule B. 20 kgs.
upto 50 hours on powered hang glider is carried out C. 15 kgs.
by D. 10 kgs.
62
947. The second copy of load and trip sheet shall be 954. Glider is a
kept by the operator for a period of A. aircraft.
A. 5 years. B. airship.
B. 2 years. C. aerodyne.
C. 1 years. D. All are correct.
D. 6 months.
955. According to IAR 1937 aerial work Aircraft
948. Electromagnetic Interference whether conducted means an aircraft used for
or radiated can be categorized by A. an industrial or commercial purpose or any other
A. band width. remunerative purpose.
B. amplitude behaviour. B. as in (a) is not used for public transport.
C. waveform and occurrence. C. as in (a) also used for public transport.
D. All are correct. D. All are correct.

949. The occurrence of electromagnetic interference 956. 'Aerodrome' means any difinite or limited
can be categorized as A. ground or water are intended to be used either
A. periodic & random. wholly or in part for the landing or departing of
B. periodic & aperiodic. aircraft.
C. periodic & instant. B. as in (a) and includes all buildings & sheds.
D. Both a and b are correct. C. as in (b) and also includes vessels, piers and other
structures.
950. Global Positioning Systems (GPS) act as D. None is correct.
A. navigation equipment.
B. an aid to navigation. 957. An aircraft whose support in flight is derived
C. communication equipment. dynamically from the reaction on surfaces in motion
D. radar system. relative to the air is called
A. aerodyne.
951. An AME trainee clears paper I, II, III on HS 748 B. aeroplane.
aircraft of AME's licence examination. The operator C. gyroplane.
will consider him for grant of approval only after D. aerostat.
A. he clears the BAMEC in category 'PA'.
B. he has successfully completed a specific training 958. An aricraft supported in the air statically and
subsequent to obtaining of the BAMEC from the includes all airships and balloons is termed as
DGCA and adjugded fit for approval. A. aerodyne.
C. he has proved himself fit for approval before a B. aerostat.
board chaired by QCM. C. gyrostat.
D. None is correct. D. None of them.

952. In the event of an aircraft involved in an accident 959. Any machines which can derive support in the
required to be notified under aircraft rules 68 of the atmosphere from reaction of the air other than
aircraft rule 1937 reactions of the air against the earth surface is called
A. pilot in command of the effected aircraft can A. aeroplane.
always exercise the privilege of his pilot's licence as B. aircraft.
long as it is valid. C. aerostat.
B. co-pilot can always exercise the privilege of his D. aerodyne.
licence if he is permitted by the aircraft operator.
C. pilot in command and co-pilot can exercise the 960. A power driven heavier-than-air aircraft,
privilege of their licence only after obtaining special deriving its lift in flight chiefly from aerodynamic
authorisation from the DGCA. reactions on surfaces which remain fixed under given
D. None is correct. conditions of flight is termed as
A. aerodyne.
953. Aircraft should be flight tested B. aerostat.
A. at the time of C of A. C. aeroplane.
B. subsequent to maintenance repair or modification D. aircraft.
which effects operational or flight characteristic of the
aircraft. 961. A powe driven lighter-than-aircraft is a
C. on three engine aircraft, if two engines are changed A. airship.
a test flight shall be carried out. B. flying machines.
D. All are correct. C. aerostat.
63
D. All are correct. 970. Arms and ammunitions can be carried by air only
with the special permission of
962. An aeroplane capable of taking off from and A. director of Civil Aviation Security.
alighting on either land or a soled platform or water is B. commissioner of Airport Security.
called a C. DGCA.
A. seaplane. D. All are correct.
B. gyroplane.
C. hydroplane. 971. No alcoholic drink shall be consumed by the
D. amphibian. operating crew members
A. 6 hours before the commencement of the flight.
963. Kite is an B. 8 hours before the commencement of the flight.
A. aerodyne. C. 10 hours before the commencement of the flight.
B. aircraft. D. 12 hours before the commencement of the flight.
C. Both a and b are correct.
D. aerostat. 972. No animals/reptiles shall be carried by air
without permission from
964. Balloon is A. a doctor, authorised for it.
A. aerostat. B. NAA.
B. aerodyne. C. DGCA under rule 34-A.
C. kite. D. DGCA under rule 24-C.
D. All are correct.
973. Minimum age for solo control of aeroplane is
965. 'Contracting state' means any state which is for A. 16 years.
the time being a party to B. 17 years.
A. a convention on International Civil Aviation C. 18 years.
concluded at Chicago on December 7, 1944. D. 21 years.
B. a suit on International Civil Aviation concluded at
Chicago on December 7 1944. 974. Minimum age for solo control of glider is
C. an agreement on Indian Civil Aviation concluded A. 16 years.
at New York on December 7 1944. B. 17 years.
D. an agreement on Indian Civil Aviation concluded C. 18 years.
at Delhi on December 7, 1944. D. 21 years.

966. Convention means 975. Minimum age of issue of CPL is


A. the convention relating to ICAO. A. 16 years.
B. the convention relating to air safety. B. 17 years.
C. the convention relating to air traffic. C. 18 years.
D. the convention relating to International air safety. D. 21 years.

967. 'Dangerous goods' means 976. No paper containing printed matter shall be
A. explosive. dropped from aircraft unless written permission of
B. non-explosive. A. District Magistrate is obtained.
C. any good which is likely to endanger the safety of B. Commissioner of Police is obtained.
aircraft or person or thing on board the aircraft. C. Director Air Safety is obtained.
D. All are correct. D. Both a and b are correct.

968. Flying machine/s may be 977. For aircraft having a seating capacity of not less
A. helicopter. than 10 and not more than 50 passengers the number
B. aeroplane. of cabin attendents required are
C. gyroplane. A. one.
D. All are correct. B. two.
C. three.
969. State aircraft includes D. four.
A. military aircraft.
B. State Government aircraft. 978. contracting state as per aircraft rules means any
C. Central Government aircraft. state
D. All are correct. A. that has signed a bilateral agreement with a nother
state.

64
B. contracted for any particular condition for carriage D. None is correct.
of passengers.
C. which is for the time being a party to convention of 987. Slaughtering of animal is prohibited within
the ICAO. A. 5 km of aeroplane reference point.
D. which is for the time being a party to ICAO. B. a radius of 8 km of aerodrome.
C. a radius of 10 km of aerodrome reference point.
979. Aircraft rule 62 deals with D. a radius of 5 km of aerodrome reference point.
A. fee payable for all licence exams of DGCA.
B. fee payable for AME licence exams of DGCA. 988. Period of validity of aerodrome licence is
C. fee payable for renewaql of AME licence exam. A. one year.
D. Both b and c are correct. B. two years.
C. five years.
980. Aircraft 69 refers to D. ten years.
A. notification of accidents.
B. report on accidents. 989. Route guide contains
C. removed and preservation of damaged aricraft. A. communication facilities, navigation aids available
D. Both a and b are correct. on the route to be flown.
B. meterological minima for each of the aerodromes
981. When an accident occurs it has to be notified by to be flown.
the PIC/operator/owner to the C. instruments let down procedure for aerodrome on
A. DGCA. route.
B. District Magistrate. D. as in a.b.c and specific instruments for computation
C. DM & officer-in-charge of the nearest police of the quantities of fuel and oil to be carrie don board.
station.
D. as in (c) and (a). 990. An applicant for Assistant Flight Instructor rating
shall be of atleast
982. Information of accident to DGCA shall be made A. 19 years.
within B. 20 years.
A. an hour of occurrence. C. 21 years.
B. 12 hours of occurrence. D. 25 years.
C. 24 hours of occurrence.
D. 48 hours of occurrence. 991. Air traffic control service means a service
provided for purpose of
983. Initial accident information to DGCA shall A. signalling aircraft.
contain B. preventing collisions between aircraft.
A. nationality and registration marks of the aircraft. C. manoeuvring and obstruction.
B. the region in which the aircraft is based. D. All are correct.
C. cause of accident.
D. all are correct. 992. Cruising level means level maintained during
A. descent.
984. Passenger and crew's personal luggage shall be B. ascent.
removed from a wrecked aircraft under the C. straight and level flight.
supervision of D. significant portion of a flight.
A. a magistrate.
B. an officer of police department. 993. Area over which flight by aircraft is prohibited, is
C. an officer of CAD. A. the area included within in a radius of 1 km from
D. All are correct. the tower of silence on Malabar Hills, Bombay.
B. the area included within in a radius of 2 km from
985. Mails from a wrecked aircraft shall be removed the tower of silence on Malabar Hills, Bombay.
under the supervision of C. the area included within in a radius of 1 mile from
A. a magistrate. the tower of silence on Malabar Hills, Bombay.
B. an officer of CAD. D. the area included within in a radius of 2 mile from
C. an officer of post and telegraph department. the tower of silence on Malabar Hills, Bombay.
D. All are correct.
994. Student for issuance of student pilot licence shall
986. Investigation of accident is carried out in pass
A. one way. A. a written examination in air regulation aircraft and
B. two ways. engine aviation meteorology.
C. three ways.
65
B. a written examination in air regulation aircraft and B. 70 degrees with the plane of symmtry of the latter.
engine aviation meteorology air navigation. C. 80 degrees with the plane of symmtry of the latter.
C. an oral examination in air regualtion aircraft and D. 90 degrees with the plane of symmtry of the latter.
engine aviation meteorology.
D. an oral examination in air regulation aircraft and 1002. When two or more heavier than aircraft are
engine aviation meteorology and air navigation. approaching an airport for the purpose of landing
A. aircraft at higher altitude shall land first.
995. An applicant for issuance of private pilot licence B. aircraft at lower altitude shall land first.
shall produce evidence of having flown C. aircraft at higher altitude shall give way to aircraft
A. 15 hours solo. at the lower altitude.
B. 20 hours solo. D. aircraft at lower altitude shall give way to aircraft
C. 25 hours solo. at the higher altitude.
D. 30 hours solo.
1003. Aerobatic in aircraft shall be carried out at a
996. Cross country flight for issuance of PPL licence height of at least
may be a flight to a point beyond A. 500 m above the ground.
A. 10 nm from the aerodrome of departure. B. 600 m above the ground.
B. 20 nm from the aerodrome of departure. C. 1000 m above the ground.
C. 30 nm from the aerodrome of departure. D. 2000 m above the ground.
D. 40 nm from the aerodrome of departure.
1004. VFR flight within a control zone shall not be
997. An applicant for issuance of private pilot must conducted if the ground visibility is less than
have at least A. 3 kms.
A. one full stop landing at a suitable aerodrome, other B. 5 kms.
than the aerodrom of departure. C. 8 kms.
B. two full stop landing at a suitable aerodrome, other D. 10 kms.
than the aerodrom of departure.
C. three full stop landing at a suitable aerodrome, 1005. VFR flight within a control zone shall not be
other than the aerodrom of departure. conducted if the ceiling is less than
D. four full stop landing at a suitable aerodrome, other A. 200 m.
than the aerodrom of departure. B. 300 m.
C. 500 m.
998. The validity of PPL is D. 1000 m.
A. 12 months from the date of issue.
B. 24 months from the date of issue. 1006. Which of the signal means that grave and
C. 12 months from the date of issue for person below imminent danger threatens and immediate assistance
38 years of age. is requested
D. 12 months from the date of issue for person above A. a parachute flare showing red light.
38 years of age. B. a signal sent by radio telegraphy saying
"MAYDAY".
999. Night rating is valid only when the licence holder C. rocket or shells throwing red light.
has carried out 5 take-off and 5 landing by night as D. All are correct.
pilot in command within the
A. preceding 3 months. 1007. The two flag signals corresponding to the letter
B. preceding 6 months. NC of the international code of signal means
C. preceding 9 months. A. urgency signal.
D. preceding 12 months. B. assistance signal.
C. distress signal.
1000. When two aircraft are approaching head on or D. All are correct.
approximately so that there is a danger of collision
A. each shall alter its heading to the right. 1008. Which of the following is an urgency signal?
B. each shall alter its heading to the left. A. Repeated switching on and off of the landing light.
C. one shall dive and other shall climb. B. Repeated switching on and off of the navigation
D. all are correct. light.
C. a succession of white pyrotechnical light.
1001. an overtaking aircraft is a aircraft that D. all are correct.
approaches another from the rear on a line forming an
angle of less than 1009. A signal said by a radio telegraphy consisting of
A. 60 degrees with the plane of symmtry of the latter. spoken work "SECURITE" means
66
A. urgency signal. A. land on runway.
B. distress signal. B. land, take off on runway.
C. safety signal. C. taxi on tzxiway only.
D. All are correct. D. All are correct.

1010. A series of green flashes from aerodrome traffic 1018. A horizontal white dumbel with black bar
control means perpendicular to the shaft across each portion of the
A. clear to land. dumbel indicates that aircraft are required
B. clear for take off. A. to land & take off on runway only.
C. return for landing. B. other manoeuvres need not be confined to runways
D. All are correct. and taxiways.
C. taxi on taxi ways only.
1011. A steady red light directed towards the aircraft D. Both a and b are correct.
in flight means
A. aerodrome unsafe do not land. 1019. Crosses of white colour displayed horizontally
B. do not land for the time being. on the manoeuvring area indicates that area is
C. give way to other aircraft and continue circulating. A. fit for landing.
D. None is correct. B. fit for movement of aircraft.
C. unfit for movement of aircraft.
1012. A series of white flashes directed towards an D. None is correct.
aircraft in flight means
A. return for landing. 1020. A black ball displayed on a mast and clearly
B. return to starting point on the aerodrom. visible to the aircraft on the manoeuvring area
C. clear to take. indicates that
D. All are corret. A. the direction of take off is to be decided by PIC.
B. the direction of take off is to be verified with the
1013. Red pyrotechnical light directed towards an aerodrome control tower.
aircraft flight means C. the aircraft can take off from any direction.
A. stop approach. D. None is correct.
B. aerodrome unsafe do not land.
C. not with-standing any previous instructions do not 1021. The letter 'C' displayed vertically in black
land for time being. against yellow background indicates
D. All are correct. A. the place at which weather information are
available.
1014. A steady green light direted towards an aircraft B. the place at which report concerning air traffic
on the ground means services are made.
A. cleared for taxi. C. the place at which catering facility is available.
B. taxi clear of landing area in use. D. None is correct.
C. cleared for take off. 1022. Whoever wilfully flies any aircraft in such a
D. return to dispersal. manner as to cause danger to any person or to any
property on land or water or in air shall be punishable
1015. A series of red flashes directed towards an with imprisonment up to
aircraft on the ground means A. 3 months.
A. return to starting point on the aerodrome. B. 6 months.
B. aerodrome unsafe do not land. C. 9 months.
C. taxi clear of landing area in use. D. 12 months.
D. returned for landing.
1023. A signal man repeatedly crosses arms above his
1016. A horizontal red square panel with yellow head indicate
diagonals indicate that A. a straight ahead signal.
A. landing at the aerodrome is prohibited. B. a stop signal.
B. landing at the aerodrome is prohibited and the C. power cut signal.
prohibition is liable to be prolonged. D. All are correct.
C. special precaution must be observed in
approaching to land. 1024. Left arm downward, right arm repeatedly
D. special precaution must be observed in landing. moved upward and backward is a signal for
A. turn to y9our left.
1017. Horizontal dumbel indicates that the aircraft are B. turn to your right.
required to C. start right engine.
67
D. start left engine. 1033. For tail to star board point left arm down and
right arm brought from overhead vertical position to
1025. Arms down palm facing in-wards swing arms horizontal forward position repeating right arm
from extended position inwards in a signal for movement
A. chocks away. A. turn while backing.
B. insert chocks. B. straight back.
C. start moving. C. this bay.
D. cut power. D. all clear.

1026. Circular motion of right hand at head level with 1034. Arms extended horizontally sideways is a signal
left arm pointing to the engine is a signal to for hovering helicopter to
A. start engine. A. keep hovering.
B. start turning. B. move upward.
C. rate of turning. C. move downwards.
D. slow turning. D. None is correct.

1027. Either arm and hand level with shoulder, hand 1035. Arms extended horizontally to the beckoning
across throat, palm downward is signal for upwards with palms turned up is a signal for hovering
A. slow down. helicopter to
B. cut motor. A. move side ways.
C. start engine. B. move down wards.
D. None is correct. C. move up wards.
D. None is correct.
1028. Arms down with palm towards ground then
moved up and down several times is a signal for 1036. Appropriate arm extended horizontally
A. slow down. sideways in direction of movement and other arm
B. speed up. swing in front of body in same direction, in a repating
C. expedite taxi. movement is a signal for hovering helicopters to
D. None is correct. A. move horizontally.
B. move partially.
1029. Arms down palms facing outwards swing arms C. move upwards.
outwards is a signal for D. move downwards.
A. slow down.
B. cut motors. 1037. Arms crossed and extended downwards in front
C. chocks away. of the body is a signal for hovering helicopter to
D. insert chocks. A. land.
B. move horizontally.
1030. Arms down with palms towards grounds, then C. move downwards.
either right or left hand waved up and down indicating D. move upwards.
that
A. slow down motor on left side. 1038. No pilot of a flying machine shall in his
B. slow down motor on right side. capacity as such pilot, fly for more than
C. slow down motor on indicated side. A. 100 hours during any period of 30 consecutive
D. None is correct. days.
B. 125 hours during any period of 30 consecutive
1031. Arms above head in vertical position with days.
palms facing inwards is a signal for C. 150 hours during any period of 30 consecutive
A. all clear. days.
B. this bay. D. 75 hours during any period of 30 consecutive days.
C. straight back.
D. slow down.
1039. Log books of flight crew personnel shall be
1032. Arms above head in vertical position palms preserved for a period of not less than
facing forward brought down quickly to horizontal A. 2 years for the date of last entry.
forward position repeating is a signal for B. 3 years for the date of last entry.
A. straight ahead. C. 4 years for the date of last entry.
B. straight back. D. 5 years for the date of last entry.
C. this bay.
D. all clear.
68
1040. An open rating is given for all conventional 1048. A person for issue of CPL shall undergo cross
types of aeroplanes having an AUW country flying test by day and shall consist of a flight
A. not exceeding 450 kg. on a stipulated route of not less than
B. not exceeding 500 kg. A. 150nm, with one full stop landing on designated
C. not exceeding 1000 kg. aerodrome.
D. not exceeding 1500 kg. B. 200 nm, with one full stop landing on designated
aerodrome.
1041. A pilot opting for open rating shall have not less C. 250 nm, with one full stop landing on designated
than aerodrome.
A. 150 hours of flight time as PIC. D. All are correct.
B. 200 hours of flight time as PIC.
C. 250 hours of flight time as PIC. 1049. Aircraft certified in experimental or amateur
D. 500 hours of flight time as PIC. category are those which are built for
A. Development or Research.
1042. For night rating a pilot must have at least B. Sports.
A. 20 hours of night flight as PIC. C. Education.
B. 50 hours of night flight as PIC. D. all are correct.
C. 100 hours of night flight as PIC.
D. 150 hours of night flight as PIC. 1050. Experimental or amateur built aircraft can be
flown only by persons having at least
1043. The projection on the earth surface of the path A. ATPL.
of an aircraft the direction of which at any point is B. SCPL.
usually expressed in degrees from true north is called C. CPL.
A. true heading. D. PPL.
B. magnetic heading.
C. track. 1051. DGCA inspection carried out in case of amateur
D. None is correct. built aircraft are
A. Pre-cover inspection.
1044. A radio-telegraphy signal consisting of group B. Final Airworthiness Inspection.
XXX means C. Precover and Final Inspection.
A. distress signal. D. None is correct.
B. urgency signal.
C. safety signal. 1052. Maintenance of amateur built aircraft can be
D. None is correct. carried out by
A. any AME.
1045. A radio-telegraphy signal consisting of group B. by any person acceptable to DGCA.
'TTT' means C. any approved person.
A. PAN PAN signal. D. All are correct.
B. urgency signal.
C. May-day signal. 1053. It is mandatory for amateur built aircraft that
D. safety signal. A. 50 Hrs and above inspection to be carried out by
AME.
1046. The period of validity of a CPL for a person B. 100 Hrs and above inspection to be carried out by
over 40 years but below 45 years is AME.
A. 24 months. C. 200 Hrs and above inspection to be carried out by
B. 18 months. AME.
C. 12 months. D. 100 Hrs/C of A renewal to be carried out by AME.
D. 6 months.
1054. 'Permit to Fly' of an aircraft is valid
1047. A person for issue of CPL shall undergo cross A. for 3 months.
country flying test by night which shall consist of a B. for 6 months.
flight on stipulated route of not less than C. for 12 months.
A. 60 mm, returning to place of departure without D. Until C of A is issued.
landing elsewhere.
B. 100 mm, returning to place of departure without 1055. Initially the life of amateur built aircraft is
landing elsewhere. restricted to
C. 120 mm, returning to place of departure without A. 10 years.
landing elsewhere. B. 5 years.
D. None is correct. C. 2 years.
69
D. 1 year. 1062. The upper sample of fuel is taken from a depth
upto
1056. Experimental built aircraft will initially be A. 1/10th of the depth of the product below the top
limited to operation within an assigned flight test area surface.
for at least B. 1/8th of the depth of the product below the top
A. 50 Hrs for a type certified engine/propeller surface.
combination. C. 1/6th of the depth of the product below the top
B. 25 Hrs for a type certified engine/propeller surface.
combination. D. 1/4th of the depth of the product below the top
C. 10 Hrs for a type certified engine/propeller surface.
combination.
D. 5 Hrs for a type certified engine/propeller 1063. Fuel sampling shall be carried out preferrably
combination. before
A. 10 am.
1057. Amateur built aircraft will initially be limited to B. 8 am.
operation within an assigned flight test area for at C. 6 am.
least D. 5 am.
A. 50 Hrs for an uncertified engine/propeller
combination. 1064. pressure Gauges, Thermometers, Hydrometers
B. 40 Hrs for an uncertified engine/propeller used for inspection of fuel should be calibrated every
combination. A. 3 months.
C. 30 Hrs for an uncertified engine/propeller B. 6 months.
combination. C. 12 months.
D. 20 Hrs for an uncertified engine/propeller D. 2 years.
combination.
1065. A clean room as per CAR series I part IV
1058. The acceptable standard of Quality Assurance should always
for aircraft manufactured in India is A. be slightly pressurised.
A. ISO 9000. B. be slightly below the normal pressure.
B. ISO 9001. C. be at prevailing outside atmospheric pressure.
C. ISO 8000. D. be at sea level pressure.
D. ISO 2000.
1066. A clean room as per CAR series I Part IV in
1059. Global positioning system at present is accepted general should have a humidity level of not less than
as A. 10%.
A. an aid to navigation. B. 20%.
B. sole means of navigation. C. 30%.
C. a replacement to GNS. D. 40%.
D. none is correct.
1067. Certificate of First Aid Kit should be signed by
1060. Barreled AV Gas should be stored under cover, A. A doctor holding at least MBBS degree.
clear off the ground on their sides with the bungs B. A doctor holding at least MBBS degree and it
A. in the 3'O clock position. should also be endorsed by an AME.
B. in the 5'O clock position. C. Any Registered Medical Practitioner.
C. in the 7'O clock position. D. a and c are correct.
D. in 3 or 9'O clock position.
1068. Production Test Flight of 'Series' type of aircraft
1061. Fuel samples should be checked for can be carried out by
A. traces of sediments. A. a person holding at least CPL on that type of
B. Globules of water. aircraft.
C. Cloudiness. B. a person holding at least ATPL on that type of
D. All are correct. aircraft.
C. a person specifically endorsed for Test Flight.
D. a person holding at least CPL and approved by
DGCA to carry out production Test Flight.

70
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (MCQ) OF PAPER-2

1. Engineering Drawing is a representation of object: 9. Engineering Drawing gives the details of any
A. In Roman language. object:
B. As a graphic representation. A. Shape.
C. Printing. B. Size.
D. None of the above. C. All information required for manufacture or
inspection of the object.
2. Set squares are used in Engineering Drawing to D. Material.
draw.
A. Horizontal lines. 10. The instrument used to draw irregular curves of
B. Vertical lines. changing radius is called :
C. Straight lines. A. Bow compass.
D. All straight lines except horizontal lines. B. Compass.
C. French curve.
3. Compass is used in Engineering Drawing to draw. D. Divider.
A. Circles of 15 cm radius.
B. Draw circles of 30 mm radius without attachment 11. Thickness of Drawing board is :
bar. A. 15 mm.
C. Draw circles of 30 cm radius with attachment bar. B. 20 mm.
D. Draw circles of 30 mm radius with attachment bar. C. 26 mm.
D. 25 mm.
4. Eraser should be used to.
A. Erase the unwanted line. 12. The pencil used for drawing should be kept sharp
B. Erase the unwanted line. to stab should not be.
C. Erase the unwanted line without erasing the A. Less than 60 mm.
surrounding wanted lines. B. More than 85 mm.
D. Both B & C. C. Less than 75 mm.
D. More than 65 mm.
5. Dividers are used in Engineering drawing to.
A. Divide curved or straight line. 13. An angle which is more than 180 degree but less
B. To transfer dimensions from one part of the than 360 degree is ;-
drawing to another part. A. Obtuse angle.
C. Set off given distances. B. Straight angle.
D. All the above. C. Reflex angle.
D. Adjacent angle.
6. For fixing the paper draughting tape and chips are
used because. 14. When two angles together make 180 deg They are
A. It appears good. said to be.
B. It hold the drawing paper and board. A. Complementary angles.
C. It will not damage the paper or board. B. Supplementary angles.
D. Both B & C. C. Reflex angles.
D. Acute angles.
7. In the figure ellipse the line passing through center
perpendicular to major axis is called: 15. When two angles together make 90 deg they are
A. Shorter axis. said to be.
B. Minor axis. A. Supplementary angle.
C. Longer axis. B. Acute angle.
D. None of the above. C. Adjacent angle.
D. Complementary angle.
8. Engineering Drawing language for who are
engaged in: 16. Modern Roman letter is consisting of.
A. Manufacturing. A. Thick lines.
B. Inspection. B. Thin lines.
C. Maintenance work. C. Wide lines.
D. All the above. D. Heavy and light line.

71
17. In engineering Drawing normal lettering ratio D. Perspective.
height and width is.
A. 9:6. 26. In third angle projection method.
B. 6:2. A. The view from the above placed underneath and
C. 3:1. vice versa.
D. 7:4. B. The view from the above placed above and vice
versa.
18. Good style of lettering should aim at. C. The view from the left placed on the left and vice
A. Uniformity of thickness. versa.
B. Uniformity of shape, size and style. D. Both B & C.
C. Uniformity of spacing.
D. All the above. 27. In first angle projection method the projection are
made on.
19. At the bottom of the drawing sheet to make title A. Elevation projected on VP.
block the line used is. B. Plan projected on HP.
A. Thin line. C. End view projected on auxiliary plane (right to left).
B. Medium line. D. All the above.
C. Thick line.
D. Extra thick line. 28. The representation fraction or scale of drawing is
equal to.
20. Wider lines are drawn as. A. Length of object in the drawing by actual length of
A. Short dashes. the object.
B. Short and long dashes. B. Width of the object in the drawing by actual width
C. Short dashes closely and evenly spaced. of the object.
D. Short double dashes. C. Area of the object in the drawing by actual area of
the object.
21. The breaks used on cylindrical metal are often D. Either B or C.
refers to as.
A. F brakes. 29. In Binary subtraction, subtract 11011 from 10111
B. L brakes. A. -11011.
C. T breaks. B. - 00100.
D. S breaks. C. + 11011.
D. + 00100.
22. The following lines are drawn as thin lines.
A. Section lines. 30. Complement of a complement equal to
B. Center lines. A. Zero.
C. Outline. B. Complement.
D. Both A & B. C. One.
D. Original.
23. The ratio of the dimension of the drawing to the
corresponding dimension of the object is the. 31. The 1's compliment of a binary number is the
A. Isometric drawing. number that results when :
B. Oblique drawing. A. Each 0 is changed to 1 and vice-versa.
C. Representation factor. B. Each 0 is changed to 2 and vice-versa.
D. Both B & C. C. Each 0 is changed to 4 and vice-versa.
D. Each 0 is changed to 8 and vice-versa.
24. One of the three dimensional drawing but far side
will appear converging is known as : 32. Binary equivalent of 34.4(8) is :
A. Isometric drawing. A. 10100.1100.
B. Oblique drawing. B. 11000.0011.
C. Perspective drawing. C. 10011.0101.
D. Non pictorial drawing. D. 11100.100.

25. In Engineering drawing, if the length is drawn half 33. Among the following, the output device in a
the actual length and face at an angle of 450 drawing is computer is:
known as : A. Key board.
A. Isometric. B. Printer.
B. Cabinet. C. Mouse.
C. Cavalier. D. Joy stick.
72
34. Many dot matrix printers are: C. Compass.
A. Unidirectional. D. French curve.
B. Tri-directional.
C. Bi-directional. 43. In the blue print process, when sensitized paper is
D. Quadra-directional. washed in running water, the portion covered by black
tracing line turn in to:
35. Compass is used to draw circles of: A. Blue.
A. Up to 25 cm. B. White.
B. up to 10 cm. C. Red.
C. up to 20 cm. D. Green.
D. up to 15 cm.
44. Triangles or set squares comes in pair of:
36. T' Square is used for: A. 450- 1200- 1800 and 600 - 900 -1800
A. Drawing horizontal line. B. 450 - 600 -900 and 600 - 900. - 1800
B. Drawing vertical line. C. 450 - 900 - 450 and 300 - 900 - 600
C. Drawing curved line. D. 450 - 600 - 1800 and 300 - 900 - 600
D. Drawing semi circular line.
45. In convention of lines, thinnest line a draftsman is
37. Now a days fixing the paper on the board, the able to draw is:
following pins is used: A. 20 mm.
A. Drawing pin. B. 0.02 mm.
B. Round head pin. C. 0.20 mm.
C. Clips and tape. D. 0.002 mm.
D. Paper pin.
46. A good style of lettering should aim at:
38. Colour of paper usually used in Engineering A. Uniformity of thickness.
Drawing is: B. Uniformity of shape and size.
A. Black. C. Uniformity of spacing and style.
B. Blue. D. All the above.
C. Brown.
D. White. 47. The inclination angle in a slanting type of lettering
is:
39. If two angles together make 90 deg, they are said A. 95 deg.
to be: B. 85 deg.
A. Straight angle. C. 75 deg.
B. Complementary angle. D. 65 deg.
C. Reflex angle.
D. Adjacent angle. 48. An instrument used for making curve lines is
known as:
40. One of the three dimensional drawing far side will A. French curve.
appear converging is known as: B. File pad.
A. Isometric drawing. C. Shield.
B. Oblique drawing. D. Square.
C. Perspective drawing.
D. Non-pictorial drawing. 49. Leader lines are used for:
A. Decoration.
41. The special tool drafting machine marked on B. Projection.
drawing board does not cover the function of: C. Dimension.
A. T' Square. D. Section.
B. Set Square.
C. Compass. 50. In engineering drawing, a thick free hand irregular
D. Protractor. lines indicate:
A. Break line.
42. The drawing tool, which is used to draw or B. Section line.
measure such angle, which cannot be withdrawn with C. Adjacent parts.
set square is: D. Parts to be sectioned.
A. Protractor.
B. Bow compass.

73
51. When two angles together make 180 deg , they are B. Elevator.
said to be: C. Aileron.
A. Supplementary angle. D. Fin.
B. Complementary angle.
C. Acute angle. 60. Hinged rear positions of the main plane which
D. Obtuse angle. move in the same direction on Port and Star board
wings are:
52. A drawing of an entirely finished product with the A. Elevator.
components assembled together in the correct relative B. Aileron.
position is known as: C. Fin.
A. Detail drawing. D. Flaps.
B. Assembly drawing.
C. Pictorial drawing. 61. A fixed vertical surface affecting the directional
D. General drawing. stability of an aero plane is :
A. Rudder.
53. To show yards, feet and inches on a scale, the B. Fin.
scale will be suitably constructed as: C. Flaps.
A. Plain scale. D. Elevator.
B. RF scale.
C. Diagonal scale. 62. A fixed horizontal surface situated at the rear of an
D. Vernier scale. aircraft affecting the longitudinal stability is :
A. Main plane.
54. A thick small dash and two small dashes are used B. Fuselage.
in the line to express. C. Tail plane.
A. Long break. D. Fin.
B. Short break.
C. Cutting plane. 63. One of the thrust augmentation device used in jet
D. Hidden parts. engine is :
A. Exhaust pipe.
55. Dot matrix printer is an example of: B. Turbine.
A. Line printer. C. After burner.
B. Laser printer. D. Compressor.
C. Drum printer.
D. Character printer. 64. A supporting surface of a aerodyne is :
A. Main plane.
56. A keyboard is a most common: B. Tail plane.
A. Memory unit. C. Fuselage.
B. Input device. D. Fin.
C. Control device.
D. Output device. 65. The capacity of a material to absorb the energy in
elastic range.
57. A movable vertical surface for controlling the A. strength.
motion of an aerodyne about the normal axis is: B. stiffness.
A. Rudder. C. resilience.
B. Elevator. D. Resistance.
C. Aileron.
D. Fin. 66. The property being permanently extended or
flattened by hammering rolling or pressing without
58. The left side of an aircraft when facing the front as rupture.
seen from the cockpit is : A. Elasticity.
A. Star board. B. Swaging.
B. Port side. C. Malleability.
C. Rear side. D. Tenacity.
D. None of the above.
67. The property whereby a metal can be drawn out
59. Movable aerofoil situated at the rear end of each into a wire with out cracking.
wing and designed to impart a rolling movement to the A. Elasticity.
aerodyne about longitudinal axis is B. Ductility.
A. Rudder. C. Savaging.
74
D. Drawing. D. Extrusion.

68. The liability of a metal to fracture on receiving a 77. The body of a twist drill is lesser in diameter
blow or shock. towards the shank end by:
A. Malleability. A. 0.002".
B. Tenacity. B. 0.001".
C. Fusibility. C. 0.004".
D. Brittleness. D. 0.003".

69. The permissible difference in dimension to allow 78. Hide faced hammer is classified by:
for various fits is termed as : A. Size and weight.
A. Clearance. B. Type and weight of the head in ounce.
B. Allowance. C. Weight only.
C. Resistance. D. The number stamped on it.
D. Tolerance.
79. Slow and progressive deformation of a material
70. Pig Iron is. with time under a constant stress is called:
A. weak and brittle. A. Strength.
B. ductile and malleable. B. Creep.
C. Hard and Brittle. C. Resilience.
D. none of the above. D. Stiffness.

71. The cast steel is produced by : 80. The property of a material to resist heat and
A. Cementation process. electricity is known as.
B. Crucible process. A. Stiffness.
C. Open hearth process. B. Resistivity.
D. Electric process. C. Conductivity.
D. Ductility.
72. Pure iron has a tensile strength of :
A. 20 Tons /Sq.inch. 81. The straight part of the tread, which connect the
B. 18 Tons/ Sq Inch. crest and root is known as:
C. 55 Tons / Sq inch. A. Crest.
D. 50 Tons / Sq inch. B. Flank.
C. Root.
73. Pig iron is used as the basic material for producing D. Thread angle.
A. Cast iron.
B. Cast iron, wrought iron and steel by suitable 82. While soldering low voltage ceramic capacitors,
process. the soldering time should be kept less than 5 seconds,
C. Marking off and surface plate. and temperature should not exceed
D. Steel. A. 3500C.
B. 2000C.
74. The constituents of brass are: - C. 2250C.
A. Copper, Zinc. D. 2500C.
B. Copper, Tin.
C. Tin, Lead. 83. Hand brace is used for drilling small holes up to:
D. Copper, Lead. A. 1/2" diameter.
B. 1/8" diameter.
75. Metal is a substance which posses certain physical C. 1/4" diameter.
properties such as: D. 1" diameter.
A. They conduct heat or electricity.
B. They generally have ringing tones. 84. The accuracy of micrometer in metric system is:
C. They have metallic lusture or shine. A. 0.02 mm.
D. All the above. B. 0.01 mm.
C. 0.05 mm.
76. Forcing plastic material through die of required D. 0.04 mm.
shape by means of hydraulic pressure is called:
A. Plasticity. 85. Large component and number of parts can be
B. Swaging. soldered in one operation by:
C. Stamping. A. Hard soldering.
75
B. Sweat soldering. A. Flux.
C. Dip soldering. B. Solvent.
D. Silver soldering. C. Solder.
D. Wax.
86. A type of thread used for transmitting great
pressure in one direction only, is called: 95. Brazing is used to give strong joint for:
A. Worm thread. A. Brass.
B. Acme thread. B. Zinc.
C. Square thread. C. Nickel.
D. Buttress thread. D. Silver.

87. To calibrate the torque wrenches, the number of 96. In aluminothermic soldering iron, the source of
comparison reading required at least is: heat is:
A. Two times. A. Brazing lamp.
B. Three times. B. MOX tablet.
C. Five times. C. Electrical heating element.
D. Six times. D. Open flame.

88. In switch board connection, the red coloured cable 97. The key seat rule is made of:
is used for: A. Graphite carbon steel.
A. Earth line. B. Spring carbon steel.
B. Neutral line. C. Low carbon steel.
C. Live line. D. High carbon steel.
D. Lifeline.
98. All the precision instruments are made of:
89. The size of split pins is determined by its: A. Invar steel.
A. Diameter and colour code. B. Silver.
B. Diameter and length. C. Nickel.
C. Diameter and breadth. D. Steel.
D. Diameter and material.
99. The accuracy of the feeler gauge for measuring
90. The type of locking device suitable for Pressurised thickness is:
cabin, fuel and oil tanks is A. 0.001".
A. Nylon stiff nut. B. 0.004".
B. Phillips stiff nut. C. 0.005".
C. Air tight stiff nut. D. 0.003".
D. Nyloc cap nut.
100. The type of capacitor suitable for use in AC
91. Lubricating oil is graded by: circuits such as in AC motor starter is :
A. Colour. A. Paper capacitor.
B. Amount of hydro carbon present. B. Electrolytic capacitor.
C. Code. C. Polorised electrolytic condenser.
D. Viscosity. D. Non-polarized electrolytic capacitor.

92. Lubricant oil is mixture of: 101. The tenacity with which a magnetic material
A. Trichloroplylene. holds on to its magnetism is called :
B. Fluid lubricants. A. Coercive force.
C. Hydro carbon. B. Retentivity.
D. Non-leaded petrol. C. Coercivity.
D. Magnetic Hysterisis.
93. Use correct size of spanner so that:
A. The over tightening is avoided. 102. In DC generator staggering slots are used to
B. The time delay is avoided. minimize ripple in the.
C. The possibility of cross threading is avoided. A. Input voltage.
D. The bolt head or nut is not damaged. B. Input and out put voltage.
C. Output voltage.
94. A filler material used to join the parent metal is D. Output current.
known as:

76
103. The total capacitance in an electrical circuit A. Fleming's right hand rule.
having three capacitors of 2 micro farads, 3 micro B. Fleming's left hand rule.
farads and 6 micro farads connected in series: C. Faraday's law.
A. 11F. D. Lenz's law.
B. 11 mF.
C. 0.1 mF. 112. The total capacitance in electrical circuit having
D. 10 F. three capacitors of 2mF, 3mF and 6mF connected in
series is:
104. In iron cored transformer with 8: 1 ratio is A. 11 F.
connected to 120V mains, the voltage across B. 11 Mf.
secondary will be: C. 1 F.
A. 20 V. D. 1 mF.
B. 15 V.
C. 10 V. 113. By decreasing the flux, the speed a shunt motor
D. 25 V. will be:
A. Remain constant.
105. For high voltage the insulator used is: B. Increase.
A. Trace paper. C. Decrease.
B. Melinex. D. Diminish because torque is insufficient.
C. Impregnated.
D. Tissue paper. 114. Kirchoff's law are more comprehensive than
ohms law are used for solving:
106. Any machine converts mechanical energy into A. Electrical conductance.
electrical energy is known as. B. Electrical temperature co efficient.
A. Motor. C. Electrical resistance network.
B. Stator. D. Electrical net work.
C. Generator.
D. Amplifier. 115. Resistance offered by 100 cm length of wire having
an area of cross section of 100cm.sq. is called:
107. Fleming's right hand rule is used to find out the A. Specific temp. co- efficient.
direction of: B. Specific conductance.
A. Field. C. Specific co-efficient.
B. Motion of the conductor. D. Specific resistance.
C. Direction of induced emf.
D. Direction of current. 116. The isometric drawing represent three
dimensions of the object:
108. In delta connected alternators the 3 phase A. Lenght, breadth and height of the object.
windings are joined in: B. Breadth, height and are of the object.
A. Auto transformer. C. Height, lenght and circumference of the object.
B. Step up transformer. D. Length, breadth, height and depth of the object.
C. Step down transformer.
D. Voltage transformer. 117. Computer which doesn't compute directly with
the number is called :
109. In transformerif K is greater than one, then the A. Mini computer.
transformer is called: B. Micro computer.
A. Greater accuracy. C. Digital computer.
B. Robust in construction. D. Analog computer.
C. To provide equal amount of frequency.
D. Cooling purpose. 118. The number 17 octal is equivalent to binary :
A. 111.
110. The maximum value, positive or negative of an B. 1110.
alternating quantity is known as: C. 10000.
A. Time period. D. 1111.
B. Frequency.
C. Amplitude. 119. Which of the following is not octal number:
D. Cycle. A. 19.
B. 7.
111. The direction of motion of a DC motor is given C. 15.
by: D. 101.
77
120. Junction diode is a : 129. Semiconductor memory in computer is based on
A. Bipolar device. A. Magnetic circuit operation.
B. Constant voltage device. B. Transformer operation.
C. Unipolar device. C. Transistor operation.
D. Constant current device. D. Non magnetic circuit operation.

121. A register stores : 130. The only function of a NOT gate is to:
A. One word of data. A. Stop a signal.
B. A byte. B. Re-complement a signal.
C. One instruction. C. Invert an input signal.
D. 4 bits data. D. Act as a universal gate.

122. Not gate is known as : 131. The first generation computer was introduced
A. Converter. with:
B. Inverter. A. Solid state transistors.
C. Rectifier. B. Vacuum tubes.
D. Amplifier. C. Chips.
D. IC's.
123. Computer hardware usually refers to :
A. Hard metallic component of a computer. 132. Pitot pressure is connected to:
B. Various associated program. A. Altimeter.
C. CPU. B. ROCI.
D. Central processor input/output devices and backing C. ASI.
storage. D. Cabin altimeter.

124. Which of the statement is correct : 133. Any error in indication of accelerometer along
A. NAND gate = Bubbled AND gate. the horizontal axis is cancelled by:
B. NOR gate =Bubbled OR gate. A. A strong coiled spring.
C. Bubbled OR gate = NAND gate. B. Two compensating sector gears.
D. AND gate = OR and NOR gate. C. The restraining springs.
D. The stop spring fitted both sides.
125. In high level language, the source program is
translated into object program with the help of : 134. The principle of accelerometer is that two masses
A. Computer. electrically suspended in parallel about:
B. Converter. A. Vertical axis.
C. Compiler. B. Arthwardship axis.
D. Translator. C. Fore and aft axis.
D. ' Z' Axis.
126. When an input electrical signal A=10100 is
applied to a NOT gate its output signal is a: 135. The type of damping used in accelerometer type
A. 01011. 480/01 is:
B. 10101. A. Eddy current damping.
C. 10100. B. Low viscosity oil type damping.
D. 00101. C. Air damping.
D. Calculated spring type of damping.
127. Truth table of a logic functions :
A. Summaries its output value. 136. Moving coil instrument can be used to measure:
B. Tabulates all its input conditions. A. AC only.
C. Displays all its input/output possibilities. B. DC and AC.
D. Is not based on the logic algebra. C. DC or rectified AC.
D. AC and pulsating DC.
128. A static memory is one that.
A. Is capable of storing binary information 137. The oscillation of the pointer about its final
indefinitely. deflected position in a indicating instrument is
B. Requires periodic restoration of information. minimized by:
C. Is volatile. A. Controlling force.
D. Has destructive read out. B. Damping force.
C. Restoring force.
D. Balancing force.
78
138. Moving coil instrument works on the principle 147. In ratio meter type thermometer, the two coils in
of: moving coil unit is so connected that the torque
A. Fleming's left hand rule. produced by them:
B. Fleming's right hand rule. A. Oppose each other.
C. Kirchoff's law. B. Assist each other.
D. Generator principle. C. Are in same direction.
D. Do not influence each other.
139. In bourden tube pressure gauge, the indicating
mechanism is coupled to the: 148. Variable capacitance of the tank circuit measures
A. Open end of the tube. the quantity of fuel in the fuel contents gauge
B. Free end of the tube. indicator in a form of:
C. Either a or b. A. Alternating current.
D. None of the above. B. Direct current.
C. AC or DC.
140. In bourden tube for measuring very high ranges, D. Fluctuating direct current.
the tube is made of:
A. Phosphor bronze. 149. The float arm type fuel content gauges work on
B. Mild steel. the principle of:
C. Beralium bronze. A. Selsyn transmission system.
D. Beralium copper. B. Desyn transmitting system.
C. Magnesyn transmission system.
141. In moving coil instrument, the temperature D. Variable capacitance system.
variation is compensated by:
A. The air gap between pole pieces and former. 150. In float arm type fuel content gauge, the pointer
B. A weak small permanent magnet. returns to off scale position by:
C. The variation of current in the moving coil. A. Hair spring.
D. Two hair springs coiled in opposite direction. B. A strong permanent magnet.
C. Coil.
142. In torque measuring system, indicator work on: D. Weak permanent magnet.
A. Selsyn system.
B. Desyn system. 151. The vapour pressure type thermometer is used
C. Data Selsyn system. for measuring:
D. Two wire Selsyn system. A. The temperature of engine oil.
B. Coolant temperature in liquid cooled engine.
143. The ammeter used to measure AC only is: C. Temperature of fuel in the tank.
A. Electromagnetic type. D. Humidity of air.
B. Permanent magnet type.
C. Induction type. 152. The unwanted screen current in a pentode valve
D. Moving iron type. is prevented by:
A. Capacitor.
144. In tachometer indicator, the pointer movement is B. Suppressor grid.
controlled by: C. Control grid.
A. The drag cup. D. Choke.
B. The permanent magnet.
C. A hair spring. 153. The common base PNP junction transistor has
D. The interaction of the magnetic fields. reverse biased arrangement between:
A. Emitter and base.
145. Oscillation of the pointer at lower range of Tacho B. Emitter and collector.
indicator may be due to: C. Collector and base.
A. Defective indicator. D. Base and emitter.
B. Synchronizing point is too low.
C. Two indicators are connected in parallel. 154. When the emitter/ base junction of a transistor is
D. Indicator not being in synchronism with generator. reverse biased, collector current:
A. Is reversed.
146. Tachometer indicator comprises a: B. Increases.
A. Three phase induction motor. C. Decreases.
B. Three phase, self starting synchronous motor. D. Stops.
C. Three phase synchronous motor.
D. Single phase, self starting synchronous motor.
79
155. If acid is splashed in eyes, it should be washed B. Cast Iron.
with : C. Pig iron.
A. 5% solution of soda bi carbonate. D. Both (a) and (c.).
B. 5% solution of soda bi carbonate and plenty of
water. 165. The properties of nickel are.
C. 2% solution of nitrogen. A. Hard, brittle ad corrosion resistant.
D. 5% solution of alkali and plenty of water. B. Hard, ductile, corrosion resistant, withstand high
tempt.
156. Pitching movement of a/c is controlled by: C. Soft, poor corrosion resistant and brittle.
A. Aileron. D. soft, ductile, malleable, corrosion resistant.
B. Rudder.
C. Elevator. 166. The carbon contents in the high carbon steel is.
D. Fin. A. 0 to 0.25 %.
B. 0.25 % to 0.75 %.
157. The constituents of Bronze are. C. 0.75% to 1.5 %.
A. Copper, Zinc. D. 0.75% to 1.25 %.
B. Copper, Tin.
C. Tin, Lead. 167. Cast iron is manufactured by.
D. Copper, lead. A. Cementation process.
B. crucible process.
158. The properties of Al are. C. Cupola furnace.
A. Light, ductile, soft and malleable. D. Open-hearth process.
B. soft, poor corrosion resistance and brittle.
C. soft, plastic, malleable and acid resistant. 168. Chisel are classified by:
D. soft, ductile and malleable. A. Shape overall length and width of the cutting edge.
B. Shape and overall length.
159. A great advantage of the electric furnace is : C. Material and size.
A. Very easy to operate. D. Type and cutting edge.
B. absence of gas fume and impurities.
C. no maintenance is required. 169. Hand vice are classified by weight :
D. very economical. A. In ounces.
B. In grams.
160. The blister steel is manufactured by : C. And length of the jaw.
A. Electric process. D. Of the body.
B. open hearth process.
C. Bessemer process. 170. Chisel used for cutting the narrow flat bottom
D. Cementation process. grooves is:
A. Flat chisel.
161. Plastic is an organic material, which shows the B. Cross cut chisel.
property of. C. Diamond point chisel.
A. Elasticity. D. Half round chisel.
B. Ductility.
C. Malleability. 171. The file used on soft material is :
D. Plasticity. A. Single cut.
B. Double cut.
162. Pig Iron contains an average about: C. Dreadnought.
A. 94% Iron and 4% carbon + remainder impurities. D. Rasp.
B. 98% Iron and 2% carbon.
C. 95 % Iron and 2 % carbon. 172. Files are classified by.
D. 97% Iron and 2 % carbon + 1 % impurities. A. Length, section cut and grade.
B. Type of material and size.
163. The properties of lead are: C. Type and overall length.
A. Soft, brittle and poor corrosion resistant. D. Length section and type.
B. Soft, ductile and malleable.
C. Soft, plastic, malleable and acid resistant. 173. Die nut is used for:
D. Malleable and corrosion resistant. A. Cutting external thread.
B. Cutting internal thread.
164. One of the purest forms of iron produced is : C. Cutting starting thread.
A. Wrought Iron. D. Clearing the damage thread.
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174. The drill which is used for cutting the counter 183. Lubricant used for drilling High carbon and alloy
sinking holes are. steels.
A. Peg or Arboring drill. A. Turps or Kerosene.
B. Bottoming drill. B. Cutting oil or soapy water.
C. Rose bit drill. C. None.
D. Twist drill. D. Water.

175. Scribers are made of : 184. Reamers are classified by :


A. High carbon steel hardened and tempered. A. Type and size.
B. High carbon steel. B. Type material and size.
C. High carbon and alloy steel. C. Type size and length.
D. Alloy steel hardened and tempered. D. Type and angle of cutting edge.

176. Sharpening the scribes is done. 185. The taps are used for cutting.
A. On a grinding stone. A. Internal screw threads.
B. By smooth file. B. External screw threads.
C. By dead smooth file. C. Starting threads.
D. Either by smooth file or dead smooth file. D. Finishing threads.

177. Surface plates are classified by. 186. The tool used to rundown an existing thread that
A. Type material and size. has become burred or damaged, is :
B. Length and breadth. A. Die plate.
C. Type and weight. B. Second tap.
D. Type and Size. C. circular Die.
D. Die nut.
178. The accuracy of surface plates are tested by.
A. Vee blocks. 187. Screw drivers are classified by
B. Master Surface plate. A. Type material and size.
C. Fitter's square. B. Type and length of blades.
D. Vernier caliper. C. Width of the tip.
D. Length of the blade.
179. If the zero of the micrometer thimble crosses the
datum line. 188. Spanner are classified by
A. It is to be subtracted from the measurement. A. Type and length.
B. It is to be added to the measurement. B. Type material and size.
C. It is to be neglected. C. Type material and size of nut or bolt on which it
D. It is to be adjusted with the help of concealed nut. fits.
D. Type and size.
180. Play in the spindle threads of micrometer is taken
up by 189. The pliers used for lead bending of wires and
A. Using a 'c' spanner. lead forming are :
B. Adjusting anvil in the frame. A. Flat more pliers.
C. Adjusting the thimble on the spindle. B. Pliers round nose.
D. Adjusting a nut at the thimble end of the barrel. C. Half round nose pliers.
D. Pliers combination.
181. The lubricant used for drilling mild steel and
wrought iron is. 190. The property of resisting breakage when under
A. Kerosene. the application of a pulling force.
B. Soapy water. A. Tenacity.
C. Cutting oil or soapy water solution. B. Fatigue.
D. None of the above. C. Hardness.
D. Spinning.
182. Lubricant used for drilling magnesium and its
alloys. 191. The position on the crord line of an aerofoil at
A. None. which the resultant force act is:
B. Soapy water. A. Laminarised part of the air flow.
C. Kerosene. B. Pressurised part of the air flow.
D. Cutting oil. C. Centre of pressure.
D. Centre of gravity.
81
192. At the critical angle of attack, the flow of air A. Volatile memory.
from top surface of aerofoil becomes turbulent, which B. Non volatile memory.
is termed as : C. Main memory.
A. Burbling. D. Secondary memory.
B. Curling.
C. Knurling. 201. Daisy wheel printers is a :
D. Rolling. A. Non impact printer.
B. Impact printer.
193. In flight the lift of an aerofoil can be altered by: C. Ink jet printer.
A. Angle of attack only. D. Laser printer.
B. Speed of an a/c only.
C. Angle of attack and speed of an a/c. 202. For opening the existing file next time remember
D. Density and pressure of air. A. File name.
B. Pass word.
194. Lift is obtained at the expense of a certain C. Document name.
amount of horizontal force known as: D. none of the above.
A. Thrust.
B. Weight. 203. Laser printers is a :
C. Drag. A. Impact printer.
D. Forward movement. B. Non impact printers.
C. Drum printer.
195. Honey comb construction is often used in the D. Line printer.
manufacture of.
A. Flying control surface. 204. Stored data goes off from the computer memory
B. AC canopy. when the power supply is turned off is termed as :
C. Main plane. A. Volatile memory.
D. Tail plane. B. Non volatile memory.
C. Secondary memory.
196. MS dos file name is primarily ment for: D. Non of the above.
A. Plus 5 extension characters.
B. Plus 2 extension characters. 205. The commands that do not require any specific
C. No extension characters. files for being excuted and are brought into the
D. Plus 3 extension characters. memory as soon as the computer is switched on is
termed as :
197. A computer keyboard is a most common : A. Common commands.
A. In put device. B. External commands.
B. Out put device. C. Internal commands.
C. Electronic device. D. Acutal commands.
D. Mechanical device.
206. The first name in the file name of Dos can have :
198. All physical requirements to construct a A. 01 to 03 characters.
computer is known as : B. 01 to 08 charaters.
A. Software. C. only 05 charaters.
B. Hardware. D. Unlimited charaters.
C. Electronic components.
D. Mechnical components. 207. The main directory is called :
A. Files.
199. Before taking a printout of document all the B. Programmes.
spelling mistakes and the grammatical mistakes have C. Sub directory.
to be carried out MS word provides a helpful feature D. Root directory.
to carryout this task is called :
A. Check. 208. The memories that retain the stored data even
B. Spell check. when the power to the device is shut off is termed as :
C. Automatic spell check. A. Volatile memory.
D. Correction. B. Non volatile memory.
C. Secondary memory.
200. Booting is the process of loading the operating D. Non of the above.
system into main memory from :

82
209. To close the presentation file, click on the close C. Plenty of cold water.
option from the : D. 5% solution of soda bi-carbonate and plenty of
A. File menu. warm water.
B. End show.
C. Mouse bottom. 218. In the lead acid type of batteries, the positive
D. View menu. plate is made of:
A. Spongy lead.
210. To create a new file, the command used is : B. Carbon.
A. CopyCON <existing file name><new file name>. C. Iron oxide.
B. Copy CON <file name>. D. Lead per oxide.
C. Copy <cource drive:file name>.
D. Copy <destination drive:file name>. 219. Laminated steel core used is for transformers
instead of solid iron cores in order to:
211. Very large scale intergation circuits are A. Have more supply.
introduced in : B. Reduce eddy currents.
A. Second generation of Computers. C. Produce eddy currents.
B. First generation of computers. D. Reduce the weight.
C. Third generation of computers.
D. Fourth generation of computers. 220. The core of the transformer is laminated to:
A. Increase eddy current.
212. When you open a new document in work, the top B. Reduce eddy current.
and bottom margins are preset at : C. Increase output voltage.
A. 1 inch. D. Decrease output voltage.
B. 1.25 inch.
C. 2 inch. 221. Transformer is used in a circuit for:
D. 2.5 inch. A. Raising DC voltage.
B. Lowering DC and AC voltage.
213. Which of the following cannot be sensed by our C. Raising or lowering DC voltage.
sence organs : D. Raising or lowering AC voltage.
A. Software.
B. Hardware. 222. Variation of voltage in a circuit is obtained by
C. Soft and Hardware. fitting a:
D. None of the above. A. Transformer.
B. Suppressor.
214. You should save your active documents every C. Regulator.
A. 10 to 15 minutes. D. Rheostat.
B. 15 to 20 minutes.
C. 5 to 10 minutes. 223. The wattage of omni light is.
D. 20 to 25 minutes. A. 60w.
B. 45w.
215. The grammer you use while typing a command is C. 100w.
called : D. 25w.
A. Syntex.
B. Format. 224. In relation to amplitude modulation, the
C. PROM. disadvantage of frequency and phase modulation is.
D. EPROM. A. very heigh range.
B. very low range.
216. Capacity test on batteries are carried out: C. low range.
A. After every initial charge. D. heigh range.
B. Once in every three months.
C. Whenever capacity of the battery is suspected to be 225. In an alkaline charging room, boric acid solution,
low. first aid outfit, saw dust and boric acid crystals are:
D. All above. A. First aid.
B. Neutralising agents.
217. If acid is split in eyes, it should be washed with: C. Neutral agent.
A. Ammonia in diluted solution. D. First aid agents.
B. Olive oil.

83
226. When alkali acid has been split on skin or B. Ditto line.
clothing apply: C. Long break line.
A. Boric acid. D. Cutting plane line.
B. Boric acid followed by cool water.
C. Boric acid followed by warm water. 235. Dimension line should be placed:
D. Boric acid followied by sopy water. A. Horizontal to dimension line.
B. Perpendicular to dimension line.
227. The common form of threads used are : C. Close to the object.
A. V and sqare thread. D. Out side to feature wherever possible.
B. BAvthread.
C. Sqare and round thread. 236. Free hand and wavy line used for detail and
D. V and round thread. assembly drawing is represented by:
A. Short break line.
228. The type of sectional view used when a view is B. Ditto line.
needed showing both the exterior and interior C. Hidden line.
construction of a symmetrical object is: D. Focus line.
A. Full section.
B. Half section. 237. In engineering drawing the long dash and dot
C. Partial section. alternately placed to represent an alternate position or
D. Revolved section. indication of the limiting position of moving parts is
known as:
229. When the cutting plane cuts an object laterally or A. Indicating line.
cross wise it is called B. Long break line.
A. Longitudinal section. C. Phantam line.
B. Lateral section. D. Locus line.
C. Half section.
D. Cross section. 238. In engineering drawing thin long chain
represents:
230. In engineering drawing the minium length of A. False and developed view.
pencil stub to be kept as: B. Boundary lines.
A. 50mm. C. Hidden detail.
B. 30mm. D. Centre line.
C. 45mm.
D. 75mm. 239. Short and zig zag line is used to show:
A. Limited portion of a larger object.
231. set sqare are used for drawing the different lines B. Limited portion of a smaller object.
of C. Boundary line of any object.
A. Curved lines. D. Broken line of any object.
B. Oblique lines.
C. Vertical&inclined lines. 240. The dimension should not be scaled from blue
D. None above. print because:
A. Dimensions are always not be scale.
232. The hidden lines are to be drawn, the grade of B. Dimensions are inconsistant.
pencil used is : C. The Paper is subjected to slight shrinking due to
A. H. washing and drying up.
B. B. D. Dimensions may not beadequate.
C. HB.
D. 2 H. 241. The title block is located in the drawing sheet at
A. Top left hand corner.
233. In Modern roman letter type elementary strokes B. Bottom any corner.
are: C. Bottom right hand corner.
A. Vertical. D. Top right hand corner.
B. Horizontal.
C. Accented. 242. White lines can be added to a blue print even
D. Longitudinal. after printing process i s over by :
A. Ferric salt solution.
234. A line having one long and two short dashes B. Potassium terrocynide.
alternately and evenly spaced is: C. Ferro- prussiate.
A. Short break line. D. Strong washing soda solution.
84
243. The category of drawing, where sides will look D. Five categories.
smaller which are away from the viewer than that
which is near is: 251. To read workshop drawing of a mechine parts
A. Oblique drawing. means to make cut the sequ ence of operation in
B. Isometric drawing. process of:
C. Pictorial drawing. A. Manufacturing of parts.
D. Perspective drawing. B. Checking of parts.
C. Dismantling of parts.
244. The drawing which gives the drawing of a single D. Assembling of parts.
part which cannot be f urther sub divided is called:
A. Simple drawing. 252. In third angle orthographic plan view taken from
B. Assembly drawing. A. Left on the front elevation.
C. Detail drawing. B. Right on the front elevation.
D. Spot drawing. C. Top of the front elevation.
D. Bottom of the front elevation.
245. Type of drawing shows a number of components
in an assembled condition to from a self contained 253. In four stroke cycle engine the cycle of operation
unit is: comprises of :
A. Detailed drawing. A. 2 revolution of the crank shaft.
B. Assembly drawing. B. 1 revolution of the crank shaft.
C. General arrangement drawing. C. One upward and one down ward movement of the
D. Auxiliary drawing. piston.
D. One upward and two down ward movement of the
246. In engineering drawing, the projection of the top piston.
side of the object o n the horizontal plane is called:
A. Front elevation. 254. In turbojet engine the initial ignition is rovided
B. Plane. by :
C. Single plane. A. Sparking plug.
D. Side elevation. B. Compresion ignition.
C. Hot ignition.
247. The chief characteristic of third angle projection D. Igniter pump.
is that each view i s so placed that it represents the
side of the object: 255. The compressor's main parts are :
A. Remote from it in the adjacent view. A. Compressor, rotor and diffuser.
B. Near to it in the adjacent view. B. Compressor, diffuser and zet nozzle.
C. Opposite to it in the adjacent view. C. Turbine, exhaust pipe and compressor.
D. At an angle to it in the adjacent view. D. Compressor, rotor and zet nozzle.

248. The projection consists of plan and side view, but 256. The electric field of the primary coil is mode to
arranged in such a way that each view is drawn to collapse to generate high voltage in secondary coil by
represent that nearside of adjacent vie w is: the help of :
A. First angle projection. A. Choke.
B. Third angle projection. B. Contact breaker.
C. Orthographic projection. C. Rectifier.
D. General section view. D. Sealed discharge gap.

249. In orhtographic drawing, the object is imagined 257. The principle of electric starter is to convert the
to be placed in front of a vertical plane known as: A. Mechanical energy into electrical energy.
A. Front elevation. B. Electrical energy into mechanical energy.
B. Horizontal plane. C. Magnetic energy into electrical energy.
C. Ground plane. D. Magnetic energy into mechanical energy.
D. Reference.
258. The purpose of a vent line on the top of a fuel
250. Orthographic projection are classified in number tank is to :
of categories accordi ng to the object placed in the A. Over flow the excess fuel.
four quadrants are : B. Vent fuel vapour to atmosphere.
A. Two Categories. C. Reduce the fire risk.
B. Four Categories. D. Vent fuel vapour and maintain differential
C. Three Categories. atmospheric pressure.
85
259. Altimeter works on the principle of : D. Steering arm.
A. Moving coil milivolt meter.
B. Thermocouple. 268. The towing apparatus used in conjuction with a
C. Aneroid. towing vehicle for pull ig light aircraft forward is
D. Dynamic pressure. A. Towing frame.
B. Towing bridle.
260. At high altitude pilot is provided with oxygen to C. Towing bridle aof wire cable.
avoid : D. Lightly manufactured towing arm.
A. Loss of judgement and giddiness.
B. Blood pooling and frost bite. 269. What is the operatus to be used for aircraft with
C. Loss of judgement and forst bite. tail wheel for towin g forward on soft or uneven
D. Loss of vision and blood pooling. ground :
A. Towing bridle and steering arm.
261. Jet pipe temperature gauge is a : B. Towing arm or bar.
A. Moving coil milivolt meter. C. Towing bridle of wire cable.
B. Moving coil volt meter. D. Towing frame.
C. Ohm meter.
D. Power meter. 270. While marshalling arms repeatedly moved
upward, back ward, back on-ing on ward will indicate
262. The air speed indicator works on : :
A. Static pressure. A. Stright ahead.
B. Dynamic pressure. B. Stright backward.
C. Difference between pitot and static pressure. C. Slow down engine.
D. Bowden tube principle. D. Chocks away.

263. The induced EMF in exhauset gas temperature 271. A ladder mounted on wheels with a working
gauge depends upon : platform adjustable for high t is :
A. Material of thermocouple. A. Swing back ladder.
B. Difference between hot junction and cold junction B. Special elevating ladder.
temperature. C. Shelt ladder.
C. Velocity of gas. D. Swing ack flat ladder.
D. All above.
272. Damage to the hyd system of pillar hyd jack is
264. Aircraft fuel tanks are not normally left empty or prevented by providing :
partially empty ove r night This is to : A. Small over flow holes at the upper end of pressure
A. Ensure long life of the tank. cylinder.
B. Avoid gum formation. B. Small over flow holes at the lower end of pressure
C. Ensure setting of sediments. cylinder.
D. Prevent water contamination. C. Cut out valve.
D. Vent valve.
265. Aircraft must not be left overnight with partially
empty tanks because rapid condensation is liable to 273. For dealing with small gasolene, oil or kerosene
take place in :- fire the fire extingu sher used is :-
A. Reservoir. A. CO2.
B. Refuellers. B. Soda acid.
C. Fuel tanks. C. CTC.
D. Fuel rankers. D. Pyrene fire extingusher.

266. For aeroengine ground run a suitable fire 274. For servicing large aircraft the servicing ladder
extingusher to be positioned is :- used is :-
A. CTC. A. Shell ladder.
B. CO2. B. Special elevating ladder.
C. Methyl Bromide. C. Swing back ladder.
D. Foam type. D. Swing back flat ladder.

267. The aircraft should be towed on soft ground by :- 275. In aircraft marshalling signals, if right or left arm
A. Towing arm. down, other arm moved accross body and entended
B. Towing frame. will indicate :
C. Towing bridle. A. Turn which backing tail to port/stbd.
86
B. All clear marshalling finished. C. Pulse receiving power.
C. Proceed under guidance to next marshaller. D. Peak receiving power.
D. Slow down port engine/stbd engine.
284. The light rays flows in sinusoidal path in:
276. Marshalling signals of arms down palm facing A. step index fibre.
out wards swing arms from extended postion out B. Mono index fibre.
wards wil indicate : C. Graded index fibre.
A. Chocks away. D. Single index fibre.
B. Insert chocks.
C. Slow down engine. 285. Black box is a:
D. Stop engine. A. Ground equipment.
B. Trans-receiver.
277. On of the main advantages of CO2 as an C. Air-borne device.
enxtinguishing agent is : D. Test equipment.
A. Its rapidity of discharge.
B. It prevent burning and makes to starve fire. 286. Digital flight data recorder is located in.
C. Being inert gas it effectively blankets a fire. A. cockpit.
D. It cuts of the oxygen. B. ATC.
C. CUR.
278. On receipt of AOG demand the senior logistic D. Black-box.
officer is to ensure for identifications tally with
standard publication and signals to be send to : 287. The number of satellites to cover the whole earth
A. BRDs. by INTELSAT is:
B. Appropriate Equipment depot. A. two.
C. Civil agency. B. three.
D. Manufacturer agency. C. four.
D. five.
279. Prior to starting of aero engines the suitable type
of fire enxtinguis her to be positioned is : 288. Laser stand for:
A. CTC. A. Light amplification by stimulated emission of
B. CO2 type. radiation.
C. Methyl bromide. B. Light amplification by simulated emission of
D. Foam. radiation.
C. Light amplification by stimulated emmission of
280. Signalling by left arm extended forward radiowaves.
horizontally cleanched right h and making horizontal D. Light amplification by simulated emission of
slicing movement below the left palm, downward is electric radiation.
for :-
A. Winch down. 289. The otto cycle consists of.
B. Winch UP. A. Two constant volume line and two adiabatic.
C. Hover. B. Two constant volume line and a adiabatic line.
D. Release load. C. One constant volume line and Two adiabatic.
D. Two constant volume line only.
281. The fire extinguisher which is designed primarily
to extinguish aircra ft engine starting up fire is : 290. Radius gauges are used to check the:
A. Methyl bromide. A. Out side circumrence of a component.
B. CO2. B. Inside circumference of a component.
C. CTC. C. Inside radius of a component.
D. Foam. D. Inside or outside radius of a component.

282. CRT stands for: 291. A metric micrometer having a plus error of 0.01
A. Code rate timer. mm, when set to 8.5mm on barrel scale and 31
B. Cathode ray tube. divisions on thimble scale, the actual measurem ent
C. Clutter reduction technique. will be :
D. Call relay timer. A. 8.8 mm.
B. 8.81 mm.
283. PRP stands for: C. 8.79 mm.
A. Peak repetition period. D. 11.59mm.
B. Pulse repetition period.
87
292. The lenght of the vernier scale of a metric vernier C. Lead screen.
caliper 24/25 syst em is: D. Wooden screen.
A. 0.5 mm.
B. 1 mm. 301. While using ultrasonic flowdector air gap
C. 12 mm. between the probe and the su rface under tests
D. 49 mm. eliminated by:
A. Use of rubber padding.
293. DTI (metric system) is designed to read a range B. Use of rubber boots.
of: C. Applying oil.
A. 1 mm left or right. D. Clamping the probe tightly.
B. 0.5 mm clockwise.
C. 0.5 mm counterclockwise. 302. In the order of corrodibility the least corrodable
D. 0.5 mm clockwise and 0.5 mm anticlockwise. metal is:
A. Chromium.
294. In bevel protractory one vernier scale division is B. Nickle.
equal to: C. Alluminium.
A. 5 minutes. D. Erass.
B. 15 minutes.
C. 55 minutes. 303. Light alloys and stainless steel are:
D. 115 minutes. A. Susceptable to intercrystaline corrosion.
B. Not susceptable to corrosion,ht.
295. In screw pitch gauge (or profile gauge) the C. Susceptable to surface.
number of teeth per teeth per inch is marked on: D. susceptable to corrosion due to galvanic action.
A. Tip of first blade.
B. Body. 304. To file concave surface and elongating circular
C. Tips of last blade. opening, the standard section of file used is:
D. Each blade. A. Round.
B. Half round.
296. Limit gauges are used to determine: C. Three square.
A. High limit dimension. D. Square.
B. Low limit dimension.
C. Internal and external dimension. 305. If the point of a scriber is blunt it is to be:
D. Internal dimension within specified limit. A. Sharpened on oil stone.
B. Sharpened on grinding wheel but dipped into water
297. The angle between the cutting edge and axis of time to time to protect its temper.
the drill is called: C. Sharpened by using a file to avoid over heating.
A. Clearence angle. D. Discard the scriber and chage with a new one.
B. Web angle.
C. Flute angle. 306. Surface plates are made from:
D. Cutting angle. A. Cast iron.
B. Wrought iron.
298. For enlarging the size of hole and bushes,the C. Pig iron.
reamer used is : D. High carbon.
A. Hand expanding reamer.
B. Shell reamer. 307. While using scribing the bent end of scribed
C. Hand taper reamers. should point:
D. Hand parallel reamers. A. Upwards.
B. Downwards.
299. Prior to drilling hole,to locate drill center C. Towards your right.
punching is done by a ce nter punch having angkle of: D. Towards your left.
A. 450.
B. 900. 308. While using scribing block lines can be scribed
C. 600. paralled to the edge o f the table with the help of :
D. 1200. A. Straight end of the scriber.
B. Bent end of the scriber.
300. Electro magnetic crack detection is applid to: C. Marker piece.
A. All types of metals. D. Dowels.
B. Fabric screen.

88
309. Key seat rule is made of B. 50 mm to 65 mm.
A. Low carbon steel hardened and tempered. C. 60 mm to 75 mm.
B. High carbon steel hardened and tempered. D. 50 mm to 75mm.
C. Medium carbon steel case hardened.
D. Plain carbon steel annealed and normalised. 318. Diminishing resistance to fracture caused by
fluctuating stresses is t ermed as:
310. Fitters square is made of A. Toughness.
A. Medium carbon steel hardened. B. Hardness.
B. High carbon steel hardened and tempered. C. Fatigue.
C. Vanadium (blade) and mild steel (stock). D. Brittlennes.
D. Spring steel and cast iron.
319. The capacity of a material to return to its original
311. The legs of the callipers are curved outwards at diensions on the removal of distorting forces :
the extrimities is kn ow as; A. Elasticity.
A. Jenny callipers. B. Conductivity.
B. Out side callipers. C. Ductility.
C. Inside callipers. D. Tenacity.
D. common callipers.
320. The capacity of material to observe the energy in
312. Spanners used in restricted spaces is; electrical range is called.
A. Splined tube spanner A. Elasticity.
B. Peg spanner. B. Tenacity.
C. crow foot spanner. C. Resilience.
D. Terry set. D. Resistivity.

313. A metric micrometer having minus error 0.02mm 321. The property of being permanently extended or
when set to 7 5mm on bar rel scale and 13 divisions flattened by hammering r olling or pressing without
on thimble scale ,the actual measurement will be; rupture is known as :
A. 7.61mm. A. Tenacity.
B. 7.63mm. B. Malleability.
C. 7.65. C. Softness.
D. 7.67mm. D. Plasicity.

314. If the spindle of micrometer is worn out ,the 322. The property of resisting breakage when
errour shown by the micr ometer should by : subjected to bending sudden bl ow or twist is termed
A. Subtraced from the reading. as;
B. Added to the reading. A. Hardness.
C. Ignored. B. Brittleness.
D. micrometer is not to be used. C. Toughness.
D. fatigue.
315. In external metricmeter of 25-50mm size, if the
thimble is rotated for four complete turns from 'o'the 323. The resistance offered by material for
reading will be: deformation at the elastic state is.
A. 25.04mm. A. Strength.
B. 27mm. B. Toughness.
C. 24.96mm. C. Ductility.
D. 2.00mm. D. Stiffness.

316. The minimum measurement that can be taken 324. The slow and progressive deformation of
with collar with the largest extension rod of an material over a period of time under a constant stress
internal metric micrometer is: and elevator temperature is called.
A. 265mm. A. Conductivity.
B. 285mm. B. Creep.
C. 235mm. C. Plasticity.
D. 325mm. D. Tenacity.

317. The smallmest size of extension rod avilable in a 325. A permissible range of dimensions of finished
set of 50mm to 300mm metric internal micrometer is: components provided to cover unavoidable
A. 50 mm to 100 mm. inaccuracies in manufacture is:
89
A. Allowance. C. Mix of kerosene and lubricating oil with french
B. Clearance. chalk.
C. Tolerance. D. Mix of trichlorethylene and lubricating oil with
D. Variation. french.

326. The class of fit suitable for various type of 334. The flourescent solution remaining in the flows
moving parts is: or cracks will reveal clearly as;
A. Driving fit. A. Bright lines or patches of light .
B. Running fit. B. Dull red in colour with broken lines.
C. Push fit. C. Thin black lines or bright patches.
D. Force fit. D. Thin red lines with bright patches.
327. Type of fit suitable for detachable or locating
parts is: 335. Hammers are classified by its :
A. Force. A. Weight and number stamped on the side.
B. Interference. B. Type and weight of the head in ounces.
C. Transition. C. Type and weight of the head in grammes.
D. Clearance. D. Number stamped on the side of the head.

328. The key fits into a key-way in the shaft and will 336. A common grade file used for ordinary
transmit high power is: engineering work where finish is not important is:
A. Feather key. A. Dead smooth.
B. Flat saddle key. B. Second cut.
C. Woodruff key. C. Bastard.
D. Gib headed key. D. Rough.

329. Colour of small stainless steel bult which has no 337. The length of file is measured between:
recognised standard marking is: A. Shoulder to the tip of blade.
A. Brown lacquer. B. Full length.
B. Blue. C. Shoulder and tang end.
C. Green anodic. D. Teeth cut portion end to end.
D. Yellow lacquor.
338. To induce toughness to a new file process used
330. Aluminium alloy nuts are identified by: is:
A. Washed face machined on one face of a nut. A. Pickling.
B. Washed face machined on both face of a nut. B. Pinning.
C. Letter 'L'stamped on one side. C. breaking in.
D. Letter 'AA' stamed on one side. D. Draw filing.

331. To identify a brass nut of 9/16 inch BSF, left 339. The property of resisting breakage when under
hand thread the code le tter marked on the face of the the application of pulling force is known as.
nut is; A. Elasticity.
A. PBL. B. Tenacity.
B. BPL. C. Ductility.
C. LPB. D. Conductivity.
D. BLP.
340. A plain carbon ateel with carbon content of 0
332. The hot fluid chalk method is used where: 67% is;
A. A small component can be removed. A. Low carbon steel .
B. A big component can be removed. B. Medium carbon steel.
C. A small component can not be removed. C. Blister steel.
D. A big component can not be removed. D. high carbon steel.

333. What is the mixture used in cold fluid chalk test 341. Eliments added to steel to get greater
method of crak detec tion: strength,toughness and resistan e to fatigue is:
A. Mixture of methylated of fruit and french chalk. A. Chromium.
B. Lubricating oil and french chalk. B. nickel.
C. Tungsten.
D. Molybdenum.

90
342. Property induced by adding 3% of chromium to 350. To secure maximum strength and hardness to
alloy steel is: duralumin which have been a nnealed must be:
A. Strength. A. Age hardened.
B. Toughness. B. solution treated.
C. Hardness. C. Precipitation treated.
D. Hardness at high temperature. D. Anodised.

343. The element added with steel to get the great 351. Duralmin tubing should be solution treated:
strength,greater resista nce to fatigue is. A. Prior to bending or flaring.
A. Cobalt. B. After bending or flaring.
B. Tungsten. C. Prior and after bending or flaring.
C. chromium. D. only on rebending or flaring.
D. Vanadium.
352. What type of heat treatment is given to brass:
344. 'Y' alloy is used for making: A. Hardening.
A. Air craft structural parts. B. Case hardening.
B. Piston and cylinder heads. C. Annealing.
C. Stressed skin of aircraft. D. Blueing.
D. Rivts.
353. When alumium alloy is quenched from high
345. Indicate the false statement Modulation is used temperature the excess copper comes out of solution
to. This is known as:
A. reduce the bandwidth. A. Decoppering.
B. separate differing transmissions. B. Annealing.
C. ensure that intelligence may be transmitted over C. Evaporation.
long distance. D. Precipitation.
D. allow the use of practical antennas.
354. Advantage of case hardening by nitriding process
346. The modulation index of an AM wave is changed is:
from 0 to 1 The transmitted power is: A. Retention of hardness at low temperature.
A. Unchanged. B. Retention of hardness at high temperature.
B. Halved. C. The depth of hardened case may be 0.08".
C. Doubled. D. It is easy and cheap.
D. Increased by 50%.
355. Which of the following process does not require
347. In communication system noise is most likely to quenching after case h ardening:
affect the signal. A. open hearth process.
A. At the transmitter. B. Box.
B. In the information source. C. Nitriding.
C. In the channel. D. cyanids.
D. At the destination.
356. If a body is stressed beyond it elastic limt, the
348. In a broadcast Superheterodyne receiver, the. strain thus produced will not retreat completely on
A. local oscillator operates below the signal removal of force This residual or rema ining strain is
frequency. called:
B. Mixer input must be tuned to the signal frequency. A. Sheer stress.
C. Local oscillator frequency is normally double the B. Tensile strain.
RF. C. permanent set.
D. RF amplifier normally works at 455 KHz above D. Tensile stress.
the carrier frequency.
357. Electro-magnetic crack detection method is
349. One of the following cannot be used to remove suitable for the components made of :
the unwanted sideband in SSB This is the A. Magnesium alloy.
A. Filter system. B. nickle chromium.
B. Phase shift method. C. ferrous metal and can be magnetised.
C. Third Method. D. Non ferrous metals:
D. Balanced Modulator.

91
358. Non distructive tests of crack detection are D. Interference drag.
preferred because they:
A. Are cheaper and faster. 366. If the aspect ratio of wing is higher, the effect of
B. Can be used easily. it will:
C. Do not damage the component. A. Increase the induced drag.
D. Can be used at any part of the component. B. Decrease the induced drag.
C. Keep the aircraft stable while landing.
359. The flourescent solution remaining in the flows D. Keep the aircraft stable while taking off.
or cracks will reveal clearly as:
A. 367. If the aspect ratio is higher, the induced drag is:
B. A. Higher.
C. B. Lower.
D. C. Constant.
D. Increased.
360. When testing a component for crack detection by
flourescent dye penetr ant method,the flows will: 368. Lift is obtained at the expense of a certain
A. Reveal as violet lines or patches under ultra violet amount of horizontal forc is known as:
rays. A. Thrust.
B. Show bright lines or patches under ultra violet rays. B. Weight.
C. reveal bluish lines or patches under ultra C. Drag.
violetrays. D. Forward movement.
D. Show thin black lines or patches under ultra vilot
rays. 369. The principal factor affecting induced drag is:
A. Plan form of the wing.
361. While performance x ray crack detection the B. Shape of fuselage.
operations are protected f rom stray radiation by: C. Design of the tail plane.
A. Metal screen. D. Type of control surfaces.
B. Fabric screen.
C. Lead screen. 370. The point on the main plane at which the
D. Wooden screen. boundary layer changes from laminar flow to
turbulent flow is:
362. Lift is obtained at the expense of a certain A. Stagnation point.
amount of horizontal forc is known as: B. Transition point.
A. Thrust. C. Critical point.
B. Weight. D. Separation point.
C. Drag.
D. Forward movement. 371. The value of a resistor creating thermal noise is
doubled The noise power generated is therefore:
363. At the critical angle of attack, the flow of air A. halved.
from top surface of aerofoil becomes turbulent which B. quadrupled.
is termed as. C. doubled.
A. Burbling. D. unchanged.
B. Curling.
C. Knurling. 372. Indicate the noise whose source is in the category
D. Rolling. different from that of the other three.
A. Solar noise.
364. The point on the main plane at which the B. Cosmic noise.
boundary layer changes from laminar flow to the C. Atmospheric noise.
turbulent flow is. D. Galactic noise.
A. Stagnation point.
B. Transition point. 373. In a low level AM system amplifier is following
C. Critical point. the modulated stage must be.
D. Separation point. A. Linear devices.
B. Harmonic devices.
365. Drag which varies inversely to the square of the C. Class C amplifier.
indicated air speed i. D. Non linear devices.
A. Profile drag.
B. Wing drag. 374. If the carrier of a 100% modulated AM wave is
C. Induced drag. suppressed the percentage power saving will be.
92
A. 50. C. LC.
B. 150. D. Low-pass.
C. 100.
D. 66.6. 382. In a radio receiver with simple AGC.
A. an increase in the signal strength produces more
375. One of the following is not a useful quantity for AGC.
comparing the noise performance. B. the audio stage gain is normally controlled by the
A. Input noise voltage. AGC.
B. Noise temperature. C. the faster the AGC time constant, the more
C. Equivalent noise temperature. accurate the output.
D. Noise figure. D. the highest the AGC voltage is produced between
stations.
376. A carrier is simultaneously modulated by the two
Sine waves with the modulation indices of 0.3 and 383. The local oscillator of a broadcast receiver is
0.4; the total modulation index is. tuned to the frequency higher than the incoming
A. 1. frequency.
B. cannot be calculated unless the phase relations are A. To help the image frequency rejection.
known. B. To permit easier tracking.
C. 0.5. C. Because otherwise an intermediate frequency could
D. 0.7. not be produced.
D. To allow adequate frequency coverage without
377. In the spectrum of frequency modulated wave. switching.
A. The carrier frequency disappears when the
modulation index is large. 384. If the intermediate frequency is very high
B. The amplitude of any sideband depends on the (indicate the false statement).
modulation index. A. Image frequency rejection is very good.
C. The total number of sidebands depends on the B. The local oscillator need not be extremely stable.
modulation index. C. The selectivity will be poor.
D. The carrier frequency cannot disappear. D. Tracking will be improved.

378. A pre-emphasis circuit provides extra noise 385. One of the following cannot be used to
immunity by. demodulate SSB.
A. boosting the bass frequencies. A. product detector.
B. amplifying the higher audio frequencies. B. diode balanced modulator.
C. pre-amplifying the shole audio band. C. bipolar transistor balanced modulator.
D. converting the phase modulation to FM. D. complete phase shift generator.

379. Indicate which one of the following is not an 386. Distance near The skip distance should be used
advantage of FM over AM. for sky wave propagation.
A. better noise immunity is provided. A. to avoid tilting.
B. lower bandwidth is required. B. to prevent sky-wave and upper ray interference.
C. the transmitted power is more useful. C. to avoid the faraday effect.
D. less modulating power is required. D. so as not to exceed the critical frequency.

380. Indicate the false statement regarding the 387. Frequencies in the UHF range propagate by
advantage of SSB over double sideband, full carrier means of.
AM. A. Ground waves.
A. More channel space is available. B. Sky waves.
B. Transmitter circuit must be more stable, giving C. Surface waves.
better reception. D. Space waves.
C. The signal is more noise resistant.
D. Much less power is required for the same signal 388. The ground wave eventually disappears, as one
strength. moves away from the transmitter, because of.
A. interference from.
381. The most commonly used filters in SSB B. loss of line of sight conditions.
generation are. C. maximum single hop distance limitation.
D. tilting.
A. Mechanical. 389. To provide two or more voice circuits with the
B. RC. same carrier, it is necessary to use.
93
A. ISB. A. 3 full adders and one half ader.
B. Carrier. B. 4 full adders.
C. SSB with pitot carrier. C. 4 full subtractors.
D. Lincompex. D. 3 full subtractors and one half subtractors.

390. In EM waves polarization is. 399. A Flip Flop is a.


A. caused by reflection. A. Astable Multivibrator.
B. is due to the transverse nature of the waves. B. Bistable Multivibrator.
C. results from longitudinal nature of the waves. C. Monostable Multivibrator.
D. is always vertical in an isotropic medium. D. None of the above.

391. The emitter of a transistor is doped. 400. In a Transistor if the base resistance is shorted it
A. to a lesser extent than collector. will be :
B. depends upon specification. A. Saturated.
C. heavily. B. Cut off.
D. so that most of emitter injected electron ea go to C. Destroyed.
the base of transistor. D. None of the above.

392. Basic drawback with base bias circuit is 401. The transistor of Class B push pull Amplifiers
A. the base and collecter power supplies are same. are biased at :
B. base and collecter resistors are returned to collector A. Cut off.
supply. B. Center of DC load line.
C. it cannot be used in switching circuits. C. Saturation.
D. Beta dc varies with current and temperature. D. Biasing is fixed by manufacturer.

393. In the collector feedback bias. 402. The varactor is usually.


A. the Beta dc generally varies. A. F Biased.
B. the base resistor is grounded. B. R Biased.
C. the base resistor is returned to the collector than to C. Unbiased.
power supply. D. In the breakdown region.
D. difficult to set a stable Q-point.
403. For nomal operation of the transistor the
394. Amplification factor for triode is given by. collector diode has tobe.
A. = rp/gm. A. F B.
B. = gm.rp. B. R B.
C. = gm/rp+gm. C. Non conducting.
D. None of the above. D. Operating in breakdown region.

395. The transistor used in power amplifier have. 404. If an amitter follower has V CEQ = 5V, ICQ
A. large current ratings. =mA and re = 1 K the maximum peak to peak
B. large voltage ratings. unclipped output is.
C. large power dissipating capacity. A. 1V.
D. neither of these characteristics. B. 2V.
C. 5V.
396. The input and output signals of a CE amplifier D. 10V.
are.
A. Always equal. 405. The common grade of files used to give good
B. Out of phase. finish quickly and has about 40 teeth per inch is
C. Always negative. called:
D. In phase. A. Rough.
B. Bastard.
397. (0.85) in binary is. C. Second cut.
A. 101010. D. Smooth.
B. 110110.
C. 011111. 406. Drills are classified by :-
D. 111100. A. Type, material and size.
B. Type, cut, width & blade.
398. A 1’s complement 4 bit paralles bibary subtractor C. Length, type and material.
requires : D. Size , length and cut.
94
C. 25mm.
407. The material used to make precision instrument D. 15mm.
is known as :-
A. Stainless steel. 416. To find out the appropriate center of round bar,
B. INVAR steel. the clipper used is :
C. Cast Iron. A. Even leg clipper.
D. High Carbon steel. B. utside clipper.
C. Inside clipper.
408. The term " Hand brace" is associated with: D. Odd leg clipper.
A. Drilling.
B. Filing. 417. In lead acid battery (charged state) electrolyte
C. Screwing. used is.
D. Tinning. A. Dilute H2SO4.
B. Concentrated sulphuric acid.
409. The property whereby a metal can be drawn out C. KOH.
into a wire without cracking is known as : D. Unaffected.
A. Fusibility.
B. Plasticity. 418. In Ni-Cd battery (charged state), positive plate
C. Ductility. used is.
D. Tenacity. A. PbO2.
B. PbSO4.
410. These tools are used for gripping or cutting C. Ni2O2.
purpose : D. Cd.
A. Ring Spanners.
B. Lead Hammers. 419. In lead acid battery (discharged state), negative
C. Pliers. plate used is.
D. Dies. A. PbO2.
B. PbSO4.
411. The metal which is having the properties of soft, C. Ni(OH)2.
plastic, malleable and acid resistant is : D. Cd(OH)2.
A. Zinc.
B. Lead. 420. In lead acid battery (charged state) negative plate
C. Aluminum. used is.
D. Copper. A. PbO2.
B. PbSO4.
412. It is a process of shaping of metals by pressure or C. Ni(OH)2.
by hammer in a die of required shape is called: D. Cd(OH)2.
A. Stamping.
B. Forging. 421. (0.85) in binary is.
C. Stretching. A. 101010.
D. Swaging. B. 110110.
C. 011111.
413. The process by which a new file is first used on D. None of the above.
soft metal is called :
A. Breaking in. 422. In any group If 1’s are completely overlapped by
B. Pickling. other grouping, the group is called :
C. Safe edge. A. Overlap.
D. Pinning. B. Irredundant.
C. Redundant and should be eliminated.
414. In metric system Hacksaw blade length is D. None of the above.
measured from :
A. Centre to centre. 423. A 1’s complement 4 bit parallel binary subtractor
B. Edge to edge. requires:
C. Centre to handle. A. 3 full adders and one half adder.
D. centre to edge. B. 4 full adders.
C. 4 full subtractors.
415. The range of Micro-Meter is : D. 3 full subtractors and one half subtractors.
A. 35mm. 424. A Flip Flop is a.
B. 45mm. A. Astable Multivibrator.
95
B. Bistable Multivibrator. 433. To safe guard the finished surface of job against
C. Monostable Multivibrator. damage by the teeth of the vice jaws, clamps used are
D. None of the above. of :
A. Copper, steel and magnesium.
425. In a Transistor if the base resistance is shorted it B. Copper, lead and aluminium.
will be : C. copper, iron and aluminium.
A. Saturated. D. Silver foil, lead and aluminium.
B. Cut off.
C. Destroyed. 434. The plier suitable for holding screw heads and
D. None of the above. nuts :
A. Bernard.
426. The colour of corrosion on steel is. B. Hellerman.
A. Brown. C. Flat nose.
B. Black. D. Slip joint plier.
C. Gray.
D. Reddish brown. 435. Material used for insulation between commutator
segment is :
427. The process of shaping hot metals by means of A. Micanite.
hammer and presses in. B. Paxolin.
A. Stamping. C. Mica.
B. Forging. D. Ebonite.
C. spinning.
D. drawing. 436. Low carbon steel is having carbon content of :
A. 0.75% to 1.5%.
428. Aircraft parts like oleo legs and ball bearing are B. 0.25% to 0.75%.
plated with. C. 0.25% to 1.5%.
A. Nickel. D. Upto 0.25%.
B. chromium.
C. Zinc. 437. The capacity of an organic material to get deform
D. Cadmium. or change the shape under heat and pressure is :
A. Elasticity.
429. The least count of matric vernier caliper is. B. Resilience.
A. 0.001 ". C. Plasticity.
B. 0.01 mm. D. Extrusion.
C. 0.02 mm.
D. 1 mm. 438. While soldering LDRs and thermisters the
temperature should not exceed above.
430. The purpose of standard wire gauge is to A. 350 deg C.
measure : B. 250 deg C.
A. The clearance between two surfaces. C. 200 deg C.
B. The size of wires and sheets. D. 150 deg C.
C. The inside and outside radius of the component.
D. Slot widths and caliper settings. 439. If inter-crystalline corrosion is detected on
aircraft part, it should be :
431. The process of using a new file first on soft metal A. Electroplated.
is called : B. Replaced.
A. Draw filing. C. Covered with enamel paint.
B. Pinning. D. Given anodic treatement.
C. Pickling.
D. Breaking in. 440. Files, thin bladed of fine grade made out of
special steel, hardened and tempered are:
432. Hacksaw blade may loose its correct temper if it A. Equalizing file.
is : B. Geneva file.
A. Loosely fitted. C. Rasp file.
B. used with more pressure. D. Swiss file.
C. Cutting at faster rate.
D. Fitted too light. 441. Pin vice is used for holding:
A. Square jobs.
B. Small rods.
96
C. Bigger jobsBigger rods. C. Eliminating.
D. Bigger rods. D. Oration.

442. Needle files are used for: 451. First type of adding machine was invented by:
A. Making hole in the needle. A. John Napier.
B. Filing in odd places. B. Charles Babbage.
C. Pierce design work in thick metals. C. Blaise Pascal.
D. Pierce design work in thin metals. D. Dore Fiet.

443. Wardling files are used for: 452. Hybrid computer is a :


A. Filing the electrical contacts. A. Special purpose computer.
B. Pierced design work. B. Combination of analog and digital computer.
C. Making key and key ways. C. General purpose computer.
D. For curved surface. D. Digital computer.

444. Fine point pliers are used for: 453. Name the computer which doesn't compute
A. Removal of parts from restricted place. directly with the number:
B. Watch spring. A. Mini computer.
C. Holding small rods and pins. B. Micro computer.
D. Holding delicate parts. C. Digital computer.
D. Analog computer.
445. Bolley set screw drivers are usually available in:
A. 8 different sizes. 454. Digital computer is used for :
B. 3 different sizes. A. Business and engineering calculation.
C. 4 different sizes. B. To solve specific Programme.
D. 5 different sizes. C. To perform variety of a operation.
D. To solve navigational problem.
446. The metal having crystalline structure, becomes
very hard when chilled : 455. Flip flops are clocked to achieve :
A. Pig iron. A. Synchronization.
B. Wrought iron. B. Optimization.
C. Steel. C. More propagations time.
D. Cast iron. D. 'O' as output of all flip flop.

447. In a twist drill the narrow strips along the cutting 456. The number 17 octal is equivalent to binary :
edge of the blutes is known as : A. 111.
A. Shank. B. 1110.
B. Lands. C. 10000.
C. Body. D. 1111.
D. Axis.
457. Which of the following is not octal number:
448. One complete turn of the thimble of the A. 19.
micrometer gives a travel of : B. 7.
A. 0.5 cm. C. 15.
B. 0.1 cm. D. 101.
C. 0.5 mm.
D. 0.1 mm. 458. Junction diode is a :
A. Bipolar device.
449. Dividers are classified by : B. Constant voltage device.
A. The materials of the legs. C. Unipolar device.
B. The distance between the legs. D. Constant current device.
C. The perimeter of the arcs and circles.
D. the length of the legs. 459. A register stores:
A. One word of data.
450. Process of eliminating errors in computer B. A byte.
program is known as: C. One instruction.
A. De bugging. D. 4 bits data.
B. Rearranging.

97
460. To feed fresh program in the memory, use: 469. Semi conductor memory in computer is based
A. New. on.
B. List. A. Magnetic circuit operation.
C. Write fresh. B. Transformer operation.
D. Print. C. Transistor operation.
D. Non magnetic circuit operation.
461. Not gate is known as:
A. Converter. 470. Half adder is called so because it :
B. Inverter. A. Can add half the bits in a binary number.
C. Rectifier. B. Works for half time only.
D. Amplifier. C. Performs addition in two halves.
D. Can not accept a carry from previous additions.
462. Computer hardware usually refers to:
A. Hard metallic component of a computer. 471. The only function of a NOT gate is to:
B. Various associated program. A. Stop a signal.
C. CPU. B. Re-complement a signal.
D. Central processor input/output devices and backing C. Invert an input signal.
storage. D. Act as a universal gate.

463. The JK Flip flop out put changes with each 472. In a half adder when the input signal A=1 and
trigger when: B=1 the:
A. Both J and K are zero. A. Sum =1,carry=0.
B. J is zero k is one. B. Sum =1, carry =1.
C. K is Zero and J is one. C. Sum=0,carry=0.
D. J and K are both on. D. Sum =0,carry=1.

464. Which of the statement is correct: 473. A full adder consists of:
A. NAND gate = Bubbled AND gate. A. Two half adders cascaded together.
B. NOR gate =Bubbled OR gate. B. Two half adders and one OR gate.
C. Bubbled OR gate = NAND gate. C. Two half adders and one AND gate.
D. AND gate = OR and NOR gate. D. Two NAND gates.

465. In high level language, the source program is 474. The type of memory, which provides very large
translated into object program with the help of storage capability with.
A. Computer. A. Dynamic memory.
B. Converter. B. Magnetic disc memory.
C. Compiler. C. Magnetic memory.
D. Translator. D. Bi polar memory.

466. When an input electrical signal A=10100 is 475. The first generation computer was introduced
applied to a NOT gate its ouput signal is a with:
A. 01011. A. Solid state transistors.
B. 10101. B. Vacuum tubes.
C. 10100. C. Chips.
D. 00101. D. IC's.

467. Truth table of a logic functions: 476. Second generation of computer started with the
A. Summaries its output value. introduction of transis.
B. Tabulates all its input conditions. A. 1950.
C. Displays all its input/output possibilities. B. 1958.
D. Is not based on the logic algebra. C. Early 60.
D. Late 70.
468. A static memory is one that.
A. Is capable of storing binary information 477. John Napier invented.
indefinitely. A. First type adding machine.
B. Requires periodic restoration of information. B. Computograph.
C. Is volatile. C. Logarithmic table.
D. Has destructive read out. D. Complex computer.

98
478. The input devices handles the flow of 487. General purpose high-level language is:
information to the computer. A. Cobol, FORTRAN, Lisp and basic.
A. Prior to the execution of the program. B. D8 base Multiplan, pli and ALGOL.
B. At the time of the execution of program. C. FORTRAN, basic, pli ,ALGOL and d base.
C. After the execution of the program. D. Cobol, lisp, word processor and multi plan.
D. When ever the floe of information are required.
488. When 10111 base 2 is added to 101111 base 2
479. Control unit process the data using: the result is.
A. Input and out put unit. A. 1000110 base 2.
B. AL. B. 1001001 base 2.
C. ALU with the help of memory unit. C. 1100100 base 2.
D. Only input unit. D. 1010100 base 2.

480. 2's complement of 1000 is: 489. The binary equivalent of 12.5 base 10 is.
A. 1000. A. 1100.01 base 2.
B. 001. B. 1100.001 base 2.
C. 1110. C. 1010.01 base 2.
D. 0111. D. 1100.1 base 2.

481. Binary equivalent of decimal number 26 base 10 490. The process in which heat is transmitted from
is: one point to the other.
A. 10110 base 2. A. Conduction.
B. 11010 base 2. B. Convection.
C. 10111base 2. C. Radiation.
D. 11001 base 2. D. Evaporation.

482. The decimal equivalent of binary 101.11 base 2 491. If the dry bulb and wet bulb temperature are
is: known, the parameter can.
A. 5.75. A. Dew point of the air.
B. 6.75. B. Relative humidity.
C. 3.5. C. Grains of moisture.
D. 9.75. D. Dry bulb temperature.

483. In computer the data are processed by : 492. The process in which the heat is transferred from
A. Memory unit. one place to other.
B. Arithmetic logic unit. A. Conduction.
C. Control unit. B. Convection.
D. Out put section. C. Radiation.
D. Evaporation.
484. The instruction written in binary form is known
as : 493. Transfer of heat from one point to another is
A. High level language. carried out by:
B. Symbolic language. A. Conduction, convection and radiation.
C. Computer language. B. Transformation.
D. Machine language. C. Boiling and heating.
D. None of the above.
485. A Programme in any language above machine
language is called: 494. The process in which heat is transmitted from
A. A source program. one place to another place.
B. An object program. A. Conduction.
C. Derived program. B. Convection.
D. System program. C. Radiation.
D. Evaporation.
486. A binary number that is equivalent to octal
number 61 is. 495. T' Square is used for:
A. 111000 base 2. A. Drawing horizontal line.
B. 101010 base 2. B. Drawing vertical line.
C. 11000 base 2. C. Drawing curved line.
D. 110110 base 2. D. Drawing semi circular line.
99
496. The Acronym 'CAD' in engineering drawing 505. The weather proofing material used for push
represents: switches and terminal lugs are:
A. Computer aided drawing. A. PVC conduit.
B. Computer aided drafting. B. Cotton tape, rubber tape.
C. Computer aided design. C. Weather proofing caps.
D. Computer aided dimensioning. D. Washers and gaskets.

497. Colour of paper usually used in Engineering 506. The disturbance set up by the radio interference
Drawing is: originates as radiation of.
A. Black. A. High tension discharge.
B. Blue. B. High frequency AC.
C. Brown. C. Sparking at contacts.
D. White. D. Electromagnet waves at radio frequencies.

498. A new bush of correct dimension of correct hole 507. When under carriage is in the locked UP
to be fixed in the plate while re cond. position, the indication is :
A. Force fit. A. All red lights are ON.
B. Driving fit. B. All lights are OFF.
C. Push fit. C. All green lights are ON.
D. Running fit. D. All green lights starts flashing.

499. If the pivot is deeply pitted, do only: 508. The 200 Hrs servicing comes under :
A. Stoning. A. Minor star.
B. Lapping. B. Intermediate.
C. Lapping and grinding. C. Major.
D. Stoning and lapping. D. Minor.

500. During refueling the danger of sparking due to 509. The working voltage of a capacitor to which a.c.
static electricity is avoided by: or pulsating d.c. is applied should be
A. Bonding. A. the same as or greater than the applied voltage
B. Screening. B. at least 50 percent greater than the applied voltage
C. Weather proofing. C. 1.41 times the applied voltage
D. Switching off the aircraft battery. D. 707 times the applied voltage

501. During refueling or defuelling of an aircraft, 510. If a circuit contains 10 ohms of resistance, 20
there should not be any naked flame or. ohms of inductive reactance, and 30 ohms of
A. 10 ft. capacitive reactance, it is said to be
B. 200 ft. A. inductive
C. 100 ft. B. impedence
D. 50 ft. C. reluctance
D. inductive reactance
502. The correct replacement of an item, which has
previously been removed, is termed as: 511. The opposition offered by a coil to the flow of
A. Out fit. alternating current is calle
B. Correct fit. A. conductivity
C. Refit. B. impedance
D. Fit. C. reluctance
D. inductive reactance.
503. The fire extinguisher for electric fire is:
A. Normal extinguisher. 512. An increase in which of the following factors
B. Water methanol extinguisher. will cause an increase in the inductive reactance of a
C. Foam extinguisher. circuit?
D. Pyrene extinguisher. A. Inductance and frequency
B. Capacitance and voltage
504. Workman errors are caused due to lack of: C. Resistance and voltage
A. Knowledge. D. resistance and capacitive reactance.
B. Skill.
C. Experience.
D. All the above.
100
513. In an alternating current circuit the effective 519. which of these following will required most
voltage electrical power during operation? (1hp=745 watts)
A. is equal to the maximum instantaneous voltage A. A 12 volt motor requiring 8 amperes
B. is greater than or less than the maximum B. four 30 watt lamps in a 12 volt parallel circuit
instantaneous voltage C. two lights requiring 3 amperes each in a 24 volt
C. may be greater than or less than the maximum parallel system
instantaneous voltage D. a 1/10 hosepower, 24 volt meter which is 75
D. is less than the maximum instantaneous voltage percent efficient

514. The amount of electricity a capacitor can store is 520. How much power must a 24 volt generator
directly proportional to furnish to a system which contains the following
A. the distance between the plates and inversely loads?
proportional to the plate area UNIT RATING
B. the plate area and is not affected by the distance onemotor (75percentefficient)…. 1/5hp
between the plates three position lights …. 20 watts each
C. the plate area and inversely proportional to the one heating element…. 5amp
distance between the plates one anticollision light…. 3 amp(1hp=746 W)
D. the distance between the plates and is not affected A. 18.75 watts
by the plat area B. 402 watts
C. 385 watts
515. A transformer with a step-up rate of 0 to 1 has a D. 450 watts
primary voltage of 24 volts and a secondary amperage
of 0.20 ampere. What is the primary amperage 521. If a unit in a 28 volt aircraft electrical system has
(disregard Losses)? a resistance of 10 ohms, how much power will it use?
A. 1 ampere (1 hp = 746 watts)
B. 4.8 amperes A. 280 watts
C. 0.40 ampere B. 7.84 watts
D. cannot be determined from the information given C. 78.4 watts
D. 28 watts
516. What is the capacitive reactance in ohms of the
parallel a.c. circuit in Fig. 1? 522. A 12 volt electric motor has 1.000 watts input
A. 5 and 1 horsepower output. Maintaining the same
B. 20 efficiency, how much input power will a 24 volt, 1
C. 10 horsepower electric motor require?
D. 15 (1 hp = 746 watts)
A. 1,000 watts
B. 2,000 watts
C. 500 watts
D. cannot be determined from the information given

523. How many amperes will a 28 volt generator be


required to supply to a circuit containing five lamps in
parallel, three of which have a resistance of 6 ohms
each and two of which have a resistance of 5 ohms
each?
A. 1.11 amperes
517. What is the phase relationship between the B. 1 ampere
current and voltage in an inductive circuit? C. 0.9 ampere
A. the current lags the voltage by 00 D. 25.23 amperes
B. The current lags the voltage by 900
C. the current leads the voltage by 900 524. The wattage rating of a carbon resistor is
D. the current leads the voltage by 00 determined by
A. a gold band
518. Current flow is measured in terms of B. a silver band
A. amperes C. the size of the resistor
B. volts D. a red band
C. watts
D. electron flow

101
525. The potential difference between two conductors A. A
which are insulated from each other is measured in B. B
A. ohms C. C
B. volts D. D
C. amperes
D. coulombs

526. The ratio of the true power to the apparent power


in an a.c. electrical circuit is called the power factor. If
the true power and the power factor of a circuit are
known, the apparent power can be determined by
A. multiplying the true power times 100 times the
power factor
B. multiplying the power factor times 100 times the
true power
C. dividing the true power times 100 by the power
factor
531. If resistor R3 is disconnected at terminal D, what
D. dividing the power factor times 100 by the input
will the ohmeter read? (Fig. 4)
power
A. infinite resistance
B. 0 ohm
527. A 24 volt source is required to furnish 48 watts
C. 10 ohms
to a parallel circuit consisting of four resistors of
D. 20 ohms
equal value. What is the voltage drop across each
resistor?
A. 12 volts
B. 6 volts
C. 3 volts
D. 24 volts

528. When calculating power in a reactive or


inductive a.c. circuit, the true power is
A. more than the apparent power
B. more than the apparent power in a reactive circuit
and less than the apparent power in an inductive
circuit 532. With an ohmmeter connected into the circuit as
C. less than the apparent power in a reactive circuit shown, what will the ohmmeter read in fig 5?
and more than the apparent power in an inductive A. 20 ohms
circuit B. infinite resistance
D. less than the apparent power C. 0 ohm
D. 10 ohms
529. Determine the power furnished in watts by the
generator of the circuit in fig 2.
A. 288 watts
B. 24 watts
C. 48 watts
D. 12 watts

533. In Fig 6 how many instruments (meters &


ammeters) are installed correctly?
A. three
B. one
530. Concerned to Fig (3), all the resistance are of C. two
1000 ohms. Which among the above give an D. four
equivalent resistance of 1500 ohms?

102
A. four terminals per stud
B. three terminals per stud
C. two terminals per stud
D. as many terminals as you can stack on and still
have the required number of threads showing through
the nut

541. What would be the measured voltage of the


series circuit in Fig. 7 between terminals A and B?
A. 1.5 V
B. 3.0 V
534. The secondary voltage of a transformer depends C. 4.5 V
upon the efficiency of the transformer and the rate of D. 6.0 V
the number of turns in the primary winding to the
A. number of turns in the secondary winding
B. amount of current flowing in the primary winding
C. material from which the core is constructed
D. distance separating the windings

535. The correct way to connect a test voltmeter in a


circuit is
A. in series with a unit
B. between source voltage and the load
C. in parallel with a unit 542. the efficiency of power in an a.c. circuit is
D. to place one lead on either side of the fuse. expressed by what term?
A. volt-amperes
536. A cabin-entry light of 10 watts and dome light of B. true power
20 watts are connected in parallel to a 30 volt source. C. power factor
If the voltage across the 10 watt light is measured it D. apparent power
will be
A. one third of the input voltage 543. The current in a 60-watt, 120 volt electric light
B. twice the voltage across the 20 watt light bulb is
C. equal to the voltage across the 20 watt light A. 0.8 amp
D. half the voltage across the 20 watt light B. 2 amp
C. 1/3 amp
537. What device is used to measure the very high D. 1/2 amp
insulation resistance of electric cables?
A. high-resistance voltmeter 544. which of the following will require the most
B. moving iron-yane meter electrical power? (note: 1 hp = 746 watts)
C. megger A. four 30 watt lamps arranged in a 12 volt paralle
D. multimeter circuit
B. a 12 volt landing gear retraction motor which
538. Before troubleshooting an electrical circuit with requires 8 amperes when operating the landing gear
a continuity light, the circuit must be C. a 1/10 horsepower, 24 volt motor which is 75
A. connected to the aircraft battery percent efficient
B. connected to the aircraft generator D. a 24 volt anticollision light circuit consisting of
C. isolated two light assemblies which require 3 amperes each
D. connected to an external source of power during operation

539. A 14 ohm resistor is to be installed in a series 545. What unit is used to express electrical power?
circuit carrying 05 ampere. How much power will the A. Coulomb
resistor be required to dissipate? B. Volt
A. at least .70 milliwatt C. watt
B. at least 35 milliwatts D. ampere
C. less than .035 watt
D. less than .70 milliwatt
546. What is the operating resistance of a 30 watt light
540. What is the maximum number of electrical wire bulb designed for a 28 volt system?
terminals that can be installed on one stud? A. 30 ohms
103
B. 1.07 ohms 553. find the voltage across the 5 ohm resistor using
C. 26 ohms the drawing in Fig 8
D. 0.93 ohm A. 2.4 volts
B. 12 volts
547. Which of the following statements is correct C. 20.4 volts
when made in reference to a parallel circuit? D. 24 volts
A. the current is equal in all portions of the circuit
B. the current in amperes is the product of the EMF in 554. Find the total resistance of the circuit in fig 9
volts times the total resistance of the circuit . . . Ohms A. 16 ohms
C. the total current is equal to the sum of the currents B. 10.4 ohms
through the individual branches of the circuit C. 2.6 ohms
D. the current in amperes can be found by dividing the D. 21.2 ohms
EMF in volts by the sum of the resistors in ohms

548. Diodes are used in electrical power circuits


primarily as
A. current eliminators
B. circuit cutout switches
C. rectifiers
D. power transducer relays

549. If three resistors of 3 ohms, 5 ohms and 22 ohms


are connected in series in a 28 volt circuit, how much
current will flow through the 3 ohm resistor? 555. Which of the following is correct in reference to
A. 9.3 amperes electrical resistance?
B. 1.05 amperes A. two electrical devices will have the same combined
C. 1.03 amperes resistance if they are connected in series as they will
D. 0.93 amperes have if connected in parallel
B. if one of three bulbs in a parallel lighting circuit
550. A good conductor of electricity is a material removed, the total resistance of the circuit will
A. through or along which electrons move freely become greater
B. whose protons are all on the outside C. an electrical device that has a high resistance will
C. that contains few electrons have more power than one with a low resistance with
D. through or along which protons move freely the same applied voltage
D. a 5 ohm resistor at a 12 volt circuit will use less
551. A circuit has an applied voltage of 30 volts and a current than a 10 ohm resistor in a 24 volt circuit.
load consisting of a 10 ohm resistor in series with a 20
ohm resistor. What is the voltage drop across the 10 556. An electric cabin heater draws 25 amps at 110
ohm resistor? volts. How much current will flow if the voltage is
A. 15 votls reduced to 85 volts?
B. 10 volts A. 19.3 amps
C. 20 volts B. 44.0 amps
D. 30 volts C. 4.4 amps
D. 1.93 amps
552. find the total current flowing in the wire between
points C and D in Fig 8 557. Determine the total current flow in the circuit in
A. 5.0 amperes Fig. 10.
B. 2.4 amperes A. 0.2 amp
C. 3.0 amperes B. 1.4 amps
D. 0.6 amperes C. 0.4 amp
D. 0.8 amp

104
B. 80 Ohms
558. The total resistance of thecircuit in Fig 11 is C. 120 Ohms
A. 25 ohms D. 240 Ohms
B. 35 ohms
C. 37 ohms 564. In Fig 12, the equivalent resistance of the circuit
D. 17 ohms is 20 ohms.Then the value of R2 is
A. 40 Ohms
B. 80 Ohms
C. 120 Ohms
D. 240 Ohms

559. A 48 volt source is required to furnish 192 watts


to a parallel circuit consisting of three resistors of
equal value. What is the value of eachresistor?
A. 36 ohms
B. 4 ohms
C. 8 ohms
D. 12 ohms

560. Which is correct concerning a parallel circuit?


A. total resistance will be smaller than the smallest
resistor
B. total resistance will decrease when one of the
resistances is removed
565. What would be the effect if the PCO relay in Fig
C. total voltage drop is the same as the total resistance
13 failed to operate when the left hand tank was
D. total amperage remains the same, regardless of the
selected?
resistance
A. The fuel pressure crossfeed valve would not open
B. the fuel tank crossfeed valve would open
561. The voltage drop in a conductor of known
C. the fuel tank crossfeed valve open light would
resistance is dependent on
illuminate
A. the voltage of the circuit
D. the fuel pressure crossfeed valve open light would
B. the amount and thickness of wire insulation
not illuminate
C. only the resistance of the conductor and does not
change with a change in either voltage or amperage
566. The TCO relay in Fig 13 will operate if 24 VDC
D. the amperage of the circuit
is applied to the bus and the fuel tank selector is in the
A. right hand tank position
562. An electric motor malfunctions causing it
B. crossfeed position
overheat, which will cause an incorporated thermal
C. left hand tank position
switch to
D. normal position
A. prevent an open circuit
B. break the circuit
567. With power to the bus and the fuel selector
C. close the circuit
switched to the right-hand tank (see Fig 13) how
D. break the circuit when cooled
many relays in the system are operated?
A. three
563. In Fig 12, the equivalent resistance of the circuit
B. one
is 20 ohms.Then the value of R1 is
C. two
A. 40 Ohms
D. four

105

Fig 13 Fig 14
Fig. 13

Fig. 14

Fig. 15

106
568. When electrical power is applied to the bus (Fig
13) which relays are engaged?
A. PCO and TCC
B. PCC and TCC
C. TCC and TCO
D. PCO and PCC

569. Energize the circuit with the fuel tank selector


switch selected to the left hand position. Using the
schematic in Fig 13, identify the switches that will
change position
A. 5,11,12,13,15,9,10
B. 5,6,3,7,11,13
C. 5,6,11,15,12,13
D. 5,7,11,15 A. no. 5
B. no. 13
570. Which of the components in fig 15 is a C. no. 8
potentioneter? D. no. 6
A. D
B. E 576. When the landing gears are up and the throttles
C. C are retarded (see Fig 16) the warning horn will not
D. M sound if an open occurs in wire
A. No. 5
571. In Fig 14, what electrical symbol is represented B. No. 7
at E? C. No. 13
A. Fixed capacitor D. No. 6
B. fixed resistor
C. variable resistor 577. Schematic diagrams indicate the location of
D. variable capacitor individual components in the aircraft
A. with aircraft station numbers of each component
572. When the landing gears are up and the throttles B. on the title block by federal stock number
are retarded (see Fig 15) the warning horm will not C. with respect to each other within the system
sound if an open occurs in wire D. with detail drawings of each component
A. no 4
B. no 2 578. when referring to an electrical circuit diagram,
C. no 9 what point is considered to be at zero voltage?
D. no 10 A. the ground reference
B. the current limiter
573. The control valve switch should be placed in the C. the fuse
neutral position when the landing gears are down (see D. the switch
Fig 15) to
A. permit the test circuit to operate 579. Trouble-shooting an open circuit with a
B. Provide a ground for the red light voltmeter as shown in this circuit (see Fig 17) will
C. prevent the warning horn from sounding when the A. permit current to flow and illuminate the lamp
throttles are closed B. create a low resistance path and the current flow
D. remove the ground from the green light will be greater than normal
C. restrict current flow and no voltage will appear on
574. Using Fig 16 under which condition will a the voltmeter
ground be provided for the warning horn through both D. permit the battery voltage to appear on the
gear switches when the throttles are closed? voltmeter
A. right gear up and left gear down
B. anytime the gears malfunction
C. both gears up and the control valve out of neutral
D. left gear up and right gear down

575. When the throttles are retarded with only the


right gear down (see Fig 16) the warning horn will not
sound if an open occurs in wire

107
A. neutralize the spilled battery acid by applying
sodium bicarbonate, or sodium borate dissolved in
water to the affected area followed by a water wash
B. apply sodium bicarbonate in powder form to the
affected area
C. apply water to the affected area until the spilled
battery acids turn a cloudy white
D. wipe the affected area with an oil-soaked cloth.

584. A fully charged lead-acid battery will not…..


580. A battery containing six lead-acid cells until extremely low temperatures are reached because
connected in series (2.1 volts per cell) has a terminal A. the acid is in the . . .thereby increasing the specific
voltage of 10 volts when delivering 2 amperes to a gravity of the solution
load. What is the internal resistance of the battery? B. most of the acid is in the solution
A. 1.3 ohms C. the increased internal resistance generates
B. 2.6 ohms sufficient heat to prevent . . . .
C. 5.0 ohms D. gases which act as an insulator are always present
D. 6.3 ohms above the solution
581. In Fig.18 the equivalent resistance of the circuit 585. What determines the amount of current which
is 20 ohms. Then the value of R3 is will flow through a battery while it is being charged
A. 40 Ohms by a constant voltage source?
B. 80 Ohms A. the number of cells in the battery
C. 120 Ohms B. the total plate area of the battery
D. 240 Ohms C. the state of charge of the battery
D. the ampere hour capacity of the battery

586. when installing batterieson a constant current


battery charger it is important to know that batteries of
A. more than one voltage rating may be connected in
series and charged at the same time
B. more than one voltag rating may be connected in
parallel and charged at the same time
C. only one voltage rating may be connected in series
and charged at the same time
D. only one voltage rating may be connected in
Fig. 18 parallel and charged at the same time

582. Which symbol in Fig 19 represents a variable 587. Aircraft batteries are usually rated according to
resistor? voltage and ampere-hour capacity. A 35 ampere-hour
A. C battery rating based on the 5-hour discharge rate,
B. A indicates
C. B A. the battery will supply a current of 7 amperes for 5
D. D hours
B. the battery will not become discharged in less than
5 hours
C. a battery discharge rate of 35 amperes must not be
continued for more than 5 hours
D. the battery will supply a current of 35 amperes for
5 hours

588. Some aircraft use more than one battery to


583. If an inspection discloses that a considerable increase the power available for starting and for
amount of acid from a lead-acid battery has been operating emergency loads. How are the batteries
spilled in the general area of the battery compartment, connected so that the output power will increase but
which of the following procedures should be the voltage will remain the same?
followed? A. by connecting the batteries to separate loads
B. it is not possible
C. by connecting the batteries in parallel
108
D. by connecting the batteries in series 596. The electrolyte of a nickel-cadmium battery is
the lowest when
589. What is the rated voltage-per-call of a nickel- A. the battery is being charged
cadmium battery? B. the battery is fully charged
A. 1.30 volts C. the battery is in a discharged condition
B. 2.00 volts D. the battery is under load condition
C. 2.25 volts
D. 1.55 volts
597. What is the cell voltage of a fully
590. The electrolyte used in the nickel-cadmium charged . . . . .nickel-cadmium battery?
battery is a A. 1.2 to 1.3 volts
A. potassium hydroxide solution B. 1.4 to 1.5 volts
B. hydrochloric acid solution C. 1.7 to 1.8 volts
C. sulfuric acid solution D. 1.8 to 1.9 volts
D. potassium peroxide solution
598. Nickel-cadmium batteries which are stored for a
591. Most aircraft storage batteries are rated long period of time will show a low fluid level
according to because the
A. open-circuit voltage and closed- circuit voltage A. fluid evaporates through the vents.
B. voltage and ampere hour capacity B. battery is fully charged
C. the maximum number of volt-amperes (power) the C. fluid level was not periodically replenished.
battery can furnish to a load D. electrolyte becomes absorbed in the plates
D. battery voltage and volts per call
599. How can the state-of-charge of a nickel-cadmium
592. (1) The electrolyte in a nickel-cadmium battery battery be determined?
acts as a conductor A. by measuring the specific gravity of the electrolyte
(2) The electrolyte in a nickel-cadmium battery B. by a measured discharge
provides an insulator between the plates. C. by the temperature of the plates
Regarding the above statements, which of the D. by the level of the electrolyte
following is true?
A. only no 1 is true 600. Which of the following may result if water is
B. only no 2 is true added to a nickel-cadmium battery when it is not fully
C. both no 1 and no 2 are true charged?
D. neither no 1 nor no 2 is true A. the cell temperatures will run too low for proper
output
593. Which of the following is an indication of B. the electrolyte will be absorbed by the plates
improperly torqued cell link connections of a nickel- during the charging cycle
cadmium battery? C. no adverse results since water may be added
A. Light spewing at the cell caps anytime
B. low temperature in the cells D. excessive spewing will occur during the charging
C. toxic and corrosive deposits of potassium cycle
carbonate crystals
D. heat or burn marks on the hardware 601. Overcharging of nickel-cadmium batteries causes
A. excessive wetness around the cells, connectors and
594. What is the most probable cause of an excessive cases
amount of potassium carbonate formation on a nickel- B. consistently low electrolyte level
cadmium battery? C. formation of an excessive amount of potassium
A. battery overcharging carbonate
B. good battery ventilation D. excessive plate sulfation
C. diluted electrolyte solution
D. high internal resistance in the battery 602. What type of line is normally used in a
mechanical drawing or blueprint to represent an edge
595. When should water be added to a nickel- or object not visible to the viewer?
cadmium battery? A. medium-weight dashed line
A. 3 to 4 hours after the charging cycle is completed B. light solid line
B. before starting the charging cycle C. alternate short and long heavy dishes
C. during the charging cycle D. zigzag or wavy line
D. immediately after the charging cycle is completed

109
603. A line used to divide a drawing into equal or A. only no 1 is true
symmetrical parts is a B. only no 2 is true
A. centre line C. neither no 1 nor no 2 is true
B. section line D. both no 1 and no 2 are true
C. extension line
D. cutting plane line 607. Identify the bottom view of the object shown in
Fig 21.
604. In the isometric view (see Fig 20) of a typical A. A
aileron balance weight, identify the view indicated by B. C
the arrow C. B
A. A D. D
B. B
C. D 608. What is a fuselage station number?
D. C A. A measurement in inches from the datum or some
other point chosen by the manufacturer
605. Schematic diagrams B. a zone number used to locate a particular point
A. indicate the location of individual components in C. a measurement in inches from the centerline or
the aircraft zero station of the aircraft
B. do not give individual component location in the D. a measurement in inches which always starts at the
aircraft nose of the aircraft
C. do not locate components within the system
D. are used to locate parts and assemblies of parts for 609. What type of line is normally used in a
installation in aircraft. mechanical drawing to represent the exposed surfaces
of an object in sectional view?
606. (1) A detail drawing is a description of a single A. sectioning line
part. B. leader line
(2) An assembly drawing is a description of an object C. break line
made up of two or more parts. D. outline or visible line
Regarding the above statements, which of the
following is true?

110
616. (1) Schematic diagrams indicate the location of
individual components in the aircraft
610. How many views are possible with an (2) Schematic diagrams indicate the location of
orthographic projection? components with respect to each other within the
A. four system.
B. six Regarding the above statements, which of the
C. three following is true
D. five A. only no 1 is true
B. both no. 1 and no. 2 are true
611. In an orthographic projection, which of the C. only no 2 is true
following is true? D. neither no. 1 nor no. 2 is true
A. there are always at least two views
B. it could have as many as eight views 617. Identify the phantom line in aircraft drawings
C. it must be accompanied with a pictorial drawing A. __ _____ __ _____ __ ______ __ _____ __
D. one-view, two-view and three-view drawings are B. __ __ __ __ __ __ __ __ __ __ __ __ __ __
the most common C. __ _____ __ __ _____ __ __ _____ __ __
D. __ _____ _____ _____ _____ _____ _____
612. Identify the left side view of the object shown in
fig 22 618. Which of the following is used extensively in all
A. A aircraft maintenance and repair manuals and are
B. B
C. C
D. D

613. Where is the title block usually located on a


drawing?
A. lower right corner
B. lower left corner
C. upper right corner
D. upper left corner

614. A line used to show in edge which is not visible


in a
A. position line
B. phantom line invaluable in identifying and lcoating components and
C. hidden line understanding the operation of various systems?
D. break line A. drawing sketches
B. pictorial drawings
615. Identify the bottom view of the object in Fig 23. C. assembly drawings
A. B D. installation diagrams
B. A
C. C 619. What are the proper procedural steps for
D. D sketching repairs and alterations? (see Fig 24)
A. C,A,d, b
B. B,C,A,D
C. D,B,C,A
111
D. A,C,D,B (2) On occasion, a mechanic may need to make a
simple sketch of a proposed repair to an aircraft, a
620. What is the next step required for a description of new design, or a modification.
the ilustration, Fig 25? Regarding the above statements, which of the
A. darken the object outlines following is true?
B. sketch extension and dimension lines A. only no 1 is true
C. add notes, dimensions, title and date B. only no 2 is true
D. sketch at least two more views of the object C. both no 1 and no 2 are true
D. neither no 1 nor no 2 is true

626. What are the six possible of an object in


Orthographic projection?
A. Front, top, inside, rear, right side and left side
B. front, outside, bottom, rear, right side and left side
C. front, top, bottom, rear, right side, and left side
D. front, top, bottom, inside, right side and left side

627. What is the dimension of the chamber in Fig 26?


A. 0.0625 x 45"
B. 0.0625 R
C. 0.4062 R spherical
D. 0.5000 diameter

621. When an aircraft drawing contains three separate


views, the drawing is known as
A. separate view projection
B. side-view drawing
C. an isometric three-view
D. an orthographic projection

622. Which of the following statements is applicable


when using a sketch for making a part?
A. the sketch may be used only if supplemented with
three-view orthographic projection drawings
B. the sketch must show all information to
manufacture the part
C. the sketch need not show all necessary construction
details
D. a part is never made solely from a sketch Fig 26

623. In orthographic projection drawings, it is often 628. Identify the bottom view of the object shown in
possible to portray an object clearly by the use of fig 27?
three views. When three-view projection is used, A. A
which of the following views are usually shown? B. B
A. top, front and bottom C. C
B. front, left-side and right-side D. D
C. top, front and right-side
D. front, back and left-side

624. What should be the first step of the procedure in


sketching an aircraft wing skin repair?
A. draw heavy guidelines
B. layout the repair
C. draw the details
D. block in the views
629. What are the means of conveying measurements
625. (1)According to FAR91, repairs to an aircraft through the medium of drawings?
skin should have a detailed dimensional sketch A. dimensions
included in the permanent records
112
B. tolerances B. 0.3125
C. edge distances C. 0.3185
D. bend allowances D. 0.31255

630. Identify the extension line in Fig 28. 633. What would be the minimum diameter of 4130
A. C round stock required for the construction of the clevis
B. A in Fig 30 that would produce a machined surface?
C. B A. 55/64 inch
D. D B. 1 inch
631. The diameter of the holes in the finished object C. 7/8 inch
of Fig 29 is D. 1-1/16 inch
A. 10 R
B. 8 R 634. Using the information in fig 30, what size drill
C. 12 R would be required to drill the clevis bolt holes?
D. 12 D A. 21/64 inch
B. 19/64 inch
632. What is the diameter of the hole for split pinin C. 5/16 inch
fig 30? D. 9/32 inch
A. 0.500

Fig 30

113

Fig 29
Fig 32

635. The purpose of cross-hatching in a drawing is to B. used to indicate different sections of the aircraft
show C. used to locate parts in the aircraft
A. the type of material used D. not used on working drawings
B. the type of construction employed
C. the method of finishing 637. Schematic diagrams are used for
D. the cross-section of an object A. locating components in the aircraft
B. trouble shooting
636. Zone numbers on aircraft blueprints are C. identifying items in the aircraft
A. used to locate parts, sections and views on large D. manufacturing aircraft parts
drawings
114
638. When reading a blueprint, a dimension is given D. 225
as 4.387 + 0.005 -0.002
A. the maximum acceptable size is 4.389 645. An aircraft reciprocating engine has 2,800 cubic
B. the tolerance is 007 inch displacement, develops 2,000 BHP and indicates
C. the maximum acceptable size is 4.285" 270 brake mean effective pressure. What is the engine
D. the minimum acceptable size is 4.387" speed (RPM)? (Use Fig 32)
A. 2,200
639. What is the allowable manufacturing tolerance B. 2,100
for a bushing where the outside dimensions shown on C. 2,300
the blueprint are: 1.0625 + 0.0025 - 00037 D. 2,400
A. .0028
B. 1.0650 646. Using Fig 33, determine the cable size of a 40
C. 1.0647 feet length of single cable in line with a continuous
D. 0.0025 rating running from a bus to the approx. 20 volt
system with a 15 ampere load and a 1 volt drop
640. A hydraulic system schematic drawing would A. No. 10
indicate the B. No. 11
A. specific location of the individual components C. No. 18
within the aircraft D. No. 6
B. direction of fluid flow through the system
C. type and quantity of the hydraulic fluid 647. Using Fig 33, determine the smallest size wire
D. part of model numbers of the individual acceptable for carrying 80 amperes of continuous
components current using a single wire in free air
A. No. 2
641. What is the meaning of print tolerance as used in B. No. 8
the title block of an aircraft blueprint? C. No. 6
A. describes the size of the blueprint paper D. No. 4
B. shows proprietary righgts of the bluepring
C. establishes the tolerance for a part when not 648. Using Fig 33, determine the maximum length of
otherwise shown by a dimension line a No. 14 single wire in free air, running from a bus to
D. overrides any other dimension that may be shown the equipment in a 28 volt system with a 30 ampere
on the blueprint continuous load and a 1 volt drop
A. 11 feet
642. In fig 31 the vertical distance between the top of B. 9 feet
the plate and the bottom of the lowest 15/64" hole is C. 13 feet
A. 2.250 D. 15 feet
B. 2.242
C. 2.367 649. Using fig 33, determine the minimum wire size
D. 3.312 of a 15 foot length of single cable in a bundle
supplying current to a component rated at 14 volts,
643. Determine the engine speed (RPM) necessary to with a 20 ampere load and an allowable 5 volt drop
develop 850 brake horsepower in a 2,000 cubic inch A. no. 12
displacement aircraft reciprocating engine operating at B. no 10
185 BMEP (see Fig 32) C. no 16
A. 1.800 D. no 18
B. 1.200
C. 1.400 650. Determine the minimum wire size of a single
D. 1.600 cable in a bundle carrying a continuous current of 20
amperes for 10 feet from the bus to the equipment in a
644. An aircraft reciprocating engine has 1,830 cubic 28 volt system with an allowable 1 volt drop (see
inch displacement, develops 1,250 brake horsepower Fig. 33)
at 2,500 RPM. What is the brake mean effective A. no. 12
pressure? (Fig 32) B. no. 14
A. 217 C. no. 16
B. 190 D. no. 18
C. 205

115
651. Using Fig 34, determine the proper tension for a 655. Which of the following tasks are completed prior
3/16 inch cable (7x19 extra flex) if the temperature is to weighing an aircraft to determine its empty weight?
87 degree F A. remove all items on the aircraft equipment list
A. 132 lb drain fuel and hydraulic fluid
B. 140 lb B. remove all items except those on the aircraft
C. 136 lb equipment list, drain fuel and hydraulic fluid
D. 144 lb

652. In Fig 35, The power dissipated across the


resistor is
A. 4 W
B. 40 W
C. 25 W
D. 2.5 W

653. In Fig 35 The energy transformed in to heat in 5


minutes is
A. 28.6 K Cal C. remove all items on the aircraft equipment list,
B. .286 K Cal drain fuel, compute oil and hydraulic fluid weight
C. 2.86 K Cal D. remove all items except those on the aircraft
D. 286 K Cal equipment list, drain fuel and fill hydraulic reservoir

654. When computing weight and balance, an airplane 656. The useful load of an aircraft consists of the
is considered to be in balance when A. crew, fuel, passengers and cargo
A. all moment arms of the plane fall within CQ range B. crew, fuel, oil and fixed equipment
B. the movement of the passengers will not cause the C. crew, passengers, fuel, oil, cargo and fixed
moment arms to fall outside the CG range equipment
C. the pilot is able to compensate for unbalance by D. crew, powerplant, fuel, oil, cargo and passengers
use of elevator trim
D. the average moment arm of the loaded airplane 657. Before weighing an aircraft, it is necessary to
tells within its CG range become familiar with the aircraft empty weight and
CG range in the weight and balance information in
116
A. the particular aircraft's weight and balance records 664. What determines whether the value of the
B. advisory Circular 43.13-1A, chapter 12 moment is preceded by a plus (+) or a minus (-) sign
C. the applicable aircraft specification or type data in aircraft weight and balance?
sheet A. the addition or removal of weight
D. the manufacturer's service bulletins and letters B. the location of the weight in ference to the datum
C. the result of a weight being added or removed and
658. When preparing an aircraft for weighing, which its location relative to the datum
of the following should be filled unless otherwise D. the location of the datum in reference to the aircraft
noted in the aircraft specifications or manufacturer's center of gravity.
instructions?
A. Hydraulic reservoirs 665. The maximum weight of an aircraft is the
B. Lavatory tanks A. empty weight plus crew, maximum fuel, cargo and
C. Wash water reservoirs baggage
D. drinking water reservoirs B. empty weight plus crew, passenger and fixed
equipment
659. (1) Private aircraft are required by regulations to C. empty weight plus useful load
be weighed periodically D. empty weight plus crew and fixed equipment
(2) Private airccraft are required to be weighed after
making any alteration. 666. In the theory of weight and balance, the influence
Regarding the above statements, which of the of weight is directly dependent upon its distance from
following is true? the
A. neither no 1 nor no 2 is true A. centerline of the aircraft
B. only no 1 is true B. center of the fuselage
C. only no. 2 is true C. center of gravity
D. both no. 1 and no. 2 are true D. center of longitudinal axis

660. What document will reference the required 667. When computing weight and balance for a
equipment needed to maintain validity of a standard helicopter you must consider that
airworthiness certificate? A. the flight altitudes of a helicopter are such that the
A. manufacturers maintenance manual weight and balance is not critical
B. advisory circular 43.13-1A B. it is different from a fixed-wing aircraft, because
C. the aircraft's latest weight and balance information the whirling rotor makes it difficult to locate the mean
D. aircraft Specification or type certificate data sheet aerodynamic chord
C. the arm of tail-mounted components is subject to
661. Which of the following designates the location of constraint change
the reference points for levelling aircraft on the D. it is computed the same as a fixed-wing aircraft
ground for weighing purposes?
A. certificated A and P mechanic 668. Which of the following should be clearly
B. Federal Aviation Administrator indicated on the aircraft weighing form
C. Certificated repair station A. minimum allowable gross weight
D. Aircraft manufacturer B. weight of unusable fuel
C. weighing points
662. To obtain useful weight data for purposes of D. zero fuel weight
determining the center of gravity, it is necessary that
an aircraft be weighed 669. The reference datum line is usually placed near
A. with the main weighing points located within the the nose of the aircraft because
normal CG limits A. this is the only location from which all arms can be
B. in a level flight altitude measured
C. with all items of useful load installed B. all manufacturers have agreed on this point for
D. with at least minimum fuel in the fuel tanks. purposes of standardization
C. all measurements will be positive numbers,
663. What unit of measurement is used to designate contributing to accuracy
moment arm in weight and balance computation? D. measurement of arms from the nose involves less
A. pound/feet movement of cargo
B. inches
C. feet 670. Zero fuel weight is the
D. pound/inches A. basic operating weight plus the weight of full
passengers and cargo
B. maximum weight of a loaded airplane less fuel
117
C. gross weight plus fuel, passengers and cargo 676. Improper loading of a helicopter which results in
D. basic weight plus the weight of items such as oil, exceeding either the fore or aft center of gravity will
crew and crew's baggage be hazardous due to the
A. reduction or loss of effective cyclic pitch control
671. The empty weight of an airplane is determined B. override feature of the sprag clutch assembly
by C. controls effect being translated to the fuse large.
A. adding the gross weight on each weighing point D. reduction of loss of effective collective pitch
and multiplying by the measured distance to the control
datum
B. adding the net weight of each weighing point and 677. How is the useful load of an aircraft determined?
multiplying the measured distance to the datum A. Subtract the empty weight from the maximum
C. subtracting the tare weight from the scale reading allowable gross weight
and adding the weight of each weighing point B. add the empty weight and maximum allowable
D. multiplying the measured distance from each gross weight
weighing point to the datum times the sum of scale C. subtract the tare weight from the emptry weight
reading less the tare weight D. multiply the total moment by the empty weight

672. When dealing with weight and balance of an 678. The maximum weight as used in weight in
aircraft, the term maximum weight is interpreted to balance control of a given aircraft, can normally be
mean the maximum found
A. weight of the empty aircraft A. in the back of the aircraft logbook
B. weight of the useful load B. by weighing the aircraft to obtain empty weight
C. authorized weight of the aircraft and its contents and mathematically adding the weight of fuel, oil,
D. weight of all optional or special equipment that can pilot, passengers and baggage
be installed in the aircraft C. in the aircraft specifications or Type Certificate
Date Sheets
673. The most important reason for aircraft weight D. by adding the empty weight and payload.
and balance control in today's aircraft is
A. efficiency in flight 679. An aircraft with an empty weight of 2,100
B. to reduce noise levels pounds and an empty weight center of gravity of
C. safety +32.5 was altered as follows:
D. to increase payloads (1) two 18 pound passenger seats located at +73 were
removed
674. An aircraft has an empty weight of 2.886 lbs and (2) structural modifications were made at +77
a total moment of 107,865.78 inch-pounds. The increasing weight by 17pound:
following modifications were made: two seats (3) a seat and safety belt weighing 25 pounds were
weighing 15 lbs each were removed from station 73 installed at +74.5 and
and replaced with a cabinet weighing 97 lbs, one seat (4) radio equipment weighing 35 pounds was installed
weighing 20 lbs was installed at station 73, at +95.
communication gear weighing 30 lbs was installed at What is the new empty weight center of gravity?
station 97. The new empty weight center of gravity is A. 30.44
located B. +34.01
A. 1.63inchesforwardoftheoldCG C. +33.68
B. 2.05 inches forward of the old CG D. +34.65
C. 1.63 inches aft of the old CG
D. 2.05 inches aft of the old CG 680. The amount of fuel used for computing weight
and corresponding center of gravity is
675. When determining the empty weight of an A. empty fuel tanks
aircraft certificated under current airworthiness B. unusable fuel
standards for the issue of type certificates (FAR Part C. full fuel tanks
23) the oil contained in the supply tank is considered D. the amount of fuel necessary for 1/2 hour of
A. a part of the empty weight operation
B. a part of the useful load
C. the same as the fluid contained in the hydraulic 681. An aircraft as loaded weighs 4.954 pounds at a
system and reservour centre of gravity of +30.4 inches. The center-of-
D. a part of the payload gravity range is +32.0 inches to +42.1 inches. Find the
minimum weight of the ballast necessary to bring the
center of gravity within the center-of-gravity range.
The ballast arm is +162 inches.
118
A. 61.98 lb and main gear center point . . . . . . 360.25"
B. 30.58 lb Net weight at right main gear. . . . . . 980lb
C. 46.24 lb Net weight at left main gear . . . . 9.770lb
D. 57.16 lb Net weight at tail gear. . . . . . . . . 1,970lb
The following items were in the aircraft when
682. As weighed, the total empty weight of an aircraft weighed
is 5,862 pounds with a moment of 885,957. However, a. Lavatory water tank full (34lb at +352)
when the aircraft was weighed, 20 pounds of alcohol b. Hydraulic fluid (22lb at -8)
were on board at +84 and 23 pounds of hydraulic fluid c.Removable ballast (146 lb at +380)
were in a tank located at +101. What is the empty What is the empty weight CG of the aircraft
weight CG of the aircraft? described above?
A. 150.700 A. 62.92 inches
B. 151.700 B. 60.31 inches
C. 154.200 C. 58.54 inches
D. 151.365 D. 59.50 inches

683. Two boxes which weigh 10 pounds and 5 pounds 687. When making a rearward weight and balance
are placed in an airplane so that their distance aft from check to determine that the CG will not exceed the
the center of gravity are 4 feet and 2 feet respectively. rearward limit during extreme conditions, the items of
How far forward of the center of gravity should a useful load which should be computed at their
third box, weighing 20 pounds, be placed so that the minimum weights are those located forward of the
center of gravity will not be changed? A. forward CG limit
A. 3 feet B. empty weight Cg
B. 2.5 feet C. datum
C. 6 feet D. rearward CG limit
D. 8 feet
688. When an empty aircraft is weighed, the
684. When the empty weight center of gravity of an combined net weight at the main gears is 3.540
aircraft fails within the empty weight center-of- pounds with an arm of 195.5 inches. At the nose gear,
gravity range listed in the aircraft specifications or the net weight is 2.322 pounds with an arm of 83.5
type certificate data sheet, the inches. The datum line is forward of the nose of the
A. critical rore-and-aft-loaded center-of-gravity aircraft. What is the empty CG of the aircraft?
positions computations are unnecessary A. 151.1
B. aircraft must be loaded in accordance with B. 158.7
nonstandard arrangements C. 155.2
C. critical forward-loaded center-of-gravity position D. 146.5
must be computed
D. critical reward-loaded center-of-gravity position 689. An aircraft with an empty weight of 1.500
must be computed. pounds and an empty weight center of gravity of
+28.4 was altered as follows:
685. An aircraft with an empty weight of 1,000 (1) two 12 pound seats located at +68.5 were
pounds and am empty weight centre of gravity of removed:
+31.5 was altered as follows: (2) structural modifications weighing +28 pounds
(1) two 15 pound passenger seats located at +72 were were made at +73;
removed (3) a seat and safety belt weighing 30 pounds were
(2) structural modification increasing the weight 14 installed at +70.5 and
pounds were made at +75 (4) radio equipment weighing 25 pounds was installed
(3) a seat and safety belt weighing 20 pounds were at +85
isntalled at +73.5 and What is the new empty weight centre of gravity?
(4) radio equipment weighing 20 pounds is installed at A. +23.51
+30 B. +30.81
A. +30.61 C. +31.35
B. +35.04 D. +30.30
C. +31.61
D. +32.69 690. The following alteration was performed on an
aircraft. A model B engine weighing 175 lbs was
686. Datum is forward of the replaced by a model D engine weighing 185 lbs at a
main gear center point . . . . . . . . . . 30.24" -62.00" station. The aircraft weight and balance
Actual distance between tail gear records show the previous empty weight to be 998
119
pounds and an empty weight center of gravity of B. are not normally permitted
13.48". C. must be routed in separate enclosures which must
What is the new empty weight center of gravity? be drained and vented to the outside atmosphere
A. 12.99 inches D. must not contain any fittings or connections within
B. 13.96 inches the entryways or compartments.
C. 14.25 inches
D. 12.73 inches 696. From the following sequences of steps, indicate
the proper order you would use to make a single flare
691. When computing the maximum forward loaded on piece of tubing:
center of gravity of an aircraft, minimum weights, a. Place the tube in the proper size hole in the flaring
arms and moments should be used for items of useful block;
load that are located aft of the b. Project the end of the tubes lightly from the top of
A. reward CG limit the flaring tool, about the thickness of a dime
B. forward CG limit c. Slip the fitting nut and sleeve on the tube
C. datum d. Strike the plunger several light blows with a light
D. empty weight CG weight hammer or mallet and turn the pfunger one
half turn after each blow.
692. An aircraft with an empty weight of 1,800 e. Tighten the clamp bar securely to prevent
pounds and an empty weight center of gravity of slippage.
+31.5 was altered as follows: f. Center the plunger or flaring pin over the tube.
(1) two 15 lbs passenger seats located at +50 were A. F, E, B, A, D, C
removed B. A, C, E, B, D, F
(2) structural modifications increasing the weight 14 C. C, A, F, B, E, D
lbs were made at +76 D. C, B, F, E, A, D
(3) a seat and safety belt weighing 20 pounds were
installed at +73.5; and 697. High-pressure hydraulic tubing which is
(4) radio equipment weighing 30 pounds was installed damaged in a localized area to such extent that repair
at +30 is necessary. May be repaird.
What is the new empty weight center of gravity? A. with a union and two sets of connecting fittings
A. +31.97 B. only by replacing the entire tubing using the same
B. +31.67 size and material as the original
C. +32.69 C. by cutting out the damaged section of tubing and
D. +33.95 installing a short piece of high-pressure flexible host
with nose clamps
693. Find the empty weight center-of-gravity located D. by cutting out the damaged section and weilding in
for the following tricycle gear aircraft. Each main a replacement section of tubing
wheel weighs 753 lbs, nose wheel weighs 72 lbs
distance between nose wheel and main wheel is 87.1 698. What is an advantage of a double flare on
inches, nose wheel location is +1.875 inches from aluminum tubing?
datum with 1 gallon of hydraulic fluid at -21.0 inches A. It is less concentric than a single flare
indicated in the weight scale B. Ease of construction
A. +97.375 inches C. it is less resistant to the shearing effect of torque
B. +94.89 inches D. it is more resistant to the shearing effect of torque
C. +95.61 inches
D. +96.11 inches 699. If failure of a flexible hydraulic hose equipped
with swaged-end fittings occurs, which of the
694. Which coupling nut should be selected for use following repair procedures should be follows?
with 1/2 inch aluminium oil lines which are to be A. insert a nonmetallic hose liner which is approved
asserted. Using flared tube ends and standard AN for use with the type of fluid contained in the system
nuts, sleeves end fittings? and clamp firmly at both ends
A. AN-818-2 B. remove the hose fittings and reuse on a new
B. AN-818-8 flexible line of the correct length
C. AN-818-5 C. replace the hose with rigid tubing equipped with
D. AN-818-12 end fittings of the same type as those used in other
parts of the system
695. Hydraulic lines located in entryways of D. install a replacement hose of the proper length
passenger, crew or baggage compartments which has been factory equipped with swaged-end
A. should be suitably supported and protected against fittings
physical damage
120
700. Select the correct statement in reference to flare used when a tubing flare is required. The use of this
fittings type connector eliminates
A. AN fittings can easily be identified by the shoulder A. the need for flexible lines interconnecting movable
between the end of the threads and the flare cone and stationary components
B. all parts of the AN fitting assemblies are B. the flaring operation prior to assembly
interchangeable with AC fitting assemblies with the C. the possibility of reducing the flare thickness by
exception of the sleeves wiping or ironing during the tightening process
C. AC and AN fittings are identical except for the D. wrench damage to the tubing during the tightening
material from which they are made and the identifying process
color
D. AC fittings have generally replaced the older AN 708. Which of the following statements about Ms
fittings (Military Standard) flareless fittings is correct?
A. Ms flareless fitting sleeves must not be preset on
701. Flexible lines should be installed the line prior to final assembly.
A. where bends are necessary B. During installation, MS flareless fittings are
B. only aft of the firewall normally tightened by turning the nut a specified
C. with just enough slack to make the connection amount after the sleeve and fitting sealing surface.
D. with 5-8 percent slack C. MS flareless fittings shold not be lubricated prior
to assembly
702. The maximum distance between end fittings to D. MS flareless fittings must be tightened to a specific
which a straight hose assembly is to be connected is torque.
50 inches. The minimum hose length to make such a
connection should be 709. When flaring aluminium tubing for use with AN
A. 54-1/2 inches coupling nuts and sleeves, the flare angle should be
B. 50-3/4 inches A. 30 degree
C. 51 inches B. 37 degree
D. 52-1/2 inches C. 67 degree
D. 45 degree
703. How should a flexible hose be installed?
A. Stretched tightly between two fittings 710. Scratches or nicks on the straight portion of
B. with slack or bend in the hose aluminium alloy tubing may be repaired if they are no
C. with as small a bend radius as possible deeper than
D. to allow maximum flexing during operation A. 20 percent of the wall thickness
B. 1/32 inch
704. Which of the following colors identifies an aft C. 1/16 inch
aluminium flared-tube fitting? D. 10 percent of the wall thickness.
A. Green
B. Black 711. Which of the following is used in aircraft
C. Red plumbing to connect moving parts with stationary
D. Blue parts in locations subject to vibration?
A. flexible aluminium tubing
705. Soft aluminium tubing (1100,3003 or 5052) may B. corrosion-resistant steel tubing
be bent by hand if the size is C. thin wall aluminium tubing
A. 5/16 inch or less D. flexible hose
B. 7/16 inch or less
C. 5/8 inch or less 712. If it is necessary to route hydraulic lines and
D. 1/4 inch or less electrical power cables adjacent to each other, the
electrical cable should be
706. The material specifications for a certain aircraft A. routed below the hydraulic line and clamped
require that a replacement oil line be fabricated from securely to the structure
3/4 inch, 0.072 5052-0 aluminium alloy tubing. What B. routed above the hydraulic line and clamped
is the inside dimension of this tubing? securely to the structure
A. 0.606 inch C. attached securely to the line by clamps that will
B. 0.572 inch maintain a separation between the line and cable equal
C. 0.688 inch to at least four times the diameter of the fluid line
D. 0.750 inch D. grounded at intervals not to exceed four times the
distance separating the fluid line and the cable
707. In most aircraft hydraulic systems, two piece
tube connectors consisting of a sleeve and a nut are
121
713. When installing a hydraulic line, the tube flare C. a tube may be pulled in line if nut will start on
should meet the fitting squarely and fully before threaded coupling
starting the nut. The flare should never be drawn to D. tension is desirable because it cannot shift when
the fitting with the nut because this may pressurized
A. deform the line
B. strip the threads on the fitting 720. A fluid line marked with the letters PHDAN
C. deform the flare A. carries hydraulic fluid back to the reservoir
D. strip the threads on the nut B. is a high-pressure fluid line. The letters mean
Pressure High Discharge at Nacella
714. Flexible hose used in aircraft plumbing is C. is carrying a fluid which may be dangerous to
classified in size according to the personnel
A. outside diameter D. must be made of a nonphsphorous metal
B. cross-sectional area
C. wall thickness 721. The principal advantage of Teflon hose is
D. inside diameter A. its operating strength
B. its low cost
715. A scratch or nick in aluminium alloy tubin can be C. its corrosion resistance
repaired by burnishing provided the scratch or nick D. its flexibility
does not
A. exceed 5 percent of the tube diameter 722. Which of the following statements concerning
B. appear in the heel of a bend in the tube Bernoulli's principle is true?
C. exceed 20 percent of the wall thickness of the tube A. the pressure of a fluid increases at points where the
D. exceed 10 pecent of the tube diameter velocity of the fluid increases
B. the pressure of a fluid decreases at points where the
716. Which of the following tubings has the velocity of the fluid increases
characteristics (medium strength, workability) C. it has no practical application in today's aircraft
necessary for use in a medium-pressure (1,500 PSI) D. it applied only to gases
hydraulic system?
A. 2024T or 5052-0 aluminium alloy 723. (1) Bonded clamps are used for support when
B. Copper or hard plastic installing metal tubing
C. 1100-1/2H or 3003-1/2H aluminium alloy (2) Unbonded clamps are used for support when
D. carbon steel or chrome molybdenum installing wiring
Concerning the above statements
717. Which of the following tubings has the A. only No. 2 is true
characteristics (high strength, abrasion resistance) B. only no 1 is true
necessary for use in a high-pressure (3,000 PSI) C. both no 1 and no 2 are true
hydraulic system for operation of landing gear and D. neither no 1 nor no 2 is true
flaps?
A. copper or hard plastic 724. Flexible nose may be used in aircraft fluid
B. 2024-T or 5052-0 aluminium alloy systems
C. corrosion-resistant steel annealed or 1/4 H A. to replace only low-pressure fluid system lines
D. 1100-1/2H or 3003-1/2H aluminium alloy B. to replace any fluid system line not subject to heat
C. according to the manufacturer's specifications
718. When installing bonded clamps to support metal D. to replace any fluid system line
tubing
A. paint removal from tube is unnecessary as it will 725. Which of the following nondestructive inspection
inhibit corrosion methods would be most suitable for inspecting wing
B. paint clamp and tube after clump installation for internal structures?
slippage identification A. continuous magnetic particle inspection
C. paint clamp and tube after clamp installation to B. penetrant inspection
prevent corrosion C. Radiographic inspection
D. remove paint or anodizing from tube at clamp D. residual magnetic particle inspection
location
726. Magnetic particle inspection is used primarily to
719. In a metal tubing installation detect
A. rigid straight line runs are preferable A. distortion
B. tension is undesirable because pressurization will B. irregular surfaces
cause it to expand and shift C. porosity and thickness of ferromagnetic metals
D. flaws on or near the surface
122
727. In order for dye penetrant inspection to be 734. The magnetic particle inspection is somewhat
effective, the material being checked must unreliable for distinguishing or detecting
A. have subsurface cracks A. laps and fatigue cracks
B. be magnetic B. cold shuts
C. be nonmagnetic C. hairline discontinuities and small cracks
D. have surface cracks D. discontinuities which are below the surface

728. Which of the following nondestructive testing 735. What type of discontinuities are formed by a
methods is most successful in detecting integranular parting or a rupture of the metal being magnetically
corrosion in nonferrous metal? tested?
A. spectography inspection A. lap or voids
B. Radiography inspection B. cold shut and inclusions
C. magnetic particle inspection C. inclusion and laps
D. eddy current inspection D. pipes or voids

729. Which of the following nondestructive inspection 736. Which statement relating to the residual
methods would normally be the most satisfactory to magnetizing inspection method is true?
determine the internal structural condition of a highly A. it requires careful and intelligent interpretation and
stressed cast aluminium alloy fitting? evaluation of the discontinuities it reveals
A. X-ray or radiographic inspection B. it is used in practically all circular and longitudinal
B. dye penetrant inspection magnetizing procedures
C. Magnetic particle inspection C. it may be used only with steels which have been
D. fluorescent penetrant inspection heat treated for stressed applications
D. it indicating medium is applied when the
730. What is the principal advantage of the magnetizing force is being maintained/
radiographic inspection method of nondestructive
testing? 737. what two types of indicating mediums are
A. minimum safety precautions required available for magnetic particle inspection?
B. little or no disassembly of structure A. iron and ferric oxides
C. simplicity of equipment operation B. wet and dry process materials
D. low cost C. penetrant and fluorescent material
D. high retentivity and low permeability material
731. What method a magnetic particle inspection is
used most often to inspect aircraft parts for invisible 738. Which of the following metals can be inspected
craks and other defects? using the magnetic particle inspection method?
A. residual A. magnesium alloys
B. inductance B. aluminium alloys
C. continuous C. iron alloys
D. intermittent D. copper

732. Which of the following factors is considered 739. How is an item demagnetized after a magnetic
basic knowledge of X-ray exposure? particle inspection?
A. the density, thickness, size and shape of the object A. rinse it with a nonmagnetic solution
to be exposed B. lay it aside for a period of time
B. the X-ray unit's capabilities and its proper C. subject it to an alternating current energized coil
operation D. subject the item to direct current
C. the distance and angle for 1 minute exposure
D. the type and exact size of the discontinuity to be 740. Which type crack can be detected by magnetic
detected particle inspection using either circular or longitudinal
magnetization?
733. which method of magnetization produces the A. 45 degree
greatest sensitivity in locating subsurface B. longitudinal
discontinuities? C. transverse
A. continuous circular with a solenoid D. circumferential
B. continuous longitudinal with a solenoid
C. residual circular with a conductor bar 741. Surface cracks in aluminium castings and
D. residual longitudinal with a conductor bar forgings may usually be detected by
A. the use of dye penetrants and suitable developers

123
B. heating the part to approximately 750 degree and D. the part was not thoroughly washed before
observing the surface for any material that may have developer was applied
been forced out of a crack
C. magnetic particle inspection 749. Which type of current is usually used to
D. submerging the part in a concentrated solution of demagnetize aircraft parts?
caustic soda (sodium hydroxide) and rinsing with A. alternating, decreasing
clear water B. direct, increasing
C. alternating, increasing
742. To detect a minute crack using dye penetrant D. direct, decreasing
inspection requires
A. that the developer be applied to a wet surface 750. When using the dye penetrant test, it is well if
B. a shorter than normal penetrating time remember that the
C. a longer than normal penetrating time A. smaller the defect, the longer the required
D. the surface to be highly polished penetrating time
B. larger the defect, the longer the required
743. When checking an item with the magnetic penetrating time
particle inspection method, circular and longitudinal C. smaller the defect, the shorter the required
magnetisation should be used to penetrating time
A. reveal all possible defects D. penetrating time is independent of the size of the
B. prevent permanent magnetization defect
C. prevent one-way polarization
D. ensure uniform current flow 751. If a pure metal is heated above its critical
temperature and cooled to room temperature, it will
744. What is the primary limitation of the dye A. form a mechanical mixture
penetrant method of inspection? B. return to its original structure
A. the defect must be open to the surface C. form a combination of a solid solution and
B. the smaller the defect, the longer the penetrant time mechanical mixture
required D. form a complex solution
C. the washing or rinsing operation causes unreliable
results 752. The pattern for an inclusion is a magnetic
D. it is limited in use to a small number of metals particle buildup forming
A. a fernlike pattern
745. What is the purpose of the developer as used dye B. a single line
penetrant inspection? C. a smooth outline
A. it removes penetrant from surface D. parallel lines
B. it causes penetrant to glow in the dark
C. it causes penetrant on surface to seep into cracks 753. A part which is being prepapred for dye
D. it brings out the penetrant to show defects penetrant inspection should be cleaned
A. by sandblasting
746. Dye penetrant inspection method will detect B. with a volatile petroleum-base solvent
A. surface defects C. with the penetrant developer
B. subsurface flaws D. with water-base solvents only
C. deteriorated molded rubber
D. cracks in any porous material 754. Which type crack will probably cause the most
buildup in the magnetic particle indicating medium?
747. Before applying dye penetrant to an aluminum A. heat-treated
part, first B. shrink
A. clean the part thoroughly C. fatigue
B. apply the developer D. grinding
C. mix the penetrant with water
D. mix the penetrant with the developer 755. Under magnetic particle inspction a part will be
identified as having a fatigue crack under which of the
748. If dye penetrant inspection indications are not following conditions?
sharp and clear, the most probable cause is that A. the discontinuity pattern is straight
A. the part was not correctly degaussed before the B. the discontinuity is found in a non-stressed area of
developer was applied the part.
B. the part is not damaged C. the discontinuity is found in a highly stressed area
C. the part is badly damaged over an extensive area of of the part
its surface D. the discontinuity pattern is not clear
124
756. The main disadvantage of dye penetrant A. forms a hard case on a part to resist wear
inspection is that B. decreases the size of the grain structure
A. the chemicals used are dangerous to the inspection C. toughness steel to increase its tensile strength
personnel D. increases bearing heat resistance
B. the defect must be open to the surface
C. it does not work on nonferrous metals 764. The difference between annealing and
D. it is excessively time consuming normalizing steel is that normalizing usually requires
temperatures
757. What defects will be detected by magnetizing a A. higher than critical point, with slower cooling
part using continuous longitudinal magnetization with B. lower than critical point, with faster cooling
a cable? C. lower than critical point, with slower cooling
A. defects perpendicular to the long axis of the part D. higher than critical point, with faster cooling
B. defects parallel to the long axis of the part
C. defects perpendicular to the concentric circles of 765. Why is steel tempered after being hardened?
magnetic force within the part A. to increase its hardness and ductility
D. defects parallel to the concentric circles of B. to decrease its ductility and brittleness
magnetic force within the part C. to increase its strength and decrease its internal
stresses
758. Circular magnetization of a part can be used to D. to relieve its internal stresses and reduce its
detect which of the following defects? brittleness
A. defects parallel to the long axis of the part
B. defects perpendicular to the long axis of the part 766. Which of the following aluminum alloy
C. defects perpendicular to the concentric circles of designations indicates that the metal has been solution
magnetic force within the part heat treated and artificially aged?
D. defects parallel to the concentric circles of A. 3003 F
magnetic force within the part B. 7075-T6
C. 5052-H36
759. What type of corrosion attacks grain boundaries D. 6061-O
of aluminum alloys which are improperly or
inadequately heat-treated? 767. Alloy 2024 rivets should be driven within 10
A. stress minutes after they have been quenched; otherwise,
B. intergranular before being used they must be
C. surface A. aged
D. fretting B. anodised
C. reheat treated
760. If too much time is allowed to elapse during the D. refrigated
transfer of 2017 or 2024 aluminum alloy from the heat
treatment medium to the quench tank, it may result in 768. Which of the following qualities of magnesium
A. case hardening alloy are improved by precipitation heat treatment?
B. a dull,stained or streaked surface A. ductility and toughness
C. retarded age hardening B. ductility and yield strength
D. impaired corrosion resistance C. hardness and yield strength
D. hardness, ductility and yield strengh
761. Which heat-treating process of metal produces a
hard, wear-resistant surface over a strong, tough core? 769. Which type of steel is best suited for case
A. case hardening hardening?
B. annealing A. low-carbon, low alloy
C. tempering B. high carbon, low alloy
D. normalizing C. low carbon, high alloy
D. high carbon, high alloy
762. When heat treating a small aluminum forging, a
cold water quench should be used to produce 770. Which of the following cannot be heat treated
A. maximum hardness repeatedly without harmful effects?
B. minimum distortion A. unclad aluminum alloy in sheet form
C. minimum diffusion B. products which are molded of steel
D. maximum corrosion resistance C. 6061-T9 stainless steel
D. clad aluminum alloy

763. Nitriding is a process which


125
771. Metal to be tested on the Rockwell Hardness D. to be mounted in a vertical position
Tester must meet which of the following
specification(s)? 778. The society of Automotive Engineers and the
A. it must be ground smooth on one side only and American iron and Steel Institute use a numerical
cleaned index system to identify the composition of various
B. the two opposite ground surfaces must be free of steels. The symbol 1020 indicates a plain carbon steel
scratches and foreign matter containing an average of
C. the two opposite surfaces must be parallel but not A. 20.00 percent carbon
necessarily cleaned B. 2.00 percent carbon by volume
D. the two opposite ground surfaces should be C. 2.00 percent carbon by weight
perpendicular and cleaned D. 0.20 percent carbon by weight

772. What will determine the hardness of steel


ordinary temperatures?
A. the number of particles of iron carbide in the
mixture
B. the size of the particles of iron austnite in the
mixture
C. the distribution of the particles of iron carbide
throughout the mixture
D. the transformation of pearlite to austnite in the
mixture

773. Unless otherwise specified, toruqe values to


tightening aircraft nuts and bolts relate to 779. Which of the bolt head code markings shown in
A. dry, thoroughly degreased threads Fig 36 identifies a corrosion resistant AN standard
B. tightly oiled threads steel bolt?
C. well oiled threads A. A
D. threads lubricated with a dry lubricant B. B
C. C
774. Which of the following is generally used in the D. D
construction of aircraft engine firewalls?
A. aluminium alloy sheet 780. Which of the following statements regarding
B. stainless steel aircraft bolts is correct?
C. chrome-molybdenum alloy steel A. AN standard steel bolts are marked with two raised
D. magnesium-titanium alloy steel dashes on the bolt head
B. when tightening castellated nuts on drilled bolts, if
775. Unless otherwise specified or required, aircraft the cotter pin holes donot line up, it is not permissible
bolts should be installed so that the bolt head is to overtighten the nut to permit alignment of the next
A. upward, or in a rearward direction slot with the cotter pin hole.
B. upward, or in a forward direction C. in general, bolt grip lengths should equal the
C. downward, or in a forward direction material thickness
D. downward, or in a rearward direction D. alloy steel bolts smaller than 1/4 inch diameter
should not be used in primary structure
776. Alclad is a metal consisting of
A. aluminium alloy surface layers and a pure alumium 781. Generally speaking, bolt grip lengths should be
core A. one and one half times the thickness of the material
B. pure aluminum surface layers on an aluminum through which they extend
alloy core B. equal to the thickness of the material through
C. a homogeneous mixture of pure aluminum and which they extend plus approximately one diameter
aluminum alloy C. equal to the thickness of the material through
D. alternating layers of pure aluminum and aluminum which they exten
alloy D. at least three times the thickness of the thinnest
sheet
777. A fiber-type self-locking nut should never be
used on an aircraft if the bolt is 782. Select the grip length of a bolt used to fasten two
A. under shear loading 5/8 inch steel plates together
B. under tension loading A. 1- 3/8 inches
C. subject to rotation B. 1-1/4 inches
126
C. 3/4 inch 789. A bolt with an X inside a triangle on the head is
D. 7/8 inch classified as an
A. AN aluminum alloy bolt
783. When the specific torque value for nuts is not B. NAS standard aircraft bolt
given, where can be recommended torque value be C. NAS close tolerance bolt
found? D. AN corrosion-resistant steel bolt
A. AC 43, 13-2A
B. FAR part 43, Appendix D 790. The core material of ALCLAD 2024-T4is
C. Technical Standard Order A. commercially pure aluminum, and the surface
D. AC 43,13-1A material is strain-hardened aluminum alloy
B. heat-treated aluminum alloy, and the surface
784. Identify the clevis bolt illustrated in Fig 37 material is commercially pure aluminum
A. A C. commercially pure aluminum and the surface
B. B material is heat-treated aluminum alloy
C. D D. strain-hardened aluminum alloy and the surface
D. C material is commercially pure aluminum

791. The high purity aluminum code number 1100


identifiers what type of aluminum?
A. Aluminum alloy containing 11 percent copper
B. heat treated aluminum alloy
C. aluminum alloy containing zinc
D. 99 percent commercially pure aluminum

792. Aircraft bolts are usually manufactured with a


A. class 1 fit for the threads
785. A bolt with a single raised dash on the head is
B. class 2 fit for the threads
classified as an
C. class 3 fit for the threads
A. AN corrosion-resistant steel bolt
D. class 4 fit for the threads
B. NAS standard aircraft bolt
C. NAS close tolerance bolt
793. In the four-digit aluminum index system number
D. AN aluminium bolt
2024, the first digit indicates
A. zinc has been added to the aluminum
786. How is a clevis bolt used with a form-end cable
B. the percent of alloy added
terminal secured?
C. the different alloys in that group
A. with a self-locking nut with a lock washer to
D. copper is the major alloying element
prevent rotation of the bolt in the fork
B. with a shear nut tightened to a snug fit, but with no
794. How is the locking feature of the fiber-type lock
strain imposed on the fork and safetied with a cotter
nut obtained?
pin
A. by a saw-cut fiber insert with a pinched in thread
C. with a castle hut tightened until slight binding
the locking section
occurs between the fork and the fitting to which it is
B. by the use of an unthreaded fiber locking insert
being attached
C. by a fiber insert held firmly in place at the base of
D. with a shear nut and cotter pin or a think self-
the load carrying section
locking nut tightened enough to prevent rotation of
D. by placing the threads in the fiber insert out of
the bolt in the fork
phase with the load carrying section
787. A cross inside a traigle on the head of a bolt used
795. Identify the weld in Fig 38, caused by a
on approved aircraft installations would indicate the
excessive amount of acetylene
bolt is a
A. D
A. standard corrosion-resistant bolt
B. A
B. special purpose bolt
C. C
C. magnetically inspected bolt
D. B
D. close tolerance bolt
796. Using fig 38 select the illustration which depicts
788. Where is an AN clevis bolt used in an airplane?
a cold weld
A. in loading gear assemblies
A. C
B. for tension and shear load conditions
B. A
C. where external tension loads are applied
C. B
D. only for shear load applications
127
D. D 803. One characteristic of a good weld is that no oxide
should be formed on the base metal at a distance from
797. It is necessary to reweld a joint the weld of more than
A. use an oversize welding rod A. 1/2 inch
B. remove all the old weld B. 1 inch
C. preheat before rewelding C. 1/8 inch
D. increase the temperature to ensure proper D. 1/4 inch
penetration

804. What type weld is shown at A in Fig 39?


A. fillet
B. butt
C. lap
798. Why is it considered good practice to normalize D. edge
a part after welding?
A. to relieve internal stresses developed within the 805. What type weld is shown at B in Fig 39?
base metal A. Fillet
B. to born out any excess carbon deposited during B. double butt
welding C. flat
C. to introduce a slight amount of carbon to improve D. edge
the surface hardness of the weld
D. to remove the surface scale formed during welding 806. What type weld is shown at G in fig 39?
A. lap
799. Holes and a few projecting globules are found in B. butt
a weld. What action should be taken? C. flat
A. fill the holes with solder D. edge
B. reheat the bead to melt the globules
C. remove all the old weld and reweld the joint 807. Which tool can be used to measure axle end
D. file the rough surface play?
A. depth gage
800. Select a characteristic of a good gas weld B. dial indicator
A. the depth of penetration shall be sufficient to C. axle gage
ensure fusion of the filler rod D. protractor
B. the weld should be built up 1/8 inch
C. the weld should taper off smoothly into the base 808. Hardened Steel bars of various lengths used to
metal set up a piece of work to a required angle are known
D. no oxide should be formed on the base metal as
A. Sinc bars.
801. Which of the following is an unacceptable B. System bars.
characteristic of a weld on an aircraft? C. Parallel bars.
A. projecting globules D. Protractor bars.
B. smooth seam
C. a smooth taper into the base metal 809. What is the measurement reading on the vernier
D. an extra thickness built up at the joint caliper scale in Fig 41?
A. 1.411 inches
802. What is the most important characteristic that B. 1.436 inches
contributes to a sound weld? C. 1.461 inches
A. inclusions D. 1.700 inches
B. fusion
C. pudding
D. porosity
128
A. combination set
B. surface gage
C. dial indicator
D. micrometer caliper

816. If it is necessary to accurately measure the


diameter of a hole approximately 3/8 inch in diameter
the mechanic should use a
A. telescoping gage and read the measurement
directly from the gage
810. Which tool should you use to measure the B. telescoping gage and determine the size of the hole
clearance between a surface plate and a surface being it taking a micrometer reading of the adjustable end of
checked for flatness? the telescoping gage
A. depth gage C. 0 to 1 inch inside micrometer and read the
B. surface gage measurement directly from the micrometer
C. thickness gage D. small hole gage and determine the size of the hole
D. dial indicator it taking a micrometer reading of the ball and of the
gage
811. If the thumble of a standard micrometer caliper,
graduated in thousandths of an inch, in turned one full 817. The measurement reading on the micrometer
revolution, the spindle it moves appearing in Fig 43 is
A. 0.010 inch A. 2958
B. 0.10 inch B. 2902
C. 1.10 inch C. 2812
D. 0.0010 inch D. 2885
812. Which of the following represents the vernier
scale . . . . . . .of a micrometer?
A. 0.00001
B. 0.001
C. 0.0001
D. 0.01

818. Which of the following is generally used to set a


divider to an exact dimension?
A. machinist scale
B. surface gage
C. thickness gage
D. dial indicator
813. In the above circuit (Fig. 42), the voltage across
C1 is 819. Which of the following is generally used to
A. 300 V calibrate a micrometer of check its accuracy?
B. 600 V A. Gage block
C. 900 V B. dial indicator
D. 450 V C. surface gage
D. machinist scale
814. In the above circuit (Fig. 42), the voltage across
C2 is 820. what precision measuring tool is used for
A. 300 V measuring crankpin and main bearing journals for out
B. 600 V of round wear?
C. 900 V A. dial gage
D. 450 V B. V blocks
C. micrometer caliper
815. Which tool is used to find the center of a shaft or D. depth gage
other cylindrical work?
129
821. The side clearance of piston rings is measured B. Micrometer caliper
with a C. dividers
A. depth gage D. dial indicator
B. thickness gage
C. hole gage 829. During starting of a turbojet powerplant using a
D. telescopic gage compressed air starter, a hung start occurred. Select
the proper procedure from the following
822. Crankshaft alignment runout can be checked by A. advance the power lever
rotating the shaft on V blocks and a surface plate. The B. increase airpower to the starter
measurements are taken with a C. re-engage the starter
A. height gage D. shut the engine down
B. dial gage
C. depth gage 830. When towing an aircraft
D. telescopic gage A. discharge all hydraulic pressure to prevent
accidental operation of the landing gear, retracting
823. How can the dimensional inspection of a bearing mechanism
in a rocker arm be accomplished? B. all tailwheel aircraft must be towed backwards
A. depth gage and micrometer C. if the aircraft has a steerable nosewheel, the
B. thickness gage and V blocks locking scissors should be set to full swivel
C. thickness gage and push . . . . . . . . . D. all nosewheel aircraft must be towed backwards
D. telescopic gage and micrometer
831. When starting an aircraft, engine equipped with a
824. The twist of a connecting rod is checked by float-type carburetor, the carburetor air heat control
installing push-fit arbors in both ends supported by should be placed in
parallel steel bars on a surface plate . Measurements A. the COLD position
are taken between the arbor and the parallel bar with a B. the COLD position under nonicing conditions and
A. dial gage in the HOT position under icing conditions
B. height gage C. the HOT position to reduce the engine warmup
C. thickness gage period
D. depth gage D. a position between HOT and COLD

825. The clearance between the piston rings and the 832. When approaching the front of an idling turbojet
ring lands is measured with a engine, the hazard area extends forward of the engine
A. micrometer caliper approximately
B. thickness gage A. 35 feet
C. dial gage B. 5 feet
D. depth gage C. 15 feet
D. 25 feet
826. Piston-ring gap is measured at a point inside the
cylinder, even with the cylinder flange, using a 833. The most satisfactory extinguishing agent for use
A. depth gage in case of carburetor or intake fire is
B. thickness gage A. dry chemical
C. dial gage B. carbon tetrachloride
D. height gage C. carbon dioxide
D. fine water spray
827. Which statement is correct concerning a valve
that is strentched? 834. Identify the signal to engage rotor on a rotorcraft
A. a gap will be noticeable between the stretch gage in Fig 44
and the valve stem A. A
B. a gap will be noticeable between the stretch gage B. B
and the valve face C. D
C. a gap will be noticeable between the stretch gage D. C
and both the valve stem and the valve face
D. the stretch gage will touch only in the radius that
connects the valve stem to the valve face

828. Which tool can be used to determine piston pin


out of round wear?
A. Telescopic gage
130
840. If fuel flows steadily from the internal
supercharger drain valve during an attempt to start an
engine, which of the following is a possible cause of
the trouble?
A. excessive booster pump pressure
B. the fuel pump relief valve is out of adjustment
C. an improper setting of the misture control
835. Starting a reciprocating engine which has a liquid D. a fatigued carburetor fuel supply line
lock in one of the cylinders could cause
A. compressive failure of the valve bodies 841. Which of the hand signals in Fig 45, would you
B. starter clutch damage give if a taxing aircraft were in danger of striking
C. removal of the lubricating film on the cylinder some object?
walls A. C
D. major structural damage B. A
C. B
836. The priming of a fuel injected horizontally D. D
opposed engine is accomplished by placing the fuel
control lever in which of the following?
A. AUTO-LEAN position
B. IDLE-CUTOFF position
C. AUTO-RICH position
D. FULL-RICH position

837. Which of the following can be a cause of


preignition? 842. Induction fires during starting can be
A. high intake manifold pressure extinguished by
B. vaporized fuel compressed to a critical pressure A. directing carbon dioxide into the air intake of the
C. feathered edges on valves engine
D. excessive spark plug gap B. directing carbon dioxide into the exhaust system
C. closing the fuel shutoff valve
838. Which action would be required if the turbine D. closing the throttle
inside temperature exceeds the specified maximum
during the starting sequence of a turboprop engine? 843. Which of the following indicators should be
A. turn off the fuel and ignition switch, discontinue checked immediately after starting a reciprocating
the start and make an investigation engine?
B. advance the power lever and observe for excessive A. oil pressure
smoke, if present, discontinue the staff B. manifold pressure
C. continue the start since temperature will stabilize C. tachometer
as soon as 5,000 RPM is reached D. cylinder head temperature
D. turn off the fuel and ignition switch, discontinue
the start, then wait 5 minutes and initiate the starting 844. During the starting sequence of a turboprop
sequence engine, there is no oil pressure indication at 5,000
RPM for either the reduction gear or the power unit.
839. How is a flooded engine, equipped with a float- What action is required?
type carburetor, cleared of excessive fuel? A. turn off the ignition switch and fuel, discontinue
A. crank the engine with the starter or by hand, with the start and replace the oil pressure gauge
the mixture control in cutoff, ignition switch off and B. turn off the ignition switch and fuel, let the engine
the throttle fully open until the fuel charge has been motorize for 5 minutes and restart
cleared C. turn off the ignition switch and fuel, discontinue
B. crank the engine with the starter or by hand with the start and make an investigation
the mixture control in cutoff, ignition switch off and D. turn off the ignition switch and fuel, discontinue
the throttle closed, until the fuel has been cleared the start, wait for 5 minutes and initiate the starting
C. turn off the fuel and the ignition. Discontinue the sequence
starting attempt until the excess fuel has cleared
D. crank the engine with the starter or by hand with 845. When starting an engine equippped with a float-
the mixture control in cutoff ignition switch on & the type carburetor with an idle cutoff unit, the mechanic
throttle fully open until the excess fuel has cleared on should place the mixture control in the
until the engine starts. A. IDLE-CUTOFF position
B. FULL-LEAN position
131
C. FULL-RICH positon while priming the engine,
however, the mixture control should be returned to the 852. what is the identification color for turbine fuel?
IDLE-theengine A. blue
D. FULL-RICH position B. green
C. straw
846. When approaching the rear of an idling turbojet D. purple
engine, the hazard area extends aft of the engine
approximately 853. How are aviation fuels which possess greater
A. 80 feet antiknock qualities than 100 octane classified?
B. 100 feet A. as antidetonants
C. 50 feet B. according to the mililiters of lead
D. 5 feet C. by reference to normal heptane
D. by performance numbers
847. During starting of a turbojet powerplant using a
compressed air starter, a hot start occurrence was 854. Why is ethylene dibromide added to all grades of
recorded. Select what happened from the following aviation gasoline?
A. the pneumatic starting unit overheated A. to prevent detonation at takeoff power settings
B. the pneumatic starter overheated B. to remove zinc silicate deposits from the spark
C. the powerplant was preheated before starting plugs
D. the fuel/air mixture was excessively rich C. to scavenge lead oxide from the cylinder
combustion chambers
848. Aviation gasoline mixed with jet fuel will have D. to increase the antiknock rating of the fuel
the following effects on turbine powerplant efficiency
A. no disadvantages 855. Both gasoline and kerosene have certain
B. the tetraethyl lead in the gasoline forms deposits on advantages for use as turbine fuel. Which of the
the turbine blades following is a true statement in reference to the
C. the tetraethyl lead in the gasoline forms deposits on advantages of each?
the compressor blades A. kerosene has a higher heat energy per unit weight
D. continuous use will not affect engine efficiency than gasoline
B. gasoline is a better lubricant than kerosene
849. What would be the action to take if avaition (important in regard to fuel metering pumps).
gasoline in an aircraft was contaminated with jet fuel? C. gasoline has a higher heat energy per unit volume
A. determine the type jet fuel, then contact the engine than kerosene
manufacturer for guidance D. kerosene has a higher heat energy per unit volume
B. adjust mixture to compensate for lower octane than gasoline
C. determine the amount of fuel put in tanks and if
under 25 percent of total volume, do nothing, if over 856. What characteristic of a fuel reduces its tendency
25 percent, drain the tanks and refill. to vapor lock?
D. drain fuel tanks and fill with proper octane rating A. low latent heat of vaporization
fuel. B. high volatility
C. low vapor pressure
850. Jet fuel is more susceptible to contamination than D. high octane rating or performance number
aviation gasoline
(1) let fuel is of higher viscosity and therefore holds 857. characteristics of detonation are
contaminants better A. rapid rise in cylinder pressure, excessive cylinder
(2) viscosity has no relation to contamination of fuel head temperature and an increase in engine power
Regarding the above statements, which of the B. cylinder pressure remains the same excessive
following is true? cylinder head temperature and decrease in engine
A. only no 1 is true power
B. only no 2 is true C. rapid rise in cylinder pressure, excessive cylinder
C. both no 1 and 2 are true head temperature and a decrease in engine power
D. neither no 1 nor the no 2 is true D. rapid rise in cylinder pressure, cylinder head,
temperature normal and a decrease in engine power
851. Identify the colour of low-lead 100LL aviation
gasoline 858. A fuel that vaporizes too readily may cause
A. blue A. hard starting
B. green B. detonation
C. orange C. slow warmup
D. purple D. vapor lock
132
867. When an anodized surface coating is damaged in
859. Jet fuel number identifiers are service, it can be partically restored by
A. performance numbers to designate the volatility of A. use of a metal polish
the fuel B. chemal surface treatment
B. performance numbers and are relative to the fuels C. complete penetration of an inhibitor
performance in the aircraft engine D. a suitable mild cleaner
C. type numbers and have no relation to the fuel's
performance in the aircraft engine 868. If a nickel-cadmium battery electrolyte is spilled
D. type numbers used to designate the vaporization on the hands, what agent may be used to rinse the
rate at atmospheric pressure affected area?
A. boric acid solution
860. The second number in a fuel rating (100/130) is B. baking soda solution
the C. ammonia solution
A. lean mixture antiknock rating D. potassium hydroxide solution
B. percent of iso-octane in the fuel
C. percent of normal heptane in the fuel 869. Select the solvent recommended for wipedown
D. rich mixture antiknock rating of cleaned surfaces just before painting
A. aliphatic naptha
861. Characteristics of aviation gasoline to B. trichloroethane
A. retard to formation of corrosives C. dry-cleaning solvent
B. lubricate the valve seats D. kerosene
C. improve the gasoline's performance in the engine
D. dissolve the moisture in the gasoline 870. Which of the following is used for general
cleaning of aluminum surfaces by mechanical means?
862. Tetraethyl lead is added to gasoline to A. carborundum paper
A. retard the formation of corrosives B. aluminum wool
B. lubricate the valve seats C. crocus cloth
C. improve the gasoline's performance in the engine D. steel wool
D. dissolve the moisture in the gasoline
871. Select the solvent used to clear acrylics and
863. A fuel that does not vaporize readily enough can rubber
cause A. aliphatic napths
A. vapor lock B. methyl ethyl ketons
B. detonation C. aromatic naptha
C. hard starting D. methyl chloroform
D. surface ignition
872. Select the solvent used to clean metal surfaces
864. Which of the following materials would be used and as a paint stripper for small areas
to clean an engine crankcase prior to painting? A. kerosone
A. dichromate solution B. methyl ethyl ketone
B. acetone C. dry-cleaning solvent
C. MEK (Methyl Ethyl Ketone) D. methyl choloroform
D. 20 percent caustic soda solution
873. Fayed surfaces cause concern in chemical
865. How many magnesium engine parts be cleaned? cleaning because of the danger of
A. soak in 20 percent caustic soda solution A. electrostatic charge buildup
B. wash with gasoline B. electrochemical attack
C. spray with MEK (Methyl Ethyl Ketone) C. entrapping corrosive materials
D. wash with a commercial solvent, decarbonize and D. corrosion by imbedded iron oxide
scrape or grit blast
874. What effect does a caustic cleaning product have
866. Which solvent is recommended for removing on aluminum structures?
grease from 'abric prior to doping? A. electrochemical
A. Kerosene B. mechanical
B. Acetone C. strengthening
C. toluene D. corrosive
D. turpentine
875. Fretting corrosion between closely metting metal
parts
133
A. is cause for rejection of the part
B. may occur when steel bush melting with aluminum 883. The artificial production of a film of hydroxide
parts with too tightly on the surface of aluminum or any of its alloys is
C. occurs only when two dissimilar metals are in commonly called
contact A. alodizing
D. may be repaired by light oiling and retightening of B. parco lubrizing
the parts. C. anodizing
876. the lifting or flaking of a metal surface is known D. dichromating
as exfolitation. This delamination of the grain
boundaries is sometimes known as 884. Why are parts rinsed thoroughly in hot water
A. dissimilar metal corrosion after they have been heat-treated in a sodium and
B. integranular corrosion potassium nitrate bath?
C. stress corrosion A. to prevent corrosion
D. climatic condition corrosion B. to prevent blistering
C. to reduce warpage
877. Select the metal on which corrosion forms a D. to retard discoloration
greenish film
A. copper and its alloy 885. Intergranular corrosion in structural aluminum
B. aluminium and its alloy alloy parts
C. steel and iron A. is not likely to occur in parts fabricated from heat-
D. titanium and its alloy treated sheet aluminum
B. may be detected by the white, powdery deposit
878. Alodizing is a chemical treatment for aluminum formed on the surface of the metal
to improve their paint-bonding qualities and to C. is not likely to occur, in parts fabricated from
A. increase their corrosion resistance aluminum coated alloys (ALCLAD or PURECLAD)
B. make their surface slightly alkaline D. cannot always be detedted by surface indications
C. relieve their surface stresses
D. increase their corrosion resistance 886. Integranular corrosion is caused by
879. Metals and alloys of greatly differing A. improper heat treatment
composition could not be in direct contact with each B. dissimilar metal contact
other because C. improperly assembled components
A. of the possibility of generating static charges which D. poor application of zinc chromate primer
interfere with radio reception
B. of the different rates of expansion 887. Which of the following types of corrosion may
C. of their unequal tensile strengths exist in aircraft structure and not be visible?
D. deterioration may result from electrochemical A. Electrolytic corrosion
action at point of contact B. bonderizing corrosion
C. climatic condition corrosion
880. what is the best means of removing rust from D. surface corrosion
steel?
A. mechanical 888. Corrosion should be removed from magnesium
B. electrical parts with a
C. chemical A. steel wire brush
D. biochemical B. carborundum abrasive
C. stiff, hog-bristle brush
881. How is alodine applied to aluminum alloys? D. steel burnishing tool
A. as part of the priming process
B. by dipping 889. Why is it important not to rotate the propeller
C. as part of the manufacturing process shaft after the final spraying of corrosion-preventive
D. concurrently with the alclad mixture into cylinders installed on removed engines?
A. the link rods may be damaged by hydraulic lock
882. The lifting or flaking of the metal at the surface B. the corrosion preventive mixture will be
due to delamination of grain boundaries caused by the excessively diluted
pressure of corrosion residual product buildup is C. the engine may fire and cause injury to personnel
called D. the seal of corrosion preventive mixture will be
A. brinelling broken
B. electrolysis
C. transgranulation 890. Why is a plastic surface flushed with fresh water
D. exfoliation before it is cleaned with soap and water?
134
A. to prevent crazing C. impairing the corrosion resisting qualities of the
B. to prevent scratching metal
C. to remove oil and grease D. difficulty in preparing the surface for painting
D. to prevent softening the plastic
897. What power of ten is equal to 1,000,000?
891. What should be done to prevent rapid A. 10 to the third power
deterioration when a tire becomes covered with B. 10 to the fourth power
lubricating oil? C. 10 to the fifth power
A. wipe the tire with a dry cloth and then dry with D. 10 to the sixth power
compressed air
B. wipe the tire with a dry cloth followed by a 898. Find the square root of 1,746
washdown with soap and water A. 41.7852
C. wash the tire with a petroleum solvent and then dry B. 41.7752
with compressed air C. 40.7742
D. wash the tire with alcohol or lacquer thinner to D. 42.7854
neutralize the action of the oil
899. The result of nine raised to the fourth power is
892. Galvanic action caused by dissimilar metal which of the following?
contact may best be prevented by A. 6.491
A. applying a nonporous dielectric material between B. 6.461
the surfaces C. 6.941
B. priming both surfaces with a light coat of zinc D. 6.561
chromate primer
C. special precautions are not required if they are 900. Find the square root of 3,722.18359
properly bonded A. 61.00971
D. application of paper tape between the surfaces B. 61.00
C. 61.009
893. Corrosion caused by electrolytic action is the D. 61.0097
result of 901. find the square of 212
A. excessive anodization A. 40,144
B. contact between two unlike metals B. 43,924
C. the wrong quenching agent C. 44,944
D. excessive etching D. 44,844

894. to prevent corrosion between dissimilar metal 902. Find the value of ten raised to the negative sixth
joints in which magnesium alloy is involved power
A. prime only the magnesium part with one coat of A. 0.000001
zinc chromate primer and put a leather gasket between B. 0.0000101
the pieces C. 0.0001
B. the magnesium part must be plated with the same D. 0.00001
metal at the part it will be in contact with
C. coat both mating surfaces with an aluminized 903. What is the square root of four raised to the fifth
varnish power?
D. prime both parts with two coats of zinc chromate A. 32
primer and place a layer of pressure sensitive vinyl B. 64
tape between them C. 16
D. 20
895. The interior surface of sealed structural steel
tubing is best protected against corrosion by 904. The number 3.47 x 10 to the negative fourth
A. purging the interior with dry air before sealing power is equal to
B. a coating of hot linseed oil A. 3,470.00
C. evacuating the tubing before sealing B. 34,700.0
D. a coating of zinc chromate paint C. 0034.70
D. 000347
896. Failure to quench a piece of aluminum in the
minimum required time could result in 905. Which alternative answer is equal to 16,300?
A. failure of the ALCLAD to adhere properly A. 1.63 x 10 to the fourth power
B. causing the aluminium to become extremely brittle B. 1.63 x 10 to the negative third power
C. 163 x 10 to the negative second power
135
D. 1,630 x 10 to the negative first power

906. Find the square root of 125.131


A. 111.8 x 10 to the third power
B. 1118 x 10 to the negative second power
C. 1.118 x 10 to the negative second power
D. 11.186 x 10 to the negative third power

907. What is the square root of 16 raised to the fourth


power?
A. 1,024 913. What size sheet of metal is required to fabricate
B. 64 cylinder 20 inches long and 8 inches in diameter?
C. 4,096 (Note: C = 3.1416 x d)
D. 256 A. 20" x 25-5/32"
B. 20" x 24-9/64"
908. Solve the following : C. 20" x 25-9/64"
D. 20" x 24-5/32"
2
31 + 2 13
(17 ) 2 914. Find the area of the right triangle shown in Fig
A. .0297 47?
B. .1680 A. 5 sq in
C. 7132 B. 6 sq in
D. 0419 C. 9 sq in
D. 12 sq in
909. The result of seven raised to the third power plus
the square root of 39 is equal to
A. 349.24
B. 27.24
C. 343.24
Fig 47
D. 2,407.24

910. Find the square root of 1,824


A. 42,708 x 10 to the negative second power 915. What force is exerted on the piston in a hydraulic
B. .42708 cylinder if the area of the piston is 1.2 square inches
C. 4,270.8 and the fluid pressure is 850 PSI?
D. .42708 x 10 to the second power A. 1,020 lb
B. 1,220 lb
911. The total piston displacement of a specific engine C. 960 lb
is D. 850 lb
A. dependent on the compression ratio
B. dependent on the volumetric efficiency 916. The cylinder of an aircraft engine has a bore of
C. the volume displaced by all the pistons during one 4.75 inches and a stroke of 4.5 inches. What is the
revolution of the crankshaft piston displacement of one cylinder?
D. the volume displaced by one piston during one A. 64.34 cu. In.
revolution of the crankshaft B. 33.58 cu in
C. 318.81 cu in
912. Compute the area of the trapezoid in Fig 46 D. 79.74 cu in
A. 40 square feet
B. 32 square feet 917. A rectangular-shaped fuel tank measures 60
C. 240 square feet inches in length, 30 inches in width and 12 inches in
D. 960 square feet depth. How many cubic feet are within the tank?
A. 12.5
B. 15.0
C. 18.5
D. 21.0

918. Compute the area of the trapezoid in Fig 48.


A. 8 sq ft
B. 24 sq ft

136
C. 48 sq ft 4.0 inches from the bottom of the cylinder. What is
D. 10 sq ft the approximate piston displacement of this engine?
A. 200 cubic inches
B. 360 cubic inches
C. 320 cubic inches
D. 235 cubic inches

924. A rectangular shaped fuel tank measures 37-1/2


inches in length, 14 inches in width, and 8-1/4 inches
in depth. How many cubic inches are within the tank?
A. 525
B. 433.125
C. 4,331.25
D. 309.375
919. Determine the area of the triangle formed by 925. Select the fraction which is equal to 0.020
points A,B and C in Fig 49 A. 3/16
A to B = 7.5 sq inches B. 1/5
A to D = 16.8 inches C. 2/7
A. 7.07 sq in D. 1/50
B. 42 sq in
C. 63 sq in 926. Select the decimal which is equal to the mixed
D. 126 sq in number 1-7/32
A. 1.2188
B. 1.3932
C. 1.7320
D. 1.3270

927. If the volume of a cylinder with the piston at


bottom center is 84 cubic inches and the piston
displacement is 70 cubic inches, then the compression
920. What is the piston displacement of a master ration is
cylinder with a 1.5 inch diameter bore and a piston A. 7:1
stroke of 4 inches? B. 1:2:1
A. 1.7671 cu in C. 6:1
B. 9.4247 cu in D. 1:9:1
C. 7.0685 cu in
D. 6.1541 cu in 928. Express 7/8 as a percent
A. .785 percent
921. How many gallons of fuel will be contained in a B. 78.5 percent
rectangular shaped tank which measures 2 feet in C. .875 percent
width, 3 feet in length and 1 foot 8 inches in depth? D. 87.5 percent
(7.5 gal. = 1 cu ft)
A. 66.6 929. What is the speed of a spur gear with 42 teeth
B. 75 driven by a pinion gear with 14 teeth turning 420
C. 110 RPM?
D. 45 A. 14 RPM
B. 42 RPM
922. A rectangular shaped fuel tank measures 27-1/2 C. 160 RPM
inches in length, 9 inches in width and 8-1/4 inches in D. 140 RPM
depth. How many gallongs will the tank contain? (231
cu in = 1 gal) 930. An engine develops 108 horsepower at 87
A. 18.8 percent power. What horsepower would be developed
B. 6.4 at 65 percent power?
C. 8.8 A. 80
D. 16.4 B. 94
C. 70
923. A four-cylinder aircraft engine has a cylinder D. 64
bore of 3.78 inches and is 8.5 inches deep. With the
piston on bottom center the top of the piston measures
137
931. Which of the following alternatives is the 939. An engine of 125 horsepower maximum is
decimal equivalent of the fraction 43/32? running at 65 percent power. What is the horsepower
A. 1.34375 being developed?
B. 1.43325 A. 93.05
C. 1.32435 B. 30.85
D. 1.74415 C. 81.25
D. 38.85
932. Select the fractional equipvalent for a 0.09375-
thick sheet of aluminum 940. An engine of 98 horsepower maximum is
A. 5/64 running at 75 percent power. What is the horsepower
B. 5/32 being developed?
C. 3/64 A. 87.00
D. 3/32 B. 33.30
C. 73.50
933. Express 5/8 as a percent D. 41.30
A. 62 percent 941. A blueprint shows a hole of 0.17187 to be
B. .625 percent drilled. Which fraction size drill-bit is most nearly
C. .620 percent equal?
D. 62.5 percent A. 11/64
B. 9/64
934. Select the decimal which is most nearly equal to C. 9/32
77/64 D. 11/32
A. 1.8311
B. 0.8311 942. Which of the following decimals is most nearly
C. 1.2031 equal to a bend radius of 31/64?
D. 1.3120 A. 0.0645
B. 0.6450
935. An airplane flying a distance of 875 miles used C. 0.48437
70 gallons of gasoline. How many gallons will it need D. 0.3164
to travel 3,000 miles?
A. 108 gallons 943. Sixty-five engines are what percent of 80 engine?
B. 120 gallons A. 71 percent
C. 240 gallons B. 81 percent
D. 144 gallons C. 65 percent
D. 52 percent
936. What is the speed ratio of a gear with 36 teeth
meshed to a gear with 20 teeth? 944. The radius of a piece of round stock is 7/32.
A. 12 to 5 Select the decimal which is most nearly equal to the
B. 12 to 6.6 diameter.
C. 9 to 5 A. 0.2187
D. 17 to 10 B. 0.5343
C. 0.4375
937. A pinion gear with 14 teeth is driving a spur gear D. 0.3531
with 42 teeth at 140 RPM. Determine the speed of
pinion gear 945. Maximum engine life is 900 hours. Recently, 27
A. 588 RPM engines were removed with an average life of 635.30
B. 196 RPM hours. What percent of the maximum engine life has
C. 420 RPM been achieved?
D. 240 RPM A. 71 percent
B. 72 percent
938. The parts department's profit is 12% on new C. 73 percent
magneto. How much does the magneto cost if the D. 74 percent
sellihg price is $145.60?
A. $128.12 946. What is the ratio of 10 feet to 30 inches?
B. $120.00 A. 4:1
C. $125.60 B. 1:3
D. $130.00 C. 1:4
D. 3:1

138
947. How much current does a 30V motor, 1/2 C. 3-5/16
horsepower, 85 percent efficient, draw from the bus? D. 4-3/4
A. 14.6 amperes
B. 12.4 amperes 956. solve the following:
C. 12.3 amperes 5/9 (41+40) - 40 =
D. 14.1 amperes A. 5
B. 4.55
948. Solve the following: [(4 x -3)+ (-9 x + 2)] / 2 = C. 22.3
A. 0 D. 73.8
B. -30
C. -15 957. Solve the following:
D. -5 (32 x 3/16) / (1/2) =
A. 16
B. 12
949. solve the following: (64 x 3/8) / (3/4) = C. 72
A. 16 D. 1.5
B. 24
C. 32 958. Solve the following:
D. 72 2/4 (30 +34).5 =
A. 117
950. Solve the following: B. 160
-18.4 + 0.07 - 2.2 + 8.36 = C. 345
A. +12.17 D. 640
B. -12.31
C. +12.31 959. Solve the equation in fig 50
D. -12.17 A. 16.51
B. 174.85
951. Solve the following: C. -81.49
1/2 + 7/8 - 1/3 = D. 14.00
A. 1-11/16 ( − 35 + 25 )( − 7 ) + (π ) (16 −2 )
B. 1-1/24
C. 1-1/12 Fig. 50 25
D. 1-3/8
960. Solve the following equation:
952. Solve the following: − 4 125
(1-1/2 x 7/5) / (1/4) = − 6 −36
A. 1-11/16
A. +31.25
B. 1-3/4
B. -5.20
C. 1-9/16
C. -31.25
D. 1-17/32
D. +6.05
953. Solve the following:
961. Solve the following: 4 - 3{-6(2+3) +4} =
(32 x 3/8) / (1/6) =
A. 82
A. 16
B. 33
B. 12
C. -25
C. 2
D. -71
D. 72
962. Solve the following:
954. What is the ratio of a gasoline fuel load of 200
-5 [ -9(-8 +4) -2(7+3)] =
gallons to one of 1.680 pounds?
A. 16
A. 3:7
B. -332
B. 5:7
C. 215
C. 2:3
D. -96
D. 5:42
963. Solve the following: 5 [4 - (+3 -4) +13] -6 =
955. Solve the following:
A. 84
(2-1/2 x 1-3/8) / (2-3/4) =
B. 21
A. 6-3/16
C. 17
B. 6-1/4
D. -16
139
970. Which of the following is a powerplant, major
964. Which of the following provides a place for repair?
indicating compliance with FAA airworthiness A. Installation of an accessory which is not approved
Directives or manufacturers' service bulletins? to the engine
A. Structural repair manual B. Separation of a crankcase of a reciprocating engine
B. Aircraft overhaul manual equipped with an integral supercharger
C. aircraft logs C. Overhaul of pressure-type carburators and pressure
D. Illustrated parts catalog type fuel and oil pumps.
D. Disassembly of a crankshaft of a reciprocating
965. An aircraft was not approved for return to service engine equipped with a spur-type propeller reduction
after an annual inspection and the owner wanted to be gear.
the aircraft to another maintenance base. Which
statement is correct? 971. Which of the following is an airframe major
A. The owner must obtain a special flight permit repair?
B. The aircraft must be approved for return to serve A. Removal, installation and repair of landing gear
previous to any flight tires
C. The aircraft may be flown to another maintenance B. Changes to the wing or to fixed or movable control
base if the discrepancies are not safety of flight items. surfaces which affect flutter and vibration
D. The owner must obtain a restricted category type characteristics
certificate. C. Rewinding the field coil of an electrical accessory
D. The repair of portions of skin sheets by making
966. When should special inspection procedures be additional seams.
followed to determine if any damage to the aircraft
structure has occurred? 972. What maintenance action should follow if the
A. Progressive inspection maintenance record contained the following entry?
B. 100 hour inspection "During flight the aircraft engine experienced sudden
C. Overweight landing deceleration."
D. Annual inspection A. Perform power output check (static and idle RPM)
B. Perform the engine group inspection for the
967. During an annual inspection, if a defect is found annual/progressive
which makes the aircraft unairworthy, the person C. Perform powr output check with vibration analyzer
disapproving must (static and idle RPM)
A. remove the airworthiness certificate from the D. Perform sudden stoppage inspection.
aircraft
B. submit a Malfunction of Defect Report 973. Which of the following aircraft record entries
C. provide a written notice of the defect to the owner best describes a repair of a 6-1/4 inch crack in the top
D. repair the defect before completion of the skin of a stabilizer?
inspection A. Stop-drilled the crack. Make permanent repair at
next scheduled annual inspection
968. What is the means by which the FAA notify B. Stop-drilled the crack using a 1/8 inch drill,
aircraft owners and other interested persons of installed a patch plate two times the length of the
un…….. conditions and prescribes the condition crack, two-row rivet spacing two times the diameter
under which the product may continue to be operated? of the rivet used.
A. Airworthiness Directives C. Cut out the defective area, installed a flush repair
B. supplemental Type Certificates using the same rivet size, spacing materials, and
C. Malfunction or Defect Reports pattern as the adjacent area.
D. Technical Standard Orders. D. Cut out the defective area, installed a flush repair
using the same material, revet size and unit spacing as
969. where should you find this entry? the adjacent area and a rivet edge distance of two
"Removed right wing from aircraft and removed skin times the diameter of the rivets used.
from outer 6 feet. Repaired buckled spar 49 inches
from tip in accordance with Fig. 8 in the 974. Which of the following statements best describes
manufacturer's structural repair manual NO. 28-1" the entry made in an aircraft record for the repair of a
A. Aircraft engine log 2-inch crack located in the center of a plastic side
B. AD compliance record window?
C. FAA Form 337 A. Stop-drilled both ends of the crack, cut a piece of
D. Service bulletin compliance record plastic 1-1/2 inches larger than the crack, heated the
patch in an oil bath and formed to the contour to be

140
patched, applied plastic adhesive, pressed in place and D. The owner of the aircraft must report the repair to
let dry under pressure for 3 hours. the FAA
B. Stop-drilled both ends of the crack, cut a piece of
plastic 3/4 inch larger than the crack, heated the patch 980. After making a major repair to an aircraft engine
in an oil bath and formed to the contour to be patched, that is to be returned to service. FAA Form 337,
applied plastic adhesive, pressed in place and let dry Major Repair and Alteration, must be prepared. How
under pressure for 3 hours. many copies are required and what is the disposition
C. Stop-drilled both ends of the crack, cut a piece of of the completed forms?
plastic 3/4 inch larger than the crack,heated the patch A. Two; both copies for the FAA
in an oil bath or boiling water and formed to the B. Two:one copy for the aircraft owner and one copy
contour to be patched and applied plastic adhesive, for the FAA
pressed in place and let dry under pressure for 3 C. Three: one copy for the aircraft owner and two
hours. copies for the FAA
D. Stop-drilled both ends of the crack. Glued a piece D. Three one copy for the aircraft owner, one copy for
of plastic over the crack. the FAA and one copy for the permanent records of
975. Which of the following aircraft record entries the repairing agency or individual.
best describes a repair of a dent in a tubuler steel 981. Who is responsible for maintaining the required
structure dented at a cluster? maintenance records for an airplane?
A. Removed and replaced all the members of the A. Authorised inspector
cluster B. Repair station operator
B. Removed and replaced the damaged member C. Certified mechanic
C. Welded a reinforcing plate over the dented area D. Aircraft owner
D. Filled the damaged area with a molten metal and
dressed to the original contour 982. Each person performing an annual or 100 hour
inspection shall use a checklist that contains at least
976. Who is responsible for making the entry in the those items in the appendix of
maintenance records after an annual, 100 hour, or A. FAR Part 43
progressive inspection? B. FAR Part 65
A. The person performing the inspection C. FAR Part 91
B. The owner or operator of the aircraft D. Advisory Circular 43.13-3
C. The person approving or disapproving for return to
service 983. An FAA Form 337 is used to record and
D. The pilot performing the test flight. document which of the following?
A. Preventive and routine maintenance
977. An aircraft owner was provided a list of B. Major repairs and major alterations
discrepancies on an aircraft that was not approved for C. Minor repairs and minor alterations
return to service after an annual inspection. Which D. Airworthiness Directive compliance
statement is correct concerning who may correct the
discrepancies? 984. After a mechanic holding an airframe and
A. Only a mechanic with an inspection authorization powerplant rating completes a 100 hour inspection,
B. Any certificated mechanic what action is required before the aircraft is returned
C. Any certificated repair station to service?
D. Holder of a pilot certificate if he/she owns or A. Obtain a renewal for the airworthiness certificate
operates the aircraft. B. Make the proper entries in the aircraft's
maintenance record
978. When entering a major repair in an aircraft C. Complete an operational check of all systems
logbook, a mechanic must enter D. A mechanic with an inspection Authorization must
A. the date the major repair was started approve the inspection
B. total time in service for the aircraft
C. his or her name and date the work was performed 985. Which statement is correct, concerning the
D. total aircraft time since the last overhaul. completion of an FAA Form 337, Major Repair and
Alteration Form?
979. What action is required when a minor repair is A. The certificate number of the person approving the
performed on a certificated aircraft? major repair or alteration need not be recorded on the
A. An FAA Form 337 must be completed form
B. The aircraft specifications must be amended B. Weight and balance computations are not
C. An entry in the aircraft's permanent records is necessary if the empty weight change is less than 1
required percent

141
C. A clear, concise, and legible description of the
work to be accomplished. 993. Which of the following is the actual amount
D. Flight test results should be recorded on the form. water vapor in a mixture of air and water?
A. Relative humidity
986. Each person performing an annual or 100 hour B. Dew point
inspection shall use a checklist that contains at least C. Absolute humidity
those items in FAR 43, Appendix D. Vapor pressure
A. D
B. A 994. Under which of the following conditions will the
C. B rate of flow of a liquid through a metering orifice (or
D. C jet) be the greatest?
A. Unmetered pressure - 18 PSI
987. A certificated airframe and powerplant mechanic metered pressure - 17.5 PSI
authorised to approve and return to service an aircraft atmospheric pressure - 14.5 PSI
after a
A. 100 hour inspection B. Unmetered pressure - 23 PSI
B. certification inspection metered pressure - 12 PSI
C. major alteration atmospheric pressure - 14.3 PSI
D. major repair
C. Unmetered pressure - 17 PSI
988. The force that can be produced by an actuating metered pressure - 5 PSI
cylinder whose piston has a cross-sectional area of atmospheric pressure - 14.7 PSI
square inches operating in a 1,000 PSI hydraulic
system is most nearly D. Unmetered pressure - 15 PSI
A. 300 pounds metered pressure - 12 PSI
B. 3000 pounds atmospheric pressure - 14.7 PSI
C. 334 pounds
D. 1000 pounds 995. Which of the following is the portion of
atmospheric pressure exerted by the moisture in the
989. The boiling paint of a given liquid varies air?
A. inversely with volume A. Absolute humidity
B. directly with pressure B. Relative humidity
C. inversely with pressure C. dew point
D. directly with volume D. Vapor pressure

990. One of the following equals 1 horsepower 996. Using Fig 51 the amount of force applied to rope
A. 2,000 ft/lb of work per minute A to lift the weight is
B. 550 ft/lb of work per minute A. 12 pounds
C. 2000 ft/lb of work per second B. 15 pounds
D. 33,000 ft/lb of work per minute C. 20 pounds
D. 30 pounds
991. Which of the following is not considered of heat
transfer? 997. Which of the following will weigh the least?
A. Convection A. 98 parts of dry air and 2 parts of water vapor
B. Conduction B. 35 parts of water vapor and 65 parts of dry air
C. Diffusion C. 100 parts of dry air
D. Radiation D. 50 parts of dry air and 50 parts of water vapor

992. An engine that weighs 350pounds is removed


from an aircraft by means of a mobile hoist. The
engine is raised 3 feet above its attachment mount and
the entire assembly is then moved forward 12 feet. A
constant force of 70 pounds is required to move the
loaded hoist. What is the total work input required to
move the hoist?
A. 840 ft/lb
B. 22,680 ft/lb
C. 1,890 ft/lb
D. 1.050 ft/lb
142
1004. Which of the following atmospheric conditions
will cause the true landing speed of an aircraft to be
the greatest?
A. low temperature with high humidity
B. low temperature with low humidity
C. high temperature with low humidity
D. high temperature with high humidity

1005. If the fluid pressure is 800 PSI in a 1/2 inch line


supplying an actuating cylinder with a piston area of
10 square inches, the force exerted on the piston will
be
998. Which of the following is the ratio of the water
A. 4,000 pounds
vapor actually present in the atmosphere to the
B. 1600 pounds
amount that would be present if the airware saturated
C. 8000 pounds
at the prevailing temperature and pressure?
D. 800 pounds
A. Absolute humidity
B. Relative humidity
1006. How many of the following factors are
C. Dew point
necessary to determine power?
D. vapor pressure
(1) Force exerted
(2) Distance the force moves
999. If a 120 pound force moves a 3,200 pound object
(3) Time required to do the work.
20 feet in 20 seconds along a straight horizontal path,
A. None
how much power was expended?
B. One
A. 100 ft/lb per second
C. Two
B. 2,400 ft/lb per second
D. Three
C. 3,200 ft/lb per second
D. 120 ft/lb per second
1007. What force must be applied to roll a 120 pound
1000. If the container volume of a confined gas is
barrel up an inclined plane 9 feet long to a height of 3
doubled (assume temperature remains constant), the
feet (disregard friction)?
pressure will
L/I = R/E
A. increase in direct proportion to the volume
L = Length of ramp, measured along the slope
increases
I = Height of ramp
B. remain the same.
R = Weight of object to be raised or lowered.
C. be doubled
E = Force required to raise or lower object.
D. be reduced to one-half its original value.
A. 40 lb
B. 120 lb
1001. If the temperature of a confined liquid is held
C. 360 lb
constant and its pressure is tripled, the volume will
D. 393 lb
A. triple
B. be increased one-third its original volume
1008. Which of the following statements concerning
C. be reduced to one-third its original volume
the concepts of heat and temperature is true?
D. remain the same
A. There is a direct relationship between temperature
and heat
1002. If the pressure of an air mass is doubled, with
B. There is an inverse variation between temperature
all other conditions constant, its density
and heat
A. is doubled
C. Temperature is a measure of intensity of heat.
B. varies inversely as the pressure increases
D. Temperature is a measure of quality of heat.
C. is decreased
D. remains the same
1009. What is absolute humidity?
A. The portion of atmospheric pressure that is exerted
1003. How much work input is required to lower (not
by the moisture in the air.
drop) a 120 pound weight from the top of a 3 foot
B. The temperature to which humid air must be
table to the floor?
cooled at constant pressure to become saturated.
A. 120 lb of force
C. The actual amount of the water vapor in a mixture
B. 120 ft/lb
of air and water.
C. 360 ft/lb
D. The ratio of the water vapor actually present in the
D. none
atmosphere to the amount that would be present if the
143
air were saturated at the prevailing temperature and C. Type Certificate Data Sheets
pressure. D. Aviation Airworthiness Alerts

1010. If the operating pressure is 2,000 PSI in a 1/2 1016. Which of the following issues Airworthiness
inch line feeding an actuating cylinder which has a Directives?
piston area of 10 square inches, the maximum weight A. National Transportation Safety Board
the piston can lift will be B. Air Transport Association
A. 40,000 lb C. Manufacturers
B. 20,000 lb D. Federal Aviation Administration
C. 10,000 lb
D. 2,000 lb 1017. Which of the following is contained in a Type
Certificate Data Sheet?
1011. Which of the following is the temperature to A. Maximum fuel grade to be used
which humid air must be cooled at constant pressure B. All pertinent minimum weights
to become saturated? C. Control surface adjustment points
A. Dew point D. Location of the datum
B. Vapor pressure
C. Absolute humidity 1018. Suitability for use of a specific propeller with a
D. Relative humidity particulatr engine-airplane combination can be
determined by reference to what informational
1012. If both the volume and the absolute temperature source?
a confined gas are doubled, the pressure will A. Propeller listing
A. not change B. Propeller specifications
B. be doubled C. Aircraft Specifications or Type Certificate Date
C. be halved Sheet
D. become four times as great D. alphabetical Index of current Propeller Type
Certificate Data Sheets, Specifications and Listings

1013. FAA Airworthiness Directives are issued to 1019. If an airworthy aircraft is sold, what is done
A. provide temporary maintenance procedure with the airworthiness Certificate?
B. prescribe airman privileges and limitations A. It must be endorsed by a certificated mechanic to
C. present suggested maintenance procedures indicate that the aircraft is still airworthy
D. correct an unsafe condition B. It becomes invalid until the aircraft is reinspected
and returned to service
1014. (1) A supplemental type certificate may be C. It is declared void and new certificate is issued
issued to more than one applicant for the same design upon application by the new owner
change providing each applicant shows compliance D. It is transferred with the aircraft
with the applicable airworthiness requirement.
(2) An installation of an item manufactured in 1020. FAA Airworthiness Directives
accordance with the Technical Standard Order system A. are mandatory
requires no further approval for installation in a B. present design changes
particular aircraft. C. provide temporary maintenance procedures
Regarding the above statements, which of the D. provide suggested maintenance procedures
following is true?
A. Only no 2 is tru 1021. Which Part of the Federal Aviation Regulations
B. Both No. 1 and No. 2 are true. governs the issuance of an Airworthiness Certificate?
C. Neither No 1 nor No. 2 is true A. Part 23
D. Only No. 1 is true. B. Part 21
C. Part 25
1015. For all aircraft type certificated prior to Jan 1, D. Part 39
1958, the CAA issued documents known as Aircraft
Specifications which contained technical information 1022. Specifications pertaining to an aircraft, of which
about the aircraft type. If an aircraft was type a limited number were manufactured under a type
certificated May 7 1959, the information that would certificate and for which there is no current Aircraft
formerly have been contained in the Aircraft Specification, can be found in
Specifications will be in the appropriate. A. Alphabetical Index of Antique Aircraft
B. Aircraft Listing
A. Aircraft Operation Information Letters C. FAA Statistical Handbook of Civil Airplane
B. Certificated Aircraft Bulletins Specifications
144
D. Annual Summary of Deleted and Discontinued 1029. (1) Propellers are not included in the
Aircraft Specifications Airwarthiness Directive system.
(2) A certificated powerplant mechanic may make a
1023. Where are technical descriptions of certificated minor repair on a propeller and approve for return to
propellers found? service.
A. Applicable Airworthiness Directives Regarding the above statements, which of the
B. Aircraft Listings following is true?
C. Aircraft Specifications A. Only No. 1 is true
D. Propeller type certificates B. Only No. 2 is true
C. Both No. 1 and No. 2 are true
1024. Which of the following is generally contained D. Neither No. 1 nor No. 2 is true
in Aircraft Specifications or Type Certificate Data
Sheets? 1030. What publication would a mechanic use to
A. Empty weight of the aircraft determine the fuel quantity and octane rating for a
B. Useful load of aircraft specific aircraft?
C. Payload of aircraft A. Type Certificate Data Sheet
D. Control surface movements B. Manufacturers Parts Manual
C. Summary of Supplemental Type Certificates
1025. Placards required on an aircraft are specified in D. Federal Aviation Regulations
A. Advisory Circular 43.13-1A
B. the aircraft logbook 1031. An Aircraft mechanic is privileged to perform
C. Federal Aviation Regulations under which the major alterations on United States certificated aircraft,
aircraft was type certificated however the work must be done in accordance with
D. aircraft Specifications or Type certificate Date technical data approved by the Administrator before
Sheets the aircraft can be approved for return to service
Which of the following is not approved data?
1026. Technical information about older aircraft A. FAA Airworthiness Directives
models of which no more than 50 remain in service B. Advisory circular 43.13-2A
can be found in the C. Type Certificate Data Sheets
A. Aircraft Listing D. Manufacturers manuals when FAA approved
B. Annual Summary of Deleted and Discontinued
Aircraft Specifications 1032. What is the maintenance recording
C. Alphabetical Index of Antique Aircraft responsibility of the person who complies with an
D. FAA Statistical Handbook of Civil airplane Airworthiness Directive?
Specifications A. Advise the aircraft owner-operator of the work
performed.
1027. (1) The Federal Aviation Regulations require B. Make an entry in the maintenance record of that
approval after compliance with the data of a equipment.
supplemental type certificate. C. Advise the FAA district office of the work
(2) An installation of an item manufactured in performed, by submitting an FAA Form 337
accordance with the Technical Standard Order system D. Record of entry is not required of the person
requires no further approval for installation in a performing the work. The aircraft owner/operator is
particular aircraft. responsible for recording maintenance.
Regarding the above statements, which of the
following is true? 1033. (1)Manufacturer's data and FAA publications,
A. Only No 2 is true such as Airworthiness Directives, Type Certificate
B. Both No. 1 and No. are true Data Sheets and Advisory Circulars are all approved
C. Neither No. 1 nor No 2 is true data.
D. Only No. 1 is true (2) EAA publications such as Technical Standard
Orders, Airworthiness Directives, Type Certificate
1028. Which of the following would provide Data Sheets, and Aircraft Specifications and
information regarding instrument range markings for Supplemental Type Certificates are all approved data.
an aircraft certificated in the normal category? In regard to the above statements which is correct?
A. FAR Part 21 A. Both No. 1 and No. 2 are true
B. FAR Part 25 B. Only No. 1 is true
C. FAR Part 91 C. Neither No. 1 nor No. 2 is true
D. FAR Part 23 D. Only No. 2 is true.

145
1034. The following is the compliance portion of a
Airworthiness Directive. Compliance required, as
indicated, unless already accomplished:
1. Aircraft with less than 500 hours total time in
service: Inspect in accordance with instructions be
low at 500 hours' total time, or within the next 50hrs
time in service after the effective date of this AD, and
repeat after each subsequent 200 hrs in service .
2. Aircraft with 500 hrs through 1000 hrs total time in
service: Inspect in accordance with Instruction below
within the next 50 hrs time in service after the
effective date of this AD and repeat after each
subsequent 200 hrs in service.
3. Aircraft with more than 1000 hrs time in service:
Inspect in accordance with instructions below with the
next 25 hrs time in service after the effective date of
this AD and repeat after each subsequent 200 hrs in
service."
An aircraft has a total time in service of 468
hours. The Airworthiness Directive given was initially
complied with a 454 hours in service. How many
additional hours a service may be accumulated before
the AD must again be complied with?
A. 32
B. 46
C. 200
D. 186

146
1035. Using Fig 52, which type of lubricant is used to 1041. Which statement is true regarding the privileges
the nose door link? of a certificated mechanic with a powerplant rating?
A. Oil, general purpose, low temperature lubricating A. They may perform the 100 hr inspection required
B. grease, general purpose by the Federal Aviation Regulations on a power plant
C. Oil, lubricating, aircraft engine of propeller or any component thereof, but may not
D. Grease, low temperature aircraft lubricating release the same to service
B. They may perform the annual inspection required
1036. Determine the frequency of lubrication of the by the Federal Aviation regulations on a powerplant
pivot bushing. (see Fig. 52) or propeller or any component thereof and may
A. 100 hours release the same to service
B. 50 hours C. They may perform the annual inspection required
C. 500 hours by the Federal Aviation regulations on airframe,
D. 1000 hours powerplant or propeller or any component thereof and
may release the same to service.
1037. Using Fig 52, what method is used to lubricate D. They may perform the 100 hr inspection required
the nose door links? by the Federal aviation Regulations on a powerplant
A. Filter can or propeller or any component thereof and may
B. Grease gun release the same to service.
C. Hand
D. Squirt can 1042. Who has the authority to approve an aircraft
return to service after a 100 hour inspection?
1038. The following is a table of airspeed limits as A. A mechanic of any certificated repair station
given in an FAA issued aircraft specification: B. A certificated mechanic with an airframe rating
Normal operating speed . . . . . . . . . . . . . .260 knots C. a mechanic holding a repairman certificate
Never exceed speed . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 293 knots D. A certificated mechanic with an airframe at
Maximum landing gear operating speed..174 knots powerplant rating
Maximum flap extended speed.. . . . . . . 139 knots
The high end of the white arc on the airspeed 1043. A repair, as performed on an airframe, shall
instrument would be at mean
A. 260 knots A. the upkeep and preservation of the airframe
B. 293 knots including the component parts thereof.
C. 174 knots B. the restoration of the airframe to a condition for
D. 139 knots safe operation after damage or deterioration
C. An appreciable change in the weight, balance
1039. A complete detailed inspection and adjustment structural strength, performance, flight
of the valve mechanism will be made at the first 25 characteristics or other qualities affecting the
hours after the engine has been placed in service. airworthiness of the airframe.
Subsequent inspections of the valve mechanism will D. simple or minor preservation operations and the
be made each second 50 hour period. replacement of small standard parts not involving
From the abovestatement, at what intervals will valve complex assembly operations
mechanism inspections be performed?
A. 100 hours 1044. The replacement of fabric on fabric-covered
B. 25 hours part such as wings, fuselages stabilizers or control
C. 50 hours surface is considered to be a
D. 75 hours A. minor repair unless the new cover is different in
any way from the original cover
1040. Check thrust bearing nuts for tightness on new B. minor repair unless the underlying structure is
or newly overhauled engines at the first 50hr altered or repaired
inspection following installation. Subsequent C. major repair even though no other alteration or
inspections on thrust bearing nuts will be made at repair is performed
each third 50hr inspection. D. minor repair unless the method of covering
From the above statement, at what intervals should changed or the underlying structure is altered or
you check the thrust bearing nut for tightness? repaired
A. 150 hours
B. 50 hours
C. 100 hours
D. 200 hours

147
Fig 52
1045. Which of the following is classified as a major D. not perform the work because he/she is not allowed
repair? to perform and approve for return to service repairs or
A. Removal, installation and repair of landing gear alterations to propellers
tires
B. The repair or portions of skin sheets by making 1051. Which of the following is a privilege of a
additional seams certificated mechanic with a powerplant rating?
C. Troubleshooting and repairing broken circuits A. Minor repairs to and minor alterations of propellers
landing light wiring circuits B. Minor repairs to and major alterations of propellers
D. Replacing safety belts C. Major repairs to and minor alterations of propellers
D. Major repairs to and major alterations of propellers
1046. The 100 hour inspection required by Federal
Aviation regulations for certain aircraft being 1052. FAA certificated mechanics may
operated for hire may be performed by A. approve for return to service a major repair for
A. a person working under the supervision of an which they are rated
appropriately rated mechanic, but the aircraft must be B. supervise and approve a 100 hour inspection
approved by the mechanic for return to service C. perform an annual inspection appropriate to the
B. an appropriately rated mechanic only if he/she has rating(s) they hold
an inspection authorization D. approve for return to service a minor alteration
C. an appropriately rated mechanic and approved by they have performed appropriate to the rating(s) they
him/her for return to service hold
D. an appropriately rated mechanic, but the aircraft
must be approved for return to service by a mechanic 1053. A certificated mechanic with a powerplant
with an inspection authorization rating may perform the
A. annual inspection required by the Federal Aviation
1047. A person working under the supervision of a Regulations on a powerplant or any component
certificated mechanic with an airframe and thereof and approve and return the same to service
powerplant rating is not authorized to perform which B. 100 hr inspection required by the Federal Aviation
of the following? Regulations on a powerplant or any component
A. Repair fabric covering involving an area greater thereof and approve and return the same to service
than that required to repair two adjacent wing ribs C. annual inspetion required by the Federal Aviation
B. Repair a wing brace strut by welding Regulations on an airframe, powerplant or any
C. A 100 hour inspection component thereof and return the same to service
D. Repair an engine mount by riveting D. 100 hr inspection required by the Federal Aviation
Regulations on an airframe, powerplant or any other
1048. A mechanic certificate is effective for what component thereof and approve and return the same to
period of time? service.
A. As long as duties are performed under the
certificate for at least 60 days within the preceding 6 1054. A certificated mechanic shall not exercise the
months privileges of the certificate and rating unless within
B. 24 calendar months the preceding 24 months the Administrator has found
C. As long as duties are performed under the that the certificate holder is able to do the work or the
certificate for at least 90 days within the preceding 12 certificate holder has
months A. served as a mechanic under the certificate and
D. Until surrendered, suspended or revoked rating for at least 18 months
B. served as a mechanic under the certificate and
1049. A certificated mechanic is not privileged to rating for at least 12 months
perform any repair to or alteration of C. technically supervised other mechanics for at least
A. a propeller 3 months
B. air conditioning and pressurization systems D. serviced as a mechanic under the certificate and
C. an electrically heated windshield system rating for at least 6 months
D. an instrument
1050. An Airworthiness Directive requires that a 1055. (1) A certificated mechanic with an airframe
propeller be altered. A certificated mechanic could rating may perform a minor repair to an airspeed
A. perform and approve the work for return to service indicator providing he/she has the necessary
if it is a minor alteration equipment available.
B. not approve the work for return to service because (2) A certificated mechanic with a powerplant rating
it is an alteration may perform a major repair to a propeller providing
C. not perform the work because it is an alteration he/she has the necessary equipment available.
Regarding the above statements, which of the 1062. When routing a fuel line between two rigidly
following is true? mounted fittings the line should.
A. Only no 1 is true A. Have at least one bend between such fittings.
B. Neither No. 1 nor no 2 is true B. be a straight length of tubing and clamped to the
C. Only no 2 is true aircraft structure.
D. Both no 1 and no 2 are true C. have a flexible line added between two metal lines
to allow for ease of installation.
1056. A certificated mechanic must notify the
Administrator of the Federal Aviation Administration 1063. 1. If aviation gasoline vaporizes too readily,
of any changes in permanent mailing address in fuel lines may become filled with vapor and cause
writing within increased fuel flow. 2. A measure of a gasoline's
A. 48 hours after such changes tendency to vapor lock is obtained from the Reid
B. 30 days after such changes vapor pressure test.
C. 60 days after such changes Regarding the above statements,.
D. 90 days after such changes A. Only No. 2 is true.
B. both No. 1 and No.2 are true.
1057. Who is responsible for determining that C. neither No. 1 nor No. 2 is true.
materials used in aircraft maintenance and repair are
of the proper type and conform to the apppriate 1064. Microbial growth is produced by various forms
standards? of micro organisms that live and multiply in the water
A. The installing person or agency interfaces of jet fuels. Which of the following could
B. the owner of the aircraft result if microbial growth exists in a jetfuel tank and
C. The supplier of the material is not corrected?
D. the manufacturer of the aircraft 1 Interference with fuel flow
2. Intereferenc (rest in explanation).
1058. The replacement of a damaged engine mount A. 1,2,4.
with a new identical engine mount purchased from the B. 2,3,5.
aircraft manufacturer is considered a C. 1,5,6.
A. major alteration
B. minor alteration 1065. The vapor pressure of aviation gasoline is.
C. major repair A. Lower than the vapor pressure of automotive
D. minor repair gasoline.
B. Higher than the vapor pressure of automotive
1059. Who has the authority to approve and return to gasoline.
service a powerplant or propeller or any part thereof C. Approximately 20 PSI at 100 degree F.
after a 100 hour inspection?
A. A mechanic with a powerplant rating 1066. What can be done to eliminate or minimize the
B. A mechanic with an airframe rating microbial growth problem in an aircraft jet fuel tank?
C. Any certified repairman A. Use anti-icing and antibacterial additives.
D. Personnel of any certificated repair station. B. Add CO2 as a purgative.
C. Keep the fuel tank topped off.
1060. Instrument repairs may be performed
A. by the instrument manufacturer only 1067. What is the maximum vapor pressure allowable
B. by an FAA approved instrument repair station for an aircraft fuel?
C. on airframe instruments by mechanics with an A. 7 PSI.
airframe rating B. 5 PSI.
D. on powerplant instruments by mechanics with a C. 3 PSI.
powerplant rating.
1068. If a bladder-type fuel tank is to be left empty for
1061. 1.Onalarge aircraft pressure refueling system, a an extended period of time, the inside of the tanks
pressure refueling receptacle and control panel will should be coated with a film of.
permit one person to fuel or defuel any or all fuel A. Engine oil.
tanks of an aircraft. B. Linseed oil.
2.Because of the fuel tank area, there are more C. Ethylene glycol.
advantages to a pressure fueling system in light
aircraft.. 1069. How may the antiknock characteristics of a fuel
A. Only No. 1 is true. be improved?
B. Only No. 2 is true. A. By adding a knock inhibitor.
C. Both No. 1 and No.2 are true. B. By adding a knock enhancor.
C. By adding a fungicide agent.

1070. A carbon dioxide (CO2) hand held fire


extinguisher may be used on an electrical fire if the.
A. horn is nonmetallic.
B. handle is insulated.
C. horn is nonmagnetic.

1071. The proper fire extinguishing agent to use on an


aircraft brake fire is.
A. water.
B. carbon dioxide.
C. dry powder chemical.
FILL IN THE BLANKS

1. Output stage of a television transmitter is most 20. A transistor has a current gain = 250 if collector
likely to be a_____________________. current is 10 mA the base current is ______________.

2. The most commonly used filter in SSB generation 21. If an O0F amp has a bandwidth of 0_100 KHz and
are ___________________. gain of 40 dr The frequency at which the gain will be
unit is ______________________________.
3. Tropospheric scatter is used with freq in the
_____________range. 22. (Assuming – 20 dB/decade Slope outside mid
band).
4. Amplitude modulation is used for broadcasting
because __________________________________. 23. A Xtal OSc has crystal of thickness t what
happens it t is reduced by 1% _________________.
5. The modulation index of an AM wave is changed
from 0 to 1 The transmitted power is ____________. 24. A JEET is a ____________ is a controlled device
whereas a BJT is a ____________ controlled device.
6. When the modulation index of an AM wave is
doubled, the antenna current is also doubled The AM 25. ______ perform the conversion function by means
system being used is _______________________. of solid state or static circuit functions.

7. To provide two or more voice circuits with the 26. The nature of battery installations is mainly
same carrier, it is necessary to use ___________. determined by _________and emergency power.

8. Vestigial sideband modulation (C3F) is normally 27. _____battery suffers a rapid temperature and
used for __________________________________. current rise once the battery is fully charged.

9. Unwanted sideband in SSB cannot be removed by 28. The potting compound consists of and alkaline
______________________________________. and acid base material is known as _______.

10. The optical fibre communication is based on the 29. A battery is a device which converts ____energy
principle of _____________________________. to _____energy.

11. The three components of AM are ____________, 30. When magnetic field of carbon pile voltage
_____________&______________. regulator decreases , the resistance _____.

12. At cut off the base current in transistor is 31. The three temperature of which the pilot must be
____________________. kept informed during the flight are the ___________.

13. The maximum efficiency of a class A amplifier is 32. During cockpit checks, under carriage lever is at
______________________. 'DOWN' and undercarr lamp indicate _______ lights.

14. The resistance of the p_channel of transistor is 33. Arms extended horizontally side ways and palms
called _______________. downward, the marshalli signal indicate _________.

15. In a MOSFET, the more negative the gate voltage, 34. When turning the aircraft during towing the
the smaller the ______________________ current. _____________ must not exceed 30.

16. A _______________________ diode has a 35. The working life of a natural fibre or nylon fibre
negative resistance in its characteristics. rope sling is _____.

17. (175)10 = ( )8. 36. Bending is another combination of stresses easy to


see in the wing of a _____________ aeroplane.
18. (8963)10 = ( )8421.
37. In tersonal stress, tension and compression acting
19. The number of flip flops required to count upto 73 at an angle of abou _____________ to the applied
is _________________________. force and 90 to each other.
38. The device used to locate or clamps material 55. Specific gravity of fully charged Ni_Cd battery is
during the process of fit is known as ___________. between ________ and _________.

39. While tacking the aircraft, the jacks must be 56. Hydrometer is used to measure _________ of the
positioned correctly and load raised and lowered electrolyte.
gradually, always watch for signs of _________.
57. Lead acid batteries are __________ type of
40. A parmanent deformation of material, which batteries.
increases with stress the l of time the stress is applied
with temperature is called _______. 58. The capacity of the battery is measured in
________________ units.
41. Directional control can be achieed by changing the
__________ acting o fin by means of a rudder. 59. Latent heat of a refrigerant should be __________.

42. To correct the nose down tendency of an aircraft 60. Servicing required for battery maintenance are
the elevator trim tab trimmed ____________. _________.

43. In all cases of levelling the aircraft make sure that 61. In AM the _______________of the carrier is
the tail is prop ___________ as some aircraft are in varied by modulating voltage.
rigging position.
62. The modulation index is a number lying
44. The angular setback of the main planes relative to between__________ and _____________.
the fuselage or hul is known as __________.
63. The_____________ of a receiver is its ability to
45. A principal load carrying member of a plane or of reject unwanted signals.
a control surface is known as _________.
64. An ____________________is one that radiates
46. The intentional manocurring of an aircraft into any uniformly in all directions in space.
desired position i called __________.
65. An optical fiber with gradually changing ref
47. As the velocity increases the pressure on the walls Index along the cross section is
of the tube decrea and vice versa This is due to called_______________.
________.
66. The trade name of Hg_Tin_SI bronze is
48. The position on the chord at which the resultant ____________.
force acts is called ________________.
67. Commercial acetylene is produced generally by
49. During the movement of centre pressure as the ____________.
angle of attack is increased up to _________ the
centre of pressure is more gradually forward. 68. Naval brass is also called __________.

50. The deviation of meanline from chord line is 69. Turn buckles and barrels are manufactured with
called _________. __________ alloys.

51. The effective leading edge flep is to _______ the 70. Worm gears are made out of casting alloys of
lift co_efficient. __________ type.

52. A typical indicator consists of two interconnected 71. Season cracking is due to __________.
elements, a ____________ and an ____________
indicating element. 72. Silicon and bronze tubing are used for
__________ parts in the aircraft.
53. For slow running tests, a steady indication should
be provided of the order of ________rpm for 73. Beryllium copper is used for ______ application.
reciprocating engines and ___________ rpm for jet
engines. 74. In magnesium alloys castings heat treatment aging
is done to increase _________& __________.
54. The blind flying panel consists of
_____________. 75. Main application of Magnesium alloy casting in
aircraft.
76. Stabilizing in magnesium alloy increases 97. Zinc, chromate primer is in __________ colour.
__________.
98. The advantage of using composite material is to
77. Solution heat treatment in magnesium alloy get high strength in __________ direction.
casting increases __________& __________.
99. Mnemonics are __________ based alloy.
78. Inconals have excellent resistance to _________.
100. The main cause of corrosion in magnesium alloy
79. The alloying elements of nickel base alloys are is __________.
__________ and __________.
101. __________ alloy sheets are used for oil and
80. Cast alloys are produced by investment casting fuel.
under __________.
102. Muntz metal is an alloy of copper, zinc and
81. Aluminium alloy parts are treated with ____________.
__________ before painting.
103. In magnesium bronze __________ is in high
82. Reason for crystalline corrosion is due to percentage.
________.
104. Service temperature application of Phenolic
83. Rate of corrosion in metals is expressed in _____. nitrate is up to __________ degree F.

84. In metal dipping process prevention of corrosion 105. __________ is the most preferred NDT method
molten __________ and is generally used. for checking cracks in under carriage oleo leg.

85. In metal spraying __________ item is used for 106. Muntz metal is used for preparing parts coming
spraying. in contact with __________.

86. Chromatic process of corrosion prevention is used 107. High strength of copper alloy is used for bearings
for __________ alloys. that are subject to __________.

87. Anodising treatment is applicable to __________ 108. Common alloying elements of magnesium alloys
type of alloy. are aluminium, zinc and __________.

88. Powder metallurgy preparation is preferred mainly 109. Titanium alloys are suitable for __________
due to __________. application.

89. In mechanical communication of powder 110. Radiography method of NDT can be used for
metallurgy process ductile metals are made into metals of __________ thickness effectively.
__________ shape.
111. Acid resistance part is used to coat __________.
90. Compacting is to prepare the material to coherent
mass to reduce. 112. Metals in engineering are divided into _______
and non_________ metals.
91. The service temperatures of structural adhesives in
ceramic applications is __________. 113. The process of manufacture of wrought iron is
_______process.
92. __________ material is used for helicopter floor
and rotor blades. 114. Alloy steel is a combination of steel and
_______.
93. Wing beams are manufactured with __________.
115. The constituents of bronze are _____ and _____.
94. The main application of high carbon steel is
__________. 116. _______ type of vice is used for holding small
work which cannot be conveniently held in a bench
95. In aircraft paints pigment gives __________. vice.

96. Paint enamel is a combination of __________. 117. Fine_toothed hacksaw has _______teeth per inch
for cutting thin material.
118. Coarse blade hacksaw has _______ teeth per 137. The _______ of a screw is the distance from a
inch for cutting thick material. point on one thread to another thread.

119. Inverted angle of the cutting edge of the chisel 138. Lead equals pitch for a _______ thread.
for cutting mild steel is _______ degrees.
139. Lead = _______ X No Of start of the thread.
120. _______ chisel is used for cutting in corners and
short out grooves. 140. The top surface joining the two folds of a thread
is _______.
121. Narrow flat_bottomed grooves are cut using
_______ chisel. 141. The _______ of the thread is the straight part of
the thread, which connects the crests and roots.
122. Hammer shaft is usually made of straight grained
ash wood to _______. 142. The angle between the thread is the _______
angle.
123. While hammering always look at the _______
and not the _______. 143. The pitch is said to be _______ when there are
few threads per inch.
124. _______ hammer is used for ordinary job, rivets
etc . 144. A thread formed with a single continuous groove
and is known as _______.
125. _______ files are used for filing small internal
radii. 145. The sites of the square thread are _______.

126. _______ file is used for working 90 degree 146. A letter _______ indicates that the bolt is made
corners. of stainless steel.

127. The bastard file has _______ teeth per inch. 147. All standard nuts are _______ in shape.

128. The smooth file has _______ teeth per inch. 148. Split pin are used with _______ nuts.

129. The length of a file is measured from its _______ 149. _______ are used to make the formed head
to tip of the blade. during riveting.

130. The spiral grooving in a twist drill is called 150. Brazing alloys are mainly of _______
_______. composition.

131. _______ provides cutting edge to the drill, 151. In riveting _______ is the distance from the
rejects the scarf and takes lubrication. centre of a rivet to the centre of the adjacent rivet in
the same row.
132. In a twist drill, the angle between the line joining
leading and trailing edges or the top of the horizontal 152. A transistor has a current gain = 250 If collector
in _______ angle. current is 10 mA, the base current is ___________.

133. The _______ tap will produce a full thread in a 153. Specific gravity of fully charged Ni_Cd battery is
through hole. between ________ and _________.

134. The accuracy of a divider will be lost if legs are 154. (175)10 = ( )8.
open beyond _______ degrees.
155. (8963)10 =( )8421.
135. Callipers are classified by the length of the
_______. 156. The number of flip flops required to count upto
73 is _______________.
136. Feeler gauges are classified by the _______ of
the blades.
STATE TRUE or FALSE

1. The AC current speed measurement system, 20. In a standard broadcast receiver local oscillator
measures speed in terms of frequency. frequency is made lower than the incoming signal
frequency.
2. Since the rotor is driven by the engine at some
fixed ratio, the frequency of induced emf is the 21. Modulation is used to reduce the bandwidth used.
measure of the engine speed.
22. When modulation index of an AM wave is
3. Thermoelectric temperature indicating system is doubled, the antenna current is also doubled The AM
otherwise called as pyrometry. system being used is single sideband full carrier
(H3E).
4. The pilot need not refer to AH, VSI, ASI,
Compasses constantly. 23. Balanced modulator can be used to remove
unwanted sideband in SSB.
5. Artificial horizon is otherwise known as altitude
indicator. 24. The principle of communication in optical fibre is
based on total internal reflection.
6. A bi-metal strip contains two metals with high co-
efficient of linear expansion joined at their interface to 25. Tropospheric scatter is used with frequency in the
form a single strip. UHF range.

7. The device that indicates the desired pressure is 26. The output stage of a television transmitter is most
reached is called Pressure switch. likely to be grid- modulated class C amplifier.

8. Separate rooms are used for charging acid batteries 27. Power density is directly proportional to square of
and alkaline batteries. distance from source.

9. In primary battery cells, active materials are 28. In 2’s complenent subtraction the final carry is
destroyed during discharge. added to the MSB.

10. Alkaline batteries are primary batteries. 29. The barrier potential depends on the density of
doping of the semiconductors.
11. The capacity of the battery is measured in
Amperes-seconds units. 30. If a P-n Jn is heavily doped, the breakdown
voltage will increase.
12. Lead acid batteries are not rechargeable.
31. Class ‘B’ is the most efficient way to operate a
13. Dry cell is a secondary type of a battery. transistor.

14. In FM the frequency of the carrier signal is varied 32. Usually , the generators used in aircraft are of self
in accordance with amplitude of the modulating excited , shunt wound type.
signal.
33. The armature reaction in a generator causes the
15. Diode detector is used to demodulate the AM shifting of magnetic neutral axis.
signal.
34. The current regulator in a generator controls the
16. The most common method used for generation of field excitation current.
SSB is phase shift method.
35. A battery is said to have run away if it takes
17. The direction of E-field, M-field and propagation decreasing charging current.
are not actually perpendicular in the electromagnetic
waves. 36. Capacity testing of batteries should be done at
least once a year.
18. Optical fibre are manufactured from glass and
plastic. 37. Run-away is not a phenomenon which is peculiar
to constant potential charging systems.
19. A 180 degree phase shift is required in phase shift
method of SSB generation.
38. The charging voltage for a battery is always 57. High strength copper alloy is generally used for
greater than that of the actual output voltage by he manufacturing bearings subject to heavy load.
same.
58. The main advantage of naval brass is good
39. The internal resistance of battery can be raised by measuring quality.
lowering the surface current density and increasing
the area vetted by electrolyte. 59. The main cause of corrosion in magnesium alloy
is surface contamination.
40. The electrolyte solution of a Lead-Acid battery is
Potassium Hydroxide. 60. Wrought magnesium alloy sheets are used for oil
and fuel tanks on application.
41. Pressure leak testing is carried out to detect cracks
in the adjacent cells. 61. The common alloying elements of magnesium are
aluminium, zinc and manganese.
42. Potting is a method of insulation of sockets from
entry of water and other liquids. 62. Pure magnesium weights 80% as much as
aluminium.
43. Primary bonding conductors are used between
components and earth for which primary conductors 63. Magnesium alloy does not have strength of
are not specifically required. required for structural applications to use on aircraft.

44. There is no risk of fire hazards during refueling 64. Mnemonics are used due to its high formability
due to presence of static charges. and welding characteristics.

45. Screening process provides a low resistance path 65. Carbon and boron are not used as alloys elements
for voltage producing unwanted RF interference. in super alloys.

46. Thermal switches are employed as automatic 66. Directionally solidified alloys have higher
temperature control devices which act as a protective modular of elasticity.
device.
67. Mnemonics are copper based alloys.
47. Relays are non-electromagnetic switching devices.
68. Titanium alloys are suitable for low temperature
48. The materials used for ‘ Fuses ‘ are copper and applications also.
iron.
69. The advantage of using composite material is to
49. In general the melting point of fusing elements are get high strength in all direction.
high.
70. In aircraft paints, pigment gives solidity and
50. Reverse current circuit breakers are designed to colour.
remain in a “locked – out “ condition to ensure
complete isolation. 71. Zinc, chromate primer is greenish in colour.

51. There is no arching effect in relays. 72. Paint enamel is a combination of pigment and
varnish.
52. Corona discharge is minimized by using static
discharge wicks. 73. Paralkatone is used for both ferrous and non-
ferrous application.
53. Crimping dos not provide good electrical
conductivity. 74. Copper, brass and bronze items in aircraft require
one coat of paint treatment.
54. Proximity fuses are used are based on
eletromagnet principle. 75. Vanadium is the lowest corrodible material.

55. Muntz metal is an alloy of copper, zinc and 76. Hot pressing is done below the melting
magnesium. temperature.

56. Muntz metal is used for preparing parts coming in 77. The main limitations of powder metallurgy is that
contact with saline. the uniform size of particles.
78. Structural adhesives resistance to stresses as that 96. Heavy cast springs can be compressed in a bench
of the main material is very rare. vice.

79. Synthetic resins are most widely used adhesives. 97. Isometric view is not suitable for rectangular
solids with sharp edges.
80. Phenolic nitrate is used for temperature
application is up to 500 degree F. 98. The orthogonal projection can be read without any
formal training.
81. Radiography is the most preferred NDT method
for checking cracks in under carriage oleo legs. 99. In engineering drawing, dimension lines are
broken and fine.
82. Wing beams are manufactured from stainless steel
extrusion. 100. In drilling tools, the short drills have parallel
shanks and large drills have taper shanks.
83. Thermal decomposition of carbonyl is to yield
spherical particle in powder metallurgy. 101. The narrow strips along the cutting edge of the
flutes in a drill are lands.
84. Phosphate glass is used for property of high
radiation transmission. 102. In a drill, the web angle and the clearance angle
are inter dependant.
85. Enamel is a mixture of phenyl and varnish.
103. In a taper tap the diameter of the core is not equal
86. Bituminous paint is used in ship hulls painting. to the core diameter of the thread.

87. Lacquer is used for finishing touch of aeroplane. 104. The flank of the thread is the straight foot of the
thread, which correct the crest out bolts.
88. In riveting distance between two rows of rivet is
called land. 105. The worm thread angle is 29 degrees.

89. The distance from centre of a rivet to centre of the 106. During tapping lubrication is not necessary.
adjacent rivet in the same row is the pitch.
107. Awareness of safety concept should be evident at
90. While riveting, incorrect use of dolly or stop, certain levels and in only the flying faculty of the air
tampering the plate or forms bad rivet heads. force.

91. Bust joints in riveting are the joint between two 108. Aircraft accidents due to bird strikes accounts for
plates overlap and held by one or two row of rivet. about 10 percent.

92. The cable ends eye end is used where correction 109. In 2’s complement subtraction the final carry is
of cables is frequent. added to the MSB.

93. Spare end is used in cables when they are 110. The barrier potential depends on the density of
connected to terminals and tightened by nuts. doping of the semiconductors.

94. In workshops, cuttings formed when drilling, 111. If a P-N Jn is heavily doped, the breakdown
reaming of fringe is called fretting. voltage will increase.

95. Jig is a rigid frame of accurate dimension, fitted


with guides for firmly holding the part to its shape
during fabrication.
WRITE SHORT NOTES ON

1. Earthing or grounding in aircraft. 19. ISB.

2. Chemical reaction of lead acid batteries. 20. Low level and high level modulation.

3. Ohm’s Law. 21. Generation of AM.

4. Kirchoff’s Law. 22. FM receivers.

5. Faraday’s Law. 23. Methods of sideband suppression.

6. RMS value. 24. Industrial noise.

7. AM Transmitter. 25. Rheostats.

8. Superheterodyne receiver. 26. Methods of cooling of generators.

9. Balanced modulator. 27. Storage of aircraft cables.

10. Need for modulation. 28. Classification of generators.

11. Amplitude Modulation. 29. Thermal switches.

12. Frequency Modulation. 30. Chemical reaction of lead acid batteries.

13. Selectivity & Sensitivity. 31. Current limiters.

14. Phase Modulation. 32. Attracted core heavy-duty relay.

15. Phase shift method. 33. Attracted armature light duty relay.

16. Space waves. 34. limiting resistors.

17. AGC. 35. Earthing or grounding.

18. Advantages of FM over AM.


VERY SHORT ANSWER

1. Write down the different Main Lines used in 22. What is non pictorial drawing?
Engineering Drawing.
23. What is Pictorial Drawing?
2. Name the different lines drawn under thin lines.
24. What is Orthographic Projection?
3. What is non-pictorial drawing?
25. Define the terms 'Allowance' and 'Forging' in
4. What is Pictorial Drawing? work shop technology.

5. What is Orthographic Projection? 26. Define the term 'Clearance' in work shop
technology.
6. Define the terms 'Allowance' and 'Forging' in work
shop technology. 27. Define the term 'Malleability'.

7. Define the term 'Clearance' in workshop 28. Describe the purpose of giving heat treatment to
technology. metals.

8. Define the term 'Malleability'. 29. Define heat treatment on metals.

9. Describe the purpose of giving heat treatment to 30. Write the method of adjusting the zero setting of
metals. micrometer.

10. Define heat treatment on metals. 31. How is the reading 0 02 mm is obtained in a
metric vernier caliper?
11. Write the method of adjusting the zero setting of
micrometer. 32. Name the parts of a micrometer.

12. How is the reading 0 02 mm is obtained in a 33. State the points to be remembered while using
metric vernier caliper? micrometer.

13. Name the parts of a micrometer. 34. State the principle of micrometer.

14. State the points to be remembered while using 35. Name the associated tools required for drilling.
micrometer.
36. Name the different types of drilling machines used
15. State the principle of micrometer. in service.

16. Name the associated tools required for drilling. 37. Name the different types of drills used in service.

17. Write various types of drills commonly used. 38. State the relation between speed and feed during
drilling operation.
18. State the relation between speed and feed during
drilling operation. 39. Describe the method of checking the accuracy of
micrometer.
19. Describe the method of checking the accuracy of
micrometer. 40. What are the various lubricants used while drilling
operation on different metals ?
20. Write down the different Main Lines used in
Engineering Drawing. 41. How will you check the vernier caliper for
accuracy?
21. Name the different lines drawn under Thin lines.
42. Briefly explain the procedure of checking DTI for 63. What is surface corrosion How is it caused, what
accuracy. are remedial action.
43. Define the term 'Corrosion'.
64. Who is responsible to check the crash-kit ?
44. List out the types of screw drivers sued in service. 65. Define fixtutre.

45. Write the reasons for which flux is used in 66. What is the use of optical level ?
soldering.
67. What are the points to be ensured before closing
46. Write the purpose of tinning. Hi shear pin ?

47. Precautions to be taken in the battery charging 68. Write the advantages of using a jig ?
room.
69. Define the following :- (a) Ambhibian
48. List various tests conducted in battery charging (b) Angle of attack.
room.
70. Name the four primary components essential of
49. Difference between Primary and secondary hydraulically operated s ervices.
battery.
71. Write the features which are coming under the
50. Briefly explain collective pitch control ? process of air condition ing.

51. What are the factors governing the longitudinal 72. Compare between lead acid and alkaline battery
stability ? and write why alkaline battery is prefered to lead acid
battery,.
52. How is data stored in the dynamic RAM ?
73. Define inductance and write the unit of
53. How will you ensure the following :- (a) Delete a inductance.
selected item (b) Rename a file.
74. Draw the symbols for the following: (a) Selector
54. What are the advantages of using Excel for switch (b) Accumulator (c) Mechanical push (d)
calculations. Rectifier.

55. What are the functions performed by any 75. Enlist the servicing carried out on a new alkaline
operating system ? battery.

56. What happens inside the computer when any key 76. Explain briefly the centralised warning panels and
is pressed on the key bo ard ? name the types of w arning it incorporates.

57. What is character user interface ? 77. Explain the following: (a) Short circuit (b)
Transformer.
58. What is syntax ?
78. Name different neutralising agents kept for use in
59. Write in brief :- (a) Radio buttons (b) Control emergency in lead a cid charging room.
menu.
79. State the factors governing the EMF induced in an
60. What do you understand by the term 'servicing' armature.
what are the objectives of servicing,.
80. What are the checks to be carried out while the
61. What does SWL (safe working load)indicators on DG set ios running ?
a lifting hoist ?
81. What are the different supplies made by ground
62. What is ground equipment ? power unit ?

82. What are the laws of magnetic induction ?


83. What are the servicing carried out on new alkaline 104. What is the principle of conversion in axial flow
batteries ? engine ?

84. What do you understand by the term protective 105. What is the purpose of oil dilution ? Explain how
devices, name tow of the m. it is carried out in aircraft engine lubrication system.

85. What is capacitance, give its unit of measurement? 106. What is thermocouple and where is it used ?
86. What is convertoer, name different types of
convertor. 107. What is thrust argumentation in jet engine and its
purpose.
87. What is difference between transformer and
generator. 108. Write the basic purpose of fuel system and name
the various feeding sy stem used on aero engine.
88. What is electroni emission ? write the types of
electronic emissions ? 109. Write the principle of operation of turbojet
engine.
89. What is resistance in electricity ? Give its unit of
measurement. 110. Write the purpose of the following components :-
(a) LP Filter (b) HP fuel pump.
90. What is resistance, what is different between
series resistance and pa rallel resistance ? 111. Define Mach number.

91. What is semi conductor and explain intrinsic and 112. Define rigidity (Gyroscopic Inertia) and
extrinsic semi conduc tor ? enumerate the factors governi ng it.

92. What is the principle of electric starter ? 113. Explain the rinciple of a Bi-metalic temperature
gauge.
93. Write the advantages of Invertor over Alternator.
114. Name various engine performance instrument
94. Write the general precautions to be observed systems.
during handling of aircra ft batteries.
115. What is Gyroscope.
95. Write the merits of semi conductor.
116. What does the Turn and slip indicator indicates.
96. Write the purpose of converter and invertor.
117. What is clutter and briefly explain how it is
97. Explain in brief the principle of thrust caused ?
argumentation in the jet engi ne and name the most
common divices used. 118. Enumerate the application of laser.

98. Explain the purpose of ignition system what is 119. Tabulate the classification of materials with
duel ignition and write its advantages. examples.

99. Give different classifications of propellers and 120. What are the uses and functions of Hellarman
brifly explain variab le pitch propeller ? Pliers.

100. Name the different components fitted in aero- 121. Briefly explain the procedure of converting a
engine lubrication system. decimal number into oct.

101. Name the essential parts of jet engine. 122. Draw the logic circuit of X-OR Gate.

102. Name the major components of turbo jet engines. 123. Define the term Logic gate and write the
different logic gates of Digital Technique.
103. What is duel ignitor and state its advantages ?
124. Draw the circuit and logic symbol of AND Gate.

125. Draw the logic circuit and logic symbol of


NAND Gate. 138. How semi-conductor memory works in a
126. Draw the symbol and Truth Table for X-OR computer?
Gate. 139. Explain in brief, the function of control unit in a
computer.
127. Define the term 'Register' in digital technique
and write its uses. 140. Convert 8 FA(16) to octal number.

128. Define the term Computer. 141. With the help of a logic circuit explain an 'OR'
gate having two inpu.
129. Name the various popular word processing
packages available in the ma. 142. Name the basic logic gates and give their
symbol.
130. Name the various data operations for maintaining
data base in a compu. 143. With the aid of LOGIC CIRCUIT& TRUTH
TABLE Explain AND Gate.
131. Define square law What are the devices
employed to compensate it? 144. Explain the operation of two-input NOR Gate
with the aid of a logic c.
132. Define :- (i) Rectified Air speed (ii) True Air
speed. 145. Explain Why NAND Gate is called as Universal
Building Block.
133. Explain in brief, the function of control unit in a
computer. 146. Explain the following (I) DRAG (ii)ANGLE OF
ATTACK (iii) CHORD LINE.
134. List out the precautions to be observed before
handling emergency O2 set. 147. Explain lethal warning.

135. Explain why oxygen gas is necessary for Human 148. Write short notes on Piezo electric effect.
body.
149. Name the different methods of non destructive
136. What is a register ? explain the operation of a testing of crack detection.
shift register?
150. Write short notes on Borescope.
137. Explain Binary Ladder with the help of a neat
diagram.
SHORT ANSWERS

1. What are the effects of temperature on a resistance? 21. Write the various methods of projections used in
engineering drawing.
2. What is a Machine Language in Computer?
22. Name the various anti-corrosive treatment given
3. Differentiate between computer and to metals Write with examples.
Microprocessor.
23. Describe the drilling procedure in general.
4. With the help of Block diagram explain function of
computer. 24. Write the physical properties of metals.

5. Convert (125.75) 10 to octal number and (152.25) 25. Define critical points of steel when it is heated up.
10 to Binary number.
26. Enumerate the principle employed in high
6. Define the term re-conditioning. frequency furnace.

7. Write the advantages of planned servicing. 27. Name the various types of pliers.

8. What are the precautions to be observed while 28. List out the types of spanners.
handling batteries?
29. Describe the precautions to be observed during
9. What is the principle of operation of lead acid drilling operation.
batteries?
30. Describe the method of using Scribing block.
10. Name various lines used in Engineering Drawing?
Briefly explain each one of them. 31. Name the parts of a Vernier Caliper.

11. Explain different types of thin line used in 32. What are the advantages of electric arc welding
engineering drawing. and mention its applications.

12. Write down the advantages of engineering 33. Describe the safety requirements while handling
drawing. portable electrical tools.

13. What are the requirements of a good workshop 34. Name the various types of welded joints.
drawing?
35. Name the types of Taps and explain any one of
14. Write down the first cycle and third cycle them.
projection projects on which planes.
36. State the important properties which must be
15. Write the classifications of bonding methods with possessed by a good lubricating oil.
examples.
37. Explain the purpose of Altimeter in an Aircraft.
16. Name the various anti-corrosive treatments given
to metals Write with examples. 38. Write the principle of Mach meter.

17. Describe the drilling procedure in general. 39. What is memory? What are the different type of
memory in a PC Expl ain EPROMS.
18. Write the physical properties of metals.
40. How will you assign password in the file menu?
19. Describe the method of using Scribing block. Describe.

20. Name the parts of a Vernier Caliper.


41. What are the command for - a)Creating a new file 60. Name the major component of turbojet engine and
b)Duplicating a File c) Copying the contents of whole write their purpose.
directory.
42. What are the internal commands? Name which 61. Name the various strokes of engine and explain
command are from the follo wing- a) Delete a File b) them in brief.
Print c) Tree d) CLS.
62. Write down the various parts of a high eenergy
43. What are the menu items found in the start menu? ignition units and expl ain them in brief.
44. What do you understand by the term.
63. Write the purpose of the following components (1)
45. What do you understand by the term "operating Diffuser (2) Combustion chamber (3) nozzle guide
system"? Discuss. vanes (4) Turbine (5) Jet Nozzle (Turbine jet engine).

46. What is editing ? What all editing can do to a 64. Explain in brief the principle of altimeter.
given text?
65. Explain the principal of exhaustgar temperature
47. Where are the cut copy and paste function is system.
carriedout? What are the steps for them?
66. Explain the requirment of an aircraft oxygen
48. Write in brief on a) ICONS b) Menu and c) Menu installation.
options.
67. Name the engine performance instrument and
49. Differentiate between generators and motors and explain the tacho generator.
enumrate the services operated by electric motors?
68. Name the performance instrument of an aircraft
50. Explain the Fleming's left hand rule in brief. and write the purpose o f each.

51. Explain the principle conservation and operation 69. What are the requiment which have to be satisfied
of the transformer. to enable an oxygen installation to function efficiently
in the aircraft.
52. How the electrical form of energy can be detected.
70. What is the purpose of R O C I Define the
53. Name different types of neutralising agent kept for principle of R O C I?
use in emergency in lead acid charging room and what
are the servicing carried out on ne w alkaline. 71. Write the different spheres in atmosphere,explain
one of them.
54. What is meant by recetification (eletrical)and how
many types of rectifier (electrical) are used in service? 72. Write the operation of altimeter.

55. What is Electricity,and the method by which it can 73. What is clutter and how is causes Enumerate the
be detected?How thi s property is made use of in clutter reduction tech niques.
every day use.
74. Give basic construction of LASER.
56. What is the difference minimum relay explain.
75. Give different classifications of satellits and
57. What is the principle of operation of DC motors? briefly explain synchr onous and non-synchronous
Give brief descriptio n of different types of different satellits.
types DCmotors.
76. Name the application of a laser ? Explain the
58. Write the different types of the DCmotors used application in mechanica l engineering ?
and their uses.
77. What are the advantages of Fibre optics
59. Explain in brief the re-heat system of thrust communications system ?
augmentation in brief in turb- jet engine.
78. What are the functions of an under carriage.
99. What is the purpose of purging? How will you
79. What is modulation? Name the type of purge the oxygen install.
modulation.
100. What are the general precautions to be observed
80. Write in brief about BLACK BOX. while working on oxyg.

81. Explain the various factors with movement of 101. Why portable oxygen sets are used in aircraft and
pressure which effects t e longitudinal stability? what are the requirement which they will have to
satisfy before dealing with the sets?
82. What are the axis of an aircraft and explain the
movement of a/c abou t them. 102. Write safety precautions to be observed while
working on liquid oxyge.
83. What is vortex ring?
103. Write short notes on the following in liquid
84. With a neat diagram explain the forces acting on oxygen installation (i) Liquid oxygen container (ii)
an aircraft during gl ide. Filler &vent valve assembly.

85. Why shunt generator is invariable started with out 104. Write short notes on stabilizing container and
load ? Write conditions for. excessive pressure re.

86. Define drilling Enumerate the drilling procedure? 105. What are the various affects of lack of oxygen at
different altitude.
87. Explain following terms used in screw threads
(a) Pitch (b) Lead (c) Core diameter. 106. What are the general precautions to be observed
while working on oxygen Eqpt
88. Describe in brief a diaphragm. 107. Write the properties of liquid oxygen and explain
various hazards of.
89. Explain briefly JPT gauge.
108. Enumerate the protective clothing used while
90. Define "Seebeck Effect" and name the factors on working on liquid oxygen.
which the EMF depends.
109. Write the "First Aid" when affected by liquid
91. Explain briefly CHT gauge. oxygen.

92. Explain the effects of without oxygen an human 110. Explain Binary Ladder with the help of a neat
body at various altitu. diagram.

93. What are the advantages of liquid oxygen over 111. Write the safety requirement of Hand tools:
gaseous oxygen ?
112. Explain the importance of training to avoid a/c
94. List out the precautions to be observed before accident caused by human error.
handling emergency O2.
113. Explain in brief different types of special
95. Explain why oxygen gas is necessary for Human screwdrivers.
body.
114. What are Instrument errors? How will you adjust
96. What is purging? Explain stage I purging. regular error and irregular errors in an aircraft
instrument?
97. What are the advantages hazards of liquid oxygen
over gas oxygen ? 115. Write the types of punches used in instrument
repair work.
98. What are the precautions to be observed while
charging the oxygen on. 116. Write in brief different types of Instrument
errors.
117. What are different types of special files? Write
difference between warding files & equalizing files.

118. Write the safety requirement of Hand tools.


LONG ANSWER
22. Draw depth micrometer name its parts and
1. What is Seam welding? reading.

2. What is spot welding? 23. How a micrometer is calibrated.

3. What is spot welding? 24. What do you understand by resistant welding?

4. Difference between soldering and brazing. 25. What is difference between diode and triode?

5. Advantages of crimping over soldering. 26. What treatment is needed to make a metal soft and
with it reduce the internal stress?
6. Braiton cycle explanation.
27. What is difference between keys and shaft in
7. Purpose of CPU in computer. pulleys?

8. Purpose of ALU (Arithmetic and Logic Unit). 28. What is difference between straight and cross
connection in pulleys?
9. What is difference between ROCI and altimeter?
29. How will reduce the effect of hydrogen in
10. Explain case hardening. electroplating?

11. Explain with figure relation between centre of 30. What is +ve and -ve error in micrometer?
gravity and MAC.
31. Show reading 879".
12. What are all supply will be available to various
load if normal supply system is fails? 32. Name the different a/c manuals.

13. Explain the eddy current crack detection 33. What is the principal of (i) RPM gouge (ii) CHT
procedure. gouge?

14. What precaution one should observe while using a 34. What is ATA code give the name of following
micrometer. publication: (i) Air conditioning (ii) Pressurisation
(iii) Flight control.
15. Filler and fluxes are used in which procedure.
35. What chemical reaction takes place in Ni-Cad
16. Explain the purpose and use of parallel beer. batteries?

36. What chemical reaction takes place while


17. Driving one normal a/c, power is not available to charging and discharging of batteries?
engine how will you use bolt electrical load on the
device?
37. What are the difference between Ni-Cad and lead
acid batteries?
18. When any metal is exposed to environment,
explain the reason and prevention of corrosion on the
metal. 38. How will you check the charging?

19. Name five surface treatments on ferrous metal. 39. How capacity test is carried out in batteries?

20. What are right type files are used on the a/c? 40. What is heat treatment?

21. What are NDT's for plastic and ceramic? 41. Why quenching is important?

42. What are treatment for steel and magnesium?


43. What is hardest test explain any one. 63. What are the different classes of threads and
mention its characteristic.
44. What is de-fuelling procedure of a/c?
64. Mention any five types of bolt used in aircraft and
45. Explain tempering. mention the purpose of clevis belt.

46. Write three types of special purpose bolts and 65. What is the purpose of self-locking nuts and write
uses. the different types.

47. Show reading 0.629" and 0.2941" on a 66. Mention the conditions on which lock washers
micrometer. should not be used on a/c.

48. Purpose and types of pliers used on a/c. 67. Explain the code AN501B-416-7 with respect to
screw used in a/c.
49. How will you use triode diode?
68. What are the general rules followed in safety
50. A bar of conductor and semiconductor is given to wiring?
you How will you identify the conductor bar?
69. What do you mean by 'Local cells' in electro
51. How power is transferring form shaft? Explain chemical attack corrosion and mention the names of
will diagram. different forms of corrosion.

52. How gear movement is transformed show with 70. What do you mean by Anodising and alodising?
diagram?
71. Explain the terms (i) Bending (ii) Torsion (iii)
53. What are flying instruments is connected pilot tensile (iv) Elasticity.
static system?
72. What do you meant by spark test and how ferrous
54. Name the ground support equipment used and metals identified by spark test?
their purpose.
73. Write the constituents of K-mond and mention its
55. What five precautions to be observed on a/c while use.
maintenance?
74. What is heat treatment of metal and write the
56. What is working principle of "D" arsenal meter? types of heat treatment given to Aluminium alloys.
How it will be used to check current and voltage?
75. Write the advantages of Barcol tester, mention its
57. What is difference between heat treatment and limitations.
electroplating?
76. Calculate the resistance value of a resistor with the
58. Write type of corrosion; explain any one, cause. following colour code sequence, Red, green and
yellow.
59. What is the purpose of weighing of aircraft, and
define useful load of a/c? 77. Write the chemical equation of Lead Acid battery
during charging and discharging.
60. What do you mean by aircraft levelling and briefly
explain different method? 78. How ammeter is converted to a voltmeter and how
the range of voltmeter can be extended?
61. Briefly explain different forms of fuel
contamination in aviation fuel. 79. Why transformer is rated on KW basis and explain
Autotransformer?
62. How fluid lines are identified in aircraft and write
the symbols used for breathing oxygen and 80. How zaner diode function as a voltage regulator?
compressed gas.
81. Draw an electrical diagram showing a grounded-
emitter amplifier circuit. 103. Explain briefly capacitance type fuel gauge
system?
82. What are the methods used in DC motor to change
its direction of rotation? 104. Write Short Notes on :- (a) Exhaust Gas
83. What are the maintenance carried out on DC Indicator (b) Thermocouples.
generator? 105. What is meant by synchronous condition of an
84. Explain 'ATA specification No 100'. AC motor and state in brief how the condition is
maintained in tachometer indicator?
85. What are the steps to be taken when performing a
penetrant inspection method. 106. How the electrical type of thermometers are
classified and what is the principle used in CHT and
86. Write about pulse-echo method of ultrasonic JPT gauge and explain?
testing with diagram.
107. Relate the precaution in general, to be observed
87. Write a short notes on (i) GPU (ii) Hydraulic before starting up an a/c.
Power Unit.
108. Purpose of A/C weight and Balance control.
88. Make a neat sketch of micrometer caliper and
mention its parts. 109. Need for reweighing of A/C.

89. What is the advantage of 3 phase system over 110. What are the sources from which weight and
single phase system. Balance data can be obtained?

90. How RMS value is calculated. 111. Define the terminology: -(i) The Datum (ii) The
Arm (iii) The Moment (iv) Centre of Gravity (v)
91. What are the types of fixed resistors. Maximum weight (vi) Empty weight (vii) Useful load
(viii) EWCG (ix) EWCG Range (x) MAC.
92. What are the types of variable resistors.
112. Compute the e g location in percentage of MAC.
93. What is the basic difference between AC and DC
measuring instruments? 113. What is Aircraft levelling and how it is lavelled?

94. What is the principle of an autotransformer? 114. What is minimum fuel weight and how it is
calculated?
95. What are the advantages of autotransformer?
115. Explain the operation of the lateral control.
96. What is the difference between Star and Delta
connection in an electrical system? 116. Explain the method of towing an aircraft.

97. Draw and explain Half Adder. 117. Write down the difference between the soft
soldering and hard soldering.
98. Draw and explain Full Adder.
118. Describe the safety requirements to be observed
99. What is the combination of different materials in while using hand tools.
solder used for soldering electronic components?
119. What are the general fire precautions to be
100. Why flux is used for soldering. observed while working in hanger / aircraft?

101. Why temperature controlled soldering stations is 120. Name the types of corrosion and explain
used for soldering high sensitive electronic corrosion due to galvanic action.
components.
121. (a) Name and explain the various stages of
102. Why Ni-Cd Batteries are preferred than lead-acid theoritical otto cycle (b) Explain four stages of
batteries in electronic equipments. theoritical otto cycle.
122. Briefly explain the following (a) Gas laws (b) 139. What is corrosion? Explain with a neat diagram
Centigrade heat unit (CHU) (c) Themal capacity (d) the process of galvanic corrosion Name five metals,
Specific heat. in the order of corrosion resistant.

123. Briefly outline the properties of magnesium & 140. Distinguish clearly between self and separately
titanium alloys with advantages and disadvantages. excited generators.
124. Explain in brief the difference among surface 141. List out the advantages of static Inverter over
corrosion, galvanic action and inter crystallization Rotary inverter.
corrosion.
142. List out the requirements of an ideal battery
125. Write the uses of magnesium alloys, extrusion, charging room.
forging and sheets in aircraft applications.
143. Give a brief account of the main component of a
126. Explain in brief the applications of the copper DC Generator and explain the purpose of commutator.
alloys and brass in aircraft applications.
144. With the help of a logic circuit and truth table
127. Indicate three groups of super alloys and their explain NAND GATE?
applications to aircraft industry.
145. What are the characteristics of random access
128. In a table from give different types of carbon memory?
steel and their applications on aircraft.
146. Write the advantages and disadvantages of a
129. Give three heat treatment of magnesium alloys. moving coil instrument.

130. Write short notes on (a) Composite and 147. Write the advantages and disadvantages of
application on modern aircraft (b) Nickel base super moving iron instruments.
alloys.
148. Explain in brief the essential requirements of an
131. Application of composites in aircraft industry. indicating instrument.

132. Explain in brief the process and importance of 149. Name the instruments forces and explain eddy
tempering surface hardening of carbon steel. current damping.

133. Explain in brief the manufacturing are 150. Write the principle and operation of moving coil
application of Inconel and K, Monel nickel based instruments.
alloys.
151. Explain the following terms used in a/c
134. Briefly explain the process of Honey Comb core servicing:- (i) Repair (ii) Reconditioning
and Honeycomb sand witch construction composites (iii) Inspection.
with advantages and disadvantages.
152. What is the aim of planned servicing and how it
135. Explain in brief the surfaced hardenings is achieved?
techniques and process used aircraft on aircraft
metals. 153. Draw and explain the working of reverse bias PN
junction diode.
136. Explain with basic characteristics why, beach
wood, and balsa wood are used for aircraft industry 154. Give a brief account of the following (i) Photo
Why the plywood is preferred for certain applications. conductor (ii) Type extrinsic Semi-conductor.

137. Write short notes on (a) Vinyl Phenolics 155. Write short notes on Intrinsic Semi conductor.
(b) Epoxy Phenolics.
156. Briefly explain the Zener Diode.
138. Briefly give names of various rubberised
components used in aircraft How do you check the 157. Name the different types of diode and give their
‘S’ of seal? symbols.
158. Name the main components of a conventional 159. Define the following: a) Aileron b) Elevator
a/c. c) Rudder.
160. Write the purpose of the following of a jet 176. A broadcast radio transmitter radiates 10 KW
engine: (a) compressor (b) combustion chamber when the modulation percentage is 75% How much
(c) Turbine. of this is carrier power?

161. Name the types of corrosion and explain 177. Explain the generation of FM by direct method?
corrosion due to galvanic action. 178. In which respect is an LED different from an
ordinary P-n junction diode? State its application.
162. Explain (i) Wing tip vertices (ii) Trailing edge
vertices. 179. Draw the circuit diagram of a voltage regulator
circuit using a Zener diode and explain its working.
163. Explain briefly what are the factors governing
lift? 180. Explain briefly the purpose of coupling and
bypass capacitors What is meant by stiff coupling?
164. Explain the axis of an aircraft and explain the
movement of aircraft about them? 181. Obtain the ac equivalent of a single stage CE
amplifier and discuss about the input and output
165. Explain the difference between "Wing tip impedance to develop such a model.
vertices" and "Trailing edge vertices".
182. With a neat circuit diagram explain the following
166. State the purpose of"SLAT" and explain them? term with respect to a differential amplifier (a) Tail
Current (b) Input offset current (c) Input bias current
167. What are the lift augmentation devices, explain (d) Input offset voltage.
them briefly.
183. What is the approximate value of zener current
168. What is boundry layer control? write the for each of these load resistances :- (a) RL = 100 Kilo
advantages and methods used in boundry layer Ohms (b) RL = 10 Kilo Ohms (c) RL = 1 Kilo Ohms.
control?
184. Explain the working of a Class-C amplifier
169. With the help of a graph explain briefly variation Obtain the power formulas for class C amplifier.
of drag with angle of attack?
185. Explain the phenomena of the following types of
170. Briefly explain flapping to equality. corrosion (a) Cavitations (b) Stress corrosion (c)
Pitting corrosion.
171. Describe ground resonance and state conditions
which may promote its nset. 186. Explain the difference between cathodic and
anodic oxidation process of corrosion prevention.
172. What is the purpose of having differential control
of aileron? How the differential movement is 187. Explain the different types of paints and coats
obtained? used for preventive of corrosion in aircraft industry.

173. Write short notes on: a) Air ship b) control strip 188. Explain in brief the process of fusion welding.
c) Flap d) longitudinal dihedral e) r igging position.
189. Explain the use and application of brazing and
174. An amplitude-modulated wave has a power soldering in aircraft industry.
content of 800 W at its carrier frequency; determine
the power content of each of the sidebands for 90% 190. Explain properties and use of steel.
modulation?
191. Explain manufacturing process of Aluminium.
175. Give an expression for the range of space waves
in terms of transmitting and receiving antenna height? 192. Explain properties and use of non-ferrous metals
like brass, bronze, duralumin etc ,.
193. Explain classification of materials and uses of 212. What are the different types of screw drivers?
chisels. Explain in brief.

194. Explain classification of materials and uses of 213. Explain different types of spanners used.
hacksaw frames and blades.
214. Write short notes on (a) Brazing (b) Silver
195. Explain briefly on the following (Attempt any soldering.
two) (a) Flat chisel (b) Hand vice (c) Cross cut chisel
(d) Bench vice. 215. Explain the different types of rivets used and
196. Explain classification of materials and uses of explain the terms used in riveting.
hammers.
216. What are the different types of riveted joints?
197. Explain classification of materials and uses of
files. 217. What are the different types of cable joints?

198. Explain briefly the different types of cuts in files. 218. What are the different types of cable ends?

199. Explain classification of materials and uses of 219. Explain briefly isometric projection in
drill. engineering drawing.

200. Explain briefly the following in twist drill (a) 220. What are the different types of lines to be used in
Cutting angle (b) Clearance angle (c) Web angle. engineering drawing?

201. Explain the briefly : Portable pneumatic and 221. Explain the method of identification of bolts.
electric drilling.
222. What is a stud? How are they classified?
202. Explain the precautions adopted during drilling
process. 223. Explain the procedure to remove a solid rivet.

203. Write short notes on (a) Taps (b) Dies. 224. What are the difference between soft soldering
and hard soldering?
204. Explain briefly the method of measurement with
a micrometer. 225. Explain the method of soft soldering.
205. Explain briefly how measurement is carried out
with a vernier calliper. 226. Explain in detail the method of brazing.

206. Write short notes on (a) Feeler gauges (b) Inside 227. Explain the different types of welded joints.
and outside callipers.
228. Enlist the list of tools used in steel metal work.
207. Explain the following terminology in a screw
thread (a) Pitch (b) Lead (c) Thread angle (d) Root. 229. Enlist a few sheet metal machines.

208. Explain the following in detail (a) Square thread 230. Enlist forging and blacksmith tools.
(b) Acme thread (c) Buttress thread (d) Knuckle
thread. 231. Enumerate the requirements of ac instrument
system?
209. Explain the different types of bolt heads.
232. What are the various principal elements of an
210. Write short notes on (a) Steel nuts instrument?
(b) Aluminium alloy nuts.
233. Explain in detail self excited shunt wound
211. Write short notes on the following locking generator.
devices (a) Tab washers (b) Split pins (c) Locking
plates (d) Circlips. 234. Explain carbon pile voltage regulator with neat
circuit diagram.
235. Explain in detail various types of special cable. 254. Draw and explain the block diagram of AM
transmitter Show the appearance of amplitude
236. Explain with neat circuit diagram reverse current modulated wave?
circuit breaker.
255. The block diagram of a typical PCM
237. Explain sleepiness, sulphation and runaway of communication system?
batteries.
238. Explain vibrating contact voltage regulator with 256. The advantages and disadvantages of PCM over
neat circuit diagram. analog communication?

239. Define useful life and capacity a secondary 257. Define plastics and what are its common
battery Discuss the various tests carried out on a properties?
engine starting Accumulator Trolley?
258. Write down the classification of file and explain
240. What are the safety precautions to be adopted in grade and cut?
battery charging room?
259. Explain the various parts of twist drill?
241. What are the requirements of battery charging
room? 260. How the screwdrivers are classified and describe
various types of screwdrivers.
242. Draw the circuit diagram of a voltage regulator
circuit using a Zener diode and explain its working. 261. What are the different physiological effects due
to the change in alt.
243. Describe the requirement of battery charging
room. 262. Define calibration Write various accepted
standards and discuss.
244. Compare AC and DC electrical system and what
are the factors governing the choice of electrical 263. What do you understand by instrument
system. mechanism? Explain in brief.

245. Explain internal short circuit and buckling of 264. Explain the procedure of removal of foreign
batteries. matters and moisture from moisture traps.

246. What are the sequence of operations carried out 265. Briefly explain the principal element of an
for testing and servicing of batteries. Instrument from operating point of view.

247. Enlist the Methods of generation of SSB 266. State the purpose and explain the principle of
Describe one method? operation of accelerometer.

248. Explain the working of super heterodyne 267. Explain Q code setting in Altimeter Define
receiver? different types of Q code.

249. Derive power relation in AM wave? 268. Name the principal elements in an instrument
and explain them in brief.
250. Explain with block diagram SSB receiver?
269. Define the term 'BACKLASH' and give the
251. Explain power saving by SSB? different methods used to minimise the effects of
backlash in instruments.
252. Define modulation and explain Amplitude
Modulation, Frequency modulation, and Phase 270. How do you set the subsidiary scale as per QFE
modulation Also explain the need for modulation? on an altimeter?

253. Define noise, where is it most likely to affect the 271. Name different types of Irregular error
signal? adjustment and with the help of a neat diagram
explain lever length adjustment.
293. Explain Fuel Jettison systems.
272. How will you remove a rusted screw?
294. Fuel Leak Classification.
273. Explain in brief different types of Pin Punches.
295. What do you understand by aircraft plumbing?
274. Write short notes on the following :- (i) Riveting
stake. 296. How the plumbing materials are identified?

275. What is purpose of the following :- (i) Setting 297. Explain Teflon hose.
files (ii) Broaches (iii) Stout center punch. 298. How the fluid lines are identified?

276. Explain the normal synchronization operation of 299. What are the differences between AN and ACN
RI compass. fittings?

277. Define the following : (i) Magnetic equator 300. Write the Purpose of Quick Disconnect
(ii) Compass eror(iii) Magnetic dip (iv) Magnetic Coupling.
meridian.
301. What are the various tube forming process.
278. With the help of circuit diagram explain the
operation of. 302. Explain single flare and double flare forming
processes?
279. Define the following : (i) Magnetic meridian (ii)
Deviation (iii) Rhumb line (iv) Latitude. 303. What are the precautions to be observed while
flare less tube installation?
280. Explain Dip error in magnetic compass.
304. What are the common faults flare less tube
281. Write the Aircraft Weighing Procedure. installation?

282. Why the Ballast is used in Aircraft? 305. Write full form of AN, NAS and MS.

283. What are Permanent and temporary Ballast? 306. Write the differences between Screw and Bolt.

284. Explain: (i) Volatility (ii) Vapour lock (iii) 307. How the threads are classified?
Carburettor icing (iv) Detonation (v) Surface ignition.
308. Types of aircraft bolt.
285. Which of the fuel is hygroscopic in nature
AvGas or Jet Fuel? 309. Draw and write the uses of (special bolts) (i)
Eye Bolt (ii) Clevis Bolt (iii) Lock Bolt (iv) Jo-Bolt.
286. How the fuel is identified?
310. Bolt Part no AN3DD5A stands for.
287. What are the fuel identification markings?
311. What are the types of self locking nut and their
288. What are the Principle Contaminants in fuel and uses.
how they appear?
312. What are the conditions where lock washers are
289. Contamination detection. not used.

290. Contamination Control. 313. Write the installation practices of Bolt.

291. What are the fuel system components? 314. Types and uses of Torque Wrench.

292. Name the fuel system indicators and their 315. Types of Aircraft screws and their uses.
operating principle.
316. Method of Heli-coil installation.
317. What are the uses of Turn lock Fasteners? 341. Explain (i) Parco Lubrising (ii) Anodising (iii)
Alodizing.
318. Draw a Dzus Fastener.
342. Selection factors for material used for Airframe
319. Draw the cross-sectional shape of Low, medium Constructions.
and extra flexible cable.
343. What are the various metal working processes?
320. Write the installation procedure of turnbuckle.
344. Differentiate between hot working and cold
321. Types of Aircraft pins and their uses. working.
322. What are the various methods of safe tying 345. Differentiate between Annealing and
aircraft parts? normalizing.

323. Write safety wiring rules. 346. What are the basic methods of producing
aluminium ally casting?
324. Identification Markings of Rivet AN-470AD3 5.
347. What is A-B-C classification of Titanium alloys?
325. Types of Rivets and where they used in Aircraft.
348. Write short notes on (i) Monel (ii) K-Monel (iii)
326. Draw 0 types of Aircraft Rivet. MUNTZ metal (iv) Red brass (v) Spark test of steel.

327. Factors to consider in the selection of connect 349. What are the requirements must be kept in mind
rivet. when selecting substitute metals.

328. Identification of various Rivets - (i) Tueber POP 350. What is the Principle of heat treatment?
(ii) AVDEL (iii) Jo Bolt (iv) Riv nut.
351. How the wrapping tendency of steel can be
329. Difference between thermoplastic and reduced during heat treatment.
thermosetting plastics.
352. Explain (i) Hardening of steel (ii) Tempering (iii)
330. Uses of thermosetting plastic in A/C Annealing (iv) Normalising (v) Case hardening.
construction.
353. Heat treatments of (i) Aluminium alloy (ii)
331. Purpose of seal and their types. Magnesium alloys (iii) Titanium.

332. What is corrosion and types of corrosion. 354. What are different types of hardness testing of
aircraft metals.
333. What are different forms of corrosion?
355. Purpose of Aircraft Bonding and screening.
334. Explain Galvanic corrosion, inter granular
corrosion, fretting corrosion and stress corrosion. 356. Distribution of charge on regularly and
irregularly shaped body.
335. What are the factors affecting corrosion?
357. Find the value of resistors - (i) White, blue,
336. What are the preventive maintenance to improve brown, gold (ii) Red, green, red, red (iii) Brown,
the corrosion resistance of A/C. Black, Black, brown (iv) brown, black, gold, red (v)
Yellow, green, silver, silver (vi) Body colour red, dot
colour yellow, end colour green.
337. What are various corrosion prone areas?
358. Write Kirchoff law.
338. What are general corrosion treatments.
359. Purpose of voltage dividers.
339. How the corrosion damages are classified?
360. Differentiate between rheostat and potentiometer.
340. Write the various corrosion control processes.
361. What is an electromagnet and where they are
used in aircraft? 382. What is Armature reaction? Write the methods of
reducing it.
362. What are the storage batteries used in aircraft?
383. What are the various types of voltage regulators
363. The material used for lead acid cell and Ni-cad and explain the working of carbon pile voltage
batteries (i) plates, electrolyte and cover. regulator.

364. What are factors affecting the performance of 384. Draw a carbon pile voltage regulator and explain
Lead-Acid batteries. how the voltage level can be adjusted.
365. What are various methods of charging lead-acid
batteries? 385. What is paralleling of generator, how is it
achieved?
366. What are the advantages of Ni-cad battery over
Lead acid battery? 386. What are the differences between AC motor and
DC motor.
367. What is thermal runaway?
387. What is the working Principle of motor?
368. What is the purpose of circuit breakers and fuses,
their properties? 388. Uses of three-phase and single-phase induction
motor in aircraft systems.
369. Explain solenoid and relay.
389. What is CSD? Explain the method of adjusting
370. Which types of CBs used in Aircraft and what the speed of CSD.
are not used in Aircraft?
390. What is AC series motor? Explain the changes,
371. What are the types of switches used in A/C? which are made to operate on AC.

372. What are the effects of current and which are the 391. Types of turbo engines.
effects are used in meter?
392. Advantages of test engine over turbine engine.
373. What are the precautions to be observed when
connecting an Ammeter in circuit?
393. Type of fuel used in different engine.
374. Precautions to be observed while connecting a
voltmeter in circuit. 394. Which is the high speed engine (turbo-prop or
turbo jet)? Write the advantages of it.
375. Define inductive reactance and capacitive
reactance. 395. What are the basic flight instruments?

376. What is Power factor? What is relation between 396. Name the different instruments used along with
PF, True power and apparent power? piston engine.

377. Principle of transformer Can a transformer work 397. Write the working principle of the following
on DC if not then why? instruments: Hydraulic pressure gauge, pressure
gauge for anti-icing system, RPM gauge.
378. Why the secondary of current transformer never
be left open while the system be operated? 398. Points to be kept in mind during inspection of
magnetic compass.
379. Write 05 types of diodes and draw the symbols.
399. Occasion when compass swinging is carried out.
380. Draw and explain the working at a zener diode as
regulator (voltage). 400. What do you mean by remote reading
instrument.
381. What are major parts of an alternator?
401. Working principle of altimeter and ROCI.
423. Procedures for jacking the aircraft.
402. Meaning of various coloured are in instrument
dial working. 424. Various taxi lights and their meaning.

403. What is Angle of attack? How it affects lift and 425. Classification, materials, types and uses of (i)
drag? screw driver (ii) hammer (iii ) chisel (iv) pliers (v)
Punches (vi) files.
404. What are special inspections carried out on
aircraft? 426. Precautions to be taken while using file.

405. What are various Publications used to guide


aviation mechanic?
406. What is ATA specification? Explain its purpose.
427. What are metal cutting tools?
407. What are the types of NDT carried out on aircraft
parts. 428. Types of Blades used in hacksaw (all hard and
flexible type).
408. Explain the principle of ECI. 429. Draw a twist drill and write its parts.

409. What are the indicating mediums used in 430. What are layout and measuring tools?
magnetic particle inspection?
431. What are types of callipers and their uses?
410. Why the parts under magnetic particle inspection
require to be demagnetised after carried out the test 432. Draw a micrometer Write its parts.
Methods of demagnetisation.
433. Calculate the least count of an English
411. What types of NDT carried out on plastic, micrometer.
ceramic and rubber?
434. Principle of working of a micrometer.
412. Draw engine intake and exhaust hazard areas.
435. Materials uses in construction frame, anvil,
413. Extinguishing engine fires develops during the spindle of a micrometer, also its properties.
starting procedure.
436. Determining the value of micrometer reading.
414. What are various types of ground support units
used in the operations of Aircraft? 437. What is positive error and negative error in
micrometer how it is corrected?
415. Precautions to be observed while refuelling of
aircraft. 438. Uses of taps and dies.

416. What are the duties of refuelling crews? 439. Various logic gates, their symbols, truth table.
417. What are the advantages of pressure refuelling?
440. Uses and compositions of combination sets.
418. Types of Fire vs Extinguishing agent.
441. Conversion of binary to decimal, octal to
decimal, hexadecimal to decimal and vice-versa.
419. Fire extinguisher periodic checks.
442. NAND gate, NOR gate, Exclusive OR gate.
420. Precautions to be observed while using
compressed Air system.
443. Why NAND/NOR gates are called universal
gate?
421. Precautions against windstorm damage.
444. Draw circuits of 'AND' and OR gate.
422. Procedures for towing the aircraft.
445. What are the advantages of composite materials
used in aircraft construction?

446. NDT carried out on composite materials.

447. Faults in welding.

448. Difference between TIG and MIG welding.

449. Draw and explain, carburising Flame Neutral


flame and oxidising flame.
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (MCQ)

1. The backing and filling plates using the hole in the 9. During flight in the event of engine failure the a/c
stressed skin as a template to obtain correct size, the will have an atti tude of:
backinb plate should be overlap by:
A. 9 D. A. Gliding.
B. 8 D. B. Stalling.
C. 7 D. C. Flying in the same direction and height.
D. 6 D. D. Rolling.

2. Edges of the repair patches are to be: 10. An Increased in the drag on the down going wing
A. Chiffed. during a control roll can be achievced by using:-
B. Chamfered. A. Servo dileron.
C. Filled. B. Frise aileron.
D. Smoothered. C. Mass balance of deliron.
D. Aerodynamically balance of aileron.
3. The chobert rivets mandral is made of:
A. Mild steel. 11. Aileron in effectiveness due to thickened
B. High tensile steel. boundary layer effect toward s the tip is solved by:-
C. High carbon steel. A. large size of ailerons.
D. Monel metal. B. Aileron balance tabs.
C. All moving wing tips.
4. Hi shear pins as name suggests, are used in D. Elevons.
structural position where there is:
A. Heavy load of shear loading. 12. The speed of sound is propotional to the:
B. High degree of shear loading. A. Square of the absolute temperature.
C. Leak proof point. B. Square root of the absolute temperature.
D. Heavy strength. C. Square root of the temperature.
D. Density of air.
5. Jo bolts are supplied pre-lubricated and must:
A. Be degreased before fitment. 13. During transionic flow, a marked rise in air flow
B. Not be degreased before fitment. ocuures immeditately behind the shock wave is
C. Be cleaned with gasoline before fitment. known as:
D. Be cleaned with petrol before fitment. A. Pressure wave.
B. Shock stall.
6. Riv nuts are anchor nuts in rivet form used where C. Sonic bang.
access is limited to: D. Sonic bubble.
A. Both side of the struture.
B. Bottom side of the struture. 14. In a supersonic flow, the formation of shock wave
C. One side of the struture. is upstream of the originating surface, then free stream
D. Top side of the sturture. mach number is:
A. Supersonic.
7. After take off, when the aircraft is accelerating and B. Less than the velocity of propagation.
climbing if the flap are raised, it causes immediate C. Greater than the velocity of propagation.
reduction in the lift and loss of height, this is D. Supersonic but less than the velocity of
countered by: propagation.
A. Increase in the angle of attack.
B. Decrease in the angle of attack. 15. Aerofoil when gives best result in super sonic
C. Increase in the speed of the A/C. conditions is:
D. Decrease in the speed of the A/C. A. Diamond section aerofoil.
B. Bi-convex aerofoil.
8. The best lift/drag ratio is obtained with the flap at C. Sharp edged thin aerofoil.
an angle between : D. Uniconvex aerofoil.
A. 12' and 25'.
B. 10' and 30'. 16. In cabin air cycle system the air discharge valve
C. 10' and 35'. incorporates at outward relief valve to prevent
D. 15' and 35'. excessive.
A. Cabin air pressure.
179
B. Cabin ambient pressure. D. Green.
C. Cabin differential pressure. 25. The operation of moving iorn type frequency
D. Cabin atmospheric pressure. meter is based on :
A. Mechanical resonance.
17. A typical high grade moving coil instrument may B. Variation of impedance.
have a coil resistance of :- C. Electrical resonance.
A. 05 ohm. D. Force of attraction.
B. 10 ohm.
C. 15 ohm. 26. A desired wave shape with a known frequency
D. 20 ohm. and amplitude can be obtained from:
A. Oscilloscope.
18. To measure a resistance below 10 kohm by B. Signal generator.
wheatstone bridge method, the rates switch is kept at C. Modulator.
position : D. Signal processor.
A. 0.
B. 1. 27. The instrument used for measuring HF & VHF
C. 10. current is :
D. 100. A. Moving iron freq meter.
B. Tong test ammeter.
19. Avometer used a : C. Hot wire instrucment.
A. Moving coil meter. D. Thermo couple instrument.
B. Hotwire instrument.
C. Moving iron meter. 28. Damping force in moving coil meter is based on
D. induction type instrument. A. End rule.
B. Lenz's law.
20. The torque exerted on moving coil of wattmeter is C. Fleming's Rt hand rule.
proportional to : D. Fleming's lt hand rule.
A. Current in circuit.
B. Voltage in curcuit. 29. Moving coil meter employs the principle of :
C. Product of voltage and current in the circuit. A. Motor.
D. Magnetic field. B. Eddy current.
C. Sliding field.
21. Atype `D' meter when used as ohm meter, the dry D. Electrostatic field.
cell supply required is :
A. 1.5 V. 30. The quantity of electricity passing through any
B. 3 V. point in a curcuit per unit time is :
C. 4.5 V. A. PD.
D. 6 V. B. Current.
C. EMF.
22. The mercury motor meter can measure : D. Voltage.
A. DC only.
B. AC only. 31. The trimming tab which can be adjusted on
C. AC & Dc both. ground is known as :
D. Speed. A. Controllable trimming tab.
B. Fixed trimming tab.
23. The instrument required to indicatge phase C. Spring tab.
relationship between the current and the applied D. Balance tab.
voltage, irrespective of the value of the current and
voltage is : 32. When the Perspex is warmed it can be :
A. Power factor meter. A. Easily moulded.
B. Synchroscope. B. Tendency of facture.
C. Tong test ammeter. C. Malleable.
D. Safety ohmmeter. D. Ductile.

24. If zinc orthosilicate is used as flourescent material 33. Prior to threading on a rivet for broaching mandrel
in CRT, the colour of the light spot is : head should be lightly lubricated with:
A. orange. A. OM-21.
B. yellow. B. XG-275.
C. Blue. C. XG-287.
180
D. XG-285. D. Corrosion and ensures a heat proof joint.

34. Riveting pliers which have a ratchet operation so 42. In air cycle system, the charged air is passing
that it can be used in confined place where only small, through nozzle ring of a cold air unit turbine:
repeaeted handle movements are possible. A. Pressure of charged air is reduced.
A. Tucker pop pliers. B. Pressure of charged air is increased.
B. Tucker cup riveting pliers. C. Pressure and temperature of charged air is
C. Avdel riveting pliers. decreased.
D. Chobert riveting pliers. D. Pressure of charged air is increased and
temperature is decreased.
35. Dimple riveting is used for sheets of:
A. 18 SWG & 20 SWG and the rivet hole is drilled 43. In air discharge valve a spring loaded outward
1/32" under size. relief valve is fitted at the centre of the:
B. 18 SWG & 16 SWG and the rivet hole is drilled A. Diaphragm.
1/32" under size. B. Diaphragm chaamber.
C. 18 SWG and the rivet hole is drilled 1/32" over C. Inward relief valve.
size. D. Capsule chamber.
D. 16 SWG and the hole is drilled 1/32" over size.
44. Glands used in sealing the pressure cabin for
36. Rivets mainly used on the seams of fuel and oil passing the control cable/tube are kept well greased
tank are: to:
A. Chobert. A. Provide lubrication.
B. Avdel. B. Minimise friction load.
C. De-Bergue. C. Prevent corrosion.
D. Rivnuts. D. Proper Sealing.

37. Case hardened surface templates are knowna as: 45. In cabin pressure test trolley, when pressure
A. Fitting jigs. becomes excessive in pressure chamber, the excess
B. Filling fixtures. pressure escapes to atmosphere through.
C. Bridge piece. A. Relief valve.
D. Special teemplates. B. Cabin bleed valve.
C. Plate valve.
38. Device used to clamp material during the process D. Outlet valve.
of fitting, machining or drilling is known as:
A. Jigs. 46. All friction pads of brake unit (Plate type) is
B. Template. renewed when :
C. Fixture. A. The limiting dimension is reached.
D. Jury strut. B. Brakes are sluggish.
C. Brake torque is less than prescribed figure.
39. Control surfaces that have been repaired must be D. Oil is leaking.
checked for:
A. Rigging checks. 47. During servicing of remote control system, check
B. Hyd functional check. that the control oper ates correctly and is returned to
C. Mass balance. position by.
D. Operational checks. A. Hydraulic power.
B. Electric power.
40. At the end of all checks to prevent spreading C. Pneumatic power.
further, they should be: D. Spring.
A. Pined by centre punch.
B. Cross cut by chisel. 48. A Cable guide or retainer is fitted to the pulley to
C. By denting the surface. ensure that the c able remains :
D. Holes should be drilled. A. Stright.
B. Tight and fit for operation.
41. All overlapping (fraying) surface and rivets will C. On the pulley.
between in the jointing compound.Jointing compound D. On the fair leads.
helps to prevent:
A. Corrosion and ensures a weather proof joint. 49. The triming tab which can be adjusted only on the
B. Corrosion and ensures a water proof joint. guard is termed as.
C. Corrosion and ensures a lack proof joint. A. Adjustable trim tab.
181
B. Fixed trimming tab. A. Nipple extremities of the two end fittings.
C. Servo tab. B. One rubber portion end to other rubber end.
D. Ground tab. C. End of the adopter to other end of the adapter.
D. End of the coupling to other end of the coupling.
50. A cable guide or retainer is fitted to the pulley to
ensure that the c able remains: 58. Bonded seal when used on moving parts it is
A. Straight. backed by a leather or nyl on washer to prevent:
B. tight and fit for operation. A. Fluctuation.
C. on the pulley. B. Shearing.
D. on the fairleads. C. Extrusion.
D. Cracking.
51. To ensure always the cable remain on the pulley
the control run is fitted with. 59. Ring which may be made of felt or rubber and
A. Fairleads. fitted to prevent dirt en tering to the high pressure seal
B. Sprockets. of a jack is termed as:
C. Retainer. A. Duplex seal.
D. Control wheels. B. Bonded seal.
C. 'U' seal.
52. During servicing of distributors dirt should be D. Wiper ring.
removed from the distr ibutors with :
A. Rag. 60. Method of test in which particles filtered out of
B. Brushes. the sample hydraulic fluid are transfered to glass slide
C. A spray water. and then compared with specimen s lides under a
D. Chamois leather. microscope is known as:
A. Comparison method.
53. A valve installed in the pressure line connected to B. Con-par method.
the contol valve,e nsure that service remains in C. Millipore method.
selected position when any other servics are opreated D. Millipore patch method.
is termed as;-.
A. Throtling valve. 61. In which sampling method ,the sample fluid is
B. Sequence valve(hyd). poured through the filte r paper and the paper is then
C. Sequence valve(mech). dried by clean filtered air;-
D. Non-return valve. A. Millipore patch method.
B. Con-par method.
54. In hyro-booster when the supply pressure is C. Comparision method.
sufficient to close the bypassvalve jack chamber are D. Millipore con-par method.
isolated from each otherend jack extended or retracts
in power in reponse to movement ofthe;-. 62. During servicing of aircraft in the hanger to test
A. Servovalve control rod. the hyraulic system under actual operating
B. Bypass valve. condition,use;-
C. Piston. A. Ground test trolley.
D. pilot control column. B. Hyraulic servicing trolley.
C. Hyraulic static test rig.
55. A bypass control type Hydrobooster will permit D. hand pump.
change over of control from power to manuel or ivee
verse: 63. On hyd servicing trolly during winter season it
A. When control surface is in neutral position. may be necessary to bl ock the radiator from the fan
B. Regardless of the position of the flying control. for warming up radiator water up to ;-.
C. When the control surface are in up position. A. 80 degree centigrade.
D. when the control surfaces are in down position. B. 70 degree centigrade.
C. 60 degree centigrade.
56. In Hydraulic pipe/tubing, tungum to using is a D. 50 degree centigrade.
composition of:
A. Alluminium, stainless steel and silicon brass. 64. Ovality is calculated from two measurements
B. Alluminium, nickel and stainless steel. taken at same point in a b ore but at:
C. Alluminium, nickel and silicon brass. A. Opposite direction to each other.
D. Stainless steel, nickel and silicon brass. B. 45' to each other.
C. 60' to each other.
57. All hose assemblios are measured for length from: D. 90' to each other.
182
73. In oil and water trap, the deposited fluid is
65. Internal leak of the valve due to small scroes and prevented from entering the outlet by:
worn bores is preve nted by: A. Gauge filter.
A. Lapping. B. Metal chute.
B. Replacing the faulty parts. C. Baffle.
C. Polishing. D. Metal chute and baffle.
D. Renewing the sealing rings.
74. In pneumatic system a slow build up in pressure
66. The piston rod of jack is connected to the: may indicate that the regulating valve:
A. A/C structure. A. Filter requires cleaning.
B. Services operated. B. Filter requires renewal.
C. Hand pump. C. Internal leakage.
D. Selector valve. D. Safely valve blow off.

67. In non-self idling power circuit, two extra 75. Ejection of oil of filter drain may indicate:
components are fitted othe r than self-idling curcuit to A. Oil leak in compressor.
off load the pump are: B. Oil and water trap faulty.
A. Safety valve and relief valve. C. Oil in the air bottle.
B. Automatic cutout valve and accumulator. D. Anti freezer not working.
C. By pass valve and regulator valve.
D. Relief valve and non-return valve. 76. The clearance between the brake shoes and the
brake drum must be check ed when the brake unit has
68. Filter used in pressure lines of Hydraulic system been:
when chogged, the fl uid passes directly from inlet to A. Renewed.
outlet connection by opening: B. Operated.
A. cut-out valve. C. Repaired.
B. Safety valve. D. Assembled.
C. By-pass valve.
D. Non-return valve. 77. In the pneumatic brake pressure gauges, pressure
drops or rises constantly causes may be:
69. A dehydrater is fitted in pnecematic system A. Cracked pipes.
between: B. Dirt on valve parts.
A. Compressor and pressure relief valve. C. Punctured expansion chamber.
B. Ground charging point and oil and watertrap. D. Exhaust or inlet valve not seating.
C. Oil and water trap and air bottle.
D. Air bottle and air filter. 78. Stress which tend to pull or twist the components
or body by tension a nd compression at a right angle
70. In air pressure system, ground charging valve is to each other is:
installed between: A. Shear.
A. Air compressor and HP relief valve. B. Tension.
B. HP relief valve and Ante freezer. C. Toroion.
C. Anti freezer and oil and water trap. D. Bending.
D. Air compressor and the oil and water trap.
79. The a/c structure may fail due to violent vibration
71. As per classification of air compressor, quering of aerofoil surfac e produced by the interaction of
compressor is classif ied as: mass and aero dynamic load is termed as;-.
A. Nature of installation. A. Buffeting.
B. Moving parts. B. Vibration.
C. Duty. C. Flutter.
D. Application. D. Oscillation.

72. In pneumatic system a dehydrator comtains 80. On high speed aircraft where aelierons are not
alumina where as anmto freez er contains: fitted on wings more ef fective roll is achieved by;-.
A. Warm air. A. Elevons.
B. Silicagel crystals. B. ruddervators.
C. Methanol. C. tailerons.
D. Methane. D. spoilers.

183
81. Carbon fibre reinforced plastics are used as: 89. The wheel suitable for tubless tyre is caleed :
A. Radio transparant radoms. A. Well base wheel.
B. Shaped into components in vacuombeg. B. Loose flange wheel.
C. Stronger and cheaper. C. Divided type.
D. Manufacturing of helicopter rotor blade. D. Detachable flange wheel.

82. Having high strength to weight ratio and an 90. Aircraft wheel arrangements, primary function of
excellent corrosion resist ance, property of the metal bogie undercarriage is one of :
is known as: A. Reduce all up weight.
A. Stainless steel. B. Greater flexibility.
B. Magnesium alloy. C. Provides safety.
C. Titanium alloy. D. Weight distribution.
D. Coppon alloy.
91. Before assy to the wheel to prevent corrosion due
83. The type of wing construction convered with to electrolytic actr ion the treads of the new screws
metal plates which adds st rength and stiffness is: and bolts must be smeared with :
A. Braced of construction. A. Anti seize grease.
B. Honey comb construction. B. Anti freezing grease.
C. Stressed skin construction. C. Jointing compound.
D. Geodatic construction. D. Lubricating oil.

84. A form of stressed skin construction used in a 92. Whenever a tyre is removed from a wheel
fuselage in which the c urved skin carried the whole assembly either for routine maintenance or because
or greater part of the main load is: the tyre is defective the wheel must be checked for.
A. Semi monocoque. A. Cracks.
B. Mono coque. B. Discoloration and cracks.
C. Geodetic. C. Dust, dirt and corrosion.
D. Honey comb. D. FOD.

85. In increase in the drag on the down going wing 93. During the construction of the tyre, the plies are
during a control roll c an be achieved without the fitted in pairs, te rmed as.
complications of the differential linkage b y using: A. Cross baised.
A. Frise ailerons. B. Phy layers.
B. Plan ailerons. C. Phy overlaps.
C. Normal type of ailerons. D. Pockets.
D. Zip type ailerons.
94. The type of valve stem caps are to be tighten with
86. The aerodynamic balancing of control surface are the help of pliers is.
mostly given to: A. Come cap.
A. Ailerons and rudder. B. Hexagonal cap.
B. Rudder and elevators. C. Deflation cap.
C. Elevators and ailerons. D. Double check cap.
D. Elevators, rudder and ailerons.
95. The inflation valve of the tyre designed for
87. For landing gear structure the metal used for pressure above 90 PSI mus t be fitted with valve cores
fatigue resistance is: containing.
A. Nickel steel. A. Stainless steel springs and hexagonal valve cap.
B. Chromium. B. Copper coloured spring and extracto cap.
C. Carbon steel. C. Steel spring and double check cap.
D. Molybdenum. D. Low pressure spring and dome cap.

88. While assembling control surface when testing the 96. If the size of the aircraft tyre is shown as 550 X
control for freedom of movement,they are found to be 250 - 6 the second three digits will denote.
stiff the cause is;-. A. The overall diameter of the inflated tyre in mm.
A. Over tension of cable. B. The cross-sectional width of the tyre in mm.
B. Under tension of cable. C. The diameter of the tyre bead seat in inches.
C. Incorrect run of cable. D. The overall diameter of the tyre.
D. Lack of lubricant in cable.

184
97. Aircraft tyres which are under inflated may cause D. Primary structure.
them to wear rapidly and uneven at or near the.
A. Side walls. 105. When C materials are used, the cause of
B. Shoulder of the tyre. chilling/blooming fault is :
C. Edge of the tread. A. High humidity.
D. Edge of the tyre. B. Low humidity.
C. High temperature.
98. The tyre removal jigs primarily intended for use D. High humidity and low temperature.
with wheels fitted wi th.
A. Tubed tyres but can be with tubless tyres also. 106. The wheel arrangement of ac is governed by the
B. Tubeless tyres but can be used with tubed tyres strength of the runway on which it operates and.
also. A. Take off weight.
C. Tubless tyres. B. Landing weight.
D. Special tyres. C. All up weight.
D. Tyre weight.
99. Case hardened surface templates are known as :
A. Fitting jigs. 107. The undercarriage which withstand only
B. Fitting fixtures. compression loads,this type is known as;
C. Bridge piece. A. Direct action type.
D. Special templates. B. Articulated type.
C. Suspension type.
100. An aircraft with a operational ceiling of 50,000 ft D. Lever type.
approximately diff erential pressure remain to
maintain 25,000 ft condition is : 108. To vary the operating pressure and to provide
A. 1.75 psi. differential piston surf ace area, the liquid spring
B. 3.75 psi. shock absorber has a:
C. 9.25 psi. A. Flutter plate.
D. 5.25 psi. B. Metering pin.
C. Large diameter piston rod with thick wall cylinder.
101. A valve is installed in the pressure line connected D. Separator.
to the control val ve, ensures that the service remains
in selected position when any oth er services are 109. Some type of liquidspring oleo leg are connected
operated is termed as : to the aircraft main hydraulic system through;
A. Throttling valve. A. Recuperated valve.
B. Sequence valve (Hydraulic). B. Non return valve.
C. Sequence valve (Mechanical). C. charging valve.
D. Non return valve. D. Bleeder valve.

102. A Dehydrator is fitted in pneumatic system 110. For filling and charging of oleo the devices
between : required are.
A. Compressor and pressure relief valve. A. Lubricating gun and charging gun.
B. Ground charging point and oil and water trap. B. An universal lubricating gun and flexible charging
C. Oil and water trap and air bottle. pipe.
D. Air bottle and air filter. C. Priming gun.
D. None of the above.
103. All overlapping (fraying) surface and revets will
be wet in the jointi ng compound.Jointing compound 111. The wheel arrangement of AC is governed by the
helps to prevent: strenght of the runways on which it operated with:
A. Corrosion and ensures a weather proof joint. A. Take off weight.
B. Corrosion and ensures a water proof joint. B. Landing weight.
C. Corrosion and ensures a leak proof joint. C. All up weight.
D. Corrosion and ensures a heat proof joint. D. Tare Weight.

104. Airframe structure which highly stressed but, if 112. The compleate downlock and selfcentring
damaged will not caus e failure of aircraft or loss of assembly which rotates freely on a bearing located
life is classified as : between the cam and rataing sleve is called;.
A. Special structure. A. Thrust race bearing.
B. Secondary structure. B. Roller race bearing.
C. Teritary structuare. C. pinion race bearing.
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D. Ball race bearing. 121. Advantage of case hardening by nitriding process
is;
113. In liquid spring shock absorber the piston is A. Retention of hardness at low temperature.
having a large diameter piston rod, this is to: B. Retention of hardness at high temperature.
A. Prevent bending. C. The depth of hardened case may be 0.08".
B. Acconmodate transefer holes. D. It is easy and cheap.
C. Compress the oil under load.
D. Damper the recoil. 122. Before assembling to the wheel, to prevent
corrosion due to electrolyt tion, the threads of the new
114. In oleo pneumatic shock absorber(Without screws and bolts must be smeared with :
separator), the landing shock in absorbed by: A. Anti seize grease.
A. Small hole in inner tubular member. B. Anti freezing grease.
B. Flutter plate. C. Jointing compound.
C. Spring. D. Lubricating oil.
D. Displacement of oil.
123. To release the air pressure from the tyre and
115. In oleo-pneumatic leg (with separator) the prevents the tyre from bursting, if the wheel becomes
plunger tube is prevented f rom rotating by: over heated, by means of :
A. Torsion link. A. Spark plug.
B. Torsion ring. B. Fusible plug.
C. Gland assembly. C. Fusible valve.
D. Torson plate. D. Rubber O ring.

116. In a/c wheel arrangements,primary function of 124. The wheel bearings are subjected to severe
bogie undercarriage is o ne of; impact loads when the aircr ands, to avoid this load all
A. Reduce allup wight. axles are made to such dimensions that there is a
B. greater flexibility. small clearance between the :
C. Provides safty. A. Axle and retaining nut.
D. Weight distribution. B. Axle and inner race.
C. Inner race and outer race.
117. Large modren aircrafts have more all up weight D. Axle and outer race.
thereby wheel loading i s too high .To protect the
runway structure from damaging and tyre sin king 125. Whenever a tyre is removed from a wheel
which type of wheel arrangement is preferable. assembly, either for a routine tenance or because the
A. Double wheels. tyre is defective the wheel must be checked for.
B. Tandem wheels. A. Cracks.
C. Bogie unit. B. Discolouration & cracks.
D. Single wheel. C. Dust, dirt and corrosion.
D. FOD.
118. A plain carbon ateel with carbon content of
0.67% is; 126. During the construction of tyre, the plies are
A. Low carbon steel . fitted in pairs, termed.
B. Medium carbon steel. A. Crossed biased.
C. Blister steel. B. Ply layers.
D. high carbon steel. C. Ply overlaps.
D. Pockets.
119. To secure maximum strength and hardness to
duralumin which have been a nnealed must be; 127. Twin contact type of tyres are fitted in :
A. Age hardened. A. Nose wheel to provide better grip.
B. solution treated. B. Tail wheel for better castoring.
C. Precipitation treated. C. Nose or tail wheel is anti shimming device.
D. Anodised. D. Nose wheel is shimming device.

120. Duralmin tubing should be solution treated;. 128. The type valve stem caps are to be tightened with
A. Prior to bending or flaring. the help of pliers i.
B. After bending or flaring. A. Dome cap.
C. Prior and after bending or flaring. B. Hexagonal cap.
D. only on rebending or flaring. C. Deflection cap.
D. Double check cap.
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129. In the inflation valve of tyre designed for 137. A greater area can be sprayed without
pressure above 90 PSI must befitted with valve cores replenishment of the material in container, the method
containing : is known as:
A. Stainless steel spring and hexagonal valve cap. A. Suction feed.
B. Copper colored spring and extractor cap. B. Gravity feed.
C. Steel spring and double check cap. C. Pressure feed.
D. Low pressure spring and dome cap. D. Spraying equipment.

130. If the size of the aircraft tyre is shown as 138. While assembling control surface when testing
550 x 250 - 6. The second e digits will denote: the controls for freedom movements, they are found to
A. The over all diameter of the inflated tyre in mm. be stiff the cause is:
B. The cross-sectional width of the tyre in mm. A. Over tension of cable.
C. The diameter of the tyre bead seat in inches. B. Under tension of cable.
D. The overall diameter of the tyre. C. Incorrect run of cable.
D. Lack of lubricant in cable.
131. Aircraft tyres which are under inflation may
cause them to wear rapidly unevenly at or near the: 139. Grade 'A' perspex (D T D 5544) is used for:
A. Side walls. A. Navigation lamp covers.
B. Shoulder of the tyre. B. Side penals lamp covers.
C. Edge of the tread. C. Where clear unudisturbed vision is required.
D. Edge of the tyre. D. Bullet proof wind shield only.

132. The tyre removal jigs primarily intented for use 140. A/C canopy when cracked badly due to adverse
with wheels fitted with: weather condition is:
A. Tubed tyres but can be used with tubeless tyres A. to be polished well.
also. B. to be replaced with new one.
B. Tubeless tyres but can be used with tubed tyres C. …………………….
also. D. to be sent for repair immediately.
C. Tubeless tyres.
D. Special tyres. 141. During cabin pressuraisation test, the cabin bleed
valve must be in:
133. Red iron oxide pigment is added to cellulose A. Opened position.
materials: B. Closed position.
A. To protect fabric from ultra violet rays of the sun. C. Intermidiate position.
B. To protect fabric from moisture. D. Partially closed position.
C. To provide more tightening.
D. To adopt the camouflaging for a particular aircraft. 142. Any unwanted variation from trimmed condition,
the appropriate control surface may be trimmed to
134. Bostik is an air drying rubber-in-solvent material remove the loading on the pilot control is ensured by :
with estimated storage life of: A. Balance tab.
A. Three month. B. Servo tab.
B. Sixmonth. C. Controllable tab.
C. Nine month. D. Spring tab.
D. One year.
143. In flying control system the sideways fluctuatin
135. In aluminium alloy sheet for culting large size of the cable caused b aircraft vibration is restricted by
holes the tool is used. A. Pulley.
A. Skin knife. B. Clamps.
B. Trepanning tools. C. Fairleads.
C. Back marker. D. Rubber pads.
D. End facing cutter.
144. A cable tension regulator consists of a pair of
136. Making lightening holes on the flanged edges of spring loaded quadrant with a ponter and scale to :
the spars and ribs to: A. Register cable tension while adjusting.
A. To increase rigidity and strength. B. Let out equal tension on each side of the circuit.
B. To form access for control rods and electrical C. Record the change in length of the cable.
system. D. Maintain optimum tension in cables.
C. To form access for inspection.
D. For ventilation.
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145. Bowden type control system are intended for : D. Carbon steel or Stainless steel.
A. Pull operations only.
B. Both push and pull operations. 154. A cable tension regulator consists of a pair of
C. Providing accurate and positive control throughout spring loaded quadrant with a pointer and scale for:
the range of movement. A. Register cable tension while adjusting.
D. Locking control in any desired position. B. Layout equal tension on each side of the circuit.
C. Recording the change in the length of the cables.
146. The purpose of adjustable stop is to. D. Maintaining optimum tension in cables.
A. Length of the conduit only.
B. Length of the cable. 155. Some cable systems have compensating device
C. Length of both conduit & cable. fitted which ensures opera over a much wider range
D. Movement of control surface. of:
A. Pressure.
147. When pull operation only desired the control B. Temperature.
used is. C. Frequency.
A. Bowden type control. D. Pressure & Temperature.
B. Push pull rod control.
C. Teleflex control. 156. Push pull control unit are installed in place of
D. Chair control. wheel unit where control is operate against a.
A. Heavy load.
148. In teleflex control cable is tinned thinly and B. Light Load.
restricted to extend no more than approximately by C. Pull load.
6mm from the cable end to. D. Both pull and push load.
A. Prevent fraying.
B. Avoid overheating. 157. The main advantages of teleflex controls over
C. Minimise cost. bowden control is more a te and positive control
D. Maintain flexibility. through out the range and furthermore, that th trolled
component can be:
149. In teleflex control units a short length of conduit A. More effective 'PULL' operation.
known as "spent tr tube" is incorporated with: B. Operated at any degree required.
A. Junction box wheel unit. C. Temporally locked in only selected position.
B. Double entry wheel unit. D. Temporally locked in any desired position.
C. Straight lead wheel unit.
D. Single entry wheel unit. 158. If equal pressure is applied to both ends of jack
simultaneously the pressure will:
150. To prevent fraying of the spocer wires during A. Move opposite to the piston rod side.
assembly the free end of cable should be. B. Move to either side.
A. Trimmed. C. Remain stationary.
B. Welded. D. Move to piston rod side.
C. Tinned.
D. Brazed. 159. A rubber piston ring fitted in the hand pump
groove and being a slack acts as:
151. The medium for soaking chain before fitting to A. Transfer valve.
aircraft is. B. Transfer valve in addition to sealing the joint.
A. Paraffin. C. Seal for the joint.
B. Petrol. D. Relief valve.
C. Oil.
D. Non leaded petrol. 160. In non self idling power circuits when
predetermined pressure is built to off load the pump,
152. The fixed trimming tabs are adjusted: component fitted is:
A. Only in the air. A. Pressure regulator valve.
B. In the air or on the ground. B. Pressure relief valve.
C. Only on the ground. C. Automatic cut out valve.
D. No adjustment should be carried out. D. Safety valve.

153. Aircraft control cables are fabricated from: 161. In undercarriage circuit the purpose of NRV
A. Steel. fitted before control valve to.
B. Stainless steel. A. Maintain sufficient pressure in down line.
C. Carbon steel. B. Maintain sufficient pressure in up line.
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C. Provide positive lock. D. Dirt.
D. Provide hydraulic lock.
170. If a sampling tst shows contamination at a level
162. During take off and landing the flaps are lowered greater than specifie it, it is necessary to change the :
and raised slowly to prevent sudden change in the A. Hydraulic fluid only.
position of the aircraft. For this purpos component B. Hydraulic filters only.
provided in the flap hydraulic circuit is : C. System fluid only.
A. Synchronising valve. D. Hydraulic fluid and filters only.
B. Throttling valve.
C. Pressure relief valve. 171. Before assembling the seal must be lubricated
D. Shuttle valve. with.
A. XG-275.
163. A rubber piston ring fitted in the hand pump B. XG-314.
groove and being a slack acts as : C. Silicon grease.
A. Transfer valve. D. High melting grease.
B. Transfer valve in addition to sealing the joint.
C. Seal for the joint. 172. Rods and cylinders having minor bow during
D. Relief valve. inspection.
A. Can be retained for use.
164. A micronic filter is capable of : B. To be rejected.
A. Filtering 100% of all particles above 10 micron. C. given to workshop for rectification.
B. Filtering 100% of all particles above 5 microns. D. Concession from CEO to be taken before use.
C. Filtering 90% of all particles above 5 microns.
D. Filtering 90% of all particles above 10 micreons. 173. Before assembly of hydraulic components, the
bearing hinge pins etc, a usually lubricated with
165. The purpose of pressure regulator valve (Special) grease:
is to : A. XG - 271.
A. Maintain sufficient pressure for essential services. B. XG - 275.
B. Regulate the pressure in undercarriage system. C. XG - 315.
C. Prevent the undercarriage from dropping while its D. XG - 375.
doors are closing.
D. Prevent fairing doors from closing while 174. Before dismantling the suspected component for
undercarriage is lowered. repair or recategorisat It should be first checked for:
A. Functional test.
166. The bypass valve will permit a free operation of B. Operational test.
hydro booster when. C. Pressure test.
A. Pressure completely leak out. D. Time test.
B. Emergency system enters.
C. Supply fall below a pre-determined value. 175. The test applied to ensure that all connections
D. Pilot select manually. have been correctly ma ter servicing completed is:
A. Functional test.
167. While manufacturing the flexible hoses the end B. Operational test.
fiting are attached by using. C. Pressure test.
A. Hydraulic press. D. Time test.
B. Swaging machine.
C. Welding. 176. In powered flying control unit, the servo valve is
D. Brazing. in neutral position control surface is locked in:
A. Neutral position Hydraulically.
168. "U" seals are used in a jack piston in. B. Neutral position Mechanically.
A. Pair. C. Selected position Hydraulically.
B. Single. D. Selected position Mechanically.
C. With washer.
D. Not used. 177. Yaw damper actuator is electrically controlled
and hydraulically opera nd, when not in use, it act as:
169. The most common contamination to hydraulic oil A. Actuating rod.
is due to the entry of. B. Connecting rod.
A. Dust. C. Operating rod.
B. Water. D. Solid rod.
C. Chemicals.
189
178. In which of the technologies, the undesirable B. Filled with water.
dynamics are filter out he desired response is obtained C. filled with methanol.
by: D. None of the above.
A. Electrical signalling.
B. Manoeuver demand. 187. In pneumatic system, a slow build up in pressure
C. Control configured vehicles. may indicate that the and water trap is :
D. Fly-by-wire system. A. Unserviceable.
B. Serviceable.
179. To ensure correct re-alignment on re-connection C. Corroded.
before the drive shaft owered flying control system D. Full.
disconnected is to:
A. Place the component on the ground in sequance. 188. The material which imparts fatigue resistance
B. Mark parallel of the joints. and used for landing gear construction.
C. Mark the angular of the joints. A. Aluminium.
D. Check the maintenance mannual. B. Duraluminium.
C. Molybednum.
180. Chemical stability is then liquids ability to resist: D. Steel.
A. Oxidation and deterioration.
B. Internal flow of fluid. 189. Thermoplastic (Acrylics) are used for
C. External flow of fluid. manufacturing of.
D. Smooth flow of fluid. A. Cockpit canopies and side windows.
B. Bearing and cable insulator.
181. The drain plug of the oil and water trap should be C. Upholskey material.
finally. D. None of the above.
A. Blanked.
B. Removed. 190. The aerodynamic balancing of control surfaces
C. Tightened. are mostly given to.
D. Tightened and wire locked. A. aeileron & rudder.
B. Rudder and elevators.
182. While dismantling brake unit the shoe nearest to C. elevator & aeilerons.
the inflation connection should be. D. Elevators, rudder and aeilerons.
A. Removed first.
B. Removed last. 191. Airframe structure which are highly stressed but,
C. Not to be removed. if damaged will not failure of a/c or loss of life is
D. Remove when it falls. classified as:
A. special structure.
183. A pneumatic system the lever and the relay valve B. secondary structure.
is connected by means of. C. tertiary structure.
A. Bowden cable. D. primary structure.
B. Teleflex cable.
C. Cable. 192. The causes of tip stall on a highly swept back
D. Pull/pull rod. wing is usually due to:
A. spanwise area being less.
184. A leak in the pipe line or joint can be traced by B. downward deflection of airflow a tips.
means of. C. spanwise drifting of boundary layer.
A. Soapy water. D. washout.
B. By feel.
C. By visual inspection.