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Multiple Choice Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. ____ 1. What does the operon model attempt to explain? a. the coordinated control of gene expression in bacteria b. bacterial resistance to antibiotics c. how genes move between homologous regions of DNA d. the mechanism of viral attachment to a host cell e. horizontal transmission of plant viruses 2. The tryptophan operon is a repressible operon that is a. permanently turned on. b. turned on only when tryptophan is present in the growth medium. c. turned off only when glucose is present in the growth medium. d. turned on only when glucose is present in the growth medium. e. turned off whenever tryptophan is added to the growth medium. 3. This protein is produced by a regulatory gene: a. operon b. inducer c. promoter d. repressor e. corepressor 4. When this is taken up by the cell, it binds to the repressor so that the repressor no longer binds to the
operator: a. operon b. inducer c. promoter d. repressor e. corepressor 5. A mutation that inactivates the regulatory gene of a repressible operon in an E. coli cell would result in a. continuous transcription of the structural gene controlled by that regulator. b. complete inhibition of transcription of the structural gene controlled by that regulator. c. irreversible binding of the repressor to the operator. d. inactivation of RNA polymerase by alteration of its active site. e. continuous translation of the mRNA because of alteration of its structure. 6. The lactose operon is likely to be transcribed when a. there is more glucose in the cell than lactose. b. the cyclic AMP levels are low. c. there is glucose but no lactose in the cell. d. the cyclic AMP and lactose levels are both high within the cell. e. the cAMP level is high and the lactose level is low. 7. How does active CAP induce expression of the genes of the lactose operon?
c. Genomic imprinting. Beta galactosidase will be produced. to a position at some several thousand base pairs away from its normal position. Three structural genes will no longer be expressed. e. RNA polymerase will no longer transcribe permease. c. ____ 12. e. karyotypes. e. The cell will continue to metabolize but more slowly. The operon will no longer be inducible. c. translocation. ____ 8. d. 32% d.a. If she moves the repressor gene (lac I). DNA methylation. e. ____ 11. d. 13% e. The repressor protein will no longer be produced. b. If she moves the promoter for the lac operon to the region between the beta galactosidase gene and ____ 9. ____ 10. It stimulates the binding of RNA polymerase to the promoter. It degrades the substrate allolactose. The repressor will no longer bind to the operator. The repressor will no longer bind to the operator. epigenetic phenomena. genetic mutation. d. It stimulates splicing of the encoded genes. b. transcription is generally associated with . the permease gene. The repressor will no longer bind to the inducer. c. The inducer will no longer bind to the repressor. e. which of the following would likely occur when the cell is exposed to lactose? a. d. The repressor will no longer be made. 46% c. b. c. along with its promoter. The lac operon will be expressed continuously. ____ 13. d. The operon will never be transcribed. The structural genes will be transcribed continuously. which of the following would be likely? a. Suppose an experimenter becomes proficient with a technique that allows her to move DNA sequences within a prokaryotic genome. 83% b. If she moves the operator to the far end of the operon (past the transacetylase gene). 1. b. It terminates production of repressor molecules.5% In eukaryotes. Use the following scenario to answer the following questions. Approximately what proportion of the DNA in the human genome codes for proteins or functional RNA? a. b. which will you expect to occur? a. The lac operon will function normally. It binds steroid hormones and controls translation. and histone acetylation are all examples of a. chromosomal rearrangements.
Prokaryotes use ribosomes of different structure and size. a regulatory protein that requires sugar residues to be attached e. d. b. Eukaryotic exons may be spliced in alternative patterns. b. highly methylated DNA only. chemical modifications of histones and DNA methylation. changes in chromatin structure that make certain regions of the genome more accessible. e. ____ 20. enhancer b. promoter c. Eukaryotic coded polypeptides often require cleaving of signal sequences before localization. an mRNA that is leaving the nucleus to be translated d. d. morphogenesis. euchromatin only. Eukaryotic mRNAs get 5' caps and 3' tails. ____ 16. epigenetic. cell division. c. a cell surface protein that requires transport from the ER c. an mRNA produced by an egg cell that will be retained until after fertilization The process of cellular differentiation is a direct result of a. determined. Differentiation of cells is not easily reversible because it involves a. d. ____ 14. Which of the following is most likely to have a small protein called ubiquitin attached to it? a. This binds to a site in the DNA far from the promoter to stimulate transcription: a. differential gene expression. ____ 15. ____ 17. c. differentiated. e. b. a cyclin that usually acts in G1. very tightly packed DNA only.a. changes in the nucleotide sequence of genes within the genome. apoptosis. d. frameshift mutations and inversions. c. Prokaryotic genes are expressed as mRNA. terminator Gene expression might be altered at the level of post-transcriptional processing in eukaryotes rather than prokaryotes because of which of the following? a. d. genomically equivalent. b. c. activator d. e. which is more stable in the cell. heterochromatin only. excision of some coding sequences. A cell that remains entirely flexible in its developmental possibilities is said to be a. b. Mutations in these genes lead to transformations in the identity of entire body parts: . repressor e. ____ 19. both euchromatin and histone acetylation. c. ____ 18. now that the cell is in G2 b. e. e. totipotent. differences in cellular genomes.
segment polarity genes. ____ 21. tumor-suppressor genes are no longer able to repair damaged DNA. ____ 25. c. d. c. often encode proteins that stimulate the cell cycle. DNA replication to stop . Their products are all synthesized prior to fertilization. They are produced by somatic mutations induced by carcinogenic substances. b. cell division Forms of the ras protein found in tumors usually cause which of the following? a. It is an activator for other genes. Tumor suppressor genes a. They are underexpressed in cancer cells Which of the following is characteristic of the product of the p53 gene? a. They have no counterparts in animals other than Drosophila. cell-cell adhesion e. It allows cells to pass on mutations due to DNA damage. Their normal function is to suppress tumor growth e. the more mutations we accumulate. the Ras protein is more likely to be hyperactive after age sixty. They can code for proteins associated with cell growth. and homeotic genes all have in common? a. c. ____ 22. b. c. ____ 27. d. The cancer-causing forms of the Ras protein are involved in which of the following processes? a. proteasomes become more active with age.a. b. can encode proteins that promote DNA repair or cell-cell adhesion. d. are cancer-causing genes introduced into cells by viruses. It slows down the rate of DNA replication by interfering with the binding of DNA polymerase. They apparently can be activated and inactivated at any time of the fly's life. It speeds up the cell cycle. It causes cell death via apoptosis. are frequently overexpressed in cancerous cells. They are introduced to a cell initially by retroviruses. e. relaying a signal from a growth factor receptor b. d. pair-rule genes. b. c. normal cell division inhibitors cease to function. e. Their products act as transcription factors. DNA repair d. e. ____ 24. e. all of the above The incidence of cancer increases dramatically in older humans because a. b. as we age. DNA replication c. b. the longer we live. d. ____ 26. e. They act independently of other positional information. ____ 23. c. Which of the following statements describes proto-oncogenes? a. homeotic genes segmentation genes egg-polarity genes morphogens inducers What do gap genes. d.
b. double versus single strand genomes d. ____ 30. ____ 29. b. c. chromosome translocations e. e. glycoproteins of the envelope Viral envelopes can best be analyzed with which of the following techniques? a. size and shape of the capsid e. transmission electron microscopy b. size of the viral capsomeres b. Proto-oncogenes are mutant versions of normal genes. whether its nucleic acid is DNA or RNA. Which of the following molecules make up the viral envelope? a. b. c. the proteins on its surface and that of the host. Proto-oncogenes first arose from viral infections. the enzymes carried by the virus. e. use of plaque assays for quantitative measurement of viral titer e. lung only e. Proto-oncogenes are genetic "junk. Which of the following best explains the presence of these potential time bombs in eukaryotic cells? a. ____ 32. glycoproteins . Viral genomes vary greatly in size and may include from four genes to several hundred genes. the proteins in the host's cytoplasm. Cells produce proto-oncogenes as they age. mutations caused by X-rays c. lung and breast c. all of the above Proto-oncogenes can change into oncogenes that cause cancer. ____ 33. staining and visualization with the light microscope d. small intestinal and esophageal d. lung and prostate Which of the following can contribute to the development of cancer? a. transposition d. ____ 34. d. Which of the following viral features is most apt to correlate with the size of the genome? a. e. DNA replication to be hyperactive cell-to-cell adhesion to be nonfunctional cell division to cease growth factor signaling to be hyperactive A genetic test to detect predisposition to cancer would likely examine the APC gene for involvement in which type(s) of cancer? a. c. ____ 28. the enzymes produced by the virus before it infects the cell. colorectal only b. antibodies against specific proteins not found in the host membranes c. ____ 31. immunofluorescent tagging of capsid proteins The host range of a virus is determined by a. RNA versus DNA genome c. random spontaneous mutations b. Proto-oncogenes normally help regulate cell division. d." d.
Which of the following accounts for someone who has had a herpesvirus-mediated cold sore or genital sore getting flare-ups for the rest of life? a. A linear piece of viral DNA of 8 kb can be cut with either of two restriction enzymes (X and Y). However. re-infection by a closely related herpesvirus of a different strain b. herpesvirus c. and 0. a zoonosis is a disease that is transmitted from other vertebrates to humans. without requiring viral mutation. 2. smallpox d. Of the possible arrangements of the sites given below.5. ____ 37. These are subjected to electrophoresis and produce the following bands: b. which one is most likely? a. copies of the herpesvirus genome permanently maintained in host nuclei e. d. rabies b. b. re-infection by the same herpesvirus strain c. Which of the following is the best example of a zoonosis? a.0. Most human-infecting viruses are maintained in the human population only. c. copies of the herpesvirus genome permanently maintained in host cell cytoplasm .proteosugars carbopeptides peptidocarbs carboproteins ____ 35.5. hepatitis virus ____ 36. HIV e. d. 1. e. c.0. Cutting the same 8 kb piece with both enzymes together results in bands at 4. at least sporadically. e. co-infection with an unrelated virus that causes the same symptoms d.
Why do RNA viruses appear to have higher rates of mutation? a. RNA viruses are more sensitive to mutagens. Viruses can infect both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells. switching from the lytic to the lysogenic. ____ 42. ____ 39. the viral genes immediately turn the host cell into a lambdaproducing factory. b. The plants would not show any disease symptoms. T-even phages e. d. A large number of phages is released at a time. d. ____ 43. Viral genomes are usually more similar to the genome of the host cell than to the genomes of viruses that infect other cell types. Most molecular biologists think that viruses originated from fragments of cellular nucleic acid. transposons c. Which of the following would be expected to occur? a. Most of the prophage genes are activated by the product of a particular prophage gene. The cell contents are left in a covered test tube overnight. Which of the following is characteristic of the lytic cycle? a. The plants would become infected. e.____ 38. c. ____ 41. The plants would develop the typical symptoms of TMV infection. Replication of their genomes does not involve the proofreading steps of DNA replication. e. The viral genome replicates without destroying the host. Which of the following terms describes bacteriophage DNA that has become integrated into the host ____ 40. Viruses contain either DNA or RNA. Many bacterial cells containing viral DNA are produced. c. Viral DNA is incorporated into the host genome. plasmids Which of the following statements describes the lysogenic cycle of lambda (λ ) phage? a. The phage genome replicates along with the host genome. Which of the following observations supports this theory? a. e. intemperate bacteriophages b. The plants would develop some but not all of the symptoms of the TMV infection. c. d. prophages d. e. cell chromosome? a. b. RNA nucleotides are more unstable than DNA nucleotides. Certain environmental triggers can cause the phage to exit the host genome. b. A researcher lyses a cell that contains nucleic acid molecules and capsomeres of tobacco mosaic virus (TMV). e. but the sap from these plants would be unable . c. The next day this mixture is sprayed on tobacco plants. c. The virus-host relationship usually lasts for generations. b. The plants would develop symptoms typically produced by viroids. RNA viruses replicate faster. The phage DNA is incorporated by crossing over into any nonspecific site on the host cell's DNA. d. b. Viruses can reproduce only inside host cells. Viruses are enclosed in protein capsids rather than plasma membranes. After infection. RNA viruses can incorporate a variety of nonstandard bases. d. and the host cell then lyses.
retroviruses b. It uses viral RNA as a template for making complementary RNA strands. It is able to spread to a large number of new hosts quickly because the new hosts have no immunological memory of them. d. misfolded versions of normal brain protein b. It translates viral RNA into proteins. ____ 47. tiny molecules of RNA that infect plants c. viral DNA that has had to attach itself to the host genome d. whether the viral mRNA can be transcribed e. It uses viral RNA as a template for DNA synthesis. b. The newly emerging virus will die out rather quickly or will mutate to be far less lethal. how much toxin the virus produces Which of the following is the most probable fate of a newly emerging virus that causes high mortality in its host? a. What are prions? a. The new virus replicates quickly and undergoes rapid adaptation to a series of divergent hosts.____ 44. Figure 20. bacteriophages e. ____ 45. What is the name given to viruses that are single-stranded RNA that acts as a template for DNA synthesis? a. e. lytic phages What is the function of reverse transcriptase in retroviruses? a. viruses that invade bacteria e. d. ____ 49. A change in environmental conditions such as weather patterns quickly forces the new virus to invade new areas. c. b. proviruses c. whether the infected cell produces viral protein d. It hydrolyzes the host cell's DNA. ability of the infected cell to undergo normal cell division b.1 . ____ 46. e. viroids d. It converts host cell RNA into viral DNA. Sporadic outbreaks will be followed almost immediately by a widespread pandemic. to infect other plants. a mobile segment of DNA Which of the following is the best predictor of how much damage a virus causes? a. ____ 48. c. ability of the infected cell to carry on translation c.
V. examining the cells with an electron microscope b. reinforcing the bacterial DNA structure with covalent phosphodiester bonds What is the most logical sequence of steps for splicing foreign DNA into a plasmid and inserting the plasmid into a bacterium? I. forming "sticky ends" of bacterial DNA to prevent the enzyme from attaching e. Someone gives you a preparation of genomic DNA that has been cut with restriction enzyme X. ligase b. V. III. III. adding histones to protect the double-stranded DNA d. IV. Transform bacteria with recombinant DNA molecule. using DNA ligase to seal the bacterial DNA into a closed circle c. I c. e. using radioactive tracers to locate the plasmids . V b. but not for X. a restriction enzyme d. ____ 51. V. to repair breaks in sugar-phosphate backbones How does a bacterial cell protect its own DNA from restriction enzymes? a.1? a. adding methyl groups to adenines and cytosines b. Which enzyme was used to produce the molecule in Figure 20. I. insert the fragments cut with X directly into the plasmid without cutting the plasmid. II. cut the DNA again with restriction enzyme Y and insert these fragments into the plasmid cut with the same enzyme. II. V. to join nucleotides during transcription d. IV. II. III Bacteria containing recombinant plasmids are often identified by which process? a. cut the plasmid twice with restriction enzyme Y and ligate the two fragments onto the ends of the DNA fragments cut with restriction enzyme X. to cleave nucleic acids at specific sites e. Hydrogen-bond the plasmid DNA to nonplasmid DNA fragments. V. cut the plasmid with restriction enzyme X and insert the fragments cut with Y into the plasmid. d. DNA polymerase Assume that you are trying to insert a gene into a plasmid. c. to add new nucleotides to the growing strand of DNA b. IV. III. I. Cut the plasmid DNA using restriction enzymes. You have a plasmid with a single site for Y. What is the enzymatic function of restriction enzymes? a. The gene you wish to insert has sites on both ends for cutting by restriction enzyme Y. Use ligase to seal plasmid DNA to nonplasmid DNA. IV. ____ 52. IV. transcriptase c. IV.____ 50. ____ 54. I d. II e. ____ 53. I. III. Your strategy should be to a. cut the plasmid with enzyme X and then insert the gene into the plasmid. II. b. a. III. Extract plasmid DNA from bacterial cells. RNA polymerase e. to join nucleotides during replication c. II.
c. d. would grow a. b. but not in the broth containing tetracycline. nutrient broth plus ampicillin and tetracycline. the nutrient broth and the ampicillin broth d. reverse transcriptase to reconstruct the gene from its mRNA. d. Bacteria that contain the plasmid. the nutrient broth and the tetracycline broth c. b. removing the DNA of all cells in a culture to see which cells have plasmids e. but not the eukaryotic gene. 2. b. A gene that contains introns can be made shorter (but remain functional) for genetic engineering purposes by using a. ____ 57. and the tetracycline broth. Bacteria that do not take up any plasmids would grow on which media? a. exposed to DNA ligase. the ampicillin broth and the nutrient broth. The mixture is heated to a high temperature to denature the double stranded . producing antibodies specific for each bacterium containing a recombinant plasmid Use the following information to answer the questions below. in the nutrient broth plus ampicillin. c. the nutrient broth. e. c. exposing the bacteria to an antibiotic that kills cells lacking the resistant plasmid d. d. ____ 56. in all four types of broth. This mixture is incubated for several hours. The plasmid has one recognition site for EcoRI located in the tetracycline resistance gene. all four broths ____ 58. and nutrient broth without antibiotics. the nutrient broth and the tetracycline only. DNA ligase to put together fragments of the DNA that codes for a particular polypeptide. e. the nutrient broth only b. and then added to bacteria growing in nutrient broth. in the broth containing tetracycline. nutrient broth plus tetracycline. e. Which of the following best describes the complete sequence of steps occurring during every cycle of PCR? 1. The bacteria are allowed to grow overnight and are streaked on a plate using a technique that produces isolated colonies that are clones of the original. a restriction enzyme to cut the gene into shorter pieces. The gene is added to a mixture containing EcoRI and a bacterial plasmid that carries two genes conferring resistance to ampicillin and tetracycline. ____ 55. in all four types of broth.c. The primers hybridize to the target DNA. but not in the broth containing ampicillin. the ampicillin broth. ____ 59. RNA polymerase to transcribe the gene. in the nutrient broth only. Samples of these colonies are then grown in four different media: nutrient broth plus ampicillin. Bacteria that containing a plasmid into which the eukaryotic gene has integrated would grow in a. the tetracycline broth and the ampicillin broth e. A eukaryotic gene has "sticky ends" produced by the restriction endonuclease EcoRI. in the nutrient broth without antibiotics only. DNA polymerase to reconstruct the gene from its polypeptide product. only in the broth containing both antibiotics.
Fresh DNA polymerase is added. gene cloning c. neutralizing the negative charges within the DNA fragment ____ 65. ____ 62. 3. 3. DNA polymerase extends the primers to make a copy of the target DNA. 4. e. such as that of a mouse. 2. 4. gene cloning c. DNA ligase d. gel electrophoresis e. restriction enzymes b. gel electrophoresis e. ____ 63.3. altering the nucleotide sequence of the DNA fragment b. infecting the mouse cell with a Ti plasmid e. you would find more probable success with which of the following methods? a. gel electrophoresis e. increasing the length of the DNA fragment d. 2 2. d. 4 3. gene cloning c. DNA ligase d. 1. reverse transcriptase Which of the following seals the sticky ends of restriction fragments to make recombinant DNA? a. transcription and translation Which of the following produces multiple identical copies of a gene for basic research or for largescale production of a gene product? a. target DNA. ____ 61. 4 1. restriction enzymes b. 1. 2. restriction enzymes b. a. the shotgun approach b. reverse transcriptase Which of the following cuts DNA molecules at specific locations? a. ____ 64. methylating the cytosine bases within the DNA fragment c. 4 To introduce a particular piece of DNA into an animal cell. introducing a plasmid into the cell d. ____ 60. 2 3. reverse transcriptase Which of the following modifications is least likely to alter the rate at which a DNA fragment moves through a gel during electrophoresis? a. decreasing the length of the DNA fragment e. b. DNA ligase d. . electroporation followed by recombination c. 4. c.
b. ____ 68. e. to raise the rate of production of a needed digestive enzyme b. dramatically enhance the efficiency of restriction enzymes. allow physical maps of the genome to be assembled in a very short time. to raise the concentration of a desired protein ____ 70. c. Which of the following procedures would produce RFLPs? a. incubating DNA fragments with "sticky ends" with ligase ____ 67. ____ 66. can be used to introduce entire genomes into bacterial cells. and C. RNAi methodology uses double-stranded pieces of RNA to trigger a breakdown or blocking of mRNA. incubating RNA with DNA nucleotides and reverse transcriptase e. incubating DNA nucleotides with DNA polymerase c. Which describes the transfer of polypeptide sequences to a membrane to analyze gene expression? a. Dolly the sheep was cloned. to decrease the production from a harmful gain-of-function mutated gene c. DNA microarrays have made a huge impact on genomic studies because they a.2 has restriction sites I and II.2 The segment of DNA shown in Figure 20.Figure 20. RT-PCR ____ 69. Eastern blotting e. d. to form a knockout organism that will not pass the deleted sequence to its progeny e. incubating DNA with restriction enzymes d. Southern blotting b. b. allow the expression of many or even all of the genes in the genome to be compared at once. Which of the gels produced by electrophoresis shown below best represents the separation and identity of these fragments? a. to destroy an unwanted allele in a homozygous individual d. Northern blotting c. Which of the following processes was used? . d. Western blotting d. In 1997. B. e. can be used to eliminate the function of any gene in the genome. incubating a mixture of single-stranded DNA from two closely related species b. which create restriction fragments A. For which of the following might it more possibly be useful? a. c.
e. b. Figure 20. fusion of an adult cell's nucleus with an enucleated sheep egg. A and B b. Which of the following statements is consistent with the results? a. e. A is the child of C and D. B is the child of A and C. A is the child of B and C. c. D is the child of A and C. A and C c. b. D is the child of B and C. replication and dedifferentiation of adult stem cells from sheep bone marrow c. C is the child of A and B. isolation of stem cells from a lamb embryo and production of a zygote equivalent Use Figure 20.3 ____ 71. d. d. ____ 72. one of which was incubated in a surrogate ewe d. Which of the following are probably siblings? a. c. ____ 73. B is the child of A and C.3 to answer the following questions. A is the child of C and D.a. use of mitochondrial DNA from adult female cells of another ewe b. D is the child of A and B. B and D . D is the child of B and C. C and D e. followed by incubation in a surrogate e. separation of an early stage sheep blastula into separate cells. A and D d. Which of the following statements is most likely true? a. The DNA profiles below represent four different individuals.
creation of products that will remove poisons from the human body . cannot be used to correct genetic disorders.____ 74. production of tissue plasminogen activator d. production of human growth hormone c. e. Gene therapy a. c. production of human insulin b. involves replacement of a defective allele in sex cells. b. is a widely accepted procedure. had apparent success in treating disorders involving bone marrow cells. Which of the following is not currently one of the uses? a. d. has proven to be beneficial to HIV patients. genetic modification of plants to produce vaccines e. Genetic engineering is being used by the pharmaceutical industry. ____ 75.
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