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Windows Server 2008 Qus.

1 What allows businesses to define, manage, access, and secure network resources including files, printers, people, and applications? A. network service B. directory service C. Directory Infrastructure D. NT directory Ans: B Qus 2 : A __________ is defined as one or more IP subnets that are connected by fast links. A. domain B. network C. site D. forest Ans: C Qus 3 : What contains the rules and definitions that are used for creating and modifying object classes and attributes within Active Directory? A. Configuration NC B. Schema NC C. Domain NC D. DC NC Ans : B Qus 4 : What shared folder exists on all domain controllers and is used to store Group Policy objects, login scripts, and other files that are replicated domain-wide? A. SYSVOL B. AD C. C$ D. VOLMGR Ans: A Qus 5 : What new Windows Server 2008 feature is a special installation option that creates a minimal environment for running only specific services and roles? A. Minimal Installation Option B. Server Core C. Server Standard D. Minimal Server Environment (MSE) Ans: B

Qus 6 : What is the minimum amount of storage space required for the Active Directory installation files? A. 100 MB B. 150 MB C. 200 MB D. 250 MB Ans: C Qus 7 : When modifying the schema, Microsoft recommends adding administrators to what group only for the duration of the task? A. Schema Admins B. Enterprise Admins C. Global Admins D. Forest Admins Ans: A Qus 8 : When you install the forest root domain controller in an Active Directory forest, the Active Directory Installation Wizard creates a single site named __________. A. Default-Site B. Site-Default C. Default-Site-Name D. Default-First-Site-Name Ans: D Qus 9 : What command-line tool used for monitoring Active Directory provides functionality that includes performing connectivity and replication tests? A. dcdiag B. netdiag C. dcpromo D. netstat Ans: A Qus 10 : When replicating information between sites, Active Directory will designate a __________ server in each site to act as a gatekeeper in managing site-to-site replication. A. primary B. masthead C. bridgehead D. global catalog Ans: C Qus 11 : What defines a chain of site links by which domain controllers from different sites can communicate? A. site link bridge

B. site chain C. site chain bridge D. site link chain Ans: A Qus 12 : How many FSMO roles does Active Directory support? A. 2 B. 5 C. 10 D. 12 Ans: B Qus 13 : How many RID Masters can a domain have? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 5 Ans: A Qus 14 : What procedure is used only when you have experienced a catastrophic failure of a domain controller that holds a FSMO role and you need to recover that role? A. role transfer B. role migration C. role seizure D. role separation Ans: C Qus 15 : What special identity group contains all authenticated users and domain guests? A. Power Users B. Everyone C. Batch D. Authenticated Users Ans: B Qus 16 : __________ name refers to each user’s login name. A. Common B. Distinguished C. SAM account D. AD Name Ans: C Qus 17 : You cannot manually modify the group membership of or view the membership lists of __________ groups. A. distribution

B. domain local C. special identity D. universal Ans: C Qus 18 : What can be used to add, delete, or modify objects in Active Directory, in addition to modifying the schema if necessary? A. DCPROMO B. LDIFDE C. CSVDE D. NSLOOKUP Ans: B Qus 19 : Which of the following is a benefit of implementing a public key infrastructure (PKI)? A. Users no longer need to remember passwords. B. All information is stored on the smart card, making it difficult for anyone except the intended user to use or access it. C. Smart cards can be used from remote locations, such as a home office, to provide authentication services. D. All of the above Ans: D Qus 20 : What method of authentication requires a smart card and a PIN to provide more secure access to company resources? A. two-factor authentication B. dual authentication C. complex authentication D. strong authentication Ans: A Qus 21 : What dedicated workstation allows an administrator or another authorized user to preconfigure certificates and smart cards on behalf of a user or workstation? A. PKI server B. smart card enrollment station C. smart card verification station D. Certification Authority (CA) Ans: B Qus 22 : Passwords for Windows Server 2008, Windows Vista, Windows Server 2003, and Microsoft Windows XP clients can be __________ characters in length. A. 97

B. 68 C. 127 D. 142 Ans: C Qus 23 : What is a method of controlling settings across your network? A. Group Policy B. Active Directory C. FSMO roles D. MMC Ans: A Qus 24 : What contains all of the Group Policy settings that you wish to implement to user and computer objects within a site, domain, or OU? A. Group Policies B. Group Policy Settings C. Group Policy Objects D. Group Policy Links Ans: C Qus 25 : What allows the Group Policy processing order to circle back and reapply the computer policies after all user policies and logon scripts run? A. Reverse Processing B. Switchback Processing C. Loopback Processing D. Repeat Processing Ans: C Qus 26 : Local GPO settings are stored in what folder on a computer? A. %systemroot%/System32/GroupPolicy B. %systemroot%/System32/Drivers/GroupPolicy C. %systemroot%/System32/Drivers/Etc/GroupPolicy D. %systemroot%/System/GroupPolicy Ans: A Qus 27 : What policies can be applied to one or more users or groups of users, allowing you to specify a more or less stringent password policy for this subset than the password policy defined for the entire domain? A. Fine-Grained Password Policies B. Fine-Tuned Password Policies C. Restricted Password Policies

D. Custom Password Policies Ans: A Qus 28 : Where can you configure the Group Policy refresh interval? A. Computer Configuration\\System\\Group Policy B. User Configuration\\Administrative Templates\\System\\Group Policy C. Computer Configuration\\Administrative Templates\\System\\Group Policy D. Computer Configuration\\Administrative Templates\\Group Policy Ans: C Qus 29 : Microsoft Windows Server 2008 uses the Windows Installer with Group Policy to install and manage software that is packaged into what type of file? A. .exe B. .msi C. .mse D. .inf Ans: B Qus 30 : Modifications to .msi files require transform files, which have the __________ extension. A. .msit B. .mse C. .msx D. .mst Ans: D Qus 31 : When configuring Software Restriction policies, which option prevents any application from running that requires administrative rights, but allows programs to run that only require resources that are accessible by normal users? A. Unrestricted B. Restricted C. Basic User D. Disallowed Ans: C Qus 32 : What tab displays groups and users with permission to link, perform modeling analyses, or read Group Policy Results information? A. Linked Group Policy Objects B. Group Policy Inheritance C. Delegation D. Management Ans: C

Qus 33 : What setting will prevent policy settings from applying to all child objects at the current level and all subordinate levels? A. Block Policy Propagation B. Block Policy Inheritance C. Remove Policy Inheritance D. Remove Policy Propagation Ans: B Qus 34 : How many WMI filters can be configured per GPO? A. one B. two C. three D. five Ans: A Qus 35 : To perform a System State restore in Windows Server 2008, you will boot the DC into what mode? A. Active Directory Restore B. Active Directory Maintenance C. Directory Services Maintenance D. Directory Services Restore Ans: D Qus 36 : In Windows Server 2008, you must back up __________ rather than only backing up the System State data. A. critical volumes B. system volumes C. MBR records D. MX records Ans: A Qus 37 : To back up Active Directory, you must install what feature from the Server Manager console? A. Active Directory Backup Client B. Windows Backup Utility C. Windows Server Backup D. BackupExec Ans: C

Qus 38 : What is the process by which one DNS server sends a name resolution request to another DNS server? A. resolution B. translation C. referral D. propagation Ans: C Qus 39 : What DNS server contains no zones and hosts no domains? A. secondary domain controller B. global catalog server C. secondary DNS server D. caching-only server Ans: D Qus 40 : What Windows Server 2008 service can you use to protect sensitive data on a Windows network? A. AD FS B. AD FTP C. AD FSMO D. AD RMS Ans: D Qus 41 : What enables network administrators and owners to configure access rights for users during the users’ entire lifecycle within an organization? A. Identity Lifecycle Management B. General Lifecycle Management C. Microsoft Lifecycle Management D. Lifecycle of Software Management Ans: A Qus 42 : What are small physical devices on which a digital certificate is installed that are usually the size of a credit card or keychain fob? A. RSA SecureID B. digital certificates C. smart cards D. biometric device Ans: C

Qus 43 : What service responds to requests from clients concerning the revocation status of a particular certificate, returning a digitally signed response indicating the certificate’s current status? A. Web Enrollment B. Web Responder C. enterprise CA D. Online Responder Ans: D Qus 44 : A Windows Server 2008 computer that has been configured with the Active Directory DS role is referred to as a __________. A. domain controller B. domain manager C. global catalog D. DNS server Ans: A Qus 45 : What protocol has become an industry standard that enables data exchange between directory services and applications? A. NTDS B. LDAP C. NDIS D. AD Ans: B Qus 46 : What locator records within DNS allow clients to locate an Active Directory domain controller or global catalog? A. A records B. MX records C. SRV records D. SOA records Ans: C Qus 47: What is the process of replicating DNS information from one DNS server to another? A. replication B. DNS push C. zone transfer D. DNS update Ans: C

Qus 48 : What type of trust relationship allows you to create two-way transitive trusts between separate forests? A. shortcut B. cross-forest C. external D. real Ans: B Qus 49 : What type of zone is necessary for computer hostname-to-IP address mappings, which are used for name resolution by a variety of services? A. primary lookup B. secondary lookup C. forward lookup D. reverse lookup Ans: C Qus 50 : What DLL must be registered to use the Schema Management snap-in? A. schmmgnt32.dll B. schemamanagement.dll C. schmmgmt.dll D. adschm.dll Ans: C Qus 51 : Replication within Active Directory will occur when which of the following conditions is met? A. An object is added or removed from Active Directory. B. The value of an attribute has changed. C. The name of an object has changed. D. All of the above Ans: D Qus 52 : What command-line tool can be used to manually create a replication topology if site link bridging is disabled if the network is not fully routed? A. Dcdiag B. Repdiag C. Repadmin D. Netstat Ans: C

Qus 53 : Certain operations, such as a password change or an account lockout, will be transmitted by using __________ replication, which means that the change will be placed at the beginning of the line and applied before any other changes that are waiting to be replicated. A. urgent B. immediate C. fast D. pushed Ans: A Qus 54 : Which FSMO role has the authority to manage the creation and deletion of domains, domain trees, and application data partitions in the forest? A. Relative Identifier Master B. Infrastructure Master C. Domain Naming Master D. Schema Master Ans: C Qus 55 : What types of memberships are stored in the global catalog? A. domain local B. universal C. global D. local workstation Ans: B Qus 56 : What console must be used to move the Domain Naming Master FSMO role? A. Active Directory Users and Computers B. Active Directory Forests and Domains C. Active Directory Schema D. Active Directory Domains and Trusts Ans: D Qus 57 : What command-line utility is used to import or export Active Directory information from a comma-separated value (.csv) file? A. NETDIAG B. NSLOOKUP C. CSVDE D. DCPROMO Ans: C

Qus 58 : What special identity group is used by the system to allow permission to protected system files for services to function properly? A. Network Service B. Restricted C. Service D. Self Ans: C Qus 59 : When using CSVDE, what is the first line of the text file that uses proper attribute names? A. header row B. header record C. name row D. name record Ans: B Qus 60 : Which of the following is not a characteristic of a strong password? A. at least eight characters in length B. at least one character from each of the previous character types C. is not your birth date D. differs significantly from other previously used passwords Ans: C Qus 61 : What is a system of digital certificates, certification authorities (CAs), and other registration authorities (RAs) that verify and authenticate the validity of each party involved in an electronic transaction through the use of public key cryptography? A. CKI B. PKI C. DKI D. PCI Ans: B Qus 62 : What types of certificates are generated by the enterprise CA and used to generate a smart card logon certificate for users in the organization? A. enrollment agent B. enrollment credential C. enrollment verification D. enrollment authority Ans: A

Qus 63 : What process applies Group Policy settings to various containers within Active Directory? A. attaching B. linking C. connecting D. nesting Ans: B Qus 64 : The __________ Policy is linked to the domain, and its settings affect all users and computers in the domain. A. Default Domain Controller B. Default Domain C. Default D. Domain Ans: B Qus 65 : What policies work with folder redirection to provide the ability to cache files locally? A. registry-based B. software installation C. folder redirection D. offline file storage Ans: D Qus 66 : What is the path to the default GPT structure for a domain? A. %systemroot%\\sysvol\\sysvol\\domain.com\\Policies B. %systemroot%\\sysvol\\domain.com\\Policies C. %systemroot%\\domain.com\\Policies D. %systemroot%\\Policies Ans: A Qus 67 : What section of GPO Local Policies allows administrators to log successful and failed security events such as logon events, account access, and object access? A. Local Policy B. Security Policy C. Audit Policy D. None of the above Ans: C

Qus 68 : What provides administrators with the ability to redirect the contents of certain folders to a network location or to another location on the user’s local computer? A. Folder Sharing B. Folder Redirection C. Desktop Redirection D. Profile Redirection Ans: B Qus 69 : Settings available in the __________ area of Group Policy allow greater administrative control in establishing rules and governing the issuance, maintenance, and guidelines within a public key infrastructure (PKI). A. PKI Policies B. Secure Key Policies C. Public Key Policies D. Private Key Policies Ans: C Qus 70 : __________ files are used to apply service packs and hotfixes to installed software. A. Update B. Patch C. Upgrade D. Enhanced Ans: B Qus 71 : Which of the following is a software restriction rule that can be used to govern which programs can or cannot run on your network? A. hash rule B. certificate rule C. Path rule D. all of the above Ans: D Qus 72 : What policies are designed to identify software and control its execution? A. Software Restriction B. Software Execution Prevention C. Malicious Software Detection D. Malicious Software Removal Policies Ans: A Qus 73 :

What is the sum of the policies applied to a user or computer after all filters, security group permissions, and inheritance settings, such as Block Policy Inheritance and Enforce, have finished processing? A. Effective Permissions B. Resultant Set of Policy C. Effective Set of Policy D. Applied Policy Ans: B Qus 74 : Rather than simulating policy effects like the Group Policy Modeling Wizard, what obtains RSoP information from the client computer to show the actual effects that policies have on the client computer and user environment? A. Group Policy Simulator B. Group Policy Planning C. Group Policy Modeling D. Group Policy Results Ans: D Qus 75 : What refines the application of a GPO to include or exclude certain users, groups, or computers based on the ACL that is applied to the GPO? A. Block Policy Inheritance B. Policy Delegation C. Group Based Filtering D. Security Group Filtering Ans: D Qus 76 : What manual process defragments the Active Directory database in addition to reducing its size? A. online defragmentation B. local defragmentation C. remote defragmentation D. offline defragmentation Ans: D Qus 77 : The Reliability and Performance Monitor uses categories called performance __________ to organize the items that can be monitored. A. objects B. counters C. items D. classes Ans: A

Qus 78 : What is the command-line component of the Windows Server Backup snap-in? A. wbadm B. wbadmin C. backadm D. ntbackup Ans: B Qus 79 : Server Backup does not support the use of which type of backup media? A. CD drives B. DVD drives C. hard drives D. magnetic tape Ans: D Qus 80 : What is the name resolution mechanism that computers use for all Internet communications and for private networks that use the Active Directory domain services included with Microsoft Windows Server 2008, Windows Server 2003, and Windows 2000 Server? A. DNS B. DHCP C. NetBIOS D. ADFS Ans: A Qus 81 : What type of zone contains the master copy of the zone database in which administrators make all changes to the zone’s resource records? A. secondary zone B. stub zone C. primary zone D. forwarder zone Ans: C Qus 82 : What are the highest-level DNS servers in the entire namespace? A. top-level name server B. root name server C. authoritative name server D. upstream name server Ans: B Qus 83 :

In terms of AD FS, what organizations contain the user accounts that are accessing the resources controlled by resource organizations, similar to a trusted domain in a traditional Windows trust relationship? A. user organizations B. account organizations C. computer organizations D. resource organizations Ans: B Qus 84 : What role in ILM is to provide services for managing public key certificates that can be used by any security system that relies on a PKI for authentication or authorization? A. Active Directory Users and Computers B. Group Policy C. Active Directory Certificate Services D. Active Directory Domains and Trusts Ans: C Qus 85 : What enables a user to manually create a certificate request file using the Certificates MMC snap-in? A. PKI B. Certificate Request Wizard C. Autoenrollment Wizard D. Enrollment ACL Ans: B Qus 86 : The process of keeping each domain controller in synch with changes that have been made elsewhere on the network is called __________. A. copying B. osmosis C. transferring D. replication Ans: D Qus 87 : __________ is the highest available forest functional level. A. Windows 2000 B. Windows Server 2003 C. Windows Server 2008 D. Windows 2009 Ans: C Qus 88 :

A __________ name references an object in the Active Directory directory structure by using its entire hierarchical path, starting with the object itself and including all parent objects up to the root of the domain. A. common B. DNS C. schema D. distinguished Ans: D Qus 89: To raise the functional level of a forest, you must be logged on as a member of the __________ group. A. Domain Admins B. Enterprise Admins C. Global Admins D. Universal Admins Ans: B Qus 90: __________ roles work together to enable the multimaster functionality of Active Directory. A. FSMO B. FMMO C. FMSO D. FOMO Ans: A Qus 91: What utility is used to manually create trust relationships? A. Active Directory Trust Console B. Active Directory Trust Wizard C. Active Directory Domains and Trusts MMC snap-in D. Active Directory Domains and Trusts control panel Ans: C Qus 92: What role provides developers with the ability to store data for directory-enabled applications without incurring the overhead of extending the Active Directory schema to support their applications? A. AD LSD B. AD SLD C. AD DLS D. AD LDS Ans: D Qus 93:

The primary goal of intersite replication is to minimize the usage of __________. A. Active Directory B. administrative labor C. bandwidth D. financial support Ans: C Qus 94 : What process is responsible for selecting a bridgehead server and mapping the topology to be used for replication between sites? A. Intersite Bridgehead Replicator B. Intersite Replication Generator C. Intersite Bridgehead Generator D. Intersite Topology Generator Ans: D Qus 95 : Which of these design aspects should you consider when planning the appropriate location of FSMO role holders? A. number of domains that are or will be part of the forest B. physical structure of the network C. number of domain controllers that will be available in each domain D. all of the above Ans: D Qus 96 : What allows a user to be able to log on using a cached copy of his or her logon credentials that have been stored on his or her local workstation? A. cached login B. cached credentials C. stored login D. stored credentials Ans: B Qus 97 : Which FSMO role is responsible for reference updates from its domain objects to other domains? A. Relative Identifier Master B. Infrastructure Master C. Domain Naming Master D. Schema Master Ans: B Qus 98 : What port is used by Active Directory to direct search requests to a global catalog server? A. 3629

B. 3389 C. 3268 D. 3232 Ans: C Qus 99 : What is the process of confirming a user’s identity by using a known value, such as a password, pin number on a smart card, or user’s fingerprint or handprint in the Qus of biometric authentication? A. authorization B. authentication C. administration D. allocation Ans: B Qus 100 : What signifies an object’s relative location within an Active Directory OU structure? A. common name B. distinguished name C. SAM account name D. AD name Ans: B Qus 101 : The two built-in user accounts that are created on a Windows Server 2008 computer are the Administrator account and the __________ account. A. Network B. Interactive C. Power User D. Guest Ans: D Qus 102: __________ groups are a collection of user accounts that are local to one specific workstation or member server. A. Distribution B. Local C. Built-in D. Security Ans: B Qus 103: What special identity group is used as a reduced-privilege account to allow applications to run on a server without requiring administrative access? A. Network B. Dialup

C. Network Service D. Restricted Ans: C Qus 104 : What is a credit card–sized or token-style device, such as a USB device, that is used with a PIN to enable logon to the enterprise? A. RSA SecureID B. password token C. smart chip D. smart card Ans: D Qus 105 : What command-line tool can be used with a standard user account to reduce the risks associated with the Administrator account? A. runas B. su C. runadmin D. launchas Ans: A Qus 106 : Password-cracking can be accomplished by intelligent guessing on the part of the hacker or through the use of an automated __________ attack. A. brute force B. dictionary C. cracking D. work Ans: B Qus 107 : What policies can be used to ensure that users always have the latest versions of applications? A. registry-based B. software installation C. folder redirection D. offline file storage Ans: B Qus 108 : What Microsoft Management Console (MMC) snap-in is used to create and modify Group Policies and their settings? A. Group Policy Management Editor B. Group Policy Control Console C. Group Policy GPO

D. Group Policy Management Console Ans: D Qus 109: Which of the following is not a type of GPO? A. local GPO B. advanced GPO C. domain GPO D. starter GPO Ans: B Qus 110: What term refers to tracking events that take place on the local computer? A. tracking B. tracing C. spying D. auditing Ans: D Qus 111 : What category is used to configure the startup and security settings for services running on a computer? A. Workstation Services B. System Services C. Account Services D. Domain Services Ans: B Qus 112 : What command-line tool can be used to manually refresh group policy? A. gprefresh.exe B. adrefresh.exe C. adupdate.exe D. gpupdate.exe Ans: D Qus 113: Before deploying software using Group Policy, what must you create? A. deployment share B. deployment point C. distribution share D. mount point Ans: C Qus 114:

What identifies software by specifying the directory path where the application is stored in the file system? A. hash rule B. certificate rule C. path rule D. network zone rules Ans: C Qus 115 : What type of file can be written to allow non–Windows Installer–compliant applications to be deployed? A. .msi B. .exe C. .zap D. .ini Ans: C Qus 116 : What Software Restriction Policy properties allow you to determine whether the policies apply to all files or whether library files, such as Dynamic Link Library (DLL), are excluded? A. enforcement B. designated file types C. security settings D. trusted publishers Ans: A Qus 117 : Group Policy __________ is used to simulate the effect of a policy on the user environment. A. Simulator B. Planning C. Modeling D. Results Ans: C Qus 118 : When a GPO is selected in Group Policy Management, which tab allows administrators to view the locations to which the policy is linked? A. Scope B. Details C. Settings D. Delegation Ans: A Qus 119 :

What would the syntax of the GPResult command be if you want to obtain RSoP information on computer and user policies that will affect a user named jsmith? A. gpresult /user jsmith B. gpresult jsmith C. gpresult /user jsmith /v D. gpresult /user jsmith /v /x Ans: C Qus 120 : What is responsible for managing changes to the Active Directory database? A. Extensible Storage Engine B. Extended Storage Engine C. Extensible Change Engine D. Stringent Change Manager Ans: A Qus 121 : What are the specific processes or events that you want to track in the Reliability and Performance Monitor? A. performance objects B. performance counters C. performance items D. performance classes Ans: B Qus 122 : What new command-line and task-based scripting technology is included with Windows Server 2008? A. Windows Enhanced Shell B. Windows Advanced Shell C. Windows Ultimate Shell D. Windows PowerShell Ans: D Qus 123: Which backup type will update each file’s backup history and clear the Application log files? A. Copy backup B. VSS full backup C. Incremental backup D. Differential backup Ans: B Qus 124 : What resource record identifies which name server is the authoritative source of information for data within this domain?

A. Start of Authority (SOA) B. Name Server (NS) C. Host (A) D. Mail Exchange (MX) Ans: A Qus 125 : What resource record is the functional opposite of the A record, providing an IP addressto-name mapping for the system identified in the Name field using the in-addr.arpa domain name? A. Service Record (SRV) B. Name Server (NS) C. Pointer (PTR) D. Mail Exchange (MX) Ans: C Qus 126: What consists of a number of elements that allow two parties to communicate securely, without any previous communication, through the use of a mathematical algorithm called public key cryptography? A. security certificates B. public key infrastructure C. WEP codes D. passwords Ans: B Qus 127 : What type of CA is not integrated with Active Directory and relies on administrator intervention to respond to certificate requests? A. standalone CA B. static CA C. enterprise CA D. dynamic CA Ans: A Qus 128 : Interoperability with prior versions of Microsoft Windows is available in Windows Server 2008 through the use of __________. A. domain controllers B. functional levels C. global catalogs D. DNS servers Ans: B Qus 129 :

Active Directory uses __________ relationships to allow access between multiple domains and/or forests, either within a single forest or across multiple enterprise networks. A. trust B. domain C. forest D. global Ans: A Qus 130 : Which functional level only allows Windows Server 2003 and Windows 2008 domain controllers? A. Windows 2000 Native B. Windows Server 2003 C. Windows Server 2008 D. Windows 2003 Mixed Ans: B Qus 131 : If the domains within a forest are separated by slow WAN links and the tree-walking process takes an exceedingly long time to allow user authentication across domains, you can configure a __________ trust. A. two-way transitive B. cross-forest C. shortcut D. parent-child Ans: C Qus 132: What processes can be used by Windows Server 2008 DNS to clean up the DNS database after DNS records become stale or out of date? A. searching and destroying B. aging and scavenging C. seeking and removing D. finding and deleting Ans: B Qus 133: Read-Only Domain Controllers provide added security in the way passwords are stored through what feature? A. Password Integration Policy B. Password Caching Policy C. Password Storage Policy D. Password Replication Policy Ans: D

Qus 134: When configuring a site link object, which attribute allows the administrator to define the path that replication will take? A. cost B. schedule C. frequency D. none of the above Ans: A Qus 135: How often does intersite replication occur by default? A. 5 minutes B. 10 minutes C. 15 minutes D. 1 hour Ans: C Qus 136: For both intrasite and intersite replication, what protocol does Active Directory use for all replication traffic? A. RPC over SMTP B. RPC over TCP C. RPC over IP D. RPC over ARP Ans: C Qus 137: Active Directory creates a __________ with the idea that all writeable domain controllers in a domain should communicate Active Directory information to each other, in addition to communicating forest-wide information with other domains. A. replication topology B. domain topology C. replication strategy D. domain strategy Ans: A Qus 138 : What holds a subset of forest-wide Active Directory objects and acts as a central repository by holding a complete copy of all objects from the host server’s local domain with a partial copy of all objects from other domains within the same forest? A. domain controller B. global catalog C. DNS server D. DHCP server Ans: B

Qus 139: What process is used when you move a FSMO role gracefully from one domain controller to another? A. role seizure B. role transfer C. role migration D. role separation Ans: B Qus 140 : What Windows Server 2008 feature stores universal group memberships on a local domain controller that can be used for logon to the domain, eliminating the need for frequent access to a global catalog server? A. global group membership caching B. domain group membership caching C. local group membership caching D. universal group membership caching Ans: D Qus 141 : The RID Master FSMO role distributes RIDs to domain controllers in what increments? A. 300 B. 500 C. 700 D. 1200 Ans: B Qus 142: What is the process of confirming that an authenticated user has the correct permissions to access one or more network resources? A. authorization B. authentication C. administration D. allocation Ans: A Qus 143 : What describes the process of configuring one or more groups as members of another group? A. group nesting B. group hierarchy C. group leveling D. group forests Ans: A Qus 144 :

What provides a robust scripting method that supports a multitude of administrative tasks including creating Active Directory objects, mapping drives, connecting to printers, modifying environment variables, and modifying registry keys? A. Windows Script Host B. JavaScript C. Windows Powershell D. CMD.EXE Ans: A Qus 145 : Password-__________ is an attempt to discover a user’s password. A. recovery B. tracing C. sniffing D. cracking Ans: D Qus 146 : What component issues and manages certificates for individuals, computers, and organizations? A. enrollment agent B. PKI server C. certificate server D. Certification Authority Ans: D Qus 147 : Which OU is created by default when Active Directory is installed? A. Domain Controllers B. Users C. Computers D. Member Servers Ans: A Qus 148 : To implement PKI, what must be installed on your Windows 2008 Server? A. Active Directory Users and Computers B. Microsoft AdminPak C. Active Directory Certificate Services D. Microsoft Advanced Security Pack Ans: C Qus 149 : What can be measured by tangible benefits, such as implementation costs and ongoing support? A. return on implementation

B. total cost of investment C. total cost of ownership D. return on investment Ans: D Qus 150 : Group policy is divided into two subcategories, or nodes, that are named Computer Configuration and __________. A. Network Configuration B. Security Configuration C. User Configuration D. Domain Configuration Ans: C Qus 151 : What means that each policy must be read and applied completely before the next policy can be invoked? A. asymmetric processing B. symmetric processing C. asynchronous processing D. synchronous processing Ans: D Qus 152 : What policy can specify software that you wish to run on computers? A. Local Policies B. Event Log Policies C. Software Restriction Policies D. Account Policies Ans: C Qus 153 : What is the default mechanism for authenticating domain users in Windows Server 2008, Windows Server 2003, and Microsoft Windows 2000? A. NTLM B. AES C. Kerberos D. Triple-DES Ans: C Qus 154 : By implementing the __________ feature when Folder Redirection is also configured, administrators can control the amount of information that is stored on the server. A. Disk Caching B. Disk Quotas C. File System Quotas

D. File System Caching Ans: B Qus 155 : What setting logs events related to successful user logons to a domain? A. Account Logon Events B. Logon Events C. System Events D. Policy Change Events Ans: A Qus 156 : What option allows users to install the applications that they consider useful to them? A. Assign B. Require C. Amend D. Publish Ans: D Qus 157 : What is a series of bytes with a fixed length that uniquely identifies a program or file? A. algorithm B. hash C. policy D. IP address Ans: B Qus 158 : What Software Restriction Policy properties allow an administrator to control how certificate rules are handled? A. enforcement B. designated file types C. security settings D. trusted publishers Ans: D Qus 159 : Group Policy Management started being natively installed with what version of Windows Server? A. NT 4 B. 2000 C. 2003 D. 2008 Ans: D Qus 160 :

What component of the Microsoft Windows operating system allows administrators to create queries based on hardware, software, operating systems, and services? A. VBScript B. Windows Scripting Language C. Windows Management Instrumentation D. .NET Framework Ans: C Qus 161 : What database of information includes hardware, Group Policy Software Installation settings, Internet Explorer Maintenance settings, scripts, Folder Redirection settings, and Security settings? A. CICOM B. CIMOM C. DOM D. DCOM Ans: B Qus 162 : Changes in Active Directory are referred to as __________. A. buffers B. transactions C. modifications D. alterations Ans: B Qus 163 : What logging setting should you use if Minimal logging is not producing sufficient error messages to allow you to troubleshoot a particular issue? A. Basic B. Extensive C. Verbose D. Internal Ans: A Qus 164 : What type of restore will restore Active Directory objects with their original Update Sequence Number (USN), which is the number that each domain controller assigns to every transaction that is either originated on the DC or replicated in from another domain controller? A. nonauthoritative restore B. authoritative restore C. full restore D. incremental restore Ans: A

Qus 165 : What resource record provides the name-to-IP-address mappings that DNS name servers use to perform name resolution? A. Start of Authority (SOA) B. Name Server (NS) C. Host (A) D. Mail Exchange (MX) Ans: C Qus 166 : What type of zone is a read-only copy of the data that is stored within a primary zone on another server? A. secondary zone B. stub zone C. primary zone D. forwarder zone Ans: A Qus 167 : What has direct access to at least one name server and can also process referrals to direct its queries to other name servers when necessary? A. name server B. DNS server C. host file D. resolver Ans: D Qus 168 : What role allows administrators to configure Single Sign-On (SSO) for Web-based applications across multiple organizations without requiring users to remember multiple usernames and passwords? A. AD FS B. AD FTP C. AD FSMO D. AD RMS Ans: A Qus 169 : What is a secret piece of information that is shared between two parties prior to being able to communicate securely? A. public key B. private key C. PKI D. shared secret key Ans: D

Qus 170 : What type of CA can use certificate templates as well as Group Policy Objects to allow autoenrollment of digital certificates, as well as store digital certificates within the Active Directory database for easy retrieval by users and devices? A. standalone CA B. static CA C. enterprise CA D. dynamic CA Ans: C Qus 171 : Which of the following are not able to be performed by those with the Auditor predefined security role? A. configure audit parameters B. read records and configuration information in the CA database C. define key recovery agents D. possesses the system audit user right Ans: C Qus 172 : The largest container object within Active Directory is a(n) __________. A. organization unit B. domain C. tree D. forest Ans: D Qus 173 : Which of the following is not a benefit of Active Directory Domain Services? A. single logon for access to global resources B. fault tolerance and redundancy C. personalized desktops D. simplified resource location Ans: C Qus 174 : When a child domain is created, it automatically receives a __________ trust with its parent domain. A. parent-child B. two-way transitive C. cross-forest D. simple Ans: B Qus 175 :

Each class or attribute that you add to the schema should have a valid __________. A. username B. password C. OID D. SID Ans: C Qus 176 : What type of trust allows you to configure trust relationships between Windows Server 2008 Active Directory and a UNIX MIT Kerberos realm? A. shortcut B. cross-forest C. external D. realm Ans: D Qus 177 : __________ partitions are used to separate forest-wide DNS information from domainwide DNS information to control the scope of replication of different types of DNS data. A. DNA record B. DNS type C. DNS data D. Application Directory Ans: D Qus 178 : Active Directory __________ provide the means by which administrators can control replication traffic. A. services B. sites C. domains D. forests Ans: B Qus 179 : What is an alternative solution for intersite replication when a direct or reliable IP connection is not available? A. IRC B. SMTP C. TCP/IP D. ICMP Ans: B Qus 180 :

The KCC is responsible for calculating intrasite replication partners. During this process, what is the maximum number of hops that the KCC will allow between domain controllers? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 Ans: C Qus 181: What is a partial copy of all objects from other domains within the same forest that is held on a global catalog server? A. partial attribute set B. partial domain set C. partial attribute listing D. partial domain listing Ans: A Qus 182 : What tool is used to seize a FSMO role? A. ntosutil B. ntdsutil C. dcpromo D. adutil Ans: B Qus 183 : Which of the following is not a function performed by a global catalog server? A. facilitating searches for objects in the forest B. maintaining universal group membership information C. maintaining a backup of all data stored on a domain controller D. maintaining a copy of all objects in the domain Ans: C Qus 184 : When a user logs on, what is created that identifies the user and all of the user’s group memberships? A. access card B. access token C. access key D. access session Ans: B Qus 185 : All default groups are __________ groups. A. distribution

B. domain local C. built-In D. security Ans: D Qus 186 : What can be defined as a password that follows guidelines that make it difficult for a potential hacker to determine the user’s password? A. complex password B. encrypted password C. strong password D. RSA SecureID Ans: C Qus 187 : What typically consists of at least four characters or digits that are entered while presenting a physical access token, such as an ATM card or smart card? A. password B. PIN C. smart card D. RSA SmartID Ans: B Qus 188 : A password should be __________ characters in length to be considered a strong password. A. 6 B. 10 C. 12 D. 8 Ans: D Qus 189 : Administrators find that Group Policy implementation helps them to achieve __________. A. enhanced security B. faster performance C. centralized management D. virus-free networks Ans: C Qus 190 : What folder located under the Computer Configuration node in the Group Policy Management Editor contains security settings and scripts that apply to all users who log on to Active Directory from that specific computer? A. Software Settings

B. Windows Settings C. Security Settings D. Administrative Templates Ans: B Qus 191 : What advanced technique allows you to apply GPO settings to only one or more users or groups within a container by selectively granting the Apply Group Policy permission to one or more users or security groups? A. linking B. nesting C. security group filtering D. Group Policy filtering Ans: C Qus 192 : What Computer Configuration node setting includes three subcategories: Audit Policy, User Rights Assignment, and Security Options? A. Account Policies B. Local Policies C. Event Log Policies D. System Services Policies Ans: B Qus 193 : What separate Group Policy category allows files to be available to users, even when the users are disconnected from the network? A. Offline Mode Files B. Network Disconnected Files C. Offline Files D. Unavailable Files Ans: C Qus 194 : Which of these is not an option when configuring Fine-Grained Password Policies? A. PasswordSettingsPrecedence B. PasswordCommonNameUsage C. PasswordHistoryLength D. LockoutThreshold Ans: B Qus 195 : If you set the refresh interval to zero, the system attempts to update the policy at what interval? A. every second B. every 7 seconds

C. every minute D. every 7 minutes Ans: B Qus 196: Which of the following is not a phase of the software life cycle? A. planning B. implementation C. evaluation D. removal Ans: C Qus 197 : What option is helpful when you are deploying required applications to pertinent users and computers? A. Assign B. Require C. Amend D. Publish Ans: A Qus 198 : When implementing multiple Software Restriction Policy rules, which rule is always applied last? A. hash rule B. certificate rule C. path rule D. network zone rules Ans: C Qus 199 : By default, the Software Restriction Policies area has what value in the Default Security Level setting? A. Unrestricted B. Restricted C. Basic User D. Disallowed Ans: A Qus 200 : What MMC snap-in provides a single access point to all aspects of Group Policy that were previously spread across other tools such as Active Directory Users and Computers, Active Directory Sites and Services, Resultant Set of Policy (RSoP), and the Group Policy Management Editor? A. Group Policy Editor B. Group Policy Management

C. GPEdit D. GPUpdate Ans: B Qus 201 : What command-line tool allows you to create and display an RSoP query from the command line? A. GPResult B. GPUpdate C. GPClone D. GPRSoP Ans: A Qus 202 : WMI filters cannot be evaluated on which operating system? A. Windows XP B. Windows 2000 C. Windows Server 2003 D. Windows Vista Ans: B Qus 203 : Which mode in the Resultant Set of Policy Wizard is useful for documenting and understanding how combined policies are affecting users and computers? A. Logging B. Planning C. Implementation D. Auditing Ans: A Qus 204 : Active Directory writes transactions to the __________ log file. A. system B. security C. transaction D. DNS Ans: C Qus 205 : What command-line tool can analyze the state of the domain controllers in the forest or enterprise and report any problems to assist in troubleshooting? A. dcdiag B. netdom C. repadmin D. nltest Ans: A

Qus 206 : Configuring Active Directory diagnostic event logging requires that you edit what registry key? A. HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE\\SYSTEM\\CurrentControlSet\\Services\\NTDS\\Diagnosti cs B. HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE\\SYSTEM\\CurrentControlSet\\Services\\NTDS\\ C. HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE\\SYSTEM\\CurrentControlSet\\Services\\ D. HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE\\SYSTEM\\CurrentControlSet\\Diagnostics\\ Ans: A Qus 207 : Which of the following is not a column of the host table? A. IP address B. distinguished name C. host name D. comments Ans: B Qus 208 : What can be configured to enable enterprise-wide NetBIOS name resolution for your clients and servers? A. DNS B. WINS C. PPPoE D. DHCP Ans: B Qus 209 : What DNS server receives queries from other DNS servers that are explicitly configured to send them? A. forwarder B. resolver C. secondary DNS server D. caching-only server Ans: A Qus 210 : What will forward queries selectively based on the domain specified in the name resolution request? A. conditional forwarder B. Boolean forwarder C. systematic forwarder D. alias-based forwarder Ans: A

Qus 211 : What is an entity that issues and manages digital certificates for use in a PKI, such as a Windows Server 2008 server running the AD CS server role? A. PKI B. Certificate Authority C. ILM D. access point Ans: B Qus 212 : What is at the top level of a CA hierarchy? A. top CA B. subordinate CA C. master CA D. root CA Ans: D Qus 213 : Users with what predefined security role are tasked with issuing and managing certificates, including approving certificate enrollment and revocation requests? A. CA Administrator B. Certificate Manager C. Backup Operator D. Auditors Ans: B Qus 214 : What ACL specifically allows users or computers to be automatically issued certificates based on a template? A. Read B. Write C. Autoenroll D. Enroll Ans: C Qus 215 : The __________ Domain Controller contains a copy of the ntds.dit file that cannot be modified and does not replicate its changes to other domain controllers within Active Directory. A. Secondary B. Primary C. Read-Only D. Mandatory Ans: C

Qus 216 : What master database contains definitions of all objects in the Active Directory? A. schema B. global catalog C. DNS D. domain controller Ans: A Qus 217 : What type of trust is new to Windows Server 2008 and is only available when the forest functionality is set to Windows Server 2008? A. parent-child trust B. two-way transitive trust C. cross-forest trust D. simple trust Ans: C Qus 218 : What command can you use to run the Active Directory Installation Wizard? A. adpromo B. dcpromo C. domainpromo D. adcreate Ans: B Qus 219 : What SRV record information serves as a mechanism to set up load balancing between multiple servers that are advertising the same SRV records? A. priority B. time-to-live C. weight D. port Ans: A Qus 220 : What feature makes it possible to configure a user as the local administrator of a specific RODC without making the user a Domain Admins with far-reaching authority over all domain controllers in your entire domain and full access to your Active Directory domain data? A. Role Delegation B. Admin Role Separation C. New Administrative Security Groups D. Domain Functional Levels Ans: B Qus 221 :

What command-line tool is used to create, delete, verify, and reset trust relationships from the Windows Server 2008 command line? A. adtrust B. netdom C. csvde D. nslookup Ans: B Qus 222 : Domain controllers located in different sites will participate in __________ replication. A. intersite B. extrasite C. extersite D. intrasite Ans: A Qus 223 : What describes the amount of time that it takes for all domain controllers in the environment to contain the most up-to-date information? A. replication B. convergence C. completion D. propagation Ans: B Qus 224 : How often does replication occur in intersite replication? A. 15 minutes B. 30 minutes C. 90 minutes D. 180 minutes Ans: D Qus 225 : The ISTG automatically assigns one server in each site as the bridgehead server unless you override this by establishing a list of __________ bridgehead servers. A. manual B. preferred C. static D. designated Ans: B Qus 226 : As a rule of thumb, you should estimate __________ percent of the size of the ntds.dit file of every other domain in the forest when sizing hardware for a global catalog server. A. 15

B. 25 C. 50 D. 70 Ans: C Qus 227 : How many FSMO roles does Active Directory support? A. 2 B. 5 C. 10 D. 12 Ans: B Qus 228 : What is used to uniquely identify an object throughout the Active Directory domain? A. security identifier B. relative identifier C. intermediate identifier D. domain identifier Ans: A Qus 229 : Each object’s SID consists of two components: the domain portion and the __________. A. FSMO role B. global catalog C. subnet mask D. relative identifier Ans: D Qus 230 : Which of the following is not a type of user account that can be configured in Windows Server 2008? A. local accounts B. domain accounts C. network accounts D. built-in accounts Ans: C Qus 231 : __________ groups are nonsecurity-related groups created for the distribution of information to one or more persons. A. Security B. Domain C. Distribution D. Local Ans: C

Qus 232 : __________ groups are used to consolidate groups and accounts that either span multiple domains or the entire forest. A. Global B. Domain local C. Built-in D. Universal Ans: D Qus 233 : A __________ is an alphanumeric sequence of characters that you enter with a username to access a server, workstation, or shared resource. A. PIN B. password C. SecureID D. biometric Ans: B Qus 234 : What tool allows you to utilize a simple interface to delegate permissions for domains, OUs, or containers? A. Delegation Wizard B. Delegation of Control Wizard C. Delegation of Administration Wizard D. Administration Wizard Ans: B Qus 235 : Where is the certificate database located on a Certification Authority? A. C:\\Windows\\system\\CertLog B. C:\\Windows\\system32\\CertLog C. C:\\Windows\\CertLog D. C:\\Windows\\system32\\CertLog32 Ans: B Qus 236 : Which of the following is an administrative benefit of using Group Policy? A. Administrators have control over centralized configuration of user settings, application installation, and desktop configuration. B. Problems due to missing application files and other minor application errors often can be alleviated by the automation of application repairs. C. Centralized backup of user files eliminates the need and cost of trying to recover files from a damaged drive. D. All of the above Ans: D

Qus 237 : What directory object includes subcontainers that hold GPO policy information? A. Group Policy template B. AD GPO template set C. Group Policy container D. AD GPO container set Ans: C Qus 238 : Configuring what setting on an individual GPO link forces a particular GPO’s settings to flow down through the Active Directory without being blocked by any child OUs? A. Enforce B. Block Policy Inheritance C. Loopback Processing D. Propagate Ans: A Qus 239 : What policy setting is set to audit successes in the Default Domain Controllers GPO? A. system events B. policy change events C. account management events D. logon events Ans: C Qus 240 : What policy setting allows an administrator to specify group membership lists? A. Limited Groups B. Restricted Groups C. Strict Groups D. Confined Groups Ans: B Qus 241 : What term means that the Group Policy setting continues to apply until it is reversed by using a policy that overwrites the setting? A. stamping B. confining C. tattooing D. defining Ans: C Qus 242 : How often are Computer Configuration group policies refreshed by default? A. every 30 minutes

B. every 60 minutes C. every 90 minutes D. every 120 minutes Ans: C Qus 243 : What process takes place from the time an application is evaluated for deployment in an organization until the time when it is deemed old or not suitable for use? A. software life cycle B. software longevity cycle C. software duration cycle D. software usage cycle Ans: A Qus 244 : What allows published applications to be organized within specific groupings for easy navigation? A. software classifications B. software methods C. software categories D. software assignments Ans: C Qus 245 : What type of rule can be applied to allow only Windows Installer packages to be installed if they come from a trusted area of the network? A. hash rule B. certificate rule C. path rule D. network zone rules Ans: D Qus 246 : Which of the following can be done from the Group Policy Management snap-in? A. import and copy GPO settings to and from the file system B. search for GPOs based on name, permissions, WMI filter, GUID, or policy extensions set in the GPOs C. search for individual settings within a GPO by keyword, and search for only those settings that have been configured D. all of the above Ans: D Qus 247 : __________ GPOs can act as templates when creating new GPOs for your organization. A. Template B. Base

C. Starter D. Set Ans: C Qus 248 : Which mode in the Resultant Set of Policy Wizard allows administrators to simulate the effect of policy settings prior to implementing them on a computer or user? A. Logging B. Planning C. Implementation D. Auditing Ans: B Qus 249 : WMI Filtering uses filters written in what language, which is similar to structured query language (SQL)? A. PostGRE SQL B. Microsoft SQL Server C. WMI Query Language D. WIM Query Language Ans: C Qus 250 : What tool in Windows Server 2008 allows you to collect real-time information on your local computer or from a specific computer to which you have permissions? A. Performance Log Viewer B. Performance Monitor C. Reliability and Performance Monitor D. Performance and Statistics Monitor Ans: C Qus 251 : What in the event log is indicated by a red circle with an X on it? A. warning B. problem C. driver issue D. stop error Ans: D Qus 252 : If you find yourself in a position where you need to restore an object or container within Active Directory that has been inadvertently deleted, you need to perform what type of restore? A. nonauthoritative restore B. authoritative restore C. full restore

D. incremental restore Ans: B Qus 253 : What represents the computer’s IP address in applications and other references? A. client name B. dns name C. host name D. server name Ans: C Qus 254 : In what type of query does the server that receives the name resolution request immediately respond to the requester with the best information it possesses? A. formative B. iterative C. recursive D. aligned Ans: B Qus 255 : What type of zone forwards or refers requests to the appropriate server that hosts a primary zone for the selected query? A. secondary zone B. stub zone C. primary zone D. forwarder zone Ans: B Qus 256 : What electronic piece of information proves the identity of the entity that has signed a particular document? A. electronic signature B. Certificate Authority C. PKI certification D. digital signature Ans: D Qus257 : What identifies certificates that have been revoked or terminated? A. Certificate Revocation List B. PKI Expiration List C. PKI Revocation List D. CA Expiration List Ans: A

Ques258 The roles in the Add Roles Wizard fall into what three basic categories? A= Directory Services B. Application Services C. Infrastructure Services D. Network Services Ans. = D Ques259 What is Microsoft’s program for automating and managing the activation of products obtained using volume licenses? A. Windows Validation B. Volume Activation C. Volume Activation 2.0 D. Windows Genuine Advantage Ans. = C Ques260: A __________ is a complete installation of an operating system that runs in a software environment emulating a physical computer. A. virtual machine B. virtual server C. terminal machine D. terminal server Ans. = B Ques261: The Windows Server 2008 paging file is __________ times the amount of memory installed in the computer by default. A. 1.5 B. 2 C. 2.5 D. 3 Ans. = A Ques262: Used with the Use parameter, what command-line utility can be used to map drive letters to folders in logon scripts? A. Net.exe B. Cmd.exe C. Ipconfig.exe D. Cscript.exe Ans. = A Ques263:

What Windows Server 2008 feature enables you to maintain previous versions of files on a server? A. Backup Tape B. Shadow Copies C. Shadow Files D. Offline Files Ans. = B Ques264: What feature of DFS distributes access requests, thus preventing any one server from shouldering the entire traffic load? A. data distribution B. data collection C. server clustering D. load balancing Ans. = D Ques265: DFS can distribute access requests by using what feature, thus preventing any one server from shouldering the entire traffic load? A. data distribution B. load balancing C. data collection D. server clustering Ans. = B Ques266: What administrative tool consolidates the controls for printing components throughout the enterprise into a single console? A. Print Services role B. Print Management snap-in C. Server Manager D. Server Core Ans. = B Ques267: How is a local print device attached to a computer? A. through the network B. through computer ports C. through another computer D. none of the above Ans. = B Ques268: What snap-in for MMC is an administrative tool that consolidates the controls for the printing components throughout the enterprise into a single console?

A. Print Management B. Print and Fax Wizard C. Device Manager D. None of the above Ans. = A Ques269: HTTP uses what well-known port number? A. 80 B. 25 C. 12 D. 110 Ans. = C Ques270: What determines how listeners will identify requests on a Website? A. Remote Desktop Connection B. Windows Process Activation Service C. binding D. icon-based interface Ans. = C Ques271: What allows a company to host the same documents on several different Websites without copying the documents to each content folder? A. Role Manager B. virtual directory C. Add Role Wizard D. Server Role Administration Ans. = B Ques272: Participants in what type of infrastructure are issued a public and a private key? A. public key B. private key C. secure key D. encrypted key Ans. = A Ques273: What is the weakest of the challenge/response authentication methods supported by IIS7? A. Basic Authentication B. Anonymous Authentication C. Digest Authentication

D. Windows Authentication Ans. = A Ques274: Permissions tend to run down through a hierarchy, which is called __________. A. permission translation B. permission propagation C. permission flow D. permission inheritance Ans. = D Ques275: What XML-based directory service enables businesses to publish listings about their activities and the services they offer? A. ASP B. ASP.NET C. UDDI D. SSI Ans. = C Ques276: What component is most likely to be a bottleneck on a terminal server? A. resource allocation B. memory C. processor D. scalability Ans. = B Ques277: Users must have the appropriate privileges to access a terminal server, and the easiest way to provide those privileges is by adding the user to what group? A. RDP Users B. Remote Desktop Users C. Terminal Users D. Domain Administrators Ans. = B Ques278: What type of licensing permits one user to connect to the terminal server no matter what device the user is running? A. Per Device B. Per User C. Per System

D. Per OU Ans. = B Ques279: What Windows Server 2008 feature eliminates the need for the printer driver on the terminal server? A. Easy Print B. Print Driver 6.1 C. Quick Print D. Print+ Ans. = A Ques280: What real-time, modular operating system is designed for devices with minimal amounts of memory? A. Windows CE B. Proprietary OS C. Windows XPe D. Linux Ans. = A Ques281: The TS Gateway role service enables Terminal Services to support Internet clients securely using the same tunneling concept as a VPN connection except, in this case, the computers encapsulate RDP traffic within what protocol? A. HTTP B. SSH C. RDP D. SSL Ans. = D Ques282: What process do clients and the server use to negotiate the most efficient protocol to use when you enable both the RTSP and HTTP protocols on a Windows Media Services server? A. multicast B. protocol negotiation C. protocol rollover D. multicast rollover Ans. = C Ques283:

What type of server must you install to provide users with email capabilities in Windows SharePoint Server? A. POP B. SMTP C. HTTP D. PHP Ans. = B Ques284: What enables administrators to protect specific types of information from unauthorized consumption and distribution, even by users who have the appropriate credentials and permissions to access the information? A. Digital Rights Management B. Digital Media Management C. Digital Authenticity Management D. Digital File Management Ans. = A Ques285: The Windows Server 2008 version of Windows Media Services uses what protocol to stream multimedia content? A. Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP) B. Real Time Streaming Protocol (RTSP) C. File Transfer Protocol (FTP) D. Standard Media Protocol (SMP) Ans. = B Ques286: What does RAID stand for? A. Redundant Array of Interoperative Disks B. Repetitive Array of Independent Disks C. Redundant Array of Interpretive Disks D. Redundant Array of Independent Disks Ans. = D Ques287: When deploying a server using a WDS installation, the client downloads a boot image that loads __________. A. Windows PE B. Windows Software Update Services C. Windows Deployment Services D. Windows Image Formatting Ans. = A

Ques288: The process of granting a user access to a file server share by reading their permissions is called __________. A. authorization B. authentication C. ownership D. delegation Ans. = A Ques289: How many fax job queues can be on a single system? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 Ans. = A Ques290: Which service enables IIS to respond to a variety of incoming message types and not just HTTP? A. Terminal Services B. File Transfer Protocol (FTP) C. Windows Process Activation Service (WPAS) D. Directory Services .Ans. = C Ques291: Which service enables developers to modify the functionality of the Web server, using the ASP.Net extensibility model and the .NET application programming interfaces (APIs)? A. Role Manager B. Server Role Administration C. .NET Extensibility D. Add Role Wizard Ans. = C Ques292: What is the only authentication method integrated into IIS7 that IIS7 enables by default? A. Basic Authentication B. Anonymous Authentication C. Digest Authentication D. Windows Authentication

Ans. = B Ques293: Which listener enables IIS7 to receive client requests using ports other than port 80 and protocols other than HTTP? A. NET.PIPE B. NET.MSMQ C. NET.TCP D. All of the above Ans. = D Ques294: When installed, the SMTP server is integrated into __________. A. IIS B. Windows Server 2008 C. UDDI D. Microsoft SQL Server Ans. = A Ques295: What role configures a computer to function as a Terminal Services licensing Server, enabling it to allocate client access licenses (CALs) to clients? A. TS Session Broker B. TS Gateway C. Terminal Server D. TS Licensing Ans. = D Ques296: The Easy Print driver is based on what document format introduced in Windows Vista and Windows Server 2008? A. PXS B. XPS C. XP D. XML Ans. = B Ques297: What is used to specify which Internet users are allowed to use a terminal server? A. connection authorization policies B. resource authorization policies

C. Group Policy objects D. user authorization policies Ans. = A Ques:298 What specifies the terminal servers on the private network that users are permitted to access? A. Group Policy objects B. user authorization policies C. connection authorization policies D. resource authorization policies Ans. = D Ques299: Which component registers and locates iSCSI initiators and targets? A. iSCSI Initiator B. Storage Manager for SANs C. Internet Storage Name Server D. Storage Explorer Ans. = C Ques300: Which of the following defines the basic transport mechanism of a Fibre Channel network, including the frame format and three service classes: a connection-oriented class, a connectionless class with acknowledgments, and a connectionless class without acknowledgments? A. FC1 B. FC2 C. FC3 D. FC4 Ans. = B Ques301: Network File System (NFS) places the bulk of the file sharing process on the __________. A. storage device B. client C. server D. File Manager Ans. = B Ques302: Network File System (NFS) places the bulk of the file-sharing process on the __________.

A. server B. File Manager C. storage device D. client Ans. = D Ques303: What increases the production capability of a single printer by connecting it to multiple print devices? A. print spooler B. print priority C. printer pool D. print queue Ans. = C Ques304: The IIS7 built-in account IUSR is a member of what group? A. WWW_IUSRS B. IIS_WWWUSRS C. IIS_IUSRS D. IIS_GROUP Ans. = C Ques305: In what application pool mode does IIS7 use the new, generic request pipeline for all protocol listeners and application development environments? A. Classic B. Integrated C. Basic D. Enhanced Ans. = B Ques306: What is the executable program file for the RDC client? A. rdp.exe B. msrdp.exe C. Mstsc.exe D. msrdcc.exe Ans. = C Ques307. When you obtain a certificate from an external CA, either public or local, which of these tasks must you complete?

A. Set up SSH access to the TS Gateway server. B. Install the certificate on the TS Gateway server. C. Install multiple root certificates. D. None of the above Ans. = B Ques308: What role is included with Windows Server 2008 and enables you to perform unattended installations of Windows Server 2008 and other operating systems on remote computers? A. Windows Software Update Services B. Windows Deployment Services C. Windows Image Formatting D. Windows PE Ans. = B Ques309: What role service of the Print Services role installs the Print Management snap-in for MMC, which provides centralized printer management for an entire enterprise network? A. LPD Service B. Internet Printing C. Print Server D. Print Management Ans. = C Ques310: Newly installed disks in Windows Server 2008 always appear first as what type of disk? A. basic disk B. simple disk C. primary disk D. dynamic disk Ans. = A Ques311: What is the underlying disk drive structure that enables you to store information on your computer? A. disk structure B. file structure C. file system D. disk system Ans. = C Ques312: What command-line utility along with the Use parameter can be used to map drive letters to folders in logon scripts? A. Net.exe

B. Cmd.exe C. Ipconfig.exe D. Cscript.exe Ans. = A Ques313: Which of the following items simplifies the process of locating files and folders on network servers? A. Distributed File System B. Distributed Server Manager C. Remote File Services D. All of the above Ans. = A Ques314: What will the Window’s Server 2008 Deploying a File Server default allow you to manage on the server? A. disk drives B. share folders C. map drives D. all of the above Ans. = D Ques315: What is the new platform-independent document format included with Windows 2008 and Windows Vista that allows print job files to use a single format for their entire journey to the print device? A. Web Server (IIS) role B. LPD Services C. Print Management D. XML Paper Specification (XPS) Ans. = D Ques316: What tool do printing administrators on large enterprise networks use to keep track of print devices? A. Server Manager Console B. Internet Printing role C. printer pool D. Print Management console Ans. = D Ques317: What does PCL stand for? A. printer command location B. printer color level

C. printer case lever D. printer control language Ans. = D Ques318: Windows Server 2008 includes a Fax Server role that allows users to send faxes from __________. A. the Internet B. mobile phones C. routers D. their desktops Ans. = D Ques319: What application layer protocol enables a client to connect to a remote server, perform rudimentary file management tasks, and copy files in either direction between the two computers? A. File Transfer Protocol (FTP) B. Application server C. IIS Services D. Web server Ans. = A Ques320: Which feature enables you to use a Website to publish files located anywhere on the network? A. fault tolerance B. live hosting C. resource allocation D. virtual directories Ans. = D Ques321: What determines how listeners will identify requests on a Website? A. Remote Desktop Connection B. Windows Process Activation Service C. binding D. icon-based interface Ans. = C Ques322: What type of interface that is integrated into most browser applications is used most often by FTP clients? A. touch pad interface B. graphical interface C. Windows Deployment interface

D. Windows System Image interface Ans. = B Ques323: When IIS is installed, where is the root directory of the default Website placed? A. C:\\inetpub\\wwwroot B. C:\\wwwroot\\inetpub C. C:\\WINDOWS\\inetpub\\wwwroot D. C:\\wwwpub\\inetroot Ans. = A Ques324: What is the process of confirming a user’s identity, usually by requiring the user to supply some sort of token, such as a password or certificate? A. administration B. authentication C. association D. confirmation Ans. = B Ques325: A digital certificate is an electronic credential issued by a __________. A. certificate server B. certificate provider C. certification authority D. certification initiator Ans. = C Ques326: What was designed to be an alternative to CGI, enabling a Web server to execute applications without spawning a separate process for each incoming request? A. CGI B. ISAPI C. UDDI D. SSI Ans. = B Ques327: What licensing mode permits one client device, such as a computer, terminal, or handheld, to connect to the terminal server no matter who is using it? A. Per Device B. Per User C. Per System D. Per OU Ans. = A

Ques328: What is the modern equivalent of mainframe computing in which servers perform most of the processing and clients are relatively simple devices that provide the user interface? A. Role Services B. Terminal Services C. Domain Services D. Function Services Ans. = B Ques329: What are the advantages of Terminal Services? A. reduced client hardware requirements B. simplified application deployment C. easy configuration and updates D. all of the above Ans. = D Ques330: What type of files store Remote Desktop Client settings in a recallable and portable form? A. RDC files B. RDP files C. RDP packages D. RDC packages Ans. = B Ques331: The process of installing a TS Licensing server and preparing it for use consists of four basic steps. What is the first of these steps? A. Activate the TS Licensing server. B. Install the TS Licensing role service. C. Configure the licensing settings on the terminal servers. D. Install the TS CALs on the TS Licensing server. Ans. = B Ques332: What has the technology of choice been for remote network access in recent years? A. SSL B. HTTP C. VPN D. SSH Ans. = C Ques333:

What new Windows Server 2008 Terminal Services role service enables Internet users to access terminal servers on private networks despite intervening firewalls and network access translation (NAT) servers? A. Terminal Services Gateway B. TS Web Access C. TS RemoteApp D. RemoteApp Integration Ans. = A Ques334: What Microsoft technology allows you to package your content in a secure form and issue licenses that provide authorized users with limited access to the content? A. Windows Media Rights Manager B. Windows Server Update Services C. Digital Rights Management D. Windows SharePoint Services Ans. = A Ques335: What converts content into the Windows Media format and sends it to the Windows Media Services server for real-time distribution? A. Windows Media Services B. Windows Media Player C. Windows Media Center D. Windows Media Encoder Ans. = D Ques336: You can access the administration interface for Windows SharePoint Services by selecting what from the Administrative Tools program group? A. Active Directory Users and Computers B. Computer Management C. SharePoint 3.0 Central Administration D. Active Directory Sites and Services Ans. = C Ques337: Because any device on a SAN can communicate with any other device on the same SAN, high-speed data transfers can occur in which of the following ways? A. server to storage B. client to server C. client to client D. client to storage Ans. = A Ques338:

What capability of the File Services role consists of two role services that allow administrators to create a virtual directory tree consisting of folders stored on different servers and to maintain duplicate copies of that information? A. Windows Search Services B. Distributed File System C. File Server Resources Manager D. Single Instance Store Ans. = B Ques339: What is the combination of Allow permissions and Deny permissions called that a security principal receives for a given system element, whether explicitly assigned, inherited, or received through a group membership? A. effective permissions B. special permissions C. extended permissions D. NTFS permissions Ans. = A Ques340: Windows Server 2008 computers must run which protocol service to send email messages? A. Email Router Protocol (ERP) B. Default Email Protocol (DEP) C. Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) D. Simple Modem Target Protocol (SMTP) Ans. = C Ques341: To browse for print servers on the network, you must activate __________. A. devices B. the Print Management Tool C. the Network Discovery Setting D. Administrative Tools Ans. = C Ques342: What feature enables IIS7 to log additional diagnostic information and details on reasons for failures? A. directory services B. Failed Request Tracing C. UDDI services D. print services Ans. = B Ques343:

What is the only authentication method integrated into IIS7 that is enabled by default? A. Basic Authentication B. Anonymous Authentication C. Digest Authentication D. Windows Authentication Ans. = B Ques344: Which application pool type consists of multiple applications serviced by multiple worker processes? A. medium process B. pooled process C. isolated process D. Web garden Ans. = D Ques345: What role service balances the client load among multiple terminal servers and saves session state information so that clients can reconnect to the same session from which they disconnected? A. TS Gateway B. TS Session Broker C. TS Web Access D. TS Licensing Ans. = B Ques346: Which TS server licensing scope publishes license server information in the Active Directory database, enabling terminal servers to discover licensing servers running on any computer in the same forest? A. Tree B. Domain C. Forest D. Workgroup Ans. = C Ques347: What option specifies how the terminal server will locate a TS Licensing server? A. terminal server discovery mode B. licensing server discovery mode C. licensing server licensing mode D. Terminal Services licensing mode Ans. = B Ques348: What port number is used by the RDP protocol by default?

A. 3389 B. 443 C. 21 D. 80 Ans. = A Ques349: What technique encapsulates an entire client/server session within another protocol? A. networking B. propagating C. encapsulating D. tunneling Ans. = D Ques350: What is the final step involved in deploying a TS Gateway server? A. Create resource authorization policies. B. Install the TS Gateway role service. C. Configure the client to use the TS Gateway. D. Obtain and install a certificate for the TS Gateway server. Ans. = C Ques351: What Windows Media Player feature includes several techniques, such as Fast Start and Fast Cache that enable the player to begin displaying content more quickly, thus improving the user experience? A. Advanced Streaming B. Enhanced Streaming C. Fast Streaming D. Stream+ Ans. = C Ques352: Since 2007, which of the following options has become the more popular Fibre Channel solution? A. point-to-point (FC-P2P) B. arbitrated loop (FC-AL) C. arbitrated fabric (FC-AF) D. switched fabric (FC-SW) Ans. = D Ques353: Windows Server 2008 file server with 1 gigabyte of memory can support approximately how many remote file handles? A. 100,000 B. 10,000

C. 1,000 D. 100 Ans. = A Ques354: What lookup service maintains a list of UNIX accounts by using their UID and GID values as well as their equivalent Windows or Active Directory accounts? A. Name User Map B. User Name Mapping C. User Mapping Function D. None of the above Ans. = B Ques355: The anonymous user account in IIS7 is a built-in account called IUSR, which is a member of what group? A. WWW_IUSRS B. IIS_WWWUSRS C. IIS_IUSRS D. IIS_GROUP Ans. = C Ques356: Because each application pool occupies its own protected address space, a crashed application cannot affect any process running outside of that pool. This is known as __________. A. worker process isolation mode B. protected services mode C. Windows Process Activation Service D. ISAPI extensions Ans. = A Ques357: What experience option enables the RDC client to duplicate the graphics-rendering capabilities of Windows Vista, most notably the Aero glass effect? A. font smoothing B. desktop smoothing C. desktop composition D. Aero composition Ans. = C Ques358: Which of the following is NOT a Windows Process Activation Service feature that TS Web Access requires? A. Request Filtering B. Process Model

C. .NET Environment D. Configuration APIs Ans. = A Ques359: Cluster servers should use the same software environment, which consists of all of the following elements except __________. A. the operating system B. updates C. Active Directory D. disk size Ans. = D

Ques. 360 Of the several key components of subnetting that are listed below, which is the most accurate description? A. Systems within the same subnet can communicate indirectly with the external network. B. Systems within the same subnet will not share the same network address. C. Systems within a subnet need not be burdened with information about external network addressing. D. Systems within the same subnet that share the same network address do not require any information about external network addressing. Ans. C Ques. 361 The routing service included with Windows Server 2008 is better suited for __________. A. a smaller network B. a larger network C. a mid-size network D. large amounts of traffic Ans. A Ques. 362 IPv4 addresses are commonly represented by using what type of notation? A. subnetting B. CIDR C. classful addressing D. dotted-decimal Ans. D Ques. 363

Which feature is an integral part of IPv6, whereas it was an optional feature under IPv4? A. IP security B. subnetting C. DNS security D. name resolution Ans. A Ques. 364 Which type of volume consists of free space contained on a single physical disk? A. striped volume B. simple volume C. spanned volume D. mirrored volume Ans. B Ques. 365 A Server Core installation includes which of the following programs? A. Windows Explorer B. Outlook Express C. Windows Notepad D. Start menu Ans. C Ques. 366 You can configure network settings on a Windows Server 2008 computer by using a number of different tools with the exception of which of the following? A. Initial Configuration Tasks B. Server Manager consoles C. Windows Command Line D. File and Print Sharing Wizard Ans. D Ques. 367 Which method is not a possibility when activating A MAK key? A. telephone B. Internet C. E-Mail D. Volume Activation Management Tool (VAMT) Ans. C Ques. 368 The core function of DHCP is to __________. A. manage resources B. assign addresses C. host configuration D. manage protocols

Ans. B Ques. 369: All DHCP servers that receive the DHCPDISCOVER message and have a valid configuration for the client will broadcast __________. A. DHCPACK B. DHCPOFFER C.DHCPNACK D. DHCPINFORM Ans. B Ques. 370 Which of the following apply to all clients within a scope and are the most frequently used set of options? A. server options B. scope options C. class options D. client options Ans. B Ques. 371 Which file is used by the DHCP database as a temporary storage file during database index maintenance operations (this file sometimes resides in the %systemroot %\\System32\\Dhcp directory after a system failure)? A. temp.log B. Dhcp.mdb C. J50.log D. Temp.edb Ans. D Ques. 372 Which of the following is not a forward or reverse lookup zone type? A. primary B. secondary C. integrated D. stub Ans. C Ques. 373 Which of the following is a 32-bit integer representing the maximum time, in seconds, that a DNS server or client caches this resource record before it is discarded? A. Owner B. Class C. TTL D. Resource Record Data Ans. C

Ques. 374 A conditional forwarder in an Active Directory environment can be replicated to any of the following except all __________. A. DNS servers in the forest B. DNS servers in the domain C. domain controllers in the domain D. domain controllers in the forest Ans. D Ques. 375 You can use the DNS console to manually or automatically test DNS servers by submitting all of the following queries except __________. A. iterative B. simple C. recursive D. both B and C Ans. D Ques. 376 How can you view the IP routing table? A. Routing and Remote Access console B. command prompt C. both B & C D. none of the above Ans. C Ques. 377 Which of the following is the limited broadcast address that is general for all networks and routers? A. 0.0.0.0 B. 127.0.0.0 C. 224.0.0.0 D. 255.255.255.255 Ans. D Ques. 378 What type of connectivity creates a secure point-to-point connection across either a private network or a public network, such as the Internet? A. remote access B. dial-up networking C. virtual private network D. custom configuration Ans. C Ques. 379

What term refers to the device that is seeking access to the network, such as a laptop attempting to access a wireless access point? A. authenticator B. supplicant C. verifier D. Authentication Server Ans. B Ques. 380 How many active partitions can you have per hard drive? A 1 B 2 C 3 D 4 Ans. A Ques. 381 Regardless of the size of your network, your strategy for creating shared folders should consist of all the following information except what __________. A. folders you will share B. names you will assign to the shares C. permissions you will grant to users D. online file settings you will use for the shares Ans. D Ques. 382: For network users to be able to access a shared folder on an NTFS drive, you must grant them __________ permissions. A. share B. NTFS C. both A & B D. registry Ans. C Ques. 383 The Distributed File System (DFS) implemented in the Windows Server 2008 File Services role includes two technologies: DFS Namespaces and __________. A. DFS Remediation B. DFS Replication C. DNS Replication D. DFS Topology Ans. B Ques. 384 What computer (or standalone device) receives print jobs from clients and sends them to print devices that are either locally attached or connected to the network?

A. print device B. print server C. printer D. printer driver Ans. B Ques. 385 Which document management menu command causes the print server to stop sending jobs to the print device until you resume it by selecting the same menu item again? A. Document > Restart B. Document > Pause C. Printer > Use Printer Offline D. Printer > Pause Printing Ans. D Ques. 386 Which of the following is not an option with the Print Services Management Console? A. Installing a printer B. Access the print queues and Properties sheets for all of the network printers in the enterprise C. Deploy printers to client computers using Group Policy D Create custom views Ans. A Ques. 387 Just as with folder shares, what must clients have to access a shared printer? A. drivers B. security clearance C. administrative roles D. proper permissions Ans. D Ques. 388 Which of the following is the most frequently used view within the Reliability and Performance Monitor? A. Performance Logs and Alerts B. System Monitor C. Server Performance Advisor D. Performance Monitor Ans. D Ques. 389 Which of the following is not a built-in Data Collector Set within Windows Server 2008? A. LAN Diagnostics B. System Diagnostics C. System Monitor

D. System Performance Ans. C Ques. 390 When you first launch Network Monitor, what key do you press to begin capturing network traffic? A. F8 B. F9 C. F10 D. F11 Ans. C Ques. 391 Which of the following is not a category for the Windows operating system updates? A. Group Policy updates B. critical updates C. recommended downloads D. multilanguage features Ans. A Ques. 392 What rule allows you to restrict inbound and outbound connections based on certain sets of criteria, such as membership in a particular Active Directory domain? A. Tunnel B. Authentication exemption C. Isolation D. Server to server Ans. C Ques. 393 Which middle-of-the-road form of NTLM authentication was used to improve upon the security of LM Authentication? A. LMv2 Authentication B. NTLM Authentication C. NTLMv2 Authentication D. None of the above Ans. B Ques. 394 Which process is used to establish trust between communicating systems, after which only trusted systems can communicate with each other? A. shared cryptography B. cryptographic checksum C. mutual authentication D. filtered methodology Ans. C

Ques. 395 Which field does the IPSec driver use to match the correct SA with the correct packet? A. IPSec Driver field B. IKE Authentication field C. IP Filter field D. SPI field Ans. D Ques. 396 : Who maintains information about the health of the NAP client computer and transmits information between the NAP Enforcement Clients and the System Health Agents? A. Health Registration Authority B. System Health Agent C. NAP Agent D. System Health Validator Ans. C Ques. 397 : Which enforcement method allows authorized remote users to connect to resources on an internal corporate or private network from any Internet-connected device? A. Internet Protocol Security (IPSec) enforcement B. VPN enforcement C. 802.1X enforcement D. Terminal Services Gateway (TS Gateway) enforcement<i> Ans. D Ques. 398: What feature allows users or computers to manually request a certificate based a template? A. Enroll ACL B. Write ACL C. Read ACL D. Autoenroll ACL Ans. A Ques. 399: Which element of Active Directory Certificate Services utilizes the Online Certificate Status Protocol to act in response to client requests? A. NDES B. subordinate CA C. Certificate Revocation List D. Online Responder Ans. D Ques. 400:

Which Windows feature allows users to perform self-service restores of previous versions of files and folders in case of accidental deletion or unwanted modifications? A. Secret Copies of Shared Folders B. Shadow Copies of Secret Folders C. Shadow Copies of Shared Folders D. Shared Copies of Shadow Folders Ans. C

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