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**FUNDAMENTALS OF MODERN MANUFACTURING:
**

MATERIALS, PROCESSES, AND SYSTEMS

Second Edition

MIKELL P. GROOVER Professor of Industrial and Manufacturing Systems Engineering Lehigh University

John Wiley & Sons, Inc., New York

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PREFACE

This is the Solutions Manual for the textbook Fundamentals of Modern Manufacturing: Materials, Processes, and Systems (Second Edition). It contains the answers to the Review Questions and Multiple Choice Quizzes at the end of the Chapters 2 through 44, as well as the Problems at the end of Chapters 3, 4, 6, 10, 11, 13, 16, 18, 19, 20, 21, 22, 23, 24, 25, 26, 29, 30, 31, 33, 34, 35, 38, 40, 42, and 43. There are approximately 740 review questions, 500 quiz questions, and 500 problems (nearly all of them quantitative) in the text. I have personally answered all of the questions and solved all of the quizzes and problems and have personally recorded the solutions in this booklet. Many of the problems have been tested in class, thus giving me an opportunity to compare my own answers with those developed by the students. Despite my best efforts to avoid errors in this solutions manual, I am sure that errors are present. I would appreciate hearing from those of you who discover these errors, so that I can make the necessary corrections in subsequent editions of the Solutions Manual. Similarly, I would appreciate any suggestions from users of the text itself that might help to make any subsequent editions more accurate, more relevant, and easier to use. My address is: Dr. Mikell P. Groover Department of Industrial and Manufacturing Systems Engineering Lehigh University 200 West Packer Avenue Bethlehem, PA 18015 Office telephone number 610-758-4030. Fax machine number 610-758-4886. E-mail addresses: either Mikell.Groover@Lehigh.edu or mpg0@Lehigh.edu I hope you find the text and this Solutions Manual to be helpful teaching aids in your particular manufacturing course. Mikell P. Groover

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TABLE OF CONTENTS:

Chapter

1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. 21. 22. 23. 24. 25. 26. 27. 28. 29. 30. 31. 32. 33. 34. 35. 36. 37. 38. 39. 40. 41. 42. 43. 44.

Chapter Title*

Introduction (No questions or problems) The Nature of Materials Mechanical Properties of Materials (P) Physical Properties of Materials (P) Dimensions, Tolerances, and Surfaces Metals (P) Ceramics Polymers Composite Materials Fundamentals of Casting (P) Metal Casting Processes (P) Glassworking Shaping Processes for Plastics (P) Rubber Processing Technology Shaping Processes for Polymer Matrix Composites Powder Metallurgy (P) Processing of Ceramics and Cermets Fundamentals of Metal Forming (P) Bulk Deformation Processes (P) Sheet Metalworking (P) Theory of Metal Machining (P) Machining Operations and Machine Tools (P) Cutting Tool Technology (P) Economic and Product Design Considerations in Machining (P) Grinding and Other Abrasive Processes (P) Nontraditional Machining and Thermal Cutting Processes (P) Heat Treatment of Metals Cleaning and Surface Treatments Coating and Deposition Processes (P) Fundamentals of Welding (P) Welding Processes (P) Brazing, Soldering, and Adhesive Bonding Mechanical Assembly (P) Rapid Prototyping (P) Processing of Integrated Circuits (P) Electronics Assembly and Packaging Microfabrication Technologies Numerical Control and Industrial Robotics (P) Group Technology and Flexible Manufacturing Systems Production Lines (P) Manufacturing Engineering Production Planning and Control (P) Quality Control (P) Measurement and Inspection

Page

4 7 18 21 24 29 32 36 39 49 57 60 70 73 76 84 87 92 112 122 134 142 153 166 173 180 182 184 190 197 207 211 218 222 230 233 235 244 246 253 256 263 271

*(P) indicates chapters with problem sets.

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2.1 2.2 2.3

**THE NATURE OF MATERIALS
**

The elements listed in the Periodic Table can be divided into three categories. What are these categories and give an example of each? Answer. The three types of elements are metals (e.g., aluminum), nonmetals (e.g., oxygen), and semimetals (e.g., silicon). Which elements are the noble metals? Answer. The noble metals are copper, silver, and gold. What is the difference between primary and secondary bonding in the structure of materials? Answer. Primary bonding is strong bonding between atoms in a material, for example to form a molecule; while secondary bonding is not as strong and is associated with attraction between molecules in the material.

Review Questions

2.4

Describe how ionic bonding works? Answer. In ionic bonding, atoms of one element give up their outer electron(s) to the atoms of another element to form complete outer shells.

2.5

What is the difference between crystalline and noncrystalline structures in materials? Answer. The atoms in a crystalline structure are located at regular and repeating lattice positions in three dimensions; thus, the crystal structure possesses a long-range order which allows a high packing density. The atoms in a noncrystalline structure are randomly positioned in the material, not possessing any repeating, regular pattern.

2.6

What are some common point defects in a crystal lattice structure? Answer. Some of the common point defects are: (1) vacancy - a missing atom in the lattice structure; (2) ion-pair vacancy (Schottky defect) - a missing pair of ions of opposite charge in a compound; (3) interstitialcy - a distortion in the lattice caused by an extra atom present; and (4) Frenkel defect - an ion is removed from a regular position in the lattice and inserted into an interstitial position not normally occupied by such an ion.

2.7

Define the difference between elastic and plastic deformation in terms of the effect on the crystal lattice structure. Answer. Elastic deformation involves a temporary distortion of the lattice structure that is proportional to the applied stress. Plastic deformation involves a stress of sufficient magnitude to cause a permanent shift in the relative positions of adjacent atoms in the lattice. Plastic deformation generally involves the mechanism of slip - relative movement of atoms on opposite sides of a plane in the lattice.

2.8

How do grain boundaries contribute to the strain hardening phenomenon in metals? Answer. Grain boundaries block the continued movement of dislocations in the metal during straining. As more dislocations become blocked, the metal becomes more difficult to deform; in effect it becomes stronger.

2.9

Identify some materials that have a crystalline structure.

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Answer. Materials typically possessing a crystalline structure are metals and ceramics other than glass. Some plastics have a partially crystalline structure. 2.10 Identify some materials that possess a noncrystalline structure. Answer. Materials typically having a noncrystalline structure include glass (fused silica), rubber, and certain plastics (specifically, thermosetting plastics). 2.11 What is the basic difference in the solidification (or melting) process between crystalline and noncrystalline structures? Answer. Crystalline structures undergo an abrupt volumetric change as they transform from liquid to solid state and vice versa. This is accompanied by an amount of energy called the heat of fusion that must be added to the material during melting or released during solidification. Noncrystalline materials melt and solidify without the abrupt volumetric change and heat of fusion.

**Multiple Choice Quiz
**

There are a total of 20 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct). To attain a perfect score on the quiz, all correct answers must be given, since each correct answer is worth 1 point. For each question, each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point, and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers. 2.1 The basic structural unit of matter is which one of the following? (a) atom, (b) electron, (c) element, (d) molecule, or (e) nucleus. Answer. (a) 2.2 Approximately how many different elements have been identified (one answer)? (a) 10, (b) 50, (c) 100, (d) 200, or (e) 500. Answer. (c) 2.3 In the Periodic Table, the elements can be divided into which of the following categories (more than one)? (a) ceramics, (b) gases, (c) liquids, (d) metals, (e) nonmetals, (f) polymers, (g) semi-metals, and (h) solids. Answer. (d), (e), and (g). 2.4 The element with the lowest density and smallest atomic weight is which one of the following? (a) aluminum, (b) argon, (c) helium, (d) hydrogen, or (e) magnesium. Answer. (d) 2.5 Which of the following bond types are classified as primary bonds (more than one)? (a) covalent bonding, (b) hydrogen bonding, (c) ionic bonding, (d) metallic bonding, and (e) van der Waals forces. Answer. (a), (c), and (d). 2.6 How many atoms are there in the unit cell of the face- centered cubic (FCC) unit cell (one answer)? (a) 8, (b) 9, (c) 10, (d) 12, or (e) 14. Answer. (e) 2.7 Which of the following are not point defects in a crystal lattice structure (more than one)? (a) edge dislocation, (b) interstitialcy, (c) Schottky defect, or (d) vacancy.

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Answer. (b) FCC. 2. (c). (c) line defects. or (c) HCP. (b) and (f). (d) point defects. (b). and (d). (d) ionic. (b). Answer. (b) Frenkel defect.9 Grain boundaries are an example of which one of the following types of crystal structure defects? (a) dislocation. 6 . (b) mechanism of plastic deformation. (c). or (e) surface defects.11 Polymers are characterized by which of the following bonding types (more than one)? (a) adhesive. (e) 2. (c) hydrogen. (d) more likely in metals with HCP structure. and (f) type of dislocation. and (f) van der Waals. (e) metallic. Answer.Answer. (c) 2.8 Which one of the following crystal structures has the fewest slip directions and therefore the metals with this structure are generally more difficult to deform at room temperature? (a) BCC.10 Twinning is which of the following (more than one)? (a) elastic deformation. (c) more likely at high deformation rates. (e) slip mechanism. Answer. (b) covalent. (d) 2.

What are the three types of static stresses to which materials are subjected? Answer. the specimen cross-sectional are increases as the test progresses.6 Define yield strength of a material. while true stress divides the load by the instantaneous area which decreases as the specimen stretches. 3. Answer.7 Why cannot a direct conversion be made between the ductility measures of elongation and reduction in area using the assumption of constant volume? Answer.10 How does the change in cross-sectional area of a test specimen in a compression test differ from its counterpart in a tensile test specimen? Answer.3 3. the material should not be strong. Engineering stress divides the load (force) on the test specimen by the original area. In a compression test. where E = a constant of proportionality called the modulus of elasticity. The tensile strength is the maximum load experienced during the tensile test divided by the original area. Answer.4 What is the difference between engineering stress and true stress in a tensile test? Answer.11 What is the complicating factor that occurs in a compression test? Answer. When the material does not strain harden.2% offset value . 3. 7 .1 3. 3. tensile.2%. and shear. What is work hardening? Answer. 3. State Hooke's Law. the cross-sectional area decreases.2 3. while in a tensile test. Because of necking that occurs in the test specimen. Barreling of the test specimen due to friction at the interfaces with the testing machine platens. Review Questions 3. It is usually measured as the . 3. Hooke's Law defines the stress-strain relationship for an elastic material: σ = Eε. in general. Answer.8 3. In what case does the strength coefficient have the same value as the yield strength? Answer.5 Define tensile strength of a material. the material must be strong.9 3.the point at which the stress-strain for the material intersects a line which is offset from the elastic region of the stress-strain curve by 0.3 MECHANICAL PROPERTIES OF MATERIALS What is the dilemma between design and manufacturing in terms of mechanical properties? Answer. The yield strength is the stress at which the material begins to plastically deform. compressive. for ease of manufacturing. Strain hardening is the increase in strength that occurs in metals when they are strained. To achieve design function and quality.

(f) true stress. For each question. To attain a perfect score on the quiz. the greater the viscosity. (c) reduction in area. S = 0. Different hardness tests and scales are required because different materials possess widely differing hardnesses. A three-point bending test is commonly used to test the strength of brittle materials. Most liquids (water. 3.3.16 Why are different hardness tests and scales required? Answer. and (f) yield. since each correct answer is worth 1 point. 3. (e) tensile.18 Define viscosity of a fluid.15 What is hardness and how is it generally tested? Answer. the thicker the fluid.1 Which one of the following are the three basic types of static stresses to which a material can be subjected (three answers)? (a) compression.14 How is shear strength S related to tensile strength TS. 3. on average? Answer.12 Tensile testing is not appropriate for hard brittle materials such as ceramics. 3. The recrystallization temperature is the temperature at which a metal recrystallizes (forms new grains) rather than work hardens when deformed. Viscoelasticity refers to the property most commonly exhibited by polymers that defines the strain of the material as a function of stress and temperature over time. on average? Answer. It is tested by pressing a hard object (sphere. 3. (b) hardness.13 How is the shear modulus of elasticity G related to the tensile modulus of elasticity E. Answer. What is the test commonly used to determine the strength properties of such materials? Answer. on average. Answer. A test whose measuring range is suited to very hard materials is not sensitive for testing very soft materials. The test provides a measure called the transverse rupture strength for these materials.17 Define the recrystallization temperature for a metal. and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point. Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 18 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct). 3. 3. 3. diamond point) into the test material and measuring the size (depth. It is a combination of viscosity and elasticity. Viscosity is the resistance to flow of a fluid material. as a material property? Answer. 8 . (d) shear.19 What is the defining characteristic of a Newtonian fluid? Answer. oils) are Newtonian fluids. G = 0. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers. 3. Hardness is defined as the resistance to indentation of a material.7 TS. all correct answers must be given.20 What is viscoelasticity.4 E. area) of the indentation. A Newtonian fluid is one for which viscosity is a constant property at a given temperature. on average.

(d) titanium.4 If strain measurements were made during a tensile test. 3.7 Which one of the following types of stress strain relationship best describes the behavior of most metals at room temperature: (a) elastic and perfectly plastic.12 Which one of the following materials has the highest hardness? (a) alumina ceramic. (b) elastic and strain hardening. (c) perfectly elastic.Answer. or (e) polystyrene. 3. Answer. (c) perfectly elastic.5 The plastic region of the stress-strain curve for a metal is characterized by a proportional relationship between stress and strain: (a) true or (b) false. (b) 3. (b) elastic and strain hardening. (b) 3. The plastic region is characterized by a power function . (c) hardened tool steel.3 If stress values were measured during a tensile test.6 Which one of the following types of stress strain relationship best describes the behavior of brittle materials such as ceramics and thermosetting plastics: (a) elastic and perfectly plastic. (a).10 The shear strength of a metal is usually (a) greater than. which of the following would have the higher value? (a) engineering stress. (a) 3. (c) 3. (b) 3. Answer. 9 . (b) diamond. (a) 3. (b) 3. Answer. or (b) true stress. (b) gray cast iron. Answer. or (d) none of the above. or (d) the stress observed when the specimen finally fails. or (b) less than its tensile strength. Answer. Answer.8 Which of the following types of stress strain relationship best describes the behavior of metals at temperatures above their respective recrystallization points: (a) elastic and perfectly plastic. (d).9 Which one of the following materials has the highest modulus of elasticity? (a) aluminum. (b) It is the elastic region that is characterized by a proportional relationship between stress and strain. (d) high carbon steel. or (d) none of the above. (c) 3. Answer. (b) the maximum load divided by the final area of the specimen. Answer. (b) elastic and strain hardening. Answer. or (b) true strain. (c) steel. and (e). (c) the maximum load divided by the original area of the specimen. (c) perfectly elastic. or (e) tungsten. (a) 3. Answer. as derived from the results of a tensile test on a metal specimen? (a) the stress encountered when the stress-strain curve transforms from elastic to plastic behavior. which of the following would have the higher value? (a) engineering stain.the flow curve.11 Most hardness tests involve pressing a hard object into the surface of a test specimen and measuring the indentation (or its effect) that results: (a) true or (b) false. or (d) none of the above.2 Which of the following is the correct definition of ultimate tensile strength.

0083 . Solution: (a) Y = 32. determine the percent reduction in area.0 = 0.0)/50.00215 = 29. (b) plasticity. e = (50.Answer.2 .000 lb/in2 (b) σ = E e Subtracting the 0.3 = 30% (b) % area reduction = (0.0 = 0. Solution: (a) % elongation = (64.0026 E = σ/e = 490/0.0 in and an area = 0.000/0.14 Viscoelasticity has features of which of the following more traditional material properties (more than one)? (a) elasticity. the shape return feature in viscoelastic behavior violates the definition of plastic flow.0)/2. This is the 0.0.50)/50 = 14. (c).0 . Strictly speaking.6/2. (b).000/0.0083 in.2. Problems Strength and Ductility in Tension 3.13 Viscosity can be defined as the ease with which a fluid flows: (a) true or (b) false.60 .2 mm. in deforming over time it involves plastic flow (plasticity). (b) If the specimen necked to an area = 0.5 x 10 3 MPa.2% offset. 3.0)/2. (c) TS = 168.000 N. (b) modulus of elasticity E. Solution: (a) % elongation = (2.000 lb is reached at a gage length = 2. However.2 percent yield point. many materials considered to be viscoelastic do not completely return to their original shape.50. Solution: (a) Y = 98. Answer.5 = 64.50 = 50% 10 . The maximum load = 168.1 A tensile test uses a test specimen that has a gage length of 50 mm and an area = 200 mm2.77 x 10 6 lb/in2 (c) TS = 60.4% (b) % area reduction = (200 .002 = 0.2.2 A test specimen in a tensile test has a gage length of 2.5 = 0. Answer. The corresponding gage length = 2. During the test the specimen yields under a load of 32.54 = 54% 3. Determine: (a) yield strength Y. 3.0.5 .23 mm. (a) determine the percent elongation.60 in.2/50 = 0. Determine: (a) yield strength Y.0026 = 188. and (c) tensile strength TS.2 percent yield point. e = (2. (a) determine the percent elongation.4 In Problem 3. (c) viscosity. (a). Viscoelasticity is usually considered to be a property that combines elasticity and viscosity.000 N is reached at a gage length = 64. however. and (c) tensile strength TS.1.00215 E = σ/e = 64. During the test the specimen yields under a load of 98.000/0. This is the 0.002 = 0. (a) 3.0 . (b) Viscosity is the resistance to flow.23 . The corresponding gage length = 50.0. (b) σ = E e Subtracting the 0.5 = 120.2.92)/200 = 0.000/200 = 490 MPa. determine the percent reduction in area.000 lb/in2 3.284 = 28. This answer may require some justification.3 In Problem 3. The maximum load = 60.25)/0.5 in 2. (b) If the specimen necked to an area = 92 mm2.2% offset. (b) modulus of elasticity E.25 in2.000/200 = 840 MPa.000 lb.

283 = 910.08) n and (2) 325 = K(0.6 In Problem 3.00184.01 = 53.2 ε 0.1/387.793 125. (d) From the plot.1622) n 544.1678 = 404.0 mm and the cross.375) n 1. Strain ε = ln(147. (c) modulus of elasticity E. Y = 310.5.2264 = (3.4056 = (3.5 mm3.3405 = 1. Be sure not to use data after the point at which necking occurred.23 .2041 n = 0. (b) From the plot.1 MPa.1678 Substituting this value with the data back into the flow curve equation.524 = 387.913 147.23 23. we obtain the value of the strength coefficient K: K = 387.1 MPa.5/147.27) n 325/265 = (0.375) = ln(1.85 MPa 11 . Strain e = (125. Strain ε = ln(131.0488) n 1.283 3.042 131. (1) A = V/L = 7812.1/(0. (2) F = 28913 N and L = 147. we have (1) 387. When the true stress = 325 MPa.01/125) = 0.27/0. we obtain the value of the strength coefficient K: (1) K = 265/(0.625 MPa.85 MPa (2) K = 325/(0. E = 310.25 mm.08) n n ln(3.08) .5 The following data are collected during a tensile test in which the starting gage length = 125.462 160.579 140.25 = 59.2164 n = 0.1622/0.3238) 0.0488) .sectional area = 62.2 MPa The flow curve equation is: σ = 910. (c) First data point is prior to yielding.01 27.1 = (0.9 MPa K = 544. Solution: (1) 265 = K(0. Solution: (a) Student exercise.283 = 909.0488) n and (2) 544.27.27 MPa.25 27.0488 (2) A = 7812.25/125) = 0.143 = 544.125)/125 = 0. Determine: (b) yield strength Y.1622) .01 mm.143 mm2.00184 = 168.283 Substituting this value with the data back into the flow curve equation.08 at a stress = 265 MPa. true strain = 0.2264) 1.6 MPa.3.913 N and the final data point occurred immediately prior to failure.10 The maximum load is 28.4 MPa Use average K = 910.1 = K(0. Determine the flow curve parameters n and K. (a) Plot the engineering stress strain curve. Solution: Starting volume of test specimen V = 125(62.1678 = 404. Flow Curve 3.1622 Substituting these values into the flow curve equation.578 153.7 In a tensile test on a metal specimen.27/0. (d) tensile strength TS.1 = K(0.1/(0.2011 n n = 0.4056) = n ln(3.5) = 7812.05 28. Select two data points: (1) F = 23042 N and L = 131. Stress σ = 28913/53. TS = 426.00 20. the true strain = 0.27) .3238) n ln(1.524 mm2. determine the strength coefficient and the strain hardening exponent.5 mm2: Load (N) Length (mm) 0 0 17.5/131. Stress σ = 23042/59.

28 with a corresponding true stress = 345. Later.3 and K = 600 MPa. then n = 0.45) .4 in 2 So.11 The flow curve for a certain metal has parameters: n = 0.800 = K(0.000 lb/in 2. Determine: (a) the flow stress at a true strain = 1.25) .9163 n = 0.250 lb/in 2 and ε = ln(2.1076) 12 .000/54.000 = K(0.800/31. and at another point in the test prior to necking.300 lb/in2 (b) ε = (40.50 in 2.10) n and (2) 55.1076) n ln(1.22 = 45.10 A tensile test for a certain metal provides flow curve parameters: n = 0.000) 1/.5) n n ln(2.5) = 1. the gage length = 2.10) .0) = 0.4326 3.000 lb/in2.8 During a tensile test.10) n 1.3 = (1.28 = 492.4326 = 100.3 = 600 MPa (b) ε = (600/600) 1/.28.28) .4336) = n ln(2.3125 = 44.000/(0. the gage length = 3. At one point in the tensile test. Determine the flow curve parameters n and K.000/(0.25) n 55.2/2.000 = (0.5) = ln(1.000(.22 and K = 54.000 lb/in 2.000 lb/in 2.5)/. Without knowing any more about the test.5/2.25.545 = 0.2 in and the corresponding engineering stress = 28. Solution: (1) 37. Solution: (a) Yf = 54.000 lb/in 2.250 = K(0.5 = 0.1678 3.223) n and (2) 44.223) n 1.0 in 3 (1) A = V/L = 1.4865) 0. Using this value in the flow curve equation.4326 = 100.223 (2) A = 1.0 MPa.7407) 4.191 ε 0.191 lb/in2 (2) K = 55. we have K = 345/(0.0) .000 lb/in 2. and (b) the true strain at a flow stress = 40. The starting specimen had a gage length = 2.0(0.85 ε 0. Determine: (a) the flow stress at a true strain = 0. a metal has a true strain = 0.0/3.12 A metal is deformed in a tension test into its plastic region.800 lb/in 2 and ε = ln(3.4865 = (2. true stress σ = 28. can you estimate the flow curve parameters n and K? Solution: If we assume that n = ε when necking starts. Solution: Starting volume V = LoAo = 2.33 = 1. Determine the strength coefficient and the strain hardening exponent for this metal. (1) 31.000 = K(0.0.25/0.000(.3964 n = 0.7 MPa The flow curve equation is: σ = 492.000(0. the true strain = 0.22 = (0.5 in and the corresponding engineering stress = 24.45. Solution: (a) Yf = 600(1.191 lb/in2 The flow curve equation is: σ = 100.5)/.4 = 31.470 These are two data points with which to determine the parameters of the flow curve equation.9 In a tensile test a metal begins to neck at a true strain = 0.3125 in 2 So.0/2.256 3.0) = 0. and (b) true strain at a flow stress = 600 MPa.2 = 0.470/0.0) 3.0 in and an area = 0.4336 = (2.10 at a true stress = 37. true stress σ = 24.250 = (0.7 ε 0. we obtain the value of the strength coefficient K: (1) K = 37.00 3.4326 Substituting this value with the data back into the flow curve equation.000/37.28 3.The flow curve equation is: σ = 404. at a true stress = 55.470) n 44.

(6) 100. As the interval size is reduced.483 = 64. 3.513 lb/in2 (2) K = 44.800/(0.14 A tensile specimen is elongated to twice its original length. determine the final compressed length of the specimen such that: (a) the engineering strain is equal to the same value as in tension (it will be negative value because of compression). Determine the engineering strain and true strain for this test. It is elongated during the test to a length = 110.0 mm.0 mm.0 = 1. it will be negative value because of compression).0 to 105.0 mm. (d) Is the result closer to the answer to part (a) or part (b)? Does this help to show what is meant by the term true strain? Solution: (a) Engineering strain e = (110 . (b) Determine the true strain.0) = ln(2.383 (c)L = 75 to 80 mm: e = (80 .0 mm. which is impossible.105)/105 = 5/105 = 0.0625 L = 85 to 90 mm: e = (90 .0 to 110. Solution: Engineering strain e = (2.516 lb/in2 The flow curve equation is: σ = 64.(-0.100)/100 = 5/100 = 0.90)/90 = 5/90 = 0.0 to 85. If the metal had been strained in compression.0588 L = 90 to 95 mm: e = (95 . and (b) the true strain would be equal to the same value as in tension (again.0 True strain ε = ln(2.7455 n .515 lb/in2 (1) K = 31.0 mm.0 to 80.75)/75 = 5/75 = 0.3938 (d) The resulting sum in (c) is closer to the true strain value in (b). Note that the answer to part (a) is an impossible result. (5) 95.0 to 100.80)/80 = 5/80 = 0.515 ε 0.0 .0667 L = 80 to 85 mm: e = (85 .85)/85 = 5/85 = 0.693 (a) To be compressed to the same engineering strain (e = -1.75)/75 = 35/75 = 0.13 A tensile test specimen has a starting gage length = 75. (b) To be compressed to the same true strain value (e = -0.95)/95 = 5/95 = 0. the summation becomes closer to the integration value.0 mm. Lf = 0. (c) Compute and sum the engineering strains as the specimen elongates from: (1) 75.0 to 90.0)/1.0 mm before necking occurs.0500 L = 105 to 110 mm: e = (110 .0/1.0 to 95. (3) 85.500 Therefore.0) the final height of the compression specimen would have to be zero. and (7) 105.0476 _____________________________________________ Sum of incremental engineering strain values = 0. True strain is therefore a better measure of strain during plastic deformation.3602 = .1.4667 (b) True strain ε = ln(110/75) = ln(1.483 Use average K = 64.4667) = 0.0 mm.483 n = 0.0) = 0. we have V = AoLo = AL 13 .693) = 0.15 Derive an expression for true strain as a function of D and Do for a tensile test specimen of round cross-section. Solution: Starting with the definition of true strain as ε = ln(L/Lo) and assuming constant volume.250/(0.470) .693 = ln(Lf/Lo) Lf/Lo = exp. (a) Determine the engineering strain.0526 L = 100 to 105 mm: e = (105 . (2) 80.. The summation process is an approximation of the integration over the range from 75 to 110 mm in (b).0 mm. (4) 90.483 3.223) = 64.693) the final height of the compression specimen can be determined as follows: ε = -.5 Lo 3.0556 L = 95 to 100 mm: e = (100 .

6 MPa.4/2 = 0.4) .75 Ao . Assuming that the cross.17 Based on results of a tensile test.Lo/Lo = L/Lo .3 MPa 3.75A o = 0.24) = 0.000 lb. This is a true stress. ε = ln(1 + e) 3. However.386.24 Lo A = Ao/1.40 and K = 551. it should be noted that these values are associated with the necked portion of the test specimen. then true stress σ = 248.Af)/Ao = 0. 14 . Solution: Tensile strength occurs at maximum value of load.25 = 992.8 MPa True strain ε = ln(Lf/Lo) = ln(Ao/Af) = ln(4) = 1.4918(382. σ = 551.221 Area ratio = (Do/D)2 = (1.16 Show that true strain = ln(1 + e).section increases uniformly. From Problem 3.0 in and cross-sectional area = 0.Lo = 0. Solution: Starting definitions: (1) ε = ln(L/Lo) and (2) e = (L . Therefore.2 MPa.3) = 570. Determine the true stress and true strain at this maximum load. Based on this information.25 Ao = Af If engineering stress = 248.8065 Ao True stress σ = 37.5) = 91. At necking.5 in 2 reaches a maximum load of 37. Its ductility is measured as 75% reduction of area.2 Do/D = exp.2 MPa.5 MPa and n = 0. Necking begins immediately thereafter.3 MPa. 0.000/0.5 mm.4 = 382. the flow curve has parameters calculated as n = 0.15.26. n = ε.19 A steel tensile specimen with starting gage length = 2.1 Rearranging.Lo)/Lo = 0.754 lb/in2 True strain ε = ln(1.2) = 1. calculate the (engineering) tensile strength for the metal. Its elongation at this point is 24%. Therefore. Therefore.24 = 0. Determine the true stress and true strain at failure. we know that ε = 2 ln(Do/D).24 Lo L = 1. Solution: Area reduction AR = (Ao .4918 The ratio between true stress and engineering stress would be the same ratio.Af = 0.215 Compression 3.(. Solution: Elongation = (L .80 mm fails at an engineering stress = 248. 3.Lo)/Lo Consider definition (2): e = L/Lo . TS is defined as an engineering stress.24 L .4 = 2 ln(Do/D) ln(Do/D) = .8065(0.2/0. L/Lo = Ao/A A = πD2 and Ao = πDo2 Ao/A = πDo2 /πD2 = (Do/D)2 ε = ln(Do/D)2 = 2 ln(Do/D) 3. TS = 1.75 Ao Ao .20 A metal alloy has been tested in a tensile test to determine the following flow curve parameters: K = 620.5 mm and its diameter = 25 mm. 1 + e = L/Lo Substituting this into definition (1). determine the load required to compress the specimen to a height of (a) 50 mm and (b) 37.6(.Therefore. The same metal is now tested in a compression test in which the starting height of the specimen = 62.221) 2 = 1.18 A copper wire of diameter 0.0.

00264 + 0. The flow curve equation is: σ = 137.5 = 818.7(1293.35.224 lb/in2 (b) Elastic strain at Y = 79. True stress σ = 260.00464.224/30. At a load of 260.257) .257 Yf = 1100(.767 in2 Y = 140.000/1. The metal yields (0.35 = 683.1) = 884.7 MPa Starting volume V = 75(1000) = 75.1(613.000 mm3 At h = 58 mm. At F = 260.00464) n 1.5 mm.5) 2/4 = 3. Solution: (a) Starting volume of test specimen V = hπD2/4 = 2π(1.389 lb/in2. Area A = 3. 3.209 in 2.095 N.6 in.103 K = 117.775 = 78. (a) At h = 50 mm.Solution: Starting volume of test specimen V = hπDo2/4 = 62.1 mm2 F = 521.002 = 0.6 mm2 F = 420.6 /37.534 in3.5(.534/1.00264 Strain including offset = 0.00464 Height h at strain = 0.21 The flow curve parameters for a certain stainless steel are K = 1100 MPa and n = 0.714/78. ε = ln(62.223) .9907 = 1.6) = 257.25) = 0. Solution: For h = 58 mm.5 in.714 lb/in2 at ε = 0. assuming that the cross-section increases uniformly.000/1.5) = ln(1.000.862 lb/in2 at ε = 0.06) n ln(1.862 = (0.5(0.000 lb.775 in 2.493) = n ln(48. A = 3.000 lb. True strain ε = ln(2.511 Yf = 620.1(818. A cylindrical specimen of starting cross-section area = 1000 mm2 and height = 75 mm is compressed to a height of 58 mm.06) 0.6/50 = 613. ε = ln(62.209 = 117.000/2.224 lb/in 2 is e = Y/E = 79. 117.667) = 0. and (2) σ = 117.872 n n = 0.000 = 0. the height has been reduced to 1.26 = 420. ε = ln(75/58) = ln(1.4006 = 3.767 = 79.00464) = 1.0 in and diameter = 1.5π(25) 2/4 = 30679.511) .22 A steel test specimen (E = 30 x 106 lb/in2) in a compression test has a starting height = 2.389 ε .26 = 521. Determine: (a) yield strength Y.770 N (b) At h = 37.6) = 0.5/37.000/58 = 1293.534/1.223 Given the two points: (1) σ = 78.5) 2/4 = 1. Determine the force required to achieve this compression.1 MPa A = V/L = 30679.1 MPa A = V/L = 30679.223) .714 lb/in 2.223 Yf = 620.312 N 3.1) = 426.2% offset) at a load = 140.000 lb.223/0.103 = 137. Ao = πDo/4 = π(1.5/50) = ln(1.103 Bending and Shear 15 .714/(0.223. (b) flow curve parameters K and n.493 = (48.293) = 0.9907 in. A = V/L = 75.6 = 2. Assume that the cross-sectional area increases uniformly during the test.1 mm2 F = 683.6 mm3.0.00464 is h = 2.0/1.0(1 .862 lb/in2. True strain σ = 140.

5) 2(0.01309 = 3. What is the shear strength of the metal? Solution: S = (1200 x 1000)/(2π(25) 2(3)) = 101. 3. Solution: (a) τ = T/(2πR2t) = (900 x 1000)/(2π(25) 2(3)) = 76.005236)/50 = 0. Determine: (a) the shear stress. wall thickness = 3 mm. The resulting indentation has a diameter = 3.25 A piece of metal is deformed in shear to an angle of 42° as shown in Figure P3.1)) = 42. (b) γ = Rα/L.5FL/bh2 = 1.3(2π/360) = 0.0 in.5) 2(0. and gage length = 2.01745)/2.5 x 60) = 16. h = 10 mm. Hardness 3.200 lb/in2.2 mm.(102 . G = τ/γ = 76.5 x 0.24 A special ceramic specimen is tested in a bend test. 3. γ = 1. assuming the specimen had not yet yielded. Determine: (a) the shear stress. (b) shear strain. Determine the transverse rupture strength if failure occurs at a load = 1700 lb.002618 (c) τ = Gγ.667 N.27. Solution: S = (8000 x 12)/(2π(1. 3. for which equipment is available in the company. The length of the specimen between supports = 2. which is that hardness is always measured as the 16 . wall thickness = 0..9004. Calculate the shear strength of the metal.10 in. (b) shear strain. 3.252) = 163. assuming the specimen had not yet yielded. Solution: TRS = 1. and (c) shear modulus.5(1700)(2.5258) = 182 BHN 3. α = .441/0. Solution: (a) τ = T/(2πR2t) = (5000 x 12)/(2π(1.22).0 = 0.30 In a Brinell hardness test.26 A torsion test specimen has a radius = 25 mm. and (c) shear modulus. (b) γ = Rα/L.3°.1)) = 67. a torque of 900 N-m results in an angular deflection = 0. what is the anticipated load at which the specimen is likely to fail. and gage length = 50 mm. Its cross-sectional dimensions are b = 0. a torque of 5000 ft-lb is applied which causes an angular deflection = 1° on a thin-walled tubular specimen whose radius = 1. 3.441 lb/in2.39/0.3.0 in.01309 (c) τ = Gγ. He claims that all hardness tests are based on the same principle as the Brinell test. the specimen fails at a torque = 8000 ft-lb and an angular deflection = 23°.5(0.01745 rad.27 In a torsion test.23 A bend test is used for a certain hard material.25 in. α = 1(2π/360) = 0.86 MPa.24 x 10 6 lb/in2.179 MPa. failure of the specimen occurs at a torque = 1200 N-m and a corresponding angular deflection = 10°.3.31 One of the inspectors in the quality control department has frequently used the Brinell and Rockwell hardness tests.5 in. 3. Determine the BHN for the metal. If the transverse rupture strength of the material is known to be 1000 MPa.26. Determine the shear strain for this situation. In testing.39 MPa. γ = 25(0.5) = 3000/(10π x 0.0)/(0. G = τ/γ = 42.28 In Problem 3.25.29 In Problem 3.5L = 1000(15 x 102)/(1. a 1500 kg load is pressed into a specimen using a 10 mm diameter hardened steel ball.002618 = 29. Solution: γ = a/b = tan 42° = 0.906 lb/in2. Solution: BHN = 2(1500)/(10π(10 .005236 rad.50 in and h = 0. and L = 60 mm? Solution: F = (TRS)(bh2)/1. given that its dimensions are: b = 15 mm.

(b) Based on Table 3. A Brinell hardness test in the receiving department yields a value of BHN = 118. the claim is not correct. and what are the associated tests? Solution: (a) No.000 lb/in 2. and (3) Durometer. (a) Does the steel meet the specification on tensile strength? (b) Estimate the yield strength of the material. determine the viscosity of the fluid.000) = 32. However.000 to 70. If the velocity gradient in the space between the surfaces is constant. (2) Scleroscope. 3.2 in the text (page 47).33 A batch of annealed steel has just been received from the vendor. It is supposed to have a tensile strength in the range 60. from a legal standpoint.000/45. The above formula for converting from BHN to TS is only an approximating equation. The motion is resisted by a shear stress of 0.700 lb/in2. Assuming that the velocity gradient of the fluid is constant. estimate the tensile strength of the steel. The shaft rotates at a velocity of 400 rev/min.5 in) = 50 sec-1 η = (0. separated by a space of 4 mm.000 lb/in2. Based on the BHN determined in that problem.555(59. 3.6 mm and length = 50.0 mm diameter shaft rotates inside a stationary bushing whose inside diameter = 125. Not all hardness tests are based on the applied load divided by area.36 A 125. (b) Some of the other hardness tests and operating principles include: (1) Rockwell hardness test. Using this ratio. Solution: Shear rate = (25 in/sec)/(0. This lies outside the specified range of 60. this speed and the action of the oil are sufficient to keep the shaft centered inside the bushing. the ratio of Y to TS for low carbon steel = 25.35 Two parallel surfaces. which measures elastic deformation by pressing an indentor into the surface of rubber and similar soft materials.14 Pas. but many of them are.000 lb/in2. which measures the depth of indentation of a cone resulting from an applied load.008 N-s/m2. 3. TS = 500(182) = 91. are moving relative to each other at a velocity of 5 m/sec. separated by a space of 0. determine the coefficient of viscosity of the fluid.32 Suppose in Problem 3.3 lb/in2)/(50 sec-1) = 0. For a tested hardness of BHN = 182.5 in that is occupied by a fluid. Solution: (a) TS = 500(BHN) = 500(118) = 59.applied load divided by the area of the impressions made by an indentor.555.3 lb/in 2 due to the viscosity of the fluid.000 to 70. it is unlikely that the batch can be rejected on the basis of its measured BHN without using an actual tensile test to measure TS. The motion of the plates is resisted by a shear stress of 10 Pa due to the viscosity of the fluid. we can estimate the yield strength to be Y = 0.000 lb/in2. which measures the rebound height of a hammer dropped from a certain distance against a surface specimen. Solution: Shear rate = (5 m/s x 1000 mm/m)/(4 mm) = 1250 s-1 η = (10N/m2)/(1250 s-1) = 0. are moving relative to each other at a velocity of 25 in/sec.34 Two flat plates. The space between them is occupied by a fluid of unknown viscosity.30 that the specimen is steel. (a) Is he correct? (b) If not. what are some of the other principles involved in hardness testing. 3.000 = 0. In the clearance between the shaft and the bushing is contained a lubricating oil whose viscosity = 0. 17 .0 mm.0006 lb-sec/in2. Viscosity of Fluids 3. Solution: The estimating formula is: TS = 500(BHN). Determine the magnitude of the torque due to viscosity that acts to resist the rotation of the shaft.

3 = 8726.0 mm/s Shear rate = 2618/0.6) 2 x 50/4 = 19729.2(10-6)) = 24.1 N Torque T = 24.Solution: Bushing internal bearing area A = π(125.6 s-1 τ = (0.6 mm2 = 19729.125)/2 = 0.14)(8726.506 N-m 18 .3 mm v = (125π mm/rev)(400 rev/min)(1 min/60 sec) = 2618.6 .6) = 1221.7 Pa = 1221.1 N x 125/2 mm = 1506.7 N/mm2)(19729.2(10-6) m2 d = (125.4 N-mm = 1.7 N/mm2 Force on surface between shaft and bushing = (1221.

Why are metals better conductors of electricity than ceramics and polymers? Answer. Between the solidus and liquidus. Thermal diffusivity is the thermal conductivity divided by the volumetric specific heat. The dielectric strength is defined as the electrical potential required to break down the insulator per unit thickness. Ceramics and polymers have covalent and ionic bonding. 4.9 Define the resistivity of a material. while an alloy begins melting at a certain temperature called the solidus and finally completes the transformation to the molten state at a higher temperature called the liquidus. What is the difference in melting characteristics between a pure metal element and an alloy metal? Answer. 4. in which the electrons are tightly bound to particular molecules. contact area. and time.6 4. Thermal conductivity is the capacity of a material to transfer heat energy through itself by thermal movement only (no mass transfer).4 4. According to Fick's first law. Resistivity is the material's capacity to resist the flow of an electric current. Review Questions 4. 4. 4.10 What is the dielectric strength of a material? Answer.5 What is the thermal conductivity of a material? Answer. mass diffusion depends on: diffusion coefficient which rises rapidly with temperature (so temperature could be listed as an important variable). In the heating of a noncrystalline material such as glass. finally converting to a liquid at a temperature defined for these materials as the melting point. the metal is a mixture of solid and liquid.8 4.7 Define thermal diffusivity. Density is the weight per unit volume. 4.11 What is an electrolyte? 19 . Answer. which permits electrons to move easily within the metal.2 PHYSICAL PROPERTIES OF MATERIALS Define the property density of a material. Answer. 4. Answer.1 4. the material begins to soften as temperature increases. Metals are better conductors because of metallic bonding. Answer.3 Describe the melting characteristics of a noncrystalline material such as glass.4 Define the specific heat property of a material. Answer. Specific heat is defined as the quantity of heat required to raise the temperature of a unit mass of the material by one degree. concentration gradient. A pure metal element melts at one temperature (the melting point). What are the important variables that affect mass diffusion? Answer.

2 4. (b). or (d) water. (c) magnesium.5).5 Copper is generally considered easy to weld. (b) copper. melting begins at a certain temperature and concludes at a higher temperature. Answer. as time elapses. and (f) time. (d) 4.Answer. Answer. (c) 4. which of the following temperatures marks the beginning of melting? (a) liquidus. (b) concrete. (a) In the heating of most metal alloys. Temperature (e) has a strong influence on the diffusion coefficient.4 Which of the following materials has the highest specific heat? (a) aluminum. because of its high thermal conductivity: (a) true. and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point. (b) copper. of (b) solidus. or (b) false. the concentration gradient is reduced so that the rate of diffusion is reduced. Answer. Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 12 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct). Answer. or (d) tin.8 A superconductor is characterized by which of the following (choose one best answer): (a) very low resistivity. all correct answers must be given. 4. (d) 4. or (c) resistivity properties between those of conductors and semiconductors? Answer. An electrolyte is an ionized solution capable of conducting electric current by movement of the ions. (b) zero conductivity. This is perhaps a trick question. or (d) silver.3 Polymers typically exhibit greater thermal expansion properties than metals: (a) true. or (b) false. 4. (e). Choices (a) and (b) are included in Eq. (b) The high thermal conductivity of copper makes it difficult to weld because the heat flows away from the joint rather than being concentrated to permit melting of the metal. (b) contact area. (b) 4.1 Which one of the following metals has the lowest density? (a) aluminum. (b) 20 . and (f). (4. Time (f) figures into the process because it affects the concentration gradient. (c) density. (d) melting point. Answer.6 The mass diffusion rate dm/dt across a boundary between two different metals is a function of which of the following variables (more than one): (a) concentration gradient dc/dx. Answer. 4. (e) temperature. (a). For each question. To attain a perfect score on the quiz. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point. since each correct answer is worth 1 point. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers. Answer. In these cases. (c) polyethylene. (c) gold.7 Which of the following pure metals is the best conductor of electricity? (a) aluminum.

24.007854(10-6) m2 From Table 4. α = 24(10-6) mm/mm/°C L2 .4 With reference to Table 4.7 x 10-8 Ω-m2/m)(10 m)/( 0. Solution: Assume a 1 cm3 cube.20) -0.1.20) = 0.7 x 10-8 Ω-m2/m R = (1. the shaft must be reduced in diameter by cooling. r = 1. Determine the temperature to which the shaft must be reduced from room temperature (20°C) in order to reduce its diameter to 24.1.3.5 What is the resistance R of a length of copper wire whose length = 10 m and whose diameter = 0. Solution: R = rL/A. Answer.006 = 0. if the bar is heated from room temperature (70°F) to 500°F.0003(T2 .3 With reference to Table 4.04605 = 2.0 in.70/1.0 + 24(10-6)(1. A = π(0.2 Aluminum has a density of 2.1 The starting diameter of a shaft is 25. Revise Eq.4. Solution: Increase = (6.70 g/cm3 at room temperature (20°C). L2 = 1. (a) Problems 4.10 mm? Use Table 4. Determine its density at 650°C.0 in)(500°F .D1 = αD1 (T2 .T2).1) to D2 .00 mm. 4.04605 cm3 Assume weight remains the same.70°F) = 0. 4.21°C) = 158.196 J.65 Ω 21 .006 -.01512) 3 = 1.1 as a reference.20) = 1.0 cal = 4.193 cal.007854(10-6) m2) = 2164.1.02 = 300(10-6)(T2 .3 as a reference.0003T2 T2 = -46.1) 2/4 = 0. 1 cm on each side.00)(T2 .7 x 10-6 in/in/F)(10.0288 in.007854 mm2 = 0.01512 cm (L2 )3 = (1.581 g/cm3 4.00 = 12(10-6)(25. α = 12(10-6) mm/mm/°C according to Table 4. To be readily inserted. (4.184J.2. thus ρ at 650°C = 2. or (b) negative.67° C ° 4. determine the increase in length of a steel bar whose length = 10.L1 = αL1 (T2 . using data in Table 4. the anode is the electrode which is (a) positive.02 = 0.9 In an electrolytic cell. Solution: For steel. determine the quantity of heat required to increase the temperature of an aluminum block that is 10 cm x 10 cm x 10 cm from room temperature (21°C) to 300°C. From Table 4. Solution. Heat = (0.20) -0.25. This shaft is to be inserted into a hole in an expansion fit assembly operation.1.5(10-2) Ω = 21.98 .0.T2). Conversion: 1.0003T2 -0.02 + 0.0)(650 .21 cal/g-°C)(103 cm3)(2.014 = 0. so heat = 662.0003T2 .98 mm. Refer to Table 4.70 g/cm3)(300°C .

Surface texture is the random and repetitive deviations from the nominal surface. Roughness deviations lie within waviness deviations. 5. 5. Answer. while waviness refers to the deviations of larger spacing.5 5. Answer. Answer. (5.6 Within the scope of surface texture. including roughness. Surface roughness is defined as the average value of the vertical deviations from the nominal surface over a specified surface length. see Eqs. It is assumed perfectly smooth. Surface texture refers only to the surface geometry. perfectly round if referring to a round surface.3) in the text. What are some of the reasons why surfaces are important? Answer. how is roughness distinguished from waviness? Answer. lay. AND SURFACES What is a tolerance? Answer. 5. TOLERANCES. 5. 5. friction and wear. 5.8 What is the difference between AA and RMS in surface roughness measurement? Answer. Roughness consists of the finely-spaced deviations from the nominal surface.10 Identify some of the changes and injuries that can occur at or immediately below the surface of a metal. waviness.4 Define surface texture. etc.5 How is surface texture distinguished from surface integrity? Answer. Review Questions 5. and thermal electrical contacts.1) and (5. 5. mating of components in assembly. effect of surface on mechanical and physical properties.2 DIMENSIONS. (2) it does not indicate lay. AA and RMS are alternative methods by which the average roughness value is computed. perfectly flat if referring to a planar surface. safety. A tolerance is defined as the total amount by which a specified dimension is permitted to vary. surface integrity includes not only surface but the altered layers beneath the surface. The nominal surface is the ideal part surface represented on an engineering drawing. what does surface roughness mean? Answer.1 5. (3) its value depends on the roughness width cutoff L used to measure the average. Surface roughness measurement provides only a single value of surface texture. and flaws. 22 .9 Indicate some of the limitations of using surface roughness as a measure of surface texture.3 Define nominal surface.7 Surface roughness is a measurable aspect of surface texture. Among its limitations are: (1) it varies depending on direction. The reasons why surfaces are important include: aesthetics.

(c) 5. (a) AA or (b) RMS? Answer. and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point. (a). (b) feed marks of the tool that produced the surface. 5. (a) and (d).2 Which of the following two geometric terms have the same meaning? (a) circularity.1 A tolerance is which one of the following? (a) clearance between a shaft and a mating hole. since each correct answer is worth 1 point. metallurgical changes resulting from heat. and thermal cutting (e. Answer. (b) measurement error.. 5. residual stresses.13 Name some manufacturing processes that produce very good or excellent surface finishes. flame cutting). Answer.4 Which averaging method generally yields the higher value of surface roughness. (b).Answer. 23 . (e) recrystallization. Energy input resulting from the manufacturing process used to generate the surface. 5. chemical. Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 19 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct). all correct answers must be given. hot rolling. etc. (c) hardness variations. (b) concentricity.12 Name some manufacturing processes that produce very poor surface finishes.5 5. and (e) surface cracks. (b) hardness variations. (b). (b) 5. (c). The energy forms can be any of several types. including mechanical. and (d) roundness. (a) Thermal energy is normally associated with which of the following changes in the altered layer? (a) cracks. Answer. polishing. Answer. lapping. Answer. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers. (d) oil films. The changes and injuries include: cracks. and (e). sawing.11 What causes the various types of changes that occur in the altered layer just beneath the surface? Answer. and superfinishing. or (f) voids. 5.1). Processes that produce poor surfaces include: sand casting. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point. or (d) variation in manufacturing. variations in hardness near the surface. thermal. (c) cylindricity. To attain a perfect score on the quiz. and (e). 5. Answer. craters. intergranular attack. (see Table 5.3 Surface texture includes which of the following characteristics of a surface (may be more than one)? (a) deviations from the nominal surface. Answer. Processes that produced very good and excellent surfaces include: honing.6 Surface texture is included within the scope of surface integrity: (a) true or (b) false. For each question. (d) plastic deformation. (c) heat affected zone. and electrical. (c) total permissible variation from a specified dimension. 5.g.

(b) grinding.10 Which one of the following manufacturing processes will likely result in the worst surface finish? (a) cold rolling. (d) sand casting. (b) 5. or (e) sawing. (b) microstructure near the surface. (b) Which of the following are included within the scope of surface integrity? (a) chemical absorption. and (f) Which one of the following manufacturing processes will likely result in the best surface finish? (a) arc welding. (b) decrease. Also.5. (b) grinding.8 5. (d). or (e) sawing. Answer. Answer. Accept either answer. (c).9 5. (b). (c) microcracks beneath the surface. or (f) variation in tensile strength near the surface. (a). (e). 24 . Answer. sawing (e) will yield a poor finish. (d) sand casting. or (c) no effect.7 A better finish (lower roughness value) will tend to have which of the following effects on fatigue strength of a metal surface? (a) increase. (d) substrate microstructure. (c) machining. (c) machining. Answer. (e) surface roughness.

11 What are some of the mechanisms by which the alloying elements other than carbon strengthen steel.5 Distinguish between a substitutional solid solution and an interstitial solid solution. Ferrous metals. Mn.7 The copper-nickel system is a simple alloy system. and nonferrous. Cr. The carbon content ranges from 0. 25 . All of the alloying elements other than C strengthen the steel by solid solution alloying. Answer. The carbon content ranges from 2.3 6. An alloy is a metal comprised of two or more elements. and higher density than ceramics or polymers. good electrical and thermal conductivity. Cr and Mo improve hot hardness. What is the definition of an alloy? Answer. Why is it so simple? Answer. such as a metallic compound (e.g. Review Questions 6. Answer. What is the range of carbon percentages which defines an iron-carbon alloy as cast iron? Answer.11% to about 5%.1 6. The common alloying elements in low alloy steel are Cr.9 What is the range of carbon percentages which defines an iron-carbon alloy as a steel? Answer. Ni. at least one of which is metallic. we should also mention the most important. Mn. An intermediate phase is an alloy formed when the solubility limit of the base metal in the mixture is exceeded and a new phase. The Cu-Ni alloy system is simple because it is a solid solution alloy throughout its entire composition range. What are the two major groups of metals? Define them. Mo. and Ni increase hardenability during heat treatment.02% to 2. as indicated by its phase diagram. 6. 6. A solid solution is an alloy in which one of the metallic elements is dissolved in another to form a single phase. What is a solid solution in the context of alloys? Answer. 6. Fe 3C) or intermetallic compound (e. A substitutional solid solution is where the atoms of dissolved element replace atoms of the solution element in the lattice structure of the metal.g. Metallic properties include: high strength and stiffness. Answer. and V. Answer. An interstitial solid solution is where the dissolved atoms are small and fit into the vacant spaces (the interstices) in the lattice structure of the solvent metal. which is C. 6. Mo.6 6.4 METALS What are some of the general properties that distinguish metals from ceramics and polymers? Answer.2 6.11%. Mg2Pb) is formed. which are based on iron.6 What is an intermediate phase in the context of alloys? Answer..8 6.. 6. which includes all others.10 Identify some of the common alloying elements other than carbon in low alloy steels.

It is called austenitic because this alloy exists in its austenitic phase at room temperature. 6. it can be alloyed and strengthened by methods similar to those used for aluminum alloys to achieve respectable strength-to-weight ratios. (2) for plating of steel to resist corrosion. (b) zinc.15 Besides high carbon content. Magnesium is noted for its very low density (lightest of the structural metals).17 What are some of the noteworthy properties of magnesium? Answer.19 What elements are traditionally alloyed with copper to form (a) bronze and (b) brass? Answer. 6. and (3) to form nickel-based alloys noted for high-temperature performance and corrosion resistance. Silicon. however. 6. Aluminum is noted for its low density..12 What is the mechanism by which carbon strengthens steel in the absence of heat treatment? Answer. 6. Mo. If no heat treatment carbon strengthens by creating a two-phase structure in the steel. Titanium is noted for its high strength-to-weight ratio. Vanadium inhibits grain growth during heat treatment which improves strength and toughness. Its high electrical conductivity.21 What are the noteworthy properties of titanium? Answer.18 What is the most important engineering property of copper which determines most of its applications? Answer. 6.zinc is an easy metal to cast. Chromium. corrosion resistance (due to the formation of a thin but tough oxide film). which increases wear resistance.13 What is the predominant alloying element in all of the stainless steels? Answer. The reason is that nickel has the effect of enlarging the austenitic temperature range to include room temperature. what other alloying element is characteristic of the cast irons? Answer.Several of the alloying elements (Cr.g. Answer.23 What important alloy is formed from lead and tin? 26 . 6. good corrosion resistance due to the formation of a tough oxide film on its surface. V) form hard carbides with C. propensity to oxidize (which can cause problems in processing). and high temperature strength.14 Why is austenitic stainless steel called by that name? Answer.16 Identify some of the properties for which aluminum is noted? Answer. The important applications are: (1) die castings . high electrical and thermal conductivity. The important applications are: (1) as an alloying ingredient in steel. stainless steel. 6. and low strength. 6. e. and ability to be alloyed and strengthened to achieve good strength-to-weight ratios. 6. 6. 6.20 What are some of the important applications of nickel? Answer. (a) tin.22 Identify some of the important applications of zinc. (2) as a coating in galvanized steel. (3) as an alloying element with copper to form brass. formability. 6.

or (e) ionic bonding. Name the three groups. The three basic methods are: (1) alloying to form solid solutions and two-phase structures which are stronger than the elemental metals.25 (a) Name the four principal noble metals. and tungsten (W). Answer. in which the strain-hardened metal is stronger and harder than the unstrained metal. and (3) cobalt-based alloys. (b) high strength. (c) iron. 6. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers. (2) nickel-based alloys.28 What are the three basic methods by which metals can be strengthened? Answer.most of the commercial heat treatments are designed to increase the strength of the metal. (2) cold working. (b) What does the term refractory mean? Answer.Answer. (d) high stiffness. Answer. (d) magnesium. or (e) gamma. and (3) heat treatment . since each correct answer is worth 1 point. Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 23 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct). Answer. (c) delta. 6. To attain a perfect score on the quiz.1 Which of the following properties or characteristics are inconsistent with the metals (more than one)? (a) good thermal conductivity. Solder. tantalum (Ta). (a) 6. The superalloys are generally distinguished by their strength and resistance to corrosion and oxidation at elevated temperatures.26 The superalloys divide into three basic groups. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point. and silver. (a) The refractory metals include columbium (Cb). (c) high electrical resistivity. (d) 27 .24 (a) Name the important refractory metals. The three groups are: (1) iron-based alloys. For each question. 6. molybdenum (Mo).27 What is so special about the superalloys? What distinguishes them from other alloys? Answer. all correct answers must be given. (b) cementite. Answer.3 The predominant phase in the iron-carbon alloy system for a composition with 99% Fe at room temperature is which of the following? (a) austenite. (d) ferrite. and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point. (c) and (e). or (e) silicon. (b) copper. (b) Refractory means the capability to withstand high temperature service. 6. 6. 6. (a) The principal noble metals are copper. (b) Nobel metals are so-named because they are chemically inactive.2 Which of the metallic elements is the most abundant on the earth? (a) aluminum. gold. according to the base metal used in the alloy. Mo and W are the most important. (b) Why are they called noble metals? Answer. platinum. 6.

(a). (b) Which of the following elements is the most important alloying ingredient in steel? (a) carbon. (a) Which of the following is not a common alloying ingredient in steel? (a) chromium. Answer. (c) gold. (b) 6. Answer. (c) hypereutectoid. (c) 6. 6. (b) gray cast iron. (a) 6. (c) molybdenum. Answer. (b) 6.16 Traditional brass is an alloy of which of the following metallic elements? (a) aluminum.8 6. (d) molybdenum. or (e) vanadium. (c) tin.11 Which of the following is the most important cast iron commercially? (a) ductile cast iron. Answer.7 6. (c).5 6. (a) and (d). (c) gold. (b) 6. (b) hypoeutectoid. or (e) tungsten. (c) The strength and hardness of steel increases as carbon content increases: (a) true of (b) false.15 Which of the following metals possess good electrical conductivity (more than one)? (a) aluminum. (b) manganese.13 Which of the following metals has the highest density? (a) gold. (d) tin. (c) platinum. 6.9 6. or (d) white cast iron. (d) 12XX.10 Which of the following alloying elements are most commonly associated with stainless steel (name two)? (a) chromium. or (d) wrought iron. or (e) 30XX. (a) Plain carbon steels are designated in the AISI code system by which of the following? (a) 01XX. (b) manganese.14 From which of the following ores is aluminum derived? (a) alumina. (c) nickel. (b). (e) Solid solution alloying is the principal strengthening mechanism in high-strength low-alloy (HSLA) steels: (a) true or (b) false.0% carbon is known as which of the following: (a) eutectoid. (e) zinc. or (d) titanium. (b) copper. Answer. (d) silver. (b) copper. Answer. Answer. 28 . (d) vanadium. (d) hematite. (b) lead. Answer. and (d). Answer. (b) 10XX. and (e) tungsten. (b) bauxite. Answer. (d) silver.6.6 6. (c) cementite. Answer. (c) malleable iron. (e) zinc. or (e) tungsten. Answer.4 A steel with 1.12 Which of the following metals has the lowest density? (a) aluminum. (c) nickel. (b) chromium. (c) 11XX. or (e) scheelite. (d) nickel. (b) magnesium.

6 Using the lead-tin phase diagram in Figure 6. Solution: From Fig 6.5 = 0.3 For the lead-tin phase diagram of Figure 6. or (e) zinc.3.3. measured values of CL and CS are: CL = 5 mm. (c) magnesium.82% Pb.3. is it possible to design a solder (lead-tin alloy) with a melting point of 260°C (500°F). 6.8/13 = 0.3.1 For the copper-nickel phase diagram in Figure 6.2.8 mm.5) = 15/25. (b) and (e). (d) tin. measured values of CL and CS are: CL = 10. CS = 4. CS = 15 mm. if the lead-tin proportion is 67%-33%. the compositions are observed as follows: Liquid phase composition = 56% Sn . determine the liquid and solid phase compositions for a nominal composition of 90% Sn and 10% Pb at 204°C (400°F).5 For the preceding problem. α phase composition = 18% Sn .5 mm. β phase composition = 98% Sn .32 α phase proportion = 7. Solution: From Fig 6. CS = 12 mm. Answer. measured values of CL and CS are: CL = 7.68 29 . (d) Problems 6.59 α phase proportion = 10. the compositions are observed as follows: Liquid phase composition = 65% Ni .41 6. 6. Solution: From Fig 6.2% Pb.71 Solid phase proportion = 5/17 = 0. Solution: From Fig 6.35% Cu.3.5/25.17% Cu.5 = 0. Solution: From Fig 6. If so. the compositions are observed as follows: Liquid phase composition = 78% Sn . determine the liquid and solid phase compositions for a nominal composition of 40% Sn and 60% Pb at 204°C (400°F). (b) lead. use the inverse lever rule to determine the proportions of liquid and solid phases present in the alloy. Liquid phase proportion = 4.22% Pb. use the inverse lever rule to determine the proportions of liquid and solid phases present in the alloy.2. 6.29 6.Answer. Liquid phase proportion = 12/(12 + 5) = 12/17 = 0.3.17 Which of the following has the lowest melting point? (a) aluminum. Solution: From Fig 6.7 For the preceding problem.3.4 Using the lead-tin phase diagram in Figure 6.2/(13) = 0.44% Pb. Liquid phase proportion = 15/(15 + 10.2. find the compositions of the liquid and solid phases for a nominal composition of 70% Ni and 30% Cu at 1371°C (2500°F). what would be its nominal composition? Solution: It is possible to obtain such a solder.2 mm. 6. 6. use the inverse lever rule to determine the proportions of liquid and solid phases present in the alloy.2 For the preceding problem. Solid phase composition = 83% Ni .

4.6.8 In the iron-iron carbide phase diagram of Figure 6. and (c) gamma. Solution: (a) Alpha + iron carbide. (b) 760°C (1400°F) and 2% Fe 3C. (b) gamma + iron carbide. and (c) 1095°C (2000°F) and 1% Fe 3C. identify the phase or phases present at the following temperatures and nominal compositions: (a) 650°C (1200°F) and 2% Fe 3C. 30 .

7.2 7. A ceramic is an inorganic.1 7.6 7. Because they are not compounds. Glass is noncrystalline (amorphous). Glazing involves the application of a surface coating of oxides such as alumina and silica. 7. they are alternative forms of the element carbon. oxides. They are both minerals of alumina. carbides). Answer. thermal expansion usually less than metals. nonmetallic compound. The term is sometimes also applied to metals that are heat resistant. What are the general physical properties of ceramic materials? Answer. Refractories are heat resistant ceramic materials. What are the general mechanical properties of ceramic materials? Answer. while most other ceramics assume a crystalline structure.8 7. What do bauxite and corundum have in common? Answer. aluminum. used in making ceramic products? Answer. usually to a porous ceramic product such as earthenware. pottery. to make the product more impervious to moisture and more attractive.9 What type of atomic bonding characterizes the ceramics? Answer.10 What is clay. Usually electrical and thermal insulators. as applied to ceramics? Answer.g. Usually high hardness. medium density (typically below the density of metals).11 What is glazing.. high melting temperatures. silicon. What is the difference between the traditional ceramics and the new ceramics? Answer.12 What does the term refractory mean? Answer. 7. brittle. 7.5 7. 7. What are the four most common elements in the earth's crust? Answer. and iron. Traditional ceramics are based primarily on clay products (e. usually formed into useful products by a heating process. 31 .3 CERAMICS What is a ceramic is.. the usually kaolinite (Al2(Si2O5)(OH)4).7 7.4 What is the feature that distinguishes glass from the traditional and new ceramics? Answer.g. Oxygen. bricks) while new ceramics are more recently developed ceramics which are generally simpler in chemical composition (e. no ductility.7 Why are graphite and diamond not classified as ceramics? Answer. Clay most commonly consists of hydrous aluminum silicate. Review Questions 7. Covalent and ionic bonding.

Answer. aluminum.17 What is the primary mineral in glass products? Answer. 7. For each question. (d) 7. or silicon dioxide (SiO 2). 7.14 What is one of the important applications of titanium nitride. Silica. Answer.1 Which one of the following is the most common element in the earth's crust? (a) aluminum. (b) calcium. dies for powder metallurgy. all correct answers must be given. Answer. Answer.. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point. and (7) altering the index of refraction for optics applications (e. or (e) silicon. Graphite is carbon in the form of hexagonal crystalline layers. and other applications where hardness is a critical factor. basic substances. (2) increasing fluidity in the molten glass during processing. (5) increasing the chemical resistance against attack by acids. To attain a perfect score on the quiz. (d) kaolinite. oxygen. Glass is an inorganic. lenses).7.13 What are some of the principal applications of the cemented carbides. and the (parallel) layers are bonded by van der Waals forces. Devitrification is the transformation from the glassy state into a polycrystalline state. (c) feldspar. thus leading to highly anisotropic properties.20 What is graphite? Answer. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers. 7. 7. such as WC-Co? Answer. (3) retarding devitrification . 7. and nitrogen.16 Define glass. Silicon. (e) 32 . (c) iron. Important applications of WC-Co include: cutting tool inserts. nonmetallic material which cools to a rigid solid without crystallization. 7.18 What are some of the functions of the ingredients that are added to glass in addition to silica.the tendency to crystallize from the glassy state. or (e) silica. 7.19 What does the term devitrification mean? Answer. As a thin coating on cutting tools to prolong tool life. rock drilling bits.15 What elements comprise the ceramic material Sialon? Answer. drawing dies. (d) oxygen. in which covalent bonding exists between atoms in the layers. or water. (6) adding color to the glass. (b) corundum. The functions of the additional ingredients include: (1) acting as flux (promoting fusion) during heating. since each correct answer is worth 1 point. (4) reducing thermal expansion in the final product. Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 18 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct).g.2 Glass products are based primarily on which one of the following minerals? (a) alumina. as mentioned in the text? Answer. and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point. 7.

9 Which one of the following materials is closest to diamond in hardness? (a) aluminum oxide. (b) carbon dioxide. (d) 8. Glass ceramics are glasses that have been transformed into a mostly crystalline form through heat treatment.8 7. Answer. (a) and (d). relative to other ceramics. or (d) strong. (c) 33 . (c) Which one of the following comes closest to expressing the chemical composition of clay? (a) Al2O3. (c) 1950s. (a) 7. (c) porcelain.6 7. (a) and (d) Which one of the following is generally the most porous of the clay-based pottery ware? (a) china. or (d) 1980.0 (b) 2. Answer. (c) cubic boron nitride. (b) earthenware. 7. or (e) silicon dioxide. or (b) false. (b) 1800s. (c) porcelain. Answer. or (e) tungsten carbide. (a) 7. (b). or (d) stoneware.3 Which of the following contains significant amounts of aluminum oxide (more than one)? (a) alumina.10 Which of the following best characterizes the structure of glass-ceramics? (a) 95% polycrystalline. (c) high thermal expansion. or (e) 16. or (b) false. Answer. Answer.12 Diamond is the hardest material known: (a) true.0. (d) silicon dioxide. Answer. Which of the following ceramics are commonly used as abrasives in grinding wheels (two best answers)? (a) aluminum oxide. or (b) 50% polycrystalline. Answer. (d) quartz.13 The specific gravity of graphite is closest to which one of the following: (a) 1.4 7. Answer. (b) Glass ceramics are polycrystalline ceramic structures that have been transformed into the glassy state: (a) true. and (c). (b) Al2(Si2O5)(OH)4. or (e) SiO 2. (c) 7.5 7.0. (b) calcium oxide. Answer. (c) 4. (b) 95% vitreous. (b) Which of the following is fired at the highest temperatures? (a) china.0. (b) electrical conductor. (c) 3AL2O3-2SiO2. Answer. or (e) sandstone.11 Properties and characteristics of the glass-ceramics include which of the following (may be more than one)? (a) efficiency in processing. (d) silicon carbide.7. Answer. (b) 7. Answer. or (d) stoneware.0. (b) earthenware. (d) MgO. (c) carbon monoxide. (b) It's reversed in the statement. (b) bauxite.14 Synthetic diamonds date to: (a) ancient times. (c) corundum. 7. (a).7 7.

In addition. An example is ABS (acrylonitrile-butadiene-styrene) plastic. polymers have lower strength.8 What is a copolymer? Answer. density.1 8. also known as condensation polymerization.3 POLYMERS What is a polymer? Answer. if cross-linking is significant. The categories are: (1) thermoplastics. Answer. Review Questions 8. and (3) elastomers. 8. polymers are low in electrical and thermal conductivity. hardness. The molecules consist of repeating units. A polymer is a compound that consists of long-chain molecules. 8. (2) random. 8. and (4) graft. Tacticity refers to the way the atoms or atom groups replacing H atoms in the molecule are arranged. What are some of the possible arrangements? Answer. See Article 10. Cross-linking is the formation of connections between the long-chain molecules in a polymer. The two types of polymerization are: (1) addition or chain polymerization and (2) step polymerization. such as ethylene and propylene. A copolymer is a polymer made up of two different types of mers. 8. In general. See Article 10.9 The arrangement of repeating units in a copolymer can vary.5 What does the degree of polymerization indicate? Answer.10 What is a terpolymer? Answer. stiffness. the polymer is transformed into a thermosetting polymer. There are four possible arrangements of the mers along the chain: (1) alternating.7 What is cross-linking in a polymer and what is its significance? Answer. connected end to end.4 What are the two methods by which polymerization occurs? Briefly describe the two methods.1. Answer.8 8. A terpolymer is a polymer with three different mer types. and temperature resistance compared to metals.1 for descriptions. called mers. 8. (2) thermosetting polymers. 8. the polymer is transformed into an elastomer.2 8. The degree of polymerization indicates the average number of mers or repeating units in the polymer molecule. How do the properties of polymers compare with those of metals? Answer.6 Define the term tacticity as it applies to polymers. (3) block. If the amount of cross-linking is low.11 How are a polymer's properties affected when it takes on a crystalline structure? 34 . 8.1.4 for descriptions. It causes the polymer structure to be permanently altered. What are the three basic categories of polymers? Answer.

and syndiotactic polymers sometimes form crystals. (3) stereoregularity . 8. Answer. it becomes increasingly like a liquid as temperature continues to increase. 8. LDPE has a branched structure and is amorphous.to reduce friction and improve flow. Polyamides. Name the three ways. 35 . 8.15 What is a plasticizer? Answer. and ultraviolet light absorbers. 8. Wood fiber contains about 50% cellulose and cotton fiber is about 95% cellulose.17 Describe the difference in mechanical properties as a function of temperature between a highly crystalline thermoplastic and an amorphous thermoplastic.13 What are some of the factors that influence a polymer's tendency to crystallize? Answer. 8.12 Does any polymer ever become 100% crystalline? Answer. It is often added to improve the polymer's flow characteristics for shaping.21 What is the basic difference between low density and high density polyethylene? Answer. and (6) stretching the polymer tends to promote crystallization. An amorphous TP shows a significant drop in deformation resistance at its Tg as temperature is raised. 8. colorants. and melting point.16 In addition to fillers and plasticizers. Fillers are added to increase strength or simply to reduce the cost of the polymer. (2) copolymers do not form crystals. Cellulose is a polymer that grows in nature. Density. flame retardents. 8.19 The nylons are members of which polymer group? Answer.22 How do the properties of thermosetting polymers differ from those of thermoplastics? Answer. Thermosets are more rigid. and cannot be remelted. 8. Factors are: (1) only linear polymers can form crystals. A highly crystalline TP retains rigidity during heating until just before its Tm is reached. what are some other additives used with polymers? Answer. 8. stiffness. stiffness. atactic polymers never form crystals. the monomer for polyethylene? Answer. C2H4 8. brittle.isotactic polymers always form crystals. A plasticizer is a chemical added to the polymer to make it softer and more flexible. capable of higher service temperatures. and melting temperature increase.23 Cross-linking (curing) of thermosetting plastics is accomplished by one of three ways.18 What is unique about the polymer cellulose? Answer. No. 8. (5) plasticizers inhibit crystal formation. 8. Other additives include: lubricants . (4) slow cooling from the molten states promotes crystal formation. HDPE is linear and highly crystalline. cross-linking agents.14 Why are fillers added to a polymer? Answer.Answer. antioxidants. These differences account for HDPE higher density.20 What is the chemical formula of ethylene.

(b) thermosets. Why are their properties so different? Answer. 8. An elastomer is hard and brittle below its Tg. Answer.3 Which one of the three polymer types does not involve cross. 8.5 Which of the following is the chemical formula for the repeating unit in polyethylene? (a) CH2. or (e) C8H8.1 Of the three polymer types. the polymer becomes denser and stiffer. all correct answers must be given. (b) thermosets.2 Which one of the three polymer types is not normally considered to be a plastic? (a) thermoplastics. Answer. whereas thermosets are highly cross-linked. 8. and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point. (c) C3H6. since each correct answer is worth 1 point. Answer. To attain a perfect score on the quiz.25 What happens to an elastomer when it is below its glass transition temperature? Answer.Answer. in which elevated temperatures accomplish curing. (a) 8. and (2) their extensibility derives from physical connections between different phases in the polymer.24 Elastomers and thermosetting polymers are both cross. or (c) elastomers. a highly cross-linked structure makes the polymer rigid. Answer. (b) C2H4. 8.4 As the degree of crystallinity in a given polymer increases.26 What is the primary polymer ingredient in natural rubber? Answer. in which small amounts of a catalyst cause cross-linking. or (c) elastomers. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point. Answer. Elastomers are lightly cross-linked. 8.linking? (a) thermoplastics. which one is the most important commercially? (a) thermoplastics. (a) 8. (2) catalyst-activated systems. (b) 36 . For each question. (c) 8. The three ways are: (1) temperature-activated systems. and (3) mixing-activated systems. and its melting temperature decreases: (a) true or (b) false. 8. Light cross-linking allows extensibility. (b) Melting temperature increases with higher degree of crystallinity. Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 25 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct). (d) C5H8. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers. in which two reactive components are mixed and curing occurs by their chemical reaction. (b) thermosets.linked.27 How are thermoplastic elastomers different from conventional rubbers? Answer. TPEs are different in two basic ways: (1) they exhibit thermoplastic properties. or (c) elastomers. Polyisoprene.

(a). Answer. (a) 8.17 Polyurethanes can be which of the following (more than one): (a) thermoplastic. (b) decreases. 8. (e) polyethylene.15 The basic difference between low density polyethylene and high density polyethylene is that the latter has a much higher degree of crystallinity: (a) true or (b) false. (a) A branched molecular structure is stronger in the solid state and more viscous in the molten state than a linear structure for the same polymer: (a) true or (b) false.12 Which of the following polymers are normally thermoplastic (more than one): (a) acrylics. Answer. (b) phenolics. (c) silicones. (b) 8. (b) cellulose acetate. 8.14 The fiber rayon used in textiles is based on which of the following polymers: (a) cellulose. or (c) elastomeric. or (f) polyurethane.16 Among the thermosetting polymers. Answer.9 8. transparent. Answer. (b). (d) polyethylene. and brittle: (a) true or (b) false.10 Which answers complete the following sentence correctly (more than one): As the temperature of an amorphous thermoplastic polymer is gradually reduced. Answer. or (e) polypropylene. (d) polychloroprene. (c) the slope of specific volume versus temperature changes markedly. Answer.8 8. (d) polystyrene. (a) A copolymer is a mixture consisting of macromolecules of two different homopolymers: (a) true or (b) false.6 Degree of polymerization is which one of the following? (a) average number of mers in the molecule chain. (c) polyester. the glass transition temperature Tg is indicated when (a) the polymer transforms to a crystalline structure. (c) nylon. (c) and (d). or (c) remains fairly constant. (c) polypropylene. the most widely used commercially is which of the following: (a) epoxies. (b) As temperature of a polymer increases.11 Which of the following plastics has the highest market share? (a) phenolics. Answer. 37 . Answer. (b) thermosetting. Answer. (a) 8.8. (b) 8. (c) sum of the molecule weights of the mers in the molecule. (b) 8. (b) proportion of the monomer that has been polymerized.13 Polystyrene (without plasticizers) is amorphous.7 8. (d) the polymer becomes stiff. and (e). or (e) polyvinylchloride. (a) 8. or (d) urethanes. strong. Answer. or (d) none of the above. (b) nylon. and elastic. Answer. (b) the coefficient of thermal expansion increases markedly. (b) polyethylene. or (e) the polymer solidifies from the molten state. its density (a) increases. (c).

19 The leading commercial synthetic rubber is which of the following: (a) butyl rubber. (d) C5H8. Answer. (b) C2H4.18 The chemical formula for polyisoprene in natural rubber is which of the following: (a) CH2.Answer. (d) polyurethane. and (c). (b). (d) 8. (e) styrene-butadiene rubber. (b) isoprene rubber. (a). (e) 38 . 8. or (f) thermoplastic elastomers. or (e) C8H8. Answer. (c) C3H6. (c) polybutadiene.

such as wood. 9. and (3) an infiltrated phase in skeletal structures. Typical properties include: (1) high strength-to.9 9. A whisker is a thin. (2) particles and flakes. (3) anisotropic properties in many cases. 9. honeycomb sandwich structures. Answer. Answer. Review Questions 9. in which the core is polymer foam between two solid skins. and polymer matrix composites (PMCs). 9. hairlike crystal of very high strength. 9. A composite material is a materials system consisting of two or more distinct phases whose combination results in properties that differ from those of its constituents. ceramic matrix composites (CMCs). Answer. The two forms are: (1) foamed-core sandwich. 9.3 What does the term anisotropic mean? Answer.4 How are traditional composites distinguished from synthetic composites? Answer. and windshield glass. Metal matrix composites (MMCs).2 are: automotive tires. What are the two forms of sandwich structure among laminar composite structures? Briefly describe each. plywood. Traditional composites have been used for decades or centuries. Synthetic composites are manufactured.5 Name the three basic categories of composite materials.6 What are the common forms of the reinforcing phase in composite materials? Answer. ceramics.9 Give some examples of commercial products which are laminar composite structures. and (4) other properties and features that are difficult or impossible to obtain with metals.10 What are the three general factors that determine the properties of a composite material? 39 . Anisotropic means that the properties of a material vary depending on the direction in which they are measured.8 What is a whisker? Answer. printed circuit boards. Identify some of the characteristic properties of composite materials.1 9. in which the core is a honeycomb structure sandwiched between two solid skins. some of them are obtained from sources in nature. and (2) honeycomb. snow skis made from fiber reinforced polymers. The forms are: (1) fibers.weight and stiffness-to-weight ratios. 9. (2) good fatigue properties and toughness.2 COMPOSITE MATERIALS What is a composite material? Answer. fiber reinforced polymer structures such as boat hulls. Examples given in Table 9. Answer.7 9. or polymers alone.

low density. Yes.12 What is a cermet? Answer. FRPs are used in modern aircraft as skin parts. although the cemented carbide industry does not generally think of cemented carbides as cermets.15 What is the most common fiber material in fiber-reinforced plastics? Answer. The rule of mixtures applies to certain properties of composite materials.14 What are some of the weaknesses of ceramics that might be corrected in fiber-reinforced ceramic matrix composites? Answer. high modulus-to-weight ratio.reinforced plastic composite materials. 9.17 What is a hybrid composite? Answer. since each correct answer is worth 1 point. 9.19 Name some of the important applications of FRPs. Answer. and susceptibility to thermal cracking. they fit within the definition. A cermet is a composite material consisting of a ceramic and a metal. Kevlar. 9. and (3) the interaction of the phases.Answer. 9.and the resulting structure of the material. Properties include: high strength-to-weight ratio. Answer. E-glass.11 What is the rule of mixtures? Answer. and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required 40 . boat hulls. the weighting being by proportions of the components in the composite. all correct answers must be given. automobile body panels. 9. In the text.13 Cemented carbides are what class of composites? Answer. The interface is the boundary between the component phases in a composite material. (2) the geometric shapes of the constituents . tennis rackets.the reinforcing phase in particular . or boron fibers are used as the reinforcing material. 9.18 Identify some of the important properties of fiber. 9. Weaknesses of ceramics include: low tensile strength. An advanced composite is a PMC in which carbon. good fatigue strength.16 What does the term advanced composites mean? Answer. it states that the property value is a weighted average of the property values of the components. Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 22 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct). A hybrid composite is a fiber-reinforced PMC in which two or more fibers materials are combined in the FRP. Three factors are given in the text: (1) the component materials. poor toughness. 9.20 What is meant by the term interface in the context of composite materials? Answer. printed circuit boards. For each question. and a variety of other items. it is defined as a composite consisting of ceramic grains imbedded in a metallic matrix. To attain a perfect score on the quiz. 9. good corrosion resistance. and low thermal expansion for many FRPs. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point. 9.

and (e). (a) 9. (c) plywood. or (c) thermosets.1 Anisotropic means which one of the following: (a) composite materials with composition consisting of more than two materials. (b) copper. (c) iron. (f) wood. Answer. (e) nickel.11 Identify which of the following materials are composites (more than one)? (a) cemented carbide. 9. or (f) toughness. (b) 9. (e) rubber in automobile tires. (c).10 Which one of the following is the most common reinforcing material in FRPs? (a) Al2O3. (g) 9. Answer. (c) carbon. (c) 9. or (d) strength and other properties as a function of curing temperature. or (g) SiO 2. Answer. and (g) unsaturated polyester. (d) modulus of elasticity. (d). (e). Answer. (e) and (f). Answer. (f) S-glass. Answer. (e) graphite. (c) particles. (b) chromium. Answer. (a). (c) properties vary depending on the direction in which they are measured. (c) 9. or (g) tungsten carbide. (c) cobalt. 9. (b) MMC.7 Which of the following metals is used as the matrix metal in nearly all WC cemented carbides? (a) aluminum. (e) titanium. (b) properties are the same in every direction. or (d) infiltrated phase. (f) Kevlar 49. 41 . Answer.8 Ceramic matrix composites are designed to overcome which of the following weaknesses of ceramics (more than one)? (a) compressive strength. (d) Portland cement. and (f). Answer. (e) tensile strength. (b) boron. or (f) zinc.6 Which of the following metals are most commonly used as the matrix material in fiber-reinforced MMCs (name three)? (a) aluminum. (c) hot hardness. (d) cobalt. (a). (b) hardness. (b) flakes.2 The reinforcing phase is the matrix within which the secondary phase is imbedded: (a) true or (b) false.reduces the score by 1 point.9 Which of the following polymer types are most commonly used in polymer matrix composites? (a) elastomers.3 Which one of the following reinforcing geometries offers the greatest potential for strength and stiffness improvement in the resulting composite material? (a) fibers. (b). (c) carbon/graphite. (d) magnesium. (f) tungsten. or (g) 1020 steel. Answer. (b) boron. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers. (e) Kevlar 49. (b) thermoplastics. (c) Which of the following materials are used as fibers in fiber-reinforced plastics (more than one): (a) aluminum oxide.4 9. (d) epoxy. 9. 9.5 Wood is which one of the following composite types? (a) CMC. (c) 9. (b) phenolic molding compound. (d) lead. or (c) PMC.

42 . (b). (e).Answer. and (f). (c). (a).

and (5) environmental problems.5 10. The term also refers to the amount of heat that is removed from the molten metal between pouring and solidification. Which casting process is the most important commercially? Answer. or continuity equation. (3) very large parts are possible. 10.4 What is a factory that performs casting operations usually called? Answer. Answer. (4) applicable to any metal that can be melted. 10. A foundry. with a passageway (called the gating system) leading from the outside to the cavity. and (5) some casting processes are suited to mass production. (4) safety hazards due to handling of hot metals.6 10. The most important casting process is sand casting.2 What are some of the limitations and disadvantages of casting? Answer.10 What is the continuity law as it applies to the flow of molten metal in casting? Answer. while a core determines its internal geometry. What is the difference between an open mold and a closed mold? Answer. 10.7 Name the two basic mold types that distinguish casting processes. Answer. Turbulence causes several problems: (1) accelerates formation of oxides in the solidified metal. A closed mold has a cavity that is entirely enclosed by the mold. The two types are: (1) expendable molds and (2) permanent molds. Advantages include: (1) complex part geometries are possible. 10.10 10. 10.1 FUNDAMENTALS OF METAL CASTING Identify some of the important advantages of shape casting processes. What is the difference between a pattern and a core in sand molding? Answer. and (2) mold erosion or gradual wearing away of the mold due to impact of molten metal.3 10. meaning that no further manufacturing operations are needed to accomplish the final part shape. Superheat is the temperature difference above the melting point at which the molten metal is poured. The continuity law.8 What is meant by the term superheat? Answer. An open mold is open to the atmosphere at the top. Disadvantages include: (1) limitations on mechanical strength properties. (3) poor dimensional accuracy. Review Questions 10. (2) porosity. it is an open container in the desired shape which must be flat at the top. indicates that the volumetric flow rate is constant throughout the liquid flow. The pattern determines the external shape of the casted part.9 Why should turbulent flow of molten metal into the mold be avoided? Answer. (2) some casting operations are net shape processes. Molten metal is poured into this gating system to fill the mold. 43 .

and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point. 10. A eutectic alloy is a particular composition in an alloy system for which the solidus and liquidus temperatures are equal.10. Answer. V = volume of casting. 10. Hence. (3) viscosity of liquid metal.12 What does heat of fusion mean in casting? Answer. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point.2 10. Factors include: (1) pouring temperature. The temperature is called the eutectic temperature.15 What is the relationship known as Chvorinov's Rule in casting? Answer. or (b) drag.14 What is a eutectic alloy? Answer. 10. where TST = total solidification time. (b) 44 . a flask is which one of the following? (a) beverage bottle for foundrymen. or (d) metal which extrudes between the mold halves. where the liquidus is a higher temperature than the solidus. (b) box which holds the cope and drag. 10. 10. (c) container for holding liquid metal. and (4) heat transfer to the surroundings. Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 13 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct). For each question. Chvorinov's Rule is summarized: TST = Cm(V/A)2. and A = surface area of casting.1 10. and (3) thermal contraction in the solid state.3 Sand casting is which of the following types? (a) expendable mold.16 Identify the three sources of contraction in a metal casting after pouring. Heat of fusion is the amount of heat energy required to transform the metal from solid state to liquid state. (2) metal alloy composition. 10. Cm = constant. 10. To attain a perfect score on the quiz. (2) solidification shrinkage during transformation of state from liquid to solid. Answer. Answer. (a) The upper half of a sand casting mold is called which of the following? (a) cope. since each correct answer is worth 1 point. A chill is a heat sink placed to encourage rapid freezing in certain regions of the casting. The three contractions occur due to: (1) contraction of the molten metal after pouring. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers.13 How does solidification of alloys differ from solidification of pure metals? Answer.17 What is a chill in casting? Answer. Pure metals solidify at a single temperature equal to the melting point. Answer.11 What are some of the factors affecting the fluidity of a molten metal during pouring into a mold cavity? Answer. Most alloys (exceptions are eutectic alloys) start to solidify at the liquidus and complete solidification at the solidus. solidification occurs at a single temperature. rather than over a temperature range. all correct answers must be given. (a) In casting. or (b) permanent mold.

Answer. Assume the specific heat has the same value for solid and molten aluminum. (d) source of molten metal to feed the casting and compensate for shrinkage during solidification.3 J/g.2 in this text.3 cm3 45 .10 Problems Heating and Pouring 10. (d) Chvorinov's Rule states that total solidification time is proportional to which one of the following quantities? (a) (A/V)n. and V = volume of casting. and (e).1 and 4. (a) Total solidification time is defined as which one of the following? (a) time between pouring and complete solidification. (c) Tm. (b) ingot segregation. (d) mushy zone. The heat of fusion of aluminum = 389. (b) gating system in which the sprue feeds directly into the cavity. (c) time between solidification and cooling to room temperature. Assume that the amount of aluminum heated will be 5% more than needed to fill the mold cavity. (b) open riser. (f) A riser in casting is described by which of the following (may be more than one answer)? (a) an insert in the casting that inhibits buoyancy of the core. (e) V/A. Solution: Volume V = πD2h/4= π(40) 2(5)/4 = 6283.9 10. (b) foundryman who moves the molten metal to the mold. Answer. or (e) solidus. where A = surface area of casting. starting from a room temperature of 25°C.05) = 6597. Other properties can be obtained from Tables 4.10.2 cm3 Volume of aluminum to be heated = 6283. and (d) top riser. (b) A riser that is completely enclosed within the sand mold and connected to the main cavity by a channel to feed the molten metal is called which of the following (may be more than one)? (a) blind riser. (c) side riser. or (c) vertical channel into which molten metal is poured into the mold. (c). or (c) smaller. Answer. Hf = heat of fusion.4 In foundry work.6 10. (b) Hf. (a) and (c).1 A disk 40 cm in diameter and 5 cm thick is to be casted of pure aluminum in an open mold operation. and (e) waste metal that is usually recycled. (d). the solid-liquid mixture is referred to as whic h one of the following? (a) eutectic composition. Answer. (c) metal that is not part of the casting.7 10. or (d) time to give up the heat of fusion. (d) V. (b) greater. (b) time between pouring and cooling to room temperature. the V/A ratio of the riser should be which one of the following relative to the V/A ratio of the casting itself? (a) equal. Answer. Answer. a runner is which one of the following? (a) channel in the mold leading from the downsprue to the main mold cavity.2(1. In a sand casting mold. 10.8 10. Answer. or (f) (V/A)2.5 10. Compute the amount of heat that must be added to the metal to heat it to the pouring temperature. Tm = melting temperature. The melting temperature of aluminum = 660°C and the pouring temperature will be 800°C. (c) liquidus. (a) During solidification of an alloy when a mixture of solid and liquid metals are present.

5 = 68.093 Btu/lbm-F in the solid state and 0. The cross-section of the sprue is round. It is desired to maintain a constant flow rate.26 + 80 + 15. (12.71{558.0 l/s = 1. Compute the amount of heat that must be added to the metal to heat it to a temperature of 2150 F for pouring.000 mm3/s Velocity v = (2 x 9815 x 175) 0. Solution: Velocity at base v = (2gh) 0.0/34.324 lbm/in 3. whose volume = 75 in3. Solution: (a) Velocity v = (2 x 9815 x 175) 0.6 The volume rate of flow of molten metal into the downsprue from the pouring cup is 50 in 3/sec.2 sec.1 x 0.0 in 2.0 in. (b) the volume rate of flow.70(6597.05 = 2. the cross-sectional area = 1. Determine: (a) the velocity of the molten metal flowing through the base of the downsprue. The sprue leads into a horizontal runner which feeds the mold cavity. If the sprue is 25 cm long.3){0. 46 .090 Btu/lbm-F in the liquid state.6 in/sec Assuming volumetric continuity. W = 10 in.093(1981 .0 in.5 = (2 x 32.4 cm.5 = 78.001 m3. area at base A = (50 in/sec)/(78.1 in/sec (b) Volume flow rate Q = vA = 68.812.6 in/sec) = 0.4 A mold has a downsprue of length = 6.000/1854 = 540 mm2 10.1).2.5 = 1854 mm/s Area at base A = 1.0) 0.200 = 1. The cross-sectional area at the base of the sprue is 400 mm2.1981)} = 213.3 + 0. melting point = 1981 F. 10.082. The molten metal overflows the pouring cup and flows into the downsprue.324 x 660{0.435.096) 0. with a diameter at the top = 3. H = 0.21 Cal/g-°C = 0. top and bottom. Solution: Volume V = (20 x 10 x 3)(1 + 10%) = 600(1.7 Molten metal can be poured into the pouring cup of a sand mold at a steady rate of 1000 cm3/s. (b) the volume rate of flow.84{177. Solution: (a) Velocity v = (2 x 32.3 The downsprue leading into the runner of a certain mold has a length = 175 mm.75) + 80 + 0. and heat of fusion = 80 Btu/lbm.636 in2 10.21} H = 58. determine the proper diameter at its base so as to maintain the same volume flow rate.From Table 4.5 = (3. The cross-sectional area at the top of the sprue = 800 mm2 and its length = 175 mm.000.2 A sufficient amount of pure copper is to be heated for casting a large plate in an open mold. At the top where the pouring cup leads into the downsprue. Assume that the amount of metal heated will be 10% more than needed to fill the mold cavity.5 = 1853 mm/s (b) Volume flow rate Q = vA = 1853 x 400 = 741.2 x 12 x 8) 0. and (c) the time required to fill the mold cavity.0 in 3 Assuming To = 75 °F and using Eq. Determine what the area should be at the bottom of the sprue if its length = 8.5 The flow rate of liquid metal into the downsprue of a mold = 1 liter/sec. What area should be used at the base of the sprue to avoid aspiration of the molten metal? Solution: Flow rate Q = 1.756 J 10.88(800-660)} = 17.000/741.35 s 10. Properties of the metal are: density = 0.70 g/cm3 and specific heat C = 0.5 = 34.000.05 in3/sec (c) Time to fill cavity MFT = V/Q = 75.5 = (4636.5 in2.88 J/g-°C Heat required = 2. The cross-sectional area at the bottom of the sprue is 0.200 mm3/s (c) Time to fill cavity MFT = V/Q = 1.88(660-25) + 389.265 Btu 10.2} = 19.8 + 389. in order to avoid aspiration of the liquid metal. density ρ = 2.8) 0. specific heat of the metal = 0.090(2150 .2 x 12 x 6.000. and D = 3 in. The plate has dimensions: L = 20 in.1 and 4. and (c) the time required to fill the mold cavity.1) = 660. The mold cavity has a volume = 0.3 + 123. Determine: (a) the velocity of the molten metal flowing through the base of the downsprue.

W = 125 mm and H = 20 mm. h0.066)(1-0. Total volumetric contraction = (1-0.178 cm 47 . solidification shrinkage is 4. solidification shrinkage = 6.2 x 12 x h) 0.5(0. solid contraction during cooling = 5.9589 Final casting dimensions: L = 250(0.0) 0. indicating a loss of velocity due to friction in the sprue and runner.6 = 55.000. The volume of the riser located along the runner near the mold cavity = 25 in 3.60 = 40.0 in/sec (d) v = (2 x 32.8 During pouring into a sand mold.39 cm 10. Solution: (a) Velocity v = (2 x 32.5 cm/s) = 4.000(1-0.049)(1-0. Find: (a) the theoretical velocity and flow rate at the base of the downsprue.951)(.9782 = 3.0 .0 in long before leading into the mold cavity.9589) = 19. Volume of cavity V = (100) 3 = 1.056) = 0.000(.000.2 x 12 x 6.3.025) = 879. The downsprue is 6. This is more than the theoretical time required.5 cm/s Assuming volumetric continuity.8817) 0. D2 = 4A/π = 4(4.086 in Shrinkage 10. riser.333 = 95.0 + 25.Solution: Velocity at base v = (2gh) 0.000 mm3 Volume of casting V = 1. It takes a total of 3.1 in/sec Flow rate Q = 68.978 h = 1. the molten metal can be poured into the downsprue at a constant flow rate during the time it takes to fill the mold.0 in3 (c) Actual flow rate Q = 99. Determine the dimensions and volume of the final cube after cooling to room temperature if the cast metal is copper.5 = 55. Assume that the mold is full at the start of solidification and that shrinkage occurs uniformly in all directions.6 in 2.8 = 1.914 = 2. and (d) the loss of head in the gating system due to friction.5 = 55.6%. 100 mm on a side.6 in 2. Determine the dimensions of the final casting after cooling to room temperature if the cast metal is aluminum. Solution: For copper.0/0.863 cm H = 20(0.8 in2 and at the base = 0. At the end of pouring the sprue is filled and there is negligible metal in the pouring cup.9%.8 + 0.0) = 99.333 = 0. Assume that the mold is full at the start of solidification and that shrinkage occurs uniformly in all directions.5 = 221.8817 Linear contraction = (0.5 = 68.51)/π = 5. Its cross-sectional area at the top = 0.6(8. (c) the actual velocity and flow rate at the base of the sprue. and sprue.5%.000.5 = 27.0 in long. rearranging.5 = (2 x 981 x 25) 0.6%.9589) = 239.675 mm3 Dimension on each side of cube = (879.6)(6.914 in Head loss = 6.0/27.10 The cavity of a casting mold has dimensions: L = 250 mm.1 x 0.0/3 = 33. area at base A = (1000 cm/s)/(221.0 + 0. (b) the total volume of the mold. runner.8 in3/sec (b) Total V = 65.0) + 0.51 cm2 Area of sprue A = πD2/4. solid contraction during cooling is 7.675) 0.075) = 1.0 in3/sec Actual velocity v = 33.74 cm2 D = 2.9 A mold cavity has the shape of a cube.0 in/sec.82 mm 10.0 sec to fill the entire mold (including cavity. and it is 8. Solution: For aluminum.725 cm W = 125(0. whose volume = 65 in 3.9589) = 119. The cross-sectional area of the runner leading from the sprue also = 0.8 h0.

072) = 0.333 = 0.1. Solution: Volume V = 30 x 10 x 2 = 600 cm3 Area A = 2(30 x 10 + 30 x 2 + 10 x 2) = 760 cm2 Chvorinov’s Rule: TST = Cm (V/A)2 = 4(600/760) 2 = 2.49 min 10.9664) -1 = 1.9981 Shrink rule elongation = (0.10.9025) 0. Solution: For brass.75%.9025 Linear contraction = (0.045)(1-0.025)(1-0.1 mm/m 10.99425 Linear contraction = (0.5%.11 Determine the scale of a "shrink rule" that is to be used by pattern-makers for low carbon steel.8909) 0.5%.9578 Shrink rule elongation = (0.779 in Solidification Time and Riser Design 10. Solution: Low carbon steel: solidification shrinkage = 2. solidification shrinkage is 4.03927) = 12.9 in Chvorinov's Rule.0%.8786) 0.9981) -1 = 1.0% carbon steel are: diameter = 12. solidification shrinkage is 4. Total volumetric contraction = (1+0. solid contraction during cooling is 7. width = 10 cm.00(1.0441 Elongation of a 1 meter rule = 1000(1.03927) = 0. Determine the dimensions of the mold cavity to take shrinkage into account.1.5%. solidification shrinkage = -2. Solution: For gray CI.333 = 0.030) = 0.9664 Shrink rule elongation = (0.00192 . The gray cast iron has a volumetric contraction of -2. Express your answer in terms of millimeters of elongation per meter of length compared to a standard rule.333 = 0.99425) 0.9622 Oversize factor for mold = (0. Express your answer in terms of decimal fraction inches of elongation per foot of length compared to a standard rule. Assume that shrinkage occurs uniformly in all directions.15 In the casting of steel under certain mold conditions.0) = 0.0) = 44.750(1.0275)(1-0. Express your answer in terms of millimeters of elongation per meter of length compared to a standard rule. Solution: For 1% carbon steel.0441 .0 min/cm2.9622) -1 = 1. solid contraction = 7. The casting is a flat plate whose length = 30 cm. the mold constant in Chvorinov's Rule is known to be Cm = 4.12 Determine the scale of a "shrink rule" that is to be used by pattern-makers for brass which is 70% copper and 30% zinc. solid contraction during cooling is 8. Total volumetric contraction = (1-0.92 mm/m 10.03927 Mold cavity dimensions: D = 12.14 The final dimensions of a disk-shaped casting of 1. and thickness = 20 mm. based on previous experience.080) = 0.333 = 0. Total volumetric contraction = (1-0. What adjustment must be made in the units of Cm? 48 .040)(1-0.0 in and thickness = 0.1.418 in/ft 10. which means it expands during solidification.0%.9578) -1 = 1. Total volumetric contraction = (1-0.0) = 1.0348 . solid contraction during cooling = 3.13 Determine the scale of a "shrink rule" that is to be used by pattern-makers for gray cast iron.072) = 0.75 in. Determine how long it will take for the casting to solidify.2%.0348 Elongation of a 12 inch rule = 12(1.00192 Elongation of a 1 meter rule = 1000(1.8909 Linear contraction = (0.2%.0%.16 Solve for total solidification time in the previous problem only using a value of n = 1.8786 Linear contraction = (0.471 in and t = 0.

32 in 3 D/L ratio = 4. Volume V = πD2L/4 = π(30) 2(50)/4 = 35.732) = 68.53 in3 Length L = 70.333 = 3.0 min to completely solidify.232 s/mm2 (b) Cylindrical casting with D = 30 mm and L = 50 mm. 10.4025(3. (b) If the same alloy and mold type were used.374 in L = 1. TST = 11.0(3.55 min The units for Cm become min/in 1.991/424.86 min 10.926.0/(0. Weight is proportional to volume: V = (12/20)(70.9 = 2.63 in 2 (V/A) = 70. how long will it take the casting to solidify? Solution: Volume V = πD2t/4 = π(500) 2(20)/4 = 3.53) = 42.9 = 4(600/760) 1.000 mm3 Area A = 6 x (50) 2 = 15.53/4π = 5. and (b) the dimensions. find the total solidification time for a cylindrical casting in which the diameter = 30 mm and length = 50 mm. This casting is made of the same steel and the same conditions of mold and pouring were used.0 sec/mm2 in Chvorinov's Rule.1015 = 38.333 mm Cm = TST/(V/A)2 = 155/(8.115) 2 = 171.2836 lb/in3 Weight W = ρV.03(. Note: The density of steel = 490 lb/ft3. 49 . ρ = 490 lb/ft3 = 0.732)/4 = 42.42 in 3 D = (38.63 = 0.5 s = 2. and (c) the total solidification time of the lighter casting. Determine: (a) the mold constant in Chvorinov's Rule.1015D 3 D3 = (42.622 in.732 in (c) V = πD2L/4 = π(3. Another cylindrical-shaped casting with the same diameter-to-length ratio weighs 12 lb.53/95.7353) 2 = 11.343 mm3 Area A = 2πD2/4 + πDL = π(30) 2/2 + π(30)(50) = 6126 mm2 V/A = 35. 10.374) = 4.115 mm2 Chvorinov’s Rule: TST = Cm (V/A)2 = 2.32 in 3 A = 2πD2/4 + πDL = 0.374) 2(4.713.04 = 0. (a) Determine the value of the mold constant Cm in Chvorinov's Rule.991 mm3 Area A = 2πD2/4 + πDt = π(500) 2/2 + π(500)(20) = 424.000 mm2 (V/A) = 125.622) 2 = 4.Solution: Chvorinov’s Rule: TST = Cm (V/A)1.0/5.4025D Volume V = πD2L/4 = π(4) 2(1.232 (5.27 min. thus L = 1.000/15.61) = 95.42) 0.3 s = 1.0 in diameter and weighs 20 lb. V = W/ρ = 20/0.32 in 3)/1.9 . The diameter of the disk = 500 mm and its thickness = 20 mm.61 = 0.7375 Cm = 6.61 in Area A = 2πD2/4 + πDL = 2π(4) 2/4 + π(4)(5.4025D)/4 = 1.5π(3.926.strange but consistent with Chvorinov’s empirical rule.32/68. it took 155 sec for a cube-shaped casting to solidify.17 A disk-shaped part is to be cast out of aluminum.374)(4.77) 2 = 74.24 min.03 min/in2 (b) Find dimensions of smaller cylindrical casting with same D/L ratio and w = 12 lb.04 in 2 V/A = 42. Solution: (a) Volume V = (50) 3 = 125.343/6126 = 5.19 A steel casting has a cylindrical geometry with 4.77 TST = 2.374) 2 + π(3.18 In casting experiments performed using a certain alloy and type of sand mold.2836 = 70. This casting takes 6. If Cm = 2. Solution: (a) For steel. The cube was 50 mm on a side.53 in 3 Volume V = πD2L/4 = π(4) 2L/4 = 4πL = 70.333) 2 = 2.000 = 8.

D = (1. Solution: For ease of computation.836 dm2 V/A = 1.1667 dm Chvorinov’s Rule TST = (0. (a) Determine the relative solidification times for each geometry.241 dm Sphere area A = πD2 = π(1.5 min/cm2 in Chvorinov's Rule. D3 = 4/π = 1. and (3) a cube with each side = 10 cm. we might revise our answer to part (b) and choose the sphere on the basis that it wastes less metal than the other shapes.910) 0.0 dm3. (c) If Cm = 3. then TST = 0.0 dm3 Cube area = 6L2 = 6(1) 2 = 6. Solution: For ease of computation.0428Cm (2) Cylinder volume V = πD2H/4 = πD3/4 = 1.0/6.0 dm3.20 The total solidification times of three casting shapes are to be compared: (1) a sphere with diameter = 10 cm.0. and (3) cube V = 1.02778(350) = 9.1806) 2Cm = 0. and (3) a cube. (1) Sphere volume V = πD3/6 = 1. in which the L/D ratio = 1.0/4.21 The total solidification times of three casting shapes are to be compared: (1) a sphere.5 min/cm2 = 350 min/dm2.25π dm3 Cylinder area A = 2πD2/4 + πDL = 2π(1) 2/4 + π(1)(1) = π/2 + π = 1. (b) Based on the results of part (a).333 = 1. Note. (b) Based on the results of part (a). (a) Determine the relative solidification times for each geometry. 10.1667 dm Chvorinov’s Rule TST = (0. make the substitution 10 cm = 1 decimeter (1 dm) (a) Chvorinov’s Rule: TST = Cm(V/A)2 (1) Sphere volume V = πD3/6 = π(1) 3/6 = π/6 dm3 Sphere area A = πD2 = π(1) 2 = π dm2 V/A = (π/6)/ π = 1/6 = 0. The same casting alloy is used in the three cases.836 = 0.1806 dm Chvorinov’s Rule TST = (0. make the substitution 10 cm = 1 decimeter (1 dm).910 dm3.5π dm2 V/A = .5 min/cm2 in Chvorinov's Rule.0 dm3. the volume V = 1000 cm3.10.0 = 0.084 dm Cylinder area A = 2πD2/4 + πDL = 2π(1. D3 = 6/π = 1. which geometric element would make the best riser? (c) If Cm = 3. compute the total solidification time for each casting.333 = 1.02778Cm (3) Cube: V = L3 = (1) 3 = 1.1667) 2Cm = 0.0/5.273) 0. Thus 1000 cm3 = 1.0326Cm 50 .273 dm3 Therefore. cylinder V = 0. For all three geometries.02778Cm (b) All three shapes are equivalent as risers.524 dm3 = 524 cm3.0 dm3 = 1000cm3.7854 dm3 = 785.241) 2 = 4.0 dm2 V/A = 1. The same casting alloy is used in the three cases. compute the total solidification time for each casting.25π/1. that the volumes of the three geometries are different: (1) sphere V = 0.02778Cm (2) Cylinder volume V = πD2H/4 = π(1) 2(1)/4 = π/4 = 0.084) 2/4 + π(1.084) = 5.25π = 0. (2) a cylinder. D = H = (1. (2) a cylinder with diameter and length both = 10 cm.4 cm3. Accordingly.2067 dm Chvorinov’s Rule TST = (0.1667) 2Cm = 0.536 dm2 V/A = 1. which geometric element would make the best riser? (c) If Cm = 3. however.536 = 0.1667) 2Cm = 0.5π = 0.1667 dm Chvorinov’s Rule TST = (0.2067) 2Cm = 0.084)(1.723 min.

000 mm3 Casting area A = 2(200 x 100 + 200 x 18 + 100 x 18) = 50.000/50.1416D 2 V/A = 0.0697(0.333 Thus. (c) Given that Cm = 3. L = 1.1667) 2Cm = 0. since V/A ratio is greatest. Solution: Casting volume V = tL2 = 0.5) = 4.5/(7.72 min 10.0 dm2 V/A = 1.667 = (4V/π)0.5 min/cm2 = 350 min/dm3 Sphere: TST = 0.001936 = 2259.0) 2 + 4(10. determine the dimensions of the riser so that it will take 30% longer for the riser to solidify.4V/D2 = 0 Rearranging.0326(350) = 11. The casting is a rectangular plate.0/6. determine the diameter of the riser so that it will take 25% longer for the riser to solidify.333.22 A cylindrical riser is to be used for a sand casting mold.7 mm2 D = 47.375/0.333 From the previous expression for L. width = 100 mm. Solution: To maximize TST. optimal values are D = L = (4V/π)0. and Cm = 16.0866) 2 = 3.375 min = 0. Cylinder volume V = πD2L/4.1667 dm Chvorinov’s Rule TST = (0.800 = 7.0 dm Cube area = 6L2 = 6(1) 2 = 6. If the total solidification time of the casting itself is known to be 3.25(3.41 min Cube: TST = 0. For a given cylinder volume. and thickness = 18 mm.02778(350) = 9.0866) 2 = 0.800 mm2 V/A = 360.50 min Cm = 3.0 min/in2 in Chvorinov's Rule. the V/A ratio must be maximized.0 dm3.5 min.75(10. The length of the cylinder is to be 1.02778Cm (b) Sphere would be the best riser.24 A cylindrical riser is to be designed for a sand casting mold.0697 min/mm2 Riser volume V = πD3/6 = 0. L = 4V/πD2 = 4V/π(4V/π)0.98 min Cylinder: TST = 0.001936D 2 D2 = 4. each side = 10 in and thickness = 0. and therefore the optimal D/L ratio = 1.25 times its diameter. Solution: Casting volume V = LWt = 200(100)(18) = 360. L = 4V/πD2 Cylinder area A = 2πD2/4 + πDL Substitute the expression for L from the volume equation in the area equation: A = πD2/2 + πDL = πD2/2 + πD(4V/πD2) = πD2/2 + 4V/D Differentiate the area equation with respect to D: dA/dD = πD .0428(350) = 14.75 inch.0 10.length ratio that will maximize the time to solidify.5236D 3 Riser area A = πD2 = 3.0) 2 = 75 in3 Casting area A = 2L2 + 4Lt = 2(10. πD = 4V/D2 D3 = 4V/π D = (4V/π)0.1667D TST = 1.0 in 2 51 .75) = 230.1416D 2 = 0.5236D 3/3.5 mm 10. If the metal is cast iron.23 A riser in the shape of a sphere is to be designed for a sand casting mold. The casting is a square plate.1667D)2 = 0.0)(0. substituting in the equation for D that we have developed.0 = 0. determine the diameter-to. with length = 200 mm.(3) Cube: V = L3 =1.0866 Casting TST = Cm(7.

5 in 3 V(5 in. 10.5 x 1.3261) 2 = 1.36 = 0. and L = 2.5 minute longer to freeze than the casting itself.065 in.75πD2 V/A = 0. If Cm = 19.1786D Riser TST = 16.03189)D2 = 0.21 min Riser volume V = πD2H/4 = 0.817 + 7.25πD3/1.81 + 0.5π(5) 2(1)/4 = 9.5 + 9. in which the units are inches. 52 .305) 2 = 1.25.305 in Casting TST = 19.081 in H = 1. Solution: Casting volume V = V(5 in x 10 in rectangular plate) + V(5 in.5 = 2.V(3 in x 6 in rectangular cutout).657 in 3 V(3 in x 6 in rectangular cutout) = 3 x 6 x 1 = 18.3125πD3 Riser area A = 2πD2/4 + πDH = 0.1786D)2 = 16.5πD2 + 1.31 min Riser volume V = πD2L/4 = πD3/4 = 0.5) 2/4 .30(1.0 = 62.5(D/6) 2 = 0.36 in 2 V/A = 61.3261 Casting TST = 16(0.5π(3) + 1.5π(3+1) = 203. V(5 in x 10 in rectangular plate) = 5 x 12.5 min/in2 in Chvorinov's Rule.0π(2.25(2.31 = 19.0 = 61.3125πD3/1.0(0.5) + 2(6+3) + 2(5 x 12.5) 2/4) = 7.5417 = 4.5 = 2.5πD2 = D/6 TST = Cm(V/A)2 2. determine the dimensions of the riser so that the riser will take 0.3316) 0.5) 2π/4 + 2.21 min D2 = 2.0(0.81 min Riser design: specified TST = 1.5417D 2 D2 = 2.0 is to be designed for a sand casting mold.2(1.31/0.4π(1.817 in 3 V(upright tube) = 3.974/203.5102D 2 = 2.266 in 2 D = 2.70) = 2.5πD2 = 1.0 in 3 Total V = 62.25πD3 Riser area A = πDL + 2πD2/4 = πD2 + 0.5(0.3316 D = (4.5πD2 V/A = .5102 = 4.5π(5) 2/4) .25D) = 0.602 in.5π + 12.081) = 2.5 + 2.657 .21/0.3 x 6) + 2(.18.974 in 3 Total A = 1 x 5 + 1(12. The casting geometry is illustrated in Figure P10.25 A cylindrical riser with diameter-to-length ratio = 1.5 .065 in.25πD2(1.V/A = 75/230 = 0.25πD2 = 1. half disk) + V(upright tube) .75πD2 = 0.70 min Riser TST = 1. half disk) = 0.

and magnesium. aluminum. 11.1 Name the two basic categories of casting processes? Answer.6 What is the difference between vacuum permanent-mold casting and vacuum molding? Answer.11 METAL CASTING PROCESSES Review Questions 11. The two categories are: (1) expendable mold processes.7 11. (2) permeability .chamber die casting machines require molten metal to be ladled into the chamber from an external source. Common die cast metals include: zinc. or into the clearances around the cores and ejector pins. 11.10 What is the difference between true centrifugal casting and semicentrifugal casting? 53 . What is the difference between a split pattern and a match. lead. The mold is 50% sand and 50% plaster heated in an autoclave and then dried.2 There are various types of patterns used in sand casting. This mold has greater permeability than a plaster mold. 11.3 What is a chaplet? Answer.ability to resist cracking and buckling when in contact with the molten metal.pressure casting in which a vacuum is used to draw molten metal into the cavity. Chaplets are metal supports of various designs used to hold the core in place in the sand mold. A split pattern is a pattern that consists of two pieces. (3) thermal stability . Vacuum permanent-mold casting is a form of low. The Antioch process refers to the making of the mold. The usual properties are: (1) strength . 11. Hot-chamber machines are faster because cold.ability of the mold to allow hot air and gases to escape from the cavity. (5) reusability .ability of the mold to give way during shrinkage of the casting. Flash is a thin portion at the exterior of a casting that results from molten metal being squeezed into the spaces between the die halves of the mold at the parting line. 11.8 What are the most common metals processed using die casting? Answer. brass. Vacuum molding is sand casting in which the sand mold is held together by vacuum pressure rather than a chemical binder. a match-plate pattern consists of the two split patterns attached to opposite sides of a plate. 11. Which die casting machines usually have a higher production rate. and (2) permanent mold processes. tin. and why? Answer.4 What properties determine the quality of a sand mold for sand casting? Answer. 11.plate pattern? Answer.9 What is flash in die casting? Answer.5 What is the Antioch process? Answer. (4) collapsibility .can the sand be reused to make other molds? 11.ability to maintain shape in the face of the flowing metal. cold-chamber or hot-chamber.

(d) sand casting. 11. To attain a perfect score on the quiz.2 In sand casting. and (7) machining. 11.12 What are some of the operations required of sand castings after removal from the mold? Answer. or (e) shell casting. (b) SiO. (3) cold shots. (c) investment casting. 11.6. (b) same size. (b) downward force = Wm . and (6) hot tearing.Answer. Cupolas are used for melting cast irons. (c) sand casting. (d) 11. (d) shell molding. (b) 11. in which the sprues. all correct answers must be given. (5) repair if needed. the shape is solid. (6) heat treatment.Wc. In semicentrifugal casting.named? (a) green is the color of the mold.Wc. and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point. (2) cold shuts. (a) 11. Answer. runners. (b) moisture is contained in the mold. 11.3 11. since each correct answer is worth 1 point. The mold is rotated so that centrifugal force is used to distribute the molten metal to the exterior of the mold so that the density of the final metal is greater at the outer sections.5 Given that Wm = weight of the molten metal displaced by a core and Wc = weight of the core. the buoyancy force is which one of the following? (a) downward force = Wm + Wc. Answer. (5) microporosity. (c) For which of the following reasons is a green mold so. For each question. 54 . a tubular mold is used and a tubular part is produced.11 What is a cupola? Answer. and flash are removed.1 Which one of the following casting processes is most widely used (one answer)? (a) centrifugal casting.4 Silica sand has which one of the following compositions? (a) Al2O3. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point. Answer. an example is a railway wheel. (c) SiO 2. (c) upward force = Wm + Wc. Answer. or (c) smaller. Answer. risers. or (d) upward force = Wm . (c) mold is cured. Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 28 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct). (b) die casting. or (d) mold is dry. and (f) vacuum molding. See Article 11. (2) core removal. (4) shrinkage cavity.1.6 Which of the following casting processes are expendable mold operations (more than one)? (a) investment casting. (b) low pressure casting. (3) surface cleaning.13 What are some of the general defects encountered in casting processes? Answer. (e) slush casting. (d) 11. General defects include: (1) misruns. In true centrifugal casting. or (d) SiSO 4. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers. These operations include: (1) trimming. (4) inspection. the volumetric size of the pattern is which of the following relative to the cast part? (a) bigger. A cupola is a vertical cylindrical furnace equipped with a tapping spout near its base.

(c) higher production rates. (b) cast iron. (b) higher melting temperature metals. (d) sand casting. (c) SiC. (d) larger parts can be casted. Answer. (b) 11. (c) plaster mold casting. or (d) SiO 2. (b) full-mold process. and (f).13 Which of the following are advantages of die casting over sand casting (more than one)? (a) better surface finish. (c) metal solidifies before filling the cavity. (d). (d) cast steel. and (e) mold can be reused. (d) microporosity. (c).10 Which of the following qualifies as a precision casting process (more than one)? (a) ingot casting. (c) low pressure casting. (b) casting operation used to make artificial sea shells. and (f). Answer. (b) metal is not properly poured into the downsprue. (a). and (e). and (f) zinc. (e) tungsten.8 Investment casting is also known by which one of the following names? (a) fast-payback molding. (c) cast iron. and (f) vacuum permanent-mold casting. (b) cast iron. (e) slush casting. or (d) sand casting operation in which the pattern is a shell rather than a solid form. and (e) "pipe" formation. (a). (c) casting process in which the mold is a thin shell of sand binded by a thermosetting resin. (c) lost-foam process. the mold is made of which one of the following materials? (a) Al2O3. (e).9 In plaster mold casting. Answer. (b) CaSO 4-H2O. (a). (c) 11. (d) tin. (c) steel. (c) 11. (a). 11.12 Which of the following metals would typically be die casted (more than one)? (a) aluminum. (b) and (c).15 A misrun is which one of the following defects in casting? (a) globules of metal becoming entrapped in the casting. 11. (e) 11.16 Which one of the following casting metals is most important commercially? (a) aluminum and its alloys. Answer. Answer. 11. (b). 11. (b) 11. Answer. or (e) lost-wax process.11 Which of the following casting processes are permanent mold operations (more than one)? (a) centrifugal casting. and (c) shell molding. Answer. Answer. (d) lost pattern process. (c). (d). or (d) zinc.14 Cupolas are furnaces used to melt which of the following metals (choose one best answer)? (a) aluminum. and (f). (b) investment casting. or (e) zinc alloys. Answer. Answer. 11. (c) 55 . (c) steel.Answer. (c).7 Shell molding is which one of the following? (a) casting operation in which the molten metal has been poured out after a thin shell has been solidified in the mold. (b) die casting. (b) bronze. (d) shell molding.

313 lb/in3.88 lb.82 g/cm3 Fb = Wm . Wm = 157(0.5 m with outside diameter = 15. Fb = 101.17 kg. Solution: Core volume V = 20/1605. Weight of the final casting W = 1302(7. GF = R(πN/30) 2/g = 7. Fb = Wm . Solution: From Eq.184 g = 10.73 lb. Determine the buoyancy force in Newtons tending to lift the core during pouring.815 = 149 N.5 cm. determine the G-factor. The volume of the mold cavity forming the outside surface of the casting = 5000 cm3.01246 m3.1 An aluminum-copper alloy casting is made in a sand mold using a sand core that weighs 20 kg. 11.82V .17 .3 Caplets are used to support a sand core inside a sand mold cavity.3698 = 1302 cm3. Determine the buoyancy force that will tend to lift the core during pouring. 3 Cavity volume V = 5000 cm Volume of casting V = 5000 .000 g V = 3698 cm3.73 . 11.8 11. Fb = 40.82) = 10. density of brass ρ = 0.4 = 0. 11. A total of 9 caplets are required above the core to resist the buoyancy force. What is the weight of the final casting? Ignore considerations of shrinkage. (b) Wm = 325(.11 = 31. If the volume of the core = 325 in.313) = 101.85 lb.82 . Solution: Sand density = 1. and wall 56 .9. At least 2 caplets are required beneath to resist the weight of the core. Weight of displaced Al-Cu = 35. Solution: From Table 13. Difference = (35. outside diameter = 8.184 kg Centrifugal Casting 11.18. It is used in the casting of a cast iron pump housing.1. The lengths will be 1. and inside diameter = 12.058) = 9. and (b) above the core.Wc = 7.5 A horizontal true centrifugal casting operation will be used to make copper tubing.4).0 cm.1. steel casting density = 7. density of cast iron ρ = 0. and several other caplets are placed above the core to resist the buoyancy force during pouring.6 A true centrifugal casting operation is to be performed in a horizontal configuration to make cast iron pipe sections.4 A sand core used to form the internal surfaces of a steel casting experiences a buoyancy force of 23 kg.5(π(1000)/30) 2/981 = 83. 3.85 = 82.82 lb.1. Several caplets are located beneath the core to support it before pouring. determine the minimum number of caplets that should be placed: (a) beneath the core. Probably 3 or 4 caplets would be better to achieve stability.0 in. The design of the caplets and the manner in which they are placed in the mold cavity surface allows each caplet to sustain a force of 10 lbs.. Solution: From Table 13. and the metal poured is brass.20) x 9.0 in.26 lb/in3. (11.22V = 23 kg = 23.Problems Buoyancy Force 11. If the rotational speed of the pipe = 1000 rev/min.6V = 6. (a) Wc = 325(0.0 in 3.26) = 40.71 lb.6 g/cm3. The sections will have a length = 42.2 A sand core located inside a mold cavity has a volume of 157.106 lb.Wc Wc = 157(0.058) = 18.

Thus.252 .25π(.0) = π((7.9% and solid thermal contraction = 7.55 N Fc/A = (34. R = 0. (c) Volume of final product after solidification and cooling is V = (. the rotational speed is not sufficient. which is equal to the inside wall diameter of the mold.7331(104) N/m2 = 7331 Pa 11. GF = v2/Rg = (17.5484 kg v = πRN/30 Use mean radius R = (7.333 ft.03) 2)π x 1. but its weight would be zero. OD = 15 cm.4 g = 0.62 cm3) = 548. Taking these factors into account.7 rev/min.86 cm/s = 6.125 x 9.thickness = 0.7)/30 = 645.9 If a true centrifugal casting operation were to be performed in a space station circling the Earth.81 kg-m/s2. solidification shrinkage = 4.Ri2)(1.81 = 34.5(8)/12 = 0. how would weightlessness affect the process? Solution: The mass of molten metal would be unaffected by the absence of gravity.333 x 32. what is the centrifugal force per square meter (Pa) imposed by the molten metal on the inside wall of the mold? Solution: (a) Using the outside wall diameter of the casting.54 (b) G-factor is sufficient for a successful casting operation.125)(700)/30 = 9. D = 15 cm N = (30/π)(2g x 70/15) .0) = 63.011074 m3 From Table 12.62 cm3 Mass m = (8.38 Since the G-factor is less than 60.8 True centrifugal casting operation is performed horizontally to make large diameter copper tube sections.50 in.25 m. diameter = 0.75)(913.0)/2 = 6. and ID = 12 cm. v = πRN/30 = π(.(.25-.1.4586 m/s)2/(6.75 cm v = π(6.5 = 913.62g/cm3)(63. The tubes have a length = 1. Volume of molten metal V = 0.075) = 0.45 ft/sec. Area of this length of mold wall A = πDoL = π(15 cm)(1 cm) = 15π cm2 = 15π(10-4) m2 Volume of cast metal V = π(Ro2 . Is the operation likely to be successful? Solution: Using outside wall of casting.8 m/s2 v = πRN/30 = π(.222) = 0.5 + 6. Thus. Fc = 338.01259 m3 11.049)(1-.8) = 68.45) 2/(.2) = 28. (a) determine the G-factor on the molten metal.4585 m/s Centrifugal force per square meter on mold wall = Fc/A where Fc = mv2/R Fc = (0. in the G-factor equation (GF = v2/Rg).5% for copper.163 m/s GF = (9. (b) When operating at this speed.5) 2 . GF would theoretically go to infinity if g = 0.9 kg-m/s2 Given that 1 N = 9. and the operation is likely to be unsuccessful.7 A horizontal true centrifugal casting process is used to make brass bushings with dimensions: L = 10 cm.333)(500)/30 = 17.163) 2/(.0 m.9/9. (a) Determine the required rotational speed in order to obtain a G-factor of 70.55 N)/(15π x 10-4 m2) = 0.. 11. determine the G-factor.(6) 2)(1. (b) Is the rotational speed sufficient to avoid "rain?" (c) What volume of molten metal must be poured into the mold to make the casting if solidification shrinkage and contraction after solidification are considered? Solution: (a) GF = v2/Rg g = 9.0/4 = . If the rotational speed of the pipe = 700 rev/min.75 x 10-2 m) = 338.011074/(1-. If the rotational speed of the pipe = 500 rev/min. and wall thickness = 15 mm.0 cm of mold wall length as basis of area calculations.5484 kg)(6. (b) Use 1. it should be possible to force the metal against the walls of the mold in centrifugal 57 .252 .

Ri2)(L) = π((65/2) 2 .4 cm3 Density of steel ρ = 7.1 kg-m/s2 Given that 1 N = 9..5). Determine the rotational speed that will provide a G-factor = 60.10 A horizontal true centrifugal casting process is used to make aluminum rings with dimensions: L = 5 cm.10(b). (11.1021 m2) = 10.4/(0.3125 m v = π(31. (d) Would this rotational speed result in a successful operation? Solution: (a) Use inside diameter of mold in Eq.52 . determine the G-factor and (c) centrifugal force per square meter (Pa) on the mold wall.81 kg-m/s2.7 N/m2 = 10.4 cm3) = 19.315. and from Table 10.25 cm = 0.072) = 1 . Solution: D = 70 mm = 0.87g/cm3)(2454.4 N Fc/A = (1114. The pipe has length = 0.25)(406.87 g/cm3 Mass m = (7. 11.4 N)/(0.8957) = 2740. and thickness = 6.03)(1-.4 rev/min (c) Use 5 cm ring length as basis of area calculations.7 rev/min.1021 m2 Volume of cast metal V = π(Ro2 . 11.Ri2)L = π(32.0 in at the bottom. However.2%.11 For the steel ring of preceding Problem 11.5 percent.5/π = 406.1043 The required starting volume of molten metal V = 2454.07 m. Solution: Volume of final casting V = π(Ro2 .1.5 in at the top and 5. and the solidification shrinkage and solid contraction after freezing can be determined from Table 10.casting without the nuisance of “raining” inside the cavity.5%. (a) Determine the rotational speed that will provide a G-factor = 60. given that the liquid shrinkage is 0.1.914.13 A vertical true centrifugal casting process is used to make tube sections with length = 10. At what speed must the tube be rotated during the operation in order to achieve these specifications? 58 .316 kg v = πRN/30 Use mean radius R = (65 + 60)/4 = 31. the total volumetric contraction is 1 .5/π = 1237. Area of this length of mold wall A = πDoL = π(65 cm)(5 cm) = 1021 cm2 = 0. OD = 65 cm.7 Pa (d) The G-factor of 60 would probably result in a successful casting operation.5/π = 30(2 x 9.914.299 m/s)2/(0. and ID = 60 cm.4 cm3 Given that the molten metal shrinkage = 0. The inside diameter of the tube = 5.2 cm3 11.5/π = 30(2 x 981 x 60/65) .9 g = 19. With no gravity the liquid metal would not be forced against the lower surface of the mold to initiate the centrifugal action.07) .12 A horizontal true centrifugal casting process is used to make lead pipe for chemical plants.1/9. D = Do = 65 cm. (b) Rotational speed would be the same as in part (a) because mass does not enter the computation of rotational speed.932.299 m/s Centrifugal force per square meter on mold wall = Fc/A where Fc = mv2/R Fc = (19.4 rev/min. Fc = 10.(60/2) 2)(5. determine the volume of molten metal that must be poured into the mold.3125 m) = 10.302)(5) = 2454.(1-.9 cm/s = 13. outside diameter = 70 mm.81 = 1114. 11. g = 9.005)(1-. the solidification shrinkage for steel = 3% and the solid contraction during cooling = 7. Use g = 981 cm/s2. In the absence of gravity.0 mm.932.316 kg)(13.8 m/s2 N = 30(2g x GF/D).0) = 2454. this all assumes that the metal is inside the mold and rotating with it.8 x 60/. N = 30(2g x GF/D).5 m. N = 406. If the rotational speed computed in that problem were used in the steel casting operation.0 in.0 in and outside diameter = 6.8957 = 0. (b) Suppose that the ring were made out of steel instead of aluminum.4)/30 = 1329. there would be a problem in pouring the molten metal into the mold cavity and getting it to adhere to the mold wall as the mold begins to rotate.

Volume of casting V = 75.0.2 x 12 x 15/((3.080 = 3.080 in.5 L = 10 in.2/(Rt2-. If the speed of rotation during solidification is 1000 rpm.8 x 0. density ρ = 0. Rb = 150/2 = 75 mm = 0.5. = 0.3042 + 6.3042 + 6.384 in.313 = 239.3042 + 6.224 in.02814 (3.5 = (30/π)(2 x 32. determine the inside diameter at the top of the bushing if the diameter at the bottom is 150 mm. and that is the Dt = 6.5 N = (30/π)(3. Sand casting is used to produce the two castings.56 Rt2-.608y + y2 .6 in 3 Assume the inside wall of the casting is straight from top to bottom (an approximation of the parabolic shape).20833 ft N = (30/π)(2 x 32.0 in long and whose outside diameter = 8.02814 (2 x 6.00143 Rt2 = . 11.448 in.3042 .0752).02814 (3.915 in 2 Ri = 3.02 .007055) .36 (3.608y .001430 = 0.y2). The larger component has the shape of a dish sink and the second component is a flat cover that is attached to the first component to create an enclosed space for the machine parts.Ri2) = 239.608y + y2 .5 = (13.085 Ri2 = 16.6 in 3 (4.5 Given N = 1000.304 + 0.15 A vertical true centrifugal casting process is used to cast brass tubing that is 15.0 .y = 3.313 lb/in3 (Table 11.304+y) 2-(3.0 lbs.5 = 500 rev/min (3. Defects and Design Considerations 11. N = (30/π)(2gL/(Rt2-Rb2). Solution: L = 200 mm = 0.8333 ft Rt = 5.5/1000π = 1.7 rev/min 11.5/2 = 2.768 in.005625)).5 = (30/π)(2 x 9. The foreman complains that the thickness of the parts are too thin.16 The housing for a certain machinery product is made of two components. If the rotational speed during solidification is 500 rpm. Rb = 3.02 . Solution: For brass.208332).14 A vertical true centrifugal casting process is used to produce bushings that are 200 mm long and 200 mm in outside diameter.304+y) 2-(3.08399 m = 83.56 = 0.5493(5888) .5 = 9.075 m.5 ((3.y.0/2 = 2.0) = 239.Solution: Use Eq.304 in Let Rt = Ri + y = 3.005625)).304 .304 . = 0.0 in.36) 2 = 2741.080 = 3.304-y) 2)).02814 3.5 = 500π/30 = 52.50 in.5 = 1.Ri2)L = π(4.22917 ft Rb = 5.5 = 1. both aluminum castings.304 + y and Rb = Ri .005625 = 3.2 x .92/2741.92/(Rt2-.304-y) 2)).5 = 1.229172-.6/15π = 5.5 = 30(11592) .608y + y2)).99 mm.92/(Rt2-.304-y) 2).75 in.5 = 732.304+y) 2-(3. (11.085 = 10. both of which are plagued by defects in the form of misruns and cold shuts.2 m. = 0. N = (30/π)(2gL/(Rt2-Rb2). thus 1000π/30 = (11592/((3.6) to make the computation of N: N = (30/π)(2gL/(Rt2-Rb2). Rt = 3. where y = one-half the difference between Rt and Rb.02814 y = . determine the inside diameters at the top and bottom of the tubing if the total weight of the final casting = 75.(3.1). The average inside radius Ri = (Rt + Rb)/2 Volume V = π(Ro2 .5 = 1.6.92/(Rt2-.005625) = (52. Db = 6.3. 59 .8333/(.216y) .608y) .5 = .Ri2)(15.007055 Rt = 0.635 (y) .0/.005625 + 0.

a surface consisting of a mixture of sand and metal. the risk is for cold shuts and misruns. (3) Treat the mold cavity surface to make it harder. thus increasing the risk of sand blows and pin holes. (2) Increase the packing of the mold sand to resist penetration. given that the casting of these parts is successfully accomplished at other foundries.reason for the defects.17 A large steel sand casting shows the characteristic signs of penetration defect . and (2) the pouring operation is performed too slowly. However. 60 . (a) What steps can be taken to correct the defect? (b) What other possible defects might result from taking each of these steps? Solution: (a) What are the possible corrective steps? (1) Reduce pouring temperature. it is known that the same components are cast successfully in other foundries. two other possible explanations are: (1) the pouring temperature is too low. One possible reason for the defects in this case is that the thickness of the casting cross-sections is too small. 11. Steps (2) and (3) would reduce permeability of the sand. (b) What possible defects might result from each of these steps? In the case of step (1). What other explanation can be given for the defects? Solution: Misruns and cold shuts result from low fluidity. However.

5 Describe the spinning process in glassworking. 61 . (1) raw materials preparation and melting. What is the difference? Answer. and (4) electric furnaces. In the Danner process. (2) day tanks.1 We have classified glass as a ceramic material.12 GLASSWORKING Review Questions 12. The two processes in the text are: (1) drawing. 12. (2) shaping..g. In the press-and-blow process. Name and briefly describe one of them. the initial forming step is pressing of the part. Name three of the four types. causing centrifugal force to spread the glass upward onto the mold surface. yet glass is different from the traditional and new ceramics. 12. molten glass flows around a rotating hollow mandrel through which air is blown while the glass is being drawn.6 What is the main difference between the press-and-blow and the blow-and-blow shaping processes in glassworking? Answer. Answer. the glass tube is supported by a series of rollers extending beyond the mandrel. During hardening. The methods described in this test are: (1) rolling. whereas traditional and new ceramics are.4 Melting furnace for glassworking can be divided into four types. and (2) centrifugal spraying. Name and briefly describe one of them. Spinning in glassworking is similar to centrifugal casting in metalworking.2 12. polishing. if needed. in which molten glass is forced to flow through small orifices in a rapidly rotating bowl to form glass fibers.7 There are several ways of shaping plate or sheet glass. The temperature of the air and its volumetric flow rate as well as the drawing velocity determine the diameter and wall thickness of the tubular cross-section. polycrystalline materials. Finishing operations (e. while the first step in the blow-and-blow process is blowing.it is in the glassy state. Answer.9 Two processes for forming glass fibers are discussed in the text. Silica . in which the melted glass flows onto a molten tin surface to achieve uniform thickness and smoothness. (3) continuous tank furnaces. 12. Answer. 12. in which the hot glass is squeezed between opposing cylindrical rolls. Glass is vitreous . A gob of molten glass is dropped in to a conical mold which spins. 12. and (3) heat treatment.3 What is the predominant chemical compound in almost all glass products? Answer. in which fine glass fibers are pulled through small orifices in a heated plate. etching) are performed on some glass products.8 Describe the Danner process? Answer. The four types are: (1) pot furnaces. Answer. 12. grinding. by and large. 12. and (2) the float process.SiO2. What are the three basic steps in the glassworking sequence? Answer.

(b) 12. Answer. or (d) 2000°C to 2200°C. (c) 12. the use of recycled glass as an ingredient of the starting material in glassmaking serves what other useful purpose (one only)? (a) adds coloring variations to the glass for aesthetic value. all correct answers must be given. To attain a perfect score on the quiz. (4) screw threads should be course. Answer. (c) 1500°C to 1600°C. Annealing is performed on glass to remove internal stresses that result from shaping and solidification. or (e) vitreous. or (d) reduces odors in the plant. This has good impact resistance and does not splinter when broken. The guidelines are: (1) subject ceramic parts to compressive. 12. It is a slow process for these large products.11 Describe how a piece of glass is heat treated to produce tempered glass. (2) ceramics are brittle. or (b) false. so avoid impact loading.13 What are some of the design recommendations for glass parts? Answer.5 Casting is a glassworking process used for high production. (a) True. as the interior cools and contracts. Answer. not tensile loads. The glass is heated to a temperature above the annealing temperature and the surfaces are then quenched by air jets to cool and harden them while the interior of the piece remains plastic. since each correct answer is worth 1 point. it puts the previously hardened surfaces in compression. (b) makes the glass easier to melt. Laminated glass. (d) 12. Answer. (c) makes the glass stronger. (See Section 14. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point. (e) 12.3 The charge in glassworking is which one of the following? (a) the duration of the melting cycle.12. (c) the name given to the melting furnace.10 What is the purpose of annealing in glassworking? Answer. (3) use large radii on inside and outside corners.2 Besides helping to preserve the environment. 12. (c) polycrystalline. and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point. (d) vitiated. 62 . which strengthens it. or (d) the starting materials in melting.1 Which one of the following terms refers to the glassy state of a material? (a) crystalline.4 Typical glass melting temperatures are in which of the following ranges? (a) 400°C to 500°C. (b) devitrified. 12. Answer. (b) Casting is used in glassworking for large components like giant telescope lenses in small lot sizes. (b) the electric energy required to melt the glass. Answer. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers. For each question.12 Describe the type of material that is commonly used to make windshields for automobiles.4. (b) 900°C to 1000°C. in which two sheets of glass are laminated on either side of a polymer sheet. 12.) Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 10 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct). Answer.

(a) True. 12. (c) The rule is that annealing time varies as the square of the wall thickness. (d) Sintering is used to cause bonding of particulate materials such as metal and ceramic powders. while the blow-and-blow process is more appropria te for producing (wide-mouthed) jars.30 in) take to anneal (choose the closest answer)? (a) 10 minutes.25 times 10 minutes or 22. Answer. (d) sintering. or (c) 30 minutes. (c) 20 minutes.5 mm (0. or (d) spinning. 12.8 12. (b) It's the reverse.6 Which one of the following processes or processing steps is not applicable in glassworking? (a) annealing. (a) If a glass part with a wall thickness of 5 mm (0. Answer. Answer.7 The press-and-blow process is best suited to the production of (narrow-necked) beverage bottles. (c) a sintering furnace. (d) an annealing furnace.10 A lehr is which of the following? (a) a lion's den. (c) rolling. (b) a melting furnace. Answer.20 in) takes 10 minutes to anneal. or (b) false.30/0. (c) quenching.9 12.12. Which one of the following processes is used to produce glass tubing? (a) Danner process. Answer. (b) 15 minutes. That would indicate an annealing time of 0. (b) pressing. (b) pressing.5 minutes. 20 minutes is closest. (d) 63 . or (e) none of the above. how much time would a glass part of similar geometry but with a wall thickness of 7.202 = 2. and (e) spinning.

Some of the reasons are: (1) many of the processes are net shape processes. (1) feed section. Answer. (3) lower temperatures are required to process plastics than metals or ceramics. Answer. what other properties of a polymer melt are important in plastics processing? Briefly define each of the properties identified. a combination of viscous and elastic properties which cause the melt to exhibit memory . and (2) shear rate. (2) in general. (3) the molecular weight of the polymer also affects viscosity. (5) foamed products. identify the sections. A polymer melt exhibits pseudoplasticity. (3) forming of continuous sheets and films. Answer. (4) great flexibility in geometry.8 The barrel and screw of an extruder are generally divided into three sections. In plastic extrusion. Die swell is the tendency of the extrudate to expand in cross-section dimensions immediately on exiting the die orifice. It results from the viscoelastic properties of the polymer melt. (4) fibers. The categories are: (1) extrusion. less energy employed than in metalworking processes.9 What are the functions of the screen pack and breaker plate at the die end of the extruder barrel? 64 . a polymer melt is compressed to flow through a die orifice and thus the continuous length of the plastic assumes a cross-sectional shape that is approximately the same as the profile of the orifice. 13. 13. 13.2 Identify the main categories of plastics shaping processes. and (5) painting and other finishing processes generally not required. Answer. 13. as exhibited by die swell in extrusion.7 Briefly describe the plastic extrusion process. in which the polymer changes to a viscous fluid.5 Besides viscosity. 13. and (3) metering section. as classified by the resulting product geometry. 13. Answer. which means that its value decreases with increasing shear rate. Viscosity of a polymer melt depends on: (1) temperature.the tendency to return to its previous shape. in which the feed stock is fed from the hopper and heated.3 Viscosity is an important property of a polymer melt in plastics shaping processes. in which pressure is developed to pump the plastic through the die orifice. 13. (2) molding. 13. and (6) discrete formed sheets and films.13 13. Answer. Of course. (2) compression section. Upon what parameters does viscosity depend? Answer.4 How does the viscosity of a polymer melt differ from most fluids that are Newtonian. Other properties include: viscoelasticity.6 Define die swell in extrusion.1 SHAPING PROCESSES FOR PLASTICS Review Questions What are some of the reasons why the plastic shaping processes are important? Answer.

(4) sheet and film. The process begins with the extrusion of a tube which is immediately drawn upward while still molten and simultaneously expanded in size by air inflated into it through the die mandrel. Thickness. acrylics. (2) build pressure. 13.020 in (0. which are the most important? Answer. The clamping units are: (1) mechanical toggle clamp and (2) hydraulic. what is the difference between a fiber and a filament? Answer. a filament is a fiber of continuous length.12 What is the blown-film process for producing film stock? Answer. 13.17. and (3) parts can be more easily broken off the runner at the gate. Sheet stock has a thickness greater than 0. 13.16 Among the synthetic fiber materials. Answer.section of the gate freezes more rapidly to seal off the cavity. Textiles.20 Gates in injection molds have several functions. 13. Answer.19 What are the two basic types of clamping units? Answer. The blown-film process is a widely used process for making thin polyethylene film for packaging.11 What is the distinction between plastic sheet and film? Answer.020 in (0.5 mm).6. In the process. thin strand of material whose length is at least 100 times its diameter. 13. while film stock is less than 0. The functions of gates in an injection mold are: (1) to increase shear rate to increase viscosity and temperature of the polymer melt.Answer. 13.18 An injection molding machine is divided into two principal components. (3) straighten the flow and remove memory.5 mm) thick. 13. and rayon. there are hydromechanical units which combine hydraulic and mechanical actuations. Polyester is the most important commercially. In addition.17 Briefly describe the injection molding process. Answer. Answer. identify them. (3) wire and cable coating. The functions are: (1) filter dirt and lumps. what is the most important application? Answer. and (5) filaments (continuous fibers).10 What are the various forms of extruded shapes and corresponding dies? Answer. (2) hollow profiles. (1) solid profiles. See Figure 13. See beginning of Section 15.15 Technically. (2) the thinner cross.13 Describe the calendering process. 65 . followed by nylon. name them. such as rounds and L-shapes. A fiber is a long. 13. the initial feedstock is passed through a series of rolls to work the material and reduce its thickness to the desired gage. 13.14 Polymer fibers and filaments are used in several applications. 13. 13. such as tubes. The components of an injection molding machine are: (1) the injection unit and (2) the clamping unit. It combines extrusion and blowing to produce a tube of thin film. Calendering is a process for producing sheet and film stock out of rubber or rubbery thermoplastics such as plasticized PVC.

13.plate mold in injection molding? Answer.1). called chemical blowing agents. 13. (2) lower temperatures in the barrel. in which the surface is drawn into the molding by contraction of internal material. so that the gas comes out of solution and expands when the pressure is subsequently reduced. Answer. Blow molding is used to produce hollow.27 What is the starting material form in thermoforming? Answer. 13. that decompose at elevated temperatures to liberate gases such as CO2 or N2 within the melt. In mechanical thermoforming. The defects include: short shots.3. flashing. only one mold form is required. The two ingredients form the components used in catalyst-activated or mixing-activated thermoset systems (Section 8. Reaction injection molding involves the mixing of two highly reactive liquid ingredients and immediately injecting the mixture into a mold cavity where chemical reactions leading to solidification occur. (2) mixing a physical blowing agent with the polymer . and (3) use of a heated mold to cause cross-linking of the TS polymer. The differences in injection molding of thermosets are: (1) shorter barrel length. 13. and weld lines where the melt has flowed around a core or 13. matching mold halves are required.25 What is reaction injection molding? Answer.29 Why are the molds generally more costly in mechanical thermoforming than in pressure or vacuum thermoforming? Answer. while in other thermoforming processes.23 Describe structural foam molding. sink marks. then hardening the polymer by means of heat or chemical reaction.a gas such as nitrogen (N2) or pentane (C5H12) which can be dissolved in the polymer melt under pressure. 13.13. a negative mold has a concave cavity.22 Discuss some of the defects that can occur in plastic injection molding.21 What are the advantages of a three-plate mold over a two. this results in the part having a tough outer skin surrounded by a foam core. There are several foaming processes: (1) mechanical agitation . and (3) mixing the polymer with chemical compounds. seamless containers. 66 .28 What is the difference between a positive mold and a negative mold in thermoforming? Answer.24 What are the significant differences in the equipment and operating procedures between injection molding of thermoplastics and injection molding of thermosets? Answer. 13. these first two reasons to prevent premature curing. Thermoforming starts with a thermoplastic sheet or film.mixing a liquid resin with air by. such as bottles.26 What kinds of products are produced by blow molding? Answer. the three-plate mold automatically separates the molded part(s) from the runner system. As the mold opens. in which the polymer melt is squeezed into the parting surfaces between the mold halves and around ejection pins. Structural foam molding is an injection molding process in which a gas or gas-producing ingredient is mixed with the polymer melt prior to injection into the mold cavity. 13. in which the polymer melt solidifies before filling the cavity. A positive mold has a convex shape. Answer.30 What are the processes by which polymer foams are produced? Answer. 13.

(b) and (d). (c) rate of flow. but should be included in our list of plastic sheet and film-making processes. better than many ceramics. Answer. and (e) part ejection unit. (c) feed section. (d) mold. (4) Thermal expansion is greater for plastics than metals.4 Which of the following processes is not associated with the production of plastic sheet and film (more than one)? (a) blown-film extrusion process. (e) metering section. and (d). so dimensional changes due to temperature variations are much more significant than for metals.2 The forward movement of polymer melt in an extruder barrel is resisted by drag flow. (a). (d) temperature. Finally. are probably more recognizable to the reader as correct answers to this question. since each correct answer is worth 1 point. Answer. (5) Many types of plastics degrade from sunlight and certain other forms of radiation. Answer. (d) heating section. (b). plastics are soluble in many common solvents. (b) calendering. Answer. (3) Service temperatures of plastics are limited relative to engineering metals and ceramics. all correct answers must be given. and (f) shaping section. (2) Impact resistance of plastics is general good. and (e) 13.1 The shear viscosity of a polymer melt is affected by which of the following (more than one)? (a) degree of polymerization. and rate of flow (c) is related to shear rate. or (e) slit-die extrusion.3 Which three of the following are sections of a conventional extruder barrel for thermoplastics? (a) compression section. Some of the general considerations are : (1) Plastics are not as strong or stiff as metals and should not be used in applications where high stresses will be encountered. (c).6 The principal components of an injection molding machine are which two of the following? (a) clamping unit.5 Spinning in the production of synthetic fibers refers to which of the following: (a) extrusion of polymer melt through small die openings. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point. (c) 13. Degree of polymerization (a) is correlated with molecular weight. (d) Calendering is more closely associated with rubber coating of materials such as textiles. some plastics degrade in oxygen and ozone atmospheres. (a) and (c) 67 . 13. and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point. (b) Drag flow is the forward motion of the melt caused by the Archimedian screw principle in the barrel. 13. which is caused by the resistance to flow through the die orifice: (a) true or (b) false. Also. (a). (b) hopper. (c). (c) chill-roll extrusion. (b) die section. or (d) none of the above. Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 36 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct). 13. (c) injection unit.13. (b) polymer type. (d) doctor blade method. Answer. To attain a perfect score on the quiz. The other parameters. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers. 13.31 What are some of the general considerations that product designers must keep in mind when designing components out of plastics? Answer. Answer. The resistance to forward flow is called back pressure flow. For each question. (b) drawing the strands to elongate and thin them. (c) both of the above.

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The parting line in injection molding is which one of the following: (a) the lines formed where polymer melt meets after flowing around a core in the mold, (b) the narrow gate sections where the parts are separated from the runner, (c) where the clamping unit is joined to the injection unit in the molding machine, (d) where the two mold halves come together, (e) none of the above. Answer. (d) The function of the ejection system is to (one best answer): (a) move polymer melt into the mold cavity, (b) open the mold halves after the cavity is filled, (c) remove the molded parts from the runner system after molding, (d) separate the part from the cavity after molding, (e) none of the above. Answer. (d) A three-plate mold offers which of the following advantages when compared to a two-plate mold (more than one)? (a) automatic separation of parts from runners, (b) gating is usually at the base of the part to reduce weld lines, (c) sprue does not solidify, (d) stronger molded parts, (e) none of the above. Answer. (a) and (b)

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13.10 Which of the following defects or problems is associated with injection molding (more than one)? (a) bambooing, (b) die swell, (c) drag flow, (d) flash, (e) melt fracture, (f) short shots, or (g) sink marks. Answer. (d), (f), and (g) 13.11 In rotational molding, centrifugal force is used to force the polymer melt against the surfaces of the mold cavity where solidification occurs: (a) true or (b) false. Answer. (b) It is the force of gravity in the doubly rotating mold that forces the polymer against the mold surfaces. 13.12 Use of a parison is associated with which one of the following plastic shaping processes? (a) bi-injection molding, (b) blow molding, (c) compression molding, (d) pressure thermoforming, or (e) sandwich molding. Answer. (b) 13.13 A thermoforming mold with a convex form is called which one of the following (may be more than one)? (a) a die, (b) a negative mold, (c) a positive mold, or (d) a three-plate mold. Answer. (c) 13.14 The term encapsulation refers to which one of the following plastics shaping processes? (a) casting, (b) compression molding, (c) extrusion of hollow forms, (d) injection molding in which a metal insert is encased in the molded part, or (e) vacuum thermoforming using a positive mold. Answer. (a) 13.15 Which of the following terms applies to the processing of foam plastics (more than one)? (a) chemical blowing agents, (b) open cell structure, (c) powder injection molding, (d) sandwich molding, (e) structural foam molding, (f) all of the above. Answer. (a), (b), (d), and (e). 13.16 The two most common polymer foams are which of the following? (a) polyacetal, (b) polyethylene, (c) polystyrene, (d) polyurethane, and (e) polyvinylchloride.

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Answer. (c) and (d) 13.17 In which of the following property categories do plastic parts compare favorably with metals (more than one)? (a) impact resistance, (b) resistance to ultraviolet radiation, (c) stiffness, (d) strength, (e) strength-to- weight ratio, or (f) temperature resistance. Answer. (a) and (e). 13.18 Which of the following processes are generally limited to thermoplastic polymers (more than one)? (a) blow molding, (b) compression molding, (c) reaction injection molding, (d) thermoforming, (e) transfer molding, (f) wire coating. Answer. (a) and (d). 13.19 Which of the following processes would be applicable to produce hulls for small boats (more than one)? (a) blow molding, (b) compression molding, (c) injection molding, (d) rotational molding, or (e) vacuum thermoforming. Answer. (a), (d), and (e).

Problems

Extrusion 13.1 The diameter of an extruder barrel is 65 mm and its length = 1.75 m. The screw rotates at 55 rev/min. The screw channel depth = 5.0 mm, and the flight angle = 18°. The head pressure at the die end of the barrel is 5.0 x 106 Pa. The viscosity of the polymer melt is given as 100 Pas. Find the volume flow rate of the plastic in the barrel. Solution: Qd = 0.5π 2(65x10-3)2(55/60)(5x10-3)sin 18 cos 18 = 95,560x10-9(0.3090)(0.9510) = 28.081 x 10-6 m3/s p = 5 MPa = 5x106 n/m2 Qb = π(5x106)(65x10-3)(5x10-3)3(sin 18) 2/12(100)(1.75) = 5.804 x 10-6 m3/s Qx = 28.081 - 5.804 = 22.277 x 10 -6 m3/s. 13.2 An extruder barrel has a diameter of 120 mm and a length = 3.0 m. The screw channel depth = 8.0 mm, and its pitch = 95 mm. The viscosity of the polymer melt is 75 Pas, and the head pressure in the barrel is 4.0 MPa. What rotational speed of the screw is required to achieve a volumetric flow rate of 90 cm3/s? Solution: A = tan-1(95/120π) = 14.14° Qd = 0.5π 2(.12) 2(N)(8x10-3)sin 14.14 cos 14.14 = 0.5685x10-3(0.2444)(0.9697) = 134.73 N x 10-6 m3/s Qb = π(4x106)(.12)(8x10-3)3(sin 14.14) 2/12(75)(3.0) = 26.66 x 10-6 m3/s Qx = Qd - Qb = 157.5 N x 10-6 - 26.66 x 10-6 = 90 x 10-6 m3/s 134.73 N = 90 + 26.66 = 116.66 N = 116.66/134.73 = 0.8659 rev/s = 51.95 rev/min. 13.3 An extruder has diameter = 80 mm and length = 2.0 m. Its screw has a channel depth = 5 mm, flight angle = 18 degrees, and it rotates at 1 rev/sec. The plastic melt has a shear viscosity = 150 Pas. Determine the extruder characteristic by computing Qmax and p max and then finding the equation of the straight line between them. Solution: Qmax = Qd = 0.5π 2(.08) 2(1)(5x10-3)sin 18 cos 18 = 0.158 x 10-3(0.3090)(0.9510) = 46.4 x 10-6 m3/s pmax = 6π(.08)(1)(2)(150)(cot 18)/(5x10-3)2 = 452.4(3.077)/25x10-6 = 55 x 106 Pa = 55 MPa

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Qx = 46.4 x 10-6 - (46.4x10-6/55)p Qx = 46.4 x 10 -6 - 0.8436 x 10-6 p, where p has units of MPa 13.4 Determine the helix angle A such that the screw pitch p is equal to the screw diameter D. This is called the "square" angle in plastics extrusion - the angle that provides a flight advance equal to one diameter for each rotation of the screw. Solution: Assume flight land = zero. From Eq. (15.4), tan A = pitch/πD If pitch = D, then A = tan-1(1/π) = 17.66° ° 13.5 An extruder barrel has a diameter of 2.5 in. The screw rotates at 60 rev/min; its channel depth = 0.20 in, and its flight angle = 17.5°. The head pressure at the die end of the barrel is 800 lb/in 2 and the length of the barrel is 50 in. The viscosity of the polymer melt is 122 x 10-4 lb-sec/in 2. Determine the volume flow rate of the plastic in the barrel. Solution: Qd = 0.5π 2(2.5) 2(1)(.2)sin 17.5 cos 17.5 = 0.5(12.337)(0.3007)(0.9537) = 1.769 in 3/sec Qb = π(800)(2.5)(.2) 3(sin 17.5) 2/12(122x10-4)(50) = 0.621 in 3/sec Qx = 1.769 - 0.621 = 1.148 in3/sec. 13.6 An extruder barrel has a diameter of 4.0 in and an L/D ratio of 28. The screw channel depth = 0.25 in, and its pitch = 4.8 in. It rotates at 60 rev/min. The viscosity of the polymer melt is 100 x 10-4 lb-sec/in 2. What head pressure is required to obtain a volume flow rate = 150 in 3/min? Solution: A = tan-1(pitch/πD) = tan-1(4.8/4π) = 20.9° Qd = 0.5π 2(4) 2(1)(.25)sin 20.9 cos 20.9 = 19.74(0.3567)(0.9342) = 6.578 in 3/sec = 394.66 in 3/min Qx = Qd - Qb = 394.66 - Qd = 150 Qb = 394.66 - 150 = 244.66 in 3/min = 4.078 in3/sec L = 4(28) = 112 in. Qb = πp(4)(.25) 3(sin 20.9) 2/12(100x10-4)(112) = 4.078 0.0018592 p = 4.078 p = 2193.4 lb/in2 13.7 An extrusion operation produces continuous tubing with outside diameter = 2.0 in and inside diameter = 1.7 in. The extruder barrel has a diameter = 4.0 in and length = 10 ft. The screw rotates at 50 rev/min; it has a channel depth = 0.25 in and flight angle = 16°. The head pressure has a value of 350 lb/in 2 and the viscosity of the polymer melt is 80 x 10-4 lb-sec/in 2. Under these conditions, what is the production rate in length of tube/min, assuming the extrudate is pulled at a rate that eliminates the effect of die swell (i.e., the tubing has the same OD and ID as the die profile). Solution: Qd = 0.5π 2(4) 2(50/60)(.25)sin 16 cos 16 = 16.45(0.2756)(0.9613) = 4.358 in 3/sec Qb = π(350)(4)(.25) 3(sin 16) 2/12(80x10-4)(120) = 0.453 in 3/sec Qx = 4.358 - 0.453 = 3.905 in 3/sec. Ax = 0.25π(22 - 1.72) = 0.872 in 2 vx = 3.905/0.872 = 4.478 in/sec = 22.39 ft/min. 13.8 An extruder has barrel diameter and length of 100 mm and 2.8 m, respectively. The screw rotational speed = 50 rev/min, channel depth = 7.5 mm, and flight angle = 17°. The plastic melt has a shear viscosity = 175 Pas. Determine: (a) the extruder characteristic, (b) the shape factor Ks for a circular die opening with diameter = 3.0 mm and length = 12.0 mm, and (c) the operating point (Q and p). Solution: Qmax = Qd = 0.5π 2(.1) 2(50/60)(7.5x10-3)sin 17 cos 17 = 308.4 x 10-6(0.2924)(0.9563)

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= 86.2 x 10-6 m3/s pmax = 6π(.1)(50/60)(2.8)(175)(cot 17)/(7.5x10-3)2 = 44.75 x 106 Pa =44.75 MPa Qx = 86.2 x 10 -6 - 1.926 x 10-12 p, where p has units of Pa (b) Given: Dd = 3 mm, Ld = 12 mm. Ks = π(3 x 10-3)4/128(175)(12 x 10-3) = 0.9467 x 10 -12 (c) 0.9467 x 10-12 p = 86.2 x 10-6 - 1.926 x 10-12 p 2.8727 x 10-12 p = 86.2 x 10-6 p = 30.0 x 10 6 Pa = 30 MPa Qx = 0.9467 x 10-12 (30 x 106) = 28.4 x 10 -6 m3/s Check with extruder characteristic: Qx = 86.2 x 10-6 - 1.926 x 10-12 (30 x 106) = 28.4 x 10-6 m3/s. 13.9 Consider an extruder in which the barrel diameter = 4.5 in and length = 11 ft. The extruder screw rotates at 60 rev/min; it has channel depth = 0.35 in and flight angle = 20°. The plastic melt has a shear viscosity = 125 x 10-4 lb-sec/in 2. Determine: (a) Qmax and p max, (b) the shape factor Ks for a circular die opening in which Dd = 0.312 in and Ld = 0.75 in, and (c) the values of Q and p at the operating point. Solution: (a) Qmax = 0.5π 2(4.5) 2(1)(.35)sin 20 cos 20 = 34.975(0.342)(0.9397) = 11.24 in 3/sec pmax = 6π(4.5)(1)(132)(.0125)(cot 20)/(0.35) 2 = 3139 lb/in2 (b) Given: Dd = 0.312 in., Ld = 0.75 in. Ks = π(.312) 4/128(.0125)(.75) = 0.024808 (c) From (a), Qx = Qmax - (Qmax/pmax)p = 11.24 - 0.003581p From (b), Qx = 0.024808p Combining, .024808p = 11.24 - .003581p .02839p = 11.24 p = 395.9 lb/in2 Qx = 11.24 - 0.003581(395.9) = 9.82 in3/sec 13.10 An extruder has a barrel diameter = 5.0 in and length = 12 ft. The extruder screw rotates at 50 rev/min; it has channel depth = 0.30 in and flight angle = 17.7°. The plastic melt has a shear viscosity = 100 x 10-4 lb- sec/in 2. Find: (a) the extruder characteristic, (b) the values of Q and p at the operating point, given that the die characteristic is Qx = 0.00150 p. Solution: (a) Qmax = 0.5π 2(5) 2(50/60)(.3)sin 17.7 cos 17.7 = 30.84(0.3040)(0.9527) = 8.93 in 3/sec pmax = 6π(5)(50/60)(144)(.01)(cot 17.7)/(0.3) 2 = 3937.6 lb/in2 Qx = Qmax - (Qmax/pmax)p = 8.93 - 0.002268p (b) Given: die characteristic Qx = 0.0015p Qx = 8.93 - 0.002268p = 0.0015p 0.00377p = 8.93 p = 2370 lb/in2 Qx = 8.93 - 0.002268(2370) = 3.55 in3/sec 13.11 An extruder has a barrel diameter = 4.0 in and length = 5.0 ft. The extruder screw rotates at 80 rev/min. It has a channel with depth = 0.15 in and flight angle = 20°. The polymer melt has a shear viscosity = 60 x 10-4 lb- sec/in 2 at the operating temperature of the process. The specific gravity of the polymer is 1.2. (a) Find the equation for the extruder characteristic. If a T-shaped cross-section is extruded at a rate of 0.13 lb/sec, determine: (b) the operating point (Q and p), and (c) the die characteristic that is indicated by the operating point. Solution: (a) Qmax = 0.5π 2(4) 2(80/60)(.15)sin 20 cos 20 = 15.79(0.3420)(0.9397) = 5.075 in 3/sec pmax = 6π(4)(80/60)(60)(.006)(cot 20)/(0.15) 2 = 1104.8 lb/in2

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Qx = Qmax - (Qmax/pmax)p = 5.075 - 0.004593p (b) Given: T-shaped cross section extruded at 0.13 lb/sec. Density of polymer ρ = 1.2(62.5 lb/ft3)/(12 in 3/ft3) = 0.0433 lb/in3 Qx = 0.13/0.0433 = 3.0 in 3/sec. 3.0 = 5.075 - 0.004593p 0.004593p = 5.075 - 3.0 = 2.075 p = 451.8 lb/in2 (c) Qx = Ks p Ks = Qx/p = 3.0/451.8 = 0.00664 Qx = 0.00664 p Injection Molding 13.12 Compute the percentage volumetric contraction of a polyethylene molded part, based on the value of shrinkage given in Table 13.1. Solution: 15.12 S = 0.025 for polyethylene from Table 13.1. Volumetric contraction = 1.0 - (1 - .025) 3 = 1.0 - 0.92686 = 0.07314 = 7.314% Note that we are not using the parameter S from Table 13.1 in the way it was intended to be used. Its intended use is to compute the oversized dimension of a mold cavity in injection molding. Instead, we are using the shrinkage term to calculate the amount of (volumetric) reduction in size of the part after the polymer is injected into the cavity. In fact, a slightly different shrinkage parameter value may apply in this case. 13.13 The specified dimension = 100.00 mm for a certain injection molded part made of nylon-6,6. Compute the corresponding dimension to which the mold cavity should be machined, using the value of shrinkage given in Table 13.1. Solution: S = 0.020 for nylon-6,6 from Table 13.1. Dc = 100.0 + 100(0.020) + 100(0.020) 2 = 100 + 2.02 + 0.04 = 102.04 mm. 13.14 The part dimension for a certain injection molded part made of polycarbonate is specified as 3.75 in. Compute the corresponding dimension to which the mold cavity should be machined, using the value of shrinkage given in Table 13.1. Solution: S = 0.007 for polycarbonate from Table 13.1. Dc = 3.75 + 3.75(0.007) + 3.75 (0.007) 2 = 3.75 + 0.0263 + 0.0002 = 3.7765 in. 13.15 The foreman in the injection molding department says that a polyethylene part produced in one of the operations has greater shrinkage than the calculations indicate it should have. The important dimension of the part is specified as 112.5 ±0.25 mm. However, the actual molded part measures 112.02 mm. (a) As a first step, the corresponding mold cavity dimension should be checked. Compute the correct value of the mold dimension, given that the shrinkage value for polyethylene is 0.025 (from Table 13.1). (b) What adjustments in process parameters could be made to reduce the amount of shrinkage. Solution: (a) Given: S = 0.025, Dc = 112.5 + 112.5(.025) + 112.5(.025) 2 = 115.383 mm (b) Adjustments to reduce shrinkage include: (1) increase injection pressure, (2) increase compaction time, and (3) increase molding temperatures.

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Solution: Density ρ = 0.25 = 0.2/16) 3] = 63.18 in 3 Weight = (63. and td = (11. The observed die swell is 1.5 mm.0)/2 = 0.5x12 .2 mm.25 in diameter bottle from a parison that is extruded in a die whose outside diameter = 1.0 = 0.125 in.331 mm (= 0.) (b) Measured value should be close to calculated value. Blow molding wall thickness tm = (1. Solution: (a) Dd = (11.5 mm.5) = 2. 13. The mean diameter of the parison is observed to swell to a size of 20.1.18)(0. determine (a) the corresponding wall thickness of the container and (b) the wall thickness of the parison. The ball will be 1.0429 in.(1.125 in. What weight of PE powder should be loaded into the mold in order to meet these specifications? The specific gravity of the PE grade is 0.0343) = 2. what is the maximum possible diameter of the blow mold? Solution: Dd = (22 + 18)/2 = 20 mm.17 lb.5)/2 = 2.5/160 = 1.013 in. 13.1.7.18 A parison is extruded from a die with outside diameter = 11. The operation is conventional pressure thermoforming using a positive mold.19 An extrusion operation is used to produce a parison whose mean diameter = 27 mm.25) in text.0429)/6.35) 3(2)(20)/. and wall thickness td = (1.17 A blow molding operation produces a 6.0343 lb/in 3 Volume = π(Do3 . 13.40 mm.24. If the minimum wall thickness of the blow molded container is to be 0. measure the wall thickness to compare with your answer in (a).16 The extrusion die for a polyethylene parison used in blow molding has a mean diameter = 16.95. If the diameter of the blow molded container is to be 100 mm.25) 3(2.18)/2 = 2 mm. Solution: (a) rsd = 20.5 + 7.25.25 .5)(16. Solution: Mean extrusion die diameter Dd = (1.0 mm tm = (1. respectively.24) 3(.00 in. Some wall thickness are less.0)/100.Other Molding Operations and Thermoforming 13. The size of the ring opening in the die = 1.25 = 13. The inside and outside diameters of the die that produced the parison are 18 mm and 22 mm.shaped part.5)/112 = 0. The parison is used to blow mold a beverage container whose outside diameter = 112 mm (a standard size 2-liter soda bottle).5 mm and inside diameter = 7.0 mm.505 mm (b) tp = (1. Using a micrometer.281) 2(1.5 ft in diameter and its wall thickness should be 1/16 in.5)/2 = 9. What is the maximum air pressure that can be used if the maximum allowable tensile stress for the polymer is 1000 lb/in 2.5 . (a) What is the corresponding wall thickness of the container? (b) Obtain an empty 2-liter plastic soda bottle and (carefully) cut it across the diameter. and td = (22 .95(62. 13.21 The problem in a certain thermoforming operation is that there is too much thinning in the walls of the large cup.16667π[(1. (15.00)/2 = 1.Di3)/6 = 0.125)/6.4/1728) = 0.0)(9.281) 2 (1.5 mm. rsd = 27/20 = 1. 462 mm 13.125)(1. The observed diameter swell ratio = 1.5x12) 3 .35 Rearranging Eq.73 lb/in2 . (a) Why is thinning 73 .25 in and inside diameter = 1.40 = 246 mm.5 mm after exiting the die orifice.20 A rotational molding operation is to be used to mold a hollow playing ball out of polyethylene. Maximum air pressure p = 2(1000)(0. Dm = rsd3tdDd/tm = (1.281 tm = (1. and the plastic is an ABS sheet with an initial thickness of 3.25 .

74 . thinning in these sides results. since a negative mold will distribute the material more uniformly and result in approximately equal thinning throughout the sheet. However. (b) The problem could be solved by either: (1) fabricating a negative mold to replace the current positive mold.38 in the text.occurring in the walls of the cup? (b) What changes could be made in the operation to correct the problem? Solution: (a) As the starting flat sheet is draped over the convex cup-shaped mold. or (2) prestretch the sheet as in Figure 13. Hence. the remaining portions of the sheet must be stretched significantly to conform to the sides of the cup. the portion contacting the base of the cup experiences little stretching.

3 What is the sequence of processing steps required to produce finished rubber goods? Answer. belted bias and radial ply tires use belts. Answer.4 What are some of the functions of the additives that are combined with rubber during compounding? Answer. reinforcing fillers. (b) belted bias.1 RUBBER PROCESSING TECHNOLOGY Review Questions How is the rubber industry organized? Answer. What does vulcanization do to the rubber? Answer. plasticizers to soften the rubber. The rubber is usually recovered as follows: (1) the latex is collected into tanks and diluted to half natural concentration. What are some of the operations used to coat rubber onto a fabric to produce reinforced rubber? Answer. 14. 14. The resulting raw rubber is called ribbed smoked sheet. and blowing agents to make foam rubber. 14. this strengthens and stiffens the rubber while extensibility is retained. (2) the petrochemical industry produces synthetic rubber.8 Name the three basic tire constructions and briefly identify the differences in their construction. (3) mixing. (2) formic or acetic or other acid is added to the solution which causes the rubber to coagulate. 14. extenders to reduce cost. The categories are: (1) extrusion. and (3) molding and curing. (3) the coagulum is then squeezed through rolls to drive off water. Vulcanization causes cross-linking of the rubber molecules. (2) compounding.1.2 How is raw rubber recovered from the latex that is tapped from a rubber tree? Answer. 14.5 14. (2) calendering.10 What is the purpose of the bead coil in a pneumatic tire? 75 . 14. (3) coating.9 What are the three basic steps in the manufacture of a pneumatic tire? Answer. dipping. (2) building the carcass and adding the rubber for the sidewall and treads. (a) diagonal ply. antioxidants. 14. The typical sequence is: (1) production of the raw rubber. Diagonal ply and belted bias both have their carcass plys running in a diagonal direction relative to the tire circumference. The rubber industry is organized into three parts: (1) rubber growing plantations produce natural rubber. Answer. radial ply has its carcass plies running in a radial direction.14 14. skimming. and (c) radial ply. see Article 14. (4) shaping. coloring pigments.7 Name the four basic categories of processes used to shape rubber.4. and (4) molding.6 14. whereas diagonal ply tires do not have these belts. and (3) fabricators take the NR and SR and produce finished rubber goods. and (5) vulcanization. and spraying. The additives and functions are: vulcanizing chemicals. and (4) the resulting sheets are dried in smokehouses for several days. The three steps are: (1) preform the components. Calendering. which are additional plies around the outside circumference of the tire.

(c) pneumatic tires. What are some examples of these differences? Answer. Answer. Three examples: (1) no draft is needed on the part for mold removal. (b) polyisobutylene.Answer. (c) 25.6 How many minutes are required to cure (vulcanize) a modern passenger car tire? (a) 5. (c) stearic acid. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers. and (e) zinc oxide. (b) carbon black. and (3) screw threads are not normally used on rubber parts.5 Which of the following ingredients do not contribute to the vulcanizing process (more than one)? (a) calcium carbonate. TPE stands for thermoplastic elastomer. and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point. 76 . (b) 14. since each correct answer is worth 1 point.7 When is the tread pattern imprinted onto the circumference of the tire? (a) during preforming. or (d) transfer molding. To attain a perfect score on the quiz. or (e) reclaimed rubber. (c) 14. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point.12 Many of the design guidelines that are applicable to plastics are also applicable to rubber. (b) while building the carcass. (b) 15. or (d) during curing. (c) polyisoprene. (b) 14.2 The chemical name of the ingredient recovered from the latex of the rubber tree is which one of the following? (a) polybutadiene. The bead coil provides a rigid support for the tire when it is mounted onto the wheel rim. the extreme flexibility of rubber results in certain differences. (2) holes should be molded into rubber parts rather than machined. Answer. which one would rank as the single most important? (a) antioxidants.11 What is a TPE? Answer. or (d) tennis balls. However. whereas holes can be machined or molded in a plastic part.1 The most important rubber product is: (a) footwear. For each question. all correct answers must be given. (c) clays and other hydrous aluminum silicates. Answer. Answer. (b) carbon black. or (d) 45.4 Which one of the following molding processes is the most important in the production of products made of conventional rubber? (a) compression molding. Answer. (d) plasticizers and softening oils. (b) injection molding. 14. 14.3 Of the following rubber additives. or (d) polystyrene. Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 11 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct). it is a thermoplastic polymer that behaves like a rubber. (a) and (b) 14. (c) thermoforming. (c) during molding. Answer. (d) sulfur. 14. (a) 14. (c) 14. (b) conveyor belts.

Answer. Answer.8 Which of the following are not normally used in the processing of thermoplastic elastomers (more than one)? (a) blow molding. Answer. (c) 14. (b) and (e) 14. (b) compression molding. 77 . (a) Screw threads are not normally designed into rubber parts because of the extreme flexibility of rubber.9 Screw threads are not normally molded into rubber parts: (a) true or (b) false. (d) injection molding. or (e) vulcanization. (c) extrusion.

6 15. Principal polymer matrices in FRPs are unsaturated polyesters and epoxies.4 SHAPING PROCESSES FOR POLYMER MATRIX COMPOSITES Review Questions What are the principal polymers used in fiber-reinforced polymers? Answer. Prepregs have continuous fibers rather than chopped fibers as in molding compounds. 15. Flakes are simply particles that possess very low width-to-thickness ratios. SMC consists of TS polymer resin.11 Identify some of the different forms of PMC molding compounds. Why do we say that particles and flakes are members of the same basic class of reinforcing material? Answer.5 What is sheet molding compound (SMC)? Answer. In the context of fiber reinforcement. A mat is a felt consisting of randomly oriented fibers held loosely together in a binder. and chopped glass fibers.10 What are some of the distinguishing characteristics of the closed mold processes for PMCs? Answer. what is a mat? Answer. fillers. Answer. A roving consists of untwisted filaments. PMC molding compounds include SMCs. all rolled into a sheet of typical thickness = 0. TMCs. Characteristics include: (1) they use molds consisting of two halves that open and close during the molding cycle. orientation of the fibers is controlled. the layer of fiber reinforcement is placed into the mold dry. 15. the fibers in each layer are randomly oriented. and (3) the geometric shapes of the moldings are more complex in three dimensions. 78 . 15. What is the difference between a roving and a yarn? Answer. An autoclave is an enclosed chamber which can supply heat and/or pressure at controlled levels.3 15.15 15. (2) high pressure is generally associated with the process. In the prepreg approach.9 What is an autoclave? Answer.7 How is a prepreg different from a molding compound? Answer. In wet lay-up. layers of fiber preimpregnated with resin are laid into the mold. and BMCs. whereas in spray-up. 15. and the uncured resin is then applied to it to form the composite laminate. 15.250 inch.8 What is the difference between the wet lay-up approach and the prepreg approach in hand lay-up? Answer.1 15. Because in hand lay-up. 15. Why are laminated FRP products made by the spray-up method not as strong as similar products made by hand lay-up? Answer. while a yarn consists of twisted fibers.2 15.

impregnated continuous fibers are wrapped around a rotating mandrel with the internal shape of the FRP product. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers. 15. Answer. laser beam cutting. Pultrusion is a process in which continuous fibers are dipped into a resin and pulled through a shaping die (somewhat like an extrusion die) where the resin cures. the resin is cured and the mandrel is removed. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point.16 Describe the pultrusion process. and water jet cutting. power shears. Preform molding is a compression molding process in which a precut mat is placed into the lower half of a mold together with a charge of thermosetting resin. (b) thermoplastics. Answer. scissors. Uncured FRPs are cut by methods which include: knives. CNC allows independent control over mandrel rotation and carriage speed for greater flexibility in relative motions. Typical products include: bicycle frames and space trusses. 15.13 Describe reinforced reaction injection molding (RRIM).15. or (c) thermosets. 15. Pulforming is pultrusion with the added operation of a shape change in the length (straight length becomes curved) and cross-section (different cross-sections throughout the length). diamond cutting tools. steel-rule blanking dies.14 What is filament winding? Answer. 15.19 How are FRPs cut? Answer.12 What is preform molding? Answer. RRIM involves the injection of resins that cure by chemical reaction together with reinforcing fibers into a closed mold. and water jet cutting. all correct answers must be given. Answer. since each correct answer is worth 1 point.17 How does pulforming differ from pultrusion? Answer. Filament winding is a process in which resin. The resulting part is a fiber-reinforced (usually glass fiber) plastic molding. 15. To attain a perfect score on the quiz. Cured FRPs are cut by WC and HSS cutting tools. (c) 79 .15 What is the advantage of computer numerical control over mechanical control in filament winding? Answer. The resulting sections are similar to extruded parts except that they are reinforced with continuous fibers. the materials are then pressed between heated molds to cure the resin and produce a fiber-reinforced molding.18 With what kinds of products is tube rolling associated? Answer. 15. 15. 15. Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 12 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct). For each question. and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point.1 Which one of the following is the most common polymer type in fiber-reinforced polymer composites? (a) elastomers.

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Most rubber products are properly classified into which of the following categories (more than one)? (a) elastomer reinforced with carbon black, (b) fiber- reinforced composite, (c) particle -reinforced composite, (d) polymer matrix composite, (e) pure elastomer, and (f) pure polymer. Answer. (a), (c), and (d). Hand lay-up is classified in which of the following general categories of PMC shaping processes (more than one)? (a) closed mold process, (b) compression molding, (c) contact molding, (d) filament winding, or (e) open mold process. Answer. (c) and (e). A positive mold with a smooth surface will produce a good finish on which surface of the laminated product in the hand lay-up method? (a) inside surface or (b) outside surface. Answer. (a) SMC molding is a form of which one of the following? (a) compression molding, (b) contact molding, (c) injection molding, (d) open mold processing, (e) pultrusion, or (f) transfer molding. Answer. (a) Filament winding involves the use of which one of the following fiber reinforcements? (a) continuous filaments, (b) fabrics, (c) mats, (d) prepregs, (e) short fibers, or (f) woven rovings. Answer. (a) In filament winding, when the continuous filament is wound around the cylindrical mandrel at a helix angle close to 90°, it is called which of the following (one best answer)? (a) bi-axial winding, (b) helical winding, (c) hoop winding, (d) perpendicular winding, (e) polar winding, or (f) radial winding. Answer. (c) Pultrusion is most similar to which one of the following plastic shaping processes? (a) blow-molding, (b) extrusion, (c) injection molding, or (d) thermoforming. Answer. (b) Water jet cutting is one of several ways of cutting or trimming uncured or cured FRPs; in the case of cured FRPs, the process is noted for its reduction of dust and noise: (a) true or (b) false. Answer. (a)

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16.1

POWDER METALLURGY

Review Questions

Name some of the reasons for the commercial importance of powder metallurgy technology. Answer. PM is important because: (1) parts can be made to net or near net shape, (2) parts can be made with a controlled level of porosity, (3) certain metals difficult to process by other methods can be processed by PM, (4) PM allows the formulation of unusual alloys not easily obtained by traditional alloying methods. 16.2 What are some of the disadvantages of PM methods? Answer. Disadvantages include: (1) high tooling costs, (2) metal powders are expensive, (3) difficulties in storing and handling, (4) certain limitations on part geometry imposed by the uniaxial press methods, and (5) variations in density in a PM component can be troublesome. 16.3 16.4 In the screening of powders for sizing, what is meant by the term mesh count? Answer. The mesh count of the screen is the number of openings per linear inch. What is the difference between open pores and closed pores in a metallic powders? Answer. Open pores are air spaces between particles, while closed pores are voids internal to a particle. 16.5 What is meant by the term aspect ratio for a metallic particle? Answer. The aspect ratio of a particle is ratio of the maximum dimension to the minimum dimension of the given particle. 16.6 How would one measure the angle of repose for a given amount of metallic powder? Answer. One measure would be to let the powders flow through a small funnel and measure the angle taken by the resulting pile of powders relative to the horizontal. 16.7 Define bulk density and true density for metallic powders. Answer. Bulk density refers to the weight per volume of the powders in the loose state, while true density is the weight per volume of the true volume of metal in the powders (the volume that would result if the powders were melted). 16.8 What are the principal methods used to produce metallic powders? Answer. The methods are: (1) atomization - the conversion of molten metal into droplets which solidify into powders; (2) chemical reduction - reducing metallic oxides by use of reducing agents which combine with the oxygen to free the metals in the form of powders; and (3) electrolysis use of an electrolytic cell to deposit particles of the metal onto the cathode in the cell. 16.9 What are the three basic steps in the conventional powder metallurgy shaping process? Answer. The steps are: (1) blending and/or mixing, (2) pressing, and (3) sintering. 16.10 What is the technical difference between mixing and blending in powder metallurgy? Answer. Mixing refers to the combining of metal powders of different chemistries, while blending means combining particles of the same chemistry but different sizes.

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16.11 What are some of the ingredients usually added to the metallic powders during blending and/or mixing? Answer. The additives are: (1) lubricants, (2) binders, and (3) deflocculants. 16.12 What is meant by the term green compact? Answer. The green compact is the pressed but not yet sintered PM part. 16.13 Describe what happens to the individual particles during compaction. Answer. Starting with the initial powder arrangement, the particles are first repacked into a more efficient arrangement, followed by deformation of the particles as pressure is increased. 16.14 Which of the following most closely typifies the sintering temperatures in PM? (a) 0.5 Tm, (b) 0.8 Tm, (c) Tm. Answer. (b) 16.15 What are the three steps in the sintering cycle in PM? Answer. The three steps in the cycle are: (1) preheat, in which lubricants and binders are burned off, (2) sintering, and (3) cool down. 16.16 What are some of the reasons why a controlled furnace is desirable in sintering? Answer. Some of the purposes of a controlled atmosphere furnace are: (1) oxidation protection, (2) provide a reducing atmosphere to remove existing oxides, (3) provide a carburizing atmosphere, and (4) remove lubricants and binders from pressing. 16.17 What are the advantages of infiltration in PM? Answer. Advantages of infiltration are: resulting structure is nonporous structure, improved toughness and strength. 16.18 What is the difference between powder injection molding and metal injection molding? Answer. Metal injection molding is a subset of powder injection molding, in which the powders are metallic. The more general term includes powders of ceramic. 16.19 How is isostatic pressing distinguished from conventional pressing and sintering in PM? Answer. Isostatic pressing applies hydrostatic pressure to all sides of the mold, whereas conventional pressing is uniaxial. 16.20 Describe liquid phase sintering. Answer. Liquid phase sintering occurs when two metals of different melting temperatures are sintered at a temperature between their melting points. Accordingly, one metal melts, thoroughly wetting the solid particles and creating a strong bonding between the metals upon solidification. 16.21 What are the two basic classes of metal powders as far as chemistry is concerned? Answer. The two classes are: (1) elemental powders - powders of pure metal such as iron or copper, and (2) prealloyed powders - powders of alloys such as stainless steel or brass. 16.22 Why is PM technology so well suited to the production of gears and bearings? Answer. The reasons are: (1) the geometries of these parts lend themselves to PM pressing, and (2) the porosity allows impregnation of the PM parts with lubricants.

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**Multiple Choice Quiz
**

There are a total of 18 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct). To attain a perfect score on the quiz, all correct answers must be given, since each correct answer is worth 1 point. For each question, each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point, and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers. 16.1 The particle size that can pass through a screen is obtained by taking the reciprocal of the mesh count of the screen. (a) true, or (b) false. Answer. (b) The given description neglects consideration of the screen wire thickness. 16.2 Identify which of the phrases make the following statement correct: For a given weight of metallic powders, the total surface area of the powders is increased by (more than one): (a) larger particle size, (b) smaller particle size, (c) higher shape factor, (d) smaller shape factor. Answer. (b) and (c) 16.3 16.4 As particle size increases, interparticle friction (a) increases, or (b) decreases. Answer. (b) Which of the following powder shapes would tend to have the lowest interparticle friction? (a) acicular, (b) cubic, (c) flakey, (d) spherical, and (e) rounded. Answer. (d) 16.5 Which of the following statements is correct in the context of metallic powders (more than one)? (a) porosity + packing factor = 1.0, (b) packing factor = 1/porosity, (c) packing factor = 1.0 porosity, (d) packing factor = - porosity, (e) packing factor = bulk density/true density. Answer. (a), (c), (e) 16.6 Repressing refers to a pressworking operation used to compress an unsintered part in a closed die to achieve sizing and better surface finish. (a) true or (b) false. Answer. (b) The repressed part has been sintered, not unsintered. 16.7 Impregnation refers to which of the following (more than one)? (a) soaking oil by capillary action into the pores of a PM part, (b) putting polymers into the pores of a PM part, or (c) filling the pores of the PM part with a molten metal. Answer. (a), (b) 16.8 In cold isostatic pressing, the mold is most typically made of which one of the following? (a) rubber, (b) sheetmetal, (c) tool steel, (d) textile, or (e) thermosetting polymer. Answer. (a) 16.9 Which of the following processes combines pressing and sintering of the metal powders (more than one)? (a) metal injection molding, (b) hot pressing, (c) spark sintering, and (d) hot isostatic pressing. Answer. (b), (c), and (d) 16.10 Which of the following design features would be difficult or impossible to achieve by conventional pressing and sintering (more than one)? (a) side holes, (b) threaded holes, (c) outside rounded corners, (d) vertical stepped holes, or (e) vertical wall thickness of 1/8 inch (3 mm).

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Answer. (a), (b), (c)

Problems

Characterization of Engineering Powders 16.1 A screen with 325 mesh count has wires with a diameter of 0.001377 in. Using Eq. (16.1), determine: (a) the maximum particle size that will pass through the wire mesh, and (b) the proportion of open space in the screen. Solution: (a) By Eq. (16.1), particle size PS = 1/MC - tw = 1/325 - 0.001377 = 0.003077 - 0.001377 = 0.00170 in. (b) There are 325 x 325 = 105,625 openings in one square inch of the mesh. By inference from part (a), each opening is 0.00170 inch on a side, thus each opening is (0.0017) 2 = 0.000002889 in2. The total open area in one square inch of mesh = 105,625(0.000002889 in 2) = 0.30523 in 2. This is total open space. Therefore, the percent open space in one square inch of mesh = 30.523%. 16.2 A screen with 10 mesh count has wires with a diameter of 0.0213 in. Using Eq. (16.1), determine: (a) the maximum particle size that will pass through the wire mesh, and (b) the proportion of open space in the screen. Solution: (a) By Eq. (16.1), particle size PS = 1/MC - tw = 1/10 - 0.0213 = 0.0787 in. (b) There are 10 x 10 = 100 openings in one square inch of the mesh. By inference from part (a), each opening is 0.0787 inch on a side, thus each opening is (0.0787) 2 = 0.00619 in2. The total open area in one square inch of mesh = 100(0.00619 in 2) = 0.619 in 2. This is total open space. Therefore, the percent open space in one square inch of mesh = 61.9%. 16.3 What is the aspect ratio of a cubic particle shape. Solution: The aspect ratio is the ratio of the maximum dimension to the minimum dimension of the particle shape. The minimum dimension is the edge of any face of the cube; call it L. The maximum dimension is the diagonal of the cube, which is given by (L2 + L2 + L2)0.5 = (3 L2)0.5 = (3) 0.5 L = 1.732 L. Thus, the aspect ratio = 1.732:1. 16.4 Determine the shape factor for metallic particles of the following ideal shapes: (a) sphere, (b) cubic, (c) cylindrical with length-to-diameter ratio of 1:1, (d) cylindrical with length-to-diameter ratio of 2:1, and (e) a disk-shaped flake whose thickness-to-diameter ratio is 1:10. Solution: (a) Sphere: Ks = 6.0 as shown in the text, Eq. (16.6). (b) Cube: Let L = edge of one face. For a cube, A = 6L2 and V = L3. Find diameter D of a sphere of equivalent volume. V = πD3/6 = L3 D3 = 6L3/π = 1.90986 L3 D = (1.90986 L3)0.333 = 1.2407 L Ks = A D/V = (6L2)(1.2407 L)/L3 = 7.444 (c) Cylinder with L/D = 1.0. For this cylinder shape, L = D. Thus, A = 2πD2/4 + πDL = .5πL2 + πL2 = 1.5πL2, and V = (πD2/4)L = 0.25πL3. Find diameter D of a sphere of equivalent volume. V = πD3/6 = 0.25πL3 D3 = 6(0.25πL3)/ π = 1.5L3 D = (1.5 L3)0.333 = 1.1447 L Ks = A D/V = (1.5πL2)(1.1447 L)/0.25πL3 = 6.868

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10L = D. forming a statistical distribution as follows: 25% of the particles by weight are 0.001 in.5πL2 = 0.6 = 11.25π(10L)2 L = 25πL3 Find diameter D of a sphere of equivalent volume.5236 x 10-9 in3) = 0.19 x 10-9) = 1.313 L Ks = A D/V = (60πL2)(5.516 x 10-9 lb/particle Number of particles in 2 lb = 2.1487 x 10-9) = 3.6. the total volume taken up by the pile = (2.0625πL3)/ π = 0. A = 2πD2/4 + πDL = 0.116 x 10 3 in2 (b) With a packing factor of 0.375L3 D = (0.6 = 11.516 x 10-9) = 0.001) 3/6 = 0. V = πD3/6 = 0.5 lb Number of particles in 0. A = 2πD2/4 + πDL = .284)/0. and 25% are 0.5L)L = 0..0625πL3 Find diameter D of a sphere of equivalent volume.284(33.5236 x 10-9 in3/particle Weight per particle W = ρV = 0. and V = (πD2/4)L = 0. V = πD3/6 = π(0.1487 x 10-9 lb/particle Particles of size D = 0. determine the volume taken by the pile. (b) If the packing factor = 0.001 in. Thus. 0.2102 x 109 A = πD2 = π(0.002 in. Thus.0/(1.002) 3/6 = 0. Solution: (a) For a spherical particle of D = 0.0625πL3 D3 = 6(0.284(0.0/(9.00001256 in2 = 12.284)/0.10..5π(0. = 0.27 x 10-6 in2 Total surface area = (0. Assume the same packing factor.25π(0.681 x 109 A = πD2 = π(0. Solution: (a) For a spherical particle of D = 0.211 (e) Disk with L/D = 0. V = πD3/6 = π(0.75 16. Solution: For a spherical particle of D = 0. Given this distribution. V = πD3/6 = 25πL3 D3 = 6(25πL3)/ π = 150L3 D = (150 L3)0.56 x 10-6 in2 Total surface area = (1.004 in.74 in3 16.5 that the average particle diameter = 0. Note: the density of iron = 0..5.18 x 10-9 in3) = 1.2102 x 109)(50. The particles are spherical in shape and all have the same diameter of 0.284(4.6.6.004) 3/6 = 0.5/(0.5 A pile of iron powder weighs 2 lb.(d) Cylinder with L/D = 2.0/0.56 x 10-6) = 21.003 in.001 in.002 in. the sizes vary. For this shape.5L)2 + π(0.002) 2 = 0.333 = 5. however. the total volume taken up by the pile = (2.00005027 in2 = 50.313 L)/25πL3 = 12.51 x 10-9 in3/particle Weight per particle W = ρV = 0. what is the total surface area of all the particles in the pile. 50% are 0.0.51 x 10-9 in3) = 9.5L = D.74 in3 16.00000003351 = 33.565 x 10 3 in2 (b) With a packing factor of 0.284 lb/in3. constitute 25% of total 2 lb.00000000418 = 4. For this cylinder shape.19 x 10-9 lb/particle Number of particles in 2 lb = 2.681 x 109)(12.5L)2 L = 0.004) 2 = 0.0625πL3 = 7.625πL2)(0.002 in.002 in.5π(10L)2 + π(10L)L = 50πL2 + 10πL2 = 60πL2.625πL2. (a) Determine the total surface area of all the particles in the pile.721 L)/0.0/0.6 Solve Problem 16.27 x 10-6) = 10.125πL2 + 0.5 lb = 0.7 Suppose in Problem 16.333 = 0.18 x 10-9 in3/particle Weight per particle W = ρV = 0.004 in.721 L Ks = A D/V = (0. and V = (πD2/4)L = 0.362 x 109 85 . except that the diameter of the particles is 0. V = πD3/6 = π(0.375 L3)0.

900% 16.265 x 10-6 in3) = 2.592 x 103 = 2.274 x 10-6 in2 Total surface area of particles of D = 0. is A = πD2 = π(0.002 in.142 x 10-6 in2/particle Total surface area of particles of D = 0.1 x 10-3 m is A = πD2 = π(0.56 x 10-6 in2 Total surface area of particles of D = 0.000 .958 . = (3.002) 3/6 = 4.91 x 1012 Total surface area = (1.506 x 103 = 24.004 in.004) 3/6 = 33.5236 x 10-12 m3) = 5.1 x 10-3)3/6 = 0.142 x 10-6) = 10. see Figure 2.015 x 10-9 lb/particle Particles of size D = 0.124 x 109 A = πD2 = π(0.566 x 10-6) = 10.19 x 10-9) = 0.563 x 103 in2 For a spherical particle of D = 0. what is the maximum possible packing factor that the powders can take? Solution: The maximum packing factor is achieved when the spherical particles are arranged as a face-centered cubic unit cell.958 m2 Added surface area = 59.5/(4.284(14.004 in (assume that all particles are the same size)? Solution: Area of initial cube A = 6(1 ft)2 = 6 ft2 = 864 in2 Volume of cube V = (1 ft)3 = 1728 in3 Surface area of a spherical particle of D = 0.5 lb = 0.8 A solid cube of copper with each side = 1.5236 x 10-12 = 1.003) 2 = 28. = 0.592.1 x 10-3 m Surface area of a sphere of D = 0.9958 x 104 = 59.9 A solid cube of aluminum with each side = 1.274 x 10-6) = 3.001) 2 = 3.6 = 59. = (0.8(b).0/(1.0/0. constitute 25% of total 2 lb.5236 x 10-12 m3/particle Number of particles in 1 m3 = 1.18 x 10-9 in3) = 1.003 in. = (0.137 x 10-9 in3) = 4. is V = πD3/6 = π(0. V = π(0..124 x 109)(28.284(4.19 x 10-9 lb/particle Particles of size D = 0..004 in.952 m2 16.563 x 103 + 3.51 x 10-9 = 51.0 m is converted into metallic powders of spherical shape by gas atomization.567 x 109)( 50.567 x 109 Total surface area = (51.137 x 10-9 in3/particle Weight per particle W = ρV = 0.506 x 103 in2 Total surface area of all particles = 10.002) 2 = 12.10 Given a large volume of metallic powders.18 x 10-9 in3/particle Weight per particle W = ρV = 0. What is the percentage increase in total surface area if the diameter of each particle is 0.003 in.002 in.864)/864 = 299.0 ft is converted into metallic powders of spherical shape by gas atomization.015 x 10-9) = 0. = 1.0 lb Number of particles in 1 lb = 1.1 x 10-3)2 = 3.003) 3/6 = 14.002 in. The 86 .592.8406 x 109)(12.003 in.51 x 10-9 in3/particle Number of particles in 1 ft3 = 1728/33.1 x 10-3 m is V = πD3/6 = π(0. How much total surface area is added by the process if the diameter of each particle is 100 microns (assume that all particles are the same size)? Solution: Area of starting cube A = 6(1 m) 2 = 6 m2 Volume of starting cube V = (1 m) 3 = 1 m3 D = 100 µm = 0.A = πD2 = π(0.563 x 103 + 10.632 x 10 3 in2.142 x 10-8 m3/particle Volume of a sphere of D = 0. similar to the atomic structure of FCC metals.8406 x 109 A = πD2 = π(0. all of which are perfectly spherical and having the same exact diameter.362 x 109)(3. 16. constitute 50% of total 2 lb.1 mm = 0.563 x 103 in2 For a spherical particle of D = 0.000 in2 Percent increase = 100(2.5 lb Number of particles in 0.91 x 1012)( 0. V = π(0.001 in.004) 2 = 50.265 x 10-6 in3/particle Volume of a spherical particle of D = 0.

414D)3 = 2.5) + 0.4(207) = 236.167 16. (2) Volume of the cube of one unit cell.0.667 Sintering further reduces the bulk specific volume to 0.25π(2.667 x .82 .90 of value after pressing.13 is to be pressed of iron powders using a compaction pressure of 75. Assume shrinkage during sintering can be neglected. bulk specific volume = 2.5) = 0.25π(Do2 .82 .000 lb/in2. Our approach to determine the packing factor will consist of: (1) finding the volume of the spheres and portions thereof that are contained in the cell.125) = 4 spheres. In the subsequent sintering operation. (b) Press tonnage F = Appc Projected area of part Ap = 0.25π(2. Determine: (a) the most appropriate pressing direction.Di2) = 0. The pressing operation reduces the powder to 2/3 of its starting volume.25π(3. Solution: (a) Most appropriate pressing direction is parallel to the part axis.556 in 2 F = Appc = 5. and (c) the final weight of the part if the porosity is 10%.5.52)(1.0944 D3 where D = diameter of a sphere.25π(2.8284 = 0.8284 D3. and the length of the bearing = 25 mm. porosity = 1 .4 mm2 F = Appc = 1140.7405 = 74. Consider that the diagonal of any face of the unit cell contains one full diameter (the sphere in the center of the cube face) and two half diameters (the spheres at the corners of the face).0.0.222) = 1140. Accordingly.0944/2. and (2) finding the volume of the unit cell cube.90) = 1.0 Thus for a packing factor of 0. The packing factor = 2. the inside diameter = 22 mm. Thus.5372 + 4.556(75.833 = 0.1. Volume of 4 spheres = 4πD3/6 = 2. (18. shrinkage amounts to 10% on a volume basis.000) = 416.1925) = 6.0/(2. Given that these are the only factors that affect the structure of the finished part.25 .833 By Eq. the face is a square with each edge = D√2 = 1.071 in3 87 . determine its final porosity. Solution: Packing factor = bulk density / true density Density = (specific volume)-1 Packing factor = true specific volume / bulk specific volume Pressing reduces bulk specific volume to 2/3 = 0. What is the required press tonnage to perform this operation? Solution: Projected area of part Ap = 0.414D.5.13 The part shown in Figure P16.0. (b) the required press tonnage to perform this operation.25π(442 . Dimensions are inches.062 kN 16. the metallic powder fed into the open die has a packing factor of 0. the diagonal of the cube face = 2D.05% Compaction and Design Considerations 16.12 A bearing of simple geometry is to be pressed out of bronze powders.715 lb = 208 tons.11 In a certain pressing operation.Di2) = 0.8752)(0.25π(Do2 .8752) = 5. Packing factor after pressing and sintering = 1. The ratio of (1) over (2) is the packing factor.0.0/1. Let true specific volume = 1. The volume of the unit cell is therefore (1. using a compacting pressure of 207 MPa. The unit cell contains 6 half spheres in the faces of the cube and 8 one-eighth spheres in corners. (1) Volume of whole and/or partial spheres contained in the unit cell.5) + 8(.unit cell of the FCC structure contains 8 spheres at the corners of the cube and 6 spheres on each face. (c) V = 0. The equivalent number of whole spheres = 6(. The outside diameter = 44 mm.0 x .2 = 0.82 .7).

3 levels of press control required. Solution: (a) Class II. 2 directions of pressing. indicate which PM class the parts belong to. (d) Class IV. 4 or 5 levels of press control due to multiple steps in part design. Dimensions are mm. part weight W = 6.14 For each of the four part drawings in Figure P16.14. and how many levels of press control will be required. whether the part must be pressed from one or two directions. At 10% porosity. 2 directions of pressing. 2 directions because of axial thickness. one level of press control. one level of press control.284)(0. 88 . (b) Class I.071(0. (c) Class IV.55 lb.From Table 4. 16. one direction part is relatively thin.284 lb/in3.1.90) = 1. density of iron ρ = 0.

molding. The clay is first pressed into rough shape and then rotated and formed with a jigger tool to final shape. 17. Crushing is performed to reduce large lumps of mineral to smaller size. (2) shaping. The sequence is: (1) preparation of raw materials. In slip casting a slurry of clay is poured into a plaster of Paris mold. which is a mechanized extension of hand throwing used to manufacture bowls and plates. 17.8 What happens to a ceramic material when it is sintered? Answer. and (4) extrusion. 17. which is accompanied by densification and reduction of porosity.1 PROCESSING OF CERAMICS AND CERMETS Review Questions What is the difference between the traditional ceramics and the new ceramics. 17. Answer. For semi. nitrides. 17.10 What is glazing in traditional ceramics processing? 89 . in which the clay is compressed through a die opening to make long sections of uniform cross-sectional shape. (3) plastic pressing. Kiln. and carbides. and so this imposes certain limitations on part geometry in dry pressing. as far as raw materials are concerned? Answer. (3) drying. 17. and throwing.17 17.3 List the basic steps in the traditional ceramics processing sequence. It is suited to the manufacture of flatware. in which a clay slug is pressed in a mold. The difference is in the starting clay. (2) jiggering. Answer. Dry clay has virtually no plasticity.2 17. The plastic forming methods include: (1) hand modeling. the clay has a typical water content of 10% to 15%.4 Describe the slip casting process in traditional ceramics processing. Sintering of green ceramics (or powdered metals) causes bonding between the ceramic grains. What is the technical difference between crushing and grinding in the preparation of traditional ceramic raw materials? Answer. For dry pressing.7 What is the difference between dry pressing and semi-dry pressing of traditional ceramics parts? Answer. 17. The traditional ceramics are based on hydrous aluminum silicates (clay). and (4) firing.9 What is the name given to the furnace used to fire ceramic ware? Answer. the water content is usually less than 5%. The remaining slurry is usually poured out to leave a hollow part. Jiggering is a clay forming process that uses a convex mold on a potters wheel. Answer. 17. whereupon water is absorbed from the slurry into the plaster to form a clay layer against the mold wall.6 What is the process of jiggering? Answer.dry pressing.5 List and briefly describe some of the plastic forming methods used to shape traditional ceramics products. Grinding is a secondary process which further reduces the particle size to fine powder. whereas the new ceramics are based on man-made simpler compounds such as oxides.

To attain a perfect score on the quiz. so avoid impact loading. Answer. At the sintering temperatures used for WC-Co. so that the resulting ceramic is in the form of a thin green sheet which is dried and reeled onto a spool for subsequent shaping and sintering. Answer. 17. 17. usually not required in processing of new ceramics? Answer. since each correct answer is worth 1 point. WC gradually dissolves in the cobalt. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point. even though the sintering temperatures are below the melting points of either WC or Co. (a) 17. The melting point of cobalt is reduced when WC is dissolved in it. How is this possible? Answer. and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point. In freeze drying. is referred to as a glaze. Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 15 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct). Because water is usually not one of the ingredients in the new ceramics during forming.Answer.2 Which one of the following compounds becomes a plastic and formable material when mixed with suitable proportions of water? (a) aluminum oxide.14 Describe the doctor-blade process. not tensile loads. For each question. 17. usually consisting of ceramic oxides. the water is then removed from the droplets in a vacuum chamber. salts are dissolved in water and sprayed into small droplets which are immediately frozen. and the freeze-dried salt is decomposed by heating to form the ceramic powders. or (d) silicon dioxide. Thus does liquid phase sintering occur in the WC-Co system. (5) take into account shrinkage. 17. (b) hammer mill. Glazing refers to the process of putting a ceramic coating on the surface of the ceramic piece. In the doctor-blade process. (b) hydrogen oxide. so important in the processing of traditional ceramics. all correct answers must be given.1 The following equipment is used for crushing and grinding of minerals in the preparation of traditional ceramics raw materials. (6) no screw threads. a ceramic slurry is flowed onto a moving film which flows under a wiper blade. 17. Drying is only needed when the green piece contains water. (4) use large radii on inside and outside corners. (2) ceramics are brittle.11 Why is the drying step.12 Why is raw material preparation more important in the processing of new ceramics than for traditional ceramics? Answer. 90 .16 What are some design recommendations for ceramic parts? Answer. Which one of the pieces listed is used for grinding? (a) ball mill. or (d) roll crusher. reducing its melting point to the sintering temperature. (c) hydrous aluminum silicate. The guidelines include: (1) subject ceramic parts to compressive. (3) part geometries should be simple. Because the requirements on the strength of the finished product are usually more demanding for new ceramics. The coating.13 What is the freeze drying process used to make certain new ceramic powders? Answer.15 Liquid phase sintering is used for WC-Co compacts. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers. 17. (c) jaw crusher. 17.

(a) and (e) 17.6 In the final product made of a polycrystalline new ceramic material. (c) 20%. Answer. (c) hot pressing. or (b) false. (d) thin sections. Answer. (b) cermet. or (e) isostatic pressing. Answer. (b) rounded inside corners. (b) 17. or (e) work harden the surface.8 Which of the following are not the purposes of finishing operations used for parts made of the new ceramics (more than one)? (a) apply a surface coating. (b) jangling. (c) jiggering. or (b) false. (b) freeze drying.9 Which one of the following terms best describes what a cemented carbide is? (a) ceramic. (c) 17. (c).4 Which of the following processes are not plastic forming methods used in the shaping of traditional ceramics (more than one)? (a) extrusion. (b) and (c) 17. (c) composite. (b) 17. (c) increase dimensional accuracy. Answer. Answer. (b) improve surface finish. or (e) spinning. (b) 10%. (d) jolleying. (d) remove material. or (d) metal. (c) sharp edges.3 At which one of the following water contents does clay become a suitably plastic material for the traditional ceramics plastic forming processes? (a) 5%. or (d) 40%. and (e) 91 . Answer.Answer. Answer. or (e) threads. (d) injection molding.10 Which of the following geometric features should be avoided if possible in the design of structural components made of new ceramics (more than one)? (a) complicated shapes. Answer.7 Which one of the following processes for the new ceramic materials accomplishes shaping and sintering simultaneously? (a) doctor-blade process.5 The term green piece in ceramics refers to a part that has been shaped but not yet fired: (a) true. (a). (c) 17. (c) 17. (a) 17. strength increases with grain size: (a) true. (d).

How does increasing temperature affect the parameters in the flow curve equation? Answer. (3) increased strength due to work hardening. the shape changes are significant.11 What is sticking friction in metalworking? Answer.4 Why is the term pressworking often used for sheet metal processes? Answer. Reasons why friction is undesirable in metal forming: (1) inhibits metal flow during deformation. and (3) wearing of the tools. Increasing strain rate tends to increase the resistance to deformation.8 What is isothermal forming? Answer. Because these operations are generally performed on presses.1 FUNDAMENTALS OF METAL FORMING Review Questions What are the characteristics that distinguish bulk deformation processes from sheet metal processes? Answer. (4) possible directional properties due to grain flow. thereby forcing its cross-section to assume the profile of the orifice. Answer. Deep drawing is a sheet metal forming process used to fabricate cup-shaped parts. 18. 18.1) as Yf = Kεn. Indicate some of the advantages of cold working relative to warm and hot working.2 Extrusion is a fundamental shaping process. In sheet metal processes.3 18. causing residual stresses and product defects. What is the difference between deep drawing and bar drawing? Answer. Describe it. This is accomplished by preheating the forming tools. and the workparts have a low area-to-volume ratio. Extrusion is a compression process in which the work material is forced to flow through a die orifice. Answer. (2) better surface finish.7 Indicate the mathematical equation for the flow curve. 18. and (5) no heating of work required.6 18. it occurs when the friction stress is greater than the shear flow stress of the metal. An isothermal forming operation is performed in such a way as to eliminate surface cooling and thermal gradients in the workpart. 92 . Answer. In bulk deformation. 18. The flow curve is defined in Eq. Increasing temperature decreases both K and n in the flow curve equation. 18.18 18. bar drawing is a bulk deformation process used to reduce the diameter of a cylindrical workpart. 18. the area-to-volume ratio is high.5 18. Advantages of cold working are: (1) better accuracy.10 Why is friction generally undesirable in metal forming operations? Answer. 18. The tendency is especially prominent in hot forming operations. Answer.9 Describe the effect of strain rate in metal forming. (2) increases forces and power required. (18. Sticking friction is when the work surface adheres to the surface of the tool rather than slides against it.

(d) less overall energy required. Answer. (c). (b) 18. (b) has no effect. and (e). the final true strain that the metal experiences = 0. (b) 18. and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point. (d) 18.2Tm. (b) increased strength properties. (d). (b) deep drawing. To attain a perfect score on the quiz. or (b) low volume-to-area ratio. 18.6Tm. Answer. (b) 0.7 Increasing strain rate tends to have which one of the following effects on flow stress during hot forming of metal? (a) decreases flow stress.1 Which of the following are bulk deformation processes (more than one)? (a) bending. (b) lower. (a). Answer. Answer. (c) 18. (d) 18. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers. (c) 1/n. 93 . all correct answers must be given. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point. Problems Flow Curve in Forming 18. Answer. or (d) 1/(1+n). or (c) no effect. or (d) 0. (b). (e).4 The average flow stress is the flow stress multiplied by which of the following factors? (a) n.1 K = 600 MPa and n = 0.2 Which of the following is typical of the work geometry in sheet metal processes? (a) high volume-to-area ratio. or (c) increases flow stress. and (f) more significant shape changes are possible. (e) lower deformation forces required. 18. Determine the flow stress at this strain and the average flow stress that the metal experienced during the operation.5 Hot working of metals refers to which one of the following temperature regions relative to the melting point of the given metal on an absolute temperature scale? (a) room temperature. Answer. (c) 0. where n is the strain hardening exponent.Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 13 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct). and (f). (c). For each question. since each correct answer is worth 1 point.8 The coefficient of friction between the part and the tool in cold working tends to be which of the following relative to its value in hot working? (a) higher.6 Which of the following are advantages and characteristics of hot working relative to cold working (more than one)? (a) fracture of workpart less likely. (d) forging. and (e) rolling. (c) extrusion.3 The flow curve expresses the behavior of a metal in which of the following regions of the stress-strain curve? (a) elastic region.20 for a certain metal.73. 18. or (b) plastic region. During a forming operation. Answer. Answer. (c) isotropic mechanical properties. (b) (1+n).4Tm.

27 = 700/1.000(0.309 lb/in2.4 MPa.1)]: Yf = Kε n Y over the range ε = 0 to ε = ε is given by ∫Kε n dε = K ∫ε n dε = Kε n+1/ε(n+1) = Kε n /(n+1) ε f 18.000 lb/in2 and n = 0.26 = 23.27 ε must be equal to 1.19 = 37.30.501) 0.57 = 0.333 94 .69315) 0.5 Derive the equation for average flow stress.2/1.2) in the text.4 The strength coefficient and strain hardening exponent of a certain test metal are K = 40.5/3.451 Flow stress Yf = 850(0.65 = 0.27 = 551. Average flow stress Y = 850(0. Eq. Determine the flow stress at the new length and the average flow stress that the metal has been subjected to during the deformation.451) 0.69315 Flow stress Yf = 40.26. Solution: Y = 0. (18.0) . Determine the flow stress at this new length and the average flow stress that the metal has been subjected to during deformation. Solution: ε = ln (157/100) = ln 1. Average flow stress Y = 40. Determine the flow stress at this compressed length and the average flow stress that the metal has experienced during deformation.2 A metal has a flow curve with parameters: K = 850 MPa and strain hardening exponent n = 0. f 18.0 in is stretched to a length = 3.69315) 0. f 18. A cylindrical specimen of the metal with starting diameter = 2.75n 0.5 in and length = 3. f 18.25 = 0. Solution: ε = ln (1.501 Flow stress Yf = 35.4 MPa.3/2.0 in is compressed to a length of 1.26 = 29.0) = ln 1.5 = -0.000(0.75n n = 0.75 Kε n 1/(1+n) = 0.206 lb/in2. Average flow stress Y = 35.9 MPa.451) 0. Y = 700(1.30 = 514.75 1 = 0. A tensile specimen of the metal with gage length = 2. Solution: Yf = K = 700 = Kε n = 700ε .0.0) = ln 0.5 MPa.30 = 669.000(0.3 A particular metal has a flow curve with parameters: strength coefficient K = 35. Determine the average flow stress that the metal experiences if it is subjected to a stress that is equal to its strength coefficient K. Solution: ε = ln (3. (18.7 Determine the value of the strain hardening exponent for a metal that will cause the average flow stress to be 3/4 of the final flow stress after deformation.75(1+n) = 0.27.352 lb/in2.000 lb/in2 and strain hardening exponent n = 0.2 = 563.3 in.000(0. f 18.6 For a certain metal.75 + 0.Solution: Flow stress Yf = 600(0.240 lb/in2.19/1. A tensile specimen of the metal with gage length = 100 mm is stretched to a length = 157 mm.19 = 31. Average flow stress Y = 600(0. Solution: Flow stress equation [Eq.2 = 469.73) 0.73) 0.30/1.19.501) 0.2 MPa f 18. K = 700 MPa and n = 0.75 Yf f Kε n/(1+n) = 0.26/1.27/1.5 in.

1429 sec-1 At L = 7.1/0.000 ε .0 = 0.40 for a metal used in a forming operation in which the workpart is reduced in cross-sectional area by stretching. It is subjected to a tensile test in which the grips holding the end of the test specimen are moved with a relative velocity = 0.0 in/sec. determine the amount of reduction in cross-sectional area experienced by the part. If the average flow stress on the part is 20.667 s -1 (c) strain rate = 200/51 = 3.000/35.22314/0.0 in.1/0.9 The gage length of a tensile test specimen = 150 mm.7726 Af = Ao/1. Solution: The following values are calculated for the plot: At L = 150 mm.5 = 0.4/(1. Construct a plot of the strain rate as a function of length as the specimen is pulled to a length = 8.8 = ε .1/0.19 = 0.4 ln ε = ln (0. Determine the flow stress if the strain rate is: (a) 0.4(20.000 lb/in2 and the strain-rate sensitivity exponent m = 0. strain rate = 1/6.1333 sec-1 At L = 8.564Ao Strain Rate 18..18.0 in starting gage length is subjected to a tensile test in which the grips holding the end of the test specimen are moved with a relative velocity = 1.1667 sec-1 At L = 6.4 = -0.000 lb/in2 and n = 0.5724 Ao/Af = 1.8 K = 35.667 s-1 At L = 160 mm.15 = 0. strain rate = 0.0 in.000 lb/in 2. Solution: (a) strain rate = 200/100 = 2. Construct a plot of the strain rate as a function of length as the specimen is pulled to a length = 200 mm.1 m/s.1250 sec-1 18.18 = 0. strain rate = 1/7.4 0. The strength constant C = 30. strain rate = 0.5724 ε = ln(Ao/Af) = 0. strain rate = 1/6.11 A workpart with starting height h = 100 mm is compressed to a final height of 50 mm. strain rate = 0.0 = 0.526 s-1 At L = 200 mm.22314 ln ε = -0. the relative speed of the plattens compressing the part = 200 mm/s.17 = 0. and (c) h = 51 mm. 95 .625 s-1 At L = 170 mm. strain rate = 1/7. Solution: The following values are calculated for the plot: At L = 6.01/sec (b) 1.20 = 0.4 28.1/0.4) 1. strain rate = 0.000 ε .7726 = 0. (b) h = 75 mm.588 s-1 At L = 180 mm.5 in..0 in.000 = 35...8) = -0.1/0. Determine the strain rate at (a) h = 100 mm. strain rate = 0.555 s-1 At L = 190 mm.922 s -1 18.16 = 0.15.0 = 0.500 s-1 18.1/0.5 = 0.5 in.000 = 0.55786 ε = 0..0 in.1538 sec-1 At L = 7.10 A specimen with 6. (c) 100/sec. Solution: Y = Kε n/(1+n) f 20. strain rate = 1/8.0 s -1 (b) strain rate = 200/75 = 2.12 A hot working operation is carried out at various speeds.000) = 35.0/sec. strain rate = 0. During the deformation.

4 C = 14. what changes would you expect in the values of C and m? Solution: (a) Two equations: (1) 23.0366 m = 0. what changes would you expect in the values of C and m? Solution: (a) Two equations: (1) 160 = C(12) m and (2) 300 = C(250) m (1) ln 160 = ln C + m ln 12 or ln 160 .1973 0.15 = 15.660 Averaging these values.4849)m = 5.1973 (1) C = 23000/10 = 23000/1.000 = 1.15 = 59.6286 m = 0.000(0.000 = C(10) m and (2) 45. (b) If the temperature were 900°F.0752 – 2.m ln 12 = ln C (2) ln 300 = ln C + m ln 250 or ln 300 .01) .601.000/23.15 = 30.858 lb/in2 18. the stress is measured at 23. the stress = 300 MPa.m ln 250 = ln C (1) and (2): ln 160 .000(100) . 18. At a strain rate = 12/s.7038 – 5.4 (b) If temperature were decreased to 900°F.0819 = 14.4012 m m = 0.14 A tensile test is carried out to determine the strength constant C and strain-rate sensitivity exponent m for a certain metal at 1000°F.6726 = 95.036 lb/in2 (b) Yf = 30.000 lb/in 2.7038 – 5.659 (b) If temperature were 600°C. The temperature at which the test is performed = 500°C. the strength constant C would increase and the strainrate sensitivity exponent m would decrease.207 = 300/3. 96 .4849 m = 5. At a strain rate = 10/sec.1.0) . (18.207 = 160.658 (2) C = 300/(250) . the stress = 45.4) for a certain metal.0752 3.1973 = 45000/3. the strength constant C would decrease and the strain-rate sensitivity exponent m would increase. and at a strain rate = 300/sec.Solution: (a) Yf = C(strain rate)m = 30.601.4 (2) C = 45000/3000. C = 95. the stress is measured at 160 MPa.9565 = (300/10) m = (30) m ln 1. and at a strain rate = 250/s.m ln 250 5.m ln 12 = ln 300 .207 (1) C = 160/(12) . (a) Determine C and m.5215 – 2.9656 = m ln 30 0.5215 m (5.601.67117 = 3.13 A tensile test is performed to determine the parameters C and m in Eq.000(1.000 lb/in2 (c) Yf = 30.000 = C(300) m 45.5752 = 14.1361 = 95. (a) Determine C and m. (b) If the temperature were 600°C.000 lb/in 2.

Answer. (2) reduce draft in each pass. 19. some are net shape processes.19 19. 19. (2) they have a positive effect on part strength when cold working is used. 19. A two-high rolling mill consists of two opposing rolls between which the work is compressed. 19. Ways to reduce force in flat rolling include: (1) use hot rolling. structural shapes such as I-beams and channels. 19. gear rolling. Answer. and roll forging.7 One way to classify forging operations is by the degree to which the work is constrained in the die. which impact the workpart. Answer. A reversing mill is a two-high rolling mill in which the direction of rotation of the rolls can be reversed to allow the work to pass through from either side. 19. name the three basic types. Answer. and (3) closed die forging. 19.10 What is isothermal forging? 97 . The two types of forging machines are hammers.1 BULK DEFORMATION PROCESSES IN METALWORKING Review Questions What are the reasons why the bulk deformation processes are important commercially and technologically? Answer. identify some additional bulk forming processes that use rolls to effect the deformation.2 List some of the products produced on a rolling mill.6 Besides flat rolling and shape rolling. which apply a gradual pressure to the work.8 19. and (3) use smaller diameter rolls. Reasons why the bulk deformation processes are important include: (1) they are capable of significant shape change when hot working is used. and presses.5 What is a reversing mill in rolling? Answer. round bar and rod stock. Because its presence constrains the metal in the die to fill the details of the die cavity.3 Identify some of the ways in which force in flat rolling can be reduced. thread rolling. The three basic types are: (1) open die forging. (2) impression die forging. 19. roll piercing. Rolled products include flat sheet and plate stock. and (3) most of the processes produce little material waste.4 What is a two-high rolling mill? Answer. By this classification. Some other processes that use rolls are ring rolling. What are the two basic types of forging equipment? Answer.9 Why is flash desirable in impression die forging? Answer. rails.

(e).14 In a wire drawing operation.12 Name some products that are produced by extrusion. (b) extrusion. They are both examples of how compressive stresses applied to the outside surface of a solid cylindrical cross-section can create high tensile stresses in the interior of the cylinder. (d) stock thickness. See Article 19. Products produced by continuous extrusion include: structural shapes (window frames. (f) tube sinking. (a). (d) roll forging. shower stalls. (c) four-high mill. 19. Answer. 19. (b) roll diameter. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point. (a) and (b). (c) forging. Answer. 19.2 Which of the following rolling mill types are associated with relatively small diameter rolls in contact with the work (more than one)? (a) cluster mill. 19. 19.1.1 The maximum possible draft in a rolling operation depends on which of the following parameters (more than one)? (a) coefficient of friction between roll and work.11 Distinguish between direct and indirect extrusion. although tensile stresses are applied to the work. To attain a perfect score on the quiz. or (e) three-high configuration. why must the drawing stress never exceed the yield strength of the work metal? Answer. aluminum beverage cans. (c) ring rolling. Products made by discrete extrusion include: toothpaste tubes. channels). (e) strain. (c). and (f). Answer. 19. Because if the drawing stress exceeded the yield strength. 19. and battery cases. and rods of various cross-section. (b). (c) roll velocity. or (g) upsetting. the metal on the exit side of the draw die would stretch rather than force metal to be drawn through the die opening. (e) roll piercing. (a) and (c). tubes and pipes. since each correct answer is worth 1 point. (d) reversing mill. and (f) strength coefficient of the work metal. all correct answers must be given. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers. and (d) rolling.Answer. the work is squeezed through the die opening by compression the term indirect compression is sometimes used. Answer. and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point. (b) hobbing. Isothermal forging is a hot forging operation in which the die surfaces are heated to reduce heat transfer from the work into the tooling. and (d). (b) continuous rolling mill. Answer.13 What does the centerburst defect in extrusion have in common with the roll piercing process? Answer.4 Which of the four basic bulk deformation processes use compression to effect shape change (more than one)? (a) bar and wire drawing. 19. 98 . Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 22 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct). Answer. Bar and wire drawing (a) is the only tricky answer.3. (a).3 Production of pipes and tubes is associated with which of the following bulk deformation processes (more than one)? (a) extrusion. For each question.

Determine: (a) the minimum required coefficient of friction that would make this rolling operation possible. Answer. 19.5 Flash in impression die forging serves no useful purpose and is undesirable because it must be trimmed from the part after forming: (a) true or (b) false? Answer.1826 (b) Plate widens by 2%. (b) Problems Rolling 19. Theoretically.0333) 0. Entrance speed = 16 m/min. (a). (c). It is expected 99 .0. Each step will reduce the slab to 75% of its previous thickness.915 . (a).5)/18. and no redundant work. drawn into wire stock. or (d) 2. (b). Solution: (a) Maximum draft dmax = µ2 R Given that d = to .02 wo 40(wo)(16) = 30(1. is which of the following (one answer)? (a) zero. (b) exit velocity under the assumption that the plate widens by 2% during the operation.1 A 40 mm thick plate is to be reduced to 30 mm in one pass in a rolling operation.13 19. Answer. The production of tubing is possible in indirect extrusion but not in direct extrusion: (a) true or (b) false? Answer.30 = 10 mm. (c) 1. (b) Which of the following bulk deformation processes are involved in the production of nails for lumber construction (more than one)? (a) bar and wire drawing. the maximum reduction possible in a wire drawing operation.0 ft long. (b).7 19. and upset forged to form the nail head. (b) extrusion. and (d) rolling.6 = 20.02w o)vf vf = 40(wo)(16)/ 30(1. 19.02w o) = 640/30. and rotational speed = 18.18. (c) impact extrusion. Tube and pipe cross-sections can be produced by either direct or indirect extrusion.8 19. Bar stock is rolled. (e) thread rolling.tf = 40 .5 = 0. (b) extrusion. and (f) upsetting. Answer. towovo = tfwfvf wf = 1. (b) 0. (c) forging. Thickness is to be reduced in three steps in a hot rolling operation. and (c) forward slip. Answer.6 Which of the following are classified as forging operations (more than one)? (a) coining. (d).10 Johnson's formula is associated with which of the four bulk deformation processes (one answer)? (a) bar and wire drawing. (b).vr)/vr = (20. and (f).72. Roll radius = 300 mm. and (d). (c) forging.0 in wide and 12.5 rev/min. and (d) rolling.0333 µ = (0.5 = 0. µ2 = 10/300 = 0. under the assumptions of a perfectly plastic metal.63.19. (b) fullering. Flash causes build-up of pressure inside the die which causes the work metal to fill the cavity.9 19.2 A 2.0 in thick slab is 10. (d) roll forging. no friction.915 m/min (c) s = (vf .

27 mm.98 . 19.0)(1.78 ft/min. suppose that the percent reduction were specified to be equal for each pass.025 ft (b) Given that roll speed is the same at all three stands and that towovo = tfwfvf .0)(10.75)(2.03 x 10.47 mm.5 (1 .12945) = 5. Thickness of the starting plate = 25 mm and width = 300 mm.63 mm.0)(40)/(0.0)(40)/(0.75 x 2.51/n Try n = 4: (1 .75 x 2.8409 = 0. Try n = 5: (1 .3. and (b) draft for each pass? Solution: (a) Maximum draft dmax = µ2 R = (0.844)(10. Roll diameter = 700 mm and coefficient of friction between rolls and work = 0. tf = 43. Roll radius at each stand = 250 mm. and n = number of passes.032 x 10.875 mm This converts into a maximum possible reduction x = 7. Step 3: vf = (0.0) = 10.0) = 51.47 = 43.1575.87055 = 0.1575 Let x = fraction reduction per pass.25)/7.75)(0.0)(12 x 12)/(0.0) = 51.875 mm Minimum number of passes = (to .0)(10.3 in.5) 1/4 = 0.0)(40)/(0. the slab will widen by 3% in each step. tf = 28.x) n = 25 (1 .4.15) 2 (350) = 7.27 = 28.tf)/dmax = (50 .75)(0. Final thickness is to be 13 mm. Determine: (a) minimum number of passes required.0. rather than the draft. Solution: (a) After three passes. towoLo = tfwfLf (2.98(0.x) = 0. If the entry speed of the slab in the first step is 40 ft/min.1575.12945) = 6. 100 . (b) Pass 1: d = 50(0. Rotational speed at the first stand = 20 rev/min.927)Lf Lf = (2.0)(1.12945.1591.0)(1.3 A series of cold rolling operations are to be used to reduce the thickness of a plate from 50 mm down to 25 mm in a reversing two-high mill.5) 1/5 = 0.752 x 2.63 = 37.x) n = 25/50 = 0.752 x 2.53 .71 mm.x) = (. The plate is wide enough relative to its thickness that no increase in width occurs. and roll speed is the same for the three steps.875 = 3.71 .03)(1. which exceeds the maximum possible reduction of 0.87055 x = 1 .71 mm Pass 5: d = 28.5. tf = 32.0)(1.12945) = 4. To reduce from to = 50 mm to to = 25 mm in n passes.25 mm 19.53(0.927 in.4. = 26.03 x 10.4 In the previous problem.0)(12 x 12) = (0.927) = 312.844)(10.6. The number of passes must be an integer. Step 2: vf = (0.89(0.15) 2 (350) = 7.03)(1.8409 x = 1 . and (b) forward slip s.0) = 51.0)(1.0) = 0. The specification is that the draft is to be equal on each pass.12945) = 4. which is within the maximum possible reduction of 0.78 ft/min.91 mm. wf = (1.032 x 10.25)/4 = 6.0)(10.89 .03)(10.89 mm Pass 3: d = 37.5 A continuous hot rolling mill has two stands.71(0.00 mm 19.753 x 2.875/50 = 0. determine: (a) length and (b) exit velocity of the slab after the final reduction. determine: (a) speed vr at each stand. tf = (0.0. Equal drafts of 6 mm are to be taken at each stand.x) = (. the following relationship must be satisfied: 50(1 . tf = 37.53 mm Pass 2: d = 43.15. (a) What is the minimum number of passes required? (b) What is the draft for each pass? Solution: (a) Maximum possible draft occurs on first pass: dmax = µ2 R = (0.that for this metal and reduction.78 ft/min.12945) = 3.844 in.033 x 10.71 = 25. Under the assumption that the forward slip is equal at each stand.17 → 4 passes (b) Draft per pass d = (50 . Step 1: vf = (2.91 = 32. tf = 50 .98 mm Pass 4: d = 32.

2501 = 25. and it is assumed that the forward slip will be equal at each stand.(c) Also.5v1 = 1.6 = 13 mm. (b) rotational speed of the rolls at stands 2 through 8. Solution: (a) Let to = entering plate thickness at stand 1.0 in.0 = 0. t1 = 25 . Let t1 = exiting plate thickness at stand 1 and entering thickness at stand 2. 3. 3) Combining (Eqs. Let v1 = exiting plate speed at stand 1 and entering speed at stand 2. 2 and 3). Let vr2 = roll speed at stand 2.vr)/vr svr = vf .42) = 47. 1).6 A continuous hot rolling mill has eight stands.1 m/min. (1 + s)vr1 = v1 (Eq.6 = 19 mm. Let t2 = exiting plate thickness at stand 2. (b) 25vo = 19v1 v1 = 25(26)/19 = 34. and (c) forward slip. if the entering speed at the first stand = 26 m/min.01% at each stand.x) 8 = 0.74989 = r = 0. Let vr1 = roll speed at stand 1. (b) Forward slip s = (vf .2 m/min (Eq.2/31.089 (c) v1 = 34.vr)/vr svr = vf . Determine: (a) percent reduction at each stand. width = 15. wo = w1 = w2 Therefore. vr1 = πDNr = π(2 x 250)(10-3)(20) = 31. to = 25 mm.0 in.5(34. Let v2 = exiting plate speed at stand 2. Assume that no widening of the slab occurs during the rolling sequence.3/3.4) = 34. (d) What is the draft at stands 1 and 8? (e) What is the length and exit speed of the final strip exiting stand 8? Solution: (a) To reduce from to = 3.vr (1 + s)vr = vf 101 . (1 + s)vr2 = v2 (Eq.74989 x = 1 .2 m/min. previously calculated in (b) v2 = 1. 2) By constant volume. in 8 stands. and length = 10 ft. 1): (1 + s)vr1 = v1 (1 + s)(31.0(1 .x) 8 = 0.0.10 (1 .x) = (0. 1) At stand 2.0vo = 0.10) 1/8 = 0.089 s = 0. Roll diameter at each stand = 36 in. tovo = t1v1 = t2v2 1.2 (1 + s) = 34.0 in. 19.5v1 (Eq.3 (1 .3 in. Percent reduction in thickness is to be equal at all stands. vr2 = ? Forward slip s = (vf .vr (1 + s)vr = vf At stand 1. The dimensions of the starting slab are: thickness = 3.4 = 1. towovo = t1w1v1 = t2w2v2 Since there is no change in width.75v1 = 0. The final thickness is to be 0. to tf = 0. (1 + s)vr2 = v2 = 1.50v2 v2 = 1. It is observed that the speed of the slab entering stand 1 = 240 ft/min. (1 + s)vr2 = 1.2) = 51.5vr1 vr2 = 1. and rotational speed at stand number 1 = 30 rev/min.5(31.5v1 Substituting (Eq. t2 = 19 .3 m/min.3 in. thus vr2 = 1.5(1 + s)vr1 . Let vo = entering plate speed at stand 1.42 m/min. determine the exiting speeds at each rolling stand.

tovo = t1v = t2v2 = . .132 s = 0. .8 ft/min From equations for forward slip.2501) = 40 rev/min Nr3 = 0.3) = 2400 ft/min.10609 x 282.8 ft/min from above Nr2 = 0. Determine: (a) roll force. (1 + s)vr1 = v1 (1 + s)(282.1 rev/min Nr5 = 0.78 = 1. .10609vr Nr2 = 0.9 rev/min Nr6 = 0.78/(1-r)6 = 168.2501) = 0. . At stand 2: (1 + s)vr2 = v2 . .78/(1-r)5 = 126.5 = 50 mm True strain ε = ln(25/20) = ln 1.0(10 ft) = 0. The work material has a strength coefficient = 240 MPa and a strain hardening exponent = 0.223 102 .10609 = 9. = t8w8v8 Since there is no change in width.04) = 426.10609 x 282.14 = 1. towovo = t1w1v1 = t2w2v2 = . . The roll has a radius = 500 mm.74989 = 426.0(1 .10609vr2 Rearranging. and its speed = 30 m/min.10609 x 282.3L8 towovo = t8w8v8 tovo = t8v8 v8 = 240(3/0. 19. wo = w1 = w2 = . Etc.10609 x 282. By constant volume.74989 = 320 ft/min v2 = 320/0. Contact length L = (500 x 5) . ..10609 x 282. = t8v8 to = 3.78/(1-r)2 = 53.10006 in. vr1 = πDNr1 = (2π x 18/12)(30) = 282.10609 x 282.5 rev/min Nr8 = 0.2501) 7(.9.10609 x 282. 3(1 . vr2 = Nr2/0.r)2v2 = . . . as before (d) Draft at stand 1 d1 = 3.04 ft/min (1 + s)(377.132 s = 0. w8 Therefore.78/(1-r) = 0.132 Check with stand 2: given v2 = 426. . where vr8 = roll speed.2501) = 0.0(. (e) Length of final strip Lf = L8 towoLo = t8w8L8 Given that wo = w8. vr1 : vr2 : .132.78 ft/min In general Nr = (30/282. .7503 in.78/(1-0. Since s is a constant.2501 as determined in part (a).25 = 0. . At stand 8: (1 + s)vr8 = v8.At stand 1: (1 + s)vr1 = v1 .7 L8 = 100 ft A plat that is 250 mm wide and 25 mm thick is to be reduced in a single pass in a two-high rolling mill to a thickness of 20 mm.78/(1-r)4 = 94.8 (1 + s) = 426.78) = 320 (1 + s) = 320/282.10609 x 282. : v8 Given that Nr1 = 30 rev/min.78/(1-r)3 = 71. (b) roll torque. where r = 0.426N r2 = 0. Draft at stand 8 d8 = 3.9 rev/min (c) Given vo = 240 ft/min v1 = 240/(1-r) = 240/0. v2 = exit speed of slab. : vr8 = v1 : v2 : . toLo = t8L8 3.r)v1 = 3(1 .r)8v8 . and (c) power required to accomplish this operation.2. 3vo = 3(1 .78/(1-r)7 = 224.20 = 5 mm.3 rev/min Nr4 = 0.78) = 0.8/377. v1 = exit speed of slab.3 rev/min Nr7 = 0. v8 = exit speed of slab. Solution: (a) Draft d = 25 .426(40) = 377. where vr1 = roll speed. where vr2 = roll speed.0.

592 rev/s Power P = 2π(1.5) .1 rev/min = 0.Y = 240(0.20/1.20 = 148.223 Y = 240(0.095 N (b) Torque T = 0.5 = 0.417)(15.5 = 2.417)(15.7.5(1.1(250)(15.5(1. Contact length L = (15 x 0. Contact length L = (250 x 5) .81 x 10-3) = 92.174 N-m (c) N = (30 m/min)/(2π x 0. and (c) power required to accomplish this operation.095)(35.8 Solve Problem 19. Contact length L = (50 x 5) .0 in thick slab that is 9 in wide is to be reduced in a single pass in a two-high rolling mill to a thickness of 2.829 N (b) Torque T = 0.5(585.223) 0. The work material has a strength coefficient = 25.7 and 19.414(2.5 in.20 = 148.0/2.250) = 19.591 N-m/s = 92. Solution: (a) Draft d = 25 .223) 0.417 N (b) Torque T = 0.10 A 3.829)(50 x 10-3) = 92.604 W Note that the force and torque are reduced as roll radius is reduced.5) = ln 1.223 Y = 240(0.5 rev/min = 1.20 = 0. torque and power.604 N-m/s = 92.55 rev/min = 0.318 rev/s Power P = 2π(0.25 = 0.1 MPa f Rolling force F = 148.2.16 = 16. 19.16/1. power would probably increase because of lower mechanical efficiency in the cluster type rolling mill.5 = 35.829)( 50 x 10-3) = 46.554 N-m/s = 92.35 x 10-3) = 92.35 mm True strain ε = ln(25/20) = ln 1.16.35 x 10-3) = 23.0) = 404.318)(1. Determine: (a) roll force. Compare the results with the previous two problems.0 .159 rev/s Power P = 2π(0.20/1.095)(35.50 in. and its speed = 30 ft/min.050) = 95. but that the power remains the same (within calculation error) as in the previous problem.000(0.414 lb/in 2 f Rolling force F = 16. In fact.20/1.311..223) 0.35) = 1.159)(1.74)(9. and note the important effect of roll radius on force.8.81) = 585.628 N-m (c) N = (30 m/min)/(2π x 0.9 Solve Problem 19.851. True strain ε = ln(3.500) = 9.311. Solution: (a) Draft d = 25 .1823) 0.5 = 15.81 mm True strain ε = ln(25/20) = ln 1.1(250)(50) = 1. only assume a cluster mill with working rolls of radius = 50 mm.771 lb 103 .1 MPa f Rolling force F = 148.311.1(250)(35.000 lb/in 2 and a strain hardening exponent = 0.74 in. Solution: (a) Draft d = 3.20 = 148.20 = 5 mm. 19. The roll has a radius = 15 in.1 MPa f Rolling force F = 148.296 N-m (c) N = (30 m/min)/(2π x 0.20 = 5 mm.1823 Y = 25. (b) roll torque.7 using a roll radius = 250 mm.591 W 19.592)(585.851.25 = 0.81 x 10-3) = 4.851.554 W Note that this is the same power value (within calculation error) as in Problems 19.

333 = 1.000(ε)0/1.000 lb.0112) = 37.600.0 12 d = 2.2 hp 19.000(10) (12d) 0. Assume the strength coefficient remains K = 20. (c) N = (30 ft/min)/(2π x 15/12) = 3.548N = 39.741 in-lb/min)/(396. The mill has a maximum horsepower = 100 hp.12 except that the operation is warm rolling and the strain hardening exponent n = 0.672 MN = 672.111 = 0.5 = 400. and (c) power required for this operation.5/tf) tf = to -d = 1. Solution: (a) Assumption: maximum possible draft is determined by the force capability of the rolling mill and not by coefficient of friction between the rolls and the work.1054) 0.0 = 20.167 in. Determine: (a) roll force.15.5 ft/min 19.5 = 11.251 f (c) Given maximum possible power HP = 100 hp = 100 x 396000 (in-lb/min)/hp = 39.22 = 300 MPa f Rolling force F = 300(0.5 in thick plate by the maximum possible draft in one pass.026.720 N-m (c) Given that N = 12 rev/min Power P = 2π(12/60)(672.026.5(401. the work material has a strength coefficient = 20.0 mm. The starting plate is 200 mm wide.02 = 4 d = 4/12 = 0.13 Solve Problem 19.18 mm = 0.536 in-lb.82)(404.617.5 . It is desired to reduce a 1.000)(2.1054 Y = 600(0.22. The starting plate is 10 in wide.285 = 0.167) = ln 1.88 rev/min vr = 2πRN = 2π(12/12)(7. Contact length L = (250 x 2) .0. (b) True strain ε = ln(1. (b) roll torque.11 A single-pass rolling operation reduces a 20 mm thick plate to 18 mm. Roll radius = 250 mm and rotational speed = 12 rev/min.18 = 2. (b) associated true strain. The work material has a strength coefficient = 600 MPa and a strength coefficient = 0.771)(2.0112)(0.5/1.000/200.74) = 26.88) = 49.5 Y = 20.000 (the limiting force of the rolling mill) (12d) 0.5 .(b) Torque T = 0.600.82 rev/min.0112) = 3.12 A hot rolling mill has rolls of diameter = 24 in.0112 m True strain ε = ln(20/18) = ln 1. Draft d = 1.000 lb/in2. In the heated condition.771)(2.000 lb/in 2 Force F = 20.000 = 2.5 = 400. It can exert a maximum force = 400. and (c) maximum speed of the rolls for the operation.2) = 0.333) 0.333 in.5 = 2.697 W 19.000 N = 7. 104 .0) = 5.tf Contact length L = (12d) 0.000 N (b) Torque T = 0. ε = ln(1.0 in.000 in-lb/min Contact length L = (12 x 0.000)(0.22/1.000)(0. Determine: (a) maximum possible draft.548N in-lb/min 5.000 lb/in 2 and a strain hardening exponent = zero. Power P = 2π(3.617.741 in-lb/min HP = (26.000) = 67.74) = 554. Solution: (a) Draft d = 20 . P = 2πN(400.5(672.

P = 2πN(400.3 in. (d) 0.5 = 11.0 in.391(0. which is very close to the trial value of d = 0.223) .55 Try d = 0.578.15 f F = Y (10)(12d) 0.95 in.58 in.50 = 0.5 in.15/1.4 ft/min f f f f Forging 19.5 = 400.489 = 0.556.95) = ln 1. The work material has a flow 105 .547 f Now use trial-and-error to values of Y and d that fit this equation..5 = 1. ε = ln(1.745 d = 0. ε = ln(1.600.5/tf) Y = 20. tf = 1.462 = 0.555.15 = 15.000(ε)0. Final height = 20 mm.747 d = 0.5 = 11. which does not equal the initial trial value of d = 0.547/15. (d) 0. ε = ln(1..14 A cylindrical part is warm upset forged in an open die.391(0.5/1.2) = ln 1. (d) 0.0.5 = 34.2 in.15 = 13.5 ε = ln(1.462 lb/in2.641 Y (d) 0.945 in.58) = 6.489 lb/in2.Solution: (a) Assumption (same as in previous problem): maximum possible draft is determined by the force capability of the rolling mill and not by coefficient of friction between the rolls and the work. Coefficient of friction at the die -work interface = 0.5 = 11.5 = 11.5/1.555 = 0.457 Y = 17.0.5/0. Try d = 0.5 = 400.945) = 0.579 = 0.15 = 17.189 = 0.462) . Draft d = 1.7602 d = 0.8315 d = 0. (d) 0.55 = 0.5 Try d = 0.641 = 11.11) = 38.887 = 0.000/34.391(0.15 = 15.391ε .55 in.3 = 1.11 rev/min vr = 2πRN = 2π(12/12)(6. which does not equal the trial value of d = 0.20.5/0.558.000N in-lb/min 6.0.5 .391(0. tf = 1.50 .000)(2.945) = ln 1.547/15.462 (c) Given maximum possible power HP = 100 hp = 100 x 396000 (in-lb/min)/hp = 39. (b) True strain ε = ln(1.000 N = 6. Do = 50 mm and h o = 40 mm.4055) .5 . tf = 1.457) .3 Try d = 0.4055 Y = 17.5873 = 0.547/13.tf Contact length L = (12d) 0..887 lb/in2.691.15 = 15.486.5 .000 (as given) f f Y (d) f 0.000N = 39. which is close to the trial value of d = 0.223 Y = 17.189 lb/in2. tf = 1..5/0.000 in-lb/min Contact length L = (12 x 0.600. ε = ln(1.486.0) = ln 1.5 .555) 0.25 = 0.5 = 2.0.555 in.547/15.462 Y = 17.

6 MPa.154 F = 1.5 in. At h = 1. (b) at h = 30 mm.3.3 = 1.6 MPa V = 78.2)(3927) = 2.287) 0. A = V/h = 12.002) = 2.045(27.7)/30 = 1.7 mm (from A = πD2/4) Kf = 1 + 0.060 F = 1.2)(57.3 = 5.92 A = V/h = 78.822 lb (c) Given h = 1.5)/4 = 12.273 in 3 from part (a) above.557 N (c) Given h = 20.4(.2 MPa V = 78.4(.1)(2.556)(4.693 N (b) Given h = 30.9 = 6.4(.283(574.283 F = 1.948)(6. Solution: (a) V = πD2L/4 = π(2.1 F = 1.04(15.1(284.curve defined by: K = 600 MPa and n = 0. ε = ln(2.5 in and h = 2.892.060(32.274 Yf = 40. Coefficient of friction at the die -work interface = 0. Yf = 40.540 mm3 Given ε = 0. A = V/h = 78.3) = ln 1.5 mm2 Kf = 1 + 0. The work material has a flow curve defined by: K = 40.273/2.12 = 284. and h = 40 . and (c) at h = 20 mm.273 in 3 from part (a) above. ε = ln(40/30) = ln 1.9 in.15 A cylindrical workpart with D = 2.34) = 153.5/1.748 lb/in2 and h = 2. and (d) h = 1.12 = 574.273/2.5 . ε = ln(2.748)(4.661 N 19.87)/1. Determine the instantaneous force in the operation (a) just as the yield point is reached (yield at strain = 0.695 lb 106 .540/39.316 = 0. Solution: (a) V = πD2L/4 = π(50) 2(40)/4 = 78.87 (from A = πD2/4) Kf = 1 + 0.154(516.12 = 516.560.92 = 1963.495 = 4.61)/2.92) = 80.61 (from A = πD2/4) Kf = 1 + 0.2)(70.10.7 mm (from A = πD2/4) Kf = 1 + 0.15 = 32.9 = 1.4(.273/1.948 lb/in2 V = 12.5) = 614.333 = 0.000(0.579 lb (b) Given h = 2.15 = 27.1)(2. Determine the force in the operation (a) just as the yield point is reached (yield at strain = 0.540 mm3 from part (a) above.274) 0. Yf = 600(0.002) 0.9.000(0.6)(1963.92 = 1.540/30 = 2618 mm2 Corresponding D = 57.04 F = 1.15.556 lb/in2 V = 12.045 F = 1.6)(2618) = 1.15 = 15.273 in 3 Given ε = 0.002) 0.9) = ln 1.540/20 = 3927 mm2 Corresponding D = 70.12.087 = 0.693 Yf = 600(0.0 = 0.5/2.5)/2.495 A = V/h = 12.0834 Yf = 40. A = V/h = 12.5(0.002) = 39.002).46 in 2 Corresponding D = 2. At h = 20.3 in.2.46) = 225.4(.3. ε = ln(40/20) = ln 2.34 in 2 Corresponding D = 2.0834) 0. At h = 2.92 in 2 Kf = 1 + 0.5 in is upset forged in an open die to a height = 1.40(0.693) 0.1)(2.5 in. (b) at height h = 2.540 mm3 from part (a) above.495 = 1.000(0. At h = 30.2)(50)/39.002.000 lb/in2 and n = 0.002.7)/20 = 1. A = V/h = 78.287 Yf = 600(0.9.5) 2(2.002).4(. (c) h = 1.

(d) Given h = 1.5, ε = ln(2.5/1.5) = ln 1.667 = 0.511 Yf = 40,000(0.511) 0.15 = 36,166 lb/in2 V = 12.273 in 3 from part (a) above. At h = 1.5, A = V/h = 12.273/1.5 = 8.182 in 2 Corresponding D = 3.23 (from A = πD2/4) Kf = 1 + 0.4(.1)(3.23)/1.5 = 1.086 F = 1.086(36,166)(8.182) = 321,379 lb 19.16 A cylindrical workpart has a diameter = 2.0 in and a height = 4.0 in. It is upset forged to a height = 2.5 in. Coefficient of friction at the die -work interface = 0.10. The work material has a flow curve with strength coefficient = 25,000 lb/in 2 and strain hardening exponent = 0.22. Determine the plot of force vs. work height. Solution: Volume of cylinder V = πD2L/4 = π(2.5) 2(4.0)/4 = 19.635 in 3 We will compute the force F at selected values of height h: h = (a) 4.0, (b) 3.75, (c) 3.5, (d) 3.25, (e) 3.0, (f) 2.75, and (g) 2.5. These values can be used to develop the plot. The shape of the plot will be similar to Figure 21.13 in the text. (a) At h = 4.0, we assume yielding has just occurred and the height has not changed significantly. Use ε = 0.002 (the approximate yield point of metal). At ε = 0.002, Yf = 25,000(0.002) 0.22 = 6,370 lb/in2 Adjusting the height for this strain, h = 4.0 - 4.0(0.002) = 3.992 A = V/h = 19.635/3.992 = 4.92 in 2 Kf = 1 + 0.4(.1)(2.5)/3.992 = 1.025 F = 1.025(6,370)(4.92) = 32,125 lb (b) At h = 3.75, ε = ln(4.0/3.75) = ln 1.0667 = 0.0645 Yf = 25,000(0.0645) 0.22 = 13,680 lb/in2 V = 19.635 in 3 calculated above. At h = 3.75, A = V/h = 19.635/3.75 = 5.236 in 2 Corresponding D = 2.582 (from A = πD2/4) Kf = 1 + 0.4(.1)(2.582)/3.75 = 1.028 F = 1.028(13,680)(5.236) = 73,601 lb (c) At h = 3.5, ε = ln(4.0/3.5) = ln 1.143 = 0.1335 Yf = 25,000(0.1335) 0.22 = 16,053 lb/in2 At h = 3.5, A = V/h = 19.635/3.5 = 5.61 in 2 Corresponding D = 2.673 (from A = πD2/4) Kf = 1 + 0.4(.1)(2.673)/3.5 = 1.031 F = 1.031(16,053)(5.61) = 92,808 lb (d) At h = 3.25, ε = ln(4.0/3.25) = ln 1.231 = 0.2076 Yf = 25,000(0.2076) 0.22 = 17,691 lb/in2 At h = 3.25, A = V/h = 19.635/3.25 = 6.042 in 2 Corresponding D = 2.774 (from A = πD2/4) Kf = 1 + 0.4(.1)(2.774)/3.25 = 1.034 F = 1.034(17,691)(6.042) = 110,538 lb (e) At h = 3.0, ε = ln(4.0/3.0) = ln 1.333 = 0.2874 Yf = 25,000(0.2874) 0.22 = 19,006 lb/in2 At h = 3.0, A = V/h = 19.635/3.0 = 6.545 in 2 Corresponding D = 2.887 (from A = πD2/4)

107

Kf = 1 + 0.4(.1)(2.887)/3.0 = 1.038 F = 1.038(19,006)(6.545) = 129,182 lb (f) At h =2.75, ε = ln(4.0/2.75) = ln 1.4545 = 0.3747 Yf = 25,000(0.3747) 0.22 = 20,144 lb/in2 V = 19.635 in 3 calculated above. At h = 2.75, A = V/h = 19.635/2.75 = 7.140 in 2 Corresponding D = 3.015 (from A = πD2/4) Kf = 1 + 0.4(.1)(3.015)/2.75 = 1.044 F = 1.044(20,144)(7.140) = 150,136 lb (g) At h = 2.5, ε = ln(4.0/2.5) = ln 1.60 = 0.470 Yf = 25,000(0.470) 0.22 = 21,174 lb/in2 At h = 2.5, A = V/h = 19.635/2.5 = 7.854 in 2 Corresponding D = 3.162 (from A = πD2/4) Kf = 1 + 0.4(.1)(3.162)/2.5 = 1.051 F = 1.051(21,174)(7.854) = 174,715 lb 19.17 A cold heading operation is performed to produce the head on a steel nail. The strength coefficient for this steel is K = 550 MPa, and the strain hardening exponent n = 0.24. Coefficient of friction at the die-work interface = 0.10. The wire stock out of which the nail is made is 4.75 mm in diameter. The head is to have a diameter = 9.5 mm and a thickness = 1.5 mm. (a) What length of stock must project out of the die in order to provide sufficient volume of material for this upsetting operation? (b) Compute the maximum force that the punch must apply to form the head in this open-die operation. Solution: (a) Volume of nail head V = πDf2hf/4 = π(9.5) 2(1.5)/4 = 106.3 mm3. Ao = πDo2/4 = π(4.75) 2/4 = 17.7 mm2 ho = V/Ao = 106.3/17.7 = 6.0 mm (b) ε = ln(6.0/1.5) = ln 4 = 1.3863 Yf = 550(1.3863) 0.24 = 595 MPa Af = π(9.5) 2/4 = 70.9 mm2 Kf = 1 + 0.4(.1)(9.5/1.5) = 1.25 F = 1.25(595)(70.9) = 52,872 N 19.18 Obtain a large common nail (flat head). Measure the head diameter and thickness, as well as the diameter of the nail shank. (a) What stock length must project out of the die in order to provide sufficient material to produce the nail? (b) Using appropriate values for strength coefficient and strain hardening exponent for the metal out of which the nail is made (Table 3.5), compute the maximum force in the heading operation to form the head. Solution: Student exercise. Calculations similar to those above for the data developed by the student. 19.19 A hot upset forging operation is performed in an open die. The initial size of the workpart is: Do = 25 mm, and h o = 50 mm. The part is upset to a diameter = 50 mm. The work metal at this elevated temperature yields at 85 MPa (n = 0). Coefficient of friction at the die -work interface = 0.40. Determine: (a) final height of the part, and (b) maximum force in the operation. Solution: (a) V = πDo2ho/4 = π(25) 2(50)/4 = 24,544 mm3. Af = πDf2/4 = π(50) 2/4 = 1963.5 mm2. hf = V/Af = 24,544 /1963.5 = 12.5 mm.

108

(b) ε = ln(50/12.5) = ln 4 = 1.3863 Yf = 85(1.3863) 0 = 85 MPa Force is maximum at largest area value, Af = 1963.5 mm2 D = (4 x 1963.5/π)0.5 = 50 mm Kf = 1 + 0.4(.4)(50/12.5) = 1.64 F = 1.64(85)( 1963.5) = 273,712 N 19.20 A hydraulic forging press is capable of exerting a maximum force = 1,000,000 N. A cylindrical workpart is to be cold upset forged. The starting part has diameter = 30 mm and height = 30 mm. The flow curve of the metal is defined by K = 400 MPa and n = 0.2. Determine the maximum reduction in height to which the part can be compressed with this forging press, if the coefficient of friction = 0.1. Solution: Volume of work V = πDo2ho/4 = π(30) 2(30)/4 = 21,206 mm3. Final area Af = 21,206/hf ε = ln(30/hf) Yf = 400ε 0.2 = 400(ln 30/hf)0.2) Kf = 1 + 0.4µ(Df/hf) = 1 + 0.4(0.1)(Df/hf) Forging force F = KfYfAf = (1 + 0.04D f/hf)( 400(ln 30/hf)0.2)( 21,206/hf) Requires trial and error solution to find the value of hf that will match the force of 1,000,000 N. (1) Try hf = 20 mm Af = 21,206/20 = 1060.3 mm2 ε = ln(30/20) = ln 1.5 = 0.405 Yf = 400(0.405) 0.2 = 333.9 MPa Df = (4 x 1060.3/π)0.5 = 36.7 mm Kf = 1 + 0.04(36.7/20) = 1.073 F = 1.073(333.9)(1060.3) = 380,050 N Too low. Try a smaller value of hf to increase F. (2) Try hf = 10 mm. Af = 21,206/10 = 2120.6 mm2 ε = ln(30/10) = ln 3.0 = 1.099 Yf = 400(1.099) 0.2 = 407.6 MPa Df = (4 x 2120.6/π)0.5 = 51.96 mm Kf = 1 + 0.04(51.96/10) = 1.208 F = 1.208(407.6)(2120.6) = 1,043,998 N Slightly high. Need to try a value of hf between 10 and 20, closer to 10. (3) Try hf = 11 mm Af = 21,206/11 = 1927.8 mm2 ε = ln(30/11) = ln 2.7273 = 1.003 Yf = 400(1.003) 0.2 = 400.3 MPa Df = (4 x 1927.8/π)0.5 = 49.54 mm Kf = 1 + 0.04(51.12/11) = 1.18 F = 1.18(400.3)(1927.8) = 910,653 N (4) By linear interpolation, try hf = 10 + (44/133) = 10.33 mm Af = 21,206/10.33 = 2052.8 mm2 ε = ln(30/10.33) = ln 2.9042 = 1.066 Yf = 400(1.066) 0.2 = 405.16 MPa

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Df = (4 x 2052.8/π)0.5 = 51.12 mm Kf = 1 + 0.04(51.12/10.33) = 1.198 F = 1.198(405.16)(2052.8) = 996,364 N (5) By further linear interpolation, try hf = 10 + (44/48)(0.33) = 10.30 Af = 21,206/10.30 = 2058.8 mm2 ε = ln(30/10.30) = ln 2.913 = 1.069 Yf = 400(1.069) 0.2 = 405.38 MPa Df = (4 x 2058.8/π)0.5 = 51.2 mm Kf = 1 + 0.04(51.2/10.3) = 1.199 F = 1.199(405.38)(2058.8) = 1,000,553 N Close enough! Maximum height reduction = 30.0 - 10.3 = 19.7 mm 19.21 A part is designed to be hot forged in an impression die. The projected area of the part, including flash, is 15 in 2. After trimming, the part has a projected area = 10 in 2. Part geometry is relatively simple. As heated the work material yields at 9,000 lb/in 2, and has no tendency to strain harden. Determine the maximum force required to perform the forging operation. Solution: Since the work material has no tendency to work harden, n = 0. From Table 21.1, choose Kf = 6.0. F = 6.0(9,000)(15) = 810,000 lb. 19.22 A connecting rod is designed to be hot forged in an impression die. The projected area of the part is 6,500 mm2. The design of the die will cause flash to form during forging, so that the area, including flash, will be 9,000 mm2. The part geometry is considered to be complex. As heated the work material yields at 75 MPa, and has no tendency to strain harden. Determine the maximum force required to perform the operation. Solution: Since the work material has no tendency to work harden, n = 0. From Table 21.1, choose Kf =8.0. F = 8.0(75)(9,000) = 5,400,000 N.

Extrusion

19.23 A cylindrical billet that is 100 mm long and 40 mm in diameter is reduced by indirect (backward) extrusion to a 15 mm diameter. Die angle = 90°. If the Johnson equation has a = 0.8 and b = 1.5, and the flow curve for the work metal has K = 750 MPa and n = 0.15, determine: (a) extrusion ratio, (b) true strain (homogeneous deformation), (c) extrusion strain, (d) ram pressure, and (e) ram force. Solution: (a) rx = Ao/Af = Do2/Df2 = (40) 2/(15) 2 = 7.111 (b) ε = ln rx = ln 7.111 = 1.962 (c) ε x = a + b ln rx = 0.8 + 1.5(1.962) = 3.742 (d) Y = 750(1.962) 0.15/1.15 = 721.5 MPa,

f

p = 721.5(3.742) = 2700 MPa (e) Ao = πDo2/4 = π(40) 2/4 = 1256.6 mm2 F = 2700(1256.6) = 3,392,920 N. 19.24 A 3.0-in long cylindrical billet whose diameter = 1.5 in is reduced by indirect extrusion to a diameter = 0.375 in. Die angle = 90°. In the Johnson equation, a = 0.8 and b = 1.5. In the flow

110

curve for the work metal, K = 75,000 lb/in2 and n = 0.25. Determine: (a) extrusion ratio, (b) true strain (homogeneous deformation), (c) extrusion strain, (d) ram pressure, (e) ram force, and (f) power if the ram speed = 20 in/min. Solution: (a) rx = Ao/Af = Do2/Df2 = (1.5) 2/(0.375) 2 = 42 = 16.0 (b) ε = ln rx = ln 16 = 2.773 (c) ε x = a + b ln rx = 0.8 + 1.5(2.773) = 4.959 (d) Y = 75,000(2.773) 0.25/1.25 = 77,423 lb/in2

f

p = 77,423(4.959) = 383,934 lb/in2 (e) Ao = πDo2/4 = π(1.5) 2/4 = 1.767 in2 F = (383,934)(1.767) = 678,411 lb. (f) P = 678,411(20) = 13,568,228 in-lb/min HP = 13,568,228/396,000 = 34.26 hp 19.25 A billet that is 75 mm long with diameter = 35 mm is direct extruded to a diameter of 20 mm. The extrusion die has a die angle = 75°. For the work metal, K = 600 MPa and n = 0.25. In the Johnson extrusion strain equation, a = 0.8 and b = 1.4. Determine: (a) extrusion ratio, (b) true strain (homogeneous deformation), (c) extrusion strain, and (d) ram pressure at L = 70, 40, and 10 mm. Solution: (a) rx = Ao/Af = Do2/Df2 = (35) 2/(20) 2 = 3.0625 (b) ε = ln rx = ln 3.0625 = 1.119 (c) ε x = a + b ln rx = 0.8 + 1.4(1.119) = 2.367 (d) Y = 750(1.119) 0.25/1.25 = 493.7 MPa

f

It is appropriate to determine the volume of metal contained in the cone of the die at the start of the extrusion operation, to assess whether metal has been forced through the die opening by the time the billet has been reduced from L = 75 mm to L = 70 mm. For a cone-shaped die with angle = 75°, the height h of the frustum is formed by metal being compressed into the die opening: The two radii are: R1 = 0.5D o = 17.5 mm and R2 = 0.5D f = 10 mm, and h = (R1 - R2)/tan 75 = 7.5/tan 75 = 2.01 mm Frustum volume V = 0.333πh(R12 + R1R2 + R22) = 0.333π(2.01)(17.52 + 10 x 17.5 + 102) = 1223.4 mm3. Compare this with the volume of the portion of the cylindrical billet between L = 75 mm and L = 70 mm. V = πDo2 h/4 = 0.25π(35) 2(75 - 70) = 4810.6 mm3 Since this volume is greater than the volume of the frustum, this means that the metal has extruded through the die opening by the time the ram has moved forward by 5 mm. L = 70 mm: pressure p = 493.7(2.367 + 2 x 70/35) = 3143.4 MPa L = 40 mm: pressure p = 493.7(2.367 + 2 x 40/35) = 2297.0 MPa L = 10 mm: pressure p = 493.7(2.367 + 2 x 10/35) = 1450.7 MPa 19.26 A 2.0-in long billet with diameter = 1.25 in is direct extruded to a diameter of 0.50 in. The extrusion die angle = 90°. For the work metal, K = 45,000 lb/in2, and n = 0.20. In the Johnson extrusion strain equation, a = 0.8 and b = 1.5. Determine: (a) extrusion ratio, (b) true strain (homogeneous deformation), (c) extrusion strain, and (d) ram pressure at L = 2.0, 1.5, 1.0, 0.5 and zero in. Solution: (a) rx = Ao/Af = Do2/Df2 = (1.25) 2/(0.5) 2 = 6.25

111

672/2.229 lb/in2 19.328 = 2. 19.333πh(R12 + R1R2 + R22) = 0.404 Y = 15.50 in.7726) = 4.20.950 lb/in2 184.252) = 1.328 in L1 = 3.549 + 2 x 2.R2)/tan 45 = 1. (c) What is the ram pressure corresponding to this position? (d) Also determine the length of the final part if the ram stops its forward movement at the start of the die cone.25) = L = 1.0 . a = 0.8 + 1.0) 2/(0.031 in 3 (Lo .8326 (c) ε x = a + b ln rx = 0. what is the length of the extruded section? (d) Determine the ram pressure in the process. the die angle α = 90°. (c) ε = ln rx = ln 16 = 2.: pressure p = 42.0 (b) The portion of the billet that is compressed into the die cone forms a frustum with R1 = 0.0 in. In the Johnson extrusion strain equation.75 in. The operation is carried out hot and the hot metal yields at 15.330(3.0 = 15.404 + 2 x 2. true strain. The operation is performed cold and the strength coefficient of the metal K = 26.330(3.5 in thick.05/1.549 (d) Y = 45. Final cross-section after extrusion is a square with 1. Solution: (a) rx = Ao/Af = Do2/Df2 = (2.: pressure p = 42.672 in.140 lb/in2 (d) Length of extruded portion of billet = 2.3(2.0 x 0.27 A direct extrusion operation is performed on a cylindrical billet with Lo = 3.549 + 2 x 0.8 and b = 1.8 + 1.333π(0.5/1.031 in 3 The billet has advanced a certain distance by the time this frustum is completely filled and extrusion through the die opening is therefore initiated. Die angle = 45° and orifice diameter = 0.0/1.5 in.L1) = 1.20 = 42.086 lb/in2 150.0 in.0/1.0.8 and b = 1. (a) Compute the extrusion ratio.000 lb/in 2 f p = 15. The volume of billet compressed forward to fill the frustum is given by: V = πR12(Lo .2.0/1.8326) = 3.L1) = π(1. 112 .0 in and R2 = 0.0.5 in.: pressure p = 42.25) = L = 0.0 in.000(2. and extrusion strain.5D o = 1.000 lb/in 2 (n = 0).549 + 2 x 1. the final part length.7726 ε x = a + b ln rx = 0.330(3. so metal is forced through the die opening as soon as the billet starts to move forward in the chamber.25 in.28 An indirect extrusion process starts with an aluminum billet with diameter = 2. The height of the frustum h = (R1 .0 in and Do = 2.25) = L = 0.000(1.25) = 285. The volume of the frustum is V = 0.0 . (a) What is the extrusion ratio? (b) Determine the ram position at the point when the metal has been compressed into the cone of the die and starts to extrude through the die opening.549 + 2 x 0.25 = 1. (b) What is the shape factor of the product? (c) If the butt left in the container at the end of the stroke is 0.5) 2 = 16.549 + 2 x 1. L = 2.25 + 0.5D f = 0. The die angle = 90°.L1) = 1. With a reduction rx = 16.330 lb/in2 f Unlike the previous problem.5(1.0 in.0 in on a side.000 lb/in2 and strain hardening exponent n = 0.: pressure p = 42.5/1.031/π = 0.672 in.7726) 0/1.0 in and length = 3.672(16) = 42. we have π(Lo .0) = 106. excluding the cone shaped butt remaining in the die is L = 2.330(3.813 lb/in2 217. a = 0.3.677 lb/in2 251.: pressure p = 42.25 = 0. In the Johnson extrusion strain equation.330(3.L1) Setting this equal to the volume of the frustum.000(4.75 in.75)(1.0 in.25) = L = 1.0) 2(Lo .(b) ε = ln rx = ln 6.8326) 0.02 + 1.

426 in 3 The final volume consists of two sections: (1) butt.25π(88) 2(250) = 1. Thus.0) = 4.98 + 0.54) = 122.520.4 mm 19.29 are: K = 240 MPa and n = 0.5)(π x 22/4) = 1.02(224/122. The extrudate has a cross-sectional area Af = 1200 mm2. If the die angle in this operation = 90°.174 (b) To determine the die shape factor we need to determine the perimeter of a circle whose area is equal to that of the extruded cross-section.623 ε x = 0. Cc = 2π(19.142/1.30 The flow curve parameters for the aluminum alloy of Problem 19.5(1. (d) Y = 26.145) = 2.0 = 3.0 in2.29.1 mm2 Af = 2 x (12 x 50) = 1200 mm2 rx = 6082.8 mm.25 = 1.142 = 1.068 (b) To determine the die shape factor we need to determine the perimeter of a circle whose area is equal to that of the extruded cross-section.0 in. The perimeter of the extruded cross-section Cx = 4(1.29 An L-shaped structural section is direct extruded from an aluminum billet in which Lo = 250 mm and Do = 88 mm.3(1.145 ε x = 0.5642 in. Thus. The radius of the circle is R = (1200/π)0.368. Solution: (a) rx = Ao/Af Ao = π(88) 2/4 = 6082.478 mm3..261)(2. A = 1. Determine: (a) extrusion ratio.623) = 3.545 in. (b) shape factor.5 in.8 + 1.Solution: (a) rx = Ao/Af Ao = πDo2/4 = π(2) 2/4 = 3. Cc = 2π(0.855 in 3. Dimensions of the cross-section are given in Figure P19. rx = 5.068= 1.531 mm3 The final volume consists of two sections: (1) butt.545) 2.855/1.5 = 0.8 and b = 1.8 + 1.571 in 3.16.368.068 ε = ln 5.8) 2.152.006 (c) Given that the butt thickness = 0.053 = 1.053 mm3.057 (c) Total original volume V = 0.698 lb/in2 19.174) = 48.234 113 .520.29. Its volume V2 = LAf = 9.54 mm.25 = 1.0 in 2 rx = 3. length L = 1. Kx = 0. and (2) extrudate.571 = 7.1.0/π)0. and the corresponding Johnson strain equation has constants a = 0.5. and (2) extrudate.2/1.261 lb/in3 f p = 1.000(1. Its volume V2 = LAf = 1.0 = 7. A = 1200 mm2. and (c) length of the extruded section if the butt remaining in the container at the end of the ram stroke is 25 mm.531 . The butt volume V1 = (0.478/1200 = 1140.142 ε = ln 3.0 = 1.855 in.5 = 19.1/1200= 5.2 = 22.02(4. The perimeter of the extruded cross-section Cx = 62 + 50 + 12 + 38 + 50 + 12 = 224 mm Kx = 0.006(22. compute the maximum force required to drive the ram forward at the start of extrusion.0 x 1. The butt volume V1 = 0. Solution: From Problem 19.142 in2 Af = 1.0/3.0)(π x 22/4) = 9. Original volume V = (3.145) 0.0 in 2.5642) = 3. length L = 7. The radius of the circle is R = (1.25π(88) 2(25) = 152.98 + 0. Die angle = 90°.426 . The extrudate has a cross-sectional area Af = 1.

8 and b = 1.057(223.73 MPa f p = Kx Y ε x = 1.98 + 0.74/94.25π(50) 2(5) = 9817.544 mm. Solution: (a) Ax = 20 x 60 = 1200 mm.75/706.Y = 240(1.1) = 12.75 mm2 Af = 0. Determine: (a) extrusion ratio.25π(502 . and h = 95 mm.74 mm.45 mm R2 = 373.6 mm2 F = 912.2 (6082.86 mm2 rx = 1963.πRi2 = π(252 . determine the extrusion force.6 MPa f Maximum ram force occurs at beginning of stroke when L is maximum at L = 250 mm p = Kx Y (ε x + 2L/Do) = 1. R = 10.5h = 76.06 mm2 Cx = πDo + πDi = π(50 + 45) = 298.25 = 1. R = 19.016 (b) Ax = πRo2 .86/π)0. Cc = 2π(15) = 94.8 mm Kx = 0. The perimeter of the extruded cross-section Cx = π(50 + 40) = 90π = 282.02(298.22.53 114 . The final dimensions of the cup are: OD = 50 mm.151.75.33 Y = 400(1.5 mm3 Total V = V1 + V2 = 9817. The radius of the circle is R = (706.430 N 19.25) 2. V1 = 0.0218 ε x = 0. Kx = 0.32.02(160/122. ID = 40 mm. and thickness of base = 5 mm.98 + 0.45/68.217(321. Solution: (a) rx = Ao/Af Ao = 0. and the constants in the Johnson extrusion strain equation are: a = 0.5(1.0218) = 2.47) 2.86 = 2.897 mm.25π(2500 .816.3(1256.544) = 122.8) 2.25π(50) 2 = 1963.0218) 0.25 = 321.25 mm.2 MPa f F = pA o = 2107.969 mm3 V = 0.86 mm2.778 (b) To determine the die shape factor we need to determine the perimeter of a circle whose area is equal to that of the extruded cross-section.25π(40) 2 = 1256. height = 100 mm.2 mm (d) ε = ln 2.73)(2.5 = 76. Cc = 2πR = 2π(10.16 = 223. Cx = 2(20 + 60) = 160 mm Ao = πR2 = 1200 R2 = 1200/π = 381.16/1.02(282. (1) Base t = 5 mm and D = 50 mm. (d) If the metal has flow curve parameters K = 400 MPa and n = 0.151.06/π = 118.5 = 15 mm.31 A cup-shaped part is backward extruded from an aluminum slug that is 50 mm in diameter.6)( 3. (b) shape factor. A = 706.146.25π(50) 2(h) = 1963.969 mm3 h = 39.217 (c) Volume of final cup consists of two geometric elements: (1) base and (2) ring.897) = 68.6) = 1.8 + 1.402) = 706. and (c) height of starting slug required to achieve the final dimensions.5 mm3 (2) Ring OD = 50 mm.32 Determine the shape factor for each of the extrusion die orifice shapes in Figure P19.33) = 912.25.234+ 2 x 250/88) = 2107.5 + 67.5.778 = 1. ID = 40 mm.1600)(95) = 67.47 mm Kx = 0.25 = 1. V2 = 0.969 mm3 Volume of starting slug must be equal to this value V = 76.52) = 373.25/1.267 N 19.402)(95) = 0.623) 0.25π(502 . Cc = 2πR = 2π(19.25 = 1.98 + 0.3 MPa f Ao = 0.97.

22.30.9094 mm2 r = (9.25 = 1. R2 = 1675/π = 533.25π(0. Starting diameter = 0.10) = 300 + 250 = 550 mm2 Cx = 30 + 60 + 30 + 5 + 25 + 50 + 25 + 5 = 230 mm Ao = πR2 = 550. R = 23.17.000(0.0695/4.Af)/Ao Ao = 0.6 MPa f (c) Draw force F: F = Af σd = 4.75 Lc = 0.22/1.000 lb/in 2 and a strain hardening exponent = 0. and (c) horsepower to perform the operation if the exit velocity of the stock = 2 ft/sec. (b) draw force for the operation.177 (d) Ax = 5(55)(5) + 5(85 . Determine: (a) area reduction.12(D/Lc) D = 0.51 (b) Draw force F: ε = ln(0.07/tan 15)(1.14 mm Kx = 0.1964 in2 Af = 0.9094) = ln 1.08) 2. Coefficient of friction at the work-die interface = 0.5(.02(230/83. R = 13.1964 .12(D/Lc) D = 0.1964 = 0.25π(0.5 N 19.22)(0.23 mm Cc = 2πR = 2π(13.0416 = 0.30/1.0 + 2.88 + 0.02(680/145.247 lb/in 2 f φ = 0.365) 0.08 mm Kx = 0.0962 in2 r = (0. Coefficient of friction at the work-die interface = 0. and (c) draw force required for the operation.6) = 783.98 + 0.50 + 0.12(2.7137 Y = 45. R2 = 550/π = 175.35 in. Solution: (a) r = (Ao .5(3.5)/sin 15 = 0. K = 500 MPa and n = 0.09 mm Cc = 2πR = 2π(23.0695 mm2 Af = 0.44 = 0.5x5) = 1675 mm2 Cx = 2 x 55 + 16 x 25 + 8 x 15 + 10 x 5 = 680 mm Ao = πR2 = 1675.88 + 0.98 + 0.Af)/Ao Ao = 0.2(1 + 0.2. (b) draw stress. For the work metal.0962) = ln 2.30 = 284.35) = 0.5 mm in a die with entrance angle = 15° degrees.23) = 83.35) 2 = 0.3056 (b) Draw stress σd: ε = ln(7. Determine: (a) area reduction.1. The metal has a strength coefficient = 45.7137) 0.25π(3.966 φ = 0.0695 = 0.33 Wire of starting diameter = 3.0962)/0.07.34 Rod stock is drawn through a draw die with an entrance angle of 12°.25 = 1.14) 2.0 .75/0.88 + 0.22 σd = Y (1 + µ/tan α)φ(ln Ao/Af) = 284.07.4.25π(2.626 Drawing 19.9094)/9.5) = 2.365 Y = 500(0.1964/0.425 115 .50 in and final diameter = 0.9094(159.09) = 145.966) = 1.5(3. Solution: (a) r = (Ao .0.0 mm is drawn to 2.0695 .50) 2 = 0.5) 2 = 4.(c) Ax = 2(5)(30) + 5(60 .2 MPa f φ = 0.365) = 159.0) 2 = 9.22 = 34.

3056 (b) Draw stress σd: ε = ln(6361.600 ft/lb/min HP = 423.021)(0.4417. Y = 40.2231) 0. Determine: (a) area reduction.1118) = 0.125 in is drawn through two dies each providing a 0.012273/0.2231 r = (Ao .88 + 0. Solution: First draw: Do = 0. Determine the maximum possible speed of the wire as it exits the second die.5(0.25π(90) 2 = 6361.36 Wire stock of initial diameter = 0.125) 2 = 0.475(1 m/min) = 271. The motors driving the capstans at the die exits can each deliver 1.08/tan 18)(1.1118)/sin 12 = 0.125 .425/0.12(D/Lc) D = 0.12(0.Af)/Ao .3607) = 1.1184/0.45 MPa f (c) F = Af σd = 4417. Af = 0.288 σd = Y (1 + µ/tan α)φ(ln Ao/Af) = 105(1 + 0.000 lb/in 2 and a strain hardening exponent = 0.r)0.7 = 0.25π(0.0.5 = 0.0 m/min. The starting metal has a strength coefficient = 40.9 mm2 r = (6361.250 = 0.35)/sin 12 = 0.25π(75) 2 = 4417.600/33.7 /4417.6 N-m/s = 4524.3646) = 61.Af)/Ao Ao = 0.5 mm Lc = 0.0962(34. (b) draw stress.021 F = Af Y (1 + µ/tan α)φ(ln Ao/Af) f F = 0.33 F = Af Y (1 + µ/tan α)φ(ln Ao/Af) f 116 .12(82.0.9) = ln 1.50 .3) = 1.247)(1 + 0.35 Bar stock of initial diameter = 90 mm is drawn with a draft = 15 mm.5(0.15/1. Solution: (a) r = (Ao .5(90 + 75) = 82.r) = 0.03173) = 1.12(0.88 + 0.9)/ 6361.45) = 271.125 in.3 mm φ = 0.000(0.775 lb/in 2 f φ = 0.50 hp at 90% efficiency.88 + 0.440 = 0.125(1 .3607 φ = 0.15 = 75 mm.15.84 hp 19.125 + 0.12(D/Lc) Df = 0.08.8) .6 W 19.475 N (d) P = 271.7 .5(90 .88 + 0.75)/sin 18 = 24.012773(1 .012273 in2 009819 in2 ε = ln(0.9 (61.7137) = 3530 lb (c) P = 3530(2 ft/sec x 60) = 423. Each die has an entrance angle of 12°..Lc = 0.000 = 12.20 area reduction. and the coefficient of friction at the work-die interface is estimated to be 0.03173 φ = 0.10.d = 90 .5 = 0.125(.288)(0.1184 Lc = 0. and the coefficient of friction at the work-die interface = 0. (c) draw force required for the operation.7 mm2 Df = Do .009819) = ln 1.15 = 27.3646 Y = k = 105 MPa f φ = 0. and (d) power to perform the operation if exit velocity = 1. The draw die has an entrance angle = 18°.0. The metal behaves as a perfectly plastic material with yield stress = 105 MPa.1118 in D = 0.5/24. Ao = 0.1/tan 12)(1.88 + 0.475 N-m/min = 4524.5(. Af = Ao(1 .2) = 0.

009819(1 .88 + 0.5 ft-lb/sec P = Fv = 119v = 742.r) = 0. Af = Ao(1 .5(0.1/tan 12)(1.5/119 = 6.5 hp at 90% efficiency = 1..35)(0.2) = 0.15 = 30.000 ft-lb/min)/60 = 742.12(0.5 hp at 90% efficiency = 742.5 v = 742.5 = 0.25π(0. P = Fv = 214v = 742.1118 .4462 Y = 40.F = 0.24 ft/sec Second draw: Do = 0.90(33.1118) 2 = 0.5 x 0.2231) = 119 lb 1.47 ft/sec Note: The calculations indicate that the second draw die is the limiting step in the drawing sequence.12(D/Lc) Df = 0.009819 in2 r = (Ao .007855 in 2 ε = ln(0.5/214 = 3.2231 Total strain experienced by the work metal is the sum of the strains from the first and second draws: ε = ε 1 + ε 2 = 0.5 = 0.35 F = Af Y (1 + µ/tan α)φ(ln Ao/Af) f F = 0.1118(.4462) 0.5(0.5 v = 742.818 lb/in 2 f φ = 0.100 in D = 0.1118 in.250 = 0.33)(0.100) = 0.8) .Af)/Ao .0. 1.r)0.1/tan 12)(1.15/1. The first operation would have to be operated at well below its maximum possible speed.0269 φ = 0.2231 + 0.000(0. Ao = 0.100)/sin 12 = 0.1059/0.2231 = 0.1059 Lc = 0.007855(30.09819(27.0269) = 1. or the reductions to achieve the two stages could be reallocated to achieve a higher reduction in the first drawing operation.818)(1 + 0.1118(1 . 117 .4462) = 214 lb.775)(1 + 0.1118 + 0.0.009819/0.88 + 0.5 ft-lb/sec as before in the first draw.007855) = ln 1. or the second draw die could be powered by a higher horsepower motor.

In V-bending. Drawing defects include: (1) wrinkling.7 Distinguish between redrawing and reverse drawing. (2) bending. (3) earing. 20. a simple punch and die which have the included angle are used to bend the part. Answer.9 What is stretch forming? Answer. probably with annealing between the steps. Answer. In blanking of a round sheet metal part.6 What are some of the simple measures used to assess the feasibility of a proposed cup drawing operation? Answer.10 Identify the principal components of a stamping die that performs blanking. Stretch forming of sheet metal involves stretching and simultaneous bending of the workpart to achieve shape change.1 20. indicate how the clearance should be applied to the punch and die diameters.4. the shape change is significant enough (e. divided by the angle of the tooling. The three operations are: (1) cutting. (2) tearing. where t = stock thickness. Answer. r = (D . 20. and (3) thickness-to-diameter ratio. Measures of drawing feasibility include: (1) drawing ratio.5 What is springback in sheet metal bending? Answer. See Figure 20. See Article 20. die size = blank size. 20. the second in the opposite direction. In edge bending.g. 118 . drawing ratio greater than 2. Answer.20 20.9. For a blanking operation.2 SHEET METALWORKING Identify the three basic types of sheet metalworking operations. D = blank diameter. two draws are accomplished on the part. (2) reduction.14. A cutoff operation separates parts from a strip by shearing one edge of each part in sequence. Review Questions 20.8 What are some of the possible defects in drawn sheet metal parts? Answer. t/D. A parting operation cuts a slug between adjacent parts in the strip. 20.4 Describe V-bending and edge bending. one in one direction. Springback is the elastic recovery of the sheet metal after bending. In reverse drawing.3. it is usually measured as the difference between the final included angle of the bent part and the angle of the tooling used to make the bend.0) that it must be carried out in two drawing steps.3 What is the difference between a cutoff operation and a parting operation? Answer. See Figure 20. the punch force a cantilevered sheet metal section over a die edge to obtain the desired bend angle. DR = D/Dp. and (3) drawing.. 20. and the punch is smaller by twice the clearance.Dp)/D. 20. In redrawing. 20. and (4) surface scratches. and Dp = punch diameter.

and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point. To attain a perfect score on the quiz.6. Two press frame types are: (1) gap frame. For each question. Roll forming involves feeding a lone strip or coil through rotating rolls so that the shape of the rolls is imparted to the strip. Roll bending involves the forming of large sheet and plate metal sections into curved forms. or (c) be unaffected.12 What are the relative advantages and disadvantages of mechanical versus hydraulic presses in sheet metalworking? Answer. and (2) straight-sided frame. also called C-frame.Answer. 20. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point. since each correct answer is worth 1 point. Answer. Advantages of hydraulic presses: longer ram strokes and uniform force throughout stroke. A major technical problem in tube bending is collapse of the tube walls during the process. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers. See Section 20. Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 17 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct). Answer.14 Identify a major technical problem in tube bending? Answer. 20.5. (c) 20. 20. 20. (b) shear. or (b) punch. (a) 20. the clearance between punch and die should: (a) be decreased.1. (a) and (c). See Article 20. all correct answers must be given. 20. See Article 20. (b) 20.15 Distinguish between roll bending and roll forming. Answer.1 As sheet metal stock hardness increases. (b) be increased. and (c) tensile. Advantage of mechanical presses: faster cycle rates. (c) shear strength. Answer. (d) tensile strength. 20. The Guerin process is a sheet metal forming process that uses a rubber die which flexes to force the sheet metal to take the shape of a form block (punch).10. (b) modulus of elasticity. Answer.11 What are the two basic categories of structural frames used in stamping presses? Answer. or (e) yield strength.1. 119 .4 Sheet metal bending involves which of the following stresses and strains (may be more than one)? (a) compressive.3 The cutting force in a blanking operation depends on which mechanical property of the sheet metal (one best answer)? (a) compressive strength.2 A round sheet metal slug produced in a hole punching operation will have the same diameter as which of the following? (a) die opening.13 What is the Guerin process? Answer.

(a) Which one of the following stamping dies is the most complicated? (a) blanking die.0 mm.7. (b) Which of the following processes are classified as high. which of the operations are likely to be feasible? (a) DR = 1. Die diameter = Db = 75. (d) wiping die for edge bending. (b) flanging. (g) trimming. (d) r = 65%.7. Problems Cutting Operations 20. The part is circular with diameter = 75. Thus. (d) explosive forming.11 Answer.6 20. and (i) tube forming. (e) progressive die. (b) amount of elastic recovery experienced by the metal after bending. (g) redrawing. (c) hemming.2 Thus. The following are measures of feasibility for several proposed cup drawing operations.285 mm A blanking operation is to be performed on 2.0 mm thick cold rolled steel (half hard). (b) and (d). 20. and (e). Punch diameter = Db . (f) hydroforming.075(2. (b) electromagnetic forming.15) = 74. Answer. and (i). (c). (d) solid gap. (d) Which of the following are variations of sheet metal bending operations (more than one)? (a) coining. (f) shear spinning.10 20.075. Answer. (c) compound die. c = 0. (d) ironing. Answer. (e) Guerin process. Solution: From Table 20.75 mm thick.20. a = 0. (c) safety factor used in calculating bending force.35.1 A power shears is used to cut soft cold rolled steel that is 4. and (h) shear spinning. c = at = 0.9 20. Answer. or (f) V-die. (c) electron beam cutting.0 mm. (b) combination die.7 20.1. Determine the appropriate punch and die sizes for this operation.060. Answer. 20.75) = 0. or (d) length before bending of the straight sheet metal section to be bent.70 mm.0 . (b) equal to. (b) DR = 2. (c) press brake.15 mm.energy-rate forming processes (more than one)? (a) electrochemical machining. Answer. (b) open back inclinable. (a). Holding force in drawing is most likely to be which of the following relative to maximum drawing force? (a) less than. (h) tube bending. and (e) straight-sided. (e) Which one of the following press types is usually associated with the highest production rates in sheet metal stamping operations? (a) adjustable bed. or (c) greater than.2c = 75. (b).2(0. 120 . (c).0) = 0.1.060(4. (e) notching.5 Which one of the following is the best definition of bend allowance? (a) amount by which the die is larger than the punch. (c) r = 0. a = 0. At what clearance should the shears be set to yield an optimum cut? Solution: From Table 20. and (e) t/D = 2%.8 20.

a = 0. Solution: F = 0. What are the possible reasons for the burrs. L = 65π + 30π = 95π = 298.2(0.4. Solution: F = StL t = 5/32 in.1.5 mm F = 0.29 mm 20.3 A compound die will be used to blank and punch a large washer out of aluminum alloy sheet stock 3.8 The foreman in the pressworking section comes to you with the problem of a blanking operation that is producing parts with excessive burrs.0 mm from Problem 20. if the aluminum sheetmetal has a tensile strength = 290 MPa. The material is 5/32 inch thick stainless steel (half hard).0 + 1.5) = 193.2 mm from Problem 20. Blanking die: dimensions are the same as for the part in Figure P20. L = πD = 75π = 235.6 Determine the minimum tonnage press to perform the blanking and punching operation in Problem 20.0)(235. given that the stainless steel has a shear strength = 62.00 inch extension widths = 1.955 N 20. Assume that blanking and punching occur simultaneously. Thus.9766 in.5 + 1.144) = 30.2. a = 0.938 lb = 62. Determine the dimensions of the blanking punch and the die opening. from Problem 20.5 + 2.000 lb/in 2. The outside diameter of the washer = 65 mm and the inside diameter = 30 mm.3.000 inch width dimension = 2.4766 in.2. Determine: (a) the punch and die sizes for the blanking operation. Solution: From Table 20. 20.4.075. Solution: F = StL t = 2.2) = 0.65 mm F = 350(2.144) = 64. 2.0 in.4. and (b) the punch and die sizes for the punching operation.3.000 inch inset dimension remains the same.2(0.2(0.5 Determine the blanking force required in Problem 20. Blanking punch: 3.2)(298.9766 in.0117 in.0 .4. c = 0.2(0. and what can be done to correct the condition? 121 .2c = 65 .0 + 1. Solution: From Table 20.000(5/32)(13.000 .874 N 20.2 mm thick.0 + 2. L = 3.7 Determine the tonnage requirement for the blanking operation in Problem 20.0117) = 3.0117) = 1.075(5/32) = 0.500 inch length dimension = 3.0) = 125. Thus.045(3.0117) = 0.0 + 1.20.0 = 13. F = 62.144 mm (a) Blanking punch diameter = Db .7(TS)tL t =3. 1.7(290)(3.045.500 .1. top and bottom 1. c = 0.71 mm Blanking die diameter = Db = 65 mm (b) Punching punch diameter = Dh = 30 mm Punching die diameter = Dh + 2c = 30 + 2(0.0 + 1.4 A blanking die is to be designed to blank the part outline shown in Figure P20.65) = 164. if the steel has a shear strength = 350 MPa.97 tons 20.

15625) = 0. therefore. (c) Where should the machine operator set the stop on the press brake relative to the starting length of the part? Solution: (a) R/t = (3/16)/(5/32) = 1.3756) = 1. Therefore.98 mm Dimensions of starting blank: w = 32 mm. BA = 2π(A/360)(R + Kbat) R/t = (6. Solution: For V-bending. If not.1875 + 0. measure the punch and die clearance to see if it equals the recommended value. these sides should be measured to the beginning of the bend radius.5 + 0.0 .98 + 37. Kba = 0.75) = 18. determine the length of the part's neutral axis after the bend.35 mm A = 180 .48 mm 20. BA = 2π(A/360)(R + Kbat) R/t = (9. A’ = 45°. 122 . the length of the neutral axis of the part will be 2(1.11 An L-shaped part is to be bent in a V-bending operation on a press brake from a flat blank 4. its length will be greater after the bend than before.35)/(4.0417 in.87 mm 20.0 inches by 1.9 except that the bend radius R = 6. L = 50 + 18.75 mm A = 180 . (c) The operator should set the stop so that the tip of the V-punch contacts the starting blank at a distance = 2.8122 in. Kba = 0. Therefore.5 inches that is 5/32 inch thick.5 x 4. Dimensions (lengths) of each end = 0.35 mm.5 = 115. from the end. therefore.75) = 2.9 A bending operation is to be performed on 4. (b) Also.35 + 0.75) = 1. (b) Since the metal stretches during bending.4173 in.0.0.5(4.333 x 4.75) = 27. regrind the faces to sharpen the cutting edges.37 + 37. Kba = 0.33. (a) Determine the dimensions of the two equal sides that will result after the bend.12 Determine the bending force required in Problem 20. The stretched length of the bend along the neutral axis will be: B = 2π(90/360)(0. Determine the blank size required. The material has a tensile strength = 620 MPa. L = 50 + 27. Its length before bending = 4. The bend of 90° is to be made in the middle of the 4-inch length.9.1875 + 0.A’ = 135°.15625) = 0.000 in. (2) Punch and die cutting edges are worn (rounded) which has the same effect as excessive clearance. The part drawing is given in Figure P20. R = 6.5 BA = 2π(135/360)(9.9 if the bend is to be performed in a V-die with a die opening width = 38 mm.5)/(4.337.10 Solve Problem 20.2. (2) If the die is not worn.3756 in. Kbf = 1.Solution: Reasons for excessive burrs: (1) clearance between punch and die is too large for the material and stock thickness. if the bend radius = 3/16 inch.8122) + 0. If they are. Solution: From drawing. die maker must rebuild the punch and die. For convenience. Bending 20. To correct the problem: (1) Check the punch and die cutting edges to see if they are worn.000 in. Solution: From drawing.5 x 0.4173 = 4.33 x 0.33 B = 2π(90/360)(0.37 mm Dimensions of starting blank: w = 32 mm. A’ = 45°. 20. R = 4.75 mm thick cold rolled steel.5 = 105.A’ = 135°.333 BA = 2π(135/360)(6.

The metal has a tensile strength = 340 MPa. Solution: For V-bending.0 mm thick and 20.Dp/D = 1 . Kbf = 0. determine: (a) drawing ratio. (d) Does the operation seem feasible? Solution: (a) DR = D/Dp = 225/100 = 2.17 Derive an expression for the reduction r in drawing as a function of drawing ratio DR.18 A cup is to be drawn in a deep drawing operation.5 mm in a V-die.75) 2/38 = 15.100)/175 = 0. However. F = Kbf(TS)wt2/D = 0.5)(5/32) 2/1.19 Solve Problem 20.0.0 mm long is bent to an included angle = 60° and a bend radius = 7. r is too large (greater than 50%).16 A sheetmetal part 3.33(70. F = Kbf(TS)wt2/D = 0.89% (d) Feasibility? No! DR is too large (greater than 2. and (c) thickness-to-diameter ratio.75) 2/25 = 5.25 inches.33(340)(20)(3) 2/15 = 5426 N Drawing Operations 20.0).Dp)/D = (175 . Solution: For edge-bending in a wiping die. The material has a tensile strength = 70.33(620)(32)(4. The height of the cup is 75 mm and its inside diameter = 100 mm.12 except that the operation is performed using a wiping die with die opening W = 25 mm.18 except that the starting blank size diameter = 175 mm. Kbf = 1.9% (c) t/D = 2/175 = 0.33.1/DR 20. and t/D > 1%.33. 20.14 Determine the bending force required in Problem 20.Dp)/D Drawing ratio DR = D/Dp r = D/D .0089 = 0. F = Kbf(TS)wt2/D = 1. and t/D is too small (less than 1%). If the blank diameter = 225 mm.75 = 1128 lb.13 Solve Problem 20.5)(5/32) 2/0. r < 50%. F = Kbf(TS)wt2/D = 1.0114 = 1.100)/225 = 0. the operation is not feasible because the 175 mm diameter blank size does not provide sufficient metal to draw a 75 mm cup 123 .25 (b) r = (D . Solution: (a) DR = D/Dp = 175/100 = 1.F = Kbf(TS)wt2/D = 1.555 = 55.33.75 inch.000)(1.667 N 20.909 N 20.Dp/D = 1 . Compute the required force to bend the part.14% (d) Feasibility? DR < 2.75 (b) r = (D . 20.11 if the bend is to be performed in a V-die with a die opening width W = 1. (b) reduction. Kbf = 1. given that the die opening = 15 mm.33(70.5% (c) t/D = 2/225 = 0. Solution: Reduction r = (D .33.33(620)(32)(4. Solution: For edge-bending in a wiping die.Dp)/D = (225 . 20. Solution: For V-bending.15 Solve Problem 20.000 lb/in 2. Kbf = 0.25 = 2728 lb.000)(1.14 except that the operation is performed using a wiping die with die opening W = 0. The sheetmetal thickness = 2 mm.429 = 42.

015(180)π(1502 .2 x 3 + 2 x 4) 2) = 0.053 314.22 A cup drawing operation is performed in which the inside diameter = 80 mm and the height = 50 mm.23 A deep drawing operation is to be performed on a sheetmetal blank that is 1/8 inch thick.000)π(7. Punch and die radii = 5/32 inch.2t + 2Rd)2) Fh = 0. Set surface area of cup = surface are of starting blank: 314.7) = π(4)(0.46 (c) F = πDpt(TS)(D/Dp .015Yπ(D2 .7) = π(4)(0.000)(7. (c) drawing force. (d) Fh = 0.0.7) = 110. Solution: (a) DR = 7.20 except that the stock thickness t = 3/16 inch.0.015(30. Solution: (a) DR = 7.1875)(60.0.56 mm.15625) 2) = 49. The stock thickness = 3.5 = 0. The stock thickness = 1/8 inch.4. To compute the cup surface area.58752) Fh = 49.053 mm2.0 inches.015Yπ(D2 .(4 + 2.height. assuming the corner radius on the punch has a negligible effect in our calculations and there is no earing of the cup. and (2) base.0 inches and a height = 2. Cup area = πDph + πDp2/4 = 100πh + π(100) 2/4 = 100πh + 2500π = 314.000)(7. Determine: (a) drawing ratio.2t + 2Rd)2) Fh = 0.0 mm.0. Punch and die radii = 4 mm.21 Solve Problem 20.2 x 0.(Dp + 2. (d) Fh = 0.770 lb (same as previous problem) 20.15625) 2) = 0.000 lb/in 2. (d) Fh = 0. This is less than the specified 75 mm height.015(30.418 N.756 lb.5/4. Tensile strength = 400 MPa and a yield strength = 180 MPa for this sheetmetal.133 lb.125/7. The actual cup height possible with a 175 mm diameter blank can be determined by comparing surface areas (one side only for convenience) between the cup and the starting blank.5 = 0.0. and (d) blankholder force.875 (b) r = (D – Dp)/D = )150 – 80)/80 = 70/150 = 0.875 (b) t/D = 0.770 lb 20.1875/7.94. Assuming the punch radius = 0.000 lb/in2 and a yield strength = 30.199 h = 51.(80 + 2.125)(60.025 = 2.16h = 16.7) = 354. The metal has a tensile strength = 60.000)π(7.000)π(7. (c) drawing force. and the starting blank diameter = 7.5% (c) F = πDpt(TS)(D/Dp . Thus. and the starting blank diameter = 150 mm.015(30.7) = π(80)(3)(400)(150/80 .52 . compute the starting diameter of the blank to complete the 124 .20 A deep drawing operation is performed in which the inside of the cylindrical cup has a diameter = 4. Determine: (a) drawing ratio.0. 20.2 x 0.8 inches and the diameter (inside dimension) = 5.125 + 2 x 0.5 inches. (b) reduction. Solution: (a) DR = 150/80 = 1.52 .942 N 20.5 inches.5/4.5/4 .62) Fh = 114.01667 = 1.0 = 1.7) = 166.875 (same as previous problem) (b) t/D = 0.16h + 7854= 24. and (d) blankholder force.52 .(Dp + 2.125 + 2 x 0.(4 + 2.015(180)π(1502 . The height (inside dimension) of the cup = 3.667% (c) F = πDpt(TS)(D/Dp . (b) reduction.16h + 7854.5/4 .0 = 1. Blank area = πD2/4 = π(175) 2/4 = 24. let us divide the cup into two sections: (1) walls.

589 in.80 . (b) Is the drawing operation feasible? Solution: Use surface area computation.847 + 14. A2 = 4.825 D = 9.25π(5) 2 = 25.0 D = 10.7855 = 18. Test for feasibility: DR = D/Dp = 10.0 mm stock. with a punch radius Rp = 0.964.188 = 76.23 except use a punch radius = 0.7855D 2 Setting blank area = cup area: 0.589) = 8.2 x 0.7855D 2 Setting blank area = cup area: 0. A1 = πDph = π(5.375 inch.25 = 101.265 = 4.847 in 2 A3 = π(4. 20. 20.842 D2 = 76.846 D2 = 14. which is above the value of 1% used as a criterion of feasibility in cup drawing. Is the operation feasible (ignoring the fact that the punch radius is too small)? Solution: Use surface area computation. however. The part is a cylindrical cup with height = 50 mm and inside diameter = 70 mm. Test for feasibility: DR = D/Dp = 9.26%.900 D = 137. which is less than the limiting ratio of 2.0218 = 2. this 125 .188 in2 Total area of cup = 53. which has a diameter = 5.24 Solve Problem 20.0)(3.operation with no material left in the flange.7855 = 97..25π in2 Blank area = πD2/4 = 0.425) = 53. assuming thickness t remains constant. (a) Find the required starting blank size Db. the blank size would be slightly smaller.846/0.25πD2 Setting blank area = cup area: 0.846 mm2. which would reduce DR.0 = 2.01.425 in. Of course.25πD2 = 25.7855D 2 = 14.375 radius at the base of the cup. the operation in the present problem seems feasible.89/5.050/5. (2) quarter toroid formed by the 0.375) = 0. Blank area = πD2/4 = 0. The centroid is located at the center of the arc which is 0. The thickness to diameter ratio t/D = 0. Assume the corner radius on the punch = zero.78π(0.842/0.0 .25 + 2 x 0. Solution: Use surface area computation.375 in.8) + 0.25) 2/4 = 14.375 = 3. Because DR > 2.375 = 4. Cup area = wall area + base area = πDph + πDp2/4 = 5π(3. Thus.780 in.25/0.25π(2 x 0. and (3) base. the diameter of the circle described by the centroid is 4.25 A drawing operation is performed on 3.7855D 2 = 76.25 in.25π(70) 2 = 14.978.48 = 0. radius.265 beyond the center of the 0.050 in.25π D2 = 25.0.23 was not feasible. Whereas the operation in Problem 20.807 + 8. this operation may not be feasible.48/70 = 1. These criteria values indicate that the operation is feasible.807 in 2 A2 = length of the quarter circle at the base multiplied by the circumference of the circle described by the centroid (Pappus-Guldin Theorem): length of quarter circle = πD/4 = 0.0 = 1.89 = 0. Cup area = wall area + base area = πDph + πDp2/4 = π(70)(50) + 0.48 mm. With a rounded punch radius.890 in. assuming thickness t remains constant.0126 = 1. whose height = 3.842 in 2 Blank area = πD2/4 = 0. Test for feasibility: DR = D/Dp = 137.0. assuming thickness t remains constant.125/9. t/D = 3/137.18%.0. The surface area of the cup will be divided into three sections: (1) straight walls.375 sin 45 = 0. the zero punch radius makes this operation infeasible anyway.

One remedy is to anneal the metal to reduce the directionality of the properties.6 mm2 A2 = length of the quarter circle at the base multiplied by the circumference of the circle described by the centroid (Pappus-Guldin Theorem): length of quarter circle = 2πRp/4 = 0.5 D2 = 16.375 radius at the base of the cup. Test for feasibility: DR = D/Dp = 147.6 + 3166. There are several possible remedies: (a) increase the t/D ratio by using a thicker gage sheet metal.5 mm2 Blank area = πD2/4 = 0.7855 = 20.27 Solve Problem 20.10. A1 = πDph = π(70)(50) = 10. another has wrinkles.045 mm2.31 = 0. the punch radius Rp = 0 would render this operation difficult if not infeasible. this operation is considered infeasible. radius. The samples have various defects.8 mm2 Total area of cup = 10.26 Solve Problem 20.125. This may not be possible since a design change is required.7855D 2 = 17.25 except that the height = 60 mm. (2) Wrinkles are caused by compressive buckling of the flange as it is drawn inward to form the cup. which has a diameter = 70 .071 = 64.25π(70) 2 = 17.375 in.142π(15.0 D = 143.1 mm2 A3 = π(50) 2/4 = 1963. assuming thickness t remains constant. The centroid is located at the center of the arc which is 10 sin 45 = 7.26 except that the corner radius on the punch = 10 mm. Since the DR is greater than 2.71) = 3166.shape would be difficult to draw because the drawing punch would act on the metal like a blanking punch.2 x 10 = 50 mm.529. Solution: Cup area = wall area + base area Cup area = πDph + πDp2/4 = π(70)(60) + 0.995. whose height = 60 .0204 = 2. The surface area of the cup will be divided into three sections: (1) straight walls.995.25π(2 x 10) = 15.071 beyond the center of the 0. Also. Solution: Use surface area computation.047.045 D2 = 17.045/0. this operation is considered infeasible.04%.700 D = 147.125. 20.0. One has ears.1 + 1963.7855 = 21. t/D = 3/147. 20.28 The foreman in the drawing section of the shop brings to you several samples of parts that have been drawn in the shop.0.7855D 2 = 16. Thus.5/0. as in the previous problem.28/70 = 2. A2 = 64. The material is anisotropic. and (3) base.31/70 = 2.28 mm.31 mm. What are the causes of each of these defects and what remedies would you propose? Solution: (1) Ears are caused by sheet metal that has directional properties. Blank area = πD2/4 = 0. (b) Increase the blankholder pressure against the work during drawing. 20. (2) quarter toroid formed by the 0. 126 .8 = 16.7855D 2 Setting blank area = cup area: 0.10 = 50 mm. and still a third has torn sections at its base. the diameter of the circle described by the centroid is 50 + 2 x 7.71 mm.125.142 mm. Since the DR is greater than 2. Test for feasibility: DR = D/Dp = 143.7855D 2 Setting blank area = cup area: 0.

002 as start of yielding.14). Yf = 70. (b) Because the sheet metal is rather thick. and (d) die force Fdie at the very end when the part is formed as indicated in Figure P20.5 . V1 = (1. (c) stretching force F.75 inch blank diameter.601 = 4. (3) base. assuming width L = 10 in.459) = 43. its height = 1. (2) toroid at base. (20.803) = 17.601 in 3 Total V = V1 + V2 + V3 = 2.1116 (c) At the final length of 22. The drawn cup consists of three sections: (1) cup walls.25) + 2. according to Eq.81 in..30 A 20 inch long sheetmetal workpiece is stretched in a stretch forming operation to the dimensions shown in Figure P20. The thickness of the beginning stock t = 0.516 in 3 V3 = (2.0 in. (b) After stretching. computed in (a) does not provide sufficient metal to complete the drawing.375) 2] = 0.2 x 0.30(b).361 in.5 inches.1073)(40.375 + 0.2 x 0.1963D 2 Setting blank volume = cup volume: 0.5 . let us use volume rather than area to determine whether there is sufficient metal in a 3.5 = 3.14)? (b) Does this blank diameter provide sufficient material to complete the cup? Solution: (a) According to Eq.5) 2)/4 = 1.25π[(0.457π(0.000(0.25)D2/4 = 0.002) 0.0.25 = 14.(0.375) 2π(0.5 + 2 x 0.25)/4 = 0.118 = 0.547 in 3 Volume of blank = πD2t/4 = π(0.764 lb.125π(2.430 in 3 V2 = (cross-section of quarter toroid) x (circle made by sweep of centroid) Cross-section of quarter toroid = 0.1964 in 2 Circle made by centroid sweep has diameter = (2.430 + 1. V2 = 2.375 inch. The inside diameter of the cup = 2.75)/4 = 2.361/20) = ln 1. Solution: (a) Use ε = 0.25) + 2(0.5 . and the corner radius at the base = 0.375)π[(2. Determine: (b) true strain experienced by the metal. tf = 0. remains the same during stretching. (a) What is the minimum starting blank diameter that can be used.413 lb.361 in.Dp < 5t D < 5t + Dp = 5(0.361) = 0.1963D 2 = 4.000 lb/in 2 and n = 0.1964) = 1. 127 . (a) Find the stretching force F required near the beginning of the operation when yielding first occurs. the length of the piece is increased from 20.25) 2 .1073 in. ε = ln(22.5 inches.25/2)sin 45 = 2.25 = 40.803 lb/in2 F = (10)(0.16 D = 4.75 in.5 = 22. (22. Other Operations 20.516 + 0. F = LtYf Yf = 70.1116) 0.25) 2] .12)(14.547 D2 = 4. The diameter of 3. the thickness of the sheet metal has been reduced to maintain constant volume.(2. D . Tearing can also occur due to a die corner radius that is too small.30.457 in. The metal has a flow curve defined by K = 70.1963 = 23. 20.75 in.000(0.547/0.25 inches.(3) Tearing occurs due to high tensile stresses in the walls of the cup near the base.12(20/22.25.125 inch and the width = 10 inches. to 2(102 + 52)0.459 lb/in2 F = 10(0.375 + 0. A remedy would be to provide a large punch radius.29 A cup-shaped part is to be drawn without a blankholder from sheetmetal whose thickness = 0.

4 – 1.31 were made by shear spinning.32 If the part illustrated in Figure P20.2 mm (b) r = (t .tf)/t = (2.57° Fdie = 2( 43. determine: (a) the wall thickness along the cone-shaped portion. 20. 128 . The sand will act as an internal flexible mandrel to support the tube wall.836 lb.4 mm. Solution: Based on sidewise displacement of metal through a shear angle of 30°.4)sin 30 = 2.5) = 1. In one of the bends where the bend radius is 125 mm. Shear strain γ = cot 30 = 1. and (b) the spinning reduction r.33 Determine the shear strain that is experienced by the material that is shear spun in Problem 20.32.25)/sin 30 = 25 + 75/0.50 = 50% 20. The wall thickness on the tube = 4.34 A 75 mm diameter tube is bent into a rather complex shape with a series of simple tube bending operations. 20. Solution: (a) tf = t sin α = (2.732. radius = 25 + (100 . The tubes will be used to deliver fluids in a chemical plant.4 = 0. (3) Pack sand into the tube.31 Determine the starting disk diameter required to spin the part in Figure P20. The starting thickness = 2. (2) Request the designer to increase the bend radius to 3D = 225 mm. the walls of the tube are flattening badly.75 mm.5 = 175 mm Starting diameter = 2(175) = 350 mm 20.413) sin 26.31 using a conventional spinning operation. Solution: From part drawing.57 = 38.4(0.(d) Fdie = 2F sin A A = tan-1(5/10) = 26. What can be done to correct the condition? Solution: Possible solutions: (1) Use a mandrel to prevent collapsing of tube wall.2)/2.

21.5 Identify the parameters of a machining operation that are included within the scope of cutting conditions.3 21. The two categories are: (1) single -point tools. (3) it can achieve closer tolerances than most other processes. 21. used in operations such as milling and drilling.6 Define the difference between roughing and finishing operations in machining. Answer. and (3) continuous with built-up edge.4 Name the three most common machining processes.shaped tool in which the cutting edge is perpendicular to the direction of speed motion into the work material. Answer. in which the chip is formed into separated segments. and (3) milling. (2) drilling. The three types are: (1) discontinuous. and (4) it can create good surface finishes. depth of cut. Answer. Orthogonal cutting involves the use of a wedge. and whether or not a cutting fluid is used. A roughing operation is used to remove large amounts of material rapidly and to produce a part geometry close to the desired shape.2 Identify some of the reasons why machining is commercially and technologically important. (2) its capability to produce a variety of geometries to a part.9 Name and briefly describe the three types of chips that occur in metal cutting. 21. 21. 129 . The three common machining processes are: (1) turning. feed. What are the two basic categories of cutting tools in machining? Give an example of a machining operation that uses each of the tooling types. In machining. which is the same as (2) except that friction at the tool-chip interface causes adhesion of the work material to the tool rake face. Cutting conditions include: speed.8 What is an orthogonal cutting operation? Answer.1 What distinguishes machining from other manufacturing processes? Answer. 21. The reasons include: (1) its applicability to most materials.21 THEORY OF METAL MACHINING Review Questions 21. A finishing operation follows roughing and is used to achieve the final geometry and surface finish. Answer. in which the chip does not segment and is formed from a ductile metal. 21. 21. and (2) multiple-edge cutting tools. A machine tool can be defined as a power-driven machine that positions and moves a tool relative to the work to accomplish machining or other metal shaping process. used in operations such as turning and boring. 21. Answer.10 Describe in words what the Merchant equation tells us. Answer. (2) continuous. material is removed from the workpart so that the remaining material is the desired part geometry.7 What is a machine tool? Answer.

To attain a perfect score on the quiz. (b) continuous with built-up edge. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers. 130 . low f and d.100 inch. and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point. For each question. 21. A tool-chip thermocouple is comprised of the tool and chip as the two dissimilar (metallic) materials forming the thermocouple junction.5 21. Answer. high f and d. 21. (c) milling. (c) 21. and d = 0. Answer.2 With which one of the following geometric forms is the drilling operation most closely associated? (a) external cylinder. f. or (d) low v.4 A roughing operation generally involves which one of the following combinations of cutting conditions? (a) high v. The size effect refers to the fact that the specific energy increases as the cross-section area of the chip (to x w) decreases. (b) to/tc. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point. since each correct answer is worth 1 point. (b) 0. Answer. or (c) discontinuous. Specific energy is the amount of energy required to remove a unit volume of the work material. (d) 21.0 in3/min.6 in 3/min.010 in/rev.025 in 3/min. The Merchant equation states that the shear plane angle increases when rake angle is increased and friction angle is decreased.3 If the cutting conditions in a turning operation are v = 300 ft/min.Answer.13 What is a tool-chip thermocouple? Answer. (c) f/d. (c) low v. (b) high v. and d.6 The chip thickness ratio is which one of the following? (a) tc/to.12 What does the term size effect mean in metal cutting? Answer. (b) Which of the three types of chip would be expected in a turning operation conducted at low cutting speeds on a brittle work material (one answer)? (a) continuous. Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 11 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct).1 A lathe is used to perform which of the following machining operations (one best answer)? (a) broaching. 21. (c) 3. or (d) 3. (c) round hole. Answer. (b) drilling. all correct answers must be given. (b) flat plane. an emf is emitted from the junction which can be measured to indicate cutting temperature.11 What is the specific energy in metal machining? Answer. f = 0. which one of the following is the material removal rate? (a) 0. and d. or (e) sphere. 21. (d) 21. or (d) turning. Answer. (d) screw threads. as the tool-chip interface heats up during cutting. (c) 21.3 in 3/min. or (d) to/w. f.

The chip thickness before the cut = 0. 21. or (c) 0.12 mm.848 + 0.37 + tan (22.4286 sin -5)) = tan-1(.012 in and the cut yields a deformed chip thickness = 0.1 In an orthogonal cutting operation.4615 φ = tan-1(.351 = 3.65 = 0. or (e) increase in shear plane angle.β/2.3°. the tool has a rake angle = 15°.35 = 0.948 131 .4286 cos -5/(1 .975 + 0.025 inch. (b) 0.35 + tan (19.3° Now.210 = 2. (c) 21. (b) brass..028 in.7 According to the Merchant equation.3 In an orthogonal cutting operation. φ = 45 + 0/2 – 51.85) = 51. suppose the rake angle were changed to α = 0°.1. determine (a) the shear plane angle.37° ° (b) Shear strain γ = cot 22. (b) decrease in power requirements. Eq.0) = 2. rearranging.9 For which one of the following values of chip thickness before the cut to would you expect the specific energy to be the greatest? (a) 0.. Answer.35 .2 In Problem 21.518 = 2.30/0. an increase in rake angle would have which of the following results.4116) = 22.10 Which of the following cutting conditions has the strongest effect on cutting temperature? (a) feed or (b) speed.199 21. (c) cast iron.Answer. The chip thickness before the cut = 0.010 inch. Solution: (a) r = to/tc = 0.012/0. the tool has a rake angle = -5°.8 Which of the following metals would usually have the lowest unit horsepower (one answer)? (a) aluminum.430 + 0. Using the Merchant Equation.37 – (-5)) = 2. Solution: From Problem 21.4286 φ = tan-1(. α = 15° and φ = 26.85°. (b) Problems Chip Formation and Forces in Machining 21.5062) = 26.65 mm. Calculate (a) the shear plane angle and (b) the shear strain for the operation.15) = 1. all other factors remaining the same (more than one)? (a) decrease in friction angle. (c) decrease in shear plane angle. Assuming that the friction angle remains the same. Answer. with α = 0 and β remaining the same at 51. (d) increase in cutting temperature.30 mm and the cut yields a deformed chip thickness = 0. Calculate (a) the shear plane angle and (b) the shear strain for the operation.854 mm (c) Shear strain γ = cot 19. (b) and (e). Answer. and (c) the shear strain for the operation.85° ° (b) Shear strain γ = cot 26.85 + tan (26. (21. β = 2(45) + α . or (d) steel. (b) the chip thickness.2φ β = 90 + 15 – 2(26.3/2 = 19. Solution: (a) r = to/tc = 0. (a) 21.4615 sin 15)) = tan-1(.185 21.85 .16): φ = 45 + α/2 .1.35° ° (b) Chip thickness at α = 0: tc = to/tan φ = 0.30/tan 19. (c) 21.028 = 0. Answer.4615 cos 15/(1 .

38 = 789. (b) the shear angle.301 = 1. tc = to/r = 0.88 (e) γ = cot 31.7 An orthogonal cutting operation is performed using a rake angle of 15°.9 MPa (b) φ = 45 + α/2 .000 lb/in 2. The tool rake angle = 10° which produces a deformed chip thickness tc = 0.7 involves a work material whose shear strength is 40. (c) the thrust force. to = 0.25)(3.8 .6 The cutting force and thrust force have been measured in an orthogonal cutting operation: Fc = 300 lb and Ft = 291 lb. 132 .4959) = 26.4 The cutting conditions in a turning operation are: v = 2 m/s.291sin 22. The chip thickness ratio is measured after the cut to be 0. Solution: (a) φ = tan-1(0.23 = 95.5 = 0.38° Fs = 1470 cos 21. the width of the cut = 0.55.8 The orthogonal cutting operation described in previous Problem 21. The rake angle = 10°. Determine: (a) shear plane angle.4233) = 22.3916) = 21.311 (c) MRR = (2 m/s x 103 mm/m)(0.3 N As = (0.8° ° (c) β = 2(45) + 15 . Determine (a) the shear strength of the work material and (b) the coefficient of friction in the operation.94 . (d) the coefficient of friction.017 + 0.25 mm.92 21.5 The cutting force and thrust force in an orthogonal cutting operation are: Fc = 1470 N and Ft = 1589 N. β = 2(45) + 10 .100 in.1 = 1. and the chip thickness ratio = 0.5° ° (d) µ = tan 41.015)(0.24 = 1.38 21.38 cos 5/(1 .4.8 + tan (31.3646 = 8. rearranging.38 – 1589 sin 21. As = (0.3/8.94 = 162.38 = 3.012 in and w = 0.6194) = 31.15) = 1. Solution: (a) r = to/tc = 0.4° ° (b) γ = cot 26.463 sin 10)) = tan-1(. compute: (a) the shear force.55 sin 15)) = tan-1(. The rake angle = 5°. the width of the cut = 5.38. Solution: (a) r = to/tc.38) = 52. β = 2(45) + α . Solution: φ = tan-1(0. Determine (a) the shear strength of the work material and (b) the coefficient of friction in the operation.54 mm. the chip thickness before the cut = 0.291 21..94° Fs = 300 cos 22. Based on your answers to the previous problem.015. f = 0.4 cos 10/(1 .54 = 0.94 = 0.463 φ = tan-1(.2)/sin 22.8) = 41.24° µ = tan 52.38 sin 5)) = tan-1(0.. (b) φ = tan-1(.167 lb/in2.022 in.10) = 2.4 .23 mm2 S = 789.9/0.55 cos 15/(1 . and d = 3.0)/sin 21.55 = 0.615 + 0.2φ β = 90 + 5 – 2(21.4 sin 10)) = tan-1(.9 lb.0 mm.6)(5.β/2. (b) the cutting force.94) = 54.21.0.0.4 + tan (26.25/0.0077 = 21. Use the orthogonal cutting model as an approximation of the turning process. and (e) the shear strain.1° µ = tan 54. the chip thickness before the cut = 0.463 cos 10/(1 .012/.0 mm. (c) the friction angle.0) = 1500 mm3/s 21.6.0/.0077 in 2 S = 162. (b) shear strain.2(22. and (c) material removal rate.2(31. and the chip thickness ratio = 0.9 N/mm2 = 95. Determine: (a) the chip thickness after the cut.294 = 2.200 in. and (d) the friction force.

(d) F = 397 sin 20 .7) = 47.4 sin -5)) = tan-1(0. Fs = AsS = 0.2(29. 133 . (c) β = 2(45) + (-5) .5668) = 29. (c) Ft = 91.15) = 2. The resulting chip thickness ratio = 0. and (d) friction force.5 + 50..6° Fc = 351 cos (47.8) = 42.15)/cos (31. Solution: (a) φ = tan-1(.015 in.4.15)/cos (31.5 mm (b) φ = tan-1(. Determine: (a) the chip thickness after the cut. Fs = AsS = 0.2/.5 + 50.3851) = 21.(-5)) = 870 lb.015)(0. chip thickness before the cut = 0.7 = 0. Solution: (a) r = to/tc.(-5))/cos (18. (b) the shear force.50.8 + 41.20)/cos (29. the rake angle = -5°. 21. and width of cut = 0.2 lb.000) = 91. Determine: (a) the shear plane angle.15)/sin 29. Ft = 228 sin (50.5 -15) = 77.15)/sin 18.11 Solve the previous problem except that the rake angle has been changed to -5° and the resulting chip thickness ratio = 0. (b) the shear force.2 cos 15 = 115 lb.870 cos (-5) = 808 lb. and d = 0.2(18.9 In an orthogonal cutting operation.8 + tan (31.6 .35. 21. Solution: (a) φ = tan-1(.489 = 3. 21..9 . (d) F = 155 sin 15 . resulting in a chip ratio = 0.9 -20) = 238 lb. The shear strength of the work material = 40.(-5)) = 665 lb.5 = 0. (c) cutting force and thrust force.00228 in 2.000) = 228 lb.8 .4 cos -5/(1 . to = 0.2 cos (41.9° ° (d) µ = tan 42. (d) the coefficient of friction.35 cos -5/(1 .(-5))/cos (18.5 -15) = 155 lb.7 + 47.10)/sin 31.010 in/rev.6 .238 cos 20 = 359 lb.2 sin (41.Solution: (a) As = (0. The rake angle on the tool in the direction of chip flow = 10°.5 cos 20/(1 . The chip ratio r = 0.93 (e) γ = cot 31.77.09 21. An orthogonal cutting operation is performed using a tool with a rake angle = 20° at the following cutting conditions: Speed = 100 ft/min.100 in. f = 0.0028(40.2 mm and w = 4.00456(50. (c) β = 2(45) + 20 .10 The shear strength of a certain work material = 50.5) = 50.9 -20) = 397 lb.6 .597 + 0.150 in.5 sin 20)) = tan-1(0.1° ° (c) β = 2(45) + (-5) . Ft = 351 sin (47. tc = to/r = 0.4 = 0.42.012)(0.3384) = 18.015)(0. (b) the shear angle.5 .8 + 41.5° ° (b) As = (0. (d) F = 665 sin (-5) . (c) the friction angle.6 .35 sin -5)) = tan-1(0.00702 in 2.12 A turning operation is performed using the following cutting conditions: v = 300 ft/min.7° ° (b) As = (0.0 mm. Using the orthogonal model as an approximation of turning. (b) Fc = 91.000) = 351 lb.000 lb/in 2.2(21.000 lb/in 2. (c) cutting force and feed force.20)/cos (29.7 + 47.5 .9° Fc = 228 cos (50.9 . determine: (a) the shear plane angle.00702(50.8 = 0..00456 in 2. and (e) the shear strain. Fs = AsS = 0.2 lb.9 = 0.

15 Show how Eq. determine: (a) the shear plane angle. (c) cutting force and feed force.9 . Fs = AsS = 0.10) = 179 lb.E.0) = 51. 134 .5 sin 7)) = tan-1(0. (21.7) = 387 N. Solution: In the figure.1 .2(27.2 .0 mm. (c) β = 2(45) + 10 .2) and Figure 21.0 m/s.16 Show how Eq.10) = 229 lb.13 Turning is performed on a work material with shear strength of 250 MPa.9 + 41.9 .2 . Using the orthogonal model as an approximation of turning. Fs.9 = 1. The resulting chip ratio = 0.284(250) = 321 N.100 in.α) = cos φ cos α + sin φ sin α r (cos φ cos α + sin φ sin α) = sin φ Dividing both sides by sin φ.2(24.2)(3.. β = 2(45) + 10 . and Fn (Eqs.Solution: (a) φ = tan-1(.42 sin 10)) = tan-1(0. 21.10)/cos (24.4 cos 10/(1 .4233) = 22. d = 3.α) = sin φ Using the trigonometric identity cos(φ .10)/cos (22. 21.000) = 128 lb. Fs = AsS = 1.9 .10)/sin 22..4462) = 24.7)/cos (27.0 + 51.9 + 41. γ = AC/BD = (AD + DC)/BD = AD/BD + DC/BD AD/BD = cot φ and DC/BD = tan (φ . (21.14 A turning operation is made with a rake angle of 10°.9° ° As = (0. Ft = 128 sin (54.2 .9) = 41. (21.10)/cos (24. (c) β = 2(45) + 7 . and rake angle = 7° in the direction of chip flow.0)/sin 27.α) Thus.α) Q.010 in/rev and a depth of cut = 0.7) = 568 N.0 + 51.9) through (21.10) = 161 lb.2): r = to/tc = sin φ/cos (φ .10)/cos (22. 21.9 + 54.4 sin 10)) = tan-1(0.10) = 236 lb. Solution: (a) φ = tan-1(.10)/sin 24. and the chip thickness ratio is measured after the cut to be 0.2 cos (51. Use the orthogonal cutting model as an approximation of the turning process.1° Fc = 128 cos (54.r sin α) Q.3) is derived from the definition of chip ratio.2 sin (51. Determine the cutting force and the feed force.9° Fc = 98. The shear strength of the work material is known to be 50. a feed of 0. we obtain r cos α/tan φ + r sin α = 1 r cos α/tan φ = 1 .5 cos 7/(1 . Ff = 321 sin (41.11.9° ° (b) As = (0.00245(40.00257 in 2. γ = cot φ + tan (φ .17 Derive the force equations for F.2 lb. Fs = AsS = 0. N.284 mm2.010)(0. Eq.0.000) = 98.1 .2(22.0° ° (b) As = (0. Eq.D.5(b).010)(0.42 cos 10/(1 .2° Fc = 321 cos (41.1 . r cos (φ .6.1 . The following conditions are used: v = 3. Ft = 98. 21. tan φ = r cos α/(1 . Solution: φ = tan-1(0.α) Rearranging.0 = 0.4) is derived from Figure 21.2 .r sin α Rearranging.9 + 54.9 = 0.7)/cos (27.00245 in 2.9) = 54.00256(50.D.20 mm/rev. f = 0. (b) the shear force.E.000 lb/in 2.12) in the text) using the force diagram of Figure 21. (21.5.9 .40. (21.5285) = 27. 21. Solution: Begin with the definition of the chip ratio.

What horsepower is required of the drive motor.D.8 J/mm3) = 17. The distance along the previously constructed line between the Ft arrowhead (base of translated N vector) and F is Ft sinα. Power and Energy in Machining 21.5/0. U = 2. F = Fc sin α + Ft cos α. U = 2.9): In Figure 23.000 mm3/min = 12.750 W = 29.8 N-m/mm3 = 2.E. (21.38 J/mm3.85. The vector F is divided into two line segments.3 to obtain the appropriate specific energy value. translate vector N vertically upward until it coincides with the previously constructed line.E.25 mm/rev. Pg = 29. The constructed line is at an angle α with Fc. Ft now makes an angle α with F. 135 .85) = 2. correction factor = 0.11. Fn = Fc sin φ + Ft cos φ Q. Pg = 17. Next. The length difference between the extended Fs vector and the original Fs vector is Ft sin φ.750 J/s = 29.18 In a turning operation on stainless steel with hardness = 200 HB.50 mm/rev. Hence. for f = 0.500 mm3/s P c = (12. whose length = Fc cos α. Use Table 21. and from the intersection of Ft and Fc construct a line that is perpendicular to vector Fs. one of which = Ft cos φ and the other = Fc sin φ.50 mm. construct a line from the intersection of Ft and Fc that is perpendicular to and intersects with vector Fn.D.5 mm.E. Eq. With the correction factor. one of which = Fc sin α and the other = Ft cos α. Thus Fs (original) = Fc cos φ .020 in/rev.5 kW Accounting for mechanical efficiency. translate vector Ft to the right and downward at an angle α until its base is at the arrowhead of F. extend vector Fs in the opposite direction of its arrowhead. The extended Fs vector is related to Fc as Fc cos φ. N = Fc cos α . (21.25 mm)(7.000 mm3/min = 6250 mm3/s P c = (6250 mm3/s)(2. and depth of cut = 7. U = 2.44 kW 21.3 to obtain the appropriate unit horsepower value. Vector Fn is now divided into two line segments.50 mm)(7. Thus. A right triangle now exists in which Fc is the hypotenuse and the two sides are (1) the extended Fs vector and (2) the constructed line that runs between Fs and the intersection of Fc and Ft. Hence.8(0.11.18.Solution: Eq.500 W = 17.” Using Figure 21. cutting conditions are as follows: v = 900 ft/min.11.38 J/mm3) = 29.90 = 19. if the lathe has a mechanical efficiency = 87%? Use Table 21.Ft sin φ Q.5 mm) = 375.500 J/s = 17.75/0.14. The arrowhead of Ft will now be at the base of the translated base of N.Ft sin α Q. How much power will the lathe draw in performing this operation if its mechanical efficiency = 90%.5 mm) = 750. construct a line starting at the intersection of Ft and Fc that is perpendicular to the friction force F. Q.10): In Figure 23.3. except that a correction must be made for the “size effect.19 In previous Problem 21. Eq.8 J/mm3 MRR = vfd = (200 m/min)(103 mm/m)(0. feed = 0.20 In a turning operation on aluminum.06 kW 21. f = 0. Solution: From Table 21.250 in. and d = 0.8 J/mm3.3.D. (21. the cutting speed = 200 m/min.500 mm3/s)(2. From Table 21.75 kW Accounting for mechanical efficiency.12): In Figure 23. Solution: This is the same basic problem as the previous. (21.11.E.D. compute the lathe power requirements if feed = 0.90 = 33. Eq.11): In Figure 23. MRR = vfd = (200 m/min)(103 mm/m)(0.

HPc = 155(200)/33. Determine: (a) the horsepower consumed by the turning operation. a correction factor must be applied from Figure 21.14. HPu = 0.-lb/in3.88 in.) = 7.400 f f = 22. the job can be accomplished on the 20 hp lathe. the lathe has a mechanical efficiency = 0.94/2.01 in.000 f Setting available power = required power.)(0.. (c) the unit horsepower (hp-min/(in3).12.45 mm/rev. determine the maximum feed that can be set for this operation. 3/min) (d) U = 155(200)/2.87 = 14.500/56. Since feed is greater than 0.400 f Again setting available power = required power.010 in/rev. thus U = 2.90) = 2.25)(54) = 12.0 mm. Fc = 155 lb.6 hp/(in 3/min)) = 11. Based on these values.100) = 2. For f = 0.Solution: From Table 21. can the job be performed on the 20 hp lathe? Use Table 21.5 (103) = 22.446 mm/rev One more iteration using the correction factor yields a value around f = 0. At efficiency E = 90%.500W Required power Pc = (2.8 N-m/mm3 = 2. 21. and its mechanical efficiency = 90%. the cutting speed is set at 200 m/min and depth of cut = 6. correction factor = 0. taking the correction factor into account.80.167 in. (c) HPu = 0. 21.012)(0.326 hp/(in.22 A turning operation is to be performed on a 20 hp lathe with efficiency = 90%. Required Pc = (2. Solution: From Table 21. and (d) the specific energy (in-lb/in3).90(20) = 18 hp Since available horsepower exceeds required horsepower. (b) the metal removal rate in in. and depth of cut = 0. 22. 136 .500/50. HPu = 1.7 and 21./ft)(0. available horsepower = 0. 3/min.24 For Problem 21.0 hp 21.3.9.2 hp HPg = 12.94 hp.14 = 0. Solution: From Table 21.250) = 54 in 3/min HPc = 0.8. find: (a) the horsepower consumed in the operation.000 = 0.020 in/rev = to. From your answers to those problems. (b) the horsepower that must be generated by the lathe.150 in.3/min.9(0. 21.52 hp required. (c) the unit horsepower and specific energy for the work material in this operation. The work material is an alloy steel whose hardness is in the range 360 to 380 HB.6 hp/(in 3/min) MRR = vfd = 400 ft/min(12 in. The lathe motor is rated at 25 kW. U = 2.2 in.88 = 10.000 = 0.2/0.52)(20 x 103) f = 50. 3/min.500 = 56.400 = 0. (b) MRR = vfd = (200 x 12)(0.500 = 50.3 to obtain the appropriate unit horsepower value.8 N-m/mm3)( 20 x 103) f = 56. HPc = (7.23 Suppose the cutting speed in Problems 21.21 In a turning operation on plain carbon steel whose Brinell hardness = 275 HB.3.3. feed = 0. correction factor in Figure 21.8 J/mm3 MRR = vfd = (200 m/min)(103 mm/m)(6 mm)f = 1200(103)f mm3/min = 20(103)f mm3/s Available power Pc = Pg E = 25(103)(0.9.8 is v = 200 ft/min.25 hp/(in 3/min) for aluminum.000 f f = 22.402 mm (this should be interpreted as mm/rev for a turning operation) However. 22. for this feed.2 in3/min)(1.010 in/rev in the table.52 N-m/mm3 and an iterative calculation procedure is required to match the unit power value with the feed. HPg = HP/E MRR = vfd = 900 x 12(. Using the appropriate specific energy value from Table 21.020)(0.764 ft-lb/in3 = 129. Solution: (a) From Problem 21.150 in.8(0.88 = 0. HPc = HPu x MRR.3. Cutting conditions are: v = 400 ft/min.90) = 22.

P c = U x MRR = 0.25)(2. Fc = 179 lb.14. correction factor = 1.24 except that the feed f = 0.85 = 2.6 = 179. HPu = 1. HPc = HPu x MRR MRR = vfd = 400 x 12(.25 mm/rev.25 In a turning operation on low carbon steel (175 BHN).8)(103) = 1. f = 0.6(3.75 mm/rev = to.7)(3.8(103) mm3/s. Solution: (a) From Table 21. HPc = 179(300)/33.04 hp (c) MRR = (300 x 12)(0.005 in/rev and the work material is stainless steel (Brinell Hardness = 225 HB).63/3.0) = 2. and d = 4.0)(1.8) = 2.005 in/rev = to. HPu = 1. Solution: (a) From Table 21.9)(103) = 1.26 Solve Problem 21. f = 0. the metal removal rate is about 40% greater.25/0. Based on the specific energy values in Table 21.3.8 in 3/min HPc = 1.8 = 2460 W. (b) Gross power Pg = 1960/0.85 = 2. and d = 0.75)(4.27 but with the following changes: v = 1. HPc = HPu x MRR MRR = 400 x 12(.9(103) mm3/s. determine: (a) the cutting power and (b) the gross power in the turning operation.3(103)(. MRR = vfd = 1.3.3. a correction factor must be applied from Figure 21. For f = 0.85.12.16 hp (b) HPg = 2.7 N-m/mm3 for aluminum.25.54 hp 21.75 mm/rev. Note that although the power used in this operation is virtually the same as in the previous problem.25 hp (b) HPg = 2. in Watts.075 in. Solution: (a) From Table 21.6) = 2.63 hp.7 N-m/mm3 for aluminum. 21. the cutting conditions are: v = 400 ft/min. correction factor = 0. The work material is an alloy steel with hardness = 325 Brinell hardness.453 hp/(in3/min) U = 179(300 x 12)/3.63/0. MRR = vfd = 5.0 mm.14. 21. U = 0.6 m/s.0) = 3.28 Solve Problem 21.65 hp 21.01)(0. The lathe has a mechanical efficiency = 0.6 in3/min.6 in 3/min HPc = 0. (b) the horsepower that must be generated by the lathe. 137 . Solution: (a) From Table 21.80.6 hp/(in 3/min) for low carbon steel. 21. and d = 2.7(2.6 = 0.0 hp/(in 3/min) for stainless steel.8(0. Since feed is lower than 0.97(103) n-m/s = 1970 W. (b) Gross power Pg = 1970/0. Based on the unit horsepower values in Table 21.3. The lathe has a mechanical efficiency = 0. HPu = 0. a correction factor must be applied from Figure 21.Solution: (a) From Problem 21. the cutting conditions are: v = 5.000 = 1.0 mm. determine: (a) the horsepower consumed by the turning operation.3.25 mm/rev in the table.16/0.075) = 3.8 = 2450 W.005)(0. Since feed is greater than 0.000 in-lb/in3. For f = 0.8 = 2.3.96(103) n-m/s = 1960 W.6(103)(. f = 0.29 A turning operation is performed on an engine lathe using a tool with zero rake angle in the direction of chip flow.010 in/rev in the table. P c = U x MRR = 0.010)(0.85.010 in/rev.075) = 1.100) = 3.27 A turning operation is carried out on aluminum (100 BHN).3 m/s. (b) HPg = 1.25(1. U = 0.

Fc = 33.0 mm.010 in/rev in the table.95.3.3° β = 2(45) + 10 -2(28.5 φ = tan-1(0.375 hp/(in3/min) (c) Correction factor = 1.010 in/rev.3 hp/(in 3/min) for alloy steel of the specified hardness.8 hp (b) HPc = vFc/33.015)(0. For f = 0.00119 in 2 Fs = 40. r = 0.3. The shear strength of the work = 40.000(0.75) = 8.3 for a feed f = 0.14 to account for the fact that f = 0. (b) Based on horsepower.75 in 3/min HPc = 0.326 hp/(in3/min) as it would appear in Table 21. The following cutting conditions are used: v = 4.4 x 1.5392) = 28. Rearranging. 21.000 (HP/v) = 33.010 in/rev.5 cos(43.10) = 83.9 cm2/s = 90 mm2/s U = 1100 N x 4 m/s/(4000 mm/s x 0.3 for a to of 0.6(785)/33. HP = 83.9(2.125) = 6. determine the cutting temperature if the ambient temperature = 20°C.99 hp. The machine settings are: rotational speed = 500 rev/min.5 lb.6 lb.0 in diameter.31 Orthogonal cutting is performed on a metal whose mass specific heat = 1.333 T = 20 + (0.45.010 in.1 J/g-C. and depth = 0. Cutting Temperature 21.14.15 from Fig.3 = 0.85 = 9. HPg = HP/E MRR = 300 x 12(. (b) the unit horsepower for this material under these conditions.375/1.3 in 3/min. Solution: ρC = (2. a correction factor must be applied from Figure 21. v = 500 rev/min(6π/12 ft/rev) = 785 ft/min.015 in/rev. and w = 2.3 + 43. Use the orthogonal cutting model as an approximation of the turning process.95(1. and (c) the unit horsepower as it would be listed in Table 21.3 mm x 2 mm) = 1.33) .97(10-3) J/mm3-°C K = 0.9 cm2/s. (a) Using the appropriate value of specific energy from Table 21.7 g/cm3)(1.99/5.125 in and the cutting speed is 300 ft/min. (b) MRR = 785 x 12(0.3 = 0.000 (8. to = 0.015 in/rev = to. Taking this correction factor into account.075)/sin 28. feed = 0.4° As = 0.3/0.3 hp HPg = 8.000 = 1. Use the orthogonal cutting model as an approximation of the turning process.0075 in/rev instead of 0.075) = 5.00119) = 47.0 m/s.0075(0. and thermal diffusivity = 0.000 lb/in2. HPu = 1.The feed is .97(10-3) J/mm3-C)(4000 mm/s x 0.30 A lathe performs a turning operation on a workpiece of 6.3) = 43.5 sin 10)) = tan-1 (0. The cutting force is measured at Fc = 1100 N.3 mm.015 = 0. the chip thickness ratio is measured to be 0.7 g/cm3. The chip thickness after the cut is 0. HPc = HPu x MRR.000.1 J/g-°C) = 2.833 N-m/mm3/2. correction factor = 0.0.333 = 20 + 246.833 N-m/mm3 T = 20 + (0. compute your best estimate of the cutting force for this turning operation.015 in.0075 in/rev.3 mm/90 mm2/s)0. The rake angle of the tool = 10°.2469 x 103 C)(13.15 = 0. compute the horsepower at the drive motor. Fc = 47. the depth of cut is 0. density = 2. 21.3)(6. Since feed is greater than 0. Solution: (a) Must find Fc and v to determine HP.0075/0.4 .4 . Using Cook's equation. if the lathe has an efficiency = 85%. Solution: (a) From Table 21.97 J/cm3-°C = 2.075 in.37) = 20° + 585° = 605° C ° 138 . HPu = 1.5 cos 10/(1 . HPu = 0.0075)(0. Determine: (a) the horsepower required in the operation. After the cut.10)/cos(28.3/300) = 913 lb.

and w = 0.21. and depth = 4.87 g/cm3)(0. v = 300 ft/min x 12 in/ft/60 sec/min. thermal conductivity k = 0.3.18) 0.100 in.2.4U/ρC)(vto/K)0. T = 70 + (0.7) = 0.333 = T = 70 + (0. Since f = 0. to = f = 0.87(10-3) g/mm3 From Table 4.460 J/ g-°C ρC = (7.4U/ρC)(vto/K)0.62(10-3) J/mm3-°C From Table 4.100) = 250. correction factor = 1.4(2.3).8 N-m/mm3 = 2.34 It is desired to estimate the cutting temperature for a certain alloy steel whose hardness = 275 Brinell.25)/12.25 mm.4 x 250.87 g/cm3 = 7. Solution: v = 350 ft/min x 12 in/ft/60 sec/min.10.309(103)(59.100) = 300. thermal diffusivity K = k/ρC K = 0. If the feed f = to = 0. The work material has a thermal diffusivity = 0.000(1.8 J/mm3 From Table 4. The cutting force in the process = 300 lb. Solution: MRR = vtow. Use the appropriate value of specific energy from Table 21.14 in 2/sec.000/124)(30 x 0.0075 in/rev.186 J. determine the cutting temperature if the ambient temperature = 70°F.333 = 70 + (0. use the Cook formula to compute the cutting temperature in the operation given that ambient temperature = 70°F.100) = 1800 in/min = 30 in/sec U = Fcv/vtow = 300(30)/(30 x 0. feed = 0.000 in-lb/in 3. Solution: From Table 21.046 J/s-mm-°C From Eq.000 in-lb/in 3.010/0.010 x 0.1.100 in.14) 0.0 mm. and thermal diffusivity = 0.333 = 70 + 1436 = 1506 ° F 21.186) = 0. to = 0.18 in 2/sec and a volumetric specific heat = 124 in-lb/in3 F.3 and compute the cutting temperature by means of the Cook equation for a turning operation in which the following cutting conditions are used: speed v = 300 ft/min..11 Cal/g-°C. = 70 in/sec.1. and thermal diffusivity = 0.008/0. ρ = 7.140 in 2/sec. Assume ambient temperature = 70°F.32 Consider a turning operation performed on steel whose hardness = 225 HB at a speed = 3.14) 0.100 in.008 in.87 x 10-3 g/mm3)(0. v = MRR/tow = 1. Thus.62(10-3)(3(103)(0.7 mm2/s Using Cook’s equation.214) 0. C = 0. taking ambient temperature in account T = 20 + 1201 = 1221° C ° 21.333 = 70 + 1147 = 1217 ° F 139 .333 = 70 + (909)(4) 0. feed f = 0. (4. Therefore U = 400.8)/3.25 mm T = 0.4 x 440.46 J/g-°C) = 3.333 = 70 + (872)(3. U = Fcv/vtow = 200(70)/(70 x 0. T = 70 + (0. Assume ambient temperature = 20°C. Solution: From Table 21.06)0. Using Cook's equation.0075 in/rev. The following cutting conditions are used: v = 350 ft/min. 1 cal = 4.333 = 70 + (968)(1.010 in and width of cut = 0. = 60 in/sec.1) = 440. C = 0.3. T = 70 + (0. U = 2.89) = 1201 C° Final temperature. compute an estimate of cutting temperature using the Cook equation.11(4. U for alloy steel (275 BHN) = 400. and depth d = 0.0 m/s.333 = 70 + 1282 = 1352 ° F 21.33 An orthogonal cutting operation is performed on a certain metal whose volumetric specific heat = 110 in-lb/in3-F.0075/0.333 = 70 + (0. The cutting force is measured at Fc = 200 lb.333 = 309(3. From note “a” at the bottom of the table.008 x 0.1 and the appropriate specific energy value from Table 21.4 x 300.4U/ρC)(vto/K)0.000 in-lb/in 3.46 J/g-°C) = 12.000 in-lb/in 3.8 in 3/min.667) 0.000/200)(60 x 0. The thermal properties of the work material are: volumetric specific heat = 200 in lb/in 3 F.046 J/s-mm-°C /[(7. Using values of thermal properties found in the tables and definitions of Section 4.01 x 0.35 An orthogonal machining operation removes metal at 1.3.8/(0.000/110)(70 x 0.

75 x 10-3)(0. T = 552°C.2888) = 1.25 mm/rev.72 N-m/mm3 21.45 Check equation with data point (2): T = 106.338 = 505/4.00 mm.21.44 (2) K = 592/1600.0752 m 0.744 = 106. (1) 505 = K(100) m and (3) 592 = K(160) m (1) ln 505 = ln K + m ln 100 and (3) ln 592 = ln K + m ln 160 Combining (1) and (3): ln 505 . (3) v = 160 m/min.333 U = 680(8.338 (1) K = 505/1000. a tool-chip thermocouple was used to measure cutting temperature. U = T(ρC/0.37 During a turning operation.4)(K/vto)0. The following temperature data were collected during the cuts at three different cutting speeds (feed and depth were held constant): (1) v = 100 m/min.3835 – 5.45 Use K = 106. feed = 0.024) 0.338 = 551.47 m = 0.95(0.338 = 592/5.333 = 5. (21. Eq.23).36 A turning operation uses a cutting speed = 200 m/min.m ln 160 6. Solution: Trigger equation T = Kvm Choose points (1) and (3) and solve simultaneous equations using T = Kvm as the model. T = 505°C.4)(20/{(200/60)(103)(0. The thermal diffusivity of the work material = 20 mm2/s and the volumetric specific heat = 3.45(130) 0. If the temperature increase above ambient temperature (20°F) is measured by a tool-chip thermocouple to be 700°C. Solution: Rearranging the Cook equation. and depth of cut = 4.m ln 100 = ln 592 . 140 .5 x 10-3/0.561 = 106. (2) v = 130 m/min.6052 m = 6. determine the specific energy for the work material in this operation. T = 592°C.2246 – 4.5 (10-3) J/mm3-C.333 U = (700 – 2-)(3. Determine an equation for temperature as a function of cutting speed that is in the form of the Trigger equation.25)})0.87°C (pretty close to the given value of 552°C).1589 m = 0.

Answer. while tapping is normally performed on a drilling machine and produces an internal thread. common examples include form turning and drilling.5 What is the difference between threading and tapping? Answer. 22. and (4) face plate. 22.4 Describe the turning process.7 What is meant by the designation 12 x 36 inch lathe? Answer. Methods of holding the work in a lathe include: (1) between centers. 22. Boring produces an internal cylindrical shape from an existing hole. Answer. (2) chuck.1. 22.8 Name the various ways in which a workpart can be held in a lathe. A 12 x 36 lathe has a 12 inch swing (maximum work diameter that can be accommodated) and a 36 inch distance between centers (indicating the maximum work length that can be held between centers). Two examples are thread cutting on a lathe and slot milling.1 MACHINING OPERATIONS AND MACHINE TOOLS Review Questions Discuss the differences between rotational parts and prismatic parts in machining. Answer.9 What is the difference between a live center and a dead center. examples include straight turning. Turning is a machining process in which a single point tool removes material from the surface of a rotating cylindrical workpiece. 22. See Article 25. 22. prismatic parts are block-shaped or flat and are generally produced on a milling machine. or planer. Generating refers to the creation of work geometry due to the feed trajectory of the cutting tool.3 Give two examples of machining operations in which generating and forming are combined to create workpart geometry.6 How does a boring operation differ from a turning operation? Answer. (3) collet.6.2 Distinguish between generating and forming when machining workpart geometries. both are described in Article 25. when these terms are used in the context of workholding in a lathe? 141 . 22. and profile milling. while turning produces an external cylindrical shape.4.22 22. shaper. the tool being fed in a direction parallel to the axis of work rotation. Answer. taper turning. Forming involves the creation of work geometry due to the shape of the cutting tool. A threading operation is performed on a turning machine and produces an external thread.1. 22. Answer. Rotational parts are cylindrical or disk-shaped and are machined on a turning machine.

a through hole exits the opposite side of the workpart. in down milling. 22.12 What is the distinguishing feature of a radial drill press? Answer. milling. pallet shuttles to speed workpart changing. Answer. milling.20 What can a mill-turn center do that a conventional turning center cannot do? 142 .g. A radial drill has a long radial arm along which the drill head can be positioned to allow the drilling of large workparts. A blind hole does not exit the work. 22. 22. the tools in the turret can be brought to work to perform multiple cutting operations on the work without the need to change tools as in operating a conventional engine lathe. cutting is accomplished by the flat face of the cutter whose axis is perpendicular to the work surface. 22. 22.14 22. Pocket milling uses an end milling cutter to machine a shallow cavity (pocket) into a flat workpart. while a turning center performs turning type operations. In peripheral milling.g.16 Describe the difference between up milling and down milling? Answer. generally with single point tools.15 Describe profile milling. A live center is mounted in bearings and rotates with the work.11 What is a blind hole? Answer. the machine is typically equipped with automatic tool-changing. 22.. drilling).. 22. A center holds the work during rotation at the tailstock end of the lathe. What is pocket milling? Answer. 22.Answer. by comparison. 22. and automatic workpart positioning. A machining center is generally confined to rotating spindle operations (e.19 What is the difference between a machining center and a turning center? Answer. A machining center is a CNC machine tool capable of performing multiple types of cutting operations involving rotating spindles (e. In up milling. the cutter speed direction is opposite the feed direction. drilling). A turret lathe has a toolholding turret in place of a tailstock. cutting is accomplished by the peripheral teeth of the milling cutter and the tool axis is parallel to the work surface.the work rotates about it. The universal milling machine has a worktable that can be rotated about a vertical axis to present the part at any specified angle to the cutter spindle. in face milling. the direction of cutter rotation is the same as the feed direction.17 How does a universal milling machine differ from a conventional knee-and-column machine? Answer.18 What is a machining center? Answer. Profile milling generally involves the milling of the outside periphery of a flat part.13 What is the difference between peripheral milling and face milling? Answer.10 How does a turret lathe differ from an engine lathe? Answer. while a dead center does not rotate . 22.

all correct answers must be given. To attain a perfect score on the quiz. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point. (d) milling. (d) single point turning tool. (b) broaching. 22. For each question. (c). as compared to forming the geometry (more than one)? (a) broaching. 22. since each correct answer is worth 1 point. the cutting tool is stationary. Answer. (b) contour turning.21 How do shaping and planing differ? Answer. 22. (d).2 In a turning operation. (b) lathe.3 A lathe can be used to perform which of the following machining operations (more than one)? (a) boring. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers. (d) planer.1 Which of the following are examples of generating the workpart geometry in machining. Multiple Choice Questions There are a total of 20 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct). or (f) turning. (c) drilling. (c) 1 x feed. (b) 22. and the speed motion is performed by the cutting tool. and (3) circular sawing. (c). the change in diameter of the workpart is equal to which one of the following? (a) 1 x depth of cut. (b) and (d).4 A facing operation is normally performed on which of the following machine tools (one best answer)? (a) drill press. Answer. 143 .5 Knurling is performed on a lathe. while in planing. or (e) threading tool. The mill-turn center has the capacity to position a rotational workpart at a specified angular location. (b) 22. or (d) 2 x feed. while external broaching is performed on one of the outside surfaces of the part. (c) drill bit. The three forms of sawing are: (1) hacksawing. Answer. permitting milling or drilling to be performed at a location on the periphery of the part.6 Which of the following cutting tools can be used on a turret lathe (more than one)? (a) broach.23 Identify the three basic forms of sawing operation? Answer. In shaping. the work is stationary during the cut. and the workpart is moved past the tool in the speed motion.Answer. (c) milling machine.22 What is the difference between internal broaching and external broaching? Answer. (e) planing. but it is a metal forming operation rather than a metal removal operation: (a) true or (b) false? Answer. (a). (b). Internal broaching is accomplished on the inside surface (hole) of a workpart. (b) 2 x depth of cut. Answer. (2) bandsawing. Answer. (c) drilling. (b) cut-off tool. and (f) 22. and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point. and (e). (a) 22. or (e) shaper. and (d) profile milling. 22. 22.

and (e) provide an internal thread.366 rev/s.366(. (c) profiling mill. or (d) a workpart moves linearly past a stationary single point tool.0 mm. Answer. The piece is 400 mm long and 150 mm in diameter. (b) a tool with multiple teeth moves linearly past a stationary workpart. and (e) universal milling machine. the foreman has decreed that the single pass must be completed on the cylindrical workpiece in 5. (b) knee-and-column.91 = 471.5 m/s)/.0 mm. and (b) metal removal rate. fr = 6. Using a feed = 0.125π = 6.5 m/s. (b) A broaching operation is best described by which one of the following: (a) a rotating tool moves past a stationary workpart.9 22.11 22.30 mm/rev and a depth of cut = 4. and d = 2. Answer. (b) MRR = vfd = (2. (22. Solution: (a) N = (2.85 min.2 In a production turning operation. or (d) slab milling.2 s = 7. (b) enlarge a drilled hole. (d) improve tolerance on hole diameter. Answer. Answer. or (d) a workpart moves linearly past a single-point tool.91 mm/s Tm = 900/1. (d) 22. or (e) turret lathe. (a) The basic milling machine is which one of the following: (a) bed type. and (d). Answer.8 22. (b) engine lathe.7 Which of the following turning machines permits very long bar stock to be used (one best answer)? (a) chucking machine.0 min.3 mm)(2.3) (fr = Nf) into the denominator to obtain Tm = L/Nf 144 .4): Tm = L/fr Substitute Eq. (c) a workpart is fed linearly past a rotating cutting tool. (c) improve surface finish on a hole. (c) Reaming is used for which of the following functions (more than one)? (a) accurately locate a hole position. (c) a workpart is fed past a rotating cutting tool.22. (b). (b) a tool with multiple teeth moves linearly past a stationary workpart. (d) speed lathe. Answer. (b) peripheral milling. (22. (b) A planing operation is best described by which one of the following: (a) a single point tool moves linearly past a stationary workpart. End milling is most similar to which one of the following? (a) face milling.12 Problems Turning and Related Operations 22.5 m/s)(103)(.3 mm/rev. Cutting conditions are: v = 2.0 mm) = 1500 mm3/s 22.1 A cylindrical workpart 125 mm in diameter and 900 mm long is to be turned in an engine lathe. what cutting speed must be used to meet this machining time requirement? Solution: Starting with Eq. Determine: (a) cutting time. f = 0. (c).10 22. (c) plain milling.3) = 1. (c) screw machine. (d) ram mill.

0 in diameter and 48 in length is chucked in an engine lathe and supported at the opposite end using a live center.5 = 150π(565. The bar will be held in a chuck and supported on the opposite end in a live center.4.00 in diameter workbar that is 25 in long is to be turned down to 3. Determine (a) the time required to turn the taper and (b) the rotational speeds at the beginning and end of the cut. and d = 0. (b) cutting time.0 in portion of the length is to be turned to a diameter of 4. N = 750/(0.084 min (b) At beginning of cut (D1 = 100 mm).6 A 4.0 mm) = 1.000/100π = 636.3 A tapered surface is to be turned on an automatic lathe.641 mm3 Tm = V/MRR = (1.214 mm2)(3. and h = 750 mm.5 rev/min. With this workholding setup. Determine the rotational speed that would be required to complete the job in exactly the same time as your answer to part (a) of that problem.1) we get Tm = πDoL/vf (this equation is later used in Chapter 24). The rough geometry of the piece has already been formed.5 Given R1 = 100 mm. and (c) metal removal rate.7 m/min 22. then the bar must be reversed to turn the other end.0 mm. the time required to load and unload the bar is 5.2 in3/min.641 mm3)/(150.0) = 0.012) = 7. Determine: (a) the required depth of cut. Combining. and the time to reverse the bar is 3. For each turning cut an allowance must be added to the cut length for approach and overtravel. suppose that the automatic lathe with surface speed control is not available and a conventional lathe must be used.91 min. Using an overhead crane available at the lathe. one end must be turned to diameter. Solution: (a) MRR = vfd = (200 m/min)(103 mm/m)(0.000 mm3/min) = 7. (c) MRR = (400 x 12)(0. (b) N = 400 x 12/5π = 305. N = 200. The total 145 .1257(103) m/min = 125.15)/(0.Then substituting for N from Eq.012 in/rev. (22. The automatic controls on the lathe permit the surface speed to be maintained at a constant value of 200 m/min by adjusting the rotational speed as a function of workpiece diameter. The workpiece is 750 mm long with minimum and maximum diameters of 100 mm and 200 mm at opposite ends.50 in diameter in two passes on an engine lathe using the following cutting conditions: v = 300 ft/min.0 minutes.125)(0.0 minutes.5 A workbar with 5.4) can be used. volume cut V = Ad = (354. Tm = L/Nf and then rearranging to obtain rotational speed N = L/fTm Given L = 750 mm. Solution: At a constant rotational speed and feed.062.0 mm) = 150.6 rev/min At end of cut (D2 = 200 mm).25 mm/rev and depth of cut = 3. f = 0. and Tm = 7.5 rev/min 22.5(0.015 in/rev.4 In the taper turning job of previous Problem 22.084) = 423.084 min from Problem 22.25)(7.3.67 = 10. f = 0.75 in one pass at a speed = 400 ft/min and a feed = 0.5 = 354.3 rev/min 22.0 mm.25 mm/rev. (22. A = π(100 + 50){7502 + (100 – 50) 2}0.214 mm2 Given depth of cut d = 3.3.000 mm3/min Area of frustrum of cone A = π(R1 + R2){h2 + (R1 – R2)2}0.25 mm)(3. and this operation will be the final cut. fr = 305.125 in.00 . Solution: (a) depth d = (5.012) = 3.062.000/200π = 318.3) and (22. R2 = 50 mm. Rearranging to determine cutting speed: v = πDoL/fTm Tm = π(0.125 in.75)/2 = 0.000) 0. Feed = 0.30)(10-3)(5. feed rate fr is constant and Eqs. N = v/πD = 200. 22.67 in/min Tm = 40/3.4)(0. A 40.

73 in3/min at Di = 25 in.. of 25 in.015) = 4.29 min’ this reduces diameter to 3. Tm = (10 + 0.96 min.0 + 2.. Cutting conditions are: speed = 25 m/min. length. Tm = 10..61 + 3..015) = 4. Solution: (a) A = 0.297 in/min.015) = 4. and is continuously increased thereafter to maintain a constant cutting speed. fr = 305. and the point angle = 118°.7 except that the machine tool controls operate at a constant cutting speed by continuously adjusting rotational speed for the position of the tool relative to the axis of rotation.4 rev/min.020 in/rev) = 0.4 rev/min.4(0. If the facing operation is performed at a rotational speed = 30 rev/min. Reverse bar which takes 3.297 = 3. length. fr = 305.583 in/min. Tm = (15 + 0. N = 300 x 12/3. Tm = 15.73 = 12.583 = 3. v = (30 rev/min)(25π/12) = 196. N = 300 x 12/4π = 286. fr = 286.25 mm/rev.5(0.150 in.44 min. Solution: (a) Distance traveled L = (Do . cut remaining 10 in.. Determine the total cycle time to complete this turning operation.020)(0. (b) the cutting speeds and metal removal rates at the beginning and end of the cut.Di2) = 0.07 in3/min 22.5 rev/min.4 mm diameter twist drill in a steel workpart.75π = 305.96/12. feed = 0. Determine: (a) the cutting time to complete the drilling operation.5 x 12)(0.50 in. this reduces diameter to 3.50 in.15) = 12.67 min (b) at Do = 45 in. determine: (a) the cutting time to complete the facing operation.38 + 3.252) = 164. Loading and unloading bar takes 5.0 min. v = (30 rev/min)(45π/12) = 353. v = (30 rev/min)(45π/12) = 353.4) tan(90 – 118/2) = 12.0 + 3. The hole is a blind-hole at a depth = 50 mm.65 mm 146 .583 in/min.25πd(Do2 .9 A drilling operation is to be performed with a 25.5 rev/min. of 25 in. feed = 0.. N = 300 x 12/4π = 286.4 ft/min.38 min’ this reduces diameter to 3.15) = 12.72 min.7 tan 31 = 7. The part has an outside diameter = 45.015) = 4.50 in.020)(0.4(0.297 in/min.25)/2 = 10 in.allowance (approach plus overtravel) = 0. fr = (30 rev/min)(0.73 in 3/min Tm = (total metal removed)/MRR = 164..25π(0.5)/4. and depth = 0. MRR = (196.15)(452 .5(25. and (b) metal removal rate during the operation. The rotational speed at the beginning of the cut = 30 rev/min.4 x 12)(0.297 = 2.583 = 2. fr = 286.020 in/rev.0 min.75π = 305.75 in.5 x 12)(0.44 + 2.5/4. N = 300 x 12/3.8 Solve previous Problem 22. this reduces diameter to 3.29 = 19.Di)/2 = (45 .5)/4.5 ft/min. Solution: (a) Total metal removed = 0.5 ft/min MRR = (353. Total cycle time = 5.5/4. Solution: First end: cut 15 in.61 min. Drilling 22.0 in and inside diameter = 25 in.15) = 7.6 = 16.6 in/rev Tm = 10/0. MRR = (353.96 in3 MRR is constant throughout cutting if v is constant.5(0.7 The end of a large tubular workpart is to be faced on a NC vertical boring mill.. after the drill bit reaches full diameter.020)(0.75 in. 22.

056 min.3 mm/min Tm = (50 + 7.5 in. Time to retract drill from hole = 0. the rate at which the drill is retracted from each hole is twice the penetration feed rate. All moves between holes are at a distance = 1.20) = 3600 rev/min.10 A NC drill press is to perform a series of through-hole drilling operations on a 1.736 min (b) MRR = 0. and that this distance must be included in the penetration feed rate for each hole.4) 2(78. New speed v = 3000(1 + 0. In order to improve the surface finish in the hole.3 rev/min fr = 313. the number of moves between holes = 99. Also.112 + 0.315 in.5 in above the work surface.75)/22.315 + 1.056) + 99(0.5 x 100) = 0.0 mm. arranged in a 10 by 10 matrix pattern. using a back and forth path between holes.3) = 39.4π = 313.00075 in/min.5 minutes to perform the drilling operation using high pressure fluid delivery of coolant to the drill point. There are 100 holes in all. and the distance between adjacent hole centers (along the square) = 1. It takes 4.015) = 22. 22.7 in/min. Determine the time required from the beginning of the first hole to the completion of the last hole.12 A peripheral milling operation is performed on the top surface of a rectangular workpart which is 300 mm long by 100 mm wide. which is 75 mm in diameter and has four teeth.00075) = 2.5 in. it has been decided to increase the speed by 20% and decrease the feed by 25%.675.0 in/min.7(0.5 rev/min.2 mm3/min 22.5 in.0. New feed f = 0.0 in/min. and (b) the material removal rate during the cut.25) = 78. The cutting speed = 300 ft/min.916 = 0. Cutting conditions are: v = 80 m/min.0 min. With 100 holes.5 min(3.5/15 = 0. the penetration feed (z-direction) = 0. The cutting conditions are: N = 3000 rev/min at a feed = 0. Milling 22. Assume that x-y moves are made at a distance of 0.2 mm/tooth. overhangs the width of the part on both sides. assuming the most efficient drilling sequence will be used to accomplish the job.11 A gundrilling operation is used to drill a 7/16-in diameter hole to a certain depth.3(0.75 in thick aluminum plate that is a component in a heat exchanger.5(0. Tm = (0. and d = 7.3 = 0.015 in/rev. Distance per hole = 0. and the feed rate between holes (x-y plane) = 15. Determine: (a) the time to make one pass across the surface.5 in/2. 147 . fr = 1527.916 in/min.002 in/rev. New drilling time Tm = 13.7 rev/min.1) = 26.001 in/rev) = 3.75) tan(90 . f = 0.25π(25. The milling cutter.112/2 = 0.75π = 1527.63)/78.) = 13. How long will it take to perform the operation at the new cutting conditions? Solution: fr = 3000 rev/min(0..1 min.001(1.75 A = 0.112 min.5 + A + 1. Solution: Time to drill each hole: N = 300 x 12/0. Time to move between holes = 1. New feed rate fr = 3600(0.000 mm/75π = 339.7 min.N = 25(103)/25.25) = 0. Solution: N = 80.7 in/min = 5. Hole depth d = 4.5 + 0. Each hole is 3/4 in diameter. The drill has a point angle = 100 degrees.0 in/min. Total cycle time to drill 100 holes = 100(0.

0 in/min.020 in/pass.0 + 2 x 1.fr = 339.5 = 0. which has a 2.0 + 0. f = 0.46) = 3.15 except that the workpiece is 5. Solution: N = 100 x 12/2. The cutter has four teeth (cemented carbide inserts) and is 150 mm in diameter.150(25. Cutting conditions are: v = 500 ft/min. MRR = 2.0 + 2 x 1.5 rev/min. A = O = (1(3-1)).0 in wide.5-.5 = 21. 22.333 min.15 A face milling operation is performed to finish the top surface of a steel rectangular workpiece 12.64 in3/min.366 rev/s fr = 6. Determine: (a) time to make one pass across the surface.010) = 25.46 = 0.14 A slab milling operation is performed to finish the top surface of a steel rectangular workpiece 10.009 in/tooth.0) = 8.010) = 25. MRR = 100(7)(271.010 in/tooth. and d = 5.27 mm/tooth.25(2. and d = 0.82)/271. MRR = 3.875 mm/s A = D/2 = 150/2 = 75 mm Tm = (400 + 75)/6. f = 0. Cutting conditions are: v = 25 ft/min. and (b) metal removal rate during cutting.13 A face milling operation is used to machine 5 mm from the top surface of a rectangular piece of aluminum 400 mm long by 100 mm wide.17 An open side planer is to be used to plane the top surface of a rectangular workpart.58 min. and d = 0.150(25. and (b) the metal removal rate during the cut. A = O = 3/2 = 1. and (b) the metal removal rate during the cut.59 min.46 in/min.5π = 152.46 in/min. fr = 152.009) = 11.414 in Tm = (12.82 in3/min.185 min.5 = 1.6) = 190.82 mm Tm = (300 + 21.5 rev/min. Tm = (12.8 rev/min.5 mm3/s 22.0 in wide.0 in wide and the cutter is offset to one side so that the swath cut by the cutter = 1.0 in long by 3. and d = 0. f = 0. A = (d(D-d)). Cutting conditions are: v = 100 ft/min.25 in3/min. Determine: (a) the time to make one pass across the surface. Other Operations 22.366(4)(.414)/25. The helical milling cutter.0 in by 40. 22.0(. The milling cutter has four teeth (cemented carbide inserts) and a 3. The length of the 148 .5 in.5(4)(0.6 mm/min.0 in.5 = (7(75-7)).8(8)(0.5)/25.875 = 80 s = 1. Solution: (a) N = (3000 mm/s)/150π = 6.5(4)(0.25)(11.75)/11 = 0.98 min.875) = 3437.46) = 7.16 Solve previous Problem 22.5(4)(0.200 in. MRR = 1.75 in Tm = (10. f = 0. Cutting conditions are: v = 3 m/s.5 in diameter and eight teeth. 22. Determine: (a) the time to make one pass across the surface.150 in. (b) MRR = 100(5)(6. fr = 636.0(. is set up to overhang the width of the part on both sides.6 = 1.0 in wide.27) = 6.25)).5 = (.120 mm3/min.0 mm. A = (d(D-d)).250 in. Solution: N = 500 x 12/3π = 636. Solution: N = 500 x 12/3π = 636.0(.46 = 0.0 in long by 2.2) = 271.0 in diameter. 25. fr = 636.

15 min. Number of passes = 40.020 = 1250 passes Total time = 1250(0.) is in direction of stroke.) is in direction of stroke. Check: orient work so that its width (w = 25 in.1125 = 0.15 + 0.0/0.15 = 0.stroke across the work must be set up so that 10 in are allowed at both the beginning and end of the stroke for approach and overtravel. Time per reverse stroke = 0.75(. Total time per pass = 0. takes 75% of the time for the forward stroke. 149 . including an allowance for acceleration and deceleration.2 min.1125 min.020 = 2000 passes Total time = 2000(0.2625 min. Total time per pass = 0. Time per forward stroke = (10 + 25 + 10)/(25 x 12) = 0. assuming that the part is oriented in such a way as to minimize the time? Solution: Orient work so that its length (L = 40 in.15 min. Time per forward stroke = (10 + 40 + 10)/(25 x 12) = 0.75(.0/0.5 min.0 min. Number of passes = 25.20 + 0.35 min. How long will it take to complete the job.2) = 0. This will minimize the number of passes required which will minimize time in this case.15) = 0.2625) = 525. The return stroke.35) = 437. Time per reverse stroke = 0.

3 What are the two principal locations on a cutting tool where tool wear occurs? Answer. 23. (3) fingernail test to feel flank wear.9 What are the principal alloying ingredients in high speed steel? Answer. (7) power increase. The expanded version of the Taylor equation can include any of the following: feed. The two main aspects of cutting tool technology are: (1) tool material and (2) tool geometry. Some grades of HSS also contain cobalt. 23. what other cutting variables are included in the expanded version of the Taylor tool life equation? Answer.1 What are the two principal aspects of cutting tool technology? Answer.8 Identify three desirable properties of a cutting tool material. Answer. and (4) plastic deformation of the cutting edge. Portions of flank wear are often identified separately as notch wear. (2) temperature failure. (5) chip disposal problems. (4) sound of the tool. (3) vanadium. (3) diffusion. Wear occurs on the top face of the cutting tool as crater wear and on the side or flank of the tool.2 Name the three modes of tool failure in machining. and (3) wear resistance to prolong the life of the tool during gradual wear. 150 . 23. 23. and (3) gradual wear. and/or work material hardness. (2) adhesion. Three desirable properties are: (1) toughness to resist fracture failure. (2) chromium. Answer.7 What are some of the tool life criteria used in production machining operations? Answer. Answer. 23.5 What is meant by the parameter C in the Taylor tool life equation? Answer. (6) degradation of finish.4 Identify the mechanisms by which cutting tools wear during machining. 23. corresponding to the tool point. called flank wear. and (4) carbon. Production tool life criteria include: (1) complete failure of the tool. (2) hot hardness to resist temperature failure. 23. The three tool failure modes are: (1) fracture failure. The parameter C is the cutting speed corresponding to a one-minute tool life. and nose radius wear. 23. depth of cut. (8) workpiece count. and (9) length of cutting time for the tool. Principal alloying ingredients in HSS are: (1) either tungsten or a combination of tungsten and molybdenum. The important tool wear mechanisms are: (1) abrasion. C is the speed-axis intercept on the log-log plot of the tool life data. corresponding to the surface of the work.6 In addition to cutting speed.23 CUTTING TOOL TECHNOLOGY Review Questions 23. (2) visual observation of flank or crater wear.

better hygiene. and longer cutting tool life. 151 .23.chemical fluids. 23.14 Identify the alternative ways by which a cutting tool is held in place during machining. Answer.18 What are the methods by which cutting fluids are applied in a machining operation? Answer. Name the seven elements of tool geometry for a single point cutting tool. 23. (2) emulsified oils. reduced disposal costs.17 What is the principal lubricating mechanism by which cutting fluids work? Answer. (5) end cutting edge angle. used for some cemented carbides. and Al2O3. and (3) mechanically clamped inserts.16 Name the two main categories of cutting fluid according to function. ceramics. and manual application. The non-steel cutting grades contain only WC and Co.15 23. There are three principal ways: (1) solid shank. 23. (6) side cutting edge angle. which involves the formation of a thin fluid film to help separate and protect the contacting surfaces. in which the cutting edge is an integral part of the tool shank. The common coatings are: TiN. and (3) chemical and semi. TiC. 23. used for most hard tool materials including cemented carbides and coated carbides. Advantages of filter systems include: longer fluid life. and CBN. SPD. There are two lubricating mechanisms that are believed to be effective in metal cutting: (1) boundary lubrication. Answer. lower machine tool maintenance. (2) side rake angle.13 Why are ceramic cutting tools generally designed with negative rake angles? Answer. The steel cutting grades contain TiC and/or TaC in addition to WC-Co. in which a steady stream of fluid is direct at the operation. 23. and (7) nose radius. Ceramics possess low shear and tensile strength but good compressive strength.12 23. Cutting fluid filter systems are becoming more common due to the environmental protection laws and the need to prolong the life of the fluid before disposal.19 Why are cutting fluid filter systems becoming more common and what are their advantages? Answer. The seven elements of single point tool geometry are: (1) back rake angle. The three types of cutting fluids are: (1) cutting oils. (2) brazed inserts. Answer.11 Identify some of the common compounds that form the thin coatings on the surface of coated carbide inserts. fluid. (3) end relief angle. Answer. The two functional categories of cutting fluids are: (1) coolants and (2) lubricants. (4) side relief angle. During cutting.10 What is the difference in ingredients between steel cutting grades and non-steel cutting grades of cemented carbides? Answer. this combination of properties is best exploited by giving the tool a negative rake angle to tend to load the tool in compression. in which a thin solid layer of a salt such as iron sulfide is formed on the tool surface to provide lubrication. Name the three main types of cutting fluid according to chemistry. cermets.hole delivery. Other methods include: mist application. and (2) extreme pressure lubrication. The most common method of application is flooding. an example being high speed. Answer. 23. 23.

(b) increases hardness. fungi. Answer. (c) CrC. (d) nickel. and (e). Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 18 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct). (b) Ni.2 As an alloying ingredient in high speed steel. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers. (d) 152 . (b) Problems with dry machining include: (1) overheating the tool. (c) chromium. small chips. or (c) feed. and (d) increases hot hardness. Answer.7 If you had to select a cemented carbide for an application involving finish turning of steel. (a). (c) increases toughness. (a) and (c). (2) operating at lower cutting speeds and production rates to prolong tool life. and (e) tungsten. (c) C5. molds. (c). 23. (a) Cutting fluids become contaminated over time with a variety of contaminants. all correct answers must be given. (c) and (d). For each question. (b). including tramp oil. and (e) WC. Answer.23. (b) C3.3 Cast cobalt alloys typically contain which of the following main ingredients (more than one)? (a) aluminum. (a) 23. and bacteria. (c) TiC.20 Dry machining is being considered by machine shops because of certain problems inherent in the use of cutting fluids. (d) TiC. Answer. 23. which C-grade would you select (one best answer)? (a) C1. In addition to causing odors and health hazards. or (d) C7. (b) Co. and (e) WC. and (3) absence of chip removal benefits in grinding and milling. (b) improves strength and hardness.4 Which of the following is not a common ingredient in cemented carbide cutting tools (more than one)? (a) Al2O3. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point.1 Of the following cutting conditions. (c) increases corrosion resistance. 23. Answer. and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point. 23. garbage. 23. To attain a perfect score on the quiz. tungsten serves which of the following functions (more than one)? (a) forms hard carbides to resist abrasion. since each correct answer is worth 1 point. (b). (a) What are those problems associated with the use of cutting fluids? (b) What are some of the new problems introduced by machining dry? Answer. (b) depth of cut. (b) cobalt. and (d). (d) TaC.6 Steel cutting grades of cemented carbide are typically characterized by which of the following ingredients (more than one)? (a) Co.5 An increase in cobalt content has which of the following effects on WC-Co cemented carbides (one best answer)? (a) decreases transverse rupture strength. (c) 23. Answer. contaminated cutting fluids do not perform their lubricating function as well as when they are fresh and clean. Answer. which one has the greatest effect on tool wear? (a) cutting speed.

Solution: At v = 125 m/min.50 mm. plot flank wear as a function of time. (b) On a piece of natural log-log paper.9 23. or (d) pressing and sintering.0) n = C (1) and (2) 125(20. (a) and (b) Student exercises. determine the values of n and C in the Taylor Tool Life Equation. (d) titanium carbide.1059 + 2.2776 n = 0.20 0. and (2) 165(10.73 25 0.30 mm/rev and the depth was 4. (b) electroplating. The values should be approximately the same as those obtained in part (c) below.57 9 0.4) 0.0) 0. (a) and (c). T = 20.4 = ln 165 + n ln 10.45 0. (a) On a single piece of linear graph paper.1 except that the tool life criterion is 0. Answer. Values of C and n may vary in part (b) due to variations in the plots. (d) remove heat from the process. Problems Tool Life and the Taylor Equation 23. Which of the following materials has the highest hardness? (a) aluminum oxide.4) n = C.58 20 0.22 3 0. Answer.0) n ln 125 + n ln 20. plot your results determined in the previous part.0 4. Values of C and n may vary in part (b) due to variations in the plots. 153 .46 C = 404. (c) physical vapor deposition. (a) and (b) Student exercises.0 min using criterion FW = 0.97 Cutting time.40 0. at v = 125 m/min Flank wear. or (e) tungsten carbide. At v = 165 m/min.50 mm of flank land wear.4 min using criterion FW = 0. (c) and (d). The feed rate was 0.0 min using criterion FW = 0. (c) Two equations: (1) 125(20. (b) reduce forces and power. At v = 165 m/min.33 0.3894 = 404.35 5 0.23.7129 n = 0.4) n = 165(10. T = 13.50 0. The values should be approximately the same as those obtained in part (c) below. (c) high speed steel.8283 + 3.2 Solve Problem 23. T = 5.75 mm.0155 n = 5.3894 = 404.50 mm. mm. Flank wear.27 0.6 min using criterion FW = 0. mm.3026 n 0. determine the tool lives for the two cutting speeds. From the plot.0 mm. and (e) wash away chips. (b) cubic boron nitride. min. (c) reduce friction at the tool-chip interface. (b) Which of the following are the two main functions of a cutting fluid in machining (two answers only)? (a) improve surface finish on the workpiece. The last wear data value in each column is when final tool failure occurred.47 7 0.1 The following flank wear data were collected in a series of turning tests using a coated carbide tool on hardened alloy steel. 23. (c) As a comparison.46 (2) C = 165(10.75 mm.46 23. calculate the values of n and C in the Taylor equation solving simultaneous equations.80 13 0.70 11 0.8 Which of the following processes are used to provide the thin coatings on the surface of coated carbide inserts (more than one)? (a) chemical vapor deposition.10 Answer. at v = 165 m/min Solution: At v = 125 m/min. Using 0.12 0. Are the resulting n and C values the same? 1 0.3894 (1) C = 125(20.75 mm of flank wear as the criterion of tool failure. T = 10.99 15 0.

23..0) n = 165(5.4 = (7.171 = 250(1. Based on your equation.0371/. T = (C/v) 1/n = (488/300) 1/.0 m/s and a 20-min tool life at a speed v = 2.0 m/s. 100(10) n =75(30) n ln 100 + n ln 10 = ln 75 + n ln 30 4.14286) n ln 1.4 Tool life tests in turning yield the following data: (1) v = 100 m/min.0373. compute the tool life that corresponds to a cutting speed v = 300 ft/min.2619 C = 100(10) = 100(1. (c) v (20) .2619 = 2. (a) Find the n and C values in the Taylor tool life equation.77 v = 182. (d) For T = 10 min.3894 = 291..77/2.2619 .2776 n = 0.2 min. (a) Determine the parameters n and C in the Taylor tool life equation.0 = ln 165 + n ln 5. (a) Determine the n and C values in the Taylor tool life equation. and (c) the speed corresponding to a tool life of 20 min.3296 0. Solution: (a) Two equations: (1) 350(7) n = C and (2) 250(50) n = C 350(7) n = 250(50) n 350/250 = (50/7) n 1.4012 n 4. (2) v = 250 ft/min.818 = 15. Solution: (a) Two equations: (1) 100(10) n = C and (2) 75(30) n = C.2619 = 182.2619 = 182.1914 = 83.0) n = C.3894 (1) C = 125(13.3175 + 3.437) = 182.3026) n 0.13 min.9522) = 488 (b) Comparing these values of n and C with those in Table 24.6) 0.037 T = 2.3175 = (3.0) = 291. and (2) 165(5. what is the likely tool material used in this operation? (c) Using your equation.171 = (1.77 (b) 90 T. v = C/Tn = 488/10.0 m/s.(c) Two equations: (1) 125(13.2619 = 75(2.3 Tool life tests on a lathe have resulted in the following data: (1) v = 350 ft/min.4. (b) Project how long the tool would last at a speed v = 1.6) n = C (1) and (2) 125(13.4825 = 329 ft/min.5 Turning tests have resulted in 1-min tool life for a cutting speed v = 4. compute (b) the tool life for a speed of 90 m/min.15 23.8421 n = 0.6 4. T = 10 min.0986 n n = 0.2619 = 182.77/(20) . (2) v = 75 m/min.2.848 = 17.2877 = 1. 154 .6052 .77 T. the likely tool material is high speed steel. (c) At v = 300 ft/min. T = 7 min.171 = 488/1. T = 50 min.4 m/min.2.15 C = 291.5649 n = 5.4 = n ln 7.1059 + 1.77/90 = 2.77 Check: C = 75(30) .3948) C = 488 Check: C = 250(50) . T = 30 min.2619 = 182.8283 + 2.7228 n 0. 23.171 = 350(1.171 C = 350(7) .6267) 5.4012 .3026 n = 4.3365 = 1.14286 0.6052 + 2. (d) Compute the cutting speed that corresponds to a tool life T = 10 min. (b) Based on the n and C values.14 (2) C = 165(5.6) n ln 125 + n ln 13.8277) C = 182.9661 n n = 0.

8 In the tool wear plots of Figure 23.3 m)/(20 m/s)(0.54) = ln 120 + n ln(109.0 m/s = 240 m/min.3 m)/(3.225 mm) = 174.75) n = C and (3) 100(47) n = C 160(5.225 mm) = 261. T = 5. T = 5(2.4. (1) 180(14.0 n ln 20 = ln 2.08 min.6931 n = 0. then check the resulting equation against the middle data point.0 2.80s = 4.3 This represents a difference of less than 1.677 n = 4. (1) v = 3 m/s = 180 m/min.2012 .7875 = (4. T = 47 min.7 For the tool life plot of Figure 23. (3) v = 100 m/min.54) C = 308. (2) v = 2 m/s = 120 m/min.0 m/s.1 is: vT0. 60(T)0. (2) v = 130 m/min. 23. the tool can be used to produce 25 pieces between tool changes. T = 14.7875 + 4. If cutting speed = 3. (2) Tm = π(125 mm)(0.0151 n n = 0. the tool must be changed every 5 workparts.363 min.677) n 0. but if cutting speed = 2.08) n ln 180 + n ln(14.0) 1/0.223 = 130(1.1929 .0 T = (4. 130(12) . Using complete failure as the criterion of tool life instead of 0.7404) = 226.25 min.692 n 5.54) n = 120(109.909) = 14.225 mm/rev is used in the operation.2.2012 C = 180 (14. 120(20) n = 240 20n = 240/120 = 2. Solution: Taylor equation calculated in Example 23.909 min.50 mm flank wear.3215 = 400 min.363) = 109. the resulting data would be: (1) v = 160 m/min.6 In a production turning operation. Solution: (1) Tm = π(125 mm)(0. 23.53 s = 2.4. T = 25(4.0 m/s.2314 = 240/60 = 4.0 min. show that the middle data point (v = 130 m/min.08) 5.54 min.4054 = 2. Solution: Let us use the two extreme data points to calculate the values of n and C.2314 = (4) 4.5. the workpart is 125 mm in diameter and 300 mm long.0 m/s)(0. For data (2) v = 2 m/s = 120 m/min.2314 = 240 (T)0. T = 12 min) is consistent with the Taylor equation determined in Example Problem 23. A feed rate of 0.0 m/s = 60 m/min.1929 + 2.2314 (b) At v = 1.08) n = C 180(14. (1) 160(5. Consistency would be demonstrated by using the values from the middle data point (T = 12 min at v = 130 ft/min) in the equation and obtaining the same value of C as above (C = 229).223 = 229. which is close enough and well within expected random variation in typical tool life data. Determine the Taylor tool life equation for this job.54) n = C (2) 120(109.692 . then C = 4.75) n = 100(47) n 155 .9957 n = 0.1. complete failure of the cutting tool is indicated by the end of each wear curve.2%.75 min. Determine the parameters n and C in the Taylor tool life equation for this data.Solution: (a) For data (1) T = 1.43 23.

where v is in m/sec and T is in seconds.0752 + 1. This represents a difference of less than 0.0 m/s.4849 n = 4.25 = 1000.6889 n 0. which would be considered good agreement for experimental data.0 m/s. a flank wear level of 0. (2) v = 1.3048m/ft)(1 min/60 s) = 2. Check both equations at T = 16 min = 960 s. Better results on determining the Taylor equation would be obtained by using regression analysis on all three data sets to smooth the variations in the tool life data.50 mm in Example 23. (b) Using your equation.4).20 mm/rev. That is.4054 m = -0. ft/min converts to m/s as (1000 ft/min)(0.8501 n 0. (Tref)0. f = 0.25 = 14.224 (1) C = 160(5.7875 + 2.2 = ln 120 + 0.224 here vs.14. A series of turning tests are performed to determine the parameters n.4998 + 3.566 = 2.S. f = 0.7492 n = 4.7 (3) C = 100(47) 0. where the U.224 = 236.3 0.25 = (60) 0.204 n n = 0.4700 = 2.8 Check against data set (2): 130(14.14 The converted equation is: vT0.1).08 m/s Tref = 1 min = 60 s.7.25) 0.54 m/s Check: (500 ft/min)( 0.2 = ln 90 + n ln 40 + m ln 0.5%. 23. and K in the expanded version of the Taylor equation.75) 0. m. (23. C = 229 in Example 23. f = 0. Solution: vT0.20 mm/rev.9 The Taylor equation for a certain set of test conditions is vT. and that the C value is higher here (C = 236.239 (1) and (3): ln 120 + 0.224 = 235. n = 0. (a) Determine n.10 Q.E.6094) = 0.2) m = K (2) (1.78316 The converted value of C = 5.9 use average: C = 236. m.6052 + 3.25 = 1000(Tref)0. compute the corresponding cutting speeds in ft/min and m/sec using the two equations.3 mm/rev.2) m = K (3) (2 x 60)(10) n(0.1009 n n = 0. SI: v = 14.25 C = 1000 ft/min for a 1.3) m = K (1) and (2): ln 120 + n ln 12 + m ln 0.8 here vs.224 = 236.2040) -0.75 = ln 100 + n ln 47 5. compute the tool life when v = 1.5503 + m (-1. and (3) v = 2.0436 m = 0.239 ln 12 + m ln 0.14/9600.ln 160 + n ln 5.5 x 60)(40) n(0.54 m/s 23.5939 + m (-1.14/5. T = 40 min.5 m/s.25 = 2.2 ln 120 + n ln 12 = ln 90 + n ln 40 4.239 ln 10 + m ln 0.78316) = 14. Note that the n value is very close to the value obtained in Example 23.223 in Example 23. Solution: Three equations to be solved simultaneously: (1) (2 x 60)(12) n(0. The following data were obtained during the tests: (1) v = 2. Eq. T = 12 min.25 = 14.25 = 1000/2 = 500 ft/min.3 mm/rev.1). T = 10 min.08(2.0 min tool life.1 (n = 0.108 156 .5 m/s and f = 0.D. USCU: v = 1000/160.1). Convert this equation to the equivalent Taylor equation in the International System of units (metric). The higher C value here reflects the higher wear level used to define tool life (complete failure of cutting edge here vs.2877 = 1. and K. customary units are used: ft/min for v and min for T.3048m/ft)(1 min/60 s) = 5. where v = m/s and T = s. Validate the metric equation using a tool life = 16 min.

333 = 150 ft/min.108 =120(1.10) = 0.811)(0.80 in 3/min.125.72 in3 (b) HSS: n = 0.015 n ln 10 + m ln 0. MRR = (47.778 = 843.5 x 60)(T)0.010 ln 400 + n ln 10 = ln 300 + n ln 35 5.12 in 3/min.05127 = 0. v = 60/100. (2) v = 300 ft/min. metal removed = 10(1. f = 0.2.2297(2.65 (T)0.6052) 0. Determine n.1264 = 300(2.572 in 3/min. For 10 min. f = 0.010 in/rev.239(0.8) = 18.3026 .010) 0.10) = 10.108 = 182.2877 = 1.3 (2) 300(35) 0.010 = ln 300 + n ln 35 + m ln 0.1 = 60/1. v = 1500/100.2297(0.5587) = 379.2 are based on a feed rate of 0.239(0.010) 0.10.2 in3 157 . f = 0.259 = 47. C = 200 ft/min.010) m = K (2) 300(35) n(0.8781) = 182.0794) = m(-4.2297(2.4055 m m = 0. What is the physical interpretation of the constant K? Solution: Three equations to be solved simultaneously: (1) 400(10) n(0.2297 (1) and (3): ln 400 + n ln 10 + m ln 0. For 10 min.2527 n n = 0.25 mm/rev and a depth of cut = 4.3 (3) 400(8) 0.6971)(0.25 = 1500/1. f = 0.239 = 33.9915 + 2.1997 + 4.10) = 1.3) 0.3 The constant K represents the cutting speed (ft/min) for a 1.0 minute tool life at a feed rate of 1.2) 0. the following data were collected: (1) v = 400 ft/min.015) 0.6 ft/min.2297(2. (b) high speed steel.6052) = 0.01)(0. (c) cemented carbide. and K.010 = n ln 8 + m ln 0.0 in/rev.311 T = 2.3 K = 379.12 The n and C values in Table 23. For 10 min. T = 8 min.5881) = 379.5 ft/min.3 min.015 in/rev.5587) = 379.11 Eq.0 in3 (c) Cemented carbide: n = 0.015 0. if a 10-min tool life were required in each case: (a) plain carbon steel. 23. metal removed = 10(0. m. C = 60 ft/min.010) m = K (3) 400(8) n(0.5553 n 0.4) in the text relates tool life to speed and feed. MRR = (150 x 12)(0.01)(0.239(0. and (e) coated carbide.3026) + m (-4.010 = ln 400 + n ln 8 + m ln 0.3 mm/rev (1.1264 = 400(1. v = 200/100. T = 35 min.239 = 2.010 in/rev. This feed is of course an extrapolation and not a real possible feed value.125 = 200/1.0 mm. 23. C = 1500 ft/min. metal removed = 10(10. m.65 (b) v = 1.2629)(0.6 x 12)(0.12) = 101.3111/. T = 10 min. MRR = (843.01)(0.6123)(0.2297(0. and (3) v = 400 ft/min. and K.5 x 12)(0.2297(0. (23.0794) + m (-4.7038 + 3.1264 (1) 400(10) 0.65 90(T)0.1264 = 400(1.015) m = K (1) and (2): ln 400 + n ln 10 + m ln 0.(1) K = 120(12) 0.3026 n = 5. Solution: (a) Plain carbon steel: n = 0.1997) 0.8404) = K = 182. (d) ceramic. In a series of turning tests conducted to determine the parameters n.572) = 5. Determine how many cubic mm of steel would be removed for each of the following tool materials.25.5 m/s.

25 = 2200/1.0 in thick.75 in/min. Sample holes have been drilled to determine the tool life at two cutting speeds.6417) = 131.3478 Setting Tm = T: 3926.4(10-3)v = 3926.3051 n = 4. The cut will be made with a cemented carbide cutting tool whose Taylor tool life parameters are: n = 0.0 in/(1. where Tm = machining time per piece and T = tool life. v = 2200/100.33(108) (v) -4. metal removed = 10(14.23 = (400/v) 4.6 = 12000/3. At 80 surface ft/min.18) -1 = 19.545 min. we have: 120(1.00 in.14 in 3/min. Compute the cutting speed that will allow the tool life to be just equal to the cutting time for this part.99 (v) -1 T = (400/v) 1/.3478 = 2057. (Ignore effects of drill entrance and exit from the hole.82 min. metal removed = 10(30.0 in/(2.33(108) (v) -4. for 5 holes.32 23.52389(108) v = {0. Solution: (1) v = 80 ft/min.778 = 1237 ft/min.003)(611) = 1.364 min) = 1.4 mm/rev. where cutting speed v is expressed in ft/min.25) = 80(1.545 min) = 27. Units for the Taylor equation are min.5π/12) = 917 rev/min. C = 2200 ft/min.82) n ln 80 + n ln 27.382 + 3.7073 n = 0. The starting diameter = 500 mm and the length = 1000 mm. and tool life T is expressed in min. time per hole = 1. the tool lasted for exactly 5 holes.18 m/min Check: Tm = 3926.(d) Ceramic: n = 0.5π/12) = 611 rev/min.25 min.52389(108)}0. Consider the depth of cut to be exactly 1.14) = 301. time per hole = 1.5978 n 2.25 = ln 120 + n ln 1.2987 = 202.29 C = 131.833 in/min) = 0.10) = 30.34 C = 120(1.25) n = 120(1. MRR = (1237 x 12)(0. Solution: In this problem we want Tm = T. The feed rate of the drill was 0. C = 10.99 v-1 = 2057. corresponding to the plate thickness. feed rate fr = (0.3478 = 0. MRR = (2512 x 12)(0.4055 n = 0.15 = 120(1. for 50 holes. we have: 80(27. T = 5(0.833 in/min.85 in 3/min.7875 + 0.01)(0.82) 0.5 in3 23. Tm = πDL/fv and T = (C/v) 1/n Tm = π(500)(1000)(10-6)/0.0 mm.003)(917) = 2.99/v = 3926. T = 50(0.15 0.4 in3 (e) Coated carbide: n = 0.3478(v) -4.364 min.82 4. v = 12000/100.003 in/rev.15 C = 80(27.10) = 14.981 = 2512 ft/min. the tool lasted for exactly 50 holes.000 ft/min. Formulating the data as vTn = C.01)(0.094) = 131. At 120 surface ft/min. for tool life and m/min for cutting speed.25) n = C (2) v = 120 ft/min. Cutting conditions are: f = 0. For 10 min.99 (202.23 and C = 400.3478 v3.25. N = (80)/(.3478 = {0.60. N = (120)/(.75 in/min) = 0.3478 = 4004.13 A drilling operation is performed in which 0.) Determine the values of n and C in the Taylor tool life equation for the above sample data. and d = 3.14 The outside diameter of a cylinder made of titanium alloy is to be turned. feed rate fr = (0. Both of these times must be expressed in terms of cutting speed.52389(108)}1/3.85) = 148.5 in diameter holes are drilled through cast iron plates that are 1. Formulating the data as vTn = C.423 min 158 . For 10 min.82) n = C Setting (1) = (2): 80(27.

375 min T = (1300/476. Specify a non-steel finishing grade.25 in and the length = 48. It is desirable to operate at a cutting speed so that the tool will not need to be changed during the cut.0 = 13004. Tm = πDL/12fv and T = (C/v) 1/n Tm = π(26. (b) high speed steel.08229(108)}0.23 = (400/202.389. for tool life and ft/min for cutting speed. For each material that is not a good candidate. (d) ceramic. the starting diameter = 26. For each of the following tool materials. This is a grade with TiC and low cobalt. A slot or keyway has been milled along its entire length.389.0 = 1. A cemented carbide cutting tool is to be used and the parameters of the Taylor tool life equation for this setup are: n = 0. The cutting conditions will be: feed = 0.25 and C = 1300.38 (v) -1 T = (1300/v) 1/.0 v3. The turning operation reduces the shaft diameter.08229(108)}1/3 = {1.38 (476.0 = 2. 23. and (e) sintered polycrystalline diamond.0 = 55. Grade 1 2 3 4 %WC 95 82 80 89 %Co 5 4 10 11 %TiC 0 14 10 0 Solution: (a) Finish turning of unhardened steel.0 in and length = 32 in.56) 4.15 The outside diameter of a roll for a steel rolling mill is to be turned.25 = (1300/476.T = (400/202. Specify grade 1 for finishing and grade 4 for roughing. This is a grade with no TiC and low cobalt. Solution: In this problem we want Tm = T.25)(48.0125 in/rev. This is a grade with no TiC and high cobalt. where Tm = machining time per piece and T = tool life.16 A certain machine shop uses a limited number of cemented carbide grades in its operations.389.3478 = 19. (a) Which grade should be used for finish turning of unhardened steel? (b) Which grade should be used for rough milling of aluminum? (c) Which grade should be used for finish turning of brass? (d) Which of the grades listed would be suitable for machining cast iron? For each case. Specify a non-steel roughing grade. Choose grade 2.0(v) -4. Both of these times must be expressed in terms of cutting speed.18) 1/.8561(1012) (v) -4. 159 . (b) Rough milling of aluminum.125 in.375 min Tooling Applications 23. Cast iron is included with the non-steel grades.38 (v) -1= 2.18) 4.0125)v = 26. give the reason why it is not.389. Units for the Taylor equation are min.3333 = 476.17 A turning operation is performed on a steel shaft with diameter = 5. and depth of cut = 0. Determine the cutting speed which will make the tool life equal to the time required to complete the turning operation. These grades are listed below by chemical composition.56) 1/.56) -1= 55.0)/12(0. (c) cemented carbide.0 Setting Tm = T: 26.25 = (1300/v) 4. Choose grade 4. (c) Finish turning of brass. Choose grade 1.38/v = 26. Specify a steel-cutting grade suitable for finishing. explain your recommendation.08229(108) v = {1. In the final pass. indicate whether or not it is a reasonable candidate to use in the operation: (a) plain carbon steel.56 ft/min Check: Tm = 26.423 min 23. (d) Machining cast iron.8561(1012) (v) -4.0 in.

With cutting fluid: at v = 125 ft/min. the value of C is increased by 10%.95 min. he says. what would be the increase in tool life if the original cutting speed of 125 ft/min were used in the operation? Solution: From Table 23. which is greater than the 4:1 which is usually recommended. The appropriate n and C values in the Taylor equation are given in Table 23.12 = (1.25 = 7:1. (d) Ceramic: this is not a good candidate because of its low toughness.40 min.6% 23. Determine the percent increase in tool life that results if the cutting speed is maintained at v = 90 m/min.18 In a turning operation using high speed steel tooling.1) = 143 T = (143/90) 1/. it has good toughness for the interrupted cut. With coolant: 90(T)0.21 = 121% 23.3333 = 21.10 mm/rev. the 160 . Increase = (110.25 min = 156.95) = 67. and hole depth = 40 mm. The Taylor tool life equation has parameters n = 0. Solution: Dry: 90(T)0.21. (c) Cemented carbide: this is a reasonable candidate. the depth-to-diameter ratio is 1.42)/21.12 = 130 T = (130/90) 1/. (e) Sintered polycrystalline diamond: this is not suitable for cutting steel.5889) 8. Nevertheless. thus causing overheating of the drill.2. T = (225/125) 1/. and feed = 0.125 = (1. (a) Plain carbon steel: not economical because of low cutting speeds.12 = (1.Solution: The slot will result in an interrupted cut.19 A production turning operation on a steel workbar normally operates at a cutting speed of 125 ft/min using high speed steel tooling with no cutting fluid." What's the problem? What do you recommend to solve it? Solution: There are several problems here. The foreman says that the "speed and feed are right out of the handbook" for this work material. When a coolant is used in the operation.125 and C = 200 for dry cutting. Second.20 A high speed steel 6. T = (200/125) 1/. The cutting conditions are: speed = 25 m/min.2 . With cutting fluid. so toughness is important in the tool material. and the drill bit is failing prematurely due to overheating.12 = 130(1 + 10%) = 130(1. A cutting oil is applied by the operator by brushing the lubricant onto the drill point and flutes prior to each hole. If it can be assumed that the effect of the cutting fluid is simply to increase the constant C by 25. It has been found that the use of a coolant type cutting fluid will allow an increase of 25 ft/min in the speed without any effect on tool life.42.2 min.75:0.42 = 1. it must be a steel cutting grade with high toughness (high cobalt content).120 and C = 130 (m/min) when the operation is conducted dry.8) 8 = 110. resulting in friction heat.6) 8 = 42. Increase = (47.2 in the text.42 min.3333 = 47. As a consequence the chips produced in the hole are having difficulty exiting. (b) HSS: this is a reasonable candidate. n = 0. C = 200 + 25 = 225.125 = (1.444) 8. a cutting speed v = 90 m/min is used. First. it is likely to fracture during interrupted cutting. "the chips are clogging in the flutes. Cutting Fluids 23.40 . Dry: at v = 125 ft/min.0 mm twist drill is being used in a production drilling operation on mild steel.

one with good lubricating qualities. then retract the drill. Since overheating is a problem. 161 . it makes sense to try a coolant. a requirement of the drilling operation. with overheating as a problem. then drill some more. an emulsified oil might be tried in the operation. as a substitute for the cutting oil. The 7:1 depth-to-diameter ratio is a given. Third. and we assume it cannot be changed.manual method of applying the cutting oil may not be particularly effective. Peck-drilling means drilling for a distance approximately equal to one drill diameter. The twist drill might be operated in a peck-drilling mode to solve the chip clogging problem. the cutting oil may not be removing heat from the operation effectively. Finally. etc. A twist drill with a fluid hole could be used to more effectively deliver the cutting fluid to the drill point to help extract the chips.

(2) operating at speeds away from the natural frequency of the machine tool system. Answer. (2) tool nose radius.4 Why do costs tend to increase when better surface finish is required on a machined part? Answer.6 What are the parameters that have the greatest influence in determining the ideal surface roughness Ri ? Answer.3 Name some of the important mechanical and physical properties that affect the machinability of a work material. (2) forces and power. and (4) in some cases the end cutting edge of the tool.24 ECONOMIC AND PRODUCT DESIGN CONSIDERATIONS IN MACHINING Review Questions 24. and thermal diffusivity. (3) surface finish. Because additional operations such as grinding. Machinability can be defined as the relative ease with which a material can be machined using an appropriate cutting tool under appropriate cutting conditions.2 What are the criteria by which machinability is commonly assessed in a production machining operation? Answer. and (3) the cost of the time to change the tool. 24.8 What are the factors on which the selection of feed in a machining operation should be based? Answer. The machinability criteria include: (1) tool wear and tool life. and (3) reducing forces in machining through changes in feed or depth and changes in cutter design.. 24. 24. 24. These parameters are: (1) the type of machining operation. and (3) feed or chip load. (2) cost of time the tool is actually cutting the work. The properties mentioned in the text include: hardness. The first three terms are: (1) part load/unload cost. The factors that affect surface finish are: (1) geometric factors such as type of operation.g. and tool shape (nose radius in particular). and tearing of the work surface when machining ductile materials. feed. Answer. (3) limiting cutting forces. which factors are affected by cutting speed. and backlash in the feed mechanism. (2) work material factors such as built-up edge effects. and (4) ease of chip disposal. 24. What is the fourth term? 162 .1 Define machinability. The factors are: (1) type of tooling. and (4) surface roughness requirements. lapping. whether turning or milling. 24. or similar finishing processes must be included in the manufacturing sequence at higher cost.7 Name some of the steps that can be taken to reduce or eliminate vibrations in machining.9 The unit cost in a machining operation is the sum of four cost terms. 24.5 What are the basic factors that affect surface finish in machining? Answer. The ideal surface roughness is determined by geometric parameters of the machining operation. e. Steps to reduce vibration in machining include: (1) increase stiffness or damping in the setup. (2) roughing or finishing operation. and (3) vibration and machine tool factors such as setup and workpart rigidity. 24. strength. Answer.

Cutting speed for minimum cost. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers.6 When cutting a ductile work material. cutting speed for minimum cost or cutting speed for maximum production rate? Why? Answer.0? (a) easier to machine than the base or (b) more difficult to machine than the base. The fourth term is the cost of purchasing (and grinding. all correct answers must be given. or (f) tool wear. whose rating = 1. or (e) sawing. Answer. (b) cast iron. (d) surface roughness. (b) cutting temperature. (c) high value of Ra.1 Which of the following criteria are generally recognized to indicate good machinability (more than one)? (a) all of the following. (d). or (e) turning. (d) planing. (d) low carbon steel.4 163 . (e). which means high value of Ra or (b) improve surface finish. (b). (d) long tool life. if applicable) the tool. tends to push the U-shaped function toward a lower value in the case of cutting speed for minimum cost. (c) copper. (a) 24. (e) stainless steel. (a) 24.0 indicates that the work material is which of the following relative to the defined base material.Answer. which of the following seems to be the most important (one answer)? (a) cutting forces. In general. (f) low value of Ra. The fourth term in the unit cost equation. which means lower value of Ra. (c) end milling. (e) 24. or (g) unhardened tool steel. 24. and (f) 24. an increase in cutting speed will generally have which effect on surface finish? (a) degrade surface finish. dealing with the actual cost of the cutting edge. (b) drilling. Answer. (d) planing. (b) 24. (c) end milling. which of the following materials has the highest machinability (one best answer)? (a) aluminum.10 Which cutting speed is always lower for a given machining operation. Answer.2 Of the various methods for testing machinability. and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point. To attain a perfect score on the quiz. Answer. (c) horsepower consumed in the operation. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point.7 Which one of the following operations is generally capable of the best surface finishes (lowest value of Ra) (one best answer)? (a) broaching. (b) drilling. 24. (e) low cutting forces. (b) ease of chip disposal. For each question. Answer. Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 14 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct). Answer. (a) 24.3 A machinability rating of greater than 1. since each correct answer is worth 1 point. (e) tool life.5 Which one of the following operations is generally capable of the closest tolerances (one best answer)? (a) broaching. (g) zero shear plane angle. (f) titanium alloys.

545 = 107.5 m/min New material: v60 = 400/60.6 m/min MR = 246.107 = 110. (b) If the machinability criterion were tool life for a cutting speed of 150 m/min.9 24.7% (b) (a) Base material: T150 = (450/150) 1/. test data resulted in a Taylor equation with parameters n = 0.2 (c) Different test conditions often result in different machinability results. what is the machinability rating for the new material? Solution: (a) Base material: v30 = 450/30. For the new material.96 = 96% 24. (c) time the tool is engaged in cutting. (a) Problems Machinability 24. (c) What do the results of the two calculations show about the difficulties in machinability measurement? Solution: (a) Base material: v60 = 500/60. the Taylor parameters were n = 0.5 = 1.8) 4.10 A high tooling cost and/or tool change time will tend to have which of the following effects on vmax or vmin? (a) decrease or (b) increase.6/256.8/58.11 = 111% (b) (a) Base material: v10 = 500/10.29 = 152. Units in both cases are: speed in m/min and tool life in min. (a) Compute a machinability rating for the new material. Compute the machinability rating for this case. or (b) cutting speed for minimum cost.27 and C = 450.3 m/min MR = 169. For the base material (B1112 steel).21 = 169.22 = (2. the parameter values were n = 0.7/179.8 Which of the following time components in the average production machining cycle is affected by cutting speed (more than one)? (a) part loading and unloading time.22 = 198.0) 3.27 = 179. These results were obtained using cemented carbide tooling.6 = 1. (a) Compute a machinability rating for the new material using cutting speed for a 30 min tool life as the basis of comparison.27 = (3. (b) Suppose the machinability criterion were the cutting speed for a 10 min tool life rather than the present criterion.5 = 1.6 m/min New material: v30 = 420/30.24.21 and C = 400.3/152. and (b) setup time for the machine tool. where speed is in m/min and tool life is min.704= 58.29 and C = 500.1 A machinability rating is to be determined for a new work material using the cutting speed for a 60 min tool life as the basis of comparison.7 m/min MR = 198. For the base material (B1112).84 = 184% 164 . Answer.4 m/min New material: v10 = 400/10.4 = 0. (b) 24.22 and C = 420.5 min New material: v10 = (420/150) 1/. Answer. test data resulted in Taylor equation parameter values of n = 0. For the new material. A machinability rating is to be determined for a new work material.8 min MR = 107. Answer. These results were obtained using cemented carbide tooling.21 = 246. (c) and (d) Which cutting speed is always lower for a given machining operation? (a) cutting speed for maximum production rate.29 = 256. and (d) tool change time.

6) = 72 ft/min. Solution: Ri = f2/32NR = (0.6 µm. MR for B1113 = 1.5 = 1. From Fig.2 = 1.4 In a turning operation on cast iron. so Ra = Ri Ra = Ri = f2/32NR Rearranging.015) 2/(32 x 3/64) = 0.13 and C = 225. f2 = Ri(32NR)/1. Solution: For cast iron at 150 m/min.1.1.3 x 1. Recommended v30 = 0. and depth of cut = 4.25 = 1. rai = 1. The nose radius on the tool = 0.35(144.2 ratio rai = 1.125 in.9 Ra = 1.556 = 144. and (c) B1113 steel with 170 Brinell hardness. Determine the surface roughness for this operation. = 1.13 = 225/1. and depth of cut = 0.63 µ m.7 A part to be turned in an engine lathe must have a surface finish of 1.2f 2/32NR Rearranging. and the resulting parameters of the Taylor equation are: n = 0. so Ra = 1.0 in Eq.2 mm/rev.02 x 100 = 102 µ in. 24. Determine the feed that will achieve the specified surface finish.4(10-9) = 3. (24.6(10-6)(32)(0. From Fig. Cutting speed = 100 ft/min.0 mm.2 Ri = 1.2 in Eq. (24. Surface Roughness 24.50. 24. (b) 4130 alloy steel with 190 Brinell hardness. 24. (b) From Table 24.6) = 195 ft/min.015 in/pass.3 Tool life turning tests have been conducted on B1112 steel with high speed steel tooling.6 ft/min.010 in/rev and a cutting speed = 300 ft/min. 24. (a) From Table 24.6) = 94 ft/min. and machinability data given in Table 24.196 mm (here. determine the cutting speed you would recommend for the following work materials.6 A single-point HSS tool with a 3/64 in nose radius is used in a shaping operation on a ductile steel workpart.24.010) 2/(32 x 2/64) = 0. extrapolating Figure 24. The feed and depth during these tests were: f = 0. Based on this information. Solution: For free-machining aluminum at 150 m/min.2.2.0001 in.84(10-8) m2)0. mm is interpreted mm/rev) 24. Assume that the same feed and depth of cut are to be used. 24. Cutting speed = 150 m/min.2 = 31. from Figure 24. Recommended v30 = 0.96(10-9) = 3.5 A turning operation uses a 2/64 in nose radius cutting tool on a free machining steel with a feed rate = 0. Solution: First determine v30 for the base material: v30 = 225/30.6(10-6)(32)(0.100 in. MR for 4130 = 0.196(10-8) m2 165 .65(144.00125 mm.75 mm. if the tool life desired in operation is 30 min: (a) C1008 low carbon steel with 150 Brinell hardness. f2 = Ri(32NR) = 1.02 Ra = 1.50(144. the nose radius on the tool = 1. (c) From Table 24.3 Ra = 1.4 except that the part is made of cast iron instead of aluminum and the cutting speed is reduced to 100 m/min. 24.65. From Fig.3). MR for C1008 = 0.20) 2/(32 x 1) = 0.96(10-4) m = 0. Recommended v30 = 1.0 mm. rai = 1.84(10-8) m2 f = (3. Solution: Ri = f2/32NR = (0. = 100 µin.25 µm. rai = 1.8 Solve previous Problem 24.75)(10-3)/1.75)(10-3) = 38. feed rate = 0.2 ratio rai = 1. Determine the surface roughness for this cut. The part is made of a free-machining aluminum alloy. Compute an estimate of the surface roughness for this cut. = 150 µin. Solution: Ri = f2/32NR = (0.2. and speed = 2 m/s.35. feed = 0.00015 in.010 in/rev and d = 0.1.9 x 150 = 285 µ in.1.3).

6(10-6)(32)(1. Ri = f2/32NR Rearranging. it stands to reason that we should operate at the highest possible v.f = 3.5 = 7.2 x 10-6)(4/64) = 50.0071 in/rev. Increasing speed will increase MRR and reduce Ra.27 = 32/1.248 mm (here. so Ra = 1. mm is interpreted mm/rev) 24.35Ri = 1.5 = 2. but this property tests well within the ductility range for the material specified by the designer.27 = 25. and (3) increase relief angle. Solution: For cast iron at 75 m/min.11 A face milling operation is to be performed on a cast iron part at 400 ft/min to finish the surface to 32 µ-in. from Figure 24. The work material is cast iron. Changes in tooling: (1) increase nose radius NR. Solution: For free-machining steel at 90 m/min. (24. Determine the required feed rate (in/min) that will achieve the 32 µ-in finish.3 x 10-3)2/(32)(0. from Figure 24.144(10-8) m2)0. The tool nose radius = 3/64 in. Solution: For cast iron at 400 ft/min.8 µm.0071) = 14.1 x 10-3 = 0.9 A part to be turned in an engine lathe must have a surface finish of 1.27. It is desired to achieve a surface finish of 64 µ-in (AA).8)(10-6) = 0. N = v/πD = (400 x 12)/3π = 509. f2 = 32(Ra)(NR) = 32(25. The cutter is a four-tooth insert type face milling cutter.144(10-8) m2 f = (6.27 Ri Ri = Ra/1. The nose radius of the cutting tool must be selected. Determine the speed and feed combination that meets these criteria.196(10-8) m2)0.48(10-4) m = 0.3 mm/rev. (2) increase cutting speed v. Determine the feed that will achieve the specified surface finish.3). The part is made of a free-machining steel.4 x 10-6).179 mm (here. Determine the minimum nose radius that will obtain the specified finish in this operation. 166 . Without knowing any more about the job. from Figure 24.5 = 1. The cutting conditions have been selected as follows: v = 75 m/min.3).13 A turning operation is to be performed on C1010 steel.5 m/s and d = 3.0 mm. Cutting conditions: v = 1.2)(10-3) = 61. The nose radius on the tool = 1. so Ra = 1. (2) increase rake angle. and that the depth of cut will be 0.3 rev/min. while at the same time maximizing the metal removal rate. a type of carbide insert with 4/64 in nose radius is to be used. 24. The machine shop foreman thinks the problem is that the work material is too ductile for the job. and d = 4.0 mm. (24.080 in.75 mm 24. Therefore.35f 2/32NR Rearranging.00475 m = 4. Items (2) and (3) will have a marginal effect.79(10-4) m = 0.10 The surface finish specification in a turning job is 0. To obtain the best possible finish. Solution: Increasing feed will increase both MRR and Ra. what changes in cutting conditions and tooling would you suggest to improve the surface finish? Solution: Changes in cutting conditions: (1) decrease chip load f.2 µin. mm is interpreted mm/rev) 24.35(0.0 in. It has been decided that the speed should be in the range 200 ft/min to 400 ft/min. f2 = Ri(32NR) = 1. so Ra = Ri = f2/32NR Rearranging.46 in/min. fr = Nntf = 509. (3) use cutting fluid. The cutter uses four inserts and its diameter is 3.44(10-9) = 6.0 in Eq.3(4)(0.12 A face milling operation is not yielding the required surface finish on the work. NR = 1.6 µm. 24.35 in Eq. f = 0.2 mm. which is a ductile grade.2 ratio rai = 1.35f 2/(32Ra) NR = 1.2 ratio rai = 1.2 ratio rai = 1.4 x 10-6 in2 f = (50.

45. Solution: (a) Up milling: Ri = 0. rai = 1.787 min.1)(3. and (b) down-milling. Ra = 1.0 min to load and unload the workpart and 3.35x4/π) = 0.26 = 50.692 = 23.35x4/π) = 0.13 and C = 75 (m/min) for a feed of 0.741 µ m.00/hr. Determine: (a) cutting speed for maximum production rate. Machining Economics 24.42 min.4 x 49. From Fig.15. Estimate the surface roughness for (a) up-milling. and that each tooth projects an equal distance from the axis of rotation.5D .2 x 10-6 in2 f = (76. determine the theoretical surface roughness for (a) up-milling. 25.13 = (1.5D . From Fig.5D + fnt/π) = 0. and (c) cycle time and cost per unit of product.125(0.125(0.692 x 3.25-0. rai = 1. The parameters in the Taylor equation are: n = 0. and cutting speed v = 1.15 Ri Ri = Ra/1.503 µm.125f 2/(.43(0.51 in 3/min.518 µm. 25.16 A HSS tool is used to turn a steel workpart that is 300 mm long and 80 mm in diameter.27 = 49. The milling cutter has four equally spaced teeth and the diameter = 60 mm.5)].0087 in/rev. and the tooling cost per cutting edge = $4. Feed = 0.015) 2/(1.13 = 75/[6.51 in 3/min. Solution: (a) Up milling: Ri = 0. 25.4 x 10-6 in2 f = (83. and (b) down-milling. (b) Tmax = (75/49.0091 in/rev. Ri = f2/32NR f2 = 32(Ra)(NR) = 32(55. (c) Tm = πDL/fv = π(80)(300)/(. Ri = f2/32NR f2 = 32(Ra)(NR) = 32(50.8) 1/.4 x 10-6).15 = 64/1. From Fig.2 x 10-6).Try v = 400 ft/min.518) = 0. which maximizes MRR = 3.35 mm/tooth.125(0. rai = 1.125f 2/(0.125(0.015) 2/(1.45.5D+fnt/π) = 0. and cutting speed = 150 ft/min.14 Plain milling is performed to finish a cast iron workpart prior to plating.8 µin.503) = 0. 24.51 in3/min.15 A peripheral milling operation is performed using a slab milling cutter with four teeth and a 2.13 .25+0.125f 2/(0. (b) tool life in min of cutting. MRR = 2. (b) Down milling: Ri = 0.50 min to change tools. Ra = 1.8 x 103) = 3.26 = 64/1.43 Ra = 1.5 = 0.15 = 55.4 mm/rev. From Fig. rai = 1.125f 2/(. 25.35) 2/(30 .26 Ri Ri = Ra/1.8 µ in. Compare at v = 300 ft/min. Solution: (a) Co = $30/hr = $0.015x4/π) = 22.26.35) 2/(30 + 0.50 in diameter.45.45.015 in/tooth. 167 .6 x 10-6)(3/64) = 83.8 m/min.6 µin.8 x 10-6)(3/64) = 76.fnt/π) = 0.43(0. Assuming first that the teeth are equally spaced around the cutter.43 Ra = 1. The chip load f = 0. (b) Down milling: Ri = 0.50/min vmax = 75/[(1/.0091 in/rev.719 µ m.5 = 0.fnt/π) = 0. Optimum cutting conditions are: v = 400 ft/min and f = 0.015x4/π) = 22. 24. MRR = 3.2 µ in.5] .506) 7. The operator and machine tool rate = $30.0 m/s. It takes 2.00.0.

50(6.787 = 6. np = 4.50/min vmin = 75[.0/17 = $3.50 x 3.6 m/min.1)(.692 x 5. (b) tool life in min of cutting.184 pc/tool life Use np = 6 pc/tool life Tc = Th + Tm + Tt/np = 2.4 x 42.066 pc/tool Use np = 3 pc/tool life Tc = Th + Tm + Tt/np = 3.27 . The standard time to grind or regrind the cutting edge is 5.0 min (this is an average of the time to index the insert and the time to replace it when all edges have been used).704 = 13.704 x 2. (b) Tmin = (75/42. Solution: (a) Co = $33/hr = $0.42 + 3. and (c) cycle time and cost per unit of product.00/hr.20 Compare disposable and regrindable tooling.6 x 103) = 4.50/(6.17 Solve previous Problem 24. The workpart to be used in the 168 .034) 3.55(5.27 = 1200/[2. Co = $33/hr = $0.0 + 1. Cc = 0.85/pc 24.27 and C = 1200. Cc = 0.19 Solve previous Problem 24.823) + 2.0 + 4.00/hr. The rate for the operator and machine tool = $33. The same grade of cemented carbide tooling is available in two forms for turning operations in a certain machine shop: disposable inserts and brazed inserts.27 = 1200[. It takes 3.843 = 7.27 = 590 ft/min.5/17 = 6.07/pc 24. the price of the tool = $30.055/1.55/min Cc = 0. determine cutting speed for minimum cost.013 x 822 x 12) = 1. (c) Tm = πDL/fv = π(3)(18)/(. For the brazed insert.704 = 4. Machine time on the lathe costs $24.37 min/pc. The parameters in the Taylor equation are: n = 0.55 x 1. Cc = 0. price of each insert = $6.13 = 42.89 min.323 = 3.50(6.692 = 76.0 + 3.06 min/pc. there are four cutting edges per insert.42 = 17. np = 76. Solution: (a) vmax = 1200/[(1/. (c) Tm = πDL/fv = π(3)(18)/(.825)].63 min/pc.5)].0 min. For the disposable inserts.0/3 = $3. (c) Tm = πDL/fv = π(80)(300)/(.00/hr.96/4.55/(2.00 and it is estimated that it can be used a total of 15 times before it must be scrapped. and the tool change time = 1. The feed = 0.16 except that in part (a). Determine: (a) cutting speed for maximum production rate.013 in/rev.5/7 = 5.42 min/pc.0 min to load and unload the workpart and 1.63) + 4.75)].0/7 = $3.0 min.00.76) 7.0 + 1.32/pc 24.55/((1/.54 pc/tool Use np = 7 pc/tool life Tc = Th + Tm + Tt/np = 3.55(5.013 x 590 x 12) = 1.704 x 1.06) + 2.27 = 822 ft/min.00. Solution: (a) Co = $30/hr = $0.55/pc 24. The parameters in the Taylor equation for this grade are: n = 0.00/6 = $3.00))]. (b) Tmin = (1200/590) 1/.5] .18 A cemented carbide tool is used to turn a part with length = 18. (b) Tmax = (1200/822) 1/.0 in.13 = 75[.323 + 1.5/6 = 6.843 min.np = 23.843 + 1.1)(1.37) + 4.1)(.0 in and diameter = 3. np = 13.823 min/pc. determine cutting speed for minimum cost. and the tooling cost per cutting edge = $2.27 = (2.42/3.96 min.27 .50 min to change tools.89/1.27 = (1.787 + 3.00))].5 + 2.41 pc/tool life Use np = 17 pc/tool life Tc = Th + Tm + Tt/np = 2.13 .6) 1/.18 except that in part (a).5 + 4.50/((1/. and the grinder is paid at a rate = $20.13 = (1.06 min.25 and C = 300 (m/min) under the cutting conditions considered here.460) 3.5/3 = 4. The tool change time for the regrindable tooling = 3.55/min vmin = 1200[.323 min.

22 Three tool materials are to be compared for the same finish turning operation on a batch of 100 steel parts: high speed steel.1)(0. Cc = 0.78 pc/tool life Use np = 2 pc/tool Tc = 2. (b) Tmax = (1/0.0 min to load and unload the work.25 = 154. (b) Tmin = (1/0.4 = 3(4.0 + 1. Cc = 0.01 + 3.25 = 300[1.40/min.72) + 1.67/edge vmax = 300[1.25 . Ct = $30/15 + 5($20/60) = $3. compare: (a) cutting speeds for minimum cost.0 + 1.0 min.25 . cycle times are less.25 = 300[0.4) = 36. Cycle time and cost per piece are less.0) = 3.4 x 3 + 3. (c) Tm = π(62.0 + 2. note that with the maximum production rate objective here.40(3.4 = 3(1.25 = 300[0.30)(10-3)(122) = 2.67/6 = $2.0 + 1.0) = 3(1.30 mm/rev.182/pc Regrindable tooling: (a) Co = $24/hr = $0.0))].0 min.40 x 3.40/((1/0. The feed = 0.180/pc Disposable inserts are recommended. but that unit costs are less in the previous problem where the objective is minimum cost per piece.25 .08 + 1.96 pc/tool life Use np = 8 pc/tool Tc = 2. Comparing the results in this problem with those of the previous problem.92) + 3.5)(375)/(0.50))].0/1.4 m/min.0/2 = 3.21 Solve previous Problem 24.0) = 9.9)].4) = 1. (c) cycle time and cost per unit of production.58) + 1.1)(0.0 m/min. (c) Tm = π(62.40/min.1)(1.18) + 3.0 + 3.0 m/min.42 min/pc np = 9.50/edge vmin = 300[0.25 .9/0.5)/0.1)(3.2 m/min.25 = 122.0/6 = 3.40/(3 x 4. the 169 . Cc = 0. 24.0/(3 x 3.25 = 173.2) = 1. (c) Tm = π(62.92 min/pc. For the two tooling cases.0/((1/0.16 pc/tool life Use np = 18 pc/tool Tc = 2. Ct = $6/4 = $1.876/pc Disposable inserts are recommended.59 min/pc np = 14.30)(10-3)(228) = 1.25 . cemented carbide.59 + 1.25 = 228.40/min.40 x 1.01 = 18.40(3.0/18 = 4.87)]. (b) Tmax = (1/0.67))]. Ct = $30/15 + 5($20/60) = $3.18 min/pc.5)(375)/(0.1)(3) = 3(3.0 + 1.08 min/pc np = 3. and it takes 2.67/18 = $1. Solution: Disposable inserts: (a) Co = $24/hr = $0.0)].20 except that in part (a).0/1.25/1.674/pc Regrindable tooling: (a) Co = $24/hr = $0.0)].50/2 = $2.comparison is 375 mm long and 62.67/edge vmin = 300[0.40/((1/0.25 = 300[1.50/edge vmax = 300[1.01 min/pc np = 36.1)(0.40/min. (c) Tm = π(62.30)(10-3)(173.59 = 8. Cc = 0. and ceramic.5 mm in diameter.5/2.0)].0/(3 x 1.30)(10-3)(154.4) = 14.08 = 2.4 + 1. determine the cutting speeds for maximum production rate. Ct = $6/4 = $1.0/8 = 3.5)(375)/(0.25 .25 .58 min/pc.1)(0.25 .42 + 3. For the high speed steel tool. Cycle time and cost per piece are less. (b) tool lives.50/8 = $1.40(3.42 = 6.87/0.5 min.72 min/pc.34 pc/tool life Use np = 6 pc/tool Tc = 2.5)(375)/(0.40/(3 x 1.25 min.1)(1.40(4.0/((1/0.67)/0. (b) Tmin = (1/0. Which tool would you recommend? Solution: Disposable inserts: (a) Co = $24/hr = $0. 24.

(b) Tmin = (1/0.116 = 21 pc/tool life Tc = 2.50(2.50 x 1 + 1.50)].706 + 1. Tool change time = 1.81 = 11.0/21 = 2.706)/399 = 0.15/pc 170 .25 pc/hr.50))].581 = 58.50 x 1 + 1.706 = 12.0 mm.16) + 1.6 and C = 3.44/0.50/min.50/((1/.706min/pc np = 9/0.0)/. The price of the HSS tool is $15.50(2.79) = 399 min = 6. (d) cost per production unit. vmin = 70[0.667 x 1.00))].6 .50)/.0)]. The cost of machine time = $30/hr.33)/.50) = 56 min.25 = 500[.00/12 = $1.50 x 1. compare: (a) cutting speeds for minimum cost.48/pc (e) Time to complete batch = 2.81)/828 = 0. The part dimensions are: diameter = 56.0 mm and length = 290 mm.125 . The cost per insert for the carbide = $6. (f) Proportion of time spent cutting = 100(0.50 = 0. (c) Tm = π(56)(290(10-6))/(0.000[.83)].77/pc (e) Time to complete batch = 2.0 hr.50/11 = $3.125 = 42.33/21 = $1.25 mm/rev.50/(.1)(.116 min/pc np = 2. Co = $30/hr = $0.50 x 3 + 2.50/min.50/edge.50/.50. (c) Tm = π(56)(290(10-6))/(0.Taylor equation parameters are: n = 0.000[.177 = 17.783 hr = 14.0/12 = 2.50/(3 x 1.79) + 1. (d) Cc = 0.0(60) + 100(7.08 min/pc. (c) Tm = π(56)(290(10-6))/(0. Number of cutting edges per insert in both cases = 6.50/min. Production rate Rp = 100 pc/13.16 min/pc. Time to change parts = 2.7% Ceramic tooling: (a) Ct = $8/6 = $1.25(10-3)42. Production rate Rp = 100 pc/6.50 = 7(4.6 pc/tool life Use np = 11 pc/tool life Tc = 2.25 = 289 m/min.116 + 1.25 .6 . (d) Cc = 0. (b) Tmin = (1/.50(7. Setup time for the batch is 2.25(10-3)1756) = 0.0 + 0. vmin = 500[. Co = $30/hr = $0.8 hr = 7. and depth = 3.6 = 3. (c) cycle time.08) = 828 min = 13.44 min.1)(0.83/.50/(7 x 4.0 min for both tools.1)(0.1)(0.1% Cemented carbide tooling: (a) Ct = $6/6 = $1.65 hr.0(60) + 100(2. For the three tooling cases.33/edge.00 and for the ceramic = $8.00 and it is estimated that it can be ground and reground 15 times at a cost of $1.0 min.125 .50 = $2.4) = 4. (e) total time to complete the batch and production rate.50) = 9 min.0 + 1.7 pc/tool life Use np = 12 pc/tool life Tc = 2.00/edge.6 = 1756 m/min. Both carbide and ceramic tools are in insert form and can be held in the same mechanical toolholder.74 pc/hr.4 m/min.08) + 2. and for the ceramic: n = 0.81 + 3.50/((1/.667(1.50 x 3.50 x 1.1)(.79 min/pc.0 + 0. (f) Proportion of time spent cutting = 100(4.125 = 70[0.125 and C = 70. Feed = 0. (b) Tmin = (1/.0 + 4.25(10-3)289) = 0.0 + 1.0 + 2. vmin = 3. Co = $30/hr = $0.33))].50) = 2.0/.81min/pc np = 56/4. (f) What is the proportion of time spent actually cutting metal for each tooling? Solution: HSS tooling: (a) Ct = $15/15 + 1.25 .8 hr.25 and C = 500. Tool change time = 3 min.000.50/((1/. (b) tool lives.00.50 = 3(1. The Taylor equation parameters for the cemented carbide are: n = 0.1)(.0/11 = 7. (d) Cc = 0.

1)(1. However.50 = $2.67 hr = 7.1)(1.0)].50(7. 24.537 = 5.00/edge. Co = $30/hr = $0.57/pc (e) Time to complete batch = 2. and production rate compared to HSS tooling and even carbide tooling. and puts pressure on management to seek ways to reduce these nonproductive elements.0) = 3(1. The very small cutting time Tm and resulting low proportion of time spent cutting for ceramic tooling focuses attention on the nonproductive work elements in the batch time. Production rate Rp = 100 pc/5.9 pc/tool life Use np = 4 pc/tool life Tc = 2.6 = 3.23 Solve previous Problem 24. Production rate Rp = 100 pc/13.16) = 336 min = 5. Co = $30/hr = $0. (b) Tmax = (1/0.6% Ceramic tooling: (a) Ct = $8/6 = $1. (d) Cc = 0.13/pc (e) Time to complete batch = 2.25 = 4. (c) Tm = π(56)(290(10-6))/(0.50/4 = $4. batch time.6 .537 min/pc np = 3/0.50/min.053 = 12 pc/tool life Tc = 2.136 = 13.0(60) + 100(2.25 = 500/[(3 x 1.667 min.0 + 4.1)(1.125 .25 .667(1) = . specifically. vmax = 70/[(1/. (f) Proportion of time spent cutting = 100(0. 171 .22 except that in parts (a) and (b). (d) Cc = 0.1)(3.00) = 820 min = 13.537 + 1.125 = 70/[7 x 3)].125 = 48 m/min. Co = $30/hr = $0.0 + 0.537)/394 = 0.1)(1) = 0.86 pc/hr.5% Comment: One might conclude that such a low proportion of time spent cutting would argue against the use of the calculated cutting speed for ceramic tooling.000/[(1/.25)/820 = 0. note that ceramic tooling provides a significant advantage in terms of unit cost.0/4 = 7.0/5 = 2.67 hr. (c) Tm = (c) Tm = π(56)(290(10-6))/(0.0)].8% Cemented carbide tooling: (a) Ct = $6/6 = $1.0] .23 pc/hr.25(10-3)380) = 0.000/[.6 pc/tool life Use np = 5 pc/tool life Tc = 2.125 . (c) Tm = π(56)(290(10-6))/(0.053 min/pc np = 0.00) + 2.50(2.518 = 51.50/min.74) = 394 min = 6. (f) Proportion of time spent cutting = 100(4. Solution: HSS tooling: (a) Ct = $15/15 + 1.50/min.0(60) + 100(2. vmax = 3.035 = 3.0)].0) = 3.0/12 = 2. Production rate Rp = 100 pc/6.32 pc/hr.053 + 1.6 hr = 17.6 = 3825 m/min.6 . vmax = 500/[(1/.57 hr. (b) Tmax = (1/0.667 x 1. (f) Proportion of time spent cutting = 100(0. determine the cutting speeds and tool lives for maximum production rate.0 min.1)(3) = 7(3) = 21 min.116)/336 = 0.00 min/pc.(e) Time to complete batch = 2.0 + 0.25 .0(60) + 100(7.14 min/pc.0)].25(10-3)484) = 4. (b) Tmax = (1/0.00/5 = $1.667/0.60 hr.25 = 380 m/min.50/edge.25 + 3.74) + 1.25(10-3)3825) = 0.33/edge.25min/pc np = 21/4.57 hr = 15.74 min/pc. setup time and workpart handling time.

00 min).4 min).0 min.NC lathe turns second pass (time depends on cutting speed). Rc = 60/29.00/cutting edge.00 in and its length = 10 in. 3 .0(60) + 100(2.57 hr. feed = 0.7 + 3/. Tmax = (1/.NC lathe turns first pass (time depends on cutting speed).00 min.007 in/rev and the depth of cut for each pass = 0. (c) cost of the production 172 .0 min.NC lathe positions tool for first pass (0. The time required to load and unload the parts = 12. (b) the average time required to complete one production cycle.6% Comment: One might conclude that such a low proportion of time spent cutting would argue against the use of the calculated cutting speed for ceramic tooling.01 pc/hr This is a 56% increase in production rate relative to the 200 ft/min cutting speed. The applicable Taylor tool life equation has parameters: n = 0.8 min.23 .26 and C = 900 (ft/min).125 in. However. Rc = 60/46. the cutting tool must be periodically changed.015) = 34. setup time and workpart handling time.015) = 13.0 in. 2 . 4 . The diameter = 28.23 . Current cutting conditions are: speed = 200 ft/min.053)/334 = 0. Determine: (a) the cutting speed for minimum cost per piece.100 in. (f) Proportion of time spent cutting = 100(0.015 in/rev.348 x 3. The very small cutting time Tm and resulting low proportion of time spent cutting for ceramic tooling focuses attention on the nonproductive work elements in the batch time. and 6 .(d) Cc = 0.4 min.23 = 500 ft/min.10 min).348(3.00 min). The cost of the operator and machine = $39/hr and the tool cost = $2. Tm = π(28)(14)/(500 x 12 x 0.23 = 540 min.Operator unloads part and places in tote pan (1.23 and C = 850 (ft/min).0) = 3.96 pc/hr. In addition. The starting diameter of the work is 3.293 pc/hr Find vmax to compare with current operating speed. Is that possible? Assume that feed must remain unchanged in order to achieve the required surface finish.7 = 0. Tool change time = 3.14) + 1. and depth = 0. Management has decreed that the production rate must be increased by 25%. and the cost of machine time on this boring mill = $42.73 = 29.1)(3.016 = 1. and puts pressure on management to seek ways to reduce these nonproductive elements. This tool change time takes 1. Tm = π(28)(14)/(200 x 12 x 0.NC lathe repositions tool for second pass (0.2 = 15 pc/tool life Tc = 12 + 34.Operator loads part into machine. 5 .24 A vertical boring mill is used to bore the inside diameter of a large batch of tube-shaped parts. The feed rate = 0. What is the current production rate and the maximum possible production rate for this job? Solution: At the current operating speed v = 200 ft/min: T = (850/200) 1/. vmax = 850/[(1/.0 min. The operator loads and unloads the machine.2 min/pc np = 540/34.50 per cutting edge.8 = 2.73 pc/tool life Tc = 12 + 13. 24.00/hr. and tooling cost = $3.0) = 10. Production rate Rp = 100 pc/5. starts cycle (1.33/12 = $1.4 = 1. batch time.2 + 3/15 = 46.7 min/pc np = 10/13. specifically. note that ceramic tooling provides a significant advantage in terms of unit cost.0)]. and production rate compared to HSS tooling and even carbide tooling.57 hr = 17.1)(3.50(2.0 in and the length of the bore = 14.25 A NC lathe cuts two passes across a cylindrical workpiece under automatic cycle. The work cycle consists of the following steps (with element times given in parentheses where applicable): 1 .18/pc (e) Time to complete batch = 2.23 = 850/[(3.0)]. 24.14) = 334 min = 5. The parameters of the Taylor equation for the cutting tool in the operation are: n = 0.

0/2. (c) Cc = . (c) Economically. and operator and machine rate = $30/hr.26 .77/pc (d) Time to complete batch = 3.50(.6667 min.45 = 7.6) 8 = 43 min. Ignore effects of workpart handling time.45 pc/tool life Tc = 2. tool life T = (200/125) 1/. the C value is increased from C = 200 to C = 225 due to the use of the cutting fluid. The ideal roughness is given by Eq.65 x 1 + 2. np = 2.15 hr.0 = 110 min (c) Which is better. Tm = 1. tool change time = 2.100 in.010 in/rev and depth = 0. Tt = 2.0(60) + 300(7.. Tm = π(3)(10)/(476 x 12 x 0.00 and there are four edges per insert). (1) cutting at a speed of 140.007) = 2. it is desired to obtain an actual surface roughness of 63 µ-in with a 2/64 in nose radius tool.5927 min.00)/2.2 to convert the 63 µ-in actual roughness to an ideal roughness.100) = 0. Use 1.0 hours and the batch size = 300 parts.0 in 3 of metal cut as the basis of comparison. np = 11. how long will it take to complete the batch? Solution: (a) Co = $39/hr = $0.65)].26 = 900[.125.65/((1/.0 in3/MRR = 1.00)/164.6 ft/min (b) Cutting at v = 125 ft/min with a cutting fluid gives a tool life T = (225/125) 8. which effect is better.125 = 140.6 ft/min. For T = 43 min.0 in3/MRR = 1. cost/in 3 = 0.9 in 3 between tool changes. The effect of the cutting fluid can be to either increase cutting speed (at the same tool life) or increase tool life (at the same cutting speed).5 min.6667) + (0.5 min.1)(.010 x 0. The corresponding cutting speed for a 43 min tool life v = 225/430. For T = 110 min.36 + 1. taking into account the material and cutting speed.45 = $5.65(2.100) = 0. using cost per cubic in of metal machined as the criterion of comparison.353/in3.65 x 1.00)/72.65/min.00))].010 x 0. Assume both passes have equal Tm. volume cut per tool life = 110/0. (a) What is the cutting speed that would result from using the cutting fluid if tool life remains the same as with no fluid? (b) What is the tool life that would result if the cutting speed remained at 125 ft/min.26 As indicated in Section 24.63 min/pc. With a cutting fluid. cost/in 3 = 0.5 = $0.65 = 2. Tm = 1.75 per cutting edge (each insert costs $7. the Taylor tool life equation parameters are n = 0.5 + 2 x 2.65/. 24.1) and an adjustment will have to be made using Figure 24.36) + (0. Ignoring work handling time.00 per cutting edge.0/(140.65) = 11.125 and C = 225. Conclusion: it is better to take the benefit of a cutting fluid in the form of increased cutting speed. Feed = 0. given that tooling cost = $2.6667 = 164.6 min. vmin = 900[. Disposable inserts are used at a cost of $1.36 = 4.341/in3.5 + 2.6 x 12 x 0.65 x 1 + 2.65/(2.50/min.50 x 2.00/cutting edge.0)/. and Co = $30/hr = $0.125 and C = 200. the effect of a cutting fluid is to increase the value of C in the Taylor tool life equation. volume cut per tool life = 43/0.5 + 2 x 2.5 in 3 between tool changes.9 = $0. or (2) cutting at 125 ft/min to give a 110 min tool life. Ignoring work handling time. with cost and time parameters as follows: Ct = $2. (1) At 140.125 = (1. (d) If the setup time for this job is 3.50 x 2. (24.846(2.4. 24.63) = 2469 min = 41.36 min/pc.9 passes/tool life Since there are two passes/workpiece. In a certain machining situation using HSS tooling. Justify you answer with calculations. Cutting speed used in the operation is v = 125 ft/min.0/(125 x 12 x 0.846 x 2.5927 = 72. the Taylor tool life equation parameters are n = 0.1)(.cycle.5927) + (0.27 In a turning operation on ductile steel. At v = 125 ft/min. Solution: Cutting dry. (b) Tmin = (1/.0 + 2.50(.26 = 476 ft/min.6 ft/min to give a 43 min tool life.5 + 2. (2) At 125 ft/min. The n value is the same with or without fluid at n = 0.26 . Time to index each 173 .6/2.

75/f0.2 = 63/1. The workpiece length = 30. Hint: to solve (a) and (b) requires and iterative computational procedure.5 = 0.65/min.14) results in Eq.23/(1-0. (24. (24. = 52. v = cutting speed.0073 in/rev.23))(0.23))(0. Solution: Cost and time parameters: Co = $39/hr = $0.5(10-6) in.18 = 53.5 + 1. ft/min.23 = 353.8 ft/min Iteration 2: At v = 337. the ratio from Figure 24.5 µ-in.75/0. = 63 x 10-6 in.09357}0.2 rai = 1.23/(1-0.00725 = 612. min. Ri = Ra/1. Thus. where T = tool life.2 f = (63 x 10-6)0.75)}0.2 = 53. Thus. (24. f2 = 32NR(Ri) = 32(2/64)(53. (24.15).23))(0.23 = 337.23 = 582.5 vmin = 612.09357}0. (24. Ri = Ra/1. f2 = 32NR(Ri) = 32(2/64)(52.65 x 0.2 = 63/1.75/f0. f2 = 32NR(Ri) = 32(2/64)(63 x 10-6) in.9).5 min.6 vmin = 609.2 rai = 1. in/rev.5{0.insert = 25 sec and to replace an insert every fourth index takes 45 sec.65/(0.2 = 52.2 ft/min. (24.5{(0. (b) cutting speed for minimum cost per piece at the feed determined in (a).6{0. Iteration 1: assume Ri = Ra = 63 µ-in. Ct = $1.23/(1-0.4 x 10-6) in.75/f0.00731 = 609. The machine and operator’s rate = $39.23 = 40.1).5 x 10-6)0.0 in and its diameter = 3.75/cutting edge. and f = feed.29 Q. (24.D Verify that the derivative of Eq.65 x 0.28 Verify that the derivative of Eq.00 per hour including applicable overheads.2 = 52.2.5 x 10-6) in.6{(0.2 ft/min Iteration 3: At v = 355. Tt = (3(25)+45)/4 = 30 sec = 0.23 = 612.65/(0.8 ft/min.(πDL/f)v-2 + (1/n – 1)(TtπDL/fC1/n)v1/n-2 = 0 (πDL/f)v-2 = (1/n – 1)(TtπDL/fC1/n)v1/n-2 = 0 (πDL/f) = (1/n – 1)(Tt πDL/fC1/n)v1/n 1 = (1/n – 1)(Tt /C1/n)v1/n v1/n = C1/n/[(1/n-1)Tt] vmax = C/[(1/n-1)Tt]n 24.5 = 0.(πDL/f)v-2 + (1/n – 1)(CoTt + Ct)(πDL/fC1/n)v1/n-2 = 0 (πDL/f)v-2 = (1/n – 1)(CoTt + Ct)(πDL/fC1/n)v1/n-2 = 0 (πDL/f) = (1/n – 1)(CoTt + Ct)πDL/fC1/n)v1/n 1 = (1/n – 1)((CoTt + Ct)/C1/n)v1/n v1/n = C1/n/[(1/n-1)(CoTt + Ct)] 174 .5 + 1.E.5{0.2 f = (53. Solution: Starting with Eq.5 in.5(10-6) in.75/0.00794 in. the ratio from Figure 24.00725 in.5 + 1.09357}0.2 f = (52.18.55 = 40. 24. (interpreted as in.4 µ-in.4(10-6) in. The Taylor tool life equation for this tool and work combination is given by: vT0. C = vT0. Rearranging Eq.8): Tc = Th + πDL/fv + Tt(πDLv1/n-1)/fC1/n Tc = Th + (πDL/f)v-1 + (TtπDL/fC1/n)v1/n-1 dTc/dv = 0 .5 vmin = 582.55 = 40.4 x 10-6)0./rev for turning) C = vT0.55 = 40.23 = 609.8) results in Eq.65/(0.75)}0.5 = 0.55 = 40.65 x 0.00731 in. = 53. C = vT0.23 = 355.75/0.23 f 0. Solve for (a) the feed in in/rev that will achieve the desired actual finish.5 ft/min Select v = 353.14): Tc = Th + πDL/fv + (CoTt + Ct)(πDLv1/n-1)/fC1/n Tc = Th + (πDL/f)v-1 + (CoTt + Ct)(πDL/fC1/n)v1/n-1 dTc/dv = 0 .4(10-6) in.23 = 40. Solution: Starting with Eq.75)}0.2 = 63(10-6) in.5 ft/min and f = 0.75.00794 = 582.23 = 40.5{(0.

vmax = C/[(1/n-1)(CoTt + Ct)]n Q.D 175 .E.

The mechanisms are: (1) grain fracture. The principal abrasive grit materials include: (1) aluminum oxide.4 Name some of the principal bonding materials used in grinding wheels.9 What are the three mechanisms of grinding wheel wear? Answer.5 What is wheel structure? Answer. 25. High temperatures in grinding create surface burns and cracks. (4) wheel structure. and (3) not all of the grains in the wheel surface are engaged in cutting. High temperatures can also soften the surfaces of workparts that have been heat treated to obtain high hardness. What are the five principal parameters of a grinding wheel? Answer. and (3) bond fracture.smaller chip size means higher specific energy. Important reasons include: (1) applications on all types of materials. in which the grains are pulled out of the bonding material. Wheel structure indicates the relative spacing of the abrasive grains in the wheel.8 Grinding creates high temperatures. Answer. and (3) close tolerances. Reasons for higher specific energy in grinding: (1) size effect . and (5) wheel grade.2 GRINDING AND OTHER ABRASIVE PROCESSES Why are abrasive processes technologically and commercially important? Answer.clay and ceramics. (5) shellac. It indicates the bond strength of the bonding material used to shape the wheel. The parameters are: (1) abrasive material. (2) grit size. and a dense structure indicates that the grains are close together. (3) cubic boron nitride. in which a portion of the grain breaks off during cutting.3 What are some of the principal abrasive materials used in grinding wheels? Answer. which refers to the bond strength of the wheel in retaining abrasive grains.6 What is wheel grade? Answer. The bonding materials in grinding wheels are: (1) vitrified bond . A soft grade indicates that the grains are released easily from the bonding material. (2) silicate. 25. (2) extremely negative rake angles on the abrasive particles in a grinding wheel. in which the grains become dull during cutting. (3) bonding material. A hard wheel is one which retains the abrasive grains. (4) resinoid. 25. (2) attritious wear.1 25. (3) rubber. which refers to the relative spacing of grains. 176 . 25. and (4) diamond. (2) silicon carbide.7 Why are specific energy values so much higher in grinding than in traditional metal cutting processes? Answer.25 25. and (6) metallic. 25. Review Questions 25. some are plowing or deforming while others are simply rubbing and creating friction. An open structure is one in which the grains are far apart. How is temperature harmful in grinding? Answer. Wheel grade refers to the wheel's ability to retain abrasive grains during cutting. 25. (2) very fine finishes.

25. since each correct answer is worth 1 point.and the feed rates are lower by the same proportion. and polishing. Dressing is a procedure applied to worn grinding wheels to break off dull grits and expose fresh grits.several thousand times higher than conventional grinding .10 What is dressing. 25. (3) wash away chips. Answer. Centerless grinding is a grinding operation in which cylindrical workparts (e. all correct answers must be given. and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point. Instead of a grinding wheel. superfinishing. (2) remove heat. buffing.17 Name some of the abrasive operations available to achieve very good surface finishes. the depth of cut is very high . 177 .15 How does creep feed grinding differ from conventional grinding? Answer. 25. or (c) silicon carbide.. rods) are fed between two rotating wheels: (1) a high speed grinding wheel and (2) a low speed regulating wheel which is tilted at a slight angle to control the feed-through rate. 25. in reference to grinding wheels? Answer. in reference to grinding wheels? Answer. To attain a perfect score on the quiz. 25. and to remove chips of work material that have become clogged in the wheel. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers. Answer. It uses a rotating disk or abrasive stick held against the wheel while it rotates. but it also restores the ideal cylindrical shape to the wheel. (c) shaping. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point. Functions of a grinding fluid are: (1) reduce friction. Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 17 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct). abrasive belt grinding uses abrasive particles bonded to a flexible cloth belt loop which is moved through a pulley system to obtain the speed motion. and (4) reduce workpiece temperature. 25. (b) 25. Parts are pressed against the belt to accomplish grinding.11 What is truing. It uses a diamond-pointed tool fed slowly and precisely across the wheel while it rotates.g.25.13 What abrasive material would one select for grinding a cemented carbide cutting tool? Answer.16 How does abrasive belt grinding differ from a conventional surface grinding operation? Answer. (b) milling. Choose a diamond wheel. For each question. What are the functions of a grinding fluid? Answer.12 25. High finish abrasive processes include: honing. which has the highest hardness? (a) aluminum oxide. or (d) turning.1 Which of the following conventional machining processes is closest to grinding (one answer)? (a) drilling.2 Of the following abrasive materials. (b) cubic boron nitride. lapping. Truing is similar to dressing. 25.14 What is centerless grinding? Answer. In creep feed grinding.

Answer. (b) 25.3 Smaller grain size in a grinding wheel tends to do which one of the following? (a) improve surface finish, (b) have no effect on surface finish, or (c) degrade surface finish. Answer. (a) 25.4 Which of the following would tend to give higher material removal rates? (a) larger grain size, or (b) smaller grain size. Answer. (a) 25.5 Which of the following will improve surface finish in grinding (more than one)? (a) higher wheel speed, (b) larger infeed, (c) lower wheel speed, (d) lower work speed. Answer. (a) and (d). 25.6 Which of the following abrasive materials is most appropriate for grinding steel and cast iron (one best answer)? (a) aluminum oxide, (b) cubic boron nitride, (c) diamond, or (d) silicon carbide. Answer. (a) 25.7 Which of the following abrasive materials is most appropriate for grinding hardened tool steel (one best answer)? (a) aluminum oxide, (b) cubic boron nitride, (c) diamond, or (d) silicon carbide. Answer. (b) 25.8 Which of the following abrasive materials is most appropriate for grinding nonferrous metals (one best answer)? (a) aluminum oxide, (b) cubic boron nitride, (c) diamond, or (d) silicon carbide. Answer. (d) 25.9 Which of the following will help to reduce the incidence of heat damage to the work surface in grinding (more than one)? (a) frequent dressing or truing of the wheel, (b) higher infeeds, (c) higher work speeds, or (d) lower wheel speeds. Answer. (a), (c), and (d). 25.10 Which of the following abrasive processes achieves the best surface finish (one best answer)? (a) centerless grinding, (b) honing, (c) lapping, or (d) superfinishing. Answer. (d) 25.11 Which of the following abrasive processes could be used to finish a hole or internal bore (more than one)? (a) centerless grinding, (b) honing, (c) cylindrical grinding, (d) lapping, or (e) superfinishing. Answer. (a), (b), and (c). 25.12 The term deep grinding refers to which of the following (one best answer)? (a) alternative name for any creep feed grinding operation, (b) external cylindrical creep feed grinding, (c) grinding operation performed at the bottom of a hole, (d) surface grinding which uses a large crossfeed, or (e) surface grinding which uses a large infeed. Answer. (b)

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Problems

25.1 In a surface grinding operation the wheel diameter = 150 mm and the infeed = 0.07 mm. The wheel speed = 1450 m/min, work speed = 0.25 m/s, and the cross-feed = 5 mm. The number of active grits per area of wheel surface C = 0.75 grits/mm2. Determine: (a) average length per chip, (b) metal removal rate, and (c) number of chips formed per unit time for the portion of the operation when the wheel is engaged in the work. Solution: (a) lc = (150 x 0.07) 0.5 = 3.24 mm (b) MRR = vwwd = (0.25 m/s)(103 mm/m)(5.0 mm)(0.07 mm) = 87.5 mm3/s = 5250 mm3/min (c) nc = vwC = (1450 m/min)( 103 mm/m)(5.0 mm)(0.75 grits/mm2) = 5,437,500 chips/min. 25.2 The following conditions and settings are used in a certain surface grinding operation: wheel diameter = 6.0 in, infeed = 0.003 in, wheel speed = 4750 ft/min, work speed = 50 ft/min, and cross-feed = 0.20 in. The number of active grits per square inch of wheel surface C = 500. Determine: (a) the average length per chip, (b) the metal removal rate, and (c) the number of chips formed per unit time for the portion of the operation when the wheel is engaged in the work. Solution: (a) lc = (Dd) 0.5 = (6.0 x 0.003) 0.5 = (0.018) 0.5 = 0.1342 in. (b) MRR = vwwd = (50 x 12)(0.20)(0.003) = 0.36 in3/min. (c) nc = vwC = (4750 x 12)(0.2)(500) = 5,700,000 chips/min. 25.3 An internal cylindrical grinding operation is used to finish an internal bore from an initial diameter of 250.00 mm to a final diameter of 252.5 mm. The bore is 125 mm long. A grinding wheel with an initial diameter of 150.00 mm and a width of 20.00 mm is used. After the operation, the diameter of the grinding wheel has been reduced to 149.75 mm. Determine the grinding ratio in this operation. Solution: GR = (volume of work material removed)/(volume of wheel removed) Volume of work material removed = (π/4)(125)(252.52 – 250.02) = 123,332 mm2 Volume of wheel removed = (π/4)(20)(1502 – 149.752) = 1177 mm2 GR = 123,332/1177 = 104.8 25.4 In a surface grinding operation performed on hardened plain carbon steel, the grinding wheel has a diameter = 200 mm and width = 25 mm. The wheel rotates at 2400 rev/min, with a depth of cut (infeed) = 0.05 mm/pass and a cross-feed = 3.50 mm. The reciprocating speed of the work is 6 m/min, and the operation is performed dry. Determine: (a) the length of contact between the wheel and the work, (b) the volume rate of metal removed. (c) If C = 0.64 active grits/mm2, estimate the number of chips formed per unit time. (d) What is the average volume per chip? (e) If the tangential cutting force on the work = 30 N, compute the specific energy in this operation? Solution: (a) lc = (200 x 0.05) 0.5 = 3.16 mm (b) MRR = vwwd = (6 m/min)(103 mm/m)(3.5 mm)(0.05 mm) = 1050 mm3/min (c) nc = vwC v = NπD = (2400 rev/min)(200π mm/rev) = 1,507,964 mm/min nc = (1,507,964 mm/min)(3.5 mm)(0.64 grits/mm2) = 3,377,840 grits/min (= chips/min). (d) 3,377,840 grits/min. = 3,377,840 chips/min. Average volume per chip = (1050 mm3/min)/( 3,377,840 chips/min) = 0.00031 mm3/chip (e) U = Fcv/MRR

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v = 1,507,964 mm/min = 1,508 m/min U = 30(1508)/1050 = 43.1 N-m/mm3 25.5 An 8-in diameter grinding wheel, 1.0 in wide, is used in a certain surface grinding job performed on a flat piece of heat-treated 4340 steel. The wheel is rotating to achieve a surface speed of 5000 ft/min, with a depth of cut (infeed) = 0.002 in per pass and a cross-feed = 0.15 in. The reciprocating speed of the work is 20 ft/min, and the operation is performed dry. (a) What is the length of contact between the wheel and the work? (b) What is the volume rate of metal removed? (c) If C = 300 active grits/in 2, estimate the number of chips formed per unit time. (d) What is the average volume per chip? (e) If the tangential cutting force on the workpiece = 10 lbs, what is the specific energy calculated for this job? Solution: (a) lc = (Dd) 0.5 = (8 x 0.002) 0.5 = (0.016) 0.5 = 0.1265 in. (b) MRR = vwwd = (20 x 12)(0.15)(0.002) = 0.072 in3/min (c) nc = vwC = (5000 x 12)(0.15)(300) = 2,700,000 chips/min. (d) Avg volume/chip = (0.072 in 3/min)/(2,700,000 chips/min) = 0.000000026 in 3 = 26 x 10 -9 in3. (e) U = Fcv/MRR = 10(5000 x 12)/0.072 = 8,333,333 in-lb/in3 = 21 hp/(in3/min). 25.6 A surface grinding operation is being performed on a 6150 steel workpart (annealed, approximately 200 BHN). The designation on the grinding wheel is 51-C-24-D-5-V-23. The wheel diameter = 7.0 in and its width = 1.00 in. Rotational speed = 3000 rev/min. The depth (infeed) = 0.002 in per pass, and the cross-feed = 0.5 in. Workpiece speed = 20 ft/min. This operation has been a source of trouble right from the beginning. The surface finish is not as good as the 16 µ-in specified on the part print, and there are signs of metallurgical damage on the surface. In addition, the wheel seems to become clogged almost as soon as the operation begins. In short, nearly everything that can go wrong with the job has gone wrong. (a) Determine the rate of metal removal when the wheel is engaged in the work. (b) If the number of active grits per square inch = 200, determine the average chip length and the number of chips formed per time. (c) What changes would you recommend in the grinding wheel to help solve the problems encountered? Explain why you made each recommendation. Solution: (a) MRR = vwwd = (20 x 12)(0.5)(0.002) = 0.24 in3/min. (b) lc = (Dd) 0.5 = (7.0 x .002) 0.5 = 0.1183 in. v = πDN = π(7.0/12)(3000) = 5498 ft/min = 65,973 in/min nc = vwC = 65,973(0.5)(200) = 6,597,300 grits/min (c) Changes in wheel to help solve problems cited: (1) use Al2O3 oxide abrasive rather than silicon carbide; (2) use smaller grain size that 24; (3) use shellac bond rather than vitifried bond; (4) use more open structure than number 5 to reduce wheel clogging. 25.7 The grinding wheel in a centerless grinding operation has a diameter = 200 mm, and the regulating wheel diameter = 125 mm. The grinding wheel rotates at 3000 rev/min and the regulating wheel rotates at 200 rev/min. The inclination angle of the regulating wheel = 2.5°. Determine the throughfeed rate of cylindrical workparts that are 25.0 mm in diameter and 175 mm long. Solution: From Eq. (25.11), fr = πDrNr sin I fr = π(125)(200) sin 2.5° = 25,000π(0.04362) = 3426 mm/min Parts throughfeed rate = (3426 mm/min)/(175 mm/pc) = 19.58 pc/min

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25.8

A centerless grinding operation uses a regulating wheel that is 150 mm in diameter and rotates at 500 rev/min. At what inclination angle should the regulating wheel be set, if it is desired to feed a workpiece with length = 3.5 m and diameter = 18 mm through the operation in exactly 45 sec. Solution: From Eq. (25.11), fr = πDrNr sin I fr = 3.5 m per 45 sec = 0.077778 m/s = 4.1667 m/min fr = π(150 x 10-3)(500 rev/min) sin I = 235.62 sin I (units are m/min) 4.1667 m/min = 235.62 sin I m/min sin I = 4.1667/235.62 = 0.0198 I = 1.135° °

25.9

In a certain centerless grinding operation, the grinding wheel diameter = 8.5 in, and the regulating wheel diameter = 5.0 in. The grinding wheel rotates at 3500 rev/min and the regulating wheel rotates at 150 rev/min. The inclination angle of the regulating wheel = 3 degrees. Determine the throughfeed rate of cylindrical workparts that have the following dimensions: diameter = 1.25 in and length = 8.0 in. Solution: From Eq. (25.11), fr = πDrNr sin I = π(5.0)(150) sin 3° = 123.33 in/min. Parts feed at (8.0 in/part)/(123.33 in/min) = 0.0649 min/part = 3.9 sec/part

25.10

It is desired to compare the cycle times required to grind a particular workpiece using traditional surface grinding and using creep feed grinding. The workpiece is 200 mm long, 30 mm wide, and 75 mm thick. To make a fair comparison, the grinding wheel in both cases is 250 mm in diameter, 35 mm in width, and rotates at 1500 rev/min. It is desired to remove 25 mm of material from the surface. When traditional grinding is used, the infeed is set at 0.025 mm, and the wheel traverses twice (forward and back) across the work surface during each pass before resetting the infeed. There is no cross-feed since the wheel width is greater than the work width. Each pass is made at a work speed of 12 m/min, but the wheel overshoots the part on both sides. With acceleration and deceleration, the wheel is engaged in the work for 50% of the time on each pass. When creep feed grinding is used, the depth is increased by 1000 and the forward feed is decreased by 1000. How long will it take to complete the grinding operation (a) with traditional grinding and (b) with creep feed grinding? Solution: (a) Conventional surface grinding: Time of engagement/pass = 200 x 10-3 m/(12 m/min) = 0.01667 min = 1 s Forward and backward stroke = 2(1 s)/50% = 4 s Number of passes to remove 25 mm = 25/0.025 = 1000 passes Time to complete 1000 passes = 1000(4) = 4000 s = 66.67 min. (b) Creep feed grinding: Total length of feed = 200 mm + approach = 200 + (d(D-d))0.5 Given D = 250 mm and d = 25 mm, Total feed length = 200 + (25(250-25))0.5 = 275 mm fr = (12 x 103 mm/min)/1000 = 12 mm/min Time to feed = 275/12 = 22.917 min. Note: Creep feed grinding requires about 1/3 the time of conventional surface grinding for the situation defined here.

25.11

In a certain grinding operation, the grade of the grinding wheel should be “M” (medium), but the only available wheel is grade “T” (hard). It is desired to make the wheel appear softer by making changes in cutting conditions. What changes would you recommend? Solution: A hard wheel means that the grains are not readily pulled from the wheel bond. The wheel can be made to appear softer by increasing the force on the individual grits as given by Eq.

181

(25.8). According to this equation, the force on the abrasive grains will be increased by increasing work speed vw, decreasing wheel speed v, and increasing infeed d. 25.12 An aluminum alloy is to be ground in an external cylindrical grinding operation to obtain a good surface finish. Specify the appropriate grinding wheel parameters and the grinding conditions for this job. Solution: Grinding wheel specification: Abrasive type: silicon carbide Grain size: small - high grit size number Bond material: shellac bond Wheel structure: dense Wheel grade: medium to hard Wheel specification: XX-S-150-E-5-B-XY Grinding conditions: Wheel speed: high speed, around 1800 m/min (6000 ft/min) Work speed: low, around 10 m/min (30 ft/min) Infeed (depth of cut): low, around 0.012 mm (0.0005 in.) Crossfeed: low, around 1/6 of wheel width. 25.13 A high speed steel broach (hardened) is to be resharpened to achieve a good finish. Specify the appropriate parameters of the grinding wheel for this job. Solution: Grinding wheel specification: Abrasive type: cubic boron nitride Grain size: small - high grit size number Bond material: vitrified bond Wheel grade: soft to medium Wheel specification: XX-B-150-P-XY-V-XZ-1/8, where XX, XY, and XZ are manufacturer’s symbols. 25.14 Based on equations in the text, derive an equation to compute the average volume per chip formed in the grinding process. Solution: From Eq. (25.3), MRR = vwwd (in3/min) From Eq. (25.6), nc = vwC (chips/min) Volume per chip = MRR/nc = vwwd/vwC = v wd/vC

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(3) thermal. cavity.9 What is meant by the term overcut in electric discharge machining? Answer. and (2) cost of disposal of electrolyte sludge. The tool oscillates in a direction perpendicular to the work surface. Answer.8 How does increasing discharge current affect metal removal rate and surface finish in electric discharge machining? Answer.7 Name the three main types of electrochemical machining. Overcut refers to the difference between the size of the electrode (tool) in EDM and the size of the machined hole. Answer. and (4) chemical. and AJM cuts with abrasive particles that have been added to a high velocity air stream. deburring.10 Identify two major disadvantages of plasma arc cutting. and abrasive jet cutting? Answer. Identify the significant disadvantages of electrochemical machining. so that the shape of the tool is formed in the part. abrasive water jet cutting. As discharge current increases.3 How does the ultrasonic machining process work? Answer. Water jet cutting uses a high-pressure. 26. The four categories are: (1) mechanical. 26. and grinding. WJC cuts with a narrow.1 Why are the nontraditional material removal processes important? Answer. 26. high velocity water stream. abrasives contained in a slurry are driven at high velocity against the work by a tool vibrating at low amplitude and high frequency. Answer. based on principal energy form.26 NONTRADITIONAL MACHINING AND THERMAL CUTTING PROCESSES Review Questions 26. 183 . and is fed slowly into the work. Disadvantages of ECM include: (1) cost of electrical power to operate the process. high-velocity stream of water directed at the work surface to cut of the work.4 Describe the water jet cutting process.5 What is the difference between water jet cutting. and (3) need to avoid surface damage which is often associated with conventional machining. In ultrasonic machining. impinging against the work surface. 26. 26.6 26. 26. or kerf (in wire EDM). but not including conventional machining. 26. (2) unusual and complex workpart geometries. AWJC adds abrasive grits to the water stream. Reasons for importance are: (1) need to shape new metal alloys and non-metals that are difficult to machine by conventional processes. The abrasives. Answer. perform the cutting. (2) electrical. MRR increases and surface finish is degraded. The three types are: electrochemical machining. 26. Name the four categories.2 There are four categories of nontraditional machining processes.

(c) 8300°C (15.11 What are some of the fuels used in oxyfuel cutting. and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point. (d) ultrasonic machining. 26. (d) 11.500°C (30. propane. Two disadvantages are: (1) rough surface on cut edge. (c) removing material to make shallow pockets in metal. all correct answers must be given. (b) making intricate patterns in sheet metal.2 Ultrasonic machining can be used to machine both metallic and nonmetallic materials: (a) true or (b) false. (b) 26.000°F).5 Chemical milling is used in which of the following (may be more than one)? (a) drilling holes with high depth-to. propylene. and natural gas 26. (2) screen resist. (3) etching. MAPP (methylacetylene-propadiene). The three steps are: (1) cut and peel. and (4) demasking.14 Name the four principal steps in chemical machining. 184 . (b) laser beam machining. (c) milling. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point. Answer.Answer. When exposed. What are the three methods of performing the masking step in chemical machining.4 Which one of the following is closest to the temperatures used in plasma arc cutting? (a) 2750°C (5000°F). (2) masking. To attain a perfect score on the quiz.000°F). Principal fuels are acetylene. 26.000°C (20. 26. (a) 26. Answer. (b) 5500°C (10. since each correct answer is worth 1 point. (c) and (d). (e) water jet cutting.12 26. (c). The four steps are: (1) cleaning. (d) 26. Answer. and (f) wire EDM. (d) removing metal from aircraft wing panels. leaving the desired surface unprotected by the maskant. A photoresist is a masking material that is sensitive to light. Answer. (a). For each question. (e) 16.13 26. Answer. and (e) cutting of plastic sheets.1 Which of the following processes use mechanical energy as the principal energy source (may be more than one)? (a) grinding. Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 18 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct). Answer. Answer. Answer. and (e). and (2) metallurgical damage to cut surface.3 Applications of electron beam machining are limited to metallic work materials due to the need for the work to be electrically conductive: (a) true or (b) false.000°F).diameter ratio. it chemically transforms and can be removed from the surface of the work. (d). What is a photoresist in chemical machining? Answer.000°F). and (3) photographic resist. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers.

25 inch on a side and 1-inch deep in a steel workpiece (one best answer)? (a) abrasive jet machining. (d) A blind-hole in the shape of the letter G in a 50 mm (2. I = current. and (g) water jet cutting. Answer. Of the following processes. and u = undercut. (c) EDM. Answer. 75 by 125 mm (3. (f) water jet cutting. (b) chemical milling.1 For each of the following applications. (a) A matrix of 0. (c) laser beam machining. 0. where A = degree of anisotropy. Answer. and (g) wire EDM. (c) EDM. (b) An engraved aluminum printing plate to be used in an offset printing press to make 275 by 350 mm (11 by 14 in) posters of Lincoln's Gettysburg address. d = depth of cut. (e) oxyfuel cutting. (a) and (d). (c) EDM. (c) Which of the following processes would be appropriate for cutting a narrow slot. the depth of the hole is 3.5 in) thick plate of glass.0625 in). (d) laser beam machining.0 in) with the separation between holes in each direction = 1. (d) laser beam machining. The size of the "L" is 25 by 15 mm (1. Answer. and (e) u/d.015 inch wide. (d) laser beam machining. and (g) wire EDM. C = specific removal rate.1 mm (0. (d) oxyfuel cutting.10 26. (b) chemical milling. (b) chemical milling.0 in) cube of steel.7 26. less than 0.0 by 0. which one is noted for the highest material removal rates? (a) electric discharge machining.15 in).004 in) diameter holes in a plate of 3.75 in). (e) plasma arc cutting.6 Etch factor is which of the following in chemical machining (more than one)? (a) A. Answer.003 inch diameter through a plate of aluminum that is 1/16-inch thick (one best answer)? (a) abrasive jet machining. (c) C I t.0 by 5. and (g) wire EDM.2 mm (0. and present arguments to support your selection. The overall size of the "G" is 25 by 19 mm (1. (f) water jet cutting. (e) and (g). (b) chemical milling. (f) water jet cutting. Answer. (d) Which of the following processes could be used to cut a large piece of 1/2-inch plate steel into two sections (more than one)? (a) abrasive jet machining. (b) 1/A. identify one or more nontraditional machining processes that might be used. (e) Which of the following processes would be appropriate to drill a hole with a square cross-section. (d) laser beam machining.8 mm (0. (b) electrochemical machining. (c) EDM.11 Problems General 26. The matrix is rectangular. (e) oxyfuel cutting. (e) oxyfuel cutting.6 mm ( 0.8 26. Which of the following processes would be appropriate for cutting a hole of 0. 26. (d) d/u.9 26.26. (f) ultrasonic machining. 185 . (e) oxyfuel cutting.6 in) and the width of the hole is 3 mm (1/8 in). (d) and (f).0 by 0.125 in) thick hardened tool steel. Assume that either the part geometry or the work material (or both) preclude the use of conventional machining. in a 3/8. and its width is 3 mm (1/8 in). t = time.5 mm (0. (c) A through-hole in the shape of the letter L in a 12. and (g) wire EDM.inch thick sheet of fiber-reinforced plastic (more than one)? (a) abrasive jet machining. (f) water jet cutting.

by 14 in posters.6 mm3/min At 90% efficiency MRR = 0. Rearranging.56 mm3/s = 3693. The applied current = 1500 amps. and the voltage = 12 volts. 26.125 inch thick hardened steel.5 in 2..004 = 31. Possible processes: EBM and LBM can make holes of this size with depth-to-diameter ratios as large as 0.2).004 in. but production is slow and scrap rates are high. What do you think? Justify your answer by indicating the characteristics of the process that make PAC attractive or unattractive in this application. whose specific removal rate C is given in Table 26. (a) If the process is 90% efficient. hole diameter = 0. WJC cuts through fabrics quickly and cleanly. Solution: In plasma arc cutting. Manual methods based on portable saws are currently used to perform the cutting operation. (b) Application: engraved aluminum printing press plate for 11 in.9(3693. The material being cut is nickel (valence = 2). making a negative of the speech and transferring this to either a silk screen or directly to the photoresist would seem to be the most straightforward methods. The foreman says the company should invest in a plasma arc cutting machine. and the process could be readily automated. the workpart must be an electrically conductive material.25.3 A furniture company that makes upholstered chairs and sofas must cut large quantities of fabrics.1.15 in. but the plant manager thinks it would be too expensive. This is probably the best process.2 mm3/min (b) Given resistivity r = 140 ohm-mm. (d) Application: the letter “G” drilled to a depth of 0. whose specific removal rate C is indicated in Table 26. Electrochemical Machining 26.6 mm3/min) = 3324. The material being cut is pure aluminum. C = 3. What nontraditional process(es) would you recommend to the company for this application? Justify your answer by indicating the characteristics of the process that make it attractive. (a) If the ECM process is 90 percent 186 .1. Possible process: USM works on glass and other brittle non-metallic materials. in block of steel.0625 in. separation between holes = 0.42 x 10-2 mm3/A-s From Eq. (c) Application: through-hole in the shape of the letter “L” drilled through 0. Solution: Water jet cutting would be an ideal process for this application.5 inch thick plate glass. Fiber glass is not electrically conductive. 26.5 In an electrochemical machining operation. Possible process: photochemical engraving. (26. (26. which properties make them difficult to cut. g = EA/Ir g = (12 V)(2000 mm2)/(1800 A)(140 ohm-mm) = 0. Possible processes: ECM and EDM would be useful for pocketing operations such as this.095 mm 26.42 x 10-2 mm3/A-s)(1800 A) = 6156 x 10-2 mm3/s = 61.2 Much of the work at the Cut-Anything Company involves cutting and forming of flat sheets of fiber-glass for the pleasure boat industry. Many of these fabrics are strong and wear-resistant.Solution: (a) Application: matrix of holes in 0. PAC is therefore not an appropriate process for this application. (b) If the resistivity of the electrolyte = 140 ohm-mm. the frontal working area of the electrode is 2. determine the working gap? Solution: (a) From Table 26.1.125/0. determine the rate of metal removal in mm3/min. LBM might also work. I = EA/gr in Eq.6) MRR = frA = (CI/A)A = CI = (3.4 The frontal working area of the electrode is 2000 mm2 in a certain ECM operation in which the applied current = 1800 amps and the voltage = 12 volts.

1 in/min. what current will be required to complete the cutting operation in 20 minutes? Solution: Electrode frontal gap area A = 0.23 = 664(20)/(2321.0000476 I I = 0.005 in on a side.349 mm/s) = 57.189(0.3675 mm/s) = 0.8.25π(3.5)/(1500 x 6. determine the working gap? Solution: (a) From Table 26. (b) If the resistivity of the electrolyte = 6.1. and its shape includes a hole in its center to permit the flow of electrolyte and to reduce the area of the cut.3 s 26.52 .0 in thick.6 A square hole is to be cut using ECM through a plate of pure copper (valence = 1) that us 20 mm thick.000126(1500) = 0.0 inch thickness in 20 minutes requires a feed rate fr = 2. 26.349 mm/s Time to machine = (20 mm)/(0. (a) Determine the amount of metal removed in the operation after one hour at a discharge amperage = 20 amps. Solution: (a) From Table 4. Use U.553 = 0.efficient. Use metric units and express the answer in mm3.1.0000476 = 2101 A.000126 in 3/A-min. MRR = KI/Tm1. (26. (b) If the work material were tin. Solution: From Table 26.189 in 3/min at 100% efficiency. (26.3. Tm = 232°C for tin From Eq.2) = 0.0000529 I in/min at 100% efficiency.355 mm3/s = 58.35 x 10-2 mm3/A-s From Eq. g = EA/Ir = 12(2.5997 mm3/s = 2159 mm3 (b) From Table 4.280/812 = 16.S. The applied current = 1000 amps.0/20 = 0.0000529 I) = 0.9(0. C = 0.553 in 2 From Table 26.35 x 10-2 mm3/A-s)(1000 A)/(200 mm2) = 0.23 = 664(20)/(34101.1. The hole is 25 mm on each side. the electrode tool will have a center hole of 3.7). C = 7.0032 in.3675 mm/s At 95% efficiency. C = 0.000135 I/2. Rearranging.1 = 0.7).02) = 2.0 in which will produce a center core that can be removed after the tool breaks through. The outside diameter of the electrode is undersized to allow for overcut. determine the rate of metal removal in in 3/hr. except the new material to be compared with tungsten is zinc. At 90% efficiency fr = 0.0000476 I in/min.280/22. MRR = KI/Tm1. The block is 2.000135 in 3/A-min.9 Same as Problem 26. fr = CI/A = 0.146 = 0.6) fr = CI/A = (7.1/0.8 An electric discharge machining operation is being performed on tungsten. To speed the cutting process. Using an efficiency of 95%. but the electrode that is used to cut the hole is slightly less that 25 mm on its sides to allow for overcut. To cut through a 2. fr = 0.7 A 3.1701 in 3/min = 10. determine the amount of material removed in the same time. (26.878 mm3 26. fr = 0. At 90% efficiency MRR = 0. MRR = fr x A = (CI/A)(A) = CI MRR = CI = 0. If the efficiency of the ECM operation is 90%.206 in3/hr. Customary units and express the answer in in 3.23) = 13.95(0.90) = 0.1.23) = 13.2 ohm-in. Electric Discharge Machining 26. determine how long it will take to cut the hole.5 in diameter through-hole is to be cut in a block of pure iron (Valence = 2) by electrochemical machining. 187 . Tm = 3410°C for tungsten From Eq. (b) I = EA/gr. This tool design results in a frontal area of 200 mm2. The overcut is expected to be 0.1.

so that the kerf width will be 0.1. MRR = 664(10)/(15001.80% carbon steel from the phase diagram of Figure 6.0) = 1.125 mm.23 = 5.23) = 101.08(34. Past experience suggests that the overcut will be 0.007) = 0.08 I/28021.75(0.08(20)/(4201.4. Tm = 6170°F for tungsten From Eq. 3/s = 0.11 A metal removal rate of 0. (26. MRR = 5. Tm = 2802°F for iron.0/0.7).08(7)/12201. 26.57 hr.00221 in. 3 (b) From Table 4. Tm = 1220°F for aluminum. in preliminary cuts.23) = 101. Using Eq. From Table 4. Time to machine the 2.6/45. Using a discharge current = 10 amps. Using a discharge current = 7 amps.23 = 5. 26.7).005 in.1. Tm = 2802°F for iron.1327 in. 3/s = 3.6/17.56/6255 = 0. Tm = 2651 F for iron.6/1685 = 0.00525 = 1. MRR = 5. MRR = 5.7 were to be cut using EDM rather than ECM. (26.24)/26511.000292 = 34.1.248 = 0.393 = 0. how long would it take to cut the hole? Solution: For EDM.7). so that the kerf width will be 0. what is the allowable feed rate that can be used in the operation? Estimate the melting temperature of 0.925 = 0.000292 I = 0. MRR = KI/Tm1. what is the expected allowable feed rate that can be used in the operation? Solution: From Table 4.01/0. MRR = 5.1.000292 I in 3/min Given that MRR = 0.93/16.02 mm.23 = 35.002293 = 874.00584/2.4. 3 26.165(7.12 In a wire EDM operation performed on 7 mm thick C1080 steel using a tungsten wire electrode whose diameter = 0.165 mm.08(20)/(61701. using Eq.62 in. (27.0107 in3/min 26.01 in 3/min is achieved in a certain EDM operation on a pure iron workpart. (26.001 in.3 min = 14.553 in 2 fr = MRR/A = 0.00525 in 2 fr = 0. the surface finish on the cut edge is poor. Tm = 1500°C for 1080 steel Using Eq.007 in.553 = 0.155 = 42.002293 in/min.23) = 6640/8065 = 0.23 = 173.23 (USCS).13 A wire EDM operation is to be performed on a slab of 3/4 in thick aluminum using a brass wire electrode whose diameter = 0.01 in 3/min. What changes in discharge current and frequency of discharges should be made to improve the finish? 188 .01 I = 0.79 mm/min 26. MRR = KI/Tm1.Solution: (a) From Table 4.08 I/Tm1.155 mm2 fr = 49. From Table 4. Solution: From Figure 6.8233 mm3/s Frontal area of kerf = 0.7).005685 in 3/min Frontal area of kerf = 0.4/1. MRR = 5. if the same discharge current were used? Solution: From Table 4.23 = 101. 0.393 = 0.1.23 = 5. Tm = 420°F for Zinc From Eq. However. What metal removal rate would be achieved on nickel in this EDM operation.005685/0.0603 in. It is anticipated that the overcut will be 0.083 in/min.1. (26.24 A.14 A wire EDM operation is used to cut out punch and die components from 25 mm thick tool steel plates.08 I/17.7). Using a discharge current = 20 amps (which would be typical for EDM).0 inch thickness = 2.10 Suppose the hole in Problem 26.00584 in 3/min Cross-sectional area of tool from previous problem A = 2.08(20)/28021.

(c) Given Fe = 2.75.75 = 6.14 mm 26.024 mm/min)(79. undercut u = d/Fe = 0. The semiaxes of the ellipse are: a = 9.4 mm3/min.0 – 0.0. Analyze the problem and recommend a solution. = 6.15 Chemical milling is used in an aircraft plant to create pockets in wing sections made of an aluminum alloy. and that the material removal rate (MRR) would therefore increase during the cut as the area increased.0 in and b = 6.28 mm Radius on corners = R – u = 15 – 6. The corners of each rectangle are radiused to 15 mm. A = 200 x 400 – (30 x 30 . = 8. (c) Given Fe = 1.65 in.16965 in 3/min = 10. Specified tolerances of ±0. 189 . the process is producing a large proportion of scrap.0) = 54π = 169.28 mm Maskant opening width = W – 2u = 200 – 2(6. Determine: (a) metal removal rate in mm3/min.86 = 8.Solution: As indicated in Figure 26. by 6 in. As it turns out.001 in/min)(169.0 in.9(a). Solution: (a) Neglecting the fact that the initial area would be less than the given dimensions of 9 in.024 = 500 min.0 – 0.000 – 193 = 79.0)(6.4/2. (b) time required to machine to the specified depth.67 hr.001 = 400 min. Chemical Machining 26." he suggests. (b) time required to machine to depth.4/0.65 in 2) = 0. (c) required dimensions of the opening in the cut and peel maskant to achieve the desired pocket size on the part.2 mm Maskant opening a’ = a – u = 9. The part is an aluminum alloy and the etchant is NaOH.2 = 8.024 mm/min and the etch factor is 1.2 = 5. A solution of hydrochloric and nitric acids will be used as the etchant.0 = 0. it is desired to cut an ellipse-shaped pocket to a depth of 0. The foreman in the CHM department complains that there must be something wrong with the sulfuric acid. The sheet is 0.8 in Maskant opening b’ = b – u = 6. A series of rectangular-shaped pockets 12 mm deep are to be formed with dimensions 200 mm by 400 mm.8 in 26. The photoresist method should have been used.86 mm Maskant opening length = L – 2u = 400 – 2(6. area of an ellipse A = πab = π(9. The penetration rate for this combination is 0. and that the material removal rate (MRR) would therefore increase during the cut as the area increased. The starting thickness of one workpart of interest is 20 mm.17 In a certain chemical blanking operation.33 hr.π(15) 2) = 80. The screen resist method of masking was used to permit high production rates to be achieved.. (b) Time to machine (etch) = 12/0. (c) required dimensions of the opening in cut and peel maskant required to achieve the desired pocket size on the part. Solution: The problem in this chemical blanking operation is that the screen resist method of masking cannot achieve the tolerances specified.4 in. a sulfuric acid etchant is used to remove material from a sheet of magnesium alloy.86) = 386.86) = 186. "Perhaps the concentration is incorrect.18 in3/hr (b) Time to machine (etch) = 0.025 mm are not being achieved. and the process should be changed over to adopt this method. 2 MRR = (0. surface finish in EDM could be improved by reducing discharge current and increasing frequency of discharges. Solution: (a) Neglecting the fact that the initial area would be less than the given dimensions of 200 mm by 400 mm.807 mm2) = 1915.75.25 mm thick. Determine: (a) metal removal rate in in3/hr. undercut u = d/Fe = 12/1.807 mm2 MRR = (0.16 In a chemical milling operation on a flat mild steel plate.

0043) = 0.2(0. the effective hole depth on each side = one-half of the stock thickness = 0. If photochemical machining is used to cut these holes. In chemical blanking. consisting of a matrix of 0. etching will occur on both sides of the part.100 .2. Solution: From Table 26.18 In a chemical blanking operation. stock thickness of the aluminum sheet is 0.0914 in.75 = 0. determine the diameter of the holes that should be used in the pattern. Therefore. 190 . Diameter of opening = 0.0075/1. and contact printing is used to make the resist (maskant) pattern.0075 in.75.015 in.26.0043 in. Fe = 1.100 in diameter holes. The pattern to be cut out of the sheet is a hole pattern. Undercut u = 0.015/2 = 0.

Metals are heat treated to effect metallurgical changes that beneficially alter properties.12 Identify the selective surface hardening methods. Precipitation hardening is a heat treatment in which very fine particles (precipitates) are formed so that dislocation movement is blocked and the metal is thus strengthened and hardened. Hardenability is the relative capacity of a steel to be hardened by transformation to martensite. and increase toughness and ductility.7 Define hardenability? Answer. manganese. Answer. Carburizing adds carbon to the surface of low-C steel. Answer. The TTT curve indicates what phases in the iron.2 HEAT TREATMENT OF METALS Why are metals heat treated? Answer.10 Define precipitation hardening? Answer. Indicate how the hardenability alloying elements in steel affect the TTT curve.5 What information is conveyed by the TTT curve? Answer. 27. followed by slow cooling to reduce brittleness.1 27. What is the mechanism by which carbon strengthens steel during heat treatment? Answer. (3) recrystallize cold-worked metals. (2) reduce brittleness and improve toughness. Tempering involves heating and soaking of martensite for about one hour. 191 . 27.carbon phase diagram will be produced under various conditions of cooling. The hardenability alloying elements operate by pushing the nose of the TTT curve to the right. martensite is formed which depends on the presence of carbon to create the nonequilibrium structure of this phase.8 27.9 Name some of the elements which have the greatest effect on the hardenability of steel. 27. molybdenum.4 What is the most important heat treatment for hardening steels? Answer. and nickel.11 How does carburizing work? Answer. If the steel is heat treated. 27. 27. 27. and (4) relieve stresses from prior metal working. thereby transforming the surface into high-C steel for grater hardening potential. 27.27 27. Martensite formation by heating steel into the austenite region and quenching. Answer. The purposes of annealing include: (1) control properties. Identify the important reasons why metals are annealed.6 What function is served by tempering? Answer.3 27. Review Questions 27. Important hardenability elements are: chromium. thereby permitting slower cooling rates for conversion of austenite to martensite. relieve stresses.

Answer. (d) chromizing. which one produces the most rapid cooling rate? (a) air.Answer. or (d) pure water. (c) carburizing. (a) 27. (c) The reader might be tempted to select (d) because the Jominy test indicates hardness.6 In precipitation hardening. (e) quenching. or (f) tempering.1 Which of the following are the usual objectives of heat treatment (more than one)? (a) increase hardness. 192 . Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers. To attain a perfect score on the quiz. and (f). induction hardening. or (e) nitriding. (f) 27. (b) quenching. (c) oil. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point. (d). (b) brass. (b) annealing. electron beam (EB) heating. (c) austenitizing. (c) hardenability. all correct answers must be given. (b). (c). or (f) relieve stresses. (a).5 The Jominy end-quench test is designed to indicate which one of the following? (a) cooling rate. (b) carbonitriding. For each question. (d) hardness. however. high-frequency (HF) resistance heating. (d) normalizing. Answer. Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 14 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct). (c) induction heating. (d) 27. 27. (b) increase toughness. or (e) vacuum furnaces. (c). or (c) solution treatment. or (e) strength.4 The treatment in which the brittleness of martensite is reduced is called which one of the following? (a) aging. 27.8 Which of the following are selective surface hardening methods (more than one)? (a) electron beam heating.3 On which one of the following metals can the treatment called austenitizing be performed? (a) aluminum alloys. (a). and laser beam (LB) heating. Answer. (b) 27. 27. (d) reduce brittleness. (b) fluidized bed furnaces. and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point. (b) ductility. (c) 27. the reason for measuring hardness in the Jominy test is to measure hardenability. Answer. (e) reduce density. since each correct answer is worth 1 point. Answer.2 Of the following quenching media. the hardening and strengthening of the metal occurs in which one of the following steps (one answer only)? (a) aging. and (d). The selective surface hardening methods include: flame hardening. (c) copper alloys. (d) laser beam heating. (b) brine. or (d) steel. Answer. Answer. Answer. (c) recrystallization of the metal.7 Which one of the following surface hardening treatments is the most common? (a) boronizing.

and enhancing surface properties. and dust. (4) acid cleaning and pickling. what is the main function performed by shot peening? Answer. Basic contaminant types are: (1) oil and grease. 28.3 What are the basic types of contaminants that must be cleaned from metallic surfaces in manufacturing? Answer. What are the reasons? Answer. The reasons include: (1) to prepare the surface for subsequent industrial processing. and (5) ultrasonic cleaning. 28. polishing. The chemical cleaning methods can be categorized as follows: (1) alkaline cleaning. Reasons for mechanical surface treatments include: deburring. alloy steels. 28. but the process involves penetration of high. (2) solid particles. Calorizing is the diffusion of aluminum into carbon steel. lapping. 28. rust.28 CLEANING AND SURFACE TREATMENTS Review Questions 28. and scale.9 What is calorizing? Answer.2 Mechanical surface treatments are often performed for reasons other than or in addition to cleaning. abrasive grits. 28. Diffusion coating is a diffusion process in which atoms or molecules move across a boundary between two contacting materials. (2) emulsion cleaning. improving smoothness. Mechanical cleaning methods include: belt grinding.8 What is the difference between diffusion and ion implantation? Answer. 28. usually in a barrel by the mixing action of an abrasive media. 28.7 What is meant by the term mass finishing? Answer. Shot peening is primarily used to improve the fatigue strength of metals by introducing cold working the metallic surface. 193 .4 Identify some of the mechanical cleaning methods. such as metal chips. shop dirt. The process is also known as aluminizing. Ion implantation produces a similar result. (3) solvent cleaning. These method also accomplish other functions such as deburring and surface finish improvement. and (4) to enhance product appearance and performance. and mass finishing (such as barrel tumbling). (2) to improve hygiene conditions. and the alloys of nickel and cobalt. Answer. 28.1 What are some of the important reasons why manufactured parts must be cleaned? Answer.5 In addition to surface cleaning.6 Name some of the important chemical cleaning methods. adding luster. parts are mechanically cleaned and deburred in bulk. honing. In mass finishing. (3) to remove contaminants which might chemically react with the surface. (3) buffing and polishing compounds. and (4) oxide films. Answer. buffing.velocity ions into the surface of a substrate material.

(b) corundum. all correct answers must be given. (b) crushed nut shells. include which of the following (more than one)? (a) Al2O3.4 In sand blasting. Answer.6 Which of the following processes generally produces a deeper penetration of atoms in the impregnated surface? (a) diffusion or (b) ion implantation. (b) doping. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers. (d) to prepare the surface for subsequent processing.8 Carburizing involves which one of the following? (a) acid pickling.5 The abrasive media used in mass finishing. (d) limestone. (d) SiC. (b) Principal function is to cold work the surface to improve fatigue strength. (c) emery. (b) blast finishing. (a) 28. (a). (c) to improve hygiene conditions for worker. (c).2 Which of the following chemicals is associated with alkaline cleaning (more than one)? (a) borax. or (e) vapor degreasing. or (e) SiO 2. (b).3 Shot peening is a mechanical cleaning method used primarily to remove surface scale from metallic parts: (a) true or (b) false. such as barrel tumbling. and (e). (d).Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 16 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct). and (e) SiC. Answer. (a). (e) 28. or (d) siliconizing. For each question. (b) sodium hydroxide. 28. (a) 28.1 Reasons why workparts must be cleaned include which of the following (more than one)? (a) for better appearance. (d). Answer. 28. (b). (c) nylon beads. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point. (b) to enhance mechanical properties of the surface. Answer. Answer. 28. or (d) trichlorethylene.7 Calorizing is the same as which of the following? (a) aluminizing. (c) sulfuric acid. 28. which one of the following abrasives is used? (a) Al2O3. and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point. since each correct answer is worth 1 point. (d) tumbling. (c) diffusion. 28. (c). Answer. (a). or (e) to remove contaminants that might chemically attack the surface. and (e). Answer. Answer. To attain a perfect score on the quiz. (c) hot sand blasting. (c) 194 .

3 What are the many reasons why a metallic surface is plated? Answer. (2) enhance appearance. How is the part removed from a solid mandrel? Answer. (4) increased electrical conductivity. (3) vapor deposition processes such as PVD and CVD. Answer. 29.4 What is meant by the term cathode efficiency in electroplating? Answer. 29. 29. (2) chemical surface treatments. (3) wear resistance. and oxides.9 What is a conversion coating? Answer. Anodizing uses electrochemical processing methods to convert the metallic surface. such as a taper. Parts are also sometimes removed by taking advantage of a difference in coefficient of thermal expansion. (2) attractive appearance. that permit the part to be removed.10 How does anodizing differ from other conversion coatings? Answer.8 How does electroless plating differ from electrochemical plating? Answer. (5) improved solderability. (3) provide a specified color. chromates. The cathode efficiency is the actual amount of metal deposited on the surface relative to the theoretical amount given by Eq. and (6) enhanced lubricity of the surface. Review Questions 29. Steel. Identify the most common types of coating processes. 195 . The most common conversion coatings are phosphates. (1) Corrosion protection. and (2) sacrificial protection. A conversion coating is a thin coating produced by chemical reaction of the metallic surface. 29. (4) organic coating painting. in which the coating metal corrodes sacrificially to protect the substrate. such as anodizing.1 29.7 What is the most commonly plated substrate metal? Answer. and (4) prepare surface for subsequent processing. The common coating processes are: (1) plating. 29. A solid mandrel has certain geometric features. One of the mandrel types in electroforming is a solid mandrel.6 29.2 COATING AND DEPOSITION PROCESSES Why are metals coated? Answer. and (6) thermal and mechanical treatments. The mechanisms are (1) barrier protection. in which the coating simply covers the substrate to protect it. electroplating uses electrolysis.5 What are the two basic mechanisms of corrosion protection? Answer.29 29. (33. The reasons are: (1) corrosion protection of the substrate metal. (5) porcelain enameling.1). Electroless plating uses only chemical reactions to form the plating. 29. Best example is aluminum anodizing.

spraying. Answer. 29. These methods are described in Article 33. 29.16 Define sputtering yield? Answer. What is a commonly used coating material deposited by PVD onto cutting tools? Answer.18 What are the two most common titanium compounds that are coated onto cutting tools by chemical vapor deposition? Answer.2.19 29. Transfer efficiency indicates how much of the organic coating liquid reaches the target surface. The major ingredients are: (1) binder.13 What are some of the applications of PVD? Answer.15 Name the three basic types of PVD. the coating vapors are synthesized by heating the coating material and allowing it to condense as a thin film on the surface of the workpart. Advantages include: (1) capability to deposit refractory materials at temperatures below their melting or sintering temperatures.21 Describe the principal methods by which organic coatings are applied to a surface. which are polymers. 29.. (2) dyes or pigments. and cutting tool coatings (e. indicate the distinction. deposition of metal in electronic connections. 29. and (3) ion plating. TiN). 29. Identify the four major types of ingredients in organic coatings? Answer. Titanium nitride (TiN). 29. The main methods include: brushing and rolling. In CVD a coating is formed on a heated substrate by the chemical reaction or dissociation of vapors and/or gases. Physical vapor deposition (PVD) refers to a family of processes in which a material is converted to its vapor phase in a vacuum chamber and condensed onto a substrate surface as a very thin film. antireflection coatings on optical lenses. and flow coating. which provide color.17 What are some of the advantages of chemical vapor deposition? Answer. (3) solvents. 29. Answer.14 29. immersion (dip coating).12 What is the difference between physical vapor deposition (PVD) and chemical vapor deposition (CVD)? Answer. The three types are: (1) vacuum evaporation. PVC applications include: decorative coatings on trophies and automotive trim.g. (3) process is performed at atmospheric pressure.29. 29. In PVD.4. and (4) good bonding to substrate surface. Sputtering yield is defined as the number of atoms ejected from the surface of a substance per ion bombarding the surface.20 What is meant by the term transfer efficiency in organic coating technology? Answer. (2) sputtering. and (4) additives such as surfactants and plasticizers. Titanium carbide (TiC) and aluminum oxide (Al2O3) might also be mentioned.22 The terms drying and curing have different meanings. the reaction product nucleates and grows on the substrate surface. (2) grain size control. 196 .11 What is physical vapor deposition? Answer. 29. TiC and TiN.

To attain a perfect score on the quiz.4 Which of the following is most typical of the thickness of an electroplated coating (choose either of two acceptable answers)? (a) 0.7 Sputtering is a form of which one of the following? (a) chemical vapor deposition. (d) tin.5 Which of the following processes involves electrochemical reactions (more than one)? (a) anodizing. Mechanical galvanizing refers to the mechanical plating of zinc onto a substrate.2 Which one of the following terms is used in connection with dip coating of lead onto a substrate such as sheet steel? (a) aluminizing. (e) 29. Drying means evaporation of solvents in the organic coating liquid. Answer. Answer. (d) titanium. since each correct answer is worth 1 point. either (a) or (b) is acceptable 29. (c) 0.001 in. Answer. (d) ion implantation. (c) conversion coating.100 in.6 With which one of the following metals is anodizing most commonly associated (one answer)? (a) aluminum.23 29. Answer. Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 17 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct). each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point. (a) and (d).24 In porcelain enameling. (b) chromium. (d) galvanizing. (b) lead. what is frit? Answer. (b) defect in arc welding. (e) 29. What does the term mechanical galvanizing refer to? Answer.3 Which one of the following plating metal is associated with the term galvanizing? (a) iron.Answer. Answer. with thicknesses up to 0. all correct answers must be given. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers. (c) copper. Answer.010 in. Curing involves a chemical change in the organic resin (polymerization and/or cross-linking) which hardens the coating. (a) 29. (c) diffusion. (d) electroplating. (b) 29. (d) nickel.003 in. or (e) phosphate coatings. Answer. (c) steel. 29. or (e) zinc. or (d) 0. 29. (b) anodizing. (c) steel. or (e) zinc. Frit is glassy porcelain prepared as fine particles (powders) by crushing and milling. (b) 0. (b) magnesium. 29. and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point. For each question. (e) 197 . or (e) tin. (b) chromate coatings. or (e) physical vapor deposition.0001 in.1 Which one of the following plate metals produces the hardest surface on a metallic substrate? (a) cadmium. or (e) terneplating. (c) electroless plating.

(b) hard facing. cathode efficiency E = 95%.1 ρ = 7. or (d) metal spraying. What average plating thickness will result if 15 amps are applied for 10 minutes in a chromic acid-sulfate bath? 198 .9 29.75 x 10-2 mm3/A-s)(15 A)(12 min)(60 s/min) = 487. (c) physical vapor deposition for coating TiN onto cutting tools. or (d) reducing nickel carbonyl to metallic Ni.12 29.14 Problems Electroplating 29. (b) chlorine. (c) molten liquid. Answer. Answer. (b) liquid solution. Answer. C = 4.13 29. What average plating thickness will result if 15 amps are applied for 12 minutes in a chloride electrolyte solution? Solution: From Table 29. Answer.8 Which of the following gases is the most commonly used in sputtering and ion plating? (a) argon.75 x 10-2 mm3/A-s. or (d) powders. (c) metallizing.15 g/cm3. Volume V = ECIt = 0.10 29. Volume V = ECIt = 0. (a) The principal methods of applying powder coatings are which of the following (select two best answers)? (a) brushing. (c) and (d). Weight W = 1.29. (d) immersion.2 A sheetmetal steel part with surface area A = 100 cm2 is to be zinc plated. (b) electrostatic spraying. cathode efficiency E = 95%. (e) mechanical deformation to work harden the surface. (d) electroplating. (c) dip coating.35 mm3 Area A = 100 cm2 = 10.75 x 10-2 mm3/A-s.6245(7.1.615 g 29.000 mm2 Plating thickness d = 487.11 29. Answer.95(4. (a) 29.6245 cm3 Density of zinc from Table 4.000 mm2 = 0. (d) nitrogen. (b) brazing.15) = 11.5 mm3 = 1. (d) Which of the following are alternative names for thermal spraying (more than one answer)? (a) flexible overlay process. C = 4. or (e) oxygen.3 A sheetmetal steel part with surface area A = 15. Porcelain enamel is applied to a surface in which one of the following forms? (a) liquid emulsion.1.95(4. (b) and (c). (a) The Mond process is used for which one of the following? (a) chemical vapor deposition of silicon nitride onto silicon.75 x 10-2 mm3/A-s)(10 A)(1 hr)(3600 s/hr) = 1624. and (e) roller coating.1 What volume (cm3) and weight (g) of zinc will be deposited onto a cathodic workpart if 10 amps of current are applied for one hour? Solution: From Table 29. (c) fluidized bed. Answer.049 mm 29. (b) an electroplating process.35 mm3/10.0 in2 is to be chrome plated. (d) Which of the following thin film processes is most common in semiconductor processing? (a) chemical vapor deposition or (b) physical vapor deposition. Hard facing utilizes which one of the following basic processes? (a) arc welding. Answer. (c) neon.

69 x 10-4 in3/A-min.8 A batch of 100 parts are to be nickel plated in a barrel plating operation. V = 0. Solution: (a) From Table 29. Area A = 2(19 x 14) + 0.25 x 10-4)(120)(40) = 0.5 A part made of sheet steel is to be nickel plated.00073 in.5) = 12.6 A steel sheetmetal part has total surface area A = 36 in2. 0.5 in 2. Required volume of plate metal = 36(0.95 cm2 = 53. each with a surface area A = 7.1. Plating thickness d = 0.036 t = 0. cathode efficiency E = 95%. C = 2. The plating operation is carried out in an acid sulfate electrolyte.036/0. Determine the average plating thickness on the parts. The plating process applies a current I = 120 amps.02477 in 3. value of plated gold = $300(0.5 in 2 are to be gold plated in a batch plating operation.92 x 10-4)(15)(10) = 0. The part is a rectangular flat plate which is 0.1.15(0.00207/15 = 0. total area A = 25(0.022 mm 29. (b) Given density for gold ρ = 0.277 oz.001 in onto the surface if 15 amps of current are applied? Solution: From Table 29. C = 1.95(1.8 in2.25 x 10-4 in3/A-min. cathode efficiency E = 15%. C = 3.02477 in 3) = 0.698 lb/in 3.00198 in.1(20) 2) = 0.57 in 3. cathode efficiency E = 95%. C = 0.003954 t in 3.92 x 10-4 in3/A-min. each with a surface area = 0.698 lb/in3 Weight of plated gold = (0. and t = time.695 mm2 Plating thickness d = 1169. The plating metal is chromium.42 x 10-2 mm3/A-s. The parts are identical. 199 .Solution: From Table 29. Solution: From Table 29. C = 3.4 Twenty-five jewelry pieces.003954 t = 0. and the batch takes 40 minutes to complete.277) = $82.5 = 0. Area A = 100(7.0 + 0. What volume of coating will be applied in the process? Solution: From Table 29.2t)dt = EC(12t + 0. min.01729 lb = 0.1.98(2.1.695 = 0. Determine the average thickness of the plated metal resulting from this operation.87 x 10-4)(8)(10) = 0. 29. cathode efficiency E = 98%.80(3.698 lb/in 3)(0.42 x 10-2 mm3/A-s)(20 A)(30 min)(60 s/min) = 1169. cathode efficiency E = 15%.99 29.87 x 10-4 in3/A-min. Volume V = ECIt = 0.02477/12.00207 in 3. using a current I = 20 amps for a duration t = 30 min. How long will it take to deposit a copper plating (assume valence = +1) of thickness = 0.075 x 2(19 + 14) = 536.1.7 Increasing current is applied to a workpart surface in an electroplating process according to the relation I = 12.1. where I = current.003954 = 9. Solution: From Table 29.00386 in3 29.15(0.000138 in.92 x 10-4 in3/A-min. cathode efficiency E = 80%.8) = 780 in 2 Plating thickness d = 0.95(3. Volume V = ECIt = 0.6 mm3. Plated volume V = EC∫Idt = EC∫(12 + 0.92 x 10-4)(12 x 20 + 0. amps.1t2) over the range 0 to 20 min. 29.5 in 2 Plating thickness d = 0. C = 0.2t.69 x 10-4 in3/A-min)(15 A) t = 0. Volume V = ECIt = 0.036 in 3 Plated volume V = ECIt = 0.1 min.001) = 0. and the part is submersed in the plating solution for a duration of 20 min. With Q = 25 pieces and average area per piece = 0. (a) What average plating thickness will result if 8 amps are applied for 10 min in a cyanide bath? (b) What is the value of the gold that will be plated if one ounce of gold is valued at $300? The density of gold = 0.6/53. Volume V = ECIt = 0.57/780 = 0.075 cm thick and whose face dimensions are 14 cm by 19 cm. At $300/oz.

03304(10-4) t = 0.010 mm.44 min.5 x 10-2 mm3/A-s)(80 A) t = 0.010 Thus.15(2.7 mm2.3 t mm3)/(90.3 t mm3 With Q = 40 pieces and average area per piece = 22.800 mm2) = 0.29. C = 2.9 A batch of 40 identical parts are to be chrome plated using racks. Volume V = ECIt = 0.03304(10-4) = 0.7 cm2.010 mm on the surface of each part.5 x 10-2 mm3/A-s. t = 0.1.7) = 908 cm2 = 90.800 mm2 Plating thickness d = V/A = (0.03304(10-4) t mm Given that d = 0. Each part has a surface are = 22.010/0. 200 . cathode efficiency E = 15%. how long should the plating operation be allowed to run at a current = 80 amps? Solution: From Table 29.3027 x 104 = 3027 s = 50. If it is desired to plate an average thickness = 0. total area A = 40(22. 0.

See Figure 28.10 Define and sketch a fillet weld? 201 . 30. (2) corner. (2) joint strength is typically as high as strength of base metals. Advantages: (1) provides a permanent joint. Define the term fusion weld. The faying surfaces are the contacting surfaces in a welded joint. whereas in machine welding. Answer. the metal is not melted.9 Name and sketch the five joint types. What is meant by the term faying surface? Answer. Review Questions 30. Answer. (3) most economical in terms of material usage. a human worker must continuously control the arc and the relative movement of the welding head and the workpart.3 30. 30.30 30.8 What is the difference between machine welding and automatic welding? Answer. 30. It is a fusion weld made without the addition of filler metal. In gas welding. the electric arc emits intense ultraviolet radiation which can cause blinding. Five joint types are: (1) butt.2 What were the two discoveries of Sir Humphrey Davy that led to the development of modern welding technology? Answer. In a solid state weld. (4) quality defects sometimes difficult to detect.1 FUNDAMENTALS OF WELDING What are the advantages and disadvantages of welding compared to other types of assembly operations? Answer. so the parts are joined permanently. (5) edge. Discuss the reasons why most welding operations are inherently dangerous. A fusion weld is a weld in which the metal surfaces have been melted in order to cause coalescence. the high electrical energy can cause shocks which are fatal to the worker. What is an autogenous weld? Answer. An automatic welding operation uses a weld cycle controller which regulates the arc movement and workpiece positioning. Most welding operations are carried out at high temperatures that can cause serious burns on skin and flesh. so labor cost is high and the skilled labor to perform it is sometimes scarce. Disadvantages: (1) usually performed manually. Other hazards include sparks. smoke. the metal is melted. Answer. In arc welding and resistance welding. and weld spatter. (4) versatile in terms of where it can be accomplished. 30.4 30.5 30. (4) tee.6 30. In a fusion weld. the fuels are a fire hazard. (3) lap. (3) difficult to disassemble.7 What is the fundamental difference between a fusion weld and a solid state weld? Answer. (1) electric arc and (2) acetylene gas.3 in text for sketches. (2) welding is inherently dangerous. In arc welding. fumes.

30. Answer. and tee joints. The unit melting energy is the amount of heat energy required to melt one cubic inch or one cubic mm of metal. and how is this form of solidification different from that which occurs in casting? Answer. Epitaxial grain growth occurs when atoms from the molten pool solidify on already existing lattice sites of the adjacent solid base metal. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point. 30. all correct answers must be given. 30. and what are the factors on which it depends? Answer.15 What is the unit melting energy in welding. The HAZ is a region of base metal surrounding the fusion zone in which melting has not occurred.Answer.14 Why is it desirable to use energy sources for welding that have high heat densities? Answer. See Figure 28. 30. whereas an intermittent weld would only fill the joint along certain portions (usually equally spaced) of the total length.16 Define and distinguish the two terms heat transfer efficiency and melting efficiency in welding. Heat transfer efficiency is the ratio of the actual heat received at the work surface divided by the total heat generated by the source.17 What is epitaxial grain growth. A continuous weld would be made along the entire length of the fillet weld. A groove weld is a weld joint used to fill in the space between the adjoining edges of butt and other weld types except lap. since each correct answer is worth 1 point. See Figure 28.5 in text for sketch. What is the difference between a continuous weld and an intermittent weld as the terms apply to a fillet weld of a lap joint? Answer. Because it does not join to distinct parts. 30. 202 .18 What is the heat affected zone (HAZ) in a fusion weld? Answer. but instead adds only filler metal to a surface. and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point. 30. Melting efficiency is the ratio of heat required for melting divided by the heat received at the work surface.13 Why is a surfacing weld different from the other weld types? Answer.11 Define and sketch a groove weld? Answer. A fillet weld is a weld joint of approximately triangular cross-section used to fill in the edges of corner.12 30. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers. lap.4 in text for sketch. Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 11 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct). Because the heat is concentrated in a small region for greatest efficiency and minimum metallurgical damage. but temperatures from welding were high enough to cause solid state microstructural changes. To attain a perfect score on the quiz. For each question. 30.

(b) false. (c) low power. 30. (c) Same as Figure 30.30. (d) modulus of elasticity. or (d) low power density. Solution: (a) Square groove weld as in Figure 30.1 Prepare sketches showing how the part edges would be prepared and aligned with each other and also showing the weld cross-section for the following welds: (a) square groove weld. Answer. (b) corner. Which one of the following heat sources is most consistent with this objective? (a) high power. (d) lap. 203 . (b). (d) tee. (c) edge. but both sides as in Figure 30. Answer. Answer. (c) lap. and (d). 30. (b) Failures also occur in the heat affected zone because metallurgical damage often occurs in this region. (c).4(d) but one side only. (b) corner.7 30. (d) U-groove weld as in Figure 30. (d) lap. for a butt weld. (c) edge. (b) high power density. (e) tee. (b) The amount of heat required to melt a given volume of metal depends strongly on which of the following properties (more than one)? (a) coefficient of thermal expansion. (d) Groove welds are most closely associated with which one of the following joint types: (a) butt. (b) round.3 30. it is desirable to melt the weld metal with minimum energy input.5 30. Answer. and (d) double U-groove weld for a butt weld. Answer. (a) A flange weld is most closely associated with which one of the following joint types: (a) butt. (b) heat of fusion.1 Welding can only be performed on metals that have the same melting point. (c) melting temperature. (b) Similar to Figure 30. (b) Welding can be accomplished between certain combinations of dissimilar metals. Both metals melt.5(d) but both sides as in Figure 30. A fillet weld has a cross-sectional shape that is approximately which one of the following? (a) rectangular.5(f). (e) tee. (c) For metallurgical reasons. Answer.4 30. Answer. or (e) thermal conductivity. (c) single fillet weld for tee joint.4(c) but one side only. both sides. Answer.5(f). (b) false. the metal with the lower melting temperature always melts while the other metal remains solid: (a) true. (b) and (c) Weld failures always occur in the fusion zone of the weld joint. otherwise.2 A fillet weld can be used to join which of the following joint types (more than one): (a) butt. (b) single fillet weld for a lap joint. since this is the part of the joint that has been melted: (a) true. (b) corner.5(a). (c) square.6 30. or (d) triangular.8 Problems Joint design 30.

32 J/mm3 Eq.467 x 10-5 (2440) 2 = 87.5 Compute the unit energy for melting for the following metals:(a) copper and (b) titanium.75 .33 x 10-6 Tm2 Um = 3.2) for SI units: Um = 3.4 Btu/in3 (b) From Table 30. Tm for titanium = 2070 K (3730 R) Eq.625 Btu/sec Power density PD = (0. and 75% is transferred within a concentric circle of diameter = 0.467 x 10-5 Tm2 Um = 1. Tm for aluminum = 930 K (1680 R) Eq.0686 mm2 Power P = 0.2) for USCS units: Um = 1.33 x 10-6 Tm2 Um = 3.4 Compute the unit energy for melting for the following metals: (a) aluminum and (b) plain low carbon steel.16 Btu/sec-in2 (c) Power densities are sufficient certainly in the inner circle and probably in the outer ring for welding. (30.88 J/mm3 Eq.1 inch diameter inner circle and (b) the 0. Tm for copper = 1350 K (2440 R) Eq.33 x 10-6 (1760) 2 = 10. Solution: (a) From Table 30.467 x 10-5 (1680) 2 = 41. 500°C.2.0412 in 2 Power P = (0.25 inch.2) for SI units: Um = 3. Power P = 0.467 x 10-5 (3730) 2 = 204.2) for USCS units: Um = 1.2.2) for SI units: Um = 3. Tm for plain low carbon steel = 1760 K (3160 R) Eq. What is the power densities in: (a) the 0. (30.33 x 10-6 Tm2 Um = 3.33 x 10-6 (1350) 2 = 6.2 A heat source can transfer 3000 J/sec to a metal part surface.0686 mm2 = 255 W/mm2.467 x 10-5 Tm2 Um = 1. 204 .467 x 10-5 Tm2 Um = 1.25 Btu/sec Power density PD = (1.25 Btu/sec)/0.Power density 30.00785 in 2 150 Btu/min = 2.1 Btu/in3 30.33 x 10-6 (2070) 2 = 14.27 J/mm3 Eq.467 x 10-5 (3160) 2 = 146. Unit melting energy 30. 30.1 inch.6 Make the calculations and plot on linearly scaled axes the relationship for unit melting energy as a function of temperature. as follows: 60% of the heat is concentrated in a circular area that is 3 mm in diameter.00785 in 2 = 159 Btu/sec-in2 (b) A = π(0. Solution: (a) From Table 30.5 Btu/in3 30. The heated area is circular. (30.50)(2. The heated area is approximately circular.252 .07 J/mm3 Eq.5) = 0.33 x 10-6 (930) 2 = 2. (30.2) for USCS units: Um = 1. 750°C. (30. This power density is sufficient for welding.467 x 10-5 Tm2 Um = 1. (30.2.0) 2/4 = 7.625 Btu/sec)/0.3 A welding heat source is capable of transferring 150 Btu/min to the surface of a metal part. (30. Is the resulting power density enough to melt metal? Solution: Area A = π(3.3 Btu/in3 (b) From Table 30.0412 in 2 = 15.5 Btu/sec.0.5) = 1.0.2.33 x 10-6 Tm2 Um = 3.25 inch diameter ring that lies around the inner circle? (c) Are these power densities sufficient for melting metal? Solution: (a) Area A = π(0.1) 2/4 = 0.2) for SI units: Um = 3. Use temperatures as follows to construct the plot: 250°C.12)/4 = 0. (30.2) for USCS units: Um = 1.50(2. Power density PD = 1800 W/7. and the heat intensity decreases with increasing radius as follows: 50% of the power is transferred within a circle of diameter = 0. and the heat intensity decreases as the radius increases.60(3000) = 1800 J/s = 1800 W.

2. (a) What quantity of heat (in joules) is required to accomplish the weld.045 in2 and is 10 inches long. mark the positions of some of the welding metals in Table 30.8 A fillet weld has a cross-sectional area Aw = 20.91 J/mm3 ° For Tm = 500° C = (500 + 273) = 773°K: Um = 3. Use temperatures as follows to construct the plot: 500°F. The plot is based on the following calculated values.4(0.5 Btu/in3 ° For Tm = 3000° F = (3000 + 460) = 3460°R: Um = 1.9 and the melting efficiency = 0.467 x 10-5 (3060) 2 = 137. if the heat transfer efficiency = 0. 2500°F.48 J/mm3 ° For Tm = 1000° C = (1000 + 273) = 1273°K: Um = 3. 30. 2000°F. The plot is left as a student exercise.7.33 x 10-6 (1023) 2 = 3.467 x 10-5 Tm2 From Table 30.1 Btu at source.0 mm2 and is 200 mm long.4 Btu/in3 ° For Tm = 2000° F = (2000 + 460) = 2460°R: Um = 1. The plot is based on the following calculated values.33 x 10-6 Tm2 From Table 30.467 x 10-5 (1460) 2 = 31. Solution: Eq.148/(0.9 and f2 = 0.99 J/mm3 ° For Tm = 750° C = (750 + 273) = 1023°K: Um = 3.33 x 10-6 (523) 2 = 0. H = 37.8 Btu at weld (b) Given f1 = 0. (30.8/(0.8 and the melting efficiency = 0.40 J/mm3 ° For Tm = 1500° C = (1500 + 273) = 1773°K: Um = 3.33 x 10-6 (773) 2 = 1.29(4000) = 37.45) = 61. (30. if the metal to be welded is austenitic stainless steel? (b) How much heat must be generated at the welding source.33 x 10-6 (2273) 2 = 17.148 J at weld (b) Given f1 = 0.6) = 77. mark the positions of some of the welding metals in Table 30. 3000°F. On the plot. 1500°F.45 in 3 Hm = 137.2) for SI units: Um = 3. (a) What quantity of heat (in Btu) is required to accomplish the weld.33 x 10-6 Tm2.6? Solution: (a) Eq.7? Solution: (a) Eq.2.2) for USCS units: Um = 1.045(10) = 0.7) = 98.8 x 0.47 J/mm3 ° For Tm = 2000° C = (2000 + 273) = 2273°K: Um = 3.467 x 10-5 (960) 2 = 13. For Tm = 250° C = (250 + 273) = 523°K: Um = 3.6. if the heat transfer efficiency = 0.2) for USCS units: Um = 1. 1000°F.2) for SI units: Um = 3.7 Make the calculations and plot on linearly scaled axes the relationship for unit melting energy as a function of temperature.20 J/mm3 ° 30. (30.33 x 10-6 (1670) 2 = 9. On the plot.2.4 Btu/in 3 Volume of metal melted V = 0.467 x 10-5 (2460) 2 = 88.467 x 10-5 (3960) 2 = 230.467 x 10-5 (3460) 2 = 175.2.9 x 0.467 x 10-5 (2960) 2 = 128. if the metal to be welded is medium carbon steel? (b) How much heat must be generated at the welding source. H = 61.6 Btu/in3 ° For Tm = 3500° F = (3500 + 460) = 3960°R: Um = 1.3 Btu/in3 ° For Tm = 1500° F = (1500 + 460) = 1960°R: Um = 1.8 Btu/in3 ° For Tm = 2500° F = (2500 + 460) = 2960°R: Um = 1.467 x 10-5 Tm2.467 x 10-5 (1960) 2 = 56. (30. and 2000°C.33 x 10-6 (1273) 2 = 5.9 A certain groove weld has a cross-sectional area Aw = 0. 205 . Tm for austenitic stainless steel = 1670 K Um = 3. For Tm = 500° F = (500 + 460) = 960°R: Um = 1.5 Btu/in3 ° For Tm = 1000° F = (1000 + 460) = 1460°R: Um = 1. Tm for medium carbon steel = 3060 R Um = 1. The plot is left as a student exercise.29 J/mm3 Volume of metal melted V = 20(200) = 4000 mm3 Hm = 9.0 Btu/in3 ° 30. and 3500°F. 1500°C.8 and f2 = 0.33 x 10-6 (1773) 2 = 10. Solution: Eq.392 J at source.1000°C.

45) = 18.11 Btu/lb-°F = 460 J/kg-°C.Tambient) + ρHf . (b) Steel properties (from standard sources): heat of fusion Hf = 117 Btu/lb = 272. density ρ = 0. (30.11 Compute the unit melting energy for (a) aluminum and (b) steel as the sum of: (1) the heat required to raise the temperature of the metal from room temperature to its melting point.9 and f2 = 0. Um = ρC(Tm .284 lb/in3 = 7900 kg/m3. H = 18.23 J/mm3 This is about a 37% difference. Are the values close enough to validate Eq.2): Um = 1. In USCS. (30. specific heat C = 0.215)(1220 . (30.9.2. Solution: (a) Eq. which is the product of the volumetric specific heat and the temperature rise.467 x 10-5 (2700 + 460) 2 = 146.2): Um = 1. so that this value can be compared to the unit melting energy calculated by Eq.62 J/mm3 This compares with Eq.2): Um = 3. In SI. These values for aluminum show good agreement. Energy balance in welding 30. These values show a greater difference than for aluminum.7 x 10-6 kg/mm3)(395390 J/kg) Um = 2. (30. This is at least partially accounted for by the fact that the specific heat of steel increases significantly with temperature.7.123 J/kg.2) for USCS units: Um = 1. (30.21) + (7.0 mm2.70) + 0.1 Btu at source.25.4 Btu/in 3 Volume of metal melted V = 0.4 Btu/in3 This is about a 3% difference. A continuous fillet weld is to be made with a cross-sectional area Aw = 15. Tm for aluminum = 1680 R Um = 1.6/(0.284(0. 30.10 Solve the previous problem.9 x 10-6 kg/mm3)(460 J/kg-C))(1480 .2.70) + 0.21) + ρHf Um = (2. Um = ρC(Tm . Um = ρC(Tm .4(0. except that the metal to be welded is aluminum.70) + ρHf = 0.4 Btu/in3 This compares with Eq. specific heat C = 0.33 x 10-6 (660 + 273) 2 = 2.21) + ρHf Um = (7. (30. and (2) the heat of fusion.45 J/mm3 This compares with Eq.096(0.284(117) = 115.096 lb/in3 = 2700 kg/m3.S. The metal to be welded is copper whose melting point is given in Table 30.6 Btu at weld (b) Given f1 = 0.5 Btu/in3 This is about a 27% difference.70) + ρHf = 0.2): Um = 3.45 in 3 Hm = 41.30.390 J/kg.9 x 0.467 x 10-5 (1680) 2 = 41. This is transferred to the work surface with a heat transfer efficiency f 1 = 0. density ρ = 0. Um = ρC(Tm . Assume that the melting efficiency f 2 = 0.2). In SI. melting temperature Tm = 1220°F = 660°C.9 x 10-6 kg/mm3)(272123 J/kg) Um = 7.215 Btu/lb-°F = 900 J/kg-°C.1 Btu/in3 This compares with Eq.045(10) = 0. (30. 206 .35) = 59.2)? Solution: (a) Aluminum properties (from standard sources): heat of fusion Hf = 170 Btu/lb = 395.7 x 10-6 kg/mm3)(900 J/kg-C))(660 .12 The welding power generated in a particular arc welding operation = 3000 W.467 x 10-5 (1220 + 460) 2 = 41. In USCS.467 x 10-5 Tm2 From Table 30. Use either the U.90 J/mm3 This is about a 10% difference.33 x 10-6 (1480 + 273) 2 = 10.096(170) = 40.11)(2700 . Find the values of the properties needed in these calculations either in this text or in other references. Determine the travel speed at which the welding operation can be accomplished. which would increase the calculated values based on Um = ρC(Tm .21) + (2. melting temperature Tm = 2700°F = 1480°C. and the corresponding melting efficiency is half the value for steel. Customary units or the International System.

Aw = 22. 30. If f 1 = 0. Solution: Um = 3. and the metal to be welded was aluminum. Um = 3.9 x 0. The operation will be carried out automatically with the beads laid down in one long continuous operation at a travel speed v = 7.207 Btu H = 0. Um = 3.5.025) = 0. A thickness of 2.5.5.0 mm2.122 Btu/sec = 7.16 In a certain welding operation to make a fillet weld.17 A spot weld is to be made using an arc welding operation.5) = 0.2. determine the rate of heat generation required at the welding source to accomplish this weld.214 HR HR = 15/.85. 30. and Tm = 1000°C for the metal to be welded.0 mm.4 Btu/in 3 Hw = 41.95.1 Btu/min.13 Solve the previous problem except that the metal to be welded is high carbon steel. using welding passes separated by 5 mm. determine the rate of heat generation required at the welding source to accomplish this weld.005 in 3.487 Btu HR = 0.9(0.8(0. determine the rate of heat generation that was required at the source to accomplish this weld.0 mm/s. and the melting efficiency f 2 = 0.8 x 0.15 The power source in a particular welding operation generates 125 Btu/min which is transferred to the work surface with an efficiency f 1 = 0. 30. Determine the travel speed at which the welding operation can be accomplished. The metal to be applied is a harder (alloy) grade of steel. Um = 1. The surface will be applied by making a series of parallel.5)(125)/(74. Ignore the 207 . f 2 = 0.33 x 10-6(1350) 2 = 6. Solution: Um = 1.0 mm2 and v = 5 mm/sec.07 J/mm3 v = f1 f2 HR/UmAw = 0. 30.95 and f 2 = 0. the cross-sectional area of the weld = 25.9 Btu/in 3 v = f1 f2 HR/UmAw = 0. Tm = 1680°R for aluminum.07 J/mm3 v = f1 f2 HR/UmAw = 0.8 Btu/in 3 v = 15 = f1 f2 HR/UmAw = 0. Tm = 1650°K for high carbon steel. Aw = 0.5.04) = 16. A continuous fillet weld is to be made with a cross-sectional area Aw = 0. If f 1 = 0. 30. Solution: From Table 30. Solution: From Table 30.Solution: From Table 30.005) = 0. the total thickness melted during welding = 6.025 in2 and v = 15 in/min.6.95(0.207/(0.33 x 10-6(1650) 2 = 9.5) = 1250 J/s = 1250 W. If f 1 = 0. Tm = 1350°K for copper.467 x 10-5 (2000 + 460) 2 = 88.5)HR/(88.40(22)(5)/(0.8. The melting point for the metal to be welded Tm = 1800°F and its melting efficiency f 2 = 0.467 x 10-5 (1800 + 460) 2 = 74.467 x 10-5 (1680) 2 = 41. Solution: Um = 1.31 Btu/min.15 mm/s.95 x 0.07 x 15) = 7.40 J/mm3 f1 f2 HR = UmAw v HR = Um Aw v/f1 f2 = 5. on average.487/4 = 0.0 mm will be added to the plate.85 x 0. 30.18 A surfacing weld is to be applied to a rectangular low carbon steel plate which is 200 mm by 350 mm. but with penetration into the base metal.04 in2.9(0.6)(3000)/(9.4(0.33 x 10-6(1000 + 273) 2 = 5.4 mm/s.25)(3000)/(6.7 in/min. and the operation required the arc to be on for 4 sec. and Tm = 2000°F for the metal to be welded.214 = 70.2.2. The total volume of (melted) metal forming the weld = 0. whose melting point is assumed to be the same. f 2 = 0.14 In a certain welding operation to make a groove weld.07 x 25) = 7. overlapped welding beads running lengthwise on the plate.

8 and the melting efficiency = 0. Solution: (a) From Table 30.8 x 0.6) = 4515 J/s (b) Total length of cut = 350 x (200/5) = 14. and (b) how long will it take to complete the surfacing operation.6.33 x 10-6(1760) 2 = 10.minor complications of the turnarounds at the ends of the plate.32(6 x 5)(7)/(0. Tm = 1760°K for low carbon steel.2.000/7 = 2000 s = 33. Um = 3. determine: (a) the rate of heat that must be generated at the welding source.33 min.32 J/mm3 HR = Um Aw v/f1f2 = 10. 208 .000 mm Time to travel at v = 7 mm/s = 14. Assuming the heat transfer efficiency = 0.

The consumable type. What is the fundamental feature that distinguishes fusion welding from solid state welding? Answer. SAW. melting occurs at the faying surfaces. and arc shielding is provided by a cover of granular flux. arc time.10 Describe submerged arc welding (SAW). also provide filler metal for the welding joint. in solid state welding. 31. consumable bare wire electrode. FCAW. SMAW is an arc welding process that uses a consumable electrode consisting of a filler metal rod coated with chemicals that provide flux and shielding. The three terms mean the same thing: the proportion of the total time in a shift that the arc is actually on. Answer.9 Why is the shielded metal arc welding (SMAW) process difficult to automate? Answer.3 Define what an electrical arc is.31 31. Arc welding. Because molten metal from the electrode is transferred across the arc and contributes to the heating of the molten weld pool. In arc welding. In fusion welding. which would be difficult to do automatically. 31. such as tungsten and carbon. 31. the arc is sustained by a thermally ionized column of gas through which the current can flow. (1) Shielding gas. which covers the welding operation and protects the molten pool from the atmosphere. in addition to being the electrode for the process." The other category includes EBW. and operating factor have in common? Provide a definition of these terms.5 Electrodes in arc welding are divided into two categories.1 31. no melting occurs. Answer. 209 . and others. 31. or GTAW.6 What are the two basic methods of arc shielding? Answer. Consumable and nonconsumable. Answer. Answer. Answer. and (2) flux. LBW. resistance welding.7 Why is the heat transfer efficiency greater in arc welding processes that utilize consumable electrodes? Answer. Answer. 31.4 What do the terms arc-on time. such as argon and helium. Name and define the two types. such as in GMAW. The nonconsumable type are made of materials that resist melting.2 WELDING PROCESSES Name the principal groups of processes included in fusion welding. SAW is an arc welding process that uses a continuous.8 Describe the shielded metal arc welding (SMAW) process. Review Questions 31. An electrical arc is a discharge across a gap in a circuit. 31. 31. thermit welding. and "other. It is much easier to automate the feeding of continuous filler wire. oxyfuel welding. Because the stick electrodes must be changed frequently.

The steps are: (1) the parts are inserted between electrodes. 31. Because the arc is restricted in diameter.13 Define resistance welding.4 sec). LBM has certain advantages over EBM. low electrical and thermal conductivity. Answer. Answer. Answer.21 Laser beam welding and electron beam welding are often compared because they both produce very high power densities. The time to draw the vacuum adds significantly to the production cycle time. 31. 31. the contact points are designed into the geometry of the parts as embossments or projections. either flux-cored wire or bare wire with externally supplied shielding gas.20 Electron beam welding has a significant disadvantage in high-production applications. EBW is usually carried out in a vacuum for a high quality weld. EGW is an arc welding process that uses a continuous consumable electrode. 31.12 Why are the temperatures much higher in plasma arc welding than in other AW processes? Answer. in which the current is switched on for a brief duration (0. 31. What is that disadvantage? Answer. What are they? 210 . 31. RW consists of a group of fusion welding processes that utilize a combination of heat and pressure to accomplish coalescence of the two faying surfaces. (3) weld. Answer. Define pressure gas welding. resulting in much higher power densities. 31. (4) hold.16 What is resistance projection welding? Answer. 31. Cross-wire welding is a form of resistance projection welding used to fabricate welded wire products such as shopping carts and stove grills. Answer.31. High resistivity.1 to 0. PGW is a fusion welding process in which coalescence is obtained over the entire contact surfaces of the two parts by heating them with an appropriate fuel mixture and then applying pressure to bond the surfaces.18 31. (2) squeeze the parts between the electrodes. and molding shoes to contain the molten pool. 31. RPW is a resistance welding process in which coalescence occurs at one or more relatively small points on the parts.17 Describe cross-wire welding. and low melting point. Most prominent in the group is resistance spot welding. Because acetylene and oxygen burn hotter than other oxyfuels.15 Describe the sequence of steps in the cycle of a resistance spot welding operation.14 What are the desirable properties of a metal that would provide good weldability for resistance welding? Answer. during which the weld nugget solidifies.11 Describe electrogas welding (EGW) process and identify its major application.19 Why is the oxyacetylene welding process favored over the other oxyfuel welding processes? Answer. and (5) the electrodes are opened and the parts removed. thus concentrating the energy into a smaller area.

31. (1) cracks.Answer. then the flywheel is disengaged from the drive motor and the parts are forced together. (3) solid inclusions. The following measures. 31. (4) surface condition (surfaces should be clean and free of oxides. Name the variations. (3) whether the base metals are similar or dissimilar (dissimilar base metals are generally more difficult to weld). (2) presetting of the parts in relative orientations to compensate for warpage.29 What are some of the design guidelines for weldments that are fabricated by arc welding? 211 . The two types are: (1) continuous-drive friction welding and (2) inertia friction welding.g. and (3) the laser beam can be focused and directed with conventional optical mirrors and lenses. and radiographic tests. one part is rotated at a constant speed and forced into contact with the stationary part with a certain force so that friction heat is generated at the interface. particularly arc welding.23 There are two basic types of friction welding. 31. can be used to reduce warpage in arc welding: (1) welding fixtures. coefficient of thermal expansion). 31. 31. the original welding process.24 What is a sonotrode in ultrasonic welding? Answer. Answer. and (9) proper design of the weldment to minimize warpage. (3) and hot pressure welding. (8) stress relief of the weldment. (2) metal properties (e. In continuous-drive friction welding. explained in the text in Section 29. Factors affect weldability include: (1) welding process. (5) imperfect shape or contour of weld cross-section.6. and (5) filler metal and its composition relative to the base metals. (2) cavities. when the right temperature is reached. The three categories are: (1) visual inspection. 31.27 What are the three basic categories of inspection and testing techniques used for weldments? Name some typical inspections and/or tests in each category. etc. (3) heat sinks.26 What are some of the important welding defects? Answer. thermal conductivity. so that the kinetic energy of the flywheel is converted to friction heat for the weld. magnetic particle. (1) Cold welding. melting point. the rotating part is stopped abruptly and the two parts are forced together at forging pressures. What are some of the measures that can be taken to reduce the incidence and extent of distortion? Answer. the rotating part is connected to a flywheel which is brought up to proper speed. Answer. which includes dimensional checks and inspection for warpage. (5) balance the weld about the neutral axis of the part. It is the actuator which is attached to one of the two parts to be welded with USW and which provides the oscillatory motion that results in coalescence of the two surfaces. Answer. (4) tack welding at several points along the joint rather than continuous weld.28 Identify the factors that affect weldability. which includes conventional mechanical tests adapted to weld joints.22 There are several modern-day variations of forge welding. and metallurgical tests.25 Distortion (warpage) is a serious problem in fusion welding. and (3) destructive tests. (1) No vacuum chamber is required and (2) no x-rays are emitted in LBM. (2) nondestructive evaluation. cracks.). (7) preheating of base parts. (4) incomplete fusion. (2) roll welding. and other visible defects. In inertia friction welding. which includes dye-penetrant. (6) selecting proper welding conditions. ultrasonic. 31.. Describe and distinguish the two types. 31. moisture. Answer.

6 An electric arc is a discharge of current across a gap in an electrical circuit. (c) GTAW. or (d) SMAW.2 Which of the following processes is/are classified as fusion welding (more than one)? (a) electrogas welding. (a) and (c) 31. (d) percussion welding. (3) Whenever possible. The arc is sustained in arc welding processes by the transfer of molten metal across the gap between the electrode and the work: (a) true. Machining is sometimes required to achieve satisfactory fit-up. (b) electron beam welding. To attain a perfect score on the quiz. (b) 212 .5 Which of the following processes are classified as solid state welding (more than one)? (a) CW. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers. not by the transfer of molten metal. or (d) SMAW. Answer. (d) RSW. but by the presence of a thermally ionized column of gas through which the current flows. design of the assembly should allow flat welding to be performed. or overhead arc welding positions. (b). (c) pressure gas welding. all correct answers must be given. (b) HPW. (b) resistance spot welding. (c) and (d) 31. (b) friction welding.3 Which of the following processes are classified as fusion welding (more than one)? (a) diffusion welding. Answer. The guidelines for weldments by arc welding include: (1) Good fit-up of parts to be welded is important to maintain dimensional control and minimize distortion. and (e) upset welding. and (d) OAW. since each correct answer is worth 1 point.7 Which one of the following arc welding processes uses a nonconsumable electrode? (a) FCAW. vertical.Answer. Answer. (d) thermit welding.8 MIG welding is a term sometimes applied when referring to which one of the following processes? (a) FCAW. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point. (b) GMAW. (c) 31. and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point. as opposed to horizontal. Answer. Answer. (c) GTAW.4 Which of the following processes are classified as solid state welding? (a) friction welding. and (d) 31. (b) false. 31. Answer. For each question. (c) explosive welding. (a). (c) roll welding. (2) The design of the assembly must provide access room to allow the welding gun to reach the welding area. (b) false. (b) The arc is sustained. Answer. (b) GMAW. (a) 31. (c) LBW. 31.1 The feature that distinguishes fusion welding processes from solid state welding is that melting of the faying surfaces occurs during fusion welding: (a) true. (a) and (b) 31. Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 27 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct). Answer.

(c) GTAW. (b) carbon monoxide. Answer. (a) Which one of the following arc welding processes produces the highest temperatures? (a) CAW. (b) forge welding. (b) Shielding gases used for welding do not include which of the following (more than one)? (a) argon. (b) false. The heat readily flows 31. but this is one of the main reasons why copper is generally difficult to weld.15 Oxyacetylene welding is the most widely used oxyfuel welding process because acetylene mixed with an equal volume of air burns hotter than any other commercially available fuel: (a) true. (d) Which of the following AW processes uses an electrode consisting of continuous consumable tubing containing flux and other ingredients in its core? (a) FCAW." Which of the following solid state welding processes applies heat from an external source (more than one)? (a) diffusion welding. (c) GTAW. (b) GMAW. 31. (b) PAW. but also the quality of the resulting weld: (a) true. Answer. (b) True that copper has a high thermal conductivity. (c) friction welding. or (b) false.13 31. (c) helium.18 31. (b) false. (a) and (b) The term weldability takes into account not only the ease with which a welding operation can be performed. and (e) nitrogen. (b) false.14 31. (b).11 31.31. Higher resistance is required in the conversion of electrical power to heat energy. (a) Copper is a relatively easy metal to weld because its thermal conductivity is high: (a) true. one of the highest of any metal. or (d) SMAW.10 31. (d) hydrogen. and (e) Resistance welding processes make use of the heat generated by electrical resistance to achieve fusion of the two parts to be joined. (b) false. Answer. (b) Laser stands for "light amplification by stimulated emission of radiation.12 31.9 "Stick" welding is a term sometimes applied when referring to which one of the following processes? (a) FCAW. Answer. hence. or (a) TIG. Answer. Answer. Answer. (b) Metals with low resistivities. (c) SAW. are difficult to weld in RW. and no filler metal is added: (a) true. (b) GMAW. (b) false. (b) Pressure is applied in RW processes and is key to the success of these processes. Answer. (a) The term "laser" stands for "light actuated system for effective reflection": (a) true. Answer. metals with high resistivity are generally preferable.17 31. Metals that are easiest to weld in resistance welding are ones that have low resistivities since low resistivity assists in the flow of electrical current: (a) true. (d) ultrasonic welding. such as aluminum and copper. no pressure is used in these processes.19 213 . Answer. (d). Answer.16 31. or (d) SMAW.

0 = 4.65. Solution: (a) Fitter: Tc = 5.0 minutes and is accomplished by the fitter.0 min.0) + 2. and while the welder is working. Solution: (a) HRw = f1f2EI = (0. the robot welding at one fixture while the fitter unloads and loads at the other.0 mm diameter is added to the operation. The fitter takes 5.5 + (1/5)(5.85)(0. (a) Determine the average arc time in this welding cycle. The heat transfer efficiency f 1 = 0. which takes 0.5 + 5.5 + 2000/400 + (1/5)(5.8 min. and 2.67 pc/hr.85 and melting efficiency f 2 = 0.0) = 9.5 = 14. rather than remaining at the localized region where the joint is to be made.2 In the previous problem.5 + 2000/400 + (2000/750)(0. Limiting cycle is the fitter: arc time = 5. The unit melting energy for steel = 10.0 + 2. Every 750 mm of weld length. two welding fixtures. The cell consists of the robot (using GMAW instead of SMAW or FCAW). and the fitter who loads and unloads the parts. and f 2 = 0. they switch places. whose unit melting energy Um = 9.2 J/mm3) = 421. The total length of the several weld seams to be made is 2000 mm. f 1 = 0. The electrode wire spool must be changed every five workparts. I = 125 amps.8) + 2. Problems Arc welding 31.3 J/mm3. The conditions are: E = 25 volts. Arc time = 5.1 W)/(10.0/14.0 = 55.5 = 15.2 J/mm3.5 min to unload the completed weldment at the end of the cycle.5 = 5. With two fixtures. (b) How much improvement in arc time would result if the welder used FCAW (manually operated). 31. fitter and robot work simultaneously. the fitter is idle. given that the spool of flux-cored weld wire must be changed every five weldments.1 W (b) WVR = (4303. and it takes the welder 5.0% (b) FCAW cycle time Tc = 5. Solve for: (a) the rate of heat generation at the weld and (b) the volume rate of metal welded.0 + 2.96 pc/hr FCAW Rp = 60/14.1 A SMAW operation is accomplished in a work cell using a fitter and a welder.0 min to accomplish the change.3 A shielded metal arc welding operation is performed on steel at E = 30 volts and I = 225 amps.5 min to place the unwelded components into the welding fixture at the beginning of the work cycle. and the final weld bead is composed of equal volumes of 214 .0/15. which task requires 5.0 = 6. If filler metal wire of 3. At the end of each work cycle.70.29 pc/hr.0/9.9 mm3/sec.5% (b) Rp = 60/9.75.133 = 33.0 + 1.133 = 3.75)(30)(225) = 4303. and the travel speed used by the welder averages 400 mm/min. suppose an industrial robot cell were installed to replace the welder.4 A GTAW operation is performed on stainless steel.7% (c) SMAW Rp = 60/15.5 + 2. 31.0 = 35. Arc time = 5. (c) What are the production rates for these two cases (weldments completed per hour)? Solution: (a) SMAW cycle time Tc = 5. Determine: (a) arc time and (b) production rate for this work cell. the welder is idle (resting). While the fitter is working.into the body of the parts that are to be welded.5 + 5. the welding stick must be changed. Robot: Tc = 2000/400 = 5.133 min.5 = 5.0 min.133 + 2.0 min. 31.

and measurements indicate that the final weld bead consists of 57% filler metal and 43% base metal.9/46. Circumference C = πD = 12 x 6π = 226.7)(25)(300)/(158. 31.01462 in 3/sec.88 x 80) = 9. Tm = 930°K for aluminum. f2 = 0.06967 rev/min.07 = 10.1.125(0. f1f2EI = Um(WVR) 1 Btu/sec = 1055 J/s = 1055 W.50)/7. The unit melting energy for the metal is known to be 75 Btu/in 3.88 J/mm3 f1f2EI = UmAwv v = f1f2EI/UmAw = 0.5 = 30.90. The welding conditions are: E = 25 volts.76 in/min)/(226.05 in 2? Solution: (a) f1f2EI = UmAwv Awv = welding volume rate = WVR = (0.9(0.125 W f2 = Um(WVR)/ f1EI = 79.6 A gas metal arc welding test is performed to determine the value of melting efficiency f2 for a certain metal and operation. feed rate of filler wire = 153(0. v = (WVR)/Aw = 0.2 in/rev.6(5) = 153 mm3/s Filler wire A = πD2/4 = π(3) 2/4 = 7.9 for FCAW.07 mm2 At 50% filler metal. determine the likely value for travel speed v in the operation.3(Aw)(5) 1421.5 Aw Aw = 1421.5. so 150 Btu/sec = 158. If the unit melting energy for the steel = 150 Btu/in3.120) = 0. using the following conditions: E = 20 volts and I = 250 amps.57 = 0. 31. Solution: (a) HRw = f1f2EI = UmAwv 0.0 ft.250 W v = 0.5)(20)(250)/(2.54 in/min.82 mm/s.filler and base metal.5 A flux-cored arc welding operation is performed to butt weld two aluminum plates together.7 A continuous weld is to be made around the circumference of a round steel tube of diameter = 6. Solution: From Table 31. = 0. The rate at which the filler metal is added to the weld is 0. If the travel speed in the operation v = 5 mm/sec. The tube is slowly rotated under a stationary welding head. The heat transfer efficiency for SAW is f 1 = 0. Therefore. Using tabular data and equations given in this and the preceding chapter.50 in 3 per minute.33 x 10-6 (930) 2 = 2. determine: (a) cross-sectional area of the weld bead. The cross-sectional area of the weld bead is 0.2.95(0. (b) What is the travel speed if the cross-sectional area of the weld bead = 0.76 in/min.877 in 3/min. Rotational speed N = (15.250 x 0. The cross-sectional area of the weld seam = 80 mm2 and the melting efficiency of the aluminum is assumed to be f 2 = 0. From Table 30.41 (b) Given that Aw = 0. I = 125 amps. (a) Find f 2.6 mm2 (b) Aw v = 30.12 in 2.95 and the assumed melting efficiency f 2 = 0. so 75 Btu/sec = 79.05 = 17.65(0. determine: (a) the rotational speed of tube and (b) the time required to complete the weld.70)(25)(125) = 9.50 in 3/min)/0. a typical value for GMAW.9 x 25 x 125) = 0. 215 . and (b) the feed rate (in mm/sec) at which the filler wire must be supplied. using a submerged arc welding operation under automatic control at a voltage of 25 volts and current of 300 amps. Solution: (a) f1f2EI = UmAwv v = f1f2EI/UmAw 1 Btu/sec = 1055 J/s = 1055 W.877/0.9 = 46. Um = 3.01462)/(0.263 in/sec = 15.2 in/rev) = 0.05 in2.7. and heat transfer efficiency is assumed to be f 1 = 0.77 mm/s 31.

255 Btu Proportion of heat for welding = 0. Solution: (a) PD = I2R/A A = πD2/4 = π(0.1% 31.000 amps.175 = 17. Solution: Hm = UmV V = πD2d/4 = π(6) 2(4.0 mm in diameter by 2.17 sec. the weld duration t = 0. The unit melting energy for aluminum Um = 2.0 mm.35 min. it is desired to form a weld nugget that is 6.9 The unit melting energy for a certain sheet metal to be spot welded is Um = 10. Welding current I = 6.351 = 35.454 Btu Weld nugget volume V = πD2d/4 = π(0.0 mm thick.5 mm thick austenitic stainless steel to fabricate a container.5 mm thick. To achieve required strength.060 in.35 x 103 = 12.350 A.19) 2/4 = 0.76 in/min) = 14.64 x 106 A2.2 sec. determine the minimum current level required in this operation. time duration = 0.9 J/mm3)(49.554 Btu/sec PD = 8.02835 = 302 Btu/sec-in2 (b) H = I2Rt = (9500) 2 (100 x 10-6)(0.11 A resistance seam welding operation is performed on two pieces of 2. so 9025 W = 8.5% 31.0 J/mm3.0017) = 0.0017 in 3 Heat required for melting = UmV = (150 Btu/in 3)(0.000 amps.255/1.454 = 0. This results in a weld nugget of diameter = 0.2 in/rev)/(15.1 mm3 Heat required for melting = UmV = (2. each 2.10 A resistance spot welding operation is performed on two pieces of 0.(b) Time to weld around circumference = C/v = (226. Resistance welding 31.2 mm3 Hm = 10(127. and (b) the proportion of energy generated that went into formation of the weld nugget. 31. Determine: (a) the average power density in the interface area defined by the weld nugget.15 sec.5 mm thick.0 mm in diameter and 4.19) 2(0. I = 12.4 J Proportion of heat for welding =142.3 sec.2) = 1272 J Required heat for the RSW operation H = 1272/(1/3) = 3816 J H = I2Rt = I2(125 x 10-6)(0. Assume that the resistance = 75 micro-ohms.1 mm3) = 142.5)/4 = 127.4/405 = 0.8 A RSW operation is used to make a series of spot welds between two pieces of aluminum.90 J/mm3. Process parameters are: current = 9500 A and time duration = 0. Assume the resistance = 100 micro-ohms.02835 in 2 I2R = (9500) 2 (100 x 10-6) = 9025 W 1 Btu/sec = 1055 W.554/0.2) = 25 x 10-6 I2 = 3816 J I2 = 3816/(25 x 10-6) = 152.5)/4 = 49.15) = 405 W-sec = 405 J Weld nugget volume V = πD2d/4 = π(5) 2(2. The weld duration will be set at 0. The unit melting energy for steel = 150 Btu/in 3. The weld current in the operation is 10. and that only one-third of the electrical energy generated will be used to form the weld nugget (the rest being dissipated into the work).060)/4 = 0. Continuous motion 216 . If it is assumed that the electrical resistance between the surfaces is 125 micro-ohms. and the resistance at the interface is 75 micro-ohms.19 in and thickness = 0. The resulting weld nugget measures 5. How much of the total energy generated is used to form the weld nugget? Solution: H = I2Rt = (5000) 2(75 x 10-6)(0.17) = 1534 W-sec = 1.040 in thick sheet steel (low carbon). The thickness of each of the two sheets to be welded is 3.

Determine the power-on time the current must be applied in order to perform this spot welding operation.9 mm/min)/(200π mm/rev) = 0.33 x 10-6 (1670) 2 = 9.3 sec. determine: (a) the unit melting energy of stainless steel using the methods of the previous chapter. with the changes noted here. Distance moved per spot weld in order to have contiguous spot welds for the seam = D = 0.welding is used. surface speed of electrode wheel v = 6. Given the conditions from the previous problem.0 s. These weld nuggets must be contiguous to form a sealed seam. This movement is likely to have the effect of making the weld spot elliptical in shape. (c) Power-on time during cycle = 0.3 sec = 4.8 mm/min)/(200π in/rev) = 1.263 (b) Total cycle time per spot weld = 1. The power unit driving the process requires an off-time between spot welds of 1. H = I2Rt = (10. how much does the wheel move during the current on-time. Solution: Hm = UmV V = πD2d/4 = π(4) 2(2)/4 = 25. At the end of the power-on time. with 200 mm diameter electrode wheels. (c) At this higher rotational speed.3 sec as in previous problem. The sheet metal being spot welded is low carbon steel whose unit melting energy = 10 J/mm3.2. and (b) the rotational speed of the electrode wheels.29 J/mm3.12 Suppose in the previous problem that a roll spot welding operation is performed instead of seam welding.61 mm/s. It is assumed that 1/4 of the energy generated from the power source will be used to form the weld nugget.23 mm/s) = 5.29 J/mm3)(84. The resistance R = 85 micro-ohms. where I = amp and t = sec. Movement of wheel during 0.29 J/mm3)(84. = 276.3) = 3000 J Proportion of heat for welding =788/3000 = 0. 31. and might this have the effect of elongating the weld nugget (making it elliptical rather than round)? Solution: (a) Um = 3. Surface speed of electrode wheel v = 25 mm/1.33 x 10-6 (1670) 2 = 9. 31.354 (c) Total cycle time per weld = 0.14 mm3 217 . N = v/πD = (276.0)/4 = 84.77 mm.3 sec = (0.000) 2(75 x 10-6)(0. (b) the proportion of energy generated that goes into the formation of each weld nugget. The interface resistance increases to 100 micro-ohms.82 mm3) = 788 J H = I2Rt = (10.23 mm/s = 1153. the current is stopped abruptly.3 sec = 19. N = v/πD = (1153.0) 2(3.82 mm3 Hm = (9.000 t.836 rev/min.9 mm/min. and (c) the rotational speed of the electrode wheels.00 mm/1.3 sec. Given these conditions. Tm = 1670°K for austenitic stainless steel.29 J/mm3 from previous problem.0 = 1.441 rev/min.8 mm/min. The individual weld nuggets formed in this RSEW operation have dimensions: diameter = 6 mm and thickness = 3 mm (assume the weld nuggets are disc-shaped). determine: (a) the proportion of energy generated that goes into the formation of each weld nugget.3) = 2225 J Proportion of heat for welding =788/2225= 0.3 + 1. Um = 3. and the center-to-center separation between weld nuggets is 25 mm.82 mm3) = 788 J from previous problem. The desired weld nugget size is: diameter = 4 mm and thickness = 2 mm (assume a disc-shaped nugget). Therefore.000) 2(100 x 10-6)(0. Hm = (9. Distance moved per spot weld = 25 mm as given. Solution: (a) From Table 30.25 in.3 sec)(19. (b) Hm = UmV V = πD2d/4 = π(6.13 An experimental power source for spot welding is designed to deliver current as a ramp function of time: I = 100.

074 W/mm2 31.317 s.0 mm thick. Solution: (a) Rate of heat generated by the torch HR = (10 ft3/hr)(1470 Btu/ft3) = 14. find: (a) rate of heat liberated during combustion.14 mm3) = 251. Compute: (a) rate of heat liberated during combustion. 2 Electron beam welding 31.16 The voltage in an EBW operation = 50 kV and the beam current = 65 milliamp.0707 mm3 PD = 2762.000t)2 R dt = 100. and (c) average power density in the circular area. Calculate the average power density in the area in watt/mm2. Solution: Power density PD = f1EI/A Power P = f1EI = 0.5/0.75(1.700 Btu/hr = 4.25 = 1005.94 Btu/sec-in. heat transfer efficiency f 1 = 0.7 x 106 J/m3) = 27. 218 . and melting efficiency f 2 = 0.25.6 = 18. (b) rate of heat transferred to the work surface.02 Btu/sec)/(0.60(1910)/63.5 t3 = 1005.4/0.0 J/mm3.85(50 x 103)(65 x 10-3) = 2762.1104 in.25(4.6 J Power P = ∫ I2R dt = ∫(100.0707 = 39.1104 in 2) = 6. and (c) average power density in the circular area. Solution: (a) Rate of heat generated by the torch HR = (0.3 m3/hr)(91.6 mm2 Power density PD = 0.5 x 106 J/hr = 7642 J/s (b) Rate of heat received at work surface = f1 HR = 0.000R ∫ t2 dt = (105)2(85 x 10-6)t3/3 evaluated between 0 and t. The unit melting energy = 5.08 Btu/sec (b) Rate of heat received at work surface = f1 HR = 0.3 mm in diameter.14 Suppose in Example 31. (b) rate of heat transferred to the work surface. beam current = 30 milliamp.75.5 W Area A = πD2/4 = π(0.08 Btu/sec) = 1.30) 2/4 = 0.031943 t = (0.85.0) 2/4 = 63. The weld joint is to be 0. determine the travel speed at which this weld can be made along the seam. H = 850. If accelerating voltage = 25 kV.0 W/mm2 31. and the proportion of heat concentrated in the 9 mm circle is 60% instead of 75 %.17 An electron beam welding operation is to be accomplished to butt weld two sheet metal parts that are 3.375 in. Heat generated by combustion is transferred to the work surface with an efficiency f1 = 0.0 mm.3 in the text that the fuel used in the welding operation is MAPP instead of acetylene.6 t3 = 1005.375) 2/4 = 0.5 = 0.35 mm by 3.000t3/3 = 31481. The electron beam is focused on a circular area that is 0.02 Btu/sec (c) Area of circle in which 75% of heat is concentrated A = πD2/4 = π(0. so that the cross-section of the fused metal is 0.031943) 1/3 = 0.Hm = (10 J/mm3)(25. Oxyfuel Welding 31.85.25(7642) = 1910 J/s (c) Area of circle in which 60% of heat is concentrated A = πD2/4 = π(9.15 An oxyacetylene torch supplies 10 ft3 of acetylene per hour and an equal volume rate of oxygen for an OAW operation on 3/16 in steel.35 mm wide.6/31481.4 J H = 251. The heat transfer efficiency f 1 = 0. 2 Power density PD = 0. If 75% of the heat from the flame is concentrated in a circular area on the work surface whose diameter = 0.

020 in.133 Btu/sec PD = 2. and the circular area on which the beam is focused has a diameter = 0.133/0. beam current = 100 milliamp.85(0.000314 in 3 Power P = 0.0 x 1.0) = 1.020) 2/4 = 0.35)(3. If the heat transfer efficiency f 1 = 90%.05 mm2 v = 0.000314 = 6792 Btu/sec-in2 219 .18 An electron beam welding operation uses the following process parameters: accelerating voltage = 25 kV.05) = 91.Solution: Available heat for welding HRw = f1f2EI = UmAwv Travel velocity v = f1f2EI/UmAw Cross sectional area of weld seam Aw = (0.90(25 x 103)(100 x 10-3)/1055 = 2.05 mm/s 31. Solution: Power density PD = f1EI/A Area in which beam is focused A = πD2/4 = π(0. determine the average power density in the area in Btu/sec in 2.75)(25 x 103)(30 x 10-3)/(5.

no melting of the base metal(s) occurs.6 What are the two joint types most commonly used in brazing? Answer. Certain changes in joint configuration are usually made to improve the strength of brazed joints. 32. In butt joints. What are some of these changes? Answer. (3) production rates might be faster and less expensive than welding. 32.8 What are the desirable characteristics of a brazing flux? Answer. Capillary action is the physical tendency of a liquid to be drawn into a small diameter tube or other narrow openings in spite of the force of gravity.2 BRAZING. and (5) the high strength of a welded joint is not a requirement. In brazed or soldered lap joints. the butting surface areas are increased in various ways such as scarfing or stepping the edges. (2) the components cannot tolerate the higher heat and temperatures of welding.1 32.9 What is dip brazing? Answer. (2) have a low melting temperature. How do brazing and soldering differ from the solid state welding processes? Answer. and (5) protect the joint until solidification occurs. the overlap area is made as large as possible. (4) joint areas might be inaccessible for welding but brazing or soldering is possible. Butt and lap joints. (3) have a low viscosity when melted. What is capillary action? Answer.4 Under what circumstances would brazing or soldering be preferred over welding? Answer.10 Define braze welding. The parts to be brazed are dipped into a molten salt or molten metal bath which supplies the heating for the operation.7 The molten filler metal in brazing is distributed throughout the joint by capillary action. 220 . It is caused by the adhesive attraction between the liquid molecules and the solid surfaces that define the narrow openings. (4) be a good wetting agent. Brazing or soldering might be preferred if: (1) the base metals have poor weldability. In brazing and soldering filler metal is used. SOLDERING. 32. 32. 32. AND ADHESIVE BONDING Review Questions How do brazing and soldering differ from the fusion welding processes? Answer. In soldering the filler metal melts at a temperature of 840 degrees F or below. In brazing and soldering.32 32.3 What is the technical difference between brazing and soldering? Answer. In brazing the filler metal melts at a temperature above 840 degrees F (450 degrees C). 32. whereas in solid state welding no filler metal is added. Several of the adaptations are illustrated in the figures of this chapter. A brazing flux should do the following: (1) inhibit the formation of oxides and other unwanted byproducts during the brazing. 32.5 32.

Answer. Why are rosins as soldering fluxes losing favor in industry? Answer. chemical solvents must be used to remove the flux after the joining operation.17 What are the disadvantages and drawbacks of soldering? Answer. Disadvantages and limitations: (1) the strength of the brazed joint is generally less than that of a welded joint. 32. heating of the adhesive. What is meant by the term curing? Answer. Tin and lead.13 What are the two most common alloying metals used in solders? Answer. Since natural rosin is insoluble in water. 32. (2) various heating methods available. (3) convey solder to the joint. 32.15 What is wave soldering? Answer. Advantages of soldering: (1) lower heat energy required than brazing or welding. (3) good electrical and thermal conductivity of the joint. The curing methods include: chemical reaction between two components of the adhesive (e. It differs from a conventional welding operation in that no melting of the base metals occurs. Braze welding is used for adding braze metal to a more conventional geometry weld joint. such as a V-joint. and (5) ease of repair and rework.. 32.16 List the advantages often attributed to soldering as an industrial joining process? Answer.12 32. (3) part sizes are limited.20 What are some of the methods used to cure adhesives? Answer. and (4) the color of the filler metal is often different than the color of the base metals. Wave soldering involves the flow of molten solder onto the underside of a printed circuit board to provide soldered connections between the component leads that project through holes in the boards. The functions include: (1) provide heat to the parts.18 What is meant by the term structural adhesive? Answer. epoxies). 32. (1) low mechanical strength unless reinforced and (2) elevated service temperatures can weaken the joint.14 What are the functions served by the bit of a soldering iron in hand soldering? Answer. 32. 32. Curing is the chemical reaction in which the adhesive transforms from liquid to solid and in the process forms the surface attachment between the two adherends. 221 . rigid components. (2) high service temperatures may weaken a brazed joint. (4) capable of making air-tight and liquid-tight joints.11 What are some of the disadvantages and limitations of brazing? Answer.19 An adhesive must cure in order to bond. A structural adhesive is capable of forming a strong permanent joint between strong. 32. and (4) withdraw excess solder from the joint.21 Name the three basic categories of commercial adhesives. These chemical solvents are hazardous to the environment and to humans. 32.g. and application of pressure. (2) melt the solder. 32. It differs from the typical brazing operation in that no capillary action occurs. use of ultraviolet light.

(b) Scarfing involves a preparation of the two edges to increase surface area for brazing. 32.010 to 0. (b) Neither brazing or soldering involve melting of the base metals.0025 to 0. 32. 32. Limitations of adhesive bonding: (1) adhesively bonded joints are generally not as strong as other joining techniques.. (b) 0. Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 24 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct). (2) fragile parts can be joined.g.Answer. collagen). Methods include: (1) manual brushing. Answer. all correct answers must be given.2 The strength of a brazed joint is typically which one of the following relative to the filler metal out of which it is made: (a) equal to. and (3) synthetic adhesives (e. or (b) false.250 to 2. (6) automatic dispensers. Answer. and (7) roll coating.1 In brazing.025 mm (0. (3) silk screening.24 Identify some of the advantages of adhesive bonding compared to alternative joining methods.20 in. or (c) weaker than.25 What are some of the limitations of adhesive bonding? Answer. (2) the adhesive must be compatible with the adherend materials. or (d) 2. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point. and (7) simplified joint design.010 in.similar or dissimilar. (3) service temperatures are limited. (6) inspection of the bond is difficult.g.23 What are some of the methods used to apply adhesives in industrial production operations? Answer.250 mm (0.0 mm (0. 222 .).100 in. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers. (4) surfaces to be bonded must be very clean. thus permitting them to tolerate strains encountered in service.). (4) certain adhesives are flexible after curing. the base metals melt at temperatures above 840°F (450°C) while in soldering they melt at 840°F (450°C) or below: (a) true. (c) 0. starch.). (b) 32. since each correct answer is worth 1 point. 32. Special surface preparation is sometimes required immediately prior to application of the adhesive in order to insure cleanliness. (b) stronger than.22 What is an important precondition for the success of an adhesive bonding operation? Answer. (5) low curing temperatures. The categories are: (1) natural adhesives (e. (4) use of flow guns. (2) use of manual rollers.10 to 0.50 mm (0. Answer.001 in. (3) bonding occurs over entire surface area of joint. To attain a perfect score on the quiz. (5) spraying. (6) some adhesives are suited to sealing as well as bonding.. 32.025 to 0.3 Scarfing in the brazing of a butt joint involves the wrapping of a sheath around the two parts to be joined to contain the molten filler metal during the heating process: (a) true. 32.g. The surfaces of the adherends must be very clean. 32.0001 to 0.001 to 0. For each question. sodium silicate). and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point.). Advantages of adhesive bonding: (1) applicable to a wide variety of materials .5 to 5. (2) inorganic adhesives (e. or (b) false. Answer. (5) curing times can limit production rates. thermoplastic and thermosetting polymers such as epoxies and acrylics).4 Clearances between surfaces in brazing are which one of the following: (a) 0..

32. or (b) false. (c) protect the faying surfaces during the process.6 Which of the following soldering methods are not used for brazing (more than one)? (a) dip soldering. (c) water-soluble organic fluxes. 32. (c). (b). Answer. (b) infrared soldering.10 A soldering gun is capable of injecting molten solder metal into the joint area: (a) true. 32. 32. Answer.11 In adhesive bonding. (b) gold. (b) natural rosin fluxes. (a). (d) torch soldering. Answer. (b) promote wetting of the surfaces.Answer. or (b) reduce the strength of an adhesively bonded joint because it increases the effective area of the joint and promotes mechanical interlocking. (b) peeling.7 Which one of the following is not a function of a flux in brazing or soldering? (a) chemically etch the surfaces to increase roughness for better adhesion of the filler metal. (a). and (c). (d) adhibit. Answer. Answer. Answer. (b) less heat and energy required than fusion welding. (c) secondary bonding forces between atoms of opposing surfaces. and (d) tension. (c) shear. (c) lead. (c) soldering iron. (d) silver. which one of the following is the term used for the parts that are joined: (a) adherend. (d). (c) multiple joints can be brazed simultaneously. Answer. 32.13 Adhesively bonded joints are strongest under which type of stresses (pick two best answers): (a) cleavage.8 Which type of soldering flux is preferred for electrical and electronics connections? (c) inorganic fluxes such as zinc chloride. (c) and (e). Answer.12 Weldbonding is an adhesive joining method in which heat is used to melt the adhesive: (a) true.5 Which of the following is an advantage of brazing (more than one): (a) dissimilar metals can be joined. (b) Weldbonding is a combination of adhesive bonding and spot welding. and (e) wave soldering. (a) Preferred because it is water-soluble. (c) and (d). 223 . 32.9 Which of the following metals is used in solder alloys (more than one)? (a) antimony. or (b) false. and (e). Answer. 32. (b) adherent. and (c). (a) 32. (b) mechanical interlocking. or (e) tin. (c) adhesive. Answer. (d) stronger joint than welding.14 Which of the following are the mechanisms that operate in adhesive bonding (more than one)? (a) chemical bonding. (b) The trigger on a soldering gun is used to switch on the electric resistance heating elements. 32. in which a primary chemical bond is formed between the adhesive and the parts being joined. (b). (e) ad infinitum. or (d) remove or inhibit formation of oxide films. (a) 32.15 Roughening of the faying surfaces tends to (a) increase. (a). (b) 32. and (d) surface tension of the fluid adhesive.

Answer. (a) 224 .

33.3 What is the technical difference between a screw and a bolt? Answer.4 What is a stud (in the context of threaded fasteners)? Answer. or (3) excessive tensile load on the cross-sectional area of the bolt or screw. 33. 33. 33. 33. upon warming to room temperature. brazing. A screw is generally assembled into a blind threaded hole.)? Answer.not possible with welding and brazing. and to make adjustments. welding. to replace worn-out components. In a shrink fit. In an expansion fit. (2) no tooling is required.10 What are the advantages of snap fitting? Answer. Review Questions 33. (1) The method is fast. Then cooling causes an interference fit with the component.1 MECHANICAL ASSEMBLY How does mechanical assembly differ from the other methods of assembly discussed in previous chapters (e. 33. Also. A rivet is an unthreaded headed pin used to join two parts by inserting the pin through holes in the parts and deforming the unheaded portion over the opposite side. whereas a bolt is assembled using a nut. 33. and then advancing the fastener by a specified additional amount of turn. Torque-turn tightening involves the tightening of the threaded fastener to a certain low torque level.9 What is the difference between a shrink fit and expansion fit in assembly? Answer. For maintenance and repair service. Then. (2) stripping of the internal fastener threads. the internal part is cooled so that it can be readily inserted into the mating component.8 What is a rivet? Answer. the outside part is expanded by heating to fit over the mating component. 225 .. and (3) the parts can be designed with self-aligning features. Both are externally threaded fasteners. Answer.g. (1) Stripping of the bolt or screw threads.33 33. it expands to cause an interference fit with its mating part.7 What are the three ways in which a threaded fastener can fail during tightening? Answer.6 Define proof strength as the term applies in threaded fasteners. many of the mechanical fastening methods allow for disassembly . A stud is an externally threaded fastener that does not have the usual head possessed by a bolt. etc. Proof strength can be defined as the maximum tensile stress that an externally threaded fastener can sustain without permanent deformation. Mechanical assembly uses a mechanical fastening method for joining two (or more) parts.2 What are some of the reasons why assemblies must be sometimes disassembled? Answer. 33.5 What is torque-turn tightening? Answer.

(5) Avoid parts that tangle. If all of the components can be added vertically from above. and curls are more likely to become entangled in parts bins. e. or (d) torque wrench. the number of directions in which new components are added to the existing subassembly. Answer. To attain a perfect score on the quiz. Assembly is by simple insertion. where disassembly or adjustment is required.14 Identify some of the general principles and guidelines that apply specifically to automated assembly. 33. and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point. Some of the general principles and guidelines in design for assembly include: (1) Use the fewest number of parts possible to reduce the amount of assembly required. this is the ideal situation. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point. 33.11 What is the difference between industrial stitching and stapling? Answer. retaining rings. Poor quality components cause jams in feeding and assembly mechanisms that result in downtime.12 What are integral fasteners? Answer. 33. Answer. (4) Use only high quality components. Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 18 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct). since each correct answer is worth 1 point. Parts with hooks. frustrating assembly workers or jamming automatic feeders. (3) Limit the required directions of access. eliminating the need for threaded fasteners. (3) Standardize fasteners in order to reduce the number of sizes and styles of fasteners required in the product. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers. or (b) machining. all correct answers must be given. and similar fastening mechanisms that can be accomplished more rapidly.13 Identify some of the general principles and guidelines for design for assembly.2 Which of the following methods is used for applying the required torque to achieve a desired preload of a threaded fastener (more than one)? (a) sense of feel by a human operator. Use threaded fasteners only where justified. holes. the fasteners are preformed.g. (4) Reduce parts orientation difficulties by designing parts to be symmetrical and minimizing the number of asymmetric features. usually from above.33.1 Most externally threaded fasteners are produced by: (a) cold forming. Some of the principles and guidelines that apply specifically to automated assembly include: (1) Use modularity in product design. Integral fasteners make use of a forming operation on one of the parts to be joined to interlock the components and create a mechanically fastened joint. integral fasteners. This allows easier handling and insertion during assembly. (2) Reduce the need for multiple components to be handled at once. instead use snap fits. The preferred practice for automated assembly is to separate the operations at different stations rather than to simultaneously handle and fasten multiple components at the same workstation. Answer. In stapling. For each question. (a) 33.. (b) snap fit. (5) Use of snap fit assembly. Riley [11] suggests that each module or subassembly to be produced on a single assembly system has a maximum of 12 or 13 parts and should be designed around a base part to which other components are added. slots. In stitching the U-shaped fasteners are formed during the assembly process. (c) stall-motor wrenches. that is. (2) Reduce the number of threaded fasteners required. 226 . 33.

In a shrink fit the external part is heated and then cooled to shrink it onto the internal part. and (d) the resulting joint is stronger than with most other assembly methods. or (b) false. and (d). Answer. When brought back to room temperature in either case. (b) excessive shearing stresses on the threads due to inadequate length of engagement. and (c). (a). and (d) no heat affected zone in the base parts. Answer..9 Which of the following are considered good product design rules for automated assembly (more than one)? (a) design the assembly with the fewest number of components possible. (b) ease of disassembly. 33. and (e) limit the required directions of access when adding components to a base part. (b). (b) no special tools are required. the external part is heated sufficiently to increase its size for assembly. (c) the components can be designed with features that facilitate parts mating. (a). Answer. 33. or (b) false.g. (b) design the product using bolts and nuts wherever possible to allow for disassembly. and (d) 33. (d) design parts with asymmetric features to mate with other parts having corresponding (but reverse) features. the internal part is cooled to contract it for assembly. and (d) 33. whereas in an expansion fit. (b). Answer. (a) and (e). Snap fit joints are not recognized as being stronger than joints produced by other assembly methods.6 The advantages of snap fit assembly include which of the following (more than one)? (a) assembly can be accomplished quickly. (b) From the standpoint of assembly cost.8 From the standpoint of assembly cost. In an expansion fit. (c). (c) excessive tensile stresses.7 The difference between industrial stitching and stapling is that the U-shaped fasteners are formed during the stitching process while in stapling the fasteners are preformed: (a) true.3 Which of the following are reasons for using mechanical assembly (more than one)? (a) ease of assembly. 33. (b). 33. screwdriver) resulting in failure of the head. (a) true.5 The difference between a shrink fit and an expansion fit is that in a shrink fit the internal part is cooled to a sufficiently low temperature to reduce its size for assembly. (c) design with as many different fastener types as possible to achieve maximum flexibility in design. (a) 33. (c) in some cases involves a melting of the base parts. (b). 227 . or (d) stripping of the internal or external threads.4 Which of the following are the common ways in which threaded fasteners fail during tightening (more than one)? (a) excessive pressure applied to the bolt or screw head by the tightening tool (e. it is more desirable to use many small threaded fasteners rather than few large ones in order to distribute the stresses more uniformly: (a) true. they require less assembly time. Answer (c) certainly includes the scope of mechanical assembly but it is not a reason for using it. it then expands to form the interference fit. Answer. Answer. All of the other answers go against design-for-assembly principles. so as to minimize the number of ways the parts will go together. it is more desirable to use few large threaded fasteners rather than many small ones because the large fasteners are easier to handle and since there are fewer of them. (c). Answer. (a).Answer. an interference fit is formed. or (b) false.

7 mm2 σ = 3750/156.0. If the torque coefficient C = 0.94 MPa.000/(0.657.2875 N-m.23.66 N-m. If the torque coefficient C = 0.5 A torque wrench is used on a 3/4-10 UNC screw (3/4 in nominal diameter. Torque coefficient C = 0.22(0.22. It is to be preloaded to 75% of its proof strength. However.334 in2 σ = 833. If the torque coefficient C = 0.18(10)(8698. 5/8-11. or 3/4-10.Problems Threaded Fasteners 33. 228 . Determine the maximum torque that should be used if C = 0. 33.334 = 2495 lb/in2 33. As = 0. and (b) compare the torque required to obtain the preload for the original 1-in bolt and the alloy steel bolt selected in part (a) if the torque coefficient in both cases C = 0. Solution: F = T/CD = 125/(0. pitch p = 1.5) 2 = 57.5 screw (10 mm diameter.75) = 833. Determine: (a) the smallest nominal size of an alloy steel bolt (proof strength = 120.4) = 15.20.375)(2557. 16 threads/in) in a certain application should be stressed to its proof stress of 33.1).000 lb/in 2 (see Table 33.5 mm) is to be turned into a threaded hole and tightened to one/half of its proof strength.7 A 1-8 UNC low carbon steel bolt (diameter = 1.20.9743/16) 2 = 0. determine the tensile stress on the bolt.99) = 8698.5 lb.1 A 5-mm diameter bolt is to be tightened to produce a preload = 25 N.0.7 = 23.0775 in2 F = σAs = 33.25π(0. Solution: T = CDF = 0. determine the torque that should be applied. 33.375 .5 N-mm = 0.18.9382 x 2) 2 = 156.000 lb/in 2) that could be used to achieve the same preload from the following standard UNC sizes used by the company: 1/4-20.5 of 300 MPa = 150 MPa = 150 N/mm2 F = σAs = 150(57.1). T = CDF = 0. 10 threads/in) in an automobile final assembly plant.9743/10) 2 = 0.0.000(0.75 . T = CDF = 0. 3/8-16.6 The designer has specified that a 3/8-16 UNC low-carbon bolt (3/8 in nominal diameter. 5/16-18.2 x 0. Determine the maximum torque that should be used if the torque coefficient C = 0. pitch p = 2 mm) is subjected to a torque of 12 N-m during tightening.25π(10 .0775) = 2557.99 mm2 σ = 0. 33. Solution: T = CDF = 0.25(0. 33. Determine the torque that should be used to tighten the bolt.2 A Metric 10 x 1.2 x 16) = 3750 N.25. 1/2-13.25π(0. Solution: T = 12 N-m = 12.0.23(5)(250) = 287.4 A 1/2-in diameter screw is to be preloaded to a tension force F = 1000 lb.3 lb.1 N-mm = 15.000 N-mm F = T/CD = 12.000 lb/in 2 (Table 33. Solution: As = 0.9382 x 1. As = 0. A torque of 125 in-lb is generated by the wrench.4 N. Solution: As = 0.50)(1000) = 110 in-lb. 33. and a higher strength but smaller bolt would be preferable. this bolt is too large for the size of the components involved. determine the tension in the bolt.25π(16 .3/0.94 N/mm2 = 23.3 A M16x2 bolt (16 mm diameter. 8 threads/in) is currently planned for a certain application. which is 33.20.0 in.5) = 240 in-lb. which is 300 MPa.

2013 in.992 lb. Solution: (a) pf = Ei(Dc2 . (b) Determine the effect of increasing the outside diameter of the collar to 35. The outside diameter of the collar is 1.9743/n) = (0.9743/11) = 0.11 The yield strength of a certain metal Y = 50.132) = 643.408 lb/in2 (b) Max σe = 2pfDc2/( Dc2 .9743/8) 2 = 0. The pin has a nominal diameter of 13.02)(352 .9743/n) 2 = 0.6) 229 .408)(1.302)/(30 x 552) = 161.9) Eq.0.0. Solution: Max σe ≤ Y/SF .6057 in2 F = σAs = 0.000 in and its outside diameter = 2.0.0.0 mm on the radial pressure and the maximum effective stress.Dp2) = 2(234.874 in-lb. and the collar has an outside diameter = 25. (a) Compute the radial pressure and the maximum effective stress if the interference between the shaft OD and the collar ID is 0.9743/n) = (0.6057) = 14.000 lb/in2 33.02) = 120.5364 in.0)(14.500 in.2 MPa Max σe = 2(277. Solution: (a) pf = Ei(Dc2 .0.998 in-lb.8 A dowel pin made of steel (E = 209.1665 in2/0. T = CDF = 0.752 -1.0 = 25.9743/n) 2 (D . The gear has a diameter of 55 mm at the base of its teeth. (2) 5/16-18. Try (5): (D .000 lb/in 2 Max σe = 2pfDc2/(Dc2 .752)/ (1.5)(552)/ (552 . Obviously. It is to be used for the outer ring of a press-fit assembly with a mating shaft made of the same metal.000 lb/in2. > 0.9743/n) = 0.302) = 460 MPa 33.25π(1.132) = 643.002)(1. determine the maximum interference that should be used with this assembly. (5) 5/8-11.2(0. For the 5/8-11 bolt. As = F/σ = 14992/(0. Determine: the radial (interference) pressure on the assembly.25 .02)/(1.0. (3) 3/8-16.000) = 0.Dp2) = 25.Dp2)/DpDc2 = 209. The modulus of elasticity of steel E = 30 x 106 lb/in2. use Max σe = Y/SF = 50.0.132)/(13 x 252) = 234. (4) 1/2-13.Dp2) = 2(161.1 MPa (b) When Dc = 35 mm.000(0.132)/(13 x 352) = 277. (33.000(0. Interference Fits 33.6)(252)/(252 .0 mm.1665 in 2 As = 0.02 mm.25π = 0.Solution: (a) As = 0. and (b) the maximum effective stress in the collar at its inside diameter. Using a safety factor SF = 2.992) = 2.000)(0.000(0.4605 will be sufficient.1. (b) For the original 1-8 bolt.6 MPa Max σe = 2pfDc2/( Dc2 .Dp2) = 2(40. Possible bolt sizes are: (1) 1/4-20.000/2.000 in.10 mm.0 x 1.0 mm.212 in2 (D . The collar has an internal diameter = 0.992) = 1.2)(352)/(352 .10 A steel collar is press fitted onto a steel shaft.25π(D . none of the D values below 0.0.752) = 40.998 in and the shaft has an outside diameter = 1. Solution: (a) pf = Ei(Dc2 -Dp2)/DpDc2 = 30 x 106(0. (33.9743/20) = 0. Use 5/8-11 bolt.Dp2)/DpDc2 = 69.0.000 MPa) is press-fitted onto an aluminum shaft.000 lb/in2 and its modulus of elasticity E = 22 x 106 lb/in2.000 MPa) is to be press fitted into a steel collar.625)(14. For the alloy bolt.1 MPa 33.625 .4605 in.000 lb/in2 Eq. The nominal internal diameter of the gear = 30 mm and the interference = 0.9 A gear made of aluminum (modulus of elasticity E = 69.2(1.750 in. pf = 209.4605 in.5 MPa (b) Max σe = 2pfDc2/( Dc2 .752 .02)(252 .75 x 120. Compute: (a) the radial pressure between the shaft and the gear.0 . (6) 3/4-10 Try (1): (D . T = CDF = 0.75(33.10)(552 . and (b) the maximum effective stress in the gear at its inside diameter. The nominal inside diameter of the ring is 1. σ = 120.1665 in2 = 0.

0 mm in diameter at room temperature (21°C).174 = 30.7 x 10-6 D1(1000 . then the inside diameter of the collar must be D2 = Dp + 0.16 A pin is to be inserted into a collar using an expansion fit.20 = 24. i = pf DpDc /E(Dc .00623 = 1.1.Dp ) i = 10.13 A steel ring has an inside diameter = 30 mm and an outside diameter = 50 mm at room temperature (21°C).174 mm. pf = σe(Dc2 .T1) = 6.500 + 0.000 in at room temperature is to be shrink fitted onto a steel shaft by heating it to an elevated temperature while the shaft remains at room temperature. (33.007 = 1.D1) = -0.000 lb/in 2 and α = 6.6 + 21 = -180.000.52 .7 x 10-6(1.0042 in. and modulus of elasticity = 209 GPa.6 T2 = -201.507 = D1 + 0. determine the temperature to which the shaft must be cooled.02) = 34. 33. If the coefficient of thermal expansion of steel α = 12.00 mm. Properties of the pin and collar metal are: coefficient of thermal expansion = 12.00233 in.02 mm.D1) = αD1(T2 .02)) = 0. the outer and inner diameters of the collar = 75. (b) the radial pressure and (c) maximum effective stress on the resulting interference fit at room temperature (70°F).21) D2 = 30 + 0.D1 = 6.7 x 10-6 in/in per °F.70) 1.1.04 mm. Solution: (D2 . respectively..52) = 93.8 x 10-6(40)(T2 .02)/ (3.00057 in. E = 30.1 x 10-6(30)(500 .0)(700 .4977 in.500 lb/in2 pf = Ei(Dc2 -Dp2)/DpDc2 Eq. The shaft diameter = 1.02)/(2 x 2. Solution: (D2 .8 x 10-6 x 40) = -201. The pin is to be reduced in size for assembly into the collar by cooling to a sufficiently low temperature that there is a clearance of 0. (a) What is the temperature to which the pin must be cooled 230 . the clearance between the shaft and the collar is to be 0.52) = 10.70) = 4221 x 10-6 = 0.950)(3.1.00623 D1 D1 = 1. If it must be reduced in size by 0.20/(24.1 x 10-6 mm/mm per °C.007 in.6° C ° 33. For ease of assembly when the collar is heated to an elevated temperature of 1000°F. and the pin has a diameter = 40.21 = -0.52 .D1 = 0.0)(2.500 .Dp2)/2D c2 = 25. For steel.52)/(1.12 A shaft made of aluminum is 40. At room temperature (20°C).007.Rearranging.00623 D1 = 1.5 x 3.007 in. determine the increase in diameter of the pin. Solution: D2 .507 .00623 D1 1. determine the inside diameter of the ring when heated to 500°C.200 lb/in2 33.20 mm in order to be expansion fitted into a hole.7 x 10-6 in/in per °F.1.21) T2 . pf = 30 x 106 (0.1.507 .15 A steel collar whose outside diameter = 3.500(1. 33. (b) Interference i = 1.30 = 12.14 A 1-inch diameter steel pin is to be heated from room temperature (70°F) to 700°F.5) 2 2 2 Rearranging.000(2. 33. Solution: (a) If the clearance = 0.950 lb/in2 (c) Max σe = 2(34.52)/(22 x 106 x (2.8 x 10-6 mm/mm per °C. If the coefficient of thermal expansion of the pin is α = 6.500 in.02 .4977 = 0.00233)(3. yield strength = 450 MPa.02 . Its coefficient of thermal expansion α = 24. 1.00 mm and 40.0 x 10-6 m/m/°C. Determine: (a) the initial inside diameter of the collar at room temperature so that this clearance is satisfied.507/1.D1 = D2 .

24(10-6) T2 T2 = -104.8(10-6) = 480.04) – 40. then SF = Y/( Max σe ) = 450/209 = 2.8 MPa (c) Max σe = 2pfDc2/(Dc2 – Dp2) = 2(74.8(10-6) -60.for assembly? (b) What is the radial pressure at room temperature after assembly? (c) What is the safety factor in the resulting assembly? Solution: (a) D2 – D1 = αD1(T2 – T1) = (40.02 = 12(10-6)(40.2(10-6) = 480.24(10-6) T2 -50.02)(752 – 402)/(40(752) = 0.Dp2)/DpDc2 pf = 209(109)(0.8)(752)/(752 – 402) = 209 MPa If Y = 450 MPa and Max σe = Y/SF.02)(T2 – 20) -0.00 – 0.395.24(10-6) T2 – 9604.000(10-6) + 9604.9° C ° (b) pf = Ei(Dc2 .07477(109) N/m2 = 74.15 231 .06 = 480.

Answer. Answer. all correct answers must be given. Besides the starting material. Laminated object manufacturing produces a solid physical model by stacking layers of sheet stock that are each cut to an outline corresponding to the cross-sectional shape of a CAD model that has been sliced into layers. 34. the entire layer is exposed to an ultraviolet light source through a mask that is positioned above the surface of the liquid polymer. To attain a perfect score on the quiz.34 RAPID PROTOTYPING Review Questions 34. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point. Describe the RP technology called solid ground curing.6 Of all of the current rapid prototyping technologies.1 What is rapid prototyping? Provide a definition of the term. What is the common approach used in all of the material addition technologies to prepare the control instructions for the RP system? Answer. (2) solid. and (3) powders. Rapid prototyping consists of a family of fabrication processes developed to make engineering prototypes in minimum possible lead times based on a computer-aided design (CAD) model of the item. what other feature distinguishes the rapid prototyping technologies? Answer. Stereolithography. 34. (2) tessellation of the geometric model. For each question. (1) Liquid. 34. and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required 232 .8 What is the starting material in fused deposition modeling? Answer.5 34. Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 14 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct). which one is the most widely used? Answer.4 What are the three types of starting materials in rapid prototyping? Answer. The text describes the common approach as a three step process: (1) Geometric modeling. Solid ground curing works by curing a photosensitive polymer layer by layer to create a solid model based on CAD geometric data. Answer. The part build process also distinguishes the different RP technologies.3 34. since each correct answer is worth 1 point. The layers are bonded one on top of the previous prior to cutting. and (3) slicing of the model into layers that approximate the solid geometry. which consists of modeling the component on a CAD system to define its enclosed volume.2 34. in which the CAD model is converted into a format that approximates its surfaces by facets (triangles or polygons). Instead of using a scanning laser beam to accomplish the curing of a given layer. A long filament of wax or polymer. 34.7 Describe the RP technology called laminated object manufacturing.

(b) fused deposition modeling. (b). (d) selective laser sintering. and (d) Problems 34. Answer.2 Which of the following rapid prototyping processes starts with a photosensitive liquid polymer to fabricate a component (more than one)? (a) ballistic particle manufacturing.3 Of all of the current material addition rapid prototyping technologies. (a). (b) fused deposition modeling. if 10 s are lost each layer to lower the height of the platform that holds the part. and (f) stereolithography.25 mm. Compute an estimate for the time required to build the part. Answer. 34. 34.5 Which one of the following RP technologies uses solid sheet stock as the starting material? (a) ballistic particle manufacturing. (c) selective laser sintering. The diameter of the laser beam (“spot size”) = 0. (b) fused deposition modeling.10 mm. and (f) 34. (c) part accuracy. Answer. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers.4 Which of the following RP technologies use a liquid as the starting material (more than one)? (a) ballistic particle manufacturing. (c). parts with intricate internal geometries. and (e) stereolithography. (b) Desktop milling is the principal material removal technology used for rapid prototyping. Answer. and (e) stereolithography. Answer. Layer thickness = 0. The outside dimension of the square = 100 mm and the inside dimension = 90 mm (wall thickness = 5 mm except at corners). Answer. and (e) stereolithography. (d) solid ground curing.8 Which of the following are problems with the current material addition rapid prototyping technologies (more than one)? (a) inability to convert a solid part into layers.6 Which of the following RP technologies uses powders as the starting material (more than one)? (a) ballistic particle manufacturing. and (e) three dimensional printing. (e) solid ground curing. Answer. (c) 34. 233 . (b) Examples include small batch sizes of plastic parts that could not be economically injection molded. (d) solid ground curing.1 Machining is never used for rapid prototyping because it takes too long: (a) true or (b) false. Neglect the time for postcuring.7 Rapid prototyping technologies are never used to make production parts: (a) true or (b) false. (c) and (e) 34. (c) selective laser sintering. (d) solid ground curing.reduces the score by 1 point. (b) fused deposition modeling. (c) laminated object manufacturing. 34. and the beam is moved across the surface of the photopolymer at a velocity of 500 mm/s. The height of the tube (z-direction) = 80 mm. Answer. (b) fused deposition modeling. (c) laminated object manufacturing. (d) and (e) 34. (d) solid ground curing. and one-of-a-kind parts such as bone replacements.1 A prototype of a tube with a square cross-section is to be fabricated using stereolithography. (e) 34. (e). (b) limited material variety. which one is the most widely used? (a) ballistic particle manufacturing. (c) selective laser sintering. and (d) part shrinkage.

10 mm/layer) = 800 layers Tc = 800(25. and the filament is fed into the workhead from its spool at a rate of 30.25 mm)(500 mm/s)+ 10 s = 15. The diameter of the laser beam = 0.2 + 10 = 25.20 mm.5 A cone-shaped part is to be fabricated using stereolithography.94 + 4000 = 8047.9 s = 134. Compute an estimate for the time required to build the part.20 mm and the width of the extrudate deposited on the surface of the part = 1. Ti = (1900 mm2)/(0. The layer thickness = 0.1 is to be fabricated using fused deposition modeling instead of stereolithography.40 mm. Layer thickness is to be 0. 34.within round-off error. Solution: Volume of cube V = πR2h/3 = π(35) 2(40)/3 = 51. Solution: Layer area Ai same for all layers.3.227 mm)(30.25 mm.33 s = 134.20 mm/layer) = 200 layers Average volume per layer Vi= (51.20 mm.40 mm/layer) = 200 layers Tc = 200(25. Solution: Use same basic approach as in stereolithography. if 10 s are lost each layer to lower the height of the platform that holds the part. Ai = 1002 – 902 = 1900 mm2 Time to complete one layer Ti same for all layers. The radius of the cone at its base = 35 mm and its height = 40 mm.2) = 5.66 s 234 . and the beam is moved across the surface of the photopolymer at a velocity of 500 mm/s.22 mm.000 mm3 Tc = (152.160 s = 336.24 hr 34. Layer area Ai same for all layers.2) = 20.313 mm3)/200 = 256.22 min = 2. It is known that the diameter of the filament fed into the extruder workhead is 1. Solution: Cross-sectional area of filament = πD2/4 = 0.25 mm)(150 mm/s)+ 10 s = 10.133 + 10 = 20.66 + 10 = 21.2 + 10 = 25.040 s = 84. Ti = (1900 mm2)/(0.2 s Number of layers nl = (80 mm)/(0.22 x 500) = 11.55 mm3/s) + (400 layers)(10 s delay/layer) = 4047.227 mm2 Volumetric rate of filament deposition = (1. Ai = 1002 – 902 = 1900 mm2 Time to complete one layer Ti same for all layers.0 min = 1. Neglect postcuring time. A delay of 10 s is experienced between each layer to reposition the workhead.4 hr 34. Compute an estimate for the time required to build the part.000 mm3)/( 37.4 Solve Problem 34.56 mm3 Since thickness t = 0. Ai = 1002 – 902 = 1900 mm2 Time to complete one layer Ti same for all layers.2 s Number of layers nl = (80 mm)/(0. Between layers.25π(1. The extruder workhead moves in the x-y plane at a speed of 150 mm/s. average area/layer = (256.20 mm) = 1282.13 min = 2.6 hr 34.133) = 8053.6 mm/s) = 37.55 mm3/s Part volume = part cross sectional area x height = Ah A = 1002 – 902 = 1900 mm2 and h = 80 mm.8/(0.25 mm.6 mm of length per second while the workhead is depositing material.1 except that the layer thickness = 0.0 min = 5.313 mm3 Layer thickness t = 0.56 mm3)/(0.24 hr This is very close to previous calculated value .20 mm Number of layers nl = 40 mm/(0.3 The part in Problem 34.25 mm)(500 mm/s)+ 10 s = 15. Part volume V = 1900(80) = 152.8 mm2 Average time per layer Ti = 1282.Solution: Layer area Ai same for all layers.20 mm/layer) = 400 layers Tc = 400(20. the feed rate from the spool is zero.133 s Number of layers nl = (80 mm)/(0.25) 2 = 1.2 Solve Problem 34. except using the following additional information. Ti = (1900 mm2)/(1.

Cycle time Tc = 200(21.6 The cone-shaped part in Problem 34. Layer thickness = 0. if 10 s are lost each layer to lower the height of the platform that holds the part.5 – 0. outside diameter = 75 mm.4 s = 34.5π(12) 2/4) A1 = 4417.1 mm)/(500 mm/s) + 10 s = 0.0 – 56.25 x 500) + 10 = 12.25 x 500) + 10 = 9.6 +113.292 + 10 = 10.1 + (390. circumference C = (29.37) Tc = 13. Neglect postcuring time. Ignore cutting of the cross-hatched areas outside of the part since the cone should readily drop out of the stack owing to its geometry. Let us compute the areas of the three shapes.2 mm/layer) = 50 layers Time to complete one layers for each of the three shapes: (1) Ti1 = (4864.5 mm2)/(0.2 mm2)/(200 layers) = 29.5 = 5844. For a cone.5 – 0.1 mm Average time to cut a layer Ti = (146.86 hr.3 min = 0.22 mm2/layer Since layer thickness t = 0. which is 10 mm thick and includes the handle and handle bar.70) + 50(22. Solution: For LOM.1 (in text).5 A = π(35)(352 + 40)0.20 mm) = 146.2 min = 1.4 s = 72.92) + 525(19.5) = 1546.1 + (390.5 is to be built using laminated object manufacturing.37 + 10 = 22. 34. Layer thickness = 0.1 = 1212.25 mm.66 s) = 4332.57 hr.92 + 10 = 48. the total surface area (not including the base) = πR(R2 + h2)0.0 – 56. (2) cup ring and handle.292 s Number of layers nl = 40/0. and handle bar.2 mm2 Average surface area per layer = (5844.9 + 113.37 s Total time for all layers Tc = 50(48. 34. Dimensions of the part are: height = 125 mm.2 mm2)/(0.70 s (3) Ti3 = (1546.25 x 500) + 10 = 38. handle diameter = 12 mm. which is the outline to be cut by the laser beam. and (3) top of cup.20 mm. inside diameter = 65 mm.22 mm2)/(0.6 + 113. The laser beam can cut the sheet stock at a velocity of 500 mm/s.20 mm. Area (1): A1 = π(75) 2/4 + π(12) 2/4 + (approximately)(12 x 32.20 = 200 layers Tc = 200(10.5) = 4864. Compute an estimate of the time required to build the part.5π(12) 2/4) A3 = 1099. Compute an estimate for the time required to build the part. 235 .7 mm2 Area (3): A3 = π(752 – 652)/4 + π(12) 2/4 + (approximately)(12 x 32.292) = 2058.2) = 525 layers (3) nl3 = (10 mm)/(0. handle distance from cup = 70 mm measured from center (axis) of cup to center of handle.2 mm/layer) = 50 layers (2) nl2 = (125 – 10 – 10)/(0. handle. if 10 s are lost each layer to lower the height of the platform that holds the part and advance the sheet stock in preparation for the next layer. Solution: The part can be sliced into cross sections that have one of three basic shapes: (1) base.7 Stereolithography is to be used to build the part in Figure 34. and the beam can be moved across the surface of the photopolymer at = 500 mm/s.78 min = 3. we need the circumference of each layer. The handle bars connecting the cup and handle at the top and bottom of the part have a rectangular cross-section and are 10 mm thick and 12 mm wide.7 mm2)/(0.907 s + 231.70 + 10 = 19.20 mm. which is 10 mm thick and consists of the cup ring.2 mm2 Number of layers for each area: (1) nl1 = (10 mm)/(0. The laser beam diameter = 0.92 s (2) Ti2 = (1212.5 mm2 Area (2): A2 = π(752 – 652)/4 + π(12) 2/4 = 1099. The thickness at the base of the cup is 10 mm.20 hr.

Answer. A clean room is a room or rooms where the air is purified to reduce airborne particles. viruses. A photoresist is a polymer that is sensitive to light radiation in a certain wavelength range. oil. and dirt). and processing equipment (wear particles. X-ray lithography. 35. Important semiconductor materials include silicon (most important).4 What are the three major stages in the production of silicon-based integrated circuits? Answer. Review Questions 35. An integrated circuit is a collection of electronic devices (e. in which layers are added.6 What are some of the significant sources of contaminants in IC processing? Answer. in which the wafers are tested. and ion lithography. and gallium arsenide. The planar process refers to the fabrication of an IC chip by a sequence of layering processes . Sources of contaminants include humans (bacteria.5 What is a clean room and explain the classification system by which clean rooms are rated? Answer. cut into chips. The three stages are: (1) silicon processing. The classification system indicates the quantity of particles of size 0. and the chips are encapsulated in a package. altering. 35.g. 35. What are the alternatives to photolithography in IC processing? 35.35 35.10 Why is ultraviolet light favored over visible light in photolithography? 236 . diodes.5 microns per cubic foot. cigarette smoke. resistors) that have been fabricated and electrically intraconnected onto the surface of a small flat chip of semiconductor material. transistors.7 What is the name of the process most commonly used to grow single crystal ingots of silicon for semiconductor processing? Answer. germanium.9 What is a photoresist? Answer.. the sensitivity causes either an increase or a decrease in solubility of the polymer to certain chemicals. and removing layers to create the devices and their intraconnection on the IC chip. and hair).adding. 35. a class 100 clean room contains 100 or fewer particles of size 0.2 Name some of the important semiconductor materials? Answer.8 Answer. 35. It is the Czocralski process. 35.3 Describe the planar process. Alternatives to photolithography are: electron lithography. For example.1 PROCESSING OF INTEGRATED CIRCUITS What is an integrated circuit? Answer. (2) IC fabrication. altered. and removed in selected regions to form electronic devices on the face of the wafer. 35.5 microns or greater per cubic foot of air. and (3) IC packaging. to produce very pure silicon and shape it into wafers.

237 . For each question. 35. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers. 35. or (e) wafer. 35.16 35. 35. Answer. and the chip and leadframe are then attached to it. (c) 35. (2) proximity printing. where C and m are constants for a certain circuit type. DIP stands for dual in-line package. the transferred images are sharper. adding a solid lid to complete the package. (b) device. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point. Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 17 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct). Epitaxial deposition involves growth of a crystalline structure on the surface of a substrate which is an extension of the substrate's structure. and (3) projection printing. the Rent's Rule equation is: nio = C ncm. What is a DIP? Answer. Define epitaxial deposition. SiO 2 is grown on the surface of the Si wafer.13 What layer material is produced by thermal oxidation in IC fabrication? Answer. Because it has a shorter wavelength. 35.15 What is Rent's Rule? Answer. 35. 35.2 An alternative name for chip in semiconductor processing is which one of the following (one answer)? (a) component. To attain a perfect score on the quiz. all correct answers must be given. since each correct answer is worth 1 point. The three exposure techniques are: (1) contact printing. The two types are: (1) through-hole mounting and (2) surface mount technology. and heat dissipation.12 35. Answer. (c) 1 million. Postmolding refers to the use of transfer molding of epoxy around the chip and leadframe to form the package. Answer. Design functions of IC packaging include: provide electrical connections to external circuits.18 What is the difference between postmolding and premolding in plastic IC chip packaging? Answer.Answer.11 Name the three exposure techniques in photolithography. or (d) 100 million. encase chip for protection. an IC package with two rows of terminals on each side of a rectangular body containing the IC chip. (d) package.14 What are some of the important design functions of IC packaging? Answer.1 How many electronic devices would be contained in an IC chip in order for it to be classified in the VLSI category? (a) 1000. and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point. Rent's Rule indicates the number of input/output terminals nio required for an integrated circuit of a given number of internal circuits nc.17 Name the two categories of component mounting to a printed circuit board. (b) 10.000. Answer. a premolded package is one in which an enclosure is molded beforehand. (c) die.

(c) 35. 35.8 Which one of the following impurity elements form electron acceptor (p-type) regions in silicon wafers? (a) antimony.3 Which one of the following is the source of silicon for semiconductor processing? (a) pure Si in nature. (b) diffusion. Answer. (c) gold. or (e) silicon dioxide. (d) epoxies. Problems Silicon Processing and IC Fabrication 35. Answer. a positive resist becomes which of the following? (a) less soluble or (b) more soluble to the chemical developing fluid. (c) boron. (f) thermal oxidation. (a) 35. 35. (b) and (d). (c) gold. (d) nitrogen. (d) ultraviolet light. which reduces the length to 950 mm. (b) 35.7 Which of the following are doping processes in IC fabrication (more than one)? (a) chemical vapor deposition.11 Which of the following are the two principal packaging materials used in IC packaging? (a) aluminum.10 Which etching process produces the more anisotropic etch in IC fabrication? (a) plasma etching. (b) arsenic. (c) infrared light. and (f). The diameter is ground to 100 mm. (c) ion implantation.12 Which of the following metals are commonly used for wire bonding of chip pads to the lead frame (two best answers)? (a) aluminum. (c) ion implantation. (d) nickel. (c) Si3N4. or (b) wet chemical etching. (e) plasma etching. (e) plasma etching. Answer. Answer. (a) 35. (b) incandescent light. (e) silicon. Answer. Answer.5 After exposure to light.6 Which of the following processes are used to add layers of various materials in IC fabrication (more than one)? (a) chemical vapor deposition. Answer. A 30 mm wide flat is ground on the surface which 238 . (c) 35. or (f) potassium. (b) copper. or (d) SiO 2. (d) physical vapor deposition.1 A single crystal boule of silicon is grown by the Czochralski process to an average diameter of 110 mm with length = 1200 mm. or (e) X-ray. (b) copper. Answer. or (f) silver. The seed and tang ends are removed. or (f) silver. (d) physical vapor deposition. (a) and (c). (b) diffusion. (b) and (c). 35. (d) 35. (b) aluminum oxide. (c) copper. (d). (e) silicon.Answer.9 Which one of the following is the most common metal for intraconnection of devices in a silicon integrated circuit? (a) aluminum. Answer. Answer. (f) thermal oxidation. (d) 35. or (g) wet etching. (a). (b) SiC. (e) phosphorous.4 Which one of the following is the most common form of radiation used in photolithography? (a) electronic beam radiation. or (g) wet etching. (d) nickel.

0/(0.095 = 54.5(1200-950) = 125.0 mm2 The area of a segment of the circle created by the 30 mm chord As = πR2θ/360 . mm3.625 in.46°.0.921 inch (125 mm). and (c) what is the volumetric proportion of silicon in the starting boule that is wasted during processing? Solution: (a) Volume V = V1 (tang) + V2 (cylinder) + V3 (seed) V1 = V3 = (cone in which h = 0.465.4605) 2 = 19. and As = the area of the segment As created by the flat ground on the cylindrical surface. 0. (b) how many wafers are cut from it. The diameter is ground to 4.820.92)/360 .295) + 1039.820.025 + 0. The ingot is then sliced into wafers 0.25 inches and a length of 5 ft.As = 7854.As.921) = 19.820.50 mm.715.0378) = 1269.333π(5. chord As = πR2θ/360 .972) + 9. As = π(50) 2(34.025 inch thick.33 mm.00 in.4.0) = 43.028.25/2) 2(6.0.92°.028.extends from one end to the other.972 mm3.465. A primary flat of width 1.095 mm3 (b) Number of wafers = 950/(0.5θ = sin-1(15/50) = 17.. R = 55) = πR2h/3 = 0.101 mm3 Proportion wasted = 5. and (c) what is the volumetric proportion of silicon in the starting boule that is wasted during processing? Solution: (a) Total volume V = V1 (tang) + V2 (cylinder) + V3 (seed) V1 = V3 = (cone in which h = 0.5(50) 2 sin 34.25) 2(48)/4 = 1039.354.5(60-48) = 6. where Ac = area of the circle of radius R = 4. Assuming that the seed and tang portions cut off the ends of the starting boule were conical in shape.52%. The ingot is then sliced into wafers of thickness = 0.7 mm2 Volume of one wafer Vw = Awt = 7807.994 = 5.625/4.0.8 → 1269 wafers (c) Area of one wafer Aw = Ac .4605 in. Ac = πR2 = π(50) 2 = 7854. in 3.5) = 3903. 0. where Ac = area of the circle of radius R = 50 mm.33) = 1144. 35. D = 110. using an abrasive saw blade whose thickness = 0. and As = the area of the segment As created by the flat ground on the cylindrical surface.354.50 + 0.672 in3 (b) Number of wafers = 48.095 .333π(55) 2(125) = 395. The seed and tang ends are cut off.2 A silicon boule is grown by the Czochralski process to a diameter of 5.28°. . (b) how many wafers are cut from it.92 = 761.625 inch is ground on the surface the entire length of the ingot. Ac = πR2 = π(2. 239 .0.46.5R2 sin θ. V2 = πD2L/4 = π(5.295 in3. V2 = πR2L = π(55) 2(950) = 9.152 = 9. using an abrasive saw blade whose thickness = 0.8 .8) = 4. assuming the entire 950 mm length can be sliced.As.101/9.082 in 3 V = 2(43. where θ is the angle formed by two radii of the circle and the chord.0128 inch.5 = 46.6 → 1144 wafers (c) Area of one wafer Aw = Ac .25) = πR2h/3 = 0.5θ = sin-1(1. reducing the effective length to 48. where θ is the angle formed by two radii of the circle and the chord.8 mm3 Volume of 1144 wafers = 1144(3903. D = 5.7(0. determine: (a) the original volume of the boule. Assume that the seed and tang portions are conical in shape.994 mm3 Volume wasted = 9.082 = 1125.3 = 7807. assuming the entire 4 ft length can be sliced.0 .3 mm2 Aw = Ac .0128) = 48/(0.921/2 = 2. θ = 34.0194 in2 The area of a segment of the circle created by the 1. Determine: (a) the original volume of the boule.5R2 sin θ.152 mm3 Total V = 2(395.

0 inch wafer has a processable area that is only 3.6 mm Chip area Ac = (5) 2 = 25 mm2 The chips on the periphery of the processable area are lost.8691(0.621 = 527.56°.463 in 2 Circumference C = πD = 3.25 inch on a side? All chips must lie completely within the processable area. compared to the values in the previous problem? Solution: Processable area A = πD2/4 = π(175) 2/4 = 24.345.3 = 153% increase Note: These results indicate the advantages of increasing wafer size. Chip area Ac = (0.051 in 3 Proportion wasted = 527.549.25) 2 = 0. (b) wafer diameter.1 = 311 chips 35.1503 in 2 Aw = Ac .4 Solve the previous problem.1503 = 18.053/25 .025) = 0.0. Thus.82%.0.0372 .5 → 121 chips 240 .11. if each chip is 5 mm on a side? All chips must lie completely within the processable area.621 in 3 Volume wasted = 1125.8 mm Chip area Ac = (5) 2 = 25 mm2 The chips on the periphery of the processable area are lost.3 mm2 Circumference C = πD = 110π = 345.053 mm2 Circumference C = πD = 175π = 549. Thus.25 = 167. only use a wafer size of 200 mm whose processable area is 175 mm in diameter. if each chip is 0. our estimated number of chips produced is: n = 10.As = 19.θ = 38. The number of lost chips can be estimated by dividing the average chip dimension (assumed to be the length of the side) into the circumference of the circle. Solution: Processable area A = πD2/4 = π(3.56)/360 .4 .0625 in2 The chips on the periphery of the processable area are lost.463/0.9503. Assume the cut lines (streets) between chips are of negligible width.65) 2/4 = 10.467/0. As = π(2. Thus.3 The processable area on a 125 mm diameter wafer is a 110 mm diameter circle.053 .672 .4717) = 598.4605) 2(38. Solution: Processable area A = πD2/4 = π(110) 2/4 = 9503. How many square IC chips can be fabricated within this area.110 = 852 chips (a) Increase in number of chips = (852 – 311)/311 = 174% increase (b) Increase in wafer diameter = (200 – 125)/125 = 60% increase (c) Increase in processable area = (24.5 A 4.672 = 46. What is the percent increase in (a) number of chips.4717 in 3 Volume of 1269 wafers = 1269(0. 35.3/25 .65 inches in diameter. 35.45.65π = 11.6/5 = 380.9 = 121. The number of lost chips can be estimated by dividing the average chip dimension (assumed to be the length of the side) into the circumference of the circle. and (c) processable wafer area.467 in. The number of lost chips can be estimated by dividing the average chip dimension (assumed to be the length of the side) into the circumference of the circle.8869 = 0.8/5 = 962 .0625 .3)/ 9503.8691 in 2 Volume of one wafer Vw = Awt = 18. our estimate of the chips produced is: n = 24.69.051/1125.5(2.598.1 . our estimate of the chips produced is: n = 9503.0194 . Assume the cut lines (streets) between chips are of negligible width. How many square IC chips can be processed within this area.1.4605) 2 sin 38.56 = 2.

65π = 14.0.3 → 213 chips Note: the wafer diameter increases by about 27%.7 .4 = 213.25 = 271.9 In the previous problem.982/0.11 A dual-in-line package has a total of 48 leads. only use a wafer size of 6.a total of 64 I/O pins. what should be the size of the opening in the mask through which the etchant will operate? Solution: A = d/u = 1.667) 2 = 113.003) = 0. Use Rent's Rule (C = 4. Solution: 48 = 4. u = d/1. resulting in a SiO 2 film that is 3 µm thick. The number of lost chips can be estimated by dividing the average chip dimension (assumed to be the length of the side) into the circumference of the circle. The width of the etched-out area is specified to be 10 µm. our estimated of the chips produced is: n = 16. what is the final wafer thickness? Solution: A 3 µm film requires a layer of silicon = 0. Mask opening size = 10.2 = 2.5 = 48/4. compute the estimated number of devices (logic gates) that could be placed on the chip in the following cases: (a) a DIP with 16 I/O pins on a side . and (c) a pin grid array with 16 by 16 pins .2 = 3/1.400 .2(2. Mask opening size = 10.5 and m = 0. Using Rent's Rule (C = 4.5).5) to determine the approximate number of input/output pins required in the package.58. (b) a square chip carrier with 16 pins on a side .0 .35.25) 2 = 0.50 inches in diameter.5) to determine the approximate number of logic gates that could be fabricated in the IC chip for this package. Chip area Ac = (0.56(0.0625 in2 The chips on the periphery of the processable area are lost.5 = 142.44d Final thickness tf = 0.5 = 10. 35.5) = 5.5 and m = 0.0 . what should be the size of the mask opening? Solution: A = d/u = ∞. If the starting thickness of the wafer was exactly 0. The SiO2 film is 3 µm thick. if plasma etching is used instead of wet etching. u = d/∞ = 0 µm. the wafer area increases by 62%. Thus. If the degree of anisotropy for the etchant in the process is known to be 1.8 → 113 logic gates 35.65) 2/4 = 16.608 in.0 inches whose processable area is 5.667 nc = (10.3 → 142 input/output pins 35.5 and m = 0.2(0) = 10.0 µ m 35.44(3 x 10-3) + 3 x 10-3 = 0.0625 . This is a principal motivation for using larger wafer diameters. 241 .40168 mm 35.12 It is desired to determine the effect of package style on the number of circuits (logic gates) that can be fabricated onto an IC chip to which the package is assembled. Solution: Rents rule: nio = Cncm = 4.608/0.5 nc0.14.5(1000) 0. What is the percent increase in number of chips compared to the 50% increase in wafer diameter? Solution: Processable area A = πD2/4 = π(4. and the number of chips increases by 76%.5(nc)0.400 + 0.6 Solve the previous problem.a total of 32 pins.0 µ m IC Packaging 35.8 It is desired to etch out a region of a silicon dioxide film on the surface of a silicon wafer.400 mm thick. Use Rent's Rule (C = 4.2.2.7 The surface of a silicon wafer is thermally oxidized.5 µm.10 An integrated circuit used in a microprocessor will contain 1000 logic gates. and the degree of anisotropy for plasma etching is infinity.982 in 2 Circumference C = πD = 4.a total of 256 pins.

9 → 19 pins. nc0. determine the value of n io and n c at which the number of logic gates equals the number of I/O terminals in the package.11)? Solution: (a) Rent’s rule: nio = 6.5 ln nio = ln 4. 35.5 = 7.12 nc0. How many memory cells can be contained in the device.12 = nio/6.18) = 4.0.728 memory cells (b) Eq. Solution: (a) Rent’s rule: nio = 6. Yields in IC Processing 35. what is the final weight of silicon that results after final test? 242 .12).12 = 6. and (b) the alternative computation given in Eq.5 = 1. (1).11).4427 ln (64 x 64) = 1.17 Given the following: crystal yield Yc = 50%.14 A static memory device will have a two dimensional array with 64 by 64 cells.50408 ln nio = 3. find nc if nio = 256.11)? Solution: (a) Rent’s rule: nio = 6.294.12 = (5. find nc if nio = 64.5 ln nio = 0.12 = 6.333 = 1.5 .5 and (2) nio = nc. nio = 4.22 nc = 202. find nc if nio = 32.12 = 31.5 = 64/4.16 Suppose it is desired to produce a memory device that will be contained in a dual-in-line package with 32 I/O leads. multiprobe yield Ym = 60%. If a starting boule weighs 75 kg.5 .5.5 + 0.89 nc = 3236.0 nc0.3 → 16 pins (b) Eq. Solution: We have two equations and two unknowns: (1) nio = 4.00816 nio = nc = 20.143.25.5 = 56.5 = 32/4.333) 1/. and (b) the alternative computation method given in Eq.5nc0. and (b) the alternative computation method given in Eq.000. (35.5 .4427 ln 4096 = 12 pins.Solution: (a) Using Rent’s rule: nio = 4.3 → 3236 logic gates 35.5 → 31 pins (b) Eq.4427 ln (1.6 → 50 logic gates (b) Using Rent’s rule: nio = 4.11 nc = 50.12 = 16.000) 0. nc0. Compare the number of input/output pins required using (a) Rent's Rule (C = 6.5(nc)0.0 (1.5 ln nio ln nio .333) 8. (35. nc0. (35.4427 ln nc ln nc = 32/1. Using nio in place of nc in Eq.5 ln nio = ln 4.967.slice yield Ys = 50%.18 nc = exp(22. crystal-to.11): nio = 1.12).0 nc0.3 → 202 logic gates (c) Using Rent’s rule: nio = 4.000.333 nc = (5.305 memory cells. (35.4427 = 22.0 = 32/6 = 5. The closest possible values are nio = nc = 20 or 21.000) = 19. how many I/O pins are predicted by: (a) Rent's Rule (C = 6. (35.5 = 14.5(nc)0.13 In the Equation for Rent's Rule with C = 4. and final test yield Yt = 90%.0 (64 x 64) 0.5nio0.0 and m = 0. wafer yield Yw = 70%.5 = 256/4.12).12 = 6.15 To produce a 1 megabit memory chip. 35.4427 ln nc 32 = 1.11): nio = 1.0 nc0. 35.4427 ln nc = 1. (35.0 and m = 0.5(nc)0.0 and m = 0.0(4096) 0. as estimated by: (a) Rent's Rule (C = 6.11): nio = 1.5 and m = 0.

Eq.83 = 0.027 defects/cm2. (35.09 kg 35. (35.20 The yield of good chips in multiprobe for a certain batch of wafers is 83%. 35. Eq. (35.384 = 0. Eq. Eq. (35.25% of the total wafer area on one side.14): Ym = e-AD = e-51.14 = 0. Determine the number of good chips using: (a) the Boltzmann yield estimate.67 = 0. (a) Eq.15): Ym = 1/(1 + AD) Processable area A = π(135) 2/4 = 14. (35. (35. The density of point defects in the surface area is 0.50)(0.14D -0.251(205) = 51.15): Ym = 1/(1 + AD) = 1/(1 + 51.419(205) = 85.18633 = -143.314 mm2 = 143. If the defects are all assumed to be point defects that are uniformly distributed over the surface (Poisson distribution).18633/143. what is the density of point defects D? 243 . and (b) the Bose-Einstein yield estimate.14D) = 0. (35.18 A silicon wafer with a nominal diameter of 100 mm is processed to fabricate square chips of 5 mm on a side. 35.72 in2 (a) Eq.027) = e-1.14): Ym = e-AD = e-17. what is their density D? Solution: Eq.0 in 2.72(0.17 D = 0.15): Ym = 1/(1 + AD) = 1/(1 + 17.32 defects/in 2.14D ln 0. Eq. Determine the multiprobe yield using: (a) the Boltzmann yield estimate.Solution: Overall yield Y = Yc Ys Yw Ym Yt = (0.32) = 1/6.806D = 1 . (35.75 inches in diameter.15 35.00344 (b) Eq.19 A 5-inch diameter wafer is processed over a circular area that is 4. as the method of estimating yield.806D = 1 118.60)(0.806 = 0.15).00143 defects/cm2.0945 Wf = YWi = 0.83(1 + 143.00130 defects/cm2. The wafers have a nominal diameter of 150 mm with a processable area that is 135 mm in diameter.15).70)(0.0945(75) = 7.4 → 51 good chips (b) Eq.90) = 0.17/118. Solution: Processable area A = π(4.32) = e-5.25 cm2 Area of one chip Ac = 5 x 5 = 25 mm. The yield of good chips on this wafer is Ym = 75%. The density of point defects in the surface area is 0.21 In the previous problem. (35.14).83 = -143.14D D = 0.15).67 = 0.419 Number of good chips = 0. (35.5)(0.83 + 118.6525(7854) = 5125 mm2 = 51.14 cm2 0.314 mm2 = 143. Number of chips = 5125/25 = 205 chips total.0. and (b) the Bose-Einstein yield estimate.14D) 0.25 x 0.22 A silicon wafer has a processable area of 20. The area of the processed chips occupies 65. determine the density of point defects using Bose-Einstein statistics.14): Ym = e-AD Processable area A = π(135) 2/4 = 14. Solution: Eq. If the defects are all assumed to be point defects that are uniformly distributed over the surface (Poisson distribution).75) 2/4 = 17.251 Number of good chips = 0.25(0.14 cm2 0.9 → 85 good chips 35.83 = 1/(1 + 143.72 x 0.14).83 = e-143. (35. Solution: Wafer area A = π(100) 2/4 = 7854 mm2 Chip area A = 0.384 = 0.027) = 1/2.

01438 defects/in2.75 = e-20D ln 0.2877/20 = 0.14): Ym = e-AD 0. (35. 244 .75 = -20D -0.Solution: Eq.2877 = -20D D = 0.

such as silk screening. (5) minimize delays in signal transmission. What is etching used for in PCB fabrication? Answer. The two methods are: (1) screening. (2) structural support.1 ELECTRONICS ASSEMBLY AND PACKAGING What are the functions of a well-designed electronics package? Answer. The principal functions are: (1) power distribution and signal interconnection.10 What are the two main categories of printed circuit board assemblies. Continuity testing is an electrical test in which contact probes are brought into contact with track and land areas to insure the existence of electrical conduction paths. 36.3 What is the difference between a track and a land on a printed circuit board? Answer. (1) chip to package.7 36. and (4) wiring and cabling inside a cabinet. A PCB is a laminated flat panel of insulating material to which electronic components are attached and electrically interconnected. 245 . Review Questions 36. Etching is used to remove copper cladding on the PCB surface to define the tracks and lands of the circuit. 36. and (2) photolithography. 36. (3) PCB to rack or chassis. as distinguished by the method of attaching components to the board? Answer.9 What is continuity testing. and (2) surface mount technology.8 What are the two basic resist coating methods for printed circuit boards? Answer. A track is a copper conducting path on a PCB. (2) double -sided board. Answer. 36.2 Identify the levels of packaging hierarchy in electronics. Continuity tests are generally used: (1) after the bare board has been fabricated. A via hole is a hole in the printed circuit board whose sides are plated with copper to serve as a conducting path from one side of a PCB to the other or between intermediate layers in a multilayer board. The two categories are: (1) pin-in-hole technology.6 What is a via hole in a printed circuit board? Answer. (3) environmental protection. 36. and (3) multilayer board. (2) component to PCB. (4) heat dissipation. 36. and (2) after the board has been populated with components. 36. The levels are: (0) chip intraconnections. Answer. also known as through-hole technology. The three types are: (1) single -sided board.36 36. while a land is a small copper area for electrically attaching components. and when is it performed in the PCB fabrication sequence? Answer.5 Name the three principal types of printed circuit board? Answer.4 Define what a printed circuit board (PCB) is.

14 What are the two methods of component placement and soldering in surface mount technology? Answer.15 What is a solder paste? Answer. testing. 36. A pin connector is a connector with multiple pins or blades that are inserted into the holes of a mating receptacle to establish electrical contact.36. Rework is required to correct the following types of defects: (1) replace defective components. 36. and (4) repair of copper film that has lifted from the substrate surface. 36. (3) components can be mounted on both sides of the board.19 Define what a terminal block is? Answer. (4) smaller PCBs are possible for the same function. A terminal block consists of a series of evenly spaced receptacles that allow connection of individual wires or terminals. and (4) certain types of components are not available in SMT. The solder constitutes about 85% of the total volume of the paste. Limitations and disadvantages of SMT include: (1) components are more difficult for humans to handle.16 36. 36. Crimping involves the mechanical forming of a terminal barrel to form a permanent connection with the stripped end of a conductor wire.20 What is a pin connector? Answer. (2) SMT components are generally more expensive than THT components. 36.13 Identify some of the limitations and disadvantages of surface mount technology? Answer.17 Identify the two basic methods of making electrical connections. The two methods are: (1) soldering.11 What are some of the reasons and defects that make rework an integral step in the PCB fabrication sequence? Answer. 246 . and (2) pressure connections. A press-fit technology in the context of electrical connections is an interference fit between a terminal pin and the plated hole into which it is inserted. (2) insert missing components. and (6) certain undesirable electrical effects are reduced. (3) inspection. (2) higher packing densities. Advantages of SMT include: (1) smaller components. Answer. (3) repair faulty solder joints. such as spurious surface capacitances and inductances. and (2) solder paste and reflow soldering.12 Identify some of the advantages of surface mount technology over conventional through-hole technology.18 What is press-fit technology in electrical connections? Answer. (5) reduced number of holes drilled in the board. 36. Define crimping in the context of electrical connections? Answer. 36. The flux binder includes an adhesive that attaches the SMT components to the board surface. A solder paste is a suspension of solder powders in a flux binder. Answer. 36. The two methods are: (1) adhesive bonding and wave soldering. and rework are more difficult.

36.4 Which of the following polymeric materials is commonly used as an ingredient in the insulation layer of a printed circuit board (more than one)? (a) copper. (c) second.7 Which of the following plating processes has the higher deposition rate in PCB fabrication? (a) electroless plating. (c) 0. (a) 36.1 The second level of packaging refers to which one of the following? (a) component to printed circuit board. (c) epoxy. To attain a perfect score on the quiz. or (d) 0. (c) reflow soldering. (d) phenolic. (d) 36. which of the following technologies results in greater problems during rework? (a) surface mount technology. (b) IC chip to package. all correct answers must be given. or (d) wiring and cabling connections. (b) first.6 Photolithography is widely used in PCB fabrication.0001 inch. (b) 0. (c) 36. Answer. Answer. or (e) fourth. or (d) tin. and (e) wave soldering. (d) third. which one of the following is another common metal plated onto a PCB? (a) aluminum. (b) gold. (c) second. (d) third. For each question. (c) nickel. 36. Answer.100 inch. (b) 36. and (f) polypropylene. (b) E-glass. (c) intraconnections on the chip. (b) first.3 Card-on-board (COB) packaging refers to which one of the following levels in the electronics packaging hierarchy? (a) zeroth. 247 . Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point.5 Typical thickness of the copper layer in a printed circuit board is which one of the following? (a) 0. Answer. 36. (b) 36.010 inch. or (e) fourth. (c) and (d).9 Which of the following are the soldering processes used to attach components to printed circuit boards in through-hole technology (more than one)? (a) hand soldering. or (b) positive resists. (d) torch soldering.8 In addition to copper.2 Surface mount technology is included within which one of the following levels of packaging? (a) zeroth.001 inch. (e) polyethylene. since each correct answer is worth 1 point. (c) 36. (a) and (e). Answer. (b) infrared soldering. Answer. or (b) through-hole technology.10 In general. (a) 36. and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point. Answer. Answer.Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 17 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct). or (b) electroplating. Which of the following is the most common resist type used in the processing of PCBs? (a) negative resists. Answer.

Answer.11 Which of the following are methods of forming electrical connections (more than one)? (a) soldering. and (d) sockets. (b) insulation displacement. and (d) 36.12 Which of the following electrical connection methods produce a separable connection (more than one): (a) crimping of terminals. (b). (c) retaining rings. (b) and (d) 248 . (b) terminal blocks. Answer. Answer. (c) press fitting. or (d) pressure connections. (a). (a) 36.

such as high strength and elasticity.9 What is meant by the term nanotechnology? Answer: Nanotechnology refers to devices and structures that are even smaller than in microsystems.3 Why is it reasonable to believe that microsystem products would be available at lower costs than products of larger. so both the circuit and the microdevice can be fabricated in combination on the same substrate. 37. 37. (2) in addition to its desirable electronic properties.5 What are some of the basic types of microsystem devices? Answer: The text indicates four classifications: (1) microsensors. 37. 37. 37. 37.4 What is a hybrid microsensor? Answer: A hybrid microsensor is a sensing element (transducer) combined with electronics components in the same device. Answer: A microelectromechanical system (MEMS) is a miniaturized system consisting of both electronic and mechanical components. more conventional size? Answer: Because less material is used in microsystem products. and (4) use of single-crystal silicon permits the production of physical features to very close tolerances. and relatively low density.7 What is meant by the term aspect ratio in microsystem technology? Answer: The aspect ratio is the height-to-width ratio of the features produced in the MST device.1 MICROFABRICATION TECHNOLOGIES Define microelectromechanical system. Surface micromachining refers to the planar structuring of the substrate surface using much more shallow layering processes. 37. 249 . typically.2 What is the approximate size scale in microsystem technology? Answer: The size range is 10-6 m to 10-3 m.6 Why is silicon a desirable work material in microsystem technology? Answer: The reasons given in the text are: (1) the microdevices in MST often include electronic circuits. (3) the technologies for processing silicon are well-established. Review Questions 37. and (4) microsystems and micro-instruments.8 What is the difference between bulk micromachining and surface micromachining? Answer: Bulk micromachining refers to a relatively deep wet etching process into a single-crystal silicon substrate (Si wafer). (3) microstructures and microcomponents. (2) microactuators. as well as the associated fabrication processes which involve the control of feature sizes measured on the nanometer (one nm = 10-9 m) scale.37 37. owing to their widespread use in microelectronics. silicon also possesses useful mechanical properties. good hardness.

and alteration. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers. and plastic molding. For each question. (d) lithography. the letters LIGA stand for which one of the following? (a) let it go already. Answer: (d). (b) little itty-bitty grinding apparatus. (d) nanotechnology. (c) X-ray radiation.2 The typical range of feature sizes in microsystem technology is which one of the following? (a) 103 m to 10-2 m. and (e). (d) oil pressure sensors. (b) microelectromechanical systems. (e) precision engineering. (c) micromachines. 37. 37. (b) natural light. Answer: (e). (e) temperature sensors for cabin climate control. 37. (c) height-to-width ratio of the MST device. and (c). (e) thickness-to-length ratio of the MST device. and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point. 37. Answer: (a). all correct answers must be given.7 Bulk micromachining refers to a relatively deep wet etching process into a single-crystal silicon substrate: (a) true or (b) false. grinding. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point. 37.1 Microsystem technology includes which of the following (more than one)?(a) LIGA technology.Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 15 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct). 250 . since each correct answer is worth 1 point. (e) lithography. 37.9 Photofabrication means the same process as photolithography.3 Which of the following are current applications of microsystem technology in modern automobiles (more than one)? (a) air-bag release sensors. Answer: (a). Answer: (a).5 The aspect ratio in microsystem technology is best defined by which one of the following? (a) degree of anisotropy in etched features. electrodeposition. (c) lithographic applications. (c) 10-9 m to 10-6 m. (b)10-6 m to 10-3 m. (b) alcohol blood level sensors. (d) length-to-width ratio of the fabricated features. 37. 37. Answer: (b). (e) silicon.4 The most common work material used in microsystem technology is which one of the following? (a) boron. (b) gold. (b) height-to-width ratio of the fabricated features. Answer: (a) and (c). (a) True or (b) false. (d). (c) nickel. To attain a perfect score on the quiz. (c) driver identification sensors for theft prevention.8 In the LIGA process. Answer: (b). (d) potassium hydroxide. (b).6 Which of the following forms of radiation have wavelengths shorter than the wavelength of ultraviolet light used in photolithography (more than one)? (a) electron beam radiation. 37.

10 The typical range of feature sizes in nanotechnology is which one of the following? (a) 10-3 m to 10-2 m. Photofabrication is an industrial process in which ultraviolet exposure through a pattern mask causes a significant increase in the chemical solubility of an optically clear material. thus permitting a suitable etchant to remove the exposed regions much more rapidly. This is not the same as photolithography.Answer: (b). 37. in which resists are used to determine the regions to be etched. 251 . Answer: (c). (b)10-6 m to 10-3 m. (c) 10-9 m to 10-6 m.

the slots cause the light source to be seen by the photocell as a series of flashes. It operates under the control of the machine control unit according to the set of instructions contained in the part program.38 38. In a closed loop system. either directly or through a gear train. each succeeding location is defined relative to the previous location. An optical encoder is a sensor for measuring angular position and rotational velocity. In continuous path. When there is a significant reaction force resisting the motion of the positioning system. 38. a closed loop system is preferred. there is no feedback of the output value.7 Why should the electromechanical system be the limiting factor in control resolution rather than the controller storage register? 252 . the trajectory of the movement is controlled. As the shaft rotates. The disk is connected. the locations are defined relative to the origin of the axis system. In absolute positioning. In point-to-point. and (3) processing equipment. The three basic components are: (1) part program. Answer. In an open loop system. (2) machine control unit.2 What is the difference between point-to-point and continuous path in a motion control system? Answer.1 NUMERICAL CONTROL AND INDUSTRIAL ROBOTICS Review Questions Identify and briefly describe the three basic components of a numerical control system. the motion is from one location in space to the next with no regard for the path taken between starting and final locations. In incremental positioning. 38. 38. 38. which are converted into an equivalent series of electrical pulses. 38. The machine control unit in modern NC technology is a microcomputer which stores the program and executes it by converting each command into actions by the processing equipment. one command at a time.4 What is the difference between an open loop positioning system and a closed loop positioning system? Answer. to a rotating shaft whose angular position and velocity are to be measured. The processing equipment accomplishes the sequence of processing steps to transform the starting workpart into a completed part. Answer.5 Under what circumstances is a closed loop positioning system preferable to an open loop system? Answer.3 What is the difference between absolute positioning and incremental positioning? Answer. 38.6 Explain the operation of an optical encoder. and a disk containing a series of slots through which the light source can shine to energize the photodetector. angular position and rotational speed can be determined. a photodetector. measurements of the output (position) are fed back to verify that it corresponds to the desired input value. By counting the pulses and computing the frequency of the pulse train. The part program is the detailed set of commands to be followed by the processing equipment. Each command specifies a position or motion that is to be accomplished by the workhead relative to the processed object. It consists of a light source.

38. (4) greater flexibility. To attain a perfect score on the quiz.9 Identify some of the non-machine tool applications of numerical control. (2) electronic component insertion. What is an end effector? Answer. The most common feature is a manipulator (arm) that can be programmed to perform industrial tasks. (3) electrical wire wrap machines. timing. Advantages of NC include: (1) reduced non. (3) simpler fixtures. sequencing. the manipulator is physically moved through the desired sequence of positions. The applications include: (1) arc welding and resistance welding. and (6) reduced human error.Answer. Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 13 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct).13 How is an industrial robot similar to numerical control? Answer.12 38. and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required 253 . Programming is simplified to minimize the amount of training required by the operator. and arithmetic functions to control industrial machinery and processes. 38. In powered leadthrough.8 What is manual data input in NC part programming? Answer. 38. A programmable logic controller (PLC) is a microcomputer-based device that uses programmed instructions to implement logic. An end effector is the special tooling that is attached to the robot's wrist to perform a particular application. An industrial robot is a programmable machine possessing certain anthropomorphic features. what is the difference between powered leadthrough and manual leadthrough? Answer.10 What are some of the benefits usually cited for NC compared to using manual alternative methods? Answer. 38.15 What is a programmable logic controller? Answer. and (6) coordinate measuring machines. since each correct answer is worth 1 point. (5) improved accuracy. Answer. (2) lower manufacturing lead times. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point. For each question. (4) drafting. 38. which are then recorded into memory.11 What is an industrial robot? Answer. They are both positioning systems that can be programmed and reprogrammed. all correct answers must be given. Manual data input refers to a method of programming in which the machine tool operator accomplishes the programming of the NC machine using a menu-driven procedure. In manual leadthrough.productive time.14 In robot programming. a teach pendant which controls the drive motors of the individual joints is used to move the manipulator into the desired joint positions. Because the control resolution in the controller storage register can be increased simply by increasing the number of bits used to define the axis location. which are recorded into memory for later execution. (5) tape laying for fiber reinforced polymer composites. 38. A gripper is one form of end effector. 38. counting.

The leadscrew is powered by a stepping motor which has 250 step angles. (c) 38. (a) and (e). (b) assembly.5 The arm-and-body of a robot manipulator generally performs which one of the following functions in an application? (a) orientation. Answer. (d) point-to-point command. spray painting applications are which of the following? (a) continuous path. Answer.8 Which of the following are characteristics of work situations that tend to promote the substitution of a robot in place of a human worker (more than one)? (a) frequent job changeovers.4 The APT command GORGT is which of the following (more than one)? (a) continuous path command.2 Identify which of the following applications are point-to. (d) machine loading and unloading. and (f) turning. (b) control resolution. (b) drilling. (c) name of the monster in a 1960s Japanese science fiction movie. (b) 38. or (c) polar coordinates. Answer. and (e). Answer. (c) hole punching in sheet metal. (b).1 The standard coordinate system for numerical control machine tools is based on which one of the following? (a) Cartesian coordinates. (b) hazardous work environment. (b) geometry statement involving a volume of revolution about a central axis. Problems Open Loop Positioning Systems 38. or (b) positioning. 38. (d) milling. or (c) repeatability. (a) 38. (b).6 A SCARA robot is normally associated with which of the following applications (one answer)? (a) arc welding. Answer. (c). Answer. 38. Answer. Answer. (c) inspection. (b) cylindrical coordinates. 38. The worktable is programmed to move a distance of 120 mm from its present position at a travel speed of 300 mm/min. (e) spot welding. (c).3 The ability of a positioning system to return to a previously defined location is measured by which one of the following terms? (a) accuracy.reduces the score by 1 point. and (b) what is the required motor speed and pulse rate to achieve the desired table speed? 254 . (b) 38. or (b) point-to-point. and (e) task requires mobility. (c) repetitive work cycle. and (d).7 In robotics. (d) multiple work shifts. or (e) resistance welding.1 A leadscrew with a 7. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers. (a) 38.point and not continuous path operations (more than one): (a) arc welding. or (e) tool path command in which the tool must Go Right in the next move.5 mm pitch drives a worktable in a NC positioning system. Determine: (a) how many pulses are required to move the table the specified distance.

5) = 166. and (c) repeatability.005) = ± 0.03 mm.3 A stepping motor has 200 step angles.00 in from its present position at a travel speed of 20.00 in at a feed rate of 30.122) + 3(0.8) = 4000 pulses (b) N = vt /p = (20 in/min)/(0.0 in/min. (d) In order for the mechanical errors to be the limiting factor in control resolution in this problem.03. Determine: (a) number of pulses required to move the table.2 Referring to the previous problem.000 pulses (b) N = rg fr /p = 5(30 in/min)/(0. Thus. set CR1 = CR2.5° np = 360 rg x/pα = 360(5)(10)/(0.025 Use B = 15 bits 38. (d) What is the minimum number of bits that the binary register should have so that the mechanical drive system becomes the limiting component on control resolution? Solution: (a) CR1 = p/ns = 7.1667) = 3600 Hz 255 .5 mm/rev) = 40 rev/min.5 mm/250 = 0.015 mm. CR2 = L/2B = 500/212 – 1 = 500/4095 = 0. CR2} = Max{0.5) = 72. For the positioning system.03 = 500/(2B –1) 2B – 1 = 500/0. (b) Accuracy = 0. Its output shaft is directly coupled to leadscrew with pitch = 0. The range of the worktable axis is 500 mm. The leadscrew has 6 threads/in. and there are 12 bits in the binary register used by the digital controller to store the programmed position.5 CR + 3 σ = 0. fp = vt ns/ 60p = 300(250)/(60 x 7.25 in/rev) = 80 rev/min. 0.69315 B = 9.0 in/min. fp = vt ns/ 60p = 20(200)/(60 x 0.250 in. The table must move a distance of 5.122} = 0.25) = 266.005 mm.67 Hz 38.667 2B = = 16. The worktable driven by the leadscrew must move a distance = 10. and (b) what is the required motor speed and pulse rate to achieve the desired table speed? Solution: (a) α = 360/ns = 360/200 = 1.Solution: (a) α = 360/ns = 360/250 = 1.44° np = 360x/pα = 360(100)/(7. (b) accuracy. Determine: (a) how many pulses are required to move the table the specified distance.5(0.25 x 1.016 = 16.122 mm.668 0.5 x 1.1667 x 1. A worktable is driven by the leadscrew. Solution: (a) α = 360/ns = 360/240 = 1.8° np = 360x/pα = 360(5. CR = Max{CR1.7212 B = 14.005) = 0. (c) Repeatability = ± 3 σ = ± 3(0.67 Hz 38.0)/(0.4 A stepping motor with 240 step angles is coupled to a leadscrew through a gear reduction of 5:1 (5 rotations of the motor for each rotation of the leadscrew). fp = rg fr ns/ 60p = 5(30)(240)/(60 x 0. the mechanical inaccuracies in the open loop positioning system can be described by a normal distribution whose standard deviation = 0.076 mm.1667 in/rev) = 900 rev/min.44) = 4000 pulses (b) N = vt /p = (300 mm/min)/(7. and (b) the required motor speed and pulse rate to achieve the desired table speed.122 mm.668 B ln 2 = ln 16. 0. determine: (a) control resolution.

Determine: (a) the minimum number of step angles in the stepping motor to achieve the accuracy. Solution: (a) Accuracy = 0.0008 = 0.5 CR + 0.0. and table connection are characterized by a normal distribution with standard deviation = 0.001 in.2/(2 x 0.5 CR + 0. Determine: (a) the minimum number of step angles in the stepping motor. Determine: (a) the minimum number of step angles in the stepping motor.6° ° (c) fp = vt ns /60p = 35(225)/(60 x 0. The pitch of the leadscrew = 4. Solution: (a) Accuracy = 0.5 CR CR = 0.5 CR CR = 0.2/2ns ns = 0.18 in.0008 in. and a positioning accuracy = 0. The table must have a linear speed = 35 in/min.025 = 0.02 mm.025 .5 mm.0001 in.010 = 0.5 The drive unit for a positioning table is driven by a leadscrew directly coupled to the output shaft of a stepping motor.0006 0.5 CR + 3 σ 0.025 mm. The pitch of the leadscrew = 0. and table connection are characterized by a normal distribution with standard deviation = 0.0004 = 0. and (b) the frequency of the pulse train required to drive the table at the desired maximum speed.001 in.5 CR + 3(0.67 Hz 38.167 Hz 38.015 0.18/0.001 .0006 = 0.005) = 0.5 CR CR = 0.38. leadscrew. Mechanical errors in the motor. Assume CR = CR1 CR1 = 0. leadscrew.7 The drive unit of a positioning table for a component insertion machine is based on a stepping motor and leadscrew mechanism. and the gear ratio = 2:1 (2 turns of the motor for each turn of the leadscrew).001 = 0.0002) = 0. and the gear ratio = 5:1 (5 turns of the motor for each turn of the leadscrew).18/ns ns = 0. gear box.0.0002 in.6 The positioning table for a component insertion machine uses a stepping motor and leadscrew mechanism.5 CR + 0. The specifications are for the table speed to be 25 mm/s over a 600 mm range and for the accuracy to be 0. and (c) the frequency of the pulse train required to drive the table at the desired speed.5 CR + 3(0. (b) the associated step angle.0008 in.5 CR + 3(0. and (b) the frequency of the pulse train required to drive the table at the desired maximum speed.015 = 0.5 CR + 3 σ 0.0. Solution: (a) Accuracy = 0.5 CR + 3 σ 0.0005 = 0.0003 0. The mechanical errors in the motor.0008 . leadscrew. Assume CR = CR1 CR1 = p/(rg ns ) 256 . Assume CR = CR1 CR1 = 0.0001) = 0. The design specifications require a table speed of 40 in/min and an accuracy = 0.0008 = p/ns = 0.005 mm. The pitch of the leadscrew = 0. and table connection are characterized by a normal distribution with standard deviation = 0.18) = 729. The mechanical errors in the motor. gear box.2 in.0003 = 0.0008 = 225 step angles (b) α = 360/225 = 1.001) = 100 step angles (b) fp = rg vt ns /60p = 2(40)(100)/(60 x 0.2) = 667.001 = p/(rg ns ) = 0.

0 in/min. The optical encoder generates 225 pulses per motor revolution. The table must move a distance = 100 mm at a feed rate = 500 mm/min.25 = 125 mm Angle A = tan-1(125/75) = 59° vtx = 600 cos 59 = 308.25 = 75 mm.0 = 1029 rev/min.0 mm and is connected to the motor shaft with a gear ratio of 16:1 (16 turns of the motor for each turn of the leadscrew). (b) fp = fr ns /60p = 500(200)/60(5) = 333.8 The two axes of an x-y positioning table are each driven by a stepping motor connected to a leadscrew with a 10:1 gear reduction. ∆y = 150 .00458 mm CR = Max{0. (b) fp = rg fr ns /60p = 16(500)(200)/60(5) = 5333. Rearranging.4 rev/min.025 mm CR2 = L/(2B – 1)= 300/(216 – 1) = 300/65.3 Hz (c) N = rg fr /p = 16 x 500/5 = 1600 rev/min.150)? Ignore acceleration.7 mm/min Nx = rgvtx/p = 10(308. np = rg x ns/p = 16(100)(200)/5 = 64. The number of step angles on each stepping motor is 20. except that the optical encoder is directly coupled to the motor shaft rather than to the leadscrew.3 Hz (c) N = rg fr /p = 16 x 500/5 = 1600 rev/min. leadscrew.0 mm. and optical encoder. 38. fpx = Nx ns/60 = 617.5 = 1250 Hz 38. Each leadscrew has a pitch = 5.0 mm and provides an axis range = 300.5 mm/min. Rearranging.000 pulses.025.9 A NC machine tool table is powered by a servomotor.4(20)/60 = 205. Solution: (a) CR1 = p/rgns = 5.8 Hz vty = 600 sin 59 = 514.11 The worktable of a numerical control machine tool is driven by a closed loop positioning system which consists of a servomotor.5)/5.5/(5 x 0. The optical encoder is connected directly to the leadscrew and generates 200 pulses/rev of the leadscrew. np = xns/p = 100(200)/5 = 4000 pulses.00458} = 0. The table has been programmed to move a distance of 7. The leadscrew has 6 threads/in and is coupled directly to the motor shaft (gear ratio = 1:1). leadscrew.25) to point (100. Determine: (a) the pulse count received by the control system to verify that the table has moved exactly 100 mm.ns = 4.0 Hz Closed Loop Positioning Systems 38.0/(10 x 20) = 0. and optical encoder. 38. Ny = rgvty/p = 10(514. The leadscrew has a pitch = 5.7)/5.5 in at a feed rate = 20.02) = 45 step angles (b) fp = rg vt ns /p = 5(25)(45)/4. and (b) the pulse rate and (c) motor speed that correspond to the feed rate of 500 mm/min.10 Same as the previous problem. 25) to (100. 0. fpx = Ny ns /60 = 1029(20)/60 = 343. 150) ∆x = 100 .025 mm (b) vt = 600 mm/min from (25. (a) How many pulses are received by the control system to verify that the 257 . (a) What is the control resolution of each axis? (b) What are the required the rotational speeds and corresponding pulse train frequencies of each stepping motor in order to drive the table at 600 mm/min in a straight line from point (25. There are 16 bits in each binary register used by the controller to store position data for the two axes. Solution: (a) x = p np/ns . Solution: (a) x = p np/rg ns .535 = 0.0 = 617.

(b) fp = N ns /60 = 800(100)/60 = 1333. 38.0 mm.05 mm. Determine: (a) The control resolution of the system.002 in. Determine: (a) feed rate and time to complete the cut.0 mm. and (c) the travel speed of the table at the operating speed of the motor.2) = 160 in/min.5(225)/0. 38. and (b) rotational speed of the motor and the pulse rate of the encoder at the feed rate indicated. Solution: (a) CR = p/ns = 4/250 = 0. The leadscrew has 5 threads/in.Rearranging.978 mm/s. The end milling cutter has four teeth and its diameter = 20.14 A leadscrew connected to a dc servomotor is the drive system for a positioning table. np = xns/p = 7.89 rev/s.12 A leadscrew coupled directly to a dc servomotor is used to drive one of the table axes of an NC milling machine. Total travel distance = 300 mm in a direction parallel to one of the axes of the worktable. Solution: (a) CR = p/ns = 0.1667 = 10. expressed in linear travel distance of the table axis. (b) fp = N ns = 14(250) = 3500 Hz (c) vt = Np = 14(4) = 56 mm/s 38. (b) N = fr /p = (3. fr = N f nt = 19. Determine: (a) The control resolution of the system.1667 = 120 rev/min.table has moved the programmed distance? What are (b) the pulse rate and (c) motor speed that correspond to the specified feed rate? Solution: (a) x = p np/ns .33 in/min.05)(4) = 3. The feedback sensing device is an optical encoder which emits 250 pulses per revolution. Cutting speed = 1. The motor rotates at a maximum speed of 800 rev/min.3 Hz (c) vt = N p/rg = 800(0.978 mm/s)/(6 mm/rev) = 0.26 min. 258 .2/100 = 0.125 pulses.002 in.25 m/s and chip load = 0. 38.13 Solve the previous problem only the servomotor is connected to the leadscrew through a gear box whose reduction ratio = 12:1 (12 revolutions of the motor for each revolution of the leadscrew).663 rev/s. expressed in linear travel distance of the table axis.016 mm.15 A milling operation is performed on a NC machining center. (b) the frequency of the pulse train emitted by the optical encoder when the servomotor operates at 14 rev/s. (b) fp = N ns /60 = 800(100)/60 = 1333. Solution: (a) CR = p/ns = 0. Tm = 300/3. The axis uses a dc servomotor whose output shaft is coupled to a leadscrew with pitch = 6.2)/12 = 13. The optical encoder attached to the leadscrew emits 100 pulses/rev of the leadscrew.2/100 = 0. Solution: (a) N = (1.3 Hz (c) vt = Np = 800(0. (b) fp = fr ns /60p = 20(225)/60(0.978 = 75. and (c) the travel speed of the table at the maximum rpm of the motor.89(0. The motor operates at a speed = 15 rev/s. (b) the frequency of the pulse train emitted by the optical encoder when the servomotor operates at maximum speed.25 x 103 mm/s)/(20π mm/rev) = 19.1667) = 450 Hz (c) N = fr /p = 20/0. The leadscrew pitch = 4 mm. The optical encoder attached to the leadscrew emits 250 pulses/rev of the leadscrew.4 s = 1.

20 = 3750 2B = 3751 259 .7 = 7.5 in/min.5 = 5.5) to point (1.5) = 113.05)(125)/60 = 125. Cutting speed = 30 m/min and chip load = 0.62 mm/min)/(6.5 in/min. The cut is in a direction parallel to the x-axis on a NC machining center. The x-axis uses a dc servomotor connected directly to a leadscrew whose pitch = 6. Tm = 325/71. It is driven by pulley system capable of a mechanical accuracy = 0.25 mm = 0.06 mm. also (b) the rotational speed of the motor and (c) the frequency of the pulse train emitted by the optical encoder when the desired feed rate is achieved.0 .1.0 mm.0004 in.5.20 CR = CR2 = L/(2B – 1)= 750/(2B – 1) 750/(2B – 1)= 0.25) = 12.54 min.8 rev/min. Solution: Repeatability = ± 3σ = 0.25 mm and repeatability = ±0. fr = N f nt = 596.94)/60 = 79.2) at fr = 7.5 CR + 0.10 CR = 0.5) to (1.0.663) = 165.0 mm/rev) = 11.15 mm σ = 0.5 = -2.3.15 = 0.18 The largest axis of a Cartesian coordinate robot has a total range of 750 mm.62 = 4. the table must be moved from point (3.0.5 in.62 mm/min.2) in a straight-line trajectory at a feed rate of 7.25 .5 CR = 0.0.012/(. Determine: (a) feed rate and time to complete the cut. (c) fp = rg ns N/60 = 5(12. which has 4 threads/in..0 mm. Determine the minimum number of bits required in the binary register for the axis in the robot's control memory.012 in/min N = frx /p = (-3. The feedback sensing device is an optical encoder which emits 400 pulses per revolution.4017) = -3. Solution: (a) CR = p/rg ns = 0. ∆y = 7.7 in.2 . To execute a certain programmed instruction.8(0.5. Angle A = tan-1(5.5(-0. fp = ns N/60 = 400(11. 1.06)(2) = 71.94 rev/min. The end milling cutter has two teeth and its diameter = 16. 7. 7.5 CR + 3 σ = 0.15/3 = 0. An optical encoder is used to provide the feedback measurement. and (b) rotational speed of the motor and the pulse rate of the encoder at the feed rate indicated.05 mm Accuracy = 0.7/-2.75 Hz 38.7° frx = 7. The optical encoder emits 125 pulses per revolution.15 mm.15 0.20 2B – 1 = 750/0.17 A dc servomotor is used to drive the x-axis of a NC milling machine table.05 rev/min.fp = ns N = 250(0.250/(5 x 125) = 0. The motor is coupled directly to the table leadscrew. (b) Move from (3. (b) N = fr /p = (71. Solution: (a) N = (30 x 103 mm/min)/(16π mm/rev) = 596.58 Hz 38. ∆x = 1. 1.5 cos 113. It is connected to the leadscrew using a 1:5 gear ratio (one turn of the leadscrew converts to 5 turns of the encoder disk).16 An end milling operation is carried out along a straight line path which is 325 mm in length. Determine: (a) the control resolution of the system for the x-axis.52 Hz Industrial Robotics 38.

6931 B = 6. The accuracy of the joint-link combination.5 CR + 0.15 0. Solution: Repeatability = ± 3 σ = ± 3(0.05) = ± 0. End-of-link movement = LA where A = angle of movement in radians LA = 25(0.05 mm.0131 = 0.030 . CR = L/(2B – 1) = 0.030 in.2 0.25 mm = 0. total range = 75° Converting this to an arc distance.030° = 2π(0.20) = 12.25 . (a) Show that the specified accuracy can be achieved.20 The designer of a polar configuration robot is considering a portion of the manipulator consisting of a rotational joint connected to its output link.92 → 10 bits 260 . the specified accuracy should be possible to achieve.10 CR = 0.030° of rotation. The joint must have an accuracy of 0. The mechanical errors in the system (due to backlash of the leadscrew and the gear reducer) can be represented by a normal distribution with standard deviation = ±0.0169/0.20 mm Assume CR = CR1 = p/rg ns ns = p/(rg CR) = 5.5 = 0. is specified as 0.87 → 12 bits.0131 in.5 CR + 0.2 2B = 969.0131 Specified accuracy = 0. The output link is 25 in long and the rotational joint has a range of 75°.5 CR + 3 σ = 0.876 B = 9. The pitch of the leadscrew is 5. Accuracy = 0.5 CR = 0.19 B = 11.030)/360 = 0. (b) Determine the minimum number of bits required in the binary register of the robot's control memory to achieve the specified accuracy.15 mm Accuracy = 0.5 CR + 3σ = 0.725/(2B – 1) = 0.0169 CR = 0.0338 from part (a).0.15 = 0. so there are no additional errors due to deflection. A stepper motor serves as the drive unit for the linear joint of an industrial robot. The motor is attached to a leadscrew through a 2:1 gear reduction (2 turns of the motor for 1 turn of the leadscrew).25 mm.0338 32. Solution: (a) Repeatability = ± 3 σ = ± 0.0. It is assumed that the link is perfectly rigid.030°.69315 B = 8. range = (2π(75)/360) x 25 = 32.0 mm. given the repeatability error.0338 2B – 1 = 32.0/(2 x 0.0005236) = 0. Specify the number of step angles that the motor must have in order to meet the accuracy requirement.B ln 2 = ln 3751 0.5 CR + 0.0338 = 968.030 = 0.0338 in Since CR is positive.5 CR = 0. (b) Given CR = 0.725 in.0131 0. 0. expressed as a linear measure at the end of the link which results from rotating the joint.030 0.5 → ns = 13 step angles 38.725/0.2 B ln 2 = ln 969.0005236 rad. The mechanical inaccuracies of the joint result in a repeatability error = ±0.22978 38.

A part family is a collection of parts that are similar in design or manufacturing attributes. 39. 39.4 What is the composite part concept in group technology? Answer. The tests of flexibility are: (1) process different part styles in non-batch mode.3 Define cellular manufacturing? Answer. (3) deal gracefully with equipment breakdowns. 39. 39.8 Name some of the FMS software and control functions. Answer.2 What is a part family? Answer. compared to conventional batch operations? 261 . 39.5 Name some of the possible machine cell designs in group technology. (2) accept changes in schedule. (6) tool management. 39. multiple machines with manual handling. (7) work transport control. and (4) accommodate new part style introductions. a composite part is a hypothetical part that includes all of the design and/or manufacturing attributes of a given part family.10 Identify some of the applications of FMS technology. GT is a general approach in which similarities among parts are identified and exploited in design and manufacturing. In GT. Functions include: (1) NC part programming. and (8) general system management. Applications include: machining. Cellular manufacturing involves the production of part families using groups of machines (generally manually operated) to produce a certain part family or a limited set of part families. and flexible manufacturing systems. (4)machine control. Answer. (5) workpart control. What are the advantages of FMS technology.7 What makes an automated manufacturing system flexible? Answer. A flexible manufacturing system (FMS) is an automated group technology cell consisting of processing stations interconnected by an automated handling system and controlled by a computer.6 What is a flexible manufacturing system? Answer.9 39. Answer. 39. inspection. 39.39 39. (2) NC part program download. (3) production control. flexible manufacturing cells. multiple machines with mechanized handling. assembly. The concept is useful in designing cells to produce the part family.1 GROUP TECHNOLOGY AND FLEXIBLE MANUFACTURING SYSTEMS Review Questions Define group technology? Answer. GT machine cell designs include: single machines. and sheet metal processing.

(c) length-to-diameter ratio. (d) processing equipment.2 Most parts classification and coding systems are based on which of the following types of part attributes (more than one)? (a) annual production rate. (c) manufacturing. and (d) weight. (3) lower manufacturing lead times. Answer. (c) part family. since each correct answer is worth 1 point. (d) mass production. (e). Answer.8 Flexible manufacturing systems and cells are generally applied in which one of the following areas? (a) high variety. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point. 39. (b) design. (c) nonrotational parts. (e) medium volume. 39. 39. (d) major process. medium variety production. (b) four machines.1 Production flow analysis is a method of identifying part families that uses data from which one of the following sources? (a) bill of materials. Answer. low volume production. (b) low variety. (b) 39. Answer. or (c) six machines. (e) part dimensions. and (f) tolerances. (e) 262 .4 What is the dividing line between a manufacturing cell and a flexible manufacturing system? (a) two machines. (e). Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 12 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct). 39.5 A machine capable of producing different part styles in a batch mode of operation qualifies as a flexible manufacturing system: (a) true or (b) false.6 The physical layout of a flexible manufacturing system is determined principally by which one of the following? (a) computer system. (b) metal parts. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers. (b) A flexible manufacturing system does not normally operate in a batch mode. Answer.3 Which of the following are part design attributes that are likely to be included in a parts classification and coding system (more than one)? (a) annual production. most easily handle which of the following part types in a flexible machining system (one best answer)? (a) heavy parts. all correct answers must be given.Answer. (b) material handling system. (2) reduced work-in-process.7 Industrial robots can. (e) 39. in general. or (e) rotational parts. (b) batch size. (b) 39. For each question. or (e) weight of parts processed. and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point. (d) production schedule. Answer. Answer. 39. (c) master schedule. Advantages include: (1) higher machine utilization. Answer. (c). or (e) route sheets. (b) and (c). (b) engineering drawings. To attain a perfect score on the quiz. (d) plastic parts. (c) low volume. and (f). and (4) greater flexibility in production scheduling.

Answer.9 Which of the following technologies is most closely associated with flexible machining systems (one best answer)? (a) lasers. (d) 263 . (d) numerical control. (b) machine vision. (c) manual assembly lines. or (f) transfer lines.39.

(2) scheduling the models is more difficult. while a mixed model line produces different products simultaneously. 40.3 What are the advantages of the mixed model line for producing different product styles? Answer. 40. A batch model line produces the different products in batches. with a setup changeover between the products.6 Describe how manual methods are used to move parts between workstations on a production line. in which parts all move simultaneously from station-to-station with a stop-and-go action. also known as division of labor. Review Questions 40. Three principles are described in the text: (1) specialization of labor.40 40. Answer. and (3) asynchronous transfer.8 Why are parts sometimes fixed to the conveyor in a continuous transfer system in manual assembly? Answer. Both lines are used to make multiple product types. and (3) work flow principle. and (3) production rates can be matched to demand rates for different models.2 Distinguish between a batch model production line and a mixed model production line. (2) interchangeable parts. and (3) getting the right parts to each workstation is more difficult because more parts are involved. Because the parts are big and/or heavy and cannot be conveniently removed by a human worker. 40. Advantages of the mixed model line include: (1) no downtime between different models. A production line is a sequence of workstations at which individual tasks are accomplished on each work unit as it moves from one station to the next to progressively make the product. Answer. Answer.1 PRODUCTION LINES What is a production line? Answer.5 Identify two fundamental principles on which manual assembly lines are based. (2) synchronous transfer. 264 .9 Why must a production line be paced at a rate higher than that required to satisfy the demand for the product? Answer. 40. Because all production lines will suffer a certain amount of nonproductive time due to reliability problems. in which parts move on a conveyor at a steady speed. Answer. in which parts move independently between stations with a stop-and-go action. The three work transfer systems are: (1) continuous transfer. (2) minimize or avoid high inventories of some models while there are stock-outs of other models. Limitations include: (1) line balancing problem is more complex.7 Briefly define the three types of mechanized workpart transfer systems used in production lines. 40.4 What are some of the limitations of a mixed model line compared to a batch model line? Answer. 40. 40. The methods include: (1) work units are simply passed by hand along a flat worktable from one station to the next. (2) sometimes collecting them in boxes and then passing the boxes between stations. and (3) pushing the work units along a conveyor between stations.

since each correct answer is worth 1 point. and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point.12 Repositioning time on a synchronous transfer line is known by a different name. machining) involves allocation of (usually) single machining operations to workstations. The repositioning time is called the transfer time. what is that name? Answer. and (3) multiple manning.2 Manual methods of workpart transfer are probably closest to which one of the following mechanized methods of transfer? (a) asynchronous. The entire work cycle is performed at one station.g. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point.14 What are some of the reasons for downtime on a machining transfer line? Answer.. so single station cells usually operate at relatively slow production rates. 40. To attain a perfect score on the quiz. or (c) synchronous. Line balancing on a manual assembly line (usually) involves assigning multiple work elements to workers or stations. (c) order of work stations along the line. Reasons include: tool changes.13 Why are single station assembly cells generally not suited to high production jobs? Answer. (c) 40. (b) continuous.1 Batch model lines are most suited to which one of the following production situations? (a) job shop. or (d) sequence in which the work elements must be done. (d) 265 . For each question.40. (b) mass production. Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 10 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct). (2) repositioning time during Tc. Answer. 40. it is the time to move parts from one station to the next. Answer. Answer. and gradual normal wear and tear on the equipment. Line balancing on an automated transfer line (e. 40. or (c) medium production.11 Why is the line balancing problem different on an automated transfer line than on a manual assembly line? Answer. 40. 40.10 What are the reasons why the number of workstations cannot be determined simply from the ratio Twc/Tc? Answer. Reasons are: (1) line balancing losses. (b) limiting value on the sum of element times that can be assigned to a worker or station. all correct answers must be given. sudden mechanical and electrical failures.3 Precedence constraints are best described by which of the following (one best answer)? (a) launching sequence in a mixed model line. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers. There are many more possible solutions to the line balancing problem in the manual assembly case. (a) 40.

2 In the previous problem.9/(0. Assume line efficiency E = 0. and (f) simple.0. Desired production rate = 50 units/hr. (c). and (b) number of workers required.09125 = 38.0/(.0. 40.99125 min. or (d) synchronous. Problems Manual Assembly Lines 40. Answer. (b) consists of multiple work elements. (d) pressworking. and (c) reducing the average downtime Td.09125 min. Ts = Tc . Answer. compute (a) the ideal minimum number of workstations n min. (b) continuous.5 40. The transfer line is most closely associated with which one of the following types of production operations? (a) assembly. balancing efficiency Eb = 0.6 40.000 units.97.14 .0/1. How many workers are on the line? Solution: Tc = E/Rp = 60(0. and repositioning time Tr = 6 sec. 5 shifts/wk.5 → 39 stations (b) n = w/M = 47/1. (d).5 hr/shift. (a) and (c). Work content time = 42.99125) = 46.1 = 1. and (b) the number of workstations required if multiple manning can be used and the estimated manning level is M = 1.33 units/hr (b) Tc = E/Rp = 60(. (b) automotive chassis fabrication.000/(50 x 5 x 7.40. (e) requires sensory capability. (c) parts passed by hand. (c) involves a single work element.7 Answer.1 A manual assembly line is being designed for a product with annual demand = 100.97)/53.04) = 26.5) = 53. Ts = Tc .09125 .04 min. and 7.4 Which of the following phrases are most appropriate to describe the characteristics of tasks that are performed at automated workstations (more than one)? (a) complex. (d) The line efficiency (proportion uptime) on an automated line can be increased by which of the following approaches (more than one)? (a) improving the reliability of each workstation on the line.78 → 27 workers 266 . w = Min Int ≥ 42.4 = 33. Solution: (a) Rp = 100. and (f).93 x 1. Answer. or (e) spotwelding. (c) machining.Tr = 1. Determine: (a) hourly production rate to meet demand. Solution: (a) nmin = Min Int ≥ Twc/Tc = 42.14 min. (d) involves straight-line motions. Work units will be attached to a continuously moving conveyor.0 min. w = Min Int ≥ 25. (c) A dial indexing machine uses which one of the following types of workpart transfer? (a) asynchronous.33 = 1. (b) increasing the number of stations n on the line. and balancing efficiency is 93%.92.95)/50 = 1.4.Tr = 1. line efficiency = 95%.3 A manual assembly line produces a small appliance whose work content time = 25.9 min. Repositioning time = 6 sec.92 x 0.1 = 0. The line will operate 50 wks/year.06 → 47 workers 40.6 → 34 stations 40.

The product has a Available shift time per day = 8 hr.0 .03 → 28 workers (c) n = 28/1. the average manning level is 2.8) = 1250 workers n = w/M = 1250/2.Tr = 0.1425 min. determine: (a) the cycle time.25) = 32 workers Eb = Twc/wTs = 47.0 hours/shift. Repositioning time per worker Tr is 8% of cycle time Tc. = 8.2 minutes.78125) = 0.15 = 1. and (b) how many workers and (c) stations will be needed on the line? Solution: (a) Tc = E/Rp = 1. It will be divided into three departments: (1) body shop.85) = 27. 5 days/week. If 9 seconds will be lost from the cycle time for repositioning.5. balancing efficiency = 93%.Tr = 2. A synchronous transfer system is used to advance the products from one station to the next.0 = 0.6/8.92 Tc = 0. Both of these departments are highly automated.8 min. Determine: (a) line efficiency.8/(32 x 1. but downtime during the shift reduces actual production time to 7.63875) = 0. and the paint shop coats the bodies.90)/36 = 1.95 .9 min. and 8. and the transfer time = 6 seconds.78125 min Ts = Tc . Solution: (a) Rp = 240. This results in an average daily production of 256 units/day.7 A manual assembly line has 17 workstations with one operator per station.93 x . Determine the balance delay.40. Assume E = Eb = 1. Proportion uptime E = 0. There are 15. (3) trim-chassis-final department. Determine: (a) hourly production rate of the plant. w = 24(1.0 min/unit (b) Ts = Tc . The plant will operate 50 weeks/yr.0(60)/30 = 2. Ts = Tc .0. 40.15 = 0. From previous experience with similar products.92(1.0 x 1. The production rate of the line = 36 units per hour. 267 .5 x 60/(0.55 sec.95)/32 = 1. Solution: (a) E = 7.95 min.5 = 18.Tr = Tc .4 A single model manual assembly line produces a product whose work content time = 48.5. and a repositioning time of 0. proportion uptime = 95%.85 min. The required production rate is 30 units per hour.63875 min.78125) = 1. The workers remain seated along the line.50 min.08Tc = 0. where cars are moved by a continuous conveyor. Total work content time to assemble the product = 22. The body shop welds the car bodies using robots. w = Min Int ≥ Twc/EbTs = 50/(1.5 hours of direct labor content on each car in this department. (b) balancing efficiency.95)/60 = 0.6 A product whose total work content time = 50 minutes is to be assembled on a manual production line.000 units annually.67 → 19 stations 40.90. Trim-chassis-final has no automation. w = Min Int ≥ Twc/EbTs = 15. and (c) repositioning time Tr. (b) number of workers and workstations required in trim-chassis-final if no automated stations are used. two shifts/day.6 hr on average. (2) paint shop.0 units/hr (b) Tc = E/Rp = 60(0.0.25. The line has 24 workstations with a manning level M = 1.95 (b) Rp = 256/8 = 32 units/hr Tc = 60(0.08(1. Solution: Tc = E/Rp = 60(0.5 = 500 stations 40.5 A final assembly plant for a certain automobile model is to have a capacity of 240.9325 (c) Tr = 0.0.000/(50 x 10 x 8) = 60. it is estimated that the manning level will be close to 1.15 min is allowed for each worker.0.

9Tc = 0. of direct manual labor. Tp = Tc/E = 1. then Eb = 1.78 units/hr Tc = 60E/Rp = 60(.40) = 0.55) = 31.7935 .40 min.1 = 1.2 = 1. (b) Ts = Tc . (b) number of workstations.667(24) x 1 = 32 workers w = Twc/EbTs.5 min.89)/45 = 1.0/(0.0) = 0.15 = 1.Tr = 1.737 min.65/.737 = 34.5 + . The remaining stations have one worker.78 = 1. w= Twc/EbTs = 55. Repositioning time lost by each worker is 0. 268 . The work is transported using a continuous overhead conveyor which operates at a speed of 3 ft/min.068 min.941 (d) M = w/n = 34/24 = 1. Tc = Ts + Tr = 1. (c) the balancing efficiency.95(60)/47.65 min.2 . (b) number of workers and (c) workstations on the line. Ts = Tc . the remaining stations each have one worker. find: (a) cycle time.0. Rp = 60/Tp = 60/1.15 = 1. Ts = Twc/wEb = 48/32 = 1. It is known that 10% of the cycle time is lost due to repositioning.9(1. Determine: (a) number of workers.Ts = Tc .5 = 1. uptime efficiency = 89%.Tr = 1.2 x 10) = 10 + 14 = 24 stations (c) Eb = Twc/wTs = 32/(34 x 1. what is the balance delay on the line? Solution: (a) Eb = 1.0 min.50 . Because of the automated stations.3% 40. There are 24 workstations on the line.933 = 93. Ts = 1. Ten workstations have two workers on opposite sides of the line so that both sides of the product can be worked on simultaneously. The manual stations each have one worker.92(34..0. The production rate on the line is 45 units/hr. It is known that the number of workers on the line is two more than the number required for perfect balance.0 x 1.2/(17 x 1.6435 min.0.1867 min.5 units per hour.1867) = 1.0 and w = Min Int ≥ Twc/EbTs = 32/(1.Tr = 0. Solution: (a) Tc = E/Rp = 0.7935 min. w = 0. Repositioning time per worker is 9 sec.068) = 55.9 Production rate for a certain assembled product is 47. (a) What is the maximum possible hourly production rate if line is assumed to be perfectly balanced? (b) If the actual production rate is only 92% of the maximum possible rate determined in part (a).95)/31.0) = 32 workers But with 2 additional workers.8 A production line with four automatic workstations (the other stations are manual) produces a certain product whose total assembly work content time = 55.55 units/hr (b) Actual Rp = 0. w = 32 + 2 = 34 workers (b) n = 10 + (34 . one-third of which have two workers.0 min If perfect balance.10 The total work content for a product assembled on a manual production line is 48 min. and uptime efficiency of the line is 95%.92 on the manual stations. If the balancing efficiency Eb = 0.92 x 1. where the average includes the automatic stations? Solution: (a) Tc = E/Rp = 60(0. (d) What is the average manning level on the line. The line operates at 95% uptime.933 40.417 40.2 min. The total assembly work content time = 32 minutes of direct manual labor. and (d) average manning level.333(24) x 2 + 0.2 min/cycle.97 → 56 workers (c) n = 56 + 4 = 60 stations (d) M = 56/60 = 0. Eb = Twc/wTs = 22.95 = 1.

50 + 1.9127 Automated Production Lines 40.15 4 0. If the value added per unit produced = $4.12 A dial-indexing table has 6 stations.008) = 0.5 + . However.16 Tp = 1. exclusive of materials.13 A 7-station transfer line has been observed over a 40-hour period.5 hrs Q = 25.92 7 0.5/3.05 min Eb = 6. Solution: (a) F = np = 20(0. A computer monitoring system has been proposed that will cost $25.1 = 0.00.484 40. The number of downtime occurrences = 110.95 5 1.76 units/hr (b) E = Tc/Tp = 0.80 The transfer time between stations = 6 sec.05 = 0.25 min. Determine: (a) the number of parts produced during the week. EH = 40E = 40 .11 An automated transfer line has 20 stations and operates with an ideal cycle time of 1.Eb = Twc/wTs = 48/(32 x 1.015) = 0.000 (installed) and will reduce downtime on the line by 25%. The other five perform processing operations.5(60)/1. The line operates 4000 hours per year. the line does not achieve this rate.6375 (d) Twc = Σ Ts = 0. Determine: (a) hourly production rate.14.10 3 1. Determine: (a) the average production rate Rp and (b) the line efficiency E.842 40.5 + 0.0) = 0. and hours of downtime = 14.80 2 1. Rp = 60/Tp = 60/3.5 E = 25. Probability of a station failure is p = 0.14 A 12-station transfer line was designed to operate with an ideal production rate = 50 parts/hour.16(10.10 = 1. Rp = 60/0.95 + 1.0 minutes. Solution: (a) Assume p = 0 at the manual station F = np = 1(0) + 5(.0 min to make repairs and restart.6435) = 0.075 Tp = 0.25 = 1224 pc during the 40 hour period.5/0.15) = 8.008 and average downtime when a breakdown occurs is 10.725 = 0. will the computer system pay for 269 .725 = 82. One station is used for loading and unloading.06 + 0.50 min.690 40. and (c) the line efficiency.0) = 1.075(3. what would be its value? Solution: (a) Tc = 1.6 pc/hr (c) 40E = 25.78/8. The processing times at each station are: Station Process time (min) 1 0. The longest process takes 25 sec and the indexing time = 5 sec. When a failure occurs it takes an average of 3.78 min.10 min. which is accomplished by a human worker.50 + 0.60. (d) If the balancing efficiency were computed for this line. (b) the average actual production rate in parts/hour. n(maximum Ts) = 7(1.15 + 0. since the line efficiency E = 0.92 + 0.06 6 0.35 units/hr (b) E = Tc/Tp = 1. It costs $75/hour to operate the line.225 = 0. (b) Rp = 1224/40 = 30.80 + 1. Each station has a frequency of failure p = 0.015.725 min.5 hours.5 = 25.80 = 6.5/40 = 0.10 + 1. and (b) line efficiency.60 = 3.1 = 19.15 + 0.

Tc. FTd = Tp .8/14 + 0.2) = 0.4 = 0. Ignore material costs in your calculations.1.8 = 33.5 = 14 stations (b) Tp = 9. Cost to operate line = same as in current system (neglecting increased cost of new system) Difference in revenues = $533.6 = 2.333 .6 min. Determine: (a) the optimum number of stations n on the line that will maximize production rate. Rp = 60/1.333/yr. This is reduced by 25% with new system.$480.0 min. This is more than enough to justify the $25.itself within one year of operation.8/n2 + 0. Tp = Tc/E = 1.8) = 0.2 min.4 = 42.7 = 1. Use expected increase in revenues resulting from the computer system as the criterion.4 min.333) = $533.000/yr With computer monitoring system: Tc = 1. Rp = 60/1. 40.2 + 0. The total work content time = 9.7 + 0. Cost to operate line = $75H = $75(4000) = $300. so that the ideal cycle time for each station = 9.8/n + n(0. Rp = 60/Tp = 60/2.00Q = $4.00(120.7/1.000 units/yr Revenues = $4.15 An automated transfer line is to be designed. Tp = 1.50 270 .2 min.0 = 30 pc/hr In the current system: Annual production Q = 4000Rp = 4000(30) = 120.8/n.333.0 min. and Tp = 2.000/yr.00(133.8/n + 0. Based on previous experience.33) = 133.2/. the average downtime per occurrence = 5. and (b) the production rate Rp and proportion uptime E for your answer to part (a). and the probability of a station failure that leads to a downtime occurrence p = 0.05n dTp/dn = -9.0 min.25%)(2.000 = $53.05 = zero at minimum point n2 = 9.86 pc/hr E = 0.8 min.8/0.01)(5. Solution: (a) Maximizing Rp is equivalent to minimizing Tp.33 pc/hr Annual production Q = 4000(33.75(0.01.000 investment.000) = $480.333 units/yr Revenues = $4.0) = 9. FTd = (1 . Solution: Tc = 60/Rc = 60/50 = 1.0 .6 = 1.8 min and is to be divided evenly amongst the workstations.05 = 196 n = (196) .05(14) = 0. Tp = Tc + Ftd = 9.

molds. manufacturing research. What are the principal activities in manufacturing engineering? Answer. (4) identification of cutting tools and cutting conditions for machining operations. 41.3 Identify some of the details and decisions that are included within the scope of process planning. See Example 41. Review Questions 41.1 in the text. (2) equipment selection. Manufacturing engineering is a technical staff department responsible for planning the manufacturing processes for a product and its components. 41. Secondary processes are used to refine the starting geometry and transform the material into final shape and size. A route sheet is a listing of the production operations and their sequence required to make a given part. e. fixtures. Because purchasing the component may cause idle equipment and staff in the factory that the company must still pay for. (7) estimates of production costs. A basic process establishes the starting geometry of the work material. casting. machining and sheet metal pressworking are common secondary processes. for example.g. and so forth. 41. (6) work standards (time standards for each operation). (8) consideration must be given to the problem of moving materials and work-in-progress in the factory. rolled sheet metal.6 What is a precedence constraint in process planning? Answer. dies.g.1 lists the following details and decisions in process planning: (1) what processes are required and the sequence in which they are performed. Answer.41 41.7 In the make or buy decision. which includes evaluation of new processing technologies.4 What is a route sheet? Answer.1 41.2 MANUFACTURING ENGINEERING Define manufacturing engineering. It also lists the equipment and special tooling that is required. (3) advising the product designers in design for manufacturability. (5) methods for manual operations (e.. loading and unloading a production machine).. and (4) advanced manufacturing planning. and (9) plant layout and facilities design. A precedence constraint is a limitation on the order in which processing or assembly operations can be performed on a given workpart.8 Identify some of the important factors that should enter into the make or buy decision. and gages will be needed.5 What is the difference between a basic process and a secondary process? Answer. drawn metal bar. (2) day-to-day technical problem solving and continuous improvement. Principal activities of manufacturing engineering are: (1) process planning. even though the quoted price from the vendor is lower than the internal price? Answer. 41. Answer. assembly) and manual portions of machine cycles (e. 271 .. Table 41. (3) what tools.g. why is it that purchasing a component from a vendor may cost more than producing the component internally. 41. a hole must be drilled before it can be tapped.

electronic data interchange should probably be included in the list. 41. Enabling technologies mentioned in the text are rapid prototyping and computer integrated manufacturing (which includes CAD/CAM).1 Which of the following are the usual responsibilities of the manufacturing engineering department (more than one)? (a) advising on design for manufacturability. (3) Use common parts across product lines. Concurrent engineering is an approach used by companies to reduce the time to bring a new product to market. (e) forward hot extrusion to produce aluminum bars. 41. reliability. (2) Use standard commercially available components. maintainability. (l) surface grinding of hardened steel. since each correct answer is worth 1 point. 41.9 Name three of the general principles and guidelines in design for manufacturability? Answer. In addition. 41. upgradeability. (b) facilities planning. (4) Product life. (c) process improvement.2 Which of the following would be considered basic processes. (8) Design for ease of assembly. and disposability. 41. and (f) solving technical problems in the production departments. (7) Minimize flexible components. and (7) possible need for alternative sources. (e) product design. (4) Design for ease of part fabrication. (c) drilling with a twist drill. and (p) ultrasonic machining.12 What is meant by the term design for life cycle? Answer. (o) turning.5 lists the following DFM principles and guidelines: (1) Minimize number of components. (6) Design the product to be foolproof during assembly. (a). (3) production quantity. It includes: (1) design for manufacturability. all correct answers must be given. (g) rolling.11 Identify some of the enabling technologies for concurrent engineering? Answer. (m) tempering of martensitic steel. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point. Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 18 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct). (d) electroplating. (2) whether the process is available internally.Answer. (9) Use modular design. 41. 272 . To attain a perfect score on the quiz. serviceability. and (f). and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point. (j) sintering of pressed ceramic powders. (3) design for life cycle. (5) Design parts with tolerances that are within process capability. It also includes certain organizational changes which attempt to bring different functions in the company together during product design to consider all possible aspects of the product. as opposed to secondary processes (more than one)? (a) annealing. (d) process planning. (c). (5) whether or not the component is a standard commercially available hardware item. and (4) design for cost. (k) spot welding. (h) sand casting. Answer.10 What is concurrent engineering and what are its important components? Answer. (d). For each question. (11) Eliminate or reduce adjustment required. The factors include: (1) cost. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers. (2) design for quality. These factors include installability. (6) supplier reliability. (b) anodizing. Design for life cycle means that factors relating to the product after it has been manufactured should be taken into consideration in design. (10) Shape parts and products for ease of packaging. (f) impression die forging. Table 41. (n) trepanning. (i) sheet metal stamping.

(e) forward hot extrusion to produce aluminum bars. (c) drilling with a twist drill. (n) trepanning.4 Which of the following are operations to enhance physical properties (more than one)? (a) annealing. or (d) none of the preceding. (l) surface grinding of hardened steel. and (p). and (m). and (p) ultrasonic machining. (l). (j). (h) sand casting. and (h). (g) rolling. 41. (k) spot welding. (b) anodizing. and (p) ultrasonic machining. (e) forward hot extrusion to produce aluminum bars. (b) retrieval CAPP.Answer. (m) tempering of martensitic steel. (k) spot welding. (i) sheet metal stamping. (i). 41. (c). (f). Answer. (c) drilling with a twist drill. (o) turning.5 Which one of the following types of computer-aided process planning relies on parts classification and coding in group technology? (a) generative CAPP.3 Which of the following would be considered secondary processes. (f) impression die forging. (m) tempering of martensitic steel. (e). (l) surface grinding of hardened steel. 41. (o). (b) anodizing. (n) trepanning. (h) sand casting. as opposed to basic processes (more than one)? (a) annealing. (d) electroplating. (g). Answer. (f) impression die forging. (c) traditional process planning. (n). (a). (o) turning. (i) sheet metal stamping. (j) sintering of pressed ceramic powders. (g) rolling. (b) 273 . (j) sintering of pressed ceramic powders. (d) electroplating. Answer.

(2) sales forecasts. as the Japanese view it. and it is appropriate to carry inventory. and (3) spare parts. 42. and subcontracting work to outside vendors. the master production schedule indicates how many and when of each product model within the product line are to be produced. for example. increase number of shifts. 42.2 PRODUCTION PLANNING AND CONTROL What is meant by the term make-to-stock production? Review Questions Answer.4 What are the product categories usually listed in the master production schedule. Dependent demand refers to the fact that demand for the item is directly related to demand for something else. an order to restock is issued when the inventory level for the given stock item declines to some point defined as the reorder point. and (3) inventory record file. authorize overtime.3 42.8 What are some of the resource changes that can be made to increase plant capacity in the short run? Answer. How is a pull system distinguished from a push system in production and inventory control? 274 . 42.42 42. increase shift hours. Answer. (2) bill-of-materials file for product structure.1 42. or a component that is used on more than one product. or subassemblies that are used for more than one item in the next level above in the product structure.10 Identify the principal objective in just-in-time production. Aggregate planning is scheduling by general product line. Reduction of in-process inventory. what are common use items? Answer. 42. Make-to-stock is the case in which the company produces to replenish inventories of products. The inputs to MRP are: (1) master production schedule. Answer. components. Common use items are materials.9 42. usually because the item is a component of an end product subject to independent demand.7 Identify the inputs to the MRP processor in material requirements planning. a starting material that is used on more than one component. End products and spare parts experience independent demand. In a reorder point system. Answer.5 Define reorder point inventory system.6 In MRP. Production rate is greater than demand rate. How does aggregate planning differ from the master production scheduling? Answer. 42. Short term adjustments to increase capacity include: increase employment levels. 42. What is the difference between dependent and independent demand for products? Answer. The categories are: (1) firm customer orders. Answer. Independent demand means that the demand or consumption of the item is unrelated to demand for other items.

(b) firm customer orders. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers.11 What are the three phases in shop floor control? Answer. (e) sales forecasts. 42.5 Order point inventory systems are intended for which of the following (more than one)? (a) dependent demand items.7 The word kanban is most closely associated with which one of the following? (a) capacity planning. The three phases are (1) order release. (c). (b) and (e). (b) economic order quantity. (d) mass production. and (f) setup cost. (b) investment. and (e).4 Which of the following are the terms in the economic order quantity formula (name three)? (a) annual demand rate. and (f). (d) holding cost. Answer. (c) general product lines. (e). and (3) order progress. Answer. and (g) storage. (c) low production quantities. and (f) spare tires. Answer. In a pull system. (d). (e) spoilage. (b) and (d). (d) master production schedule. (d) mass production quantities. 42. or (e) material requirements planning. (a). (c) obsolescence. (b). (b) manufacturing logistics. In a push system. (d) production equipment. (c) 275 . 42.2 Which of the following are the categories usually listed in the master production schedule (more than one)? (a) components used to build the final products. (d) setup.1 Which one of the following terms best describes the overall function of production planning and control? (a) inventory control. 42. (e) interest rate. To attain a perfect score on the quiz. all correct answers must be given. (c) just-in-time production. (c) manufacturing engineering.Answer. and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point. (b) independent demand items. 42. Answer. For each question. 42. Answer. (d) orders for maintenance and spare parts. 42.6 With which of the following manufacturing resources is capacity requirements planning primarily concerned (more than one)? (a) component parts. and (e) mid. and (e) raw materials. Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 17 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct). (b) direct labor.3 Inventory carrying costs include which of the following (more than one)? (a) equipment downtime. authorization to produce parts originates from downstream stations. (c) cost per piece.range production quantities. (d). authorization to produce derives from parts being produced by upstream stations and forming queues in front of the production station. Answer. Answer. (b) 42. (b). and (g). (c) inventory storage space. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point. since each correct answer is worth 1 point. (b) batch size. or (e) product design. (f) stock-out. (2) order scheduling.

cost of downtime on the affected equipment is figured at $250/hr. it is desired to produce the components in batch sizes of 150 units (daily requirements for assembly). Annual holding cost per part made on the equipment.5 x 250/(0.42.00)(7217/2) + 2.000/2000) = 1200 + 15.000/6000) = 3000 + 3000 = $6000 42.000 x 2.1 A product is made-to-stock.0 hr.5 x 250(50.000 units. Demand for each product is 2500 units per year. Cost of downtime on this machine is estimated at $200/hr.5 (EOQ)2 = 2Da CdtTsu/hCp Tsu = hCp(EOQ)2/2D a Cdt = 0. Each unit costs $4. Setup cost to produce this product is $300. holding cost rate = 2. changeover (setup) time between products averages 2.5 = (2 x 50.5 = 2981 units (b) TIC = ChQ/2 + CsuDa/Q = 12 x 0. 276 .00)(2000/2) + 2.30(4.5 x 250(50.30(4.000 x 300/(. Annual demand for the part is 15. (d) releasing orders to the shop.5%/month. and unit cost of the product = $4.30 x 4. Production downtime costs an estimated $200/hr. downtime cost during changeover = $200/hr. Batch size = 2000 units. Holding cost rate = 30%/yr.3 A product is produced in batches.8 The term machine loading refers most closely to which one of the following? (a) assigning jobs to a work center.5 = 7217 units TIC at EOQ = ChQ/2 + CsuDa/Q = 0. and annual holding cost rate = 30%.000 units. Annual demand is 60.25 x 4. Determine: (a) EOQ and (b) total inventory costs for this data.000/7217) = 4330 + 4330 = $8660 Savings = 16.025 x 6.00.5 Current changeover (setup) time on a certain machine = 3. 42.8660 = $8165 42.825 EOQ = (2D a Csu/Ch)0.5 = (2 x 60. (b) floor foundation in the factory. Determine: (a) economic order quantity and (b) total inventory costs for this situation.0 hr.00 and the annual holding cost rate = 25%. What would the annual savings be if the product were produced in the economic order quantity? Solution: Current TIC = ChQ/2 + CsuDa/Q = 0.000/2981) = 2683 + 2684 = $5387 42.06075 hr = 3. (c) managing work-in.00)(6000/2) + 300(60. Solution: (a) EOQ = (2D a Csu/Ch)0. Annual demand = 50. or (e) sequencing jobs through a machine. (a) Problems Inventory Control 42.5 hr.00))0. Ch = $1.5 = (2 x 20.025(6. Setup time to run a batch = 2.00.00/unit.65 min.00)(150) 2/(2 x 2500 x 200) = 0. Answer.000 units.00))0.process in the factory.3(9. cost per unit = $6.625 = $16.25(4. In how many minutes must the changeover (setup) between batches be completed in order for 100 units to be the economic order quantity? Solution: EOQ = (2D a CdtTsu /hCp)0.825 .2 Given: annual demand for product X is 20.4 A certain piece of production equipment is used to produce various components for an assembled product of the XYZ Company.000 x 2 x 200/(12 x .00. To keep in-process inventories low.00))0.00)(2981/2) + 2 x 200(20. All of the components made on the equipment are of approximately equal value: Cp = $9. Solution: (a) EOQ = (2D a Csu/Ch)0. Determine: (a) economic order quantity and (b) total inventory costs for this situation.5 = 6000 units (b) TIC = ChQ/2 + CsuDa/Q = 0.000 units.

(a) What is the imputed holding cost per unit for this data? (b) If the actual annual holding cost per unit is only 5 cents.5 Ch = 2 x 40. Ordering.05) 0.00(775/2) + 20(15. determine: (c) EOQ and (b) total inventory costs. EOQ = (2 x 40.21 Additional cost = 2250.000 units. determine the time-phased requirements for M2.5 = 4243 pc (b) TIC = ChQ/2 + CsuDa/Q = 1.5 = 775 pc (d) TIC = 1.000 x 3.05(1000/2) + 50(40.50 + 2121.60 42.2. and S1 to meet the master schedule for P1.00 x 200(15. Csu = CdtTsu = 200(0. if the changeover time could be reduced to six minutes.00 x 200/1.000/8944) = 223.05.000/4243) = 2121. compared to the economic order quantity? Solution: (a) EOQ = (2D a Csu/Ch)0. Assume no common use items and all on-hand inventories and scheduled receipts are zero.000 x 50/Ch)0.000 x 50/1000 = $4.1) = $20. what lot size should be ordered? (c) How much more is the current two-bin approach costing the company annually. and assembly lead times are as follows: Item identification: Lead time (weeks): P1 1 S1 2 C2 1 M2 2 Given the product structure in Figure 42. Solution: Period P1 Requirements Order Release S1 Requirements Order Release C2 Requirements Order Release 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 50 50 100 400 8 50 75 75 9 75 100 100 10 100 50 200 300 75 300 400 200 277 .000 x 20/1.60 + 223.00 For the EOQ = 8944.10 = $774. The annual usage of the component is 40.5 = 8944.00 annually (b) Given Ch = $0.Also. Required deliveries for P1 are given in Figure 42.7.21 = $1802.79 Material Requirements Planning 42.50 + 387. Cost to order the component is around $50.61 = $447. C2.000 x 50/0.3 → 8944 pc (c) For the two-bin approach in which Q = 1000.447.7 Quantity requirements are to be planned for component C2 in product P1.00 .05(8944/2) + 50(40.000/775) = 387.000/1000) = 250 + 2000 = $2250.64 (c) If Tsu = 6 min = 0. EOQ = (2 x 15.6 The two-bin approach is used to control inventory for a particular low-cost component. manufacturing.00) 0.14 = $4242.1 hr.6.5 = (2 x 15. TIC = 0.5 1000 = (2 x 40. Solution: (a) EOQ = (2D a Csu/Ch)0. Use a format similar to Figure 42. TIC = 0. Ignore demand for P1 beyond period 10.00(4243/2) + 3.00) 0. Each bin holds 1000 units.

determine the time-phased requirements for M5.7. zero for S2.8 Requirements are to be planned for component C5 in product P1. and S2 to meet the master schedule for P1.M2 Requirements Order Release 200 300 200 400 300 400 42. manufacturing. Use a format similar to Figure 42. Solution: Period P1 Requirements On-hand: 0 Net Requirements Order Release S2 Requirements On hand: 0 Net Requirements Order Release C5 Requirements On hand: 100 Net Requirements 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 50 50 75 150 150 200 400 400 9 75 75 100 200 200 10 100 100 50 100 100 150 300 300 100 200 100 100 278 .8 Solve the previous problem except that the following is known in addition to the information given: scheduled receipts of M5 are 250 units in period (week) 3 and 50 units in period (week) 4. Ordering. and assembly lead times are as follows: Item identification: Lead time (weeks): P1 1 S2 1 C5 3 M5 2 Given the product structure in Figure 42. Assume no common use items.6. C5. Ignore demand for P1 beyond period 10. On-hand inventories are: 200 units for M5 and 100 units for C5.2. Solution: Period P1 Requirements On-hand: 0 Net Requirements Order Release S2 Requirements On hand: 0 Net Requirements Order Release C5 Requirements On hand: 100 Net Requirements Order Release M5 Requirements On hand: 200 Net Requirements Order Release 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 50 50 75 150 150 200 400 400 9 75 75 100 200 200 10 100 100 50 100 100 150 300 300 100 200 100 100 100 100 100 0 400 300 300 100 200 400 400 400 0 200 42. Required deliveries for P1 are given in Figure 42.

propose a way of scheduling to meet the weekly demand if there were four machines instead of three. To meet the weekly production.333 Hrs/wk center 56. Product 2: Time per batch = 5. This is fewer than the number of hours required. assuming a single setup for each product: Product 1: Time per batch = 6. Solution: Determine time to produce each product.0 + 750(4/60) = 6 + 50 = 56 hr.0 6. 3. overtime must be used.0 + 900(3/60) = 5 + 45 = 50 hr Product 3: Time per batch = 7. 3.0 5.333 20. 2. overtime must be used. Propose a way of scheduling the machines to meet the weekly demand. Solution: Time to produce each product is the same as given in the preceding solution.333 26.0 45.0 _____ 24. To meet the weekly production.333 = 20. The plant normally operates one shift (7. this will require an additional setup 279 . In both cases.11 In the previous problem.0 7. let us propose to produce products 1 and 3 on work centers 1 and 2 and Products 2 and 4 on work centers 3 and 4.0 Run hours 50.333 + 26 = 152. under the assumption that a single setup is required for each product. The demand and other data for the products are given as follows: Product 1 2 3 4 Weekly demand 750 900 400 400 Setup time 6 hr 5 hr 7 hr 6 hr Operation time 4.333 ______ 152.333 Hrs/product 56.333 Totals 42. The following schedule is proposed: Work center I II III Product 1 2 3 4 Quantity 750 900 400 400 Setup hours 6.0 min.0 50.0 + 400(3/60) = 6 + 20 = 26 hr Total hours for all four products = 56 + 50 + 20.0 20.10 Four products are to be manufactured in Department A.0 46.0 min.0 + 400(2/60) = 7 + 13.333 hr. In order to equalize the workload among machines as much as possible. five days per week and there are currently 3 work centers in the department.333 hr Product 4: Time per batch = 6.0 13.0 50.0 min. This is fewer than the number of hours required.Order Release M5 Requirements Scheduled Receipts On hand: 200 Net Requirements Order Release 100 100 250 450 -350 300 300 300 50 350 -100 400 400 100 300 0 0 Order Scheduling 42. Available hours per week on 4 work centers if normal hours are assumed = 4 x (5 x 7) = 140 hr.0 ______ 128. Available hours per week on 3 work centers if normal hours are assumed = 3 x (5 x 7) = 105 hr.0 min. and it is desired to determine how to allocate resources in that department to meet the required demand for these products for a certain week.0 ______ 152.0 hours per shift).

16 = 3 Order C slack time = (24 .0.0.50 hr TII = 76.0.0 .C (b) Earliest due date: sequence = C .0 + 400(3/60) = 76.0 .0.06667 QI) = 0.06667Q I Setting TI = TII: 6.A .13334 QI = 76.00 ______ 128.0.0 5. The following table summarizes the production at each work center: Work center I II III IV Product 1 1 3 2 2 4 Quantity 528 222 400 710 190 400 Setup hours 6.333 .0 . (c) shortest processing time.0 + 0.15) .06667Q I = 76.0 + 0.6.B (d) Least slack time: Order A slack time = (25 .0 = 71.333/0.05(710) = 40.06667Q I Work center II: TII =6.0 + QIII(3/60) = 5.0 + 0.5.We want to equalize the workload on work centers I and II with Products 1 and 3.33 Hrs/wk center 41.C .33 35.06667(528) = 41.00 ______ 163. The following table indicates the remaining process time and production calendar due date for each order: Order A B C Remaining process time 5 days 16 days 7 days Due date Day 25 Day 34 Day 24 Determine the sequence of the orders that would be scheduled using: (a) first-come-first-serve.0 6.A 280 .50 40.0/0.B (c) Shortest processing time: sequence = A .0 = 70.80 13.20 20.B . Work center III: TIII = 5. B.15) .20 41.0 + QI(4/60) = 6. and C) to be processed at a particular work center.05(710) = 40.33 40. We next want to equalize the workload on work centers III and IV with Products 2 and 4.0.0 + 0.10 QI = 76.133 hr.13334 = 528 TI = 6.0 7.0 + 0.333 .5 = 5 Order B slack time = (34 .QIII) + 6.50 9.0 + 0.50 ______ 163.06667(750 .0 + 0.7 = 2 Sequence = C .333 .333 QI = 70.33 Hrs/product 41.50 14.10 = 710 TI = 5.05 QIII = 76.05 QIII) = 0.06667Q I 2(0. (d) least slack time. Solution: (a) FCFS: sequence = A .0 Run hours 35.0 + 400(2/60) = 76.12 The current date in the production calendar of the XYZ Company is day 15. and (e) critical ratio.05 QIII Work center IV: TIV = 5.06667(528) = 41.50 hr.33 Totals 42.05Q III 2(0.0 + 0.20 hr TII = 76.13 40. There are three orders (A. (b) earliest due date.0 .QI) + 7.20 14.50 20. The orders arrived in the sequence A-B-C at the work center.B .05(900 .333 .05 QIII Setting TIII = TIV: 5.50 26.0 _____ 35.0 5.15) .80 20.0 QI = 71.0 6. Work center I: TI = 6.

C .15)/16 = 1.1875 Order C critical ratio = (24 .15)/7 = 1.(e) Critical ratio: Order A critical ratio = (25 .A 281 .286 Sequence = B .15)/5 = 2.0 Order B critical ratio = (34 .

7 When interpreting a control chart. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point. and (e) reliability. and (4) points consistently near the upper or lower limits. The two quality aspects are: (1) product features. The two charts are: (1) p chart for proportion of defects in a sample.1 Which of the following would be classified as examples of a product feature. The two charts are: (1) x chart for sample means and (2) R chart for ranges. measurements of the characteristic of interest are made.4 What is the difference between control charts for variables and control charts for attributes? Answer. A process that is out of control exhibits additional variation that is not normal. (3) sudden changes in average. 43. In control charts for attributes. The process in statistical control is characterized by only random variations. the characteristic of interest is identified as being acceptable of not acceptable. (2) trends or cyclical patterns in the data. 43. For each question.1 43. (d) product weight. and (2) freedom from deficiencies. In control charts for variables. 282 . called assignable variation. Answer. and (2) c chart for count of defects in a sample. Answer. How is a process operating in statistical control distinguished from one that is not? Answer. The limits are defined as the process mean ± 3 standard deviations.6 What are the two basic types of control charts for attributes? Answer. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers. rather than a freedom from deficiency (more than one)? (a) components within tolerance. since each correct answer is worth 1 point. (b). and (e). Review Questions 43.2 QUALITY CONTROL What are the two principal aspects of product quality? Answer. 43.3 Define process capability. all correct answers must be given.43 43. 43. Problems are indicated by the following: (1) x or R lie outside the LCL or UCL limits.5 Identify the two types of control charts for variables. Answer. (d). (b) location of ON/OFF switch. and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point. Process capability is the limits of the random variations of the process when it is in statistical control. This indicates that something is wrong with the process. what does one look for to identify problems? Answer. (c) no missing parts. 43. Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 12 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct). To attain a perfect score on the quiz.

(c) Which of the following identify an out-of-control condition in a control chart (more than one)? (a) consistently increasing value of x . (b) mean value of part characteristic of interest. (b) number of reworked parts in a sample. (a). The process is in statistical control and the output is normally distributed with a standard deviation = 0. (b) points near the central line. the upper control limit is set equal to which one of the following? (a) process mean. Answer.6.255 ± 3(0.004 = -4.255)/0. Answer.263.004) = 6.3 43. Problems Process Capability and Statistical Tolerancing 43.1 An automatic turning process is set up to produce parts with a mean diameter = 6.237 .00 283 . and (e) robust design.4 43. 43.2. or (d) upper value of the maximum range R. Answer.267 cm 43.43.0. On the upper side of the tolerance limit.2 In the previous problem. (b) 65%. (b) The R chart is used for which one of the following product or part characteristics? (a) number of rejects in the sample. (c) radius of a cylindrical part. (c). (e) Which of the following principles and/or approaches are generally credited to G. (c) and (e). the design specification on the part is: diameter = 6. In a control chart. Solution: Process capability PC = µ ± 3σ = 6. (a) What proportion of parts fall outside the tolerance limits? (b) If the process were adjusted so that its mean diameter = 6.004 = +2.004 cm.250 cm and the standard deviation remained the same. and (d).50.255 ± 0. Answer.004 cm and tolerance limits 2. (d) Pareto priority index. (d) 99%. Determine the process capability.013 cm.6 43.250 ±0. then the percentage of parts that are within tolerance will be closest to which one of the following when the process is operating in statistical control? (a) 35%. (c) R outside the control limits of the R chart.2 If the product tolerance is set so that the process capability index = 1. (c) loss function. or (e) 100%. or (d) range of sample values.263 . On the lower side of the tolerance limit. or (d) proportion of defects in a sample.012 cm The upper and lower limits of the process capability range are: 6. (b) process mean plus three standard deviations. (b) control charts. z = (6.255 cm. (d) Which one of the following best describes the situations for which the c chart is most suited? (a) control of defective parts.5 43. Conclusion: there are virtually no defects on the lower side of the tolerance. Taguchi (more than one)? (a) acceptance sampling. (c) number of defects in a sample. (c) upper design tolerance limit. using the standard normal distribution. z = (6. and (d) x outside the control limits of the x chart.255 cm and σ = 0. (c) 95%.237 to 2. what proportion of parts would fall outside the tolerance limits? Solution: (a) Given process mean µ = 6. Answer.255)/0.7 Answer.243 to 6.

0041 = 0. what proportion of parts would fall outside the tolerance limits? (c) With the adjusted mean at 28. 0. z = (6.0/(6 x 0. Pr(z < -3.77) = approx.77 Using tables of the standard normal distribution.250)/0.0012 = 0.28. The design specification on the angle = 90 ±2°.53 = -4. (b) Given process mean µ = 6. 43.0 to 30. Solution: (a) Given process mean µ = 28.0 mm.250 cm and σ = 0.0001 On the upper side of the tolerance limit.0 mm.53 = +2. Pr(z < -3.69°. Using tables of the standard normal distribution.6 ± 1. (a) What proportion of parts fall outside the tolerance limits? (b) If the process were adjusted so that its mean diameter = 28.0227 The proportion of defects with the current process mean = 0. z = (6.28.1°.0)/0.53 mm.53 mm and tolerance limits 26.004 = -3. using the standard normal distribution. z = (26.0°.64) = 0.258 284 .12%.6 mm. 0.263 .53) = 1.4 A plastic extrusion process produces extrudate with a critical cross-section dimension = 28.0041 The proportion of defects with the current process mean = 0.27%.263.28.6.0001 The proportion of defects with the current process mean = 0. Pr(z > 3. determine the value of the process capability index. On the upper side of the tolerance limit.28. (c) Process capability index PCI = 4.0)/0.53 mm and tolerance limits 26. The process is in statistical control and the output is normally distributed with standard deviation = 0.64 Using tables of the standard normal distribution.237 to 6.3 A sheet metal bending operation produces bent parts with an included angle = 92.6 ± 3(0.0 mm and σ = 0.41%.0006 The proportion of defects with the current process mean = 0.0 mm.59 mm The upper and lower limits of the process capability range are: 27.23°) = 2.1 ± 3(0. z = (26. Pr(z > 3. (b) Given process mean µ = 28. 43. Pr(z > 2. Using tables of the standard normal distribution.0001 + 0.6 mm and σ = 0.41° to 92.0 mm and the standard deviation remained the same. (b) If the process could be adjusted so that its mean = 90. z = (30.79°.0 to 30.004 = +3. Using tables of the standard normal distribution. On the lower side of the tolerance limit.0 .237 .88° = 4° PCI = 4°/(6 x 0. On the lower side of the tolerance limit.1° ± 0.19 mm.6)/0. (b) If µ = 90° T = 92° . Pr(z > 2.77.0 mm.77) = approx.53 = +3. determine the value of the process capability index.0 ±2. Determine the process capability.53) = 28. The process is in statistical control and the values of included angle are normally distributed with a standard deviation = 0.23°. On the lower side of the tolerance limit.0 .0006.25. On the upper side of the tolerance limit.250)/0.0006 = 0.53 = -3.0227 = 2. (a) Determine the process capability. Solution: Process capability PC = µ ± 3σ = 28.Using tables of the standard normal distribution.9 → virtually no defects.00) = 0.25.5 In the previous problem. 43. Solution: (a) PC = 92.25) = 0.25) = 0.0001 = 0.6. z = (30.0 .0006 + 0. Conclusion: there are virtually no defects on the lower side of the tolerance.02%.004 cm and tolerance limits 6.0002 = 0.01. the design specification on the part is: diameter = 28.01 to 30.23) = 92.0 . The upper and lower limits of the process capability range are: 91.6)/0.

The relevant part dimensions making up the 30 mm total are 5 mm.0212 cm 43.0667 mm.0004 = 4 Ti2 Ti2 = 0.5 = 0.00005 σa = (0.020) 2 = 0. σa2 = 2 σi2 = 2(0.625 inch. T = 0. (b) Statistical tolerancing: Ta = (4 Ti2)0. It would be more appropriate to use worst case tolerancing here. T1 + T2 + T3 = T + 2T + 3T = 6T = 0. T3 = 0.005 in.43. All of the parts are cut from the same sheet metal coil.010 inch).020 inch (±0. However.00032) 0.010 in.0179 in. which would yield Ta = 20(± 0. Solution: (a) Worst case: Ti = 0. Solution: Dimension C is determined by two middle parts. 43.000 ± 0.005) 2 = 0. The thickness of the final assembly is specified as 1. 10 mm. significantly beyond the specified tolerance.8 The assembly in Figure P43. T1 = T.5 = 0.7 An assembly is made by stacking 20 flat pieces of sheet metal to produce a thick laminated structure.20 mm.6 An assembly consists of four components stacked to create an overall dimension of 2. Given that the part tolerances are to be a constant proportion of the respective dimensions. Interpret this to be ± 0. Expressing this as a bilateral tolerance.200 mm = ± 0.00707) = 5. whose thickness specification is 1/16 inch ±0.005 cm.. T1 = 0. If each part is made from an independent process with process means for part thickness all set to 2. T2 = 0. whose process capabilities are proportional to their respective dimensions. Does a statistical tolerancing approach apply in this situation? Why? Solution: If statistical tolerancing were used. specifically the rolling process making the starting piece of sheet metal from which the laminating pieces are fabricated.0333 mm . 285 .500 inch.002) = ± 0. and (b) using a statistical tolerancing approach. 43. All parts will have identical bilateral tolerances. so that the thick assembly has the same profile.9 An assembly consists of three parts stacked to form a final dimension of 30. determine the tolerance for each part using: (a) worst case design and (b) statistical tolerancing. T3 = 3T. Assume the opposite sides of each part on the 2.0001 = 10-4 Ti = 10-2 = 0.40 mm.500 cm and standard deviation = 0. T2 = 2T.005 in. Solution: (a) Worst case tolerancing: Ta = 0.0004/4 = 0. Ta = ± 0.0667 mm = ± 0.00005) 0. Parts are produced by independent manufacturing operations.000 cm.250 ±0.0042)0.. what is the process capability of the critical dimension C.8 has a critical assembly dimension C = 5.40/6 = 0.00707 cm PC = µ ± 3σ = 2(2.0 mm with tolerance = ±0. this would not be a good application of statistical tolerancing because the process making the components is the same process. The dimensions of the individual parts are each 0. with a bilateral tolerance Ta = 0. and 15 mm. Determine the tolerance (a) under a worst case design approach.5 = (0.040 in.100 mm. The sheet metal blanks are all cut with the same punch and die to the desired profile. Let us apportion the tolerances among parts in proportion to their size.0667 mm.50 cm dimension are parallel.010.40 mm. The absence of independent processes making the individual components is a violation of one of the fundamental assumptions of statistical tolerancing. Interpret this to be ± 0.1333 mm = ± 0.00895 in.020/4 = 0. which is well within the specified tolerance of ± 0.002 inch.500) ± 3(0.010 inch. Ta = (20 x 0.5 Ta2 = 4 Ti2 (0. Thus.010 in.

0943 mm Ta = 9(0. T3 = 0.24 2 9.03333) 2)0.0.10 shows an assembly in which the critical dimension is C.10 Figure P43.40 = (T1 2 + T22 + T32)0.23 0. let us apportion the tolerances among parts in proportion to their size.12 Ten samples of size n = 8 have been collected from a process in statistical control.80 mm.21 + 0.19 7 9.15 0.3207 mm = ± 0. Therefore.A2 R = 9.17 + 0.20 + 9.0333 mm. Given that assembly PCI = 1.0333 mm.008889) 0.5 = 0.0.11 Solve part (b) of the previous problem.373(0. (a) Worst case tolerancing: there are 8 parts that determine critical dimension C.5 = (T2 + (2T)2 + (3T)3)0.2/6 = 0.19 + 9. Each part used in the assembly. and the dimension of interest has been measured for each part. and the PCI for the assembly will also be 1.23)/10 = 0. Ta = 8Ti = 8(0.24) = 9. Thus.22 + 9.1105 mm. T2 = 0. T1 = T.0535 mm .1604 mm. 43.24 + 0. Solution: Given that PCI = 1.32 + 0.22 0. The calculated values of x and R for each sample are given below (measured values are in mm).21 8 9.1069 mm = ± 0.12 + 9. determine the recommended tolerance for C using: (a) worst case design and (b) statistical tolerancing.8485 = ± 0.20 0.5.17 + 9.28 0. (b) Construct the control charts and plot the sample data on the charts.5 = (8(0.27 6 9.5 = (0.3(10) = 20 mm.373(0. T3 = 3T.5 = (0.1 mm for the thickness.0.1069 T1 = 0.6 mm = ± 0. Solution: Given that parts PCI = 1. (a) Determine the values of the center.5 = (14T2)0.7417 T T = 0.40/3.20 + 0.24) = 9.5 σa = 9 σa Statistical tolerancing: σa = (8σi2)0. then Ti = 6σ = 0. then Ti = 6σ = 0.2/6 = 0. (b) Statistical tolerancing: Ta = (8Ti2)0.19 + 0. LCL.2) = 1.40 mm.7417 = 0.26 + 0. The PCI for the individual parts is still 1.2) 2)0.5. Ta = 1.0943) = 0. T2 = 2T. including the base part.1069 mm.0 mm.21 10 9. Critical dimension C = 5(10) . each with independent variability.(b) Statistical tolerancing: Ta = 0.21 + 0. except that the process capability index for the assembly is a more conservative 1.5 PC = 1.27 + 0.32) 0.5 = (T2 + 4T2 + 9T2)0. 43.20 0. Again.2 mm and σ = 0. has a thickness = 10.30 + 0.3(10) = 20 mm.0.26 5 9.20 + 9.17 0. Ta = 0.566 mm = ± 0.23 Solution: x = Σ x /m = (9.5 = (8(0. UCL = x + A2 R = 9.424 mm Control Charts 43.19 0.2895 mm. and UCL for the x and R charts.0.24 0.20 R = Σ R/7 = (0.5 = 0.28 + 9.20 mm = CL LCL = x .30 4 9.283 mm.24 (a) x chart: x = 9. Given that the process capability index for the parts PCI = 1.17 3 9. s x R 1 9.0.20 .2138 mm = ± 0.5 = 3.2 mm and σ = 0.12 0. Critical dimension C = 5(10) . with process capability = ±0.23)/10 = 9. 286 .15 + 9.32 9 9.24 + 9.

011 + 0. 43. LCL.000 .5.860 .998 + 1.027) = 0.995 0.24) = 0.999 + 0. = CL LCL = x .924(0.002 0.000 + 0.15 n /3 = 0.860 + 0.0133) = 1. R chart: R = 0.999 0.000 R = Σ R/7 = (0.4474 mm.14 In 12 samples of size n = 7.995 + 1.8487 cm UCL = x + A2 R = 6. UCL = D4 R = 2.000 in. and the diameter of the extrudate has been measured for each part.027) = 0.004 + 0.A2 R = 1. (c) What is your best estimate of the standard deviation of the process? Solution: (a) x chart: x = 6.996 + 0.996 0.002 + 0. the average value of the sample means is x = 6.0281 in.017 Solution: x = Σ x /m = (1.076(0.114(0.0519 cm (c) The x chart is based on ± 3 σx/ n Therefore.027 = CL LCL = D3 R = 0. Determine: (a) lower and upper control limits for the x chart and (b) lower and upper control limits for the R chart.R chart: R = 0. and UCL for x and R charts.013 7 1.020 5 0.00998 cm In nine samples of size n = 10.0.017)/7 = 0.011 3 0. UCL = x + A2 R = 1.014 4 1. (a) Determine the values of the center. A2 R = 3 σx/ n σx = A2 R 43.0205 cm UCL = D4 R = 1.0133 = CL LCL = D3 R = 0.114(0.004 0.020 + 0. (b) Student exercise. Determine: (a) lower and upper 287 .0133) = 0.0. The calculated values of x and R for each sample are given below (measured values are in inches).006)/7 = 1.013 + 0.419(0.027) = 6.0133) = 0.0133 (a) x chart: x = 1.A2 R = 6. and the mean of the ranges of the samples is R = 8.0133) = 0.998 0.0133 = CL LCL = D3 R = 0 UCL = D4 R = 2.010 + 0.9923 in.008 + 0. (b) Student exercise. and the mean of the ranges of the samples is R = 0.0077 in.860 cm = CL LCL = x . s x R 1 1. 43.010 2 0.027 cm.577(0.008 6 0.006 0.027) = 6.8713 cm (b) R chart: R = 0.419(0.13 Seven samples of 5 parts each have been collected from an extrusion process that is in statistical control. (b) Construct the control charts and plot the sample data on the charts. the grand mean of the samples is x = 100 for the characteristic of interest.419(0.0326 mm.860 cm for the dimension of interest.136(0.014 + 0.577(0.027) 7 /3 = 0.

87 ) / 90 = 0. Determine the sample size n that is used with this control chart.A2 R = 100 .11 + 3(0.10 = 0.24 + .308(8.5(.75/25 = 0.7.308(8. (b) R chart: R = 8.308(8.5) = 97. Solution: Use p = 1 . estimate the standard deviation of the process? Solution: (a) x chart: x = 100 = CL LCL = x .83 ) / n (0.17 (0 .0796/n n = 5.236 43. 89) / 25 = 0.09 (0. Determine the center.0626) = 0. LCL.17 x 0. Solution: p = 0. 13(0 .19 The upper and lower control limits for a p chart are: LCL = 0.09 + 3(0.11 .11 + 3 0 .17 UCL .14 = 6 p (1 − p ) / n = 6 0 .3 p (1 − p ) / n = 0.09 (0. p = 11.5(UCL + LCL) = 0.11 + 3(0. 91) / 90 = 0.13 = CL LCL = p .1507 43.09 .8955.0626) = -0. Determine the center.14) 2 = 62 (0. Six samples of 25 parts each have been collected.11(0.24.0.03545) = 0.1045.5) = 1.298 43.13 .0.2 → 259 288 .777(8.03545) = 0.11 + 3 0 . Solution: p = 2. Determine the center. UCL = x + A2 R = 100 + 0. The number of chips per wafer is 200. (c) The x chart is based on ± 3 σx/ n Therefore.5 = CL LCL = D3 R = 0. The total number of parts in these ten samples was 900 and the total number of defects counted was 117.09 .0196 = 259.09 = CL LCL = p .control limits for the x chart and (b) lower and upper control limits for the R chart.11 . and the average number of defects per sample was 2. UCL = D4 R = 1.3 0 .0196 = 36(0.17 Ten samples of equal size are taken to prepare a p chart. Solution: d = 117/10 = 11.3 0.10) = 0.83/n) 0.618.75. (c) Based on the data given.382.3(0.91 = 0.223(8.0.11 = CL LCL = p .3 p (1 − p ) / n = 0. 89) / 25 = 0. A2 R = 3 σx/ n σx = A2 R 43.7596. LCL and UCL for the p chart.16 n /3 = 0.17)(0.18 The yield of good chips during a certain step in silicon processing of integrated circuits averages 91%.13 .83)/n = 5.5) 10 /3 = 2.87 ) / 90 = 0.24 .5) = 102. 13(0 .0202) = 0.024 UCL = p + 3 p (1 − p ) / n = 0.LCL = 0. and UCL for the p chart that might be used for this process.11 + 3 0.11(0.19 and UCL = 0. LCL and UCL for the p chart.3 0 .3(0.3(0.5) = 15.0796/0. A p chart is to be constructed. 91) / 90 = 0.7/90 = 0.3 p (1 − p ) / n = 0.0202) = 0.078 → 0 UCL = p + 3 p (1 − p ) / n = 0.0293 UCL = p + 3 p (1 − p ) / n = 0.

10 + 0) = 0.4275/n n = 0.5(. p = 3 p (1 − p ) / n 0.21 Twelve cars were inspected after final assembly.0025 = 32 (0. Solution: p = 0. 05( 0.95)/n = 0. Determine the minimum possible sample size n that is compatible with this control chart.05)(0.10.20 The upper and lower control limits for a p chart are: LCL = 0 and UCL = 0. Solution: CL = 116 LCL = c .5(UCL + LCL) = 0.4275/0. Determine the center and upper and lower control limits for the c chart that might be used in this situation.05 = 3 0.3 116 = 83.3 → 148 289 .05 LCL = p .95 ) / n (0. The number of defects found ranged between 87 and 139 defect per car with an average of 116.3 c = 116 .43.05) 2 = 0.3 p (1 − p ) / n = 0 Therefore.0025 = 171 43.7 → 83 UCL = c + 3 c = 116 + 3 116 = 148.

Calibration means checking the measuring instrument against a known standard. Accuracy is the degree to which the measured value agrees with the true value of the quantity of interest. temperature. laser measuring methods.7 What is precision in measurement? Answer.2 How does gaging differ from measuring? Answer. electric current. In measurement. wide operating range. A graduated measuring device has markings (called graduations) on a linear or angular scale to measure an object's feature of interest (e. The desirable features include: high resolution. what are the desirable attributes and features of a measuring instrument? Answer. Measuring determines the actual value of the characteristic.10 Give an example of a non-contact inspection technique. Review Questions 44. What are these possible actions? Answer. 44. 44.8 What is the rule of 10? Answer.9 Automated inspection can be integrated with the manufacturing process to accomplish some action. 44. 44.4 What is accuracy in measurement? Answer... mass.g. speed of response. time. It is a measurement procedure that is absent of systematic errors.1 MEASUREMENT AND INSPECTION How is measurement distinguished from inspection? Answer. a product characteristic is examined to see if it conforms to design specifications. The six quantities are: length. Besides good accuracy and precision. 44. dimension) satisfies the specification or not.g. length). In inspection. and low cost. and light radiation. Precision in measurement is the degree to which random errors are minimized. and electrical field techniques.44 44. What is meant by the term calibration? Answer.3 What are the six fundamental quantities in metrology? Answer. an unknown quantity is compared with a known standard and a value of the quantity is obtained using an accepted and consistent system of units.5 44.6 44. and (2) feedback of data to adjust the process. Non-contact inspection techniques include machine vision. Answer. Gaging determines whether the product characteristic (e. Possible actions discussed in text are: (1) parts sortation. 44. ease of calibration. high reliability. The rule of 10 means that the measuring instrument or gage must be ten times more precise than the object (part) being inspected.11 What is meant by the term graduated measuring device? Answer. 44. 290 .

(g) 291 .15 What is a binary vision system? Answer. (b) length. (d) mass. The technologies include: electrical fields (capacitance. (d) Japan. Answer.12 What are the common methods for assessing surface roughness? Answer. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers. (c) Germany. and converts from time to a linear dimension. and ultrasonic techniques (high frequency sound). the light intensity of each pixel is reduced to either of two values (black or white. or (g) United States. (b) 44. For each question. (e) temperature. and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point. 44. inductance). A CMM is an automated measuring machine consisting of a contact probe and a means to position the probe in three dimensions relative to workpart features and surfaces. The scanning laser system uses a laser beam deflected by a rotating mirror to produce a beam of light that sweeps past an object. 44. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point. 44. radiation (X-ray). 44. (d) and (e). (d) rational prefixes for units. (b) France. (c) light radiation. This time period can be measured quickly with great accuracy. the x-y-z coordinates are recorded. or (f) time. A microprocessor system measures the time interruption that is related to the size of the object in the path of the laser beam.1 In measurement and inspection for manufacturing. Answer.2 Which of the following are attributes of the “metric system” of linear measurement (more than one)? (a) based on astronomical distances. and (e) units are subdivided decimally. Answer. 44. Answer. Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 28 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct).3 Which one of the following countries does not embrace the International System of units? (a) China.14 Describe a scanning laser system. Answer. (f) Russia. (c) originated in Great Britain. since each correct answer is worth 1 point. Common methods are: (1) comparison of the specimen surface with standard test blocks having known surface roughness values. (b) defined in terms of the human body. To attain a perfect score on the quiz.44. all correct answers must be given. A photodetector on the far side of the object senses the light beam during its sweep except for the short time when it is interrupted by the object. (e) Panama.16 Name some of the non-optical non-contact sensor technologies available for inspection. In a binary vision system. which one of the following fundamental physical quantities are we most concerned with? (a) electric current.13 What is a coordinate measuring machine? Answer. 44. and (2) stylus-type electronic instruments which measure average roughness. when the probe contacts the part. 0 or 1).

(e). (g).7 44.12 44.13 292 . and (e). and (f) X-ray radiation. (c) 100% perfect quality. The second of these inspections uses which one of the following: (a) destructive testing. (c) checks maximum size. Answer. Answer.destructive testing. (a). and (e) surface roughness.9 44. (c) safety monitoring.10 44. (d). (c). Answer. Answer. (b). Answer. (b) Which of the following are likely to be GO/NO-GO gages (more than one)? (a) gage blocks. (d) hard polymers. (d) machine vision. (b) coordinate measuring systems. (c) and (d). (c) divider. (d) shaft diameter. (c) Which of the following are graduated measuring instruments (more than one)? (a) bevel protractor. (a). (b) object identification. and (e). (b) Automated 100% inspection can be integrated with the manufacturing process to accomplish which of the following (more than one): (a) better design of products. (c) part length. (h) surface plate. and (d) sortation of good parts from defects. and (i). (b) coordinate measuring machine. or (e) stainless steel. In a GO/NO-GO gage. or (d) non. and (e) snap gage. (e) micrometer. (c) master gage. or (d) visual guidance and control of a robotic manipulator. A surface plate is most typically made of which one of the following materials? (a) aluminum oxide ceramic. (b) gaging. (f) scanning laser systems. (c) laser techniques.5 44. (c) granite. or (e) checks minimum size.8 44.6 44. and (h) ultrasonic techniques. (f) sine bar. (d) plug gage. (b). (c) measuring. (d) micrometer.44. and (i) vernier caliper. (b) and (d) are mentioned in the text. (b) dial indicator. (b) checks maximum material condition. (b) hole diameter.4 The two basic types of inspection are inspection by variables and inspection by attributes. Which of the following are examples of contact inspection (more than one)? (a) calipers. Answer. (d) machine vision. (b). Which of the following are contact sensing methods used in inspection (more than one)? (a) calipers. Answer. (g) snap gages. (e) outside calipers. (a) 44. (c) dial indicators. (b). (b) feedback of data to adjust the process. Answer. (e) micrometers. (b) limit gage. (g) steel rule. and (g). (d). (b) cast iron.11 44. (a). which one of the following best describes the function of the GO gage? (a) checks limit of maximum tolerance. Answer. Answer. (d) checks minimum material condition. An outside micrometer would be appropriate in the measurement of which of the following (more than one)? (a) hole depth. Which one of the following is the most important application of vision systems? (a) inspection.

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