Orthopaedic Surgery MCQs


1) Origin of bone is from: a. Ectoderm. b. Mesoderm. c. Endoderm. d. All of the above. Acute osteomyelitis is commonly caused by: a. Staph aureus. b. S. pyogenes. c. H. influenzae. d. Salmonella. Acute osteomyelitis usually begins at: a. Epiphysis. b. Metaphysis. c. Diaphysis. d. Any of the above. What is not True of acute pyogenic osteomyelitis: a. Trauma is a predisposing factor. b. Common infecting agent is Staph. Aureus. c. Infection is usually blood borne. d. All are true. What is not True of Brodie's abscess: a. A form of chronic osteomyelitis. b. Intermittent pain and swelling. c. Common to diaphysis. d. Excision is very often required. 2)


Tuberculosis of the spine most likely originates from: a. Intervertebral disk. b. Cancellous vertebral body. c. Ligamentous structures. d. Paravertebral soft tissue. In Pott's spine, the disease starts in the: a. Intervertebral disk. b. Anterior vertebral margin. c. Posterior vertebral margin. d. Paravertebral soft tissue. Melon seed bodies in joint fluid are characteristic of: a. Rheumatoid arthritis. b. Tuberculous arthritis. c. Septic arthritis. d. None of the above. The earliest sign of TB hip in X-ray is: a. Narrow joint space. b. Irregular moth eaten femoral head. c. Periarticular osteoporosis. d. Dislocation. Healing of tuberculous arthritis can lead to: a. Calcification. b. Fibrous ankylosis. c. Boney ankylosis. d. None of the above. Osteoid osteoma originates from: a. Periosteum. b. Cortex. c. Medullary cavity. d. All of the above.












Sun ray appearance of osteosarcoma is because of: a. Periosteal reaction. b. Osteonecrosis. c. Calcification along vessels. d. None of the above. Bone metastasis in male commonly arises from cancer of: a. Lung. b. Prostate. c. Kidney. d. Thyroid. Osteoblastic bone secondaries commonly arise from cancer of: a. Breast. b. Lung. c. Prostate. d. Adrenal. Bone metastasis can be best evaluated by: a. X-ray. b. 99mTC bone scan. c. 111Indium scan. d. Calcium-alkaline phosphatase elevation. The synonym for Paget's disease is: a. Osteitis fibrosa. b. Osteitis proliferans. c. Osteitis deformans. d. None of the above. Multiple myeloma tumor cells resemble: a. Granulocytes. b. Plasma cells. c. Lymphocytes. d. Chondrocytes.


An adamantinoma historically contains: a. Squamous cell rests. b. Pallisading cells. c. Cells resembling basilar cells. d. All of the above. Osteomalacia predominantly affects the: a. Spine. b. Pelvis. c. Skull bones. d. Metatarsals. The enzyme found in osteoclasts but not in osteoblasts is: a. Alkaline phosphatase. b. Acid phosphatase. c. Elastase. d. Cytochrome oxidase. A Gigli saw is: a. An electrically driven circular bone saw. b. A pneumatically driven bone saw. c. A short straight bone saw. d. A long twisted wire bone saw. Osteoclasis can be used to: a. Correct deformity of the tibia due to rickets. b. Curette an osteoclastoma. c. Correct deformity. d. Correct a ricketery rosary. In Dupuytren's contracture which one of the following statements incorrect: a. It is a contracture of the flexor tendons to the ring and little fingers. b. It is a contracture of the palmar fascia. c. It may occur in the plantar fascia. d. There is an association with cirrhosis of the liver.













There is no possibility of death from hemorrhagic shock. Organization of clot. b. d. b. c. c. All of the above. All of the above.com . d. Pulmonary embolism. Congenital dislocation of the hip. c.mataryonline. d. No blood can be lost without obvious bruising. Blunt trauma. Wings of ilium. c. Varicose veins. Correct bone alignment. b. Accurate reduction.of tubular bone. It is possible to diagnose it by the Van Rosen/Barlow Test. Reduction impossible to the achieved or maintained. Proximal humerus in elderly. Direct impact. A-P plain x-ray view of the hip. No blood can be lost without obvious swelling. A greenstick fracture: a. Which one of these statements is True in diagnosis of congenital hip dislocation in the first few days of life: a. Measuring for shortening of the leg. Two liters of blood can be lost without obvious swelling or bruising. The Trendelenberg test is the most useful. Scapula. The single most important factor in fracture healing is: a. d. Carcinoma of the stomach. It is impossible to diagnose it. Advise operative stabilization. c. d. 29) Internal reduction is considered in presence of: a. b. Rib. Palpation of the femoral head. Is a spiral fracture. The sign of telescoping is the best way of diagnosing it. c. Twist. d. Immobilization. b. b. Do nothing and re-examine every six months as only a minority of hips develop into a persistent dislocation. b. c. d. The essential examination of the hip in order to clinch the diagnosis of chronic slipped femoral epiphysis is: a. b. Healing is expected to be delayed. Use a splint to keep the hip joint in 90° flexion and abduction. b. Spiral fracture is due to: a. Lateral x-ray view of the hip. d. d. b. c. c. Trendelenburg's sign is used in the diagnosis of: a. Pathological fracture. Does not occur in children. Use a splint to keep the hip joint in 45° flexion and adduction. Is a fracture where part of the cortex is intact and part is crumpled or cracked.24) In an adult patient with a fracture of the shaft of the femur: a. Axial compression. c. If an unstable hip is detected at birth the management policy is: a. 33) 3 www. 30) 25) 31) 26) 32) 27) 28) Immobilization is not required in fracture involving: a. Occurs chiefly in the elderly. d. e.

1-5. b. c. The joint most likely to have recurrent dislocation is: a. b. Osteoporosis is an important risk factor. None of the above. c. 39) The term delayed union is employed when the fracture fails to unite within: a. A radiological feature of the lungs applied to the diagnosis of pulmonary vein thrombosis. All are true. Reduction even if achieved is difficult to maintain. The sequestrum in X-ray appears: a. d.34) Shenton's line is a sign applicable to: a. b. 1-2 years. Light. d. 6-10. Non-union is rare.mataryonline.5 times the normal union time.6 months. Malunion is of no functional significance. 16-20. c. d. What is True of clavicle fracture: a. A physical sign applied to the diagnosis of adrenal deficiency. A radiological feature of the pelvis applied to the diagnosis of congenital dislocation of the hip. d. Occurs due to fall on outstretched hand.1 year. In Perthes' disease the hip movements restricted are: a.4 years. First bone to ossify in foetal life is: a. Any of the above. c. 2. Knee. Ankle. 1 month . Fracture head of humerus. Sternum. b. b. 11-15. b. 1. Tear of rotator cuff. b. The detection of shortening of the leg on physical examination. c. c. d. The average duration of Perthes' disease is: a. Anterior dislocation of shoulder may be complicated by: a. All of the above. c. 40) 35) 41) 36) 42) 37) 43) 38) 44) 4 www. b. Isodense as surrounding bone. d. Dense. Perthes' disease is common to age group of: a. d. Patella. c. Abduction and internal rotation. Adduction and external rotation. Common to children. 3. c. Twice the normal union time. Shoulder. d. d. b. 6 months . All of the above. Abduction and external rotation.com . Brachial plexus injury. b. c. b.5 times the normal union time. Tibia. d. Femur. What is not True about fracture surgical neck of humerus: a. Non-union is uncommon. d. c. Clavicle.

c. b. c. None of the above. Volkman's ischemia commonly occurs following: a. Cubitus valgus of elbow commonly follows fracture of: a. b. d. b. Buttonaire deformity. Shaft. Obliteration of radial pulse. At all of the above locations. b. Extension. Madelung's deformity. Scaphoid. c. The single dependable sign of early Volkmann's contracture is: a. c. Lateral condyle. b. Shoulder. Monteggia fracture. Median. Extensor pollicis longus. Elbow. Radial. c. Osteoporosis of carpals and metacarpals. Myositis ossificans commonly occurs around: a. Knee. Supracondylar fracture. d. d. b. d. d. Paralysis of flexor muscles of forearm. c. Combination of A & B d. Capitalum. Hamate. d. 46) 52) 47) 53) 48) 54) 49) 55) 56) 50) 5 www. Ulnar. b. e. Which nerve is compressed in carpal tunnel syndrome: a. Adductor pollicis longus. b. Pallor of fingers. d. Flexion.com . None of the above. Shaft. Lateral epieondyle. d. c. Medial condyle. Colles' fracture can be complicated by late rupture of: a. c. Abductor pollicis longus. Pain. Wrist. There is increased blood flow to para-articular areas. d. d. b. Surgical neck. c. b. Capitate. Cyanosis of fingers. b.mataryonline. What is True of Sudeck's atrophy of hand: a. Triquetrum. Surgical neck. The most common form of supracondylar fracture humerus in children is of which type: a. Hand is painful and swollen. Lower third of humerus. The carpal bone most commonly fractured is: a. All are true. c. b. Cervical sympathectomy may be of help. All of the above. 51) Fracture involving which part of humerus can cause delayed ulnar palsy: a. Fracture shaft humerus. Dinner fork deformity. d. Lower end.45) Radial nerve palsy may occur in fr of humerus involving: a. e. The deformity of wrist in Colles' fracture is: a. Colles' fracture. c. c. Flexor pollicis longus. Medial epicondyle.

Abduction. Posterior. 5%. External rotation. Malunion.com . b. d. c. None of the above. b. 170°. d. d. Most common complication of fracture shaft femur is: a.mataryonline. c. Flexor digitorum profundus. Ischial spine. b. 63) Which of the following is not True of intertrochanteric fracture of femur: a. Flexion of distal interphalangeal joint with fixing the proximal interphalangeal joint (PIP) tests: a. Iliac crest displacement. Recurrence of Baker's cyst should make the surgeon suspect: a. Spontaneous bleeding into joints in haemophilia occurs when factor VI level is less than: a. 150°. All of the above. Bryant's triangle helps to assess: a. Neoplastic change. b. 90°. Fracture femoral neck can be diagnosed from: a. c. Urethra. Ischial tuberosity. Knee stiffness. d. d. Vagina. All of the above. d. b. c. Trochanteric displacement. d. d. d. Anterior. Palmaris longus. b. Limb shortening with adduction and internal rotation occurs in which type of hip dislocation: a. Xiphisternum. 10%. Undiagnosed pathology within knee. c.57) The most common injury following pelvic fracture is of: a. c. Malunion. b. Limb shortening. 25%. c. Central. Fat embolism. 50%. c. Flexor digitorum superficials. 58) 64) 59) 65) 60) 66) 61) 67) 62) 6 www. Normal neck-shaft angle of femur is: a. c. Rectum. Bladder. Fracture neck of femur. Incomplete removal of the cyst. b. Nonunion. Limb shortening. b. Internal fixation is preferred. 120°. b. c. Pubic tubercle. Avascular necrosis of femoral head. c. d. Nelaton's line joins anterior superior iliac spine to: a. d. b. The communication to the joint is persisting. A + B.

a simple fracture d. open reduction and plating d. fracture of die scaphoid 73) 69) Bennett's fracture is a. spine d. a piece of soft dead tissue b. a piece of dead bone e. fracture of the neck of the femur Colles' fracture is a. fracture of tile vault of the skull b. physiotherapy alone b. requires immediate open reduction e. 6 weeks b. clavicle rings b. ankle c. a fracture of the clavicle b. reversed Colles' fracture b. fracture of the scaphoid bone in the wrist c. a figure-of-eight bandage c. a transverse fracture of the patella e. cause of mallet finger Supracondylar fracture of the humerus in a child a.68) Stenosing tenovaginitis commonly affects: a. a broad arm sling and analgesics A Pott's fracture is a type of fracture of the a. is a fracture dislocation A fracture of the midshaft of the clavicle is best treated by a.mataryonline. inserting screws or wire e. fracture of the radial styloid (chauffeur's fracture) d. is due to a fall on the point of the elbow b. fracture dislocation of the first metacarpal e. skin traction 74) 70) 75) 71) 76) 72) 77) 7 www. Opponens pollicis. 12 weeks d. a dead tooth d. a compression fracture c. 26 weeks Fractures which do not impact include a. All of the above. is usually compound c. Flexor pollicis longus. c. a piece of dead skin c. common in elderly women d. d.com . patellectomy d. insertion of a figure-of-eight tension band c. 8 weeks c. an intramedullary nail e. b. a fracture of the head of the radius e. A sequestrum is a. a retained swab Union of a simple uncomplicated transverse fracture of the tibia in an adult normally takes a. skull Treatment of a severe comminuted fracture of the patella includes a. wrist b. foot e. requires admission of the patient after reduction d. a fracture about the ankle joint c. 18 weeks e. Abductor pollicis.

followed by pseudoarthrosis e. an osteophyte e. a synovioma b. an abscess arising in the inguinal lymph nodes e.mataryonline. should be treated by immediate amputation c. sclerosis of cartilage c. follows ischemia of the forearm muscles d. tuberculous pus and angulation in tuberculosis of the spine d. is a metastasis from carcinoma of the thyroid b. spastic diplegia b. fibrillation of cartilage b. follows ulnar nerve palsy A Brodie's abscess is a. develops at the ankle in a case of chronic venous ulcer c. talipes equinus varus b. displays sun-ray spicules on x-ray Barlow's sign is related to the diagnosis of a. a chronic abscess of the bone d. ulnar nerve palsy d. a chondroma c. hematomyelia following trauma b. a fibroma e. post-traumatic bone formation in the lateral ligament of the knee e.78) Malunion of a fracture is a. fracture dislocation of cervical vertebrae Still's disease is a. congenital dislocation of the hip c. rheumatoid arthritis in the elderly d. an adenoma Ewing's tumor affecting the humerus a. fractured neck of femur 84) 80) 85) 81) 86) 82) 87) 8 www. a subperiosteal abscess due to infection of the mastoid air cells b. proliferation of bone 83) 79) Pott's paraplegia is due to a. delayed union of a fracture c. in the synovial membrane b. a fracture which unites in a position of deformity b. in the capsule e. synonymous with Reiter's disease A benign tumor forming osteoid is a. affects the palmar fascia b. a pannus The initial abnormality in rheumatoid arthritis is a.com . sclerosis of cartilage c. an abscess forming in an infected varicose vein The initial abnormality in primary osteoarthritis is a. in the synovial membrane d. fibrillation of cartilage d. a type pf breast abscess c. damage to the cord by a piece of bone when vertebrae collapse in tuberculosis of the spine c. an osteoma d. damage to die corda equina after a fall e. non-union of a fracture d. due to tuberculosis Volkmann's contracture a. has a soap-bubble appearance on x-ray e. genu varum e. looks like a cut onion on x-ray d. is due to excessive scarring of the skin of the axilla following a burn e. rheumatoid arthritis in childhood c.

osteoporosis b. hammer toes e. rotation of the spine c.5 b.mataryonline. faulty nutrition b. flat feet d. lateral curvature with rotation of the spine d. a pseudocyst in the lesser sac (omental bursa) e. olecranon bursitis b. flexion deformity of the spine e. scoliosis e. 'non-articular rheumatism' of the extensor muscles of forearm attached to lateral epicondyle of the humerus c. Charcot e. myositis ossificans of the supinator muscle d. trauma e. slipped proximal femoral epiphysis d. osteochondritis of the spine b. 2-5 c. parathyroid tumor d. a fractured head of radius e. Cushing b. congenital disease with hemivertebrae A Milwaukee brace can be used in a. an infected knee 94) 89) 95) 90) 96) 91) 92) 97) 9 www.88) The reported incidence of unstable hips per 1000 at birth is as much as a. osteosclerosis c. 25-30 e. ulnar nerve neuritis An adventitious bursa is a. sacro-iliac strain b. Addison Adrenocorticosteroids administered in excess cause a. osteomyelitis c. faulty development Idiopathic scoliosis is a a. 8-20 d. osteochondritis of the proximal femoral epiphysis e. osteomalacia The name associated with joint neuropathy is that of a. Osier c. osteosarcoma 'Tennis elbow' is the term used for a. Moon d. endochondral ossification e. a type of degeneration of adventitia of popliteal artery c. long feet with spidery toes b. derangement of the teeth c.com . an anatomical bursa overlying any joint b. 0. knock knee c. an acquired bursa generated from connective tissue d. 35-40 The word talipes refers to a. club feet Bone dysplasia is due strictly to a. osteochondritis d. fractured clavicle 93) Legg-Calve-Perthe's disease is a. tuberculosis of the hip joint c. a patient with an above knee amputation d. lateral curvature of the spine b.

Sudek's atrophy e. a synovial cyst of the wrists of those who knead bread c. Interposition of soft parts c. Swelling b. Crashing injuries compressing the epiphyseal plate without displacement Local complications of closed fractures do not include: a. Acute localized bone tenderness e. Fissures b. Joint involved in the fracture c. Intra-articular fracture involving the articular cartilage epiphysis and epiphyseal plate d. Subperiosteal cracks c. Separation of the epiphysis at the metaphyseal side of the epiphyseal plate b. an implantation dermoid cyst occurring in the palms of those who work in a bakery b.mataryonline. Wide separation of the fragments 99) 104) 100) 105) 101) 106) 102) 10 www. Proximal joint d. an atrophic index finger in a median nerve palsy c. Deformity c. Tuberosity of the fifth metatarsal The signs of fractured shaft of a bone do not include: a. Spiral and oblique fractures e. Impacted fractures The most severe growth disturbance results from which of the following types of epiphyseal injuries: a. Non-union c. Inpsction of the fragments e. Infection d. Both proximal and distal joints e.98) A trigger finger is a. Carpal scaphoid b. an inflamed index finger b. crepitus can be elicited only in: a. Loss of all movements in the limb d. Joint stiffness Non-union in closed fractures may due to any of the following except: a. Distal joint Non-union is common in fractures of the following bones except the: a. Separation of the epiphysis with a triangular fragment of the metaphysic c. Fractured bone only b. Neck of the femur c. Talus e. Malunion b. due to stenosing tenovaginitis affecting one of the flexor tendons in the palm d. an essential feature of the carpal tunnel syndrome e. Intra-articular fracture extending from the joint surface through the epiphysis and epiphyseal plate to the metaphysic e. a prepatellar bursa d. Greenstick fractures d.com . a synovial cyst of the popliteal fossa Immobilization of fractures of long bones should include a. Impaired blood supply d. Abnormal mobility in the line of the bone 103) In the following types of fractures of long bones. a synovial cyst of the ankle e. Lower third of the tibia d. Inadequate immobilization b. a component of syndactyly A Baker's cyst is a.

Tight plasters d. Hippocrates' method of closed reduction b. Causes dropping and deformity of shoulder e. Both B and C Concerning fracture of the shaft of the clavicle. the humeral head usually dislocates primarily in which of the following directions: a. Is usually treated by figure-of-eight bandage A child with midclavicular fracture and overriding of the fragments is best treated by: a. Arthrodesis of the joint Fractures of the shaft of the humerus are best treated by: a. Modified Milch's manoevre d. Laterally 112) 108) The incorrect statement about anterior dislocation of the shoulder joint is that: a. Active exercises c. Closed reduction and shoulder spica b. Superiorly c. Open reduction e. Manipulative reduction and abduction splint In shoulder dislocations. Is usually due to direct trauma b. Physiotherapy b. The anterior and posterior folds of the axilla are elevated e. Nicola's operation c. Bankart's operation d. Continuous skeletal traction c. shoulder loses its rounded contour & becomes flattened b. Is often associated with overriding of fragments d. Injury to the main vessels c. Prolonged immobilization b. Open reduction and internal fixation c. Kocher's manipulation c. Both A and B e. Septic infection e. Posteriorly e. Commonly involves the middle third c. Coaptation plaster splint with a Velpeau dressing 113) 109) 114) 110) 115) 111) 11 www. Hanging plaster cast e. The elbow is abducted from the side c. Figure-of-eight bandage d. All movements of the shoulder are limited and painful d. The hand cannot be placed on the opposite shoulder (Duga's test) Recent dislocations of shoulder joint are best treated by: a. Putti-platt1s operation Recurrent shoulder joint dislocation is best treated by: a. Putti-Platt's operation e. Closed reduction and plaster fixation e. Clostridial infection The correct ttt of traumatic myositis ossificans is by: a.107) Causes of gangrene after fracture in a limb do not include: a.com . Anteriorly d. Open reduction and internal fixation d. Inferiorly b. Passive stretching and massage d.mataryonline. Direct crushing of the tissues b. it is untrue that it: a. Supine bed rest with interscapsular sandbag support b.

Median nerve d. Pertochanteric fracture of the femur c. Fracture of greater trochanter Tears of the meniscus of the knee result from which of the following strain: a. Median cubital vein b. Intracapsular fracture of the neck of the femur b. Shortening of the upper arm d. it is untrue that it: a. Gross swellinq of the elbow region b. Osteoarthritis of wrist joint Following a stumble on stairs. Absence of crepitus e. Is usually due to a severe blow on the back of the forearm c. Combined flexion and rotation 121) In fracture of the olecranon process of the ulna. Dislocation of hip d. Consists of fracture of the upper third of the ulna and anterior dislocation of the radial head b. external rotation deformity and tender thickening of the greater trochanter. Traumatic tenosynovitis d. X-ray examination revealed: a. Can be treated by manipulative reduction in children d.116) The most vulnerable structure in supracondylar fracture of the humerus is the: a. Fracture of acetabulum e. Always requires surgical treatment in adults e. she developed severe pain & stiffness of the wrist with coldness and cyanosis of the hand. Abduction c. Is usually due to a fall on the elbow b. Always requires surgical treatment 119) Concerning extension Monoteggia's fracturedislocation. Is rarely associated with hemarthrosis d. Causalgia b. there was shortening of the limb. Radial nerve Posterior dislocation of elbow joint is characterized by the following except: a.mataryonline. Loss of all movements at the elbow joint c. Ulnar nerve e. Rotation e. Loss of the normal relationship of the olecranon with the two eoicondvles 120) 117) An elderly ♀ sustained Colles' fracture which was properly treated. Brachial artery c.com . However. Is rarely associated with complications 118) 122) 12 www. She proved to be suffering from: a. Tuberculous arthritis of wrist joint c. Can be felt as a gap between the olecranon and the shaft c. the following statements are true except that it: a. X-ray examination revealed diffuse decalcification of the bones. a 70-year-old ♂ felt severe pain in the hip and could not stand up. Sudek's atrophy e. May be complicated by anterior dislocation of the elbow joint e. O/E. Hyperextension b. Adduction d.

Is present in high concentrations in liver cells c. Is ↑ in the serum of patients with rickets and osteomalacia Localized bone sclerosis may be due to: a. All of the above 128) 124) 129) 125) 130) 126) 13 www. Calcium deposition c. an athlete felt severe pain in his Rt knee while turning to the left side with the joint flexed and taking the body weight. All of the above e.123) In a football game. Muscle fatigue from prolonged walking d. Rupture of the medial ligament d. Avulsion of medial meniscus d. Hypoparathyroidism e.com . Vitamin D b. Rupture of medial collateral ligament c. Jumping from a height c. None of the above Which of the following statements is untrue concerning the enzyme alkaline phosphatase: a. Syphilis b. Osteoporosis Intestinal absorption of calcium is dependent upon: a. Fracture of the patella A lateral blow at the level of the knee joint may cause: a. Bone tumors e. Infantile rickets b. Solitary loose body b. Is excreted in the bile d. Calcitonin d. Hemophilia d. Use of high-healed shoes e. Has a normal serum concentration of 3-13 KA units b. Rupture of the medial semillunar cartilage e. Sclerosing osteoperiostitis c. Thereafter. Hypervitaminosis A Osteoporosis is a deficiency in: a. Rupture of anterior cruciate ligament b. Osteoarthritis d. the joint became swollen and painful but recovery followed rest for 3 weeks. Is elevated in the serum of patients with healing fractures e. Soon after. All of the above A march fracture most frequently results from: a. Scurvy c. Bumper fracture of tibia e. Protein supporting tissue d. Calcium metabolism b. The most probable diagnosis is: a. Fracture of the tibial spine c. All of the above e. the patient suffered from recurrent locking with pain and a feeling of "giving way" in the joint. None of the above 127) An irregular epiphyseal line with calcifying periosteal haematc found on X-ray examination is indicative of: a. Direct trauma b.mataryonline. Parathoraone c.

Multiple gaint-cell tumors e. Deficiency of parathormone b. Repeated pregnancies c. Is due to traction of the patellar tendon on the tibial tubercle d. Normal ossification of cartilage Osteogenesis imperfecta is characterized by the following features except: a. Is a common hereditary condition b. Urinary symptoms due to renal calculi 136) 133) 137) 134) 138) 14 www. Increased renal excretion of calcium and phosphorus e. Usually occurs between ages of 10 and 16 years c. Brittle shell-like bones c. Scurvy b. Familial tendency 135) 132) Concerning Ollier's disease. Chonrosarcoma may develop in one of the enchonromata The following statements about diaphyseal aclasis are true except that it: a. Blue sclerae b. Is an avascular necrosis of the epiphysis of the tibia tubercle b. Achondroplasia Osteomalacia may be due to the following factors except: a. There is a strong hereditary predisposition b. Starvation b. Cysts containing Brwonish fluid d. Multiple fractures d. Enlarged head e. The affected bones are stunted d.com . Prolonged recumbency Achondroplasia is characterized by the following features except: a. Normal trunk length c. Infantile rickets c. Diffuse decalcification and softening of bones c.mataryonline. Is characterized by multiple exostoses d. Normal intelligence d. Idiopathic steatorrhea d. the following statements are true except that it: a. Syphilitis epiphysitis d. Osteoporosis e.131) Enlarged tender epiphyses with bowing of long bones and X-ray evidence of delayed carpal ossification suggest the diagnosis of: a. Multiple enchondromata occur in small long bones of hands and feet c. Short extremities b. May be associated with dwarfism e. Osteogenesis imperfecta e. Deformities may arise from unequal affection of metaphyses e. Spares the metaphyses of long bones Concerning Osgood-Schlatter's disease. Never affects membrane bones c. Is associated with no radiological signs e. Causes pain and swelling over the tubercle Generalized osteitis fibrosa cystica is characterized by the following features except: a. which of the following statements is incorrect: a.

Is often associated with cardiovascular complications Which of the following statements is untrue in Paget's disease: a. Early tuberculous arthritis of the hip joint b. Osteogenic sarcoma occurs in over 5% of cases Which statement is untrue in renal rickets: a. On examination he looked ill and in severe pain with high fever and swelling of the knee region extending to the thigh which was warm and very tender. Hemarthrosis c. Bone sarcoma Which of the following is most common in the small bones of the hands and feet: a. X-ray examination of the skull is diagnostic e. Is due to deficient phosphorus. Manifests itself by marked dwarfism d. Causes deformities in the skull. particularly males b. Osteochondroma b. Occurs most often in children and adolescents b. Traumatic synovitis b.com . May be associated with new-bone formation The most common tumor of the small bones of the hands and feet is: a. Is a generalized bone dystrophy of obscure etiology c. Often remains symptomless until complicated by pathological fracture d. Septic arthritis of knee e. Produces no pressure symptoms e. X-ray examination confirmed the diagnosis of: a. Affects elderly subjects. Enchondroma c. Results from renal insufficiency in infancy b. Osteoid osteoma d. The bones are greatly thickened and very vascular b. Cancellous osteoma e. spine. Enchondroma b. Coxa vara 143) 140) A 9-year-old boy presented with limping and pain in the right knee two days after a fall in the street. Appears as clear ovoid expanding cavity in the X-ray e. Cranial nerve palsies may occur c. Ends fatally from uraemia at puberty A 7-year-old child presented with intermittent limp and pain in the right hip and knee.139) The following statements about Paget's disease of bones are true except that it: a. Acute osteomyelitis of the femur d. Spontaneous fractures are rare d. Bone sarcoma Solitary bone cyst is characterized by the following features except that it: a. pelvis and lower limbs d. Osteochondroma c. Tuberculous osteitis 144) 141) 145) 142) 146) 15 www.mataryonline. Traumatic arthritis c. On examination. Causes no deformities in the limbs e. Osteoclastoma d. flexion and extension movements were free and there was no tenderness and no muscle wasting. Slipped upper femoral epiphysis e. Osteochondritis juvinelis e. The most probable diagnosis is: a. Perthes' disease d. excretion c. Usually arises in the diaphysis of a long bone c.

Is a primary malignant tumor of bone marrow b. Abrupt expansion of the bone b.com . the following statements are correct except that it: a. Malignant metastasis e. Presence of an operculum obliterating the medullary cavity d. Is a common tumor of children b. Presents as a fusiform swelling with inflammatory changes in the overlying soft tissues d. Forms a fusiform mass ensheathing the bone c. Chondrosarcoma b. Acute osteomyelitis d. Radiotherapy e. Produces diagnostic radiological signs The radiological signs of osteoclastoma include the following except: a. Often invades the epiphyseal cartilage and neighbouring joint d. pelvis. Disseminates rapidly by the blood stream Which one of the following statements is untrue concerning chondro-sarcoma: a.147) Concerning osteoclastoma. Characteristic soap-bubble appearance c. Produces characteristic radiological signs The most important DD of Ewing's tumor is: a. Occurs most often between the ages 20 and 60 yrs b. Is rarely associated with fever and anemia e. Is radioresistant Ewing's sarcoma is characterized by the following except that it: a. Most commonly affects scapula. Always arises in metaphyseal region of cartilaginous bones c. Osteogenic sarcoma c. Chemotherapy The following statements about multiple myeloma are true except that it:: a. Absence of any new-bone formation e. Consists of large giant cells in a very vascular stroma of spindle cells d. Produces characteristic new bone formation in the X-ray e. Excision with safety margin of bone c. Usually occurs between the ages of 15 and 40 years b. Always arises in the metaphysis of a long bone c. Arises from osteoblasts of the periosteum or bone cortex b. Usually presents with bone pain especially in the back d. Occurs between the ages of 40 and 60 years c. ribs & sternum d. Curettage of tumor tissue & packing cavity with bone chips b. Causes bone expansion and destruction with irregular opacities in the X-ray e.mataryonline. Is always a primary malignant tumor of bone c. Reticulum cell sarcoma 148) 152) 149) 153) 150) 154) 16 www. Amputation d. Presence of areas of bone destruction The treatment of osteoclastoma includes the following measures except: a. Presents as a painless globular swelling with welldefined edge e. May be associated with leucocytosis e. May cause paraplegia with girdle pains 151) The following statements about bone sarcoma are true except that it: a.

Periostium c. Synovial membrane d. Arises in the diaphysis of the bone d. Lung b. Occurs most often in children and adolescents b. Articular cartilage e. Deficient protein metabolism b. Slow epiphyseal closure d.com . Skull b. Tibia Sensory end organs are absent from the: a. May remain innoticed until complicated by pathological fracture 155) 159) The differential diagnosis of osteoid osteoma includes all the following except: a. Femur e. Albumin and laucin d.The most common osteolytic metastases in bones are derived from the: a. Humerus d. Articular cartilage c. Knee 160) 161) 158) 162) 163) 17 www. Is commonest in the humerus . Muscle b. Hip e. Wrist d. Alpha and beta globulins e. Brodies' abscess b. Bone end b. Bone sarcoma Ivory osteomata occur most often in the: a. Beta lipoproteins Septic arthritis of infancy usually affects which of the following joints: a. Stomach d. Joint capsule d. femur and tibia c. Metastatic thyroid nodule e. Elbow c. Spine c. Demineralization of the bones c. Assumes an avoid shape and may cause bone expansion e. Prostate 156) The most pain-sensitive structure in a joint is the: a. Ossifying fibroma c. Joint capsule The viscosity of synovial fluid is mainly due to: a. X-ray Looser 's zones The following statements about solitary bone cyst are true except that it: a.mataryonline. Skeletal deformities e. Breast c. Synovial membrane e. Ewing's tumor d. Chondroitin sulphate b. Shoulder b. Kidney e. Hyaluronidase c. Skin and subcutaneous tissues 157) Ostaomalacia is characterized by the following features except: a.

Synovial chondromatosis d. Acute osteomyelitis of the lower end of the femur b. Frequently first appears during pregnancy e. Rupture of extensor tendons c. Is often associated with vascular disorders A 60-year-old male with 3 months history of severe back-ache anemia and loss of weight. Ewing's tumor 168) Bloody or coffee-ground fluid obtained by aspiration of the knee joint is suggestive of: a. ribs. Charcot's joint Correct statements regarding the carpal tunnel syndrome include the following except that it: a. Tenosynovitis b.com . Subchondral bone c. skull and pelvic bones. Capsule e.164) The treatment of acute septic synovitis includes the following except: a. developed severe girdle pains with weakness of the lower limbs. Synovial membrane d. Massive antibiotics b. Arthrotony and drainage e. Bony ankylosis of affected joints A 20-year-old male presented because of increasing pain in his left lower thigh. Paget's disease 165) 169) 166) 170) 167) 18 www. Examination revealed low grade fever with marked tenderness over the spine. Hemophilic joint c. Carpal tunnel syndrome d. Multiple myeloma c.mataryonline. sternum. Bone metastases from an occult primary b. Ulnar deviation at the metacarpophalangeal joints e. Parosteal fibrosarcoma e. Osteitis fibrosa cystica d. Is always due to compression of the median nerve in the carpal tunnel b. X-ray examination revealed: a. Hand Schuller-Christian's disease e. Splintage in the position of function c. Septic arthritis b. Aspiration and antibiotic injection d. Articular cartilage b. May follow a wrist fracture c. The most probable diagnosis is: a. The overlying skin was warm and the seat of dilated veins but movements of the knee were free and painless. Ligaments Complications of rheumatoid arthritis in the hands include: a. X-ray examination of the skeleton revealed multiple punched out defects without any new bone formation. Bone sarcoma d. Examination revealed tender fusiform thickening of the lower end of the femur with a small effusion into the knee joint. Pigmented villonodular synovitis e. May occur in patients with rheumatoid arthritis d. Brodie's abscess c. Excision and Winnett Orr-treatment Rheumatoid arthritis primarily involves the: a.

Aspiration of cold abscess. Congenital dislocation of the hip. There is no limitation of shoulder movements. In children. It predisposes to delayed ulnar neuritis d. Tuberculous arthritis. Examination of aspirated synovial fluid. Legg-Perthes' disease. b. He should be suspected to be suffering1 from: a. c. Extra-articular arthrodesis. Septic arthritis of infancy. Fixation of the joint in the position of function. A 40-year-old male presented with a grossly swollen painless left knee. e. X-ray examination of the joint. d. e. Tuberculous arthritis. c. d. palpably swollen synovial membrane and marked grating and creaking on passive movement of the joint. It may be due to malunited supracondylar fr of the humerus or non united fr of the lateral condyle b. Wandering acetabulum. the following statements are correct except that : a. Examination revealed a flail joint with irregularly thickened bone ends. Inherited syphylis. Rheumatic arthritis. Rheumatoid arthritis. d. Examination of the nervous system. The deformity is most obvious when elbow is fully flexed c. Traumatic synovitis. Arthroscopy and synovial biopsy. b. e. Slipped upper femoral epiphysis. Blurring of the joint outline. The first diagnostic step is: a.com . d. There is congenital elevation & maldevelopment of scapula. A band of fibrocartilage or bone anchors the medial border of the scapula to the spine. e. Tuberculostatic drugs. Diminution of the joint space. b. In Sprengel's shoulder. An ugly prominence in the neck is produced by the superior angle. e. wasting of the thigh muscles and upward tilting of the pelvis. e. c. d. A 9-year-old boy developed an intermittent limp which soon became constant and associated with pain in the Rt hip & knee. c. Treatment of supracondylar osteotomy is necessary only when the deformity is severe 175) 172) 176) 173) 177) 19 www. The most probable diagnosis is : a. Examination revealed a flexion deformity of the Rt hip with limitation of flexion and extension movements.171) 12-year-old boy developed bilateral painless effusion of both knees together with blurring of vision and impairment of hearing. the treatment of tuberculosis of the hip includes the following except : a. d. Weight traction to correct deformity.mataryonline. b. c. Downward tilting of the pelvis. No ttt is required apart from excision of the supermedial angle of scapula to improve the appearance. 174) The X-ray findings in tuberculosis of the hip include the following except : a. c. Diffuse decalcification of the bones. The following statements about cubitus valgus deformity are correct except that : a. b. b. Serological tests.

Flexion deformity of the wrist. e. Limitation of hip abduction with hip and knees flexed to 90°. b. b. e. The deformity consists of flexion of the metacarprophalangeal and proximal interphalangeal joints with extension of the terminal joint. e. e.com . d. Repeated stretching and night splintage. d. Apparent shortening of the thigh with the hips and knees flexed to 90°. The joint capsules and flexor tendons are not affected. The shortened anteverted femoral neck. X-ray therapy. The most diagnostic sign of congenital hip dysplasia in the newly borne is : a. Shortened hamstrings and adductors. c. The hypoplastic femoral head. especially the grip. d. Madelung's deformity. Subcutaneous fasciotomy.178) A 25 years old male complained of limitation of wrist movements. Displacement of the femoral head from the acetabulum. Malunited Colles' fracture. Snail flattened femoral head lying outside the acetabulum. b. Local injections of fibrinolysin or hydrocortisone. b. e. d. Radical excision of the palmar fascia. Asymmetry of the buttocks. Non-united fracture of the scaphoid. The ring and little fingers are severely affected. Distortion of Shenton's line. The following statements about Dupuytren's contracture are true except that : a. Extension of the metacarprophalangeal joints with flexion of the interphalangeal joints. the pathological changes include the following except : a. Wasting of the forearm. Vokamann's phenomenon. d. c. e. Widening of the perineum. d. c. Ortalani's sign. 181) The most effective ttt of sever Dupuytren's contracture is: a. Elongated femoral neck. The skin overlying the indurated fascia is often puckered and immobile. Examination revealed radial deviation of the hand with abnormal prominence of the ulna.mataryonline. The correct diagnosis is : a. b. Persistent dislocation of the lunate. Rheumatoid arthritis of the wrist joint. e. He gave a history of a fall on the outstretched hand in children. and weakness of the hand. b. It is due to contraction of the palmar fascia which starts as an indurated nodule on the ulnar border of the hand. d. The earliest radiological sign in congenital hip dislocation in infants is : a. The most characteristic feature of Volkmann's contracture is : a. c. The small shallow acetabulum. In congenital dislocation of the hip (CDH). c. especially dorsiflexion. Thickened adherent joint capsule with an hour-glass constriction. Small shallow acetabulum. c. 182) 179) 183) 180) 184) 20 www. b. Weakness of the hand and fingers. c.

Wedged shoes. The deformity appears later after birth. Congenital dislocation of the hip. e.com . Examination revealed separation of the medial malleoli by 3 inches when standing with the knees in contact with each other and the feet directed forwards. d. b. Limitation of all movements of the hip. d. The clinical features of coxa vara include the following except : a. A 10-year-old male with neglected congenital dislocation of the hip presented because of increasing pain in the back with limping and fatigue. Colonna's arthroplasty. The correct diagnosis is : a. Limping and difficulty in kneeling. riding and separating the legs. Physiotherapy. addution and eversion of the limb. e. Coxa vara. The best line of treatment is by : a. c. b. Osteoclasis of the tibia. Calcaneus. Paralytic talipes is differentiated from. Tibial osteotomy. A 13-year-old boy presented for consultation because his knees tend to knock together and he tends to fall during running.mataryonline. c. The limb is atrophied. Raising of the greater trochanter above Nelaton's line. c. d. Repeated moulding. b. d. e. c. e. e. McEwen's osteotomy of the femur. The deformity can be corrected easily by manipulation. Corrective splints.185) Trenderburg' s sign can be elicited in all of the following except : a. e. The muscles are wasted and flabby. Antirachitic treatment. Treatment of genu valgum includes the following except: a. Raising the heel of the right shoe. Analgesics and anti-inflammatory drugs. Osteoclasis of the tibia. e. b. Shortening. 186) 190) 187) 191) 192) 188) 21 www. d. d. b. 189) A 4-year-old rachitic child developed severe genu varum. Non-united fracture of the femoral neck. c. The most common congenital deformity of the hindfoot is talipes : a. Talipes calcaneovalgus. d. Varus. Infantile paralysis of the gluteal muscles. Valgus. Lorenz's bifurcation osteotomy. c. b. c. Genu varum. b. e. The appropriate management should be : a. Positive Trendelenburg's sign. c. cyanosed and cold. Tuberculous arthritis of the hip joint. Usually both sides are affected. Coxa vara. Open reduction with deepening the acetabulum by a shelf procedure. congenital talipes by the following features except that : a. b. Bilateral flat foot. Genu valgum. Night splints. Eguinovarus. Equinus. d.

Traumatic. e. Spastic. e. Compensatory. Paralytic. Pseudarthrosis of the tibia. c. The best treatment for pes cavus causing severe local pressure on the metatarsal-heads is by : a. b. e. d. Sprain of the ankle joint. c. b. Incipient flat foot. Wedge tarsectomy. d. Denis-Browne splint. Plantar fasciotomy and elongation of the tendo Achilles. Dunn's triple arthrodesis. Talonavicular arthritis. c. c. Steindler's operation. Spasmodic flat foot. b. Paralytic. b. Which of the following is associated with neurofibromatosis ? a. Incipient flat foot. deltoid and plantar ligaments.193) An 8-year-old child with neglected congenital equinovarus is best treated by : a. b. Statis. The correct diagnosis is : a. d. Examination revealed that the foot is flat and fixed in extreme eversion by spastic contraction of the peroneal muscles and long extensors of the toes. Electric stimulation of the intrinsic muscles. 198) 195) 196) 199) 22 www. On examination. Metatarsus varus. b. d. Toe exercises.mataryonline. Repeated manipulation under anaesthesia. Spasmodic flat foot. e. b. Congenital. Talipes equinovarus. Tuberculosis of the ankle joint. c. e. d. Dunn's triple arthrodesis. Cicatricial. the arches were preserved but the skin was congested and localized tenderness could be elicited over the navicular bone and the spring. The most likely diagnosis is : a. c. The commonest variety of flat foot is the : a. Lambrinudi's operation. An adolescent male complained of severe pain in the foot and leg after prolonged standing. Genu recurvatum. d. d. Plantar fasciitis. 197) 194) A 25-year-old male suffered from painful swelling of the feet and ankles over the last 6 weeks. e. The commonest form of acquired talipes is the : a.com . Congenital hip dysplasia. c. e. Retrocalcanean bursitis. Spasmodic. Traumatic. Sprain of the ankle.

e. Have a smoothly rounded cone-shaped end. the following statements are true except that it: a. Is usually due to badly fitting shoes. Routine angiograms. May be carried out by the guillotine or flap method without closure. Immediate arterial and venous repair. Requires a cheap stump boot. e. e. Be painless with a freely movable joint above and a smooth bone end elbow. 204) 202) 205) 23 www. Should provide free drainage. b. Maintains. Overcrowding of the toes by ill-fitting shoes. Reimplantation of a traumatically amputated limb requires all of the following except: a. the pleasure of "earth feeding". d. c. Not include muscle over the bone end. b. b. b. Pes cavus. Delayed repair of nerves. e.200) Regarding hallux valgus. d. d. Shortening of bone. e. 203) 201) The ideal amputation should fulfill the following requirements except that it should: a. Is less "catastrophic" to the patient. Talipes equinus. c. Hallux valgus. b.com . Is not progressive. Causes hammer-toe deformity in the other toes. The causes of hammer-toe include the following except: a. Syme's amputation is better than a below-knee amputation except that it: a. Rupture of the extensor expansion. c. Have a linear freely movable scar not exposed to pressure. The following statements about provisional amputation for infective gangrene are true except that it: a. May be urgently needed to control infection and toxemia. Consists of outward deviation of the great toe at the metatarso-phalangeal joint. b. c. Be as long as possible. Allows the patient to walk around in his room without prosthesis. d. c. Should be done as low as possible to allow reamputation at the optimum level. Should be made through the healthy limb above the infected area. d. d. Limb preservation. c. Is not attended with serious complications. e. Predisposes to several painful complications.mataryonline.

is usually caused by a fall on the outstretched hand b.mataryonline. 4. scaphoid fractures Dislocation of the sternoclavicular joint a. 7. 2. very rarely causes any compression of the trachea or vessels in the neck e. lesion is usually due to indirect violence b. 24 www. the final stage of repair is the remodeling of the callus Non-union is often seen in a. is surgically managed by tightening the soft tissues over the inferior aspect of the joint In fractures of the surgical neck of the humerus the a. fractures of the neck of the femur c. can usually be managed without surgical intervention e. is usually in young adults c. are frequently associated with chest wall injury c. usually requires surgical repair e. distal fragment is usually adducted 6. pathological if it occurs through a bony metastasis In a healing fracture a. are usually treated by internal fixation Fractures of the neck of the scapula a.True & False 1. can be recognized by the abnormal elevation of the fragment e. displaces the clavicle upwards and medially c. is usually treated by internal fixation d.com . fracture line usually passes between the greater and lesser tuberosities c. closed if an overlying skin laceration has been sutured b. are often due to a fall on the outstretched hand b. simple when there is a single fracture line c. Fractures of the clavicle a. are often associated with dislocation of the acromioclavicular d. the hematoma is initially invaded by osteoblasts b. the tissue formed by the invading osteoblasts is termed osteoid c. are often associated with fracture of the corocoid process Recurrent dislocation of the shoulder a. is usually accompanied by fracture of the first rib 5. a fatigue fracture if it occurs through a diseased bone e. are usually the result of direct violence c. is more common after associated damage to the glenoid labrum d. proximal fragment Is usually internally rotated e. 8. Are usually of the greenstick variety in children under the age b. fragments are usually impacted d. comminuted if there has been associated damage to adjacent nerves or vessels d. fractures of the fourth metatarsal b. 3. is usually in the posterior position b. A fracture is said to be a. osteoid tissue is formed in an acid pH d. fractures of the condyle of the mandible d. are frequently associated with injury to the subclavian vessels d. calcium salts are laid down in the osteoid tissue e. Colles’ fractures e.


In a fracture of the distal 1/3 of the shaft of the humerus a. the distal fragment is usually posteriorly angulated by the action of biceps b. the radial nerve is frequently damaged c. delayed radial nerve palsy is usually due to edema d. late onset of radial nerve palsy is usually due to the involvement of the nerve with callus e. ulnar nerve palsy is usually of late onset

13. In a Colles' fracture the distal radial fragment a. is dorsally angulated on the proximal radius b. is usually torn from the intra-articular triangular disc c. is deviated to the ulnar side d. is usually impacted e. commonly damages the median nerve 14. Fractures of the radial styloid a. extend into the wrist joint b. typically have an anterior dislocation of the bony fragment c. are commonly associated with fractures of the triquetral bone d. are commonly associated with fractures of scaphoid e. are commonly associated with dislocation of the wrist joint 15. A transverse fracture of the scaphoid is a. the commonest carpal injury b. prone to infection c. usually seen in young men d. prone to avascular necrosis e. usually seen on an early scaphoid radiograph 16. In pelvic fractures a. avulsion injuries are usually treated by early mobilization b. undisplaced lesions of the ischial or pubic rami are usually treated by early mobilization c. extraperitoneal urinary extravasation may be due to damage either to the membranous urethra or to the base of the bladder d. extraperitoneal urinary extravasation may be due to damage of the base of the bladder e. which are unstable, one half of the pelvis is displaced proximally by the flank muscles f. Reduction may need 40 to 50 Ib (18 to 23 kg) of traction

10. A supracondylar fracture of the humerus a. is a fracture commonly seen in young adults b. is particularly subject to the complication of ischemic muscle contracture c. is held in the position of reduction by the tendon of brachioradialis d. when properly reduced has the index finger pointing approximately to the tip of shoulder of the same side e. is commonly accompanied by ulnar nerve palsy 11. Fractures of the head of the radius a. do not occur in isolation b. are usually associated with dislocation of the radius c. may be associated with dislocation of the elbow joint d. may require surgical excision of the head e. are usually accompanied by damage to the median nerve 12. In a Monteggia fracture dislocation a. the dislocation of the distal radio-ulnar joint brings the ulnar styloid process anterior to the capitulum b. the radial fracture is usually at the junction of the middle and distal thirds c. internal fixation is usually required in the adult d. the causative injury is often a blow on the extensor surface of the forearm with the elbow flexed e. the commonest neurological injury is to the posterior branch of the radial nerve



17. Intracapsular fractures of the upper end of the femur are usually a. after major trauma in the young b. accompanied by shortening of the leg c. accompanied by external rotation of the leg d. accompanied by adduction of the leg e. treated by internal fixation 18. Extracapsular fractures of the upper end of the femur are a. usually subtrochanteric in position b. usually subject to avascular necrosis of the head of the femur c. usually accompanied by internal rotation of the leg d. usually treated by internal fixation e. rarely comminuted 19. In fractures of the mid-shaft of the femur the a. proximal fragment is usually flexed b. proximal fragments is usually abducted c. distal fragment is usually adducted d. common femoral vessels are usually damaged e. femoral nerve is often damaged 20. In fractures of the patella a. comminution is usual when the fracture has been caused by indirect violence b. a transverse fracture without displacement is usually treated by a plaster cylinder with no direct surgical intervention c. aspiration of the Knee joint should be avoided d. a comminuted fracture is best treated by patella excision and replacement by a prosthesis e. weight bearing should be avoided for the first week

21. In fractures of the middle third of the tibia and fibula a. delayed union is common b. indirect violence usually results in a spiral or oblique fracture line c. shortening and anterior angulation of the tibia are common d. comminuted fractures are usually treated by early plating of the tibia e. the tibial nerve is frequently damaged 22. In injuries of the ankle joint a. eversion injuries are the most commonly encountered b. inversion injuries are usually accompanied by a tear of the deltoid ligament c. there is frequently associated posterior tibial nerve damage d. the posterior tibial artery is frequently damaged e. the joint is rendered unstable by rupture of the inferior tibiofibular ligament 23. In rheumatoid arthritis the a. principal lesion is an area of fibrinoid necrosis surrounded by fibroblasts b. synovial membrane characteristically undergoes marked hypertrophy c. fibrosis in the joint capsule and ligaments produces the main deforming forces in the early stages of the disease d. permanent deformity in the late stage of the disease is usually due to bone ankylosis e. radiological signs occur at a late stage in the disease



24. Rheumatoid arthritis a. is characteristically symmetrical in its involvement of the more proximal joints b. has an equivalent disease in childhood which is also associated with pericarditis c. carries a worse prognosis if serological tests (such as the Rose-Waaler and Latex tests) are positive d. is characterized by the pes anserinus deformity e. is characterized by increased activity within an inflamed join 25. In rheumatoid arthritis a. ♀ are affected 7 times more commonly than ♂ b. the onset of the disease is usually in the fourth decade c. the disease is rapidly progressive in 25 per cent of patients d. approximately 50 % of patients nave a remission in the 1st yr e. the symptoms are least apparent in the morning 26. Rheumatoid arthritis often has an associated a. Sacroileitis b. Photosensitivity c. anicteric hepatitis d. conjunctivitis e. Heberden's nodes 27. Acute osteomyelitis in childhood a. is usually the result of compound bony injuries b. is characterized by a constant bone pain c. characteristically produces necrosis of the periosteum overlying the infected bone d. is not usually demonstrable radiologically for the first 2 weeks of the disease e. may be demonstrated by scintigraphy within 2 to 3 days of onset

28. In tuberculosis of the bone a. the local reaction is characterized by extensive new bone formation b. metaphysis of long bones is the commonest site of involvement c. the infection is usually secondary to a primary focus elsewhere in the body d. extension of the bone abscess into a joint is common e. the presentation is typically severe pain over the end of a long bone 29. In osteoarthntis of the hip joint a. the articular cartilage undergoes initia1 hypertrophy and then becomes hardened and eburnated b. the joint capsule becomes stretched and lax c. the leg is usually adducted and externally rotated when the patient lies supine d. a femoral osteotomy usually helps halt the progress of the disease process e. associated changes in the ankle joint are rare 30. Osteoarthitis a. is the commonest arthropathy b. is characterized by marginal osteophyte formation c. commonly presents with back pain d. symptoms are least apparent in the morning e. commonly produces swelling of the distal interphalangeal joints 31. In Paget's disease of the bone a. the serum alkaline phosphatase is considerably raised b. spiral fractures of the femur are common c. deafness is a characteristic of later stages of the diseases d. the fibula is typically affected e. osteogenic sarcoma develops twice as commonly as unaffected people



being familial in origin e. a large skull with a short base and a snub nose b.mataryonline. short stubby fingers (the trident hand) c. reduction is sometimes hindered by a tight gluteus minimus muscle e. are bilateral in 20 per cent of patients d. extends proximally along the lateral aspect of the hand 35. is often associated with 2ry fibrosis of the interphalangeal joints e. are usually associated with dislocation of the femoral head 37.32. less common than that of the lateral meniscus c. a raised medial longitudinal arch b. often present in cases of locking of the knee d. is the most common type of scoliosis b. has an association with glomerulonephritis d. clawing of toes c. a dry vasodilated foot 39. is more common in boys d. there is a defect of the posterior rim of the acetabulum c. In a case of congenital dislocation of the hip a. multiple fractures and subsequent deformity c. is transmitted as a Mendalian dominant b. Slipped femoral epiphyses a. Dyschondroplasia is characterized by a. are displaced downwards and posteriorly in relation to the neck of the femur e. often associated with a tear of the quadriceps femoris b. being inherited as a Mendalian dominant d. is usually painless 28 www. commonly associated with local tenderness 38. typically are seen in overweight children c.com . a defect in cartilaginous ossification b. multiple endochondromas of the fingers and toes e. usually appears between the ages of 10 and 12 years c. characterized by a positive draw sign e. congenital dislocation of the hip 33. Idiopathic scoliosis a. an increased incidence of sarcomatous bone disease 34. is sometimes familia1 e. Diaphysial aclasis is characterized by a. which is long-standing. on bilateral hip abduction with the knees flexed there is often limited abduction on the diseased side d. blue sclera d. splinting of the limbs following reduction should be maintained until the femoral epiphysis returns to its normal density on radiographic examination 36. is predominantly seen in men c. occur between the ages of 5 and 10 years b. reduction of vibration sensation over the tip of the great toe e. a perforating ulcer beneath the head of the first metatarsal d. Hallux valgus is commonly associated with a. Injury to the medial meniscus of the knee joint is a. Dupuytren’s contracture of the palm a. the defect cannot be detected until the third week of life b.

are characterized radiologically by central rarefaction of the bone and cortical thinning and expansion d. osteochondromata usually occur in the epiphyses of long bones e. callus collars are formed around each fragment c. quite commonly invade the neighbouring blood vessels c. chondromata usually occur in epiphyses of long bones d. includes a V-shaped cartilagenous formation d. demonstrates a small circular band of bony sclerosis surrounding a translucent area on radiographs e. commonly presents with local pain d. the callus collars grow toward each other d. the repair includes the formation of fibrocartilagenous tissue e.com . becomes Haversian bone 29 www. In benign tumors of cartilage a. Examples of traction injuries include a. macrophages remove the hematoma d. chondromata and osteochondrornata occur equally in the two sexes b. exhibits an outer layer of chondrocytes c. commonly metastasize to lymph nodes d.40. according to the haematoma theory a. fracture of the medial malleolus of the tibia d. characteristically present as a pathological fracture e. according to the periosteal (proliferative) theory a. An osteoid osteoma a. is cemented to the original cortex e. osteogenic cells are stimulated to proliferate within hours of the fracture occurring b. of the base of the skull (spheric-occipital1 develop in the remnants of Rathke's pouch b. stellate fracture of the patella 45. chondromata frequently present with pathological fr 41. squamous metaplasia occurs e. fracture of the medial epicondyle of the humerus c. mallet finger e. In the stages of healing of a fracture of tubular bone. acanthosis occurs c. is most frequently seen in the bones of the upper limb c. are commoner in females than in males e. usually present soon after puberty 42. fracture of the medial tibial tubercle b. which develop in the metaphysic are usually less well differentiated than those occurring around the epiphysis b. usually presents in the adult b. Fracture callus characteristically a. are the commonest malignant tumor of bone 44. is a blood-filled cavity lined with a soft membrane 43. callus is distributed throughout the area occupied by the fracture hematoma 46. Chordomata a. In the stages of healing of a fracture of tubular bone. exhibits bony trabeculae cemented to the shaft b. of the sacrococcygeal region develop in the remnants of the neural canal c. the hematoma is invaded by granulation tissue b. Chondrosarcomata a. malignant changes occur in 10 % of cases of multiple osteochondromata c. osteogenic cells become osteoblasts 47.mataryonline.

clinical manipulation d. gross swelling b. those occurring in infants 56. Paget's disease (osteitis deformans) 54. patients with a head injury d. venous occlusion 30 www. Characteristic features of acute compartment syndrome in the lower leg include a. The name given to the displacement in a fracture of a long bone include a. open operation e. Twisted 50. fractures of the patella c. consolidation has occurred e. anoxia d. repair of a main artery to a limb e. acute pain on employing the stretch test e. local palpation produces little or no tenderness d. compression plating c. treating the patient specifically according to the radiographic appearance b. reduction by gravity c. if compound from without carries a poorer prognosis than a compound fracture from within 49. Comminuted b. can be present if skin death from ischemia overlies a fractured tibia d. As an alternative to plaster of Paris a tubular bone fracture can be stabilized by a. osteoclasis d. Spiral d. skin traction e. infection of the fracture hematoma c. The causes of non-union of a fracture include a. Subluxation 51. Butterfly c. the use of external fixators 53. inevitably is present if a laceration of the skin overlies a spiral fracture of the humerus c. normal pulses c. A compound fracture a. Fracture lines can be described as being a. Distraction e. Practical schemes for management of fractures include a. the swelling at the fracture site has disappeared 52. normal sensation distally d. is present if a laceration of mucous membrane connects with the fracture hematoma b. uremia e. is not a cause of septicemia e. Twist d. unprotected stress can lead to re-fracture c. Shift c. Angulation b.mataryonline. Operative stabilization of a tubular bone fr is of value for a. the bone bridging the fracture has normal radiological appearance b. Compression e.com . very slight bending movements during healing phase b. external skeletal fixators b. At the stage of clinical union of a fracture of tubular bone a.48. replacing small fragments adjacent to joints b. intra-medullary nailing 55.

significant displacement of the bone ends is common c. tardy ulnar palsy 31 www. Dupuytrens's contracture b. it is acceptable merely to rest the arm in a sling and to mobilize the shoulder when the pain has settled e.mataryonline. non-union e. butterfly fractures e. Complications of fracture of proximal humerus include a.com . Early complications of lower limb fractures include a. the coraco-clavicular ligament has also ruptured b. malunion can be partly corrected by growth c. Recognized features of fractures involving the growth plate and epiphysis in children include a. Fractures occurring in children differ from those in adults in the following respects: In children a. paralysis of the deltoid muscle b. gas gangrene c. Blisters b. the fractures unite more slowly b. With a midshaft fracture of the clavicle a. the coraco-acromial ligament is ruptured b. hypertrophic non-union c. fracture of the anatomical neck with dislocation of the shoulder is best treated by rest in a sling with active mobilization once pain has subsided 65. With fractures of the proximal humerus a.57. involvement of the epiphyseal plate is uncommon as the plate is stronger than the bone 60. malunion is uncommon e. fat embolism d. Recognized late complications of fractures include a. true healing does not occur b. blood within the joint will not clot 62. the fracture should be reduced d. muscle wasting surrounding the joint is unusual d. locking can occur e. the late sequel of osteoarthrosis can be treated by excision of the outer end of the clavicle 64. avascular necrosis of the head of the humerus d. numbness of skin over a small area of the deltoid c. fracture of the anatomical neck may be combined with anterior dislocation of the shoulder d. myositis ossificans e. a fracture line that runs through part of the growth plate lying between calcified and uncalcified cartilage 61. greenstick fractures b. reduction is best maintained by a temporary screw through the clavicle to engage in the coracoid process d. osteitis fibrosa cystica 59. ostcoarthritis e. Friedrich's ataxia 58. With injury and fracture of articular cartilage a. immobilization by splinting is the method of choice in ttt e. the defect is filled with fibrocartilage c. joint stiffness is common after immobilization d. fracture of the surgical neck is common in the elderly c. Sudeck's atrophy d. the clavicle is held in place by the clavipectoral fascia c. injury is through the anatomical neck characteristically following a fall on the outstretched hand b. fracture of surgical neck is treated by excision of the head of the humerus and replacement by a prosthesis e. non-union is possible 63. end-on crushes c. intra-articular fractures d. If a patient presents with an acromioclavicular dislocation a.

the condition is liable to recur spontaneously e. the condition is predisposed to by an unusually high lateral femoral condyle d. skeletal traction d. minor swelling b. diastasis of the inferior tibiofibular joint is caused by a vertical compression injury 32 www. active and passive movements of the elbow joint should begin as soon as possible 68. the leg is abducted c. the patella dislocates to the medial side of the knee b. excessive forward glide c. In fractures involving the ankle joint a. Swelling b. 50 % of dislocations are followed by avascular necrosis of the femoral head if there is delay in reduction 69. hemarthrosis d. the fragment of bone fortunately does not enter the elbow joint d. it is an avulsion injury b. the stability of the tibio-fibular mortice determines the outcome b. reduction is usually easy e. a Milwaukee brace 70. and possibly fracture. the fracture should be reduced under an anesthetic c. Arthrodesis c. the arm should be held by plaster abducted to 60° on a traction frame secured to the body d.66. patellectomy is the most suitable treatment 71. giving way 73. in a third-degree external rotation injury the talus is free to slide beneath. Regarding fracture of medial epicondyle of the humerus a. the posterior margin of the tibia d. the fragment of bone may be rotated c. little pain c. McMurray's sign e. dislocation of the patella e. the leg is flexed b. locking d. In fracture of the shaft of the humerus a. a butterfly fragment may be present b. The immediate management of condylar fractures of the femur includes a. a rotated fragment requires operative re-attachment to the epicondyle e. in an inversion (adduction) injury the media malieolus may be sheared from the tibia e. radial palsy is a complication e. Features in the knee recognized to be consistent with a torn medial meniscus include a. Kuntscher nailing b. the leg is externally rotated d. excessive posterior glide 72.com . if the mortice is disrupted it must be reconstructed c. pseudarthrosis is common 67. a plaster of Paris cylinder e. Features recognized to be associated with the diagnosis of ruptured anterior cruciate ligament include a. the knee becomes locked c. In dislocation of the patella a.mataryonline. In posterior dislocation of the hip a.

Codman's triangle 81. persistently unremitting pain and stiffness e. apparent shortening e. effusion c. the joint held in the position of ease which is functionally useless d. the a. hip .extended and supinated c.60° of flexion to allow sitting in a chair d.flexed. elbow if unilateral . synovial pannus d. pain on walking but not at night b. knee – straight e. Osteomalacia a. telescopic movement 80. The most suitable positions for ankylosis of a joint include a. The clinical features that are associated with osteoarthritis of the hip include a.30° of flexion to allow sitting in a chair e. Paget's disease of bone a. synovectomy d. Characteristic features of rheumatoid arthritis include a. Characteristic radiological appearances of OA include a. subluxation e. treated by open reduction 75. appearance in childhood b. synonymous with Lisfranc's dislocation c. shoulder – abducted b. is consistent with a raised serum alkaline phosphatase e. can affect any bone in the body b. can be brought about by renal tubular acidosis 79. Pathological changes in Rh arthritis of the knee include a.mataryonline. Surgery in relation to the pathology of osteoarthritis include a. hip . causes deafness d. subchondral sclerosis d.90° of extension semi-pronated b. mild fever d. widening of the joint space b. sympathectomy 33 www. is rickets in the adult skeleton b. replacement arthroplasty e. associated with ischaemia of the toes d. osteotomy b. wrist . part of neuropathic arthropathy e. arthrodesis c. produces bone that is stronger than normal bone e.slightly dorsiflexed c. muscle wasting 83. osteocsclerosis 82. knee . ankle . associated with a march fracture of the metatarsals b. affects cancellous and cortical bone 78. synovial infiltration with plasma cells b. muscle spasm c. Transmetatarsal dislocation is a. destruction of the cruciate ligaments e.com . new born formation c.74. elbow . is associated with blind loop syndrome d. is due to deficient absorption of vitamin A c. appears primarily as an osteosclerosis c. ankle – dorsiflexed 76. affects men more than women c.at a right angle 77. The position of ease which joints take up in acute suppurative arthritis includes. abducted and internally rotated d.

In a neonate with club foot a. replacement arthroplasty c. characteristically displays tissue antigen hla-b27 e. Blount's disease and bow leg c. Postural d. causes facial asymmetry e. on one side causes a lurching gait downwards towards the unsupported side 87. is associated with pulmonary fibrosis d. a Denis Browne splint can be used 90. on both sides can make the gait appear normal e. Operations favored for RhA include a. Recognized features of club foot include a. characteristically associated with breech presentation 88.com . involves infarcted muscles c. most commonly of the equino-valgus variety d. occurs with coax vara d. is a true congenital abnormality b. the foot can be dorsiflexed until the dorsum touches the chin b. insertion of Rush nails 93. is treated by division of the accessory nerve 91. is associated with aortic valve disease 86. a consequence of placenta praevia e. in-toeing and knock knee d. repeated comparable AP x-rays of the spine b. osteotomy b. rickets and knock knee b. congenital c. x-ray is necessary for diagnosis d. occurs with paralysis of hip adductors c. neuroectomy e. The types of scoliosis include the a. erosion of the os clacis b. A positive Trendelenberg sign a. the use of plaster casts d.mataryonline. gastro-esophageal 92. Club foot is a. the mother can be taught manipulation therapy if the deformity is slight e. Paralytic c. exhibits a swelling called a potato tumor d. is present when the pelvis rises on the unsupported side on walking b. scleroderma 89. There is a recognized association between a. excision arthroplasty 85. Congenital b. Recognized current procedures in the management of scoliosis include a. the use of the Milwaukee brace c. Ankylosing spondylitis a.84. osteochondritis and knock knee 34 www. synovectomy d. adduction of the bones of the forefoot c. Pulmonary e. abnormal histology of the calf muscles e. a small os calcis d. slipped femora] epiphysis and bow leg e. affects the small distal joints in the extremeties first b. is more common in women than in men c. Congenital torticollis a. known as talipes b. insertion of rods and hooks e. arthrogryphosis can be present c.

an epiphyseal plate not disposed at right angles to the line of action of the resultant force applied to it e. Multiple myelomatosis. Scheuermann's disease e. characteristically associated with tenderness of the attachment of the extensor muscles of the forearm c. a Milwaukee brace c. broomstick plasters c. previous poliomyelitis 95. no treatment b. RhA c. Sever's disease b. Traction injuries of the epiphyses include a. isolated limitation of external rotation and abduction 96. Pressure atrophy by aortic aneurysm. 35 www. Tennis elbow is a.com . Pancoast syndrome 101. associated with the presence of bone chips d. pregnancy d. Osteogenesis imperfecta. Kienbock's disease d.94. There is a recognized association between carpal tunnel syndrome and a. Osgood Schlatter's disease c. innominate osteotomy 98. Dupuytren's contracture b. compression nail plating d. Hyperparathyroidism. ostcoclasis d.mataryonline. b. Acute osteomyelitis. Congenital bone cyst. Features associated with chronic slipped epiphysis include a. d. rotator cuff injuries b. e. Factors predisposing to slipped femoral epiphysis include a. high normal loads b. compound palmar ganglion e. pain in the knee c. diet 97. rickets c. Chronic osteomyelitis. painful arc syndrome d. knock knee b. in-toeing d. treated by rest e. internal fixation with three threaded pins e. apparent shortening e. The management of Perthe's disease includes a. associated with olecranon bursitis 100. Rickets or osteomalacia. c. also known as medial epicondylitis b. The management of acute slipped epiphysis in a young adult includes a. e. Supraspinatus tendonitis is associated with a. c. Osteogenic osteosarcoma. frozen shoulder e. The commonest local cause of pathological fracture of bones is: a. 'hypogonadal' children d. The commonest general cause of bone fragility: a. Sudeck's atrophy 102. femoral osteotomy e. Freiberg's disease 99. tendon calcification c. b. d. Senile osteoporosis. 103. Denis Browne splints b.

It is done mainly by the surrounding muscles. c. Relation of the distal fragment to the proximal one. b. Cancellous osteoma. Deformity at the fracture site. d. b. e. 112. Avulsion fracture of the tibial tuberosity. 111. Multiple myelomatosis. e. c. c. e. 113. It is very valuable to be known before reduction. e. Multiple bone fractures. b. Swelling at the fracture site. Comminuted fracture. Ischemia of the limb distal to the plaster. d. 107. Osteoclastoma. b. The most important step in 1st aid measure of fracture is: a. Unstable fracture. b. Fracture radius and or fracture ulna. The most pathognomic sign of fracture is: a. 108. Stellate shape fracture of the patella. Peripheral neuritis. Distraction displacement is very common in: a. Fissure fracture of the green -stick type. Relation of the proximal fragment to the distal one. Immobilization of the part affected. d. b. b. 110. Osteogenic osteosarcoma. d. e. Intra-articular fracture. f. c. Direct severe trauma. Fracture of the shaft of the femur. Secondaries from carcinoma of the prostate. Complicated fracture. Electro-convulsi ve therapy. usually with rotation. e. Anti-gas gangrene and anti-tetanic serum. b. Ecchondroma. Tenderness at fracture site. Control of hemorrhage. c. d. Secondaries from carcinoma of the breast.mataryonline. Transverse fracture of tibia. d. Ewing sarcoma. b. Spiral fractures are common on top of: a. Allergic dermatitis. Indirect trauma. e.com . Crepitus except if the fracture is impacted. Enchondroma. b. Fracture of the patella. 106. Displacement of a fracture: a. 109. All benign tumors are liable to pathological fractures except: a. c. c. Fracture of the tibia or fibula. Fracture of the clavicle. e. d. Antibiotics. d. It may anterior or posterior or medio-lateral or rotational displacement. e. Failure of closed reduction. c. Indications of open reduction and internal fixation: a. Shortening of the affected bone. Common complications of plastering of fractures are: a. Fracture with bone loss (bullet injury). d. Ivory osteoma. Venous congestion and venous thrombosis. March fracture. e. 36 www. Relief of pain.104. Orthostatic oedema of the limb: f. d. Direct trauma. All primary and secondary bone tumors are liable to pathological fracture except: a. Delayed or malunion of fracture. c. 105. c. Skeletal traction and fixation is commonly used in: a.

115. e. 118. It is caused by trauma. Characterized by swelling. Anaemia. Presence of marked skin loss. f. 122. Excessive traction of bone fragments. Interposition by soft tissues. Over stretch or partial rupture of a ligament. b. Poor blood supply of the fracture site. b. Acute renal failure on top of crush syndrome. c. Blood transfusion or intra-venous fluids. 116. d. c. 120. Urgent x-ray. U/S is very diagnostic. b. Ligation. Intra-articular fracture.114. Pulmonary embolism. Presence of tendon injuries. d. 121. Or torn cartilage. Broad-spectrum antibiotics. d. b. Viscera liable to be injured by fracture lower ribs of the left side are: a. The commonest general complication of fracture is: a. Lung and left pleura. d. e. e. d. No spasm of the muscles surrounding the joint: d. 37 www. local tenderness of the joint affected. c. Division of the deep fascia. 119. Neurogenic shock. Important operative measures in treating compound fractures are all followings except: a. e. Increase amount of synovial fluid inside joint. Paralytic ileus. b. Usually follows indirect trauma. Marked haemoarthrosis of the joint affected is present. All are causes of delayed union of fractures: a. Intero-external fixation of compound fracture. Intero-external fixation is indicated in: a. Immediate repair of damaged nerve or tendon. e. Sprains. Sprain of a joint: a. e. c. 117. Infected fractures. D. Septic shock. Traumatic synovitis is characterized by all except: a. d. e. c. e. b. d. c.T. Presence of nerve injury. It is treated by crepe bandage and analgesics. Simple transverse fracture. Presence of marked muscle laceration. c. e. d. Excision of dead tissues and removal of foreign bodies. b. Stomach. Sedation of the patient by morphia. suturing or grafting of damaged vessels. b. Left kidney. Internal fixation is only indicated in management of compound fracture if: a. Cover open fracture by sterile dressings. Infection of bone haematoma. Improper immobilization.mataryonline. c. Anti~tetanic globulins. f. Marked limitation of joint movement is characteristic. Pre-operative measures for ttt of compound fr are: a. f. Spiral or oblique fracture of the femur. Fractures complicated by vascular injury. Presence of vascular arterial injury. Spleen.com . Sigmoid colon.V. b. c.

Middle of the clavicle. e. Severe trauma or twist of a joint. 128. arthrotomy with evacuation of the synovial fluid. 38 www. b. e. e. c. d. It is almost impacted fracture. Plate and screws. b. immobilization and firm bandage. c. c. arthroscopy with removal of loose bodies or torn cartilage. Junction of the medial third with lateral two thirds. None of the above. Internal fixation of fracture clavicle is achieved by: a. d. d. c. Lung laceration. b. Level (II) fracture shaft of humerus is characterized by the following deformity: a. d. d. Intra-articular fracture. Kirschner wire. Ladder step deformity characteristic of fracture clavicle is: a. c. 130. Dislocation of acromio-clavicular joint. Pleural injury in form of haemothorax and pneumothorax. Lateral fragment is displaced downward and foreword by weight of the upper limb while medial fragment is displaced upward and backward by spasm of the sternomastoid muscle. The commonest cause of haemoarthrosis is: a. Caused by severe trauma or twist of the joint. c. e. Imrnediate swelling of the joint affected after trauma. Proximal fragment is adducted by teres major and pectoralis major. The followings are all lines of treatment of traumatic synovitis except: a. e. Dislocation of sternoclavicular joint gives ladder step deformity. Intramedullary nail. b. Proximal fragment is abducted by the deltoid. Screws. Bone graft. 126. c. Bullet or stab injuries of joints. 127. c. Distal fragment is abducted by deltoid muscle. aseptic aspiration of the fluid if excessive in amount. Rupture of the liver. e. Hemophilia. e. Anywhere. b. e. b. 124. arthroscopic repair of the injured ligaments. b. d. 129.mataryonline. No limitation of movements of the joint affected. b. Distal fragment is adducted by teres major and pectoralis major. 125. Purpura. d. The commonest site of fracture clavicle caused by indirect trauma in form of fall on outstretched hand is: a. Oesophageal injury with mediastinitis. d.com . NMR is very diagnostic. Medial fragment is displaced downward below lateral fragment. Lateral fragment is displaced foreword while medial is displaced backward. Visceral complications complicating fracture medial third of the clavicle are: a. Haemarthrosis: a. Junction of the lateral third with medial two thirds.123. Tracheal injury. Bleeding inside the injured joint.

Complete claw hand. d.131. Above elbow plaster in extension. Characteristic dinner-fork deformity. Myositis ossificans complicating supracondylar fracture of the humerus: a. c. Transcondylar fracture. Characteristic crepitus at the lower end of the radius. c. b. The characteristic deformity of Volkmann's ischaemic contracture is: a. Marked tenderness of wrist joint. b. e. Intra-arterial injection of papaverine solution in the spastic segment. e. c. Styloid process of radius. Nervous complication of levels II and III fractures shaft of humerus are: a. Madelung's deformity. c. b. 137. Reduction of unreduced supracondylar fracture. b. Styloid process of ulna. Posterior interossoeus nerve injury. 140. e. Lower third of ulna. e. Brachialis muscle is affected in over 90% of cases. Fracture of olecranon process. d. Cubitus valgus deformity. d. Removal of tight plaster. e. Thrombendartrectomy if a thrombus is present. Above elbow plaster in flexion. 134. c. 3 degrees. Axillary nerve injury. Colles' fracture is commonly associated with fracture of: a. Drop hand and drop wrist. Below elbow plaster. Resection of the spastic segment with grafting. The most serious complication of supracondylar fracture of the humerus is: a. X-ray is very diagnostic. c. d. Non union and delayed union. It affects triceps and biceps muscles more. Flexion type dislocation of the elbow is treated by: a. d. 135. 8 degrees. e. The most diagnostic sign of Colles' fracture clinically is: a. e. c. d. Radial nerve injury with drop wrist. c. c. 7 degrees. e. Steps of ttt of Volkmann's ischaemic contracture are: a. Myositis ossificans of the brachialis muscle. Intercondylar fracture. b. 132. Flexion type supracondylar fracture. 6 degrees. Shoulder spica. Ulnar nerve injury. Median nerve injury. 133. 39 www. 138. c. e. Abnormal calcification of muscle haematoma. d. b. d. Volkmann's ischaemic contracture. Styloid process of radius is higher than styloid process of ulna or at the same level. d. b. 136. Excision is the treatment of choice. b.mataryonline. b. Cubitus varus deformity. Marked oedema on the dorsum of the hand.com . 139. e. Open reduction and internal fixation. d. Cubitus valgus deformity. Condylar fractures include all except: a. Extension type supracondylar fracture. Frykmann classified Colles' fracture to: a. Head of ulna. Head of radius. Median nerve injury. 4 degrees. b.

e. c. Hamilton ruler sign. b. b. The most serious complication of Colles' fracture is: a. Median nerve injury is more common than in Colles' fracture. Radial deviation of the hand complicating Colles' fracture b. It is caused by fall on the back of the hand with severe flexion of the wrist. Wide range of movements of the shoulder. 144. b. Lengthening of the upper limb. Lack of support by strong muscles. c. Flat shoulder. b. 143. e. d. The head of ulna becomes less prominent. Median nerve injury (carpal tunnel syndrome). d. It is due to arrest of growth of radius with overgrowth of the ulna. and vasomotor symptoms in form of swelling. It is treated by excision of head of ulna. 148.141. It is treated by tendon transfer from extensor carpiradialis brevis. 145. c. Clinically it simulates Colles' fracture. It is due to spasm of the blood supply of carpal bones. Fracture lower inch of radius with forward displacement of distal fragment. Ischemia of the hand. Treated by above elbow plaster in extension. c. Very common fracture in children. e. b. e. b. Sudeck's atrophy: a.mataryonline. Diathesis of inferior radio-ulnar joint: a. Fraying (rupture) of flexor polilicis tendon: a. The followings are characteristic signs of anterior dislocation of the shoulder joint: a. pallor or cyanosis of the fingers. d. e. Laxity of the capsule of the shoulder joint. It is due non-union of the fracture site.com . Sudek's atrophy. Commonly complicates Colles' fracture. Trauma of the shoulder is more common. It occurs 4-8 weeks after fracture. Madelung deformity. b. Pseudoarthrosis. Plain x-ray of the wrist shows characteristic spotty osteoporosis. Osteoporosis of carpal bones complicating Colles' fracture. c. d. 142. It occurs immediately after the fracture. It presents clinically with loss of extension of the thumb. d. e. It is treated by physiotherapy and vasodilators and arthrodesis of the wrist in severe cases. c. d. 147. 146. Shallowness of the glenoid cavity. d. It is very common complication of Colles' fracture in old age. Dislocation of shoulder is more common than dislocation hip due the following causes: a. There is a wide separation between the two bones. It presents clinically by painful stiffness of the wrist. e. Gallaway's sign. e. c. Braynt's sign (down displacement of the anterior fold of axilla 40 www. Complicates Colles' fracture. c. Madelung's deformity: a. Smith's fracture: a. There is loss of supination while pronation is preserved. d.

d. Above elbow plaster for 6-8 weeks. Greater tuberosity fracture (simple or fissure) is treated by: a. d. Wrapping of the upper limb to the trunk by adhesive plaster. Rupture of the supraspinatus tendon.com . The commonest complication of dislocation shoulder is: a. b. e. c. 153. e. Axillary nerve injury. b. e. Surgical neck of the humerus. Sling of the upper limb to the neck. Treated by open reduction and Ellis-T-plate. Fractures commonly associated with dislocation shoulder are: a.149. 155. e. c. Fixed medial rotation of the arm with flattening of the shoulder joint. 154. Barton's fracture: a. Colles' fracture in children is called barton's fracture. Above elbow plaster in extension for 6-8 weeks. It is a rare type of dislocation shoulder (9%). 156. b. Injury of the radial nerve. Inability to touch the tip of the normal shoulder by fingers of the dislocated upper limb. c. Palpable crepitus of associated fracture. Shortening of the upper limb on affected side. c. Immediate open reduction and internal fixation by a screw. Duga's sign. c. b. Duga's sign in dislocation shoulder: a. Open reduction and internal fixation by screws. A ruler can be put straight between tip of acromion and lateral epicondyles of the humerus. Ischemia of the upper limb. Sling of the upper limb to the neck. Greater tuberosity. Coracoid process of the scapula. Lateral view x-ray is diagnostic. c. Posterior dislocation of the shoulder: a. d. d. b. The most diagnostic clinical sign of posterior dislocation of the shoulder is: a.mataryonline. It is caused by direct trauma to front of the shoulder. e. 150. b. Flat shoulder on the affected side. Downward displacement of anterior fold of axilla. c. Treatment by below elbow plaster. b. e. d. Lesser tuberosity. b. c. Intra-articular fracture of the distal radius. Recurrence of dislocation. d. e. 151. Comminuted fracture of greater tuberosity is treated by: a. Increase of the circumference of the axilla on the affected side. Marked tenderness at the shoulder joint. e. It is treated by immobilization in shoulder spica for 3-4 weeks. d. Subacromial type is more common than subspinous type. Immobilization in shoulder spica for non-displaced severe fracture. 41 www. Below elbow plaster for 6 weeks. Fracture of the glenoid cavity. There is volar displacement of triangular fragment along with the whole carpus. 152. d. Immobilization in shoulder spica with abduction 90 degrees and flexion of the elbow 90 degrees.

c. Head of radius must be excised in children but not in adults. Fracture lesser tuberosity: a. 159. 42 www. Anterior type is less liable to complications. Minimally displaced fracture is treated by open reduction and internal fixation. Fracture lower 1/3 of radius with dislocation of ulna. b. d. Maximally displaced fracture is treated by closed reduction & above elbow plaster in flexion for 4-6 wks. 160. It must be treated by open' reduction and internal fixation by a screw. Anterior (extension) type is unstable fracture. Myositis ossificans around the radius. d. e. Cross union between radius and ulna. e. Intramedullary nailing of both radius and ulna. Open reduction and internal fixation by plate and screws. d. 158. In the anterior type the head is dislocated anteriorly with anterior angulation of the ulna. Fracture lower third of the ulna with diathesis of inferior radio-ulnar joint. 162. needs no treatment. Motegia's fracture: a. e. It may with minimal or maximal displacement. e. e. c. d. e. d. It is treated by shoulder spica for 6-8 weeks. Anterior type is commoner than posterior type (90% and 10%). In maximally displaced fracture the articular surface of the fractured segment looks medially. Non-union. 161.157. b. Fracture lower third radius and dislocation of inferior radio-ulnar joint. b. It can occur alone on top of severe contraction of subscapularis muscle. It is a stable fracture. Open reduction of the ulna and closed reduction of radius. Rare fracture of children. Closed or open reduction can be used for treatment. b. Closed reduction and above elbow plaster for 6-8 weeks. d. 163. In adults it is treated by open reduction and compression plate of radius. 164.com . Anterior (extension) type is less common (40%). Characters of Montegia's fracture: a.mataryonline. b. In children it is treated by closed reduction and immobilization in full plaster cast for 6 weeks. c. Fracture upper 1/3 of ulna with dislocation of head of ulna. Commonly associates dislocation of the shoulder. Flexion type Montegia's fracture: a. Fracture upper 1/3 of radius with dislocation of head of ulna. Fracture lateral epicondyle of the humerus: a. Complications of anterior type of Motegia's fracture include the followings: a. c. Rare type of montegia's fracture ( 10%). c. c. d. d. The best line of treatment of fractures radius and ulna at different levels is: a. e. Below elbow plaster in extension. Median nerve injury (carpal tunnel syndrome). Galeazi 's fracture: a. Ulna is angulated posteriorly. Fracture lower 1/3 of the ulna with head of radius. e. b. It is better treated by open reduction and internal fixation. c. b. Persistent dislocation of the radius. Head of the radius is displaced backward. Fracture upper 1/3 of ulna & dislocation of head of radius b. c.

d. Non-union of fractures. b. 169. c. Fracture neck of the femur. Ischemia of the forearm muscles. Minimal displacements are present. Fracture tibia and fibula. 168. Adduction type of transcervical fracture: a. It is characterized clinically by swelling in front of the wrist and limitation of movements of the wrist joint. b. c. e. Closed reduction and internal fixation by smith patreson's nail and plate.165.mataryonline. Fractures of metacarpal bones and phalanges: a. e. c. Caused by blows or fall on hands. 170. b. b. d. c. Sudek's atrophy. Carpal bones are treated by dorsal plaster slab for 3 weeks. d. Fracture of the lunate bone: a. May be transverse or oblique fractures. It is oblique fracture of the first metacarpal bone. The commonest complication of fracture both bones radius and ulna is: a. b. d. Recently it is treated by dynamic hip screw (DHS). d. while fractures of the phalanges are treated by correction of the angulation by traction and flexion. Extension of the fingers is pathognomic of lunate fr e. d. Fracture of mid-shaft of the femur. Trauma must be marked severe trauma. Bennet's fracture dislocation: a. Less liable to healing and more liable to complications. It is unstable fracture and displaced. 43 www. It can be treated by 2-3 pins in children. It lies in the carpal tunnel compressing median nerve and flexor tendons. It is a vertical type fracture (fracture angle is more than 45 degrees). 167. More common in females. c. e. Cross union with loss of supination and pronation. c. b. e. d. Hypovolemic shock is very common complication of the following fractures of the lower limb: a. Closed reduction and external fixation by hip spica. is ttt by wire finger splint incorporated in plaster cast. Excision of the head and its replacement by hip prosthesis is indicated in old age and with marked displacement. b. c. e. Intracapsular fractures are more common than extracapsular ones (80% and 20% respectively). Medial nerve injury. Recent cases are treated by closed reduction while neglected cases are treated by open reduction and or excision of the lunate bone if necessary. It is usually unstable from displacement of flexor and extensor tendons at the base of the thumb. Pott's fracture. Distal fragment is externally rotated by weight of lower limb. c. Fracture patella of the comminuted type with haemoarthrosis of knee joint. It is always impacted fracture. e. 166. 171. May lead to neurogenic shock. d. Common fracture in old age. 172. e. Fragments of fracture phalanges are angulated forward by tension of the lumbrical and interossei. b. Fracture neck of femur: a. Common in boxers. It is caused by direct trauma or fall on the radial side of the hand.com . Displaced fracture neck femur is treated by: a. Commonly caused by fall on dorsi-flexed hand.

Mc Murray osteotomy: a. b. e.com . d. it corrects the deformity of the hip . 174. e. Hypovolemic shock. Common to complicate adduction type fracture of neck femur. d. b. Used for treatment of coxa valga. 179. b. c. d. Used for treatment of talipes valgus deformily of foot.. d. b. Coxa vara. The operation of choice for coxa vara defonnity of hip. Commoner than coxa valga. It is treated by its replacement by artificial head of the Austin-Moore type. Neurogenic shock. Coxa vara deformity: a. Excision arthroplasty of the Whitman's type is indicated in severe infection of the hip joint. The commonest general complication of fracture neck femur is: a. c. Austin-Moore type is replacement of the head only. More serious than coxa valga. b.173. Common complication of intracapsular fracture neck femur. Neck-shaft angle is less than 120 degrees. b. Head appears denser in the x -ray of the hip.L. Paralytic ileus. Rejection of the hip commonly occurs on top of infection. It is treated by subtrochanteric abduction osteotomy. e. e. In Whitman's arthroplasty the head is removed and the acetabular fossa is filled with muscles. c. Operation for treatment of tahpes equino-varus. Total hip with replacement of the head and acetabulum is indicated if the acetabulum is diseased or fractured. 178. 44 www. Artificial hip prothesis: a. The commonest local complication of fracture neck femur (lntracapsular fracture): a. c. d. 177. c. It avoids osteoarthritis of the hip joint. c. c. e. Mc Murray abduction osteotomy: a. e. Avascular necrosis of head of femur: a. Spasm of the femoral artery with ischemia of the L. e. Coxa valga. It consists of subtrochanteric osteotomy with abduction of the distal end of the femur. Operation for treatment of coxa vara deformity of the hip. b. Long stay in bed leading to deep vein thrombosis and orthostatic pneumonia. A vascular necrosis of the head.mataryonline. 176. Crush syndrome. 175. It relieves pain of the hip during walking. Used for treatment of gel1u vilrum. it occurs due to cut of the blood supply of head which is mainly comes from the retinacular vessels and the nutrient artery of the femur. d. The main blood supply of the head comes of artery of ligamentum teres. d. Pulmonary embolism.

Intramedullary nail (kutchner nail). Distal fragment is adducted. 182. Closed reduction and hip fixation by hip spica. Neurogenic shock. e. Deep venous thrombosis. f. spiral or comminuted fracture. 183. b. c. d. complicated fractures or multiple fractures of femur. Mid shaft fracture of infants and children is treated by gallows's traction. Smith-Patreson's nail and plate. Treatment of fracture mid-shaft include: a. Crush syndrome. Proximal fragment is pulled forwards by quadriceps femoris muscle. Dynamic hip screw (DHS). b. f. It may transverse. Level III (supracondylar fracture shaft femur). Paralytic ileus. Open reduction and internal fixation is indicated in comminuted fractures. 184. e. Commonly complicates direct trauma in form of car accidents. e. b.com . Usually complicate with hypovolemic shock due to big size of its haematoma (may be up to one liter or more). Over-riding. c. d. Septicemic shock. Rarest type of fracture shaft of femur. Subtrochanteric fracture shaft of the femur: a. Proximal fragment is abducted.180. c. There is very high liability of injury of the popliteal vessels. c. Distal fragment is pulled upwards & backward by hamstring e. e. d. Flexed and laterally rotated by liopsoas and glutei muscles. f. 181. It needs open reduction and internal fixation by plate and screws. c. d. e. Intra-medullary nail is used for transverse fracture while spiral and comminuted fractures need plate and screw fixation. Birth fracture is treated by Crede's method. b.mataryonline. Complicated direct severe trauma like car accidents. a. g. 185. Proximal fragment is pulled forwards by quadriceps femoris muscle. pulled upwards and backwards by the adductors and the hamstring muscles. Total hip replacement of the austin-moor's type. Mid-shaft fracture in old age is treated by internal fixation. b. 45 www. It is unstable displaced fracture. angulation and rotations are common in this fracture. d. c. It is treated by internal fixation with smith-paterson nail and plate. b. Distal fragment is strongly flexed by gastrocnemius. Fracture mid-shaft femur: a. Level I fracture shaft femur (subtrochanteric) is treated by the following measures: a. Mid shaft fracture in adults is treated by skeletal traction using Kirschner-wire or Steinmann's pin. d. The commonest complication of fracture mid shaft is: a. Hypovolemic shock. Fracture from age of 5-15 years is treated by skin traction on Thomas's splint.

Medial popliteal nerve injury: a. d. Lateral popliteal nerve injury: a. Stiffness of the ankle is the commonest complication of Pott's fracture. c. 191. Injury of the medial popliteal nerve. Indication of patellactomy are: a.B c. Mal-union with angulation deformity. Traumatic knee effusion. Disease of the patella as T. c. b. f. Gas-gangrene infection.com . e. There is paralysis of anterior and lateral groups of muscles of the leg e. Fracture dislocation of ankle joint. Talipes equino-varus deformity. b. Osteoarthritis of the hip and knee joints. Loss of sensations on posterior aspect of the leg and sole. 193. Pott's fracture: a. Usually of the neurtemesis type which is irreparable. d. All fractures of the lower ends of tibia and fibula including ankle joint. Stiffness of the knee joint. c. Complicate supracondylar fracture shaft of femur. b. Deep vein thrombosis of the calf veins.186. e. Volkmann's ischaemic contracture of the muscles of the leg. Tear of the quadriceps tendon. Deformity is talipes calcaneo-valgus. Acute ischemia of the limb distally. 189. Haemoarthrosis. 192. e. Laceration of the surrounding muscles. Second and third degrees are treated by open reduction and internal fixation of the ankle.mataryonline. 46 www. A vascular necrosis of the two condyles of femur. Caused by severe abduction trauma of the foot as in gladiators. . There is paralysis of the calf muscles. Abduction type is the commonest type. In its third degree there is fracture of three malleoli with ligamentous injuries of the ankle joint. d. e. d. b. The followings are complications of fracture patella: a. d. Tumours of the patella. d. Fracture patella with haemoarthrosis of the knee joint. d. c. e. In the first degree. b. e. b. Deformity can not corrected clinically in comparison to congenital talipes equino-varus. b. c. c. The commonest local complication of fracture mid-shaft femur is: a. Injury of the lateral popliteal nerve with drop foot. The vertical type is the most serious type. Injury of the lateral popliteal nerve. In the second degree there is fracture of both malleoli. g. d. The foot is inverted (varus deformity). Abduction type of Pott's fracture: a. c. Comminuted fracture patella. e. The foot is dropped (plantar flexion). The commonest complication of supracondylar fracture femur is: a. 190. Compound fracture patella. 188. there is fracture of one malleolus. Injury of the medial and lateral popliteal nerves. 187. A vascular necrosis of the head of femur. b.

Injury of the musculo-cutaneous nerve. Posterior part of inferior surface of tibia. Diathesis of inferior tibio-fibular joint. Upward displacement of the talus.194. c. Abduction of the extended knee will decrease pain markedly. b. c. Internal immobilization can be achieved by screws or arthrodesis of the ankle joint. Fracture of lateral malleolus. d. Closed reduction and external fixation in below knee plaster is done for first degree of Pott's fracture of any type. Medial rocking of the tibia over the femur is diagnostic of ligamentous rupture with pain and swelling on the medial side. b. b. Reduction and immobilization of Pott's fracture: a. The commonest general complication of Pott's fracture is: a. b.mataryonline. Crush syndrome. Injury of tendons of the foot. e. e. External immobilization can be achieved by plaster or by traction. Fracture of medial malleolus with oblique fracture of lateral malleolus and lateral displacement of the talus. Paralytic ileus.com . e. Posterior part of the fibula. e. c. d. Posterior part of the lateral malleolus. Knee effusion is usually found. Posterior part of the medial malleolus. Pulmonary embolism. b. Oblique or spiral fracture of lateral malleolus. d. b. d. Osteoarthritis of the ankle joint. 196. b. Open reduction and internal fixation are indicated in second and third degrees of Pott's fracture. Transverse fracture of medial malleolus with fracture of lower end of fibula and diathesis of inferior tibio-fibular joint. Fracture of medial malleolus with fracture shaft of the lower end of fibula. d. Ankle prosthesis is recently used for severe degrees of Pott's fracture. Second degree of abduction type of Pott's fracture: a. Injury of the anterior tibial vessels. Fracture of lateral malleolus with tear of medial ligament. Posterior part of the talus. Transverse fracture of medial malleolus. Fracture of the medial malleolus. 201. 198. The commonest local complication of Pott's fracture is: a. c. c. c. Transverse (avulsion) type fracture of medial malleolus. Hypovolemic shock. d. e. Treated by knee cast or plaster for 2 ms in case of rupture 47 www. c. Malunion of fracture with varus or valgus deformity of the foot. 199. The third malleous of third degree Pott's fracture is: a. e. e. d. 195. Transverse fracture of medial malleolus and oblique fracture of lateral malleolus. b. 200. Caused by severe abduction of the knee. d. Third degree of vertical type of Pott's fracture: a. c. Medial ligamentous injury of the knee joint: a. e. Oblique or spiral fracture of lateral malleolus. 197. Transverse fracture of lateral malleolus and oblique fracture of medial malleolus. Comminuted fracture of tibia. Neurogenic shock. First degree of abduction type of fracture consists of the followings: a.

separation of the symphysis pubis.com . rupture of the urinary bladder. 208. e. d. deep vein thrombosis of lower limbs. Common in foot players. fracture of ischio-pubic rami. External fixation by traction especially in presence of vascular damage. vascular injuries of fracture of the pelvis: a. pulmonary shock. fracture of the superior ramus of pubic bone. d. b. b. Injuries of semilunar cartilages of the knee joint: a. injury of the appendix. injury of the uterus. c. Fractures of tibia and fibula: a. crush injury. d. 207. d. b. e. tear of the common iliac vein leading to severe hge. 205.. spasm or tear of external iliac artery. Visceral complications of fractures pelvis include: a. Medial meniscus injury is more than lateral meniscus. b. double fractures. double dislocations. c. fracture of the wing of the ilium .202. hypovolemic shock. sacro-iliac subluxation. 209.mataryonline. d. fractures of anterior superior and inferior iliac spines . c. Displacement may be very mild or severe displacement. often associated with overriding and or angulation of bones. injury of the femoral artery. b. fr of pubic ramus with separation of symphysis pubis. b. d. as tibia is subcutaneous. 203. 206. Complete injuries of the pelvic ring with marked displacement include: a. rupture of the urethra. d. e. b. anterior superior iliac spine fracture. injury of the rectum leading to peritonitis. c. c. Usually complicated by osteoarthritis of knee joint. e. e. d. b. Incomplete injuries of the pelvic ring with minimal displacement include: a. Treated by removal of the torn meniscus either operatively or arthroscopically. fracture both rami of the pubic bone. Both bones are common to be fractured. d. Common fractures. The common types of isolated fractures of the pelvis outside the pelvic ring are. injuries of capillaries leading to severe retroperitoneal haematoma and hypovolaemic shock . 210. paralytic ileus. b. c. a. Spiral and oblique fractures are usually unstable. 48 www. Internal fixation is mandatory. Weight bearing with external rotation of abducted flexed knee joint. fracture of the inferior ischio-pubic ramus. e. Upper and lower thirds of tibia are commoner to be fractured than middle third of the tibia. e. Closed reduction and plaster immobilization. e. fracture of iliac bone. Common general complications of severe fracture pelvis a. subluxation of sacro-iliac joint and fracture of the ilium. Intero-external fixation is the method of choice. e. c. Compound fracture of the tibia is best treated by: a. c. anterior iliac spine. injury of median sacral artery. c. Nothing to be done to the fractured ends. 204.

e. 218. Extension subluxation fracture: a. burst fracture. it is treated by either a plastic collar or collar of plaster. conservative ttt with bl transfusion & no surgical ttt at all b. lateral flexion trauma. it is treated by external support (collar) in absence of cord injury. there is rupture of anterior longitudinal ligament. 215. spinal cord is liable to be injured by a piece of bone. Severe retroperitoneal haematoma of the pelvis complicating fracture of tile pelvis is treated by: a. caused by extension trauma. injury . b. f. e. f. b. it is unstable fracture . Neural arches. spinal cord may be stretched or no. injury of lumbo-sacral plexus of nerves .com . e.of the plexus is severe damage. d. they end in sensory and motor effects. b. and internal fixation is needed if there is cord injury. shape of the fracture. fracture of the atlas. b. immediate nervous repair may help.. c. e. Nervous injuries of fracture of tile pelvis: a. d. 217. d. 49 www. d. b. it occurs on top vertical compression. c. e. posterior ligament is intact. Stability of fracture spine depends on: a. fracture of odontoid process. The commonest type of fracture cervical spine is: a. which is irreversible damage. e. immediate exploration of the haematoma with control of hge. c. immediate evacuation of the haematoma and fixation of bone fractures. c. it is caused by hyperflexion trauma of the neck. rupture of body of vertebra and inter vertebral disc. Burst fracture of the body of vertebra: a. c. whip-lash injury (sudden recoil of head in car accidents) 214. extension trauma. flexion trauma. It must be done after doing pelvic angiography to localize the bleeding vessels. intact anterior longitudinal ligament is the most important factor. 212. dislocation fracture or subluxation. c. rotational flexion or extension trauma. Fractures of the cervical spine can be caused by one of the following traumas: a. comminuted fractures are less stable than noncomminuted ones. 213. vertical compression trauma (falls on head). d. there is high liability of spinal cord injury. c. intactness of the posterior longitudinal ligament is the most important factor responsible for stability.211. wedge fractures are usually unstable. spine is not stable in extension. d. conservative treatment and surgery if indicated. d. if the cause of haematoma is injury of the common iliac artery it is repaired immediately by suture or grafting. f. it is treated by flexion of neck in plaster collar for 2 months. wedge fracture. e. d. 216. it is a stable fracture. c. Characters of wedge fracture of cervical spine: a. posterior ligament is intact. b. b.mataryonline. injury of the plexus is mild and needs no treatment. fracture of. e.

c. Autonomous bladder: a. c. 220. e. . b. associated with severe cord damage. 50 www. retention of urine is characteristic. 222. abdominal straining and compression of abdominal wall will induce reflex of bladder emptying. b. Stage of spinal shock in complete cord damage: a. forward displacement of one vertebra with overriding of articular surface. automatic bladder occurs after 1-3 months of cord damage. there is suppression of visceral reflexes. d. fracture dislocation. it occurs immediately after cord injury. Complete cord injury is very common in: a. b. e. d. cervical region. 225. there is spastic paralysis of muscles affected. recovery is common if the cauda lesion is neurapraxia or axontemesis. The commonest fracture of thoracolumbar spine is: a. d. Flexion subluxation: a. cord transection is very liable to occur in thoracic injuries. it lasts for 48 hours. d.com . burst fracture . c. very stable fracture. fracture transverse process. hyperflexion injuries may lead to wedge fracture or burst fracture. 221. lumbar region. subluxation of vertebra. caused by fall of heavy objects on back. no recovery if the cord is completely transected. sacral region is the most common site of cord damage. c. periodic emptying of bladder is dependent upon a local reflex in the bladder wall. d. c. fracture is unstable if the posterior cord is intact. b. it follows transection of cord at the cauda level. wedge fracture. thoraco-iumbar region. e. it follows transection of sacral segments of cord or cauda equina. c. e.mataryonline. b. internal fixation is mandatory in presence of cord damage. thoracic region. it is reduced by skull traction under x-ray control. there is complete sensory loss. b. cord is not liable to be injured.219. b. 226.. 223. e. 224. it is treated by reduction in extension and fixation of spine in a plaster collar for 2 months. fracture is unstable. d. with compression of vertebra or fracture of neural arch. e. cauda equine injury is more common with lumbar injuries. f. c. foreword displacement of one vertebra. d. Fracture dislocation of cervical spine: a. caused by flexion rotational trauma. b. d. c. Fracture of thoracolumbar spine: a. Automatic or cord bladder: a. e. It starts with retention with overflow. neurtemesis of the cauda lesion is irreversible. it complicated transection of the spinal cord above the sacral segment. e.

com . 234. no place for medical treatment. presence of sequestrum. it may complicate compound fracture of bone. Plain x-ray of acute osteomyelitis is negative: a. e. first 50 days in adults after which it turns chronic. subcutaneous abstess. upper end of tibia. first 30 days in children. c. e. 232. thoracic spine injuries are treated by operative correction and internal fixation by plate or by nursing care. common below age of 10 years. involucrum and multiple cloaca. Treatment of fracture spine: a. 233.mataryonline. The most diagnostic radiological sign of acute osteomyelitis is: a. e. more common in boys. severe throbbing pain of the bone affected. the very rapid circulation in the metaphysis. common to affect patients with low resistance. b. care of the paraplegic patient. 230. c. d. irregular cystic tender swelling is diagnostic. d. Acute haematogenous osteomyelitis: a. e. the site of muscular attachment (liable to trauma). lower end of femur.227. 229. d. upper end of humerus. b. most vascular area of the bone. 51 www. c. f. b. it must be treated surgically. d. sequestrum. e. Stages of osteomyelitis are: a. b. 231. c. lower end of radius. Clinical presentations of acute osteomyelitls: a. b. e. first 21 days in adults. lower end of tibia. special arrangement of blood vessels in the metaphysis. thoraco-lumbar region injuries are treated by immediate operation. Metaphysis is the commonest site of acute osteomyelitis because: a. intraosseous abscess stage on top of infected haematoma. soft tissue shadow of the abscess cavity. marked rise of temperature up to septicaemic shock. first 2 days in children. e. Bones commonly affected by acute osteomyelitis are: a. care of the bladder and rehabilitation. c. 228. marked osteoporosis of the bone affected. b. the weakest area of the bone. d. d. d. b. presence of multiple cloaca and involucrum. d. marked tenderness of the bone affected especially at site of abscess. subperiosteal abscess. c. e. first 10 days in children. sympathetic effusion of near by joint is present. b. cervical spine injuries are treated by traction through skull calipers if there is no displacement and open reduction and internal fixation if there is bony displacement. non of the above. c. c. shadow of subperiosteal abscess.

sequestrum. Winnet. blood transfusion and fluid therapy. e. 238. it appears more dense than normal bone. presents clinically by persistent sinus discharging pus or pieces of bones. 52 www. e. inadequate treatment of acute osteomyelitis. b. Sequestrum of chronic osteomyelitis: a. c. deformity of the bone affected. moderate virulence of the organisms. subcutaneous abscess with sinus discharging pus. radius and upper end of humerus. d. The commonest cause of chronic osteomyelitis following acute osteomyelitis is: a. pathological fracture. c. malignant transformation. septicemia or pyaemia. amputation to avoid septicemia. d. sequestrectomy. sinuses. d. presence of foreign bodies (sequestrum). giving antibiotics in presence of pus. e. medical treatment in form of antibiotics and blood transfusion. affects children and young adults. and filling of the bone cavity with antibiotic pills. b. d. e. f. pathological fracture. b.235. and saucerization of bone cavity. Chronic osteomyelitis: a. Treatment of acute osteomyelitis include the followings measures except: a. tibia. c. pathological fracture. analgesics and antipyretics. 240.com . d. The most diagnostic radiological findings of chronic osteomyelitis are: a. presence of bone cavity filled with air. Complications of chronic haematogenous osteomyelitis are the followings: a. b. more common in boys. presence of multiple cloacae. e. Treatment of chronic osteomyelitis: a. 241. broad spectrum antibiotics. common sites of affection are lower ends of femur. sequestrectomy. involucrum. septicemia and pyaemia. pathological fracture is a common complication. chronicity with sequestrum and cloaca formation. d. Complications of acute osteomyelitis are: a. 242. c. c. 237. amylodosis. 239. e. staphylococci albus and citrus and streptococci viridans and faecalis are common organisms. septic arthritis. d. presence of sinuses. saucerization. c. b. b. deformity of bone affected. f. amyloidosis. Dead part of infected bone due cut of blood supply. it appears less dense than normal bone. f. bone drilling of intraosseous abscess. it may affect mandible and vertebrae. c.mataryonline. e. c. b. d. new bone formation due irritation of periosteum of inflamed bone.Orr technique is the best line of treatment. 236. b. surgical treatment in form of sequestrectomy. e.

pathological fracture. chronic septic osteomyelitis. deroofing of the abscess cavity. d. f. organisms may be typhoid bacilli or spirochetes of other nonspecific organisms. d. acute exacerbation. e. Radiological findings characteristic of Brodie's abscess are: a. multiple deformities of the infected bones. multiple areas of dead bone inside cavity of osteomyelitis. Brodie's abscess of a long bone. Inverted bottle of champagne is characteristic of: a. 245. e. stiffness of the near by joint. b. chronic specific or non-specific localized type of osteomyelitis. c. marked deformity of the bone affected. c. septicemia and pyaemia. Ewing sarcoma of the long bones. b. it is common to affect young adult males. The most serious complication of Winnet-Orr techique in management of chronic osteomyelitis is: a. osteosarcoma of the bone. syphilitic periostitis. 250. 246. 249. b. multiple sinuses filled with air. broad-spectrum antibiotics and I. deformity. amyloidosis. 53 www. d. Pathology of Brodie's abscess is formed of: a. Treatment of Brodie's abscess include: a. amputation of the bone affected for fear of malignancy. closure of the abscess cavity by muscle flap. c. b. c. c. very common to complicate by pathological fracture of the bone. peroneal muscle atrophy. sinuses discharging pus or pieces of bone. c. 248. small or no sequestrum. c. f. f. 244. 247. multiple irregular areas of new bone formation.243. involucrum. large sequestrum filling cavity of bone. deep vein thrombosis due to long stay in bed. e. b. no involucrum. dense sclerosis around the abscess cavity. commonest site is the upper end of the tibia. d.mataryonline. b. winnet-orr technique. multiple bone cavities filled with air. e. d. anaerobic wound infection in form of gas gangrene and tetanus. Brodie's abscess: a. well-formed abscess cavity (translucent area). d. d. d. it simulates bone cyst. b. bone sclerosis. e. well-formed abscess cavity. b. saucerization of the abscess cavity with removal of sequestrum if present. The commonest complication of chronic osteomyelitis is: a. bad healing of bone fracture by this technique. pathological fracture. f.com . Cloacae of chronic osteomyelitis are: a. c.V. e. e. soft tissue shadow of subperiosteal abscess. fluids. malignant transformation. f. e.

e.251. 256. b. b. periosteal (peripheral) type with wedging of the vertebrae and formation of cold abscess. e. vertebrae. Pathology of Pott's disease of the spine: a. b. c. c. short long bones (phalanges of hands and feet). skull. d. constant dull aching pain which increases by movements. b. c. e. Clinical presentation of Pott's disease of spine: a. c. 259. e. lumbo-sacral (L5-S1). high-thoracic (T6-T7). b. f. deformity of the spine. Clinical signs characteristic of Pott's disease: a. sacrum. d. c. sternum. cold abscess formation. d. destruction of the vertebra and intervertebral disc occur of children. c. ribs and pelvic bones. 254. 253. ribs. f.mataryonline. e. more common to affect males. presence of deformity in form of kyphosis or kyphoscoliosis. Sites of cold abscesses complicating cervico-dorsal Pott's disease are: a. cord compression with paraplegia. 257. always secondary (never primary). it is T. d. suboccipital triangle. tenderness at site of affected vertebra. 255. cervico-dorsal region (C7-T1). very common below age of 10 yrs and may affect young adults. affects low resistant patients especially diabetics. vertebrae. Tuberculosis of bones: a. sequestrum is characteristically ring sequestrum. Chronic septic osteomyelitis: a. paravertebral. affects children and young adults. complicates compound fractures. e. c. 252.B bacilli are more common than bovine ones. e. axilla. Tuberculous osteitis commonly affects: a. it may complicate orthopedic operation. b. c. 258. e. short -long bones as phalanges of hands and feet. e. marked limitation of spinal movements. rigidity of the near by muscles. d. The commonest site of Pott's disease: a. b. d. common organisms are streptococci viridans or staph albus or citrus. f. Tuberculous periosteitis commonly found in: a. cold abscess formation.B osteitis (osseous tissue of the vertebra). posterior triangle of the neck. f. d. humerus and tibia. there are no cloacae. sternum. long bones like femur. c. cervico-dorsal site is the commonest site of affection. human T. d. mediastinum. 54 www. skull. pain may be completely absent until complications occur. infection of bone is almost blood borne infection. b. b. d. retropharyngeal abscess. involucrum is in the form of periosteal spur. dorso-lumbar (T12-L1).com .

c. thickened congested synovial membrane. it is mainly motor. e. severe kyphosis of vertebral column. b.com . spinal cord decompression by costo-transversectomy. anterior approach of vertebral column with removal of diseased bones. 261. 262. compression of the cord by cold abscess or by sequestra. 264. d. drainage of the abscess cavity. e. anti-tuberculous treatment without surgical drainage. shadow of the parevertebral abscess. d. e. compression of blood vessels.260. Cold abscess is treated by: a. pus may burst through the capsule leading to superficial abscess. e. occurs in 10% of cases of Pott's disease. psoas abscess. d. ischio-rectal abscess. it is reversible if treated early. Pott's paraplegia: a. d. extension from osteomyelitis (intracapsular metaphysis).b. c. b. immobilization of the vertebrae by plate and screws. it may be blood borne infection (in infants only). f. e. angular deformity of spine. The most recent effective treatment of Pott's disease of the spine consists of the following steps: a. c. b. pelvic abscess. b. less sensory affection. osteoporosis of affected vertebra. d. The commonest cause of Pott's paraplegia is: a. Radiological signs characteristic of Pott's disease of the spine are: a. b. affects any age and any sex. paravertebral.mataryonline. c. narrowing of intervertebral disc spaces. it ends by fibrous or bony ankylosis. bridging of the bone cavity by bone grafts. popliteal abscess. immobilization of the vertebral column by plaster. e. Acute suppurative arthritis: a. 55 www. 267. follow up of the patient for fear of complications. e. aspiration of the abscess cavity. wedging of the vertebra affected. c. sites of cold abscesses complicating lumbosacral tuberculosis are: a. complicates penetrating injuries. articular cartilages are destroyed in neglected cases. joint cavity is full of serous or sero-purulent fluid. 265. d. d. may complicate gonorrhea in adults. 263. deformity in form kyphosis or scoliosis. c. marked sphincteric troubles of bladder and bowel functions. d. edema of the spinal cord. thrombosis of the cord vessels. antitubercolous treatment and immobilization of cervical spine by plaster of Minerva. b. Pathology of septic arthritis consists of: a. e. c. 266. c. b.

sclerosed haemangioma of the skin. human T. bony ankylosis of the joint affected. boys are more affected than girls. sinus formation. destruction of epiphyseal cartilage occurs first then erosion of the underlying bones. ultrasound guided aspiration. cold abscess formation. no spasm or wasting of the surrounding muscles. d. b. and distended with fluid. c. there is restriction of all movements of the joint. 275. large lipoma in white patient. acute haematogenous osteomyelitis. c. chronic osteomyelitis. sinus discharging caseous material opposite the joint affected. c. b. b. Clinical presentation of tuberculous arthritis: a. headache. b. affects children. c. c.mataryonline. e. Complications of tuberculous arthritis are: a. arthrotomy and drainage of pus. hip and kneeare the common joints to be affected. Pathological types and changes of tuberculous arthritis: a. d. joint is swollen warm. swelling of the joint affected. e. 269. f. Clinical picture of septic arthritis: a. synovial type affects synovial membrane first (commonest type). f. arthroscopic drainage of joint with irrigation with antibiotic solution. c. dislocation is very common. always secondary. tuberculous arthritis. e. tuberculous lymphadenitis. dislocation of joint never occurs. loss of weight and night fever and night sweating. x-ray of joint affected may show diffuse rarefaction and loss of cartilage space in late cases of arthritis. b. synovial membrane is markedly thickened and transformed to tuberculous granulation tissue. f. The best line of treatment of septic arthritis is: a. d. big sized lymphangioma. b. osseous type affects epiphysis or metaphysis and then spread to joint (less common type). dull aching pain on exercise or at rest. tumour of white collagen fibers which is whitish on cut surface. 274. e. e. e. septic arthritis. e. sharp pain occurs at night. d. fever. anorexia. d. Night stars or night cries are characteristic of: a. malignant transformation. d.com . 272. 273. 56 www. c. e. Brodie's abscess. severe pain in the joint affected. tender.B Bacilli are more common than bovine ones. Tuberculous arthritis: a. rest and antibiotics with splintage of the joint. pallor of skin of the joint with tuberculous arthritis due to empty capillaries and thickening of the synovial membrane of joint affected. and malaise are severe with loss of function of the joint affected. Tumour album: a. c.268. 271. b. amelanotic melanoma. 270. b. d. aspiration and immediate physiotherapy treatment to avoid stiffness of the joint affected. d.

Very common in adult age. c. Commonest type is the synovial type. marked atrophy of the surrounding muscles. b. 283. Young adults. Neck-shaft angle of the femur.B arthritis of the hip is diagnostic of: a. c.B arthritis are: a.276. Tip of the greater trochanter. Above age of 50 years. Fibro-caseous type. thickened synovial membrane and easy palpation of bone ends. There is limitation of extension of the knee while flexion is normal. There is thickening of the synovial membrane with effusion of the knee joint (T. Upper part of the acetabulum. Broken or interrupted Shenton's line in T. Rarely in the pelvis. c. 277. Babock's triangle: a. 278. The commonest type of T. b. d. Widening of the acetabulum. d. 282. c. The commonest age of T. Upper shelf of the acetabulum cavity. Granulomatous type. e. Tip of the lesser trochanter. Local signs characteistics of T. inspection revealed deformity. 57 www. Destruction of the neck of the femur. e. new bone formation. Fibrous type. Neonates. d. Greater trochanter of femur. e. e. It is characterized by triple subluxation. Osseous type. e. swelling. there is limitation of all types of movements.com . b. palpation revealed warmth. Lower part of the neck of femur close to epiphysis. Laterally in iliopubic tract. d. d. c. 281. c. d. e.B arthritis of the hip is: a. 280. Below age of 2-5 years. Lower part of neck of the femur close to epiphysis. Tuberculosis of the knee joint: a. Superior pubic ramus. Radiological findings characteristic of T. b. 279. narrowing of the joint space. 284. rarefaction of bones adjacent to joint affected. The common sites of bone rarefaction of tuberculous arthritis of the hip joint: a. c. c. b. b.mataryonline. d. soft tissue shadow of cold abscess. d. pathological dislocation. e. Between ages of 30-40 years. wasting of muscles and sinus formation. shortening of the limb is a true shortening. Sites of formation of cold abscess in T.B of hip joint are: a. e.B of the hip joint is: a.Bhydrops). Posteriorly in the region of greater trochanter. Bony ankylosis. d. Lesser trochanter. Downward in the popliteal fossa. b. b. Narrowing of the joint space. Dislocation of the head of the femur. Synovial type. Anteriorly in scarpa's triangle. e. tenderness. b. c.B arthritis: a.

Traumatic anterior dislocation. d. Antituberculous treatment with polyvitamins. Sciatic nerve injury. d.B arthritis of the knee include: a. c. Osteoarthritis of the hip joint. Head of the femur can be felt by pr examination. c. 291. Best line of ttt is open reduction and internal fixation. Caused by severe direct trauma on the greater trochanter. b. e. b. Osteoarthritis of the hip joint which may need arthroplasty. c. b. The commonest type of dislocation of the hip joint is: a. e. Posterior dislocation of the hip joint: a. e. 290. The common complications of posterior dislocation of the hip joint are: a. The common complications of centeral dislocation of the hip of the joint are: a. Its deformity is flexion. Pathological dislocation on top of tuberculous arthritis. e. c. d. d. we continue immobilization for 3-6 months again. It may be iliac or sciatic subtypes of posterior dislocation. c. Head is displaced inside the pelvis. c. 287. Characteristic of rheumatoid arthritis. Arthrodesis by Charnley's intra-articular compression is done at age of 16 years. Very rare type of dislocation of the hip. d. e. c. All general complications like shock crush injury. e. Injury of femoral vessels. It is broken if fracture neck of the femur. Central dislocation. If x-ray is normal after 3 ms we start active movements. d.285. paralytic ileus and complications of long stay in bed. Fracture of the acetabulum. b. b. Paralytic ileus. Broken shenton's line is diagnostic of dislocation. b. Visceral complications in form of rupture of the rectum or the urinary bladder. Fracture of the acetabulum. b.com . It is characteristically broken if subtrochanteric fracture of shaft of femur. 289. Only dislocation of body with lengthening of the limb. d.mataryonline. Characteristic deformity is flexion. Centeral dislocation of the hip joint: a. Artificial knee prosthesis may be used recently. There is supra-trochanteric shortening clinically. 288. 286. Rest in bed with immobilization of the knee in a splint for 3-6 months. Injury of the sacral plexus and or obturator nerves. abduction and lateral rotation. f. 58 www. It is diagnostic of dislocation of the hip joint. 292. If x-ray shows bone destruction. f. Fracture of the neck of the femur. f. Anterior dislocation of the hip joint: a. f. Shenton's line: a. Smooth curve made by neck shaft angle of the femur and inferior surface of superior pubic ramus. Traumatic posterior dislocation. Treatment of T. Congenital dislocation. Rare type of dislocation of the hip joint. e. e. c. b. Commonly associated with fracture of posterior rim of acetabulum. adduction and internal rotation. Complicates dashboard accident. Avascular necrosis of the head of femur. It is caused by forcible abduction and lateral rotation of the hip. d. It is of two types (obturator and pubic types).

Chondrosarcoma. d. c. 296. b. e. Sternum and ribs. Other data of syphilis are present as keratitis. Hypernephroma of the kidney. c. Removal as a trephine disc by giggly saw. Inner table of the skull (frontal and parietal regions). d. d. e. 298. c. Mandible. c. e. Carcinoma of the thyroid. Skull is the commonest bone to be affected.293. b.com . f. d. Treatment of ivory osteoma of the skull: a. orchitis and labrynthitis. 59 www. Ivory osteoma. Metaphysis of long bones. d. d. It causes pathological fracture of the bone from which it arises. f. Fibrosarcoma. Multiple myelomatosis. d. Giant cell tumour. Diaphysis of long bones. Hereditary type of syphilis. b. The commonest malignant tumour of bones is: a. c. Carcinoma of the prostate. Presents clinically by bilateral painless effusion of a large joint. 297. Origin of cancellous osteoma: a. Enchondroma. 295. Bronchogenic carcinoma.. Lower end of the radius. e. b. Hamartoma of compact bones. It produces conductive deafness if affecting the external auditory meatus. f. Recently it can be treated by laser therapy. Syphilitic arthritis (clluton's joinf): a. e. Lower end of tibia. Ewing sarcoma. b. e. Maxillary bone. Cancellous tumour. Upper end of the tibia. Endosteium of long bone. 301. e. Vertebrae. The commonest benign tumour of bones is: a. 299.mataryonline. Chizeling. Common in children and young adults. b. It appears at the puberty age. Lymphomas of bones. Ecchondroma. Carcinoma of the breast. Lower end of the femur. b. Outer tables of the skull (frontal region). d. d. Irradiation of the tumour. Periosteum of the bone. Treatment is mainly medical treatment 294. Upper end of the humerus. Osteosarcoma. Osteosclerotic secondaries come from the following tumours: a. 300. c. e. Epiphyseal cartilage plate of long bone. b. The commonest site of cancellous osteoma: a. c. Sites of ivory osteoma are: a. Ivory osteoma of bones: a. b. c. No treatment especially of the inner table. e. c. Choriocarcinoma.

Sessile or pedunculated out growth of the bone which is mottled. Soap bubble appearance of the bone affected. b. Painless expansion of bone. Affects short-long bones like phalanges and carpal bones. Common in young aged boys or girls. 310.302. It is called dyschondroplsia. Pressure of near by nerve leading to sensory or motor effects. It is a pre-malignant condition. Pressure of near by artery leading to ischaemia. Pathological fracture of the tumour. e. b. c. e. X-ray shows a filling defect inside a bone. Tumour of the epiphysis of the bone with pathological fracture. Common to affect young aged females. 306. c. Multiple enchondromas of flat bones like pelvic bone or ribs. f. Pedunclated tumour of the bone which is homogeneously opaque. c. 60 www. e. d. Huge sized bone mass. c. Ecchondroma: a.mataryonline. Treated by amputation of the bone affected for fear of malignancy. b. e. Its attachment to the bone is by a narrow pedicle.B cavity . Rare type of cancellous osteomata. Osteoarthritis of the near by joint. The commonest complication of cancellous osteoma is: a. May be single or multiple. Ollier's disease: a. d. Multiple cancellous osteomata of a long bone. Multiple enchondroma of long bones like femur or tibia. Excision after age of puberty only. e. 309.com . bone cyst and or Broidie's abscess. d. Multiple ecchondromata of long bones. It may simulate T. It affects hands and feet (phalanges and caipal bones). b. d. Amputation if complicated by malignant transformation. b. Malignant transformation is very common. Clinical presentations of enchondromata: a. Very common to occur around the knee joint. It has an expanded head. c. e. Enchondroma: a. 307. e. e. c. Rare to affect long bones like femur or humerus. Pathology of cancellous osteoma: a. 308. b. 304. It may attain a very huge size especially pelvic tumors d. Eggshell crackling sensation can be elicited in bone affected. Adventitious bursitis. Excision of painful or complicated osteoma if the condition is multiple. c. c. It grows outward from bone like a mushroom. Pathological fracture due to thinning out of the cortex. b. Diaphyseal aclasis: a. Hyaline cap must be excised to avoid recurrence. 305. d. It may affect long bones like femur or humerus. Excision by chizeling. Rare benign tumour of bones. Usually single and rare to multiple. 303. d. It never turns malignant. b. b. c. d. d. e. The most diagnostic radiological picture of ecchondroma is: a. Its head is covered by a hyaline cartilage. May be associated with haemangioma (maffuci's syndrome). Precautions in treatment of cancellous osteomata: a.

c. 61 www. Epiphysis of long bones. b. b. Treatment of enchondroma: a. 317. Expansion of one end of a bone with thinning out of the cortex. b. Excision and bone grafting of bone cavity by bone ships. 315. Soft tissue of tumour shadow outside the bone. 316. Chondrocytes. Which in colour. e. 318.com . Irradiation of the tumour which is very radiosensitive. c. d. Osteoclastoma: a. Never to be eccentric. d. Excision or curettage of the tumour. e. There is destruction of bone lamellae. Microscopically there is a mixture of spindle cells and osteoclasts. e. Huge soft tissue shadow is characteristic. Greysish -white in colour. Dark brown (maroon) due to haemorrhage and necrosis. d. d. c. Reddish in colour. Non of the above. e. fibula. Benign tumour with tendency of recurrence after surgical excision. Metaphysis of the bone. e. Excision of bone tumour with bone graft application (mandible).311. Osteoblast. b. Radiological signs of osteoclastoma: a. c. e. Curettage of tumour and bone chips application (femur or tibia). c. Soap-bubble appearance. Diaphysis of long bone. b. No treatment if it presented clinically with pathological fracture. Bone site specific for osteosarcoma is: a. Common to affect males between ages of 15-40 years. or lower end of radius). c. d. 313. Medullary plug. d. Amputation of the bone affected for fear of malignancy. Irradiation is the treatment of choice for osteoclastoma of the lower end of femur and upper end of tibia.mataryonline. Mandible and vertebrae are very common sites. Benign tumour with tendency of malignant transformation. Epiphyseal cartilage. b. Expansion of one end of a bone. Excision of bone affected (rib. 314. There is a medullary plug. Osteocytes. d. The cut surface of osteoclastoma is characteristically: a. Cell of origin of osteosarcoma of the bone: a. It arises from metaphysis of long bones. Pathology of osteoclastoma: a. Osteoclasts. Fibroblasts. Treatment of osteoclastoma: a. Golden yellow in colour due high contents of fat. Amputation is indicated for tumour destroying nearby joint. e. d. 312. b. b. c. e. c.

com . Skull. d. The followings are radiological signs of osteosarcoma: a. Upper end of humerus. d. Local spread to the near by joint. d. Lower end of femur. e. 62 www. f. 322. Neonatal age. d. c. Upper end of tibia. greyish white with areas of haemorrhage and necrosis. Destroyed epiphyseal cartilage. e. e. c. f. f. Fever of unknown origin. The commonest predisposing factor of osteosarcoma in old age is: a.319. Swelling of the bone affected. c. Trauma. Selective arteriography of the limb affected. e. The most specific investigations of osteosarcoma are: a.mataryonline. Ultrasonography. e. Biopsy of the bone affected is the most diagnostic. 324. d. Cut surface is homogenous. Huge soft tissue swelling. Blood spread to the lungs. d. d. Severe intractable pain of the bone affected for 1 -2 months before appearance of a swelling. b. Blood spread to rest of bones of the body. b. Vertebrae and ribs. Maxilla. The commonest method of spread of osteosarcoma is a. 320. e. Local spread to the rest of the bone. Local spread to the overlying skin. c. Plain x-ray of the limb affected. d. b. Between ages of 10 and 20 years. c. New bone formation (sun-ray appearance). c. f. Below age of 5 years. Chronic osteomyelitis. b. Paget's disease of bones. b. b. Radioisotope scanning by tc99 pyrophosphate. c. Pathological fracture. c. Above the age of 50 years. Swelling is hard or form or heterogeneous in consistency. b. b. f. e. The first presenting symptom of osteosarcoma is: a. Infiltration of the skin over the tumour is very common. 323. 326. Irradiation. Benign tumours especially cancellous osteoma. 321. Pulmonary metastases. Lymphatic spread to draining lymph nodes. Cat scanning of the limb. The commonest age of osteosarcoma is: a. Deposition of new bone occurs on raised subperiosteal blood vessels. Early infiltration of near by joint. e. The common sites of osteosarcoma of bones are: a. Marked loss of weight and anemia. Macroscopic picture of osteosarcoma: a. Ischemia of the limb affected. 325. Codmann's triangle. Huge fusiform fleshy growth eroding bone cortex. Above age of 40 years and below age of 50 years.

e. e. e. 331. d. Local spread to the surrounding muscles. Radioactive tc99m pyrophosphate. d. The typical presentations of Ewing's sarcoma are: a. b. Diapphysis is the site of bone to be affected. c. Sawing pain of the bone affected. The rarest method of spread of Ewing's sarcoma is: a. Post-operative irradiation after amputation. 334. If there is metastasis in the lungs. Waiting for 6 months then x-ray chest is done. c. Radius is the commonest bone to be affected. Arranged around blood vessels in a rosette shape manner. b. Triangle of bone erosion by the tumour. The cells of Ewing's sarcoma: a. b. It may be totally cystic tumour. Osteoclastoma. They arise from the endothelial lining of bone. c. b. Triangle of new bone formation at the elevated edge of the tumour due to irritation of subperiosteal blood vessels. Osteolytic osteosarcoma. e. d. The telangiectatic type of osteosarcoma of the bone. e. c. Triangle of metaphysis from which the tumour arises. Blood spread to other bones. Radioactive iodine. Affects boys between ages of 5-15 years. Blood spread to the liver. 332. Radioactive selenium methionine. The isotopes specific for ostesarcoma are: a. Painful swelling of the bone affected. Lymphatic spread to the lymph nodes. b. 63 www. The commonest type of osteosarcoma is: a. palliative chemotherapeutics like adriamycin. d. b. b. Fever anorexia. Blood spread is the commonest and early method of spread. 328. Pre-operative irradiation by 9000 rads. c. Codmann's triangle is: a. Radioactive hg 203. e. vincristine and methotrexate are given. No pain at all. c. 330.mataryonline. c. e. Characteristic of osteoclastoma. e. Osteogenic osteosarcoma. It arises from the osteoblasts of the bone marrow. Endosteal osteosarcoma. Ewing's sarcoma: a. d. Parosteal osteosarcoma. Blood spread to the lungs. Santford technique used in treatment of osteosarcoma consists of: a.327. d. Pathological fracture. b. c. Malignant bone aneurysm is: a. e. 335. Are mesodermal in origin. Telangiectatic type (malignant bone aneurysm). f. Diffuse arterio-venous fistula of the bone. b. The tumour is pulsating like aneurysm. d. Amputation is done if there is no metastasis in the lungs. headache and malaise. 333. Large multinucleated cells resembling giant cells. Diagnostic of Ewing sarcoma of bone. d. Small sized cells resembling lymphocytes. Radioactive strontium 85 or 87. d. c.com . Huge intraosseous aneurysm. 329.

e. b. e. Signs of pathological fracture. Osteoclastoma. The most diagnostic investigation of multiple myeloma is: a. Santford technique of treatment. Toxaemia. They cause new bone formation in concentric layers. f. e. Diagnostic for multiple myelomatosis. d. d. Low backache. and loss of weight. Hypercalcaemia. e. Bence-john's proteinuria: a. d. 340. The best line of treatment of multiple myelomatosis is: a. b. Anaemia. 341. b. e.com . The swellings are well defined. Recurrent urinary tract stone formation. General ttt in form of blood transfusion & vitamins. Vertebrae especially lower lumbar vertebrae. Cytotoxic drugs. Plasma'cells of the bone marrow. Hyperviscosity with thrombotic complications. d. 337. 343. d. 345. c. dissolved at 80˚C and are reformed on cooling to 55˚C again. 339. Fibrosarcoma. sternum. Multiple firm or soft swellings. Multiple myelomatosis. ill defined hard. Clinical presentations of multiple myelomatosis: a. amputation.mataryonline. X-ray of all bones of the body. c. Tachycardia. They cause pathological fracture of bones affected. Skull. b. Osteosarcoma of the osteogenic type. Irradiation (very radiosensitive tumour). Ewing's sarcoma. e. c. and post-operative irradiation. Amputation of the bone affected. Formed histologically of large number of plasma cells. c. Cytotoxic drugs. and scapula. Excision of the tumour and bone grafting. The commonest bones to be affected by multiple myelomatosis are: a. b. e. b. Bone marrow puncture for abnormal plasma cells: d. Positive in only 70% cases of m. f. c. Onion-peal appearance of plain x-ray of the bone is charateristic of the following tumour: a. Ribs and clavicle. Chondroblasts. fever. e. c. c. b. 344.336. Bence-john's proteinuria. Osteoclasts. e.myelomatosis. They undergo clotting at 55˚C. Osteolytic osteosarcoma. Femur. Pathology of multiple myelomatosis: a. They undergo clotting at 80 degrees. The cell of origin of multiple myelomatosis is: a. 64 www. c. Signs characteristic of Ewing's sarcoma are: a. Amputation. e. Irradiation of all tumours. Rise of temperature. Fibroblasts of the periosteum. b. Plasma electrophoresis for myeloma proteins. b. tender & warm bone swelling. Triple attack in form of pre-operative irradiation. Anaemia and increased sedimentation rate. d. Abnormal gamma globulins. c. The best line of treatment of Ewing's sarcoma is: a. d. c. 338. Pathological fracture. b. 342. Humerus. d. d. Irregular. Osteoblast.

Amputation is the treatment of choice. 354. Bone swelling. Congenital hip dislocation (CHD. Fibrosarcoma of bones: a. e. Chemotherapeutics. Presents clinically as bone swelling which may be painless or painful (rare). d. Common above age of 50 years. d. d. c. Hepatomegaly and splenomegaly. b. Pathological fracture. Malignant tumour of chondroblasts. Prognosis of treatment is better than osteosarcoma. d. Painful swelling of the bone affected (central type). Anaemia and loss of weight. e. Immuran therapy. e. Osteogenesis imperfecta. Methotrexate. b. d. The drug of choice for treatment of multiple myeloma is: a. Bilateral in 80% of cases. c. c. 351. Treatment of chondrosarcoma is: a. Pathological fracture. Local excision of bone tumour with bone chips.346. b. e. Interferon.): a. Femur. 350. c. Glycosuria. c. Primary cause. Fanconi's syndrome: a. It is due congenital laxity of ligaments of the hip joint. Common in adult age (30-50). f. b. Neonates and infants. 349. b. Aminoaciduria. tibia and humerus. d. c. 347. Common to spread by blood stream to lungs and other bones. e. tibia. Bone aches. d. Amputation is the best line of treatment of operable cases. Clinical presentations of bone metastases are: a. Irradiation of the bone affected. Congenital dislocation hip. 353. Phocomelia.com . d. Leukeran. c. Chondrosarcoma: a. humerus. d. e. It may be endosteal or parosteal. Peripheral type is more common to affect flat bones (ribs and vertebrae). and radius are common sites. e. b. Affects girls more than boys. c. Pulmonary metastases.mataryonline. Central type affects long bones like femur. e. Melphalan (sarcolysin). b. fibrosarcoma is radioresistant. b. c. Ricketes. e. Anaemia and loss of weight. 65 www. Diaphyseal aclasis. Painless bone swelling (peripheral type). Osteopetrosis. b. 348. 352. Common in the italian race. The commonest clinical presentation of chondrosarcoma are: a. Hypophosphataemia. Examples of generalized bone deformities are: a.

b. Rheumatoid or osteoarthritis. Adducted. e. e. b. Neck of femur becomes antedated beyond normal angle for infants. Acquired deformity is bilateral while congenitalis unilateral. Labium of the joint becomes folded in the cavity of the acetabulum. d. Cat scanning of the hip. Changes occuring due to persistence of the head outside the glenoid cavity are: a. In the acquired type sole of the foot i full of corrugation. Scheurmann's disease. The best method of diagnosis of CHD at birth is: a. malleoli are away from each other. b. c. c.com . 361. The most diagnostic investigation of CHD is: a. d. . d. Congenital. Rare disease. 357. c.B arthritis. b. b. b. e. Kienbock's disease. e. Acetabulum becomes more deep. Symmetry of the buttocks.355. Arthroscopy and arthrography. and rotation of lower half of bone down and outwards. 362. Telescopic movement of the limb. e. d. c. Kohler's disease. 66 www. Calve's disease. Paget's disease of bones. Examples of osteochonddritis with infarction of the epiphysis: a. Malunited fracture. Causes of genu valgum (knock-knees): a. 360. NMR of hip joint. Ricketes or osteomalacia. Used for treatment of CHD At birth. Ortolani's test is diagnostic. d. e. c. Used for treatment of CHD in infants up to age of 4 years. e. Rheumatoid arthritis. d. Common between ages of 3-5 years. Wide range of movement of the hip joint. With knees straight. d. d. 359. d. 358. X-ray of the hip joint. Upward and lateral displacement of the head with retardation of its growth. Ricketes. Congenital genu valgum: a. Talipes equino-varus: a. The commonest cause of genu varum (bow legs): a. It may be congenital or acquired on top of paralysis of lateral popliteal nerve. c. b. Of value if other measures failed for treatment. c. Pertdhe's disease.mataryonline. Congenital. Paget's disease of bones. e. b. Wide perineum in bilateral cases. 356. It consists of osteotomy of the innominate bone just above acetabulum. Malunited fracture. Salter's operation: a. Usually correctable by growth of the boy or the girl. inverted and plantarly flexed foot. Ultrasonography. Mc ewen osteotomy can correct cases of adult ages. Capsule of the joint becomes more elongated. 363. c. e. c. b. Congenital deformity can be corrected while acquired one can not. May be of value in the adult patients suffering from T.

d. b. Osteoarthritis. Skull. Congenital.mataryonline. e. d. flattening. 67 www. a. Malunited fracture (pott's fracture) Osteoma of the foot. Malunited fracture is the commonest cause. c. Paralytic. d. Fragmentation of the epiphysis. c. c. b. Vertebrae. b. The common complications of paget's disease are: a. 368. Radiological signs characteristic of perthes disease are: a. Slipped femoral epiphysis. d. b. Common in italian girls. b. 369. Spastic type. 365. and regeneration. Dislocations. 366. Perthe's disease of the hip. c. e. Increase density of the epiphysis. There is limitations to all types of movement except medial rotation.com . Calcitonin. c. Osteoarthritis. Malignant transformation. e. Congenital (commonest). Septic arthritis of the hip joint. 370. f. Perthe's disease: a. The head of the femur undergoes three stages of degeneration. Parathyroid hormone. Osteoarthritis. b. c. c. e. Causes of flat foot (club plannus). d. Bilateral in 15-20% of cases. d. Presents clinically by pain in the hip joint and limping after walking. Dislocation of the head of the hip joint. Head is flat in shape.364. Causes of coxa vara: a. Aspirin. e. d. Scapula. Morphia. Vitamin d. Common between ages of 3-10 years. Flat bones. Long bones especially femur. Heart failure. b. 367. e. The commonest bone to affected by paget's disease is: a. The drug of choice for treatment of pain of perthe's disease is: a.

37. 26. 106. 74. 41. 18.MCQs Answers 1. 27. 54. 34. 82. 101. 111. 10. 63. 66. 89. 99. 42. 110. 86. 4. 3. 8. 87. 15. 75. 33. 115. 88. 30. 94. 50. C D C D C E B C A C C C C C B C C B C E E C D 93. 100. 43. 11. 13. 78. 9. 51. 60. 58. 65. 71. 31. 105. 45. 109. 17. 23. D D A B C C E D E C D E C D D A A C C D C C E . 36. 112. 46. 44. 96. 95. 69. 49. 12. 21. 92. 2. 6. 5. 114. 64. 59. 19. 76. 20. 28. B B E A D B A E D B B B C C B D C C D B A A D 70. 84. 35. 55. 67. 113. C D C C E D C B C D B B A B A A C D C D B B B 47. 72. B A B D C B B B C B B C B C B C B D A B D A A 24. 108. 80. 7. 38. 91. 90. 53. 29. 73. 98. 97. 57. 68. 32. 40. 48. 81. 85. 62. 77. 56. 39. 25. 104. 16. 79. 22. 102. 107. 83. 61. 52. 103. 14.

192. 117. 175. 133. 143. 165. 176. 205. 127. 178. 180. 148. 130. 156. 158. 150. 197. 146. 136. 149. 187. 199. 201. 171. 170. 140. 167. 166. 124. 138. 202. 154. C E B C A D E E D B D D E E C D C D E C D D B C D D 194. 174. 190. 132. 123. 118. 193. 172. 157. 173. 186. 185. 196. C C E A B B E E D C B B C B C A C D A C B D E C E C 168. 164. 129. 141. 121. 204. 122. 184. 162. 195. 188. 198. 182. 147. 135. 131. 179. 125. 181. 155. 177. 189. 183. 169. A D D C B C C E B A E D . 153. 128. 137. 134. 191. 163. 126. 145. 159.116. 119. 152. 139. 144. 151. B C C E D B E D E C A B C E E B D E D A E D A D C D 142. 200. 203. 161. 160. 120.

C B. 11. C A A. E B. C. 14. 37. B.E 117. 65. A. C. A 103. 70. C D 101. D. 19.D 109. 18. D 108. 43. A. D A. E A. C. 32. D. A. 81. 91. B. C. B. C A. B. A. D. E A. C. E C. C. E A. C. D. 56. E 49. A. 57. D A. E A. D 102. 27. B. C 25. 30. 26. D NONE B. D B. D B.True & False Answers 1. 44.C. D. 22. C.B. C. D A. E B. 36. 60. E A. 9. 71. D A. E A. A. A. 63. C. B. C. C. B B. C. 23. 10. B. E 73. B. D. C. 8. D. D B. D A A. E B. D. E A. D 114. B. C. 69. C. D. B. ALL 116. 13. B. 88. D B. B. E A. 55. D. 29. E D A. D. 61. 66. 33. B. 40. 50. D A. 28.C. B. E NONE A. C. D C B. E C. 12. E NONE A. E A. 2. C D A. D E A. C. D A. B. 86. 48. B. 6. B B. D A. C.B. 51. D 100. E 113. C 115. E B. C. 35. E B. 76. 74. B. 4. D A. 5. 21. 34. D A. C A. B. C B A. 38. 95. B.D. D. D.C. D A. D. 67. E 98. E A. B NONE C. D. 54. C A. D. 79. D C. B. E B. 62. 68. B A. B. C A. 89. E C. 41. B. D D. 39. B. 7. 24. D 105. D 118. C. D. 75. D. 45. 94. 58. E B. C. C A. E A. D B. B. 42. B. B. E A. 53. 92. D. C. C. 83.E 110. A 104. B. B 107. C. C. D D C. D 111. D A. A 119. C. E C. D B. E A. 77. B. 96. B. D 99. ALL 112. 16. 85. E B. A. E B. 87. E 97. E A. C A. 84. B. C. D. D B. D B. 80. 17.E 120. 47. 78. 52. 93.E . B. 46. 90. E A. D B. D 106. C B. D B. 3. D A. 64. D.D. D C. C. B. 59. D A. D. 82. 31. 15. C E A. 72. C. C. 20. D B.

D 123. D 175.C.B.B. B.B .D 142. A.B. A. ALL 178.C. A. B. B. B.B.E 240.E 151. A.C. ALL 194.C 162.C. ALL 149.121. B.C.B.B.E 202.B.C. B. A. D 188. D 205. ALL 137. ALL 180.B. C.B.F 247. A.C 211.B. D 245. ALL 154.D 189.D. A. A 217.C.E 192.C.B.F 248. D 165.C. A.C.C.B. A. ALL 185.D 208.C.E 128.B. E 172. A. ALL 169. A 160.C 179.B. C 143. ALL 239.E 215.C 157.D 141.D 234. A. D 242. A. ALL 168.D 236.E 209.B. F 244. E 238.D 249.B.B. A. ALL 219. A.E 161.B. ALL 204. A. A.D.C. B 164. E 152.B.C. A.C.D 232. C.C. ALL 225. A.C.B. ALL 227.D 218. ALL 144. E 166. F 187.B. C.D 138. F 233.E 122.B. E 150. ALL 243. A. A 201.D 133. A. A.B.D.D 158.C 231.C.B.D. A. A 186.D 222.C. E 135. A.D. E 200. B. A. A.C. A. ALL 176.E 130.B.D 250. D 155. E 177. A. ALL 153. A.E 223. ALL 183. ALL 167.D.E 241.B. A. ALL 228. ALL 193.B.E 191.D.B. ALL 199.D 131.E 132.CE. A.B. A.E 212.D 213. ALL 226.B. ALL 148. ALL 203.C.C.E 224.D 173.C 159.E 124. A. ALL 214.D. ALL 182. B 127. E 140. D 136. A. ALL 181. A.B.C. 171.B.B. A. A.C. A.C.D 229.E 170. A. ALL 230.E 221.C. E 129.B. B 126. A 174.D 206.E 237. A.B. C.D 184. D 246.C 207. B. E 156.C.C. C.C 163.B.E 210.E 196.B.E 125.D 147. ALL 190. A.E 195. A. D 139.E 220. A.C. D. B 145. A.C.C.B. A. A. A.E 146. E 197. A.C.C. C 134. A.D 235. A.E 198.D 216.C.

B. B.E 297. A. C 324. ALL 299. A. B 265.E 253. C 322. B 287. A.C . C 266.B.E 369.B. A.B.B. A. A. C 340.C. A.B.C. B.E 306.C. ALL 294.D. A.D 336.B.B 360. ALL 366. A 332.C 316. C 329.D.C. A.F 258. C 282.B. E 295.C 317. ALL 361.E 356.D 271. E 320.D. ALL 364. A.E 359. ALL 352. C. D 318. C.C.D 285.E 272. A. A.C 323. C 315.C 278. D 347.B.E. A. A. ALL 310. C. ALL 288.C. A. ALL 291. A.B.D 273. ALL 277.C.D 293. ALL 362. A. A. ALL 264.B.D 312.C 280. B. ALL 367.D.E 328.E 255. F 338.E 333. ALL 268. E 284.251. A. ALL 301.D.D 279. ALL 286. A.E 349. E 256. A.E 326.E 262.F 257. A.B. D 335.B.B.B.D.C. ALL 259.D.C.E 314. C.B. D 319.C. A. ALL 351. ALL 267. A.E 331. A.B.B. F 365.E 355. A.C.B.D. ALL 330.C. A. A. A.D.C. C 357. E 302. A. ALL 309.C.B.E 345. A.C. ALL 343. ALL 304. ALL 337. C 321.E. ALL 348.B. D 346.C. D 283. E 342. A. D 276. ALL 274.E 298.B. A. B 281. A.B.C. D 370.E 307.E 311. D 339.C 254.C 327. A. A.E 300. E 325.C 261.C.C 368.B. D 341. C. ALL 313. ALL 292.C. ALL 269.B.D 290.E 334.C 303. A.B. E 305. E 308. A 263.D 289.D. E 275. E 296.B. ???? 354.D 353. C 350. ALL 260. A. D 358. ALL 252.B. C 270. C 344. ALL 363.

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