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**FUNDAMENTALS OF MODERN MANUFACTURING:
**

MATERIALS, PROCESSES, AND SYSTEMS

Second Edition

MIKELL P. GROOVER Professor of Industrial and Manufacturing Systems Engineering Lehigh University

John Wiley & Sons, Inc., New York

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PREFACE

This is the Solutions Manual for the textbook Fundamentals of Modern Manufacturing: Materials, Processes, and Systems (Second Edition). It contains the answers to the Review Questions and Multiple Choice Quizzes at the end of the Chapters 2 through 44, as well as the Problems at the end of Chapters 3, 4, 6, 10, 11, 13, 16, 18, 19, 20, 21, 22, 23, 24, 25, 26, 29, 30, 31, 33, 34, 35, 38, 40, 42, and 43. There are approximately 740 review questions, 500 quiz questions, and 500 problems (nearly all of them quantitative) in the text. I have personally answered all of the questions and solved all of the quizzes and problems and have personally recorded the solutions in this booklet. Many of the problems have been tested in class, thus giving me an opportunity to compare my own answers with those developed by the students. Despite my best efforts to avoid errors in this solutions manual, I am sure that errors are present. I would appreciate hearing from those of you who discover these errors, so that I can make the necessary corrections in subsequent editions of the Solutions Manual. Similarly, I would appreciate any suggestions from users of the text itself that might help to make any subsequent editions more accurate, more relevant, and easier to use. My address is: Dr. Mikell P. Groover Department of Industrial and Manufacturing Systems Engineering Lehigh University 200 West Packer Avenue Bethlehem, PA 18015 Office telephone number 610-758-4030. Fax machine number 610-758-4886. E-mail addresses: either Mikell.Groover@Lehigh.edu or mpg0@Lehigh.edu I hope you find the text and this Solutions Manual to be helpful teaching aids in your particular manufacturing course. Mikell P. Groover

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TABLE OF CONTENTS:

Chapter

1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. 21. 22. 23. 24. 25. 26. 27. 28. 29. 30. 31. 32. 33. 34. 35. 36. 37. 38. 39. 40. 41. 42. 43. 44.

Chapter Title*

Introduction (No questions or problems) The Nature of Materials Mechanical Properties of Materials (P) Physical Properties of Materials (P) Dimensions, Tolerances, and Surfaces Metals (P) Ceramics Polymers Composite Materials Fundamentals of Casting (P) Metal Casting Processes (P) Glassworking Shaping Processes for Plastics (P) Rubber Processing Technology Shaping Processes for Polymer Matrix Composites Powder Metallurgy (P) Processing of Ceramics and Cermets Fundamentals of Metal Forming (P) Bulk Deformation Processes (P) Sheet Metalworking (P) Theory of Metal Machining (P) Machining Operations and Machine Tools (P) Cutting Tool Technology (P) Economic and Product Design Considerations in Machining (P) Grinding and Other Abrasive Processes (P) Nontraditional Machining and Thermal Cutting Processes (P) Heat Treatment of Metals Cleaning and Surface Treatments Coating and Deposition Processes (P) Fundamentals of Welding (P) Welding Processes (P) Brazing, Soldering, and Adhesive Bonding Mechanical Assembly (P) Rapid Prototyping (P) Processing of Integrated Circuits (P) Electronics Assembly and Packaging Microfabrication Technologies Numerical Control and Industrial Robotics (P) Group Technology and Flexible Manufacturing Systems Production Lines (P) Manufacturing Engineering Production Planning and Control (P) Quality Control (P) Measurement and Inspection

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4 7 18 21 24 29 32 36 39 49 57 60 70 73 76 84 87 92 112 122 134 142 153 166 173 180 182 184 190 197 207 211 218 222 230 233 235 244 246 253 256 263 271

*(P) indicates chapters with problem sets.

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2.1 2.2 2.3

**THE NATURE OF MATERIALS
**

The elements listed in the Periodic Table can be divided into three categories. What are these categories and give an example of each? Answer. The three types of elements are metals (e.g., aluminum), nonmetals (e.g., oxygen), and semimetals (e.g., silicon). Which elements are the noble metals? Answer. The noble metals are copper, silver, and gold. What is the difference between primary and secondary bonding in the structure of materials? Answer. Primary bonding is strong bonding between atoms in a material, for example to form a molecule; while secondary bonding is not as strong and is associated with attraction between molecules in the material.

Review Questions

2.4

Describe how ionic bonding works? Answer. In ionic bonding, atoms of one element give up their outer electron(s) to the atoms of another element to form complete outer shells.

2.5

What is the difference between crystalline and noncrystalline structures in materials? Answer. The atoms in a crystalline structure are located at regular and repeating lattice positions in three dimensions; thus, the crystal structure possesses a long-range order which allows a high packing density. The atoms in a noncrystalline structure are randomly positioned in the material, not possessing any repeating, regular pattern.

2.6

What are some common point defects in a crystal lattice structure? Answer. Some of the common point defects are: (1) vacancy - a missing atom in the lattice structure; (2) ion-pair vacancy (Schottky defect) - a missing pair of ions of opposite charge in a compound; (3) interstitialcy - a distortion in the lattice caused by an extra atom present; and (4) Frenkel defect - an ion is removed from a regular position in the lattice and inserted into an interstitial position not normally occupied by such an ion.

2.7

Define the difference between elastic and plastic deformation in terms of the effect on the crystal lattice structure. Answer. Elastic deformation involves a temporary distortion of the lattice structure that is proportional to the applied stress. Plastic deformation involves a stress of sufficient magnitude to cause a permanent shift in the relative positions of adjacent atoms in the lattice. Plastic deformation generally involves the mechanism of slip - relative movement of atoms on opposite sides of a plane in the lattice.

2.8

How do grain boundaries contribute to the strain hardening phenomenon in metals? Answer. Grain boundaries block the continued movement of dislocations in the metal during straining. As more dislocations become blocked, the metal becomes more difficult to deform; in effect it becomes stronger.

2.9

Identify some materials that have a crystalline structure.

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Answer. Materials typically possessing a crystalline structure are metals and ceramics other than glass. Some plastics have a partially crystalline structure. 2.10 Identify some materials that possess a noncrystalline structure. Answer. Materials typically having a noncrystalline structure include glass (fused silica), rubber, and certain plastics (specifically, thermosetting plastics). 2.11 What is the basic difference in the solidification (or melting) process between crystalline and noncrystalline structures? Answer. Crystalline structures undergo an abrupt volumetric change as they transform from liquid to solid state and vice versa. This is accompanied by an amount of energy called the heat of fusion that must be added to the material during melting or released during solidification. Noncrystalline materials melt and solidify without the abrupt volumetric change and heat of fusion.

**Multiple Choice Quiz
**

There are a total of 20 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct). To attain a perfect score on the quiz, all correct answers must be given, since each correct answer is worth 1 point. For each question, each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point, and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers. 2.1 The basic structural unit of matter is which one of the following? (a) atom, (b) electron, (c) element, (d) molecule, or (e) nucleus. Answer. (a) 2.2 Approximately how many different elements have been identified (one answer)? (a) 10, (b) 50, (c) 100, (d) 200, or (e) 500. Answer. (c) 2.3 In the Periodic Table, the elements can be divided into which of the following categories (more than one)? (a) ceramics, (b) gases, (c) liquids, (d) metals, (e) nonmetals, (f) polymers, (g) semi-metals, and (h) solids. Answer. (d), (e), and (g). 2.4 The element with the lowest density and smallest atomic weight is which one of the following? (a) aluminum, (b) argon, (c) helium, (d) hydrogen, or (e) magnesium. Answer. (d) 2.5 Which of the following bond types are classified as primary bonds (more than one)? (a) covalent bonding, (b) hydrogen bonding, (c) ionic bonding, (d) metallic bonding, and (e) van der Waals forces. Answer. (a), (c), and (d). 2.6 How many atoms are there in the unit cell of the face- centered cubic (FCC) unit cell (one answer)? (a) 8, (b) 9, (c) 10, (d) 12, or (e) 14. Answer. (e) 2.7 Which of the following are not point defects in a crystal lattice structure (more than one)? (a) edge dislocation, (b) interstitialcy, (c) Schottky defect, or (d) vacancy.

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(c) more likely at high deformation rates. (d) more likely in metals with HCP structure. Answer.9 Grain boundaries are an example of which one of the following types of crystal structure defects? (a) dislocation. Answer. (b) and (f). (c) line defects.8 Which one of the following crystal structures has the fewest slip directions and therefore the metals with this structure are generally more difficult to deform at room temperature? (a) BCC. (e) metallic.Answer. 6 . or (e) surface defects. or (c) HCP.11 Polymers are characterized by which of the following bonding types (more than one)? (a) adhesive. (b) mechanism of plastic deformation. (b) covalent. and (f) van der Waals. 2. and (d). and (f) type of dislocation. (b) FCC. Answer. (c) hydrogen. (c) 2. (c). (d) point defects. (b). (b). (e) 2. (d) ionic. (e) slip mechanism. (b) Frenkel defect. (d) 2. Answer. (c).10 Twinning is which of the following (more than one)? (a) elastic deformation.

The tensile strength is the maximum load experienced during the tensile test divided by the original area.6 Define yield strength of a material. 3. the specimen cross-sectional are increases as the test progresses.4 What is the difference between engineering stress and true stress in a tensile test? Answer.3 MECHANICAL PROPERTIES OF MATERIALS What is the dilemma between design and manufacturing in terms of mechanical properties? Answer. in general. 3. where E = a constant of proportionality called the modulus of elasticity. What are the three types of static stresses to which materials are subjected? Answer. What is work hardening? Answer. tensile. In what case does the strength coefficient have the same value as the yield strength? Answer. Review Questions 3.5 Define tensile strength of a material. Because of necking that occurs in the test specimen. the material must be strong. When the material does not strain harden. Barreling of the test specimen due to friction at the interfaces with the testing machine platens.2%. State Hooke's Law.9 3.10 How does the change in cross-sectional area of a test specimen in a compression test differ from its counterpart in a tensile test specimen? Answer. while in a tensile test. In a compression test.11 What is the complicating factor that occurs in a compression test? Answer. while true stress divides the load by the instantaneous area which decreases as the specimen stretches. Answer. Answer. 7 . the cross-sectional area decreases. Hooke's Law defines the stress-strain relationship for an elastic material: σ = Eε. Strain hardening is the increase in strength that occurs in metals when they are strained.2 3. the material should not be strong. 3. 3. It is usually measured as the . Answer. Engineering stress divides the load (force) on the test specimen by the original area. The yield strength is the stress at which the material begins to plastically deform.3 3. To achieve design function and quality. 3. for ease of manufacturing.8 3. and shear.the point at which the stress-strain for the material intersects a line which is offset from the elastic region of the stress-strain curve by 0.2% offset value . compressive.1 3.7 Why cannot a direct conversion be made between the ductility measures of elongation and reduction in area using the assumption of constant volume? Answer.

Answer.1 Which one of the following are the three basic types of static stresses to which a material can be subjected (three answers)? (a) compression. A three-point bending test is commonly used to test the strength of brittle materials. Different hardness tests and scales are required because different materials possess widely differing hardnesses.20 What is viscoelasticity. 8 . S = 0. (e) tensile. 3. 3. and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point. (d) shear. and (f) yield. 3. the thicker the fluid.12 Tensile testing is not appropriate for hard brittle materials such as ceramics. 3. Answer. For each question. A test whose measuring range is suited to very hard materials is not sensitive for testing very soft materials. on average.19 What is the defining characteristic of a Newtonian fluid? Answer. What is the test commonly used to determine the strength properties of such materials? Answer.15 What is hardness and how is it generally tested? Answer. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point. The recrystallization temperature is the temperature at which a metal recrystallizes (forms new grains) rather than work hardens when deformed. on average? Answer. since each correct answer is worth 1 point. Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 18 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct). area) of the indentation. oils) are Newtonian fluids.4 E. It is tested by pressing a hard object (sphere. as a material property? Answer. 3. Viscoelasticity refers to the property most commonly exhibited by polymers that defines the strain of the material as a function of stress and temperature over time. the greater the viscosity. 3. (f) true stress. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers. (c) reduction in area. diamond point) into the test material and measuring the size (depth.3. (b) hardness. To attain a perfect score on the quiz. Hardness is defined as the resistance to indentation of a material. on average? Answer.18 Define viscosity of a fluid. all correct answers must be given. A Newtonian fluid is one for which viscosity is a constant property at a given temperature.7 TS. Viscosity is the resistance to flow of a fluid material. It is a combination of viscosity and elasticity. 3. G = 0.14 How is shear strength S related to tensile strength TS. on average. 3.16 Why are different hardness tests and scales required? Answer. 3. The test provides a measure called the transverse rupture strength for these materials.17 Define the recrystallization temperature for a metal.13 How is the shear modulus of elasticity G related to the tensile modulus of elasticity E. Most liquids (water.

(c) steel. or (d) none of the above. Answer. or (d) none of the above. (a) 3.3 If stress values were measured during a tensile test. (b) diamond. Answer. (c) hardened tool steel. Answer. 3. (b) 3.10 The shear strength of a metal is usually (a) greater than. which of the following would have the higher value? (a) engineering stain. (a) 3.the flow curve.7 Which one of the following types of stress strain relationship best describes the behavior of most metals at room temperature: (a) elastic and perfectly plastic.12 Which one of the following materials has the highest hardness? (a) alumina ceramic. (b) elastic and strain hardening. and (e).2 Which of the following is the correct definition of ultimate tensile strength. (c) perfectly elastic. Answer. Answer. The plastic region is characterized by a power function . (b) 3. (b) elastic and strain hardening. Answer. 3. (b) 3. (c) 3.11 Most hardness tests involve pressing a hard object into the surface of a test specimen and measuring the indentation (or its effect) that results: (a) true or (b) false. Answer. as derived from the results of a tensile test on a metal specimen? (a) the stress encountered when the stress-strain curve transforms from elastic to plastic behavior. or (b) true strain. (d) high carbon steel. (c) the maximum load divided by the original area of the specimen. (b) the maximum load divided by the final area of the specimen.6 Which one of the following types of stress strain relationship best describes the behavior of brittle materials such as ceramics and thermosetting plastics: (a) elastic and perfectly plastic. (d) titanium.4 If strain measurements were made during a tensile test. (a) 3. (b) gray cast iron. or (e) tungsten. (b) elastic and strain hardening. (a). or (d) none of the above. (c) perfectly elastic. 9 .5 The plastic region of the stress-strain curve for a metal is characterized by a proportional relationship between stress and strain: (a) true or (b) false. (b) It is the elastic region that is characterized by a proportional relationship between stress and strain. Answer.8 Which of the following types of stress strain relationship best describes the behavior of metals at temperatures above their respective recrystallization points: (a) elastic and perfectly plastic. or (b) true stress. Answer. or (d) the stress observed when the specimen finally fails. which of the following would have the higher value? (a) engineering stress. (c) perfectly elastic.Answer. (c) 3. or (e) polystyrene. or (b) less than its tensile strength.9 Which one of the following materials has the highest modulus of elasticity? (a) aluminum. (d). (b) 3. Answer.

92)/200 = 0. e = (2.2 mm.50 = 50% 10 . The maximum load = 168.2 .0. Solution: (a) % elongation = (2. Strictly speaking.2% offset.5 . During the test the specimen yields under a load of 98. determine the percent reduction in area. (c) viscosity.60 .000/0. The corresponding gage length = 50. During the test the specimen yields under a load of 32.50)/50 = 14.0 in and an area = 0.0 . This answer may require some justification. determine the percent reduction in area. (a) determine the percent elongation.2 percent yield point. (b) modulus of elasticity E.2. This is the 0. (a) 3.000 lb/in2 3. Answer.0083 in. (a). The corresponding gage length = 2. many materials considered to be viscoelastic do not completely return to their original shape. (b) Viscosity is the resistance to flow. and (c) tensile strength TS.0)/50.284 = 28. Solution: (a) Y = 98.000 lb/in2 (b) σ = E e Subtracting the 0. (c).0026 E = σ/e = 490/0.14 Viscoelasticity has features of which of the following more traditional material properties (more than one)? (a) elasticity.4% (b) % area reduction = (200 . (c) TS = 168.002 = 0.0. However.000 lb.5 = 0. Answer.00215 = 29.23 .0026 = 188.5 in 2.3 In Problem 3. (b) If the specimen necked to an area = 0.77 x 10 6 lb/in2 (c) TS = 60. Problems Strength and Ductility in Tension 3.5 x 10 3 MPa.000/200 = 490 MPa.4 In Problem 3.0 = 0. and (c) tensile strength TS. Determine: (a) yield strength Y. the shape return feature in viscoelastic behavior violates the definition of plastic flow.0. Determine: (a) yield strength Y.2 A test specimen in a tensile test has a gage length of 2.25)/0.5 = 64.000 lb is reached at a gage length = 2. in deforming over time it involves plastic flow (plasticity).23 mm.2.000/0.60 in.54 = 54% 3. Viscoelasticity is usually considered to be a property that combines elasticity and viscosity. however. 3.6/2. (b) If the specimen necked to an area = 92 mm2.1 A tensile test uses a test specimen that has a gage length of 50 mm and an area = 200 mm2.13 Viscosity can be defined as the ease with which a fluid flows: (a) true or (b) false.0)/2.1. 3.000 N.2 percent yield point.25 in2. (b) σ = E e Subtracting the 0.5 = 120. Solution: (a) Y = 32. Solution: (a) % elongation = (64.0 = 0.000 N is reached at a gage length = 64. (b). This is the 0.00215 E = σ/e = 64. (b) plasticity. (a) determine the percent elongation. (b) modulus of elasticity E.0 .3 = 30% (b) % area reduction = (0.Answer.0)/2.50.000/200 = 840 MPa.002 = 0.2.0083 .2% offset.2/50 = 0. The maximum load = 60.000/0. e = (50.

283 = 909.6 In Problem 3.524 mm2.1622 Substituting these values into the flow curve equation.08 at a stress = 265 MPa.25 27.283 3. TS = 426.sectional area = 62.00 20.1678 = 404. Y = 310.375) = ln(1.5/147. Stress σ = 23042/59.1622/0. Strain ε = ln(147.27.08) n n ln(3.27 MPa.7 In a tensile test on a metal specimen.0488 (2) A = 7812. true strain = 0.4056 = (3.3238) 0.375) n 1.625 MPa. we have (1) 387.1622) n 544.1622) .08) .5. Solution: (a) Student exercise.01/125) = 0.08) n and (2) 325 = K(0.125)/125 = 0.1 = K(0.1678 = 404. (a) Plot the engineering stress strain curve. (1) A = V/L = 7812.0 mm and the cross.1 MPa. Select two data points: (1) F = 23042 N and L = 131.1678 Substituting this value with the data back into the flow curve equation.1 = K(0. (d) tensile strength TS.01 mm.793 125.3238) n ln(1. we obtain the value of the strength coefficient K: (1) K = 265/(0. Stress σ = 28913/53.23 23.524 = 387.0488) n and (2) 544. (c) modulus of elasticity E. Determine: (b) yield strength Y. Strain e = (125.25 mm.25 = 59. Strain ε = ln(131.10 The maximum load is 28.4 MPa Use average K = 910.5 mm2: Load (N) Length (mm) 0 0 17. Solution: Starting volume of test specimen V = 125(62.283 = 910.913 N and the final data point occurred immediately prior to failure.283 Substituting this value with the data back into the flow curve equation.9 MPa K = 544. (c) First data point is prior to yielding.1/(0.01 = 53.1/387. (2) F = 28913 N and L = 147.27/0.27) n 325/265 = (0. Flow Curve 3. the true strain = 0.913 147.27/0.01 27.6 MPa. Be sure not to use data after the point at which necking occurred. When the true stress = 325 MPa.2264) 1.1 = (0.143 = 544. (d) From the plot.5) = 7812.85 MPa 11 .2 MPa The flow curve equation is: σ = 910.2164 n = 0.27) .2 ε 0.4056) = n ln(3.05 28. E = 310. Solution: (1) 265 = K(0.25/125) = 0. (b) From the plot.042 131. Determine the flow curve parameters n and K.5/131.2011 n n = 0.00184 = 168.1/(0.578 153.85 MPa (2) K = 325/(0.23 .0488) n 1.3.5 The following data are collected during a tensile test in which the starting gage length = 125.0488) .00184.3405 = 1.579 140.5 mm3.1 MPa.143 mm2.2264 = (3.462 160. we obtain the value of the strength coefficient K: K = 387. determine the strength coefficient and the strain hardening exponent.2041 n = 0.

3964 n = 0.0) .3125 = 44.191 lb/in2 (2) K = 55.50 in 2. true stress σ = 28.223) n and (2) 44.22 and K = 54. Without knowing any more about the test.10) n and (2) 55.33 = 1.10 A tensile test for a certain metal provides flow curve parameters: n = 0.800/31.1076) 12 .2 = 0.28. Solution: Starting volume V = LoAo = 2. At one point in the tensile test.3 = 600 MPa (b) ε = (600/600) 1/.5 = 0.12 A metal is deformed in a tension test into its plastic region.9163 n = 0. the true strain = 0. true stress σ = 24.00 3.0) 3.250 lb/in 2 and ε = ln(2.5/2.28 with a corresponding true stress = 345.7 ε 0.8 During a tensile test.800 = K(0.0) = 0.000/(0. can you estimate the flow curve parameters n and K? Solution: If we assume that n = ε when necking starts.3125 in 2 So.000 lb/in 2. Determine: (a) the flow stress at a true strain = 0.4 in 2 So. The starting specimen had a gage length = 2.5) = ln(1.5 in and the corresponding engineering stress = 24.191 ε 0.0/2.28 3. (1) 31.0 in 3 (1) A = V/L = 1.22 = (0.250 = K(0.0(0.4326 = 100.000 lb/in 2.5) n n ln(2.0 MPa.4326 3.000) 1/.470/0.25) .000(.1678 3.000 lb/in2. the gage length = 3.5) = 1.10 at a true stress = 37.250 = (0.000(.4865) 0.000(0. Solution: (a) Yf = 600(1.300 lb/in2 (b) ε = (40.0) = 0. we have K = 345/(0. a metal has a true strain = 0.25) n 55.45) .The flow curve equation is: σ = 404.191 lb/in2 The flow curve equation is: σ = 100. Determine the strength coefficient and the strain hardening exponent for this metal.000 lb/in 2.10) n 1.7 MPa The flow curve equation is: σ = 492. the gage length = 2.0/3. Determine: (a) the flow stress at a true strain = 1.223) n 1. Solution: (1) 37.223 (2) A = 1.11 The flow curve for a certain metal has parameters: n = 0.0.470) n 44.25.0 in and an area = 0.000/(0.25/0.3 = (1.545 = 0. Later.000/54. Solution: (a) Yf = 54.1076) n ln(1. and (b) true strain at a flow stress = 600 MPa.4326 = 100. then n = 0.4336) = n ln(2.000 lb/in 2.28) . and (b) the true strain at a flow stress = 40. at a true stress = 55.28 = 492.85 ε 0.4336 = (2. and at another point in the test prior to necking.5)/.4326 Substituting this value with the data back into the flow curve equation. Determine the flow curve parameters n and K.800 lb/in 2 and ε = ln(3.45.7407) 4.000 = (0.10) .000 = K(0.22 = 45.4865 = (2.4 = 31. we obtain the value of the strength coefficient K: (1) K = 37.470 These are two data points with which to determine the parameters of the flow curve equation.000 = K(0.9 In a tensile test a metal begins to neck at a true strain = 0.5)/.2 in and the corresponding engineering stress = 28.000/37. Using this value in the flow curve equation.000 lb/in 2.3 and K = 600 MPa.2/2.256 3.

693 (a) To be compressed to the same engineering strain (e = -1. As the interval size is reduced. (c) Compute and sum the engineering strains as the specimen elongates from: (1) 75.693) the final height of the compression specimen can be determined as follows: ε = -. Note that the answer to part (a) is an impossible result.0 mm.0556 L = 95 to 100 mm: e = (100 .0 mm. The summation process is an approximation of the integration over the range from 75 to 110 mm in (b).0 .483 n = 0. It is elongated during the test to a length = 110.13 A tensile test specimen has a starting gage length = 75.0 = 1.0 to 100. Determine the engineering strain and true strain for this test.80)/80 = 5/80 = 0.90)/90 = 5/90 = 0.693 = ln(Lf/Lo) Lf/Lo = exp.0 to 85.513 lb/in2 (2) K = 44.4667) = 0. (b) To be compressed to the same true strain value (e = -0.0 mm.0500 L = 105 to 110 mm: e = (110 .515 lb/in2 (1) K = 31.0 to 80. it will be negative value because of compression).95)/95 = 5/95 = 0. (a) Determine the engineering strain. (3) 85.483 Use average K = 64.0 mm.800/(0.0667 L = 80 to 85 mm: e = (85 . (d) Is the result closer to the answer to part (a) or part (b)? Does this help to show what is meant by the term true strain? Solution: (a) Engineering strain e = (110 .75)/75 = 5/75 = 0.483 3.0588 L = 90 to 95 mm: e = (95 .4667 (b) True strain ε = ln(110/75) = ln(1.0526 L = 100 to 105 mm: e = (105 . which is impossible.0 to 105.515 ε 0. Lf = 0. and (7) 105.(-0.0 to 95.483 = 64.5 Lo 3.0 mm. determine the final compressed length of the specimen such that: (a) the engineering strain is equal to the same value as in tension (it will be negative value because of compression).105)/105 = 5/105 = 0.7455 n .1.0 True strain ε = ln(2.0 to 110.3602 = .0 mm.0/1.516 lb/in2 The flow curve equation is: σ = 64.0) = ln(2.14 A tensile specimen is elongated to twice its original length.0)/1.223) = 64. and (b) the true strain would be equal to the same value as in tension (again. (6) 100.500 Therefore. (4) 90. 3. Solution: Starting with the definition of true strain as ε = ln(L/Lo) and assuming constant volume.0 mm.0 mm before necking occurs.75)/75 = 35/75 = 0.0) the final height of the compression specimen would have to be zero.15 Derive an expression for true strain as a function of D and Do for a tensile test specimen of round cross-section.0 mm..0625 L = 85 to 90 mm: e = (90 .693) = 0.85)/85 = 5/85 = 0.250/(0. the summation becomes closer to the integration value.0476 _____________________________________________ Sum of incremental engineering strain values = 0.0) = 0.383 (c)L = 75 to 80 mm: e = (80 . If the metal had been strained in compression. (b) Determine the true strain.0 to 90.3938 (d) The resulting sum in (c) is closer to the true strain value in (b). (5) 95. (2) 80. True strain is therefore a better measure of strain during plastic deformation.470) . we have V = AoLo = AL 13 . Solution: Engineering strain e = (2.100)/100 = 5/100 = 0.

2 Do/D = exp. Solution: Area reduction AR = (Ao . At necking. 0.4/2 = 0. n = ε.5 mm and its diameter = 25 mm. then true stress σ = 248. Assuming that the cross.17 Based on results of a tensile test.3 MPa.16 Show that true strain = ln(1 + e).4918(382.26.Lo)/Lo = 0. 3.24 = 0.20 A metal alloy has been tested in a tensile test to determine the following flow curve parameters: K = 620.6(. Necking begins immediately thereafter.80 mm fails at an engineering stress = 248. Determine the true stress and true strain at this maximum load.4 = 2 ln(Do/D) ln(Do/D) = .5 mm. it should be noted that these values are associated with the necked portion of the test specimen. This is a true stress.3 MPa 3.4 = 382.4918 The ratio between true stress and engineering stress would be the same ratio. Therefore.24 Lo A = Ao/1.5) = 91.25 = 992.Af)/Ao = 0.2/0.221) 2 = 1.40 and K = 551.75A o = 0.754 lb/in2 True strain ε = ln(1. Solution: Tensile strength occurs at maximum value of load.5 MPa and n = 0.8065 Ao True stress σ = 37.Therefore.24 Lo L = 1. calculate the (engineering) tensile strength for the metal.18 A copper wire of diameter 0.15.24 L .2) = 1. Therefore.75 Ao .221 Area ratio = (Do/D)2 = (1.3) = 570.Lo)/Lo Consider definition (2): e = L/Lo .000/0. Its elongation at this point is 24%. From Problem 3. 1 + e = L/Lo Substituting this into definition (1). Solution: Starting definitions: (1) ε = ln(L/Lo) and (2) e = (L . TS = 1.2 MPa.0 in and cross-sectional area = 0.5 in 2 reaches a maximum load of 37.2 MPa.(.8065(0.25 Ao = Af If engineering stress = 248.Af = 0. Therefore.section increases uniformly.1 Rearranging. L/Lo = Ao/A A = πD2 and Ao = πDo2 Ao/A = πDo2 /πD2 = (Do/D)2 ε = ln(Do/D)2 = 2 ln(Do/D) 3.4) .Lo/Lo = L/Lo .24) = 0. Based on this information.6 MPa. However. The same metal is now tested in a compression test in which the starting height of the specimen = 62. TS is defined as an engineering stress.19 A steel tensile specimen with starting gage length = 2.0.000 lb.215 Compression 3. σ = 551. Its ductility is measured as 75% reduction of area.386. we know that ε = 2 ln(Do/D). 14 . Solution: Elongation = (L . ε = ln(1 + e) 3.8 MPa True strain ε = ln(Lf/Lo) = ln(Ao/Af) = ln(4) = 1.75 Ao Ao . the flow curve has parameters calculated as n = 0.Lo = 0. determine the load required to compress the specimen to a height of (a) 50 mm and (b) 37. Determine the true stress and true strain at failure.

714 lb/in2 at ε = 0.493 = (48.000 mm3 At h = 58 mm.0/1.1(818. A = 3.767 = 79.224 lb/in 2 is e = Y/E = 79.7(1293.209 in 2.9907 = 1.5 mm.6 in.002 = 0.000/1. Area A = 3.714/(0.511) .312 N 3.000/1.1 mm2 F = 683. and (2) σ = 117.534 in3.5/50) = ln(1.872 n n = 0.21 The flow curve parameters for a certain stainless steel are K = 1100 MPa and n = 0.534/1.770 N (b) At h = 37. ε = ln(75/58) = ln(1.257) .862 lb/in2 at ε = 0.511 Yf = 620.000 lb. assuming that the cross-section increases uniformly.9907 in.5) = ln(1.35.Solution: Starting volume of test specimen V = hπDo2/4 = 62.103 Bending and Shear 15 .389 lb/in2.35 = 683.389 ε .26 = 420.1 MPa A = V/L = 30679.00264 Strain including offset = 0.0.0 in and diameter = 1.5(.1 MPa A = V/L = 30679.103 = 137.5(0.775 in 2.5 in.000 lb.26 = 521.06) 0.00264 + 0.5/37.767 in2 Y = 140.6) = 257.714 lb/in 2.000/58 = 1293.5) 2/4 = 3.6) = 0.224 lb/in2 (b) Elastic strain at Y = 79.534/1.493) = n ln(48.224/30. A = V/L = 75.223) .00464 Height h at strain = 0.257 Yf = 1100(.209 = 117.6 /37. 3. True stress σ = 260. Assume that the cross-sectional area increases uniformly during the test.000/2.103 K = 117.1) = 884. Determine: (a) yield strength Y.775 = 78.5 = 818.4006 = 3.000 lb.5π(25) 2/4 = 30679.6/50 = 613. Solution: (a) Starting volume of test specimen V = hπD2/4 = 2π(1.00464) n 1. Determine the force required to achieve this compression.06) n ln(1. The metal yields (0. Ao = πDo/4 = π(1. At F = 260.095 N.2% offset) at a load = 140.6 mm3.862 lb/in2. At a load of 260.00464 is h = 2.223 Given the two points: (1) σ = 78. (b) flow curve parameters K and n. (a) At h = 50 mm.862 = (0.714/78.0(1 . the height has been reduced to 1.6 mm2 F = 420.223/0.667) = 0. A cylindrical specimen of starting cross-section area = 1000 mm2 and height = 75 mm is compressed to a height of 58 mm.00464. True strain ε = ln(2.1) = 426.7 MPa Starting volume V = 75(1000) = 75. Solution: For h = 58 mm.5) 2/4 = 1.223 Yf = 620.223.000 = 0.293) = 0. 117.000. The flow curve equation is: σ = 137.25) = 0.6 = 2. True strain σ = 140.22 A steel test specimen (E = 30 x 106 lb/in2) in a compression test has a starting height = 2.223) .1 mm2 F = 521. ε = ln(62.00464) = 1.1(613. ε = ln(62.

3. wall thickness = 3 mm.24 A special ceramic specimen is tested in a bend test.25 A piece of metal is deformed in shear to an angle of 42° as shown in Figure P3. (b) shear strain.3. Solution: (a) τ = T/(2πR2t) = (900 x 1000)/(2π(25) 2(3)) = 76.23 A bend test is used for a certain hard material. Calculate the shear strength of the metal. and gage length = 2.86 MPa.3°.5(1700)(2. Hardness 3. what is the anticipated load at which the specimen is likely to fail.3(2π/360) = 0.3.(102 . and (c) shear modulus. assuming the specimen had not yet yielded.5) 2(0. If the transverse rupture strength of the material is known to be 1000 MPa. He claims that all hardness tests are based on the same principle as the Brinell test.252) = 163. which is that hardness is always measured as the 16 . In testing.5 x 0. Determine the BHN for the metal. Its cross-sectional dimensions are b = 0.25 in.0)/(0. Solution: S = (8000 x 12)/(2π(1.005236 rad. Determine the shear strain for this situation. a 1500 kg load is pressed into a specimen using a 10 mm diameter hardened steel ball.5) 2(0. Solution: (a) τ = T/(2πR2t) = (5000 x 12)/(2π(1. 3.200 lb/in2.5FL/bh2 = 1. γ = 1. (b) γ = Rα/L.005236)/50 = 0.39/0.26 A torsion test specimen has a radius = 25 mm. 3.5 in.01745)/2. α = .39 MPa.24 x 10 6 lb/in2.5) = 3000/(10π x 0.2 mm. (b) shear strain.0 in. 3. given that its dimensions are: b = 15 mm.22). G = τ/γ = 76. α = 1(2π/360) = 0. The length of the specimen between supports = 2.30 In a Brinell hardness test. Solution: γ = a/b = tan 42° = 0. Determine the transverse rupture strength if failure occurs at a load = 1700 lb.50 in and h = 0. wall thickness = 0.01309 (c) τ = Gγ.25.5L = 1000(15 x 102)/(1.29 In Problem 3.667 N..27. Determine: (a) the shear stress. the specimen fails at a torque = 8000 ft-lb and an angular deflection = 23°. What is the shear strength of the metal? Solution: S = (1200 x 1000)/(2π(25) 2(3)) = 101.002618 = 29. Determine: (a) the shear stress. and gage length = 50 mm. Solution: BHN = 2(1500)/(10π(10 . Solution: TRS = 1. a torque of 5000 ft-lb is applied which causes an angular deflection = 1° on a thin-walled tubular specimen whose radius = 1. G = τ/γ = 42.0 = 0.01309 = 3.1)) = 67.31 One of the inspectors in the quality control department has frequently used the Brinell and Rockwell hardness tests. 3. a torque of 900 N-m results in an angular deflection = 0.1)) = 42.5258) = 182 BHN 3.5(0. The resulting indentation has a diameter = 3.441/0.27 In a torsion test.441 lb/in2. failure of the specimen occurs at a torque = 1200 N-m and a corresponding angular deflection = 10°. (b) γ = Rα/L. for which equipment is available in the company. and (c) shear modulus.26. assuming the specimen had not yet yielded. 3.10 in. and L = 60 mm? Solution: F = (TRS)(bh2)/1. γ = 25(0.0 in.28 In Problem 3.5 x 60) = 16.906 lb/in2.179 MPa. h = 10 mm.002618 (c) τ = Gγ.9004.01745 rad.

30 that the specimen is steel. This lies outside the specified range of 60.2 in the text (page 47). The above formula for converting from BHN to TS is only an approximating equation. 3. However.000 lb/in2.36 A 125. Viscosity of Fluids 3.6 mm and length = 50.33 A batch of annealed steel has just been received from the vendor. which measures the depth of indentation of a cone resulting from an applied load.000 to 70. The space between them is occupied by a fluid of unknown viscosity.0 mm diameter shaft rotates inside a stationary bushing whose inside diameter = 125.0006 lb-sec/in2. (2) Scleroscope. 3.000 lb/in2. determine the coefficient of viscosity of the fluid.14 Pas. Solution: (a) TS = 500(BHN) = 500(118) = 59. are moving relative to each other at a velocity of 5 m/sec.555. and what are the associated tests? Solution: (a) No. the ratio of Y to TS for low carbon steel = 25. Not all hardness tests are based on the applied load divided by area. TS = 500(182) = 91. The shaft rotates at a velocity of 400 rev/min. Using this ratio.3 lb/in2)/(50 sec-1) = 0. It is supposed to have a tensile strength in the range 60.000) = 32. Solution: Shear rate = (5 m/s x 1000 mm/m)/(4 mm) = 1250 s-1 η = (10N/m2)/(1250 s-1) = 0. from a legal standpoint. estimate the tensile strength of the steel. what are some of the other principles involved in hardness testing.555(59. separated by a space of 4 mm.000 lb/in2.3 lb/in 2 due to the viscosity of the fluid. and (3) Durometer. For a tested hardness of BHN = 182. The motion is resisted by a shear stress of 0. are moving relative to each other at a velocity of 25 in/sec. Solution: The estimating formula is: TS = 500(BHN).34 Two flat plates.35 Two parallel surfaces.008 N-s/m2. we can estimate the yield strength to be Y = 0. (a) Is he correct? (b) If not. separated by a space of 0.5 in that is occupied by a fluid. (b) Some of the other hardness tests and operating principles include: (1) Rockwell hardness test. the claim is not correct. (b) Based on Table 3.0 mm. Based on the BHN determined in that problem. If the velocity gradient in the space between the surfaces is constant. A Brinell hardness test in the receiving department yields a value of BHN = 118.000 lb/in 2. (a) Does the steel meet the specification on tensile strength? (b) Estimate the yield strength of the material.5 in) = 50 sec-1 η = (0. which measures the rebound height of a hammer dropped from a certain distance against a surface specimen.32 Suppose in Problem 3. Assuming that the velocity gradient of the fluid is constant.000/45. The motion of the plates is resisted by a shear stress of 10 Pa due to the viscosity of the fluid. determine the viscosity of the fluid. which measures elastic deformation by pressing an indentor into the surface of rubber and similar soft materials. Solution: Shear rate = (25 in/sec)/(0. 17 .700 lb/in2.000 = 0.applied load divided by the area of the impressions made by an indentor. In the clearance between the shaft and the bushing is contained a lubricating oil whose viscosity = 0. 3. this speed and the action of the oil are sufficient to keep the shaft centered inside the bushing. but many of them are. it is unlikely that the batch can be rejected on the basis of its measured BHN without using an actual tensile test to measure TS.000 to 70. Determine the magnitude of the torque due to viscosity that acts to resist the rotation of the shaft. 3.

6) 2 x 50/4 = 19729.7 Pa = 1221.506 N-m 18 .1 N x 125/2 mm = 1506.6 .3 = 8726.7 N/mm2 Force on surface between shaft and bushing = (1221.Solution: Bushing internal bearing area A = π(125.2(10-6) m2 d = (125.6 mm2 = 19729.14)(8726.6 s-1 τ = (0.7 N/mm2)(19729.2(10-6)) = 24.6) = 1221.125)/2 = 0.0 mm/s Shear rate = 2618/0.4 N-mm = 1.3 mm v = (125π mm/rev)(400 rev/min)(1 min/60 sec) = 2618.1 N Torque T = 24.

9 Define the resistivity of a material. Thermal conductivity is the capacity of a material to transfer heat energy through itself by thermal movement only (no mass transfer). and time. Specific heat is defined as the quantity of heat required to raise the temperature of a unit mass of the material by one degree. Answer. Why are metals better conductors of electricity than ceramics and polymers? Answer. Density is the weight per unit volume. 4. 4. What are the important variables that affect mass diffusion? Answer.11 What is an electrolyte? 19 .7 Define thermal diffusivity. Ceramics and polymers have covalent and ionic bonding. 4.2 PHYSICAL PROPERTIES OF MATERIALS Define the property density of a material.8 4. Between the solidus and liquidus. while an alloy begins melting at a certain temperature called the solidus and finally completes the transformation to the molten state at a higher temperature called the liquidus. In the heating of a noncrystalline material such as glass.6 4. Metals are better conductors because of metallic bonding.4 Define the specific heat property of a material. finally converting to a liquid at a temperature defined for these materials as the melting point. mass diffusion depends on: diffusion coefficient which rises rapidly with temperature (so temperature could be listed as an important variable). What is the difference in melting characteristics between a pure metal element and an alloy metal? Answer. 4.4 4. A pure metal element melts at one temperature (the melting point). Answer. Answer.1 4. 4. Answer. The dielectric strength is defined as the electrical potential required to break down the insulator per unit thickness. Answer. in which the electrons are tightly bound to particular molecules. Review Questions 4. 4. Thermal diffusivity is the thermal conductivity divided by the volumetric specific heat. which permits electrons to move easily within the metal. According to Fick's first law.5 What is the thermal conductivity of a material? Answer.10 What is the dielectric strength of a material? Answer. the metal is a mixture of solid and liquid. the material begins to soften as temperature increases. contact area.3 Describe the melting characteristics of a noncrystalline material such as glass. Resistivity is the material's capacity to resist the flow of an electric current. concentration gradient.

(c) polyethylene. In these cases.2 4. and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point. (4. (b). Answer. This is perhaps a trick question. as time elapses. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers. (a) In the heating of most metal alloys. (b) zero conductivity. (e) temperature. which of the following temperatures marks the beginning of melting? (a) liquidus. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point. (b) The high thermal conductivity of copper makes it difficult to weld because the heat flows away from the joint rather than being concentrated to permit melting of the metal.5 Copper is generally considered easy to weld. 4. To attain a perfect score on the quiz. Answer.1 Which one of the following metals has the lowest density? (a) aluminum. (b) 4. (a). (b) 20 . 4. Answer. all correct answers must be given. or (d) silver. Choices (a) and (b) are included in Eq. (e).3 Polymers typically exhibit greater thermal expansion properties than metals: (a) true.8 A superconductor is characterized by which of the following (choose one best answer): (a) very low resistivity. Answer. An electrolyte is an ionized solution capable of conducting electric current by movement of the ions. or (d) water.4 Which of the following materials has the highest specific heat? (a) aluminum.7 Which of the following pure metals is the best conductor of electricity? (a) aluminum. Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 12 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct).Answer. Answer. (b) copper. or (d) tin. Answer.6 The mass diffusion rate dm/dt across a boundary between two different metals is a function of which of the following variables (more than one): (a) concentration gradient dc/dx. Time (f) figures into the process because it affects the concentration gradient. (d) melting point. 4. (c) 4. the concentration gradient is reduced so that the rate of diffusion is reduced. because of its high thermal conductivity: (a) true. (d) 4. melting begins at a certain temperature and concludes at a higher temperature. and (f) time. and (f). (c) gold. since each correct answer is worth 1 point. (d) 4. Temperature (e) has a strong influence on the diffusion coefficient. (b) contact area. of (b) solidus. (c) magnesium. For each question. (c) density. (b) concrete. or (b) false. (b) copper. or (b) false. Answer. or (c) resistivity properties between those of conductors and semiconductors? Answer.5).

Solution: For steel.0003T2 T2 = -46.20) -0.9 In an electrolytic cell.0 cal = 4. Solution: R = rL/A. the anode is the electrode which is (a) positive.70 g/cm3 at room temperature (20°C). α = 12(10-6) mm/mm/°C according to Table 4.0 in.1) 2/4 = 0.0 + 24(10-6)(1. 4. determine the quantity of heat required to increase the temperature of an aluminum block that is 10 cm x 10 cm x 10 cm from room temperature (21°C) to 300°C.D1 = αD1 (T2 .007854(10-6) m2) = 2164. the shaft must be reduced in diameter by cooling.04605 cm3 Assume weight remains the same. Heat = (0.7 x 10-8 Ω-m2/m)(10 m)/( 0.04605 = 2.4 With reference to Table 4.00 = 12(10-6)(25.20) = 1.70°F) = 0. Refer to Table 4.01512) 3 = 1.02 = 300(10-6)(T2 .21°C) = 158. using data in Table 4.7 x 10-8 Ω-m2/m R = (1.1) to D2 .193 cal.1.1.196 J. This shaft is to be inserted into a hole in an expansion fit assembly operation.21 cal/g-°C)(103 cm3)(2. Conversion: 1.1 as a reference.02 = 0.20) = 0.1. (4. determine the increase in length of a steel bar whose length = 10. 1 cm on each side.70 g/cm3)(300°C . Solution: Assume a 1 cm3 cube.006 -.T2).1.0003(T2 .0 in)(500°F .T2).25.10 mm? Use Table 4.007854 mm2 = 0. (a) Problems 4.014 = 0.2 Aluminum has a density of 2.0003T2 -0.00)(T2 .3 as a reference.4. 24.02 + 0.3 With reference to Table 4. From Table 4.2.0003T2 . Solution.67° C ° 4.98 .L1 = αL1 (T2 . Solution: Increase = (6.65 Ω 21 .581 g/cm3 4. Revise Eq.7 x 10-6 in/in/F)(10.00 mm. α = 24(10-6) mm/mm/°C L2 .0288 in.0.20) -0.006 = 0. To be readily inserted.007854(10-6) m2 From Table 4.98 mm. Answer. 4.5 What is the resistance R of a length of copper wire whose length = 10 m and whose diameter = 0.184J. r = 1.1 The starting diameter of a shaft is 25. if the bar is heated from room temperature (70°F) to 500°F. thus ρ at 650°C = 2. or (b) negative. Determine its density at 650°C. A = π(0.3.01512 cm (L2 )3 = (1. so heat = 662. Determine the temperature to which the shaft must be reduced from room temperature (20°C) in order to reduce its diameter to 24. L2 = 1.0)(650 .5(10-2) Ω = 21.70/1.

Surface roughness measurement provides only a single value of surface texture. and flaws. TOLERANCES.3 Define nominal surface. Roughness consists of the finely-spaced deviations from the nominal surface. AND SURFACES What is a tolerance? Answer.5 5.6 Within the scope of surface texture. 5. Surface texture is the random and repetitive deviations from the nominal surface. 5. 5. 5. safety. Answer. A tolerance is defined as the total amount by which a specified dimension is permitted to vary. effect of surface on mechanical and physical properties. Answer. 5. Surface roughness is defined as the average value of the vertical deviations from the nominal surface over a specified surface length.9 Indicate some of the limitations of using surface roughness as a measure of surface texture. Answer. and thermal electrical contacts. 5. 5. see Eqs.4 Define surface texture. how is roughness distinguished from waviness? Answer. Among its limitations are: (1) it varies depending on direction. The reasons why surfaces are important include: aesthetics.1) and (5. perfectly round if referring to a round surface. mating of components in assembly. Roughness deviations lie within waviness deviations.10 Identify some of the changes and injuries that can occur at or immediately below the surface of a metal. AA and RMS are alternative methods by which the average roughness value is computed.7 Surface roughness is a measurable aspect of surface texture. (2) it does not indicate lay. The nominal surface is the ideal part surface represented on an engineering drawing. friction and wear. waviness. Review Questions 5.8 What is the difference between AA and RMS in surface roughness measurement? Answer. What are some of the reasons why surfaces are important? Answer. including roughness.2 DIMENSIONS.3) in the text. It is assumed perfectly smooth. etc. lay. (5.1 5. Surface texture refers only to the surface geometry. surface integrity includes not only surface but the altered layers beneath the surface.5 How is surface texture distinguished from surface integrity? Answer. what does surface roughness mean? Answer. perfectly flat if referring to a planar surface. while waviness refers to the deviations of larger spacing. (3) its value depends on the roughness width cutoff L used to measure the average. 22 .

(b) measurement error. (c) 5. (c) cylindricity. 5. flame cutting). 5. and thermal cutting (e. (c) heat affected zone.13 Name some manufacturing processes that produce very good or excellent surface finishes. (b) feed marks of the tool that produced the surface. (d) oil films. Answer. 5. (a) and (d).3 Surface texture includes which of the following characteristics of a surface (may be more than one)? (a) deviations from the nominal surface. etc.1 A tolerance is which one of the following? (a) clearance between a shaft and a mating hole. (c) total permissible variation from a specified dimension. sawing. (c) hardness variations. variations in hardness near the surface.. (a). (c). and (d) roundness. Answer. Answer. (b) 5. polishing. The changes and injuries include: cracks. and superfinishing. Energy input resulting from the manufacturing process used to generate the surface. and (e). residual stresses. or (f) voids. 5. Answer. The energy forms can be any of several types. or (d) variation in manufacturing. and (e). (b) concentricity. chemical.Answer.12 Name some manufacturing processes that produce very poor surface finishes. (b) hardness variations. intergranular attack. (d) plastic deformation.1). Processes that produced very good and excellent surfaces include: honing. (e) recrystallization. (see Table 5. and (e) surface cracks. Answer. (b). Processes that produce poor surfaces include: sand casting. craters.5 5. (b). Answer. (a) AA or (b) RMS? Answer. 5. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers.11 What causes the various types of changes that occur in the altered layer just beneath the surface? Answer. lapping. all correct answers must be given. and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point.2 Which of the following two geometric terms have the same meaning? (a) circularity. 5. (a) Thermal energy is normally associated with which of the following changes in the altered layer? (a) cracks. Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 19 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct).g. including mechanical. To attain a perfect score on the quiz. since each correct answer is worth 1 point. metallurgical changes resulting from heat. hot rolling. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point. and electrical. 23 . thermal.6 Surface texture is included within the scope of surface integrity: (a) true or (b) false. Answer. For each question.4 Which averaging method generally yields the higher value of surface roughness.

or (e) sawing. Also. Answer. (b) Which of the following are included within the scope of surface integrity? (a) chemical absorption. (c) machining. (d) sand casting. (e). Answer. Answer. (c) machining. (e) surface roughness. Answer.8 5. (d) substrate microstructure.9 5. (b) 5.7 A better finish (lower roughness value) will tend to have which of the following effects on fatigue strength of a metal surface? (a) increase. or (e) sawing. (b) grinding. (a). (d) sand casting.5. sawing (e) will yield a poor finish. or (c) no effect. (d). or (f) variation in tensile strength near the surface. 24 . (c).10 Which one of the following manufacturing processes will likely result in the worst surface finish? (a) cold rolling. (b). Accept either answer. and (f) Which one of the following manufacturing processes will likely result in the best surface finish? (a) arc welding. (c) microcracks beneath the surface. (b) microstructure near the surface. (b) decrease. (b) grinding.

5 Distinguish between a substitutional solid solution and an interstitial solid solution. Cr. The carbon content ranges from 2. Ferrous metals. and Ni increase hardenability during heat treatment. 25 .02% to 2.g. The Cu-Ni alloy system is simple because it is a solid solution alloy throughout its entire composition range. What are the two major groups of metals? Define them.. Cr and Mo improve hot hardness.11%. What is the range of carbon percentages which defines an iron-carbon alloy as cast iron? Answer. Answer.. such as a metallic compound (e.11% to about 5%. Why is it so simple? Answer. and V.10 Identify some of the common alloying elements other than carbon in low alloy steels. A solid solution is an alloy in which one of the metallic elements is dissolved in another to form a single phase. which are based on iron.6 6. at least one of which is metallic. Mo. as indicated by its phase diagram. Mn. 6. Mg2Pb) is formed. Metallic properties include: high strength and stiffness. Answer. which includes all others. we should also mention the most important. 6.g. 6.11 What are some of the mechanisms by which the alloying elements other than carbon strengthen steel. What is the definition of an alloy? Answer. Mn.6 What is an intermediate phase in the context of alloys? Answer. The common alloying elements in low alloy steel are Cr.3 6.2 6. An intermediate phase is an alloy formed when the solubility limit of the base metal in the mixture is exceeded and a new phase.8 6. All of the alloying elements other than C strengthen the steel by solid solution alloying.4 METALS What are some of the general properties that distinguish metals from ceramics and polymers? Answer.1 6. Fe 3C) or intermetallic compound (e. A substitutional solid solution is where the atoms of dissolved element replace atoms of the solution element in the lattice structure of the metal. What is a solid solution in the context of alloys? Answer. Mo. An alloy is a metal comprised of two or more elements. and higher density than ceramics or polymers. Answer. An interstitial solid solution is where the dissolved atoms are small and fit into the vacant spaces (the interstices) in the lattice structure of the solvent metal. and nonferrous. Ni. good electrical and thermal conductivity. 6. 6.7 The copper-nickel system is a simple alloy system. which is C. Review Questions 6. Answer.9 What is the range of carbon percentages which defines an iron-carbon alloy as a steel? Answer. The carbon content ranges from 0.

The important applications are: (1) die castings . 6.18 What is the most important engineering property of copper which determines most of its applications? Answer.13 What is the predominant alloying element in all of the stainless steels? Answer. (3) as an alloying element with copper to form brass.Several of the alloying elements (Cr.19 What elements are traditionally alloyed with copper to form (a) bronze and (b) brass? Answer. propensity to oxidize (which can cause problems in processing).16 Identify some of the properties for which aluminum is noted? Answer. The reason is that nickel has the effect of enlarging the austenitic temperature range to include room temperature. It is called austenitic because this alloy exists in its austenitic phase at room temperature. and low strength. (a) tin. 6. corrosion resistance (due to the formation of a thin but tough oxide film). Vanadium inhibits grain growth during heat treatment which improves strength and toughness. 6. stainless steel. which increases wear resistance. Answer. formability. Magnesium is noted for its very low density (lightest of the structural metals). 6. Its high electrical conductivity. 6. (b) zinc. Silicon. 6. The important applications are: (1) as an alloying ingredient in steel.23 What important alloy is formed from lead and tin? 26 .15 Besides high carbon content. Mo.zinc is an easy metal to cast. however. 6. and (3) to form nickel-based alloys noted for high-temperature performance and corrosion resistance.17 What are some of the noteworthy properties of magnesium? Answer.12 What is the mechanism by which carbon strengthens steel in the absence of heat treatment? Answer. Titanium is noted for its high strength-to-weight ratio. and high temperature strength. e.14 Why is austenitic stainless steel called by that name? Answer. If no heat treatment carbon strengthens by creating a two-phase structure in the steel. and ability to be alloyed and strengthened to achieve good strength-to-weight ratios. (2) as a coating in galvanized steel. (2) for plating of steel to resist corrosion. it can be alloyed and strengthened by methods similar to those used for aluminum alloys to achieve respectable strength-to-weight ratios.g. high electrical and thermal conductivity.20 What are some of the important applications of nickel? Answer. V) form hard carbides with C. 6. Aluminum is noted for its low density.21 What are the noteworthy properties of titanium? Answer.22 Identify some of the important applications of zinc. 6. 6.. Chromium. good corrosion resistance due to the formation of a tough oxide film on its surface. 6. what other alloying element is characteristic of the cast irons? Answer. 6.

24 (a) Name the important refractory metals. To attain a perfect score on the quiz.26 The superalloys divide into three basic groups. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers.1 Which of the following properties or characteristics are inconsistent with the metals (more than one)? (a) good thermal conductivity. Answer. 6. Answer. (b) cementite. Solder. (b) copper.3 The predominant phase in the iron-carbon alloy system for a composition with 99% Fe at room temperature is which of the following? (a) austenite. platinum.most of the commercial heat treatments are designed to increase the strength of the metal. (a) The refractory metals include columbium (Cb). (c) high electrical resistivity. or (e) ionic bonding. (c) iron. since each correct answer is worth 1 point. or (e) silicon. in which the strain-hardened metal is stronger and harder than the unstrained metal. and tungsten (W). Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 23 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct). gold.2 Which of the metallic elements is the most abundant on the earth? (a) aluminum. (c) delta. (b) Refractory means the capability to withstand high temperature service. 6. 6.25 (a) Name the four principal noble metals. molybdenum (Mo). (a) The principal noble metals are copper. The three groups are: (1) iron-based alloys. tantalum (Ta). Mo and W are the most important. 6. and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point. (b) Why are they called noble metals? Answer. and silver. Answer. according to the base metal used in the alloy. 6. 6.Answer. The superalloys are generally distinguished by their strength and resistance to corrosion and oxidation at elevated temperatures.27 What is so special about the superalloys? What distinguishes them from other alloys? Answer. (b) Nobel metals are so-named because they are chemically inactive. 6. (d) ferrite. (b) What does the term refractory mean? Answer. (c) and (e). (d) 27 . For each question. (b) high strength. Name the three groups. (d) magnesium. and (3) cobalt-based alloys.28 What are the three basic methods by which metals can be strengthened? Answer. all correct answers must be given. The three basic methods are: (1) alloying to form solid solutions and two-phase structures which are stronger than the elemental metals. and (3) heat treatment . or (e) gamma. (a) 6. (2) nickel-based alloys. (2) cold working. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point. Answer. (d) high stiffness.

or (e) tungsten. (c) cementite. (c) platinum. Answer.0% carbon is known as which of the following: (a) eutectoid. (c) nickel.6 6. (a). Answer. (b) copper. Answer. (e) zinc. (b) manganese. (a) and (d). (d) 12XX. or (e) scheelite. (b) hypoeutectoid. Answer. (d) molybdenum. (d) hematite. (c) 11XX.13 Which of the following metals has the highest density? (a) gold. (b) 6. (c) gold. (b) Which of the following elements is the most important alloying ingredient in steel? (a) carbon.15 Which of the following metals possess good electrical conductivity (more than one)? (a) aluminum. (a) 6. (c) nickel. or (d) titanium. (c) molybdenum. and (e) tungsten. 28 . (c) gold. (b) lead. Answer. (b) copper. (b) 6. Answer. (b) bauxite. (e) zinc. 6.6. (b) magnesium. 6. (c) 6.16 Traditional brass is an alloy of which of the following metallic elements? (a) aluminum. (b) 10XX. and (d). Answer. (c) The strength and hardness of steel increases as carbon content increases: (a) true of (b) false.9 6. (b) gray cast iron.11 Which of the following is the most important cast iron commercially? (a) ductile cast iron. Answer. or (e) 30XX. or (e) tungsten.5 6. or (d) wrought iron. (e) Solid solution alloying is the principal strengthening mechanism in high-strength low-alloy (HSLA) steels: (a) true or (b) false. (b). (c). (d) tin. or (d) white cast iron.10 Which of the following alloying elements are most commonly associated with stainless steel (name two)? (a) chromium. Answer. (b) chromium. Answer. Answer. (b) manganese. (d) silver. (b) 6.12 Which of the following metals has the lowest density? (a) aluminum. (d) vanadium. or (e) vanadium. (a) Which of the following is not a common alloying ingredient in steel? (a) chromium. (d) nickel.7 6.4 A steel with 1. Answer. (a) Plain carbon steels are designated in the AISI code system by which of the following? (a) 01XX.14 From which of the following ores is aluminum derived? (a) alumina. (c) tin. (d) silver. (c) malleable iron.8 6. (c) hypereutectoid.

2 mm. Solution: From Fig 6.41 6. measured values of CL and CS are: CL = 10.3. Solution: From Fig 6.5 mm. if the lead-tin proportion is 67%-33%. Liquid phase proportion = 15/(15 + 10. determine the liquid and solid phase compositions for a nominal composition of 90% Sn and 10% Pb at 204°C (400°F).32 α phase proportion = 7.2.4 Using the lead-tin phase diagram in Figure 6. is it possible to design a solder (lead-tin alloy) with a melting point of 260°C (500°F). the compositions are observed as follows: Liquid phase composition = 56% Sn .59 α phase proportion = 10.2/(13) = 0.7 For the preceding problem.3.2% Pb.3 For the lead-tin phase diagram of Figure 6.3.17 Which of the following has the lowest melting point? (a) aluminum. β phase composition = 98% Sn .82% Pb.3. Solution: From Fig 6. Solution: From Fig 6. the compositions are observed as follows: Liquid phase composition = 78% Sn . Solution: From Fig 6. Liquid phase proportion = 12/(12 + 5) = 12/17 = 0. measured values of CL and CS are: CL = 7.22% Pb.8 mm. (d) tin.3. the compositions are observed as follows: Liquid phase composition = 65% Ni . determine the liquid and solid phase compositions for a nominal composition of 40% Sn and 60% Pb at 204°C (400°F).5 = 0.2.44% Pb. CS = 4. measured values of CL and CS are: CL = 5 mm. (b) lead.3. 6. 6. α phase composition = 18% Sn . 6. 6. find the compositions of the liquid and solid phases for a nominal composition of 70% Ni and 30% Cu at 1371°C (2500°F). Solution: From Fig 6. If so. use the inverse lever rule to determine the proportions of liquid and solid phases present in the alloy. 6.5) = 15/25.3.8/13 = 0. CS = 12 mm.5 = 0.71 Solid phase proportion = 5/17 = 0.5 For the preceding problem.35% Cu. Solid phase composition = 83% Ni . (b) and (e).2.Answer. use the inverse lever rule to determine the proportions of liquid and solid phases present in the alloy. Liquid phase proportion = 4.68 29 . (d) Problems 6.6 Using the lead-tin phase diagram in Figure 6. use the inverse lever rule to determine the proportions of liquid and solid phases present in the alloy.29 6. or (e) zinc.17% Cu.5/25.2 For the preceding problem.1 For the copper-nickel phase diagram in Figure 6. (c) magnesium. Answer. CS = 15 mm. what would be its nominal composition? Solution: It is possible to obtain such a solder.

Solution: (a) Alpha + iron carbide. 30 . (b) gamma + iron carbide.8 In the iron-iron carbide phase diagram of Figure 6. identify the phase or phases present at the following temperatures and nominal compositions: (a) 650°C (1200°F) and 2% Fe 3C. (b) 760°C (1400°F) and 2% Fe 3C.4.6. and (c) 1095°C (2000°F) and 1% Fe 3C. and (c) gamma.

nonmetallic compound. Oxygen. high melting temperatures. aluminum. The term is sometimes also applied to metals that are heat resistant.1 7. What are the general mechanical properties of ceramic materials? Answer. medium density (typically below the density of metals). 7. used in making ceramic products? Answer. usually formed into useful products by a heating process.8 7. 31 . 7. What are the general physical properties of ceramic materials? Answer. pottery. usually to a porous ceramic product such as earthenware.11 What is glazing.. Review Questions 7. oxides. carbides). Usually electrical and thermal insulators. brittle. 7. What is the difference between the traditional ceramics and the new ceramics? Answer. while most other ceramics assume a crystalline structure. thermal expansion usually less than metals.7 7. no ductility. to make the product more impervious to moisture and more attractive. the usually kaolinite (Al2(Si2O5)(OH)4).. What are the four most common elements in the earth's crust? Answer.5 7.g.7 Why are graphite and diamond not classified as ceramics? Answer. Traditional ceramics are based primarily on clay products (e.3 CERAMICS What is a ceramic is. Glazing involves the application of a surface coating of oxides such as alumina and silica. Refractories are heat resistant ceramic materials. What do bauxite and corundum have in common? Answer.10 What is clay. 7. bricks) while new ceramics are more recently developed ceramics which are generally simpler in chemical composition (e. Covalent and ionic bonding. They are both minerals of alumina. Because they are not compounds. as applied to ceramics? Answer. Answer.9 What type of atomic bonding characterizes the ceramics? Answer. Usually high hardness. Glass is noncrystalline (amorphous). silicon.4 What is the feature that distinguishes glass from the traditional and new ceramics? Answer. Clay most commonly consists of hydrous aluminum silicate. 7.6 7.12 What does the term refractory mean? Answer.2 7. A ceramic is an inorganic. and iron.g. they are alternative forms of the element carbon.

lenses). or silicon dioxide (SiO 2). Silicon. Answer.18 What are some of the functions of the ingredients that are added to glass in addition to silica. (6) adding color to the glass. or water.19 What does the term devitrification mean? Answer. (c) iron. Important applications of WC-Co include: cutting tool inserts.2 Glass products are based primarily on which one of the following minerals? (a) alumina. 7. as mentioned in the text? Answer.7. basic substances. (4) reducing thermal expansion in the final product. rock drilling bits. Glass is an inorganic.15 What elements comprise the ceramic material Sialon? Answer. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point. oxygen. 7. 7. 7.1 Which one of the following is the most common element in the earth's crust? (a) aluminum. (c) feldspar. As a thin coating on cutting tools to prolong tool life. 7. and other applications where hardness is a critical factor. and nitrogen. (b) calcium. and (7) altering the index of refraction for optics applications (e. Silica. Answer. (d) kaolinite.17 What is the primary mineral in glass products? Answer. in which covalent bonding exists between atoms in the layers.20 What is graphite? Answer. Devitrification is the transformation from the glassy state into a polycrystalline state. Graphite is carbon in the form of hexagonal crystalline layers. dies for powder metallurgy. (3) retarding devitrification . 7.. and the (parallel) layers are bonded by van der Waals forces. Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 18 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct). drawing dies. (5) increasing the chemical resistance against attack by acids. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers.16 Define glass. 7. such as WC-Co? Answer. To attain a perfect score on the quiz. 7. (d) oxygen.14 What is one of the important applications of titanium nitride.g. all correct answers must be given.13 What are some of the principal applications of the cemented carbides. (2) increasing fluidity in the molten glass during processing. (b) corundum. aluminum.the tendency to crystallize from the glassy state. (e) 32 . For each question. The functions of the additional ingredients include: (1) acting as flux (promoting fusion) during heating. or (e) silicon. nonmetallic material which cools to a rigid solid without crystallization. Answer. since each correct answer is worth 1 point. and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point. (d) 7. Answer. or (e) silica. thus leading to highly anisotropic properties.

(c) porcelain. (d) quartz. (a) and (d) Which one of the following is generally the most porous of the clay-based pottery ware? (a) china. and (c).13 The specific gravity of graphite is closest to which one of the following: (a) 1. or (b) false.0. 7. (c) 7. (b) calcium oxide. (c) porcelain.5 7.0. or (e) SiO 2. or (b) false. relative to other ceramics. Which of the following ceramics are commonly used as abrasives in grinding wheels (two best answers)? (a) aluminum oxide. or (e) silicon dioxide. (b) 95% vitreous. (a) 7. or (d) stoneware.3 Which of the following contains significant amounts of aluminum oxide (more than one)? (a) alumina.7.0 (b) 2. (c) 4. or (d) stoneware. (b) earthenware. (c) Which one of the following comes closest to expressing the chemical composition of clay? (a) Al2O3.0.14 Synthetic diamonds date to: (a) ancient times. (c) 3AL2O3-2SiO2. (b) bauxite. 7. or (d) 1980. or (e) tungsten carbide. Answer. (b) 7.6 7. Answer. (c) 33 . (b) Which of the following is fired at the highest temperatures? (a) china. Answer. (d) silicon carbide. (a) 7. (c) cubic boron nitride. Answer. (d) MgO.7 7. (c) high thermal expansion. (c) carbon monoxide. Answer.4 7. (b) earthenware. (b) electrical conductor. (c) 1950s. (b) Glass ceramics are polycrystalline ceramic structures that have been transformed into the glassy state: (a) true. Glass ceramics are glasses that have been transformed into a mostly crystalline form through heat treatment.10 Which of the following best characterizes the structure of glass-ceramics? (a) 95% polycrystalline. (d) silicon dioxide. or (e) sandstone.11 Properties and characteristics of the glass-ceramics include which of the following (may be more than one)? (a) efficiency in processing. Answer. (a) and (d). (a). (b) carbon dioxide.12 Diamond is the hardest material known: (a) true. Answer. Answer. Answer. Answer. (b) It's reversed in the statement. or (b) 50% polycrystalline.9 Which one of the following materials is closest to diamond in hardness? (a) aluminum oxide. (c) corundum. Answer. or (e) 16. Answer. (b) 1800s. (d) 8. (b).8 7.0. or (d) strong. (b) Al2(Si2O5)(OH)4.

How do the properties of polymers compare with those of metals? Answer. 8. An example is ABS (acrylonitrile-butadiene-styrene) plastic.9 The arrangement of repeating units in a copolymer can vary.11 How are a polymer's properties affected when it takes on a crystalline structure? 34 . called mers. 8. connected end to end. What are the three basic categories of polymers? Answer. 8.1.10 What is a terpolymer? Answer.6 Define the term tacticity as it applies to polymers. The degree of polymerization indicates the average number of mers or repeating units in the polymer molecule. if cross-linking is significant.1. In addition. It causes the polymer structure to be permanently altered.5 What does the degree of polymerization indicate? Answer. What are some of the possible arrangements? Answer. 8.4 What are the two methods by which polymerization occurs? Briefly describe the two methods.4 for descriptions.3 POLYMERS What is a polymer? Answer. (2) thermosetting polymers. such as ethylene and propylene. 8. and temperature resistance compared to metals. hardness. 8. the polymer is transformed into an elastomer.2 8. See Article 10. In general. The two types of polymerization are: (1) addition or chain polymerization and (2) step polymerization. Answer. The categories are: (1) thermoplastics. A copolymer is a polymer made up of two different types of mers. Tacticity refers to the way the atoms or atom groups replacing H atoms in the molecule are arranged.8 What is a copolymer? Answer. A polymer is a compound that consists of long-chain molecules. and (4) graft. polymers have lower strength. There are four possible arrangements of the mers along the chain: (1) alternating. Cross-linking is the formation of connections between the long-chain molecules in a polymer. density. Answer. also known as condensation polymerization. and (3) elastomers. polymers are low in electrical and thermal conductivity.8 8. The molecules consist of repeating units. A terpolymer is a polymer with three different mer types. (3) block.1 8.1 for descriptions. Review Questions 8.7 What is cross-linking in a polymer and what is its significance? Answer. (2) random. stiffness. 8. If the amount of cross-linking is low. the polymer is transformed into a thermosetting polymer. See Article 10.

16 In addition to fillers and plasticizers. atactic polymers never form crystals. 35 . 8.12 Does any polymer ever become 100% crystalline? Answer.14 Why are fillers added to a polymer? Answer. Density.17 Describe the difference in mechanical properties as a function of temperature between a highly crystalline thermoplastic and an amorphous thermoplastic. 8. A plasticizer is a chemical added to the polymer to make it softer and more flexible. Cellulose is a polymer that grows in nature. flame retardents.22 How do the properties of thermosetting polymers differ from those of thermoplastics? Answer. These differences account for HDPE higher density. No. 8. 8. capable of higher service temperatures. (5) plasticizers inhibit crystal formation. 8. and ultraviolet light absorbers.to reduce friction and improve flow. and (6) stretching the polymer tends to promote crystallization. Factors are: (1) only linear polymers can form crystals.21 What is the basic difference between low density and high density polyethylene? Answer.15 What is a plasticizer? Answer. Other additives include: lubricants . 8. the monomer for polyethylene? Answer. 8. stiffness. it becomes increasingly like a liquid as temperature continues to increase. Thermosets are more rigid. Answer. A highly crystalline TP retains rigidity during heating until just before its Tm is reached. and cannot be remelted. Wood fiber contains about 50% cellulose and cotton fiber is about 95% cellulose. stiffness. and melting point. and melting temperature increase. 8. It is often added to improve the polymer's flow characteristics for shaping. what are some other additives used with polymers? Answer.18 What is unique about the polymer cellulose? Answer. (4) slow cooling from the molten states promotes crystal formation. (2) copolymers do not form crystals.19 The nylons are members of which polymer group? Answer. LDPE has a branched structure and is amorphous. Name the three ways. Fillers are added to increase strength or simply to reduce the cost of the polymer. 8.isotactic polymers always form crystals.23 Cross-linking (curing) of thermosetting plastics is accomplished by one of three ways. Polyamides.Answer. (3) stereoregularity .20 What is the chemical formula of ethylene. and syndiotactic polymers sometimes form crystals. C2H4 8. colorants. cross-linking agents. An amorphous TP shows a significant drop in deformation resistance at its Tg as temperature is raised. brittle.13 What are some of the factors that influence a polymer's tendency to crystallize? Answer. antioxidants. 8. HDPE is linear and highly crystalline. 8.

2 Which one of the three polymer types is not normally considered to be a plastic? (a) thermoplastics.5 Which of the following is the chemical formula for the repeating unit in polyethylene? (a) CH2. and (2) their extensibility derives from physical connections between different phases in the polymer. 8.4 As the degree of crystallinity in a given polymer increases. or (c) elastomers. in which small amounts of a catalyst cause cross-linking. For each question. (2) catalyst-activated systems. 8. Elastomers are lightly cross-linked. TPEs are different in two basic ways: (1) they exhibit thermoplastic properties. the polymer becomes denser and stiffer. 8. whereas thermosets are highly cross-linked. (c) 8. (d) C5H8. and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point. or (c) elastomers. Answer. in which elevated temperatures accomplish curing. Answer. Answer. (c) C3H6. Why are their properties so different? Answer. Answer.3 Which one of the three polymer types does not involve cross. To attain a perfect score on the quiz.linking? (a) thermoplastics. or (c) elastomers. Light cross-linking allows extensibility. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers. (a) 8. since each correct answer is worth 1 point. in which two reactive components are mixed and curing occurs by their chemical reaction. (b) thermosets. Polyisoprene. (a) 8. Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 25 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct). each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point. The three ways are: (1) temperature-activated systems. 8. An elastomer is hard and brittle below its Tg.25 What happens to an elastomer when it is below its glass transition temperature? Answer.Answer. (b) thermosets.26 What is the primary polymer ingredient in natural rubber? Answer. (b) Melting temperature increases with higher degree of crystallinity. (b) thermosets. (b) 36 .linked. Answer.27 How are thermoplastic elastomers different from conventional rubbers? Answer. a highly cross-linked structure makes the polymer rigid. 8.1 Of the three polymer types. and (3) mixing-activated systems.24 Elastomers and thermosetting polymers are both cross. all correct answers must be given. 8. or (e) C8H8. which one is the most important commercially? (a) thermoplastics. (b) C2H4. and its melting temperature decreases: (a) true or (b) false.

Answer. (b) thermosetting.10 Which answers complete the following sentence correctly (more than one): As the temperature of an amorphous thermoplastic polymer is gradually reduced. (b) As temperature of a polymer increases. (a) A branched molecular structure is stronger in the solid state and more viscous in the molten state than a linear structure for the same polymer: (a) true or (b) false. or (c) remains fairly constant.11 Which of the following plastics has the highest market share? (a) phenolics. Answer. 8. (d) polystyrene. (b) cellulose acetate.6 Degree of polymerization is which one of the following? (a) average number of mers in the molecule chain. Answer. (e) polyethylene. (c) polypropylene. (b) proportion of the monomer that has been polymerized. the most widely used commercially is which of the following: (a) epoxies. (b) polyethylene. Answer. (b) 8. (b) 8. (c) sum of the molecule weights of the mers in the molecule. or (e) polypropylene. (b) decreases. strong. (a). (d) the polymer becomes stiff.9 8. its density (a) increases. or (f) polyurethane.14 The fiber rayon used in textiles is based on which of the following polymers: (a) cellulose. and (e).8. (c) polyester. or (d) none of the above. Answer. Answer.17 Polyurethanes can be which of the following (more than one): (a) thermoplastic.15 The basic difference between low density polyethylene and high density polyethylene is that the latter has a much higher degree of crystallinity: (a) true or (b) false.12 Which of the following polymers are normally thermoplastic (more than one): (a) acrylics. or (d) urethanes. Answer. (a) A copolymer is a mixture consisting of macromolecules of two different homopolymers: (a) true or (b) false. and elastic. (a) 8. (c) the slope of specific volume versus temperature changes markedly. (b) phenolics. Answer. (c) and (d). or (e) the polymer solidifies from the molten state.16 Among the thermosetting polymers.13 Polystyrene (without plasticizers) is amorphous. transparent. (b) the coefficient of thermal expansion increases markedly. (b) 8. and brittle: (a) true or (b) false. (c). 37 . 8. (a) 8. (d) polychloroprene. Answer. Answer.8 8. Answer.7 8. (c) nylon. (b) nylon. or (e) polyvinylchloride. (b). or (c) elastomeric. the glass transition temperature Tg is indicated when (a) the polymer transforms to a crystalline structure. (a) 8. (c) silicones. (d) polyethylene.

(a). (c) polybutadiene. (d) C5H8. (e) 38 .19 The leading commercial synthetic rubber is which of the following: (a) butyl rubber. Answer. or (f) thermoplastic elastomers. 8. (c) C3H6. and (c). Answer. (d) 8. (d) polyurethane.18 The chemical formula for polyisoprene in natural rubber is which of the following: (a) CH2. (e) styrene-butadiene rubber.Answer. (b). (b) C2H4. or (e) C8H8. (b) isoprene rubber.

Answer. in which the core is a honeycomb structure sandwiched between two solid skins. The forms are: (1) fibers. printed circuit boards. Metal matrix composites (MMCs). Answer. 9. ceramic matrix composites (CMCs). 9.7 9. (3) anisotropic properties in many cases. (2) good fatigue properties and toughness. such as wood. plywood. Review Questions 9. and polymer matrix composites (PMCs). 9. Answer. 9. hairlike crystal of very high strength.9 Give some examples of commercial products which are laminar composite structures. snow skis made from fiber reinforced polymers. 9. (2) particles and flakes. some of them are obtained from sources in nature. Synthetic composites are manufactured. The two forms are: (1) foamed-core sandwich.1 9.9 9.2 are: automotive tires. Typical properties include: (1) high strength-to.10 What are the three general factors that determine the properties of a composite material? 39 .3 What does the term anisotropic mean? Answer.4 How are traditional composites distinguished from synthetic composites? Answer. honeycomb sandwich structures. or polymers alone. and (2) honeycomb.5 Name the three basic categories of composite materials. A whisker is a thin. Identify some of the characteristic properties of composite materials. and (3) an infiltrated phase in skeletal structures.8 What is a whisker? Answer.6 What are the common forms of the reinforcing phase in composite materials? Answer. 9. fiber reinforced polymer structures such as boat hulls.2 COMPOSITE MATERIALS What is a composite material? Answer. Examples given in Table 9. and (4) other properties and features that are difficult or impossible to obtain with metals.weight and stiffness-to-weight ratios. What are the two forms of sandwich structure among laminar composite structures? Briefly describe each. Traditional composites have been used for decades or centuries. and windshield glass. Answer. Anisotropic means that the properties of a material vary depending on the direction in which they are measured. ceramics. in which the core is polymer foam between two solid skins. A composite material is a materials system consisting of two or more distinct phases whose combination results in properties that differ from those of its constituents.

To attain a perfect score on the quiz. and a variety of other items. it is defined as a composite consisting of ceramic grains imbedded in a metallic matrix.16 What does the term advanced composites mean? Answer. good fatigue strength. Three factors are given in the text: (1) the component materials. although the cemented carbide industry does not generally think of cemented carbides as cermets.the reinforcing phase in particular . poor toughness. 9.15 What is the most common fiber material in fiber-reinforced plastics? Answer. Properties include: high strength-to-weight ratio.18 Identify some of the important properties of fiber. tennis rackets. and low thermal expansion for many FRPs. A cermet is a composite material consisting of a ceramic and a metal.Answer.11 What is the rule of mixtures? Answer. since each correct answer is worth 1 point. For each question. 9. Kevlar. boat hulls. Weaknesses of ceramics include: low tensile strength. The rule of mixtures applies to certain properties of composite materials. 9. 9. Answer. low density. automobile body panels. high modulus-to-weight ratio. 9. FRPs are used in modern aircraft as skin parts. E-glass. Yes.12 What is a cermet? Answer. In the text. 9. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point. and (3) the interaction of the phases. the weighting being by proportions of the components in the composite. or boron fibers are used as the reinforcing material.reinforced plastic composite materials.and the resulting structure of the material. it states that the property value is a weighted average of the property values of the components. The interface is the boundary between the component phases in a composite material. 9. 9. 9.13 Cemented carbides are what class of composites? Answer. Answer. Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 22 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct). and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required 40 . A hybrid composite is a fiber-reinforced PMC in which two or more fibers materials are combined in the FRP. An advanced composite is a PMC in which carbon. printed circuit boards.17 What is a hybrid composite? Answer. and susceptibility to thermal cracking. 9. (2) the geometric shapes of the constituents . good corrosion resistance.20 What is meant by the term interface in the context of composite materials? Answer. all correct answers must be given.19 Name some of the important applications of FRPs.14 What are some of the weaknesses of ceramics that might be corrected in fiber-reinforced ceramic matrix composites? Answer. they fit within the definition.

2 The reinforcing phase is the matrix within which the secondary phase is imbedded: (a) true or (b) false. 9. (e) rubber in automobile tires.6 Which of the following metals are most commonly used as the matrix material in fiber-reinforced MMCs (name three)? (a) aluminum. or (d) infiltrated phase. (f) wood. (b) chromium. or (d) strength and other properties as a function of curing temperature. or (f) zinc. Answer. (c) carbon/graphite. (f) Kevlar 49. (a) 9. Answer. or (c) thermosets. Answer. and (f).4 9. 9. (d) cobalt. (d). (e) graphite. (f) tungsten. (b) flakes. (a). (a). (d) lead. (e). Answer.10 Which one of the following is the most common reinforcing material in FRPs? (a) Al2O3. Answer. (c) carbon. (b) properties are the same in every direction. (c) Which of the following materials are used as fibers in fiber-reinforced plastics (more than one): (a) aluminum oxide.reduces the score by 1 point. Answer. 9. or (g) tungsten carbide. (c) 9. (b) phenolic molding compound. (b) thermoplastics. (c) iron. (c) 9. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers. 41 .7 Which of the following metals is used as the matrix metal in nearly all WC cemented carbides? (a) aluminum. (b) hardness.11 Identify which of the following materials are composites (more than one)? (a) cemented carbide. (c) particles. or (f) toughness. or (c) PMC. (b) copper. (d) epoxy. or (g) 1020 steel. (b) 9. and (e). Answer. (g) 9. (e) and (f). (c) properties vary depending on the direction in which they are measured. (e) tensile strength.3 Which one of the following reinforcing geometries offers the greatest potential for strength and stiffness improvement in the resulting composite material? (a) fibers. Answer. (c) hot hardness. (e) titanium.1 Anisotropic means which one of the following: (a) composite materials with composition consisting of more than two materials. (f) S-glass. (c) cobalt. (b) MMC. (c) plywood.5 Wood is which one of the following composite types? (a) CMC. or (g) SiO 2. (d) Portland cement.8 Ceramic matrix composites are designed to overcome which of the following weaknesses of ceramics (more than one)? (a) compressive strength. (d) magnesium. (b). (e) nickel. Answer. (c) 9. and (g) unsaturated polyester. (d) modulus of elasticity. (e) Kevlar 49.9 Which of the following polymer types are most commonly used in polymer matrix composites? (a) elastomers. (b) boron. (c). Answer. (b) boron. 9.

Answer. (e). and (f). (c). (a). 42 . (b).

10 What is the continuity law as it applies to the flow of molten metal in casting? Answer. The continuity law. 10. meaning that no further manufacturing operations are needed to accomplish the final part shape. 10. Molten metal is poured into this gating system to fill the mold. Answer. Superheat is the temperature difference above the melting point at which the molten metal is poured.9 Why should turbulent flow of molten metal into the mold be avoided? Answer. What is the difference between a pattern and a core in sand molding? Answer. Advantages include: (1) complex part geometries are possible.6 10. Answer.3 10. (3) poor dimensional accuracy. The pattern determines the external shape of the casted part. Disadvantages include: (1) limitations on mechanical strength properties. and (2) mold erosion or gradual wearing away of the mold due to impact of molten metal. while a core determines its internal geometry. (4) applicable to any metal that can be melted.10 10. (3) very large parts are possible. The most important casting process is sand casting. The two types are: (1) expendable molds and (2) permanent molds. with a passageway (called the gating system) leading from the outside to the cavity. or continuity equation.4 What is a factory that performs casting operations usually called? Answer. The term also refers to the amount of heat that is removed from the molten metal between pouring and solidification. A closed mold has a cavity that is entirely enclosed by the mold. (2) some casting operations are net shape processes. 10. and (5) some casting processes are suited to mass production. and (5) environmental problems. Turbulence causes several problems: (1) accelerates formation of oxides in the solidified metal. (2) porosity.8 What is meant by the term superheat? Answer. indicates that the volumetric flow rate is constant throughout the liquid flow. An open mold is open to the atmosphere at the top. it is an open container in the desired shape which must be flat at the top.5 10. 43 .7 Name the two basic mold types that distinguish casting processes. A foundry.1 FUNDAMENTALS OF METAL CASTING Identify some of the important advantages of shape casting processes. Review Questions 10. 10.2 What are some of the limitations and disadvantages of casting? Answer. (4) safety hazards due to handling of hot metals. What is the difference between an open mold and a closed mold? Answer. 10. Which casting process is the most important commercially? Answer.

For each question. and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point. Chvorinov's Rule is summarized: TST = Cm(V/A)2. Cm = constant.11 What are some of the factors affecting the fluidity of a molten metal during pouring into a mold cavity? Answer. Hence. Heat of fusion is the amount of heat energy required to transform the metal from solid state to liquid state. A chill is a heat sink placed to encourage rapid freezing in certain regions of the casting.3 Sand casting is which of the following types? (a) expendable mold. Most alloys (exceptions are eutectic alloys) start to solidify at the liquidus and complete solidification at the solidus. Answer. a flask is which one of the following? (a) beverage bottle for foundrymen. Answer. 10. (b) 44 . or (b) permanent mold. 10. where TST = total solidification time. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point.14 What is a eutectic alloy? Answer. 10. (2) metal alloy composition.1 10. solidification occurs at a single temperature. 10. 10. The three contractions occur due to: (1) contraction of the molten metal after pouring. and (4) heat transfer to the surroundings. Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 13 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct). A eutectic alloy is a particular composition in an alloy system for which the solidus and liquidus temperatures are equal. rather than over a temperature range. and (3) thermal contraction in the solid state.17 What is a chill in casting? Answer.13 How does solidification of alloys differ from solidification of pure metals? Answer.16 Identify the three sources of contraction in a metal casting after pouring. The temperature is called the eutectic temperature. (a) In casting. where the liquidus is a higher temperature than the solidus. since each correct answer is worth 1 point. Answer. 10. (3) viscosity of liquid metal. or (d) metal which extrudes between the mold halves.10. To attain a perfect score on the quiz. Answer. (a) The upper half of a sand casting mold is called which of the following? (a) cope. (c) container for holding liquid metal. (b) box which holds the cope and drag. or (b) drag. Pure metals solidify at a single temperature equal to the melting point.12 What does heat of fusion mean in casting? Answer. and A = surface area of casting. (2) solidification shrinkage during transformation of state from liquid to solid. all correct answers must be given.15 What is the relationship known as Chvorinov's Rule in casting? Answer. 10. Factors include: (1) pouring temperature.2 10. V = volume of casting. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers.

1 A disk 40 cm in diameter and 5 cm thick is to be casted of pure aluminum in an open mold operation. 10. (b) greater. the V/A ratio of the riser should be which one of the following relative to the V/A ratio of the casting itself? (a) equal. Hf = heat of fusion. (b) A riser that is completely enclosed within the sand mold and connected to the main cavity by a channel to feed the molten metal is called which of the following (may be more than one)? (a) blind riser. and (d) top riser. Answer. or (e) solidus. (d) V. Answer. a runner is which one of the following? (a) channel in the mold leading from the downsprue to the main mold cavity. Assume the specific heat has the same value for solid and molten aluminum.9 10.7 10. Solution: Volume V = πD2h/4= π(40) 2(5)/4 = 6283. Answer. (b) Hf. Tm = melting temperature.10. (c). Answer.2(1. (b) open riser.5 10.1 and 4. (d) source of molten metal to feed the casting and compensate for shrinkage during solidification. (c) side riser. The heat of fusion of aluminum = 389. (a) Total solidification time is defined as which one of the following? (a) time between pouring and complete solidification. (c) Tm. Assume that the amount of aluminum heated will be 5% more than needed to fill the mold cavity. (e) V/A. Answer. and (e).2 in this text. (a) During solidification of an alloy when a mixture of solid and liquid metals are present.6 10. or (f) (V/A)2. starting from a room temperature of 25°C. (c) liquidus. and V = volume of casting. (a) and (c). Other properties can be obtained from Tables 4.05) = 6597. (c) time between solidification and cooling to room temperature.3 cm3 45 . where A = surface area of casting. (b) ingot segregation. the solid-liquid mixture is referred to as whic h one of the following? (a) eutectic composition. (d). (d) Chvorinov's Rule states that total solidification time is proportional to which one of the following quantities? (a) (A/V)n. Answer.2 cm3 Volume of aluminum to be heated = 6283. or (d) time to give up the heat of fusion. (f) A riser in casting is described by which of the following (may be more than one answer)? (a) an insert in the casting that inhibits buoyancy of the core. In a sand casting mold. (c) metal that is not part of the casting.8 10. Answer.4 In foundry work. (b) foundryman who moves the molten metal to the mold.10 Problems Heating and Pouring 10. (b) time between pouring and cooling to room temperature. or (c) smaller. and (e) waste metal that is usually recycled. Compute the amount of heat that must be added to the metal to heat it to the pouring temperature. (d) mushy zone. (b) gating system in which the sprue feeds directly into the cavity. The melting temperature of aluminum = 660°C and the pouring temperature will be 800°C. or (c) vertical channel into which molten metal is poured into the mold.3 J/g.

Determine: (a) the velocity of the molten metal flowing through the base of the downsprue.1 in/sec (b) Volume flow rate Q = vA = 68.5 = 34.200 mm3/s (c) Time to fill cavity MFT = V/Q = 1.082.5 = 1854 mm/s Area at base A = 1.35 s 10. The plate has dimensions: L = 20 in. Solution: (a) Velocity v = (2 x 9815 x 175) 0. area at base A = (50 in/sec)/(78.2 A sufficient amount of pure copper is to be heated for casting a large plate in an open mold.0 in 2. At the top where the pouring cup leads into the downsprue. The molten metal overflows the pouring cup and flows into the downsprue.2 x 12 x 8) 0.7 Molten metal can be poured into the pouring cup of a sand mold at a steady rate of 1000 cm3/s.000. Assume that the amount of metal heated will be 10% more than needed to fill the mold cavity.6 in/sec Assuming volumetric continuity. with a diameter at the top = 3. Determine: (a) the velocity of the molten metal flowing through the base of the downsprue.88(800-660)} = 17. (b) the volume rate of flow.6 in/sec) = 0.0 in 3 Assuming To = 75 °F and using Eq.1 x 0.096) 0.000.8) 0. Determine what the area should be at the bottom of the sprue if its length = 8.5 = 68. in order to avoid aspiration of the liquid metal. Solution: Volume V = (20 x 10 x 3)(1 + 10%) = 600(1. The cross-section of the sprue is round.5 in2.5 The flow rate of liquid metal into the downsprue of a mold = 1 liter/sec. Compute the amount of heat that must be added to the metal to heat it to a temperature of 2150 F for pouring. the cross-sectional area = 1.000 mm3/s Velocity v = (2 x 9815 x 175) 0.5 = 1853 mm/s (b) Volume flow rate Q = vA = 1853 x 400 = 741.2 x 12 x 6.2 sec.70(6597.70 g/cm3 and specific heat C = 0.4 cm. and (c) the time required to fill the mold cavity.000/741. Solution: (a) Velocity v = (2 x 32.000. melting point = 1981 F.6 The volume rate of flow of molten metal into the downsprue from the pouring cup is 50 in 3/sec. (b) the volume rate of flow.71{558.001 m3.2} = 19.4 A mold has a downsprue of length = 6.1). and (c) the time required to fill the mold cavity.5 = (2 x 32.324 x 660{0.75) + 80 + 0. whose volume = 75 in3.324 lbm/in 3.26 + 80 + 15.0 in. and heat of fusion = 80 Btu/lbm.21} H = 58. The cross-sectional area at the top of the sprue = 800 mm2 and its length = 175 mm.000/1854 = 540 mm2 10.5 = 78. specific heat of the metal = 0. The sprue leads into a horizontal runner which feeds the mold cavity.200 = 1.3 + 0.812.88(660-25) + 389.05 = 2. density ρ = 2. Properties of the metal are: density = 0.88 J/g-°C Heat required = 2.05 in3/sec (c) Time to fill cavity MFT = V/Q = 75. The cross-sectional area at the bottom of the sprue is 0. (12.0 in.090(2150 .3){0.0) 0.2. If the sprue is 25 cm long.435. What area should be used at the base of the sprue to avoid aspiration of the molten metal? Solution: Flow rate Q = 1. top and bottom.8 + 389. 10.093 Btu/lbm-F in the solid state and 0.3 + 123.636 in2 10. W = 10 in.1981)} = 213.756 J 10.0/34. Solution: Velocity at base v = (2gh) 0.5 = (4636. H = 0. The mold cavity has a volume = 0. determine the proper diameter at its base so as to maintain the same volume flow rate.84{177.093(1981 . It is desired to maintain a constant flow rate. 46 . and D = 3 in. The cross-sectional area at the base of the sprue is 400 mm2.1) = 660.21 Cal/g-°C = 0.1 and 4.265 Btu 10.0 l/s = 1.3 The downsprue leading into the runner of a certain mold has a length = 175 mm.From Table 4.090 Btu/lbm-F in the liquid state.5 = (3.

area at base A = (1000 cm/s)/(221. riser.9589) = 239.8 During pouring into a sand mold.000 mm3 Volume of casting V = 1.0) = 99. It takes a total of 3.10 The cavity of a casting mold has dimensions: L = 250 mm.74 cm2 D = 2.863 cm H = 20(0.8 + 0.5 = 55. Its cross-sectional area at the top = 0.6 in 2. and sprue.8 in2 and at the base = 0.8817) 0. Determine the dimensions and volume of the final cube after cooling to room temperature if the cast metal is copper.056) = 0.39 cm 10.951)(. Solution: For aluminum. and it is 8.0 in long.0/3 = 33.0) 0.675 mm3 Dimension on each side of cube = (879.6(8.333 = 95.075) = 1.3.5 = (2 x 981 x 25) 0.5 = 221.5%. Volume of cavity V = (100) 3 = 1.5 = 55.0 in/sec (d) v = (2 x 32. D2 = 4A/π = 4(4.9589) = 19.5 = 68.066)(1-0. solid contraction during cooling is 7.086 in Shrinkage 10.000(1-0.978 h = 1.000. solid contraction during cooling = 5.9589 Final casting dimensions: L = 250(0.9782 = 3.8 = 1. runner.0 in long before leading into the mold cavity.0 in/sec. Solution: For copper. the molten metal can be poured into the downsprue at a constant flow rate during the time it takes to fill the mold.675) 0. The cross-sectional area of the runner leading from the sprue also = 0. h0.82 mm 10.0) + 0.0 + 25.914 in Head loss = 6.5 cm/s) = 4.2 x 12 x 6. solidification shrinkage = 6.5 cm/s Assuming volumetric continuity.0 in3/sec Actual velocity v = 33. The volume of the riser located along the runner near the mold cavity = 25 in 3.8 h0. The downsprue is 6.6 = 55.51 cm2 Area of sprue A = πD2/4. This is more than the theoretical time required. indicating a loss of velocity due to friction in the sprue and runner.2 x 12 x h) 0.0 in3 (c) Actual flow rate Q = 99.178 cm 47 .725 cm W = 125(0.000(.0 . At the end of pouring the sprue is filled and there is negligible metal in the pouring cup.9589) = 119.5(0. Assume that the mold is full at the start of solidification and that shrinkage occurs uniformly in all directions.6%. Determine the dimensions of the final casting after cooling to room temperature if the cast metal is aluminum. rearranging. Solution: (a) Velocity v = (2 x 32.0/27. Total volumetric contraction = (1-0.000. whose volume = 65 in 3. (c) the actual velocity and flow rate at the base of the sprue.049)(1-0.60 = 40. solidification shrinkage is 4.0 sec to fill the entire mold (including cavity. 100 mm on a side.8 in3/sec (b) Total V = 65. Assume that the mold is full at the start of solidification and that shrinkage occurs uniformly in all directions.5 = 27.000.8817 Linear contraction = (0. (b) the total volume of the mold.6%.1 x 0.9%.333 = 0.1 in/sec Flow rate Q = 68.51)/π = 5.025) = 879.6 in 2. and (d) the loss of head in the gating system due to friction. W = 125 mm and H = 20 mm. Find: (a) the theoretical velocity and flow rate at the base of the downsprue.0/0.9 A mold cavity has the shape of a cube.0 + 0.914 = 2.6)(6.Solution: Velocity at base v = (2gh) 0.

5%.92 mm/m 10.03927 Mold cavity dimensions: D = 12.75 in. Determine the dimensions of the mold cavity to take shrinkage into account. width = 10 cm.080) = 0.1.9981 Shrink rule elongation = (0.0 min/cm2.0348 Elongation of a 12 inch rule = 12(1. and thickness = 20 mm.8786 Linear contraction = (0.333 = 0.8909) 0.13 Determine the scale of a "shrink rule" that is to be used by pattern-makers for gray cast iron.9578 Shrink rule elongation = (0.75%.0275)(1-0.00192 Elongation of a 1 meter rule = 1000(1.333 = 0.8909 Linear contraction = (0.0) = 1.03927) = 12. Solution: For brass.9025 Linear contraction = (0.99425 Linear contraction = (0.0%.12 Determine the scale of a "shrink rule" that is to be used by pattern-makers for brass which is 70% copper and 30% zinc.025)(1-0.333 = 0. Express your answer in terms of decimal fraction inches of elongation per foot of length compared to a standard rule.0348 .8786) 0.418 in/ft 10.99425) 0.10.9 in Chvorinov's Rule.0%.11 Determine the scale of a "shrink rule" that is to be used by pattern-makers for low carbon steel.9025) 0. Determine how long it will take for the casting to solidify.00(1. which means it expands during solidification.750(1.030) = 0. Solution: Volume V = 30 x 10 x 2 = 600 cm3 Area A = 2(30 x 10 + 30 x 2 + 10 x 2) = 760 cm2 Chvorinov’s Rule: TST = Cm (V/A)2 = 4(600/760) 2 = 2. solid contraction during cooling = 3.1 mm/m 10.1.0) = 0. Total volumetric contraction = (1+0.0% carbon steel are: diameter = 12.2%. solid contraction during cooling is 8. Express your answer in terms of millimeters of elongation per meter of length compared to a standard rule.49 min 10. Express your answer in terms of millimeters of elongation per meter of length compared to a standard rule.1. Solution: Low carbon steel: solidification shrinkage = 2. solidification shrinkage = -2. the mold constant in Chvorinov's Rule is known to be Cm = 4.5%.779 in Solidification Time and Riser Design 10.00192 .0441 . solid contraction = 7.16 Solve for total solidification time in the previous problem only using a value of n = 1.471 in and t = 0.0 in and thickness = 0.0%.040)(1-0.03927) = 0.9664 Shrink rule elongation = (0. solid contraction during cooling is 7. Solution: For gray CI. The casting is a flat plate whose length = 30 cm.14 The final dimensions of a disk-shaped casting of 1.072) = 0. solidification shrinkage is 4.2%. Total volumetric contraction = (1-0. Solution: For 1% carbon steel.072) = 0.9622) -1 = 1. based on previous experience.9578) -1 = 1.045)(1-0. The gray cast iron has a volumetric contraction of -2. What adjustment must be made in the units of Cm? 48 . Assume that shrinkage occurs uniformly in all directions. Total volumetric contraction = (1-0.0) = 44.9622 Oversize factor for mold = (0.333 = 0.5%. solidification shrinkage is 4.15 In the casting of steel under certain mold conditions.9981) -1 = 1.9664) -1 = 1.0441 Elongation of a 1 meter rule = 1000(1. Total volumetric contraction = (1-0.

000 mm2 (V/A) = 125.1015D 3 D3 = (42.713.42) 0.732 in (c) V = πD2L/4 = π(3.42 in 3 D = (38.0 min to completely solidify.32 in 3 D/L ratio = 4.63 in 2 (V/A) = 70.343/6126 = 5. thus L = 1.0 sec/mm2 in Chvorinov's Rule. V = W/ρ = 20/0.32 in 3 A = 2πD2/4 + πDL = 0.732)/4 = 42.32 in 3)/1. (a) Determine the value of the mold constant Cm in Chvorinov's Rule.0/5.18 In casting experiments performed using a certain alloy and type of sand mold.Solution: Chvorinov’s Rule: TST = Cm (V/A)1.53/4π = 5.2836 lb/in3 Weight W = ρV.5π(3.53 in3 Length L = 70.0 in diameter and weighs 20 lb.32/68. If Cm = 2. Volume V = πD2L/4 = π(30) 2(50)/4 = 35. (b) If the same alloy and mold type were used.03(.1015 = 38. how long will it take the casting to solidify? Solution: Volume V = πD2t/4 = π(500) 2(20)/4 = 3.61) = 95.61 = 0. This casting is made of the same steel and the same conditions of mold and pouring were used.77 TST = 2. The diameter of the disk = 500 mm and its thickness = 20 mm.03 min/in2 (b) Find dimensions of smaller cylindrical casting with same D/L ratio and w = 12 lb.732) = 68.115 mm2 Chvorinov’s Rule: TST = Cm (V/A)2 = 2.9 = 2.4025D)/4 = 1.7375 Cm = 6.53) = 42.333 = 3. 49 . Another cylindrical-shaped casting with the same diameter-to-length ratio weighs 12 lb. find the total solidification time for a cylindrical casting in which the diameter = 30 mm and length = 50 mm.374 in L = 1.9 .04 = 0. The cube was 50 mm on a side.9 = 4(600/760) 1.2836 = 70. This casting takes 6.991 mm3 Area A = 2πD2/4 + πDt = π(500) 2/2 + π(500)(20) = 424.5 s = 2.53 in 3 Volume V = πD2L/4 = π(4) 2L/4 = 4πL = 70.926. Note: The density of steel = 490 lb/ft3.0(3. it took 155 sec for a cube-shaped casting to solidify.232 s/mm2 (b) Cylindrical casting with D = 30 mm and L = 50 mm.86 min 10.55 min The units for Cm become min/in 1. 10.53/95. TST = 11. and (c) the total solidification time of the lighter casting. and (b) the dimensions.343 mm3 Area A = 2πD2/4 + πDL = π(30) 2/2 + π(30)(50) = 6126 mm2 V/A = 35.374) 2(4.000 mm3 Area A = 6 x (50) 2 = 15. Determine: (a) the mold constant in Chvorinov's Rule.622 in.991/424.7353) 2 = 11. ρ = 490 lb/ft3 = 0.63 = 0.622) 2 = 4.374)(4.3 s = 1.333) 2 = 2.4025D Volume V = πD2L/4 = π(4) 2(1.77) 2 = 74.000 = 8.04 in 2 V/A = 42.4025(3.374) 2 + π(3. 10.strange but consistent with Chvorinov’s empirical rule. Solution: (a) For steel.115) 2 = 171.333 mm Cm = TST/(V/A)2 = 155/(8.0/(0.27 min.19 A steel casting has a cylindrical geometry with 4.24 min.17 A disk-shaped part is to be cast out of aluminum.374) = 4.926.232 (5. Weight is proportional to volume: V = (12/20)(70.61 in Area A = 2πD2/4 + πDL = 2π(4) 2/4 + π(4)(5.000/15. Solution: (a) Volume V = (50) 3 = 125.

524 dm3 = 524 cm3.0 dm3. compute the total solidification time for each casting. Note.25π = 0. The same casting alloy is used in the three cases. (b) Based on the results of part (a). make the substitution 10 cm = 1 decimeter (1 dm) (a) Chvorinov’s Rule: TST = Cm(V/A)2 (1) Sphere volume V = πD3/6 = π(1) 3/6 = π/6 dm3 Sphere area A = πD2 = π(1) 2 = π dm2 V/A = (π/6)/ π = 1/6 = 0. (2) a cylinder.0428Cm (2) Cylinder volume V = πD2H/4 = πD3/4 = 1.333 = 1.21 The total solidification times of three casting shapes are to be compared: (1) a sphere. Solution: For ease of computation.1667 dm Chvorinov’s Rule TST = (0.2067) 2Cm = 0.02778Cm (3) Cube: V = L3 = (1) 3 = 1.5π = 0. make the substitution 10 cm = 1 decimeter (1 dm).25π/1.1667 dm Chvorinov’s Rule TST = (0. and (3) cube V = 1. D3 = 6/π = 1. D = H = (1.333 = 1. (1) Sphere volume V = πD3/6 = 1. D = (1.25π dm3 Cylinder area A = 2πD2/4 + πDL = 2π(1) 2/4 + π(1)(1) = π/2 + π = 1. and (3) a cube with each side = 10 cm. (b) Based on the results of part (a). Solution: For ease of computation. The same casting alloy is used in the three cases.02778(350) = 9. 10.5 min/cm2 = 350 min/dm2.1667) 2Cm = 0. which geometric element would make the best riser? (c) If Cm = 3. in which the L/D ratio = 1.0 dm3. compute the total solidification time for each casting.910) 0.1667) 2Cm = 0.10.0 dm3 = 1000cm3. (2) a cylinder with diameter and length both = 10 cm.4 cm3.084 dm Cylinder area A = 2πD2/4 + πDL = 2π(1. which geometric element would make the best riser? (c) If Cm = 3. that the volumes of the three geometries are different: (1) sphere V = 0.1806) 2Cm = 0.084) = 5. cylinder V = 0.2067 dm Chvorinov’s Rule TST = (0.5 min/cm2 in Chvorinov's Rule.723 min.0326Cm 50 .241) 2 = 4.836 dm2 V/A = 1. we might revise our answer to part (b) and choose the sphere on the basis that it wastes less metal than the other shapes.084)(1.0 = 0.1667) 2Cm = 0. For all three geometries. (a) Determine the relative solidification times for each geometry.0/6.910 dm3. (c) If Cm = 3.536 dm2 V/A = 1.273) 0. (a) Determine the relative solidification times for each geometry.20 The total solidification times of three casting shapes are to be compared: (1) a sphere with diameter = 10 cm.0 dm2 V/A = 1.836 = 0.7854 dm3 = 785.084) 2/4 + π(1. and (3) a cube. Thus 1000 cm3 = 1.1667 dm Chvorinov’s Rule TST = (0.02778Cm (b) All three shapes are equivalent as risers.1806 dm Chvorinov’s Rule TST = (0.241 dm Sphere area A = πD2 = π(1.0/4. Accordingly.536 = 0. D3 = 4/π = 1. then TST = 0. however.0/5.273 dm3 Therefore.0 dm3.02778Cm (2) Cylinder volume V = πD2H/4 = π(1) 2(1)/4 = π/4 = 0.5π dm2 V/A = .0.0 dm3 Cube area = 6L2 = 6(1) 2 = 6.5 min/cm2 in Chvorinov's Rule. the volume V = 1000 cm3.

determine the diameter of the riser so that it will take 25% longer for the riser to solidify.0 min/in2 in Chvorinov's Rule.0) 2 + 4(10.1416D 2 = 0. L = 4V/πD2 Cylinder area A = 2πD2/4 + πDL Substitute the expression for L from the volume equation in the area equation: A = πD2/2 + πDL = πD2/2 + πD(4V/πD2) = πD2/2 + 4V/D Differentiate the area equation with respect to D: dA/dD = πD .5236D 3/3.25(3.000 mm3 Casting area A = 2(200 x 100 + 200 x 18 + 100 x 18) = 50.5 min. If the metal is cast iron. πD = 4V/D2 D3 = 4V/π D = (4V/π)0.length ratio that will maximize the time to solidify.(3) Cube: V = L3 =1.0326(350) = 11. Solution: To maximize TST. Cylinder volume V = πD2L/4.0866) 2 = 0.000/50.0697(0.001936 = 2259.0 dm Cube area = 6L2 = 6(1) 2 = 6. since V/A ratio is greatest.375 min = 0.5) = 4. The casting is a rectangular plate.41 min Cube: TST = 0.75) = 230. and Cm = 16.22 A cylindrical riser is to be used for a sand casting mold.02778Cm (b) Sphere would be the best riser.1667D)2 = 0.5/(7.800 = 7.0 = 0.333 From the previous expression for L.333 Thus.800 mm2 V/A = 360. Solution: Casting volume V = LWt = 200(100)(18) = 360.98 min Cylinder: TST = 0.25 times its diameter. and thickness = 18 mm. (c) Given that Cm = 3.75(10.0428(350) = 14. L = 4V/πD2 = 4V/π(4V/π)0.02778(350) = 9. Solution: Casting volume V = tL2 = 0.0) 2 = 75 in3 Casting area A = 2L2 + 4Lt = 2(10.24 A cylindrical riser is to be designed for a sand casting mold.50 min Cm = 3.1416D 2 V/A = 0.0/6. with length = 200 mm.0697 min/mm2 Riser volume V = πD3/6 = 0.0 dm2 V/A = 1. width = 100 mm.333. the V/A ratio must be maximized. each side = 10 in and thickness = 0. The casting is a square plate.5 min/cm2 = 350 min/dm3 Sphere: TST = 0. The length of the cylinder is to be 1.75 inch.1667D TST = 1.1667 dm Chvorinov’s Rule TST = (0.001936D 2 D2 = 4.7 mm2 D = 47.1667) 2Cm = 0.0)(0. If the total solidification time of the casting itself is known to be 3.23 A riser in the shape of a sphere is to be designed for a sand casting mold.0 10. optimal values are D = L = (4V/π)0.0 in 2 51 .72 min 10. For a given cylinder volume.667 = (4V/π)0.0 dm3. and therefore the optimal D/L ratio = 1.0866 Casting TST = Cm(7.375/0. determine the diameter-to. determine the dimensions of the riser so that it will take 30% longer for the riser to solidify.4V/D2 = 0 Rearranging.0866) 2 = 3. substituting in the equation for D that we have developed.5 mm 10.5236D 3 Riser area A = πD2 = 3. L = 1.

5) 2π/4 + 2.5 = 2.974/203.0 = 62.5) 2/4) = 7.03189)D2 = 0.0 = 61.3261 Casting TST = 16(0.081) = 2.31 = 19.81 + 0.3125πD3/1.0(0.5π(5) 2/4) .1786D)2 = 16.266 in 2 D = 2.4π(1.602 in.3316) 0. If Cm = 19. 52 .25πD2(1. V(5 in x 10 in rectangular plate) = 5 x 12.5(0.V/A = 75/230 = 0.5π(5) 2(1)/4 = 9.817 in 3 V(upright tube) = 3.5π + 12.5 + 2.75πD2 = 0.31 min Riser volume V = πD2L/4 = πD3/4 = 0.5102 = 4. and L = 2. determine the dimensions of the riser so that the riser will take 0.065 in.30(1.18. Solution: Casting volume V = V(5 in x 10 in rectangular plate) + V(5 in.81 min Riser design: specified TST = 1.5 min/in2 in Chvorinov's Rule.305 in Casting TST = 19.3125πD3 Riser area A = 2πD2/4 + πDH = 0.0 is to be designed for a sand casting mold.25πD3/1.2(1.V(3 in x 6 in rectangular cutout).75πD2 V/A = 0.305) 2 = 1.21/0.5 = 2.25πD3 Riser area A = πDL + 2πD2/4 = πD2 + 0.5πD2 = 1.0 in 3 Total V = 62. 10.21 min Riser volume V = πD2H/4 = 0.5π(3+1) = 203.3316 D = (4.36 = 0.0(0.5 minute longer to freeze than the casting itself.974 in 3 Total A = 1 x 5 + 1(12.5) + 2(6+3) + 2(5 x 12.5417D 2 D2 = 2.5 .5) 2/4 .70 min Riser TST = 1.5πD2 = D/6 TST = Cm(V/A)2 2.25(2. half disk) = 0.5 x 1.081 in H = 1.5 in 3 V(5 in.31/0.5πD2 + 1.25.5π(3) + 1.25πD2 = 1.25 A cylindrical riser with diameter-to-length ratio = 1.657 .70) = 2.5 + 9.1786D Riser TST = 16. half disk) + V(upright tube) .3261) 2 = 1.5417 = 4.21 min D2 = 2.5(D/6) 2 = 0. in which the units are inches.065 in. The casting geometry is illustrated in Figure P10.3 x 6) + 2(.25D) = 0.657 in 3 V(3 in x 6 in rectangular cutout) = 3 x 6 x 1 = 18.36 in 2 V/A = 61.817 + 7.5102D 2 = 2.0π(2.5πD2 V/A = .

Hot-chamber machines are faster because cold. (5) reusability . (3) thermal stability . 11. cold-chamber or hot-chamber. What is the difference between a split pattern and a match.chamber die casting machines require molten metal to be ladled into the chamber from an external source.1 Name the two basic categories of casting processes? Answer.10 What is the difference between true centrifugal casting and semicentrifugal casting? 53 .plate pattern? Answer.9 What is flash in die casting? Answer.ability to maintain shape in the face of the flowing metal. The usual properties are: (1) strength . The two categories are: (1) expendable mold processes. a match-plate pattern consists of the two split patterns attached to opposite sides of a plate. Chaplets are metal supports of various designs used to hold the core in place in the sand mold. The Antioch process refers to the making of the mold. and why? Answer. Which die casting machines usually have a higher production rate. Flash is a thin portion at the exterior of a casting that results from molten metal being squeezed into the spaces between the die halves of the mold at the parting line. This mold has greater permeability than a plaster mold. (2) permeability .4 What properties determine the quality of a sand mold for sand casting? Answer. 11. 11. (4) collapsibility .2 There are various types of patterns used in sand casting. brass.ability of the mold to allow hot air and gases to escape from the cavity.3 What is a chaplet? Answer.pressure casting in which a vacuum is used to draw molten metal into the cavity. tin.can the sand be reused to make other molds? 11. Common die cast metals include: zinc. The mold is 50% sand and 50% plaster heated in an autoclave and then dried. and magnesium. or into the clearances around the cores and ejector pins. 11. aluminum.ability to resist cracking and buckling when in contact with the molten metal.6 What is the difference between vacuum permanent-mold casting and vacuum molding? Answer.11 METAL CASTING PROCESSES Review Questions 11. Vacuum permanent-mold casting is a form of low.5 What is the Antioch process? Answer. 11. and (2) permanent mold processes. A split pattern is a pattern that consists of two pieces. 11.ability of the mold to give way during shrinkage of the casting. Vacuum molding is sand casting in which the sand mold is held together by vacuum pressure rather than a chemical binder.7 11. 11. lead.8 What are the most common metals processed using die casting? Answer.

(3) surface cleaning. and (7) machining. 11. (c) SiO 2. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers.11 What is a cupola? Answer. (c) upward force = Wm + Wc. a tubular mold is used and a tubular part is produced. (5) repair if needed. all correct answers must be given. (c) investment casting.13 What are some of the general defects encountered in casting processes? Answer. (a) 11. Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 28 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct).2 In sand casting. (5) microporosity. In semicentrifugal casting. (3) cold shots.1 Which one of the following casting processes is most widely used (one answer)? (a) centrifugal casting. and (f) vacuum molding. risers. Answer. (b) SiO. (b) die casting. (d) sand casting. (b) downward force = Wm .Answer. 11.3 11. Answer. Answer. and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point. General defects include: (1) misruns. These operations include: (1) trimming. (6) heat treatment. (b) same size. (b) low pressure casting.6 Which of the following casting processes are expendable mold operations (more than one)? (a) investment casting. In true centrifugal casting. or (d) mold is dry. and flash are removed. (b) 11.Wc. the shape is solid. 54 . To attain a perfect score on the quiz. runners. (c) mold is cured. since each correct answer is worth 1 point. (2) cold shuts.Wc. 11. 11. or (c) smaller.4 Silica sand has which one of the following compositions? (a) Al2O3. (d) 11. Answer. Answer. (2) core removal. the buoyancy force is which one of the following? (a) downward force = Wm + Wc. or (e) shell casting.6.5 Given that Wm = weight of the molten metal displaced by a core and Wc = weight of the core. (d) shell molding. an example is a railway wheel.1. or (d) SiSO 4.named? (a) green is the color of the mold. (4) inspection.12 What are some of the operations required of sand castings after removal from the mold? Answer. Cupolas are used for melting cast irons. (b) moisture is contained in the mold. For each question. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point. (4) shrinkage cavity. (c) For which of the following reasons is a green mold so. and (6) hot tearing. (c) sand casting. See Article 11. (d) 11. the volumetric size of the pattern is which of the following relative to the cast part? (a) bigger. in which the sprues. A cupola is a vertical cylindrical furnace equipped with a tapping spout near its base. or (d) upward force = Wm . The mold is rotated so that centrifugal force is used to distribute the molten metal to the exterior of the mold so that the density of the final metal is greater at the outer sections. (e) slush casting.

and (f) vacuum permanent-mold casting.7 Shell molding is which one of the following? (a) casting operation in which the molten metal has been poured out after a thin shell has been solidified in the mold. (c) SiC.12 Which of the following metals would typically be die casted (more than one)? (a) aluminum. or (d) zinc.Answer. and (c) shell molding. (d). Answer. and (f). and (f). (b) bronze. Answer. and (e) mold can be reused.14 Cupolas are furnaces used to melt which of the following metals (choose one best answer)? (a) aluminum. (c) 55 . (c). (b) higher melting temperature metals. (c). (a).15 A misrun is which one of the following defects in casting? (a) globules of metal becoming entrapped in the casting. (c) 11. (b) metal is not properly poured into the downsprue. or (d) SiO 2. (d) tin. (c) plaster mold casting. Answer. Answer. (b) investment casting. or (e) lost-wax process. Answer. (b) and (c). and (f) zinc. (c) low pressure casting. or (e) zinc alloys. Answer.13 Which of the following are advantages of die casting over sand casting (more than one)? (a) better surface finish. 11. (a). (d) microporosity. (c) steel. (d) cast steel. (b) CaSO 4-H2O. the mold is made of which one of the following materials? (a) Al2O3. (c) 11. Answer. (d) sand casting. (b) cast iron. (e) slush casting. 11. (c) steel. and (f). (d) lost pattern process. (b) cast iron. (a). Answer.16 Which one of the following casting metals is most important commercially? (a) aluminum and its alloys. (e) tungsten. (b) full-mold process. (b) die casting.11 Which of the following casting processes are permanent mold operations (more than one)? (a) centrifugal casting. (c) casting process in which the mold is a thin shell of sand binded by a thermosetting resin. 11. Answer. (a). (d) shell molding. and (e) "pipe" formation. (c).9 In plaster mold casting. (c) lost-foam process. (c) cast iron. (e). (b) 11. 11. (b) 11.8 Investment casting is also known by which one of the following names? (a) fast-payback molding. (b) casting operation used to make artificial sea shells. (d). Answer. (d) larger parts can be casted. 11. or (d) sand casting operation in which the pattern is a shell rather than a solid form. (c) metal solidifies before filling the cavity. and (e). (c) higher production rates. (e) 11. (b).10 Which of the following qualifies as a precision casting process (more than one)? (a) ingot casting.

Wc = 7. If the rotational speed of the pipe = 1000 rev/min.815 = 149 N.058) = 18. density of brass ρ = 0. Solution: From Table 13. What is the weight of the final casting? Ignore considerations of shrinkage.184 g = 10.4 = 0. Determine the buoyancy force in Newtons tending to lift the core during pouring.17 kg. 3 Cavity volume V = 5000 cm Volume of casting V = 5000 .82 g/cm3 Fb = Wm .184 kg Centrifugal Casting 11. A total of 9 caplets are required above the core to resist the buoyancy force. Solution: Sand density = 1. density of cast iron ρ = 0.82 .26) = 40. Wm = 157(0.85 = 82. Solution: From Table 13.6 A true centrifugal casting operation is to be performed in a horizontal configuration to make cast iron pipe sections.5(π(1000)/30) 2/981 = 83. determine the G-factor.058) = 9. The lengths will be 1.88 lb. 11.1. Solution: From Eq.Wc Wc = 157(0. The volume of the mold cavity forming the outside surface of the casting = 5000 cm3.313 lb/in3.82V .4 A sand core used to form the internal surfaces of a steel casting experiences a buoyancy force of 23 kg. and (b) above the core.3698 = 1302 cm3. Difference = (35. and several other caplets are placed above the core to resist the buoyancy force during pouring. Fb = 101.2 A sand core located inside a mold cavity has a volume of 157.4). Solution: Core volume V = 20/1605.18.01246 m3.85 lb.22V = 23 kg = 23. Determine the buoyancy force that will tend to lift the core during pouring. Probably 3 or 4 caplets would be better to achieve stability. (b) Wm = 325(.106 lb.1. Fb = 40. determine the minimum number of caplets that should be placed: (a) beneath the core.. GF = R(πN/30) 2/g = 7.71 lb. The design of the caplets and the manner in which they are placed in the mold cavity surface allows each caplet to sustain a force of 10 lbs.0 cm.6V = 6.1 An aluminum-copper alloy casting is made in a sand mold using a sand core that weighs 20 kg.20) x 9.6 g/cm3.5 m with outside diameter = 15.11 = 31.0 in 3. Weight of the final casting W = 1302(7. Fb = Wm . At least 2 caplets are required beneath to resist the weight of the core.Problems Buoyancy Force 11. and inside diameter = 12. 3. (a) Wc = 325(0.0 in.000 g V = 3698 cm3.9.1.82) = 10. (11. Several caplets are located beneath the core to support it before pouring. Weight of displaced Al-Cu = 35. It is used in the casting of a cast iron pump housing.73 . and wall 56 .3 Caplets are used to support a sand core inside a sand mold cavity.313) = 101.17 .82 lb.5 A horizontal true centrifugal casting operation will be used to make copper tubing. steel casting density = 7.5 cm.8 11. 11.26 lb/in3. and the metal poured is brass. 11. The sections will have a length = 42. outside diameter = 8.0 in. If the volume of the core = 325 in.73 lb.

.7)/30 = 645.25 m. and the operation is likely to be unsuccessful. (b) Use 1.01259 m3 11. diameter = 0. the rotational speed is not sufficient.(.81 = 34.8 True centrifugal casting operation is performed horizontally to make large diameter copper tube sections. Is the operation likely to be successful? Solution: Using outside wall of casting.5484 kg)(6.(6) 2)(1.8) = 68. If the rotational speed of the pipe = 700 rev/min.45 ft/sec.222) = 0.45) 2/(. v = πRN/30 = π(. (a) determine the G-factor on the molten metal. GF would theoretically go to infinity if g = 0. Thus. The tubes have a length = 1.0) = π((7.86 cm/s = 6.55 N Fc/A = (34.333 x 32. D = 15 cm N = (30/π)(2g x 70/15) .125)(700)/30 = 9.163) 2/(.0)/2 = 6. (c) Volume of final product after solidification and cooling is V = (.54 (b) G-factor is sufficient for a successful casting operation.Ri2)(1.62g/cm3)(63. Thus. it should be possible to force the metal against the walls of the mold in centrifugal 57 .252 .62 cm3 Mass m = (8.81 kg-m/s2. determine the G-factor. (b) When operating at this speed.9% and solid thermal contraction = 7.4585 m/s Centrifugal force per square meter on mold wall = Fc/A where Fc = mv2/R Fc = (0. but its weight would be zero.9/9.0/4 = . what is the centrifugal force per square meter (Pa) imposed by the molten metal on the inside wall of the mold? Solution: (a) Using the outside wall diameter of the casting.5 + 6.7 A horizontal true centrifugal casting process is used to make brass bushings with dimensions: L = 10 cm. (b) Is the rotational speed sufficient to avoid "rain?" (c) What volume of molten metal must be poured into the mold to make the casting if solidification shrinkage and contraction after solidification are considered? Solution: (a) GF = v2/Rg g = 9.38 Since the G-factor is less than 60.62 cm3) = 548. Fc = 338.5% for copper.9 If a true centrifugal casting operation were to be performed in a space station circling the Earth.5484 kg v = πRN/30 Use mean radius R = (7.75 x 10-2 m) = 338. how would weightlessness affect the process? Solution: The mass of molten metal would be unaffected by the absence of gravity.011074 m3 From Table 12. in the G-factor equation (GF = v2/Rg).252 .75)(913.4 g = 0.2) = 28. (a) Determine the required rotational speed in order to obtain a G-factor of 70. solidification shrinkage = 4.4586 m/s)2/(6. OD = 15 cm.7 rev/min. If the rotational speed of the pipe = 500 rev/min. which is equal to the inside wall diameter of the mold.049)(1-.50 in.333 ft.0 cm of mold wall length as basis of area calculations.125 x 9. Area of this length of mold wall A = πDoL = π(15 cm)(1 cm) = 15π cm2 = 15π(10-4) m2 Volume of cast metal V = π(Ro2 . and ID = 12 cm.9 kg-m/s2 Given that 1 N = 9.75 cm v = π(6.55 N)/(15π x 10-4 m2) = 0.333)(500)/30 = 17.5) 2 .0) = 63.8 m/s2 v = πRN/30 = π(. Taking these factors into account. 11.thickness = 0. Volume of molten metal V = 0.011074/(1-. GF = v2/Rg = (17.075) = 0.25-.03) 2)π x 1. and wall thickness = 15 mm.5(8)/12 = 0. R = 0.25π(.5 = 913.1.7331(104) N/m2 = 7331 Pa 11.0 m.163 m/s GF = (9.

determine the G-factor and (c) centrifugal force per square meter (Pa) on the mold wall. 11.(1-. and thickness = 6. this all assumes that the metal is inside the mold and rotating with it. N = 30(2g x GF/D).5 m. Solution: Volume of final casting V = π(Ro2 .0) = 2454. 11. determine the volume of molten metal that must be poured into the mold. D = Do = 65 cm. If the rotational speed computed in that problem were used in the steel casting operation.81 kg-m/s2.1.2%.1021 m2 Volume of cast metal V = π(Ro2 . the solidification shrinkage for steel = 3% and the solid contraction during cooling = 7.0 mm.315.87 g/cm3 Mass m = (7.1 kg-m/s2 Given that 1 N = 9.072) = 1 .5/π = 1237.9 cm/s = 13.25)(406. (d) Would this rotational speed result in a successful operation? Solution: (a) Use inside diameter of mold in Eq. With no gravity the liquid metal would not be forced against the lower surface of the mold to initiate the centrifugal action.10(b).4 cm3 Density of steel ρ = 7.5 percent. Determine the rotational speed that will provide a G-factor = 60.932. OD = 65 cm. Solution: D = 70 mm = 0.2 cm3 11.5).5/π = 30(2 x 981 x 60/65) .4/(0. At what speed must the tube be rotated during the operation in order to achieve these specifications? 58 . (11.8957) = 2740. N = 406.302)(5) = 2454.87g/cm3)(2454. Use g = 981 cm/s2.299 m/s Centrifugal force per square meter on mold wall = Fc/A where Fc = mv2/R Fc = (19.8957 = 0.0 in at the bottom. outside diameter = 70 mm. g = 9. (b) Rotational speed would be the same as in part (a) because mass does not enter the computation of rotational speed.914.4 N Fc/A = (1114..25 cm = 0.8 x 60/.316 kg)(13.299 m/s)2/(0. the total volumetric contraction is 1 .07) .12 A horizontal true centrifugal casting process is used to make lead pipe for chemical plants. and ID = 60 cm.5%.13 A vertical true centrifugal casting process is used to make tube sections with length = 10.932. The pipe has length = 0.4 rev/min.5/π = 406. and the solidification shrinkage and solid contraction after freezing can be determined from Table 10. The inside diameter of the tube = 5. In the absence of gravity.914.005)(1-.9 g = 19.8 m/s2 N = 30(2g x GF/D).316 kg v = πRN/30 Use mean radius R = (65 + 60)/4 = 31.1/9. However.7 Pa (d) The G-factor of 60 would probably result in a successful casting operation. there would be a problem in pouring the molten metal into the mold cavity and getting it to adhere to the mold wall as the mold begins to rotate.7 rev/min.4)/30 = 1329. given that the liquid shrinkage is 0.11 For the steel ring of preceding Problem 11. Fc = 10.Ri2)L = π(32. Area of this length of mold wall A = πDoL = π(65 cm)(5 cm) = 1021 cm2 = 0.07 m.Ri2)(L) = π((65/2) 2 .casting without the nuisance of “raining” inside the cavity.5/π = 30(2 x 9.3125 m v = π(31.3125 m) = 10. (b) Suppose that the ring were made out of steel instead of aluminum.03)(1-.1021 m2) = 10.0 in. 11.(60/2) 2)(5.52 . and from Table 10.4 rev/min (c) Use 5 cm ring length as basis of area calculations.4 cm3) = 19.1043 The required starting volume of molten metal V = 2454.5 in at the top and 5.7 N/m2 = 10.4 N)/(0.10 A horizontal true centrifugal casting process is used to make aluminum rings with dimensions: L = 5 cm.81 = 1114. (a) Determine the rotational speed that will provide a G-factor = 60.0 in and outside diameter = 6.4 cm3 Given that the molten metal shrinkage = 0.1.

608y) .5 = 1.075 m.5 ((3.304 . If the speed of rotation during solidification is 1000 rpm.007055) .5 = 500π/30 = 52. Solution: L = 200 mm = 0. density ρ = 0.3042 .02814 (3.14 A vertical true centrifugal casting process is used to produce bushings that are 200 mm long and 200 mm in outside diameter.313 lb/in3 (Table 11.608y + y2 .5 = .22917 ft Rb = 5.3042 + 6. determine the inside diameters at the top and bottom of the tubing if the total weight of the final casting = 75.2 x .448 in.3.5493(5888) .y2).0 in long and whose outside diameter = 8.8 x 0.02814 y = .92/(Rt2-.6 in 3 Assume the inside wall of the casting is straight from top to bottom (an approximation of the parabolic shape).635 (y) .5 L = 10 in.Solution: Use Eq. Db = 6. where y = one-half the difference between Rt and Rb.915 in 2 Ri = 3.16 The housing for a certain machinery product is made of two components. The foreman complains that the thickness of the parts are too thin.02 . 11.304+y) 2-(3. N = (30/π)(2gL/(Rt2-Rb2).080 in.36 (3.0752). N = (30/π)(2gL/(Rt2-Rb2).Ri2)(15.5 = 732.0.5 = (30/π)(2 x 9.0 lbs. (11.608y + y2 .608y + y2)).36) 2 = 2741.2 x 12 x 15/((3.005625)). Rt = 3. Defects and Design Considerations 11.0) = 239.007055 Rt = 0. Volume of casting V = 75.3042 + 6.304 + y and Rb = Ri .5 = 1.6/15π = 5.080 = 3. Solution: For brass.5 = 1.085 Ri2 = 16. = 0.216y) .005625 + 0.1).224 in.15 A vertical true centrifugal casting process is used to cast brass tubing that is 15. The average inside radius Ri = (Rt + Rb)/2 Volume V = π(Ro2 . = 0.005625)).50 in.304 .y = 3.5 = 1.5 N = (30/π)(3.5 = 500 rev/min (3.6.080 = 3.(3.2 m.304+y) 2-(3.8333 ft Rt = 5. both of which are plagued by defects in the form of misruns and cold shuts.313 = 239.y.Ri2) = 239.384 in.5 = (13.5 = (30/π)(2 x 32.5.20833 ft N = (30/π)(2 x 32.08399 m = 83.02814 (2 x 6. both aluminum castings.7 rev/min 11.768 in.208332).304-y) 2).304+y) 2-(3.005625 = 3.99 mm. Rb = 3. If the rotational speed during solidification is 500 rpm.304-y) 2)).00143 Rt2 = .75 in.229172-.5 = 9.304 + 0. = 0. determine the inside diameter at the top of the bushing if the diameter at the bottom is 150 mm.5 = 30(11592) .92/2741.56 Rt2-.0 .5/2 = 2. Rb = 150/2 = 75 mm = 0.02814 3.5 Given N = 1000.8333/(.2/(Rt2-.56 = 0.3042 + 6.001430 = 0.005625) = (52.02814 (3.304-y) 2)).6 in 3 (4.02 .0/.608y .5/1000π = 1. The larger component has the shape of a dish sink and the second component is a flat cover that is attached to the first component to create an enclosed space for the machine parts.6) to make the computation of N: N = (30/π)(2gL/(Rt2-Rb2). Sand casting is used to produce the two castings.92/(Rt2-. and that is the Dt = 6. thus 1000π/30 = (11592/((3.304 in Let Rt = Ri + y = 3.0/2 = 2. 59 .085 = 10.92/(Rt2-.0 in.Ri2)L = π(4.

thus increasing the risk of sand blows and pin holes. What other explanation can be given for the defects? Solution: Misruns and cold shuts result from low fluidity.17 A large steel sand casting shows the characteristic signs of penetration defect . One possible reason for the defects in this case is that the thickness of the casting cross-sections is too small. (a) What steps can be taken to correct the defect? (b) What other possible defects might result from taking each of these steps? Solution: (a) What are the possible corrective steps? (1) Reduce pouring temperature. However. (2) Increase the packing of the mold sand to resist penetration. 11. given that the casting of these parts is successfully accomplished at other foundries. (3) Treat the mold cavity surface to make it harder.reason for the defects. 60 . it is known that the same components are cast successfully in other foundries. and (2) the pouring operation is performed too slowly.a surface consisting of a mixture of sand and metal. two other possible explanations are: (1) the pouring temperature is too low. However. (b) What possible defects might result from each of these steps? In the case of step (1). Steps (2) and (3) would reduce permeability of the sand. the risk is for cold shuts and misruns.

yet glass is different from the traditional and new ceramics. Name and briefly describe one of them. Finishing operations (e. polycrystalline materials. the glass tube is supported by a series of rollers extending beyond the mandrel. etching) are performed on some glass products. The two processes in the text are: (1) drawing. In the Danner process. 12. whereas traditional and new ceramics are. (1) raw materials preparation and melting. During hardening. 61 . 12.. grinding. and (2) the float process. 12. A gob of molten glass is dropped in to a conical mold which spins. polishing.6 What is the main difference between the press-and-blow and the blow-and-blow shaping processes in glassworking? Answer.g.8 Describe the Danner process? Answer. (2) day tanks. Answer.4 Melting furnace for glassworking can be divided into four types. 12. if needed. Name and briefly describe one of them. and (4) electric furnaces.12 GLASSWORKING Review Questions 12.1 We have classified glass as a ceramic material.it is in the glassy state.5 Describe the spinning process in glassworking. while the first step in the blow-and-blow process is blowing.7 There are several ways of shaping plate or sheet glass. What are the three basic steps in the glassworking sequence? Answer. and (2) centrifugal spraying. by and large. The methods described in this test are: (1) rolling. (2) shaping. 12. 12. causing centrifugal force to spread the glass upward onto the mold surface. molten glass flows around a rotating hollow mandrel through which air is blown while the glass is being drawn. in which molten glass is forced to flow through small orifices in a rapidly rotating bowl to form glass fibers. 12. The four types are: (1) pot furnaces. Answer. Spinning in glassworking is similar to centrifugal casting in metalworking. in which fine glass fibers are pulled through small orifices in a heated plate. Answer. in which the melted glass flows onto a molten tin surface to achieve uniform thickness and smoothness.9 Two processes for forming glass fibers are discussed in the text. Silica . (3) continuous tank furnaces. the initial forming step is pressing of the part.2 12. What is the difference? Answer. and (3) heat treatment. in which the hot glass is squeezed between opposing cylindrical rolls. Answer. Glass is vitreous . The temperature of the air and its volumetric flow rate as well as the drawing velocity determine the diameter and wall thickness of the tubular cross-section. Name three of the four types.3 What is the predominant chemical compound in almost all glass products? Answer.SiO2. In the press-and-blow process.

(2) ceramics are brittle.2 Besides helping to preserve the environment. (b) makes the glass easier to melt. it puts the previously hardened surfaces in compression. not tensile loads. (c) the name given to the melting furnace. For each question. (4) screw threads should be course. Answer. Answer. or (e) vitreous.4. 12. so avoid impact loading. 12. (d) vitiated.11 Describe how a piece of glass is heat treated to produce tempered glass. (c) 12.5 Casting is a glassworking process used for high production. 62 . (b) the electric energy required to melt the glass. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers. since each correct answer is worth 1 point. all correct answers must be given. This has good impact resistance and does not splinter when broken. or (b) false. (c) makes the glass stronger. or (d) reduces odors in the plant. (See Section 14.12. Answer. It is a slow process for these large products. or (d) 2000°C to 2200°C. (a) True. Laminated glass.4 Typical glass melting temperatures are in which of the following ranges? (a) 400°C to 500°C. (d) 12. 12. (b) devitrified. (b) 12. Answer. (e) 12.1 Which one of the following terms refers to the glassy state of a material? (a) crystalline. The guidelines are: (1) subject ceramic parts to compressive. 12. The glass is heated to a temperature above the annealing temperature and the surfaces are then quenched by air jets to cool and harden them while the interior of the piece remains plastic. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point. (b) 900°C to 1000°C. and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point. in which two sheets of glass are laminated on either side of a polymer sheet. (b) Casting is used in glassworking for large components like giant telescope lenses in small lot sizes.12 Describe the type of material that is commonly used to make windshields for automobiles.) Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 10 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct). (3) use large radii on inside and outside corners.13 What are some of the design recommendations for glass parts? Answer. (c) 1500°C to 1600°C. Annealing is performed on glass to remove internal stresses that result from shaping and solidification.10 What is the purpose of annealing in glassworking? Answer. Answer. as the interior cools and contracts. which strengthens it. or (d) the starting materials in melting. Answer. Answer. the use of recycled glass as an ingredient of the starting material in glassmaking serves what other useful purpose (one only)? (a) adds coloring variations to the glass for aesthetic value. To attain a perfect score on the quiz.3 The charge in glassworking is which one of the following? (a) the duration of the melting cycle. (c) polycrystalline.

(b) a melting furnace. or (e) none of the above. (c) The rule is that annealing time varies as the square of the wall thickness. or (c) 30 minutes.25 times 10 minutes or 22.7 The press-and-blow process is best suited to the production of (narrow-necked) beverage bottles. Answer. (d) 63 .5 minutes.30/0. (d) sintering. how much time would a glass part of similar geometry but with a wall thickness of 7. 20 minutes is closest.30 in) take to anneal (choose the closest answer)? (a) 10 minutes. (d) an annealing furnace. and (e) spinning.20 in) takes 10 minutes to anneal. (b) 15 minutes. (c) quenching. (a) If a glass part with a wall thickness of 5 mm (0. (b) pressing. while the blow-and-blow process is more appropria te for producing (wide-mouthed) jars.9 12. (c) a sintering furnace.202 = 2. 12. or (d) spinning. Answer. (b) pressing.8 12. Which one of the following processes is used to produce glass tubing? (a) Danner process. (b) It's the reverse. Answer. (c) rolling. That would indicate an annealing time of 0. Answer.5 mm (0. Answer. (c) 20 minutes.12. 12.10 A lehr is which of the following? (a) a lion's den. (a) True. (d) Sintering is used to cause bonding of particulate materials such as metal and ceramic powders.6 Which one of the following processes or processing steps is not applicable in glassworking? (a) annealing. or (b) false.

The categories are: (1) extrusion.5 Besides viscosity. as exhibited by die swell in extrusion. Upon what parameters does viscosity depend? Answer. 13. in which the polymer changes to a viscous fluid.6 Define die swell in extrusion. 13. and (2) shear rate. (1) feed section. (4) great flexibility in geometry. identify the sections. in which the feed stock is fed from the hopper and heated. and (3) metering section. less energy employed than in metalworking processes. 13. 13. (4) fibers.4 How does the viscosity of a polymer melt differ from most fluids that are Newtonian. Answer. Answer. 13. It results from the viscoelastic properties of the polymer melt. a polymer melt is compressed to flow through a die orifice and thus the continuous length of the plastic assumes a cross-sectional shape that is approximately the same as the profile of the orifice.3 Viscosity is an important property of a polymer melt in plastics shaping processes. Answer. Some of the reasons are: (1) many of the processes are net shape processes. 13. Answer.2 Identify the main categories of plastics shaping processes. Other properties include: viscoelasticity. (2) molding. and (5) painting and other finishing processes generally not required.1 SHAPING PROCESSES FOR PLASTICS Review Questions What are some of the reasons why the plastic shaping processes are important? Answer. (3) the molecular weight of the polymer also affects viscosity. (3) lower temperatures are required to process plastics than metals or ceramics.the tendency to return to its previous shape. 13.13 13.7 Briefly describe the plastic extrusion process.9 What are the functions of the screen pack and breaker plate at the die end of the extruder barrel? 64 . (3) forming of continuous sheets and films. what other properties of a polymer melt are important in plastics processing? Briefly define each of the properties identified. Of course. Answer. Die swell is the tendency of the extrudate to expand in cross-section dimensions immediately on exiting the die orifice. (5) foamed products. (2) in general. In plastic extrusion. Viscosity of a polymer melt depends on: (1) temperature. 13. (2) compression section. Answer. in which pressure is developed to pump the plastic through the die orifice. a combination of viscous and elastic properties which cause the melt to exhibit memory .8 The barrel and screw of an extruder are generally divided into three sections. and (6) discrete formed sheets and films. A polymer melt exhibits pseudoplasticity. as classified by the resulting product geometry. which means that its value decreases with increasing shear rate.

(2) build pressure. (2) the thinner cross. In addition. 13. Sheet stock has a thickness greater than 0. 13. 13.Answer. (3) wire and cable coating.020 in (0. which are the most important? Answer. The functions of gates in an injection mold are: (1) to increase shear rate to increase viscosity and temperature of the polymer melt. Answer.17.020 in (0. Answer. (2) hollow profiles. Answer. Calendering is a process for producing sheet and film stock out of rubber or rubbery thermoplastics such as plasticized PVC.13 Describe the calendering process. acrylics. See beginning of Section 15.16 Among the synthetic fiber materials.18 An injection molding machine is divided into two principal components.14 Polymer fibers and filaments are used in several applications. (1) solid profiles.section of the gate freezes more rapidly to seal off the cavity. The functions are: (1) filter dirt and lumps.6. Polyester is the most important commercially. what is the difference between a fiber and a filament? Answer. thin strand of material whose length is at least 100 times its diameter. The blown-film process is a widely used process for making thin polyethylene film for packaging. The process begins with the extrusion of a tube which is immediately drawn upward while still molten and simultaneously expanded in size by air inflated into it through the die mandrel.5 mm) thick. 13. 13.11 What is the distinction between plastic sheet and film? Answer. It combines extrusion and blowing to produce a tube of thin film. and (5) filaments (continuous fibers). a filament is a fiber of continuous length. while film stock is less than 0. followed by nylon. what is the most important application? Answer. 13. The components of an injection molding machine are: (1) the injection unit and (2) the clamping unit. 13.5 mm). Thickness. 13. Textiles.12 What is the blown-film process for producing film stock? Answer. there are hydromechanical units which combine hydraulic and mechanical actuations.15 Technically. and rayon. the initial feedstock is passed through a series of rolls to work the material and reduce its thickness to the desired gage. 13. such as tubes. 13. (3) straighten the flow and remove memory. 13. identify them. such as rounds and L-shapes. and (3) parts can be more easily broken off the runner at the gate. name them. Answer. See Figure 13. In the process.17 Briefly describe the injection molding process. 65 . The clamping units are: (1) mechanical toggle clamp and (2) hydraulic. A fiber is a long.19 What are the two basic types of clamping units? Answer.20 Gates in injection molds have several functions. (4) sheet and film.10 What are the various forms of extruded shapes and corresponding dies? Answer.

13. seamless containers. Structural foam molding is an injection molding process in which a gas or gas-producing ingredient is mixed with the polymer melt prior to injection into the mold cavity. 13.plate mold in injection molding? Answer. The differences in injection molding of thermosets are: (1) shorter barrel length. Thermoforming starts with a thermoplastic sheet or film.30 What are the processes by which polymer foams are produced? Answer. then hardening the polymer by means of heat or chemical reaction. in which the surface is drawn into the molding by contraction of internal material.29 Why are the molds generally more costly in mechanical thermoforming than in pressure or vacuum thermoforming? Answer. 13. a negative mold has a concave cavity. in which the polymer melt is squeezed into the parting surfaces between the mold halves and around ejection pins. There are several foaming processes: (1) mechanical agitation . so that the gas comes out of solution and expands when the pressure is subsequently reduced.22 Discuss some of the defects that can occur in plastic injection molding. flashing. Answer. these first two reasons to prevent premature curing. in which the polymer melt solidifies before filling the cavity.mixing a liquid resin with air by.1). 13. 13. Reaction injection molding involves the mixing of two highly reactive liquid ingredients and immediately injecting the mixture into a mold cavity where chemical reactions leading to solidification occur. (2) mixing a physical blowing agent with the polymer . matching mold halves are required.28 What is the difference between a positive mold and a negative mold in thermoforming? Answer. called chemical blowing agents. The two ingredients form the components used in catalyst-activated or mixing-activated thermoset systems (Section 8.24 What are the significant differences in the equipment and operating procedures between injection molding of thermoplastics and injection molding of thermosets? Answer. In mechanical thermoforming. while in other thermoforming processes.3. 13.26 What kinds of products are produced by blow molding? Answer. Blow molding is used to produce hollow. this results in the part having a tough outer skin surrounded by a foam core.a gas such as nitrogen (N2) or pentane (C5H12) which can be dissolved in the polymer melt under pressure. and (3) use of a heated mold to cause cross-linking of the TS polymer. that decompose at elevated temperatures to liberate gases such as CO2 or N2 within the melt. 13.13. As the mold opens. the three-plate mold automatically separates the molded part(s) from the runner system.21 What are the advantages of a three-plate mold over a two. (2) lower temperatures in the barrel.23 Describe structural foam molding.27 What is the starting material form in thermoforming? Answer.25 What is reaction injection molding? Answer. The defects include: short shots. A positive mold has a convex shape. 13. only one mold form is required. such as bottles. 66 . and weld lines where the melt has flowed around a core or 13. sink marks. and (3) mixing the polymer with chemical compounds. Answer.

Answer. (e) metering section.3 Which three of the following are sections of a conventional extruder barrel for thermoplastics? (a) compression section. The other parameters. Answer. so dimensional changes due to temperature variations are much more significant than for metals. (c). and (d). (c) 13. or (e) slit-die extrusion. (c) rate of flow. The resistance to forward flow is called back pressure flow. (a). (d) heating section. all correct answers must be given. which is caused by the resistance to flow through the die orifice: (a) true or (b) false. are probably more recognizable to the reader as correct answers to this question.13. better than many ceramics. (3) Service temperatures of plastics are limited relative to engineering metals and ceramics. (2) Impact resistance of plastics is general good.6 The principal components of an injection molding machine are which two of the following? (a) clamping unit. (4) Thermal expansion is greater for plastics than metals. (5) Many types of plastics degrade from sunlight and certain other forms of radiation. or (d) none of the above. (c). To attain a perfect score on the quiz. Also. 13. but should be included in our list of plastic sheet and film-making processes. some plastics degrade in oxygen and ozone atmospheres. 13. 13.5 Spinning in the production of synthetic fibers refers to which of the following: (a) extrusion of polymer melt through small die openings. (d) doctor blade method. and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point. (d) temperature. Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 36 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct). (b) hopper. since each correct answer is worth 1 point. (b). (c) chill-roll extrusion.31 What are some of the general considerations that product designers must keep in mind when designing components out of plastics? Answer. and (f) shaping section.4 Which of the following processes is not associated with the production of plastic sheet and film (more than one)? (a) blown-film extrusion process. Answer. (b) die section. (d) mold. (c) both of the above. (a). Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers. and (e) part ejection unit. and rate of flow (c) is related to shear rate. Some of the general considerations are : (1) Plastics are not as strong or stiff as metals and should not be used in applications where high stresses will be encountered. plastics are soluble in many common solvents. Answer. Degree of polymerization (a) is correlated with molecular weight. (b) drawing the strands to elongate and thin them.1 The shear viscosity of a polymer melt is affected by which of the following (more than one)? (a) degree of polymerization. and (e) 13. (b) Drag flow is the forward motion of the melt caused by the Archimedian screw principle in the barrel. (a) and (c) 67 . (c) injection unit. (b) calendering. Answer. 13. For each question. (c) feed section. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point.2 The forward movement of polymer melt in an extruder barrel is resisted by drag flow. (d) Calendering is more closely associated with rubber coating of materials such as textiles. (b) and (d). (b) polymer type. Answer. Finally.

13.7

The parting line in injection molding is which one of the following: (a) the lines formed where polymer melt meets after flowing around a core in the mold, (b) the narrow gate sections where the parts are separated from the runner, (c) where the clamping unit is joined to the injection unit in the molding machine, (d) where the two mold halves come together, (e) none of the above. Answer. (d) The function of the ejection system is to (one best answer): (a) move polymer melt into the mold cavity, (b) open the mold halves after the cavity is filled, (c) remove the molded parts from the runner system after molding, (d) separate the part from the cavity after molding, (e) none of the above. Answer. (d) A three-plate mold offers which of the following advantages when compared to a two-plate mold (more than one)? (a) automatic separation of parts from runners, (b) gating is usually at the base of the part to reduce weld lines, (c) sprue does not solidify, (d) stronger molded parts, (e) none of the above. Answer. (a) and (b)

13.8

13.9

13.10 Which of the following defects or problems is associated with injection molding (more than one)? (a) bambooing, (b) die swell, (c) drag flow, (d) flash, (e) melt fracture, (f) short shots, or (g) sink marks. Answer. (d), (f), and (g) 13.11 In rotational molding, centrifugal force is used to force the polymer melt against the surfaces of the mold cavity where solidification occurs: (a) true or (b) false. Answer. (b) It is the force of gravity in the doubly rotating mold that forces the polymer against the mold surfaces. 13.12 Use of a parison is associated with which one of the following plastic shaping processes? (a) bi-injection molding, (b) blow molding, (c) compression molding, (d) pressure thermoforming, or (e) sandwich molding. Answer. (b) 13.13 A thermoforming mold with a convex form is called which one of the following (may be more than one)? (a) a die, (b) a negative mold, (c) a positive mold, or (d) a three-plate mold. Answer. (c) 13.14 The term encapsulation refers to which one of the following plastics shaping processes? (a) casting, (b) compression molding, (c) extrusion of hollow forms, (d) injection molding in which a metal insert is encased in the molded part, or (e) vacuum thermoforming using a positive mold. Answer. (a) 13.15 Which of the following terms applies to the processing of foam plastics (more than one)? (a) chemical blowing agents, (b) open cell structure, (c) powder injection molding, (d) sandwich molding, (e) structural foam molding, (f) all of the above. Answer. (a), (b), (d), and (e). 13.16 The two most common polymer foams are which of the following? (a) polyacetal, (b) polyethylene, (c) polystyrene, (d) polyurethane, and (e) polyvinylchloride.

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Answer. (c) and (d) 13.17 In which of the following property categories do plastic parts compare favorably with metals (more than one)? (a) impact resistance, (b) resistance to ultraviolet radiation, (c) stiffness, (d) strength, (e) strength-to- weight ratio, or (f) temperature resistance. Answer. (a) and (e). 13.18 Which of the following processes are generally limited to thermoplastic polymers (more than one)? (a) blow molding, (b) compression molding, (c) reaction injection molding, (d) thermoforming, (e) transfer molding, (f) wire coating. Answer. (a) and (d). 13.19 Which of the following processes would be applicable to produce hulls for small boats (more than one)? (a) blow molding, (b) compression molding, (c) injection molding, (d) rotational molding, or (e) vacuum thermoforming. Answer. (a), (d), and (e).

Problems

Extrusion 13.1 The diameter of an extruder barrel is 65 mm and its length = 1.75 m. The screw rotates at 55 rev/min. The screw channel depth = 5.0 mm, and the flight angle = 18°. The head pressure at the die end of the barrel is 5.0 x 106 Pa. The viscosity of the polymer melt is given as 100 Pas. Find the volume flow rate of the plastic in the barrel. Solution: Qd = 0.5π 2(65x10-3)2(55/60)(5x10-3)sin 18 cos 18 = 95,560x10-9(0.3090)(0.9510) = 28.081 x 10-6 m3/s p = 5 MPa = 5x106 n/m2 Qb = π(5x106)(65x10-3)(5x10-3)3(sin 18) 2/12(100)(1.75) = 5.804 x 10-6 m3/s Qx = 28.081 - 5.804 = 22.277 x 10 -6 m3/s. 13.2 An extruder barrel has a diameter of 120 mm and a length = 3.0 m. The screw channel depth = 8.0 mm, and its pitch = 95 mm. The viscosity of the polymer melt is 75 Pas, and the head pressure in the barrel is 4.0 MPa. What rotational speed of the screw is required to achieve a volumetric flow rate of 90 cm3/s? Solution: A = tan-1(95/120π) = 14.14° Qd = 0.5π 2(.12) 2(N)(8x10-3)sin 14.14 cos 14.14 = 0.5685x10-3(0.2444)(0.9697) = 134.73 N x 10-6 m3/s Qb = π(4x106)(.12)(8x10-3)3(sin 14.14) 2/12(75)(3.0) = 26.66 x 10-6 m3/s Qx = Qd - Qb = 157.5 N x 10-6 - 26.66 x 10-6 = 90 x 10-6 m3/s 134.73 N = 90 + 26.66 = 116.66 N = 116.66/134.73 = 0.8659 rev/s = 51.95 rev/min. 13.3 An extruder has diameter = 80 mm and length = 2.0 m. Its screw has a channel depth = 5 mm, flight angle = 18 degrees, and it rotates at 1 rev/sec. The plastic melt has a shear viscosity = 150 Pas. Determine the extruder characteristic by computing Qmax and p max and then finding the equation of the straight line between them. Solution: Qmax = Qd = 0.5π 2(.08) 2(1)(5x10-3)sin 18 cos 18 = 0.158 x 10-3(0.3090)(0.9510) = 46.4 x 10-6 m3/s pmax = 6π(.08)(1)(2)(150)(cot 18)/(5x10-3)2 = 452.4(3.077)/25x10-6 = 55 x 106 Pa = 55 MPa

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Qx = 46.4 x 10-6 - (46.4x10-6/55)p Qx = 46.4 x 10 -6 - 0.8436 x 10-6 p, where p has units of MPa 13.4 Determine the helix angle A such that the screw pitch p is equal to the screw diameter D. This is called the "square" angle in plastics extrusion - the angle that provides a flight advance equal to one diameter for each rotation of the screw. Solution: Assume flight land = zero. From Eq. (15.4), tan A = pitch/πD If pitch = D, then A = tan-1(1/π) = 17.66° ° 13.5 An extruder barrel has a diameter of 2.5 in. The screw rotates at 60 rev/min; its channel depth = 0.20 in, and its flight angle = 17.5°. The head pressure at the die end of the barrel is 800 lb/in 2 and the length of the barrel is 50 in. The viscosity of the polymer melt is 122 x 10-4 lb-sec/in 2. Determine the volume flow rate of the plastic in the barrel. Solution: Qd = 0.5π 2(2.5) 2(1)(.2)sin 17.5 cos 17.5 = 0.5(12.337)(0.3007)(0.9537) = 1.769 in 3/sec Qb = π(800)(2.5)(.2) 3(sin 17.5) 2/12(122x10-4)(50) = 0.621 in 3/sec Qx = 1.769 - 0.621 = 1.148 in3/sec. 13.6 An extruder barrel has a diameter of 4.0 in and an L/D ratio of 28. The screw channel depth = 0.25 in, and its pitch = 4.8 in. It rotates at 60 rev/min. The viscosity of the polymer melt is 100 x 10-4 lb-sec/in 2. What head pressure is required to obtain a volume flow rate = 150 in 3/min? Solution: A = tan-1(pitch/πD) = tan-1(4.8/4π) = 20.9° Qd = 0.5π 2(4) 2(1)(.25)sin 20.9 cos 20.9 = 19.74(0.3567)(0.9342) = 6.578 in 3/sec = 394.66 in 3/min Qx = Qd - Qb = 394.66 - Qd = 150 Qb = 394.66 - 150 = 244.66 in 3/min = 4.078 in3/sec L = 4(28) = 112 in. Qb = πp(4)(.25) 3(sin 20.9) 2/12(100x10-4)(112) = 4.078 0.0018592 p = 4.078 p = 2193.4 lb/in2 13.7 An extrusion operation produces continuous tubing with outside diameter = 2.0 in and inside diameter = 1.7 in. The extruder barrel has a diameter = 4.0 in and length = 10 ft. The screw rotates at 50 rev/min; it has a channel depth = 0.25 in and flight angle = 16°. The head pressure has a value of 350 lb/in 2 and the viscosity of the polymer melt is 80 x 10-4 lb-sec/in 2. Under these conditions, what is the production rate in length of tube/min, assuming the extrudate is pulled at a rate that eliminates the effect of die swell (i.e., the tubing has the same OD and ID as the die profile). Solution: Qd = 0.5π 2(4) 2(50/60)(.25)sin 16 cos 16 = 16.45(0.2756)(0.9613) = 4.358 in 3/sec Qb = π(350)(4)(.25) 3(sin 16) 2/12(80x10-4)(120) = 0.453 in 3/sec Qx = 4.358 - 0.453 = 3.905 in 3/sec. Ax = 0.25π(22 - 1.72) = 0.872 in 2 vx = 3.905/0.872 = 4.478 in/sec = 22.39 ft/min. 13.8 An extruder has barrel diameter and length of 100 mm and 2.8 m, respectively. The screw rotational speed = 50 rev/min, channel depth = 7.5 mm, and flight angle = 17°. The plastic melt has a shear viscosity = 175 Pas. Determine: (a) the extruder characteristic, (b) the shape factor Ks for a circular die opening with diameter = 3.0 mm and length = 12.0 mm, and (c) the operating point (Q and p). Solution: Qmax = Qd = 0.5π 2(.1) 2(50/60)(7.5x10-3)sin 17 cos 17 = 308.4 x 10-6(0.2924)(0.9563)

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= 86.2 x 10-6 m3/s pmax = 6π(.1)(50/60)(2.8)(175)(cot 17)/(7.5x10-3)2 = 44.75 x 106 Pa =44.75 MPa Qx = 86.2 x 10 -6 - 1.926 x 10-12 p, where p has units of Pa (b) Given: Dd = 3 mm, Ld = 12 mm. Ks = π(3 x 10-3)4/128(175)(12 x 10-3) = 0.9467 x 10 -12 (c) 0.9467 x 10-12 p = 86.2 x 10-6 - 1.926 x 10-12 p 2.8727 x 10-12 p = 86.2 x 10-6 p = 30.0 x 10 6 Pa = 30 MPa Qx = 0.9467 x 10-12 (30 x 106) = 28.4 x 10 -6 m3/s Check with extruder characteristic: Qx = 86.2 x 10-6 - 1.926 x 10-12 (30 x 106) = 28.4 x 10-6 m3/s. 13.9 Consider an extruder in which the barrel diameter = 4.5 in and length = 11 ft. The extruder screw rotates at 60 rev/min; it has channel depth = 0.35 in and flight angle = 20°. The plastic melt has a shear viscosity = 125 x 10-4 lb-sec/in 2. Determine: (a) Qmax and p max, (b) the shape factor Ks for a circular die opening in which Dd = 0.312 in and Ld = 0.75 in, and (c) the values of Q and p at the operating point. Solution: (a) Qmax = 0.5π 2(4.5) 2(1)(.35)sin 20 cos 20 = 34.975(0.342)(0.9397) = 11.24 in 3/sec pmax = 6π(4.5)(1)(132)(.0125)(cot 20)/(0.35) 2 = 3139 lb/in2 (b) Given: Dd = 0.312 in., Ld = 0.75 in. Ks = π(.312) 4/128(.0125)(.75) = 0.024808 (c) From (a), Qx = Qmax - (Qmax/pmax)p = 11.24 - 0.003581p From (b), Qx = 0.024808p Combining, .024808p = 11.24 - .003581p .02839p = 11.24 p = 395.9 lb/in2 Qx = 11.24 - 0.003581(395.9) = 9.82 in3/sec 13.10 An extruder has a barrel diameter = 5.0 in and length = 12 ft. The extruder screw rotates at 50 rev/min; it has channel depth = 0.30 in and flight angle = 17.7°. The plastic melt has a shear viscosity = 100 x 10-4 lb- sec/in 2. Find: (a) the extruder characteristic, (b) the values of Q and p at the operating point, given that the die characteristic is Qx = 0.00150 p. Solution: (a) Qmax = 0.5π 2(5) 2(50/60)(.3)sin 17.7 cos 17.7 = 30.84(0.3040)(0.9527) = 8.93 in 3/sec pmax = 6π(5)(50/60)(144)(.01)(cot 17.7)/(0.3) 2 = 3937.6 lb/in2 Qx = Qmax - (Qmax/pmax)p = 8.93 - 0.002268p (b) Given: die characteristic Qx = 0.0015p Qx = 8.93 - 0.002268p = 0.0015p 0.00377p = 8.93 p = 2370 lb/in2 Qx = 8.93 - 0.002268(2370) = 3.55 in3/sec 13.11 An extruder has a barrel diameter = 4.0 in and length = 5.0 ft. The extruder screw rotates at 80 rev/min. It has a channel with depth = 0.15 in and flight angle = 20°. The polymer melt has a shear viscosity = 60 x 10-4 lb- sec/in 2 at the operating temperature of the process. The specific gravity of the polymer is 1.2. (a) Find the equation for the extruder characteristic. If a T-shaped cross-section is extruded at a rate of 0.13 lb/sec, determine: (b) the operating point (Q and p), and (c) the die characteristic that is indicated by the operating point. Solution: (a) Qmax = 0.5π 2(4) 2(80/60)(.15)sin 20 cos 20 = 15.79(0.3420)(0.9397) = 5.075 in 3/sec pmax = 6π(4)(80/60)(60)(.006)(cot 20)/(0.15) 2 = 1104.8 lb/in2

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Qx = Qmax - (Qmax/pmax)p = 5.075 - 0.004593p (b) Given: T-shaped cross section extruded at 0.13 lb/sec. Density of polymer ρ = 1.2(62.5 lb/ft3)/(12 in 3/ft3) = 0.0433 lb/in3 Qx = 0.13/0.0433 = 3.0 in 3/sec. 3.0 = 5.075 - 0.004593p 0.004593p = 5.075 - 3.0 = 2.075 p = 451.8 lb/in2 (c) Qx = Ks p Ks = Qx/p = 3.0/451.8 = 0.00664 Qx = 0.00664 p Injection Molding 13.12 Compute the percentage volumetric contraction of a polyethylene molded part, based on the value of shrinkage given in Table 13.1. Solution: 15.12 S = 0.025 for polyethylene from Table 13.1. Volumetric contraction = 1.0 - (1 - .025) 3 = 1.0 - 0.92686 = 0.07314 = 7.314% Note that we are not using the parameter S from Table 13.1 in the way it was intended to be used. Its intended use is to compute the oversized dimension of a mold cavity in injection molding. Instead, we are using the shrinkage term to calculate the amount of (volumetric) reduction in size of the part after the polymer is injected into the cavity. In fact, a slightly different shrinkage parameter value may apply in this case. 13.13 The specified dimension = 100.00 mm for a certain injection molded part made of nylon-6,6. Compute the corresponding dimension to which the mold cavity should be machined, using the value of shrinkage given in Table 13.1. Solution: S = 0.020 for nylon-6,6 from Table 13.1. Dc = 100.0 + 100(0.020) + 100(0.020) 2 = 100 + 2.02 + 0.04 = 102.04 mm. 13.14 The part dimension for a certain injection molded part made of polycarbonate is specified as 3.75 in. Compute the corresponding dimension to which the mold cavity should be machined, using the value of shrinkage given in Table 13.1. Solution: S = 0.007 for polycarbonate from Table 13.1. Dc = 3.75 + 3.75(0.007) + 3.75 (0.007) 2 = 3.75 + 0.0263 + 0.0002 = 3.7765 in. 13.15 The foreman in the injection molding department says that a polyethylene part produced in one of the operations has greater shrinkage than the calculations indicate it should have. The important dimension of the part is specified as 112.5 ±0.25 mm. However, the actual molded part measures 112.02 mm. (a) As a first step, the corresponding mold cavity dimension should be checked. Compute the correct value of the mold dimension, given that the shrinkage value for polyethylene is 0.025 (from Table 13.1). (b) What adjustments in process parameters could be made to reduce the amount of shrinkage. Solution: (a) Given: S = 0.025, Dc = 112.5 + 112.5(.025) + 112.5(.025) 2 = 115.383 mm (b) Adjustments to reduce shrinkage include: (1) increase injection pressure, (2) increase compaction time, and (3) increase molding temperatures.

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95. The inside and outside diameters of the die that produced the parison are 18 mm and 22 mm. Solution: Mean extrusion die diameter Dd = (1.25 in diameter bottle from a parison that is extruded in a die whose outside diameter = 1.5)/2 = 9.5/160 = 1.40 = 246 mm.2 mm.0343) = 2.73 lb/in2 .Other Molding Operations and Thermoforming 13.0 mm. (15.) (b) Measured value should be close to calculated value.125 in.281) 2(1.95(62.5x12 . and the plastic is an ABS sheet with an initial thickness of 3. The observed die swell is 1.0)/2 = 0. The observed diameter swell ratio = 1. Dm = rsd3tdDd/tm = (1. Solution: (a) Dd = (11.35 Rearranging Eq. Blow molding wall thickness tm = (1.2/16) 3] = 63. If the minimum wall thickness of the blow molded container is to be 0.18)/2 = 2 mm. Maximum air pressure p = 2(1000)(0. What weight of PE powder should be loaded into the mold in order to meet these specifications? The specific gravity of the PE grade is 0.18 in 3 Weight = (63. respectively. The ball will be 1.17 A blow molding operation produces a 6.Di3)/6 = 0. 13. (a) What is the corresponding wall thickness of the container? (b) Obtain an empty 2-liter plastic soda bottle and (carefully) cut it across the diameter.013 in.5 mm.00 in.0)/100.shaped part.25 . Solution: Density ρ = 0. Some wall thickness are less.25) in text.25 = 0.25.281 tm = (1.125 in.0429)/6. determine (a) the corresponding wall thickness of the container and (b) the wall thickness of the parison.16667π[(1.(1. 13.25) 3(2. 462 mm 13. and td = (22 . Solution: (a) rsd = 20.125)(1.17 lb.5 ft in diameter and its wall thickness should be 1/16 in.20 A rotational molding operation is to be used to mold a hollow playing ball out of polyethylene. Using a micrometer.5 mm and inside diameter = 7.16 The extrusion die for a polyethylene parison used in blow molding has a mean diameter = 16. The mean diameter of the parison is observed to swell to a size of 20.5)/112 = 0.1.505 mm (b) tp = (1.25 in and inside diameter = 1.5x12) 3 . 13. 13. measure the wall thickness to compare with your answer in (a).25 = 13. rsd = 27/20 = 1.331 mm (= 0.35) 3(2)(20)/.281) 2 (1.7.5)(16.125)/6.5)/2 = 2.5 mm. (a) Why is thinning 73 .24.0 mm tm = (1. What is the maximum air pressure that can be used if the maximum allowable tensile stress for the polymer is 1000 lb/in 2.5 mm.00)/2 = 1.5 . The parison is used to blow mold a beverage container whose outside diameter = 112 mm (a standard size 2-liter soda bottle).19 An extrusion operation is used to produce a parison whose mean diameter = 27 mm. The size of the ring opening in the die = 1. The operation is conventional pressure thermoforming using a positive mold. and wall thickness td = (1.40 mm.0 = 0.0343 lb/in 3 Volume = π(Do3 .21 The problem in a certain thermoforming operation is that there is too much thinning in the walls of the large cup. If the diameter of the blow molded container is to be 100 mm.0429 in.18)(0.24) 3(.4/1728) = 0.18 A parison is extruded from a die with outside diameter = 11.5) = 2.1.25 .5 mm after exiting the die orifice. and td = (11.0)(9.5 + 7. what is the maximum possible diameter of the blow mold? Solution: Dd = (22 + 18)/2 = 20 mm.

(b) The problem could be solved by either: (1) fabricating a negative mold to replace the current positive mold. since a negative mold will distribute the material more uniformly and result in approximately equal thinning throughout the sheet. However. or (2) prestretch the sheet as in Figure 13. the portion contacting the base of the cup experiences little stretching. 74 .38 in the text. Hence. thinning in these sides results.occurring in the walls of the cup? (b) What changes could be made in the operation to correct the problem? Solution: (a) As the starting flat sheet is draped over the convex cup-shaped mold. the remaining portions of the sheet must be stretched significantly to conform to the sides of the cup.

14. Vulcanization causes cross-linking of the rubber molecules. antioxidants. (4) shaping.2 How is raw rubber recovered from the latex that is tapped from a rubber tree? Answer. Answer.5 14. 14. The categories are: (1) extrusion. radial ply has its carcass plies running in a radial direction.6 14. see Article 14. (b) belted bias. skimming. whereas diagonal ply tires do not have these belts. coloring pigments. plasticizers to soften the rubber. (3) the coagulum is then squeezed through rolls to drive off water. and (c) radial ply. dipping. 14. The three steps are: (1) preform the components.9 What are the three basic steps in the manufacture of a pneumatic tire? Answer. (2) calendering. (3) coating.3 What is the sequence of processing steps required to produce finished rubber goods? Answer. and (5) vulcanization. 14. 14. (3) mixing.7 Name the four basic categories of processes used to shape rubber. Answer. which are additional plies around the outside circumference of the tire. and (4) the resulting sheets are dried in smokehouses for several days. The typical sequence is: (1) production of the raw rubber.4. and (4) molding. reinforcing fillers. and spraying. 14. Calendering. (a) diagonal ply. The additives and functions are: vulcanizing chemicals. The resulting raw rubber is called ribbed smoked sheet. The rubber is usually recovered as follows: (1) the latex is collected into tanks and diluted to half natural concentration. and (3) fabricators take the NR and SR and produce finished rubber goods. Diagonal ply and belted bias both have their carcass plys running in a diagonal direction relative to the tire circumference. extenders to reduce cost. and (3) molding and curing. 14.8 Name the three basic tire constructions and briefly identify the differences in their construction. and blowing agents to make foam rubber. The rubber industry is organized into three parts: (1) rubber growing plantations produce natural rubber. (2) compounding.14 14. What does vulcanization do to the rubber? Answer. (2) the petrochemical industry produces synthetic rubber.1 RUBBER PROCESSING TECHNOLOGY Review Questions How is the rubber industry organized? Answer. belted bias and radial ply tires use belts.4 What are some of the functions of the additives that are combined with rubber during compounding? Answer. (2) building the carcass and adding the rubber for the sidewall and treads.10 What is the purpose of the bead coil in a pneumatic tire? 75 . this strengthens and stiffens the rubber while extensibility is retained.1. (2) formic or acetic or other acid is added to the solution which causes the rubber to coagulate. What are some of the operations used to coat rubber onto a fabric to produce reinforced rubber? Answer.

each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point. whereas holes can be machined or molded in a plastic part. (d) plasticizers and softening oils. or (d) 45. (d) sulfur. or (d) transfer molding. Three examples: (1) no draft is needed on the part for mold removal. 14. or (d) tennis balls. (c) 25. Answer. (2) holes should be molded into rubber parts rather than machined. (b) injection molding. or (d) polystyrene. (b) 14. or (e) reclaimed rubber.Answer. (c) stearic acid. (b) while building the carcass. all correct answers must be given.11 What is a TPE? Answer. (a) and (b) 14. the extreme flexibility of rubber results in certain differences. (c) 14. (b) carbon black. Answer. (c) 14.6 How many minutes are required to cure (vulcanize) a modern passenger car tire? (a) 5. (b) 14. Answer. (b) carbon black. (c) polyisoprene. (a) 14.3 Of the following rubber additives. Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 11 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct). 76 . For each question. 14. or (d) during curing. (b) polyisobutylene.7 When is the tread pattern imprinted onto the circumference of the tire? (a) during preforming.5 Which of the following ingredients do not contribute to the vulcanizing process (more than one)? (a) calcium carbonate.2 The chemical name of the ingredient recovered from the latex of the rubber tree is which one of the following? (a) polybutadiene. and (e) zinc oxide.12 Many of the design guidelines that are applicable to plastics are also applicable to rubber. However. To attain a perfect score on the quiz. (c) thermoforming. Answer. it is a thermoplastic polymer that behaves like a rubber. (c) pneumatic tires. Answer. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers. (c) clays and other hydrous aluminum silicates. Answer.4 Which one of the following molding processes is the most important in the production of products made of conventional rubber? (a) compression molding. What are some examples of these differences? Answer. and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point. 14. The bead coil provides a rigid support for the tire when it is mounted onto the wheel rim. (b) 15. since each correct answer is worth 1 point.1 The most important rubber product is: (a) footwear. (c) during molding. and (3) screw threads are not normally used on rubber parts. (b) conveyor belts. TPE stands for thermoplastic elastomer. which one would rank as the single most important? (a) antioxidants.

77 . (a) Screw threads are not normally designed into rubber parts because of the extreme flexibility of rubber. (b) and (e) 14. Answer. (b) compression molding.8 Which of the following are not normally used in the processing of thermoplastic elastomers (more than one)? (a) blow molding. (c) extrusion.9 Screw threads are not normally molded into rubber parts: (a) true or (b) false.Answer. (c) 14. Answer. (d) injection molding. or (e) vulcanization.

A mat is a felt consisting of randomly oriented fibers held loosely together in a binder. In the prepreg approach. In wet lay-up. 15. fillers. Prepregs have continuous fibers rather than chopped fibers as in molding compounds. In the context of fiber reinforcement. Principal polymer matrices in FRPs are unsaturated polyesters and epoxies. A roving consists of untwisted filaments.2 15.9 What is an autoclave? Answer. the layer of fiber reinforcement is placed into the mold dry.7 How is a prepreg different from a molding compound? Answer.250 inch. Answer. 15. (2) high pressure is generally associated with the process. Why do we say that particles and flakes are members of the same basic class of reinforcing material? Answer. the fibers in each layer are randomly oriented.4 SHAPING PROCESSES FOR POLYMER MATRIX COMPOSITES Review Questions What are the principal polymers used in fiber-reinforced polymers? Answer. whereas in spray-up. What is the difference between a roving and a yarn? Answer. 15. TMCs. all rolled into a sheet of typical thickness = 0.5 What is sheet molding compound (SMC)? Answer. while a yarn consists of twisted fibers. 78 . An autoclave is an enclosed chamber which can supply heat and/or pressure at controlled levels. Why are laminated FRP products made by the spray-up method not as strong as similar products made by hand lay-up? Answer. and the uncured resin is then applied to it to form the composite laminate. what is a mat? Answer. 15. orientation of the fibers is controlled.6 15. PMC molding compounds include SMCs.10 What are some of the distinguishing characteristics of the closed mold processes for PMCs? Answer. Characteristics include: (1) they use molds consisting of two halves that open and close during the molding cycle. 15. layers of fiber preimpregnated with resin are laid into the mold. 15. Because in hand lay-up.1 15.8 What is the difference between the wet lay-up approach and the prepreg approach in hand lay-up? Answer. and (3) the geometric shapes of the moldings are more complex in three dimensions. and BMCs. SMC consists of TS polymer resin. and chopped glass fibers.11 Identify some of the different forms of PMC molding compounds.3 15. Flakes are simply particles that possess very low width-to-thickness ratios.15 15.

For each question. Answer. (c) 79 .1 Which one of the following is the most common polymer type in fiber-reinforced polymer composites? (a) elastomers. The resulting part is a fiber-reinforced (usually glass fiber) plastic molding. diamond cutting tools. RRIM involves the injection of resins that cure by chemical reaction together with reinforcing fibers into a closed mold.15. Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 12 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct). Answer. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point.12 What is preform molding? Answer. power shears.19 How are FRPs cut? Answer.13 Describe reinforced reaction injection molding (RRIM). Cured FRPs are cut by WC and HSS cutting tools. 15. Filament winding is a process in which resin. the resin is cured and the mandrel is removed. 15. Preform molding is a compression molding process in which a precut mat is placed into the lower half of a mold together with a charge of thermosetting resin. The resulting sections are similar to extruded parts except that they are reinforced with continuous fibers. laser beam cutting. scissors.16 Describe the pultrusion process. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers. Typical products include: bicycle frames and space trusses. steel-rule blanking dies. 15. Answer. 15.14 What is filament winding? Answer. the materials are then pressed between heated molds to cure the resin and produce a fiber-reinforced molding. To attain a perfect score on the quiz. Pultrusion is a process in which continuous fibers are dipped into a resin and pulled through a shaping die (somewhat like an extrusion die) where the resin cures. 15. 15.18 With what kinds of products is tube rolling associated? Answer. (b) thermoplastics. or (c) thermosets. and water jet cutting. all correct answers must be given. CNC allows independent control over mandrel rotation and carriage speed for greater flexibility in relative motions. Pulforming is pultrusion with the added operation of a shape change in the length (straight length becomes curved) and cross-section (different cross-sections throughout the length).17 How does pulforming differ from pultrusion? Answer. 15. and water jet cutting.impregnated continuous fibers are wrapped around a rotating mandrel with the internal shape of the FRP product. since each correct answer is worth 1 point. and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point. 15. Uncured FRPs are cut by methods which include: knives.15 What is the advantage of computer numerical control over mechanical control in filament winding? Answer.

15.2

Most rubber products are properly classified into which of the following categories (more than one)? (a) elastomer reinforced with carbon black, (b) fiber- reinforced composite, (c) particle -reinforced composite, (d) polymer matrix composite, (e) pure elastomer, and (f) pure polymer. Answer. (a), (c), and (d). Hand lay-up is classified in which of the following general categories of PMC shaping processes (more than one)? (a) closed mold process, (b) compression molding, (c) contact molding, (d) filament winding, or (e) open mold process. Answer. (c) and (e). A positive mold with a smooth surface will produce a good finish on which surface of the laminated product in the hand lay-up method? (a) inside surface or (b) outside surface. Answer. (a) SMC molding is a form of which one of the following? (a) compression molding, (b) contact molding, (c) injection molding, (d) open mold processing, (e) pultrusion, or (f) transfer molding. Answer. (a) Filament winding involves the use of which one of the following fiber reinforcements? (a) continuous filaments, (b) fabrics, (c) mats, (d) prepregs, (e) short fibers, or (f) woven rovings. Answer. (a) In filament winding, when the continuous filament is wound around the cylindrical mandrel at a helix angle close to 90°, it is called which of the following (one best answer)? (a) bi-axial winding, (b) helical winding, (c) hoop winding, (d) perpendicular winding, (e) polar winding, or (f) radial winding. Answer. (c) Pultrusion is most similar to which one of the following plastic shaping processes? (a) blow-molding, (b) extrusion, (c) injection molding, or (d) thermoforming. Answer. (b) Water jet cutting is one of several ways of cutting or trimming uncured or cured FRPs; in the case of cured FRPs, the process is noted for its reduction of dust and noise: (a) true or (b) false. Answer. (a)

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16.1

POWDER METALLURGY

Review Questions

Name some of the reasons for the commercial importance of powder metallurgy technology. Answer. PM is important because: (1) parts can be made to net or near net shape, (2) parts can be made with a controlled level of porosity, (3) certain metals difficult to process by other methods can be processed by PM, (4) PM allows the formulation of unusual alloys not easily obtained by traditional alloying methods. 16.2 What are some of the disadvantages of PM methods? Answer. Disadvantages include: (1) high tooling costs, (2) metal powders are expensive, (3) difficulties in storing and handling, (4) certain limitations on part geometry imposed by the uniaxial press methods, and (5) variations in density in a PM component can be troublesome. 16.3 16.4 In the screening of powders for sizing, what is meant by the term mesh count? Answer. The mesh count of the screen is the number of openings per linear inch. What is the difference between open pores and closed pores in a metallic powders? Answer. Open pores are air spaces between particles, while closed pores are voids internal to a particle. 16.5 What is meant by the term aspect ratio for a metallic particle? Answer. The aspect ratio of a particle is ratio of the maximum dimension to the minimum dimension of the given particle. 16.6 How would one measure the angle of repose for a given amount of metallic powder? Answer. One measure would be to let the powders flow through a small funnel and measure the angle taken by the resulting pile of powders relative to the horizontal. 16.7 Define bulk density and true density for metallic powders. Answer. Bulk density refers to the weight per volume of the powders in the loose state, while true density is the weight per volume of the true volume of metal in the powders (the volume that would result if the powders were melted). 16.8 What are the principal methods used to produce metallic powders? Answer. The methods are: (1) atomization - the conversion of molten metal into droplets which solidify into powders; (2) chemical reduction - reducing metallic oxides by use of reducing agents which combine with the oxygen to free the metals in the form of powders; and (3) electrolysis use of an electrolytic cell to deposit particles of the metal onto the cathode in the cell. 16.9 What are the three basic steps in the conventional powder metallurgy shaping process? Answer. The steps are: (1) blending and/or mixing, (2) pressing, and (3) sintering. 16.10 What is the technical difference between mixing and blending in powder metallurgy? Answer. Mixing refers to the combining of metal powders of different chemistries, while blending means combining particles of the same chemistry but different sizes.

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16.11 What are some of the ingredients usually added to the metallic powders during blending and/or mixing? Answer. The additives are: (1) lubricants, (2) binders, and (3) deflocculants. 16.12 What is meant by the term green compact? Answer. The green compact is the pressed but not yet sintered PM part. 16.13 Describe what happens to the individual particles during compaction. Answer. Starting with the initial powder arrangement, the particles are first repacked into a more efficient arrangement, followed by deformation of the particles as pressure is increased. 16.14 Which of the following most closely typifies the sintering temperatures in PM? (a) 0.5 Tm, (b) 0.8 Tm, (c) Tm. Answer. (b) 16.15 What are the three steps in the sintering cycle in PM? Answer. The three steps in the cycle are: (1) preheat, in which lubricants and binders are burned off, (2) sintering, and (3) cool down. 16.16 What are some of the reasons why a controlled furnace is desirable in sintering? Answer. Some of the purposes of a controlled atmosphere furnace are: (1) oxidation protection, (2) provide a reducing atmosphere to remove existing oxides, (3) provide a carburizing atmosphere, and (4) remove lubricants and binders from pressing. 16.17 What are the advantages of infiltration in PM? Answer. Advantages of infiltration are: resulting structure is nonporous structure, improved toughness and strength. 16.18 What is the difference between powder injection molding and metal injection molding? Answer. Metal injection molding is a subset of powder injection molding, in which the powders are metallic. The more general term includes powders of ceramic. 16.19 How is isostatic pressing distinguished from conventional pressing and sintering in PM? Answer. Isostatic pressing applies hydrostatic pressure to all sides of the mold, whereas conventional pressing is uniaxial. 16.20 Describe liquid phase sintering. Answer. Liquid phase sintering occurs when two metals of different melting temperatures are sintered at a temperature between their melting points. Accordingly, one metal melts, thoroughly wetting the solid particles and creating a strong bonding between the metals upon solidification. 16.21 What are the two basic classes of metal powders as far as chemistry is concerned? Answer. The two classes are: (1) elemental powders - powders of pure metal such as iron or copper, and (2) prealloyed powders - powders of alloys such as stainless steel or brass. 16.22 Why is PM technology so well suited to the production of gears and bearings? Answer. The reasons are: (1) the geometries of these parts lend themselves to PM pressing, and (2) the porosity allows impregnation of the PM parts with lubricants.

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**Multiple Choice Quiz
**

There are a total of 18 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct). To attain a perfect score on the quiz, all correct answers must be given, since each correct answer is worth 1 point. For each question, each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point, and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers. 16.1 The particle size that can pass through a screen is obtained by taking the reciprocal of the mesh count of the screen. (a) true, or (b) false. Answer. (b) The given description neglects consideration of the screen wire thickness. 16.2 Identify which of the phrases make the following statement correct: For a given weight of metallic powders, the total surface area of the powders is increased by (more than one): (a) larger particle size, (b) smaller particle size, (c) higher shape factor, (d) smaller shape factor. Answer. (b) and (c) 16.3 16.4 As particle size increases, interparticle friction (a) increases, or (b) decreases. Answer. (b) Which of the following powder shapes would tend to have the lowest interparticle friction? (a) acicular, (b) cubic, (c) flakey, (d) spherical, and (e) rounded. Answer. (d) 16.5 Which of the following statements is correct in the context of metallic powders (more than one)? (a) porosity + packing factor = 1.0, (b) packing factor = 1/porosity, (c) packing factor = 1.0 porosity, (d) packing factor = - porosity, (e) packing factor = bulk density/true density. Answer. (a), (c), (e) 16.6 Repressing refers to a pressworking operation used to compress an unsintered part in a closed die to achieve sizing and better surface finish. (a) true or (b) false. Answer. (b) The repressed part has been sintered, not unsintered. 16.7 Impregnation refers to which of the following (more than one)? (a) soaking oil by capillary action into the pores of a PM part, (b) putting polymers into the pores of a PM part, or (c) filling the pores of the PM part with a molten metal. Answer. (a), (b) 16.8 In cold isostatic pressing, the mold is most typically made of which one of the following? (a) rubber, (b) sheetmetal, (c) tool steel, (d) textile, or (e) thermosetting polymer. Answer. (a) 16.9 Which of the following processes combines pressing and sintering of the metal powders (more than one)? (a) metal injection molding, (b) hot pressing, (c) spark sintering, and (d) hot isostatic pressing. Answer. (b), (c), and (d) 16.10 Which of the following design features would be difficult or impossible to achieve by conventional pressing and sintering (more than one)? (a) side holes, (b) threaded holes, (c) outside rounded corners, (d) vertical stepped holes, or (e) vertical wall thickness of 1/8 inch (3 mm).

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Answer. (a), (b), (c)

Problems

Characterization of Engineering Powders 16.1 A screen with 325 mesh count has wires with a diameter of 0.001377 in. Using Eq. (16.1), determine: (a) the maximum particle size that will pass through the wire mesh, and (b) the proportion of open space in the screen. Solution: (a) By Eq. (16.1), particle size PS = 1/MC - tw = 1/325 - 0.001377 = 0.003077 - 0.001377 = 0.00170 in. (b) There are 325 x 325 = 105,625 openings in one square inch of the mesh. By inference from part (a), each opening is 0.00170 inch on a side, thus each opening is (0.0017) 2 = 0.000002889 in2. The total open area in one square inch of mesh = 105,625(0.000002889 in 2) = 0.30523 in 2. This is total open space. Therefore, the percent open space in one square inch of mesh = 30.523%. 16.2 A screen with 10 mesh count has wires with a diameter of 0.0213 in. Using Eq. (16.1), determine: (a) the maximum particle size that will pass through the wire mesh, and (b) the proportion of open space in the screen. Solution: (a) By Eq. (16.1), particle size PS = 1/MC - tw = 1/10 - 0.0213 = 0.0787 in. (b) There are 10 x 10 = 100 openings in one square inch of the mesh. By inference from part (a), each opening is 0.0787 inch on a side, thus each opening is (0.0787) 2 = 0.00619 in2. The total open area in one square inch of mesh = 100(0.00619 in 2) = 0.619 in 2. This is total open space. Therefore, the percent open space in one square inch of mesh = 61.9%. 16.3 What is the aspect ratio of a cubic particle shape. Solution: The aspect ratio is the ratio of the maximum dimension to the minimum dimension of the particle shape. The minimum dimension is the edge of any face of the cube; call it L. The maximum dimension is the diagonal of the cube, which is given by (L2 + L2 + L2)0.5 = (3 L2)0.5 = (3) 0.5 L = 1.732 L. Thus, the aspect ratio = 1.732:1. 16.4 Determine the shape factor for metallic particles of the following ideal shapes: (a) sphere, (b) cubic, (c) cylindrical with length-to-diameter ratio of 1:1, (d) cylindrical with length-to-diameter ratio of 2:1, and (e) a disk-shaped flake whose thickness-to-diameter ratio is 1:10. Solution: (a) Sphere: Ks = 6.0 as shown in the text, Eq. (16.6). (b) Cube: Let L = edge of one face. For a cube, A = 6L2 and V = L3. Find diameter D of a sphere of equivalent volume. V = πD3/6 = L3 D3 = 6L3/π = 1.90986 L3 D = (1.90986 L3)0.333 = 1.2407 L Ks = A D/V = (6L2)(1.2407 L)/L3 = 7.444 (c) Cylinder with L/D = 1.0. For this cylinder shape, L = D. Thus, A = 2πD2/4 + πDL = .5πL2 + πL2 = 1.5πL2, and V = (πD2/4)L = 0.25πL3. Find diameter D of a sphere of equivalent volume. V = πD3/6 = 0.25πL3 D3 = 6(0.25πL3)/ π = 1.5L3 D = (1.5 L3)0.333 = 1.1447 L Ks = A D/V = (1.5πL2)(1.1447 L)/0.25πL3 = 6.868

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= 0.5L)L = 0. (a) Determine the total surface area of all the particles in the pile. Given this distribution.001 in. and 25% are 0.211 (e) Disk with L/D = 0.5 lb = 0. constitute 25% of total 2 lb.284(4.002) 2 = 0. however..74 in3 16.18 x 10-9 in3/particle Weight per particle W = ρV = 0.19 x 10-9) = 1. Solution: (a) For a spherical particle of D = 0. and V = (πD2/4)L = 0.0625πL3 = 7.516 x 10-9) = 0.0625πL3 D3 = 6(0.002 in. The particles are spherical in shape and all have the same diameter of 0.7 Suppose in Problem 16. (b) If the packing factor = 0.19 x 10-9 lb/particle Number of particles in 2 lb = 2.313 L Ks = A D/V = (60πL2)(5.721 L Ks = A D/V = (0.27 x 10-6 in2 Total surface area = (0.5L = D. Assume the same packing factor. V = πD3/6 = π(0. the total volume taken up by the pile = (2.25π(10L)2 L = 25πL3 Find diameter D of a sphere of equivalent volume.681 x 109)(12.5π(0.51 x 10-9 in3) = 9.0625πL3 Find diameter D of a sphere of equivalent volume.125πL2 + 0.25π(0.721 L)/0.56 x 10-6) = 21. 50% are 0.5πL2 = 0.6 = 11.002 in.10.0/(1.6.5L)2 + π(0.5π(10L)2 + π(10L)L = 50πL2 + 10πL2 = 60πL2.625πL2.5236 x 10-9 in3/particle Weight per particle W = ρV = 0.0625πL3)/ π = 0.27 x 10-6) = 10.18 x 10-9 in3) = 1.00005027 in2 = 50. V = πD3/6 = π(0.5 that the average particle diameter = 0.284)/0.0/0.004 in.5236 x 10-9 in3) = 0.(d) Cylinder with L/D = 2.002) 3/6 = 0. A = 2πD2/4 + πDL = 0.0.00000000418 = 4. except that the diameter of the particles is 0..0/0.333 = 5.2102 x 109 A = πD2 = π(0. A = 2πD2/4 + πDL = .5. Thus.5/(0.002 in.116 x 10 3 in2 (b) With a packing factor of 0.5 A pile of iron powder weighs 2 lb.004) 2 = 0. V = πD3/6 = 25πL3 D3 = 6(25πL3)/ π = 150L3 D = (150 L3)0.51 x 10-9 in3/particle Weight per particle W = ρV = 0. V = πD3/6 = π(0.375L3 D = (0. the sizes vary. For this shape. 0.5 lb Number of particles in 0.333 = 0. 10L = D.284)/0.002 in.516 x 10-9 lb/particle Number of particles in 2 lb = 2. the total volume taken up by the pile = (2.284 lb/in3.6.362 x 109 85 .625πL2)(0.001) 3/6 = 0.00000003351 = 33. determine the volume taken by the pile.004 in. Thus.284(33.1487 x 10-9) = 3. what is the total surface area of all the particles in the pile. V = πD3/6 = 0. and V = (πD2/4)L = 0.001 in.004) 3/6 = 0.565 x 10 3 in2 (b) With a packing factor of 0.6 Solve Problem 16.5L)2 L = 0.0/(9. Solution: For a spherical particle of D = 0.2102 x 109)(50. Solution: (a) For a spherical particle of D = 0.75 16.375 L3)0. forming a statistical distribution as follows: 25% of the particles by weight are 0.00001256 in2 = 12. Note: the density of iron = 0.284(0.6.6 = 11.56 x 10-6 in2 Total surface area = (1.003 in.74 in3 16.001 in.681 x 109 A = πD2 = π(0.313 L)/25πL3 = 12..1487 x 10-9 lb/particle Particles of size D = 0. For this cylinder shape.

004 in.0 m is converted into metallic powders of spherical shape by gas atomization.952 m2 16.142 x 10-6) = 10. = 1.0/(1. V = π(0.004) 3/6 = 33. constitute 25% of total 2 lb.5 lb Number of particles in 0.864)/864 = 299.015 x 10-9 lb/particle Particles of size D = 0.506 x 103 = 24.8406 x 109 A = πD2 = π(0.563 x 103 + 3.002 in.1 x 10-3)2 = 3.003 in.592.18 x 10-9 in3/particle Weight per particle W = ρV = 0.9958 x 104 = 59.958 .A = πD2 = π(0.1 x 10-3 m is V = πD3/6 = π(0.567 x 109)( 50. is V = πD3/6 = π(0.002) 3/6 = 4. = (0.1 x 10-3 m is A = πD2 = π(0.506 x 103 in2 Total surface area of all particles = 10.19 x 10-9) = 0. The 86 .003 in. constitute 50% of total 2 lb.004 in.5236 x 10-12 = 1.56 x 10-6 in2 Total surface area of particles of D = 0.5/(4..0 lb Number of particles in 1 lb = 1.0 ft is converted into metallic powders of spherical shape by gas atomization.51 x 10-9 in3/particle Number of particles in 1 ft3 = 1728/33.563 x 103 in2 For a spherical particle of D = 0.274 x 10-6 in2 Total surface area of particles of D = 0.001 in.001) 2 = 3.8 A solid cube of copper with each side = 1.137 x 10-9 in3) = 4.0/0.265 x 10-6 in3) = 2.142 x 10-6 in2/particle Total surface area of particles of D = 0.632 x 10 3 in2.003) 2 = 28.1 x 10-3 m Surface area of a sphere of D = 0.5 lb = 0.91 x 1012 Total surface area = (1.000 .362 x 109)(3.004 in (assume that all particles are the same size)? Solution: Area of initial cube A = 6(1 ft)2 = 6 ft2 = 864 in2 Volume of cube V = (1 ft)3 = 1728 in3 Surface area of a spherical particle of D = 0.18 x 10-9 in3) = 1.015 x 10-9) = 0.567 x 109 Total surface area = (51.142 x 10-8 m3/particle Volume of a sphere of D = 0.000 in2 Percent increase = 100(2. V = π(0.592.900% 16. see Figure 2.137 x 10-9 in3/particle Weight per particle W = ρV = 0.284(14..9 A solid cube of aluminum with each side = 1.8(b).91 x 1012)( 0.003 in. = 0.124 x 109 A = πD2 = π(0.004) 2 = 50.563 x 103 + 10.5236 x 10-12 m3) = 5. How much total surface area is added by the process if the diameter of each particle is 100 microns (assume that all particles are the same size)? Solution: Area of starting cube A = 6(1 m) 2 = 6 m2 Volume of starting cube V = (1 m) 3 = 1 m3 D = 100 µm = 0.51 x 10-9 = 51. What is the percentage increase in total surface area if the diameter of each particle is 0.002 in.6 = 59.002 in.265 x 10-6 in3/particle Volume of a spherical particle of D = 0.5236 x 10-12 m3/particle Number of particles in 1 m3 = 1.284(4.958 m2 Added surface area = 59.1 mm = 0. all of which are perfectly spherical and having the same exact diameter. similar to the atomic structure of FCC metals.1 x 10-3)3/6 = 0.592 x 103 = 2. is A = πD2 = π(0.8406 x 109)(12.566 x 10-6) = 10.274 x 10-6) = 3.002) 2 = 12. = (0.10 Given a large volume of metallic powders.19 x 10-9 lb/particle Particles of size D = 0.124 x 109)(28. 16. = (3. what is the maximum possible packing factor that the powders can take? Solution: The maximum packing factor is achieved when the spherical particles are arranged as a face-centered cubic unit cell.003) 3/6 = 14.563 x 103 in2 For a spherical particle of D = 0.

Accordingly.071 in3 87 .25π(442 .0/(2.8284 D3.0.5372 + 4.2 = 0. and (2) finding the volume of the unit cell cube.8752)(0. Packing factor after pressing and sintering = 1.90) = 1.0 Thus for a packing factor of 0. the diagonal of the cube face = 2D. The unit cell contains 6 half spheres in the faces of the cube and 8 one-eighth spheres in corners.25π(3. porosity = 1 .0. The volume of the unit cell is therefore (1.52)(1. Let true specific volume = 1. the inside diameter = 22 mm.25π(Do2 . bulk specific volume = 2.82 .8752) = 5.000) = 416.12 A bearing of simple geometry is to be pressed out of bronze powders. and the length of the bearing = 25 mm.222) = 1140.7405 = 74. The outside diameter = 44 mm.25π(2. Solution: (a) Most appropriate pressing direction is parallel to the part axis.25 .167 16.25π(Do2 .414D.556 in 2 F = Appc = 5.5) = 0.667 Sintering further reduces the bulk specific volume to 0.82 .833 = 0.1.5.13 is to be pressed of iron powders using a compaction pressure of 75.0 x .0. using a compacting pressure of 207 MPa. In the subsequent sintering operation. Given that these are the only factors that affect the structure of the finished part.0. (2) Volume of the cube of one unit cell.0.25π(2. The pressing operation reduces the powder to 2/3 of its starting volume.82 .0944/2. The ratio of (1) over (2) is the packing factor. Volume of 4 spheres = 4πD3/6 = 2.556(75.715 lb = 208 tons.4(207) = 236. (1) Volume of whole and/or partial spheres contained in the unit cell.5. (b) the required press tonnage to perform this operation.Di2) = 0.11 In a certain pressing operation.25π(2. and (c) the final weight of the part if the porosity is 10%. the metallic powder fed into the open die has a packing factor of 0. (b) Press tonnage F = Appc Projected area of part Ap = 0.05% Compaction and Design Considerations 16. Our approach to determine the packing factor will consist of: (1) finding the volume of the spheres and portions thereof that are contained in the cell.062 kN 16.8284 = 0.5) + 0.1925) = 6. Dimensions are inches.0/1. The packing factor = 2. Consider that the diagonal of any face of the unit cell contains one full diameter (the sphere in the center of the cube face) and two half diameters (the spheres at the corners of the face).833 By Eq.13 The part shown in Figure P16.7).0944 D3 where D = diameter of a sphere.Di2) = 0.5) + 8(.000 lb/in2. The equivalent number of whole spheres = 6(.125) = 4 spheres. determine its final porosity.unit cell of the FCC structure contains 8 spheres at the corners of the cube and 6 spheres on each face.667 x .90 of value after pressing. Determine: (a) the most appropriate pressing direction. Thus. Assume shrinkage during sintering can be neglected. the face is a square with each edge = D√2 = 1.414D)3 = 2. shrinkage amounts to 10% on a volume basis. (18. (c) V = 0.4 mm2 F = Appc = 1140. Solution: Packing factor = bulk density / true density Density = (specific volume)-1 Packing factor = true specific volume / bulk specific volume Pressing reduces bulk specific volume to 2/3 = 0. What is the required press tonnage to perform this operation? Solution: Projected area of part Ap = 0.

16. (d) Class IV. one level of press control. part weight W = 6. (b) Class I.284)(0. 4 or 5 levels of press control due to multiple steps in part design.55 lb. one direction part is relatively thin.071(0. Dimensions are mm. 3 levels of press control required.14. whether the part must be pressed from one or two directions.From Table 4.14 For each of the four part drawings in Figure P16. one level of press control. 88 . indicate which PM class the parts belong to.284 lb/in3. density of iron ρ = 0.90) = 1. 2 directions of pressing. 2 directions because of axial thickness. 2 directions of pressing.1. and how many levels of press control will be required. (c) Class IV. Solution: (a) Class II. At 10% porosity.

and carbides.dry pressing. For dry pressing. which is a mechanized extension of hand throwing used to manufacture bowls and plates. nitrides. 17. 17.8 What happens to a ceramic material when it is sintered? Answer.4 Describe the slip casting process in traditional ceramics processing. The difference is in the starting clay. The sequence is: (1) preparation of raw materials. and (4) firing. Answer. Crushing is performed to reduce large lumps of mineral to smaller size. In slip casting a slurry of clay is poured into a plaster of Paris mold. The plastic forming methods include: (1) hand modeling. which is accompanied by densification and reduction of porosity. the water content is usually less than 5%. in which the clay is compressed through a die opening to make long sections of uniform cross-sectional shape.2 17. Answer. It is suited to the manufacture of flatware. the clay has a typical water content of 10% to 15%. The clay is first pressed into rough shape and then rotated and formed with a jigger tool to final shape.6 What is the process of jiggering? Answer. and throwing. as far as raw materials are concerned? Answer. whereupon water is absorbed from the slurry into the plaster to form a clay layer against the mold wall. Dry clay has virtually no plasticity. 17. and (4) extrusion.9 What is the name given to the furnace used to fire ceramic ware? Answer. Jiggering is a clay forming process that uses a convex mold on a potters wheel. 17. 17.10 What is glazing in traditional ceramics processing? 89 .17 17. Grinding is a secondary process which further reduces the particle size to fine powder.3 List the basic steps in the traditional ceramics processing sequence. The remaining slurry is usually poured out to leave a hollow part. For semi. 17.7 What is the difference between dry pressing and semi-dry pressing of traditional ceramics parts? Answer. The traditional ceramics are based on hydrous aluminum silicates (clay).1 PROCESSING OF CERAMICS AND CERMETS Review Questions What is the difference between the traditional ceramics and the new ceramics.5 List and briefly describe some of the plastic forming methods used to shape traditional ceramics products. Sintering of green ceramics (or powdered metals) causes bonding between the ceramic grains. Answer. 17. (3) plastic pressing. in which a clay slug is pressed in a mold. and so this imposes certain limitations on part geometry in dry pressing. (2) shaping. 17. What is the technical difference between crushing and grinding in the preparation of traditional ceramic raw materials? Answer. (3) drying. whereas the new ceramics are based on man-made simpler compounds such as oxides. Kiln. (2) jiggering. molding.

reducing its melting point to the sintering temperature. and the freeze-dried salt is decomposed by heating to form the ceramic powders. 17. usually not required in processing of new ceramics? Answer.13 What is the freeze drying process used to make certain new ceramic powders? Answer. For each question. Because water is usually not one of the ingredients in the new ceramics during forming. The coating.Answer. Which one of the pieces listed is used for grinding? (a) ball mill. Because the requirements on the strength of the finished product are usually more demanding for new ceramics. since each correct answer is worth 1 point.2 Which one of the following compounds becomes a plastic and formable material when mixed with suitable proportions of water? (a) aluminum oxide. In the doctor-blade process. (b) hydrogen oxide. (4) use large radii on inside and outside corners. 17. 90 . 17. and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point.1 The following equipment is used for crushing and grinding of minerals in the preparation of traditional ceramics raw materials. How is this possible? Answer. a ceramic slurry is flowed onto a moving film which flows under a wiper blade. WC gradually dissolves in the cobalt. so important in the processing of traditional ceramics. or (d) silicon dioxide. The guidelines include: (1) subject ceramic parts to compressive. In freeze drying. the water is then removed from the droplets in a vacuum chamber. Answer. is referred to as a glaze.16 What are some design recommendations for ceramic parts? Answer. Glazing refers to the process of putting a ceramic coating on the surface of the ceramic piece. Answer. (c) jaw crusher. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point. (6) no screw threads. usually consisting of ceramic oxides. not tensile loads. salts are dissolved in water and sprayed into small droplets which are immediately frozen. The melting point of cobalt is reduced when WC is dissolved in it. Thus does liquid phase sintering occur in the WC-Co system.15 Liquid phase sintering is used for WC-Co compacts. so that the resulting ceramic is in the form of a thin green sheet which is dried and reeled onto a spool for subsequent shaping and sintering. (a) 17. To attain a perfect score on the quiz.11 Why is the drying step. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers. 17. At the sintering temperatures used for WC-Co. 17. (c) hydrous aluminum silicate.12 Why is raw material preparation more important in the processing of new ceramics than for traditional ceramics? Answer. (b) hammer mill. (3) part geometries should be simple.14 Describe the doctor-blade process. (2) ceramics are brittle. (5) take into account shrinkage. so avoid impact loading. or (d) roll crusher. 17. 17. even though the sintering temperatures are below the melting points of either WC or Co. Drying is only needed when the green piece contains water. all correct answers must be given. Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 15 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct).

(b) and (c) 17. (d). Answer. (c) hot pressing. (c) 20%. and (e) 91 . (b) cermet. (b) jangling. Answer. (c) 17. (d) thin sections. strength increases with grain size: (a) true. (b) 10%. or (e) isostatic pressing. or (d) metal. (d) remove material. (d) injection molding. Answer. Answer. or (e) threads. or (e) spinning. (c) composite. (a) 17. (b) improve surface finish. (c) jiggering. Answer. (c). (b) freeze drying. Answer. (b) rounded inside corners.9 Which one of the following terms best describes what a cemented carbide is? (a) ceramic. (c) 17.4 Which of the following processes are not plastic forming methods used in the shaping of traditional ceramics (more than one)? (a) extrusion. (b) 17. Answer. (d) jolleying. or (b) false. or (b) false. or (d) 40%.6 In the final product made of a polycrystalline new ceramic material. (a). (c) 17.5 The term green piece in ceramics refers to a part that has been shaped but not yet fired: (a) true. (c) sharp edges. Answer. (b) 17.8 Which of the following are not the purposes of finishing operations used for parts made of the new ceramics (more than one)? (a) apply a surface coating.3 At which one of the following water contents does clay become a suitably plastic material for the traditional ceramics plastic forming processes? (a) 5%.Answer.7 Which one of the following processes for the new ceramic materials accomplishes shaping and sintering simultaneously? (a) doctor-blade process. or (e) work harden the surface. (c) increase dimensional accuracy. (a) and (e) 17.10 Which of the following geometric features should be avoided if possible in the design of structural components made of new ceramics (more than one)? (a) complicated shapes.

Increasing strain rate tends to increase the resistance to deformation. Sticking friction is when the work surface adheres to the surface of the tool rather than slides against it. and (3) wearing of the tools. (2) increases forces and power required. and (5) no heating of work required. Describe it. it occurs when the friction stress is greater than the shear flow stress of the metal. 18. The tendency is especially prominent in hot forming operations. 18. In bulk deformation. Because these operations are generally performed on presses. How does increasing temperature affect the parameters in the flow curve equation? Answer. (4) possible directional properties due to grain flow. An isothermal forming operation is performed in such a way as to eliminate surface cooling and thermal gradients in the workpart. 18.18 18.5 18. Increasing temperature decreases both K and n in the flow curve equation. (2) better surface finish. Answer.6 18.10 Why is friction generally undesirable in metal forming operations? Answer. Deep drawing is a sheet metal forming process used to fabricate cup-shaped parts.4 Why is the term pressworking often used for sheet metal processes? Answer.2 Extrusion is a fundamental shaping process. Advantages of cold working are: (1) better accuracy.1 FUNDAMENTALS OF METAL FORMING Review Questions What are the characteristics that distinguish bulk deformation processes from sheet metal processes? Answer. 18. Extrusion is a compression process in which the work material is forced to flow through a die orifice. Reasons why friction is undesirable in metal forming: (1) inhibits metal flow during deformation. Indicate some of the advantages of cold working relative to warm and hot working.9 Describe the effect of strain rate in metal forming. This is accomplished by preheating the forming tools. and the workparts have a low area-to-volume ratio. In sheet metal processes. (3) increased strength due to work hardening. Answer.8 What is isothermal forming? Answer. the shape changes are significant. The flow curve is defined in Eq. What is the difference between deep drawing and bar drawing? Answer. Answer. the area-to-volume ratio is high. 18. 18.3 18. (18.1) as Yf = Kεn. Answer.11 What is sticking friction in metalworking? Answer. 18.7 Indicate the mathematical equation for the flow curve. thereby forcing its cross-section to assume the profile of the orifice. bar drawing is a bulk deformation process used to reduce the diameter of a cylindrical workpart. 92 . causing residual stresses and product defects.

8 The coefficient of friction between the part and the tool in cold working tends to be which of the following relative to its value in hot working? (a) higher. since each correct answer is worth 1 point. (d) 18. or (c) increases flow stress. (c). 93 . (c) 1/n. Answer. Answer. and (e) rolling. Problems Flow Curve in Forming 18. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers.7 Increasing strain rate tends to have which one of the following effects on flow stress during hot forming of metal? (a) decreases flow stress. Answer. 18.2 Which of the following is typical of the work geometry in sheet metal processes? (a) high volume-to-area ratio. or (c) no effect. 18. the final true strain that the metal experiences = 0. and (f) more significant shape changes are possible.73. or (d) 1/(1+n). Answer. (d) 18. (d) forging. and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point. (d).6Tm. (c) extrusion. where n is the strain hardening exponent. or (b) low volume-to-area ratio.Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 13 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct). and (f). (b) 18. Answer. (c) 0. (c) isotropic mechanical properties. (b) lower. (c) 18. During a forming operation. For each question.1 K = 600 MPa and n = 0. (d) less overall energy required. (e).6 Which of the following are advantages and characteristics of hot working relative to cold working (more than one)? (a) fracture of workpart less likely. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point. (b) 0.2Tm. Answer. and (e). (c). (b) increased strength properties. (a). (e) lower deformation forces required.20 for a certain metal. (b) (1+n).5 Hot working of metals refers to which one of the following temperature regions relative to the melting point of the given metal on an absolute temperature scale? (a) room temperature. (b) deep drawing. Answer. (b) 18.1 Which of the following are bulk deformation processes (more than one)? (a) bending. or (d) 0. or (b) plastic region. (b).3 The flow curve expresses the behavior of a metal in which of the following regions of the stress-strain curve? (a) elastic region. To attain a perfect score on the quiz. Answer. Determine the flow stress at this strain and the average flow stress that the metal experienced during the operation. 18. all correct answers must be given. (b) has no effect.4Tm.4 The average flow stress is the flow stress multiplied by which of the following factors? (a) n.

A tensile specimen of the metal with gage length = 100 mm is stretched to a length = 157 mm. (18.5 in.0) = ln 1.73) 0.30. Average flow stress Y = 40.5 Derive the equation for average flow stress.000(0.000(0.75n n = 0. Solution: ε = ln (3. Y = 700(1.4 MPa. A tensile specimen of the metal with gage length = 2.309 lb/in2.501) 0. Solution: Flow stress equation [Eq. (18.27/1.69315) 0.19 = 31.30 = 514.Solution: Flow stress Yf = 600(0.501 Flow stress Yf = 35.0) .26/1.451) 0.30 = 669.000(0.1)]: Yf = Kε n Y over the range ε = 0 to ε = ε is given by ∫Kε n dε = K ∫ε n dε = Kε n+1/ε(n+1) = Kε n /(n+1) ε f 18.000 lb/in2 and n = 0. f 18.7 Determine the value of the strain hardening exponent for a metal that will cause the average flow stress to be 3/4 of the final flow stress after deformation.75(1+n) = 0.27 = 551.206 lb/in2. Determine the flow stress at the new length and the average flow stress that the metal has been subjected to during the deformation.000(0.9 MPa.2) in the text. Solution: Y = 0.27 ε must be equal to 1.2 MPa f 18.3/2.0 in is compressed to a length of 1.69315 Flow stress Yf = 40. f 18.19 = 37.19/1.0 in is stretched to a length = 3.4 The strength coefficient and strain hardening exponent of a certain test metal are K = 40.27 = 700/1.000 lb/in2 and strain hardening exponent n = 0.75 + 0. Solution: Yf = K = 700 = Kε n = 700ε .26 = 23.240 lb/in2.30/1.73) 0.2 = 563.4 MPa.501) 0.65 = 0. Average flow stress Y = 35. Solution: ε = ln (157/100) = ln 1.0.19.5 = -0. Average flow stress Y = 850(0.57 = 0.75 Yf f Kε n/(1+n) = 0. A cylindrical specimen of the metal with starting diameter = 2.26 = 29.2 A metal has a flow curve with parameters: K = 850 MPa and strain hardening exponent n = 0.69315) 0.75 Kε n 1/(1+n) = 0. f 18. f 18. Average flow stress Y = 600(0. Determine the average flow stress that the metal experiences if it is subjected to a stress that is equal to its strength coefficient K.3 A particular metal has a flow curve with parameters: strength coefficient K = 35.451) 0.0) = ln 0.2 = 469.75 1 = 0. Determine the flow stress at this new length and the average flow stress that the metal has been subjected to during deformation.3 in.451 Flow stress Yf = 850(0.333 94 .6 For a certain metal. K = 700 MPa and n = 0.5 MPa. Eq. Determine the flow stress at this compressed length and the average flow stress that the metal has experienced during deformation.352 lb/in2.5 in and length = 3.27.25 = 0.5/3.75n 0.2/1.26. Solution: ε = ln (1.

526 s-1 At L = 200 mm.0 = 0.667 s-1 At L = 160 mm. Solution: (a) strain rate = 200/100 = 2.4) 1. strain rate = 0.667 s -1 (c) strain rate = 200/51 = 3.588 s-1 At L = 180 mm.8) = -0. During the deformation.17 = 0..000) = 35.15 = 0.0 = 0.1/0.625 s-1 At L = 170 mm.01/sec (b) 1. It is subjected to a tensile test in which the grips holding the end of the test specimen are moved with a relative velocity = 0.1667 sec-1 At L = 6.22314/0.18.7726 Af = Ao/1.4 ln ε = ln (0.55786 ε = 0.000 = 0.000 = 35.1/0.1538 sec-1 At L = 7.0 in. 95 .0 in.8 = ε .5724 Ao/Af = 1.1/0.20 = 0. Construct a plot of the strain rate as a function of length as the specimen is pulled to a length = 8. strain rate = 0. The strength constant C = 30. Determine the strain rate at (a) h = 100 mm.18 = 0. strain rate = 1/7.5 = 0.000 lb/in2 and n = 0.0 s -1 (b) strain rate = 200/75 = 2. strain rate = 0.12 A hot working operation is carried out at various speeds. strain rate = 0. strain rate = 1/7.40 for a metal used in a forming operation in which the workpart is reduced in cross-sectional area by stretching..4 0.1333 sec-1 At L = 8.1250 sec-1 18.1429 sec-1 At L = 7. Solution: The following values are calculated for the plot: At L = 6.555 s-1 At L = 190 mm.0 = 0.000 lb/in 2.1/0.0 in/sec.4(20. If the average flow stress on the part is 20.500 s-1 18.1/0.564Ao Strain Rate 18. and (c) h = 51 mm.15.0 in.4 28.000 lb/in2 and the strain-rate sensitivity exponent m = 0.0 in. Solution: The following values are calculated for the plot: At L = 150 mm..5 in. Determine the flow stress if the strain rate is: (a) 0. strain rate = 0. Construct a plot of the strain rate as a function of length as the specimen is pulled to a length = 200 mm.19 = 0. Solution: Y = Kε n/(1+n) f 20.10 A specimen with 6.0 in starting gage length is subjected to a tensile test in which the grips holding the end of the test specimen are moved with a relative velocity = 1. strain rate = 1/8.22314 ln ε = -0.8 K = 35.16 = 0.11 A workpart with starting height h = 100 mm is compressed to a final height of 50 mm. strain rate = 1/6.000 ε . (b) h = 75 mm.5 in. (c) 100/sec.922 s -1 18.000/35.4 = -0.9 The gage length of a tensile test specimen = 150 mm.1 m/s.0/sec.000 ε . strain rate = 0.5 = 0.5724 ε = ln(Ao/Af) = 0.4/(1. strain rate = 1/6..1/0.7726 = 0. determine the amount of reduction in cross-sectional area experienced by the part. the relative speed of the plattens compressing the part = 200 mm/s..

(18. At a strain rate = 12/s.601.660 Averaging these values.7038 – 5. 18. and at a strain rate = 250/s.4 (b) If temperature were decreased to 900°F.000 = C(300) m 45.14 A tensile test is carried out to determine the strength constant C and strain-rate sensitivity exponent m for a certain metal at 1000°F. the stress is measured at 160 MPa. the strength constant C would decrease and the strain-rate sensitivity exponent m would increase.658 (2) C = 300/(250) . C = 95. At a strain rate = 10/sec.4 (2) C = 45000/3000.5752 = 14.13 A tensile test is performed to determine the parameters C and m in Eq.m ln 250 = ln C (1) and (2): ln 160 .15 = 59.m ln 250 5.9565 = (300/10) m = (30) m ln 1. what changes would you expect in the values of C and m? Solution: (a) Two equations: (1) 160 = C(12) m and (2) 300 = C(250) m (1) ln 160 = ln C + m ln 12 or ln 160 . the stress = 300 MPa.m ln 12 = ln C (2) ln 300 = ln C + m ln 250 or ln 300 .4012 m m = 0.659 (b) If temperature were 600°C.9656 = m ln 30 0.1361 = 95.6286 m = 0. and at a strain rate = 300/sec.207 = 160.6726 = 95.01) .1973 = 45000/3.Solution: (a) Yf = C(strain rate)m = 30.0366 m = 0.601.m ln 12 = ln 300 .000 = 1.000(100) .000 lb/in 2.000(1.000 lb/in2 (c) Yf = 30. (b) If the temperature were 600°C.000/23. the stress = 45.1973 (1) C = 23000/10 = 23000/1.0) .5215 m (5. what changes would you expect in the values of C and m? Solution: (a) Two equations: (1) 23.0819 = 14.15 = 15.207 = 300/3.15 = 30. (a) Determine C and m. the strength constant C would increase and the strainrate sensitivity exponent m would decrease. 96 .036 lb/in2 (b) Yf = 30.0752 3.000(0.4 C = 14.4) for a certain metal.207 (1) C = 160/(12) . the stress is measured at 23.0752 – 2.601.4849 m = 5.5215 – 2.7038 – 5. (b) If the temperature were 900°F.000 lb/in 2.67117 = 3.1.858 lb/in2 18.1973 0.000 = C(10) m and (2) 45. The temperature at which the test is performed = 500°C. (a) Determine C and m.4849)m = 5.

19. rails. and (3) use smaller diameter rolls. Because its presence constrains the metal in the die to fill the details of the die cavity. Reasons why the bulk deformation processes are important include: (1) they are capable of significant shape change when hot working is used. The three basic types are: (1) open die forging. A reversing mill is a two-high rolling mill in which the direction of rotation of the rolls can be reversed to allow the work to pass through from either side.10 What is isothermal forging? 97 . which apply a gradual pressure to the work. some are net shape processes. 19. Answer. (2) reduce draft in each pass. identify some additional bulk forming processes that use rolls to effect the deformation.8 19. Ways to reduce force in flat rolling include: (1) use hot rolling. and (3) closed die forging. By this classification. which impact the workpart. round bar and rod stock.5 What is a reversing mill in rolling? Answer.6 Besides flat rolling and shape rolling.2 List some of the products produced on a rolling mill. and (3) most of the processes produce little material waste. Some other processes that use rolls are ring rolling. Rolled products include flat sheet and plate stock. thread rolling. and roll forging.4 What is a two-high rolling mill? Answer. 19.9 Why is flash desirable in impression die forging? Answer. and presses. Answer. 19. 19. Answer. (2) impression die forging. structural shapes such as I-beams and channels. (2) they have a positive effect on part strength when cold working is used. A two-high rolling mill consists of two opposing rolls between which the work is compressed. roll piercing. 19.3 Identify some of the ways in which force in flat rolling can be reduced. gear rolling. What are the two basic types of forging equipment? Answer. Answer. name the three basic types.19 19. 19.1 BULK DEFORMATION PROCESSES IN METALWORKING Review Questions What are the reasons why the bulk deformation processes are important commercially and technologically? Answer.7 One way to classify forging operations is by the degree to which the work is constrained in the die. The two types of forging machines are hammers. 19.

(b) roll diameter. Products made by discrete extrusion include: toothpaste tubes. (c) ring rolling. the metal on the exit side of the draw die would stretch rather than force metal to be drawn through the die opening. 19. To attain a perfect score on the quiz.12 Name some products that are produced by extrusion. Bar and wire drawing (a) is the only tricky answer.13 What does the centerburst defect in extrusion have in common with the roll piercing process? Answer. and (d).11 Distinguish between direct and indirect extrusion.1. 19. (b) hobbing. and rods of various cross-section. Answer. Answer. (d) reversing mill. and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point. aluminum beverage cans. and battery cases.4 Which of the four basic bulk deformation processes use compression to effect shape change (more than one)? (a) bar and wire drawing.3 Production of pipes and tubes is associated with which of the following bulk deformation processes (more than one)? (a) extrusion. and (d) rolling. 19. (d) stock thickness. (c) forging. 19. See Article 19. Answer. (a) and (c). 19. (f) tube sinking. since each correct answer is worth 1 point.1 The maximum possible draft in a rolling operation depends on which of the following parameters (more than one)? (a) coefficient of friction between roll and work. 98 . For each question. or (g) upsetting.Answer. (c). (b) continuous rolling mill. (e). 19. tubes and pipes. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers. and (f) strength coefficient of the work metal. and (f). why must the drawing stress never exceed the yield strength of the work metal? Answer. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point. 19. all correct answers must be given.2 Which of the following rolling mill types are associated with relatively small diameter rolls in contact with the work (more than one)? (a) cluster mill. (b) extrusion. Answer. (a) and (b). (d) roll forging. (a). Answer. Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 22 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct).3. They are both examples of how compressive stresses applied to the outside surface of a solid cylindrical cross-section can create high tensile stresses in the interior of the cylinder. Because if the drawing stress exceeded the yield strength. (c) roll velocity. channels). Products produced by continuous extrusion include: structural shapes (window frames. (a).14 In a wire drawing operation. although tensile stresses are applied to the work. the work is squeezed through the die opening by compression the term indirect compression is sometimes used. Isothermal forging is a hot forging operation in which the die surfaces are heated to reduce heat transfer from the work into the tooling. Answer. (e) strain. or (e) three-high configuration. shower stalls. (b). 19. (e) roll piercing. (c) four-high mill.

(d).0.13 19. Determine: (a) the minimum required coefficient of friction that would make this rolling operation possible.5 rev/min.0 ft long. (b) 0.vr)/vr = (20. (c) impact extrusion. drawn into wire stock. (c) forging.0333 µ = (0. (b). and (f).8 19. and no redundant work. Each step will reduce the slab to 75% of its previous thickness.915 m/min (c) s = (vf . (e) thread rolling. Roll radius = 300 mm. is which of the following (one answer)? (a) zero. Thickness is to be reduced in three steps in a hot rolling operation.7 19. (b) exit velocity under the assumption that the plate widens by 2% during the operation. Tube and pipe cross-sections can be produced by either direct or indirect extrusion.10 Johnson's formula is associated with which of the four bulk deformation processes (one answer)? (a) bar and wire drawing. and (d) rolling. Bar stock is rolled.30 = 10 mm. (b).2 A 2. Answer.02w o)vf vf = 40(wo)(16)/ 30(1.02w o) = 640/30.5 Flash in impression die forging serves no useful purpose and is undesirable because it must be trimmed from the part after forming: (a) true or (b) false? Answer. (c). (b) Problems Rolling 19. and (d) rolling.5)/18. (b) Which of the following bulk deformation processes are involved in the production of nails for lumber construction (more than one)? (a) bar and wire drawing. The production of tubing is possible in indirect extrusion but not in direct extrusion: (a) true or (b) false? Answer. Solution: (a) Maximum draft dmax = µ2 R Given that d = to .0333) 0. (c) 1.18. and (c) forward slip. 19.5 = 0.19.915 .9 19.02 wo 40(wo)(16) = 30(1.6 = 20. and (d). Answer.6 Which of the following are classified as forging operations (more than one)? (a) coining. Entrance speed = 16 m/min. (b) fullering. µ2 = 10/300 = 0. or (d) 2.1 A 40 mm thick plate is to be reduced to 30 mm in one pass in a rolling operation. It is expected 99 . and upset forged to form the nail head. (b) extrusion. Answer. (b) extrusion. Flash causes build-up of pressure inside the die which causes the work metal to fill the cavity.0 in thick slab is 10. (a).72. (c) forging. 19.tf = 40 . Answer. towovo = tfwfvf wf = 1. Theoretically.5 = 0.0 in wide and 12. (a). (b).63. no friction. (d) roll forging. and rotational speed = 18. and (f) upsetting. the maximum reduction possible in a wire drawing operation.1826 (b) Plate widens by 2%. under the assumptions of a perfectly plastic metal.

875 mm Minimum number of passes = (to .927)Lf Lf = (2.71 = 25.0)(10.71 mm. the slab will widen by 3% in each step. 100 .12945. Equal drafts of 6 mm are to be taken at each stand. Determine: (a) minimum number of passes required.98(0. Under the assumption that the forward slip is equal at each stand. Step 3: vf = (0. Final thickness is to be 13 mm.98 mm Pass 4: d = 32.5) 1/5 = 0.25)/4 = 6.x) n = 25 (1 .27 = 28.752 x 2. Thickness of the starting plate = 25 mm and width = 300 mm.75)(2.x) = (. determine: (a) speed vr at each stand.63 mm. and (b) forward slip s. = 26.71 . (b) Pass 1: d = 50(0.0.844)(10.12945) = 4.17 → 4 passes (b) Draft per pass d = (50 .12945) = 6.75)(0.875/50 = 0.844)(10. To reduce from to = 50 mm to to = 25 mm in n passes.8409 x = 1 .78 ft/min.03 x 10.75 x 2.1575. the following relationship must be satisfied: 50(1 .0) = 51.71 mm Pass 5: d = 28.71(0.0)(12 x 12) = (0.that for this metal and reduction.4.0)(12 x 12)/(0.53 .0)(1.15) 2 (350) = 7.033 x 10. towoLo = tfwfLf (2.47 mm.03)(10.753 x 2.0) = 0.927) = 312.0) = 10.0) = 51.51/n Try n = 4: (1 .0)(1.03)(1. Solution: (a) After three passes.0)(40)/(0.3.87055 = 0. tf = 32.x) = 0. rather than the draft.0. determine: (a) length and (b) exit velocity of the slab after the final reduction.x) = (. Step 1: vf = (2. 19.0)(1. suppose that the percent reduction were specified to be equal for each pass. which is within the maximum possible reduction of 0.0)(40)/(0.1591.27 mm. Try n = 5: (1 .032 x 10. and n = number of passes. The plate is wide enough relative to its thickness that no increase in width occurs. and roll speed is the same for the three steps.0)(1. The specification is that the draft is to be equal on each pass. tf = 37.78 ft/min.3 in.91 mm.1575 Let x = fraction reduction per pass.00 mm 19.5) 1/4 = 0.025 ft (b) Given that roll speed is the same at all three stands and that towovo = tfwfvf . tf = 50 .4.47 = 43.5 (1 .0)(10. Roll diameter = 700 mm and coefficient of friction between rolls and work = 0.752 x 2. wf = (1.844 in. Step 2: vf = (0.0)(40)/(0.15) 2 (350) = 7. Rotational speed at the first stand = 20 rev/min.0)(1.5.75 x 2.98 .x) n = 25/50 = 0. (a) What is the minimum number of passes required? (b) What is the draft for each pass? Solution: (a) Maximum possible draft occurs on first pass: dmax = µ2 R = (0.87055 x = 1 .875 = 3.78 ft/min. which exceeds the maximum possible reduction of 0.89 .03)(1.89(0.6.0) = 51.3 A series of cold rolling operations are to be used to reduce the thickness of a plate from 50 mm down to 25 mm in a reversing two-high mill. If the entry speed of the slab in the first step is 40 ft/min.63 = 37. tf = 28.1575.875 mm This converts into a maximum possible reduction x = 7.25)/7. and (b) draft for each pass? Solution: (a) Maximum draft dmax = µ2 R = (0.5 A continuous hot rolling mill has two stands.032 x 10.8409 = 0. The number of passes must be an integer.12945) = 3.91 = 32. tf = (0. Roll radius at each stand = 250 mm.4 In the previous problem.25 mm 19.12945) = 4. tf = 43.75)(0.tf)/dmax = (50 .12945) = 5.89 mm Pass 3: d = 37.927 in.53 mm Pass 2: d = 43.53(0.0)(10.03 x 10.15.

and rotational speed at stand number 1 = 30 rev/min.5(34.2/31. if the entering speed at the first stand = 26 m/min.4) = 34.0.0vo = 0. It is observed that the speed of the slab entering stand 1 = 240 ft/min. (1 + s)vr2 = v2 (Eq.0 in.1 m/min. in 8 stands.2 m/min. width = 15.10) 1/8 = 0.74989 = r = 0.0 = 0.2 m/min (Eq. Let v1 = exiting plate speed at stand 1 and entering speed at stand 2.3 in. (b) 25vo = 19v1 v1 = 25(26)/19 = 34. 19. 2) By constant volume. (b) rotational speed of the rolls at stands 2 through 8. Let vr1 = roll speed at stand 1. to tf = 0.5v1 (Eq. 3.01% at each stand.3 m/min. vr1 = πDNr = π(2 x 250)(10-3)(20) = 31.089 s = 0.75v1 = 0. Percent reduction in thickness is to be equal at all stands.5v1 Substituting (Eq.x) = (0.0 in.50v2 v2 = 1.0(1 . wo = w1 = w2 Therefore.3/3. (d) What is the draft at stands 1 and 8? (e) What is the length and exit speed of the final strip exiting stand 8? Solution: (a) To reduce from to = 3.x) 8 = 0. and it is assumed that the forward slip will be equal at each stand. The dimensions of the starting slab are: thickness = 3.3 in.6 = 13 mm. t2 = 19 .5vr1 vr2 = 1. Let t1 = exiting plate thickness at stand 1 and entering thickness at stand 2. t1 = 25 . 1). Let v2 = exiting plate speed at stand 2. (1 + s)vr2 = 1. vr2 = ? Forward slip s = (vf . Let t2 = exiting plate thickness at stand 2. The final thickness is to be 0. Solution: (a) Let to = entering plate thickness at stand 1. (1 + s)vr1 = v1 (Eq.42 m/min. previously calculated in (b) v2 = 1. 3) Combining (Eqs. (1 + s)vr2 = v2 = 1.5v1 = 1.(c) Also. towovo = t1w1v1 = t2w2v2 Since there is no change in width.2 (1 + s) = 34.0 in. (b) Forward slip s = (vf . thus vr2 = 1. Let vo = entering plate speed at stand 1. Determine: (a) percent reduction at each stand. Let vr2 = roll speed at stand 2.089 (c) v1 = 34.3 (1 . Assume that no widening of the slab occurs during the rolling sequence.vr (1 + s)vr = vf 101 .x) 8 = 0. 1): (1 + s)vr1 = v1 (1 + s)(31.42) = 47.10 (1 .vr (1 + s)vr = vf At stand 1. to = 25 mm. Roll diameter at each stand = 36 in.6 = 19 mm.6 A continuous hot rolling mill has eight stands.2501 = 25.5(31. tovo = t1v1 = t2v2 1.2) = 51. and (c) forward slip.vr)/vr svr = vf . determine the exiting speeds at each rolling stand.4 = 1.74989 x = 1 .5(1 + s)vr1 . and length = 10 ft.vr)/vr svr = vf . 1) At stand 2. 2 and 3).

3) = 2400 ft/min.9 rev/min Nr6 = 0. where r = 0. Determine: (a) roll force.r)2v2 = .2501) = 40 rev/min Nr3 = 0.10609 = 9. w8 Therefore.132 Check with stand 2: given v2 = 426. toLo = t8L8 3.r)8v8 .10609 x 282. . v2 = exit speed of slab.. as before (d) Draft at stand 1 d1 = 3.2.20 = 5 mm.78 = 1. wo = w1 = w2 = .8 (1 + s) = 426. and (c) power required to accomplish this operation.78/(1-r)2 = 53.74989 = 320 ft/min v2 = 320/0.14 = 1.04 ft/min (1 + s)(377. . . (e) Length of final strip Lf = L8 towoLo = t8w8L8 Given that wo = w8.5 rev/min Nr8 = 0.426(40) = 377. Since s is a constant.0(.2501) = 0. . 3(1 . At stand 8: (1 + s)vr8 = v8.r)v1 = 3(1 . 19.3 rev/min Nr7 = 0. .78/(1-r)7 = 224.78/(1-r)3 = 71. where vr1 = roll speed. .74989 = 426. = t8w8v8 Since there is no change in width.10609 x 282.1 rev/min Nr5 = 0.25 = 0. vr1 : vr2 : . .0.0(1 .04) = 426.223 102 . where vr8 = roll speed.10609 x 282. towovo = t1w1v1 = t2w2v2 = . (b) roll torque.132 s = 0.0(10 ft) = 0.132 s = 0.10006 in.10609vr2 Rearranging.10609 x 282.3 rev/min Nr4 = 0.78) = 320 (1 + s) = 320/282. = t8v8 to = 3.2501 as determined in part (a). Contact length L = (500 x 5) .8/377.10609 x 282. (1 + s)vr1 = v1 (1 + s)(282. tovo = t1v = t2v2 = . . : v8 Given that Nr1 = 30 rev/min.78/(1-r)6 = 168.78/(1-r) = 0. v8 = exit speed of slab. . Solution: (a) Draft d = 25 . The work material has a strength coefficient = 240 MPa and a strain hardening exponent = 0.78 ft/min In general Nr = (30/282.78/(1-r)4 = 94.5 = 50 mm True strain ε = ln(25/20) = ln 1.78/(1-r)5 = 126.9 rev/min (c) Given vo = 240 ft/min v1 = 240/(1-r) = 240/0.9. By constant volume.10609 x 282.8 ft/min from above Nr2 = 0.At stand 1: (1 + s)vr1 = v1 . Draft at stand 8 d8 = 3.78) = 0.426N r2 = 0.10609 x 282.78/(1-0. .7503 in. The roll has a radius = 500 mm. 3vo = 3(1 .3L8 towovo = t8w8v8 tovo = t8v8 v8 = 240(3/0. At stand 2: (1 + s)vr2 = v2 . : vr8 = v1 : v2 : .7 L8 = 100 ft A plat that is 250 mm wide and 25 mm thick is to be reduced in a single pass in a two-high rolling mill to a thickness of 20 mm. vr2 = Nr2/0.10609 x 282. and its speed = 30 m/min. Etc. vr1 = πDNr1 = (2π x 18/12)(30) = 282.2501) 7(. . .10609vr Nr2 = 0.2501) = 0. where vr2 = roll speed. v1 = exit speed of slab.132.8 ft/min From equations for forward slip.

50 in.5 = 35.20 = 148.159 rev/s Power P = 2π(0.10 A 3.20/1.000(0.1 MPa f Rolling force F = 148. The roll has a radius = 15 in.5 = 0.35 mm True strain ε = ln(25/20) = ln 1.1(250)(50) = 1.417 N (b) Torque T = 0. Contact length L = (15 x 0.851.296 N-m (c) N = (30 m/min)/(2π x 0.Y = 240(0.311..35 x 10-3) = 92.25 = 0.771 lb 103 .414(2.16.20 = 0.1823 Y = 25. and (c) power required to accomplish this operation. only assume a cluster mill with working rolls of radius = 50 mm.829)(50 x 10-3) = 92.5) = ln 1.414 lb/in 2 f Rolling force F = 16.223) 0.5 rev/min = 1.74)(9.223) 0.0 in thick slab that is 9 in wide is to be reduced in a single pass in a two-high rolling mill to a thickness of 2.20 = 148.7.20/1.628 N-m (c) N = (30 m/min)/(2π x 0.050) = 95.20/1.55 rev/min = 0.095)(35.592)(585.311.829)( 50 x 10-3) = 46.095)(35.81 x 10-3) = 4. torque and power.0 .5(1.1 rev/min = 0.250) = 19.318)(1.591 W 19.500) = 9. In fact.1(250)(15.0/2.5(1.1 MPa f Rolling force F = 148.174 N-m (c) N = (30 m/min)/(2π x 0.554 N-m/s = 92.74 in.591 N-m/s = 92.81 x 10-3) = 92. Determine: (a) roll force.000 lb/in 2 and a strain hardening exponent = 0.0) = 404.35 x 10-3) = 23.20 = 5 mm. Contact length L = (50 x 5) .223 Y = 240(0. Solution: (a) Draft d = 3. Contact length L = (250 x 5) . and note the important effect of roll radius on force. 19. 19.20 = 5 mm.318 rev/s Power P = 2π(0.592 rev/s Power P = 2π(1.8 Solve Problem 19. power would probably increase because of lower mechanical efficiency in the cluster type rolling mill.417)(15.9 Solve Problem 19. but that the power remains the same (within calculation error) as in the previous problem.35) = 1.5(585.604 W Note that the force and torque are reduced as roll radius is reduced. True strain ε = ln(3. and its speed = 30 ft/min.095 N (b) Torque T = 0.851.81 mm True strain ε = ln(25/20) = ln 1.7 using a roll radius = 250 mm.16 = 16. Solution: (a) Draft d = 25 .7 and 19. (b) roll torque.5 in.851.8. Compare the results with the previous two problems. Solution: (a) Draft d = 25 .16/1.1823) 0.223) 0.20 = 148.223 Y = 240(0.1(250)(35.5 = 2.25 = 0.311.5) .2.5 = 15.829 N (b) Torque T = 0.1 MPa f Rolling force F = 148.604 N-m/s = 92. The work material has a strength coefficient = 25.159)(1.554 W Note that this is the same power value (within calculation error) as in Problems 19.417)(15.81) = 585.

The starting plate is 200 mm wide. The starting plate is 10 in wide.697 W 19.548N = 39.tf Contact length L = (12d) 0.02 = 4 d = 4/12 = 0.5 = 11. Roll radius = 250 mm and rotational speed = 12 rev/min.617.333 in.5/tf) tf = to -d = 1. It can exert a maximum force = 400. Assume the strength coefficient remains K = 20. The mill has a maximum horsepower = 100 hp.5/1.82 rev/min.000) = 67.74) = 26. Solution: (a) Draft d = 20 .15. Determine: (a) maximum possible draft. Solution: (a) Assumption: maximum possible draft is determined by the force capability of the rolling mill and not by coefficient of friction between the rolls and the work.18 = 2.12 A hot rolling mill has rolls of diameter = 24 in.13 Solve Problem 19.0112) = 37.000/200.251 f (c) Given maximum possible power HP = 100 hp = 100 x 396000 (in-lb/min)/hp = 39.167 in.18 mm = 0.000 lb/in 2 Force F = 20. and (c) power required for this operation.000(ε)0/1.5 = 400.548N in-lb/min 5. (b) associated true strain.000 lb/in 2 and a strain hardening exponent = zero.22.5 ft/min 19.74) = 554.333) 0.000)(0.600.285 = 0.11 A single-pass rolling operation reduces a 20 mm thick plate to 18 mm.167) = ln 1.5 .741 in-lb/min)/(396.771)(2.000 in-lb/min Contact length L = (12 x 0.5 Y = 20.88 rev/min vr = 2πRN = 2π(12/12)(7. P = 2πN(400.0 = 20.333 = 1. It is desired to reduce a 1.0112 m True strain ε = ln(20/18) = ln 1.0) = 5. The work material has a strength coefficient = 600 MPa and a strength coefficient = 0.0 in.000)(2.5 = 400.000 = 2.5(672.5 in thick plate by the maximum possible draft in one pass.0112) = 3.617.0.1054 Y = 600(0. Draft d = 1. (c) N = (30 ft/min)/(2π x 15/12) = 3.000 N = 7.000 (the limiting force of the rolling mill) (12d) 0.026.2) = 0.600.5 = 2.12 except that the operation is warm rolling and the strain hardening exponent n = 0.000 lb/in2.026. (b) True strain ε = ln(1.1054) 0.672 MN = 672.741 in-lb/min HP = (26.82)(404. Determine: (a) roll force.22/1. Power P = 2π(3.5(401.5 .000 N (b) Torque T = 0.536 in-lb.88) = 49.771)(2.0 12 d = 2.0 mm. and (c) maximum speed of the rolls for the operation.000 lb. the work material has a strength coefficient = 20. 104 . In the heated condition.22 = 300 MPa f Rolling force F = 300(0.720 N-m (c) Given that N = 12 rev/min Power P = 2π(12/60)(672. Contact length L = (250 x 2) .(b) Torque T = 0.0112)(0. ε = ln(1.2 hp 19.111 = 0. (b) roll torque.000(10) (12d) 0.000)(0.

15 = 15.945 in.11) = 38.14 A cylindrical part is warm upset forged in an open die.547/15. (d) 0. ε = ln(1.50 = 0.547/15.5/1.5/0.000 (as given) f f Y (d) f 0.4 ft/min f f f f Forging 19.2) = ln 1.5 = 11.579 = 0.000 N = 6.391(0. P = 2πN(400.5 .5 Try d = 0.5 . ε = ln(1.95) = ln 1.489 lb/in2.0.95 in.5 = 11.0.547/15.641 = 11.000N = 39.223) . ε = ln(1.457 Y = 17.55 = 0.0.887 lb/in2.5 = 11.747 d = 0.745 d = 0. Try d = 0. The work material has a flow 105 .189 = 0.486.55 Try d = 0.58) = 6.15 = 17.tf Contact length L = (12d) 0.0 in.555 = 0.5 = 34.5/1.600.000/34.641 Y (d) 0.555.391(0.5 = 1.547 f Now use trial-and-error to values of Y and d that fit this equation. ε = ln(1.391(0.15/1.5/tf) Y = 20.5 = 11..000)(2.4055) .. which does not equal the initial trial value of d = 0.457) .15 f F = Y (10)(12d) 0. Do = 50 mm and h o = 40 mm.462) .945) = ln 1.5 . which is very close to the trial value of d = 0.50 .3 = 1. tf = 1.462 lb/in2.5 = 2. (d) 0.5 = 400. Draft d = 1. tf = 1.486.489 = 0. which is close to the trial value of d = 0.223 Y = 17.0..000N in-lb/min 6.15 = 15. (d) 0.391ε .5/0.15 = 13.558.000(ε)0.4055 Y = 17.55 in.691. Coefficient of friction at the die -work interface = 0. tf = 1. Final height = 20 mm.5/0.3 Try d = 0.25 = 0.11 rev/min vr = 2πRN = 2π(12/12)(6.20.887 = 0.5 . tf = 1.189 lb/in2.0) = ln 1.7602 d = 0.391(0.000 in-lb/min Contact length L = (12 x 0.462 Y = 17.600.Solution: (a) Assumption (same as in previous problem): maximum possible draft is determined by the force capability of the rolling mill and not by coefficient of friction between the rolls and the work.8315 d = 0.2 in.555) 0..945) = 0.5 = 400.462 (c) Given maximum possible power HP = 100 hp = 100 x 396000 (in-lb/min)/hp = 39.5 ε = ln(1. which does not equal the trial value of d = 0.547/13.5 in.578.3 in. (d) 0.58 in.462 = 0.5873 = 0.555 in.15 = 15.556. (b) True strain ε = ln(1.

000(0.274 Yf = 40. Coefficient of friction at the die -work interface = 0.46 in 2 Corresponding D = 2.540/20 = 3927 mm2 Corresponding D = 70.002.556 lb/in2 V = 12.287 Yf = 600(0.15 A cylindrical workpart with D = 2.12 = 284.6)(2618) = 1. At h = 1.661 N 19.5 in.12. Solution: (a) V = πD2L/4 = π(2. ε = ln(2.87 (from A = πD2/4) Kf = 1 + 0.3. (b) at h = 30 mm.4(. Determine the force in the operation (a) just as the yield point is reached (yield at strain = 0.0834 Yf = 40.002) 0.5)/2.948)(6.316 = 0.46) = 225.3) = ln 1.3 = 5.5 in is upset forged in an open die to a height = 1.2.3 = 1. ε = ln(40/30) = ln 1.540 mm3 from part (a) above.92 = 1963.748)(4.540 mm3 from part (a) above.154 F = 1.002) = 2. At h = 30.92 in 2 Kf = 1 + 0.560.087 = 0.060 F = 1.495 = 1.04(15. ε = ln(40/20) = ln 2.045(27.9 = 6.273/2.6 MPa.10.61)/2.273 in 3 from part (a) above.1)(2.5) 2(2.579 lb (b) Given h = 2.2)(3927) = 2.045 F = 1. Solution: (a) V = πD2L/4 = π(50) 2(40)/4 = 78.4(.87)/1. and (d) h = 1.2)(57.5/2.002) 0.274) 0. A = V/h = 78.7)/30 = 1.273 in 3 Given ε = 0.333 = 0.92 A = V/h = 78. A = V/h = 12.000(0. and (c) at h = 20 mm.693 N (b) Given h = 30.04 F = 1.495 A = V/h = 12.5) = 614.693) 0.5 .540/30 = 2618 mm2 Corresponding D = 57. A = V/h = 78. (b) at height h = 2. A = V/h = 12.948 lb/in2 V = 12.5 in.556)(4. Determine the instantaneous force in the operation (a) just as the yield point is reached (yield at strain = 0.002) = 39.2 MPa V = 78.15 = 15.1 F = 1.7 mm (from A = πD2/4) Kf = 1 + 0.695 lb 106 .1)(2.34 in 2 Corresponding D = 2.9 in.5 mm2 Kf = 1 + 0.5/1.4(.9 = 1.002). and h = 40 .273/2. At h = 2.curve defined by: K = 600 MPa and n = 0.540 mm3 Given ε = 0.6 MPa V = 78.748 lb/in2 and h = 2.283(574.15.557 N (c) Given h = 20.287) 0.273/1.4(. At h = 20.060(32.283 F = 1.7)/20 = 1.9.002).2)(70.000 lb/in2 and n = 0. The work material has a flow curve defined by: K = 40.495 = 4.40(0.2)(50)/39.822 lb (c) Given h = 1.273 in 3 from part (a) above.3.12 = 516.92 = 1.6)(1963.1(284.3 in.15 = 27.0 = 0.000(0.4(.9.15 = 32. Yf = 600(0.0834) 0.92) = 80. (c) h = 1.12 = 574.154(516.1)(2.693 Yf = 600(0.5)/4 = 12.5 in and h = 2.002.540/39.4(.61 (from A = πD2/4) Kf = 1 + 0.7 mm (from A = πD2/4) Kf = 1 + 0.34) = 153. ε = ln(2.5(0. Yf = 40.9) = ln 1.892.

(d) Given h = 1.5, ε = ln(2.5/1.5) = ln 1.667 = 0.511 Yf = 40,000(0.511) 0.15 = 36,166 lb/in2 V = 12.273 in 3 from part (a) above. At h = 1.5, A = V/h = 12.273/1.5 = 8.182 in 2 Corresponding D = 3.23 (from A = πD2/4) Kf = 1 + 0.4(.1)(3.23)/1.5 = 1.086 F = 1.086(36,166)(8.182) = 321,379 lb 19.16 A cylindrical workpart has a diameter = 2.0 in and a height = 4.0 in. It is upset forged to a height = 2.5 in. Coefficient of friction at the die -work interface = 0.10. The work material has a flow curve with strength coefficient = 25,000 lb/in 2 and strain hardening exponent = 0.22. Determine the plot of force vs. work height. Solution: Volume of cylinder V = πD2L/4 = π(2.5) 2(4.0)/4 = 19.635 in 3 We will compute the force F at selected values of height h: h = (a) 4.0, (b) 3.75, (c) 3.5, (d) 3.25, (e) 3.0, (f) 2.75, and (g) 2.5. These values can be used to develop the plot. The shape of the plot will be similar to Figure 21.13 in the text. (a) At h = 4.0, we assume yielding has just occurred and the height has not changed significantly. Use ε = 0.002 (the approximate yield point of metal). At ε = 0.002, Yf = 25,000(0.002) 0.22 = 6,370 lb/in2 Adjusting the height for this strain, h = 4.0 - 4.0(0.002) = 3.992 A = V/h = 19.635/3.992 = 4.92 in 2 Kf = 1 + 0.4(.1)(2.5)/3.992 = 1.025 F = 1.025(6,370)(4.92) = 32,125 lb (b) At h = 3.75, ε = ln(4.0/3.75) = ln 1.0667 = 0.0645 Yf = 25,000(0.0645) 0.22 = 13,680 lb/in2 V = 19.635 in 3 calculated above. At h = 3.75, A = V/h = 19.635/3.75 = 5.236 in 2 Corresponding D = 2.582 (from A = πD2/4) Kf = 1 + 0.4(.1)(2.582)/3.75 = 1.028 F = 1.028(13,680)(5.236) = 73,601 lb (c) At h = 3.5, ε = ln(4.0/3.5) = ln 1.143 = 0.1335 Yf = 25,000(0.1335) 0.22 = 16,053 lb/in2 At h = 3.5, A = V/h = 19.635/3.5 = 5.61 in 2 Corresponding D = 2.673 (from A = πD2/4) Kf = 1 + 0.4(.1)(2.673)/3.5 = 1.031 F = 1.031(16,053)(5.61) = 92,808 lb (d) At h = 3.25, ε = ln(4.0/3.25) = ln 1.231 = 0.2076 Yf = 25,000(0.2076) 0.22 = 17,691 lb/in2 At h = 3.25, A = V/h = 19.635/3.25 = 6.042 in 2 Corresponding D = 2.774 (from A = πD2/4) Kf = 1 + 0.4(.1)(2.774)/3.25 = 1.034 F = 1.034(17,691)(6.042) = 110,538 lb (e) At h = 3.0, ε = ln(4.0/3.0) = ln 1.333 = 0.2874 Yf = 25,000(0.2874) 0.22 = 19,006 lb/in2 At h = 3.0, A = V/h = 19.635/3.0 = 6.545 in 2 Corresponding D = 2.887 (from A = πD2/4)

107

Kf = 1 + 0.4(.1)(2.887)/3.0 = 1.038 F = 1.038(19,006)(6.545) = 129,182 lb (f) At h =2.75, ε = ln(4.0/2.75) = ln 1.4545 = 0.3747 Yf = 25,000(0.3747) 0.22 = 20,144 lb/in2 V = 19.635 in 3 calculated above. At h = 2.75, A = V/h = 19.635/2.75 = 7.140 in 2 Corresponding D = 3.015 (from A = πD2/4) Kf = 1 + 0.4(.1)(3.015)/2.75 = 1.044 F = 1.044(20,144)(7.140) = 150,136 lb (g) At h = 2.5, ε = ln(4.0/2.5) = ln 1.60 = 0.470 Yf = 25,000(0.470) 0.22 = 21,174 lb/in2 At h = 2.5, A = V/h = 19.635/2.5 = 7.854 in 2 Corresponding D = 3.162 (from A = πD2/4) Kf = 1 + 0.4(.1)(3.162)/2.5 = 1.051 F = 1.051(21,174)(7.854) = 174,715 lb 19.17 A cold heading operation is performed to produce the head on a steel nail. The strength coefficient for this steel is K = 550 MPa, and the strain hardening exponent n = 0.24. Coefficient of friction at the die-work interface = 0.10. The wire stock out of which the nail is made is 4.75 mm in diameter. The head is to have a diameter = 9.5 mm and a thickness = 1.5 mm. (a) What length of stock must project out of the die in order to provide sufficient volume of material for this upsetting operation? (b) Compute the maximum force that the punch must apply to form the head in this open-die operation. Solution: (a) Volume of nail head V = πDf2hf/4 = π(9.5) 2(1.5)/4 = 106.3 mm3. Ao = πDo2/4 = π(4.75) 2/4 = 17.7 mm2 ho = V/Ao = 106.3/17.7 = 6.0 mm (b) ε = ln(6.0/1.5) = ln 4 = 1.3863 Yf = 550(1.3863) 0.24 = 595 MPa Af = π(9.5) 2/4 = 70.9 mm2 Kf = 1 + 0.4(.1)(9.5/1.5) = 1.25 F = 1.25(595)(70.9) = 52,872 N 19.18 Obtain a large common nail (flat head). Measure the head diameter and thickness, as well as the diameter of the nail shank. (a) What stock length must project out of the die in order to provide sufficient material to produce the nail? (b) Using appropriate values for strength coefficient and strain hardening exponent for the metal out of which the nail is made (Table 3.5), compute the maximum force in the heading operation to form the head. Solution: Student exercise. Calculations similar to those above for the data developed by the student. 19.19 A hot upset forging operation is performed in an open die. The initial size of the workpart is: Do = 25 mm, and h o = 50 mm. The part is upset to a diameter = 50 mm. The work metal at this elevated temperature yields at 85 MPa (n = 0). Coefficient of friction at the die -work interface = 0.40. Determine: (a) final height of the part, and (b) maximum force in the operation. Solution: (a) V = πDo2ho/4 = π(25) 2(50)/4 = 24,544 mm3. Af = πDf2/4 = π(50) 2/4 = 1963.5 mm2. hf = V/Af = 24,544 /1963.5 = 12.5 mm.

108

(b) ε = ln(50/12.5) = ln 4 = 1.3863 Yf = 85(1.3863) 0 = 85 MPa Force is maximum at largest area value, Af = 1963.5 mm2 D = (4 x 1963.5/π)0.5 = 50 mm Kf = 1 + 0.4(.4)(50/12.5) = 1.64 F = 1.64(85)( 1963.5) = 273,712 N 19.20 A hydraulic forging press is capable of exerting a maximum force = 1,000,000 N. A cylindrical workpart is to be cold upset forged. The starting part has diameter = 30 mm and height = 30 mm. The flow curve of the metal is defined by K = 400 MPa and n = 0.2. Determine the maximum reduction in height to which the part can be compressed with this forging press, if the coefficient of friction = 0.1. Solution: Volume of work V = πDo2ho/4 = π(30) 2(30)/4 = 21,206 mm3. Final area Af = 21,206/hf ε = ln(30/hf) Yf = 400ε 0.2 = 400(ln 30/hf)0.2) Kf = 1 + 0.4µ(Df/hf) = 1 + 0.4(0.1)(Df/hf) Forging force F = KfYfAf = (1 + 0.04D f/hf)( 400(ln 30/hf)0.2)( 21,206/hf) Requires trial and error solution to find the value of hf that will match the force of 1,000,000 N. (1) Try hf = 20 mm Af = 21,206/20 = 1060.3 mm2 ε = ln(30/20) = ln 1.5 = 0.405 Yf = 400(0.405) 0.2 = 333.9 MPa Df = (4 x 1060.3/π)0.5 = 36.7 mm Kf = 1 + 0.04(36.7/20) = 1.073 F = 1.073(333.9)(1060.3) = 380,050 N Too low. Try a smaller value of hf to increase F. (2) Try hf = 10 mm. Af = 21,206/10 = 2120.6 mm2 ε = ln(30/10) = ln 3.0 = 1.099 Yf = 400(1.099) 0.2 = 407.6 MPa Df = (4 x 2120.6/π)0.5 = 51.96 mm Kf = 1 + 0.04(51.96/10) = 1.208 F = 1.208(407.6)(2120.6) = 1,043,998 N Slightly high. Need to try a value of hf between 10 and 20, closer to 10. (3) Try hf = 11 mm Af = 21,206/11 = 1927.8 mm2 ε = ln(30/11) = ln 2.7273 = 1.003 Yf = 400(1.003) 0.2 = 400.3 MPa Df = (4 x 1927.8/π)0.5 = 49.54 mm Kf = 1 + 0.04(51.12/11) = 1.18 F = 1.18(400.3)(1927.8) = 910,653 N (4) By linear interpolation, try hf = 10 + (44/133) = 10.33 mm Af = 21,206/10.33 = 2052.8 mm2 ε = ln(30/10.33) = ln 2.9042 = 1.066 Yf = 400(1.066) 0.2 = 405.16 MPa

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Df = (4 x 2052.8/π)0.5 = 51.12 mm Kf = 1 + 0.04(51.12/10.33) = 1.198 F = 1.198(405.16)(2052.8) = 996,364 N (5) By further linear interpolation, try hf = 10 + (44/48)(0.33) = 10.30 Af = 21,206/10.30 = 2058.8 mm2 ε = ln(30/10.30) = ln 2.913 = 1.069 Yf = 400(1.069) 0.2 = 405.38 MPa Df = (4 x 2058.8/π)0.5 = 51.2 mm Kf = 1 + 0.04(51.2/10.3) = 1.199 F = 1.199(405.38)(2058.8) = 1,000,553 N Close enough! Maximum height reduction = 30.0 - 10.3 = 19.7 mm 19.21 A part is designed to be hot forged in an impression die. The projected area of the part, including flash, is 15 in 2. After trimming, the part has a projected area = 10 in 2. Part geometry is relatively simple. As heated the work material yields at 9,000 lb/in 2, and has no tendency to strain harden. Determine the maximum force required to perform the forging operation. Solution: Since the work material has no tendency to work harden, n = 0. From Table 21.1, choose Kf = 6.0. F = 6.0(9,000)(15) = 810,000 lb. 19.22 A connecting rod is designed to be hot forged in an impression die. The projected area of the part is 6,500 mm2. The design of the die will cause flash to form during forging, so that the area, including flash, will be 9,000 mm2. The part geometry is considered to be complex. As heated the work material yields at 75 MPa, and has no tendency to strain harden. Determine the maximum force required to perform the operation. Solution: Since the work material has no tendency to work harden, n = 0. From Table 21.1, choose Kf =8.0. F = 8.0(75)(9,000) = 5,400,000 N.

Extrusion

19.23 A cylindrical billet that is 100 mm long and 40 mm in diameter is reduced by indirect (backward) extrusion to a 15 mm diameter. Die angle = 90°. If the Johnson equation has a = 0.8 and b = 1.5, and the flow curve for the work metal has K = 750 MPa and n = 0.15, determine: (a) extrusion ratio, (b) true strain (homogeneous deformation), (c) extrusion strain, (d) ram pressure, and (e) ram force. Solution: (a) rx = Ao/Af = Do2/Df2 = (40) 2/(15) 2 = 7.111 (b) ε = ln rx = ln 7.111 = 1.962 (c) ε x = a + b ln rx = 0.8 + 1.5(1.962) = 3.742 (d) Y = 750(1.962) 0.15/1.15 = 721.5 MPa,

f

p = 721.5(3.742) = 2700 MPa (e) Ao = πDo2/4 = π(40) 2/4 = 1256.6 mm2 F = 2700(1256.6) = 3,392,920 N. 19.24 A 3.0-in long cylindrical billet whose diameter = 1.5 in is reduced by indirect extrusion to a diameter = 0.375 in. Die angle = 90°. In the Johnson equation, a = 0.8 and b = 1.5. In the flow

110

curve for the work metal, K = 75,000 lb/in2 and n = 0.25. Determine: (a) extrusion ratio, (b) true strain (homogeneous deformation), (c) extrusion strain, (d) ram pressure, (e) ram force, and (f) power if the ram speed = 20 in/min. Solution: (a) rx = Ao/Af = Do2/Df2 = (1.5) 2/(0.375) 2 = 42 = 16.0 (b) ε = ln rx = ln 16 = 2.773 (c) ε x = a + b ln rx = 0.8 + 1.5(2.773) = 4.959 (d) Y = 75,000(2.773) 0.25/1.25 = 77,423 lb/in2

f

p = 77,423(4.959) = 383,934 lb/in2 (e) Ao = πDo2/4 = π(1.5) 2/4 = 1.767 in2 F = (383,934)(1.767) = 678,411 lb. (f) P = 678,411(20) = 13,568,228 in-lb/min HP = 13,568,228/396,000 = 34.26 hp 19.25 A billet that is 75 mm long with diameter = 35 mm is direct extruded to a diameter of 20 mm. The extrusion die has a die angle = 75°. For the work metal, K = 600 MPa and n = 0.25. In the Johnson extrusion strain equation, a = 0.8 and b = 1.4. Determine: (a) extrusion ratio, (b) true strain (homogeneous deformation), (c) extrusion strain, and (d) ram pressure at L = 70, 40, and 10 mm. Solution: (a) rx = Ao/Af = Do2/Df2 = (35) 2/(20) 2 = 3.0625 (b) ε = ln rx = ln 3.0625 = 1.119 (c) ε x = a + b ln rx = 0.8 + 1.4(1.119) = 2.367 (d) Y = 750(1.119) 0.25/1.25 = 493.7 MPa

f

It is appropriate to determine the volume of metal contained in the cone of the die at the start of the extrusion operation, to assess whether metal has been forced through the die opening by the time the billet has been reduced from L = 75 mm to L = 70 mm. For a cone-shaped die with angle = 75°, the height h of the frustum is formed by metal being compressed into the die opening: The two radii are: R1 = 0.5D o = 17.5 mm and R2 = 0.5D f = 10 mm, and h = (R1 - R2)/tan 75 = 7.5/tan 75 = 2.01 mm Frustum volume V = 0.333πh(R12 + R1R2 + R22) = 0.333π(2.01)(17.52 + 10 x 17.5 + 102) = 1223.4 mm3. Compare this with the volume of the portion of the cylindrical billet between L = 75 mm and L = 70 mm. V = πDo2 h/4 = 0.25π(35) 2(75 - 70) = 4810.6 mm3 Since this volume is greater than the volume of the frustum, this means that the metal has extruded through the die opening by the time the ram has moved forward by 5 mm. L = 70 mm: pressure p = 493.7(2.367 + 2 x 70/35) = 3143.4 MPa L = 40 mm: pressure p = 493.7(2.367 + 2 x 40/35) = 2297.0 MPa L = 10 mm: pressure p = 493.7(2.367 + 2 x 10/35) = 1450.7 MPa 19.26 A 2.0-in long billet with diameter = 1.25 in is direct extruded to a diameter of 0.50 in. The extrusion die angle = 90°. For the work metal, K = 45,000 lb/in2, and n = 0.20. In the Johnson extrusion strain equation, a = 0.8 and b = 1.5. Determine: (a) extrusion ratio, (b) true strain (homogeneous deformation), (c) extrusion strain, and (d) ram pressure at L = 2.0, 1.5, 1.0, 0.5 and zero in. Solution: (a) rx = Ao/Af = Do2/Df2 = (1.25) 2/(0.5) 2 = 6.25

111

The height of the frustum h = (R1 .5 in.5(1.0) = 106.25 in.330(3. so metal is forced through the die opening as soon as the billet starts to move forward in the chamber.0) 2(Lo .0/1.L1) = π(1. 112 . The volume of the frustum is V = 0.(b) ε = ln rx = ln 6.5/1.404 Y = 15.0.7726) = 4.50 in.25) = L = 1.25 + 0.0 in.5 in thick.031/π = 0.5) 2 = 16.031 in 3 The billet has advanced a certain distance by the time this frustum is completely filled and extrusion through the die opening is therefore initiated. (c) ε = ln rx = ln 16 = 2.27 A direct extrusion operation is performed on a cylindrical billet with Lo = 3.0 in. The volume of billet compressed forward to fill the frustum is given by: V = πR12(Lo . true strain.02 + 1.0 . (c) What is the ram pressure corresponding to this position? (d) Also determine the length of the final part if the ram stops its forward movement at the start of the die cone.L1) = 1.328 = 2.75)(1. (b) What is the shape factor of the product? (c) If the butt left in the container at the end of the stroke is 0.252) = 1.25) = L = 0.3(2.0 in.0/1.000 lb/in2 and strain hardening exponent n = 0.: pressure p = 42.25 = 0.0 (b) The portion of the billet that is compressed into the die cone forms a frustum with R1 = 0.8326 (c) ε x = a + b ln rx = 0. Die angle = 45° and orifice diameter = 0. we have π(Lo . a = 0.0 . excluding the cone shaped butt remaining in the die is L = 2. With a reduction rx = 16. 19.20.7726) 0/1.330(3.333πh(R12 + R1R2 + R22) = 0.8 + 1.0 in and R2 = 0. what is the length of the extruded section? (d) Determine the ram pressure in the process.5D f = 0.672/2.25) = L = 0.5 in.330 lb/in2 f Unlike the previous problem. the final part length.: pressure p = 42.549 + 2 x 0.L1) Setting this equal to the volume of the frustum.549 + 2 x 1. L = 2.404 + 2 x 2.0 in and Do = 2.8 and b = 1. In the Johnson extrusion strain equation.950 lb/in2 184.330(3.0 in.333π(0.813 lb/in2 217.: pressure p = 42. a = 0.5D o = 1.000(1.330(3.8326) 0.5/1.25) = 285.328 in L1 = 3.0) 2/(0.0.8326) = 3.140 lb/in2 (d) Length of extruded portion of billet = 2.05/1. the die angle α = 90°.000(2.28 An indirect extrusion process starts with an aluminum billet with diameter = 2.0/1.677 lb/in2 251.229 lb/in2 19. In the Johnson extrusion strain equation. Solution: (a) rx = Ao/Af = Do2/Df2 = (2.031 in 3 (Lo .330(3.L1) = 1.25 = 1.8 and b = 1.000 lb/in 2 (n = 0). The die angle = 90°. Final cross-section after extrusion is a square with 1.0 in and length = 3.549 + 2 x 0. The operation is carried out hot and the hot metal yields at 15.2. (a) What is the extrusion ratio? (b) Determine the ram position at the point when the metal has been compressed into the cone of the die and starts to extrude through the die opening.672 in.549 (d) Y = 45.000(4.8 + 1.7726 ε x = a + b ln rx = 0.25) = L = 1.549 + 2 x 1.75 in.: pressure p = 42.3.: pressure p = 42.75 in.0 x 0.672 in. and extrusion strain.0 in.000 lb/in 2 f p = 15. The operation is performed cold and the strength coefficient of the metal K = 26.20 = 42.549 + 2 x 2.R2)/tan 45 = 1.672(16) = 42.0 in on a side. (a) Compute the extrusion ratio.086 lb/in2 150.0 = 15.

531 mm3 The final volume consists of two sections: (1) butt. and (2) extrudate.145) = 2.855/1.000(1.426 in 3 The final volume consists of two sections: (1) butt. Determine: (a) extrusion ratio.174) = 48. length L = 1.5642) = 3.8 + 1.698 lb/in2 19.02(4..261)(2.053 mm3.0) = 4.5(1. Thus. rx = 5.0 in2. The radius of the circle is R = (1.623) = 3.29.234 113 .478 mm3.142 ε = ln 3. The radius of the circle is R = (1200/π)0.5)(π x 22/4) = 1.068 ε = ln 5.02(224/122.25 = 1.545) 2.053 = 1.1/1200= 5.1.8 mm.25π(88) 2(25) = 152.30 The flow curve parameters for the aluminum alloy of Problem 19.5 in.006(22.25π(88) 2(250) = 1.0/3.174 (b) To determine the die shape factor we need to determine the perimeter of a circle whose area is equal to that of the extruded cross-section.54) = 122. and (2) extrudate.8 + 1. (b) shape factor.0)(π x 22/4) = 9.54 mm.368.520.145) 0.0 = 1. Solution: (a) rx = Ao/Af Ao = π(88) 2/4 = 6082.855 in.0 in 2 rx = 3.142/1. and (c) length of the extruded section if the butt remaining in the container at the end of the ram stroke is 25 mm.16.98 + 0.25 = 1. The perimeter of the extruded cross-section Cx = 4(1.571 in 3. compute the maximum force required to drive the ram forward at the start of extrusion.426 . Dimensions of the cross-section are given in Figure P19. Kx = 0.98 + 0. The perimeter of the extruded cross-section Cx = 62 + 50 + 12 + 38 + 50 + 12 = 224 mm Kx = 0. The extrudate has a cross-sectional area Af = 1. length L = 7. Solution: From Problem 19.2 = 22.368.0 x 1. The extrudate has a cross-sectional area Af = 1200 mm2.0 in.006 (c) Given that the butt thickness = 0. Die angle = 90°.142 in2 Af = 1.261 lb/in3 f p = 1.068 (b) To determine the die shape factor we need to determine the perimeter of a circle whose area is equal to that of the extruded cross-section.520. A = 1.0 = 7. The butt volume V1 = 0. Cc = 2π(19.8 and b = 1.4 mm 19. A = 1200 mm2.5 = 19.478/1200 = 1140. Its volume V2 = LAf = 1.1 mm2 Af = 2 x (12 x 50) = 1200 mm2 rx = 6082.571 = 7. Its volume V2 = LAf = 9.0 in 2.0 = 3.145 ε x = 0.0/π)0.2/1.068= 1.142 = 1.3(1.5 = 0.8) 2.5.855 in 3.545 in.057 (c) Total original volume V = 0.531 . Cc = 2π(0. Original volume V = (3.29 An L-shaped structural section is direct extruded from an aluminum billet in which Lo = 250 mm and Do = 88 mm.29.5642 in.152. If the die angle in this operation = 90°. (d) Y = 26.623 ε x = 0.29 are: K = 240 MPa and n = 0. The butt volume V1 = (0.Solution: (a) rx = Ao/Af Ao = πDo2/4 = π(2) 2/4 = 3. and the corresponding Johnson strain equation has constants a = 0. Thus.

267 N 19.45/68.897) = 68.16/1.98 + 0.778 = 1.πRi2 = π(252 .402) = 706.544) = 122.25π(50) 2(5) = 9817.47) 2. and h = 95 mm.25 = 1.25 = 1.5 = 15 mm.25π(40) 2 = 1256.217 (c) Volume of final cup consists of two geometric elements: (1) base and (2) ring.52) = 373. ID = 40 mm.25) 2. (b) shape factor.6 MPa f Maximum ram force occurs at beginning of stroke when L is maximum at L = 250 mm p = Kx Y (ε x + 2L/Do) = 1. Cc = 2πR = 2π(19.74/94.5 + 67. (1) Base t = 5 mm and D = 50 mm.5 mm3 (2) Ring OD = 50 mm.016 (b) Ax = πRo2 .06/π = 118.45 mm R2 = 373.0218 ε x = 0.0218) 0.3(1256.Y = 240(1.1) = 12.5h = 76.151. R = 10.234+ 2 x 250/88) = 2107.146. V2 = 0.25 mm.623) 0.33 Y = 400(1. Cx = 2(20 + 60) = 160 mm Ao = πR2 = 1200 R2 = 1200/π = 381.02(298. Solution: (a) Ax = 20 x 60 = 1200 mm.151.75 mm2 Af = 0. The radius of the circle is R = (706. and the constants in the Johnson extrusion strain equation are: a = 0.8 and b = 1. and (c) height of starting slug required to achieve the final dimensions.5 mm3 Total V = V1 + V2 = 9817. A = 706. The perimeter of the extruded cross-section Cx = π(50 + 40) = 90π = 282.25π(50) 2(h) = 1963.6)( 3.8 mm Kx = 0. ID = 40 mm.2 (6082. Solution: (a) rx = Ao/Af Ao = 0.5 = 76.0218) = 2.969 mm3 Volume of starting slug must be equal to this value V = 76.6) = 1.8) 2. R = 19.402)(95) = 0.75. determine the extrusion force. Cc = 2π(15) = 94.969 mm3 h = 39.25π(502 .544 mm.06 mm2 Cx = πDo + πDi = π(50 + 45) = 298.74 mm.25π(502 .778 (b) To determine the die shape factor we need to determine the perimeter of a circle whose area is equal to that of the extruded cross-section.75/706.53 114 .1600)(95) = 67.86 mm2 rx = 1963.3 MPa f Ao = 0.25π(50) 2 = 1963. Cc = 2πR = 2π(10.5(1.86/π)0.22.97.5. Determine: (a) extrusion ratio.47 mm Kx = 0.25 = 1.86 mm2.02(282. height = 100 mm.816. The final dimensions of the cup are: OD = 50 mm.2 MPa f F = pA o = 2107.33) = 912.32.98 + 0.31 A cup-shaped part is backward extruded from an aluminum slug that is 50 mm in diameter.217(321.897 mm. (d) If the metal has flow curve parameters K = 400 MPa and n = 0. and thickness of base = 5 mm.6 mm2 F = 912.73)(2.969 mm3 V = 0.057(223.25.2 mm (d) ε = ln 2.8 + 1.430 N 19.02(160/122.16 = 223.25π(2500 . V1 = 0. Kx = 0.98 + 0.32 Determine the shape factor for each of the extrusion die orifice shapes in Figure P19.86 = 2.73 MPa f p = Kx Y ε x = 1.25 = 321.25/1.

R2 = 1675/π = 533. For the work metal.5 N 19. and (c) draw force required for the operation.247 lb/in 2 f φ = 0.09) = 145.30/1.2(1 + 0.07/tan 15)(1. Determine: (a) area reduction.0416 = 0.425 115 . K = 500 MPa and n = 0.98 + 0.9094 mm2 r = (9.6) = 783.12(D/Lc) D = 0.22/1.0962) = ln 2.50 + 0. Starting diameter = 0.(c) Ax = 2(5)(30) + 5(60 .4.177 (d) Ax = 5(55)(5) + 5(85 . Solution: (a) r = (Ao .7137 Y = 45.7137) 0.Af)/Ao Ao = 0.33 Wire of starting diameter = 3.50 in and final diameter = 0.75/0.0695 = 0.30 = 284.30.1964 = 0.9094)/9.14) 2.000(0.2.25 = 1.5 mm in a die with entrance angle = 15° degrees.0.50) 2 = 0. R = 13.365) = 159. and (c) horsepower to perform the operation if the exit velocity of the stock = 2 ft/sec.0962 in2 r = (0. (b) draw stress.88 + 0. Coefficient of friction at the work-die interface = 0.5) = 2.12(D/Lc) D = 0.25 = 1.5(3.365) 0.25π(3.98 + 0.51 (b) Draw force F: ε = ln(0.08) 2.35 in.25π(2.12(2.10) = 300 + 250 = 550 mm2 Cx = 30 + 60 + 30 + 5 + 25 + 50 + 25 + 5 = 230 mm Ao = πR2 = 550.0 mm is drawn to 2.17.22)(0.0) 2 = 9.9094) = ln 1.08 mm Kx = 0.35) 2 = 0.1964 in2 Af = 0.25π(0. Coefficient of friction at the work-die interface = 0. Determine: (a) area reduction.02(230/83. Solution: (a) r = (Ao .09 mm Cc = 2πR = 2π(23.3056 (b) Draw stress σd: ε = ln(7.5(.23) = 83.2 MPa f φ = 0.34 Rod stock is drawn through a draw die with an entrance angle of 12°.000 lb/in 2 and a strain hardening exponent = 0. The metal has a strength coefficient = 45.1964 .35) = 0.5) 2 = 4.Af)/Ao Ao = 0.0695 .1.0695/4.02(680/145.626 Drawing 19.0962)/0.5x5) = 1675 mm2 Cx = 2 x 55 + 16 x 25 + 8 x 15 + 10 x 5 = 680 mm Ao = πR2 = 1675. (b) draw force for the operation. R2 = 550/π = 175.9094(159.6 MPa f (c) Draw force F: F = Af σd = 4.22.0 + 2.365 Y = 500(0. R = 23.966) = 1.22 = 34.5(3.07.23 mm Cc = 2πR = 2π(13.88 + 0.75 Lc = 0.5)/sin 15 = 0.25π(0.44 = 0.966 φ = 0.14 mm Kx = 0.0 .07.22 σd = Y (1 + µ/tan α)φ(ln Ao/Af) = 284.0695 mm2 Af = 0.88 + 0.1964/0.

440 = 0. (b) draw stress.775 lb/in 2 f φ = 0.125 + 0.7 /4417.600 ft/lb/min HP = 423.5(0.20 area reduction.012773(1 .8) .5(.7 mm2 Df = Do .12(0.08.6 W 19.25π(75) 2 = 4417.9) = ln 1.125 in is drawn through two dies each providing a 0.5 = 0.50 hp at 90% efficiency.475(1 m/min) = 271.33 F = Af Y (1 + µ/tan α)φ(ln Ao/Af) f 116 .5 mm Lc = 0.125(.9)/ 6361.3646 Y = k = 105 MPa f φ = 0. and (d) power to perform the operation if exit velocity = 1. Solution: First draw: Do = 0.9 mm2 r = (6361. The motors driving the capstans at the die exits can each deliver 1.125(1 .84 hp 19.6 N-m/s = 4524. Determine the maximum possible speed of the wire as it exits the second die.88 + 0.45 MPa f (c) F = Af σd = 4417. Y = 40.0.25π(0.88 + 0.0 m/min. Determine: (a) area reduction.Af)/Ao Ao = 0.012273/0.475 N (d) P = 271.12(0.5(0.5(90 .2) = 0.1184/0.15 = 27.03173 φ = 0.125) 2 = 0.35)/sin 12 = 0.r) = 0. Solution: (a) r = (Ao .5 = 0. and the coefficient of friction at the work-die interface is estimated to be 0.0962(34.288)(0.0.Lc = 0.125 .009819) = ln 1.88 + 0.021)(0.45) = 271.5(90 + 75) = 82. The draw die has an entrance angle = 18°.1118) = 0.600/33.5/24.Af)/Ao .4417.3646) = 61.425/0. Af = Ao(1 .288 σd = Y (1 + µ/tan α)φ(ln Ao/Af) = 105(1 + 0.36 Wire stock of initial diameter = 0.2231 r = (Ao .9 (61.3 mm φ = 0.88 + 0. Ao = 0.15. Each die has an entrance angle of 12°.88 + 0.250 = 0.475 N-m/min = 4524.2231) 0. The starting metal has a strength coefficient = 40..25π(90) 2 = 6361.08/tan 18)(1.000(0.3607) = 1.15 = 75 mm.7137) = 3530 lb (c) P = 3530(2 ft/sec x 60) = 423. Af = 0.r)0.7 = 0.12(D/Lc) D = 0.125 in.1118)/sin 12 = 0. and the coefficient of friction at the work-die interface = 0.1118 in D = 0.d = 90 .7 .03173) = 1.021 F = Af Y (1 + µ/tan α)φ(ln Ao/Af) f F = 0.75)/sin 18 = 24.35 Bar stock of initial diameter = 90 mm is drawn with a draft = 15 mm.15/1.247)(1 + 0.12(D/Lc) Df = 0.012273 in2 009819 in2 ε = ln(0.1184 Lc = 0.000 lb/in 2 and a strain hardening exponent = 0.12(82.000 = 12.3056 (b) Draw stress σd: ε = ln(6361.1/tan 12)(1.10.50 . (c) draw force required for the operation.3607 φ = 0. The metal behaves as a perfectly plastic material with yield stress = 105 MPa.0.3) = 1.

0.5 x 0.000(0.5 = 0.r)0.88 + 0. 1.2231 + 0.1118(.r) = 0.47 ft/sec Note: The calculations indicate that the second draw die is the limiting step in the drawing sequence.12(0.100 in D = 0. or the reductions to achieve the two stages could be reallocated to achieve a higher reduction in the first drawing operation.1118 in.24 ft/sec Second draw: Do = 0.1059/0.5 ft-lb/sec as before in the first draw.2) = 0.5 = 0.5 v = 742.2231 Total strain experienced by the work metal is the sum of the strains from the first and second draws: ε = ε 1 + ε 2 = 0.1118 .12(D/Lc) Df = 0. 117 .818)(1 + 0.1118) 2 = 0.35 F = Af Y (1 + µ/tan α)φ(ln Ao/Af) f F = 0.4462 Y = 40. or the second draw die could be powered by a higher horsepower motor.007855(30.4462) 0.007855) = ln 1. P = Fv = 214v = 742..F = 0. Ao = 0.1118 + 0.818 lb/in 2 f φ = 0.25π(0.775)(1 + 0.5/214 = 3.009819/0.5(0.Af)/Ao . The first operation would have to be operated at well below its maximum possible speed.2231) = 119 lb 1.0269) = 1.33)(0.0269 φ = 0.5 hp at 90% efficiency = 742.88 + 0.5 ft-lb/sec P = Fv = 119v = 742.009819(1 .009819 in2 r = (Ao .2231 = 0.5/119 = 6.1059 Lc = 0.15 = 30.250 = 0.0.90(33.35)(0.007855 in 2 ε = ln(0.5 v = 742.100)/sin 12 = 0.1/tan 12)(1.1118(1 .09819(27.4462) = 214 lb.5(0.000 ft-lb/min)/60 = 742.15/1.5 hp at 90% efficiency = 1. Af = Ao(1 .8) .100) = 0.1/tan 12)(1.

A parting operation cuts a slug between adjacent parts in the strip.10 Identify the principal components of a stamping die that performs blanking. drawing ratio greater than 2. (3) earing.3 What is the difference between a cutoff operation and a parting operation? Answer. and the punch is smaller by twice the clearance. and (3) thickness-to-diameter ratio. the shape change is significant enough (e. a simple punch and die which have the included angle are used to bend the part.Dp)/D. the punch force a cantilevered sheet metal section over a die edge to obtain the desired bend angle.1 20. Measures of drawing feasibility include: (1) drawing ratio. Answer. A cutoff operation separates parts from a strip by shearing one edge of each part in sequence. 20. D = blank diameter. Stretch forming of sheet metal involves stretching and simultaneous bending of the workpart to achieve shape change. See Figure 20. (2) bending. 20.5 What is springback in sheet metal bending? Answer. Review Questions 20. Answer.4 Describe V-bending and edge bending. r = (D . and (4) surface scratches. die size = blank size. Answer.0) that it must be carried out in two drawing steps. In reverse drawing. Drawing defects include: (1) wrinkling. In edge bending. For a blanking operation.6 What are some of the simple measures used to assess the feasibility of a proposed cup drawing operation? Answer. indicate how the clearance should be applied to the punch and die diameters. 20.8 What are some of the possible defects in drawn sheet metal parts? Answer. In blanking of a round sheet metal part.4. and (3) drawing.3. 20. (2) reduction. the second in the opposite direction. The three operations are: (1) cutting. 20. Springback is the elastic recovery of the sheet metal after bending.20 20. two draws are accomplished on the part. it is usually measured as the difference between the final included angle of the bent part and the angle of the tooling used to make the bend.9 What is stretch forming? Answer. and Dp = punch diameter. 118 . 20. probably with annealing between the steps. DR = D/Dp.7 Distinguish between redrawing and reverse drawing. divided by the angle of the tooling. Answer. (2) tearing. 20. In redrawing. See Figure 20. where t = stock thickness.. In V-bending.9. t/D.2 SHEET METALWORKING Identify the three basic types of sheet metalworking operations.g. one in one direction. See Article 20.14.

the clearance between punch and die should: (a) be decreased. Advantages of hydraulic presses: longer ram strokes and uniform force throughout stroke. (d) tensile strength.6. The Guerin process is a sheet metal forming process that uses a rubber die which flexes to force the sheet metal to take the shape of a form block (punch).3 The cutting force in a blanking operation depends on which mechanical property of the sheet metal (one best answer)? (a) compressive strength. A major technical problem in tube bending is collapse of the tube walls during the process.1 As sheet metal stock hardness increases. since each correct answer is worth 1 point.13 What is the Guerin process? Answer.5.15 Distinguish between roll bending and roll forming.4 Sheet metal bending involves which of the following stresses and strains (may be more than one)? (a) compressive.Answer. 20. Answer.1. 20. (c) shear strength. also called C-frame. See Section 20. and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point. (b) shear. 20. 20.11 What are the two basic categories of structural frames used in stamping presses? Answer. 20. To attain a perfect score on the quiz. Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 17 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct). See Article 20. 119 . (b) 20.14 Identify a major technical problem in tube bending? Answer. or (c) be unaffected. Roll forming involves feeding a lone strip or coil through rotating rolls so that the shape of the rolls is imparted to the strip. Two press frame types are: (1) gap frame.10. (a) 20. Answer. Answer. Advantage of mechanical presses: faster cycle rates. and (c) tensile. (b) be increased. Answer. See Article 20. For each question.1. or (e) yield strength. (b) modulus of elasticity.2 A round sheet metal slug produced in a hole punching operation will have the same diameter as which of the following? (a) die opening. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers. (c) 20. Roll bending involves the forming of large sheet and plate metal sections into curved forms. (a) and (c). all correct answers must be given. and (2) straight-sided frame. 20. Answer.12 What are the relative advantages and disadvantages of mechanical versus hydraulic presses in sheet metalworking? Answer. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point. or (b) punch.

energy-rate forming processes (more than one)? (a) electrochemical machining. (g) redrawing.15 mm.7 20. and (i) tube forming. 120 . (b) and (d).6 20. Holding force in drawing is most likely to be which of the following relative to maximum drawing force? (a) less than. a = 0. c = 0. and (i).075.8 20. The following are measures of feasibility for several proposed cup drawing operations. (c).0 mm.075(2.7. (h) tube bending. (d) solid gap. Punch diameter = Db .0 .20. (b) Which of the following processes are classified as high. and (e) straight-sided. Problems Cutting Operations 20. (e) progressive die.060. (d) r = 65%.0 mm. which of the operations are likely to be feasible? (a) DR = 1. (b) combination die. a = 0. (d) ironing.70 mm. (a). (c) compound die. The part is circular with diameter = 75.15) = 74. (e) Which one of the following press types is usually associated with the highest production rates in sheet metal stamping operations? (a) adjustable bed. (f) shear spinning. or (f) V-die. Answer.2 Thus. (a) Which one of the following stamping dies is the most complicated? (a) blanking die. Answer.75 mm thick. 20. or (c) greater than.060(4. (b) DR = 2. (c) r = 0.2(0. Answer. (b) flanging. Answer.1. (e) Guerin process. (d) explosive forming. 20. (b) electromagnetic forming.10 20. (c) press brake. Answer. (b) open back inclinable.75) = 0. (b) amount of elastic recovery experienced by the metal after bending.7. (e) notching.0 mm thick cold rolled steel (half hard). Solution: From Table 20. (g) trimming. Answer.1. and (e) t/D = 2%. At what clearance should the shears be set to yield an optimum cut? Solution: From Table 20. and (e).2c = 75. (c) hemming. (c) safety factor used in calculating bending force.35. (f) hydroforming.0) = 0. c = at = 0.285 mm A blanking operation is to be performed on 2. (d) wiping die for edge bending. or (d) length before bending of the straight sheet metal section to be bent. Die diameter = Db = 75. Thus.1 A power shears is used to cut soft cold rolled steel that is 4. (d) Which of the following are variations of sheet metal bending operations (more than one)? (a) coining. and (h) shear spinning.9 20. (c) electron beam cutting. (b).5 Which one of the following is the best definition of bend allowance? (a) amount by which the die is larger than the punch. Determine the appropriate punch and die sizes for this operation. (c).11 Answer. (b) equal to.

0 = 13. c = 0.2 mm from Problem 20.2(0.0)(235. if the steel has a shear strength = 350 MPa.874 N 20. L = 3.2 mm thick. L = πD = 75π = 235. a = 0.2.65) = 164.0117) = 3.3 A compound die will be used to blank and punch a large washer out of aluminum alloy sheet stock 3.4766 in. Assume that blanking and punching occur simultaneously.0117 in.2(0.1. and (b) the punch and die sizes for the punching operation.97 tons 20.7 Determine the tonnage requirement for the blanking operation in Problem 20.075.0 in. Blanking die: dimensions are the same as for the part in Figure P20. Solution: From Table 20. F = 62. top and bottom 1. Solution: From Table 20.4.65 mm F = 350(2.9766 in.2) = 0. Solution: F = StL t = 2.3. if the aluminum sheetmetal has a tensile strength = 290 MPa. Solution: F = StL t = 5/32 in.045.2(0.0 + 1.4 A blanking die is to be designed to blank the part outline shown in Figure P20.144 mm (a) Blanking punch diameter = Db .00 inch extension widths = 1.938 lb = 62.000 inch width dimension = 2. What are the possible reasons for the burrs.0 + 2.045(3.000 lb/in 2. from Problem 20. The outside diameter of the washer = 65 mm and the inside diameter = 30 mm. Determine the dimensions of the blanking punch and the die opening.6 Determine the minimum tonnage press to perform the blanking and punching operation in Problem 20. 20.5) = 193. The material is 5/32 inch thick stainless steel (half hard). Determine: (a) the punch and die sizes for the blanking operation. Thus.000 .5 Determine the blanking force required in Problem 20.4.0117) = 1.2.500 inch length dimension = 3.4. given that the stainless steel has a shear strength = 62.2c = 65 .0 .5 mm F = 0.144) = 64.71 mm Blanking die diameter = Db = 65 mm (b) Punching punch diameter = Dh = 30 mm Punching die diameter = Dh + 2c = 30 + 2(0.5 + 1.000(5/32)(13.8 The foreman in the pressworking section comes to you with the problem of a blanking operation that is producing parts with excessive burrs.20. and what can be done to correct the condition? 121 .7(TS)tL t =3.29 mm 20. c = 0.7(290)(3.955 N 20.000 inch inset dimension remains the same. Thus.0117) = 0.500 . 2.2(0.3.075(5/32) = 0.0 + 1.0 + 1.5 + 2.2)(298. 1.0) = 125.0 mm from Problem 20. L = 65π + 30π = 95π = 298. Blanking punch: 3.1.4.144) = 30. a = 0. Solution: F = 0.0 + 1.9766 in.

15625) = 0. (a) Determine the dimensions of the two equal sides that will result after the bend.9. The bend of 90° is to be made in the middle of the 4-inch length.75) = 18. Dimensions (lengths) of each end = 0. Its length before bending = 4.15625) = 0. (2) Punch and die cutting edges are worn (rounded) which has the same effect as excessive clearance.9 except that the bend radius R = 6. Determine the blank size required.87 mm 20. (c) Where should the machine operator set the stop on the press brake relative to the starting length of the part? Solution: (a) R/t = (3/16)/(5/32) = 1.8122 in.11 An L-shaped part is to be bent in a V-bending operation on a press brake from a flat blank 4. Therefore.000 in.000 in.98 mm Dimensions of starting blank: w = 32 mm. therefore. BA = 2π(A/360)(R + Kbat) R/t = (9.3756) = 1. (b) Also.337.1875 + 0. If not.A’ = 135°.4173 in. from the end. Therefore. its length will be greater after the bend than before.75 mm A = 180 . R = 6. A’ = 45°. 122 .5 x 4. L = 50 + 27.35)/(4. 20.98 + 37.12 Determine the bending force required in Problem 20.5 = 115.75 mm thick cold rolled steel. Solution: For V-bending.75) = 1. Kba = 0. Solution: From drawing. To correct the problem: (1) Check the punch and die cutting edges to see if they are worn. (c) The operator should set the stop so that the tip of the V-punch contacts the starting blank at a distance = 2.4173 = 4. If they are. measure the punch and die clearance to see if it equals the recommended value.10 Solve Problem 20.0 .1875 + 0.9 if the bend is to be performed in a V-die with a die opening width = 38 mm. L = 50 + 18.8122) + 0.35 mm A = 180 . regrind the faces to sharpen the cutting edges. (2) If the die is not worn.33 B = 2π(90/360)(0.75) = 2.5(4. Solution: From drawing.35 mm.0417 in.5 = 105.33. if the bend radius = 3/16 inch. BA = 2π(A/360)(R + Kbat) R/t = (6. The stretched length of the bend along the neutral axis will be: B = 2π(90/360)(0.Solution: Reasons for excessive burrs: (1) clearance between punch and die is too large for the material and stock thickness.3756 in.A’ = 135°.5 + 0.5 x 0. The part drawing is given in Figure P20. determine the length of the part's neutral axis after the bend.333 BA = 2π(135/360)(6.48 mm 20.33 x 0.0. die maker must rebuild the punch and die. the length of the neutral axis of the part will be 2(1.5)/(4.9 A bending operation is to be performed on 4. these sides should be measured to the beginning of the bend radius.333 x 4. therefore.35 + 0. The material has a tensile strength = 620 MPa. R = 4.0.2.37 + 37. A’ = 45°.0 inches by 1.5 inches that is 5/32 inch thick.75) = 27. For convenience. (b) Since the metal stretches during bending.37 mm Dimensions of starting blank: w = 32 mm. Kbf = 1.5 BA = 2π(135/360)(9. Kba = 0. Bending 20. Kba = 0.

14 except that the operation is performed using a wiping die with die opening W = 0.100)/175 = 0.0 mm thick and 20.25 (b) r = (D .75 = 1128 lb.33(70.14% (d) Feasibility? DR < 2.75 (b) r = (D . r < 50%.15 Solve Problem 20.13 Solve Problem 20.33(70. F = Kbf(TS)wt2/D = 0. Kbf = 1. Solution: For V-bending.667 N 20.14 Determine the bending force required in Problem 20. The material has a tensile strength = 70.33.17 Derive an expression for the reduction r in drawing as a function of drawing ratio DR.33(340)(20)(3) 2/15 = 5426 N Drawing Operations 20.33(620)(32)(4. 20. and t/D > 1%. F = Kbf(TS)wt2/D = 0. 20.Dp)/D = (175 .19 Solve Problem 20.25 inches.1/DR 20.F = Kbf(TS)wt2/D = 1.Dp)/D Drawing ratio DR = D/Dp r = D/D .33.25 = 2728 lb.000)(1. However.0 mm long is bent to an included angle = 60° and a bend radius = 7.12 except that the operation is performed using a wiping die with die opening W = 25 mm.0. given that the die opening = 15 mm.0114 = 1. the operation is not feasible because the 175 mm diameter blank size does not provide sufficient metal to draw a 75 mm cup 123 . Kbf = 0. Kbf = 0. The metal has a tensile strength = 340 MPa.11 if the bend is to be performed in a V-die with a die opening width W = 1.5)(5/32) 2/1.100)/225 = 0. Kbf = 1. F = Kbf(TS)wt2/D = 1.909 N 20.75) 2/38 = 15.000)(1. Solution: For edge-bending in a wiping die. (d) Does the operation seem feasible? Solution: (a) DR = D/Dp = 225/100 = 2. Solution: For V-bending.18 A cup is to be drawn in a deep drawing operation.33(620)(32)(4.5 mm in a V-die.33.000 lb/in 2. Compute the required force to bend the part. Solution: For edge-bending in a wiping die.33. Solution: (a) DR = D/Dp = 175/100 = 1.5% (c) t/D = 2/225 = 0. determine: (a) drawing ratio.9% (c) t/D = 2/175 = 0. and (c) thickness-to-diameter ratio. and t/D is too small (less than 1%). F = Kbf(TS)wt2/D = 1.16 A sheetmetal part 3.Dp/D = 1 .Dp/D = 1 . If the blank diameter = 225 mm.75) 2/25 = 5.Dp)/D = (225 . 20.75 inch.89% (d) Feasibility? No! DR is too large (greater than 2. The sheetmetal thickness = 2 mm. (b) reduction. Solution: Reduction r = (D . The height of the cup is 75 mm and its inside diameter = 100 mm.0089 = 0.429 = 42.18 except that the starting blank size diameter = 175 mm. r is too large (greater than 50%).555 = 55.5)(5/32) 2/0.0).

(c) drawing force.0 = 1. and the starting blank diameter = 7.01667 = 1.0 inches.015(30.875 (b) t/D = 0.0.94.2 x 0.875 (b) r = (D – Dp)/D = )150 – 80)/80 = 70/150 = 0.000 lb/in 2.125 + 2 x 0. compute the starting diameter of the blank to complete the 124 .053 mm2. To compute the cup surface area. Solution: (a) DR = 150/80 = 1.58752) Fh = 49.(Dp + 2.15625) 2) = 49.15625) 2) = 0.0.16h = 16.025 = 2.5% (c) F = πDpt(TS)(D/Dp . (d) Fh = 0.23 A deep drawing operation is to be performed on a sheetmetal blank that is 1/8 inch thick.125/7.0 mm.7) = π(4)(0.52 .000 lb/in2 and a yield strength = 30.2 x 0.5 = 0.(80 + 2.22 A cup drawing operation is performed in which the inside diameter = 80 mm and the height = 50 mm. The stock thickness = 3. Cup area = πDph + πDp2/4 = 100πh + π(100) 2/4 = 100πh + 2500π = 314.56 mm. let us divide the cup into two sections: (1) walls.46 (c) F = πDpt(TS)(D/Dp .0.height. and (2) base.7) = π(4)(0.000)π(7. Determine: (a) drawing ratio.015Yπ(D2 .199 h = 51.015Yπ(D2 .015(180)π(1502 .0.52 .(Dp + 2. Solution: (a) DR = 7.(4 + 2.0 = 1. The actual cup height possible with a 175 mm diameter blank can be determined by comparing surface areas (one side only for convenience) between the cup and the starting blank.0 inches and a height = 2.4.2 x 3 + 2 x 4) 2) = 0.7) = 354.20 except that the stock thickness t = 3/16 inch. (b) reduction.1875)(60.015(30.1875/7.5 = 0.16h + 7854= 24.5 inches. (c) drawing force. The height (inside dimension) of the cup = 3.125 + 2 x 0. Solution: (a) DR = 7. Blank area = πD2/4 = π(175) 2/4 = 24.5/4.418 N. Tensile strength = 400 MPa and a yield strength = 180 MPa for this sheetmetal. The stock thickness = 1/8 inch.133 lb.21 Solve Problem 20. and (d) blankholder force.5/4. (d) Fh = 0. and the starting blank diameter = 150 mm.5/4 .053 314.000)π(7.000)(7. Assuming the punch radius = 0.000)π(7. Punch and die radii = 5/32 inch. and (d) blankholder force.20 A deep drawing operation is performed in which the inside of the cylindrical cup has a diameter = 4.(4 + 2.2t + 2Rd)2) Fh = 0. This is less than the specified 75 mm height. Determine: (a) drawing ratio.5/4 .770 lb 20.5 inches.16h + 7854. 20.756 lb. The metal has a tensile strength = 60.015(180)π(1502 .770 lb (same as previous problem) 20. (d) Fh = 0.015(30.125)(60.667% (c) F = πDpt(TS)(D/Dp .52 .8 inches and the diameter (inside dimension) = 5. (b) reduction.0. assuming the corner radius on the punch has a negligible effect in our calculations and there is no earing of the cup. Punch and die radii = 4 mm.7) = π(80)(3)(400)(150/80 . Set surface area of cup = surface are of starting blank: 314. Thus.7) = 110.2t + 2Rd)2) Fh = 0.875 (same as previous problem) (b) t/D = 0.0.62) Fh = 114.000)(7.942 N 20.7) = 166.

which would reduce DR.7855D 2 = 14. however. Assume the corner radius on the punch = zero.24 Solve Problem 20.807 + 8.188 in2 Total area of cup = 53. which is less than the limiting ratio of 2.0.7855D 2 = 76.807 in 2 A2 = length of the quarter circle at the base multiplied by the circumference of the circle described by the centroid (Pappus-Guldin Theorem): length of quarter circle = πD/4 = 0.48/70 = 1. The part is a cylindrical cup with height = 50 mm and inside diameter = 70 mm. whose height = 3.375 sin 45 = 0. Because DR > 2. Test for feasibility: DR = D/Dp = 9.25 A drawing operation is performed on 3.375 in. 20.25) 2/4 = 14.25π in2 Blank area = πD2/4 = 0.0126 = 1.0)(3.0 = 1.25 in.589 in.25π D2 = 25. this 125 .0.25πD2 = 25. Blank area = πD2/4 = 0.375 = 4.375) = 0.425 in.589) = 8. 20..265 = 4.0218 = 2.25 + 2 x 0. Test for feasibility: DR = D/Dp = 137.23 was not feasible. Of course. t/D = 3/137.0 .48 = 0.89 = 0. (a) Find the required starting blank size Db.125/9.25/0.7855 = 18. Test for feasibility: DR = D/Dp = 10.890 in.050 in.825 D = 9. (2) quarter toroid formed by the 0.78π(0.0 mm stock.0 = 2. assuming thickness t remains constant. (b) Is the drawing operation feasible? Solution: Use surface area computation.842/0.89/5. this operation may not be feasible.964.842 D2 = 76. the operation in the present problem seems feasible.846/0.978.375 radius at the base of the cup.0 D = 10.780 in.900 D = 137. Is the operation feasible (ignoring the fact that the punch radius is too small)? Solution: Use surface area computation.25π(70) 2 = 14.050/5. Solution: Use surface area computation.846 D2 = 14.23 except use a punch radius = 0. Thus. A2 = 4.8) + 0. These criteria values indicate that the operation is feasible. which has a diameter = 5.425) = 53. and (3) base. The surface area of the cup will be divided into three sections: (1) straight walls.2 x 0. With a rounded punch radius. Whereas the operation in Problem 20. The centroid is located at the center of the arc which is 0. assuming thickness t remains constant.25π(2 x 0. Cup area = wall area + base area = πDph + πDp2/4 = 5π(3. which is above the value of 1% used as a criterion of feasibility in cup drawing.80 . radius.48 mm.7855 = 97.25 = 101. with a punch radius Rp = 0.846 mm2.188 = 76.25π(5) 2 = 25. the diameter of the circle described by the centroid is 4.operation with no material left in the flange.375 inch.18%.842 in 2 Blank area = πD2/4 = 0.01. A1 = πDph = π(5.847 in 2 A3 = π(4.7855D 2 Setting blank area = cup area: 0. the zero punch radius makes this operation infeasible anyway.847 + 14.265 beyond the center of the 0. assuming thickness t remains constant. the blank size would be slightly smaller.26%.375 = 3.0.7855D 2 Setting blank area = cup area: 0. Cup area = wall area + base area = πDph + πDp2/4 = π(70)(50) + 0.25πD2 Setting blank area = cup area: 0. The thickness to diameter ratio t/D = 0.

(2) quarter toroid formed by the 0.7855D 2 = 16.1 + 1963. The centroid is located at the center of the arc which is 10 sin 45 = 7. as in the previous problem.142 mm. which has a diameter = 70 .7855 = 20.045/0. Since the DR is greater than 2. and still a third has torn sections at its base.1 mm2 A3 = π(50) 2/4 = 1963.7855 = 21. What are the causes of each of these defects and what remedies would you propose? Solution: (1) Ears are caused by sheet metal that has directional properties.0. another has wrinkles.5 mm2 Blank area = πD2/4 = 0.047. Since the DR is greater than 2.31 mm.125. There are several possible remedies: (a) increase the t/D ratio by using a thicker gage sheet metal.125.6 + 3166.25π(70) 2 = 17.045 D2 = 17. 20.0204 = 2.125.7855D 2 = 17.04%.26 except that the corner radius on the punch = 10 mm. t/D = 3/147. (2) Wrinkles are caused by compressive buckling of the flange as it is drawn inward to form the cup. 126 .25 except that the height = 60 mm. Solution: Use surface area computation. this operation is considered infeasible.071 beyond the center of the 0. Test for feasibility: DR = D/Dp = 147.31 = 0. (b) Increase the blankholder pressure against the work during drawing. One remedy is to anneal the metal to reduce the directionality of the properties.375 in. Blank area = πD2/4 = 0. radius.529.10. and (3) base.2 x 10 = 50 mm. Thus.25π(2 x 10) = 15. 20. assuming thickness t remains constant.71) = 3166. The surface area of the cup will be divided into three sections: (1) straight walls.0. Solution: Cup area = wall area + base area Cup area = πDph + πDp2/4 = π(70)(60) + 0.700 D = 147.0 D = 143.27 Solve Problem 20.375 radius at the base of the cup.31/70 = 2.8 mm2 Total area of cup = 10. Also.10 = 50 mm.71 mm.28 The foreman in the drawing section of the shop brings to you several samples of parts that have been drawn in the shop.26 Solve Problem 20. this operation is considered infeasible. the punch radius Rp = 0 would render this operation difficult if not infeasible.7855D 2 Setting blank area = cup area: 0.995.28/70 = 2.7855D 2 Setting blank area = cup area: 0. 20. Test for feasibility: DR = D/Dp = 143. A2 = 64.071 = 64.045 mm2. A1 = πDph = π(70)(50) = 10.8 = 16.5 D2 = 16.5/0.142π(15. The samples have various defects. This may not be possible since a design change is required. The material is anisotropic. the diameter of the circle described by the centroid is 50 + 2 x 7.995. One has ears. whose height = 60 .28 mm.6 mm2 A2 = length of the quarter circle at the base multiplied by the circumference of the circle described by the centroid (Pappus-Guldin Theorem): length of quarter circle = 2πRp/4 = 0.shape would be difficult to draw because the drawing punch would act on the metal like a blanking punch.

547/0.25 = 14.Dp < 5t D < 5t + Dp = 5(0.30(b). its height = 1.5 .002 as start of yielding.5 .25 = 40.(3) Tearing occurs due to high tensile stresses in the walls of the cup near the base.516 in 3 V3 = (2. (b) Because the sheet metal is rather thick.81 in.75)/4 = 2. computed in (a) does not provide sufficient metal to complete the drawing.457π(0.25/2)sin 45 = 2.125 inch and the width = 10 inches. to 2(102 + 52)0.1116) 0.547 in 3 Volume of blank = πD2t/4 = π(0. let us use volume rather than area to determine whether there is sufficient metal in a 3. the thickness of the sheet metal has been reduced to maintain constant volume.1963D 2 Setting blank volume = cup volume: 0.1073 in. the length of the piece is increased from 20.000 lb/in 2 and n = 0.5 = 3.375 + 0.25) 2] .29 A cup-shaped part is to be drawn without a blankholder from sheetmetal whose thickness = 0.1964) = 1. The metal has a flow curve defined by K = 70.1963D 2 = 4. and the corner radius at the base = 0.25) + 2(0.75 inch blank diameter.(2.361) = 0.30 A 20 inch long sheetmetal workpiece is stretched in a stretch forming operation to the dimensions shown in Figure P20.375 + 0.413 lb.30. V2 = 2. and (d) die force Fdie at the very end when the part is formed as indicated in Figure P20.5 inches. The thickness of the beginning stock t = 0. remains the same during stretching.12(20/22.601 = 4. D . (2) toroid at base.5 .375) 2] = 0.25)/4 = 0.803 lb/in2 F = (10)(0.1963 = 23.5 inches. (a) What is the minimum starting blank diameter that can be used.459) = 43.764 lb.1073)(40.1964 in 2 Circle made by centroid sweep has diameter = (2. Yf = 70.375) 2π(0. 20.430 in 3 V2 = (cross-section of quarter toroid) x (circle made by sweep of centroid) Cross-section of quarter toroid = 0. The inside diameter of the cup = 2.459 lb/in2 F = 10(0. (3) base.375)π[(2.118 = 0.125π(2.25) 2 .375 inch.25)D2/4 = 0.14). 127 .5 + 2 x 0.0.12)(14.5 = 22. Tearing can also occur due to a die corner radius that is too small. (c) stretching force F. The drawn cup consists of three sections: (1) cup walls.25. Solution: (a) Use ε = 0. The diameter of 3. tf = 0.25π[(0.361 in.516 + 0. V1 = (1.2 x 0.601 in 3 Total V = V1 + V2 + V3 = 2.0 in.2 x 0.547 D2 = 4.75 in. (a) Find the stretching force F required near the beginning of the operation when yielding first occurs.(0. (22. A remedy would be to provide a large punch radius.5) 2)/4 = 1.457 in.000(0.361/20) = ln 1.25 inches. according to Eq. Other Operations 20. (20. (b) After stretching. Determine: (b) true strain experienced by the metal.002) 0.803) = 17.361 in.14)? (b) Does this blank diameter provide sufficient material to complete the cup? Solution: (a) According to Eq. F = LtYf Yf = 70.000(0.16 D = 4. assuming width L = 10 in.25) + 2..430 + 1.75 in. ε = ln(22.1116 (c) At the final length of 22.

Solution: (a) tf = t sin α = (2. The sand will act as an internal flexible mandrel to support the tube wall. 20. (3) Pack sand into the tube.31 using a conventional spinning operation. The wall thickness on the tube = 4.836 lb. 20.34 A 75 mm diameter tube is bent into a rather complex shape with a series of simple tube bending operations.5 = 175 mm Starting diameter = 2(175) = 350 mm 20. In one of the bends where the bend radius is 125 mm. 128 . The tubes will be used to deliver fluids in a chemical plant.2)/2. Solution: From part drawing. radius = 25 + (100 . Solution: Based on sidewise displacement of metal through a shear angle of 30°. (2) Request the designer to increase the bend radius to 3D = 225 mm.4)sin 30 = 2. the walls of the tube are flattening badly.4 = 0.31 Determine the starting disk diameter required to spin the part in Figure P20.50 = 50% 20. and (b) the spinning reduction r.4 mm. Shear strain γ = cot 30 = 1.75 mm.732.57 = 38. What can be done to correct the condition? Solution: Possible solutions: (1) Use a mandrel to prevent collapsing of tube wall.4(0.32 If the part illustrated in Figure P20.4 – 1.57° Fdie = 2( 43.31 were made by shear spinning.5) = 1.33 Determine the shear strain that is experienced by the material that is shear spun in Problem 20. determine: (a) the wall thickness along the cone-shaped portion.25)/sin 30 = 25 + 75/0.413) sin 26.tf)/t = (2.32.2 mm (b) r = (t . The starting thickness = 2.(d) Fdie = 2F sin A A = tan-1(5/10) = 26.

129 . 21. and (3) milling. The three types are: (1) discontinuous. material is removed from the workpart so that the remaining material is the desired part geometry. in which the chip is formed into separated segments. Answer. Cutting conditions include: speed.4 Name the three most common machining processes.6 Define the difference between roughing and finishing operations in machining. used in operations such as milling and drilling. The two categories are: (1) single -point tools. 21. which is the same as (2) except that friction at the tool-chip interface causes adhesion of the work material to the tool rake face. A machine tool can be defined as a power-driven machine that positions and moves a tool relative to the work to accomplish machining or other metal shaping process.shaped tool in which the cutting edge is perpendicular to the direction of speed motion into the work material. 21.1 What distinguishes machining from other manufacturing processes? Answer. (3) it can achieve closer tolerances than most other processes. feed. used in operations such as turning and boring. Answer. The three common machining processes are: (1) turning. Answer. 21. depth of cut. What are the two basic categories of cutting tools in machining? Give an example of a machining operation that uses each of the tooling types. 21. 21. Answer.21 THEORY OF METAL MACHINING Review Questions 21. and (3) continuous with built-up edge.9 Name and briefly describe the three types of chips that occur in metal cutting.2 Identify some of the reasons why machining is commercially and technologically important. Answer.3 21. and (4) it can create good surface finishes. and (2) multiple-edge cutting tools. A finishing operation follows roughing and is used to achieve the final geometry and surface finish. The reasons include: (1) its applicability to most materials.7 What is a machine tool? Answer. in which the chip does not segment and is formed from a ductile metal.5 Identify the parameters of a machining operation that are included within the scope of cutting conditions. In machining. Answer. (2) drilling.8 What is an orthogonal cutting operation? Answer. and whether or not a cutting fluid is used. (2) continuous. Orthogonal cutting involves the use of a wedge.10 Describe in words what the Merchant equation tells us. (2) its capability to produce a variety of geometries to a part. 21. A roughing operation is used to remove large amounts of material rapidly and to produce a part geometry close to the desired shape. 21.

The size effect refers to the fact that the specific energy increases as the cross-section area of the chip (to x w) decreases. Answer. and d. (d) 21. (c) 3. (b) 0. A tool-chip thermocouple is comprised of the tool and chip as the two dissimilar (metallic) materials forming the thermocouple junction. (c) round hole.1 A lathe is used to perform which of the following machining operations (one best answer)? (a) broaching. For each question. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers. and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point. (d) screw threads. 21. Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 11 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct). (b) Which of the three types of chip would be expected in a turning operation conducted at low cutting speeds on a brittle work material (one answer)? (a) continuous.3 If the cutting conditions in a turning operation are v = 300 ft/min. 130 .025 in 3/min.4 A roughing operation generally involves which one of the following combinations of cutting conditions? (a) high v. Answer. Answer. (d) 21. an emf is emitted from the junction which can be measured to indicate cutting temperature. (b) continuous with built-up edge. or (e) sphere.5 21. (b) flat plane.11 What is the specific energy in metal machining? Answer. or (d) low v.0 in3/min. all correct answers must be given. (c) milling.13 What is a tool-chip thermocouple? Answer. or (d) 3. which one of the following is the material removal rate? (a) 0. (c) low v. f = 0. Specific energy is the amount of energy required to remove a unit volume of the work material. Answer.3 in 3/min.2 With which one of the following geometric forms is the drilling operation most closely associated? (a) external cylinder.100 inch. (c) f/d. f. The Merchant equation states that the shear plane angle increases when rake angle is increased and friction angle is decreased. and d = 0. or (c) discontinuous. (b) drilling. or (d) to/w. f. (c) 21. 21.010 in/rev.6 in 3/min. since each correct answer is worth 1 point. 21.Answer. 21. or (d) turning. high f and d. low f and d.6 The chip thickness ratio is which one of the following? (a) tc/to. as the tool-chip interface heats up during cutting.12 What does the term size effect mean in metal cutting? Answer. Answer. To attain a perfect score on the quiz. (b) high v. (c) 21. and d. (b) to/tc. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point.

(b) 0.948 131 . Answer.7 According to the Merchant equation. Calculate (a) the shear plane angle and (b) the shear strain for the operation.848 + 0.85) = 51. Solution: (a) r = to/tc = 0. (c) cast iron. (c) 21.010 inch.3°. 21. Answer.35° ° (b) Chip thickness at α = 0: tc = to/tan φ = 0. an increase in rake angle would have which of the following results. Calculate (a) the shear plane angle and (b) the shear strain for the operation. determine (a) the shear plane angle.351 = 3. The chip thickness before the cut = 0.3° Now.199 21.65 = 0.5062) = 26.. (a) 21.4286 cos -5/(1 . Answer.16): φ = 45 + α/2 .430 + 0. (b) decrease in power requirements. (b) the chip thickness.2φ β = 90 + 15 – 2(26. (c) 21. or (d) steel.3 In an orthogonal cutting operation.1. Eq. Solution: (a) r = to/tc = 0. suppose the rake angle were changed to α = 0°. (d) increase in cutting temperature. all other factors remaining the same (more than one)? (a) decrease in friction angle.30/tan 19. Answer.4615 sin 15)) = tan-1(. the tool has a rake angle = 15°.85° ° (b) Shear strain γ = cot 26.025 inch.012/0.85°. with α = 0 and β remaining the same at 51.65 mm.2 In Problem 21.4116) = 22.1 In an orthogonal cutting operation. β = 2(45) + α .028 = 0. The chip thickness before the cut = 0.012 in and the cut yields a deformed chip thickness = 0. (c) decrease in shear plane angle.4615 cos 15/(1 . Assuming that the friction angle remains the same.35 . or (c) 0. or (e) increase in shear plane angle. (21. α = 15° and φ = 26.028 in.37 – (-5)) = 2.1.9 For which one of the following values of chip thickness before the cut to would you expect the specific energy to be the greatest? (a) 0.4286 sin -5)) = tan-1(. the tool has a rake angle = -5°. φ = 45 + 0/2 – 51.10 Which of the following cutting conditions has the strongest effect on cutting temperature? (a) feed or (b) speed.β/2..30/0.30 mm and the cut yields a deformed chip thickness = 0.35 = 0.854 mm (c) Shear strain γ = cot 19.Answer.0) = 2.37 + tan (22.185 21.975 + 0. and (c) the shear strain for the operation.4286 φ = tan-1(.35 + tan (19. (b) and (e). rearranging.4615 φ = tan-1(.3/2 = 19. Using the Merchant Equation.210 = 2.8 Which of the following metals would usually have the lowest unit horsepower (one answer)? (a) aluminum.518 = 2.85 + tan (26. Solution: From Problem 21.12 mm.85 . (b) Problems Chip Formation and Forces in Machining 21. (b) brass.37° ° (b) Shear strain γ = cot 22.15) = 1.

8 The orthogonal cutting operation described in previous Problem 21.012 in and w = 0. Solution: (a) r = to/tc.4 sin 10)) = tan-1(.0077 = 21.100 in. (b) shear strain. As = (0.38 21. (b) φ = tan-1(.92 21. The rake angle = 10°.301 = 1. 132 .615 + 0.38 cos 5/(1 .463 cos 10/(1 .54 mm.6)(5.38 – 1589 sin 21.8 .7 An orthogonal cutting operation is performed using a rake angle of 15°. f = 0.311 (c) MRR = (2 m/s x 103 mm/m)(0.3 N As = (0.1 = 1.4233) = 22.012/.38 = 3.4959) = 26. the width of the cut = 5.21.291sin 22.25 mm.8 + tan (31.9/0. the width of the cut = 0. The chip thickness ratio is measured after the cut to be 0.0)/sin 21. and (e) the shear strain.0.94 = 162.38. Determine (a) the shear strength of the work material and (b) the coefficient of friction in the operation.017 + 0.5 The cutting force and thrust force in an orthogonal cutting operation are: Fc = 1470 N and Ft = 1589 N.10) = 2. rearranging. (b) the shear angle.4.200 in.2)/sin 22.5 = 0..6194) = 31.23 mm2 S = 789.24° µ = tan 52.0 mm.8° ° (c) β = 2(45) + 15 .24 = 1. β = 2(45) + 10 .022 in.291 21.38 = 789. and the chip thickness ratio = 0.2(22.294 = 2.55 cos 15/(1 . The rake angle = 5°.463 φ = tan-1(.6 The cutting force and thrust force have been measured in an orthogonal cutting operation: Fc = 300 lb and Ft = 291 lb.5° ° (d) µ = tan 41.015. (b) the cutting force.94 .38) = 52.94° Fs = 300 cos 22.0 mm.3/8. and (d) the friction force.000 lb/in 2. The tool rake angle = 10° which produces a deformed chip thickness tc = 0.25/0.β/2.15) = 1.38° Fs = 1470 cos 21.54 = 0. Based on your answers to the previous problem.0) = 1500 mm3/s 21. Solution: (a) r = to/tc = 0. and d = 3.4 .9 N/mm2 = 95.. Determine (a) the shear strength of the work material and (b) the coefficient of friction in the operation. Determine: (a) shear plane angle.0.0/.4 The cutting conditions in a turning operation are: v = 2 m/s. Solution: (a) φ = tan-1(0.167 lb/in2.3916) = 21.94) = 54. the chip thickness before the cut = 0.4 + tan (26. (d) the coefficient of friction.9 lb.55 = 0.9 MPa (b) φ = 45 + α/2 . β = 2(45) + α . and (c) material removal rate. to = 0.94 = 0.463 sin 10)) = tan-1(.015)(0.6. and the chip thickness ratio = 0. (c) the friction angle. the chip thickness before the cut = 0.55. compute: (a) the shear force.2φ β = 90 + 5 – 2(21.2(31.23 = 95. Solution: φ = tan-1(0.55 sin 15)) = tan-1(. Determine: (a) the chip thickness after the cut.3646 = 8.7 involves a work material whose shear strength is 40. (c) the thrust force.1° µ = tan 54. tc = to/r = 0.88 (e) γ = cot 31.4 cos 10/(1 .0077 in 2 S = 162.25)(3.4° ° (b) γ = cot 26.38 sin 5)) = tan-1(0. Use the orthogonal cutting model as an approximation of the turning process.8) = 41.

8 = 0.8) = 42. Determine: (a) the chip thickness after the cut.5 .4.35 cos -5/(1 .00456 in 2.9° ° (d) µ = tan 42. to = 0. (b) the shear force.9 .2(29. 21.015)(0. (c) Ft = 91.20)/cos (29. (d) F = 397 sin 20 .000 lb/in 2.9 In an orthogonal cutting operation. An orthogonal cutting operation is performed using a tool with a rake angle = 20° at the following cutting conditions: Speed = 100 ft/min.010 in/rev.15)/sin 18. (c) β = 2(45) + (-5) .000) = 351 lb.238 cos 20 = 359 lb. (b) the shear angle.Solution: (a) As = (0. (d) F = 665 sin (-5) . 133 .5 = 0. (d) the coefficient of friction.000) = 91.35 sin -5)) = tan-1(0.93 (e) γ = cot 31. (d) F = 155 sin 15 .5668) = 29.3384) = 18. Solution: (a) φ = tan-1(.7) = 47.597 + 0.6° Fc = 351 cos (47.12 A turning operation is performed using the following cutting conditions: v = 300 ft/min.2 cos (41. Fs = AsS = 0. The rake angle on the tool in the direction of chip flow = 10°. and (e) the shear strain. Ft = 351 sin (47.8 + 41. (b) Fc = 91. Ft = 228 sin (50.015 in. The shear strength of the work material = 40.6 .2 cos 15 = 115 lb.9 = 0.42.00456(50. the rake angle = -5°.7° ° (b) As = (0.5 sin 20)) = tan-1(0.00702(50. Fs = AsS = 0.5 -15) = 77. and width of cut = 0.000 lb/in 2.015)(0.8 + tan (31. and (d) friction force. Fs = AsS = 0.5 + 50. f = 0.(-5)) = 665 lb.15)/cos (31.7 = 0.(-5))/cos (18. 21.9° Fc = 228 cos (50. Using the orthogonal model as an approximation of turning.1° ° (c) β = 2(45) + (-5) .150 in.4 = 0.50. (c) cutting force and thrust force.4 cos -5/(1 .6 .2 lb. resulting in a chip ratio = 0. (c) the friction angle..3851) = 21.(-5)) = 870 lb.9 . Solution: (a) φ = tan-1(..7 + 47.10 The shear strength of a certain work material = 50.4 sin -5)) = tan-1(0.489 = 3.77.6 .8 + 41.15)/sin 29.000) = 228 lb.5 .11 Solve the previous problem except that the rake angle has been changed to -5° and the resulting chip thickness ratio = 0. determine: (a) the shear plane angle.0028(40.5 + 50. Solution: (a) r = to/tc.6 .35. chip thickness before the cut = 0.0 mm.15) = 2.5 mm (b) φ = tan-1(.2 mm and w = 4.870 cos (-5) = 808 lb.09 21.2/.5 -15) = 155 lb.9 -20) = 397 lb.(-5))/cos (18.10)/sin 31. and d = 0.5) = 50.. Determine: (a) the shear plane angle. (c) β = 2(45) + 20 .00702 in 2.2(18. (b) the shear force.012)(0.20)/cos (29.15)/cos (31. tc = to/r = 0.2 lb.100 in. 21.5 cos 20/(1 .00228 in 2.2 sin (41. (c) cutting force and feed force.8 . The resulting chip thickness ratio = 0.7 + 47. The chip ratio r = 0.9 -20) = 238 lb.5° ° (b) As = (0.2(21.

γ = cot φ + tan (φ . and the chip thickness ratio is measured after the cut to be 0.9 . and Fn (Eqs.2 .11.6.284(250) = 321 N. Determine the cutting force and the feed force.7)/cos (27.E.20 mm/rev.010)(0.10) = 236 lb.9 + 41. Ft = 98.00245(40.00257 in 2. 21.9° ° (b) As = (0. Fs..α) = sin φ Using the trigonometric identity cos(φ . Fs = AsS = 1.17 Derive the force equations for F. 21. f = 0.10)/cos (24.16 Show how Eq.12) in the text) using the force diagram of Figure 21.0 = 0.40.10)/sin 24. Using the orthogonal model as an approximation of turning.r sin α) Q.00256(50. tan φ = r cos α/(1 .2) and Figure 21. 134 . The resulting chip ratio = 0.2): r = to/tc = sin φ/cos (φ .10)/cos (22. (b) the shear force.5 cos 7/(1 .0)/sin 27.000 lb/in 2. 21.13 Turning is performed on a work material with shear strength of 250 MPa.2(24.42 sin 10)) = tan-1(0.1 .Solution: (a) φ = tan-1(.0 m/s.0 + 51. The following conditions are used: v = 3. (21.0 + 51..E.D. (c) β = 2(45) + 7 . Ff = 321 sin (41.9 = 1.10) = 229 lb.14 A turning operation is made with a rake angle of 10°. determine: (a) the shear plane angle.010)(0.010 in/rev and a depth of cut = 0. (21. Use the orthogonal cutting model as an approximation of the turning process.9 + 41.2° Fc = 321 cos (41.2 sin (51.5 sin 7)) = tan-1(0. Solution: φ = tan-1(0.0° ° (b) As = (0. we obtain r cos α/tan φ + r sin α = 1 r cos α/tan φ = 1 .α) Thus.9° Fc = 98. N.2)(3.4 cos 10/(1 .2 .9) = 41. and rake angle = 7° in the direction of chip flow.15 Show how Eq. Solution: Begin with the definition of the chip ratio. Eq.9 = 0.000) = 98.0) = 51.α) = cos φ cos α + sin φ sin α r (cos φ cos α + sin φ sin α) = sin φ Dividing both sides by sin φ.7) = 387 N. Ft = 128 sin (54.9 .9 + 54.9) = 54.4233) = 22.000) = 128 lb. 21.100 in. γ = AC/BD = (AD + DC)/BD = AD/BD + DC/BD AD/BD = cot φ and DC/BD = tan (φ .3) is derived from the definition of chip ratio.10) = 161 lb.2 .9) through (21.10)/cos (24.7) = 568 N.4) is derived from Figure 21.2 lb. (21. Eq.9° ° As = (0. (21.9 .α) Q.α) Rearranging.0.5(b). a feed of 0.D.7)/cos (27.10)/cos (22. Fs = AsS = 0.2(22.1 . The shear strength of the work material is known to be 50.42 cos 10/(1 .r sin α Rearranging.1 .00245 in 2. (c) β = 2(45) + 10 .10) = 179 lb. (21. (c) cutting force and feed force.4 sin 10)) = tan-1(0.10)/sin 22. Solution: (a) φ = tan-1(.2 cos (51.9 + 54.9 . Fs = AsS = 0.2(27. 21. r cos (φ . Solution: In the figure.4462) = 24.1° Fc = 128 cos (54.1 . d = 3.0 mm. β = 2(45) + 10 .5.2 .5285) = 27.284 mm2.

and from the intersection of Ft and Fc construct a line that is perpendicular to vector Fs. Thus Fs (original) = Fc cos φ .500 W = 17. feed = 0.750 J/s = 29. cutting conditions are as follows: v = 900 ft/min. A right triangle now exists in which Fc is the hypotenuse and the two sides are (1) the extended Fs vector and (2) the constructed line that runs between Fs and the intersection of Fc and Ft. Eq. The distance along the previously constructed line between the Ft arrowhead (base of translated N vector) and F is Ft sinα.500 J/s = 17.18.11.50 mm)(7. (21. Hence.85) = 2.90 = 19. and depth of cut = 7.14. From Table 21.8(0.D. construct a line from the intersection of Ft and Fc that is perpendicular to and intersects with vector Fn.25 mm/rev. F = Fc sin α + Ft cos α. correction factor = 0.D.38 J/mm3) = 29. translate vector N vertically upward until it coincides with the previously constructed line. Vector Fn is now divided into two line segments.5/0. the cutting speed = 200 m/min. Eq. With the correction factor.50 mm/rev. The arrowhead of Ft will now be at the base of the translated base of N. Eq. whose length = Fc cos α.44 kW 21. Pg = 17.E. one of which = Ft cos φ and the other = Fc sin φ.18 In a turning operation on stainless steel with hardness = 200 HB. How much power will the lathe draw in performing this operation if its mechanical efficiency = 90%. for f = 0.D.11): In Figure 23. f = 0.E.8 J/mm3.50 mm.5 mm) = 375. Solution: This is the same basic problem as the previous.Solution: Eq.3 to obtain the appropriate specific energy value.3. The vector F is divided into two line segments.D.020 in/rev.75/0. construct a line starting at the intersection of Ft and Fc that is perpendicular to the friction force F. The extended Fs vector is related to Fc as Fc cos φ.11.20 In a turning operation on aluminum. Fn = Fc sin φ + Ft cos φ Q.500 mm3/s P c = (12. 135 . U = 2. Solution: From Table 21.3. and d = 0. The constructed line is at an angle α with Fc.000 mm3/min = 6250 mm3/s P c = (6250 mm3/s)(2.3 to obtain the appropriate unit horsepower value.8 J/mm3) = 17.38 J/mm3. Power and Energy in Machining 21.19 In previous Problem 21.8 J/mm3 MRR = vfd = (200 m/min)(103 mm/m)(0.750 W = 29. MRR = vfd = (200 m/min)(103 mm/m)(0. Next. Ft now makes an angle α with F.5 mm. one of which = Fc sin α and the other = Ft cos α.” Using Figure 21.E. (21.500 mm3/s)(2.E. (21.5 kW Accounting for mechanical efficiency.9): In Figure 23.250 in. What horsepower is required of the drive motor. Q.90 = 33. translate vector Ft to the right and downward at an angle α until its base is at the arrowhead of F.11.5 mm) = 750.10): In Figure 23.75 kW Accounting for mechanical efficiency. compute the lathe power requirements if feed = 0. N = Fc cos α .85.11. U = 2. (21.000 mm3/min = 12. extend vector Fs in the opposite direction of its arrowhead. Pg = 29.Ft sin φ Q. Use Table 21. if the lathe has a mechanical efficiency = 87%? Use Table 21.Ft sin α Q.06 kW 21. Hence. Thus. U = 2.12): In Figure 23.25 mm)(7.8 N-m/mm3 = 2. except that a correction must be made for the “size effect. The length difference between the extended Fs vector and the original Fs vector is Ft sin φ.

3.2 in3/min)(1.Solution: From Table 21. 22.94 hp..52 hp required.88 in.8 N-m/mm3 = 2. thus U = 2. 21.764 ft-lb/in3 = 129. can the job be performed on the 20 hp lathe? Use Table 21. Cutting conditions are: v = 400 ft/min./ft)(0.012)(0. correction factor in Figure 21. a correction factor must be applied from Figure 21.23 Suppose the cutting speed in Problems 21. At efficiency E = 90%.90) = 2. Determine: (a) the horsepower consumed by the turning operation.000 = 0.52 N-m/mm3 and an iterative calculation procedure is required to match the unit power value with the feed.400 f Again setting available power = required power.400 = 0.14 = 0. and (d) the specific energy (in-lb/in3).0 mm. The lathe motor is rated at 25 kW. Solution: From Table 21.500 = 56.5 (103) = 22. Based on these values.25)(54) = 12. 3/min.52)(20 x 103) f = 50. HPu = 1.2/0.8 N-m/mm3)( 20 x 103) f = 56. 3/min. 21.9(0.7 and 21.94/2. for this feed.500 = 50. HPc = 155(200)/33.2 hp HPg = 12. Solution: From Table 21.45 mm/rev.2 in. the lathe has a mechanical efficiency = 0. Solution: (a) From Problem 21. U = 2.500W Required power Pc = (2.250) = 54 in 3/min HPc = 0.88 = 10. (c) the unit horsepower and specific energy for the work material in this operation.21 In a turning operation on plain carbon steel whose Brinell hardness = 275 HB.6 hp/(in 3/min) MRR = vfd = 400 ft/min(12 in.24 For Problem 21. Since feed is greater than 0.80. taking the correction factor into account.8 J/mm3 MRR = vfd = (200 m/min)(103 mm/m)(6 mm)f = 1200(103)f mm3/min = 20(103)f mm3/s Available power Pc = Pg E = 25(103)(0.150 in.020 in/rev = to.88 = 0.90(20) = 18 hp Since available horsepower exceeds required horsepower.22 A turning operation is to be performed on a 20 hp lathe with efficiency = 90%. HPc = (7. the job can be accomplished on the 20 hp lathe.9.0 hp 21.000 f Setting available power = required power.01 in. HPu = 0.14. The work material is an alloy steel whose hardness is in the range 360 to 380 HB.020)(0.500/56. From your answers to those problems. available horsepower = 0.3. Required Pc = (2. (c) HPu = 0. and depth of cut = 0. (b) the metal removal rate in in.400 f f = 22.-lb/in3.8(0.12.446 mm/rev One more iteration using the correction factor yields a value around f = 0.3.6 hp/(in 3/min)) = 11.3/min. Fc = 155 lb. the cutting speed is set at 200 m/min and depth of cut = 6.326 hp/(in.) = 7. feed = 0. (b) MRR = vfd = (200 x 12)(0.500/50.3. 22.87 = 14. For f = 0. HPc = HPu x MRR.90) = 22. correction factor = 0. and its mechanical efficiency = 90%.9. (c) the unit horsepower (hp-min/(in3). find: (a) the horsepower consumed in the operation.167 in.000 f f = 22.000 = 0.150 in.)(0.8 is v = 200 ft/min.402 mm (this should be interpreted as mm/rev for a turning operation) However. HPg = HP/E MRR = vfd = 900 x 12(. determine the maximum feed that can be set for this operation. (b) the horsepower that must be generated by the lathe.8. 136 .010 in/rev in the table.25 hp/(in 3/min) for aluminum. 21.3 to obtain the appropriate unit horsepower value.100) = 2. Using the appropriate specific energy value from Table 21.010 in/rev. 3/min) (d) U = 155(200)/2.

25 mm/rev in the table. a correction factor must be applied from Figure 21. the cutting conditions are: v = 5.6) = 2.85 = 2.8) = 2.85 = 2.75 mm/rev. HPc = 179(300)/33.8 = 2450 W. For f = 0.14.8(103) mm3/s. For f = 0.25 In a turning operation on low carbon steel (175 BHN).75)(4.63 hp. (b) Gross power Pg = 1970/0.25 hp (b) HPg = 2. (b) the horsepower that must be generated by the lathe.3. Solution: (a) From Table 21. determine: (a) the horsepower consumed by the turning operation.9(103) mm3/s. f = 0. Since feed is lower than 0. 21.04 hp (c) MRR = (300 x 12)(0.75 mm/rev = to. Solution: (a) From Table 21.25.3 m/s.010)(0.100) = 3.6 in 3/min HPc = 0.6 m/s.7 N-m/mm3 for aluminum.85. Solution: (a) From Table 21. and d = 4. MRR = vfd = 1. Fc = 179 lb.96(103) n-m/s = 1960 W. HPu = 1.6(3.25 mm/rev. P c = U x MRR = 0.6(103)(. Based on the unit horsepower values in Table 21.0 hp/(in 3/min) for stainless steel.075 in. The lathe has a mechanical efficiency = 0.0) = 3.80.6 = 179.0) = 2. f = 0. The lathe has a mechanical efficiency = 0.075) = 3. Note that although the power used in this operation is virtually the same as in the previous problem. HPc = HPu x MRR MRR = 400 x 12(. correction factor = 0.010 in/rev in the table. MRR = vfd = 5. U = 0.12.28 Solve Problem 21. HPu = 0.16/0.24 except that the feed f = 0.3. HPu = 1.3. HPc = HPu x MRR MRR = vfd = 400 x 12(.3.005 in/rev = to.63/3.26 Solve Problem 21. The work material is an alloy steel with hardness = 325 Brinell hardness. U = 0.85. 21.27 but with the following changes: v = 1. the cutting conditions are: v = 400 ft/min.075) = 1. 137 .8)(103) = 1.6 = 0. and d = 2.8 = 2460 W.6 in3/min. Since feed is greater than 0. correction factor = 1.Solution: (a) From Problem 21.25)(2.000 in-lb/in3. f = 0. Based on the specific energy values in Table 21.7 N-m/mm3 for aluminum. determine: (a) the cutting power and (b) the gross power in the turning operation.01)(0.9)(103) = 1.3(103)(.3.16 hp (b) HPg = 2.6 hp/(in 3/min) for low carbon steel. 21.97(103) n-m/s = 1970 W. a correction factor must be applied from Figure 21.7)(3.453 hp/(in3/min) U = 179(300 x 12)/3.0)(1.000 = 1.14.54 hp 21.29 A turning operation is performed on an engine lathe using a tool with zero rake angle in the direction of chip flow.005 in/rev and the work material is stainless steel (Brinell Hardness = 225 HB).8 = 2.25/0.010 in/rev. Solution: (a) From Table 21. (b) Gross power Pg = 1960/0. P c = U x MRR = 0. in Watts. and d = 0.3.25(1.7(2.65 hp 21. (b) HPg = 1. the metal removal rate is about 40% greater.8 in 3/min HPc = 1.8(0.005)(0.27 A turning operation is carried out on aluminum (100 BHN).0 mm.63/0.0 mm.

The machine settings are: rotational speed = 500 rev/min.3° β = 2(45) + 10 -2(28.326 hp/(in3/min) as it would appear in Table 21.85 = 9.95.5 cos 10/(1 .10)/cos(28.075 in.3 = 0.5 φ = tan-1(0.10) = 83. HP = 83.8 hp (b) HPc = vFc/33.30 A lathe performs a turning operation on a workpiece of 6.3 mm/90 mm2/s)0.37) = 20° + 585° = 605° C ° 138 .3 for a to of 0.000 (8.0 mm. feed = 0.010 in/rev.0075 in/rev instead of 0. 21.97 J/cm3-°C = 2. (b) MRR = 785 x 12(0.125) = 6. The shear strength of the work = 40.7 g/cm3)(1.15 from Fig. correction factor = 0.000 (HP/v) = 33.4° As = 0.3 for a feed f = 0.3/300) = 913 lb. (a) Using the appropriate value of specific energy from Table 21. and w = 2. to = 0.5 cos(43.010 in. 21.3 in 3/min. The cutting force is measured at Fc = 1100 N.6 lb.333 T = 20 + (0. Fc = 33.075)/sin 28. For f = 0.33) . and depth = 0. HPg = HP/E MRR = 300 x 12(.0.015)(0.75) = 8.833 N-m/mm3 T = 20 + (0.14. Taking this correction factor into account.3 mm. the chip thickness ratio is measured to be 0. r = 0.3 mm x 2 mm) = 1. compute your best estimate of the cutting force for this turning operation. Fc = 47. The rake angle of the tool = 10°.2469 x 103 C)(13. if the lathe has an efficiency = 85%.3)(6. Determine: (a) the horsepower required in the operation.833 N-m/mm3/2.3 = 0.5392) = 28.015 = 0.7 g/cm3.5 lb.0075)(0. the depth of cut is 0.95(1.99 hp. (b) the unit horsepower for this material under these conditions. a correction factor must be applied from Figure 21.9(2.3) = 43. Cutting Temperature 21.00119) = 47.00119 in 2 Fs = 40.000 = 1.4 .1 J/g-°C) = 2.45.15 = 0. The chip thickness after the cut is 0.99/5.010 in/rev in the table. HPc = HPu x MRR.The feed is . (b) Based on horsepower. Using Cook's equation.14 to account for the fact that f = 0.015 in/rev.333 = 20 + 246. After the cut.075) = 5.3 hp/(in 3/min) for alloy steel of the specified hardness.4 x 1.97(10-3) J/mm3-C)(4000 mm/s x 0.31 Orthogonal cutting is performed on a metal whose mass specific heat = 1.9 cm2/s = 90 mm2/s U = 1100 N x 4 m/s/(4000 mm/s x 0.1 J/g-C.3.9 cm2/s. compute the horsepower at the drive motor.0075(0.010 in/rev.0 m/s. Since feed is greater than 0. and thermal diffusivity = 0. and (c) the unit horsepower as it would be listed in Table 21.3 + 43.4 .97(10-3) J/mm3-°C K = 0. HPu = 1.3/0.3 hp HPg = 8. Solution: (a) Must find Fc and v to determine HP. Use the orthogonal cutting model as an approximation of the turning process. Solution: (a) From Table 21.375/1.5 sin 10)) = tan-1 (0.0075 in/rev. Use the orthogonal cutting model as an approximation of the turning process.000. density = 2.6(785)/33.125 in and the cutting speed is 300 ft/min. Solution: ρC = (2. HPu = 0.000(0. Rearranging. The following cutting conditions are used: v = 4. HPu = 1.0 in diameter. determine the cutting temperature if the ambient temperature = 20°C. v = 500 rev/min(6π/12 ft/rev) = 785 ft/min.000 lb/in2.75 in 3/min HPc = 0.015 in.3.375 hp/(in3/min) (c) Correction factor = 1.015 in/rev = to.0075/0.

32 Consider a turning operation performed on steel whose hardness = 225 HB at a speed = 3.8/(0.333 = 70 + (872)(3.33 An orthogonal cutting operation is performed on a certain metal whose volumetric specific heat = 110 in-lb/in3-F.1. The cutting force is measured at Fc = 200 lb. and depth d = 0.4U/ρC)(vto/K)0.333 = 309(3.11(4.140 in 2/sec.0075 in/rev. Thus.046 J/s-mm-°C From Eq. feed = 0.2.333 = T = 70 + (0.1) = 440. use the Cook formula to compute the cutting temperature in the operation given that ambient temperature = 70°F.333 = 70 + 1147 = 1217 ° F 139 .008 x 0.010 x 0. Solution: v = 350 ft/min x 12 in/ft/60 sec/min.87(10-3) g/mm3 From Table 4.333 = 70 + (0.89) = 1201 C° Final temperature.000 in-lb/in 3. C = 0.3.18) 0. Assume ambient temperature = 70°F.000 in-lb/in 3. The work material has a thermal diffusivity = 0.87 g/cm3 = 7.100 in.309(103)(59.4U/ρC)(vto/K)0.3.10. (4.186) = 0.100 in.000/200)(60 x 0.01 x 0.25)/12.0 mm. v = 300 ft/min x 12 in/ft/60 sec/min. Since f = 0. and thermal diffusivity = 0.21.8)/3. Solution: MRR = vtow.3.7 mm2/s Using Cook’s equation. Solution: From Table 21. taking ambient temperature in account T = 20 + 1201 = 1221° C ° 21.4 x 300. compute an estimate of cutting temperature using the Cook equation.000/124)(30 x 0.4 x 250. The following cutting conditions are used: v = 350 ft/min.010/0.7) = 0.100 in.186 J.62(10-3) J/mm3-°C From Table 4. U for alloy steel (275 BHN) = 400.46 J/g-°C) = 12. T = 70 + (0.34 It is desired to estimate the cutting temperature for a certain alloy steel whose hardness = 275 Brinell. = 60 in/sec.0 m/s.333 = 70 + 1282 = 1352 ° F 21.667) 0. Using values of thermal properties found in the tables and definitions of Section 4.1.008 in.046 J/s-mm-°C /[(7.460 J/ g-°C ρC = (7.333 = 70 + (0.8 N-m/mm3 = 2.35 An orthogonal machining operation removes metal at 1. thermal conductivity k = 0.100) = 300. Using Cook's equation. correction factor = 1.11 Cal/g-°C.0075 in/rev.000 in-lb/in 3. and depth = 4.1 and the appropriate specific energy value from Table 21.3 and compute the cutting temperature by means of the Cook equation for a turning operation in which the following cutting conditions are used: speed v = 300 ft/min. determine the cutting temperature if the ambient temperature = 70°F.3). If the feed f = to = 0. to = f = 0.010 in and width of cut = 0. Assume ambient temperature = 20°C.46 J/g-°C) = 3. Solution: From Table 21. T = 70 + (0. and thermal diffusivity = 0.06)0. The thermal properties of the work material are: volumetric specific heat = 200 in lb/in 3 F. T = 70 + (0. U = Fcv/vtow = 200(70)/(70 x 0.0075/0.000(1.62(10-3)(3(103)(0. Use the appropriate value of specific energy from Table 21.4U/ρC)(vto/K)0. The cutting force in the process = 300 lb.4(2. C = 0.14 in 2/sec.214) 0.333 = 70 + (909)(4) 0.100) = 250.000/110)(70 x 0.4 x 440.008/0. U = 2. ρ = 7.14) 0. From note “a” at the bottom of the table. 1 cal = 4.25 mm T = 0.8 in 3/min.333 = 70 + (968)(1. feed f = 0.8 J/mm3 From Table 4.18 in 2/sec and a volumetric specific heat = 124 in-lb/in3 F.333 = 70 + 1436 = 1506 ° F 21.25 mm. v = MRR/tow = 1.87 g/cm3)(0. to = 0.14) 0. and w = 0.87 x 10-3 g/mm3)(0. Therefore U = 400. thermal diffusivity K = k/ρC K = 0.000 in-lb/in 3.100) = 1800 in/min = 30 in/sec U = Fcv/vtow = 300(30)/(30 x 0. = 70 in/sec..

5 x 10-3/0. Eq. (21. a tool-chip thermocouple was used to measure cutting temperature.3835 – 5.47 m = 0.4)(20/{(200/60)(103)(0. (2) v = 130 m/min.36 A turning operation uses a cutting speed = 200 m/min.1589 m = 0. determine the specific energy for the work material in this operation.44 (2) K = 592/1600. (1) 505 = K(100) m and (3) 592 = K(160) m (1) ln 505 = ln K + m ln 100 and (3) ln 592 = ln K + m ln 160 Combining (1) and (3): ln 505 . Solution: Rearranging the Cook equation. (3) v = 160 m/min. 140 .45 Use K = 106.45 Check equation with data point (2): T = 106.0752 m 0.2246 – 4.72 N-m/mm3 21.00 mm.333 U = 680(8.95(0.338 = 505/4.338 = 551. feed = 0. T = 552°C.m ln 160 6.m ln 100 = ln 592 .25)})0.2888) = 1.25 mm/rev. U = T(ρC/0.4)(K/vto)0.333 U = (700 – 2-)(3. Determine an equation for temperature as a function of cutting speed that is in the form of the Trigger equation. The following temperature data were collected during the cuts at three different cutting speeds (feed and depth were held constant): (1) v = 100 m/min. Solution: Trigger equation T = Kvm Choose points (1) and (3) and solve simultaneous equations using T = Kvm as the model.338 = 592/5.6052 m = 6.75 x 10-3)(0.87°C (pretty close to the given value of 552°C).561 = 106. T = 505°C.744 = 106.21.23).37 During a turning operation. and depth of cut = 4. If the temperature increase above ambient temperature (20°F) is measured by a tool-chip thermocouple to be 700°C.5 (10-3) J/mm3-C.45(130) 0.338 (1) K = 505/1000.024) 0.333 = 5. The thermal diffusivity of the work material = 20 mm2/s and the volumetric specific heat = 3. T = 592°C.

1.2 Distinguish between generating and forming when machining workpart geometries. Methods of holding the work in a lathe include: (1) between centers. 22. 22. 22. and profile milling. 22. A threading operation is performed on a turning machine and produces an external thread. Answer.1 MACHINING OPERATIONS AND MACHINE TOOLS Review Questions Discuss the differences between rotational parts and prismatic parts in machining. both are described in Article 25. taper turning. A 12 x 36 lathe has a 12 inch swing (maximum work diameter that can be accommodated) and a 36 inch distance between centers (indicating the maximum work length that can be held between centers).22 22. Boring produces an internal cylindrical shape from an existing hole. 22. Generating refers to the creation of work geometry due to the feed trajectory of the cutting tool.3 Give two examples of machining operations in which generating and forming are combined to create workpart geometry.6. prismatic parts are block-shaped or flat and are generally produced on a milling machine.8 Name the various ways in which a workpart can be held in a lathe.4. (2) chuck. Two examples are thread cutting on a lathe and slot milling.6 How does a boring operation differ from a turning operation? Answer. when these terms are used in the context of workholding in a lathe? 141 . Forming involves the creation of work geometry due to the shape of the cutting tool.9 What is the difference between a live center and a dead center. 22. 22. Answer.1. Turning is a machining process in which a single point tool removes material from the surface of a rotating cylindrical workpiece. Answer. common examples include form turning and drilling. (3) collet. shaper. Answer. See Article 25. examples include straight turning.5 What is the difference between threading and tapping? Answer. Rotational parts are cylindrical or disk-shaped and are machined on a turning machine. the tool being fed in a direction parallel to the axis of work rotation. Answer.4 Describe the turning process. while tapping is normally performed on a drilling machine and produces an internal thread. 22. or planer.7 What is meant by the designation 12 x 36 inch lathe? Answer. while turning produces an external cylindrical shape. and (4) face plate.

In up milling. 22. while a dead center does not rotate . Answer. A machining center is generally confined to rotating spindle operations (e.11 What is a blind hole? Answer. generally with single point tools. 22.15 Describe profile milling.g.. cutting is accomplished by the peripheral teeth of the milling cutter and the tool axis is parallel to the work surface. 22. What is pocket milling? Answer.17 How does a universal milling machine differ from a conventional knee-and-column machine? Answer. The universal milling machine has a worktable that can be rotated about a vertical axis to present the part at any specified angle to the cutter spindle. 22. Pocket milling uses an end milling cutter to machine a shallow cavity (pocket) into a flat workpart. 22.. A center holds the work during rotation at the tailstock end of the lathe.12 What is the distinguishing feature of a radial drill press? Answer.19 What is the difference between a machining center and a turning center? Answer. 22. in face milling. A turret lathe has a toolholding turret in place of a tailstock. A blind hole does not exit the work. milling.13 What is the difference between peripheral milling and face milling? Answer. in down milling.16 Describe the difference between up milling and down milling? Answer.10 How does a turret lathe differ from an engine lathe? Answer. the direction of cutter rotation is the same as the feed direction.18 What is a machining center? Answer. A live center is mounted in bearings and rotates with the work. pallet shuttles to speed workpart changing.g.the work rotates about it. the cutter speed direction is opposite the feed direction. 22. cutting is accomplished by the flat face of the cutter whose axis is perpendicular to the work surface. the machine is typically equipped with automatic tool-changing.Answer. 22. A machining center is a CNC machine tool capable of performing multiple types of cutting operations involving rotating spindles (e. 22. drilling). a through hole exits the opposite side of the workpart. Profile milling generally involves the milling of the outside periphery of a flat part. and automatic workpart positioning. while a turning center performs turning type operations. In peripheral milling. the tools in the turret can be brought to work to perform multiple cutting operations on the work without the need to change tools as in operating a conventional engine lathe. drilling). by comparison.14 22. 22. A radial drill has a long radial arm along which the drill head can be positioned to allow the drilling of large workparts.20 What can a mill-turn center do that a conventional turning center cannot do? 142 . milling.

each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point. 22. (b) cut-off tool. but it is a metal forming operation rather than a metal removal operation: (a) true or (b) false? Answer. (d) single point turning tool. since each correct answer is worth 1 point. (b).4 A facing operation is normally performed on which of the following machine tools (one best answer)? (a) drill press. and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point. (b) broaching. 22.22 What is the difference between internal broaching and external broaching? Answer. or (e) threading tool. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers. 22.2 In a turning operation. (b) and (d). the change in diameter of the workpart is equal to which one of the following? (a) 1 x depth of cut. Answer. (b) 22. and (f) 22. (d) planer. To attain a perfect score on the quiz. 22. (c). while external broaching is performed on one of the outside surfaces of the part. while in planing. (2) bandsawing. (c) drilling. (a) 22. as compared to forming the geometry (more than one)? (a) broaching. Answer. (c) milling machine. Answer. For each question. or (e) shaper.21 How do shaping and planing differ? Answer.5 Knurling is performed on a lathe.6 Which of the following cutting tools can be used on a turret lathe (more than one)? (a) broach. or (f) turning. and (e). Answer. the work is stationary during the cut. In shaping. (b) 2 x depth of cut. (d) milling. (c) drilling. (c) drill bit. (a). (d). permitting milling or drilling to be performed at a location on the periphery of the part. and (d) profile milling. Answer. Internal broaching is accomplished on the inside surface (hole) of a workpart. Multiple Choice Questions There are a total of 20 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct).Answer. (c) 1 x feed. (b) lathe. The mill-turn center has the capacity to position a rotational workpart at a specified angular location. the cutting tool is stationary. (c). and the workpart is moved past the tool in the speed motion. 143 . all correct answers must be given. (b) contour turning.1 Which of the following are examples of generating the workpart geometry in machining. (b) 22. 22. (e) planing. The three forms of sawing are: (1) hacksawing. and (3) circular sawing. and the speed motion is performed by the cutting tool.3 A lathe can be used to perform which of the following machining operations (more than one)? (a) boring.23 Identify the three basic forms of sawing operation? Answer. or (d) 2 x feed.

or (e) turret lathe. (b) MRR = vfd = (2. (d) ram mill.10 22. and d = 2.5 m/s. (c) improve surface finish on a hole.0 mm. (c) profiling mill.125π = 6.2 s = 7. Answer. Answer. the foreman has decreed that the single pass must be completed on the cylindrical workpiece in 5.30 mm/rev and a depth of cut = 4.366 rev/s. and (d). (22.9 22.3) = 1. (c) a workpart is fed past a rotating cutting tool. or (d) slab milling.85 min. or (d) a workpart moves linearly past a single-point tool. (b) peripheral milling. (b) A planing operation is best described by which one of the following: (a) a single point tool moves linearly past a stationary workpart. and (e) universal milling machine.0 mm.5 m/s)(103)(.366(. (d) 22. fr = 6.0 min. and (e) provide an internal thread. what cutting speed must be used to meet this machining time requirement? Solution: Starting with Eq.5 m/s)/. Cutting conditions are: v = 2. (b) A broaching operation is best described by which one of the following: (a) a rotating tool moves past a stationary workpart. Answer. (c). (c) plain milling. Using a feed = 0. (22.91 mm/s Tm = 900/1. Determine: (a) cutting time. Answer.1 A cylindrical workpart 125 mm in diameter and 900 mm long is to be turned in an engine lathe.11 22.7 Which of the following turning machines permits very long bar stock to be used (one best answer)? (a) chucking machine. (c) a workpart is fed linearly past a rotating cutting tool. End milling is most similar to which one of the following? (a) face milling. and (b) metal removal rate.3 mm)(2. Answer. f = 0. (c) screw machine.8 22. (b) enlarge a drilled hole.2 In a production turning operation.22.0 mm) = 1500 mm3/s 22. (b) engine lathe. (b) knee-and-column. (c) Reaming is used for which of the following functions (more than one)? (a) accurately locate a hole position. (b). The piece is 400 mm long and 150 mm in diameter.4): Tm = L/fr Substitute Eq.3) (fr = Nf) into the denominator to obtain Tm = L/Nf 144 . Answer. (d) improve tolerance on hole diameter. Solution: (a) N = (2. or (d) a workpart moves linearly past a stationary single point tool.12 Problems Turning and Related Operations 22. (a) The basic milling machine is which one of the following: (a) bed type. (b) a tool with multiple teeth moves linearly past a stationary workpart. (d) speed lathe.91 = 471. (b) a tool with multiple teeth moves linearly past a stationary workpart.3 mm/rev.

Rearranging to determine cutting speed: v = πDoL/fTm Tm = π(0. and h = 750 mm. Using an overhead crane available at the lathe. The automatic controls on the lathe permit the surface speed to be maintained at a constant value of 200 m/min by adjusting the rotational speed as a function of workpiece diameter. The workpiece is 750 mm long with minimum and maximum diameters of 100 mm and 200 mm at opposite ends.5 = 150π(565.641 mm3)/(150.15)/(0. one end must be turned to diameter. Combining.3) and (22.4 In the taper turning job of previous Problem 22. f = 0. and the time to reverse the bar is 3. the time required to load and unload the bar is 5.25 mm/rev.0 minutes. Solution: At a constant rotational speed and feed. A = π(100 + 50){7502 + (100 – 50) 2}0.3.084 min from Problem 22.0) = 0.000 mm3/min Area of frustrum of cone A = π(R1 + R2){h2 + (R1 – R2)2}0.084 min (b) At beginning of cut (D1 = 100 mm). fr = 305.3. volume cut V = Ad = (354.7 m/min 22.000 mm3/min) = 7.0 minutes. N = v/πD = 200. (22. and this operation will be the final cut. N = 200.5 = 354. (b) cutting time.062. feed rate fr is constant and Eqs. Solution: (a) depth d = (5. Determine (a) the time required to turn the taper and (b) the rotational speeds at the beginning and end of the cut.Then substituting for N from Eq. Determine: (a) the required depth of cut.6 A 4. Tm = L/Nf and then rearranging to obtain rotational speed N = L/fTm Given L = 750 mm.012) = 7. The total 145 .25)(7.6 rev/min At end of cut (D2 = 200 mm).25 mm)(3.67 = 10.000) 0.00 in diameter workbar that is 25 in long is to be turned down to 3. With this workholding setup.1257(103) m/min = 125.000/200π = 318.3 rev/min 22. and (c) metal removal rate.062.0 in portion of the length is to be turned to a diameter of 4.125 in. R2 = 50 mm.000/100π = 636.125 in. A 40. N = 750/(0.641 mm3 Tm = V/MRR = (1.0 mm.5 rev/min. f = 0.91 min. then the bar must be reversed to turn the other end. Solution: (a) MRR = vfd = (200 m/min)(103 mm/m)(0. (c) MRR = (400 x 12)(0.75)/2 = 0.30)(10-3)(5.00 . The rough geometry of the piece has already been formed.75 in one pass at a speed = 400 ft/min and a feed = 0.015 in/rev.5 rev/min 22. (22.214 mm2 Given depth of cut d = 3. Determine the rotational speed that would be required to complete the job in exactly the same time as your answer to part (a) of that problem.0 in diameter and 48 in length is chucked in an engine lathe and supported at the opposite end using a live center.4) can be used. and Tm = 7. (b) N = 400 x 12/5π = 305.0 mm.3 A tapered surface is to be turned on an automatic lathe.4)(0.084) = 423. and d = 0.5(0.5 Given R1 = 100 mm.50 in diameter in two passes on an engine lathe using the following cutting conditions: v = 300 ft/min.0 mm) = 150. For each turning cut an allowance must be added to the cut length for approach and overtravel.012) = 3.1) we get Tm = πDoL/vf (this equation is later used in Chapter 24).2 in3/min. The bar will be held in a chuck and supported on the opposite end in a live center.4.125)(0.012 in/rev. 22.25 mm/rev and depth of cut = 3.5 A workbar with 5.214 mm2)(3. Feed = 0.67 in/min Tm = 40/3.0 mm) = 1. suppose that the automatic lathe with surface speed control is not available and a conventional lathe must be used.

150 in.25π(0.50 in. Tm = 15. determine: (a) the cutting time to complete the facing operation.allowance (approach plus overtravel) = 0.015) = 4.5)/4. Determine the total cycle time to complete this turning operation. Tm = (10 + 0. N = 300 x 12/4π = 286. this reduces diameter to 3.0 + 2. The hole is a blind-hole at a depth = 50 mm.25)/2 = 10 in.5 x 12)(0. length..44 min.5/4.583 = 3.6 in/rev Tm = 10/0.015) = 4.50 in.96/12.297 in/min.. Cutting conditions are: speed = 25 m/min. of 25 in. If the facing operation is performed at a rotational speed = 30 rev/min.67 min (b) at Do = 45 in. Determine: (a) the cutting time to complete the drilling operation. fr = 286.07 in3/min 22. v = (30 rev/min)(45π/12) = 353.583 = 2. this reduces diameter to 3.7 The end of a large tubular workpart is to be faced on a NC vertical boring mill.5 ft/min MRR = (353. feed = 0.96 min.75π = 305.44 + 2.297 = 3. fr = 305. Reverse bar which takes 3.38 + 3. N = 300 x 12/3.297 in/min. feed = 0. after the drill bit reaches full diameter.73 = 12.25πd(Do2 .4(0.020)(0.4 rev/min. Drilling 22.4(0.25 mm/rev.Di2) = 0. MRR = (196. The part has an outside diameter = 45.252) = 164. of 25 in.4) tan(90 – 118/2) = 12.0 min.583 in/min. N = 300 x 12/3.75 in.020)(0..5/4.29 = 19. fr = (30 rev/min)(0.5)/4.5 rev/min.4 ft/min. N = 300 x 12/4π = 286. and depth = 0.6 = 16.9 A drilling operation is to be performed with a 25.. 22.. Tm = (15 + 0.5 ft/min.Di)/2 = (45 .73 in3/min at Di = 25 in.0 + 3. v = (30 rev/min)(45π/12) = 353.73 in 3/min Tm = (total metal removed)/MRR = 164.15) = 12. Solution: First end: cut 15 in. (b) the cutting speeds and metal removal rates at the beginning and end of the cut. Solution: (a) Total metal removed = 0. MRR = (353.7 except that the machine tool controls operate at a constant cutting speed by continuously adjusting rotational speed for the position of the tool relative to the axis of rotation.50 in. Loading and unloading bar takes 5.4 x 12)(0. cut remaining 10 in.15) = 7. Tm = 10.0 min. length. fr = 305.015) = 4.38 min’ this reduces diameter to 3.5 x 12)(0. v = (30 rev/min)(25π/12) = 196. Solution: (a) Distance traveled L = (Do .4 mm diameter twist drill in a steel workpart. Total cycle time = 5..65 mm 146 ..583 in/min.96 in3 MRR is constant throughout cutting if v is constant.020 in/rev. and the point angle = 118°.15) = 12.61 min.4 rev/min.7 tan 31 = 7.020 in/rev) = 0.61 + 3.5(0. fr = 286.5 rev/min.020)(0.29 min’ this reduces diameter to 3.8 Solve previous Problem 22.0 in and inside diameter = 25 in.75π = 305.5(25.72 min.5(0.75 in.15)(452 . and (b) metal removal rate during the operation.297 = 2. Solution: (a) A = 0.. The rotational speed at the beginning of the cut = 30 rev/min. and is continuously increased thereafter to maintain a constant cutting speed.015) = 4.

000 mm/75π = 339.5 + 0.7 rev/min.3(0.12 A peripheral milling operation is performed on the top surface of a rectangular workpart which is 300 mm long by 100 mm wide.00075 in/min. Each hole is 3/4 in diameter. using a back and forth path between holes. and the feed rate between holes (x-y plane) = 15.7 in/min = 5.5 in.3 = 0. New feed f = 0. New speed v = 3000(1 + 0.315 in. Determine the time required from the beginning of the first hole to the completion of the last hole.75 in thick aluminum plate that is a component in a heat exchanger. All moves between holes are at a distance = 1. Assume that x-y moves are made at a distance of 0.5 in.5 + A + 1.3) = 39.7 min.63)/78.75) tan(90 .0 in/min.N = 25(103)/25.25) = 78.75 A = 0.4) 2(78.00075) = 2.5 x 100) = 0.0 in/min.75π = 1527. Determine: (a) the time to make one pass across the surface. Solution: Time to drill each hole: N = 300 x 12/0.916 in/min.675.1 min.5(0.75)/22.2 mm/tooth. and the distance between adjacent hole centers (along the square) = 1. it has been decided to increase the speed by 20% and decrease the feed by 25%. assuming the most efficient drilling sequence will be used to accomplish the job. New drilling time Tm = 13. f = 0. With 100 holes. How long will it take to perform the operation at the new cutting conditions? Solution: fr = 3000 rev/min(0.112/2 = 0..112 min. Time to move between holes = 1. It takes 4.7(0. Solution: N = 80. Tm = (0.7 in/min. and d = 7.5 in above the work surface.11 A gundrilling operation is used to drill a 7/16-in diameter hole to a certain depth. arranged in a 10 by 10 matrix pattern.20) = 3600 rev/min. 22. In order to improve the surface finish in the hole.25π(25.3 mm/min Tm = (50 + 7.112 + 0. Distance per hole = 0.056) + 99(0. the rate at which the drill is retracted from each hole is twice the penetration feed rate.5/15 = 0. and that this distance must be included in the penetration feed rate for each hole. overhangs the width of the part on both sides.0. Milling 22.002 in/rev. New feed rate fr = 3600(0. The milling cutter. fr = 1527.015) = 22.2 mm3/min 22. There are 100 holes in all.056 min.0 mm. the number of moves between holes = 99.5 in/2.5 rev/min.4π = 313.10 A NC drill press is to perform a series of through-hole drilling operations on a 1. Also. The drill has a point angle = 100 degrees.3 rev/min fr = 313.) = 13.736 min (b) MRR = 0.0 in/min.001(1.5 in.315 + 1.5 min(3. Cutting conditions are: v = 80 m/min. Hole depth d = 4. The cutting speed = 300 ft/min.25) = 0. 147 . the penetration feed (z-direction) = 0.916 = 0. The cutting conditions are: N = 3000 rev/min at a feed = 0.015 in/rev.001 in/rev) = 3. Time to retract drill from hole = 0. Total cycle time to drill 100 holes = 100(0.0 min. which is 75 mm in diameter and has four teeth.5 minutes to perform the drilling operation using high pressure fluid delivery of coolant to the drill point. and (b) the material removal rate during the cut.1) = 26.

46 in/min.0 in wide.120 mm3/min. fr = 636.5)/25.6 = 1. Cutting conditions are: v = 3 m/s. The helical milling cutter.59 min. 22.6) = 190.0(.185 min.46 = 0.5 = 21. Cutting conditions are: v = 100 ft/min.16 Solve previous Problem 22.010 in/tooth. f = 0.8 rev/min.25(2.15 except that the workpiece is 5. 25. Solution: N = 500 x 12/3π = 636. Other Operations 22. f = 0. A = O = 3/2 = 1.0 + 0. MRR = 100(7)(271. Determine: (a) the time to make one pass across the surface.875 = 80 s = 1.fr = 339. and d = 0.46) = 7. MRR = 1.5 mm3/s 22.14 A slab milling operation is performed to finish the top surface of a steel rectangular workpiece 10.020 in/pass.0(.5 = 0.5(4)(0.5 rev/min.75 in Tm = (10.150 in. and (b) metal removal rate during cutting. fr = 152.27) = 6.0 in/min. 22.010) = 25.6 mm/min. Cutting conditions are: v = 25 ft/min.5 = (7(75-7)). and d = 0. MRR = 2.13 A face milling operation is used to machine 5 mm from the top surface of a rectangular piece of aluminum 400 mm long by 100 mm wide. A = (d(D-d)).150(25. Tm = (12.0 + 2 x 1. fr = 636. f = 0.366(4)(. MRR = 3.0(.366 rev/s fr = 6.150(25.5 rev/min.0 in wide. and d = 5.250 in. Solution: (a) N = (3000 mm/s)/150π = 6. Solution: N = 100 x 12/2.333 min. The cutter has four teeth (cemented carbide inserts) and is 150 mm in diameter. Cutting conditions are: v = 500 ft/min.5-.0 in.0 in wide. which has a 2. and (b) the metal removal rate during the cut.5(4)(0. The length of the 148 .0) = 8.875 mm/s A = D/2 = 150/2 = 75 mm Tm = (400 + 75)/6.0 + 2 x 1.2) = 271.0 mm.200 in.5 = (.25)). Determine: (a) time to make one pass across the surface.414)/25.875) = 3437.8(8)(0. and d = 0.0 in long by 3. and (b) the metal removal rate during the cut.414 in Tm = (12.0 in long by 2. (b) MRR = 100(5)(6. 22.009 in/tooth. The milling cutter has four teeth (cemented carbide inserts) and a 3.0 in diameter.98 min. Determine: (a) the time to make one pass across the surface.82 in3/min.5(4)(0.009) = 11. Solution: N = 500 x 12/3π = 636.58 min.82 mm Tm = (300 + 21.46 in/min.46 = 0.5 in.27 mm/tooth.010) = 25.82)/271.46) = 3.0 in by 40.25)(11.15 A face milling operation is performed to finish the top surface of a steel rectangular workpiece 12. A = O = (1(3-1)).5π = 152.64 in3/min.25 in3/min. f = 0.17 An open side planer is to be used to plane the top surface of a rectangular workpart.5 in diameter and eight teeth.75)/11 = 0.0 in wide and the cutter is offset to one side so that the swath cut by the cutter = 1. is set up to overhang the width of the part on both sides.5 = 1. A = (d(D-d)).

Number of passes = 40. Number of passes = 25. This will minimize the number of passes required which will minimize time in this case.2625 min.75(.35 min. Total time per pass = 0.15 min.1125 min.) is in direction of stroke.) is in direction of stroke.0/0.15 = 0. Time per forward stroke = (10 + 40 + 10)/(25 x 12) = 0. How long will it take to complete the job. assuming that the part is oriented in such a way as to minimize the time? Solution: Orient work so that its length (L = 40 in.20 + 0.1125 = 0.15 + 0.0/0. Time per forward stroke = (10 + 25 + 10)/(25 x 12) = 0.2) = 0.15 min.35) = 437. Time per reverse stroke = 0. The return stroke.020 = 1250 passes Total time = 1250(0. Total time per pass = 0. takes 75% of the time for the forward stroke. Check: orient work so that its width (w = 25 in. 149 . Time per reverse stroke = 0.2 min.75(.2625) = 525.stroke across the work must be set up so that 10 in are allowed at both the beginning and end of the stroke for approach and overtravel.15) = 0.5 min. including an allowance for acceleration and deceleration.0 min.020 = 2000 passes Total time = 2000(0.

23. (3) vanadium. 23. 23.2 Name the three modes of tool failure in machining. what other cutting variables are included in the expanded version of the Taylor tool life equation? Answer. corresponding to the tool point. (3) diffusion. Production tool life criteria include: (1) complete failure of the tool. The parameter C is the cutting speed corresponding to a one-minute tool life. and/or work material hardness. (2) hot hardness to resist temperature failure. Some grades of HSS also contain cobalt. (2) visual observation of flank or crater wear. called flank wear. and (9) length of cutting time for the tool. (7) power increase.8 Identify three desirable properties of a cutting tool material. Portions of flank wear are often identified separately as notch wear. Principal alloying ingredients in HSS are: (1) either tungsten or a combination of tungsten and molybdenum. and (3) wear resistance to prolong the life of the tool during gradual wear. (3) fingernail test to feel flank wear. 150 . 23. (2) adhesion.6 In addition to cutting speed. corresponding to the surface of the work. Answer. The two main aspects of cutting tool technology are: (1) tool material and (2) tool geometry. 23. Answer. The expanded version of the Taylor equation can include any of the following: feed.9 What are the principal alloying ingredients in high speed steel? Answer. C is the speed-axis intercept on the log-log plot of the tool life data. (2) temperature failure. Three desirable properties are: (1) toughness to resist fracture failure.7 What are some of the tool life criteria used in production machining operations? Answer.5 What is meant by the parameter C in the Taylor tool life equation? Answer. depth of cut. 23. (2) chromium. Answer. and (4) plastic deformation of the cutting edge.3 What are the two principal locations on a cutting tool where tool wear occurs? Answer. and (4) carbon. Wear occurs on the top face of the cutting tool as crater wear and on the side or flank of the tool. and (3) gradual wear. (5) chip disposal problems. The important tool wear mechanisms are: (1) abrasion.23 CUTTING TOOL TECHNOLOGY Review Questions 23. and nose radius wear. (6) degradation of finish.1 What are the two principal aspects of cutting tool technology? Answer. 23. 23. (8) workpiece count.4 Identify the mechanisms by which cutting tools wear during machining. The three tool failure modes are: (1) fracture failure. (4) sound of the tool.

(3) end relief angle.chemical fluids.12 23.13 Why are ceramic cutting tools generally designed with negative rake angles? Answer. 23. The non-steel cutting grades contain only WC and Co. and manual application. which involves the formation of a thin fluid film to help separate and protect the contacting surfaces. The three types of cutting fluids are: (1) cutting oils. The common coatings are: TiN.10 What is the difference in ingredients between steel cutting grades and non-steel cutting grades of cemented carbides? Answer. lower machine tool maintenance. Answer. Other methods include: mist application. this combination of properties is best exploited by giving the tool a negative rake angle to tend to load the tool in compression. Name the three main types of cutting fluid according to chemistry. better hygiene.15 23. in which a steady stream of fluid is direct at the operation. and Al2O3. and (3) mechanically clamped inserts. Answer. 23. Answer. Answer. (2) brazed inserts. 23. 151 . and (3) chemical and semi. Name the seven elements of tool geometry for a single point cutting tool. (2) emulsified oils.16 Name the two main categories of cutting fluid according to function. reduced disposal costs. TiC. There are three principal ways: (1) solid shank. The seven elements of single point tool geometry are: (1) back rake angle.18 What are the methods by which cutting fluids are applied in a machining operation? Answer. cermets. and (2) extreme pressure lubrication.17 What is the principal lubricating mechanism by which cutting fluids work? Answer. fluid. and CBN. (6) side cutting edge angle. and (7) nose radius. 23.19 Why are cutting fluid filter systems becoming more common and what are their advantages? Answer. (4) side relief angle. (2) side rake angle. During cutting. 23. Cutting fluid filter systems are becoming more common due to the environmental protection laws and the need to prolong the life of the fluid before disposal. ceramics.14 Identify the alternative ways by which a cutting tool is held in place during machining. (5) end cutting edge angle. The most common method of application is flooding. 23.hole delivery. used for some cemented carbides. SPD. Advantages of filter systems include: longer fluid life. 23. The steel cutting grades contain TiC and/or TaC in addition to WC-Co. used for most hard tool materials including cemented carbides and coated carbides. The two functional categories of cutting fluids are: (1) coolants and (2) lubricants. an example being high speed. and longer cutting tool life.23. There are two lubricating mechanisms that are believed to be effective in metal cutting: (1) boundary lubrication. Ceramics possess low shear and tensile strength but good compressive strength.11 Identify some of the common compounds that form the thin coatings on the surface of coated carbide inserts. in which a thin solid layer of a salt such as iron sulfide is formed on the tool surface to provide lubrication. in which the cutting edge is an integral part of the tool shank. Answer.

(d) 152 . (d) TiC. (b) Ni. including tramp oil. and (e) WC.23. which one has the greatest effect on tool wear? (a) cutting speed. (d) nickel. (b) depth of cut. (b) Problems with dry machining include: (1) overheating the tool. (a) Cutting fluids become contaminated over time with a variety of contaminants. Answer. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers. fungi. molds. Answer. (c) TiC. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point. In addition to causing odors and health hazards. and bacteria. or (c) feed. (c). and (e). 23.2 As an alloying ingredient in high speed steel. Answer. and (e) tungsten. and (d). (c) 23. (b) cobalt.5 An increase in cobalt content has which of the following effects on WC-Co cemented carbides (one best answer)? (a) decreases transverse rupture strength. contaminated cutting fluids do not perform their lubricating function as well as when they are fresh and clean. (c) and (d). (2) operating at lower cutting speeds and production rates to prolong tool life. (a) What are those problems associated with the use of cutting fluids? (b) What are some of the new problems introduced by machining dry? Answer. (c) CrC. since each correct answer is worth 1 point. Answer. Answer. all correct answers must be given.7 If you had to select a cemented carbide for an application involving finish turning of steel. Answer. and (3) absence of chip removal benefits in grinding and milling. (c) increases corrosion resistance. (b) Co. Answer. (b). which C-grade would you select (one best answer)? (a) C1. (c) C5. (a) and (c). or (d) C7. To attain a perfect score on the quiz. (b). (a) 23.20 Dry machining is being considered by machine shops because of certain problems inherent in the use of cutting fluids. small chips. Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 18 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct). 23. 23.1 Of the following cutting conditions. (c) chromium. garbage. (c) increases toughness. (b) improves strength and hardness.3 Cast cobalt alloys typically contain which of the following main ingredients (more than one)? (a) aluminum. (d) TaC.4 Which of the following is not a common ingredient in cemented carbide cutting tools (more than one)? (a) Al2O3. and (d) increases hot hardness. (b) C3. tungsten serves which of the following functions (more than one)? (a) forms hard carbides to resist abrasion. and (e) WC. 23. For each question. and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point.6 Steel cutting grades of cemented carbide are typically characterized by which of the following ingredients (more than one)? (a) Co. (a). (b) increases hardness. 23.

T = 13.46 C = 404. Are the resulting n and C values the same? 1 0. T = 5. The feed rate was 0.45 0. Values of C and n may vary in part (b) due to variations in the plots.1059 + 2. and (2) 165(10. determine the values of n and C in the Taylor Tool Life Equation. (b) On a piece of natural log-log paper. 153 .0 min using criterion FW = 0. (a) and (c).0 4.4) n = C.1 except that the tool life criterion is 0. (b) Which of the following are the two main functions of a cutting fluid in machining (two answers only)? (a) improve surface finish on the workpiece.4 min using criterion FW = 0.75 mm.3894 (1) C = 125(20. (c) Two equations: (1) 125(20.4 = ln 165 + n ln 10.0 mm.23.22 3 0.50 mm. 23.4) 0. Answer. (b) cubic boron nitride. plot flank wear as a function of time. (c) reduce friction at the tool-chip interface.10 Answer. T = 20. Using 0. min.0 min using criterion FW = 0.8 Which of the following processes are used to provide the thin coatings on the surface of coated carbide inserts (more than one)? (a) chemical vapor deposition.4) n = 165(10.97 Cutting time.50 0. (a) and (b) Student exercises.47 7 0.27 0. (c) As a comparison.12 0. (b) reduce forces and power. or (e) tungsten carbide.30 mm/rev and the depth was 4.35 5 0.3026 n 0.6 min using criterion FW = 0. Answer. T = 10.46 23.75 mm.7129 n = 0.3894 = 404. (a) On a single piece of linear graph paper. plot your results determined in the previous part.0) n ln 125 + n ln 20. Flank wear. at v = 125 m/min Flank wear. calculate the values of n and C in the Taylor equation solving simultaneous equations.46 (2) C = 165(10. (b) electroplating.8283 + 3. determine the tool lives for the two cutting speeds. (d) remove heat from the process.20 0.57 9 0. From the plot.40 0.0) n = C (1) and (2) 125(20.80 13 0. Problems Tool Life and the Taylor Equation 23. Which of the following materials has the highest hardness? (a) aluminum oxide.2776 n = 0.75 mm of flank wear as the criterion of tool failure.0155 n = 5. (c) physical vapor deposition.58 20 0. The values should be approximately the same as those obtained in part (c) below. (c) and (d). At v = 165 m/min. or (d) pressing and sintering.3894 = 404.1 The following flank wear data were collected in a series of turning tests using a coated carbide tool on hardened alloy steel.0) 0. (a) and (b) Student exercises. and (e) wash away chips.73 25 0. The last wear data value in each column is when final tool failure occurred. (c) high speed steel.99 15 0. at v = 165 m/min Solution: At v = 125 m/min. Values of C and n may vary in part (b) due to variations in the plots. (d) titanium carbide. The values should be approximately the same as those obtained in part (c) below.9 23.33 0.2 Solve Problem 23.50 mm.50 mm of flank land wear. mm. Solution: At v = 125 m/min.70 11 0. At v = 165 m/min. mm.

437) = 182..0) n = 165(5.3175 + 3. 154 .171 = 350(1.171 = 250(1.4 m/min.6) 0.2619 = 75(2.3948) C = 488 Check: C = 250(50) . (a) Determine the parameters n and C in the Taylor tool life equation. v = C/Tn = 488/10.171 = 488/1. what is the likely tool material used in this operation? (c) Using your equation.3894 (1) C = 125(13.0) = 291.0) n = C.3175 = (3.14286 0. (d) For T = 10 min.6267) 5. Solution: (a) Two equations: (1) 350(7) n = C and (2) 250(50) n = C 350(7) n = 250(50) n 350/250 = (50/7) n 1.2877 = 1.3026) n 0. (c) At v = 300 ft/min.3365 = 1.14 (2) C = 165(5.2.5649 n = 5. T = 30 min.77/90 = 2.0373. (a) Find the n and C values in the Taylor tool life equation.0 m/s and a 20-min tool life at a speed v = 2. (c) v (20) .77 v = 182. T = 7 min.15 23.9522) = 488 (b) Comparing these values of n and C with those in Table 24.15 C = 291. T = 50 min. Solution: (a) Two equations: (1) 100(10) n = C and (2) 75(30) n = C.4.77/2.6) n ln 125 + n ln 13.037 T = 2.2776 n = 0.3894 = 291.4 = n ln 7.5 Turning tests have resulted in 1-min tool life for a cutting speed v = 4. 23.4012 .0371/.77 Check: C = 75(30) .0 m/s.6052 + 2. (b) Based on the n and C values.2.2619 = 2.818 = 15. the likely tool material is high speed steel.2619 = 182.848 = 17. compute the tool life that corresponds to a cutting speed v = 300 ft/min.1914 = 83.0 = ln 165 + n ln 5. 100(10) n =75(30) n ln 100 + n ln 10 = ln 75 + n ln 30 4.77 T.8283 + 2.3296 0.171 C = 350(7) .77/(20) .8421 n = 0.4 = (7.4012 n 4. 23.14286) n ln 1. (d) Compute the cutting speed that corresponds to a tool life T = 10 min.6052 .9661 n n = 0.2619 = 182. T = 10 min. (a) Determine the n and C values in the Taylor tool life equation.2619 = 182.2619 C = 100(10) = 100(1.0986 n n = 0. T = (C/v) 1/n = (488/300) 1/.2619 = 182.0 m/s.8277) C = 182. (2) v = 250 ft/min. and (c) the speed corresponding to a tool life of 20 min.6) n = C (1) and (2) 125(13.77 (b) 90 T.13 min..2 min. compute (b) the tool life for a speed of 90 m/min.3026 n = 4. (2) v = 75 m/min. Based on your equation.4 Tool life tests in turning yield the following data: (1) v = 100 m/min.(c) Two equations: (1) 125(13.2619 .7228 n 0.6 4.1059 + 1. (b) Project how long the tool would last at a speed v = 1.171 = (1.4825 = 329 ft/min. and (2) 165(5.3 Tool life tests on a lathe have resulted in the following data: (1) v = 350 ft/min.

Determine the parameters n and C in the Taylor tool life equation for this data.50 mm flank wear. (1) v = 3 m/s = 180 m/min.6 In a production turning operation.363) = 109.2314 = 240/60 = 4.3 m)/(3. T = 25(4. Solution: Taylor equation calculated in Example 23. the tool must be changed every 5 workparts. but if cutting speed = 2.3 m)/(20 m/s)(0. complete failure of the cutting tool is indicated by the end of each wear curve. the tool can be used to produce 25 pieces between tool changes. (3) v = 100 m/min.53 s = 2.7404) = 226.225 mm) = 261.692 .2314 (b) At v = 1.8 In the tool wear plots of Figure 23. then C = 4. T = 5.54) n = 120(109. 120(20) n = 240 20n = 240/120 = 2. (2) Tm = π(125 mm)(0.225 mm/rev is used in the operation.0 m/s.2314 = 240 (T)0. A feed rate of 0.25 min. T = 12 min) is consistent with the Taylor equation determined in Example Problem 23. (2) v = 2 m/s = 120 m/min.0 m/s = 60 m/min.9957 n = 0. Solution: (1) Tm = π(125 mm)(0.3 This represents a difference of less than 1. 23.4.909) = 14.2%.54) C = 308. Using complete failure as the criterion of tool life instead of 0.08) 5.1929 .2314 = (4) 4. show that the middle data point (v = 130 m/min.75) n = C and (3) 100(47) n = C 160(5.54 min.2.0 n ln 20 = ln 2.0 T = (4.223 = 130(1. the workpart is 125 mm in diameter and 300 mm long.677 n = 4.54) = ln 120 + n ln(109. (2) v = 130 m/min.0 min. (1) 160(5. 60(T)0.223 = 229.4054 = 2.363 min.692 n 5.08) n = C 180(14.6931 n = 0. For data (2) v = 2 m/s = 120 m/min.1929 + 2.2012 .677) n 0.1 is: vT0. Determine the Taylor tool life equation for this job.54) n = C (2) 120(109.0) 1/0.7875 + 4.75) n = 100(47) n 155 . the resulting data would be: (1) v = 160 m/min.0 2. Solution: Let us use the two extreme data points to calculate the values of n and C. which is close enough and well within expected random variation in typical tool life data.0 m/s)(0. T = 14.08) n ln 180 + n ln(14.4.Solution: (a) For data (1) T = 1.80s = 4.0151 n n = 0.909 min. T = 5(2. then check the resulting equation against the middle data point.2012 C = 180 (14.7875 = (4.5. 130(12) .0 m/s.43 23. Consistency would be demonstrated by using the values from the middle data point (T = 12 min at v = 130 ft/min) in the equation and obtaining the same value of C as above (C = 229). T = 47 min. 23. (1) 180(14.1.225 mm) = 174.08 min.0 m/s = 240 m/min.7 For the tool life plot of Figure 23. If cutting speed = 3.3215 = 400 min.75 min.

9 use average: C = 236.1). C = 229 in Example 23.2 = ln 90 + n ln 40 + m ln 0. The following data were obtained during the tests: (1) v = 2.6889 n 0. customary units are used: ft/min for v and min for T.2 ln 120 + n ln 12 = ln 90 + n ln 40 4. T = 10 min.8 here vs. Solution: vT0.14/9600. 23.5 m/s.3048m/ft)(1 min/60 s) = 5.1 (n = 0.20 mm/rev.5939 + m (-1.54 m/s 23.25 = (60) 0.D. which would be considered good agreement for experimental data. (Tref)0. n = 0.0 m/s.204 n n = 0.8501 n 0.7875 + 2.25 = 1000(Tref)0. Solution: Three equations to be solved simultaneously: (1) (2 x 60)(12) n(0.9 The Taylor equation for a certain set of test conditions is vT. USCU: v = 1000/160.5503 + m (-1.75) 0.4700 = 2.1).78316) = 14.566 = 2. T = 40 min.7492 n = 4.4054 m = -0. Note that the n value is very close to the value obtained in Example 23.6094) = 0.25 = 2.0752 + 1. Check both equations at T = 16 min = 960 s. where v = m/s and T = s.7.10 Q.54 m/s Check: (500 ft/min)( 0.224 = 235. That is. Validate the metric equation using a tool life = 16 min. and that the C value is higher here (C = 236.224 (1) C = 160(5.5%. (b) Using your equation.3) m = K (1) and (2): ln 120 + n ln 12 + m ln 0.0 min tool life. where v is in m/sec and T is in seconds.50 mm in Example 23. A series of turning tests are performed to determine the parameters n. compute the corresponding cutting speeds in ft/min and m/sec using the two equations. f = 0. m. Eq.5 x 60)(40) n(0.1009 n n = 0. (23. m. The higher C value here reflects the higher wear level used to define tool life (complete failure of cutting edge here vs.5 m/s and f = 0.224 = 236.4).1).S.25 = 14. (2) v = 1.223 in Example 23.4849 n = 4. and (3) v = 2.8 Check against data set (2): 130(14.108 156 .3 mm/rev.25 = 1000.25 = 14.239 ln 12 + m ln 0.239 (1) and (3): ln 120 + 0.25 C = 1000 ft/min for a 1.239 ln 10 + m ln 0.0436 m = 0.14 The converted equation is: vT0.ln 160 + n ln 5. (a) Determine n.2 = ln 120 + 0.78316 The converted value of C = 5. ft/min converts to m/s as (1000 ft/min)(0.3 mm/rev.14.224 = 236.3 0.08 m/s Tref = 1 min = 60 s. f = 0.3048m/ft)(1 min/60 s) = 2. where the U.25 = 1000/2 = 500 ft/min. compute the tool life when v = 1. SI: v = 14. Convert this equation to the equivalent Taylor equation in the International System of units (metric).2877 = 1.0 m/s. and K. Better results on determining the Taylor equation would be obtained by using regression analysis on all three data sets to smooth the variations in the tool life data.6052 + 3.4998 + 3.2) m = K (2) (1.E.7 (3) C = 100(47) 0. This represents a difference of less than 0.2) m = K (3) (2 x 60)(10) n(0. f = 0.2040) -0.224 here vs.08(2. and K in the expanded version of the Taylor equation. a flank wear level of 0.25) 0.14/5. T = 12 min.20 mm/rev.75 = ln 100 + n ln 47 5.

333 = 150 ft/min.01)(0.2 in3 157 .80 in 3/min. This feed is of course an extrapolation and not a real possible feed value.72 in3 (b) HSS: n = 0.5 x 60)(T)0.6 ft/min.3026) + m (-4.811)(0.10) = 10. Determine n. and K. (2) v = 300 ft/min. (c) cemented carbide.3026 .10. For 10 min. 23. and (3) v = 400 ft/min.572) = 5.3 mm/rev (1.259 = 47.6971)(0. v = 1500/100. For 10 min.239(0.8) = 18.108 = 182.015 0.239 = 33. Determine how many cubic mm of steel would be removed for each of the following tool materials.65 90(T)0.65 (b) v = 1. m.0 minute tool life at a feed rate of 1.25 = 1500/1.0794) + m (-4.01)(0. (23.010) m = K (2) 300(35) n(0.311 T = 2.2629)(0.010 in/rev.10) = 0. MRR = (150 x 12)(0. the following data were collected: (1) v = 400 ft/min.2297(2.2) 0.3 (2) 300(35) 0.5 x 12)(0.5881) = 379.010) m = K (3) 400(8) n(0.239(0.2297(2.2297 (1) and (3): ln 400 + n ln 10 + m ln 0.010 = ln 300 + n ln 35 + m ln 0.010 ln 400 + n ln 10 = ln 300 + n ln 35 5.10) = 1.5587) = 379.0 mm.5553 n 0.2527 n n = 0.2 are based on a feed rate of 0.1 = 60/1.572 in 3/min. f = 0.010 = ln 400 + n ln 8 + m ln 0. Solution: (a) Plain carbon steel: n = 0. v = 60/100.8781) = 182.4) in the text relates tool life to speed and feed. metal removed = 10(1.25. (b) high speed steel.5 m/s.3) 0. T = 10 min.778 = 843. f = 0.9915 + 2.6 x 12)(0.6052) = 0.015 n ln 10 + m ln 0.015) 0.010) 0. f = 0.01)(0.12) = 101.65 (T)0.8404) = K = 182.125 = 200/1.12 The n and C values in Table 23.010 = n ln 8 + m ln 0.2297(0.11 Eq.4055 m m = 0.0 in3 (c) Cemented carbide: n = 0.3111/.05127 = 0.125.010) 0. and K. 23.6052) 0. metal removed = 10(10. MRR = (47.3 min. and (e) coated carbide.015) m = K (1) and (2): ln 400 + n ln 10 + m ln 0.3 K = 379.6123)(0. if a 10-min tool life were required in each case: (a) plain carbon steel. m. C = 1500 ft/min.2877 = 1.239 = 2.7038 + 3.3 The constant K represents the cutting speed (ft/min) for a 1.1264 (1) 400(10) 0.3 (3) 400(8) 0.239(0.2297(0.(1) K = 120(12) 0.1264 = 400(1.3026 n = 5.1264 = 300(2. f = 0.010 in/rev. T = 35 min. v = 200/100.2297(2.5587) = 379. In a series of turning tests conducted to determine the parameters n.1997) 0. What is the physical interpretation of the constant K? Solution: Three equations to be solved simultaneously: (1) 400(10) n(0. T = 8 min.2297(0.0 in/rev. metal removed = 10(0.12 in 3/min. (d) ceramic.108 =120(1.25 mm/rev and a depth of cut = 4.1264 = 400(1.1997 + 4. C = 60 ft/min.5 ft/min.2. C = 200 ft/min. MRR = (843.015 in/rev. For 10 min.0794) = m(-4.

for 5 holes.52389(108) v = {0.0 in thick.60.82) n ln 80 + n ln 27. Solution: (1) v = 80 ft/min.15 = 120(1.5978 n 2. Sample holes have been drilled to determine the tool life at two cutting speeds.10) = 14.13 A drilling operation is performed in which 0.99/v = 3926. we have: 120(1.3051 n = 4.003)(917) = 2.3478(v) -4.4(10-3)v = 3926. Both of these times must be expressed in terms of cutting speed.003 in/rev.778 = 1237 ft/min.99 (202.25) = 80(1.3478 v3. for tool life and m/min for cutting speed.23 and C = 400.6 = 12000/3.10) = 30.33(108) (v) -4.25 = ln 120 + n ln 1.52389(108)}1/3.15 0.82) 0. where cutting speed v is expressed in ft/min. C = 2200 ft/min. T = 5(0. (Ignore effects of drill entrance and exit from the hole.833 in/min) = 0. For 10 min.82 min.545 min) = 27. the tool lasted for exactly 5 holes. Formulating the data as vTn = C.85 in 3/min.3478 = 4004.82 4.01)(0.82) n = C Setting (1) = (2): 80(27.15 C = 80(27.4 in3 (e) Coated carbide: n = 0.3478 = 2057.0 in/(1.99 (v) -1 T = (400/v) 1/.(d) Ceramic: n = 0. At 80 surface ft/min.094) = 131.382 + 3.34 C = 120(1. N = (80)/(.3478 Setting Tm = T: 3926.981 = 2512 ft/min. feed rate fr = (0.18 m/min Check: Tm = 3926. for 50 holes.25 min. N = (120)/(.85) = 148.25. Units for the Taylor equation are min.5π/12) = 917 rev/min. Compute the cutting speed that will allow the tool life to be just equal to the cutting time for this part.000 ft/min. Solution: In this problem we want Tm = T.3478 = {0.545 min. For 10 min.52389(108)}0.003)(611) = 1. v = 12000/100. and tool life T is expressed in min.75 in/min) = 0.364 min.29 C = 131.00 in.4 mm/rev.75 in/min. Tm = πDL/fv and T = (C/v) 1/n Tm = π(500)(1000)(10-6)/0.) Determine the values of n and C in the Taylor tool life equation for the above sample data.32 23. the tool lasted for exactly 50 holes. feed rate fr = (0.18) -1 = 19. The starting diameter = 500 mm and the length = 1000 mm.6417) = 131. we have: 80(27.364 min) = 1. where Tm = machining time per piece and T = tool life.5π/12) = 611 rev/min. time per hole = 1.25) n = C (2) v = 120 ft/min.423 min 158 . Formulating the data as vTn = C.3478 = 0.5 in diameter holes are drilled through cast iron plates that are 1. C = 10. MRR = (1237 x 12)(0.5 in3 23.33(108) (v) -4. v = 2200/100.0 mm. MRR = (2512 x 12)(0.01)(0. corresponding to the plate thickness. The cut will be made with a cemented carbide cutting tool whose Taylor tool life parameters are: n = 0. Consider the depth of cut to be exactly 1.4055 n = 0. T = 50(0.7073 n = 0.14) = 301.99 v-1 = 2057. Cutting conditions are: f = 0. The feed rate of the drill was 0.0 in/(2.14 The outside diameter of a cylinder made of titanium alloy is to be turned. metal removed = 10(30.2987 = 202. and d = 3.833 in/min.25 = 2200/1.7875 + 0.14 in 3/min. metal removed = 10(14.25) n = 120(1. time per hole = 1.23 = (400/v) 4. At 120 surface ft/min.

Specify a steel-cutting grade suitable for finishing. Solution: In this problem we want Tm = T.0 Setting Tm = T: 26. The cutting conditions will be: feed = 0.17 A turning operation is performed on a steel shaft with diameter = 5.0 v3. Choose grade 4.423 min 23. Determine the cutting speed which will make the tool life equal to the time required to complete the turning operation. This is a grade with no TiC and high cobalt. Specify a non-steel roughing grade.15 The outside diameter of a roll for a steel rolling mill is to be turned. (d) Machining cast iron.0125 in/rev.56) 4. In the final pass.0 = 13004. A cemented carbide cutting tool is to be used and the parameters of the Taylor tool life equation for this setup are: n = 0. 23.3478 = 19. indicate whether or not it is a reasonable candidate to use in the operation: (a) plain carbon steel.T = (400/202.0 = 1.25 = (1300/v) 4.0125)v = 26.25)(48.23 = (400/202. where Tm = machining time per piece and T = tool life.0 in and length = 32 in. Cast iron is included with the non-steel grades. (a) Which grade should be used for finish turning of unhardened steel? (b) Which grade should be used for rough milling of aluminum? (c) Which grade should be used for finish turning of brass? (d) Which of the grades listed would be suitable for machining cast iron? For each case. Tm = πDL/12fv and T = (C/v) 1/n Tm = π(26.0 in. and (e) sintered polycrystalline diamond.389. It is desirable to operate at a cutting speed so that the tool will not need to be changed during the cut.0 = 2.08229(108)}0.3333 = 476. Both of these times must be expressed in terms of cutting speed.38/v = 26. (b) high speed steel. the starting diameter = 26. Specify a non-steel finishing grade.8561(1012) (v) -4. These grades are listed below by chemical composition. give the reason why it is not.08229(108)}1/3 = {1.375 min Tooling Applications 23.38 (v) -1 T = (1300/v) 1/. For each material that is not a good candidate. Units for the Taylor equation are min.08229(108) v = {1.56 ft/min Check: Tm = 26. explain your recommendation. (d) ceramic. This is a grade with TiC and low cobalt.16 A certain machine shop uses a limited number of cemented carbide grades in its operations. and depth of cut = 0. for tool life and ft/min for cutting speed.18) 4. The turning operation reduces the shaft diameter. A slot or keyway has been milled along its entire length.375 min T = (1300/476.18) 1/.25 = (1300/476.389. Grade 1 2 3 4 %WC 95 82 80 89 %Co 5 4 10 11 %TiC 0 14 10 0 Solution: (a) Finish turning of unhardened steel. Choose grade 2. (c) Finish turning of brass. For each of the following tool materials. (c) cemented carbide. 159 .25 in and the length = 48.56) 1/.0 = 55. Choose grade 1.0)/12(0.0(v) -4. (b) Rough milling of aluminum.38 (476.8561(1012) (v) -4.38 (v) -1= 2.125 in.25 and C = 1300.389. Specify grade 1 for finishing and grade 4 for roughing. This is a grade with no TiC and low cobalt.56) -1= 55.389.

T = (200/125) 1/. The foreman says that the "speed and feed are right out of the handbook" for this work material.12 = 130(1 + 10%) = 130(1. which is greater than the 4:1 which is usually recommended. Increase = (110.18 In a turning operation using high speed steel tooling.3333 = 21. he says. A cutting oil is applied by the operator by brushing the lubricant onto the drill point and flutes prior to each hole. (e) Sintered polycrystalline diamond: this is not suitable for cutting steel. what would be the increase in tool life if the original cutting speed of 125 ft/min were used in the operation? Solution: From Table 23.40 . and hole depth = 40 mm. so toughness is important in the tool material.8) 8 = 110. If it can be assumed that the effect of the cutting fluid is simply to increase the constant C by 25.0 mm twist drill is being used in a production drilling operation on mild steel.75:0. Cutting Fluids 23.444) 8.42.6) 8 = 42. The appropriate n and C values in the Taylor equation are given in Table 23. Nevertheless.21.1) = 143 T = (143/90) 1/. "the chips are clogging in the flutes. it has good toughness for the interrupted cut.12 = 130 T = (130/90) 1/.Solution: The slot will result in an interrupted cut.95 min. (a) Plain carbon steel: not economical because of low cutting speeds.42 min.3333 = 47.42 = 1. (d) Ceramic: this is not a good candidate because of its low toughness.2. Dry: at v = 125 ft/min.12 = (1. Increase = (47.10 mm/rev.5889) 8.120 and C = 130 (m/min) when the operation is conducted dry. (b) HSS: this is a reasonable candidate.125 = (1. Second. the 160 .20 A high speed steel 6. The Taylor tool life equation has parameters n = 0. the value of C is increased by 10%. n = 0. and feed = 0.25 = 7:1. With coolant: 90(T)0. Determine the percent increase in tool life that results if the cutting speed is maintained at v = 90 m/min. C = 200 + 25 = 225. With cutting fluid.21 = 121% 23. T = (225/125) 1/. a cutting speed v = 90 m/min is used.40 min.6% 23.19 A production turning operation on a steel workbar normally operates at a cutting speed of 125 ft/min using high speed steel tooling with no cutting fluid. Solution: Dry: 90(T)0.125 = (1. resulting in friction heat.42)/21.12 = (1. It has been found that the use of a coolant type cutting fluid will allow an increase of 25 ft/min in the speed without any effect on tool life.2 in the text. First. it must be a steel cutting grade with high toughness (high cobalt content).2 min. the depth-to-diameter ratio is 1.125 and C = 200 for dry cutting.95) = 67. The cutting conditions are: speed = 25 m/min. it is likely to fracture during interrupted cutting. and the drill bit is failing prematurely due to overheating." What's the problem? What do you recommend to solve it? Solution: There are several problems here. thus causing overheating of the drill. When a coolant is used in the operation. (c) Cemented carbide: this is a reasonable candidate.2 . As a consequence the chips produced in the hole are having difficulty exiting. With cutting fluid: at v = 125 ft/min.25 min = 156.

as a substitute for the cutting oil. then retract the drill. one with good lubricating qualities. it makes sense to try a coolant. and we assume it cannot be changed. with overheating as a problem. Third.manual method of applying the cutting oil may not be particularly effective. an emulsified oil might be tried in the operation. 161 . Finally. then drill some more. The twist drill might be operated in a peck-drilling mode to solve the chip clogging problem. a requirement of the drilling operation. The 7:1 depth-to-diameter ratio is a given. etc. Since overheating is a problem. A twist drill with a fluid hole could be used to more effectively deliver the cutting fluid to the drill point to help extract the chips. the cutting oil may not be removing heat from the operation effectively. Peck-drilling means drilling for a distance approximately equal to one drill diameter.

The properties mentioned in the text include: hardness. 24. The factors that affect surface finish are: (1) geometric factors such as type of operation. and tool shape (nose radius in particular).7 Name some of the steps that can be taken to reduce or eliminate vibrations in machining. Answer. (2) tool nose radius. The factors are: (1) type of tooling. and thermal diffusivity. (3) surface finish. Because additional operations such as grinding. and (4) in some cases the end cutting edge of the tool. 24. Steps to reduce vibration in machining include: (1) increase stiffness or damping in the setup. and (3) the cost of the time to change the tool. 24. The ideal surface roughness is determined by geometric parameters of the machining operation. and tearing of the work surface when machining ductile materials.6 What are the parameters that have the greatest influence in determining the ideal surface roughness Ri ? Answer. (2) work material factors such as built-up edge effects. Answer. (2) forces and power. The first three terms are: (1) part load/unload cost. What is the fourth term? 162 .g.4 Why do costs tend to increase when better surface finish is required on a machined part? Answer.8 What are the factors on which the selection of feed in a machining operation should be based? Answer. (2) roughing or finishing operation. 24. e. (2) operating at speeds away from the natural frequency of the machine tool system.24 ECONOMIC AND PRODUCT DESIGN CONSIDERATIONS IN MACHINING Review Questions 24. (2) cost of time the tool is actually cutting the work. and backlash in the feed mechanism. and (4) surface roughness requirements. and (4) ease of chip disposal. The machinability criteria include: (1) tool wear and tool life. 24.9 The unit cost in a machining operation is the sum of four cost terms. strength. 24. Machinability can be defined as the relative ease with which a material can be machined using an appropriate cutting tool under appropriate cutting conditions. or similar finishing processes must be included in the manufacturing sequence at higher cost. lapping.1 Define machinability. and (3) vibration and machine tool factors such as setup and workpart rigidity.2 What are the criteria by which machinability is commonly assessed in a production machining operation? Answer.. and (3) feed or chip load. (3) limiting cutting forces. and (3) reducing forces in machining through changes in feed or depth and changes in cutter design. Answer. 24. 24. which factors are affected by cutting speed. feed. These parameters are: (1) the type of machining operation. whether turning or milling.3 Name some of the important mechanical and physical properties that affect the machinability of a work material.5 What are the basic factors that affect surface finish in machining? Answer.

(b) cast iron. all correct answers must be given. (b) 24. For each question.7 Which one of the following operations is generally capable of the best surface finishes (lowest value of Ra) (one best answer)? (a) broaching. Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 14 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct). (a) 24. whose rating = 1. or (f) tool wear.2 Of the various methods for testing machinability. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point. tends to push the U-shaped function toward a lower value in the case of cutting speed for minimum cost. (c) high value of Ra. Answer. (e) stainless steel. which means lower value of Ra. (d) long tool life. which of the following seems to be the most important (one answer)? (a) cutting forces. (d) low carbon steel.5 Which one of the following operations is generally capable of the closest tolerances (one best answer)? (a) broaching. To attain a perfect score on the quiz. 24. (c) end milling. In general.3 A machinability rating of greater than 1. Answer. (d) planing. since each correct answer is worth 1 point. and (f) 24. Answer.0 indicates that the work material is which of the following relative to the defined base material. or (e) sawing. 24. if applicable) the tool.1 Which of the following criteria are generally recognized to indicate good machinability (more than one)? (a) all of the following. (b) drilling.4 163 . (b) drilling. (c) horsepower consumed in the operation. (e). (g) zero shear plane angle. (d) surface roughness. which means high value of Ra or (b) improve surface finish. (d). The fourth term is the cost of purchasing (and grinding.6 When cutting a ductile work material. (c) end milling. Answer. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers. or (e) turning. (e) tool life. (b) ease of chip disposal. (a) 24. (e) low cutting forces. The fourth term in the unit cost equation. Answer.0? (a) easier to machine than the base or (b) more difficult to machine than the base. (d) planing. (b) cutting temperature. (f) low value of Ra.Answer. (e) 24. and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point. (c) copper. Answer. cutting speed for minimum cost or cutting speed for maximum production rate? Why? Answer.10 Which cutting speed is always lower for a given machining operation. or (g) unhardened tool steel. (b). an increase in cutting speed will generally have which effect on surface finish? (a) degrade surface finish. which of the following materials has the highest machinability (one best answer)? (a) aluminum. dealing with the actual cost of the cutting edge. Cutting speed for minimum cost. (f) titanium alloys. (a) 24.

2 (c) Different test conditions often result in different machinability results.4 = 0.5 min New material: v10 = (420/150) 1/.22 = (2.704= 58.9 24.545 = 107. (c) What do the results of the two calculations show about the difficulties in machinability measurement? Solution: (a) Base material: v60 = 500/60. For the new material. (b) 24.8 min MR = 107.7% (b) (a) Base material: T150 = (450/150) 1/.24.7/179.84 = 184% 164 .8/58.6 m/min New material: v30 = 420/30. Answer.21 and C = 400.27 = 179.1 A machinability rating is to be determined for a new work material using the cutting speed for a 60 min tool life as the basis of comparison. (b) If the machinability criterion were tool life for a cutting speed of 150 m/min. Answer. test data resulted in a Taylor equation with parameters n = 0. For the new material.3 m/min MR = 169. Compute the machinability rating for this case.6 m/min MR = 246.11 = 111% (b) (a) Base material: v10 = 500/10. and (d) tool change time.7 m/min MR = 198.8) 4. (a) Problems Machinability 24. or (b) cutting speed for minimum cost. where speed is in m/min and tool life is min. and (b) setup time for the machine tool. test data resulted in Taylor equation parameter values of n = 0. These results were obtained using cemented carbide tooling. (a) Compute a machinability rating for the new material using cutting speed for a 30 min tool life as the basis of comparison. A machinability rating is to be determined for a new work material. These results were obtained using cemented carbide tooling.6/256.5 = 1.96 = 96% 24.22 = 198. (a) Compute a machinability rating for the new material. For the base material (B1112 steel).29 = 152.21 = 246. For the base material (B1112).21 = 169. (b) Suppose the machinability criterion were the cutting speed for a 10 min tool life rather than the present criterion.5 m/min New material: v60 = 400/60. Answer.4 m/min New material: v10 = 400/10.6 = 1.29 = 256.8 Which of the following time components in the average production machining cycle is affected by cutting speed (more than one)? (a) part loading and unloading time.5 = 1. the Taylor parameters were n = 0. the parameter values were n = 0.22 and C = 420.10 A high tooling cost and/or tool change time will tend to have which of the following effects on vmax or vmin? (a) decrease or (b) increase.27 = (3. Units in both cases are: speed in m/min and tool life in min. (c) and (d) Which cutting speed is always lower for a given machining operation? (a) cutting speed for maximum production rate. (c) time the tool is engaged in cutting. what is the machinability rating for the new material? Solution: (a) Base material: v30 = 450/30.3/152.29 and C = 500.107 = 110.0) 3.27 and C = 450.

0 mm.100 in.5 A turning operation uses a 2/64 in nose radius cutting tool on a free machining steel with a feed rate = 0.125 in.196(10-8) m2 165 .556 = 144.015 in/pass.75)(10-3)/1.84(10-8) m2)0. f2 = Ri(32NR) = 1.24.3 Tool life turning tests have been conducted on B1112 steel with high speed steel tooling.2 in Eq. feed = 0. Based on this information.0001 in. From Fig.6 ft/min. Recommended v30 = 0. rai = 1.2.2f 2/32NR Rearranging. MR for 4130 = 0.2 = 1. Solution: Ri = f2/32NR = (0.9 x 150 = 285 µ in.8 Solve previous Problem 24. 24. Recommended v30 = 1.50(144.2 ratio rai = 1. (24.010) 2/(32 x 2/64) = 0.015) 2/(32 x 3/64) = 0. Solution: First determine v30 for the base material: v30 = 225/30. The feed and depth during these tests were: f = 0.96(10-9) = 3.6(10-6)(32)(0. f2 = Ri(32NR)/1.75 mm. the nose radius on the tool = 1.20) 2/(32 x 1) = 0. so Ra = Ri Ra = Ri = f2/32NR Rearranging.25 µm.4 except that the part is made of cast iron instead of aluminum and the cutting speed is reduced to 100 m/min.4 In a turning operation on cast iron.1. and machinability data given in Table 24.6) = 94 ft/min.84(10-8) m2 f = (3. Assume that the same feed and depth of cut are to be used.2 ratio rai = 1.0 in Eq. Determine the surface roughness for this cut. and depth of cut = 4. (24.75)(10-3) = 38.13 and C = 225.196 mm (here.3 Ra = 1.6(10-6)(32)(0.3 x 1.35. Solution: Ri = f2/32NR = (0.00125 mm.96(10-4) m = 0. = 1.010 in/rev and a cutting speed = 300 ft/min.35(144.02 Ra = 1.63 µ m. Cutting speed = 150 m/min. 24.2 = 31.2 mm/rev.6) = 195 ft/min. MR for C1008 = 0.0 mm. 24. Determine the surface roughness for this operation. Determine the feed that will achieve the specified surface finish.25 = 1.5 = 1. Recommended v30 = 0.3).6) = 72 ft/min. from Figure 24. = 150 µin. (c) From Table 24. if the tool life desired in operation is 30 min: (a) C1008 low carbon steel with 150 Brinell hardness.9 Ra = 1. 24. rai = 1.1.4(10-9) = 3.2 Ri = 1. mm is interpreted mm/rev) 24. rai = 1.02 x 100 = 102 µ in. Cutting speed = 100 ft/min.1. Solution: Ri = f2/32NR = (0.00015 in.6 A single-point HSS tool with a 3/64 in nose radius is used in a shaping operation on a ductile steel workpart. (b) From Table 24.13 = 225/1. 24. extrapolating Figure 24. so Ra = 1.6 µm.65.010 in/rev and d = 0. and speed = 2 m/s. feed rate = 0. Compute an estimate of the surface roughness for this cut. = 100 µin. Solution: For free-machining aluminum at 150 m/min. The part is made of a free-machining aluminum alloy. (a) From Table 24. From Fig. (b) 4130 alloy steel with 190 Brinell hardness. determine the cutting speed you would recommend for the following work materials. From Fig. 24. and the resulting parameters of the Taylor equation are: n = 0.2.3). The nose radius on the tool = 0. MR for B1113 = 1.2. Solution: For cast iron at 150 m/min.7 A part to be turned in an engine lathe must have a surface finish of 1.1.50.65(144. and depth of cut = 0. Surface Roughness 24. and (c) B1113 steel with 170 Brinell hardness.

27 = 25. which is a ductile grade.6(10-6)(32)(1.8)(10-6) = 0. The tool nose radius = 3/64 in.2 ratio rai = 1. Cutting conditions: v = 1.48(10-4) m = 0. The work material is cast iron.179 mm (here. it stands to reason that we should operate at the highest possible v. The part is made of a free-machining steel. Items (2) and (3) will have a marginal effect. from Figure 24. a type of carbide insert with 4/64 in nose radius is to be used.4 x 10-6).6 µm.3 mm/rev. The nose radius on the tool = 1.f = 3. (3) use cutting fluid. The cutter is a four-tooth insert type face milling cutter. Solution: For free-machining steel at 90 m/min. The cutter uses four inserts and its diameter is 3.35Ri = 1. so Ra = 1.3). (24.144(10-8) m2)0.00475 m = 4. what changes in cutting conditions and tooling would you suggest to improve the surface finish? Solution: Changes in cutting conditions: (1) decrease chip load f. NR = 1. (24.2 µin.1 x 10-3 = 0.35f 2/32NR Rearranging.3 x 10-3)2/(32)(0. 24.5 m/s and d = 3. Ri = f2/32NR Rearranging.248 mm (here. The nose radius of the cutting tool must be selected. It has been decided that the speed should be in the range 200 ft/min to 400 ft/min. from Figure 24. The cutting conditions have been selected as follows: v = 75 m/min. mm is interpreted mm/rev) 24. Solution: For cast iron at 75 m/min.0 in. Determine the feed that will achieve the specified surface finish. 166 .35(0.46 in/min. so Ra = 1. Solution: For cast iron at 400 ft/min.27 Ri Ri = Ra/1. f = 0.0 in Eq.8 µm.27 = 32/1. N = v/πD = (400 x 12)/3π = 509.4 x 10-6 in2 f = (50.0071 in/rev.0071) = 14. fr = Nntf = 509.44(10-9) = 6. mm is interpreted mm/rev) 24.35f 2/(32Ra) NR = 1.13 A turning operation is to be performed on C1010 steel. The machine shop foreman thinks the problem is that the work material is too ductile for the job.2 mm. and (3) increase relief angle.0 mm.080 in. Changes in tooling: (1) increase nose radius NR. but this property tests well within the ductility range for the material specified by the designer. Determine the speed and feed combination that meets these criteria. and d = 4.75 mm 24.79(10-4) m = 0. f2 = Ri(32NR) = 1. 24. Determine the required feed rate (in/min) that will achieve the 32 µ-in finish. Therefore.2 x 10-6)(4/64) = 50.5 = 7.3).2)(10-3) = 61. Solution: Increasing feed will increase both MRR and Ra.5 = 1. Increasing speed will increase MRR and reduce Ra. (2) increase cutting speed v.2 ratio rai = 1. (2) increase rake angle.3 rev/min. Determine the minimum nose radius that will obtain the specified finish in this operation. To obtain the best possible finish.3(4)(0.10 The surface finish specification in a turning job is 0.27.5 = 2.9 A part to be turned in an engine lathe must have a surface finish of 1.11 A face milling operation is to be performed on a cast iron part at 400 ft/min to finish the surface to 32 µ-in. It is desired to achieve a surface finish of 64 µ-in (AA).2 ratio rai = 1.35 in Eq. while at the same time maximizing the metal removal rate.12 A face milling operation is not yielding the required surface finish on the work. and that the depth of cut will be 0.196(10-8) m2)0.144(10-8) m2 f = (6. from Figure 24. Without knowing any more about the job.0 mm. f2 = 32(Ra)(NR) = 32(25. so Ra = Ri = f2/32NR Rearranging.

27 = 49.4 mm/rev.8 m/min.0091 in/rev. Ra = 1.503) = 0. Feed = 0. From Fig.125f 2/(.741 µ m.35x4/π) = 0.8 µ in.00.0091 in/rev.125f 2/(.42 min.125f 2/(0.2 µ in.35x4/π) = 0. 24.0 m/s.13 = (1.16 A HSS tool is used to turn a steel workpart that is 300 mm long and 80 mm in diameter. The milling cutter has four equally spaced teeth and the diameter = 60 mm. (b) Down milling: Ri = 0.50/min vmax = 75/[(1/.787 min.015 in/tooth.5 = 0.5] . Machining Economics 24.15 = 64/1. and (b) down-milling.506) 7.125(0.14 Plain milling is performed to finish a cast iron workpart prior to plating.2 x 10-6).15 A peripheral milling operation is performed using a slab milling cutter with four teeth and a 2.015x4/π) = 22.5D + fnt/π) = 0. It takes 2.518) = 0.2 x 10-6 in2 f = (76. MRR = 2.50 in diameter. The operator and machine tool rate = $30.5D .15. determine the theoretical surface roughness for (a) up-milling.13 and C = 75 (m/min) for a feed of 0.5 = 0. Ri = f2/32NR f2 = 32(Ra)(NR) = 32(50. and (b) down-milling.8 x 10-6)(3/64) = 76.43(0.43 Ra = 1.35) 2/(30 + 0.4 x 10-6). and (c) cycle time and cost per unit of product.26 = 64/1.51 in 3/min. 25. and cutting speed v = 1. (b) Tmax = (75/49.35) 2/(30 . 167 .15 = 55.5)]. 25. rai = 1. The chip load f = 0.45.6 µin.503 µm. 25. MRR = 3.125f 2/(0. and that each tooth projects an equal distance from the axis of rotation.125(0.43(0.15 Ri Ri = Ra/1.fnt/π) = 0. Optimum cutting conditions are: v = 400 ft/min and f = 0.015) 2/(1.26.35 mm/tooth.13 = 75/[6.fnt/π) = 0.43 Ra = 1.125(0. 25.692 x 3. rai = 1.4 x 49.26 = 50. Determine: (a) cutting speed for maximum production rate.518 µm.13 . and cutting speed = 150 ft/min.719 µ m.51 in 3/min.Try v = 400 ft/min. 24.45. Solution: (a) Co = $30/hr = $0. Assuming first that the teeth are equally spaced around the cutter.692 = 23.1)(3.0 min to load and unload the workpart and 3. rai = 1.015x4/π) = 22.0. Solution: (a) Up milling: Ri = 0. From Fig. From Fig. (c) Tm = πDL/fv = π(80)(300)/(.45.015) 2/(1. Solution: (a) Up milling: Ri = 0.25-0. From Fig. Compare at v = 300 ft/min.45.25+0. (b) Down milling: Ri = 0. (b) tool life in min of cutting. The parameters in the Taylor equation are: n = 0.5D+fnt/π) = 0.26 Ri Ri = Ra/1. Estimate the surface roughness for (a) up-milling.51 in3/min.4 x 10-6 in2 f = (83.50 min to change tools.125(0.6 x 10-6)(3/64) = 83. Ri = f2/32NR f2 = 32(Ra)(NR) = 32(55.8) 1/. rai = 1. Ra = 1. which maximizes MRR = 3.0087 in/rev.5D .8 x 103) = 3. and the tooling cost per cutting edge = $4.00/hr.8 µin.

07/pc 24.89 min. The parameters in the Taylor equation are: n = 0.41 pc/tool life Use np = 17 pc/tool life Tc = Th + Tm + Tt/np = 2.85/pc 24. determine cutting speed for minimum cost. price of each insert = $6. np = 13.19 Solve previous Problem 24.787 + 3.00/hr.0 + 1.42 + 3.013 x 590 x 12) = 1.0/17 = $3.823 min/pc.184 pc/tool life Use np = 6 pc/tool life Tc = Th + Tm + Tt/np = 2.00/6 = $3.18 A cemented carbide tool is used to turn a part with length = 18.55(5.27 = (1. and (c) cycle time and cost per unit of product.0/7 = $3.6 x 103) = 4. It takes 3.0 + 3.787 = 6.55/((1/. The workpart to be used in the 168 .5 + 4. and the tool change time = 1. Co = $33/hr = $0. The same grade of cemented carbide tooling is available in two forms for turning operations in a certain machine shop: disposable inserts and brazed inserts.63) + 4.00. np = 4.06 min/pc.50(6.843 min. The feed = 0.4 x 42.323 = 3.0 min.55/min vmin = 1200[.27 .692 = 76.066 pc/tool Use np = 3 pc/tool life Tc = Th + Tm + Tt/np = 3.704 x 2. (b) Tmin = (1200/590) 1/. (b) Tmax = (1200/822) 1/.00 and it is estimated that it can be used a total of 15 times before it must be scrapped.18 except that in part (a).6) 1/. Solution: (a) Co = $33/hr = $0.27 = (2. Cc = 0. The parameters in the Taylor equation for this grade are: n = 0.50/((1/.06) + 2.692 x 5.5)].704 = 13. The standard time to grind or regrind the cutting edge is 5.42 min/pc.825)]. Solution: (a) vmax = 1200/[(1/.1)(.0 + 4.00.27 = 822 ft/min.323 min.034) 3.00/hr.75)].13 .25 and C = 300 (m/min) under the cutting conditions considered here. Determine: (a) cutting speed for maximum production rate.55(5.460) 3.17 Solve previous Problem 24.55/min Cc = 0.704 = 4.843 + 1.50 x 3.5/6 = 6.843 = 7.0 min (this is an average of the time to index the insert and the time to replace it when all edges have been used).55 x 1.55/(2. (c) Tm = πDL/fv = π(3)(18)/(.323 + 1. and the tooling cost per cutting edge = $2.00))]. there are four cutting edges per insert. (c) Tm = πDL/fv = π(3)(18)/(.06 min. Solution: (a) Co = $30/hr = $0.0 + 1. For the brazed insert.50/(6. Cc = 0.6 m/min.96/4.20 Compare disposable and regrindable tooling.27 and C = 1200.37 min/pc.50/min vmin = 75[.50(6.5/7 = 5.13 = 75[.0/3 = $3. The tool change time for the regrindable tooling = 3.16 except that in part (a). The rate for the operator and machine tool = $33.0 in and diameter = 3. Cc = 0.63 min/pc.32/pc 24.27 = 590 ft/min.27 = 1200/[2.5/3 = 4.13 = 42.0 in.54 pc/tool Use np = 7 pc/tool life Tc = Th + Tm + Tt/np = 3.013 x 822 x 12) = 1.13 = (1. np = 76. and the grinder is paid at a rate = $20. (b) Tmin = (75/42.27 = 1200[. Machine time on the lathe costs $24.704 x 1.76) 7.50 min to change tools.823) + 2.27 . (c) Tm = πDL/fv = π(80)(300)/(.1)(1.5/17 = 6.42/3.42 = 17.0 min to load and unload the workpart and 1. determine cutting speed for minimum cost.00/hr.00))].5] . the price of the tool = $30.37) + 4.1)(.013 in/rev.np = 23. (b) tool life in min of cutting.96 min. For the disposable inserts.0 min.55/pc 24.89/1.055/1.5 + 2.

1)(3.50/edge vmin = 300[0.40/min.182/pc Regrindable tooling: (a) Co = $24/hr = $0. Cc = 0.5 mm in diameter.87/0.30 mm/rev. determine the cutting speeds for maximum production rate.40/((1/0.5 min.40(3.42 + 3.4 = 3(4.1)(0.25 . (c) Tm = π(62.0/((1/0. Ct = $30/15 + 5($20/60) = $3.674/pc Regrindable tooling: (a) Co = $24/hr = $0.0) = 3(1. (b) Tmin = (1/0.25 = 300[0.876/pc Disposable inserts are recommended.72) + 1.50/edge vmax = 300[1.42 min/pc np = 9.5/2.25 .9/0.59 = 8. For the high speed steel tool.92 min/pc.0)]. Cycle time and cost per piece are less.40/min.30)(10-3)(228) = 1.4 m/min.40(3. Comparing the results in this problem with those of the previous problem.0 + 3. Cc = 0. Ct = $6/4 = $1.50/8 = $1.16 pc/tool life Use np = 18 pc/tool Tc = 2.67/6 = $2.2 m/min.40/(3 x 4.67)/0.0/(3 x 1.0 + 1. (c) Tm = π(62. Cc = 0.25 = 300[1.25 .67))].18 min/pc.0 + 1.0 + 2. and ceramic.25 .72 min/pc.5)/0. Cc = 0.0/1.0))]. 24.0 m/min. the 169 .2) = 1. Solution: Disposable inserts: (a) Co = $24/hr = $0.01 = 18. (c) Tm = π(62.1)(1.5)(375)/(0.0 m/min.0 min to load and unload the work.0) = 3. but that unit costs are less in the previous problem where the objective is minimum cost per piece. The feed = 0.92) + 3.9)].87)].0/(3 x 3.50/2 = $2.30)(10-3)(173.30)(10-3)(154.0/8 = 3.5)(375)/(0.58 min/pc.0 min.67/edge vmin = 300[0. cemented carbide.67/edge vmax = 300[1.40/((1/0.96 pc/tool life Use np = 8 pc/tool Tc = 2.25 . 24. Ct = $6/4 = $1.25 = 122.1)(0. (b) Tmin = (1/0.0)].25 . (c) Tm = π(62.0/((1/0.40/min.25 = 154.34 pc/tool life Use np = 6 pc/tool Tc = 2.50))].78 pc/tool life Use np = 2 pc/tool Tc = 2.4 + 1. (c) cycle time and cost per unit of production.20 except that in part (a).5)(375)/(0. and it takes 2.40(4.0/6 = 3. compare: (a) cutting speeds for minimum cost.08 min/pc np = 3.40 x 3.22 Three tool materials are to be compared for the same finish turning operation on a batch of 100 steel parts: high speed steel.0)].67/18 = $1.18) + 3.0) = 9. Cycle time and cost per piece are less.0/18 = 4.25 = 300[0.25 .40/(3 x 1.25 = 173.0 min.25 = 228.59 + 1.4 x 3 + 3.0/2 = 3.08 + 1. (b) tool lives. note that with the maximum production rate objective here.21 Solve previous Problem 24.01 + 3. Which tool would you recommend? Solution: Disposable inserts: (a) Co = $24/hr = $0.comparison is 375 mm long and 62.25 min. Ct = $30/15 + 5($20/60) = $3.1)(0.40(3.1)(1.30)(10-3)(122) = 2. (b) Tmax = (1/0.58) + 1. cycle times are less.4 = 3(1.4) = 36.42 = 6.0 + 1.25 .25/1.59 min/pc np = 14.4) = 1.08 = 2. For the two tooling cases.40/min.0 + 1.5)(375)/(0.180/pc Disposable inserts are recommended.4) = 14.1)(0.01 min/pc np = 36.40 x 1.25 = 300[1.1)(3) = 3(3.0/1. (b) Tmax = (1/0.

4) = 4.79 min/pc.0)].125 = 42.0 + 1.50 = 7(4.6 = 3. (d) Cc = 0.1)(0.00 and for the ceramic = $8.00 and it is estimated that it can be ground and reground 15 times at a cost of $1.50/((1/.125 .0/12 = 2.000.8 hr = 7.0/21 = 2.706 + 1.0(60) + 100(2. The Taylor equation parameters for the cemented carbide are: n = 0. (f) What is the proportion of time spent actually cutting metal for each tooling? Solution: HSS tooling: (a) Ct = $15/15 + 1.15/pc 170 .0/.50) = 9 min.25 = 289 m/min.0 mm.6 .25(10-3)42.1% Cemented carbide tooling: (a) Ct = $6/6 = $1.50/((1/.25 .Taylor equation parameters are: n = 0.0(60) + 100(7.50))].50(7.1)(0.81min/pc np = 56/4.581 = 58.50(2.50 = 3(1.50)/. (b) Tmin = (1/.000[.0 + 0.50 x 3 + 2.1)(.125 .74 pc/hr.50/(. (c) Tm = π(56)(290(10-6))/(0. (d) Cc = 0.50/min.8 hr.6 and C = 3.50 = 0.83)].08) + 2.50 x 3.0 mm and length = 290 mm. The cost of machine time = $30/hr.50 x 1.25 .0 + 4.25 and C = 500.6 = 1756 m/min.0 + 1.50) = 2.00/edge.1)(0. Co = $30/hr = $0. (c) cycle time. (f) Proportion of time spent cutting = 100(0.116 = 21 pc/tool life Tc = 2.50/min.79) = 399 min = 6.44/0. (e) total time to complete the batch and production rate.667(1.0/11 = 7.50(2.50 x 1 + 1. (b) Tmin = (1/.0 hr.50)]. (c) Tm = π(56)(290(10-6))/(0. Tool change time = 3 min.50 = $2.000[.7% Ceramic tooling: (a) Ct = $8/6 = $1.08 min/pc. vmin = 3.33/edge. The part dimensions are: diameter = 56.6 .0 + 2.08) = 828 min = 13. Tool change time = 1.50. Production rate Rp = 100 pc/6.25(10-3)1756) = 0.00/12 = $1.1)(.25 mm/rev.33/21 = $1.706 = 12.25 pc/hr. (b) Tmin = (1/0. Setup time for the batch is 2.50/min.50 x 1.25(10-3)289) = 0.50/.81 = 11.81)/828 = 0.50/11 = $3.65 hr.50 x 1 + 1. (c) Tm = π(56)(290(10-6))/(0.16 min/pc.77/pc (e) Time to complete batch = 2.4 m/min.50/edge.125 = 70[0.177 = 17.79) + 1. Both carbide and ceramic tools are in insert form and can be held in the same mechanical toolholder.667 x 1.783 hr = 14.83/. Production rate Rp = 100 pc/13.116 + 1. vmin = 500[. Number of cutting edges per insert in both cases = 6. vmin = 70[0. and for the ceramic: n = 0. (b) tool lives. For the three tooling cases.48/pc (e) Time to complete batch = 2.6 pc/tool life Use np = 11 pc/tool life Tc = 2. (f) Proportion of time spent cutting = 100(4. (d) cost per production unit.706)/399 = 0.0)/. Feed = 0. Co = $30/hr = $0.33))].125 and C = 70.0 min for both tools. compare: (a) cutting speeds for minimum cost.44 min. (d) Cc = 0.25 = 500[. and depth = 3.116 min/pc np = 2.1)(.706min/pc np = 9/0.0 + 0.00.7 pc/tool life Use np = 12 pc/tool life Tc = 2.0 min. The price of the HSS tool is $15.81 + 3.33)/. The cost per insert for the carbide = $6.16) + 1.00))]. Co = $30/hr = $0.50/(7 x 4.50/((1/.50) = 56 min. Time to change parts = 2.50/(3 x 1.

00/5 = $1.0/5 = 2.74) = 394 min = 6.125 = 70/[7 x 3)].6 = 3825 m/min.0) = 3(1. Co = $30/hr = $0.0(60) + 100(2. determine the cutting speeds and tool lives for maximum production rate. and puts pressure on management to seek ways to reduce these nonproductive elements.50/4 = $4.50(7. (c) Tm = π(56)(290(10-6))/(0.537)/394 = 0.1)(3.1)(1.8% Cemented carbide tooling: (a) Ct = $6/6 = $1.5% Comment: One might conclude that such a low proportion of time spent cutting would argue against the use of the calculated cutting speed for ceramic tooling. batch time.13/pc (e) Time to complete batch = 2.0)].6 hr = 17.667/0.25(10-3)3825) = 0. Co = $30/hr = $0.053 = 12 pc/tool life Tc = 2. and production rate compared to HSS tooling and even carbide tooling. Production rate Rp = 100 pc/6.537 + 1.23 Solve previous Problem 24.0)].25(10-3)484) = 4.125 = 48 m/min. (f) Proportion of time spent cutting = 100(4.67 hr = 7. (f) Proportion of time spent cutting = 100(0.1)(1.0(60) + 100(2.25min/pc np = 21/4.537 min/pc np = 3/0.667 x 1.1)(1.57 hr = 15.035 = 3. (d) Cc = 0.23 pc/hr.50(2.25(10-3)380) = 0.6 .14 min/pc.9 pc/tool life Use np = 4 pc/tool life Tc = 2.6 pc/tool life Use np = 5 pc/tool life Tc = 2. note that ceramic tooling provides a significant advantage in terms of unit cost.6 = 3.0 + 4.86 pc/hr. setup time and workpart handling time. 24. Solution: HSS tooling: (a) Ct = $15/15 + 1.667(1) = .33/edge.00 min/pc. However.50 = $2.50/min.25 + 3.57/pc (e) Time to complete batch = 2.50/edge.1)(1) = 0.25 .00/edge.25 = 380 m/min.0) = 3.537 = 5.053 min/pc np = 0.74 min/pc.116)/336 = 0. (d) Cc = 0. vmax = 70/[(1/.32 pc/hr.0 + 0.0/12 = 2. 171 .0)]. Production rate Rp = 100 pc/13.136 = 13.00) + 2.0 + 0.25)/820 = 0.25 = 500/[(3 x 1.000/[(1/. (b) Tmax = (1/0.6% Ceramic tooling: (a) Ct = $8/6 = $1. specifically.67 hr.74) + 1.125 .00) = 820 min = 13.125 . Production rate Rp = 100 pc/5.1)(3) = 7(3) = 21 min.25 = 4. vmax = 3.667 min. (c) Tm = (c) Tm = π(56)(290(10-6))/(0.053 + 1. vmax = 500/[(1/. The very small cutting time Tm and resulting low proportion of time spent cutting for ceramic tooling focuses attention on the nonproductive work elements in the batch time.22 except that in parts (a) and (b).0] .25 .000/[. (f) Proportion of time spent cutting = 100(0.0(60) + 100(7.0)]. (c) Tm = π(56)(290(10-6))/(0.50/min. Co = $30/hr = $0.518 = 51.57 hr. (b) Tmax = (1/0.50/min.(e) Time to complete batch = 2. (b) Tmax = (1/0.16) = 336 min = 5.0/4 = 7.6 .0 min.60 hr.

The time required to load and unload the parts = 12. Determine: (a) the cutting speed for minimum cost per piece. The cost of the operator and machine = $39/hr and the tool cost = $2. Tmax = (1/. This tool change time takes 1.01 pc/hr This is a 56% increase in production rate relative to the 200 ft/min cutting speed.00 in and its length = 10 in. 3 .0 min.NC lathe repositions tool for second pass (0.14) + 1. Tm = π(28)(14)/(200 x 12 x 0.33/12 = $1. Current cutting conditions are: speed = 200 ft/min. The applicable Taylor tool life equation has parameters: n = 0.015) = 34. Tool change time = 3.23 .10 min). The work cycle consists of the following steps (with element times given in parentheses where applicable): 1 . Production rate Rp = 100 pc/5.50(2.23 = 540 min.NC lathe turns second pass (time depends on cutting speed).23 = 500 ft/min.053)/334 = 0.293 pc/hr Find vmax to compare with current operating speed.4 min).0 min.8 min. What is the current production rate and the maximum possible production rate for this job? Solution: At the current operating speed v = 200 ft/min: T = (850/200) 1/.Operator unloads part and places in tote pan (1. The very small cutting time Tm and resulting low proportion of time spent cutting for ceramic tooling focuses attention on the nonproductive work elements in the batch time.73 = 29.NC lathe positions tool for first pass (0.57 hr = 17.18/pc (e) Time to complete batch = 2.73 pc/tool life Tc = 12 + 13. and 6 . and puts pressure on management to seek ways to reduce these nonproductive elements.00 min).0 in and the length of the bore = 14.007 in/rev and the depth of cut for each pass = 0.00/hr.4 = 1.2 = 15 pc/tool life Tc = 12 + 34. and production rate compared to HSS tooling and even carbide tooling. and depth = 0.7 min/pc np = 10/13.0) = 10.7 + 3/.8 = 2. The starting diameter of the work is 3. In addition.0 min.23 .100 in. note that ceramic tooling provides a significant advantage in terms of unit cost. setup time and workpart handling time.50 per cutting edge. Rc = 60/29.016 = 1.7 = 0. and the cost of machine time on this boring mill = $42. 24.25 A NC lathe cuts two passes across a cylindrical workpiece under automatic cycle.23 = 850/[(3. 4 . However. Tm = π(28)(14)/(500 x 12 x 0.015) = 13.1)(3. specifically. Management has decreed that the production rate must be increased by 25%.4 min.14) = 334 min = 5.0) = 3.2 + 3/15 = 46.348(3.24 A vertical boring mill is used to bore the inside diameter of a large batch of tube-shaped parts. The operator loads and unloads the machine. 2 . the cutting tool must be periodically changed. Is that possible? Assume that feed must remain unchanged in order to achieve the required surface finish.Operator loads part into machine.6% Comment: One might conclude that such a low proportion of time spent cutting would argue against the use of the calculated cutting speed for ceramic tooling. The diameter = 28.1)(3. 24. 5 .348 x 3.00 min.2 min/pc np = 540/34. (c) cost of the production 172 . vmax = 850/[(1/.(d) Cc = 0. The feed rate = 0.96 pc/hr.00/cutting edge.0(60) + 100(2.0 in. Rc = 60/46.23 and C = 850 (ft/min).26 and C = 900 (ft/min). and tooling cost = $3. (f) Proportion of time spent cutting = 100(0.0)].125 in. batch time.57 hr.00 min). starts cycle (1. The parameters of the Taylor equation for the cutting tool in the operation are: n = 0. (b) the average time required to complete one production cycle. feed = 0.015 in/rev.NC lathe turns first pass (time depends on cutting speed).0)].

65)].0 + 2.007) = 2. The effect of the cutting fluid can be to either increase cutting speed (at the same tool life) or increase tool life (at the same cutting speed).6 ft/min (b) Cutting at v = 125 ft/min with a cutting fluid gives a tool life T = (225/125) 8. (a) What is the cutting speed that would result from using the cutting fluid if tool life remains the same as with no fluid? (b) What is the tool life that would result if the cutting speed remained at 125 ft/min. (2) At 125 ft/min.6667 min. Time to index each 173 .5 + 2.36 = 4.00 and there are four edges per insert). the effect of a cutting fluid is to increase the value of C in the Taylor tool life equation.26 .0(60) + 300(7. (d) If the setup time for this job is 3. In a certain machining situation using HSS tooling.1)(. Justify you answer with calculations. tool life T = (200/125) 1/.010 in/rev and depth = 0.6 ft/min.125 and C = 200.0/2.6 x 12 x 0.26 = 476 ft/min.0 in3/MRR = 1. (c) Cc = .65 x 1 + 2.45 = $5. Ignoring work handling time. Tm = π(3)(10)/(476 x 12 x 0.125 = 140. The corresponding cutting speed for a 43 min tool life v = 225/430. tool change time = 2.9 = $0.65) = 11.63) = 2469 min = 41. it is desired to obtain an actual surface roughness of 63 µ-in with a 2/64 in nose radius tool. For T = 43 min.45 pc/tool life Tc = 2.0/(125 x 12 x 0.5 + 2 x 2.5 + 2.0 in 3 of metal cut as the basis of comparison. (24.010 x 0.36 min/pc.00/cutting edge.100) = 0.5927) + (0.15 hr. 24. Assume both passes have equal Tm.6667 = 164.1)(.9 in 3 between tool changes.5 + 2 x 2.4. volume cut per tool life = 110/0. the C value is increased from C = 200 to C = 225 due to the use of the cutting fluid.100) = 0.125.6 min. which effect is better.50 x 2.65 x 1 + 2.50(. The n value is the same with or without fluid at n = 0.353/in3. Solution: Cutting dry. with cost and time parameters as follows: Ct = $2. (1) At 140.5 min.65/min.100 in. taking into account the material and cutting speed.010 x 0.5 = $0.00 per cutting edge. the Taylor tool life equation parameters are n = 0. volume cut per tool life = 43/0. given that tooling cost = $2. using cost per cubic in of metal machined as the criterion of comparison.65(2. Tm = 1. (c) Economically. 24.0 hours and the batch size = 300 parts. Conclusion: it is better to take the benefit of a cutting fluid in the form of increased cutting speed. cost/in 3 = 0. (b) Tmin = (1/. and Co = $30/hr = $0.6 ft/min to give a 43 min tool life. Tt = 2. The ideal roughness is given by Eq.26 = 900[.00))].846 x 2. and operator and machine rate = $30/hr.77/pc (d) Time to complete batch = 3.. Use 1.9 passes/tool life Since there are two passes/workpiece.36 + 1. Cutting speed used in the operation is v = 125 ft/min.00)/2. (1) cutting at a speed of 140.6) 8 = 43 min.26 As indicated in Section 24.5 min.5 in 3 between tool changes.36) + (0.2 to convert the 63 µ-in actual roughness to an ideal roughness. For T = 110 min.65/. np = 2.0/(140. Ignore effects of workpart handling time.50(. Tm = 1.1) and an adjustment will have to be made using Figure 24.65 = 2. Ignoring work handling time.65 x 1. vmin = 900[.6667) + (0.45 = 7.65/(2. cost/in 3 = 0. Disposable inserts are used at a cost of $1.846(2. With a cutting fluid. or (2) cutting at 125 ft/min to give a 110 min tool life.0 = 110 min (c) Which is better. how long will it take to complete the batch? Solution: (a) Co = $39/hr = $0.63 min/pc. np = 11.5927 = 72.00)/164.27 In a turning operation on ductile steel.cycle. the Taylor tool life equation parameters are n = 0.125 = (1.341/in3.50 x 2.65/((1/.6/2. At v = 125 ft/min.75 per cutting edge (each insert costs $7. Feed = 0.26 .125 and C = 225.5927 min.00)/72.50/min.0 in3/MRR = 1.0)/.

23 = 40.5 = 0. Thus.55 = 40.14): Tc = Th + πDL/fv + (CoTt + Ct)(πDLv1/n-1)/fC1/n Tc = Th + (πDL/f)v-1 + (CoTt + Ct)(πDL/fC1/n)v1/n-1 dTc/dv = 0 .23 f 0.6{0. C = vT0.2.9).0 in and its diameter = 3.4 x 10-6) in. Iteration 1: assume Ri = Ra = 63 µ-in.(πDL/f)v-2 + (1/n – 1)(TtπDL/fC1/n)v1/n-2 = 0 (πDL/f)v-2 = (1/n – 1)(TtπDL/fC1/n)v1/n-2 = 0 (πDL/f) = (1/n – 1)(Tt πDL/fC1/n)v1/n 1 = (1/n – 1)(Tt /C1/n)v1/n v1/n = C1/n/[(1/n-1)Tt] vmax = C/[(1/n-1)Tt]n 24.5 in.23))(0. Tt = (3(25)+45)/4 = 30 sec = 0.2 = 63/1. (24.75/0.00725 in.insert = 25 sec and to replace an insert every fourth index takes 45 sec.5 ft/min and f = 0.2 rai = 1. min. f2 = 32NR(Ri) = 32(2/64)(53.65 x 0. where T = tool life. = 52.23))(0.2 = 63/1.5 x 10-6) in.75/f0. (24.6{(0. C = vT0.65/(0.E. The Taylor tool life equation for this tool and work combination is given by: vT0. The machine and operator’s rate = $39.4 x 10-6)0.8) results in Eq. = 63 x 10-6 in. 24.5 vmin = 582.75/cutting edge.5 µ-in.2 = 53.8 ft/min Iteration 2: At v = 337.2 = 52.5{0.09357}0.55 = 40.00 per hour including applicable overheads. (24.8 ft/min. in/rev.18 = 53.4(10-6) in.2 = 52.14) results in Eq.5 = 0.75.23 = 609.65 x 0.65/(0.23 = 40.00731 = 609.55 = 40.75/f0.8): Tc = Th + πDL/fv + Tt(πDLv1/n-1)/fC1/n Tc = Th + (πDL/f)v-1 + (TtπDL/fC1/n)v1/n-1 dTc/dv = 0 . f2 = 32NR(Ri) = 32(2/64)(63 x 10-6) in.2 f = (52.5{0.00794 in.15). Ri = Ra/1.2 ft/min.23 = 582./rev for turning) C = vT0.5 = 0.75/0.55 = 40.5{(0.(πDL/f)v-2 + (1/n – 1)(CoTt + Ct)(πDL/fC1/n)v1/n-2 = 0 (πDL/f)v-2 = (1/n – 1)(CoTt + Ct)(πDL/fC1/n)v1/n-2 = 0 (πDL/f) = (1/n – 1)(CoTt + Ct)πDL/fC1/n)v1/n 1 = (1/n – 1)((CoTt + Ct)/C1/n)v1/n v1/n = C1/n/[(1/n-1)(CoTt + Ct)] 174 .D Verify that the derivative of Eq. Thus.00725 = 612.65/min.23 = 40.5 + 1. Solution: Starting with Eq.5(10-6) in.5 + 1.75)}0.2 rai = 1. ft/min. Ct = $1.4 µ-in.23 = 355. and f = feed. (24.5 vmin = 612.23 = 353.2 = 63(10-6) in. (b) cutting speed for minimum cost per piece at the feed determined in (a).23/(1-0.1).23))(0.00731 in. (24.5 x 10-6)0.65/(0.75)}0.5 min. = 53. Solution: Cost and time parameters: Co = $39/hr = $0.5 ft/min Select v = 353. The workpiece length = 30.2 ft/min Iteration 3: At v = 355.75)}0. (24.0073 in/rev.6 vmin = 609.75/f0.2 f = (53.18. (24. Solve for (a) the feed in in/rev that will achieve the desired actual finish.09357}0.5{(0.23 = 612.29 Q. Hint: to solve (a) and (b) requires and iterative computational procedure. Rearranging Eq.00794 = 582.23/(1-0. (interpreted as in. Ri = Ra/1.65 x 0. Solution: Starting with Eq.4(10-6) in.5(10-6) in. the ratio from Figure 24.23 = 337. v = cutting speed.23/(1-0. f2 = 32NR(Ri) = 32(2/64)(52.09357}0.75/0.28 Verify that the derivative of Eq.5 + 1. the ratio from Figure 24.2 f = (63 x 10-6)0.

vmax = C/[(1/n-1)(CoTt + Ct)]n Q.D 175 .E.

Important reasons include: (1) applications on all types of materials. Wheel grade refers to the wheel's ability to retain abrasive grains during cutting. 25. High temperatures in grinding create surface burns and cracks. A hard wheel is one which retains the abrasive grains. (2) attritious wear.9 What are the three mechanisms of grinding wheel wear? Answer. Answer. The parameters are: (1) abrasive material. in which the grains are pulled out of the bonding material.25 25. 25. (5) shellac. in which a portion of the grain breaks off during cutting. An open structure is one in which the grains are far apart. A soft grade indicates that the grains are released easily from the bonding material. which refers to the relative spacing of grains. (4) resinoid. The mechanisms are: (1) grain fracture.1 25. (2) very fine finishes. (3) bonding material. and (3) close tolerances. High temperatures can also soften the surfaces of workparts that have been heat treated to obtain high hardness.3 What are some of the principal abrasive materials used in grinding wheels? Answer. some are plowing or deforming while others are simply rubbing and creating friction. 176 . (2) silicate.smaller chip size means higher specific energy. (2) silicon carbide. 25.7 Why are specific energy values so much higher in grinding than in traditional metal cutting processes? Answer. (3) rubber. which refers to the bond strength of the wheel in retaining abrasive grains. and (3) bond fracture. How is temperature harmful in grinding? Answer. (3) cubic boron nitride.clay and ceramics. Reasons for higher specific energy in grinding: (1) size effect . 25. and (6) metallic. The bonding materials in grinding wheels are: (1) vitrified bond . in which the grains become dull during cutting. (2) grit size. (2) extremely negative rake angles on the abrasive particles in a grinding wheel.8 Grinding creates high temperatures.5 What is wheel structure? Answer. It indicates the bond strength of the bonding material used to shape the wheel.4 Name some of the principal bonding materials used in grinding wheels. and (3) not all of the grains in the wheel surface are engaged in cutting. and (4) diamond. Review Questions 25.2 GRINDING AND OTHER ABRASIVE PROCESSES Why are abrasive processes technologically and commercially important? Answer. (4) wheel structure. What are the five principal parameters of a grinding wheel? Answer. The principal abrasive grit materials include: (1) aluminum oxide.6 What is wheel grade? Answer. and (5) wheel grade. Wheel structure indicates the relative spacing of the abrasive grains in the wheel. 25. 25. and a dense structure indicates that the grains are close together.

which has the highest hardness? (a) aluminum oxide. Truing is similar to dressing.several thousand times higher than conventional grinding . 177 . Centerless grinding is a grinding operation in which cylindrical workparts (e.13 What abrasive material would one select for grinding a cemented carbide cutting tool? Answer. the depth of cut is very high . lapping. buffing. and to remove chips of work material that have become clogged in the wheel. but it also restores the ideal cylindrical shape to the wheel. 25. 25. (2) remove heat. (c) shaping. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point. Choose a diamond wheel. 25. (b) cubic boron nitride.2 Of the following abrasive materials. all correct answers must be given. or (d) turning.17 Name some of the abrasive operations available to achieve very good surface finishes. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers. and polishing. Instead of a grinding wheel. superfinishing. Functions of a grinding fluid are: (1) reduce friction. (b) milling.g. What are the functions of a grinding fluid? Answer.16 How does abrasive belt grinding differ from a conventional surface grinding operation? Answer. It uses a diamond-pointed tool fed slowly and precisely across the wheel while it rotates. in reference to grinding wheels? Answer.1 Which of the following conventional machining processes is closest to grinding (one answer)? (a) drilling. Parts are pressed against the belt to accomplish grinding. in reference to grinding wheels? Answer.14 What is centerless grinding? Answer.12 25. 25.10 What is dressing. It uses a rotating disk or abrasive stick held against the wheel while it rotates. since each correct answer is worth 1 point. 25.15 How does creep feed grinding differ from conventional grinding? Answer.and the feed rates are lower by the same proportion. To attain a perfect score on the quiz.25. or (c) silicon carbide. High finish abrasive processes include: honing. (3) wash away chips. Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 17 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct). and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point. (b) 25. and (4) reduce workpiece temperature. abrasive belt grinding uses abrasive particles bonded to a flexible cloth belt loop which is moved through a pulley system to obtain the speed motion.11 What is truing.. 25. Answer. In creep feed grinding. 25. For each question. Answer. Dressing is a procedure applied to worn grinding wheels to break off dull grits and expose fresh grits. rods) are fed between two rotating wheels: (1) a high speed grinding wheel and (2) a low speed regulating wheel which is tilted at a slight angle to control the feed-through rate.

Answer. (b) 25.3 Smaller grain size in a grinding wheel tends to do which one of the following? (a) improve surface finish, (b) have no effect on surface finish, or (c) degrade surface finish. Answer. (a) 25.4 Which of the following would tend to give higher material removal rates? (a) larger grain size, or (b) smaller grain size. Answer. (a) 25.5 Which of the following will improve surface finish in grinding (more than one)? (a) higher wheel speed, (b) larger infeed, (c) lower wheel speed, (d) lower work speed. Answer. (a) and (d). 25.6 Which of the following abrasive materials is most appropriate for grinding steel and cast iron (one best answer)? (a) aluminum oxide, (b) cubic boron nitride, (c) diamond, or (d) silicon carbide. Answer. (a) 25.7 Which of the following abrasive materials is most appropriate for grinding hardened tool steel (one best answer)? (a) aluminum oxide, (b) cubic boron nitride, (c) diamond, or (d) silicon carbide. Answer. (b) 25.8 Which of the following abrasive materials is most appropriate for grinding nonferrous metals (one best answer)? (a) aluminum oxide, (b) cubic boron nitride, (c) diamond, or (d) silicon carbide. Answer. (d) 25.9 Which of the following will help to reduce the incidence of heat damage to the work surface in grinding (more than one)? (a) frequent dressing or truing of the wheel, (b) higher infeeds, (c) higher work speeds, or (d) lower wheel speeds. Answer. (a), (c), and (d). 25.10 Which of the following abrasive processes achieves the best surface finish (one best answer)? (a) centerless grinding, (b) honing, (c) lapping, or (d) superfinishing. Answer. (d) 25.11 Which of the following abrasive processes could be used to finish a hole or internal bore (more than one)? (a) centerless grinding, (b) honing, (c) cylindrical grinding, (d) lapping, or (e) superfinishing. Answer. (a), (b), and (c). 25.12 The term deep grinding refers to which of the following (one best answer)? (a) alternative name for any creep feed grinding operation, (b) external cylindrical creep feed grinding, (c) grinding operation performed at the bottom of a hole, (d) surface grinding which uses a large crossfeed, or (e) surface grinding which uses a large infeed. Answer. (b)

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Problems

25.1 In a surface grinding operation the wheel diameter = 150 mm and the infeed = 0.07 mm. The wheel speed = 1450 m/min, work speed = 0.25 m/s, and the cross-feed = 5 mm. The number of active grits per area of wheel surface C = 0.75 grits/mm2. Determine: (a) average length per chip, (b) metal removal rate, and (c) number of chips formed per unit time for the portion of the operation when the wheel is engaged in the work. Solution: (a) lc = (150 x 0.07) 0.5 = 3.24 mm (b) MRR = vwwd = (0.25 m/s)(103 mm/m)(5.0 mm)(0.07 mm) = 87.5 mm3/s = 5250 mm3/min (c) nc = vwC = (1450 m/min)( 103 mm/m)(5.0 mm)(0.75 grits/mm2) = 5,437,500 chips/min. 25.2 The following conditions and settings are used in a certain surface grinding operation: wheel diameter = 6.0 in, infeed = 0.003 in, wheel speed = 4750 ft/min, work speed = 50 ft/min, and cross-feed = 0.20 in. The number of active grits per square inch of wheel surface C = 500. Determine: (a) the average length per chip, (b) the metal removal rate, and (c) the number of chips formed per unit time for the portion of the operation when the wheel is engaged in the work. Solution: (a) lc = (Dd) 0.5 = (6.0 x 0.003) 0.5 = (0.018) 0.5 = 0.1342 in. (b) MRR = vwwd = (50 x 12)(0.20)(0.003) = 0.36 in3/min. (c) nc = vwC = (4750 x 12)(0.2)(500) = 5,700,000 chips/min. 25.3 An internal cylindrical grinding operation is used to finish an internal bore from an initial diameter of 250.00 mm to a final diameter of 252.5 mm. The bore is 125 mm long. A grinding wheel with an initial diameter of 150.00 mm and a width of 20.00 mm is used. After the operation, the diameter of the grinding wheel has been reduced to 149.75 mm. Determine the grinding ratio in this operation. Solution: GR = (volume of work material removed)/(volume of wheel removed) Volume of work material removed = (π/4)(125)(252.52 – 250.02) = 123,332 mm2 Volume of wheel removed = (π/4)(20)(1502 – 149.752) = 1177 mm2 GR = 123,332/1177 = 104.8 25.4 In a surface grinding operation performed on hardened plain carbon steel, the grinding wheel has a diameter = 200 mm and width = 25 mm. The wheel rotates at 2400 rev/min, with a depth of cut (infeed) = 0.05 mm/pass and a cross-feed = 3.50 mm. The reciprocating speed of the work is 6 m/min, and the operation is performed dry. Determine: (a) the length of contact between the wheel and the work, (b) the volume rate of metal removed. (c) If C = 0.64 active grits/mm2, estimate the number of chips formed per unit time. (d) What is the average volume per chip? (e) If the tangential cutting force on the work = 30 N, compute the specific energy in this operation? Solution: (a) lc = (200 x 0.05) 0.5 = 3.16 mm (b) MRR = vwwd = (6 m/min)(103 mm/m)(3.5 mm)(0.05 mm) = 1050 mm3/min (c) nc = vwC v = NπD = (2400 rev/min)(200π mm/rev) = 1,507,964 mm/min nc = (1,507,964 mm/min)(3.5 mm)(0.64 grits/mm2) = 3,377,840 grits/min (= chips/min). (d) 3,377,840 grits/min. = 3,377,840 chips/min. Average volume per chip = (1050 mm3/min)/( 3,377,840 chips/min) = 0.00031 mm3/chip (e) U = Fcv/MRR

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v = 1,507,964 mm/min = 1,508 m/min U = 30(1508)/1050 = 43.1 N-m/mm3 25.5 An 8-in diameter grinding wheel, 1.0 in wide, is used in a certain surface grinding job performed on a flat piece of heat-treated 4340 steel. The wheel is rotating to achieve a surface speed of 5000 ft/min, with a depth of cut (infeed) = 0.002 in per pass and a cross-feed = 0.15 in. The reciprocating speed of the work is 20 ft/min, and the operation is performed dry. (a) What is the length of contact between the wheel and the work? (b) What is the volume rate of metal removed? (c) If C = 300 active grits/in 2, estimate the number of chips formed per unit time. (d) What is the average volume per chip? (e) If the tangential cutting force on the workpiece = 10 lbs, what is the specific energy calculated for this job? Solution: (a) lc = (Dd) 0.5 = (8 x 0.002) 0.5 = (0.016) 0.5 = 0.1265 in. (b) MRR = vwwd = (20 x 12)(0.15)(0.002) = 0.072 in3/min (c) nc = vwC = (5000 x 12)(0.15)(300) = 2,700,000 chips/min. (d) Avg volume/chip = (0.072 in 3/min)/(2,700,000 chips/min) = 0.000000026 in 3 = 26 x 10 -9 in3. (e) U = Fcv/MRR = 10(5000 x 12)/0.072 = 8,333,333 in-lb/in3 = 21 hp/(in3/min). 25.6 A surface grinding operation is being performed on a 6150 steel workpart (annealed, approximately 200 BHN). The designation on the grinding wheel is 51-C-24-D-5-V-23. The wheel diameter = 7.0 in and its width = 1.00 in. Rotational speed = 3000 rev/min. The depth (infeed) = 0.002 in per pass, and the cross-feed = 0.5 in. Workpiece speed = 20 ft/min. This operation has been a source of trouble right from the beginning. The surface finish is not as good as the 16 µ-in specified on the part print, and there are signs of metallurgical damage on the surface. In addition, the wheel seems to become clogged almost as soon as the operation begins. In short, nearly everything that can go wrong with the job has gone wrong. (a) Determine the rate of metal removal when the wheel is engaged in the work. (b) If the number of active grits per square inch = 200, determine the average chip length and the number of chips formed per time. (c) What changes would you recommend in the grinding wheel to help solve the problems encountered? Explain why you made each recommendation. Solution: (a) MRR = vwwd = (20 x 12)(0.5)(0.002) = 0.24 in3/min. (b) lc = (Dd) 0.5 = (7.0 x .002) 0.5 = 0.1183 in. v = πDN = π(7.0/12)(3000) = 5498 ft/min = 65,973 in/min nc = vwC = 65,973(0.5)(200) = 6,597,300 grits/min (c) Changes in wheel to help solve problems cited: (1) use Al2O3 oxide abrasive rather than silicon carbide; (2) use smaller grain size that 24; (3) use shellac bond rather than vitifried bond; (4) use more open structure than number 5 to reduce wheel clogging. 25.7 The grinding wheel in a centerless grinding operation has a diameter = 200 mm, and the regulating wheel diameter = 125 mm. The grinding wheel rotates at 3000 rev/min and the regulating wheel rotates at 200 rev/min. The inclination angle of the regulating wheel = 2.5°. Determine the throughfeed rate of cylindrical workparts that are 25.0 mm in diameter and 175 mm long. Solution: From Eq. (25.11), fr = πDrNr sin I fr = π(125)(200) sin 2.5° = 25,000π(0.04362) = 3426 mm/min Parts throughfeed rate = (3426 mm/min)/(175 mm/pc) = 19.58 pc/min

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25.8

A centerless grinding operation uses a regulating wheel that is 150 mm in diameter and rotates at 500 rev/min. At what inclination angle should the regulating wheel be set, if it is desired to feed a workpiece with length = 3.5 m and diameter = 18 mm through the operation in exactly 45 sec. Solution: From Eq. (25.11), fr = πDrNr sin I fr = 3.5 m per 45 sec = 0.077778 m/s = 4.1667 m/min fr = π(150 x 10-3)(500 rev/min) sin I = 235.62 sin I (units are m/min) 4.1667 m/min = 235.62 sin I m/min sin I = 4.1667/235.62 = 0.0198 I = 1.135° °

25.9

In a certain centerless grinding operation, the grinding wheel diameter = 8.5 in, and the regulating wheel diameter = 5.0 in. The grinding wheel rotates at 3500 rev/min and the regulating wheel rotates at 150 rev/min. The inclination angle of the regulating wheel = 3 degrees. Determine the throughfeed rate of cylindrical workparts that have the following dimensions: diameter = 1.25 in and length = 8.0 in. Solution: From Eq. (25.11), fr = πDrNr sin I = π(5.0)(150) sin 3° = 123.33 in/min. Parts feed at (8.0 in/part)/(123.33 in/min) = 0.0649 min/part = 3.9 sec/part

25.10

It is desired to compare the cycle times required to grind a particular workpiece using traditional surface grinding and using creep feed grinding. The workpiece is 200 mm long, 30 mm wide, and 75 mm thick. To make a fair comparison, the grinding wheel in both cases is 250 mm in diameter, 35 mm in width, and rotates at 1500 rev/min. It is desired to remove 25 mm of material from the surface. When traditional grinding is used, the infeed is set at 0.025 mm, and the wheel traverses twice (forward and back) across the work surface during each pass before resetting the infeed. There is no cross-feed since the wheel width is greater than the work width. Each pass is made at a work speed of 12 m/min, but the wheel overshoots the part on both sides. With acceleration and deceleration, the wheel is engaged in the work for 50% of the time on each pass. When creep feed grinding is used, the depth is increased by 1000 and the forward feed is decreased by 1000. How long will it take to complete the grinding operation (a) with traditional grinding and (b) with creep feed grinding? Solution: (a) Conventional surface grinding: Time of engagement/pass = 200 x 10-3 m/(12 m/min) = 0.01667 min = 1 s Forward and backward stroke = 2(1 s)/50% = 4 s Number of passes to remove 25 mm = 25/0.025 = 1000 passes Time to complete 1000 passes = 1000(4) = 4000 s = 66.67 min. (b) Creep feed grinding: Total length of feed = 200 mm + approach = 200 + (d(D-d))0.5 Given D = 250 mm and d = 25 mm, Total feed length = 200 + (25(250-25))0.5 = 275 mm fr = (12 x 103 mm/min)/1000 = 12 mm/min Time to feed = 275/12 = 22.917 min. Note: Creep feed grinding requires about 1/3 the time of conventional surface grinding for the situation defined here.

25.11

In a certain grinding operation, the grade of the grinding wheel should be “M” (medium), but the only available wheel is grade “T” (hard). It is desired to make the wheel appear softer by making changes in cutting conditions. What changes would you recommend? Solution: A hard wheel means that the grains are not readily pulled from the wheel bond. The wheel can be made to appear softer by increasing the force on the individual grits as given by Eq.

181

(25.8). According to this equation, the force on the abrasive grains will be increased by increasing work speed vw, decreasing wheel speed v, and increasing infeed d. 25.12 An aluminum alloy is to be ground in an external cylindrical grinding operation to obtain a good surface finish. Specify the appropriate grinding wheel parameters and the grinding conditions for this job. Solution: Grinding wheel specification: Abrasive type: silicon carbide Grain size: small - high grit size number Bond material: shellac bond Wheel structure: dense Wheel grade: medium to hard Wheel specification: XX-S-150-E-5-B-XY Grinding conditions: Wheel speed: high speed, around 1800 m/min (6000 ft/min) Work speed: low, around 10 m/min (30 ft/min) Infeed (depth of cut): low, around 0.012 mm (0.0005 in.) Crossfeed: low, around 1/6 of wheel width. 25.13 A high speed steel broach (hardened) is to be resharpened to achieve a good finish. Specify the appropriate parameters of the grinding wheel for this job. Solution: Grinding wheel specification: Abrasive type: cubic boron nitride Grain size: small - high grit size number Bond material: vitrified bond Wheel grade: soft to medium Wheel specification: XX-B-150-P-XY-V-XZ-1/8, where XX, XY, and XZ are manufacturer’s symbols. 25.14 Based on equations in the text, derive an equation to compute the average volume per chip formed in the grinding process. Solution: From Eq. (25.3), MRR = vwwd (in3/min) From Eq. (25.6), nc = vwC (chips/min) Volume per chip = MRR/nc = vwwd/vwC = v wd/vC

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(2) electrical. Overcut refers to the difference between the size of the electrode (tool) in EDM and the size of the machined hole. 26. and abrasive jet cutting? Answer. cavity. 26. Answer. abrasive water jet cutting. Reasons for importance are: (1) need to shape new metal alloys and non-metals that are difficult to machine by conventional processes. based on principal energy form. and AJM cuts with abrasive particles that have been added to a high velocity air stream. abrasives contained in a slurry are driven at high velocity against the work by a tool vibrating at low amplitude and high frequency. Answer. and is fed slowly into the work. As discharge current increases. In ultrasonic machining.9 What is meant by the term overcut in electric discharge machining? Answer. The four categories are: (1) mechanical. but not including conventional machining.4 Describe the water jet cutting process. so that the shape of the tool is formed in the part. (2) unusual and complex workpart geometries. (3) thermal.8 How does increasing discharge current affect metal removal rate and surface finish in electric discharge machining? Answer. Water jet cutting uses a high-pressure. WJC cuts with a narrow. The abrasives. The three types are: electrochemical machining. MRR increases and surface finish is degraded.5 What is the difference between water jet cutting. Disadvantages of ECM include: (1) cost of electrical power to operate the process. or kerf (in wire EDM). 26. high-velocity stream of water directed at the work surface to cut of the work. The tool oscillates in a direction perpendicular to the work surface.3 How does the ultrasonic machining process work? Answer. high velocity water stream. Name the four categories. Answer. deburring. 26. 26.1 Why are the nontraditional material removal processes important? Answer. perform the cutting. AWJC adds abrasive grits to the water stream.2 There are four categories of nontraditional machining processes. and (4) chemical. and (3) need to avoid surface damage which is often associated with conventional machining. 26. Answer. impinging against the work surface. 26.7 Name the three main types of electrochemical machining. Identify the significant disadvantages of electrochemical machining.10 Identify two major disadvantages of plasma arc cutting. and (2) cost of disposal of electrolyte sludge.6 26.26 NONTRADITIONAL MACHINING AND THERMAL CUTTING PROCESSES Review Questions 26. 26. 183 . and grinding.

(a) 26. and (f) wire EDM. (b) 26. What is a photoresist in chemical machining? Answer. (c) and (d). and (e) cutting of plastic sheets. propane. (b) making intricate patterns in sheet metal.000°F). 26.12 26. and (2) metallurgical damage to cut surface. Answer.1 Which of the following processes use mechanical energy as the principal energy source (may be more than one)? (a) grinding. When exposed.11 What are some of the fuels used in oxyfuel cutting. MAPP (methylacetylene-propadiene). What are the three methods of performing the masking step in chemical machining.13 26. and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point.000°F).14 Name the four principal steps in chemical machining. (b) 5500°C (10. The three steps are: (1) cut and peel. (2) masking. To attain a perfect score on the quiz. (e) water jet cutting. (d) ultrasonic machining. (d). Answer. Answer. propylene. and (4) demasking.Answer. Two disadvantages are: (1) rough surface on cut edge.2 Ultrasonic machining can be used to machine both metallic and nonmetallic materials: (a) true or (b) false. leaving the desired surface unprotected by the maskant. since each correct answer is worth 1 point. For each question.5 Chemical milling is used in which of the following (may be more than one)? (a) drilling holes with high depth-to.diameter ratio. Answer.3 Applications of electron beam machining are limited to metallic work materials due to the need for the work to be electrically conductive: (a) true or (b) false. (c) 8300°C (15. 184 . (3) etching. Answer. (c) removing material to make shallow pockets in metal. (c).000°F). Answer. 26. all correct answers must be given. (2) screen resist.000°F). and (e). Answer. The four steps are: (1) cleaning. 26. Answer. (a). (d) 26. Principal fuels are acetylene. Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 18 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct). it chemically transforms and can be removed from the surface of the work. (d) removing metal from aircraft wing panels. (b) laser beam machining.4 Which one of the following is closest to the temperatures used in plasma arc cutting? (a) 2750°C (5000°F). and (3) photographic resist. (c) milling.000°C (20.500°C (30. A photoresist is a masking material that is sensitive to light. and natural gas 26. (d) 11. (e) 16. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers.

(b) An engraved aluminum printing plate to be used in an offset printing press to make 275 by 350 mm (11 by 14 in) posters of Lincoln's Gettysburg address.5 mm (0.0 by 5. 185 . The matrix is rectangular. The size of the "L" is 25 by 15 mm (1. less than 0. (b) chemical milling. and (g) wire EDM. 75 by 125 mm (3. (e) oxyfuel cutting. (e) plasma arc cutting. (d) laser beam machining.1 mm (0. (e) and (g). identify one or more nontraditional machining processes that might be used. C = specific removal rate. (b) chemical milling.6 Etch factor is which of the following in chemical machining (more than one)? (a) A. Of the following processes. (b) 1/A.004 in) diameter holes in a plate of 3. and (g) wire EDM. Answer. and (g) wire EDM.1 For each of the following applications.11 Problems General 26. (c) C I t. and present arguments to support your selection. (f) water jet cutting. (c) EDM. I = current.inch thick sheet of fiber-reinforced plastic (more than one)? (a) abrasive jet machining. (d) laser beam machining. (c) Which of the following processes would be appropriate for cutting a narrow slot. Answer. (c) EDM.8 mm (0.0 by 0. (a) A matrix of 0. (c) laser beam machining.7 26.8 26. Answer. and (g) wire EDM. (d) Which of the following processes could be used to cut a large piece of 1/2-inch plate steel into two sections (more than one)? (a) abrasive jet machining.0625 in). (c) EDM. (e) oxyfuel cutting. in a 3/8. (d) A blind-hole in the shape of the letter G in a 50 mm (2.15 in). the depth of the hole is 3. (f) water jet cutting. (d) laser beam machining.26. (f) ultrasonic machining.6 mm ( 0.0 in) cube of steel. (c) A through-hole in the shape of the letter L in a 12.25 inch on a side and 1-inch deep in a steel workpiece (one best answer)? (a) abrasive jet machining.10 26. Answer. Answer. (f) water jet cutting. (d) d/u. (e) oxyfuel cutting. (d) oxyfuel cutting. and u = undercut. (e) oxyfuel cutting. and (g) water jet cutting. (d) and (f). which one is noted for the highest material removal rates? (a) electric discharge machining. (c) EDM. Answer. (e) Which of the following processes would be appropriate to drill a hole with a square cross-section. and its width is 3 mm (1/8 in).6 in) and the width of the hole is 3 mm (1/8 in). (b) electrochemical machining. (a) and (d). (b) chemical milling.2 mm (0.125 in) thick hardened tool steel.75 in). (d) laser beam machining. 0. Which of the following processes would be appropriate for cutting a hole of 0. (f) water jet cutting. Assume that either the part geometry or the work material (or both) preclude the use of conventional machining.9 26. 26. (b) chemical milling.0 by 0. and (e) u/d.0 in) with the separation between holes in each direction = 1. where A = degree of anisotropy.015 inch wide.5 in) thick plate of glass. The overall size of the "G" is 25 by 19 mm (1. t = time.003 inch diameter through a plate of aluminum that is 1/16-inch thick (one best answer)? (a) abrasive jet machining. d = depth of cut.

5 In an electrochemical machining operation. Possible process: photochemical engraving. Rearranging.2 mm3/min (b) Given resistivity r = 140 ohm-mm. (c) Application: through-hole in the shape of the letter “L” drilled through 0.6) MRR = frA = (CI/A)A = CI = (3. g = EA/Ir g = (12 V)(2000 mm2)/(1800 A)(140 ohm-mm) = 0. (d) Application: the letter “G” drilled to a depth of 0. Possible processes: ECM and EDM would be useful for pocketing operations such as this.1. by 14 in posters.42 x 10-2 mm3/A-s From Eq. This is probably the best process.125/0.4 The frontal working area of the electrode is 2000 mm2 in a certain ECM operation in which the applied current = 1800 amps and the voltage = 12 volts. (26. Possible processes: EBM and LBM can make holes of this size with depth-to-diameter ratios as large as 0. C = 3. whose specific removal rate C is given in Table 26.15 in. The material being cut is pure aluminum. Electrochemical Machining 26. whose specific removal rate C is indicated in Table 26. Solution: In plasma arc cutting. the frontal working area of the electrode is 2.5 inch thick plate glass.56 mm3/s = 3693.42 x 10-2 mm3/A-s)(1800 A) = 6156 x 10-2 mm3/s = 61.25. What nontraditional process(es) would you recommend to the company for this application? Justify your answer by indicating the characteristics of the process that make it attractive. (b) Application: engraved aluminum printing press plate for 11 in. (26. which properties make them difficult to cut. Possible process: USM works on glass and other brittle non-metallic materials.0625 in. determine the working gap? Solution: (a) From Table 26. but production is slow and scrap rates are high. in block of steel. What do you think? Justify your answer by indicating the characteristics of the process that make PAC attractive or unattractive in this application. 26. and the process could be readily automated.3 A furniture company that makes upholstered chairs and sofas must cut large quantities of fabrics.5 in 2.Solution: (a) Application: matrix of holes in 0. and the voltage = 12 volts. The foreman says the company should invest in a plasma arc cutting machine.125 inch thick hardened steel.6 mm3/min) = 3324. The material being cut is nickel (valence = 2).1.. hole diameter = 0. LBM might also work.004 in. The applied current = 1500 amps.2 Much of the work at the Cut-Anything Company involves cutting and forming of flat sheets of fiber-glass for the pleasure boat industry. Many of these fabrics are strong and wear-resistant. the workpart must be an electrically conductive material.095 mm 26. Fiber glass is not electrically conductive. Solution: Water jet cutting would be an ideal process for this application. making a negative of the speech and transferring this to either a silk screen or directly to the photoresist would seem to be the most straightforward methods. WJC cuts through fabrics quickly and cleanly.004 = 31.2). I = EA/gr in Eq. (a) If the ECM process is 90 percent 186 .6 mm3/min At 90% efficiency MRR = 0. (a) If the process is 90% efficient. separation between holes = 0. (b) If the resistivity of the electrolyte = 140 ohm-mm. 26.9(3693.1. determine the rate of metal removal in mm3/min. Manual methods based on portable saws are currently used to perform the cutting operation. PAC is therefore not an appropriate process for this application. but the plant manager thinks it would be too expensive.

187 .5)/(1500 x 6. what current will be required to complete the cutting operation in 20 minutes? Solution: Electrode frontal gap area A = 0.23) = 13. determine how long it will take to cut the hole.7). The overcut is expected to be 0.005 in on a side. Use U. (b) I = EA/gr. the electrode tool will have a center hole of 3. Rearranging.0000529 I in/min at 100% efficiency. 26. but the electrode that is used to cut the hole is slightly less that 25 mm on its sides to allow for overcut.2) = 0.0/20 = 0.146 = 0.1 = 0.0 in thick.95(0. The outside diameter of the electrode is undersized to allow for overcut. Solution: From Table 26.5997 mm3/s = 2159 mm3 (b) From Table 4.553 in 2 From Table 26.349 mm/s Time to machine = (20 mm)/(0.3675 mm/s) = 0.0000476 I in/min. MRR = KI/Tm1.23 = 664(20)/(34101. (26. determine the amount of material removed in the same time.3. Customary units and express the answer in in 3.280/812 = 16. The hole is 25 mm on each side. MRR = KI/Tm1.5 in diameter through-hole is to be cut in a block of pure iron (Valence = 2) by electrochemical machining. (b) If the work material were tin.1.0 inch thickness in 20 minutes requires a feed rate fr = 2.52 .0000476 I I = 0. fr = 0. Tm = 3410°C for tungsten From Eq. This tool design results in a frontal area of 200 mm2.9 Same as Problem 26. g = EA/Ir = 12(2. The block is 2. Solution: (a) From Table 4.0032 in.0000529 I) = 0.1.efficient.23 = 664(20)/(2321. Electric Discharge Machining 26.90) = 0. Using an efficiency of 95%. (a) Determine the amount of metal removed in the operation after one hour at a discharge amperage = 20 amps.7).000126(1500) = 0.206 in3/hr.1 in/min.1.3 s 26.8 An electric discharge machining operation is being performed on tungsten.35 x 10-2 mm3/A-s From Eq. except the new material to be compared with tungsten is zinc.7 A 3.000126 in 3/A-min.6 A square hole is to be cut using ECM through a plate of pure copper (valence = 1) that us 20 mm thick.23) = 13. Tm = 232°C for tin From Eq.1/0. fr = CI/A = 0.3675 mm/s At 95% efficiency. (26. fr = 0. To cut through a 2.1701 in 3/min = 10.35 x 10-2 mm3/A-s)(1000 A)/(200 mm2) = 0. and its shape includes a hole in its center to permit the flow of electrolyte and to reduce the area of the cut. C = 0.6) fr = CI/A = (7.000135 I/2.189 in 3/min at 100% efficiency.349 mm/s) = 57.000135 in 3/A-min. If the efficiency of the ECM operation is 90%.S.25π(3.1.878 mm3 26.8.2 ohm-in.553 = 0. determine the working gap? Solution: (a) From Table 26. (26. To speed the cutting process. (b) If the resistivity of the electrolyte = 6. At 90% efficiency MRR = 0.9(0. determine the rate of metal removal in in 3/hr.355 mm3/s = 58. Use metric units and express the answer in mm3. C = 7.0 in which will produce a center core that can be removed after the tool breaks through.02) = 2. C = 0.280/22.0000476 = 2101 A. At 90% efficiency fr = 0.189(0. MRR = fr x A = (CI/A)(A) = CI MRR = CI = 0. The applied current = 1000 amps.1.

7).23 = 5. how long would it take to cut the hole? Solution: For EDM.24)/26511. using Eq. MRR = 5. what is the allowable feed rate that can be used in the operation? Estimate the melting temperature of 0.08 I/Tm1. Using a discharge current = 20 amps (which would be typical for EDM).00221 in. Time to machine the 2.925 = 0.155 = 42.79 mm/min 26.08(34. in preliminary cuts.23 (USCS).3 min = 14.1.4.Solution: (a) From Table 4. MRR = 5.155 mm2 fr = 49. MRR = KI/Tm1.1.14 A wire EDM operation is used to cut out punch and die components from 25 mm thick tool steel plates. (27.7 were to be cut using EDM rather than ECM.005685 in 3/min Frontal area of kerf = 0.4/1.56/6255 = 0.1. MRR = 664(10)/(15001.0) = 1.1.002293 = 874. Tm = 420°F for Zinc From Eq. From Table 4.23 = 35.0 inch thickness = 2.000292 = 34. 3 26.0107 in3/min 26.6/17.01/0. Tm = 1220°F for aluminum.553 in 2 fr = MRR/A = 0.6/45.01 in 3/min is achieved in a certain EDM operation on a pure iron workpart. 26.7). (26.000292 I in 3/min Given that MRR = 0. Tm = 1500°C for 1080 steel Using Eq. What metal removal rate would be achieved on nickel in this EDM operation.02 mm. Using Eq.01 in 3/min.08 I/28021. (26.23 = 5.553 = 0.11 A metal removal rate of 0.12 In a wire EDM operation performed on 7 mm thick C1080 steel using a tungsten wire electrode whose diameter = 0.01 I = 0.08(20)/28021.0/0.002293 in/min. MRR = 5.57 hr. Solution: From Figure 6. Tm = 2802°F for iron.00584 in 3/min Cross-sectional area of tool from previous problem A = 2. so that the kerf width will be 0. From Table 4.000292 I = 0. what is the expected allowable feed rate that can be used in the operation? Solution: From Table 4.00584/2.80% carbon steel from the phase diagram of Figure 6.1.23) = 101.00525 in 2 fr = 0. Using a discharge current = 10 amps. Past experience suggests that the overcut will be 0.08(20)/(61701.23) = 101.08(7)/12201.08(20)/(4201.005685/0.6/1685 = 0.10 Suppose the hole in Problem 26.23 = 173.165 mm.165(7.1.248 = 0. (26. if the same discharge current were used? Solution: From Table 4.0603 in. so that the kerf width will be 0.005 in.13 A wire EDM operation is to be performed on a slab of 3/4 in thick aluminum using a brass wire electrode whose diameter = 0.93/16. 3/s = 0.007 in.7).393 = 0.8233 mm3/s Frontal area of kerf = 0. It is anticipated that the overcut will be 0.007) = 0.23 = 101. Tm = 2802°F for iron.083 in/min. What changes in discharge current and frequency of discharges should be made to improve the finish? 188 .00525 = 1. the surface finish on the cut edge is poor.4. MRR = 5.23 = 5.62 in.75(0.1327 in.08 I/17. MRR = KI/Tm1. 0.24 A. Tm = 2651 F for iron.23) = 6640/8065 = 0. 26. MRR = 5.001 in. Tm = 6170°F for tungsten From Eq. However.7).393 = 0. 3 (b) From Table 4.125 mm. Using a discharge current = 7 amps. 3/s = 3.7). (26.

0 = 0.0. and the process should be changed over to adopt this method. "Perhaps the concentration is incorrect. Solution: (a) Neglecting the fact that the initial area would be less than the given dimensions of 9 in.9(a).8 in Maskant opening b’ = b – u = 6. (c) Given Fe = 1.28 mm Maskant opening width = W – 2u = 200 – 2(6. by 6 in.65 in 2) = 0.4 in.4/2. undercut u = d/Fe = 0.17 In a certain chemical blanking operation.14 mm 26. and that the material removal rate (MRR) would therefore increase during the cut as the area increased. Analyze the problem and recommend a solution. (c) required dimensions of the opening in cut and peel maskant required to achieve the desired pocket size on the part." he suggests.75 = 6. A solution of hydrochloric and nitric acids will be used as the etchant. The screen resist method of masking was used to permit high production rates to be achieved.15 Chemical milling is used in an aircraft plant to create pockets in wing sections made of an aluminum alloy.0 – 0. (b) Time to machine (etch) = 12/0.86) = 386. The part is an aluminum alloy and the etchant is NaOH. Solution: (a) Neglecting the fact that the initial area would be less than the given dimensions of 200 mm by 400 mm.Solution: As indicated in Figure 26. The semiaxes of the ellipse are: a = 9. the process is producing a large proportion of scrap. The foreman in the CHM department complains that there must be something wrong with the sulfuric acid. Determine: (a) metal removal rate in mm3/min. A = 200 x 400 – (30 x 30 . undercut u = d/Fe = 12/1.807 mm2) = 1915.18 in3/hr (b) Time to machine (etch) = 0. (c) Given Fe = 2. 189 . = 6.4/0.0 in and b = 6.π(15) 2) = 80.2 = 8.86) = 186. it is desired to cut an ellipse-shaped pocket to a depth of 0. The starting thickness of one workpart of interest is 20 mm.86 mm Maskant opening length = L – 2u = 400 – 2(6.001 = 400 min. Chemical Machining 26. = 8. (b) time required to machine to the specified depth. surface finish in EDM could be improved by reducing discharge current and increasing frequency of discharges.025 mm are not being achieved. Specified tolerances of ±0.33 hr. A series of rectangular-shaped pockets 12 mm deep are to be formed with dimensions 200 mm by 400 mm. and that the material removal rate (MRR) would therefore increase during the cut as the area increased. Solution: The problem in this chemical blanking operation is that the screen resist method of masking cannot achieve the tolerances specified.75.75. a sulfuric acid etchant is used to remove material from a sheet of magnesium alloy.4 mm3/min. The penetration rate for this combination is 0.16965 in 3/min = 10. 2 MRR = (0.0)(6. Determine: (a) metal removal rate in in3/hr.16 In a chemical milling operation on a flat mild steel plate.0 – 0.86 = 8.67 hr. (b) time required to machine to depth.024 mm/min and the etch factor is 1.807 mm2 MRR = (0.001 in/min)(169..65 in. The sheet is 0. The photoresist method should have been used.25 mm thick.024 mm/min)(79. area of an ellipse A = πab = π(9. (c) required dimensions of the opening in the cut and peel maskant to achieve the desired pocket size on the part.2 mm Maskant opening a’ = a – u = 9.0) = 54π = 169. The corners of each rectangle are radiused to 15 mm.8 in 26.000 – 193 = 79. As it turns out.024 = 500 min.2 = 5.0 in.28 mm Radius on corners = R – u = 15 – 6.

0043) = 0.0075 in. 190 .0914 in.26. determine the diameter of the holes that should be used in the pattern.100 . Undercut u = 0.015 in. The pattern to be cut out of the sheet is a hole pattern. Therefore.2(0.18 In a chemical blanking operation.0075/1. Solution: From Table 26.2. In chemical blanking. If photochemical machining is used to cut these holes. etching will occur on both sides of the part. and contact printing is used to make the resist (maskant) pattern. consisting of a matrix of 0. stock thickness of the aluminum sheet is 0.015/2 = 0. Diameter of opening = 0.75 = 0.100 in diameter holes.75. the effective hole depth on each side = one-half of the stock thickness = 0. Fe = 1.0043 in.

4 What is the most important heat treatment for hardening steels? Answer.2 HEAT TREATMENT OF METALS Why are metals heat treated? Answer. 27. martensite is formed which depends on the presence of carbon to create the nonequilibrium structure of this phase. (3) recrystallize cold-worked metals. 27. Important hardenability elements are: chromium. Metals are heat treated to effect metallurgical changes that beneficially alter properties. 27. Answer. 191 . Review Questions 27.3 27. 27.27 27. Precipitation hardening is a heat treatment in which very fine particles (precipitates) are formed so that dislocation movement is blocked and the metal is thus strengthened and hardened. 27. Answer. molybdenum.8 27. Hardenability is the relative capacity of a steel to be hardened by transformation to martensite. and increase toughness and ductility.9 Name some of the elements which have the greatest effect on the hardenability of steel. Tempering involves heating and soaking of martensite for about one hour. and (4) relieve stresses from prior metal working. manganese.7 Define hardenability? Answer. thereby transforming the surface into high-C steel for grater hardening potential. thereby permitting slower cooling rates for conversion of austenite to martensite. and nickel.1 27. followed by slow cooling to reduce brittleness.carbon phase diagram will be produced under various conditions of cooling. 27. relieve stresses. If the steel is heat treated. The TTT curve indicates what phases in the iron. Indicate how the hardenability alloying elements in steel affect the TTT curve. The purposes of annealing include: (1) control properties.5 What information is conveyed by the TTT curve? Answer.12 Identify the selective surface hardening methods. What is the mechanism by which carbon strengthens steel during heat treatment? Answer. Carburizing adds carbon to the surface of low-C steel. Identify the important reasons why metals are annealed.10 Define precipitation hardening? Answer.11 How does carburizing work? Answer. The hardenability alloying elements operate by pushing the nose of the TTT curve to the right. Answer. Martensite formation by heating steel into the austenite region and quenching.6 What function is served by tempering? Answer. (2) reduce brittleness and improve toughness. 27.

and (d). (b). (b) fluidized bed furnaces. (b) brine.4 The treatment in which the brittleness of martensite is reduced is called which one of the following? (a) aging. (b) brass. Answer. 192 . (b) quenching. (b) carbonitriding.3 On which one of the following metals can the treatment called austenitizing be performed? (a) aluminum alloys. (c) hardenability. (b) 27. (c) recrystallization of the metal. since each correct answer is worth 1 point. or (f) relieve stresses.8 Which of the following are selective surface hardening methods (more than one)? (a) electron beam heating. (e) quenching. (c). Answer. Answer. (d) laser beam heating. (b) increase toughness. 27. (c) The reader might be tempted to select (d) because the Jominy test indicates hardness. (b) ductility. or (c) solution treatment. Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 14 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct). (c) 27. (c) copper alloys. induction hardening. For each question. (d) reduce brittleness. (e) reduce density. and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point. (c) oil.6 In precipitation hardening. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers. (f) 27. (c) austenitizing. electron beam (EB) heating. (a). and laser beam (LB) heating.5 The Jominy end-quench test is designed to indicate which one of the following? (a) cooling rate. or (e) nitriding. (b) annealing. Answer. (d) hardness. the reason for measuring hardness in the Jominy test is to measure hardenability. all correct answers must be given. (a) 27. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point. (c) carburizing.Answer. To attain a perfect score on the quiz. Answer. 27. or (d) pure water. the hardening and strengthening of the metal occurs in which one of the following steps (one answer only)? (a) aging. (d).1 Which of the following are the usual objectives of heat treatment (more than one)? (a) increase hardness.7 Which one of the following surface hardening treatments is the most common? (a) boronizing. The selective surface hardening methods include: flame hardening. which one produces the most rapid cooling rate? (a) air.2 Of the following quenching media. (c) induction heating. and (f). or (e) vacuum furnaces. (d) chromizing. (a). or (e) strength. or (d) steel. high-frequency (HF) resistance heating. Answer. 27. however. (d) normalizing. Answer. (c). or (f) tempering. (d) 27. Answer.

8 What is the difference between diffusion and ion implantation? Answer.28 CLEANING AND SURFACE TREATMENTS Review Questions 28. lapping.2 Mechanical surface treatments are often performed for reasons other than or in addition to cleaning. 28.7 What is meant by the term mass finishing? Answer. rust. Calorizing is the diffusion of aluminum into carbon steel. 28. (3) solvent cleaning. Reasons for mechanical surface treatments include: deburring. alloy steels. and (5) ultrasonic cleaning. What are the reasons? Answer. Basic contaminant types are: (1) oil and grease. and scale. 28. In mass finishing. (2) emulsion cleaning. improving smoothness.9 What is calorizing? Answer. 28.velocity ions into the surface of a substrate material. 28. and the alloys of nickel and cobalt. usually in a barrel by the mixing action of an abrasive media.4 Identify some of the mechanical cleaning methods. (3) buffing and polishing compounds. buffing.1 What are some of the important reasons why manufactured parts must be cleaned? Answer. Answer. and (4) oxide films. Ion implantation produces a similar result.6 Name some of the important chemical cleaning methods. (2) solid particles. The reasons include: (1) to prepare the surface for subsequent industrial processing. (3) to remove contaminants which might chemically react with the surface. (2) to improve hygiene conditions. 28. The chemical cleaning methods can be categorized as follows: (1) alkaline cleaning. Mechanical cleaning methods include: belt grinding. honing.3 What are the basic types of contaminants that must be cleaned from metallic surfaces in manufacturing? Answer. These method also accomplish other functions such as deburring and surface finish improvement. (4) acid cleaning and pickling. 28. and enhancing surface properties. and dust. shop dirt. Shot peening is primarily used to improve the fatigue strength of metals by introducing cold working the metallic surface. and mass finishing (such as barrel tumbling). Diffusion coating is a diffusion process in which atoms or molecules move across a boundary between two contacting materials. 193 . such as metal chips. The process is also known as aluminizing. adding luster. parts are mechanically cleaned and deburred in bulk. abrasive grits.5 In addition to surface cleaning. 28. but the process involves penetration of high. and (4) to enhance product appearance and performance. Answer. polishing. what is the main function performed by shot peening? Answer.

28.8 Carburizing involves which one of the following? (a) acid pickling. (a). (c). which one of the following abrasives is used? (a) Al2O3. 28. (c) sulfuric acid. or (e) SiO 2. (c) to improve hygiene conditions for worker. all correct answers must be given. (b) to enhance mechanical properties of the surface. (b). and (e) SiC. (d) tumbling. Answer. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers. (b). such as barrel tumbling.3 Shot peening is a mechanical cleaning method used primarily to remove surface scale from metallic parts: (a) true or (b) false. To attain a perfect score on the quiz. Answer. Answer. (b) blast finishing. or (d) siliconizing. or (e) to remove contaminants that might chemically attack the surface. (c). 28. (d) SiC.7 Calorizing is the same as which of the following? (a) aluminizing. or (e) vapor degreasing. (a). Answer. Answer.6 Which of the following processes generally produces a deeper penetration of atoms in the impregnated surface? (a) diffusion or (b) ion implantation. (b) sodium hydroxide. (b) Principal function is to cold work the surface to improve fatigue strength. (a) 28.1 Reasons why workparts must be cleaned include which of the following (more than one)? (a) for better appearance. 28.2 Which of the following chemicals is associated with alkaline cleaning (more than one)? (a) borax. Answer. include which of the following (more than one)? (a) Al2O3. and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point. (b) crushed nut shells.Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 16 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct). since each correct answer is worth 1 point. (b) doping. For each question. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point. (c) hot sand blasting. (a). or (d) trichlorethylene. (c) nylon beads. (c) diffusion. and (e). (c) 194 . (d). (a) 28. Answer.4 In sand blasting. (d). (e) 28. (b) corundum. Answer. (d) limestone. (d) to prepare the surface for subsequent processing. (c) emery. 28. and (e).5 The abrasive media used in mass finishing.

Electroless plating uses only chemical reactions to form the plating. (3) vapor deposition processes such as PVD and CVD. and (6) enhanced lubricity of the surface.6 29. 29. electroplating uses electrolysis. A conversion coating is a thin coating produced by chemical reaction of the metallic surface. Parts are also sometimes removed by taking advantage of a difference in coefficient of thermal expansion.2 COATING AND DEPOSITION PROCESSES Why are metals coated? Answer. How is the part removed from a solid mandrel? Answer. that permit the part to be removed. 29. The reasons are: (1) corrosion protection of the substrate metal. and (2) sacrificial protection. (3) provide a specified color. (4) increased electrical conductivity. Answer. A solid mandrel has certain geometric features. (5) porcelain enameling. The mechanisms are (1) barrier protection.1 29. The most common conversion coatings are phosphates. and (4) prepare surface for subsequent processing. in which the coating metal corrodes sacrificially to protect the substrate. (2) attractive appearance. The cathode efficiency is the actual amount of metal deposited on the surface relative to the theoretical amount given by Eq. Review Questions 29. 29. (33. and (6) thermal and mechanical treatments.5 What are the two basic mechanisms of corrosion protection? Answer. such as anodizing.1). 29. The common coating processes are: (1) plating. Best example is aluminum anodizing. and oxides.29 29. Steel. Identify the most common types of coating processes. (4) organic coating painting. (1) Corrosion protection. in which the coating simply covers the substrate to protect it. such as a taper.3 What are the many reasons why a metallic surface is plated? Answer. 29. chromates. (2) enhance appearance. Anodizing uses electrochemical processing methods to convert the metallic surface. (3) wear resistance. 29.7 What is the most commonly plated substrate metal? Answer.8 How does electroless plating differ from electrochemical plating? Answer. (2) chemical surface treatments. (5) improved solderability.4 What is meant by the term cathode efficiency in electroplating? Answer.9 What is a conversion coating? Answer. One of the mandrel types in electroforming is a solid mandrel. 195 .10 How does anodizing differ from other conversion coatings? Answer.

13 What are some of the applications of PVD? Answer. 29. and (4) good bonding to substrate surface. and (4) additives such as surfactants and plasticizers.17 What are some of the advantages of chemical vapor deposition? Answer.22 The terms drying and curing have different meanings. TiC and TiN. and (3) ion plating.14 29. 29. 29.15 Name the three basic types of PVD. The major ingredients are: (1) binder. 29. (3) solvents. the reaction product nucleates and grows on the substrate surface. Answer. which provide color.21 Describe the principal methods by which organic coatings are applied to a surface. Titanium carbide (TiC) and aluminum oxide (Al2O3) might also be mentioned. Transfer efficiency indicates how much of the organic coating liquid reaches the target surface. 29. 29. and flow coating. In PVD. These methods are described in Article 33. Titanium nitride (TiN). 29. 196 . (2) grain size control. What is a commonly used coating material deposited by PVD onto cutting tools? Answer.11 What is physical vapor deposition? Answer.16 Define sputtering yield? Answer.20 What is meant by the term transfer efficiency in organic coating technology? Answer. and cutting tool coatings (e. (2) dyes or pigments.18 What are the two most common titanium compounds that are coated onto cutting tools by chemical vapor deposition? Answer. TiN).2.. 29. deposition of metal in electronic connections.4.29. Advantages include: (1) capability to deposit refractory materials at temperatures below their melting or sintering temperatures. Answer. The main methods include: brushing and rolling. (2) sputtering. Sputtering yield is defined as the number of atoms ejected from the surface of a substance per ion bombarding the surface. PVC applications include: decorative coatings on trophies and automotive trim. the coating vapors are synthesized by heating the coating material and allowing it to condense as a thin film on the surface of the workpart.19 29.12 What is the difference between physical vapor deposition (PVD) and chemical vapor deposition (CVD)? Answer. In CVD a coating is formed on a heated substrate by the chemical reaction or dissociation of vapors and/or gases. Physical vapor deposition (PVD) refers to a family of processes in which a material is converted to its vapor phase in a vacuum chamber and condensed onto a substrate surface as a very thin film. spraying. which are polymers. Identify the four major types of ingredients in organic coatings? Answer. antireflection coatings on optical lenses.g. (3) process is performed at atmospheric pressure. indicate the distinction. The three types are: (1) vacuum evaporation. 29. immersion (dip coating).

29. (c) conversion coating. Mechanical galvanizing refers to the mechanical plating of zinc onto a substrate. (e) 197 . Answer.24 In porcelain enameling.2 Which one of the following terms is used in connection with dip coating of lead onto a substrate such as sheet steel? (a) aluminizing. (b) 0. Answer. (b) defect in arc welding.4 Which of the following is most typical of the thickness of an electroplated coating (choose either of two acceptable answers)? (a) 0. 29. or (e) phosphate coatings. (d) electroplating.Answer. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point.001 in. For each question. (c) 0. (b) lead. Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 17 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct). Frit is glassy porcelain prepared as fine particles (powders) by crushing and milling. (c) steel. What does the term mechanical galvanizing refer to? Answer. Curing involves a chemical change in the organic resin (polymerization and/or cross-linking) which hardens the coating. (c) diffusion. or (e) physical vapor deposition.003 in. Answer. (a) and (d).6 With which one of the following metals is anodizing most commonly associated (one answer)? (a) aluminum. (d) ion implantation. or (e) zinc. (b) chromium. what is frit? Answer. with thicknesses up to 0.010 in. (e) 29. and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point. either (a) or (b) is acceptable 29. (a) 29. Drying means evaporation of solvents in the organic coating liquid. or (d) 0. 29. Answer. (e) 29. (d) titanium. (c) electroless plating.0001 in. (c) copper. (c) steel.3 Which one of the following plating metal is associated with the term galvanizing? (a) iron.5 Which of the following processes involves electrochemical reactions (more than one)? (a) anodizing. Answer. (b) 29. To attain a perfect score on the quiz. (d) galvanizing.7 Sputtering is a form of which one of the following? (a) chemical vapor deposition. (b) chromate coatings. Answer. (d) tin. (b) anodizing. or (e) terneplating. all correct answers must be given.100 in. Answer.1 Which one of the following plate metals produces the hardest surface on a metallic substrate? (a) cadmium. since each correct answer is worth 1 point. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers. or (e) tin. (b) magnesium. (d) nickel.23 29. or (e) zinc.

8 Which of the following gases is the most commonly used in sputtering and ion plating? (a) argon. Volume V = ECIt = 0. Volume V = ECIt = 0. (c) and (d). (a) 29.6245 cm3 Density of zinc from Table 4. What average plating thickness will result if 15 amps are applied for 10 minutes in a chromic acid-sulfate bath? 198 . What average plating thickness will result if 15 amps are applied for 12 minutes in a chloride electrolyte solution? Solution: From Table 29. Weight W = 1. (d) Which of the following thin film processes is most common in semiconductor processing? (a) chemical vapor deposition or (b) physical vapor deposition.1 ρ = 7.29. (e) mechanical deformation to work harden the surface. (d) nitrogen. (c) physical vapor deposition for coating TiN onto cutting tools.95(4.15 g/cm3. and (e) roller coating.75 x 10-2 mm3/A-s)(10 A)(1 hr)(3600 s/hr) = 1624.6245(7.9 29. (b) hard facing. (c) fluidized bed.14 Problems Electroplating 29.95(4. Answer.1.1. (d) immersion.35 mm3/10. or (d) metal spraying. or (d) reducing nickel carbonyl to metallic Ni. Answer. or (d) powders.15) = 11.1 What volume (cm3) and weight (g) of zinc will be deposited onto a cathodic workpart if 10 amps of current are applied for one hour? Solution: From Table 29. (c) neon.75 x 10-2 mm3/A-s.2 A sheetmetal steel part with surface area A = 100 cm2 is to be zinc plated. (b) and (c). C = 4. (b) an electroplating process. (c) metallizing.75 x 10-2 mm3/A-s)(15 A)(12 min)(60 s/min) = 487. cathode efficiency E = 95%. (d) Which of the following are alternative names for thermal spraying (more than one answer)? (a) flexible overlay process.13 29. Answer. (a) The principal methods of applying powder coatings are which of the following (select two best answers)? (a) brushing. Answer.0 in2 is to be chrome plated. (c) dip coating. Hard facing utilizes which one of the following basic processes? (a) arc welding.75 x 10-2 mm3/A-s.049 mm 29.5 mm3 = 1. C = 4. Answer. (a) The Mond process is used for which one of the following? (a) chemical vapor deposition of silicon nitride onto silicon. (b) liquid solution.11 29. (b) chlorine. (d) electroplating. (b) brazing. cathode efficiency E = 95%. Porcelain enamel is applied to a surface in which one of the following forms? (a) liquid emulsion. (c) molten liquid.000 mm2 = 0.35 mm3 Area A = 100 cm2 = 10.000 mm2 Plating thickness d = 487.12 29. Answer. or (e) oxygen. Answer.615 g 29.10 29. (b) electrostatic spraying.3 A sheetmetal steel part with surface area A = 15.

8) = 780 in 2 Plating thickness d = 0.15(0.4 Twenty-five jewelry pieces.036/0.92 x 10-4)(12 x 20 + 0.95 cm2 = 53. At $300/oz.42 x 10-2 mm3/A-s)(20 A)(30 min)(60 s/min) = 1169.003954 = 9. V = 0.1. amps.695 mm2 Plating thickness d = 1169.25 x 10-4)(120)(40) = 0. Solution: From Table 29.15(0.277 oz.87 x 10-4)(8)(10) = 0. Determine the average thickness of the plated metal resulting from this operation.001 in onto the surface if 15 amps of current are applied? Solution: From Table 29.02477 in 3) = 0. Solution: (a) From Table 29.1. using a current I = 20 amps for a duration t = 30 min. cathode efficiency E = 15%.003954 t in 3. Required volume of plate metal = 36(0.1.92 x 10-4 in3/A-min.00207 in 3. (a) What average plating thickness will result if 8 amps are applied for 10 min in a cyanide bath? (b) What is the value of the gold that will be plated if one ounce of gold is valued at $300? The density of gold = 0.00207/15 = 0.698 lb/in 3)(0.57/780 = 0. The plating process applies a current I = 120 amps. Plating thickness d = 0.1. total area A = 25(0.7 Increasing current is applied to a workpart surface in an electroplating process according to the relation I = 12.8 in2. Area A = 100(7.57 in 3.02477 in 3. 29.00198 in. Solution: From Table 29. cathode efficiency E = 98%. The parts are identical.277) = $82. where I = current. value of plated gold = $300(0.2t)dt = EC(12t + 0. and the batch takes 40 minutes to complete. The part is a rectangular flat plate which is 0.695 = 0.036 t = 0.036 in 3 Plated volume V = ECIt = 0.8 A batch of 100 parts are to be nickel plated in a barrel plating operation. C = 1. C = 2.01729 lb = 0. Volume V = ECIt = 0. min.00073 in.001) = 0.5 in 2 Plating thickness d = 0.69 x 10-4 in3/A-min.000138 in.5 = 0.25 x 10-4 in3/A-min. 199 . and t = time.1 min.6/53. C = 3. What volume of coating will be applied in the process? Solution: From Table 29. Volume V = ECIt = 0. C = 0.698 lb/in 3.69 x 10-4 in3/A-min)(15 A) t = 0.5 in 2. The plating operation is carried out in an acid sulfate electrolyte.1(20) 2) = 0. cathode efficiency E = 95%. each with a surface area A = 7. C = 0. Volume V = ECIt = 0.0 + 0.00386 in3 29.87 x 10-4 in3/A-min. cathode efficiency E = 15%.2t.5) = 12.003954 t = 0. C = 3.92 x 10-4)(15)(10) = 0.95(3.95(1. and the part is submersed in the plating solution for a duration of 20 min.92 x 10-4 in3/A-min.698 lb/in3 Weight of plated gold = (0. Area A = 2(19 x 14) + 0.98(2.6 A steel sheetmetal part has total surface area A = 36 in2.1t2) over the range 0 to 20 min. cathode efficiency E = 95%. The plating metal is chromium.5 A part made of sheet steel is to be nickel plated.99 29.075 cm thick and whose face dimensions are 14 cm by 19 cm.42 x 10-2 mm3/A-s. Determine the average plating thickness on the parts.Solution: From Table 29. How long will it take to deposit a copper plating (assume valence = +1) of thickness = 0.80(3.1.1. 0. With Q = 25 pieces and average area per piece = 0.075 x 2(19 + 14) = 536. 29. Plated volume V = EC∫Idt = EC∫(12 + 0.6 mm3.022 mm 29. (b) Given density for gold ρ = 0. each with a surface area = 0. Volume V = ECIt = 0.5 in 2 are to be gold plated in a batch plating operation.02477/12. cathode efficiency E = 80%.

3 t mm3 With Q = 40 pieces and average area per piece = 22.7 mm2.7) = 908 cm2 = 90.800 mm2 Plating thickness d = V/A = (0. t = 0.7 cm2.5 x 10-2 mm3/A-s.03304(10-4) t mm Given that d = 0.3 t mm3)/(90. 0.9 A batch of 40 identical parts are to be chrome plated using racks. how long should the plating operation be allowed to run at a current = 80 amps? Solution: From Table 29. C = 2.010 Thus. Volume V = ECIt = 0. If it is desired to plate an average thickness = 0. cathode efficiency E = 15%. 200 .29.5 x 10-2 mm3/A-s)(80 A) t = 0. total area A = 40(22.44 min.010 mm on the surface of each part.15(2.03304(10-4) t = 0.010/0.03304(10-4) = 0.1. Each part has a surface are = 22.010 mm.3027 x 104 = 3027 s = 50.800 mm2) = 0.

In gas welding.30 30.9 Name and sketch the five joint types. (3) difficult to disassemble. (3) most economical in terms of material usage.6 30. What is meant by the term faying surface? Answer. The faying surfaces are the contacting surfaces in a welded joint. Advantages: (1) provides a permanent joint. In a solid state weld. 30. fumes. In a fusion weld. the metal is not melted. the high electrical energy can cause shocks which are fatal to the worker. (2) welding is inherently dangerous. 30. Discuss the reasons why most welding operations are inherently dangerous. (5) edge. An automatic welding operation uses a weld cycle controller which regulates the arc movement and workpiece positioning.7 What is the fundamental difference between a fusion weld and a solid state weld? Answer. (2) corner. (4) versatile in terms of where it can be accomplished. (4) tee. See Figure 28. smoke. (1) electric arc and (2) acetylene gas. Define the term fusion weld. A fusion weld is a weld in which the metal surfaces have been melted in order to cause coalescence.4 30. What is an autogenous weld? Answer. Answer. It is a fusion weld made without the addition of filler metal.8 What is the difference between machine welding and automatic welding? Answer. In arc welding and resistance welding. (2) joint strength is typically as high as strength of base metals.3 in text for sketches. whereas in machine welding. In arc welding. 30.3 30.2 What were the two discoveries of Sir Humphrey Davy that led to the development of modern welding technology? Answer. Most welding operations are carried out at high temperatures that can cause serious burns on skin and flesh. the electric arc emits intense ultraviolet radiation which can cause blinding. so the parts are joined permanently. Five joint types are: (1) butt. (3) lap. so labor cost is high and the skilled labor to perform it is sometimes scarce.10 Define and sketch a fillet weld? 201 . (4) quality defects sometimes difficult to detect.1 FUNDAMENTALS OF WELDING What are the advantages and disadvantages of welding compared to other types of assembly operations? Answer. 30. Review Questions 30. Other hazards include sparks. Answer. a human worker must continuously control the arc and the relative movement of the welding head and the workpart. Disadvantages: (1) usually performed manually. and weld spatter.5 30. the metal is melted. Answer. the fuels are a fire hazard.

but temperatures from welding were high enough to cause solid state microstructural changes. For each question. Because it does not join to distinct parts. Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 11 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct). and what are the factors on which it depends? Answer. since each correct answer is worth 1 point.11 Define and sketch a groove weld? Answer. and tee joints.13 Why is a surfacing weld different from the other weld types? Answer.12 30.4 in text for sketch.18 What is the heat affected zone (HAZ) in a fusion weld? Answer. all correct answers must be given. and how is this form of solidification different from that which occurs in casting? Answer.5 in text for sketch. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers. A groove weld is a weld joint used to fill in the space between the adjoining edges of butt and other weld types except lap. Because the heat is concentrated in a small region for greatest efficiency and minimum metallurgical damage.17 What is epitaxial grain growth. lap. 30. 30. A fillet weld is a weld joint of approximately triangular cross-section used to fill in the edges of corner. 202 . See Figure 28. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point. 30. The unit melting energy is the amount of heat energy required to melt one cubic inch or one cubic mm of metal.14 Why is it desirable to use energy sources for welding that have high heat densities? Answer. 30. Epitaxial grain growth occurs when atoms from the molten pool solidify on already existing lattice sites of the adjacent solid base metal. 30. Answer.16 Define and distinguish the two terms heat transfer efficiency and melting efficiency in welding.15 What is the unit melting energy in welding. whereas an intermittent weld would only fill the joint along certain portions (usually equally spaced) of the total length. but instead adds only filler metal to a surface. See Figure 28. To attain a perfect score on the quiz. The HAZ is a region of base metal surrounding the fusion zone in which melting has not occurred. A continuous weld would be made along the entire length of the fillet weld. Melting efficiency is the ratio of heat required for melting divided by the heat received at the work surface.Answer. Heat transfer efficiency is the ratio of the actual heat received at the work surface divided by the total heat generated by the source. and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point. What is the difference between a continuous weld and an intermittent weld as the terms apply to a fillet weld of a lap joint? Answer. 30. 30.

and (d) double U-groove weld for a butt weld.4(d) but one side only. (d) lap. (d) U-groove weld as in Figure 30.5(d) but both sides as in Figure 30. (c) square. (b) Failures also occur in the heat affected zone because metallurgical damage often occurs in this region. (b) false. (a) A flange weld is most closely associated with which one of the following joint types: (a) butt. Both metals melt. (c) edge. (c) edge. (b) corner.7 30. 30. (b) heat of fusion. for a butt weld.4 30. Answer. Answer. (b) single fillet weld for a lap joint. it is desirable to melt the weld metal with minimum energy input. Answer. (e) tee.1 Prepare sketches showing how the part edges would be prepared and aligned with each other and also showing the weld cross-section for the following welds: (a) square groove weld. both sides. A fillet weld has a cross-sectional shape that is approximately which one of the following? (a) rectangular. (c) lap. (b) The amount of heat required to melt a given volume of metal depends strongly on which of the following properties (more than one)? (a) coefficient of thermal expansion. (d) tee. Answer. (c) single fillet weld for tee joint. Which one of the following heat sources is most consistent with this objective? (a) high power. (b) Similar to Figure 30.2 A fillet weld can be used to join which of the following joint types (more than one): (a) butt. Answer. (c). and (d).1 Welding can only be performed on metals that have the same melting point. or (d) triangular. (c) low power. 30. (d) modulus of elasticity. or (d) low power density. (e) tee. Solution: (a) Square groove weld as in Figure 30. otherwise. 203 . (b) and (c) Weld failures always occur in the fusion zone of the weld joint. (c) Same as Figure 30.6 30.3 30. (b) Welding can be accomplished between certain combinations of dissimilar metals.5(f). Answer. (c) melting temperature. since this is the part of the joint that has been melted: (a) true. (d) lap. Answer.8 Problems Joint design 30. the metal with the lower melting temperature always melts while the other metal remains solid: (a) true. but both sides as in Figure 30. (d) Groove welds are most closely associated with which one of the following joint types: (a) butt. Answer. (b) high power density. (b) false.5 30. (b) corner. (b). or (e) thermal conductivity. (b) round.5(a).4(c) but one side only.30.5(f). (c) For metallurgical reasons. (b) corner.

Tm for aluminum = 930 K (1680 R) Eq. and the heat intensity decreases with increasing radius as follows: 50% of the power is transferred within a circle of diameter = 0. Unit melting energy 30.00785 in 2 150 Btu/min = 2. Tm for copper = 1350 K (2440 R) Eq. (30.07 J/mm3 Eq. Solution: (a) From Table 30.50(2.2) for USCS units: Um = 1. 30. Tm for titanium = 2070 K (3730 R) Eq.75 .00785 in 2 = 159 Btu/sec-in2 (b) A = π(0.467 x 10-5 Tm2 Um = 1. Use temperatures as follows to construct the plot: 250°C.0.1 inch diameter inner circle and (b) the 0. What is the power densities in: (a) the 0.33 x 10-6 (1350) 2 = 6.625 Btu/sec Power density PD = (0.33 x 10-6 (930) 2 = 2.2. Tm for plain low carbon steel = 1760 K (3160 R) Eq.33 x 10-6 Tm2 Um = 3. (30.467 x 10-5 (3730) 2 = 204. 500°C.6 Make the calculations and plot on linearly scaled axes the relationship for unit melting energy as a function of temperature.252 .467 x 10-5 Tm2 Um = 1.5 Compute the unit energy for melting for the following metals:(a) copper and (b) titanium. Is the resulting power density enough to melt metal? Solution: Area A = π(3.467 x 10-5 (3160) 2 = 146.0.33 x 10-6 (2070) 2 = 14.25 inch diameter ring that lies around the inner circle? (c) Are these power densities sufficient for melting metal? Solution: (a) Area A = π(0. (30.2) for SI units: Um = 3. 204 .2.88 J/mm3 Eq.467 x 10-5 (2440) 2 = 87.625 Btu/sec)/0.5 Btu/sec.467 x 10-5 Tm2 Um = 1.50)(2.0686 mm2 = 255 W/mm2.33 x 10-6 (1760) 2 = 10. The heated area is approximately circular.4 Btu/in3 (b) From Table 30.60(3000) = 1800 J/s = 1800 W.33 x 10-6 Tm2 Um = 3.2) for USCS units: Um = 1.2. and 75% is transferred within a concentric circle of diameter = 0.467 x 10-5 Tm2 Um = 1.25 inch.0412 in 2 Power P = (0.3 Btu/in3 (b) From Table 30.25 Btu/sec)/0.2) for USCS units: Um = 1.1 inch.2) for USCS units: Um = 1. as follows: 60% of the heat is concentrated in a circular area that is 3 mm in diameter. Power P = 0.16 Btu/sec-in2 (c) Power densities are sufficient certainly in the inner circle and probably in the outer ring for welding.2 A heat source can transfer 3000 J/sec to a metal part surface. and the heat intensity decreases as the radius increases. (30. This power density is sufficient for welding.4 Compute the unit energy for melting for the following metals: (a) aluminum and (b) plain low carbon steel. (30.12)/4 = 0.33 x 10-6 Tm2 Um = 3.2) for SI units: Um = 3. The heated area is circular.467 x 10-5 (1680) 2 = 41. Solution: (a) From Table 30. Power density PD = 1800 W/7.32 J/mm3 Eq. (30.1) 2/4 = 0.25 Btu/sec Power density PD = (1.1 Btu/in3 30.Power density 30. (30.27 J/mm3 Eq.5) = 1.5 Btu/in3 30.0686 mm2 Power P = 0.2) for SI units: Um = 3.5) = 0.3 A welding heat source is capable of transferring 150 Btu/min to the surface of a metal part.2.2) for SI units: Um = 3.0) 2/4 = 7. (30.0412 in 2 = 15. 750°C.33 x 10-6 Tm2 Um = 3.

467 x 10-5 Tm2. if the heat transfer efficiency = 0. mark the positions of some of the welding metals in Table 30. 3000°F.467 x 10-5 (1960) 2 = 56.33 x 10-6 (523) 2 = 0. Solution: Eq.9 x 0.20 J/mm3 ° 30.33 x 10-6 (1773) 2 = 10. Use temperatures as follows to construct the plot: 500°F.467 x 10-5 Tm2 From Table 30.467 x 10-5 (3960) 2 = 230.6? Solution: (a) Eq. On the plot.3 Btu/in3 ° For Tm = 1500° F = (1500 + 460) = 1960°R: Um = 1.2) for USCS units: Um = 1.8 A fillet weld has a cross-sectional area Aw = 20.45) = 61. The plot is left as a student exercise.33 x 10-6 Tm2 From Table 30. Solution: Eq.2) for SI units: Um = 3.91 J/mm3 ° For Tm = 500° C = (500 + 273) = 773°K: Um = 3. Tm for medium carbon steel = 3060 R Um = 1.4 Btu/in 3 Volume of metal melted V = 0.33 x 10-6 (1023) 2 = 3.467 x 10-5 (3060) 2 = 137. if the metal to be welded is austenitic stainless steel? (b) How much heat must be generated at the welding source. For Tm = 250° C = (250 + 273) = 523°K: Um = 3.0 mm2 and is 200 mm long.467 x 10-5 (1460) 2 = 31. 30.7.467 x 10-5 (960) 2 = 13. (a) What quantity of heat (in joules) is required to accomplish the weld.0 Btu/in3 ° 30. and 3500°F.045(10) = 0.2.8 and the melting efficiency = 0.33 x 10-6 (1670) 2 = 9.7) = 98.5 Btu/in3 ° For Tm = 3000° F = (3000 + 460) = 3460°R: Um = 1. On the plot. 1000°F.45 in 3 Hm = 137.2. H = 37.33 x 10-6 Tm2. mark the positions of some of the welding metals in Table 30. The plot is left as a student exercise.9 and f2 = 0.6 Btu/in3 ° For Tm = 3500° F = (3500 + 460) = 3960°R: Um = 1. 205 .467 x 10-5 (2460) 2 = 88. (30.1000°C. (30.1 Btu at source. and 2000°C. if the metal to be welded is medium carbon steel? (b) How much heat must be generated at the welding source.33 x 10-6 (773) 2 = 1. 2500°F. Tm for austenitic stainless steel = 1670 K Um = 3. if the heat transfer efficiency = 0.99 J/mm3 ° For Tm = 750° C = (750 + 273) = 1023°K: Um = 3. For Tm = 500° F = (500 + 460) = 960°R: Um = 1. H = 61.6) = 77.2) for USCS units: Um = 1.2.9 and the melting efficiency = 0. 1500°F.47 J/mm3 ° For Tm = 2000° C = (2000 + 273) = 2273°K: Um = 3.2. (30.5 Btu/in3 ° For Tm = 1000° F = (1000 + 460) = 1460°R: Um = 1.48 J/mm3 ° For Tm = 1000° C = (1000 + 273) = 1273°K: Um = 3. (30.467 x 10-5 (2960) 2 = 128.8/(0. 2000°F.9 A certain groove weld has a cross-sectional area Aw = 0.045 in2 and is 10 inches long. The plot is based on the following calculated values.148/(0. The plot is based on the following calculated values.6. 1500°C.4(0.4 Btu/in3 ° For Tm = 2000° F = (2000 + 460) = 2460°R: Um = 1.467 x 10-5 (3460) 2 = 175.392 J at source.8 Btu/in3 ° For Tm = 2500° F = (2500 + 460) = 2960°R: Um = 1.40 J/mm3 ° For Tm = 1500° C = (1500 + 273) = 1773°K: Um = 3.8 x 0. (a) What quantity of heat (in Btu) is required to accomplish the weld.8 Btu at weld (b) Given f1 = 0.7? Solution: (a) Eq.7 Make the calculations and plot on linearly scaled axes the relationship for unit melting energy as a function of temperature.33 x 10-6 (1273) 2 = 5.33 x 10-6 (2273) 2 = 17.148 J at weld (b) Given f1 = 0.8 and f2 = 0.29 J/mm3 Volume of metal melted V = 20(200) = 4000 mm3 Hm = 9.2) for SI units: Um = 3.29(4000) = 37.

045(10) = 0.70) + 0. (30. (30.2) for USCS units: Um = 1.9.4 Btu/in3 This is about a 3% difference. These values for aluminum show good agreement.2): Um = 3. specific heat C = 0.21) + ρHf Um = (2.33 x 10-6 (660 + 273) 2 = 2.5 Btu/in3 This is about a 27% difference. which is the product of the volumetric specific heat and the temperature rise. Are the values close enough to validate Eq.0 mm2.45 in 3 Hm = 41. except that the metal to be welded is aluminum.096(170) = 40.21) + (2.096(0. density ρ = 0. Um = ρC(Tm . Use either the U.70) + 0. 206 .10 Solve the previous problem.467 x 10-5 (1220 + 460) 2 = 41. melting temperature Tm = 1220°F = 660°C.2.6 Btu at weld (b) Given f1 = 0.33 x 10-6 (1480 + 273) 2 = 10.390 J/kg.25.215 Btu/lb-°F = 900 J/kg-°C. Um = ρC(Tm .21) + ρHf Um = (7. and the corresponding melting efficiency is half the value for steel. In USCS.S.2.7 x 10-6 kg/mm3)(395390 J/kg) Um = 2.23 J/mm3 This is about a 37% difference.2): Um = 1.45 J/mm3 This compares with Eq.7.11 Compute the unit melting energy for (a) aluminum and (b) steel as the sum of: (1) the heat required to raise the temperature of the metal from room temperature to its melting point.2): Um = 3.467 x 10-5 Tm2 From Table 30.2)? Solution: (a) Aluminum properties (from standard sources): heat of fusion Hf = 170 Btu/lb = 395.2). so that this value can be compared to the unit melting energy calculated by Eq. melting temperature Tm = 2700°F = 1480°C.284(117) = 115.123 J/kg. This is at least partially accounted for by the fact that the specific heat of steel increases significantly with temperature. and (2) the heat of fusion. specific heat C = 0.90 J/mm3 This is about a 10% difference. (30.284 lb/in3 = 7900 kg/m3. 30. (30. In USCS.467 x 10-5 (2700 + 460) 2 = 146.096 lb/in3 = 2700 kg/m3. density ρ = 0.2): Um = 1.35) = 59. (b) Steel properties (from standard sources): heat of fusion Hf = 117 Btu/lb = 272.62 J/mm3 This compares with Eq. Customary units or the International System.9 and f2 = 0. Energy balance in welding 30. This is transferred to the work surface with a heat transfer efficiency f 1 = 0. Um = ρC(Tm .11 Btu/lb-°F = 460 J/kg-°C. A continuous fillet weld is to be made with a cross-sectional area Aw = 15. The metal to be welded is copper whose melting point is given in Table 30. Solution: (a) Eq. In SI. (30.1 Btu/in3 This compares with Eq.45) = 18.467 x 10-5 (1680) 2 = 41.215)(1220 . Find the values of the properties needed in these calculations either in this text or in other references. which would increase the calculated values based on Um = ρC(Tm . Um = ρC(Tm .1 Btu at source. In SI.9 x 10-6 kg/mm3)(272123 J/kg) Um = 7.4(0.70) + ρHf = 0.7 x 10-6 kg/mm3)(900 J/kg-C))(660 .4 Btu/in3 This compares with Eq.284(0. These values show a greater difference than for aluminum.70) + ρHf = 0. (30.6/(0. Tm for aluminum = 1680 R Um = 1.30. Assume that the melting efficiency f 2 = 0. Determine the travel speed at which the welding operation can be accomplished.21) + (7.4 Btu/in 3 Volume of metal melted V = 0.9 x 0. H = 18.9 x 10-6 kg/mm3)(460 J/kg-C))(1480 .Tambient) + ρHf . (30.12 The welding power generated in a particular arc welding operation = 3000 W.11)(2700 .

8 x 0.4 mm/s.8(0. and Tm = 1000°C for the metal to be welded. Solution: From Table 30.04) = 16.8 Btu/in 3 v = 15 = f1 f2 HR/UmAw = 0.005 in 3.2.5.9(0. Tm = 1350°K for copper. Solution: Um = 3. Um = 1. 30. the cross-sectional area of the weld = 25.95.122 Btu/sec = 7. A continuous fillet weld is to be made with a cross-sectional area Aw = 0. determine the rate of heat generation required at the welding source to accomplish this weld.4 Btu/in 3 Hw = 41.487 Btu HR = 0. The melting point for the metal to be welded Tm = 1800°F and its melting efficiency f 2 = 0.0 mm.025) = 0. Solution: Um = 1.6)(3000)/(9.33 x 10-6(1000 + 273) 2 = 5.6. but with penetration into the base metal.33 x 10-6(1650) 2 = 9.17 A spot weld is to be made using an arc welding operation.2.467 x 10-5 (1680) 2 = 41. on average. The surface will be applied by making a series of parallel. and the operation required the arc to be on for 4 sec.07 J/mm3 v = f1 f2 HR/UmAw = 0.15 mm/s. f 2 = 0. Solution: Um = 1. determine the rate of heat generation required at the welding source to accomplish this weld.33 x 10-6(1350) 2 = 6.214 HR HR = 15/. Um = 3.5) = 1250 J/s = 1250 W.0 mm2.1 Btu/min.2.5)(125)/(74.207/(0.5. determine the rate of heat generation that was required at the source to accomplish this weld. f 2 = 0. 30.5) = 0.9(0.07 x 15) = 7. A thickness of 2. 30. Ignore the 207 . Determine the travel speed at which the welding operation can be accomplished. Aw = 0.467 x 10-5 (1800 + 460) 2 = 74.214 = 70. The operation will be carried out automatically with the beads laid down in one long continuous operation at a travel speed v = 7.5)HR/(88.40(22)(5)/(0. and Tm = 2000°F for the metal to be welded.40 J/mm3 f1 f2 HR = UmAw v HR = Um Aw v/f1 f2 = 5.9 x 0.467 x 10-5 (2000 + 460) 2 = 88. If f 1 = 0.005) = 0.14 In a certain welding operation to make a groove weld. 30.04 in2. Tm = 1680°R for aluminum. the total thickness melted during welding = 6.487/4 = 0.85. whose melting point is assumed to be the same. 30.0 mm2 and v = 5 mm/sec. If f 1 = 0.16 In a certain welding operation to make a fillet weld.207 Btu H = 0.18 A surfacing weld is to be applied to a rectangular low carbon steel plate which is 200 mm by 350 mm. and the metal to be welded was aluminum.95(0.95 and f 2 = 0.85 x 0.0 mm/s. Tm = 1650°K for high carbon steel.07 x 25) = 7. and the melting efficiency f 2 = 0.31 Btu/min.15 The power source in a particular welding operation generates 125 Btu/min which is transferred to the work surface with an efficiency f 1 = 0.Solution: From Table 30. Solution: From Table 30.95 x 0. using welding passes separated by 5 mm. If f 1 = 0.5.9 Btu/in 3 v = f1 f2 HR/UmAw = 0.07 J/mm3 v = f1 f2 HR/UmAw = 0. overlapped welding beads running lengthwise on the plate.025 in2 and v = 15 in/min.25)(3000)/(6.4(0. The metal to be applied is a harder (alloy) grade of steel.0 mm will be added to the plate.5. 30. Um = 3. The total volume of (melted) metal forming the weld = 0. Aw = 22.8.13 Solve the previous problem except that the metal to be welded is high carbon steel.7 in/min.

208 .2.32 J/mm3 HR = Um Aw v/f1f2 = 10.minor complications of the turnarounds at the ends of the plate.8 x 0. Solution: (a) From Table 30. determine: (a) the rate of heat that must be generated at the welding source.33 x 10-6(1760) 2 = 10.32(6 x 5)(7)/(0.6) = 4515 J/s (b) Total length of cut = 350 x (200/5) = 14. and (b) how long will it take to complete the surfacing operation. Assuming the heat transfer efficiency = 0.6.000 mm Time to travel at v = 7 mm/s = 14.8 and the melting efficiency = 0.33 min.000/7 = 2000 s = 33. Tm = 1760°K for low carbon steel. Um = 3.

What is the fundamental feature that distinguishes fusion welding from solid state welding? Answer. 31. 31.8 Describe the shielded metal arc welding (SMAW) process. 31. and others.7 Why is the heat transfer efficiency greater in arc welding processes that utilize consumable electrodes? Answer. the arc is sustained by a thermally ionized column of gas through which the current can flow. The consumable type. which covers the welding operation and protects the molten pool from the atmosphere. Review Questions 31. or GTAW. SAW. Because the stick electrodes must be changed frequently. in solid state welding. 31. no melting occurs. Answer. Name and define the two types.10 Describe submerged arc welding (SAW). Answer. SAW is an arc welding process that uses a continuous. 31. and "other. The three terms mean the same thing: the proportion of the total time in a shift that the arc is actually on. In arc welding. Consumable and nonconsumable. thermit welding. such as in GMAW. An electrical arc is a discharge across a gap in a circuit. resistance welding. Arc welding.4 What do the terms arc-on time.6 What are the two basic methods of arc shielding? Answer.3 Define what an electrical arc is. which would be difficult to do automatically. and operating factor have in common? Provide a definition of these terms. 31.2 WELDING PROCESSES Name the principal groups of processes included in fusion welding.31 31.5 Electrodes in arc welding are divided into two categories. and arc shielding is provided by a cover of granular flux. 209 . such as tungsten and carbon. It is much easier to automate the feeding of continuous filler wire. Because molten metal from the electrode is transferred across the arc and contributes to the heating of the molten weld pool. 31. melting occurs at the faying surfaces.9 Why is the shielded metal arc welding (SMAW) process difficult to automate? Answer. (1) Shielding gas. Answer. In fusion welding. such as argon and helium. also provide filler metal for the welding joint. SMAW is an arc welding process that uses a consumable electrode consisting of a filler metal rod coated with chemicals that provide flux and shielding. and (2) flux. Answer. consumable bare wire electrode. Answer. oxyfuel welding. LBW. FCAW. arc time.1 31. Answer. The nonconsumable type are made of materials that resist melting." The other category includes EBW. in addition to being the electrode for the process.

and molding shoes to contain the molten pool. in which the current is switched on for a brief duration (0. High resistivity. Most prominent in the group is resistance spot welding. 31. low electrical and thermal conductivity.12 Why are the temperatures much higher in plasma arc welding than in other AW processes? Answer. 31. RW consists of a group of fusion welding processes that utilize a combination of heat and pressure to accomplish coalescence of the two faying surfaces. 31.1 to 0. Because acetylene and oxygen burn hotter than other oxyfuels.11 Describe electrogas welding (EGW) process and identify its major application. Answer.17 Describe cross-wire welding. during which the weld nugget solidifies. (3) weld.15 Describe the sequence of steps in the cycle of a resistance spot welding operation. 31.19 Why is the oxyacetylene welding process favored over the other oxyfuel welding processes? Answer.20 Electron beam welding has a significant disadvantage in high-production applications.4 sec). Cross-wire welding is a form of resistance projection welding used to fabricate welded wire products such as shopping carts and stove grills. 31. Answer.18 31. the contact points are designed into the geometry of the parts as embossments or projections. 31. EGW is an arc welding process that uses a continuous consumable electrode. The time to draw the vacuum adds significantly to the production cycle time. 31. and low melting point. 31.13 Define resistance welding. and (5) the electrodes are opened and the parts removed. Answer.31. Define pressure gas welding. (2) squeeze the parts between the electrodes. Answer. resulting in much higher power densities. LBM has certain advantages over EBM. PGW is a fusion welding process in which coalescence is obtained over the entire contact surfaces of the two parts by heating them with an appropriate fuel mixture and then applying pressure to bond the surfaces. EBW is usually carried out in a vacuum for a high quality weld. (4) hold. What is that disadvantage? Answer. The steps are: (1) the parts are inserted between electrodes. 31. RPW is a resistance welding process in which coalescence occurs at one or more relatively small points on the parts.16 What is resistance projection welding? Answer.14 What are the desirable properties of a metal that would provide good weldability for resistance welding? Answer.21 Laser beam welding and electron beam welding are often compared because they both produce very high power densities. What are they? 210 . Answer. thus concentrating the energy into a smaller area. Because the arc is restricted in diameter. either flux-cored wire or bare wire with externally supplied shielding gas.

It is the actuator which is attached to one of the two parts to be welded with USW and which provides the oscillatory motion that results in coalescence of the two surfaces. (2) nondestructive evaluation. one part is rotated at a constant speed and forced into contact with the stationary part with a certain force so that friction heat is generated at the interface. (1) cracks. (5) balance the weld about the neutral axis of the part. (2) cavities. 31. explained in the text in Section 29.27 What are the three basic categories of inspection and testing techniques used for weldments? Name some typical inspections and/or tests in each category. 31. In inertia friction welding.24 What is a sonotrode in ultrasonic welding? Answer. What are some of the measures that can be taken to reduce the incidence and extent of distortion? Answer. Factors affect weldability include: (1) welding process.26 What are some of the important welding defects? Answer. etc. then the flywheel is disengaged from the drive motor and the parts are forced together. (4) tack welding at several points along the joint rather than continuous weld.23 There are two basic types of friction welding. and metallurgical tests. The two types are: (1) continuous-drive friction welding and (2) inertia friction welding. 31. Answer. particularly arc welding. and (5) filler metal and its composition relative to the base metals. and radiographic tests. the original welding process. (2) metal properties (e.25 Distortion (warpage) is a serious problem in fusion welding. which includes dimensional checks and inspection for warpage. which includes dye-penetrant. 31. melting point. (4) incomplete fusion. moisture. can be used to reduce warpage in arc welding: (1) welding fixtures. Answer.29 What are some of the design guidelines for weldments that are fabricated by arc welding? 211 . 31. Name the variations. (3) and hot pressure welding.g. The following measures.22 There are several modern-day variations of forge welding. 31. and (9) proper design of the weldment to minimize warpage. 31. (3) whether the base metals are similar or dissimilar (dissimilar base metals are generally more difficult to weld). 31. (6) selecting proper welding conditions. ultrasonic. when the right temperature is reached. The three categories are: (1) visual inspection.Answer. (1) No vacuum chamber is required and (2) no x-rays are emitted in LBM. the rotating part is stopped abruptly and the two parts are forced together at forging pressures. (3) solid inclusions.28 Identify the factors that affect weldability. so that the kinetic energy of the flywheel is converted to friction heat for the weld. Answer. and (3) the laser beam can be focused and directed with conventional optical mirrors and lenses. the rotating part is connected to a flywheel which is brought up to proper speed. (2) roll welding. coefficient of thermal expansion). In continuous-drive friction welding. which includes conventional mechanical tests adapted to weld joints. Describe and distinguish the two types..). (2) presetting of the parts in relative orientations to compensate for warpage. and (3) destructive tests. and other visible defects. (8) stress relief of the weldment. (4) surface condition (surfaces should be clean and free of oxides. thermal conductivity. cracks. (7) preheating of base parts. (3) heat sinks. (5) imperfect shape or contour of weld cross-section. (1) Cold welding.6. magnetic particle. Answer.

vertical. (c) explosive welding. (3) Whenever possible.8 MIG welding is a term sometimes applied when referring to which one of the following processes? (a) FCAW. and (d) 31. (b) false. (b) electron beam welding. (b). (b) 212 . Answer. (a) and (c) 31. but by the presence of a thermally ionized column of gas through which the current flows.2 Which of the following processes is/are classified as fusion welding (more than one)? (a) electrogas welding. and (e) upset welding. Answer. as opposed to horizontal. since each correct answer is worth 1 point. or overhead arc welding positions. (c) roll welding. (b) friction welding.7 Which one of the following arc welding processes uses a nonconsumable electrode? (a) FCAW. (b) resistance spot welding. (b) GMAW. (d) percussion welding. (c) 31.5 Which of the following processes are classified as solid state welding (more than one)? (a) CW. and (d) OAW. For each question. (a). (a) and (b) 31. (b) GMAW. Machining is sometimes required to achieve satisfactory fit-up. design of the assembly should allow flat welding to be performed.4 Which of the following processes are classified as solid state welding? (a) friction welding. 31. Answer. To attain a perfect score on the quiz. The arc is sustained in arc welding processes by the transfer of molten metal across the gap between the electrode and the work: (a) true. (c) pressure gas welding. (b) false. (a) 31.6 An electric arc is a discharge of current across a gap in an electrical circuit. (c) and (d) 31. not by the transfer of molten metal. (2) The design of the assembly must provide access room to allow the welding gun to reach the welding area. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers. (c) GTAW. or (d) SMAW. Answer. Answer. all correct answers must be given. Answer. (c) GTAW. (b) The arc is sustained.Answer.3 Which of the following processes are classified as fusion welding (more than one)? (a) diffusion welding. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point. (b) HPW. (c) LBW. or (d) SMAW. The guidelines for weldments by arc welding include: (1) Good fit-up of parts to be welded is important to maintain dimensional control and minimize distortion. 31. (d) RSW. Answer. Answer.1 The feature that distinguishes fusion welding processes from solid state welding is that melting of the faying surfaces occurs during fusion welding: (a) true. (d) thermit welding. Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 27 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct). and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point.

17 31. (b) false. Answer. (c) SAW. Metals that are easiest to weld in resistance welding are ones that have low resistivities since low resistivity assists in the flow of electrical current: (a) true. (a) Which one of the following arc welding processes produces the highest temperatures? (a) CAW. (d). are difficult to weld in RW. (b) PAW. no pressure is used in these processes. Answer. (b) false.31.19 213 ." Which of the following solid state welding processes applies heat from an external source (more than one)? (a) diffusion welding. and (e) nitrogen. (d) ultrasonic welding. hence. (b) GMAW. (b) Shielding gases used for welding do not include which of the following (more than one)? (a) argon. or (d) SMAW. one of the highest of any metal.18 31. (c) helium.9 "Stick" welding is a term sometimes applied when referring to which one of the following processes? (a) FCAW. Higher resistance is required in the conversion of electrical power to heat energy. (b) false. Answer. metals with high resistivity are generally preferable.10 31. (b) Laser stands for "light amplification by stimulated emission of radiation. (d) Which of the following AW processes uses an electrode consisting of continuous consumable tubing containing flux and other ingredients in its core? (a) FCAW. (a) Copper is a relatively easy metal to weld because its thermal conductivity is high: (a) true. Answer. (b) carbon monoxide. (b) false.12 31. or (d) SMAW. (c) GTAW. (a) and (b) The term weldability takes into account not only the ease with which a welding operation can be performed. (b) GMAW. (c) GTAW. (c) friction welding.14 31. Answer. Answer. and no filler metal is added: (a) true. (b) True that copper has a high thermal conductivity. (b). but this is one of the main reasons why copper is generally difficult to weld.15 Oxyacetylene welding is the most widely used oxyfuel welding process because acetylene mixed with an equal volume of air burns hotter than any other commercially available fuel: (a) true. Answer. Answer. The heat readily flows 31. (b) Pressure is applied in RW processes and is key to the success of these processes. (b) Metals with low resistivities. or (b) false.13 31. 31. such as aluminum and copper. but also the quality of the resulting weld: (a) true. or (a) TIG. (b) forge welding. Answer. (a) The term "laser" stands for "light actuated system for effective reflection": (a) true. Answer.11 31. (d) hydrogen. (b) false. Answer.16 31. and (e) Resistance welding processes make use of the heat generated by electrical resistance to achieve fusion of the two parts to be joined.

the welder is idle (resting).5 = 5. Solution: (a) HRw = f1f2EI = (0.85)(0.5 + 5. With two fixtures.1 W)/(10.0) = 9.2 J/mm3. (b) How much improvement in arc time would result if the welder used FCAW (manually operated). two welding fixtures.7% (c) SMAW Rp = 60/15. (a) Determine the average arc time in this welding cycle.70.75.0 min to accomplish the change. The unit melting energy for steel = 10. Determine: (a) arc time and (b) production rate for this work cell.5 + 2000/400 + (1/5)(5.0 mm diameter is added to the operation.5 min to unload the completed weldment at the end of the cycle. I = 125 amps.1 A SMAW operation is accomplished in a work cell using a fitter and a welder. Arc time = 5. fitter and robot work simultaneously. Robot: Tc = 2000/400 = 5. f 1 = 0. and the fitter who loads and unloads the parts. Every 750 mm of weld length. and the travel speed used by the welder averages 400 mm/min.0 = 4.5 + 5.5 + 2.0 = 6. given that the spool of flux-cored weld wire must be changed every five weldments. they switch places.0/9.65. The cell consists of the robot (using GMAW instead of SMAW or FCAW). (c) What are the production rates for these two cases (weldments completed per hour)? Solution: (a) SMAW cycle time Tc = 5.5% (b) Rp = 60/9.96 pc/hr FCAW Rp = 60/14. whose unit melting energy Um = 9.2 In the previous problem.9 mm3/sec.0 min.2 J/mm3) = 421.into the body of the parts that are to be welded.0 = 55.0 minutes and is accomplished by the fitter. Solve for: (a) the rate of heat generation at the weld and (b) the volume rate of metal welded.5 + (1/5)(5.0/14.3 J/mm3. Limiting cycle is the fitter: arc time = 5. and 2.67 pc/hr. and f 2 = 0. While the fitter is working. The electrode wire spool must be changed every five workparts. and it takes the welder 5.133 min.0 + 2.1 W (b) WVR = (4303. The fitter takes 5.8 min.75)(30)(225) = 4303.133 = 3.5 = 14. 31.29 pc/hr.5 = 15. the robot welding at one fixture while the fitter unloads and loads at the other.0 + 1. and while the welder is working.0% (b) FCAW cycle time Tc = 5. 31.8) + 2.4 A GTAW operation is performed on stainless steel.0/15.0 + 2.85 and melting efficiency f 2 = 0.0 min.0 = 35.0 min. 31. The conditions are: E = 25 volts. suppose an industrial robot cell were installed to replace the welder.133 + 2. Arc time = 5. which task requires 5. The heat transfer efficiency f 1 = 0. The total length of the several weld seams to be made is 2000 mm.5 min to place the unwelded components into the welding fixture at the beginning of the work cycle. rather than remaining at the localized region where the joint is to be made. If filler metal wire of 3. Solution: (a) Fitter: Tc = 5.0) + 2. At the end of each work cycle. Problems Arc welding 31. which takes 0.3 A shielded metal arc welding operation is performed on steel at E = 30 volts and I = 225 amps.5 = 5. and the final weld bead is composed of equal volumes of 214 . the welding stick must be changed. the fitter is idle.133 = 33.5 + 2000/400 + (2000/750)(0.

54 in/min. I = 125 amps. Tm = 930°K for aluminum.76 in/min)/(226.7 A continuous weld is to be made around the circumference of a round steel tube of diameter = 6.5 = 30.1.120) = 0.65(0.7)(25)(300)/(158. Solution: (a) f1f2EI = UmAwv v = f1f2EI/UmAw 1 Btu/sec = 1055 J/s = 1055 W. feed rate of filler wire = 153(0. and (b) the feed rate (in mm/sec) at which the filler wire must be supplied. v = (WVR)/Aw = 0.12 in 2.263 in/sec = 15.3(Aw)(5) 1421. Um = 3.filler and base metal.82 mm/s.01462 in 3/sec. (a) Find f 2.76 in/min.50 in 3 per minute. Solution: (a) HRw = f1f2EI = UmAwv 0. so 150 Btu/sec = 158.6(5) = 153 mm3/s Filler wire A = πD2/4 = π(3) 2/4 = 7. and heat transfer efficiency is assumed to be f 1 = 0. If the unit melting energy for the steel = 150 Btu/in3. From Table 30. Circumference C = πD = 12 x 6π = 226. The cross-sectional area of the weld seam = 80 mm2 and the melting efficiency of the aluminum is assumed to be f 2 = 0.33 x 10-6 (930) 2 = 2.5.2 in/rev.57 = 0. The unit melting energy for the metal is known to be 75 Btu/in 3. = 0.05 in2.9(0.877 in 3/min.07 mm2 At 50% filler metal. using the following conditions: E = 20 volts and I = 250 amps. Therefore.250 x 0. The welding conditions are: E = 25 volts.0 ft.07 = 10. Solution: From Table 31.9 = 46.250 W v = 0. Using tabular data and equations given in this and the preceding chapter. 215 .50)/7. Rotational speed N = (15.9/46.5 Aw Aw = 1421.50 in 3/min)/0. The heat transfer efficiency for SAW is f 1 = 0.70)(25)(125) = 9.125(0.90. The tube is slowly rotated under a stationary welding head.5 A flux-cored arc welding operation is performed to butt weld two aluminum plates together. 31. f2 = 0. f1f2EI = Um(WVR) 1 Btu/sec = 1055 J/s = 1055 W. a typical value for GMAW.05 = 17. 31. determine: (a) cross-sectional area of the weld bead.7.2 in/rev) = 0.95(0.9 for FCAW. The rate at which the filler metal is added to the weld is 0. determine: (a) the rotational speed of tube and (b) the time required to complete the weld.88 x 80) = 9. and measurements indicate that the final weld bead consists of 57% filler metal and 43% base metal.05 in 2? Solution: (a) f1f2EI = UmAwv Awv = welding volume rate = WVR = (0.125 W f2 = Um(WVR)/ f1EI = 79. so 75 Btu/sec = 79.6 mm2 (b) Aw v = 30.77 mm/s 31.6 A gas metal arc welding test is performed to determine the value of melting efficiency f2 for a certain metal and operation.06967 rev/min. (b) What is the travel speed if the cross-sectional area of the weld bead = 0. If the travel speed in the operation v = 5 mm/sec.41 (b) Given that Aw = 0. using a submerged arc welding operation under automatic control at a voltage of 25 volts and current of 300 amps.88 J/mm3 f1f2EI = UmAwv v = f1f2EI/UmAw = 0.9 x 25 x 125) = 0.5)(20)(250)/(2.01462)/(0.95 and the assumed melting efficiency f 2 = 0. The cross-sectional area of the weld bead is 0.877/0. determine the likely value for travel speed v in the operation.2.

0 J/mm3.0 mm in diameter by 2.15) = 405 W-sec = 405 J Weld nugget volume V = πD2d/4 = π(5) 2(2. and that only one-third of the electrical energy generated will be used to form the weld nugget (the rest being dissipated into the work).060 in. The unit melting energy for aluminum Um = 2.255 Btu Proportion of heat for welding = 0.1% 31.350 A.9 The unit melting energy for a certain sheet metal to be spot welded is Um = 10.19) 2(0. To achieve required strength.0017) = 0. This results in a weld nugget of diameter = 0.554/0.2) = 1272 J Required heat for the RSW operation H = 1272/(1/3) = 3816 J H = I2Rt = I2(125 x 10-6)(0. If it is assumed that the electrical resistance between the surfaces is 125 micro-ohms.35 x 103 = 12.060)/4 = 0.5)/4 = 127. Assume the resistance = 100 micro-ohms. the weld duration t = 0.3 sec. each 2.1 mm3 Heat required for melting = UmV = (2.0 mm in diameter and 4. determine the minimum current level required in this operation.9 J/mm3)(49. so 9025 W = 8. Process parameters are: current = 9500 A and time duration = 0.000 amps.64 x 106 A2.02835 in 2 I2R = (9500) 2 (100 x 10-6) = 9025 W 1 Btu/sec = 1055 W.2 sec. The thickness of each of the two sheets to be welded is 3.040 in thick sheet steel (low carbon). Resistance welding 31. Solution: (a) PD = I2R/A A = πD2/4 = π(0.2 in/rev)/(15.17 sec.5 mm thick austenitic stainless steel to fabricate a container.02835 = 302 Btu/sec-in2 (b) H = I2Rt = (9500) 2 (100 x 10-6)(0.0 mm thick. The weld duration will be set at 0.454 Btu Weld nugget volume V = πD2d/4 = π(0.8 A RSW operation is used to make a series of spot welds between two pieces of aluminum. Continuous motion 216 .90 J/mm3. 31.5 mm thick.1 mm3) = 142.11 A resistance seam welding operation is performed on two pieces of 2.(b) Time to weld around circumference = C/v = (226.76 in/min) = 14.000 amps.5 mm thick.2 mm3 Hm = 10(127.175 = 17.4/405 = 0. time duration = 0. Determine: (a) the average power density in the interface area defined by the weld nugget. Welding current I = 6. I = 12.19) 2/4 = 0. The weld current in the operation is 10.19 in and thickness = 0. Solution: Hm = UmV V = πD2d/4 = π(6) 2(4.454 = 0. The unit melting energy for steel = 150 Btu/in 3.15 sec. Assume that the resistance = 75 micro-ohms.17) = 1534 W-sec = 1.0 mm. The resulting weld nugget measures 5.255/1.2) = 25 x 10-6 I2 = 3816 J I2 = 3816/(25 x 10-6) = 152. and (b) the proportion of energy generated that went into formation of the weld nugget.4 J Proportion of heat for welding =142. and the resistance at the interface is 75 micro-ohms.0017 in 3 Heat required for melting = UmV = (150 Btu/in 3)(0.5)/4 = 49. How much of the total energy generated is used to form the weld nugget? Solution: H = I2Rt = (5000) 2(75 x 10-6)(0.5% 31.10 A resistance spot welding operation is performed on two pieces of 0.35 min. it is desired to form a weld nugget that is 6.351 = 35.554 Btu/sec PD = 8.

61 mm/s. Tm = 1670°K for austenitic stainless steel.0 = 1.82 mm3 Hm = (9.13 An experimental power source for spot welding is designed to deliver current as a ramp function of time: I = 100. N = v/πD = (276.12 Suppose in the previous problem that a roll spot welding operation is performed instead of seam welding. Given these conditions.441 rev/min.3 sec)(19. This movement is likely to have the effect of making the weld spot elliptical in shape. H = I2Rt = (10. (b) Hm = UmV V = πD2d/4 = π(6. Solution: Hm = UmV V = πD2d/4 = π(4) 2(2)/4 = 25.3 + 1.14 mm3 217 . The power unit driving the process requires an off-time between spot welds of 1.8 mm/min)/(200π in/rev) = 1.836 rev/min. Distance moved per spot weld in order to have contiguous spot welds for the seam = D = 0. (c) Power-on time during cycle = 0.263 (b) Total cycle time per spot weld = 1.3) = 2225 J Proportion of heat for welding =788/2225= 0.33 x 10-6 (1670) 2 = 9. and (c) the rotational speed of the electrode wheels. The resistance R = 85 micro-ohms. determine: (a) the proportion of energy generated that goes into the formation of each weld nugget.3) = 3000 J Proportion of heat for welding =788/3000 = 0.welding is used. Hm = (9. (c) At this higher rotational speed.000) 2(75 x 10-6)(0.3 sec. with the changes noted here. The sheet metal being spot welded is low carbon steel whose unit melting energy = 10 J/mm3.29 J/mm3)(84. The individual weld nuggets formed in this RSEW operation have dimensions: diameter = 6 mm and thickness = 3 mm (assume the weld nuggets are disc-shaped).29 J/mm3)(84. the current is stopped abruptly. (b) the proportion of energy generated that goes into the formation of each weld nugget. with 200 mm diameter electrode wheels. = 276.0 s.3 sec as in previous problem. 31. Um = 3.77 mm. Solution: (a) From Table 30. These weld nuggets must be contiguous to form a sealed seam. Distance moved per spot weld = 25 mm as given.000 t.9 mm/min. Movement of wheel during 0. and (b) the rotational speed of the electrode wheels. and the center-to-center separation between weld nuggets is 25 mm.25 in.00 mm/1.29 J/mm3 from previous problem.3 sec.354 (c) Total cycle time per weld = 0.0)/4 = 84. determine: (a) the unit melting energy of stainless steel using the methods of the previous chapter. The interface resistance increases to 100 micro-ohms. and might this have the effect of elongating the weld nugget (making it elliptical rather than round)? Solution: (a) Um = 3.2. N = v/πD = (1153.3 sec = (0.9 mm/min)/(200π mm/rev) = 0.0) 2(3.29 J/mm3.000) 2(100 x 10-6)(0. At the end of the power-on time.3 sec = 19.3 sec = 4. how much does the wheel move during the current on-time. surface speed of electrode wheel v = 6. The desired weld nugget size is: diameter = 4 mm and thickness = 2 mm (assume a disc-shaped nugget).23 mm/s = 1153.82 mm3) = 788 J H = I2Rt = (10. Given the conditions from the previous problem. 31.82 mm3) = 788 J from previous problem. where I = amp and t = sec.23 mm/s) = 5. Therefore. It is assumed that 1/4 of the energy generated from the power source will be used to form the weld nugget. Determine the power-on time the current must be applied in order to perform this spot welding operation. Surface speed of electrode wheel v = 25 mm/1.8 mm/min.33 x 10-6 (1670) 2 = 9.

5 W Area A = πD2/4 = π(0.0 J/mm3.35 mm by 3.5 x 106 J/hr = 7642 J/s (b) Rate of heat received at work surface = f1 HR = 0.700 Btu/hr = 4. 2 Power density PD = 0. The heat transfer efficiency f 1 = 0.6 J Power P = ∫ I2R dt = ∫(100.25(4. Heat generated by combustion is transferred to the work surface with an efficiency f1 = 0. and the proportion of heat concentrated in the 9 mm circle is 60% instead of 75 %. 2 Electron beam welding 31.6/31481.6 t3 = 1005.000t)2 R dt = 100. The weld joint is to be 0.94 Btu/sec-in.000t3/3 = 31481.75.031943 t = (0.25 = 1005. If 75% of the heat from the flame is concentrated in a circular area on the work surface whose diameter = 0.17 An electron beam welding operation is to be accomplished to butt weld two sheet metal parts that are 3.3 mm in diameter.16 The voltage in an EBW operation = 50 kV and the beam current = 65 milliamp.074 W/mm2 31.0707 = 39.317 s.85(50 x 103)(65 x 10-3) = 2762.5 t3 = 1005.000R ∫ t2 dt = (105)2(85 x 10-6)t3/3 evaluated between 0 and t.Hm = (10 J/mm3)(25. beam current = 30 milliamp. and melting efficiency f 2 = 0. Calculate the average power density in the area in watt/mm2.6 mm2 Power density PD = 0.08 Btu/sec (b) Rate of heat received at work surface = f1 HR = 0. and (c) average power density in the circular area.35 mm wide.0) 2/4 = 63. The unit melting energy = 5. If accelerating voltage = 25 kV.5/0.031943) 1/3 = 0.85.1104 in. H = 850.25.3 m3/hr)(91.0 mm.6 = 18.0 mm thick.14 Suppose in Example 31. (b) rate of heat transferred to the work surface.14 mm3) = 251.25(7642) = 1910 J/s (c) Area of circle in which 60% of heat is concentrated A = πD2/4 = π(9.75(1. Solution: Power density PD = f1EI/A Power P = f1EI = 0. heat transfer efficiency f 1 = 0.08 Btu/sec) = 1. (b) rate of heat transferred to the work surface.02 Btu/sec)/(0. so that the cross-section of the fused metal is 0.15 An oxyacetylene torch supplies 10 ft3 of acetylene per hour and an equal volume rate of oxygen for an OAW operation on 3/16 in steel.3 in the text that the fuel used in the welding operation is MAPP instead of acetylene.85.375 in. Solution: (a) Rate of heat generated by the torch HR = (10 ft3/hr)(1470 Btu/ft3) = 14. Compute: (a) rate of heat liberated during combustion.30) 2/4 = 0.5 = 0.7 x 106 J/m3) = 27.375) 2/4 = 0.0707 mm3 PD = 2762. The electron beam is focused on a circular area that is 0. Oxyfuel Welding 31. determine the travel speed at which this weld can be made along the seam. 218 .60(1910)/63. find: (a) rate of heat liberated during combustion.4/0. Solution: (a) Rate of heat generated by the torch HR = (0.02 Btu/sec (c) Area of circle in which 75% of heat is concentrated A = πD2/4 = π(0. and (c) average power density in the circular area.0 W/mm2 31.4 J H = 251.1104 in 2) = 6.

05) = 91. beam current = 100 milliamp. determine the average power density in the area in Btu/sec in 2.Solution: Available heat for welding HRw = f1f2EI = UmAwv Travel velocity v = f1f2EI/UmAw Cross sectional area of weld seam Aw = (0.18 An electron beam welding operation uses the following process parameters: accelerating voltage = 25 kV.05 mm2 v = 0. If the heat transfer efficiency f 1 = 90%.05 mm/s 31. Solution: Power density PD = f1EI/A Area in which beam is focused A = πD2/4 = π(0.85(0.000314 in 3 Power P = 0.020 in.133/0.0 x 1.35)(3.020) 2/4 = 0.000314 = 6792 Btu/sec-in2 219 .75)(25 x 103)(30 x 10-3)/(5. and the circular area on which the beam is focused has a diameter = 0.0) = 1.133 Btu/sec PD = 2.90(25 x 103)(100 x 10-3)/1055 = 2.

(4) be a good wetting agent.7 The molten filler metal in brazing is distributed throughout the joint by capillary action. Certain changes in joint configuration are usually made to improve the strength of brazed joints. In brazing and soldering filler metal is used.2 BRAZING. 32.6 What are the two joint types most commonly used in brazing? Answer. In butt joints. the butting surface areas are increased in various ways such as scarfing or stepping the edges. (2) have a low melting temperature. (4) joint areas might be inaccessible for welding but brazing or soldering is possible. (3) have a low viscosity when melted. What is capillary action? Answer. In soldering the filler metal melts at a temperature of 840 degrees F or below.9 What is dip brazing? Answer. Capillary action is the physical tendency of a liquid to be drawn into a small diameter tube or other narrow openings in spite of the force of gravity. Brazing or soldering might be preferred if: (1) the base metals have poor weldability. 32. A brazing flux should do the following: (1) inhibit the formation of oxides and other unwanted byproducts during the brazing. Butt and lap joints. Several of the adaptations are illustrated in the figures of this chapter. 220 . 32. 32. (2) the components cannot tolerate the higher heat and temperatures of welding. (3) production rates might be faster and less expensive than welding.32 32. In brazing and soldering. and (5) the high strength of a welded joint is not a requirement.1 32. AND ADHESIVE BONDING Review Questions How do brazing and soldering differ from the fusion welding processes? Answer. whereas in solid state welding no filler metal is added.4 Under what circumstances would brazing or soldering be preferred over welding? Answer.8 What are the desirable characteristics of a brazing flux? Answer. In brazed or soldered lap joints. The parts to be brazed are dipped into a molten salt or molten metal bath which supplies the heating for the operation. In brazing the filler metal melts at a temperature above 840 degrees F (450 degrees C). SOLDERING.10 Define braze welding. What are some of these changes? Answer. It is caused by the adhesive attraction between the liquid molecules and the solid surfaces that define the narrow openings. no melting of the base metal(s) occurs.3 What is the technical difference between brazing and soldering? Answer. 32. How do brazing and soldering differ from the solid state welding processes? Answer. the overlap area is made as large as possible. 32. and (5) protect the joint until solidification occurs.5 32. 32.

Advantages of soldering: (1) lower heat energy required than brazing or welding. What is meant by the term curing? Answer. (3) good electrical and thermal conductivity of the joint. 32. (2) melt the solder. (2) high service temperatures may weaken a brazed joint.20 What are some of the methods used to cure adhesives? Answer. A structural adhesive is capable of forming a strong permanent joint between strong.21 Name the three basic categories of commercial adhesives. (3) convey solder to the joint.g. and (4) the color of the filler metal is often different than the color of the base metals. 32. such as a V-joint. use of ultraviolet light. Disadvantages and limitations: (1) the strength of the brazed joint is generally less than that of a welded joint. 32.12 32. It differs from a conventional welding operation in that no melting of the base metals occurs. and application of pressure. 32. chemical solvents must be used to remove the flux after the joining operation. (2) various heating methods available. Why are rosins as soldering fluxes losing favor in industry? Answer. The functions include: (1) provide heat to the parts. and (4) withdraw excess solder from the joint. 32. (1) low mechanical strength unless reinforced and (2) elevated service temperatures can weaken the joint. The curing methods include: chemical reaction between two components of the adhesive (e.13 What are the two most common alloying metals used in solders? Answer. rigid components.14 What are the functions served by the bit of a soldering iron in hand soldering? Answer. 32. epoxies). Braze welding is used for adding braze metal to a more conventional geometry weld joint.17 What are the disadvantages and drawbacks of soldering? Answer. Wave soldering involves the flow of molten solder onto the underside of a printed circuit board to provide soldered connections between the component leads that project through holes in the boards. heating of the adhesive. 32. 32. Since natural rosin is insoluble in water. Curing is the chemical reaction in which the adhesive transforms from liquid to solid and in the process forms the surface attachment between the two adherends. 221 .16 List the advantages often attributed to soldering as an industrial joining process? Answer.. These chemical solvents are hazardous to the environment and to humans. (3) part sizes are limited. and (5) ease of repair and rework.18 What is meant by the term structural adhesive? Answer.Answer.15 What is wave soldering? Answer. 32. It differs from the typical brazing operation in that no capillary action occurs. 32.19 An adhesive must cure in order to bond.11 What are some of the disadvantages and limitations of brazing? Answer. Tin and lead. (4) capable of making air-tight and liquid-tight joints.

and (3) synthetic adhesives (e. For each question.025 to 0.2 The strength of a brazed joint is typically which one of the following relative to the filler metal out of which it is made: (a) equal to. the base metals melt at temperatures above 840°F (450°C) while in soldering they melt at 840°F (450°C) or below: (a) true. 32. (2) the adhesive must be compatible with the adherend materials. (2) inorganic adhesives (e. all correct answers must be given. Advantages of adhesive bonding: (1) applicable to a wide variety of materials . and (7) roll coating. Answer..). 32.50 mm (0. (5) curing times can limit production rates. (b) Neither brazing or soldering involve melting of the base metals.010 in.23 What are some of the methods used to apply adhesives in industrial production operations? Answer.0025 to 0. (b) stronger than. (6) automatic dispensers.similar or dissimilar. (2) fragile parts can be joined.1 In brazing. or (b) false. The surfaces of the adherends must be very clean.). or (c) weaker than. 32. thus permitting them to tolerate strains encountered in service. (3) service temperatures are limited. (4) use of flow guns. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers.25 What are some of the limitations of adhesive bonding? Answer.. 32. The categories are: (1) natural adhesives (e.3 Scarfing in the brazing of a butt joint involves the wrapping of a sheath around the two parts to be joined to contain the molten filler metal during the heating process: (a) true.001 to 0. or (d) 2. Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 24 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct).g.025 mm (0. (2) use of manual rollers.). (b) Scarfing involves a preparation of the two edges to increase surface area for brazing.0001 to 0.20 in.. (c) 0.100 in. 32. (4) surfaces to be bonded must be very clean.g. Methods include: (1) manual brushing. sodium silicate). and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point. Special surface preparation is sometimes required immediately prior to application of the adhesive in order to insure cleanliness.250 mm (0. Answer. 32.22 What is an important precondition for the success of an adhesive bonding operation? Answer.0 mm (0.24 Identify some of the advantages of adhesive bonding compared to alternative joining methods. (5) low curing temperatures. starch. and (7) simplified joint design.). (b) 32. Answer. 222 .010 to 0. (5) spraying.g. To attain a perfect score on the quiz.250 to 2. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point.4 Clearances between surfaces in brazing are which one of the following: (a) 0. 32. (b) 0. (6) some adhesives are suited to sealing as well as bonding. or (b) false.10 to 0. Answer. (6) inspection of the bond is difficult. (3) silk screening. (3) bonding occurs over entire surface area of joint. since each correct answer is worth 1 point.001 in.5 to 5. thermoplastic and thermosetting polymers such as epoxies and acrylics).Answer. (4) certain adhesives are flexible after curing. collagen). Limitations of adhesive bonding: (1) adhesively bonded joints are generally not as strong as other joining techniques.

and (d) surface tension of the fluid adhesive. (e) ad infinitum. 32. (d) stronger joint than welding. (c) multiple joints can be brazed simultaneously.14 Which of the following are the mechanisms that operate in adhesive bonding (more than one)? (a) chemical bonding. (a). Answer. (b) promote wetting of the surfaces. Answer. Answer. (c). (c) soldering iron. Answer. (d) silver.6 Which of the following soldering methods are not used for brazing (more than one)? (a) dip soldering. (a).5 Which of the following is an advantage of brazing (more than one): (a) dissimilar metals can be joined. (b) 32. or (b) reduce the strength of an adhesively bonded joint because it increases the effective area of the joint and promotes mechanical interlocking. (c) lead. Answer. (c) water-soluble organic fluxes. (b) less heat and energy required than fusion welding.15 Roughening of the faying surfaces tends to (a) increase. (d).7 Which one of the following is not a function of a flux in brazing or soldering? (a) chemically etch the surfaces to increase roughness for better adhesion of the filler metal. (b) Weldbonding is a combination of adhesive bonding and spot welding. 32. (b). (b) gold. (c) and (d). (c) shear. (b) mechanical interlocking. 32. (b) natural rosin fluxes. Answer. or (b) false. (d) adhibit. and (e) wave soldering. (b) The trigger on a soldering gun is used to switch on the electric resistance heating elements.10 A soldering gun is capable of injecting molten solder metal into the joint area: (a) true. Answer. 32. Answer. 32. and (e). (c) secondary bonding forces between atoms of opposing surfaces. (a).9 Which of the following metals is used in solder alloys (more than one)? (a) antimony. (b) adherent.Answer. (c) protect the faying surfaces during the process. or (e) tin. which one of the following is the term used for the parts that are joined: (a) adherend. 32. Answer. (b) infrared soldering. (b) peeling. 32. Answer. (c) and (e).11 In adhesive bonding. 223 . (b). and (c).13 Adhesively bonded joints are strongest under which type of stresses (pick two best answers): (a) cleavage. (c) adhesive. (a) 32. or (d) remove or inhibit formation of oxide films. in which a primary chemical bond is formed between the adhesive and the parts being joined. 32.12 Weldbonding is an adhesive joining method in which heat is used to melt the adhesive: (a) true. (d) torch soldering. (a) 32. (a) Preferred because it is water-soluble. and (c). and (d) tension. or (b) false.8 Which type of soldering flux is preferred for electrical and electronics connections? (c) inorganic fluxes such as zinc chloride.

(a) 224 .Answer.

welding. and then advancing the fastener by a specified additional amount of turn. the internal part is cooled so that it can be readily inserted into the mating component. Both are externally threaded fasteners.not possible with welding and brazing. 33. Then cooling causes an interference fit with the component. and to make adjustments.9 What is the difference between a shrink fit and expansion fit in assembly? Answer. A screw is generally assembled into a blind threaded hole. many of the mechanical fastening methods allow for disassembly .7 What are the three ways in which a threaded fastener can fail during tightening? Answer.8 What is a rivet? Answer. and (3) the parts can be designed with self-aligning features. (2) stripping of the internal fastener threads. Also. 33. Proof strength can be defined as the maximum tensile stress that an externally threaded fastener can sustain without permanent deformation. A rivet is an unthreaded headed pin used to join two parts by inserting the pin through holes in the parts and deforming the unheaded portion over the opposite side.2 What are some of the reasons why assemblies must be sometimes disassembled? Answer. whereas a bolt is assembled using a nut. Answer.1 MECHANICAL ASSEMBLY How does mechanical assembly differ from the other methods of assembly discussed in previous chapters (e. Torque-turn tightening involves the tightening of the threaded fastener to a certain low torque level. Mechanical assembly uses a mechanical fastening method for joining two (or more) parts. 33. Then. (1) Stripping of the bolt or screw threads. 225 .4 What is a stud (in the context of threaded fasteners)? Answer. brazing. Review Questions 33. 33.33 33. In a shrink fit. it expands to cause an interference fit with its mating part. (2) no tooling is required.3 What is the technical difference between a screw and a bolt? Answer. For maintenance and repair service. or (3) excessive tensile load on the cross-sectional area of the bolt or screw.)? Answer. the outside part is expanded by heating to fit over the mating component.6 Define proof strength as the term applies in threaded fasteners. 33. A stud is an externally threaded fastener that does not have the usual head possessed by a bolt. upon warming to room temperature. (1) The method is fast. 33.g. etc.. 33.10 What are the advantages of snap fitting? Answer. In an expansion fit.5 What is torque-turn tightening? Answer. to replace worn-out components. 33.

2 Which of the following methods is used for applying the required torque to achieve a desired preload of a threaded fastener (more than one)? (a) sense of feel by a human operator. Answer. If all of the components can be added vertically from above. (3) Standardize fasteners in order to reduce the number of sizes and styles of fasteners required in the product. Answer. eliminating the need for threaded fasteners. and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point. frustrating assembly workers or jamming automatic feeders. The preferred practice for automated assembly is to separate the operations at different stations rather than to simultaneously handle and fasten multiple components at the same workstation. 33.11 What is the difference between industrial stitching and stapling? Answer. e. 33. all correct answers must be given.. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point. To attain a perfect score on the quiz. Some of the principles and guidelines that apply specifically to automated assembly include: (1) Use modularity in product design. or (b) machining. In stapling. This allows easier handling and insertion during assembly. since each correct answer is worth 1 point. the number of directions in which new components are added to the existing subassembly. Integral fasteners make use of a forming operation on one of the parts to be joined to interlock the components and create a mechanically fastened joint. or (d) torque wrench. 226 . that is.12 What are integral fasteners? Answer. (2) Reduce the need for multiple components to be handled at once. (3) Limit the required directions of access. where disassembly or adjustment is required.14 Identify some of the general principles and guidelines that apply specifically to automated assembly. (b) snap fit. and similar fastening mechanisms that can be accomplished more rapidly. Assembly is by simple insertion. (4) Use only high quality components. (5) Use of snap fit assembly. and curls are more likely to become entangled in parts bins. (c) stall-motor wrenches.1 Most externally threaded fasteners are produced by: (a) cold forming. Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 18 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct). Answer. holes. integral fasteners. (2) Reduce the number of threaded fasteners required.g. Riley [11] suggests that each module or subassembly to be produced on a single assembly system has a maximum of 12 or 13 parts and should be designed around a base part to which other components are added. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers. retaining rings. (5) Avoid parts that tangle. 33. Parts with hooks. instead use snap fits. this is the ideal situation. Poor quality components cause jams in feeding and assembly mechanisms that result in downtime. For each question. (a) 33. In stitching the U-shaped fasteners are formed during the assembly process. slots. Use threaded fasteners only where justified. Some of the general principles and guidelines in design for assembly include: (1) Use the fewest number of parts possible to reduce the amount of assembly required.33. the fasteners are preformed. (4) Reduce parts orientation difficulties by designing parts to be symmetrical and minimizing the number of asymmetric features. usually from above.13 Identify some of the general principles and guidelines for design for assembly. 33.

so as to minimize the number of ways the parts will go together. (c) the components can be designed with features that facilitate parts mating. and (d) the resulting joint is stronger than with most other assembly methods. (c). or (b) false. it then expands to form the interference fit.5 The difference between a shrink fit and an expansion fit is that in a shrink fit the internal part is cooled to a sufficiently low temperature to reduce its size for assembly. and (e) limit the required directions of access when adding components to a base part. whereas in an expansion fit. an interference fit is formed. (a) 33. Answer (c) certainly includes the scope of mechanical assembly but it is not a reason for using it.3 Which of the following are reasons for using mechanical assembly (more than one)? (a) ease of assembly. (a) and (e). (d) design parts with asymmetric features to mate with other parts having corresponding (but reverse) features. Answer. 33.. (a). (c) in some cases involves a melting of the base parts. Answer. and (c). (b). 33. Answer. (b) design the product using bolts and nuts wherever possible to allow for disassembly. and (d) no heat affected zone in the base parts. or (d) stripping of the internal or external threads. screwdriver) resulting in failure of the head.8 From the standpoint of assembly cost. When brought back to room temperature in either case. Snap fit joints are not recognized as being stronger than joints produced by other assembly methods. 33. All of the other answers go against design-for-assembly principles.7 The difference between industrial stitching and stapling is that the U-shaped fasteners are formed during the stitching process while in stapling the fasteners are preformed: (a) true. (b) no special tools are required. Answer. (c) excessive tensile stresses.Answer. (b) excessive shearing stresses on the threads due to inadequate length of engagement. (c) design with as many different fastener types as possible to achieve maximum flexibility in design. and (d) 33. In an expansion fit. it is more desirable to use few large threaded fasteners rather than many small ones because the large fasteners are easier to handle and since there are fewer of them. or (b) false. it is more desirable to use many small threaded fasteners rather than few large ones in order to distribute the stresses more uniformly: (a) true. Answer. (c). Answer. the internal part is cooled to contract it for assembly. (b) From the standpoint of assembly cost. (b). (a) true. (b).9 Which of the following are considered good product design rules for automated assembly (more than one)? (a) design the assembly with the fewest number of components possible. and (d) 33. (b). (a). In a shrink fit the external part is heated and then cooled to shrink it onto the internal part. Answer.4 Which of the following are the common ways in which threaded fasteners fail during tightening (more than one)? (a) excessive pressure applied to the bolt or screw head by the tightening tool (e. the external part is heated sufficiently to increase its size for assembly. 33. (b) ease of disassembly.g.6 The advantages of snap fit assembly include which of the following (more than one)? (a) assembly can be accomplished quickly. they require less assembly time. and (d). or (b) false. (a). 227 .

7 mm2 σ = 3750/156. 33. It is to be preloaded to 75% of its proof strength.25π(0.22(0.Problems Threaded Fasteners 33.0 in.3 lb. 33. 5/16-18.66 N-m. However. If the torque coefficient C = 0.99 mm2 σ = 0.9382 x 1. If the torque coefficient C = 0.94 N/mm2 = 23.0. 33.5 lb.0775) = 2557.75) = 833. Solution: T = 12 N-m = 12.5 N-mm = 0.657.25(0.2 x 16) = 3750 N. 33. Solution: T = CDF = 0. 16 threads/in) in a certain application should be stressed to its proof stress of 33.000 lb/in 2 (Table 33.7 = 23.20.20. 5/8-11. which is 33.5 A torque wrench is used on a 3/4-10 UNC screw (3/4 in nominal diameter. or 3/4-10. 228 .20.50)(1000) = 110 in-lb.5 screw (10 mm diameter.334 = 2495 lb/in2 33.1).4 N.5 of 300 MPa = 150 MPa = 150 N/mm2 F = σAs = 150(57. T = CDF = 0. Determine: (a) the smallest nominal size of an alloy steel bolt (proof strength = 120.375 . Solution: F = T/CD = 125/(0.5) = 240 in-lb.3/0.000(0.4 A 1/2-in diameter screw is to be preloaded to a tension force F = 1000 lb.000 lb/in 2 (see Table 33.334 in2 σ = 833.000 lb/in 2) that could be used to achieve the same preload from the following standard UNC sizes used by the company: 1/4-20. and (b) compare the torque required to obtain the preload for the original 1-in bolt and the alloy steel bolt selected in part (a) if the torque coefficient in both cases C = 0.99) = 8698. 1/2-13.1 N-mm = 15. Determine the maximum torque that should be used if C = 0. Determine the torque that should be used to tighten the bolt.75 .2 A Metric 10 x 1.7 A 1-8 UNC low carbon steel bolt (diameter = 1.4) = 15. T = CDF = 0.9743/10) 2 = 0. Solution: As = 0. Solution: T = CDF = 0. 3/8-16.25π(16 . pitch p = 1. Determine the maximum torque that should be used if the torque coefficient C = 0. 8 threads/in) is currently planned for a certain application.0.9743/16) 2 = 0.25π(0. and a higher strength but smaller bolt would be preferable.25. Torque coefficient C = 0.000/(0. pitch p = 2 mm) is subjected to a torque of 12 N-m during tightening. determine the tensile stress on the bolt.1 A 5-mm diameter bolt is to be tightened to produce a preload = 25 N. determine the tension in the bolt. which is 300 MPa.0. determine the torque that should be applied.0775 in2 F = σAs = 33.22.1).3 A M16x2 bolt (16 mm diameter. As = 0.0.6 The designer has specified that a 3/8-16 UNC low-carbon bolt (3/8 in nominal diameter. 10 threads/in) in an automobile final assembly plant.94 MPa.18(10)(8698.2875 N-m. If the torque coefficient C = 0. As = 0.375)(2557.5 mm) is to be turned into a threaded hole and tightened to one/half of its proof strength. 33.2 x 0. A torque of 125 in-lb is generated by the wrench.5) 2 = 57.23(5)(250) = 287.000 N-mm F = T/CD = 12.25π(10 .9382 x 2) 2 = 156.18.23. Solution: As = 0. this bolt is too large for the size of the components involved.

Compute: (a) the radial pressure between the shaft and the gear. Determine: the radial (interference) pressure on the assembly.000 in and its outside diameter = 2. (3) 3/8-16. As = F/σ = 14992/(0. Solution: Max σe ≤ Y/SF .408 lb/in2 (b) Max σe = 2pfDc2/( Dc2 .000 lb/in2. Using a safety factor SF = 2. The nominal internal diameter of the gear = 30 mm and the interference = 0.02)/(1. Try (5): (D .625)(14.9 A gear made of aluminum (modulus of elasticity E = 69.11 The yield strength of a certain metal Y = 50.Dp2) = 25.0.0 mm.000 lb/in2 Eq. determine the maximum interference that should be used with this assembly.998 in and the shaft has an outside diameter = 1.Dp2) = 2(161. The modulus of elasticity of steel E = 30 x 106 lb/in2.9743/n) = 0.9743/n) 2 (D . Solution: (a) pf = Ei(Dc2 .752 -1. (33.000) = 0.6) 229 .500 in.9743/n) = (0.6057) = 14. Possible bolt sizes are: (1) 1/4-20. The pin has a nominal diameter of 13.9743/n) = (0.000/2.Dp2)/DpDc2 = 69.0 = 25.6)(252)/(252 .000 lb/in2 and its modulus of elasticity E = 22 x 106 lb/in2.5)(552)/ (552 . It is to be used for the outer ring of a press-fit assembly with a mating shaft made of the same metal. (6) 3/4-10 Try (1): (D .2(1.02) = 120.1.Solution: (a) As = 0.000 in.25 .4605 will be sufficient.02)(352 .10 A steel collar is press fitted onto a steel shaft. (33.02 mm.9743/20) = 0.9743/8) 2 = 0.5 MPa (b) Max σe = 2pfDc2/( Dc2 .000(0.02)(252 .2(0. (2) 5/16-18. (b) For the original 1-8 bolt. and (b) the maximum effective stress in the collar at its inside diameter.9743/11) = 0.000(0.1 MPa 33. (5) 5/8-11.000 MPa) is press-fitted onto an aluminum shaft.0.0 . The collar has an internal diameter = 0.2 MPa Max σe = 2(277.132)/(13 x 352) = 277. For the 5/8-11 bolt.302) = 460 MPa 33.8 A dowel pin made of steel (E = 209.752 . Interference Fits 33.1665 in2/0.9743/n) 2 = 0.302)/(30 x 552) = 161.0 mm.752)/ (1.998 in-lb.10)(552 .992 lb.212 in2 (D .874 in-lb.000 MPa) is to be press fitted into a steel collar.25π = 0. T = CDF = 0. (4) 1/2-13.Dp2) = 2(40.000)(0. (a) Compute the radial pressure and the maximum effective stress if the interference between the shaft OD and the collar ID is 0.0.0. Obviously.5364 in.4605 in.9) Eq. Use 5/8-11 bolt.75(33.2013 in.0)(14.992) = 2. pf = 209.0.1 MPa (b) When Dc = 35 mm.0.000 lb/in 2 Max σe = 2pfDc2/(Dc2 .408)(1. none of the D values below 0.132) = 643.2)(352)/(352 .6 MPa Max σe = 2pfDc2/( Dc2 .6057 in2 F = σAs = 0.002)(1.000(0.0. Solution: (a) pf = Ei(Dc2 . For the alloy bolt.0 x 1.132)/(13 x 252) = 234.132) = 643. and the collar has an outside diameter = 25.25π(1.750 in. (b) Determine the effect of increasing the outside diameter of the collar to 35.1665 in 2 As = 0.752) = 40. The gear has a diameter of 55 mm at the base of its teeth. The outside diameter of the collar is 1. The nominal inside diameter of the ring is 1.625 .4605 in. Solution: (a) pf = Ei(Dc2 -Dp2)/DpDc2 = 30 x 106(0.1665 in2 = 0.0.000 lb/in2 33. and (b) the maximum effective stress in the gear at its inside diameter.25π(D . use Max σe = Y/SF = 50.10 mm. T = CDF = 0.Dp2) = 2(234. > 0.992) = 1.0. σ = 120.75 x 120.Dp2)/DpDc2 = 209.0 mm on the radial pressure and the maximum effective stress.

1.507 = D1 + 0.1 x 10-6 mm/mm per °C.00623 D1 = 1. respectively.13 A steel ring has an inside diameter = 30 mm and an outside diameter = 50 mm at room temperature (21°C). If the coefficient of thermal expansion of the pin is α = 6.00 mm.15 A steel collar whose outside diameter = 3.14 A 1-inch diameter steel pin is to be heated from room temperature (70°F) to 700°F.000(2.52) = 10.20 mm in order to be expansion fitted into a hole. then the inside diameter of the collar must be D2 = Dp + 0. Properties of the pin and collar metal are: coefficient of thermal expansion = 12. Solution: (a) If the clearance = 0.D1 = D2 .007 = 1.500 lb/in2 pf = Ei(Dc2 -Dp2)/DpDc2 Eq.8 x 10-6(40)(T2 .04 mm.6 T2 = -201.4977 = 0. yield strength = 450 MPa.T1) = 6.7 x 10-6(1.0)(2. At room temperature (20°C).950 lb/in2 (c) Max σe = 2(34.52)/(1.00623 D1 1.007.1.7 x 10-6 D1(1000 .000.7 x 10-6 in/in per °F.174 = 30.0042 in.507 .02) = 34.D1) = -0.02)/ (3.6° C ° 33.500 .5) 2 2 2 Rearranging.02)) = 0.8 x 10-6 x 40) = -201.30 = 12.7 x 10-6 in/in per °F. (a) What is the temperature to which the pin must be cooled 230 . pf = σe(Dc2 . Its coefficient of thermal expansion α = 24. i = pf DpDc /E(Dc .52) = 93. For steel. Solution: D2 . 33.Dp ) i = 10. Determine: (a) the initial inside diameter of the collar at room temperature so that this clearance is satisfied.0 x 10-6 m/m/°C.00233 in.52 ..21) T2 .000 lb/in 2 and α = 6.20 = 24.00623 D1 D1 = 1.507/1.00 mm and 40.007 in.02)/(2 x 2. The shaft diameter = 1. 1.D1) = αD1(T2 .00233)(3. pf = 30 x 106 (0. 33.000 in at room temperature is to be shrink fitted onto a steel shaft by heating it to an elevated temperature while the shaft remains at room temperature.174 mm. and the pin has a diameter = 40. the outer and inner diameters of the collar = 75.00623 = 1. determine the temperature to which the shaft must be cooled.00057 in. Solution: (D2 .500 + 0.52 .6 + 21 = -180. If it must be reduced in size by 0.21) D2 = 30 + 0.1.507 .007 in.4977 in.02 . E = 30. the clearance between the shaft and the collar is to be 0.5 x 3. If the coefficient of thermal expansion of steel α = 12.02 . determine the inside diameter of the ring when heated to 500°C.500(1.0 mm in diameter at room temperature (21°C).Rearranging.D1 = 0.16 A pin is to be inserted into a collar using an expansion fit.8 x 10-6 mm/mm per °C. determine the increase in diameter of the pin.Dp2)/2D c2 = 25.200 lb/in2 33. For ease of assembly when the collar is heated to an elevated temperature of 1000°F.20/(24. Solution: (D2 .D1 = 6.70) = 4221 x 10-6 = 0.1 x 10-6(30)(500 .70) 1. and modulus of elasticity = 209 GPa.1. (b) Interference i = 1.1. 33.950)(3.500 in. (b) the radial pressure and (c) maximum effective stress on the resulting interference fit at room temperature (70°F).12 A shaft made of aluminum is 40.52)/(22 x 106 x (2. The pin is to be reduced in size for assembly into the collar by cooling to a sufficiently low temperature that there is a clearance of 0.02 mm. (33.0)(700 .21 = -0.

02)(752 – 402)/(40(752) = 0.395.8 MPa (c) Max σe = 2pfDc2/(Dc2 – Dp2) = 2(74.07477(109) N/m2 = 74.24(10-6) T2 -50.000(10-6) + 9604.Dp2)/DpDc2 pf = 209(109)(0.for assembly? (b) What is the radial pressure at room temperature after assembly? (c) What is the safety factor in the resulting assembly? Solution: (a) D2 – D1 = αD1(T2 – T1) = (40.24(10-6) T2 T2 = -104.00 – 0.8(10-6) -60.9° C ° (b) pf = Ei(Dc2 .8(10-6) = 480. then SF = Y/( Max σe ) = 450/209 = 2.2(10-6) = 480.02)(T2 – 20) -0.15 231 .06 = 480.04) – 40.8)(752)/(752 – 402) = 209 MPa If Y = 450 MPa and Max σe = Y/SF.24(10-6) T2 – 9604.02 = 12(10-6)(40.

34 RAPID PROTOTYPING Review Questions 34.8 What is the starting material in fused deposition modeling? Answer. The text describes the common approach as a three step process: (1) Geometric modeling. Instead of using a scanning laser beam to accomplish the curing of a given layer. since each correct answer is worth 1 point. (1) Liquid. Stereolithography. in which the CAD model is converted into a format that approximates its surfaces by facets (triangles or polygons). Laminated object manufacturing produces a solid physical model by stacking layers of sheet stock that are each cut to an outline corresponding to the cross-sectional shape of a CAD model that has been sliced into layers.3 34. The part build process also distinguishes the different RP technologies. (2) tessellation of the geometric model. which one is the most widely used? Answer.6 Of all of the current rapid prototyping technologies. Describe the RP technology called solid ground curing. A long filament of wax or polymer. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point. and (3) slicing of the model into layers that approximate the solid geometry. and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required 232 . and (3) powders. Answer. what other feature distinguishes the rapid prototyping technologies? Answer. What is the common approach used in all of the material addition technologies to prepare the control instructions for the RP system? Answer. Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 14 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct). (2) solid.7 Describe the RP technology called laminated object manufacturing. 34. the entire layer is exposed to an ultraviolet light source through a mask that is positioned above the surface of the liquid polymer. Rapid prototyping consists of a family of fabrication processes developed to make engineering prototypes in minimum possible lead times based on a computer-aided design (CAD) model of the item.1 What is rapid prototyping? Provide a definition of the term. For each question. Besides the starting material. 34.5 34. The layers are bonded one on top of the previous prior to cutting. all correct answers must be given. Answer. To attain a perfect score on the quiz.2 34. 34. which consists of modeling the component on a CAD system to define its enclosed volume. Answer. Solid ground curing works by curing a photosensitive polymer layer by layer to create a solid model based on CAD geometric data. 34.4 What are the three types of starting materials in rapid prototyping? Answer.

233 . (b) Examples include small batch sizes of plastic parts that could not be economically injection molded. 34. and (e) stereolithography. Answer. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers. (d) solid ground curing. (e) 34. The diameter of the laser beam (“spot size”) = 0. Answer. Compute an estimate for the time required to build the part.1 Machining is never used for rapid prototyping because it takes too long: (a) true or (b) false.10 mm. Answer. which one is the most widely used? (a) ballistic particle manufacturing. The outside dimension of the square = 100 mm and the inside dimension = 90 mm (wall thickness = 5 mm except at corners). 34. Answer. (b) fused deposition modeling. and (e) stereolithography. The height of the tube (z-direction) = 80 mm. Answer. and (d) Problems 34.3 Of all of the current material addition rapid prototyping technologies. (b) fused deposition modeling. and (f) stereolithography. (b) fused deposition modeling. Answer.25 mm. (c). (c) laminated object manufacturing. (c) laminated object manufacturing. 34. and (e) three dimensional printing. (b) fused deposition modeling.7 Rapid prototyping technologies are never used to make production parts: (a) true or (b) false.2 Which of the following rapid prototyping processes starts with a photosensitive liquid polymer to fabricate a component (more than one)? (a) ballistic particle manufacturing. Layer thickness = 0. (d) solid ground curing.8 Which of the following are problems with the current material addition rapid prototyping technologies (more than one)? (a) inability to convert a solid part into layers. (b) fused deposition modeling. (e). (c) selective laser sintering. and one-of-a-kind parts such as bone replacements. (c) 34.4 Which of the following RP technologies use a liquid as the starting material (more than one)? (a) ballistic particle manufacturing. (a). Answer. Answer. (b) Desktop milling is the principal material removal technology used for rapid prototyping. and (d) part shrinkage.6 Which of the following RP technologies uses powders as the starting material (more than one)? (a) ballistic particle manufacturing. (e) solid ground curing. parts with intricate internal geometries. (d) solid ground curing. and (e) stereolithography. (c) part accuracy.1 A prototype of a tube with a square cross-section is to be fabricated using stereolithography. and (f) 34. (c) selective laser sintering. (c) and (e) 34. if 10 s are lost each layer to lower the height of the platform that holds the part. (d) and (e) 34. (d) selective laser sintering. Neglect the time for postcuring.reduces the score by 1 point. and the beam is moved across the surface of the photopolymer at a velocity of 500 mm/s. (d) solid ground curing. (b) limited material variety. (c) selective laser sintering.5 Which one of the following RP technologies uses solid sheet stock as the starting material? (a) ballistic particle manufacturing. (b).

8 mm2 Average time per layer Ti = 1282.3.4 Solve Problem 34.000 mm3 Tc = (152.25 mm)(150 mm/s)+ 10 s = 10.2 + 10 = 25. if 10 s are lost each layer to lower the height of the platform that holds the part.0 min = 5. Compute an estimate for the time required to build the part.000 mm3)/( 37.160 s = 336.2 s Number of layers nl = (80 mm)/(0. The diameter of the laser beam = 0.227 mm2 Volumetric rate of filament deposition = (1. Ti = (1900 mm2)/(0.133 + 10 = 20.6 mm of length per second while the workhead is depositing material. Ti = (1900 mm2)/(0. Neglect postcuring time.20 mm/layer) = 400 layers Tc = 400(20.22 min = 2.20 mm Number of layers nl = 40 mm/(0.13 min = 2. The layer thickness = 0. Compute an estimate for the time required to build the part. The radius of the cone at its base = 35 mm and its height = 40 mm.6 hr 34. and the filament is fed into the workhead from its spool at a rate of 30.25 mm)(500 mm/s)+ 10 s = 15.25 mm.56 mm3)/(0.10 mm/layer) = 800 layers Tc = 800(25. Layer thickness is to be 0.2 s Number of layers nl = (80 mm)/(0. Solution: Use same basic approach as in stereolithography.22 x 500) = 11.4 hr 34.55 mm3/s) + (400 layers)(10 s delay/layer) = 4047.20 mm.66 s 234 . Ai = 1002 – 902 = 1900 mm2 Time to complete one layer Ti same for all layers. average area/layer = (256. and the beam is moved across the surface of the photopolymer at a velocity of 500 mm/s.313 mm3)/200 = 256. Ti = (1900 mm2)/(1.20 mm/layer) = 200 layers Average volume per layer Vi= (51.5 A cone-shaped part is to be fabricated using stereolithography.within round-off error.24 hr This is very close to previous calculated value . except using the following additional information.25 mm.40 mm/layer) = 200 layers Tc = 200(25.55 mm3/s Part volume = part cross sectional area x height = Ah A = 1002 – 902 = 1900 mm2 and h = 80 mm.66 + 10 = 21.25) 2 = 1.20 mm and the width of the extrudate deposited on the surface of the part = 1. Between layers.133 s Number of layers nl = (80 mm)/(0.22 mm.9 s = 134.2) = 20.133) = 8053. Part volume V = 1900(80) = 152.2 + 10 = 25.2) = 5. Solution: Volume of cube V = πR2h/3 = π(35) 2(40)/3 = 51.20 mm. Solution: Cross-sectional area of filament = πD2/4 = 0.313 mm3 Layer thickness t = 0.40 mm.227 mm)(30.1 is to be fabricated using fused deposition modeling instead of stereolithography. the feed rate from the spool is zero. Ai = 1002 – 902 = 1900 mm2 Time to complete one layer Ti same for all layers.20 mm) = 1282.3 The part in Problem 34.25π(1. Ai = 1002 – 902 = 1900 mm2 Time to complete one layer Ti same for all layers. It is known that the diameter of the filament fed into the extruder workhead is 1.56 mm3 Since thickness t = 0.6 mm/s) = 37.2 Solve Problem 34.33 s = 134. Solution: Layer area Ai same for all layers. The extruder workhead moves in the x-y plane at a speed of 150 mm/s. 34.Solution: Layer area Ai same for all layers.8/(0.94 + 4000 = 8047.0 min = 1.25 mm)(500 mm/s)+ 10 s = 15.1 except that the layer thickness = 0. A delay of 10 s is experienced between each layer to reposition the workhead.040 s = 84.24 hr 34. Layer area Ai same for all layers.

20 hr.20 mm) = 146. and handle bar.0 – 56.9 + 113. The laser beam diameter = 0.20 = 200 layers Tc = 200(10. Compute an estimate for the time required to build the part.5 is to be built using laminated object manufacturing.5π(12) 2/4) A3 = 1099.86 hr. Layer thickness = 0. The laser beam can cut the sheet stock at a velocity of 500 mm/s.6 + 113.2 mm/layer) = 50 layers Time to complete one layers for each of the three shapes: (1) Ti1 = (4864.22 mm2)/(0.37) Tc = 13.2 mm2 Average surface area per layer = (5844.70 + 10 = 19. handle diameter = 12 mm.3 min = 0. if 10 s are lost each layer to lower the height of the platform that holds the part.5 – 0.25 x 500) + 10 = 9.22 mm2/layer Since layer thickness t = 0. 34.25 mm.70 s (3) Ti3 = (1546. Layer thickness = 0.907 s + 231.5 A = π(35)(352 + 40)0.2 mm2)/(0.37 + 10 = 22.20 mm.25 x 500) + 10 = 12. For a cone. handle.2 mm/layer) = 50 layers (2) nl2 = (125 – 10 – 10)/(0. Ignore cutting of the cross-hatched areas outside of the part since the cone should readily drop out of the stack owing to its geometry.92 + 10 = 48.292 + 10 = 10. and the beam can be moved across the surface of the photopolymer at = 500 mm/s.4 s = 72.78 min = 3.2 min = 1.70) + 50(22. The handle bars connecting the cup and handle at the top and bottom of the part have a rectangular cross-section and are 10 mm thick and 12 mm wide.0 – 56.92) + 525(19. outside diameter = 75 mm. 235 .2) = 525 layers (3) nl3 = (10 mm)/(0.6 The cone-shaped part in Problem 34. which is 10 mm thick and consists of the cup ring. inside diameter = 65 mm.92 s (2) Ti2 = (1212.5π(12) 2/4) A1 = 4417.37 s Total time for all layers Tc = 50(48.5 = 5844. which is the outline to be cut by the laser beam.6 +113. Let us compute the areas of the three shapes.20 mm. Solution: The part can be sliced into cross sections that have one of three basic shapes: (1) base. we need the circumference of each layer. the total surface area (not including the base) = πR(R2 + h2)0.66 s) = 4332. Area (1): A1 = π(75) 2/4 + π(12) 2/4 + (approximately)(12 x 32.4 s = 34.5 mm2)/(0.7 Stereolithography is to be used to build the part in Figure 34.5 mm2 Area (2): A2 = π(752 – 652)/4 + π(12) 2/4 = 1099.7 mm2 Area (3): A3 = π(752 – 652)/4 + π(12) 2/4 + (approximately)(12 x 32. and (3) top of cup.1 mm Average time to cut a layer Ti = (146.292) = 2058. The thickness at the base of the cup is 10 mm. if 10 s are lost each layer to lower the height of the platform that holds the part and advance the sheet stock in preparation for the next layer.2 mm2)/(200 layers) = 29.20 mm.1 = 1212. (2) cup ring and handle.2 mm2 Number of layers for each area: (1) nl1 = (10 mm)/(0.5 – 0.5) = 1546. handle distance from cup = 70 mm measured from center (axis) of cup to center of handle. Compute an estimate of the time required to build the part.7 mm2)/(0. Neglect postcuring time.57 hr. which is 10 mm thick and includes the handle and handle bar.5) = 4864.1 + (390.1 (in text).1 + (390.292 s Number of layers nl = 40/0.1 mm)/(500 mm/s) + 10 s = 0. Solution: For LOM.Cycle time Tc = 200(21. circumference C = (29. Dimensions of the part are: height = 125 mm.25 x 500) + 10 = 38. 34.

5 microns or greater per cubic foot of air. 35. 35. the sensitivity causes either an increase or a decrease in solubility of the polymer to certain chemicals. altered. diodes. and dirt). and hair). A photoresist is a polymer that is sensitive to light radiation in a certain wavelength range.8 Answer.10 Why is ultraviolet light favored over visible light in photolithography? 236 . oil. Important semiconductor materials include silicon (most important). and gallium arsenide.9 What is a photoresist? Answer. Answer. Alternatives to photolithography are: electron lithography. transistors. and (3) IC packaging. a class 100 clean room contains 100 or fewer particles of size 0.6 What are some of the significant sources of contaminants in IC processing? Answer. A clean room is a room or rooms where the air is purified to reduce airborne particles. For example. cut into chips.7 What is the name of the process most commonly used to grow single crystal ingots of silicon for semiconductor processing? Answer. 35. 35. and ion lithography. in which layers are added. It is the Czocralski process. Sources of contaminants include humans (bacteria.. to produce very pure silicon and shape it into wafers. and processing equipment (wear particles.g. and the chips are encapsulated in a package. 35. An integrated circuit is a collection of electronic devices (e. in which the wafers are tested. Review Questions 35. What are the alternatives to photolithography in IC processing? 35. viruses. altering.1 PROCESSING OF INTEGRATED CIRCUITS What is an integrated circuit? Answer.2 Name some of the important semiconductor materials? Answer.3 Describe the planar process. resistors) that have been fabricated and electrically intraconnected onto the surface of a small flat chip of semiconductor material. The three stages are: (1) silicon processing. 35. cigarette smoke.adding. 35.35 35.4 What are the three major stages in the production of silicon-based integrated circuits? Answer. and removed in selected regions to form electronic devices on the face of the wafer. (2) IC fabrication. X-ray lithography. and removing layers to create the devices and their intraconnection on the IC chip. germanium. The planar process refers to the fabrication of an IC chip by a sequence of layering processes .5 What is a clean room and explain the classification system by which clean rooms are rated? Answer. The classification system indicates the quantity of particles of size 0.5 microns per cubic foot.

Answer.000. Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 17 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct). Define epitaxial deposition. the transferred images are sharper.14 What are some of the important design functions of IC packaging? Answer.12 35. all correct answers must be given.1 How many electronic devices would be contained in an IC chip in order for it to be classified in the VLSI category? (a) 1000.18 What is the difference between postmolding and premolding in plastic IC chip packaging? Answer. To attain a perfect score on the quiz.16 35.17 Name the two categories of component mounting to a printed circuit board. Rent's Rule indicates the number of input/output terminals nio required for an integrated circuit of a given number of internal circuits nc.15 What is Rent's Rule? Answer. or (d) 100 million. (d) package. and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point. 35. and (3) projection printing. The two types are: (1) through-hole mounting and (2) surface mount technology.13 What layer material is produced by thermal oxidation in IC fabrication? Answer. The three exposure techniques are: (1) contact printing. where C and m are constants for a certain circuit type. Answer.2 An alternative name for chip in semiconductor processing is which one of the following (one answer)? (a) component. adding a solid lid to complete the package. (c) 1 million. (2) proximity printing. 35. 237 . 35. and the chip and leadframe are then attached to it. and heat dissipation.11 Name the three exposure techniques in photolithography. (b) device. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point. an IC package with two rows of terminals on each side of a rectangular body containing the IC chip. 35. (c) 35. encase chip for protection. Answer. (b) 10. SiO 2 is grown on the surface of the Si wafer. Answer. Postmolding refers to the use of transfer molding of epoxy around the chip and leadframe to form the package. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers. (c) die. 35. Answer. 35. the Rent's Rule equation is: nio = C ncm. or (e) wafer. Design functions of IC packaging include: provide electrical connections to external circuits. For each question. since each correct answer is worth 1 point. a premolded package is one in which an enclosure is molded beforehand. Epitaxial deposition involves growth of a crystalline structure on the surface of a substrate which is an extension of the substrate's structure. What is a DIP? Answer. Because it has a shorter wavelength. 35. DIP stands for dual in-line package.

4 Which one of the following is the most common form of radiation used in photolithography? (a) electronic beam radiation. (a) and (c). (b) diffusion. which reduces the length to 950 mm. (c) gold. (b) copper. (b) diffusion. The seed and tang ends are removed. (d) 35. (d) 35. Answer. (b) and (c). (c) 35. or (e) silicon dioxide. Answer. Answer. Answer. or (d) SiO 2. or (f) silver. or (g) wet etching. (b) aluminum oxide. A 30 mm wide flat is ground on the surface which 238 . (b) incandescent light. (c) ion implantation. The diameter is ground to 100 mm.9 Which one of the following is the most common metal for intraconnection of devices in a silicon integrated circuit? (a) aluminum. 35. (e) silicon. (f) thermal oxidation.5 After exposure to light. (e) plasma etching. or (f) potassium. (b) and (d). (d) epoxies.Answer. (c) Si3N4. (d) ultraviolet light. (b) SiC. (d) physical vapor deposition. or (b) wet chemical etching. (c) ion implantation.10 Which etching process produces the more anisotropic etch in IC fabrication? (a) plasma etching. (b) 35. Answer. Answer. (c) infrared light. Answer. (d) nickel.1 A single crystal boule of silicon is grown by the Czochralski process to an average diameter of 110 mm with length = 1200 mm. and (f). a positive resist becomes which of the following? (a) less soluble or (b) more soluble to the chemical developing fluid. (e) phosphorous. (d) physical vapor deposition. (b) arsenic. (c) copper. (d) nickel.7 Which of the following are doping processes in IC fabrication (more than one)? (a) chemical vapor deposition. or (e) X-ray. (f) thermal oxidation.6 Which of the following processes are used to add layers of various materials in IC fabrication (more than one)? (a) chemical vapor deposition.11 Which of the following are the two principal packaging materials used in IC packaging? (a) aluminum. (d) nitrogen. Answer. (e) plasma etching. (a) 35.3 Which one of the following is the source of silicon for semiconductor processing? (a) pure Si in nature.12 Which of the following metals are commonly used for wire bonding of chip pads to the lead frame (two best answers)? (a) aluminum. (c) 35. (a). Problems Silicon Processing and IC Fabrication 35. (c) boron. (a) 35.8 Which one of the following impurity elements form electron acceptor (p-type) regions in silicon wafers? (a) antimony. (b) copper. (d). or (f) silver. (e) silicon. or (g) wet etching. 35. 35. Answer. Answer. (c) gold.

028.0.As.5) = 3903. R = 55) = πR2h/3 = 0.0) = 43.025 inch thick.extends from one end to the other. Determine: (a) the original volume of the boule.6 → 1144 wafers (c) Area of one wafer Aw = Ac .820.92 = 761.028. where Ac = area of the circle of radius R = 50 mm.672 in3 (b) Number of wafers = 48. and As = the area of the segment As created by the flat ground on the cylindrical surface. using an abrasive saw blade whose thickness = 0.33) = 1144.5θ = sin-1(15/50) = 17. As = π(50) 2(34. Assuming that the seed and tang portions cut off the ends of the starting boule were conical in shape.00 in.5(50) 2 sin 34.8 . D = 5. determine: (a) the original volume of the boule.46°.92°.4605 in.50 mm.625 in. and As = the area of the segment As created by the flat ground on the cylindrical surface.354.0128 inch.25/2) 2(6. 0.994 mm3 Volume wasted = 9.28°. 0.25 inches and a length of 5 ft. and (c) what is the volumetric proportion of silicon in the starting boule that is wasted during processing? Solution: (a) Volume V = V1 (tang) + V2 (cylinder) + V3 (seed) V1 = V3 = (cone in which h = 0.5(1200-950) = 125.095 mm3 (b) Number of wafers = 950/(0.2 A silicon boule is grown by the Czochralski process to a diameter of 5.25) = πR2h/3 = 0.465.333π(55) 2(125) = 395.820. assuming the entire 950 mm length can be sliced.0.295) + 1039. and (c) what is the volumetric proportion of silicon in the starting boule that is wasted during processing? Solution: (a) Total volume V = V1 (tang) + V2 (cylinder) + V3 (seed) V1 = V3 = (cone in which h = 0.152 = 9. D = 110.46.50 + 0. The diameter is ground to 4.As = 7854.095 = 54.3 mm2 Aw = Ac .0.820. where Ac = area of the circle of radius R = 4. (b) how many wafers are cut from it.7(0.0378) = 1269.921 inch (125 mm).5(60-48) = 6. (b) how many wafers are cut from it.0 .52%.921/2 = 2.465. in 3.8) = 4. mm3. The seed and tang ends are cut off. chord As = πR2θ/360 .095 .625/4.8 → 1269 wafers (c) Area of one wafer Aw = Ac .5R2 sin θ. assuming the entire 4 ft length can be sliced. V2 = πR2L = π(55) 2(950) = 9. The ingot is then sliced into wafers 0.92)/360 .0 mm2 The area of a segment of the circle created by the 30 mm chord As = πR2θ/360 . V2 = πD2L/4 = π(5.101 mm3 Proportion wasted = 5..3 = 7807.025 + 0.082 = 1125. using an abrasive saw blade whose thickness = 0. .5θ = sin-1(1. Assume that the seed and tang portions are conical in shape.5 = 46.082 in 3 V = 2(43.354. where θ is the angle formed by two radii of the circle and the chord. reducing the effective length to 48.972) + 9.152 mm3 Total V = 2(395.0.295 in3.8 mm3 Volume of 1144 wafers = 1144(3903.0194 in2 The area of a segment of the circle created by the 1. Ac = πR2 = π(50) 2 = 7854.0/(0.4.As.101/9. 35.625 inch is ground on the surface the entire length of the ingot.972 mm3. The ingot is then sliced into wafers of thickness = 0. A primary flat of width 1. where θ is the angle formed by two radii of the circle and the chord. θ = 34. 239 .921) = 19.25) 2(48)/4 = 1039.994 = 5.4605) 2 = 19.333π(5.0128) = 48/(0.33 mm.5R2 sin θ.715.7 mm2 Volume of one wafer Vw = Awt = 7807. Ac = πR2 = π(2.

45. if each chip is 5 mm on a side? All chips must lie completely within the processable area.051/1125.8/5 = 962 . 35.56 = 2.8 mm Chip area Ac = (5) 2 = 25 mm2 The chips on the periphery of the processable area are lost.053 mm2 Circumference C = πD = 175π = 549.467 in.1 .621 = 527.463 in 2 Circumference C = πD = 3.69.3/25 . our estimate of the chips produced is: n = 24.65π = 11.6/5 = 380.4605) 2 sin 38.5(2.0 inch wafer has a processable area that is only 3.11. Assume the cut lines (streets) between chips are of negligible width. The number of lost chips can be estimated by dividing the average chip dimension (assumed to be the length of the side) into the circumference of the circle. (b) wafer diameter.1503 = 18.4 Solve the previous problem.672 .053/25 . Thus. How many square IC chips can be processed within this area.5 A 4.4717 in 3 Volume of 1269 wafers = 1269(0.4605) 2(38.0625 in2 The chips on the periphery of the processable area are lost.1503 in 2 Aw = Ac .051 in 3 Proportion wasted = 527.463/0.θ = 38.549. As = π(2. Assume the cut lines (streets) between chips are of negligible width.3 = 153% increase Note: These results indicate the advantages of increasing wafer size. Thus.3)/ 9503.5 → 121 chips 240 . Solution: Processable area A = πD2/4 = π(3. The number of lost chips can be estimated by dividing the average chip dimension (assumed to be the length of the side) into the circumference of the circle.65 inches in diameter.As = 19. if each chip is 0.9503.467/0.0. our estimated number of chips produced is: n = 10.1 = 311 chips 35. Chip area Ac = (0.8691(0.9 = 121.0194 .345.8691 in 2 Volume of one wafer Vw = Awt = 18. our estimate of the chips produced is: n = 9503.110 = 852 chips (a) Increase in number of chips = (852 – 311)/311 = 174% increase (b) Increase in wafer diameter = (200 – 125)/125 = 60% increase (c) Increase in processable area = (24. compared to the values in the previous problem? Solution: Processable area A = πD2/4 = π(175) 2/4 = 24.4717) = 598.053 .65) 2/4 = 10.8869 = 0.82%.598.25 = 167.621 in 3 Volume wasted = 1125. Solution: Processable area A = πD2/4 = π(110) 2/4 = 9503.0625 .0372 .4 . only use a wafer size of 200 mm whose processable area is 175 mm in diameter. How many square IC chips can be fabricated within this area.6 mm Chip area Ac = (5) 2 = 25 mm2 The chips on the periphery of the processable area are lost.1.56°. 35.672 = 46. and (c) processable wafer area.25 inch on a side? All chips must lie completely within the processable area. What is the percent increase in (a) number of chips.3 The processable area on a 125 mm diameter wafer is a 110 mm diameter circle.25) 2 = 0.025) = 0. The number of lost chips can be estimated by dividing the average chip dimension (assumed to be the length of the side) into the circumference of the circle. Thus.0.56)/360 .3 mm2 Circumference C = πD = 110π = 345.

35.7 .5(nc)0.2.2 = 3/1.5) = 5.10 An integrated circuit used in a microprocessor will contain 1000 logic gates. Using Rent's Rule (C = 4.58.35.0 µ m 35.5). if plasma etching is used instead of wet etching.0625 .14. what should be the size of the mask opening? Solution: A = d/u = ∞.2.5 nc0. The SiO2 film is 3 µm thick. compute the estimated number of devices (logic gates) that could be placed on the chip in the following cases: (a) a DIP with 16 I/O pins on a side . and the degree of anisotropy for plasma etching is infinity. Solution: 48 = 4.400 mm thick.65) 2/4 = 16.a total of 64 I/O pins.4 = 213. Solution: Rents rule: nio = Cncm = 4. Thus. The width of the etched-out area is specified to be 10 µm.a total of 32 pins.56(0.982 in 2 Circumference C = πD = 4. Chip area Ac = (0.608 in. Use Rent's Rule (C = 4.5(1000) 0.6 Solve the previous problem.0 .608/0. u = d/1. only use a wafer size of 6.8 It is desired to etch out a region of a silicon dioxide film on the surface of a silicon wafer.400 .0 µ m IC Packaging 35.3 → 142 input/output pins 35.5 and m = 0. resulting in a SiO 2 film that is 3 µm thick.5 = 48/4.5) to determine the approximate number of input/output pins required in the package. If the starting thickness of the wafer was exactly 0. (b) a square chip carrier with 16 pins on a side .5 and m = 0. u = d/∞ = 0 µm. Mask opening size = 10.40168 mm 35. our estimated of the chips produced is: n = 16.0625 in2 The chips on the periphery of the processable area are lost.8 → 113 logic gates 35.a total of 256 pins.50 inches in diameter.11 A dual-in-line package has a total of 48 leads.9 In the previous problem.0 inches whose processable area is 5. what is the final wafer thickness? Solution: A 3 µm film requires a layer of silicon = 0.667) 2 = 113. If the degree of anisotropy for the etchant in the process is known to be 1.7 The surface of a silicon wafer is thermally oxidized.5 and m = 0.5 = 142. The number of lost chips can be estimated by dividing the average chip dimension (assumed to be the length of the side) into the circumference of the circle.5 µm.5) to determine the approximate number of logic gates that could be fabricated in the IC chip for this package.982/0.44d Final thickness tf = 0.3 → 213 chips Note: the wafer diameter increases by about 27%. What is the percent increase in number of chips compared to the 50% increase in wafer diameter? Solution: Processable area A = πD2/4 = π(4.400 + 0.5 = 10. what should be the size of the opening in the mask through which the etchant will operate? Solution: A = d/u = 1.65π = 14.2(0) = 10. Use Rent's Rule (C = 4.25) 2 = 0.2(2.003) = 0. the wafer area increases by 62%. This is a principal motivation for using larger wafer diameters.667 nc = (10. 241 . Mask opening size = 10.25 = 271. and (c) a pin grid array with 16 by 16 pins .44(3 x 10-3) + 3 x 10-3 = 0.12 It is desired to determine the effect of package style on the number of circuits (logic gates) that can be fabricated onto an IC chip to which the package is assembled.0. and the number of chips increases by 76%.0 .2 = 2.

5 = 32/4.5 → 31 pins (b) Eq. and (b) the alternative computation method given in Eq. (35.333 = 1.15 To produce a 1 megabit memory chip. (35.5nio0.4427 ln nc = 1.5 + 0.11)? Solution: (a) Rent’s rule: nio = 6.12).000) = 19.3 → 16 pins (b) Eq. Solution: (a) Rent’s rule: nio = 6.12 = (5.16 Suppose it is desired to produce a memory device that will be contained in a dual-in-line package with 32 I/O leads.25.12 = nio/6.5 ln nio ln nio .00816 nio = nc = 20.50408 ln nio = 3. The closest possible values are nio = nc = 20 or 21.0(4096) 0. Solution: We have two equations and two unknowns: (1) nio = 4. nc0. and final test yield Yt = 90%.967.6 → 50 logic gates (b) Using Rent’s rule: nio = 4.4427 ln (1.333) 8.11 nc = 50.5(nc)0.12 = 6. how many I/O pins are predicted by: (a) Rent's Rule (C = 6.11). 35.5 .14 A static memory device will have a two dimensional array with 64 by 64 cells.5 = 256/4.0 and m = 0.11): nio = 1.89 nc = 3236.12 = 6. and (b) the alternative computation given in Eq.12).5 = 14. Using nio in place of nc in Eq.0 = 32/6 = 5.5(nc)0.0 (64 x 64) 0.5 .5.0 and m = 0.12 nc0.000.5 and m = 0.0 nc0.18) = 4.11): nio = 1. (1).5 .728 memory cells (b) Eq.12 = 6.12 = 16. wafer yield Yw = 70%.000.333 nc = (5.3 → 202 logic gates (c) Using Rent’s rule: nio = 4.5 and (2) nio = nc. If a starting boule weighs 75 kg.000) 0.18 nc = exp(22.4427 ln nc 32 = 1.4427 ln (64 x 64) = 1.5 ln nio = ln 4. nc0.5 = 1.5 = 56. find nc if nio = 32.12). (35. Yields in IC Processing 35.305 memory cells.5 = 64/4.3 → 3236 logic gates 35.294.11)? Solution: (a) Rent’s rule: nio = 6. Compare the number of input/output pins required using (a) Rent's Rule (C = 6.13 In the Equation for Rent's Rule with C = 4.143. 35. find nc if nio = 64.4427 ln 4096 = 12 pins. nio = 4. as estimated by: (a) Rent's Rule (C = 6.5(nc)0.0 nc0.slice yield Ys = 50%. How many memory cells can be contained in the device.0 (1. 35.5 ln nio = ln 4.17 Given the following: crystal yield Yc = 50%.Solution: (a) Using Rent’s rule: nio = 4.12 = 31.4427 ln nc ln nc = 32/1.0.22 nc = 202.0 and m = 0. crystal-to. (35. what is the final weight of silicon that results after final test? 242 . determine the value of n io and n c at which the number of logic gates equals the number of I/O terminals in the package. multiprobe yield Ym = 60%. find nc if nio = 256.4427 = 22. (35. and (b) the alternative computation method given in Eq.5nc0.11): nio = 1. (35.5 = 7.333) 1/.0 nc0.5 ln nio = 0. nc0.9 → 19 pins.

(35.384 = 0. The density of point defects in the surface area is 0.19 A 5-inch diameter wafer is processed over a circular area that is 4. (35.18633/143. as the method of estimating yield.90) = 0.70)(0. Determine the multiprobe yield using: (a) the Boltzmann yield estimate.32) = e-5.17 D = 0. (35.027) = 1/2.14D) = 0.314 mm2 = 143. Solution: Processable area A = π(4.72 x 0. what is the density of point defects D? 243 .14D D = 0. 35. and (b) the Bose-Einstein yield estimate. (35.17/118. (35.14 cm2 0.32) = 1/6.14 = 0.15): Ym = 1/(1 + AD) Processable area A = π(135) 2/4 = 14.15). Eq. what is their density D? Solution: Eq.60)(0. The area of the processed chips occupies 65.15).18633 = -143. (35.75 inches in diameter.83 = 0. Solution: Eq.15): Ym = 1/(1 + AD) = 1/(1 + 51.9 → 85 good chips 35.0 in 2.806 = 0.25(0. (35. and (b) the Bose-Einstein yield estimate.6525(7854) = 5125 mm2 = 51.0.806D = 1 118.50)(0.14): Ym = e-AD Processable area A = π(135) 2/4 = 14.14D) 0.75) 2/4 = 17.00143 defects/cm2.83 + 118.14). Eq.314 mm2 = 143.14D ln 0.83 = -143.419 Number of good chips = 0.15): Ym = 1/(1 + AD) = 1/(1 + 17.0945(75) = 7.14 cm2 0. If the defects are all assumed to be point defects that are uniformly distributed over the surface (Poisson distribution). (35. Eq.419(205) = 85.14): Ym = e-AD = e-17.72 in2 (a) Eq. (35.83 = 1/(1 + 143.18 A silicon wafer with a nominal diameter of 100 mm is processed to fabricate square chips of 5 mm on a side.22 A silicon wafer has a processable area of 20. Determine the number of good chips using: (a) the Boltzmann yield estimate.15 35.251(205) = 51. Eq.027 defects/cm2.32 defects/in 2.21 In the previous problem.5)(0. The wafers have a nominal diameter of 150 mm with a processable area that is 135 mm in diameter.25% of the total wafer area on one side.4 → 51 good chips (b) Eq. Eq.15). (35.83(1 + 143.20 The yield of good chips in multiprobe for a certain batch of wafers is 83%.25 x 0.00344 (b) Eq.384 = 0.83 = e-143. Solution: Wafer area A = π(100) 2/4 = 7854 mm2 Chip area A = 0.14).25 cm2 Area of one chip Ac = 5 x 5 = 25 mm. determine the density of point defects using Bose-Einstein statistics. (35. 35. If the defects are all assumed to be point defects that are uniformly distributed over the surface (Poisson distribution).67 = 0.09 kg 35. Number of chips = 5125/25 = 205 chips total.67 = 0.806D = 1 .027) = e-1.Solution: Overall yield Y = Yc Ys Yw Ym Yt = (0. The yield of good chips on this wafer is Ym = 75%.00130 defects/cm2.0945 Wf = YWi = 0.14): Ym = e-AD = e-51.72(0. The density of point defects in the surface area is 0.14D -0. (a) Eq.251 Number of good chips = 0.

2877 = -20D D = 0.75 = -20D -0.2877/20 = 0. (35. 244 .Solution: Eq.75 = e-20D ln 0.01438 defects/in2.14): Ym = e-AD 0.

The two categories are: (1) pin-in-hole technology. and (2) photolithography.1 ELECTRONICS ASSEMBLY AND PACKAGING What are the functions of a well-designed electronics package? Answer.9 What is continuity testing. (3) PCB to rack or chassis. 245 . The two methods are: (1) screening.6 What is a via hole in a printed circuit board? Answer. The three types are: (1) single -sided board. (1) chip to package. 36. Continuity tests are generally used: (1) after the bare board has been fabricated. Answer. as distinguished by the method of attaching components to the board? Answer. A track is a copper conducting path on a PCB. and (3) multilayer board.10 What are the two main categories of printed circuit board assemblies. and (4) wiring and cabling inside a cabinet. The levels are: (0) chip intraconnections.2 Identify the levels of packaging hierarchy in electronics. and (2) after the board has been populated with components. also known as through-hole technology.36 36. (2) component to PCB. (5) minimize delays in signal transmission. Answer. A via hole is a hole in the printed circuit board whose sides are plated with copper to serve as a conducting path from one side of a PCB to the other or between intermediate layers in a multilayer board.8 What are the two basic resist coating methods for printed circuit boards? Answer. What is etching used for in PCB fabrication? Answer. and when is it performed in the PCB fabrication sequence? Answer. 36. (3) environmental protection. 36. (2) structural support. while a land is a small copper area for electrically attaching components. 36. Review Questions 36. Continuity testing is an electrical test in which contact probes are brought into contact with track and land areas to insure the existence of electrical conduction paths. (4) heat dissipation.4 Define what a printed circuit board (PCB) is. A PCB is a laminated flat panel of insulating material to which electronic components are attached and electrically interconnected. such as silk screening. 36.5 Name the three principal types of printed circuit board? Answer.3 What is the difference between a track and a land on a printed circuit board? Answer. and (2) surface mount technology. The principal functions are: (1) power distribution and signal interconnection. 36. Etching is used to remove copper cladding on the PCB surface to define the tracks and lands of the circuit. (2) double -sided board.7 36. 36.

The flux binder includes an adhesive that attaches the SMT components to the board surface.11 What are some of the reasons and defects that make rework an integral step in the PCB fabrication sequence? Answer. and (2) solder paste and reflow soldering. (3) repair faulty solder joints. and rework are more difficult. 36. such as spurious surface capacitances and inductances.19 Define what a terminal block is? Answer. (5) reduced number of holes drilled in the board. Advantages of SMT include: (1) smaller components.20 What is a pin connector? Answer. testing. Rework is required to correct the following types of defects: (1) replace defective components. and (6) certain undesirable electrical effects are reduced. A terminal block consists of a series of evenly spaced receptacles that allow connection of individual wires or terminals. 36. and (4) repair of copper film that has lifted from the substrate surface. 36.13 Identify some of the limitations and disadvantages of surface mount technology? Answer. A press-fit technology in the context of electrical connections is an interference fit between a terminal pin and the plated hole into which it is inserted.18 What is press-fit technology in electrical connections? Answer. (2) higher packing densities.12 Identify some of the advantages of surface mount technology over conventional through-hole technology. 36. 36. 36.36. (4) smaller PCBs are possible for the same function.16 36. (2) insert missing components. 36. Limitations and disadvantages of SMT include: (1) components are more difficult for humans to handle. The two methods are: (1) adhesive bonding and wave soldering. 36. The two methods are: (1) soldering. (2) SMT components are generally more expensive than THT components. A pin connector is a connector with multiple pins or blades that are inserted into the holes of a mating receptacle to establish electrical contact. Answer.17 Identify the two basic methods of making electrical connections.15 What is a solder paste? Answer. Crimping involves the mechanical forming of a terminal barrel to form a permanent connection with the stripped end of a conductor wire. The solder constitutes about 85% of the total volume of the paste. A solder paste is a suspension of solder powders in a flux binder. (3) inspection. Answer.14 What are the two methods of component placement and soldering in surface mount technology? Answer. Define crimping in the context of electrical connections? Answer. and (4) certain types of components are not available in SMT. 246 . (3) components can be mounted on both sides of the board. and (2) pressure connections.

9 Which of the following are the soldering processes used to attach components to printed circuit boards in through-hole technology (more than one)? (a) hand soldering. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point.0001 inch. (c) 36. since each correct answer is worth 1 point. (d) third. and (f) polypropylene. (b) IC chip to package.010 inch. (c) nickel.3 Card-on-board (COB) packaging refers to which one of the following levels in the electronics packaging hierarchy? (a) zeroth.001 inch. (a) 36. Answer. 36. 36.4 Which of the following polymeric materials is commonly used as an ingredient in the insulation layer of a printed circuit board (more than one)? (a) copper. (a) 36. Answer. (b) infrared soldering. which one of the following is another common metal plated onto a PCB? (a) aluminum.5 Typical thickness of the copper layer in a printed circuit board is which one of the following? (a) 0. (d) torch soldering. (b) 0. Answer. To attain a perfect score on the quiz.Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 17 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct). (d) 36. (c) 36. and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point. Answer. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers. (b) 36. (c) second. (c) and (d). (c) reflow soldering. Answer. (b) 36.8 In addition to copper.1 The second level of packaging refers to which one of the following? (a) component to printed circuit board. (a) and (e).10 In general. or (b) electroplating. Which of the following is the most common resist type used in the processing of PCBs? (a) negative resists.6 Photolithography is widely used in PCB fabrication. 247 . Answer. or (e) fourth. (c) epoxy. or (b) through-hole technology. (b) first.100 inch. and (e) wave soldering. 36. (b) first. Answer. Answer. all correct answers must be given. (e) polyethylene. (d) phenolic. (c) second. (d) third. (c) 0. For each question. (b) gold. or (d) wiring and cabling connections. or (b) positive resists. which of the following technologies results in greater problems during rework? (a) surface mount technology.2 Surface mount technology is included within which one of the following levels of packaging? (a) zeroth. Answer. (c) intraconnections on the chip. or (d) 0. (b) E-glass.7 Which of the following plating processes has the higher deposition rate in PCB fabrication? (a) electroless plating. or (e) fourth. or (d) tin.

11 Which of the following are methods of forming electrical connections (more than one)? (a) soldering. (a). (c) press fitting. Answer.12 Which of the following electrical connection methods produce a separable connection (more than one): (a) crimping of terminals. (b) terminal blocks. and (d) sockets. (a) 36. Answer. (b).Answer. or (d) pressure connections. (b) insulation displacement. (b) and (d) 248 . (c) retaining rings. and (d) 36.

9 What is meant by the term nanotechnology? Answer: Nanotechnology refers to devices and structures that are even smaller than in microsystems. (3) microstructures and microcomponents. 37.2 What is the approximate size scale in microsystem technology? Answer: The size range is 10-6 m to 10-3 m. as well as the associated fabrication processes which involve the control of feature sizes measured on the nanometer (one nm = 10-9 m) scale. Answer: A microelectromechanical system (MEMS) is a miniaturized system consisting of both electronic and mechanical components. 249 . (2) microactuators. 37. 37.37 37. and (4) use of single-crystal silicon permits the production of physical features to very close tolerances. silicon also possesses useful mechanical properties. Surface micromachining refers to the planar structuring of the substrate surface using much more shallow layering processes. (3) the technologies for processing silicon are well-established.6 Why is silicon a desirable work material in microsystem technology? Answer: The reasons given in the text are: (1) the microdevices in MST often include electronic circuits.8 What is the difference between bulk micromachining and surface micromachining? Answer: Bulk micromachining refers to a relatively deep wet etching process into a single-crystal silicon substrate (Si wafer). and (4) microsystems and micro-instruments. typically. good hardness. and relatively low density. so both the circuit and the microdevice can be fabricated in combination on the same substrate.1 MICROFABRICATION TECHNOLOGIES Define microelectromechanical system. 37. 37. owing to their widespread use in microelectronics.4 What is a hybrid microsensor? Answer: A hybrid microsensor is a sensing element (transducer) combined with electronics components in the same device. (2) in addition to its desirable electronic properties.7 What is meant by the term aspect ratio in microsystem technology? Answer: The aspect ratio is the height-to-width ratio of the features produced in the MST device. Review Questions 37.5 What are some of the basic types of microsystem devices? Answer: The text indicates four classifications: (1) microsensors. 37.3 Why is it reasonable to believe that microsystem products would be available at lower costs than products of larger. such as high strength and elasticity. 37. more conventional size? Answer: Because less material is used in microsystem products.

(b) gold. (c) nickel. To attain a perfect score on the quiz.5 The aspect ratio in microsystem technology is best defined by which one of the following? (a) degree of anisotropy in etched features.Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 15 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct). (c) X-ray radiation. (d) nanotechnology. (c) micromachines. (b) microelectromechanical systems. (d) lithography. Answer: (e). 37.7 Bulk micromachining refers to a relatively deep wet etching process into a single-crystal silicon substrate: (a) true or (b) false. 37. and alteration.3 Which of the following are current applications of microsystem technology in modern automobiles (more than one)? (a) air-bag release sensors. 250 . 37. Answer: (a) and (c). (b) little itty-bitty grinding apparatus. (c) lithographic applications. (b). 37. 37. (d) length-to-width ratio of the fabricated features. (b) natural light. grinding. (c) driver identification sensors for theft prevention. 37. 37.4 The most common work material used in microsystem technology is which one of the following? (a) boron. (e) temperature sensors for cabin climate control. (d). Answer: (a). (e) lithography. (e) precision engineering. (d) potassium hydroxide. (b) alcohol blood level sensors. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point. (e) thickness-to-length ratio of the MST device. and (e).9 Photofabrication means the same process as photolithography. (a) True or (b) false. 37. (c) 10-9 m to 10-6 m. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers. 37. since each correct answer is worth 1 point. the letters LIGA stand for which one of the following? (a) let it go already. For each question. (d) oil pressure sensors.6 Which of the following forms of radiation have wavelengths shorter than the wavelength of ultraviolet light used in photolithography (more than one)? (a) electron beam radiation. all correct answers must be given.8 In the LIGA process. and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point. electrodeposition. (e) silicon. (c) height-to-width ratio of the MST device. Answer: (b). and plastic molding. (b) height-to-width ratio of the fabricated features. Answer: (a). (b)10-6 m to 10-3 m.2 The typical range of feature sizes in microsystem technology is which one of the following? (a) 103 m to 10-2 m. Answer: (d).1 Microsystem technology includes which of the following (more than one)?(a) LIGA technology. Answer: (b). Answer: (a). and (c).

10 The typical range of feature sizes in nanotechnology is which one of the following? (a) 10-3 m to 10-2 m.Answer: (b). (b)10-6 m to 10-3 m. 251 . Photofabrication is an industrial process in which ultraviolet exposure through a pattern mask causes a significant increase in the chemical solubility of an optically clear material. (c) 10-9 m to 10-6 m. Answer: (c). in which resists are used to determine the regions to be etched. 37. This is not the same as photolithography. thus permitting a suitable etchant to remove the exposed regions much more rapidly.

each succeeding location is defined relative to the previous location. to a rotating shaft whose angular position and velocity are to be measured. The part program is the detailed set of commands to be followed by the processing equipment.7 Why should the electromechanical system be the limiting factor in control resolution rather than the controller storage register? 252 . As the shaft rotates.5 Under what circumstances is a closed loop positioning system preferable to an open loop system? Answer.4 What is the difference between an open loop positioning system and a closed loop positioning system? Answer. the trajectory of the movement is controlled. 38. (2) machine control unit.38 38. 38. In a closed loop system.3 What is the difference between absolute positioning and incremental positioning? Answer. 38. It operates under the control of the machine control unit according to the set of instructions contained in the part program. An optical encoder is a sensor for measuring angular position and rotational velocity. It consists of a light source. The machine control unit in modern NC technology is a microcomputer which stores the program and executes it by converting each command into actions by the processing equipment. there is no feedback of the output value. Answer. the slots cause the light source to be seen by the photocell as a series of flashes. The processing equipment accomplishes the sequence of processing steps to transform the starting workpart into a completed part. 38. the motion is from one location in space to the next with no regard for the path taken between starting and final locations. either directly or through a gear train.1 NUMERICAL CONTROL AND INDUSTRIAL ROBOTICS Review Questions Identify and briefly describe the three basic components of a numerical control system. By counting the pulses and computing the frequency of the pulse train. Each command specifies a position or motion that is to be accomplished by the workhead relative to the processed object. a photodetector. In absolute positioning. the locations are defined relative to the origin of the axis system. When there is a significant reaction force resisting the motion of the positioning system. In continuous path. The three basic components are: (1) part program. measurements of the output (position) are fed back to verify that it corresponds to the desired input value. which are converted into an equivalent series of electrical pulses.2 What is the difference between point-to-point and continuous path in a motion control system? Answer. In incremental positioning. The disk is connected.6 Explain the operation of an optical encoder. 38. and a disk containing a series of slots through which the light source can shine to energize the photodetector. Answer. In an open loop system. one command at a time. and (3) processing equipment. a closed loop system is preferred. 38. In point-to-point. angular position and rotational speed can be determined.

13 How is an industrial robot similar to numerical control? Answer. An end effector is the special tooling that is attached to the robot's wrist to perform a particular application. 38. which are recorded into memory for later execution.10 What are some of the benefits usually cited for NC compared to using manual alternative methods? Answer. A programmable logic controller (PLC) is a microcomputer-based device that uses programmed instructions to implement logic. and (6) reduced human error. The applications include: (1) arc welding and resistance welding. what is the difference between powered leadthrough and manual leadthrough? Answer. The most common feature is a manipulator (arm) that can be programmed to perform industrial tasks. sequencing. (3) electrical wire wrap machines. 38.11 What is an industrial robot? Answer.8 What is manual data input in NC part programming? Answer. (2) lower manufacturing lead times.productive time. 38. Answer. 38. 38. 38. In manual leadthrough. Advantages of NC include: (1) reduced non. timing. (5) improved accuracy. They are both positioning systems that can be programmed and reprogrammed. What is an end effector? Answer. To attain a perfect score on the quiz. and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required 253 . each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point. a teach pendant which controls the drive motors of the individual joints is used to move the manipulator into the desired joint positions. An industrial robot is a programmable machine possessing certain anthropomorphic features. the manipulator is physically moved through the desired sequence of positions. Because the control resolution in the controller storage register can be increased simply by increasing the number of bits used to define the axis location.9 Identify some of the non-machine tool applications of numerical control. all correct answers must be given.Answer.14 In robot programming. and arithmetic functions to control industrial machinery and processes. since each correct answer is worth 1 point. (5) tape laying for fiber reinforced polymer composites. In powered leadthrough. Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 13 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct).12 38. counting. Manual data input refers to a method of programming in which the machine tool operator accomplishes the programming of the NC machine using a menu-driven procedure. Programming is simplified to minimize the amount of training required by the operator. A gripper is one form of end effector. (3) simpler fixtures. For each question. (2) electronic component insertion. (4) drafting. 38. and (6) coordinate measuring machines. (4) greater flexibility.15 What is a programmable logic controller? Answer. which are then recorded into memory.

Answer. and (e) task requires mobility. (a) and (e). The worktable is programmed to move a distance of 120 mm from its present position at a travel speed of 300 mm/min. Answer. (d) multiple work shifts. or (c) polar coordinates. (c) hole punching in sheet metal. Answer. (c) inspection. or (c) repeatability. and (f) turning.1 The standard coordinate system for numerical control machine tools is based on which one of the following? (a) Cartesian coordinates. (b) 38.7 In robotics. Determine: (a) how many pulses are required to move the table the specified distance. (c) repetitive work cycle. The leadscrew is powered by a stepping motor which has 250 step angles. Answer. (a) 38. (b). 38. (b) hazardous work environment. Answer. (c).5 The arm-and-body of a robot manipulator generally performs which one of the following functions in an application? (a) orientation.5 mm pitch drives a worktable in a NC positioning system. and (d).4 The APT command GORGT is which of the following (more than one)? (a) continuous path command. Problems Open Loop Positioning Systems 38.6 A SCARA robot is normally associated with which of the following applications (one answer)? (a) arc welding. Answer. (e) spot welding. 38. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers. Answer.reduces the score by 1 point. (b) cylindrical coordinates. (c) name of the monster in a 1960s Japanese science fiction movie. spray painting applications are which of the following? (a) continuous path. (b). (b) geometry statement involving a volume of revolution about a central axis. (b) 38. (b) control resolution. (c) 38. (d) machine loading and unloading. (a) 38. or (b) positioning. or (b) point-to-point. (c).point and not continuous path operations (more than one): (a) arc welding. and (e). or (e) tool path command in which the tool must Go Right in the next move. and (b) what is the required motor speed and pulse rate to achieve the desired table speed? 254 . (d) milling.3 The ability of a positioning system to return to a previously defined location is measured by which one of the following terms? (a) accuracy.1 A leadscrew with a 7. or (e) resistance welding.2 Identify which of the following applications are point-to. (d) point-to-point command. (b) assembly. 38.8 Which of the following are characteristics of work situations that tend to promote the substitution of a robot in place of a human worker (more than one)? (a) frequent job changeovers. Answer. (b) drilling.

67 Hz 38.667 2B = = 16. The range of the worktable axis is 500 mm.122 mm. the mechanical inaccuracies in the open loop positioning system can be described by a normal distribution whose standard deviation = 0. and (c) repeatability. (b) accuracy.25) = 266. (c) Repeatability = ± 3 σ = ± 3(0.122 mm.44) = 4000 pulses (b) N = vt /p = (300 mm/min)/(7.5 CR + 3 σ = 0.69315 B = 9. and (b) the required motor speed and pulse rate to achieve the desired table speed.8° np = 360x/pα = 360(5.250 in.668 B ln 2 = ln 16. Solution: (a) α = 360/ns = 360/240 = 1.000 pulses (b) N = rg fr /p = 5(30 in/min)/(0. (b) Accuracy = 0.5 mm/250 = 0. 0. (d) What is the minimum number of bits that the binary register should have so that the mechanical drive system becomes the limiting component on control resolution? Solution: (a) CR1 = p/ns = 7. The leadscrew has 6 threads/in.03 = 500/(2B –1) 2B – 1 = 500/0.25 in/rev) = 80 rev/min. The table must move a distance of 5. For the positioning system. Determine: (a) how many pulses are required to move the table the specified distance.1667) = 3600 Hz 255 . and (b) what is the required motor speed and pulse rate to achieve the desired table speed? Solution: (a) α = 360/ns = 360/200 = 1.2 Referring to the previous problem.67 Hz 38.0)/(0.1667 x 1. determine: (a) control resolution. Thus. set CR1 = CR2.Solution: (a) α = 360/ns = 360/250 = 1. fp = rg fr ns/ 60p = 5(30)(240)/(60 x 0.005 mm.016 = 16.5 mm/rev) = 40 rev/min.7212 B = 14.076 mm.03 mm.3 A stepping motor has 200 step angles.668 0. Its output shaft is directly coupled to leadscrew with pitch = 0.8) = 4000 pulses (b) N = vt /p = (20 in/min)/(0.44° np = 360x/pα = 360(100)/(7.4 A stepping motor with 240 step angles is coupled to a leadscrew through a gear reduction of 5:1 (5 rotations of the motor for each rotation of the leadscrew). fp = vt ns/ 60p = 300(250)/(60 x 7. fp = vt ns/ 60p = 20(200)/(60 x 0.5) = 166. (d) In order for the mechanical errors to be the limiting factor in control resolution in this problem. 0.1667 in/rev) = 900 rev/min. CR2} = Max{0.122} = 0.005) = 0.5 x 1.015 mm.03.25 x 1. A worktable is driven by the leadscrew.5(0.122) + 3(0.5) = 72. The worktable driven by the leadscrew must move a distance = 10. Determine: (a) number of pulses required to move the table. CR2 = L/2B = 500/212 – 1 = 500/4095 = 0.0 in/min.5° np = 360 rg x/pα = 360(5)(10)/(0.00 in at a feed rate of 30.00 in from its present position at a travel speed of 20. and there are 12 bits in the binary register used by the digital controller to store the programmed position.025 Use B = 15 bits 38. CR = Max{CR1.0 in/min.005) = ± 0.

5 The drive unit for a positioning table is driven by a leadscrew directly coupled to the output shaft of a stepping motor.001 = 0. The pitch of the leadscrew = 0. and a positioning accuracy = 0.6 The positioning table for a component insertion machine uses a stepping motor and leadscrew mechanism.18) = 729. leadscrew.5 CR CR = 0. Assume CR = CR1 CR1 = 0. Assume CR = CR1 CR1 = 0. Determine: (a) the minimum number of step angles in the stepping motor to achieve the accuracy.18 in.0003 0. The design specifications require a table speed of 40 in/min and an accuracy = 0.025 .38. and (b) the frequency of the pulse train required to drive the table at the desired maximum speed. and the gear ratio = 5:1 (5 turns of the motor for each turn of the leadscrew).5 CR + 3(0.001 .5 CR + 3(0.6° ° (c) fp = vt ns /60p = 35(225)/(60 x 0. leadscrew.5 CR + 3(0.5 mm.2) = 667.5 CR + 0. Assume CR = CR1 CR1 = p/(rg ns ) 256 .001) = 100 step angles (b) fp = rg vt ns /60p = 2(40)(100)/(60 x 0. The mechanical errors in the motor.015 0.18/ns ns = 0.02 mm. gear box. gear box.67 Hz 38. and (c) the frequency of the pulse train required to drive the table at the desired speed.001 in.0001) = 0.0008 in.001 in. Solution: (a) Accuracy = 0.167 Hz 38.0006 0.2/(2 x 0.5 CR + 0.5 CR + 3 σ 0.0008 = 0.015 = 0.0003 = 0.005) = 0.5 CR + 0.0.0002 in. The specifications are for the table speed to be 25 mm/s over a 600 mm range and for the accuracy to be 0. Solution: (a) Accuracy = 0. Solution: (a) Accuracy = 0.0008 . and table connection are characterized by a normal distribution with standard deviation = 0. The mechanical errors in the motor.18/0.5 CR + 3 σ 0.0.0004 = 0.025 mm. and the gear ratio = 2:1 (2 turns of the motor for each turn of the leadscrew).0008 = p/ns = 0.0001 in.005 mm. Determine: (a) the minimum number of step angles in the stepping motor. Mechanical errors in the motor.2 in. Determine: (a) the minimum number of step angles in the stepping motor.010 = 0. The table must have a linear speed = 35 in/min.0005 = 0. and table connection are characterized by a normal distribution with standard deviation = 0.0008 = 225 step angles (b) α = 360/225 = 1.0008 in.7 The drive unit of a positioning table for a component insertion machine is based on a stepping motor and leadscrew mechanism.0.025 = 0.0006 = 0.0002) = 0. leadscrew.5 CR CR = 0. The pitch of the leadscrew = 0. and table connection are characterized by a normal distribution with standard deviation = 0.5 CR + 3 σ 0.001 = p/(rg ns ) = 0. (b) the associated step angle. and (b) the frequency of the pulse train required to drive the table at the desired maximum speed. The pitch of the leadscrew = 4.5 CR CR = 0.2/2ns ns = 0.

Solution: (a) x = p np/ns . 150) ∆x = 100 . 25) to (100. The optical encoder generates 225 pulses per motor revolution. leadscrew.4 rev/min.3 Hz (c) N = rg fr /p = 16 x 500/5 = 1600 rev/min.10 Same as the previous problem.11 The worktable of a numerical control machine tool is driven by a closed loop positioning system which consists of a servomotor.7 mm/min Nx = rgvtx/p = 10(308. The leadscrew has 6 threads/in and is coupled directly to the motor shaft (gear ratio = 1:1). Rearranging.25 = 75 mm. and optical encoder. The leadscrew has a pitch = 5.0 mm. fpx = Nx ns/60 = 617.00458} = 0. 0.0 in/min. (b) fp = rg fr ns /60p = 16(500)(200)/60(5) = 5333. Solution: (a) CR1 = p/rgns = 5.02) = 45 step angles (b) fp = rg vt ns /p = 5(25)(45)/4.00458 mm CR = Max{0.5/(5 x 0.3 Hz (c) N = rg fr /p = 16 x 500/5 = 1600 rev/min. The table must move a distance = 100 mm at a feed rate = 500 mm/min. 38.25 = 125 mm Angle A = tan-1(125/75) = 59° vtx = 600 cos 59 = 308.025.5 mm/min.000 pulses. except that the optical encoder is directly coupled to the motor shaft rather than to the leadscrew.5 in at a feed rate = 20.5)/5.0 = 617.0 mm and provides an axis range = 300. leadscrew. The table has been programmed to move a distance of 7.4(20)/60 = 205. ∆y = 150 .8 The two axes of an x-y positioning table are each driven by a stepping motor connected to a leadscrew with a 10:1 gear reduction. There are 16 bits in each binary register used by the controller to store position data for the two axes.0 Hz Closed Loop Positioning Systems 38.0/(10 x 20) = 0. Ny = rgvty/p = 10(514.0 mm and is connected to the motor shaft with a gear ratio of 16:1 (16 turns of the motor for each turn of the leadscrew).025 mm (b) vt = 600 mm/min from (25. (b) fp = fr ns /60p = 500(200)/60(5) = 333. Determine: (a) the pulse count received by the control system to verify that the table has moved exactly 100 mm. np = rg x ns/p = 16(100)(200)/5 = 64. fpx = Ny ns /60 = 1029(20)/60 = 343.25) to point (100. np = xns/p = 100(200)/5 = 4000 pulses. Rearranging. (a) What is the control resolution of each axis? (b) What are the required the rotational speeds and corresponding pulse train frequencies of each stepping motor in order to drive the table at 600 mm/min in a straight line from point (25. The number of step angles on each stepping motor is 20. Each leadscrew has a pitch = 5. The optical encoder is connected directly to the leadscrew and generates 200 pulses/rev of the leadscrew.9 A NC machine tool table is powered by a servomotor.150)? Ignore acceleration. (a) How many pulses are received by the control system to verify that the 257 .025 mm CR2 = L/(2B – 1)= 300/(216 – 1) = 300/65. 38.535 = 0.7)/5.5 = 1250 Hz 38. and (b) the pulse rate and (c) motor speed that correspond to the feed rate of 500 mm/min.ns = 4.8 Hz vty = 600 sin 59 = 514.0 = 1029 rev/min. and optical encoder. Solution: (a) x = p np/rg ns .

13 Solve the previous problem only the servomotor is connected to the leadscrew through a gear box whose reduction ratio = 12:1 (12 revolutions of the motor for each revolution of the leadscrew).89(0. (b) N = fr /p = (3.33 in/min. Determine: (a) The control resolution of the system. Tm = 300/3. The optical encoder attached to the leadscrew emits 100 pulses/rev of the leadscrew. np = xns/p = 7. 258 .12 A leadscrew coupled directly to a dc servomotor is used to drive one of the table axes of an NC milling machine.2)/12 = 13.25 m/s and chip load = 0. The leadscrew has 5 threads/in. The motor rotates at a maximum speed of 800 rev/min.978 = 75.978 mm/s)/(6 mm/rev) = 0. and (c) the travel speed of the table at the operating speed of the motor.1667 = 120 rev/min. fr = N f nt = 19. Total travel distance = 300 mm in a direction parallel to one of the axes of the worktable.05)(4) = 3. (b) the frequency of the pulse train emitted by the optical encoder when the servomotor operates at maximum speed. and (b) rotational speed of the motor and the pulse rate of the encoder at the feed rate indicated. 38.89 rev/s. The end milling cutter has four teeth and its diameter = 20.0 mm.125 pulses.Rearranging. Solution: (a) CR = p/ns = 0. expressed in linear travel distance of the table axis.663 rev/s.25 x 103 mm/s)/(20π mm/rev) = 19.002 in. The axis uses a dc servomotor whose output shaft is coupled to a leadscrew with pitch = 6. (b) fp = fr ns /60p = 20(225)/60(0.0 mm. Determine: (a) feed rate and time to complete the cut.2/100 = 0.2/100 = 0.3 Hz (c) vt = Np = 800(0. (b) fp = N ns = 14(250) = 3500 Hz (c) vt = Np = 14(4) = 56 mm/s 38.4 s = 1. Solution: (a) CR = p/ns = 4/250 = 0. (b) the frequency of the pulse train emitted by the optical encoder when the servomotor operates at 14 rev/s.14 A leadscrew connected to a dc servomotor is the drive system for a positioning table.05 mm. 38.2) = 160 in/min. (b) fp = N ns /60 = 800(100)/60 = 1333. Cutting speed = 1.table has moved the programmed distance? What are (b) the pulse rate and (c) motor speed that correspond to the specified feed rate? Solution: (a) x = p np/ns . The motor operates at a speed = 15 rev/s. 38.26 min. (b) fp = N ns /60 = 800(100)/60 = 1333. Solution: (a) CR = p/ns = 0. The feedback sensing device is an optical encoder which emits 250 pulses per revolution. The leadscrew pitch = 4 mm. and (c) the travel speed of the table at the maximum rpm of the motor.1667) = 450 Hz (c) N = fr /p = 20/0. expressed in linear travel distance of the table axis.15 A milling operation is performed on a NC machining center. Determine: (a) The control resolution of the system.978 mm/s.002 in. Solution: (a) N = (1. The optical encoder attached to the leadscrew emits 250 pulses/rev of the leadscrew.1667 = 10.5(225)/0.016 mm.3 Hz (c) vt = N p/rg = 800(0.

1. To execute a certain programmed instruction.10 CR = 0.0 mm. The end milling cutter has two teeth and its diameter = 16. Tm = 325/71. (c) fp = rg ns N/60 = 5(12.25 . also (b) the rotational speed of the motor and (c) the frequency of the pulse train emitted by the optical encoder when the desired feed rate is achieved.18 The largest axis of a Cartesian coordinate robot has a total range of 750 mm.58 Hz 38. The x-axis uses a dc servomotor connected directly to a leadscrew whose pitch = 6.7/-2.012 in/min N = frx /p = (-3.0004 in.3. which has 4 threads/in.5.54 min.5) to point (1.15 mm. ∆y = 7.5 in/min. fp = ns N/60 = 400(11.5 = -2. the table must be moved from point (3. The cut is in a direction parallel to the x-axis on a NC machining center. 7. fr = N f nt = 596.7° frx = 7.20 = 3750 2B = 3751 259 . Cutting speed = 30 m/min and chip load = 0. The motor is coupled directly to the table leadscrew. (b) N = fr /p = (71.5.663) = 165.52 Hz Industrial Robotics 38. ∆x = 1.2) at fr = 7.0.25 mm and repeatability = ±0. 7.5 = 5.15 = 0.5) = 113.20 2B – 1 = 750/0. Determine: (a) the control resolution of the system for the x-axis. It is driven by pulley system capable of a mechanical accuracy = 0.62 = 4.7 = 7.8(0.2 .7 in.0.94 rev/min. The optical encoder emits 125 pulses per revolution.fp = ns N = 250(0. Solution: (a) N = (30 x 103 mm/min)/(16π mm/rev) = 596.0 . Determine: (a) feed rate and time to complete the cut.4017) = -3.5 CR = 0.94)/60 = 79.06)(2) = 71. 1.20 CR = CR2 = L/(2B – 1)= 750/(2B – 1) 750/(2B – 1)= 0.05)(125)/60 = 125. Solution: Repeatability = ± 3σ = 0. Determine the minimum number of bits required in the binary register for the axis in the robot's control memory. An optical encoder is used to provide the feedback measurement.5 in/min.012/(. 1. (b) Move from (3.62 mm/min)/(6. Angle A = tan-1(5.15 mm σ = 0.05 rev/min.2) in a straight-line trajectory at a feed rate of 7.06 mm. The feedback sensing device is an optical encoder which emits 400 pulses per revolution.5 cos 113.0 mm.62 mm/min.5(-0.25 mm = 0.75 Hz 38.16 An end milling operation is carried out along a straight line path which is 325 mm in length.15/3 = 0.8 rev/min.5 in. It is connected to the leadscrew using a 1:5 gear ratio (one turn of the leadscrew converts to 5 turns of the encoder disk). and (b) rotational speed of the motor and the pulse rate of the encoder at the feed rate indicated..05 mm Accuracy = 0.0 mm/rev) = 11.17 A dc servomotor is used to drive the x-axis of a NC milling machine table.15 0.0. Solution: (a) CR = p/rg ns = 0.5 CR + 0.5 CR + 3 σ = 0.5) to (1.25) = 12.250/(5 x 125) = 0.

030 . Solution: (a) Repeatability = ± 3 σ = ± 0. 0.5 → ns = 13 step angles 38.725/(2B – 1) = 0.15 mm Accuracy = 0.5 = 0.69315 B = 8.19 B = 11.20 The designer of a polar configuration robot is considering a portion of the manipulator consisting of a rotational joint connected to its output link.0169 CR = 0.25 mm = 0.0338 from part (a).15 = 0.20 mm Assume CR = CR1 = p/rg ns ns = p/(rg CR) = 5.0338 2B – 1 = 32.5 CR + 0.2 2B = 969.25 mm. The accuracy of the joint-link combination.5 CR + 0. (b) Given CR = 0.0005236 rad.0 mm.2 B ln 2 = ln 969.15 0. expressed as a linear measure at the end of the link which results from rotating the joint.B ln 2 = ln 3751 0.0005236) = 0.2 0.876 B = 9.92 → 10 bits 260 .0131 Specified accuracy = 0. Accuracy = 0. so there are no additional errors due to deflection.0. given the repeatability error. is specified as 0.10 CR = 0. (b) Determine the minimum number of bits required in the binary register of the robot's control memory to achieve the specified accuracy.5 CR + 3 σ = 0.0169/0.030° = 2π(0. Specify the number of step angles that the motor must have in order to meet the accuracy requirement. range = (2π(75)/360) x 25 = 32.5 CR + 3σ = 0.0338 in Since CR is positive. total range = 75° Converting this to an arc distance.25 .030°.0338 32. The mechanical inaccuracies of the joint result in a repeatability error = ±0.030)/360 = 0.030 in.0/(2 x 0.030 0.87 → 12 bits.5 CR = 0.030 = 0. (a) Show that the specified accuracy can be achieved.22978 38. CR = L/(2B – 1) = 0.20) = 12. The mechanical errors in the system (due to backlash of the leadscrew and the gear reducer) can be represented by a normal distribution with standard deviation = ±0. Solution: Repeatability = ± 3 σ = ± 3(0.0131 0.0131 in. A stepper motor serves as the drive unit for the linear joint of an industrial robot. The joint must have an accuracy of 0.725 in. The pitch of the leadscrew is 5.5 CR + 0.0338 = 968. It is assumed that the link is perfectly rigid.05) = ± 0. The output link is 25 in long and the rotational joint has a range of 75°.5 CR = 0. End-of-link movement = LA where A = angle of movement in radians LA = 25(0.6931 B = 6. the specified accuracy should be possible to achieve.030° of rotation.05 mm.0.725/0. The motor is attached to a leadscrew through a 2:1 gear reduction (2 turns of the motor for 1 turn of the leadscrew).0131 = 0.

4 What is the composite part concept in group technology? Answer.2 What is a part family? Answer. Cellular manufacturing involves the production of part families using groups of machines (generally manually operated) to produce a certain part family or a limited set of part families. (3) production control. 39. 39.1 GROUP TECHNOLOGY AND FLEXIBLE MANUFACTURING SYSTEMS Review Questions Define group technology? Answer. Answer. 39. (7) work transport control. Answer. assembly. GT machine cell designs include: single machines. multiple machines with manual handling. What are the advantages of FMS technology. (6) tool management. (2) NC part program download.10 Identify some of the applications of FMS technology.8 Name some of the FMS software and control functions. (2) accept changes in schedule. The concept is useful in designing cells to produce the part family. multiple machines with mechanized handling. 39.3 Define cellular manufacturing? Answer. 39. Functions include: (1) NC part programming. A flexible manufacturing system (FMS) is an automated group technology cell consisting of processing stations interconnected by an automated handling system and controlled by a computer.39 39. Applications include: machining. compared to conventional batch operations? 261 . and sheet metal processing. inspection. GT is a general approach in which similarities among parts are identified and exploited in design and manufacturing. (5) workpart control. 39.6 What is a flexible manufacturing system? Answer. In GT. 39. 39.7 What makes an automated manufacturing system flexible? Answer. The tests of flexibility are: (1) process different part styles in non-batch mode. and flexible manufacturing systems. A part family is a collection of parts that are similar in design or manufacturing attributes. Answer. flexible manufacturing cells. a composite part is a hypothetical part that includes all of the design and/or manufacturing attributes of a given part family.9 39.5 Name some of the possible machine cell designs in group technology. (3) deal gracefully with equipment breakdowns. and (4) accommodate new part style introductions. (4)machine control. and (8) general system management.

(c) part family.5 A machine capable of producing different part styles in a batch mode of operation qualifies as a flexible manufacturing system: (a) true or (b) false. (e) medium volume. Answer. (e) part dimensions.7 Industrial robots can. (c). (b) 39. Answer. Answer. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers. Answer. and (f) tolerances. or (e) weight of parts processed. For each question.2 Most parts classification and coding systems are based on which of the following types of part attributes (more than one)? (a) annual production rate. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point. (d) major process.8 Flexible manufacturing systems and cells are generally applied in which one of the following areas? (a) high variety. (b) A flexible manufacturing system does not normally operate in a batch mode. (b) metal parts. 39. 39. (3) lower manufacturing lead times. (b) and (c). medium variety production. and (4) greater flexibility in production scheduling. (d) plastic parts. 39. (c) length-to-diameter ratio. (2) reduced work-in-process. in general. (b) 39. 39. (b) low variety.3 Which of the following are part design attributes that are likely to be included in a parts classification and coding system (more than one)? (a) annual production.Answer. (e) 262 . or (c) six machines. (b) material handling system.6 The physical layout of a flexible manufacturing system is determined principally by which one of the following? (a) computer system. (c) manufacturing. low volume production. or (e) rotational parts. To attain a perfect score on the quiz. most easily handle which of the following part types in a flexible machining system (one best answer)? (a) heavy parts. Advantages include: (1) higher machine utilization. (b) engineering drawings. (e). (c) master schedule. (c) low volume. Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 12 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct). Answer. (d) processing equipment. (b) four machines. and (d) weight.1 Production flow analysis is a method of identifying part families that uses data from which one of the following sources? (a) bill of materials. (b) design. Answer. (c) nonrotational parts. (d) production schedule. (e). Answer. and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point. (b) batch size. all correct answers must be given. Answer. or (e) route sheets.4 What is the dividing line between a manufacturing cell and a flexible manufacturing system? (a) two machines. and (f). (d) mass production. 39. since each correct answer is worth 1 point. (e) 39.

(b) machine vision. (d) 263 .39. (d) numerical control.9 Which of the following technologies is most closely associated with flexible machining systems (one best answer)? (a) lasers. (c) manual assembly lines. or (f) transfer lines. Answer.

A batch model line produces the different products in batches. and (3) pushing the work units along a conveyor between stations. Answer. (2) minimize or avoid high inventories of some models while there are stock-outs of other models. 40.1 PRODUCTION LINES What is a production line? Answer.4 What are some of the limitations of a mixed model line compared to a batch model line? Answer. Advantages of the mixed model line include: (1) no downtime between different models.7 Briefly define the three types of mechanized workpart transfer systems used in production lines. 40. Answer. 40. in which parts all move simultaneously from station-to-station with a stop-and-go action. also known as division of labor. and (3) asynchronous transfer.5 Identify two fundamental principles on which manual assembly lines are based. 40. (2) synchronous transfer. and (3) getting the right parts to each workstation is more difficult because more parts are involved. The methods include: (1) work units are simply passed by hand along a flat worktable from one station to the next. in which parts move independently between stations with a stop-and-go action.3 What are the advantages of the mixed model line for producing different product styles? Answer. and (3) work flow principle. Both lines are used to make multiple product types.40 40.2 Distinguish between a batch model production line and a mixed model production line. while a mixed model line produces different products simultaneously.6 Describe how manual methods are used to move parts between workstations on a production line. The three work transfer systems are: (1) continuous transfer. Limitations include: (1) line balancing problem is more complex. Answer. (2) sometimes collecting them in boxes and then passing the boxes between stations. Answer. with a setup changeover between the products. 40. (2) interchangeable parts. 264 . Because all production lines will suffer a certain amount of nonproductive time due to reliability problems. 40. Three principles are described in the text: (1) specialization of labor. and (3) production rates can be matched to demand rates for different models.8 Why are parts sometimes fixed to the conveyor in a continuous transfer system in manual assembly? Answer. 40.9 Why must a production line be paced at a rate higher than that required to satisfy the demand for the product? Answer. Review Questions 40. in which parts move on a conveyor at a steady speed. A production line is a sequence of workstations at which individual tasks are accomplished on each work unit as it moves from one station to the next to progressively make the product. (2) scheduling the models is more difficult. Because the parts are big and/or heavy and cannot be conveniently removed by a human worker.

each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point. 40.13 Why are single station assembly cells generally not suited to high production jobs? Answer. or (c) synchronous.. machining) involves allocation of (usually) single machining operations to workstations. There are many more possible solutions to the line balancing problem in the manual assembly case. (b) continuous. and gradual normal wear and tear on the equipment. Line balancing on a manual assembly line (usually) involves assigning multiple work elements to workers or stations. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers. and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point. it is the time to move parts from one station to the next. Answer.g. (d) 265 . For each question. The entire work cycle is performed at one station. what is that name? Answer. since each correct answer is worth 1 point. Answer. (b) limiting value on the sum of element times that can be assigned to a worker or station. (b) mass production.2 Manual methods of workpart transfer are probably closest to which one of the following mechanized methods of transfer? (a) asynchronous. (c) 40. To attain a perfect score on the quiz. Line balancing on an automated transfer line (e. or (c) medium production. (2) repositioning time during Tc. Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 10 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct). 40. all correct answers must be given.1 Batch model lines are most suited to which one of the following production situations? (a) job shop. Answer.3 Precedence constraints are best described by which of the following (one best answer)? (a) launching sequence in a mixed model line.40. Reasons include: tool changes.14 What are some of the reasons for downtime on a machining transfer line? Answer. and (3) multiple manning. The repositioning time is called the transfer time. (c) order of work stations along the line. Reasons are: (1) line balancing losses. so single station cells usually operate at relatively slow production rates. or (d) sequence in which the work elements must be done.10 What are the reasons why the number of workstations cannot be determined simply from the ratio Twc/Tc? Answer. sudden mechanical and electrical failures. 40.11 Why is the line balancing problem different on an automated transfer line than on a manual assembly line? Answer. 40. (a) 40.12 Repositioning time on a synchronous transfer line is known by a different name. 40.

0. Answer.Tr = 1. (e) requires sensory capability. or (e) spotwelding.0/(. (c) machining.5 → 39 stations (b) n = w/M = 47/1.9 min. Desired production rate = 50 units/hr.9/(0.4.09125 min.5 hr/shift. Work units will be attached to a continuously moving conveyor.99125) = 46. and (b) number of workers required.000/(50 x 5 x 7.2 In the previous problem. line efficiency = 95%. Ts = Tc .78 → 27 workers 266 . (d) The line efficiency (proportion uptime) on an automated line can be increased by which of the following approaches (more than one)? (a) improving the reliability of each workstation on the line. and (f). and 7.33 = 1. 5 shifts/wk.5) = 53.97. (d) pressworking.33 units/hr (b) Tc = E/Rp = 60(. Answer.14 min. Repositioning time = 6 sec. (c). compute (a) the ideal minimum number of workstations n min. (b) increasing the number of stations n on the line.0. The transfer line is most closely associated with which one of the following types of production operations? (a) assembly.40. Work content time = 42. (b) continuous. w = Min Int ≥ 25. 40. w = Min Int ≥ 42. (b) consists of multiple work elements.4 = 33. The line will operate 50 wks/year. (d). Problems Manual Assembly Lines 40.95)/50 = 1. (c) involves a single work element.5 40. Assume line efficiency E = 0.92 x 0.3 A manual assembly line produces a small appliance whose work content time = 25. Answer.4 Which of the following phrases are most appropriate to describe the characteristics of tasks that are performed at automated workstations (more than one)? (a) complex.Tr = 1.0/1.7 Answer. (c) parts passed by hand.0 min.6 40.97)/53. (b) automotive chassis fabrication.93 x 1.09125 .04) = 26. (a) and (c). and balancing efficiency is 93%. and repositioning time Tr = 6 sec. or (d) synchronous. How many workers are on the line? Solution: Tc = E/Rp = 60(0. Determine: (a) hourly production rate to meet demand.6 → 34 stations 40. and (b) the number of workstations required if multiple manning can be used and the estimated manning level is M = 1. and (f) simple.1 = 0.1 = 1.1 A manual assembly line is being designed for a product with annual demand = 100.06 → 47 workers 40.99125 min.000 units.04 min.09125 = 38. (d) involves straight-line motions.14 . (c) A dial indexing machine uses which one of the following types of workpart transfer? (a) asynchronous. Solution: (a) nmin = Min Int ≥ Twc/Tc = 42.92. Solution: (a) Rp = 100. balancing efficiency Eb = 0. and (c) reducing the average downtime Td. Ts = Tc .

95 min. The body shop welds the car bodies using robots. 40.000 units annually.93 x . This results in an average daily production of 256 units/day.63875 min. Determine: (a) hourly production rate of the plant.92(1.5. proportion uptime = 95%. it is estimated that the manning level will be close to 1. From previous experience with similar products. w = Min Int ≥ Twc/EbTs = 50/(1.50 min.0 hours/shift.8 min.15 = 0. Determine: (a) line efficiency. (b) balancing efficiency.95)/60 = 0. = 8.85 min. determine: (a) the cycle time.08(1.0. where cars are moved by a continuous conveyor.0(60)/30 = 2.92 Tc = 0. If 9 seconds will be lost from the cycle time for repositioning.000/(50 x 10 x 8) = 60. two shifts/day.9 min.8) = 1250 workers n = w/M = 1250/2. (3) trim-chassis-final department. Total work content time to assemble the product = 22. The line has 24 workstations with a manning level M = 1.0.1425 min.78125) = 1. The product has a Available shift time per day = 8 hr.5 A final assembly plant for a certain automobile model is to have a capacity of 240. The workers remain seated along the line. and 8. There are 15.6 hr on average.67 → 19 stations 40.5.15 = 1.95)/32 = 1.6/8. Ts = Tc .90. 267 .8/(32 x 1. and (b) how many workers and (c) stations will be needed on the line? Solution: (a) Tc = E/Rp = 1.Tr = 2.63875) = 0.15 min is allowed for each worker. and a repositioning time of 0. Proportion uptime E = 0. w = 24(1. and the transfer time = 6 seconds. and the paint shop coats the bodies.0 x 1. A synchronous transfer system is used to advance the products from one station to the next.0 .95 .0.4 A single model manual assembly line produces a product whose work content time = 48. Trim-chassis-final has no automation.5 = 500 stations 40.40. The required production rate is 30 units per hour. (2) paint shop.5 x 60/(0.78125 min Ts = Tc . It will be divided into three departments: (1) body shop. Solution: (a) Rp = 240. balancing efficiency = 93%. the average manning level is 2. 5 days/week. but downtime during the shift reduces actual production time to 7.25) = 32 workers Eb = Twc/wTs = 47.85) = 27.78125) = 0.0. Determine the balance delay.7 A manual assembly line has 17 workstations with one operator per station.Tr = 0.90)/36 = 1.5 = 18.9325 (c) Tr = 0.0 = 0. Both of these departments are highly automated.5 hours of direct labor content on each car in this department.2 minutes.0 min/unit (b) Ts = Tc . Repositioning time per worker Tr is 8% of cycle time Tc.0 units/hr (b) Tc = E/Rp = 60(0.55 sec.25. The plant will operate 50 weeks/yr.Tr = Tc . w = Min Int ≥ Twc/EbTs = 15. (b) number of workers and workstations required in trim-chassis-final if no automated stations are used.08Tc = 0. Assume E = Eb = 1.6 A product whose total work content time = 50 minutes is to be assembled on a manual production line. The production rate of the line = 36 units per hour. Solution: Tc = E/Rp = 60(0. Solution: (a) E = 7.03 → 28 workers (c) n = 28/1. and (c) repositioning time Tr.95 (b) Rp = 256/8 = 32 units/hr Tc = 60(0.

(b) Ts = Tc . one-third of which have two workers. Because of the automated stations. The total assembly work content time = 32 minutes of direct manual labor. Repositioning time per worker is 9 sec.9 Production rate for a certain assembled product is 47.15 = 1. where the average includes the automatic stations? Solution: (a) Tc = E/Rp = 60(0. w = 32 + 2 = 34 workers (b) n = 10 + (34 .Tr = 1.0 x 1. It is known that the number of workers on the line is two more than the number required for perfect balance.95(60)/47. The production rate on the line is 45 units/hr.941 (d) M = w/n = 34/24 = 1. w = 0.78 = 1.8 A production line with four automatic workstations (the other stations are manual) produces a certain product whose total assembly work content time = 55.0. Ten workstations have two workers on opposite sides of the line so that both sides of the product can be worked on simultaneously.97 → 56 workers (c) n = 56 + 4 = 60 stations (d) M = 56/60 = 0.5 units per hour.Tr = 0. Eb = Twc/wTs = 22.9(1.6435 min.15 = 1.0/(0.5 min.92(34. Ts = Twc/wEb = 48/32 = 1.417 40.89)/45 = 1.333(24) x 2 + 0.Tr = 1. what is the balance delay on the line? Solution: (a) Eb = 1. 268 .40 min.2/(17 x 1. (a) What is the maximum possible hourly production rate if line is assumed to be perfectly balanced? (b) If the actual production rate is only 92% of the maximum possible rate determined in part (a). (b) number of workstations.50 .5 = 1.737 = 34. of direct manual labor.2 x 10) = 10 + 14 = 24 stations (c) Eb = Twc/wTs = 32/(34 x 1. (d) What is the average manning level on the line.2 .40) = 0. Repositioning time lost by each worker is 0. Solution: (a) Tc = E/Rp = 0.2 min/cycle. The work is transported using a continuous overhead conveyor which operates at a speed of 3 ft/min.0 min.737 min.65 min.0. Tp = Tc/E = 1.1867) = 1.0. then Eb = 1. If the balancing efficiency Eb = 0.55) = 31.3% 40.65/.10 The total work content for a product assembled on a manual production line is 48 min.667(24) x 1 = 32 workers w = Twc/EbTs.95)/31.5 + .0 and w = Min Int ≥ Twc/EbTs = 32/(1.92 x 1. the remaining stations each have one worker.0) = 32 workers But with 2 additional workers..Ts = Tc . and uptime efficiency of the line is 95%.1867 min. w= Twc/EbTs = 55. The remaining stations have one worker.0 min If perfect balance.2 min. and (d) average manning level. (b) number of workers and (c) workstations on the line. find: (a) cycle time.1 = 1. Determine: (a) number of workers.95 = 1. Ts = 1. Tc = Ts + Tr = 1. It is known that 10% of the cycle time is lost due to repositioning.933 40. Ts = Tc .0) = 0.2 = 1.068 min. The line operates at 95% uptime. There are 24 workstations on the line.78 units/hr Tc = 60E/Rp = 60(.7935 .92 on the manual stations. uptime efficiency = 89%. The manual stations each have one worker.9Tc = 0. (c) the balancing efficiency.933 = 93. Rp = 60/Tp = 60/1.068) = 55.55 units/hr (b) Actual Rp = 0.7935 min.

Probability of a station failure is p = 0.25 min. will the computer system pay for 269 .25 = 1224 pc during the 40 hour period.5 + 0. (b) Rp = 1224/40 = 30.5/0. Rp = 60/Tp = 60/3.725 = 82.5 E = 25.5/40 = 0.725 min.15 + 0.50 + 0.10 = 1.5 = 25.5(60)/1.225 = 0.06 6 0. The other five perform processing operations. The line operates 4000 hours per year.92 + 0. EH = 40E = 40 .015) = 0.60.13 A 7-station transfer line has been observed over a 40-hour period.50 min. If the value added per unit produced = $4.80 + 1. since the line efficiency E = 0. exclusive of materials.008 and average downtime when a breakdown occurs is 10.95 + 1. A computer monitoring system has been proposed that will cost $25.1 = 19.95 5 1.9127 Automated Production Lines 40.14. the line does not achieve this rate.5/3.484 40. However.0) = 0.015.008) = 0.14 A 12-station transfer line was designed to operate with an ideal production rate = 50 parts/hour. Determine: (a) the number of parts produced during the week. (d) If the balancing efficiency were computed for this line. and hours of downtime = 14. It costs $75/hour to operate the line. Rp = 60/0.1 = 0.5 hrs Q = 25.15 + 0.76 units/hr (b) E = Tc/Tp = 0.10 3 1. n(maximum Ts) = 7(1.075(3. The longest process takes 25 sec and the indexing time = 5 sec.11 An automated transfer line has 20 stations and operates with an ideal cycle time of 1.16(10.06 + 0.10 min. Solution: (a) F = np = 20(0. One station is used for loading and unloading. Solution: (a) Assume p = 0 at the manual station F = np = 1(0) + 5(.60 = 3.12 A dial-indexing table has 6 stations. which is accomplished by a human worker.80 The transfer time between stations = 6 sec. Each station has a frequency of failure p = 0.78 min.075 Tp = 0.Eb = Twc/wTs = 48/(32 x 1.0 min to make repairs and restart.50 + 1.16 Tp = 1.6 pc/hr (c) 40E = 25.35 units/hr (b) E = Tc/Tp = 1. (b) the average actual production rate in parts/hour.05 min Eb = 6.80 2 1.0) = 1. The processing times at each station are: Station Process time (min) 1 0.00. The number of downtime occurrences = 110. what would be its value? Solution: (a) Tc = 1.842 40.6435) = 0.92 7 0.6375 (d) Twc = Σ Ts = 0.0 minutes.10 + 1.725 = 0. and (c) the line efficiency.5 hours. Determine: (a) hourly production rate.78/8.15 4 0.000 (installed) and will reduce downtime on the line by 25%.05 = 0.690 40.5 + .80 = 6. When a failure occurs it takes an average of 3. Determine: (a) the average production rate Rp and (b) the line efficiency E.15) = 8. and (b) line efficiency.

Tp = 1.5 = 14 stations (b) Tp = 9.7 = 1. Cost to operate line = same as in current system (neglecting increased cost of new system) Difference in revenues = $533.8/n2 + 0.6 = 2. Use expected increase in revenues resulting from the computer system as the criterion.2 + 0.8/0.05n dTp/dn = -9.8 = 33.0 .25%)(2. Based on previous experience.2 min. and the probability of a station failure that leads to a downtime occurrence p = 0.2/. Tp = Tc + Ftd = 9.8/14 + 0. so that the ideal cycle time for each station = 9.8/n + n(0.4 = 42. Ignore material costs in your calculations.$480. FTd = Tp .01)(5.00(120.75(0.0) = 9. Solution: Tc = 60/Rc = 60/50 = 1.8/n + 0.itself within one year of operation.15 An automated transfer line is to be designed.0 min.8) = 0.33) = 133.Tc. Solution: (a) Maximizing Rp is equivalent to minimizing Tp.2 min.0 min.00(133. Rp = 60/1.6 min. Rp = 60/1. Tp = Tc/E = 1. the average downtime per occurrence = 5.8/n.1.000 = $53.8 min. This is reduced by 25% with new system. The total work content time = 9.2) = 0.05(14) = 0.0 = 30 pc/hr In the current system: Annual production Q = 4000Rp = 4000(30) = 120.333) = $533.05 = 196 n = (196) . Cost to operate line = $75H = $75(4000) = $300. Determine: (a) the optimum number of stations n on the line that will maximize production rate.4 min.8 min and is to be divided evenly amongst the workstations.000 investment.86 pc/hr E = 0.50 270 .333 units/yr Revenues = $4. and Tp = 2.000/yr.000/yr With computer monitoring system: Tc = 1. FTd = (1 .7 + 0. Rp = 60/Tp = 60/2.000) = $480.000 units/yr Revenues = $4.333.33 pc/hr Annual production Q = 4000(33.4 = 0.00Q = $4.7/1.0 min.6 = 1.333/yr.333 . and (b) the production rate Rp and proportion uptime E for your answer to part (a).05 = zero at minimum point n2 = 9. 40. This is more than enough to justify the $25.01.

(2) day-to-day technical problem solving and continuous improvement..41 41. assembly) and manual portions of machine cycles (e. and so forth.6 What is a precedence constraint in process planning? Answer.4 What is a route sheet? Answer. a hole must be drilled before it can be tapped. Because purchasing the component may cause idle equipment and staff in the factory that the company must still pay for. manufacturing research. Answer.. fixtures. for example. A precedence constraint is a limitation on the order in which processing or assembly operations can be performed on a given workpart.8 Identify some of the important factors that should enter into the make or buy decision. Table 41. Principal activities of manufacturing engineering are: (1) process planning. 41. (3) what tools.2 MANUFACTURING ENGINEERING Define manufacturing engineering.. A basic process establishes the starting geometry of the work material. A route sheet is a listing of the production operations and their sequence required to make a given part. and (9) plant layout and facilities design. and gages will be needed. e.1 in the text. (3) advising the product designers in design for manufacturability. Answer. and (4) advanced manufacturing planning.g. (8) consideration must be given to the problem of moving materials and work-in-progress in the factory. (2) equipment selection.5 What is the difference between a basic process and a secondary process? Answer. rolled sheet metal. 41. why is it that purchasing a component from a vendor may cost more than producing the component internally.7 In the make or buy decision. machining and sheet metal pressworking are common secondary processes. dies. Review Questions 41.g.g. casting. loading and unloading a production machine). drawn metal bar. (6) work standards (time standards for each operation). 41. even though the quoted price from the vendor is lower than the internal price? Answer.3 Identify some of the details and decisions that are included within the scope of process planning. (7) estimates of production costs. 41. which includes evaluation of new processing technologies. What are the principal activities in manufacturing engineering? Answer. It also lists the equipment and special tooling that is required. 41. (4) identification of cutting tools and cutting conditions for machining operations. molds.1 lists the following details and decisions in process planning: (1) what processes are required and the sequence in which they are performed.1 41. (5) methods for manual operations (e. Secondary processes are used to refine the starting geometry and transform the material into final shape and size. 271 . Manufacturing engineering is a technical staff department responsible for planning the manufacturing processes for a product and its components. See Example 41.

(d) process planning. (j) sintering of pressed ceramic powders. 41. It includes: (1) design for manufacturability.12 What is meant by the term design for life cycle? Answer. (4) Design for ease of part fabrication. (c) process improvement. It also includes certain organizational changes which attempt to bring different functions in the company together during product design to consider all possible aspects of the product. (5) Design parts with tolerances that are within process capability. Enabling technologies mentioned in the text are rapid prototyping and computer integrated manufacturing (which includes CAD/CAM). (n) trepanning. and (p) ultrasonic machining. Design for life cycle means that factors relating to the product after it has been manufactured should be taken into consideration in design. (c) drilling with a twist drill. (d). since each correct answer is worth 1 point. (h) sand casting. upgradeability. To attain a perfect score on the quiz. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point. For each question. (3) production quantity.5 lists the following DFM principles and guidelines: (1) Minimize number of components. (f) impression die forging. and (f). (5) whether or not the component is a standard commercially available hardware item. 41. as opposed to secondary processes (more than one)? (a) annealing. Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 18 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct). (e) forward hot extrusion to produce aluminum bars. electronic data interchange should probably be included in the list.10 What is concurrent engineering and what are its important components? Answer.11 Identify some of the enabling technologies for concurrent engineering? Answer. (m) tempering of martensitic steel. and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point. These factors include installability. (b) facilities planning. and (7) possible need for alternative sources. reliability. (i) sheet metal stamping. (2) whether the process is available internally. (g) rolling. (o) turning. and disposability. 41. (2) Use standard commercially available components. all correct answers must be given. 41. (2) design for quality. and (4) design for cost. In addition. maintainability. (k) spot welding. Concurrent engineering is an approach used by companies to reduce the time to bring a new product to market. 41.9 Name three of the general principles and guidelines in design for manufacturability? Answer. (l) surface grinding of hardened steel. (9) Use modular design. (3) Use common parts across product lines. Table 41. (8) Design for ease of assembly. and (f) solving technical problems in the production departments. (3) design for life cycle. (d) electroplating. (b) anodizing. (c).2 Which of the following would be considered basic processes. (6) Design the product to be foolproof during assembly. (a). (11) Eliminate or reduce adjustment required. The factors include: (1) cost. 41.1 Which of the following are the usual responsibilities of the manufacturing engineering department (more than one)? (a) advising on design for manufacturability. (4) Product life. (10) Shape parts and products for ease of packaging. Answer. (7) Minimize flexible components. serviceability. (6) supplier reliability.Answer. 272 . Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers. (e) product design.

(c). Answer. (e) forward hot extrusion to produce aluminum bars. (l).3 Which of the following would be considered secondary processes. (d) electroplating. (c) drilling with a twist drill. (n) trepanning.Answer. (o) turning. (c) drilling with a twist drill. and (m).4 Which of the following are operations to enhance physical properties (more than one)? (a) annealing. (b) retrieval CAPP. (j) sintering of pressed ceramic powders. Answer. (h) sand casting. (h) sand casting. (m) tempering of martensitic steel. (e) forward hot extrusion to produce aluminum bars. (g) rolling. (c) traditional process planning. (a). as opposed to basic processes (more than one)? (a) annealing. (g) rolling. 41.5 Which one of the following types of computer-aided process planning relies on parts classification and coding in group technology? (a) generative CAPP. (j). (m) tempering of martensitic steel. (n). (i). (l) surface grinding of hardened steel. (f) impression die forging. (i) sheet metal stamping. (d) electroplating. (b) anodizing. (f). (k) spot welding. and (h). (k) spot welding. and (p). (i) sheet metal stamping. (l) surface grinding of hardened steel. (o) turning. Answer. (f) impression die forging. (o). (j) sintering of pressed ceramic powders. (b) 273 . (n) trepanning. or (d) none of the preceding. and (p) ultrasonic machining. (e). 41. (g). and (p) ultrasonic machining. 41. (b) anodizing.

Dependent demand refers to the fact that demand for the item is directly related to demand for something else. (2) bill-of-materials file for product structure.10 Identify the principal objective in just-in-time production. The inputs to MRP are: (1) master production schedule. End products and spare parts experience independent demand. Make-to-stock is the case in which the company produces to replenish inventories of products. and (3) spare parts.42 42. In a reorder point system. Answer.5 Define reorder point inventory system. What is the difference between dependent and independent demand for products? Answer. authorize overtime. 42.6 In MRP. and it is appropriate to carry inventory. usually because the item is a component of an end product subject to independent demand. Independent demand means that the demand or consumption of the item is unrelated to demand for other items. Answer. Production rate is greater than demand rate. 42. How does aggregate planning differ from the master production scheduling? Answer.3 42. as the Japanese view it.1 42. Aggregate planning is scheduling by general product line. increase shift hours. or subassemblies that are used for more than one item in the next level above in the product structure. Common use items are materials. what are common use items? Answer. The categories are: (1) firm customer orders. for example. an order to restock is issued when the inventory level for the given stock item declines to some point defined as the reorder point. 42. 42. the master production schedule indicates how many and when of each product model within the product line are to be produced. Answer.9 42.8 What are some of the resource changes that can be made to increase plant capacity in the short run? Answer. 42. Reduction of in-process inventory. and subcontracting work to outside vendors.4 What are the product categories usually listed in the master production schedule. How is a pull system distinguished from a push system in production and inventory control? 274 . components. Answer. increase number of shifts. Short term adjustments to increase capacity include: increase employment levels. (2) sales forecasts. and (3) inventory record file.7 Identify the inputs to the MRP processor in material requirements planning.2 PRODUCTION PLANNING AND CONTROL What is meant by the term make-to-stock production? Review Questions Answer. 42. or a component that is used on more than one product. a starting material that is used on more than one component.

(a). (b) direct labor. In a push system. Answer.1 Which one of the following terms best describes the overall function of production planning and control? (a) inventory control. (c) just-in-time production. 42. (b) and (d). and (f) setup cost. 42.Answer. (c) manufacturing engineering. Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 17 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct). 42. and (f). (b) investment. (c) low production quantities. since each correct answer is worth 1 point. and (3) order progress. To attain a perfect score on the quiz. 42. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers. (e) spoilage. (b) and (e). each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point. (b) 42. (b) manufacturing logistics. (b) economic order quantity. and (e). (e). (b). authorization to produce derives from parts being produced by upstream stations and forming queues in front of the production station. (e) interest rate.7 The word kanban is most closely associated with which one of the following? (a) capacity planning. For each question. In a pull system. Answer. The three phases are (1) order release. (d) mass production quantities. (d) orders for maintenance and spare parts. (c) cost per piece.4 Which of the following are the terms in the economic order quantity formula (name three)? (a) annual demand rate. 42.6 With which of the following manufacturing resources is capacity requirements planning primarily concerned (more than one)? (a) component parts. 42. (d) setup.11 What are the three phases in shop floor control? Answer. (d). (e) sales forecasts. Answer. Answer. (f) stock-out. and (e) mid. (d) holding cost. (b). Answer. (d) production equipment. or (e) material requirements planning.2 Which of the following are the categories usually listed in the master production schedule (more than one)? (a) components used to build the final products. and (g) storage. or (e) product design. (b) independent demand items.range production quantities. (2) order scheduling. and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point. Answer. (b) batch size. and (f) spare tires. (c). authorization to produce parts originates from downstream stations. 42. (b) firm customer orders. (c) general product lines. all correct answers must be given. and (e) raw materials.5 Order point inventory systems are intended for which of the following (more than one)? (a) dependent demand items. (c) obsolescence. (c) inventory storage space. (d). (d) mass production. (c) 275 . and (g). (d) master production schedule.3 Inventory carrying costs include which of the following (more than one)? (a) equipment downtime. Answer.

000/6000) = 3000 + 3000 = $6000 42. 276 . holding cost rate = 2.00)(7217/2) + 2.process in the factory.5 = 7217 units TIC at EOQ = ChQ/2 + CsuDa/Q = 0.825 EOQ = (2D a Csu/Ch)0. (b) floor foundation in the factory.1 A product is made-to-stock.8 The term machine loading refers most closely to which one of the following? (a) assigning jobs to a work center.5 = (2 x 20. Answer.000 x 2 x 200/(12 x . Determine: (a) EOQ and (b) total inventory costs for this data.4 A certain piece of production equipment is used to produce various components for an assembled product of the XYZ Company.65 min.000 x 300/(.3(9.5 (EOQ)2 = 2Da CdtTsu/hCp Tsu = hCp(EOQ)2/2D a Cdt = 0. Solution: (a) EOQ = (2D a Csu/Ch)0.42. Cost of downtime on this machine is estimated at $200/hr.06075 hr = 3.8660 = $8165 42.00.000 x 2.00. Determine: (a) economic order quantity and (b) total inventory costs for this situation. Production downtime costs an estimated $200/hr. and annual holding cost rate = 30%.00)(2000/2) + 2. downtime cost during changeover = $200/hr. or (e) sequencing jobs through a machine.30(4.00 and the annual holding cost rate = 25%. Setup time to run a batch = 2. Determine: (a) economic order quantity and (b) total inventory costs for this situation.000 units.00)(2981/2) + 2 x 200(20.025(6.3 A product is produced in batches.5 = (2 x 60.000/2981) = 2683 + 2684 = $5387 42.000 units. To keep in-process inventories low. (a) Problems Inventory Control 42.2 Given: annual demand for product X is 20. What would the annual savings be if the product were produced in the economic order quantity? Solution: Current TIC = ChQ/2 + CsuDa/Q = 0. (c) managing work-in.5 = 6000 units (b) TIC = ChQ/2 + CsuDa/Q = 0. changeover (setup) time between products averages 2.00)(150) 2/(2 x 2500 x 200) = 0. All of the components made on the equipment are of approximately equal value: Cp = $9.000/2000) = 1200 + 15.025 x 6.30(4.5 hr.000 units.25(4.00))0.000 units.000/7217) = 4330 + 4330 = $8660 Savings = 16.5 Current changeover (setup) time on a certain machine = 3.5 x 250(50.00/unit.25 x 4.5 x 250/(0. In how many minutes must the changeover (setup) between batches be completed in order for 100 units to be the economic order quantity? Solution: EOQ = (2D a CdtTsu /hCp)0.825 . 42. Demand for each product is 2500 units per year. Annual holding cost per part made on the equipment. cost per unit = $6. Ch = $1. Annual demand for the part is 15.5 x 250(50. Annual demand is 60. Each unit costs $4. Holding cost rate = 30%/yr.5%/month. (d) releasing orders to the shop. cost of downtime on the affected equipment is figured at $250/hr.00.5 = (2 x 50.30 x 4.625 = $16. it is desired to produce the components in batch sizes of 150 units (daily requirements for assembly).00)(6000/2) + 300(60.00))0. Annual demand = 50.0 hr. Solution: (a) EOQ = (2D a Csu/Ch)0.00))0. and unit cost of the product = $4.5 = 2981 units (b) TIC = ChQ/2 + CsuDa/Q = 12 x 0. Batch size = 2000 units. Setup cost to produce this product is $300.0 hr.

determine the time-phased requirements for M2. C2.5 = 4243 pc (b) TIC = ChQ/2 + CsuDa/Q = 1.5 = (2 x 15.05.50 + 387. The annual usage of the component is 40.05(1000/2) + 50(40.00(4243/2) + 3.1) = $20. Required deliveries for P1 are given in Figure 42.Also.447.05) 0. Each bin holds 1000 units. EOQ = (2 x 40.05(8944/2) + 50(40.00(775/2) + 20(15.000/8944) = 223.60 + 223. Csu = CdtTsu = 200(0. Cost to order the component is around $50. compared to the economic order quantity? Solution: (a) EOQ = (2D a Csu/Ch)0.61 = $447.000 units. and S1 to meet the master schedule for P1.00) 0. Solution: Period P1 Requirements Order Release S1 Requirements Order Release C2 Requirements Order Release 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 50 50 100 400 8 50 75 75 9 75 100 100 10 100 50 200 300 75 300 400 200 277 .10 = $774.2.000/1000) = 250 + 2000 = $2250.6 The two-bin approach is used to control inventory for a particular low-cost component. TIC = 0.000 x 20/1.5 Ch = 2 x 40.7. Solution: (a) EOQ = (2D a Csu/Ch)0. EOQ = (2 x 15.21 = $1802.00 annually (b) Given Ch = $0. TIC = 0.50 + 2121.3 → 8944 pc (c) For the two-bin approach in which Q = 1000. if the changeover time could be reduced to six minutes. manufacturing.000 x 50/0.00 x 200/1.00 . what lot size should be ordered? (c) How much more is the current two-bin approach costing the company annually.5 = 775 pc (d) TIC = 1. Assume no common use items and all on-hand inventories and scheduled receipts are zero. (a) What is the imputed holding cost per unit for this data? (b) If the actual annual holding cost per unit is only 5 cents.14 = $4242.000 x 50/1000 = $4.6. Ordering.7 Quantity requirements are to be planned for component C2 in product P1. Use a format similar to Figure 42.21 Additional cost = 2250.5 = 8944.00 For the EOQ = 8944.1 hr.00) 0.000/4243) = 2121.79 Material Requirements Planning 42.5 1000 = (2 x 40.000 x 3.00 x 200(15.60 42.000/775) = 387.64 (c) If Tsu = 6 min = 0. Ignore demand for P1 beyond period 10. and assembly lead times are as follows: Item identification: Lead time (weeks): P1 1 S1 2 C2 1 M2 2 Given the product structure in Figure 42. determine: (c) EOQ and (b) total inventory costs.000 x 50/Ch)0.

7. determine the time-phased requirements for M5. Use a format similar to Figure 42. Assume no common use items.6. Solution: Period P1 Requirements On-hand: 0 Net Requirements Order Release S2 Requirements On hand: 0 Net Requirements Order Release C5 Requirements On hand: 100 Net Requirements 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 50 50 75 150 150 200 400 400 9 75 75 100 200 200 10 100 100 50 100 100 150 300 300 100 200 100 100 278 .8 Requirements are to be planned for component C5 in product P1. and assembly lead times are as follows: Item identification: Lead time (weeks): P1 1 S2 1 C5 3 M5 2 Given the product structure in Figure 42. On-hand inventories are: 200 units for M5 and 100 units for C5. Required deliveries for P1 are given in Figure 42. manufacturing. C5. and S2 to meet the master schedule for P1. Solution: Period P1 Requirements On-hand: 0 Net Requirements Order Release S2 Requirements On hand: 0 Net Requirements Order Release C5 Requirements On hand: 100 Net Requirements Order Release M5 Requirements On hand: 200 Net Requirements Order Release 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 50 50 75 150 150 200 400 400 9 75 75 100 200 200 10 100 100 50 100 100 150 300 300 100 200 100 100 100 100 100 0 400 300 300 100 200 400 400 400 0 200 42. Ignore demand for P1 beyond period 10.2. zero for S2.M2 Requirements Order Release 200 300 200 400 300 400 42.8 Solve the previous problem except that the following is known in addition to the information given: scheduled receipts of M5 are 250 units in period (week) 3 and 50 units in period (week) 4. Ordering.

11 In the previous problem.0 + 750(4/60) = 6 + 50 = 56 hr.0 7.0 + 900(3/60) = 5 + 45 = 50 hr Product 3: Time per batch = 7. five days per week and there are currently 3 work centers in the department. under the assumption that a single setup is required for each product. The following schedule is proposed: Work center I II III Product 1 2 3 4 Quantity 750 900 400 400 Setup hours 6.0 46.0 50. 3.333 = 20. Available hours per week on 4 work centers if normal hours are assumed = 4 x (5 x 7) = 140 hr.0 min.333 hr.0 min. Product 2: Time per batch = 5.0 min.333 Totals 42.0 50. overtime must be used. Solution: Determine time to produce each product.333 Hrs/wk center 56.0 + 400(3/60) = 6 + 20 = 26 hr Total hours for all four products = 56 + 50 + 20. overtime must be used. 3. Propose a way of scheduling the machines to meet the weekly demand. To meet the weekly production. Solution: Time to produce each product is the same as given in the preceding solution.333 26. and it is desired to determine how to allocate resources in that department to meet the required demand for these products for a certain week. Available hours per week on 3 work centers if normal hours are assumed = 3 x (5 x 7) = 105 hr.0 6. assuming a single setup for each product: Product 1: Time per batch = 6.0 hours per shift). propose a way of scheduling to meet the weekly demand if there were four machines instead of three.0 ______ 152.0 _____ 24.333 + 26 = 152.0 45.10 Four products are to be manufactured in Department A. 2. This is fewer than the number of hours required. let us propose to produce products 1 and 3 on work centers 1 and 2 and Products 2 and 4 on work centers 3 and 4. The plant normally operates one shift (7.Order Release M5 Requirements Scheduled Receipts On hand: 200 Net Requirements Order Release 100 100 250 450 -350 300 300 300 50 350 -100 400 400 100 300 0 0 Order Scheduling 42.0 ______ 128.333 20. In order to equalize the workload among machines as much as possible.333 Hrs/product 56.0 5.0 13.333 hr Product 4: Time per batch = 6. this will require an additional setup 279 . To meet the weekly production. In both cases.0 + 400(2/60) = 7 + 13.0 Run hours 50. This is fewer than the number of hours required.0 20.0 min.333 ______ 152. The demand and other data for the products are given as follows: Product 1 2 3 4 Weekly demand 750 900 400 400 Setup time 6 hr 5 hr 7 hr 6 hr Operation time 4.

10 = 710 TI = 5.A 280 .50 ______ 163.0.06667(528) = 41.10 QI = 76.0 + QI(4/60) = 6. and (e) critical ratio.20 hr TII = 76. The orders arrived in the sequence A-B-C at the work center.05 QIII Setting TIII = TIV: 5.333 .0 + 0.333 QI = 70.50 20.7 = 2 Sequence = C .0 .B (c) Shortest processing time: sequence = A .0 + 400(3/60) = 76.80 13.0 5.33 35.15) . We next want to equalize the workload on work centers III and IV with Products 2 and 4.0.20 20.133 hr.0 6.0 + 0.0 = 70. Solution: (a) FCFS: sequence = A .05Q III 2(0.C .06667Q I Setting TI = TII: 6.A .50 26.0 + 0.0/0.0 Run hours 35.50 9.333 .06667(750 .16 = 3 Order C slack time = (24 . B.0 6. (d) least slack time.0 = 71.33 Totals 42.15) .0 + 0.B .05 QIII = 76.0 + 0.06667Q I 2(0.0 + QIII(3/60) = 5.15) .33 40.0 QI = 71.12 The current date in the production calendar of the XYZ Company is day 15.0 + 0.5 = 5 Order B slack time = (34 .20 14.06667Q I Work center II: TII =6.333/0. and C) to be processed at a particular work center.50 hr TII = 76.C (b) Earliest due date: sequence = C .50 14.06667 QI) = 0.0 .00 ______ 163.0.0 _____ 35. (b) earliest due date.5.05(900 .13 40.333 .06667Q I = 76.0.0 + 400(2/60) = 76.QIII) + 6.B .0.50 hr.0 + 0. There are three orders (A.05 QIII Work center IV: TIV = 5. Work center I: TI = 6. (c) shortest processing time. The following table summarizes the production at each work center: Work center I II III IV Product 1 1 3 2 2 4 Quantity 528 222 400 710 190 400 Setup hours 6.QI) + 7.0 5.05(710) = 40.20 41.6.80 20.B (d) Least slack time: Order A slack time = (25 .50 40.0.13334 = 528 TI = 6.We want to equalize the workload on work centers I and II with Products 1 and 3.13334 QI = 76.0 + 0. Work center III: TIII = 5. The following table indicates the remaining process time and production calendar due date for each order: Order A B C Remaining process time 5 days 16 days 7 days Due date Day 25 Day 34 Day 24 Determine the sequence of the orders that would be scheduled using: (a) first-come-first-serve.00 ______ 128.06667(528) = 41.333 .05 QIII) = 0.0 .05(710) = 40.0 7.33 Hrs/wk center 41.0 .33 Hrs/product 41.

1875 Order C critical ratio = (24 .286 Sequence = B .15)/7 = 1.(e) Critical ratio: Order A critical ratio = (25 .15)/16 = 1.C .0 Order B critical ratio = (34 .15)/5 = 2.A 281 .

(b). 43.1 Which of the following would be classified as examples of a product feature. The two quality aspects are: (1) product features.43 43. and (2) freedom from deficiencies.3 Define process capability. the characteristic of interest is identified as being acceptable of not acceptable.6 What are the two basic types of control charts for attributes? Answer.5 Identify the two types of control charts for variables. 43. since each correct answer is worth 1 point. (3) sudden changes in average.7 When interpreting a control chart. called assignable variation. Review Questions 43. 282 . Problems are indicated by the following: (1) x or R lie outside the LCL or UCL limits.1 43. (2) trends or cyclical patterns in the data. Answer. measurements of the characteristic of interest are made. (d) product weight. (b) location of ON/OFF switch.4 What is the difference between control charts for variables and control charts for attributes? Answer. and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point. what does one look for to identify problems? Answer. 43. The limits are defined as the process mean ± 3 standard deviations. 43. all correct answers must be given. A process that is out of control exhibits additional variation that is not normal. How is a process operating in statistical control distinguished from one that is not? Answer. The two charts are: (1) x chart for sample means and (2) R chart for ranges. The process in statistical control is characterized by only random variations. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point. (c) no missing parts. and (e) reliability. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers. The two charts are: (1) p chart for proportion of defects in a sample. Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 12 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct). In control charts for attributes. 43. Process capability is the limits of the random variations of the process when it is in statistical control. This indicates that something is wrong with the process.2 QUALITY CONTROL What are the two principal aspects of product quality? Answer. Answer. (d). and (2) c chart for count of defects in a sample. and (e). To attain a perfect score on the quiz. For each question. Answer. and (4) points consistently near the upper or lower limits. rather than a freedom from deficiency (more than one)? (a) components within tolerance. In control charts for variables.

1 An automatic turning process is set up to produce parts with a mean diameter = 6.43. (b) 65%. (a). using the standard normal distribution. or (d) range of sample values.243 to 6. and (d). and (d) x outside the control limits of the x chart.012 cm The upper and lower limits of the process capability range are: 6. In a control chart. the design specification on the part is: diameter = 6.237 . then the percentage of parts that are within tolerance will be closest to which one of the following when the process is operating in statistical control? (a) 35%. (c) radius of a cylindrical part. (c) R outside the control limits of the R chart.7 Answer. (b) points near the central line. (e) Which of the following principles and/or approaches are generally credited to G.5 43. z = (6. (b) mean value of part characteristic of interest.255)/0.255 cm.013 cm. (c) Which of the following identify an out-of-control condition in a control chart (more than one)? (a) consistently increasing value of x . Problems Process Capability and Statistical Tolerancing 43. (c) upper design tolerance limit.250 cm and the standard deviation remained the same. Determine the process capability. (c).004 cm and tolerance limits 2.2 If the product tolerance is set so that the process capability index = 1. The process is in statistical control and the output is normally distributed with a standard deviation = 0.004) = 6.263 . (c) and (e). or (d) upper value of the maximum range R. Answer. 43. or (e) 100%. Answer. Answer.267 cm 43. (b) control charts. Answer.2.250 ±0. Taguchi (more than one)? (a) acceptance sampling.255 ± 3(0.50.255 cm and σ = 0. (b) process mean plus three standard deviations. Solution: Process capability PC = µ ± 3σ = 6. Answer.6.2 In the previous problem.6 43. (a) What proportion of parts fall outside the tolerance limits? (b) If the process were adjusted so that its mean diameter = 6.255 ± 0. (c) number of defects in a sample. the upper control limit is set equal to which one of the following? (a) process mean.263. (d) Pareto priority index.004 = +2.004 cm. (d) Which one of the following best describes the situations for which the c chart is most suited? (a) control of defective parts. (b) The R chart is used for which one of the following product or part characteristics? (a) number of rejects in the sample. (d) 99%. Conclusion: there are virtually no defects on the lower side of the tolerance. z = (6. On the lower side of the tolerance limit. On the upper side of the tolerance limit.255)/0. (c) loss function.00 283 . (c) 95%.4 43.004 = -4.0. what proportion of parts would fall outside the tolerance limits? Solution: (a) Given process mean µ = 6. (b) number of reworked parts in a sample.237 to 2. and (e) robust design.3 43. or (d) proportion of defects in a sample.

53 = -4. On the upper side of the tolerance limit. Using tables of the standard normal distribution.5 In the previous problem.0 mm.0 mm.250)/0. The process is in statistical control and the values of included angle are normally distributed with a standard deviation = 0. Pr(z > 2.0227 The proportion of defects with the current process mean = 0.0 . z = (26.0012 = 0.0 ±2. The design specification on the angle = 90 ±2°.237 to 6. z = (30.0 mm. Using tables of the standard normal distribution.6)/0.004 = +3. 43.0006 The proportion of defects with the current process mean = 0. 43. z = (30. the design specification on the part is: diameter = 28.263. what proportion of parts would fall outside the tolerance limits? (c) With the adjusted mean at 28.263 . z = (6. Determine the process capability.6 mm and σ = 0. On the lower side of the tolerance limit.23) = 92. Pr(z > 2.250)/0.4 A plastic extrusion process produces extrudate with a critical cross-section dimension = 28. z = (6.0 .53) = 28.6 mm. using the standard normal distribution.1° ± 0. (b) If the process could be adjusted so that its mean = 90.25) = 0. Solution: (a) Given process mean µ = 28.0°. (c) Process capability index PCI = 4. Pr(z < -3.0001 On the upper side of the tolerance limit.0041 = 0.28.53 = -3. Using tables of the standard normal distribution.23°) = 2.01.53 mm and tolerance limits 26. determine the value of the process capability index. (b) Given process mean µ = 28. (a) Determine the process capability.0 mm and σ = 0.23°.6)/0.0001 The proportion of defects with the current process mean = 0. On the upper side of the tolerance limit.64 Using tables of the standard normal distribution. 43.0 mm and the standard deviation remained the same.28. 0.0/(6 x 0.0)/0.6 ± 3(0. Pr(z > 3.27%. (b) Given process mean µ = 6.25.25.0)/0. Pr(z < -3.53) = 1.28.41° to 92.0002 = 0.69°.77 Using tables of the standard normal distribution. The upper and lower limits of the process capability range are: 91.0041 The proportion of defects with the current process mean = 0.0006.59 mm The upper and lower limits of the process capability range are: 27. (a) What proportion of parts fall outside the tolerance limits? (b) If the process were adjusted so that its mean diameter = 28. Solution: (a) PC = 92.6.12%.258 284 .1 ± 3(0. determine the value of the process capability index.0006 = 0.77) = approx.77) = approx.0 to 30.9 → virtually no defects. On the lower side of the tolerance limit.Using tables of the standard normal distribution.6 ± 1. 0.0 mm.6.0001 = 0.53 mm.00) = 0.02%. z = (26.28.64) = 0.0227 = 2.250 cm and σ = 0. On the lower side of the tolerance limit.53 = +3. (b) If µ = 90° T = 92° .01 to 30.0001 + 0. Conclusion: there are virtually no defects on the lower side of the tolerance.237 .0 to 30.004 cm and tolerance limits 6.25) = 0.53 = +2.41%.88° = 4° PCI = 4°/(6 x 0.19 mm. Pr(z > 3.53 mm and tolerance limits 26. The process is in statistical control and the output is normally distributed with standard deviation = 0.3 A sheet metal bending operation produces bent parts with an included angle = 92. Solution: Process capability PC = µ ± 3σ = 28.004 = -3.0 .77.1°.0 .0006 + 0.79°.

Expressing this as a bilateral tolerance. Given that the part tolerances are to be a constant proportion of the respective dimensions.5 = 0. Determine the tolerance (a) under a worst case design approach.020) 2 = 0.43. what is the process capability of the critical dimension C.010 in.0 mm with tolerance = ±0. It would be more appropriate to use worst case tolerancing here. 43.8 The assembly in Figure P43. with a bilateral tolerance Ta = 0. Interpret this to be ± 0. T = 0. T2 = 0.002 inch. All parts will have identical bilateral tolerances. T3 = 3T.40 mm. Thus.20 mm. T1 = 0.. T1 + T2 + T3 = T + 2T + 3T = 6T = 0. this would not be a good application of statistical tolerancing because the process making the components is the same process. If each part is made from an independent process with process means for part thickness all set to 2.200 mm = ± 0.00707 cm PC = µ ± 3σ = 2(2.00005 σa = (0.0042)0. The relevant part dimensions making up the 30 mm total are 5 mm.020 inch (±0.010. and (b) using a statistical tolerancing approach.50 cm dimension are parallel. T2 = 2T.5 = 0. The absence of independent processes making the individual components is a violation of one of the fundamental assumptions of statistical tolerancing. T3 = 0. whose thickness specification is 1/16 inch ±0.040 in.00005) 0. which is well within the specified tolerance of ± 0. Interpret this to be ± 0..00032) 0.500) ± 3(0. Parts are produced by independent manufacturing operations.005 cm.500 cm and standard deviation = 0. However. 43. determine the tolerance for each part using: (a) worst case design and (b) statistical tolerancing. and 15 mm. (b) Statistical tolerancing: Ta = (4 Ti2)0.100 mm. 285 .1333 mm = ± 0.6 An assembly consists of four components stacked to create an overall dimension of 2.0667 mm. so that the thick assembly has the same profile.40/6 = 0. All of the parts are cut from the same sheet metal coil.000 ± 0. Assume the opposite sides of each part on the 2.0004 = 4 Ti2 Ti2 = 0.010 inch).010 in. Solution: (a) Worst case: Ti = 0.0667 mm = ± 0. The thickness of the final assembly is specified as 1. Does a statistical tolerancing approach apply in this situation? Why? Solution: If statistical tolerancing were used. Solution: (a) Worst case tolerancing: Ta = 0.010 inch. Ta = (20 x 0.8 has a critical assembly dimension C = 5.005 in. significantly beyond the specified tolerance.00895 in.020/4 = 0.0004/4 = 0. Ta = ± 0.002) = ± 0.5 Ta2 = 4 Ti2 (0.005) 2 = 0. σa2 = 2 σi2 = 2(0. 10 mm. The dimensions of the individual parts are each 0. specifically the rolling process making the starting piece of sheet metal from which the laminating pieces are fabricated. T1 = T.0667 mm. Let us apportion the tolerances among parts in proportion to their size.000 cm.5 = (0.0333 mm . whose process capabilities are proportional to their respective dimensions.40 mm.500 inch.250 ±0.9 An assembly consists of three parts stacked to form a final dimension of 30.00707) = 5. Solution: Dimension C is determined by two middle parts. which would yield Ta = 20(± 0.625 inch.0001 = 10-4 Ti = 10-2 = 0. The sheet metal blanks are all cut with the same punch and die to the desired profile.005 in.7 An assembly is made by stacking 20 flat pieces of sheet metal to produce a thick laminated structure.0212 cm 43.0179 in.

then Ti = 6σ = 0.32) 0.5 = (0. T2 = 0.0.7417 = 0.7417 T T = 0.27 + 0.0 mm.12 0.24) = 9.0.2) 2)0.008889) 0.03333) 2)0.19 + 9.20 + 9.21 + 0. 43.20 0. Given that the process capability index for the parts PCI = 1. (b) Statistical tolerancing: Ta = (8Ti2)0.17 + 0.3(10) = 20 mm.17 3 9.20 mm = CL LCL = x .19 0.5 σa = 9 σa Statistical tolerancing: σa = (8σi2)0.424 mm Control Charts 43. except that the process capability index for the assembly is a more conservative 1. 286 .1 mm for the thickness. s x R 1 9.26 + 0.1105 mm. Given that assembly PCI = 1.5. and the PCI for the assembly will also be 1.5 PC = 1.0.5 = 3.5 = (8(0. T3 = 3T.22 0. let us apportion the tolerances among parts in proportion to their size. 43.26 5 9. Each part used in the assembly.28 + 9.22 + 9.12 + 9.2/6 = 0. each with independent variability.23 0. LCL.2 mm and σ = 0.0333 mm. Ta = 0.5 = 0.19 7 9.1604 mm.19 + 0. T3 = 0. (a) Worst case tolerancing: there are 8 parts that determine critical dimension C.21 + 0.20 + 0.24 0.24 + 0.1069 T1 = 0.15 + 9. Ta = 1. and UCL for the x and R charts.80 mm.373(0. The calculated values of x and R for each sample are given below (measured values are in mm).23 Solution: x = Σ x /m = (9.32 + 0.5 = (8(0.8485 = ± 0. Thus.6 mm = ± 0.5 = (T2 + 4T2 + 9T2)0.17 0.2 mm and σ = 0.566 mm = ± 0.(b) Statistical tolerancing: Ta = 0.5 = (T2 + (2T)2 + (3T)3)0.40 mm. Solution: Given that parts PCI = 1.24) = 9.0333 mm. Critical dimension C = 5(10) .5.2895 mm.2/6 = 0. UCL = x + A2 R = 9. and the dimension of interest has been measured for each part.20 0.24 2 9.5 = 0.0943 mm Ta = 9(0.5 = (14T2)0.30 + 0.0.17 + 9.11 Solve part (b) of the previous problem.23)/10 = 9.2) = 1.3207 mm = ± 0.27 6 9. Critical dimension C = 5(10) . Again.3(10) = 20 mm.1069 mm = ± 0.5 = (0.0535 mm . (a) Determine the values of the center. Ta = 8Ti = 8(0.1069 mm.40/3. has a thickness = 10.21 8 9.32 9 9. The PCI for the individual parts is still 1. determine the recommended tolerance for C using: (a) worst case design and (b) statistical tolerancing.23)/10 = 0.A2 R = 9.24 + 9. then Ti = 6σ = 0. including the base part. Therefore.24 (a) x chart: x = 9.10 shows an assembly in which the critical dimension is C.373(0.21 10 9.28 0.0943) = 0. T1 = T. (b) Construct the control charts and plot the sample data on the charts. Solution: Given that PCI = 1.40 = (T1 2 + T22 + T32)0.20 R = Σ R/7 = (0. with process capability = ±0.20 + 9.15 0.10 Figure P43.0.12 Ten samples of size n = 8 have been collected from a process in statistical control.20 .283 mm.0.30 4 9.2138 mm = ± 0. T2 = 2T.

24) = 0. UCL = D4 R = 2.995 + 1.006)/7 = 1.114(0.013 7 1.0326 mm.013 + 0.002 + 0.0133 = CL LCL = D3 R = 0. R chart: R = 0.020 + 0.A2 R = 1.004 0.577(0. the grand mean of the samples is x = 100 for the characteristic of interest.0133) = 1. Determine: (a) lower and upper 287 .0077 in. 43.999 0.0281 in.000 R = Σ R/7 = (0. = CL LCL = x .5. and the mean of the ranges of the samples is R = 0. UCL = x + A2 R = 1. (c) What is your best estimate of the standard deviation of the process? Solution: (a) x chart: x = 6. s x R 1 1.027) = 0.027) = 6.860 cm = CL LCL = x .998 + 1.114(0.0133) = 0.999 + 0. The calculated values of x and R for each sample are given below (measured values are in inches).860 cm for the dimension of interest.860 + 0.996 0. the average value of the sample means is x = 6.027) 7 /3 = 0. 43.020 5 0.995 0.014 4 1.419(0.R chart: R = 0.010 2 0.076(0. and UCL for x and R charts. (b) Student exercise. and the diameter of the extrudate has been measured for each part.577(0.419(0.027 cm.0133 = CL LCL = D3 R = 0 UCL = D4 R = 2.15 n /3 = 0.419(0.000 in.4474 mm.14 In 12 samples of size n = 7.010 + 0. (b) Student exercise.027) = 6.027 = CL LCL = D3 R = 0. A2 R = 3 σx/ n σx = A2 R 43. (a) Determine the values of the center.13 Seven samples of 5 parts each have been collected from an extrusion process that is in statistical control.136(0.0.017 Solution: x = Σ x /m = (1.998 0.008 6 0.008 + 0.017)/7 = 0.924(0.0205 cm UCL = D4 R = 1.004 + 0.8487 cm UCL = x + A2 R = 6.006 0.011 3 0.014 + 0.0.0133) = 0.A2 R = 6. LCL.00998 cm In nine samples of size n = 10.0133) = 0.9923 in.000 .8713 cm (b) R chart: R = 0.996 + 0.860 .011 + 0. Determine: (a) lower and upper control limits for the x chart and (b) lower and upper control limits for the R chart.0133 (a) x chart: x = 1.0519 cm (c) The x chart is based on ± 3 σx/ n Therefore.027) = 0.002 0.000 + 0. (b) Construct the control charts and plot the sample data on the charts. and the mean of the ranges of the samples is R = 8.

Solution: p = 2. and UCL for the p chart that might be used for this process.0796/n n = 5.17 Ten samples of equal size are taken to prepare a p chart. Determine the sample size n that is used with this control chart.5 = CL LCL = D3 R = 0.2 → 259 288 .13 . Solution: p = 0.17)(0.91 = 0.0.75/25 = 0. Determine the center. UCL = x + A2 R = 100 + 0.03545) = 0.0196 = 259. 13(0 . LCL.223(8. The number of chips per wafer is 200.3(0.11 + 3(0.0202) = 0. The total number of parts in these ten samples was 900 and the total number of defects counted was 117. Determine the center.236 43.0796/0. (c) Based on the data given.5) 10 /3 = 2.3(0. 13(0 .14 = 6 p (1 − p ) / n = 6 0 . A p chart is to be constructed.618.7.308(8.24 + .0. 89) / 25 = 0. and the average number of defects per sample was 2.09 = CL LCL = p .3 0 .87 ) / 90 = 0.17 x 0. Determine the center.5) = 15.5) = 97.83)/n = 5.11 = CL LCL = p .11 .298 43. (c) The x chart is based on ± 3 σx/ n Therefore.308(8.75. 91) / 90 = 0.5(.5) = 102.17 (0 .11 .09 (0. 89) / 25 = 0.83 ) / n (0. LCL and UCL for the p chart.3 p (1 − p ) / n = 0.09 (0.87 ) / 90 = 0.024 UCL = p + 3 p (1 − p ) / n = 0.777(8.3 p (1 − p ) / n = 0.11(0.1507 43.LCL = 0.09 + 3(0.control limits for the x chart and (b) lower and upper control limits for the R chart.0196 = 36(0.17 UCL .11 + 3(0.3 0.18 The yield of good chips during a certain step in silicon processing of integrated circuits averages 91%.3 p (1 − p ) / n = 0.7596.0.8955. Solution: d = 117/10 = 11. p = 11.11 + 3 0 .A2 R = 100 .3 0 . (b) R chart: R = 8.078 → 0 UCL = p + 3 p (1 − p ) / n = 0.19 The upper and lower control limits for a p chart are: LCL = 0.3(0.1045.24 .382. A2 R = 3 σx/ n σx = A2 R 43.5(UCL + LCL) = 0. Six samples of 25 parts each have been collected.11 + 3 0 . LCL and UCL for the p chart.0626) = 0. UCL = D4 R = 1. 91) / 90 = 0.13 .83/n) 0.03545) = 0.11(0.14) 2 = 62 (0.7/90 = 0.10 = 0.09 . estimate the standard deviation of the process? Solution: (a) x chart: x = 100 = CL LCL = x .0293 UCL = p + 3 p (1 − p ) / n = 0.11 + 3 0.16 n /3 = 0.10) = 0.308(8.19 and UCL = 0.09 . Solution: Use p = 1 .0626) = -0.13 = CL LCL = p .24.0202) = 0.5) = 1.

05( 0.95 ) / n (0.3 → 148 289 . Determine the center and upper and lower control limits for the c chart that might be used in this situation.5(.10 + 0) = 0.3 c = 116 .4275/0.10. The number of defects found ranged between 87 and 139 defect per car with an average of 116. Solution: p = 0. Determine the minimum possible sample size n that is compatible with this control chart.0025 = 171 43.5(UCL + LCL) = 0.05) 2 = 0.3 116 = 83.0025 = 32 (0. Solution: CL = 116 LCL = c .21 Twelve cars were inspected after final assembly.05 LCL = p .05 = 3 0. p = 3 p (1 − p ) / n 0.95)/n = 0.05)(0.3 p (1 − p ) / n = 0 Therefore.4275/n n = 0.43.20 The upper and lower control limits for a p chart are: LCL = 0 and UCL = 0.7 → 83 UCL = c + 3 c = 116 + 3 116 = 148.

wide operating range. 44. length).g. high reliability. laser measuring methods.g. 44. temperature. mass. 44. Precision in measurement is the degree to which random errors are minimized. 44. The rule of 10 means that the measuring instrument or gage must be ten times more precise than the object (part) being inspected. ease of calibration. Review Questions 44. time. A graduated measuring device has markings (called graduations) on a linear or angular scale to measure an object's feature of interest (e..1 MEASUREMENT AND INSPECTION How is measurement distinguished from inspection? Answer. and electrical field techniques. 290 . and light radiation. 44.6 44.11 What is meant by the term graduated measuring device? Answer. electric current. what are the desirable attributes and features of a measuring instrument? Answer. What are these possible actions? Answer.8 What is the rule of 10? Answer.7 What is precision in measurement? Answer.44 44. The six quantities are: length. In measurement.10 Give an example of a non-contact inspection technique.. Non-contact inspection techniques include machine vision. 44. Possible actions discussed in text are: (1) parts sortation. an unknown quantity is compared with a known standard and a value of the quantity is obtained using an accepted and consistent system of units. The desirable features include: high resolution. What is meant by the term calibration? Answer. Besides good accuracy and precision.2 How does gaging differ from measuring? Answer. and (2) feedback of data to adjust the process. Gaging determines whether the product characteristic (e. Calibration means checking the measuring instrument against a known standard. Accuracy is the degree to which the measured value agrees with the true value of the quantity of interest. dimension) satisfies the specification or not. 44.3 What are the six fundamental quantities in metrology? Answer. Measuring determines the actual value of the characteristic. In inspection.5 44.4 What is accuracy in measurement? Answer. Answer. and low cost. speed of response. a product characteristic is examined to see if it conforms to design specifications. It is a measurement procedure that is absent of systematic errors.9 Automated inspection can be integrated with the manufacturing process to accomplish some action.

Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 28 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct). and (2) stylus-type electronic instruments which measure average roughness. The scanning laser system uses a laser beam deflected by a rotating mirror to produce a beam of light that sweeps past an object. (d) Japan. since each correct answer is worth 1 point. The technologies include: electrical fields (capacitance. Answer. (g) 291 . (c) Germany.14 Describe a scanning laser system. (b) 44. Answer. all correct answers must be given. and converts from time to a linear dimension.3 Which one of the following countries does not embrace the International System of units? (a) China.13 What is a coordinate measuring machine? Answer. (d) rational prefixes for units. radiation (X-ray). (c) originated in Great Britain. 0 or 1). the light intensity of each pixel is reduced to either of two values (black or white. In a binary vision system. 44. the x-y-z coordinates are recorded. (e) Panama. Answer. A photodetector on the far side of the object senses the light beam during its sweep except for the short time when it is interrupted by the object. To attain a perfect score on the quiz. when the probe contacts the part. and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point. Common methods are: (1) comparison of the specimen surface with standard test blocks having known surface roughness values. 44. Answer. (c) light radiation. (e) temperature. or (g) United States.2 Which of the following are attributes of the “metric system” of linear measurement (more than one)? (a) based on astronomical distances. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point. (f) Russia. Answer. (b) defined in terms of the human body. A CMM is an automated measuring machine consisting of a contact probe and a means to position the probe in three dimensions relative to workpart features and surfaces. which one of the following fundamental physical quantities are we most concerned with? (a) electric current. For each question. 44.44.15 What is a binary vision system? Answer. This time period can be measured quickly with great accuracy. (b) France. and ultrasonic techniques (high frequency sound).12 What are the common methods for assessing surface roughness? Answer. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers. (d) mass. and (e) units are subdivided decimally. 44. A microprocessor system measures the time interruption that is related to the size of the object in the path of the laser beam. 44. 44.16 Name some of the non-optical non-contact sensor technologies available for inspection. inductance).1 In measurement and inspection for manufacturing. or (f) time. (d) and (e). (b) length.

(b) limit gage. (g) snap gages. (a). which one of the following best describes the function of the GO gage? (a) checks limit of maximum tolerance.9 44. (d) checks minimum material condition. The second of these inspections uses which one of the following: (a) destructive testing. (b). (d) machine vision. (b). and (d) sortation of good parts from defects. (d) micrometer. (e) outside calipers. (b) Automated 100% inspection can be integrated with the manufacturing process to accomplish which of the following (more than one): (a) better design of products. and (e) surface roughness. (c) measuring. (c) divider. In a GO/NO-GO gage. (c) master gage. (b) cast iron. An outside micrometer would be appropriate in the measurement of which of the following (more than one)? (a) hole depth.12 44. (d) shaft diameter.11 44. Answer. (c) dial indicators.13 292 . (c) and (d). or (d) non. (a). (c) checks maximum size. Answer. (c). (d). (a). Answer. or (e) checks minimum size. (b) coordinate measuring machine. Answer. (b). (e). (c) laser techniques. or (d) visual guidance and control of a robotic manipulator.6 44.5 44. and (e). (c) granite. and (h) ultrasonic techniques. (f) scanning laser systems.7 44. (b) coordinate measuring systems. Answer. (g). (b) hole diameter. Which one of the following is the most important application of vision systems? (a) inspection.10 44. (b) checks maximum material condition. and (e). (a) 44. (b) Which of the following are likely to be GO/NO-GO gages (more than one)? (a) gage blocks.destructive testing. and (f) X-ray radiation. Answer. (h) surface plate. (c) Which of the following are graduated measuring instruments (more than one)? (a) bevel protractor. Answer. Which of the following are contact sensing methods used in inspection (more than one)? (a) calipers. and (i) vernier caliper. and (g). (d) machine vision. (e) micrometer.4 The two basic types of inspection are inspection by variables and inspection by attributes. (b) and (d) are mentioned in the text. (b) gaging. (b). and (e) snap gage. (c) 100% perfect quality.44. (f) sine bar. (d) plug gage. or (e) stainless steel. (e) micrometers. (c) safety monitoring. A surface plate is most typically made of which one of the following materials? (a) aluminum oxide ceramic. (d). Answer. and (i). Answer. Which of the following are examples of contact inspection (more than one)? (a) calipers. (c) part length. (g) steel rule. (b) object identification. (d) hard polymers. (b) feedback of data to adjust the process. Answer.8 44. (b) dial indicator.

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