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**FUNDAMENTALS OF MODERN MANUFACTURING:
**

MATERIALS, PROCESSES, AND SYSTEMS

Second Edition

MIKELL P. GROOVER Professor of Industrial and Manufacturing Systems Engineering Lehigh University

John Wiley & Sons, Inc., New York

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PREFACE

This is the Solutions Manual for the textbook Fundamentals of Modern Manufacturing: Materials, Processes, and Systems (Second Edition). It contains the answers to the Review Questions and Multiple Choice Quizzes at the end of the Chapters 2 through 44, as well as the Problems at the end of Chapters 3, 4, 6, 10, 11, 13, 16, 18, 19, 20, 21, 22, 23, 24, 25, 26, 29, 30, 31, 33, 34, 35, 38, 40, 42, and 43. There are approximately 740 review questions, 500 quiz questions, and 500 problems (nearly all of them quantitative) in the text. I have personally answered all of the questions and solved all of the quizzes and problems and have personally recorded the solutions in this booklet. Many of the problems have been tested in class, thus giving me an opportunity to compare my own answers with those developed by the students. Despite my best efforts to avoid errors in this solutions manual, I am sure that errors are present. I would appreciate hearing from those of you who discover these errors, so that I can make the necessary corrections in subsequent editions of the Solutions Manual. Similarly, I would appreciate any suggestions from users of the text itself that might help to make any subsequent editions more accurate, more relevant, and easier to use. My address is: Dr. Mikell P. Groover Department of Industrial and Manufacturing Systems Engineering Lehigh University 200 West Packer Avenue Bethlehem, PA 18015 Office telephone number 610-758-4030. Fax machine number 610-758-4886. E-mail addresses: either Mikell.Groover@Lehigh.edu or mpg0@Lehigh.edu I hope you find the text and this Solutions Manual to be helpful teaching aids in your particular manufacturing course. Mikell P. Groover

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TABLE OF CONTENTS:

Chapter

1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. 21. 22. 23. 24. 25. 26. 27. 28. 29. 30. 31. 32. 33. 34. 35. 36. 37. 38. 39. 40. 41. 42. 43. 44.

Chapter Title*

Introduction (No questions or problems) The Nature of Materials Mechanical Properties of Materials (P) Physical Properties of Materials (P) Dimensions, Tolerances, and Surfaces Metals (P) Ceramics Polymers Composite Materials Fundamentals of Casting (P) Metal Casting Processes (P) Glassworking Shaping Processes for Plastics (P) Rubber Processing Technology Shaping Processes for Polymer Matrix Composites Powder Metallurgy (P) Processing of Ceramics and Cermets Fundamentals of Metal Forming (P) Bulk Deformation Processes (P) Sheet Metalworking (P) Theory of Metal Machining (P) Machining Operations and Machine Tools (P) Cutting Tool Technology (P) Economic and Product Design Considerations in Machining (P) Grinding and Other Abrasive Processes (P) Nontraditional Machining and Thermal Cutting Processes (P) Heat Treatment of Metals Cleaning and Surface Treatments Coating and Deposition Processes (P) Fundamentals of Welding (P) Welding Processes (P) Brazing, Soldering, and Adhesive Bonding Mechanical Assembly (P) Rapid Prototyping (P) Processing of Integrated Circuits (P) Electronics Assembly and Packaging Microfabrication Technologies Numerical Control and Industrial Robotics (P) Group Technology and Flexible Manufacturing Systems Production Lines (P) Manufacturing Engineering Production Planning and Control (P) Quality Control (P) Measurement and Inspection

Page

4 7 18 21 24 29 32 36 39 49 57 60 70 73 76 84 87 92 112 122 134 142 153 166 173 180 182 184 190 197 207 211 218 222 230 233 235 244 246 253 256 263 271

*(P) indicates chapters with problem sets.

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2.1 2.2 2.3

**THE NATURE OF MATERIALS
**

The elements listed in the Periodic Table can be divided into three categories. What are these categories and give an example of each? Answer. The three types of elements are metals (e.g., aluminum), nonmetals (e.g., oxygen), and semimetals (e.g., silicon). Which elements are the noble metals? Answer. The noble metals are copper, silver, and gold. What is the difference between primary and secondary bonding in the structure of materials? Answer. Primary bonding is strong bonding between atoms in a material, for example to form a molecule; while secondary bonding is not as strong and is associated with attraction between molecules in the material.

Review Questions

2.4

Describe how ionic bonding works? Answer. In ionic bonding, atoms of one element give up their outer electron(s) to the atoms of another element to form complete outer shells.

2.5

What is the difference between crystalline and noncrystalline structures in materials? Answer. The atoms in a crystalline structure are located at regular and repeating lattice positions in three dimensions; thus, the crystal structure possesses a long-range order which allows a high packing density. The atoms in a noncrystalline structure are randomly positioned in the material, not possessing any repeating, regular pattern.

2.6

What are some common point defects in a crystal lattice structure? Answer. Some of the common point defects are: (1) vacancy - a missing atom in the lattice structure; (2) ion-pair vacancy (Schottky defect) - a missing pair of ions of opposite charge in a compound; (3) interstitialcy - a distortion in the lattice caused by an extra atom present; and (4) Frenkel defect - an ion is removed from a regular position in the lattice and inserted into an interstitial position not normally occupied by such an ion.

2.7

Define the difference between elastic and plastic deformation in terms of the effect on the crystal lattice structure. Answer. Elastic deformation involves a temporary distortion of the lattice structure that is proportional to the applied stress. Plastic deformation involves a stress of sufficient magnitude to cause a permanent shift in the relative positions of adjacent atoms in the lattice. Plastic deformation generally involves the mechanism of slip - relative movement of atoms on opposite sides of a plane in the lattice.

2.8

How do grain boundaries contribute to the strain hardening phenomenon in metals? Answer. Grain boundaries block the continued movement of dislocations in the metal during straining. As more dislocations become blocked, the metal becomes more difficult to deform; in effect it becomes stronger.

2.9

Identify some materials that have a crystalline structure.

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Answer. Materials typically possessing a crystalline structure are metals and ceramics other than glass. Some plastics have a partially crystalline structure. 2.10 Identify some materials that possess a noncrystalline structure. Answer. Materials typically having a noncrystalline structure include glass (fused silica), rubber, and certain plastics (specifically, thermosetting plastics). 2.11 What is the basic difference in the solidification (or melting) process between crystalline and noncrystalline structures? Answer. Crystalline structures undergo an abrupt volumetric change as they transform from liquid to solid state and vice versa. This is accompanied by an amount of energy called the heat of fusion that must be added to the material during melting or released during solidification. Noncrystalline materials melt and solidify without the abrupt volumetric change and heat of fusion.

**Multiple Choice Quiz
**

There are a total of 20 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct). To attain a perfect score on the quiz, all correct answers must be given, since each correct answer is worth 1 point. For each question, each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point, and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers. 2.1 The basic structural unit of matter is which one of the following? (a) atom, (b) electron, (c) element, (d) molecule, or (e) nucleus. Answer. (a) 2.2 Approximately how many different elements have been identified (one answer)? (a) 10, (b) 50, (c) 100, (d) 200, or (e) 500. Answer. (c) 2.3 In the Periodic Table, the elements can be divided into which of the following categories (more than one)? (a) ceramics, (b) gases, (c) liquids, (d) metals, (e) nonmetals, (f) polymers, (g) semi-metals, and (h) solids. Answer. (d), (e), and (g). 2.4 The element with the lowest density and smallest atomic weight is which one of the following? (a) aluminum, (b) argon, (c) helium, (d) hydrogen, or (e) magnesium. Answer. (d) 2.5 Which of the following bond types are classified as primary bonds (more than one)? (a) covalent bonding, (b) hydrogen bonding, (c) ionic bonding, (d) metallic bonding, and (e) van der Waals forces. Answer. (a), (c), and (d). 2.6 How many atoms are there in the unit cell of the face- centered cubic (FCC) unit cell (one answer)? (a) 8, (b) 9, (c) 10, (d) 12, or (e) 14. Answer. (e) 2.7 Which of the following are not point defects in a crystal lattice structure (more than one)? (a) edge dislocation, (b) interstitialcy, (c) Schottky defect, or (d) vacancy.

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and (d). (d) ionic. 2. (c) hydrogen. (d) 2.Answer. and (f) van der Waals.10 Twinning is which of the following (more than one)? (a) elastic deformation. (b) covalent. (b). or (c) HCP. 6 . Answer. (c) line defects. and (f) type of dislocation. or (e) surface defects. (c). (b) Frenkel defect. (c). (c) more likely at high deformation rates. Answer. (e) metallic.9 Grain boundaries are an example of which one of the following types of crystal structure defects? (a) dislocation. (c) 2. (e) slip mechanism. (b) and (f). (e) 2. Answer. (d) point defects. (b) mechanism of plastic deformation.8 Which one of the following crystal structures has the fewest slip directions and therefore the metals with this structure are generally more difficult to deform at room temperature? (a) BCC. Answer.11 Polymers are characterized by which of the following bonding types (more than one)? (a) adhesive. (b). (d) more likely in metals with HCP structure. (b) FCC.

the material should not be strong.5 Define tensile strength of a material.4 What is the difference between engineering stress and true stress in a tensile test? Answer. and shear.9 3. the cross-sectional area decreases.11 What is the complicating factor that occurs in a compression test? Answer. It is usually measured as the .2 3. 3.3 MECHANICAL PROPERTIES OF MATERIALS What is the dilemma between design and manufacturing in terms of mechanical properties? Answer. What is work hardening? Answer. To achieve design function and quality. State Hooke's Law. Answer. The yield strength is the stress at which the material begins to plastically deform.6 Define yield strength of a material. while true stress divides the load by the instantaneous area which decreases as the specimen stretches. 3. Review Questions 3. the specimen cross-sectional are increases as the test progresses. in general. Because of necking that occurs in the test specimen.2%. Engineering stress divides the load (force) on the test specimen by the original area. When the material does not strain harden. 3. The tensile strength is the maximum load experienced during the tensile test divided by the original area. Hooke's Law defines the stress-strain relationship for an elastic material: σ = Eε. tensile. the material must be strong. Barreling of the test specimen due to friction at the interfaces with the testing machine platens.8 3.1 3. Strain hardening is the increase in strength that occurs in metals when they are strained.the point at which the stress-strain for the material intersects a line which is offset from the elastic region of the stress-strain curve by 0. 3. while in a tensile test. compressive. What are the three types of static stresses to which materials are subjected? Answer. for ease of manufacturing. where E = a constant of proportionality called the modulus of elasticity.10 How does the change in cross-sectional area of a test specimen in a compression test differ from its counterpart in a tensile test specimen? Answer. Answer.2% offset value .7 Why cannot a direct conversion be made between the ductility measures of elongation and reduction in area using the assumption of constant volume? Answer. 7 . Answer. In what case does the strength coefficient have the same value as the yield strength? Answer. 3.3 3. In a compression test.

area) of the indentation. 3. Hardness is defined as the resistance to indentation of a material. 3. Viscoelasticity refers to the property most commonly exhibited by polymers that defines the strain of the material as a function of stress and temperature over time.4 E. (e) tensile.14 How is shear strength S related to tensile strength TS.17 Define the recrystallization temperature for a metal. 3. 3. all correct answers must be given. S = 0.1 Which one of the following are the three basic types of static stresses to which a material can be subjected (three answers)? (a) compression. Different hardness tests and scales are required because different materials possess widely differing hardnesses. (b) hardness.16 Why are different hardness tests and scales required? Answer. as a material property? Answer. the thicker the fluid. A test whose measuring range is suited to very hard materials is not sensitive for testing very soft materials. Answer. 3. For each question. Most liquids (water. on average? Answer. on average? Answer. on average.7 TS. The test provides a measure called the transverse rupture strength for these materials. It is a combination of viscosity and elasticity. It is tested by pressing a hard object (sphere. Answer.15 What is hardness and how is it generally tested? Answer.3.12 Tensile testing is not appropriate for hard brittle materials such as ceramics. The recrystallization temperature is the temperature at which a metal recrystallizes (forms new grains) rather than work hardens when deformed. 3. the greater the viscosity. on average. 3. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers.13 How is the shear modulus of elasticity G related to the tensile modulus of elasticity E.20 What is viscoelasticity. What is the test commonly used to determine the strength properties of such materials? Answer. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point. 8 . Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 18 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct).19 What is the defining characteristic of a Newtonian fluid? Answer.18 Define viscosity of a fluid. (f) true stress. A Newtonian fluid is one for which viscosity is a constant property at a given temperature. To attain a perfect score on the quiz. oils) are Newtonian fluids. G = 0. 3. A three-point bending test is commonly used to test the strength of brittle materials. Viscosity is the resistance to flow of a fluid material. (c) reduction in area. 3. diamond point) into the test material and measuring the size (depth. (d) shear. and (f) yield. and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point. since each correct answer is worth 1 point.

9 . The plastic region is characterized by a power function . (c) 3. (b) the maximum load divided by the final area of the specimen. and (e). or (d) none of the above. (c) steel. Answer. (b) It is the elastic region that is characterized by a proportional relationship between stress and strain. (c) 3. or (d) none of the above. (a) 3. Answer. or (b) less than its tensile strength. (b) 3. (a) 3. (a) 3. (b) 3.11 Most hardness tests involve pressing a hard object into the surface of a test specimen and measuring the indentation (or its effect) that results: (a) true or (b) false. or (d) the stress observed when the specimen finally fails.the flow curve. (b) 3.6 Which one of the following types of stress strain relationship best describes the behavior of brittle materials such as ceramics and thermosetting plastics: (a) elastic and perfectly plastic. Answer. Answer. or (b) true strain. Answer. which of the following would have the higher value? (a) engineering stain. Answer. (b) elastic and strain hardening. (c) perfectly elastic. as derived from the results of a tensile test on a metal specimen? (a) the stress encountered when the stress-strain curve transforms from elastic to plastic behavior. Answer.Answer. (b) 3. (b) gray cast iron. or (e) tungsten.10 The shear strength of a metal is usually (a) greater than. (d) titanium.8 Which of the following types of stress strain relationship best describes the behavior of metals at temperatures above their respective recrystallization points: (a) elastic and perfectly plastic. (b) diamond. (d) high carbon steel. Answer.7 Which one of the following types of stress strain relationship best describes the behavior of most metals at room temperature: (a) elastic and perfectly plastic. or (d) none of the above. Answer. (b) elastic and strain hardening.3 If stress values were measured during a tensile test. Answer.12 Which one of the following materials has the highest hardness? (a) alumina ceramic. (c) perfectly elastic.4 If strain measurements were made during a tensile test. (b) elastic and strain hardening. (c) the maximum load divided by the original area of the specimen. (a). 3. or (b) true stress. or (e) polystyrene. (c) hardened tool steel.2 Which of the following is the correct definition of ultimate tensile strength.5 The plastic region of the stress-strain curve for a metal is characterized by a proportional relationship between stress and strain: (a) true or (b) false. which of the following would have the higher value? (a) engineering stress.9 Which one of the following materials has the highest modulus of elasticity? (a) aluminum. 3. (c) perfectly elastic. (d).

Answer.000 lb. and (c) tensile strength TS. (b) If the specimen necked to an area = 0. however.2 mm. the shape return feature in viscoelastic behavior violates the definition of plastic flow. This answer may require some justification.2 A test specimen in a tensile test has a gage length of 2.4 In Problem 3.000/0. (c). (b) σ = E e Subtracting the 0.0)/50. (b) plasticity.0026 E = σ/e = 490/0.3 = 30% (b) % area reduction = (0.000 N is reached at a gage length = 64. (b).14 Viscoelasticity has features of which of the following more traditional material properties (more than one)? (a) elasticity.002 = 0.0 in and an area = 0.92)/200 = 0.2. Solution: (a) Y = 32. The corresponding gage length = 2. During the test the specimen yields under a load of 32. The maximum load = 168.5 x 10 3 MPa.5 = 120.0.0 .25 in2. (c) viscosity.60 in. (b) modulus of elasticity E.002 = 0.0. (b) Viscosity is the resistance to flow. many materials considered to be viscoelastic do not completely return to their original shape.23 mm. Answer.77 x 10 6 lb/in2 (c) TS = 60.2 percent yield point. This is the 0.5 .284 = 28. The maximum load = 60.000/200 = 490 MPa.0)/2.2. (a) determine the percent elongation.0083 .2. The corresponding gage length = 50.0083 in. This is the 0.50.2% offset.Answer.1 A tensile test uses a test specimen that has a gage length of 50 mm and an area = 200 mm2.000/200 = 840 MPa. and (c) tensile strength TS.00215 = 29. Determine: (a) yield strength Y.000 lb/in2 3.0026 = 188.000 lb/in2 (b) σ = E e Subtracting the 0.2 percent yield point. (c) TS = 168. (a). Determine: (a) yield strength Y.50 = 50% 10 .000/0. determine the percent reduction in area.2 .60 .000 lb is reached at a gage length = 2.5 = 0. (a) determine the percent elongation. Solution: (a) Y = 98.23 . 3.2/50 = 0. During the test the specimen yields under a load of 98. Solution: (a) % elongation = (64.54 = 54% 3. (b) If the specimen necked to an area = 92 mm2. (b) modulus of elasticity E.4% (b) % area reduction = (200 .50)/50 = 14.1. (a) 3.00215 E = σ/e = 64. Viscoelasticity is usually considered to be a property that combines elasticity and viscosity. in deforming over time it involves plastic flow (plasticity). 3. Strictly speaking.0 .2% offset. e = (50.0.0 = 0.0 = 0. determine the percent reduction in area.5 = 64. Problems Strength and Ductility in Tension 3. Solution: (a) % elongation = (2.5 in 2.25)/0.0)/2.000 N.3 In Problem 3. e = (2.000/0.6/2. However.13 Viscosity can be defined as the ease with which a fluid flows: (a) true or (b) false.

Strain ε = ln(131.5/147. Strain ε = ln(147.27. Be sure not to use data after the point at which necking occurred. determine the strength coefficient and the strain hardening exponent.2264 = (3.0488 (2) A = 7812.25 = 59. true strain = 0. Determine the flow curve parameters n and K.1/387.1/(0.524 mm2.1622) n 544.1622/0.2164 n = 0.4056 = (3. Stress σ = 23042/59.5.042 131.9 MPa K = 544.283 = 909. Stress σ = 28913/53.05 28. Select two data points: (1) F = 23042 N and L = 131.375) n 1. (b) From the plot.2 ε 0.0488) n 1.6 In Problem 3.5 mm2: Load (N) Length (mm) 0 0 17.1622 Substituting these values into the flow curve equation. (d) tensile strength TS.579 140.5 mm3.00184 = 168.143 = 544.85 MPa (2) K = 325/(0. When the true stress = 325 MPa.27 MPa. we obtain the value of the strength coefficient K: K = 387.5) = 7812. (c) First data point is prior to yielding.1 = K(0.25 mm.08) n and (2) 325 = K(0. (2) F = 28913 N and L = 147.85 MPa 11 . Determine: (b) yield strength Y.4 MPa Use average K = 910.5 The following data are collected during a tensile test in which the starting gage length = 125.27) .125)/125 = 0.913 147.2041 n = 0. E = 310. Strain e = (125.08) .1 = K(0.1678 = 404.625 MPa.25 27.578 153.01/125) = 0.524 = 387. Solution: (1) 265 = K(0.283 = 910.27/0.3405 = 1.25/125) = 0.08 at a stress = 265 MPa. (a) Plot the engineering stress strain curve.283 Substituting this value with the data back into the flow curve equation.1 = (0.10 The maximum load is 28.2011 n n = 0.0488) n and (2) 544.01 mm.00184.3238) 0.00 20.1622) .23 23.462 160.913 N and the final data point occurred immediately prior to failure.0 mm and the cross.6 MPa. Y = 310. Solution: Starting volume of test specimen V = 125(62. (c) modulus of elasticity E.1 MPa. Flow Curve 3.27/0.375) = ln(1.sectional area = 62.01 27.2264) 1.7 In a tensile test on a metal specimen.1/(0.08) n n ln(3.3. (1) A = V/L = 7812.1678 Substituting this value with the data back into the flow curve equation.27) n 325/265 = (0.4056) = n ln(3. TS = 426.01 = 53. Solution: (a) Student exercise. we obtain the value of the strength coefficient K: (1) K = 265/(0.0488) .3238) n ln(1. (d) From the plot.1 MPa.23 .2 MPa The flow curve equation is: σ = 910.283 3.143 mm2.793 125.5/131. the true strain = 0.1678 = 404. we have (1) 387.

7407) 4.223 (2) A = 1.1678 3.223) n 1.28 3.5) = ln(1.800/31.50 in 2. Determine the flow curve parameters n and K. we obtain the value of the strength coefficient K: (1) K = 37.000 = (0.5)/.10 at a true stress = 37.1076) 12 .45) .3125 = 44. and at another point in the test prior to necking.800 = K(0.33 = 1.25) n 55.3125 in 2 So. the gage length = 3.191 lb/in2 (2) K = 55. Without knowing any more about the test.4336) = n ln(2.8 During a tensile test. then n = 0.000 lb/in 2.000 lb/in 2.7 ε 0.000(0.3 and K = 600 MPa.22 = (0.2 = 0.1076) n ln(1. and (b) the true strain at a flow stress = 40.5 in and the corresponding engineering stress = 24.191 ε 0. (1) 31.256 3.10) n and (2) 55.470 These are two data points with which to determine the parameters of the flow curve equation.000/(0.4336 = (2.9163 n = 0.10) .0) 3.470/0.4326 3.5) = 1.25/0. Solution: (a) Yf = 54. at a true stress = 55. Solution: (a) Yf = 600(1.11 The flow curve for a certain metal has parameters: n = 0.4 = 31.25.0) = 0.0. a metal has a true strain = 0.28 = 492.7 MPa The flow curve equation is: σ = 492. can you estimate the flow curve parameters n and K? Solution: If we assume that n = ε when necking starts.000/(0.5 = 0.545 = 0.000(.0) = 0. Using this value in the flow curve equation. Determine: (a) the flow stress at a true strain = 1.4865 = (2.The flow curve equation is: σ = 404.223) n and (2) 44. Determine: (a) the flow stress at a true strain = 0. Determine the strength coefficient and the strain hardening exponent for this metal.00 3. The starting specimen had a gage length = 2.000 lb/in 2. the true strain = 0.4 in 2 So.000/54.5)/.250 = (0.4326 Substituting this value with the data back into the flow curve equation.4326 = 100.000 = K(0.5/2.191 lb/in2 The flow curve equation is: σ = 100. we have K = 345/(0. Solution: (1) 37.12 A metal is deformed in a tension test into its plastic region.0(0.10) n 1.000 = K(0.3 = 600 MPa (b) ε = (600/600) 1/.85 ε 0.0 in and an area = 0.2 in and the corresponding engineering stress = 28.22 and K = 54.0/2.10 A tensile test for a certain metal provides flow curve parameters: n = 0.300 lb/in2 (b) ε = (40.5) n n ln(2.000) 1/.470) n 44.000/37.0) .250 lb/in 2 and ε = ln(2.250 = K(0.3964 n = 0.2/2. Later. At one point in the tensile test. true stress σ = 24.000 lb/in 2.28.800 lb/in 2 and ε = ln(3.0 in 3 (1) A = V/L = 1.4865) 0.000 lb/in 2.0/3.28 with a corresponding true stress = 345.000 lb/in2.0 MPa. and (b) true strain at a flow stress = 600 MPa.4326 = 100.9 In a tensile test a metal begins to neck at a true strain = 0. Solution: Starting volume V = LoAo = 2.25) .28) .000(. true stress σ = 28. the gage length = 2.3 = (1.45.22 = 45.

0 to 90. The summation process is an approximation of the integration over the range from 75 to 110 mm in (b). (4) 90. we have V = AoLo = AL 13 .250/(0. the summation becomes closer to the integration value. (5) 95.0 to 95. (c) Compute and sum the engineering strains as the specimen elongates from: (1) 75.483 Use average K = 64.515 ε 0.0 to 100.0) the final height of the compression specimen would have to be zero.0 mm.0667 L = 80 to 85 mm: e = (85 .85)/85 = 5/85 = 0.693) the final height of the compression specimen can be determined as follows: ε = -.4667 (b) True strain ε = ln(110/75) = ln(1. 3. (b) To be compressed to the same true strain value (e = -0.0 mm.483 = 64. (2) 80.0 = 1. and (b) the true strain would be equal to the same value as in tension (again.0 to 80.0 mm. As the interval size is reduced. it will be negative value because of compression). Lf = 0.0 .1.3938 (d) The resulting sum in (c) is closer to the true strain value in (b). (3) 85.0 mm. determine the final compressed length of the specimen such that: (a) the engineering strain is equal to the same value as in tension (it will be negative value because of compression). Note that the answer to part (a) is an impossible result.0588 L = 90 to 95 mm: e = (95 . Determine the engineering strain and true strain for this test.80)/80 = 5/80 = 0.0476 _____________________________________________ Sum of incremental engineering strain values = 0. (6) 100.(-0. and (7) 105.0) = 0. (d) Is the result closer to the answer to part (a) or part (b)? Does this help to show what is meant by the term true strain? Solution: (a) Engineering strain e = (110 .0625 L = 85 to 90 mm: e = (90 .15 Derive an expression for true strain as a function of D and Do for a tensile test specimen of round cross-section.0 to 110.0556 L = 95 to 100 mm: e = (100 . (a) Determine the engineering strain.0) = ln(2.0500 L = 105 to 110 mm: e = (110 ..0 mm before necking occurs.0/1.470) .14 A tensile specimen is elongated to twice its original length.0 to 85.4667) = 0.483 3. It is elongated during the test to a length = 110.5 Lo 3.515 lb/in2 (1) K = 31.105)/105 = 5/105 = 0.800/(0.693) = 0.0 mm.513 lb/in2 (2) K = 44.90)/90 = 5/90 = 0.516 lb/in2 The flow curve equation is: σ = 64. Solution: Engineering strain e = (2.75)/75 = 5/75 = 0. True strain is therefore a better measure of strain during plastic deformation. which is impossible. If the metal had been strained in compression.693 (a) To be compressed to the same engineering strain (e = -1.0 to 105.483 n = 0.0526 L = 100 to 105 mm: e = (105 . (b) Determine the true strain.95)/95 = 5/95 = 0. Solution: Starting with the definition of true strain as ε = ln(L/Lo) and assuming constant volume.693 = ln(Lf/Lo) Lf/Lo = exp.75)/75 = 35/75 = 0.13 A tensile test specimen has a starting gage length = 75.100)/100 = 5/100 = 0.0)/1.500 Therefore.0 True strain ε = ln(2.0 mm.0 mm.223) = 64.3602 = .7455 n .383 (c)L = 75 to 80 mm: e = (80 .0 mm.

25 = 992. 0. The same metal is now tested in a compression test in which the starting height of the specimen = 62. Therefore. Determine the true stress and true strain at this maximum load.8 MPa True strain ε = ln(Lf/Lo) = ln(Ao/Af) = ln(4) = 1.3) = 570.2/0. the flow curve has parameters calculated as n = 0. Therefore.24 L . Assuming that the cross. 14 .section increases uniformly.4/2 = 0.4 = 382.80 mm fails at an engineering stress = 248.75 Ao .5 MPa and n = 0. 3. Solution: Starting definitions: (1) ε = ln(L/Lo) and (2) e = (L . n = ε.15. 1 + e = L/Lo Substituting this into definition (1). Based on this information.75A o = 0.000 lb.Lo = 0.Lo/Lo = L/Lo .24 Lo A = Ao/1. However.5) = 91.4918 The ratio between true stress and engineering stress would be the same ratio.24 Lo L = 1.4 = 2 ln(Do/D) ln(Do/D) = . Necking begins immediately thereafter.215 Compression 3.6 MPa.2) = 1.0 in and cross-sectional area = 0. TS is defined as an engineering stress. Therefore. Determine the true stress and true strain at failure.386.6(. TS = 1.1 Rearranging. calculate the (engineering) tensile strength for the metal.4918(382.24) = 0.18 A copper wire of diameter 0.Lo)/Lo Consider definition (2): e = L/Lo .5 in 2 reaches a maximum load of 37.19 A steel tensile specimen with starting gage length = 2. From Problem 3. σ = 551.5 mm.(.3 MPa 3.000/0.24 = 0.2 MPa. it should be noted that these values are associated with the necked portion of the test specimen.Therefore. ε = ln(1 + e) 3. then true stress σ = 248.8065 Ao True stress σ = 37.221) 2 = 1.2 Do/D = exp.25 Ao = Af If engineering stress = 248.8065(0. Its ductility is measured as 75% reduction of area. At necking.17 Based on results of a tensile test. Solution: Elongation = (L .4) .40 and K = 551.16 Show that true strain = ln(1 + e).Lo)/Lo = 0.221 Area ratio = (Do/D)2 = (1.5 mm and its diameter = 25 mm.2 MPa. Its elongation at this point is 24%.26. Solution: Tensile strength occurs at maximum value of load.3 MPa. L/Lo = Ao/A A = πD2 and Ao = πDo2 Ao/A = πDo2 /πD2 = (Do/D)2 ε = ln(Do/D)2 = 2 ln(Do/D) 3.20 A metal alloy has been tested in a tensile test to determine the following flow curve parameters: K = 620.754 lb/in2 True strain ε = ln(1.Af)/Ao = 0. This is a true stress. we know that ε = 2 ln(Do/D).75 Ao Ao . determine the load required to compress the specimen to a height of (a) 50 mm and (b) 37.0. Solution: Area reduction AR = (Ao .Af = 0.

assuming that the cross-section increases uniformly.0 in and diameter = 1.1) = 884.7(1293. (a) At h = 50 mm.6 mm3.00464. (b) flow curve parameters K and n. Determine: (a) yield strength Y.00464 is h = 2.5 = 818.714/78. A cylindrical specimen of starting cross-section area = 1000 mm2 and height = 75 mm is compressed to a height of 58 mm. At F = 260.9907 in.493 = (48.0.257 Yf = 1100(.312 N 3.767 = 79.714 lb/in2 at ε = 0. 117.06) n ln(1.293) = 0.35. the height has been reduced to 1.00464) = 1.862 lb/in2 at ε = 0.0(1 . Area A = 3. Assume that the cross-sectional area increases uniformly during the test.2% offset) at a load = 140.095 N.000.7 MPa Starting volume V = 75(1000) = 75.223. ε = ln(62.5(0.35 = 683. Solution: For h = 58 mm. A = 3.534 in3.775 = 78.1 MPa A = V/L = 30679.000/2.00464) n 1.5 in. and (2) σ = 117. Determine the force required to achieve this compression.223 Given the two points: (1) σ = 78.000/1.6) = 0.224/30.000 = 0.000 lb.6) = 257. The metal yields (0.714 lb/in 2.767 in2 Y = 140.770 N (b) At h = 37.26 = 420.511 Yf = 620.5) 2/4 = 1.000/1.534/1.224 lb/in 2 is e = Y/E = 79.22 A steel test specimen (E = 30 x 106 lb/in2) in a compression test has a starting height = 2.5(.223 Yf = 620. ε = ln(62.Solution: Starting volume of test specimen V = hπDo2/4 = 62.872 n n = 0.6/50 = 613.1 mm2 F = 683.389 ε .103 = 137.5) = ln(1.511) .000 mm3 At h = 58 mm.26 = 521.493) = n ln(48. Ao = πDo/4 = π(1. At a load of 260.103 K = 117.5/37.209 = 117.862 lb/in2.714/(0.06) 0.223/0.000 lb. The flow curve equation is: σ = 137.223) .257) .002 = 0.6 in.223) .5) 2/4 = 3.667) = 0.4006 = 3.6 mm2 F = 420. ε = ln(75/58) = ln(1.1(818.25) = 0. True strain ε = ln(2. True strain σ = 140.103 Bending and Shear 15 .9907 = 1.389 lb/in2.862 = (0.209 in 2.0/1.5π(25) 2/4 = 30679. True stress σ = 260.5 mm.5/50) = ln(1.1 MPa A = V/L = 30679.1 mm2 F = 521. Solution: (a) Starting volume of test specimen V = hπD2/4 = 2π(1.1(613.534/1.00264 + 0.6 = 2.00464 Height h at strain = 0. 3.21 The flow curve parameters for a certain stainless steel are K = 1100 MPa and n = 0.00264 Strain including offset = 0.224 lb/in2 (b) Elastic strain at Y = 79.000 lb. A = V/L = 75.775 in 2.1) = 426.6 /37.000/58 = 1293.

200 lb/in2.22). what is the anticipated load at which the specimen is likely to fail. (b) γ = Rα/L. Determine the BHN for the metal. Its cross-sectional dimensions are b = 0.01309 = 3.002618 = 29.1)) = 42.29 In Problem 3. α = . What is the shear strength of the metal? Solution: S = (1200 x 1000)/(2π(25) 2(3)) = 101. the specimen fails at a torque = 8000 ft-lb and an angular deflection = 23°. 3. for which equipment is available in the company.26. 3. G = τ/γ = 76. and (c) shear modulus. a torque of 900 N-m results in an angular deflection = 0. G = τ/γ = 42. The length of the specimen between supports = 2. wall thickness = 0. The resulting indentation has a diameter = 3.3(2π/360) = 0.5) 2(0. (b) shear strain. He claims that all hardness tests are based on the same principle as the Brinell test. given that its dimensions are: b = 15 mm.26 A torsion test specimen has a radius = 25 mm.01309 (c) τ = Gγ. Determine: (a) the shear stress. Solution: (a) τ = T/(2πR2t) = (5000 x 12)/(2π(1. 3.9004. (b) shear strain.5 x 60) = 16.5FL/bh2 = 1.24 A special ceramic specimen is tested in a bend test. 3. γ = 25(0. If the transverse rupture strength of the material is known to be 1000 MPa. Solution: (a) τ = T/(2πR2t) = (900 x 1000)/(2π(25) 2(3)) = 76.667 N.5(0.252) = 163.1)) = 67.5 x 0.30 In a Brinell hardness test.39/0.50 in and h = 0. which is that hardness is always measured as the 16 . Solution: γ = a/b = tan 42° = 0.27 In a torsion test..0 in.27.31 One of the inspectors in the quality control department has frequently used the Brinell and Rockwell hardness tests.86 MPa.5) = 3000/(10π x 0.28 In Problem 3.23 A bend test is used for a certain hard material.3. and L = 60 mm? Solution: F = (TRS)(bh2)/1.2 mm.10 in.906 lb/in2. and gage length = 2. Calculate the shear strength of the metal.179 MPa. failure of the specimen occurs at a torque = 1200 N-m and a corresponding angular deflection = 10°.24 x 10 6 lb/in2. Solution: TRS = 1. Solution: BHN = 2(1500)/(10π(10 .005236 rad.5L = 1000(15 x 102)/(1.5) 2(0.3°. 3. and gage length = 50 mm.005236)/50 = 0.25 in. 3. Solution: S = (8000 x 12)/(2π(1. γ = 1. assuming the specimen had not yet yielded. Determine the shear strain for this situation.(102 .25. a 1500 kg load is pressed into a specimen using a 10 mm diameter hardened steel ball.01745)/2.39 MPa. a torque of 5000 ft-lb is applied which causes an angular deflection = 1° on a thin-walled tubular specimen whose radius = 1.0 = 0.25 A piece of metal is deformed in shear to an angle of 42° as shown in Figure P3.002618 (c) τ = Gγ.441 lb/in2.0)/(0. and (c) shear modulus. α = 1(2π/360) = 0. Determine: (a) the shear stress.01745 rad. Hardness 3. wall thickness = 3 mm. In testing.5 in.5(1700)(2. (b) γ = Rα/L. h = 10 mm. assuming the specimen had not yet yielded.0 in.441/0.5258) = 182 BHN 3. Determine the transverse rupture strength if failure occurs at a load = 1700 lb.3.

Viscosity of Fluids 3. 3.000 lb/in 2. (a) Is he correct? (b) If not. (b) Some of the other hardness tests and operating principles include: (1) Rockwell hardness test. A Brinell hardness test in the receiving department yields a value of BHN = 118. we can estimate the yield strength to be Y = 0. The shaft rotates at a velocity of 400 rev/min. For a tested hardness of BHN = 182. and what are the associated tests? Solution: (a) No. However.000 to 70. it is unlikely that the batch can be rejected on the basis of its measured BHN without using an actual tensile test to measure TS. which measures the depth of indentation of a cone resulting from an applied load.0006 lb-sec/in2. Solution: Shear rate = (25 in/sec)/(0.000 = 0. The space between them is occupied by a fluid of unknown viscosity. separated by a space of 0.3 lb/in2)/(50 sec-1) = 0.33 A batch of annealed steel has just been received from the vendor. are moving relative to each other at a velocity of 5 m/sec. determine the viscosity of the fluid. The motion of the plates is resisted by a shear stress of 10 Pa due to the viscosity of the fluid. the ratio of Y to TS for low carbon steel = 25. Solution: (a) TS = 500(BHN) = 500(118) = 59.000 lb/in2.700 lb/in2. Solution: Shear rate = (5 m/s x 1000 mm/m)/(4 mm) = 1250 s-1 η = (10N/m2)/(1250 s-1) = 0. In the clearance between the shaft and the bushing is contained a lubricating oil whose viscosity = 0.008 N-s/m2. 17 .32 Suppose in Problem 3.000/45. separated by a space of 4 mm.000) = 32. (b) Based on Table 3. 3. from a legal standpoint.5 in that is occupied by a fluid.0 mm diameter shaft rotates inside a stationary bushing whose inside diameter = 125.30 that the specimen is steel. the claim is not correct. Assuming that the velocity gradient of the fluid is constant. (2) Scleroscope.applied load divided by the area of the impressions made by an indentor.3 lb/in 2 due to the viscosity of the fluid. The motion is resisted by a shear stress of 0. but many of them are. Based on the BHN determined in that problem.555(59.000 lb/in2. Not all hardness tests are based on the applied load divided by area.000 to 70.35 Two parallel surfaces. 3. This lies outside the specified range of 60. Solution: The estimating formula is: TS = 500(BHN). what are some of the other principles involved in hardness testing. determine the coefficient of viscosity of the fluid. are moving relative to each other at a velocity of 25 in/sec.5 in) = 50 sec-1 η = (0.2 in the text (page 47). If the velocity gradient in the space between the surfaces is constant. which measures elastic deformation by pressing an indentor into the surface of rubber and similar soft materials.34 Two flat plates.14 Pas.000 lb/in2.0 mm. 3. this speed and the action of the oil are sufficient to keep the shaft centered inside the bushing.555. TS = 500(182) = 91. Determine the magnitude of the torque due to viscosity that acts to resist the rotation of the shaft. estimate the tensile strength of the steel. and (3) Durometer. which measures the rebound height of a hammer dropped from a certain distance against a surface specimen. The above formula for converting from BHN to TS is only an approximating equation.36 A 125. Using this ratio.6 mm and length = 50. (a) Does the steel meet the specification on tensile strength? (b) Estimate the yield strength of the material. It is supposed to have a tensile strength in the range 60.

7 Pa = 1221.3 mm v = (125π mm/rev)(400 rev/min)(1 min/60 sec) = 2618.2(10-6) m2 d = (125.6 s-1 τ = (0.14)(8726.6 mm2 = 19729.0 mm/s Shear rate = 2618/0.125)/2 = 0.Solution: Bushing internal bearing area A = π(125.2(10-6)) = 24.6) = 1221.506 N-m 18 .3 = 8726.4 N-mm = 1.7 N/mm2 Force on surface between shaft and bushing = (1221.1 N x 125/2 mm = 1506.1 N Torque T = 24.6) 2 x 50/4 = 19729.7 N/mm2)(19729.6 .

4.10 What is the dielectric strength of a material? Answer. In the heating of a noncrystalline material such as glass.3 Describe the melting characteristics of a noncrystalline material such as glass. contact area. Answer. in which the electrons are tightly bound to particular molecules. Answer. mass diffusion depends on: diffusion coefficient which rises rapidly with temperature (so temperature could be listed as an important variable). Why are metals better conductors of electricity than ceramics and polymers? Answer.11 What is an electrolyte? 19 . Review Questions 4. 4. 4. Answer.5 What is the thermal conductivity of a material? Answer. Between the solidus and liquidus. Ceramics and polymers have covalent and ionic bonding. Specific heat is defined as the quantity of heat required to raise the temperature of a unit mass of the material by one degree.2 PHYSICAL PROPERTIES OF MATERIALS Define the property density of a material. the metal is a mixture of solid and liquid. Density is the weight per unit volume. concentration gradient. 4. Thermal diffusivity is the thermal conductivity divided by the volumetric specific heat. According to Fick's first law.8 4. which permits electrons to move easily within the metal. Answer.1 4. while an alloy begins melting at a certain temperature called the solidus and finally completes the transformation to the molten state at a higher temperature called the liquidus. A pure metal element melts at one temperature (the melting point). What are the important variables that affect mass diffusion? Answer. the material begins to soften as temperature increases. Resistivity is the material's capacity to resist the flow of an electric current.9 Define the resistivity of a material.6 4. and time. Answer. 4.4 Define the specific heat property of a material.4 4.7 Define thermal diffusivity. What is the difference in melting characteristics between a pure metal element and an alloy metal? Answer. 4. The dielectric strength is defined as the electrical potential required to break down the insulator per unit thickness. Metals are better conductors because of metallic bonding. Thermal conductivity is the capacity of a material to transfer heat energy through itself by thermal movement only (no mass transfer). finally converting to a liquid at a temperature defined for these materials as the melting point.

or (d) tin. In these cases. (b) 20 . Answer. (b) 4. and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point. (e) temperature. since each correct answer is worth 1 point.4 Which of the following materials has the highest specific heat? (a) aluminum. (d) 4. Answer. (c) gold.3 Polymers typically exhibit greater thermal expansion properties than metals: (a) true. An electrolyte is an ionized solution capable of conducting electric current by movement of the ions. Temperature (e) has a strong influence on the diffusion coefficient. 4. (d) melting point. (c) magnesium. melting begins at a certain temperature and concludes at a higher temperature. Choices (a) and (b) are included in Eq. 4. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point. This is perhaps a trick question.5). of (b) solidus. and (f). Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 12 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct). For each question. (b) The high thermal conductivity of copper makes it difficult to weld because the heat flows away from the joint rather than being concentrated to permit melting of the metal.2 4. (a). (c) 4.1 Which one of the following metals has the lowest density? (a) aluminum. (a) In the heating of most metal alloys. Answer.Answer. (c) polyethylene.6 The mass diffusion rate dm/dt across a boundary between two different metals is a function of which of the following variables (more than one): (a) concentration gradient dc/dx. (e). (b) zero conductivity. (c) density. Answer. (b). (b) concrete. (b) contact area. Answer. (b) copper. To attain a perfect score on the quiz. which of the following temperatures marks the beginning of melting? (a) liquidus. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers. (4. or (b) false. Time (f) figures into the process because it affects the concentration gradient. or (c) resistivity properties between those of conductors and semiconductors? Answer. (b) copper. Answer.8 A superconductor is characterized by which of the following (choose one best answer): (a) very low resistivity. (d) 4. because of its high thermal conductivity: (a) true. and (f) time. or (d) silver. or (b) false. or (d) water. all correct answers must be given. Answer.7 Which of the following pure metals is the best conductor of electricity? (a) aluminum. 4.5 Copper is generally considered easy to weld. as time elapses. the concentration gradient is reduced so that the rate of diffusion is reduced.

67° C ° 4.014 = 0.02 + 0.007854 mm2 = 0.1.25. determine the increase in length of a steel bar whose length = 10.00 = 12(10-6)(25.65 Ω 21 .581 g/cm3 4.0003T2 .0288 in.04605 cm3 Assume weight remains the same.4 With reference to Table 4.7 x 10-6 in/in/F)(10.193 cal.1 The starting diameter of a shaft is 25. the shaft must be reduced in diameter by cooling.006 = 0.1. Answer.L1 = αL1 (T2 .0003T2 T2 = -46.98 mm. To be readily inserted.0)(650 . Determine the temperature to which the shaft must be reduced from room temperature (20°C) in order to reduce its diameter to 24. Solution: R = rL/A. (a) Problems 4.0.196 J. Conversion: 1.1. Solution.3 With reference to Table 4.7 x 10-8 Ω-m2/m)(10 m)/( 0.1.4. From Table 4.10 mm? Use Table 4.006 -.0003T2 -0. the anode is the electrode which is (a) positive.3. Refer to Table 4. L2 = 1.T2). r = 1.00)(T2 .D1 = αD1 (T2 .1 as a reference.2. 24.20) -0.21°C) = 158. Determine its density at 650°C. α = 24(10-6) mm/mm/°C L2 .70°F) = 0.7 x 10-8 Ω-m2/m R = (1.0 in)(500°F .02 = 300(10-6)(T2 .007854(10-6) m2 From Table 4. if the bar is heated from room temperature (70°F) to 500°F.1) to D2 .70/1. Solution: For steel.0 cal = 4. Solution: Increase = (6.5 What is the resistance R of a length of copper wire whose length = 10 m and whose diameter = 0. 4.01512) 3 = 1. 1 cm on each side. 4. α = 12(10-6) mm/mm/°C according to Table 4.3 as a reference.184J.T2).04605 = 2.00 mm.70 g/cm3)(300°C .02 = 0.70 g/cm3 at room temperature (20°C). Revise Eq. Heat = (0. or (b) negative. This shaft is to be inserted into a hole in an expansion fit assembly operation.20) = 1. Solution: Assume a 1 cm3 cube.1) 2/4 = 0.20) -0.0003(T2 .007854(10-6) m2) = 2164.0 + 24(10-6)(1. using data in Table 4.98 . (4. thus ρ at 650°C = 2. A = π(0.5(10-2) Ω = 21.9 In an electrolytic cell.0 in. determine the quantity of heat required to increase the temperature of an aluminum block that is 10 cm x 10 cm x 10 cm from room temperature (21°C) to 300°C.21 cal/g-°C)(103 cm3)(2.2 Aluminum has a density of 2.20) = 0.01512 cm (L2 )3 = (1. so heat = 662.

TOLERANCES. including roughness. The nominal surface is the ideal part surface represented on an engineering drawing. The reasons why surfaces are important include: aesthetics.3 Define nominal surface. Roughness deviations lie within waviness deviations. Among its limitations are: (1) it varies depending on direction.9 Indicate some of the limitations of using surface roughness as a measure of surface texture. Answer. Surface roughness measurement provides only a single value of surface texture.5 5. Answer. lay. and thermal electrical contacts. Surface texture refers only to the surface geometry. 5. What are some of the reasons why surfaces are important? Answer. Surface roughness is defined as the average value of the vertical deviations from the nominal surface over a specified surface length. mating of components in assembly. 5. friction and wear.7 Surface roughness is a measurable aspect of surface texture. safety. effect of surface on mechanical and physical properties. 22 . 5. and flaws.6 Within the scope of surface texture. how is roughness distinguished from waviness? Answer.5 How is surface texture distinguished from surface integrity? Answer. 5.2 DIMENSIONS. AND SURFACES What is a tolerance? Answer.3) in the text.1 5.10 Identify some of the changes and injuries that can occur at or immediately below the surface of a metal. 5. 5.1) and (5. A tolerance is defined as the total amount by which a specified dimension is permitted to vary. what does surface roughness mean? Answer.8 What is the difference between AA and RMS in surface roughness measurement? Answer. (2) it does not indicate lay. perfectly round if referring to a round surface. AA and RMS are alternative methods by which the average roughness value is computed. perfectly flat if referring to a planar surface. surface integrity includes not only surface but the altered layers beneath the surface. It is assumed perfectly smooth. Roughness consists of the finely-spaced deviations from the nominal surface. (3) its value depends on the roughness width cutoff L used to measure the average. etc. Answer. Review Questions 5.4 Define surface texture. Surface texture is the random and repetitive deviations from the nominal surface. (5. waviness. 5. see Eqs. while waviness refers to the deviations of larger spacing.

5. (a) and (d). (c) hardness variations.12 Name some manufacturing processes that produce very poor surface finishes. thermal. (e) recrystallization. For each question. (d) oil films. 5. residual stresses. (b) 5. and thermal cutting (e. etc. Energy input resulting from the manufacturing process used to generate the surface. all correct answers must be given. 5. (b) hardness variations..1 A tolerance is which one of the following? (a) clearance between a shaft and a mating hole. Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 19 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct). polishing. 5. chemical. The changes and injuries include: cracks. since each correct answer is worth 1 point. and superfinishing.Answer. (b). craters. (b) measurement error. Answer. Answer. 5. (b) feed marks of the tool that produced the surface.6 Surface texture is included within the scope of surface integrity: (a) true or (b) false. flame cutting).3 Surface texture includes which of the following characteristics of a surface (may be more than one)? (a) deviations from the nominal surface. Processes that produce poor surfaces include: sand casting. (c) heat affected zone. Answer. and electrical. and (d) roundness. (see Table 5. (c) cylindricity. (c).g. and (e).13 Name some manufacturing processes that produce very good or excellent surface finishes. metallurgical changes resulting from heat. Answer. To attain a perfect score on the quiz. (d) plastic deformation. (a). Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers. or (d) variation in manufacturing. (a) AA or (b) RMS? Answer. 23 . variations in hardness near the surface.2 Which of the following two geometric terms have the same meaning? (a) circularity. Answer. The energy forms can be any of several types. intergranular attack. (b) concentricity. Answer. 5. hot rolling.4 Which averaging method generally yields the higher value of surface roughness. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point. and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point. Processes that produced very good and excellent surfaces include: honing. or (f) voids. (c) total permissible variation from a specified dimension. lapping. and (e). (a) Thermal energy is normally associated with which of the following changes in the altered layer? (a) cracks. Answer.5 5. sawing. and (e) surface cracks. (b). (c) 5.11 What causes the various types of changes that occur in the altered layer just beneath the surface? Answer.1). including mechanical.

(d) sand casting. (b) decrease. Answer. (d) substrate microstructure. or (e) sawing. sawing (e) will yield a poor finish. (a). (b) 5. or (e) sawing. or (f) variation in tensile strength near the surface. or (c) no effect. (d) sand casting. (c) machining. (c) machining.8 5. (c) microcracks beneath the surface. (b).7 A better finish (lower roughness value) will tend to have which of the following effects on fatigue strength of a metal surface? (a) increase. (b) grinding. Answer. (b) Which of the following are included within the scope of surface integrity? (a) chemical absorption. (d). and (f) Which one of the following manufacturing processes will likely result in the best surface finish? (a) arc welding. Answer. Also. (b) microstructure near the surface. (e). Accept either answer.10 Which one of the following manufacturing processes will likely result in the worst surface finish? (a) cold rolling. Answer. (b) grinding. (c). 24 .5.9 5. (e) surface roughness.

6. Cr and Mo improve hot hardness. such as a metallic compound (e. which are based on iron. 6. at least one of which is metallic. and Ni increase hardenability during heat treatment. The Cu-Ni alloy system is simple because it is a solid solution alloy throughout its entire composition range. Mn. A substitutional solid solution is where the atoms of dissolved element replace atoms of the solution element in the lattice structure of the metal.10 Identify some of the common alloying elements other than carbon in low alloy steels. Ferrous metals. An intermediate phase is an alloy formed when the solubility limit of the base metal in the mixture is exceeded and a new phase. Why is it so simple? Answer.11% to about 5%. All of the alloying elements other than C strengthen the steel by solid solution alloying. Mo.02% to 2. as indicated by its phase diagram. Answer. The common alloying elements in low alloy steel are Cr. and higher density than ceramics or polymers. 6. A solid solution is an alloy in which one of the metallic elements is dissolved in another to form a single phase. 6. What is a solid solution in the context of alloys? Answer.8 6.7 The copper-nickel system is a simple alloy system. Fe 3C) or intermetallic compound (e. What is the definition of an alloy? Answer.6 6. What are the two major groups of metals? Define them. Mg2Pb) is formed. Cr. Review Questions 6.g. Answer. Mo.. we should also mention the most important. Metallic properties include: high strength and stiffness. The carbon content ranges from 0. Ni. good electrical and thermal conductivity.4 METALS What are some of the general properties that distinguish metals from ceramics and polymers? Answer.3 6. 25 .11%.9 What is the range of carbon percentages which defines an iron-carbon alloy as a steel? Answer. What is the range of carbon percentages which defines an iron-carbon alloy as cast iron? Answer.g. Answer.1 6.2 6. The carbon content ranges from 2.6 What is an intermediate phase in the context of alloys? Answer. Answer. 6.5 Distinguish between a substitutional solid solution and an interstitial solid solution. and V. An interstitial solid solution is where the dissolved atoms are small and fit into the vacant spaces (the interstices) in the lattice structure of the solvent metal. which is C.. and nonferrous. An alloy is a metal comprised of two or more elements.11 What are some of the mechanisms by which the alloying elements other than carbon strengthen steel. which includes all others. Mn.

and (3) to form nickel-based alloys noted for high-temperature performance and corrosion resistance.14 Why is austenitic stainless steel called by that name? Answer. 6.. 6.g. 6. The reason is that nickel has the effect of enlarging the austenitic temperature range to include room temperature. e. stainless steel. formability. Vanadium inhibits grain growth during heat treatment which improves strength and toughness. and ability to be alloyed and strengthened to achieve good strength-to-weight ratios. 6.21 What are the noteworthy properties of titanium? Answer.19 What elements are traditionally alloyed with copper to form (a) bronze and (b) brass? Answer. Aluminum is noted for its low density. it can be alloyed and strengthened by methods similar to those used for aluminum alloys to achieve respectable strength-to-weight ratios. 6.13 What is the predominant alloying element in all of the stainless steels? Answer.12 What is the mechanism by which carbon strengthens steel in the absence of heat treatment? Answer. Silicon.15 Besides high carbon content.20 What are some of the important applications of nickel? Answer. V) form hard carbides with C.22 Identify some of the important applications of zinc. It is called austenitic because this alloy exists in its austenitic phase at room temperature. Chromium. If no heat treatment carbon strengthens by creating a two-phase structure in the steel.17 What are some of the noteworthy properties of magnesium? Answer. 6. The important applications are: (1) as an alloying ingredient in steel. (b) zinc. and low strength. high electrical and thermal conductivity. 6. 6. Answer. (2) for plating of steel to resist corrosion. 6.18 What is the most important engineering property of copper which determines most of its applications? Answer. and high temperature strength. 6. which increases wear resistance. Mo. (3) as an alloying element with copper to form brass. 6. propensity to oxidize (which can cause problems in processing). (a) tin.16 Identify some of the properties for which aluminum is noted? Answer. Its high electrical conductivity.Several of the alloying elements (Cr. 6. Magnesium is noted for its very low density (lightest of the structural metals). The important applications are: (1) die castings . (2) as a coating in galvanized steel.zinc is an easy metal to cast. Titanium is noted for its high strength-to-weight ratio. corrosion resistance (due to the formation of a thin but tough oxide film).23 What important alloy is formed from lead and tin? 26 . good corrosion resistance due to the formation of a tough oxide film on its surface. however. what other alloying element is characteristic of the cast irons? Answer.

6. (b) Refractory means the capability to withstand high temperature service. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point. Answer. To attain a perfect score on the quiz.Answer. (d) 27 .28 What are the three basic methods by which metals can be strengthened? Answer.3 The predominant phase in the iron-carbon alloy system for a composition with 99% Fe at room temperature is which of the following? (a) austenite. (2) cold working.24 (a) Name the important refractory metals. and (3) heat treatment . or (e) ionic bonding. (d) high stiffness. 6. Solder. (b) Why are they called noble metals? Answer. all correct answers must be given. (b) Nobel metals are so-named because they are chemically inactive. (c) iron. (d) magnesium. in which the strain-hardened metal is stronger and harder than the unstrained metal.1 Which of the following properties or characteristics are inconsistent with the metals (more than one)? (a) good thermal conductivity. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers.2 Which of the metallic elements is the most abundant on the earth? (a) aluminum. Answer. (2) nickel-based alloys. molybdenum (Mo). (b) What does the term refractory mean? Answer. Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 23 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct). Mo and W are the most important. (c) and (e). Answer.27 What is so special about the superalloys? What distinguishes them from other alloys? Answer. Answer. The three basic methods are: (1) alloying to form solid solutions and two-phase structures which are stronger than the elemental metals. (b) cementite. tantalum (Ta). Name the three groups. (c) delta. (c) high electrical resistivity. or (e) silicon. 6. or (e) gamma. according to the base metal used in the alloy. since each correct answer is worth 1 point. 6. The superalloys are generally distinguished by their strength and resistance to corrosion and oxidation at elevated temperatures. platinum. 6. (a) The refractory metals include columbium (Cb). (d) ferrite. gold.26 The superalloys divide into three basic groups. and tungsten (W). and silver. and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point. 6.25 (a) Name the four principal noble metals.most of the commercial heat treatments are designed to increase the strength of the metal. (a) 6. (b) copper. (a) The principal noble metals are copper. The three groups are: (1) iron-based alloys. 6. and (3) cobalt-based alloys. For each question. (b) high strength.

(c) 11XX. (c) malleable iron.15 Which of the following metals possess good electrical conductivity (more than one)? (a) aluminum. Answer. (b) 10XX. (b) magnesium.8 6. (a). (e) zinc.14 From which of the following ores is aluminum derived? (a) alumina. (b) copper. (d) molybdenum. (c). Answer.9 6.4 A steel with 1. Answer. (c) hypereutectoid. (b) chromium. (b) Which of the following elements is the most important alloying ingredient in steel? (a) carbon. or (e) tungsten. (a) Which of the following is not a common alloying ingredient in steel? (a) chromium. (d) vanadium. (b) 6. (d) tin. (c) 6. (a) and (d). (c) tin. (c) nickel. (b) hypoeutectoid. (b) 6. or (d) white cast iron. (c) gold. (d) silver.7 6. (c) platinum. or (d) titanium. (d) silver. Answer.6. or (d) wrought iron. (d) nickel. (d) hematite. (b) manganese. (b) bauxite. (d) 12XX. (c) The strength and hardness of steel increases as carbon content increases: (a) true of (b) false. (a) Plain carbon steels are designated in the AISI code system by which of the following? (a) 01XX. (c) molybdenum. Answer. (a) 6. (b) manganese. (b) copper. (c) nickel. or (e) tungsten. and (e) tungsten. Answer. (c) cementite. (e) zinc.0% carbon is known as which of the following: (a) eutectoid.10 Which of the following alloying elements are most commonly associated with stainless steel (name two)? (a) chromium. Answer. Answer. or (e) scheelite.13 Which of the following metals has the highest density? (a) gold. Answer.12 Which of the following metals has the lowest density? (a) aluminum. Answer. (e) Solid solution alloying is the principal strengthening mechanism in high-strength low-alloy (HSLA) steels: (a) true or (b) false.5 6.6 6. (b) lead. 28 .16 Traditional brass is an alloy of which of the following metallic elements? (a) aluminum. 6.11 Which of the following is the most important cast iron commercially? (a) ductile cast iron. or (e) vanadium. (c) gold. or (e) 30XX. Answer. (b) gray cast iron. (b). Answer. and (d). (b) 6. 6.

the compositions are observed as follows: Liquid phase composition = 78% Sn .41 6.17% Cu.3.8 mm. (d) tin.35% Cu.5 For the preceding problem. or (e) zinc.6 Using the lead-tin phase diagram in Figure 6.59 α phase proportion = 10.3. if the lead-tin proportion is 67%-33%. Solution: From Fig 6.3.1 For the copper-nickel phase diagram in Figure 6.4 Using the lead-tin phase diagram in Figure 6.5) = 15/25.8/13 = 0. determine the liquid and solid phase compositions for a nominal composition of 90% Sn and 10% Pb at 204°C (400°F). 6. Liquid phase proportion = 4. (b) lead.29 6. Solid phase composition = 83% Ni .3. Solution: From Fig 6.44% Pb.2 mm.2% Pb.17 Which of the following has the lowest melting point? (a) aluminum.5 = 0. 6. Solution: From Fig 6.71 Solid phase proportion = 5/17 = 0. Liquid phase proportion = 15/(15 + 10.32 α phase proportion = 7. determine the liquid and solid phase compositions for a nominal composition of 40% Sn and 60% Pb at 204°C (400°F).7 For the preceding problem.3. 6. measured values of CL and CS are: CL = 10. Solution: From Fig 6. β phase composition = 98% Sn . Solution: From Fig 6.5 mm. the compositions are observed as follows: Liquid phase composition = 56% Sn .68 29 .5 = 0. CS = 12 mm.2/(13) = 0.22% Pb. If so. use the inverse lever rule to determine the proportions of liquid and solid phases present in the alloy. CS = 15 mm. find the compositions of the liquid and solid phases for a nominal composition of 70% Ni and 30% Cu at 1371°C (2500°F). Answer. use the inverse lever rule to determine the proportions of liquid and solid phases present in the alloy. Liquid phase proportion = 12/(12 + 5) = 12/17 = 0. the compositions are observed as follows: Liquid phase composition = 65% Ni . (d) Problems 6.2.82% Pb. (b) and (e).2 For the preceding problem.5/25.2. (c) magnesium.3.3.3 For the lead-tin phase diagram of Figure 6.2. Solution: From Fig 6. is it possible to design a solder (lead-tin alloy) with a melting point of 260°C (500°F). CS = 4. 6. 6. measured values of CL and CS are: CL = 5 mm. what would be its nominal composition? Solution: It is possible to obtain such a solder. measured values of CL and CS are: CL = 7. α phase composition = 18% Sn . use the inverse lever rule to determine the proportions of liquid and solid phases present in the alloy.Answer.

(b) gamma + iron carbide.4. and (c) 1095°C (2000°F) and 1% Fe 3C. and (c) gamma.8 In the iron-iron carbide phase diagram of Figure 6. identify the phase or phases present at the following temperatures and nominal compositions: (a) 650°C (1200°F) and 2% Fe 3C. (b) 760°C (1400°F) and 2% Fe 3C. Solution: (a) Alpha + iron carbide.6. 30 .

Usually electrical and thermal insulators. used in making ceramic products? Answer. no ductility.7 7. Refractories are heat resistant ceramic materials. medium density (typically below the density of metals). What are the general mechanical properties of ceramic materials? Answer. The term is sometimes also applied to metals that are heat resistant. aluminum.g. Review Questions 7. bricks) while new ceramics are more recently developed ceramics which are generally simpler in chemical composition (e. Covalent and ionic bonding.1 7.8 7. while most other ceramics assume a crystalline structure. usually formed into useful products by a heating process. What are the four most common elements in the earth's crust? Answer.3 CERAMICS What is a ceramic is.9 What type of atomic bonding characterizes the ceramics? Answer... Because they are not compounds. oxides.11 What is glazing.2 7. A ceramic is an inorganic. carbides). 7. 7. They are both minerals of alumina. Glazing involves the application of a surface coating of oxides such as alumina and silica. 7.6 7. the usually kaolinite (Al2(Si2O5)(OH)4). pottery. What are the general physical properties of ceramic materials? Answer.7 Why are graphite and diamond not classified as ceramics? Answer. 7.12 What does the term refractory mean? Answer. Glass is noncrystalline (amorphous). silicon. high melting temperatures.4 What is the feature that distinguishes glass from the traditional and new ceramics? Answer. as applied to ceramics? Answer. 7. Answer. Clay most commonly consists of hydrous aluminum silicate. and iron. to make the product more impervious to moisture and more attractive. they are alternative forms of the element carbon.5 7. What do bauxite and corundum have in common? Answer. Oxygen.10 What is clay. nonmetallic compound. thermal expansion usually less than metals.g. 31 . brittle. What is the difference between the traditional ceramics and the new ceramics? Answer. Traditional ceramics are based primarily on clay products (e. usually to a porous ceramic product such as earthenware. Usually high hardness.

such as WC-Co? Answer. rock drilling bits. basic substances. and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point.19 What does the term devitrification mean? Answer. Silica. thus leading to highly anisotropic properties. (d) oxygen. As a thin coating on cutting tools to prolong tool life. 7. Answer. 7. (e) 32 . (6) adding color to the glass. Answer. since each correct answer is worth 1 point.the tendency to crystallize from the glassy state. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point. nonmetallic material which cools to a rigid solid without crystallization. lenses). Graphite is carbon in the form of hexagonal crystalline layers.16 Define glass. 7.14 What is one of the important applications of titanium nitride. (b) calcium. (d) 7. drawing dies. (c) iron. in which covalent bonding exists between atoms in the layers. Important applications of WC-Co include: cutting tool inserts. (4) reducing thermal expansion in the final product. Glass is an inorganic. Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 18 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct). Answer. oxygen. or (e) silica.20 What is graphite? Answer. and the (parallel) layers are bonded by van der Waals forces.15 What elements comprise the ceramic material Sialon? Answer.2 Glass products are based primarily on which one of the following minerals? (a) alumina. or water. or (e) silicon. The functions of the additional ingredients include: (1) acting as flux (promoting fusion) during heating. Answer. 7. Devitrification is the transformation from the glassy state into a polycrystalline state. 7.. (c) feldspar.g. 7. To attain a perfect score on the quiz. dies for powder metallurgy. (5) increasing the chemical resistance against attack by acids. as mentioned in the text? Answer. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers. and (7) altering the index of refraction for optics applications (e.18 What are some of the functions of the ingredients that are added to glass in addition to silica. all correct answers must be given. (3) retarding devitrification .7. and other applications where hardness is a critical factor.1 Which one of the following is the most common element in the earth's crust? (a) aluminum.13 What are some of the principal applications of the cemented carbides. or silicon dioxide (SiO 2). (2) increasing fluidity in the molten glass during processing. 7. Silicon. (b) corundum. 7. aluminum. and nitrogen. For each question.17 What is the primary mineral in glass products? Answer. (d) kaolinite.

(d) MgO.0 (b) 2. or (d) strong. or (d) stoneware. or (d) 1980. Answer.0. or (b) 50% polycrystalline.14 Synthetic diamonds date to: (a) ancient times. (b) carbon dioxide.3 Which of the following contains significant amounts of aluminum oxide (more than one)? (a) alumina.8 7.11 Properties and characteristics of the glass-ceramics include which of the following (may be more than one)? (a) efficiency in processing.0.10 Which of the following best characterizes the structure of glass-ceramics? (a) 95% polycrystalline. 7. relative to other ceramics.4 7. or (e) silicon dioxide. (b) Glass ceramics are polycrystalline ceramic structures that have been transformed into the glassy state: (a) true. Glass ceramics are glasses that have been transformed into a mostly crystalline form through heat treatment. Answer. or (b) false. (a) and (d). (b) 95% vitreous. (b) earthenware. Which of the following ceramics are commonly used as abrasives in grinding wheels (two best answers)? (a) aluminum oxide. and (c). (c) porcelain. (a). or (e) SiO 2. (b) bauxite. (c) carbon monoxide.12 Diamond is the hardest material known: (a) true. 7. (a) 7. (c) 7. (d) silicon dioxide. (b) earthenware.7 7. Answer. (b) electrical conductor. or (d) stoneware. or (e) sandstone.13 The specific gravity of graphite is closest to which one of the following: (a) 1. (d) 8. (b) Which of the following is fired at the highest temperatures? (a) china. or (b) false. (c) high thermal expansion. Answer.9 Which one of the following materials is closest to diamond in hardness? (a) aluminum oxide. (c) Which one of the following comes closest to expressing the chemical composition of clay? (a) Al2O3. (b) It's reversed in the statement. (b) 7. (c) corundum. (b). Answer. (b) 1800s. Answer. (a) 7. (b) calcium oxide.6 7. (c) 33 . (c) 4. (a) and (d) Which one of the following is generally the most porous of the clay-based pottery ware? (a) china. Answer. (b) Al2(Si2O5)(OH)4. Answer. or (e) tungsten carbide.0. Answer. Answer.0. Answer. (c) 1950s. (c) 3AL2O3-2SiO2. Answer.7. or (e) 16. (c) cubic boron nitride.5 7. (d) quartz. (d) silicon carbide. (c) porcelain.

8. 8. The categories are: (1) thermoplastics. connected end to end.3 POLYMERS What is a polymer? Answer. 8. Answer. A polymer is a compound that consists of long-chain molecules. Cross-linking is the formation of connections between the long-chain molecules in a polymer. What are some of the possible arrangements? Answer. (2) thermosetting polymers.4 What are the two methods by which polymerization occurs? Briefly describe the two methods. (3) block.5 What does the degree of polymerization indicate? Answer. If the amount of cross-linking is low. A copolymer is a polymer made up of two different types of mers. density. called mers.1.1 8. the polymer is transformed into an elastomer.6 Define the term tacticity as it applies to polymers. such as ethylene and propylene.4 for descriptions. hardness. 8. In addition. the polymer is transformed into a thermosetting polymer. (2) random. It causes the polymer structure to be permanently altered. if cross-linking is significant. See Article 10.8 8. 8.9 The arrangement of repeating units in a copolymer can vary. Review Questions 8. The two types of polymerization are: (1) addition or chain polymerization and (2) step polymerization. There are four possible arrangements of the mers along the chain: (1) alternating. See Article 10.2 8. and (3) elastomers. In general. and temperature resistance compared to metals. polymers have lower strength.1. Answer. also known as condensation polymerization. Tacticity refers to the way the atoms or atom groups replacing H atoms in the molecule are arranged. How do the properties of polymers compare with those of metals? Answer.7 What is cross-linking in a polymer and what is its significance? Answer. An example is ABS (acrylonitrile-butadiene-styrene) plastic. and (4) graft. polymers are low in electrical and thermal conductivity.8 What is a copolymer? Answer. The degree of polymerization indicates the average number of mers or repeating units in the polymer molecule.1 for descriptions. stiffness. The molecules consist of repeating units. 8. A terpolymer is a polymer with three different mer types. 8. What are the three basic categories of polymers? Answer.11 How are a polymer's properties affected when it takes on a crystalline structure? 34 .10 What is a terpolymer? Answer.

and cannot be remelted. antioxidants. capable of higher service temperatures. cross-linking agents. it becomes increasingly like a liquid as temperature continues to increase.17 Describe the difference in mechanical properties as a function of temperature between a highly crystalline thermoplastic and an amorphous thermoplastic. (3) stereoregularity . These differences account for HDPE higher density. and melting temperature increase. 8.14 Why are fillers added to a polymer? Answer. A highly crystalline TP retains rigidity during heating until just before its Tm is reached. It is often added to improve the polymer's flow characteristics for shaping. Thermosets are more rigid. what are some other additives used with polymers? Answer. stiffness.22 How do the properties of thermosetting polymers differ from those of thermoplastics? Answer. 8. Answer.13 What are some of the factors that influence a polymer's tendency to crystallize? Answer. and melting point. C2H4 8. Cellulose is a polymer that grows in nature. and (6) stretching the polymer tends to promote crystallization.isotactic polymers always form crystals. No.20 What is the chemical formula of ethylene.21 What is the basic difference between low density and high density polyethylene? Answer. and ultraviolet light absorbers. Fillers are added to increase strength or simply to reduce the cost of the polymer. LDPE has a branched structure and is amorphous.19 The nylons are members of which polymer group? Answer. 8. Name the three ways. (4) slow cooling from the molten states promotes crystal formation. 8. 8. A plasticizer is a chemical added to the polymer to make it softer and more flexible.16 In addition to fillers and plasticizers. 8. 8. the monomer for polyethylene? Answer.to reduce friction and improve flow.Answer. Wood fiber contains about 50% cellulose and cotton fiber is about 95% cellulose.15 What is a plasticizer? Answer. Factors are: (1) only linear polymers can form crystals. An amorphous TP shows a significant drop in deformation resistance at its Tg as temperature is raised. 35 . (2) copolymers do not form crystals. flame retardents. and syndiotactic polymers sometimes form crystals. brittle. stiffness. Polyamides.23 Cross-linking (curing) of thermosetting plastics is accomplished by one of three ways. (5) plasticizers inhibit crystal formation. HDPE is linear and highly crystalline. colorants.18 What is unique about the polymer cellulose? Answer. atactic polymers never form crystals. 8. 8. 8. 8. Other additives include: lubricants . Density.12 Does any polymer ever become 100% crystalline? Answer.

each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point. (b) thermosets. 8. whereas thermosets are highly cross-linked. To attain a perfect score on the quiz. (b) Melting temperature increases with higher degree of crystallinity.Answer. and its melting temperature decreases: (a) true or (b) false. Polyisoprene. Answer. or (c) elastomers. Answer. 8. Light cross-linking allows extensibility. 8. 8. (b) thermosets. For each question. or (e) C8H8.24 Elastomers and thermosetting polymers are both cross. or (c) elastomers.linked. in which two reactive components are mixed and curing occurs by their chemical reaction. 8.1 Of the three polymer types. 8. since each correct answer is worth 1 point. in which small amounts of a catalyst cause cross-linking.5 Which of the following is the chemical formula for the repeating unit in polyethylene? (a) CH2. and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point. Answer.25 What happens to an elastomer when it is below its glass transition temperature? Answer. Elastomers are lightly cross-linked.3 Which one of the three polymer types does not involve cross. the polymer becomes denser and stiffer. The three ways are: (1) temperature-activated systems. (c) C3H6. Answer. (a) 8.27 How are thermoplastic elastomers different from conventional rubbers? Answer. or (c) elastomers. (c) 8. (2) catalyst-activated systems. (b) C2H4. TPEs are different in two basic ways: (1) they exhibit thermoplastic properties. all correct answers must be given. Why are their properties so different? Answer. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers.linking? (a) thermoplastics. a highly cross-linked structure makes the polymer rigid.26 What is the primary polymer ingredient in natural rubber? Answer. and (3) mixing-activated systems. (d) C5H8. and (2) their extensibility derives from physical connections between different phases in the polymer. in which elevated temperatures accomplish curing. Answer.2 Which one of the three polymer types is not normally considered to be a plastic? (a) thermoplastics. Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 25 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct). (b) thermosets. (a) 8. An elastomer is hard and brittle below its Tg. which one is the most important commercially? (a) thermoplastics.4 As the degree of crystallinity in a given polymer increases. (b) 36 .

(b) polyethylene. (c) polyester. (b).13 Polystyrene (without plasticizers) is amorphous. 8. (c) polypropylene.15 The basic difference between low density polyethylene and high density polyethylene is that the latter has a much higher degree of crystallinity: (a) true or (b) false. (c) and (d). strong. (a) 8. or (c) elastomeric. Answer. (e) polyethylene.10 Which answers complete the following sentence correctly (more than one): As the temperature of an amorphous thermoplastic polymer is gradually reduced. or (d) none of the above. Answer. (b) phenolics. and elastic. (c) silicones.12 Which of the following polymers are normally thermoplastic (more than one): (a) acrylics. (a) 8. Answer. or (e) the polymer solidifies from the molten state.6 Degree of polymerization is which one of the following? (a) average number of mers in the molecule chain. Answer. or (e) polyvinylchloride. Answer. 37 .8 8. Answer. (b) cellulose acetate. (b) nylon. (b) decreases. Answer. (c) sum of the molecule weights of the mers in the molecule. 8. (d) polystyrene.16 Among the thermosetting polymers. Answer. (b) 8. (b) As temperature of a polymer increases. (d) polychloroprene. Answer. transparent. (b) 8. (d) the polymer becomes stiff. (a) A copolymer is a mixture consisting of macromolecules of two different homopolymers: (a) true or (b) false. (b) 8. (c).17 Polyurethanes can be which of the following (more than one): (a) thermoplastic.8. the glass transition temperature Tg is indicated when (a) the polymer transforms to a crystalline structure. Answer.14 The fiber rayon used in textiles is based on which of the following polymers: (a) cellulose.11 Which of the following plastics has the highest market share? (a) phenolics.9 8. (b) thermosetting. and brittle: (a) true or (b) false. (c) the slope of specific volume versus temperature changes markedly. (a) 8. (d) polyethylene. and (e). or (f) polyurethane. its density (a) increases. the most widely used commercially is which of the following: (a) epoxies. or (d) urethanes. (c) nylon.7 8. Answer. (a) A branched molecular structure is stronger in the solid state and more viscous in the molten state than a linear structure for the same polymer: (a) true or (b) false. (b) the coefficient of thermal expansion increases markedly. (b) proportion of the monomer that has been polymerized. (a). or (c) remains fairly constant. or (e) polypropylene.

(c) C3H6. Answer.Answer. (a). 8. (d) C5H8. (d) polyurethane. or (f) thermoplastic elastomers. (b) isoprene rubber. (b) C2H4.19 The leading commercial synthetic rubber is which of the following: (a) butyl rubber. (e) 38 . (b). (e) styrene-butadiene rubber. (c) polybutadiene. (d) 8. Answer. or (e) C8H8. and (c).18 The chemical formula for polyisoprene in natural rubber is which of the following: (a) CH2.

plywood.5 Name the three basic categories of composite materials. Answer. The two forms are: (1) foamed-core sandwich. Traditional composites have been used for decades or centuries.10 What are the three general factors that determine the properties of a composite material? 39 . Review Questions 9. Answer. (2) particles and flakes. The forms are: (1) fibers. and (4) other properties and features that are difficult or impossible to obtain with metals. fiber reinforced polymer structures such as boat hulls. 9. and windshield glass.7 9.2 are: automotive tires. Examples given in Table 9. Answer. Identify some of the characteristic properties of composite materials. and (2) honeycomb. printed circuit boards. in which the core is polymer foam between two solid skins.9 Give some examples of commercial products which are laminar composite structures. honeycomb sandwich structures. 9. Synthetic composites are manufactured. 9.4 How are traditional composites distinguished from synthetic composites? Answer. and (3) an infiltrated phase in skeletal structures. in which the core is a honeycomb structure sandwiched between two solid skins. snow skis made from fiber reinforced polymers. ceramic matrix composites (CMCs).1 9. (2) good fatigue properties and toughness.2 COMPOSITE MATERIALS What is a composite material? Answer. A whisker is a thin. hairlike crystal of very high strength.6 What are the common forms of the reinforcing phase in composite materials? Answer. What are the two forms of sandwich structure among laminar composite structures? Briefly describe each.3 What does the term anisotropic mean? Answer. A composite material is a materials system consisting of two or more distinct phases whose combination results in properties that differ from those of its constituents.weight and stiffness-to-weight ratios. some of them are obtained from sources in nature.9 9.8 What is a whisker? Answer. and polymer matrix composites (PMCs). or polymers alone. ceramics. (3) anisotropic properties in many cases. 9. Anisotropic means that the properties of a material vary depending on the direction in which they are measured. Answer. Metal matrix composites (MMCs). 9. Typical properties include: (1) high strength-to. such as wood. 9.

it is defined as a composite consisting of ceramic grains imbedded in a metallic matrix. 9. Kevlar. the weighting being by proportions of the components in the composite. 9. 9. 9. 9. automobile body panels. Three factors are given in the text: (1) the component materials. 9. and low thermal expansion for many FRPs. The interface is the boundary between the component phases in a composite material.15 What is the most common fiber material in fiber-reinforced plastics? Answer. 9. 9.and the resulting structure of the material.reinforced plastic composite materials. or boron fibers are used as the reinforcing material. A cermet is a composite material consisting of a ceramic and a metal. Yes. The rule of mixtures applies to certain properties of composite materials. For each question. Weaknesses of ceramics include: low tensile strength. In the text. An advanced composite is a PMC in which carbon. good corrosion resistance. Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 22 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct).16 What does the term advanced composites mean? Answer.the reinforcing phase in particular . although the cemented carbide industry does not generally think of cemented carbides as cermets. and a variety of other items. low density.12 What is a cermet? Answer.11 What is the rule of mixtures? Answer.18 Identify some of the important properties of fiber. Answer. good fatigue strength. and (3) the interaction of the phases. FRPs are used in modern aircraft as skin parts.20 What is meant by the term interface in the context of composite materials? Answer. 9. printed circuit boards. high modulus-to-weight ratio.13 Cemented carbides are what class of composites? Answer.19 Name some of the important applications of FRPs. they fit within the definition. Answer.Answer. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point. since each correct answer is worth 1 point. 9.17 What is a hybrid composite? Answer. and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required 40 . (2) the geometric shapes of the constituents . To attain a perfect score on the quiz. it states that the property value is a weighted average of the property values of the components. E-glass. all correct answers must be given. A hybrid composite is a fiber-reinforced PMC in which two or more fibers materials are combined in the FRP. tennis rackets.14 What are some of the weaknesses of ceramics that might be corrected in fiber-reinforced ceramic matrix composites? Answer. Properties include: high strength-to-weight ratio. poor toughness. boat hulls. and susceptibility to thermal cracking.

Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers. (b) chromium. (b) copper. or (f) zinc. (c) 9.7 Which of the following metals is used as the matrix metal in nearly all WC cemented carbides? (a) aluminum. (d) lead. (c) cobalt. or (d) strength and other properties as a function of curing temperature. (b) properties are the same in every direction. (b) phenolic molding compound. (c) hot hardness. (f) wood. (d).reduces the score by 1 point. (e). (d) modulus of elasticity. (b) boron. or (g) SiO 2. (c) carbon/graphite. and (f). Answer.4 9.1 Anisotropic means which one of the following: (a) composite materials with composition consisting of more than two materials. (c) particles. (d) epoxy. 41 . Answer.10 Which one of the following is the most common reinforcing material in FRPs? (a) Al2O3. and (g) unsaturated polyester. Answer. or (c) PMC. (d) cobalt. 9. (b) hardness. (c) 9. (c) plywood. (b) MMC. (b) thermoplastics. or (c) thermosets. (d) magnesium.8 Ceramic matrix composites are designed to overcome which of the following weaknesses of ceramics (more than one)? (a) compressive strength. (c) carbon. 9. Answer. (c) 9. (c) properties vary depending on the direction in which they are measured. Answer.6 Which of the following metals are most commonly used as the matrix material in fiber-reinforced MMCs (name three)? (a) aluminum. (b). Answer. (c) Which of the following materials are used as fibers in fiber-reinforced plastics (more than one): (a) aluminum oxide. Answer. (f) S-glass. (a).9 Which of the following polymer types are most commonly used in polymer matrix composites? (a) elastomers. (e) Kevlar 49. (f) tungsten. (e) titanium. 9. (b) boron.11 Identify which of the following materials are composites (more than one)? (a) cemented carbide. or (f) toughness.3 Which one of the following reinforcing geometries offers the greatest potential for strength and stiffness improvement in the resulting composite material? (a) fibers. (e) and (f). (e) nickel. (e) rubber in automobile tires. Answer. Answer. (a). (e) tensile strength. (e) graphite.5 Wood is which one of the following composite types? (a) CMC. (c). (c) iron. Answer. (f) Kevlar 49.2 The reinforcing phase is the matrix within which the secondary phase is imbedded: (a) true or (b) false. (g) 9. or (g) tungsten carbide. (b) flakes. 9. (d) Portland cement. or (g) 1020 steel. (b) 9. and (e). or (d) infiltrated phase. (a) 9.

(c). (b). (e). (a).Answer. and (f). 42 .

10. (2) porosity. (4) safety hazards due to handling of hot metals. Superheat is the temperature difference above the melting point at which the molten metal is poured. (3) very large parts are possible. The two types are: (1) expendable molds and (2) permanent molds. and (2) mold erosion or gradual wearing away of the mold due to impact of molten metal. Review Questions 10. while a core determines its internal geometry.8 What is meant by the term superheat? Answer.4 What is a factory that performs casting operations usually called? Answer.9 Why should turbulent flow of molten metal into the mold be avoided? Answer. What is the difference between an open mold and a closed mold? Answer. Turbulence causes several problems: (1) accelerates formation of oxides in the solidified metal. 10. 43 . meaning that no further manufacturing operations are needed to accomplish the final part shape. 10. Disadvantages include: (1) limitations on mechanical strength properties.10 10. (4) applicable to any metal that can be melted.7 Name the two basic mold types that distinguish casting processes.6 10. indicates that the volumetric flow rate is constant throughout the liquid flow.10 What is the continuity law as it applies to the flow of molten metal in casting? Answer. Advantages include: (1) complex part geometries are possible. Molten metal is poured into this gating system to fill the mold.1 FUNDAMENTALS OF METAL CASTING Identify some of the important advantages of shape casting processes. 10. Answer. or continuity equation. 10. and (5) some casting processes are suited to mass production. (2) some casting operations are net shape processes.2 What are some of the limitations and disadvantages of casting? Answer. Which casting process is the most important commercially? Answer. it is an open container in the desired shape which must be flat at the top. The most important casting process is sand casting. and (5) environmental problems. An open mold is open to the atmosphere at the top. A foundry. What is the difference between a pattern and a core in sand molding? Answer. The pattern determines the external shape of the casted part.3 10. The term also refers to the amount of heat that is removed from the molten metal between pouring and solidification. The continuity law. A closed mold has a cavity that is entirely enclosed by the mold. with a passageway (called the gating system) leading from the outside to the cavity. Answer.5 10. (3) poor dimensional accuracy.

3 Sand casting is which of the following types? (a) expendable mold. Answer. (c) container for holding liquid metal. and (4) heat transfer to the surroundings. (b) 44 . solidification occurs at a single temperature. Factors include: (1) pouring temperature. The temperature is called the eutectic temperature. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point. or (b) permanent mold. all correct answers must be given. and (3) thermal contraction in the solid state. 10.16 Identify the three sources of contraction in a metal casting after pouring.15 What is the relationship known as Chvorinov's Rule in casting? Answer.10. (a) In casting. A eutectic alloy is a particular composition in an alloy system for which the solidus and liquidus temperatures are equal.14 What is a eutectic alloy? Answer. (2) solidification shrinkage during transformation of state from liquid to solid. 10.12 What does heat of fusion mean in casting? Answer. since each correct answer is worth 1 point. Cm = constant. For each question. Most alloys (exceptions are eutectic alloys) start to solidify at the liquidus and complete solidification at the solidus. Answer. (2) metal alloy composition. Pure metals solidify at a single temperature equal to the melting point. and A = surface area of casting.11 What are some of the factors affecting the fluidity of a molten metal during pouring into a mold cavity? Answer. 10. where TST = total solidification time. or (d) metal which extrudes between the mold halves. The three contractions occur due to: (1) contraction of the molten metal after pouring. Hence. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers. (3) viscosity of liquid metal.13 How does solidification of alloys differ from solidification of pure metals? Answer. To attain a perfect score on the quiz. Heat of fusion is the amount of heat energy required to transform the metal from solid state to liquid state. (b) box which holds the cope and drag. 10. Answer. Answer. Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 13 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct). and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point. where the liquidus is a higher temperature than the solidus. 10. (a) The upper half of a sand casting mold is called which of the following? (a) cope. V = volume of casting. A chill is a heat sink placed to encourage rapid freezing in certain regions of the casting. 10.17 What is a chill in casting? Answer. a flask is which one of the following? (a) beverage bottle for foundrymen. rather than over a temperature range.1 10.2 10. or (b) drag. 10. Chvorinov's Rule is summarized: TST = Cm(V/A)2.

10 Problems Heating and Pouring 10. (c). Answer. Answer. (d) mushy zone.1 A disk 40 cm in diameter and 5 cm thick is to be casted of pure aluminum in an open mold operation. (c) side riser.7 10.3 J/g. starting from a room temperature of 25°C. Answer.6 10.3 cm3 45 . Tm = melting temperature. Answer. Answer. (c) metal that is not part of the casting. or (e) solidus.5 10. (b) open riser. (b) time between pouring and cooling to room temperature. Assume that the amount of aluminum heated will be 5% more than needed to fill the mold cavity. (b) Hf. (c) Tm. and (d) top riser. or (c) vertical channel into which molten metal is poured into the mold. (a) During solidification of an alloy when a mixture of solid and liquid metals are present. the V/A ratio of the riser should be which one of the following relative to the V/A ratio of the casting itself? (a) equal. (c) liquidus. (b) gating system in which the sprue feeds directly into the cavity. Answer. The melting temperature of aluminum = 660°C and the pouring temperature will be 800°C. and (e) waste metal that is usually recycled. (d) Chvorinov's Rule states that total solidification time is proportional to which one of the following quantities? (a) (A/V)n. (a) and (c).9 10. (d) source of molten metal to feed the casting and compensate for shrinkage during solidification. Assume the specific heat has the same value for solid and molten aluminum. (f) A riser in casting is described by which of the following (may be more than one answer)? (a) an insert in the casting that inhibits buoyancy of the core. (b) greater. where A = surface area of casting. or (c) smaller. and (e). The heat of fusion of aluminum = 389. Other properties can be obtained from Tables 4. Solution: Volume V = πD2h/4= π(40) 2(5)/4 = 6283.2 cm3 Volume of aluminum to be heated = 6283. or (d) time to give up the heat of fusion. (d) V. Hf = heat of fusion.4 In foundry work. and V = volume of casting. the solid-liquid mixture is referred to as whic h one of the following? (a) eutectic composition. In a sand casting mold. Compute the amount of heat that must be added to the metal to heat it to the pouring temperature.10.2(1. (b) ingot segregation.2 in this text. (e) V/A. (b) A riser that is completely enclosed within the sand mold and connected to the main cavity by a channel to feed the molten metal is called which of the following (may be more than one)? (a) blind riser. a runner is which one of the following? (a) channel in the mold leading from the downsprue to the main mold cavity. (d). 10. or (f) (V/A)2.05) = 6597.1 and 4. (c) time between solidification and cooling to room temperature. Answer. (a) Total solidification time is defined as which one of the following? (a) time between pouring and complete solidification.8 10. (b) foundryman who moves the molten metal to the mold.

What area should be used at the base of the sprue to avoid aspiration of the molten metal? Solution: Flow rate Q = 1. specific heat of the metal = 0. top and bottom. whose volume = 75 in3.324 lbm/in 3.265 Btu 10. The cross-sectional area at the base of the sprue is 400 mm2.0) 0.5 = 68. The mold cavity has a volume = 0.7 Molten metal can be poured into the pouring cup of a sand mold at a steady rate of 1000 cm3/s.812.6 in/sec Assuming volumetric continuity. It is desired to maintain a constant flow rate. The cross-sectional area at the bottom of the sprue is 0.From Table 4. Solution: (a) Velocity v = (2 x 9815 x 175) 0.05 in3/sec (c) Time to fill cavity MFT = V/Q = 75.84{177.21} H = 58. The sprue leads into a horizontal runner which feeds the mold cavity.70 g/cm3 and specific heat C = 0.4 A mold has a downsprue of length = 6. At the top where the pouring cup leads into the downsprue.000/1854 = 540 mm2 10.3 + 123.1) = 660.4 cm.88(800-660)} = 17.26 + 80 + 15.1981)} = 213.435. Assume that the amount of metal heated will be 10% more than needed to fill the mold cavity.05 = 2. melting point = 1981 F.093 Btu/lbm-F in the solid state and 0. Properties of the metal are: density = 0.70(6597. Determine what the area should be at the bottom of the sprue if its length = 8.0 l/s = 1.200 = 1.6 in/sec) = 0.000.0 in 2.000.8 + 389. H = 0. and heat of fusion = 80 Btu/lbm.5 = (3.2.8) 0. Compute the amount of heat that must be added to the metal to heat it to a temperature of 2150 F for pouring.093(1981 .000.3){0. (12. the cross-sectional area = 1.2 sec.0 in. and (c) the time required to fill the mold cavity. (b) the volume rate of flow.1 and 4. The plate has dimensions: L = 20 in.3 The downsprue leading into the runner of a certain mold has a length = 175 mm.000 mm3/s Velocity v = (2 x 9815 x 175) 0. determine the proper diameter at its base so as to maintain the same volume flow rate. Determine: (a) the velocity of the molten metal flowing through the base of the downsprue. 46 . in order to avoid aspiration of the liquid metal. The cross-sectional area at the top of the sprue = 800 mm2 and its length = 175 mm.21 Cal/g-°C = 0.5 The flow rate of liquid metal into the downsprue of a mold = 1 liter/sec.000/741.324 x 660{0.0/34.2 x 12 x 6.200 mm3/s (c) Time to fill cavity MFT = V/Q = 1.090(2150 .5 = (4636. and D = 3 in.1 x 0. Solution: (a) Velocity v = (2 x 32.5 in2.5 = (2 x 32.35 s 10.5 = 1853 mm/s (b) Volume flow rate Q = vA = 1853 x 400 = 741.2 A sufficient amount of pure copper is to be heated for casting a large plate in an open mold.5 = 34.1 in/sec (b) Volume flow rate Q = vA = 68. Solution: Volume V = (20 x 10 x 3)(1 + 10%) = 600(1.71{558. Solution: Velocity at base v = (2gh) 0.2 x 12 x 8) 0.0 in 3 Assuming To = 75 °F and using Eq. Determine: (a) the velocity of the molten metal flowing through the base of the downsprue. W = 10 in.5 = 1854 mm/s Area at base A = 1.6 The volume rate of flow of molten metal into the downsprue from the pouring cup is 50 in 3/sec. area at base A = (50 in/sec)/(78.75) + 80 + 0. The cross-section of the sprue is round.096) 0.756 J 10.082. If the sprue is 25 cm long. (b) the volume rate of flow. density ρ = 2.2} = 19.090 Btu/lbm-F in the liquid state.5 = 78.88(660-25) + 389. and (c) the time required to fill the mold cavity.3 + 0.0 in.88 J/g-°C Heat required = 2.636 in2 10. The molten metal overflows the pouring cup and flows into the downsprue. 10.1).001 m3. with a diameter at the top = 3.

(b) the total volume of the mold.6)(6.0 in/sec.5 = 55.675) 0.914 = 2. rearranging.0 in long before leading into the mold cavity. solidification shrinkage = 6.6%.075) = 1.5 cm/s Assuming volumetric continuity. indicating a loss of velocity due to friction in the sprue and runner.6 in 2.1 in/sec Flow rate Q = 68. Solution: For aluminum. and (d) the loss of head in the gating system due to friction.8817) 0.51)/π = 5. D2 = 4A/π = 4(4.5 = 221.0/3 = 33.0 in3/sec Actual velocity v = 33.5 cm/s) = 4.1 x 0. 100 mm on a side.725 cm W = 125(0.0 in/sec (d) v = (2 x 32.863 cm H = 20(0. The cross-sectional area of the runner leading from the sprue also = 0. Its cross-sectional area at the top = 0.9 A mold cavity has the shape of a cube. Solution: For copper. Assume that the mold is full at the start of solidification and that shrinkage occurs uniformly in all directions.086 in Shrinkage 10.066)(1-0.000.5 = 27.5 = (2 x 981 x 25) 0.9589 Final casting dimensions: L = 250(0.3.0/27. Determine the dimensions and volume of the final cube after cooling to room temperature if the cast metal is copper.51 cm2 Area of sprue A = πD2/4. solid contraction during cooling = 5. The downsprue is 6.056) = 0. solid contraction during cooling is 7. h0.5 = 55.049)(1-0.0) = 99.333 = 0. whose volume = 65 in 3.978 h = 1.8 During pouring into a sand mold.025) = 879. Total volumetric contraction = (1-0.6 in 2.000.0 + 25.74 cm2 D = 2.333 = 95.6(8. Solution: (a) Velocity v = (2 x 32.0 sec to fill the entire mold (including cavity.8 h0. Volume of cavity V = (100) 3 = 1.39 cm 10. (c) the actual velocity and flow rate at the base of the sprue.9589) = 19.82 mm 10.10 The cavity of a casting mold has dimensions: L = 250 mm.2 x 12 x 6. Determine the dimensions of the final casting after cooling to room temperature if the cast metal is aluminum.0 + 0.000(1-0.0) + 0.6%.000 mm3 Volume of casting V = 1.8 + 0.914 in Head loss = 6.0/0.5(0. and sprue.000(. At the end of pouring the sprue is filled and there is negligible metal in the pouring cup.9589) = 119. W = 125 mm and H = 20 mm.0 in3 (c) Actual flow rate Q = 99.8 = 1.6 = 55.5%.9782 = 3.178 cm 47 . The volume of the riser located along the runner near the mold cavity = 25 in 3. This is more than the theoretical time required.000.0) 0. the molten metal can be poured into the downsprue at a constant flow rate during the time it takes to fill the mold.2 x 12 x h) 0.9%.60 = 40. runner. solidification shrinkage is 4.9589) = 239.8 in2 and at the base = 0.951)(. It takes a total of 3.5 = 68.8 in3/sec (b) Total V = 65. and it is 8. riser. Find: (a) the theoretical velocity and flow rate at the base of the downsprue.0 .675 mm3 Dimension on each side of cube = (879. Assume that the mold is full at the start of solidification and that shrinkage occurs uniformly in all directions.8817 Linear contraction = (0.0 in long. area at base A = (1000 cm/s)/(221.Solution: Velocity at base v = (2gh) 0.

0348 .99425 Linear contraction = (0.333 = 0. solidification shrinkage is 4.10. Determine the dimensions of the mold cavity to take shrinkage into account. Express your answer in terms of decimal fraction inches of elongation per foot of length compared to a standard rule.1. which means it expands during solidification.2%.0) = 44.040)(1-0.12 Determine the scale of a "shrink rule" that is to be used by pattern-makers for brass which is 70% copper and 30% zinc. and thickness = 20 mm. Determine how long it will take for the casting to solidify.2%.9578) -1 = 1. solid contraction during cooling is 7.14 The final dimensions of a disk-shaped casting of 1.8909) 0.00(1. Total volumetric contraction = (1-0.0348 Elongation of a 12 inch rule = 12(1. solid contraction during cooling is 8.9578 Shrink rule elongation = (0. The gray cast iron has a volumetric contraction of -2.5%.9981 Shrink rule elongation = (0.9622) -1 = 1.5%.9981) -1 = 1. width = 10 cm.1.072) = 0. Total volumetric contraction = (1-0. What adjustment must be made in the units of Cm? 48 . Solution: For 1% carbon steel.00192 Elongation of a 1 meter rule = 1000(1.9664) -1 = 1.0 min/cm2.418 in/ft 10.8786 Linear contraction = (0. solidification shrinkage is 4.75%.49 min 10. the mold constant in Chvorinov's Rule is known to be Cm = 4.5%.072) = 0.99425) 0.9664 Shrink rule elongation = (0.92 mm/m 10. Express your answer in terms of millimeters of elongation per meter of length compared to a standard rule.0275)(1-0.0441 Elongation of a 1 meter rule = 1000(1.9 in Chvorinov's Rule.0%.333 = 0.9622 Oversize factor for mold = (0.333 = 0.03927) = 12.0% carbon steel are: diameter = 12. based on previous experience. Solution: Low carbon steel: solidification shrinkage = 2.030) = 0.0 in and thickness = 0.8786) 0.9025 Linear contraction = (0. solid contraction during cooling = 3.0%. solidification shrinkage = -2.1.0%. Assume that shrinkage occurs uniformly in all directions. The casting is a flat plate whose length = 30 cm.045)(1-0. Express your answer in terms of millimeters of elongation per meter of length compared to a standard rule.080) = 0.8909 Linear contraction = (0.75 in.9025) 0.0) = 1.1 mm/m 10.15 In the casting of steel under certain mold conditions. Solution: Volume V = 30 x 10 x 2 = 600 cm3 Area A = 2(30 x 10 + 30 x 2 + 10 x 2) = 760 cm2 Chvorinov’s Rule: TST = Cm (V/A)2 = 4(600/760) 2 = 2.471 in and t = 0.16 Solve for total solidification time in the previous problem only using a value of n = 1.11 Determine the scale of a "shrink rule" that is to be used by pattern-makers for low carbon steel.0441 .03927 Mold cavity dimensions: D = 12.13 Determine the scale of a "shrink rule" that is to be used by pattern-makers for gray cast iron.025)(1-0.779 in Solidification Time and Riser Design 10. solid contraction = 7. Total volumetric contraction = (1+0. Solution: For brass.333 = 0.0) = 0.03927) = 0. Solution: For gray CI. Total volumetric contraction = (1-0.750(1.00192 .

Solution: (a) For steel.232 (5.000 = 8.5 s = 2.333 = 3.115 mm2 Chvorinov’s Rule: TST = Cm (V/A)2 = 2.3 s = 1.926. V = W/ρ = 20/0.04 in 2 V/A = 42.000 mm2 (V/A) = 125.77) 2 = 74. Determine: (a) the mold constant in Chvorinov's Rule.713.0/5.9 = 2.374)(4. thus L = 1.9 = 4(600/760) 1.0 min to completely solidify.32 in 3 A = 2πD2/4 + πDL = 0. Another cylindrical-shaped casting with the same diameter-to-length ratio weighs 12 lb. The cube was 50 mm on a side.9 .115) 2 = 171.0(3. and (c) the total solidification time of the lighter casting.374) = 4.32/68.63 = 0.000 mm3 Area A = 6 x (50) 2 = 15.17 A disk-shaped part is to be cast out of aluminum.53 in 3 Volume V = πD2L/4 = π(4) 2L/4 = 4πL = 70.5π(3. and (b) the dimensions. (b) If the same alloy and mold type were used.2836 = 70.333 mm Cm = TST/(V/A)2 = 155/(8.1015D 3 D3 = (42.04 = 0.622 in.333) 2 = 2.77 TST = 2.732) = 68. Weight is proportional to volume: V = (12/20)(70.32 in 3)/1. This casting is made of the same steel and the same conditions of mold and pouring were used.343 mm3 Area A = 2πD2/4 + πDL = π(30) 2/2 + π(30)(50) = 6126 mm2 V/A = 35.24 min.61) = 95. (a) Determine the value of the mold constant Cm in Chvorinov's Rule.4025D Volume V = πD2L/4 = π(4) 2(1. it took 155 sec for a cube-shaped casting to solidify. 10.7375 Cm = 6.03(.4025D)/4 = 1.343/6126 = 5. Solution: (a) Volume V = (50) 3 = 125.732 in (c) V = πD2L/4 = π(3.42) 0.18 In casting experiments performed using a certain alloy and type of sand mold.622) 2 = 4.strange but consistent with Chvorinov’s empirical rule.03 min/in2 (b) Find dimensions of smaller cylindrical casting with same D/L ratio and w = 12 lb.19 A steel casting has a cylindrical geometry with 4.000/15.374) 2(4.374 in L = 1.53 in3 Length L = 70.991/424.53/4π = 5. find the total solidification time for a cylindrical casting in which the diameter = 30 mm and length = 50 mm.0 sec/mm2 in Chvorinov's Rule.63 in 2 (V/A) = 70. 10. The diameter of the disk = 500 mm and its thickness = 20 mm.32 in 3 D/L ratio = 4.0/(0. Volume V = πD2L/4 = π(30) 2(50)/4 = 35.53/95.Solution: Chvorinov’s Rule: TST = Cm (V/A)1.926.61 in Area A = 2πD2/4 + πDL = 2π(4) 2/4 + π(4)(5. Note: The density of steel = 490 lb/ft3.732)/4 = 42.991 mm3 Area A = 2πD2/4 + πDt = π(500) 2/2 + π(500)(20) = 424.7353) 2 = 11. If Cm = 2.86 min 10.0 in diameter and weighs 20 lb. how long will it take the casting to solidify? Solution: Volume V = πD2t/4 = π(500) 2(20)/4 = 3.4025(3.1015 = 38. ρ = 490 lb/ft3 = 0.55 min The units for Cm become min/in 1.53) = 42.232 s/mm2 (b) Cylindrical casting with D = 30 mm and L = 50 mm.374) 2 + π(3. This casting takes 6.61 = 0.2836 lb/in3 Weight W = ρV. 49 .42 in 3 D = (38.27 min. TST = 11.

536 dm2 V/A = 1. D3 = 6/π = 1. and (3) a cube with each side = 10 cm.25π dm3 Cylinder area A = 2πD2/4 + πDL = 2π(1) 2/4 + π(1)(1) = π/2 + π = 1. we might revise our answer to part (b) and choose the sphere on the basis that it wastes less metal than the other shapes.0 dm3 Cube area = 6L2 = 6(1) 2 = 6. Solution: For ease of computation.536 = 0.910) 0.273) 0.0 dm3. D = (1.836 = 0.20 The total solidification times of three casting shapes are to be compared: (1) a sphere with diameter = 10 cm. (2) a cylinder. Note.241) 2 = 4.25π/1. The same casting alloy is used in the three cases. The same casting alloy is used in the three cases.524 dm3 = 524 cm3.1667 dm Chvorinov’s Rule TST = (0.02778Cm (2) Cylinder volume V = πD2H/4 = π(1) 2(1)/4 = π/4 = 0.0 dm2 V/A = 1.5 min/cm2 in Chvorinov's Rule.1806) 2Cm = 0.0 dm3 = 1000cm3.02778Cm (3) Cube: V = L3 = (1) 3 = 1.273 dm3 Therefore.0/5.1667) 2Cm = 0. which geometric element would make the best riser? (c) If Cm = 3.02778(350) = 9. that the volumes of the three geometries are different: (1) sphere V = 0.241 dm Sphere area A = πD2 = π(1.0 dm3.1667) 2Cm = 0. For all three geometries.2067 dm Chvorinov’s Rule TST = (0.5 min/cm2 in Chvorinov's Rule. compute the total solidification time for each casting.084) 2/4 + π(1. (a) Determine the relative solidification times for each geometry. cylinder V = 0. D = H = (1.5 min/cm2 = 350 min/dm2.836 dm2 V/A = 1.0326Cm 50 . (1) Sphere volume V = πD3/6 = 1.0. the volume V = 1000 cm3. then TST = 0. (a) Determine the relative solidification times for each geometry.0 dm3. compute the total solidification time for each casting. and (3) a cube.0/4.1667 dm Chvorinov’s Rule TST = (0. Thus 1000 cm3 = 1. Solution: For ease of computation.4 cm3.0428Cm (2) Cylinder volume V = πD2H/4 = πD3/4 = 1. make the substitution 10 cm = 1 decimeter (1 dm).02778Cm (b) All three shapes are equivalent as risers. which geometric element would make the best riser? (c) If Cm = 3.2067) 2Cm = 0. in which the L/D ratio = 1.21 The total solidification times of three casting shapes are to be compared: (1) a sphere.7854 dm3 = 785. and (3) cube V = 1.084) = 5. (b) Based on the results of part (a). (c) If Cm = 3.1806 dm Chvorinov’s Rule TST = (0.084 dm Cylinder area A = 2πD2/4 + πDL = 2π(1. Accordingly.1667 dm Chvorinov’s Rule TST = (0.1667) 2Cm = 0.5π = 0. (2) a cylinder with diameter and length both = 10 cm.723 min.0 = 0.5π dm2 V/A = .084)(1.333 = 1.25π = 0.333 = 1.10. 10. however. (b) Based on the results of part (a). make the substitution 10 cm = 1 decimeter (1 dm) (a) Chvorinov’s Rule: TST = Cm(V/A)2 (1) Sphere volume V = πD3/6 = π(1) 3/6 = π/6 dm3 Sphere area A = πD2 = π(1) 2 = π dm2 V/A = (π/6)/ π = 1/6 = 0. D3 = 4/π = 1.910 dm3.0/6.

with length = 200 mm. If the total solidification time of the casting itself is known to be 3.0866) 2 = 3. Solution: To maximize TST.1416D 2 = 0.75) = 230.5 mm 10. Cylinder volume V = πD2L/4. For a given cylinder volume.0 = 0. πD = 4V/D2 D3 = 4V/π D = (4V/π)0. The casting is a square plate.23 A riser in the shape of a sphere is to be designed for a sand casting mold.0428(350) = 14.0/6.41 min Cube: TST = 0.000 mm3 Casting area A = 2(200 x 100 + 200 x 18 + 100 x 18) = 50.0 dm Cube area = 6L2 = 6(1) 2 = 6. optimal values are D = L = (4V/π)0.000/50.72 min 10. Solution: Casting volume V = LWt = 200(100)(18) = 360. width = 100 mm.0866 Casting TST = Cm(7.98 min Cylinder: TST = 0.0 in 2 51 .001936 = 2259.0)(0.667 = (4V/π)0.0) 2 = 75 in3 Casting area A = 2L2 + 4Lt = 2(10. If the metal is cast iron.0866) 2 = 0.length ratio that will maximize the time to solidify.1667D)2 = 0. (c) Given that Cm = 3.001936D 2 D2 = 4.0697 min/mm2 Riser volume V = πD3/6 = 0.(3) Cube: V = L3 =1.800 = 7.333 Thus.22 A cylindrical riser is to be used for a sand casting mold. L = 1.1667 dm Chvorinov’s Rule TST = (0.50 min Cm = 3.4V/D2 = 0 Rearranging. the V/A ratio must be maximized.800 mm2 V/A = 360. and thickness = 18 mm.0 min/in2 in Chvorinov's Rule.25(3.333. L = 4V/πD2 = 4V/π(4V/π)0.75(10. L = 4V/πD2 Cylinder area A = 2πD2/4 + πDL Substitute the expression for L from the volume equation in the area equation: A = πD2/2 + πDL = πD2/2 + πD(4V/πD2) = πD2/2 + 4V/D Differentiate the area equation with respect to D: dA/dD = πD .5 min/cm2 = 350 min/dm3 Sphere: TST = 0.75 inch.0697(0. since V/A ratio is greatest. and therefore the optimal D/L ratio = 1.5236D 3/3.02778Cm (b) Sphere would be the best riser.1667D TST = 1.0326(350) = 11. determine the diameter of the riser so that it will take 25% longer for the riser to solidify.1416D 2 V/A = 0. The casting is a rectangular plate. Solution: Casting volume V = tL2 = 0.0 dm2 V/A = 1.25 times its diameter.02778(350) = 9. determine the diameter-to.0 10.7 mm2 D = 47. and Cm = 16.5236D 3 Riser area A = πD2 = 3. each side = 10 in and thickness = 0.375 min = 0.1667) 2Cm = 0.24 A cylindrical riser is to be designed for a sand casting mold. determine the dimensions of the riser so that it will take 30% longer for the riser to solidify. The length of the cylinder is to be 1.5/(7.333 From the previous expression for L.5) = 4.0 dm3.375/0.0) 2 + 4(10.5 min. substituting in the equation for D that we have developed.

5417D 2 D2 = 2.5 = 2. determine the dimensions of the riser so that the riser will take 0.5102 = 4.5) + 2(6+3) + 2(5 x 12.081) = 2.5102D 2 = 2.817 + 7.V/A = 75/230 = 0. The casting geometry is illustrated in Figure P10.0 = 61.81 min Riser design: specified TST = 1.36 in 2 V/A = 61.70) = 2.974/203.25πD2 = 1.4π(1.5π(3+1) = 203.25.1786D)2 = 16.3261) 2 = 1.5πD2 = 1.31 min Riser volume V = πD2L/4 = πD3/4 = 0.31 = 19.25 A cylindrical riser with diameter-to-length ratio = 1.602 in. in which the units are inches.065 in.21/0.5 x 1.5 .305) 2 = 1.36 = 0. 52 .25(2. and L = 2.817 in 3 V(upright tube) = 3.1786D Riser TST = 16.5π(5) 2/4) .065 in.5πD2 V/A = .3125πD3/1.25πD3/1.03189)D2 = 0.18.5π + 12.70 min Riser TST = 1.3125πD3 Riser area A = 2πD2/4 + πDH = 0.266 in 2 D = 2.75πD2 = 0.5) 2π/4 + 2.0 = 62.75πD2 V/A = 0.3316) 0.5 min/in2 in Chvorinov's Rule.5π(3) + 1. V(5 in x 10 in rectangular plate) = 5 x 12.0π(2.974 in 3 Total A = 1 x 5 + 1(12.5) 2/4) = 7.3261 Casting TST = 16(0.5π(5) 2(1)/4 = 9. 10.81 + 0.5 = 2.3316 D = (4.2(1.657 in 3 V(3 in x 6 in rectangular cutout) = 3 x 6 x 1 = 18.30(1.0(0.5 in 3 V(5 in. half disk) + V(upright tube) . Solution: Casting volume V = V(5 in x 10 in rectangular plate) + V(5 in.25D) = 0.V(3 in x 6 in rectangular cutout).0 is to be designed for a sand casting mold.0(0.5) 2/4 .21 min D2 = 2.305 in Casting TST = 19.5 + 9.21 min Riser volume V = πD2H/4 = 0.5πD2 = D/6 TST = Cm(V/A)2 2. half disk) = 0.5417 = 4. If Cm = 19.5 minute longer to freeze than the casting itself.5(0.3 x 6) + 2(.5(D/6) 2 = 0.5 + 2.25πD3 Riser area A = πDL + 2πD2/4 = πD2 + 0.0 in 3 Total V = 62.25πD2(1.31/0.081 in H = 1.657 .5πD2 + 1.

Flash is a thin portion at the exterior of a casting that results from molten metal being squeezed into the spaces between the die halves of the mold at the parting line. (2) permeability . The two categories are: (1) expendable mold processes. A split pattern is a pattern that consists of two pieces. Vacuum molding is sand casting in which the sand mold is held together by vacuum pressure rather than a chemical binder. (3) thermal stability .chamber die casting machines require molten metal to be ladled into the chamber from an external source. The mold is 50% sand and 50% plaster heated in an autoclave and then dried.11 METAL CASTING PROCESSES Review Questions 11. or into the clearances around the cores and ejector pins. Hot-chamber machines are faster because cold.ability of the mold to give way during shrinkage of the casting.2 There are various types of patterns used in sand casting.ability of the mold to allow hot air and gases to escape from the cavity. aluminum.4 What properties determine the quality of a sand mold for sand casting? Answer. 11. lead.3 What is a chaplet? Answer.8 What are the most common metals processed using die casting? Answer.6 What is the difference between vacuum permanent-mold casting and vacuum molding? Answer.10 What is the difference between true centrifugal casting and semicentrifugal casting? 53 . 11. Common die cast metals include: zinc. 11. and magnesium. (5) reusability . and (2) permanent mold processes. and why? Answer.ability to maintain shape in the face of the flowing metal.pressure casting in which a vacuum is used to draw molten metal into the cavity.plate pattern? Answer.7 11.1 Name the two basic categories of casting processes? Answer. 11. 11. The usual properties are: (1) strength . 11. Which die casting machines usually have a higher production rate.5 What is the Antioch process? Answer.can the sand be reused to make other molds? 11.ability to resist cracking and buckling when in contact with the molten metal. brass. This mold has greater permeability than a plaster mold.9 What is flash in die casting? Answer. tin. a match-plate pattern consists of the two split patterns attached to opposite sides of a plate. The Antioch process refers to the making of the mold. Vacuum permanent-mold casting is a form of low. cold-chamber or hot-chamber. Chaplets are metal supports of various designs used to hold the core in place in the sand mold. (4) collapsibility . 11. What is the difference between a split pattern and a match.

(b) moisture is contained in the mold. A cupola is a vertical cylindrical furnace equipped with a tapping spout near its base. or (e) shell casting. (b) downward force = Wm . (2) cold shuts. Answer. (b) same size. (3) cold shots. (4) shrinkage cavity. (5) repair if needed. and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point.2 In sand casting. (5) microporosity. the volumetric size of the pattern is which of the following relative to the cast part? (a) bigger. an example is a railway wheel. 11. In true centrifugal casting. (d) shell molding. (e) slush casting. (d) sand casting. and (6) hot tearing.Wc.12 What are some of the operations required of sand castings after removal from the mold? Answer. and flash are removed. (d) 11. or (c) smaller. Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 28 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct). (c) upward force = Wm + Wc. 11. (6) heat treatment. (c) mold is cured.Answer.6. Answer. These operations include: (1) trimming. To attain a perfect score on the quiz. (c) For which of the following reasons is a green mold so.named? (a) green is the color of the mold.5 Given that Wm = weight of the molten metal displaced by a core and Wc = weight of the core. (a) 11. The mold is rotated so that centrifugal force is used to distribute the molten metal to the exterior of the mold so that the density of the final metal is greater at the outer sections. the buoyancy force is which one of the following? (a) downward force = Wm + Wc.6 Which of the following casting processes are expendable mold operations (more than one)? (a) investment casting. (b) low pressure casting. See Article 11. risers. 11. (b) 11. For each question. Answer. Cupolas are used for melting cast irons. Answer. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point. General defects include: (1) misruns. (d) 11. a tubular mold is used and a tubular part is produced. and (7) machining. since each correct answer is worth 1 point. (c) sand casting. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers. 54 . (3) surface cleaning.3 11. Answer. or (d) mold is dry. runners. In semicentrifugal casting. 11. the shape is solid. (4) inspection. (c) investment casting.13 What are some of the general defects encountered in casting processes? Answer. (c) SiO 2. or (d) upward force = Wm . (b) die casting. in which the sprues. (b) SiO. (2) core removal.1. and (f) vacuum molding.11 What is a cupola? Answer.4 Silica sand has which one of the following compositions? (a) Al2O3. or (d) SiSO 4.Wc. all correct answers must be given.1 Which one of the following casting processes is most widely used (one answer)? (a) centrifugal casting.

(c) cast iron. and (f) zinc. (c) steel. and (e) mold can be reused. Answer. (b) and (c). (b) casting operation used to make artificial sea shells. and (f). (a). (b) die casting. Answer. (c) metal solidifies before filling the cavity.9 In plaster mold casting. (b) bronze. Answer.15 A misrun is which one of the following defects in casting? (a) globules of metal becoming entrapped in the casting. or (e) lost-wax process.13 Which of the following are advantages of die casting over sand casting (more than one)? (a) better surface finish. (b) investment casting.7 Shell molding is which one of the following? (a) casting operation in which the molten metal has been poured out after a thin shell has been solidified in the mold. (b) CaSO 4-H2O. and (f). Answer. (c) 55 . (c) steel. (b). (e) 11. and (e) "pipe" formation. (c) casting process in which the mold is a thin shell of sand binded by a thermosetting resin. and (f) vacuum permanent-mold casting. and (f). (d) shell molding. (b) higher melting temperature metals. (c) low pressure casting.12 Which of the following metals would typically be die casted (more than one)? (a) aluminum. 11. Answer. the mold is made of which one of the following materials? (a) Al2O3. (d). 11. (c). (a).11 Which of the following casting processes are permanent mold operations (more than one)? (a) centrifugal casting. (c) SiC. Answer. (e) tungsten. (c). Answer. (d) cast steel.14 Cupolas are furnaces used to melt which of the following metals (choose one best answer)? (a) aluminum. 11. (b) cast iron. (b) metal is not properly poured into the downsprue. (d) microporosity. and (c) shell molding. (a). (e) slush casting. or (d) sand casting operation in which the pattern is a shell rather than a solid form. (d) tin. (c). and (e).8 Investment casting is also known by which one of the following names? (a) fast-payback molding. (c) 11. 11. (a). Answer. (d) sand casting. Answer. Answer. (b) full-mold process. (c) higher production rates. 11.Answer. (d) larger parts can be casted.16 Which one of the following casting metals is most important commercially? (a) aluminum and its alloys. (c) 11. or (d) SiO 2. (d). or (d) zinc. (c) lost-foam process. (b) 11. (d) lost pattern process. (b) 11. (c) plaster mold casting. (e).10 Which of the following qualifies as a precision casting process (more than one)? (a) ingot casting. (b) cast iron. or (e) zinc alloys.

(b) Wm = 325(. and several other caplets are placed above the core to resist the buoyancy force during pouring. The volume of the mold cavity forming the outside surface of the casting = 5000 cm3.4 = 0.85 = 82. A total of 9 caplets are required above the core to resist the buoyancy force. Solution: Sand density = 1.0 in. Determine the buoyancy force in Newtons tending to lift the core during pouring.0 cm.106 lb. 3 Cavity volume V = 5000 cm Volume of casting V = 5000 . 11.5 A horizontal true centrifugal casting operation will be used to make copper tubing. outside diameter = 8.6 g/cm3. 11.Wc Wc = 157(0. Weight of displaced Al-Cu = 35.313) = 101.82 g/cm3 Fb = Wm . The design of the caplets and the manner in which they are placed in the mold cavity surface allows each caplet to sustain a force of 10 lbs.82 .6V = 6. Solution: From Eq.5 m with outside diameter = 15.0 in. density of cast iron ρ = 0. Wm = 157(0. 11.058) = 18.6 A true centrifugal casting operation is to be performed in a horizontal configuration to make cast iron pipe sections. and wall 56 . If the rotational speed of the pipe = 1000 rev/min.26) = 40.3698 = 1302 cm3.2 A sand core located inside a mold cavity has a volume of 157.815 = 149 N. steel casting density = 7. Solution: Core volume V = 20/1605. Probably 3 or 4 caplets would be better to achieve stability.4 A sand core used to form the internal surfaces of a steel casting experiences a buoyancy force of 23 kg. What is the weight of the final casting? Ignore considerations of shrinkage.1.26 lb/in3.1.73 lb.82 lb. GF = R(πN/30) 2/g = 7. At least 2 caplets are required beneath to resist the weight of the core.20) x 9.0 in 3.5 cm.73 .5(π(1000)/30) 2/981 = 83. Weight of the final casting W = 1302(7.1 An aluminum-copper alloy casting is made in a sand mold using a sand core that weighs 20 kg. determine the minimum number of caplets that should be placed: (a) beneath the core.4).184 kg Centrifugal Casting 11. Fb = Wm . Fb = 101.9.17 kg. and the metal poured is brass.17 .Wc = 7.184 g = 10.82) = 10. Fb = 40. If the volume of the core = 325 in. Solution: From Table 13.22V = 23 kg = 23.000 g V = 3698 cm3. Several caplets are located beneath the core to support it before pouring.82V .. and (b) above the core.8 11. determine the G-factor. Determine the buoyancy force that will tend to lift the core during pouring.71 lb. and inside diameter = 12.85 lb. density of brass ρ = 0. Difference = (35. The lengths will be 1.3 Caplets are used to support a sand core inside a sand mold cavity.01246 m3. It is used in the casting of a cast iron pump housing. The sections will have a length = 42.058) = 9.313 lb/in3. 3. (11.18. (a) Wc = 325(0.1.11 = 31.88 lb.Problems Buoyancy Force 11. Solution: From Table 13.

Thus.7 A horizontal true centrifugal casting process is used to make brass bushings with dimensions: L = 10 cm.9 kg-m/s2 Given that 1 N = 9. solidification shrinkage = 4.55 N Fc/A = (34.01259 m3 11. what is the centrifugal force per square meter (Pa) imposed by the molten metal on the inside wall of the mold? Solution: (a) Using the outside wall diameter of the casting. how would weightlessness affect the process? Solution: The mass of molten metal would be unaffected by the absence of gravity.(.(6) 2)(1.25π(. determine the G-factor.5(8)/12 = 0. Area of this length of mold wall A = πDoL = π(15 cm)(1 cm) = 15π cm2 = 15π(10-4) m2 Volume of cast metal V = π(Ro2 .075) = 0.55 N)/(15π x 10-4 m2) = 0.thickness = 0. If the rotational speed of the pipe = 700 rev/min.163) 2/(.7331(104) N/m2 = 7331 Pa 11..4586 m/s)2/(6. If the rotational speed of the pipe = 500 rev/min.8 m/s2 v = πRN/30 = π(. R = 0. Is the operation likely to be successful? Solution: Using outside wall of casting.7)/30 = 645.62g/cm3)(63.86 cm/s = 6.011074 m3 From Table 12.4 g = 0.5484 kg)(6.45 ft/sec. (c) Volume of final product after solidification and cooling is V = (.7 rev/min.252 .5 = 913.252 . Volume of molten metal V = 0.03) 2)π x 1.81 = 34. v = πRN/30 = π(. and the operation is likely to be unsuccessful.75 cm v = π(6.333)(500)/30 = 17.50 in. GF would theoretically go to infinity if g = 0.62 cm3 Mass m = (8.0/4 = . which is equal to the inside wall diameter of the mold. (b) Is the rotational speed sufficient to avoid "rain?" (c) What volume of molten metal must be poured into the mold to make the casting if solidification shrinkage and contraction after solidification are considered? Solution: (a) GF = v2/Rg g = 9. the rotational speed is not sufficient. and wall thickness = 15 mm.Ri2)(1.0 m. (a) Determine the required rotational speed in order to obtain a G-factor of 70.62 cm3) = 548. Fc = 338.25-.45) 2/(.81 kg-m/s2.25 m.75)(913.0) = π((7. Taking these factors into account.5 + 6.2) = 28.333 x 32.75 x 10-2 m) = 338.9/9. The tubes have a length = 1. it should be possible to force the metal against the walls of the mold in centrifugal 57 .125)(700)/30 = 9.5484 kg v = πRN/30 Use mean radius R = (7. D = 15 cm N = (30/π)(2g x 70/15) .1.333 ft.5) 2 . (b) Use 1.222) = 0.125 x 9.163 m/s GF = (9.8 True centrifugal casting operation is performed horizontally to make large diameter copper tube sections.8) = 68. but its weight would be zero. diameter = 0.38 Since the G-factor is less than 60. GF = v2/Rg = (17. Thus. and ID = 12 cm.9 If a true centrifugal casting operation were to be performed in a space station circling the Earth. (b) When operating at this speed. (a) determine the G-factor on the molten metal.0)/2 = 6.54 (b) G-factor is sufficient for a successful casting operation.0) = 63.049)(1-. in the G-factor equation (GF = v2/Rg).011074/(1-.0 cm of mold wall length as basis of area calculations.5% for copper.4585 m/s Centrifugal force per square meter on mold wall = Fc/A where Fc = mv2/R Fc = (0. 11. OD = 15 cm.9% and solid thermal contraction = 7.

25)(406.3125 m) = 10. 11.316 kg v = πRN/30 Use mean radius R = (65 + 60)/4 = 31.4 rev/min (c) Use 5 cm ring length as basis of area calculations. Solution: Volume of final casting V = π(Ro2 .9 g = 19.316 kg)(13.4 cm3) = 19.81 = 1114.5).0 in.3125 m v = π(31.8 m/s2 N = 30(2g x GF/D).2%.072) = 1 .07 m.03)(1-.299 m/s)2/(0.9 cm/s = 13. Fc = 10. and ID = 60 cm.52 . Use g = 981 cm/s2.(60/2) 2)(5.Ri2)L = π(32. given that the liquid shrinkage is 0. (11. outside diameter = 70 mm. Determine the rotational speed that will provide a G-factor = 60.5%. OD = 65 cm.299 m/s Centrifugal force per square meter on mold wall = Fc/A where Fc = mv2/R Fc = (19. (a) Determine the rotational speed that will provide a G-factor = 60.4 rev/min.0 mm. this all assumes that the metal is inside the mold and rotating with it.87g/cm3)(2454. However.2 cm3 11. g = 9.5/π = 406.1021 m2 Volume of cast metal V = π(Ro2 .5 m. With no gravity the liquid metal would not be forced against the lower surface of the mold to initiate the centrifugal action. there would be a problem in pouring the molten metal into the mold cavity and getting it to adhere to the mold wall as the mold begins to rotate. N = 406.1043 The required starting volume of molten metal V = 2454.8 x 60/. 11.(1-.Ri2)(L) = π((65/2) 2 .302)(5) = 2454.25 cm = 0.005)(1-. and from Table 10.0) = 2454. At what speed must the tube be rotated during the operation in order to achieve these specifications? 58 .4 cm3 Density of steel ρ = 7.914. determine the volume of molten metal that must be poured into the mold.7 N/m2 = 10.81 kg-m/s2.914. If the rotational speed computed in that problem were used in the steel casting operation.932.12 A horizontal true centrifugal casting process is used to make lead pipe for chemical plants.4)/30 = 1329.casting without the nuisance of “raining” inside the cavity.5/π = 30(2 x 981 x 60/65) .5 in at the top and 5. D = Do = 65 cm.1 kg-m/s2 Given that 1 N = 9. (d) Would this rotational speed result in a successful operation? Solution: (a) Use inside diameter of mold in Eq.10 A horizontal true centrifugal casting process is used to make aluminum rings with dimensions: L = 5 cm.1. Area of this length of mold wall A = πDoL = π(65 cm)(5 cm) = 1021 cm2 = 0. Solution: D = 70 mm = 0.87 g/cm3 Mass m = (7.4 N)/(0.1021 m2) = 10.07) .932.4 cm3 Given that the molten metal shrinkage = 0.315.4 N Fc/A = (1114.8957) = 2740..8957 = 0.11 For the steel ring of preceding Problem 11. The inside diameter of the tube = 5.13 A vertical true centrifugal casting process is used to make tube sections with length = 10.5 percent. and the solidification shrinkage and solid contraction after freezing can be determined from Table 10.4/(0. determine the G-factor and (c) centrifugal force per square meter (Pa) on the mold wall. (b) Rotational speed would be the same as in part (a) because mass does not enter the computation of rotational speed.1/9.0 in at the bottom. (b) Suppose that the ring were made out of steel instead of aluminum.7 Pa (d) The G-factor of 60 would probably result in a successful casting operation. the total volumetric contraction is 1 .5/π = 30(2 x 9.5/π = 1237. 11.7 rev/min. and thickness = 6.0 in and outside diameter = 6.10(b).1. In the absence of gravity. N = 30(2g x GF/D). the solidification shrinkage for steel = 3% and the solid contraction during cooling = 7. The pipe has length = 0.

92/(Rt2-.224 in.304 .304 .080 = 3.6/15π = 5.3042 + 6.007055 Rt = 0.Ri2)L = π(4.313 = 239.2 m. = 0.Ri2)(15.304+y) 2-(3.005625) = (52.8333 ft Rt = 5. N = (30/π)(2gL/(Rt2-Rb2).5 = (30/π)(2 x 32.Ri2) = 239. both aluminum castings.y = 3. Rb = 150/2 = 75 mm = 0.0 lbs.20833 ft N = (30/π)(2 x 32.5/2 = 2. Defects and Design Considerations 11.5 = 1.915 in 2 Ri = 3.14 A vertical true centrifugal casting process is used to produce bushings that are 200 mm long and 200 mm in outside diameter.3042 + 6.5 = .3042 .384 in. density ρ = 0. and that is the Dt = 6.92/2741.208332).50 in.608y + y2)).6.5 = 9. Sand casting is used to produce the two castings.08399 m = 83.304-y) 2).0752).313 lb/in3 (Table 11.75 in.2 x 12 x 15/((3.0/.085 Ri2 = 16.02814 y = .y. Volume of casting V = 75.080 in.5493(5888) .6 in 3 Assume the inside wall of the casting is straight from top to bottom (an approximation of the parabolic shape).15 A vertical true centrifugal casting process is used to cast brass tubing that is 15.36 (3.304+y) 2-(3.6 in 3 (4. Rt = 3. determine the inside diameter at the top of the bushing if the diameter at the bottom is 150 mm.005625)).608y . determine the inside diameters at the top and bottom of the tubing if the total weight of the final casting = 75.0/2 = 2. 59 .005625)). both of which are plagued by defects in the form of misruns and cold shuts.6) to make the computation of N: N = (30/π)(2gL/(Rt2-Rb2).5 N = (30/π)(3. where y = one-half the difference between Rt and Rb.5 = 1.Solution: Use Eq.y2).02814 (3.5 ((3. 11.16 The housing for a certain machinery product is made of two components.304-y) 2)).02814 (3. The larger component has the shape of a dish sink and the second component is a flat cover that is attached to the first component to create an enclosed space for the machine parts.02 .5 = 1. If the rotational speed during solidification is 500 rpm.304 + y and Rb = Ri .608y + y2 . thus 1000π/30 = (11592/((3.304 in Let Rt = Ri + y = 3.304 + 0.36) 2 = 2741.3042 + 6.92/(Rt2-.5 = 30(11592) .56 = 0.22917 ft Rb = 5.02 .99 mm.608y + y2 .3.0.1).007055) .7 rev/min 11.8333/(.5 = 1.635 (y) . If the speed of rotation during solidification is 1000 rpm. Db = 6. The foreman complains that the thickness of the parts are too thin.(3.2/(Rt2-. Solution: For brass.0 in long and whose outside diameter = 8.448 in.075 m.0 in. = 0.768 in. Solution: L = 200 mm = 0.56 Rt2-. (11.00143 Rt2 = .5 Given N = 1000.216y) .001430 = 0.5 = 500 rev/min (3.5 L = 10 in.92/(Rt2-.085 = 10.02814 3.0) = 239. Rb = 3. = 0.304-y) 2)).5/1000π = 1.0 . N = (30/π)(2gL/(Rt2-Rb2).608y) .2 x .005625 = 3. The average inside radius Ri = (Rt + Rb)/2 Volume V = π(Ro2 .005625 + 0.02814 (2 x 6.5 = 500π/30 = 52.229172-.080 = 3.5 = 732.5 = (13.8 x 0.5 = (30/π)(2 x 9.304+y) 2-(3.5.

However. However. (a) What steps can be taken to correct the defect? (b) What other possible defects might result from taking each of these steps? Solution: (a) What are the possible corrective steps? (1) Reduce pouring temperature. 60 . What other explanation can be given for the defects? Solution: Misruns and cold shuts result from low fluidity.a surface consisting of a mixture of sand and metal. One possible reason for the defects in this case is that the thickness of the casting cross-sections is too small. (2) Increase the packing of the mold sand to resist penetration. (b) What possible defects might result from each of these steps? In the case of step (1). it is known that the same components are cast successfully in other foundries.17 A large steel sand casting shows the characteristic signs of penetration defect . 11. the risk is for cold shuts and misruns. given that the casting of these parts is successfully accomplished at other foundries. (3) Treat the mold cavity surface to make it harder. two other possible explanations are: (1) the pouring temperature is too low. and (2) the pouring operation is performed too slowly.reason for the defects. Steps (2) and (3) would reduce permeability of the sand. thus increasing the risk of sand blows and pin holes.

2 12. if needed. molten glass flows around a rotating hollow mandrel through which air is blown while the glass is being drawn. and (3) heat treatment. 12.3 What is the predominant chemical compound in almost all glass products? Answer.SiO2. 12. (2) day tanks. polishing. etching) are performed on some glass products. Spinning in glassworking is similar to centrifugal casting in metalworking. Answer. in which fine glass fibers are pulled through small orifices in a heated plate.12 GLASSWORKING Review Questions 12. 12. The methods described in this test are: (1) rolling. and (4) electric furnaces. Finishing operations (e. in which molten glass is forced to flow through small orifices in a rapidly rotating bowl to form glass fibers. 12.8 Describe the Danner process? Answer. The two processes in the text are: (1) drawing. grinding. yet glass is different from the traditional and new ceramics. In the Danner process. and (2) the float process. Glass is vitreous . The temperature of the air and its volumetric flow rate as well as the drawing velocity determine the diameter and wall thickness of the tubular cross-section. 12. Name three of the four types.. and (2) centrifugal spraying. Name and briefly describe one of them.6 What is the main difference between the press-and-blow and the blow-and-blow shaping processes in glassworking? Answer. polycrystalline materials. Silica . 61 . What is the difference? Answer. 12. During hardening. whereas traditional and new ceramics are. the glass tube is supported by a series of rollers extending beyond the mandrel.5 Describe the spinning process in glassworking. The four types are: (1) pot furnaces. (3) continuous tank furnaces. in which the hot glass is squeezed between opposing cylindrical rolls. 12. What are the three basic steps in the glassworking sequence? Answer.7 There are several ways of shaping plate or sheet glass.4 Melting furnace for glassworking can be divided into four types. Answer.it is in the glassy state. causing centrifugal force to spread the glass upward onto the mold surface.9 Two processes for forming glass fibers are discussed in the text.g. In the press-and-blow process. the initial forming step is pressing of the part.1 We have classified glass as a ceramic material. in which the melted glass flows onto a molten tin surface to achieve uniform thickness and smoothness. (1) raw materials preparation and melting. (2) shaping. while the first step in the blow-and-blow process is blowing. Name and briefly describe one of them. by and large. A gob of molten glass is dropped in to a conical mold which spins. Answer. Answer.

62 . Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers. Answer. To attain a perfect score on the quiz.12. or (d) 2000°C to 2200°C. Answer.2 Besides helping to preserve the environment.1 Which one of the following terms refers to the glassy state of a material? (a) crystalline. (d) vitiated. Answer.5 Casting is a glassworking process used for high production. (See Section 14.10 What is the purpose of annealing in glassworking? Answer. since each correct answer is worth 1 point. (c) makes the glass stronger. all correct answers must be given. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point. not tensile loads.3 The charge in glassworking is which one of the following? (a) the duration of the melting cycle. (3) use large radii on inside and outside corners. Answer. 12. (b) devitrified. Annealing is performed on glass to remove internal stresses that result from shaping and solidification.) Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 10 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct). Answer. Answer. The guidelines are: (1) subject ceramic parts to compressive. or (d) the starting materials in melting. 12. 12. (b) makes the glass easier to melt. (b) 900°C to 1000°C. (2) ceramics are brittle. It is a slow process for these large products.4.13 What are some of the design recommendations for glass parts? Answer. Laminated glass.12 Describe the type of material that is commonly used to make windshields for automobiles. Answer. (b) Casting is used in glassworking for large components like giant telescope lenses in small lot sizes. so avoid impact loading. For each question. (c) the name given to the melting furnace. (c) 1500°C to 1600°C. This has good impact resistance and does not splinter when broken. which strengthens it. (b) the electric energy required to melt the glass.11 Describe how a piece of glass is heat treated to produce tempered glass. (a) True. (b) 12. 12. the use of recycled glass as an ingredient of the starting material in glassmaking serves what other useful purpose (one only)? (a) adds coloring variations to the glass for aesthetic value. (e) 12. in which two sheets of glass are laminated on either side of a polymer sheet. as the interior cools and contracts. or (b) false.4 Typical glass melting temperatures are in which of the following ranges? (a) 400°C to 500°C. and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point. it puts the previously hardened surfaces in compression. (4) screw threads should be course. (c) 12. (d) 12. or (d) reduces odors in the plant. The glass is heated to a temperature above the annealing temperature and the surfaces are then quenched by air jets to cool and harden them while the interior of the piece remains plastic. (c) polycrystalline. or (e) vitreous.

while the blow-and-blow process is more appropria te for producing (wide-mouthed) jars.20 in) takes 10 minutes to anneal. Answer. (c) The rule is that annealing time varies as the square of the wall thickness.10 A lehr is which of the following? (a) a lion's den. (d) an annealing furnace. or (d) spinning. (c) quenching.202 = 2.30/0.30 in) take to anneal (choose the closest answer)? (a) 10 minutes. (c) rolling. (d) 63 . (c) a sintering furnace. Answer. Which one of the following processes is used to produce glass tubing? (a) Danner process. (a) True. That would indicate an annealing time of 0. Answer.12. (b) pressing.5 mm (0.9 12. Answer. (b) a melting furnace. (c) 20 minutes. or (b) false. 12. 12. (d) Sintering is used to cause bonding of particulate materials such as metal and ceramic powders. (b) 15 minutes. how much time would a glass part of similar geometry but with a wall thickness of 7. and (e) spinning.7 The press-and-blow process is best suited to the production of (narrow-necked) beverage bottles. Answer.8 12.5 minutes. (a) If a glass part with a wall thickness of 5 mm (0. (b) It's the reverse. 20 minutes is closest. (d) sintering. (b) pressing.6 Which one of the following processes or processing steps is not applicable in glassworking? (a) annealing. or (e) none of the above. or (c) 30 minutes.25 times 10 minutes or 22.

13. Some of the reasons are: (1) many of the processes are net shape processes. (4) fibers.the tendency to return to its previous shape. 13. The categories are: (1) extrusion. Answer. Viscosity of a polymer melt depends on: (1) temperature. In plastic extrusion. (5) foamed products.9 What are the functions of the screen pack and breaker plate at the die end of the extruder barrel? 64 . 13. (1) feed section. in which the polymer changes to a viscous fluid. Die swell is the tendency of the extrudate to expand in cross-section dimensions immediately on exiting the die orifice.4 How does the viscosity of a polymer melt differ from most fluids that are Newtonian.8 The barrel and screw of an extruder are generally divided into three sections. identify the sections. as exhibited by die swell in extrusion. (3) lower temperatures are required to process plastics than metals or ceramics. and (6) discrete formed sheets and films.7 Briefly describe the plastic extrusion process. (3) forming of continuous sheets and films.6 Define die swell in extrusion. Other properties include: viscoelasticity. Answer.3 Viscosity is an important property of a polymer melt in plastics shaping processes. Answer.2 Identify the main categories of plastics shaping processes.1 SHAPING PROCESSES FOR PLASTICS Review Questions What are some of the reasons why the plastic shaping processes are important? Answer. and (5) painting and other finishing processes generally not required. in which pressure is developed to pump the plastic through the die orifice. 13. A polymer melt exhibits pseudoplasticity. 13. Of course. 13. (2) in general. less energy employed than in metalworking processes. Answer. (3) the molecular weight of the polymer also affects viscosity. in which the feed stock is fed from the hopper and heated. what other properties of a polymer melt are important in plastics processing? Briefly define each of the properties identified. It results from the viscoelastic properties of the polymer melt. 13. (4) great flexibility in geometry. (2) compression section. (2) molding.5 Besides viscosity. 13. Upon what parameters does viscosity depend? Answer. which means that its value decreases with increasing shear rate. Answer. a polymer melt is compressed to flow through a die orifice and thus the continuous length of the plastic assumes a cross-sectional shape that is approximately the same as the profile of the orifice. a combination of viscous and elastic properties which cause the melt to exhibit memory . Answer. and (2) shear rate. as classified by the resulting product geometry.13 13. and (3) metering section.

there are hydromechanical units which combine hydraulic and mechanical actuations. Thickness.020 in (0.17. 13. 13.6. identify them. thin strand of material whose length is at least 100 times its diameter. 13. (2) the thinner cross. 65 .17 Briefly describe the injection molding process. 13.18 An injection molding machine is divided into two principal components. In the process. 13.13 Describe the calendering process. acrylics. which are the most important? Answer. Answer.section of the gate freezes more rapidly to seal off the cavity.020 in (0. The components of an injection molding machine are: (1) the injection unit and (2) the clamping unit. Answer. Calendering is a process for producing sheet and film stock out of rubber or rubbery thermoplastics such as plasticized PVC. 13. while film stock is less than 0.19 What are the two basic types of clamping units? Answer. (2) hollow profiles. and rayon.5 mm) thick. See beginning of Section 15. It combines extrusion and blowing to produce a tube of thin film. and (3) parts can be more easily broken off the runner at the gate. 13.11 What is the distinction between plastic sheet and film? Answer. (3) wire and cable coating. The blown-film process is a widely used process for making thin polyethylene film for packaging. Answer. what is the most important application? Answer. Sheet stock has a thickness greater than 0. 13. Textiles.5 mm).20 Gates in injection molds have several functions. Answer. such as tubes. name them. The functions are: (1) filter dirt and lumps.Answer. The clamping units are: (1) mechanical toggle clamp and (2) hydraulic. such as rounds and L-shapes. 13. (3) straighten the flow and remove memory.15 Technically. the initial feedstock is passed through a series of rolls to work the material and reduce its thickness to the desired gage. The process begins with the extrusion of a tube which is immediately drawn upward while still molten and simultaneously expanded in size by air inflated into it through the die mandrel. See Figure 13.10 What are the various forms of extruded shapes and corresponding dies? Answer.16 Among the synthetic fiber materials. (1) solid profiles. followed by nylon. a filament is a fiber of continuous length. In addition. 13.14 Polymer fibers and filaments are used in several applications. (2) build pressure. what is the difference between a fiber and a filament? Answer. and (5) filaments (continuous fibers). 13. A fiber is a long.12 What is the blown-film process for producing film stock? Answer. (4) sheet and film. Polyester is the most important commercially. The functions of gates in an injection mold are: (1) to increase shear rate to increase viscosity and temperature of the polymer melt.

21 What are the advantages of a three-plate mold over a two. 13.23 Describe structural foam molding.24 What are the significant differences in the equipment and operating procedures between injection molding of thermoplastics and injection molding of thermosets? Answer. flashing. seamless containers. 13. The differences in injection molding of thermosets are: (1) shorter barrel length.28 What is the difference between a positive mold and a negative mold in thermoforming? Answer.plate mold in injection molding? Answer.26 What kinds of products are produced by blow molding? Answer. A positive mold has a convex shape. only one mold form is required. in which the polymer melt solidifies before filling the cavity. (2) mixing a physical blowing agent with the polymer . Thermoforming starts with a thermoplastic sheet or film. Answer. matching mold halves are required. 66 . then hardening the polymer by means of heat or chemical reaction. (2) lower temperatures in the barrel. Reaction injection molding involves the mixing of two highly reactive liquid ingredients and immediately injecting the mixture into a mold cavity where chemical reactions leading to solidification occur.mixing a liquid resin with air by. In mechanical thermoforming. 13. 13. so that the gas comes out of solution and expands when the pressure is subsequently reduced. 13. As the mold opens.30 What are the processes by which polymer foams are produced? Answer. a negative mold has a concave cavity. The defects include: short shots.29 Why are the molds generally more costly in mechanical thermoforming than in pressure or vacuum thermoforming? Answer. 13. the three-plate mold automatically separates the molded part(s) from the runner system. sink marks. There are several foaming processes: (1) mechanical agitation . this results in the part having a tough outer skin surrounded by a foam core. while in other thermoforming processes. called chemical blowing agents.25 What is reaction injection molding? Answer.1).22 Discuss some of the defects that can occur in plastic injection molding. and (3) mixing the polymer with chemical compounds. Answer. The two ingredients form the components used in catalyst-activated or mixing-activated thermoset systems (Section 8. these first two reasons to prevent premature curing.a gas such as nitrogen (N2) or pentane (C5H12) which can be dissolved in the polymer melt under pressure. and (3) use of a heated mold to cause cross-linking of the TS polymer. and weld lines where the melt has flowed around a core or 13. Structural foam molding is an injection molding process in which a gas or gas-producing ingredient is mixed with the polymer melt prior to injection into the mold cavity. 13. that decompose at elevated temperatures to liberate gases such as CO2 or N2 within the melt. Blow molding is used to produce hollow. in which the surface is drawn into the molding by contraction of internal material.13. such as bottles.27 What is the starting material form in thermoforming? Answer.3. in which the polymer melt is squeezed into the parting surfaces between the mold halves and around ejection pins. 13.

Some of the general considerations are : (1) Plastics are not as strong or stiff as metals and should not be used in applications where high stresses will be encountered. (d) Calendering is more closely associated with rubber coating of materials such as textiles. all correct answers must be given.4 Which of the following processes is not associated with the production of plastic sheet and film (more than one)? (a) blown-film extrusion process. (c) both of the above. (b).31 What are some of the general considerations that product designers must keep in mind when designing components out of plastics? Answer. Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 36 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct). (a). and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point. since each correct answer is worth 1 point.3 Which three of the following are sections of a conventional extruder barrel for thermoplastics? (a) compression section. Answer.2 The forward movement of polymer melt in an extruder barrel is resisted by drag flow. and rate of flow (c) is related to shear rate. (b) die section. and (f) shaping section. which is caused by the resistance to flow through the die orifice: (a) true or (b) false. (c) rate of flow. and (e) 13. but should be included in our list of plastic sheet and film-making processes. Finally. plastics are soluble in many common solvents. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers. 13. (d) heating section. (4) Thermal expansion is greater for plastics than metals. 13. (b) hopper. (c) feed section. some plastics degrade in oxygen and ozone atmospheres. Answer. Degree of polymerization (a) is correlated with molecular weight. Also. To attain a perfect score on the quiz. For each question. or (d) none of the above. 13. The other parameters. or (e) slit-die extrusion. (c). (d) doctor blade method. (a). (b) polymer type. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point. Answer.6 The principal components of an injection molding machine are which two of the following? (a) clamping unit. (b) and (d).13. Answer.1 The shear viscosity of a polymer melt is affected by which of the following (more than one)? (a) degree of polymerization. and (e) part ejection unit. Answer. are probably more recognizable to the reader as correct answers to this question. (a) and (c) 67 . Answer. (5) Many types of plastics degrade from sunlight and certain other forms of radiation. (3) Service temperatures of plastics are limited relative to engineering metals and ceramics. (c) injection unit. (c).5 Spinning in the production of synthetic fibers refers to which of the following: (a) extrusion of polymer melt through small die openings. (d) temperature. 13. (d) mold. so dimensional changes due to temperature variations are much more significant than for metals. (c) 13. (b) drawing the strands to elongate and thin them. better than many ceramics. The resistance to forward flow is called back pressure flow. (c) chill-roll extrusion. and (d). (b) Drag flow is the forward motion of the melt caused by the Archimedian screw principle in the barrel. (2) Impact resistance of plastics is general good. (b) calendering. (e) metering section.

13.7

The parting line in injection molding is which one of the following: (a) the lines formed where polymer melt meets after flowing around a core in the mold, (b) the narrow gate sections where the parts are separated from the runner, (c) where the clamping unit is joined to the injection unit in the molding machine, (d) where the two mold halves come together, (e) none of the above. Answer. (d) The function of the ejection system is to (one best answer): (a) move polymer melt into the mold cavity, (b) open the mold halves after the cavity is filled, (c) remove the molded parts from the runner system after molding, (d) separate the part from the cavity after molding, (e) none of the above. Answer. (d) A three-plate mold offers which of the following advantages when compared to a two-plate mold (more than one)? (a) automatic separation of parts from runners, (b) gating is usually at the base of the part to reduce weld lines, (c) sprue does not solidify, (d) stronger molded parts, (e) none of the above. Answer. (a) and (b)

13.8

13.9

13.10 Which of the following defects or problems is associated with injection molding (more than one)? (a) bambooing, (b) die swell, (c) drag flow, (d) flash, (e) melt fracture, (f) short shots, or (g) sink marks. Answer. (d), (f), and (g) 13.11 In rotational molding, centrifugal force is used to force the polymer melt against the surfaces of the mold cavity where solidification occurs: (a) true or (b) false. Answer. (b) It is the force of gravity in the doubly rotating mold that forces the polymer against the mold surfaces. 13.12 Use of a parison is associated with which one of the following plastic shaping processes? (a) bi-injection molding, (b) blow molding, (c) compression molding, (d) pressure thermoforming, or (e) sandwich molding. Answer. (b) 13.13 A thermoforming mold with a convex form is called which one of the following (may be more than one)? (a) a die, (b) a negative mold, (c) a positive mold, or (d) a three-plate mold. Answer. (c) 13.14 The term encapsulation refers to which one of the following plastics shaping processes? (a) casting, (b) compression molding, (c) extrusion of hollow forms, (d) injection molding in which a metal insert is encased in the molded part, or (e) vacuum thermoforming using a positive mold. Answer. (a) 13.15 Which of the following terms applies to the processing of foam plastics (more than one)? (a) chemical blowing agents, (b) open cell structure, (c) powder injection molding, (d) sandwich molding, (e) structural foam molding, (f) all of the above. Answer. (a), (b), (d), and (e). 13.16 The two most common polymer foams are which of the following? (a) polyacetal, (b) polyethylene, (c) polystyrene, (d) polyurethane, and (e) polyvinylchloride.

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Answer. (c) and (d) 13.17 In which of the following property categories do plastic parts compare favorably with metals (more than one)? (a) impact resistance, (b) resistance to ultraviolet radiation, (c) stiffness, (d) strength, (e) strength-to- weight ratio, or (f) temperature resistance. Answer. (a) and (e). 13.18 Which of the following processes are generally limited to thermoplastic polymers (more than one)? (a) blow molding, (b) compression molding, (c) reaction injection molding, (d) thermoforming, (e) transfer molding, (f) wire coating. Answer. (a) and (d). 13.19 Which of the following processes would be applicable to produce hulls for small boats (more than one)? (a) blow molding, (b) compression molding, (c) injection molding, (d) rotational molding, or (e) vacuum thermoforming. Answer. (a), (d), and (e).

Problems

Extrusion 13.1 The diameter of an extruder barrel is 65 mm and its length = 1.75 m. The screw rotates at 55 rev/min. The screw channel depth = 5.0 mm, and the flight angle = 18°. The head pressure at the die end of the barrel is 5.0 x 106 Pa. The viscosity of the polymer melt is given as 100 Pas. Find the volume flow rate of the plastic in the barrel. Solution: Qd = 0.5π 2(65x10-3)2(55/60)(5x10-3)sin 18 cos 18 = 95,560x10-9(0.3090)(0.9510) = 28.081 x 10-6 m3/s p = 5 MPa = 5x106 n/m2 Qb = π(5x106)(65x10-3)(5x10-3)3(sin 18) 2/12(100)(1.75) = 5.804 x 10-6 m3/s Qx = 28.081 - 5.804 = 22.277 x 10 -6 m3/s. 13.2 An extruder barrel has a diameter of 120 mm and a length = 3.0 m. The screw channel depth = 8.0 mm, and its pitch = 95 mm. The viscosity of the polymer melt is 75 Pas, and the head pressure in the barrel is 4.0 MPa. What rotational speed of the screw is required to achieve a volumetric flow rate of 90 cm3/s? Solution: A = tan-1(95/120π) = 14.14° Qd = 0.5π 2(.12) 2(N)(8x10-3)sin 14.14 cos 14.14 = 0.5685x10-3(0.2444)(0.9697) = 134.73 N x 10-6 m3/s Qb = π(4x106)(.12)(8x10-3)3(sin 14.14) 2/12(75)(3.0) = 26.66 x 10-6 m3/s Qx = Qd - Qb = 157.5 N x 10-6 - 26.66 x 10-6 = 90 x 10-6 m3/s 134.73 N = 90 + 26.66 = 116.66 N = 116.66/134.73 = 0.8659 rev/s = 51.95 rev/min. 13.3 An extruder has diameter = 80 mm and length = 2.0 m. Its screw has a channel depth = 5 mm, flight angle = 18 degrees, and it rotates at 1 rev/sec. The plastic melt has a shear viscosity = 150 Pas. Determine the extruder characteristic by computing Qmax and p max and then finding the equation of the straight line between them. Solution: Qmax = Qd = 0.5π 2(.08) 2(1)(5x10-3)sin 18 cos 18 = 0.158 x 10-3(0.3090)(0.9510) = 46.4 x 10-6 m3/s pmax = 6π(.08)(1)(2)(150)(cot 18)/(5x10-3)2 = 452.4(3.077)/25x10-6 = 55 x 106 Pa = 55 MPa

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Qx = 46.4 x 10-6 - (46.4x10-6/55)p Qx = 46.4 x 10 -6 - 0.8436 x 10-6 p, where p has units of MPa 13.4 Determine the helix angle A such that the screw pitch p is equal to the screw diameter D. This is called the "square" angle in plastics extrusion - the angle that provides a flight advance equal to one diameter for each rotation of the screw. Solution: Assume flight land = zero. From Eq. (15.4), tan A = pitch/πD If pitch = D, then A = tan-1(1/π) = 17.66° ° 13.5 An extruder barrel has a diameter of 2.5 in. The screw rotates at 60 rev/min; its channel depth = 0.20 in, and its flight angle = 17.5°. The head pressure at the die end of the barrel is 800 lb/in 2 and the length of the barrel is 50 in. The viscosity of the polymer melt is 122 x 10-4 lb-sec/in 2. Determine the volume flow rate of the plastic in the barrel. Solution: Qd = 0.5π 2(2.5) 2(1)(.2)sin 17.5 cos 17.5 = 0.5(12.337)(0.3007)(0.9537) = 1.769 in 3/sec Qb = π(800)(2.5)(.2) 3(sin 17.5) 2/12(122x10-4)(50) = 0.621 in 3/sec Qx = 1.769 - 0.621 = 1.148 in3/sec. 13.6 An extruder barrel has a diameter of 4.0 in and an L/D ratio of 28. The screw channel depth = 0.25 in, and its pitch = 4.8 in. It rotates at 60 rev/min. The viscosity of the polymer melt is 100 x 10-4 lb-sec/in 2. What head pressure is required to obtain a volume flow rate = 150 in 3/min? Solution: A = tan-1(pitch/πD) = tan-1(4.8/4π) = 20.9° Qd = 0.5π 2(4) 2(1)(.25)sin 20.9 cos 20.9 = 19.74(0.3567)(0.9342) = 6.578 in 3/sec = 394.66 in 3/min Qx = Qd - Qb = 394.66 - Qd = 150 Qb = 394.66 - 150 = 244.66 in 3/min = 4.078 in3/sec L = 4(28) = 112 in. Qb = πp(4)(.25) 3(sin 20.9) 2/12(100x10-4)(112) = 4.078 0.0018592 p = 4.078 p = 2193.4 lb/in2 13.7 An extrusion operation produces continuous tubing with outside diameter = 2.0 in and inside diameter = 1.7 in. The extruder barrel has a diameter = 4.0 in and length = 10 ft. The screw rotates at 50 rev/min; it has a channel depth = 0.25 in and flight angle = 16°. The head pressure has a value of 350 lb/in 2 and the viscosity of the polymer melt is 80 x 10-4 lb-sec/in 2. Under these conditions, what is the production rate in length of tube/min, assuming the extrudate is pulled at a rate that eliminates the effect of die swell (i.e., the tubing has the same OD and ID as the die profile). Solution: Qd = 0.5π 2(4) 2(50/60)(.25)sin 16 cos 16 = 16.45(0.2756)(0.9613) = 4.358 in 3/sec Qb = π(350)(4)(.25) 3(sin 16) 2/12(80x10-4)(120) = 0.453 in 3/sec Qx = 4.358 - 0.453 = 3.905 in 3/sec. Ax = 0.25π(22 - 1.72) = 0.872 in 2 vx = 3.905/0.872 = 4.478 in/sec = 22.39 ft/min. 13.8 An extruder has barrel diameter and length of 100 mm and 2.8 m, respectively. The screw rotational speed = 50 rev/min, channel depth = 7.5 mm, and flight angle = 17°. The plastic melt has a shear viscosity = 175 Pas. Determine: (a) the extruder characteristic, (b) the shape factor Ks for a circular die opening with diameter = 3.0 mm and length = 12.0 mm, and (c) the operating point (Q and p). Solution: Qmax = Qd = 0.5π 2(.1) 2(50/60)(7.5x10-3)sin 17 cos 17 = 308.4 x 10-6(0.2924)(0.9563)

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= 86.2 x 10-6 m3/s pmax = 6π(.1)(50/60)(2.8)(175)(cot 17)/(7.5x10-3)2 = 44.75 x 106 Pa =44.75 MPa Qx = 86.2 x 10 -6 - 1.926 x 10-12 p, where p has units of Pa (b) Given: Dd = 3 mm, Ld = 12 mm. Ks = π(3 x 10-3)4/128(175)(12 x 10-3) = 0.9467 x 10 -12 (c) 0.9467 x 10-12 p = 86.2 x 10-6 - 1.926 x 10-12 p 2.8727 x 10-12 p = 86.2 x 10-6 p = 30.0 x 10 6 Pa = 30 MPa Qx = 0.9467 x 10-12 (30 x 106) = 28.4 x 10 -6 m3/s Check with extruder characteristic: Qx = 86.2 x 10-6 - 1.926 x 10-12 (30 x 106) = 28.4 x 10-6 m3/s. 13.9 Consider an extruder in which the barrel diameter = 4.5 in and length = 11 ft. The extruder screw rotates at 60 rev/min; it has channel depth = 0.35 in and flight angle = 20°. The plastic melt has a shear viscosity = 125 x 10-4 lb-sec/in 2. Determine: (a) Qmax and p max, (b) the shape factor Ks for a circular die opening in which Dd = 0.312 in and Ld = 0.75 in, and (c) the values of Q and p at the operating point. Solution: (a) Qmax = 0.5π 2(4.5) 2(1)(.35)sin 20 cos 20 = 34.975(0.342)(0.9397) = 11.24 in 3/sec pmax = 6π(4.5)(1)(132)(.0125)(cot 20)/(0.35) 2 = 3139 lb/in2 (b) Given: Dd = 0.312 in., Ld = 0.75 in. Ks = π(.312) 4/128(.0125)(.75) = 0.024808 (c) From (a), Qx = Qmax - (Qmax/pmax)p = 11.24 - 0.003581p From (b), Qx = 0.024808p Combining, .024808p = 11.24 - .003581p .02839p = 11.24 p = 395.9 lb/in2 Qx = 11.24 - 0.003581(395.9) = 9.82 in3/sec 13.10 An extruder has a barrel diameter = 5.0 in and length = 12 ft. The extruder screw rotates at 50 rev/min; it has channel depth = 0.30 in and flight angle = 17.7°. The plastic melt has a shear viscosity = 100 x 10-4 lb- sec/in 2. Find: (a) the extruder characteristic, (b) the values of Q and p at the operating point, given that the die characteristic is Qx = 0.00150 p. Solution: (a) Qmax = 0.5π 2(5) 2(50/60)(.3)sin 17.7 cos 17.7 = 30.84(0.3040)(0.9527) = 8.93 in 3/sec pmax = 6π(5)(50/60)(144)(.01)(cot 17.7)/(0.3) 2 = 3937.6 lb/in2 Qx = Qmax - (Qmax/pmax)p = 8.93 - 0.002268p (b) Given: die characteristic Qx = 0.0015p Qx = 8.93 - 0.002268p = 0.0015p 0.00377p = 8.93 p = 2370 lb/in2 Qx = 8.93 - 0.002268(2370) = 3.55 in3/sec 13.11 An extruder has a barrel diameter = 4.0 in and length = 5.0 ft. The extruder screw rotates at 80 rev/min. It has a channel with depth = 0.15 in and flight angle = 20°. The polymer melt has a shear viscosity = 60 x 10-4 lb- sec/in 2 at the operating temperature of the process. The specific gravity of the polymer is 1.2. (a) Find the equation for the extruder characteristic. If a T-shaped cross-section is extruded at a rate of 0.13 lb/sec, determine: (b) the operating point (Q and p), and (c) the die characteristic that is indicated by the operating point. Solution: (a) Qmax = 0.5π 2(4) 2(80/60)(.15)sin 20 cos 20 = 15.79(0.3420)(0.9397) = 5.075 in 3/sec pmax = 6π(4)(80/60)(60)(.006)(cot 20)/(0.15) 2 = 1104.8 lb/in2

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Qx = Qmax - (Qmax/pmax)p = 5.075 - 0.004593p (b) Given: T-shaped cross section extruded at 0.13 lb/sec. Density of polymer ρ = 1.2(62.5 lb/ft3)/(12 in 3/ft3) = 0.0433 lb/in3 Qx = 0.13/0.0433 = 3.0 in 3/sec. 3.0 = 5.075 - 0.004593p 0.004593p = 5.075 - 3.0 = 2.075 p = 451.8 lb/in2 (c) Qx = Ks p Ks = Qx/p = 3.0/451.8 = 0.00664 Qx = 0.00664 p Injection Molding 13.12 Compute the percentage volumetric contraction of a polyethylene molded part, based on the value of shrinkage given in Table 13.1. Solution: 15.12 S = 0.025 for polyethylene from Table 13.1. Volumetric contraction = 1.0 - (1 - .025) 3 = 1.0 - 0.92686 = 0.07314 = 7.314% Note that we are not using the parameter S from Table 13.1 in the way it was intended to be used. Its intended use is to compute the oversized dimension of a mold cavity in injection molding. Instead, we are using the shrinkage term to calculate the amount of (volumetric) reduction in size of the part after the polymer is injected into the cavity. In fact, a slightly different shrinkage parameter value may apply in this case. 13.13 The specified dimension = 100.00 mm for a certain injection molded part made of nylon-6,6. Compute the corresponding dimension to which the mold cavity should be machined, using the value of shrinkage given in Table 13.1. Solution: S = 0.020 for nylon-6,6 from Table 13.1. Dc = 100.0 + 100(0.020) + 100(0.020) 2 = 100 + 2.02 + 0.04 = 102.04 mm. 13.14 The part dimension for a certain injection molded part made of polycarbonate is specified as 3.75 in. Compute the corresponding dimension to which the mold cavity should be machined, using the value of shrinkage given in Table 13.1. Solution: S = 0.007 for polycarbonate from Table 13.1. Dc = 3.75 + 3.75(0.007) + 3.75 (0.007) 2 = 3.75 + 0.0263 + 0.0002 = 3.7765 in. 13.15 The foreman in the injection molding department says that a polyethylene part produced in one of the operations has greater shrinkage than the calculations indicate it should have. The important dimension of the part is specified as 112.5 ±0.25 mm. However, the actual molded part measures 112.02 mm. (a) As a first step, the corresponding mold cavity dimension should be checked. Compute the correct value of the mold dimension, given that the shrinkage value for polyethylene is 0.025 (from Table 13.1). (b) What adjustments in process parameters could be made to reduce the amount of shrinkage. Solution: (a) Given: S = 0.025, Dc = 112.5 + 112.5(.025) + 112.5(.025) 2 = 115.383 mm (b) Adjustments to reduce shrinkage include: (1) increase injection pressure, (2) increase compaction time, and (3) increase molding temperatures.

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4/1728) = 0.5 mm and inside diameter = 7.5 mm.5) = 2. and wall thickness td = (1.125 in.17 A blow molding operation produces a 6. 13. (a) Why is thinning 73 .18)/2 = 2 mm. rsd = 27/20 = 1. 13.16 The extrusion die for a polyethylene parison used in blow molding has a mean diameter = 16. The ball will be 1. Using a micrometer.25 .00 in.) (b) Measured value should be close to calculated value. The size of the ring opening in the die = 1.19 An extrusion operation is used to produce a parison whose mean diameter = 27 mm. 13.25.2/16) 3] = 63.5 mm after exiting the die orifice. Blow molding wall thickness tm = (1.0343) = 2.21 The problem in a certain thermoforming operation is that there is too much thinning in the walls of the large cup.2 mm.0 mm tm = (1. and the plastic is an ABS sheet with an initial thickness of 3.5)(16. What is the maximum air pressure that can be used if the maximum allowable tensile stress for the polymer is 1000 lb/in 2.0429)/6.17 lb.25) in text. The parison is used to blow mold a beverage container whose outside diameter = 112 mm (a standard size 2-liter soda bottle).5)/112 = 0. what is the maximum possible diameter of the blow mold? Solution: Dd = (22 + 18)/2 = 20 mm.25 .1. Dm = rsd3tdDd/tm = (1.5 . If the minimum wall thickness of the blow molded container is to be 0. respectively.0)(9.0)/2 = 0.(1. Solution: Mean extrusion die diameter Dd = (1.1.5x12) 3 .73 lb/in2 .125 in.25 = 13.20 A rotational molding operation is to be used to mold a hollow playing ball out of polyethylene. The inside and outside diameters of the die that produced the parison are 18 mm and 22 mm. What weight of PE powder should be loaded into the mold in order to meet these specifications? The specific gravity of the PE grade is 0.0 = 0.16667π[(1.95(62. Maximum air pressure p = 2(1000)(0.7. Some wall thickness are less.331 mm (= 0. Solution: Density ρ = 0. determine (a) the corresponding wall thickness of the container and (b) the wall thickness of the parison.18 in 3 Weight = (63. The operation is conventional pressure thermoforming using a positive mold.5)/2 = 9.5 mm.40 = 246 mm.5 + 7. If the diameter of the blow molded container is to be 100 mm.25 in diameter bottle from a parison that is extruded in a die whose outside diameter = 1.25) 3(2.125)/6.24) 3(.505 mm (b) tp = (1.5 ft in diameter and its wall thickness should be 1/16 in.0 mm. 462 mm 13.25 in and inside diameter = 1.Other Molding Operations and Thermoforming 13.40 mm.Di3)/6 = 0.25 = 0. (a) What is the corresponding wall thickness of the container? (b) Obtain an empty 2-liter plastic soda bottle and (carefully) cut it across the diameter.5/160 = 1. Solution: (a) Dd = (11.18)(0.281) 2(1. (15.0429 in. 13.0343 lb/in 3 Volume = π(Do3 .5 mm.013 in.0)/100. and td = (22 .18 A parison is extruded from a die with outside diameter = 11. The mean diameter of the parison is observed to swell to a size of 20.5)/2 = 2.125)(1.5x12 . and td = (11.35 Rearranging Eq.35) 3(2)(20)/.00)/2 = 1. The observed diameter swell ratio = 1. measure the wall thickness to compare with your answer in (a).95.shaped part.281 tm = (1.24.281) 2 (1. The observed die swell is 1. Solution: (a) rsd = 20.

or (2) prestretch the sheet as in Figure 13. However.occurring in the walls of the cup? (b) What changes could be made in the operation to correct the problem? Solution: (a) As the starting flat sheet is draped over the convex cup-shaped mold. thinning in these sides results. since a negative mold will distribute the material more uniformly and result in approximately equal thinning throughout the sheet. the portion contacting the base of the cup experiences little stretching. (b) The problem could be solved by either: (1) fabricating a negative mold to replace the current positive mold.38 in the text. Hence. 74 . the remaining portions of the sheet must be stretched significantly to conform to the sides of the cup.

14. The categories are: (1) extrusion. whereas diagonal ply tires do not have these belts.2 How is raw rubber recovered from the latex that is tapped from a rubber tree? Answer. Answer.14 14. The typical sequence is: (1) production of the raw rubber. (3) coating. this strengthens and stiffens the rubber while extensibility is retained.6 14.4. skimming. coloring pigments. (a) diagonal ply. see Article 14. 14. and (4) molding. (2) compounding. dipping. The three steps are: (1) preform the components. (b) belted bias.8 Name the three basic tire constructions and briefly identify the differences in their construction. 14. belted bias and radial ply tires use belts. (4) shaping.7 Name the four basic categories of processes used to shape rubber.1. The additives and functions are: vulcanizing chemicals.5 14. (2) the petrochemical industry produces synthetic rubber.9 What are the three basic steps in the manufacture of a pneumatic tire? Answer. Calendering. and (4) the resulting sheets are dried in smokehouses for several days. 14. (2) building the carcass and adding the rubber for the sidewall and treads. and spraying. 14. and (3) fabricators take the NR and SR and produce finished rubber goods. (3) the coagulum is then squeezed through rolls to drive off water. antioxidants.3 What is the sequence of processing steps required to produce finished rubber goods? Answer.10 What is the purpose of the bead coil in a pneumatic tire? 75 . (2) calendering. and (c) radial ply. The rubber industry is organized into three parts: (1) rubber growing plantations produce natural rubber. The rubber is usually recovered as follows: (1) the latex is collected into tanks and diluted to half natural concentration. What does vulcanization do to the rubber? Answer. Answer. (3) mixing. which are additional plies around the outside circumference of the tire.4 What are some of the functions of the additives that are combined with rubber during compounding? Answer. extenders to reduce cost. Diagonal ply and belted bias both have their carcass plys running in a diagonal direction relative to the tire circumference. and (5) vulcanization. and (3) molding and curing. (2) formic or acetic or other acid is added to the solution which causes the rubber to coagulate.1 RUBBER PROCESSING TECHNOLOGY Review Questions How is the rubber industry organized? Answer. 14. Vulcanization causes cross-linking of the rubber molecules. reinforcing fillers. 14. and blowing agents to make foam rubber. What are some of the operations used to coat rubber onto a fabric to produce reinforced rubber? Answer. plasticizers to soften the rubber. radial ply has its carcass plies running in a radial direction. The resulting raw rubber is called ribbed smoked sheet.

(b) carbon black. or (d) tennis balls. Three examples: (1) no draft is needed on the part for mold removal. (b) 14. it is a thermoplastic polymer that behaves like a rubber. Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 11 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct). Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers. the extreme flexibility of rubber results in certain differences. To attain a perfect score on the quiz. (c) polyisoprene. since each correct answer is worth 1 point. or (d) transfer molding. (b) 15. (b) injection molding. or (d) polystyrene. and (3) screw threads are not normally used on rubber parts.1 The most important rubber product is: (a) footwear.11 What is a TPE? Answer. or (d) 45. (b) polyisobutylene. Answer.Answer. (c) during molding. For each question. (a) 14. TPE stands for thermoplastic elastomer. Answer. (b) carbon black. (d) plasticizers and softening oils. whereas holes can be machined or molded in a plastic part. (2) holes should be molded into rubber parts rather than machined. Answer.7 When is the tread pattern imprinted onto the circumference of the tire? (a) during preforming. 14. The bead coil provides a rigid support for the tire when it is mounted onto the wheel rim.2 The chemical name of the ingredient recovered from the latex of the rubber tree is which one of the following? (a) polybutadiene. (c) pneumatic tires. Answer. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point. (c) 14. Answer.5 Which of the following ingredients do not contribute to the vulcanizing process (more than one)? (a) calcium carbonate. (c) clays and other hydrous aluminum silicates. and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point. (c) 14. (b) 14. What are some examples of these differences? Answer.3 Of the following rubber additives. (c) 25. Answer. and (e) zinc oxide. or (d) during curing. (c) thermoforming. (c) stearic acid.4 Which one of the following molding processes is the most important in the production of products made of conventional rubber? (a) compression molding.6 How many minutes are required to cure (vulcanize) a modern passenger car tire? (a) 5. 76 . or (e) reclaimed rubber. However.12 Many of the design guidelines that are applicable to plastics are also applicable to rubber. all correct answers must be given. (a) and (b) 14. which one would rank as the single most important? (a) antioxidants. 14. (d) sulfur. (b) while building the carcass. (b) conveyor belts. 14.

(b) compression molding. or (e) vulcanization.Answer. Answer. (d) injection molding. (c) extrusion. (c) 14. 77 .9 Screw threads are not normally molded into rubber parts: (a) true or (b) false. (b) and (e) 14.8 Which of the following are not normally used in the processing of thermoplastic elastomers (more than one)? (a) blow molding. Answer. (a) Screw threads are not normally designed into rubber parts because of the extreme flexibility of rubber.

SMC consists of TS polymer resin.250 inch. 15. In the prepreg approach. and BMCs. In the context of fiber reinforcement. 15. Because in hand lay-up. In wet lay-up. 15. the layer of fiber reinforcement is placed into the mold dry. 78 . (2) high pressure is generally associated with the process.9 What is an autoclave? Answer. Principal polymer matrices in FRPs are unsaturated polyesters and epoxies. the fibers in each layer are randomly oriented. TMCs. what is a mat? Answer.5 What is sheet molding compound (SMC)? Answer. all rolled into a sheet of typical thickness = 0. What is the difference between a roving and a yarn? Answer.2 15. Why do we say that particles and flakes are members of the same basic class of reinforcing material? Answer. Characteristics include: (1) they use molds consisting of two halves that open and close during the molding cycle.8 What is the difference between the wet lay-up approach and the prepreg approach in hand lay-up? Answer. Flakes are simply particles that possess very low width-to-thickness ratios. whereas in spray-up.11 Identify some of the different forms of PMC molding compounds. while a yarn consists of twisted fibers. PMC molding compounds include SMCs. A roving consists of untwisted filaments. fillers. 15. and (3) the geometric shapes of the moldings are more complex in three dimensions. An autoclave is an enclosed chamber which can supply heat and/or pressure at controlled levels.4 SHAPING PROCESSES FOR POLYMER MATRIX COMPOSITES Review Questions What are the principal polymers used in fiber-reinforced polymers? Answer. 15.15 15.6 15.3 15. orientation of the fibers is controlled. Answer. A mat is a felt consisting of randomly oriented fibers held loosely together in a binder.1 15. and the uncured resin is then applied to it to form the composite laminate. layers of fiber preimpregnated with resin are laid into the mold.10 What are some of the distinguishing characteristics of the closed mold processes for PMCs? Answer. 15.7 How is a prepreg different from a molding compound? Answer. Prepregs have continuous fibers rather than chopped fibers as in molding compounds. and chopped glass fibers. Why are laminated FRP products made by the spray-up method not as strong as similar products made by hand lay-up? Answer.

19 How are FRPs cut? Answer. the materials are then pressed between heated molds to cure the resin and produce a fiber-reinforced molding. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point. Answer. For each question. Answer. power shears. (b) thermoplastics.13 Describe reinforced reaction injection molding (RRIM). The resulting part is a fiber-reinforced (usually glass fiber) plastic molding. 15. 15. Cured FRPs are cut by WC and HSS cutting tools.15 What is the advantage of computer numerical control over mechanical control in filament winding? Answer. CNC allows independent control over mandrel rotation and carriage speed for greater flexibility in relative motions. scissors. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers. all correct answers must be given. 15.12 What is preform molding? Answer. 15. Answer. or (c) thermosets. Filament winding is a process in which resin. and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point.impregnated continuous fibers are wrapped around a rotating mandrel with the internal shape of the FRP product. 15. diamond cutting tools.14 What is filament winding? Answer. To attain a perfect score on the quiz. (c) 79 . and water jet cutting. Uncured FRPs are cut by methods which include: knives. 15. Pulforming is pultrusion with the added operation of a shape change in the length (straight length becomes curved) and cross-section (different cross-sections throughout the length). RRIM involves the injection of resins that cure by chemical reaction together with reinforcing fibers into a closed mold. 15. Typical products include: bicycle frames and space trusses.16 Describe the pultrusion process. Preform molding is a compression molding process in which a precut mat is placed into the lower half of a mold together with a charge of thermosetting resin. 15. Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 12 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct). and water jet cutting. The resulting sections are similar to extruded parts except that they are reinforced with continuous fibers. since each correct answer is worth 1 point.1 Which one of the following is the most common polymer type in fiber-reinforced polymer composites? (a) elastomers. laser beam cutting. the resin is cured and the mandrel is removed. steel-rule blanking dies.18 With what kinds of products is tube rolling associated? Answer.15. Pultrusion is a process in which continuous fibers are dipped into a resin and pulled through a shaping die (somewhat like an extrusion die) where the resin cures.17 How does pulforming differ from pultrusion? Answer.

15.2

Most rubber products are properly classified into which of the following categories (more than one)? (a) elastomer reinforced with carbon black, (b) fiber- reinforced composite, (c) particle -reinforced composite, (d) polymer matrix composite, (e) pure elastomer, and (f) pure polymer. Answer. (a), (c), and (d). Hand lay-up is classified in which of the following general categories of PMC shaping processes (more than one)? (a) closed mold process, (b) compression molding, (c) contact molding, (d) filament winding, or (e) open mold process. Answer. (c) and (e). A positive mold with a smooth surface will produce a good finish on which surface of the laminated product in the hand lay-up method? (a) inside surface or (b) outside surface. Answer. (a) SMC molding is a form of which one of the following? (a) compression molding, (b) contact molding, (c) injection molding, (d) open mold processing, (e) pultrusion, or (f) transfer molding. Answer. (a) Filament winding involves the use of which one of the following fiber reinforcements? (a) continuous filaments, (b) fabrics, (c) mats, (d) prepregs, (e) short fibers, or (f) woven rovings. Answer. (a) In filament winding, when the continuous filament is wound around the cylindrical mandrel at a helix angle close to 90°, it is called which of the following (one best answer)? (a) bi-axial winding, (b) helical winding, (c) hoop winding, (d) perpendicular winding, (e) polar winding, or (f) radial winding. Answer. (c) Pultrusion is most similar to which one of the following plastic shaping processes? (a) blow-molding, (b) extrusion, (c) injection molding, or (d) thermoforming. Answer. (b) Water jet cutting is one of several ways of cutting or trimming uncured or cured FRPs; in the case of cured FRPs, the process is noted for its reduction of dust and noise: (a) true or (b) false. Answer. (a)

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16.1

POWDER METALLURGY

Review Questions

Name some of the reasons for the commercial importance of powder metallurgy technology. Answer. PM is important because: (1) parts can be made to net or near net shape, (2) parts can be made with a controlled level of porosity, (3) certain metals difficult to process by other methods can be processed by PM, (4) PM allows the formulation of unusual alloys not easily obtained by traditional alloying methods. 16.2 What are some of the disadvantages of PM methods? Answer. Disadvantages include: (1) high tooling costs, (2) metal powders are expensive, (3) difficulties in storing and handling, (4) certain limitations on part geometry imposed by the uniaxial press methods, and (5) variations in density in a PM component can be troublesome. 16.3 16.4 In the screening of powders for sizing, what is meant by the term mesh count? Answer. The mesh count of the screen is the number of openings per linear inch. What is the difference between open pores and closed pores in a metallic powders? Answer. Open pores are air spaces between particles, while closed pores are voids internal to a particle. 16.5 What is meant by the term aspect ratio for a metallic particle? Answer. The aspect ratio of a particle is ratio of the maximum dimension to the minimum dimension of the given particle. 16.6 How would one measure the angle of repose for a given amount of metallic powder? Answer. One measure would be to let the powders flow through a small funnel and measure the angle taken by the resulting pile of powders relative to the horizontal. 16.7 Define bulk density and true density for metallic powders. Answer. Bulk density refers to the weight per volume of the powders in the loose state, while true density is the weight per volume of the true volume of metal in the powders (the volume that would result if the powders were melted). 16.8 What are the principal methods used to produce metallic powders? Answer. The methods are: (1) atomization - the conversion of molten metal into droplets which solidify into powders; (2) chemical reduction - reducing metallic oxides by use of reducing agents which combine with the oxygen to free the metals in the form of powders; and (3) electrolysis use of an electrolytic cell to deposit particles of the metal onto the cathode in the cell. 16.9 What are the three basic steps in the conventional powder metallurgy shaping process? Answer. The steps are: (1) blending and/or mixing, (2) pressing, and (3) sintering. 16.10 What is the technical difference between mixing and blending in powder metallurgy? Answer. Mixing refers to the combining of metal powders of different chemistries, while blending means combining particles of the same chemistry but different sizes.

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16.11 What are some of the ingredients usually added to the metallic powders during blending and/or mixing? Answer. The additives are: (1) lubricants, (2) binders, and (3) deflocculants. 16.12 What is meant by the term green compact? Answer. The green compact is the pressed but not yet sintered PM part. 16.13 Describe what happens to the individual particles during compaction. Answer. Starting with the initial powder arrangement, the particles are first repacked into a more efficient arrangement, followed by deformation of the particles as pressure is increased. 16.14 Which of the following most closely typifies the sintering temperatures in PM? (a) 0.5 Tm, (b) 0.8 Tm, (c) Tm. Answer. (b) 16.15 What are the three steps in the sintering cycle in PM? Answer. The three steps in the cycle are: (1) preheat, in which lubricants and binders are burned off, (2) sintering, and (3) cool down. 16.16 What are some of the reasons why a controlled furnace is desirable in sintering? Answer. Some of the purposes of a controlled atmosphere furnace are: (1) oxidation protection, (2) provide a reducing atmosphere to remove existing oxides, (3) provide a carburizing atmosphere, and (4) remove lubricants and binders from pressing. 16.17 What are the advantages of infiltration in PM? Answer. Advantages of infiltration are: resulting structure is nonporous structure, improved toughness and strength. 16.18 What is the difference between powder injection molding and metal injection molding? Answer. Metal injection molding is a subset of powder injection molding, in which the powders are metallic. The more general term includes powders of ceramic. 16.19 How is isostatic pressing distinguished from conventional pressing and sintering in PM? Answer. Isostatic pressing applies hydrostatic pressure to all sides of the mold, whereas conventional pressing is uniaxial. 16.20 Describe liquid phase sintering. Answer. Liquid phase sintering occurs when two metals of different melting temperatures are sintered at a temperature between their melting points. Accordingly, one metal melts, thoroughly wetting the solid particles and creating a strong bonding between the metals upon solidification. 16.21 What are the two basic classes of metal powders as far as chemistry is concerned? Answer. The two classes are: (1) elemental powders - powders of pure metal such as iron or copper, and (2) prealloyed powders - powders of alloys such as stainless steel or brass. 16.22 Why is PM technology so well suited to the production of gears and bearings? Answer. The reasons are: (1) the geometries of these parts lend themselves to PM pressing, and (2) the porosity allows impregnation of the PM parts with lubricants.

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**Multiple Choice Quiz
**

There are a total of 18 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct). To attain a perfect score on the quiz, all correct answers must be given, since each correct answer is worth 1 point. For each question, each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point, and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers. 16.1 The particle size that can pass through a screen is obtained by taking the reciprocal of the mesh count of the screen. (a) true, or (b) false. Answer. (b) The given description neglects consideration of the screen wire thickness. 16.2 Identify which of the phrases make the following statement correct: For a given weight of metallic powders, the total surface area of the powders is increased by (more than one): (a) larger particle size, (b) smaller particle size, (c) higher shape factor, (d) smaller shape factor. Answer. (b) and (c) 16.3 16.4 As particle size increases, interparticle friction (a) increases, or (b) decreases. Answer. (b) Which of the following powder shapes would tend to have the lowest interparticle friction? (a) acicular, (b) cubic, (c) flakey, (d) spherical, and (e) rounded. Answer. (d) 16.5 Which of the following statements is correct in the context of metallic powders (more than one)? (a) porosity + packing factor = 1.0, (b) packing factor = 1/porosity, (c) packing factor = 1.0 porosity, (d) packing factor = - porosity, (e) packing factor = bulk density/true density. Answer. (a), (c), (e) 16.6 Repressing refers to a pressworking operation used to compress an unsintered part in a closed die to achieve sizing and better surface finish. (a) true or (b) false. Answer. (b) The repressed part has been sintered, not unsintered. 16.7 Impregnation refers to which of the following (more than one)? (a) soaking oil by capillary action into the pores of a PM part, (b) putting polymers into the pores of a PM part, or (c) filling the pores of the PM part with a molten metal. Answer. (a), (b) 16.8 In cold isostatic pressing, the mold is most typically made of which one of the following? (a) rubber, (b) sheetmetal, (c) tool steel, (d) textile, or (e) thermosetting polymer. Answer. (a) 16.9 Which of the following processes combines pressing and sintering of the metal powders (more than one)? (a) metal injection molding, (b) hot pressing, (c) spark sintering, and (d) hot isostatic pressing. Answer. (b), (c), and (d) 16.10 Which of the following design features would be difficult or impossible to achieve by conventional pressing and sintering (more than one)? (a) side holes, (b) threaded holes, (c) outside rounded corners, (d) vertical stepped holes, or (e) vertical wall thickness of 1/8 inch (3 mm).

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Answer. (a), (b), (c)

Problems

Characterization of Engineering Powders 16.1 A screen with 325 mesh count has wires with a diameter of 0.001377 in. Using Eq. (16.1), determine: (a) the maximum particle size that will pass through the wire mesh, and (b) the proportion of open space in the screen. Solution: (a) By Eq. (16.1), particle size PS = 1/MC - tw = 1/325 - 0.001377 = 0.003077 - 0.001377 = 0.00170 in. (b) There are 325 x 325 = 105,625 openings in one square inch of the mesh. By inference from part (a), each opening is 0.00170 inch on a side, thus each opening is (0.0017) 2 = 0.000002889 in2. The total open area in one square inch of mesh = 105,625(0.000002889 in 2) = 0.30523 in 2. This is total open space. Therefore, the percent open space in one square inch of mesh = 30.523%. 16.2 A screen with 10 mesh count has wires with a diameter of 0.0213 in. Using Eq. (16.1), determine: (a) the maximum particle size that will pass through the wire mesh, and (b) the proportion of open space in the screen. Solution: (a) By Eq. (16.1), particle size PS = 1/MC - tw = 1/10 - 0.0213 = 0.0787 in. (b) There are 10 x 10 = 100 openings in one square inch of the mesh. By inference from part (a), each opening is 0.0787 inch on a side, thus each opening is (0.0787) 2 = 0.00619 in2. The total open area in one square inch of mesh = 100(0.00619 in 2) = 0.619 in 2. This is total open space. Therefore, the percent open space in one square inch of mesh = 61.9%. 16.3 What is the aspect ratio of a cubic particle shape. Solution: The aspect ratio is the ratio of the maximum dimension to the minimum dimension of the particle shape. The minimum dimension is the edge of any face of the cube; call it L. The maximum dimension is the diagonal of the cube, which is given by (L2 + L2 + L2)0.5 = (3 L2)0.5 = (3) 0.5 L = 1.732 L. Thus, the aspect ratio = 1.732:1. 16.4 Determine the shape factor for metallic particles of the following ideal shapes: (a) sphere, (b) cubic, (c) cylindrical with length-to-diameter ratio of 1:1, (d) cylindrical with length-to-diameter ratio of 2:1, and (e) a disk-shaped flake whose thickness-to-diameter ratio is 1:10. Solution: (a) Sphere: Ks = 6.0 as shown in the text, Eq. (16.6). (b) Cube: Let L = edge of one face. For a cube, A = 6L2 and V = L3. Find diameter D of a sphere of equivalent volume. V = πD3/6 = L3 D3 = 6L3/π = 1.90986 L3 D = (1.90986 L3)0.333 = 1.2407 L Ks = A D/V = (6L2)(1.2407 L)/L3 = 7.444 (c) Cylinder with L/D = 1.0. For this cylinder shape, L = D. Thus, A = 2πD2/4 + πDL = .5πL2 + πL2 = 1.5πL2, and V = (πD2/4)L = 0.25πL3. Find diameter D of a sphere of equivalent volume. V = πD3/6 = 0.25πL3 D3 = 6(0.25πL3)/ π = 1.5L3 D = (1.5 L3)0.333 = 1.1447 L Ks = A D/V = (1.5πL2)(1.1447 L)/0.25πL3 = 6.868

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5L)2 L = 0. A = 2πD2/4 + πDL = .001 in. Given this distribution.0.284(0.(d) Cylinder with L/D = 2.004) 2 = 0. Thus.5L)2 + π(0.516 x 10-9 lb/particle Number of particles in 2 lb = 2..0625πL3 Find diameter D of a sphere of equivalent volume.0625πL3 D3 = 6(0. and V = (πD2/4)L = 0.18 x 10-9 in3) = 1.10.74 in3 16. 0.002 in.5π(0. the total volume taken up by the pile = (2.333 = 5.362 x 109 85 .6 Solve Problem 16.001 in.313 L)/25πL3 = 12. V = πD3/6 = π(0.27 x 10-6) = 10.681 x 109)(12.00000003351 = 33. Note: the density of iron = 0. however.75 16.18 x 10-9 in3/particle Weight per particle W = ρV = 0.004) 3/6 = 0.25π(0.6.313 L Ks = A D/V = (60πL2)(5.116 x 10 3 in2 (b) With a packing factor of 0.004 in.56 x 10-6) = 21.5 lb Number of particles in 0. A = 2πD2/4 + πDL = 0.211 (e) Disk with L/D = 0.5. Solution: For a spherical particle of D = 0.003 in.001) 3/6 = 0. the total volume taken up by the pile = (2.625πL2.0625πL3)/ π = 0. (b) If the packing factor = 0. forming a statistical distribution as follows: 25% of the particles by weight are 0.375 L3)0.5πL2 = 0.001 in.284 lb/in3.19 x 10-9) = 1.0/0. For this cylinder shape.0/0. Solution: (a) For a spherical particle of D = 0.6.51 x 10-9 in3/particle Weight per particle W = ρV = 0. and V = (πD2/4)L = 0.721 L Ks = A D/V = (0.1487 x 10-9 lb/particle Particles of size D = 0. Assume the same packing factor.0/(9.6 = 11.002 in.00005027 in2 = 50.333 = 0. V = πD3/6 = π(0. Thus.721 L)/0.5236 x 10-9 in3) = 0.19 x 10-9 lb/particle Number of particles in 2 lb = 2.5L)L = 0. determine the volume taken by the pile. Solution: (a) For a spherical particle of D = 0. V = πD3/6 = 25πL3 D3 = 6(25πL3)/ π = 150L3 D = (150 L3)0.125πL2 + 0.5 lb = 0.516 x 10-9) = 0.6 = 11. = 0. what is the total surface area of all the particles in the pile.2102 x 109)(50.625πL2)(0.. and 25% are 0.565 x 10 3 in2 (b) With a packing factor of 0.284(4.5L = D.002 in.004 in. constitute 25% of total 2 lb.0625πL3 = 7.00000000418 = 4. For this shape. 10L = D.7 Suppose in Problem 16. the sizes vary.6.284)/0. V = πD3/6 = π(0.2102 x 109 A = πD2 = π(0.5/(0.5236 x 10-9 in3/particle Weight per particle W = ρV = 0.00001256 in2 = 12.5 that the average particle diameter = 0.51 x 10-9 in3) = 9.5π(10L)2 + π(10L)L = 50πL2 + 10πL2 = 60πL2.74 in3 16. except that the diameter of the particles is 0. V = πD3/6 = 0..284)/0. The particles are spherical in shape and all have the same diameter of 0.1487 x 10-9) = 3. (a) Determine the total surface area of all the particles in the pile.27 x 10-6 in2 Total surface area = (0. 50% are 0.0/(1.681 x 109 A = πD2 = π(0.375L3 D = (0.25π(10L)2 L = 25πL3 Find diameter D of a sphere of equivalent volume.284(33.56 x 10-6 in2 Total surface area = (1.002) 3/6 = 0.5 A pile of iron powder weighs 2 lb.002) 2 = 0.002 in.

51 x 10-9 = 51.142 x 10-8 m3/particle Volume of a sphere of D = 0.51 x 10-9 in3/particle Number of particles in 1 ft3 = 1728/33.284(14.592 x 103 = 2..001) 2 = 3.1 x 10-3)2 = 3.142 x 10-6) = 10.274 x 10-6 in2 Total surface area of particles of D = 0. is A = πD2 = π(0.0/(1.1 x 10-3 m is A = πD2 = π(0. see Figure 2. What is the percentage increase in total surface area if the diameter of each particle is 0.004) 2 = 50.632 x 10 3 in2.000 .6 = 59.8 A solid cube of copper with each side = 1.5236 x 10-12 m3/particle Number of particles in 1 m3 = 1.003 in.0/0.003 in.001 in.567 x 109 Total surface area = (51.002 in.284(4.362 x 109)(3.952 m2 16.137 x 10-9 in3) = 4.592.1 x 10-3)3/6 = 0.0 m is converted into metallic powders of spherical shape by gas atomization.004 in.18 x 10-9 in3) = 1.592.A = πD2 = π(0.563 x 103 + 3.5 lb Number of particles in 0. similar to the atomic structure of FCC metals.56 x 10-6 in2 Total surface area of particles of D = 0.1 x 10-3 m is V = πD3/6 = π(0. V = π(0.5/(4. constitute 50% of total 2 lb.0 lb Number of particles in 1 lb = 1.0 ft is converted into metallic powders of spherical shape by gas atomization. what is the maximum possible packing factor that the powders can take? Solution: The maximum packing factor is achieved when the spherical particles are arranged as a face-centered cubic unit cell.002 in. How much total surface area is added by the process if the diameter of each particle is 100 microns (assume that all particles are the same size)? Solution: Area of starting cube A = 6(1 m) 2 = 6 m2 Volume of starting cube V = (1 m) 3 = 1 m3 D = 100 µm = 0.506 x 103 in2 Total surface area of all particles = 10.5 lb = 0.124 x 109 A = πD2 = π(0. V = π(0.137 x 10-9 in3/particle Weight per particle W = ρV = 0.91 x 1012)( 0.003) 2 = 28.002 in.142 x 10-6 in2/particle Total surface area of particles of D = 0. = 1.900% 16.9 A solid cube of aluminum with each side = 1.000 in2 Percent increase = 100(2.91 x 1012 Total surface area = (1.566 x 10-6) = 10.1 mm = 0.18 x 10-9 in3/particle Weight per particle W = ρV = 0. = (0.19 x 10-9) = 0. = (0.265 x 10-6 in3/particle Volume of a spherical particle of D = 0.015 x 10-9) = 0.864)/864 = 299.563 x 103 in2 For a spherical particle of D = 0.004 in (assume that all particles are the same size)? Solution: Area of initial cube A = 6(1 ft)2 = 6 ft2 = 864 in2 Volume of cube V = (1 ft)3 = 1728 in3 Surface area of a spherical particle of D = 0.124 x 109)(28.002) 2 = 12. The 86 .563 x 103 in2 For a spherical particle of D = 0.5236 x 10-12 = 1.958 m2 Added surface area = 59.8406 x 109)(12.003 in.. = (3.004) 3/6 = 33.8(b).003) 3/6 = 14.10 Given a large volume of metallic powders. constitute 25% of total 2 lb. = 0.015 x 10-9 lb/particle Particles of size D = 0.1 x 10-3 m Surface area of a sphere of D = 0.8406 x 109 A = πD2 = π(0.563 x 103 + 10.004 in. 16.19 x 10-9 lb/particle Particles of size D = 0.002) 3/6 = 4.9958 x 104 = 59.958 .274 x 10-6) = 3. all of which are perfectly spherical and having the same exact diameter. is V = πD3/6 = π(0.567 x 109)( 50.5236 x 10-12 m3) = 5.265 x 10-6 in3) = 2.506 x 103 = 24.

Determine: (a) the most appropriate pressing direction.8752)(0.unit cell of the FCC structure contains 8 spheres at the corners of the cube and 6 spheres on each face.071 in3 87 .82 .82 .414D)3 = 2.25π(2.0944 D3 where D = diameter of a sphere.25π(3. (1) Volume of whole and/or partial spheres contained in the unit cell.05% Compaction and Design Considerations 16. The volume of the unit cell is therefore (1.0.556(75.0944/2. and (c) the final weight of the part if the porosity is 10%. the metallic powder fed into the open die has a packing factor of 0. The unit cell contains 6 half spheres in the faces of the cube and 8 one-eighth spheres in corners. Our approach to determine the packing factor will consist of: (1) finding the volume of the spheres and portions thereof that are contained in the cell. bulk specific volume = 2. The pressing operation reduces the powder to 2/3 of its starting volume.0.0/(2.8752) = 5. and (2) finding the volume of the unit cell cube.25π(Do2 . shrinkage amounts to 10% on a volume basis. Solution: (a) Most appropriate pressing direction is parallel to the part axis.5) = 0.556 in 2 F = Appc = 5.90) = 1.25π(442 .000 lb/in2.12 A bearing of simple geometry is to be pressed out of bronze powders. (18.5) + 8(.52)(1.1.667 Sintering further reduces the bulk specific volume to 0. and the length of the bearing = 25 mm.0.715 lb = 208 tons.062 kN 16. (b) the required press tonnage to perform this operation. Let true specific volume = 1. Solution: Packing factor = bulk density / true density Density = (specific volume)-1 Packing factor = true specific volume / bulk specific volume Pressing reduces bulk specific volume to 2/3 = 0.5) + 0. Thus.833 By Eq. (c) V = 0.1925) = 6.000) = 416. the face is a square with each edge = D√2 = 1.13 The part shown in Figure P16. Assume shrinkage during sintering can be neglected. Given that these are the only factors that affect the structure of the finished part.0.7).0.167 16.5. Dimensions are inches.Di2) = 0.414D. porosity = 1 . What is the required press tonnage to perform this operation? Solution: Projected area of part Ap = 0. (2) Volume of the cube of one unit cell. Consider that the diagonal of any face of the unit cell contains one full diameter (the sphere in the center of the cube face) and two half diameters (the spheres at the corners of the face).667 x . The packing factor = 2.8284 = 0.8284 D3.125) = 4 spheres.11 In a certain pressing operation.0/1.25π(2.5372 + 4. The equivalent number of whole spheres = 6(.82 . using a compacting pressure of 207 MPa.4(207) = 236. In the subsequent sintering operation. Accordingly.0 x . The ratio of (1) over (2) is the packing factor. The outside diameter = 44 mm.2 = 0. determine its final porosity.833 = 0.25π(2. the diagonal of the cube face = 2D. Packing factor after pressing and sintering = 1.25 .Di2) = 0.222) = 1140.90 of value after pressing. (b) Press tonnage F = Appc Projected area of part Ap = 0. Volume of 4 spheres = 4πD3/6 = 2.4 mm2 F = Appc = 1140.25π(Do2 . the inside diameter = 22 mm.0 Thus for a packing factor of 0.13 is to be pressed of iron powders using a compaction pressure of 75.7405 = 74.5.

55 lb. Dimensions are mm. density of iron ρ = 0. (d) Class IV. 4 or 5 levels of press control due to multiple steps in part design. (b) Class I. one direction part is relatively thin. At 10% porosity.1. indicate which PM class the parts belong to. whether the part must be pressed from one or two directions.From Table 4. one level of press control.14 For each of the four part drawings in Figure P16. 2 directions because of axial thickness.14.90) = 1.071(0. 2 directions of pressing. Solution: (a) Class II. 16. and how many levels of press control will be required. one level of press control. part weight W = 6. 2 directions of pressing. 3 levels of press control required. (c) Class IV.284 lb/in3. 88 .284)(0.

It is suited to the manufacture of flatware. The sequence is: (1) preparation of raw materials. The remaining slurry is usually poured out to leave a hollow part. 17. in which a clay slug is pressed in a mold. The traditional ceramics are based on hydrous aluminum silicates (clay). 17. the clay has a typical water content of 10% to 15%. as far as raw materials are concerned? Answer. (2) jiggering. Sintering of green ceramics (or powdered metals) causes bonding between the ceramic grains.9 What is the name given to the furnace used to fire ceramic ware? Answer. What is the technical difference between crushing and grinding in the preparation of traditional ceramic raw materials? Answer. 17. whereas the new ceramics are based on man-made simpler compounds such as oxides.17 17. whereupon water is absorbed from the slurry into the plaster to form a clay layer against the mold wall.3 List the basic steps in the traditional ceramics processing sequence. The plastic forming methods include: (1) hand modeling. 17. molding.dry pressing. the water content is usually less than 5%. The clay is first pressed into rough shape and then rotated and formed with a jigger tool to final shape. and (4) extrusion. 17. which is accompanied by densification and reduction of porosity. The difference is in the starting clay.4 Describe the slip casting process in traditional ceramics processing. in which the clay is compressed through a die opening to make long sections of uniform cross-sectional shape. Dry clay has virtually no plasticity.2 17. In slip casting a slurry of clay is poured into a plaster of Paris mold. and throwing. (2) shaping.8 What happens to a ceramic material when it is sintered? Answer. Grinding is a secondary process which further reduces the particle size to fine powder. Crushing is performed to reduce large lumps of mineral to smaller size. 17.5 List and briefly describe some of the plastic forming methods used to shape traditional ceramics products.6 What is the process of jiggering? Answer. For dry pressing. which is a mechanized extension of hand throwing used to manufacture bowls and plates.1 PROCESSING OF CERAMICS AND CERMETS Review Questions What is the difference between the traditional ceramics and the new ceramics. 17. For semi. Answer. and (4) firing. and so this imposes certain limitations on part geometry in dry pressing. (3) drying. Kiln. and carbides.10 What is glazing in traditional ceramics processing? 89 .7 What is the difference between dry pressing and semi-dry pressing of traditional ceramics parts? Answer. Jiggering is a clay forming process that uses a convex mold on a potters wheel. Answer. nitrides. Answer. 17. (3) plastic pressing.

reducing its melting point to the sintering temperature. 90 .1 The following equipment is used for crushing and grinding of minerals in the preparation of traditional ceramics raw materials. usually consisting of ceramic oxides. not tensile loads. (2) ceramics are brittle. How is this possible? Answer.12 Why is raw material preparation more important in the processing of new ceramics than for traditional ceramics? Answer. Drying is only needed when the green piece contains water. Because the requirements on the strength of the finished product are usually more demanding for new ceramics. so important in the processing of traditional ceramics.16 What are some design recommendations for ceramic parts? Answer. Glazing refers to the process of putting a ceramic coating on the surface of the ceramic piece. (4) use large radii on inside and outside corners. (3) part geometries should be simple. Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 15 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct). (c) hydrous aluminum silicate. salts are dissolved in water and sprayed into small droplets which are immediately frozen. To attain a perfect score on the quiz. 17. Which one of the pieces listed is used for grinding? (a) ball mill.2 Which one of the following compounds becomes a plastic and formable material when mixed with suitable proportions of water? (a) aluminum oxide. (5) take into account shrinkage. 17.15 Liquid phase sintering is used for WC-Co compacts. 17. At the sintering temperatures used for WC-Co. (a) 17. Answer. 17.11 Why is the drying step. so avoid impact loading. In freeze drying. (c) jaw crusher. The coating.Answer. (b) hydrogen oxide. a ceramic slurry is flowed onto a moving film which flows under a wiper blade. Because water is usually not one of the ingredients in the new ceramics during forming. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point. 17. 17. or (d) roll crusher. The melting point of cobalt is reduced when WC is dissolved in it. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers. (6) no screw threads. so that the resulting ceramic is in the form of a thin green sheet which is dried and reeled onto a spool for subsequent shaping and sintering. since each correct answer is worth 1 point. (b) hammer mill. and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point. or (d) silicon dioxide. WC gradually dissolves in the cobalt. the water is then removed from the droplets in a vacuum chamber. 17. and the freeze-dried salt is decomposed by heating to form the ceramic powders. even though the sintering temperatures are below the melting points of either WC or Co.14 Describe the doctor-blade process. is referred to as a glaze. Answer. In the doctor-blade process. all correct answers must be given. Thus does liquid phase sintering occur in the WC-Co system. usually not required in processing of new ceramics? Answer.13 What is the freeze drying process used to make certain new ceramic powders? Answer. For each question. The guidelines include: (1) subject ceramic parts to compressive.

6 In the final product made of a polycrystalline new ceramic material.9 Which one of the following terms best describes what a cemented carbide is? (a) ceramic. (d) remove material. (c) 17. Answer. or (e) work harden the surface. (b) 17. and (e) 91 . (d) thin sections. (b) cermet. or (b) false. or (e) threads. Answer. or (b) false. or (e) spinning. strength increases with grain size: (a) true. Answer. (c). (b) 17. (a) 17.7 Which one of the following processes for the new ceramic materials accomplishes shaping and sintering simultaneously? (a) doctor-blade process. Answer. Answer. (c) composite.4 Which of the following processes are not plastic forming methods used in the shaping of traditional ceramics (more than one)? (a) extrusion. (d) injection molding. (b) freeze drying. Answer. (c) 20%.3 At which one of the following water contents does clay become a suitably plastic material for the traditional ceramics plastic forming processes? (a) 5%. (d). (a) and (e) 17. (c) increase dimensional accuracy.10 Which of the following geometric features should be avoided if possible in the design of structural components made of new ceramics (more than one)? (a) complicated shapes. (b) jangling. (b) 10%.5 The term green piece in ceramics refers to a part that has been shaped but not yet fired: (a) true. Answer. or (d) metal. or (e) isostatic pressing. (c) jiggering. (b) rounded inside corners. (a). (c) hot pressing.Answer. or (d) 40%. (d) jolleying.8 Which of the following are not the purposes of finishing operations used for parts made of the new ceramics (more than one)? (a) apply a surface coating. (c) 17. Answer. (c) 17. (c) sharp edges. (b) improve surface finish. (b) and (c) 17.

Advantages of cold working are: (1) better accuracy.6 18. What is the difference between deep drawing and bar drawing? Answer.1) as Yf = Kεn. thereby forcing its cross-section to assume the profile of the orifice.18 18. the area-to-volume ratio is high. How does increasing temperature affect the parameters in the flow curve equation? Answer.4 Why is the term pressworking often used for sheet metal processes? Answer.11 What is sticking friction in metalworking? Answer. This is accomplished by preheating the forming tools. and (3) wearing of the tools.8 What is isothermal forming? Answer. The flow curve is defined in Eq. 18. Deep drawing is a sheet metal forming process used to fabricate cup-shaped parts.7 Indicate the mathematical equation for the flow curve. 18.1 FUNDAMENTALS OF METAL FORMING Review Questions What are the characteristics that distinguish bulk deformation processes from sheet metal processes? Answer. In bulk deformation. the shape changes are significant. Sticking friction is when the work surface adheres to the surface of the tool rather than slides against it. Increasing strain rate tends to increase the resistance to deformation. (4) possible directional properties due to grain flow. (2) increases forces and power required. An isothermal forming operation is performed in such a way as to eliminate surface cooling and thermal gradients in the workpart. 18.3 18. 18.10 Why is friction generally undesirable in metal forming operations? Answer. 18. 18. Answer. In sheet metal processes. it occurs when the friction stress is greater than the shear flow stress of the metal. Describe it. Increasing temperature decreases both K and n in the flow curve equation. (2) better surface finish. Reasons why friction is undesirable in metal forming: (1) inhibits metal flow during deformation. 18. Answer. Extrusion is a compression process in which the work material is forced to flow through a die orifice. Answer. Indicate some of the advantages of cold working relative to warm and hot working. The tendency is especially prominent in hot forming operations. Because these operations are generally performed on presses. (3) increased strength due to work hardening. Answer.5 18. (18. bar drawing is a bulk deformation process used to reduce the diameter of a cylindrical workpart.2 Extrusion is a fundamental shaping process.9 Describe the effect of strain rate in metal forming. and (5) no heating of work required. and the workparts have a low area-to-volume ratio. 92 . causing residual stresses and product defects.

Answer. 18. (c) isotropic mechanical properties. Answer. and (e).4Tm. or (c) increases flow stress. and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point. (b) lower. (c) 0. (c) 18. (c). (c) extrusion.73. Answer.8 The coefficient of friction between the part and the tool in cold working tends to be which of the following relative to its value in hot working? (a) higher. or (b) plastic region. or (d) 0.1 K = 600 MPa and n = 0. (d).7 Increasing strain rate tends to have which one of the following effects on flow stress during hot forming of metal? (a) decreases flow stress.3 The flow curve expresses the behavior of a metal in which of the following regions of the stress-strain curve? (a) elastic region.1 Which of the following are bulk deformation processes (more than one)? (a) bending. or (b) low volume-to-area ratio.4 The average flow stress is the flow stress multiplied by which of the following factors? (a) n. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point.6 Which of the following are advantages and characteristics of hot working relative to cold working (more than one)? (a) fracture of workpart less likely.2Tm. Answer. 93 . (a). (d) forging.20 for a certain metal. Problems Flow Curve in Forming 18. (d) 18. (c) 1/n. (e). or (d) 1/(1+n). For each question.Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 13 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct). (b) 0. Answer. and (e) rolling.2 Which of the following is typical of the work geometry in sheet metal processes? (a) high volume-to-area ratio. where n is the strain hardening exponent. Answer. and (f) more significant shape changes are possible. During a forming operation. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers. (d) less overall energy required. or (c) no effect. (b) 18. all correct answers must be given. (b) (1+n). (b) has no effect. (b) increased strength properties. To attain a perfect score on the quiz. since each correct answer is worth 1 point. Determine the flow stress at this strain and the average flow stress that the metal experienced during the operation. (d) 18. and (f). 18.6Tm. 18. (b). Answer.5 Hot working of metals refers to which one of the following temperature regions relative to the melting point of the given metal on an absolute temperature scale? (a) room temperature. Answer. (b) 18. the final true strain that the metal experiences = 0. (b) deep drawing. (c). (e) lower deformation forces required.

7 Determine the value of the strain hardening exponent for a metal that will cause the average flow stress to be 3/4 of the final flow stress after deformation.5 MPa.451 Flow stress Yf = 850(0.19.000(0.19 = 37.19/1.2 MPa f 18. K = 700 MPa and n = 0. Average flow stress Y = 40.1)]: Yf = Kε n Y over the range ε = 0 to ε = ε is given by ∫Kε n dε = K ∫ε n dε = Kε n+1/ε(n+1) = Kε n /(n+1) ε f 18.4 MPa.27 ε must be equal to 1.000 lb/in2 and n = 0.2 = 563.27. f 18.0) = ln 1.69315) 0. A tensile specimen of the metal with gage length = 2.75 + 0.2 A metal has a flow curve with parameters: K = 850 MPa and strain hardening exponent n = 0.000(0. Average flow stress Y = 850(0. Determine the flow stress at this new length and the average flow stress that the metal has been subjected to during deformation. Solution: Flow stress equation [Eq.73) 0.75(1+n) = 0.000 lb/in2 and strain hardening exponent n = 0.30 = 669.3/2.30/1.Solution: Flow stress Yf = 600(0.352 lb/in2.27 = 551.27 = 700/1.75 1 = 0.501) 0. A tensile specimen of the metal with gage length = 100 mm is stretched to a length = 157 mm.57 = 0. f 18.69315 Flow stress Yf = 40.26/1.69315) 0.9 MPa. Solution: Y = 0.501 Flow stress Yf = 35. f 18. (18.0 in is stretched to a length = 3.5 in.000(0. Average flow stress Y = 600(0.26. Eq. (18.5 Derive the equation for average flow stress.4 MPa. Y = 700(1. Solution: ε = ln (1.26 = 23. Determine the flow stress at this compressed length and the average flow stress that the metal has experienced during deformation. Determine the average flow stress that the metal experiences if it is subjected to a stress that is equal to its strength coefficient K. Average flow stress Y = 35.5 = -0.451) 0. Solution: ε = ln (157/100) = ln 1.451) 0.0) .000(0.75n 0. Solution: Yf = K = 700 = Kε n = 700ε .2/1.3 A particular metal has a flow curve with parameters: strength coefficient K = 35. Solution: ε = ln (3.2) in the text.206 lb/in2.4 The strength coefficient and strain hardening exponent of a certain test metal are K = 40.240 lb/in2.6 For a certain metal. A cylindrical specimen of the metal with starting diameter = 2.65 = 0.30.75 Kε n 1/(1+n) = 0.0) = ln 0.19 = 31.27/1.0 in is compressed to a length of 1.73) 0.26 = 29.5/3.2 = 469.0.333 94 .75 Yf f Kε n/(1+n) = 0.501) 0.75n n = 0. Determine the flow stress at the new length and the average flow stress that the metal has been subjected to during the deformation. f 18.5 in and length = 3.25 = 0.309 lb/in2.30 = 514.3 in.

1667 sec-1 At L = 6. strain rate = 0.9 The gage length of a tensile test specimen = 150 mm.1538 sec-1 At L = 7.667 s -1 (c) strain rate = 200/51 = 3.1 m/s.5724 Ao/Af = 1.1/0. the relative speed of the plattens compressing the part = 200 mm/s.500 s-1 18.11 A workpart with starting height h = 100 mm is compressed to a final height of 50 mm.4 = -0. 95 .15 = 0.000/35.0 = 0.5 = 0.000 = 35.0 in. If the average flow stress on the part is 20. Construct a plot of the strain rate as a function of length as the specimen is pulled to a length = 200 mm.4) 1. (b) h = 75 mm. strain rate = 1/7.7726 Af = Ao/1.4(20.526 s-1 At L = 200 mm. Determine the strain rate at (a) h = 100 mm.000 ε .1250 sec-1 18.22314/0.0 in.15.. strain rate = 1/8.40 for a metal used in a forming operation in which the workpart is reduced in cross-sectional area by stretching.0 in.1/0. During the deformation. strain rate = 1/6. and (c) h = 51 mm.5724 ε = ln(Ao/Af) = 0.1429 sec-1 At L = 7. Solution: (a) strain rate = 200/100 = 2.564Ao Strain Rate 18.0/sec. Solution: Y = Kε n/(1+n) f 20.000 = 0.5 in.01/sec (b) 1.19 = 0.18.4 0.1/0. Solution: The following values are calculated for the plot: At L = 150 mm. strain rate = 0. It is subjected to a tensile test in which the grips holding the end of the test specimen are moved with a relative velocity = 0.55786 ε = 0. determine the amount of reduction in cross-sectional area experienced by the part. The strength constant C = 30.16 = 0..4/(1. strain rate = 1/7. strain rate = 0.0 in. strain rate = 0.1333 sec-1 At L = 8.8) = -0.922 s -1 18.0 in/sec. strain rate = 0.12 A hot working operation is carried out at various speeds. strain rate = 1/6.000 lb/in2 and n = 0. Solution: The following values are calculated for the plot: At L = 6.0 = 0.1/0.4 ln ε = ln (0. Construct a plot of the strain rate as a function of length as the specimen is pulled to a length = 8.667 s-1 At L = 160 mm.625 s-1 At L = 170 mm.22314 ln ε = -0.1/0.0 = 0.000 ε .0 s -1 (b) strain rate = 200/75 = 2.8 = ε .1/0.0 in starting gage length is subjected to a tensile test in which the grips holding the end of the test specimen are moved with a relative velocity = 1.. strain rate = 0.18 = 0. (c) 100/sec.000 lb/in 2. Determine the flow stress if the strain rate is: (a) 0.10 A specimen with 6.4 28.20 = 0.8 K = 35.000 lb/in2 and the strain-rate sensitivity exponent m = 0.17 = 0.5 = 0.7726 = 0.5 in.555 s-1 At L = 190 mm..000) = 35.588 s-1 At L = 180 mm..

01) . the strength constant C would increase and the strainrate sensitivity exponent m would decrease.000(0. the stress is measured at 23.Solution: (a) Yf = C(strain rate)m = 30.4) for a certain metal.6726 = 95.4 (b) If temperature were decreased to 900°F.9656 = m ln 30 0.5215 m (5.659 (b) If temperature were 600°C.9565 = (300/10) m = (30) m ln 1. (a) Determine C and m.207 = 300/3.000/23.5215 – 2. (b) If the temperature were 900°F.000 lb/in 2.1973 = 45000/3.5752 = 14.000 = C(10) m and (2) 45.1973 (1) C = 23000/10 = 23000/1. (18.7038 – 5. C = 95. (a) Determine C and m. the stress = 300 MPa.13 A tensile test is performed to determine the parameters C and m in Eq.000 lb/in2 (c) Yf = 30.15 = 30. what changes would you expect in the values of C and m? Solution: (a) Two equations: (1) 23.658 (2) C = 300/(250) .000 = 1. The temperature at which the test is performed = 500°C. 96 .207 = 160.4 (2) C = 45000/3000.4 C = 14. the strength constant C would decrease and the strain-rate sensitivity exponent m would increase.0752 3. At a strain rate = 10/sec.6286 m = 0.m ln 250 5.036 lb/in2 (b) Yf = 30. and at a strain rate = 250/s.0752 – 2.67117 = 3. (b) If the temperature were 600°C.1361 = 95.4849)m = 5.000 = C(300) m 45.0366 m = 0.1.601.601.000 lb/in 2. the stress is measured at 160 MPa. the stress = 45.000(100) .15 = 59. what changes would you expect in the values of C and m? Solution: (a) Two equations: (1) 160 = C(12) m and (2) 300 = C(250) m (1) ln 160 = ln C + m ln 12 or ln 160 . and at a strain rate = 300/sec.m ln 250 = ln C (1) and (2): ln 160 .0819 = 14.0) .4849 m = 5. 18.601.15 = 15.7038 – 5.m ln 12 = ln 300 .14 A tensile test is carried out to determine the strength constant C and strain-rate sensitivity exponent m for a certain metal at 1000°F.m ln 12 = ln C (2) ln 300 = ln C + m ln 250 or ln 300 .207 (1) C = 160/(12) . At a strain rate = 12/s.1973 0.858 lb/in2 18.000(1.660 Averaging these values.4012 m m = 0.

7 One way to classify forging operations is by the degree to which the work is constrained in the die. 19. some are net shape processes. identify some additional bulk forming processes that use rolls to effect the deformation.9 Why is flash desirable in impression die forging? Answer. (2) impression die forging.2 List some of the products produced on a rolling mill. 19. What are the two basic types of forging equipment? Answer. 19. 19. 19. name the three basic types.5 What is a reversing mill in rolling? Answer. A two-high rolling mill consists of two opposing rolls between which the work is compressed.19 19. gear rolling.6 Besides flat rolling and shape rolling. Because its presence constrains the metal in the die to fill the details of the die cavity. and presses. 19. Answer. A reversing mill is a two-high rolling mill in which the direction of rotation of the rolls can be reversed to allow the work to pass through from either side. and (3) closed die forging. Some other processes that use rolls are ring rolling. 19. which impact the workpart. Reasons why the bulk deformation processes are important include: (1) they are capable of significant shape change when hot working is used. Answer. and (3) use smaller diameter rolls. roll piercing. 19.8 19. rails. (2) reduce draft in each pass.3 Identify some of the ways in which force in flat rolling can be reduced. By this classification. which apply a gradual pressure to the work. structural shapes such as I-beams and channels. and (3) most of the processes produce little material waste. and roll forging. thread rolling. Answer. Rolled products include flat sheet and plate stock. The three basic types are: (1) open die forging.10 What is isothermal forging? 97 .4 What is a two-high rolling mill? Answer.1 BULK DEFORMATION PROCESSES IN METALWORKING Review Questions What are the reasons why the bulk deformation processes are important commercially and technologically? Answer. (2) they have a positive effect on part strength when cold working is used. Answer. round bar and rod stock. Ways to reduce force in flat rolling include: (1) use hot rolling. The two types of forging machines are hammers.

See Article 19. since each correct answer is worth 1 point. Bar and wire drawing (a) is the only tricky answer.Answer. They are both examples of how compressive stresses applied to the outside surface of a solid cylindrical cross-section can create high tensile stresses in the interior of the cylinder. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point. Answer. (c) forging. 19. 19. (a) and (b). 98 . (b) hobbing. (c) ring rolling. For each question. 19. and rods of various cross-section. channels). (d) stock thickness. (a) and (c). although tensile stresses are applied to the work. aluminum beverage cans. (b). (b) extrusion. tubes and pipes. (c) roll velocity. Answer. Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 22 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct).11 Distinguish between direct and indirect extrusion. and (f) strength coefficient of the work metal. all correct answers must be given. Because if the drawing stress exceeded the yield strength.1 The maximum possible draft in a rolling operation depends on which of the following parameters (more than one)? (a) coefficient of friction between roll and work.3 Production of pipes and tubes is associated with which of the following bulk deformation processes (more than one)? (a) extrusion. the metal on the exit side of the draw die would stretch rather than force metal to be drawn through the die opening. why must the drawing stress never exceed the yield strength of the work metal? Answer. (b) roll diameter. (e) strain. the work is squeezed through the die opening by compression the term indirect compression is sometimes used. 19. Products made by discrete extrusion include: toothpaste tubes. 19.4 Which of the four basic bulk deformation processes use compression to effect shape change (more than one)? (a) bar and wire drawing. and battery cases. 19. (b) continuous rolling mill. or (e) three-high configuration. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers. (e). Answer. To attain a perfect score on the quiz. and (d) rolling. shower stalls.12 Name some products that are produced by extrusion. and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point. and (d). or (g) upsetting. Answer. (f) tube sinking. (c) four-high mill. (c).3. (a). Products produced by continuous extrusion include: structural shapes (window frames. (e) roll piercing. Answer.13 What does the centerburst defect in extrusion have in common with the roll piercing process? Answer. Answer.1. 19. (d) roll forging. and (f).14 In a wire drawing operation. (d) reversing mill. 19.2 Which of the following rolling mill types are associated with relatively small diameter rolls in contact with the work (more than one)? (a) cluster mill. (a). Isothermal forging is a hot forging operation in which the die surfaces are heated to reduce heat transfer from the work into the tooling.

or (d) 2. Tube and pipe cross-sections can be produced by either direct or indirect extrusion.0.5 = 0. (b).915 .10 Johnson's formula is associated with which of the four bulk deformation processes (one answer)? (a) bar and wire drawing.7 19.02w o) = 640/30. and (d) rolling.30 = 10 mm. no friction. and (f) upsetting. and (c) forward slip.02 wo 40(wo)(16) = 30(1.1826 (b) Plate widens by 2%. (b) extrusion.0333) 0. and (f).8 19. (e) thread rolling. Entrance speed = 16 m/min. (c). and upset forged to form the nail head. (d).02w o)vf vf = 40(wo)(16)/ 30(1. and no redundant work.tf = 40 . Answer. The production of tubing is possible in indirect extrusion but not in direct extrusion: (a) true or (b) false? Answer. Roll radius = 300 mm. (c) forging.0333 µ = (0.0 ft long. (b) fullering. (d) roll forging. Flash causes build-up of pressure inside the die which causes the work metal to fill the cavity.5 Flash in impression die forging serves no useful purpose and is undesirable because it must be trimmed from the part after forming: (a) true or (b) false? Answer.915 m/min (c) s = (vf .1 A 40 mm thick plate is to be reduced to 30 mm in one pass in a rolling operation. (a). Answer. is which of the following (one answer)? (a) zero. (b).2 A 2.63. and (d). drawn into wire stock. 19.vr)/vr = (20. Theoretically. (b) extrusion.6 = 20. (c) 1. (b) Which of the following bulk deformation processes are involved in the production of nails for lumber construction (more than one)? (a) bar and wire drawing.0 in wide and 12. Answer. (b) exit velocity under the assumption that the plate widens by 2% during the operation. and (d) rolling. (c) forging. Answer. the maximum reduction possible in a wire drawing operation. 19. Thickness is to be reduced in three steps in a hot rolling operation.9 19.19.5 rev/min.5 = 0.18. Bar stock is rolled. and rotational speed = 18. µ2 = 10/300 = 0.6 Which of the following are classified as forging operations (more than one)? (a) coining.13 19. It is expected 99 . towovo = tfwfvf wf = 1.5)/18. (b) 0. Solution: (a) Maximum draft dmax = µ2 R Given that d = to . Each step will reduce the slab to 75% of its previous thickness. (c) impact extrusion. Determine: (a) the minimum required coefficient of friction that would make this rolling operation possible.72. (b) Problems Rolling 19.0 in thick slab is 10. (a). under the assumptions of a perfectly plastic metal. (b).

Thickness of the starting plate = 25 mm and width = 300 mm.00 mm 19.75)(0. To reduce from to = 50 mm to to = 25 mm in n passes.1591.x) = (.927)Lf Lf = (2.3 in.63 = 37. and n = number of passes. Step 1: vf = (2. Rotational speed at the first stand = 20 rev/min.71 mm Pass 5: d = 28. tf = 37.844)(10. the slab will widen by 3% in each step.0)(1.91 mm.6.0) = 0.89(0.4.53 . wf = (1.0)(10.0)(1.03 x 10. Step 2: vf = (0.1575 Let x = fraction reduction per pass. The specification is that the draft is to be equal on each pass.25 mm 19. (a) What is the minimum number of passes required? (b) What is the draft for each pass? Solution: (a) Maximum possible draft occurs on first pass: dmax = µ2 R = (0.51/n Try n = 4: (1 .x) n = 25/50 = 0.3.15. If the entry speed of the slab in the first step is 40 ft/min. suppose that the percent reduction were specified to be equal for each pass. Equal drafts of 6 mm are to be taken at each stand. Determine: (a) minimum number of passes required.25)/4 = 6.0)(40)/(0.927) = 312.98 .x) = 0. Step 3: vf = (0.27 mm.0)(40)/(0.875 = 3.927 in.that for this metal and reduction.71(0.5 A continuous hot rolling mill has two stands.87055 = 0.844 in. tf = 43. Final thickness is to be 13 mm.27 = 28. tf = 32. = 26. and (b) draft for each pass? Solution: (a) Maximum draft dmax = µ2 R = (0.71 = 25. towoLo = tfwfLf (2.032 x 10.0.844)(10. tf = (0. Roll radius at each stand = 250 mm. Under the assumption that the forward slip is equal at each stand.75 x 2. determine: (a) speed vr at each stand.12945) = 5.15) 2 (350) = 7.63 mm. (b) Pass 1: d = 50(0.03)(10.0.0)(1.03)(1. 19. and roll speed is the same for the three steps.89 mm Pass 3: d = 37.89 . rather than the draft. 100 .8409 x = 1 .98(0.53 mm Pass 2: d = 43.78 ft/min. and (b) forward slip s. which is within the maximum possible reduction of 0.0) = 10.0)(1.47 = 43.875 mm This converts into a maximum possible reduction x = 7.753 x 2.875 mm Minimum number of passes = (to . Solution: (a) After three passes.3 A series of cold rolling operations are to be used to reduce the thickness of a plate from 50 mm down to 25 mm in a reversing two-high mill.8409 = 0.98 mm Pass 4: d = 32.71 mm.78 ft/min.0) = 51.752 x 2. which exceeds the maximum possible reduction of 0.1575.78 ft/min.752 x 2.0) = 51.03 x 10.5) 1/5 = 0.1575.12945) = 3.0) = 51.25)/7.0)(10.12945.0)(1. tf = 28. The number of passes must be an integer.4 In the previous problem.4.75 x 2.033 x 10.0)(40)/(0.12945) = 4.tf)/dmax = (50 .47 mm.5) 1/4 = 0.75)(2.53(0. Roll diameter = 700 mm and coefficient of friction between rolls and work = 0. Try n = 5: (1 . the following relationship must be satisfied: 50(1 .15) 2 (350) = 7.5.025 ft (b) Given that roll speed is the same at all three stands and that towovo = tfwfvf .91 = 32.75)(0.5 (1 .875/50 = 0. tf = 50 .032 x 10. The plate is wide enough relative to its thickness that no increase in width occurs.x) = (.03)(1. determine: (a) length and (b) exit velocity of the slab after the final reduction.0)(12 x 12)/(0.71 .0)(10.12945) = 6.12945) = 4.0)(12 x 12) = (0.17 → 4 passes (b) Draft per pass d = (50 .x) n = 25 (1 .87055 x = 1 .

to = 25 mm.10 (1 .089 (c) v1 = 34.vr (1 + s)vr = vf 101 . if the entering speed at the first stand = 26 m/min. vr2 = ? Forward slip s = (vf . previously calculated in (b) v2 = 1.75v1 = 0.5(31. t1 = 25 .2 m/min. 2 and 3). (b) rotational speed of the rolls at stands 2 through 8.0 in.x) 8 = 0. Solution: (a) Let to = entering plate thickness at stand 1.vr)/vr svr = vf .5vr1 vr2 = 1. Let t1 = exiting plate thickness at stand 1 and entering thickness at stand 2. (1 + s)vr2 = v2 = 1.0 in. The final thickness is to be 0. (1 + s)vr2 = 1.2 m/min (Eq.5(1 + s)vr1 . and (c) forward slip. to tf = 0.(c) Also. Determine: (a) percent reduction at each stand.2 (1 + s) = 34.0. (1 + s)vr2 = v2 (Eq.3 in.42 m/min.6 A continuous hot rolling mill has eight stands.10) 1/8 = 0. Let vr1 = roll speed at stand 1. Let vr2 = roll speed at stand 2.74989 = r = 0.3 m/min.x) = (0. tovo = t1v1 = t2v2 1. Let t2 = exiting plate thickness at stand 2. towovo = t1w1v1 = t2w2v2 Since there is no change in width.2501 = 25. wo = w1 = w2 Therefore.6 = 19 mm. 3) Combining (Eqs. Percent reduction in thickness is to be equal at all stands.2) = 51.5v1 Substituting (Eq.1 m/min. width = 15.6 = 13 mm. The dimensions of the starting slab are: thickness = 3. Roll diameter at each stand = 36 in.x) 8 = 0. (b) 25vo = 19v1 v1 = 25(26)/19 = 34. and rotational speed at stand number 1 = 30 rev/min.0(1 . 2) By constant volume.3/3. t2 = 19 . It is observed that the speed of the slab entering stand 1 = 240 ft/min. 1).vr (1 + s)vr = vf At stand 1.5(34.vr)/vr svr = vf .01% at each stand. and it is assumed that the forward slip will be equal at each stand. vr1 = πDNr = π(2 x 250)(10-3)(20) = 31.74989 x = 1 . 19. (1 + s)vr1 = v1 (Eq. determine the exiting speeds at each rolling stand.5v1 = 1. thus vr2 = 1.0 in. 1) At stand 2.2/31.0vo = 0. (d) What is the draft at stands 1 and 8? (e) What is the length and exit speed of the final strip exiting stand 8? Solution: (a) To reduce from to = 3. Let vo = entering plate speed at stand 1. 1): (1 + s)vr1 = v1 (1 + s)(31. and length = 10 ft. Let v1 = exiting plate speed at stand 1 and entering speed at stand 2.5v1 (Eq. Let v2 = exiting plate speed at stand 2.4 = 1.50v2 v2 = 1. in 8 stands. 3. (b) Forward slip s = (vf . Assume that no widening of the slab occurs during the rolling sequence.42) = 47.089 s = 0.3 in.0 = 0.4) = 34.3 (1 .

132 s = 0. At stand 2: (1 + s)vr2 = v2 . (e) Length of final strip Lf = L8 towoLo = t8w8L8 Given that wo = w8. v2 = exit speed of slab. By constant volume.25 = 0. where vr8 = roll speed. . Determine: (a) roll force. where r = 0. toLo = t8L8 3.132 s = 0. 3(1 . . v1 = exit speed of slab. = t8v8 to = 3. as before (d) Draft at stand 1 d1 = 3.9.10609 x 282.78 = 1.223 102 . towovo = t1w1v1 = t2w2v2 = .74989 = 320 ft/min v2 = 320/0.3) = 2400 ft/min.8/377.2501) = 0.r)v1 = 3(1 .At stand 1: (1 + s)vr1 = v1 . tovo = t1v = t2v2 = .2.20 = 5 mm.78/(1-r)4 = 94.10609 x 282.78/(1-r)2 = 53.3 rev/min Nr7 = 0.78/(1-0.10609 x 282.04 ft/min (1 + s)(377. where vr2 = roll speed.10609 x 282.74989 = 426.r)8v8 . . . w8 Therefore.8 (1 + s) = 426.426N r2 = 0..1 rev/min Nr5 = 0.78/(1-r)3 = 71.78) = 320 (1 + s) = 320/282.7 L8 = 100 ft A plat that is 250 mm wide and 25 mm thick is to be reduced in a single pass in a two-high rolling mill to a thickness of 20 mm. vr1 : vr2 : . vr2 = Nr2/0. The work material has a strength coefficient = 240 MPa and a strain hardening exponent = 0.0. v8 = exit speed of slab.132. = t8w8v8 Since there is no change in width. . Contact length L = (500 x 5) .10609 x 282.8 ft/min from above Nr2 = 0.78/(1-r) = 0.0(10 ft) = 0.04) = 426. Etc. and its speed = 30 m/min. .0(. : vr8 = v1 : v2 : . The roll has a radius = 500 mm.8 ft/min From equations for forward slip. Since s is a constant. . 19.426(40) = 377.78) = 0.3L8 towovo = t8w8v8 tovo = t8v8 v8 = 240(3/0.10609 x 282.10609 x 282. Draft at stand 8 d8 = 3.132 Check with stand 2: given v2 = 426.5 rev/min Nr8 = 0.78/(1-r)5 = 126. .10609vr2 Rearranging.r)2v2 = .2501) = 40 rev/min Nr3 = 0. wo = w1 = w2 = .10609 x 282.2501 as determined in part (a). 3vo = 3(1 .10609 = 9.9 rev/min Nr6 = 0. where vr1 = roll speed. vr1 = πDNr1 = (2π x 18/12)(30) = 282.14 = 1.3 rev/min Nr4 = 0. and (c) power required to accomplish this operation.78/(1-r)7 = 224.78 ft/min In general Nr = (30/282. : v8 Given that Nr1 = 30 rev/min. (1 + s)vr1 = v1 (1 + s)(282.10609vr Nr2 = 0.2501) = 0. . Solution: (a) Draft d = 25 .10006 in.5 = 50 mm True strain ε = ln(25/20) = ln 1. .78/(1-r)6 = 168. . .0(1 .2501) 7(.7503 in. At stand 8: (1 + s)vr8 = v8. (b) roll torque.9 rev/min (c) Given vo = 240 ft/min v1 = 240/(1-r) = 240/0.

8 Solve Problem 19.5 = 0.000 lb/in 2 and a strain hardening exponent = 0. and its speed = 30 ft/min.1823) 0.20/1.0 . and (c) power required to accomplish this operation.0) = 404.095 N (b) Torque T = 0.851.318 rev/s Power P = 2π(0.311.604 N-m/s = 92.35 x 10-3) = 23.1823 Y = 25.095)(35.417)(15.318)(1. power would probably increase because of lower mechanical efficiency in the cluster type rolling mill.81 x 10-3) = 4. Solution: (a) Draft d = 25 .16/1.5(585. 19.159 rev/s Power P = 2π(0.8.5 = 2.1(250)(35. Solution: (a) Draft d = 3.20 = 0.174 N-m (c) N = (30 m/min)/(2π x 0.1 MPa f Rolling force F = 148.829 N (b) Torque T = 0. In fact.050) = 95.25 = 0.5) .20 = 148.35 x 10-3) = 92..296 N-m (c) N = (30 m/min)/(2π x 0.414(2.223) 0.2.20 = 5 mm.414 lb/in 2 f Rolling force F = 16. Contact length L = (50 x 5) .829)( 50 x 10-3) = 46.0 in thick slab that is 9 in wide is to be reduced in a single pass in a two-high rolling mill to a thickness of 2. (b) roll torque.1(250)(15. Contact length L = (15 x 0. Compare the results with the previous two problems.55 rev/min = 0. The work material has a strength coefficient = 25.554 W Note that this is the same power value (within calculation error) as in Problems 19.851.604 W Note that the force and torque are reduced as roll radius is reduced. but that the power remains the same (within calculation error) as in the previous problem.159)(1.0/2.20/1.829)(50 x 10-3) = 92.223) 0.223 Y = 240(0.592)(585.9 Solve Problem 19.1 MPa f Rolling force F = 148.5 in.5 = 35.16.554 N-m/s = 92.20 = 148.20 = 148. The roll has a radius = 15 in.1(250)(50) = 1.591 N-m/s = 92.74)(9.20/1.20 = 5 mm.5 = 15. torque and power.851.095)(35.35) = 1. Contact length L = (250 x 5) .35 mm True strain ε = ln(25/20) = ln 1.81 x 10-3) = 92. True strain ε = ln(3.5(1.7.5) = ln 1.223 Y = 240(0.417)(15.5(1.250) = 19. 19.5 rev/min = 1.628 N-m (c) N = (30 m/min)/(2π x 0.10 A 3.223) 0.16 = 16.771 lb 103 .000(0. Determine: (a) roll force.7 using a roll radius = 250 mm.50 in. only assume a cluster mill with working rolls of radius = 50 mm.311.74 in.81) = 585.500) = 9.591 W 19. and note the important effect of roll radius on force.417 N (b) Torque T = 0.25 = 0. Solution: (a) Draft d = 25 .81 mm True strain ε = ln(25/20) = ln 1.1 MPa f Rolling force F = 148.311.1 rev/min = 0.7 and 19.592 rev/s Power P = 2π(1.Y = 240(0.

5 .02 = 4 d = 4/12 = 0.000) = 67.741 in-lb/min)/(396. and (c) power required for this operation.2 hp 19.2) = 0.720 N-m (c) Given that N = 12 rev/min Power P = 2π(12/60)(672.5/tf) tf = to -d = 1.12 A hot rolling mill has rolls of diameter = 24 in.000 = 2. ε = ln(1.5/1.82)(404.000 lb/in2. Draft d = 1.333) 0.771)(2.1054 Y = 600(0.74) = 26.5(672.5 = 11.88) = 49.000 in-lb/min Contact length L = (12 x 0.617.5 = 2. Solution: (a) Draft d = 20 .18 = 2.22/1.697 W 19.15.0 = 20. Determine: (a) maximum possible draft.5 .5 in thick plate by the maximum possible draft in one pass.672 MN = 672.5 = 400.600.000)(0. 104 .000 lb/in 2 Force F = 20. The work material has a strength coefficient = 600 MPa and a strength coefficient = 0.88 rev/min vr = 2πRN = 2π(12/12)(7.0) = 5. Contact length L = (250 x 2) .12 except that the operation is warm rolling and the strain hardening exponent n = 0.000 N (b) Torque T = 0.251 f (c) Given maximum possible power HP = 100 hp = 100 x 396000 (in-lb/min)/hp = 39. (b) roll torque.000)(0. Power P = 2π(3. Determine: (a) roll force. (b) associated true strain. Assume the strength coefficient remains K = 20.0112)(0. and (c) maximum speed of the rolls for the operation.22 = 300 MPa f Rolling force F = 300(0.167) = ln 1.333 in. P = 2πN(400.000(ε)0/1.026.0112) = 3.536 in-lb.5 = 400. The starting plate is 10 in wide.18 mm = 0.000 lb/in 2 and a strain hardening exponent = zero.741 in-lb/min HP = (26.5 ft/min 19.111 = 0.0 mm.0 in.tf Contact length L = (12d) 0.5 Y = 20. (c) N = (30 ft/min)/(2π x 15/12) = 3. It can exert a maximum force = 400.5(401.0 12 d = 2.000 lb. the work material has a strength coefficient = 20.600.0112) = 37.548N in-lb/min 5. It is desired to reduce a 1. Solution: (a) Assumption: maximum possible draft is determined by the force capability of the rolling mill and not by coefficient of friction between the rolls and the work.548N = 39.000)(2.1054) 0.13 Solve Problem 19.000(10) (12d) 0. In the heated condition.0112 m True strain ε = ln(20/18) = ln 1.333 = 1. The mill has a maximum horsepower = 100 hp.617.000/200.000 N = 7.11 A single-pass rolling operation reduces a 20 mm thick plate to 18 mm.82 rev/min. The starting plate is 200 mm wide.026.771)(2.22. (b) True strain ε = ln(1.167 in.(b) Torque T = 0. Roll radius = 250 mm and rotational speed = 12 rev/min.74) = 554.285 = 0.0.000 (the limiting force of the rolling mill) (12d) 0.

462 = 0.15/1.547/15.000N = 39. ε = ln(1.5/0. Final height = 20 mm.887 = 0.462 lb/in2.0. ε = ln(1.4055) . ε = ln(1.5 = 11.8315 d = 0.0..000 (as given) f f Y (d) f 0. Draft d = 1.189 lb/in2. ε = ln(1.547/13.5 .5 = 400.547 f Now use trial-and-error to values of Y and d that fit this equation.391ε .223) . tf = 1.15 = 15.0) = ln 1. tf = 1.58) = 6.578.579 = 0.4055 Y = 17. tf = 1.391(0. which is close to the trial value of d = 0.3 Try d = 0. Coefficient of friction at the die -work interface = 0.547/15. The work material has a flow 105 .. which does not equal the initial trial value of d = 0.2) = ln 1.000N in-lb/min 6.95) = ln 1.Solution: (a) Assumption (same as in previous problem): maximum possible draft is determined by the force capability of the rolling mill and not by coefficient of friction between the rolls and the work.11 rev/min vr = 2πRN = 2π(12/12)(6.391(0.5 ε = ln(1.15 = 15.4 ft/min f f f f Forging 19.641 = 11. which is very close to the trial value of d = 0.0 in.000 N = 6.457 Y = 17.945) = ln 1.489 lb/in2. (d) 0.5 .486.462 Y = 17. (b) True strain ε = ln(1.000/34.747 d = 0.5 .457) ..189 = 0.5/0. which does not equal the trial value of d = 0.5 Try d = 0.5/1.5/1.000)(2.600.486.391(0.945) = 0.2 in.462) .000 in-lb/min Contact length L = (12 x 0.7602 d = 0.555) 0.391(0.5 .tf Contact length L = (12d) 0.5873 = 0.15 = 13.5 = 34.641 Y (d) 0.15 f F = Y (10)(12d) 0.5 = 400.547/15.5 = 1.558.3 = 1.50 .0.20.555. (d) 0.55 in.55 Try d = 0.5/0.3 in.556.58 in.5/tf) Y = 20.5 = 11.15 = 17.55 = 0..489 = 0.95 in.945 in.5 = 2. tf = 1.50 = 0.555 in.887 lb/in2.25 = 0.462 (c) Given maximum possible power HP = 100 hp = 100 x 396000 (in-lb/min)/hp = 39.15 = 15.5 = 11. P = 2πN(400. Try d = 0. Do = 50 mm and h o = 40 mm.0.5 = 11.000(ε)0.600.11) = 38.5 in.14 A cylindrical part is warm upset forged in an open die.223 Y = 17. (d) 0.691.745 d = 0. (d) 0.555 = 0.

92 A = V/h = 78.3.540 mm3 Given ε = 0.002.661 N 19.5/2.002) 0.34 in 2 Corresponding D = 2.0834 Yf = 40.46) = 225.045(27.04(15.curve defined by: K = 600 MPa and n = 0.2)(70.9 = 6. and (d) h = 1.948 lb/in2 V = 12.695 lb 106 .556)(4. A = V/h = 12.9) = ln 1.060(32.579 lb (b) Given h = 2.12 = 284.92 in 2 Kf = 1 + 0.560.273 in 3 Given ε = 0.557 N (c) Given h = 20.5/1.15 = 32.7 mm (from A = πD2/4) Kf = 1 + 0.273/2.060 F = 1.10.333 = 0.1(284.0 = 0.15 A cylindrical workpart with D = 2.92 = 1.002) = 2.12.9.15 = 15.4(. Determine the instantaneous force in the operation (a) just as the yield point is reached (yield at strain = 0.3) = ln 1. ε = ln(2.000 lb/in2 and n = 0.540/39.15 = 27.4(.6)(2618) = 1. A = V/h = 78. Determine the force in the operation (a) just as the yield point is reached (yield at strain = 0. A = V/h = 12.556 lb/in2 V = 12. At h = 1.9 in.002).5 in and h = 2.2. (b) at height h = 2.92 = 1963.5) = 614.540 mm3 from part (a) above.6 MPa V = 78.002) = 39.273 in 3 from part (a) above.4(. The work material has a flow curve defined by: K = 40.000(0.540/20 = 3927 mm2 Corresponding D = 70.1 F = 1. and h = 40 . ε = ln(40/20) = ln 2. Yf = 40.693 Yf = 600(0.540 mm3 from part (a) above.92) = 80.283 F = 1.273 in 3 from part (a) above.5 mm2 Kf = 1 + 0.087 = 0.3 = 5.1)(2.3 in. At h = 20.6 MPa. A = V/h = 78.4(.9 = 1.274 Yf = 40.3.5) 2(2.6)(1963. Coefficient of friction at the die -work interface = 0.7)/20 = 1.2)(3927) = 2.002) 0. ε = ln(2.61 (from A = πD2/4) Kf = 1 + 0. (c) h = 1.40(0.1)(2.822 lb (c) Given h = 1. and (c) at h = 20 mm.154 F = 1.3 = 1.34) = 153.9.000(0.748 lb/in2 and h = 2.5 in.4(.12 = 574.87 (from A = πD2/4) Kf = 1 + 0.7)/30 = 1.2)(50)/39.7 mm (from A = πD2/4) Kf = 1 + 0.5 in.4(.5(0.495 = 4.002.2)(57.283(574.002).0834) 0.045 F = 1.5 in is upset forged in an open die to a height = 1.748)(4.495 = 1.316 = 0.892. ε = ln(40/30) = ln 1.04 F = 1. (b) at h = 30 mm.87)/1.000(0.5 .948)(6. Solution: (a) V = πD2L/4 = π(50) 2(40)/4 = 78. At h = 2.46 in 2 Corresponding D = 2.540/30 = 2618 mm2 Corresponding D = 57.273/2. Solution: (a) V = πD2L/4 = π(2.693 N (b) Given h = 30.287) 0.495 A = V/h = 12. At h = 30.5)/2.274) 0.5)/4 = 12.2 MPa V = 78.12 = 516. Yf = 600(0.61)/2.154(516.693) 0.287 Yf = 600(0.273/1.1)(2.15.

(d) Given h = 1.5, ε = ln(2.5/1.5) = ln 1.667 = 0.511 Yf = 40,000(0.511) 0.15 = 36,166 lb/in2 V = 12.273 in 3 from part (a) above. At h = 1.5, A = V/h = 12.273/1.5 = 8.182 in 2 Corresponding D = 3.23 (from A = πD2/4) Kf = 1 + 0.4(.1)(3.23)/1.5 = 1.086 F = 1.086(36,166)(8.182) = 321,379 lb 19.16 A cylindrical workpart has a diameter = 2.0 in and a height = 4.0 in. It is upset forged to a height = 2.5 in. Coefficient of friction at the die -work interface = 0.10. The work material has a flow curve with strength coefficient = 25,000 lb/in 2 and strain hardening exponent = 0.22. Determine the plot of force vs. work height. Solution: Volume of cylinder V = πD2L/4 = π(2.5) 2(4.0)/4 = 19.635 in 3 We will compute the force F at selected values of height h: h = (a) 4.0, (b) 3.75, (c) 3.5, (d) 3.25, (e) 3.0, (f) 2.75, and (g) 2.5. These values can be used to develop the plot. The shape of the plot will be similar to Figure 21.13 in the text. (a) At h = 4.0, we assume yielding has just occurred and the height has not changed significantly. Use ε = 0.002 (the approximate yield point of metal). At ε = 0.002, Yf = 25,000(0.002) 0.22 = 6,370 lb/in2 Adjusting the height for this strain, h = 4.0 - 4.0(0.002) = 3.992 A = V/h = 19.635/3.992 = 4.92 in 2 Kf = 1 + 0.4(.1)(2.5)/3.992 = 1.025 F = 1.025(6,370)(4.92) = 32,125 lb (b) At h = 3.75, ε = ln(4.0/3.75) = ln 1.0667 = 0.0645 Yf = 25,000(0.0645) 0.22 = 13,680 lb/in2 V = 19.635 in 3 calculated above. At h = 3.75, A = V/h = 19.635/3.75 = 5.236 in 2 Corresponding D = 2.582 (from A = πD2/4) Kf = 1 + 0.4(.1)(2.582)/3.75 = 1.028 F = 1.028(13,680)(5.236) = 73,601 lb (c) At h = 3.5, ε = ln(4.0/3.5) = ln 1.143 = 0.1335 Yf = 25,000(0.1335) 0.22 = 16,053 lb/in2 At h = 3.5, A = V/h = 19.635/3.5 = 5.61 in 2 Corresponding D = 2.673 (from A = πD2/4) Kf = 1 + 0.4(.1)(2.673)/3.5 = 1.031 F = 1.031(16,053)(5.61) = 92,808 lb (d) At h = 3.25, ε = ln(4.0/3.25) = ln 1.231 = 0.2076 Yf = 25,000(0.2076) 0.22 = 17,691 lb/in2 At h = 3.25, A = V/h = 19.635/3.25 = 6.042 in 2 Corresponding D = 2.774 (from A = πD2/4) Kf = 1 + 0.4(.1)(2.774)/3.25 = 1.034 F = 1.034(17,691)(6.042) = 110,538 lb (e) At h = 3.0, ε = ln(4.0/3.0) = ln 1.333 = 0.2874 Yf = 25,000(0.2874) 0.22 = 19,006 lb/in2 At h = 3.0, A = V/h = 19.635/3.0 = 6.545 in 2 Corresponding D = 2.887 (from A = πD2/4)

107

Kf = 1 + 0.4(.1)(2.887)/3.0 = 1.038 F = 1.038(19,006)(6.545) = 129,182 lb (f) At h =2.75, ε = ln(4.0/2.75) = ln 1.4545 = 0.3747 Yf = 25,000(0.3747) 0.22 = 20,144 lb/in2 V = 19.635 in 3 calculated above. At h = 2.75, A = V/h = 19.635/2.75 = 7.140 in 2 Corresponding D = 3.015 (from A = πD2/4) Kf = 1 + 0.4(.1)(3.015)/2.75 = 1.044 F = 1.044(20,144)(7.140) = 150,136 lb (g) At h = 2.5, ε = ln(4.0/2.5) = ln 1.60 = 0.470 Yf = 25,000(0.470) 0.22 = 21,174 lb/in2 At h = 2.5, A = V/h = 19.635/2.5 = 7.854 in 2 Corresponding D = 3.162 (from A = πD2/4) Kf = 1 + 0.4(.1)(3.162)/2.5 = 1.051 F = 1.051(21,174)(7.854) = 174,715 lb 19.17 A cold heading operation is performed to produce the head on a steel nail. The strength coefficient for this steel is K = 550 MPa, and the strain hardening exponent n = 0.24. Coefficient of friction at the die-work interface = 0.10. The wire stock out of which the nail is made is 4.75 mm in diameter. The head is to have a diameter = 9.5 mm and a thickness = 1.5 mm. (a) What length of stock must project out of the die in order to provide sufficient volume of material for this upsetting operation? (b) Compute the maximum force that the punch must apply to form the head in this open-die operation. Solution: (a) Volume of nail head V = πDf2hf/4 = π(9.5) 2(1.5)/4 = 106.3 mm3. Ao = πDo2/4 = π(4.75) 2/4 = 17.7 mm2 ho = V/Ao = 106.3/17.7 = 6.0 mm (b) ε = ln(6.0/1.5) = ln 4 = 1.3863 Yf = 550(1.3863) 0.24 = 595 MPa Af = π(9.5) 2/4 = 70.9 mm2 Kf = 1 + 0.4(.1)(9.5/1.5) = 1.25 F = 1.25(595)(70.9) = 52,872 N 19.18 Obtain a large common nail (flat head). Measure the head diameter and thickness, as well as the diameter of the nail shank. (a) What stock length must project out of the die in order to provide sufficient material to produce the nail? (b) Using appropriate values for strength coefficient and strain hardening exponent for the metal out of which the nail is made (Table 3.5), compute the maximum force in the heading operation to form the head. Solution: Student exercise. Calculations similar to those above for the data developed by the student. 19.19 A hot upset forging operation is performed in an open die. The initial size of the workpart is: Do = 25 mm, and h o = 50 mm. The part is upset to a diameter = 50 mm. The work metal at this elevated temperature yields at 85 MPa (n = 0). Coefficient of friction at the die -work interface = 0.40. Determine: (a) final height of the part, and (b) maximum force in the operation. Solution: (a) V = πDo2ho/4 = π(25) 2(50)/4 = 24,544 mm3. Af = πDf2/4 = π(50) 2/4 = 1963.5 mm2. hf = V/Af = 24,544 /1963.5 = 12.5 mm.

108

(b) ε = ln(50/12.5) = ln 4 = 1.3863 Yf = 85(1.3863) 0 = 85 MPa Force is maximum at largest area value, Af = 1963.5 mm2 D = (4 x 1963.5/π)0.5 = 50 mm Kf = 1 + 0.4(.4)(50/12.5) = 1.64 F = 1.64(85)( 1963.5) = 273,712 N 19.20 A hydraulic forging press is capable of exerting a maximum force = 1,000,000 N. A cylindrical workpart is to be cold upset forged. The starting part has diameter = 30 mm and height = 30 mm. The flow curve of the metal is defined by K = 400 MPa and n = 0.2. Determine the maximum reduction in height to which the part can be compressed with this forging press, if the coefficient of friction = 0.1. Solution: Volume of work V = πDo2ho/4 = π(30) 2(30)/4 = 21,206 mm3. Final area Af = 21,206/hf ε = ln(30/hf) Yf = 400ε 0.2 = 400(ln 30/hf)0.2) Kf = 1 + 0.4µ(Df/hf) = 1 + 0.4(0.1)(Df/hf) Forging force F = KfYfAf = (1 + 0.04D f/hf)( 400(ln 30/hf)0.2)( 21,206/hf) Requires trial and error solution to find the value of hf that will match the force of 1,000,000 N. (1) Try hf = 20 mm Af = 21,206/20 = 1060.3 mm2 ε = ln(30/20) = ln 1.5 = 0.405 Yf = 400(0.405) 0.2 = 333.9 MPa Df = (4 x 1060.3/π)0.5 = 36.7 mm Kf = 1 + 0.04(36.7/20) = 1.073 F = 1.073(333.9)(1060.3) = 380,050 N Too low. Try a smaller value of hf to increase F. (2) Try hf = 10 mm. Af = 21,206/10 = 2120.6 mm2 ε = ln(30/10) = ln 3.0 = 1.099 Yf = 400(1.099) 0.2 = 407.6 MPa Df = (4 x 2120.6/π)0.5 = 51.96 mm Kf = 1 + 0.04(51.96/10) = 1.208 F = 1.208(407.6)(2120.6) = 1,043,998 N Slightly high. Need to try a value of hf between 10 and 20, closer to 10. (3) Try hf = 11 mm Af = 21,206/11 = 1927.8 mm2 ε = ln(30/11) = ln 2.7273 = 1.003 Yf = 400(1.003) 0.2 = 400.3 MPa Df = (4 x 1927.8/π)0.5 = 49.54 mm Kf = 1 + 0.04(51.12/11) = 1.18 F = 1.18(400.3)(1927.8) = 910,653 N (4) By linear interpolation, try hf = 10 + (44/133) = 10.33 mm Af = 21,206/10.33 = 2052.8 mm2 ε = ln(30/10.33) = ln 2.9042 = 1.066 Yf = 400(1.066) 0.2 = 405.16 MPa

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Df = (4 x 2052.8/π)0.5 = 51.12 mm Kf = 1 + 0.04(51.12/10.33) = 1.198 F = 1.198(405.16)(2052.8) = 996,364 N (5) By further linear interpolation, try hf = 10 + (44/48)(0.33) = 10.30 Af = 21,206/10.30 = 2058.8 mm2 ε = ln(30/10.30) = ln 2.913 = 1.069 Yf = 400(1.069) 0.2 = 405.38 MPa Df = (4 x 2058.8/π)0.5 = 51.2 mm Kf = 1 + 0.04(51.2/10.3) = 1.199 F = 1.199(405.38)(2058.8) = 1,000,553 N Close enough! Maximum height reduction = 30.0 - 10.3 = 19.7 mm 19.21 A part is designed to be hot forged in an impression die. The projected area of the part, including flash, is 15 in 2. After trimming, the part has a projected area = 10 in 2. Part geometry is relatively simple. As heated the work material yields at 9,000 lb/in 2, and has no tendency to strain harden. Determine the maximum force required to perform the forging operation. Solution: Since the work material has no tendency to work harden, n = 0. From Table 21.1, choose Kf = 6.0. F = 6.0(9,000)(15) = 810,000 lb. 19.22 A connecting rod is designed to be hot forged in an impression die. The projected area of the part is 6,500 mm2. The design of the die will cause flash to form during forging, so that the area, including flash, will be 9,000 mm2. The part geometry is considered to be complex. As heated the work material yields at 75 MPa, and has no tendency to strain harden. Determine the maximum force required to perform the operation. Solution: Since the work material has no tendency to work harden, n = 0. From Table 21.1, choose Kf =8.0. F = 8.0(75)(9,000) = 5,400,000 N.

Extrusion

19.23 A cylindrical billet that is 100 mm long and 40 mm in diameter is reduced by indirect (backward) extrusion to a 15 mm diameter. Die angle = 90°. If the Johnson equation has a = 0.8 and b = 1.5, and the flow curve for the work metal has K = 750 MPa and n = 0.15, determine: (a) extrusion ratio, (b) true strain (homogeneous deformation), (c) extrusion strain, (d) ram pressure, and (e) ram force. Solution: (a) rx = Ao/Af = Do2/Df2 = (40) 2/(15) 2 = 7.111 (b) ε = ln rx = ln 7.111 = 1.962 (c) ε x = a + b ln rx = 0.8 + 1.5(1.962) = 3.742 (d) Y = 750(1.962) 0.15/1.15 = 721.5 MPa,

f

p = 721.5(3.742) = 2700 MPa (e) Ao = πDo2/4 = π(40) 2/4 = 1256.6 mm2 F = 2700(1256.6) = 3,392,920 N. 19.24 A 3.0-in long cylindrical billet whose diameter = 1.5 in is reduced by indirect extrusion to a diameter = 0.375 in. Die angle = 90°. In the Johnson equation, a = 0.8 and b = 1.5. In the flow

110

curve for the work metal, K = 75,000 lb/in2 and n = 0.25. Determine: (a) extrusion ratio, (b) true strain (homogeneous deformation), (c) extrusion strain, (d) ram pressure, (e) ram force, and (f) power if the ram speed = 20 in/min. Solution: (a) rx = Ao/Af = Do2/Df2 = (1.5) 2/(0.375) 2 = 42 = 16.0 (b) ε = ln rx = ln 16 = 2.773 (c) ε x = a + b ln rx = 0.8 + 1.5(2.773) = 4.959 (d) Y = 75,000(2.773) 0.25/1.25 = 77,423 lb/in2

f

p = 77,423(4.959) = 383,934 lb/in2 (e) Ao = πDo2/4 = π(1.5) 2/4 = 1.767 in2 F = (383,934)(1.767) = 678,411 lb. (f) P = 678,411(20) = 13,568,228 in-lb/min HP = 13,568,228/396,000 = 34.26 hp 19.25 A billet that is 75 mm long with diameter = 35 mm is direct extruded to a diameter of 20 mm. The extrusion die has a die angle = 75°. For the work metal, K = 600 MPa and n = 0.25. In the Johnson extrusion strain equation, a = 0.8 and b = 1.4. Determine: (a) extrusion ratio, (b) true strain (homogeneous deformation), (c) extrusion strain, and (d) ram pressure at L = 70, 40, and 10 mm. Solution: (a) rx = Ao/Af = Do2/Df2 = (35) 2/(20) 2 = 3.0625 (b) ε = ln rx = ln 3.0625 = 1.119 (c) ε x = a + b ln rx = 0.8 + 1.4(1.119) = 2.367 (d) Y = 750(1.119) 0.25/1.25 = 493.7 MPa

f

It is appropriate to determine the volume of metal contained in the cone of the die at the start of the extrusion operation, to assess whether metal has been forced through the die opening by the time the billet has been reduced from L = 75 mm to L = 70 mm. For a cone-shaped die with angle = 75°, the height h of the frustum is formed by metal being compressed into the die opening: The two radii are: R1 = 0.5D o = 17.5 mm and R2 = 0.5D f = 10 mm, and h = (R1 - R2)/tan 75 = 7.5/tan 75 = 2.01 mm Frustum volume V = 0.333πh(R12 + R1R2 + R22) = 0.333π(2.01)(17.52 + 10 x 17.5 + 102) = 1223.4 mm3. Compare this with the volume of the portion of the cylindrical billet between L = 75 mm and L = 70 mm. V = πDo2 h/4 = 0.25π(35) 2(75 - 70) = 4810.6 mm3 Since this volume is greater than the volume of the frustum, this means that the metal has extruded through the die opening by the time the ram has moved forward by 5 mm. L = 70 mm: pressure p = 493.7(2.367 + 2 x 70/35) = 3143.4 MPa L = 40 mm: pressure p = 493.7(2.367 + 2 x 40/35) = 2297.0 MPa L = 10 mm: pressure p = 493.7(2.367 + 2 x 10/35) = 1450.7 MPa 19.26 A 2.0-in long billet with diameter = 1.25 in is direct extruded to a diameter of 0.50 in. The extrusion die angle = 90°. For the work metal, K = 45,000 lb/in2, and n = 0.20. In the Johnson extrusion strain equation, a = 0.8 and b = 1.5. Determine: (a) extrusion ratio, (b) true strain (homogeneous deformation), (c) extrusion strain, and (d) ram pressure at L = 2.0, 1.5, 1.0, 0.5 and zero in. Solution: (a) rx = Ao/Af = Do2/Df2 = (1.25) 2/(0.5) 2 = 6.25

111

02 + 1. Die angle = 45° and orifice diameter = 0.: pressure p = 42.0/1.000(1.549 + 2 x 2.000 lb/in 2 (n = 0).031 in 3 The billet has advanced a certain distance by the time this frustum is completely filled and extrusion through the die opening is therefore initiated.330(3.000 lb/in2 and strain hardening exponent n = 0.8326) 0.: pressure p = 42.8326 (c) ε x = a + b ln rx = 0.086 lb/in2 150.L1) Setting this equal to the volume of the frustum. Solution: (a) rx = Ao/Af = Do2/Df2 = (2.672/2.404 Y = 15.R2)/tan 45 = 1. a = 0.0 in on a side.549 + 2 x 1.0 in and R2 = 0.7726) = 4.: pressure p = 42.0 in and Do = 2.333π(0.: pressure p = 42.20.0/1.25 = 0. In the Johnson extrusion strain equation.25 in.8 + 1.3.25 = 1.0 in.0 x 0.25 + 0.0 in. The volume of the frustum is V = 0. true strain.0 in.0 in.5/1.229 lb/in2 19. we have π(Lo .5D f = 0.L1) = π(1.0/1. excluding the cone shaped butt remaining in the die is L = 2. a = 0.50 in. The die angle = 90°. so metal is forced through the die opening as soon as the billet starts to move forward in the chamber. the die angle α = 90°.25) = L = 0.25) = 285.0 = 15.950 lb/in2 184.549 + 2 x 0.5 in thick.549 + 2 x 0. 19. and extrusion strain. The operation is performed cold and the strength coefficient of the metal K = 26.0) 2(Lo .25) = L = 1. (a) What is the extrusion ratio? (b) Determine the ram position at the point when the metal has been compressed into the cone of the die and starts to extrude through the die opening.75 in. (c) What is the ram pressure corresponding to this position? (d) Also determine the length of the final part if the ram stops its forward movement at the start of the die cone.2.330(3. The operation is carried out hot and the hot metal yields at 15. (c) ε = ln rx = ln 16 = 2. the final part length.(b) ε = ln rx = ln 6.7726) 0/1.20 = 42. (a) Compute the extrusion ratio.8 + 1.672 in.0) = 106. Final cross-section after extrusion is a square with 1.000 lb/in 2 f p = 15.328 in L1 = 3.330(3.0.8 and b = 1.5 in.5) 2 = 16.3(2.27 A direct extrusion operation is performed on a cylindrical billet with Lo = 3.0 . (b) What is the shape factor of the product? (c) If the butt left in the container at the end of the stroke is 0.8326) = 3.5D o = 1.25) = L = 1.L1) = 1.0 in and length = 3.8 and b = 1.330 lb/in2 f Unlike the previous problem.677 lb/in2 251.0 .5/1.031/π = 0.05/1.330(3.404 + 2 x 2.5 in.L1) = 1. what is the length of the extruded section? (d) Determine the ram pressure in the process.140 lb/in2 (d) Length of extruded portion of billet = 2.000(2. In the Johnson extrusion strain equation.25) = L = 0.0 (b) The portion of the billet that is compressed into the die cone forms a frustum with R1 = 0.7726 ε x = a + b ln rx = 0. The volume of billet compressed forward to fill the frustum is given by: V = πR12(Lo . With a reduction rx = 16.031 in 3 (Lo .672 in.: pressure p = 42.28 An indirect extrusion process starts with an aluminum billet with diameter = 2.252) = 1.75 in.328 = 2.813 lb/in2 217.333πh(R12 + R1R2 + R22) = 0.75)(1.000(4.330(3. The height of the frustum h = (R1 .549 + 2 x 1.549 (d) Y = 45. L = 2.5(1.0 in. 112 .0) 2/(0.0.672(16) = 42.

142 = 1.8) 2. Cc = 2π(19. The butt volume V1 = 0. length L = 1. If the die angle in this operation = 90°. and (c) length of the extruded section if the butt remaining in the container at the end of the ram stroke is 25 mm.855/1.426 in 3 The final volume consists of two sections: (1) butt. and the corresponding Johnson strain equation has constants a = 0.142/1.531 mm3 The final volume consists of two sections: (1) butt.29.5642 in. Solution: From Problem 19. A = 1200 mm2. The radius of the circle is R = (1200/π)0. The butt volume V1 = (0.261)(2.053 mm3. Cc = 2π(0.855 in 3.3(1. (d) Y = 26.8 + 1.25π(88) 2(25) = 152.0/π)0.02(4. The perimeter of the extruded cross-section Cx = 62 + 50 + 12 + 38 + 50 + 12 = 224 mm Kx = 0.0 in2.1/1200= 5. A = 1.174) = 48. length L = 7.0)(π x 22/4) = 9.4 mm 19.98 + 0. Thus.29 An L-shaped structural section is direct extruded from an aluminum billet in which Lo = 250 mm and Do = 88 mm.54) = 122.145 ε x = 0.520. Determine: (a) extrusion ratio.142 in2 Af = 1. Thus.234 113 . The radius of the circle is R = (1.5 = 0.368.623) = 3.478/1200 = 1140.Solution: (a) rx = Ao/Af Ao = πDo2/4 = π(2) 2/4 = 3.545 in. and (2) extrudate.5(1. The extrudate has a cross-sectional area Af = 1200 mm2.8 mm.2 = 22.25 = 1. Solution: (a) rx = Ao/Af Ao = π(88) 2/4 = 6082.1 mm2 Af = 2 x (12 x 50) = 1200 mm2 rx = 6082.053 = 1. Its volume V2 = LAf = 1.145) = 2.29 are: K = 240 MPa and n = 0.16.0) = 4.0 in.068 ε = ln 5.5 in.571 = 7.426 .068= 1.02(224/122.145) 0.545) 2.8 + 1.2/1. and (2) extrudate. Kx = 0.068 (b) To determine the die shape factor we need to determine the perimeter of a circle whose area is equal to that of the extruded cross-section.571 in 3.623 ε x = 0.057 (c) Total original volume V = 0.29.855 in..25 = 1.0 = 1.8 and b = 1.368.5)(π x 22/4) = 1.0 = 7.54 mm.152.25π(88) 2(250) = 1.531 . The perimeter of the extruded cross-section Cx = 4(1.1. Original volume V = (3.000(1. Its volume V2 = LAf = 9.006(22.5642) = 3. The extrudate has a cross-sectional area Af = 1. compute the maximum force required to drive the ram forward at the start of extrusion.478 mm3.0 in 2 rx = 3. Dimensions of the cross-section are given in Figure P19.0 in 2.261 lb/in3 f p = 1.5.698 lb/in2 19. Die angle = 90°.98 + 0.0 = 3. (b) shape factor.0 x 1.520.30 The flow curve parameters for the aluminum alloy of Problem 19.006 (c) Given that the butt thickness = 0. rx = 5.5 = 19.142 ε = ln 3.0/3.174 (b) To determine the die shape factor we need to determine the perimeter of a circle whose area is equal to that of the extruded cross-section.

6 MPa f Maximum ram force occurs at beginning of stroke when L is maximum at L = 250 mm p = Kx Y (ε x + 2L/Do) = 1.5 = 15 mm. and thickness of base = 5 mm.33 Y = 400(1.97.98 + 0.06/π = 118.02(282.6)( 3.5. and (c) height of starting slug required to achieve the final dimensions.267 N 19.25π(50) 2 = 1963.897 mm. The radius of the circle is R = (706.25 = 1.98 + 0.31 A cup-shaped part is backward extruded from an aluminum slug that is 50 mm in diameter.1) = 12.25) 2.6) = 1.151.0218 ε x = 0.73)(2.8 mm Kx = 0.5 mm3 Total V = V1 + V2 = 9817.544) = 122.25 = 1.25π(502 .25.2 mm (d) ε = ln 2.πRi2 = π(252 . (d) If the metal has flow curve parameters K = 400 MPa and n = 0.75.1600)(95) = 67. R = 19.151.52) = 373. R = 10.73 MPa f p = Kx Y ε x = 1.47 mm Kx = 0.146. determine the extrusion force.86 = 2.544 mm.47) 2.057(223. Cx = 2(20 + 60) = 160 mm Ao = πR2 = 1200 R2 = 1200/π = 381.25 = 1.0218) = 2.53 114 .32 Determine the shape factor for each of the extrusion die orifice shapes in Figure P19.25π(40) 2 = 1256.402)(95) = 0.234+ 2 x 250/88) = 2107. V2 = 0.22.969 mm3 V = 0.25/1.969 mm3 Volume of starting slug must be equal to this value V = 76.32.02(298.25π(2500 .86/π)0.25π(502 .5h = 76. Cc = 2πR = 2π(10. Cc = 2π(15) = 94.5 mm3 (2) Ring OD = 50 mm.Y = 240(1. (b) shape factor. The final dimensions of the cup are: OD = 50 mm.06 mm2 Cx = πDo + πDi = π(50 + 45) = 298.02(160/122.430 N 19.25 = 321.45 mm R2 = 373.5 + 67.402) = 706. height = 100 mm.98 + 0. Cc = 2πR = 2π(19. Determine: (a) extrusion ratio. and the constants in the Johnson extrusion strain equation are: a = 0. ID = 40 mm.8 + 1. Solution: (a) rx = Ao/Af Ao = 0. A = 706. Solution: (a) Ax = 20 x 60 = 1200 mm.2 (6082. The perimeter of the extruded cross-section Cx = π(50 + 40) = 90π = 282.5(1.16/1.8) 2. V1 = 0.016 (b) Ax = πRo2 .3(1256.897) = 68.8 and b = 1.0218) 0.86 mm2. (1) Base t = 5 mm and D = 50 mm.86 mm2 rx = 1963.75/706.3 MPa f Ao = 0. Kx = 0.778 = 1.75 mm2 Af = 0.16 = 223. ID = 40 mm.623) 0.778 (b) To determine the die shape factor we need to determine the perimeter of a circle whose area is equal to that of the extruded cross-section.33) = 912. and h = 95 mm.25 mm.217(321.74 mm.2 MPa f F = pA o = 2107.5 = 76.25π(50) 2(5) = 9817.816.25π(50) 2(h) = 1963.217 (c) Volume of final cup consists of two geometric elements: (1) base and (2) ring.74/94.45/68.6 mm2 F = 912.969 mm3 h = 39.

50 + 0.5(3.22/1.9094 mm2 r = (9.25π(0.365) = 159.25 = 1.5(3.51 (b) Draw force F: ε = ln(0.22)(0.75 Lc = 0.75/0. R = 13.2 MPa f φ = 0. and (c) horsepower to perform the operation if the exit velocity of the stock = 2 ft/sec.0962) = ln 2.9094(159.1964/0. For the work metal.Af)/Ao Ao = 0.4.98 + 0.6 MPa f (c) Draw force F: F = Af σd = 4.0962 in2 r = (0.0) 2 = 9.08) 2. The metal has a strength coefficient = 45.9094)/9.35 in. Coefficient of friction at the work-die interface = 0.88 + 0.12(D/Lc) D = 0. Coefficient of friction at the work-die interface = 0.22.626 Drawing 19.1.88 + 0.966 φ = 0.2(1 + 0.30/1.30 = 284.5x5) = 1675 mm2 Cx = 2 x 55 + 16 x 25 + 8 x 15 + 10 x 5 = 680 mm Ao = πR2 = 1675. Solution: (a) r = (Ao .247 lb/in 2 f φ = 0.0416 = 0. K = 500 MPa and n = 0.9094) = ln 1. Solution: (a) r = (Ao .08 mm Kx = 0.25π(2.88 + 0. R = 23.5) = 2.0695 .(c) Ax = 2(5)(30) + 5(60 .22 = 34.0.17.12(2.6) = 783.25π(3.09 mm Cc = 2πR = 2π(23.2.14 mm Kx = 0. Starting diameter = 0.5 mm in a die with entrance angle = 15° degrees.30.177 (d) Ax = 5(55)(5) + 5(85 .50) 2 = 0.3056 (b) Draw stress σd: ε = ln(7.5) 2 = 4.09) = 145.34 Rod stock is drawn through a draw die with an entrance angle of 12°.07/tan 15)(1.1964 in2 Af = 0.02(230/83.35) 2 = 0.0695 mm2 Af = 0.22 σd = Y (1 + µ/tan α)φ(ln Ao/Af) = 284.365) 0.07.7137) 0.Af)/Ao Ao = 0.25π(0.425 115 . and (c) draw force required for the operation.07.365 Y = 500(0.000(0.02(680/145.0695 = 0.0962)/0.23) = 83. R2 = 1675/π = 533.7137 Y = 45.14) 2.0695/4.0 mm is drawn to 2. Determine: (a) area reduction.966) = 1.1964 = 0.1964 . Determine: (a) area reduction.50 in and final diameter = 0. R2 = 550/π = 175.44 = 0.0 . (b) draw stress.35) = 0.5(.98 + 0.23 mm Cc = 2πR = 2π(13.000 lb/in 2 and a strain hardening exponent = 0.33 Wire of starting diameter = 3. (b) draw force for the operation.12(D/Lc) D = 0.5 N 19.25 = 1.0 + 2.5)/sin 15 = 0.10) = 300 + 250 = 550 mm2 Cx = 30 + 60 + 30 + 5 + 25 + 50 + 25 + 5 = 230 mm Ao = πR2 = 550.

6 N-m/s = 4524. and the coefficient of friction at the work-die interface = 0.1184 Lc = 0.50 .88 + 0.Af)/Ao .7 = 0. Y = 40.9) = ln 1.1118)/sin 12 = 0. (b) draw stress.88 + 0.12(0.33 F = Af Y (1 + µ/tan α)φ(ln Ao/Af) f 116 .10.r)0.5/24.36 Wire stock of initial diameter = 0.15/1.03173) = 1.009819) = ln 1.2231) 0.Lc = 0. Ao = 0.012773(1 .88 + 0. The draw die has an entrance angle = 18°.000 lb/in 2 and a strain hardening exponent = 0.021)(0.08/tan 18)(1.125(1 .5(.3646 Y = k = 105 MPa f φ = 0.Af)/Ao Ao = 0.3) = 1.247)(1 + 0.9 mm2 r = (6361.12(D/Lc) Df = 0. Af = 0.125 in.1118 in D = 0.7 /4417. and the coefficient of friction at the work-die interface is estimated to be 0.15.0 m/min. Solution: (a) r = (Ao ..88 + 0.25π(90) 2 = 6361.12(D/Lc) D = 0. Each die has an entrance angle of 12°.75)/sin 18 = 24.0.3 mm φ = 0.5(0.775 lb/in 2 f φ = 0.288)(0.475(1 m/min) = 271.1184/0.5(0.12(0.3607) = 1.25π(75) 2 = 4417.012273/0.7 mm2 Df = Do .3056 (b) Draw stress σd: ε = ln(6361.440 = 0.12(82.1118) = 0.425/0.03173 φ = 0.08.125 in is drawn through two dies each providing a 0.2) = 0.45) = 271.0. Solution: First draw: Do = 0.50 hp at 90% efficiency.125 .25π(0. Determine: (a) area reduction.35 Bar stock of initial diameter = 90 mm is drawn with a draft = 15 mm.7137) = 3530 lb (c) P = 3530(2 ft/sec x 60) = 423. The metal behaves as a perfectly plastic material with yield stress = 105 MPa.1/tan 12)(1.84 hp 19.5(90 + 75) = 82.3646) = 61.5 mm Lc = 0.7 .0.475 N (d) P = 271.88 + 0.021 F = Af Y (1 + µ/tan α)φ(ln Ao/Af) f F = 0.45 MPa f (c) F = Af σd = 4417.15 = 27.5(90 .012273 in2 009819 in2 ε = ln(0. and (d) power to perform the operation if exit velocity = 1.2231 r = (Ao .5 = 0.20 area reduction.125) 2 = 0.8) .5 = 0.35)/sin 12 = 0.0962(34.000(0. The motors driving the capstans at the die exits can each deliver 1.250 = 0. (c) draw force required for the operation.125(.15 = 75 mm.d = 90 .r) = 0.9)/ 6361.4417.600/33.288 σd = Y (1 + µ/tan α)φ(ln Ao/Af) = 105(1 + 0.475 N-m/min = 4524. The starting metal has a strength coefficient = 40. Determine the maximum possible speed of the wire as it exits the second die.000 = 12. Af = Ao(1 .9 (61.600 ft/lb/min HP = 423.125 + 0.3607 φ = 0.6 W 19.

35 F = Af Y (1 + µ/tan α)φ(ln Ao/Af) f F = 0. or the reductions to achieve the two stages could be reallocated to achieve a higher reduction in the first drawing operation.100) = 0.09819(27.009819 in2 r = (Ao .24 ft/sec Second draw: Do = 0. 117 .33)(0.775)(1 + 0.88 + 0.2231 = 0.000(0.4462 Y = 40.000 ft-lb/min)/60 = 742.5 hp at 90% efficiency = 742.5 ft-lb/sec as before in the first draw.1118) 2 = 0.r)0.5(0.818 lb/in 2 f φ = 0.5 = 0.100 in D = 0.1/tan 12)(1.47 ft/sec Note: The calculations indicate that the second draw die is the limiting step in the drawing sequence.009819(1 .12(D/Lc) Df = 0.2231 Total strain experienced by the work metal is the sum of the strains from the first and second draws: ε = ε 1 + ε 2 = 0.90(33. The first operation would have to be operated at well below its maximum possible speed.35)(0.818)(1 + 0..009819/0.15/1.8) .1/tan 12)(1.0269 φ = 0.5 x 0. Af = Ao(1 .88 + 0.4462) 0.1118 in. Ao = 0.5 ft-lb/sec P = Fv = 119v = 742.5/214 = 3.r) = 0.250 = 0.5 v = 742.1118 + 0.1059 Lc = 0.2) = 0.007855 in 2 ε = ln(0.1118(.0.4462) = 214 lb.0269) = 1.1059/0.F = 0.12(0.Af)/Ao .5(0.1118 .007855(30.2231) = 119 lb 1.0.007855) = ln 1.15 = 30.2231 + 0.5 = 0. P = Fv = 214v = 742.100)/sin 12 = 0.5 hp at 90% efficiency = 1. or the second draw die could be powered by a higher horsepower motor.5/119 = 6.25π(0.5 v = 742.1118(1 . 1.

The three operations are: (1) cutting. D = blank diameter. In edge bending. Drawing defects include: (1) wrinkling. Review Questions 20. 20.10 Identify the principal components of a stamping die that performs blanking. die size = blank size. 20. Answer. drawing ratio greater than 2. divided by the angle of the tooling. In redrawing. and (3) thickness-to-diameter ratio.. (3) earing. and (3) drawing.9 What is stretch forming? Answer.Dp)/D. 20.20 20. See Article 20. 118 . (2) tearing. r = (D . 20. For a blanking operation. and Dp = punch diameter. indicate how the clearance should be applied to the punch and die diameters. See Figure 20. two draws are accomplished on the part. In reverse drawing. the second in the opposite direction. and (4) surface scratches. Measures of drawing feasibility include: (1) drawing ratio. Answer. 20.2 SHEET METALWORKING Identify the three basic types of sheet metalworking operations. (2) bending.8 What are some of the possible defects in drawn sheet metal parts? Answer. In blanking of a round sheet metal part. In V-bending.g. Stretch forming of sheet metal involves stretching and simultaneous bending of the workpart to achieve shape change. See Figure 20.1 20. A cutoff operation separates parts from a strip by shearing one edge of each part in sequence.6 What are some of the simple measures used to assess the feasibility of a proposed cup drawing operation? Answer. the shape change is significant enough (e. probably with annealing between the steps. (2) reduction.4. Answer.5 What is springback in sheet metal bending? Answer.7 Distinguish between redrawing and reverse drawing. DR = D/Dp. one in one direction.3. 20.3 What is the difference between a cutoff operation and a parting operation? Answer. it is usually measured as the difference between the final included angle of the bent part and the angle of the tooling used to make the bend.14. and the punch is smaller by twice the clearance. t/D. Springback is the elastic recovery of the sheet metal after bending.9. where t = stock thickness.0) that it must be carried out in two drawing steps. the punch force a cantilevered sheet metal section over a die edge to obtain the desired bend angle. 20. a simple punch and die which have the included angle are used to bend the part. Answer.4 Describe V-bending and edge bending. A parting operation cuts a slug between adjacent parts in the strip.

(c) shear strength.1. Roll bending involves the forming of large sheet and plate metal sections into curved forms. 20. 20. Roll forming involves feeding a lone strip or coil through rotating rolls so that the shape of the rolls is imparted to the strip. See Section 20. Answer.5. (b) modulus of elasticity.1. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point.12 What are the relative advantages and disadvantages of mechanical versus hydraulic presses in sheet metalworking? Answer.10. or (e) yield strength. since each correct answer is worth 1 point. For each question. 20. 20. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers. Answer.13 What is the Guerin process? Answer.1 As sheet metal stock hardness increases. Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 17 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct).11 What are the two basic categories of structural frames used in stamping presses? Answer. (b) be increased. and (c) tensile. See Article 20. (c) 20. (b) 20. The Guerin process is a sheet metal forming process that uses a rubber die which flexes to force the sheet metal to take the shape of a form block (punch). Answer. or (b) punch. A major technical problem in tube bending is collapse of the tube walls during the process. Advantage of mechanical presses: faster cycle rates. 20.2 A round sheet metal slug produced in a hole punching operation will have the same diameter as which of the following? (a) die opening. Answer. See Article 20.6.14 Identify a major technical problem in tube bending? Answer. 119 . (d) tensile strength.15 Distinguish between roll bending and roll forming. and (2) straight-sided frame. Two press frame types are: (1) gap frame. all correct answers must be given.3 The cutting force in a blanking operation depends on which mechanical property of the sheet metal (one best answer)? (a) compressive strength. (a) and (c).Answer. or (c) be unaffected. and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point. (b) shear. (a) 20. To attain a perfect score on the quiz.4 Sheet metal bending involves which of the following stresses and strains (may be more than one)? (a) compressive. 20. Answer. the clearance between punch and die should: (a) be decreased. Advantages of hydraulic presses: longer ram strokes and uniform force throughout stroke. also called C-frame.

2 Thus.11 Answer. Answer.6 20. (f) hydroforming. At what clearance should the shears be set to yield an optimum cut? Solution: From Table 20.7 20.0 . (e) Guerin process.075. 20. Solution: From Table 20. Problems Cutting Operations 20. (a).15 mm.70 mm.0 mm thick cold rolled steel (half hard). (e) Which one of the following press types is usually associated with the highest production rates in sheet metal stamping operations? (a) adjustable bed. 20. The following are measures of feasibility for several proposed cup drawing operations. (b) equal to. or (c) greater than. (e) progressive die. Answer.2c = 75. (e) notching. 120 .5 Which one of the following is the best definition of bend allowance? (a) amount by which the die is larger than the punch. which of the operations are likely to be feasible? (a) DR = 1. Answer. or (f) V-die. (c) compound die. Die diameter = Db = 75. (f) shear spinning. Punch diameter = Db . Answer. and (h) shear spinning.060.8 20. (d) Which of the following are variations of sheet metal bending operations (more than one)? (a) coining.0 mm. c = 0. and (e) t/D = 2%. (b) Which of the following processes are classified as high. c = at = 0.075(2. (b) electromagnetic forming. (d) wiping die for edge bending.energy-rate forming processes (more than one)? (a) electrochemical machining.10 20. (a) Which one of the following stamping dies is the most complicated? (a) blanking die. (b) and (d). (c) r = 0. (b) flanging. (b) combination die. (g) trimming.15) = 74. (b). and (e) straight-sided. (b) DR = 2.0) = 0. (d) explosive forming.2(0. a = 0. Answer.285 mm A blanking operation is to be performed on 2. (g) redrawing. (c) hemming. a = 0.060(4. (b) amount of elastic recovery experienced by the metal after bending.35.7. (c) electron beam cutting. (d) solid gap. Holding force in drawing is most likely to be which of the following relative to maximum drawing force? (a) less than. and (e).20.1. Thus. and (i) tube forming.7. or (d) length before bending of the straight sheet metal section to be bent. and (i).1. (c) press brake.0 mm. (c).1 A power shears is used to cut soft cold rolled steel that is 4. (c). Answer. The part is circular with diameter = 75. (h) tube bending.9 20. (b) open back inclinable. Determine the appropriate punch and die sizes for this operation. (d) r = 65%. (c) safety factor used in calculating bending force.75 mm thick. (d) ironing.75) = 0.

2 mm thick.1.0117 in. Solution: From Table 20.7(TS)tL t =3.5 Determine the blanking force required in Problem 20.0117) = 3.9766 in.4.955 N 20.000 . c = 0.0117) = 0.4. The material is 5/32 inch thick stainless steel (half hard).000 inch inset dimension remains the same. L = 65π + 30π = 95π = 298. Solution: F = StL t = 2. Thus.2 mm from Problem 20.2(0.0 + 1.0 in. and (b) the punch and die sizes for the punching operation.2c = 65 .8 The foreman in the pressworking section comes to you with the problem of a blanking operation that is producing parts with excessive burrs.29 mm 20.2(0.0)(235. Solution: F = 0.5 mm F = 0.045.0) = 125. a = 0.144) = 30.144) = 64. 2.3.045(3. Assume that blanking and punching occur simultaneously.65 mm F = 350(2.2) = 0.3 A compound die will be used to blank and punch a large washer out of aluminum alloy sheet stock 3.00 inch extension widths = 1.000(5/32)(13. Solution: From Table 20.500 .075. Determine: (a) the punch and die sizes for the blanking operation.874 N 20.2)(298.97 tons 20. 20. Solution: F = StL t = 5/32 in. F = 62.938 lb = 62. L = 3.144 mm (a) Blanking punch diameter = Db .0 + 1.5 + 2. if the aluminum sheetmetal has a tensile strength = 290 MPa. Determine the dimensions of the blanking punch and the die opening.3. Blanking punch: 3.075(5/32) = 0.20.0117) = 1.9766 in.000 lb/in 2. 1. What are the possible reasons for the burrs.4766 in.1.2(0.65) = 164. and what can be done to correct the condition? 121 .4 A blanking die is to be designed to blank the part outline shown in Figure P20.7(290)(3.4.2.500 inch length dimension = 3. c = 0. from Problem 20.0 = 13. Blanking die: dimensions are the same as for the part in Figure P20. top and bottom 1.4.2. given that the stainless steel has a shear strength = 62. if the steel has a shear strength = 350 MPa.7 Determine the tonnage requirement for the blanking operation in Problem 20. a = 0.0 mm from Problem 20.71 mm Blanking die diameter = Db = 65 mm (b) Punching punch diameter = Dh = 30 mm Punching die diameter = Dh + 2c = 30 + 2(0. L = πD = 75π = 235. Thus.5) = 193.0 + 1.0 + 1.000 inch width dimension = 2.6 Determine the minimum tonnage press to perform the blanking and punching operation in Problem 20.2(0.5 + 1. The outside diameter of the washer = 65 mm and the inside diameter = 30 mm.0 .0 + 2.

(2) Punch and die cutting edges are worn (rounded) which has the same effect as excessive clearance.98 mm Dimensions of starting blank: w = 32 mm.5 BA = 2π(135/360)(9. (c) The operator should set the stop so that the tip of the V-punch contacts the starting blank at a distance = 2.0 inches by 1. from the end. The bend of 90° is to be made in the middle of the 4-inch length. BA = 2π(A/360)(R + Kbat) R/t = (9.4173 = 4.Solution: Reasons for excessive burrs: (1) clearance between punch and die is too large for the material and stock thickness. 20.75 mm A = 180 .5 x 4. Therefore. measure the punch and die clearance to see if it equals the recommended value.4173 in.5 + 0. Determine the blank size required. Its length before bending = 4.333 BA = 2π(135/360)(6. (b) Since the metal stretches during bending. A’ = 45°.A’ = 135°.1875 + 0. L = 50 + 27. BA = 2π(A/360)(R + Kbat) R/t = (6. Solution: From drawing.3756 in. (b) Also. therefore.37 mm Dimensions of starting blank: w = 32 mm.0. Therefore.35 mm. die maker must rebuild the punch and die.5 inches that is 5/32 inch thick. Kbf = 1.75) = 2. its length will be greater after the bend than before.35 + 0. determine the length of the part's neutral axis after the bend. (2) If the die is not worn. the length of the neutral axis of the part will be 2(1.337.3756) = 1.35 mm A = 180 .9 A bending operation is to be performed on 4.75) = 1.75 mm thick cold rolled steel. these sides should be measured to the beginning of the bend radius.5 = 105.9.0417 in.8122) + 0.9 except that the bend radius R = 6. The material has a tensile strength = 620 MPa. L = 50 + 18.10 Solve Problem 20. (c) Where should the machine operator set the stop on the press brake relative to the starting length of the part? Solution: (a) R/t = (3/16)/(5/32) = 1. R = 4.0. therefore.5(4.75) = 27. if the bend radius = 3/16 inch.37 + 37. Kba = 0. The stretched length of the bend along the neutral axis will be: B = 2π(90/360)(0.75) = 18.15625) = 0.333 x 4. A’ = 45°. Solution: For V-bending. R = 6. (a) Determine the dimensions of the two equal sides that will result after the bend. To correct the problem: (1) Check the punch and die cutting edges to see if they are worn. Solution: From drawing.5 = 115.9 if the bend is to be performed in a V-die with a die opening width = 38 mm.33 B = 2π(90/360)(0. For convenience.8122 in.5)/(4. Dimensions (lengths) of each end = 0.35)/(4.5 x 0. The part drawing is given in Figure P20.0 .15625) = 0. Kba = 0.33 x 0.2. 122 .1875 + 0.12 Determine the bending force required in Problem 20. regrind the faces to sharpen the cutting edges. Kba = 0.000 in.48 mm 20. If not. Bending 20.33.11 An L-shaped part is to be bent in a V-bending operation on a press brake from a flat blank 4.000 in. If they are.98 + 37.A’ = 135°.87 mm 20.

33(340)(20)(3) 2/15 = 5426 N Drawing Operations 20. The sheetmetal thickness = 2 mm. r is too large (greater than 50%).12 except that the operation is performed using a wiping die with die opening W = 25 mm. Solution: For edge-bending in a wiping die. and t/D > 1%.14 Determine the bending force required in Problem 20. Kbf = 0.33. and t/D is too small (less than 1%).33(620)(32)(4. F = Kbf(TS)wt2/D = 1.5)(5/32) 2/0. (d) Does the operation seem feasible? Solution: (a) DR = D/Dp = 225/100 = 2.Dp)/D = (225 .17 Derive an expression for the reduction r in drawing as a function of drawing ratio DR.16 A sheetmetal part 3.33.11 if the bend is to be performed in a V-die with a die opening width W = 1. Compute the required force to bend the part. r < 50%.75 inch.89% (d) Feasibility? No! DR is too large (greater than 2. Kbf = 0. Kbf = 1. given that the die opening = 15 mm. The metal has a tensile strength = 340 MPa. However.F = Kbf(TS)wt2/D = 1.15 Solve Problem 20.14 except that the operation is performed using a wiping die with die opening W = 0.000)(1.0114 = 1. Solution: (a) DR = D/Dp = 175/100 = 1.0).25 inches.25 = 2728 lb. F = Kbf(TS)wt2/D = 1. determine: (a) drawing ratio. (b) reduction. and (c) thickness-to-diameter ratio.667 N 20.Dp)/D = (175 .18 A cup is to be drawn in a deep drawing operation.75) 2/25 = 5.0 mm thick and 20.75) 2/38 = 15.33. Solution: Reduction r = (D . 20.909 N 20.18 except that the starting blank size diameter = 175 mm.Dp/D = 1 . Solution: For V-bending.14% (d) Feasibility? DR < 2. Solution: For edge-bending in a wiping die.25 (b) r = (D .Dp/D = 1 .000 lb/in 2.9% (c) t/D = 2/175 = 0.0.Dp)/D Drawing ratio DR = D/Dp r = D/D .5)(5/32) 2/1.100)/225 = 0.5 mm in a V-die.75 = 1128 lb. The material has a tensile strength = 70.5% (c) t/D = 2/225 = 0.555 = 55.19 Solve Problem 20.33(620)(32)(4. the operation is not feasible because the 175 mm diameter blank size does not provide sufficient metal to draw a 75 mm cup 123 . F = Kbf(TS)wt2/D = 0.33(70. Kbf = 1. Solution: For V-bending.1/DR 20. 20. If the blank diameter = 225 mm.33.100)/175 = 0.429 = 42. F = Kbf(TS)wt2/D = 0.33(70. 20. The height of the cup is 75 mm and its inside diameter = 100 mm.0 mm long is bent to an included angle = 60° and a bend radius = 7.0089 = 0.000)(1.75 (b) r = (D .13 Solve Problem 20.

Thus.0.015(180)π(1502 .7) = π(4)(0.125 + 2 x 0.025 = 2.015Yπ(D2 . (c) drawing force. Cup area = πDph + πDp2/4 = 100πh + π(100) 2/4 = 100πh + 2500π = 314. Assuming the punch radius = 0.015(30.22 A cup drawing operation is performed in which the inside diameter = 80 mm and the height = 50 mm.56 mm.0.15625) 2) = 0.053 314.000)π(7.5/4.16h + 7854.21 Solve Problem 20.16h + 7854= 24.52 .5 = 0.20 A deep drawing operation is performed in which the inside of the cylindrical cup has a diameter = 4. Set surface area of cup = surface are of starting blank: 314.5 = 0.(4 + 2.(80 + 2.7) = 110.2 x 3 + 2 x 4) 2) = 0.16h = 16.199 h = 51. Solution: (a) DR = 7.5/4 . Blank area = πD2/4 = π(175) 2/4 = 24.5 inches. This is less than the specified 75 mm height.875 (b) r = (D – Dp)/D = )150 – 80)/80 = 70/150 = 0.0.756 lb.15625) 2) = 49.125/7. assuming the corner radius on the punch has a negligible effect in our calculations and there is no earing of the cup. Determine: (a) drawing ratio.015(30. The height (inside dimension) of the cup = 3.52 .875 (same as previous problem) (b) t/D = 0.2t + 2Rd)2) Fh = 0.0. (d) Fh = 0.(Dp + 2. and (d) blankholder force. The actual cup height possible with a 175 mm diameter blank can be determined by comparing surface areas (one side only for convenience) between the cup and the starting blank. and the starting blank diameter = 150 mm.0 mm. The stock thickness = 1/8 inch. Solution: (a) DR = 7.0 inches and a height = 2.20 except that the stock thickness t = 3/16 inch.5 inches. (b) reduction.4.1875/7.000)(7. 20. (b) reduction.875 (b) t/D = 0.62) Fh = 114.0.418 N.015(30.(4 + 2.000)π(7. compute the starting diameter of the blank to complete the 124 .5/4.1875)(60.000 lb/in 2.23 A deep drawing operation is to be performed on a sheetmetal blank that is 1/8 inch thick.8 inches and the diameter (inside dimension) = 5.0 = 1.125)(60.2 x 0. The metal has a tensile strength = 60. (d) Fh = 0. Determine: (a) drawing ratio. Tensile strength = 400 MPa and a yield strength = 180 MPa for this sheetmetal. Solution: (a) DR = 150/80 = 1.5% (c) F = πDpt(TS)(D/Dp . (c) drawing force.0 inches. Punch and die radii = 5/32 inch.942 N 20.5/4 .667% (c) F = πDpt(TS)(D/Dp .52 .125 + 2 x 0.015Yπ(D2 .46 (c) F = πDpt(TS)(D/Dp .000)(7.58752) Fh = 49.7) = π(4)(0.770 lb (same as previous problem) 20. (d) Fh = 0.height.2t + 2Rd)2) Fh = 0.000 lb/in2 and a yield strength = 30.0. The stock thickness = 3.770 lb 20.015(180)π(1502 . and (2) base. and the starting blank diameter = 7.2 x 0.133 lb.(Dp + 2. and (d) blankholder force. let us divide the cup into two sections: (1) walls.01667 = 1. Punch and die radii = 4 mm.94.0 = 1. To compute the cup surface area.053 mm2.000)π(7.7) = 166.7) = 354.7) = π(80)(3)(400)(150/80 .

375 = 3.. and (3) base.25π(70) 2 = 14.425 in.050/5.847 in 2 A3 = π(4. Whereas the operation in Problem 20. the diameter of the circle described by the centroid is 4. Cup area = wall area + base area = πDph + πDp2/4 = 5π(3.25π in2 Blank area = πD2/4 = 0. Cup area = wall area + base area = πDph + πDp2/4 = π(70)(50) + 0.375 sin 45 = 0.25πD2 = 25.825 D = 9.0.25 = 101.807 in 2 A2 = length of the quarter circle at the base multiplied by the circumference of the circle described by the centroid (Pappus-Guldin Theorem): length of quarter circle = πD/4 = 0.846 D2 = 14.0 = 1.265 beyond the center of the 0. with a punch radius Rp = 0. Test for feasibility: DR = D/Dp = 9.01.25/0.846/0. (a) Find the required starting blank size Db.0 .900 D = 137.375 in.188 in2 Total area of cup = 53.26%.978.89/5.265 = 4.7855D 2 = 14. Assume the corner radius on the punch = zero.890 in. With a rounded punch radius.375 inch.847 + 14. The part is a cylindrical cup with height = 50 mm and inside diameter = 70 mm. Test for feasibility: DR = D/Dp = 10.80 .0 mm stock.operation with no material left in the flange. The surface area of the cup will be divided into three sections: (1) straight walls.964.7855 = 18. (2) quarter toroid formed by the 0. however. 20.7855D 2 Setting blank area = cup area: 0. t/D = 3/137.89 = 0. assuming thickness t remains constant.25 in.589 in. the blank size would be slightly smaller. Test for feasibility: DR = D/Dp = 137.8) + 0. Thus.48/70 = 1.48 mm. Solution: Use surface area computation.807 + 8.375) = 0.0. assuming thickness t remains constant. (b) Is the drawing operation feasible? Solution: Use surface area computation.23 except use a punch radius = 0.78π(0. Of course.589) = 8.125/9.7855D 2 Setting blank area = cup area: 0. which has a diameter = 5. Is the operation feasible (ignoring the fact that the punch radius is too small)? Solution: Use surface area computation.25 + 2 x 0. 20. A2 = 4.842 D2 = 76.050 in.7855 = 97.842 in 2 Blank area = πD2/4 = 0. The thickness to diameter ratio t/D = 0.375 radius at the base of the cup. The centroid is located at the center of the arc which is 0.842/0.375 = 4. this operation may not be feasible.0 = 2.0 D = 10.25π(5) 2 = 25. Because DR > 2. whose height = 3.18%.188 = 76.425) = 53.25πD2 Setting blank area = cup area: 0.0126 = 1. the zero punch radius makes this operation infeasible anyway.23 was not feasible. Blank area = πD2/4 = 0.0.7855D 2 = 76. assuming thickness t remains constant.25π D2 = 25. which would reduce DR.0218 = 2.780 in. the operation in the present problem seems feasible.48 = 0. this 125 .25) 2/4 = 14. which is above the value of 1% used as a criterion of feasibility in cup drawing. These criteria values indicate that the operation is feasible. which is less than the limiting ratio of 2.846 mm2.24 Solve Problem 20.0)(3. radius.2 x 0.25 A drawing operation is performed on 3. A1 = πDph = π(5.25π(2 x 0.

One has ears. Test for feasibility: DR = D/Dp = 147. The surface area of the cup will be divided into three sections: (1) straight walls.10.7855 = 21. The samples have various defects.0204 = 2.28 mm.5 D2 = 16.25π(2 x 10) = 15. Test for feasibility: DR = D/Dp = 143.31/70 = 2. whose height = 60 .7855D 2 Setting blank area = cup area: 0. This may not be possible since a design change is required. this operation is considered infeasible.125. (b) Increase the blankholder pressure against the work during drawing.8 = 16.700 D = 147. 20.71 mm. What are the causes of each of these defects and what remedies would you propose? Solution: (1) Ears are caused by sheet metal that has directional properties.1 + 1963. the punch radius Rp = 0 would render this operation difficult if not infeasible. the diameter of the circle described by the centroid is 50 + 2 x 7.28/70 = 2.31 mm.6 + 3166.31 = 0.995.25π(70) 2 = 17.25 except that the height = 60 mm. this operation is considered infeasible.125.142π(15. and still a third has torn sections at its base.529.071 = 64. as in the previous problem.26 Solve Problem 20.04%.045 D2 = 17.0.375 in. Since the DR is greater than 2.26 except that the corner radius on the punch = 10 mm.047.5 mm2 Blank area = πD2/4 = 0. (2) quarter toroid formed by the 0. t/D = 3/147.27 Solve Problem 20. The centroid is located at the center of the arc which is 10 sin 45 = 7.125.10 = 50 mm. One remedy is to anneal the metal to reduce the directionality of the properties.6 mm2 A2 = length of the quarter circle at the base multiplied by the circumference of the circle described by the centroid (Pappus-Guldin Theorem): length of quarter circle = 2πRp/4 = 0.7855D 2 Setting blank area = cup area: 0.71) = 3166.142 mm.375 radius at the base of the cup. assuming thickness t remains constant.8 mm2 Total area of cup = 10. Thus.2 x 10 = 50 mm. Since the DR is greater than 2.071 beyond the center of the 0. Solution: Use surface area computation.7855D 2 = 16. and (3) base. 20. Blank area = πD2/4 = 0. There are several possible remedies: (a) increase the t/D ratio by using a thicker gage sheet metal.7855D 2 = 17. (2) Wrinkles are caused by compressive buckling of the flange as it is drawn inward to form the cup.045/0.0 D = 143.045 mm2.shape would be difficult to draw because the drawing punch would act on the metal like a blanking punch. 20. Solution: Cup area = wall area + base area Cup area = πDph + πDp2/4 = π(70)(60) + 0. 126 . which has a diameter = 70 . A2 = 64.28 The foreman in the drawing section of the shop brings to you several samples of parts that have been drawn in the shop. Also.1 mm2 A3 = π(50) 2/4 = 1963. another has wrinkles. A1 = πDph = π(70)(50) = 10. The material is anisotropic.5/0.7855 = 20.0. radius.995.

1116 (c) At the final length of 22.002) 0. D .1116) 0.1963D 2 = 4. The metal has a flow curve defined by K = 70.5 . The thickness of the beginning stock t = 0.5 = 22.375 + 0.516 + 0.81 in.375) 2π(0. (a) What is the minimum starting blank diameter that can be used. (b) Because the sheet metal is rather thick.75 in.75)/4 = 2.25) 2 .1073 in.125 inch and the width = 10 inches.459 lb/in2 F = 10(0. the length of the piece is increased from 20.803 lb/in2 F = (10)(0. Tearing can also occur due to a die corner radius that is too small.25.5 + 2 x 0.125π(2.30. Solution: (a) Use ε = 0.002 as start of yielding.5 .14)? (b) Does this blank diameter provide sufficient material to complete the cup? Solution: (a) According to Eq. Yf = 70.000 lb/in 2 and n = 0.16 D = 4. (22. A remedy would be to provide a large punch radius. V1 = (1. to 2(102 + 52)0. the thickness of the sheet metal has been reduced to maintain constant volume.457 in. tf = 0.2 x 0.361/20) = ln 1.(0.Dp < 5t D < 5t + Dp = 5(0. ε = ln(22.12)(14. and (d) die force Fdie at the very end when the part is formed as indicated in Figure P20.5 inches. V2 = 2.375 + 0.361) = 0.25π[(0.430 in 3 V2 = (cross-section of quarter toroid) x (circle made by sweep of centroid) Cross-section of quarter toroid = 0. (c) stretching force F.547 in 3 Volume of blank = πD2t/4 = π(0.430 + 1.1963 = 23. let us use volume rather than area to determine whether there is sufficient metal in a 3.25 = 40.516 in 3 V3 = (2.0. The diameter of 3.5 .459) = 43.25) 2] .361 in. according to Eq.75 inch blank diameter.547/0.29 A cup-shaped part is to be drawn without a blankholder from sheetmetal whose thickness = 0. remains the same during stretching. 20.25/2)sin 45 = 2. The inside diameter of the cup = 2.000(0.000(0.547 D2 = 4. and the corner radius at the base = 0.361 in.25 inches. Determine: (b) true strain experienced by the metal.14).1073)(40.12(20/22.75 in. Other Operations 20.601 in 3 Total V = V1 + V2 + V3 = 2. (3) base. F = LtYf Yf = 70.(3) Tearing occurs due to high tensile stresses in the walls of the cup near the base.118 = 0.(2.2 x 0.375) 2] = 0.25) + 2.457π(0.1964 in 2 Circle made by centroid sweep has diameter = (2.5 = 3.30 A 20 inch long sheetmetal workpiece is stretched in a stretch forming operation to the dimensions shown in Figure P20.413 lb.25 = 14.601 = 4.25) + 2(0. assuming width L = 10 in.5 inches.25)/4 = 0. (20.803) = 17.0 in.1964) = 1. (b) After stretching. (a) Find the stretching force F required near the beginning of the operation when yielding first occurs. computed in (a) does not provide sufficient metal to complete the drawing. The drawn cup consists of three sections: (1) cup walls.1963D 2 Setting blank volume = cup volume: 0.. its height = 1.30(b).5) 2)/4 = 1.375 inch. (2) toroid at base.764 lb. 127 .25)D2/4 = 0.375)π[(2.

and (b) the spinning reduction r. The wall thickness on the tube = 4. 128 . 20.2)/2.57° Fdie = 2( 43.836 lb. The starting thickness = 2.4 = 0. (2) Request the designer to increase the bend radius to 3D = 225 mm.(d) Fdie = 2F sin A A = tan-1(5/10) = 26.5) = 1.413) sin 26.4 – 1.tf)/t = (2. The sand will act as an internal flexible mandrel to support the tube wall.2 mm (b) r = (t .32 If the part illustrated in Figure P20.732.4)sin 30 = 2.75 mm. the walls of the tube are flattening badly. Solution: From part drawing. Shear strain γ = cot 30 = 1. determine: (a) the wall thickness along the cone-shaped portion.31 Determine the starting disk diameter required to spin the part in Figure P20.5 = 175 mm Starting diameter = 2(175) = 350 mm 20. radius = 25 + (100 .25)/sin 30 = 25 + 75/0.33 Determine the shear strain that is experienced by the material that is shear spun in Problem 20. 20. Solution: Based on sidewise displacement of metal through a shear angle of 30°. In one of the bends where the bend radius is 125 mm. Solution: (a) tf = t sin α = (2. What can be done to correct the condition? Solution: Possible solutions: (1) Use a mandrel to prevent collapsing of tube wall.34 A 75 mm diameter tube is bent into a rather complex shape with a series of simple tube bending operations. The tubes will be used to deliver fluids in a chemical plant.32. (3) Pack sand into the tube.50 = 50% 20.57 = 38.31 using a conventional spinning operation.4(0.4 mm.31 were made by shear spinning.

4 Name the three most common machining processes. Answer. and (4) it can create good surface finishes.6 Define the difference between roughing and finishing operations in machining. (3) it can achieve closer tolerances than most other processes. In machining. depth of cut. The three common machining processes are: (1) turning. Cutting conditions include: speed. Answer. in which the chip is formed into separated segments.shaped tool in which the cutting edge is perpendicular to the direction of speed motion into the work material.1 What distinguishes machining from other manufacturing processes? Answer. (2) drilling. and (2) multiple-edge cutting tools. 21. 21. material is removed from the workpart so that the remaining material is the desired part geometry. Answer. 129 . feed.21 THEORY OF METAL MACHINING Review Questions 21. and whether or not a cutting fluid is used.10 Describe in words what the Merchant equation tells us. What are the two basic categories of cutting tools in machining? Give an example of a machining operation that uses each of the tooling types.3 21. and (3) continuous with built-up edge. 21. 21. Answer. Orthogonal cutting involves the use of a wedge. Answer. in which the chip does not segment and is formed from a ductile metal. and (3) milling. A machine tool can be defined as a power-driven machine that positions and moves a tool relative to the work to accomplish machining or other metal shaping process. The reasons include: (1) its applicability to most materials. A roughing operation is used to remove large amounts of material rapidly and to produce a part geometry close to the desired shape.7 What is a machine tool? Answer. The three types are: (1) discontinuous. The two categories are: (1) single -point tools. Answer. 21.5 Identify the parameters of a machining operation that are included within the scope of cutting conditions. A finishing operation follows roughing and is used to achieve the final geometry and surface finish.2 Identify some of the reasons why machining is commercially and technologically important. which is the same as (2) except that friction at the tool-chip interface causes adhesion of the work material to the tool rake face. (2) continuous.8 What is an orthogonal cutting operation? Answer. 21. 21. used in operations such as turning and boring. 21.9 Name and briefly describe the three types of chips that occur in metal cutting. used in operations such as milling and drilling. (2) its capability to produce a variety of geometries to a part.

13 What is a tool-chip thermocouple? Answer. 21.1 A lathe is used to perform which of the following machining operations (one best answer)? (a) broaching. Answer. and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point. (c) 21. (c) low v. since each correct answer is worth 1 point. The Merchant equation states that the shear plane angle increases when rake angle is increased and friction angle is decreased. (b) drilling. A tool-chip thermocouple is comprised of the tool and chip as the two dissimilar (metallic) materials forming the thermocouple junction. (d) screw threads. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point. all correct answers must be given. 21. (c) 21. f = 0. (d) 21.025 in 3/min. and d. 130 . (c) milling.0 in3/min. an emf is emitted from the junction which can be measured to indicate cutting temperature. 21. high f and d. The size effect refers to the fact that the specific energy increases as the cross-section area of the chip (to x w) decreases. (b) flat plane. (c) f/d. Answer.12 What does the term size effect mean in metal cutting? Answer. and d = 0.Answer. and d. (c) 3. (d) 21. (b) to/tc. Specific energy is the amount of energy required to remove a unit volume of the work material.3 If the cutting conditions in a turning operation are v = 300 ft/min. as the tool-chip interface heats up during cutting. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers.010 in/rev.6 The chip thickness ratio is which one of the following? (a) tc/to. or (e) sphere.6 in 3/min. Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 11 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct).2 With which one of the following geometric forms is the drilling operation most closely associated? (a) external cylinder.4 A roughing operation generally involves which one of the following combinations of cutting conditions? (a) high v. For each question. f. which one of the following is the material removal rate? (a) 0.11 What is the specific energy in metal machining? Answer. To attain a perfect score on the quiz. 21. or (d) to/w.3 in 3/min. or (d) turning. or (d) low v.100 inch.5 21. (c) round hole. or (d) 3. (b) Which of the three types of chip would be expected in a turning operation conducted at low cutting speeds on a brittle work material (one answer)? (a) continuous. (b) continuous with built-up edge. (b) high v. f. Answer. Answer. Answer. low f and d. (b) 0. or (c) discontinuous.

or (d) steel.8 Which of the following metals would usually have the lowest unit horsepower (one answer)? (a) aluminum.37 + tan (22.37 – (-5)) = 2.85 . (b) decrease in power requirements. (c) decrease in shear plane angle.4286 cos -5/(1 . all other factors remaining the same (more than one)? (a) decrease in friction angle.028 = 0. Assuming that the friction angle remains the same.30/0. Calculate (a) the shear plane angle and (b) the shear strain for the operation. Answer. with α = 0 and β remaining the same at 51. (d) increase in cutting temperature. (21.012/0. (b) Problems Chip Formation and Forces in Machining 21.210 = 2.3° Now. (c) cast iron.025 inch.518 = 2.012 in and the cut yields a deformed chip thickness = 0. (b) and (e).4286 φ = tan-1(. (c) 21. (b) the chip thickness.35° ° (b) Chip thickness at α = 0: tc = to/tan φ = 0. rearranging.7 According to the Merchant equation..15) = 1. β = 2(45) + α . φ = 45 + 0/2 – 51.30 mm and the cut yields a deformed chip thickness = 0. Using the Merchant Equation. Solution: (a) r = to/tc = 0.35 = 0. an increase in rake angle would have which of the following results.010 inch. the tool has a rake angle = -5°.0) = 2. Answer. α = 15° and φ = 26. 21.351 = 3. determine (a) the shear plane angle.5062) = 26.028 in.4286 sin -5)) = tan-1(.85) = 51.4615 φ = tan-1(.948 131 .2φ β = 90 + 15 – 2(26.1 In an orthogonal cutting operation. (b) 0.975 + 0.35 + tan (19. Solution: From Problem 21. the tool has a rake angle = 15°. and (c) the shear strain for the operation. Eq. or (e) increase in shear plane angle.4615 sin 15)) = tan-1(.848 + 0. The chip thickness before the cut = 0. Calculate (a) the shear plane angle and (b) the shear strain for the operation. The chip thickness before the cut = 0.37° ° (b) Shear strain γ = cot 22.4116) = 22.1.199 21.2 In Problem 21.30/tan 19.3 In an orthogonal cutting operation.1. (b) brass. (c) 21. or (c) 0. Answer.430 + 0..10 Which of the following cutting conditions has the strongest effect on cutting temperature? (a) feed or (b) speed.9 For which one of the following values of chip thickness before the cut to would you expect the specific energy to be the greatest? (a) 0.3°. Answer.65 mm. (a) 21. Solution: (a) r = to/tc = 0.65 = 0.85°.854 mm (c) Shear strain γ = cot 19. suppose the rake angle were changed to α = 0°.185 21.Answer.35 .85 + tan (26.4615 cos 15/(1 .β/2.16): φ = 45 + α/2 .12 mm.85° ° (b) Shear strain γ = cot 26.3/2 = 19.

015. the width of the cut = 0. (b) φ = tan-1(.012/.4 cos 10/(1 .0 mm.7 An orthogonal cutting operation is performed using a rake angle of 15°. The rake angle = 10°.2φ β = 90 + 5 – 2(21.463 cos 10/(1 .0)/sin 21. (b) the shear angle.4 .615 + 0. the chip thickness before the cut = 0.463 φ = tan-1(.294 = 2. rearranging.0077 = 21.7 involves a work material whose shear strength is 40. Solution: (a) r = to/tc.5 = 0.9/0.5 The cutting force and thrust force in an orthogonal cutting operation are: Fc = 1470 N and Ft = 1589 N. (b) the cutting force.8 The orthogonal cutting operation described in previous Problem 21.6)(5. Based on your answers to the previous problem.291sin 22..54 = 0.25 mm. Determine: (a) shear plane angle.167 lb/in2.15) = 1. (c) the thrust force.200 in. The tool rake angle = 10° which produces a deformed chip thickness tc = 0.94° Fs = 300 cos 22.38 sin 5)) = tan-1(0. 132 .3 N As = (0.9 N/mm2 = 95.4° ° (b) γ = cot 26.291 21.0 mm. and (c) material removal rate.1° µ = tan 54.88 (e) γ = cot 31.10) = 2.55 = 0.94 = 0. Solution: φ = tan-1(0.0.012 in and w = 0.4 sin 10)) = tan-1(. and d = 3.8 + tan (31.6. tc = to/r = 0. the width of the cut = 5.4233) = 22.5° ° (d) µ = tan 41.463 sin 10)) = tan-1(.55 sin 15)) = tan-1(.38 21.0/.3646 = 8.24° µ = tan 52.3916) = 21. Use the orthogonal cutting model as an approximation of the turning process.3/8. The rake angle = 5°.38 = 789.54 mm. Solution: (a) φ = tan-1(0. As = (0.38 – 1589 sin 21.022 in. and the chip thickness ratio = 0.23 mm2 S = 789.2(31. compute: (a) the shear force.4959) = 26. Solution: (a) r = to/tc = 0.301 = 1. the chip thickness before the cut = 0. f = 0.0) = 1500 mm3/s 21.25/0.38° Fs = 1470 cos 21. The chip thickness ratio is measured after the cut to be 0.8° ° (c) β = 2(45) + 15 .9 lb.21. Determine: (a) the chip thickness after the cut. (d) the coefficient of friction.4 + tan (26. and (d) the friction force. Determine (a) the shear strength of the work material and (b) the coefficient of friction in the operation.017 + 0.6194) = 31.1 = 1.38 cos 5/(1 . (b) shear strain.94 = 162.94 .000 lb/in 2.100 in. Determine (a) the shear strength of the work material and (b) the coefficient of friction in the operation.4 The cutting conditions in a turning operation are: v = 2 m/s.015)(0..94) = 54.55 cos 15/(1 .9 MPa (b) φ = 45 + α/2 . and the chip thickness ratio = 0. β = 2(45) + 10 .6 The cutting force and thrust force have been measured in an orthogonal cutting operation: Fc = 300 lb and Ft = 291 lb.0. β = 2(45) + α .23 = 95.38 = 3.8) = 41.β/2. and (e) the shear strain.92 21.311 (c) MRR = (2 m/s x 103 mm/m)(0.0077 in 2 S = 162.25)(3. (c) the friction angle.38. to = 0.2(22.2)/sin 22.8 .4.55.24 = 1.38) = 52.

35 cos -5/(1 .8 = 0. Determine: (a) the shear plane angle.100 in.(-5)) = 665 lb. (d) the coefficient of friction.150 in. (d) F = 155 sin 15 .000 lb/in 2.00702(50.5 cos 20/(1 .50. (c) β = 2(45) + 20 . and (e) the shear strain. f = 0..5668) = 29..5 = 0. the rake angle = -5°.9° ° (d) µ = tan 42.7) = 47. (d) F = 665 sin (-5) .9 -20) = 238 lb.000) = 228 lb. The rake angle on the tool in the direction of chip flow = 10°.7 + 47.8 + 41.15) = 2. Fs = AsS = 0. (c) the friction angle.93 (e) γ = cot 31.8 .5 + 50.000) = 351 lb.5 -15) = 77.2 cos (41. The shear strength of the work material = 40.597 + 0. (b) the shear angle. Fs = AsS = 0.870 cos (-5) = 808 lb.4 sin -5)) = tan-1(0.8 + 41.8) = 42.5 .2 lb. Solution: (a) φ = tan-1(.Solution: (a) As = (0.8 + tan (31. Solution: (a) r = to/tc.2 sin (41.5) = 50.20)/cos (29.015)(0.0028(40.5 + 50.4 cos -5/(1 . and width of cut = 0.00456(50.3851) = 21.7 + 47.5 mm (b) φ = tan-1(.(-5))/cos (18.(-5))/cos (18.9 In an orthogonal cutting operation.6 .7 = 0. (b) the shear force.000) = 91.00456 in 2. chip thickness before the cut = 0.4. (b) the shear force.9° Fc = 228 cos (50.35 sin -5)) = tan-1(0.35.15)/cos (31.15)/sin 29.010 in/rev.. (c) β = 2(45) + (-5) .10 The shear strength of a certain work material = 50.00702 in 2.015 in.012)(0. Determine: (a) the chip thickness after the cut. An orthogonal cutting operation is performed using a tool with a rake angle = 20° at the following cutting conditions: Speed = 100 ft/min.3384) = 18.15)/cos (31. Solution: (a) φ = tan-1(.489 = 3.000 lb/in 2.015)(0.0 mm.5 sin 20)) = tan-1(0. (c) cutting force and thrust force.(-5)) = 870 lb.9 . 21.6 .2(18. to = 0.2/.7° ° (b) As = (0.09 21.2 lb. Fs = AsS = 0.11 Solve the previous problem except that the rake angle has been changed to -5° and the resulting chip thickness ratio = 0.4 = 0.15)/sin 18. Using the orthogonal model as an approximation of turning.5° ° (b) As = (0. 21. determine: (a) the shear plane angle. resulting in a chip ratio = 0.2(21.42.2 mm and w = 4. (c) Ft = 91.6 . The chip ratio r = 0.77.6 .2 cos 15 = 115 lb. 133 . and d = 0.20)/cos (29.1° ° (c) β = 2(45) + (-5) .6° Fc = 351 cos (47.9 = 0.12 A turning operation is performed using the following cutting conditions: v = 300 ft/min. (c) cutting force and feed force.5 .238 cos 20 = 359 lb. (b) Fc = 91.2(29.10)/sin 31. tc = to/r = 0. Ft = 228 sin (50.00228 in 2. (d) F = 397 sin 20 .9 -20) = 397 lb.9 . The resulting chip thickness ratio = 0. 21.5 -15) = 155 lb. Ft = 351 sin (47. and (d) friction force.

9) = 54.9 + 54.10)/cos (24.3) is derived from the definition of chip ratio.9) through (21. and Fn (Eqs.10) = 229 lb.2(24.1° Fc = 128 cos (54. Eq.000) = 98.7) = 387 N.9 .7) = 568 N.9 .9 = 1.2° Fc = 321 cos (41. Solution: φ = tan-1(0. Determine the cutting force and the feed force. The shear strength of the work material is known to be 50.9° Fc = 98.4462) = 24.1 . 134 .17 Derive the force equations for F.7)/cos (27.0.000 lb/in 2.. (21.0) = 51.7)/cos (27. (21.10) = 236 lb.9° ° As = (0.42 sin 10)) = tan-1(0.D.13 Turning is performed on a work material with shear strength of 250 MPa. γ = AC/BD = (AD + DC)/BD = AD/BD + DC/BD AD/BD = cot φ and DC/BD = tan (φ .0 m/s.00245 in 2. Solution: Begin with the definition of the chip ratio.00256(50.r sin α Rearranging.2 lb.1 .284(250) = 321 N.E. a feed of 0. determine: (a) the shear plane angle.0 + 51.2(22.2 . d = 3.11.000) = 128 lb.100 in. r cos (φ . γ = cot φ + tan (φ . and the chip thickness ratio is measured after the cut to be 0.2 cos (51.10)/cos (22.D. Eq. Ff = 321 sin (41.9° ° (b) As = (0.40.10) = 161 lb.0 mm. tan φ = r cos α/(1 .2 sin (51.10)/sin 22.10)/cos (22.4 cos 10/(1 .10)/cos (24. (c) cutting force and feed force.9 + 41. and rake angle = 7° in the direction of chip flow.00257 in 2.10) = 179 lb. f = 0.2 . 21.0° ° (b) As = (0.15 Show how Eq.0)/sin 27.9 = 0.5285) = 27.2)(3.42 cos 10/(1 .10)/sin 24.2(27.9 + 54.9 .5 sin 7)) = tan-1(0.12) in the text) using the force diagram of Figure 21. (21. Fs = AsS = 0. Solution: In the figure.9 .r sin α) Q.4 sin 10)) = tan-1(0.α) Rearranging.α) = sin φ Using the trigonometric identity cos(φ .2 .6.. Solution: (a) φ = tan-1(.0 + 51.2): r = to/tc = sin φ/cos (φ . The following conditions are used: v = 3. The resulting chip ratio = 0. Fs. 21.20 mm/rev.α) = cos φ cos α + sin φ sin α r (cos φ cos α + sin φ sin α) = sin φ Dividing both sides by sin φ. (21. Using the orthogonal model as an approximation of turning. 21. (b) the shear force. Use the orthogonal cutting model as an approximation of the turning process. 21.α) Q.5 cos 7/(1 . (c) β = 2(45) + 7 .5(b).14 A turning operation is made with a rake angle of 10°. Ft = 128 sin (54. (21.00245(40. we obtain r cos α/tan φ + r sin α = 1 r cos α/tan φ = 1 . β = 2(45) + 10 .Solution: (a) φ = tan-1(.2 .E. Fs = AsS = 0.α) Thus.1 .2) and Figure 21. (c) β = 2(45) + 10 . N.5. 21.010)(0.9) = 41.9 + 41.010 in/rev and a depth of cut = 0.4233) = 22.284 mm2.0 = 0. Ft = 98. Fs = AsS = 1.1 .16 Show how Eq.4) is derived from Figure 21.010)(0.

Solution: Eq.75 kW Accounting for mechanical efficiency.20 In a turning operation on aluminum.E. MRR = vfd = (200 m/min)(103 mm/m)(0. The arrowhead of Ft will now be at the base of the translated base of N.19 In previous Problem 21.E.D.750 J/s = 29.06 kW 21. Eq.90 = 33.3 to obtain the appropriate unit horsepower value. for f = 0.E.750 W = 29. cutting conditions are as follows: v = 900 ft/min.11.020 in/rev.75/0. Pg = 17.38 J/mm3) = 29.44 kW 21. The length difference between the extended Fs vector and the original Fs vector is Ft sin φ. The distance along the previously constructed line between the Ft arrowhead (base of translated N vector) and F is Ft sinα. f = 0.3 to obtain the appropriate specific energy value. one of which = Fc sin α and the other = Ft cos α. Next.11): In Figure 23.250 in.5 mm) = 750. What horsepower is required of the drive motor. the cutting speed = 200 m/min. How much power will the lathe draw in performing this operation if its mechanical efficiency = 90%. and from the intersection of Ft and Fc construct a line that is perpendicular to vector Fs.10): In Figure 23. From Table 21.12): In Figure 23. translate vector Ft to the right and downward at an angle α until its base is at the arrowhead of F.50 mm)(7. A right triangle now exists in which Fc is the hypotenuse and the two sides are (1) the extended Fs vector and (2) the constructed line that runs between Fs and the intersection of Fc and Ft. U = 2. compute the lathe power requirements if feed = 0. Vector Fn is now divided into two line segments. correction factor = 0. Q. N = Fc cos α . 135 . F = Fc sin α + Ft cos α.90 = 19. U = 2.85) = 2.8 J/mm3.9): In Figure 23. Fn = Fc sin φ + Ft cos φ Q.8 J/mm3 MRR = vfd = (200 m/min)(103 mm/m)(0.D. The vector F is divided into two line segments.85.8(0. and d = 0.25 mm)(7. Power and Energy in Machining 21.3.500 J/s = 17. Hence. Thus Fs (original) = Fc cos φ .14. Ft now makes an angle α with F. U = 2. (21.500 mm3/s)(2.D.50 mm.38 J/mm3. (21. Pg = 29. Eq. With the correction factor.5/0. Eq. The extended Fs vector is related to Fc as Fc cos φ. translate vector N vertically upward until it coincides with the previously constructed line.5 mm) = 375.3. Solution: This is the same basic problem as the previous.8 J/mm3) = 17.11.” Using Figure 21.18. Hence. feed = 0. Use Table 21.5 kW Accounting for mechanical efficiency.11. (21.8 N-m/mm3 = 2.50 mm/rev. construct a line from the intersection of Ft and Fc that is perpendicular to and intersects with vector Fn. The constructed line is at an angle α with Fc.E. Solution: From Table 21.11.500 mm3/s P c = (12.D.25 mm/rev. extend vector Fs in the opposite direction of its arrowhead.000 mm3/min = 12.Ft sin φ Q.5 mm.18 In a turning operation on stainless steel with hardness = 200 HB.Ft sin α Q.000 mm3/min = 6250 mm3/s P c = (6250 mm3/s)(2. construct a line starting at the intersection of Ft and Fc that is perpendicular to the friction force F. except that a correction must be made for the “size effect. whose length = Fc cos α. Thus. one of which = Ft cos φ and the other = Fc sin φ. and depth of cut = 7. if the lathe has a mechanical efficiency = 87%? Use Table 21.500 W = 17. (21.

2/0. the lathe has a mechanical efficiency = 0./ft)(0.2 hp HPg = 12. thus U = 2. 21. U = 2.3.90) = 22.94 hp. HPu = 1.326 hp/(in. Cutting conditions are: v = 400 ft/min.12. Solution: (a) From Problem 21.010 in/rev in the table. 3/min.94/2. At efficiency E = 90%.500 = 50.25)(54) = 12.250) = 54 in 3/min HPc = 0. Fc = 155 lb.3/min.150 in.9. HPc = HPu x MRR. 22. Using the appropriate specific energy value from Table 21.010 in/rev. determine the maximum feed that can be set for this operation. From your answers to those problems.500/50. correction factor = 0.446 mm/rev One more iteration using the correction factor yields a value around f = 0. HPc = (7.8 N-m/mm3 = 2.6 hp/(in 3/min)) = 11. Since feed is greater than 0. Based on these values. a correction factor must be applied from Figure 21. For f = 0. (c) HPu = 0. (b) the metal removal rate in in.000 = 0.400 = 0.3.21 In a turning operation on plain carbon steel whose Brinell hardness = 275 HB.9(0.52 hp required.88 in.14 = 0.23 Suppose the cutting speed in Problems 21. 21. feed = 0. (b) the horsepower that must be generated by the lathe. Required Pc = (2.3. correction factor in Figure 21. and depth of cut = 0.167 in.000 = 0. 3/min) (d) U = 155(200)/2.2 in.8 J/mm3 MRR = vfd = (200 m/min)(103 mm/m)(6 mm)f = 1200(103)f mm3/min = 20(103)f mm3/s Available power Pc = Pg E = 25(103)(0.Solution: From Table 21.3 to obtain the appropriate unit horsepower value. The lathe motor is rated at 25 kW.500W Required power Pc = (2.88 = 0.52 N-m/mm3 and an iterative calculation procedure is required to match the unit power value with the feed.8 is v = 200 ft/min. Determine: (a) the horsepower consumed by the turning operation.500 = 56.14.2 in3/min)(1. available horsepower = 0.24 For Problem 21. the job can be accomplished on the 20 hp lathe.100) = 2.22 A turning operation is to be performed on a 20 hp lathe with efficiency = 90%. and its mechanical efficiency = 90%. Solution: From Table 21.9.0 hp 21.) = 7.400 f Again setting available power = required power. HPu = 0. and (d) the specific energy (in-lb/in3).400 f f = 22..45 mm/rev.764 ft-lb/in3 = 129. find: (a) the horsepower consumed in the operation.90) = 2.90(20) = 18 hp Since available horsepower exceeds required horsepower. can the job be performed on the 20 hp lathe? Use Table 21.-lb/in3. HPc = 155(200)/33.8 N-m/mm3)( 20 x 103) f = 56.402 mm (this should be interpreted as mm/rev for a turning operation) However.87 = 14. The work material is an alloy steel whose hardness is in the range 360 to 380 HB. (b) MRR = vfd = (200 x 12)(0.01 in. for this feed. 136 .150 in.500/56.6 hp/(in 3/min) MRR = vfd = 400 ft/min(12 in. (c) the unit horsepower (hp-min/(in3).88 = 10. HPg = HP/E MRR = vfd = 900 x 12(. the cutting speed is set at 200 m/min and depth of cut = 6.020 in/rev = to. (c) the unit horsepower and specific energy for the work material in this operation.25 hp/(in 3/min) for aluminum. 22. taking the correction factor into account.0 mm.012)(0.5 (103) = 22. Solution: From Table 21.000 f f = 22. 3/min.000 f Setting available power = required power. 21.8(0.80.7 and 21.3.8.020)(0.)(0.52)(20 x 103) f = 50.

65 hp 21.8 = 2460 W.0 mm. f = 0.25(1.26 Solve Problem 21.6 = 179.000 in-lb/in3. MRR = vfd = 1.3.3(103)(.63/3.63/0.6) = 2.6(103)(.7(2.25 In a turning operation on low carbon steel (175 BHN).3 m/s.7 N-m/mm3 for aluminum. Solution: (a) From Table 21.8)(103) = 1.16/0.005)(0. 21. the cutting conditions are: v = 5.8) = 2. f = 0.8 = 2450 W.8(0.010)(0.25 mm/rev in the table. Based on the unit horsepower values in Table 21.7)(3.9)(103) = 1.12. f = 0.25. Note that although the power used in this operation is virtually the same as in the previous problem. 21.6(3. the cutting conditions are: v = 400 ft/min. (b) HPg = 1. The lathe has a mechanical efficiency = 0.0) = 2.29 A turning operation is performed on an engine lathe using a tool with zero rake angle in the direction of chip flow.85. The work material is an alloy steel with hardness = 325 Brinell hardness.27 but with the following changes: v = 1. the metal removal rate is about 40% greater.075 in. P c = U x MRR = 0. Since feed is greater than 0.27 A turning operation is carried out on aluminum (100 BHN).100) = 3. Solution: (a) From Table 21. and d = 0.3. HPc = HPu x MRR MRR = 400 x 12(. MRR = vfd = 5.25 hp (b) HPg = 2.85 = 2.000 = 1. and d = 2.75)(4. (b) Gross power Pg = 1960/0. correction factor = 0.8(103) mm3/s. The lathe has a mechanical efficiency = 0. For f = 0.075) = 1.005 in/rev = to.0)(1.25 mm/rev.6 m/s.0) = 3. 137 .28 Solve Problem 21.075) = 3. HPc = 179(300)/33.54 hp 21. U = 0.6 hp/(in 3/min) for low carbon steel. HPu = 1. P c = U x MRR = 0. HPu = 1.7 N-m/mm3 for aluminum.6 in 3/min HPc = 0. (b) the horsepower that must be generated by the lathe.14.63 hp.010 in/rev in the table. (b) Gross power Pg = 1970/0.6 in3/min.75 mm/rev = to.3. For f = 0. Based on the specific energy values in Table 21.24 except that the feed f = 0.04 hp (c) MRR = (300 x 12)(0. Fc = 179 lb. correction factor = 1. 21.8 in 3/min HPc = 1.96(103) n-m/s = 1960 W. Solution: (a) From Table 21.14. Solution: (a) From Table 21.80.8 = 2.0 hp/(in 3/min) for stainless steel.01)(0.453 hp/(in3/min) U = 179(300 x 12)/3. in Watts. and d = 4.25)(2.85. determine: (a) the cutting power and (b) the gross power in the turning operation.6 = 0. a correction factor must be applied from Figure 21. a correction factor must be applied from Figure 21.97(103) n-m/s = 1970 W.3. HPu = 0. determine: (a) the horsepower consumed by the turning operation.85 = 2.3. HPc = HPu x MRR MRR = vfd = 400 x 12(.25/0.Solution: (a) From Problem 21.75 mm/rev.9(103) mm3/s.010 in/rev. U = 0.3.16 hp (b) HPg = 2. Since feed is lower than 0.005 in/rev and the work material is stainless steel (Brinell Hardness = 225 HB).0 mm.

(b) MRR = 785 x 12(0. The following cutting conditions are used: v = 4.000 (HP/v) = 33. Solution: (a) From Table 21. (b) the unit horsepower for this material under these conditions.0075(0.3 mm.010 in/rev in the table. correction factor = 0. to = 0.6 lb.3.95(1.5 sin 10)) = tan-1 (0. if the lathe has an efficiency = 85%.000(0.99 hp.125 in and the cutting speed is 300 ft/min. compute the horsepower at the drive motor. and thermal diffusivity = 0.015 in/rev = to. the depth of cut is 0. The rake angle of the tool = 10°.99/5.3 for a to of 0.075)/sin 28.3 mm x 2 mm) = 1.10)/cos(28.9 cm2/s = 90 mm2/s U = 1100 N x 4 m/s/(4000 mm/s x 0.015)(0.7 g/cm3)(1. HPc = HPu x MRR. HPu = 1.30 A lathe performs a turning operation on a workpiece of 6.0.0075/0.375/1.833 N-m/mm3/2. Solution: (a) Must find Fc and v to determine HP.10) = 83.9 cm2/s. and w = 2.015 in.14. Solution: ρC = (2. (b) Based on horsepower. Determine: (a) the horsepower required in the operation. r = 0.333 = 20 + 246.9(2. After the cut.3 = 0.000 = 1.37) = 20° + 585° = 605° C ° 138 .3 mm/90 mm2/s)0.3)(6. The machine settings are: rotational speed = 500 rev/min.15 = 0. Taking this correction factor into account.1 J/g-C. Since feed is greater than 0.3.3° β = 2(45) + 10 -2(28.075) = 5. Fc = 47.015 in/rev.1 J/g-°C) = 2. For f = 0. and (c) the unit horsepower as it would be listed in Table 21.3 hp/(in 3/min) for alloy steel of the specified hardness.0075 in/rev.14 to account for the fact that f = 0.000 (8.0 mm.4 .010 in/rev. determine the cutting temperature if the ambient temperature = 20°C.The feed is . The chip thickness after the cut is 0.97(10-3) J/mm3-°C K = 0. HPg = HP/E MRR = 300 x 12(.5 cos 10/(1 . Use the orthogonal cutting model as an approximation of the turning process. feed = 0.97 J/cm3-°C = 2.4 . v = 500 rev/min(6π/12 ft/rev) = 785 ft/min. Using Cook's equation. the chip thickness ratio is measured to be 0.010 in/rev.4 x 1. HPu = 1.0075)(0.97(10-3) J/mm3-C)(4000 mm/s x 0.7 g/cm3.3) = 43.5 cos(43. a correction factor must be applied from Figure 21.3 hp HPg = 8. HP = 83.3 = 0.15 from Fig.31 Orthogonal cutting is performed on a metal whose mass specific heat = 1.00119 in 2 Fs = 40.45.010 in.833 N-m/mm3 T = 20 + (0.5392) = 28.8 hp (b) HPc = vFc/33.3/0.95.0 in diameter. and depth = 0.4° As = 0. 21. Use the orthogonal cutting model as an approximation of the turning process. The shear strength of the work = 40. The cutting force is measured at Fc = 1100 N.5 φ = tan-1(0. density = 2. 21.015 = 0.0075 in/rev instead of 0. Fc = 33. HPu = 0. (a) Using the appropriate value of specific energy from Table 21.5 lb.075 in.2469 x 103 C)(13.3 + 43.75) = 8. Cutting Temperature 21.125) = 6.000.326 hp/(in3/min) as it would appear in Table 21.3 in 3/min.375 hp/(in3/min) (c) Correction factor = 1.6(785)/33.75 in 3/min HPc = 0. compute your best estimate of the cutting force for this turning operation.000 lb/in2.3/300) = 913 lb.333 T = 20 + (0.3 for a feed f = 0.00119) = 47. Rearranging.0 m/s.33) .85 = 9.

Assume ambient temperature = 20°C.10.333 = 70 + (0.18) 0.100) = 250. T = 70 + (0. taking ambient temperature in account T = 20 + 1201 = 1221° C ° 21. Solution: From Table 21.0075 in/rev.010 x 0.46 J/g-°C) = 3.89) = 1201 C° Final temperature.21.25 mm T = 0.000/124)(30 x 0. = 70 in/sec.14) 0.8 J/mm3 From Table 4.35 An orthogonal machining operation removes metal at 1.4(2. 1 cal = 4. Therefore U = 400.87 g/cm3 = 7.4 x 440. U = 2.3. v = 300 ft/min x 12 in/ft/60 sec/min.06)0. The following cutting conditions are used: v = 350 ft/min.01 x 0. and depth = 4.4 x 300. and thermal diffusivity = 0.046 J/s-mm-°C From Eq. thermal conductivity k = 0.333 = 70 + (0.87 g/cm3)(0.0 mm.008 in.1 and the appropriate specific energy value from Table 21.33 An orthogonal cutting operation is performed on a certain metal whose volumetric specific heat = 110 in-lb/in3-F.100 in.309(103)(59. thermal diffusivity K = k/ρC K = 0. C = 0.62(10-3)(3(103)(0. v = MRR/tow = 1.14 in 2/sec. Using values of thermal properties found in the tables and definitions of Section 4.11 Cal/g-°C.34 It is desired to estimate the cutting temperature for a certain alloy steel whose hardness = 275 Brinell.87(10-3) g/mm3 From Table 4.3).3.333 = 70 + 1147 = 1217 ° F 139 .1) = 440. feed = 0. Solution: MRR = vtow. compute an estimate of cutting temperature using the Cook equation.008 x 0.25 mm.7 mm2/s Using Cook’s equation.8)/3.333 = 309(3.010 in and width of cut = 0.333 = T = 70 + (0. U = Fcv/vtow = 200(70)/(70 x 0. Thus.008/0.0075/0. to = 0.333 = 70 + (968)(1. use the Cook formula to compute the cutting temperature in the operation given that ambient temperature = 70°F.11(4. and thermal diffusivity = 0. U for alloy steel (275 BHN) = 400. determine the cutting temperature if the ambient temperature = 70°F. T = 70 + (0.8/(0.2. correction factor = 1. and w = 0. The thermal properties of the work material are: volumetric specific heat = 200 in lb/in 3 F. Assume ambient temperature = 70°F. Solution: From Table 21.333 = 70 + 1436 = 1506 ° F 21. The cutting force is measured at Fc = 200 lb. The work material has a thermal diffusivity = 0.4U/ρC)(vto/K)0.3 and compute the cutting temperature by means of the Cook equation for a turning operation in which the following cutting conditions are used: speed v = 300 ft/min. From note “a” at the bottom of the table.1. Using Cook's equation.000 in-lb/in 3.25)/12.87 x 10-3 g/mm3)(0.214) 0.. and depth d = 0. (4.100 in. Use the appropriate value of specific energy from Table 21.000 in-lb/in 3.333 = 70 + 1282 = 1352 ° F 21.62(10-3) J/mm3-°C From Table 4.667) 0.4U/ρC)(vto/K)0.010/0.000/110)(70 x 0.1.0 m/s.14) 0.100) = 1800 in/min = 30 in/sec U = Fcv/vtow = 300(30)/(30 x 0.7) = 0.333 = 70 + (909)(4) 0.000 in-lb/in 3. to = f = 0. T = 70 + (0.333 = 70 + (872)(3.32 Consider a turning operation performed on steel whose hardness = 225 HB at a speed = 3.4U/ρC)(vto/K)0.100) = 300.000/200)(60 x 0.460 J/ g-°C ρC = (7. If the feed f = to = 0. = 60 in/sec.3.000(1. feed f = 0.186) = 0.100 in.46 J/g-°C) = 12.140 in 2/sec. C = 0.8 in 3/min. The cutting force in the process = 300 lb. Solution: v = 350 ft/min x 12 in/ft/60 sec/min.8 N-m/mm3 = 2.4 x 250.046 J/s-mm-°C /[(7. Since f = 0. ρ = 7.186 J.0075 in/rev.18 in 2/sec and a volumetric specific heat = 124 in-lb/in3 F.000 in-lb/in 3.

a tool-chip thermocouple was used to measure cutting temperature. (2) v = 130 m/min.338 = 551.338 = 592/5.25 mm/rev. (1) 505 = K(100) m and (3) 592 = K(160) m (1) ln 505 = ln K + m ln 100 and (3) ln 592 = ln K + m ln 160 Combining (1) and (3): ln 505 .47 m = 0.00 mm.87°C (pretty close to the given value of 552°C). Solution: Rearranging the Cook equation. The thermal diffusivity of the work material = 20 mm2/s and the volumetric specific heat = 3.1589 m = 0.2888) = 1.72 N-m/mm3 21. Determine an equation for temperature as a function of cutting speed that is in the form of the Trigger equation. 140 . determine the specific energy for the work material in this operation.333 U = 680(8.75 x 10-3)(0.5 x 10-3/0.744 = 106.4)(20/{(200/60)(103)(0.338 (1) K = 505/1000.338 = 505/4.37 During a turning operation.m ln 160 6.21. T = 552°C.0752 m 0. (21. The following temperature data were collected during the cuts at three different cutting speeds (feed and depth were held constant): (1) v = 100 m/min.m ln 100 = ln 592 . (3) v = 160 m/min.45(130) 0.45 Use K = 106. If the temperature increase above ambient temperature (20°F) is measured by a tool-chip thermocouple to be 700°C. T = 592°C.333 U = (700 – 2-)(3.4)(K/vto)0.6052 m = 6.024) 0.45 Check equation with data point (2): T = 106.95(0. and depth of cut = 4. T = 505°C.36 A turning operation uses a cutting speed = 200 m/min.2246 – 4. Solution: Trigger equation T = Kvm Choose points (1) and (3) and solve simultaneous equations using T = Kvm as the model.25)})0.44 (2) K = 592/1600.3835 – 5.333 = 5. feed = 0.5 (10-3) J/mm3-C. Eq. U = T(ρC/0.561 = 106.23).

taper turning. while turning produces an external cylindrical shape. 22. Answer.22 22. Turning is a machining process in which a single point tool removes material from the surface of a rotating cylindrical workpiece. both are described in Article 25. and profile milling.2 Distinguish between generating and forming when machining workpart geometries.1.8 Name the various ways in which a workpart can be held in a lathe. Two examples are thread cutting on a lathe and slot milling.5 What is the difference between threading and tapping? Answer.6 How does a boring operation differ from a turning operation? Answer. examples include straight turning. Boring produces an internal cylindrical shape from an existing hole.1. (2) chuck. and (4) face plate. 22.4 Describe the turning process.9 What is the difference between a live center and a dead center. common examples include form turning and drilling. while tapping is normally performed on a drilling machine and produces an internal thread. Answer. Generating refers to the creation of work geometry due to the feed trajectory of the cutting tool. A threading operation is performed on a turning machine and produces an external thread. when these terms are used in the context of workholding in a lathe? 141 . 22.3 Give two examples of machining operations in which generating and forming are combined to create workpart geometry. Answer. Answer. A 12 x 36 lathe has a 12 inch swing (maximum work diameter that can be accommodated) and a 36 inch distance between centers (indicating the maximum work length that can be held between centers).7 What is meant by the designation 12 x 36 inch lathe? Answer. 22.1 MACHINING OPERATIONS AND MACHINE TOOLS Review Questions Discuss the differences between rotational parts and prismatic parts in machining. Answer. Forming involves the creation of work geometry due to the shape of the cutting tool. shaper. the tool being fed in a direction parallel to the axis of work rotation.6. 22. (3) collet. or planer. 22. 22. 22. prismatic parts are block-shaped or flat and are generally produced on a milling machine. Methods of holding the work in a lathe include: (1) between centers.4. See Article 25. Rotational parts are cylindrical or disk-shaped and are machined on a turning machine.

15 Describe profile milling.19 What is the difference between a machining center and a turning center? Answer. 22.10 How does a turret lathe differ from an engine lathe? Answer. by comparison. 22. A radial drill has a long radial arm along which the drill head can be positioned to allow the drilling of large workparts. A turret lathe has a toolholding turret in place of a tailstock. Answer.17 How does a universal milling machine differ from a conventional knee-and-column machine? Answer.12 What is the distinguishing feature of a radial drill press? Answer.18 What is a machining center? Answer. A machining center is a CNC machine tool capable of performing multiple types of cutting operations involving rotating spindles (e. 22. A live center is mounted in bearings and rotates with the work. 22. cutting is accomplished by the peripheral teeth of the milling cutter and the tool axis is parallel to the work surface. In up milling. while a turning center performs turning type operations. 22. Profile milling generally involves the milling of the outside periphery of a flat part.. drilling). A center holds the work during rotation at the tailstock end of the lathe. What is pocket milling? Answer. the machine is typically equipped with automatic tool-changing. drilling). A blind hole does not exit the work. 22. in down milling.the work rotates about it. the tools in the turret can be brought to work to perform multiple cutting operations on the work without the need to change tools as in operating a conventional engine lathe.16 Describe the difference between up milling and down milling? Answer. 22. Pocket milling uses an end milling cutter to machine a shallow cavity (pocket) into a flat workpart.11 What is a blind hole? Answer. milling. generally with single point tools.g.14 22. pallet shuttles to speed workpart changing. the cutter speed direction is opposite the feed direction. cutting is accomplished by the flat face of the cutter whose axis is perpendicular to the work surface. a through hole exits the opposite side of the workpart. the direction of cutter rotation is the same as the feed direction.Answer.. while a dead center does not rotate . 22. The universal milling machine has a worktable that can be rotated about a vertical axis to present the part at any specified angle to the cutter spindle. 22.13 What is the difference between peripheral milling and face milling? Answer. A machining center is generally confined to rotating spindle operations (e. 22. In peripheral milling. milling.g.20 What can a mill-turn center do that a conventional turning center cannot do? 142 . in face milling. and automatic workpart positioning.

Answer. Answer. while external broaching is performed on one of the outside surfaces of the part. or (e) threading tool. and (e). (b) broaching. (e) planing. as compared to forming the geometry (more than one)? (a) broaching. since each correct answer is worth 1 point. (c). (d) milling. In shaping. (c) drill bit.6 Which of the following cutting tools can be used on a turret lathe (more than one)? (a) broach. (b). the change in diameter of the workpart is equal to which one of the following? (a) 1 x depth of cut.1 Which of the following are examples of generating the workpart geometry in machining. (d) single point turning tool. (c). Answer. (c) 1 x feed. or (f) turning. (b) lathe. and (f) 22. Internal broaching is accomplished on the inside surface (hole) of a workpart. 22. Multiple Choice Questions There are a total of 20 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct). 22. Answer. (a). Answer. (c) drilling. permitting milling or drilling to be performed at a location on the periphery of the part. The mill-turn center has the capacity to position a rotational workpart at a specified angular location. (b) 22. (d). or (d) 2 x feed. (c) drilling. (b) contour turning. (2) bandsawing.21 How do shaping and planing differ? Answer. the cutting tool is stationary. 22. (b) cut-off tool. The three forms of sawing are: (1) hacksawing.Answer. and the speed motion is performed by the cutting tool.3 A lathe can be used to perform which of the following machining operations (more than one)? (a) boring. 143 . while in planing. (a) 22. (b) 22.2 In a turning operation. and the workpart is moved past the tool in the speed motion.4 A facing operation is normally performed on which of the following machine tools (one best answer)? (a) drill press. all correct answers must be given. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point. (b) 2 x depth of cut. but it is a metal forming operation rather than a metal removal operation: (a) true or (b) false? Answer. and (3) circular sawing. or (e) shaper.5 Knurling is performed on a lathe. (d) planer.22 What is the difference between internal broaching and external broaching? Answer. (b) and (d). For each question. To attain a perfect score on the quiz. and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers.23 Identify the three basic forms of sawing operation? Answer. and (d) profile milling. (c) milling machine. 22. the work is stationary during the cut. 22.

(d) speed lathe. (c) screw machine. (d) 22. (b).12 Problems Turning and Related Operations 22.85 min.366 rev/s.366(. The piece is 400 mm long and 150 mm in diameter. (b) engine lathe. Answer. (c). Answer. (c) improve surface finish on a hole. (c) plain milling.0 mm.5 m/s. (b) peripheral milling. f = 0.9 22. or (e) turret lathe.0 mm) = 1500 mm3/s 22.91 mm/s Tm = 900/1. fr = 6. what cutting speed must be used to meet this machining time requirement? Solution: Starting with Eq.3 mm/rev. or (d) a workpart moves linearly past a single-point tool. the foreman has decreed that the single pass must be completed on the cylindrical workpiece in 5.91 = 471.125π = 6.5 m/s)(103)(.0 mm. (b) enlarge a drilled hole. (c) a workpart is fed linearly past a rotating cutting tool. (d) improve tolerance on hole diameter. (b) a tool with multiple teeth moves linearly past a stationary workpart. (a) The basic milling machine is which one of the following: (a) bed type.3) (fr = Nf) into the denominator to obtain Tm = L/Nf 144 . (c) profiling mill. (b) knee-and-column. (b) A broaching operation is best described by which one of the following: (a) a rotating tool moves past a stationary workpart. (c) Reaming is used for which of the following functions (more than one)? (a) accurately locate a hole position. Cutting conditions are: v = 2. Solution: (a) N = (2.8 22. (b) MRR = vfd = (2.30 mm/rev and a depth of cut = 4. (b) a tool with multiple teeth moves linearly past a stationary workpart.11 22. (22. Determine: (a) cutting time. (b) A planing operation is best described by which one of the following: (a) a single point tool moves linearly past a stationary workpart.10 22. Answer.0 min.1 A cylindrical workpart 125 mm in diameter and 900 mm long is to be turned in an engine lathe.5 m/s)/. and (b) metal removal rate. and d = 2. (c) a workpart is fed past a rotating cutting tool. and (d). or (d) a workpart moves linearly past a stationary single point tool.4): Tm = L/fr Substitute Eq.2 s = 7. and (e) universal milling machine. or (d) slab milling. Answer.7 Which of the following turning machines permits very long bar stock to be used (one best answer)? (a) chucking machine.3) = 1. (22. and (e) provide an internal thread.2 In a production turning operation.3 mm)(2. (d) ram mill. Answer. End milling is most similar to which one of the following? (a) face milling. Answer. Using a feed = 0.22.

7 m/min 22.5 = 354.4)(0.0 minutes. With this workholding setup.0 in diameter and 48 in length is chucked in an engine lathe and supported at the opposite end using a live center. feed rate fr is constant and Eqs.125 in.00 in diameter workbar that is 25 in long is to be turned down to 3.4) can be used.0) = 0.15)/(0.4.5 A workbar with 5.0 mm.6 A 4. N = v/πD = 200. Rearranging to determine cutting speed: v = πDoL/fTm Tm = π(0.75 in one pass at a speed = 400 ft/min and a feed = 0. Solution: At a constant rotational speed and feed. Determine: (a) the required depth of cut. (22.5 rev/min 22.012) = 3. the time required to load and unload the bar is 5. and this operation will be the final cut.1257(103) m/min = 125.0 mm.084) = 423.1) we get Tm = πDoL/vf (this equation is later used in Chapter 24).084 min from Problem 22. 22.214 mm2)(3. suppose that the automatic lathe with surface speed control is not available and a conventional lathe must be used.5 Given R1 = 100 mm. and the time to reverse the bar is 3. The bar will be held in a chuck and supported on the opposite end in a live center.012) = 7.3. volume cut V = Ad = (354.3 rev/min 22.5 rev/min. one end must be turned to diameter.214 mm2 Given depth of cut d = 3.000 mm3/min Area of frustrum of cone A = π(R1 + R2){h2 + (R1 – R2)2}0.5(0.25 mm)(3. The rough geometry of the piece has already been formed.75)/2 = 0. f = 0. (22. The automatic controls on the lathe permit the surface speed to be maintained at a constant value of 200 m/min by adjusting the rotational speed as a function of workpiece diameter.67 = 10.015 in/rev. and d = 0. Solution: (a) depth d = (5. and (c) metal removal rate. and Tm = 7.641 mm3 Tm = V/MRR = (1. N = 750/(0. Using an overhead crane available at the lathe. f = 0.0 mm) = 150.5 = 150π(565. (b) N = 400 x 12/5π = 305.000/200π = 318. The workpiece is 750 mm long with minimum and maximum diameters of 100 mm and 200 mm at opposite ends.30)(10-3)(5.084 min (b) At beginning of cut (D1 = 100 mm).125)(0. R2 = 50 mm.3) and (22.Then substituting for N from Eq.00 . fr = 305.000/100π = 636. Solution: (a) MRR = vfd = (200 m/min)(103 mm/m)(0. The total 145 .6 rev/min At end of cut (D2 = 200 mm).641 mm3)/(150.91 min.0 minutes.125 in.0 in portion of the length is to be turned to a diameter of 4. Determine the rotational speed that would be required to complete the job in exactly the same time as your answer to part (a) of that problem.3.062. and h = 750 mm.25 mm/rev and depth of cut = 3. N = 200.012 in/rev. (b) cutting time. A 40. For each turning cut an allowance must be added to the cut length for approach and overtravel. A = π(100 + 50){7502 + (100 – 50) 2}0.000) 0.25)(7.2 in3/min.0 mm) = 1. then the bar must be reversed to turn the other end.3 A tapered surface is to be turned on an automatic lathe. Tm = L/Nf and then rearranging to obtain rotational speed N = L/fTm Given L = 750 mm.50 in diameter in two passes on an engine lathe using the following cutting conditions: v = 300 ft/min.062.4 In the taper turning job of previous Problem 22.67 in/min Tm = 40/3.25 mm/rev. Determine (a) the time required to turn the taper and (b) the rotational speeds at the beginning and end of the cut. (c) MRR = (400 x 12)(0. Combining. Feed = 0.000 mm3/min) = 7.

5 x 12)(0.4) tan(90 – 118/2) = 12.5 ft/min MRR = (353. length.4 ft/min. v = (30 rev/min)(25π/12) = 196.7 The end of a large tubular workpart is to be faced on a NC vertical boring mill.297 in/min. Solution: (a) A = 0.Di)/2 = (45 .5(25.5 ft/min. after the drill bit reaches full diameter.020 in/rev) = 0.44 min.15) = 7. fr = 286.6 in/rev Tm = 10/0.583 = 3.7 tan 31 = 7.61 + 3.15)(452 .65 mm 146 ..7 except that the machine tool controls operate at a constant cutting speed by continuously adjusting rotational speed for the position of the tool relative to the axis of rotation. fr = 305. cut remaining 10 in..75 in. Tm = (10 + 0. If the facing operation is performed at a rotational speed = 30 rev/min.4 x 12)(0. feed = 0. feed = 0. The hole is a blind-hole at a depth = 50 mm.4(0. and depth = 0.50 in. v = (30 rev/min)(45π/12) = 353.4(0.0 + 3.96 in3 MRR is constant throughout cutting if v is constant.38 min’ this reduces diameter to 3.15) = 12.297 = 2. Solution: (a) Distance traveled L = (Do .5 x 12)(0.61 min. Determine the total cycle time to complete this turning operation. 22. MRR = (353.25 mm/rev.5 rev/min.allowance (approach plus overtravel) = 0. Total cycle time = 5.96/12.015) = 4.73 in 3/min Tm = (total metal removed)/MRR = 164.0 min. and (b) metal removal rate during the operation.25πd(Do2 .252) = 164. Tm = (15 + 0. Solution: (a) Total metal removed = 0.73 in3/min at Di = 25 in. Cutting conditions are: speed = 25 m/min.5/4.50 in. Determine: (a) the cutting time to complete the drilling operation. Drilling 22. determine: (a) the cutting time to complete the facing operation.67 min (b) at Do = 45 in.07 in3/min 22.4 mm diameter twist drill in a steel workpart.583 = 2. this reduces diameter to 3. The part has an outside diameter = 45. The rotational speed at the beginning of the cut = 30 rev/min.6 = 16..75π = 305. Solution: First end: cut 15 in.8 Solve previous Problem 22.5 rev/min. and the point angle = 118°.583 in/min.75 in. (b) the cutting speeds and metal removal rates at the beginning and end of the cut. fr = (30 rev/min)(0.020)(0.020 in/rev.150 in.5)/4.4 rev/min.9 A drilling operation is to be performed with a 25.4 rev/min.0 + 2.25)/2 = 10 in.75π = 305.. Tm = 10.. of 25 in.50 in.25π(0. MRR = (196. N = 300 x 12/3. Reverse bar which takes 3.015) = 4.29 = 19. N = 300 x 12/4π = 286. Tm = 15.0 min..5(0. length.44 + 2..020)(0. and is continuously increased thereafter to maintain a constant cutting speed.015) = 4.96 min. Loading and unloading bar takes 5.020)(0.73 = 12. of 25 in.72 min. this reduces diameter to 3. v = (30 rev/min)(45π/12) = 353. fr = 305.38 + 3.5)/4..0 in and inside diameter = 25 in.5/4. N = 300 x 12/3.297 in/min.15) = 12.583 in/min.Di2) = 0. N = 300 x 12/4π = 286.5(0. fr = 286.29 min’ this reduces diameter to 3.015) = 4.297 = 3.

22. Solution: Time to drill each hole: N = 300 x 12/0. In order to improve the surface finish in the hole.75π = 1527.0 mm.056 min.7 min.20) = 3600 rev/min.5 + A + 1. assuming the most efficient drilling sequence will be used to accomplish the job.75)/22.00075) = 2.5/15 = 0.0 in/min..7 in/min = 5.3) = 39.5 in/2. Determine the time required from the beginning of the first hole to the completion of the last hole. the number of moves between holes = 99. How long will it take to perform the operation at the new cutting conditions? Solution: fr = 3000 rev/min(0. it has been decided to increase the speed by 20% and decrease the feed by 25%. using a back and forth path between holes.5 in. and d = 7.112/2 = 0. New feed f = 0. Assume that x-y moves are made at a distance of 0.75 in thick aluminum plate that is a component in a heat exchanger. and that this distance must be included in the penetration feed rate for each hole. There are 100 holes in all.112 + 0.00075 in/min.75) tan(90 . and (b) the material removal rate during the cut.4π = 313.3 = 0.25) = 78. The cutting speed = 300 ft/min. Determine: (a) the time to make one pass across the surface.315 + 1.736 min (b) MRR = 0.056) + 99(0.001(1.916 = 0.10 A NC drill press is to perform a series of through-hole drilling operations on a 1.0 in/min. The milling cutter.916 in/min.0.001 in/rev) = 3.25) = 0. New drilling time Tm = 13.2 mm/tooth. The cutting conditions are: N = 3000 rev/min at a feed = 0. f = 0. Total cycle time to drill 100 holes = 100(0. New feed rate fr = 3600(0. All moves between holes are at a distance = 1.1) = 26.0 min.5 rev/min.5 + 0.000 mm/75π = 339.015 in/rev.3 rev/min fr = 313.2 mm3/min 22.002 in/rev.1 min. arranged in a 10 by 10 matrix pattern.675. New speed v = 3000(1 + 0. It takes 4.5 in.5(0. and the feed rate between holes (x-y plane) = 15.N = 25(103)/25.3(0. Distance per hole = 0. 147 . Time to move between holes = 1.5 in above the work surface.75 A = 0.015) = 22.7(0.63)/78. which is 75 mm in diameter and has four teeth.5 min(3. Cutting conditions are: v = 80 m/min. Milling 22.7 rev/min.11 A gundrilling operation is used to drill a 7/16-in diameter hole to a certain depth. the penetration feed (z-direction) = 0. With 100 holes.315 in.5 minutes to perform the drilling operation using high pressure fluid delivery of coolant to the drill point. Tm = (0. Solution: N = 80.0 in/min. The drill has a point angle = 100 degrees.7 in/min.4) 2(78.) = 13. Time to retract drill from hole = 0. fr = 1527.25π(25. Each hole is 3/4 in diameter.5 x 100) = 0.3 mm/min Tm = (50 + 7.112 min. and the distance between adjacent hole centers (along the square) = 1. overhangs the width of the part on both sides.12 A peripheral milling operation is performed on the top surface of a rectangular workpart which is 300 mm long by 100 mm wide. the rate at which the drill is retracted from each hole is twice the penetration feed rate. Hole depth d = 4. Also.5 in.

0 + 2 x 1.009 in/tooth.5 = 1.010) = 25.0 in. Solution: N = 500 x 12/3π = 636.0 + 0. is set up to overhang the width of the part on both sides. and (b) the metal removal rate during the cut.5 rev/min.414 in Tm = (12. f = 0.150(25. The length of the 148 . A = (d(D-d)).0 in wide. A = O = 3/2 = 1. Cutting conditions are: v = 500 ft/min. A = O = (1(3-1)).5 = (7(75-7)).59 min.0 + 2 x 1.5 in diameter and eight teeth. 22.8(8)(0.5 = (. Other Operations 22.8 rev/min.27) = 6. 22.0 in wide and the cutter is offset to one side so that the swath cut by the cutter = 1.010 in/tooth.366 rev/s fr = 6.82 in3/min.2) = 271.5 = 0.150 in. f = 0. fr = 636. The cutter has four teeth (cemented carbide inserts) and is 150 mm in diameter.0 in long by 3. and (b) the metal removal rate during the cut. fr = 636. Determine: (a) time to make one pass across the surface.875 = 80 s = 1.250 in.46) = 7.5 mm3/s 22.185 min.150(25.5-.58 min.46 in/min. Cutting conditions are: v = 25 ft/min. MRR = 3. The milling cutter has four teeth (cemented carbide inserts) and a 3. fr = 152.366(4)(.0 in diameter.17 An open side planer is to be used to plane the top surface of a rectangular workpart.0 in/min.15 A face milling operation is performed to finish the top surface of a steel rectangular workpiece 12.5 in. MRR = 1.27 mm/tooth.75 in Tm = (10. Solution: N = 100 x 12/2.0(.5(4)(0.5 = 21.0(.0 mm.120 mm3/min. f = 0.414)/25.0(. Tm = (12.009) = 11. and (b) metal removal rate during cutting. The helical milling cutter.875) = 3437.98 min. Solution: (a) N = (3000 mm/s)/150π = 6. and d = 0.25)).25)(11.13 A face milling operation is used to machine 5 mm from the top surface of a rectangular piece of aluminum 400 mm long by 100 mm wide.5)/25. Cutting conditions are: v = 100 ft/min. MRR = 2.333 min.46 in/min.5π = 152. which has a 2.200 in.15 except that the workpiece is 5. MRR = 100(7)(271.64 in3/min.46 = 0.010) = 25.14 A slab milling operation is performed to finish the top surface of a steel rectangular workpiece 10.25(2.0 in wide.82)/271.5(4)(0.6 mm/min.020 in/pass.0 in long by 2.46 = 0.5 rev/min.6) = 190.46) = 3.5(4)(0.25 in3/min.0 in by 40.875 mm/s A = D/2 = 150/2 = 75 mm Tm = (400 + 75)/6.75)/11 = 0. (b) MRR = 100(5)(6. Determine: (a) the time to make one pass across the surface. and d = 5. 22.16 Solve previous Problem 22. f = 0. Solution: N = 500 x 12/3π = 636. and d = 0. Cutting conditions are: v = 3 m/s. Determine: (a) the time to make one pass across the surface.0) = 8. and d = 0. A = (d(D-d)).82 mm Tm = (300 + 21.fr = 339. 25.6 = 1.0 in wide.

15 min.35 min.0/0. Total time per pass = 0.15 min. The return stroke.2 min.1125 min.1125 = 0.15 = 0.020 = 1250 passes Total time = 1250(0. Time per forward stroke = (10 + 25 + 10)/(25 x 12) = 0. 149 .35) = 437. Check: orient work so that its width (w = 25 in. Total time per pass = 0. including an allowance for acceleration and deceleration.) is in direction of stroke.stroke across the work must be set up so that 10 in are allowed at both the beginning and end of the stroke for approach and overtravel. Time per forward stroke = (10 + 40 + 10)/(25 x 12) = 0.5 min.0/0.020 = 2000 passes Total time = 2000(0. assuming that the part is oriented in such a way as to minimize the time? Solution: Orient work so that its length (L = 40 in.75(. How long will it take to complete the job.20 + 0.2) = 0. Number of passes = 40.) is in direction of stroke. Number of passes = 25. Time per reverse stroke = 0.15) = 0.2625) = 525.2625 min. Time per reverse stroke = 0.75(.15 + 0. takes 75% of the time for the forward stroke. This will minimize the number of passes required which will minimize time in this case.0 min.

Three desirable properties are: (1) toughness to resist fracture failure.3 What are the two principal locations on a cutting tool where tool wear occurs? Answer. Portions of flank wear are often identified separately as notch wear. and (9) length of cutting time for the tool. and (4) carbon. 23. 23. Answer. Production tool life criteria include: (1) complete failure of the tool. Answer.9 What are the principal alloying ingredients in high speed steel? Answer. C is the speed-axis intercept on the log-log plot of the tool life data. (5) chip disposal problems. corresponding to the surface of the work. (2) hot hardness to resist temperature failure. 23.6 In addition to cutting speed.7 What are some of the tool life criteria used in production machining operations? Answer. 23. 23. depth of cut. Answer. (8) workpiece count. (4) sound of the tool. The three tool failure modes are: (1) fracture failure. (2) temperature failure.8 Identify three desirable properties of a cutting tool material.5 What is meant by the parameter C in the Taylor tool life equation? Answer. (3) vanadium. and (4) plastic deformation of the cutting edge. and (3) wear resistance to prolong the life of the tool during gradual wear. Some grades of HSS also contain cobalt.1 What are the two principal aspects of cutting tool technology? Answer. The two main aspects of cutting tool technology are: (1) tool material and (2) tool geometry. corresponding to the tool point. (6) degradation of finish. (3) diffusion. 23. (2) chromium.4 Identify the mechanisms by which cutting tools wear during machining. (3) fingernail test to feel flank wear.2 Name the three modes of tool failure in machining. The parameter C is the cutting speed corresponding to a one-minute tool life. (2) visual observation of flank or crater wear. Principal alloying ingredients in HSS are: (1) either tungsten or a combination of tungsten and molybdenum. (7) power increase. 150 . and/or work material hardness. called flank wear. 23.23 CUTTING TOOL TECHNOLOGY Review Questions 23. The important tool wear mechanisms are: (1) abrasion. Wear occurs on the top face of the cutting tool as crater wear and on the side or flank of the tool. (2) adhesion. and (3) gradual wear. what other cutting variables are included in the expanded version of the Taylor tool life equation? Answer. The expanded version of the Taylor equation can include any of the following: feed. and nose radius wear. 23.

There are three principal ways: (1) solid shank. The three types of cutting fluids are: (1) cutting oils.chemical fluids. Answer.hole delivery. 23. and longer cutting tool life.23. Answer.13 Why are ceramic cutting tools generally designed with negative rake angles? Answer. (4) side relief angle. The two functional categories of cutting fluids are: (1) coolants and (2) lubricants.11 Identify some of the common compounds that form the thin coatings on the surface of coated carbide inserts.19 Why are cutting fluid filter systems becoming more common and what are their advantages? Answer. Name the three main types of cutting fluid according to chemistry. lower machine tool maintenance. better hygiene. 23. (2) brazed inserts. The seven elements of single point tool geometry are: (1) back rake angle. and manual application. and (3) chemical and semi. this combination of properties is best exploited by giving the tool a negative rake angle to tend to load the tool in compression. cermets.14 Identify the alternative ways by which a cutting tool is held in place during machining.17 What is the principal lubricating mechanism by which cutting fluids work? Answer. in which a thin solid layer of a salt such as iron sulfide is formed on the tool surface to provide lubrication. 23. The steel cutting grades contain TiC and/or TaC in addition to WC-Co. ceramics. (2) side rake angle. used for some cemented carbides. and (7) nose radius. Cutting fluid filter systems are becoming more common due to the environmental protection laws and the need to prolong the life of the fluid before disposal. Other methods include: mist application. reduced disposal costs. and (3) mechanically clamped inserts. fluid. (3) end relief angle. SPD. Name the seven elements of tool geometry for a single point cutting tool. (2) emulsified oils. During cutting. Answer. an example being high speed.18 What are the methods by which cutting fluids are applied in a machining operation? Answer. (5) end cutting edge angle. Advantages of filter systems include: longer fluid life. and (2) extreme pressure lubrication. in which a steady stream of fluid is direct at the operation. which involves the formation of a thin fluid film to help separate and protect the contacting surfaces. Answer. (6) side cutting edge angle. used for most hard tool materials including cemented carbides and coated carbides. in which the cutting edge is an integral part of the tool shank. TiC.12 23. 151 . Answer. The common coatings are: TiN. and Al2O3.15 23. and CBN.10 What is the difference in ingredients between steel cutting grades and non-steel cutting grades of cemented carbides? Answer. The most common method of application is flooding. There are two lubricating mechanisms that are believed to be effective in metal cutting: (1) boundary lubrication.16 Name the two main categories of cutting fluid according to function. The non-steel cutting grades contain only WC and Co. 23. 23. 23. Ceramics possess low shear and tensile strength but good compressive strength. 23.

(b) Ni. since each correct answer is worth 1 point. 23. Answer. (a) 23. (d) TaC. (d) nickel. (2) operating at lower cutting speeds and production rates to prolong tool life. (c) and (d). fungi. 23. (c) C5. (b). (d) TiC. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point. In addition to causing odors and health hazards. (b) Co. Answer. 23. (b) Problems with dry machining include: (1) overheating the tool. which one has the greatest effect on tool wear? (a) cutting speed. (c) chromium. and (d) increases hot hardness. (b) C3.5 An increase in cobalt content has which of the following effects on WC-Co cemented carbides (one best answer)? (a) decreases transverse rupture strength. To attain a perfect score on the quiz. (b) depth of cut. and (e). including tramp oil. and bacteria.2 As an alloying ingredient in high speed steel. Answer. which C-grade would you select (one best answer)? (a) C1. (c) 23. and (e) WC. and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point. (d) 152 .6 Steel cutting grades of cemented carbide are typically characterized by which of the following ingredients (more than one)? (a) Co. and (e) WC. 23. contaminated cutting fluids do not perform their lubricating function as well as when they are fresh and clean. Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 18 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct).20 Dry machining is being considered by machine shops because of certain problems inherent in the use of cutting fluids. Answer. all correct answers must be given. garbage. or (c) feed. and (3) absence of chip removal benefits in grinding and milling. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers. Answer. For each question. (b). (c) TiC. (c) increases corrosion resistance. (a) Cutting fluids become contaminated over time with a variety of contaminants. (a) and (c). (c) CrC.3 Cast cobalt alloys typically contain which of the following main ingredients (more than one)? (a) aluminum. small chips. (b) increases hardness.7 If you had to select a cemented carbide for an application involving finish turning of steel. tungsten serves which of the following functions (more than one)? (a) forms hard carbides to resist abrasion.4 Which of the following is not a common ingredient in cemented carbide cutting tools (more than one)? (a) Al2O3. and (d). or (d) C7. 23. Answer. (a) What are those problems associated with the use of cutting fluids? (b) What are some of the new problems introduced by machining dry? Answer. (b) cobalt. (c). (c) increases toughness. (a). and (e) tungsten.1 Of the following cutting conditions. molds.23. Answer. (b) improves strength and hardness.

(d) remove heat from the process. Answer. at v = 125 m/min Flank wear. and (2) 165(10. The last wear data value in each column is when final tool failure occurred. (c) reduce friction at the tool-chip interface. mm.2 Solve Problem 23.46 (2) C = 165(10.6 min using criterion FW = 0. Using 0.0 mm.4) n = 165(10.0) 0. 153 .3894 = 404. (b) electroplating. The values should be approximately the same as those obtained in part (c) below.22 3 0. T = 5.20 0. mm. T = 20.12 0.2776 n = 0. (b) On a piece of natural log-log paper. (c) physical vapor deposition. At v = 165 m/min.70 11 0.8283 + 3. (b) reduce forces and power.4 = ln 165 + n ln 10.1 except that the tool life criterion is 0.50 mm of flank land wear. T = 10. Solution: At v = 125 m/min.23. Are the resulting n and C values the same? 1 0.35 5 0. From the plot. and (e) wash away chips.1059 + 2. (a) and (b) Student exercises. or (d) pressing and sintering. (c) high speed steel.46 C = 404.0) n ln 125 + n ln 20.50 mm. or (e) tungsten carbide.57 9 0.0155 n = 5.75 mm. T = 13.0 min using criterion FW = 0.4) 0. plot your results determined in the previous part. Which of the following materials has the highest hardness? (a) aluminum oxide. The feed rate was 0.40 0.10 Answer.0) n = C (1) and (2) 125(20. At v = 165 m/min.4) n = C. (c) Two equations: (1) 125(20.58 20 0. determine the tool lives for the two cutting speeds.99 15 0. (a) and (b) Student exercises. (c) and (d).45 0.3894 (1) C = 125(20.75 mm of flank wear as the criterion of tool failure. plot flank wear as a function of time.7129 n = 0.0 min using criterion FW = 0. min. (c) As a comparison. Values of C and n may vary in part (b) due to variations in the plots. (a) On a single piece of linear graph paper.80 13 0.97 Cutting time.30 mm/rev and the depth was 4.75 mm. determine the values of n and C in the Taylor Tool Life Equation. (b) cubic boron nitride.73 25 0.46 23.9 23. Values of C and n may vary in part (b) due to variations in the plots. (d) titanium carbide. 23. calculate the values of n and C in the Taylor equation solving simultaneous equations.47 7 0.50 mm.1 The following flank wear data were collected in a series of turning tests using a coated carbide tool on hardened alloy steel.50 0. at v = 165 m/min Solution: At v = 125 m/min. Answer.4 min using criterion FW = 0. (a) and (c). Flank wear.3026 n 0.0 4.8 Which of the following processes are used to provide the thin coatings on the surface of coated carbide inserts (more than one)? (a) chemical vapor deposition.27 0.33 0. (b) Which of the following are the two main functions of a cutting fluid in machining (two answers only)? (a) improve surface finish on the workpiece. The values should be approximately the same as those obtained in part (c) below. Problems Tool Life and the Taylor Equation 23.3894 = 404.

171 = 250(1.4 Tool life tests in turning yield the following data: (1) v = 100 m/min. what is the likely tool material used in this operation? (c) Using your equation.0) n = 165(5. T = 10 min.7228 n 0.6052 .3365 = 1.171 = 350(1.14286) n ln 1. (a) Find the n and C values in the Taylor tool life equation.2619 = 182.171 C = 350(7) .3894 (1) C = 125(13.3296 0.(c) Two equations: (1) 125(13.2619 = 2.6 4.0 m/s and a 20-min tool life at a speed v = 2. Based on your equation. (a) Determine the parameters n and C in the Taylor tool life equation. T = 30 min.5649 n = 5.8421 n = 0.8277) C = 182.77 T. (c) At v = 300 ft/min.13 min. compute the tool life that corresponds to a cutting speed v = 300 ft/min.4012 .3948) C = 488 Check: C = 250(50) .2619 = 75(2.6) n = C (1) and (2) 125(13.4.3175 = (3. (b) Project how long the tool would last at a speed v = 1.4825 = 329 ft/min. (b) Based on the n and C values.3175 + 3.2619 = 182.77 v = 182.8283 + 2. (2) v = 75 m/min.2619 = 182.77/2. T = 50 min. and (c) the speed corresponding to a tool life of 20 min.9522) = 488 (b) Comparing these values of n and C with those in Table 24.2619 C = 100(10) = 100(1. 100(10) n =75(30) n ln 100 + n ln 10 = ln 75 + n ln 30 4.6052 + 2.2 min.3 Tool life tests on a lathe have resulted in the following data: (1) v = 350 ft/min. Solution: (a) Two equations: (1) 350(7) n = C and (2) 250(50) n = C 350(7) n = 250(50) n 350/250 = (50/7) n 1.2619 .6267) 5..3026) n 0.2776 n = 0. T = 7 min.3894 = 291. (2) v = 250 ft/min.77/90 = 2.0986 n n = 0.5 Turning tests have resulted in 1-min tool life for a cutting speed v = 4.14286 0. compute (b) the tool life for a speed of 90 m/min.14 (2) C = 165(5.2. T = (C/v) 1/n = (488/300) 1/.437) = 182. 154 .0 m/s.1059 + 1.818 = 15.171 = 488/1.77/(20) .9661 n n = 0. 23.848 = 17.15 23.037 T = 2.6) 0.77 (b) 90 T.2.4 m/min. (c) v (20) .4012 n 4.0 m/s.0 = ln 165 + n ln 5. and (2) 165(5.0371/.0) = 291.15 C = 291. the likely tool material is high speed steel.4 = n ln 7.6) n ln 125 + n ln 13. (d) Compute the cutting speed that corresponds to a tool life T = 10 min.3026 n = 4.. (d) For T = 10 min.0) n = C.1914 = 83.2619 = 182.171 = (1.4 = (7. (a) Determine the n and C values in the Taylor tool life equation.0373.77 Check: C = 75(30) . v = C/Tn = 488/10. Solution: (a) Two equations: (1) 100(10) n = C and (2) 75(30) n = C.2877 = 1. 23.

2012 .2%. the resulting data would be: (1) v = 160 m/min.363 min.3 m)/(3. then check the resulting equation against the middle data point.1929 + 2. the workpart is 125 mm in diameter and 300 mm long.2314 = 240 (T)0.08) 5. 23.08 min.75) n = 100(47) n 155 . T = 12 min) is consistent with the Taylor equation determined in Example Problem 23.225 mm) = 174.1. T = 5. Using complete failure as the criterion of tool life instead of 0.25 min. but if cutting speed = 2.225 mm) = 261.0 n ln 20 = ln 2.08) n ln 180 + n ln(14.0 2.909) = 14.5.08) n = C 180(14.909 min.677) n 0. the tool must be changed every 5 workparts.Solution: (a) For data (1) T = 1.0 m/s. the tool can be used to produce 25 pieces between tool changes.54 min.50 mm flank wear. (2) v = 2 m/s = 120 m/min.6 In a production turning operation. (3) v = 100 m/min.3215 = 400 min.2314 = 240/60 = 4.75 min.54) n = C (2) 120(109.9957 n = 0.75) n = C and (3) 100(47) n = C 160(5. 120(20) n = 240 20n = 240/120 = 2.223 = 130(1. Determine the Taylor tool life equation for this job.54) C = 308. Solution: Taylor equation calculated in Example 23.0 T = (4.0151 n n = 0.80s = 4. Determine the parameters n and C in the Taylor tool life equation for this data. If cutting speed = 3. (2) Tm = π(125 mm)(0.2. (1) 180(14.677 n = 4. show that the middle data point (v = 130 m/min.3 m)/(20 m/s)(0. (2) v = 130 m/min. 130(12) .7875 + 4.0 min. (1) 160(5.225 mm/rev is used in the operation.1929 .54) = ln 120 + n ln(109. T = 5(2.0) 1/0.692 .2314 (b) At v = 1.2314 = (4) 4.7404) = 226.54) n = 120(109. 60(T)0.7875 = (4. then C = 4.6931 n = 0.7 For the tool life plot of Figure 23. T = 14. A feed rate of 0.4054 = 2.223 = 229. which is close enough and well within expected random variation in typical tool life data.692 n 5. Solution: Let us use the two extreme data points to calculate the values of n and C.363) = 109.0 m/s.0 m/s = 60 m/min.4.0 m/s = 240 m/min.1 is: vT0. Consistency would be demonstrated by using the values from the middle data point (T = 12 min at v = 130 ft/min) in the equation and obtaining the same value of C as above (C = 229). complete failure of the cutting tool is indicated by the end of each wear curve. (1) v = 3 m/s = 180 m/min.8 In the tool wear plots of Figure 23. Solution: (1) Tm = π(125 mm)(0.0 m/s)(0.53 s = 2.3 This represents a difference of less than 1.4. 23. T = 25(4.2012 C = 180 (14. For data (2) v = 2 m/s = 120 m/min.43 23. T = 47 min.

4054 m = -0.78316 The converted value of C = 5. m.54 m/s 23. (Tref)0.E. n = 0.6052 + 3.5503 + m (-1. (2) v = 1.2040) -0.224 = 236.25 = 1000(Tref)0.5 m/s.3048m/ft)(1 min/60 s) = 2.1).08 m/s Tref = 1 min = 60 s. (23. f = 0.3 0. where v is in m/sec and T is in seconds. SI: v = 14.2 = ln 120 + 0.2 ln 120 + n ln 12 = ln 90 + n ln 40 4.75 = ln 100 + n ln 47 5. This represents a difference of less than 0.7. ft/min converts to m/s as (1000 ft/min)(0.9 use average: C = 236.224 = 236.5%.2 = ln 90 + n ln 40 + m ln 0. Better results on determining the Taylor equation would be obtained by using regression analysis on all three data sets to smooth the variations in the tool life data. compute the tool life when v = 1.204 n n = 0.5939 + m (-1.8 Check against data set (2): 130(14.6094) = 0.5 x 60)(40) n(0. Solution: Three equations to be solved simultaneously: (1) (2 x 60)(12) n(0.08(2.25 C = 1000 ft/min for a 1. The higher C value here reflects the higher wear level used to define tool life (complete failure of cutting edge here vs. (a) Determine n. C = 229 in Example 23.54 m/s Check: (500 ft/min)( 0.10 Q.4998 + 3.4849 n = 4.7875 + 2.239 ln 10 + m ln 0. and K in the expanded version of the Taylor equation. and (3) v = 2.25 = (60) 0.0436 m = 0.3) m = K (1) and (2): ln 120 + n ln 12 + m ln 0. compute the corresponding cutting speeds in ft/min and m/sec using the two equations.50 mm in Example 23.1).S. Note that the n value is very close to the value obtained in Example 23. The following data were obtained during the tests: (1) v = 2.8501 n 0.20 mm/rev.1). A series of turning tests are performed to determine the parameters n.2) m = K (3) (2 x 60)(10) n(0. customary units are used: ft/min for v and min for T. USCU: v = 1000/160.9 The Taylor equation for a certain set of test conditions is vT.25 = 2.14 The converted equation is: vT0.3048m/ft)(1 min/60 s) = 5. and K.14/5.78316) = 14. Validate the metric equation using a tool life = 16 min. a flank wear level of 0. T = 40 min.4).14.1009 n n = 0.ln 160 + n ln 5.25) 0. f = 0. T = 12 min.25 = 1000. where v = m/s and T = s.25 = 14.0 m/s.239 (1) and (3): ln 120 + 0. (b) Using your equation.5 m/s and f = 0.8 here vs. Eq.25 = 1000/2 = 500 ft/min.4700 = 2.7 (3) C = 100(47) 0. That is. f = 0. Solution: vT0.224 (1) C = 160(5.14/9600.1 (n = 0.239 ln 12 + m ln 0.0 m/s.6889 n 0.75) 0.3 mm/rev. which would be considered good agreement for experimental data.7492 n = 4.566 = 2.224 here vs.2) m = K (2) (1.0752 + 1. Convert this equation to the equivalent Taylor equation in the International System of units (metric). and that the C value is higher here (C = 236.224 = 235.25 = 14. where the U.D.0 min tool life.2877 = 1.3 mm/rev. T = 10 min.20 mm/rev. Check both equations at T = 16 min = 960 s.223 in Example 23.108 156 . m. 23.

For 10 min.2297(2.01)(0.3111/.010 = ln 400 + n ln 8 + m ln 0.010 ln 400 + n ln 10 = ln 300 + n ln 35 5. (d) ceramic.2297(0. and K. and K. metal removed = 10(10.2297(2.2 in3 157 .010) m = K (2) 300(35) n(0.8781) = 182. metal removed = 10(0.0794) = m(-4.0 in/rev. C = 1500 ft/min. MRR = (150 x 12)(0.5553 n 0.015) m = K (1) and (2): ln 400 + n ln 10 + m ln 0.3026 n = 5.1997 + 4.25.5 ft/min.239(0.1264 (1) 400(10) 0.11 Eq.010 in/rev.01)(0.010) 0. Determine how many cubic mm of steel would be removed for each of the following tool materials. C = 60 ft/min.010 = ln 300 + n ln 35 + m ln 0.5881) = 379. 23.2297(0.108 =120(1.3 The constant K represents the cutting speed (ft/min) for a 1. (b) high speed steel.811)(0.1997) 0.2 are based on a feed rate of 0. Determine n.9915 + 2.6 ft/min.01)(0. What is the physical interpretation of the constant K? Solution: Three equations to be solved simultaneously: (1) 400(10) n(0. if a 10-min tool life were required in each case: (a) plain carbon steel. C = 200 ft/min.3) 0.5587) = 379.5 x 60)(T)0.6052) = 0.5 m/s. m. and (3) v = 400 ft/min.8404) = K = 182.7038 + 3.015 0.10) = 0.2297(0.3 (2) 300(35) 0.239(0.3 K = 379. v = 60/100.010 = n ln 8 + m ln 0.10.1 = 60/1.015) 0.6052) 0.239 = 2.3026 .2.5 x 12)(0. f = 0.6123)(0.311 T = 2.05127 = 0.0 in3 (c) Cemented carbide: n = 0.(1) K = 120(12) 0. and (e) coated carbide. MRR = (843.10) = 10. v = 1500/100. T = 35 min.3 mm/rev (1.3 (3) 400(8) 0.80 in 3/min. 23.12 The n and C values in Table 23.015 in/rev.125 = 200/1. f = 0.010 in/rev.2877 = 1. f = 0.015 n ln 10 + m ln 0.2297 (1) and (3): ln 400 + n ln 10 + m ln 0.72 in3 (b) HSS: n = 0.3026) + m (-4.10) = 1.010) 0. metal removed = 10(1. MRR = (47.8) = 18. m. v = 200/100. (23. For 10 min.0 minute tool life at a feed rate of 1.0794) + m (-4.239(0. (2) v = 300 ft/min.12) = 101.65 90(T)0.65 (b) v = 1.4) in the text relates tool life to speed and feed.0 mm. (c) cemented carbide.6971)(0.239 = 33.65 (T)0.2) 0.259 = 47. For 10 min. the following data were collected: (1) v = 400 ft/min.572 in 3/min. T = 8 min. Solution: (a) Plain carbon steel: n = 0.333 = 150 ft/min.3 min.2297(2.778 = 843. In a series of turning tests conducted to determine the parameters n.4055 m m = 0.25 mm/rev and a depth of cut = 4.1264 = 300(2. f = 0.5587) = 379.125.108 = 182.25 = 1500/1.572) = 5.1264 = 400(1. This feed is of course an extrapolation and not a real possible feed value.2629)(0.12 in 3/min. T = 10 min.010) m = K (3) 400(8) n(0.6 x 12)(0.1264 = 400(1.2527 n n = 0.

25 = ln 120 + n ln 1.3478 = 0.003)(917) = 2. Sample holes have been drilled to determine the tool life at two cutting speeds. N = (80)/(. for 5 holes.15 0.82) n ln 80 + n ln 27.52389(108) v = {0.25) n = C (2) v = 120 ft/min.7073 n = 0.778 = 1237 ft/min.003)(611) = 1.15 C = 80(27.33(108) (v) -4.5 in diameter holes are drilled through cast iron plates that are 1.3478 = {0.34 C = 120(1. v = 2200/100. where cutting speed v is expressed in ft/min.82 min.75 in/min) = 0. The starting diameter = 500 mm and the length = 1000 mm.545 min) = 27.52389(108)}1/3. The cut will be made with a cemented carbide cutting tool whose Taylor tool life parameters are: n = 0.33(108) (v) -4.01)(0.82) n = C Setting (1) = (2): 80(27.000 ft/min.4 in3 (e) Coated carbide: n = 0. where Tm = machining time per piece and T = tool life.15 = 120(1.5 in3 23.5π/12) = 917 rev/min. we have: 120(1. for 50 holes.25 min. time per hole = 1. For 10 min. C = 10.4055 n = 0. feed rate fr = (0. T = 50(0.0 mm.25) = 80(1. the tool lasted for exactly 50 holes.14) = 301. For 10 min.10) = 14.094) = 131.3478 = 2057.99 v-1 = 2057.382 + 3.0 in/(2. feed rate fr = (0.) Determine the values of n and C in the Taylor tool life equation for the above sample data.5978 n 2.3478 = 4004.981 = 2512 ft/min. Formulating the data as vTn = C. corresponding to the plate thickness.60. Solution: (1) v = 80 ft/min.14 in 3/min.01)(0.364 min. T = 5(0. MRR = (1237 x 12)(0. C = 2200 ft/min. metal removed = 10(30.833 in/min) = 0.2987 = 202. N = (120)/(. Both of these times must be expressed in terms of cutting speed. (Ignore effects of drill entrance and exit from the hole. v = 12000/100. Compute the cutting speed that will allow the tool life to be just equal to the cutting time for this part.25) n = 120(1.99 (v) -1 T = (400/v) 1/. time per hole = 1.99/v = 3926.0 in/(1. and tool life T is expressed in min. Cutting conditions are: f = 0.10) = 30. At 80 surface ft/min.3478 Setting Tm = T: 3926. At 120 surface ft/min.833 in/min.00 in. for tool life and m/min for cutting speed.3051 n = 4.423 min 158 .14 The outside diameter of a cylinder made of titanium alloy is to be turned. The feed rate of the drill was 0. and d = 3.5π/12) = 611 rev/min.3478(v) -4.23 and C = 400. Consider the depth of cut to be exactly 1.13 A drilling operation is performed in which 0.82 4.6 = 12000/3.85) = 148.364 min) = 1. Formulating the data as vTn = C.3478 v3. the tool lasted for exactly 5 holes. metal removed = 10(14.6417) = 131. Units for the Taylor equation are min.25.82) 0. Tm = πDL/fv and T = (C/v) 1/n Tm = π(500)(1000)(10-6)/0.0 in thick.7875 + 0.18) -1 = 19. MRR = (2512 x 12)(0.25 = 2200/1.85 in 3/min.52389(108)}0.32 23.23 = (400/v) 4.545 min.4 mm/rev.4(10-3)v = 3926.003 in/rev.99 (202.75 in/min.29 C = 131.18 m/min Check: Tm = 3926. Solution: In this problem we want Tm = T. we have: 80(27.(d) Ceramic: n = 0.

0 = 2. Specify a non-steel roughing grade. 159 .389.18) 4. (d) ceramic. In the final pass.56) 1/.0 = 13004. (c) cemented carbide.0 = 55.375 min Tooling Applications 23.56 ft/min Check: Tm = 26.8561(1012) (v) -4. For each material that is not a good candidate. This is a grade with no TiC and high cobalt. Solution: In this problem we want Tm = T. (b) high speed steel.0 in. Specify a steel-cutting grade suitable for finishing.125 in. For each of the following tool materials. and (e) sintered polycrystalline diamond.56) 4.08229(108) v = {1.38 (476.0)/12(0.0125 in/rev.0 = 1. the starting diameter = 26. The cutting conditions will be: feed = 0. Determine the cutting speed which will make the tool life equal to the time required to complete the turning operation. Choose grade 1.389.38 (v) -1= 2. for tool life and ft/min for cutting speed. 23.25 in and the length = 48. This is a grade with TiC and low cobalt. These grades are listed below by chemical composition.25 and C = 1300. A slot or keyway has been milled along its entire length.56) -1= 55. and depth of cut = 0.389. Units for the Taylor equation are min.3478 = 19. Tm = πDL/12fv and T = (C/v) 1/n Tm = π(26.25 = (1300/476. explain your recommendation.18) 1/.0 Setting Tm = T: 26.15 The outside diameter of a roll for a steel rolling mill is to be turned.423 min 23. indicate whether or not it is a reasonable candidate to use in the operation: (a) plain carbon steel.389. Both of these times must be expressed in terms of cutting speed. A cemented carbide cutting tool is to be used and the parameters of the Taylor tool life equation for this setup are: n = 0. (b) Rough milling of aluminum.38 (v) -1 T = (1300/v) 1/.38/v = 26.08229(108)}1/3 = {1. give the reason why it is not. Choose grade 4.0 in and length = 32 in.8561(1012) (v) -4.17 A turning operation is performed on a steel shaft with diameter = 5. Grade 1 2 3 4 %WC 95 82 80 89 %Co 5 4 10 11 %TiC 0 14 10 0 Solution: (a) Finish turning of unhardened steel.0 v3.16 A certain machine shop uses a limited number of cemented carbide grades in its operations.23 = (400/202. The turning operation reduces the shaft diameter. (c) Finish turning of brass. Choose grade 2. Specify a non-steel finishing grade. Cast iron is included with the non-steel grades.3333 = 476.0(v) -4.25 = (1300/v) 4. (d) Machining cast iron. Specify grade 1 for finishing and grade 4 for roughing. This is a grade with no TiC and low cobalt. (a) Which grade should be used for finish turning of unhardened steel? (b) Which grade should be used for rough milling of aluminum? (c) Which grade should be used for finish turning of brass? (d) Which of the grades listed would be suitable for machining cast iron? For each case.375 min T = (1300/476. It is desirable to operate at a cutting speed so that the tool will not need to be changed during the cut.0125)v = 26.25)(48.08229(108)}0.T = (400/202. where Tm = machining time per piece and T = tool life.

(a) Plain carbon steel: not economical because of low cutting speeds. Increase = (47. With cutting fluid. (e) Sintered polycrystalline diamond: this is not suitable for cutting steel.20 A high speed steel 6.42. a cutting speed v = 90 m/min is used." What's the problem? What do you recommend to solve it? Solution: There are several problems here.444) 8. With cutting fluid: at v = 125 ft/min.21 = 121% 23. A cutting oil is applied by the operator by brushing the lubricant onto the drill point and flutes prior to each hole. resulting in friction heat. The Taylor tool life equation has parameters n = 0.120 and C = 130 (m/min) when the operation is conducted dry.12 = 130 T = (130/90) 1/. If it can be assumed that the effect of the cutting fluid is simply to increase the constant C by 25.12 = (1.5889) 8.3333 = 21.10 mm/rev.6% 23. Nevertheless.125 and C = 200 for dry cutting. "the chips are clogging in the flutes.19 A production turning operation on a steel workbar normally operates at a cutting speed of 125 ft/min using high speed steel tooling with no cutting fluid.8) 8 = 110.Solution: The slot will result in an interrupted cut.21.12 = (1.25 min = 156. The appropriate n and C values in the Taylor equation are given in Table 23. so toughness is important in the tool material.40 min.125 = (1.125 = (1.12 = 130(1 + 10%) = 130(1. he says.1) = 143 T = (143/90) 1/. It has been found that the use of a coolant type cutting fluid will allow an increase of 25 ft/min in the speed without any effect on tool life. Increase = (110. With coolant: 90(T)0. (c) Cemented carbide: this is a reasonable candidate.2 . The cutting conditions are: speed = 25 m/min. the 160 . Second. Dry: at v = 125 ft/min.3333 = 47. n = 0.42 = 1.95 min. and hole depth = 40 mm. When a coolant is used in the operation.42)/21.75:0.2. it is likely to fracture during interrupted cutting. First. C = 200 + 25 = 225.25 = 7:1. (b) HSS: this is a reasonable candidate. T = (200/125) 1/. which is greater than the 4:1 which is usually recommended. Solution: Dry: 90(T)0. (d) Ceramic: this is not a good candidate because of its low toughness. The foreman says that the "speed and feed are right out of the handbook" for this work material. it must be a steel cutting grade with high toughness (high cobalt content). what would be the increase in tool life if the original cutting speed of 125 ft/min were used in the operation? Solution: From Table 23. Determine the percent increase in tool life that results if the cutting speed is maintained at v = 90 m/min.6) 8 = 42.0 mm twist drill is being used in a production drilling operation on mild steel. As a consequence the chips produced in the hole are having difficulty exiting. and feed = 0. the value of C is increased by 10%.95) = 67. and the drill bit is failing prematurely due to overheating.2 in the text. the depth-to-diameter ratio is 1.2 min.42 min.40 . T = (225/125) 1/.18 In a turning operation using high speed steel tooling. thus causing overheating of the drill. Cutting Fluids 23. it has good toughness for the interrupted cut.

Finally. one with good lubricating qualities. A twist drill with a fluid hole could be used to more effectively deliver the cutting fluid to the drill point to help extract the chips. etc. it makes sense to try a coolant. The 7:1 depth-to-diameter ratio is a given.manual method of applying the cutting oil may not be particularly effective. Third. then drill some more. The twist drill might be operated in a peck-drilling mode to solve the chip clogging problem. Peck-drilling means drilling for a distance approximately equal to one drill diameter. as a substitute for the cutting oil. with overheating as a problem. then retract the drill. a requirement of the drilling operation. an emulsified oil might be tried in the operation. the cutting oil may not be removing heat from the operation effectively. Since overheating is a problem. and we assume it cannot be changed. 161 .

e.g.24 ECONOMIC AND PRODUCT DESIGN CONSIDERATIONS IN MACHINING Review Questions 24. and thermal diffusivity. (2) cost of time the tool is actually cutting the work.3 Name some of the important mechanical and physical properties that affect the machinability of a work material. The ideal surface roughness is determined by geometric parameters of the machining operation. 24. 24. whether turning or milling.5 What are the basic factors that affect surface finish in machining? Answer.2 What are the criteria by which machinability is commonly assessed in a production machining operation? Answer. and tool shape (nose radius in particular). (2) tool nose radius. These parameters are: (1) the type of machining operation. and (3) the cost of the time to change the tool. Answer. and (3) vibration and machine tool factors such as setup and workpart rigidity. 24. The machinability criteria include: (1) tool wear and tool life.9 The unit cost in a machining operation is the sum of four cost terms. and (4) in some cases the end cutting edge of the tool. 24. and (4) ease of chip disposal. What is the fourth term? 162 . Steps to reduce vibration in machining include: (1) increase stiffness or damping in the setup. strength.6 What are the parameters that have the greatest influence in determining the ideal surface roughness Ri ? Answer. (3) limiting cutting forces. or similar finishing processes must be included in the manufacturing sequence at higher cost. The first three terms are: (1) part load/unload cost. Answer. (3) surface finish.7 Name some of the steps that can be taken to reduce or eliminate vibrations in machining.4 Why do costs tend to increase when better surface finish is required on a machined part? Answer. The factors are: (1) type of tooling. and (4) surface roughness requirements. feed. 24. (2) forces and power. and backlash in the feed mechanism. (2) roughing or finishing operation. lapping. and (3) reducing forces in machining through changes in feed or depth and changes in cutter design. The factors that affect surface finish are: (1) geometric factors such as type of operation.8 What are the factors on which the selection of feed in a machining operation should be based? Answer.. Because additional operations such as grinding. (2) work material factors such as built-up edge effects.1 Define machinability. 24. The properties mentioned in the text include: hardness. Machinability can be defined as the relative ease with which a material can be machined using an appropriate cutting tool under appropriate cutting conditions. and tearing of the work surface when machining ductile materials. 24. which factors are affected by cutting speed. (2) operating at speeds away from the natural frequency of the machine tool system. 24. and (3) feed or chip load. Answer.

Answer. (d) surface roughness. (g) zero shear plane angle. which of the following materials has the highest machinability (one best answer)? (a) aluminum. (d) planing. (b) ease of chip disposal. Answer.1 Which of the following criteria are generally recognized to indicate good machinability (more than one)? (a) all of the following. whose rating = 1. (f) titanium alloys. Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 14 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct). (d) long tool life. The fourth term in the unit cost equation. (b) cutting temperature. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers. (a) 24. The fourth term is the cost of purchasing (and grinding. To attain a perfect score on the quiz. or (g) unhardened tool steel. (e) low cutting forces. cutting speed for minimum cost or cutting speed for maximum production rate? Why? Answer. (d).5 Which one of the following operations is generally capable of the closest tolerances (one best answer)? (a) broaching. Answer.6 When cutting a ductile work material.0? (a) easier to machine than the base or (b) more difficult to machine than the base. or (e) sawing. In general. tends to push the U-shaped function toward a lower value in the case of cutting speed for minimum cost. 24. Answer. or (f) tool wear. Answer. (a) 24. all correct answers must be given. (c) copper. Cutting speed for minimum cost. since each correct answer is worth 1 point. (e) 24. (e) tool life. or (e) turning.10 Which cutting speed is always lower for a given machining operation. (d) low carbon steel. Answer. (b) cast iron. (b) drilling.3 A machinability rating of greater than 1. (e) stainless steel. 24. (a) 24. (f) low value of Ra.4 163 . For each question. (c) horsepower consumed in the operation. (c) high value of Ra. (c) end milling. and (f) 24.7 Which one of the following operations is generally capable of the best surface finishes (lowest value of Ra) (one best answer)? (a) broaching. dealing with the actual cost of the cutting edge.2 Of the various methods for testing machinability. (b). which of the following seems to be the most important (one answer)? (a) cutting forces. which means high value of Ra or (b) improve surface finish. (b) drilling.Answer. and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point. an increase in cutting speed will generally have which effect on surface finish? (a) degrade surface finish. (e). if applicable) the tool. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point. which means lower value of Ra. (b) 24.0 indicates that the work material is which of the following relative to the defined base material. (d) planing. (c) end milling.

the parameter values were n = 0. the Taylor parameters were n = 0.5 m/min New material: v60 = 400/60.7% (b) (a) Base material: T150 = (450/150) 1/.84 = 184% 164 . For the new material.8 Which of the following time components in the average production machining cycle is affected by cutting speed (more than one)? (a) part loading and unloading time.8) 4. and (b) setup time for the machine tool.29 and C = 500. or (b) cutting speed for minimum cost.6/256.545 = 107. Units in both cases are: speed in m/min and tool life in min.21 = 169.704= 58. These results were obtained using cemented carbide tooling.2 (c) Different test conditions often result in different machinability results. (a) Compute a machinability rating for the new material using cutting speed for a 30 min tool life as the basis of comparison.29 = 152. (a) Problems Machinability 24. test data resulted in Taylor equation parameter values of n = 0. (c) What do the results of the two calculations show about the difficulties in machinability measurement? Solution: (a) Base material: v60 = 500/60. where speed is in m/min and tool life is min.27 and C = 450.6 m/min New material: v30 = 420/30.96 = 96% 24.27 = (3. (a) Compute a machinability rating for the new material. For the base material (B1112 steel).8 min MR = 107. (c) and (d) Which cutting speed is always lower for a given machining operation? (a) cutting speed for maximum production rate.9 24. These results were obtained using cemented carbide tooling.7/179. Answer.22 = (2.21 and C = 400.5 = 1.1 A machinability rating is to be determined for a new work material using the cutting speed for a 60 min tool life as the basis of comparison. test data resulted in a Taylor equation with parameters n = 0.10 A high tooling cost and/or tool change time will tend to have which of the following effects on vmax or vmin? (a) decrease or (b) increase. A machinability rating is to be determined for a new work material.5 = 1.24.3 m/min MR = 169.4 m/min New material: v10 = 400/10.29 = 256. (b) Suppose the machinability criterion were the cutting speed for a 10 min tool life rather than the present criterion.22 = 198.3/152. (b) 24.6 m/min MR = 246.11 = 111% (b) (a) Base material: v10 = 500/10.22 and C = 420.7 m/min MR = 198. Compute the machinability rating for this case.4 = 0.0) 3. (b) If the machinability criterion were tool life for a cutting speed of 150 m/min.27 = 179. For the new material.6 = 1.5 min New material: v10 = (420/150) 1/. Answer. For the base material (B1112).21 = 246.107 = 110. what is the machinability rating for the new material? Solution: (a) Base material: v30 = 450/30. (c) time the tool is engaged in cutting. Answer. and (d) tool change time.8/58.

The nose radius on the tool = 0.2 in Eq.50(144. if the tool life desired in operation is 30 min: (a) C1008 low carbon steel with 150 Brinell hardness.0 in Eq.015) 2/(32 x 3/64) = 0.6 A single-point HSS tool with a 3/64 in nose radius is used in a shaping operation on a ductile steel workpart. The feed and depth during these tests were: f = 0.6 µm. so Ra = 1.84(10-8) m2 f = (3. The part is made of a free-machining aluminum alloy.0 mm.1. = 150 µin. Compute an estimate of the surface roughness for this cut.2.2 ratio rai = 1.010) 2/(32 x 2/64) = 0.6 ft/min. From Fig.65.196(10-8) m2 165 . 24. From Fig.1. Recommended v30 = 1. Recommended v30 = 0.3 Tool life turning tests have been conducted on B1112 steel with high speed steel tooling.2. (c) From Table 24. (b) From Table 24. MR for B1113 = 1.00015 in.2 = 31. (24. Recommended v30 = 0.63 µ m. From Fig. from Figure 24.24.75)(10-3)/1.196 mm (here.1.35(144. Assume that the same feed and depth of cut are to be used.100 in.13 = 225/1. Solution: Ri = f2/32NR = (0.2 ratio rai = 1.20) 2/(32 x 1) = 0. and (c) B1113 steel with 170 Brinell hardness. Cutting speed = 100 ft/min. = 1. (24. MR for C1008 = 0.6(10-6)(32)(0.13 and C = 225.50. (b) 4130 alloy steel with 190 Brinell hardness.9 x 150 = 285 µ in.1.96(10-4) m = 0. Solution: Ri = f2/32NR = (0. so Ra = Ri Ra = Ri = f2/32NR Rearranging.6(10-6)(32)(0. MR for 4130 = 0.010 in/rev and a cutting speed = 300 ft/min. and speed = 2 m/s.65(144.4(10-9) = 3.6) = 94 ft/min. rai = 1. Solution: For cast iron at 150 m/min. Determine the surface roughness for this cut.4 In a turning operation on cast iron.3).96(10-9) = 3. 24. (a) From Table 24. feed = 0. 24.125 in. f2 = Ri(32NR)/1.0 mm. Surface Roughness 24.84(10-8) m2)0.2 mm/rev. Determine the surface roughness for this operation.02 Ra = 1.5 = 1.75)(10-3) = 38. extrapolating Figure 24.2 = 1. Solution: For free-machining aluminum at 150 m/min. Based on this information. the nose radius on the tool = 1.02 x 100 = 102 µ in.35.2 Ri = 1.3). Solution: Ri = f2/32NR = (0.5 A turning operation uses a 2/64 in nose radius cutting tool on a free machining steel with a feed rate = 0. f2 = Ri(32NR) = 1.25 µm.7 A part to be turned in an engine lathe must have a surface finish of 1. rai = 1. Solution: First determine v30 for the base material: v30 = 225/30.010 in/rev and d = 0. and depth of cut = 0.015 in/pass. mm is interpreted mm/rev) 24.9 Ra = 1.3 Ra = 1. 24. rai = 1.00125 mm.8 Solve previous Problem 24.2f 2/32NR Rearranging. 24.25 = 1. Cutting speed = 150 m/min.0001 in.6) = 195 ft/min. 24.556 = 144. and the resulting parameters of the Taylor equation are: n = 0. = 100 µin. and depth of cut = 4.6) = 72 ft/min.3 x 1.2. feed rate = 0. and machinability data given in Table 24.4 except that the part is made of cast iron instead of aluminum and the cutting speed is reduced to 100 m/min. determine the cutting speed you would recommend for the following work materials.75 mm. Determine the feed that will achieve the specified surface finish.

75 mm 24.35Ri = 1. The cutter is a four-tooth insert type face milling cutter. Increasing speed will increase MRR and reduce Ra.5 = 1.f = 3. Without knowing any more about the job. from Figure 24. Determine the minimum nose radius that will obtain the specified finish in this operation.2 mm.35(0. The cutting conditions have been selected as follows: v = 75 m/min. but this property tests well within the ductility range for the material specified by the designer.2 ratio rai = 1.144(10-8) m2 f = (6.0 mm. Solution: For cast iron at 400 ft/min.5 = 2. Changes in tooling: (1) increase nose radius NR.0 mm. (24.27. Therefore.3(4)(0. f2 = Ri(32NR) = 1. from Figure 24. what changes in cutting conditions and tooling would you suggest to improve the surface finish? Solution: Changes in cutting conditions: (1) decrease chip load f.10 The surface finish specification in a turning job is 0. Cutting conditions: v = 1. Ri = f2/32NR Rearranging.46 in/min.3). Determine the required feed rate (in/min) that will achieve the 32 µ-in finish. To obtain the best possible finish.4 x 10-6). Determine the speed and feed combination that meets these criteria.35f 2/(32Ra) NR = 1. (24.0 in. It has been decided that the speed should be in the range 200 ft/min to 400 ft/min.4 x 10-6 in2 f = (50. Solution: For cast iron at 75 m/min. f2 = 32(Ra)(NR) = 32(25.35f 2/32NR Rearranging. The tool nose radius = 3/64 in. NR = 1. Solution: For free-machining steel at 90 m/min.9 A part to be turned in an engine lathe must have a surface finish of 1. it stands to reason that we should operate at the highest possible v.0071) = 14.080 in. The part is made of a free-machining steel. a type of carbide insert with 4/64 in nose radius is to be used. 24. (2) increase cutting speed v.2 µin.3). f = 0.27 = 32/1. The machine shop foreman thinks the problem is that the work material is too ductile for the job.6 µm. and (3) increase relief angle.2 ratio rai = 1.11 A face milling operation is to be performed on a cast iron part at 400 ft/min to finish the surface to 32 µ-in.0071 in/rev.5 m/s and d = 3. 166 .13 A turning operation is to be performed on C1010 steel.5 = 7.6(10-6)(32)(1. The cutter uses four inserts and its diameter is 3. so Ra = Ri = f2/32NR Rearranging. which is a ductile grade.2 x 10-6)(4/64) = 50. and d = 4.48(10-4) m = 0. mm is interpreted mm/rev) 24. fr = Nntf = 509.27 = 25. 24. from Figure 24.248 mm (here.179 mm (here.12 A face milling operation is not yielding the required surface finish on the work.44(10-9) = 6. N = v/πD = (400 x 12)/3π = 509.8)(10-6) = 0.196(10-8) m2)0.0 in Eq. while at the same time maximizing the metal removal rate.1 x 10-3 = 0.2)(10-3) = 61. (2) increase rake angle. so Ra = 1.3 mm/rev.27 Ri Ri = Ra/1. and that the depth of cut will be 0. Solution: Increasing feed will increase both MRR and Ra. Determine the feed that will achieve the specified surface finish. The nose radius of the cutting tool must be selected.00475 m = 4. The nose radius on the tool = 1.2 ratio rai = 1. Items (2) and (3) will have a marginal effect.3 rev/min.144(10-8) m2)0.35 in Eq.79(10-4) m = 0.8 µm. mm is interpreted mm/rev) 24. so Ra = 1. The work material is cast iron. It is desired to achieve a surface finish of 64 µ-in (AA).3 x 10-3)2/(32)(0. (3) use cutting fluid.

5 = 0.518) = 0. rai = 1. rai = 1.8) 1/.45. 24.fnt/π) = 0.Try v = 400 ft/min. From Fig. and the tooling cost per cutting edge = $4. Assuming first that the teeth are equally spaced around the cutter.13 and C = 75 (m/min) for a feed of 0. Estimate the surface roughness for (a) up-milling.2 x 10-6 in2 f = (76. From Fig.35x4/π) = 0.15 = 55. (b) Down milling: Ri = 0.8 µ in. MRR = 2. From Fig.5D + fnt/π) = 0. Solution: (a) Up milling: Ri = 0.4 x 49.50 min to change tools.125(0.13 . From Fig.45. (b) Down milling: Ri = 0.43(0.0 m/s.51 in3/min.26 Ri Ri = Ra/1.125(0.015) 2/(1.5 = 0.00.15 Ri Ri = Ra/1.43 Ra = 1.8 µin.5D+fnt/π) = 0. Feed = 0. Solution: (a) Up milling: Ri = 0. (b) tool life in min of cutting.125(0. rai = 1.6 µin.503) = 0.8 m/min. Compare at v = 300 ft/min.0.15.787 min. Ra = 1. and that each tooth projects an equal distance from the axis of rotation. which maximizes MRR = 3. 25. rai = 1.35x4/π) = 0.43(0.518 µm.741 µ m.015) 2/(1. 25.25-0. The operator and machine tool rate = $30.45.50 in diameter. and (b) down-milling. 25. and (c) cycle time and cost per unit of product.4 x 10-6).692 x 3. Ra = 1. The milling cutter has four equally spaced teeth and the diameter = 60 mm. (c) Tm = πDL/fv = π(80)(300)/(.50/min vmax = 75/[(1/.51 in 3/min.5] .125f 2/(0.015 in/tooth.45.00/hr. Solution: (a) Co = $30/hr = $0. Ri = f2/32NR f2 = 32(Ra)(NR) = 32(55. The chip load f = 0.16 A HSS tool is used to turn a steel workpart that is 300 mm long and 80 mm in diameter.35) 2/(30 .43 Ra = 1.25+0.26 = 50. and (b) down-milling.719 µ m. 25.4 mm/rev. The parameters in the Taylor equation are: n = 0.14 Plain milling is performed to finish a cast iron workpart prior to plating.125f 2/(.4 x 10-6 in2 f = (83.51 in 3/min.26 = 64/1.0091 in/rev.2 µ in.27 = 49. Determine: (a) cutting speed for maximum production rate.2 x 10-6).1)(3.125f 2/(0.0087 in/rev.35 mm/tooth. MRR = 3.0 min to load and unload the workpart and 3. 167 . (b) Tmax = (75/49.15 A peripheral milling operation is performed using a slab milling cutter with four teeth and a 2. Optimum cutting conditions are: v = 400 ft/min and f = 0.8 x 10-6)(3/64) = 76.0091 in/rev.26. Machining Economics 24. and cutting speed v = 1.015x4/π) = 22.5)].125(0.5D . Ri = f2/32NR f2 = 32(Ra)(NR) = 32(50. 24.15 = 64/1.35) 2/(30 + 0. and cutting speed = 150 ft/min.13 = (1.125f 2/(.692 = 23.13 = 75/[6.015x4/π) = 22. determine the theoretical surface roughness for (a) up-milling.6 x 10-6)(3/64) = 83.5D .506) 7.8 x 103) = 3.42 min.503 µm. It takes 2.fnt/π) = 0.

27 = 590 ft/min.1)(1. The standard time to grind or regrind the cutting edge is 5. (c) Tm = πDL/fv = π(3)(18)/(.00/hr.013 x 590 x 12) = 1. Solution: (a) Co = $30/hr = $0.50/((1/.013 in/rev.692 = 76. (b) tool life in min of cutting.55/(2.13 = 42.4 x 42.0 min.823) + 2.13 .50 x 3.50(6. The workpart to be used in the 168 .5 + 2. determine cutting speed for minimum cost.034) 3.55(5.06 min. there are four cutting edges per insert.066 pc/tool Use np = 3 pc/tool life Tc = Th + Tm + Tt/np = 3.63 min/pc.25 and C = 300 (m/min) under the cutting conditions considered here. Co = $33/hr = $0. determine cutting speed for minimum cost.0 min (this is an average of the time to index the insert and the time to replace it when all edges have been used).27 = 1200/[2.843 = 7. Cc = 0.89 min.89/1.00.787 + 3.55/pc 24.843 min. (b) Tmin = (75/42.00))].843 + 1.5 + 4.16 except that in part (a).50(6.96/4. Determine: (a) cutting speed for maximum production rate.0 + 4.42/3.27 . price of each insert = $6.5] . the price of the tool = $30. The tool change time for the regrindable tooling = 3. and the grinder is paid at a rate = $20.13 = 75[.19 Solve previous Problem 24. Cc = 0.18 A cemented carbide tool is used to turn a part with length = 18.055/1. The parameters in the Taylor equation for this grade are: n = 0. and (c) cycle time and cost per unit of product. It takes 3.0 + 1.27 and C = 1200.50/(6.20 Compare disposable and regrindable tooling. For the brazed insert.323 min.96 min.5)].75)].85/pc 24.00/hr.0 + 3.0 in and diameter = 3. Solution: (a) Co = $33/hr = $0.18 except that in part (a).13 = (1.55 x 1. np = 4. and the tool change time = 1. (c) Tm = πDL/fv = π(80)(300)/(.1)(.5/17 = 6. Cc = 0.184 pc/tool life Use np = 6 pc/tool life Tc = Th + Tm + Tt/np = 2.37 min/pc.6) 1/.823 min/pc.50 min to change tools.00.42 + 3.1)(.0/7 = $3.0 min to load and unload the workpart and 1. The same grade of cemented carbide tooling is available in two forms for turning operations in a certain machine shop: disposable inserts and brazed inserts.013 x 822 x 12) = 1. and the tooling cost per cutting edge = $2.17 Solve previous Problem 24.55/min Cc = 0.704 = 4.42 min/pc.55(5.00 and it is estimated that it can be used a total of 15 times before it must be scrapped.55/min vmin = 1200[.323 + 1.06 min/pc.32/pc 24. (b) Tmin = (1200/590) 1/.27 = 1200[.704 x 2. (b) Tmax = (1200/822) 1/. The parameters in the Taylor equation are: n = 0.63) + 4.42 = 17. Machine time on the lathe costs $24.6 x 103) = 4.787 = 6.323 = 3.0 in.704 x 1.6 m/min.41 pc/tool life Use np = 17 pc/tool life Tc = Th + Tm + Tt/np = 2.07/pc 24. For the disposable inserts.0 + 1.00/6 = $3. The rate for the operator and machine tool = $33.0/3 = $3.460) 3.00/hr.50/min vmin = 75[.692 x 5.np = 23.27 = 822 ft/min.37) + 4. Solution: (a) vmax = 1200/[(1/.0 min.5/7 = 5. np = 76.00))].06) + 2.55/((1/.76) 7.5/6 = 6.27 = (1.27 = (2.5/3 = 4.54 pc/tool Use np = 7 pc/tool life Tc = Th + Tm + Tt/np = 3. np = 13. (c) Tm = πDL/fv = π(3)(18)/(.704 = 13.825)]. The feed = 0.27 .0/17 = $3.

42 + 3.0/18 = 4.1)(0. 24.0 m/min.01 min/pc np = 36.30)(10-3)(228) = 1.5 mm in diameter.25 .25 = 300[1.96 pc/tool life Use np = 8 pc/tool Tc = 2.67/6 = $2.01 = 18.40/((1/0.5)/0. (c) Tm = π(62.1)(0.5)(375)/(0. For the high speed steel tool.40/min.58 min/pc. For the two tooling cases. compare: (a) cutting speeds for minimum cost.5 min. (c) Tm = π(62.876/pc Disposable inserts are recommended. determine the cutting speeds for maximum production rate. (c) cycle time and cost per unit of production. and it takes 2.18 min/pc. The feed = 0.40/(3 x 1.67/edge vmax = 300[1. Ct = $6/4 = $1.0 m/min.0/(3 x 1. Ct = $6/4 = $1. Ct = $30/15 + 5($20/60) = $3.0))].4) = 1.0) = 9.01 + 3.1)(3) = 3(3.67/18 = $1.50/edge vmax = 300[1. 24. but that unit costs are less in the previous problem where the objective is minimum cost per piece.08 + 1.08 = 2.92 min/pc.5)(375)/(0.25 .34 pc/tool life Use np = 6 pc/tool Tc = 2.4 m/min.87)]. (b) Tmin = (1/0. Cycle time and cost per piece are less.40(3. (b) tool lives.25 = 154.40/min.25 = 300[0. Cc = 0.2) = 1.0) = 3(1. note that with the maximum production rate objective here.0)].0 + 1.0 min to load and unload the work.0/6 = 3.08 min/pc np = 3.5/2.1)(0. cycle times are less.0)]. Cycle time and cost per piece are less.25 .4 x 3 + 3.59 = 8.2 m/min.50/edge vmin = 300[0.18) + 3.40/min. (c) Tm = π(62.4 = 3(4.87/0.25 = 122.0/((1/0.0/2 = 3.25 = 300[1.92) + 3.40(4.40(3. Cc = 0.0) = 3.0 + 3.50))].67/edge vmin = 300[0. (b) Tmin = (1/0.58) + 1. Ct = $30/15 + 5($20/60) = $3.5)(375)/(0.182/pc Regrindable tooling: (a) Co = $24/hr = $0. (c) Tm = π(62.40/((1/0.comparison is 375 mm long and 62.25 min.30)(10-3)(173.180/pc Disposable inserts are recommended. the 169 .72) + 1.5)(375)/(0.50/2 = $2.42 = 6.4) = 14.0 min.0/8 = 3.0/((1/0.20 except that in part (a).4 = 3(1.1)(1.25 = 173.0 min.1)(0.0/1.30)(10-3)(154.0/1.25 .16 pc/tool life Use np = 18 pc/tool Tc = 2.21 Solve previous Problem 24. Cc = 0.4) = 36.59 min/pc np = 14.78 pc/tool life Use np = 2 pc/tool Tc = 2.1)(3. Which tool would you recommend? Solution: Disposable inserts: (a) Co = $24/hr = $0.25 . cemented carbide.40/(3 x 4.1)(1.0 + 1.42 min/pc np = 9. Cc = 0.25/1.25 .50/8 = $1.30)(10-3)(122) = 2.59 + 1.9)].4 + 1.40 x 3.25 = 300[0.25 = 228.674/pc Regrindable tooling: (a) Co = $24/hr = $0. (b) Tmax = (1/0.40 x 1.0 + 1.40(3. Comparing the results in this problem with those of the previous problem.25 .25 .22 Three tool materials are to be compared for the same finish turning operation on a batch of 100 steel parts: high speed steel.40/min.72 min/pc.0)]. and ceramic.30 mm/rev. Solution: Disposable inserts: (a) Co = $24/hr = $0.67)/0.0/(3 x 3.9/0. (b) Tmax = (1/0.67))].0 + 1.0 + 2.

4 m/min.0/12 = 2. (c) cycle time.1)(.81)/828 = 0. vmin = 3. Co = $30/hr = $0.0 hr. Time to change parts = 2.706 = 12.000.33)/.50. (b) Tmin = (1/.0 + 1.1)(.581 = 58. (c) Tm = π(56)(290(10-6))/(0.25 pc/hr.116 + 1.79) = 399 min = 6.50 x 1.81 + 3.00.1)(0.50/(.65 hr. vmin = 500[.50 x 3.706 + 1.50)/. (e) total time to complete the batch and production rate.706min/pc np = 9/0.0(60) + 100(7. (f) Proportion of time spent cutting = 100(4. and depth = 3.16) + 1.50(2.1)(0.6 = 1756 m/min. For the three tooling cases.6 .25 = 289 m/min. (d) Cc = 0.33/edge. (b) Tmin = (1/0.125 = 42.50 = 7(4. (d) Cc = 0. Setup time for the batch is 2.0 mm and length = 290 mm.48/pc (e) Time to complete batch = 2.50/min.50) = 2.44 min.177 = 17.08 min/pc.6 pc/tool life Use np = 11 pc/tool life Tc = 2.15/pc 170 . The part dimensions are: diameter = 56.6 = 3. (c) Tm = π(56)(290(10-6))/(0.50 = 3(1.50/(3 x 1.8 hr = 7.783 hr = 14.25(10-3)42.0/21 = 2.79 min/pc.50/min.000[.50 = $2.81 = 11. Production rate Rp = 100 pc/6.0 mm. Feed = 0.25 and C = 500. (f) Proportion of time spent cutting = 100(0.0/.50/((1/.50) = 9 min.00))]. (f) What is the proportion of time spent actually cutting metal for each tooling? Solution: HSS tooling: (a) Ct = $15/15 + 1.33))].125 .00 and for the ceramic = $8.50/.79) + 1.125 = 70[0.116 min/pc np = 2.50/((1/.125 and C = 70.25(10-3)1756) = 0. The cost of machine time = $30/hr. The cost per insert for the carbide = $6.50/(7 x 4. Number of cutting edges per insert in both cases = 6.25 mm/rev.0)]. (d) cost per production unit.50)]. (c) Tm = π(56)(290(10-6))/(0.0/11 = 7. (b) Tmin = (1/.0 + 1.116 = 21 pc/tool life Tc = 2.706)/399 = 0.6 .77/pc (e) Time to complete batch = 2. Production rate Rp = 100 pc/13.83/.83)]. Co = $30/hr = $0.667(1.6 and C = 3.0 + 0.0 + 4.16 min/pc.1% Cemented carbide tooling: (a) Ct = $6/6 = $1.25 = 500[. compare: (a) cutting speeds for minimum cost.81min/pc np = 56/4.25 .44/0. The price of the HSS tool is $15.50 x 1 + 1.0(60) + 100(2.0 + 0. Co = $30/hr = $0.74 pc/hr.50(2.00 and it is estimated that it can be ground and reground 15 times at a cost of $1.50/((1/. Tool change time = 1.667 x 1.0 min for both tools.50/min.50))].0)/.125 . vmin = 70[0.50 x 3 + 2.25(10-3)289) = 0.50 = 0.50 x 1 + 1. (b) tool lives.08) + 2.0 + 2.50) = 56 min.Taylor equation parameters are: n = 0.50/11 = $3.0 min.7% Ceramic tooling: (a) Ct = $8/6 = $1.000[.50(7.8 hr. The Taylor equation parameters for the cemented carbide are: n = 0.1)(0.08) = 828 min = 13.50 x 1.7 pc/tool life Use np = 12 pc/tool life Tc = 2. Both carbide and ceramic tools are in insert form and can be held in the same mechanical toolholder.4) = 4.00/12 = $1.33/21 = $1.50/edge.1)(. and for the ceramic: n = 0. Tool change time = 3 min.00/edge.25 . (d) Cc = 0.

32 pc/hr.5% Comment: One might conclude that such a low proportion of time spent cutting would argue against the use of the calculated cutting speed for ceramic tooling.57 hr.50(7.50/min. Co = $30/hr = $0. Production rate Rp = 100 pc/6.74) = 394 min = 6.67 hr = 7.25 = 4. (c) Tm = (c) Tm = π(56)(290(10-6))/(0.57/pc (e) Time to complete batch = 2.1)(3.22 except that in parts (a) and (b).0 + 0. Solution: HSS tooling: (a) Ct = $15/15 + 1. However. (f) Proportion of time spent cutting = 100(0.537 + 1.0) = 3(1. batch time. The very small cutting time Tm and resulting low proportion of time spent cutting for ceramic tooling focuses attention on the nonproductive work elements in the batch time. 24.667(1) = .16) = 336 min = 5. Co = $30/hr = $0.25(10-3)380) = 0.00/edge. (c) Tm = π(56)(290(10-6))/(0. specifically. and production rate compared to HSS tooling and even carbide tooling.25 = 380 m/min. Co = $30/hr = $0.6% Ceramic tooling: (a) Ct = $8/6 = $1.667 x 1. (f) Proportion of time spent cutting = 100(4.6 .537)/394 = 0.25)/820 = 0.1)(3) = 7(3) = 21 min.0)].0(60) + 100(2.1)(1.0)].9 pc/tool life Use np = 4 pc/tool life Tc = 2.667/0.25(10-3)3825) = 0.57 hr = 15. determine the cutting speeds and tool lives for maximum production rate. Production rate Rp = 100 pc/5.00/5 = $1.14 min/pc.0)]. vmax = 3.125 = 48 m/min.6 .50/edge.053 min/pc np = 0.0)]. (c) Tm = π(56)(290(10-6))/(0.86 pc/hr. Production rate Rp = 100 pc/13.1)(1.25 = 500/[(3 x 1.60 hr.8% Cemented carbide tooling: (a) Ct = $6/6 = $1.25 .6 = 3. (b) Tmax = (1/0.25min/pc np = 21/4. (b) Tmax = (1/0.0(60) + 100(2.23 Solve previous Problem 24.000/[.0/4 = 7.74) + 1.50/4 = $4.667 min.00) = 820 min = 13. note that ceramic tooling provides a significant advantage in terms of unit cost.50(2.00) + 2.035 = 3.23 pc/hr.0] . 171 .13/pc (e) Time to complete batch = 2.74 min/pc.00 min/pc.50 = $2.50/min.6 hr = 17. (b) Tmax = (1/0.116)/336 = 0.518 = 51.053 + 1.125 .25 + 3.053 = 12 pc/tool life Tc = 2.537 = 5.25(10-3)484) = 4.0(60) + 100(7.50/min.0 + 4.33/edge.6 = 3825 m/min. (d) Cc = 0. vmax = 500/[(1/.136 = 13.1)(1) = 0.000/[(1/.0 + 0.0 min. (f) Proportion of time spent cutting = 100(0.537 min/pc np = 3/0.0/12 = 2.125 = 70/[7 x 3)].(e) Time to complete batch = 2.0) = 3. (d) Cc = 0. vmax = 70/[(1/. setup time and workpart handling time.125 . and puts pressure on management to seek ways to reduce these nonproductive elements.0/5 = 2.25 .1)(1.6 pc/tool life Use np = 5 pc/tool life Tc = 2.67 hr.

The diameter = 28. and depth = 0. batch time.NC lathe turns first pass (time depends on cutting speed). Is that possible? Assume that feed must remain unchanged in order to achieve the required surface finish.2 = 15 pc/tool life Tc = 12 + 34.007 in/rev and the depth of cut for each pass = 0.125 in.73 = 29. However.015) = 13.0(60) + 100(2.NC lathe positions tool for first pass (0. (b) the average time required to complete one production cycle.348(3.0) = 3. starts cycle (1.053)/334 = 0.96 pc/hr. The very small cutting time Tm and resulting low proportion of time spent cutting for ceramic tooling focuses attention on the nonproductive work elements in the batch time.100 in. The parameters of the Taylor equation for the cutting tool in the operation are: n = 0.2 + 3/15 = 46.1)(3.0 in.015) = 34. Rc = 60/46.00/hr.Operator loads part into machine. The cost of the operator and machine = $39/hr and the tool cost = $2.00 min). Tm = π(28)(14)/(500 x 12 x 0.4 = 1.NC lathe turns second pass (time depends on cutting speed).0) = 10. and the cost of machine time on this boring mill = $42. The starting diameter of the work is 3.0 min. Tm = π(28)(14)/(200 x 12 x 0.Operator unloads part and places in tote pan (1.23 = 540 min.00 in and its length = 10 in.00 min). Rc = 60/29.57 hr = 17. and tooling cost = $3. specifically.4 min). Management has decreed that the production rate must be increased by 25%. Determine: (a) the cutting speed for minimum cost per piece. 4 .57 hr. 5 .23 . and puts pressure on management to seek ways to reduce these nonproductive elements. feed = 0.6% Comment: One might conclude that such a low proportion of time spent cutting would argue against the use of the calculated cutting speed for ceramic tooling.1)(3.2 min/pc np = 540/34.25 A NC lathe cuts two passes across a cylindrical workpiece under automatic cycle.01 pc/hr This is a 56% increase in production rate relative to the 200 ft/min cutting speed.7 = 0. the cutting tool must be periodically changed.26 and C = 900 (ft/min).23 = 500 ft/min.8 min.23 and C = 850 (ft/min). and 6 .0 in and the length of the bore = 14.4 min. 24.73 pc/tool life Tc = 12 + 13.50 per cutting edge.23 .00 min. Tmax = (1/.0 min.0)]. The work cycle consists of the following steps (with element times given in parentheses where applicable): 1 .7 min/pc np = 10/13. 24. The operator loads and unloads the machine. The applicable Taylor tool life equation has parameters: n = 0.016 = 1.14) = 334 min = 5.0 min. The feed rate = 0.23 = 850/[(3.33/12 = $1.00/cutting edge. What is the current production rate and the maximum possible production rate for this job? Solution: At the current operating speed v = 200 ft/min: T = (850/200) 1/. setup time and workpart handling time. Tool change time = 3. The time required to load and unload the parts = 12.(d) Cc = 0. This tool change time takes 1.7 + 3/.348 x 3.50(2.293 pc/hr Find vmax to compare with current operating speed.10 min).0)]. Current cutting conditions are: speed = 200 ft/min. Production rate Rp = 100 pc/5.24 A vertical boring mill is used to bore the inside diameter of a large batch of tube-shaped parts. In addition.015 in/rev.NC lathe repositions tool for second pass (0. (f) Proportion of time spent cutting = 100(0. note that ceramic tooling provides a significant advantage in terms of unit cost.14) + 1. 3 .18/pc (e) Time to complete batch = 2. vmax = 850/[(1/. 2 .8 = 2. (c) cost of the production 172 . and production rate compared to HSS tooling and even carbide tooling.

(b) Tmin = (1/.0/2.6 ft/min to give a 43 min tool life.27 In a turning operation on ductile steel. Ignoring work handling time.9 = $0. Ignore effects of workpart handling time. with cost and time parameters as follows: Ct = $2.0 = 110 min (c) Which is better. the C value is increased from C = 200 to C = 225 due to the use of the cutting fluid.100) = 0.6/2.75 per cutting edge (each insert costs $7.65)]. taking into account the material and cutting speed.007) = 2. np = 11. In a certain machining situation using HSS tooling.26 . Use 1.846(2. Justify you answer with calculations.00 per cutting edge.846 x 2.36 min/pc.125 = 140. np = 2.4.6 ft/min (b) Cutting at v = 125 ft/min with a cutting fluid gives a tool life T = (225/125) 8.010 in/rev and depth = 0.00))].2 to convert the 63 µ-in actual roughness to an ideal roughness.50 x 2. vmin = 900[.5 + 2. At v = 125 ft/min. volume cut per tool life = 110/0.50 x 2. With a cutting fluid. tool life T = (200/125) 1/.36 + 1.50(.15 hr. The corresponding cutting speed for a 43 min tool life v = 225/430. 24.50/min.65/min. (c) Cc = .0 + 2.0/(125 x 12 x 0.5 in 3 between tool changes. For T = 110 min.353/in3.5927 = 72.45 = $5.65 x 1 + 2.65 = 2.125.6 x 12 x 0. (1) At 140. Ignoring work handling time. cost/in 3 = 0.1)(.5927) + (0.5 = $0.26 = 900[. tool change time = 2.65 x 1.26 .65/(2.36) + (0. the Taylor tool life equation parameters are n = 0.5927 min.1) and an adjustment will have to be made using Figure 24. which effect is better. (d) If the setup time for this job is 3.36 = 4. volume cut per tool life = 43/0. Tm = 1. Assume both passes have equal Tm. using cost per cubic in of metal machined as the criterion of comparison.50(. For T = 43 min.65/.125 and C = 225.6 ft/min. Solution: Cutting dry. The ideal roughness is given by Eq.0 in3/MRR = 1. (a) What is the cutting speed that would result from using the cutting fluid if tool life remains the same as with no fluid? (b) What is the tool life that would result if the cutting speed remained at 125 ft/min. and operator and machine rate = $30/hr.6 min.010 x 0.9 passes/tool life Since there are two passes/workpiece.0 hours and the batch size = 300 parts.0)/. Feed = 0.. 24.65/((1/.00)/2.010 x 0.0 in3/MRR = 1.00 and there are four edges per insert). Tm = π(3)(10)/(476 x 12 x 0. or (2) cutting at 125 ft/min to give a 110 min tool life.cycle.26 = 476 ft/min. (24. how long will it take to complete the batch? Solution: (a) Co = $39/hr = $0.0(60) + 300(7.341/in3. Disposable inserts are used at a cost of $1.1)(.100) = 0.5 + 2. the Taylor tool life equation parameters are n = 0. (2) At 125 ft/min.65(2.0/(140.45 pc/tool life Tc = 2.5 min.125 and C = 200.00)/72. Tm = 1.5 + 2 x 2. (c) Economically. given that tooling cost = $2. Time to index each 173 .100 in. and Co = $30/hr = $0.63 min/pc.65 x 1 + 2. the effect of a cutting fluid is to increase the value of C in the Taylor tool life equation. Cutting speed used in the operation is v = 125 ft/min.6) 8 = 43 min.6667 min.65) = 11.6667 = 164. The effect of the cutting fluid can be to either increase cutting speed (at the same tool life) or increase tool life (at the same cutting speed).5 min. it is desired to obtain an actual surface roughness of 63 µ-in with a 2/64 in nose radius tool.9 in 3 between tool changes.5 + 2 x 2.26 As indicated in Section 24.63) = 2469 min = 41.00)/164. The n value is the same with or without fluid at n = 0.45 = 7.0 in 3 of metal cut as the basis of comparison.125 = (1.77/pc (d) Time to complete batch = 3.6667) + (0. cost/in 3 = 0. Conclusion: it is better to take the benefit of a cutting fluid in the form of increased cutting speed. (1) cutting at a speed of 140.00/cutting edge. Tt = 2.

= 53. Rearranging Eq. C = vT0.09357}0.65/(0. Thus. The workpiece length = 30.4(10-6) in.09357}0. (24.75/0.55 = 40.14) results in Eq.65/(0.2 = 52.23 = 355.5(10-6) in.18 = 53.23 = 353.75/f0.5 x 10-6)0.2 = 63/1. f2 = 32NR(Ri) = 32(2/64)(63 x 10-6) in.5 = 0.1).6 vmin = 609.23 f 0.2 f = (52.23/(1-0.75. = 63 x 10-6 in.5(10-6) in.75/f0. 24.65/(0.5{(0.5{0. Solve for (a) the feed in in/rev that will achieve the desired actual finish.E. (24.65 x 0.2 f = (53. C = vT0. (24. (b) cutting speed for minimum cost per piece at the feed determined in (a).14): Tc = Th + πDL/fv + (CoTt + Ct)(πDLv1/n-1)/fC1/n Tc = Th + (πDL/f)v-1 + (CoTt + Ct)(πDL/fC1/n)v1/n-1 dTc/dv = 0 .23 = 582.2 ft/min Iteration 3: At v = 355. = 52.00731 in.15).23 = 609.4 µ-in. The machine and operator’s rate = $39.2 = 52.23))(0.2 rai = 1.2 = 63/1.23 = 40. Iteration 1: assume Ri = Ra = 63 µ-in.09357}0. f2 = 32NR(Ri) = 32(2/64)(53. Ri = Ra/1.8 ft/min.28 Verify that the derivative of Eq.8 ft/min Iteration 2: At v = 337.55 = 40.23))(0. where T = tool life.29 Q.00794 = 582. (interpreted as in.23 = 337. (24.8) results in Eq.23 = 40. and f = feed.00725 in.4 x 10-6)0. Solution: Starting with Eq.00731 = 609.5 vmin = 612.5 x 10-6) in. (24. Tt = (3(25)+45)/4 = 30 sec = 0.5 + 1. Solution: Cost and time parameters: Co = $39/hr = $0. Thus. Hint: to solve (a) and (b) requires and iterative computational procedure. (24.(πDL/f)v-2 + (1/n – 1)(CoTt + Ct)(πDL/fC1/n)v1/n-2 = 0 (πDL/f)v-2 = (1/n – 1)(CoTt + Ct)(πDL/fC1/n)v1/n-2 = 0 (πDL/f) = (1/n – 1)(CoTt + Ct)πDL/fC1/n)v1/n 1 = (1/n – 1)((CoTt + Ct)/C1/n)v1/n v1/n = C1/n/[(1/n-1)(CoTt + Ct)] 174 .18.75)}0. (24.23 = 40.6{(0.2 f = (63 x 10-6)0.00725 = 612.2 = 53.75/f0.2 rai = 1.0073 in/rev.8): Tc = Th + πDL/fv + Tt(πDLv1/n-1)/fC1/n Tc = Th + (πDL/f)v-1 + (TtπDL/fC1/n)v1/n-1 dTc/dv = 0 . in/rev. The Taylor tool life equation for this tool and work combination is given by: vT0.2. min.5 + 1. the ratio from Figure 24.5 = 0.5 + 1.5 min.65 x 0. f2 = 32NR(Ri) = 32(2/64)(52.5 µ-in.4(10-6) in. Ct = $1.insert = 25 sec and to replace an insert every fourth index takes 45 sec.75)}0.75/0. v = cutting speed.5{0.75/0.55 = 40.0 in and its diameter = 3.2 = 63(10-6) in.4 x 10-6) in.55 = 40.23/(1-0.23))(0.23 = 612.5 ft/min Select v = 353.00 per hour including applicable overheads.65 x 0.2 ft/min.5{(0.5 ft/min and f = 0. the ratio from Figure 24.5 vmin = 582.75/cutting edge.6{0.9).65/min.75)}0.5 in. Solution: Starting with Eq.5 = 0.(πDL/f)v-2 + (1/n – 1)(TtπDL/fC1/n)v1/n-2 = 0 (πDL/f)v-2 = (1/n – 1)(TtπDL/fC1/n)v1/n-2 = 0 (πDL/f) = (1/n – 1)(Tt πDL/fC1/n)v1/n 1 = (1/n – 1)(Tt /C1/n)v1/n v1/n = C1/n/[(1/n-1)Tt] vmax = C/[(1/n-1)Tt]n 24. Ri = Ra/1.00794 in.D Verify that the derivative of Eq.23/(1-0. ft/min./rev for turning) C = vT0.

E.vmax = C/[(1/n-1)(CoTt + Ct)]n Q.D 175 .

Reasons for higher specific energy in grinding: (1) size effect .5 What is wheel structure? Answer. 25.1 25. (2) very fine finishes. (3) cubic boron nitride. and (5) wheel grade. (4) wheel structure. (5) shellac. High temperatures in grinding create surface burns and cracks. (2) attritious wear. Wheel grade refers to the wheel's ability to retain abrasive grains during cutting. (3) bonding material. What are the five principal parameters of a grinding wheel? Answer. and (3) not all of the grains in the wheel surface are engaged in cutting. How is temperature harmful in grinding? Answer. and (3) close tolerances. in which the grains are pulled out of the bonding material. The parameters are: (1) abrasive material. (2) extremely negative rake angles on the abrasive particles in a grinding wheel. 25. 25. (4) resinoid. and (4) diamond. (2) silicon carbide.9 What are the three mechanisms of grinding wheel wear? Answer. which refers to the bond strength of the wheel in retaining abrasive grains. It indicates the bond strength of the bonding material used to shape the wheel. (2) silicate. and (6) metallic. High temperatures can also soften the surfaces of workparts that have been heat treated to obtain high hardness.6 What is wheel grade? Answer. The mechanisms are: (1) grain fracture. in which a portion of the grain breaks off during cutting.4 Name some of the principal bonding materials used in grinding wheels. 25. (2) grit size.3 What are some of the principal abrasive materials used in grinding wheels? Answer.2 GRINDING AND OTHER ABRASIVE PROCESSES Why are abrasive processes technologically and commercially important? Answer. Answer. Review Questions 25. A soft grade indicates that the grains are released easily from the bonding material. The principal abrasive grit materials include: (1) aluminum oxide.25 25. The bonding materials in grinding wheels are: (1) vitrified bond .clay and ceramics. and a dense structure indicates that the grains are close together. and (3) bond fracture. 25. some are plowing or deforming while others are simply rubbing and creating friction. 176 . in which the grains become dull during cutting. 25.smaller chip size means higher specific energy.7 Why are specific energy values so much higher in grinding than in traditional metal cutting processes? Answer. Important reasons include: (1) applications on all types of materials. An open structure is one in which the grains are far apart.8 Grinding creates high temperatures. which refers to the relative spacing of grains. Wheel structure indicates the relative spacing of the abrasive grains in the wheel. (3) rubber. A hard wheel is one which retains the abrasive grains.

25. High finish abrasive processes include: honing.17 Name some of the abrasive operations available to achieve very good surface finishes. Functions of a grinding fluid are: (1) reduce friction. In creep feed grinding.14 What is centerless grinding? Answer. since each correct answer is worth 1 point.16 How does abrasive belt grinding differ from a conventional surface grinding operation? Answer.11 What is truing. abrasive belt grinding uses abrasive particles bonded to a flexible cloth belt loop which is moved through a pulley system to obtain the speed motion. (c) shaping.2 Of the following abrasive materials. buffing. and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point. Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 17 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct). rods) are fed between two rotating wheels: (1) a high speed grinding wheel and (2) a low speed regulating wheel which is tilted at a slight angle to control the feed-through rate. or (c) silicon carbide. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point. (b) 25. Dressing is a procedure applied to worn grinding wheels to break off dull grits and expose fresh grits. (3) wash away chips. Answer. and polishing. (2) remove heat.g. lapping. Choose a diamond wheel.13 What abrasive material would one select for grinding a cemented carbide cutting tool? Answer. (b) milling. or (d) turning. It uses a diamond-pointed tool fed slowly and precisely across the wheel while it rotates. It uses a rotating disk or abrasive stick held against the wheel while it rotates.12 25. 25. For each question.and the feed rates are lower by the same proportion. but it also restores the ideal cylindrical shape to the wheel. 177 . To attain a perfect score on the quiz. Centerless grinding is a grinding operation in which cylindrical workparts (e. 25. (b) cubic boron nitride. the depth of cut is very high . Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers. and (4) reduce workpiece temperature. Answer. in reference to grinding wheels? Answer.15 How does creep feed grinding differ from conventional grinding? Answer. 25. and to remove chips of work material that have become clogged in the wheel. 25. What are the functions of a grinding fluid? Answer.25. Truing is similar to dressing. 25..1 Which of the following conventional machining processes is closest to grinding (one answer)? (a) drilling.several thousand times higher than conventional grinding . Parts are pressed against the belt to accomplish grinding. in reference to grinding wheels? Answer. which has the highest hardness? (a) aluminum oxide. superfinishing.10 What is dressing. all correct answers must be given. 25. Instead of a grinding wheel.

Answer. (b) 25.3 Smaller grain size in a grinding wheel tends to do which one of the following? (a) improve surface finish, (b) have no effect on surface finish, or (c) degrade surface finish. Answer. (a) 25.4 Which of the following would tend to give higher material removal rates? (a) larger grain size, or (b) smaller grain size. Answer. (a) 25.5 Which of the following will improve surface finish in grinding (more than one)? (a) higher wheel speed, (b) larger infeed, (c) lower wheel speed, (d) lower work speed. Answer. (a) and (d). 25.6 Which of the following abrasive materials is most appropriate for grinding steel and cast iron (one best answer)? (a) aluminum oxide, (b) cubic boron nitride, (c) diamond, or (d) silicon carbide. Answer. (a) 25.7 Which of the following abrasive materials is most appropriate for grinding hardened tool steel (one best answer)? (a) aluminum oxide, (b) cubic boron nitride, (c) diamond, or (d) silicon carbide. Answer. (b) 25.8 Which of the following abrasive materials is most appropriate for grinding nonferrous metals (one best answer)? (a) aluminum oxide, (b) cubic boron nitride, (c) diamond, or (d) silicon carbide. Answer. (d) 25.9 Which of the following will help to reduce the incidence of heat damage to the work surface in grinding (more than one)? (a) frequent dressing or truing of the wheel, (b) higher infeeds, (c) higher work speeds, or (d) lower wheel speeds. Answer. (a), (c), and (d). 25.10 Which of the following abrasive processes achieves the best surface finish (one best answer)? (a) centerless grinding, (b) honing, (c) lapping, or (d) superfinishing. Answer. (d) 25.11 Which of the following abrasive processes could be used to finish a hole or internal bore (more than one)? (a) centerless grinding, (b) honing, (c) cylindrical grinding, (d) lapping, or (e) superfinishing. Answer. (a), (b), and (c). 25.12 The term deep grinding refers to which of the following (one best answer)? (a) alternative name for any creep feed grinding operation, (b) external cylindrical creep feed grinding, (c) grinding operation performed at the bottom of a hole, (d) surface grinding which uses a large crossfeed, or (e) surface grinding which uses a large infeed. Answer. (b)

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Problems

25.1 In a surface grinding operation the wheel diameter = 150 mm and the infeed = 0.07 mm. The wheel speed = 1450 m/min, work speed = 0.25 m/s, and the cross-feed = 5 mm. The number of active grits per area of wheel surface C = 0.75 grits/mm2. Determine: (a) average length per chip, (b) metal removal rate, and (c) number of chips formed per unit time for the portion of the operation when the wheel is engaged in the work. Solution: (a) lc = (150 x 0.07) 0.5 = 3.24 mm (b) MRR = vwwd = (0.25 m/s)(103 mm/m)(5.0 mm)(0.07 mm) = 87.5 mm3/s = 5250 mm3/min (c) nc = vwC = (1450 m/min)( 103 mm/m)(5.0 mm)(0.75 grits/mm2) = 5,437,500 chips/min. 25.2 The following conditions and settings are used in a certain surface grinding operation: wheel diameter = 6.0 in, infeed = 0.003 in, wheel speed = 4750 ft/min, work speed = 50 ft/min, and cross-feed = 0.20 in. The number of active grits per square inch of wheel surface C = 500. Determine: (a) the average length per chip, (b) the metal removal rate, and (c) the number of chips formed per unit time for the portion of the operation when the wheel is engaged in the work. Solution: (a) lc = (Dd) 0.5 = (6.0 x 0.003) 0.5 = (0.018) 0.5 = 0.1342 in. (b) MRR = vwwd = (50 x 12)(0.20)(0.003) = 0.36 in3/min. (c) nc = vwC = (4750 x 12)(0.2)(500) = 5,700,000 chips/min. 25.3 An internal cylindrical grinding operation is used to finish an internal bore from an initial diameter of 250.00 mm to a final diameter of 252.5 mm. The bore is 125 mm long. A grinding wheel with an initial diameter of 150.00 mm and a width of 20.00 mm is used. After the operation, the diameter of the grinding wheel has been reduced to 149.75 mm. Determine the grinding ratio in this operation. Solution: GR = (volume of work material removed)/(volume of wheel removed) Volume of work material removed = (π/4)(125)(252.52 – 250.02) = 123,332 mm2 Volume of wheel removed = (π/4)(20)(1502 – 149.752) = 1177 mm2 GR = 123,332/1177 = 104.8 25.4 In a surface grinding operation performed on hardened plain carbon steel, the grinding wheel has a diameter = 200 mm and width = 25 mm. The wheel rotates at 2400 rev/min, with a depth of cut (infeed) = 0.05 mm/pass and a cross-feed = 3.50 mm. The reciprocating speed of the work is 6 m/min, and the operation is performed dry. Determine: (a) the length of contact between the wheel and the work, (b) the volume rate of metal removed. (c) If C = 0.64 active grits/mm2, estimate the number of chips formed per unit time. (d) What is the average volume per chip? (e) If the tangential cutting force on the work = 30 N, compute the specific energy in this operation? Solution: (a) lc = (200 x 0.05) 0.5 = 3.16 mm (b) MRR = vwwd = (6 m/min)(103 mm/m)(3.5 mm)(0.05 mm) = 1050 mm3/min (c) nc = vwC v = NπD = (2400 rev/min)(200π mm/rev) = 1,507,964 mm/min nc = (1,507,964 mm/min)(3.5 mm)(0.64 grits/mm2) = 3,377,840 grits/min (= chips/min). (d) 3,377,840 grits/min. = 3,377,840 chips/min. Average volume per chip = (1050 mm3/min)/( 3,377,840 chips/min) = 0.00031 mm3/chip (e) U = Fcv/MRR

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v = 1,507,964 mm/min = 1,508 m/min U = 30(1508)/1050 = 43.1 N-m/mm3 25.5 An 8-in diameter grinding wheel, 1.0 in wide, is used in a certain surface grinding job performed on a flat piece of heat-treated 4340 steel. The wheel is rotating to achieve a surface speed of 5000 ft/min, with a depth of cut (infeed) = 0.002 in per pass and a cross-feed = 0.15 in. The reciprocating speed of the work is 20 ft/min, and the operation is performed dry. (a) What is the length of contact between the wheel and the work? (b) What is the volume rate of metal removed? (c) If C = 300 active grits/in 2, estimate the number of chips formed per unit time. (d) What is the average volume per chip? (e) If the tangential cutting force on the workpiece = 10 lbs, what is the specific energy calculated for this job? Solution: (a) lc = (Dd) 0.5 = (8 x 0.002) 0.5 = (0.016) 0.5 = 0.1265 in. (b) MRR = vwwd = (20 x 12)(0.15)(0.002) = 0.072 in3/min (c) nc = vwC = (5000 x 12)(0.15)(300) = 2,700,000 chips/min. (d) Avg volume/chip = (0.072 in 3/min)/(2,700,000 chips/min) = 0.000000026 in 3 = 26 x 10 -9 in3. (e) U = Fcv/MRR = 10(5000 x 12)/0.072 = 8,333,333 in-lb/in3 = 21 hp/(in3/min). 25.6 A surface grinding operation is being performed on a 6150 steel workpart (annealed, approximately 200 BHN). The designation on the grinding wheel is 51-C-24-D-5-V-23. The wheel diameter = 7.0 in and its width = 1.00 in. Rotational speed = 3000 rev/min. The depth (infeed) = 0.002 in per pass, and the cross-feed = 0.5 in. Workpiece speed = 20 ft/min. This operation has been a source of trouble right from the beginning. The surface finish is not as good as the 16 µ-in specified on the part print, and there are signs of metallurgical damage on the surface. In addition, the wheel seems to become clogged almost as soon as the operation begins. In short, nearly everything that can go wrong with the job has gone wrong. (a) Determine the rate of metal removal when the wheel is engaged in the work. (b) If the number of active grits per square inch = 200, determine the average chip length and the number of chips formed per time. (c) What changes would you recommend in the grinding wheel to help solve the problems encountered? Explain why you made each recommendation. Solution: (a) MRR = vwwd = (20 x 12)(0.5)(0.002) = 0.24 in3/min. (b) lc = (Dd) 0.5 = (7.0 x .002) 0.5 = 0.1183 in. v = πDN = π(7.0/12)(3000) = 5498 ft/min = 65,973 in/min nc = vwC = 65,973(0.5)(200) = 6,597,300 grits/min (c) Changes in wheel to help solve problems cited: (1) use Al2O3 oxide abrasive rather than silicon carbide; (2) use smaller grain size that 24; (3) use shellac bond rather than vitifried bond; (4) use more open structure than number 5 to reduce wheel clogging. 25.7 The grinding wheel in a centerless grinding operation has a diameter = 200 mm, and the regulating wheel diameter = 125 mm. The grinding wheel rotates at 3000 rev/min and the regulating wheel rotates at 200 rev/min. The inclination angle of the regulating wheel = 2.5°. Determine the throughfeed rate of cylindrical workparts that are 25.0 mm in diameter and 175 mm long. Solution: From Eq. (25.11), fr = πDrNr sin I fr = π(125)(200) sin 2.5° = 25,000π(0.04362) = 3426 mm/min Parts throughfeed rate = (3426 mm/min)/(175 mm/pc) = 19.58 pc/min

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25.8

A centerless grinding operation uses a regulating wheel that is 150 mm in diameter and rotates at 500 rev/min. At what inclination angle should the regulating wheel be set, if it is desired to feed a workpiece with length = 3.5 m and diameter = 18 mm through the operation in exactly 45 sec. Solution: From Eq. (25.11), fr = πDrNr sin I fr = 3.5 m per 45 sec = 0.077778 m/s = 4.1667 m/min fr = π(150 x 10-3)(500 rev/min) sin I = 235.62 sin I (units are m/min) 4.1667 m/min = 235.62 sin I m/min sin I = 4.1667/235.62 = 0.0198 I = 1.135° °

25.9

In a certain centerless grinding operation, the grinding wheel diameter = 8.5 in, and the regulating wheel diameter = 5.0 in. The grinding wheel rotates at 3500 rev/min and the regulating wheel rotates at 150 rev/min. The inclination angle of the regulating wheel = 3 degrees. Determine the throughfeed rate of cylindrical workparts that have the following dimensions: diameter = 1.25 in and length = 8.0 in. Solution: From Eq. (25.11), fr = πDrNr sin I = π(5.0)(150) sin 3° = 123.33 in/min. Parts feed at (8.0 in/part)/(123.33 in/min) = 0.0649 min/part = 3.9 sec/part

25.10

It is desired to compare the cycle times required to grind a particular workpiece using traditional surface grinding and using creep feed grinding. The workpiece is 200 mm long, 30 mm wide, and 75 mm thick. To make a fair comparison, the grinding wheel in both cases is 250 mm in diameter, 35 mm in width, and rotates at 1500 rev/min. It is desired to remove 25 mm of material from the surface. When traditional grinding is used, the infeed is set at 0.025 mm, and the wheel traverses twice (forward and back) across the work surface during each pass before resetting the infeed. There is no cross-feed since the wheel width is greater than the work width. Each pass is made at a work speed of 12 m/min, but the wheel overshoots the part on both sides. With acceleration and deceleration, the wheel is engaged in the work for 50% of the time on each pass. When creep feed grinding is used, the depth is increased by 1000 and the forward feed is decreased by 1000. How long will it take to complete the grinding operation (a) with traditional grinding and (b) with creep feed grinding? Solution: (a) Conventional surface grinding: Time of engagement/pass = 200 x 10-3 m/(12 m/min) = 0.01667 min = 1 s Forward and backward stroke = 2(1 s)/50% = 4 s Number of passes to remove 25 mm = 25/0.025 = 1000 passes Time to complete 1000 passes = 1000(4) = 4000 s = 66.67 min. (b) Creep feed grinding: Total length of feed = 200 mm + approach = 200 + (d(D-d))0.5 Given D = 250 mm and d = 25 mm, Total feed length = 200 + (25(250-25))0.5 = 275 mm fr = (12 x 103 mm/min)/1000 = 12 mm/min Time to feed = 275/12 = 22.917 min. Note: Creep feed grinding requires about 1/3 the time of conventional surface grinding for the situation defined here.

25.11

In a certain grinding operation, the grade of the grinding wheel should be “M” (medium), but the only available wheel is grade “T” (hard). It is desired to make the wheel appear softer by making changes in cutting conditions. What changes would you recommend? Solution: A hard wheel means that the grains are not readily pulled from the wheel bond. The wheel can be made to appear softer by increasing the force on the individual grits as given by Eq.

181

(25.8). According to this equation, the force on the abrasive grains will be increased by increasing work speed vw, decreasing wheel speed v, and increasing infeed d. 25.12 An aluminum alloy is to be ground in an external cylindrical grinding operation to obtain a good surface finish. Specify the appropriate grinding wheel parameters and the grinding conditions for this job. Solution: Grinding wheel specification: Abrasive type: silicon carbide Grain size: small - high grit size number Bond material: shellac bond Wheel structure: dense Wheel grade: medium to hard Wheel specification: XX-S-150-E-5-B-XY Grinding conditions: Wheel speed: high speed, around 1800 m/min (6000 ft/min) Work speed: low, around 10 m/min (30 ft/min) Infeed (depth of cut): low, around 0.012 mm (0.0005 in.) Crossfeed: low, around 1/6 of wheel width. 25.13 A high speed steel broach (hardened) is to be resharpened to achieve a good finish. Specify the appropriate parameters of the grinding wheel for this job. Solution: Grinding wheel specification: Abrasive type: cubic boron nitride Grain size: small - high grit size number Bond material: vitrified bond Wheel grade: soft to medium Wheel specification: XX-B-150-P-XY-V-XZ-1/8, where XX, XY, and XZ are manufacturer’s symbols. 25.14 Based on equations in the text, derive an equation to compute the average volume per chip formed in the grinding process. Solution: From Eq. (25.3), MRR = vwwd (in3/min) From Eq. (25.6), nc = vwC (chips/min) Volume per chip = MRR/nc = vwwd/vwC = v wd/vC

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abrasive water jet cutting. and (4) chemical. Answer. The tool oscillates in a direction perpendicular to the work surface. Disadvantages of ECM include: (1) cost of electrical power to operate the process. deburring. The four categories are: (1) mechanical. 26. cavity. and (3) need to avoid surface damage which is often associated with conventional machining.8 How does increasing discharge current affect metal removal rate and surface finish in electric discharge machining? Answer. 183 . Answer. AWJC adds abrasive grits to the water stream.9 What is meant by the term overcut in electric discharge machining? Answer.4 Describe the water jet cutting process. Overcut refers to the difference between the size of the electrode (tool) in EDM and the size of the machined hole. Answer.10 Identify two major disadvantages of plasma arc cutting. perform the cutting. and is fed slowly into the work. Name the four categories.5 What is the difference between water jet cutting. 26. and AJM cuts with abrasive particles that have been added to a high velocity air stream. The three types are: electrochemical machining. WJC cuts with a narrow. 26. abrasives contained in a slurry are driven at high velocity against the work by a tool vibrating at low amplitude and high frequency. based on principal energy form. so that the shape of the tool is formed in the part. Water jet cutting uses a high-pressure. high-velocity stream of water directed at the work surface to cut of the work. In ultrasonic machining. Answer. and grinding. 26.3 How does the ultrasonic machining process work? Answer. (2) unusual and complex workpart geometries. As discharge current increases. 26. and abrasive jet cutting? Answer. or kerf (in wire EDM). 26.1 Why are the nontraditional material removal processes important? Answer. high velocity water stream. Identify the significant disadvantages of electrochemical machining. but not including conventional machining. MRR increases and surface finish is degraded.7 Name the three main types of electrochemical machining. 26. and (2) cost of disposal of electrolyte sludge. 26. The abrasives. impinging against the work surface. (2) electrical.2 There are four categories of nontraditional machining processes. (3) thermal.6 26. Reasons for importance are: (1) need to shape new metal alloys and non-metals that are difficult to machine by conventional processes.26 NONTRADITIONAL MACHINING AND THERMAL CUTTING PROCESSES Review Questions 26.

(b) making intricate patterns in sheet metal. The four steps are: (1) cleaning. since each correct answer is worth 1 point. (a). Answer.000°F). (d). MAPP (methylacetylene-propadiene). 26. (c) milling. propylene. it chemically transforms and can be removed from the surface of the work. and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point.4 Which one of the following is closest to the temperatures used in plasma arc cutting? (a) 2750°C (5000°F). Answer.000°F). Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers. 184 . each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point. and natural gas 26. Answer. Two disadvantages are: (1) rough surface on cut edge. (b) laser beam machining. and (e). Answer. 26.000°C (20. When exposed. (b) 5500°C (10. leaving the desired surface unprotected by the maskant. and (e) cutting of plastic sheets. (2) masking. and (2) metallurgical damage to cut surface. (c) 8300°C (15. and (3) photographic resist. Principal fuels are acetylene.11 What are some of the fuels used in oxyfuel cutting.diameter ratio. all correct answers must be given. To attain a perfect score on the quiz.14 Name the four principal steps in chemical machining.3 Applications of electron beam machining are limited to metallic work materials due to the need for the work to be electrically conductive: (a) true or (b) false.500°C (30. (2) screen resist. (c). (a) 26. For each question. and (f) wire EDM. (d) 11. Answer. (d) 26. (d) ultrasonic machining. (3) etching.000°F). A photoresist is a masking material that is sensitive to light.Answer. (e) 16.13 26. The three steps are: (1) cut and peel. and (4) demasking. (b) 26. (c) and (d).000°F). (d) removing metal from aircraft wing panels.2 Ultrasonic machining can be used to machine both metallic and nonmetallic materials: (a) true or (b) false. (c) removing material to make shallow pockets in metal. Answer. Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 18 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct).5 Chemical milling is used in which of the following (may be more than one)? (a) drilling holes with high depth-to.1 Which of the following processes use mechanical energy as the principal energy source (may be more than one)? (a) grinding. What is a photoresist in chemical machining? Answer. What are the three methods of performing the masking step in chemical machining. Answer. (e) water jet cutting.12 26. propane. 26. Answer.

and (e) u/d. (e) Which of the following processes would be appropriate to drill a hole with a square cross-section.15 in). The overall size of the "G" is 25 by 19 mm (1. (a) and (d). and its width is 3 mm (1/8 in).26. Of the following processes.5 mm (0. (c) EDM. less than 0.0 in) with the separation between holes in each direction = 1. (b) chemical milling. (c) laser beam machining. the depth of the hole is 3. and present arguments to support your selection. identify one or more nontraditional machining processes that might be used. Answer.6 in) and the width of the hole is 3 mm (1/8 in).5 in) thick plate of glass. 185 . (d) laser beam machining. 0. (d) Which of the following processes could be used to cut a large piece of 1/2-inch plate steel into two sections (more than one)? (a) abrasive jet machining. Answer. d = depth of cut. The matrix is rectangular. Answer.6 mm ( 0. (b) An engraved aluminum printing plate to be used in an offset printing press to make 275 by 350 mm (11 by 14 in) posters of Lincoln's Gettysburg address. (b) chemical milling.inch thick sheet of fiber-reinforced plastic (more than one)? (a) abrasive jet machining. in a 3/8.125 in) thick hardened tool steel. (f) water jet cutting. (c) EDM. I = current. (f) water jet cutting. (d) laser beam machining. (e) and (g). (d) A blind-hole in the shape of the letter G in a 50 mm (2. (b) chemical milling. (f) ultrasonic machining. (a) A matrix of 0. (b) 1/A.8 mm (0.0625 in). (e) oxyfuel cutting.75 in). (b) electrochemical machining.9 26.0 by 0.0 by 0.7 26. t = time. (e) oxyfuel cutting. Which of the following processes would be appropriate for cutting a hole of 0. (e) plasma arc cutting. (d) d/u.003 inch diameter through a plate of aluminum that is 1/16-inch thick (one best answer)? (a) abrasive jet machining. (c) A through-hole in the shape of the letter L in a 12.10 26. (f) water jet cutting.1 mm (0. and (g) wire EDM. C = specific removal rate.25 inch on a side and 1-inch deep in a steel workpiece (one best answer)? (a) abrasive jet machining. and (g) wire EDM. (e) oxyfuel cutting. (d) and (f). 26.0 in) cube of steel.0 by 5. Answer. Answer. 75 by 125 mm (3.2 mm (0. Assume that either the part geometry or the work material (or both) preclude the use of conventional machining. and (g) wire EDM. (c) Which of the following processes would be appropriate for cutting a narrow slot. (d) laser beam machining. (e) oxyfuel cutting.1 For each of the following applications. (d) laser beam machining. (c) EDM.004 in) diameter holes in a plate of 3. (c) C I t.8 26.11 Problems General 26. and (g) water jet cutting. (b) chemical milling. (f) water jet cutting. which one is noted for the highest material removal rates? (a) electric discharge machining.6 Etch factor is which of the following in chemical machining (more than one)? (a) A. where A = degree of anisotropy.015 inch wide. and (g) wire EDM. (d) oxyfuel cutting. (c) EDM. Answer. and u = undercut. The size of the "L" is 25 by 15 mm (1.

6 mm3/min) = 3324. Possible process: USM works on glass and other brittle non-metallic materials.125 inch thick hardened steel. making a negative of the speech and transferring this to either a silk screen or directly to the photoresist would seem to be the most straightforward methods.6) MRR = frA = (CI/A)A = CI = (3.1. in block of steel.42 x 10-2 mm3/A-s)(1800 A) = 6156 x 10-2 mm3/s = 61.2 mm3/min (b) Given resistivity r = 140 ohm-mm. determine the working gap? Solution: (a) From Table 26. The material being cut is nickel (valence = 2). WJC cuts through fabrics quickly and cleanly. (d) Application: the letter “G” drilled to a depth of 0. Solution: In plasma arc cutting. The foreman says the company should invest in a plasma arc cutting machine.004 in. Rearranging. Manual methods based on portable saws are currently used to perform the cutting operation.6 mm3/min At 90% efficiency MRR = 0.2). (b) If the resistivity of the electrolyte = 140 ohm-mm.Solution: (a) Application: matrix of holes in 0.15 in. but the plant manager thinks it would be too expensive.. Fiber glass is not electrically conductive. which properties make them difficult to cut. 26. 26. (b) Application: engraved aluminum printing press plate for 11 in. g = EA/Ir g = (12 V)(2000 mm2)/(1800 A)(140 ohm-mm) = 0.4 The frontal working area of the electrode is 2000 mm2 in a certain ECM operation in which the applied current = 1800 amps and the voltage = 12 volts.56 mm3/s = 3693.9(3693. I = EA/gr in Eq.42 x 10-2 mm3/A-s From Eq.3 A furniture company that makes upholstered chairs and sofas must cut large quantities of fabrics. whose specific removal rate C is indicated in Table 26. (26.25. Solution: Water jet cutting would be an ideal process for this application. What nontraditional process(es) would you recommend to the company for this application? Justify your answer by indicating the characteristics of the process that make it attractive. C = 3. the frontal working area of the electrode is 2. What do you think? Justify your answer by indicating the characteristics of the process that make PAC attractive or unattractive in this application. The applied current = 1500 amps. (a) If the process is 90% efficient. (26.1. separation between holes = 0. This is probably the best process. hole diameter = 0. Possible process: photochemical engraving. the workpart must be an electrically conductive material. and the voltage = 12 volts. and the process could be readily automated.1. whose specific removal rate C is given in Table 26. but production is slow and scrap rates are high. Possible processes: ECM and EDM would be useful for pocketing operations such as this.0625 in.004 = 31. determine the rate of metal removal in mm3/min. PAC is therefore not an appropriate process for this application. The material being cut is pure aluminum.5 inch thick plate glass. (c) Application: through-hole in the shape of the letter “L” drilled through 0. Possible processes: EBM and LBM can make holes of this size with depth-to-diameter ratios as large as 0.5 in 2. Many of these fabrics are strong and wear-resistant.125/0.2 Much of the work at the Cut-Anything Company involves cutting and forming of flat sheets of fiber-glass for the pleasure boat industry. (a) If the ECM process is 90 percent 186 .5 In an electrochemical machining operation. LBM might also work.095 mm 26. by 14 in posters. Electrochemical Machining 26.

23 = 664(20)/(34101. C = 0.efficient. At 90% efficiency fr = 0. except the new material to be compared with tungsten is zinc.6 A square hole is to be cut using ECM through a plate of pure copper (valence = 1) that us 20 mm thick.005 in on a side.1 in/min. Solution: From Table 26. (26. This tool design results in a frontal area of 200 mm2.1.8 An electric discharge machining operation is being performed on tungsten.0032 in. (26.3675 mm/s) = 0.189(0.25π(3.5)/(1500 x 6.3675 mm/s At 95% efficiency. Use U.0 inch thickness in 20 minutes requires a feed rate fr = 2.3. g = EA/Ir = 12(2.1/0.0/20 = 0.52 . The applied current = 1000 amps.23) = 13.3 s 26. determine the amount of material removed in the same time.S.5997 mm3/s = 2159 mm3 (b) From Table 4.7).5 in diameter through-hole is to be cut in a block of pure iron (Valence = 2) by electrochemical machining. MRR = KI/Tm1. fr = 0.0000529 I) = 0. The hole is 25 mm on each side.35 x 10-2 mm3/A-s From Eq. If the efficiency of the ECM operation is 90%.9 Same as Problem 26. what current will be required to complete the cutting operation in 20 minutes? Solution: Electrode frontal gap area A = 0. To speed the cutting process.349 mm/s) = 57. Tm = 3410°C for tungsten From Eq. Solution: (a) From Table 4.23) = 13.7).0000476 I I = 0.1. Electric Discharge Machining 26. C = 7.878 mm3 26.000135 I/2. (b) If the work material were tin. MRR = KI/Tm1. but the electrode that is used to cut the hole is slightly less that 25 mm on its sides to allow for overcut.2) = 0. C = 0. Use metric units and express the answer in mm3.280/812 = 16.2 ohm-in.553 in 2 From Table 26. The block is 2. (b) I = EA/gr.553 = 0.7 A 3. determine how long it will take to cut the hole.355 mm3/s = 58.8.95(0.206 in3/hr. 26. The overcut is expected to be 0.349 mm/s Time to machine = (20 mm)/(0. Rearranging. and its shape includes a hole in its center to permit the flow of electrolyte and to reduce the area of the cut. determine the rate of metal removal in in 3/hr. determine the working gap? Solution: (a) From Table 26.0 in thick.0000529 I in/min at 100% efficiency. Using an efficiency of 95%.1.23 = 664(20)/(2321.146 = 0. To cut through a 2. At 90% efficiency MRR = 0.0000476 = 2101 A.1 = 0.280/22. 187 .000126(1500) = 0.02) = 2.35 x 10-2 mm3/A-s)(1000 A)/(200 mm2) = 0. (26. (a) Determine the amount of metal removed in the operation after one hour at a discharge amperage = 20 amps.9(0.1. MRR = fr x A = (CI/A)(A) = CI MRR = CI = 0.189 in 3/min at 100% efficiency.1.90) = 0.000126 in 3/A-min.0000476 I in/min.0 in which will produce a center core that can be removed after the tool breaks through. Customary units and express the answer in in 3. Tm = 232°C for tin From Eq. fr = 0.1701 in 3/min = 10.6) fr = CI/A = (7.000135 in 3/A-min. the electrode tool will have a center hole of 3. (b) If the resistivity of the electrolyte = 6. fr = CI/A = 0. The outside diameter of the electrode is undersized to allow for overcut.

0603 in.79 mm/min 26. 3/s = 0.7).23 = 173. Time to machine the 2. Using a discharge current = 10 amps.7).1. so that the kerf width will be 0. It is anticipated that the overcut will be 0.002293 in/min.10 Suppose the hole in Problem 26.00584/2. Tm = 2802°F for iron.248 = 0. what is the allowable feed rate that can be used in the operation? Estimate the melting temperature of 0. (27.80% carbon steel from the phase diagram of Figure 6.002293 = 874. From Table 4.0) = 1.007) = 0.57 hr.001 in.000292 I = 0. MRR = 5. Using a discharge current = 20 amps (which would be typical for EDM).000292 I in 3/min Given that MRR = 0.1.553 in 2 fr = MRR/A = 0.125 mm.005 in.01 in 3/min.24 A. (26.08(20)/28021.1. how long would it take to cut the hole? Solution: For EDM.6/1685 = 0. in preliminary cuts.12 In a wire EDM operation performed on 7 mm thick C1080 steel using a tungsten wire electrode whose diameter = 0. MRR = 5.0/0.3 min = 14.08(34.005685 in 3/min Frontal area of kerf = 0.7 were to be cut using EDM rather than ECM.23 = 5.23 = 35. (26.7). MRR = 5. 26.1327 in.08 I/Tm1.553 = 0.23) = 6640/8065 = 0. Tm = 420°F for Zinc From Eq.00525 in 2 fr = 0. 0. 3 26.6/45. Past experience suggests that the overcut will be 0. so that the kerf width will be 0. the surface finish on the cut edge is poor.08(20)/(4201. Tm = 2651 F for iron.4.007 in.1. Solution: From Figure 6.1.23 (USCS).083 in/min.00221 in.925 = 0.11 A metal removal rate of 0.62 in.23 = 5. Tm = 2802°F for iron. Using Eq. MRR = KI/Tm1. (26. (26.08 I/28021.393 = 0.000292 = 34.93/16.155 = 42.08 I/17.75(0. what is the expected allowable feed rate that can be used in the operation? Solution: From Table 4.8233 mm3/s Frontal area of kerf = 0.155 mm2 fr = 49. 26.01/0.0107 in3/min 26. MRR = 5.23 = 5. MRR = 5.08(7)/12201.6/17.165(7.13 A wire EDM operation is to be performed on a slab of 3/4 in thick aluminum using a brass wire electrode whose diameter = 0.23) = 101.165 mm.08(20)/(61701.01 in 3/min is achieved in a certain EDM operation on a pure iron workpart.393 = 0.01 I = 0. However. MRR = KI/Tm1.Solution: (a) From Table 4.23 = 101. Tm = 1500°C for 1080 steel Using Eq.56/6255 = 0.005685/0. 3 (b) From Table 4. What changes in discharge current and frequency of discharges should be made to improve the finish? 188 . From Table 4.7).7). MRR = 664(10)/(15001. using Eq.23) = 101. Tm = 1220°F for aluminum.24)/26511.00525 = 1.00584 in 3/min Cross-sectional area of tool from previous problem A = 2.0 inch thickness = 2. What metal removal rate would be achieved on nickel in this EDM operation. 3/s = 3. Using a discharge current = 7 amps.4.4/1.1. if the same discharge current were used? Solution: From Table 4.02 mm. Tm = 6170°F for tungsten From Eq.14 A wire EDM operation is used to cut out punch and die components from 25 mm thick tool steel plates.

The part is an aluminum alloy and the etchant is NaOH.28 mm Radius on corners = R – u = 15 – 6. The penetration rate for this combination is 0.75.0.86 = 8. 2 MRR = (0.2 mm Maskant opening a’ = a – u = 9. = 8.4 mm3/min.024 mm/min)(79. (c) required dimensions of the opening in cut and peel maskant required to achieve the desired pocket size on the part.4/2. As it turns out. "Perhaps the concentration is incorrect. (b) time required to machine to the specified depth. (b) Time to machine (etch) = 12/0.86 mm Maskant opening length = L – 2u = 400 – 2(6.0 in.0) = 54π = 169. area of an ellipse A = πab = π(9." he suggests. (c) Given Fe = 2.024 = 500 min.8 in Maskant opening b’ = b – u = 6. and that the material removal rate (MRR) would therefore increase during the cut as the area increased. surface finish in EDM could be improved by reducing discharge current and increasing frequency of discharges.4/0. The starting thickness of one workpart of interest is 20 mm.001 in/min)(169.000 – 193 = 79. 189 .9(a).65 in. (c) Given Fe = 1. by 6 in. Determine: (a) metal removal rate in mm3/min.8 in 26. = 6.65 in 2) = 0. it is desired to cut an ellipse-shaped pocket to a depth of 0. (b) time required to machine to depth. and that the material removal rate (MRR) would therefore increase during the cut as the area increased. A solution of hydrochloric and nitric acids will be used as the etchant.18 in3/hr (b) Time to machine (etch) = 0.024 mm/min and the etch factor is 1. The corners of each rectangle are radiused to 15 mm. (c) required dimensions of the opening in the cut and peel maskant to achieve the desired pocket size on the part.67 hr.14 mm 26.4 in.86) = 386. Solution: (a) Neglecting the fact that the initial area would be less than the given dimensions of 200 mm by 400 mm. A series of rectangular-shaped pockets 12 mm deep are to be formed with dimensions 200 mm by 400 mm. The sheet is 0. The screen resist method of masking was used to permit high production rates to be achieved. Specified tolerances of ±0.75 = 6.15 Chemical milling is used in an aircraft plant to create pockets in wing sections made of an aluminum alloy.17 In a certain chemical blanking operation. The photoresist method should have been used.16965 in 3/min = 10. A = 200 x 400 – (30 x 30 .28 mm Maskant opening width = W – 2u = 200 – 2(6..2 = 8. and the process should be changed over to adopt this method.33 hr.807 mm2 MRR = (0. undercut u = d/Fe = 12/1. Solution: The problem in this chemical blanking operation is that the screen resist method of masking cannot achieve the tolerances specified.0 – 0. Analyze the problem and recommend a solution. Determine: (a) metal removal rate in in3/hr. a sulfuric acid etchant is used to remove material from a sheet of magnesium alloy.16 In a chemical milling operation on a flat mild steel plate.86) = 186.807 mm2) = 1915.25 mm thick.2 = 5.0)(6. Solution: (a) Neglecting the fact that the initial area would be less than the given dimensions of 9 in. the process is producing a large proportion of scrap. The foreman in the CHM department complains that there must be something wrong with the sulfuric acid. Chemical Machining 26.0 = 0.001 = 400 min.0 – 0.75. undercut u = d/Fe = 0.π(15) 2) = 80.Solution: As indicated in Figure 26.0 in and b = 6. The semiaxes of the ellipse are: a = 9.025 mm are not being achieved.

0043) = 0.2. stock thickness of the aluminum sheet is 0.75 = 0. In chemical blanking.2(0.0075 in. The pattern to be cut out of the sheet is a hole pattern. etching will occur on both sides of the part. Solution: From Table 26. and contact printing is used to make the resist (maskant) pattern.0075/1. Fe = 1. If photochemical machining is used to cut these holes. 190 . Diameter of opening = 0.75.26.0043 in.015 in.18 In a chemical blanking operation.100 . consisting of a matrix of 0. determine the diameter of the holes that should be used in the pattern.0914 in. Undercut u = 0. the effective hole depth on each side = one-half of the stock thickness = 0. Therefore.100 in diameter holes.015/2 = 0.

Identify the important reasons why metals are annealed. 191 . and increase toughness and ductility. The purposes of annealing include: (1) control properties. Indicate how the hardenability alloying elements in steel affect the TTT curve. Metals are heat treated to effect metallurgical changes that beneficially alter properties. Review Questions 27.11 How does carburizing work? Answer.10 Define precipitation hardening? Answer. relieve stresses. thereby transforming the surface into high-C steel for grater hardening potential. 27. and (4) relieve stresses from prior metal working.4 What is the most important heat treatment for hardening steels? Answer.5 What information is conveyed by the TTT curve? Answer. thereby permitting slower cooling rates for conversion of austenite to martensite. 27. molybdenum. followed by slow cooling to reduce brittleness. Carburizing adds carbon to the surface of low-C steel. Precipitation hardening is a heat treatment in which very fine particles (precipitates) are formed so that dislocation movement is blocked and the metal is thus strengthened and hardened. What is the mechanism by which carbon strengthens steel during heat treatment? Answer. Hardenability is the relative capacity of a steel to be hardened by transformation to martensite. Answer.2 HEAT TREATMENT OF METALS Why are metals heat treated? Answer. (2) reduce brittleness and improve toughness. Important hardenability elements are: chromium. Answer. Tempering involves heating and soaking of martensite for about one hour.9 Name some of the elements which have the greatest effect on the hardenability of steel. 27. The TTT curve indicates what phases in the iron. Answer. 27. 27.8 27. Martensite formation by heating steel into the austenite region and quenching.27 27. (3) recrystallize cold-worked metals.1 27.3 27. martensite is formed which depends on the presence of carbon to create the nonequilibrium structure of this phase. manganese. 27.6 What function is served by tempering? Answer. The hardenability alloying elements operate by pushing the nose of the TTT curve to the right.7 Define hardenability? Answer. If the steel is heat treated.12 Identify the selective surface hardening methods. and nickel. 27.carbon phase diagram will be produced under various conditions of cooling.

or (c) solution treatment.8 Which of the following are selective surface hardening methods (more than one)? (a) electron beam heating. Answer. (b) increase toughness.5 The Jominy end-quench test is designed to indicate which one of the following? (a) cooling rate. (c) copper alloys. or (f) relieve stresses. (b) brass. Answer. (a). and laser beam (LB) heating. Answer. Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 14 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct). and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point. the reason for measuring hardness in the Jominy test is to measure hardenability.1 Which of the following are the usual objectives of heat treatment (more than one)? (a) increase hardness. however. (c) oil. (d) reduce brittleness. Answer. Answer. 27. (f) 27. (b). (c) recrystallization of the metal. (b) annealing.6 In precipitation hardening. or (e) vacuum furnaces. The selective surface hardening methods include: flame hardening. (d) 27. (c) 27. Answer.3 On which one of the following metals can the treatment called austenitizing be performed? (a) aluminum alloys. (d). 192 . (c) carburizing. (b) quenching. or (d) steel. high-frequency (HF) resistance heating. Answer. (c). To attain a perfect score on the quiz.Answer.7 Which one of the following surface hardening treatments is the most common? (a) boronizing. 27. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers. electron beam (EB) heating. or (d) pure water. and (f). (b) fluidized bed furnaces. (c) austenitizing. or (e) strength. induction hardening. (c) hardenability.2 Of the following quenching media. 27. (c) induction heating. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point. (b) brine. (d) hardness. Answer. since each correct answer is worth 1 point. (d) laser beam heating. (a) 27.4 The treatment in which the brittleness of martensite is reduced is called which one of the following? (a) aging. (d) normalizing. (b) 27. (e) reduce density. and (d). all correct answers must be given. (d) chromizing. or (f) tempering. (c). (b) ductility. (e) quenching. (b) carbonitriding. (c) The reader might be tempted to select (d) because the Jominy test indicates hardness. (a). or (e) nitriding. the hardening and strengthening of the metal occurs in which one of the following steps (one answer only)? (a) aging. For each question. which one produces the most rapid cooling rate? (a) air.

lapping. The chemical cleaning methods can be categorized as follows: (1) alkaline cleaning. These method also accomplish other functions such as deburring and surface finish improvement. Ion implantation produces a similar result. rust. (2) to improve hygiene conditions. abrasive grits. alloy steels. Answer. (3) to remove contaminants which might chemically react with the surface. Answer. usually in a barrel by the mixing action of an abrasive media. 28. In mass finishing.2 Mechanical surface treatments are often performed for reasons other than or in addition to cleaning.8 What is the difference between diffusion and ion implantation? Answer. 28. adding luster. shop dirt. (3) solvent cleaning. Basic contaminant types are: (1) oil and grease.6 Name some of the important chemical cleaning methods. 28. Reasons for mechanical surface treatments include: deburring. The process is also known as aluminizing. parts are mechanically cleaned and deburred in bulk. what is the main function performed by shot peening? Answer. 28. 28. improving smoothness. (3) buffing and polishing compounds. 193 . and (4) oxide films. such as metal chips. but the process involves penetration of high. Calorizing is the diffusion of aluminum into carbon steel. and the alloys of nickel and cobalt. honing. and (5) ultrasonic cleaning. and (4) to enhance product appearance and performance.1 What are some of the important reasons why manufactured parts must be cleaned? Answer. and scale.4 Identify some of the mechanical cleaning methods. 28. (2) emulsion cleaning. Shot peening is primarily used to improve the fatigue strength of metals by introducing cold working the metallic surface.7 What is meant by the term mass finishing? Answer. and enhancing surface properties. and dust. 28. (2) solid particles. What are the reasons? Answer.5 In addition to surface cleaning. and mass finishing (such as barrel tumbling).9 What is calorizing? Answer.28 CLEANING AND SURFACE TREATMENTS Review Questions 28. (4) acid cleaning and pickling. The reasons include: (1) to prepare the surface for subsequent industrial processing. buffing.velocity ions into the surface of a substrate material. polishing. Mechanical cleaning methods include: belt grinding. Diffusion coating is a diffusion process in which atoms or molecules move across a boundary between two contacting materials.3 What are the basic types of contaminants that must be cleaned from metallic surfaces in manufacturing? Answer. 28.

4 In sand blasting. (b) to enhance mechanical properties of the surface. For each question. (a). such as barrel tumbling. (a) 28. all correct answers must be given. (a). or (e) to remove contaminants that might chemically attack the surface. and (e) SiC. since each correct answer is worth 1 point. (d). (a). (b) blast finishing.7 Calorizing is the same as which of the following? (a) aluminizing. (c) 194 . Answer. (c) emery. 28. (b) sodium hydroxide. include which of the following (more than one)? (a) Al2O3.Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 16 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct). (b).6 Which of the following processes generally produces a deeper penetration of atoms in the impregnated surface? (a) diffusion or (b) ion implantation. Answer. Answer. 28. or (e) SiO 2. (a) 28. (d) limestone. Answer. (b) corundum. Answer. (c). each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers.2 Which of the following chemicals is associated with alkaline cleaning (more than one)? (a) borax. Answer. and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point. which one of the following abrasives is used? (a) Al2O3. (d). and (e). (c) diffusion. (c). To attain a perfect score on the quiz.3 Shot peening is a mechanical cleaning method used primarily to remove surface scale from metallic parts: (a) true or (b) false. 28. (c) nylon beads. (b). (d) tumbling. or (d) trichlorethylene. Answer. (c) sulfuric acid. (c) to improve hygiene conditions for worker. (d) to prepare the surface for subsequent processing. Answer.8 Carburizing involves which one of the following? (a) acid pickling. 28. (c) hot sand blasting. or (d) siliconizing. (b) doping. and (e). or (e) vapor degreasing. 28. (b) crushed nut shells. (b) Principal function is to cold work the surface to improve fatigue strength.1 Reasons why workparts must be cleaned include which of the following (more than one)? (a) for better appearance. (e) 28.5 The abrasive media used in mass finishing. (d) SiC.

(5) improved solderability. such as a taper.3 What are the many reasons why a metallic surface is plated? Answer.9 What is a conversion coating? Answer. and (6) thermal and mechanical treatments. The common coating processes are: (1) plating. chromates. How is the part removed from a solid mandrel? Answer. The reasons are: (1) corrosion protection of the substrate metal. Best example is aluminum anodizing. in which the coating simply covers the substrate to protect it.8 How does electroless plating differ from electrochemical plating? Answer.1 29.10 How does anodizing differ from other conversion coatings? Answer. such as anodizing.29 29. 29. that permit the part to be removed.1). Parts are also sometimes removed by taking advantage of a difference in coefficient of thermal expansion. 29. (4) organic coating painting. (33. electroplating uses electrolysis. (1) Corrosion protection. 195 . (2) attractive appearance. Answer. Review Questions 29. Anodizing uses electrochemical processing methods to convert the metallic surface. (3) vapor deposition processes such as PVD and CVD. (2) enhance appearance. The cathode efficiency is the actual amount of metal deposited on the surface relative to the theoretical amount given by Eq. (5) porcelain enameling.2 COATING AND DEPOSITION PROCESSES Why are metals coated? Answer. Steel. Electroless plating uses only chemical reactions to form the plating. 29. The most common conversion coatings are phosphates. and (4) prepare surface for subsequent processing. (2) chemical surface treatments.7 What is the most commonly plated substrate metal? Answer. (4) increased electrical conductivity. (3) wear resistance. A conversion coating is a thin coating produced by chemical reaction of the metallic surface. and (6) enhanced lubricity of the surface. One of the mandrel types in electroforming is a solid mandrel.5 What are the two basic mechanisms of corrosion protection? Answer. A solid mandrel has certain geometric features. Identify the most common types of coating processes. The mechanisms are (1) barrier protection. and (2) sacrificial protection. in which the coating metal corrodes sacrificially to protect the substrate. 29. (3) provide a specified color. 29. 29.4 What is meant by the term cathode efficiency in electroplating? Answer. and oxides.6 29.

and (3) ion plating.4. In PVD.13 What are some of the applications of PVD? Answer. (2) grain size control. deposition of metal in electronic connections. 29. the reaction product nucleates and grows on the substrate surface. immersion (dip coating).29. antireflection coatings on optical lenses.20 What is meant by the term transfer efficiency in organic coating technology? Answer.g.17 What are some of the advantages of chemical vapor deposition? Answer. TiC and TiN.2.12 What is the difference between physical vapor deposition (PVD) and chemical vapor deposition (CVD)? Answer. 196 . Identify the four major types of ingredients in organic coatings? Answer.. spraying. TiN). 29.18 What are the two most common titanium compounds that are coated onto cutting tools by chemical vapor deposition? Answer. and flow coating. indicate the distinction. Advantages include: (1) capability to deposit refractory materials at temperatures below their melting or sintering temperatures. The main methods include: brushing and rolling. 29. the coating vapors are synthesized by heating the coating material and allowing it to condense as a thin film on the surface of the workpart.16 Define sputtering yield? Answer.22 The terms drying and curing have different meanings. which provide color. Answer. and cutting tool coatings (e. Physical vapor deposition (PVD) refers to a family of processes in which a material is converted to its vapor phase in a vacuum chamber and condensed onto a substrate surface as a very thin film. 29. Titanium carbide (TiC) and aluminum oxide (Al2O3) might also be mentioned. and (4) additives such as surfactants and plasticizers. What is a commonly used coating material deposited by PVD onto cutting tools? Answer. The three types are: (1) vacuum evaporation.14 29. 29. Answer. In CVD a coating is formed on a heated substrate by the chemical reaction or dissociation of vapors and/or gases. 29. (3) solvents. 29. Titanium nitride (TiN). (2) dyes or pigments. and (4) good bonding to substrate surface. These methods are described in Article 33. Transfer efficiency indicates how much of the organic coating liquid reaches the target surface.15 Name the three basic types of PVD.19 29. which are polymers.21 Describe the principal methods by which organic coatings are applied to a surface. (3) process is performed at atmospheric pressure. The major ingredients are: (1) binder. 29.11 What is physical vapor deposition? Answer. PVC applications include: decorative coatings on trophies and automotive trim. (2) sputtering. 29. Sputtering yield is defined as the number of atoms ejected from the surface of a substance per ion bombarding the surface.

or (e) tin. (b) 29. (b) lead.010 in.100 in.003 in. what is frit? Answer. 29. (d) galvanizing. (d) electroplating. (b) magnesium. Curing involves a chemical change in the organic resin (polymerization and/or cross-linking) which hardens the coating. or (e) physical vapor deposition. (b) anodizing. with thicknesses up to 0. (a) and (d). since each correct answer is worth 1 point. For each question. Answer. or (e) zinc.Answer. or (e) terneplating.6 With which one of the following metals is anodizing most commonly associated (one answer)? (a) aluminum.2 Which one of the following terms is used in connection with dip coating of lead onto a substrate such as sheet steel? (a) aluminizing.7 Sputtering is a form of which one of the following? (a) chemical vapor deposition. (e) 29.1 Which one of the following plate metals produces the hardest surface on a metallic substrate? (a) cadmium. all correct answers must be given. To attain a perfect score on the quiz. 29.5 Which of the following processes involves electrochemical reactions (more than one)? (a) anodizing. Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 17 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct). (b) chromate coatings. (d) ion implantation. (c) conversion coating. or (d) 0. (c) copper. (d) titanium. Frit is glassy porcelain prepared as fine particles (powders) by crushing and milling. Mechanical galvanizing refers to the mechanical plating of zinc onto a substrate. Drying means evaporation of solvents in the organic coating liquid.0001 in. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point. and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point. (c) diffusion.3 Which one of the following plating metal is associated with the term galvanizing? (a) iron. Answer. (b) defect in arc welding. (b) 0.001 in. What does the term mechanical galvanizing refer to? Answer. (e) 29. Answer. or (e) phosphate coatings.23 29. Answer. (a) 29. 29. (c) steel. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers. (c) electroless plating. Answer.24 In porcelain enameling. or (e) zinc. Answer. (d) tin. (d) nickel. (c) 0. either (a) or (b) is acceptable 29.4 Which of the following is most typical of the thickness of an electroplated coating (choose either of two acceptable answers)? (a) 0. (b) chromium. (e) 197 . Answer. (c) steel.

615 g 29. (a) The principal methods of applying powder coatings are which of the following (select two best answers)? (a) brushing. cathode efficiency E = 95%.75 x 10-2 mm3/A-s. (e) mechanical deformation to work harden the surface.35 mm3 Area A = 100 cm2 = 10. (b) liquid solution. or (d) metal spraying.75 x 10-2 mm3/A-s)(10 A)(1 hr)(3600 s/hr) = 1624.10 29. (c) metallizing. What average plating thickness will result if 15 amps are applied for 10 minutes in a chromic acid-sulfate bath? 198 . (d) electroplating. Answer.3 A sheetmetal steel part with surface area A = 15. Answer. or (d) reducing nickel carbonyl to metallic Ni.1. (b) an electroplating process. (c) and (d). or (d) powders.6245(7.14 Problems Electroplating 29. (a) The Mond process is used for which one of the following? (a) chemical vapor deposition of silicon nitride onto silicon.95(4.13 29. (c) molten liquid. Answer.5 mm3 = 1. (c) dip coating. Volume V = ECIt = 0. (c) fluidized bed. (b) brazing. (a) 29. Weight W = 1.12 29. Answer. Hard facing utilizes which one of the following basic processes? (a) arc welding.0 in2 is to be chrome plated. What average plating thickness will result if 15 amps are applied for 12 minutes in a chloride electrolyte solution? Solution: From Table 29. cathode efficiency E = 95%.049 mm 29.2 A sheetmetal steel part with surface area A = 100 cm2 is to be zinc plated. Answer. (b) electrostatic spraying. or (e) oxygen.75 x 10-2 mm3/A-s)(15 A)(12 min)(60 s/min) = 487. (d) nitrogen.1 What volume (cm3) and weight (g) of zinc will be deposited onto a cathodic workpart if 10 amps of current are applied for one hour? Solution: From Table 29.15 g/cm3. (b) chlorine. (b) hard facing.29.000 mm2 Plating thickness d = 487. C = 4. (b) and (c).75 x 10-2 mm3/A-s. Answer.000 mm2 = 0.15) = 11. Volume V = ECIt = 0.1 ρ = 7. (d) immersion.1. (d) Which of the following thin film processes is most common in semiconductor processing? (a) chemical vapor deposition or (b) physical vapor deposition.9 29.95(4.6245 cm3 Density of zinc from Table 4. (d) Which of the following are alternative names for thermal spraying (more than one answer)? (a) flexible overlay process.11 29. (c) neon.35 mm3/10.8 Which of the following gases is the most commonly used in sputtering and ion plating? (a) argon. (c) physical vapor deposition for coating TiN onto cutting tools. Answer. Porcelain enamel is applied to a surface in which one of the following forms? (a) liquid emulsion. and (e) roller coating. C = 4.

003954 t in 3.698 lb/in 3.5 A part made of sheet steel is to be nickel plated. and the batch takes 40 minutes to complete. where I = current.8 A batch of 100 parts are to be nickel plated in a barrel plating operation. Volume V = ECIt = 0. Volume V = ECIt = 0.15(0.69 x 10-4 in3/A-min.5 = 0. What volume of coating will be applied in the process? Solution: From Table 29. amps.02477 in 3) = 0. At $300/oz. Plated volume V = EC∫Idt = EC∫(12 + 0.92 x 10-4)(12 x 20 + 0.5 in 2. The plating metal is chromium.7 Increasing current is applied to a workpart surface in an electroplating process according to the relation I = 12. min. 29.4 Twenty-five jewelry pieces. With Q = 25 pieces and average area per piece = 0.87 x 10-4 in3/A-min.075 x 2(19 + 14) = 536.6 mm3. each with a surface area A = 7.95(3.001 in onto the surface if 15 amps of current are applied? Solution: From Table 29. The part is a rectangular flat plate which is 0. C = 1.1 min. Solution: (a) From Table 29.075 cm thick and whose face dimensions are 14 cm by 19 cm.25 x 10-4)(120)(40) = 0.1.036 t = 0.2t)dt = EC(12t + 0.698 lb/in 3)(0. Solution: From Table 29.92 x 10-4 in3/A-min.02477 in 3.99 29.25 x 10-4 in3/A-min. Solution: From Table 29.42 x 10-2 mm3/A-s)(20 A)(30 min)(60 s/min) = 1169. cathode efficiency E = 95%.69 x 10-4 in3/A-min)(15 A) t = 0.0 + 0. cathode efficiency E = 15%. The parts are identical.6/53.277) = $82. cathode efficiency E = 80%. The plating operation is carried out in an acid sulfate electrolyte. Volume V = ECIt = 0. (a) What average plating thickness will result if 8 amps are applied for 10 min in a cyanide bath? (b) What is the value of the gold that will be plated if one ounce of gold is valued at $300? The density of gold = 0.8) = 780 in 2 Plating thickness d = 0.000138 in.87 x 10-4)(8)(10) = 0.1(20) 2) = 0. cathode efficiency E = 15%.92 x 10-4)(15)(10) = 0. each with a surface area = 0.00198 in. total area A = 25(0.8 in2.1.695 = 0. (b) Given density for gold ρ = 0.036/0. C = 0. C = 3. using a current I = 20 amps for a duration t = 30 min.698 lb/in3 Weight of plated gold = (0. Determine the average thickness of the plated metal resulting from this operation. Area A = 2(19 x 14) + 0. How long will it take to deposit a copper plating (assume valence = +1) of thickness = 0.1t2) over the range 0 to 20 min.80(3. 29. V = 0. 0.1.00207 in 3.2t.15(0.1.6 A steel sheetmetal part has total surface area A = 36 in2.1. cathode efficiency E = 98%. value of plated gold = $300(0.57/780 = 0.98(2.022 mm 29. C = 2.42 x 10-2 mm3/A-s.00073 in. C = 0.001) = 0.00386 in3 29. The plating process applies a current I = 120 amps.695 mm2 Plating thickness d = 1169.95 cm2 = 53.1. Plating thickness d = 0. Volume V = ECIt = 0.Solution: From Table 29.277 oz. Area A = 100(7. cathode efficiency E = 95%.01729 lb = 0.57 in 3.036 in 3 Plated volume V = ECIt = 0.92 x 10-4 in3/A-min. C = 3. Determine the average plating thickness on the parts.5) = 12. and the part is submersed in the plating solution for a duration of 20 min.003954 t = 0.02477/12.5 in 2 Plating thickness d = 0.003954 = 9.5 in 2 are to be gold plated in a batch plating operation. 199 .95(1. Required volume of plate metal = 36(0. and t = time.00207/15 = 0.

0.5 x 10-2 mm3/A-s)(80 A) t = 0. t = 0. total area A = 40(22.7) = 908 cm2 = 90.29. Volume V = ECIt = 0. how long should the plating operation be allowed to run at a current = 80 amps? Solution: From Table 29.010/0.44 min.5 x 10-2 mm3/A-s. C = 2.7 cm2.3027 x 104 = 3027 s = 50.03304(10-4) t mm Given that d = 0. If it is desired to plate an average thickness = 0.9 A batch of 40 identical parts are to be chrome plated using racks.03304(10-4) t = 0.800 mm2) = 0.03304(10-4) = 0.3 t mm3 With Q = 40 pieces and average area per piece = 22.3 t mm3)/(90.010 Thus.010 mm on the surface of each part.1.800 mm2 Plating thickness d = V/A = (0. cathode efficiency E = 15%. 200 .010 mm.15(2.7 mm2. Each part has a surface are = 22.

1 FUNDAMENTALS OF WELDING What are the advantages and disadvantages of welding compared to other types of assembly operations? Answer.3 in text for sketches.2 What were the two discoveries of Sir Humphrey Davy that led to the development of modern welding technology? Answer. Review Questions 30. (3) lap. A fusion weld is a weld in which the metal surfaces have been melted in order to cause coalescence.6 30. In a solid state weld.9 Name and sketch the five joint types.5 30. See Figure 28. the metal is not melted.30 30. the metal is melted. (2) welding is inherently dangerous. and weld spatter. Discuss the reasons why most welding operations are inherently dangerous. a human worker must continuously control the arc and the relative movement of the welding head and the workpart. 30.3 30. the electric arc emits intense ultraviolet radiation which can cause blinding. so labor cost is high and the skilled labor to perform it is sometimes scarce.4 30. It is a fusion weld made without the addition of filler metal. Other hazards include sparks. (2) corner. the fuels are a fire hazard. Answer. (5) edge.10 Define and sketch a fillet weld? 201 . fumes. Advantages: (1) provides a permanent joint.8 What is the difference between machine welding and automatic welding? Answer. so the parts are joined permanently. In arc welding and resistance welding. What is an autogenous weld? Answer. The faying surfaces are the contacting surfaces in a welded joint. Answer. An automatic welding operation uses a weld cycle controller which regulates the arc movement and workpiece positioning. Answer. In arc welding. (3) most economical in terms of material usage. 30. In a fusion weld. (2) joint strength is typically as high as strength of base metals. 30. the high electrical energy can cause shocks which are fatal to the worker. (1) electric arc and (2) acetylene gas. (4) versatile in terms of where it can be accomplished. (4) quality defects sometimes difficult to detect. (3) difficult to disassemble. In gas welding. Define the term fusion weld. What is meant by the term faying surface? Answer. Most welding operations are carried out at high temperatures that can cause serious burns on skin and flesh. Five joint types are: (1) butt. Disadvantages: (1) usually performed manually. smoke. (4) tee. whereas in machine welding. 30.7 What is the fundamental difference between a fusion weld and a solid state weld? Answer.

A groove weld is a weld joint used to fill in the space between the adjoining edges of butt and other weld types except lap. and tee joints. To attain a perfect score on the quiz. Because it does not join to distinct parts. Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 11 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct). 30.13 Why is a surfacing weld different from the other weld types? Answer. but instead adds only filler metal to a surface. but temperatures from welding were high enough to cause solid state microstructural changes. Melting efficiency is the ratio of heat required for melting divided by the heat received at the work surface.15 What is the unit melting energy in welding.11 Define and sketch a groove weld? Answer. What is the difference between a continuous weld and an intermittent weld as the terms apply to a fillet weld of a lap joint? Answer. See Figure 28. Because the heat is concentrated in a small region for greatest efficiency and minimum metallurgical damage. and how is this form of solidification different from that which occurs in casting? Answer. since each correct answer is worth 1 point. all correct answers must be given.Answer. 30. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point. lap. 30. For each question. A fillet weld is a weld joint of approximately triangular cross-section used to fill in the edges of corner. and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point.5 in text for sketch. 30. whereas an intermittent weld would only fill the joint along certain portions (usually equally spaced) of the total length. A continuous weld would be made along the entire length of the fillet weld.12 30.4 in text for sketch. 30. Epitaxial grain growth occurs when atoms from the molten pool solidify on already existing lattice sites of the adjacent solid base metal. 30. 202 . See Figure 28.14 Why is it desirable to use energy sources for welding that have high heat densities? Answer. Answer.18 What is the heat affected zone (HAZ) in a fusion weld? Answer. 30. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers. The HAZ is a region of base metal surrounding the fusion zone in which melting has not occurred. Heat transfer efficiency is the ratio of the actual heat received at the work surface divided by the total heat generated by the source. and what are the factors on which it depends? Answer.17 What is epitaxial grain growth.16 Define and distinguish the two terms heat transfer efficiency and melting efficiency in welding. The unit melting energy is the amount of heat energy required to melt one cubic inch or one cubic mm of metal.

the metal with the lower melting temperature always melts while the other metal remains solid: (a) true. and (d). (b) Similar to Figure 30. (b) and (c) Weld failures always occur in the fusion zone of the weld joint.5(a). (d) U-groove weld as in Figure 30.5(f). (c) edge. Answer. for a butt weld. it is desirable to melt the weld metal with minimum energy input. (b) false. (d) lap.5(d) but both sides as in Figure 30. Answer.1 Prepare sketches showing how the part edges would be prepared and aligned with each other and also showing the weld cross-section for the following welds: (a) square groove weld. (c) low power. otherwise. (c) For metallurgical reasons. (e) tee. both sides. 30.4 30. (b) round. (b) Welding can be accomplished between certain combinations of dissimilar metals.5 30. and (d) double U-groove weld for a butt weld.7 30. Both metals melt.4(c) but one side only. (b) Failures also occur in the heat affected zone because metallurgical damage often occurs in this region. (b) false. (c). Answer. or (e) thermal conductivity.3 30.2 A fillet weld can be used to join which of the following joint types (more than one): (a) butt. 30. A fillet weld has a cross-sectional shape that is approximately which one of the following? (a) rectangular. (b) corner. but both sides as in Figure 30. (d) lap. (b) corner. (c) lap. (a) A flange weld is most closely associated with which one of the following joint types: (a) butt.1 Welding can only be performed on metals that have the same melting point.5(f). (c) single fillet weld for tee joint.6 30. (c) melting temperature. or (d) low power density. (b).8 Problems Joint design 30. (b) heat of fusion. Answer. Answer. or (d) triangular. (b) single fillet weld for a lap joint. 203 . (e) tee. (b) The amount of heat required to melt a given volume of metal depends strongly on which of the following properties (more than one)? (a) coefficient of thermal expansion. since this is the part of the joint that has been melted: (a) true. (d) Groove welds are most closely associated with which one of the following joint types: (a) butt. (b) high power density. Answer. (d) tee. (c) Same as Figure 30. Solution: (a) Square groove weld as in Figure 30. (d) modulus of elasticity. Which one of the following heat sources is most consistent with this objective? (a) high power. Answer. (c) square. Answer. (c) edge.4(d) but one side only. (b) corner.30.

(30. Unit melting energy 30.467 x 10-5 (2440) 2 = 87.467 x 10-5 (3160) 2 = 146.3 Btu/in3 (b) From Table 30. and the heat intensity decreases as the radius increases.5 Btu/in3 30.1) 2/4 = 0. (30. The heated area is circular.2) for USCS units: Um = 1.50)(2. The heated area is approximately circular.00785 in 2 150 Btu/min = 2.75 . Power P = 0. 30.1 Btu/in3 30. 500°C.33 x 10-6 (1760) 2 = 10. and the heat intensity decreases with increasing radius as follows: 50% of the power is transferred within a circle of diameter = 0.0686 mm2 Power P = 0.27 J/mm3 Eq.50(2.33 x 10-6 (2070) 2 = 14.2) for SI units: Um = 3.2.6 Make the calculations and plot on linearly scaled axes the relationship for unit melting energy as a function of temperature. Tm for titanium = 2070 K (3730 R) Eq. Solution: (a) From Table 30.467 x 10-5 Tm2 Um = 1.3 A welding heat source is capable of transferring 150 Btu/min to the surface of a metal part.0412 in 2 = 15.32 J/mm3 Eq.467 x 10-5 Tm2 Um = 1. Tm for copper = 1350 K (2440 R) Eq.1 inch diameter inner circle and (b) the 0.5) = 1.625 Btu/sec Power density PD = (0.25 inch.07 J/mm3 Eq.12)/4 = 0.0. Tm for plain low carbon steel = 1760 K (3160 R) Eq. as follows: 60% of the heat is concentrated in a circular area that is 3 mm in diameter.2 A heat source can transfer 3000 J/sec to a metal part surface.Power density 30.25 Btu/sec)/0. This power density is sufficient for welding.2) for SI units: Um = 3. (30. Power density PD = 1800 W/7. (30. Is the resulting power density enough to melt metal? Solution: Area A = π(3.5) = 0. (30.625 Btu/sec)/0.2. (30.0) 2/4 = 7.0686 mm2 = 255 W/mm2.4 Btu/in3 (b) From Table 30.467 x 10-5 Tm2 Um = 1.467 x 10-5 Tm2 Um = 1.2.33 x 10-6 (930) 2 = 2.00785 in 2 = 159 Btu/sec-in2 (b) A = π(0.2) for USCS units: Um = 1.16 Btu/sec-in2 (c) Power densities are sufficient certainly in the inner circle and probably in the outer ring for welding.25 inch diameter ring that lies around the inner circle? (c) Are these power densities sufficient for melting metal? Solution: (a) Area A = π(0. 750°C.4 Compute the unit energy for melting for the following metals: (a) aluminum and (b) plain low carbon steel.33 x 10-6 (1350) 2 = 6.33 x 10-6 Tm2 Um = 3. (30.467 x 10-5 (1680) 2 = 41.33 x 10-6 Tm2 Um = 3.2) for SI units: Um = 3. 204 .252 . and 75% is transferred within a concentric circle of diameter = 0.2) for USCS units: Um = 1.2.467 x 10-5 (3730) 2 = 204.0412 in 2 Power P = (0.88 J/mm3 Eq. Use temperatures as follows to construct the plot: 250°C.33 x 10-6 Tm2 Um = 3. Tm for aluminum = 930 K (1680 R) Eq.1 inch.33 x 10-6 Tm2 Um = 3.5 Btu/sec.2) for SI units: Um = 3.5 Compute the unit energy for melting for the following metals:(a) copper and (b) titanium.60(3000) = 1800 J/s = 1800 W.2) for USCS units: Um = 1.0.25 Btu/sec Power density PD = (1. What is the power densities in: (a) the 0. (30. Solution: (a) From Table 30.

Solution: Eq.2.045(10) = 0. Use temperatures as follows to construct the plot: 500°F. Solution: Eq. For Tm = 500° F = (500 + 460) = 960°R: Um = 1.47 J/mm3 ° For Tm = 2000° C = (2000 + 273) = 2273°K: Um = 3. Tm for austenitic stainless steel = 1670 K Um = 3.33 x 10-6 (1023) 2 = 3.467 x 10-5 (960) 2 = 13. 1500°F. 30. On the plot. The plot is based on the following calculated values. 2500°F.8 Btu/in3 ° For Tm = 2500° F = (2500 + 460) = 2960°R: Um = 1. The plot is left as a student exercise.7? Solution: (a) Eq.4 Btu/in3 ° For Tm = 2000° F = (2000 + 460) = 2460°R: Um = 1. and 2000°C. H = 61. H = 37.99 J/mm3 ° For Tm = 750° C = (750 + 273) = 1023°K: Um = 3. if the heat transfer efficiency = 0. 3000°F. 1000°F.29 J/mm3 Volume of metal melted V = 20(200) = 4000 mm3 Hm = 9.467 x 10-5 Tm2 From Table 30. (30.33 x 10-6 (2273) 2 = 17. 205 .8/(0.3 Btu/in3 ° For Tm = 1500° F = (1500 + 460) = 1960°R: Um = 1.45 in 3 Hm = 137.8 x 0.45) = 61.48 J/mm3 ° For Tm = 1000° C = (1000 + 273) = 1273°K: Um = 3.6) = 77.2) for SI units: Um = 3.29(4000) = 37.1000°C.20 J/mm3 ° 30.045 in2 and is 10 inches long.467 x 10-5 Tm2.467 x 10-5 (2460) 2 = 88. 1500°C.2) for USCS units: Um = 1. if the metal to be welded is medium carbon steel? (b) How much heat must be generated at the welding source. On the plot.7.33 x 10-6 (1273) 2 = 5.7 Make the calculations and plot on linearly scaled axes the relationship for unit melting energy as a function of temperature.6 Btu/in3 ° For Tm = 3500° F = (3500 + 460) = 3960°R: Um = 1.40 J/mm3 ° For Tm = 1500° C = (1500 + 273) = 1773°K: Um = 3.2.33 x 10-6 (773) 2 = 1.148/(0.4(0.467 x 10-5 (2960) 2 = 128.9 x 0.4 Btu/in 3 Volume of metal melted V = 0. (30.2) for USCS units: Um = 1.8 A fillet weld has a cross-sectional area Aw = 20. The plot is left as a student exercise. 2000°F.5 Btu/in3 ° For Tm = 3000° F = (3000 + 460) = 3460°R: Um = 1.467 x 10-5 (1960) 2 = 56.7) = 98.6.33 x 10-6 Tm2 From Table 30.1 Btu at source.9 and the melting efficiency = 0.9 and f2 = 0.33 x 10-6 (1773) 2 = 10. mark the positions of some of the welding metals in Table 30.2) for SI units: Um = 3.8 Btu at weld (b) Given f1 = 0.0 mm2 and is 200 mm long.467 x 10-5 (3060) 2 = 137.9 A certain groove weld has a cross-sectional area Aw = 0. (30. For Tm = 250° C = (250 + 273) = 523°K: Um = 3.467 x 10-5 (3960) 2 = 230.33 x 10-6 (523) 2 = 0.2. (a) What quantity of heat (in joules) is required to accomplish the weld. The plot is based on the following calculated values. (a) What quantity of heat (in Btu) is required to accomplish the weld.2. (30. if the heat transfer efficiency = 0.33 x 10-6 (1670) 2 = 9. and 3500°F.5 Btu/in3 ° For Tm = 1000° F = (1000 + 460) = 1460°R: Um = 1. if the metal to be welded is austenitic stainless steel? (b) How much heat must be generated at the welding source.0 Btu/in3 ° 30.467 x 10-5 (3460) 2 = 175. mark the positions of some of the welding metals in Table 30.91 J/mm3 ° For Tm = 500° C = (500 + 273) = 773°K: Um = 3.6? Solution: (a) Eq.33 x 10-6 Tm2.8 and the melting efficiency = 0.467 x 10-5 (1460) 2 = 31.148 J at weld (b) Given f1 = 0. Tm for medium carbon steel = 3060 R Um = 1.8 and f2 = 0.392 J at source.

These values show a greater difference than for aluminum.2)? Solution: (a) Aluminum properties (from standard sources): heat of fusion Hf = 170 Btu/lb = 395.11 Compute the unit melting energy for (a) aluminum and (b) steel as the sum of: (1) the heat required to raise the temperature of the metal from room temperature to its melting point. (b) Steel properties (from standard sources): heat of fusion Hf = 117 Btu/lb = 272.390 J/kg.2. 206 . In USCS.70) + 0.30. specific heat C = 0.467 x 10-5 (1220 + 460) 2 = 41.S. (30. (30. (30.0 mm2. Tm for aluminum = 1680 R Um = 1. These values for aluminum show good agreement.215 Btu/lb-°F = 900 J/kg-°C.467 x 10-5 (1680) 2 = 41. Um = ρC(Tm . Um = ρC(Tm .123 J/kg. (30.35) = 59. 30. (30.2): Um = 1.2): Um = 1.215)(1220 .467 x 10-5 Tm2 From Table 30.9 x 0.1 Btu/in3 This compares with Eq. so that this value can be compared to the unit melting energy calculated by Eq.4 Btu/in3 This is about a 3% difference. Find the values of the properties needed in these calculations either in this text or in other references.21) + (7. density ρ = 0. density ρ = 0.70) + 0. In SI. which is the product of the volumetric specific heat and the temperature rise.70) + ρHf = 0.284(117) = 115.90 J/mm3 This is about a 10% difference.9.2. Customary units or the International System.2): Um = 3. H = 18.467 x 10-5 (2700 + 460) 2 = 146. Use either the U. specific heat C = 0. Solution: (a) Eq.7. melting temperature Tm = 2700°F = 1480°C.284 lb/in3 = 7900 kg/m3.2) for USCS units: Um = 1.096(170) = 40.096(0.45) = 18. This is transferred to the work surface with a heat transfer efficiency f 1 = 0.2).25.23 J/mm3 This is about a 37% difference.045(10) = 0.21) + (2. A continuous fillet weld is to be made with a cross-sectional area Aw = 15. Determine the travel speed at which the welding operation can be accomplished.096 lb/in3 = 2700 kg/m3. except that the metal to be welded is aluminum. The metal to be welded is copper whose melting point is given in Table 30. (30.4(0. Assume that the melting efficiency f 2 = 0. Energy balance in welding 30. Um = ρC(Tm . Um = ρC(Tm .6/(0.70) + ρHf = 0.12 The welding power generated in a particular arc welding operation = 3000 W. melting temperature Tm = 1220°F = 660°C. Are the values close enough to validate Eq. (30. In USCS. This is at least partially accounted for by the fact that the specific heat of steel increases significantly with temperature. which would increase the calculated values based on Um = ρC(Tm . and the corresponding melting efficiency is half the value for steel.10 Solve the previous problem. In SI.9 and f2 = 0.33 x 10-6 (660 + 273) 2 = 2.5 Btu/in3 This is about a 27% difference.2): Um = 3.9 x 10-6 kg/mm3)(460 J/kg-C))(1480 .45 in 3 Hm = 41.33 x 10-6 (1480 + 273) 2 = 10.21) + ρHf Um = (7.21) + ρHf Um = (2. and (2) the heat of fusion.4 Btu/in3 This compares with Eq.45 J/mm3 This compares with Eq.11 Btu/lb-°F = 460 J/kg-°C.Tambient) + ρHf .11)(2700 .7 x 10-6 kg/mm3)(395390 J/kg) Um = 2.7 x 10-6 kg/mm3)(900 J/kg-C))(660 .9 x 10-6 kg/mm3)(272123 J/kg) Um = 7.284(0.6 Btu at weld (b) Given f1 = 0.1 Btu at source.4 Btu/in 3 Volume of metal melted V = 0.62 J/mm3 This compares with Eq.

Solution: Um = 1.8 x 0.40 J/mm3 f1 f2 HR = UmAw v HR = Um Aw v/f1 f2 = 5. Tm = 1680°R for aluminum.214 = 70.467 x 10-5 (1680) 2 = 41.2.0 mm/s.07 x 15) = 7.33 x 10-6(1350) 2 = 6. The melting point for the metal to be welded Tm = 1800°F and its melting efficiency f 2 = 0. The metal to be applied is a harder (alloy) grade of steel.33 x 10-6(1000 + 273) 2 = 5. f 2 = 0.95(0. Aw = 22.9 Btu/in 3 v = f1 f2 HR/UmAw = 0.15 mm/s.4(0.6. and Tm = 1000°C for the metal to be welded.9 x 0.16 In a certain welding operation to make a fillet weld. If f 1 = 0. Determine the travel speed at which the welding operation can be accomplished.207 Btu H = 0. If f 1 = 0.14 In a certain welding operation to make a groove weld.18 A surfacing weld is to be applied to a rectangular low carbon steel plate which is 200 mm by 350 mm.07 J/mm3 v = f1 f2 HR/UmAw = 0.214 HR HR = 15/.122 Btu/sec = 7.8.4 Btu/in 3 Hw = 41. and the metal to be welded was aluminum.0 mm2.207/(0.005 in 3. Tm = 1350°K for copper. 30. A thickness of 2. overlapped welding beads running lengthwise on the plate. 30. The operation will be carried out automatically with the beads laid down in one long continuous operation at a travel speed v = 7. If f 1 = 0. but with penetration into the base metal.8 Btu/in 3 v = 15 = f1 f2 HR/UmAw = 0.1 Btu/min.7 in/min.04 in2.5)HR/(88. using welding passes separated by 5 mm. Solution: Um = 3. A continuous fillet weld is to be made with a cross-sectional area Aw = 0.487 Btu HR = 0.17 A spot weld is to be made using an arc welding operation. 30.0 mm.5. Um = 3.95.13 Solve the previous problem except that the metal to be welded is high carbon steel. and Tm = 2000°F for the metal to be welded.005) = 0. Um = 1.85.25)(3000)/(6.9(0.85 x 0. 30. f 2 = 0.33 x 10-6(1650) 2 = 9. Tm = 1650°K for high carbon steel.5)(125)/(74. determine the rate of heat generation that was required at the source to accomplish this weld.Solution: From Table 30. Aw = 0.04) = 16.487/4 = 0. The total volume of (melted) metal forming the weld = 0. the cross-sectional area of the weld = 25. Ignore the 207 . Um = 3.2.5) = 1250 J/s = 1250 W. determine the rate of heat generation required at the welding source to accomplish this weld. The surface will be applied by making a series of parallel.467 x 10-5 (1800 + 460) 2 = 74.5.6)(3000)/(9. determine the rate of heat generation required at the welding source to accomplish this weld.95 and f 2 = 0.0 mm2 and v = 5 mm/sec. Solution: From Table 30.9(0.4 mm/s.2.07 J/mm3 v = f1 f2 HR/UmAw = 0.07 x 25) = 7.025) = 0.0 mm will be added to the plate. Solution: From Table 30. whose melting point is assumed to be the same.31 Btu/min. Solution: Um = 1.40(22)(5)/(0. 30.95 x 0.5) = 0. and the melting efficiency f 2 = 0.467 x 10-5 (2000 + 460) 2 = 88. on average.8(0.15 The power source in a particular welding operation generates 125 Btu/min which is transferred to the work surface with an efficiency f 1 = 0. the total thickness melted during welding = 6.025 in2 and v = 15 in/min.5. 30. and the operation required the arc to be on for 4 sec.5.

Tm = 1760°K for low carbon steel.33 min.32(6 x 5)(7)/(0.2.6. Um = 3.minor complications of the turnarounds at the ends of the plate.000 mm Time to travel at v = 7 mm/s = 14.33 x 10-6(1760) 2 = 10. determine: (a) the rate of heat that must be generated at the welding source. and (b) how long will it take to complete the surfacing operation.6) = 4515 J/s (b) Total length of cut = 350 x (200/5) = 14. 208 .000/7 = 2000 s = 33.32 J/mm3 HR = Um Aw v/f1f2 = 10.8 x 0. Solution: (a) From Table 30. Assuming the heat transfer efficiency = 0.8 and the melting efficiency = 0.

melting occurs at the faying surfaces.7 Why is the heat transfer efficiency greater in arc welding processes that utilize consumable electrodes? Answer. Because the stick electrodes must be changed frequently. 209 . LBW. An electrical arc is a discharge across a gap in a circuit. FCAW. SMAW is an arc welding process that uses a consumable electrode consisting of a filler metal rod coated with chemicals that provide flux and shielding. Answer. In fusion welding. Arc welding. in addition to being the electrode for the process. such as in GMAW. 31.6 What are the two basic methods of arc shielding? Answer.8 Describe the shielded metal arc welding (SMAW) process. 31. (1) Shielding gas. SAW. 31.5 Electrodes in arc welding are divided into two categories. such as tungsten and carbon. or GTAW. the arc is sustained by a thermally ionized column of gas through which the current can flow. in solid state welding. and others. arc time. thermit welding.9 Why is the shielded metal arc welding (SMAW) process difficult to automate? Answer. Review Questions 31.10 Describe submerged arc welding (SAW). and operating factor have in common? Provide a definition of these terms. Answer. It is much easier to automate the feeding of continuous filler wire.1 31. Answer.4 What do the terms arc-on time. and arc shielding is provided by a cover of granular flux. The nonconsumable type are made of materials that resist melting. 31. such as argon and helium." The other category includes EBW.2 WELDING PROCESSES Name the principal groups of processes included in fusion welding. In arc welding. 31.31 31. The consumable type. which covers the welding operation and protects the molten pool from the atmosphere. What is the fundamental feature that distinguishes fusion welding from solid state welding? Answer. which would be difficult to do automatically. Answer. Answer. 31. no melting occurs. consumable bare wire electrode. Consumable and nonconsumable.3 Define what an electrical arc is. The three terms mean the same thing: the proportion of the total time in a shift that the arc is actually on. Answer. Because molten metal from the electrode is transferred across the arc and contributes to the heating of the molten weld pool. 31. oxyfuel welding. also provide filler metal for the welding joint. SAW is an arc welding process that uses a continuous. and "other. resistance welding. Name and define the two types. and (2) flux.

11 Describe electrogas welding (EGW) process and identify its major application. Most prominent in the group is resistance spot welding. in which the current is switched on for a brief duration (0. (2) squeeze the parts between the electrodes.21 Laser beam welding and electron beam welding are often compared because they both produce very high power densities. during which the weld nugget solidifies. 31. Answer. either flux-cored wire or bare wire with externally supplied shielding gas. and (5) the electrodes are opened and the parts removed. thus concentrating the energy into a smaller area. What is that disadvantage? Answer. 31. LBM has certain advantages over EBM. Answer. Answer. What are they? 210 .4 sec).12 Why are the temperatures much higher in plasma arc welding than in other AW processes? Answer. PGW is a fusion welding process in which coalescence is obtained over the entire contact surfaces of the two parts by heating them with an appropriate fuel mixture and then applying pressure to bond the surfaces.17 Describe cross-wire welding. low electrical and thermal conductivity. and molding shoes to contain the molten pool.16 What is resistance projection welding? Answer. The steps are: (1) the parts are inserted between electrodes.31. resulting in much higher power densities. 31. High resistivity.1 to 0. 31. Because acetylene and oxygen burn hotter than other oxyfuels. Answer. Because the arc is restricted in diameter. 31. (4) hold. 31. (3) weld. EBW is usually carried out in a vacuum for a high quality weld. The time to draw the vacuum adds significantly to the production cycle time.14 What are the desirable properties of a metal that would provide good weldability for resistance welding? Answer. 31. EGW is an arc welding process that uses a continuous consumable electrode. 31. Cross-wire welding is a form of resistance projection welding used to fabricate welded wire products such as shopping carts and stove grills. and low melting point. 31. RW consists of a group of fusion welding processes that utilize a combination of heat and pressure to accomplish coalescence of the two faying surfaces. the contact points are designed into the geometry of the parts as embossments or projections. Define pressure gas welding.15 Describe the sequence of steps in the cycle of a resistance spot welding operation.19 Why is the oxyacetylene welding process favored over the other oxyfuel welding processes? Answer.13 Define resistance welding. Answer.20 Electron beam welding has a significant disadvantage in high-production applications. RPW is a resistance welding process in which coalescence occurs at one or more relatively small points on the parts.18 31.

moisture.Answer. 31. which includes conventional mechanical tests adapted to weld joints. (5) imperfect shape or contour of weld cross-section. Answer. then the flywheel is disengaged from the drive motor and the parts are forced together. 31. Name the variations. The following measures. (3) whether the base metals are similar or dissimilar (dissimilar base metals are generally more difficult to weld). (5) balance the weld about the neutral axis of the part. Factors affect weldability include: (1) welding process. magnetic particle. so that the kinetic energy of the flywheel is converted to friction heat for the weld. 31. 31.26 What are some of the important welding defects? Answer. It is the actuator which is attached to one of the two parts to be welded with USW and which provides the oscillatory motion that results in coalescence of the two surfaces. and (3) the laser beam can be focused and directed with conventional optical mirrors and lenses. Answer. thermal conductivity. (2) nondestructive evaluation. The three categories are: (1) visual inspection. Answer. and other visible defects.25 Distortion (warpage) is a serious problem in fusion welding. cracks. (4) tack welding at several points along the joint rather than continuous weld. which includes dimensional checks and inspection for warpage. and metallurgical tests.22 There are several modern-day variations of forge welding. (2) presetting of the parts in relative orientations to compensate for warpage. (2) metal properties (e. Describe and distinguish the two types. 31. (8) stress relief of the weldment.28 Identify the factors that affect weldability. when the right temperature is reached. (3) and hot pressure welding. (1) No vacuum chamber is required and (2) no x-rays are emitted in LBM. (1) cracks. the rotating part is connected to a flywheel which is brought up to proper speed. 31. (3) solid inclusions. What are some of the measures that can be taken to reduce the incidence and extent of distortion? Answer. ultrasonic.23 There are two basic types of friction welding. In inertia friction welding.6. coefficient of thermal expansion). (4) surface condition (surfaces should be clean and free of oxides. (2) cavities. can be used to reduce warpage in arc welding: (1) welding fixtures. (6) selecting proper welding conditions.). 31. In continuous-drive friction welding.24 What is a sonotrode in ultrasonic welding? Answer.29 What are some of the design guidelines for weldments that are fabricated by arc welding? 211 .27 What are the three basic categories of inspection and testing techniques used for weldments? Name some typical inspections and/or tests in each category. which includes dye-penetrant. and (3) destructive tests. one part is rotated at a constant speed and forced into contact with the stationary part with a certain force so that friction heat is generated at the interface. explained in the text in Section 29. and radiographic tests. (1) Cold welding. The two types are: (1) continuous-drive friction welding and (2) inertia friction welding. (3) heat sinks. Answer. melting point. 31. (4) incomplete fusion. (7) preheating of base parts. the rotating part is stopped abruptly and the two parts are forced together at forging pressures. and (9) proper design of the weldment to minimize warpage.. and (5) filler metal and its composition relative to the base metals. (2) roll welding. particularly arc welding.g. etc. the original welding process.

31. Answer. For each question. (b) false.3 Which of the following processes are classified as fusion welding (more than one)? (a) diffusion welding. (d) RSW. and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point.6 An electric arc is a discharge of current across a gap in an electrical circuit. not by the transfer of molten metal. To attain a perfect score on the quiz. (b) The arc is sustained. (c) GTAW.5 Which of the following processes are classified as solid state welding (more than one)? (a) CW. (b). and (d) 31. but by the presence of a thermally ionized column of gas through which the current flows. (d) percussion welding. (d) thermit welding. or (d) SMAW. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point. vertical.Answer. The arc is sustained in arc welding processes by the transfer of molten metal across the gap between the electrode and the work: (a) true. (c) LBW. (b) friction welding. Answer. (3) Whenever possible. Machining is sometimes required to achieve satisfactory fit-up. (c) 31.7 Which one of the following arc welding processes uses a nonconsumable electrode? (a) FCAW. (a). Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 27 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct). (a) 31.4 Which of the following processes are classified as solid state welding? (a) friction welding.2 Which of the following processes is/are classified as fusion welding (more than one)? (a) electrogas welding. and (d) OAW. Answer.1 The feature that distinguishes fusion welding processes from solid state welding is that melting of the faying surfaces occurs during fusion welding: (a) true. Answer. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers. Answer.8 MIG welding is a term sometimes applied when referring to which one of the following processes? (a) FCAW. Answer. (c) roll welding. design of the assembly should allow flat welding to be performed. (b) electron beam welding. and (e) upset welding. (b) false. Answer. (a) and (b) 31. The guidelines for weldments by arc welding include: (1) Good fit-up of parts to be welded is important to maintain dimensional control and minimize distortion. all correct answers must be given. or (d) SMAW. (c) explosive welding. (c) pressure gas welding. Answer. (c) GTAW. since each correct answer is worth 1 point. as opposed to horizontal. (2) The design of the assembly must provide access room to allow the welding gun to reach the welding area. (b) GMAW. (a) and (c) 31. (b) GMAW. (b) resistance spot welding. (b) HPW. (c) and (d) 31. (b) 212 . 31. or overhead arc welding positions.

no pressure is used in these processes. are difficult to weld in RW. hence.11 31. Answer. and (e) Resistance welding processes make use of the heat generated by electrical resistance to achieve fusion of the two parts to be joined. Answer. (b) Metals with low resistivities. Answer. Answer. but also the quality of the resulting weld: (a) true. Answer. (b) GMAW. (b) false. or (b) false. (d). (a) Which one of the following arc welding processes produces the highest temperatures? (a) CAW.31. (b). (b) GMAW. (c) GTAW. one of the highest of any metal. Higher resistance is required in the conversion of electrical power to heat energy. The heat readily flows 31.15 Oxyacetylene welding is the most widely used oxyfuel welding process because acetylene mixed with an equal volume of air burns hotter than any other commercially available fuel: (a) true. (b) PAW. and (e) nitrogen. Answer. (c) SAW. or (d) SMAW. (b) Pressure is applied in RW processes and is key to the success of these processes. (d) ultrasonic welding. metals with high resistivity are generally preferable. (b) True that copper has a high thermal conductivity. (b) false. (c) friction welding. such as aluminum and copper. (b) forge welding. (a) and (b) The term weldability takes into account not only the ease with which a welding operation can be performed. or (a) TIG. Answer. (d) Which of the following AW processes uses an electrode consisting of continuous consumable tubing containing flux and other ingredients in its core? (a) FCAW.16 31. (d) hydrogen.18 31. or (d) SMAW.9 "Stick" welding is a term sometimes applied when referring to which one of the following processes? (a) FCAW.19 213 . (b) carbon monoxide.13 31. Answer.14 31. (b) false. (b) Shielding gases used for welding do not include which of the following (more than one)? (a) argon. (c) GTAW. (a) The term "laser" stands for "light actuated system for effective reflection": (a) true. 31. (c) helium. (b) Laser stands for "light amplification by stimulated emission of radiation. (a) Copper is a relatively easy metal to weld because its thermal conductivity is high: (a) true. (b) false. and no filler metal is added: (a) true.12 31. Metals that are easiest to weld in resistance welding are ones that have low resistivities since low resistivity assists in the flow of electrical current: (a) true. but this is one of the main reasons why copper is generally difficult to weld. Answer. Answer." Which of the following solid state welding processes applies heat from an external source (more than one)? (a) diffusion welding.10 31.17 31. Answer. (b) false.

which takes 0.8) + 2.85)(0. Arc time = 5. If filler metal wire of 3.29 pc/hr. which task requires 5.0 = 6.75)(30)(225) = 4303.0 + 1. Solution: (a) HRw = f1f2EI = (0.67 pc/hr.65. The unit melting energy for steel = 10.1 W (b) WVR = (4303.5 min to unload the completed weldment at the end of the cycle.2 J/mm3) = 421.5 = 14.0 mm diameter is added to the operation. the welder is idle (resting).2 J/mm3. Determine: (a) arc time and (b) production rate for this work cell. f 1 = 0.0 minutes and is accomplished by the fitter.into the body of the parts that are to be welded.96 pc/hr FCAW Rp = 60/14. fitter and robot work simultaneously.133 min.0/9. the fitter is idle.0 + 2. the robot welding at one fixture while the fitter unloads and loads at the other. Solution: (a) Fitter: Tc = 5.133 = 33.5 = 5. Solve for: (a) the rate of heat generation at the weld and (b) the volume rate of metal welded.5% (b) Rp = 60/9. they switch places.2 In the previous problem. Problems Arc welding 31.0 + 2.5 + 5. The fitter takes 5. I = 125 amps.5 + 2.75.0 = 35.5 + 2000/400 + (1/5)(5. Arc time = 5.85 and melting efficiency f 2 = 0. Robot: Tc = 2000/400 = 5. The total length of the several weld seams to be made is 2000 mm.3 A shielded metal arc welding operation is performed on steel at E = 30 volts and I = 225 amps. and the travel speed used by the welder averages 400 mm/min.5 = 15. 31.0) = 9.5 min to place the unwelded components into the welding fixture at the beginning of the work cycle. Limiting cycle is the fitter: arc time = 5. (c) What are the production rates for these two cases (weldments completed per hour)? Solution: (a) SMAW cycle time Tc = 5.4 A GTAW operation is performed on stainless steel.0 min. two welding fixtures.3 J/mm3.133 = 3.9 mm3/sec.133 + 2.5 = 5.0 = 4. and the fitter who loads and unloads the parts. While the fitter is working.70.5 + 5. The electrode wire spool must be changed every five workparts. The conditions are: E = 25 volts. suppose an industrial robot cell were installed to replace the welder. and while the welder is working.8 min.5 + 2000/400 + (2000/750)(0. (b) How much improvement in arc time would result if the welder used FCAW (manually operated). The heat transfer efficiency f 1 = 0. 31.0 = 55.0) + 2. Every 750 mm of weld length. 31. and the final weld bead is composed of equal volumes of 214 .1 A SMAW operation is accomplished in a work cell using a fitter and a welder.0/15. and it takes the welder 5.0% (b) FCAW cycle time Tc = 5. and f 2 = 0. and 2. given that the spool of flux-cored weld wire must be changed every five weldments. At the end of each work cycle. the welding stick must be changed. (a) Determine the average arc time in this welding cycle.0/14.0 min.0 min to accomplish the change. The cell consists of the robot (using GMAW instead of SMAW or FCAW). whose unit melting energy Um = 9.0 min. rather than remaining at the localized region where the joint is to be made.5 + (1/5)(5.1 W)/(10.7% (c) SMAW Rp = 60/15. With two fixtures.

54 in/min. If the unit melting energy for the steel = 150 Btu/in3. a typical value for GMAW.877/0. The welding conditions are: E = 25 volts. Rotational speed N = (15. If the travel speed in the operation v = 5 mm/sec.01462)/(0. The rate at which the filler metal is added to the weld is 0. 31.33 x 10-6 (930) 2 = 2. feed rate of filler wire = 153(0.2 in/rev. and heat transfer efficiency is assumed to be f 1 = 0.5)(20)(250)/(2.70)(25)(125) = 9.05 in2.9 for FCAW.57 = 0.12 in 2. Tm = 930°K for aluminum.05 = 17. (a) Find f 2.6 A gas metal arc welding test is performed to determine the value of melting efficiency f2 for a certain metal and operation.9(0. determine the likely value for travel speed v in the operation. Um = 3.76 in/min.2 in/rev) = 0.5 Aw Aw = 1421.9/46.07 = 10. The cross-sectional area of the weld seam = 80 mm2 and the melting efficiency of the aluminum is assumed to be f 2 = 0. using a submerged arc welding operation under automatic control at a voltage of 25 volts and current of 300 amps.5 = 30. I = 125 amps.250 x 0.95(0.9 x 25 x 125) = 0. so 150 Btu/sec = 158. From Table 30. Solution: (a) HRw = f1f2EI = UmAwv 0.41 (b) Given that Aw = 0.250 W v = 0.88 J/mm3 f1f2EI = UmAwv v = f1f2EI/UmAw = 0. = 0.6(5) = 153 mm3/s Filler wire A = πD2/4 = π(3) 2/4 = 7.05 in 2? Solution: (a) f1f2EI = UmAwv Awv = welding volume rate = WVR = (0. The tube is slowly rotated under a stationary welding head. and measurements indicate that the final weld bead consists of 57% filler metal and 43% base metal. The cross-sectional area of the weld bead is 0.7 A continuous weld is to be made around the circumference of a round steel tube of diameter = 6.65(0. using the following conditions: E = 20 volts and I = 250 amps.06967 rev/min. Circumference C = πD = 12 x 6π = 226. The unit melting energy for the metal is known to be 75 Btu/in 3.3(Aw)(5) 1421.125(0. f2 = 0. (b) What is the travel speed if the cross-sectional area of the weld bead = 0. Using tabular data and equations given in this and the preceding chapter.50 in 3/min)/0. and (b) the feed rate (in mm/sec) at which the filler wire must be supplied.07 mm2 At 50% filler metal. determine: (a) the rotational speed of tube and (b) the time required to complete the weld.50)/7.263 in/sec = 15.120) = 0.9 = 46. Solution: (a) f1f2EI = UmAwv v = f1f2EI/UmAw 1 Btu/sec = 1055 J/s = 1055 W.01462 in 3/sec. so 75 Btu/sec = 79.1. f1f2EI = Um(WVR) 1 Btu/sec = 1055 J/s = 1055 W.6 mm2 (b) Aw v = 30.filler and base metal. 31.90.95 and the assumed melting efficiency f 2 = 0. Therefore.5 A flux-cored arc welding operation is performed to butt weld two aluminum plates together.7.76 in/min)/(226. determine: (a) cross-sectional area of the weld bead. The heat transfer efficiency for SAW is f 1 = 0. 215 . v = (WVR)/Aw = 0.2.877 in 3/min.88 x 80) = 9.82 mm/s.7)(25)(300)/(158.5.0 ft. Solution: From Table 31.50 in 3 per minute.125 W f2 = Um(WVR)/ f1EI = 79.77 mm/s 31.

Continuous motion 216 .350 A.454 Btu Weld nugget volume V = πD2d/4 = π(0.0 J/mm3. Assume the resistance = 100 micro-ohms. and (b) the proportion of energy generated that went into formation of the weld nugget. Assume that the resistance = 75 micro-ohms.255 Btu Proportion of heat for welding = 0.02835 = 302 Btu/sec-in2 (b) H = I2Rt = (9500) 2 (100 x 10-6)(0. Resistance welding 31.64 x 106 A2.9 J/mm3)(49.4/405 = 0.0017) = 0. To achieve required strength.0017 in 3 Heat required for melting = UmV = (150 Btu/in 3)(0. it is desired to form a weld nugget that is 6.15) = 405 W-sec = 405 J Weld nugget volume V = πD2d/4 = π(5) 2(2.8 A RSW operation is used to make a series of spot welds between two pieces of aluminum.351 = 35. The unit melting energy for aluminum Um = 2.0 mm thick. the weld duration t = 0.19) 2/4 = 0.060)/4 = 0.554/0. each 2. and that only one-third of the electrical energy generated will be used to form the weld nugget (the rest being dissipated into the work). Process parameters are: current = 9500 A and time duration = 0.35 x 103 = 12.000 amps. How much of the total energy generated is used to form the weld nugget? Solution: H = I2Rt = (5000) 2(75 x 10-6)(0.255/1.1 mm3) = 142. I = 12.02835 in 2 I2R = (9500) 2 (100 x 10-6) = 9025 W 1 Btu/sec = 1055 W.2 in/rev)/(15.5% 31.19 in and thickness = 0.76 in/min) = 14.(b) Time to weld around circumference = C/v = (226. Determine: (a) the average power density in the interface area defined by the weld nugget.2 mm3 Hm = 10(127.17) = 1534 W-sec = 1.10 A resistance spot welding operation is performed on two pieces of 0.15 sec.175 = 17. determine the minimum current level required in this operation. time duration = 0.90 J/mm3.1 mm3 Heat required for melting = UmV = (2.3 sec.0 mm.5)/4 = 49.4 J Proportion of heat for welding =142.454 = 0. This results in a weld nugget of diameter = 0. The resulting weld nugget measures 5. The weld current in the operation is 10.5 mm thick austenitic stainless steel to fabricate a container.000 amps.11 A resistance seam welding operation is performed on two pieces of 2.040 in thick sheet steel (low carbon).0 mm in diameter and 4.060 in.0 mm in diameter by 2. Solution: (a) PD = I2R/A A = πD2/4 = π(0.2) = 1272 J Required heat for the RSW operation H = 1272/(1/3) = 3816 J H = I2Rt = I2(125 x 10-6)(0. The weld duration will be set at 0. The unit melting energy for steel = 150 Btu/in 3. Solution: Hm = UmV V = πD2d/4 = π(6) 2(4.19) 2(0.5)/4 = 127.35 min. Welding current I = 6. so 9025 W = 8.9 The unit melting energy for a certain sheet metal to be spot welded is Um = 10. If it is assumed that the electrical resistance between the surfaces is 125 micro-ohms. The thickness of each of the two sheets to be welded is 3.1% 31.5 mm thick. and the resistance at the interface is 75 micro-ohms.554 Btu/sec PD = 8. 31.5 mm thick.2 sec.17 sec.2) = 25 x 10-6 I2 = 3816 J I2 = 3816/(25 x 10-6) = 152.

3 sec. Um = 3. = 276.29 J/mm3)(84. The power unit driving the process requires an off-time between spot welds of 1. (c) At this higher rotational speed. It is assumed that 1/4 of the energy generated from the power source will be used to form the weld nugget.0) 2(3. The interface resistance increases to 100 micro-ohms.14 mm3 217 . Solution: Hm = UmV V = πD2d/4 = π(4) 2(2)/4 = 25. 31.82 mm3) = 788 J H = I2Rt = (10.29 J/mm3.8 mm/min. Given the conditions from the previous problem. The desired weld nugget size is: diameter = 4 mm and thickness = 2 mm (assume a disc-shaped nugget). Solution: (a) From Table 30.3 sec as in previous problem.000) 2(100 x 10-6)(0. Surface speed of electrode wheel v = 25 mm/1. (c) Power-on time during cycle = 0. Given these conditions. Therefore.0 s. N = v/πD = (1153.33 x 10-6 (1670) 2 = 9.13 An experimental power source for spot welding is designed to deliver current as a ramp function of time: I = 100. the current is stopped abruptly.3) = 3000 J Proportion of heat for welding =788/3000 = 0. (b) Hm = UmV V = πD2d/4 = π(6.836 rev/min. Distance moved per spot weld in order to have contiguous spot welds for the seam = D = 0.3 sec = 19. determine: (a) the unit melting energy of stainless steel using the methods of the previous chapter.3 sec = (0.82 mm3) = 788 J from previous problem.9 mm/min)/(200π mm/rev) = 0.25 in.3 sec)(19. and (b) the rotational speed of the electrode wheels.263 (b) Total cycle time per spot weld = 1.3 + 1.welding is used. with 200 mm diameter electrode wheels. and (c) the rotational speed of the electrode wheels. The individual weld nuggets formed in this RSEW operation have dimensions: diameter = 6 mm and thickness = 3 mm (assume the weld nuggets are disc-shaped).33 x 10-6 (1670) 2 = 9. and might this have the effect of elongating the weld nugget (making it elliptical rather than round)? Solution: (a) Um = 3.8 mm/min)/(200π in/rev) = 1. Determine the power-on time the current must be applied in order to perform this spot welding operation.29 J/mm3)(84. Hm = (9. N = v/πD = (276.23 mm/s = 1153. H = I2Rt = (10. The sheet metal being spot welded is low carbon steel whose unit melting energy = 10 J/mm3. (b) the proportion of energy generated that goes into the formation of each weld nugget. The resistance R = 85 micro-ohms.3 sec = 4.000) 2(75 x 10-6)(0.61 mm/s.441 rev/min. where I = amp and t = sec.77 mm. Tm = 1670°K for austenitic stainless steel. surface speed of electrode wheel v = 6. and the center-to-center separation between weld nuggets is 25 mm. This movement is likely to have the effect of making the weld spot elliptical in shape.000 t. 31. At the end of the power-on time. with the changes noted here. Movement of wheel during 0.3) = 2225 J Proportion of heat for welding =788/2225= 0.82 mm3 Hm = (9.0 = 1. how much does the wheel move during the current on-time.2. determine: (a) the proportion of energy generated that goes into the formation of each weld nugget.29 J/mm3 from previous problem.3 sec.354 (c) Total cycle time per weld = 0.00 mm/1. Distance moved per spot weld = 25 mm as given.0)/4 = 84.23 mm/s) = 5.9 mm/min.12 Suppose in the previous problem that a roll spot welding operation is performed instead of seam welding. These weld nuggets must be contiguous to form a sealed seam.

The weld joint is to be 0.1104 in 2) = 6.0) 2/4 = 63. If 75% of the heat from the flame is concentrated in a circular area on the work surface whose diameter = 0. heat transfer efficiency f 1 = 0. Compute: (a) rate of heat liberated during combustion.08 Btu/sec) = 1. Solution: Power density PD = f1EI/A Power P = f1EI = 0.4/0. Solution: (a) Rate of heat generated by the torch HR = (10 ft3/hr)(1470 Btu/ft3) = 14.35 mm by 3.000t3/3 = 31481.02 Btu/sec)/(0. so that the cross-section of the fused metal is 0.1104 in.94 Btu/sec-in.16 The voltage in an EBW operation = 50 kV and the beam current = 65 milliamp.02 Btu/sec (c) Area of circle in which 75% of heat is concentrated A = πD2/4 = π(0.074 W/mm2 31.5 x 106 J/hr = 7642 J/s (b) Rate of heat received at work surface = f1 HR = 0.0 mm thick.85(50 x 103)(65 x 10-3) = 2762.6 mm2 Power density PD = 0.3 mm in diameter.031943 t = (0. Oxyfuel Welding 31. If accelerating voltage = 25 kV. 218 .317 s.0 J/mm3. and the proportion of heat concentrated in the 9 mm circle is 60% instead of 75 %.14 Suppose in Example 31. (b) rate of heat transferred to the work surface.6/31481.0 W/mm2 31.6 t3 = 1005.3 in the text that the fuel used in the welding operation is MAPP instead of acetylene.17 An electron beam welding operation is to be accomplished to butt weld two sheet metal parts that are 3. and (c) average power density in the circular area. Calculate the average power density in the area in watt/mm2.6 = 18.5 = 0.85.031943) 1/3 = 0.25 = 1005. determine the travel speed at which this weld can be made along the seam.375 in.60(1910)/63.0 mm. H = 850. and melting efficiency f 2 = 0.000R ∫ t2 dt = (105)2(85 x 10-6)t3/3 evaluated between 0 and t.0707 = 39.700 Btu/hr = 4.6 J Power P = ∫ I2R dt = ∫(100.5 W Area A = πD2/4 = π(0.5/0. beam current = 30 milliamp.5 t3 = 1005. The unit melting energy = 5.85. Solution: (a) Rate of heat generated by the torch HR = (0.25(4. The electron beam is focused on a circular area that is 0.3 m3/hr)(91.0707 mm3 PD = 2762.Hm = (10 J/mm3)(25.25.14 mm3) = 251.375) 2/4 = 0.7 x 106 J/m3) = 27. 2 Power density PD = 0. and (c) average power density in the circular area. Heat generated by combustion is transferred to the work surface with an efficiency f1 = 0.35 mm wide. find: (a) rate of heat liberated during combustion.15 An oxyacetylene torch supplies 10 ft3 of acetylene per hour and an equal volume rate of oxygen for an OAW operation on 3/16 in steel.000t)2 R dt = 100.75(1. (b) rate of heat transferred to the work surface. The heat transfer efficiency f 1 = 0.4 J H = 251.75.08 Btu/sec (b) Rate of heat received at work surface = f1 HR = 0.30) 2/4 = 0. 2 Electron beam welding 31.25(7642) = 1910 J/s (c) Area of circle in which 60% of heat is concentrated A = πD2/4 = π(9.

05 mm/s 31.020 in.133/0.0) = 1.000314 in 3 Power P = 0. and the circular area on which the beam is focused has a diameter = 0.90(25 x 103)(100 x 10-3)/1055 = 2.020) 2/4 = 0.18 An electron beam welding operation uses the following process parameters: accelerating voltage = 25 kV. Solution: Power density PD = f1EI/A Area in which beam is focused A = πD2/4 = π(0. If the heat transfer efficiency f 1 = 90%.Solution: Available heat for welding HRw = f1f2EI = UmAwv Travel velocity v = f1f2EI/UmAw Cross sectional area of weld seam Aw = (0. beam current = 100 milliamp. determine the average power density in the area in Btu/sec in 2.133 Btu/sec PD = 2.75)(25 x 103)(30 x 10-3)/(5.05 mm2 v = 0.05) = 91.35)(3.0 x 1.000314 = 6792 Btu/sec-in2 219 .85(0.

Brazing or soldering might be preferred if: (1) the base metals have poor weldability. 32.9 What is dip brazing? Answer. and (5) the high strength of a welded joint is not a requirement. What is capillary action? Answer.7 The molten filler metal in brazing is distributed throughout the joint by capillary action. and (5) protect the joint until solidification occurs. the butting surface areas are increased in various ways such as scarfing or stepping the edges. A brazing flux should do the following: (1) inhibit the formation of oxides and other unwanted byproducts during the brazing. In brazing the filler metal melts at a temperature above 840 degrees F (450 degrees C). (4) joint areas might be inaccessible for welding but brazing or soldering is possible. SOLDERING.8 What are the desirable characteristics of a brazing flux? Answer. In brazed or soldered lap joints.10 Define braze welding. (3) have a low viscosity when melted.32 32.4 Under what circumstances would brazing or soldering be preferred over welding? Answer. (3) production rates might be faster and less expensive than welding. the overlap area is made as large as possible. 32. (2) the components cannot tolerate the higher heat and temperatures of welding. AND ADHESIVE BONDING Review Questions How do brazing and soldering differ from the fusion welding processes? Answer. 32. Certain changes in joint configuration are usually made to improve the strength of brazed joints. 32. Butt and lap joints. The parts to be brazed are dipped into a molten salt or molten metal bath which supplies the heating for the operation. (2) have a low melting temperature. 220 . whereas in solid state welding no filler metal is added. Several of the adaptations are illustrated in the figures of this chapter.5 32.6 What are the two joint types most commonly used in brazing? Answer. It is caused by the adhesive attraction between the liquid molecules and the solid surfaces that define the narrow openings. 32. In brazing and soldering. In butt joints. What are some of these changes? Answer.3 What is the technical difference between brazing and soldering? Answer. (4) be a good wetting agent.2 BRAZING. How do brazing and soldering differ from the solid state welding processes? Answer.1 32. Capillary action is the physical tendency of a liquid to be drawn into a small diameter tube or other narrow openings in spite of the force of gravity. In brazing and soldering filler metal is used. no melting of the base metal(s) occurs. 32. In soldering the filler metal melts at a temperature of 840 degrees F or below. 32.

A structural adhesive is capable of forming a strong permanent joint between strong. What is meant by the term curing? Answer. and (4) the color of the filler metal is often different than the color of the base metals. chemical solvents must be used to remove the flux after the joining operation. Disadvantages and limitations: (1) the strength of the brazed joint is generally less than that of a welded joint. 32.17 What are the disadvantages and drawbacks of soldering? Answer. The functions include: (1) provide heat to the parts.21 Name the three basic categories of commercial adhesives.19 An adhesive must cure in order to bond. and application of pressure. 32. These chemical solvents are hazardous to the environment and to humans. (3) convey solder to the joint. The curing methods include: chemical reaction between two components of the adhesive (e. (2) high service temperatures may weaken a brazed joint. (4) capable of making air-tight and liquid-tight joints. Curing is the chemical reaction in which the adhesive transforms from liquid to solid and in the process forms the surface attachment between the two adherends. 32. rigid components.12 32. 32. Tin and lead. (3) good electrical and thermal conductivity of the joint. (3) part sizes are limited. (2) various heating methods available.15 What is wave soldering? Answer. and (5) ease of repair and rework. 32. epoxies). Wave soldering involves the flow of molten solder onto the underside of a printed circuit board to provide soldered connections between the component leads that project through holes in the boards.20 What are some of the methods used to cure adhesives? Answer. heating of the adhesive.Answer. such as a V-joint. 32. 32. and (4) withdraw excess solder from the joint.g. Why are rosins as soldering fluxes losing favor in industry? Answer. 221 .14 What are the functions served by the bit of a soldering iron in hand soldering? Answer. (2) melt the solder. It differs from a conventional welding operation in that no melting of the base metals occurs. 32. Advantages of soldering: (1) lower heat energy required than brazing or welding.13 What are the two most common alloying metals used in solders? Answer. Braze welding is used for adding braze metal to a more conventional geometry weld joint. use of ultraviolet light. Since natural rosin is insoluble in water. 32. (1) low mechanical strength unless reinforced and (2) elevated service temperatures can weaken the joint.16 List the advantages often attributed to soldering as an industrial joining process? Answer. 32.18 What is meant by the term structural adhesive? Answer.11 What are some of the disadvantages and limitations of brazing? Answer. It differs from the typical brazing operation in that no capillary action occurs..

(5) spraying.). (4) use of flow guns.g.0001 to 0. and (3) synthetic adhesives (e.. (4) certain adhesives are flexible after curing. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point. (6) some adhesives are suited to sealing as well as bonding. (5) low curing temperatures. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers.). (b) stronger than.0025 to 0. (2) fragile parts can be joined. (6) inspection of the bond is difficult.100 in.025 mm (0. (6) automatic dispensers. (b) Scarfing involves a preparation of the two edges to increase surface area for brazing.10 to 0. (3) bonding occurs over entire surface area of joint. collagen). sodium silicate).24 Identify some of the advantages of adhesive bonding compared to alternative joining methods.010 to 0. Answer. (b) 32. (c) 0.250 mm (0. and (7) roll coating.025 to 0.1 In brazing. Special surface preparation is sometimes required immediately prior to application of the adhesive in order to insure cleanliness.). and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point.g. Answer.23 What are some of the methods used to apply adhesives in industrial production operations? Answer.. the base metals melt at temperatures above 840°F (450°C) while in soldering they melt at 840°F (450°C) or below: (a) true. (3) service temperatures are limited. starch.20 in.). and (7) simplified joint design. (4) surfaces to be bonded must be very clean. The surfaces of the adherends must be very clean. 32.. For each question. Methods include: (1) manual brushing. (5) curing times can limit production rates. 32.010 in. (2) the adhesive must be compatible with the adherend materials. thus permitting them to tolerate strains encountered in service. 32. (b) 0. or (b) false.001 in. 222 .0 mm (0.Answer. Answer. or (d) 2. The categories are: (1) natural adhesives (e.2 The strength of a brazed joint is typically which one of the following relative to the filler metal out of which it is made: (a) equal to. (2) inorganic adhesives (e.250 to 2.22 What is an important precondition for the success of an adhesive bonding operation? Answer. all correct answers must be given. To attain a perfect score on the quiz.3 Scarfing in the brazing of a butt joint involves the wrapping of a sheath around the two parts to be joined to contain the molten filler metal during the heating process: (a) true. Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 24 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct). Limitations of adhesive bonding: (1) adhesively bonded joints are generally not as strong as other joining techniques. 32. (b) Neither brazing or soldering involve melting of the base metals. 32. or (b) false. 32.g.25 What are some of the limitations of adhesive bonding? Answer.50 mm (0.similar or dissimilar. (3) silk screening.001 to 0. Advantages of adhesive bonding: (1) applicable to a wide variety of materials . (2) use of manual rollers. 32.4 Clearances between surfaces in brazing are which one of the following: (a) 0.5 to 5. thermoplastic and thermosetting polymers such as epoxies and acrylics). Answer. or (c) weaker than. since each correct answer is worth 1 point.

(d) torch soldering.15 Roughening of the faying surfaces tends to (a) increase.10 A soldering gun is capable of injecting molten solder metal into the joint area: (a) true. Answer. in which a primary chemical bond is formed between the adhesive and the parts being joined. (c) adhesive. Answer. (c) secondary bonding forces between atoms of opposing surfaces. (a) Preferred because it is water-soluble. (b) infrared soldering. or (b) false. or (b) reduce the strength of an adhesively bonded joint because it increases the effective area of the joint and promotes mechanical interlocking. and (e) wave soldering. (b) promote wetting of the surfaces.6 Which of the following soldering methods are not used for brazing (more than one)? (a) dip soldering. Answer.9 Which of the following metals is used in solder alloys (more than one)? (a) antimony. (a). (b) mechanical interlocking. (b) gold. Answer. (c) multiple joints can be brazed simultaneously. and (d) tension. (b) adherent. 32. 32. (c).Answer. (d) stronger joint than welding.12 Weldbonding is an adhesive joining method in which heat is used to melt the adhesive: (a) true. and (c). (c) soldering iron. Answer. (b) less heat and energy required than fusion welding. and (d) surface tension of the fluid adhesive. (a) 32.8 Which type of soldering flux is preferred for electrical and electronics connections? (c) inorganic fluxes such as zinc chloride. (c) water-soluble organic fluxes. or (d) remove or inhibit formation of oxide films. (c) lead. (d) silver. (b) Weldbonding is a combination of adhesive bonding and spot welding. (c) protect the faying surfaces during the process. and (e). which one of the following is the term used for the parts that are joined: (a) adherend. 32. 223 . (c) and (d). (d) adhibit. 32. and (c). 32.5 Which of the following is an advantage of brazing (more than one): (a) dissimilar metals can be joined. (b) The trigger on a soldering gun is used to switch on the electric resistance heating elements. or (e) tin. (b). 32. Answer. Answer. (a) 32. (a). (c) shear. Answer.7 Which one of the following is not a function of a flux in brazing or soldering? (a) chemically etch the surfaces to increase roughness for better adhesion of the filler metal. (c) and (e). (b) 32.14 Which of the following are the mechanisms that operate in adhesive bonding (more than one)? (a) chemical bonding.13 Adhesively bonded joints are strongest under which type of stresses (pick two best answers): (a) cleavage. (b) natural rosin fluxes. (b) peeling. (a).11 In adhesive bonding. (b). (d). Answer. 32. Answer. 32. or (b) false. (e) ad infinitum.

(a) 224 .Answer.

7 What are the three ways in which a threaded fastener can fail during tightening? Answer. (2) stripping of the internal fastener threads. A stud is an externally threaded fastener that does not have the usual head possessed by a bolt. it expands to cause an interference fit with its mating part.4 What is a stud (in the context of threaded fasteners)? Answer. 33.2 What are some of the reasons why assemblies must be sometimes disassembled? Answer. (2) no tooling is required. etc.1 MECHANICAL ASSEMBLY How does mechanical assembly differ from the other methods of assembly discussed in previous chapters (e.33 33. Also. 225 .10 What are the advantages of snap fitting? Answer.. the outside part is expanded by heating to fit over the mating component. or (3) excessive tensile load on the cross-sectional area of the bolt or screw. Both are externally threaded fasteners. In an expansion fit. and to make adjustments. 33.9 What is the difference between a shrink fit and expansion fit in assembly? Answer. the internal part is cooled so that it can be readily inserted into the mating component. brazing. 33. and then advancing the fastener by a specified additional amount of turn. welding. 33. 33. to replace worn-out components. In a shrink fit. For maintenance and repair service. Answer.8 What is a rivet? Answer.)? Answer.3 What is the technical difference between a screw and a bolt? Answer. Then cooling causes an interference fit with the component. upon warming to room temperature. Review Questions 33. Mechanical assembly uses a mechanical fastening method for joining two (or more) parts. many of the mechanical fastening methods allow for disassembly . 33. 33.not possible with welding and brazing. Torque-turn tightening involves the tightening of the threaded fastener to a certain low torque level. 33. whereas a bolt is assembled using a nut. (1) Stripping of the bolt or screw threads. Proof strength can be defined as the maximum tensile stress that an externally threaded fastener can sustain without permanent deformation. and (3) the parts can be designed with self-aligning features. A rivet is an unthreaded headed pin used to join two parts by inserting the pin through holes in the parts and deforming the unheaded portion over the opposite side. (1) The method is fast. A screw is generally assembled into a blind threaded hole. Then.5 What is torque-turn tightening? Answer.g.6 Define proof strength as the term applies in threaded fasteners.

(b) snap fit. frustrating assembly workers or jamming automatic feeders. Some of the general principles and guidelines in design for assembly include: (1) Use the fewest number of parts possible to reduce the amount of assembly required.g. and similar fastening mechanisms that can be accomplished more rapidly. or (d) torque wrench. For each question. Poor quality components cause jams in feeding and assembly mechanisms that result in downtime. instead use snap fits. Answer..12 What are integral fasteners? Answer. holes. or (b) machining. In stapling. The preferred practice for automated assembly is to separate the operations at different stations rather than to simultaneously handle and fasten multiple components at the same workstation. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers. Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 18 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct). the number of directions in which new components are added to the existing subassembly. integral fasteners. retaining rings. Riley [11] suggests that each module or subassembly to be produced on a single assembly system has a maximum of 12 or 13 parts and should be designed around a base part to which other components are added. (4) Reduce parts orientation difficulties by designing parts to be symmetrical and minimizing the number of asymmetric features.11 What is the difference between industrial stitching and stapling? Answer. and curls are more likely to become entangled in parts bins. (c) stall-motor wrenches. and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point. Use threaded fasteners only where justified. all correct answers must be given. Some of the principles and guidelines that apply specifically to automated assembly include: (1) Use modularity in product design. eliminating the need for threaded fasteners. If all of the components can be added vertically from above. (2) Reduce the need for multiple components to be handled at once. slots. usually from above.33. this is the ideal situation. Answer. Answer. (4) Use only high quality components. 226 . (5) Avoid parts that tangle. where disassembly or adjustment is required.1 Most externally threaded fasteners are produced by: (a) cold forming. Integral fasteners make use of a forming operation on one of the parts to be joined to interlock the components and create a mechanically fastened joint. since each correct answer is worth 1 point. (2) Reduce the number of threaded fasteners required. 33. In stitching the U-shaped fasteners are formed during the assembly process. This allows easier handling and insertion during assembly.13 Identify some of the general principles and guidelines for design for assembly. Parts with hooks. To attain a perfect score on the quiz. (3) Limit the required directions of access. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point.14 Identify some of the general principles and guidelines that apply specifically to automated assembly. e. (5) Use of snap fit assembly.2 Which of the following methods is used for applying the required torque to achieve a desired preload of a threaded fastener (more than one)? (a) sense of feel by a human operator. 33. (a) 33. 33. (3) Standardize fasteners in order to reduce the number of sizes and styles of fasteners required in the product. the fasteners are preformed. 33. Assembly is by simple insertion. that is.

and (c). (a). (b) From the standpoint of assembly cost. (a) 33. All of the other answers go against design-for-assembly principles.4 Which of the following are the common ways in which threaded fasteners fail during tightening (more than one)? (a) excessive pressure applied to the bolt or screw head by the tightening tool (e. In an expansion fit. screwdriver) resulting in failure of the head. or (b) false. and (d) the resulting joint is stronger than with most other assembly methods.Answer. so as to minimize the number of ways the parts will go together. Answer. it is more desirable to use many small threaded fasteners rather than few large ones in order to distribute the stresses more uniformly: (a) true. (b). (d) design parts with asymmetric features to mate with other parts having corresponding (but reverse) features.7 The difference between industrial stitching and stapling is that the U-shaped fasteners are formed during the stitching process while in stapling the fasteners are preformed: (a) true. (c) excessive tensile stresses. (b). 33.. (b) design the product using bolts and nuts wherever possible to allow for disassembly. (c) design with as many different fastener types as possible to achieve maximum flexibility in design. (b) excessive shearing stresses on the threads due to inadequate length of engagement. it is more desirable to use few large threaded fasteners rather than many small ones because the large fasteners are easier to handle and since there are fewer of them. (a). (a) and (e). When brought back to room temperature in either case. (c) the components can be designed with features that facilitate parts mating. Answer. (a). (b) no special tools are required. or (b) false. and (d) no heat affected zone in the base parts. (a) true. 33. Answer. (c). Snap fit joints are not recognized as being stronger than joints produced by other assembly methods.3 Which of the following are reasons for using mechanical assembly (more than one)? (a) ease of assembly. 33. and (d). or (d) stripping of the internal or external threads. 227 . the external part is heated sufficiently to increase its size for assembly.g. Answer. the internal part is cooled to contract it for assembly. 33. and (d) 33. they require less assembly time. and (e) limit the required directions of access when adding components to a base part. an interference fit is formed. Answer. or (b) false. In a shrink fit the external part is heated and then cooled to shrink it onto the internal part. it then expands to form the interference fit.8 From the standpoint of assembly cost. (b) ease of disassembly. (c) in some cases involves a melting of the base parts. (b). (b). whereas in an expansion fit. and (d) 33.9 Which of the following are considered good product design rules for automated assembly (more than one)? (a) design the assembly with the fewest number of components possible. Answer (c) certainly includes the scope of mechanical assembly but it is not a reason for using it. (c).6 The advantages of snap fit assembly include which of the following (more than one)? (a) assembly can be accomplished quickly.5 The difference between a shrink fit and an expansion fit is that in a shrink fit the internal part is cooled to a sufficiently low temperature to reduce its size for assembly. Answer. Answer.

657.5 mm) is to be turned into a threaded hole and tightened to one/half of its proof strength.000 N-mm F = T/CD = 12. Solution: F = T/CD = 125/(0.0. 1/2-13.5 lb.375 .2 x 16) = 3750 N.25π(0.94 N/mm2 = 23. It is to be preloaded to 75% of its proof strength.4) = 15. 16 threads/in) in a certain application should be stressed to its proof stress of 33. 8 threads/in) is currently planned for a certain application. determine the torque that should be applied. 10 threads/in) in an automobile final assembly plant. 33. Solution: As = 0. or 3/4-10. 3/8-16. 33. 5/16-18. As = 0. 33.0.23.22(0.0 in.22.75) = 833.25π(16 . 228 . However. Solution: T = CDF = 0.18. If the torque coefficient C = 0.1 N-mm = 15. Solution: As = 0.000 lb/in 2 (Table 33.0775 in2 F = σAs = 33.99 mm2 σ = 0.7 = 23. this bolt is too large for the size of the components involved. T = CDF = 0.99) = 8698. If the torque coefficient C = 0.375)(2557.25(0. determine the tensile stress on the bolt.9743/16) 2 = 0.4 A 1/2-in diameter screw is to be preloaded to a tension force F = 1000 lb.000 lb/in 2) that could be used to achieve the same preload from the following standard UNC sizes used by the company: 1/4-20. Solution: T = 12 N-m = 12.000 lb/in 2 (see Table 33.0.1).20.5 A torque wrench is used on a 3/4-10 UNC screw (3/4 in nominal diameter. T = CDF = 0. Determine the torque that should be used to tighten the bolt.20. Determine the maximum torque that should be used if C = 0. determine the tension in the bolt. 33.3/0.Problems Threaded Fasteners 33.66 N-m.5) = 240 in-lb. 33.5 N-mm = 0.334 = 2495 lb/in2 33.0.25π(10 .4 N. Determine: (a) the smallest nominal size of an alloy steel bolt (proof strength = 120. Determine the maximum torque that should be used if the torque coefficient C = 0. and (b) compare the torque required to obtain the preload for the original 1-in bolt and the alloy steel bolt selected in part (a) if the torque coefficient in both cases C = 0.9382 x 2) 2 = 156.18(10)(8698. Torque coefficient C = 0.5 screw (10 mm diameter. pitch p = 1.6 The designer has specified that a 3/8-16 UNC low-carbon bolt (3/8 in nominal diameter. which is 300 MPa.1 A 5-mm diameter bolt is to be tightened to produce a preload = 25 N.94 MPa.5 of 300 MPa = 150 MPa = 150 N/mm2 F = σAs = 150(57.7 A 1-8 UNC low carbon steel bolt (diameter = 1. 5/8-11.5) 2 = 57. pitch p = 2 mm) is subjected to a torque of 12 N-m during tightening.7 mm2 σ = 3750/156.3 lb.000/(0.334 in2 σ = 833. If the torque coefficient C = 0.2 A Metric 10 x 1.25.25π(0.1).23(5)(250) = 287.50)(1000) = 110 in-lb.9743/10) 2 = 0.2875 N-m. Solution: T = CDF = 0. A torque of 125 in-lb is generated by the wrench.2 x 0. and a higher strength but smaller bolt would be preferable.75 .0775) = 2557. As = 0.20.000(0.9382 x 1. which is 33.3 A M16x2 bolt (16 mm diameter.

0.1 MPa (b) When Dc = 35 mm.750 in.25π(1.11 The yield strength of a certain metal Y = 50.02) = 120.998 in-lb.992) = 2.25 .000 lb/in2. Use 5/8-11 bolt.5364 in. determine the maximum interference that should be used with this assembly.000 lb/in2 and its modulus of elasticity E = 22 x 106 lb/in2.000 MPa) is press-fitted onto an aluminum shaft.408)(1.000 lb/in2 33.002)(1.132)/(13 x 352) = 277.2(1.5)(552)/ (552 .874 in-lb.0 mm.9743/n) = (0.625 .9743/n) = (0.625)(14. (b) For the original 1-8 bolt.9743/n) 2 = 0.000/2. T = CDF = 0.10)(552 . Possible bolt sizes are: (1) 1/4-20.000 in.752 .0)(14. The nominal inside diameter of the ring is 1.8 A dowel pin made of steel (E = 209. (3) 3/8-16. Solution: Max σe ≤ Y/SF . σ = 120. The gear has a diameter of 55 mm at the base of its teeth.6)(252)/(252 .2)(352)/(352 .0 = 25.132)/(13 x 252) = 234.0 x 1.302)/(30 x 552) = 161.0.02)(252 .1665 in 2 As = 0.02)/(1.0.0. It is to be used for the outer ring of a press-fit assembly with a mating shaft made of the same metal.Dp2)/DpDc2 = 209.000(0.75 x 120. (2) 5/16-18.752)/ (1. Determine: the radial (interference) pressure on the assembly. Using a safety factor SF = 2. For the 5/8-11 bolt.500 in.9 A gear made of aluminum (modulus of elasticity E = 69. The modulus of elasticity of steel E = 30 x 106 lb/in2. Try (5): (D .6) 229 .25π = 0.9743/n) 2 (D .0.9743/n) = 0. (5) 5/8-11.75(33.1. The pin has a nominal diameter of 13.9743/20) = 0.000) = 0. > 0.Dp2) = 2(234. (4) 1/2-13.752 -1.9) Eq. pf = 209.000 in and its outside diameter = 2. and (b) the maximum effective stress in the collar at its inside diameter. The outside diameter of the collar is 1.0. (33.0. use Max σe = Y/SF = 50.02 mm.Dp2)/DpDc2 = 69. (b) Determine the effect of increasing the outside diameter of the collar to 35.Dp2) = 2(40.000)(0.4605 in.302) = 460 MPa 33. and (b) the maximum effective stress in the gear at its inside diameter.752) = 40.02)(352 . The collar has an internal diameter = 0.132) = 643.408 lb/in2 (b) Max σe = 2pfDc2/( Dc2 .Dp2) = 2(161. Interference Fits 33.000(0.6057 in2 F = σAs = 0.Dp2) = 25.992) = 1. For the alloy bolt.000(0.Solution: (a) As = 0. The nominal internal diameter of the gear = 30 mm and the interference = 0.0 mm on the radial pressure and the maximum effective stress.132) = 643.6 MPa Max σe = 2pfDc2/( Dc2 .000 MPa) is to be press fitted into a steel collar. (33.1665 in2/0. Solution: (a) pf = Ei(Dc2 . and the collar has an outside diameter = 25.5 MPa (b) Max σe = 2pfDc2/( Dc2 .000 lb/in 2 Max σe = 2pfDc2/(Dc2 .4605 will be sufficient.25π(D . (a) Compute the radial pressure and the maximum effective stress if the interference between the shaft OD and the collar ID is 0. T = CDF = 0.10 A steel collar is press fitted onto a steel shaft.0.0 .992 lb. none of the D values below 0.000 lb/in2 Eq.998 in and the shaft has an outside diameter = 1. Solution: (a) pf = Ei(Dc2 .2013 in.212 in2 (D .1 MPa 33.6057) = 14.2(0.9743/8) 2 = 0. As = F/σ = 14992/(0.0 mm.10 mm. Obviously.2 MPa Max σe = 2(277.1665 in2 = 0.9743/11) = 0.0. Compute: (a) the radial pressure between the shaft and the gear.4605 in. Solution: (a) pf = Ei(Dc2 -Dp2)/DpDc2 = 30 x 106(0. (6) 3/4-10 Try (1): (D .

000(2. pf = σe(Dc2 . Solution: (a) If the clearance = 0. Properties of the pin and collar metal are: coefficient of thermal expansion = 12. 33.174 = 30.7 x 10-6(1.02 mm. and the pin has a diameter = 40.000 in at room temperature is to be shrink fitted onto a steel shaft by heating it to an elevated temperature while the shaft remains at room temperature.20 mm in order to be expansion fitted into a hole.507/1.20/(24.00623 D1 1. If the coefficient of thermal expansion of steel α = 12.52) = 93.7 x 10-6 D1(1000 . For ease of assembly when the collar is heated to an elevated temperature of 1000°F.12 A shaft made of aluminum is 40.70) 1.6° C ° 33.1.00 mm and 40.1.0042 in.500 in. For steel. Solution: D2 .500 + 0. The shaft diameter = 1.007 = 1.70) = 4221 x 10-6 = 0.7 x 10-6 in/in per °F.15 A steel collar whose outside diameter = 3.1. determine the temperature to which the shaft must be cooled.52 . At room temperature (20°C).507 .8 x 10-6(40)(T2 .02 . Solution: (D2 .7 x 10-6 in/in per °F.14 A 1-inch diameter steel pin is to be heated from room temperature (70°F) to 700°F. Determine: (a) the initial inside diameter of the collar at room temperature so that this clearance is satisfied.5) 2 2 2 Rearranging.16 A pin is to be inserted into a collar using an expansion fit.0)(2. E = 30.5 x 3. and modulus of elasticity = 209 GPa.1 x 10-6(30)(500 .13 A steel ring has an inside diameter = 30 mm and an outside diameter = 50 mm at room temperature (21°C).D1 = 0.52 .6 T2 = -201.00623 D1 D1 = 1.007 in.4977 in. 1.500 . then the inside diameter of the collar must be D2 = Dp + 0.00057 in. 33.007 in.21) D2 = 30 + 0.52)/(22 x 106 x (2.04 mm.1 x 10-6 mm/mm per °C.4977 = 0.000.007.21 = -0.52) = 10. determine the increase in diameter of the pin. (b) the radial pressure and (c) maximum effective stress on the resulting interference fit at room temperature (70°F).950)(3.T1) = 6. determine the inside diameter of the ring when heated to 500°C.00623 D1 = 1. i = pf DpDc /E(Dc .950 lb/in2 (c) Max σe = 2(34.02)/ (3.Rearranging.0 mm in diameter at room temperature (21°C).1. (33.507 .200 lb/in2 33.20 = 24. yield strength = 450 MPa. the outer and inner diameters of the collar = 75.D1 = D2 .500(1. respectively.D1) = -0. If the coefficient of thermal expansion of the pin is α = 6.000 lb/in 2 and α = 6.6 + 21 = -180.52)/(1.0 x 10-6 m/m/°C.D1) = αD1(T2 .30 = 12. If it must be reduced in size by 0.00233 in.D1 = 6. pf = 30 x 106 (0.02) = 34.00623 = 1. the clearance between the shaft and the collar is to be 0. (b) Interference i = 1.0)(700 .8 x 10-6 mm/mm per °C.174 mm.00233)(3. The pin is to be reduced in size for assembly into the collar by cooling to a sufficiently low temperature that there is a clearance of 0.Dp ) i = 10.02 .02)/(2 x 2.1.02)) = 0. Solution: (D2 .21) T2 .00 mm. Its coefficient of thermal expansion α = 24. 33.8 x 10-6 x 40) = -201. (a) What is the temperature to which the pin must be cooled 230 ..500 lb/in2 pf = Ei(Dc2 -Dp2)/DpDc2 Eq.Dp2)/2D c2 = 25.507 = D1 + 0.

02 = 12(10-6)(40.9° C ° (b) pf = Ei(Dc2 .04) – 40.07477(109) N/m2 = 74. then SF = Y/( Max σe ) = 450/209 = 2.8(10-6) -60.395.24(10-6) T2 -50.24(10-6) T2 T2 = -104.000(10-6) + 9604.06 = 480.8(10-6) = 480.8 MPa (c) Max σe = 2pfDc2/(Dc2 – Dp2) = 2(74.for assembly? (b) What is the radial pressure at room temperature after assembly? (c) What is the safety factor in the resulting assembly? Solution: (a) D2 – D1 = αD1(T2 – T1) = (40.00 – 0.24(10-6) T2 – 9604.2(10-6) = 480.15 231 .8)(752)/(752 – 402) = 209 MPa If Y = 450 MPa and Max σe = Y/SF.02)(752 – 402)/(40(752) = 0.02)(T2 – 20) -0.Dp2)/DpDc2 pf = 209(109)(0.

Solid ground curing works by curing a photosensitive polymer layer by layer to create a solid model based on CAD geometric data. (2) solid. Answer. Laminated object manufacturing produces a solid physical model by stacking layers of sheet stock that are each cut to an outline corresponding to the cross-sectional shape of a CAD model that has been sliced into layers. Answer. Rapid prototyping consists of a family of fabrication processes developed to make engineering prototypes in minimum possible lead times based on a computer-aided design (CAD) model of the item. all correct answers must be given. Stereolithography. and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required 232 . A long filament of wax or polymer.4 What are the three types of starting materials in rapid prototyping? Answer. To attain a perfect score on the quiz. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point.5 34.8 What is the starting material in fused deposition modeling? Answer. The part build process also distinguishes the different RP technologies. The text describes the common approach as a three step process: (1) Geometric modeling. since each correct answer is worth 1 point. and (3) powders. 34. 34. The layers are bonded one on top of the previous prior to cutting. 34. which consists of modeling the component on a CAD system to define its enclosed volume.2 34. Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 14 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct).3 34.1 What is rapid prototyping? Provide a definition of the term.34 RAPID PROTOTYPING Review Questions 34. Answer.6 Of all of the current rapid prototyping technologies. Describe the RP technology called solid ground curing.7 Describe the RP technology called laminated object manufacturing. For each question. and (3) slicing of the model into layers that approximate the solid geometry. What is the common approach used in all of the material addition technologies to prepare the control instructions for the RP system? Answer. Besides the starting material. 34. the entire layer is exposed to an ultraviolet light source through a mask that is positioned above the surface of the liquid polymer. which one is the most widely used? Answer. (2) tessellation of the geometric model. (1) Liquid. in which the CAD model is converted into a format that approximates its surfaces by facets (triangles or polygons). what other feature distinguishes the rapid prototyping technologies? Answer. Instead of using a scanning laser beam to accomplish the curing of a given layer.

(c) part accuracy.1 A prototype of a tube with a square cross-section is to be fabricated using stereolithography. and (e) stereolithography.10 mm. 34. (d) and (e) 34. (c) selective laser sintering. (b). (b) Examples include small batch sizes of plastic parts that could not be economically injection molded. and (d) Problems 34. Neglect the time for postcuring. and (e) three dimensional printing. (b) fused deposition modeling. (c). (d) solid ground curing. (e) 34. (c) and (e) 34.reduces the score by 1 point. (b) fused deposition modeling. and (f) stereolithography. (c) 34.7 Rapid prototyping technologies are never used to make production parts: (a) true or (b) false. and (f) 34. and (d) part shrinkage. (b) limited material variety. Answer.5 Which one of the following RP technologies uses solid sheet stock as the starting material? (a) ballistic particle manufacturing.2 Which of the following rapid prototyping processes starts with a photosensitive liquid polymer to fabricate a component (more than one)? (a) ballistic particle manufacturing. Answer. (d) solid ground curing. (c) selective laser sintering. and the beam is moved across the surface of the photopolymer at a velocity of 500 mm/s. (b) fused deposition modeling. Answer. The diameter of the laser beam (“spot size”) = 0. 34.8 Which of the following are problems with the current material addition rapid prototyping technologies (more than one)? (a) inability to convert a solid part into layers. Answer. The height of the tube (z-direction) = 80 mm. Answer. (b) fused deposition modeling. (c) laminated object manufacturing. (e) solid ground curing. and one-of-a-kind parts such as bone replacements.25 mm. (c) selective laser sintering. which one is the most widely used? (a) ballistic particle manufacturing. The outside dimension of the square = 100 mm and the inside dimension = 90 mm (wall thickness = 5 mm except at corners). Answer. (e). (a). Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers. and (e) stereolithography. (b) fused deposition modeling. (d) solid ground curing. (d) solid ground curing. Layer thickness = 0.3 Of all of the current material addition rapid prototyping technologies.1 Machining is never used for rapid prototyping because it takes too long: (a) true or (b) false. parts with intricate internal geometries. 34.6 Which of the following RP technologies uses powders as the starting material (more than one)? (a) ballistic particle manufacturing. Answer. 233 . Answer. (b) Desktop milling is the principal material removal technology used for rapid prototyping. if 10 s are lost each layer to lower the height of the platform that holds the part. Compute an estimate for the time required to build the part. and (e) stereolithography.4 Which of the following RP technologies use a liquid as the starting material (more than one)? (a) ballistic particle manufacturing. (c) laminated object manufacturing. (d) selective laser sintering.

Ai = 1002 – 902 = 1900 mm2 Time to complete one layer Ti same for all layers.2 s Number of layers nl = (80 mm)/(0. average area/layer = (256. A delay of 10 s is experienced between each layer to reposition the workhead.0 min = 5.56 mm3 Since thickness t = 0.33 s = 134.66 s 234 . It is known that the diameter of the filament fed into the extruder workhead is 1.133) = 8053.5 A cone-shaped part is to be fabricated using stereolithography.within round-off error. Ti = (1900 mm2)/(0. Solution: Use same basic approach as in stereolithography. the feed rate from the spool is zero.2 + 10 = 25.22 x 500) = 11. and the beam is moved across the surface of the photopolymer at a velocity of 500 mm/s. except using the following additional information.9 s = 134.133 + 10 = 20.2 + 10 = 25. The diameter of the laser beam = 0. Ti = (1900 mm2)/(0. Layer thickness is to be 0.160 s = 336. Solution: Cross-sectional area of filament = πD2/4 = 0.227 mm2 Volumetric rate of filament deposition = (1.22 min = 2. if 10 s are lost each layer to lower the height of the platform that holds the part. Ti = (1900 mm2)/(1.25 mm.40 mm.24 hr This is very close to previous calculated value .8 mm2 Average time per layer Ti = 1282.6 mm of length per second while the workhead is depositing material.55 mm3/s Part volume = part cross sectional area x height = Ah A = 1002 – 902 = 1900 mm2 and h = 80 mm.25) 2 = 1.2 s Number of layers nl = (80 mm)/(0.20 mm and the width of the extrudate deposited on the surface of the part = 1. Ai = 1002 – 902 = 1900 mm2 Time to complete one layer Ti same for all layers.133 s Number of layers nl = (80 mm)/(0.000 mm3)/( 37.6 hr 34. Solution: Layer area Ai same for all layers.000 mm3 Tc = (152.25 mm)(150 mm/s)+ 10 s = 10. The layer thickness = 0.20 mm Number of layers nl = 40 mm/(0. Compute an estimate for the time required to build the part.1 is to be fabricated using fused deposition modeling instead of stereolithography. Ai = 1002 – 902 = 1900 mm2 Time to complete one layer Ti same for all layers.6 mm/s) = 37.10 mm/layer) = 800 layers Tc = 800(25.3.25π(1.20 mm/layer) = 400 layers Tc = 400(20.20 mm.13 min = 2.24 hr 34.040 s = 84.313 mm3)/200 = 256. Solution: Volume of cube V = πR2h/3 = π(35) 2(40)/3 = 51.20 mm.1 except that the layer thickness = 0.4 Solve Problem 34.2 Solve Problem 34. Layer area Ai same for all layers. Compute an estimate for the time required to build the part.66 + 10 = 21.3 The part in Problem 34.55 mm3/s) + (400 layers)(10 s delay/layer) = 4047.227 mm)(30.4 hr 34.Solution: Layer area Ai same for all layers.20 mm) = 1282. The radius of the cone at its base = 35 mm and its height = 40 mm. The extruder workhead moves in the x-y plane at a speed of 150 mm/s.25 mm)(500 mm/s)+ 10 s = 15.94 + 4000 = 8047. Between layers.56 mm3)/(0. Neglect postcuring time. and the filament is fed into the workhead from its spool at a rate of 30.40 mm/layer) = 200 layers Tc = 200(25.8/(0.22 mm.2) = 20.0 min = 1.20 mm/layer) = 200 layers Average volume per layer Vi= (51. 34.25 mm. Part volume V = 1900(80) = 152.313 mm3 Layer thickness t = 0.25 mm)(500 mm/s)+ 10 s = 15.2) = 5.

circumference C = (29.70 + 10 = 19.5) = 4864.0 – 56.7 Stereolithography is to be used to build the part in Figure 34.20 mm.57 hr. The laser beam can cut the sheet stock at a velocity of 500 mm/s.2) = 525 layers (3) nl3 = (10 mm)/(0. 34.37 + 10 = 22.7 mm2)/(0.5 – 0.9 + 113.25 x 500) + 10 = 38.1 mm Average time to cut a layer Ti = (146.20 mm.25 x 500) + 10 = 12. outside diameter = 75 mm.92 s (2) Ti2 = (1212. if 10 s are lost each layer to lower the height of the platform that holds the part and advance the sheet stock in preparation for the next layer. Neglect postcuring time.5 – 0.2 mm2)/(0.92) + 525(19.6 + 113.37) Tc = 13. and the beam can be moved across the surface of the photopolymer at = 500 mm/s. The thickness at the base of the cup is 10 mm. if 10 s are lost each layer to lower the height of the platform that holds the part. which is 10 mm thick and consists of the cup ring.2 mm/layer) = 50 layers (2) nl2 = (125 – 10 – 10)/(0.7 mm2 Area (3): A3 = π(752 – 652)/4 + π(12) 2/4 + (approximately)(12 x 32.2 mm/layer) = 50 layers Time to complete one layers for each of the three shapes: (1) Ti1 = (4864. Let us compute the areas of the three shapes. Area (1): A1 = π(75) 2/4 + π(12) 2/4 + (approximately)(12 x 32.1 mm)/(500 mm/s) + 10 s = 0. For a cone.292) = 2058.20 hr. handle.22 mm2/layer Since layer thickness t = 0.5 is to be built using laminated object manufacturing.5 mm2 Area (2): A2 = π(752 – 652)/4 + π(12) 2/4 = 1099. and (3) top of cup. which is 10 mm thick and includes the handle and handle bar.5) = 1546.1 + (390.6 +113. Compute an estimate for the time required to build the part.5π(12) 2/4) A3 = 1099.4 s = 34.1 + (390. Layer thickness = 0.5 = 5844. handle diameter = 12 mm.1 = 1212.22 mm2)/(0.907 s + 231.2 mm2 Number of layers for each area: (1) nl1 = (10 mm)/(0. Ignore cutting of the cross-hatched areas outside of the part since the cone should readily drop out of the stack owing to its geometry. 235 .1 (in text). Solution: For LOM.66 s) = 4332.25 x 500) + 10 = 9.292 s Number of layers nl = 40/0. 34. Compute an estimate of the time required to build the part. the total surface area (not including the base) = πR(R2 + h2)0.5 mm2)/(0. The laser beam diameter = 0.2 mm2 Average surface area per layer = (5844.6 The cone-shaped part in Problem 34.5 A = π(35)(352 + 40)0. Layer thickness = 0. and handle bar.78 min = 3.20 mm.20 = 200 layers Tc = 200(10.92 + 10 = 48.0 – 56.292 + 10 = 10.3 min = 0.70) + 50(22.86 hr.Cycle time Tc = 200(21.2 min = 1.2 mm2)/(200 layers) = 29.20 mm) = 146. Solution: The part can be sliced into cross sections that have one of three basic shapes: (1) base.5π(12) 2/4) A1 = 4417.25 mm. The handle bars connecting the cup and handle at the top and bottom of the part have a rectangular cross-section and are 10 mm thick and 12 mm wide.70 s (3) Ti3 = (1546.37 s Total time for all layers Tc = 50(48. Dimensions of the part are: height = 125 mm. which is the outline to be cut by the laser beam.4 s = 72. handle distance from cup = 70 mm measured from center (axis) of cup to center of handle. (2) cup ring and handle. inside diameter = 65 mm. we need the circumference of each layer.

5 What is a clean room and explain the classification system by which clean rooms are rated? Answer. (2) IC fabrication. in which the wafers are tested. The planar process refers to the fabrication of an IC chip by a sequence of layering processes . and processing equipment (wear particles. Answer. altering. the sensitivity causes either an increase or a decrease in solubility of the polymer to certain chemicals.5 microns or greater per cubic foot of air.9 What is a photoresist? Answer. and gallium arsenide. to produce very pure silicon and shape it into wafers. 35. diodes.g. It is the Czocralski process. The three stages are: (1) silicon processing.8 Answer. A photoresist is a polymer that is sensitive to light radiation in a certain wavelength range. A clean room is a room or rooms where the air is purified to reduce airborne particles. transistors.3 Describe the planar process. What are the alternatives to photolithography in IC processing? 35. X-ray lithography.4 What are the three major stages in the production of silicon-based integrated circuits? Answer. 35. and hair). 35. and dirt).10 Why is ultraviolet light favored over visible light in photolithography? 236 . a class 100 clean room contains 100 or fewer particles of size 0.7 What is the name of the process most commonly used to grow single crystal ingots of silicon for semiconductor processing? Answer.5 microns per cubic foot. viruses.adding. cigarette smoke. For example.35 35.6 What are some of the significant sources of contaminants in IC processing? Answer. An integrated circuit is a collection of electronic devices (e. Review Questions 35. and removing layers to create the devices and their intraconnection on the IC chip. The classification system indicates the quantity of particles of size 0. germanium. 35. and (3) IC packaging. Important semiconductor materials include silicon (most important).1 PROCESSING OF INTEGRATED CIRCUITS What is an integrated circuit? Answer. altered. Alternatives to photolithography are: electron lithography.. 35. and the chips are encapsulated in a package. cut into chips. resistors) that have been fabricated and electrically intraconnected onto the surface of a small flat chip of semiconductor material. and ion lithography. 35. in which layers are added. and removed in selected regions to form electronic devices on the face of the wafer. Sources of contaminants include humans (bacteria. 35.2 Name some of the important semiconductor materials? Answer. oil.

17 Name the two categories of component mounting to a printed circuit board. Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 17 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct). (c) 35. For each question. (c) 1 million. (d) package. Rent's Rule indicates the number of input/output terminals nio required for an integrated circuit of a given number of internal circuits nc. an IC package with two rows of terminals on each side of a rectangular body containing the IC chip.11 Name the three exposure techniques in photolithography. Answer. The three exposure techniques are: (1) contact printing. 35. (b) 10. Epitaxial deposition involves growth of a crystalline structure on the surface of a substrate which is an extension of the substrate's structure. adding a solid lid to complete the package. DIP stands for dual in-line package. What is a DIP? Answer.16 35. Define epitaxial deposition. all correct answers must be given. where C and m are constants for a certain circuit type. and (3) projection printing. since each correct answer is worth 1 point.12 35. a premolded package is one in which an enclosure is molded beforehand. Answer. 35. 35. and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point. Design functions of IC packaging include: provide electrical connections to external circuits. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers. the Rent's Rule equation is: nio = C ncm. and the chip and leadframe are then attached to it. Because it has a shorter wavelength. (2) proximity printing. Answer. 237 . (c) die.1 How many electronic devices would be contained in an IC chip in order for it to be classified in the VLSI category? (a) 1000. The two types are: (1) through-hole mounting and (2) surface mount technology. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point. To attain a perfect score on the quiz.Answer. SiO 2 is grown on the surface of the Si wafer.2 An alternative name for chip in semiconductor processing is which one of the following (one answer)? (a) component. or (e) wafer.13 What layer material is produced by thermal oxidation in IC fabrication? Answer. encase chip for protection. (b) device. 35. Answer.18 What is the difference between postmolding and premolding in plastic IC chip packaging? Answer. or (d) 100 million. the transferred images are sharper. 35.15 What is Rent's Rule? Answer. 35. and heat dissipation. 35. Postmolding refers to the use of transfer molding of epoxy around the chip and leadframe to form the package.14 What are some of the important design functions of IC packaging? Answer.000.

Answer. (b) arsenic. (e) plasma etching.3 Which one of the following is the source of silicon for semiconductor processing? (a) pure Si in nature. (c) gold. (b) and (c). (e) plasma etching. or (e) X-ray. (b) incandescent light. (d) epoxies. (b) and (d). (d) 35. a positive resist becomes which of the following? (a) less soluble or (b) more soluble to the chemical developing fluid. (d) nitrogen. (e) silicon. or (g) wet etching. (e) silicon.11 Which of the following are the two principal packaging materials used in IC packaging? (a) aluminum. or (f) potassium.7 Which of the following are doping processes in IC fabrication (more than one)? (a) chemical vapor deposition.12 Which of the following metals are commonly used for wire bonding of chip pads to the lead frame (two best answers)? (a) aluminum.10 Which etching process produces the more anisotropic etch in IC fabrication? (a) plasma etching. (c) ion implantation. (d) nickel. (b) SiC. 35. (c) gold. (a) and (c). Answer. Answer. (e) phosphorous. or (f) silver. (d) ultraviolet light.5 After exposure to light. (d) nickel. Answer. or (g) wet etching. 35. or (b) wet chemical etching. Problems Silicon Processing and IC Fabrication 35. (d) physical vapor deposition. (b) copper.8 Which one of the following impurity elements form electron acceptor (p-type) regions in silicon wafers? (a) antimony. or (f) silver. (a) 35. 35. and (f). Answer.4 Which one of the following is the most common form of radiation used in photolithography? (a) electronic beam radiation. (c) 35. (d). (b) 35. (c) ion implantation. (c) boron. Answer. or (d) SiO 2. The diameter is ground to 100 mm. A 30 mm wide flat is ground on the surface which 238 .6 Which of the following processes are used to add layers of various materials in IC fabrication (more than one)? (a) chemical vapor deposition.1 A single crystal boule of silicon is grown by the Czochralski process to an average diameter of 110 mm with length = 1200 mm. (b) diffusion. (f) thermal oxidation. (a) 35. (c) copper. The seed and tang ends are removed. (d) 35. Answer. (b) diffusion. (a). which reduces the length to 950 mm. Answer. (f) thermal oxidation. Answer. (c) infrared light.9 Which one of the following is the most common metal for intraconnection of devices in a silicon integrated circuit? (a) aluminum. (b) copper. (d) physical vapor deposition. Answer. (b) aluminum oxide. or (e) silicon dioxide. (c) 35. (c) Si3N4.Answer.

As.025 inch thick. The diameter is ground to 4. V2 = πR2L = π(55) 2(950) = 9. Ac = πR2 = π(2. mm3.5R2 sin θ. in 3.As = 7854. D = 110.0378) = 1269. where θ is the angle formed by two radii of the circle and the chord.354.6 → 1144 wafers (c) Area of one wafer Aw = Ac .101 mm3 Proportion wasted = 5.5(60-48) = 6.0) = 43.0.28°.0 mm2 The area of a segment of the circle created by the 30 mm chord As = πR2θ/360 .921/2 = 2.625 inch is ground on the surface the entire length of the ingot.4605) 2 = 19.0128 inch. and As = the area of the segment As created by the flat ground on the cylindrical surface.5R2 sin θ.972 mm3. using an abrasive saw blade whose thickness = 0.25) = πR2h/3 = 0.028.095 = 54. using an abrasive saw blade whose thickness = 0.994 = 5. R = 55) = πR2h/3 = 0.095 mm3 (b) Number of wafers = 950/(0.3 = 7807.295) + 1039.625/4.4. Determine: (a) the original volume of the boule. Assume that the seed and tang portions are conical in shape. 239 .00 in.50 mm.3 mm2 Aw = Ac .2 A silicon boule is grown by the Czochralski process to a diameter of 5.820.46. The seed and tang ends are cut off.4605 in. As = π(50) 2(34.7 mm2 Volume of one wafer Vw = Awt = 7807. and (c) what is the volumetric proportion of silicon in the starting boule that is wasted during processing? Solution: (a) Total volume V = V1 (tang) + V2 (cylinder) + V3 (seed) V1 = V3 = (cone in which h = 0.465.672 in3 (b) Number of wafers = 48.8) = 4.5 = 46.0.715.0 .972) + 9. reducing the effective length to 48.92°.820.52%.8 .333π(5. where θ is the angle formed by two radii of the circle and the chord.082 = 1125. Ac = πR2 = π(50) 2 = 7854.92)/360 . . determine: (a) the original volume of the boule. where Ac = area of the circle of radius R = 4. (b) how many wafers are cut from it.8 → 1269 wafers (c) Area of one wafer Aw = Ac . θ = 34.0128) = 48/(0. Assuming that the seed and tang portions cut off the ends of the starting boule were conical in shape.295 in3. assuming the entire 4 ft length can be sliced. The ingot is then sliced into wafers 0. 0.028.50 + 0.101/9. V2 = πD2L/4 = π(5.5θ = sin-1(15/50) = 17. where Ac = area of the circle of radius R = 50 mm.25 inches and a length of 5 ft.820..025 + 0.333π(55) 2(125) = 395. chord As = πR2θ/360 .921) = 19. The ingot is then sliced into wafers of thickness = 0.25/2) 2(6.As.5θ = sin-1(1.625 in. A primary flat of width 1. 35.082 in 3 V = 2(43.5) = 3903.92 = 761.25) 2(48)/4 = 1039.8 mm3 Volume of 1144 wafers = 1144(3903.33 mm. D = 5.152 mm3 Total V = 2(395.extends from one end to the other. (b) how many wafers are cut from it.152 = 9.0. 0.33) = 1144. and As = the area of the segment As created by the flat ground on the cylindrical surface.465.921 inch (125 mm).0/(0.46°.354. and (c) what is the volumetric proportion of silicon in the starting boule that is wasted during processing? Solution: (a) Volume V = V1 (tang) + V2 (cylinder) + V3 (seed) V1 = V3 = (cone in which h = 0.095 .994 mm3 Volume wasted = 9.5(50) 2 sin 34.7(0.0. assuming the entire 950 mm length can be sliced.0194 in2 The area of a segment of the circle created by the 1.5(1200-950) = 125.

1 = 311 chips 35.672 = 46.56 = 2.672 . The number of lost chips can be estimated by dividing the average chip dimension (assumed to be the length of the side) into the circumference of the circle.25) 2 = 0.053/25 .0372 . Thus.0. if each chip is 0.8691 in 2 Volume of one wafer Vw = Awt = 18.5 A 4. How many square IC chips can be processed within this area.598.0625 . Solution: Processable area A = πD2/4 = π(110) 2/4 = 9503.549. The number of lost chips can be estimated by dividing the average chip dimension (assumed to be the length of the side) into the circumference of the circle.45. Thus. and (c) processable wafer area.3 mm2 Circumference C = πD = 110π = 345.56°. Assume the cut lines (streets) between chips are of negligible width.3 The processable area on a 125 mm diameter wafer is a 110 mm diameter circle.8/5 = 962 .0625 in2 The chips on the periphery of the processable area are lost.5 → 121 chips 240 . our estimated number of chips produced is: n = 10.621 = 527.025) = 0.56)/360 .051/1125. Chip area Ac = (0.3/25 .467 in.θ = 38. Solution: Processable area A = πD2/4 = π(3.3 = 153% increase Note: These results indicate the advantages of increasing wafer size.110 = 852 chips (a) Increase in number of chips = (852 – 311)/311 = 174% increase (b) Increase in wafer diameter = (200 – 125)/125 = 60% increase (c) Increase in processable area = (24.As = 19.8869 = 0.1503 in 2 Aw = Ac .1 .053 .0194 .467/0.1503 = 18. (b) wafer diameter.8691(0.1.4717 in 3 Volume of 1269 wafers = 1269(0.4605) 2(38.25 = 167.65π = 11. 35.65) 2/4 = 10.6 mm Chip area Ac = (5) 2 = 25 mm2 The chips on the periphery of the processable area are lost. only use a wafer size of 200 mm whose processable area is 175 mm in diameter.4717) = 598.0. our estimate of the chips produced is: n = 24. The number of lost chips can be estimated by dividing the average chip dimension (assumed to be the length of the side) into the circumference of the circle. if each chip is 5 mm on a side? All chips must lie completely within the processable area.3)/ 9503.4605) 2 sin 38. compared to the values in the previous problem? Solution: Processable area A = πD2/4 = π(175) 2/4 = 24.9503.345.11.82%.051 in 3 Proportion wasted = 527.4 Solve the previous problem. Assume the cut lines (streets) between chips are of negligible width.8 mm Chip area Ac = (5) 2 = 25 mm2 The chips on the periphery of the processable area are lost.9 = 121.053 mm2 Circumference C = πD = 175π = 549. 35. our estimate of the chips produced is: n = 9503.69.5(2.463/0. How many square IC chips can be fabricated within this area.621 in 3 Volume wasted = 1125.6/5 = 380.4 .25 inch on a side? All chips must lie completely within the processable area.65 inches in diameter. As = π(2. Thus.0 inch wafer has a processable area that is only 3.463 in 2 Circumference C = πD = 3. What is the percent increase in (a) number of chips.

44d Final thickness tf = 0.5) to determine the approximate number of logic gates that could be fabricated in the IC chip for this package.5 = 10.608 in.0625 in2 The chips on the periphery of the processable area are lost.35.4 = 213. Use Rent's Rule (C = 4. if plasma etching is used instead of wet etching. what is the final wafer thickness? Solution: A 3 µm film requires a layer of silicon = 0.7 . If the starting thickness of the wafer was exactly 0. u = d/1.44(3 x 10-3) + 3 x 10-3 = 0.2(0) = 10. resulting in a SiO 2 film that is 3 µm thick.9 In the previous problem.5 = 142.0.400 + 0.608/0.8 It is desired to etch out a region of a silicon dioxide film on the surface of a silicon wafer.3 → 142 input/output pins 35. 241 .400 mm thick.7 The surface of a silicon wafer is thermally oxidized.5 and m = 0.5) = 5.982/0. and (c) a pin grid array with 16 by 16 pins .0625 .667) 2 = 113. and the degree of anisotropy for plasma etching is infinity. What is the percent increase in number of chips compared to the 50% increase in wafer diameter? Solution: Processable area A = πD2/4 = π(4.56(0.5(1000) 0.0 µ m 35.50 inches in diameter. Solution: 48 = 4.0 inches whose processable area is 5. This is a principal motivation for using larger wafer diameters. (b) a square chip carrier with 16 pins on a side .14. Chip area Ac = (0. Thus. 35.2.2. what should be the size of the opening in the mask through which the etchant will operate? Solution: A = d/u = 1.a total of 64 I/O pins. If the degree of anisotropy for the etchant in the process is known to be 1.2 = 3/1. compute the estimated number of devices (logic gates) that could be placed on the chip in the following cases: (a) a DIP with 16 I/O pins on a side . Use Rent's Rule (C = 4.2(2. our estimated of the chips produced is: n = 16.25 = 271. the wafer area increases by 62%.11 A dual-in-line package has a total of 48 leads.5 and m = 0. and the number of chips increases by 76%.0 .5 = 48/4.40168 mm 35. Solution: Rents rule: nio = Cncm = 4. The width of the etched-out area is specified to be 10 µm.6 Solve the previous problem.a total of 256 pins.003) = 0.982 in 2 Circumference C = πD = 4.400 .5 and m = 0.667 nc = (10.10 An integrated circuit used in a microprocessor will contain 1000 logic gates.2 = 2.5).5 nc0.a total of 32 pins. The SiO2 film is 3 µm thick. The number of lost chips can be estimated by dividing the average chip dimension (assumed to be the length of the side) into the circumference of the circle.65) 2/4 = 16. Mask opening size = 10.5(nc)0.0 . u = d/∞ = 0 µm.5) to determine the approximate number of input/output pins required in the package.5 µm.25) 2 = 0. only use a wafer size of 6.65π = 14.58.8 → 113 logic gates 35. Using Rent's Rule (C = 4. Mask opening size = 10. what should be the size of the mask opening? Solution: A = d/u = ∞.3 → 213 chips Note: the wafer diameter increases by about 27%.0 µ m IC Packaging 35.12 It is desired to determine the effect of package style on the number of circuits (logic gates) that can be fabricated onto an IC chip to which the package is assembled.

(35.5 . nc0. (35. crystal-to. how many I/O pins are predicted by: (a) Rent's Rule (C = 6.18 nc = exp(22.4427 ln 4096 = 12 pins.5nio0. nio = 4.14 A static memory device will have a two dimensional array with 64 by 64 cells. The closest possible values are nio = nc = 20 or 21.13 In the Equation for Rent's Rule with C = 4. (1). Using nio in place of nc in Eq.4427 ln nc ln nc = 32/1. find nc if nio = 256.0 nc0.0(4096) 0.15 To produce a 1 megabit memory chip.000.11)? Solution: (a) Rent’s rule: nio = 6. multiprobe yield Ym = 60%.4427 ln (64 x 64) = 1. find nc if nio = 64.0 nc0.5 = 64/4. nc0.0 and m = 0.00816 nio = nc = 20.12 = 6.5.4427 ln (1.967. 35.5 and m = 0.slice yield Ys = 50%.0 = 32/6 = 5. If a starting boule weighs 75 kg.6 → 50 logic gates (b) Using Rent’s rule: nio = 4. 35. Solution: We have two equations and two unknowns: (1) nio = 4.12 = 31.9 → 19 pins.5 ln nio = 0.0 (64 x 64) 0.11): nio = 1.0 (1.Solution: (a) Using Rent’s rule: nio = 4.5 → 31 pins (b) Eq.5 = 32/4.305 memory cells.3 → 16 pins (b) Eq.000) 0. and final test yield Yt = 90%.50408 ln nio = 3.17 Given the following: crystal yield Yc = 50%.11): nio = 1.143.5 ln nio = ln 4.5 and (2) nio = nc. and (b) the alternative computation method given in Eq.11 nc = 50.3 → 202 logic gates (c) Using Rent’s rule: nio = 4. find nc if nio = 32.333 = 1.5 = 1.12 = 16.12).16 Suppose it is desired to produce a memory device that will be contained in a dual-in-line package with 32 I/O leads.5nc0.5 + 0.5 .11).000) = 19. Compare the number of input/output pins required using (a) Rent's Rule (C = 6.12 = (5.4427 ln nc 32 = 1. Yields in IC Processing 35.333) 1/.89 nc = 3236. and (b) the alternative computation method given in Eq.5 = 7. Solution: (a) Rent’s rule: nio = 6.5(nc)0.3 → 3236 logic gates 35. what is the final weight of silicon that results after final test? 242 . nc0.5 ln nio ln nio . (35.0 and m = 0. (35.12 nc0.0 nc0.0.12 = nio/6. How many memory cells can be contained in the device.5 .22 nc = 202. 35.12 = 6. (35.12).5 = 56.5 = 256/4.5 = 14.728 memory cells (b) Eq.000.0 and m = 0.4427 = 22. as estimated by: (a) Rent's Rule (C = 6. (35.5(nc)0. wafer yield Yw = 70%.11)? Solution: (a) Rent’s rule: nio = 6.333) 8.11): nio = 1.4427 ln nc = 1.294.12 = 6.25.12). and (b) the alternative computation given in Eq.5 ln nio = ln 4.5(nc)0.18) = 4. determine the value of n io and n c at which the number of logic gates equals the number of I/O terminals in the package.333 nc = (5.

0945(75) = 7. (35.314 mm2 = 143.15): Ym = 1/(1 + AD) Processable area A = π(135) 2/4 = 14. 35. If the defects are all assumed to be point defects that are uniformly distributed over the surface (Poisson distribution).75) 2/4 = 17.15). (a) Eq.32) = e-5.027) = e-1.25% of the total wafer area on one side. determine the density of point defects using Bose-Einstein statistics.5)(0.0.00143 defects/cm2.17/118.419 Number of good chips = 0. Determine the number of good chips using: (a) the Boltzmann yield estimate. (35.15): Ym = 1/(1 + AD) = 1/(1 + 51.14D ln 0.70)(0. Eq. Solution: Eq.14 = 0.50)(0. The yield of good chips on this wafer is Ym = 75%.14D -0. The wafers have a nominal diameter of 150 mm with a processable area that is 135 mm in diameter.83 = e-143.72 x 0.15 35. (35. (35. Determine the multiprobe yield using: (a) the Boltzmann yield estimate. Solution: Wafer area A = π(100) 2/4 = 7854 mm2 Chip area A = 0.806D = 1 118.83(1 + 143.14 cm2 0.6525(7854) = 5125 mm2 = 51. and (b) the Bose-Einstein yield estimate.384 = 0. Eq.19 A 5-inch diameter wafer is processed over a circular area that is 4.18633/143.25(0.14).027 defects/cm2. Eq. Solution: Processable area A = π(4.9 → 85 good chips 35.21 In the previous problem.14D D = 0. The density of point defects in the surface area is 0.0945 Wf = YWi = 0. and (b) the Bose-Einstein yield estimate.251(205) = 51.18 A silicon wafer with a nominal diameter of 100 mm is processed to fabricate square chips of 5 mm on a side. what is the density of point defects D? 243 .75 inches in diameter. (35.Solution: Overall yield Y = Yc Ys Yw Ym Yt = (0.09 kg 35. (35.15): Ym = 1/(1 + AD) = 1/(1 + 17.419(205) = 85.83 + 118.83 = 0.14): Ym = e-AD = e-17.14): Ym = e-AD = e-51.0 in 2. Eq.18633 = -143.384 = 0. The area of the processed chips occupies 65.027) = 1/2.72(0. (35.67 = 0.00130 defects/cm2.15).90) = 0.251 Number of good chips = 0.14 cm2 0. 35.25 cm2 Area of one chip Ac = 5 x 5 = 25 mm.14): Ym = e-AD Processable area A = π(135) 2/4 = 14. Number of chips = 5125/25 = 205 chips total.20 The yield of good chips in multiprobe for a certain batch of wafers is 83%. (35.806 = 0.72 in2 (a) Eq.806D = 1 .00344 (b) Eq.4 → 51 good chips (b) Eq.14D) = 0. If the defects are all assumed to be point defects that are uniformly distributed over the surface (Poisson distribution). (35. (35. Eq.32) = 1/6. (35.67 = 0.25 x 0.15).17 D = 0.60)(0.32 defects/in 2. The density of point defects in the surface area is 0.14D) 0. as the method of estimating yield.314 mm2 = 143.83 = 1/(1 + 143. what is their density D? Solution: Eq.22 A silicon wafer has a processable area of 20.14).83 = -143.

244 .14): Ym = e-AD 0.Solution: Eq.01438 defects/in2.2877/20 = 0. (35.75 = e-20D ln 0.75 = -20D -0.2877 = -20D D = 0.

and (2) after the board has been populated with components. The levels are: (0) chip intraconnections. The two methods are: (1) screening.3 What is the difference between a track and a land on a printed circuit board? Answer. (3) environmental protection. 36. and when is it performed in the PCB fabrication sequence? Answer. 36. 36. while a land is a small copper area for electrically attaching components. The principal functions are: (1) power distribution and signal interconnection. (2) component to PCB. (3) PCB to rack or chassis. such as silk screening. 36. (2) double -sided board. as distinguished by the method of attaching components to the board? Answer.1 ELECTRONICS ASSEMBLY AND PACKAGING What are the functions of a well-designed electronics package? Answer.4 Define what a printed circuit board (PCB) is. (1) chip to package.10 What are the two main categories of printed circuit board assemblies. and (4) wiring and cabling inside a cabinet. Answer. 36. A track is a copper conducting path on a PCB. A PCB is a laminated flat panel of insulating material to which electronic components are attached and electrically interconnected.5 Name the three principal types of printed circuit board? Answer. 36. 36.7 36. also known as through-hole technology. and (2) photolithography. (4) heat dissipation. Etching is used to remove copper cladding on the PCB surface to define the tracks and lands of the circuit. A via hole is a hole in the printed circuit board whose sides are plated with copper to serve as a conducting path from one side of a PCB to the other or between intermediate layers in a multilayer board. Review Questions 36.6 What is a via hole in a printed circuit board? Answer. (5) minimize delays in signal transmission. Continuity tests are generally used: (1) after the bare board has been fabricated. 245 . The three types are: (1) single -sided board.9 What is continuity testing.2 Identify the levels of packaging hierarchy in electronics. Continuity testing is an electrical test in which contact probes are brought into contact with track and land areas to insure the existence of electrical conduction paths. The two categories are: (1) pin-in-hole technology. (2) structural support. and (2) surface mount technology.8 What are the two basic resist coating methods for printed circuit boards? Answer. Answer.36 36. and (3) multilayer board. What is etching used for in PCB fabrication? Answer.

11 What are some of the reasons and defects that make rework an integral step in the PCB fabrication sequence? Answer. Advantages of SMT include: (1) smaller components. A terminal block consists of a series of evenly spaced receptacles that allow connection of individual wires or terminals. and (2) pressure connections.13 Identify some of the limitations and disadvantages of surface mount technology? Answer. Crimping involves the mechanical forming of a terminal barrel to form a permanent connection with the stripped end of a conductor wire.12 Identify some of the advantages of surface mount technology over conventional through-hole technology. such as spurious surface capacitances and inductances. 36. Answer. (4) smaller PCBs are possible for the same function. (5) reduced number of holes drilled in the board. and (4) certain types of components are not available in SMT. 246 . A press-fit technology in the context of electrical connections is an interference fit between a terminal pin and the plated hole into which it is inserted. The two methods are: (1) adhesive bonding and wave soldering.14 What are the two methods of component placement and soldering in surface mount technology? Answer. and (2) solder paste and reflow soldering. (2) SMT components are generally more expensive than THT components. testing. (3) inspection. 36. 36.17 Identify the two basic methods of making electrical connections. Define crimping in the context of electrical connections? Answer. 36. A solder paste is a suspension of solder powders in a flux binder. 36. Answer.18 What is press-fit technology in electrical connections? Answer. 36. The two methods are: (1) soldering. Limitations and disadvantages of SMT include: (1) components are more difficult for humans to handle. (2) higher packing densities. and rework are more difficult. The flux binder includes an adhesive that attaches the SMT components to the board surface. 36.19 Define what a terminal block is? Answer.36. Rework is required to correct the following types of defects: (1) replace defective components. 36. (3) repair faulty solder joints.20 What is a pin connector? Answer. (2) insert missing components. and (4) repair of copper film that has lifted from the substrate surface. and (6) certain undesirable electrical effects are reduced. (3) components can be mounted on both sides of the board.15 What is a solder paste? Answer.16 36. The solder constitutes about 85% of the total volume of the paste. A pin connector is a connector with multiple pins or blades that are inserted into the holes of a mating receptacle to establish electrical contact.

or (d) 0. Answer. 36. which of the following technologies results in greater problems during rework? (a) surface mount technology. (b) first. Answer. (d) torch soldering.5 Typical thickness of the copper layer in a printed circuit board is which one of the following? (a) 0. (b) 36. Which of the following is the most common resist type used in the processing of PCBs? (a) negative resists. and (f) polypropylene. 36.6 Photolithography is widely used in PCB fabrication. (d) third. (b) gold. (c) 36. or (d) wiring and cabling connections. (b) 36.010 inch. (c) reflow soldering. (e) polyethylene. Answer. (b) 0. Answer.1 The second level of packaging refers to which one of the following? (a) component to printed circuit board. (d) phenolic.2 Surface mount technology is included within which one of the following levels of packaging? (a) zeroth.3 Card-on-board (COB) packaging refers to which one of the following levels in the electronics packaging hierarchy? (a) zeroth. and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point. (a) and (e). each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point. (d) third. (c) and (d). (c) 0.001 inch. all correct answers must be given. Answer. (c) intraconnections on the chip. (c) second. (c) 36. or (b) electroplating. Answer. (b) E-glass.Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 17 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct). Answer. or (d) tin. since each correct answer is worth 1 point. (b) first. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers. (a) 36.7 Which of the following plating processes has the higher deposition rate in PCB fabrication? (a) electroless plating. 36.100 inch. or (e) fourth. which one of the following is another common metal plated onto a PCB? (a) aluminum. (a) 36. (c) second. or (e) fourth.8 In addition to copper. or (b) through-hole technology. (c) epoxy.4 Which of the following polymeric materials is commonly used as an ingredient in the insulation layer of a printed circuit board (more than one)? (a) copper.0001 inch.10 In general.9 Which of the following are the soldering processes used to attach components to printed circuit boards in through-hole technology (more than one)? (a) hand soldering. or (b) positive resists. Answer. (b) infrared soldering. (d) 36. For each question. (b) IC chip to package. 247 . (c) nickel. and (e) wave soldering. To attain a perfect score on the quiz. Answer.

and (d) sockets. (b). Answer.12 Which of the following electrical connection methods produce a separable connection (more than one): (a) crimping of terminals. (b) and (d) 248 . (c) retaining rings. (b) terminal blocks. or (d) pressure connections. (b) insulation displacement. Answer. and (d) 36. (a) 36.11 Which of the following are methods of forming electrical connections (more than one)? (a) soldering.Answer. (a). (c) press fitting.

1 MICROFABRICATION TECHNOLOGIES Define microelectromechanical system. (3) the technologies for processing silicon are well-established. 37. Surface micromachining refers to the planar structuring of the substrate surface using much more shallow layering processes. Answer: A microelectromechanical system (MEMS) is a miniaturized system consisting of both electronic and mechanical components.2 What is the approximate size scale in microsystem technology? Answer: The size range is 10-6 m to 10-3 m. 249 .6 Why is silicon a desirable work material in microsystem technology? Answer: The reasons given in the text are: (1) the microdevices in MST often include electronic circuits. 37.37 37. 37. good hardness. (2) in addition to its desirable electronic properties.8 What is the difference between bulk micromachining and surface micromachining? Answer: Bulk micromachining refers to a relatively deep wet etching process into a single-crystal silicon substrate (Si wafer). 37.4 What is a hybrid microsensor? Answer: A hybrid microsensor is a sensing element (transducer) combined with electronics components in the same device. so both the circuit and the microdevice can be fabricated in combination on the same substrate. silicon also possesses useful mechanical properties.9 What is meant by the term nanotechnology? Answer: Nanotechnology refers to devices and structures that are even smaller than in microsystems.7 What is meant by the term aspect ratio in microsystem technology? Answer: The aspect ratio is the height-to-width ratio of the features produced in the MST device. 37. owing to their widespread use in microelectronics. more conventional size? Answer: Because less material is used in microsystem products. 37.3 Why is it reasonable to believe that microsystem products would be available at lower costs than products of larger.5 What are some of the basic types of microsystem devices? Answer: The text indicates four classifications: (1) microsensors. 37. (3) microstructures and microcomponents. as well as the associated fabrication processes which involve the control of feature sizes measured on the nanometer (one nm = 10-9 m) scale. typically. and relatively low density. Review Questions 37. (2) microactuators. and (4) use of single-crystal silicon permits the production of physical features to very close tolerances. such as high strength and elasticity. and (4) microsystems and micro-instruments.

(c) 10-9 m to 10-6 m. (e) silicon. (d) potassium hydroxide. (e) precision engineering. Answer: (d). (b)10-6 m to 10-3 m.9 Photofabrication means the same process as photolithography. since each correct answer is worth 1 point. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point. Answer: (a). (c) lithographic applications. 37. (c) driver identification sensors for theft prevention. Answer: (b). 37. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers.8 In the LIGA process. (b) natural light.Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 15 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct). (b) little itty-bitty grinding apparatus. (e) thickness-to-length ratio of the MST device. (b) gold. (c) micromachines. (c) height-to-width ratio of the MST device. For each question.4 The most common work material used in microsystem technology is which one of the following? (a) boron. the letters LIGA stand for which one of the following? (a) let it go already. 37. (e) lithography. and (e). 37. Answer: (a). and alteration. (c) nickel. 37. (e) temperature sensors for cabin climate control. To attain a perfect score on the quiz. 37.1 Microsystem technology includes which of the following (more than one)?(a) LIGA technology. Answer: (a) and (c). (b) height-to-width ratio of the fabricated features. (d). (b). 250 . electrodeposition. and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point. Answer: (a).7 Bulk micromachining refers to a relatively deep wet etching process into a single-crystal silicon substrate: (a) true or (b) false. (d) length-to-width ratio of the fabricated features. grinding. (d) oil pressure sensors.6 Which of the following forms of radiation have wavelengths shorter than the wavelength of ultraviolet light used in photolithography (more than one)? (a) electron beam radiation. 37. and plastic molding.2 The typical range of feature sizes in microsystem technology is which one of the following? (a) 103 m to 10-2 m. (d) lithography. (a) True or (b) false. (b) microelectromechanical systems. (c) X-ray radiation. 37. (d) nanotechnology. and (c).3 Which of the following are current applications of microsystem technology in modern automobiles (more than one)? (a) air-bag release sensors. (b) alcohol blood level sensors. Answer: (e). Answer: (b).5 The aspect ratio in microsystem technology is best defined by which one of the following? (a) degree of anisotropy in etched features. 37. all correct answers must be given.

(c) 10-9 m to 10-6 m. (b)10-6 m to 10-3 m. Photofabrication is an industrial process in which ultraviolet exposure through a pattern mask causes a significant increase in the chemical solubility of an optically clear material. thus permitting a suitable etchant to remove the exposed regions much more rapidly.Answer: (b).10 The typical range of feature sizes in nanotechnology is which one of the following? (a) 10-3 m to 10-2 m. in which resists are used to determine the regions to be etched. 251 . This is not the same as photolithography. 37. Answer: (c).

Answer.2 What is the difference between point-to-point and continuous path in a motion control system? Answer. 38. the motion is from one location in space to the next with no regard for the path taken between starting and final locations.7 Why should the electromechanical system be the limiting factor in control resolution rather than the controller storage register? 252 . (2) machine control unit. It operates under the control of the machine control unit according to the set of instructions contained in the part program. 38. In a closed loop system. It consists of a light source. Answer. The processing equipment accomplishes the sequence of processing steps to transform the starting workpart into a completed part. In incremental positioning. An optical encoder is a sensor for measuring angular position and rotational velocity.3 What is the difference between absolute positioning and incremental positioning? Answer. In continuous path. either directly or through a gear train.6 Explain the operation of an optical encoder.4 What is the difference between an open loop positioning system and a closed loop positioning system? Answer. the slots cause the light source to be seen by the photocell as a series of flashes. The disk is connected. The machine control unit in modern NC technology is a microcomputer which stores the program and executes it by converting each command into actions by the processing equipment. the trajectory of the movement is controlled. each succeeding location is defined relative to the previous location. angular position and rotational speed can be determined. and (3) processing equipment.5 Under what circumstances is a closed loop positioning system preferable to an open loop system? Answer. In absolute positioning. to a rotating shaft whose angular position and velocity are to be measured. The three basic components are: (1) part program. In an open loop system. In point-to-point. a closed loop system is preferred. a photodetector. 38. there is no feedback of the output value. which are converted into an equivalent series of electrical pulses. Each command specifies a position or motion that is to be accomplished by the workhead relative to the processed object. measurements of the output (position) are fed back to verify that it corresponds to the desired input value. 38.1 NUMERICAL CONTROL AND INDUSTRIAL ROBOTICS Review Questions Identify and briefly describe the three basic components of a numerical control system. and a disk containing a series of slots through which the light source can shine to energize the photodetector. the locations are defined relative to the origin of the axis system. The part program is the detailed set of commands to be followed by the processing equipment. one command at a time. As the shaft rotates. By counting the pulses and computing the frequency of the pulse train.38 38. 38. 38. When there is a significant reaction force resisting the motion of the positioning system.

38. Programming is simplified to minimize the amount of training required by the operator. and (6) reduced human error. 38. (2) electronic component insertion. A programmable logic controller (PLC) is a microcomputer-based device that uses programmed instructions to implement logic. timing.10 What are some of the benefits usually cited for NC compared to using manual alternative methods? Answer. (3) simpler fixtures. Manual data input refers to a method of programming in which the machine tool operator accomplishes the programming of the NC machine using a menu-driven procedure. (2) lower manufacturing lead times.15 What is a programmable logic controller? Answer.9 Identify some of the non-machine tool applications of numerical control. 38. In powered leadthrough. Because the control resolution in the controller storage register can be increased simply by increasing the number of bits used to define the axis location. which are then recorded into memory.14 In robot programming. since each correct answer is worth 1 point. a teach pendant which controls the drive motors of the individual joints is used to move the manipulator into the desired joint positions. which are recorded into memory for later execution. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point.8 What is manual data input in NC part programming? Answer.12 38. 38. counting. To attain a perfect score on the quiz. For each question. sequencing. The most common feature is a manipulator (arm) that can be programmed to perform industrial tasks. (5) improved accuracy.productive time. the manipulator is physically moved through the desired sequence of positions. 38.11 What is an industrial robot? Answer. An industrial robot is a programmable machine possessing certain anthropomorphic features. what is the difference between powered leadthrough and manual leadthrough? Answer. They are both positioning systems that can be programmed and reprogrammed.13 How is an industrial robot similar to numerical control? Answer. The applications include: (1) arc welding and resistance welding. and (6) coordinate measuring machines. (4) drafting. and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required 253 . Answer. An end effector is the special tooling that is attached to the robot's wrist to perform a particular application. 38. In manual leadthrough.Answer. (4) greater flexibility. Advantages of NC include: (1) reduced non. A gripper is one form of end effector. Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 13 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct). What is an end effector? Answer. and arithmetic functions to control industrial machinery and processes. (5) tape laying for fiber reinforced polymer composites. all correct answers must be given. (3) electrical wire wrap machines. 38.

5 mm pitch drives a worktable in a NC positioning system. 38. or (e) tool path command in which the tool must Go Right in the next move.5 The arm-and-body of a robot manipulator generally performs which one of the following functions in an application? (a) orientation.7 In robotics. (b) cylindrical coordinates. (d) multiple work shifts. (c). (d) point-to-point command. Answer. (c) hole punching in sheet metal. The worktable is programmed to move a distance of 120 mm from its present position at a travel speed of 300 mm/min. (c) inspection. 38.1 A leadscrew with a 7. or (e) resistance welding. or (b) point-to-point. or (b) positioning. (a) 38. (e) spot welding. Answer. and (e). (c) 38. Answer. or (c) polar coordinates. and (e) task requires mobility. (c) name of the monster in a 1960s Japanese science fiction movie. (b) assembly. spray painting applications are which of the following? (a) continuous path.2 Identify which of the following applications are point-to. (b) control resolution. (a) and (e).4 The APT command GORGT is which of the following (more than one)? (a) continuous path command. (a) 38.reduces the score by 1 point. or (c) repeatability. and (b) what is the required motor speed and pulse rate to achieve the desired table speed? 254 . Answer. Answer. Answer. (b). Determine: (a) how many pulses are required to move the table the specified distance.1 The standard coordinate system for numerical control machine tools is based on which one of the following? (a) Cartesian coordinates. Answer. (c). (b).3 The ability of a positioning system to return to a previously defined location is measured by which one of the following terms? (a) accuracy. 38. (b) hazardous work environment. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers. The leadscrew is powered by a stepping motor which has 250 step angles.point and not continuous path operations (more than one): (a) arc welding. (b) drilling. (c) repetitive work cycle. and (f) turning. (b) 38. (b) geometry statement involving a volume of revolution about a central axis. and (d). (b) 38. (d) milling.6 A SCARA robot is normally associated with which of the following applications (one answer)? (a) arc welding. (d) machine loading and unloading. Answer. Problems Open Loop Positioning Systems 38.8 Which of the following are characteristics of work situations that tend to promote the substitution of a robot in place of a human worker (more than one)? (a) frequent job changeovers.

005) = ± 0.5 CR + 3 σ = 0.5 x 1. Thus.67 Hz 38. (b) accuracy. A worktable is driven by the leadscrew.076 mm.Solution: (a) α = 360/ns = 360/250 = 1.5° np = 360 rg x/pα = 360(5)(10)/(0. 0.668 B ln 2 = ln 16.69315 B = 9. and (b) the required motor speed and pulse rate to achieve the desired table speed.5 mm/rev) = 40 rev/min.25 in/rev) = 80 rev/min. (d) In order for the mechanical errors to be the limiting factor in control resolution in this problem. Its output shaft is directly coupled to leadscrew with pitch = 0. CR2 = L/2B = 500/212 – 1 = 500/4095 = 0.67 Hz 38. The leadscrew has 6 threads/in. fp = vt ns/ 60p = 300(250)/(60 x 7.3 A stepping motor has 200 step angles.016 = 16.03.122 mm.2 Referring to the previous problem. fp = rg fr ns/ 60p = 5(30)(240)/(60 x 0. (b) Accuracy = 0. Determine: (a) number of pulses required to move the table. The worktable driven by the leadscrew must move a distance = 10.122) + 3(0.015 mm.00 in from its present position at a travel speed of 20.4 A stepping motor with 240 step angles is coupled to a leadscrew through a gear reduction of 5:1 (5 rotations of the motor for each rotation of the leadscrew).250 in.0)/(0. and (b) what is the required motor speed and pulse rate to achieve the desired table speed? Solution: (a) α = 360/ns = 360/200 = 1.1667 x 1.667 2B = = 16.5 mm/250 = 0.5) = 72. The table must move a distance of 5. determine: (a) control resolution. 0.8) = 4000 pulses (b) N = vt /p = (20 in/min)/(0.7212 B = 14.00 in at a feed rate of 30. Solution: (a) α = 360/ns = 360/240 = 1.005 mm.5) = 166. (d) What is the minimum number of bits that the binary register should have so that the mechanical drive system becomes the limiting component on control resolution? Solution: (a) CR1 = p/ns = 7.44) = 4000 pulses (b) N = vt /p = (300 mm/min)/(7.8° np = 360x/pα = 360(5.5(0.1667) = 3600 Hz 255 . set CR1 = CR2. and (c) repeatability. The range of the worktable axis is 500 mm. fp = vt ns/ 60p = 20(200)/(60 x 0.03 mm. and there are 12 bits in the binary register used by the digital controller to store the programmed position. CR2} = Max{0.000 pulses (b) N = rg fr /p = 5(30 in/min)/(0.0 in/min.0 in/min.122 mm.44° np = 360x/pα = 360(100)/(7. the mechanical inaccuracies in the open loop positioning system can be described by a normal distribution whose standard deviation = 0.03 = 500/(2B –1) 2B – 1 = 500/0. For the positioning system.1667 in/rev) = 900 rev/min.005) = 0. CR = Max{CR1. (c) Repeatability = ± 3 σ = ± 3(0.122} = 0.025 Use B = 15 bits 38.668 0.25) = 266.25 x 1. Determine: (a) how many pulses are required to move the table the specified distance.

and the gear ratio = 5:1 (5 turns of the motor for each turn of the leadscrew).6° ° (c) fp = vt ns /60p = 35(225)/(60 x 0.5 CR + 0.0008 = 225 step angles (b) α = 360/225 = 1.2/(2 x 0.010 = 0.001 in.015 = 0.5 CR + 0.001 in. leadscrew.0.2/2ns ns = 0. and table connection are characterized by a normal distribution with standard deviation = 0.02 mm.18 in.18) = 729.167 Hz 38.0008 = p/ns = 0. Solution: (a) Accuracy = 0.0. Assume CR = CR1 CR1 = 0. Mechanical errors in the motor. The table must have a linear speed = 35 in/min.005) = 0.5 CR + 3(0.0003 0.0005 = 0.025 .0008 in. leadscrew. leadscrew.5 The drive unit for a positioning table is driven by a leadscrew directly coupled to the output shaft of a stepping motor. and table connection are characterized by a normal distribution with standard deviation = 0.0008 . and table connection are characterized by a normal distribution with standard deviation = 0. gear box.025 = 0. Determine: (a) the minimum number of step angles in the stepping motor.0001 in.5 CR + 3(0.2 in.5 CR CR = 0.001 .025 mm. Solution: (a) Accuracy = 0.015 0. gear box.5 mm. The design specifications require a table speed of 40 in/min and an accuracy = 0. The mechanical errors in the motor.0002) = 0.18/ns ns = 0. and (c) the frequency of the pulse train required to drive the table at the desired speed. Assume CR = CR1 CR1 = 0. The mechanical errors in the motor.0002 in. and (b) the frequency of the pulse train required to drive the table at the desired maximum speed. The specifications are for the table speed to be 25 mm/s over a 600 mm range and for the accuracy to be 0.0008 = 0. The pitch of the leadscrew = 4.5 CR + 3 σ 0.7 The drive unit of a positioning table for a component insertion machine is based on a stepping motor and leadscrew mechanism. and the gear ratio = 2:1 (2 turns of the motor for each turn of the leadscrew).5 CR + 0. Determine: (a) the minimum number of step angles in the stepping motor to achieve the accuracy. The pitch of the leadscrew = 0. and a positioning accuracy = 0.18/0. Determine: (a) the minimum number of step angles in the stepping motor.0004 = 0.5 CR + 3 σ 0.0001) = 0.6 The positioning table for a component insertion machine uses a stepping motor and leadscrew mechanism.67 Hz 38.2) = 667.0006 0.5 CR CR = 0. The pitch of the leadscrew = 0.0006 = 0.001) = 100 step angles (b) fp = rg vt ns /60p = 2(40)(100)/(60 x 0.001 = p/(rg ns ) = 0.38.001 = 0.0.5 CR CR = 0.0003 = 0.5 CR + 3 σ 0. and (b) the frequency of the pulse train required to drive the table at the desired maximum speed. Solution: (a) Accuracy = 0.005 mm.0008 in. Assume CR = CR1 CR1 = p/(rg ns ) 256 .5 CR + 3(0. (b) the associated step angle.

25 = 125 mm Angle A = tan-1(125/75) = 59° vtx = 600 cos 59 = 308. leadscrew. The table must move a distance = 100 mm at a feed rate = 500 mm/min.0 = 1029 rev/min.0 mm.5 = 1250 Hz 38.02) = 45 step angles (b) fp = rg vt ns /p = 5(25)(45)/4.0/(10 x 20) = 0.5/(5 x 0.25 = 75 mm. Rearranging.000 pulses. 38.9 A NC machine tool table is powered by a servomotor.7)/5. 25) to (100.ns = 4.0 mm and provides an axis range = 300. leadscrew. The leadscrew has 6 threads/in and is coupled directly to the motor shaft (gear ratio = 1:1).4 rev/min.10 Same as the previous problem.0 = 617. Solution: (a) x = p np/rg ns . The number of step angles on each stepping motor is 20. ∆y = 150 . Solution: (a) CR1 = p/rgns = 5.11 The worktable of a numerical control machine tool is driven by a closed loop positioning system which consists of a servomotor. (b) fp = rg fr ns /60p = 16(500)(200)/60(5) = 5333.5)/5. 150) ∆x = 100 . fpx = Ny ns /60 = 1029(20)/60 = 343.0 in/min.3 Hz (c) N = rg fr /p = 16 x 500/5 = 1600 rev/min.8 Hz vty = 600 sin 59 = 514.0 Hz Closed Loop Positioning Systems 38. Ny = rgvty/p = 10(514. Solution: (a) x = p np/ns .150)? Ignore acceleration.0 mm and is connected to the motor shaft with a gear ratio of 16:1 (16 turns of the motor for each turn of the leadscrew). 0.3 Hz (c) N = rg fr /p = 16 x 500/5 = 1600 rev/min.5 mm/min. The table has been programmed to move a distance of 7. The optical encoder generates 225 pulses per motor revolution. fpx = Nx ns/60 = 617. (a) What is the control resolution of each axis? (b) What are the required the rotational speeds and corresponding pulse train frequencies of each stepping motor in order to drive the table at 600 mm/min in a straight line from point (25.7 mm/min Nx = rgvtx/p = 10(308. np = xns/p = 100(200)/5 = 4000 pulses.5 in at a feed rate = 20.025 mm CR2 = L/(2B – 1)= 300/(216 – 1) = 300/65. (b) fp = fr ns /60p = 500(200)/60(5) = 333. Determine: (a) the pulse count received by the control system to verify that the table has moved exactly 100 mm. 38. There are 16 bits in each binary register used by the controller to store position data for the two axes.00458} = 0.25) to point (100. The optical encoder is connected directly to the leadscrew and generates 200 pulses/rev of the leadscrew.025.535 = 0. and (b) the pulse rate and (c) motor speed that correspond to the feed rate of 500 mm/min. Rearranging.8 The two axes of an x-y positioning table are each driven by a stepping motor connected to a leadscrew with a 10:1 gear reduction. and optical encoder. np = rg x ns/p = 16(100)(200)/5 = 64. (a) How many pulses are received by the control system to verify that the 257 .025 mm (b) vt = 600 mm/min from (25.4(20)/60 = 205. Each leadscrew has a pitch = 5. The leadscrew has a pitch = 5.00458 mm CR = Max{0. except that the optical encoder is directly coupled to the motor shaft rather than to the leadscrew. and optical encoder.

25 m/s and chip load = 0. Solution: (a) CR = p/ns = 0.2)/12 = 13.13 Solve the previous problem only the servomotor is connected to the leadscrew through a gear box whose reduction ratio = 12:1 (12 revolutions of the motor for each revolution of the leadscrew). Solution: (a) N = (1. The motor rotates at a maximum speed of 800 rev/min. The leadscrew pitch = 4 mm.3 Hz (c) vt = Np = 800(0. (b) fp = N ns /60 = 800(100)/60 = 1333. The leadscrew has 5 threads/in. (b) N = fr /p = (3.1667 = 120 rev/min. Tm = 300/3.978 mm/s. The feedback sensing device is an optical encoder which emits 250 pulses per revolution.25 x 103 mm/s)/(20π mm/rev) = 19.1667 = 10.2/100 = 0. Solution: (a) CR = p/ns = 4/250 = 0. Solution: (a) CR = p/ns = 0.3 Hz (c) vt = N p/rg = 800(0.1667) = 450 Hz (c) N = fr /p = 20/0.33 in/min. Total travel distance = 300 mm in a direction parallel to one of the axes of the worktable.2) = 160 in/min. (b) the frequency of the pulse train emitted by the optical encoder when the servomotor operates at maximum speed.table has moved the programmed distance? What are (b) the pulse rate and (c) motor speed that correspond to the specified feed rate? Solution: (a) x = p np/ns . The optical encoder attached to the leadscrew emits 250 pulses/rev of the leadscrew. 38.Rearranging. and (c) the travel speed of the table at the operating speed of the motor. 258 . Determine: (a) The control resolution of the system. np = xns/p = 7. (b) fp = fr ns /60p = 20(225)/60(0.14 A leadscrew connected to a dc servomotor is the drive system for a positioning table. (b) fp = N ns /60 = 800(100)/60 = 1333.5(225)/0. Cutting speed = 1. Determine: (a) The control resolution of the system.978 mm/s)/(6 mm/rev) = 0.0 mm. expressed in linear travel distance of the table axis. and (c) the travel speed of the table at the maximum rpm of the motor.4 s = 1. The motor operates at a speed = 15 rev/s.15 A milling operation is performed on a NC machining center. The axis uses a dc servomotor whose output shaft is coupled to a leadscrew with pitch = 6.002 in.663 rev/s.016 mm.978 = 75.05 mm.89 rev/s. 38.26 min. The end milling cutter has four teeth and its diameter = 20.125 pulses. (b) the frequency of the pulse train emitted by the optical encoder when the servomotor operates at 14 rev/s. The optical encoder attached to the leadscrew emits 100 pulses/rev of the leadscrew.002 in. (b) fp = N ns = 14(250) = 3500 Hz (c) vt = Np = 14(4) = 56 mm/s 38. expressed in linear travel distance of the table axis.0 mm.2/100 = 0. 38. Determine: (a) feed rate and time to complete the cut.05)(4) = 3. and (b) rotational speed of the motor and the pulse rate of the encoder at the feed rate indicated. fr = N f nt = 19.12 A leadscrew coupled directly to a dc servomotor is used to drive one of the table axes of an NC milling machine.89(0.

7 = 7. To execute a certain programmed instruction. Solution: (a) N = (30 x 103 mm/min)/(16π mm/rev) = 596. Solution: Repeatability = ± 3σ = 0.52 Hz Industrial Robotics 38.62 mm/min)/(6. Determine the minimum number of bits required in the binary register for the axis in the robot's control memory.62 mm/min. ∆x = 1.05)(125)/60 = 125. It is driven by pulley system capable of a mechanical accuracy = 0. The motor is coupled directly to the table leadscrew. fr = N f nt = 596.5 CR = 0.25 mm = 0.1.20 2B – 1 = 750/0.5 CR + 0.0.15 = 0.2) in a straight-line trajectory at a feed rate of 7.0 mm. 1.5 CR + 3 σ = 0.012/(.5 cos 113.5(-0.06 mm.54 min.5) to (1.58 Hz 38. (b) N = fr /p = (71.5 in/min.0. Cutting speed = 30 m/min and chip load = 0.2 .05 rev/min.0 .5.8(0.8 rev/min.5 = 5.94)/60 = 79. 1.25) = 12. Angle A = tan-1(5.15 mm σ = 0.06)(2) = 71.16 An end milling operation is carried out along a straight line path which is 325 mm in length.3. (b) Move from (3. which has 4 threads/in. The end milling cutter has two teeth and its diameter = 16. also (b) the rotational speed of the motor and (c) the frequency of the pulse train emitted by the optical encoder when the desired feed rate is achieved. fp = ns N/60 = 400(11.5) = 113. Determine: (a) feed rate and time to complete the cut. (c) fp = rg ns N/60 = 5(12.15 mm.25 . It is connected to the leadscrew using a 1:5 gear ratio (one turn of the leadscrew converts to 5 turns of the encoder disk).20 = 3750 2B = 3751 259 .17 A dc servomotor is used to drive the x-axis of a NC milling machine table.62 = 4.7 in.7/-2.fp = ns N = 250(0.663) = 165.20 CR = CR2 = L/(2B – 1)= 750/(2B – 1) 750/(2B – 1)= 0.25 mm and repeatability = ±0. The x-axis uses a dc servomotor connected directly to a leadscrew whose pitch = 6.4017) = -3.94 rev/min.15/3 = 0.5) to point (1.0. ∆y = 7.0 mm/rev) = 11.250/(5 x 125) = 0. 7. The optical encoder emits 125 pulses per revolution.5. 7.5 = -2.. Tm = 325/71. An optical encoder is used to provide the feedback measurement.05 mm Accuracy = 0.5 in.15 0.0 mm. the table must be moved from point (3. The feedback sensing device is an optical encoder which emits 400 pulses per revolution. and (b) rotational speed of the motor and the pulse rate of the encoder at the feed rate indicated.2) at fr = 7. Solution: (a) CR = p/rg ns = 0. The cut is in a direction parallel to the x-axis on a NC machining center. Determine: (a) the control resolution of the system for the x-axis.10 CR = 0.012 in/min N = frx /p = (-3.75 Hz 38.5 in/min.0004 in.18 The largest axis of a Cartesian coordinate robot has a total range of 750 mm.7° frx = 7.

The mechanical errors in the system (due to backlash of the leadscrew and the gear reducer) can be represented by a normal distribution with standard deviation = ±0.030 0.5 CR + 0.5 → ns = 13 step angles 38.19 B = 11.25 . Specify the number of step angles that the motor must have in order to meet the accuracy requirement.0338 2B – 1 = 32.20 mm Assume CR = CR1 = p/rg ns ns = p/(rg CR) = 5. Solution: Repeatability = ± 3 σ = ± 3(0.5 CR + 3σ = 0. The mechanical inaccuracies of the joint result in a repeatability error = ±0.030 . The accuracy of the joint-link combination.0131 0.5 CR + 3 σ = 0.22978 38. The pitch of the leadscrew is 5.0005236) = 0.20) = 12. (b) Given CR = 0. total range = 75° Converting this to an arc distance.5 = 0.0005236 rad.05 mm.030° = 2π(0. given the repeatability error.15 mm Accuracy = 0.030 in. The joint must have an accuracy of 0. A stepper motor serves as the drive unit for the linear joint of an industrial robot.725/(2B – 1) = 0.69315 B = 8.15 0.2 B ln 2 = ln 969. the specified accuracy should be possible to achieve.0131 Specified accuracy = 0.0.B ln 2 = ln 3751 0.05) = ± 0.25 mm.2 2B = 969. (a) Show that the specified accuracy can be achieved.0338 in Since CR is positive.87 → 12 bits.20 The designer of a polar configuration robot is considering a portion of the manipulator consisting of a rotational joint connected to its output link.725 in.92 → 10 bits 260 .5 CR + 0.0169 CR = 0. 0. is specified as 0. so there are no additional errors due to deflection.030°.030° of rotation. The motor is attached to a leadscrew through a 2:1 gear reduction (2 turns of the motor for 1 turn of the leadscrew). End-of-link movement = LA where A = angle of movement in radians LA = 25(0.876 B = 9.5 CR = 0.0/(2 x 0.25 mm = 0.2 0.0131 in.725/0.6931 B = 6. range = (2π(75)/360) x 25 = 32.10 CR = 0.0338 = 968.0338 from part (a). The output link is 25 in long and the rotational joint has a range of 75°. expressed as a linear measure at the end of the link which results from rotating the joint.030 = 0. It is assumed that the link is perfectly rigid.15 = 0. (b) Determine the minimum number of bits required in the binary register of the robot's control memory to achieve the specified accuracy. CR = L/(2B – 1) = 0.0131 = 0. Solution: (a) Repeatability = ± 3 σ = ± 0.030)/360 = 0.0. Accuracy = 0.0169/0.5 CR = 0.0338 32.0 mm.5 CR + 0.

multiple machines with mechanized handling. (2) accept changes in schedule. The tests of flexibility are: (1) process different part styles in non-batch mode. GT machine cell designs include: single machines. and sheet metal processing. In GT. A flexible manufacturing system (FMS) is an automated group technology cell consisting of processing stations interconnected by an automated handling system and controlled by a computer. 39. (3) deal gracefully with equipment breakdowns. (3) production control. multiple machines with manual handling.1 GROUP TECHNOLOGY AND FLEXIBLE MANUFACTURING SYSTEMS Review Questions Define group technology? Answer. 39. a composite part is a hypothetical part that includes all of the design and/or manufacturing attributes of a given part family.8 Name some of the FMS software and control functions. 39. and flexible manufacturing systems. Applications include: machining. flexible manufacturing cells. (5) workpart control. Cellular manufacturing involves the production of part families using groups of machines (generally manually operated) to produce a certain part family or a limited set of part families. 39. and (4) accommodate new part style introductions. 39. and (8) general system management.6 What is a flexible manufacturing system? Answer. The concept is useful in designing cells to produce the part family. Answer. 39.39 39. Functions include: (1) NC part programming. Answer. inspection.3 Define cellular manufacturing? Answer.5 Name some of the possible machine cell designs in group technology. 39. (2) NC part program download. Answer. 39.4 What is the composite part concept in group technology? Answer. (4)machine control.9 39. GT is a general approach in which similarities among parts are identified and exploited in design and manufacturing. assembly.10 Identify some of the applications of FMS technology. compared to conventional batch operations? 261 .7 What makes an automated manufacturing system flexible? Answer.2 What is a part family? Answer. What are the advantages of FMS technology. (7) work transport control. (6) tool management. A part family is a collection of parts that are similar in design or manufacturing attributes.

and (4) greater flexibility in production scheduling. or (e) weight of parts processed. (e) part dimensions. For each question. (e) 39. Answer. Answer.Answer. (3) lower manufacturing lead times. in general. (b) four machines.8 Flexible manufacturing systems and cells are generally applied in which one of the following areas? (a) high variety. 39.2 Most parts classification and coding systems are based on which of the following types of part attributes (more than one)? (a) annual production rate.7 Industrial robots can. 39. or (e) route sheets. 39. (e) 262 . (b) A flexible manufacturing system does not normally operate in a batch mode. (d) mass production. most easily handle which of the following part types in a flexible machining system (one best answer)? (a) heavy parts. Answer. (c) manufacturing. Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 12 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct). (d) plastic parts. Advantages include: (1) higher machine utilization. (b) engineering drawings. (b) design. (b) metal parts. (b) 39. Answer. (d) production schedule. (e) medium volume. To attain a perfect score on the quiz. (c). all correct answers must be given. Answer. (b) material handling system. and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point. (d) major process. (c) length-to-diameter ratio. (c) part family. (2) reduced work-in-process. (b) low variety.1 Production flow analysis is a method of identifying part families that uses data from which one of the following sources? (a) bill of materials. and (d) weight. or (c) six machines. Answer. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers. and (f) tolerances. 39. (c) nonrotational parts. (e). (c) low volume. (b) and (c). (b) 39. (c) master schedule. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point. or (e) rotational parts. (e). 39.4 What is the dividing line between a manufacturing cell and a flexible manufacturing system? (a) two machines. Answer. medium variety production. (d) processing equipment. since each correct answer is worth 1 point. Answer. and (f). low volume production.5 A machine capable of producing different part styles in a batch mode of operation qualifies as a flexible manufacturing system: (a) true or (b) false.3 Which of the following are part design attributes that are likely to be included in a parts classification and coding system (more than one)? (a) annual production. (b) batch size.6 The physical layout of a flexible manufacturing system is determined principally by which one of the following? (a) computer system.

9 Which of the following technologies is most closely associated with flexible machining systems (one best answer)? (a) lasers. (d) numerical control. Answer. (d) 263 . (b) machine vision. (c) manual assembly lines.39. or (f) transfer lines.

Answer.5 Identify two fundamental principles on which manual assembly lines are based.1 PRODUCTION LINES What is a production line? Answer. Because all production lines will suffer a certain amount of nonproductive time due to reliability problems. (2) minimize or avoid high inventories of some models while there are stock-outs of other models. in which parts move independently between stations with a stop-and-go action. while a mixed model line produces different products simultaneously. Both lines are used to make multiple product types.2 Distinguish between a batch model production line and a mixed model production line. 40.4 What are some of the limitations of a mixed model line compared to a batch model line? Answer. and (3) getting the right parts to each workstation is more difficult because more parts are involved. 40. Answer. Advantages of the mixed model line include: (1) no downtime between different models. The three work transfer systems are: (1) continuous transfer. 40.40 40. in which parts move on a conveyor at a steady speed. in which parts all move simultaneously from station-to-station with a stop-and-go action. Because the parts are big and/or heavy and cannot be conveniently removed by a human worker.8 Why are parts sometimes fixed to the conveyor in a continuous transfer system in manual assembly? Answer. 264 . Limitations include: (1) line balancing problem is more complex. and (3) work flow principle. The methods include: (1) work units are simply passed by hand along a flat worktable from one station to the next. 40. and (3) pushing the work units along a conveyor between stations. 40. Three principles are described in the text: (1) specialization of labor. (2) scheduling the models is more difficult. also known as division of labor. and (3) production rates can be matched to demand rates for different models. Review Questions 40.6 Describe how manual methods are used to move parts between workstations on a production line. 40. A batch model line produces the different products in batches. and (3) asynchronous transfer. (2) synchronous transfer. with a setup changeover between the products. (2) sometimes collecting them in boxes and then passing the boxes between stations.7 Briefly define the three types of mechanized workpart transfer systems used in production lines. A production line is a sequence of workstations at which individual tasks are accomplished on each work unit as it moves from one station to the next to progressively make the product.3 What are the advantages of the mixed model line for producing different product styles? Answer. 40. Answer. Answer.9 Why must a production line be paced at a rate higher than that required to satisfy the demand for the product? Answer. (2) interchangeable parts.

10 What are the reasons why the number of workstations cannot be determined simply from the ratio Twc/Tc? Answer. Answer. There are many more possible solutions to the line balancing problem in the manual assembly case. and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point. Reasons include: tool changes. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point. (b) limiting value on the sum of element times that can be assigned to a worker or station.. all correct answers must be given.12 Repositioning time on a synchronous transfer line is known by a different name. 40. since each correct answer is worth 1 point. it is the time to move parts from one station to the next. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers. or (c) medium production.11 Why is the line balancing problem different on an automated transfer line than on a manual assembly line? Answer. and gradual normal wear and tear on the equipment. (a) 40. or (d) sequence in which the work elements must be done.2 Manual methods of workpart transfer are probably closest to which one of the following mechanized methods of transfer? (a) asynchronous.14 What are some of the reasons for downtime on a machining transfer line? Answer. (d) 265 . Reasons are: (1) line balancing losses. 40. Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 10 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct).g. so single station cells usually operate at relatively slow production rates. (c) 40. and (3) multiple manning. The repositioning time is called the transfer time. Answer. 40. Answer.1 Batch model lines are most suited to which one of the following production situations? (a) job shop. 40. For each question.13 Why are single station assembly cells generally not suited to high production jobs? Answer. 40. (2) repositioning time during Tc. (b) mass production. machining) involves allocation of (usually) single machining operations to workstations.3 Precedence constraints are best described by which of the following (one best answer)? (a) launching sequence in a mixed model line. or (c) synchronous. (b) continuous. The entire work cycle is performed at one station. Line balancing on a manual assembly line (usually) involves assigning multiple work elements to workers or stations. what is that name? Answer. To attain a perfect score on the quiz. sudden mechanical and electrical failures.40. Line balancing on an automated transfer line (e. (c) order of work stations along the line.

balancing efficiency Eb = 0.9 min. (b) increasing the number of stations n on the line. Assume line efficiency E = 0. (e) requires sensory capability. How many workers are on the line? Solution: Tc = E/Rp = 60(0.78 → 27 workers 266 .5 40. (c).000 units. Desired production rate = 50 units/hr. Answer. (d) pressworking. (d) involves straight-line motions. Answer. Ts = Tc .04 min.06 → 47 workers 40.9/(0. and (b) number of workers required. (d).0/(.09125 min.1 = 1.4 = 33. compute (a) the ideal minimum number of workstations n min.95)/50 = 1.40.5) = 53.0.0. and (f) simple. (c) A dial indexing machine uses which one of the following types of workpart transfer? (a) asynchronous.2 In the previous problem. Answer.4 Which of the following phrases are most appropriate to describe the characteristics of tasks that are performed at automated workstations (more than one)? (a) complex. Work units will be attached to a continuously moving conveyor. w = Min Int ≥ 42. Determine: (a) hourly production rate to meet demand.1 = 0. (a) and (c).5 → 39 stations (b) n = w/M = 47/1. Problems Manual Assembly Lines 40. and (b) the number of workstations required if multiple manning can be used and the estimated manning level is M = 1.1 A manual assembly line is being designed for a product with annual demand = 100.99125 min.97.33 units/hr (b) Tc = E/Rp = 60(.14 min.92 x 0. line efficiency = 95%.93 x 1.14 . (b) consists of multiple work elements. and (c) reducing the average downtime Td.09125 . Repositioning time = 6 sec.0 min. The transfer line is most closely associated with which one of the following types of production operations? (a) assembly.09125 = 38.Tr = 1. 5 shifts/wk.5 hr/shift. Solution: (a) Rp = 100. (b) continuous. 40.99125) = 46.6 → 34 stations 40. Solution: (a) nmin = Min Int ≥ Twc/Tc = 42. w = Min Int ≥ 25. (c) parts passed by hand. (c) machining.0/1. The line will operate 50 wks/year. Work content time = 42.6 40.3 A manual assembly line produces a small appliance whose work content time = 25.7 Answer.04) = 26. Ts = Tc .Tr = 1. or (e) spotwelding.4.000/(50 x 5 x 7. and 7. or (d) synchronous.97)/53.33 = 1.92. and (f). (d) The line efficiency (proportion uptime) on an automated line can be increased by which of the following approaches (more than one)? (a) improving the reliability of each workstation on the line. (b) automotive chassis fabrication. and repositioning time Tr = 6 sec. and balancing efficiency is 93%. (c) involves a single work element.

0 = 0.78125) = 1.15 = 0. and (b) how many workers and (c) stations will be needed on the line? Solution: (a) Tc = E/Rp = 1.8 min. 40.5 x 60/(0. The body shop welds the car bodies using robots. Total work content time to assemble the product = 22.0 x 1.95 .0.5 A final assembly plant for a certain automobile model is to have a capacity of 240.7 A manual assembly line has 17 workstations with one operator per station.0(60)/30 = 2.Tr = Tc .8/(32 x 1.1425 min.90.93 x .0 min/unit (b) Ts = Tc .03 → 28 workers (c) n = 28/1. and (c) repositioning time Tr. (b) number of workers and workstations required in trim-chassis-final if no automated stations are used.85) = 27.63875) = 0. The production rate of the line = 36 units per hour.8) = 1250 workers n = w/M = 1250/2. balancing efficiency = 93%.50 min.5 hours of direct labor content on each car in this department.90)/36 = 1. The plant will operate 50 weeks/yr.40.4 A single model manual assembly line produces a product whose work content time = 48.0 . proportion uptime = 95%.5.15 = 1. Both of these departments are highly automated.000/(50 x 10 x 8) = 60.5 = 18.6 A product whose total work content time = 50 minutes is to be assembled on a manual production line.000 units annually.95 (b) Rp = 256/8 = 32 units/hr Tc = 60(0.6/8. and the paint shop coats the bodies. Determine the balance delay. 5 days/week.9325 (c) Tr = 0. w = Min Int ≥ Twc/EbTs = 50/(1. A synchronous transfer system is used to advance the products from one station to the next.95)/60 = 0.Tr = 2.92 Tc = 0. If 9 seconds will be lost from the cycle time for repositioning. The line has 24 workstations with a manning level M = 1.0 units/hr (b) Tc = E/Rp = 60(0. w = 24(1. and 8.Tr = 0. Proportion uptime E = 0. and the transfer time = 6 seconds.5. This results in an average daily production of 256 units/day.08Tc = 0. Solution: (a) E = 7. two shifts/day. but downtime during the shift reduces actual production time to 7. 267 .0.67 → 19 stations 40.5 = 500 stations 40. Solution: Tc = E/Rp = 60(0. Determine: (a) hourly production rate of the plant. From previous experience with similar products. Ts = Tc .63875 min.9 min.78125) = 0. = 8. (3) trim-chassis-final department.0. w = Min Int ≥ Twc/EbTs = 15. Determine: (a) line efficiency. and a repositioning time of 0. Trim-chassis-final has no automation. it is estimated that the manning level will be close to 1. The workers remain seated along the line.0.08(1. determine: (a) the cycle time.95)/32 = 1. Repositioning time per worker Tr is 8% of cycle time Tc.95 min.92(1. the average manning level is 2.2 minutes. The product has a Available shift time per day = 8 hr. where cars are moved by a continuous conveyor.85 min. Solution: (a) Rp = 240.25. It will be divided into three departments: (1) body shop.55 sec.0 hours/shift.78125 min Ts = Tc . There are 15.15 min is allowed for each worker.6 hr on average.25) = 32 workers Eb = Twc/wTs = 47. The required production rate is 30 units per hour. Assume E = Eb = 1. (b) balancing efficiency. (2) paint shop.

8 A production line with four automatic workstations (the other stations are manual) produces a certain product whose total assembly work content time = 55. Repositioning time per worker is 9 sec.2/(17 x 1.40 min.1 = 1. where the average includes the automatic stations? Solution: (a) Tc = E/Rp = 60(0.941 (d) M = w/n = 34/24 = 1. and uptime efficiency of the line is 95%.2 .0) = 32 workers But with 2 additional workers.0. The production rate on the line is 45 units/hr. of direct manual labor.92 on the manual stations.0. Tc = Ts + Tr = 1..068 min.0) = 0.92(34. one-third of which have two workers.9(1. (a) What is the maximum possible hourly production rate if line is assumed to be perfectly balanced? (b) If the actual production rate is only 92% of the maximum possible rate determined in part (a).9Tc = 0. There are 24 workstations on the line.7935 min. then Eb = 1.068) = 55. Ts = 1.667(24) x 1 = 32 workers w = Twc/EbTs. Eb = Twc/wTs = 22.95(60)/47.15 = 1. Ten workstations have two workers on opposite sides of the line so that both sides of the product can be worked on simultaneously. (b) number of workers and (c) workstations on the line.97 → 56 workers (c) n = 56 + 4 = 60 stations (d) M = 56/60 = 0.65 min.55 units/hr (b) Actual Rp = 0.737 = 34.0/(0. find: (a) cycle time. The remaining stations have one worker.1867) = 1. what is the balance delay on the line? Solution: (a) Eb = 1. 268 . w= Twc/EbTs = 55.10 The total work content for a product assembled on a manual production line is 48 min.92 x 1.2 = 1.65/. uptime efficiency = 89%.2 min.933 40. If the balancing efficiency Eb = 0. Because of the automated stations. The total assembly work content time = 32 minutes of direct manual labor. the remaining stations each have one worker. Solution: (a) Tc = E/Rp = 0.Tr = 1. Rp = 60/Tp = 60/1. (d) What is the average manning level on the line.15 = 1.5 = 1. The work is transported using a continuous overhead conveyor which operates at a speed of 3 ft/min.2 x 10) = 10 + 14 = 24 stations (c) Eb = Twc/wTs = 32/(34 x 1.0 and w = Min Int ≥ Twc/EbTs = 32/(1.0 min If perfect balance. Tp = Tc/E = 1.933 = 93. and (d) average manning level. Ts = Twc/wEb = 48/32 = 1.40) = 0.50 .737 min.6435 min.2 min/cycle.89)/45 = 1.417 40. Repositioning time lost by each worker is 0. (b) number of workstations.5 + .0 x 1.0.55) = 31.7935 .0 min. w = 0.95)/31.333(24) x 2 + 0.5 units per hour. (c) the balancing efficiency. (b) Ts = Tc .5 min.9 Production rate for a certain assembled product is 47.95 = 1. It is known that the number of workers on the line is two more than the number required for perfect balance. The manual stations each have one worker. Ts = Tc . Determine: (a) number of workers.Ts = Tc . w = 32 + 2 = 34 workers (b) n = 10 + (34 . It is known that 10% of the cycle time is lost due to repositioning.1867 min.78 = 1.78 units/hr Tc = 60E/Rp = 60(. The line operates at 95% uptime.Tr = 1.3% 40.Tr = 0.

exclusive of materials. Determine: (a) the number of parts produced during the week. The other five perform processing operations. The number of downtime occurrences = 110.05 min Eb = 6.5 + 0.35 units/hr (b) E = Tc/Tp = 1. The longest process takes 25 sec and the indexing time = 5 sec.225 = 0.842 40.484 40. Rp = 60/0.008 and average downtime when a breakdown occurs is 10.1 = 0.16 Tp = 1.14.0 minutes.5 E = 25.78/8. and (b) line efficiency.16(10. Each station has a frequency of failure p = 0.6 pc/hr (c) 40E = 25.15) = 8.06 6 0.0) = 0.9127 Automated Production Lines 40.60 = 3.25 = 1224 pc during the 40 hour period. Determine: (a) hourly production rate. what would be its value? Solution: (a) Tc = 1.5 + . will the computer system pay for 269 . Solution: (a) F = np = 20(0.05 = 0. When a failure occurs it takes an average of 3.10 min.008) = 0.5 hrs Q = 25.10 = 1. A computer monitoring system has been proposed that will cost $25. EH = 40E = 40 . since the line efficiency E = 0. It costs $75/hour to operate the line.06 + 0. (b) the average actual production rate in parts/hour. which is accomplished by a human worker.6375 (d) Twc = Σ Ts = 0. However. Probability of a station failure is p = 0. If the value added per unit produced = $4.76 units/hr (b) E = Tc/Tp = 0.25 min. and (c) the line efficiency.95 + 1.50 + 0.Eb = Twc/wTs = 48/(32 x 1.12 A dial-indexing table has 6 stations.50 + 1.13 A 7-station transfer line has been observed over a 40-hour period.725 = 0.015) = 0. (b) Rp = 1224/40 = 30.5/40 = 0.0) = 1. One station is used for loading and unloading.15 4 0.15 + 0.80 + 1.5 = 25.95 5 1.5 hours.6435) = 0.11 An automated transfer line has 20 stations and operates with an ideal cycle time of 1. Rp = 60/Tp = 60/3.725 min. The processing times at each station are: Station Process time (min) 1 0.80 The transfer time between stations = 6 sec.80 2 1.690 40.10 3 1.10 + 1.075 Tp = 0.5(60)/1.015.000 (installed) and will reduce downtime on the line by 25%.50 min. (d) If the balancing efficiency were computed for this line.15 + 0.075(3.78 min.00.5/0. the line does not achieve this rate. and hours of downtime = 14.725 = 82. Determine: (a) the average production rate Rp and (b) the line efficiency E.1 = 19.92 + 0.5/3.92 7 0.60. Solution: (a) Assume p = 0 at the manual station F = np = 1(0) + 5(.14 A 12-station transfer line was designed to operate with an ideal production rate = 50 parts/hour.80 = 6. n(maximum Ts) = 7(1.0 min to make repairs and restart. The line operates 4000 hours per year.

00(133.01)(5. This is reduced by 25% with new system.000) = $480.$480.5 = 14 stations (b) Tp = 9. Cost to operate line = same as in current system (neglecting increased cost of new system) Difference in revenues = $533. Solution: (a) Maximizing Rp is equivalent to minimizing Tp.33 pc/hr Annual production Q = 4000(33.0 min.000/yr.8/n. The total work content time = 9.0 .8 min.00(120.7 = 1. Solution: Tc = 60/Rc = 60/50 = 1.333 .0) = 9.6 = 2.2) = 0.7 + 0.8) = 0.05 = 196 n = (196) .333 units/yr Revenues = $4.8 = 33. Ignore material costs in your calculations. 40.2 min.25%)(2.0 min.8/n + 0.05n dTp/dn = -9.01. Rp = 60/1.05 = zero at minimum point n2 = 9.itself within one year of operation.8/14 + 0. Determine: (a) the optimum number of stations n on the line that will maximize production rate.000/yr With computer monitoring system: Tc = 1.7/1.333/yr. so that the ideal cycle time for each station = 9.8/n + n(0. Tp = Tc + Ftd = 9.6 = 1.8/n2 + 0.000 investment.000 = $53.2 min.333) = $533. Rp = 60/1.15 An automated transfer line is to be designed.50 270 .75(0. Tp = Tc/E = 1. and the probability of a station failure that leads to a downtime occurrence p = 0.6 min.2/. Use expected increase in revenues resulting from the computer system as the criterion. Rp = 60/Tp = 60/2. FTd = Tp . Based on previous experience.4 min. the average downtime per occurrence = 5.333. FTd = (1 .0 = 30 pc/hr In the current system: Annual production Q = 4000Rp = 4000(30) = 120.1.Tc.0 min.000 units/yr Revenues = $4.86 pc/hr E = 0.8/0. Cost to operate line = $75H = $75(4000) = $300.4 = 42.2 + 0. This is more than enough to justify the $25. and Tp = 2.05(14) = 0. Tp = 1.33) = 133. and (b) the production rate Rp and proportion uptime E for your answer to part (a).00Q = $4.8 min and is to be divided evenly amongst the workstations.4 = 0.

and so forth. drawn metal bar. 41.1 lists the following details and decisions in process planning: (1) what processes are required and the sequence in which they are performed. Principal activities of manufacturing engineering are: (1) process planning. and (9) plant layout and facilities design. What are the principal activities in manufacturing engineering? Answer. assembly) and manual portions of machine cycles (e. (8) consideration must be given to the problem of moving materials and work-in-progress in the factory. (6) work standards (time standards for each operation). why is it that purchasing a component from a vendor may cost more than producing the component internally. loading and unloading a production machine). Secondary processes are used to refine the starting geometry and transform the material into final shape and size. Because purchasing the component may cause idle equipment and staff in the factory that the company must still pay for. machining and sheet metal pressworking are common secondary processes.7 In the make or buy decision.g. molds.41 41.8 Identify some of the important factors that should enter into the make or buy decision. It also lists the equipment and special tooling that is required. Answer. e. rolled sheet metal..1 in the text. and (4) advanced manufacturing planning. (3) advising the product designers in design for manufacturability. casting.2 MANUFACTURING ENGINEERING Define manufacturing engineering. manufacturing research.g. dies. 271 .. Table 41. Answer.6 What is a precedence constraint in process planning? Answer. even though the quoted price from the vendor is lower than the internal price? Answer. (7) estimates of production costs. (5) methods for manual operations (e. (3) what tools.1 41. 41. (2) equipment selection. (4) identification of cutting tools and cutting conditions for machining operations. for example.. Review Questions 41. 41. and gages will be needed. a hole must be drilled before it can be tapped. A precedence constraint is a limitation on the order in which processing or assembly operations can be performed on a given workpart. which includes evaluation of new processing technologies. A route sheet is a listing of the production operations and their sequence required to make a given part.g. 41.4 What is a route sheet? Answer. Manufacturing engineering is a technical staff department responsible for planning the manufacturing processes for a product and its components. A basic process establishes the starting geometry of the work material. fixtures. See Example 41. (2) day-to-day technical problem solving and continuous improvement.3 Identify some of the details and decisions that are included within the scope of process planning.5 What is the difference between a basic process and a secondary process? Answer. 41.

(11) Eliminate or reduce adjustment required. Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 18 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct). (9) Use modular design. Concurrent engineering is an approach used by companies to reduce the time to bring a new product to market. (4) Product life. upgradeability. (c). (2) design for quality. (b) facilities planning. maintainability.11 Identify some of the enabling technologies for concurrent engineering? Answer.1 Which of the following are the usual responsibilities of the manufacturing engineering department (more than one)? (a) advising on design for manufacturability. (c) drilling with a twist drill. (5) whether or not the component is a standard commercially available hardware item. 41. (g) rolling. (b) anodizing. (3) production quantity. and (7) possible need for alternative sources. Design for life cycle means that factors relating to the product after it has been manufactured should be taken into consideration in design. 272 . (6) Design the product to be foolproof during assembly. and (f). as opposed to secondary processes (more than one)? (a) annealing. (10) Shape parts and products for ease of packaging.Answer. all correct answers must be given. (8) Design for ease of assembly. (2) Use standard commercially available components. and disposability. 41. 41. (6) supplier reliability. and (p) ultrasonic machining. 41. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers.5 lists the following DFM principles and guidelines: (1) Minimize number of components. (h) sand casting. (m) tempering of martensitic steel. (e) product design. (o) turning.2 Which of the following would be considered basic processes. The factors include: (1) cost. To attain a perfect score on the quiz. (d) electroplating. (7) Minimize flexible components. (e) forward hot extrusion to produce aluminum bars. (n) trepanning. These factors include installability. serviceability. (l) surface grinding of hardened steel. Answer. and (f) solving technical problems in the production departments. and (4) design for cost. 41. In addition.9 Name three of the general principles and guidelines in design for manufacturability? Answer. (3) Use common parts across product lines. (4) Design for ease of part fabrication.12 What is meant by the term design for life cycle? Answer. (j) sintering of pressed ceramic powders. reliability. (3) design for life cycle. It includes: (1) design for manufacturability. Table 41. (d). electronic data interchange should probably be included in the list. It also includes certain organizational changes which attempt to bring different functions in the company together during product design to consider all possible aspects of the product. 41. (f) impression die forging. Enabling technologies mentioned in the text are rapid prototyping and computer integrated manufacturing (which includes CAD/CAM). (c) process improvement. (i) sheet metal stamping.10 What is concurrent engineering and what are its important components? Answer. (k) spot welding. and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point. (5) Design parts with tolerances that are within process capability. (d) process planning. (2) whether the process is available internally. (a). For each question. since each correct answer is worth 1 point.

or (d) none of the preceding. (j) sintering of pressed ceramic powders. (l) surface grinding of hardened steel. (i) sheet metal stamping. Answer. (b) anodizing. (k) spot welding. (h) sand casting. (i) sheet metal stamping.5 Which one of the following types of computer-aided process planning relies on parts classification and coding in group technology? (a) generative CAPP. (g). (e) forward hot extrusion to produce aluminum bars. Answer.Answer. (j) sintering of pressed ceramic powders. (c). and (p) ultrasonic machining. (b) anodizing. (e) forward hot extrusion to produce aluminum bars. (e). (h) sand casting. and (m). 41. (d) electroplating. (c) drilling with a twist drill. and (p) ultrasonic machining. 41.3 Which of the following would be considered secondary processes. (d) electroplating. (o). (b) 273 . (k) spot welding. (o) turning. (l). (i). (a). (b) retrieval CAPP. (o) turning. (f) impression die forging. (n) trepanning. (m) tempering of martensitic steel. (c) drilling with a twist drill. as opposed to basic processes (more than one)? (a) annealing. Answer. (g) rolling. (f) impression die forging. (f). and (h). and (p). (m) tempering of martensitic steel. (j). (n). (l) surface grinding of hardened steel. (c) traditional process planning.4 Which of the following are operations to enhance physical properties (more than one)? (a) annealing. (n) trepanning. (g) rolling. 41.

(2) sales forecasts. The inputs to MRP are: (1) master production schedule.3 42. an order to restock is issued when the inventory level for the given stock item declines to some point defined as the reorder point. the master production schedule indicates how many and when of each product model within the product line are to be produced.2 PRODUCTION PLANNING AND CONTROL What is meant by the term make-to-stock production? Review Questions Answer. 42. Short term adjustments to increase capacity include: increase employment levels. What is the difference between dependent and independent demand for products? Answer. Make-to-stock is the case in which the company produces to replenish inventories of products. or a component that is used on more than one product. what are common use items? Answer.10 Identify the principal objective in just-in-time production.5 Define reorder point inventory system. 42. The categories are: (1) firm customer orders.8 What are some of the resource changes that can be made to increase plant capacity in the short run? Answer.9 42. How does aggregate planning differ from the master production scheduling? Answer. Production rate is greater than demand rate. Answer. and (3) inventory record file.4 What are the product categories usually listed in the master production schedule.1 42. Dependent demand refers to the fact that demand for the item is directly related to demand for something else. and it is appropriate to carry inventory. a starting material that is used on more than one component. Reduction of in-process inventory. or subassemblies that are used for more than one item in the next level above in the product structure. increase number of shifts. Answer. as the Japanese view it. usually because the item is a component of an end product subject to independent demand.7 Identify the inputs to the MRP processor in material requirements planning. How is a pull system distinguished from a push system in production and inventory control? 274 . End products and spare parts experience independent demand. In a reorder point system. components. Aggregate planning is scheduling by general product line. 42. authorize overtime. Answer. Answer. Independent demand means that the demand or consumption of the item is unrelated to demand for other items. and (3) spare parts. increase shift hours.6 In MRP. for example. 42. and subcontracting work to outside vendors.42 42. Common use items are materials. 42. 42. (2) bill-of-materials file for product structure.

2 Which of the following are the categories usually listed in the master production schedule (more than one)? (a) components used to build the final products. 42. and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point.7 The word kanban is most closely associated with which one of the following? (a) capacity planning. Answer. (a). 42. and (3) order progress. Answer. (c) manufacturing engineering. (b) firm customer orders. (b) and (d). In a pull system. (b) and (e). (c) general product lines. To attain a perfect score on the quiz. (e) interest rate. and (g) storage. and (f) spare tires. Answer. and (e) mid. or (e) material requirements planning. (e) sales forecasts. (c) low production quantities. (b) batch size. (d) holding cost. For each question. (b) economic order quantity. (d) orders for maintenance and spare parts. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers. In a push system. (2) order scheduling. and (g).5 Order point inventory systems are intended for which of the following (more than one)? (a) dependent demand items. (b). The three phases are (1) order release. 42. and (e) raw materials. Answer. (d) setup.1 Which one of the following terms best describes the overall function of production planning and control? (a) inventory control. Answer. (f) stock-out. all correct answers must be given. (e) spoilage. since each correct answer is worth 1 point.3 Inventory carrying costs include which of the following (more than one)? (a) equipment downtime.range production quantities. (b) direct labor. Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 17 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct). (c) just-in-time production. (b) 42. (b) independent demand items. (c) cost per piece. (e). or (e) product design. (b). (c) 275 . (c) obsolescence. and (f) setup cost. (d). (d). (b) investment. Answer. (c) inventory storage space. 42. (d) master production schedule. and (e).11 What are the three phases in shop floor control? Answer.Answer. 42. (b) manufacturing logistics. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point. (d) production equipment. 42. Answer. 42.6 With which of the following manufacturing resources is capacity requirements planning primarily concerned (more than one)? (a) component parts. and (f). authorization to produce derives from parts being produced by upstream stations and forming queues in front of the production station.4 Which of the following are the terms in the economic order quantity formula (name three)? (a) annual demand rate. (d) mass production quantities. authorization to produce parts originates from downstream stations. (c). (d) mass production.

8 The term machine loading refers most closely to which one of the following? (a) assigning jobs to a work center.000/6000) = 3000 + 3000 = $6000 42. downtime cost during changeover = $200/hr.00 and the annual holding cost rate = 25%. Determine: (a) economic order quantity and (b) total inventory costs for this situation.000/2981) = 2683 + 2684 = $5387 42.000 units.00. Annual holding cost per part made on the equipment.06075 hr = 3.5 = (2 x 60.5 Current changeover (setup) time on a certain machine = 3. 276 .00)(6000/2) + 300(60.5 = 6000 units (b) TIC = ChQ/2 + CsuDa/Q = 0. Determine: (a) economic order quantity and (b) total inventory costs for this situation.25(4.5 (EOQ)2 = 2Da CdtTsu/hCp Tsu = hCp(EOQ)2/2D a Cdt = 0.00))0.00)(7217/2) + 2. Annual demand is 60. cost of downtime on the affected equipment is figured at $250/hr. Batch size = 2000 units. holding cost rate = 2.25 x 4. Each unit costs $4. In how many minutes must the changeover (setup) between batches be completed in order for 100 units to be the economic order quantity? Solution: EOQ = (2D a CdtTsu /hCp)0.30(4.5 = (2 x 20.625 = $16.00)(150) 2/(2 x 2500 x 200) = 0.00/unit. it is desired to produce the components in batch sizes of 150 units (daily requirements for assembly).0 hr.5 = (2 x 50.000 units. Determine: (a) EOQ and (b) total inventory costs for this data. (d) releasing orders to the shop.30 x 4. or (e) sequencing jobs through a machine. (a) Problems Inventory Control 42.000 x 300/(.00.825 . Setup time to run a batch = 2. Setup cost to produce this product is $300.1 A product is made-to-stock. Production downtime costs an estimated $200/hr. Solution: (a) EOQ = (2D a Csu/Ch)0.5 x 250(50.00)(2000/2) + 2.5 = 7217 units TIC at EOQ = ChQ/2 + CsuDa/Q = 0. What would the annual savings be if the product were produced in the economic order quantity? Solution: Current TIC = ChQ/2 + CsuDa/Q = 0. To keep in-process inventories low. (c) managing work-in.42.000/2000) = 1200 + 15.5%/month.825 EOQ = (2D a Csu/Ch)0.0 hr. Annual demand for the part is 15.00.000 x 2 x 200/(12 x .000/7217) = 4330 + 4330 = $8660 Savings = 16.000 x 2.025 x 6. and annual holding cost rate = 30%.00))0.3 A product is produced in batches. Cost of downtime on this machine is estimated at $200/hr. cost per unit = $6. 42.process in the factory. Demand for each product is 2500 units per year.4 A certain piece of production equipment is used to produce various components for an assembled product of the XYZ Company.65 min.5 x 250(50.30(4.00))0.5 = 2981 units (b) TIC = ChQ/2 + CsuDa/Q = 12 x 0. All of the components made on the equipment are of approximately equal value: Cp = $9. (b) floor foundation in the factory. and unit cost of the product = $4.000 units.000 units. Annual demand = 50.8660 = $8165 42.025(6.5 hr. Holding cost rate = 30%/yr. changeover (setup) time between products averages 2. Ch = $1.3(9. Solution: (a) EOQ = (2D a Csu/Ch)0. Answer.00)(2981/2) + 2 x 200(20.2 Given: annual demand for product X is 20.5 x 250/(0.

if the changeover time could be reduced to six minutes. Each bin holds 1000 units. EOQ = (2 x 15.00(4243/2) + 3.000 x 50/Ch)0.5 1000 = (2 x 40.00 .21 = $1802.00(775/2) + 20(15. TIC = 0. EOQ = (2 x 40.1) = $20.000 x 20/1.000 units.5 = 8944.00 For the EOQ = 8944.60 + 223. what lot size should be ordered? (c) How much more is the current two-bin approach costing the company annually.5 = 775 pc (d) TIC = 1.61 = $447.05) 0. Required deliveries for P1 are given in Figure 42.7 Quantity requirements are to be planned for component C2 in product P1.60 42.000/775) = 387. and assembly lead times are as follows: Item identification: Lead time (weeks): P1 1 S1 2 C2 1 M2 2 Given the product structure in Figure 42.000/8944) = 223. The annual usage of the component is 40. Ordering. manufacturing.10 = $774. C2.05(8944/2) + 50(40.00) 0.50 + 387.00 x 200(15.3 → 8944 pc (c) For the two-bin approach in which Q = 1000.5 Ch = 2 x 40.2.00 annually (b) Given Ch = $0.1 hr. (a) What is the imputed holding cost per unit for this data? (b) If the actual annual holding cost per unit is only 5 cents.6 The two-bin approach is used to control inventory for a particular low-cost component.000 x 50/0. compared to the economic order quantity? Solution: (a) EOQ = (2D a Csu/Ch)0. determine: (c) EOQ and (b) total inventory costs. Cost to order the component is around $50. Solution: Period P1 Requirements Order Release S1 Requirements Order Release C2 Requirements Order Release 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 50 50 100 400 8 50 75 75 9 75 100 100 10 100 50 200 300 75 300 400 200 277 . Assume no common use items and all on-hand inventories and scheduled receipts are zero.50 + 2121. Csu = CdtTsu = 200(0.14 = $4242.00 x 200/1.05(1000/2) + 50(40.05.000 x 3.64 (c) If Tsu = 6 min = 0.7.5 = (2 x 15. Use a format similar to Figure 42.000/4243) = 2121.447.5 = 4243 pc (b) TIC = ChQ/2 + CsuDa/Q = 1.6.000 x 50/1000 = $4.000/1000) = 250 + 2000 = $2250. Solution: (a) EOQ = (2D a Csu/Ch)0.Also. determine the time-phased requirements for M2. Ignore demand for P1 beyond period 10.00) 0.79 Material Requirements Planning 42. and S1 to meet the master schedule for P1. TIC = 0.21 Additional cost = 2250.

6. Use a format similar to Figure 42. Ordering. On-hand inventories are: 200 units for M5 and 100 units for C5. Ignore demand for P1 beyond period 10. Assume no common use items. Solution: Period P1 Requirements On-hand: 0 Net Requirements Order Release S2 Requirements On hand: 0 Net Requirements Order Release C5 Requirements On hand: 100 Net Requirements 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 50 50 75 150 150 200 400 400 9 75 75 100 200 200 10 100 100 50 100 100 150 300 300 100 200 100 100 278 . Required deliveries for P1 are given in Figure 42. and assembly lead times are as follows: Item identification: Lead time (weeks): P1 1 S2 1 C5 3 M5 2 Given the product structure in Figure 42. Solution: Period P1 Requirements On-hand: 0 Net Requirements Order Release S2 Requirements On hand: 0 Net Requirements Order Release C5 Requirements On hand: 100 Net Requirements Order Release M5 Requirements On hand: 200 Net Requirements Order Release 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 50 50 75 150 150 200 400 400 9 75 75 100 200 200 10 100 100 50 100 100 150 300 300 100 200 100 100 100 100 100 0 400 300 300 100 200 400 400 400 0 200 42. and S2 to meet the master schedule for P1. zero for S2.M2 Requirements Order Release 200 300 200 400 300 400 42.8 Requirements are to be planned for component C5 in product P1.7. manufacturing. determine the time-phased requirements for M5.8 Solve the previous problem except that the following is known in addition to the information given: scheduled receipts of M5 are 250 units in period (week) 3 and 50 units in period (week) 4.2. C5.

2.0 45. under the assumption that a single setup is required for each product.0 ______ 152.333 hr.333 26.0 50.11 In the previous problem. and it is desired to determine how to allocate resources in that department to meet the required demand for these products for a certain week.333 Hrs/wk center 56.333 Totals 42. Solution: Time to produce each product is the same as given in the preceding solution.0 20. 3.333 + 26 = 152. This is fewer than the number of hours required. Propose a way of scheduling the machines to meet the weekly demand. The plant normally operates one shift (7.Order Release M5 Requirements Scheduled Receipts On hand: 200 Net Requirements Order Release 100 100 250 450 -350 300 300 300 50 350 -100 400 400 100 300 0 0 Order Scheduling 42.0 min. Product 2: Time per batch = 5. overtime must be used. Available hours per week on 3 work centers if normal hours are assumed = 3 x (5 x 7) = 105 hr.0 min. Available hours per week on 4 work centers if normal hours are assumed = 4 x (5 x 7) = 140 hr. The following schedule is proposed: Work center I II III Product 1 2 3 4 Quantity 750 900 400 400 Setup hours 6.10 Four products are to be manufactured in Department A.0 5. In order to equalize the workload among machines as much as possible.333 ______ 152. This is fewer than the number of hours required. In both cases. this will require an additional setup 279 . assuming a single setup for each product: Product 1: Time per batch = 6.0 + 900(3/60) = 5 + 45 = 50 hr Product 3: Time per batch = 7. five days per week and there are currently 3 work centers in the department.0 ______ 128.0 hours per shift).0 min. To meet the weekly production.0 46.0 + 400(3/60) = 6 + 20 = 26 hr Total hours for all four products = 56 + 50 + 20. let us propose to produce products 1 and 3 on work centers 1 and 2 and Products 2 and 4 on work centers 3 and 4. overtime must be used. Solution: Determine time to produce each product.333 hr Product 4: Time per batch = 6.0 7.0 + 750(4/60) = 6 + 50 = 56 hr.0 50.0 13.333 20.0 _____ 24.0 Run hours 50. propose a way of scheduling to meet the weekly demand if there were four machines instead of three. The demand and other data for the products are given as follows: Product 1 2 3 4 Weekly demand 750 900 400 400 Setup time 6 hr 5 hr 7 hr 6 hr Operation time 4.0 6. 3.0 min. To meet the weekly production.333 = 20.0 + 400(2/60) = 7 + 13.333 Hrs/product 56.

5.15) .80 13.16 = 3 Order C slack time = (24 .0.333 .QI) + 7.B .0 = 71.00 ______ 128.13 40.05 QIII Work center IV: TIV = 5.80 20.0 5.0 5.133 hr.B (c) Shortest processing time: sequence = A . B.50 40.0 _____ 35.13334 = 528 TI = 6.333 QI = 70.15) .06667(528) = 41.We want to equalize the workload on work centers I and II with Products 1 and 3. (b) earliest due date.05(900 .0 + 0.333 .0 = 70.A .0 + 400(3/60) = 76.0 Run hours 35.06667(750 .333 .0 + 0.06667(528) = 41.06667 QI) = 0.0 + 0.QIII) + 6. Solution: (a) FCFS: sequence = A .06667Q I Work center II: TII =6.05Q III 2(0. There are three orders (A.0 . The following table indicates the remaining process time and production calendar due date for each order: Order A B C Remaining process time 5 days 16 days 7 days Due date Day 25 Day 34 Day 24 Determine the sequence of the orders that would be scheduled using: (a) first-come-first-serve.12 The current date in the production calendar of the XYZ Company is day 15.20 hr TII = 76.0.10 QI = 76.0 6.20 20. (c) shortest processing time.0 + 0.33 Hrs/wk center 41.06667Q I = 76.0 + 0.333/0.05 QIII Setting TIII = TIV: 5. Work center III: TIII = 5.05 QIII = 76.06667Q I 2(0.0 QI = 71.33 Totals 42.20 14.B .06667Q I Setting TI = TII: 6.0 .33 Hrs/product 41.0.C (b) Earliest due date: sequence = C .0 + 0.05(710) = 40.05(710) = 40. and C) to be processed at a particular work center.6.00 ______ 163.B (d) Least slack time: Order A slack time = (25 .0.05 QIII) = 0.0.0 . The orders arrived in the sequence A-B-C at the work center.0/0.33 40.0 7.50 hr TII = 76.7 = 2 Sequence = C .0 + 0.13334 QI = 76.0 + 400(2/60) = 76.50 ______ 163.0 6.0 + QI(4/60) = 6.50 26. and (e) critical ratio.5 = 5 Order B slack time = (34 . Work center I: TI = 6.50 hr.10 = 710 TI = 5.15) .A 280 . The following table summarizes the production at each work center: Work center I II III IV Product 1 1 3 2 2 4 Quantity 528 222 400 710 190 400 Setup hours 6.C .333 .20 41.0 + QIII(3/60) = 5.0.0 . (d) least slack time. We next want to equalize the workload on work centers III and IV with Products 2 and 4.0 + 0.50 20.33 35.50 9.50 14.

0 Order B critical ratio = (34 .286 Sequence = B .(e) Critical ratio: Order A critical ratio = (25 .15)/16 = 1.A 281 .15)/5 = 2.15)/7 = 1.C .1875 Order C critical ratio = (24 .

(c) no missing parts. all correct answers must be given. 282 .3 Define process capability. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point.43 43. and (e). the characteristic of interest is identified as being acceptable of not acceptable. To attain a perfect score on the quiz. The two charts are: (1) x chart for sample means and (2) R chart for ranges. 43. what does one look for to identify problems? Answer. measurements of the characteristic of interest are made.7 When interpreting a control chart. called assignable variation.6 What are the two basic types of control charts for attributes? Answer. since each correct answer is worth 1 point. (b) location of ON/OFF switch. (d) product weight. Answer. In control charts for attributes.1 Which of the following would be classified as examples of a product feature.4 What is the difference between control charts for variables and control charts for attributes? Answer. 43. Answer. Answer. and (e) reliability.5 Identify the two types of control charts for variables. and (2) c chart for count of defects in a sample. (3) sudden changes in average. (b). A process that is out of control exhibits additional variation that is not normal. 43. How is a process operating in statistical control distinguished from one that is not? Answer. (d). For each question. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers. and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point. Process capability is the limits of the random variations of the process when it is in statistical control. Review Questions 43. and (4) points consistently near the upper or lower limits. This indicates that something is wrong with the process.2 QUALITY CONTROL What are the two principal aspects of product quality? Answer. 43. In control charts for variables. Problems are indicated by the following: (1) x or R lie outside the LCL or UCL limits. The two charts are: (1) p chart for proportion of defects in a sample. (2) trends or cyclical patterns in the data. The process in statistical control is characterized by only random variations. The two quality aspects are: (1) product features. rather than a freedom from deficiency (more than one)? (a) components within tolerance. Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 12 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct). The limits are defined as the process mean ± 3 standard deviations. and (2) freedom from deficiencies. 43.1 43.

using the standard normal distribution.4 43. or (d) proportion of defects in a sample. (d) Pareto priority index. (a).6 43. (b) The R chart is used for which one of the following product or part characteristics? (a) number of rejects in the sample. (c) Which of the following identify an out-of-control condition in a control chart (more than one)? (a) consistently increasing value of x . Determine the process capability. On the lower side of the tolerance limit.00 283 . (c) and (e). (c) radius of a cylindrical part. 43.255 cm. Solution: Process capability PC = µ ± 3σ = 6.255 cm and σ = 0.263. the design specification on the part is: diameter = 6. (e) Which of the following principles and/or approaches are generally credited to G.2 In the previous problem.2 If the product tolerance is set so that the process capability index = 1. and (e) robust design. z = (6.004 = +2. what proportion of parts would fall outside the tolerance limits? Solution: (a) Given process mean µ = 6.255)/0.1 An automatic turning process is set up to produce parts with a mean diameter = 6. (c) 95%.263 . then the percentage of parts that are within tolerance will be closest to which one of the following when the process is operating in statistical control? (a) 35%.004) = 6.250 cm and the standard deviation remained the same. Answer. or (d) upper value of the maximum range R. (b) mean value of part characteristic of interest. Conclusion: there are virtually no defects on the lower side of the tolerance. (d) 99%. and (d).7 Answer.43.250 ±0. (b) process mean plus three standard deviations.255)/0. Taguchi (more than one)? (a) acceptance sampling. (b) points near the central line. (c) loss function.004 = -4. (c) R outside the control limits of the R chart. and (d) x outside the control limits of the x chart. (b) 65%. (c). (d) Which one of the following best describes the situations for which the c chart is most suited? (a) control of defective parts. or (d) range of sample values. The process is in statistical control and the output is normally distributed with a standard deviation = 0.237 to 2.004 cm and tolerance limits 2. On the upper side of the tolerance limit.237 . (a) What proportion of parts fall outside the tolerance limits? (b) If the process were adjusted so that its mean diameter = 6. Answer. (c) number of defects in a sample.267 cm 43. Problems Process Capability and Statistical Tolerancing 43. or (e) 100%.013 cm.004 cm.255 ± 0. the upper control limit is set equal to which one of the following? (a) process mean. (b) number of reworked parts in a sample.5 43. (b) control charts. Answer.50.0. Answer. z = (6.255 ± 3(0. In a control chart.3 43.6.012 cm The upper and lower limits of the process capability range are: 6. (c) upper design tolerance limit. Answer.243 to 6.2.

64 Using tables of the standard normal distribution. using the standard normal distribution.01.0°.53 = -4.004 = -3. (a) What proportion of parts fall outside the tolerance limits? (b) If the process were adjusted so that its mean diameter = 28.0002 = 0. the design specification on the part is: diameter = 28.0 to 30.0041 = 0. Pr(z < -3. z = (30.53 mm and tolerance limits 26.0)/0.258 284 .53 = -3.0041 The proportion of defects with the current process mean = 0.6 mm.0012 = 0. Conclusion: there are virtually no defects on the lower side of the tolerance.0006 + 0.0 .9 → virtually no defects.0 mm and the standard deviation remained the same.6 ± 3(0. On the upper side of the tolerance limit.77.6)/0.00) = 0.5 In the previous problem.28. Pr(z < -3. determine the value of the process capability index.0006 = 0.01 to 30.23°.0 ±2.6)/0.25) = 0. Solution: Process capability PC = µ ± 3σ = 28.77) = approx.263 .004 = +3. 0.6 mm and σ = 0.53 = +3. On the lower side of the tolerance limit.28.237 . z = (30.0001 On the upper side of the tolerance limit.23°) = 2.53) = 1.19 mm. Using tables of the standard normal distribution.6. determine the value of the process capability index.0001 + 0.0 .3 A sheet metal bending operation produces bent parts with an included angle = 92.53) = 28.263. z = (6.28. Pr(z > 3.02%. On the upper side of the tolerance limit.41° to 92.0 mm.69°.77 Using tables of the standard normal distribution.250)/0.0)/0.1° ± 0.53 mm.41%. z = (6.25.53 = +2.0/(6 x 0.0 .0 .004 cm and tolerance limits 6.Using tables of the standard normal distribution. 43.4 A plastic extrusion process produces extrudate with a critical cross-section dimension = 28. The design specification on the angle = 90 ±2°. On the lower side of the tolerance limit.0001 = 0.250)/0.0001 The proportion of defects with the current process mean = 0. Solution: (a) PC = 92. (b) If the process could be adjusted so that its mean = 90. Using tables of the standard normal distribution.12%. Pr(z > 2. Pr(z > 3.237 to 6.28.64) = 0. (b) If µ = 90° T = 92° . z = (26. Determine the process capability. (b) Given process mean µ = 28.0006.0 mm. The upper and lower limits of the process capability range are: 91.59 mm The upper and lower limits of the process capability range are: 27.88° = 4° PCI = 4°/(6 x 0. Solution: (a) Given process mean µ = 28.0227 The proportion of defects with the current process mean = 0.53 mm and tolerance limits 26.0 mm.77) = approx. Pr(z > 2.79°. (a) Determine the process capability. (c) Process capability index PCI = 4. Using tables of the standard normal distribution.27%. 43. The process is in statistical control and the values of included angle are normally distributed with a standard deviation = 0.23) = 92.1°. (b) Given process mean µ = 6.0227 = 2.0006 The proportion of defects with the current process mean = 0. 43. On the lower side of the tolerance limit.250 cm and σ = 0.0 to 30.6 ± 1. The process is in statistical control and the output is normally distributed with standard deviation = 0. what proportion of parts would fall outside the tolerance limits? (c) With the adjusted mean at 28.6.1 ± 3(0.25) = 0. 0.0 mm.0 mm and σ = 0.25. z = (26.

The absence of independent processes making the individual components is a violation of one of the fundamental assumptions of statistical tolerancing.0212 cm 43. Does a statistical tolerancing approach apply in this situation? Why? Solution: If statistical tolerancing were used. T2 = 2T. Given that the part tolerances are to be a constant proportion of the respective dimensions.010.500 cm and standard deviation = 0. determine the tolerance for each part using: (a) worst case design and (b) statistical tolerancing. Ta = ± 0.5 = 0.1333 mm = ± 0. specifically the rolling process making the starting piece of sheet metal from which the laminating pieces are fabricated.002) = ± 0.0 mm with tolerance = ±0. Interpret this to be ± 0.250 ±0. T3 = 3T.8 The assembly in Figure P43.005 in.00895 in.50 cm dimension are parallel.500) ± 3(0. Solution: (a) Worst case: Ti = 0. whose process capabilities are proportional to their respective dimensions.00005 σa = (0. which would yield Ta = 20(± 0.020/4 = 0.40 mm. 285 .040 in.20 mm.0004/4 = 0.200 mm = ± 0.0333 mm .010 in.0667 mm = ± 0.010 in.5 Ta2 = 4 Ti2 (0.8 has a critical assembly dimension C = 5. The dimensions of the individual parts are each 0. what is the process capability of the critical dimension C.7 An assembly is made by stacking 20 flat pieces of sheet metal to produce a thick laminated structure. T1 + T2 + T3 = T + 2T + 3T = 6T = 0.00032) 0.0001 = 10-4 Ti = 10-2 = 0. Let us apportion the tolerances among parts in proportion to their size. 10 mm. T2 = 0..002 inch. σa2 = 2 σi2 = 2(0.005) 2 = 0.40/6 = 0.020) 2 = 0.0004 = 4 Ti2 Ti2 = 0. However. so that the thick assembly has the same profile. 43. It would be more appropriate to use worst case tolerancing here. whose thickness specification is 1/16 inch ±0. Determine the tolerance (a) under a worst case design approach. If each part is made from an independent process with process means for part thickness all set to 2.0179 in.0667 mm.000 ± 0. which is well within the specified tolerance of ± 0. The sheet metal blanks are all cut with the same punch and die to the desired profile.005 cm. 43.6 An assembly consists of four components stacked to create an overall dimension of 2. this would not be a good application of statistical tolerancing because the process making the components is the same process.625 inch. T1 = T.43.. Expressing this as a bilateral tolerance.010 inch).5 = 0.100 mm.00707) = 5. The relevant part dimensions making up the 30 mm total are 5 mm. T = 0. T1 = 0.40 mm. (b) Statistical tolerancing: Ta = (4 Ti2)0. Ta = (20 x 0.020 inch (±0. T3 = 0.9 An assembly consists of three parts stacked to form a final dimension of 30.500 inch. and 15 mm. All of the parts are cut from the same sheet metal coil. Assume the opposite sides of each part on the 2.00005) 0.010 inch. significantly beyond the specified tolerance. Parts are produced by independent manufacturing operations.0667 mm. and (b) using a statistical tolerancing approach.0042)0.5 = (0. Solution: Dimension C is determined by two middle parts. Solution: (a) Worst case tolerancing: Ta = 0. The thickness of the final assembly is specified as 1.005 in. All parts will have identical bilateral tolerances. Thus. Interpret this to be ± 0.000 cm.00707 cm PC = µ ± 3σ = 2(2. with a bilateral tolerance Ta = 0.

5 = (T2 + 4T2 + 9T2)0.24 2 9.8485 = ± 0. let us apportion the tolerances among parts in proportion to their size.5 = 3. Therefore.21 + 0.0.0.0.23)/10 = 0.12 0.22 0.22 + 9.5 = (8(0. T2 = 0.20 0.5 = (T2 + (2T)2 + (3T)3)0. T3 = 0. and the PCI for the assembly will also be 1. then Ti = 6σ = 0.3(10) = 20 mm.20 + 9.20 + 0. (a) Determine the values of the center.24 (a) x chart: x = 9.12 + 9. Again.28 0. 43. (b) Statistical tolerancing: Ta = (8Ti2)0.1069 T1 = 0.2/6 = 0. T3 = 3T. determine the recommended tolerance for C using: (a) worst case design and (b) statistical tolerancing. Each part used in the assembly.2 mm and σ = 0.3(10) = 20 mm. Solution: Given that parts PCI = 1.566 mm = ± 0. LCL.5.19 7 9.26 + 0.27 6 9. The calculated values of x and R for each sample are given below (measured values are in mm). Ta = 0.10 shows an assembly in which the critical dimension is C. Ta = 1.17 + 0.24 0.0.17 + 9.7417 = 0.32) 0.373(0.17 0.24 + 0.5 = (0.283 mm.15 + 9. and UCL for the x and R charts.10 Figure P43.5 = (14T2)0.20 R = Σ R/7 = (0.11 Solve part (b) of the previous problem.0943) = 0.32 + 0.26 5 9.27 + 0. Critical dimension C = 5(10) . UCL = x + A2 R = 9.24) = 9.12 Ten samples of size n = 8 have been collected from a process in statistical control.30 + 0. s x R 1 9. with process capability = ±0.1604 mm.24 + 9.424 mm Control Charts 43.23 Solution: x = Σ x /m = (9. 43. Ta = 8Ti = 8(0.19 + 9.20 + 9.A2 R = 9.5.0943 mm Ta = 9(0. 286 .5 = 0.0.24) = 9.2/6 = 0.5 = (8(0. T1 = T.6 mm = ± 0.32 9 9.20 . Given that assembly PCI = 1.80 mm.5 = 0.0333 mm.17 3 9.5 = (0.1105 mm.20 mm = CL LCL = x . Thus. Given that the process capability index for the parts PCI = 1.1069 mm = ± 0. then Ti = 6σ = 0. Critical dimension C = 5(10) .2895 mm.23 0.19 + 0.40/3.2138 mm = ± 0.21 10 9. except that the process capability index for the assembly is a more conservative 1. including the base part. Solution: Given that PCI = 1.2 mm and σ = 0.1069 mm.008889) 0.5 PC = 1.1 mm for the thickness.5 σa = 9 σa Statistical tolerancing: σa = (8σi2)0. T2 = 2T. each with independent variability.15 0.03333) 2)0.40 mm.2) = 1.2) 2)0.3207 mm = ± 0.21 + 0.19 0. (b) Construct the control charts and plot the sample data on the charts. (a) Worst case tolerancing: there are 8 parts that determine critical dimension C.20 0.7417 T T = 0.21 8 9.23)/10 = 9.0.40 = (T1 2 + T22 + T32)0.0535 mm .373(0.30 4 9. and the dimension of interest has been measured for each part. has a thickness = 10.(b) Statistical tolerancing: Ta = 0.0333 mm. The PCI for the individual parts is still 1.0 mm.28 + 9.

013 + 0.000 R = Σ R/7 = (0.0.419(0.014 + 0.0281 in. A2 R = 3 σx/ n σx = A2 R 43.000 in.R chart: R = 0.002 + 0.013 7 1.0077 in.027) = 0.860 . and the mean of the ranges of the samples is R = 8.027) = 6.999 0.011 3 0.136(0.004 0.027) 7 /3 = 0.A2 R = 6.004 + 0. LCL.4474 mm.017)/7 = 0.0133 = CL LCL = D3 R = 0.000 .419(0.13 Seven samples of 5 parts each have been collected from an extrusion process that is in statistical control.002 0.998 + 1. (b) Student exercise.0133) = 0.0326 mm.010 + 0.027) = 6. (b) Student exercise.000 + 0.996 + 0.8487 cm UCL = x + A2 R = 6. R chart: R = 0.008 + 0. s x R 1 1.020 + 0.0133) = 0. 43.860 cm = CL LCL = x .114(0.8713 cm (b) R chart: R = 0.010 2 0.027 cm.027 = CL LCL = D3 R = 0.017 Solution: x = Σ x /m = (1. 43.24) = 0.15 n /3 = 0.020 5 0.0205 cm UCL = D4 R = 1. UCL = x + A2 R = 1.924(0.027) = 0. and the diameter of the extrudate has been measured for each part.0.008 6 0.114(0.0133) = 0.014 4 1. and UCL for x and R charts. (b) Construct the control charts and plot the sample data on the charts.995 + 1.A2 R = 1. the average value of the sample means is x = 6. the grand mean of the samples is x = 100 for the characteristic of interest. Determine: (a) lower and upper 287 .0133 = CL LCL = D3 R = 0 UCL = D4 R = 2. The calculated values of x and R for each sample are given below (measured values are in inches).0519 cm (c) The x chart is based on ± 3 σx/ n Therefore.006 0.995 0.076(0.5.860 cm for the dimension of interest.0133 (a) x chart: x = 1.999 + 0.419(0.998 0. and the mean of the ranges of the samples is R = 0.00998 cm In nine samples of size n = 10.14 In 12 samples of size n = 7. Determine: (a) lower and upper control limits for the x chart and (b) lower and upper control limits for the R chart. = CL LCL = x .577(0. UCL = D4 R = 2.577(0.860 + 0. (a) Determine the values of the center.0133) = 1.011 + 0.006)/7 = 1.9923 in. (c) What is your best estimate of the standard deviation of the process? Solution: (a) x chart: x = 6.996 0.

09 . Determine the center.5) = 15.LCL = 0.0202) = 0.0196 = 36(0.14 = 6 p (1 − p ) / n = 6 0 .5 = CL LCL = D3 R = 0. LCL and UCL for the p chart.3(0.18 The yield of good chips during a certain step in silicon processing of integrated circuits averages 91%.0202) = 0.19 The upper and lower control limits for a p chart are: LCL = 0.16 n /3 = 0.17 (0 . The total number of parts in these ten samples was 900 and the total number of defects counted was 117. Determine the sample size n that is used with this control chart.19 and UCL = 0. A2 R = 3 σx/ n σx = A2 R 43.0. LCL and UCL for the p chart.8955. estimate the standard deviation of the process? Solution: (a) x chart: x = 100 = CL LCL = x .11 + 3(0.1045.83/n) 0. 89) / 25 = 0.2 → 259 288 . 91) / 90 = 0.24 + .3 0 . UCL = x + A2 R = 100 + 0. (c) Based on the data given.24.09 (0.5) = 1.5) = 97.11 + 3 0.7596.308(8.A2 R = 100 . (b) R chart: R = 8.09 = CL LCL = p .75/25 = 0.298 43.13 = CL LCL = p .control limits for the x chart and (b) lower and upper control limits for the R chart.3(0.09 (0. Determine the center.17)(0.024 UCL = p + 3 p (1 − p ) / n = 0. The number of chips per wafer is 200.5) = 102.5(UCL + LCL) = 0.236 43.10) = 0. Solution: p = 0. A p chart is to be constructed.0293 UCL = p + 3 p (1 − p ) / n = 0.83 ) / n (0.0. and UCL for the p chart that might be used for this process.83)/n = 5.13 . Solution: Use p = 1 .078 → 0 UCL = p + 3 p (1 − p ) / n = 0.3(0.5(.7.3 0.87 ) / 90 = 0.3 p (1 − p ) / n = 0.0796/0.13 .0196 = 259. 89) / 25 = 0. Solution: d = 117/10 = 11.91 = 0.17 UCL .11 .11 = CL LCL = p .777(8.11 .3 p (1 − p ) / n = 0.0. 13(0 . Determine the center.24 . 91) / 90 = 0.308(8.09 + 3(0.382. and the average number of defects per sample was 2.10 = 0.03545) = 0.11 + 3 0 . UCL = D4 R = 1.87 ) / 90 = 0.03545) = 0.618. Six samples of 25 parts each have been collected.17 x 0.11 + 3 0 .17 Ten samples of equal size are taken to prepare a p chart.0626) = -0.0626) = 0. 13(0 . LCL.308(8.223(8.5) 10 /3 = 2.75. (c) The x chart is based on ± 3 σx/ n Therefore.11 + 3(0.09 . p = 11.3 0 .7/90 = 0.14) 2 = 62 (0.0796/n n = 5.11(0. Solution: p = 2.1507 43.3 p (1 − p ) / n = 0.11(0.

05 LCL = p .3 → 148 289 . Solution: CL = 116 LCL = c .7 → 83 UCL = c + 3 c = 116 + 3 116 = 148.05)(0.0025 = 171 43.4275/0.95)/n = 0.95 ) / n (0. Determine the center and upper and lower control limits for the c chart that might be used in this situation.10 + 0) = 0. p = 3 p (1 − p ) / n 0.05 = 3 0. 05( 0.3 p (1 − p ) / n = 0 Therefore.3 116 = 83.21 Twelve cars were inspected after final assembly.05) 2 = 0. The number of defects found ranged between 87 and 139 defect per car with an average of 116.43. Solution: p = 0.3 c = 116 .5(.10.5(UCL + LCL) = 0.20 The upper and lower control limits for a p chart are: LCL = 0 and UCL = 0. Determine the minimum possible sample size n that is compatible with this control chart.0025 = 32 (0.4275/n n = 0.

The six quantities are: length. and light radiation. 44.6 44. In measurement. ease of calibration. Accuracy is the degree to which the measured value agrees with the true value of the quantity of interest. Besides good accuracy and precision. Gaging determines whether the product characteristic (e.g. 44. time. 290 . high reliability. length). a product characteristic is examined to see if it conforms to design specifications. 44. Measuring determines the actual value of the characteristic. In inspection. temperature.7 What is precision in measurement? Answer. laser measuring methods.g.1 MEASUREMENT AND INSPECTION How is measurement distinguished from inspection? Answer. and electrical field techniques.. What are these possible actions? Answer..44 44. an unknown quantity is compared with a known standard and a value of the quantity is obtained using an accepted and consistent system of units. Non-contact inspection techniques include machine vision.5 44.3 What are the six fundamental quantities in metrology? Answer. Review Questions 44. mass. electric current. What is meant by the term calibration? Answer.10 Give an example of a non-contact inspection technique. 44.4 What is accuracy in measurement? Answer. It is a measurement procedure that is absent of systematic errors. A graduated measuring device has markings (called graduations) on a linear or angular scale to measure an object's feature of interest (e. what are the desirable attributes and features of a measuring instrument? Answer. 44. The desirable features include: high resolution. speed of response. wide operating range. and low cost.9 Automated inspection can be integrated with the manufacturing process to accomplish some action. dimension) satisfies the specification or not.2 How does gaging differ from measuring? Answer. Answer. and (2) feedback of data to adjust the process. Calibration means checking the measuring instrument against a known standard. Precision in measurement is the degree to which random errors are minimized. 44. The rule of 10 means that the measuring instrument or gage must be ten times more precise than the object (part) being inspected.8 What is the rule of 10? Answer.11 What is meant by the term graduated measuring device? Answer. 44. Possible actions discussed in text are: (1) parts sortation.

14 Describe a scanning laser system. 44.3 Which one of the following countries does not embrace the International System of units? (a) China.44. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers. the light intensity of each pixel is reduced to either of two values (black or white. (b) 44.12 What are the common methods for assessing surface roughness? Answer. Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 28 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct). and ultrasonic techniques (high frequency sound). inductance). (b) defined in terms of the human body. (d) mass. This time period can be measured quickly with great accuracy. Answer.16 Name some of the non-optical non-contact sensor technologies available for inspection. Answer.2 Which of the following are attributes of the “metric system” of linear measurement (more than one)? (a) based on astronomical distances. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point. Answer.15 What is a binary vision system? Answer.1 In measurement and inspection for manufacturing. 44. 0 or 1). since each correct answer is worth 1 point. (g) 291 . A CMM is an automated measuring machine consisting of a contact probe and a means to position the probe in three dimensions relative to workpart features and surfaces. (e) temperature. and (e) units are subdivided decimally. The scanning laser system uses a laser beam deflected by a rotating mirror to produce a beam of light that sweeps past an object. 44. and converts from time to a linear dimension. Answer. (d) and (e). or (f) time. 44. 44. radiation (X-ray). (b) length. A microprocessor system measures the time interruption that is related to the size of the object in the path of the laser beam. and (2) stylus-type electronic instruments which measure average roughness. (d) rational prefixes for units. or (g) United States. The technologies include: electrical fields (capacitance. when the probe contacts the part. (f) Russia. 44. Common methods are: (1) comparison of the specimen surface with standard test blocks having known surface roughness values. (c) originated in Great Britain.13 What is a coordinate measuring machine? Answer. the x-y-z coordinates are recorded. and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point. all correct answers must be given. Answer. (c) light radiation. which one of the following fundamental physical quantities are we most concerned with? (a) electric current. In a binary vision system. (d) Japan. (e) Panama. A photodetector on the far side of the object senses the light beam during its sweep except for the short time when it is interrupted by the object. To attain a perfect score on the quiz. For each question. (c) Germany. (b) France.

(c) 100% perfect quality. (b) dial indicator. (d) shaft diameter. (b). A surface plate is most typically made of which one of the following materials? (a) aluminum oxide ceramic. Answer. Which of the following are contact sensing methods used in inspection (more than one)? (a) calipers. (d) machine vision. (c) checks maximum size. (c) safety monitoring. (d) plug gage. (d) checks minimum material condition. or (d) visual guidance and control of a robotic manipulator. (e) micrometer.4 The two basic types of inspection are inspection by variables and inspection by attributes. and (i). Answer. (g). which one of the following best describes the function of the GO gage? (a) checks limit of maximum tolerance. (b). (b) feedback of data to adjust the process. (b) and (d) are mentioned in the text. (c) part length. In a GO/NO-GO gage. (a). An outside micrometer would be appropriate in the measurement of which of the following (more than one)? (a) hole depth. (c) laser techniques. (b) coordinate measuring machine. (b) coordinate measuring systems. Answer. (a). Which of the following are examples of contact inspection (more than one)? (a) calipers. (c) divider. (b) Which of the following are likely to be GO/NO-GO gages (more than one)? (a) gage blocks. and (e). (c). (a) 44. (g) steel rule. (c) measuring. (c) dial indicators. (c) and (d). or (e) checks minimum size. or (d) non. (b) Automated 100% inspection can be integrated with the manufacturing process to accomplish which of the following (more than one): (a) better design of products.44. (d). Answer. (e) micrometers. (g) snap gages. (d) micrometer. and (f) X-ray radiation. (c) Which of the following are graduated measuring instruments (more than one)? (a) bevel protractor. (c) master gage. Answer. Answer. (c) granite. (e). (h) surface plate. (a).destructive testing.9 44. or (e) stainless steel. Answer. and (i) vernier caliper.5 44.12 44. and (e) surface roughness.10 44. Answer.11 44. (b) limit gage. Answer. (f) sine bar. (d) machine vision. (f) scanning laser systems. (b) hole diameter. Answer. The second of these inspections uses which one of the following: (a) destructive testing.8 44. (b) gaging. and (h) ultrasonic techniques. (d) hard polymers.13 292 . (e) outside calipers. (b) checks maximum material condition. and (d) sortation of good parts from defects. (b). Which one of the following is the most important application of vision systems? (a) inspection.7 44. (b) cast iron.6 44. (d). and (g). (b) object identification. and (e). and (e) snap gage. (b).

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