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Stage Exam Critiques

CHAPTER 5
STAGE EXAM CRITIQUES
INTRODUCTION
This chapter provides you with critiques for the Instrument and Commercial Guided Flight Discovery Stage Exams as well as the Multi-Engine End-of-Course Exam. Each critique contains the correct answer choice and a brief explanation of the answer. The answer choices correspond to those in the answer keys in Section D. Each time you review a Stage Exam with a student, be sure to go over each incorrectly answered question and satisfy yourself that the student fully understands the material before moving on to the next stage. These critiques will be helpful in your dialogue with students, but they are not meant to replace thorough discussion.

Instrument Rating Critiques Stage I
1. CHOICE 3 — 75% of aviation accidents can be attributed to human factors-related causes. Some sources of pilot error in the instrument and commercial environments include; misinterpretation of a chart, failure to understand a clearance, inability to use equipment properly, and lack of coordination among crewmembers. 2. CHOICE 2 — Readback of ATC clearances is crucial in the IFR environment. You should not assume controller silence after a readback is verification of your transmission. If you are unsure if ATC understood your communication, ask for a verbal confirmation. 3. CHOICE 3 — Your vestibular system is sending an incorrect message to your brain during a rapid acceleration, making you believe you are in a nose up attitude. The best way to overcome this is to rely on your instruments, since they are your only accurate source of information. 4. CHOICE 3 — Acceleration or deceleration can induce precession errors within the attitude indicator. Deceleration causes the attitude indicator to give a temporary, false indication of a descent. 5. CHOICE 1 — Due to internal friction within the gyroscope, precession is common to heading

indicators. Precession causes the selected heading to drift from the set value. You should align the heading indicator with the magnetic compass before flight and check it at 15-minute intervals during flight. 6. CHOICE 3 — During a turn, the rudder controls the quality of the turn as indicated by the position of the ball in the inclinometer. If the ball is right of center, add right rudder pressure; if the ball is left of center, add left rudder pressure. 7. CHOICE 2 — The airspeed indicator, altimeter, and vertical speed indicator are the three pressure-sensitive pitot-static instruments. Each of these instruments is connected to a static source, however, only the airspeed indicator is connected to the pitot source, which is the source of impact or ram air pressure. 8. CHOICE 2 — Initially, you should establish the attitude for a climb or descent by reference to the attitude indicator. 9. CHOICE 1 — Normally, you correct minor deviations from altitude with only pitch changes. However, if your altitude changes more than 100 feet, you should make adjustments in both pitch and power. 10. CHOICE 3 — A useful guide for leveling off from a climb or descent is to lead the desired altitude by approximately 10% of the vertical speed.

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000 feet MSL cabin 5-2 .Instrument/Commercial Instructor’s Guide 11. you must maintain your last assigned altitude until established on a segment of the published route or instrument approach procedure. 15. a one-half nautical mile leadpoint is adequate. which lists instrument and equipment necessary for IFR flight. as a practical matter.51 states that you may log as instrument flight time only the time you operate the aircraft solely by reference to instruments under actual or simulated flight conditions. After you select the appropriate frequency. CHOICE 3 — FAR 91. the second-class medical certificate expires at the end of the last day of the twelfth month after the month of the date of examination. CHOICE 1 — FAR 61. you should make sure the instrument error is corrected before you conduct IFR operations. regardless of the type of equipment. the relative bearing is 190°. decrease pitch to reduce the angle of attack.5 minutes). The ADF pointer shows the station to the right (140° magnetic bearing). CHOICE 1 — For groundspeeds below 150 knots. to the station. The magnetic bearing to the station is 190° + 80°. Regardless of the number of degrees you are correcting left or right.57 requires that you pass an instrument proficiency check with an FAA-approved check pilot or a certified instrument flight instructor. the magnetic heading appears under the top index and the ADF and VOR bearing pointers give a direct reading of magnetic bearing to the station. 28. 20. CHOICE 2 — A second-class medical certificate is required for all commercial operations. CHOICE 3 — The correct formula is: RB + MH = MB. CHOICE 3 — To solve this problem. CHOICE 3 — When you are cleared for an approach while being radar vectored. CHOICE 3 — To avoid a stall. holding procedures. add power. 24. you are on course when the wind correction angle equals the number of degrees a station is to the left or right of the aircraft’s nose.57 states that at least six instrument approaches. CHOICE 3 — FAR 91. measured clockwise. and roll the wings level.205. 17.109 states that an appropriately rated pilot must occupy the other control seat as a safety pilot during simulated instrument flight. The VOR pointer shows the station behind and slightly to the right (225° magnetic bearing).500 feet MSL and 14. CHOICE 3 — As noted in FAR 91. does not include a vertical speed indicator. 25. 29. Next.205 states that. CHOICE 2 — To regain instrument currency after 12 months have elapsed. or 270°. for IFR flight. CHOICE 2 — The correct formula is: MB – MH = RB. CHOICE 1 — No action is required by regulation. CHOICE 2 — FAR 91. 14. 27. 21. 12. CHOICE 2 — With an RMI. use your flight computer to determine the distance of approximately 29 n. and intercepting and tracking courses through the use of navigation systems.107 and 91. all you need to do is make sure the bearing pointer of the RMI displays the proper indications. 13. 23. The magnetic bearing to the station is 180° minus the magnetic heading of 045° which equals 135°. between 12. must be performed and logged in actual flight or in a simulator or flight training device representative of the aircraft category. the ADF pointer indicates relative bearing. However. CHOICE 2 — When you are using a fixedcompass-card instrument.171 lists the procedures available to test the accuracy of VOR receivers. 16. FAR 91. 18. CHOICE 3 — Relative bearing is the number of degrees between the nose of the aircraft and the station. divide the time (in seconds) by the degrees of bearing change between the radials used for timing (165 ÷ 10 = 16. 22. 26. For commercial operations. CHOICE 2 — The attitude indicator has failed and is giving false indications of a left turn with nose-low pitch attitude. In this case. 19. CHOICE 3 — FAR 61. the aircraft must have two-way communications and navigational equipment appropriate to the ground facilities to be used. Position B fits these conditions.m.211. FAR 61.

and the VOR equipment check. CHOICE 2 — The required inspections include the annual aircraft inspection. You should maintain the assigned airspeed within 10 knots. or landing. 41. Since the nose is already pointed toward the 2 o’clock position by 20°. CHOICE 3 — Yellow chevrons leading to the threshold of runway 4 mean the area is a blastpad. takeoff. The use of supplemental oxygen by flight crewmembers is required at all times above a cabin pressure altitude of 14. the controller only sees the ground track on the radar display. you would only have to look further right by 40° to see the controller’s advisory. you should use the lower glide path provided by the near and middle bars. ATC must obtain pilot concurrence to reduce propeller aircraft speed below 150 knots. normally includes the airspace within approximately four nautical miles of the geographical center of the airport and extends from the ground up to and including 2. CHOICE 3 — Traffic advisories are based on the observation of your ground track on the radar. CHOICE 1 — Local airport advisory (LAA) service is provided by as FSS physically located on an airport which does not have a control tower or where the tower is operating parttime. the aircraft’s nose is pointed 20° right of its ground track to compensate for a strong crosswind. In this example. the 2 o’clock position would be 60° to the right of the nose. such as a change of runway or the instrument approach in use. 33. The distance markers added to the threshold markings on runway 36 indicate it is a precision instrument runway. although legal. 40.000 feet MSL is one statute mile.000 feet of your assigned altitude.” 5-3 .15 specifies that the operator of an aircraft must file a written report with the NTSB within 10 days of an accident. Position of traffic is called in terms of the 12-hour clock. In addition. You must maintain two-way communications with ATC while within Class D airspace. CHOICE 2 — Class D airspace. is risky. perpendicular to the centerline of the runway on which they are installed. CHOICE 3 — You should comply with the requested speed. 36.m. which exists only when the control tower is in operation. The indications are the same as those on a normal two-bar VASI. 35. CHOICE 2 — You are expected to climb (or descend) at an optimum rate consistent with your airplane’s performance characteristics to within 1. CHOICE 2 — While flying a light aircraft on a three-bar VASI approach. CHOICE 2 — Land and hold short lights are a row of flush-mounted flashing white lights installed at the hold short point. and landing rollout. the minimum visibility required for flight under day VFR in Class G airspace below 10. White arrows leading to the threshold of runway 36 mean it can be used for taxi. Since ATC had neither the responsibility nor the authority to exercise control over aircraft in Class G airspace. The far bar will indicate red since the lower glide path is approximately one-half degree below the upper glide path. When within 20 miles of your destination airport. In a no-wind situation. the main traffic separation procedure is adherence to IFR cruising altitudes. Remember. 42. the flight crew must use oxygen for that portion of the flight that exceeds 30 minutes. takeoff. 32. 34.p. 31. IFR flight in Class G airspace. the transponder must have been inspected within the preceding 24 calendar months. 39.500 feet above the airport. not the aircraft’s nose position.000 feet MSL.500 f. CHOICE 2 — As indicated in FAR 91. or overrun and it cannot be used for taxi. CHOICE 3 — The ATIS broadcast is updated upon the receipt of any official hourly and special weather. 37. CHOICE 2 — The airspace surrounding Phoenix Sky Harbor International Airport is designated as Class B airspace. then at 500 to 1. CHOICE 3 — Since runway 4 has only a runway number and a centerline. 30. pitot-static and altimeter inspections. This is indicated in the listing under communications. and reduce your indicated airspeed to 160 kts. if able. it is a basic VFR runway. CHOICE 3 — NTSB 830. stopway. 38.155.Stage Exam Critiques pressure altitude. An exception is when ATC uses the term “at pilot’s discretion. 43. Radar cannot tell which way the nose of your aircraft is pointed. A new recording will also be made when there is a change in other pertinent data.

In this case. you should use an odd-thousand foot altitude plus 500 feet. 3. you also must observe minimum IFR altitudes. divide the groundspeed by 60 (180 ÷ 60 = 3) and multiply the result by the required climb gradient (3 × 200 = 600 f. CHOICE 3 — If you do not have at least the textual description of the instrument departure procedure (DP) or standard terminal arrival route (STAR). 6. but no later than 30 minutes after the void time. and light gray on NACO charts.).” This clearance will contain the name of your destination airport or clearance limit. It also is indicated by the front panel index. CHOICE 2 — Availability and coverage of an area chart for a terminal area operation is outlined by a thick. and obstacle departure procedures (ODPs) developed as text or graphics to assist pilots in obstruction avoidance. you must advise ATC of your intentions as soon as possible.m. or if you do not wish to use either of these procedures. cloud clearance. In addition. unless the instruction is 5-4 . and DP information if appropriate. and the clearance limit. 45. the assigned enroute altitude. and the altitude to which you are climbing. 47.58 nautical miles per minute) and multiple this by the climb gradient to get a minimum climb rate of 717 feet per minute. Failure to take this action can result in costly delays and rerouting of other IFR traffic because ATC will assume that you have departed on time as cleared. it is indicated by this symbol. 46. CHOICE 1 — A cruise clearance includes an authorization for you to fly to and use any published approach procedure at your destination airport. find the climb gradient (4. divide the groundspeed by 60 (95 ÷ 60 = 1. 2. 5. 4. CHOICE 1 — To determine the climb gradient in feet per minute. CHOICE 3 — On your initial call to departure control. You also can find the approximate rate of climb required by referring to climb rate tables which are published by both NACO and Jeppesen. CHOICE 3 — ATC must be notified if you are unable to climb or descend at a rate of at least 500 feet per minute. and cruising altitude requirements. use the appropriate VFR cruising altitude. 49.p. CHOICE 2 — If you do not depart prior to the void time in this situation. CHOICE 3 — If the changeover point from one VOR to another is at a point other than halfway between the two facilities. In addition to compliance with VFR visibility. By doing this. This dashed line is blue on Jeppesen charts. CHOICE 2 — ATC may issue an abbreviated clearance by using the phrase “cleared as filed. you normally are required to give only your aircraft or flight number. the altitude you are climbing through. those defining direct route segments. dashed line on the enroute chart. return to the previous frequency for further instructions. you should make a notation of this effect in the remarks section of your flight plan. CHOICE 2 — If you cannot establish communications on the newly assigned frequency. CHOICE 2 — The two basic types of instrument departure procedures (DPs) are instrument departures procedures (DPs) developed in graphic form to enhance the air traffic control system. CHOICE 2 — VFR-on-top allows you to fly in VFR conditions and at appropriate VFR cruising altitudes while on an IFR flight plan. the controller can verify that your reported altitude agrees with the altitude being displayed by your Mode C transponder equipment.Instrument/Commercial Instructor’s Guide In this event. Then. Instrument Rating Critiques Stage II 1. you may climb (or descend) at any rate you wish to use. 48. the IFR portion must include all fixes indicating transitions from one airway to another. 7. 8. CHOICE 2 — First. CHOICE 3 — While operating with a “VFR-ontop” clearance below FL180. CHOICE 3 — When a composite flight plan is filed.994 feet ÷ 11 miles) for a climb gradient of 454 feet per mile. expensive search-and-rescue operations may be initiated. 50. The mileage breakdowns indicate the proper distance for changing to the next VOR. 44.

Feeder routes provide a transition from the enroute structure to an initial approach fix. 15. CHOICE 1 — In VFR conditions. 21. CHOICE 3 — STARs are primarily used to simplify clearance delivery procedures for pilots and controllers.” 10. This symbol indicates you should consult the IFR Takeoff Minimums and Departure Procedures listing in the front of the NACO approach chart binder. they expect you to maintain a specified speed within ±10 knots. CHOICE 3 — Contact approaches are issued only for airports with published approach procedures. Basically. 17. 20. in this case. ATC may initiate visual approaches to expedite the flow of traffic to an airport. the Category A circling MDA of 960 feet MSL applies. the circling minimums apply until the aircraft is continuously in a position from which you can descend to a landing on the intended runway at a normal rate of descent using normal maneuvers even if you started it as a precision approach procedure. They include heading. 23. CHOICE 1 — DPs and STARs are published in chart form by both NACO and Jeppesen.Stage Exam Critiques qualified by the term “climb (or descend) at pilot’s discretion. you must remain within a 1. this means you should start the speed reduction soon enough to make sure you pass over the fix at or below the maximum holding speed. a teardrop entry is appropriate. Since aircraft B is approaching the station with a heading between 020° and 090°. For a Category A aircraft at the circling MDA. CHOICE 3 — A parallel entry is appropriate for aircraft C because the aircraft’s heading is between 090° and 200°. 16. When a speed adjustment is no longer needed. . 19. 25. distance. It is indicated on the chart and in the textual description of the procedure. provides the most convenient way to maneuver the aircraft to intercept the holding course on the proper inbound course of 270°. 12.” 9. terrain features. the minimum safe altitude between the 200° radial clockwise to the 110° radial within 25 nautical miles of the Humble VORTAC is 1. and altitude information appropriate to the route. CHOICE 1 — As indicated by the MSA circle. the larger the protected area has to be and the higher the MDA. CHOICE 2 — Your aircraft’s magnetic heading when you arrive at the fix determines the type of entry to use. The charts normally include narrative descriptions of the applicable procedures. CHOICE 3 — The symbol indicates that nonstandard takeoff minimums and/or departure procedures apply. the missed approach point is usually based on DME distance rather than time. the higher the category of aircraft making the circling approach. CHOICE 2 — Visual illusions are a product of various runway features. CHOICE 2 — Since both VOR and DME are specified in the title to this instrument approach procedure. Generally. 11. The teardrop entry. CHOICE 2 — When ATC requests a speed adjustment for spacing. CHOICE 2 — If you fly the approach as a circling maneuver. You may initiate or be given a visual approach clearance if you have the airport or the aircraft in front of you in sight. 22. 14. ATC may issue a contact approach 5-5 . resume normal speed. CHOICE 1 — During a circling approach. . In this case. 13. you should be on a heading of 297°. 18. An upsloping runway or terrain can give you the sensation that you are at a greater height above the runway than you actually are. and atmospheric conditions which can create the sensation of incorrect height above the runway or incorrect distance from the runway threshold. ATC expects you to reduce speed from the clearance limit. CHOICE 2 — On a VOR/DME approach. you are provided obstacle clearance as long as you maneuver within the protected circling approach area. 24.3 nautical mile radius from the ends of the runways during the circling maneuver. CHOICE 1 — The thick arrow between the two navaids indicates a feeder route between the Santa Fe VORTAC and the DOMAN IAF. CHOICE 2 — If the indicated airspeed of your aircraft exceeds the applicable maximum holding speed. CHOICE 2 — As you depart CLEFT intersection. ATC will advise you to “.800 feet MSL. a VOR receiver and DME are required for the approach.

The heavy dashed line in the plan view provides a pictorial representation of the missed approach procedure to the 293° radial outbound. 27. In this case. 36.6 nautical miles) and time and speed tables are included below the airdrome sketch on the NOS charts. the letters “GS” accompany the altitude. and the minimum altitude between these two fixes is 2. return to the VOR. 26. 31. on an NDB approach where the NDB is not located on the airport. In addition. you should fly a magnetic bearing of 114° at a minimum altitude of 3. In addition. 8. CHOICE 1 — When inbound to the NDB from the Wichita Falls VORTAC. supercedes the note in the table. 38. 33. the approach becomes a nonprecision. CHOICE 2 — Since this approach is based on a facility located on the airport. it is the Twin Falls VOR. the missed approach point is located over that facility. On Jeppesen charts. a standard holding pattern on the 293° radial of the TWF VOR is required. CHOICE 3 — The profile view details the procedure for the missed approach segment. and hold. CHOICE 2 — Without a glide slope receiver. 5-6 .300 feet MSL. ATC cannot initiate a contact approach. The position of the MAP is indicated on this chart in the lower left corner.561 feet in this case.000 feet MSL. localizeronly approach with an MDA of 860 feet MSL. which is the DOMAN LOM for this approach. CHOICE 2 — The missed approach points are different for the complete ILS and for the localizeronly approach. while the “localizer-only” MAP is usually over the (straight-in) runway threshold. CHOICE 1 — You must descend below the decision height (DH) of 6. you should complete the course reversal within the specified distance. In this example. The MAP for the ILS is at the decision height. 35. CHOICE 1 — ILS marker beacons provide range information with respect to the runway during the approach. 28. However. To determine the increased minimum for loss of the approach light system. 34. you would normally refer to the Inoperative Components or Visual Aids Table for a localizer approach.4 nautical miles.000 feet outbound on the TWF VOR 293° radial within 10 nautical miles. The magnetic bearing and minimum altitude for this segment of the approach are shown in both the plan view and the profile view. This does not apply to VOR/DME instrument approach procedures or when the facility is on the airport and the facility is the MAP. This is clearly indicated in the profile view. The FAF is clearly identified by the cross symbol in the profile view. you normally determine when you are at the MAP by timing from the FAF. CHOICE 2 — Your magnetic bearing (or course) from the ARROE IAF to the Shawn NDB is 330°. The distance from the FAF to the MAP (4. and a white light identifies the inner marker. This procedure requires a climbing left turn to 6. Make the procedure turn in the direction depicted on the approach chart. you may begin your descent to the MDA after passing the NDB. CHOICE 2 — Usually. In some nonprecision procedures. Specific requirements for operation below the MDA or DH are listed in FAR 91. The distance for this feeder route. 32.175.553 feet MSL until you see the necessary visual references associated with the runway. CHOICE 2 — The profile view indicates the altitude you should be at upon reaching the DOMAN LOM if you are on the glide slope centerline. CHOICE 3 — Holding instructions are included in the missed approach procedure. also is indicated. An amber light indicates the middle marker. 37. For nonprecision procedures. CHOICE 3 — When a course reversal is necessary. you should maneuver within protected airspace during a procedure turn.Instrument/Commercial Instructor’s Guide clearance upon pilot request when the reported ground visibility at the destination is one statute mile or greater. CHOICE 1 — Passage of the ILS outer marker is indicated aurally by a series of dashes and visually by illumination of a blue light. Since a left turn is not specified. 30. the note on the approach chart indicating that you must increase the visibility by one-quarter mile if the approach light system becomes unusable. your aircraft must continually be in a position from which you can make a descent to a landing on the intended runway at a normal rate of descent using normal maneuvers. the MAP may be prior to the runway threshold in order to clear obstructions in the missed approach climbout area. you should remain within 10 nautical miles of the fix. 29. 7.

CHOICE 3 — The greatest instability occurs when air is both warm and moist. vertical visibility 500 feet. Clear ice is the most serious of the various forms of ice because it has the fastest rate of accumulation. 13. you can continue the approach to the MDA. your indicated airspeed and pitch attitude both increase.000 feet. you must determine the missed approach point by time. but be ready to increase your power again. or water vapor into ice. CHOICE 1 — Stable air tends to inhibit vertical cloud development. 11. Air that is both cool and dry resists vertical movement and is very stable. light snow and fog. 10. adheres tenaciously to the aircraft. layered or stratiform clouds form. 2. The most reliable indications that you are crossing a front are a change in wind direction and. the air is nearing the saturation point and conditions are favorable for the formation of fog or low clouds. CHOICE 1 — TAA’s do not describe specific routes of flight. you should reduce power to slow your airspeed and descend to the glide path. Sublimation is the changing of ice (solid water) directly into water vapor. which is the DOMAN LOM. It is found in cumulus clouds or in freezing rain beneath a warm front inversion. which produce frequent thunderstorms. some type of lifting action. Instrument Rating Critiques Stage III 1. with the area of lowest pressure lying directly over the front. the wind always shifts to the right in the northern hemisphere. when moisture is present. When the spread reaches 4°F (2°C) and continues to decrease.5°F) per 1. CHOICE 2 — The METAR code indicates visibility of 1/2 statute mile. 9. Without a tailwind.Stage Exam Critiques 39. is generally smooth and. Tropical airmasses. If a large airplane has just taken off as you approach to land. and you may have a tendency to go above the correct glide path. and sky 500 feet overcast. and is more difficult to remove than rime ice. CHOICE 1 — Clear ice is the type of icing with the fastest accumulation rates. 7. CHOICE 1 — You can anticipate the formation of fog or very low clouds by monitoring the temperature/dewpoint spread. Although the exact new direction of the wind is difficult to predict. but rather describe a volume of airspace within which an aircraft proceeds inbound from the 30-nm arc boundary toward an appropriate IAF. Because of this. As you ascend through the atmosphere. CHOICE 1 — There are three conditions necessary to create a thunderstorm — air that has a tendency toward instability. you should plan to touch down well before the large aircraft’s liftoff point. atmospheric pressure usually decreases. and then experience glide slope failure. less frequently. Therefore. In sublimation. CHOICE 2 — The atmosphere accumulates moisture through evaporation and sublimation. if you have noted the time over the nonprecision FAF. 6. The altitudes shown within the TAA icons provide minimum IFR obstacle clearance. 5. 8. with widespread areas of clouds and steady rain or drizzle. CHOICE 2 — To avoid wake turbulence when you land behind a large aircraft. which is signaled by the beginning of precipitation at the surface. CHOICE 3 — As a front approaches. wind speed. 4. CHOICE 3 — The primary cause of atmospheric circulation is uneven heating of the earth’s surface by the sun. CHOICE 3 — Without a glide slope. 40. The lapse rate of dry air is greater than the lapse rate of moist air. are a good example. CHOICE 1 — The rate at which temperature decreases with an increase in altitude is referred to as its lapse rate. 12. you need more power and a slower rate of descent. stable air 5-7 . you should plan to stay above the large airplane’s glide path and touch down beyond its touchdown point. CHOICE 2 — When a tailwind shears to calm conditions or to a headwind. and a relatively high moisture content. Visibility often is restricted. Evaporation is the process where water vapor (a gas) is added to the atmosphere. the temperature decreases at an average rate of 2°C (3. CHOICE 1 — Thunderstorms reach their greatest intensity during the mature stage. the liquid state is bypassed. 3. Initially.

CHOICE 2 — You can estimate the values for wind direction. until the end of the forecast period.000 feet generally indicates moderate or greater turbulence.Instrument/Commercial Instructor’s Guide 14. This is indicated by BKN 140. the ceiling is above 1. 33. 31. 26.000 feet MSL between 1700 and 2100.000 feet but the visibility is less than three miles.000foot values added to the 9. often includes expected changes during the 24-hour valid time period. speed. 25. The wind direction. FM1700 indicates that from 1700Z. Also widely scattered light rainshowers with tops at 18. CHOICE 2 — The 700-millibar chart shows weather data in the vicinity of the 10. the wind will be from 290° at 25 knots. vertical visibility 400 feet. along with information on the type and intensity. Enclosed areas of cumulonimbus clouds also imply the presence of moderate or greater turbulence and icing conditions. 17. CHOICE 2 — The last group of alphanumeric data for KDEN is A3012. The upper right panel for the next 12-hour period indicates that conditions are expected to remain.000 feet by interpolation. You should not 5-8 . and air temperature at 10. the freezing level here is at 4.000 and 10. CHOICE 1 — The symbol at station A indicates broken sky cover for this station. 32. CHOICE 1 — At station D. as well as some areas enclosed by smooth lines. Since 10. CHOICE 3 — Freezing level height contours are represented by irregular lines and are labeled in hundreds of feet above mean sea level. CHOICE 3 — A feature of the high-level prog is that scalloped lines are used to enclose areas that have sandstorms. 20.000 and 9.000 feet MSL are forecast. and -7°C.000 feet.000 feet broken with tops between 8. an alarm or special indicator is triggered in radar facilities. 15. CHOICE 1 — A terminal aerodrome forecast (TAF). Cloud heights are AGL. CHOICE 2 — The KLAR METAR shows visibility 1/2 statute mile. and 400 feet overcast. CHOICE 2 — Radar weather reports (SDs) describe areas of precipitation.000 feet over Shreveport. This is shown by the scalloped lines.000 and 12. and scattered sky conditions at 12. CHOICE 1 — Federal Aviation Administration FSS telephone numbers are listed in the Airport/Facility Directory.000 feet MSL over DAL are 287°. visibility greater than six statute miles.000-foot level. and cumulonimbus clouds. CHOICE 2 — On the observed winds and temperatures aloft chart. and some are included in FSS weather broadcasts. This is the altimeter setting. 30. 22. the values are one-third of the difference between the 9. 28.000-foot values. A ceiling less than 1.000 feet and/or visibility less than three miles is indicated by a shaded area. CHOICE 3 — The Synopsis and VFR Clouds/Weather sections indicate 2. CHOICE 3 — A vertical wind shear of six knots or more per 1.000 feet. These reports are routinely transmitted on weather service circuits. This indicates marginal VFR conditions on Wednesday. 33 knots. 30.100 feet AGL. a filled in station model indicates the temperature/dewpoint spread is 5°C or less. 16. CHOICE 3 — If you squawk code 7700 on your transponder.000 feet.000-foot and 12. a broken ceiling is forecast at 14. CHOICE 2 — Terminal aerodrome forecasts generally are issued four times each day and are valid for a 24-hour period. It shows wind conditions associated with heavy clouds and rain. CHOICE 3 — Between 0300Z and 1200Z. duststorms. CHOICE 3 — The area is enclosed with lines on the upper left panel. speed. 5. 23. 19. 24. 18. Therefore. The base of the broken ceiling is at 1. heavy snow. 29. and temperature at 10. CHOICE 2 — The two conditions necessary for structural icing — moisture near freezing temperatures — exist between 6.000 feet. 27. CHOICE 1 — The forecast outlook indicates VFR conditions for Oregon both east and west of the Cascade mountain range. but only welldeveloped fronts appear on this type of chart. 21.000 feet falls one-third of the way between 9.000 feet scattered to broken.12 inches of mercury.

You will be advised when you have been turned onto final and told to make all turns at one-half standard rate throughout the rest of the approach. The antidote is to remember that “taking chances is foolish. The highest known feature. Next. At a consumption rate of 11. with 4 hours and 53 minutes of fuel available. The minimum altitude or flight level for IFR operations. the altitude you fly after a communications failure must be the highest of the following altitudes for each route segment flown: 1. 2.h. 53 minutes. and your computed TAS. true course. Then. figure how much fuel is required for the day VFR reserve. make all turns at standard rate before turning final. Generally. or if you encounter VFR conditions at any time after the failure. move your eyes slowly and in small sectors. CHOICE 3 — On sectional charts. CHOICE 3 — According to FAR 91. Your groundspeed is 146 knots.000foot ceiling and three miles visibility at your ETA plus or minus one hour. 37. use the given values for pressure altitude.25 ÷ 11. 35. The altitude assigned in your last ATC clearance. 5-9 . regardless of the weather conditions.. TAS. CHOICE 3 — If your communications radio fails while you are in VFR conditions. CHOICE 2 — Use the given wind. maximum elevation figures are centered in quadrangles bounded by ticked lines of latitude and longitude. it is 5. consult the enroute chart to find the most practical route for the flight.Stage Exam Critiques change your transponder code from its current setting when in radio and radar contact with ATC unless you are instructed to do so.000 feet MSL for operations at speeds in excess of 250 knots. 40. MTRs are established below 10. you can fly a distance of 714 miles.185. Subtracting this from the fuel on board leaves 56. The altitude ATC has advised you to expect in a further clearance. CHOICE 1 — First. Commercial Pilot Critiques Stage IV 1. People with this type of attitude attempt to prove that they are better than anyone else by taking risks and by trying to impress others. and subtract easterly or add westerly variation (east is least and west is best) to the true heading. temperature.p.75 gallons. direct your request to the controller during flight. Compute the time in hours that this amount of fuel will allow (56. If one is not listed. wind. it is 10. For maximum scanning efficiency at night. if possible. figure your groundspeed using the given values for true course. CHOICE 1 — The altitude listed in block 7 of the flight plan should be your initial cruising altitude. CHOICE 2 — Preferred IFR routes are listed in the Enroute section of the Jeppesen Airway Manual and in the Airport/Facility Directory. In this question. 6. 2. You should contact an FSS within 100 nautical miles of a particular MTR to obtain current information on route usage. CHOICE 3 — When you scan for traffic. 39. At a ground speed of 146 knots. and a flight computer to determine the true heading (005°) and groundspeed (116 knots). 4. including terrain and obstructions. CHOICE 3 — An alternate airport is required to be listed on your IFR flight plan unless your destination is forecast to have at least a 2. is displayed in thousands and hundreds of feet above mean sea level.5 = 4 hours. 5.5 g. CHOICE 2 — To convert true heading to magnetic heading.” 38. and land as soon as practical. 3. If you want to change the cruising altitude. 3.25 gallons for the flight. determine the magnetic variation from the isogonic lines on the aeronautical chart. CHOICE 2 — During a no-gyro approach. 29 seconds). you should continue the flight under VFR. 34. CHOICE 3 — “IR” indicates IFR military training routes (MTRs) for operations that are conducted under instrument flight rules.800 feet MSL. CHOICE 1 — Macho is the hazardous attitude indicated by this statement. use offcenter viewing and avoid staring in one place for too long. and calibrated airspeed to compute your TAS (140 knots). 36.

It can occur subconduring flight when you experience a situation.345 and 23. attempt to fly your approaches at night the same as during the day. 21.111.000 feet MSL. You must also maintain a record of the flight time necessary to meet the recency of experience requirements. ATC transponders must be tested and inspected every 24 calendar months. references to transponder requirements for Class C and Class B are included in FAR 91.413. you must have your transponder turned on if it is operational.103 specifies the actions required before each flight. This may stop the flow of oxygen. landing light (only when the flight is operated for hire). 17. or at night. must consider the alternatives available if a flight cannot be completed as planned. CHOICE 2 — According to FAR 61. 10. whenever you are in controlled airspace. For any flight not in the vicinity of an airport. do not fly for prolonged periods above 10. an adequate source of elec- 11. two years later. CHOICE 2 — According to FAR 61. In other situations.56.157 stipulates that no person may operate under a special VFR clearance at night unless the pilot in command is instrument rated and current.215. CHOICE 2 — FAR 91. CHOICE 2 — Medical oxygen contains too much moisture. CHOICE increase and out sciously stressful 1 — Hyperventilation is an abnormal in the volume of air you breathe into of your lungs.000 feet MSL must be equipped with an operable Mode C transponder. 8. the pilot in command 5-10 . if you are given priority handling by ATC. a second-class medical certificate expires at the end of the twelfth month after the month of the date of the examination. CHOICE 1 — According to FAR 91. formation flight while carrying passengers for hire is prohibited. anytime an aircraft is flown for hire over water beyond the power-off gliding distance from shore.315 states that no person may operate a limited category civil aircraft carrying persons or property for compensation or hire. VFE is the maximum flap extended speed. 13. CHOICE 3 — As noted in FAR 91.Instrument/Commercial Instructor’s Guide 7. CHOICE 2 — To avoid the effects of hypoxia. 9. CHOICE 2 — FAR 91. 15. anti-collision lights. 16.205. 23. 19. CHOICE 1 — According to the general abbreviations and symbols in FAR 1. CHOICE 3 — According to FAR 91. you must submit a report to the chief of the ATC facility involved within 48 hours. night VFR also requires position lights.457. 18. the aircraft must be equipped for IFR flight. CHOICE 3 — According to FAR 91. In addition. In this case. 12. there is a natural tendency to fly lowerthan-normal approaches. Aircraft operating in all airspace in the contiguous 48 states and the District of Columbia at or above 10. any pilot who has not completed a flight review (or fulfilled the requirement by an alternative method) within the preceding 24 calendar months may not act as pilot in command of an aircraft.2. 20. This rule also applies to all airspace within 30 nautical miles of a Class B airspace primary airport. 14.215. from the surface up to 10.123.130 and 91.51. for operations requiring a commercial pilot certificate. the pilot in command of each aircraft must make prior arrangements before conducting formation flights. In addition to FAR 91. CHOICE 1 — In addition to the instrument and equipment required for day VFR. CHOICE 3 — As specified in FAR 91.000 feet MSL at night without using supplemental oxygen. CHOICE 2 — Above featureless terrain.23. The earliest date this medical could have been issued was December 1 of the previous year. To reduce the effect of landing illusions. CHOICE 3 — FAR 91. VF is the design flap speed. if requested. It is defined more specifically in FAR 23. which can collect in the valves and lines of the system and freeze. you must maintain a reliable record of the aeronautical training and experience used to meet the requirements for a certificate or rating.000 feet MSL during the day or 5. You also should take advantage of electronic or visual glide slope systems when they are available. approved flotation gear must be readily available to each occupant. CHOICE 3 — According to FAR 61. You are not required to log other flight time. the next transponder inspection will be due May 31. 22.131.

This is the opposite of what normally occurs when the waste gate is open. When the waste gate is closed.s. at a constant angle of attack. 7. 10. It is most likely to occur with an overheated engine and when operating at high power settings.m. 24. After takeoff. 9. and a spare set of fuses when applicable. the waste gate gradually closes and the turbine speed increases to maintain MAP. distribution lines. CHOICE 1 — At FL260. which adjusts the waste gate. 5-11 .p. produces a decrease in manifold pressure.p.000 feet.m. CHOICE 1 — The lift formula verifies that. the slush may freeze to the gear. CHOICE 3 — When practical. You should avoid situations with high manifold pressure and low r. 3. the result is the production of four times as much lift. After this point.i. 25.5 also lists certain incidents that must be reported immediately. since there is not enough fuel for combustion.s. CHOICE 1 — The pilot’s mask plug-in usually has a red band to denote its greater flow rate. the standard pressure is 5. results in a change in manifold pressure.m. CHOICE 2 — VLE is the maximum speed at which you can fly an aircraft safely with the landing gear extended.2 p. the air temperature inside the cowling increases rapidly. This distinguishes it from other oxygen masks which are marked with gold or orange bands. CHOICE 2 — When you shut down a fuelinjected engine. assuming you use the same angle of attack. NTSB 830.2. Some common causes of overheating include using a grade of fuel lower than that recommended. Within approximately 10 to 15 minutes. CHOICE 3 — When you set the manifold pressure to the desired climb power. CHOICE 3 — If you double the airspeed. a mechanism senses the manifold pressure requirements for various altitudes and regulates oil pressure to the actuator. any increase in altitude will require an increase in throttle setting to maintain the desired manifold pressure. which correlates to a cabin pressure altitude of approximately 8. All accidents must be reported immediately to the nearest NTSB field office. 6. and drag forces change. you will reach a Commercial Pilot Critiques Stage V 1. Landing gear limitations are due to the additional operating loads which may be placed on the landing gear or associated gear doors by maneuvers and airstream forces. 5. With an increase in the angle of attack.s. airspeed. 4. operating with extremely high manifold pressure and extremely low r. the center of pressure moves forward. the temperature inside the fuel flow divider. 12.p.5 require you to submit a report only if requested to do so. Parasite drag also increases in proportion to the velocity squared. Eventually. CHOICE 2 — When you change the angle of attack. CHOICE 1 — Detonation is the result of fuel exploding within the cylinder.m.i. any change in r. Incidents not listed in NTSB 830. you should reduce manifold pressure then decrease the r. The altitude where the waste gate is fully closed and the turbine is operating at its maximum speed is called the critical altitude. CHOICE 2 — To decrease power. a decrease in r. Any attempt to start the engine under these conditions would be unsuccessful. it is advisable to cycle the gear several times after takeoff to reduce the chance of ice adhering to movable parts.i.. you should avoid taxiing through slush in an airplane with a retractable landing gear. Adding this to the differential pressure of 5. If the slush is unavoidable. the pressure distribution of the wing also changes.p.9 p. because this situation produces excessive cylinder pressure and can lead to overheating or detonation which can severely damage the engine. lift varies in proportion to the square of velocity. CHOICE 2 — Above the critical altitude. As you climb. 11. and lift. CHOICE 1 — An aircraft accident is defined by NTSB Part 830 as an occurrence associated with the operation of an aircraft for the purpose of flight which results in death or serious injury to any person or substantial damage to the aircraft. 8.Stage Exam Critiques trical energy.7 p. and injector nozzles reaches a point where the fuel vaporizes and creates a vapor lock. CHOICE 3 — Rules for reporting accidents and incidents are included in NTSB Part 830.m. gives a total pressure of 10. “Serious injury” and “substantial damage” are further defined in NTSB 830.p. and operating at over 75% power with a lean mixture setting that produces high exhaust gas temperature. 2.

to the reference line. enter the chart from the right at the 1. CHOICE 3 — Drag retards the motion of an aircraft and decreases its efficiency. A steeper bank reduces turn radius and increases the rate of turn. At 7.Instrument/Commercial Instructor’s Guide point where the total drag equals the maximum thrust available and the airplane cannot be accelerated further in straight-and-level flight.151. with the temperature 14° above ISA.000 feet at an average rate of 920 f. The average (1. Power available to overcome this drag is the other limiting factor.875 pounds. From the intersection of these temperatures and the respective altitudes.000 f.000 and 11. (4. 21 seconds.000 feet. 16. CHOICE 2 — If an airplane has negative static stability. 20. intersect the 20-knot headwind line and proceed up and to the left. a 45-minute fuel reserve is required for night 5-12 . but without increasing the load factor.m. Then. but according to the note. CHOICE 1 — Enter the chart with the given conditions and obtain a fuel flow rate of 103 pounds per hour. From here. it will have a tendency to move farther away from the original point of equilibrium when it is displaced. CHOICE 2 — You can use a flight computer to solve this problem.p. On a graph. It is the ratio of airstream dynamic pressure to static pressure generated by the wing.000 ÷ 920 = 4. it will take 4 minutes. 15. The difference between this weight and the previous problem is 275 pounds. 13. Because of the manner in which both types of drag vary with speed. and the flow separates. the rate of climb is 1.m. Reducing airspeed does the same thing.35). CHOICE 1 — First. However. CHOICE 3 — The total drag of an airplane is the sum of induced and parasite drag. move vertically down to find the rate of climb for 7. the minimum total drag occurs when they are equal. Flying your aircraft at L/DMAX provides both maximum range and the best power-off glide speed. Then move horizontally to your original weight line and downward to read a takeoff weight of about 3. The speed at which this occurs provides the maximum lift-to-drag ratio (L/Dmax).000 feet and +7°C at 11. but produces higher load factors. it would be –7°C.000 feet. It is determined by both the angle of attack and the airfoil design. 21.m. 17. 24. This is an important performance speed. Then.p. Now. proceed vertically downward and read the takeoff weight limit of approximately 2.400 pounds (interpolation between 3. proceed right until you intersect a weight of 3. Induced drag is predominant at low airspeeds and parasite drag is predominant at high airspeeds.000 + 960 ÷ 2) is 980 f.000 feet. Since there is no wind. at 11. CHOICE 2 — The coefficient of lift is a mathematical expression of the lifting efficiency of an airfoil.000 feet would be +1°C.600 pounds required).m. paralleling the diagonal headwind lines. 18.150 pounds. CHOICE 3 — Use the same initial reference lines you drew for the previous problem. Based on the standard lapse rate.p. it is a major limiting factor at high airspeeds. The maximum level flight speed is obtained when the power required to overcome total drag equals the maximum power available. draw a line parallel to the diagonal weight lines.p.. enter the graph with the temperature which is 14° C above the International Standard Atmosphere (ISA) value. Since parasite drag varies with the square of the airspeed. 14. proceed horizontally to the left until you intersect the line you drew parallel to the weight lines. go horizontally to the right to the reference line. the standard temperature at 7. CHOICE 3 — At any angle of attack beyond CLMAX the airflow can no longer follow the upper surface of the wing. 22. resulting in a stall. After entering the chart from the right. because wheel fairings are not installed.000 feet. According to FAR 91. you must subtract 60 f. at 11. CHOICE 1 — Two variables determine the rate and radius of a turn.390-foot takeoff distance line. 23. CHOICE 2 — Enter the chart at 80° F and move up to intersect the 4. For a climb of 4. CHOICE 2 — Parasite drag increases with speed and varies as the square of the velocity.. the intersection of the induced and parasite drag lines corresponds to a point on the total drag line where drag is at a minimum. induced drag decreases with speed and varies inversely as the square of the velocity.000 feet.000-foot pressure altitude line.p.m. it is 960 f. 19. the respective values would be +15°C at 7.000 and 3. This also is the point where the aircraft is operating at L/DMAX.

Convert the answer (32. or 71.6 = X 73 – 72 X = . Precise airspeed control is essential for an optimum performance climb.000-foot pressure altitude line. subtract the weight of the fuel burned from the total aircraft weight and insert the known values into the CG shift formula. Now go vertically downward to obtain a landing weight of 2. CHOICE 3 — To provide the best climb performance. you must multiply 103 pounds per hour by 45 minutes (or 0.3 pounds) from the usable fuel. 35. trying to stop a descent by pulling back on the control wheel simply tightens the turn and may cause an accelerated stall. use VX or the speed recommended by the manufacturer for obstacle clearance during a short-field takeoff. and add this to the landing weight to determine your maximum takeoff weight (2.94 inches aft of the datum. 33. is required as the airspeed decreases. CHOICE 2 — Enter the chart at 90°F and intersect the 4. you must constantly increase back elevator pressure to maintain the climbing pitch attitude as airspeed gradually decreases. Weight of Cargo Moved Weight of Airplane Distance CG Moves Distance Between Arm Locations 28.75 hours) and subtract the result (77. and more back elevator pressure. follow the manufacturer’s recommendations for flap retraction. CHOICE 2 — Throughout the first 90° of turn.0553. CHOICE 2 — After you establish the bank angle in a chandelle. The proper correction from a nose-low attitude is to decrease the angle of bank first.600 pounds. determine the fuel burned in the time given using a flight computer. In addition. pitch attitude is your main concern during the first 90° of turn.850 = 3. you should lower the nose as soon as it is practical and apply maximum effective braking.Stage Exam Critiques operations under VFR.6 3770 – 197. Use a flight computer to determine the flight time available.804 pounds). 30.0553 The new CG is 72 – .6 pounds). braking is more effective when you apply back pressure to the control wheel. 5-13 . you increase the bank angle at a constant rate so you reach the maximum bank angle of approximately 30° at the 90° point of the first 180° turn. ±5°. Therefore. CHOICE 2 — After you have established the correct bank angle. short-field takeoff data are usually based on use of full power prior to brake release. Then. Move horizontally to the right to the reference line and parallel the diagonal lines up and to the right.9 gallons) to pounds (197.600 + 204 = 2. CHOICE 2 — According to the Commercial Practical Test Standards. make no adjustment for wind.3 pounds. the requirement for changes in aileron and rudder control pressures are comparatively small. and proceed left until you reach your diagonal weight line. CHOICE 2 — Use the weight shift formula: Weight of Cargo Moved Weight of Airplane Distance CG Moves Distance Between Arm Locations = Insert the known values and solve for the unknown. In most cases.0 179-42 X = 84 lbs. 2 hours. During the second 90° of turn you begin to roll out of the bank. 29. 4 minutes.400-foot line. the bank angle required for a steep turn is 50°. 197. CHOICE 1 — First. 27. If you lowered the flaps during the approach. 34. it is important to check the engine performance before you begin the takeoff roll. 26. Therefore. Convert the fuel burn to pounds (204 pounds). 32. as well as rudder pressure. Avoid locking the brakes or skidding. CHOICE 2 — Because of reduced distances within which to stop at an airport with a short runway. 31. The fuel remaining is 212. CHOICE 1 — During a short-field landing. CHOICE 1 — If you are losing altitude because of a nose-low attitude. = Insert the known values and solve for the unknown. Then enter the chart at the right at the 1. X 3. 25.

pivotal altitude increases. This technique will reduce VMC and ensure stall characteristics will not be degraded. CHOICE 1 — Following is an explanation of the six steps: 1. rate of climb. 3. Flight tests have shown that banking toward the inoperative engine can actually increase VMC by 20 knots in some aircraft.p. The displacement of the engines from the longitudinal axis can cause a more pronounced left-turning tendency due to the offset thrust moments. CHOICE 3 — On the upwind side of the turn in a steep spiral. 7. greater caution is required when turning away from the operating engine. 38. 2. As groundspeed increases during downwind portions of the maneuver. The single-engine service ceiling is the maximum density altitude at which the singleengine best rate-of-climb airspeed VYSE will produce a 50 f. and meet schedules. except cruise flight. Identify: The decision maker identifies actions which could successfully control the change. 6. and as groundspeed decreases. Since conserving altitude is generally important. Estimate: The decision maker estimates the need to counter or react to the change. and you are exerting the least amount of back pressure on the flight controls.542 and 135. 5-14 . and all other flight operations conducted below 10. you are at the shallowest bank angle. Your bank angle and back pressure increase as you continue a turn toward the downwind side of the spiral. landing. This altitude also assumes gross weight in a clean configuration. 37. Pivotal altitude does not change as you vary the bank angle. unless the bank angle is steep enough to affect your groundspeed. 5. CHOICE 3 — FAR 121. pivotal altitude decreases. please passengers. At this altitude the VX speed reaches its peak and VY speed reaches its lowest at the same speed. This rolling tendency. CHOICE 3 — When an engine fails at the multi-engine service ceiling. 5. CHOICE 1 — The absolute altitude is the maximum density altitude the airplane is capable of attaining or maintaining. the aircraft will initially descend to the single-engine absolute ceiling. 2. which is common to single-engine aircraft. CHOICE 3 — The engine torque tends to roll a conventional twin-engine airplane opposite to the direction of engine and propeller rotation. 6. CHOICE 2 — Pivotal altitude is determined by the aircraft’s groundspeed. 40.000 feet MSL. CHOICE 3 — Pilots typically try to complete a flight as planned. Detect: The decision maker detects the fact that change has occurred. and maximum continuous power. the airspeed should never be reduced below VYSE during the descent.100 specifically prohibit crewmember performance of nonessential duties or activities while the aircraft is involved in taxi. CHOICE 3 — VYSE will achieve the minimum rate of descent when an engine failure occurs above the single-engine service ceiling. is compounded by the size of the propellers and more powerful engines. CHOICE 3 — Banking toward the operating engine during engine-out operations reduces the amount of rudder deflection needed to maintain directional control. Do: The decision maker takes the necessary action. Choose: The decision maker chooses a desirable outcome (in terms of success) for the flight. 4. 39. Evaluate: The decision maker evaluates the effect(s) of his/her action countering the change. 4.m. 3.Instrument/Commercial Instructor’s Guide 36. This can have an adverse effect on safety and can impose an unrealistic assessment of piloting skills under stressful conditions. Multi-Engine Rating Critiques Stage VI 1. CHOICE 3 — Traditional multi-engine aircraft displace the engines symmetrically away from the longitudinal axis of the aircraft. takeoff. When determining single-engine absolute altitude the propeller of the critical engine is feathered. CHOICE 3 — During engine-out operations.

CHOICE 2 — Depending on the aircraft type.Stage Exam Critiques 8. Notice that there are really three lines to choose from (978 lbs. altitude. 9. allowing the centrifugal force to actually aid in feathering. CHOICE 1 — Start by finding the point on the graph where the 9. The counterweights change the propeller’s center of mass. The reduction of power prior to this will lengthen the time to climb to a safe altitude leaving less time and altitude should an emergency situation arise. The primary objectives during engine failure on the takeoff roll are to maintain control and stop the aircraft on the runway. the pilot should delay feathering the propeller until a thorough review of the appropriate checklist is complete and the prospect of regaining power is lost.000 foot pressure altitude line and the diagonal 65% BHP line meet. The weight of an airplane in flight is supported largely by the wings. the manufacturers recommended procedure to streamline the aircraft or feather and secure the inoperative engine when restarting is not possible should be followed as soon as the engine is identified. The intersection of the 75% BHP line and the Full Throttle line corresponds to the pressure altitude on the left at 7. the pilot should retard both throttles immediately and stop the aircraft with braking action. Finally. CHOICE 2 — A maximum zero fuel weight is applicable on some airplanes to limit the ratio of loads between the fuselage and wings. or a windmilling propeller. the manufacturer’s recommendations should be followed.). 5-15 . Other systems. CHOICE 3 — A go-around from the final approach with both engines operating should be initiated by increasing to full power then reducing drag by raising the flaps to the takeoff setting and retracting the landing gear. CHOICE 3 — After takeoff. CHOICE 1 — Counterweights on propellers aid in feathering by overcoming the propeller’s centrifugal twisting force by redistributing the weight of the propeller. 600 lbs. 14. therefore as the load carried in the fuselage is increased. Follow this point straight down to the line charts below the graph. CHOICE 2 — If an engine is producing partial power. center of gravity. usually most aft.. and temperature. The maximum load that an airplane can carry also depends on the way the load is distributed. 15. 17. retard the throttle on the operating engine. As always. As always. 16. adjust power on the operative engine to maintain control and conserve altitude. CHOICE 1 — To find the highest pressure altitude at which 75 percent BHP is available. 11. A single engine approach should be planned carefully so a goaround is not required. In any case.800 feet. if necessary. usable fuel line and interpolate to find the approximate range to be 535 nautical miles. a bank of not more than five degrees is established toward the good engine. the first power reduction should be made upon reaching a safe maneuvering altitude and airspeed. Use the 600 lbs. 19. CHOICE 3 — To recover from an engine-out VMC demonstration. Emphasis should be placed on the minimum loss of altitude. The wing and the cowl flaps are in the takeoff position with the landing gear retracted. CHOICE 3 — FAR Part 23 has established minimum control speed (VMC) with the critical engine inoperative and the other engine developing takeoff power. 10. such as a mechanical spring or compressed air. find the 75% BHP line and follow it diagonally to the 2. CHOICE 3 — The singe engine best rate-ofclimb speed produces the maximum climb rate or the minimum rate of descent with one engine inoperative.. The airplane is loaded to maximum takeoff weight with the most unfavorable.500 RPM Full Throttle line. This airspeed is normally used when altitude is the prime consideration after engine failure. the greatest amount of drag may be full flap extension. decrease the angle of attack to regain control and. you should follow the manufacturer’s recommended procedure. A go-around with one engine inoperative is advisable under only the most favorable conditions of weight.218 lbs. the bending moment of the wings is increased. 12. CHOICE 3 — If an engine failure occurs on takeoff prior to VMC. 18. can also help move the propeller to a higher pitch angle. 13. and 1.

m.p. CHOICE 1 — VX is commonly called the obstruction clearance speed because it produces the most altitude gain over a given distance with both engines operating. CHOICE 2 — During a normal landing approach power is gradually reduced to idle as the airplane approaches touchdown.700 = 1. CHOICE 1 — The fuel-flow gauge is a good indication of proper engine function and proper power development.m.p. 11. 13.5 153-15 6. or passengers to reduce weight and/or wait for more favorable winds and density altitude conditions. CHOICE 2 — Generator systems typically require a minimum engine r.Instrument/Commercial Instructor’s Guide 20. During low engine r. to confirm the reliability of the engine-driven pumps. CHOICE 1 — A factor that contributes to leftturning tendency is the asymmetrical loading of the propeller. 14.p. CHOICE 1 — After the landing gear and flaps have been retracted the airplane should be accelerated to VY in order to gain the maximum amount of altitude in the shortest time. 4. CHOICE 2 — Multi-engine airplanes require special pretakeoff planning in order to mentally and physically prepare for the numerous scenarios if an engine failed during the takeoff phase. This speed produces the most altitude gain in a given time with one engine inoperative. such as a stall warning horn. These contingencies should be exercised mentally well before beginning the takeoff roll. CHOICE 3 — VYSE is shown on the airspeed indicator by the blue radial line. the resulting total thrust moment tends to turn the airplane to the left.p. The reduction of power too early may create a dangerously low approach. CHOICE 3 — The multi-engine service ceiling is the maximum density altitude where the best rate of climb speed will provide 100 f. 2. of 1. regardless of airspeed. 10. The single-engine service ceiling is that altitude at which the rate of climb is 50 f. X 5. Multi-Engine Rating Critiques End-of-Course Exam 1. 8. The airspeed indicator is also important in order to monitor acceleration and help attain maximum performance during normal and engine-out operations. CHOICE 2 — With an aft CG. climb.m. 9.m.’s alternators will provide adequate electrical power. CHOICE 1 — Use the weight shift formula: Weight of Cargo Moved Weight of Airplane Distance CG Moves Distance Between Arm Locations 7. If the CG is too far aft. the aircraft is very unstable in pitch. 5. = X = 62 lbs. baggage. Using differential braking or power can be used to augment nosewheel steering when sharp turns are required. Insert the known values and solve for the unknown. with one engine inoperative. it may not be possible to lower the nose during a stall recovery.000 before they supply power to the electrical system. CHOICE 1 — The safest procedure to follow when the accelerate-stop distance is longer than the available runway and the existing airport density altitude is higher than the single-engine service ceiling is to off-load fuel. 12. The descending blades produce more thrust than the ascending blades causing the thrust to be displaced to the right of the engine’s center. CHOICE 1 — Stall recovery is initiated at the first aerodynamic indication of a stall (buffeting or decay of control effectiveness) unless the pilot’s operating handbook specifies recovery prompted by an artificial warning system. 3. 5-16 . CHOICE 2 — Nosewheel steering can be used without assistance with great effectiveness during most ground operations. CHOICE 1 — Shutting off the electric fuel pumps after engine starting is done for the same reason it is done in single-engine aircraft. Because the thrust is not centered.

the POH for the specific airplane should always be consulted. then diagonally down to compensate for the 10 knot headwind. landing gear retracted. Distance CG Moves = 0. and directional control is lost. and wing flaps in the most favorable position. 22. then diagonally down to a weight of 3. CHOICE 3 — FAR 23. and CG in the most unfavorable position (usually at the aft limit). 24. these control pressures become inadequate. departing when conditions are below landing minimums should be avoided in the event it becomes necessary to return to the departure airport because of an emergency. Below a specified airspeed (VMC). Finally from this point proceed horizontally to determine a landing distance of approximately 2. with the critical engine inoperative. (Current CG location minus Aft CG limit) Distance Between Arm Locations = 120 in. CHOICE 2 — The accelerate-stop distance is the distance required under given conditions to accelerate to liftoff speed. critical engine windmilling (or feathered if autofeather device is installed). move horizontally from this point to the second Reference Line. must have a positive climb gradient determined at a pressure altitude of 5. with the exception of gear and flap extension. immediately discontinue the takeoff. for airplanes of 6. Next.000 pounds or less maximum weight or a VSO of 61 knots or less. flaps should only be lowered when landing is assured during an engine-out instrument approach. While this is typically the procedure for multi-engine aircraft.000 ft. and bring the airplane to a full stop.000 feet. CHOICE 1 — As in single-engine aircraft. 5-17 . decrease the distance traveled in the pattern.750 pounds. the propeller in the minimum drag position. CHOICE 2 — As with landing gear. = In the example: Weight of Cargo Moved = unknown Weight of Airplane = 4000 lbs. 18. 17. CHOICE 2 — The following formula is used to determine the amount of weight to be moved: Weight of Cargo Moved Weight of Airplane Distance CG Moves Distance Between Arm Locations 19. CHOICE 3 — By providing accurate glide path information to touchdown and minimizing the need to maintain altitude for an extended period of time. From this point continue horizontally to the Reference Line. CHOICE 1 — In light multi-engine aircraft.5 in. 20. 23. CHOICE 2 — VMC is determined with the aircraft in the following configuration: Takeoff or maximum available power on the operating engine. the pilot should attempt to fly the approach like a normal multi-engine procedure. CHOICE 3 — Flying slower in a holding pattern will conserve fuel. CHOICE 2 — Begin in the lower left corner of the chart with an OAT of 70°F. landing gear retracted. Landing gear should only be lowered when landing is assured. a precision approach is the best option when faced with an engine-out IMC situation. in the pertinent part. (Aft baggage compartment arm minus Forward baggage compartment arm) Weight of Cargo Moved = 2000 ÷ 120 or 16. pressure altitude line.Stage Exam Critiques 15. The pilot must also learn the correct recovery procedures. Follow that line vertically to the 6. CHOICE 3 — The purpose of the engine-out VMC demonstration is to show the control pressures necessary to maintain directional control with one engine inoperative. experience an engine failure at that point. flaps in takeoff position.465 feet.67(a) states. and make it easier to maintain assigned altitude. 25.7 pounds 16. 21.

Instrument/Commercial Instructor’s Guide 5-18 .