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**FUNDAMENTALS OF MODERN MANUFACTURING:
**

MATERIALS, PROCESSES, AND SYSTEMS

Second Edition

MIKELL P. GROOVER Professor of Industrial and Manufacturing Systems Engineering Lehigh University

John Wiley & Sons, Inc., New York

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PREFACE

This is the Solutions Manual for the textbook Fundamentals of Modern Manufacturing: Materials, Processes, and Systems (Second Edition). It contains the answers to the Review Questions and Multiple Choice Quizzes at the end of the Chapters 2 through 44, as well as the Problems at the end of Chapters 3, 4, 6, 10, 11, 13, 16, 18, 19, 20, 21, 22, 23, 24, 25, 26, 29, 30, 31, 33, 34, 35, 38, 40, 42, and 43. There are approximately 740 review questions, 500 quiz questions, and 500 problems (nearly all of them quantitative) in the text. I have personally answered all of the questions and solved all of the quizzes and problems and have personally recorded the solutions in this booklet. Many of the problems have been tested in class, thus giving me an opportunity to compare my own answers with those developed by the students. Despite my best efforts to avoid errors in this solutions manual, I am sure that errors are present. I would appreciate hearing from those of you who discover these errors, so that I can make the necessary corrections in subsequent editions of the Solutions Manual. Similarly, I would appreciate any suggestions from users of the text itself that might help to make any subsequent editions more accurate, more relevant, and easier to use. My address is: Dr. Mikell P. Groover Department of Industrial and Manufacturing Systems Engineering Lehigh University 200 West Packer Avenue Bethlehem, PA 18015 Office telephone number 610-758-4030. Fax machine number 610-758-4886. E-mail addresses: either Mikell.Groover@Lehigh.edu or mpg0@Lehigh.edu I hope you find the text and this Solutions Manual to be helpful teaching aids in your particular manufacturing course. Mikell P. Groover

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TABLE OF CONTENTS:

Chapter

1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. 21. 22. 23. 24. 25. 26. 27. 28. 29. 30. 31. 32. 33. 34. 35. 36. 37. 38. 39. 40. 41. 42. 43. 44.

Chapter Title*

Introduction (No questions or problems) The Nature of Materials Mechanical Properties of Materials (P) Physical Properties of Materials (P) Dimensions, Tolerances, and Surfaces Metals (P) Ceramics Polymers Composite Materials Fundamentals of Casting (P) Metal Casting Processes (P) Glassworking Shaping Processes for Plastics (P) Rubber Processing Technology Shaping Processes for Polymer Matrix Composites Powder Metallurgy (P) Processing of Ceramics and Cermets Fundamentals of Metal Forming (P) Bulk Deformation Processes (P) Sheet Metalworking (P) Theory of Metal Machining (P) Machining Operations and Machine Tools (P) Cutting Tool Technology (P) Economic and Product Design Considerations in Machining (P) Grinding and Other Abrasive Processes (P) Nontraditional Machining and Thermal Cutting Processes (P) Heat Treatment of Metals Cleaning and Surface Treatments Coating and Deposition Processes (P) Fundamentals of Welding (P) Welding Processes (P) Brazing, Soldering, and Adhesive Bonding Mechanical Assembly (P) Rapid Prototyping (P) Processing of Integrated Circuits (P) Electronics Assembly and Packaging Microfabrication Technologies Numerical Control and Industrial Robotics (P) Group Technology and Flexible Manufacturing Systems Production Lines (P) Manufacturing Engineering Production Planning and Control (P) Quality Control (P) Measurement and Inspection

Page

4 7 18 21 24 29 32 36 39 49 57 60 70 73 76 84 87 92 112 122 134 142 153 166 173 180 182 184 190 197 207 211 218 222 230 233 235 244 246 253 256 263 271

*(P) indicates chapters with problem sets.

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2.1 2.2 2.3

**THE NATURE OF MATERIALS
**

The elements listed in the Periodic Table can be divided into three categories. What are these categories and give an example of each? Answer. The three types of elements are metals (e.g., aluminum), nonmetals (e.g., oxygen), and semimetals (e.g., silicon). Which elements are the noble metals? Answer. The noble metals are copper, silver, and gold. What is the difference between primary and secondary bonding in the structure of materials? Answer. Primary bonding is strong bonding between atoms in a material, for example to form a molecule; while secondary bonding is not as strong and is associated with attraction between molecules in the material.

Review Questions

2.4

Describe how ionic bonding works? Answer. In ionic bonding, atoms of one element give up their outer electron(s) to the atoms of another element to form complete outer shells.

2.5

What is the difference between crystalline and noncrystalline structures in materials? Answer. The atoms in a crystalline structure are located at regular and repeating lattice positions in three dimensions; thus, the crystal structure possesses a long-range order which allows a high packing density. The atoms in a noncrystalline structure are randomly positioned in the material, not possessing any repeating, regular pattern.

2.6

What are some common point defects in a crystal lattice structure? Answer. Some of the common point defects are: (1) vacancy - a missing atom in the lattice structure; (2) ion-pair vacancy (Schottky defect) - a missing pair of ions of opposite charge in a compound; (3) interstitialcy - a distortion in the lattice caused by an extra atom present; and (4) Frenkel defect - an ion is removed from a regular position in the lattice and inserted into an interstitial position not normally occupied by such an ion.

2.7

Define the difference between elastic and plastic deformation in terms of the effect on the crystal lattice structure. Answer. Elastic deformation involves a temporary distortion of the lattice structure that is proportional to the applied stress. Plastic deformation involves a stress of sufficient magnitude to cause a permanent shift in the relative positions of adjacent atoms in the lattice. Plastic deformation generally involves the mechanism of slip - relative movement of atoms on opposite sides of a plane in the lattice.

2.8

How do grain boundaries contribute to the strain hardening phenomenon in metals? Answer. Grain boundaries block the continued movement of dislocations in the metal during straining. As more dislocations become blocked, the metal becomes more difficult to deform; in effect it becomes stronger.

2.9

Identify some materials that have a crystalline structure.

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Answer. Materials typically possessing a crystalline structure are metals and ceramics other than glass. Some plastics have a partially crystalline structure. 2.10 Identify some materials that possess a noncrystalline structure. Answer. Materials typically having a noncrystalline structure include glass (fused silica), rubber, and certain plastics (specifically, thermosetting plastics). 2.11 What is the basic difference in the solidification (or melting) process between crystalline and noncrystalline structures? Answer. Crystalline structures undergo an abrupt volumetric change as they transform from liquid to solid state and vice versa. This is accompanied by an amount of energy called the heat of fusion that must be added to the material during melting or released during solidification. Noncrystalline materials melt and solidify without the abrupt volumetric change and heat of fusion.

**Multiple Choice Quiz
**

There are a total of 20 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct). To attain a perfect score on the quiz, all correct answers must be given, since each correct answer is worth 1 point. For each question, each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point, and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers. 2.1 The basic structural unit of matter is which one of the following? (a) atom, (b) electron, (c) element, (d) molecule, or (e) nucleus. Answer. (a) 2.2 Approximately how many different elements have been identified (one answer)? (a) 10, (b) 50, (c) 100, (d) 200, or (e) 500. Answer. (c) 2.3 In the Periodic Table, the elements can be divided into which of the following categories (more than one)? (a) ceramics, (b) gases, (c) liquids, (d) metals, (e) nonmetals, (f) polymers, (g) semi-metals, and (h) solids. Answer. (d), (e), and (g). 2.4 The element with the lowest density and smallest atomic weight is which one of the following? (a) aluminum, (b) argon, (c) helium, (d) hydrogen, or (e) magnesium. Answer. (d) 2.5 Which of the following bond types are classified as primary bonds (more than one)? (a) covalent bonding, (b) hydrogen bonding, (c) ionic bonding, (d) metallic bonding, and (e) van der Waals forces. Answer. (a), (c), and (d). 2.6 How many atoms are there in the unit cell of the face- centered cubic (FCC) unit cell (one answer)? (a) 8, (b) 9, (c) 10, (d) 12, or (e) 14. Answer. (e) 2.7 Which of the following are not point defects in a crystal lattice structure (more than one)? (a) edge dislocation, (b) interstitialcy, (c) Schottky defect, or (d) vacancy.

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(c). (d) ionic. (b) FCC. (e) slip mechanism. (d) point defects. Answer. 2. (b) mechanism of plastic deformation. (b) Frenkel defect. and (d). (b) covalent. (c). and (f) type of dislocation. or (c) HCP. (b) and (f). (c) line defects.Answer. (c) more likely at high deformation rates. (e) 2. (c) hydrogen. (b). 6 . (e) metallic. (c) 2. Answer. Answer.9 Grain boundaries are an example of which one of the following types of crystal structure defects? (a) dislocation. and (f) van der Waals. (d) 2.10 Twinning is which of the following (more than one)? (a) elastic deformation. (d) more likely in metals with HCP structure. or (e) surface defects. (b).8 Which one of the following crystal structures has the fewest slip directions and therefore the metals with this structure are generally more difficult to deform at room temperature? (a) BCC.11 Polymers are characterized by which of the following bonding types (more than one)? (a) adhesive. Answer.

1 3. tensile. Answer. Engineering stress divides the load (force) on the test specimen by the original area. where E = a constant of proportionality called the modulus of elasticity.8 3.3 3.9 3. To achieve design function and quality. the material must be strong. In a compression test.6 Define yield strength of a material. 3. the material should not be strong.2% offset value . What are the three types of static stresses to which materials are subjected? Answer. Review Questions 3. the cross-sectional area decreases. 7 . It is usually measured as the . compressive. The yield strength is the stress at which the material begins to plastically deform. Answer.2%. in general. The tensile strength is the maximum load experienced during the tensile test divided by the original area. What is work hardening? Answer. Strain hardening is the increase in strength that occurs in metals when they are strained. Barreling of the test specimen due to friction at the interfaces with the testing machine platens. State Hooke's Law. Because of necking that occurs in the test specimen. 3. When the material does not strain harden. 3.the point at which the stress-strain for the material intersects a line which is offset from the elastic region of the stress-strain curve by 0. Hooke's Law defines the stress-strain relationship for an elastic material: σ = Eε. while in a tensile test. the specimen cross-sectional are increases as the test progresses. while true stress divides the load by the instantaneous area which decreases as the specimen stretches. Answer.11 What is the complicating factor that occurs in a compression test? Answer. and shear.3 MECHANICAL PROPERTIES OF MATERIALS What is the dilemma between design and manufacturing in terms of mechanical properties? Answer. for ease of manufacturing.4 What is the difference between engineering stress and true stress in a tensile test? Answer. 3. In what case does the strength coefficient have the same value as the yield strength? Answer.2 3. 3.5 Define tensile strength of a material.7 Why cannot a direct conversion be made between the ductility measures of elongation and reduction in area using the assumption of constant volume? Answer.10 How does the change in cross-sectional area of a test specimen in a compression test differ from its counterpart in a tensile test specimen? Answer.

1 Which one of the following are the three basic types of static stresses to which a material can be subjected (three answers)? (a) compression. 3. 3. To attain a perfect score on the quiz. 8 . It is tested by pressing a hard object (sphere.17 Define the recrystallization temperature for a metal. Answer. 3.3. 3. A test whose measuring range is suited to very hard materials is not sensitive for testing very soft materials. (d) shear. 3. Hardness is defined as the resistance to indentation of a material. oils) are Newtonian fluids.12 Tensile testing is not appropriate for hard brittle materials such as ceramics.13 How is the shear modulus of elasticity G related to the tensile modulus of elasticity E.7 TS. 3. S = 0. 3. (c) reduction in area. For each question.19 What is the defining characteristic of a Newtonian fluid? Answer. G = 0.4 E. A three-point bending test is commonly used to test the strength of brittle materials. Different hardness tests and scales are required because different materials possess widely differing hardnesses. The recrystallization temperature is the temperature at which a metal recrystallizes (forms new grains) rather than work hardens when deformed. The test provides a measure called the transverse rupture strength for these materials. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point.18 Define viscosity of a fluid. Most liquids (water. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers.15 What is hardness and how is it generally tested? Answer. on average? Answer. as a material property? Answer. 3. Viscosity is the resistance to flow of a fluid material. on average? Answer. all correct answers must be given. Answer. and (f) yield. Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 18 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct). and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point.16 Why are different hardness tests and scales required? Answer. (b) hardness. 3. on average. the greater the viscosity.20 What is viscoelasticity. What is the test commonly used to determine the strength properties of such materials? Answer. since each correct answer is worth 1 point. (f) true stress. the thicker the fluid. Viscoelasticity refers to the property most commonly exhibited by polymers that defines the strain of the material as a function of stress and temperature over time. area) of the indentation. A Newtonian fluid is one for which viscosity is a constant property at a given temperature. diamond point) into the test material and measuring the size (depth. It is a combination of viscosity and elasticity.14 How is shear strength S related to tensile strength TS. on average. (e) tensile.

(b) 3. (b) It is the elastic region that is characterized by a proportional relationship between stress and strain. or (b) true stress. (c) perfectly elastic.the flow curve. Answer. (b) 3. or (d) none of the above. Answer. (b) elastic and strain hardening. Answer. Answer. Answer. which of the following would have the higher value? (a) engineering stain. or (d) none of the above.2 Which of the following is the correct definition of ultimate tensile strength.Answer. (c) 3. (a) 3. (c) 3. (c) perfectly elastic.12 Which one of the following materials has the highest hardness? (a) alumina ceramic.6 Which one of the following types of stress strain relationship best describes the behavior of brittle materials such as ceramics and thermosetting plastics: (a) elastic and perfectly plastic. (b) gray cast iron. (c) perfectly elastic. Answer. The plastic region is characterized by a power function . or (d) none of the above.8 Which of the following types of stress strain relationship best describes the behavior of metals at temperatures above their respective recrystallization points: (a) elastic and perfectly plastic. (a). (a) 3. (a) 3.4 If strain measurements were made during a tensile test. or (e) polystyrene. (b) the maximum load divided by the final area of the specimen. (c) steel. (b) elastic and strain hardening.5 The plastic region of the stress-strain curve for a metal is characterized by a proportional relationship between stress and strain: (a) true or (b) false. or (d) the stress observed when the specimen finally fails. (d) high carbon steel. Answer.7 Which one of the following types of stress strain relationship best describes the behavior of most metals at room temperature: (a) elastic and perfectly plastic. or (e) tungsten. or (b) less than its tensile strength. (b) diamond.10 The shear strength of a metal is usually (a) greater than. Answer. which of the following would have the higher value? (a) engineering stress. and (e). as derived from the results of a tensile test on a metal specimen? (a) the stress encountered when the stress-strain curve transforms from elastic to plastic behavior. or (b) true strain. 3. 9 . Answer.11 Most hardness tests involve pressing a hard object into the surface of a test specimen and measuring the indentation (or its effect) that results: (a) true or (b) false. (b) elastic and strain hardening. 3. (b) 3.9 Which one of the following materials has the highest modulus of elasticity? (a) aluminum. (c) the maximum load divided by the original area of the specimen.3 If stress values were measured during a tensile test. Answer. (d) titanium. (d). (b) 3. (c) hardened tool steel.

2.4% (b) % area reduction = (200 .2 percent yield point.Answer.0)/50. (b) If the specimen necked to an area = 0.25)/0.002 = 0.000/0.0083 .50.92)/200 = 0. Determine: (a) yield strength Y.3 = 30% (b) % area reduction = (0. (b) Viscosity is the resistance to flow.50)/50 = 14.000 lb/in2 (b) σ = E e Subtracting the 0.13 Viscosity can be defined as the ease with which a fluid flows: (a) true or (b) false.5 x 10 3 MPa.0 = 0. in deforming over time it involves plastic flow (plasticity). Solution: (a) % elongation = (64. (a) determine the percent elongation.2. e = (50.000 N is reached at a gage length = 64.25 in2.00215 = 29.60 in.2/50 = 0. The maximum load = 168. (a).2 A test specimen in a tensile test has a gage length of 2. (b).000/0. During the test the specimen yields under a load of 98.000 lb.0.3 In Problem 3.5 . and (c) tensile strength TS.0 = 0.1 A tensile test uses a test specimen that has a gage length of 50 mm and an area = 200 mm2. Answer. (a) determine the percent elongation.23 . 3.2 percent yield point.4 In Problem 3. many materials considered to be viscoelastic do not completely return to their original shape. Determine: (a) yield strength Y. The corresponding gage length = 2. (b) modulus of elasticity E.1.5 = 0.77 x 10 6 lb/in2 (c) TS = 60. Viscoelasticity is usually considered to be a property that combines elasticity and viscosity. however. (b) plasticity. Solution: (a) Y = 32.000 lb/in2 3. (a) 3. 3. Solution: (a) % elongation = (2. and (c) tensile strength TS.2 mm. e = (2. (c) TS = 168.2% offset.0)/2.2% offset.0083 in. the shape return feature in viscoelastic behavior violates the definition of plastic flow.284 = 28. Solution: (a) Y = 98.6/2. This is the 0. The corresponding gage length = 50.5 in 2. Problems Strength and Ductility in Tension 3.000/200 = 840 MPa.000/0.0 in and an area = 0. During the test the specimen yields under a load of 32.0. Answer. determine the percent reduction in area. However. (b) modulus of elasticity E.2. This is the 0.00215 E = σ/e = 64. The maximum load = 60.0026 = 188.54 = 54% 3.5 = 64. This answer may require some justification.000 N.000/200 = 490 MPa. (b) σ = E e Subtracting the 0.23 mm.002 = 0.0)/2.60 .0026 E = σ/e = 490/0.5 = 120.0 .0.2 . Strictly speaking.14 Viscoelasticity has features of which of the following more traditional material properties (more than one)? (a) elasticity. (c) viscosity.0 .50 = 50% 10 . (b) If the specimen necked to an area = 92 mm2. determine the percent reduction in area.000 lb is reached at a gage length = 2. (c).

we obtain the value of the strength coefficient K: K = 387. Y = 310.5) = 7812.0488 (2) A = 7812. Solution: (a) Student exercise.1 MPa. (c) modulus of elasticity E. determine the strength coefficient and the strain hardening exponent.579 140.1622) n 544.524 mm2.283 = 909.375) = ln(1.1 = K(0.85 MPa 11 .5/131. Determine: (b) yield strength Y.27/0.25 = 59.5 The following data are collected during a tensile test in which the starting gage length = 125.05 28.9 MPa K = 544.27) .2011 n n = 0. (d) tensile strength TS.1678 = 404.sectional area = 62.793 125.1/(0.1678 = 404.3. we have (1) 387. Stress σ = 28913/53.01/125) = 0. Strain e = (125.1622 Substituting these values into the flow curve equation.08 at a stress = 265 MPa.27.00184.0488) n 1. (b) From the plot.23 .4056) = n ln(3.2 ε 0.25 mm.1 = K(0.2041 n = 0.85 MPa (2) K = 325/(0.25/125) = 0.5 mm2: Load (N) Length (mm) 0 0 17.08) . TS = 426.10 The maximum load is 28. true strain = 0.0488) .08) n and (2) 325 = K(0.5/147.913 147.524 = 387.2264 = (3. we obtain the value of the strength coefficient K: (1) K = 265/(0.1/(0.23 23.913 N and the final data point occurred immediately prior to failure.462 160.4 MPa Use average K = 910. (d) From the plot. Strain ε = ln(131.25 27. Solution: (1) 265 = K(0.1/387.7 In a tensile test on a metal specimen. (a) Plot the engineering stress strain curve.4056 = (3.1622) .6 In Problem 3.3238) 0.5.143 mm2.1622/0.5 mm3.1 = (0.00 20.375) n 1.00184 = 168. Stress σ = 23042/59. Flow Curve 3. (c) First data point is prior to yielding. Determine the flow curve parameters n and K.27/0.625 MPa. the true strain = 0.2164 n = 0.27) n 325/265 = (0.27 MPa.3405 = 1.1 MPa.01 = 53.143 = 544.2264) 1. Select two data points: (1) F = 23042 N and L = 131.0 mm and the cross.3238) n ln(1.2 MPa The flow curve equation is: σ = 910. Be sure not to use data after the point at which necking occurred.6 MPa.0488) n and (2) 544. Strain ε = ln(147.01 mm. E = 310.01 27. Solution: Starting volume of test specimen V = 125(62. When the true stress = 325 MPa.125)/125 = 0.283 = 910.1678 Substituting this value with the data back into the flow curve equation.08) n n ln(3.283 3.578 153. (2) F = 28913 N and L = 147.283 Substituting this value with the data back into the flow curve equation.042 131. (1) A = V/L = 7812.

Solution: (1) 37.0) 3.25/0. Determine the strength coefficient and the strain hardening exponent for this metal.3 and K = 600 MPa.250 = K(0. can you estimate the flow curve parameters n and K? Solution: If we assume that n = ε when necking starts.9163 n = 0.000 lb/in 2.256 3.25) n 55.0/2.191 lb/in2 (2) K = 55.0) = 0. Without knowing any more about the test.4336 = (2.7 ε 0.4326 Substituting this value with the data back into the flow curve equation. we have K = 345/(0.223 (2) A = 1.7407) 4.0) .300 lb/in2 (b) ε = (40.2 in and the corresponding engineering stress = 28.25) .25. and (b) the true strain at a flow stress = 40.12 A metal is deformed in a tension test into its plastic region. the true strain = 0.33 = 1.5 = 0.545 = 0.250 = (0.10) .1076) 12 .4 in 2 So.800 lb/in 2 and ε = ln(3. The starting specimen had a gage length = 2. Solution: (a) Yf = 600(1.4 = 31.1678 3.000 lb/in 2.4326 = 100.0) = 0.3125 in 2 So.2 = 0.000 = K(0.0/3.1076) n ln(1. then n = 0. the gage length = 2.22 and K = 54.10 at a true stress = 37.5)/.000/54.5 in and the corresponding engineering stress = 24.000 lb/in 2.223) n and (2) 44.800/31.000 = K(0.10 A tensile test for a certain metal provides flow curve parameters: n = 0.000(0. and at another point in the test prior to necking.22 = 45. Solution: (a) Yf = 54. and (b) true strain at a flow stress = 600 MPa. true stress σ = 24.3964 n = 0.000/(0.0 in 3 (1) A = V/L = 1. true stress σ = 28.470 These are two data points with which to determine the parameters of the flow curve equation.7 MPa The flow curve equation is: σ = 492.3125 = 44.28 with a corresponding true stress = 345.9 In a tensile test a metal begins to neck at a true strain = 0. Using this value in the flow curve equation. a metal has a true strain = 0. Determine: (a) the flow stress at a true strain = 1.10) n 1.The flow curve equation is: σ = 404.28 3.5) = ln(1. Determine: (a) the flow stress at a true strain = 0.45) .470/0.000(.8 During a tensile test.191 lb/in2 The flow curve equation is: σ = 100.4326 = 100.191 ε 0.50 in 2. Later.000/(0.22 = (0.4865) 0.800 = K(0.11 The flow curve for a certain metal has parameters: n = 0. (1) 31. Solution: Starting volume V = LoAo = 2.3 = (1.3 = 600 MPa (b) ε = (600/600) 1/.5/2.000 lb/in 2. Determine the flow curve parameters n and K.5)/.0 MPa.2/2.223) n 1.000) 1/.250 lb/in 2 and ε = ln(2.000 lb/in 2. At one point in the tensile test.28 = 492. we obtain the value of the strength coefficient K: (1) K = 37.00 3.85 ε 0.0 in and an area = 0. the gage length = 3. at a true stress = 55.4336) = n ln(2.28.45.28) .000 lb/in2.4326 3.5) = 1.470) n 44.000 = (0.10) n and (2) 55.000/37.4865 = (2.000(.0.0(0.5) n n ln(2.

14 A tensile specimen is elongated to twice its original length. True strain is therefore a better measure of strain during plastic deformation. Solution: Starting with the definition of true strain as ε = ln(L/Lo) and assuming constant volume.0 True strain ε = ln(2.3602 = . (6) 100.693 (a) To be compressed to the same engineering strain (e = -1. (c) Compute and sum the engineering strains as the specimen elongates from: (1) 75. we have V = AoLo = AL 13 .0667 L = 80 to 85 mm: e = (85 .0526 L = 100 to 105 mm: e = (105 . which is impossible. Solution: Engineering strain e = (2.85)/85 = 5/85 = 0.0 mm. determine the final compressed length of the specimen such that: (a) the engineering strain is equal to the same value as in tension (it will be negative value because of compression). the summation becomes closer to the integration value.1.90)/90 = 5/90 = 0.0 to 105.0 mm. (d) Is the result closer to the answer to part (a) or part (b)? Does this help to show what is meant by the term true strain? Solution: (a) Engineering strain e = (110 .75)/75 = 35/75 = 0.470) ..4667 (b) True strain ε = ln(110/75) = ln(1.15 Derive an expression for true strain as a function of D and Do for a tensile test specimen of round cross-section. (b) Determine the true strain.0476 _____________________________________________ Sum of incremental engineering strain values = 0.100)/100 = 5/100 = 0.0 mm.515 ε 0.4667) = 0.515 lb/in2 (1) K = 31.0)/1.0500 L = 105 to 110 mm: e = (110 .(-0.0 mm before necking occurs.0 to 100.0/1.0 to 90.800/(0.693) the final height of the compression specimen can be determined as follows: ε = -. (a) Determine the engineering strain.0 mm.693 = ln(Lf/Lo) Lf/Lo = exp.3938 (d) The resulting sum in (c) is closer to the true strain value in (b).0 to 80.0) = 0.7455 n .0 to 110.80)/80 = 5/80 = 0.0 = 1.0588 L = 90 to 95 mm: e = (95 . Note that the answer to part (a) is an impossible result. As the interval size is reduced.0 mm.0625 L = 85 to 90 mm: e = (90 .13 A tensile test specimen has a starting gage length = 75.500 Therefore.0) = ln(2.0 to 85. (3) 85.0 mm.5 Lo 3.0556 L = 95 to 100 mm: e = (100 . (b) To be compressed to the same true strain value (e = -0. If the metal had been strained in compression.483 = 64.513 lb/in2 (2) K = 44.250/(0. 3. Determine the engineering strain and true strain for this test.75)/75 = 5/75 = 0.223) = 64.0 to 95.105)/105 = 5/105 = 0.0 .383 (c)L = 75 to 80 mm: e = (80 . it will be negative value because of compression). Lf = 0. (2) 80.483 3.0 mm.0) the final height of the compression specimen would have to be zero.693) = 0. (4) 90.95)/95 = 5/95 = 0. and (b) the true strain would be equal to the same value as in tension (again. and (7) 105. The summation process is an approximation of the integration over the range from 75 to 110 mm in (b).483 Use average K = 64. It is elongated during the test to a length = 110.0 mm.483 n = 0. (5) 95.516 lb/in2 The flow curve equation is: σ = 64.

ε = ln(1 + e) 3. Solution: Tensile strength occurs at maximum value of load.17 Based on results of a tensile test.Lo)/Lo = 0.5 mm. However.section increases uniformly. Determine the true stress and true strain at failure.5 in 2 reaches a maximum load of 37.Af = 0. Its ductility is measured as 75% reduction of area. TS is defined as an engineering stress. the flow curve has parameters calculated as n = 0. we know that ε = 2 ln(Do/D). calculate the (engineering) tensile strength for the metal. From Problem 3.1 Rearranging.2/0.4 = 382. 3.15.221 Area ratio = (Do/D)2 = (1.6 MPa. The same metal is now tested in a compression test in which the starting height of the specimen = 62. At necking. Necking begins immediately thereafter.6(.75A o = 0. This is a true stress.215 Compression 3. Solution: Elongation = (L . Based on this information. 1 + e = L/Lo Substituting this into definition (1).4918 The ratio between true stress and engineering stress would be the same ratio. 0. L/Lo = Ao/A A = πD2 and Ao = πDo2 Ao/A = πDo2 /πD2 = (Do/D)2 ε = ln(Do/D)2 = 2 ln(Do/D) 3. Therefore.000 lb.Lo/Lo = L/Lo .75 Ao Ao .24 Lo A = Ao/1.5 mm and its diameter = 25 mm.24 Lo L = 1.0. Solution: Area reduction AR = (Ao . Therefore.000/0. determine the load required to compress the specimen to a height of (a) 50 mm and (b) 37.24) = 0.2) = 1.26.Therefore.25 Ao = Af If engineering stress = 248.19 A steel tensile specimen with starting gage length = 2.4/2 = 0.2 Do/D = exp. n = ε.8 MPa True strain ε = ln(Lf/Lo) = ln(Ao/Af) = ln(4) = 1.8065(0.3 MPa 3.Af)/Ao = 0.3 MPa. 14 .221) 2 = 1.18 A copper wire of diameter 0.25 = 992.8065 Ao True stress σ = 37. then true stress σ = 248.386.Lo = 0. σ = 551. Solution: Starting definitions: (1) ε = ln(L/Lo) and (2) e = (L .2 MPa.4 = 2 ln(Do/D) ln(Do/D) = . Its elongation at this point is 24%.24 L . Assuming that the cross.16 Show that true strain = ln(1 + e).0 in and cross-sectional area = 0. Therefore.20 A metal alloy has been tested in a tensile test to determine the following flow curve parameters: K = 620. TS = 1.40 and K = 551.Lo)/Lo Consider definition (2): e = L/Lo .4918(382. Determine the true stress and true strain at this maximum load.24 = 0.3) = 570.(.5) = 91.4) .5 MPa and n = 0.754 lb/in2 True strain ε = ln(1. it should be noted that these values are associated with the necked portion of the test specimen.80 mm fails at an engineering stress = 248.2 MPa.75 Ao .

At F = 260.21 The flow curve parameters for a certain stainless steel are K = 1100 MPa and n = 0.389 ε .35.511 Yf = 620.1) = 884.511) .06) 0. The flow curve equation is: σ = 137.4006 = 3.872 n n = 0.000/58 = 1293.26 = 420.775 = 78. The metal yields (0. Solution: (a) Starting volume of test specimen V = hπD2/4 = 2π(1. ε = ln(75/58) = ln(1.103 = 137.209 = 117.534/1.095 N.00464 is h = 2.223) .6) = 0.000 lb. (b) flow curve parameters K and n. A cylindrical specimen of starting cross-section area = 1000 mm2 and height = 75 mm is compressed to a height of 58 mm.2% offset) at a load = 140.000/1.775 in 2.862 lb/in2.22 A steel test specimen (E = 30 x 106 lb/in2) in a compression test has a starting height = 2.6/50 = 613.26 = 521. the height has been reduced to 1. 117.5/37.223 Yf = 620.5) = ln(1. True stress σ = 260. Solution: For h = 58 mm.000 mm3 At h = 58 mm.223 Given the two points: (1) σ = 78.000.0.103 Bending and Shear 15 .1 MPa A = V/L = 30679.5) 2/4 = 1.000/2.9907 in.714/78.00264 Strain including offset = 0.5π(25) 2/4 = 30679.5 in.1 mm2 F = 521. and (2) σ = 117.6 = 2.389 lb/in2.224 lb/in 2 is e = Y/E = 79. A = V/L = 75.000/1.223/0.1 MPa A = V/L = 30679.534 in3.770 N (b) At h = 37. Determine the force required to achieve this compression. Assume that the cross-sectional area increases uniformly during the test. At a load of 260.6 mm2 F = 420.1) = 426.5/50) = ln(1.312 N 3.002 = 0. (a) At h = 50 mm.534/1.7(1293.493) = n ln(48.00464.5(.0(1 .35 = 683.862 = (0.767 in2 Y = 140. True strain ε = ln(2.224 lb/in2 (b) Elastic strain at Y = 79.5) 2/4 = 3.7 MPa Starting volume V = 75(1000) = 75.6) = 257. Ao = πDo/4 = π(1.667) = 0. ε = ln(62.224/30.6 /37.257) .00464 Height h at strain = 0.00464) = 1.00264 + 0.6 in. Area A = 3. 3. ε = ln(62.714 lb/in 2.862 lb/in2 at ε = 0.493 = (48.223.209 in 2.000 lb.000 = 0. Determine: (a) yield strength Y.0 in and diameter = 1.1 mm2 F = 683.Solution: Starting volume of test specimen V = hπDo2/4 = 62. assuming that the cross-section increases uniformly.5(0.25) = 0.293) = 0.0/1.5 mm.1(818. A = 3.06) n ln(1.223) .103 K = 117.1(613. True strain σ = 140.9907 = 1.6 mm3.257 Yf = 1100(.767 = 79.000 lb.714 lb/in2 at ε = 0.5 = 818.00464) n 1.714/(0.

002618 = 29.01745 rad.1)) = 42. and (c) shear modulus. assuming the specimen had not yet yielded. Solution: (a) τ = T/(2πR2t) = (900 x 1000)/(2π(25) 2(3)) = 76.005236 rad.25 A piece of metal is deformed in shear to an angle of 42° as shown in Figure P3. γ = 1.3(2π/360) = 0. and gage length = 2.252) = 163..27 In a torsion test.39 MPa.5) 2(0.3. the specimen fails at a torque = 8000 ft-lb and an angular deflection = 23°.441 lb/in2. for which equipment is available in the company.5258) = 182 BHN 3.2 mm. and gage length = 50 mm. α = . a torque of 900 N-m results in an angular deflection = 0.5(1700)(2. (b) shear strain.25 in. (b) shear strain.5(0. α = 1(2π/360) = 0. 3.26 A torsion test specimen has a radius = 25 mm.0 in.5FL/bh2 = 1.30 In a Brinell hardness test.24 x 10 6 lb/in2.25. which is that hardness is always measured as the 16 . wall thickness = 3 mm. What is the shear strength of the metal? Solution: S = (1200 x 1000)/(2π(25) 2(3)) = 101.906 lb/in2. Determine: (a) the shear stress.5 in.5 x 60) = 16. wall thickness = 0.0)/(0. (b) γ = Rα/L. Solution: γ = a/b = tan 42° = 0. what is the anticipated load at which the specimen is likely to fail. given that its dimensions are: b = 15 mm. In testing.23 A bend test is used for a certain hard material.01309 (c) τ = Gγ. 3.200 lb/in2. failure of the specimen occurs at a torque = 1200 N-m and a corresponding angular deflection = 10°.002618 (c) τ = Gγ. He claims that all hardness tests are based on the same principle as the Brinell test. Solution: BHN = 2(1500)/(10π(10 . G = τ/γ = 76.24 A special ceramic specimen is tested in a bend test.22).9004. 3. If the transverse rupture strength of the material is known to be 1000 MPa.179 MPa.01745)/2.0 = 0. Determine the shear strain for this situation.(102 . Determine the transverse rupture strength if failure occurs at a load = 1700 lb.005236)/50 = 0. a 1500 kg load is pressed into a specimen using a 10 mm diameter hardened steel ball. h = 10 mm.31 One of the inspectors in the quality control department has frequently used the Brinell and Rockwell hardness tests. The resulting indentation has a diameter = 3.86 MPa. Determine: (a) the shear stress.10 in. (b) γ = Rα/L. 3. 3.0 in.3°.667 N.39/0. Hardness 3.441/0.28 In Problem 3. assuming the specimen had not yet yielded. 3.5 x 0. γ = 25(0. Solution: TRS = 1. a torque of 5000 ft-lb is applied which causes an angular deflection = 1° on a thin-walled tubular specimen whose radius = 1.29 In Problem 3. Solution: S = (8000 x 12)/(2π(1. G = τ/γ = 42.50 in and h = 0.01309 = 3. and L = 60 mm? Solution: F = (TRS)(bh2)/1. Calculate the shear strength of the metal.27. and (c) shear modulus.5) = 3000/(10π x 0.26.1)) = 67.5) 2(0. Its cross-sectional dimensions are b = 0. Determine the BHN for the metal.3.5L = 1000(15 x 102)/(1. Solution: (a) τ = T/(2πR2t) = (5000 x 12)/(2π(1. The length of the specimen between supports = 2.

(2) Scleroscope. The shaft rotates at a velocity of 400 rev/min. Solution: Shear rate = (25 in/sec)/(0. separated by a space of 0.3 lb/in2)/(50 sec-1) = 0. Using this ratio.0 mm.700 lb/in2. It is supposed to have a tensile strength in the range 60. Solution: Shear rate = (5 m/s x 1000 mm/m)/(4 mm) = 1250 s-1 η = (10N/m2)/(1250 s-1) = 0. which measures the rebound height of a hammer dropped from a certain distance against a surface specimen. which measures the depth of indentation of a cone resulting from an applied load.000) = 32. 3. this speed and the action of the oil are sufficient to keep the shaft centered inside the bushing. Assuming that the velocity gradient of the fluid is constant. Viscosity of Fluids 3. estimate the tensile strength of the steel.30 that the specimen is steel. determine the viscosity of the fluid. which measures elastic deformation by pressing an indentor into the surface of rubber and similar soft materials.3 lb/in 2 due to the viscosity of the fluid.000 = 0. For a tested hardness of BHN = 182.36 A 125. Solution: (a) TS = 500(BHN) = 500(118) = 59.32 Suppose in Problem 3.000 lb/in2. However. 3.008 N-s/m2.0 mm diameter shaft rotates inside a stationary bushing whose inside diameter = 125. we can estimate the yield strength to be Y = 0.000 to 70.33 A batch of annealed steel has just been received from the vendor. Not all hardness tests are based on the applied load divided by area. TS = 500(182) = 91. The motion of the plates is resisted by a shear stress of 10 Pa due to the viscosity of the fluid. (a) Is he correct? (b) If not. Solution: The estimating formula is: TS = 500(BHN). A Brinell hardness test in the receiving department yields a value of BHN = 118. it is unlikely that the batch can be rejected on the basis of its measured BHN without using an actual tensile test to measure TS. (b) Some of the other hardness tests and operating principles include: (1) Rockwell hardness test.000 to 70.000/45. In the clearance between the shaft and the bushing is contained a lubricating oil whose viscosity = 0. are moving relative to each other at a velocity of 5 m/sec. are moving relative to each other at a velocity of 25 in/sec. (a) Does the steel meet the specification on tensile strength? (b) Estimate the yield strength of the material. what are some of the other principles involved in hardness testing.0006 lb-sec/in2. (b) Based on Table 3. The motion is resisted by a shear stress of 0. 3.000 lb/in2. 3.000 lb/in 2. If the velocity gradient in the space between the surfaces is constant.2 in the text (page 47). from a legal standpoint. The above formula for converting from BHN to TS is only an approximating equation.5 in) = 50 sec-1 η = (0. and what are the associated tests? Solution: (a) No. the claim is not correct.35 Two parallel surfaces.555(59. Based on the BHN determined in that problem.14 Pas.5 in that is occupied by a fluid.000 lb/in2. but many of them are. separated by a space of 4 mm.applied load divided by the area of the impressions made by an indentor. 17 .34 Two flat plates. and (3) Durometer. This lies outside the specified range of 60. determine the coefficient of viscosity of the fluid. Determine the magnitude of the torque due to viscosity that acts to resist the rotation of the shaft. the ratio of Y to TS for low carbon steel = 25.6 mm and length = 50. The space between them is occupied by a fluid of unknown viscosity.555.

125)/2 = 0.1 N x 125/2 mm = 1506.6 mm2 = 19729.Solution: Bushing internal bearing area A = π(125.7 Pa = 1221.6 .7 N/mm2 Force on surface between shaft and bushing = (1221.14)(8726.6 s-1 τ = (0.3 mm v = (125π mm/rev)(400 rev/min)(1 min/60 sec) = 2618.6) = 1221.0 mm/s Shear rate = 2618/0.6) 2 x 50/4 = 19729.7 N/mm2)(19729.4 N-mm = 1.2(10-6) m2 d = (125.1 N Torque T = 24.3 = 8726.506 N-m 18 .2(10-6)) = 24.

What are the important variables that affect mass diffusion? Answer. Answer. in which the electrons are tightly bound to particular molecules. Why are metals better conductors of electricity than ceramics and polymers? Answer. Answer.1 4. Between the solidus and liquidus. the metal is a mixture of solid and liquid. finally converting to a liquid at a temperature defined for these materials as the melting point. which permits electrons to move easily within the metal. 4. Thermal diffusivity is the thermal conductivity divided by the volumetric specific heat. 4.10 What is the dielectric strength of a material? Answer. According to Fick's first law. while an alloy begins melting at a certain temperature called the solidus and finally completes the transformation to the molten state at a higher temperature called the liquidus.4 4. A pure metal element melts at one temperature (the melting point).2 PHYSICAL PROPERTIES OF MATERIALS Define the property density of a material. Thermal conductivity is the capacity of a material to transfer heat energy through itself by thermal movement only (no mass transfer). 4. Density is the weight per unit volume.8 4. 4. and time. What is the difference in melting characteristics between a pure metal element and an alloy metal? Answer. contact area.5 What is the thermal conductivity of a material? Answer.3 Describe the melting characteristics of a noncrystalline material such as glass. Review Questions 4.4 Define the specific heat property of a material. Answer. Specific heat is defined as the quantity of heat required to raise the temperature of a unit mass of the material by one degree. Answer. Ceramics and polymers have covalent and ionic bonding. concentration gradient. the material begins to soften as temperature increases. The dielectric strength is defined as the electrical potential required to break down the insulator per unit thickness.9 Define the resistivity of a material. mass diffusion depends on: diffusion coefficient which rises rapidly with temperature (so temperature could be listed as an important variable). Resistivity is the material's capacity to resist the flow of an electric current. Answer. Metals are better conductors because of metallic bonding.11 What is an electrolyte? 19 . In the heating of a noncrystalline material such as glass.7 Define thermal diffusivity.6 4. 4. 4.

Answer. melting begins at a certain temperature and concludes at a higher temperature. and (f). or (c) resistivity properties between those of conductors and semiconductors? Answer.5). (a) In the heating of most metal alloys. since each correct answer is worth 1 point. Answer. In these cases. (a).8 A superconductor is characterized by which of the following (choose one best answer): (a) very low resistivity. 4. and (f) time.2 4. Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 12 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct). Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers. which of the following temperatures marks the beginning of melting? (a) liquidus. because of its high thermal conductivity: (a) true. (c) density. (b) 20 . (e). the concentration gradient is reduced so that the rate of diffusion is reduced. (e) temperature. or (d) tin. (c) 4. (b) copper. An electrolyte is an ionized solution capable of conducting electric current by movement of the ions. (d) 4. and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point.7 Which of the following pure metals is the best conductor of electricity? (a) aluminum. (b) zero conductivity. Answer. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point. Choices (a) and (b) are included in Eq.5 Copper is generally considered easy to weld. of (b) solidus. or (d) water. For each question. (d) 4. 4. 4. This is perhaps a trick question. Answer. all correct answers must be given. (b) copper. Answer. Answer.3 Polymers typically exhibit greater thermal expansion properties than metals: (a) true. or (b) false. (c) polyethylene. (b) concrete. (d) melting point. Temperature (e) has a strong influence on the diffusion coefficient. (b) 4. (b). or (d) silver. To attain a perfect score on the quiz.6 The mass diffusion rate dm/dt across a boundary between two different metals is a function of which of the following variables (more than one): (a) concentration gradient dc/dx. (b) contact area. Time (f) figures into the process because it affects the concentration gradient.Answer. (4.4 Which of the following materials has the highest specific heat? (a) aluminum. (c) gold.1 Which one of the following metals has the lowest density? (a) aluminum. or (b) false. (b) The high thermal conductivity of copper makes it difficult to weld because the heat flows away from the joint rather than being concentrated to permit melting of the metal. Answer. (c) magnesium. as time elapses.

5(10-2) Ω = 21. the shaft must be reduced in diameter by cooling.01512 cm (L2 )3 = (1. Solution: Assume a 1 cm3 cube.006 -.1.1.0003T2 . or (b) negative.D1 = αD1 (T2 .10 mm? Use Table 4.006 = 0.007854 mm2 = 0. L2 = 1. if the bar is heated from room temperature (70°F) to 500°F.0003T2 -0.4.581 g/cm3 4.7 x 10-8 Ω-m2/m)(10 m)/( 0.0288 in. 24.04605 cm3 Assume weight remains the same.4 With reference to Table 4.184J.7 x 10-8 Ω-m2/m R = (1.0 in)(500°F .0 in.2 Aluminum has a density of 2.193 cal.3. Determine its density at 650°C. Heat = (0.L1 = αL1 (T2 . This shaft is to be inserted into a hole in an expansion fit assembly operation.25. so heat = 662. Conversion: 1.0 + 24(10-6)(1.007854(10-6) m2 From Table 4.00 mm. Refer to Table 4. α = 12(10-6) mm/mm/°C according to Table 4.98 . the anode is the electrode which is (a) positive.T2).196 J.70 g/cm3 at room temperature (20°C).0003(T2 .2.014 = 0.T2).01512) 3 = 1. To be readily inserted. 1 cm on each side.3 as a reference. From Table 4.0 cal = 4. (a) Problems 4.02 = 300(10-6)(T2 . using data in Table 4.20) -0. Determine the temperature to which the shaft must be reduced from room temperature (20°C) in order to reduce its diameter to 24.70/1.0.0003T2 T2 = -46.1.1 The starting diameter of a shaft is 25.70 g/cm3)(300°C .21°C) = 158.21 cal/g-°C)(103 cm3)(2. Solution: R = rL/A. A = π(0.5 What is the resistance R of a length of copper wire whose length = 10 m and whose diameter = 0.1.70°F) = 0.1) 2/4 = 0. α = 24(10-6) mm/mm/°C L2 .7 x 10-6 in/in/F)(10. 4.20) = 0.00 = 12(10-6)(25. Revise Eq. thus ρ at 650°C = 2.3 With reference to Table 4. determine the quantity of heat required to increase the temperature of an aluminum block that is 10 cm x 10 cm x 10 cm from room temperature (21°C) to 300°C. Solution: Increase = (6. Answer.04605 = 2.0)(650 . Solution: For steel.20) -0.1) to D2 . (4. Solution.98 mm. determine the increase in length of a steel bar whose length = 10. 4.02 = 0.65 Ω 21 .1 as a reference.00)(T2 .20) = 1.9 In an electrolytic cell.007854(10-6) m2) = 2164.67° C ° 4. r = 1.02 + 0.

5. Surface texture refers only to the surface geometry. Answer. (2) it does not indicate lay. Surface roughness is defined as the average value of the vertical deviations from the nominal surface over a specified surface length.5 How is surface texture distinguished from surface integrity? Answer. 5. how is roughness distinguished from waviness? Answer. AND SURFACES What is a tolerance? Answer. etc. Roughness deviations lie within waviness deviations. A tolerance is defined as the total amount by which a specified dimension is permitted to vary. 5. Surface texture is the random and repetitive deviations from the nominal surface. 22 . 5.5 5. (3) its value depends on the roughness width cutoff L used to measure the average.8 What is the difference between AA and RMS in surface roughness measurement? Answer. The nominal surface is the ideal part surface represented on an engineering drawing. Surface roughness measurement provides only a single value of surface texture.6 Within the scope of surface texture.1) and (5. what does surface roughness mean? Answer. TOLERANCES. (5. 5. lay.9 Indicate some of the limitations of using surface roughness as a measure of surface texture. Among its limitations are: (1) it varies depending on direction. Answer. see Eqs. surface integrity includes not only surface but the altered layers beneath the surface. mating of components in assembly.2 DIMENSIONS. perfectly flat if referring to a planar surface. waviness. What are some of the reasons why surfaces are important? Answer. 5. while waviness refers to the deviations of larger spacing.1 5.7 Surface roughness is a measurable aspect of surface texture. perfectly round if referring to a round surface.4 Define surface texture. safety. Roughness consists of the finely-spaced deviations from the nominal surface. friction and wear. Review Questions 5. AA and RMS are alternative methods by which the average roughness value is computed. Answer. and flaws.3 Define nominal surface. including roughness. 5. effect of surface on mechanical and physical properties. and thermal electrical contacts.10 Identify some of the changes and injuries that can occur at or immediately below the surface of a metal. It is assumed perfectly smooth. The reasons why surfaces are important include: aesthetics.3) in the text.

metallurgical changes resulting from heat. (b) 5. hot rolling. To attain a perfect score on the quiz. (d) plastic deformation.13 Name some manufacturing processes that produce very good or excellent surface finishes. (b) concentricity. (b). (b) measurement error. and electrical. Processes that produced very good and excellent surfaces include: honing. Answer. intergranular attack. variations in hardness near the surface. 5. 5. (c) cylindricity. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point. 5.1 A tolerance is which one of the following? (a) clearance between a shaft and a mating hole. The changes and injuries include: cracks. or (d) variation in manufacturing.4 Which averaging method generally yields the higher value of surface roughness. Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 19 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct). and (e) surface cracks. including mechanical.11 What causes the various types of changes that occur in the altered layer just beneath the surface? Answer. Processes that produce poor surfaces include: sand casting. (see Table 5. (d) oil films. etc. (c) 5. residual stresses.3 Surface texture includes which of the following characteristics of a surface (may be more than one)? (a) deviations from the nominal surface. and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point. (a) and (d). and (d) roundness. polishing. (c).1). since each correct answer is worth 1 point. 23 . 5.. thermal. Answer. (a). 5. Answer. (e) recrystallization. lapping.12 Name some manufacturing processes that produce very poor surface finishes. Answer. Answer.6 Surface texture is included within the scope of surface integrity: (a) true or (b) false. 5. and (e). and superfinishing. (c) heat affected zone. For each question. chemical. (b) feed marks of the tool that produced the surface. or (f) voids. and thermal cutting (e. (b).Answer. (a) AA or (b) RMS? Answer. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers. (b) hardness variations. craters. sawing. Energy input resulting from the manufacturing process used to generate the surface.2 Which of the following two geometric terms have the same meaning? (a) circularity. Answer. (c) hardness variations. Answer. flame cutting).g.5 5. all correct answers must be given. (a) Thermal energy is normally associated with which of the following changes in the altered layer? (a) cracks. and (e). The energy forms can be any of several types. (c) total permissible variation from a specified dimension.

9 5. Answer. Answer. (a). and (f) Which one of the following manufacturing processes will likely result in the best surface finish? (a) arc welding. (c) machining. Accept either answer. (b) microstructure near the surface. (b) decrease.7 A better finish (lower roughness value) will tend to have which of the following effects on fatigue strength of a metal surface? (a) increase. (b) grinding. or (f) variation in tensile strength near the surface. (d) sand casting. or (e) sawing. sawing (e) will yield a poor finish. (b) 5. (c) microcracks beneath the surface. (b). Also.10 Which one of the following manufacturing processes will likely result in the worst surface finish? (a) cold rolling. (b) Which of the following are included within the scope of surface integrity? (a) chemical absorption. (d) sand casting. (c) machining. (b) grinding.5.8 5. (c). Answer. (e). (d) substrate microstructure. (d). Answer. or (c) no effect. 24 . or (e) sawing. (e) surface roughness.

6.2 6. Answer. and V.11% to about 5%. The carbon content ranges from 0. Why is it so simple? Answer. 25 .7 The copper-nickel system is a simple alloy system. What are the two major groups of metals? Define them. and Ni increase hardenability during heat treatment. Answer. Cr and Mo improve hot hardness. Mo. Ni. 6.1 6.4 METALS What are some of the general properties that distinguish metals from ceramics and polymers? Answer.8 6.11 What are some of the mechanisms by which the alloying elements other than carbon strengthen steel. and higher density than ceramics or polymers.g. we should also mention the most important. What is the definition of an alloy? Answer. 6. which are based on iron. which is C. All of the alloying elements other than C strengthen the steel by solid solution alloying. such as a metallic compound (e.11%.. Answer. The Cu-Ni alloy system is simple because it is a solid solution alloy throughout its entire composition range. Answer.3 6.6 6. Cr. A solid solution is an alloy in which one of the metallic elements is dissolved in another to form a single phase.5 Distinguish between a substitutional solid solution and an interstitial solid solution. which includes all others. An alloy is a metal comprised of two or more elements. Mo. A substitutional solid solution is where the atoms of dissolved element replace atoms of the solution element in the lattice structure of the metal. An interstitial solid solution is where the dissolved atoms are small and fit into the vacant spaces (the interstices) in the lattice structure of the solvent metal. Mn. as indicated by its phase diagram. An intermediate phase is an alloy formed when the solubility limit of the base metal in the mixture is exceeded and a new phase. Metallic properties include: high strength and stiffness.02% to 2. Fe 3C) or intermetallic compound (e.10 Identify some of the common alloying elements other than carbon in low alloy steels. What is a solid solution in the context of alloys? Answer. What is the range of carbon percentages which defines an iron-carbon alloy as cast iron? Answer.9 What is the range of carbon percentages which defines an iron-carbon alloy as a steel? Answer. and nonferrous. Mn. 6. at least one of which is metallic..g.6 What is an intermediate phase in the context of alloys? Answer. Ferrous metals. 6. The carbon content ranges from 2. good electrical and thermal conductivity. The common alloying elements in low alloy steel are Cr. Mg2Pb) is formed. Review Questions 6.

and ability to be alloyed and strengthened to achieve good strength-to-weight ratios. high electrical and thermal conductivity.20 What are some of the important applications of nickel? Answer. and (3) to form nickel-based alloys noted for high-temperature performance and corrosion resistance. which increases wear resistance. (2) for plating of steel to resist corrosion. and low strength.19 What elements are traditionally alloyed with copper to form (a) bronze and (b) brass? Answer. 6.23 What important alloy is formed from lead and tin? 26 . It is called austenitic because this alloy exists in its austenitic phase at room temperature. formability. The reason is that nickel has the effect of enlarging the austenitic temperature range to include room temperature. Mo. (a) tin. (b) zinc. Silicon. Magnesium is noted for its very low density (lightest of the structural metals).22 Identify some of the important applications of zinc. however. what other alloying element is characteristic of the cast irons? Answer. propensity to oxidize (which can cause problems in processing).17 What are some of the noteworthy properties of magnesium? Answer. Answer. The important applications are: (1) as an alloying ingredient in steel.Several of the alloying elements (Cr. 6. 6. If no heat treatment carbon strengthens by creating a two-phase structure in the steel.. 6.21 What are the noteworthy properties of titanium? Answer. and high temperature strength. e. The important applications are: (1) die castings . good corrosion resistance due to the formation of a tough oxide film on its surface. Its high electrical conductivity. 6. 6.12 What is the mechanism by which carbon strengthens steel in the absence of heat treatment? Answer. 6.g. 6. V) form hard carbides with C.16 Identify some of the properties for which aluminum is noted? Answer. Aluminum is noted for its low density.15 Besides high carbon content.14 Why is austenitic stainless steel called by that name? Answer. (3) as an alloying element with copper to form brass. Vanadium inhibits grain growth during heat treatment which improves strength and toughness. 6. Titanium is noted for its high strength-to-weight ratio.zinc is an easy metal to cast. 6. 6. Chromium. corrosion resistance (due to the formation of a thin but tough oxide film). (2) as a coating in galvanized steel. stainless steel. it can be alloyed and strengthened by methods similar to those used for aluminum alloys to achieve respectable strength-to-weight ratios. 6.13 What is the predominant alloying element in all of the stainless steels? Answer.18 What is the most important engineering property of copper which determines most of its applications? Answer.

(a) The principal noble metals are copper. (b) copper. 6. Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 23 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct). (a) The refractory metals include columbium (Cb). Answer. tantalum (Ta). (b) cementite. The superalloys are generally distinguished by their strength and resistance to corrosion and oxidation at elevated temperatures. (c) high electrical resistivity. The three basic methods are: (1) alloying to form solid solutions and two-phase structures which are stronger than the elemental metals. or (e) gamma. 6. according to the base metal used in the alloy. (a) 6. (2) cold working. (b) What does the term refractory mean? Answer. and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point. 6. Answer. and (3) heat treatment . (b) Nobel metals are so-named because they are chemically inactive.26 The superalloys divide into three basic groups. To attain a perfect score on the quiz. (c) delta. since each correct answer is worth 1 point. (c) iron. (d) ferrite. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point. and silver. in which the strain-hardened metal is stronger and harder than the unstrained metal. or (e) silicon. platinum. all correct answers must be given. gold. and (3) cobalt-based alloys. 6. The three groups are: (1) iron-based alloys. (b) high strength. (d) magnesium. or (e) ionic bonding.most of the commercial heat treatments are designed to increase the strength of the metal. 6. 6. Solder.28 What are the three basic methods by which metals can be strengthened? Answer. Name the three groups.1 Which of the following properties or characteristics are inconsistent with the metals (more than one)? (a) good thermal conductivity.25 (a) Name the four principal noble metals. (d) 27 . (c) and (e).3 The predominant phase in the iron-carbon alloy system for a composition with 99% Fe at room temperature is which of the following? (a) austenite. and tungsten (W). (2) nickel-based alloys. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers.24 (a) Name the important refractory metals. Answer. (d) high stiffness. molybdenum (Mo).27 What is so special about the superalloys? What distinguishes them from other alloys? Answer. Answer. (b) Why are they called noble metals? Answer. Mo and W are the most important. 6. For each question. (b) Refractory means the capability to withstand high temperature service.Answer.2 Which of the metallic elements is the most abundant on the earth? (a) aluminum.

(b). (b) gray cast iron. (e) Solid solution alloying is the principal strengthening mechanism in high-strength low-alloy (HSLA) steels: (a) true or (b) false. (d) silver. (c) malleable iron.14 From which of the following ores is aluminum derived? (a) alumina. (c) platinum. Answer. (b) hypoeutectoid. (b) 6. (b) Which of the following elements is the most important alloying ingredient in steel? (a) carbon.8 6. (c). (c) gold. Answer.16 Traditional brass is an alloy of which of the following metallic elements? (a) aluminum.15 Which of the following metals possess good electrical conductivity (more than one)? (a) aluminum. (b) manganese.11 Which of the following is the most important cast iron commercially? (a) ductile cast iron. (d) molybdenum. (e) zinc. (b) copper. (b) 10XX. or (e) scheelite.10 Which of the following alloying elements are most commonly associated with stainless steel (name two)? (a) chromium.6 6. (b) 6. or (d) wrought iron. (c) nickel. 6. (b) copper. and (d). (a). (c) gold.13 Which of the following metals has the highest density? (a) gold. (c) 11XX. Answer. (b) 6.4 A steel with 1. (c) 6. (b) chromium. Answer. (c) tin. Answer. or (d) white cast iron. (d) silver. Answer. (a) Which of the following is not a common alloying ingredient in steel? (a) chromium. (e) zinc. and (e) tungsten. 28 .0% carbon is known as which of the following: (a) eutectoid.7 6. (c) The strength and hardness of steel increases as carbon content increases: (a) true of (b) false. (b) manganese. (d) vanadium. Answer. (c) cementite. (c) nickel. Answer. or (d) titanium.6. 6. (d) 12XX. or (e) vanadium. (a) and (d). (d) nickel. (c) hypereutectoid. or (e) tungsten. (a) 6. Answer. (d) tin. (a) Plain carbon steels are designated in the AISI code system by which of the following? (a) 01XX. or (e) 30XX.9 6. (d) hematite. or (e) tungsten. Answer.12 Which of the following metals has the lowest density? (a) aluminum. Answer.5 6. (b) lead. (c) molybdenum. (b) magnesium. Answer. (b) bauxite.

(d) Problems 6. 6.3.29 6. determine the liquid and solid phase compositions for a nominal composition of 40% Sn and 60% Pb at 204°C (400°F).3 For the lead-tin phase diagram of Figure 6. if the lead-tin proportion is 67%-33%. Solution: From Fig 6. use the inverse lever rule to determine the proportions of liquid and solid phases present in the alloy. Solution: From Fig 6.1 For the copper-nickel phase diagram in Figure 6. If so.17 Which of the following has the lowest melting point? (a) aluminum.2. Liquid phase proportion = 15/(15 + 10.5) = 15/25. (b) lead.2/(13) = 0. the compositions are observed as follows: Liquid phase composition = 56% Sn .2.59 α phase proportion = 10. Solution: From Fig 6. β phase composition = 98% Sn .5 = 0.82% Pb.5 mm. (d) tin. use the inverse lever rule to determine the proportions of liquid and solid phases present in the alloy. measured values of CL and CS are: CL = 7.3. Solution: From Fig 6. Answer. find the compositions of the liquid and solid phases for a nominal composition of 70% Ni and 30% Cu at 1371°C (2500°F).5/25. Liquid phase proportion = 4. CS = 4. use the inverse lever rule to determine the proportions of liquid and solid phases present in the alloy. the compositions are observed as follows: Liquid phase composition = 78% Sn . 6.8 mm. Solution: From Fig 6. measured values of CL and CS are: CL = 5 mm. (c) magnesium.2% Pb.5 = 0. determine the liquid and solid phase compositions for a nominal composition of 90% Sn and 10% Pb at 204°C (400°F). is it possible to design a solder (lead-tin alloy) with a melting point of 260°C (500°F).32 α phase proportion = 7. CS = 12 mm.17% Cu.7 For the preceding problem. 6.71 Solid phase proportion = 5/17 = 0.Answer.2 mm. Solid phase composition = 83% Ni .3.44% Pb. the compositions are observed as follows: Liquid phase composition = 65% Ni .4 Using the lead-tin phase diagram in Figure 6.35% Cu. or (e) zinc. Liquid phase proportion = 12/(12 + 5) = 12/17 = 0.2 For the preceding problem.2.8/13 = 0. Solution: From Fig 6.22% Pb.5 For the preceding problem. CS = 15 mm. measured values of CL and CS are: CL = 10.6 Using the lead-tin phase diagram in Figure 6.3. 6. 6. what would be its nominal composition? Solution: It is possible to obtain such a solder. (b) and (e).68 29 .3.3.3. α phase composition = 18% Sn .41 6.

(b) gamma + iron carbide.6. Solution: (a) Alpha + iron carbide. 30 . identify the phase or phases present at the following temperatures and nominal compositions: (a) 650°C (1200°F) and 2% Fe 3C. (b) 760°C (1400°F) and 2% Fe 3C.4. and (c) 1095°C (2000°F) and 1% Fe 3C. and (c) gamma.8 In the iron-iron carbide phase diagram of Figure 6.

used in making ceramic products? Answer. silicon. usually to a porous ceramic product such as earthenware. carbides). bricks) while new ceramics are more recently developed ceramics which are generally simpler in chemical composition (e. the usually kaolinite (Al2(Si2O5)(OH)4). nonmetallic compound.6 7. Oxygen.4 What is the feature that distinguishes glass from the traditional and new ceramics? Answer.g. What are the general mechanical properties of ceramic materials? Answer. and iron.3 CERAMICS What is a ceramic is.1 7. Answer.8 7. 31 . they are alternative forms of the element carbon. Clay most commonly consists of hydrous aluminum silicate. 7. to make the product more impervious to moisture and more attractive. They are both minerals of alumina. 7. 7. What are the general physical properties of ceramic materials? Answer.7 Why are graphite and diamond not classified as ceramics? Answer. What are the four most common elements in the earth's crust? Answer. Usually electrical and thermal insulators.10 What is clay.g. oxides.2 7. Glazing involves the application of a surface coating of oxides such as alumina and silica. A ceramic is an inorganic. Traditional ceramics are based primarily on clay products (e..11 What is glazing. What do bauxite and corundum have in common? Answer. Glass is noncrystalline (amorphous). Review Questions 7..7 7. The term is sometimes also applied to metals that are heat resistant. aluminum. medium density (typically below the density of metals). pottery. usually formed into useful products by a heating process.5 7. 7. brittle. Refractories are heat resistant ceramic materials. Because they are not compounds. 7.9 What type of atomic bonding characterizes the ceramics? Answer. What is the difference between the traditional ceramics and the new ceramics? Answer. Usually high hardness. no ductility. while most other ceramics assume a crystalline structure. as applied to ceramics? Answer. thermal expansion usually less than metals. Covalent and ionic bonding. high melting temperatures.12 What does the term refractory mean? Answer.

thus leading to highly anisotropic properties.the tendency to crystallize from the glassy state. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point. As a thin coating on cutting tools to prolong tool life. nonmetallic material which cools to a rigid solid without crystallization. oxygen. and (7) altering the index of refraction for optics applications (e. For each question. as mentioned in the text? Answer.14 What is one of the important applications of titanium nitride. (2) increasing fluidity in the molten glass during processing. (c) feldspar. 7. or silicon dioxide (SiO 2).20 What is graphite? Answer. Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 18 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct).7.g.13 What are some of the principal applications of the cemented carbides. (4) reducing thermal expansion in the final product. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers. Answer. 7. or (e) silicon. Answer. (6) adding color to the glass. all correct answers must be given. aluminum. (d) kaolinite. (b) calcium. 7. Answer.16 Define glass.15 What elements comprise the ceramic material Sialon? Answer. (5) increasing the chemical resistance against attack by acids. 7. (3) retarding devitrification . Silicon. and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point. Silica.19 What does the term devitrification mean? Answer. 7. and nitrogen.18 What are some of the functions of the ingredients that are added to glass in addition to silica. basic substances. drawing dies. and other applications where hardness is a critical factor. rock drilling bits. lenses). (d) oxygen. or water. Answer. in which covalent bonding exists between atoms in the layers. such as WC-Co? Answer. (d) 7. dies for powder metallurgy. (b) corundum.1 Which one of the following is the most common element in the earth's crust? (a) aluminum..2 Glass products are based primarily on which one of the following minerals? (a) alumina. 7.17 What is the primary mineral in glass products? Answer. To attain a perfect score on the quiz. and the (parallel) layers are bonded by van der Waals forces. The functions of the additional ingredients include: (1) acting as flux (promoting fusion) during heating. or (e) silica. Graphite is carbon in the form of hexagonal crystalline layers. 7. Devitrification is the transformation from the glassy state into a polycrystalline state. Glass is an inorganic. 7. (e) 32 . since each correct answer is worth 1 point. Important applications of WC-Co include: cutting tool inserts. (c) iron.

14 Synthetic diamonds date to: (a) ancient times. (c) high thermal expansion. (b). Answer. (c) cubic boron nitride. or (e) tungsten carbide. (b) electrical conductor. (c) carbon monoxide. 7.13 The specific gravity of graphite is closest to which one of the following: (a) 1.8 7. Answer. (d) silicon dioxide.6 7. (a) 7. Answer.0. or (d) stoneware. (b) calcium oxide. or (b) false. (b) Which of the following is fired at the highest temperatures? (a) china. relative to other ceramics. Answer. (a). or (d) 1980.0. (b) Glass ceramics are polycrystalline ceramic structures that have been transformed into the glassy state: (a) true. Answer. or (e) SiO 2. (c) 4. (b) 1800s.12 Diamond is the hardest material known: (a) true.7 7. or (e) 16. (c) 33 . (c) 7.10 Which of the following best characterizes the structure of glass-ceramics? (a) 95% polycrystalline. (a) 7. 7. (d) 8. (b) carbon dioxide. (b) bauxite. Answer. (a) and (d) Which one of the following is generally the most porous of the clay-based pottery ware? (a) china. Glass ceramics are glasses that have been transformed into a mostly crystalline form through heat treatment. or (d) stoneware. Which of the following ceramics are commonly used as abrasives in grinding wheels (two best answers)? (a) aluminum oxide. (c) porcelain.0.9 Which one of the following materials is closest to diamond in hardness? (a) aluminum oxide.0 (b) 2. or (d) strong. (d) silicon carbide. (b) 95% vitreous. (b) Al2(Si2O5)(OH)4. (b) 7. or (e) sandstone. Answer.11 Properties and characteristics of the glass-ceramics include which of the following (may be more than one)? (a) efficiency in processing. (c) 1950s. Answer. and (c). (a) and (d). or (b) 50% polycrystalline. (b) earthenware. Answer. (c) Which one of the following comes closest to expressing the chemical composition of clay? (a) Al2O3.0. (b) earthenware. (c) 3AL2O3-2SiO2. Answer. (c) porcelain. Answer. or (e) silicon dioxide. or (b) false. (c) corundum. (d) quartz. (d) MgO. Answer.3 Which of the following contains significant amounts of aluminum oxide (more than one)? (a) alumina. (b) It's reversed in the statement.5 7.7.4 7.

1 for descriptions.6 Define the term tacticity as it applies to polymers. polymers are low in electrical and thermal conductivity. if cross-linking is significant. How do the properties of polymers compare with those of metals? Answer. 8.8 8.1.11 How are a polymer's properties affected when it takes on a crystalline structure? 34 . An example is ABS (acrylonitrile-butadiene-styrene) plastic. What are some of the possible arrangements? Answer.2 8. See Article 10. If the amount of cross-linking is low. connected end to end. Tacticity refers to the way the atoms or atom groups replacing H atoms in the molecule are arranged. also known as condensation polymerization. the polymer is transformed into a thermosetting polymer. and (4) graft.5 What does the degree of polymerization indicate? Answer. 8.4 for descriptions. (2) thermosetting polymers. (3) block.1 8. The degree of polymerization indicates the average number of mers or repeating units in the polymer molecule. A polymer is a compound that consists of long-chain molecules.9 The arrangement of repeating units in a copolymer can vary. Answer. Answer. A copolymer is a polymer made up of two different types of mers. such as ethylene and propylene. density. It causes the polymer structure to be permanently altered. (2) random. stiffness. 8. 8. and (3) elastomers. polymers have lower strength.1. A terpolymer is a polymer with three different mer types. hardness. called mers. In addition. What are the three basic categories of polymers? Answer. There are four possible arrangements of the mers along the chain: (1) alternating.3 POLYMERS What is a polymer? Answer. 8. The categories are: (1) thermoplastics. 8.4 What are the two methods by which polymerization occurs? Briefly describe the two methods. In general.10 What is a terpolymer? Answer. 8.7 What is cross-linking in a polymer and what is its significance? Answer.8 What is a copolymer? Answer. The two types of polymerization are: (1) addition or chain polymerization and (2) step polymerization. and temperature resistance compared to metals. See Article 10. The molecules consist of repeating units. Review Questions 8. the polymer is transformed into an elastomer. Cross-linking is the formation of connections between the long-chain molecules in a polymer.

16 In addition to fillers and plasticizers. 8. (4) slow cooling from the molten states promotes crystal formation.19 The nylons are members of which polymer group? Answer. These differences account for HDPE higher density. An amorphous TP shows a significant drop in deformation resistance at its Tg as temperature is raised. Polyamides. (5) plasticizers inhibit crystal formation.22 How do the properties of thermosetting polymers differ from those of thermoplastics? Answer. (3) stereoregularity . Answer.Answer. 8. C2H4 8.20 What is the chemical formula of ethylene. It is often added to improve the polymer's flow characteristics for shaping.isotactic polymers always form crystals. 8. and melting temperature increase.21 What is the basic difference between low density and high density polyethylene? Answer. Cellulose is a polymer that grows in nature.17 Describe the difference in mechanical properties as a function of temperature between a highly crystalline thermoplastic and an amorphous thermoplastic. what are some other additives used with polymers? Answer. and melting point.14 Why are fillers added to a polymer? Answer. 8.23 Cross-linking (curing) of thermosetting plastics is accomplished by one of three ways. stiffness. colorants. 8. capable of higher service temperatures. A plasticizer is a chemical added to the polymer to make it softer and more flexible. and cannot be remelted. (2) copolymers do not form crystals.15 What is a plasticizer? Answer. Density. Factors are: (1) only linear polymers can form crystals. atactic polymers never form crystals. 8. Other additives include: lubricants . cross-linking agents. 8. flame retardents. Name the three ways. No. and syndiotactic polymers sometimes form crystals. brittle. antioxidants.to reduce friction and improve flow. 8. the monomer for polyethylene? Answer.13 What are some of the factors that influence a polymer's tendency to crystallize? Answer. 8. Wood fiber contains about 50% cellulose and cotton fiber is about 95% cellulose. Fillers are added to increase strength or simply to reduce the cost of the polymer. HDPE is linear and highly crystalline. A highly crystalline TP retains rigidity during heating until just before its Tm is reached. 8. and ultraviolet light absorbers. LDPE has a branched structure and is amorphous. and (6) stretching the polymer tends to promote crystallization.12 Does any polymer ever become 100% crystalline? Answer. Thermosets are more rigid. stiffness.18 What is unique about the polymer cellulose? Answer. it becomes increasingly like a liquid as temperature continues to increase. 8. 35 .

in which two reactive components are mixed and curing occurs by their chemical reaction. whereas thermosets are highly cross-linked. and its melting temperature decreases: (a) true or (b) false.1 Of the three polymer types. and (3) mixing-activated systems. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point. (d) C5H8. Answer. Answer.25 What happens to an elastomer when it is below its glass transition temperature? Answer. Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 25 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct). the polymer becomes denser and stiffer. a highly cross-linked structure makes the polymer rigid. (c) 8. and (2) their extensibility derives from physical connections between different phases in the polymer. or (e) C8H8.2 Which one of the three polymer types is not normally considered to be a plastic? (a) thermoplastics. (b) thermosets. (2) catalyst-activated systems. and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point.linking? (a) thermoplastics.27 How are thermoplastic elastomers different from conventional rubbers? Answer. Answer. (c) C3H6. in which elevated temperatures accomplish curing. TPEs are different in two basic ways: (1) they exhibit thermoplastic properties.linked. (b) 36 . Light cross-linking allows extensibility. all correct answers must be given. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers. or (c) elastomers. 8. since each correct answer is worth 1 point. Answer. 8. (b) thermosets. For each question.24 Elastomers and thermosetting polymers are both cross. To attain a perfect score on the quiz. (a) 8.Answer. The three ways are: (1) temperature-activated systems.4 As the degree of crystallinity in a given polymer increases. An elastomer is hard and brittle below its Tg. 8. Why are their properties so different? Answer. (a) 8.26 What is the primary polymer ingredient in natural rubber? Answer. 8. Answer. Elastomers are lightly cross-linked. Polyisoprene. (b) thermosets. (b) C2H4. or (c) elastomers. in which small amounts of a catalyst cause cross-linking. 8. (b) Melting temperature increases with higher degree of crystallinity. or (c) elastomers.5 Which of the following is the chemical formula for the repeating unit in polyethylene? (a) CH2. 8.3 Which one of the three polymer types does not involve cross. which one is the most important commercially? (a) thermoplastics.

(c) polypropylene. and brittle: (a) true or (b) false.6 Degree of polymerization is which one of the following? (a) average number of mers in the molecule chain. the most widely used commercially is which of the following: (a) epoxies. Answer.7 8. Answer. or (e) polyvinylchloride. (b) thermosetting. or (e) the polymer solidifies from the molten state. 8. (d) polystyrene. (d) the polymer becomes stiff.11 Which of the following plastics has the highest market share? (a) phenolics. (b) proportion of the monomer that has been polymerized. (a) A copolymer is a mixture consisting of macromolecules of two different homopolymers: (a) true or (b) false. (b) nylon. its density (a) increases. (e) polyethylene.12 Which of the following polymers are normally thermoplastic (more than one): (a) acrylics. transparent. (a) 8.14 The fiber rayon used in textiles is based on which of the following polymers: (a) cellulose. Answer. Answer. (c) the slope of specific volume versus temperature changes markedly. (a) 8. 37 . (b) cellulose acetate.17 Polyurethanes can be which of the following (more than one): (a) thermoplastic. (c) sum of the molecule weights of the mers in the molecule. or (e) polypropylene. Answer. (d) polychloroprene. (b) polyethylene. (b) decreases. 8. (c) polyester.13 Polystyrene (without plasticizers) is amorphous.15 The basic difference between low density polyethylene and high density polyethylene is that the latter has a much higher degree of crystallinity: (a) true or (b) false. and elastic. or (d) urethanes. the glass transition temperature Tg is indicated when (a) the polymer transforms to a crystalline structure.8. (a). (b) 8. Answer. (b) As temperature of a polymer increases. and (e). (c) and (d). Answer. (a) A branched molecular structure is stronger in the solid state and more viscous in the molten state than a linear structure for the same polymer: (a) true or (b) false. or (c) remains fairly constant. Answer. or (c) elastomeric. (b).9 8. (b) 8. Answer.10 Which answers complete the following sentence correctly (more than one): As the temperature of an amorphous thermoplastic polymer is gradually reduced. (c). (d) polyethylene. (a) 8. or (d) none of the above.8 8. Answer.16 Among the thermosetting polymers. (c) silicones. (b) the coefficient of thermal expansion increases markedly. (b) 8. (b) phenolics. or (f) polyurethane. strong. Answer. (c) nylon.

or (f) thermoplastic elastomers. (a). (b) C2H4. and (c). (b) isoprene rubber. (b). (d) 8. (e) 38 . (e) styrene-butadiene rubber. (c) polybutadiene. or (e) C8H8. (d) C5H8. 8.18 The chemical formula for polyisoprene in natural rubber is which of the following: (a) CH2.Answer. Answer.19 The leading commercial synthetic rubber is which of the following: (a) butyl rubber. (d) polyurethane. (c) C3H6. Answer.

such as wood. printed circuit boards. in which the core is a honeycomb structure sandwiched between two solid skins. honeycomb sandwich structures. and (3) an infiltrated phase in skeletal structures.6 What are the common forms of the reinforcing phase in composite materials? Answer. snow skis made from fiber reinforced polymers. and (2) honeycomb. Examples given in Table 9.4 How are traditional composites distinguished from synthetic composites? Answer. 9. and (4) other properties and features that are difficult or impossible to obtain with metals. plywood. Answer.5 Name the three basic categories of composite materials. hairlike crystal of very high strength. and polymer matrix composites (PMCs). Metal matrix composites (MMCs). and windshield glass. Answer. Traditional composites have been used for decades or centuries. some of them are obtained from sources in nature.2 are: automotive tires. ceramics. (3) anisotropic properties in many cases.weight and stiffness-to-weight ratios. The forms are: (1) fibers. Identify some of the characteristic properties of composite materials. 9. The two forms are: (1) foamed-core sandwich. (2) good fatigue properties and toughness. A whisker is a thin.9 Give some examples of commercial products which are laminar composite structures. in which the core is polymer foam between two solid skins. or polymers alone. 9.3 What does the term anisotropic mean? Answer. 9. 9. Answer.8 What is a whisker? Answer. Answer. Typical properties include: (1) high strength-to. ceramic matrix composites (CMCs).2 COMPOSITE MATERIALS What is a composite material? Answer. Review Questions 9.10 What are the three general factors that determine the properties of a composite material? 39 . (2) particles and flakes. 9.9 9. What are the two forms of sandwich structure among laminar composite structures? Briefly describe each.1 9. fiber reinforced polymer structures such as boat hulls. A composite material is a materials system consisting of two or more distinct phases whose combination results in properties that differ from those of its constituents.7 9. Anisotropic means that the properties of a material vary depending on the direction in which they are measured. Synthetic composites are manufactured.

Answer. 9. E-glass.18 Identify some of the important properties of fiber.reinforced plastic composite materials. Kevlar. For each question.Answer. An advanced composite is a PMC in which carbon. Three factors are given in the text: (1) the component materials. A cermet is a composite material consisting of a ceramic and a metal. it is defined as a composite consisting of ceramic grains imbedded in a metallic matrix. 9. The interface is the boundary between the component phases in a composite material. although the cemented carbide industry does not generally think of cemented carbides as cermets. 9. and (3) the interaction of the phases. The rule of mixtures applies to certain properties of composite materials. good corrosion resistance.16 What does the term advanced composites mean? Answer. 9.the reinforcing phase in particular . boat hulls. poor toughness. they fit within the definition. In the text. automobile body panels. and susceptibility to thermal cracking. or boron fibers are used as the reinforcing material. 9. 9.20 What is meant by the term interface in the context of composite materials? Answer. low density. tennis rackets.12 What is a cermet? Answer.and the resulting structure of the material. since each correct answer is worth 1 point.19 Name some of the important applications of FRPs. Answer. and a variety of other items. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point. To attain a perfect score on the quiz. Weaknesses of ceramics include: low tensile strength. 9.13 Cemented carbides are what class of composites? Answer.11 What is the rule of mixtures? Answer. 9. the weighting being by proportions of the components in the composite. good fatigue strength. FRPs are used in modern aircraft as skin parts. it states that the property value is a weighted average of the property values of the components.15 What is the most common fiber material in fiber-reinforced plastics? Answer. and low thermal expansion for many FRPs. Properties include: high strength-to-weight ratio. Yes. all correct answers must be given. high modulus-to-weight ratio. 9. 9. and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required 40 . Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 22 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct). printed circuit boards. A hybrid composite is a fiber-reinforced PMC in which two or more fibers materials are combined in the FRP.14 What are some of the weaknesses of ceramics that might be corrected in fiber-reinforced ceramic matrix composites? Answer.17 What is a hybrid composite? Answer. (2) the geometric shapes of the constituents .

Answer. (b) phenolic molding compound. (a) 9. or (g) tungsten carbide.10 Which one of the following is the most common reinforcing material in FRPs? (a) Al2O3. (d) epoxy. (b) boron. Answer.1 Anisotropic means which one of the following: (a) composite materials with composition consisting of more than two materials. Answer.11 Identify which of the following materials are composites (more than one)? (a) cemented carbide. Answer. (e) graphite.8 Ceramic matrix composites are designed to overcome which of the following weaknesses of ceramics (more than one)? (a) compressive strength. (d) modulus of elasticity. (b) boron. and (e). (f) Kevlar 49. (e) nickel. (c) particles. (e) titanium.5 Wood is which one of the following composite types? (a) CMC. (e) tensile strength. and (g) unsaturated polyester. Answer. and (f). (c) carbon/graphite.4 9. (f) S-glass. (c) Which of the following materials are used as fibers in fiber-reinforced plastics (more than one): (a) aluminum oxide. Answer. 9. (b) thermoplastics.3 Which one of the following reinforcing geometries offers the greatest potential for strength and stiffness improvement in the resulting composite material? (a) fibers. (c) hot hardness. (d) Portland cement. Answer. (f) wood. (c) cobalt. 9. (c) 9. or (f) zinc. (d) magnesium. (d) lead. (c) iron. or (c) thermosets.6 Which of the following metals are most commonly used as the matrix material in fiber-reinforced MMCs (name three)? (a) aluminum. or (g) 1020 steel. (b) copper. (b) flakes.9 Which of the following polymer types are most commonly used in polymer matrix composites? (a) elastomers. (d) cobalt. (g) 9. Answer. (f) tungsten. (b) properties are the same in every direction. (b) MMC. (c) plywood. (c) carbon. (a). (e) rubber in automobile tires. or (d) strength and other properties as a function of curing temperature. 9. Answer. (c) 9. (b) chromium.reduces the score by 1 point. (d). (b) hardness. (b) 9. (e) and (f). 41 . or (c) PMC. (c) 9. 9.7 Which of the following metals is used as the matrix metal in nearly all WC cemented carbides? (a) aluminum. (e).2 The reinforcing phase is the matrix within which the secondary phase is imbedded: (a) true or (b) false. (c) properties vary depending on the direction in which they are measured. or (f) toughness. Answer. (c). Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers. (a). or (g) SiO 2. (b). (e) Kevlar 49. or (d) infiltrated phase.

(c). (a). (e). and (f).Answer. 42 . (b).

or continuity equation.1 FUNDAMENTALS OF METAL CASTING Identify some of the important advantages of shape casting processes. and (5) environmental problems. (4) safety hazards due to handling of hot metals. Answer. The continuity law. Answer.7 Name the two basic mold types that distinguish casting processes. The most important casting process is sand casting. 10. 10. What is the difference between an open mold and a closed mold? Answer.2 What are some of the limitations and disadvantages of casting? Answer. Superheat is the temperature difference above the melting point at which the molten metal is poured.6 10. with a passageway (called the gating system) leading from the outside to the cavity.3 10.4 What is a factory that performs casting operations usually called? Answer. Which casting process is the most important commercially? Answer.8 What is meant by the term superheat? Answer. while a core determines its internal geometry. and (5) some casting processes are suited to mass production. indicates that the volumetric flow rate is constant throughout the liquid flow. An open mold is open to the atmosphere at the top. A foundry. A closed mold has a cavity that is entirely enclosed by the mold. Advantages include: (1) complex part geometries are possible. (3) very large parts are possible. The pattern determines the external shape of the casted part. Molten metal is poured into this gating system to fill the mold. and (2) mold erosion or gradual wearing away of the mold due to impact of molten metal. meaning that no further manufacturing operations are needed to accomplish the final part shape. it is an open container in the desired shape which must be flat at the top. 43 . The term also refers to the amount of heat that is removed from the molten metal between pouring and solidification. What is the difference between a pattern and a core in sand molding? Answer. Turbulence causes several problems: (1) accelerates formation of oxides in the solidified metal. 10.10 10. The two types are: (1) expendable molds and (2) permanent molds. (4) applicable to any metal that can be melted. (2) some casting operations are net shape processes. Disadvantages include: (1) limitations on mechanical strength properties. (3) poor dimensional accuracy.5 10. 10.9 Why should turbulent flow of molten metal into the mold be avoided? Answer. (2) porosity. 10.10 What is the continuity law as it applies to the flow of molten metal in casting? Answer. Review Questions 10.

Answer. Answer. For each question. and (3) thermal contraction in the solid state. 10. A chill is a heat sink placed to encourage rapid freezing in certain regions of the casting. rather than over a temperature range.10. Factors include: (1) pouring temperature. where TST = total solidification time. The three contractions occur due to: (1) contraction of the molten metal after pouring. since each correct answer is worth 1 point. Heat of fusion is the amount of heat energy required to transform the metal from solid state to liquid state. Pure metals solidify at a single temperature equal to the melting point. 10. 10. To attain a perfect score on the quiz.12 What does heat of fusion mean in casting? Answer. or (b) drag. A eutectic alloy is a particular composition in an alloy system for which the solidus and liquidus temperatures are equal. 10. and (4) heat transfer to the surroundings. solidification occurs at a single temperature. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point. 10.14 What is a eutectic alloy? Answer. (a) In casting. V = volume of casting.16 Identify the three sources of contraction in a metal casting after pouring. and A = surface area of casting. all correct answers must be given. (2) metal alloy composition.3 Sand casting is which of the following types? (a) expendable mold. 10. a flask is which one of the following? (a) beverage bottle for foundrymen.17 What is a chill in casting? Answer. Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 13 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct). Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers. (b) 44 . and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point.13 How does solidification of alloys differ from solidification of pure metals? Answer. (3) viscosity of liquid metal. Cm = constant. or (b) permanent mold. The temperature is called the eutectic temperature. (b) box which holds the cope and drag.15 What is the relationship known as Chvorinov's Rule in casting? Answer. Most alloys (exceptions are eutectic alloys) start to solidify at the liquidus and complete solidification at the solidus. where the liquidus is a higher temperature than the solidus. or (d) metal which extrudes between the mold halves.2 10. 10. Hence. Answer. (2) solidification shrinkage during transformation of state from liquid to solid. Chvorinov's Rule is summarized: TST = Cm(V/A)2. (a) The upper half of a sand casting mold is called which of the following? (a) cope.11 What are some of the factors affecting the fluidity of a molten metal during pouring into a mold cavity? Answer.1 10. (c) container for holding liquid metal. Answer.

(d) V. Other properties can be obtained from Tables 4. (a) Total solidification time is defined as which one of the following? (a) time between pouring and complete solidification. (d). Assume the specific heat has the same value for solid and molten aluminum. (b) open riser. a runner is which one of the following? (a) channel in the mold leading from the downsprue to the main mold cavity.3 J/g. The heat of fusion of aluminum = 389. and (e). (f) A riser in casting is described by which of the following (may be more than one answer)? (a) an insert in the casting that inhibits buoyancy of the core. Answer.8 10. (c) side riser. (b) Hf. or (c) smaller. (b) time between pouring and cooling to room temperature. Answer. (c).05) = 6597. the solid-liquid mixture is referred to as whic h one of the following? (a) eutectic composition. and (e) waste metal that is usually recycled. or (c) vertical channel into which molten metal is poured into the mold. (d) mushy zone.10 Problems Heating and Pouring 10. (d) Chvorinov's Rule states that total solidification time is proportional to which one of the following quantities? (a) (A/V)n. Hf = heat of fusion.9 10. or (d) time to give up the heat of fusion. Compute the amount of heat that must be added to the metal to heat it to the pouring temperature.10. Solution: Volume V = πD2h/4= π(40) 2(5)/4 = 6283. (b) foundryman who moves the molten metal to the mold. The melting temperature of aluminum = 660°C and the pouring temperature will be 800°C. (d) source of molten metal to feed the casting and compensate for shrinkage during solidification. (c) liquidus. Tm = melting temperature.2 cm3 Volume of aluminum to be heated = 6283.1 A disk 40 cm in diameter and 5 cm thick is to be casted of pure aluminum in an open mold operation. Assume that the amount of aluminum heated will be 5% more than needed to fill the mold cavity.3 cm3 45 .6 10. (b) gating system in which the sprue feeds directly into the cavity. and V = volume of casting.1 and 4. starting from a room temperature of 25°C. or (e) solidus.2(1.7 10. Answer. (a) and (c). (e) V/A. and (d) top riser. where A = surface area of casting.2 in this text. (c) metal that is not part of the casting. Answer.4 In foundry work.5 10. Answer. In a sand casting mold. the V/A ratio of the riser should be which one of the following relative to the V/A ratio of the casting itself? (a) equal. (c) Tm. (a) During solidification of an alloy when a mixture of solid and liquid metals are present. Answer. (b) greater. 10. (b) ingot segregation. or (f) (V/A)2. (b) A riser that is completely enclosed within the sand mold and connected to the main cavity by a channel to feed the molten metal is called which of the following (may be more than one)? (a) blind riser. (c) time between solidification and cooling to room temperature. Answer.

200 = 1.2 x 12 x 8) 0. If the sprue is 25 cm long.0 in 2.000/1854 = 540 mm2 10. The cross-sectional area at the bottom of the sprue is 0.8) 0.3){0.0 l/s = 1.096) 0. determine the proper diameter at its base so as to maintain the same volume flow rate.1) = 660.0 in. (b) the volume rate of flow.265 Btu 10.000 mm3/s Velocity v = (2 x 9815 x 175) 0.21 Cal/g-°C = 0.756 J 10. It is desired to maintain a constant flow rate.6 in/sec) = 0. 10.5 = 34. Properties of the metal are: density = 0.6 The volume rate of flow of molten metal into the downsprue from the pouring cup is 50 in 3/sec. What area should be used at the base of the sprue to avoid aspiration of the molten metal? Solution: Flow rate Q = 1. Determine: (a) the velocity of the molten metal flowing through the base of the downsprue.88 J/g-°C Heat required = 2.1 and 4.2} = 19.3 + 123.001 m3. Solution: Volume V = (20 x 10 x 3)(1 + 10%) = 600(1.200 mm3/s (c) Time to fill cavity MFT = V/Q = 1.88(800-660)} = 17.1981)} = 213. Determine what the area should be at the bottom of the sprue if its length = 8.5 = (4636.000.000.5 = 1854 mm/s Area at base A = 1.2.1 in/sec (b) Volume flow rate Q = vA = 68.75) + 80 + 0. W = 10 in.2 A sufficient amount of pure copper is to be heated for casting a large plate in an open mold. Solution: Velocity at base v = (2gh) 0.093(1981 .70(6597. whose volume = 75 in3.090(2150 . density ρ = 2.000. specific heat of the metal = 0.6 in/sec Assuming volumetric continuity.4 cm.090 Btu/lbm-F in the liquid state. The cross-section of the sprue is round.0/34. Solution: (a) Velocity v = (2 x 32. The plate has dimensions: L = 20 in. Determine: (a) the velocity of the molten metal flowing through the base of the downsprue.5 in2. The cross-sectional area at the base of the sprue is 400 mm2.88(660-25) + 389.000/741.093 Btu/lbm-F in the solid state and 0.5 = 1853 mm/s (b) Volume flow rate Q = vA = 1853 x 400 = 741. area at base A = (50 in/sec)/(78. H = 0.From Table 4. The sprue leads into a horizontal runner which feeds the mold cavity.082. and (c) the time required to fill the mold cavity.2 sec.4 A mold has a downsprue of length = 6.636 in2 10.2 x 12 x 6. The cross-sectional area at the top of the sprue = 800 mm2 and its length = 175 mm.812.35 s 10. Solution: (a) Velocity v = (2 x 9815 x 175) 0.1). At the top where the pouring cup leads into the downsprue.1 x 0. and (c) the time required to fill the mold cavity. The molten metal overflows the pouring cup and flows into the downsprue. Assume that the amount of metal heated will be 10% more than needed to fill the mold cavity. and D = 3 in.84{177. 46 .0) 0. The mold cavity has a volume = 0.05 = 2.3 The downsprue leading into the runner of a certain mold has a length = 175 mm. and heat of fusion = 80 Btu/lbm.5 The flow rate of liquid metal into the downsprue of a mold = 1 liter/sec.05 in3/sec (c) Time to fill cavity MFT = V/Q = 75.8 + 389. the cross-sectional area = 1. in order to avoid aspiration of the liquid metal.71{558.5 = (2 x 32.324 x 660{0.70 g/cm3 and specific heat C = 0.5 = (3.435.0 in. (12. (b) the volume rate of flow.5 = 78.7 Molten metal can be poured into the pouring cup of a sand mold at a steady rate of 1000 cm3/s.26 + 80 + 15. top and bottom. with a diameter at the top = 3. Compute the amount of heat that must be added to the metal to heat it to a temperature of 2150 F for pouring.21} H = 58.5 = 68. melting point = 1981 F.0 in 3 Assuming To = 75 °F and using Eq.324 lbm/in 3.3 + 0.

At the end of pouring the sprue is filled and there is negligible metal in the pouring cup.2 x 12 x 6. This is more than the theoretical time required.6 in 2.51 cm2 Area of sprue A = πD2/4.Solution: Velocity at base v = (2gh) 0.9589) = 119.60 = 40.39 cm 10.0/0.9%.0 in3/sec Actual velocity v = 33.6 = 55.5 cm/s Assuming volumetric continuity.5(0.333 = 95. The volume of the riser located along the runner near the mold cavity = 25 in 3. Solution: (a) Velocity v = (2 x 32.000(. h0.075) = 1.9589 Final casting dimensions: L = 250(0.000. Solution: For copper. rearranging. and it is 8.3. runner. The cross-sectional area of the runner leading from the sprue also = 0.0 in/sec. Total volumetric contraction = (1-0.8 During pouring into a sand mold.5%.0) 0.049)(1-0.0 in/sec (d) v = (2 x 32.9589) = 239.725 cm W = 125(0.6)(6. Solution: For aluminum.000(1-0.5 = 221.0 .8 + 0.51)/π = 5. (b) the total volume of the mold. solid contraction during cooling = 5. Determine the dimensions of the final casting after cooling to room temperature if the cast metal is aluminum.82 mm 10.0) = 99.6(8.086 in Shrinkage 10.8817) 0.863 cm H = 20(0. Assume that the mold is full at the start of solidification and that shrinkage occurs uniformly in all directions.9589) = 19.914 = 2.5 = 68.5 = (2 x 981 x 25) 0.6%.6 in 2. riser.333 = 0. Find: (a) the theoretical velocity and flow rate at the base of the downsprue. and (d) the loss of head in the gating system due to friction.178 cm 47 . It takes a total of 3.0 in3 (c) Actual flow rate Q = 99.0 + 25. D2 = 4A/π = 4(4.9 A mold cavity has the shape of a cube.0) + 0. area at base A = (1000 cm/s)/(221. Its cross-sectional area at the top = 0.6%. solidification shrinkage is 4.066)(1-0.9782 = 3.0/27.5 = 55. Assume that the mold is full at the start of solidification and that shrinkage occurs uniformly in all directions.978 h = 1.5 cm/s) = 4.2 x 12 x h) 0.000.675 mm3 Dimension on each side of cube = (879. Determine the dimensions and volume of the final cube after cooling to room temperature if the cast metal is copper.8 h0. (c) the actual velocity and flow rate at the base of the sprue.000 mm3 Volume of casting V = 1. the molten metal can be poured into the downsprue at a constant flow rate during the time it takes to fill the mold.0/3 = 33. whose volume = 65 in 3. 100 mm on a side.0 sec to fill the entire mold (including cavity. The downsprue is 6.8 = 1. W = 125 mm and H = 20 mm.000. solid contraction during cooling is 7.8817 Linear contraction = (0.5 = 55. and sprue. indicating a loss of velocity due to friction in the sprue and runner.8 in2 and at the base = 0.5 = 27.0 in long before leading into the mold cavity.914 in Head loss = 6.951)(.8 in3/sec (b) Total V = 65.675) 0.056) = 0.0 in long.1 x 0.0 + 0.1 in/sec Flow rate Q = 68.10 The cavity of a casting mold has dimensions: L = 250 mm. solidification shrinkage = 6.025) = 879.74 cm2 D = 2. Volume of cavity V = (100) 3 = 1.

solidification shrinkage = -2.12 Determine the scale of a "shrink rule" that is to be used by pattern-makers for brass which is 70% copper and 30% zinc. Solution: For brass. solid contraction = 7.1.333 = 0. Total volumetric contraction = (1-0.5%.5%.99425 Linear contraction = (0.99425) 0. the mold constant in Chvorinov's Rule is known to be Cm = 4.2%.8909 Linear contraction = (0.00192 Elongation of a 1 meter rule = 1000(1.418 in/ft 10.5%. width = 10 cm. Determine how long it will take for the casting to solidify.0275)(1-0.0) = 0.00192 . Solution: Volume V = 30 x 10 x 2 = 600 cm3 Area A = 2(30 x 10 + 30 x 2 + 10 x 2) = 760 cm2 Chvorinov’s Rule: TST = Cm (V/A)2 = 4(600/760) 2 = 2.9981) -1 = 1. solid contraction during cooling = 3. Solution: For 1% carbon steel.080) = 0.15 In the casting of steel under certain mold conditions. and thickness = 20 mm. Total volumetric contraction = (1-0.8909) 0.1.92 mm/m 10.072) = 0. Assume that shrinkage occurs uniformly in all directions. What adjustment must be made in the units of Cm? 48 .0348 .49 min 10.03927) = 12.0% carbon steel are: diameter = 12. based on previous experience.750(1.2%.03927) = 0.13 Determine the scale of a "shrink rule" that is to be used by pattern-makers for gray cast iron.10.333 = 0.0348 Elongation of a 12 inch rule = 12(1.9025 Linear contraction = (0.9578 Shrink rule elongation = (0.471 in and t = 0. which means it expands during solidification. Express your answer in terms of decimal fraction inches of elongation per foot of length compared to a standard rule.9664) -1 = 1.1 mm/m 10.00(1.8786) 0.040)(1-0.333 = 0.1.0) = 1.045)(1-0.9622 Oversize factor for mold = (0.0441 .030) = 0.333 = 0. solidification shrinkage is 4. Express your answer in terms of millimeters of elongation per meter of length compared to a standard rule. The gray cast iron has a volumetric contraction of -2.0%.0%. solid contraction during cooling is 8.9622) -1 = 1.0) = 44.9 in Chvorinov's Rule. Solution: For gray CI.025)(1-0.0441 Elongation of a 1 meter rule = 1000(1.9981 Shrink rule elongation = (0.779 in Solidification Time and Riser Design 10. solid contraction during cooling is 7.16 Solve for total solidification time in the previous problem only using a value of n = 1. solidification shrinkage is 4.9025) 0.9664 Shrink rule elongation = (0. The casting is a flat plate whose length = 30 cm.75 in.14 The final dimensions of a disk-shaped casting of 1. Total volumetric contraction = (1+0.11 Determine the scale of a "shrink rule" that is to be used by pattern-makers for low carbon steel.0 in and thickness = 0.072) = 0.0 min/cm2.0%. Determine the dimensions of the mold cavity to take shrinkage into account. Express your answer in terms of millimeters of elongation per meter of length compared to a standard rule.9578) -1 = 1.75%. Solution: Low carbon steel: solidification shrinkage = 2. Total volumetric contraction = (1-0.8786 Linear contraction = (0.03927 Mold cavity dimensions: D = 12.

19 A steel casting has a cylindrical geometry with 4.926. Solution: (a) Volume V = (50) 3 = 125.232 s/mm2 (b) Cylindrical casting with D = 30 mm and L = 50 mm.622) 2 = 4. Note: The density of steel = 490 lb/ft3.713.77) 2 = 74.2836 lb/in3 Weight W = ρV. 49 .0/5. Another cylindrical-shaped casting with the same diameter-to-length ratio weighs 12 lb.4025D)/4 = 1.32 in 3 A = 2πD2/4 + πDL = 0. Solution: (a) For steel. how long will it take the casting to solidify? Solution: Volume V = πD2t/4 = π(500) 2(20)/4 = 3.32 in 3 D/L ratio = 4.77 TST = 2.115) 2 = 171.0 sec/mm2 in Chvorinov's Rule. thus L = 1.0/(0.1015 = 38.732 in (c) V = πD2L/4 = π(3.17 A disk-shaped part is to be cast out of aluminum.232 (5. (b) If the same alloy and mold type were used.732) = 68.5π(3. Volume V = πD2L/4 = π(30) 2(50)/4 = 35. The cube was 50 mm on a side.374)(4. The diameter of the disk = 500 mm and its thickness = 20 mm. ρ = 490 lb/ft3 = 0.63 = 0.000 = 8.53/95. If Cm = 2.9 = 2.55 min The units for Cm become min/in 1.374) 2(4.0(3.61 in Area A = 2πD2/4 + πDL = 2π(4) 2/4 + π(4)(5.53/4π = 5.63 in 2 (V/A) = 70.7353) 2 = 11.7375 Cm = 6.strange but consistent with Chvorinov’s empirical rule.4025(3.333) 2 = 2.343/6126 = 5.000/15.991 mm3 Area A = 2πD2/4 + πDt = π(500) 2/2 + π(500)(20) = 424.86 min 10.9 .24 min.53 in 3 Volume V = πD2L/4 = π(4) 2L/4 = 4πL = 70.732)/4 = 42.03 min/in2 (b) Find dimensions of smaller cylindrical casting with same D/L ratio and w = 12 lb.Solution: Chvorinov’s Rule: TST = Cm (V/A)1.9 = 4(600/760) 1.374) 2 + π(3.333 mm Cm = TST/(V/A)2 = 155/(8.4025D Volume V = πD2L/4 = π(4) 2(1.32 in 3)/1. it took 155 sec for a cube-shaped casting to solidify.04 in 2 V/A = 42.374) = 4. and (b) the dimensions.0 min to completely solidify.04 = 0. V = W/ρ = 20/0. (a) Determine the value of the mold constant Cm in Chvorinov's Rule.18 In casting experiments performed using a certain alloy and type of sand mold. This casting is made of the same steel and the same conditions of mold and pouring were used.5 s = 2.53) = 42. TST = 11.991/424.374 in L = 1.343 mm3 Area A = 2πD2/4 + πDL = π(30) 2/2 + π(30)(50) = 6126 mm2 V/A = 35.03(. 10.61) = 95.42 in 3 D = (38.333 = 3.926.61 = 0. Determine: (a) the mold constant in Chvorinov's Rule. Weight is proportional to volume: V = (12/20)(70.1015D 3 D3 = (42. 10.0 in diameter and weighs 20 lb.622 in.3 s = 1. This casting takes 6.53 in3 Length L = 70.32/68.2836 = 70.000 mm2 (V/A) = 125.42) 0. find the total solidification time for a cylindrical casting in which the diameter = 30 mm and length = 50 mm. and (c) the total solidification time of the lighter casting.27 min.115 mm2 Chvorinov’s Rule: TST = Cm (V/A)2 = 2.000 mm3 Area A = 6 x (50) 2 = 15.

(a) Determine the relative solidification times for each geometry.1667 dm Chvorinov’s Rule TST = (0. and (3) cube V = 1.0 dm3 Cube area = 6L2 = 6(1) 2 = 6. which geometric element would make the best riser? (c) If Cm = 3. Solution: For ease of computation. D3 = 4/π = 1.1806) 2Cm = 0.5π = 0. D = (1.536 dm2 V/A = 1. which geometric element would make the best riser? (c) If Cm = 3.524 dm3 = 524 cm3.25π = 0.0326Cm 50 . (2) a cylinder with diameter and length both = 10 cm.0 dm3. Thus 1000 cm3 = 1.5π dm2 V/A = . the volume V = 1000 cm3.02778Cm (2) Cylinder volume V = πD2H/4 = π(1) 2(1)/4 = π/4 = 0.25π/1.910) 0.0 dm3. that the volumes of the three geometries are different: (1) sphere V = 0. (b) Based on the results of part (a).0 dm2 V/A = 1.0 = 0.0/6. (a) Determine the relative solidification times for each geometry. The same casting alloy is used in the three cases.084)(1.333 = 1. make the substitution 10 cm = 1 decimeter (1 dm) (a) Chvorinov’s Rule: TST = Cm(V/A)2 (1) Sphere volume V = πD3/6 = π(1) 3/6 = π/6 dm3 Sphere area A = πD2 = π(1) 2 = π dm2 V/A = (π/6)/ π = 1/6 = 0.5 min/cm2 = 350 min/dm2.1806 dm Chvorinov’s Rule TST = (0.0. (c) If Cm = 3. cylinder V = 0.333 = 1.0428Cm (2) Cylinder volume V = πD2H/4 = πD3/4 = 1. (2) a cylinder.0/4.836 = 0.21 The total solidification times of three casting shapes are to be compared: (1) a sphere. For all three geometries. and (3) a cube with each side = 10 cm. in which the L/D ratio = 1.241) 2 = 4.836 dm2 V/A = 1.084) = 5.536 = 0. Solution: For ease of computation.20 The total solidification times of three casting shapes are to be compared: (1) a sphere with diameter = 10 cm. Accordingly.0 dm3 = 1000cm3. however. compute the total solidification time for each casting.2067 dm Chvorinov’s Rule TST = (0. D = H = (1. (1) Sphere volume V = πD3/6 = 1.10.723 min.241 dm Sphere area A = πD2 = π(1.1667) 2Cm = 0.4 cm3. then TST = 0. Note. compute the total solidification time for each casting.273 dm3 Therefore.084) 2/4 + π(1.910 dm3.273) 0. The same casting alloy is used in the three cases.1667) 2Cm = 0. make the substitution 10 cm = 1 decimeter (1 dm).02778Cm (3) Cube: V = L3 = (1) 3 = 1.25π dm3 Cylinder area A = 2πD2/4 + πDL = 2π(1) 2/4 + π(1)(1) = π/2 + π = 1.1667 dm Chvorinov’s Rule TST = (0.2067) 2Cm = 0.5 min/cm2 in Chvorinov's Rule.0/5.5 min/cm2 in Chvorinov's Rule. D3 = 6/π = 1. (b) Based on the results of part (a).1667) 2Cm = 0.7854 dm3 = 785.0 dm3. and (3) a cube.1667 dm Chvorinov’s Rule TST = (0. 10.02778Cm (b) All three shapes are equivalent as risers.02778(350) = 9.084 dm Cylinder area A = 2πD2/4 + πDL = 2π(1. we might revise our answer to part (b) and choose the sphere on the basis that it wastes less metal than the other shapes.

and thickness = 18 mm.1667D TST = 1.000 mm3 Casting area A = 2(200 x 100 + 200 x 18 + 100 x 18) = 50. since V/A ratio is greatest. and therefore the optimal D/L ratio = 1. Solution: To maximize TST. each side = 10 in and thickness = 0.800 = 7.001936D 2 D2 = 4. and Cm = 16.4V/D2 = 0 Rearranging.1667) 2Cm = 0.1667 dm Chvorinov’s Rule TST = (0.000/50.1416D 2 V/A = 0. width = 100 mm.23 A riser in the shape of a sphere is to be designed for a sand casting mold. For a given cylinder volume. If the metal is cast iron.800 mm2 V/A = 360.0)(0.02778Cm (b) Sphere would be the best riser.333 From the previous expression for L.7 mm2 D = 47.24 A cylindrical riser is to be designed for a sand casting mold. The length of the cylinder is to be 1. with length = 200 mm.0866) 2 = 0. The casting is a square plate.0866 Casting TST = Cm(7. If the total solidification time of the casting itself is known to be 3.0) 2 + 4(10.0 = 0.5236D 3/3.0 in 2 51 .5 mm 10.0 dm2 V/A = 1.0697 min/mm2 Riser volume V = πD3/6 = 0.75 inch.0 10.0 dm3.98 min Cylinder: TST = 0.0428(350) = 14.(3) Cube: V = L3 =1.length ratio that will maximize the time to solidify. L = 4V/πD2 Cylinder area A = 2πD2/4 + πDL Substitute the expression for L from the volume equation in the area equation: A = πD2/2 + πDL = πD2/2 + πD(4V/πD2) = πD2/2 + 4V/D Differentiate the area equation with respect to D: dA/dD = πD .72 min 10.0866) 2 = 3. The casting is a rectangular plate. L = 4V/πD2 = 4V/π(4V/π)0.0 dm Cube area = 6L2 = 6(1) 2 = 6. determine the diameter-to.1667D)2 = 0.5 min.5 min/cm2 = 350 min/dm3 Sphere: TST = 0.667 = (4V/π)0.5236D 3 Riser area A = πD2 = 3.375/0.75(10.5) = 4.25(3. Solution: Casting volume V = LWt = 200(100)(18) = 360.0326(350) = 11.02778(350) = 9.1416D 2 = 0. L = 1. Solution: Casting volume V = tL2 = 0. determine the dimensions of the riser so that it will take 30% longer for the riser to solidify.333 Thus. optimal values are D = L = (4V/π)0. determine the diameter of the riser so that it will take 25% longer for the riser to solidify. Cylinder volume V = πD2L/4. substituting in the equation for D that we have developed.75) = 230.0/6.001936 = 2259.0 min/in2 in Chvorinov's Rule. (c) Given that Cm = 3. the V/A ratio must be maximized.22 A cylindrical riser is to be used for a sand casting mold.0) 2 = 75 in3 Casting area A = 2L2 + 4Lt = 2(10.5/(7.375 min = 0. πD = 4V/D2 D3 = 4V/π D = (4V/π)0.25 times its diameter.0697(0.41 min Cube: TST = 0.333.50 min Cm = 3.

5π(3) + 1.21 min Riser volume V = πD2H/4 = 0.25 A cylindrical riser with diameter-to-length ratio = 1.974/203.25πD2 = 1.31 = 19.75πD2 V/A = 0.25.0 in 3 Total V = 62.21 min D2 = 2.4π(1.602 in.36 = 0.817 in 3 V(upright tube) = 3.305) 2 = 1.5πD2 = D/6 TST = Cm(V/A)2 2.36 in 2 V/A = 61.5 + 2.V/A = 75/230 = 0.5 in 3 V(5 in.5πD2 = 1.3125πD3/1. V(5 in x 10 in rectangular plate) = 5 x 12.0 is to be designed for a sand casting mold.5(D/6) 2 = 0. 52 .081 in H = 1.5 .03189)D2 = 0. half disk) + V(upright tube) . 10.5 + 9.5π(5) 2/4) .817 + 7.25πD2(1.21/0.5 x 1.5 min/in2 in Chvorinov's Rule.657 .0 = 61.2(1.5 = 2.0(0.0(0.18.5102 = 4.0π(2.5) 2/4) = 7.065 in.70 min Riser TST = 1.3125πD3 Riser area A = 2πD2/4 + πDH = 0. in which the units are inches.5 minute longer to freeze than the casting itself.266 in 2 D = 2. and L = 2.3 x 6) + 2(.3316) 0.5) + 2(6+3) + 2(5 x 12. Solution: Casting volume V = V(5 in x 10 in rectangular plate) + V(5 in.1786D)2 = 16.0 = 62.5π(3+1) = 203.5πD2 + 1.5πD2 V/A = .065 in.81 min Riser design: specified TST = 1.25πD3 Riser area A = πDL + 2πD2/4 = πD2 + 0.V(3 in x 6 in rectangular cutout).5π(5) 2(1)/4 = 9. determine the dimensions of the riser so that the riser will take 0. If Cm = 19.25πD3/1.25(2.5) 2/4 .974 in 3 Total A = 1 x 5 + 1(12.81 + 0.3316 D = (4.1786D Riser TST = 16.657 in 3 V(3 in x 6 in rectangular cutout) = 3 x 6 x 1 = 18.3261 Casting TST = 16(0.5 = 2.081) = 2.305 in Casting TST = 19.5102D 2 = 2. half disk) = 0. The casting geometry is illustrated in Figure P10.25D) = 0.5(0.5) 2π/4 + 2.75πD2 = 0.70) = 2.5417D 2 D2 = 2.31 min Riser volume V = πD2L/4 = πD3/4 = 0.3261) 2 = 1.5π + 12.30(1.5417 = 4.31/0.

9 What is flash in die casting? Answer.ability to maintain shape in the face of the flowing metal. Common die cast metals include: zinc.7 11. 11.pressure casting in which a vacuum is used to draw molten metal into the cavity. The two categories are: (1) expendable mold processes. (3) thermal stability .ability of the mold to give way during shrinkage of the casting. cold-chamber or hot-chamber. This mold has greater permeability than a plaster mold. 11.plate pattern? Answer. tin. Vacuum permanent-mold casting is a form of low. (2) permeability . Hot-chamber machines are faster because cold. A split pattern is a pattern that consists of two pieces. and magnesium.can the sand be reused to make other molds? 11. lead. or into the clearances around the cores and ejector pins. Vacuum molding is sand casting in which the sand mold is held together by vacuum pressure rather than a chemical binder.11 METAL CASTING PROCESSES Review Questions 11. brass.10 What is the difference between true centrifugal casting and semicentrifugal casting? 53 .1 Name the two basic categories of casting processes? Answer.4 What properties determine the quality of a sand mold for sand casting? Answer. 11. The mold is 50% sand and 50% plaster heated in an autoclave and then dried. 11. a match-plate pattern consists of the two split patterns attached to opposite sides of a plate.chamber die casting machines require molten metal to be ladled into the chamber from an external source. The Antioch process refers to the making of the mold.ability to resist cracking and buckling when in contact with the molten metal. and (2) permanent mold processes. Chaplets are metal supports of various designs used to hold the core in place in the sand mold.5 What is the Antioch process? Answer. What is the difference between a split pattern and a match.8 What are the most common metals processed using die casting? Answer.ability of the mold to allow hot air and gases to escape from the cavity.6 What is the difference between vacuum permanent-mold casting and vacuum molding? Answer. The usual properties are: (1) strength . 11. and why? Answer. aluminum.2 There are various types of patterns used in sand casting. Which die casting machines usually have a higher production rate. 11. Flash is a thin portion at the exterior of a casting that results from molten metal being squeezed into the spaces between the die halves of the mold at the parting line.3 What is a chaplet? Answer. (5) reusability . 11. (4) collapsibility .

(6) heat treatment.named? (a) green is the color of the mold.6 Which of the following casting processes are expendable mold operations (more than one)? (a) investment casting. (2) core removal.Wc. 11. Answer. and (6) hot tearing. (d) shell molding. (b) downward force = Wm . 11. In true centrifugal casting. or (d) mold is dry. To attain a perfect score on the quiz. (c) investment casting. See Article 11. The mold is rotated so that centrifugal force is used to distribute the molten metal to the exterior of the mold so that the density of the final metal is greater at the outer sections. (4) inspection. since each correct answer is worth 1 point. a tubular mold is used and a tubular part is produced. and (f) vacuum molding. the shape is solid. (c) sand casting. (c) For which of the following reasons is a green mold so.Answer. risers. (b) low pressure casting. Answer. runners. (3) surface cleaning. Answer. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers. (c) upward force = Wm + Wc. (d) 11. (3) cold shots. (c) mold is cured. (b) 11. in which the sprues. For each question. These operations include: (1) trimming. Answer.12 What are some of the operations required of sand castings after removal from the mold? Answer.11 What is a cupola? Answer.13 What are some of the general defects encountered in casting processes? Answer. (5) microporosity.6. Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 28 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct).3 11. and flash are removed. General defects include: (1) misruns. Cupolas are used for melting cast irons. 54 . the volumetric size of the pattern is which of the following relative to the cast part? (a) bigger. In semicentrifugal casting. (b) same size. Answer. (d) 11. or (c) smaller. or (d) upward force = Wm . (2) cold shuts. (5) repair if needed.1 Which one of the following casting processes is most widely used (one answer)? (a) centrifugal casting. (b) moisture is contained in the mold. (b) SiO. an example is a railway wheel. (c) SiO 2.1. (b) die casting. A cupola is a vertical cylindrical furnace equipped with a tapping spout near its base. the buoyancy force is which one of the following? (a) downward force = Wm + Wc.4 Silica sand has which one of the following compositions? (a) Al2O3. and (7) machining. (d) sand casting.2 In sand casting. or (e) shell casting. 11.5 Given that Wm = weight of the molten metal displaced by a core and Wc = weight of the core. all correct answers must be given. (a) 11. (e) slush casting. 11. or (d) SiSO 4.Wc. and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point. (4) shrinkage cavity.

(b) die casting. (a).11 Which of the following casting processes are permanent mold operations (more than one)? (a) centrifugal casting. (e) tungsten. (b) CaSO 4-H2O. Answer. (c) cast iron. and (f) vacuum permanent-mold casting. Answer. (d) sand casting.8 Investment casting is also known by which one of the following names? (a) fast-payback molding.7 Shell molding is which one of the following? (a) casting operation in which the molten metal has been poured out after a thin shell has been solidified in the mold. or (d) zinc. (c). and (f). (b) 11. and (f).Answer. Answer. (a). (c) lost-foam process. (e) slush casting. (b) cast iron. (b) cast iron. (b) investment casting. and (e). and (e) "pipe" formation. (c). (a). 11. (b) bronze. Answer. and (f). 11. (d) cast steel. or (e) zinc alloys. (c) casting process in which the mold is a thin shell of sand binded by a thermosetting resin. (c) higher production rates. Answer. (d). or (e) lost-wax process. (c). and (c) shell molding.14 Cupolas are furnaces used to melt which of the following metals (choose one best answer)? (a) aluminum. (b) and (c). (d) larger parts can be casted. (c) 11.12 Which of the following metals would typically be die casted (more than one)? (a) aluminum. or (d) SiO 2. (e).15 A misrun is which one of the following defects in casting? (a) globules of metal becoming entrapped in the casting. Answer. (a). (c) plaster mold casting. Answer.13 Which of the following are advantages of die casting over sand casting (more than one)? (a) better surface finish. (b) metal is not properly poured into the downsprue. Answer.9 In plaster mold casting. 11. (c) SiC. Answer.10 Which of the following qualifies as a precision casting process (more than one)? (a) ingot casting. (c) 11. and (e) mold can be reused. (d) tin. (c) 55 . (c) metal solidifies before filling the cavity. the mold is made of which one of the following materials? (a) Al2O3. (b) 11. Answer. (d) lost pattern process. 11. (d) microporosity. (b) casting operation used to make artificial sea shells.16 Which one of the following casting metals is most important commercially? (a) aluminum and its alloys. (d). (e) 11. and (f) zinc. (b). (b) higher melting temperature metals. (c) steel. (d) shell molding. (c) low pressure casting. (c) steel. (b) full-mold process. 11. or (d) sand casting operation in which the pattern is a shell rather than a solid form.

0 in 3.26 lb/in3. Solution: From Table 13. Wm = 157(0. Solution: Sand density = 1. GF = R(πN/30) 2/g = 7.17 kg. A total of 9 caplets are required above the core to resist the buoyancy force.1.82 lb.85 lb.82V .058) = 9.1 An aluminum-copper alloy casting is made in a sand mold using a sand core that weighs 20 kg. Probably 3 or 4 caplets would be better to achieve stability. and wall 56 .11 = 31. Fb = 40. steel casting density = 7.22V = 23 kg = 23.1.5 A horizontal true centrifugal casting operation will be used to make copper tubing.26) = 40. Weight of the final casting W = 1302(7.17 .9.2 A sand core located inside a mold cavity has a volume of 157.313 lb/in3..815 = 149 N.313) = 101.0 in.4 = 0. determine the minimum number of caplets that should be placed: (a) beneath the core.71 lb. Solution: Core volume V = 20/1605. Several caplets are located beneath the core to support it before pouring. (a) Wc = 325(0.82) = 10.6 g/cm3. It is used in the casting of a cast iron pump housing. and (b) above the core. Fb = 101. and several other caplets are placed above the core to resist the buoyancy force during pouring. 11.Problems Buoyancy Force 11. Determine the buoyancy force that will tend to lift the core during pouring. density of brass ρ = 0.01246 m3. The volume of the mold cavity forming the outside surface of the casting = 5000 cm3.5 cm. Solution: From Eq.82 .Wc Wc = 157(0.73 . If the rotational speed of the pipe = 1000 rev/min.6 A true centrifugal casting operation is to be performed in a horizontal configuration to make cast iron pipe sections.6V = 6. The design of the caplets and the manner in which they are placed in the mold cavity surface allows each caplet to sustain a force of 10 lbs. density of cast iron ρ = 0.0 in.3 Caplets are used to support a sand core inside a sand mold cavity.20) x 9.000 g V = 3698 cm3.8 11. What is the weight of the final casting? Ignore considerations of shrinkage.3698 = 1302 cm3. Fb = Wm . If the volume of the core = 325 in.184 g = 10. Weight of displaced Al-Cu = 35. outside diameter = 8. determine the G-factor.4). The sections will have a length = 42.73 lb. 11.058) = 18.5(π(1000)/30) 2/981 = 83.1. (11.18. 3.0 cm. At least 2 caplets are required beneath to resist the weight of the core.85 = 82.5 m with outside diameter = 15. Determine the buoyancy force in Newtons tending to lift the core during pouring.184 kg Centrifugal Casting 11. Solution: From Table 13.82 g/cm3 Fb = Wm . Difference = (35.106 lb. and inside diameter = 12. and the metal poured is brass.88 lb.4 A sand core used to form the internal surfaces of a steel casting experiences a buoyancy force of 23 kg.Wc = 7. The lengths will be 1. 3 Cavity volume V = 5000 cm Volume of casting V = 5000 . 11. (b) Wm = 325(.

it should be possible to force the metal against the walls of the mold in centrifugal 57 . how would weightlessness affect the process? Solution: The mass of molten metal would be unaffected by the absence of gravity. the rotational speed is not sufficient.62 cm3 Mass m = (8.333 x 32.049)(1-. Taking these factors into account.333)(500)/30 = 17.0) = 63.25π(. determine the G-factor. GF would theoretically go to infinity if g = 0. diameter = 0.5484 kg v = πRN/30 Use mean radius R = (7.125 x 9.125)(700)/30 = 9.5) 2 .(.81 kg-m/s2.50 in.011074/(1-.54 (b) G-factor is sufficient for a successful casting operation. and the operation is likely to be unsuccessful. in the G-factor equation (GF = v2/Rg).2) = 28.222) = 0.81 = 34. Thus. Thus.25-.8 True centrifugal casting operation is performed horizontally to make large diameter copper tube sections.75 x 10-2 m) = 338.8) = 68. (c) Volume of final product after solidification and cooling is V = (. Fc = 338.75 cm v = π(6.252 .45 ft/sec.9/9.Ri2)(1. (a) Determine the required rotational speed in order to obtain a G-factor of 70.5 = 913.0 cm of mold wall length as basis of area calculations.55 N)/(15π x 10-4 m2) = 0. (a) determine the G-factor on the molten metal.163 m/s GF = (9. If the rotational speed of the pipe = 700 rev/min. If the rotational speed of the pipe = 500 rev/min.0)/2 = 6.0/4 = .(6) 2)(1.25 m.0) = π((7. which is equal to the inside wall diameter of the mold. GF = v2/Rg = (17.86 cm/s = 6. R = 0.5% for copper.38 Since the G-factor is less than 60.. Volume of molten metal V = 0.62g/cm3)(63. and wall thickness = 15 mm.03) 2)π x 1.8 m/s2 v = πRN/30 = π(. solidification shrinkage = 4.4585 m/s Centrifugal force per square meter on mold wall = Fc/A where Fc = mv2/R Fc = (0.1. Is the operation likely to be successful? Solution: Using outside wall of casting.7)/30 = 645. v = πRN/30 = π(. (b) Use 1.0 m. but its weight would be zero.4586 m/s)2/(6.62 cm3) = 548. Area of this length of mold wall A = πDoL = π(15 cm)(1 cm) = 15π cm2 = 15π(10-4) m2 Volume of cast metal V = π(Ro2 .7331(104) N/m2 = 7331 Pa 11.252 .333 ft. D = 15 cm N = (30/π)(2g x 70/15) .55 N Fc/A = (34.7 rev/min.5(8)/12 = 0. what is the centrifugal force per square meter (Pa) imposed by the molten metal on the inside wall of the mold? Solution: (a) Using the outside wall diameter of the casting.thickness = 0. 11.5484 kg)(6. The tubes have a length = 1.4 g = 0.5 + 6.9 If a true centrifugal casting operation were to be performed in a space station circling the Earth.011074 m3 From Table 12.01259 m3 11.75)(913. (b) Is the rotational speed sufficient to avoid "rain?" (c) What volume of molten metal must be poured into the mold to make the casting if solidification shrinkage and contraction after solidification are considered? Solution: (a) GF = v2/Rg g = 9. and ID = 12 cm.075) = 0. OD = 15 cm. (b) When operating at this speed.9% and solid thermal contraction = 7.7 A horizontal true centrifugal casting process is used to make brass bushings with dimensions: L = 10 cm.163) 2/(.9 kg-m/s2 Given that 1 N = 9.45) 2/(.

and from Table 10.8957 = 0.5 m. and the solidification shrinkage and solid contraction after freezing can be determined from Table 10.07 m.9 g = 19. With no gravity the liquid metal would not be forced against the lower surface of the mold to initiate the centrifugal action. (11.932. Use g = 981 cm/s2.25 cm = 0.87 g/cm3 Mass m = (7. outside diameter = 70 mm.Ri2)L = π(32.13 A vertical true centrifugal casting process is used to make tube sections with length = 10.7 Pa (d) The G-factor of 60 would probably result in a successful casting operation. In the absence of gravity.81 kg-m/s2. 11.81 = 1114.914. Fc = 10.315.4 cm3) = 19. Solution: Volume of final casting V = π(Ro2 .87g/cm3)(2454.8 x 60/.5/π = 406.005)(1-. determine the volume of molten metal that must be poured into the mold. (d) Would this rotational speed result in a successful operation? Solution: (a) Use inside diameter of mold in Eq.5%.316 kg)(13. g = 9. The inside diameter of the tube = 5.9 cm/s = 13. given that the liquid shrinkage is 0. N = 406.0 mm. (a) Determine the rotational speed that will provide a G-factor = 60.12 A horizontal true centrifugal casting process is used to make lead pipe for chemical plants.03)(1-.4)/30 = 1329. and ID = 60 cm. the solidification shrinkage for steel = 3% and the solid contraction during cooling = 7.25)(406.5/π = 30(2 x 981 x 60/65) .1021 m2) = 10.52 .0) = 2454. the total volumetric contraction is 1 .072) = 1 .(60/2) 2)(5.4 cm3 Given that the molten metal shrinkage = 0. At what speed must the tube be rotated during the operation in order to achieve these specifications? 58 . determine the G-factor and (c) centrifugal force per square meter (Pa) on the mold wall. Solution: D = 70 mm = 0.casting without the nuisance of “raining” inside the cavity.11 For the steel ring of preceding Problem 11.07) ..10(b).4/(0. this all assumes that the metal is inside the mold and rotating with it. and thickness = 6.299 m/s)2/(0.4 N)/(0.932. (b) Suppose that the ring were made out of steel instead of aluminum.1021 m2 Volume of cast metal V = π(Ro2 .1 kg-m/s2 Given that 1 N = 9.2 cm3 11. (b) Rotational speed would be the same as in part (a) because mass does not enter the computation of rotational speed. OD = 65 cm.0 in and outside diameter = 6.4 rev/min (c) Use 5 cm ring length as basis of area calculations.7 rev/min. there would be a problem in pouring the molten metal into the mold cavity and getting it to adhere to the mold wall as the mold begins to rotate.0 in. Determine the rotational speed that will provide a G-factor = 60.299 m/s Centrifugal force per square meter on mold wall = Fc/A where Fc = mv2/R Fc = (19.10 A horizontal true centrifugal casting process is used to make aluminum rings with dimensions: L = 5 cm. However.5).302)(5) = 2454.8 m/s2 N = 30(2g x GF/D).3125 m v = π(31. 11.5 in at the top and 5.8957) = 2740.5/π = 30(2 x 9. Area of this length of mold wall A = πDoL = π(65 cm)(5 cm) = 1021 cm2 = 0. 11. If the rotational speed computed in that problem were used in the steel casting operation.1.1.3125 m) = 10.0 in at the bottom.5 percent.(1-.914.1/9.5/π = 1237.2%.4 N Fc/A = (1114.1043 The required starting volume of molten metal V = 2454.316 kg v = πRN/30 Use mean radius R = (65 + 60)/4 = 31.Ri2)(L) = π((65/2) 2 .4 cm3 Density of steel ρ = 7.4 rev/min. D = Do = 65 cm. N = 30(2g x GF/D). The pipe has length = 0.7 N/m2 = 10.

608y + y2 .5/2 = 2. Solution: For brass.0) = 239.36 (3.3042 + 6.56 = 0. If the speed of rotation during solidification is 1000 rpm.608y .0.02 .0/.5 = (13.5/1000π = 1.5.1).14 A vertical true centrifugal casting process is used to produce bushings that are 200 mm long and 200 mm in outside diameter.3042 .Ri2) = 239. The foreman complains that the thickness of the parts are too thin.6 in 3 (4.005625)).15 A vertical true centrifugal casting process is used to cast brass tubing that is 15.8 x 0. determine the inside diameters at the top and bottom of the tubing if the total weight of the final casting = 75.304+y) 2-(3.304-y) 2)). 59 . and that is the Dt = 6.75 in.92/(Rt2-.304+y) 2-(3. Rb = 3.5 = (30/π)(2 x 9. N = (30/π)(2gL/(Rt2-Rb2).5 L = 10 in.00143 Rt2 = .304 in Let Rt = Ri + y = 3. determine the inside diameter at the top of the bushing if the diameter at the bottom is 150 mm.5 = (30/π)(2 x 32.08399 m = 83.313 = 239.92/(Rt2-. Solution: L = 200 mm = 0.16 The housing for a certain machinery product is made of two components. Rb = 150/2 = 75 mm = 0.Ri2)L = π(4.085 = 10.229172-. = 0.608y) .2 x 12 x 15/((3.6.5 = .0 in long and whose outside diameter = 8.02814 (2 x 6.5 N = (30/π)(3.92/2741. Volume of casting V = 75.02 .(3.6/15π = 5.6 in 3 Assume the inside wall of the casting is straight from top to bottom (an approximation of the parabolic shape).448 in.8333/(.224 in.99 mm.5 = 1.Solution: Use Eq.915 in 2 Ri = 3.007055) .7 rev/min 11.007055 Rt = 0. Rt = 3.36) 2 = 2741.001430 = 0.5 = 1.y2).8333 ft Rt = 5.02814 y = . thus 1000π/30 = (11592/((3.0 lbs. both aluminum castings.608y + y2 .5 = 30(11592) .2 x .5 = 500 rev/min (3. Defects and Design Considerations 11.0 .080 in.0/2 = 2.y.384 in. both of which are plagued by defects in the form of misruns and cold shuts.085 Ri2 = 16.5 = 9.304+y) 2-(3. = 0. N = (30/π)(2gL/(Rt2-Rb2).304 + y and Rb = Ri .635 (y) .5 = 500π/30 = 52.304-y) 2)).02814 3.208332).005625) = (52. The larger component has the shape of a dish sink and the second component is a flat cover that is attached to the first component to create an enclosed space for the machine parts.5493(5888) .2/(Rt2-.2 m.20833 ft N = (30/π)(2 x 32.3042 + 6.5 = 1.304 .3. The average inside radius Ri = (Rt + Rb)/2 Volume V = π(Ro2 .0752).304 .768 in.3042 + 6.005625)).216y) . where y = one-half the difference between Rt and Rb.080 = 3.304-y) 2). Db = 6.22917 ft Rb = 5. = 0.608y + y2)).5 = 1.313 lb/in3 (Table 11. Sand casting is used to produce the two castings.02814 (3.6) to make the computation of N: N = (30/π)(2gL/(Rt2-Rb2).0 in. If the rotational speed during solidification is 500 rpm.92/(Rt2-.5 ((3.y = 3.Ri2)(15.005625 = 3.56 Rt2-.075 m. 11. (11.50 in.5 Given N = 1000.080 = 3.02814 (3. density ρ = 0.5 = 732.005625 + 0.304 + 0.

However. What other explanation can be given for the defects? Solution: Misruns and cold shuts result from low fluidity.a surface consisting of a mixture of sand and metal. (3) Treat the mold cavity surface to make it harder. it is known that the same components are cast successfully in other foundries. thus increasing the risk of sand blows and pin holes. 11.reason for the defects. two other possible explanations are: (1) the pouring temperature is too low.17 A large steel sand casting shows the characteristic signs of penetration defect . and (2) the pouring operation is performed too slowly. (b) What possible defects might result from each of these steps? In the case of step (1). Steps (2) and (3) would reduce permeability of the sand. given that the casting of these parts is successfully accomplished at other foundries. (2) Increase the packing of the mold sand to resist penetration. 60 . However. One possible reason for the defects in this case is that the thickness of the casting cross-sections is too small. the risk is for cold shuts and misruns. (a) What steps can be taken to correct the defect? (b) What other possible defects might result from taking each of these steps? Solution: (a) What are the possible corrective steps? (1) Reduce pouring temperature.

What is the difference? Answer. The four types are: (1) pot furnaces. (3) continuous tank furnaces.5 Describe the spinning process in glassworking. The two processes in the text are: (1) drawing. 12. (2) shaping. (1) raw materials preparation and melting. grinding. A gob of molten glass is dropped in to a conical mold which spins. molten glass flows around a rotating hollow mandrel through which air is blown while the glass is being drawn. Silica .8 Describe the Danner process? Answer. 12. Name and briefly describe one of them. and (4) electric furnaces. causing centrifugal force to spread the glass upward onto the mold surface. in which fine glass fibers are pulled through small orifices in a heated plate. The methods described in this test are: (1) rolling. by and large. in which molten glass is forced to flow through small orifices in a rapidly rotating bowl to form glass fibers.12 GLASSWORKING Review Questions 12. Finishing operations (e. Answer.1 We have classified glass as a ceramic material. and (2) centrifugal spraying. Answer. In the Danner process. polycrystalline materials. (2) day tanks. What are the three basic steps in the glassworking sequence? Answer.3 What is the predominant chemical compound in almost all glass products? Answer. polishing. The temperature of the air and its volumetric flow rate as well as the drawing velocity determine the diameter and wall thickness of the tubular cross-section. in which the hot glass is squeezed between opposing cylindrical rolls. 12. whereas traditional and new ceramics are. Name and briefly describe one of them. 12. yet glass is different from the traditional and new ceramics.7 There are several ways of shaping plate or sheet glass. Spinning in glassworking is similar to centrifugal casting in metalworking.4 Melting furnace for glassworking can be divided into four types. Answer. Answer. 12. 12. in which the melted glass flows onto a molten tin surface to achieve uniform thickness and smoothness. etching) are performed on some glass products.9 Two processes for forming glass fibers are discussed in the text.it is in the glassy state. and (2) the float process. if needed.g. while the first step in the blow-and-blow process is blowing. In the press-and-blow process. 61 . Name three of the four types. During hardening. the glass tube is supported by a series of rollers extending beyond the mandrel. and (3) heat treatment. Glass is vitreous . 12.6 What is the main difference between the press-and-blow and the blow-and-blow shaping processes in glassworking? Answer. the initial forming step is pressing of the part.2 12..SiO2.

so avoid impact loading. Answer. (b) 900°C to 1000°C. Answer. since each correct answer is worth 1 point.4. which strengthens it. (c) 1500°C to 1600°C. Laminated glass. 12. The guidelines are: (1) subject ceramic parts to compressive. or (d) the starting materials in melting.2 Besides helping to preserve the environment. The glass is heated to a temperature above the annealing temperature and the surfaces are then quenched by air jets to cool and harden them while the interior of the piece remains plastic. (d) 12. 12. all correct answers must be given. This has good impact resistance and does not splinter when broken.12.5 Casting is a glassworking process used for high production. it puts the previously hardened surfaces in compression. (4) screw threads should be course.10 What is the purpose of annealing in glassworking? Answer.) Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 10 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct). in which two sheets of glass are laminated on either side of a polymer sheet. or (e) vitreous. 12. (3) use large radii on inside and outside corners. (b) the electric energy required to melt the glass.1 Which one of the following terms refers to the glassy state of a material? (a) crystalline. (b) 12. (2) ceramics are brittle. (c) polycrystalline. and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers. (c) the name given to the melting furnace. Answer. 62 . or (d) 2000°C to 2200°C. (See Section 14. To attain a perfect score on the quiz. Answer. Answer.3 The charge in glassworking is which one of the following? (a) the duration of the melting cycle. as the interior cools and contracts. (b) Casting is used in glassworking for large components like giant telescope lenses in small lot sizes. the use of recycled glass as an ingredient of the starting material in glassmaking serves what other useful purpose (one only)? (a) adds coloring variations to the glass for aesthetic value. not tensile loads. (c) 12. 12.12 Describe the type of material that is commonly used to make windshields for automobiles.11 Describe how a piece of glass is heat treated to produce tempered glass. (c) makes the glass stronger. (a) True. or (d) reduces odors in the plant. (b) devitrified. (d) vitiated. (e) 12. It is a slow process for these large products. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point. or (b) false.13 What are some of the design recommendations for glass parts? Answer. For each question. Answer. (b) makes the glass easier to melt.4 Typical glass melting temperatures are in which of the following ranges? (a) 400°C to 500°C. Answer. Annealing is performed on glass to remove internal stresses that result from shaping and solidification.

(c) quenching.30/0. (a) If a glass part with a wall thickness of 5 mm (0.10 A lehr is which of the following? (a) a lion's den. That would indicate an annealing time of 0. or (b) false. Answer. (c) a sintering furnace. or (e) none of the above. Answer.5 mm (0. (b) It's the reverse. (b) a melting furnace.202 = 2.6 Which one of the following processes or processing steps is not applicable in glassworking? (a) annealing. (b) 15 minutes. or (c) 30 minutes. (d) Sintering is used to cause bonding of particulate materials such as metal and ceramic powders. 20 minutes is closest. (d) an annealing furnace. (d) 63 . 12. 12.5 minutes. and (e) spinning. (b) pressing. (c) The rule is that annealing time varies as the square of the wall thickness. Answer. Which one of the following processes is used to produce glass tubing? (a) Danner process. how much time would a glass part of similar geometry but with a wall thickness of 7.20 in) takes 10 minutes to anneal. (b) pressing. Answer. while the blow-and-blow process is more appropria te for producing (wide-mouthed) jars. Answer. (c) 20 minutes. (a) True.12.30 in) take to anneal (choose the closest answer)? (a) 10 minutes. (c) rolling. (d) sintering.8 12.25 times 10 minutes or 22. or (d) spinning.7 The press-and-blow process is best suited to the production of (narrow-necked) beverage bottles.9 12.

in which the polymer changes to a viscous fluid. (4) fibers. and (3) metering section. less energy employed than in metalworking processes.4 How does the viscosity of a polymer melt differ from most fluids that are Newtonian. 13. and (2) shear rate. Other properties include: viscoelasticity. (3) the molecular weight of the polymer also affects viscosity. Answer. identify the sections. Some of the reasons are: (1) many of the processes are net shape processes. A polymer melt exhibits pseudoplasticity. It results from the viscoelastic properties of the polymer melt.7 Briefly describe the plastic extrusion process. In plastic extrusion. (3) lower temperatures are required to process plastics than metals or ceramics. (4) great flexibility in geometry. (2) compression section. Answer. 13.1 SHAPING PROCESSES FOR PLASTICS Review Questions What are some of the reasons why the plastic shaping processes are important? Answer.2 Identify the main categories of plastics shaping processes. (2) molding. Of course. what other properties of a polymer melt are important in plastics processing? Briefly define each of the properties identified.the tendency to return to its previous shape. which means that its value decreases with increasing shear rate.9 What are the functions of the screen pack and breaker plate at the die end of the extruder barrel? 64 . (2) in general. a polymer melt is compressed to flow through a die orifice and thus the continuous length of the plastic assumes a cross-sectional shape that is approximately the same as the profile of the orifice.13 13.3 Viscosity is an important property of a polymer melt in plastics shaping processes. Viscosity of a polymer melt depends on: (1) temperature. as classified by the resulting product geometry. as exhibited by die swell in extrusion. Die swell is the tendency of the extrudate to expand in cross-section dimensions immediately on exiting the die orifice. (1) feed section.5 Besides viscosity. Answer. (5) foamed products. and (6) discrete formed sheets and films. a combination of viscous and elastic properties which cause the melt to exhibit memory . Upon what parameters does viscosity depend? Answer. (3) forming of continuous sheets and films. The categories are: (1) extrusion. 13.8 The barrel and screw of an extruder are generally divided into three sections. 13. 13. and (5) painting and other finishing processes generally not required. in which pressure is developed to pump the plastic through the die orifice. 13.6 Define die swell in extrusion. 13. in which the feed stock is fed from the hopper and heated. Answer. Answer. Answer. 13.

which are the most important? Answer.section of the gate freezes more rapidly to seal off the cavity.16 Among the synthetic fiber materials.6. See beginning of Section 15. 13.15 Technically. Answer.14 Polymer fibers and filaments are used in several applications. The blown-film process is a widely used process for making thin polyethylene film for packaging.020 in (0.5 mm) thick. 13. and rayon.17. Polyester is the most important commercially. Textiles. See Figure 13. 13. and (3) parts can be more easily broken off the runner at the gate.17 Briefly describe the injection molding process.12 What is the blown-film process for producing film stock? Answer. The components of an injection molding machine are: (1) the injection unit and (2) the clamping unit. what is the most important application? Answer. In addition. (3) straighten the flow and remove memory. Answer. 13. such as rounds and L-shapes. and (5) filaments (continuous fibers).Answer. (1) solid profiles. Answer. there are hydromechanical units which combine hydraulic and mechanical actuations. Answer. 13. 13. the initial feedstock is passed through a series of rolls to work the material and reduce its thickness to the desired gage. name them. followed by nylon. (3) wire and cable coating. Thickness. what is the difference between a fiber and a filament? Answer. (2) hollow profiles. such as tubes.18 An injection molding machine is divided into two principal components. The clamping units are: (1) mechanical toggle clamp and (2) hydraulic. (2) the thinner cross.5 mm).020 in (0. 13. 13. identify them.20 Gates in injection molds have several functions.13 Describe the calendering process. 13. a filament is a fiber of continuous length. Sheet stock has a thickness greater than 0. 13.10 What are the various forms of extruded shapes and corresponding dies? Answer. (4) sheet and film. It combines extrusion and blowing to produce a tube of thin film. (2) build pressure. The functions are: (1) filter dirt and lumps. In the process. while film stock is less than 0. Calendering is a process for producing sheet and film stock out of rubber or rubbery thermoplastics such as plasticized PVC. thin strand of material whose length is at least 100 times its diameter. The process begins with the extrusion of a tube which is immediately drawn upward while still molten and simultaneously expanded in size by air inflated into it through the die mandrel. acrylics. 65 . The functions of gates in an injection mold are: (1) to increase shear rate to increase viscosity and temperature of the polymer melt.11 What is the distinction between plastic sheet and film? Answer. 13.19 What are the two basic types of clamping units? Answer. A fiber is a long.

sink marks. 13. (2) lower temperatures in the barrel.plate mold in injection molding? Answer. Reaction injection molding involves the mixing of two highly reactive liquid ingredients and immediately injecting the mixture into a mold cavity where chemical reactions leading to solidification occur. Thermoforming starts with a thermoplastic sheet or film. Blow molding is used to produce hollow. called chemical blowing agents. Structural foam molding is an injection molding process in which a gas or gas-producing ingredient is mixed with the polymer melt prior to injection into the mold cavity. seamless containers. in which the surface is drawn into the molding by contraction of internal material. the three-plate mold automatically separates the molded part(s) from the runner system.27 What is the starting material form in thermoforming? Answer. while in other thermoforming processes. A positive mold has a convex shape.mixing a liquid resin with air by. 13.26 What kinds of products are produced by blow molding? Answer. that decompose at elevated temperatures to liberate gases such as CO2 or N2 within the melt. in which the polymer melt is squeezed into the parting surfaces between the mold halves and around ejection pins.30 What are the processes by which polymer foams are produced? Answer.3.23 Describe structural foam molding. matching mold halves are required. flashing. 66 . 13. There are several foaming processes: (1) mechanical agitation . 13. 13. a negative mold has a concave cavity. then hardening the polymer by means of heat or chemical reaction.25 What is reaction injection molding? Answer. The two ingredients form the components used in catalyst-activated or mixing-activated thermoset systems (Section 8. In mechanical thermoforming. in which the polymer melt solidifies before filling the cavity.13. As the mold opens. and weld lines where the melt has flowed around a core or 13. Answer. and (3) use of a heated mold to cause cross-linking of the TS polymer. these first two reasons to prevent premature curing. The differences in injection molding of thermosets are: (1) shorter barrel length. 13. only one mold form is required.28 What is the difference between a positive mold and a negative mold in thermoforming? Answer. Answer. such as bottles. so that the gas comes out of solution and expands when the pressure is subsequently reduced.24 What are the significant differences in the equipment and operating procedures between injection molding of thermoplastics and injection molding of thermosets? Answer.21 What are the advantages of a three-plate mold over a two. and (3) mixing the polymer with chemical compounds.a gas such as nitrogen (N2) or pentane (C5H12) which can be dissolved in the polymer melt under pressure. 13. (2) mixing a physical blowing agent with the polymer . The defects include: short shots. this results in the part having a tough outer skin surrounded by a foam core.1).22 Discuss some of the defects that can occur in plastic injection molding.29 Why are the molds generally more costly in mechanical thermoforming than in pressure or vacuum thermoforming? Answer. 13.

Answer. Answer. and (f) shaping section. To attain a perfect score on the quiz. or (e) slit-die extrusion. (c) rate of flow. (b) and (d). Finally. (c) both of the above. or (d) none of the above.1 The shear viscosity of a polymer melt is affected by which of the following (more than one)? (a) degree of polymerization. For each question. (b) hopper. 13. (2) Impact resistance of plastics is general good. (d) Calendering is more closely associated with rubber coating of materials such as textiles. and rate of flow (c) is related to shear rate. (b) die section.4 Which of the following processes is not associated with the production of plastic sheet and film (more than one)? (a) blown-film extrusion process. and (e) part ejection unit. (c) 13. (d) mold. (b) Drag flow is the forward motion of the melt caused by the Archimedian screw principle in the barrel. some plastics degrade in oxygen and ozone atmospheres. 13. (d) temperature. but should be included in our list of plastic sheet and film-making processes.2 The forward movement of polymer melt in an extruder barrel is resisted by drag flow. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers. Answer. (c). (a). Answer. and (d). (d) heating section. all correct answers must be given. (5) Many types of plastics degrade from sunlight and certain other forms of radiation.6 The principal components of an injection molding machine are which two of the following? (a) clamping unit. are probably more recognizable to the reader as correct answers to this question. (e) metering section. (b) calendering. since each correct answer is worth 1 point. 13. Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 36 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct). Answer. (c) chill-roll extrusion.3 Which three of the following are sections of a conventional extruder barrel for thermoplastics? (a) compression section.13. (c) injection unit. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point. (3) Service temperatures of plastics are limited relative to engineering metals and ceramics. (c). and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point. so dimensional changes due to temperature variations are much more significant than for metals. (4) Thermal expansion is greater for plastics than metals. (a) and (c) 67 . (b) polymer type. (a).5 Spinning in the production of synthetic fibers refers to which of the following: (a) extrusion of polymer melt through small die openings. Answer. (b) drawing the strands to elongate and thin them. (d) doctor blade method. plastics are soluble in many common solvents. (b). Degree of polymerization (a) is correlated with molecular weight. better than many ceramics. 13. and (e) 13. Also. The other parameters. which is caused by the resistance to flow through the die orifice: (a) true or (b) false. Some of the general considerations are : (1) Plastics are not as strong or stiff as metals and should not be used in applications where high stresses will be encountered. The resistance to forward flow is called back pressure flow.31 What are some of the general considerations that product designers must keep in mind when designing components out of plastics? Answer. (c) feed section.

13.7

The parting line in injection molding is which one of the following: (a) the lines formed where polymer melt meets after flowing around a core in the mold, (b) the narrow gate sections where the parts are separated from the runner, (c) where the clamping unit is joined to the injection unit in the molding machine, (d) where the two mold halves come together, (e) none of the above. Answer. (d) The function of the ejection system is to (one best answer): (a) move polymer melt into the mold cavity, (b) open the mold halves after the cavity is filled, (c) remove the molded parts from the runner system after molding, (d) separate the part from the cavity after molding, (e) none of the above. Answer. (d) A three-plate mold offers which of the following advantages when compared to a two-plate mold (more than one)? (a) automatic separation of parts from runners, (b) gating is usually at the base of the part to reduce weld lines, (c) sprue does not solidify, (d) stronger molded parts, (e) none of the above. Answer. (a) and (b)

13.8

13.9

13.10 Which of the following defects or problems is associated with injection molding (more than one)? (a) bambooing, (b) die swell, (c) drag flow, (d) flash, (e) melt fracture, (f) short shots, or (g) sink marks. Answer. (d), (f), and (g) 13.11 In rotational molding, centrifugal force is used to force the polymer melt against the surfaces of the mold cavity where solidification occurs: (a) true or (b) false. Answer. (b) It is the force of gravity in the doubly rotating mold that forces the polymer against the mold surfaces. 13.12 Use of a parison is associated with which one of the following plastic shaping processes? (a) bi-injection molding, (b) blow molding, (c) compression molding, (d) pressure thermoforming, or (e) sandwich molding. Answer. (b) 13.13 A thermoforming mold with a convex form is called which one of the following (may be more than one)? (a) a die, (b) a negative mold, (c) a positive mold, or (d) a three-plate mold. Answer. (c) 13.14 The term encapsulation refers to which one of the following plastics shaping processes? (a) casting, (b) compression molding, (c) extrusion of hollow forms, (d) injection molding in which a metal insert is encased in the molded part, or (e) vacuum thermoforming using a positive mold. Answer. (a) 13.15 Which of the following terms applies to the processing of foam plastics (more than one)? (a) chemical blowing agents, (b) open cell structure, (c) powder injection molding, (d) sandwich molding, (e) structural foam molding, (f) all of the above. Answer. (a), (b), (d), and (e). 13.16 The two most common polymer foams are which of the following? (a) polyacetal, (b) polyethylene, (c) polystyrene, (d) polyurethane, and (e) polyvinylchloride.

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Answer. (c) and (d) 13.17 In which of the following property categories do plastic parts compare favorably with metals (more than one)? (a) impact resistance, (b) resistance to ultraviolet radiation, (c) stiffness, (d) strength, (e) strength-to- weight ratio, or (f) temperature resistance. Answer. (a) and (e). 13.18 Which of the following processes are generally limited to thermoplastic polymers (more than one)? (a) blow molding, (b) compression molding, (c) reaction injection molding, (d) thermoforming, (e) transfer molding, (f) wire coating. Answer. (a) and (d). 13.19 Which of the following processes would be applicable to produce hulls for small boats (more than one)? (a) blow molding, (b) compression molding, (c) injection molding, (d) rotational molding, or (e) vacuum thermoforming. Answer. (a), (d), and (e).

Problems

Extrusion 13.1 The diameter of an extruder barrel is 65 mm and its length = 1.75 m. The screw rotates at 55 rev/min. The screw channel depth = 5.0 mm, and the flight angle = 18°. The head pressure at the die end of the barrel is 5.0 x 106 Pa. The viscosity of the polymer melt is given as 100 Pas. Find the volume flow rate of the plastic in the barrel. Solution: Qd = 0.5π 2(65x10-3)2(55/60)(5x10-3)sin 18 cos 18 = 95,560x10-9(0.3090)(0.9510) = 28.081 x 10-6 m3/s p = 5 MPa = 5x106 n/m2 Qb = π(5x106)(65x10-3)(5x10-3)3(sin 18) 2/12(100)(1.75) = 5.804 x 10-6 m3/s Qx = 28.081 - 5.804 = 22.277 x 10 -6 m3/s. 13.2 An extruder barrel has a diameter of 120 mm and a length = 3.0 m. The screw channel depth = 8.0 mm, and its pitch = 95 mm. The viscosity of the polymer melt is 75 Pas, and the head pressure in the barrel is 4.0 MPa. What rotational speed of the screw is required to achieve a volumetric flow rate of 90 cm3/s? Solution: A = tan-1(95/120π) = 14.14° Qd = 0.5π 2(.12) 2(N)(8x10-3)sin 14.14 cos 14.14 = 0.5685x10-3(0.2444)(0.9697) = 134.73 N x 10-6 m3/s Qb = π(4x106)(.12)(8x10-3)3(sin 14.14) 2/12(75)(3.0) = 26.66 x 10-6 m3/s Qx = Qd - Qb = 157.5 N x 10-6 - 26.66 x 10-6 = 90 x 10-6 m3/s 134.73 N = 90 + 26.66 = 116.66 N = 116.66/134.73 = 0.8659 rev/s = 51.95 rev/min. 13.3 An extruder has diameter = 80 mm and length = 2.0 m. Its screw has a channel depth = 5 mm, flight angle = 18 degrees, and it rotates at 1 rev/sec. The plastic melt has a shear viscosity = 150 Pas. Determine the extruder characteristic by computing Qmax and p max and then finding the equation of the straight line between them. Solution: Qmax = Qd = 0.5π 2(.08) 2(1)(5x10-3)sin 18 cos 18 = 0.158 x 10-3(0.3090)(0.9510) = 46.4 x 10-6 m3/s pmax = 6π(.08)(1)(2)(150)(cot 18)/(5x10-3)2 = 452.4(3.077)/25x10-6 = 55 x 106 Pa = 55 MPa

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Qx = 46.4 x 10-6 - (46.4x10-6/55)p Qx = 46.4 x 10 -6 - 0.8436 x 10-6 p, where p has units of MPa 13.4 Determine the helix angle A such that the screw pitch p is equal to the screw diameter D. This is called the "square" angle in plastics extrusion - the angle that provides a flight advance equal to one diameter for each rotation of the screw. Solution: Assume flight land = zero. From Eq. (15.4), tan A = pitch/πD If pitch = D, then A = tan-1(1/π) = 17.66° ° 13.5 An extruder barrel has a diameter of 2.5 in. The screw rotates at 60 rev/min; its channel depth = 0.20 in, and its flight angle = 17.5°. The head pressure at the die end of the barrel is 800 lb/in 2 and the length of the barrel is 50 in. The viscosity of the polymer melt is 122 x 10-4 lb-sec/in 2. Determine the volume flow rate of the plastic in the barrel. Solution: Qd = 0.5π 2(2.5) 2(1)(.2)sin 17.5 cos 17.5 = 0.5(12.337)(0.3007)(0.9537) = 1.769 in 3/sec Qb = π(800)(2.5)(.2) 3(sin 17.5) 2/12(122x10-4)(50) = 0.621 in 3/sec Qx = 1.769 - 0.621 = 1.148 in3/sec. 13.6 An extruder barrel has a diameter of 4.0 in and an L/D ratio of 28. The screw channel depth = 0.25 in, and its pitch = 4.8 in. It rotates at 60 rev/min. The viscosity of the polymer melt is 100 x 10-4 lb-sec/in 2. What head pressure is required to obtain a volume flow rate = 150 in 3/min? Solution: A = tan-1(pitch/πD) = tan-1(4.8/4π) = 20.9° Qd = 0.5π 2(4) 2(1)(.25)sin 20.9 cos 20.9 = 19.74(0.3567)(0.9342) = 6.578 in 3/sec = 394.66 in 3/min Qx = Qd - Qb = 394.66 - Qd = 150 Qb = 394.66 - 150 = 244.66 in 3/min = 4.078 in3/sec L = 4(28) = 112 in. Qb = πp(4)(.25) 3(sin 20.9) 2/12(100x10-4)(112) = 4.078 0.0018592 p = 4.078 p = 2193.4 lb/in2 13.7 An extrusion operation produces continuous tubing with outside diameter = 2.0 in and inside diameter = 1.7 in. The extruder barrel has a diameter = 4.0 in and length = 10 ft. The screw rotates at 50 rev/min; it has a channel depth = 0.25 in and flight angle = 16°. The head pressure has a value of 350 lb/in 2 and the viscosity of the polymer melt is 80 x 10-4 lb-sec/in 2. Under these conditions, what is the production rate in length of tube/min, assuming the extrudate is pulled at a rate that eliminates the effect of die swell (i.e., the tubing has the same OD and ID as the die profile). Solution: Qd = 0.5π 2(4) 2(50/60)(.25)sin 16 cos 16 = 16.45(0.2756)(0.9613) = 4.358 in 3/sec Qb = π(350)(4)(.25) 3(sin 16) 2/12(80x10-4)(120) = 0.453 in 3/sec Qx = 4.358 - 0.453 = 3.905 in 3/sec. Ax = 0.25π(22 - 1.72) = 0.872 in 2 vx = 3.905/0.872 = 4.478 in/sec = 22.39 ft/min. 13.8 An extruder has barrel diameter and length of 100 mm and 2.8 m, respectively. The screw rotational speed = 50 rev/min, channel depth = 7.5 mm, and flight angle = 17°. The plastic melt has a shear viscosity = 175 Pas. Determine: (a) the extruder characteristic, (b) the shape factor Ks for a circular die opening with diameter = 3.0 mm and length = 12.0 mm, and (c) the operating point (Q and p). Solution: Qmax = Qd = 0.5π 2(.1) 2(50/60)(7.5x10-3)sin 17 cos 17 = 308.4 x 10-6(0.2924)(0.9563)

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= 86.2 x 10-6 m3/s pmax = 6π(.1)(50/60)(2.8)(175)(cot 17)/(7.5x10-3)2 = 44.75 x 106 Pa =44.75 MPa Qx = 86.2 x 10 -6 - 1.926 x 10-12 p, where p has units of Pa (b) Given: Dd = 3 mm, Ld = 12 mm. Ks = π(3 x 10-3)4/128(175)(12 x 10-3) = 0.9467 x 10 -12 (c) 0.9467 x 10-12 p = 86.2 x 10-6 - 1.926 x 10-12 p 2.8727 x 10-12 p = 86.2 x 10-6 p = 30.0 x 10 6 Pa = 30 MPa Qx = 0.9467 x 10-12 (30 x 106) = 28.4 x 10 -6 m3/s Check with extruder characteristic: Qx = 86.2 x 10-6 - 1.926 x 10-12 (30 x 106) = 28.4 x 10-6 m3/s. 13.9 Consider an extruder in which the barrel diameter = 4.5 in and length = 11 ft. The extruder screw rotates at 60 rev/min; it has channel depth = 0.35 in and flight angle = 20°. The plastic melt has a shear viscosity = 125 x 10-4 lb-sec/in 2. Determine: (a) Qmax and p max, (b) the shape factor Ks for a circular die opening in which Dd = 0.312 in and Ld = 0.75 in, and (c) the values of Q and p at the operating point. Solution: (a) Qmax = 0.5π 2(4.5) 2(1)(.35)sin 20 cos 20 = 34.975(0.342)(0.9397) = 11.24 in 3/sec pmax = 6π(4.5)(1)(132)(.0125)(cot 20)/(0.35) 2 = 3139 lb/in2 (b) Given: Dd = 0.312 in., Ld = 0.75 in. Ks = π(.312) 4/128(.0125)(.75) = 0.024808 (c) From (a), Qx = Qmax - (Qmax/pmax)p = 11.24 - 0.003581p From (b), Qx = 0.024808p Combining, .024808p = 11.24 - .003581p .02839p = 11.24 p = 395.9 lb/in2 Qx = 11.24 - 0.003581(395.9) = 9.82 in3/sec 13.10 An extruder has a barrel diameter = 5.0 in and length = 12 ft. The extruder screw rotates at 50 rev/min; it has channel depth = 0.30 in and flight angle = 17.7°. The plastic melt has a shear viscosity = 100 x 10-4 lb- sec/in 2. Find: (a) the extruder characteristic, (b) the values of Q and p at the operating point, given that the die characteristic is Qx = 0.00150 p. Solution: (a) Qmax = 0.5π 2(5) 2(50/60)(.3)sin 17.7 cos 17.7 = 30.84(0.3040)(0.9527) = 8.93 in 3/sec pmax = 6π(5)(50/60)(144)(.01)(cot 17.7)/(0.3) 2 = 3937.6 lb/in2 Qx = Qmax - (Qmax/pmax)p = 8.93 - 0.002268p (b) Given: die characteristic Qx = 0.0015p Qx = 8.93 - 0.002268p = 0.0015p 0.00377p = 8.93 p = 2370 lb/in2 Qx = 8.93 - 0.002268(2370) = 3.55 in3/sec 13.11 An extruder has a barrel diameter = 4.0 in and length = 5.0 ft. The extruder screw rotates at 80 rev/min. It has a channel with depth = 0.15 in and flight angle = 20°. The polymer melt has a shear viscosity = 60 x 10-4 lb- sec/in 2 at the operating temperature of the process. The specific gravity of the polymer is 1.2. (a) Find the equation for the extruder characteristic. If a T-shaped cross-section is extruded at a rate of 0.13 lb/sec, determine: (b) the operating point (Q and p), and (c) the die characteristic that is indicated by the operating point. Solution: (a) Qmax = 0.5π 2(4) 2(80/60)(.15)sin 20 cos 20 = 15.79(0.3420)(0.9397) = 5.075 in 3/sec pmax = 6π(4)(80/60)(60)(.006)(cot 20)/(0.15) 2 = 1104.8 lb/in2

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Qx = Qmax - (Qmax/pmax)p = 5.075 - 0.004593p (b) Given: T-shaped cross section extruded at 0.13 lb/sec. Density of polymer ρ = 1.2(62.5 lb/ft3)/(12 in 3/ft3) = 0.0433 lb/in3 Qx = 0.13/0.0433 = 3.0 in 3/sec. 3.0 = 5.075 - 0.004593p 0.004593p = 5.075 - 3.0 = 2.075 p = 451.8 lb/in2 (c) Qx = Ks p Ks = Qx/p = 3.0/451.8 = 0.00664 Qx = 0.00664 p Injection Molding 13.12 Compute the percentage volumetric contraction of a polyethylene molded part, based on the value of shrinkage given in Table 13.1. Solution: 15.12 S = 0.025 for polyethylene from Table 13.1. Volumetric contraction = 1.0 - (1 - .025) 3 = 1.0 - 0.92686 = 0.07314 = 7.314% Note that we are not using the parameter S from Table 13.1 in the way it was intended to be used. Its intended use is to compute the oversized dimension of a mold cavity in injection molding. Instead, we are using the shrinkage term to calculate the amount of (volumetric) reduction in size of the part after the polymer is injected into the cavity. In fact, a slightly different shrinkage parameter value may apply in this case. 13.13 The specified dimension = 100.00 mm for a certain injection molded part made of nylon-6,6. Compute the corresponding dimension to which the mold cavity should be machined, using the value of shrinkage given in Table 13.1. Solution: S = 0.020 for nylon-6,6 from Table 13.1. Dc = 100.0 + 100(0.020) + 100(0.020) 2 = 100 + 2.02 + 0.04 = 102.04 mm. 13.14 The part dimension for a certain injection molded part made of polycarbonate is specified as 3.75 in. Compute the corresponding dimension to which the mold cavity should be machined, using the value of shrinkage given in Table 13.1. Solution: S = 0.007 for polycarbonate from Table 13.1. Dc = 3.75 + 3.75(0.007) + 3.75 (0.007) 2 = 3.75 + 0.0263 + 0.0002 = 3.7765 in. 13.15 The foreman in the injection molding department says that a polyethylene part produced in one of the operations has greater shrinkage than the calculations indicate it should have. The important dimension of the part is specified as 112.5 ±0.25 mm. However, the actual molded part measures 112.02 mm. (a) As a first step, the corresponding mold cavity dimension should be checked. Compute the correct value of the mold dimension, given that the shrinkage value for polyethylene is 0.025 (from Table 13.1). (b) What adjustments in process parameters could be made to reduce the amount of shrinkage. Solution: (a) Given: S = 0.025, Dc = 112.5 + 112.5(.025) + 112.5(.025) 2 = 115.383 mm (b) Adjustments to reduce shrinkage include: (1) increase injection pressure, (2) increase compaction time, and (3) increase molding temperatures.

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00 in. Solution: Mean extrusion die diameter Dd = (1.16 The extrusion die for a polyethylene parison used in blow molding has a mean diameter = 16.5 mm. what is the maximum possible diameter of the blow mold? Solution: Dd = (22 + 18)/2 = 20 mm.35) 3(2)(20)/.125 in. (a) Why is thinning 73 .281) 2(1. The size of the ring opening in the die = 1.0429 in.1.40 = 246 mm. The observed diameter swell ratio = 1.0343) = 2.1.25 .shaped part.5 .25 in and inside diameter = 1.20 A rotational molding operation is to be used to mold a hollow playing ball out of polyethylene. and td = (11. and td = (22 .0 mm tm = (1. The observed die swell is 1.16667π[(1. rsd = 27/20 = 1. 462 mm 13.7. and wall thickness td = (1.00)/2 = 1. What weight of PE powder should be loaded into the mold in order to meet these specifications? The specific gravity of the PE grade is 0. Maximum air pressure p = 2(1000)(0.5)/2 = 2.18 A parison is extruded from a die with outside diameter = 11.25 = 0. respectively.73 lb/in2 .40 mm.(1.5)/2 = 9.95(62.18)(0.18)/2 = 2 mm. If the minimum wall thickness of the blow molded container is to be 0. What is the maximum air pressure that can be used if the maximum allowable tensile stress for the polymer is 1000 lb/in 2.25 in diameter bottle from a parison that is extruded in a die whose outside diameter = 1.505 mm (b) tp = (1.35 Rearranging Eq.5) = 2.013 in. Some wall thickness are less.0 = 0.5x12 . If the diameter of the blow molded container is to be 100 mm. The mean diameter of the parison is observed to swell to a size of 20. 13.5 + 7.5)(16.Other Molding Operations and Thermoforming 13.25 . (a) What is the corresponding wall thickness of the container? (b) Obtain an empty 2-liter plastic soda bottle and (carefully) cut it across the diameter.125 in.Di3)/6 = 0.2 mm.5 ft in diameter and its wall thickness should be 1/16 in.25.125)/6.4/1728) = 0. The ball will be 1. (15.0343 lb/in 3 Volume = π(Do3 . The parison is used to blow mold a beverage container whose outside diameter = 112 mm (a standard size 2-liter soda bottle).0 mm.25) in text. 13.24) 3(.95.24.331 mm (= 0.0)/100.5x12) 3 . The operation is conventional pressure thermoforming using a positive mold.5/160 = 1.25) 3(2.17 A blow molding operation produces a 6.5 mm. Solution: Density ρ = 0. Using a micrometer. determine (a) the corresponding wall thickness of the container and (b) the wall thickness of the parison.25 = 13. 13. Solution: (a) rsd = 20.17 lb.0)/2 = 0.0)(9. The inside and outside diameters of the die that produced the parison are 18 mm and 22 mm.19 An extrusion operation is used to produce a parison whose mean diameter = 27 mm.5 mm and inside diameter = 7. Solution: (a) Dd = (11. 13.18 in 3 Weight = (63.125)(1. Dm = rsd3tdDd/tm = (1.) (b) Measured value should be close to calculated value.5 mm.21 The problem in a certain thermoforming operation is that there is too much thinning in the walls of the large cup.281) 2 (1.281 tm = (1.0429)/6. measure the wall thickness to compare with your answer in (a).5 mm after exiting the die orifice. and the plastic is an ABS sheet with an initial thickness of 3.5)/112 = 0. Blow molding wall thickness tm = (1.2/16) 3] = 63.

74 . thinning in these sides results.38 in the text. However. Hence. or (2) prestretch the sheet as in Figure 13.occurring in the walls of the cup? (b) What changes could be made in the operation to correct the problem? Solution: (a) As the starting flat sheet is draped over the convex cup-shaped mold. since a negative mold will distribute the material more uniformly and result in approximately equal thinning throughout the sheet. the remaining portions of the sheet must be stretched significantly to conform to the sides of the cup. (b) The problem could be solved by either: (1) fabricating a negative mold to replace the current positive mold. the portion contacting the base of the cup experiences little stretching.

belted bias and radial ply tires use belts.10 What is the purpose of the bead coil in a pneumatic tire? 75 . 14. (2) calendering. and blowing agents to make foam rubber. and (4) molding. see Article 14. 14.5 14. Answer. (3) coating. reinforcing fillers. and (3) molding and curing. Diagonal ply and belted bias both have their carcass plys running in a diagonal direction relative to the tire circumference. The three steps are: (1) preform the components. skimming. 14. whereas diagonal ply tires do not have these belts. antioxidants. 14. which are additional plies around the outside circumference of the tire.1.8 Name the three basic tire constructions and briefly identify the differences in their construction. and (3) fabricators take the NR and SR and produce finished rubber goods. (b) belted bias. radial ply has its carcass plies running in a radial direction. coloring pigments. (4) shaping. (a) diagonal ply.7 Name the four basic categories of processes used to shape rubber. (3) mixing. and (4) the resulting sheets are dried in smokehouses for several days. The categories are: (1) extrusion. plasticizers to soften the rubber. 14. The additives and functions are: vulcanizing chemicals. What are some of the operations used to coat rubber onto a fabric to produce reinforced rubber? Answer.3 What is the sequence of processing steps required to produce finished rubber goods? Answer. (2) formic or acetic or other acid is added to the solution which causes the rubber to coagulate.9 What are the three basic steps in the manufacture of a pneumatic tire? Answer. The rubber is usually recovered as follows: (1) the latex is collected into tanks and diluted to half natural concentration. 14. What does vulcanization do to the rubber? Answer. (2) compounding.14 14. (3) the coagulum is then squeezed through rolls to drive off water. and (c) radial ply. Calendering.2 How is raw rubber recovered from the latex that is tapped from a rubber tree? Answer. Vulcanization causes cross-linking of the rubber molecules. (2) the petrochemical industry produces synthetic rubber.6 14. The rubber industry is organized into three parts: (1) rubber growing plantations produce natural rubber.4. dipping. The resulting raw rubber is called ribbed smoked sheet. and spraying. (2) building the carcass and adding the rubber for the sidewall and treads. 14.4 What are some of the functions of the additives that are combined with rubber during compounding? Answer. The typical sequence is: (1) production of the raw rubber. and (5) vulcanization.1 RUBBER PROCESSING TECHNOLOGY Review Questions How is the rubber industry organized? Answer. Answer. extenders to reduce cost. this strengthens and stiffens the rubber while extensibility is retained.

or (d) tennis balls. (b) 15. Answer. (c) polyisoprene. or (d) transfer molding. (c) pneumatic tires. (b) injection molding. Answer. Three examples: (1) no draft is needed on the part for mold removal. Answer. or (d) polystyrene. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point. 14. (c) 14. (a) and (b) 14. it is a thermoplastic polymer that behaves like a rubber. all correct answers must be given. (b) polyisobutylene. (d) plasticizers and softening oils. 14. (b) 14.11 What is a TPE? Answer. (2) holes should be molded into rubber parts rather than machined. 14. However. (b) 14. TPE stands for thermoplastic elastomer.7 When is the tread pattern imprinted onto the circumference of the tire? (a) during preforming.3 Of the following rubber additives. or (d) during curing. (c) stearic acid. What are some examples of these differences? Answer. and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point. Answer. whereas holes can be machined or molded in a plastic part. and (e) zinc oxide. (b) carbon black. (c) clays and other hydrous aluminum silicates. or (e) reclaimed rubber.Answer.5 Which of the following ingredients do not contribute to the vulcanizing process (more than one)? (a) calcium carbonate.12 Many of the design guidelines that are applicable to plastics are also applicable to rubber.2 The chemical name of the ingredient recovered from the latex of the rubber tree is which one of the following? (a) polybutadiene. (a) 14. The bead coil provides a rigid support for the tire when it is mounted onto the wheel rim.1 The most important rubber product is: (a) footwear. Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 11 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct). and (3) screw threads are not normally used on rubber parts. (c) 14. To attain a perfect score on the quiz. (b) while building the carcass. (b) conveyor belts. (d) sulfur. the extreme flexibility of rubber results in certain differences. (c) during molding. or (d) 45. For each question. (c) thermoforming. since each correct answer is worth 1 point. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers. 76 .4 Which one of the following molding processes is the most important in the production of products made of conventional rubber? (a) compression molding. which one would rank as the single most important? (a) antioxidants. (b) carbon black.6 How many minutes are required to cure (vulcanize) a modern passenger car tire? (a) 5. Answer. (c) 25. Answer.

or (e) vulcanization. (c) 14. (b) and (e) 14. Answer. (b) compression molding.9 Screw threads are not normally molded into rubber parts: (a) true or (b) false.8 Which of the following are not normally used in the processing of thermoplastic elastomers (more than one)? (a) blow molding. 77 . (c) extrusion. (a) Screw threads are not normally designed into rubber parts because of the extreme flexibility of rubber. Answer. (d) injection molding.Answer.

Flakes are simply particles that possess very low width-to-thickness ratios. 15.4 SHAPING PROCESSES FOR POLYMER MATRIX COMPOSITES Review Questions What are the principal polymers used in fiber-reinforced polymers? Answer. A roving consists of untwisted filaments. Why do we say that particles and flakes are members of the same basic class of reinforcing material? Answer. What is the difference between a roving and a yarn? Answer.3 15. the layer of fiber reinforcement is placed into the mold dry. (2) high pressure is generally associated with the process.9 What is an autoclave? Answer. whereas in spray-up. An autoclave is an enclosed chamber which can supply heat and/or pressure at controlled levels. fillers. all rolled into a sheet of typical thickness = 0. 15. what is a mat? Answer. 15. and (3) the geometric shapes of the moldings are more complex in three dimensions. 78 . the fibers in each layer are randomly oriented. orientation of the fibers is controlled.6 15. while a yarn consists of twisted fibers. A mat is a felt consisting of randomly oriented fibers held loosely together in a binder.10 What are some of the distinguishing characteristics of the closed mold processes for PMCs? Answer.15 15. In the prepreg approach. Answer. Because in hand lay-up.5 What is sheet molding compound (SMC)? Answer. and the uncured resin is then applied to it to form the composite laminate.1 15. 15.250 inch. and chopped glass fibers. TMCs. and BMCs.7 How is a prepreg different from a molding compound? Answer. Characteristics include: (1) they use molds consisting of two halves that open and close during the molding cycle. layers of fiber preimpregnated with resin are laid into the mold. In wet lay-up. Why are laminated FRP products made by the spray-up method not as strong as similar products made by hand lay-up? Answer. Principal polymer matrices in FRPs are unsaturated polyesters and epoxies. In the context of fiber reinforcement.8 What is the difference between the wet lay-up approach and the prepreg approach in hand lay-up? Answer. 15. 15. Prepregs have continuous fibers rather than chopped fibers as in molding compounds.2 15.11 Identify some of the different forms of PMC molding compounds. SMC consists of TS polymer resin. PMC molding compounds include SMCs.

Pulforming is pultrusion with the added operation of a shape change in the length (straight length becomes curved) and cross-section (different cross-sections throughout the length). CNC allows independent control over mandrel rotation and carriage speed for greater flexibility in relative motions. and water jet cutting.13 Describe reinforced reaction injection molding (RRIM). each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point.17 How does pulforming differ from pultrusion? Answer. steel-rule blanking dies. or (c) thermosets. since each correct answer is worth 1 point. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers. To attain a perfect score on the quiz. RRIM involves the injection of resins that cure by chemical reaction together with reinforcing fibers into a closed mold. Typical products include: bicycle frames and space trusses. the materials are then pressed between heated molds to cure the resin and produce a fiber-reinforced molding. diamond cutting tools.18 With what kinds of products is tube rolling associated? Answer. Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 12 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct). 15. (b) thermoplastics. scissors.12 What is preform molding? Answer. Pultrusion is a process in which continuous fibers are dipped into a resin and pulled through a shaping die (somewhat like an extrusion die) where the resin cures. laser beam cutting. 15. Answer. Preform molding is a compression molding process in which a precut mat is placed into the lower half of a mold together with a charge of thermosetting resin.15.impregnated continuous fibers are wrapped around a rotating mandrel with the internal shape of the FRP product.19 How are FRPs cut? Answer. (c) 79 . For each question. Cured FRPs are cut by WC and HSS cutting tools. Filament winding is a process in which resin. and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point.14 What is filament winding? Answer. 15.15 What is the advantage of computer numerical control over mechanical control in filament winding? Answer.16 Describe the pultrusion process. Answer. the resin is cured and the mandrel is removed. 15.1 Which one of the following is the most common polymer type in fiber-reinforced polymer composites? (a) elastomers. 15. 15. The resulting part is a fiber-reinforced (usually glass fiber) plastic molding. 15. all correct answers must be given. and water jet cutting. 15. power shears. Answer. Uncured FRPs are cut by methods which include: knives. The resulting sections are similar to extruded parts except that they are reinforced with continuous fibers.

15.2

Most rubber products are properly classified into which of the following categories (more than one)? (a) elastomer reinforced with carbon black, (b) fiber- reinforced composite, (c) particle -reinforced composite, (d) polymer matrix composite, (e) pure elastomer, and (f) pure polymer. Answer. (a), (c), and (d). Hand lay-up is classified in which of the following general categories of PMC shaping processes (more than one)? (a) closed mold process, (b) compression molding, (c) contact molding, (d) filament winding, or (e) open mold process. Answer. (c) and (e). A positive mold with a smooth surface will produce a good finish on which surface of the laminated product in the hand lay-up method? (a) inside surface or (b) outside surface. Answer. (a) SMC molding is a form of which one of the following? (a) compression molding, (b) contact molding, (c) injection molding, (d) open mold processing, (e) pultrusion, or (f) transfer molding. Answer. (a) Filament winding involves the use of which one of the following fiber reinforcements? (a) continuous filaments, (b) fabrics, (c) mats, (d) prepregs, (e) short fibers, or (f) woven rovings. Answer. (a) In filament winding, when the continuous filament is wound around the cylindrical mandrel at a helix angle close to 90°, it is called which of the following (one best answer)? (a) bi-axial winding, (b) helical winding, (c) hoop winding, (d) perpendicular winding, (e) polar winding, or (f) radial winding. Answer. (c) Pultrusion is most similar to which one of the following plastic shaping processes? (a) blow-molding, (b) extrusion, (c) injection molding, or (d) thermoforming. Answer. (b) Water jet cutting is one of several ways of cutting or trimming uncured or cured FRPs; in the case of cured FRPs, the process is noted for its reduction of dust and noise: (a) true or (b) false. Answer. (a)

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16.1

POWDER METALLURGY

Review Questions

Name some of the reasons for the commercial importance of powder metallurgy technology. Answer. PM is important because: (1) parts can be made to net or near net shape, (2) parts can be made with a controlled level of porosity, (3) certain metals difficult to process by other methods can be processed by PM, (4) PM allows the formulation of unusual alloys not easily obtained by traditional alloying methods. 16.2 What are some of the disadvantages of PM methods? Answer. Disadvantages include: (1) high tooling costs, (2) metal powders are expensive, (3) difficulties in storing and handling, (4) certain limitations on part geometry imposed by the uniaxial press methods, and (5) variations in density in a PM component can be troublesome. 16.3 16.4 In the screening of powders for sizing, what is meant by the term mesh count? Answer. The mesh count of the screen is the number of openings per linear inch. What is the difference between open pores and closed pores in a metallic powders? Answer. Open pores are air spaces between particles, while closed pores are voids internal to a particle. 16.5 What is meant by the term aspect ratio for a metallic particle? Answer. The aspect ratio of a particle is ratio of the maximum dimension to the minimum dimension of the given particle. 16.6 How would one measure the angle of repose for a given amount of metallic powder? Answer. One measure would be to let the powders flow through a small funnel and measure the angle taken by the resulting pile of powders relative to the horizontal. 16.7 Define bulk density and true density for metallic powders. Answer. Bulk density refers to the weight per volume of the powders in the loose state, while true density is the weight per volume of the true volume of metal in the powders (the volume that would result if the powders were melted). 16.8 What are the principal methods used to produce metallic powders? Answer. The methods are: (1) atomization - the conversion of molten metal into droplets which solidify into powders; (2) chemical reduction - reducing metallic oxides by use of reducing agents which combine with the oxygen to free the metals in the form of powders; and (3) electrolysis use of an electrolytic cell to deposit particles of the metal onto the cathode in the cell. 16.9 What are the three basic steps in the conventional powder metallurgy shaping process? Answer. The steps are: (1) blending and/or mixing, (2) pressing, and (3) sintering. 16.10 What is the technical difference between mixing and blending in powder metallurgy? Answer. Mixing refers to the combining of metal powders of different chemistries, while blending means combining particles of the same chemistry but different sizes.

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16.11 What are some of the ingredients usually added to the metallic powders during blending and/or mixing? Answer. The additives are: (1) lubricants, (2) binders, and (3) deflocculants. 16.12 What is meant by the term green compact? Answer. The green compact is the pressed but not yet sintered PM part. 16.13 Describe what happens to the individual particles during compaction. Answer. Starting with the initial powder arrangement, the particles are first repacked into a more efficient arrangement, followed by deformation of the particles as pressure is increased. 16.14 Which of the following most closely typifies the sintering temperatures in PM? (a) 0.5 Tm, (b) 0.8 Tm, (c) Tm. Answer. (b) 16.15 What are the three steps in the sintering cycle in PM? Answer. The three steps in the cycle are: (1) preheat, in which lubricants and binders are burned off, (2) sintering, and (3) cool down. 16.16 What are some of the reasons why a controlled furnace is desirable in sintering? Answer. Some of the purposes of a controlled atmosphere furnace are: (1) oxidation protection, (2) provide a reducing atmosphere to remove existing oxides, (3) provide a carburizing atmosphere, and (4) remove lubricants and binders from pressing. 16.17 What are the advantages of infiltration in PM? Answer. Advantages of infiltration are: resulting structure is nonporous structure, improved toughness and strength. 16.18 What is the difference between powder injection molding and metal injection molding? Answer. Metal injection molding is a subset of powder injection molding, in which the powders are metallic. The more general term includes powders of ceramic. 16.19 How is isostatic pressing distinguished from conventional pressing and sintering in PM? Answer. Isostatic pressing applies hydrostatic pressure to all sides of the mold, whereas conventional pressing is uniaxial. 16.20 Describe liquid phase sintering. Answer. Liquid phase sintering occurs when two metals of different melting temperatures are sintered at a temperature between their melting points. Accordingly, one metal melts, thoroughly wetting the solid particles and creating a strong bonding between the metals upon solidification. 16.21 What are the two basic classes of metal powders as far as chemistry is concerned? Answer. The two classes are: (1) elemental powders - powders of pure metal such as iron or copper, and (2) prealloyed powders - powders of alloys such as stainless steel or brass. 16.22 Why is PM technology so well suited to the production of gears and bearings? Answer. The reasons are: (1) the geometries of these parts lend themselves to PM pressing, and (2) the porosity allows impregnation of the PM parts with lubricants.

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**Multiple Choice Quiz
**

There are a total of 18 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct). To attain a perfect score on the quiz, all correct answers must be given, since each correct answer is worth 1 point. For each question, each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point, and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers. 16.1 The particle size that can pass through a screen is obtained by taking the reciprocal of the mesh count of the screen. (a) true, or (b) false. Answer. (b) The given description neglects consideration of the screen wire thickness. 16.2 Identify which of the phrases make the following statement correct: For a given weight of metallic powders, the total surface area of the powders is increased by (more than one): (a) larger particle size, (b) smaller particle size, (c) higher shape factor, (d) smaller shape factor. Answer. (b) and (c) 16.3 16.4 As particle size increases, interparticle friction (a) increases, or (b) decreases. Answer. (b) Which of the following powder shapes would tend to have the lowest interparticle friction? (a) acicular, (b) cubic, (c) flakey, (d) spherical, and (e) rounded. Answer. (d) 16.5 Which of the following statements is correct in the context of metallic powders (more than one)? (a) porosity + packing factor = 1.0, (b) packing factor = 1/porosity, (c) packing factor = 1.0 porosity, (d) packing factor = - porosity, (e) packing factor = bulk density/true density. Answer. (a), (c), (e) 16.6 Repressing refers to a pressworking operation used to compress an unsintered part in a closed die to achieve sizing and better surface finish. (a) true or (b) false. Answer. (b) The repressed part has been sintered, not unsintered. 16.7 Impregnation refers to which of the following (more than one)? (a) soaking oil by capillary action into the pores of a PM part, (b) putting polymers into the pores of a PM part, or (c) filling the pores of the PM part with a molten metal. Answer. (a), (b) 16.8 In cold isostatic pressing, the mold is most typically made of which one of the following? (a) rubber, (b) sheetmetal, (c) tool steel, (d) textile, or (e) thermosetting polymer. Answer. (a) 16.9 Which of the following processes combines pressing and sintering of the metal powders (more than one)? (a) metal injection molding, (b) hot pressing, (c) spark sintering, and (d) hot isostatic pressing. Answer. (b), (c), and (d) 16.10 Which of the following design features would be difficult or impossible to achieve by conventional pressing and sintering (more than one)? (a) side holes, (b) threaded holes, (c) outside rounded corners, (d) vertical stepped holes, or (e) vertical wall thickness of 1/8 inch (3 mm).

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Answer. (a), (b), (c)

Problems

Characterization of Engineering Powders 16.1 A screen with 325 mesh count has wires with a diameter of 0.001377 in. Using Eq. (16.1), determine: (a) the maximum particle size that will pass through the wire mesh, and (b) the proportion of open space in the screen. Solution: (a) By Eq. (16.1), particle size PS = 1/MC - tw = 1/325 - 0.001377 = 0.003077 - 0.001377 = 0.00170 in. (b) There are 325 x 325 = 105,625 openings in one square inch of the mesh. By inference from part (a), each opening is 0.00170 inch on a side, thus each opening is (0.0017) 2 = 0.000002889 in2. The total open area in one square inch of mesh = 105,625(0.000002889 in 2) = 0.30523 in 2. This is total open space. Therefore, the percent open space in one square inch of mesh = 30.523%. 16.2 A screen with 10 mesh count has wires with a diameter of 0.0213 in. Using Eq. (16.1), determine: (a) the maximum particle size that will pass through the wire mesh, and (b) the proportion of open space in the screen. Solution: (a) By Eq. (16.1), particle size PS = 1/MC - tw = 1/10 - 0.0213 = 0.0787 in. (b) There are 10 x 10 = 100 openings in one square inch of the mesh. By inference from part (a), each opening is 0.0787 inch on a side, thus each opening is (0.0787) 2 = 0.00619 in2. The total open area in one square inch of mesh = 100(0.00619 in 2) = 0.619 in 2. This is total open space. Therefore, the percent open space in one square inch of mesh = 61.9%. 16.3 What is the aspect ratio of a cubic particle shape. Solution: The aspect ratio is the ratio of the maximum dimension to the minimum dimension of the particle shape. The minimum dimension is the edge of any face of the cube; call it L. The maximum dimension is the diagonal of the cube, which is given by (L2 + L2 + L2)0.5 = (3 L2)0.5 = (3) 0.5 L = 1.732 L. Thus, the aspect ratio = 1.732:1. 16.4 Determine the shape factor for metallic particles of the following ideal shapes: (a) sphere, (b) cubic, (c) cylindrical with length-to-diameter ratio of 1:1, (d) cylindrical with length-to-diameter ratio of 2:1, and (e) a disk-shaped flake whose thickness-to-diameter ratio is 1:10. Solution: (a) Sphere: Ks = 6.0 as shown in the text, Eq. (16.6). (b) Cube: Let L = edge of one face. For a cube, A = 6L2 and V = L3. Find diameter D of a sphere of equivalent volume. V = πD3/6 = L3 D3 = 6L3/π = 1.90986 L3 D = (1.90986 L3)0.333 = 1.2407 L Ks = A D/V = (6L2)(1.2407 L)/L3 = 7.444 (c) Cylinder with L/D = 1.0. For this cylinder shape, L = D. Thus, A = 2πD2/4 + πDL = .5πL2 + πL2 = 1.5πL2, and V = (πD2/4)L = 0.25πL3. Find diameter D of a sphere of equivalent volume. V = πD3/6 = 0.25πL3 D3 = 6(0.25πL3)/ π = 1.5L3 D = (1.5 L3)0.333 = 1.1447 L Ks = A D/V = (1.5πL2)(1.1447 L)/0.25πL3 = 6.868

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For this shape.18 x 10-9 in3/particle Weight per particle W = ρV = 0. 0. and V = (πD2/4)L = 0.001 in.5236 x 10-9 in3) = 0. the sizes vary.5/(0. = 0.375L3 D = (0.5 lb = 0.333 = 5.19 x 10-9) = 1.19 x 10-9 lb/particle Number of particles in 2 lb = 2.75 16.0625πL3 = 7.5 A pile of iron powder weighs 2 lb. (b) If the packing factor = 0. (a) Determine the total surface area of all the particles in the pile.1487 x 10-9) = 3. and 25% are 0. Solution: (a) For a spherical particle of D = 0.2102 x 109)(50.(d) Cylinder with L/D = 2. what is the total surface area of all the particles in the pile.00000000418 = 4.0. A = 2πD2/4 + πDL = 0.2102 x 109 A = πD2 = π(0.375 L3)0.284 lb/in3.51 x 10-9 in3) = 9.56 x 10-6 in2 Total surface area = (1. The particles are spherical in shape and all have the same diameter of 0.5 that the average particle diameter = 0.0/0.5. V = πD3/6 = π(0..002) 3/6 = 0.001 in.681 x 109)(12.001 in..6 = 11.6 = 11.125πL2 + 0.0/(9. Thus. determine the volume taken by the pile. V = πD3/6 = π(0. Thus.6 Solve Problem 16.721 L Ks = A D/V = (0.00005027 in2 = 50.25π(0.625πL2)(0.004) 3/6 = 0.004) 2 = 0.0625πL3 Find diameter D of a sphere of equivalent volume. Note: the density of iron = 0.5236 x 10-9 in3/particle Weight per particle W = ρV = 0. Solution: For a spherical particle of D = 0.002 in.56 x 10-6) = 21.284(4.721 L)/0. constitute 25% of total 2 lb. forming a statistical distribution as follows: 25% of the particles by weight are 0.6. Assume the same packing factor. the total volume taken up by the pile = (2. 50% are 0. V = πD3/6 = 0.116 x 10 3 in2 (b) With a packing factor of 0.5L = D.362 x 109 85 .1487 x 10-9 lb/particle Particles of size D = 0.001) 3/6 = 0.313 L Ks = A D/V = (60πL2)(5.284)/0.5 lb Number of particles in 0.7 Suppose in Problem 16.5π(0.003 in. 10L = D. For this cylinder shape. V = πD3/6 = 25πL3 D3 = 6(25πL3)/ π = 150L3 D = (150 L3)0.74 in3 16.25π(10L)2 L = 25πL3 Find diameter D of a sphere of equivalent volume.6.0625πL3 D3 = 6(0. and V = (πD2/4)L = 0.5π(10L)2 + π(10L)L = 50πL2 + 10πL2 = 60πL2.681 x 109 A = πD2 = π(0.74 in3 16.565 x 10 3 in2 (b) With a packing factor of 0. V = πD3/6 = π(0.625πL2.516 x 10-9) = 0. however..002 in. the total volume taken up by the pile = (2. A = 2πD2/4 + πDL = .313 L)/25πL3 = 12.6.002) 2 = 0. except that the diameter of the particles is 0.51 x 10-9 in3/particle Weight per particle W = ρV = 0.004 in.284(0.00001256 in2 = 12. Given this distribution.0/0.0/(1. Solution: (a) For a spherical particle of D = 0.002 in.5πL2 = 0.211 (e) Disk with L/D = 0.5L)2 L = 0.284(33.10.0625πL3)/ π = 0.002 in.5L)L = 0.333 = 0.18 x 10-9 in3) = 1.516 x 10-9 lb/particle Number of particles in 2 lb = 2.5L)2 + π(0.27 x 10-6 in2 Total surface area = (0.00000003351 = 33.004 in.27 x 10-6) = 10.284)/0.

015 x 10-9 lb/particle Particles of size D = 0.003 in.563 x 103 + 10.567 x 109)( 50.1 x 10-3)2 = 3.18 x 10-9 in3) = 1. all of which are perfectly spherical and having the same exact diameter.563 x 103 + 3.5236 x 10-12 m3) = 5.000 .002) 2 = 12.1 x 10-3 m is V = πD3/6 = π(0.5236 x 10-12 m3/particle Number of particles in 1 m3 = 1.002 in.004) 2 = 50.002 in.56 x 10-6 in2 Total surface area of particles of D = 0.1 x 10-3 m is A = πD2 = π(0. constitute 25% of total 2 lb.563 x 103 in2 For a spherical particle of D = 0.506 x 103 = 24.18 x 10-9 in3/particle Weight per particle W = ρV = 0. constitute 50% of total 2 lb.8(b).003 in.19 x 10-9 lb/particle Particles of size D = 0. V = π(0. = (0.1 x 10-3)3/6 = 0. V = π(0. What is the percentage increase in total surface area if the diameter of each particle is 0.5/(4.1 mm = 0.000 in2 Percent increase = 100(2.592. similar to the atomic structure of FCC metals.51 x 10-9 = 51.632 x 10 3 in2.8406 x 109)(12.274 x 10-6) = 3. = (3. = 0.9 A solid cube of aluminum with each side = 1.265 x 10-6 in3) = 2.51 x 10-9 in3/particle Number of particles in 1 ft3 = 1728/33.284(14.6 = 59.566 x 10-6) = 10.592 x 103 = 2.5 lb Number of particles in 0.19 x 10-9) = 0.9958 x 104 = 59. is V = πD3/6 = π(0.10 Given a large volume of metallic powders.137 x 10-9 in3) = 4.003) 3/6 = 14.004) 3/6 = 33.8 A solid cube of copper with each side = 1.274 x 10-6 in2 Total surface area of particles of D = 0.506 x 103 in2 Total surface area of all particles = 10.0 lb Number of particles in 1 lb = 1.0 ft is converted into metallic powders of spherical shape by gas atomization.137 x 10-9 in3/particle Weight per particle W = ρV = 0.5 lb = 0. what is the maximum possible packing factor that the powders can take? Solution: The maximum packing factor is achieved when the spherical particles are arranged as a face-centered cubic unit cell.001 in. = 1.A = πD2 = π(0.002 in.362 x 109)(3. see Figure 2.563 x 103 in2 For a spherical particle of D = 0.0/(1.002) 3/6 = 4. 16.001) 2 = 3. = (0.91 x 1012)( 0.864)/864 = 299.142 x 10-8 m3/particle Volume of a sphere of D = 0.004 in (assume that all particles are the same size)? Solution: Area of initial cube A = 6(1 ft)2 = 6 ft2 = 864 in2 Volume of cube V = (1 ft)3 = 1728 in3 Surface area of a spherical particle of D = 0. is A = πD2 = π(0.015 x 10-9) = 0.958 .284(4..91 x 1012 Total surface area = (1.8406 x 109 A = πD2 = π(0.004 in.003) 2 = 28.958 m2 Added surface area = 59..142 x 10-6) = 10.003 in.265 x 10-6 in3/particle Volume of a spherical particle of D = 0.1 x 10-3 m Surface area of a sphere of D = 0.0 m is converted into metallic powders of spherical shape by gas atomization.567 x 109 Total surface area = (51.004 in. How much total surface area is added by the process if the diameter of each particle is 100 microns (assume that all particles are the same size)? Solution: Area of starting cube A = 6(1 m) 2 = 6 m2 Volume of starting cube V = (1 m) 3 = 1 m3 D = 100 µm = 0.142 x 10-6 in2/particle Total surface area of particles of D = 0.0/0.5236 x 10-12 = 1. The 86 .952 m2 16.592.900% 16.124 x 109 A = πD2 = π(0.124 x 109)(28.

5372 + 4.5) + 0. Let true specific volume = 1.unit cell of the FCC structure contains 8 spheres at the corners of the cube and 6 spheres on each face.5) + 8(.7). Dimensions are inches. Given that these are the only factors that affect the structure of the finished part. Determine: (a) the most appropriate pressing direction.4 mm2 F = Appc = 1140. the diagonal of the cube face = 2D.82 .90) = 1. Solution: Packing factor = bulk density / true density Density = (specific volume)-1 Packing factor = true specific volume / bulk specific volume Pressing reduces bulk specific volume to 2/3 = 0. the metallic powder fed into the open die has a packing factor of 0.0. using a compacting pressure of 207 MPa.82 .Di2) = 0.667 Sintering further reduces the bulk specific volume to 0. Volume of 4 spheres = 4πD3/6 = 2.1.13 is to be pressed of iron powders using a compaction pressure of 75.5.8284 = 0. The pressing operation reduces the powder to 2/3 of its starting volume.062 kN 16.25π(2.0.414D)3 = 2. What is the required press tonnage to perform this operation? Solution: Projected area of part Ap = 0. The packing factor = 2.0944 D3 where D = diameter of a sphere.Di2) = 0.25π(Do2 . The ratio of (1) over (2) is the packing factor.25π(Do2 .167 16. shrinkage amounts to 10% on a volume basis. and (2) finding the volume of the unit cell cube. (b) the required press tonnage to perform this operation. (2) Volume of the cube of one unit cell. (18.5) = 0. Consider that the diagonal of any face of the unit cell contains one full diameter (the sphere in the center of the cube face) and two half diameters (the spheres at the corners of the face). The volume of the unit cell is therefore (1. (1) Volume of whole and/or partial spheres contained in the unit cell.833 By Eq.8284 D3.0/1.000) = 416. bulk specific volume = 2.12 A bearing of simple geometry is to be pressed out of bronze powders.0944/2.25 .0 x . The equivalent number of whole spheres = 6(.8752) = 5.25π(2.82 .52)(1.0/(2.833 = 0. porosity = 1 . In the subsequent sintering operation. Packing factor after pressing and sintering = 1.0. and the length of the bearing = 25 mm.05% Compaction and Design Considerations 16.90 of value after pressing.556 in 2 F = Appc = 5.25π(3. Accordingly.0.25π(2.414D.071 in3 87 . Thus. the inside diameter = 22 mm. the face is a square with each edge = D√2 = 1. and (c) the final weight of the part if the porosity is 10%.7405 = 74.0 Thus for a packing factor of 0.0.11 In a certain pressing operation. Our approach to determine the packing factor will consist of: (1) finding the volume of the spheres and portions thereof that are contained in the cell. Solution: (a) Most appropriate pressing direction is parallel to the part axis.125) = 4 spheres. Assume shrinkage during sintering can be neglected. (c) V = 0. The unit cell contains 6 half spheres in the faces of the cube and 8 one-eighth spheres in corners. (b) Press tonnage F = Appc Projected area of part Ap = 0.5. The outside diameter = 44 mm.667 x .13 The part shown in Figure P16.25π(442 .556(75.2 = 0.8752)(0.1925) = 6.4(207) = 236.715 lb = 208 tons. determine its final porosity.222) = 1140.000 lb/in2.

4 or 5 levels of press control due to multiple steps in part design.284)(0. indicate which PM class the parts belong to. one direction part is relatively thin. density of iron ρ = 0. 88 .14 For each of the four part drawings in Figure P16. 2 directions of pressing.1. Solution: (a) Class II. whether the part must be pressed from one or two directions.14. (d) Class IV. Dimensions are mm. (c) Class IV. (b) Class I. 3 levels of press control required. and how many levels of press control will be required.071(0.From Table 4.90) = 1. one level of press control. 16.55 lb. At 10% porosity. 2 directions of pressing. 2 directions because of axial thickness. part weight W = 6.284 lb/in3. one level of press control.

and carbides.1 PROCESSING OF CERAMICS AND CERMETS Review Questions What is the difference between the traditional ceramics and the new ceramics. Kiln. as far as raw materials are concerned? Answer. the clay has a typical water content of 10% to 15%. The traditional ceramics are based on hydrous aluminum silicates (clay). Grinding is a secondary process which further reduces the particle size to fine powder. (2) shaping. What is the technical difference between crushing and grinding in the preparation of traditional ceramic raw materials? Answer. Answer. and so this imposes certain limitations on part geometry in dry pressing. and (4) extrusion.3 List the basic steps in the traditional ceramics processing sequence.9 What is the name given to the furnace used to fire ceramic ware? Answer. and (4) firing. Answer.17 17. Jiggering is a clay forming process that uses a convex mold on a potters wheel.4 Describe the slip casting process in traditional ceramics processing.8 What happens to a ceramic material when it is sintered? Answer.2 17. Answer. molding.7 What is the difference between dry pressing and semi-dry pressing of traditional ceramics parts? Answer. For dry pressing.6 What is the process of jiggering? Answer. Sintering of green ceramics (or powdered metals) causes bonding between the ceramic grains. Crushing is performed to reduce large lumps of mineral to smaller size. the water content is usually less than 5%. nitrides. 17. in which a clay slug is pressed in a mold.10 What is glazing in traditional ceramics processing? 89 . 17. For semi. It is suited to the manufacture of flatware. (3) plastic pressing. In slip casting a slurry of clay is poured into a plaster of Paris mold. The remaining slurry is usually poured out to leave a hollow part.5 List and briefly describe some of the plastic forming methods used to shape traditional ceramics products. whereupon water is absorbed from the slurry into the plaster to form a clay layer against the mold wall. (2) jiggering. Dry clay has virtually no plasticity. (3) drying. 17. The plastic forming methods include: (1) hand modeling. 17. and throwing. The difference is in the starting clay. 17.dry pressing. The sequence is: (1) preparation of raw materials. 17. which is a mechanized extension of hand throwing used to manufacture bowls and plates. whereas the new ceramics are based on man-made simpler compounds such as oxides. 17. which is accompanied by densification and reduction of porosity. The clay is first pressed into rough shape and then rotated and formed with a jigger tool to final shape. in which the clay is compressed through a die opening to make long sections of uniform cross-sectional shape. 17.

usually consisting of ceramic oxides. 90 . Thus does liquid phase sintering occur in the WC-Co system. so that the resulting ceramic is in the form of a thin green sheet which is dried and reeled onto a spool for subsequent shaping and sintering. or (d) silicon dioxide.2 Which one of the following compounds becomes a plastic and formable material when mixed with suitable proportions of water? (a) aluminum oxide. (5) take into account shrinkage. (c) hydrous aluminum silicate. (6) no screw threads. usually not required in processing of new ceramics? Answer.15 Liquid phase sintering is used for WC-Co compacts. Glazing refers to the process of putting a ceramic coating on the surface of the ceramic piece. (b) hydrogen oxide. (4) use large radii on inside and outside corners. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers. is referred to as a glaze.11 Why is the drying step. 17. 17. Drying is only needed when the green piece contains water. so important in the processing of traditional ceramics. (b) hammer mill. the water is then removed from the droplets in a vacuum chamber. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point. Which one of the pieces listed is used for grinding? (a) ball mill. a ceramic slurry is flowed onto a moving film which flows under a wiper blade. 17. For each question. and the freeze-dried salt is decomposed by heating to form the ceramic powders. WC gradually dissolves in the cobalt. reducing its melting point to the sintering temperature. so avoid impact loading. 17. (a) 17. even though the sintering temperatures are below the melting points of either WC or Co.14 Describe the doctor-blade process. (2) ceramics are brittle. 17. 17. all correct answers must be given. Answer. Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 15 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct).12 Why is raw material preparation more important in the processing of new ceramics than for traditional ceramics? Answer. (c) jaw crusher. How is this possible? Answer. (3) part geometries should be simple. In freeze drying. The melting point of cobalt is reduced when WC is dissolved in it. or (d) roll crusher.16 What are some design recommendations for ceramic parts? Answer.Answer. 17. and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point. Because water is usually not one of the ingredients in the new ceramics during forming. Answer. since each correct answer is worth 1 point. In the doctor-blade process.13 What is the freeze drying process used to make certain new ceramic powders? Answer.1 The following equipment is used for crushing and grinding of minerals in the preparation of traditional ceramics raw materials. To attain a perfect score on the quiz. salts are dissolved in water and sprayed into small droplets which are immediately frozen. The guidelines include: (1) subject ceramic parts to compressive. not tensile loads. The coating. Because the requirements on the strength of the finished product are usually more demanding for new ceramics. At the sintering temperatures used for WC-Co.

(c) increase dimensional accuracy. (c) jiggering. (a). (d) injection molding. (b) 17. Answer. (b) rounded inside corners. (b) freeze drying. or (b) false. and (e) 91 . (c). (c) composite. (c) 17. or (b) false.9 Which one of the following terms best describes what a cemented carbide is? (a) ceramic.7 Which one of the following processes for the new ceramic materials accomplishes shaping and sintering simultaneously? (a) doctor-blade process.Answer. (c) 17. (a) 17. (c) hot pressing. (b) 17.3 At which one of the following water contents does clay become a suitably plastic material for the traditional ceramics plastic forming processes? (a) 5%.10 Which of the following geometric features should be avoided if possible in the design of structural components made of new ceramics (more than one)? (a) complicated shapes. (d). Answer. Answer. (a) and (e) 17. Answer. strength increases with grain size: (a) true. Answer. (b) jangling. or (e) isostatic pressing.6 In the final product made of a polycrystalline new ceramic material. (b) cermet.8 Which of the following are not the purposes of finishing operations used for parts made of the new ceramics (more than one)? (a) apply a surface coating. (b) and (c) 17.5 The term green piece in ceramics refers to a part that has been shaped but not yet fired: (a) true. (d) thin sections. (b) 10%. (b) improve surface finish. or (e) threads. Answer. Answer. or (e) work harden the surface. or (d) metal.4 Which of the following processes are not plastic forming methods used in the shaping of traditional ceramics (more than one)? (a) extrusion. Answer. (c) sharp edges. or (e) spinning. (d) remove material. or (d) 40%. (d) jolleying. (c) 17. (c) 20%.

8 What is isothermal forming? Answer. 18. and (3) wearing of the tools. causing residual stresses and product defects.18 18. An isothermal forming operation is performed in such a way as to eliminate surface cooling and thermal gradients in the workpart. Deep drawing is a sheet metal forming process used to fabricate cup-shaped parts. (3) increased strength due to work hardening. (18.11 What is sticking friction in metalworking? Answer. the shape changes are significant. Reasons why friction is undesirable in metal forming: (1) inhibits metal flow during deformation. Answer.10 Why is friction generally undesirable in metal forming operations? Answer. Describe it. The flow curve is defined in Eq.6 18. 18. 18. Increasing strain rate tends to increase the resistance to deformation.1) as Yf = Kεn. (2) better surface finish.4 Why is the term pressworking often used for sheet metal processes? Answer. Answer. (2) increases forces and power required.9 Describe the effect of strain rate in metal forming. Answer. and the workparts have a low area-to-volume ratio. 18. 18.5 18. How does increasing temperature affect the parameters in the flow curve equation? Answer.1 FUNDAMENTALS OF METAL FORMING Review Questions What are the characteristics that distinguish bulk deformation processes from sheet metal processes? Answer. 18. Indicate some of the advantages of cold working relative to warm and hot working. bar drawing is a bulk deformation process used to reduce the diameter of a cylindrical workpart. 18. Sticking friction is when the work surface adheres to the surface of the tool rather than slides against it. (4) possible directional properties due to grain flow. Because these operations are generally performed on presses.7 Indicate the mathematical equation for the flow curve. and (5) no heating of work required. What is the difference between deep drawing and bar drawing? Answer. the area-to-volume ratio is high. 92 . Extrusion is a compression process in which the work material is forced to flow through a die orifice. Answer.3 18. In sheet metal processes. thereby forcing its cross-section to assume the profile of the orifice. The tendency is especially prominent in hot forming operations. Increasing temperature decreases both K and n in the flow curve equation. In bulk deformation. Advantages of cold working are: (1) better accuracy.2 Extrusion is a fundamental shaping process. This is accomplished by preheating the forming tools. it occurs when the friction stress is greater than the shear flow stress of the metal.

7 Increasing strain rate tends to have which one of the following effects on flow stress during hot forming of metal? (a) decreases flow stress. Answer. Answer.6Tm. since each correct answer is worth 1 point. and (e). (c) 18. 18. (c) 1/n.3 The flow curve expresses the behavior of a metal in which of the following regions of the stress-strain curve? (a) elastic region. where n is the strain hardening exponent. (c).8 The coefficient of friction between the part and the tool in cold working tends to be which of the following relative to its value in hot working? (a) higher. (e). (b) has no effect. For each question. or (b) plastic region. (c) isotropic mechanical properties. or (d) 0. Answer. all correct answers must be given. (b) deep drawing.4Tm. 18. To attain a perfect score on the quiz. (c). or (b) low volume-to-area ratio.73. or (c) no effect.20 for a certain metal. Answer.5 Hot working of metals refers to which one of the following temperature regions relative to the melting point of the given metal on an absolute temperature scale? (a) room temperature. and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point. (b) lower. or (d) 1/(1+n). each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point. (b) increased strength properties. 18. Answer.4 The average flow stress is the flow stress multiplied by which of the following factors? (a) n. (b) (1+n). (b). (d) 18. (d) 18. or (c) increases flow stress. (d). During a forming operation. (b) 18.2Tm. (b) 0. Determine the flow stress at this strain and the average flow stress that the metal experienced during the operation. (b) 18. the final true strain that the metal experiences = 0. (c) 0. and (e) rolling. (c) extrusion.2 Which of the following is typical of the work geometry in sheet metal processes? (a) high volume-to-area ratio. 93 . (a). and (f) more significant shape changes are possible. Problems Flow Curve in Forming 18. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers. Answer.6 Which of the following are advantages and characteristics of hot working relative to cold working (more than one)? (a) fracture of workpart less likely. and (f). (d) less overall energy required. Answer. (d) forging.Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 13 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct).1 K = 600 MPa and n = 0. Answer. (e) lower deformation forces required.1 Which of the following are bulk deformation processes (more than one)? (a) bending.

30 = 514.0) .30 = 669. Solution: Yf = K = 700 = Kε n = 700ε . A cylindrical specimen of the metal with starting diameter = 2.4 MPa. Determine the flow stress at the new length and the average flow stress that the metal has been subjected to during the deformation. Y = 700(1.75 Kε n 1/(1+n) = 0.000(0.65 = 0.75n n = 0. Average flow stress Y = 35.309 lb/in2.0 in is stretched to a length = 3.69315 Flow stress Yf = 40.1)]: Yf = Kε n Y over the range ε = 0 to ε = ε is given by ∫Kε n dε = K ∫ε n dε = Kε n+1/ε(n+1) = Kε n /(n+1) ε f 18.30/1.73) 0.2 A metal has a flow curve with parameters: K = 850 MPa and strain hardening exponent n = 0.19/1. f 18.000 lb/in2 and n = 0.4 MPa.26 = 23.3 in.19 = 37. Eq.3 A particular metal has a flow curve with parameters: strength coefficient K = 35.26/1.7 Determine the value of the strain hardening exponent for a metal that will cause the average flow stress to be 3/4 of the final flow stress after deformation.30.5 Derive the equation for average flow stress.000 lb/in2 and strain hardening exponent n = 0.26.5 = -0.19 = 31. (18.5 in.2 = 469.3/2.9 MPa. Determine the flow stress at this new length and the average flow stress that the metal has been subjected to during deformation.6 For a certain metal.75n 0.75(1+n) = 0.451) 0. A tensile specimen of the metal with gage length = 2.000(0. Average flow stress Y = 600(0.75 1 = 0.0) = ln 1.451) 0. Determine the flow stress at this compressed length and the average flow stress that the metal has experienced during deformation.5 in and length = 3.2 = 563. Average flow stress Y = 850(0.240 lb/in2.501 Flow stress Yf = 35.000(0.0) = ln 0.19.75 Yf f Kε n/(1+n) = 0.501) 0.4 The strength coefficient and strain hardening exponent of a certain test metal are K = 40. Solution: Flow stress equation [Eq.206 lb/in2.0. f 18.2) in the text.451 Flow stress Yf = 850(0.25 = 0.2/1.73) 0.27/1.27 = 700/1. Determine the average flow stress that the metal experiences if it is subjected to a stress that is equal to its strength coefficient K.5/3.333 94 . K = 700 MPa and n = 0.69315) 0.5 MPa. f 18. Solution: ε = ln (1.000(0. Solution: Y = 0.75 + 0. A tensile specimen of the metal with gage length = 100 mm is stretched to a length = 157 mm.352 lb/in2.501) 0.0 in is compressed to a length of 1.69315) 0.Solution: Flow stress Yf = 600(0.26 = 29. Solution: ε = ln (3. (18. f 18.27 = 551.27 ε must be equal to 1.2 MPa f 18. Solution: ε = ln (157/100) = ln 1.57 = 0.27. Average flow stress Y = 40.

10 A specimen with 6.. During the deformation.7726 Af = Ao/1.18 = 0..500 s-1 18. If the average flow stress on the part is 20. strain rate = 0. Determine the flow stress if the strain rate is: (a) 0. strain rate = 1/7.000 = 35.12 A hot working operation is carried out at various speeds.20 = 0.000 = 0. strain rate = 0.000 ε .18.1333 sec-1 At L = 8.588 s-1 At L = 180 mm.526 s-1 At L = 200 mm.7726 = 0.5 = 0.0 in starting gage length is subjected to a tensile test in which the grips holding the end of the test specimen are moved with a relative velocity = 1.. It is subjected to a tensile test in which the grips holding the end of the test specimen are moved with a relative velocity = 0.22314/0. strain rate = 1/6.0 in.000/35.4 0.0 in. Solution: (a) strain rate = 200/100 = 2.8) = -0. the relative speed of the plattens compressing the part = 200 mm/s.564Ao Strain Rate 18.1/0.5 in.000 lb/in2 and n = 0.4/(1.0 = 0.922 s -1 18. strain rate = 0. strain rate = 0.1429 sec-1 At L = 7.15 = 0.4(20..4) 1.1/0..8 K = 35.555 s-1 At L = 190 mm. The strength constant C = 30.0 in/sec. strain rate = 1/6.5 = 0.1/0.16 = 0.1/0. Construct a plot of the strain rate as a function of length as the specimen is pulled to a length = 200 mm. (c) 100/sec.9 The gage length of a tensile test specimen = 150 mm.5724 Ao/Af = 1.55786 ε = 0.19 = 0.8 = ε .4 ln ε = ln (0.1 m/s. strain rate = 1/7.17 = 0.0 in.000 ε .01/sec (b) 1.11 A workpart with starting height h = 100 mm is compressed to a final height of 50 mm.625 s-1 At L = 170 mm. Construct a plot of the strain rate as a function of length as the specimen is pulled to a length = 8.1250 sec-1 18. (b) h = 75 mm.40 for a metal used in a forming operation in which the workpart is reduced in cross-sectional area by stretching.5724 ε = ln(Ao/Af) = 0.0 in. Solution: The following values are calculated for the plot: At L = 6.0/sec. 95 .667 s -1 (c) strain rate = 200/51 = 3. strain rate = 1/8. Solution: The following values are calculated for the plot: At L = 150 mm.0 = 0.000) = 35.4 28. Solution: Y = Kε n/(1+n) f 20.0 s -1 (b) strain rate = 200/75 = 2.1538 sec-1 At L = 7.000 lb/in2 and the strain-rate sensitivity exponent m = 0.0 = 0.000 lb/in 2.1/0. determine the amount of reduction in cross-sectional area experienced by the part. strain rate = 0.15. Determine the strain rate at (a) h = 100 mm.5 in. and (c) h = 51 mm.22314 ln ε = -0.1/0.667 s-1 At L = 160 mm. strain rate = 0.1667 sec-1 At L = 6.4 = -0.

858 lb/in2 18.207 = 300/3. (a) Determine C and m.601.m ln 12 = ln 300 .13 A tensile test is performed to determine the parameters C and m in Eq. the stress = 45.1973 (1) C = 23000/10 = 23000/1. 18. C = 95.601.15 = 15.000/23.000 = C(10) m and (2) 45.000 lb/in 2.9565 = (300/10) m = (30) m ln 1.0752 3.0) .15 = 59.4) for a certain metal.7038 – 5.14 A tensile test is carried out to determine the strength constant C and strain-rate sensitivity exponent m for a certain metal at 1000°F.4 C = 14.5215 – 2. and at a strain rate = 250/s.658 (2) C = 300/(250) .7038 – 5.000 lb/in2 (c) Yf = 30.5752 = 14.601.000 = 1. the strength constant C would decrease and the strain-rate sensitivity exponent m would increase.207 (1) C = 160/(12) .m ln 250 = ln C (1) and (2): ln 160 . the stress is measured at 160 MPa.Solution: (a) Yf = C(strain rate)m = 30.4 (2) C = 45000/3000.000 = C(300) m 45.6726 = 95.000 lb/in 2. At a strain rate = 10/sec.659 (b) If temperature were 600°C.1973 = 45000/3.1973 0.5215 m (5.0366 m = 0. (b) If the temperature were 900°F. (18.000(0.000(100) .4849)m = 5.000(1. (a) Determine C and m.9656 = m ln 30 0.1.4 (b) If temperature were decreased to 900°F. and at a strain rate = 300/sec. 96 .4012 m m = 0.01) .0819 = 14.67117 = 3. At a strain rate = 12/s. (b) If the temperature were 600°C. the stress = 300 MPa.m ln 12 = ln C (2) ln 300 = ln C + m ln 250 or ln 300 .4849 m = 5.0752 – 2. what changes would you expect in the values of C and m? Solution: (a) Two equations: (1) 23.036 lb/in2 (b) Yf = 30. the stress is measured at 23.1361 = 95. what changes would you expect in the values of C and m? Solution: (a) Two equations: (1) 160 = C(12) m and (2) 300 = C(250) m (1) ln 160 = ln C + m ln 12 or ln 160 . The temperature at which the test is performed = 500°C. the strength constant C would increase and the strainrate sensitivity exponent m would decrease.207 = 160.660 Averaging these values.m ln 250 5.6286 m = 0.15 = 30.

which apply a gradual pressure to the work.5 What is a reversing mill in rolling? Answer. Answer. structural shapes such as I-beams and channels. 19. The three basic types are: (1) open die forging. Reasons why the bulk deformation processes are important include: (1) they are capable of significant shape change when hot working is used.19 19. and (3) use smaller diameter rolls. By this classification. 19. Ways to reduce force in flat rolling include: (1) use hot rolling.10 What is isothermal forging? 97 . What are the two basic types of forging equipment? Answer. (2) reduce draft in each pass. and presses. 19. round bar and rod stock. 19.2 List some of the products produced on a rolling mill.1 BULK DEFORMATION PROCESSES IN METALWORKING Review Questions What are the reasons why the bulk deformation processes are important commercially and technologically? Answer.7 One way to classify forging operations is by the degree to which the work is constrained in the die. Rolled products include flat sheet and plate stock.3 Identify some of the ways in which force in flat rolling can be reduced. roll piercing. (2) they have a positive effect on part strength when cold working is used. which impact the workpart. A reversing mill is a two-high rolling mill in which the direction of rotation of the rolls can be reversed to allow the work to pass through from either side. rails. thread rolling. Answer. name the three basic types. A two-high rolling mill consists of two opposing rolls between which the work is compressed. The two types of forging machines are hammers. 19.6 Besides flat rolling and shape rolling. 19. identify some additional bulk forming processes that use rolls to effect the deformation. gear rolling. and (3) closed die forging.9 Why is flash desirable in impression die forging? Answer. 19. and (3) most of the processes produce little material waste. Answer. 19. Answer.4 What is a two-high rolling mill? Answer. some are net shape processes. Some other processes that use rolls are ring rolling.8 19. Because its presence constrains the metal in the die to fill the details of the die cavity. and roll forging. (2) impression die forging.

(f) tube sinking. (c) four-high mill. 19. (b) extrusion.1 The maximum possible draft in a rolling operation depends on which of the following parameters (more than one)? (a) coefficient of friction between roll and work. Products produced by continuous extrusion include: structural shapes (window frames. and (d). although tensile stresses are applied to the work. 19. (c) ring rolling. the work is squeezed through the die opening by compression the term indirect compression is sometimes used. Answer. (b) continuous rolling mill. 19. (d) roll forging.11 Distinguish between direct and indirect extrusion. and battery cases. or (g) upsetting. shower stalls. and (f) strength coefficient of the work metal.1. and rods of various cross-section. channels). 19. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point. 19. Bar and wire drawing (a) is the only tricky answer. Because if the drawing stress exceeded the yield strength. They are both examples of how compressive stresses applied to the outside surface of a solid cylindrical cross-section can create high tensile stresses in the interior of the cylinder.3 Production of pipes and tubes is associated with which of the following bulk deformation processes (more than one)? (a) extrusion. the metal on the exit side of the draw die would stretch rather than force metal to be drawn through the die opening. 98 . (a). (e) roll piercing. For each question.2 Which of the following rolling mill types are associated with relatively small diameter rolls in contact with the work (more than one)? (a) cluster mill. since each correct answer is worth 1 point. 19.Answer. and (f). or (e) three-high configuration. Products made by discrete extrusion include: toothpaste tubes. 19. (e). (c).3.12 Name some products that are produced by extrusion. (a). (a) and (b). Isothermal forging is a hot forging operation in which the die surfaces are heated to reduce heat transfer from the work into the tooling. (b) hobbing. Answer.4 Which of the four basic bulk deformation processes use compression to effect shape change (more than one)? (a) bar and wire drawing.13 What does the centerburst defect in extrusion have in common with the roll piercing process? Answer. aluminum beverage cans. See Article 19. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers. (b) roll diameter. (b). why must the drawing stress never exceed the yield strength of the work metal? Answer.14 In a wire drawing operation. tubes and pipes. and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point. 19. Answer. Answer. Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 22 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct). Answer. To attain a perfect score on the quiz. (d) reversing mill. Answer. (c) forging. (c) roll velocity. and (d) rolling. (a) and (c). all correct answers must be given. (d) stock thickness. (e) strain.

(b). and (f). (b) extrusion.02 wo 40(wo)(16) = 30(1. or (d) 2. Answer. towovo = tfwfvf wf = 1. Bar stock is rolled.63.02w o)vf vf = 40(wo)(16)/ 30(1.02w o) = 640/30.5 Flash in impression die forging serves no useful purpose and is undesirable because it must be trimmed from the part after forming: (a) true or (b) false? Answer.19.5 rev/min.0 ft long. µ2 = 10/300 = 0. and rotational speed = 18. and (d). (b).915 .8 19. Roll radius = 300 mm. (d) roll forging. (b) fullering. (c) forging. Entrance speed = 16 m/min.0 in wide and 12.tf = 40 . (e) thread rolling. (c) impact extrusion.9 19. (b) exit velocity under the assumption that the plate widens by 2% during the operation. and (c) forward slip. no friction. 19. Answer.0333) 0. 19. The production of tubing is possible in indirect extrusion but not in direct extrusion: (a) true or (b) false? Answer. under the assumptions of a perfectly plastic metal.1 A 40 mm thick plate is to be reduced to 30 mm in one pass in a rolling operation.1826 (b) Plate widens by 2%. drawn into wire stock. Tube and pipe cross-sections can be produced by either direct or indirect extrusion.vr)/vr = (20.72.0 in thick slab is 10. is which of the following (one answer)? (a) zero. and (d) rolling. It is expected 99 . (b) Which of the following bulk deformation processes are involved in the production of nails for lumber construction (more than one)? (a) bar and wire drawing. (c).7 19.10 Johnson's formula is associated with which of the four bulk deformation processes (one answer)? (a) bar and wire drawing.0. and no redundant work. Solution: (a) Maximum draft dmax = µ2 R Given that d = to . Answer. (c) forging. and upset forged to form the nail head.18.5 = 0.0333 µ = (0. (b).6 = 20. and (f) upsetting.5)/18.13 19. Each step will reduce the slab to 75% of its previous thickness. Flash causes build-up of pressure inside the die which causes the work metal to fill the cavity. the maximum reduction possible in a wire drawing operation.2 A 2. (b) Problems Rolling 19. (a).6 Which of the following are classified as forging operations (more than one)? (a) coining. (d). Answer. Determine: (a) the minimum required coefficient of friction that would make this rolling operation possible. Theoretically. (a). (b) 0. (b) extrusion.915 m/min (c) s = (vf . and (d) rolling. Thickness is to be reduced in three steps in a hot rolling operation. (c) 1.5 = 0.30 = 10 mm.

Step 3: vf = (0.03)(1.875/50 = 0.0)(1.63 = 37.032 x 10.875 mm Minimum number of passes = (to . Roll diameter = 700 mm and coefficient of friction between rolls and work = 0.0) = 51.25)/4 = 6. tf = (0.844)(10.0)(12 x 12)/(0.71(0.3 A series of cold rolling operations are to be used to reduce the thickness of a plate from 50 mm down to 25 mm in a reversing two-high mill.0.71 = 25.12945) = 4.27 mm. Solution: (a) After three passes. determine: (a) speed vr at each stand.032 x 10.x) = (.0)(1.927) = 312. the slab will widen by 3% in each step. rather than the draft.3 in. and roll speed is the same for the three steps.25)/7. 100 . If the entry speed of the slab in the first step is 40 ft/min.0) = 10.6.0)(40)/(0.53 .98(0.75)(0.5 (1 .71 mm Pass 5: d = 28. Roll radius at each stand = 250 mm.47 = 43.tf)/dmax = (50 .5.89 mm Pass 3: d = 37. the following relationship must be satisfied: 50(1 .5 A continuous hot rolling mill has two stands.0)(1.12945) = 3.75 x 2.0. Determine: (a) minimum number of passes required.98 .844)(10.4.17 → 4 passes (b) Draft per pass d = (50 .15) 2 (350) = 7.1575.3. (b) Pass 1: d = 50(0.75)(0.27 = 28.78 ft/min. (a) What is the minimum number of passes required? (b) What is the draft for each pass? Solution: (a) Maximum possible draft occurs on first pass: dmax = µ2 R = (0.4.875 = 3. 19.15.927)Lf Lf = (2.0)(10.03)(10.0) = 51.87055 = 0. suppose that the percent reduction were specified to be equal for each pass.5) 1/4 = 0. and n = number of passes.025 ft (b) Given that roll speed is the same at all three stands and that towovo = tfwfvf .033 x 10. Rotational speed at the first stand = 20 rev/min.63 mm.1575.0) = 0.71 mm. Thickness of the starting plate = 25 mm and width = 300 mm. tf = 28. which exceeds the maximum possible reduction of 0.03)(1. Final thickness is to be 13 mm.4 In the previous problem. The plate is wide enough relative to its thickness that no increase in width occurs.78 ft/min.that for this metal and reduction. which is within the maximum possible reduction of 0. Step 1: vf = (2.89 . Under the assumption that the forward slip is equal at each stand. = 26.752 x 2.1591.752 x 2.87055 x = 1 .8409 x = 1 . towoLo = tfwfLf (2. The number of passes must be an integer. Equal drafts of 6 mm are to be taken at each stand.875 mm This converts into a maximum possible reduction x = 7.15) 2 (350) = 7.1575 Let x = fraction reduction per pass. Try n = 5: (1 . and (b) draft for each pass? Solution: (a) Maximum draft dmax = µ2 R = (0. and (b) forward slip s.98 mm Pass 4: d = 32. determine: (a) length and (b) exit velocity of the slab after the final reduction.x) n = 25/50 = 0.844 in. tf = 43.03 x 10.0)(1.753 x 2.89(0.75)(2.x) n = 25 (1 .53 mm Pass 2: d = 43.03 x 10.0)(40)/(0. wf = (1.25 mm 19. Step 2: vf = (0.00 mm 19.78 ft/min. tf = 50 .91 mm.x) = 0.0)(40)/(0.53(0. To reduce from to = 50 mm to to = 25 mm in n passes.12945) = 6.91 = 32.0)(12 x 12) = (0.12945) = 4.51/n Try n = 4: (1 .x) = (. tf = 32. The specification is that the draft is to be equal on each pass.0) = 51.75 x 2. tf = 37.5) 1/5 = 0.0)(1.0)(10.8409 = 0.927 in.12945.0)(10.71 .47 mm.12945) = 5.

1) At stand 2. towovo = t1w1v1 = t2w2v2 Since there is no change in width.5(34.5vr1 vr2 = 1.3 in.3/3.4 = 1. Let v1 = exiting plate speed at stand 1 and entering speed at stand 2.0vo = 0. and it is assumed that the forward slip will be equal at each stand.50v2 v2 = 1. Assume that no widening of the slab occurs during the rolling sequence. to tf = 0.75v1 = 0. t1 = 25 .vr)/vr svr = vf .vr (1 + s)vr = vf 101 .vr (1 + s)vr = vf At stand 1. (1 + s)vr2 = v2 (Eq.0(1 .2 m/min.5v1 (Eq. Let vr1 = roll speed at stand 1. 1).4) = 34. Let t2 = exiting plate thickness at stand 2. Determine: (a) percent reduction at each stand. 3. (b) Forward slip s = (vf .x) 8 = 0. 2) By constant volume.(c) Also.x) = (0.089 s = 0. previously calculated in (b) v2 = 1. thus vr2 = 1.42 m/min.089 (c) v1 = 34. The final thickness is to be 0. 2 and 3).10) 1/8 = 0.0 in. (b) rotational speed of the rolls at stands 2 through 8.42) = 47. 19. (1 + s)vr2 = 1.5v1 = 1.2/31. (1 + s)vr2 = v2 = 1.2) = 51. and rotational speed at stand number 1 = 30 rev/min. tovo = t1v1 = t2v2 1. 3) Combining (Eqs.10 (1 .01% at each stand.2501 = 25. It is observed that the speed of the slab entering stand 1 = 240 ft/min. Let vr2 = roll speed at stand 2. Let t1 = exiting plate thickness at stand 1 and entering thickness at stand 2. wo = w1 = w2 Therefore.0. vr2 = ? Forward slip s = (vf .1 m/min.0 in.5(1 + s)vr1 .5v1 Substituting (Eq. and (c) forward slip. 1): (1 + s)vr1 = v1 (1 + s)(31. determine the exiting speeds at each rolling stand. and length = 10 ft.74989 = r = 0.3 (1 .0 in. (d) What is the draft at stands 1 and 8? (e) What is the length and exit speed of the final strip exiting stand 8? Solution: (a) To reduce from to = 3. to = 25 mm.2 (1 + s) = 34.5(31.6 = 13 mm.6 A continuous hot rolling mill has eight stands. in 8 stands. Percent reduction in thickness is to be equal at all stands. width = 15. (1 + s)vr1 = v1 (Eq.6 = 19 mm.0 = 0.2 m/min (Eq.vr)/vr svr = vf .3 in. (b) 25vo = 19v1 v1 = 25(26)/19 = 34. Let vo = entering plate speed at stand 1. Let v2 = exiting plate speed at stand 2. if the entering speed at the first stand = 26 m/min. Solution: (a) Let to = entering plate thickness at stand 1. t2 = 19 . Roll diameter at each stand = 36 in. The dimensions of the starting slab are: thickness = 3.3 m/min.x) 8 = 0. vr1 = πDNr = π(2 x 250)(10-3)(20) = 31.74989 x = 1 .

10609 x 282. vr1 = πDNr1 = (2π x 18/12)(30) = 282.04) = 426.426N r2 = 0.426(40) = 377.78) = 0. as before (d) Draft at stand 1 d1 = 3. w8 Therefore.3 rev/min Nr7 = 0. = t8w8v8 Since there is no change in width.74989 = 426.2501) = 0.10609 x 282.9 rev/min Nr6 = 0.0(1 .10609 x 282.10609vr2 Rearranging.2501 as determined in part (a). . . where vr8 = roll speed. where r = 0. v8 = exit speed of slab.7503 in.78/(1-r)4 = 94.10006 in. Draft at stand 8 d8 = 3. .r)8v8 .78/(1-r) = 0.04 ft/min (1 + s)(377. (b) roll torque.r)2v2 = .10609vr Nr2 = 0.132.7 L8 = 100 ft A plat that is 250 mm wide and 25 mm thick is to be reduced in a single pass in a two-high rolling mill to a thickness of 20 mm.223 102 .0(10 ft) = 0. The roll has a radius = 500 mm. .. towovo = t1w1v1 = t2w2v2 = . Contact length L = (500 x 5) . (e) Length of final strip Lf = L8 towoLo = t8w8L8 Given that wo = w8.3L8 towovo = t8w8v8 tovo = t8v8 v8 = 240(3/0.78/(1-0. Etc.1 rev/min Nr5 = 0. tovo = t1v = t2v2 = . .0(.r)v1 = 3(1 .78) = 320 (1 + s) = 320/282.2. v1 = exit speed of slab. . wo = w1 = w2 = .3) = 2400 ft/min.78/(1-r)7 = 224.132 Check with stand 2: given v2 = 426. where vr2 = roll speed. 3(1 .25 = 0.20 = 5 mm.132 s = 0. vr1 : vr2 : . = t8v8 to = 3.78 = 1. Since s is a constant.132 s = 0.10609 x 282. 3vo = 3(1 . where vr1 = roll speed.78/(1-r)3 = 71. . : v8 Given that Nr1 = 30 rev/min.78/(1-r)5 = 126. toLo = t8L8 3.74989 = 320 ft/min v2 = 320/0.5 rev/min Nr8 = 0.8 ft/min From equations for forward slip. .5 = 50 mm True strain ε = ln(25/20) = ln 1. . 19. Determine: (a) roll force.2501) = 0.2501) 7(. . vr2 = Nr2/0.2501) = 40 rev/min Nr3 = 0.10609 = 9.At stand 1: (1 + s)vr1 = v1 .10609 x 282.78/(1-r)6 = 168.3 rev/min Nr4 = 0.10609 x 282. Solution: (a) Draft d = 25 .8/377. . By constant volume.8 (1 + s) = 426. . and (c) power required to accomplish this operation.14 = 1. : vr8 = v1 : v2 : . At stand 2: (1 + s)vr2 = v2 .78/(1-r)2 = 53. The work material has a strength coefficient = 240 MPa and a strain hardening exponent = 0. v2 = exit speed of slab. At stand 8: (1 + s)vr8 = v8.8 ft/min from above Nr2 = 0. and its speed = 30 m/min.10609 x 282.0.9.9 rev/min (c) Given vo = 240 ft/min v1 = 240/(1-r) = 240/0.10609 x 282.78 ft/min In general Nr = (30/282. (1 + s)vr1 = v1 (1 + s)(282.

8.0 in thick slab that is 9 in wide is to be reduced in a single pass in a two-high rolling mill to a thickness of 2. Solution: (a) Draft d = 25 .223 Y = 240(0.851. True strain ε = ln(3. The roll has a radius = 15 in.16.81 x 10-3) = 92.1823 Y = 25.20 = 5 mm.159)(1.223) 0.604 N-m/s = 92.5) = ln 1.35 x 10-3) = 92.296 N-m (c) N = (30 m/min)/(2π x 0.7 and 19.2.771 lb 103 .1 MPa f Rolling force F = 148.74 in.829)( 50 x 10-3) = 46.16/1. Contact length L = (50 x 5) . Determine: (a) roll force.5 rev/min = 1.1(250)(15.223) 0.35) = 1.20 = 0.5 = 2.1(250)(50) = 1.592 rev/s Power P = 2π(1.5 in.318 rev/s Power P = 2π(0.20 = 148.5(585.20/1.592)(585.50 in.095)(35.1823) 0.1 rev/min = 0. and note the important effect of roll radius on force.5 = 15.74)(9.5(1.174 N-m (c) N = (30 m/min)/(2π x 0.223) 0.81 x 10-3) = 4.095 N (b) Torque T = 0.414(2.55 rev/min = 0.050) = 95.0) = 404. but that the power remains the same (within calculation error) as in the previous problem.851.417)(15.311.35 x 10-3) = 23.628 N-m (c) N = (30 m/min)/(2π x 0.159 rev/s Power P = 2π(0..417)(15.591 W 19.5 = 35.000(0.5) .5(1.000 lb/in 2 and a strain hardening exponent = 0.35 mm True strain ε = ln(25/20) = ln 1. torque and power.318)(1.20/1.8 Solve Problem 19. In fact.16 = 16. Contact length L = (15 x 0.1 MPa f Rolling force F = 148.25 = 0.20/1.10 A 3. Contact length L = (250 x 5) .81 mm True strain ε = ln(25/20) = ln 1.20 = 148.554 N-m/s = 92. The work material has a strength coefficient = 25.9 Solve Problem 19. 19.829 N (b) Torque T = 0.604 W Note that the force and torque are reduced as roll radius is reduced.7 using a roll radius = 250 mm. 19.7.1(250)(35.414 lb/in 2 f Rolling force F = 16. power would probably increase because of lower mechanical efficiency in the cluster type rolling mill.20 = 148.1 MPa f Rolling force F = 148.851. Compare the results with the previous two problems.417 N (b) Torque T = 0. (b) roll torque. Solution: (a) Draft d = 3.Y = 240(0.095)(35. and its speed = 30 ft/min.250) = 19.0 . only assume a cluster mill with working rolls of radius = 50 mm.591 N-m/s = 92.500) = 9.0/2.829)(50 x 10-3) = 92.223 Y = 240(0.25 = 0.5 = 0.311.20 = 5 mm.81) = 585.311.554 W Note that this is the same power value (within calculation error) as in Problems 19. and (c) power required to accomplish this operation. Solution: (a) Draft d = 25 .

026.74) = 554.000 lb. Contact length L = (250 x 2) .0) = 5. It is desired to reduce a 1.0. Roll radius = 250 mm and rotational speed = 12 rev/min.000 in-lb/min Contact length L = (12 x 0.0 = 20.333 = 1. and (c) power required for this operation.0112) = 3. Assume the strength coefficient remains K = 20.600.0 mm.0112)(0.000/200. and (c) maximum speed of the rolls for the operation.672 MN = 672. P = 2πN(400.000)(0.(b) Torque T = 0. (b) True strain ε = ln(1.741 in-lb/min)/(396. Determine: (a) roll force.12 except that the operation is warm rolling and the strain hardening exponent n = 0.0112 m True strain ε = ln(20/18) = ln 1.5 .02 = 4 d = 4/12 = 0.536 in-lb.12 A hot rolling mill has rolls of diameter = 24 in. the work material has a strength coefficient = 20.333 in. The mill has a maximum horsepower = 100 hp.285 = 0.741 in-lb/min HP = (26.13 Solve Problem 19.000 = 2.tf Contact length L = (12d) 0. The starting plate is 10 in wide. 104 .1054) 0.771)(2.251 f (c) Given maximum possible power HP = 100 hp = 100 x 396000 (in-lb/min)/hp = 39.167 in.000) = 67.5/1.000 lb/in 2 Force F = 20. Solution: (a) Draft d = 20 .82)(404.18 = 2.22 = 300 MPa f Rolling force F = 300(0.000 N = 7.5 .5 = 11.22. (b) roll torque.548N in-lb/min 5.1054 Y = 600(0.600.111 = 0.000 lb/in2. ε = ln(1. Power P = 2π(3.000(ε)0/1. Determine: (a) maximum possible draft.5 Y = 20. The work material has a strength coefficient = 600 MPa and a strength coefficient = 0.11 A single-pass rolling operation reduces a 20 mm thick plate to 18 mm.18 mm = 0. In the heated condition.5 ft/min 19.88 rev/min vr = 2πRN = 2π(12/12)(7. Draft d = 1.0 12 d = 2.0112) = 37.2 hp 19.88) = 49.5 = 400. It can exert a maximum force = 400.720 N-m (c) Given that N = 12 rev/min Power P = 2π(12/60)(672.2) = 0.167) = ln 1. (c) N = (30 ft/min)/(2π x 15/12) = 3.548N = 39.000)(2.617. Solution: (a) Assumption: maximum possible draft is determined by the force capability of the rolling mill and not by coefficient of friction between the rolls and the work.5/tf) tf = to -d = 1.333) 0.82 rev/min.000 (the limiting force of the rolling mill) (12d) 0. The starting plate is 200 mm wide.000 lb/in 2 and a strain hardening exponent = zero.026.74) = 26.697 W 19.22/1.000(10) (12d) 0.771)(2. (b) associated true strain.0 in.5 = 2.5(401.000 N (b) Torque T = 0.15.5(672.5 = 400.5 in thick plate by the maximum possible draft in one pass.000)(0.617.

8315 d = 0.462 lb/in2.5 = 400.3 in.. (d) 0.5 .887 = 0. ε = ln(1. which is close to the trial value of d = 0.5 .000 N = 6.15 = 15.489 = 0.50 = 0.555.000 in-lb/min Contact length L = (12 x 0.5 in.558.5 = 11. Final height = 20 mm.555 = 0. tf = 1.5 .555 in.223 Y = 17.641 Y (d) 0.555) 0.5873 = 0.5/1.391(0. (d) 0.5 ε = ln(1.3 Try d = 0.457) .547/15.887 lb/in2.391(0.691.0.15 = 13.945 in.15 = 15.547/15.55 = 0.5 = 11.391(0.462 Y = 17..55 Try d = 0.556.5 Try d = 0.95) = ln 1.50 . P = 2πN(400.000 (as given) f f Y (d) f 0.0.189 = 0.tf Contact length L = (12d) 0.5 .15/1.547/15. Coefficient of friction at the die -work interface = 0.5 = 11. ε = ln(1.462 = 0.. Do = 50 mm and h o = 40 mm. tf = 1.5 = 34.Solution: (a) Assumption (same as in previous problem): maximum possible draft is determined by the force capability of the rolling mill and not by coefficient of friction between the rolls and the work.5 = 400.15 f F = Y (10)(12d) 0.0) = ln 1.7602 d = 0.25 = 0.11) = 38.5/tf) Y = 20.462) . The work material has a flow 105 .4 ft/min f f f f Forging 19.0.547/13.547 f Now use trial-and-error to values of Y and d that fit this equation. ε = ln(1.000N in-lb/min 6.578.58 in.5/0.489 lb/in2.14 A cylindrical part is warm upset forged in an open die.5 = 11. which does not equal the trial value of d = 0.5/1.000(ε)0. (d) 0.391(0.747 d = 0.95 in.641 = 11.0.745 d = 0.5 = 2.2) = ln 1.5/0.15 = 15.391ε .20. (b) True strain ε = ln(1.189 lb/in2.2 in.000/34.000N = 39. Try d = 0.945) = 0.486. ε = ln(1.600.5/0.457 Y = 17.579 = 0.223) .486.58) = 6.462 (c) Given maximum possible power HP = 100 hp = 100 x 396000 (in-lb/min)/hp = 39.5 = 1.55 in.. Draft d = 1.4055) . tf = 1.0 in.15 = 17.600.000)(2.3 = 1.11 rev/min vr = 2πRN = 2π(12/12)(6. which does not equal the initial trial value of d = 0.4055 Y = 17. which is very close to the trial value of d = 0. tf = 1. (d) 0.945) = ln 1.

2.3 = 5.5 in and h = 2.333 = 0.002.273 in 3 from part (a) above.0834 Yf = 40.34 in 2 Corresponding D = 2.002) 0.5/1.892.40(0.curve defined by: K = 600 MPa and n = 0. and (d) h = 1.002).495 = 1.045(27.7)/20 = 1.540/20 = 3927 mm2 Corresponding D = 70.5 mm2 Kf = 1 + 0.693 N (b) Given h = 30.560.045 F = 1.273/2.5 in is upset forged in an open die to a height = 1. and (c) at h = 20 mm.556)(4.4(.495 A = V/h = 12.34) = 153.92 A = V/h = 78.540/39.4(.87 (from A = πD2/4) Kf = 1 + 0.2)(57.7)/30 = 1.273/2.273 in 3 Given ε = 0.4(.002. At h = 30.316 = 0.6 MPa.7 mm (from A = πD2/4) Kf = 1 + 0.2)(50)/39.540 mm3 from part (a) above.04 F = 1.4(.283(574.495 = 4.557 N (c) Given h = 20.46) = 225. (b) at height h = 2.060 F = 1.154(516.002) 0.060(32.15 A cylindrical workpart with D = 2.15.579 lb (b) Given h = 2.61 (from A = πD2/4) Kf = 1 + 0.3 = 1. A = V/h = 78.1)(2.15 = 15.2)(70. Solution: (a) V = πD2L/4 = π(2. A = V/h = 12.273/1.5 in.000(0. Yf = 40.10.9.92 in 2 Kf = 1 + 0.274) 0.1 F = 1.1(284.748 lb/in2 and h = 2. Determine the instantaneous force in the operation (a) just as the yield point is reached (yield at strain = 0.5)/2.46 in 2 Corresponding D = 2. Determine the force in the operation (a) just as the yield point is reached (yield at strain = 0. ε = ln(40/20) = ln 2. ε = ln(40/30) = ln 1. (c) h = 1.540 mm3 Given ε = 0.9 = 6.695 lb 106 .4(.92 = 1.12 = 574.12 = 284.5 .287 Yf = 600(0.5) 2(2.000 lb/in2 and n = 0.540 mm3 from part (a) above.002) = 39.540/30 = 2618 mm2 Corresponding D = 57. At h = 1. At h = 2.000(0.3.087 = 0. A = V/h = 12. The work material has a flow curve defined by: K = 40.6 MPa V = 78.948 lb/in2 V = 12.2)(3927) = 2.154 F = 1. Coefficient of friction at the die -work interface = 0.274 Yf = 40.04(15.6)(2618) = 1.283 F = 1.3) = ln 1.4(.556 lb/in2 V = 12.3.0 = 0.287) 0.9 in.61)/2.9.000(0.273 in 3 from part (a) above. Solution: (a) V = πD2L/4 = π(50) 2(40)/4 = 78. ε = ln(2.1)(2. Yf = 600(0.822 lb (c) Given h = 1.6)(1963.5(0.92) = 80. A = V/h = 78.9 = 1. (b) at h = 30 mm.1)(2.5) = 614.693) 0.87)/1.002) = 2.15 = 32.5/2.661 N 19.3 in.92 = 1963. ε = ln(2. and h = 40 .693 Yf = 600(0.7 mm (from A = πD2/4) Kf = 1 + 0.5 in.2 MPa V = 78.5)/4 = 12. At h = 20.002).12 = 516.12.948)(6.0834) 0.9) = ln 1.748)(4.15 = 27.

(d) Given h = 1.5, ε = ln(2.5/1.5) = ln 1.667 = 0.511 Yf = 40,000(0.511) 0.15 = 36,166 lb/in2 V = 12.273 in 3 from part (a) above. At h = 1.5, A = V/h = 12.273/1.5 = 8.182 in 2 Corresponding D = 3.23 (from A = πD2/4) Kf = 1 + 0.4(.1)(3.23)/1.5 = 1.086 F = 1.086(36,166)(8.182) = 321,379 lb 19.16 A cylindrical workpart has a diameter = 2.0 in and a height = 4.0 in. It is upset forged to a height = 2.5 in. Coefficient of friction at the die -work interface = 0.10. The work material has a flow curve with strength coefficient = 25,000 lb/in 2 and strain hardening exponent = 0.22. Determine the plot of force vs. work height. Solution: Volume of cylinder V = πD2L/4 = π(2.5) 2(4.0)/4 = 19.635 in 3 We will compute the force F at selected values of height h: h = (a) 4.0, (b) 3.75, (c) 3.5, (d) 3.25, (e) 3.0, (f) 2.75, and (g) 2.5. These values can be used to develop the plot. The shape of the plot will be similar to Figure 21.13 in the text. (a) At h = 4.0, we assume yielding has just occurred and the height has not changed significantly. Use ε = 0.002 (the approximate yield point of metal). At ε = 0.002, Yf = 25,000(0.002) 0.22 = 6,370 lb/in2 Adjusting the height for this strain, h = 4.0 - 4.0(0.002) = 3.992 A = V/h = 19.635/3.992 = 4.92 in 2 Kf = 1 + 0.4(.1)(2.5)/3.992 = 1.025 F = 1.025(6,370)(4.92) = 32,125 lb (b) At h = 3.75, ε = ln(4.0/3.75) = ln 1.0667 = 0.0645 Yf = 25,000(0.0645) 0.22 = 13,680 lb/in2 V = 19.635 in 3 calculated above. At h = 3.75, A = V/h = 19.635/3.75 = 5.236 in 2 Corresponding D = 2.582 (from A = πD2/4) Kf = 1 + 0.4(.1)(2.582)/3.75 = 1.028 F = 1.028(13,680)(5.236) = 73,601 lb (c) At h = 3.5, ε = ln(4.0/3.5) = ln 1.143 = 0.1335 Yf = 25,000(0.1335) 0.22 = 16,053 lb/in2 At h = 3.5, A = V/h = 19.635/3.5 = 5.61 in 2 Corresponding D = 2.673 (from A = πD2/4) Kf = 1 + 0.4(.1)(2.673)/3.5 = 1.031 F = 1.031(16,053)(5.61) = 92,808 lb (d) At h = 3.25, ε = ln(4.0/3.25) = ln 1.231 = 0.2076 Yf = 25,000(0.2076) 0.22 = 17,691 lb/in2 At h = 3.25, A = V/h = 19.635/3.25 = 6.042 in 2 Corresponding D = 2.774 (from A = πD2/4) Kf = 1 + 0.4(.1)(2.774)/3.25 = 1.034 F = 1.034(17,691)(6.042) = 110,538 lb (e) At h = 3.0, ε = ln(4.0/3.0) = ln 1.333 = 0.2874 Yf = 25,000(0.2874) 0.22 = 19,006 lb/in2 At h = 3.0, A = V/h = 19.635/3.0 = 6.545 in 2 Corresponding D = 2.887 (from A = πD2/4)

107

Kf = 1 + 0.4(.1)(2.887)/3.0 = 1.038 F = 1.038(19,006)(6.545) = 129,182 lb (f) At h =2.75, ε = ln(4.0/2.75) = ln 1.4545 = 0.3747 Yf = 25,000(0.3747) 0.22 = 20,144 lb/in2 V = 19.635 in 3 calculated above. At h = 2.75, A = V/h = 19.635/2.75 = 7.140 in 2 Corresponding D = 3.015 (from A = πD2/4) Kf = 1 + 0.4(.1)(3.015)/2.75 = 1.044 F = 1.044(20,144)(7.140) = 150,136 lb (g) At h = 2.5, ε = ln(4.0/2.5) = ln 1.60 = 0.470 Yf = 25,000(0.470) 0.22 = 21,174 lb/in2 At h = 2.5, A = V/h = 19.635/2.5 = 7.854 in 2 Corresponding D = 3.162 (from A = πD2/4) Kf = 1 + 0.4(.1)(3.162)/2.5 = 1.051 F = 1.051(21,174)(7.854) = 174,715 lb 19.17 A cold heading operation is performed to produce the head on a steel nail. The strength coefficient for this steel is K = 550 MPa, and the strain hardening exponent n = 0.24. Coefficient of friction at the die-work interface = 0.10. The wire stock out of which the nail is made is 4.75 mm in diameter. The head is to have a diameter = 9.5 mm and a thickness = 1.5 mm. (a) What length of stock must project out of the die in order to provide sufficient volume of material for this upsetting operation? (b) Compute the maximum force that the punch must apply to form the head in this open-die operation. Solution: (a) Volume of nail head V = πDf2hf/4 = π(9.5) 2(1.5)/4 = 106.3 mm3. Ao = πDo2/4 = π(4.75) 2/4 = 17.7 mm2 ho = V/Ao = 106.3/17.7 = 6.0 mm (b) ε = ln(6.0/1.5) = ln 4 = 1.3863 Yf = 550(1.3863) 0.24 = 595 MPa Af = π(9.5) 2/4 = 70.9 mm2 Kf = 1 + 0.4(.1)(9.5/1.5) = 1.25 F = 1.25(595)(70.9) = 52,872 N 19.18 Obtain a large common nail (flat head). Measure the head diameter and thickness, as well as the diameter of the nail shank. (a) What stock length must project out of the die in order to provide sufficient material to produce the nail? (b) Using appropriate values for strength coefficient and strain hardening exponent for the metal out of which the nail is made (Table 3.5), compute the maximum force in the heading operation to form the head. Solution: Student exercise. Calculations similar to those above for the data developed by the student. 19.19 A hot upset forging operation is performed in an open die. The initial size of the workpart is: Do = 25 mm, and h o = 50 mm. The part is upset to a diameter = 50 mm. The work metal at this elevated temperature yields at 85 MPa (n = 0). Coefficient of friction at the die -work interface = 0.40. Determine: (a) final height of the part, and (b) maximum force in the operation. Solution: (a) V = πDo2ho/4 = π(25) 2(50)/4 = 24,544 mm3. Af = πDf2/4 = π(50) 2/4 = 1963.5 mm2. hf = V/Af = 24,544 /1963.5 = 12.5 mm.

108

(b) ε = ln(50/12.5) = ln 4 = 1.3863 Yf = 85(1.3863) 0 = 85 MPa Force is maximum at largest area value, Af = 1963.5 mm2 D = (4 x 1963.5/π)0.5 = 50 mm Kf = 1 + 0.4(.4)(50/12.5) = 1.64 F = 1.64(85)( 1963.5) = 273,712 N 19.20 A hydraulic forging press is capable of exerting a maximum force = 1,000,000 N. A cylindrical workpart is to be cold upset forged. The starting part has diameter = 30 mm and height = 30 mm. The flow curve of the metal is defined by K = 400 MPa and n = 0.2. Determine the maximum reduction in height to which the part can be compressed with this forging press, if the coefficient of friction = 0.1. Solution: Volume of work V = πDo2ho/4 = π(30) 2(30)/4 = 21,206 mm3. Final area Af = 21,206/hf ε = ln(30/hf) Yf = 400ε 0.2 = 400(ln 30/hf)0.2) Kf = 1 + 0.4µ(Df/hf) = 1 + 0.4(0.1)(Df/hf) Forging force F = KfYfAf = (1 + 0.04D f/hf)( 400(ln 30/hf)0.2)( 21,206/hf) Requires trial and error solution to find the value of hf that will match the force of 1,000,000 N. (1) Try hf = 20 mm Af = 21,206/20 = 1060.3 mm2 ε = ln(30/20) = ln 1.5 = 0.405 Yf = 400(0.405) 0.2 = 333.9 MPa Df = (4 x 1060.3/π)0.5 = 36.7 mm Kf = 1 + 0.04(36.7/20) = 1.073 F = 1.073(333.9)(1060.3) = 380,050 N Too low. Try a smaller value of hf to increase F. (2) Try hf = 10 mm. Af = 21,206/10 = 2120.6 mm2 ε = ln(30/10) = ln 3.0 = 1.099 Yf = 400(1.099) 0.2 = 407.6 MPa Df = (4 x 2120.6/π)0.5 = 51.96 mm Kf = 1 + 0.04(51.96/10) = 1.208 F = 1.208(407.6)(2120.6) = 1,043,998 N Slightly high. Need to try a value of hf between 10 and 20, closer to 10. (3) Try hf = 11 mm Af = 21,206/11 = 1927.8 mm2 ε = ln(30/11) = ln 2.7273 = 1.003 Yf = 400(1.003) 0.2 = 400.3 MPa Df = (4 x 1927.8/π)0.5 = 49.54 mm Kf = 1 + 0.04(51.12/11) = 1.18 F = 1.18(400.3)(1927.8) = 910,653 N (4) By linear interpolation, try hf = 10 + (44/133) = 10.33 mm Af = 21,206/10.33 = 2052.8 mm2 ε = ln(30/10.33) = ln 2.9042 = 1.066 Yf = 400(1.066) 0.2 = 405.16 MPa

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Df = (4 x 2052.8/π)0.5 = 51.12 mm Kf = 1 + 0.04(51.12/10.33) = 1.198 F = 1.198(405.16)(2052.8) = 996,364 N (5) By further linear interpolation, try hf = 10 + (44/48)(0.33) = 10.30 Af = 21,206/10.30 = 2058.8 mm2 ε = ln(30/10.30) = ln 2.913 = 1.069 Yf = 400(1.069) 0.2 = 405.38 MPa Df = (4 x 2058.8/π)0.5 = 51.2 mm Kf = 1 + 0.04(51.2/10.3) = 1.199 F = 1.199(405.38)(2058.8) = 1,000,553 N Close enough! Maximum height reduction = 30.0 - 10.3 = 19.7 mm 19.21 A part is designed to be hot forged in an impression die. The projected area of the part, including flash, is 15 in 2. After trimming, the part has a projected area = 10 in 2. Part geometry is relatively simple. As heated the work material yields at 9,000 lb/in 2, and has no tendency to strain harden. Determine the maximum force required to perform the forging operation. Solution: Since the work material has no tendency to work harden, n = 0. From Table 21.1, choose Kf = 6.0. F = 6.0(9,000)(15) = 810,000 lb. 19.22 A connecting rod is designed to be hot forged in an impression die. The projected area of the part is 6,500 mm2. The design of the die will cause flash to form during forging, so that the area, including flash, will be 9,000 mm2. The part geometry is considered to be complex. As heated the work material yields at 75 MPa, and has no tendency to strain harden. Determine the maximum force required to perform the operation. Solution: Since the work material has no tendency to work harden, n = 0. From Table 21.1, choose Kf =8.0. F = 8.0(75)(9,000) = 5,400,000 N.

Extrusion

19.23 A cylindrical billet that is 100 mm long and 40 mm in diameter is reduced by indirect (backward) extrusion to a 15 mm diameter. Die angle = 90°. If the Johnson equation has a = 0.8 and b = 1.5, and the flow curve for the work metal has K = 750 MPa and n = 0.15, determine: (a) extrusion ratio, (b) true strain (homogeneous deformation), (c) extrusion strain, (d) ram pressure, and (e) ram force. Solution: (a) rx = Ao/Af = Do2/Df2 = (40) 2/(15) 2 = 7.111 (b) ε = ln rx = ln 7.111 = 1.962 (c) ε x = a + b ln rx = 0.8 + 1.5(1.962) = 3.742 (d) Y = 750(1.962) 0.15/1.15 = 721.5 MPa,

f

p = 721.5(3.742) = 2700 MPa (e) Ao = πDo2/4 = π(40) 2/4 = 1256.6 mm2 F = 2700(1256.6) = 3,392,920 N. 19.24 A 3.0-in long cylindrical billet whose diameter = 1.5 in is reduced by indirect extrusion to a diameter = 0.375 in. Die angle = 90°. In the Johnson equation, a = 0.8 and b = 1.5. In the flow

110

curve for the work metal, K = 75,000 lb/in2 and n = 0.25. Determine: (a) extrusion ratio, (b) true strain (homogeneous deformation), (c) extrusion strain, (d) ram pressure, (e) ram force, and (f) power if the ram speed = 20 in/min. Solution: (a) rx = Ao/Af = Do2/Df2 = (1.5) 2/(0.375) 2 = 42 = 16.0 (b) ε = ln rx = ln 16 = 2.773 (c) ε x = a + b ln rx = 0.8 + 1.5(2.773) = 4.959 (d) Y = 75,000(2.773) 0.25/1.25 = 77,423 lb/in2

f

p = 77,423(4.959) = 383,934 lb/in2 (e) Ao = πDo2/4 = π(1.5) 2/4 = 1.767 in2 F = (383,934)(1.767) = 678,411 lb. (f) P = 678,411(20) = 13,568,228 in-lb/min HP = 13,568,228/396,000 = 34.26 hp 19.25 A billet that is 75 mm long with diameter = 35 mm is direct extruded to a diameter of 20 mm. The extrusion die has a die angle = 75°. For the work metal, K = 600 MPa and n = 0.25. In the Johnson extrusion strain equation, a = 0.8 and b = 1.4. Determine: (a) extrusion ratio, (b) true strain (homogeneous deformation), (c) extrusion strain, and (d) ram pressure at L = 70, 40, and 10 mm. Solution: (a) rx = Ao/Af = Do2/Df2 = (35) 2/(20) 2 = 3.0625 (b) ε = ln rx = ln 3.0625 = 1.119 (c) ε x = a + b ln rx = 0.8 + 1.4(1.119) = 2.367 (d) Y = 750(1.119) 0.25/1.25 = 493.7 MPa

f

It is appropriate to determine the volume of metal contained in the cone of the die at the start of the extrusion operation, to assess whether metal has been forced through the die opening by the time the billet has been reduced from L = 75 mm to L = 70 mm. For a cone-shaped die with angle = 75°, the height h of the frustum is formed by metal being compressed into the die opening: The two radii are: R1 = 0.5D o = 17.5 mm and R2 = 0.5D f = 10 mm, and h = (R1 - R2)/tan 75 = 7.5/tan 75 = 2.01 mm Frustum volume V = 0.333πh(R12 + R1R2 + R22) = 0.333π(2.01)(17.52 + 10 x 17.5 + 102) = 1223.4 mm3. Compare this with the volume of the portion of the cylindrical billet between L = 75 mm and L = 70 mm. V = πDo2 h/4 = 0.25π(35) 2(75 - 70) = 4810.6 mm3 Since this volume is greater than the volume of the frustum, this means that the metal has extruded through the die opening by the time the ram has moved forward by 5 mm. L = 70 mm: pressure p = 493.7(2.367 + 2 x 70/35) = 3143.4 MPa L = 40 mm: pressure p = 493.7(2.367 + 2 x 40/35) = 2297.0 MPa L = 10 mm: pressure p = 493.7(2.367 + 2 x 10/35) = 1450.7 MPa 19.26 A 2.0-in long billet with diameter = 1.25 in is direct extruded to a diameter of 0.50 in. The extrusion die angle = 90°. For the work metal, K = 45,000 lb/in2, and n = 0.20. In the Johnson extrusion strain equation, a = 0.8 and b = 1.5. Determine: (a) extrusion ratio, (b) true strain (homogeneous deformation), (c) extrusion strain, and (d) ram pressure at L = 2.0, 1.5, 1.0, 0.5 and zero in. Solution: (a) rx = Ao/Af = Do2/Df2 = (1.25) 2/(0.5) 2 = 6.25

111

25 in. a = 0.330 lb/in2 f Unlike the previous problem.0 in and Do = 2.28 An indirect extrusion process starts with an aluminum billet with diameter = 2.25 = 0.549 + 2 x 0.672(16) = 42.8 + 1.7726) = 4.0 in and R2 = 0.0 = 15.75)(1.404 Y = 15.0 in.0 in. The height of the frustum h = (R1 .: pressure p = 42.330(3.75 in.0) 2/(0.672 in.0 (b) The portion of the billet that is compressed into the die cone forms a frustum with R1 = 0.0/1. (c) ε = ln rx = ln 16 = 2.549 + 2 x 0. (c) What is the ram pressure corresponding to this position? (d) Also determine the length of the final part if the ram stops its forward movement at the start of the die cone.25 + 0.7726 ε x = a + b ln rx = 0.549 (d) Y = 45. the final part length.8326) 0.031 in 3 The billet has advanced a certain distance by the time this frustum is completely filled and extrusion through the die opening is therefore initiated.252) = 1.404 + 2 x 2.25) = 285.R2)/tan 45 = 1.0.: pressure p = 42.0) = 106.0 in.672/2.5/1.086 lb/in2 150.000(4.672 in.50 in.75 in. The volume of the frustum is V = 0.0.8 and b = 1. we have π(Lo .328 = 2.333πh(R12 + R1R2 + R22) = 0. the die angle α = 90°.02 + 1.031 in 3 (Lo .330(3.330(3.3(2.333π(0. a = 0.0 x 0.950 lb/in2 184. Final cross-section after extrusion is a square with 1.: pressure p = 42.0) 2(Lo .20 = 42. (a) What is the extrusion ratio? (b) Determine the ram position at the point when the metal has been compressed into the cone of the die and starts to extrude through the die opening.25) = L = 1.000(2.8 and b = 1. what is the length of the extruded section? (d) Determine the ram pressure in the process.549 + 2 x 2.L1) Setting this equal to the volume of the frustum. so metal is forced through the die opening as soon as the billet starts to move forward in the chamber. Solution: (a) rx = Ao/Af = Do2/Df2 = (2.25 = 1.0 in on a side. (b) What is the shape factor of the product? (c) If the butt left in the container at the end of the stroke is 0.549 + 2 x 1.000(1.3. In the Johnson extrusion strain equation.330(3. Die angle = 45° and orifice diameter = 0. (a) Compute the extrusion ratio.549 + 2 x 1.0 in.8326) = 3.5) 2 = 16.5/1.8326 (c) ε x = a + b ln rx = 0.7726) 0/1.0 .0/1.031/π = 0. excluding the cone shaped butt remaining in the die is L = 2.140 lb/in2 (d) Length of extruded portion of billet = 2.330(3. L = 2.25) = L = 1. 19.813 lb/in2 217.05/1.000 lb/in 2 (n = 0).L1) = 1.5 in. The volume of billet compressed forward to fill the frustum is given by: V = πR12(Lo .8 + 1.000 lb/in 2 f p = 15.L1) = 1.(b) ε = ln rx = ln 6. true strain.000 lb/in2 and strain hardening exponent n = 0.229 lb/in2 19.: pressure p = 42.0 in. 112 .25) = L = 0.5 in. The die angle = 90°. The operation is performed cold and the strength coefficient of the metal K = 26.0/1.677 lb/in2 251.20.: pressure p = 42. and extrusion strain.0 .5(1.L1) = π(1.328 in L1 = 3.5 in thick. With a reduction rx = 16.5D f = 0.27 A direct extrusion operation is performed on a cylindrical billet with Lo = 3. The operation is carried out hot and the hot metal yields at 15.2.0 in and length = 3.25) = L = 0. In the Johnson extrusion strain equation.5D o = 1.

5642 in.057 (c) Total original volume V = 0. The radius of the circle is R = (1. (b) shape factor.0 in 2 rx = 3.145 ε x = 0.261 lb/in3 f p = 1. and (2) extrudate. and the corresponding Johnson strain equation has constants a = 0.16.29. The butt volume V1 = (0.02(224/122..25π(88) 2(25) = 152.0 in 2.1/1200= 5.3(1.0 x 1.053 mm3.698 lb/in2 19. Determine: (a) extrusion ratio.25π(88) 2(250) = 1.8 mm.5 = 19. The extrudate has a cross-sectional area Af = 1. Solution: (a) rx = Ao/Af Ao = π(88) 2/4 = 6082.0 = 1.368. Original volume V = (3. The butt volume V1 = 0.0 in2.571 in 3.98 + 0.25 = 1. A = 1200 mm2.545) 2. Dimensions of the cross-section are given in Figure P19.8 + 1.145) 0.855/1. (d) Y = 26. If the die angle in this operation = 90°.0/3.98 + 0.4 mm 19.478/1200 = 1140.Solution: (a) rx = Ao/Af Ao = πDo2/4 = π(2) 2/4 = 3.8 and b = 1. Die angle = 90°.142 ε = ln 3.54 mm.8 + 1.174) = 48.855 in.478 mm3. The radius of the circle is R = (1200/π)0.0 in.053 = 1.142 in2 Af = 1. Thus.531 mm3 The final volume consists of two sections: (1) butt.142/1. Thus.30 The flow curve parameters for the aluminum alloy of Problem 19.5642) = 3.145) = 2.02(4.623) = 3. Its volume V2 = LAf = 1.068= 1.174 (b) To determine the die shape factor we need to determine the perimeter of a circle whose area is equal to that of the extruded cross-section.8) 2. The perimeter of the extruded cross-section Cx = 4(1.2 = 22.068 ε = ln 5.623 ε x = 0.261)(2.5.29 are: K = 240 MPa and n = 0. Its volume V2 = LAf = 9.234 113 .006 (c) Given that the butt thickness = 0.855 in 3.5(1.426 .006(22.5 in.520.0/π)0.29.0 = 7.520.0 = 3. The extrudate has a cross-sectional area Af = 1200 mm2.0)(π x 22/4) = 9.2/1.426 in 3 The final volume consists of two sections: (1) butt.142 = 1.0) = 4.531 .368. length L = 1. length L = 7.54) = 122. Cc = 2π(0. A = 1.068 (b) To determine the die shape factor we need to determine the perimeter of a circle whose area is equal to that of the extruded cross-section. compute the maximum force required to drive the ram forward at the start of extrusion.5 = 0. rx = 5. Cc = 2π(19.29 An L-shaped structural section is direct extruded from an aluminum billet in which Lo = 250 mm and Do = 88 mm. and (c) length of the extruded section if the butt remaining in the container at the end of the ram stroke is 25 mm. Solution: From Problem 19.5)(π x 22/4) = 1.000(1.1.1 mm2 Af = 2 x (12 x 50) = 1200 mm2 rx = 6082.571 = 7.152.25 = 1. and (2) extrudate.545 in. Kx = 0. The perimeter of the extruded cross-section Cx = 62 + 50 + 12 + 38 + 50 + 12 = 224 mm Kx = 0.

75/706. Cc = 2πR = 2π(19.47) 2.544) = 122.6) = 1.544 mm.52) = 373.25.778 = 1.73)(2. (d) If the metal has flow curve parameters K = 400 MPa and n = 0.75 mm2 Af = 0.0218) 0.98 + 0.778 (b) To determine the die shape factor we need to determine the perimeter of a circle whose area is equal to that of the extruded cross-section.Y = 240(1.217 (c) Volume of final cup consists of two geometric elements: (1) base and (2) ring. V2 = 0.16 = 223.402) = 706.0218 ε x = 0.74/94.234+ 2 x 250/88) = 2107.8 mm Kx = 0.1600)(95) = 67. R = 10.75. determine the extrusion force. Cx = 2(20 + 60) = 160 mm Ao = πR2 = 1200 R2 = 1200/π = 381.53 114 .5 mm3 Total V = V1 + V2 = 9817.25/1.25 mm.3(1256.45 mm R2 = 373. R = 19.8 and b = 1. Solution: (a) rx = Ao/Af Ao = 0.98 + 0.2 MPa f F = pA o = 2107.74 mm.2 (6082.402)(95) = 0.151.25 = 1. A = 706. (1) Base t = 5 mm and D = 50 mm.25π(502 .47 mm Kx = 0.2 mm (d) ε = ln 2.5(1.97.969 mm3 h = 39.623) 0. and (c) height of starting slug required to achieve the final dimensions.816. Kx = 0.25 = 1.25 = 1. ID = 40 mm.86 mm2 rx = 1963.45/68.5h = 76. and thickness of base = 5 mm.016 (b) Ax = πRo2 .25π(40) 2 = 1256.6 mm2 F = 912.5 + 67.22. The perimeter of the extruded cross-section Cx = π(50 + 40) = 90π = 282. and h = 95 mm.6)( 3. Determine: (a) extrusion ratio.1) = 12.8) 2.5 mm3 (2) Ring OD = 50 mm.25π(50) 2(h) = 1963.897 mm.057(223.98 + 0.0218) = 2.31 A cup-shaped part is backward extruded from an aluminum slug that is 50 mm in diameter.5. The radius of the circle is R = (706. Cc = 2π(15) = 94.16/1.25π(50) 2 = 1963.86 = 2.25π(2500 .5 = 15 mm.5 = 76.217(321.73 MPa f p = Kx Y ε x = 1.430 N 19. ID = 40 mm. The final dimensions of the cup are: OD = 50 mm.25π(502 .151.25) 2.897) = 68. (b) shape factor.3 MPa f Ao = 0. Cc = 2πR = 2π(10.πRi2 = π(252 .86/π)0.8 + 1.25π(50) 2(5) = 9817.969 mm3 V = 0.02(160/122. and the constants in the Johnson extrusion strain equation are: a = 0.32 Determine the shape factor for each of the extrusion die orifice shapes in Figure P19.6 MPa f Maximum ram force occurs at beginning of stroke when L is maximum at L = 250 mm p = Kx Y (ε x + 2L/Do) = 1.06/π = 118.33 Y = 400(1.02(298. height = 100 mm.06 mm2 Cx = πDo + πDi = π(50 + 45) = 298.267 N 19.32.02(282.25 = 321.969 mm3 Volume of starting slug must be equal to this value V = 76. Solution: (a) Ax = 20 x 60 = 1200 mm. V1 = 0.33) = 912.146.86 mm2.

4.6) = 783. For the work metal.626 Drawing 19.07.22 σd = Y (1 + µ/tan α)φ(ln Ao/Af) = 284.2 MPa f φ = 0.50 + 0.0 . The metal has a strength coefficient = 45.9094(159.0.23) = 83.0695 mm2 Af = 0.75 Lc = 0.02(230/83.23 mm Cc = 2πR = 2π(13.10) = 300 + 250 = 550 mm2 Cx = 30 + 60 + 30 + 5 + 25 + 50 + 25 + 5 = 230 mm Ao = πR2 = 550. Determine: (a) area reduction.22 = 34.30/1. K = 500 MPa and n = 0.14) 2.88 + 0.30 = 284.17. Determine: (a) area reduction.1964 in2 Af = 0.7137) 0.51 (b) Draw force F: ε = ln(0.5(3. Coefficient of friction at the work-die interface = 0.5(.0 + 2. Solution: (a) r = (Ao .6 MPa f (c) Draw force F: F = Af σd = 4.0962)/0.12(D/Lc) D = 0.365 Y = 500(0.9094)/9.5 N 19.1964/0.35) = 0.22)(0.35) 2 = 0.25 = 1.0) 2 = 9.44 = 0.0695/4.25π(2.9094 mm2 r = (9. (b) draw stress.98 + 0.02(680/145.2.966) = 1.425 115 .88 + 0.98 + 0.177 (d) Ax = 5(55)(5) + 5(85 . R = 13.5x5) = 1675 mm2 Cx = 2 x 55 + 16 x 25 + 8 x 15 + 10 x 5 = 680 mm Ao = πR2 = 1675.50 in and final diameter = 0. (b) draw force for the operation. R2 = 1675/π = 533.12(2.08 mm Kx = 0. R = 23.07/tan 15)(1.0962) = ln 2.07.09 mm Cc = 2πR = 2π(23.1.25π(3.88 + 0.0695 = 0.365) 0.5 mm in a die with entrance angle = 15° degrees.0962 in2 r = (0.1964 = 0.365) = 159.34 Rod stock is drawn through a draw die with an entrance angle of 12°.2(1 + 0.000(0.3056 (b) Draw stress σd: ε = ln(7. R2 = 550/π = 175.30.0695 .1964 .09) = 145.5) 2 = 4.7137 Y = 45.5) = 2. Solution: (a) r = (Ao .Af)/Ao Ao = 0.33 Wire of starting diameter = 3. and (c) horsepower to perform the operation if the exit velocity of the stock = 2 ft/sec.(c) Ax = 2(5)(30) + 5(60 .75/0.50) 2 = 0.25π(0.25 = 1.5)/sin 15 = 0.35 in. and (c) draw force required for the operation. Coefficient of friction at the work-die interface = 0.Af)/Ao Ao = 0.12(D/Lc) D = 0.25π(0.14 mm Kx = 0.247 lb/in 2 f φ = 0.9094) = ln 1.966 φ = 0.22/1.0 mm is drawn to 2.5(3.22.0416 = 0.08) 2.000 lb/in 2 and a strain hardening exponent = 0. Starting diameter = 0.

0.5(90 + 75) = 82.1118) = 0.88 + 0.12(D/Lc) Df = 0. Each die has an entrance angle of 12°.88 + 0.125(1 .125 in.50 . Solution: (a) r = (Ao .15 = 27.247)(1 + 0.000 lb/in 2 and a strain hardening exponent = 0.88 + 0.1/tan 12)(1. Solution: First draw: Do = 0. The motors driving the capstans at the die exits can each deliver 1.288)(0.7 /4417.12(0.012273 in2 009819 in2 ε = ln(0. and the coefficient of friction at the work-die interface is estimated to be 0.2231 r = (Ao .5(0.4417.45 MPa f (c) F = Af σd = 4417..0.1184/0.0 m/min.440 = 0.6 W 19.0.7 = 0.25π(0.9) = ln 1.45) = 271.5 mm Lc = 0.35)/sin 12 = 0. and (d) power to perform the operation if exit velocity = 1.125 + 0.6 N-m/s = 4524.0962(34.288 σd = Y (1 + µ/tan α)φ(ln Ao/Af) = 105(1 + 0.775 lb/in 2 f φ = 0.15 = 75 mm.7137) = 3530 lb (c) P = 3530(2 ft/sec x 60) = 423.021 F = Af Y (1 + µ/tan α)φ(ln Ao/Af) f F = 0. Determine the maximum possible speed of the wire as it exits the second die.125 in is drawn through two dies each providing a 0.25π(75) 2 = 4417.021)(0.12(82. The metal behaves as a perfectly plastic material with yield stress = 105 MPa.3056 (b) Draw stress σd: ε = ln(6361.03173) = 1.475 N-m/min = 4524.88 + 0.475 N (d) P = 271.75)/sin 18 = 24.475(1 m/min) = 271.12(D/Lc) D = 0.Lc = 0.20 area reduction.5 = 0. The starting metal has a strength coefficient = 40.35 Bar stock of initial diameter = 90 mm is drawn with a draft = 15 mm.7 .125(. Af = Ao(1 .5/24.33 F = Af Y (1 + µ/tan α)φ(ln Ao/Af) f 116 .1118 in D = 0.3) = 1.5(90 .7 mm2 Df = Do .10.600/33.08.3 mm φ = 0.9 (61.600 ft/lb/min HP = 423. (b) draw stress.84 hp 19.3607) = 1.125) 2 = 0.Af)/Ao . Determine: (a) area reduction.25π(90) 2 = 6361.9 mm2 r = (6361.r) = 0.12(0.125 .08/tan 18)(1.012273/0. and the coefficient of friction at the work-die interface = 0.1184 Lc = 0.88 + 0.5 = 0.012773(1 . Af = 0.50 hp at 90% efficiency.2) = 0.1118)/sin 12 = 0.250 = 0.3607 φ = 0.3646 Y = k = 105 MPa f φ = 0.000 = 12.8) .d = 90 . Ao = 0.03173 φ = 0.Af)/Ao Ao = 0.r)0.15/1.36 Wire stock of initial diameter = 0. The draw die has an entrance angle = 18°.5(. Y = 40.2231) 0.9)/ 6361.009819) = ln 1.15. (c) draw force required for the operation.000(0.5(0.3646) = 61.425/0.

2231) = 119 lb 1.90(33.47 ft/sec Note: The calculations indicate that the second draw die is the limiting step in the drawing sequence. The first operation would have to be operated at well below its maximum possible speed. 1.88 + 0.5 x 0.5 ft-lb/sec P = Fv = 119v = 742.775)(1 + 0.007855 in 2 ε = ln(0.1059/0. Af = Ao(1 .5 ft-lb/sec as before in the first draw. or the second draw die could be powered by a higher horsepower motor.2231 + 0.0.1118 in.5(0.8) .000(0.F = 0.5/214 = 3.007855(30. P = Fv = 214v = 742.2) = 0.5(0.1/tan 12)(1.5 hp at 90% efficiency = 1.0269) = 1.009819 in2 r = (Ao .250 = 0.100 in D = 0..2231 = 0.Af)/Ao .1118 + 0.5 hp at 90% efficiency = 742.2231 Total strain experienced by the work metal is the sum of the strains from the first and second draws: ε = ε 1 + ε 2 = 0.5 = 0. or the reductions to achieve the two stages could be reallocated to achieve a higher reduction in the first drawing operation.r) = 0.15/1.5/119 = 6.4462 Y = 40.1/tan 12)(1.100) = 0.818)(1 + 0.818 lb/in 2 f φ = 0.1118(1 .1059 Lc = 0.25π(0.100)/sin 12 = 0.000 ft-lb/min)/60 = 742.09819(27.12(D/Lc) Df = 0.33)(0.35 F = Af Y (1 + µ/tan α)φ(ln Ao/Af) f F = 0.1118(.12(0.24 ft/sec Second draw: Do = 0.1118 .r)0. Ao = 0.88 + 0.0.35)(0.1118) 2 = 0.5 = 0.0269 φ = 0.5 v = 742. 117 .5 v = 742.009819(1 .4462) = 214 lb.009819/0.4462) 0.007855) = ln 1.15 = 30.

Stretch forming of sheet metal involves stretching and simultaneous bending of the workpart to achieve shape change. divided by the angle of the tooling. 118 .8 What are some of the possible defects in drawn sheet metal parts? Answer. the shape change is significant enough (e.g. where t = stock thickness. drawing ratio greater than 2. r = (D .10 Identify the principal components of a stamping die that performs blanking. and (3) drawing. See Figure 20. and (3) thickness-to-diameter ratio. and the punch is smaller by twice the clearance.3 What is the difference between a cutoff operation and a parting operation? Answer.. the punch force a cantilevered sheet metal section over a die edge to obtain the desired bend angle. A parting operation cuts a slug between adjacent parts in the strip.0) that it must be carried out in two drawing steps.6 What are some of the simple measures used to assess the feasibility of a proposed cup drawing operation? Answer. t/D. In blanking of a round sheet metal part. 20. Answer. The three operations are: (1) cutting. die size = blank size. one in one direction. Springback is the elastic recovery of the sheet metal after bending. In edge bending. (2) tearing. See Article 20. indicate how the clearance should be applied to the punch and die diameters. D = blank diameter. 20. (2) bending. For a blanking operation. it is usually measured as the difference between the final included angle of the bent part and the angle of the tooling used to make the bend.14. two draws are accomplished on the part. 20.Dp)/D. DR = D/Dp.5 What is springback in sheet metal bending? Answer. In redrawing. See Figure 20.20 20.4 Describe V-bending and edge bending. Drawing defects include: (1) wrinkling. In V-bending.9. (2) reduction.4. (3) earing. and (4) surface scratches. Answer. 20. 20. 20. Answer. A cutoff operation separates parts from a strip by shearing one edge of each part in sequence. Measures of drawing feasibility include: (1) drawing ratio. the second in the opposite direction.2 SHEET METALWORKING Identify the three basic types of sheet metalworking operations.3.7 Distinguish between redrawing and reverse drawing. probably with annealing between the steps. In reverse drawing.9 What is stretch forming? Answer.1 20. a simple punch and die which have the included angle are used to bend the part. Answer. Review Questions 20. and Dp = punch diameter. 20.

The Guerin process is a sheet metal forming process that uses a rubber die which flexes to force the sheet metal to take the shape of a form block (punch). (b) modulus of elasticity. 119 . Answer.2 A round sheet metal slug produced in a hole punching operation will have the same diameter as which of the following? (a) die opening. Answer.11 What are the two basic categories of structural frames used in stamping presses? Answer.1.3 The cutting force in a blanking operation depends on which mechanical property of the sheet metal (one best answer)? (a) compressive strength. also called C-frame. (d) tensile strength. See Article 20. and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point.12 What are the relative advantages and disadvantages of mechanical versus hydraulic presses in sheet metalworking? Answer. A major technical problem in tube bending is collapse of the tube walls during the process. Answer. all correct answers must be given. 20. or (c) be unaffected. (c) 20. Answer. since each correct answer is worth 1 point. or (b) punch. 20. Two press frame types are: (1) gap frame. 20. 20.13 What is the Guerin process? Answer. (b) 20. See Section 20. (b) be increased. For each question.Answer. or (e) yield strength.10. (a) 20.6. 20. (a) and (c). Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 17 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct).1.15 Distinguish between roll bending and roll forming. (c) shear strength. (b) shear. Advantage of mechanical presses: faster cycle rates. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point. Roll bending involves the forming of large sheet and plate metal sections into curved forms. Answer. the clearance between punch and die should: (a) be decreased. Roll forming involves feeding a lone strip or coil through rotating rolls so that the shape of the rolls is imparted to the strip. Advantages of hydraulic presses: longer ram strokes and uniform force throughout stroke.4 Sheet metal bending involves which of the following stresses and strains (may be more than one)? (a) compressive. and (2) straight-sided frame. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers. To attain a perfect score on the quiz. and (c) tensile. See Article 20. 20.14 Identify a major technical problem in tube bending? Answer.5.1 As sheet metal stock hardness increases.

(b) and (d).7 20. (a) Which one of the following stamping dies is the most complicated? (a) blanking die. (g) redrawing.2c = 75. c = at = 0.20.8 20. 20.75 mm thick.1 A power shears is used to cut soft cold rolled steel that is 4.2 Thus. The part is circular with diameter = 75.0 mm. Thus. 120 . Answer.5 Which one of the following is the best definition of bend allowance? (a) amount by which the die is larger than the punch.7.285 mm A blanking operation is to be performed on 2. Answer. (b) combination die. (b) electromagnetic forming. Punch diameter = Db . (c) electron beam cutting. (d) r = 65%.075(2. Answer. or (c) greater than. (g) trimming.35.70 mm. (b) amount of elastic recovery experienced by the metal after bending. Die diameter = Db = 75. (c).15 mm. (d) explosive forming. and (e) t/D = 2%. (h) tube bending. (e) progressive die. (c) safety factor used in calculating bending force. (b) open back inclinable. 20. (d) solid gap. (f) hydroforming. Determine the appropriate punch and die sizes for this operation. a = 0. which of the operations are likely to be feasible? (a) DR = 1. (b) equal to. Answer. (d) wiping die for edge bending.10 20. Problems Cutting Operations 20.0 mm thick cold rolled steel (half hard).0 .9 20. c = 0.060. (d) Which of the following are variations of sheet metal bending operations (more than one)? (a) coining. (c).energy-rate forming processes (more than one)? (a) electrochemical machining. and (h) shear spinning.11 Answer. (f) shear spinning. Solution: From Table 20. (c) compound die. The following are measures of feasibility for several proposed cup drawing operations. Holding force in drawing is most likely to be which of the following relative to maximum drawing force? (a) less than. Answer. or (d) length before bending of the straight sheet metal section to be bent.6 20. (c) hemming.1. (e) Which one of the following press types is usually associated with the highest production rates in sheet metal stamping operations? (a) adjustable bed. (b) Which of the following processes are classified as high. (b) DR = 2. and (i).7.0 mm. (c) press brake. Answer. (e) Guerin process.060(4.75) = 0. and (e).075. (d) ironing. (b) flanging.15) = 74. (a). and (e) straight-sided. or (f) V-die. At what clearance should the shears be set to yield an optimum cut? Solution: From Table 20. (b). (e) notching. and (i) tube forming.1. (c) r = 0.2(0. a = 0.0) = 0.

Thus.9766 in.500 inch length dimension = 3.938 lb = 62. L = 65π + 30π = 95π = 298. given that the stainless steel has a shear strength = 62. 1.65 mm F = 350(2.5 mm F = 0.0 + 1.0117) = 1.4.4 A blanking die is to be designed to blank the part outline shown in Figure P20.8 The foreman in the pressworking section comes to you with the problem of a blanking operation that is producing parts with excessive burrs.0)(235.3.955 N 20. What are the possible reasons for the burrs.7(TS)tL t =3.5 + 1.045(3.5) = 193.0 + 1.1. 20. Blanking die: dimensions are the same as for the part in Figure P20. and (b) the punch and die sizes for the punching operation.3 A compound die will be used to blank and punch a large washer out of aluminum alloy sheet stock 3.2. Solution: F = 0. L = πD = 75π = 235.6 Determine the minimum tonnage press to perform the blanking and punching operation in Problem 20.0 in.2(0. L = 3.075.29 mm 20.5 Determine the blanking force required in Problem 20. Solution: From Table 20.0 .0) = 125.00 inch extension widths = 1.144 mm (a) Blanking punch diameter = Db .65) = 164. Determine: (a) the punch and die sizes for the blanking operation.000 lb/in 2.4. a = 0.71 mm Blanking die diameter = Db = 65 mm (b) Punching punch diameter = Dh = 30 mm Punching die diameter = Dh + 2c = 30 + 2(0.2(0. Solution: F = StL t = 2.2(0.874 N 20. Blanking punch: 3. Determine the dimensions of the blanking punch and the die opening.0 + 1.000(5/32)(13.7 Determine the tonnage requirement for the blanking operation in Problem 20.0117) = 0. c = 0.144) = 30. The outside diameter of the washer = 65 mm and the inside diameter = 30 mm.4.0 + 2.20.2c = 65 . 2.4766 in.144) = 64.2 mm thick. Solution: From Table 20. Thus. if the steel has a shear strength = 350 MPa. F = 62. from Problem 20.97 tons 20.5 + 2. top and bottom 1.2(0. c = 0. Solution: F = StL t = 5/32 in.4.0 + 1.0 mm from Problem 20.000 inch width dimension = 2.2) = 0. and what can be done to correct the condition? 121 .0 = 13.1.000 .075(5/32) = 0.0117) = 3.000 inch inset dimension remains the same.2 mm from Problem 20.500 .045.2.2)(298.7(290)(3.0117 in. if the aluminum sheetmetal has a tensile strength = 290 MPa. Assume that blanking and punching occur simultaneously. a = 0. The material is 5/32 inch thick stainless steel (half hard).9766 in.3.

Kba = 0.35)/(4. L = 50 + 18. if the bend radius = 3/16 inch. The bend of 90° is to be made in the middle of the 4-inch length. measure the punch and die clearance to see if it equals the recommended value.5 x 0.2.5 x 4.98 mm Dimensions of starting blank: w = 32 mm.4173 = 4.5 BA = 2π(135/360)(9.75) = 1.Solution: Reasons for excessive burrs: (1) clearance between punch and die is too large for the material and stock thickness.5(4.333 BA = 2π(135/360)(6.11 An L-shaped part is to be bent in a V-bending operation on a press brake from a flat blank 4. (b) Also.0417 in. from the end. Solution: From drawing.9.5 = 105. the length of the neutral axis of the part will be 2(1. Therefore.75) = 27.8122) + 0. Kbf = 1.98 + 37.35 mm. these sides should be measured to the beginning of the bend radius.0. therefore. A’ = 45°. The part drawing is given in Figure P20.48 mm 20.33.37 + 37.87 mm 20.35 + 0.37 mm Dimensions of starting blank: w = 32 mm.000 in. Its length before bending = 4.33 x 0. (c) The operator should set the stop so that the tip of the V-punch contacts the starting blank at a distance = 2.5 + 0.75 mm thick cold rolled steel.3756 in. (2) Punch and die cutting edges are worn (rounded) which has the same effect as excessive clearance. determine the length of the part's neutral axis after the bend. A’ = 45°.10 Solve Problem 20.15625) = 0. If not. (b) Since the metal stretches during bending.0 . Bending 20.35 mm A = 180 . 122 . The stretched length of the bend along the neutral axis will be: B = 2π(90/360)(0.333 x 4.3756) = 1. 20. Kba = 0.1875 + 0. its length will be greater after the bend than before.5 = 115. (2) If the die is not worn.33 B = 2π(90/360)(0. Therefore.75) = 18.A’ = 135°.5 inches that is 5/32 inch thick.15625) = 0. (c) Where should the machine operator set the stop on the press brake relative to the starting length of the part? Solution: (a) R/t = (3/16)/(5/32) = 1. Solution: From drawing. For convenience. If they are. BA = 2π(A/360)(R + Kbat) R/t = (6.9 except that the bend radius R = 6.337. (a) Determine the dimensions of the two equal sides that will result after the bend.000 in.12 Determine the bending force required in Problem 20. therefore. The material has a tensile strength = 620 MPa. Dimensions (lengths) of each end = 0.75) = 2.75 mm A = 180 .4173 in.0. die maker must rebuild the punch and die.5)/(4.0 inches by 1. regrind the faces to sharpen the cutting edges. To correct the problem: (1) Check the punch and die cutting edges to see if they are worn. Determine the blank size required. Solution: For V-bending. R = 4. L = 50 + 27. Kba = 0. R = 6. BA = 2π(A/360)(R + Kbat) R/t = (9.9 A bending operation is to be performed on 4.8122 in.A’ = 135°.9 if the bend is to be performed in a V-die with a die opening width = 38 mm.1875 + 0.

89% (d) Feasibility? No! DR is too large (greater than 2.16 A sheetmetal part 3. Kbf = 0.75 inch.909 N 20.Dp/D = 1 .429 = 42.75) 2/25 = 5.18 A cup is to be drawn in a deep drawing operation. Kbf = 1. (d) Does the operation seem feasible? Solution: (a) DR = D/Dp = 225/100 = 2.25 inches.14 except that the operation is performed using a wiping die with die opening W = 0. 20.17 Derive an expression for the reduction r in drawing as a function of drawing ratio DR. determine: (a) drawing ratio.25 (b) r = (D .14% (d) Feasibility? DR < 2.33.9% (c) t/D = 2/175 = 0. and t/D > 1%. The metal has a tensile strength = 340 MPa.667 N 20. Kbf = 0.18 except that the starting blank size diameter = 175 mm. r < 50%.Dp)/D Drawing ratio DR = D/Dp r = D/D . The material has a tensile strength = 70.25 = 2728 lb.100)/225 = 0.33(70.33. 20.F = Kbf(TS)wt2/D = 1.000)(1. F = Kbf(TS)wt2/D = 1. Kbf = 1. Compute the required force to bend the part. and t/D is too small (less than 1%). F = Kbf(TS)wt2/D = 0.75 = 1128 lb.5% (c) t/D = 2/225 = 0.33(620)(32)(4.5)(5/32) 2/1.14 Determine the bending force required in Problem 20. Solution: For edge-bending in a wiping die.000 lb/in 2.100)/175 = 0. Solution: Reduction r = (D .Dp/D = 1 . Solution: For V-bending.Dp)/D = (225 . 20. The height of the cup is 75 mm and its inside diameter = 100 mm.555 = 55.12 except that the operation is performed using a wiping die with die opening W = 25 mm. F = Kbf(TS)wt2/D = 0.75) 2/38 = 15.33.75 (b) r = (D .13 Solve Problem 20. Solution: For V-bending.33. Solution: For edge-bending in a wiping die.0 mm thick and 20. the operation is not feasible because the 175 mm diameter blank size does not provide sufficient metal to draw a 75 mm cup 123 . r is too large (greater than 50%).33(620)(32)(4.15 Solve Problem 20. The sheetmetal thickness = 2 mm. given that the die opening = 15 mm.0114 = 1.19 Solve Problem 20.0).11 if the bend is to be performed in a V-die with a die opening width W = 1.000)(1. (b) reduction. Solution: (a) DR = D/Dp = 175/100 = 1. and (c) thickness-to-diameter ratio.0089 = 0.Dp)/D = (175 . If the blank diameter = 225 mm.5 mm in a V-die.0 mm long is bent to an included angle = 60° and a bend radius = 7.1/DR 20.0. F = Kbf(TS)wt2/D = 1.33(70. However.33(340)(20)(3) 2/15 = 5426 N Drawing Operations 20.5)(5/32) 2/0.

133 lb. The height (inside dimension) of the cup = 3.7) = π(80)(3)(400)(150/80 . Determine: (a) drawing ratio. Determine: (a) drawing ratio.0.015(180)π(1502 .000 lb/in 2.7) = 166.22 A cup drawing operation is performed in which the inside diameter = 80 mm and the height = 50 mm.667% (c) F = πDpt(TS)(D/Dp .5 inches.0.(Dp + 2.5/4 .58752) Fh = 49. Tensile strength = 400 MPa and a yield strength = 180 MPa for this sheetmetal.875 (b) t/D = 0.015(180)π(1502 .125 + 2 x 0.21 Solve Problem 20.15625) 2) = 0.875 (b) r = (D – Dp)/D = )150 – 80)/80 = 70/150 = 0.0. 20.125/7.(4 + 2. (d) Fh = 0. and the starting blank diameter = 150 mm. This is less than the specified 75 mm height. Punch and die radii = 4 mm.46 (c) F = πDpt(TS)(D/Dp . Solution: (a) DR = 7.56 mm.52 .(Dp + 2. Punch and die radii = 5/32 inch.94.7) = π(4)(0.2 x 3 + 2 x 4) 2) = 0. To compute the cup surface area.0. (c) drawing force.20 except that the stock thickness t = 3/16 inch.2 x 0.7) = 354. (b) reduction.(80 + 2.015(30.1875/7. The actual cup height possible with a 175 mm diameter blank can be determined by comparing surface areas (one side only for convenience) between the cup and the starting blank. Thus.125)(60. Blank area = πD2/4 = π(175) 2/4 = 24. and (d) blankholder force.0. (b) reduction.5 = 0.770 lb (same as previous problem) 20.015Yπ(D2 .62) Fh = 114. and (d) blankholder force.418 N.199 h = 51. The metal has a tensile strength = 60.52 .0 = 1.height. (c) drawing force.053 mm2.7) = 110.0 = 1. Assuming the punch radius = 0.000)(7.942 N 20.125 + 2 x 0. and the starting blank diameter = 7. assuming the corner radius on the punch has a negligible effect in our calculations and there is no earing of the cup.5/4.4.52 .5% (c) F = πDpt(TS)(D/Dp . compute the starting diameter of the blank to complete the 124 . Solution: (a) DR = 7.025 = 2.0 mm.000 lb/in2 and a yield strength = 30.000)π(7.(4 + 2.23 A deep drawing operation is to be performed on a sheetmetal blank that is 1/8 inch thick.16h = 16.770 lb 20.20 A deep drawing operation is performed in which the inside of the cylindrical cup has a diameter = 4.0 inches.7) = π(4)(0.2 x 0.15625) 2) = 49.053 314.756 lb.5/4 .0. Cup area = πDph + πDp2/4 = 100πh + π(100) 2/4 = 100πh + 2500π = 314.015(30. Set surface area of cup = surface are of starting blank: 314.000)π(7.5 inches.000)π(7.015(30.16h + 7854.0 inches and a height = 2. The stock thickness = 1/8 inch. The stock thickness = 3.01667 = 1.5/4.16h + 7854= 24.000)(7.2t + 2Rd)2) Fh = 0. and (2) base. (d) Fh = 0. let us divide the cup into two sections: (1) walls.8 inches and the diameter (inside dimension) = 5.1875)(60.2t + 2Rd)2) Fh = 0.5 = 0. (d) Fh = 0.875 (same as previous problem) (b) t/D = 0. Solution: (a) DR = 150/80 = 1.015Yπ(D2 .

A2 = 4.7855D 2 = 76.375 radius at the base of the cup. with a punch radius Rp = 0.8) + 0.7855 = 18. The surface area of the cup will be divided into three sections: (1) straight walls.48 = 0. the blank size would be slightly smaller.900 D = 137.7855D 2 Setting blank area = cup area: 0. 20. which would reduce DR. Whereas the operation in Problem 20.48 mm.589 in. and (3) base.425) = 53.0. (a) Find the required starting blank size Db.80 .842/0.375 = 4. the zero punch radius makes this operation infeasible anyway. Is the operation feasible (ignoring the fact that the punch radius is too small)? Solution: Use surface area computation.375 = 3.825 D = 9.0. the diameter of the circle described by the centroid is 4.846 mm2.188 = 76. A1 = πDph = π(5.589) = 8.25πD2 = 25. whose height = 3.375 sin 45 = 0.25π(70) 2 = 14.25/0. assuming thickness t remains constant.7855D 2 = 14.375) = 0.0 D = 10.846/0.0 mm stock. Test for feasibility: DR = D/Dp = 10.375 inch.0 = 2. 20. which is less than the limiting ratio of 2.0 = 1. this operation may not be feasible.0 .26%.2 x 0.265 beyond the center of the 0. the operation in the present problem seems feasible.25π(5) 2 = 25. t/D = 3/137. Assume the corner radius on the punch = zero.7855D 2 Setting blank area = cup area: 0.25) 2/4 = 14.978. assuming thickness t remains constant.847 + 14.7855 = 97.25πD2 Setting blank area = cup area: 0.23 except use a punch radius = 0.964. The thickness to diameter ratio t/D = 0.25 in.01.25π D2 = 25.operation with no material left in the flange.425 in. These criteria values indicate that the operation is feasible.48/70 = 1.050/5.23 was not feasible.0126 = 1. With a rounded punch radius.25 A drawing operation is performed on 3.375 in.18%. Test for feasibility: DR = D/Dp = 9. however. Because DR > 2. (b) Is the drawing operation feasible? Solution: Use surface area computation.89/5. which is above the value of 1% used as a criterion of feasibility in cup drawing.780 in.25 = 101. (2) quarter toroid formed by the 0.0)(3. Test for feasibility: DR = D/Dp = 137.188 in2 Total area of cup = 53. which has a diameter = 5. The part is a cylindrical cup with height = 50 mm and inside diameter = 70 mm.24 Solve Problem 20.78π(0.050 in. assuming thickness t remains constant. Solution: Use surface area computation.25π(2 x 0.890 in. The centroid is located at the center of the arc which is 0.125/9. Thus.25 + 2 x 0. Cup area = wall area + base area = πDph + πDp2/4 = π(70)(50) + 0.842 D2 = 76. radius.846 D2 = 14. Blank area = πD2/4 = 0.0218 = 2..265 = 4. Of course. Cup area = wall area + base area = πDph + πDp2/4 = 5π(3.89 = 0.807 in 2 A2 = length of the quarter circle at the base multiplied by the circumference of the circle described by the centroid (Pappus-Guldin Theorem): length of quarter circle = πD/4 = 0. this 125 .842 in 2 Blank area = πD2/4 = 0.847 in 2 A3 = π(4.0.25π in2 Blank area = πD2/4 = 0.807 + 8.

375 radius at the base of the cup.28 mm.071 = 64.1 + 1963. One remedy is to anneal the metal to reduce the directionality of the properties. and still a third has torn sections at its base. The centroid is located at the center of the arc which is 10 sin 45 = 7.8 mm2 Total area of cup = 10. Solution: Cup area = wall area + base area Cup area = πDph + πDp2/4 = π(70)(60) + 0.6 mm2 A2 = length of the quarter circle at the base multiplied by the circumference of the circle described by the centroid (Pappus-Guldin Theorem): length of quarter circle = 2πRp/4 = 0. A1 = πDph = π(70)(50) = 10.142π(15. A2 = 64.31 = 0.0.045 D2 = 17.04%.31 mm.25π(2 x 10) = 15. radius. 20.1 mm2 A3 = π(50) 2/4 = 1963.7855D 2 Setting blank area = cup area: 0.26 except that the corner radius on the punch = 10 mm. The material is anisotropic.045 mm2. the punch radius Rp = 0 would render this operation difficult if not infeasible.10 = 50 mm. this operation is considered infeasible.27 Solve Problem 20.28 The foreman in the drawing section of the shop brings to you several samples of parts that have been drawn in the shop.995. the diameter of the circle described by the centroid is 50 + 2 x 7. another has wrinkles.28/70 = 2.071 beyond the center of the 0.142 mm. The surface area of the cup will be divided into three sections: (1) straight walls.0. this operation is considered infeasible. Also. (2) Wrinkles are caused by compressive buckling of the flange as it is drawn inward to form the cup.25π(70) 2 = 17.26 Solve Problem 20.7855D 2 = 17.7855 = 21.5/0.045/0. There are several possible remedies: (a) increase the t/D ratio by using a thicker gage sheet metal. whose height = 60 . Thus. (2) quarter toroid formed by the 0.7855 = 20.2 x 10 = 50 mm.71 mm.047. Blank area = πD2/4 = 0. This may not be possible since a design change is required. which has a diameter = 70 .7855D 2 = 16.5 D2 = 16.125. and (3) base.0 D = 143.125.10.0204 = 2. 126 . 20.700 D = 147. One has ears. Solution: Use surface area computation.125.5 mm2 Blank area = πD2/4 = 0. Test for feasibility: DR = D/Dp = 143. t/D = 3/147. assuming thickness t remains constant.8 = 16.529. The samples have various defects.31/70 = 2. 20.7855D 2 Setting blank area = cup area: 0.shape would be difficult to draw because the drawing punch would act on the metal like a blanking punch.995.25 except that the height = 60 mm. (b) Increase the blankholder pressure against the work during drawing. What are the causes of each of these defects and what remedies would you propose? Solution: (1) Ears are caused by sheet metal that has directional properties. Since the DR is greater than 2.375 in. as in the previous problem.6 + 3166.71) = 3166. Since the DR is greater than 2. Test for feasibility: DR = D/Dp = 147.

5 = 3.5 inches.1964) = 1.25) + 2(0.0.25) + 2. Tearing can also occur due to a die corner radius that is too small. (a) What is the minimum starting blank diameter that can be used.375) 2] = 0.30. tf = 0.516 + 0..1073 in.5 . V1 = (1.375 inch.1116) 0. (22.1964 in 2 Circle made by centroid sweep has diameter = (2.81 in. Yf = 70.5 .547/0. The drawn cup consists of three sections: (1) cup walls.516 in 3 V3 = (2. A remedy would be to provide a large punch radius.25π[(0. The diameter of 3.361 in.5) 2)/4 = 1.(0.75)/4 = 2.1116 (c) At the final length of 22. D . F = LtYf Yf = 70. (3) base.Dp < 5t D < 5t + Dp = 5(0.601 = 4.764 lb.75 in.125 inch and the width = 10 inches.803) = 17. computed in (a) does not provide sufficient metal to complete the drawing.25) 2 .5 + 2 x 0. the thickness of the sheet metal has been reduced to maintain constant volume.547 D2 = 4.361) = 0. 127 . Other Operations 20.547 in 3 Volume of blank = πD2t/4 = π(0.5 = 22. according to Eq.25/2)sin 45 = 2.375 + 0.1073)(40.29 A cup-shaped part is to be drawn without a blankholder from sheetmetal whose thickness = 0.5 inches. its height = 1. (20. 20. Solution: (a) Use ε = 0.413 lb.2 x 0.75 in.12(20/22.430 + 1.457π(0. remains the same during stretching.459 lb/in2 F = 10(0. and the corner radius at the base = 0.1963D 2 Setting blank volume = cup volume: 0.30 A 20 inch long sheetmetal workpiece is stretched in a stretch forming operation to the dimensions shown in Figure P20.430 in 3 V2 = (cross-section of quarter toroid) x (circle made by sweep of centroid) Cross-section of quarter toroid = 0.30(b). (c) stretching force F.2 x 0.16 D = 4. let us use volume rather than area to determine whether there is sufficient metal in a 3.14)? (b) Does this blank diameter provide sufficient material to complete the cup? Solution: (a) According to Eq.25 inches.25)D2/4 = 0.375)π[(2.0 in.1963D 2 = 4.601 in 3 Total V = V1 + V2 + V3 = 2.459) = 43. to 2(102 + 52)0.361/20) = ln 1.5 . assuming width L = 10 in. Determine: (b) true strain experienced by the metal. The inside diameter of the cup = 2. ε = ln(22.25)/4 = 0.25 = 40.(3) Tearing occurs due to high tensile stresses in the walls of the cup near the base. The metal has a flow curve defined by K = 70.002 as start of yielding. V2 = 2. (2) toroid at base.000 lb/in 2 and n = 0.000(0.803 lb/in2 F = (10)(0.002) 0.1963 = 23. (b) After stretching.375 + 0.000(0. (a) Find the stretching force F required near the beginning of the operation when yielding first occurs.(2.361 in.118 = 0.25 = 14.25.375) 2π(0. the length of the piece is increased from 20.457 in.25) 2] . The thickness of the beginning stock t = 0. (b) Because the sheet metal is rather thick.14).12)(14.125π(2.75 inch blank diameter. and (d) die force Fdie at the very end when the part is formed as indicated in Figure P20.

(d) Fdie = 2F sin A A = tan-1(5/10) = 26.836 lb. Shear strain γ = cot 30 = 1. 128 .4 = 0. determine: (a) the wall thickness along the cone-shaped portion. What can be done to correct the condition? Solution: Possible solutions: (1) Use a mandrel to prevent collapsing of tube wall.31 were made by shear spinning.34 A 75 mm diameter tube is bent into a rather complex shape with a series of simple tube bending operations.50 = 50% 20. The wall thickness on the tube = 4.413) sin 26. The tubes will be used to deliver fluids in a chemical plant.5 = 175 mm Starting diameter = 2(175) = 350 mm 20. (3) Pack sand into the tube. 20.4 – 1.31 Determine the starting disk diameter required to spin the part in Figure P20. 20. Solution: Based on sidewise displacement of metal through a shear angle of 30°. (2) Request the designer to increase the bend radius to 3D = 225 mm. the walls of the tube are flattening badly. Solution: (a) tf = t sin α = (2.4(0.32 If the part illustrated in Figure P20. radius = 25 + (100 .33 Determine the shear strain that is experienced by the material that is shear spun in Problem 20.25)/sin 30 = 25 + 75/0.5) = 1. In one of the bends where the bend radius is 125 mm.732.57° Fdie = 2( 43.57 = 38.2 mm (b) r = (t . Solution: From part drawing.4)sin 30 = 2.32. The sand will act as an internal flexible mandrel to support the tube wall.75 mm. and (b) the spinning reduction r.tf)/t = (2. The starting thickness = 2.4 mm.2)/2.31 using a conventional spinning operation.

(2) continuous. A finishing operation follows roughing and is used to achieve the final geometry and surface finish.1 What distinguishes machining from other manufacturing processes? Answer. What are the two basic categories of cutting tools in machining? Give an example of a machining operation that uses each of the tooling types. A roughing operation is used to remove large amounts of material rapidly and to produce a part geometry close to the desired shape.7 What is a machine tool? Answer. in which the chip is formed into separated segments. Answer. 129 . Answer. The two categories are: (1) single -point tools. The three common machining processes are: (1) turning. Orthogonal cutting involves the use of a wedge. and (3) milling.2 Identify some of the reasons why machining is commercially and technologically important. 21. and (4) it can create good surface finishes.4 Name the three most common machining processes. In machining. The three types are: (1) discontinuous. 21. used in operations such as milling and drilling. depth of cut.5 Identify the parameters of a machining operation that are included within the scope of cutting conditions. 21. Cutting conditions include: speed. (2) drilling.3 21. in which the chip does not segment and is formed from a ductile metal.21 THEORY OF METAL MACHINING Review Questions 21. 21. material is removed from the workpart so that the remaining material is the desired part geometry. 21.9 Name and briefly describe the three types of chips that occur in metal cutting.10 Describe in words what the Merchant equation tells us.6 Define the difference between roughing and finishing operations in machining. A machine tool can be defined as a power-driven machine that positions and moves a tool relative to the work to accomplish machining or other metal shaping process. and (3) continuous with built-up edge. 21. 21. feed. (3) it can achieve closer tolerances than most other processes. and (2) multiple-edge cutting tools. Answer. which is the same as (2) except that friction at the tool-chip interface causes adhesion of the work material to the tool rake face. (2) its capability to produce a variety of geometries to a part. used in operations such as turning and boring. Answer. and whether or not a cutting fluid is used. The reasons include: (1) its applicability to most materials. Answer.8 What is an orthogonal cutting operation? Answer.shaped tool in which the cutting edge is perpendicular to the direction of speed motion into the work material. 21. Answer.

(b) Which of the three types of chip would be expected in a turning operation conducted at low cutting speeds on a brittle work material (one answer)? (a) continuous. low f and d.0 in3/min. and d. (b) flat plane. (b) to/tc. or (d) to/w. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point. (c) milling. (d) screw threads.3 If the cutting conditions in a turning operation are v = 300 ft/min. or (d) turning. which one of the following is the material removal rate? (a) 0.100 inch. (b) high v.2 With which one of the following geometric forms is the drilling operation most closely associated? (a) external cylinder. or (d) 3. (d) 21. A tool-chip thermocouple is comprised of the tool and chip as the two dissimilar (metallic) materials forming the thermocouple junction.010 in/rev.6 in 3/min.6 The chip thickness ratio is which one of the following? (a) tc/to. since each correct answer is worth 1 point. To attain a perfect score on the quiz. (d) 21. and d = 0.Answer.13 What is a tool-chip thermocouple? Answer.4 A roughing operation generally involves which one of the following combinations of cutting conditions? (a) high v.025 in 3/min.12 What does the term size effect mean in metal cutting? Answer. Specific energy is the amount of energy required to remove a unit volume of the work material. For each question. (c) 21. Answer.11 What is the specific energy in metal machining? Answer. (b) continuous with built-up edge. The Merchant equation states that the shear plane angle increases when rake angle is increased and friction angle is decreased.3 in 3/min. (c) 21. 21. 21. (c) round hole. f. Answer. 21. (c) f/d. or (e) sphere. (c) 3. The size effect refers to the fact that the specific energy increases as the cross-section area of the chip (to x w) decreases. or (d) low v. f. all correct answers must be given. or (c) discontinuous. 21. and d. (b) drilling. (b) 0. high f and d. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers. f = 0. Answer. (c) low v.5 21. Answer.1 A lathe is used to perform which of the following machining operations (one best answer)? (a) broaching. an emf is emitted from the junction which can be measured to indicate cutting temperature. as the tool-chip interface heats up during cutting. Answer. Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 11 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct). 130 . and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point.

(b) 0.85 . (21.30/0.4286 φ = tan-1(.210 = 2.848 + 0. Solution: (a) r = to/tc = 0.12 mm.199 21. Assuming that the friction angle remains the same. Answer.2φ β = 90 + 15 – 2(26. Eq.85°. the tool has a rake angle = -5°.37° ° (b) Shear strain γ = cot 22. (c) 21. (c) decrease in shear plane angle. (d) increase in cutting temperature.975 + 0. Using the Merchant Equation. (b) brass. (b) and (e).35 . all other factors remaining the same (more than one)? (a) decrease in friction angle.3°.0) = 2.85 + tan (26. or (c) 0. (c) cast iron. (c) 21.028 = 0.85) = 51. Solution: (a) r = to/tc = 0.010 inch. Answer.2 In Problem 21.30/tan 19.3 In an orthogonal cutting operation.5062) = 26. Calculate (a) the shear plane angle and (b) the shear strain for the operation.37 – (-5)) = 2.65 = 0.Answer.4615 sin 15)) = tan-1(.15) = 1. Answer. φ = 45 + 0/2 – 51. rearranging.1 In an orthogonal cutting operation. determine (a) the shear plane angle.30 mm and the cut yields a deformed chip thickness = 0.3/2 = 19.025 inch. Solution: From Problem 21.028 in. (b) decrease in power requirements.351 = 3.3° Now.8 Which of the following metals would usually have the lowest unit horsepower (one answer)? (a) aluminum. The chip thickness before the cut = 0.012 in and the cut yields a deformed chip thickness = 0. (b) Problems Chip Formation and Forces in Machining 21..4286 sin -5)) = tan-1(.65 mm.16): φ = 45 + α/2 . Calculate (a) the shear plane angle and (b) the shear strain for the operation. β = 2(45) + α . The chip thickness before the cut = 0. the tool has a rake angle = 15°.10 Which of the following cutting conditions has the strongest effect on cutting temperature? (a) feed or (b) speed.518 = 2.35 + tan (19.4615 φ = tan-1(.9 For which one of the following values of chip thickness before the cut to would you expect the specific energy to be the greatest? (a) 0. with α = 0 and β remaining the same at 51.35 = 0. (a) 21. or (d) steel.4615 cos 15/(1 .430 + 0. α = 15° and φ = 26.4286 cos -5/(1 . an increase in rake angle would have which of the following results.4116) = 22.85° ° (b) Shear strain γ = cot 26. Answer. or (e) increase in shear plane angle. (b) the chip thickness.β/2.1.012/0.37 + tan (22.185 21..1.948 131 .35° ° (b) Chip thickness at α = 0: tc = to/tan φ = 0.854 mm (c) Shear strain γ = cot 19. and (c) the shear strain for the operation. suppose the rake angle were changed to α = 0°. 21.7 According to the Merchant equation.

022 in.4 .1° µ = tan 54.3/8.94° Fs = 300 cos 22.38 = 789. and the chip thickness ratio = 0.0) = 1500 mm3/s 21. (d) the coefficient of friction. Determine (a) the shear strength of the work material and (b) the coefficient of friction in the operation. (b) the shear angle.6 The cutting force and thrust force have been measured in an orthogonal cutting operation: Fc = 300 lb and Ft = 291 lb.92 21.94 = 162.017 + 0.015)(0.4959) = 26. the width of the cut = 0.4. 132 .8 .38 cos 5/(1 .4233) = 22.0/.25)(3. f = 0.38° Fs = 1470 cos 21.6194) = 31.5 = 0.54 mm. The tool rake angle = 10° which produces a deformed chip thickness tc = 0.463 sin 10)) = tan-1(.25 mm.β/2. and the chip thickness ratio = 0. (b) shear strain.4 sin 10)) = tan-1(.000 lb/in 2.167 lb/in2.012/. (c) the thrust force. Determine (a) the shear strength of the work material and (b) the coefficient of friction in the operation. β = 2(45) + α .88 (e) γ = cot 31.6.0 mm. Determine: (a) the chip thickness after the cut.4° ° (b) γ = cot 26.2(31.5° ° (d) µ = tan 41.38) = 52.6)(5.2φ β = 90 + 5 – 2(21.5 The cutting force and thrust force in an orthogonal cutting operation are: Fc = 1470 N and Ft = 1589 N.291 21.38 sin 5)) = tan-1(0.3 N As = (0. (b) the cutting force.23 mm2 S = 789.8 + tan (31.0 mm.38 = 3.55 = 0.38.311 (c) MRR = (2 m/s x 103 mm/m)(0.94 ..15) = 1.9 N/mm2 = 95. The chip thickness ratio is measured after the cut to be 0. Solution: φ = tan-1(0. and (c) material removal rate.463 cos 10/(1 .294 = 2. and (e) the shear strain.8 The orthogonal cutting operation described in previous Problem 21. the width of the cut = 5.301 = 1.3916) = 21.9 lb.100 in. The rake angle = 10°.0077 = 21. As = (0.9/0.8° ° (c) β = 2(45) + 15 .9 MPa (b) φ = 45 + α/2 . rearranging.200 in.10) = 2.24 = 1.38 – 1589 sin 21.2(22. β = 2(45) + 10 .4 cos 10/(1 .21.0.463 φ = tan-1(.1 = 1.0)/sin 21.55 sin 15)) = tan-1(..55 cos 15/(1 .23 = 95.94 = 0. Use the orthogonal cutting model as an approximation of the turning process.54 = 0.94) = 54. Solution: (a) r = to/tc = 0. and d = 3.25/0.012 in and w = 0.291sin 22.55.4 The cutting conditions in a turning operation are: v = 2 m/s. to = 0.015. (c) the friction angle. and (d) the friction force. compute: (a) the shear force.615 + 0. Based on your answers to the previous problem.3646 = 8.0. Solution: (a) φ = tan-1(0.8) = 41.7 An orthogonal cutting operation is performed using a rake angle of 15°. tc = to/r = 0.38 21.4 + tan (26.24° µ = tan 52. Determine: (a) shear plane angle.0077 in 2 S = 162. Solution: (a) r = to/tc.7 involves a work material whose shear strength is 40. the chip thickness before the cut = 0. The rake angle = 5°.2)/sin 22. the chip thickness before the cut = 0. (b) φ = tan-1(.

(c) Ft = 91. and d = 0. (c) cutting force and thrust force.2(29. to = 0. The shear strength of the work material = 40.000 lb/in 2.5° ° (b) As = (0. and (e) the shear strain. Solution: (a) r = to/tc.(-5)) = 665 lb.20)/cos (29.2 sin (41. Determine: (a) the chip thickness after the cut.(-5))/cos (18. Fs = AsS = 0.42. (b) Fc = 91.5 -15) = 155 lb.5668) = 29. determine: (a) the shear plane angle.010 in/rev.8 = 0.(-5)) = 870 lb.77.4 sin -5)) = tan-1(0. The rake angle on the tool in the direction of chip flow = 10°.15)/sin 29.9 In an orthogonal cutting operation. 21.7° ° (b) As = (0.00702 in 2.2 cos 15 = 115 lb.012)(0.5 .35 cos -5/(1 .35. (b) the shear angle.5 + 50.1° ° (c) β = 2(45) + (-5) .5 mm (b) φ = tan-1(.597 + 0. (c) β = 2(45) + (-5) .35 sin -5)) = tan-1(0. (d) F = 665 sin (-5) . Fs = AsS = 0.6° Fc = 351 cos (47. (c) the friction angle.(-5))/cos (18. (b) the shear force.4 cos -5/(1 .4.9 -20) = 238 lb. the rake angle = -5°. (c) β = 2(45) + 20 . Determine: (a) the shear plane angle..2 lb.00702(50. (b) the shear force.12 A turning operation is performed using the following cutting conditions: v = 300 ft/min. tc = to/r = 0.11 Solve the previous problem except that the rake angle has been changed to -5° and the resulting chip thickness ratio = 0. and width of cut = 0.150 in.9° Fc = 228 cos (50.2(18.9 . Ft = 228 sin (50.015 in.0028(40.100 in.6 . Ft = 351 sin (47.015)(0.00228 in 2.09 21.50.000) = 228 lb.8 + tan (31. (d) F = 155 sin 15 .15) = 2.8 .238 cos 20 = 359 lb.10 The shear strength of a certain work material = 50.5 -15) = 77.489 = 3.6 .8 + 41.9 -20) = 397 lb.8 + 41.5) = 50. Fs = AsS = 0.9 .00456 in 2.3851) = 21.2 lb. chip thickness before the cut = 0. (c) cutting force and feed force. and (d) friction force.8) = 42. (d) the coefficient of friction.5 + 50.10)/sin 31.2 cos (41. The resulting chip thickness ratio = 0.15)/cos (31.2(21. Solution: (a) φ = tan-1(. 21.00456(50.. f = 0.870 cos (-5) = 808 lb.4 = 0.000 lb/in 2.7) = 47.93 (e) γ = cot 31. 133 .5 sin 20)) = tan-1(0.7 = 0.6 . The chip ratio r = 0.Solution: (a) As = (0.2/.20)/cos (29.000) = 351 lb.7 + 47. 21.15)/cos (31. Using the orthogonal model as an approximation of turning.000) = 91..5 .2 mm and w = 4.7 + 47. (d) F = 397 sin 20 .5 cos 20/(1 .9 = 0.9° ° (d) µ = tan 42. Solution: (a) φ = tan-1(. resulting in a chip ratio = 0.3384) = 18.6 .015)(0.5 = 0.15)/sin 18.0 mm. An orthogonal cutting operation is performed using a tool with a rake angle = 20° at the following cutting conditions: Speed = 100 ft/min.

1 . (c) β = 2(45) + 7 .2 lb.0 + 51. (c) cutting force and feed force. f = 0. γ = cot φ + tan (φ .Solution: (a) φ = tan-1(.100 in.9 + 41.2(27.1 . r cos (φ .2(22.E.D.000 lb/in 2.0)/sin 27.2)(3.5 sin 7)) = tan-1(0.10)/cos (24. Eq.9° ° As = (0.9° Fc = 98. Solution: φ = tan-1(0.9 .2): r = to/tc = sin φ/cos (φ . N.r sin α) Q.10)/cos (22. 134 . Fs = AsS = 0. Using the orthogonal model as an approximation of turning. (c) β = 2(45) + 10 .2 . (21.2 .010)(0. (21.12) in the text) using the force diagram of Figure 21.4233) = 22. and Fn (Eqs.2° Fc = 321 cos (41.42 sin 10)) = tan-1(0. we obtain r cos α/tan φ + r sin α = 1 r cos α/tan φ = 1 .2) and Figure 21.0 mm.α) Rearranging.010 in/rev and a depth of cut = 0.17 Derive the force equations for F.5(b).5 cos 7/(1 . 21.14 A turning operation is made with a rake angle of 10°. Fs = AsS = 1.6.2(24.1 .9) through (21.D. and rake angle = 7° in the direction of chip flow.284 mm2.4 cos 10/(1 .9 + 54. Eq.00257 in 2.10)/cos (22. Ft = 128 sin (54..42 cos 10/(1 .5. Determine the cutting force and the feed force. (21.E.4462) = 24. The resulting chip ratio = 0.4) is derived from Figure 21. Solution: Begin with the definition of the chip ratio.0 + 51. γ = AC/BD = (AD + DC)/BD = AD/BD + DC/BD AD/BD = cot φ and DC/BD = tan (φ .40.0 = 0.000) = 128 lb.3) is derived from the definition of chip ratio.2 .α) = cos φ cos α + sin φ sin α r (cos φ cos α + sin φ sin α) = sin φ Dividing both sides by sin φ.11.10)/cos (24.0° ° (b) As = (0.00256(50. Ff = 321 sin (41.00245(40.r sin α Rearranging.284(250) = 321 N. Solution: In the figure. The shear strength of the work material is known to be 50.5285) = 27. Solution: (a) φ = tan-1(. The following conditions are used: v = 3.10) = 161 lb.2 sin (51. β = 2(45) + 10 .0) = 51.2 cos (51.α) Q. 21.15 Show how Eq.0.9° ° (b) As = (0. Use the orthogonal cutting model as an approximation of the turning process.10) = 229 lb.9 . 21. Fs = AsS = 0. tan φ = r cos α/(1 .0 m/s. (21.1° Fc = 128 cos (54. and the chip thickness ratio is measured after the cut to be 0.010)(0. a feed of 0.9 = 1. 21.9 .16 Show how Eq.10) = 236 lb.00245 in 2.4 sin 10)) = tan-1(0.10)/sin 22.7) = 568 N. 21.9 + 54. Fs.10)/sin 24.α) Thus. (21.7)/cos (27.9) = 41..9 . Ft = 98.9 + 41.000) = 98. determine: (a) the shear plane angle.20 mm/rev. d = 3.2 .1 .13 Turning is performed on a work material with shear strength of 250 MPa.10) = 179 lb. (b) the shear force.9 = 0.9) = 54.α) = sin φ Using the trigonometric identity cos(φ .7)/cos (27.7) = 387 N.

20 In a turning operation on aluminum.3 to obtain the appropriate unit horsepower value.750 J/s = 29. How much power will the lathe draw in performing this operation if its mechanical efficiency = 90%.000 mm3/min = 12. the cutting speed = 200 m/min.11.5 mm.E.5 mm) = 750.9): In Figure 23.8 N-m/mm3 = 2.” Using Figure 21.020 in/rev.18.11.50 mm. Thus. Ft now makes an angle α with F. The arrowhead of Ft will now be at the base of the translated base of N. compute the lathe power requirements if feed = 0. Power and Energy in Machining 21. construct a line from the intersection of Ft and Fc that is perpendicular to and intersects with vector Fn.50 mm/rev.18 In a turning operation on stainless steel with hardness = 200 HB.75 kW Accounting for mechanical efficiency. Pg = 17. cutting conditions are as follows: v = 900 ft/min. correction factor = 0. for f = 0. and from the intersection of Ft and Fc construct a line that is perpendicular to vector Fs. The extended Fs vector is related to Fc as Fc cos φ.5 kW Accounting for mechanical efficiency. Next.5/0. Hence.11. Use Table 21. Solution: This is the same basic problem as the previous.14. (21. (21.3.D. Hence. U = 2. From Table 21. f = 0. feed = 0.8 J/mm3. With the correction factor. Q. translate vector Ft to the right and downward at an angle α until its base is at the arrowhead of F. The vector F is divided into two line segments.D.38 J/mm3.E.Ft sin φ Q.D.11): In Figure 23.50 mm)(7. translate vector N vertically upward until it coincides with the previously constructed line.750 W = 29. The distance along the previously constructed line between the Ft arrowhead (base of translated N vector) and F is Ft sinα.90 = 33. if the lathe has a mechanical efficiency = 87%? Use Table 21.44 kW 21.500 W = 17. Vector Fn is now divided into two line segments.25 mm)(7.11.25 mm/rev. F = Fc sin α + Ft cos α.500 mm3/s P c = (12. one of which = Ft cos φ and the other = Fc sin φ. A right triangle now exists in which Fc is the hypotenuse and the two sides are (1) the extended Fs vector and (2) the constructed line that runs between Fs and the intersection of Fc and Ft.90 = 19. and depth of cut = 7.000 mm3/min = 6250 mm3/s P c = (6250 mm3/s)(2.E. The constructed line is at an angle α with Fc.8 J/mm3 MRR = vfd = (200 m/min)(103 mm/m)(0.06 kW 21.38 J/mm3) = 29. Eq.85.E.Solution: Eq.19 In previous Problem 21. one of which = Fc sin α and the other = Ft cos α.85) = 2. MRR = vfd = (200 m/min)(103 mm/m)(0.5 mm) = 375. Solution: From Table 21. and d = 0. whose length = Fc cos α. Eq. except that a correction must be made for the “size effect. Pg = 29.3 to obtain the appropriate specific energy value.10): In Figure 23. Thus Fs (original) = Fc cos φ .8 J/mm3) = 17.75/0.D.500 J/s = 17.Ft sin α Q. U = 2. Fn = Fc sin φ + Ft cos φ Q. extend vector Fs in the opposite direction of its arrowhead.8(0. U = 2. (21. What horsepower is required of the drive motor. construct a line starting at the intersection of Ft and Fc that is perpendicular to the friction force F. The length difference between the extended Fs vector and the original Fs vector is Ft sin φ. N = Fc cos α .12): In Figure 23.250 in.3. (21. 135 .500 mm3/s)(2. Eq.

7 and 21. HPc = (7. determine the maximum feed that can be set for this operation.25 hp/(in 3/min) for aluminum. 136 .52 N-m/mm3 and an iterative calculation procedure is required to match the unit power value with the feed.6 hp/(in 3/min) MRR = vfd = 400 ft/min(12 in.100) = 2. correction factor = 0. thus U = 2.3 to obtain the appropriate unit horsepower value.000 f f = 22.446 mm/rev One more iteration using the correction factor yields a value around f = 0.6 hp/(in 3/min)) = 11.24 For Problem 21.500 = 50. HPg = HP/E MRR = vfd = 900 x 12(.500 = 56. Since feed is greater than 0.01 in.2 in. The work material is an alloy steel whose hardness is in the range 360 to 380 HB. the job can be accomplished on the 20 hp lathe.14..9.150 in. (b) MRR = vfd = (200 x 12)(0.88 in. Solution: From Table 21. Based on these values. (c) the unit horsepower and specific energy for the work material in this operation.) = 7.250) = 54 in 3/min HPc = 0.326 hp/(in.500W Required power Pc = (2. Determine: (a) the horsepower consumed by the turning operation. 21.400 f f = 22. Using the appropriate specific energy value from Table 21.3. U = 2.500/56. for this feed.000 = 0.Solution: From Table 21. taking the correction factor into account. The lathe motor is rated at 25 kW.23 Suppose the cutting speed in Problems 21.22 A turning operation is to be performed on a 20 hp lathe with efficiency = 90%.94 hp. Solution: From Table 21.8 N-m/mm3)( 20 x 103) f = 56. the lathe has a mechanical efficiency = 0. Fc = 155 lb.88 = 0.-lb/in3. (b) the horsepower that must be generated by the lathe.45 mm/rev.52 hp required. Required Pc = (2.8 N-m/mm3 = 2. and its mechanical efficiency = 90%. 3/min. 3/min) (d) U = 155(200)/2./ft)(0.90(20) = 18 hp Since available horsepower exceeds required horsepower.8.94/2.8(0.0 mm.12. HPc = 155(200)/33.8 J/mm3 MRR = vfd = (200 m/min)(103 mm/m)(6 mm)f = 1200(103)f mm3/min = 20(103)f mm3/s Available power Pc = Pg E = 25(103)(0. (c) the unit horsepower (hp-min/(in3). HPu = 0.3. 3/min.2/0.90) = 22. 22.2 hp HPg = 12.000 = 0. and depth of cut = 0.5 (103) = 22. 21.2 in3/min)(1. 21.400 = 0.000 f Setting available power = required power.25)(54) = 12. HPu = 1. For f = 0.9(0.764 ft-lb/in3 = 129.90) = 2.88 = 10.80.8 is v = 200 ft/min. HPc = HPu x MRR.150 in.9. 22.167 in.0 hp 21. Solution: (a) From Problem 21.010 in/rev in the table.87 = 14.400 f Again setting available power = required power. can the job be performed on the 20 hp lathe? Use Table 21.500/50.3. From your answers to those problems.)(0. and (d) the specific energy (in-lb/in3). the cutting speed is set at 200 m/min and depth of cut = 6. At efficiency E = 90%.3/min.020)(0.21 In a turning operation on plain carbon steel whose Brinell hardness = 275 HB.14 = 0. feed = 0. (c) HPu = 0.010 in/rev.012)(0.52)(20 x 103) f = 50. available horsepower = 0. Cutting conditions are: v = 400 ft/min. find: (a) the horsepower consumed in the operation. (b) the metal removal rate in in. correction factor in Figure 21.020 in/rev = to.402 mm (this should be interpreted as mm/rev for a turning operation) However.3. a correction factor must be applied from Figure 21.

7)(3.8 in 3/min HPc = 1.25 mm/rev in the table.16 hp (b) HPg = 2.9)(103) = 1. HPu = 0.9(103) mm3/s.25(1.3. U = 0.010 in/rev in the table. For f = 0.29 A turning operation is performed on an engine lathe using a tool with zero rake angle in the direction of chip flow.63 hp.010 in/rev.6 m/s.8 = 2.01)(0. P c = U x MRR = 0. 21.7 N-m/mm3 for aluminum.0 hp/(in 3/min) for stainless steel.000 = 1.25)(2.005)(0.7 N-m/mm3 for aluminum. (b) the horsepower that must be generated by the lathe. Based on the specific energy values in Table 21.80.010)(0. Since feed is lower than 0.16/0.63/3.6 = 0.0 mm.8) = 2.65 hp 21.25 hp (b) HPg = 2.24 except that the feed f = 0.14. and d = 0.005 in/rev = to.0)(1. Fc = 179 lb.75 mm/rev = to.6 = 179. f = 0. in Watts. determine: (a) the horsepower consumed by the turning operation. correction factor = 0. For f = 0. The lathe has a mechanical efficiency = 0. MRR = vfd = 5.6(3. the metal removal rate is about 40% greater. HPc = HPu x MRR MRR = vfd = 400 x 12(.0) = 3. Solution: (a) From Table 21. Solution: (a) From Table 21.075 in. f = 0.8 = 2450 W.3(103)(. P c = U x MRR = 0. Note that although the power used in this operation is virtually the same as in the previous problem.Solution: (a) From Problem 21.075) = 1. HPc = 179(300)/33.0) = 2.96(103) n-m/s = 1960 W.63/0.25 mm/rev. Since feed is greater than 0.3.27 A turning operation is carried out on aluminum (100 BHN).04 hp (c) MRR = (300 x 12)(0.8(0. f = 0. MRR = vfd = 1.75)(4.6 in3/min.85. 21.6 in 3/min HPc = 0.6(103)(. the cutting conditions are: v = 400 ft/min.100) = 3. a correction factor must be applied from Figure 21. HPu = 1.005 in/rev and the work material is stainless steel (Brinell Hardness = 225 HB).12.97(103) n-m/s = 1970 W.85.28 Solve Problem 21.54 hp 21.000 in-lb/in3. Solution: (a) From Table 21. (b) Gross power Pg = 1970/0.8 = 2460 W. correction factor = 1.3. HPu = 1. 21.27 but with the following changes: v = 1.85 = 2. HPc = HPu x MRR MRR = 400 x 12(. a correction factor must be applied from Figure 21. (b) Gross power Pg = 1960/0. U = 0.25 In a turning operation on low carbon steel (175 BHN).7(2. The work material is an alloy steel with hardness = 325 Brinell hardness. determine: (a) the cutting power and (b) the gross power in the turning operation.3.75 mm/rev.0 mm.6) = 2. The lathe has a mechanical efficiency = 0. Solution: (a) From Table 21.26 Solve Problem 21. 137 .14. (b) HPg = 1.3 m/s.075) = 3. the cutting conditions are: v = 5.25/0. and d = 2. and d = 4.25.8)(103) = 1.8(103) mm3/s.85 = 2.453 hp/(in3/min) U = 179(300 x 12)/3.3.3. Based on the unit horsepower values in Table 21.6 hp/(in 3/min) for low carbon steel.

7 g/cm3. correction factor = 0. Fc = 47.3/300) = 913 lb. The cutting force is measured at Fc = 1100 N.00119) = 47. After the cut. feed = 0.0075(0.5 lb. HPc = HPu x MRR.97(10-3) J/mm3-°C K = 0.075) = 5. v = 500 rev/min(6π/12 ft/rev) = 785 ft/min. The chip thickness after the cut is 0.1 J/g-C. compute your best estimate of the cutting force for this turning operation.6 lb.3 mm. 21.4 .015 in/rev.0 in diameter.015 in.0 mm.45.3/0.95.0075/0.9(2.010 in. The machine settings are: rotational speed = 500 rev/min.75 in 3/min HPc = 0. The shear strength of the work = 40. (b) the unit horsepower for this material under these conditions.4 x 1.0075 in/rev instead of 0. density = 2.125) = 6.3)(6.3° β = 2(45) + 10 -2(28. Solution: (a) Must find Fc and v to determine HP.010 in/rev.000 = 1. The rake angle of the tool = 10°.8 hp (b) HPc = vFc/33.3 hp HPg = 8.015 in/rev = to.3 = 0. HPu = 1.000 (8.375/1.5 sin 10)) = tan-1 (0. The following cutting conditions are used: v = 4. compute the horsepower at the drive motor.833 N-m/mm3 T = 20 + (0.9 cm2/s = 90 mm2/s U = 1100 N x 4 m/s/(4000 mm/s x 0.075)/sin 28. HPg = HP/E MRR = 300 x 12(. the depth of cut is 0.0075 in/rev.3 for a to of 0.010 in/rev in the table.95(1.375 hp/(in3/min) (c) Correction factor = 1.000(0.The feed is .4 .3 mm x 2 mm) = 1.6(785)/33.97(10-3) J/mm3-C)(4000 mm/s x 0.15 from Fig. and (c) the unit horsepower as it would be listed in Table 21. Since feed is greater than 0. a correction factor must be applied from Figure 21. determine the cutting temperature if the ambient temperature = 20°C. r = 0.5 cos(43.833 N-m/mm3/2.125 in and the cutting speed is 300 ft/min.0 m/s.000 lb/in2.1 J/g-°C) = 2.15 = 0.97 J/cm3-°C = 2.9 cm2/s. to = 0. Using Cook's equation.3. Taking this correction factor into account. the chip thickness ratio is measured to be 0. (b) Based on horsepower. Determine: (a) the horsepower required in the operation. HPu = 0.333 = 20 + 246.75) = 8.3 for a feed f = 0.99/5. (b) MRR = 785 x 12(0.000. 21.015 = 0. For f = 0.14 to account for the fact that f = 0.37) = 20° + 585° = 605° C ° 138 . and w = 2.075 in. if the lathe has an efficiency = 85%.5392) = 28.3 in 3/min.326 hp/(in3/min) as it would appear in Table 21. Cutting Temperature 21. (a) Using the appropriate value of specific energy from Table 21. Solution: ρC = (2.30 A lathe performs a turning operation on a workpiece of 6.3 mm/90 mm2/s)0.00119 in 2 Fs = 40.85 = 9. and depth = 0.333 T = 20 + (0.3.99 hp.3 = 0.0075)(0.5 cos 10/(1 .0.10) = 83.14.10)/cos(28.7 g/cm3)(1. HP = 83.3) = 43.010 in/rev. HPu = 1.015)(0. Fc = 33.5 φ = tan-1(0.33) . Rearranging.3 + 43.3 hp/(in 3/min) for alloy steel of the specified hardness.000 (HP/v) = 33.2469 x 103 C)(13.4° As = 0. Use the orthogonal cutting model as an approximation of the turning process. Solution: (a) From Table 21.31 Orthogonal cutting is performed on a metal whose mass specific heat = 1. Use the orthogonal cutting model as an approximation of the turning process. and thermal diffusivity = 0.

ρ = 7.140 in 2/sec.046 J/s-mm-°C /[(7. correction factor = 1. U = 2.667) 0.33 An orthogonal cutting operation is performed on a certain metal whose volumetric specific heat = 110 in-lb/in3-F. Thus.14) 0.100) = 1800 in/min = 30 in/sec U = Fcv/vtow = 300(30)/(30 x 0.3.87(10-3) g/mm3 From Table 4.010 in and width of cut = 0.333 = T = 70 + (0.1) = 440.000(1.18) 0.06)0.8 in 3/min.008/0.3 and compute the cutting temperature by means of the Cook equation for a turning operation in which the following cutting conditions are used: speed v = 300 ft/min.25 mm T = 0. T = 70 + (0.046 J/s-mm-°C From Eq.21. 1 cal = 4.0 mm. thermal conductivity k = 0.14) 0. Solution: From Table 21.7) = 0.62(10-3) J/mm3-°C From Table 4. and w = 0.3. and thermal diffusivity = 0. Solution: MRR = vtow. The cutting force in the process = 300 lb. Solution: v = 350 ft/min x 12 in/ft/60 sec/min.000 in-lb/in 3.62(10-3)(3(103)(0. C = 0. U for alloy steel (275 BHN) = 400. to = f = 0.87 x 10-3 g/mm3)(0.4 x 250.8/(0.000 in-lb/in 3.333 = 70 + (0.333 = 70 + 1282 = 1352 ° F 21. Using values of thermal properties found in the tables and definitions of Section 4. Assume ambient temperature = 70°F.100) = 250.333 = 70 + 1147 = 1217 ° F 139 . = 70 in/sec. Assume ambient temperature = 20°C. compute an estimate of cutting temperature using the Cook equation.18 in 2/sec and a volumetric specific heat = 124 in-lb/in3 F.4 x 300.32 Consider a turning operation performed on steel whose hardness = 225 HB at a speed = 3. T = 70 + (0.34 It is desired to estimate the cutting temperature for a certain alloy steel whose hardness = 275 Brinell. use the Cook formula to compute the cutting temperature in the operation given that ambient temperature = 70°F. The following cutting conditions are used: v = 350 ft/min.46 J/g-°C) = 3.309(103)(59.8 J/mm3 From Table 4.1. Using Cook's equation.333 = 70 + (0.000/124)(30 x 0. to = 0. Since f = 0.460 J/ g-°C ρC = (7. feed f = 0.100 in.008 x 0.333 = 70 + (872)(3. and thermal diffusivity = 0. The cutting force is measured at Fc = 200 lb.4U/ρC)(vto/K)0.3.0075 in/rev. and depth d = 0.010/0.186) = 0.0075/0.333 = 70 + (909)(4) 0.008 in. Solution: From Table 21. Therefore U = 400.000 in-lb/in 3.333 = 309(3.100) = 300.14 in 2/sec. U = Fcv/vtow = 200(70)/(70 x 0.100 in..1 and the appropriate specific energy value from Table 21. T = 70 + (0.46 J/g-°C) = 12.214) 0.25 mm. = 60 in/sec. thermal diffusivity K = k/ρC K = 0. The thermal properties of the work material are: volumetric specific heat = 200 in lb/in 3 F.000/200)(60 x 0.8)/3.89) = 1201 C° Final temperature.11(4.35 An orthogonal machining operation removes metal at 1.4 x 440.4U/ρC)(vto/K)0.333 = 70 + (968)(1.0 m/s.0075 in/rev.01 x 0.8 N-m/mm3 = 2.87 g/cm3)(0. The work material has a thermal diffusivity = 0. taking ambient temperature in account T = 20 + 1201 = 1221° C ° 21.4(2.000/110)(70 x 0.87 g/cm3 = 7. determine the cutting temperature if the ambient temperature = 70°F.3). If the feed f = to = 0. C = 0.186 J.4U/ρC)(vto/K)0.7 mm2/s Using Cook’s equation.2.010 x 0.1.000 in-lb/in 3. v = 300 ft/min x 12 in/ft/60 sec/min. (4. From note “a” at the bottom of the table. feed = 0. and depth = 4. v = MRR/tow = 1.10.11 Cal/g-°C.100 in. Use the appropriate value of specific energy from Table 21.333 = 70 + 1436 = 1506 ° F 21.25)/12.

338 = 551.72 N-m/mm3 21.338 = 592/5.3835 – 5. The following temperature data were collected during the cuts at three different cutting speeds (feed and depth were held constant): (1) v = 100 m/min. If the temperature increase above ambient temperature (20°F) is measured by a tool-chip thermocouple to be 700°C. Determine an equation for temperature as a function of cutting speed that is in the form of the Trigger equation.6052 m = 6. (21.333 = 5. (1) 505 = K(100) m and (3) 592 = K(160) m (1) ln 505 = ln K + m ln 100 and (3) ln 592 = ln K + m ln 160 Combining (1) and (3): ln 505 . a tool-chip thermocouple was used to measure cutting temperature.561 = 106.4)(K/vto)0.1589 m = 0.47 m = 0. Solution: Trigger equation T = Kvm Choose points (1) and (3) and solve simultaneous equations using T = Kvm as the model.024) 0. 140 . T = 552°C.25 mm/rev. T = 592°C.333 U = 680(8.21.25)})0. Eq.m ln 160 6.45(130) 0. (3) v = 160 m/min. determine the specific energy for the work material in this operation.45 Use K = 106.36 A turning operation uses a cutting speed = 200 m/min.338 (1) K = 505/1000. (2) v = 130 m/min.87°C (pretty close to the given value of 552°C).333 U = (700 – 2-)(3.23).5 (10-3) J/mm3-C.0752 m 0. feed = 0.44 (2) K = 592/1600.37 During a turning operation.338 = 505/4.00 mm.4)(20/{(200/60)(103)(0. The thermal diffusivity of the work material = 20 mm2/s and the volumetric specific heat = 3.5 x 10-3/0. Solution: Rearranging the Cook equation. T = 505°C. U = T(ρC/0.2888) = 1.45 Check equation with data point (2): T = 106.95(0.2246 – 4.m ln 100 = ln 592 .744 = 106. and depth of cut = 4.75 x 10-3)(0.

22. when these terms are used in the context of workholding in a lathe? 141 . Generating refers to the creation of work geometry due to the feed trajectory of the cutting tool.5 What is the difference between threading and tapping? Answer. (3) collet.1. 22. See Article 25. Answer. 22. A threading operation is performed on a turning machine and produces an external thread. Forming involves the creation of work geometry due to the shape of the cutting tool. while tapping is normally performed on a drilling machine and produces an internal thread. Answer.22 22.9 What is the difference between a live center and a dead center. examples include straight turning. Methods of holding the work in a lathe include: (1) between centers. Two examples are thread cutting on a lathe and slot milling. common examples include form turning and drilling. Boring produces an internal cylindrical shape from an existing hole. A 12 x 36 lathe has a 12 inch swing (maximum work diameter that can be accommodated) and a 36 inch distance between centers (indicating the maximum work length that can be held between centers). Rotational parts are cylindrical or disk-shaped and are machined on a turning machine. or planer. (2) chuck.4 Describe the turning process.4.6 How does a boring operation differ from a turning operation? Answer.1.6.7 What is meant by the designation 12 x 36 inch lathe? Answer. the tool being fed in a direction parallel to the axis of work rotation. Turning is a machining process in which a single point tool removes material from the surface of a rotating cylindrical workpiece.2 Distinguish between generating and forming when machining workpart geometries. 22. 22. both are described in Article 25.8 Name the various ways in which a workpart can be held in a lathe. and (4) face plate. Answer. Answer.1 MACHINING OPERATIONS AND MACHINE TOOLS Review Questions Discuss the differences between rotational parts and prismatic parts in machining. 22. Answer. and profile milling. while turning produces an external cylindrical shape. 22.3 Give two examples of machining operations in which generating and forming are combined to create workpart geometry. 22. shaper. prismatic parts are block-shaped or flat and are generally produced on a milling machine. taper turning.

while a turning center performs turning type operations. by comparison. 22.12 What is the distinguishing feature of a radial drill press? Answer.the work rotates about it. In peripheral milling. pallet shuttles to speed workpart changing. A turret lathe has a toolholding turret in place of a tailstock. 22.Answer.18 What is a machining center? Answer. in face milling. milling.11 What is a blind hole? Answer. the tools in the turret can be brought to work to perform multiple cutting operations on the work without the need to change tools as in operating a conventional engine lathe. a through hole exits the opposite side of the workpart.g. A blind hole does not exit the work. 22. 22. drilling).20 What can a mill-turn center do that a conventional turning center cannot do? 142 . 22.. cutting is accomplished by the flat face of the cutter whose axis is perpendicular to the work surface. the machine is typically equipped with automatic tool-changing.. 22. What is pocket milling? Answer. Profile milling generally involves the milling of the outside periphery of a flat part.g. 22. 22. A center holds the work during rotation at the tailstock end of the lathe. A radial drill has a long radial arm along which the drill head can be positioned to allow the drilling of large workparts. The universal milling machine has a worktable that can be rotated about a vertical axis to present the part at any specified angle to the cutter spindle. In up milling. and automatic workpart positioning.19 What is the difference between a machining center and a turning center? Answer. Pocket milling uses an end milling cutter to machine a shallow cavity (pocket) into a flat workpart. while a dead center does not rotate .15 Describe profile milling. 22.13 What is the difference between peripheral milling and face milling? Answer. the cutter speed direction is opposite the feed direction. 22. A live center is mounted in bearings and rotates with the work. in down milling.16 Describe the difference between up milling and down milling? Answer.10 How does a turret lathe differ from an engine lathe? Answer. A machining center is generally confined to rotating spindle operations (e.14 22. milling. A machining center is a CNC machine tool capable of performing multiple types of cutting operations involving rotating spindles (e.17 How does a universal milling machine differ from a conventional knee-and-column machine? Answer. cutting is accomplished by the peripheral teeth of the milling cutter and the tool axis is parallel to the work surface. drilling). generally with single point tools. the direction of cutter rotation is the same as the feed direction. Answer.

(c) drill bit. (e) planing. (c). For each question. and the speed motion is performed by the cutting tool. the change in diameter of the workpart is equal to which one of the following? (a) 1 x depth of cut. 22.Answer. Answer. (c) 1 x feed. or (e) threading tool. all correct answers must be given. and (f) 22. and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point. The three forms of sawing are: (1) hacksawing. (c). Multiple Choice Questions There are a total of 20 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct). (d) planer. while external broaching is performed on one of the outside surfaces of the part. (b) and (d).3 A lathe can be used to perform which of the following machining operations (more than one)? (a) boring. The mill-turn center has the capacity to position a rotational workpart at a specified angular location. (d) milling. Answer. (b) contour turning. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point. Answer. 22.22 What is the difference between internal broaching and external broaching? Answer. (b) lathe. (d) single point turning tool.5 Knurling is performed on a lathe. (c) drilling. (c) milling machine. but it is a metal forming operation rather than a metal removal operation: (a) true or (b) false? Answer. and the workpart is moved past the tool in the speed motion. the work is stationary during the cut.4 A facing operation is normally performed on which of the following machine tools (one best answer)? (a) drill press. 22. 143 . Answer. (b). (c) drilling. as compared to forming the geometry (more than one)? (a) broaching. (b) cut-off tool. and (e).6 Which of the following cutting tools can be used on a turret lathe (more than one)? (a) broach. To attain a perfect score on the quiz. (b) broaching. since each correct answer is worth 1 point. 22. and (3) circular sawing. permitting milling or drilling to be performed at a location on the periphery of the part.2 In a turning operation. (b) 22. In shaping. the cutting tool is stationary.1 Which of the following are examples of generating the workpart geometry in machining.21 How do shaping and planing differ? Answer.23 Identify the three basic forms of sawing operation? Answer. or (e) shaper. (d). Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers. or (d) 2 x feed. Internal broaching is accomplished on the inside surface (hole) of a workpart. (a). (2) bandsawing. Answer. (a) 22. (b) 2 x depth of cut. (b) 22. 22. while in planing. or (f) turning. and (d) profile milling.

10 22. (b) engine lathe. (d) ram mill.8 22.3 mm)(2. Answer. and (e) universal milling machine.0 mm) = 1500 mm3/s 22.366(. (b) peripheral milling. (22. Answer. (d) improve tolerance on hole diameter. Answer. Answer. (b) A broaching operation is best described by which one of the following: (a) a rotating tool moves past a stationary workpart. (b).1 A cylindrical workpart 125 mm in diameter and 900 mm long is to be turned in an engine lathe.0 min. or (d) a workpart moves linearly past a stationary single point tool.366 rev/s. what cutting speed must be used to meet this machining time requirement? Solution: Starting with Eq.5 m/s)/. and (b) metal removal rate. (b) A planing operation is best described by which one of the following: (a) a single point tool moves linearly past a stationary workpart. (c) Reaming is used for which of the following functions (more than one)? (a) accurately locate a hole position.3 mm/rev.9 22. or (d) a workpart moves linearly past a single-point tool. and (d). (b) knee-and-column.12 Problems Turning and Related Operations 22.4): Tm = L/fr Substitute Eq.85 min. (c) a workpart is fed past a rotating cutting tool. (c) screw machine. End milling is most similar to which one of the following? (a) face milling.91 = 471. Cutting conditions are: v = 2.91 mm/s Tm = 900/1. (22. (d) speed lathe.3) = 1. (d) 22.22. (c) plain milling.7 Which of the following turning machines permits very long bar stock to be used (one best answer)? (a) chucking machine. f = 0. (c). (b) a tool with multiple teeth moves linearly past a stationary workpart. (b) enlarge a drilled hole. (b) MRR = vfd = (2. The piece is 400 mm long and 150 mm in diameter.11 22. Using a feed = 0. Determine: (a) cutting time.2 s = 7. and d = 2.125π = 6. (c) a workpart is fed linearly past a rotating cutting tool. (b) a tool with multiple teeth moves linearly past a stationary workpart. or (d) slab milling.2 In a production turning operation.0 mm.5 m/s)(103)(. Answer. the foreman has decreed that the single pass must be completed on the cylindrical workpiece in 5. and (e) provide an internal thread. or (e) turret lathe. Answer.30 mm/rev and a depth of cut = 4.3) (fr = Nf) into the denominator to obtain Tm = L/Nf 144 . (c) profiling mill.0 mm.5 m/s. (c) improve surface finish on a hole. Solution: (a) N = (2. (a) The basic milling machine is which one of the following: (a) bed type. fr = 6.

4.062.0 in portion of the length is to be turned to a diameter of 4. N = v/πD = 200. and the time to reverse the bar is 3.75 in one pass at a speed = 400 ft/min and a feed = 0.5 = 354. and Tm = 7.012 in/rev.5 Given R1 = 100 mm. feed rate fr is constant and Eqs.3. A = π(100 + 50){7502 + (100 – 50) 2}0. The automatic controls on the lathe permit the surface speed to be maintained at a constant value of 200 m/min by adjusting the rotational speed as a function of workpiece diameter. N = 200.125)(0.125 in.125 in.25 mm/rev. 22.75)/2 = 0.5 rev/min. and d = 0.3. Determine (a) the time required to turn the taper and (b) the rotational speeds at the beginning and end of the cut.062.0 mm) = 1. Solution: At a constant rotational speed and feed. one end must be turned to diameter.30)(10-3)(5.50 in diameter in two passes on an engine lathe using the following cutting conditions: v = 300 ft/min.012) = 3. N = 750/(0.000/200π = 318. Feed = 0.5 = 150π(565. f = 0. Solution: (a) MRR = vfd = (200 m/min)(103 mm/m)(0.00 .5 A workbar with 5.25 mm/rev and depth of cut = 3. fr = 305.4 In the taper turning job of previous Problem 22. Determine: (a) the required depth of cut.3) and (22.000 mm3/min) = 7.084) = 423. and h = 750 mm. The workpiece is 750 mm long with minimum and maximum diameters of 100 mm and 200 mm at opposite ends. Tm = L/Nf and then rearranging to obtain rotational speed N = L/fTm Given L = 750 mm. The rough geometry of the piece has already been formed.5 rev/min 22.0 mm. Solution: (a) depth d = (5.000) 0.2 in3/min. volume cut V = Ad = (354.5(0.084 min from Problem 22.214 mm2 Given depth of cut d = 3.000 mm3/min Area of frustrum of cone A = π(R1 + R2){h2 + (R1 – R2)2}0.0 mm. (22. Combining. and this operation will be the final cut. f = 0.15)/(0. The bar will be held in a chuck and supported on the opposite end in a live center. Determine the rotational speed that would be required to complete the job in exactly the same time as your answer to part (a) of that problem. R2 = 50 mm.25 mm)(3.7 m/min 22.0 minutes.214 mm2)(3. and (c) metal removal rate.1) we get Tm = πDoL/vf (this equation is later used in Chapter 24).0 mm) = 150. The total 145 . With this workholding setup. Rearranging to determine cutting speed: v = πDoL/fTm Tm = π(0.641 mm3)/(150.0 in diameter and 48 in length is chucked in an engine lathe and supported at the opposite end using a live center.3 A tapered surface is to be turned on an automatic lathe.00 in diameter workbar that is 25 in long is to be turned down to 3.084 min (b) At beginning of cut (D1 = 100 mm).000/100π = 636. (b) cutting time. then the bar must be reversed to turn the other end. (b) N = 400 x 12/5π = 305. For each turning cut an allowance must be added to the cut length for approach and overtravel.3 rev/min 22.4) can be used.25)(7.0 minutes. (22. the time required to load and unload the bar is 5.67 in/min Tm = 40/3. (c) MRR = (400 x 12)(0.012) = 7.6 rev/min At end of cut (D2 = 200 mm).91 min.67 = 10.4)(0.641 mm3 Tm = V/MRR = (1.6 A 4.1257(103) m/min = 125. suppose that the automatic lathe with surface speed control is not available and a conventional lathe must be used.Then substituting for N from Eq.0) = 0.015 in/rev. A 40. Using an overhead crane available at the lathe.

15) = 12. length. N = 300 x 12/3. and is continuously increased thereafter to maintain a constant cutting speed.015) = 4.73 in 3/min Tm = (total metal removed)/MRR = 164.020 in/rev. fr = 286.96 min.0 min.25 mm/rev. The rotational speed at the beginning of the cut = 30 rev/min. Tm = (15 + 0.25π(0.020)(0.297 = 2.25)/2 = 10 in.5/4..7 The end of a large tubular workpart is to be faced on a NC vertical boring mill.4 rev/min. cut remaining 10 in.29 = 19. of 25 in.5 rev/min.583 = 2.. Tm = 15.5)/4.015) = 4.67 min (b) at Do = 45 in. of 25 in. Solution: (a) A = 0. Reverse bar which takes 3.5 rev/min. 22.5(0.0 min. feed = 0.5 ft/min.583 in/min. fr = 286.61 + 3.75 in.4 rev/min.Di2) = 0. N = 300 x 12/4π = 286.583 = 3.020 in/rev) = 0. and depth = 0.15) = 12.73 in3/min at Di = 25 in. Cutting conditions are: speed = 25 m/min.25πd(Do2 ..6 = 16. Solution: First end: cut 15 in. feed = 0.0 + 2.44 + 2. (b) the cutting speeds and metal removal rates at the beginning and end of the cut.9 A drilling operation is to be performed with a 25. If the facing operation is performed at a rotational speed = 30 rev/min.4 mm diameter twist drill in a steel workpart. after the drill bit reaches full diameter.5(0.0 + 3.75π = 305.4(0.38 min’ this reduces diameter to 3. The hole is a blind-hole at a depth = 50 mm.583 in/min.61 min.020)(0. Determine: (a) the cutting time to complete the drilling operation.5)/4.. this reduces diameter to 3.65 mm 146 .150 in.8 Solve previous Problem 22.44 min. v = (30 rev/min)(45π/12) = 353. and (b) metal removal rate during the operation.297 in/min.297 = 3.75 in. MRR = (353.297 in/min.4(0.15)(452 .5 ft/min MRR = (353.5 x 12)(0.50 in.015) = 4. Determine the total cycle time to complete this turning operation. Tm = 10. Loading and unloading bar takes 5.38 + 3.5 x 12)(0.4 x 12)(0. determine: (a) the cutting time to complete the facing operation..252) = 164.72 min. this reduces diameter to 3.. Drilling 22.5(25.allowance (approach plus overtravel) = 0..4) tan(90 – 118/2) = 12. The part has an outside diameter = 45. v = (30 rev/min)(45π/12) = 353. N = 300 x 12/3. fr = (30 rev/min)(0. fr = 305. MRR = (196.50 in. N = 300 x 12/4π = 286. Tm = (10 + 0.7 except that the machine tool controls operate at a constant cutting speed by continuously adjusting rotational speed for the position of the tool relative to the axis of rotation.50 in. Solution: (a) Distance traveled L = (Do . and the point angle = 118°.7 tan 31 = 7. fr = 305. Total cycle time = 5.. length.96/12.Di)/2 = (45 .6 in/rev Tm = 10/0.75π = 305.015) = 4.29 min’ this reduces diameter to 3.5/4. Solution: (a) Total metal removed = 0.0 in and inside diameter = 25 in. v = (30 rev/min)(25π/12) = 196.4 ft/min.15) = 7.96 in3 MRR is constant throughout cutting if v is constant.07 in3/min 22.73 = 12.020)(0.

7 in/min = 5.5 minutes to perform the drilling operation using high pressure fluid delivery of coolant to the drill point.0 mm.11 A gundrilling operation is used to drill a 7/16-in diameter hole to a certain depth.7 in/min.2 mm3/min 22.12 A peripheral milling operation is performed on the top surface of a rectangular workpart which is 300 mm long by 100 mm wide. Each hole is 3/4 in diameter.112 + 0.20) = 3600 rev/min. Solution: N = 80.. fr = 1527. which is 75 mm in diameter and has four teeth.3 mm/min Tm = (50 + 7. Milling 22. In order to improve the surface finish in the hole.5 in.75) tan(90 .75 A = 0. Solution: Time to drill each hole: N = 300 x 12/0.3 rev/min fr = 313.4π = 313.5 x 100) = 0. using a back and forth path between holes.002 in/rev.5 min(3.25) = 78. and the distance between adjacent hole centers (along the square) = 1. it has been decided to increase the speed by 20% and decrease the feed by 25%.3) = 39. Total cycle time to drill 100 holes = 100(0.75 in thick aluminum plate that is a component in a heat exchanger.N = 25(103)/25.000 mm/75π = 339.7 min.0. 147 . It takes 4.5 in/2. New feed rate fr = 3600(0. New feed f = 0. Assume that x-y moves are made at a distance of 0. Determine: (a) the time to make one pass across the surface. The cutting conditions are: N = 3000 rev/min at a feed = 0.5 in.63)/78.) = 13.3 = 0. Cutting conditions are: v = 80 m/min. Determine the time required from the beginning of the first hole to the completion of the last hole. Tm = (0. overhangs the width of the part on both sides.75)/22. Also.5 + 0. the rate at which the drill is retracted from each hole is twice the penetration feed rate. Distance per hole = 0.315 in.3(0.7(0.2 mm/tooth. and the feed rate between holes (x-y plane) = 15. Hole depth d = 4. How long will it take to perform the operation at the new cutting conditions? Solution: fr = 3000 rev/min(0.5/15 = 0.5 in above the work surface.112/2 = 0.25) = 0. 22.001(1.5(0.1) = 26.0 min.1 min.056 min.916 in/min. assuming the most efficient drilling sequence will be used to accomplish the job.0 in/min. the penetration feed (z-direction) = 0.675.0 in/min.0 in/min.5 in.00075) = 2.112 min. New speed v = 3000(1 + 0. arranged in a 10 by 10 matrix pattern.056) + 99(0.5 + A + 1.015 in/rev. and d = 7.015) = 22. The cutting speed = 300 ft/min. f = 0.001 in/rev) = 3. With 100 holes. All moves between holes are at a distance = 1.7 rev/min.315 + 1. There are 100 holes in all.25π(25.736 min (b) MRR = 0. and (b) the material removal rate during the cut. The drill has a point angle = 100 degrees.75π = 1527. and that this distance must be included in the penetration feed rate for each hole. Time to move between holes = 1. the number of moves between holes = 99. Time to retract drill from hole = 0.916 = 0.00075 in/min.10 A NC drill press is to perform a series of through-hole drilling operations on a 1. New drilling time Tm = 13.5 rev/min.4) 2(78. The milling cutter.

0(.185 min. and d = 0.46) = 7.875 mm/s A = D/2 = 150/2 = 75 mm Tm = (400 + 75)/6.13 A face milling operation is used to machine 5 mm from the top surface of a rectangular piece of aluminum 400 mm long by 100 mm wide. MRR = 1. and (b) metal removal rate during cutting.0 in wide. Solution: N = 500 x 12/3π = 636.0) = 8. Solution: N = 100 x 12/2.009 in/tooth.82)/271. The milling cutter has four teeth (cemented carbide inserts) and a 3.5-.5(4)(0.5 = (7(75-7)).14 A slab milling operation is performed to finish the top surface of a steel rectangular workpiece 10. 25.0 in diameter. 22.16 Solve previous Problem 22. Determine: (a) time to make one pass across the surface.46 = 0. Solution: N = 500 x 12/3π = 636. fr = 636. The cutter has four teeth (cemented carbide inserts) and is 150 mm in diameter. Other Operations 22.15 A face milling operation is performed to finish the top surface of a steel rectangular workpiece 12.0 mm.5 = (.0 in long by 2.8(8)(0.46 in/min. 22.875) = 3437. Cutting conditions are: v = 500 ft/min.875 = 80 s = 1.0 in wide.020 in/pass.150(25.5(4)(0.5 in. and d = 0. and (b) the metal removal rate during the cut.5 rev/min. Cutting conditions are: v = 25 ft/min. f = 0.8 rev/min.6 = 1. Determine: (a) the time to make one pass across the surface.5 = 0.0 in by 40.250 in.25)).82 mm Tm = (300 + 21.414)/25.0 in/min.0 in wide.5π = 152.17 An open side planer is to be used to plane the top surface of a rectangular workpart.6) = 190.0(.150(25.5 mm3/s 22.58 min. The helical milling cutter.366(4)(.5 = 21.5 in diameter and eight teeth.414 in Tm = (12. fr = 636. A = O = (1(3-1)).009) = 11.0 in long by 3.200 in. f = 0. f = 0.0 in.0(.46 = 0. and (b) the metal removal rate during the cut. Cutting conditions are: v = 100 ft/min. A = (d(D-d)). f = 0. which has a 2.25)(11.0 + 2 x 1.98 min. A = O = 3/2 = 1.0 in wide and the cutter is offset to one side so that the swath cut by the cutter = 1. fr = 152. (b) MRR = 100(5)(6.15 except that the workpiece is 5.5)/25.82 in3/min.25(2.46) = 3. Solution: (a) N = (3000 mm/s)/150π = 6. and d = 5.0 + 2 x 1. MRR = 3.5 rev/min.46 in/min.64 in3/min. and d = 0. 22. MRR = 2.5 = 1.5(4)(0.59 min. is set up to overhang the width of the part on both sides. A = (d(D-d)).75)/11 = 0.27) = 6.010) = 25.150 in. Determine: (a) the time to make one pass across the surface.fr = 339.333 min. Tm = (12.6 mm/min.120 mm3/min.010) = 25. The length of the 148 .010 in/tooth.27 mm/tooth.2) = 271. Cutting conditions are: v = 3 m/s.0 + 0. MRR = 100(7)(271.75 in Tm = (10.366 rev/s fr = 6.25 in3/min.

2) = 0.0 min.) is in direction of stroke.020 = 2000 passes Total time = 2000(0.20 + 0. Total time per pass = 0. assuming that the part is oriented in such a way as to minimize the time? Solution: Orient work so that its length (L = 40 in.35 min.15 + 0. Number of passes = 40. Time per forward stroke = (10 + 25 + 10)/(25 x 12) = 0.1125 = 0. Time per reverse stroke = 0.0/0. Number of passes = 25.15 = 0. Check: orient work so that its width (w = 25 in.5 min. including an allowance for acceleration and deceleration.15 min.15 min. Time per forward stroke = (10 + 40 + 10)/(25 x 12) = 0.75(.35) = 437.2 min.2625 min.1125 min. 149 . Total time per pass = 0.020 = 1250 passes Total time = 1250(0. How long will it take to complete the job.15) = 0.2625) = 525.stroke across the work must be set up so that 10 in are allowed at both the beginning and end of the stroke for approach and overtravel.) is in direction of stroke. This will minimize the number of passes required which will minimize time in this case. Time per reverse stroke = 0. takes 75% of the time for the forward stroke.0/0.75(. The return stroke.

(3) diffusion. corresponding to the tool point. Some grades of HSS also contain cobalt.9 What are the principal alloying ingredients in high speed steel? Answer. 23. and/or work material hardness. and (9) length of cutting time for the tool. and (4) plastic deformation of the cutting edge. (3) vanadium.6 In addition to cutting speed. (6) degradation of finish. 23. 23. The expanded version of the Taylor equation can include any of the following: feed. Answer. and nose radius wear. The important tool wear mechanisms are: (1) abrasion.3 What are the two principal locations on a cutting tool where tool wear occurs? Answer. and (3) wear resistance to prolong the life of the tool during gradual wear. and (4) carbon. 23. C is the speed-axis intercept on the log-log plot of the tool life data. (4) sound of the tool. Principal alloying ingredients in HSS are: (1) either tungsten or a combination of tungsten and molybdenum. 23. (5) chip disposal problems. Three desirable properties are: (1) toughness to resist fracture failure. depth of cut.23 CUTTING TOOL TECHNOLOGY Review Questions 23. Production tool life criteria include: (1) complete failure of the tool. and (3) gradual wear. (2) hot hardness to resist temperature failure. (2) adhesion. Portions of flank wear are often identified separately as notch wear. 23. The parameter C is the cutting speed corresponding to a one-minute tool life. (2) temperature failure. (2) chromium. 23.4 Identify the mechanisms by which cutting tools wear during machining. 23. Answer.5 What is meant by the parameter C in the Taylor tool life equation? Answer. called flank wear. The two main aspects of cutting tool technology are: (1) tool material and (2) tool geometry. (7) power increase. Answer.1 What are the two principal aspects of cutting tool technology? Answer. (8) workpiece count. corresponding to the surface of the work. (3) fingernail test to feel flank wear. (2) visual observation of flank or crater wear.2 Name the three modes of tool failure in machining. 150 . what other cutting variables are included in the expanded version of the Taylor tool life equation? Answer. The three tool failure modes are: (1) fracture failure.7 What are some of the tool life criteria used in production machining operations? Answer.8 Identify three desirable properties of a cutting tool material. Wear occurs on the top face of the cutting tool as crater wear and on the side or flank of the tool.

chemical fluids.15 23.16 Name the two main categories of cutting fluid according to function. 23. The steel cutting grades contain TiC and/or TaC in addition to WC-Co. an example being high speed. and longer cutting tool life. Answer.11 Identify some of the common compounds that form the thin coatings on the surface of coated carbide inserts. used for most hard tool materials including cemented carbides and coated carbides. Name the seven elements of tool geometry for a single point cutting tool. Advantages of filter systems include: longer fluid life. Answer.19 Why are cutting fluid filter systems becoming more common and what are their advantages? Answer. reduced disposal costs. The three types of cutting fluids are: (1) cutting oils.14 Identify the alternative ways by which a cutting tool is held in place during machining. (2) side rake angle. better hygiene. which involves the formation of a thin fluid film to help separate and protect the contacting surfaces.23. cermets.12 23. 23. and (2) extreme pressure lubrication. Answer. fluid. There are three principal ways: (1) solid shank.10 What is the difference in ingredients between steel cutting grades and non-steel cutting grades of cemented carbides? Answer. this combination of properties is best exploited by giving the tool a negative rake angle to tend to load the tool in compression. TiC. During cutting. Cutting fluid filter systems are becoming more common due to the environmental protection laws and the need to prolong the life of the fluid before disposal.13 Why are ceramic cutting tools generally designed with negative rake angles? Answer. (4) side relief angle. The common coatings are: TiN. and (3) mechanically clamped inserts. The seven elements of single point tool geometry are: (1) back rake angle. 23. Answer. in which a thin solid layer of a salt such as iron sulfide is formed on the tool surface to provide lubrication. (5) end cutting edge angle. and manual application. (3) end relief angle. There are two lubricating mechanisms that are believed to be effective in metal cutting: (1) boundary lubrication. Answer. The non-steel cutting grades contain only WC and Co. 23. ceramics. lower machine tool maintenance.hole delivery. (6) side cutting edge angle. 23. and CBN.17 What is the principal lubricating mechanism by which cutting fluids work? Answer.18 What are the methods by which cutting fluids are applied in a machining operation? Answer. The two functional categories of cutting fluids are: (1) coolants and (2) lubricants. and (3) chemical and semi. and (7) nose radius. SPD. (2) emulsified oils. 151 . The most common method of application is flooding. 23. 23. in which a steady stream of fluid is direct at the operation. Ceramics possess low shear and tensile strength but good compressive strength. used for some cemented carbides. in which the cutting edge is an integral part of the tool shank. Other methods include: mist application. and Al2O3. Name the three main types of cutting fluid according to chemistry. (2) brazed inserts.

small chips. (d) 152 . (b) Problems with dry machining include: (1) overheating the tool. and (e). and (e) tungsten. Answer. (a) 23. (a) What are those problems associated with the use of cutting fluids? (b) What are some of the new problems introduced by machining dry? Answer. (b) Ni. (c) increases corrosion resistance. (c) and (d). (c) chromium. (c) 23. (d) TaC.20 Dry machining is being considered by machine shops because of certain problems inherent in the use of cutting fluids. (c) C5. (b) Co. Answer. 23.4 Which of the following is not a common ingredient in cemented carbide cutting tools (more than one)? (a) Al2O3. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers. (a) and (c). (c) TiC. (c) CrC. For each question.6 Steel cutting grades of cemented carbide are typically characterized by which of the following ingredients (more than one)? (a) Co. and (d) increases hot hardness.7 If you had to select a cemented carbide for an application involving finish turning of steel. To attain a perfect score on the quiz. garbage. (b) improves strength and hardness. (a) Cutting fluids become contaminated over time with a variety of contaminants. tungsten serves which of the following functions (more than one)? (a) forms hard carbides to resist abrasion. (b). each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point.1 Of the following cutting conditions. (b). Answer. (d) nickel. which C-grade would you select (one best answer)? (a) C1. or (d) C7. and (d). and bacteria. (c) increases toughness.23. (b) cobalt. all correct answers must be given. Answer. contaminated cutting fluids do not perform their lubricating function as well as when they are fresh and clean. or (c) feed. 23. Answer. Answer. molds. (c).3 Cast cobalt alloys typically contain which of the following main ingredients (more than one)? (a) aluminum. Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 18 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct). and (3) absence of chip removal benefits in grinding and milling.5 An increase in cobalt content has which of the following effects on WC-Co cemented carbides (one best answer)? (a) decreases transverse rupture strength. Answer.2 As an alloying ingredient in high speed steel. (a). 23. In addition to causing odors and health hazards. (2) operating at lower cutting speeds and production rates to prolong tool life. and (e) WC. since each correct answer is worth 1 point. 23. 23. which one has the greatest effect on tool wear? (a) cutting speed. and (e) WC. (b) increases hardness. fungi. (d) TiC. including tramp oil. (b) C3. (b) depth of cut. and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point.

Solution: At v = 125 m/min.4 min using criterion FW = 0.22 3 0.4) 0.0 min using criterion FW = 0. determine the values of n and C in the Taylor Tool Life Equation. Problems Tool Life and the Taylor Equation 23.0 min using criterion FW = 0. and (2) 165(10. Which of the following materials has the highest hardness? (a) aluminum oxide.7129 n = 0. At v = 165 m/min. calculate the values of n and C in the Taylor equation solving simultaneous equations.75 mm.0155 n = 5. Answer.99 15 0.0) 0.46 23.3894 (1) C = 125(20.57 9 0.1 except that the tool life criterion is 0. T = 13. The last wear data value in each column is when final tool failure occurred. T = 20.47 7 0. 23.0) n = C (1) and (2) 125(20.3026 n 0.50 mm. (b) On a piece of natural log-log paper.27 0.8 Which of the following processes are used to provide the thin coatings on the surface of coated carbide inserts (more than one)? (a) chemical vapor deposition. at v = 125 m/min Flank wear.50 mm of flank land wear. plot your results determined in the previous part. min. From the plot.50 0.1 The following flank wear data were collected in a series of turning tests using a coated carbide tool on hardened alloy steel.46 (2) C = 165(10. (a) and (b) Student exercises. determine the tool lives for the two cutting speeds. (d) remove heat from the process.45 0.2 Solve Problem 23. and (e) wash away chips.75 mm.70 11 0.46 C = 404.0 mm. The feed rate was 0. (c) reduce friction at the tool-chip interface.4 = ln 165 + n ln 10.4) n = 165(10.3894 = 404.3894 = 404. Answer.30 mm/rev and the depth was 4.73 25 0.23. plot flank wear as a function of time.58 20 0. (a) On a single piece of linear graph paper.12 0. (b) Which of the following are the two main functions of a cutting fluid in machining (two answers only)? (a) improve surface finish on the workpiece. mm. (c) high speed steel. or (e) tungsten carbide. or (d) pressing and sintering. (b) electroplating. (c) physical vapor deposition. Values of C and n may vary in part (b) due to variations in the plots. (a) and (b) Student exercises.20 0. mm. 153 . (b) cubic boron nitride.35 5 0.80 13 0.6 min using criterion FW = 0. The values should be approximately the same as those obtained in part (c) below.33 0. Are the resulting n and C values the same? 1 0. (b) reduce forces and power.0 4. (d) titanium carbide. Values of C and n may vary in part (b) due to variations in the plots. (c) Two equations: (1) 125(20. At v = 165 m/min.8283 + 3.1059 + 2.10 Answer.75 mm of flank wear as the criterion of tool failure.2776 n = 0.97 Cutting time.40 0. at v = 165 m/min Solution: At v = 125 m/min.9 23.0) n ln 125 + n ln 20. (a) and (c). (c) As a comparison.50 mm. Flank wear. T = 10. Using 0. T = 5.4) n = C. (c) and (d). The values should be approximately the same as those obtained in part (c) below.

2619 = 2.77 v = 182.15 C = 291.77/90 = 2.14286) n ln 1.6) 0.8421 n = 0.3175 = (3.2877 = 1. 100(10) n =75(30) n ln 100 + n ln 10 = ln 75 + n ln 30 4.2776 n = 0. Solution: (a) Two equations: (1) 100(10) n = C and (2) 75(30) n = C.(c) Two equations: (1) 125(13.2.171 = 488/1.77 T..4 m/min. and (2) 165(5.6267) 5.77/(20) .0 m/s and a 20-min tool life at a speed v = 2.4012 n 4. and (c) the speed corresponding to a tool life of 20 min.171 = (1.9661 n n = 0.2619 = 75(2.6 4.0373.4 = n ln 7. (c) v (20) . 154 .8277) C = 182.77/2.3 Tool life tests on a lathe have resulted in the following data: (1) v = 350 ft/min.14286 0.4 = (7.171 C = 350(7) .3026 n = 4.0 m/s. Based on your equation.6052 + 2. Solution: (a) Two equations: (1) 350(7) n = C and (2) 250(50) n = C 350(7) n = 250(50) n 350/250 = (50/7) n 1.15 23.6) n ln 125 + n ln 13.0) n = C.0) = 291. (a) Find the n and C values in the Taylor tool life equation.77 Check: C = 75(30) .0 = ln 165 + n ln 5.037 T = 2. T = 50 min. 23.848 = 17.4. compute the tool life that corresponds to a cutting speed v = 300 ft/min.5649 n = 5.0986 n n = 0.6052 .7228 n 0.1059 + 1.4012 .5 Turning tests have resulted in 1-min tool life for a cutting speed v = 4. T = 30 min.2619 C = 100(10) = 100(1. T = 7 min.8283 + 2. (a) Determine the n and C values in the Taylor tool life equation. (d) Compute the cutting speed that corresponds to a tool life T = 10 min.6) n = C (1) and (2) 125(13. (b) Based on the n and C values. what is the likely tool material used in this operation? (c) Using your equation.4825 = 329 ft/min. compute (b) the tool life for a speed of 90 m/min.2619 .4 Tool life tests in turning yield the following data: (1) v = 100 m/min. the likely tool material is high speed steel. (a) Determine the parameters n and C in the Taylor tool life equation.3296 0.13 min.1914 = 83. T = 10 min.3948) C = 488 Check: C = 250(50) .171 = 350(1. (d) For T = 10 min. 23. T = (C/v) 1/n = (488/300) 1/. (2) v = 250 ft/min.0371/. (2) v = 75 m/min.9522) = 488 (b) Comparing these values of n and C with those in Table 24.3365 = 1.2619 = 182. (b) Project how long the tool would last at a speed v = 1. v = C/Tn = 488/10.171 = 250(1.2619 = 182.2 min.437) = 182.818 = 15.77 (b) 90 T.2619 = 182.3175 + 3.3894 = 291.2619 = 182.3894 (1) C = 125(13.3026) n 0.0) n = 165(5..14 (2) C = 165(5. (c) At v = 300 ft/min.2.0 m/s.

T = 5.5. Solution: Let us use the two extreme data points to calculate the values of n and C.4.2314 = 240/60 = 4. For data (2) v = 2 m/s = 120 m/min.2314 (b) At v = 1. (1) 180(14. If cutting speed = 3.6931 n = 0. the tool can be used to produce 25 pieces between tool changes.1 is: vT0. Using complete failure as the criterion of tool life instead of 0.0 m/s = 60 m/min. then check the resulting equation against the middle data point. show that the middle data point (v = 130 m/min.0 n ln 20 = ln 2. Determine the Taylor tool life equation for this job.0 m/s.363 min. T = 5(2.4054 = 2.2314 = 240 (T)0.677) n 0. (2) v = 2 m/s = 120 m/min.3 This represents a difference of less than 1.677 n = 4. T = 25(4.54) n = 120(109.53 s = 2.54) C = 308. then C = 4. T = 14.0 m/s = 240 m/min.7 For the tool life plot of Figure 23.7875 + 4. Determine the parameters n and C in the Taylor tool life equation for this data.692 . Consistency would be demonstrated by using the values from the middle data point (T = 12 min at v = 130 ft/min) in the equation and obtaining the same value of C as above (C = 229).225 mm) = 174. complete failure of the cutting tool is indicated by the end of each wear curve.909) = 14.25 min.8 In the tool wear plots of Figure 23.75) n = C and (3) 100(47) n = C 160(5.08) n = C 180(14.43 23. the resulting data would be: (1) v = 160 m/min.6 In a production turning operation. (1) v = 3 m/s = 180 m/min.0 m/s)(0.2012 .0 2. (3) v = 100 m/min.80s = 4.223 = 229.0 m/s.3215 = 400 min.0 T = (4.7875 = (4. Solution: (1) Tm = π(125 mm)(0. the workpart is 125 mm in diameter and 300 mm long.692 n 5.54) = ln 120 + n ln(109. the tool must be changed every 5 workparts.4. 23.2012 C = 180 (14.2.909 min. 60(T)0.1929 + 2.75) n = 100(47) n 155 .225 mm) = 261.2%.9957 n = 0. T = 12 min) is consistent with the Taylor equation determined in Example Problem 23.225 mm/rev is used in the operation.08) n ln 180 + n ln(14.0151 n n = 0. 120(20) n = 240 20n = 240/120 = 2. but if cutting speed = 2.1929 .223 = 130(1.75 min. A feed rate of 0. T = 47 min. (2) v = 130 m/min. (2) Tm = π(125 mm)(0.0 min.3 m)/(3.50 mm flank wear.0) 1/0.08 min.54) n = C (2) 120(109.2314 = (4) 4.54 min.363) = 109.3 m)/(20 m/s)(0.Solution: (a) For data (1) T = 1.08) 5. 23. (1) 160(5. 130(12) .1. which is close enough and well within expected random variation in typical tool life data.7404) = 226. Solution: Taylor equation calculated in Example 23.

25) 0. where the U.25 = 14.25 = 2.5 m/s. Validate the metric equation using a tool life = 16 min. C = 229 in Example 23.14/5. (2) v = 1.224 = 236. where v = m/s and T = s.ln 160 + n ln 5.566 = 2. Convert this equation to the equivalent Taylor equation in the International System of units (metric). and that the C value is higher here (C = 236. Better results on determining the Taylor equation would be obtained by using regression analysis on all three data sets to smooth the variations in the tool life data.1).3) m = K (1) and (2): ln 120 + n ln 12 + m ln 0.3 0.54 m/s Check: (500 ft/min)( 0.08(2.224 (1) C = 160(5.0 m/s.E.20 mm/rev.1 (n = 0.5 x 60)(40) n(0.5939 + m (-1. m.8 here vs.224 = 235. (Tref)0.5%.6094) = 0. Eq. (23.7492 n = 4. Solution: vT0.14. 23. SI: v = 14.4054 m = -0.S. That is. customary units are used: ft/min for v and min for T.3 mm/rev.2) m = K (3) (2 x 60)(10) n(0. f = 0. m.4700 = 2. f = 0.7 (3) C = 100(47) 0.4).2 ln 120 + n ln 12 = ln 90 + n ln 40 4.25 C = 1000 ft/min for a 1. compute the corresponding cutting speeds in ft/min and m/sec using the two equations. T = 40 min.8 Check against data set (2): 130(14.1). The following data were obtained during the tests: (1) v = 2. (b) Using your equation.239 ln 10 + m ln 0. Check both equations at T = 16 min = 960 s. compute the tool life when v = 1. USCU: v = 1000/160.0752 + 1.D.9 The Taylor equation for a certain set of test conditions is vT.239 ln 12 + m ln 0.14 The converted equation is: vT0. A series of turning tests are performed to determine the parameters n.5503 + m (-1. which would be considered good agreement for experimental data. n = 0.08 m/s Tref = 1 min = 60 s.224 here vs.7875 + 2.6052 + 3.3048m/ft)(1 min/60 s) = 2.25 = 1000. where v is in m/sec and T is in seconds.14/9600.78316) = 14.20 mm/rev.78316 The converted value of C = 5. This represents a difference of less than 0.50 mm in Example 23.239 (1) and (3): ln 120 + 0. (a) Determine n.25 = 14.10 Q.7.0436 m = 0.25 = 1000/2 = 500 ft/min. The higher C value here reflects the higher wear level used to define tool life (complete failure of cutting edge here vs.9 use average: C = 236. and K. T = 10 min.3 mm/rev.2) m = K (2) (1.2040) -0.8501 n 0.1009 n n = 0.1). and (3) v = 2. T = 12 min.25 = 1000(Tref)0.75 = ln 100 + n ln 47 5.3048m/ft)(1 min/60 s) = 5. Note that the n value is very close to the value obtained in Example 23.4998 + 3.2 = ln 120 + 0.6889 n 0.75) 0.0 m/s.4849 n = 4.25 = (60) 0. a flank wear level of 0.5 m/s and f = 0. and K in the expanded version of the Taylor equation.223 in Example 23.224 = 236. Solution: Three equations to be solved simultaneously: (1) (2 x 60)(12) n(0.54 m/s 23. f = 0.0 min tool life.204 n n = 0. ft/min converts to m/s as (1000 ft/min)(0.2877 = 1.108 156 .2 = ln 90 + n ln 40 + m ln 0.

2 in3 157 .4) in the text relates tool life to speed and feed.01)(0. For 10 min.572) = 5. if a 10-min tool life were required in each case: (a) plain carbon steel. Determine n.6123)(0.5 m/s.125 = 200/1.2297 (1) and (3): ln 400 + n ln 10 + m ln 0.3026 .010 = ln 400 + n ln 8 + m ln 0.3 (3) 400(8) 0.65 90(T)0.8781) = 182.3) 0.1264 = 400(1.6 ft/min.0 mm.125.3 The constant K represents the cutting speed (ft/min) for a 1.778 = 843. Determine how many cubic mm of steel would be removed for each of the following tool materials.010 in/rev.6971)(0.239 = 2.5 x 60)(T)0.8) = 18.1264 (1) 400(10) 0.6052) 0.2527 n n = 0.2. (d) ceramic. (2) v = 300 ft/min.239(0.1997) 0.311 T = 2.108 =120(1.5587) = 379.80 in 3/min. For 10 min.572 in 3/min.010 ln 400 + n ln 10 = ln 300 + n ln 35 5. Solution: (a) Plain carbon steel: n = 0.01)(0.3 min.9915 + 2.2297(0.2877 = 1. 23.25 mm/rev and a depth of cut = 4.5881) = 379.65 (T)0.5553 n 0.12) = 101.0 minute tool life at a feed rate of 1.108 = 182. and K. f = 0.6052) = 0. (b) high speed steel.1264 = 400(1.01)(0.010 = ln 300 + n ln 35 + m ln 0.015) 0.10) = 1.010) 0.12 in 3/min.10) = 10.3 (2) 300(35) 0. metal removed = 10(1.259 = 47. metal removed = 10(10.25 = 1500/1. f = 0. (c) cemented carbide.3026 n = 5. MRR = (843.5587) = 379.0794) + m (-4.4055 m m = 0.2) 0.10.0794) = m(-4.3111/. the following data were collected: (1) v = 400 ft/min. C = 200 ft/min. f = 0.239 = 33.6 x 12)(0.2297(2.05127 = 0.2297(0. and K.811)(0. m.015) m = K (1) and (2): ln 400 + n ln 10 + m ln 0.0 in/rev.015 n ln 10 + m ln 0.010) m = K (2) 300(35) n(0. For 10 min.1264 = 300(2. and (e) coated carbide.1997 + 4.8404) = K = 182.010 = n ln 8 + m ln 0. T = 35 min. In a series of turning tests conducted to determine the parameters n. 23. T = 8 min.11 Eq. C = 1500 ft/min.015 0.2297(2. v = 60/100.1 = 60/1.2297(2.010) 0.10) = 0.3 K = 379.015 in/rev.65 (b) v = 1.25.333 = 150 ft/min. and (3) v = 400 ft/min.239(0.5 ft/min.239(0.2 are based on a feed rate of 0. MRR = (47. f = 0. This feed is of course an extrapolation and not a real possible feed value.72 in3 (b) HSS: n = 0. T = 10 min.0 in3 (c) Cemented carbide: n = 0.12 The n and C values in Table 23.(1) K = 120(12) 0.3 mm/rev (1. m. v = 200/100.3026) + m (-4. What is the physical interpretation of the constant K? Solution: Three equations to be solved simultaneously: (1) 400(10) n(0. MRR = (150 x 12)(0.010 in/rev.5 x 12)(0.2629)(0. metal removed = 10(0. C = 60 ft/min.010) m = K (3) 400(8) n(0.2297(0. v = 1500/100.7038 + 3. (23.

00 in.15 C = 80(27. The cut will be made with a cemented carbide cutting tool whose Taylor tool life parameters are: n = 0.5978 n 2.778 = 1237 ft/min.25) n = C (2) v = 120 ft/min.33(108) (v) -4.14 in 3/min. (Ignore effects of drill entrance and exit from the hole. v = 2200/100.13 A drilling operation is performed in which 0. For 10 min.60. T = 5(0.6 = 12000/3.3478(v) -4.4055 n = 0.4 mm/rev. feed rate fr = (0.423 min 158 .34 C = 120(1.85 in 3/min.18) -1 = 19.29 C = 131.75 in/min) = 0. MRR = (2512 x 12)(0. T = 50(0. N = (120)/(.33(108) (v) -4. C = 10. time per hole = 1.75 in/min.5 in3 23. Units for the Taylor equation are min.0 in thick.545 min) = 27.0 mm.5 in diameter holes are drilled through cast iron plates that are 1. Solution: In this problem we want Tm = T. Compute the cutting speed that will allow the tool life to be just equal to the cutting time for this part.833 in/min.85) = 148. metal removed = 10(30. The starting diameter = 500 mm and the length = 1000 mm.99 (202.14 The outside diameter of a cylinder made of titanium alloy is to be turned.6417) = 131.99/v = 3926. v = 12000/100.094) = 131. for 50 holes.25) n = 120(1.545 min. Formulating the data as vTn = C.2987 = 202. Formulating the data as vTn = C.25) = 80(1. the tool lasted for exactly 50 holes.32 23.99 (v) -1 T = (400/v) 1/. At 80 surface ft/min. At 120 surface ft/min.82) 0.364 min) = 1.382 + 3. the tool lasted for exactly 5 holes.01)(0.3478 Setting Tm = T: 3926.25 = 2200/1.003)(611) = 1.99 v-1 = 2057.3478 = 4004. Consider the depth of cut to be exactly 1. N = (80)/(. metal removed = 10(14.003)(917) = 2.82) n ln 80 + n ln 27.3478 = 2057.003 in/rev. we have: 120(1. corresponding to the plate thickness.82 4.15 = 120(1. we have: 80(27.3478 = 0. for 5 holes. The feed rate of the drill was 0. Tm = πDL/fv and T = (C/v) 1/n Tm = π(500)(1000)(10-6)/0.5π/12) = 917 rev/min. Cutting conditions are: f = 0.23 = (400/v) 4.0 in/(2.4 in3 (e) Coated carbide: n = 0. for tool life and m/min for cutting speed.10) = 14.01)(0.82) n = C Setting (1) = (2): 80(27. Sample holes have been drilled to determine the tool life at two cutting speeds.833 in/min) = 0. Both of these times must be expressed in terms of cutting speed.7875 + 0.981 = 2512 ft/min.23 and C = 400.25. MRR = (1237 x 12)(0.4(10-3)v = 3926.52389(108)}0. C = 2200 ft/min.25 = ln 120 + n ln 1.52389(108) v = {0. where cutting speed v is expressed in ft/min.3478 = {0.(d) Ceramic: n = 0.5π/12) = 611 rev/min.3051 n = 4. feed rate fr = (0.10) = 30.52389(108)}1/3. For 10 min. Solution: (1) v = 80 ft/min.7073 n = 0.15 0.82 min.364 min.18 m/min Check: Tm = 3926.25 min. and d = 3.000 ft/min.0 in/(1.14) = 301.3478 v3. and tool life T is expressed in min.) Determine the values of n and C in the Taylor tool life equation for the above sample data. where Tm = machining time per piece and T = tool life. time per hole = 1.

125 in. (a) Which grade should be used for finish turning of unhardened steel? (b) Which grade should be used for rough milling of aluminum? (c) Which grade should be used for finish turning of brass? (d) Which of the grades listed would be suitable for machining cast iron? For each case.08229(108)}1/3 = {1. Choose grade 1.08229(108) v = {1.56) -1= 55. Cast iron is included with the non-steel grades.T = (400/202. Grade 1 2 3 4 %WC 95 82 80 89 %Co 5 4 10 11 %TiC 0 14 10 0 Solution: (a) Finish turning of unhardened steel.0 = 2. 159 .38 (476.56) 4.389.38 (v) -1= 2.0125 in/rev.389. Solution: In this problem we want Tm = T. the starting diameter = 26. Specify a non-steel roughing grade.25)(48.17 A turning operation is performed on a steel shaft with diameter = 5. The cutting conditions will be: feed = 0. In the final pass. A slot or keyway has been milled along its entire length. A cemented carbide cutting tool is to be used and the parameters of the Taylor tool life equation for this setup are: n = 0. 23. Choose grade 2. Choose grade 4.25 = (1300/476. Units for the Taylor equation are min.8561(1012) (v) -4. This is a grade with TiC and low cobalt. These grades are listed below by chemical composition.25 and C = 1300.375 min T = (1300/476. explain your recommendation.08229(108)}0. (c) Finish turning of brass.0 = 13004. give the reason why it is not.0 in.0 = 55.56) 1/.25 in and the length = 48. (d) Machining cast iron. Determine the cutting speed which will make the tool life equal to the time required to complete the turning operation.56 ft/min Check: Tm = 26. where Tm = machining time per piece and T = tool life.423 min 23.25 = (1300/v) 4.0 = 1.3333 = 476. Specify a non-steel finishing grade.0)/12(0. and (e) sintered polycrystalline diamond.23 = (400/202. It is desirable to operate at a cutting speed so that the tool will not need to be changed during the cut. For each of the following tool materials. (d) ceramic. For each material that is not a good candidate.16 A certain machine shop uses a limited number of cemented carbide grades in its operations. (c) cemented carbide.8561(1012) (v) -4. This is a grade with no TiC and low cobalt. and depth of cut = 0. Tm = πDL/12fv and T = (C/v) 1/n Tm = π(26.38/v = 26.389. The turning operation reduces the shaft diameter.0125)v = 26.0 in and length = 32 in.18) 1/.0 Setting Tm = T: 26.375 min Tooling Applications 23. (b) Rough milling of aluminum.0 v3.15 The outside diameter of a roll for a steel rolling mill is to be turned. Both of these times must be expressed in terms of cutting speed. for tool life and ft/min for cutting speed. Specify grade 1 for finishing and grade 4 for roughing. indicate whether or not it is a reasonable candidate to use in the operation: (a) plain carbon steel. Specify a steel-cutting grade suitable for finishing.0(v) -4. This is a grade with no TiC and high cobalt.3478 = 19. (b) high speed steel.38 (v) -1 T = (1300/v) 1/.18) 4.389.

6) 8 = 42.40 .95 min. The Taylor tool life equation has parameters n = 0." What's the problem? What do you recommend to solve it? Solution: There are several problems here. A cutting oil is applied by the operator by brushing the lubricant onto the drill point and flutes prior to each hole. It has been found that the use of a coolant type cutting fluid will allow an increase of 25 ft/min in the speed without any effect on tool life. T = (225/125) 1/.3333 = 21.1) = 143 T = (143/90) 1/.125 and C = 200 for dry cutting. (d) Ceramic: this is not a good candidate because of its low toughness. First. The cutting conditions are: speed = 25 m/min. With cutting fluid. it has good toughness for the interrupted cut.12 = 130 T = (130/90) 1/.2 in the text. it must be a steel cutting grade with high toughness (high cobalt content).42.20 A high speed steel 6. T = (200/125) 1/. resulting in friction heat. what would be the increase in tool life if the original cutting speed of 125 ft/min were used in the operation? Solution: From Table 23.21 = 121% 23.12 = 130(1 + 10%) = 130(1. so toughness is important in the tool material. Solution: Dry: 90(T)0. he says. and hole depth = 40 mm. (c) Cemented carbide: this is a reasonable candidate. When a coolant is used in the operation. The foreman says that the "speed and feed are right out of the handbook" for this work material. Dry: at v = 125 ft/min. As a consequence the chips produced in the hole are having difficulty exiting.0 mm twist drill is being used in a production drilling operation on mild steel. Cutting Fluids 23.25 min = 156. the depth-to-diameter ratio is 1.42 = 1.8) 8 = 110.12 = (1.5889) 8. "the chips are clogging in the flutes.Solution: The slot will result in an interrupted cut.125 = (1. Determine the percent increase in tool life that results if the cutting speed is maintained at v = 90 m/min.120 and C = 130 (m/min) when the operation is conducted dry. With cutting fluid: at v = 125 ft/min. a cutting speed v = 90 m/min is used.444) 8. With coolant: 90(T)0.12 = (1.2 . thus causing overheating of the drill.10 mm/rev.40 min. (b) HSS: this is a reasonable candidate. and feed = 0. (e) Sintered polycrystalline diamond: this is not suitable for cutting steel.75:0.6% 23. which is greater than the 4:1 which is usually recommended. the 160 .25 = 7:1. and the drill bit is failing prematurely due to overheating. If it can be assumed that the effect of the cutting fluid is simply to increase the constant C by 25.18 In a turning operation using high speed steel tooling. Second.19 A production turning operation on a steel workbar normally operates at a cutting speed of 125 ft/min using high speed steel tooling with no cutting fluid. n = 0. C = 200 + 25 = 225.2. (a) Plain carbon steel: not economical because of low cutting speeds.2 min. it is likely to fracture during interrupted cutting.3333 = 47.125 = (1.42 min.95) = 67. Increase = (47. the value of C is increased by 10%. The appropriate n and C values in the Taylor equation are given in Table 23.21.42)/21. Increase = (110. Nevertheless.

The twist drill might be operated in a peck-drilling mode to solve the chip clogging problem. The 7:1 depth-to-diameter ratio is a given. Peck-drilling means drilling for a distance approximately equal to one drill diameter.manual method of applying the cutting oil may not be particularly effective. one with good lubricating qualities. as a substitute for the cutting oil. Finally. then retract the drill. an emulsified oil might be tried in the operation. Since overheating is a problem. the cutting oil may not be removing heat from the operation effectively. a requirement of the drilling operation. and we assume it cannot be changed. A twist drill with a fluid hole could be used to more effectively deliver the cutting fluid to the drill point to help extract the chips. it makes sense to try a coolant. then drill some more. etc. Third. with overheating as a problem. 161 .

6 What are the parameters that have the greatest influence in determining the ideal surface roughness Ri ? Answer. 24. The ideal surface roughness is determined by geometric parameters of the machining operation.4 Why do costs tend to increase when better surface finish is required on a machined part? Answer. Machinability can be defined as the relative ease with which a material can be machined using an appropriate cutting tool under appropriate cutting conditions. and tearing of the work surface when machining ductile materials. 24. (2) cost of time the tool is actually cutting the work. whether turning or milling. and (3) vibration and machine tool factors such as setup and workpart rigidity. or similar finishing processes must be included in the manufacturing sequence at higher cost. Answer. What is the fourth term? 162 . (2) operating at speeds away from the natural frequency of the machine tool system. 24. feed. which factors are affected by cutting speed. (3) surface finish.2 What are the criteria by which machinability is commonly assessed in a production machining operation? Answer. The factors that affect surface finish are: (1) geometric factors such as type of operation. 24. 24. and (3) the cost of the time to change the tool. Answer. The factors are: (1) type of tooling. (2) work material factors such as built-up edge effects. and backlash in the feed mechanism. 24. The machinability criteria include: (1) tool wear and tool life. (2) tool nose radius.7 Name some of the steps that can be taken to reduce or eliminate vibrations in machining.5 What are the basic factors that affect surface finish in machining? Answer.24 ECONOMIC AND PRODUCT DESIGN CONSIDERATIONS IN MACHINING Review Questions 24. lapping. Because additional operations such as grinding. and (4) surface roughness requirements.9 The unit cost in a machining operation is the sum of four cost terms.. (2) roughing or finishing operation. The first three terms are: (1) part load/unload cost. and (3) feed or chip load. and (4) ease of chip disposal.1 Define machinability.3 Name some of the important mechanical and physical properties that affect the machinability of a work material. Answer. Steps to reduce vibration in machining include: (1) increase stiffness or damping in the setup. and tool shape (nose radius in particular). e. (3) limiting cutting forces. and (4) in some cases the end cutting edge of the tool. and (3) reducing forces in machining through changes in feed or depth and changes in cutter design.g. strength. 24. (2) forces and power.8 What are the factors on which the selection of feed in a machining operation should be based? Answer. 24. The properties mentioned in the text include: hardness. These parameters are: (1) the type of machining operation. and thermal diffusivity.

(d) low carbon steel. (c) horsepower consumed in the operation. or (e) turning. (d).5 Which one of the following operations is generally capable of the closest tolerances (one best answer)? (a) broaching. tends to push the U-shaped function toward a lower value in the case of cutting speed for minimum cost. (b) cast iron. (f) low value of Ra. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point. Answer. (e) stainless steel.0 indicates that the work material is which of the following relative to the defined base material. (a) 24. (c) end milling. (b) ease of chip disposal. (e). (b). which means high value of Ra or (b) improve surface finish. Answer. if applicable) the tool.7 Which one of the following operations is generally capable of the best surface finishes (lowest value of Ra) (one best answer)? (a) broaching. 24. (b) cutting temperature. (e) low cutting forces. (c) copper. (c) high value of Ra. (b) drilling. dealing with the actual cost of the cutting edge. In general. (d) long tool life.2 Of the various methods for testing machinability. which means lower value of Ra. which of the following seems to be the most important (one answer)? (a) cutting forces. or (f) tool wear. (f) titanium alloys. (g) zero shear plane angle. Answer.6 When cutting a ductile work material. The fourth term is the cost of purchasing (and grinding.1 Which of the following criteria are generally recognized to indicate good machinability (more than one)? (a) all of the following. For each question. and (f) 24. Answer. or (e) sawing. To attain a perfect score on the quiz. Cutting speed for minimum cost. The fourth term in the unit cost equation. an increase in cutting speed will generally have which effect on surface finish? (a) degrade surface finish. Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 14 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct). and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point. (d) planing. cutting speed for minimum cost or cutting speed for maximum production rate? Why? Answer. (e) 24. (b) drilling.0? (a) easier to machine than the base or (b) more difficult to machine than the base. all correct answers must be given. Answer. (c) end milling. (d) planing. 24. (b) 24. (d) surface roughness. which of the following materials has the highest machinability (one best answer)? (a) aluminum. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers. Answer. (a) 24. whose rating = 1.4 163 . or (g) unhardened tool steel.Answer. (a) 24.10 Which cutting speed is always lower for a given machining operation. (e) tool life. since each correct answer is worth 1 point.3 A machinability rating of greater than 1.

For the base material (B1112). (a) Compute a machinability rating for the new material using cutting speed for a 30 min tool life as the basis of comparison.29 and C = 500.7% (b) (a) Base material: T150 = (450/150) 1/.5 = 1.11 = 111% (b) (a) Base material: v10 = 500/10.29 = 152. and (b) setup time for the machine tool.0) 3. (a) Problems Machinability 24.21 = 246.107 = 110.8 Which of the following time components in the average production machining cycle is affected by cutting speed (more than one)? (a) part loading and unloading time. (b) If the machinability criterion were tool life for a cutting speed of 150 m/min.8) 4. Answer. the parameter values were n = 0. test data resulted in a Taylor equation with parameters n = 0. (b) 24.7/179.96 = 96% 24.21 = 169.4 m/min New material: v10 = 400/10. (c) What do the results of the two calculations show about the difficulties in machinability measurement? Solution: (a) Base material: v60 = 500/60. These results were obtained using cemented carbide tooling.8 min MR = 107.6 = 1.27 = (3.7 m/min MR = 198.5 m/min New material: v60 = 400/60.22 and C = 420. Answer.6/256. Units in both cases are: speed in m/min and tool life in min.3/152.5 min New material: v10 = (420/150) 1/.5 = 1. the Taylor parameters were n = 0.9 24. what is the machinability rating for the new material? Solution: (a) Base material: v30 = 450/30. Answer. (a) Compute a machinability rating for the new material. A machinability rating is to be determined for a new work material. Compute the machinability rating for this case.6 m/min New material: v30 = 420/30.22 = (2. or (b) cutting speed for minimum cost.22 = 198. (c) time the tool is engaged in cutting. where speed is in m/min and tool life is min.84 = 184% 164 .29 = 256.545 = 107. For the new material. (b) Suppose the machinability criterion were the cutting speed for a 10 min tool life rather than the present criterion.6 m/min MR = 246. and (d) tool change time. These results were obtained using cemented carbide tooling.27 and C = 450.21 and C = 400.1 A machinability rating is to be determined for a new work material using the cutting speed for a 60 min tool life as the basis of comparison.4 = 0. For the new material.24.704= 58.2 (c) Different test conditions often result in different machinability results.8/58. For the base material (B1112 steel).27 = 179. (c) and (d) Which cutting speed is always lower for a given machining operation? (a) cutting speed for maximum production rate. test data resulted in Taylor equation parameter values of n = 0.3 m/min MR = 169.10 A high tooling cost and/or tool change time will tend to have which of the following effects on vmax or vmin? (a) decrease or (b) increase.

96(10-4) m = 0.4(10-9) = 3.50(144.6(10-6)(32)(0.556 = 144.1. (b) 4130 alloy steel with 190 Brinell hardness.7 A part to be turned in an engine lathe must have a surface finish of 1.2.00015 in. Based on this information. Solution: For free-machining aluminum at 150 m/min.0001 in.96(10-9) = 3. The feed and depth during these tests were: f = 0.25 µm. The nose radius on the tool = 0. Recommended v30 = 1.2.010 in/rev and d = 0.1. 24.75)(10-3)/1.010) 2/(32 x 2/64) = 0.24. From Fig.2. Solution: Ri = f2/32NR = (0. 24. 24. if the tool life desired in operation is 30 min: (a) C1008 low carbon steel with 150 Brinell hardness.2 = 31.6) = 195 ft/min. and depth of cut = 0. From Fig.2 Ri = 1.1.13 and C = 225. mm is interpreted mm/rev) 24. feed rate = 0. Determine the feed that will achieve the specified surface finish.4 except that the part is made of cast iron instead of aluminum and the cutting speed is reduced to 100 m/min. 24. MR for 4130 = 0.3 Ra = 1. 24.2 ratio rai = 1. extrapolating Figure 24.5 = 1. determine the cutting speed you would recommend for the following work materials.6) = 72 ft/min. (b) From Table 24. rai = 1. (24.63 µ m.015 in/pass.20) 2/(32 x 1) = 0.4 In a turning operation on cast iron. Solution: Ri = f2/32NR = (0.13 = 225/1. = 1.8 Solve previous Problem 24. Recommended v30 = 0. Cutting speed = 100 ft/min.3). Cutting speed = 150 m/min.196(10-8) m2 165 .65(144.6) = 94 ft/min.0 mm. Compute an estimate of the surface roughness for this cut.65.0 mm.6 A single-point HSS tool with a 3/64 in nose radius is used in a shaping operation on a ductile steel workpart.35.6(10-6)(32)(0. The part is made of a free-machining aluminum alloy.02 x 100 = 102 µ in. = 100 µin.2f 2/32NR Rearranging. (24.100 in.3 Tool life turning tests have been conducted on B1112 steel with high speed steel tooling. feed = 0. rai = 1. f2 = Ri(32NR) = 1. 24. and machinability data given in Table 24.2 in Eq.9 x 150 = 285 µ in.2 = 1.9 Ra = 1. = 150 µin. Assume that the same feed and depth of cut are to be used. From Fig. Determine the surface roughness for this cut. (c) From Table 24. so Ra = Ri Ra = Ri = f2/32NR Rearranging.015) 2/(32 x 3/64) = 0.6 ft/min.75 mm.010 in/rev and a cutting speed = 300 ft/min.75)(10-3) = 38. and speed = 2 m/s.25 = 1.2 ratio rai = 1. f2 = Ri(32NR)/1.1.3).00125 mm.84(10-8) m2)0.0 in Eq. so Ra = 1.5 A turning operation uses a 2/64 in nose radius cutting tool on a free machining steel with a feed rate = 0. MR for C1008 = 0.2 mm/rev. Solution: First determine v30 for the base material: v30 = 225/30. the nose radius on the tool = 1.3 x 1. (a) From Table 24.50. Solution: Ri = f2/32NR = (0. and depth of cut = 4. Solution: For cast iron at 150 m/min.84(10-8) m2 f = (3.35(144.02 Ra = 1. and (c) B1113 steel with 170 Brinell hardness.125 in. Surface Roughness 24. rai = 1. and the resulting parameters of the Taylor equation are: n = 0.6 µm. MR for B1113 = 1.196 mm (here. from Figure 24. Determine the surface roughness for this operation. Recommended v30 = 0.

5 = 2.144(10-8) m2 f = (6.8 µm. Changes in tooling: (1) increase nose radius NR.27 = 32/1. Without knowing any more about the job. what changes in cutting conditions and tooling would you suggest to improve the surface finish? Solution: Changes in cutting conditions: (1) decrease chip load f. (3) use cutting fluid.2 ratio rai = 1. from Figure 24.f = 3. so Ra = 1. but this property tests well within the ductility range for the material specified by the designer.13 A turning operation is to be performed on C1010 steel. and that the depth of cut will be 0. while at the same time maximizing the metal removal rate. N = v/πD = (400 x 12)/3π = 509. and (3) increase relief angle.0 mm.12 A face milling operation is not yielding the required surface finish on the work. It has been decided that the speed should be in the range 200 ft/min to 400 ft/min.5 m/s and d = 3. Cutting conditions: v = 1.5 = 1.6 µm.0 mm.248 mm (here. Determine the minimum nose radius that will obtain the specified finish in this operation.35 in Eq. Determine the feed that will achieve the specified surface finish. mm is interpreted mm/rev) 24.10 The surface finish specification in a turning job is 0. f2 = Ri(32NR) = 1. Determine the speed and feed combination that meets these criteria.48(10-4) m = 0. It is desired to achieve a surface finish of 64 µ-in (AA).46 in/min.4 x 10-6 in2 f = (50. NR = 1. Ri = f2/32NR Rearranging. so Ra = Ri = f2/32NR Rearranging.3).6(10-6)(32)(1.2 x 10-6)(4/64) = 50. The machine shop foreman thinks the problem is that the work material is too ductile for the job.179 mm (here. Solution: For cast iron at 400 ft/min.3).4 x 10-6).3 mm/rev.0 in Eq. 24.2)(10-3) = 61.080 in.5 = 7.2 µin. The part is made of a free-machining steel.00475 m = 4.35(0. 166 . which is a ductile grade.27 = 25.0 in. The cutter is a four-tooth insert type face milling cutter.27. a type of carbide insert with 4/64 in nose radius is to be used.44(10-9) = 6.2 mm.75 mm 24. so Ra = 1. (24. mm is interpreted mm/rev) 24.3 x 10-3)2/(32)(0. Solution: For free-machining steel at 90 m/min. and d = 4. To obtain the best possible finish.2 ratio rai = 1.35f 2/(32Ra) NR = 1.9 A part to be turned in an engine lathe must have a surface finish of 1. Determine the required feed rate (in/min) that will achieve the 32 µ-in finish. fr = Nntf = 509. from Figure 24.2 ratio rai = 1. Increasing speed will increase MRR and reduce Ra.3(4)(0. Solution: For cast iron at 75 m/min. 24. f2 = 32(Ra)(NR) = 32(25. The tool nose radius = 3/64 in. The cutter uses four inserts and its diameter is 3. Items (2) and (3) will have a marginal effect.35Ri = 1.8)(10-6) = 0.11 A face milling operation is to be performed on a cast iron part at 400 ft/min to finish the surface to 32 µ-in. The nose radius on the tool = 1. The cutting conditions have been selected as follows: v = 75 m/min. from Figure 24.79(10-4) m = 0. (2) increase rake angle. The nose radius of the cutting tool must be selected.1 x 10-3 = 0.3 rev/min. f = 0.27 Ri Ri = Ra/1. (2) increase cutting speed v.0071) = 14. Solution: Increasing feed will increase both MRR and Ra. it stands to reason that we should operate at the highest possible v.0071 in/rev. (24. Therefore.196(10-8) m2)0.35f 2/32NR Rearranging.144(10-8) m2)0. The work material is cast iron.

(b) tool life in min of cutting.6 x 10-6)(3/64) = 83. The operator and machine tool rate = $30.015 in/tooth. and that each tooth projects an equal distance from the axis of rotation. 25.0 m/s.4 x 49.35x4/π) = 0. Assuming first that the teeth are equally spaced around the cutter. Compare at v = 300 ft/min. (b) Down milling: Ri = 0. determine the theoretical surface roughness for (a) up-milling.15 A peripheral milling operation is performed using a slab milling cutter with four teeth and a 2.43(0.13 . and (b) down-milling.13 and C = 75 (m/min) for a feed of 0. rai = 1. Optimum cutting conditions are: v = 400 ft/min and f = 0.15 = 55. From Fig. rai = 1.503 µm.125(0.015) 2/(1.13 = 75/[6. From Fig.787 min.719 µ m. Ri = f2/32NR f2 = 32(Ra)(NR) = 32(55.fnt/π) = 0. which maximizes MRR = 3. Estimate the surface roughness for (a) up-milling. Ra = 1. and cutting speed v = 1.0 min to load and unload the workpart and 3.16 A HSS tool is used to turn a steel workpart that is 300 mm long and 80 mm in diameter.5D . The chip load f = 0.8 x 10-6)(3/64) = 76. Ra = 1.6 µin. Solution: (a) Up milling: Ri = 0.26. 25. (b) Tmax = (75/49.0087 in/rev.45. Ri = f2/32NR f2 = 32(Ra)(NR) = 32(50.26 = 50.fnt/π) = 0.125f 2/(. MRR = 2.518) = 0. Machining Economics 24.015x4/π) = 22.50 min to change tools.8 µin.35x4/π) = 0.5] . (b) Down milling: Ri = 0.0091 in/rev.692 = 23.8 x 103) = 3.125f 2/(0.2 x 10-6).43 Ra = 1. (c) Tm = πDL/fv = π(80)(300)/(.5 = 0. 25. rai = 1.50/min vmax = 75/[(1/. It takes 2. and cutting speed = 150 ft/min.15 Ri Ri = Ra/1. 167 . MRR = 3.15 = 64/1.1)(3.26 Ri Ri = Ra/1.4 x 10-6 in2 f = (83.125(0.5)].15.8 m/min.14 Plain milling is performed to finish a cast iron workpart prior to plating. 25.00/hr.5D+fnt/π) = 0.Try v = 400 ft/min.0091 in/rev.503) = 0. From Fig.2 x 10-6 in2 f = (76.4 x 10-6).35) 2/(30 + 0.692 x 3.741 µ m.125(0.25+0. 24. From Fig.43(0.00.8) 1/. rai = 1.015x4/π) = 22. Solution: (a) Up milling: Ri = 0.27 = 49.35 mm/tooth.45.506) 7. Solution: (a) Co = $30/hr = $0.51 in3/min.125(0.45.125f 2/(.43 Ra = 1.5D + fnt/π) = 0. and the tooling cost per cutting edge = $4.25-0. and (b) down-milling.51 in 3/min. and (c) cycle time and cost per unit of product.2 µ in. The milling cutter has four equally spaced teeth and the diameter = 60 mm.26 = 64/1. Feed = 0.8 µ in.5 = 0. Determine: (a) cutting speed for maximum production rate.45. 24.4 mm/rev.015) 2/(1.51 in 3/min.0.518 µm. The parameters in the Taylor equation are: n = 0.50 in diameter.42 min.35) 2/(30 .13 = (1.5D .125f 2/(0.

18 except that in part (a).55/(2. (c) Tm = πDL/fv = π(80)(300)/(.85/pc 24. The rate for the operator and machine tool = $33.0 + 4. The workpart to be used in the 168 .00/hr.184 pc/tool life Use np = 6 pc/tool life Tc = Th + Tm + Tt/np = 2.00/6 = $3.6 x 103) = 4.5)].0/3 = $3.32/pc 24.013 x 590 x 12) = 1.54 pc/tool Use np = 7 pc/tool life Tc = Th + Tm + Tt/np = 3.13 .50 min to change tools.323 = 3.0 + 1.55/pc 24.00))].823) + 2.27 = 590 ft/min.0 in and diameter = 3.np = 23.55 x 1. (b) Tmin = (75/42.42/3.41 pc/tool life Use np = 17 pc/tool life Tc = Th + Tm + Tt/np = 2.5 + 4.06 min/pc. (c) Tm = πDL/fv = π(3)(18)/(.5/3 = 4. there are four cutting edges per insert.5/7 = 5.50/((1/. and (c) cycle time and cost per unit of product.50/min vmin = 75[.96 min. (b) Tmin = (1200/590) 1/. For the disposable inserts.692 = 76.18 A cemented carbide tool is used to turn a part with length = 18.27 = 1200[.07/pc 24.63 min/pc.50(6.27 .19 Solve previous Problem 24.13 = (1.692 x 5. The standard time to grind or regrind the cutting edge is 5.00/hr.0 min to load and unload the workpart and 1.96/4.06) + 2.0/17 = $3.55/min Cc = 0.13 = 42. Solution: (a) Co = $30/hr = $0.76) 7.50 x 3.1)(.5] .0 min.0/7 = $3. Solution: (a) Co = $33/hr = $0.704 x 2.5/6 = 6.06 min.0 + 3.013 in/rev.55/min vmin = 1200[.27 = (2.6) 1/.5/17 = 6. and the grinder is paid at a rate = $20. and the tooling cost per cutting edge = $2. (c) Tm = πDL/fv = π(3)(18)/(. The parameters in the Taylor equation for this grade are: n = 0. the price of the tool = $30. and the tool change time = 1.27 = 1200/[2.00.823 min/pc.825)].0 in. np = 13.323 min.37) + 4. The feed = 0.1)(1.27 = (1. Cc = 0.00.0 min.20 Compare disposable and regrindable tooling. determine cutting speed for minimum cost. It takes 3.42 = 17.787 + 3.843 min.323 + 1. determine cutting speed for minimum cost. Cc = 0. The tool change time for the regrindable tooling = 3.787 = 6. Cc = 0.27 . Machine time on the lathe costs $24.16 except that in part (a). np = 76.704 = 4.00))].37 min/pc.55(5.704 = 13.42 min/pc.704 x 1.50/(6. The same grade of cemented carbide tooling is available in two forms for turning operations in a certain machine shop: disposable inserts and brazed inserts.27 and C = 1200.013 x 822 x 12) = 1.4 x 42. (b) Tmax = (1200/822) 1/.75)].0 + 1. Co = $33/hr = $0.55(5.0 min (this is an average of the time to index the insert and the time to replace it when all edges have been used).50(6.5 + 2. Determine: (a) cutting speed for maximum production rate. Solution: (a) vmax = 1200/[(1/.843 = 7.89/1.63) + 4.066 pc/tool Use np = 3 pc/tool life Tc = Th + Tm + Tt/np = 3. For the brazed insert.6 m/min.17 Solve previous Problem 24.00/hr.25 and C = 300 (m/min) under the cutting conditions considered here.55/((1/.42 + 3. np = 4.00 and it is estimated that it can be used a total of 15 times before it must be scrapped. (b) tool life in min of cutting. The parameters in the Taylor equation are: n = 0.27 = 822 ft/min.055/1.034) 3.1)(. price of each insert = $6.13 = 75[.843 + 1.460) 3.89 min.

0) = 9.40(4.30)(10-3)(122) = 2. cemented carbide.67/6 = $2.4) = 36. (c) Tm = π(62.180/pc Disposable inserts are recommended.5)(375)/(0.59 min/pc np = 14.30)(10-3)(228) = 1.0)].5 min.50/8 = $1.0/8 = 3.0)]. the 169 . For the two tooling cases.4 = 3(4. 24.92) + 3. (c) cycle time and cost per unit of production.25 = 300[1.25 min.25 .92 min/pc. Ct = $30/15 + 5($20/60) = $3. and it takes 2.1)(0.01 + 3.5)/0.22 Three tool materials are to be compared for the same finish turning operation on a batch of 100 steel parts: high speed steel. (c) Tm = π(62. Ct = $6/4 = $1.1)(1.50))]. 24. For the high speed steel tool.25 = 300[1. (c) Tm = π(62.21 Solve previous Problem 24.0/((1/0.comparison is 375 mm long and 62. determine the cutting speeds for maximum production rate.40/((1/0.30 mm/rev.0/18 = 4.1)(3.59 + 1.4 m/min. Which tool would you recommend? Solution: Disposable inserts: (a) Co = $24/hr = $0.1)(1.34 pc/tool life Use np = 6 pc/tool Tc = 2.72 min/pc.0)].50/2 = $2.25 .42 + 3.67/edge vmin = 300[0.18 min/pc.16 pc/tool life Use np = 18 pc/tool Tc = 2.40(3.18) + 3. (b) tool lives.25/1.0 + 2.50/edge vmax = 300[1. Cycle time and cost per piece are less.50/edge vmin = 300[0.5)(375)/(0. and ceramic.5 mm in diameter.1)(0.0))].58 min/pc.40 x 3.59 = 8.40/min.25 = 173.40(3.9/0.0 + 3.67/18 = $1. Cycle time and cost per piece are less. Cc = 0.40/(3 x 1. Solution: Disposable inserts: (a) Co = $24/hr = $0.0/1. (b) Tmax = (1/0.25 .4 + 1. (b) Tmin = (1/0.40/min.182/pc Regrindable tooling: (a) Co = $24/hr = $0.0 + 1.78 pc/tool life Use np = 2 pc/tool Tc = 2. Comparing the results in this problem with those of the previous problem.0 + 1.25 = 122.08 min/pc np = 3. The feed = 0. (b) Tmax = (1/0.08 = 2.25 = 228.72) + 1.0 + 1.87)].42 min/pc np = 9.01 min/pc np = 36.25 .0/6 = 3. (b) Tmin = (1/0.20 except that in part (a).58) + 1.5)(375)/(0.40/((1/0.9)].0 min.40(3.08 + 1. note that with the maximum production rate objective here.25 = 300[0.25 . Cc = 0.40 x 1.0 + 1.0 m/min.0 min to load and unload the work.0/1.42 = 6.0/(3 x 1.4) = 1.67))].1)(3) = 3(3.25 .4 = 3(1.0/((1/0.87/0.40/min.4 x 3 + 3.96 pc/tool life Use np = 8 pc/tool Tc = 2.1)(0.01 = 18.30)(10-3)(173.2 m/min.25 = 300[0.0/2 = 3.40/(3 x 4. cycle times are less.30)(10-3)(154. (c) Tm = π(62.0/(3 x 3.0) = 3(1.4) = 14.5/2.25 .25 .40/min.0) = 3. compare: (a) cutting speeds for minimum cost.5)(375)/(0.67/edge vmax = 300[1.67)/0.25 = 154. Ct = $6/4 = $1.674/pc Regrindable tooling: (a) Co = $24/hr = $0.0 min.0 m/min. but that unit costs are less in the previous problem where the objective is minimum cost per piece.876/pc Disposable inserts are recommended. Ct = $30/15 + 5($20/60) = $3.1)(0. Cc = 0. Cc = 0.2) = 1.

vmin = 500[. (c) cycle time.81 + 3. Co = $30/hr = $0. (d) Cc = 0.0 hr.0/21 = 2.0)/.6 = 1756 m/min.50 x 3.0 + 4.50)/.1% Cemented carbide tooling: (a) Ct = $6/6 = $1.1)(0.81 = 11.116 + 1.1)(0.0(60) + 100(7.706)/399 = 0.0 + 1.177 = 17. (c) Tm = π(56)(290(10-6))/(0.44/0. (e) total time to complete the batch and production rate.50/min. (b) tool lives.79) = 399 min = 6.6 . (f) Proportion of time spent cutting = 100(0.50/((1/.116 = 21 pc/tool life Tc = 2. and for the ceramic: n = 0. The Taylor equation parameters for the cemented carbide are: n = 0.25(10-3)1756) = 0.1)(.00 and for the ceramic = $8.8 hr.79) + 1. Tool change time = 1.50(2. (b) Tmin = (1/0. Setup time for the batch is 2.0 min.0/12 = 2. The cost of machine time = $30/hr. compare: (a) cutting speeds for minimum cost.48/pc (e) Time to complete batch = 2.116 min/pc np = 2.1)(.25(10-3)289) = 0.50/edge. (d) Cc = 0.000[.50 = 3(1.000.667(1.0/.706 + 1.16 min/pc.33)/.0 + 2.50))].08) + 2.7% Ceramic tooling: (a) Ct = $8/6 = $1.44 min.0 + 0. Time to change parts = 2.77/pc (e) Time to complete batch = 2.706min/pc np = 9/0.83/.000[. Tool change time = 3 min.25 .50/min. (c) Tm = π(56)(290(10-6))/(0.125 .0/11 = 7.50/((1/.125 = 70[0.50 = 0.50 = $2. The price of the HSS tool is $15.125 = 42.50(7.581 = 58.00/12 = $1.706 = 12.50 x 1.50)].25 = 289 m/min. The cost per insert for the carbide = $6.50/(3 x 1.50 x 1 + 1.125 . and depth = 3. Production rate Rp = 100 pc/6.1)(.667 x 1.25 pc/hr.00 and it is estimated that it can be ground and reground 15 times at a cost of $1.00. (c) Tm = π(56)(290(10-6))/(0.50 = 7(4.6 pc/tool life Use np = 11 pc/tool life Tc = 2.4) = 4.50.0(60) + 100(2.Taylor equation parameters are: n = 0. Number of cutting edges per insert in both cases = 6.08) = 828 min = 13.783 hr = 14.50) = 56 min.08 min/pc.1)(0.25 = 500[.6 .33/21 = $1.125 and C = 70. (d) cost per production unit. (f) What is the proportion of time spent actually cutting metal for each tooling? Solution: HSS tooling: (a) Ct = $15/15 + 1.50/11 = $3. The part dimensions are: diameter = 56.50 x 1 + 1. Both carbide and ceramic tools are in insert form and can be held in the same mechanical toolholder.0 mm and length = 290 mm.50/.50(2.50 x 3 + 2. (b) Tmin = (1/.50/min.0)].8 hr = 7.81min/pc np = 56/4.7 pc/tool life Use np = 12 pc/tool life Tc = 2.15/pc 170 .4 m/min. (b) Tmin = (1/.0 + 0. For the three tooling cases. vmin = 70[0.6 and C = 3.00/edge.50) = 9 min. Co = $30/hr = $0. (d) Cc = 0.50/(.6 = 3.81)/828 = 0. (f) Proportion of time spent cutting = 100(4.25(10-3)42.25 and C = 500.50/((1/.65 hr.79 min/pc.0 mm.0 + 1. Feed = 0.33))].16) + 1. Co = $30/hr = $0.83)].00))].50) = 2. vmin = 3.25 mm/rev.33/edge.25 .0 min for both tools.50/(7 x 4. Production rate Rp = 100 pc/13.74 pc/hr.50 x 1.

(f) Proportion of time spent cutting = 100(4.0(60) + 100(7.25 = 4.537)/394 = 0.50/4 = $4.00/5 = $1.00) = 820 min = 13. Production rate Rp = 100 pc/6.0) = 3(1.74) = 394 min = 6.23 Solve previous Problem 24. (b) Tmax = (1/0.33/edge.0/12 = 2. (f) Proportion of time spent cutting = 100(0.00) + 2. The very small cutting time Tm and resulting low proportion of time spent cutting for ceramic tooling focuses attention on the nonproductive work elements in the batch time.8% Cemented carbide tooling: (a) Ct = $6/6 = $1.0)]. Co = $30/hr = $0.035 = 3.50(2.25(10-3)3825) = 0.053 = 12 pc/tool life Tc = 2. 24.537 min/pc np = 3/0.22 except that in parts (a) and (b).6 pc/tool life Use np = 5 pc/tool life Tc = 2.57 hr. vmax = 3.25(10-3)380) = 0. and puts pressure on management to seek ways to reduce these nonproductive elements.537 + 1. Production rate Rp = 100 pc/5. (b) Tmax = (1/0.1)(3) = 7(3) = 21 min.57/pc (e) Time to complete batch = 2.6 = 3825 m/min.0 + 4.74) + 1.1)(1.25 + 3. (c) Tm = (c) Tm = π(56)(290(10-6))/(0.0)].667 min.053 + 1.518 = 51.00 min/pc.6 = 3. determine the cutting speeds and tool lives for maximum production rate.5% Comment: One might conclude that such a low proportion of time spent cutting would argue against the use of the calculated cutting speed for ceramic tooling. (b) Tmax = (1/0. However.125 . specifically. Solution: HSS tooling: (a) Ct = $15/15 + 1.6 . vmax = 70/[(1/.50/min.537 = 5.0 + 0.0)].6 .67 hr. 171 .16) = 336 min = 5.(e) Time to complete batch = 2. (c) Tm = π(56)(290(10-6))/(0.50/min. note that ceramic tooling provides a significant advantage in terms of unit cost.0)].0(60) + 100(2.125 = 48 m/min.0 min.0(60) + 100(2. batch time.50 = $2.0/4 = 7. (d) Cc = 0.60 hr.25 = 500/[(3 x 1.1)(3.25 = 380 m/min.23 pc/hr.1)(1) = 0.32 pc/hr.0) = 3.125 = 70/[7 x 3)].116)/336 = 0. setup time and workpart handling time.136 = 13. Production rate Rp = 100 pc/13.0 + 0.0/5 = 2.25min/pc np = 21/4.000/[(1/.667 x 1.57 hr = 15.0] .25 .9 pc/tool life Use np = 4 pc/tool life Tc = 2. (f) Proportion of time spent cutting = 100(0.1)(1. and production rate compared to HSS tooling and even carbide tooling.00/edge.25(10-3)484) = 4.667/0.50/min.667(1) = .6% Ceramic tooling: (a) Ct = $8/6 = $1.14 min/pc.50(7. Co = $30/hr = $0. (c) Tm = π(56)(290(10-6))/(0.25)/820 = 0.6 hr = 17.125 .000/[. (d) Cc = 0.1)(1.86 pc/hr. vmax = 500/[(1/.053 min/pc np = 0. Co = $30/hr = $0.13/pc (e) Time to complete batch = 2.67 hr = 7.25 .50/edge.74 min/pc.

14) + 1.NC lathe positions tool for first pass (0.57 hr.015) = 34.7 = 0.2 min/pc np = 540/34. feed = 0. The feed rate = 0. setup time and workpart handling time.8 = 2. The cost of the operator and machine = $39/hr and the tool cost = $2. In addition.0(60) + 100(2. batch time. The starting diameter of the work is 3. vmax = 850/[(1/. Tm = π(28)(14)/(500 x 12 x 0.053)/334 = 0. and tooling cost = $3. However. starts cycle (1.23 . Current cutting conditions are: speed = 200 ft/min.100 in.7 min/pc np = 10/13. and the cost of machine time on this boring mill = $42.7 + 3/.(d) Cc = 0.00 in and its length = 10 in.00 min).10 min).73 = 29.0)]. (c) cost of the production 172 . and depth = 0.73 pc/tool life Tc = 12 + 13.0 min.NC lathe turns second pass (time depends on cutting speed).57 hr = 17.01 pc/hr This is a 56% increase in production rate relative to the 200 ft/min cutting speed.015) = 13.0 min.NC lathe repositions tool for second pass (0.0) = 3. 4 .00 min).0 in. 3 .14) = 334 min = 5. and production rate compared to HSS tooling and even carbide tooling. The parameters of the Taylor equation for the cutting tool in the operation are: n = 0. This tool change time takes 1. 24.23 = 500 ft/min. The diameter = 28.26 and C = 900 (ft/min). Tm = π(28)(14)/(200 x 12 x 0.00/cutting edge. Rc = 60/46.1)(3.348(3. Is that possible? Assume that feed must remain unchanged in order to achieve the required surface finish.50 per cutting edge.016 = 1.50(2. Tool change time = 3. The time required to load and unload the parts = 12.6% Comment: One might conclude that such a low proportion of time spent cutting would argue against the use of the calculated cutting speed for ceramic tooling.Operator unloads part and places in tote pan (1. 24.33/12 = $1. The work cycle consists of the following steps (with element times given in parentheses where applicable): 1 . (b) the average time required to complete one production cycle. The very small cutting time Tm and resulting low proportion of time spent cutting for ceramic tooling focuses attention on the nonproductive work elements in the batch time.8 min. The operator loads and unloads the machine. Production rate Rp = 100 pc/5.0)]. and 6 . Determine: (a) the cutting speed for minimum cost per piece.23 and C = 850 (ft/min). Rc = 60/29.2 + 3/15 = 46.24 A vertical boring mill is used to bore the inside diameter of a large batch of tube-shaped parts. and puts pressure on management to seek ways to reduce these nonproductive elements. 5 .125 in.348 x 3. the cutting tool must be periodically changed.4 min).NC lathe turns first pass (time depends on cutting speed).18/pc (e) Time to complete batch = 2.00 min. Tmax = (1/.4 = 1.1)(3.293 pc/hr Find vmax to compare with current operating speed.4 min.96 pc/hr.00/hr.23 .2 = 15 pc/tool life Tc = 12 + 34.0) = 10. What is the current production rate and the maximum possible production rate for this job? Solution: At the current operating speed v = 200 ft/min: T = (850/200) 1/. 2 .007 in/rev and the depth of cut for each pass = 0.23 = 540 min. specifically.23 = 850/[(3. Management has decreed that the production rate must be increased by 25%. (f) Proportion of time spent cutting = 100(0. note that ceramic tooling provides a significant advantage in terms of unit cost.0 min.Operator loads part into machine.015 in/rev.25 A NC lathe cuts two passes across a cylindrical workpiece under automatic cycle.0 in and the length of the bore = 14. The applicable Taylor tool life equation has parameters: n = 0.

00)/72. (c) Economically. how long will it take to complete the batch? Solution: (a) Co = $39/hr = $0. Ignore effects of workpart handling time.5 + 2 x 2. At v = 125 ft/min.846(2. which effect is better. the C value is increased from C = 200 to C = 225 due to the use of the cutting fluid.010 x 0. 24. with cost and time parameters as follows: Ct = $2.00 and there are four edges per insert).5 min.65 = 2. given that tooling cost = $2.1) and an adjustment will have to be made using Figure 24.65/.00 per cutting edge.0 in 3 of metal cut as the basis of comparison.00/cutting edge.45 pc/tool life Tc = 2.65/min.cycle.6667) + (0.26 . (a) What is the cutting speed that would result from using the cutting fluid if tool life remains the same as with no fluid? (b) What is the tool life that would result if the cutting speed remained at 125 ft/min. the effect of a cutting fluid is to increase the value of C in the Taylor tool life equation.6667 = 164.65/((1/.0 hours and the batch size = 300 parts. Assume both passes have equal Tm.26 As indicated in Section 24.36) + (0.1)(.0/(140. np = 11. (c) Cc = .353/in3. or (2) cutting at 125 ft/min to give a 110 min tool life.65) = 11.4. volume cut per tool life = 43/0.50(.5927 = 72.010 x 0. In a certain machining situation using HSS tooling. tool life T = (200/125) 1/.36 + 1.65 x 1 + 2.100 in.6667 min. With a cutting fluid.65/(2.00)/2. and operator and machine rate = $30/hr.100) = 0. Solution: Cutting dry. Time to index each 173 .5 + 2. Tt = 2.45 = $5. volume cut per tool life = 110/0. (24.010 in/rev and depth = 0.50/min. For T = 43 min.6 ft/min (b) Cutting at v = 125 ft/min with a cutting fluid gives a tool life T = (225/125) 8. Justify you answer with calculations.00)/164.5 in 3 between tool changes.63 min/pc.0/2.9 = $0.0 = 110 min (c) Which is better. the Taylor tool life equation parameters are n = 0.5 + 2 x 2. (2) At 125 ft/min. cost/in 3 = 0.100) = 0.9 passes/tool life Since there are two passes/workpiece. vmin = 900[.26 = 900[. using cost per cubic in of metal machined as the criterion of comparison. The n value is the same with or without fluid at n = 0. np = 2. cost/in 3 = 0.00))].125 and C = 225.1)(.27 In a turning operation on ductile steel.0 in3/MRR = 1. Disposable inserts are used at a cost of $1. and Co = $30/hr = $0.5927) + (0.50(.45 = 7. Feed = 0.6 min.65 x 1 + 2.5 + 2.36 min/pc.9 in 3 between tool changes.6 ft/min.5927 min.0(60) + 300(7.50 x 2. Conclusion: it is better to take the benefit of a cutting fluid in the form of increased cutting speed. the Taylor tool life equation parameters are n = 0. (b) Tmin = (1/. Tm = 1.2 to convert the 63 µ-in actual roughness to an ideal roughness.007) = 2.125 = 140. Tm = 1. Ignoring work handling time.6 ft/min to give a 43 min tool life. The ideal roughness is given by Eq.65(2.0/(125 x 12 x 0.6) 8 = 43 min.0 + 2. Tm = π(3)(10)/(476 x 12 x 0..77/pc (d) Time to complete batch = 3.63) = 2469 min = 41.6 x 12 x 0. For T = 110 min.341/in3.5 min. (d) If the setup time for this job is 3.125 = (1. tool change time = 2.26 = 476 ft/min.15 hr. (1) cutting at a speed of 140.50 x 2. Use 1.5 = $0. Ignoring work handling time. 24.6/2.846 x 2.0)/. Cutting speed used in the operation is v = 125 ft/min.125. it is desired to obtain an actual surface roughness of 63 µ-in with a 2/64 in nose radius tool. (1) At 140. The effect of the cutting fluid can be to either increase cutting speed (at the same tool life) or increase tool life (at the same cutting speed).65)].75 per cutting edge (each insert costs $7.0 in3/MRR = 1.26 .36 = 4. The corresponding cutting speed for a 43 min tool life v = 225/430. taking into account the material and cutting speed.65 x 1.125 and C = 200.

15).65/(0.0073 in/rev.75/0. Tt = (3(25)+45)/4 = 30 sec = 0. where T = tool life. The workpiece length = 30.00725 in. C = vT0.18.23/(1-0.2 = 53.5 x 10-6) in. f2 = 32NR(Ri) = 32(2/64)(52.23 = 355.55 = 40. ft/min.55 = 40.14) results in Eq.65/(0.23 = 40.75/f0. = 52.75.00725 = 612.75/0.00731 = 609. The Taylor tool life equation for this tool and work combination is given by: vT0.65/(0.5 = 0. min.8): Tc = Th + πDL/fv + Tt(πDLv1/n-1)/fC1/n Tc = Th + (πDL/f)v-1 + (TtπDL/fC1/n)v1/n-1 dTc/dv = 0 . (b) cutting speed for minimum cost per piece at the feed determined in (a).65 x 0. v = cutting speed.2.insert = 25 sec and to replace an insert every fourth index takes 45 sec. in/rev.5 vmin = 582. (24. Solution: Starting with Eq.2 ft/min Iteration 3: At v = 355. (interpreted as in.75)}0.75)}0.23/(1-0./rev for turning) C = vT0.1). The machine and operator’s rate = $39. 24.23 f 0.6{0. Rearranging Eq. = 63 x 10-6 in.23))(0. (24.0 in and its diameter = 3. (24. Solution: Cost and time parameters: Co = $39/hr = $0.55 = 40.D Verify that the derivative of Eq.2 rai = 1. C = vT0.5 + 1.5(10-6) in.E.5 vmin = 612. Ct = $1.29 Q.8 ft/min.75/f0.5 ft/min Select v = 353. Ri = Ra/1. = 53.4 x 10-6) in.65/min.6 vmin = 609.2 f = (52.09357}0.2 f = (63 x 10-6)0. Thus.5{(0.65 x 0.18 = 53. Iteration 1: assume Ri = Ra = 63 µ-in. Hint: to solve (a) and (b) requires and iterative computational procedure.23))(0.2 = 63/1.23))(0.2 f = (53.00794 = 582.8) results in Eq.4 µ-in.6{(0.28 Verify that the derivative of Eq.5(10-6) in.2 = 52.2 ft/min.23 = 337.23/(1-0.00731 in.75/f0. (24.9).00794 in.14): Tc = Th + πDL/fv + (CoTt + Ct)(πDLv1/n-1)/fC1/n Tc = Th + (πDL/f)v-1 + (CoTt + Ct)(πDL/fC1/n)v1/n-1 dTc/dv = 0 .75/cutting edge.2 = 52.09357}0.5 min.5{0.5 + 1.5{0. Solution: Starting with Eq.23 = 612. (24. the ratio from Figure 24.8 ft/min Iteration 2: At v = 337. f2 = 32NR(Ri) = 32(2/64)(53.55 = 40.(πDL/f)v-2 + (1/n – 1)(TtπDL/fC1/n)v1/n-2 = 0 (πDL/f)v-2 = (1/n – 1)(TtπDL/fC1/n)v1/n-2 = 0 (πDL/f) = (1/n – 1)(Tt πDL/fC1/n)v1/n 1 = (1/n – 1)(Tt /C1/n)v1/n v1/n = C1/n/[(1/n-1)Tt] vmax = C/[(1/n-1)Tt]n 24.2 = 63(10-6) in.65 x 0.5{(0.23 = 582.(πDL/f)v-2 + (1/n – 1)(CoTt + Ct)(πDL/fC1/n)v1/n-2 = 0 (πDL/f)v-2 = (1/n – 1)(CoTt + Ct)(πDL/fC1/n)v1/n-2 = 0 (πDL/f) = (1/n – 1)(CoTt + Ct)πDL/fC1/n)v1/n 1 = (1/n – 1)((CoTt + Ct)/C1/n)v1/n v1/n = C1/n/[(1/n-1)(CoTt + Ct)] 174 .5 ft/min and f = 0.4 x 10-6)0.5 = 0. Thus.5 µ-in.5 in. (24.23 = 353.75)}0.2 rai = 1.4(10-6) in.5 + 1.5 = 0.23 = 40.5 x 10-6)0.23 = 609. (24.00 per hour including applicable overheads. f2 = 32NR(Ri) = 32(2/64)(63 x 10-6) in.09357}0. Ri = Ra/1. and f = feed. Solve for (a) the feed in in/rev that will achieve the desired actual finish.23 = 40.75/0.4(10-6) in.2 = 63/1. the ratio from Figure 24.

vmax = C/[(1/n-1)(CoTt + Ct)]n Q.E.D 175 .

An open structure is one in which the grains are far apart. The principal abrasive grit materials include: (1) aluminum oxide. 25. (4) wheel structure. (4) resinoid. (2) attritious wear. and (3) not all of the grains in the wheel surface are engaged in cutting. Answer. which refers to the bond strength of the wheel in retaining abrasive grains.9 What are the three mechanisms of grinding wheel wear? Answer.1 25. High temperatures can also soften the surfaces of workparts that have been heat treated to obtain high hardness. (5) shellac. The mechanisms are: (1) grain fracture. (2) grit size. (2) silicate. The bonding materials in grinding wheels are: (1) vitrified bond . What are the five principal parameters of a grinding wheel? Answer.25 25. (3) rubber. and (5) wheel grade. (2) very fine finishes. Review Questions 25. 25. and (6) metallic.6 What is wheel grade? Answer. in which the grains become dull during cutting. 25.3 What are some of the principal abrasive materials used in grinding wheels? Answer. Wheel grade refers to the wheel's ability to retain abrasive grains during cutting. 25. in which a portion of the grain breaks off during cutting. 25. 25. (2) silicon carbide. The parameters are: (1) abrasive material. and (3) bond fracture.5 What is wheel structure? Answer. Reasons for higher specific energy in grinding: (1) size effect . and a dense structure indicates that the grains are close together. (3) bonding material. A soft grade indicates that the grains are released easily from the bonding material.7 Why are specific energy values so much higher in grinding than in traditional metal cutting processes? Answer. It indicates the bond strength of the bonding material used to shape the wheel. which refers to the relative spacing of grains. Important reasons include: (1) applications on all types of materials. (2) extremely negative rake angles on the abrasive particles in a grinding wheel.8 Grinding creates high temperatures.smaller chip size means higher specific energy. How is temperature harmful in grinding? Answer. and (3) close tolerances.clay and ceramics. Wheel structure indicates the relative spacing of the abrasive grains in the wheel.2 GRINDING AND OTHER ABRASIVE PROCESSES Why are abrasive processes technologically and commercially important? Answer. some are plowing or deforming while others are simply rubbing and creating friction. 176 . High temperatures in grinding create surface burns and cracks. A hard wheel is one which retains the abrasive grains.4 Name some of the principal bonding materials used in grinding wheels. (3) cubic boron nitride. and (4) diamond. in which the grains are pulled out of the bonding material.

Parts are pressed against the belt to accomplish grinding. (b) 25. For each question.2 Of the following abrasive materials.. and to remove chips of work material that have become clogged in the wheel. buffing. and polishing. 177 . 25. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers. in reference to grinding wheels? Answer.16 How does abrasive belt grinding differ from a conventional surface grinding operation? Answer. 25. 25.14 What is centerless grinding? Answer. Truing is similar to dressing.g. and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point. abrasive belt grinding uses abrasive particles bonded to a flexible cloth belt loop which is moved through a pulley system to obtain the speed motion. Answer. It uses a diamond-pointed tool fed slowly and precisely across the wheel while it rotates. since each correct answer is worth 1 point. Dressing is a procedure applied to worn grinding wheels to break off dull grits and expose fresh grits. To attain a perfect score on the quiz. 25. or (c) silicon carbide. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point. (b) milling.15 How does creep feed grinding differ from conventional grinding? Answer. (c) shaping. In creep feed grinding.10 What is dressing. Instead of a grinding wheel. Functions of a grinding fluid are: (1) reduce friction.and the feed rates are lower by the same proportion. which has the highest hardness? (a) aluminum oxide. (b) cubic boron nitride. all correct answers must be given.12 25.25. What are the functions of a grinding fluid? Answer.13 What abrasive material would one select for grinding a cemented carbide cutting tool? Answer. superfinishing. (3) wash away chips. but it also restores the ideal cylindrical shape to the wheel. Choose a diamond wheel. in reference to grinding wheels? Answer. rods) are fed between two rotating wheels: (1) a high speed grinding wheel and (2) a low speed regulating wheel which is tilted at a slight angle to control the feed-through rate. (2) remove heat. Answer. 25.11 What is truing. the depth of cut is very high . Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 17 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct). and (4) reduce workpiece temperature. 25. lapping.1 Which of the following conventional machining processes is closest to grinding (one answer)? (a) drilling. It uses a rotating disk or abrasive stick held against the wheel while it rotates. or (d) turning. Centerless grinding is a grinding operation in which cylindrical workparts (e. 25. High finish abrasive processes include: honing.17 Name some of the abrasive operations available to achieve very good surface finishes.several thousand times higher than conventional grinding .

Answer. (b) 25.3 Smaller grain size in a grinding wheel tends to do which one of the following? (a) improve surface finish, (b) have no effect on surface finish, or (c) degrade surface finish. Answer. (a) 25.4 Which of the following would tend to give higher material removal rates? (a) larger grain size, or (b) smaller grain size. Answer. (a) 25.5 Which of the following will improve surface finish in grinding (more than one)? (a) higher wheel speed, (b) larger infeed, (c) lower wheel speed, (d) lower work speed. Answer. (a) and (d). 25.6 Which of the following abrasive materials is most appropriate for grinding steel and cast iron (one best answer)? (a) aluminum oxide, (b) cubic boron nitride, (c) diamond, or (d) silicon carbide. Answer. (a) 25.7 Which of the following abrasive materials is most appropriate for grinding hardened tool steel (one best answer)? (a) aluminum oxide, (b) cubic boron nitride, (c) diamond, or (d) silicon carbide. Answer. (b) 25.8 Which of the following abrasive materials is most appropriate for grinding nonferrous metals (one best answer)? (a) aluminum oxide, (b) cubic boron nitride, (c) diamond, or (d) silicon carbide. Answer. (d) 25.9 Which of the following will help to reduce the incidence of heat damage to the work surface in grinding (more than one)? (a) frequent dressing or truing of the wheel, (b) higher infeeds, (c) higher work speeds, or (d) lower wheel speeds. Answer. (a), (c), and (d). 25.10 Which of the following abrasive processes achieves the best surface finish (one best answer)? (a) centerless grinding, (b) honing, (c) lapping, or (d) superfinishing. Answer. (d) 25.11 Which of the following abrasive processes could be used to finish a hole or internal bore (more than one)? (a) centerless grinding, (b) honing, (c) cylindrical grinding, (d) lapping, or (e) superfinishing. Answer. (a), (b), and (c). 25.12 The term deep grinding refers to which of the following (one best answer)? (a) alternative name for any creep feed grinding operation, (b) external cylindrical creep feed grinding, (c) grinding operation performed at the bottom of a hole, (d) surface grinding which uses a large crossfeed, or (e) surface grinding which uses a large infeed. Answer. (b)

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Problems

25.1 In a surface grinding operation the wheel diameter = 150 mm and the infeed = 0.07 mm. The wheel speed = 1450 m/min, work speed = 0.25 m/s, and the cross-feed = 5 mm. The number of active grits per area of wheel surface C = 0.75 grits/mm2. Determine: (a) average length per chip, (b) metal removal rate, and (c) number of chips formed per unit time for the portion of the operation when the wheel is engaged in the work. Solution: (a) lc = (150 x 0.07) 0.5 = 3.24 mm (b) MRR = vwwd = (0.25 m/s)(103 mm/m)(5.0 mm)(0.07 mm) = 87.5 mm3/s = 5250 mm3/min (c) nc = vwC = (1450 m/min)( 103 mm/m)(5.0 mm)(0.75 grits/mm2) = 5,437,500 chips/min. 25.2 The following conditions and settings are used in a certain surface grinding operation: wheel diameter = 6.0 in, infeed = 0.003 in, wheel speed = 4750 ft/min, work speed = 50 ft/min, and cross-feed = 0.20 in. The number of active grits per square inch of wheel surface C = 500. Determine: (a) the average length per chip, (b) the metal removal rate, and (c) the number of chips formed per unit time for the portion of the operation when the wheel is engaged in the work. Solution: (a) lc = (Dd) 0.5 = (6.0 x 0.003) 0.5 = (0.018) 0.5 = 0.1342 in. (b) MRR = vwwd = (50 x 12)(0.20)(0.003) = 0.36 in3/min. (c) nc = vwC = (4750 x 12)(0.2)(500) = 5,700,000 chips/min. 25.3 An internal cylindrical grinding operation is used to finish an internal bore from an initial diameter of 250.00 mm to a final diameter of 252.5 mm. The bore is 125 mm long. A grinding wheel with an initial diameter of 150.00 mm and a width of 20.00 mm is used. After the operation, the diameter of the grinding wheel has been reduced to 149.75 mm. Determine the grinding ratio in this operation. Solution: GR = (volume of work material removed)/(volume of wheel removed) Volume of work material removed = (π/4)(125)(252.52 – 250.02) = 123,332 mm2 Volume of wheel removed = (π/4)(20)(1502 – 149.752) = 1177 mm2 GR = 123,332/1177 = 104.8 25.4 In a surface grinding operation performed on hardened plain carbon steel, the grinding wheel has a diameter = 200 mm and width = 25 mm. The wheel rotates at 2400 rev/min, with a depth of cut (infeed) = 0.05 mm/pass and a cross-feed = 3.50 mm. The reciprocating speed of the work is 6 m/min, and the operation is performed dry. Determine: (a) the length of contact between the wheel and the work, (b) the volume rate of metal removed. (c) If C = 0.64 active grits/mm2, estimate the number of chips formed per unit time. (d) What is the average volume per chip? (e) If the tangential cutting force on the work = 30 N, compute the specific energy in this operation? Solution: (a) lc = (200 x 0.05) 0.5 = 3.16 mm (b) MRR = vwwd = (6 m/min)(103 mm/m)(3.5 mm)(0.05 mm) = 1050 mm3/min (c) nc = vwC v = NπD = (2400 rev/min)(200π mm/rev) = 1,507,964 mm/min nc = (1,507,964 mm/min)(3.5 mm)(0.64 grits/mm2) = 3,377,840 grits/min (= chips/min). (d) 3,377,840 grits/min. = 3,377,840 chips/min. Average volume per chip = (1050 mm3/min)/( 3,377,840 chips/min) = 0.00031 mm3/chip (e) U = Fcv/MRR

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v = 1,507,964 mm/min = 1,508 m/min U = 30(1508)/1050 = 43.1 N-m/mm3 25.5 An 8-in diameter grinding wheel, 1.0 in wide, is used in a certain surface grinding job performed on a flat piece of heat-treated 4340 steel. The wheel is rotating to achieve a surface speed of 5000 ft/min, with a depth of cut (infeed) = 0.002 in per pass and a cross-feed = 0.15 in. The reciprocating speed of the work is 20 ft/min, and the operation is performed dry. (a) What is the length of contact between the wheel and the work? (b) What is the volume rate of metal removed? (c) If C = 300 active grits/in 2, estimate the number of chips formed per unit time. (d) What is the average volume per chip? (e) If the tangential cutting force on the workpiece = 10 lbs, what is the specific energy calculated for this job? Solution: (a) lc = (Dd) 0.5 = (8 x 0.002) 0.5 = (0.016) 0.5 = 0.1265 in. (b) MRR = vwwd = (20 x 12)(0.15)(0.002) = 0.072 in3/min (c) nc = vwC = (5000 x 12)(0.15)(300) = 2,700,000 chips/min. (d) Avg volume/chip = (0.072 in 3/min)/(2,700,000 chips/min) = 0.000000026 in 3 = 26 x 10 -9 in3. (e) U = Fcv/MRR = 10(5000 x 12)/0.072 = 8,333,333 in-lb/in3 = 21 hp/(in3/min). 25.6 A surface grinding operation is being performed on a 6150 steel workpart (annealed, approximately 200 BHN). The designation on the grinding wheel is 51-C-24-D-5-V-23. The wheel diameter = 7.0 in and its width = 1.00 in. Rotational speed = 3000 rev/min. The depth (infeed) = 0.002 in per pass, and the cross-feed = 0.5 in. Workpiece speed = 20 ft/min. This operation has been a source of trouble right from the beginning. The surface finish is not as good as the 16 µ-in specified on the part print, and there are signs of metallurgical damage on the surface. In addition, the wheel seems to become clogged almost as soon as the operation begins. In short, nearly everything that can go wrong with the job has gone wrong. (a) Determine the rate of metal removal when the wheel is engaged in the work. (b) If the number of active grits per square inch = 200, determine the average chip length and the number of chips formed per time. (c) What changes would you recommend in the grinding wheel to help solve the problems encountered? Explain why you made each recommendation. Solution: (a) MRR = vwwd = (20 x 12)(0.5)(0.002) = 0.24 in3/min. (b) lc = (Dd) 0.5 = (7.0 x .002) 0.5 = 0.1183 in. v = πDN = π(7.0/12)(3000) = 5498 ft/min = 65,973 in/min nc = vwC = 65,973(0.5)(200) = 6,597,300 grits/min (c) Changes in wheel to help solve problems cited: (1) use Al2O3 oxide abrasive rather than silicon carbide; (2) use smaller grain size that 24; (3) use shellac bond rather than vitifried bond; (4) use more open structure than number 5 to reduce wheel clogging. 25.7 The grinding wheel in a centerless grinding operation has a diameter = 200 mm, and the regulating wheel diameter = 125 mm. The grinding wheel rotates at 3000 rev/min and the regulating wheel rotates at 200 rev/min. The inclination angle of the regulating wheel = 2.5°. Determine the throughfeed rate of cylindrical workparts that are 25.0 mm in diameter and 175 mm long. Solution: From Eq. (25.11), fr = πDrNr sin I fr = π(125)(200) sin 2.5° = 25,000π(0.04362) = 3426 mm/min Parts throughfeed rate = (3426 mm/min)/(175 mm/pc) = 19.58 pc/min

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25.8

A centerless grinding operation uses a regulating wheel that is 150 mm in diameter and rotates at 500 rev/min. At what inclination angle should the regulating wheel be set, if it is desired to feed a workpiece with length = 3.5 m and diameter = 18 mm through the operation in exactly 45 sec. Solution: From Eq. (25.11), fr = πDrNr sin I fr = 3.5 m per 45 sec = 0.077778 m/s = 4.1667 m/min fr = π(150 x 10-3)(500 rev/min) sin I = 235.62 sin I (units are m/min) 4.1667 m/min = 235.62 sin I m/min sin I = 4.1667/235.62 = 0.0198 I = 1.135° °

25.9

In a certain centerless grinding operation, the grinding wheel diameter = 8.5 in, and the regulating wheel diameter = 5.0 in. The grinding wheel rotates at 3500 rev/min and the regulating wheel rotates at 150 rev/min. The inclination angle of the regulating wheel = 3 degrees. Determine the throughfeed rate of cylindrical workparts that have the following dimensions: diameter = 1.25 in and length = 8.0 in. Solution: From Eq. (25.11), fr = πDrNr sin I = π(5.0)(150) sin 3° = 123.33 in/min. Parts feed at (8.0 in/part)/(123.33 in/min) = 0.0649 min/part = 3.9 sec/part

25.10

It is desired to compare the cycle times required to grind a particular workpiece using traditional surface grinding and using creep feed grinding. The workpiece is 200 mm long, 30 mm wide, and 75 mm thick. To make a fair comparison, the grinding wheel in both cases is 250 mm in diameter, 35 mm in width, and rotates at 1500 rev/min. It is desired to remove 25 mm of material from the surface. When traditional grinding is used, the infeed is set at 0.025 mm, and the wheel traverses twice (forward and back) across the work surface during each pass before resetting the infeed. There is no cross-feed since the wheel width is greater than the work width. Each pass is made at a work speed of 12 m/min, but the wheel overshoots the part on both sides. With acceleration and deceleration, the wheel is engaged in the work for 50% of the time on each pass. When creep feed grinding is used, the depth is increased by 1000 and the forward feed is decreased by 1000. How long will it take to complete the grinding operation (a) with traditional grinding and (b) with creep feed grinding? Solution: (a) Conventional surface grinding: Time of engagement/pass = 200 x 10-3 m/(12 m/min) = 0.01667 min = 1 s Forward and backward stroke = 2(1 s)/50% = 4 s Number of passes to remove 25 mm = 25/0.025 = 1000 passes Time to complete 1000 passes = 1000(4) = 4000 s = 66.67 min. (b) Creep feed grinding: Total length of feed = 200 mm + approach = 200 + (d(D-d))0.5 Given D = 250 mm and d = 25 mm, Total feed length = 200 + (25(250-25))0.5 = 275 mm fr = (12 x 103 mm/min)/1000 = 12 mm/min Time to feed = 275/12 = 22.917 min. Note: Creep feed grinding requires about 1/3 the time of conventional surface grinding for the situation defined here.

25.11

In a certain grinding operation, the grade of the grinding wheel should be “M” (medium), but the only available wheel is grade “T” (hard). It is desired to make the wheel appear softer by making changes in cutting conditions. What changes would you recommend? Solution: A hard wheel means that the grains are not readily pulled from the wheel bond. The wheel can be made to appear softer by increasing the force on the individual grits as given by Eq.

181

(25.8). According to this equation, the force on the abrasive grains will be increased by increasing work speed vw, decreasing wheel speed v, and increasing infeed d. 25.12 An aluminum alloy is to be ground in an external cylindrical grinding operation to obtain a good surface finish. Specify the appropriate grinding wheel parameters and the grinding conditions for this job. Solution: Grinding wheel specification: Abrasive type: silicon carbide Grain size: small - high grit size number Bond material: shellac bond Wheel structure: dense Wheel grade: medium to hard Wheel specification: XX-S-150-E-5-B-XY Grinding conditions: Wheel speed: high speed, around 1800 m/min (6000 ft/min) Work speed: low, around 10 m/min (30 ft/min) Infeed (depth of cut): low, around 0.012 mm (0.0005 in.) Crossfeed: low, around 1/6 of wheel width. 25.13 A high speed steel broach (hardened) is to be resharpened to achieve a good finish. Specify the appropriate parameters of the grinding wheel for this job. Solution: Grinding wheel specification: Abrasive type: cubic boron nitride Grain size: small - high grit size number Bond material: vitrified bond Wheel grade: soft to medium Wheel specification: XX-B-150-P-XY-V-XZ-1/8, where XX, XY, and XZ are manufacturer’s symbols. 25.14 Based on equations in the text, derive an equation to compute the average volume per chip formed in the grinding process. Solution: From Eq. (25.3), MRR = vwwd (in3/min) From Eq. (25.6), nc = vwC (chips/min) Volume per chip = MRR/nc = vwwd/vwC = v wd/vC

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4 Describe the water jet cutting process. Reasons for importance are: (1) need to shape new metal alloys and non-metals that are difficult to machine by conventional processes. Name the four categories.26 NONTRADITIONAL MACHINING AND THERMAL CUTTING PROCESSES Review Questions 26. Overcut refers to the difference between the size of the electrode (tool) in EDM and the size of the machined hole. and abrasive jet cutting? Answer.7 Name the three main types of electrochemical machining. The abrasives. and grinding. and AJM cuts with abrasive particles that have been added to a high velocity air stream. 26. but not including conventional machining. The tool oscillates in a direction perpendicular to the work surface. high velocity water stream. Answer. abrasive water jet cutting. Disadvantages of ECM include: (1) cost of electrical power to operate the process. and (4) chemical. In ultrasonic machining. 26. cavity. so that the shape of the tool is formed in the part. based on principal energy form.9 What is meant by the term overcut in electric discharge machining? Answer. WJC cuts with a narrow.6 26. (2) electrical.10 Identify two major disadvantages of plasma arc cutting. perform the cutting.3 How does the ultrasonic machining process work? Answer. Answer. The four categories are: (1) mechanical. (2) unusual and complex workpart geometries. The three types are: electrochemical machining. (3) thermal.8 How does increasing discharge current affect metal removal rate and surface finish in electric discharge machining? Answer. high-velocity stream of water directed at the work surface to cut of the work. 26. Identify the significant disadvantages of electrochemical machining. 26. Answer. AWJC adds abrasive grits to the water stream. or kerf (in wire EDM). 26. MRR increases and surface finish is degraded. and (3) need to avoid surface damage which is often associated with conventional machining. As discharge current increases. 183 . Water jet cutting uses a high-pressure. and is fed slowly into the work. abrasives contained in a slurry are driven at high velocity against the work by a tool vibrating at low amplitude and high frequency.5 What is the difference between water jet cutting.2 There are four categories of nontraditional machining processes. Answer. impinging against the work surface.1 Why are the nontraditional material removal processes important? Answer. 26. deburring. 26. 26. and (2) cost of disposal of electrolyte sludge.

it chemically transforms and can be removed from the surface of the work. all correct answers must be given. and (4) demasking. propylene.14 Name the four principal steps in chemical machining. (2) screen resist.1 Which of the following processes use mechanical energy as the principal energy source (may be more than one)? (a) grinding.3 Applications of electron beam machining are limited to metallic work materials due to the need for the work to be electrically conductive: (a) true or (b) false. Answer. (3) etching.12 26. leaving the desired surface unprotected by the maskant. Two disadvantages are: (1) rough surface on cut edge. and (e) cutting of plastic sheets. and natural gas 26. What is a photoresist in chemical machining? Answer. and (2) metallurgical damage to cut surface.000°F). Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers. (2) masking. and (3) photographic resist.2 Ultrasonic machining can be used to machine both metallic and nonmetallic materials: (a) true or (b) false. (c) milling. (b) 26. The three steps are: (1) cut and peel.000°F). Answer. The four steps are: (1) cleaning.000°F). When exposed.13 26. 26. A photoresist is a masking material that is sensitive to light. What are the three methods of performing the masking step in chemical machining. 184 .Answer. Answer. Answer. since each correct answer is worth 1 point.000°C (20. (d) ultrasonic machining. (b) 5500°C (10. (c). MAPP (methylacetylene-propadiene). Answer. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point. Answer. Answer. (a).4 Which one of the following is closest to the temperatures used in plasma arc cutting? (a) 2750°C (5000°F). (b) laser beam machining. (c) removing material to make shallow pockets in metal. (a) 26.500°C (30. (c) and (d). To attain a perfect score on the quiz. (d) 11. (e) water jet cutting.11 What are some of the fuels used in oxyfuel cutting. and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point. (c) 8300°C (15.5 Chemical milling is used in which of the following (may be more than one)? (a) drilling holes with high depth-to. Answer. Principal fuels are acetylene. For each question. (b) making intricate patterns in sheet metal. (d) removing metal from aircraft wing panels. propane. 26. and (f) wire EDM. Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 18 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct). (e) 16.diameter ratio. and (e). (d) 26.000°F). 26. (d).

d = depth of cut. (d) laser beam machining. (b) electrochemical machining. less than 0. (e) oxyfuel cutting. and (g) wire EDM. The overall size of the "G" is 25 by 19 mm (1. 26.11 Problems General 26. C = specific removal rate.inch thick sheet of fiber-reinforced plastic (more than one)? (a) abrasive jet machining. and (g) wire EDM. and (g) wire EDM.5 mm (0. (e) oxyfuel cutting. (d) Which of the following processes could be used to cut a large piece of 1/2-inch plate steel into two sections (more than one)? (a) abrasive jet machining.1 For each of the following applications. the depth of the hole is 3. The matrix is rectangular.003 inch diameter through a plate of aluminum that is 1/16-inch thick (one best answer)? (a) abrasive jet machining.015 inch wide. and present arguments to support your selection. (d) laser beam machining. and (e) u/d. (b) An engraved aluminum printing plate to be used in an offset printing press to make 275 by 350 mm (11 by 14 in) posters of Lincoln's Gettysburg address. where A = degree of anisotropy.8 mm (0.15 in).004 in) diameter holes in a plate of 3.6 mm ( 0. Which of the following processes would be appropriate for cutting a hole of 0. Answer. (e) Which of the following processes would be appropriate to drill a hole with a square cross-section. 185 .2 mm (0. and (g) wire EDM. Answer.6 in) and the width of the hole is 3 mm (1/8 in).75 in).125 in) thick hardened tool steel.0625 in).6 Etch factor is which of the following in chemical machining (more than one)? (a) A. 75 by 125 mm (3. (f) ultrasonic machining. (d) oxyfuel cutting. The size of the "L" is 25 by 15 mm (1. (a) and (d). I = current. (c) EDM. (b) chemical milling. 0.0 in) with the separation between holes in each direction = 1. (d) d/u. (e) oxyfuel cutting. Answer. (c) Which of the following processes would be appropriate for cutting a narrow slot. identify one or more nontraditional machining processes that might be used.8 26.9 26.25 inch on a side and 1-inch deep in a steel workpiece (one best answer)? (a) abrasive jet machining. (e) and (g). (b) chemical milling.0 by 0. (c) EDM.10 26. (d) and (f).5 in) thick plate of glass. (d) A blind-hole in the shape of the letter G in a 50 mm (2. and u = undercut. (a) A matrix of 0. (c) EDM. Answer. and (g) water jet cutting. Answer. (b) chemical milling. and its width is 3 mm (1/8 in).0 in) cube of steel. which one is noted for the highest material removal rates? (a) electric discharge machining. (c) EDM. (c) laser beam machining. (f) water jet cutting. (c) C I t. (f) water jet cutting. Answer. Assume that either the part geometry or the work material (or both) preclude the use of conventional machining.26. (d) laser beam machining. (b) 1/A. (d) laser beam machining. t = time.0 by 5. (e) plasma arc cutting. Of the following processes. (f) water jet cutting.7 26. in a 3/8. (e) oxyfuel cutting. (f) water jet cutting. (c) A through-hole in the shape of the letter L in a 12. (b) chemical milling.0 by 0.1 mm (0.

42 x 10-2 mm3/A-s From Eq. the frontal working area of the electrode is 2.6) MRR = frA = (CI/A)A = CI = (3. (a) If the process is 90% efficient.9(3693. Possible processes: EBM and LBM can make holes of this size with depth-to-diameter ratios as large as 0..2 Much of the work at the Cut-Anything Company involves cutting and forming of flat sheets of fiber-glass for the pleasure boat industry. Possible process: photochemical engraving.0625 in. but production is slow and scrap rates are high. Many of these fabrics are strong and wear-resistant.3 A furniture company that makes upholstered chairs and sofas must cut large quantities of fabrics. but the plant manager thinks it would be too expensive. by 14 in posters. Possible processes: ECM and EDM would be useful for pocketing operations such as this. in block of steel. C = 3. Rearranging.1.6 mm3/min) = 3324. LBM might also work.1.56 mm3/s = 3693. Solution: Water jet cutting would be an ideal process for this application. I = EA/gr in Eq.2). making a negative of the speech and transferring this to either a silk screen or directly to the photoresist would seem to be the most straightforward methods. Electrochemical Machining 26. Fiber glass is not electrically conductive.125/0. (26. which properties make them difficult to cut. (d) Application: the letter “G” drilled to a depth of 0. 26.2 mm3/min (b) Given resistivity r = 140 ohm-mm. Manual methods based on portable saws are currently used to perform the cutting operation. (b) If the resistivity of the electrolyte = 140 ohm-mm. Possible process: USM works on glass and other brittle non-metallic materials.5 inch thick plate glass. The material being cut is nickel (valence = 2).15 in. This is probably the best process. whose specific removal rate C is indicated in Table 26.125 inch thick hardened steel.6 mm3/min At 90% efficiency MRR = 0. (26. determine the rate of metal removal in mm3/min.42 x 10-2 mm3/A-s)(1800 A) = 6156 x 10-2 mm3/s = 61.4 The frontal working area of the electrode is 2000 mm2 in a certain ECM operation in which the applied current = 1800 amps and the voltage = 12 volts.5 in 2. PAC is therefore not an appropriate process for this application. The applied current = 1500 amps. and the voltage = 12 volts. What nontraditional process(es) would you recommend to the company for this application? Justify your answer by indicating the characteristics of the process that make it attractive. WJC cuts through fabrics quickly and cleanly. and the process could be readily automated.5 In an electrochemical machining operation.Solution: (a) Application: matrix of holes in 0. the workpart must be an electrically conductive material. g = EA/Ir g = (12 V)(2000 mm2)/(1800 A)(140 ohm-mm) = 0. hole diameter = 0. Solution: In plasma arc cutting. The material being cut is pure aluminum. (c) Application: through-hole in the shape of the letter “L” drilled through 0.004 = 31. (b) Application: engraved aluminum printing press plate for 11 in.004 in. The foreman says the company should invest in a plasma arc cutting machine. determine the working gap? Solution: (a) From Table 26. whose specific removal rate C is given in Table 26. separation between holes = 0. What do you think? Justify your answer by indicating the characteristics of the process that make PAC attractive or unattractive in this application.25. (a) If the ECM process is 90 percent 186 .1. 26.095 mm 26.

fr = 0.7).0000476 I I = 0. 187 .0000476 I in/min. At 90% efficiency MRR = 0.3. Tm = 3410°C for tungsten From Eq.000126 in 3/A-min. Rearranging. (b) If the work material were tin.23) = 13. C = 0.0000476 = 2101 A. Solution: (a) From Table 4.000135 I/2. Customary units and express the answer in in 3. except the new material to be compared with tungsten is zinc. what current will be required to complete the cutting operation in 20 minutes? Solution: Electrode frontal gap area A = 0.5)/(1500 x 6. but the electrode that is used to cut the hole is slightly less that 25 mm on its sides to allow for overcut.6 A square hole is to be cut using ECM through a plate of pure copper (valence = 1) that us 20 mm thick.23) = 13. Use U.000126(1500) = 0.7). (a) Determine the amount of metal removed in the operation after one hour at a discharge amperage = 20 amps.189(0.349 mm/s Time to machine = (20 mm)/(0.95(0. C = 7.1/0.5997 mm3/s = 2159 mm3 (b) From Table 4.3 s 26. MRR = KI/Tm1.0000529 I in/min at 100% efficiency.7 A 3.35 x 10-2 mm3/A-s)(1000 A)/(200 mm2) = 0. g = EA/Ir = 12(2. (b) If the resistivity of the electrolyte = 6.1701 in 3/min = 10. Tm = 232°C for tin From Eq. C = 0. determine the rate of metal removal in in 3/hr.02) = 2.553 in 2 From Table 26.25π(3.23 = 664(20)/(34101.0 inch thickness in 20 minutes requires a feed rate fr = 2.0/20 = 0. (26.1 = 0.206 in3/hr. the electrode tool will have a center hole of 3. 26. Solution: From Table 26.9(0. MRR = KI/Tm1. The block is 2. Using an efficiency of 95%.1. Electric Discharge Machining 26. fr = CI/A = 0. The overcut is expected to be 0.8 An electric discharge machining operation is being performed on tungsten.0000529 I) = 0. To speed the cutting process. determine the amount of material removed in the same time.1.2) = 0.efficient. If the efficiency of the ECM operation is 90%.35 x 10-2 mm3/A-s From Eq.355 mm3/s = 58.3675 mm/s At 95% efficiency.189 in 3/min at 100% efficiency.280/812 = 16.1.280/22. determine the working gap? Solution: (a) From Table 26. To cut through a 2.23 = 664(20)/(2321.8.0032 in.0 in which will produce a center core that can be removed after the tool breaks through. (b) I = EA/gr. This tool design results in a frontal area of 200 mm2.6) fr = CI/A = (7.000135 in 3/A-min. and its shape includes a hole in its center to permit the flow of electrolyte and to reduce the area of the cut.553 = 0.2 ohm-in. determine how long it will take to cut the hole. Use metric units and express the answer in mm3. (26.90) = 0.878 mm3 26.005 in on a side.3675 mm/s) = 0.146 = 0.349 mm/s) = 57. MRR = fr x A = (CI/A)(A) = CI MRR = CI = 0. The outside diameter of the electrode is undersized to allow for overcut. fr = 0.S.52 . (26. The hole is 25 mm on each side.9 Same as Problem 26.1 in/min.1.1.5 in diameter through-hole is to be cut in a block of pure iron (Valence = 2) by electrochemical machining. At 90% efficiency fr = 0.0 in thick. The applied current = 1000 amps.

08(20)/28021. how long would it take to cut the hole? Solution: For EDM.23) = 6640/8065 = 0.14 A wire EDM operation is used to cut out punch and die components from 25 mm thick tool steel plates.7). Tm = 2651 F for iron.005 in.08(7)/12201.24)/26511.0107 in3/min 26.002293 in/min.56/6255 = 0.155 = 42. MRR = KI/Tm1.62 in.0603 in.08 I/28021. 26.23 = 5. 0. MRR = 5. It is anticipated that the overcut will be 0.4.0) = 1.1.01 in 3/min is achieved in a certain EDM operation on a pure iron workpart.23 = 35. (26. From Table 4. Solution: From Figure 6.125 mm.393 = 0. What metal removal rate would be achieved on nickel in this EDM operation.7).4.00584/2. 3 (b) From Table 4. (26. Time to machine the 2.7). (26. using Eq. Tm = 2802°F for iron. (26.4/1. MRR = KI/Tm1.000292 I in 3/min Given that MRR = 0.000292 I = 0. Tm = 6170°F for tungsten From Eq.553 in 2 fr = MRR/A = 0.7).23 = 5.1.75(0. what is the allowable feed rate that can be used in the operation? Estimate the melting temperature of 0. Using a discharge current = 10 amps.11 A metal removal rate of 0. 3/s = 0.155 mm2 fr = 49.007) = 0.393 = 0. MRR = 5.1.08 I/17.0/0.08 I/Tm1.1327 in.1. Tm = 1500°C for 1080 steel Using Eq.00584 in 3/min Cross-sectional area of tool from previous problem A = 2.001 in.8233 mm3/s Frontal area of kerf = 0.3 min = 14. Past experience suggests that the overcut will be 0. (27. Using Eq. the surface finish on the cut edge is poor.005685/0.083 in/min. so that the kerf width will be 0.23 = 5.02 mm.7 were to be cut using EDM rather than ECM.01 in 3/min. if the same discharge current were used? Solution: From Table 4.01 I = 0.002293 = 874.23 = 173. 3/s = 3.24 A. 26.08(20)/(61701.6/17.00221 in.0 inch thickness = 2. Tm = 420°F for Zinc From Eq.00525 in 2 fr = 0. MRR = 5.6/45.23) = 101.23) = 101.925 = 0.248 = 0. Tm = 2802°F for iron.Solution: (a) From Table 4.08(20)/(4201. Tm = 1220°F for aluminum.12 In a wire EDM operation performed on 7 mm thick C1080 steel using a tungsten wire electrode whose diameter = 0.57 hr.80% carbon steel from the phase diagram of Figure 6. MRR = 664(10)/(15001. MRR = 5. 3 26.007 in.00525 = 1.7).23 = 101.000292 = 34. in preliminary cuts.1. Using a discharge current = 7 amps.6/1685 = 0. what is the expected allowable feed rate that can be used in the operation? Solution: From Table 4. From Table 4.79 mm/min 26.23 (USCS).01/0. What changes in discharge current and frequency of discharges should be made to improve the finish? 188 .005685 in 3/min Frontal area of kerf = 0.165(7. MRR = 5.13 A wire EDM operation is to be performed on a slab of 3/4 in thick aluminum using a brass wire electrode whose diameter = 0.93/16. Using a discharge current = 20 amps (which would be typical for EDM). so that the kerf width will be 0. However.553 = 0.08(34.165 mm.1.10 Suppose the hole in Problem 26.

The semiaxes of the ellipse are: a = 9.65 in 2) = 0.0)(6.33 hr. = 6. Analyze the problem and recommend a solution.024 mm/min and the etch factor is 1. (c) Given Fe = 2.807 mm2) = 1915. and that the material removal rate (MRR) would therefore increase during the cut as the area increased. Determine: (a) metal removal rate in mm3/min.8 in Maskant opening b’ = b – u = 6. undercut u = d/Fe = 12/1.75 = 6. A = 200 x 400 – (30 x 30 . and that the material removal rate (MRR) would therefore increase during the cut as the area increased. The penetration rate for this combination is 0. (c) Given Fe = 1.0 in and b = 6.024 = 500 min.25 mm thick. surface finish in EDM could be improved by reducing discharge current and increasing frequency of discharges. a sulfuric acid etchant is used to remove material from a sheet of magnesium alloy. and the process should be changed over to adopt this method.2 mm Maskant opening a’ = a – u = 9.8 in 26.001 = 400 min.65 in. Chemical Machining 26.024 mm/min)(79.π(15) 2) = 80.14 mm 26. undercut u = d/Fe = 0. 2 MRR = (0.86) = 186.16965 in 3/min = 10. (c) required dimensions of the opening in the cut and peel maskant to achieve the desired pocket size on the part.001 in/min)(169.16 In a chemical milling operation on a flat mild steel plate. Solution: (a) Neglecting the fact that the initial area would be less than the given dimensions of 9 in. = 8. Solution: (a) Neglecting the fact that the initial area would be less than the given dimensions of 200 mm by 400 mm. A series of rectangular-shaped pockets 12 mm deep are to be formed with dimensions 200 mm by 400 mm. the process is producing a large proportion of scrap.000 – 193 = 79. Solution: The problem in this chemical blanking operation is that the screen resist method of masking cannot achieve the tolerances specified.807 mm2 MRR = (0.0) = 54π = 169.28 mm Maskant opening width = W – 2u = 200 – 2(6." he suggests.0 in. "Perhaps the concentration is incorrect. A solution of hydrochloric and nitric acids will be used as the etchant.2 = 5.86 = 8..0 – 0.4 mm3/min.Solution: As indicated in Figure 26.0.0 = 0.75.75. (b) time required to machine to the specified depth. (b) Time to machine (etch) = 12/0.18 in3/hr (b) Time to machine (etch) = 0.17 In a certain chemical blanking operation. Specified tolerances of ±0.2 = 8.86 mm Maskant opening length = L – 2u = 400 – 2(6. As it turns out. The photoresist method should have been used.67 hr. by 6 in.025 mm are not being achieved. (b) time required to machine to depth. The starting thickness of one workpart of interest is 20 mm.15 Chemical milling is used in an aircraft plant to create pockets in wing sections made of an aluminum alloy.0 – 0. (c) required dimensions of the opening in cut and peel maskant required to achieve the desired pocket size on the part. The screen resist method of masking was used to permit high production rates to be achieved. The part is an aluminum alloy and the etchant is NaOH. The corners of each rectangle are radiused to 15 mm.28 mm Radius on corners = R – u = 15 – 6. The sheet is 0. Determine: (a) metal removal rate in in3/hr.86) = 386.9(a). The foreman in the CHM department complains that there must be something wrong with the sulfuric acid. it is desired to cut an ellipse-shaped pocket to a depth of 0.4 in.4/0.4/2. 189 . area of an ellipse A = πab = π(9.

75 = 0. the effective hole depth on each side = one-half of the stock thickness = 0. etching will occur on both sides of the part.015 in. Diameter of opening = 0. In chemical blanking. Solution: From Table 26.0043) = 0.75.26. If photochemical machining is used to cut these holes.015/2 = 0.100 . Fe = 1.2(0. Therefore. stock thickness of the aluminum sheet is 0. 190 . consisting of a matrix of 0. Undercut u = 0. and contact printing is used to make the resist (maskant) pattern.0914 in. determine the diameter of the holes that should be used in the pattern.18 In a chemical blanking operation.0043 in.0075/1.2. The pattern to be cut out of the sheet is a hole pattern.100 in diameter holes.0075 in.

2 HEAT TREATMENT OF METALS Why are metals heat treated? Answer. Answer. 27.7 Define hardenability? Answer. (2) reduce brittleness and improve toughness. Carburizing adds carbon to the surface of low-C steel.9 Name some of the elements which have the greatest effect on the hardenability of steel. (3) recrystallize cold-worked metals. molybdenum. thereby transforming the surface into high-C steel for grater hardening potential. The TTT curve indicates what phases in the iron. Answer.3 27. 27.carbon phase diagram will be produced under various conditions of cooling. followed by slow cooling to reduce brittleness. 27.1 27. and nickel. and increase toughness and ductility. The purposes of annealing include: (1) control properties. Tempering involves heating and soaking of martensite for about one hour. Martensite formation by heating steel into the austenite region and quenching. 27. Answer. relieve stresses. Review Questions 27. 27. Identify the important reasons why metals are annealed.12 Identify the selective surface hardening methods. The hardenability alloying elements operate by pushing the nose of the TTT curve to the right.11 How does carburizing work? Answer. 27. and (4) relieve stresses from prior metal working.5 What information is conveyed by the TTT curve? Answer. Indicate how the hardenability alloying elements in steel affect the TTT curve. Important hardenability elements are: chromium. Hardenability is the relative capacity of a steel to be hardened by transformation to martensite.8 27. manganese. 27.6 What function is served by tempering? Answer.10 Define precipitation hardening? Answer.4 What is the most important heat treatment for hardening steels? Answer. What is the mechanism by which carbon strengthens steel during heat treatment? Answer. Metals are heat treated to effect metallurgical changes that beneficially alter properties. Precipitation hardening is a heat treatment in which very fine particles (precipitates) are formed so that dislocation movement is blocked and the metal is thus strengthened and hardened. If the steel is heat treated. martensite is formed which depends on the presence of carbon to create the nonequilibrium structure of this phase. 191 .27 27. thereby permitting slower cooling rates for conversion of austenite to martensite.

and laser beam (LB) heating. (b) carbonitriding. (b) brass. induction hardening. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point.Answer. Answer. (c) hardenability. (a). and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point. however. (c) induction heating. (b) annealing. (f) 27. (d) chromizing. (d) hardness. (d) reduce brittleness. electron beam (EB) heating. (c) recrystallization of the metal. since each correct answer is worth 1 point. Answer. or (e) strength. (b) brine. Answer. (c) The reader might be tempted to select (d) because the Jominy test indicates hardness. 192 .2 Of the following quenching media. 27. (b) ductility.3 On which one of the following metals can the treatment called austenitizing be performed? (a) aluminum alloys. (e) quenching. (a) 27. or (c) solution treatment.1 Which of the following are the usual objectives of heat treatment (more than one)? (a) increase hardness. (b) fluidized bed furnaces. (c). Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers. (c) 27. the hardening and strengthening of the metal occurs in which one of the following steps (one answer only)? (a) aging. (d) laser beam heating. which one produces the most rapid cooling rate? (a) air. or (d) pure water. or (e) nitriding. Answer. or (e) vacuum furnaces. 27. or (f) tempering. (c). all correct answers must be given. Answer. (b). Answer. and (d). the reason for measuring hardness in the Jominy test is to measure hardenability. Answer. (b) 27. and (f). or (f) relieve stresses. For each question. (c) oil.8 Which of the following are selective surface hardening methods (more than one)? (a) electron beam heating. (c) austenitizing.7 Which one of the following surface hardening treatments is the most common? (a) boronizing. (d) 27. high-frequency (HF) resistance heating. To attain a perfect score on the quiz. (e) reduce density.4 The treatment in which the brittleness of martensite is reduced is called which one of the following? (a) aging. 27. Answer. (c) carburizing. (c) copper alloys. (b) quenching.5 The Jominy end-quench test is designed to indicate which one of the following? (a) cooling rate. (d) normalizing. The selective surface hardening methods include: flame hardening. (d). (b) increase toughness.6 In precipitation hardening. Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 14 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct). (a). or (d) steel.

Shot peening is primarily used to improve the fatigue strength of metals by introducing cold working the metallic surface. lapping.3 What are the basic types of contaminants that must be cleaned from metallic surfaces in manufacturing? Answer. 28. (4) acid cleaning and pickling.2 Mechanical surface treatments are often performed for reasons other than or in addition to cleaning. abrasive grits. In mass finishing. rust. (3) buffing and polishing compounds.8 What is the difference between diffusion and ion implantation? Answer. and scale. 28. honing. Answer. improving smoothness. 28. Answer. Calorizing is the diffusion of aluminum into carbon steel. These method also accomplish other functions such as deburring and surface finish improvement.5 In addition to surface cleaning. What are the reasons? Answer. alloy steels. shop dirt.7 What is meant by the term mass finishing? Answer. such as metal chips. and enhancing surface properties. but the process involves penetration of high. (2) to improve hygiene conditions. (3) to remove contaminants which might chemically react with the surface.4 Identify some of the mechanical cleaning methods. Reasons for mechanical surface treatments include: deburring. and dust. and mass finishing (such as barrel tumbling). 28. usually in a barrel by the mixing action of an abrasive media.6 Name some of the important chemical cleaning methods. 28.1 What are some of the important reasons why manufactured parts must be cleaned? Answer. parts are mechanically cleaned and deburred in bulk. polishing.28 CLEANING AND SURFACE TREATMENTS Review Questions 28. and (4) to enhance product appearance and performance. 28. (3) solvent cleaning. and the alloys of nickel and cobalt. The reasons include: (1) to prepare the surface for subsequent industrial processing. (2) emulsion cleaning. The process is also known as aluminizing. Basic contaminant types are: (1) oil and grease. The chemical cleaning methods can be categorized as follows: (1) alkaline cleaning. Diffusion coating is a diffusion process in which atoms or molecules move across a boundary between two contacting materials. Mechanical cleaning methods include: belt grinding. what is the main function performed by shot peening? Answer. 28. buffing. adding luster. (2) solid particles. 28. 193 .9 What is calorizing? Answer. and (4) oxide films. Ion implantation produces a similar result.velocity ions into the surface of a substrate material. and (5) ultrasonic cleaning.

(c). or (e) to remove contaminants that might chemically attack the surface. since each correct answer is worth 1 point. (c). (b). (c) to improve hygiene conditions for worker. all correct answers must be given. (c) 194 . (a). (a) 28. (b) to enhance mechanical properties of the surface. and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point. such as barrel tumbling. (d). (c) diffusion. (b). (b) blast finishing. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point. (a). or (e) vapor degreasing. 28. (b) crushed nut shells.1 Reasons why workparts must be cleaned include which of the following (more than one)? (a) for better appearance. 28. 28. (e) 28. (c) sulfuric acid. (b) corundum. include which of the following (more than one)? (a) Al2O3. and (e) SiC. 28. Answer. (d) to prepare the surface for subsequent processing. Answer. (d) limestone. (c) hot sand blasting. To attain a perfect score on the quiz. and (e).5 The abrasive media used in mass finishing. and (e). or (d) siliconizing. Answer. Answer. which one of the following abrasives is used? (a) Al2O3. Answer. For each question.4 In sand blasting. or (e) SiO 2.Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 16 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct).3 Shot peening is a mechanical cleaning method used primarily to remove surface scale from metallic parts: (a) true or (b) false.7 Calorizing is the same as which of the following? (a) aluminizing.2 Which of the following chemicals is associated with alkaline cleaning (more than one)? (a) borax. Answer. or (d) trichlorethylene. (d). (b) Principal function is to cold work the surface to improve fatigue strength.6 Which of the following processes generally produces a deeper penetration of atoms in the impregnated surface? (a) diffusion or (b) ion implantation.8 Carburizing involves which one of the following? (a) acid pickling. (b) doping. (c) emery. 28. Answer. Answer. (d) tumbling. (d) SiC. (a). (b) sodium hydroxide. (a) 28. (c) nylon beads.

6 29. (2) enhance appearance. (2) chemical surface treatments. 29. The reasons are: (1) corrosion protection of the substrate metal.4 What is meant by the term cathode efficiency in electroplating? Answer. 29. (3) vapor deposition processes such as PVD and CVD. The cathode efficiency is the actual amount of metal deposited on the surface relative to the theoretical amount given by Eq. that permit the part to be removed. How is the part removed from a solid mandrel? Answer. Electroless plating uses only chemical reactions to form the plating. chromates. 29.5 What are the two basic mechanisms of corrosion protection? Answer. (2) attractive appearance. A conversion coating is a thin coating produced by chemical reaction of the metallic surface. (33. 195 . electroplating uses electrolysis.9 What is a conversion coating? Answer. 29. in which the coating simply covers the substrate to protect it. and oxides. (4) increased electrical conductivity.8 How does electroless plating differ from electrochemical plating? Answer. Answer. Review Questions 29. and (6) thermal and mechanical treatments. Steel. The mechanisms are (1) barrier protection. such as a taper. (5) improved solderability. and (6) enhanced lubricity of the surface. (3) provide a specified color. and (2) sacrificial protection. The most common conversion coatings are phosphates.7 What is the most commonly plated substrate metal? Answer.10 How does anodizing differ from other conversion coatings? Answer. (4) organic coating painting. (3) wear resistance. (5) porcelain enameling. 29. Identify the most common types of coating processes.2 COATING AND DEPOSITION PROCESSES Why are metals coated? Answer. The common coating processes are: (1) plating. in which the coating metal corrodes sacrificially to protect the substrate. Best example is aluminum anodizing.3 What are the many reasons why a metallic surface is plated? Answer. Parts are also sometimes removed by taking advantage of a difference in coefficient of thermal expansion. such as anodizing. 29.1). One of the mandrel types in electroforming is a solid mandrel. Anodizing uses electrochemical processing methods to convert the metallic surface. A solid mandrel has certain geometric features.1 29.29 29. and (4) prepare surface for subsequent processing. (1) Corrosion protection.

What is a commonly used coating material deposited by PVD onto cutting tools? Answer. Answer.20 What is meant by the term transfer efficiency in organic coating technology? Answer. deposition of metal in electronic connections.29. TiC and TiN.13 What are some of the applications of PVD? Answer. Sputtering yield is defined as the number of atoms ejected from the surface of a substance per ion bombarding the surface. Advantages include: (1) capability to deposit refractory materials at temperatures below their melting or sintering temperatures. which are polymers.15 Name the three basic types of PVD. These methods are described in Article 33. 29.14 29. In PVD. the coating vapors are synthesized by heating the coating material and allowing it to condense as a thin film on the surface of the workpart. the reaction product nucleates and grows on the substrate surface. In CVD a coating is formed on a heated substrate by the chemical reaction or dissociation of vapors and/or gases. and flow coating. antireflection coatings on optical lenses. and cutting tool coatings (e.12 What is the difference between physical vapor deposition (PVD) and chemical vapor deposition (CVD)? Answer. which provide color. 29. 29. and (3) ion plating. Identify the four major types of ingredients in organic coatings? Answer. and (4) good bonding to substrate surface.22 The terms drying and curing have different meanings.g. 29.. The major ingredients are: (1) binder. Physical vapor deposition (PVD) refers to a family of processes in which a material is converted to its vapor phase in a vacuum chamber and condensed onto a substrate surface as a very thin film. The three types are: (1) vacuum evaporation. TiN). (2) dyes or pigments.16 Define sputtering yield? Answer. Answer.4. Transfer efficiency indicates how much of the organic coating liquid reaches the target surface. 29.18 What are the two most common titanium compounds that are coated onto cutting tools by chemical vapor deposition? Answer. 29. Titanium nitride (TiN).2. 29. (3) process is performed at atmospheric pressure. and (4) additives such as surfactants and plasticizers. immersion (dip coating). The main methods include: brushing and rolling. (2) grain size control.19 29. 29.17 What are some of the advantages of chemical vapor deposition? Answer. Titanium carbide (TiC) and aluminum oxide (Al2O3) might also be mentioned. 196 . indicate the distinction. (3) solvents. 29. PVC applications include: decorative coatings on trophies and automotive trim. spraying.21 Describe the principal methods by which organic coatings are applied to a surface.11 What is physical vapor deposition? Answer. (2) sputtering.

all correct answers must be given. what is frit? Answer. Answer. (d) electroplating. (e) 29. (c) electroless plating. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point. with thicknesses up to 0.6 With which one of the following metals is anodizing most commonly associated (one answer)? (a) aluminum. Answer. (d) tin.7 Sputtering is a form of which one of the following? (a) chemical vapor deposition.Answer. (b) defect in arc welding. Answer. (b) chromium. (e) 197 . (b) anodizing.100 in. or (e) physical vapor deposition. 29. (b) lead. To attain a perfect score on the quiz. (b) 29. or (e) phosphate coatings. 29.23 29. Answer. (b) 0.010 in. either (a) or (b) is acceptable 29. (c) steel. 29. (d) nickel.4 Which of the following is most typical of the thickness of an electroplated coating (choose either of two acceptable answers)? (a) 0. since each correct answer is worth 1 point. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers. Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 17 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct). or (e) zinc. (e) 29. (d) galvanizing.003 in. Mechanical galvanizing refers to the mechanical plating of zinc onto a substrate. or (d) 0. What does the term mechanical galvanizing refer to? Answer.24 In porcelain enameling.1 Which one of the following plate metals produces the hardest surface on a metallic substrate? (a) cadmium. (c) steel. (b) chromate coatings.001 in. or (e) terneplating. (d) ion implantation. Answer. Frit is glassy porcelain prepared as fine particles (powders) by crushing and milling. or (e) zinc. Curing involves a chemical change in the organic resin (polymerization and/or cross-linking) which hardens the coating.0001 in. For each question. (d) titanium. (a) 29. Drying means evaporation of solvents in the organic coating liquid. (c) diffusion. (b) magnesium. (c) copper. and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point. (c) 0. Answer. (a) and (d).5 Which of the following processes involves electrochemical reactions (more than one)? (a) anodizing.2 Which one of the following terms is used in connection with dip coating of lead onto a substrate such as sheet steel? (a) aluminizing.3 Which one of the following plating metal is associated with the term galvanizing? (a) iron. Answer. or (e) tin. (c) conversion coating.

8 Which of the following gases is the most commonly used in sputtering and ion plating? (a) argon. Answer. Answer.15) = 11. (d) electroplating.75 x 10-2 mm3/A-s. Volume V = ECIt = 0.5 mm3 = 1.11 29.95(4.049 mm 29. Answer.000 mm2 Plating thickness d = 487.6245 cm3 Density of zinc from Table 4. or (e) oxygen. (c) molten liquid. (b) electrostatic spraying. cathode efficiency E = 95%.10 29.1 What volume (cm3) and weight (g) of zinc will be deposited onto a cathodic workpart if 10 amps of current are applied for one hour? Solution: From Table 29.1. (b) chlorine. cathode efficiency E = 95%. (c) and (d). (c) dip coating. Answer. (e) mechanical deformation to work harden the surface.95(4.2 A sheetmetal steel part with surface area A = 100 cm2 is to be zinc plated.000 mm2 = 0. (d) Which of the following thin film processes is most common in semiconductor processing? (a) chemical vapor deposition or (b) physical vapor deposition.15 g/cm3. Hard facing utilizes which one of the following basic processes? (a) arc welding. (c) physical vapor deposition for coating TiN onto cutting tools. (d) nitrogen. (c) neon. (d) immersion. or (d) powders. (a) The principal methods of applying powder coatings are which of the following (select two best answers)? (a) brushing. What average plating thickness will result if 15 amps are applied for 10 minutes in a chromic acid-sulfate bath? 198 . Answer.1.75 x 10-2 mm3/A-s)(10 A)(1 hr)(3600 s/hr) = 1624. (b) brazing. (c) fluidized bed. (b) and (c). and (e) roller coating. (b) hard facing. or (d) metal spraying. Volume V = ECIt = 0.615 g 29. (b) an electroplating process. (a) The Mond process is used for which one of the following? (a) chemical vapor deposition of silicon nitride onto silicon.1 ρ = 7.13 29.75 x 10-2 mm3/A-s.35 mm3 Area A = 100 cm2 = 10. Porcelain enamel is applied to a surface in which one of the following forms? (a) liquid emulsion. (b) liquid solution.6245(7. Answer.3 A sheetmetal steel part with surface area A = 15.35 mm3/10.0 in2 is to be chrome plated.9 29.14 Problems Electroplating 29. or (d) reducing nickel carbonyl to metallic Ni. C = 4. Weight W = 1. (a) 29. What average plating thickness will result if 15 amps are applied for 12 minutes in a chloride electrolyte solution? Solution: From Table 29.75 x 10-2 mm3/A-s)(15 A)(12 min)(60 s/min) = 487.12 29. Answer. (c) metallizing. (d) Which of the following are alternative names for thermal spraying (more than one answer)? (a) flexible overlay process. C = 4.29.

2t. Determine the average thickness of the plated metal resulting from this operation. and the part is submersed in the plating solution for a duration of 20 min. Volume V = ECIt = 0. value of plated gold = $300(0.95 cm2 = 53.15(0. The plating process applies a current I = 120 amps. C = 3. each with a surface area = 0. Determine the average plating thickness on the parts.8) = 780 in 2 Plating thickness d = 0.00207/15 = 0.5 in 2.57/780 = 0. Solution: From Table 29.02477/12.98(2. V = 0. (a) What average plating thickness will result if 8 amps are applied for 10 min in a cyanide bath? (b) What is the value of the gold that will be plated if one ounce of gold is valued at $300? The density of gold = 0. Solution: (a) From Table 29.25 x 10-4)(120)(40) = 0.69 x 10-4 in3/A-min.02477 in 3.4 Twenty-five jewelry pieces.000138 in. C = 2. cathode efficiency E = 98%.022 mm 29.15(0.1t2) over the range 0 to 20 min. where I = current. cathode efficiency E = 15%. The parts are identical.25 x 10-4 in3/A-min.698 lb/in 3.1. cathode efficiency E = 15%.1.075 cm thick and whose face dimensions are 14 cm by 19 cm.00073 in.87 x 10-4 in3/A-min.1 min. (b) Given density for gold ρ = 0. Required volume of plate metal = 36(0. cathode efficiency E = 95%.695 = 0.42 x 10-2 mm3/A-s. Plated volume V = EC∫Idt = EC∫(12 + 0.698 lb/in 3)(0. total area A = 25(0. 29.6/53.277 oz. What volume of coating will be applied in the process? Solution: From Table 29.87 x 10-4)(8)(10) = 0.7 Increasing current is applied to a workpart surface in an electroplating process according to the relation I = 12.036 in 3 Plated volume V = ECIt = 0. C = 0. How long will it take to deposit a copper plating (assume valence = +1) of thickness = 0.003954 t = 0.036/0.00207 in 3. Volume V = ECIt = 0. C = 1.8 A batch of 100 parts are to be nickel plated in a barrel plating operation. and t = time. amps.95(1.5) = 12.1(20) 2) = 0.277) = $82.2t)dt = EC(12t + 0.1. Volume V = ECIt = 0. min.69 x 10-4 in3/A-min)(15 A) t = 0. 199 .99 29. cathode efficiency E = 80%. Area A = 2(19 x 14) + 0.1.5 in 2 are to be gold plated in a batch plating operation.92 x 10-4 in3/A-min.5 A part made of sheet steel is to be nickel plated.001) = 0.92 x 10-4 in3/A-min.Solution: From Table 29.80(3.5 = 0.01729 lb = 0. C = 0. At $300/oz.92 x 10-4)(12 x 20 + 0.003954 = 9.695 mm2 Plating thickness d = 1169. The plating operation is carried out in an acid sulfate electrolyte. 0. With Q = 25 pieces and average area per piece = 0.95(3. Area A = 100(7.003954 t in 3. Volume V = ECIt = 0. The part is a rectangular flat plate which is 0.92 x 10-4)(15)(10) = 0.02477 in 3) = 0. The plating metal is chromium.001 in onto the surface if 15 amps of current are applied? Solution: From Table 29. using a current I = 20 amps for a duration t = 30 min.57 in 3.0 + 0.6 mm3. each with a surface area A = 7.42 x 10-2 mm3/A-s)(20 A)(30 min)(60 s/min) = 1169.00386 in3 29.5 in 2 Plating thickness d = 0.036 t = 0.8 in2. and the batch takes 40 minutes to complete.00198 in. 29.698 lb/in3 Weight of plated gold = (0. Solution: From Table 29. Plating thickness d = 0.075 x 2(19 + 14) = 536.6 A steel sheetmetal part has total surface area A = 36 in2. C = 3.1. cathode efficiency E = 95%.1.

15(2.44 min. Each part has a surface are = 22.7 cm2. how long should the plating operation be allowed to run at a current = 80 amps? Solution: From Table 29.5 x 10-2 mm3/A-s.03304(10-4) t = 0. Volume V = ECIt = 0. cathode efficiency E = 15%. If it is desired to plate an average thickness = 0.29.010 mm on the surface of each part.800 mm2) = 0. total area A = 40(22.7 mm2. C = 2.1. t = 0.800 mm2 Plating thickness d = V/A = (0.03304(10-4) = 0.010/0.3 t mm3)/(90.3 t mm3 With Q = 40 pieces and average area per piece = 22.3027 x 104 = 3027 s = 50.5 x 10-2 mm3/A-s)(80 A) t = 0.9 A batch of 40 identical parts are to be chrome plated using racks. 200 . 0.7) = 908 cm2 = 90.010 mm.03304(10-4) t mm Given that d = 0.010 Thus.

so labor cost is high and the skilled labor to perform it is sometimes scarce. (2) corner. In arc welding. the high electrical energy can cause shocks which are fatal to the worker.10 Define and sketch a fillet weld? 201 . Most welding operations are carried out at high temperatures that can cause serious burns on skin and flesh. whereas in machine welding. In a fusion weld. What is meant by the term faying surface? Answer. Five joint types are: (1) butt. Define the term fusion weld. The faying surfaces are the contacting surfaces in a welded joint. Discuss the reasons why most welding operations are inherently dangerous. Advantages: (1) provides a permanent joint.4 30.30 30. a human worker must continuously control the arc and the relative movement of the welding head and the workpart. (2) joint strength is typically as high as strength of base metals. the metal is melted. (2) welding is inherently dangerous. the metal is not melted. Answer. In gas welding.5 30. and weld spatter. Answer. A fusion weld is a weld in which the metal surfaces have been melted in order to cause coalescence. 30.9 Name and sketch the five joint types. 30. An automatic welding operation uses a weld cycle controller which regulates the arc movement and workpiece positioning. Answer.3 30. In arc welding and resistance welding.1 FUNDAMENTALS OF WELDING What are the advantages and disadvantages of welding compared to other types of assembly operations? Answer. 30. (3) difficult to disassemble. Review Questions 30. Disadvantages: (1) usually performed manually. What is an autogenous weld? Answer.6 30. 30. (4) quality defects sometimes difficult to detect. (5) edge. fumes. See Figure 28.7 What is the fundamental difference between a fusion weld and a solid state weld? Answer. It is a fusion weld made without the addition of filler metal. smoke. (3) lap.8 What is the difference between machine welding and automatic welding? Answer. the fuels are a fire hazard. the electric arc emits intense ultraviolet radiation which can cause blinding. so the parts are joined permanently. (1) electric arc and (2) acetylene gas. Other hazards include sparks. (3) most economical in terms of material usage. In a solid state weld. (4) versatile in terms of where it can be accomplished.2 What were the two discoveries of Sir Humphrey Davy that led to the development of modern welding technology? Answer.3 in text for sketches. (4) tee.

but instead adds only filler metal to a surface. Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 11 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct). 30. The HAZ is a region of base metal surrounding the fusion zone in which melting has not occurred. 30. See Figure 28. Epitaxial grain growth occurs when atoms from the molten pool solidify on already existing lattice sites of the adjacent solid base metal. Because it does not join to distinct parts. 202 .13 Why is a surfacing weld different from the other weld types? Answer.4 in text for sketch. lap. and how is this form of solidification different from that which occurs in casting? Answer.Answer.17 What is epitaxial grain growth.14 Why is it desirable to use energy sources for welding that have high heat densities? Answer. Heat transfer efficiency is the ratio of the actual heat received at the work surface divided by the total heat generated by the source. See Figure 28. since each correct answer is worth 1 point. all correct answers must be given. 30. 30. Melting efficiency is the ratio of heat required for melting divided by the heat received at the work surface. but temperatures from welding were high enough to cause solid state microstructural changes. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers.18 What is the heat affected zone (HAZ) in a fusion weld? Answer. Answer. A continuous weld would be made along the entire length of the fillet weld.11 Define and sketch a groove weld? Answer.15 What is the unit melting energy in welding. A fillet weld is a weld joint of approximately triangular cross-section used to fill in the edges of corner. whereas an intermittent weld would only fill the joint along certain portions (usually equally spaced) of the total length.16 Define and distinguish the two terms heat transfer efficiency and melting efficiency in welding.5 in text for sketch. and tee joints. The unit melting energy is the amount of heat energy required to melt one cubic inch or one cubic mm of metal. Because the heat is concentrated in a small region for greatest efficiency and minimum metallurgical damage. and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point. A groove weld is a weld joint used to fill in the space between the adjoining edges of butt and other weld types except lap. 30. What is the difference between a continuous weld and an intermittent weld as the terms apply to a fillet weld of a lap joint? Answer. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point. and what are the factors on which it depends? Answer. 30. 30.12 30. For each question. To attain a perfect score on the quiz.

(b) round. (b). (b) corner.5 30. (b) Welding can be accomplished between certain combinations of dissimilar metals. (b) high power density. (b) false. and (d) double U-groove weld for a butt weld.4(d) but one side only. (e) tee. otherwise.3 30. (b) corner. Which one of the following heat sources is most consistent with this objective? (a) high power. Answer. or (e) thermal conductivity. Solution: (a) Square groove weld as in Figure 30.30.5(f). (b) single fillet weld for a lap joint. (e) tee. Answer. (d) Groove welds are most closely associated with which one of the following joint types: (a) butt.7 30. (c) Same as Figure 30. (c) single fillet weld for tee joint.5(d) but both sides as in Figure 30.4 30. (b) The amount of heat required to melt a given volume of metal depends strongly on which of the following properties (more than one)? (a) coefficient of thermal expansion. or (d) low power density. A fillet weld has a cross-sectional shape that is approximately which one of the following? (a) rectangular.6 30. (a) A flange weld is most closely associated with which one of the following joint types: (a) butt. (b) heat of fusion. (c) edge. Answer. or (d) triangular. (c) melting temperature. 203 . (c) square. (b) corner. and (d).4(c) but one side only. (b) Failures also occur in the heat affected zone because metallurgical damage often occurs in this region. (b) Similar to Figure 30. Answer. (b) false. (c).1 Welding can only be performed on metals that have the same melting point. (c) low power. but both sides as in Figure 30.2 A fillet weld can be used to join which of the following joint types (more than one): (a) butt. (c) lap.5(a). (d) lap. (d) U-groove weld as in Figure 30. (d) modulus of elasticity. 30. it is desirable to melt the weld metal with minimum energy input.5(f). (d) lap. Answer. Answer.1 Prepare sketches showing how the part edges would be prepared and aligned with each other and also showing the weld cross-section for the following welds: (a) square groove weld. Both metals melt. 30.8 Problems Joint design 30. (c) edge. for a butt weld. since this is the part of the joint that has been melted: (a) true. the metal with the lower melting temperature always melts while the other metal remains solid: (a) true. (d) tee. (c) For metallurgical reasons. both sides. Answer. (b) and (c) Weld failures always occur in the fusion zone of the weld joint. Answer.

Power density 30. and the heat intensity decreases as the radius increases.2) for SI units: Um = 3.0412 in 2 = 15.1) 2/4 = 0.27 J/mm3 Eq. as follows: 60% of the heat is concentrated in a circular area that is 3 mm in diameter.5) = 1.33 x 10-6 (1760) 2 = 10.2. Solution: (a) From Table 30.4 Compute the unit energy for melting for the following metals: (a) aluminum and (b) plain low carbon steel. This power density is sufficient for welding.88 J/mm3 Eq.2 A heat source can transfer 3000 J/sec to a metal part surface.25 inch.33 x 10-6 Tm2 Um = 3.5 Btu/sec.467 x 10-5 (3160) 2 = 146.0686 mm2 = 255 W/mm2. 750°C.467 x 10-5 Tm2 Um = 1.32 J/mm3 Eq.5 Compute the unit energy for melting for the following metals:(a) copper and (b) titanium. Solution: (a) From Table 30.467 x 10-5 Tm2 Um = 1.0) 2/4 = 7.33 x 10-6 Tm2 Um = 3. Is the resulting power density enough to melt metal? Solution: Area A = π(3.60(3000) = 1800 J/s = 1800 W.2.25 Btu/sec Power density PD = (1. (30.2. Power density PD = 1800 W/7.2) for SI units: Um = 3. 30.3 Btu/in3 (b) From Table 30. What is the power densities in: (a) the 0.0686 mm2 Power P = 0.2) for USCS units: Um = 1.1 inch.2) for USCS units: Um = 1.3 A welding heat source is capable of transferring 150 Btu/min to the surface of a metal part. The heated area is circular.1 inch diameter inner circle and (b) the 0. (30. (30.0. Tm for plain low carbon steel = 1760 K (3160 R) Eq.467 x 10-5 (2440) 2 = 87. Tm for aluminum = 930 K (1680 R) Eq.467 x 10-5 Tm2 Um = 1. (30.2. Unit melting energy 30. and the heat intensity decreases with increasing radius as follows: 50% of the power is transferred within a circle of diameter = 0.467 x 10-5 (3730) 2 = 204.00785 in 2 = 159 Btu/sec-in2 (b) A = π(0. 500°C.467 x 10-5 (1680) 2 = 41.07 J/mm3 Eq.16 Btu/sec-in2 (c) Power densities are sufficient certainly in the inner circle and probably in the outer ring for welding.50(2. (30.467 x 10-5 Tm2 Um = 1. (30.6 Make the calculations and plot on linearly scaled axes the relationship for unit melting energy as a function of temperature. Use temperatures as follows to construct the plot: 250°C.00785 in 2 150 Btu/min = 2.50)(2. The heated area is approximately circular.2) for SI units: Um = 3.0412 in 2 Power P = (0.33 x 10-6 (2070) 2 = 14.25 inch diameter ring that lies around the inner circle? (c) Are these power densities sufficient for melting metal? Solution: (a) Area A = π(0.2) for USCS units: Um = 1. Tm for titanium = 2070 K (3730 R) Eq. (30.4 Btu/in3 (b) From Table 30. Power P = 0.33 x 10-6 (1350) 2 = 6.625 Btu/sec Power density PD = (0.5 Btu/in3 30.25 Btu/sec)/0. Tm for copper = 1350 K (2440 R) Eq.5) = 0.2) for SI units: Um = 3.625 Btu/sec)/0. 204 .0. (30. and 75% is transferred within a concentric circle of diameter = 0.2) for USCS units: Um = 1.33 x 10-6 Tm2 Um = 3.12)/4 = 0.75 .33 x 10-6 (930) 2 = 2.33 x 10-6 Tm2 Um = 3.1 Btu/in3 30.252 .

2) for USCS units: Um = 1.33 x 10-6 (773) 2 = 1.33 x 10-6 (1670) 2 = 9.33 x 10-6 (1773) 2 = 10.467 x 10-5 (960) 2 = 13. (30.2.467 x 10-5 Tm2.2) for SI units: Um = 3. For Tm = 500° F = (500 + 460) = 960°R: Um = 1. (30.0 Btu/in3 ° 30. if the heat transfer efficiency = 0.3 Btu/in3 ° For Tm = 1500° F = (1500 + 460) = 1960°R: Um = 1.4(0. if the heat transfer efficiency = 0. and 3500°F.467 x 10-5 (2960) 2 = 128.467 x 10-5 (3960) 2 = 230.45) = 61.9 and f2 = 0. (30.2) for USCS units: Um = 1. 205 .6) = 77.8 Btu at weld (b) Given f1 = 0. Use temperatures as follows to construct the plot: 500°F.045 in2 and is 10 inches long.045(10) = 0.392 J at source. The plot is based on the following calculated values.33 x 10-6 Tm2 From Table 30.467 x 10-5 Tm2 From Table 30.40 J/mm3 ° For Tm = 1500° C = (1500 + 273) = 1773°K: Um = 3.0 mm2 and is 200 mm long.5 Btu/in3 ° For Tm = 1000° F = (1000 + 460) = 1460°R: Um = 1. The plot is based on the following calculated values. The plot is left as a student exercise.7) = 98.467 x 10-5 (3460) 2 = 175. Tm for medium carbon steel = 3060 R Um = 1.5 Btu/in3 ° For Tm = 3000° F = (3000 + 460) = 3460°R: Um = 1. if the metal to be welded is medium carbon steel? (b) How much heat must be generated at the welding source. H = 61. if the metal to be welded is austenitic stainless steel? (b) How much heat must be generated at the welding source.9 A certain groove weld has a cross-sectional area Aw = 0. mark the positions of some of the welding metals in Table 30.8 and f2 = 0.2) for SI units: Um = 3. The plot is left as a student exercise.29(4000) = 37.8 and the melting efficiency = 0. 3000°F.45 in 3 Hm = 137. 2500°F. Solution: Eq.7? Solution: (a) Eq.8/(0.33 x 10-6 (1023) 2 = 3. 2000°F.9 x 0.33 x 10-6 Tm2.467 x 10-5 (1460) 2 = 31.47 J/mm3 ° For Tm = 2000° C = (2000 + 273) = 2273°K: Um = 3.6 Btu/in3 ° For Tm = 3500° F = (3500 + 460) = 3960°R: Um = 1. Solution: Eq. Tm for austenitic stainless steel = 1670 K Um = 3. 1000°F.33 x 10-6 (523) 2 = 0.6? Solution: (a) Eq.148/(0.7. H = 37. For Tm = 250° C = (250 + 273) = 523°K: Um = 3.7 Make the calculations and plot on linearly scaled axes the relationship for unit melting energy as a function of temperature. On the plot.467 x 10-5 (2460) 2 = 88.2.148 J at weld (b) Given f1 = 0.2. (a) What quantity of heat (in Btu) is required to accomplish the weld. 30.29 J/mm3 Volume of metal melted V = 20(200) = 4000 mm3 Hm = 9.33 x 10-6 (2273) 2 = 17.20 J/mm3 ° 30. 1500°C.99 J/mm3 ° For Tm = 750° C = (750 + 273) = 1023°K: Um = 3. 1500°F.467 x 10-5 (1960) 2 = 56.6.33 x 10-6 (1273) 2 = 5. (a) What quantity of heat (in joules) is required to accomplish the weld.1 Btu at source.4 Btu/in 3 Volume of metal melted V = 0.9 and the melting efficiency = 0.8 x 0.4 Btu/in3 ° For Tm = 2000° F = (2000 + 460) = 2460°R: Um = 1. mark the positions of some of the welding metals in Table 30.8 A fillet weld has a cross-sectional area Aw = 20. and 2000°C.8 Btu/in3 ° For Tm = 2500° F = (2500 + 460) = 2960°R: Um = 1.1000°C.48 J/mm3 ° For Tm = 1000° C = (1000 + 273) = 1273°K: Um = 3.467 x 10-5 (3060) 2 = 137. (30.91 J/mm3 ° For Tm = 500° C = (500 + 273) = 773°K: Um = 3. On the plot.2.

Um = ρC(Tm . In USCS. melting temperature Tm = 1220°F = 660°C.390 J/kg.284(117) = 115.4(0. melting temperature Tm = 2700°F = 1480°C. In USCS.21) + ρHf Um = (7. Um = ρC(Tm .12 The welding power generated in a particular arc welding operation = 3000 W.11 Btu/lb-°F = 460 J/kg-°C.4 Btu/in3 This compares with Eq.6/(0. density ρ = 0.70) + ρHf = 0. (30.2)? Solution: (a) Aluminum properties (from standard sources): heat of fusion Hf = 170 Btu/lb = 395.11)(2700 .0 mm2.2): Um = 3.4 Btu/in3 This is about a 3% difference. The metal to be welded is copper whose melting point is given in Table 30. Are the values close enough to validate Eq. Find the values of the properties needed in these calculations either in this text or in other references.45 in 3 Hm = 41.215 Btu/lb-°F = 900 J/kg-°C. Um = ρC(Tm . except that the metal to be welded is aluminum.096 lb/in3 = 2700 kg/m3.215)(1220 . Customary units or the International System.62 J/mm3 This compares with Eq. Tm for aluminum = 1680 R Um = 1.9. Use either the U.S. These values for aluminum show good agreement. Determine the travel speed at which the welding operation can be accomplished.35) = 59. (30. (30. which would increase the calculated values based on Um = ρC(Tm .467 x 10-5 Tm2 From Table 30. specific heat C = 0. Solution: (a) Eq. This is transferred to the work surface with a heat transfer efficiency f 1 = 0.45) = 18.284 lb/in3 = 7900 kg/m3.33 x 10-6 (660 + 273) 2 = 2.045(10) = 0.9 x 0.2) for USCS units: Um = 1. Um = ρC(Tm .33 x 10-6 (1480 + 273) 2 = 10.2): Um = 3.70) + 0. so that this value can be compared to the unit melting energy calculated by Eq.7 x 10-6 kg/mm3)(395390 J/kg) Um = 2.21) + (7.21) + ρHf Um = (2. This is at least partially accounted for by the fact that the specific heat of steel increases significantly with temperature. In SI.Tambient) + ρHf .2.1 Btu/in3 This compares with Eq.7. H = 18.2): Um = 1. (30. 30.9 and f2 = 0. and (2) the heat of fusion. which is the product of the volumetric specific heat and the temperature rise.467 x 10-5 (1220 + 460) 2 = 41.467 x 10-5 (2700 + 460) 2 = 146. (b) Steel properties (from standard sources): heat of fusion Hf = 117 Btu/lb = 272.284(0. specific heat C = 0. density ρ = 0.6 Btu at weld (b) Given f1 = 0.5 Btu/in3 This is about a 27% difference.23 J/mm3 This is about a 37% difference.1 Btu at source.096(170) = 40.2.70) + 0. (30.30.10 Solve the previous problem.9 x 10-6 kg/mm3)(460 J/kg-C))(1480 .90 J/mm3 This is about a 10% difference. In SI.9 x 10-6 kg/mm3)(272123 J/kg) Um = 7.2): Um = 1. Energy balance in welding 30. These values show a greater difference than for aluminum.7 x 10-6 kg/mm3)(900 J/kg-C))(660 .45 J/mm3 This compares with Eq.11 Compute the unit melting energy for (a) aluminum and (b) steel as the sum of: (1) the heat required to raise the temperature of the metal from room temperature to its melting point.123 J/kg.25.2).21) + (2. Assume that the melting efficiency f 2 = 0. A continuous fillet weld is to be made with a cross-sectional area Aw = 15.467 x 10-5 (1680) 2 = 41. 206 . and the corresponding melting efficiency is half the value for steel.70) + ρHf = 0. (30. (30.4 Btu/in 3 Volume of metal melted V = 0.096(0.

Um = 1. Tm = 1650°K for high carbon steel.0 mm/s.467 x 10-5 (1800 + 460) 2 = 74.07 x 15) = 7.9(0. 30. determine the rate of heat generation required at the welding source to accomplish this weld. f 2 = 0.18 A surfacing weld is to be applied to a rectangular low carbon steel plate which is 200 mm by 350 mm.487 Btu HR = 0. Aw = 0.467 x 10-5 (1680) 2 = 41.4(0. The total volume of (melted) metal forming the weld = 0. on average. f 2 = 0.9 Btu/in 3 v = f1 f2 HR/UmAw = 0. The operation will be carried out automatically with the beads laid down in one long continuous operation at a travel speed v = 7. 30.5. Solution: Um = 3. Tm = 1350°K for copper. and Tm = 2000°F for the metal to be welded. Tm = 1680°R for aluminum.1 Btu/min.0 mm.15 mm/s.07 J/mm3 v = f1 f2 HR/UmAw = 0.13 Solve the previous problem except that the metal to be welded is high carbon steel.025) = 0. Um = 3. Solution: From Table 30.33 x 10-6(1350) 2 = 6.005) = 0. but with penetration into the base metal. determine the rate of heat generation that was required at the source to accomplish this weld.207 Btu H = 0. Determine the travel speed at which the welding operation can be accomplished. 30.15 The power source in a particular welding operation generates 125 Btu/min which is transferred to the work surface with an efficiency f 1 = 0.95(0.5.16 In a certain welding operation to make a fillet weld.17 A spot weld is to be made using an arc welding operation.95 and f 2 = 0.95 x 0.Solution: From Table 30. Aw = 22.5.9 x 0.33 x 10-6(1650) 2 = 9. the total thickness melted during welding = 6.33 x 10-6(1000 + 273) 2 = 5.07 J/mm3 v = f1 f2 HR/UmAw = 0.025 in2 and v = 15 in/min.207/(0. If f 1 = 0. using welding passes separated by 5 mm. The surface will be applied by making a series of parallel.85.4 Btu/in 3 Hw = 41.5)(125)/(74.95. and Tm = 1000°C for the metal to be welded. 30.7 in/min. determine the rate of heat generation required at the welding source to accomplish this weld.5.0 mm will be added to the plate.07 x 25) = 7.40 J/mm3 f1 f2 HR = UmAw v HR = Um Aw v/f1 f2 = 5.85 x 0.2.5) = 1250 J/s = 1250 W.214 HR HR = 15/. 30.0 mm2.04) = 16.214 = 70.8. and the melting efficiency f 2 = 0.25)(3000)/(6. whose melting point is assumed to be the same.005 in 3.2. The melting point for the metal to be welded Tm = 1800°F and its melting efficiency f 2 = 0. 30.5) = 0. and the operation required the arc to be on for 4 sec. Solution: From Table 30. Um = 3.8(0. the cross-sectional area of the weld = 25.0 mm2 and v = 5 mm/sec. A continuous fillet weld is to be made with a cross-sectional area Aw = 0. Solution: Um = 1.14 In a certain welding operation to make a groove weld. If f 1 = 0.04 in2. and the metal to be welded was aluminum.8 x 0. Ignore the 207 .9(0. A thickness of 2.8 Btu/in 3 v = 15 = f1 f2 HR/UmAw = 0.40(22)(5)/(0.122 Btu/sec = 7.467 x 10-5 (2000 + 460) 2 = 88.6)(3000)/(9.2.31 Btu/min. overlapped welding beads running lengthwise on the plate.5)HR/(88.4 mm/s. The metal to be applied is a harder (alloy) grade of steel. Solution: Um = 1. If f 1 = 0.487/4 = 0.6.

32(6 x 5)(7)/(0. Assuming the heat transfer efficiency = 0. Um = 3.minor complications of the turnarounds at the ends of the plate. 208 .6. Tm = 1760°K for low carbon steel. Solution: (a) From Table 30.000/7 = 2000 s = 33.2.33 x 10-6(1760) 2 = 10.8 x 0.33 min. determine: (a) the rate of heat that must be generated at the welding source.000 mm Time to travel at v = 7 mm/s = 14.32 J/mm3 HR = Um Aw v/f1f2 = 10.8 and the melting efficiency = 0. and (b) how long will it take to complete the surfacing operation.6) = 4515 J/s (b) Total length of cut = 350 x (200/5) = 14.

no melting occurs. LBW. 209 . An electrical arc is a discharge across a gap in a circuit. In fusion welding.9 Why is the shielded metal arc welding (SMAW) process difficult to automate? Answer. such as tungsten and carbon. The consumable type. Answer.1 31. oxyfuel welding.5 Electrodes in arc welding are divided into two categories. The three terms mean the same thing: the proportion of the total time in a shift that the arc is actually on. Consumable and nonconsumable. consumable bare wire electrode. Answer. SMAW is an arc welding process that uses a consumable electrode consisting of a filler metal rod coated with chemicals that provide flux and shielding. Because the stick electrodes must be changed frequently. which covers the welding operation and protects the molten pool from the atmosphere. (1) Shielding gas. in addition to being the electrode for the process. 31. and operating factor have in common? Provide a definition of these terms.6 What are the two basic methods of arc shielding? Answer. the arc is sustained by a thermally ionized column of gas through which the current can flow. or GTAW. It is much easier to automate the feeding of continuous filler wire.7 Why is the heat transfer efficiency greater in arc welding processes that utilize consumable electrodes? Answer. such as argon and helium. such as in GMAW. and "other. 31. which would be difficult to do automatically. Answer. also provide filler metal for the welding joint.31 31. in solid state welding. thermit welding." The other category includes EBW. 31. Name and define the two types. Answer. SAW is an arc welding process that uses a continuous.2 WELDING PROCESSES Name the principal groups of processes included in fusion welding. 31. Answer.3 Define what an electrical arc is. What is the fundamental feature that distinguishes fusion welding from solid state welding? Answer. Arc welding.4 What do the terms arc-on time. arc time. The nonconsumable type are made of materials that resist melting. 31. Answer. Because molten metal from the electrode is transferred across the arc and contributes to the heating of the molten weld pool. and others. FCAW. 31. SAW. Review Questions 31.10 Describe submerged arc welding (SAW). and (2) flux.8 Describe the shielded metal arc welding (SMAW) process. resistance welding. In arc welding. 31. melting occurs at the faying surfaces. and arc shielding is provided by a cover of granular flux.

31.11 Describe electrogas welding (EGW) process and identify its major application.19 Why is the oxyacetylene welding process favored over the other oxyfuel welding processes? Answer.17 Describe cross-wire welding. Answer.13 Define resistance welding. resulting in much higher power densities. The time to draw the vacuum adds significantly to the production cycle time. 31. and low melting point. RPW is a resistance welding process in which coalescence occurs at one or more relatively small points on the parts. 31. Cross-wire welding is a form of resistance projection welding used to fabricate welded wire products such as shopping carts and stove grills. 31.1 to 0. Define pressure gas welding. and molding shoes to contain the molten pool. Answer.14 What are the desirable properties of a metal that would provide good weldability for resistance welding? Answer. 31.31. either flux-cored wire or bare wire with externally supplied shielding gas. EGW is an arc welding process that uses a continuous consumable electrode. 31.18 31. during which the weld nugget solidifies. 31. (4) hold.20 Electron beam welding has a significant disadvantage in high-production applications. EBW is usually carried out in a vacuum for a high quality weld. Because acetylene and oxygen burn hotter than other oxyfuels. and (5) the electrodes are opened and the parts removed. The steps are: (1) the parts are inserted between electrodes. (2) squeeze the parts between the electrodes. Answer. RW consists of a group of fusion welding processes that utilize a combination of heat and pressure to accomplish coalescence of the two faying surfaces. 31. 31.16 What is resistance projection welding? Answer. PGW is a fusion welding process in which coalescence is obtained over the entire contact surfaces of the two parts by heating them with an appropriate fuel mixture and then applying pressure to bond the surfaces. (3) weld.21 Laser beam welding and electron beam welding are often compared because they both produce very high power densities. the contact points are designed into the geometry of the parts as embossments or projections. What is that disadvantage? Answer. What are they? 210 . thus concentrating the energy into a smaller area. in which the current is switched on for a brief duration (0. Most prominent in the group is resistance spot welding. Answer. High resistivity.15 Describe the sequence of steps in the cycle of a resistance spot welding operation. Answer. Because the arc is restricted in diameter.12 Why are the temperatures much higher in plasma arc welding than in other AW processes? Answer. LBM has certain advantages over EBM. low electrical and thermal conductivity.4 sec).

then the flywheel is disengaged from the drive motor and the parts are forced together. and (5) filler metal and its composition relative to the base metals. (1) Cold welding. Factors affect weldability include: (1) welding process. Answer. (2) cavities. The two types are: (1) continuous-drive friction welding and (2) inertia friction welding. 31. (2) presetting of the parts in relative orientations to compensate for warpage. so that the kinetic energy of the flywheel is converted to friction heat for the weld. particularly arc welding. coefficient of thermal expansion). 31.28 Identify the factors that affect weldability. Answer.. which includes dye-penetrant. 31. the rotating part is connected to a flywheel which is brought up to proper speed. Answer. 31.g. cracks. the rotating part is stopped abruptly and the two parts are forced together at forging pressures. The three categories are: (1) visual inspection. thermal conductivity.25 Distortion (warpage) is a serious problem in fusion welding. (5) balance the weld about the neutral axis of the part. (8) stress relief of the weldment. and (3) the laser beam can be focused and directed with conventional optical mirrors and lenses. explained in the text in Section 29. which includes dimensional checks and inspection for warpage. one part is rotated at a constant speed and forced into contact with the stationary part with a certain force so that friction heat is generated at the interface. (4) surface condition (surfaces should be clean and free of oxides. ultrasonic.24 What is a sonotrode in ultrasonic welding? Answer. In inertia friction welding. and (3) destructive tests. (2) nondestructive evaluation.29 What are some of the design guidelines for weldments that are fabricated by arc welding? 211 . Name the variations. when the right temperature is reached.27 What are the three basic categories of inspection and testing techniques used for weldments? Name some typical inspections and/or tests in each category. 31. Answer. (7) preheating of base parts.23 There are two basic types of friction welding. (2) metal properties (e.). (1) No vacuum chamber is required and (2) no x-rays are emitted in LBM. the original welding process.6. (3) heat sinks. (6) selecting proper welding conditions. 31. 31. moisture. What are some of the measures that can be taken to reduce the incidence and extent of distortion? Answer. and other visible defects. In continuous-drive friction welding. (3) solid inclusions. The following measures. (4) tack welding at several points along the joint rather than continuous weld. (5) imperfect shape or contour of weld cross-section.22 There are several modern-day variations of forge welding. 31. and metallurgical tests. (2) roll welding. (4) incomplete fusion. It is the actuator which is attached to one of the two parts to be welded with USW and which provides the oscillatory motion that results in coalescence of the two surfaces. (3) whether the base metals are similar or dissimilar (dissimilar base metals are generally more difficult to weld). can be used to reduce warpage in arc welding: (1) welding fixtures. etc. magnetic particle. and (9) proper design of the weldment to minimize warpage. which includes conventional mechanical tests adapted to weld joints. Describe and distinguish the two types.Answer. melting point. (1) cracks.26 What are some of the important welding defects? Answer. and radiographic tests. (3) and hot pressure welding.

(b) electron beam welding. (c) GTAW. The guidelines for weldments by arc welding include: (1) Good fit-up of parts to be welded is important to maintain dimensional control and minimize distortion. Answer. (c) 31. (b) false. Answer. Answer. 31. or (d) SMAW. (b) GMAW.6 An electric arc is a discharge of current across a gap in an electrical circuit. (b) 212 . Answer.2 Which of the following processes is/are classified as fusion welding (more than one)? (a) electrogas welding. (a). (2) The design of the assembly must provide access room to allow the welding gun to reach the welding area. (b) HPW. or (d) SMAW. Answer. (c) LBW. (b) resistance spot welding. (b). design of the assembly should allow flat welding to be performed.7 Which one of the following arc welding processes uses a nonconsumable electrode? (a) FCAW. and (d) 31. (d) percussion welding. as opposed to horizontal. (a) and (b) 31. (c) explosive welding.8 MIG welding is a term sometimes applied when referring to which one of the following processes? (a) FCAW. Answer. Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 27 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct). Answer.5 Which of the following processes are classified as solid state welding (more than one)? (a) CW. (b) friction welding. To attain a perfect score on the quiz. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point.3 Which of the following processes are classified as fusion welding (more than one)? (a) diffusion welding. and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point. The arc is sustained in arc welding processes by the transfer of molten metal across the gap between the electrode and the work: (a) true. (a) and (c) 31. (a) 31. all correct answers must be given. Machining is sometimes required to achieve satisfactory fit-up. (c) and (d) 31. Answer.Answer.4 Which of the following processes are classified as solid state welding? (a) friction welding. (d) RSW. and (e) upset welding. but by the presence of a thermally ionized column of gas through which the current flows. For each question. (d) thermit welding. vertical. and (d) OAW. (b) The arc is sustained. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers. (b) false.1 The feature that distinguishes fusion welding processes from solid state welding is that melting of the faying surfaces occurs during fusion welding: (a) true. (b) GMAW. or overhead arc welding positions. (c) GTAW. not by the transfer of molten metal. (c) roll welding. since each correct answer is worth 1 point. (c) pressure gas welding. (3) Whenever possible. 31.

(c) friction welding. (c) GTAW. and no filler metal is added: (a) true.11 31.17 31.16 31.19 213 . (b).31. 31. (c) GTAW. (b) Laser stands for "light amplification by stimulated emission of radiation. (b) false. (d). Answer. (a) Copper is a relatively easy metal to weld because its thermal conductivity is high: (a) true. Answer. (b) Pressure is applied in RW processes and is key to the success of these processes. (b) True that copper has a high thermal conductivity. (b) Shielding gases used for welding do not include which of the following (more than one)? (a) argon. (a) The term "laser" stands for "light actuated system for effective reflection": (a) true. Answer. (b) carbon monoxide.13 31. but also the quality of the resulting weld: (a) true. Answer. (d) hydrogen. or (a) TIG. or (d) SMAW. (b) false.10 31. The heat readily flows 31. (b) GMAW. metals with high resistivity are generally preferable. are difficult to weld in RW. (b) forge welding. (b) false. (c) helium. Metals that are easiest to weld in resistance welding are ones that have low resistivities since low resistivity assists in the flow of electrical current: (a) true. (a) Which one of the following arc welding processes produces the highest temperatures? (a) CAW. (d) Which of the following AW processes uses an electrode consisting of continuous consumable tubing containing flux and other ingredients in its core? (a) FCAW. Answer.12 31. such as aluminum and copper. (b) false. Answer. (a) and (b) The term weldability takes into account not only the ease with which a welding operation can be performed. (c) SAW. or (b) false. and (e) nitrogen. Higher resistance is required in the conversion of electrical power to heat energy. hence. Answer. (d) ultrasonic welding. Answer. one of the highest of any metal. Answer. Answer. (b) Metals with low resistivities.9 "Stick" welding is a term sometimes applied when referring to which one of the following processes? (a) FCAW." Which of the following solid state welding processes applies heat from an external source (more than one)? (a) diffusion welding. (b) GMAW. Answer. but this is one of the main reasons why copper is generally difficult to weld. (b) false.15 Oxyacetylene welding is the most widely used oxyfuel welding process because acetylene mixed with an equal volume of air burns hotter than any other commercially available fuel: (a) true. or (d) SMAW. and (e) Resistance welding processes make use of the heat generated by electrical resistance to achieve fusion of the two parts to be joined. no pressure is used in these processes.14 31. (b) PAW.18 31.

3 J/mm3. Arc time = 5. The total length of the several weld seams to be made is 2000 mm.96 pc/hr FCAW Rp = 60/14.85 and melting efficiency f 2 = 0. At the end of each work cycle.133 + 2.29 pc/hr.0 = 35.5 + 2000/400 + (2000/750)(0.1 W (b) WVR = (4303.3 A shielded metal arc welding operation is performed on steel at E = 30 volts and I = 225 amps.133 min. (b) How much improvement in arc time would result if the welder used FCAW (manually operated).65.0 = 55. fitter and robot work simultaneously.5 + 5.70. The fitter takes 5.0 + 2.5 min to place the unwelded components into the welding fixture at the beginning of the work cycle.75)(30)(225) = 4303. and the final weld bead is composed of equal volumes of 214 .0) = 9. Solve for: (a) the rate of heat generation at the weld and (b) the volume rate of metal welded.0 + 2. given that the spool of flux-cored weld wire must be changed every five weldments.0 = 4.2 J/mm3) = 421. and it takes the welder 5.5 min to unload the completed weldment at the end of the cycle. suppose an industrial robot cell were installed to replace the welder. and 2. If filler metal wire of 3.0 min to accomplish the change.5 = 15.1 A SMAW operation is accomplished in a work cell using a fitter and a welder. Robot: Tc = 2000/400 = 5. the fitter is idle. 31. 31. Limiting cycle is the fitter: arc time = 5. which takes 0.0% (b) FCAW cycle time Tc = 5.133 = 3.7% (c) SMAW Rp = 60/15.0/14. Determine: (a) arc time and (b) production rate for this work cell. The heat transfer efficiency f 1 = 0. While the fitter is working.into the body of the parts that are to be welded. (c) What are the production rates for these two cases (weldments completed per hour)? Solution: (a) SMAW cycle time Tc = 5.8 min.5 = 5.4 A GTAW operation is performed on stainless steel. 31.0/9. Arc time = 5. rather than remaining at the localized region where the joint is to be made.0) + 2.0 mm diameter is added to the operation.5 + 2000/400 + (1/5)(5. and while the welder is working. they switch places. Every 750 mm of weld length.0 min. and f 2 = 0. f 1 = 0.5 + (1/5)(5.8) + 2.1 W)/(10.2 J/mm3.5 + 5.0 minutes and is accomplished by the fitter.75. the welding stick must be changed. the welder is idle (resting). The unit melting energy for steel = 10.133 = 33. which task requires 5. (a) Determine the average arc time in this welding cycle.0 = 6. I = 125 amps. whose unit melting energy Um = 9.9 mm3/sec.85)(0. the robot welding at one fixture while the fitter unloads and loads at the other.5 + 2. Problems Arc welding 31.2 In the previous problem. Solution: (a) HRw = f1f2EI = (0.5 = 14.0 + 1. and the fitter who loads and unloads the parts. The electrode wire spool must be changed every five workparts. Solution: (a) Fitter: Tc = 5. The conditions are: E = 25 volts.0 min.0 min. With two fixtures.0/15.5% (b) Rp = 60/9. two welding fixtures. The cell consists of the robot (using GMAW instead of SMAW or FCAW).5 = 5.67 pc/hr. and the travel speed used by the welder averages 400 mm/min.

Rotational speed N = (15. = 0.250 W v = 0. The cross-sectional area of the weld seam = 80 mm2 and the melting efficiency of the aluminum is assumed to be f 2 = 0. Therefore. Tm = 930°K for aluminum.1.05 in 2? Solution: (a) f1f2EI = UmAwv Awv = welding volume rate = WVR = (0. 31. 31.2 in/rev) = 0.05 = 17. I = 125 amps. and measurements indicate that the final weld bead consists of 57% filler metal and 43% base metal. If the travel speed in the operation v = 5 mm/sec.5 = 30.125 W f2 = Um(WVR)/ f1EI = 79.01462)/(0. so 150 Btu/sec = 158. The heat transfer efficiency for SAW is f 1 = 0.07 = 10.6 mm2 (b) Aw v = 30.88 J/mm3 f1f2EI = UmAwv v = f1f2EI/UmAw = 0.9(0.5.05 in2.7 A continuous weld is to be made around the circumference of a round steel tube of diameter = 6. feed rate of filler wire = 153(0.06967 rev/min. (b) What is the travel speed if the cross-sectional area of the weld bead = 0.50 in 3 per minute.76 in/min)/(226.77 mm/s 31.95(0.877/0.65(0.41 (b) Given that Aw = 0.12 in 2.2 in/rev.0 ft.82 mm/s. (a) Find f 2.70)(25)(125) = 9. f1f2EI = Um(WVR) 1 Btu/sec = 1055 J/s = 1055 W.263 in/sec = 15. The tube is slowly rotated under a stationary welding head.5)(20)(250)/(2.6 A gas metal arc welding test is performed to determine the value of melting efficiency f2 for a certain metal and operation.6(5) = 153 mm3/s Filler wire A = πD2/4 = π(3) 2/4 = 7. a typical value for GMAW.76 in/min. The unit melting energy for the metal is known to be 75 Btu/in 3. and (b) the feed rate (in mm/sec) at which the filler wire must be supplied.2.33 x 10-6 (930) 2 = 2. using a submerged arc welding operation under automatic control at a voltage of 25 volts and current of 300 amps. If the unit melting energy for the steel = 150 Btu/in3.88 x 80) = 9.07 mm2 At 50% filler metal. v = (WVR)/Aw = 0.250 x 0.7)(25)(300)/(158. and heat transfer efficiency is assumed to be f 1 = 0.9/46. From Table 30. f2 = 0.95 and the assumed melting efficiency f 2 = 0. Solution: (a) HRw = f1f2EI = UmAwv 0.5 A flux-cored arc welding operation is performed to butt weld two aluminum plates together. The rate at which the filler metal is added to the weld is 0.120) = 0.7. determine: (a) cross-sectional area of the weld bead. determine the likely value for travel speed v in the operation. Using tabular data and equations given in this and the preceding chapter.54 in/min. using the following conditions: E = 20 volts and I = 250 amps.50)/7. Circumference C = πD = 12 x 6π = 226. Solution: From Table 31.125(0. determine: (a) the rotational speed of tube and (b) the time required to complete the weld.90.3(Aw)(5) 1421. The welding conditions are: E = 25 volts.9 for FCAW. Um = 3.50 in 3/min)/0.filler and base metal.9 = 46. so 75 Btu/sec = 79.9 x 25 x 125) = 0. 215 .5 Aw Aw = 1421.01462 in 3/sec.877 in 3/min.57 = 0. The cross-sectional area of the weld bead is 0. Solution: (a) f1f2EI = UmAwv v = f1f2EI/UmAw 1 Btu/sec = 1055 J/s = 1055 W.

060)/4 = 0.4/405 = 0. Assume the resistance = 100 micro-ohms. Process parameters are: current = 9500 A and time duration = 0.2 mm3 Hm = 10(127.0 mm in diameter by 2.19) 2(0.5)/4 = 49.5% 31.35 x 103 = 12.255/1. each 2. Resistance welding 31.9 J/mm3)(49.5)/4 = 127.17) = 1534 W-sec = 1.2) = 25 x 10-6 I2 = 3816 J I2 = 3816/(25 x 10-6) = 152. and the resistance at the interface is 75 micro-ohms. The unit melting energy for steel = 150 Btu/in 3.1 mm3) = 142.0 mm thick.0017) = 0.5 mm thick.64 x 106 A2.02835 in 2 I2R = (9500) 2 (100 x 10-6) = 9025 W 1 Btu/sec = 1055 W.454 = 0.90 J/mm3. and that only one-third of the electrical energy generated will be used to form the weld nugget (the rest being dissipated into the work). The weld current in the operation is 10.76 in/min) = 14.000 amps. The resulting weld nugget measures 5. the weld duration t = 0. The unit melting energy for aluminum Um = 2.17 sec. The weld duration will be set at 0.8 A RSW operation is used to make a series of spot welds between two pieces of aluminum.02835 = 302 Btu/sec-in2 (b) H = I2Rt = (9500) 2 (100 x 10-6)(0. Solution: Hm = UmV V = πD2d/4 = π(6) 2(4.5 mm thick austenitic stainless steel to fabricate a container.4 J Proportion of heat for welding =142. Continuous motion 216 .11 A resistance seam welding operation is performed on two pieces of 2.2 sec. This results in a weld nugget of diameter = 0. Welding current I = 6.19 in and thickness = 0.060 in.0 mm. it is desired to form a weld nugget that is 6.554/0.15 sec. and (b) the proportion of energy generated that went into formation of the weld nugget.(b) Time to weld around circumference = C/v = (226.350 A. If it is assumed that the electrical resistance between the surfaces is 125 micro-ohms.040 in thick sheet steel (low carbon).19) 2/4 = 0. Determine: (a) the average power density in the interface area defined by the weld nugget.000 amps. 31.2) = 1272 J Required heat for the RSW operation H = 1272/(1/3) = 3816 J H = I2Rt = I2(125 x 10-6)(0.1% 31.454 Btu Weld nugget volume V = πD2d/4 = π(0.1 mm3 Heat required for melting = UmV = (2. How much of the total energy generated is used to form the weld nugget? Solution: H = I2Rt = (5000) 2(75 x 10-6)(0.0 mm in diameter and 4.10 A resistance spot welding operation is performed on two pieces of 0.351 = 35.3 sec. To achieve required strength. Assume that the resistance = 75 micro-ohms.255 Btu Proportion of heat for welding = 0. I = 12.175 = 17.2 in/rev)/(15.5 mm thick. Solution: (a) PD = I2R/A A = πD2/4 = π(0.0017 in 3 Heat required for melting = UmV = (150 Btu/in 3)(0.0 J/mm3. time duration = 0.15) = 405 W-sec = 405 J Weld nugget volume V = πD2d/4 = π(5) 2(2. determine the minimum current level required in this operation. The thickness of each of the two sheets to be welded is 3.35 min.554 Btu/sec PD = 8.9 The unit melting energy for a certain sheet metal to be spot welded is Um = 10. so 9025 W = 8.

The resistance R = 85 micro-ohms.0)/4 = 84. The sheet metal being spot welded is low carbon steel whose unit melting energy = 10 J/mm3.33 x 10-6 (1670) 2 = 9. (b) the proportion of energy generated that goes into the formation of each weld nugget.82 mm3) = 788 J from previous problem.9 mm/min.3) = 2225 J Proportion of heat for welding =788/2225= 0.23 mm/s) = 5.61 mm/s.25 in. H = I2Rt = (10. Given the conditions from the previous problem.3 sec.9 mm/min)/(200π mm/rev) = 0. At the end of the power-on time. surface speed of electrode wheel v = 6.33 x 10-6 (1670) 2 = 9.29 J/mm3. determine: (a) the proportion of energy generated that goes into the formation of each weld nugget. Determine the power-on time the current must be applied in order to perform this spot welding operation. Distance moved per spot weld = 25 mm as given. and might this have the effect of elongating the weld nugget (making it elliptical rather than round)? Solution: (a) Um = 3. and (b) the rotational speed of the electrode wheels.3 sec = 19. with the changes noted here.0) 2(3.29 J/mm3)(84. (c) At this higher rotational speed.3 sec = 4. Surface speed of electrode wheel v = 25 mm/1. (b) Hm = UmV V = πD2d/4 = π(6.8 mm/min.0 s.836 rev/min. where I = amp and t = sec.8 mm/min)/(200π in/rev) = 1. N = v/πD = (1153. Um = 3. It is assumed that 1/4 of the energy generated from the power source will be used to form the weld nugget.000) 2(75 x 10-6)(0. Distance moved per spot weld in order to have contiguous spot welds for the seam = D = 0. Solution: (a) From Table 30.12 Suppose in the previous problem that a roll spot welding operation is performed instead of seam welding. The desired weld nugget size is: diameter = 4 mm and thickness = 2 mm (assume a disc-shaped nugget).13 An experimental power source for spot welding is designed to deliver current as a ramp function of time: I = 100. with 200 mm diameter electrode wheels. determine: (a) the unit melting energy of stainless steel using the methods of the previous chapter.23 mm/s = 1153. Solution: Hm = UmV V = πD2d/4 = π(4) 2(2)/4 = 25.82 mm3 Hm = (9.82 mm3) = 788 J H = I2Rt = (10.00 mm/1. These weld nuggets must be contiguous to form a sealed seam.263 (b) Total cycle time per spot weld = 1.354 (c) Total cycle time per weld = 0.000) 2(100 x 10-6)(0.3 sec. and (c) the rotational speed of the electrode wheels. Movement of wheel during 0. and the center-to-center separation between weld nuggets is 25 mm. N = v/πD = (276.441 rev/min. The individual weld nuggets formed in this RSEW operation have dimensions: diameter = 6 mm and thickness = 3 mm (assume the weld nuggets are disc-shaped). The interface resistance increases to 100 micro-ohms. The power unit driving the process requires an off-time between spot welds of 1. 31. Given these conditions.000 t. Tm = 1670°K for austenitic stainless steel.29 J/mm3)(84. This movement is likely to have the effect of making the weld spot elliptical in shape.29 J/mm3 from previous problem. the current is stopped abruptly. = 276.welding is used.3 sec = (0.0 = 1. (c) Power-on time during cycle = 0.3 + 1. 31. Therefore.3 sec as in previous problem. how much does the wheel move during the current on-time.14 mm3 217 . Hm = (9.3 sec)(19.77 mm.3) = 3000 J Proportion of heat for welding =788/3000 = 0.2.

000t)2 R dt = 100.4 J H = 251.30) 2/4 = 0.02 Btu/sec (c) Area of circle in which 75% of heat is concentrated A = πD2/4 = π(0. The heat transfer efficiency f 1 = 0. Solution: (a) Rate of heat generated by the torch HR = (0.75.3 in the text that the fuel used in the welding operation is MAPP instead of acetylene.375 in.25.6 J Power P = ∫ I2R dt = ∫(100.375) 2/4 = 0.031943) 1/3 = 0.35 mm wide. and melting efficiency f 2 = 0.700 Btu/hr = 4.031943 t = (0.0 mm.5 t3 = 1005. Compute: (a) rate of heat liberated during combustion. Oxyfuel Welding 31. determine the travel speed at which this weld can be made along the seam.0 mm thick.25(4.14 Suppose in Example 31.75(1.25 = 1005. The electron beam is focused on a circular area that is 0.14 mm3) = 251.94 Btu/sec-in.08 Btu/sec) = 1.16 The voltage in an EBW operation = 50 kV and the beam current = 65 milliamp.0) 2/4 = 63. The weld joint is to be 0.35 mm by 3. find: (a) rate of heat liberated during combustion. beam current = 30 milliamp.85(50 x 103)(65 x 10-3) = 2762.6 t3 = 1005.000R ∫ t2 dt = (105)2(85 x 10-6)t3/3 evaluated between 0 and t.15 An oxyacetylene torch supplies 10 ft3 of acetylene per hour and an equal volume rate of oxygen for an OAW operation on 3/16 in steel.6 = 18.Hm = (10 J/mm3)(25.1104 in 2) = 6.85.5 W Area A = πD2/4 = π(0. The unit melting energy = 5. H = 850.0707 mm3 PD = 2762.08 Btu/sec (b) Rate of heat received at work surface = f1 HR = 0. Solution: (a) Rate of heat generated by the torch HR = (10 ft3/hr)(1470 Btu/ft3) = 14.25(7642) = 1910 J/s (c) Area of circle in which 60% of heat is concentrated A = πD2/4 = π(9.4/0.17 An electron beam welding operation is to be accomplished to butt weld two sheet metal parts that are 3.6 mm2 Power density PD = 0.317 s. If 75% of the heat from the flame is concentrated in a circular area on the work surface whose diameter = 0. Calculate the average power density in the area in watt/mm2.074 W/mm2 31. Heat generated by combustion is transferred to the work surface with an efficiency f1 = 0.0 W/mm2 31. and (c) average power density in the circular area. Solution: Power density PD = f1EI/A Power P = f1EI = 0.3 m3/hr)(91.60(1910)/63. 2 Power density PD = 0. and (c) average power density in the circular area.3 mm in diameter.1104 in.0707 = 39.5 = 0. so that the cross-section of the fused metal is 0.0 J/mm3. and the proportion of heat concentrated in the 9 mm circle is 60% instead of 75 %. (b) rate of heat transferred to the work surface.7 x 106 J/m3) = 27.85.6/31481.000t3/3 = 31481.02 Btu/sec)/(0. 2 Electron beam welding 31.5/0. (b) rate of heat transferred to the work surface. If accelerating voltage = 25 kV.5 x 106 J/hr = 7642 J/s (b) Rate of heat received at work surface = f1 HR = 0. heat transfer efficiency f 1 = 0. 218 .

85(0.90(25 x 103)(100 x 10-3)/1055 = 2.Solution: Available heat for welding HRw = f1f2EI = UmAwv Travel velocity v = f1f2EI/UmAw Cross sectional area of weld seam Aw = (0. beam current = 100 milliamp.000314 = 6792 Btu/sec-in2 219 .05) = 91.133 Btu/sec PD = 2.05 mm2 v = 0.35)(3.75)(25 x 103)(30 x 10-3)/(5. Solution: Power density PD = f1EI/A Area in which beam is focused A = πD2/4 = π(0.05 mm/s 31.0 x 1.020 in. If the heat transfer efficiency f 1 = 90%.18 An electron beam welding operation uses the following process parameters: accelerating voltage = 25 kV. determine the average power density in the area in Btu/sec in 2.0) = 1.133/0.020) 2/4 = 0. and the circular area on which the beam is focused has a diameter = 0.000314 in 3 Power P = 0.

In soldering the filler metal melts at a temperature of 840 degrees F or below. 32. Capillary action is the physical tendency of a liquid to be drawn into a small diameter tube or other narrow openings in spite of the force of gravity. In brazing the filler metal melts at a temperature above 840 degrees F (450 degrees C). 32. In brazing and soldering filler metal is used. (3) have a low viscosity when melted. and (5) protect the joint until solidification occurs. whereas in solid state welding no filler metal is added. the overlap area is made as large as possible.4 Under what circumstances would brazing or soldering be preferred over welding? Answer. The parts to be brazed are dipped into a molten salt or molten metal bath which supplies the heating for the operation. no melting of the base metal(s) occurs. (2) the components cannot tolerate the higher heat and temperatures of welding. (3) production rates might be faster and less expensive than welding.7 The molten filler metal in brazing is distributed throughout the joint by capillary action.9 What is dip brazing? Answer.1 32. Brazing or soldering might be preferred if: (1) the base metals have poor weldability. SOLDERING. 32. the butting surface areas are increased in various ways such as scarfing or stepping the edges. Certain changes in joint configuration are usually made to improve the strength of brazed joints. It is caused by the adhesive attraction between the liquid molecules and the solid surfaces that define the narrow openings.32 32. 32.10 Define braze welding. What is capillary action? Answer. Butt and lap joints. In brazing and soldering. 32.8 What are the desirable characteristics of a brazing flux? Answer. 32. 32. (4) joint areas might be inaccessible for welding but brazing or soldering is possible. 220 . and (5) the high strength of a welded joint is not a requirement. (2) have a low melting temperature. How do brazing and soldering differ from the solid state welding processes? Answer. (4) be a good wetting agent.3 What is the technical difference between brazing and soldering? Answer. What are some of these changes? Answer.6 What are the two joint types most commonly used in brazing? Answer. AND ADHESIVE BONDING Review Questions How do brazing and soldering differ from the fusion welding processes? Answer.5 32.2 BRAZING. In brazed or soldered lap joints. A brazing flux should do the following: (1) inhibit the formation of oxides and other unwanted byproducts during the brazing. In butt joints. Several of the adaptations are illustrated in the figures of this chapter.

use of ultraviolet light. (4) capable of making air-tight and liquid-tight joints. It differs from the typical brazing operation in that no capillary action occurs. Why are rosins as soldering fluxes losing favor in industry? Answer.12 32. 32. (2) melt the solder. Curing is the chemical reaction in which the adhesive transforms from liquid to solid and in the process forms the surface attachment between the two adherends.20 What are some of the methods used to cure adhesives? Answer. 32. Advantages of soldering: (1) lower heat energy required than brazing or welding.Answer. 32.17 What are the disadvantages and drawbacks of soldering? Answer. 32. and application of pressure. 32. Disadvantages and limitations: (1) the strength of the brazed joint is generally less than that of a welded joint.. 32. epoxies).18 What is meant by the term structural adhesive? Answer. 221 .16 List the advantages often attributed to soldering as an industrial joining process? Answer. Tin and lead. (2) various heating methods available. (1) low mechanical strength unless reinforced and (2) elevated service temperatures can weaken the joint. chemical solvents must be used to remove the flux after the joining operation. The curing methods include: chemical reaction between two components of the adhesive (e. The functions include: (1) provide heat to the parts.g. Braze welding is used for adding braze metal to a more conventional geometry weld joint. such as a V-joint. 32. 32. These chemical solvents are hazardous to the environment and to humans.11 What are some of the disadvantages and limitations of brazing? Answer.14 What are the functions served by the bit of a soldering iron in hand soldering? Answer.13 What are the two most common alloying metals used in solders? Answer. It differs from a conventional welding operation in that no melting of the base metals occurs. Wave soldering involves the flow of molten solder onto the underside of a printed circuit board to provide soldered connections between the component leads that project through holes in the boards.19 An adhesive must cure in order to bond. (2) high service temperatures may weaken a brazed joint. and (4) withdraw excess solder from the joint. 32. rigid components.15 What is wave soldering? Answer.21 Name the three basic categories of commercial adhesives. (3) convey solder to the joint. (3) good electrical and thermal conductivity of the joint. What is meant by the term curing? Answer. (3) part sizes are limited. heating of the adhesive. and (5) ease of repair and rework. Since natural rosin is insoluble in water. and (4) the color of the filler metal is often different than the color of the base metals. A structural adhesive is capable of forming a strong permanent joint between strong. 32.

025 mm (0. 32.001 in. (6) inspection of the bond is difficult. Methods include: (1) manual brushing. 32. or (d) 2. (b) 32.250 mm (0. 32.24 Identify some of the advantages of adhesive bonding compared to alternative joining methods.g. 222 .25 What are some of the limitations of adhesive bonding? Answer.g. (2) fragile parts can be joined. (5) curing times can limit production rates. all correct answers must be given. (6) some adhesives are suited to sealing as well as bonding. and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point.1 In brazing. and (7) roll coating. Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 24 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct).50 mm (0..4 Clearances between surfaces in brazing are which one of the following: (a) 0.). (4) use of flow guns. or (c) weaker than.similar or dissimilar.).010 to 0.g. (b) stronger than.250 to 2. or (b) false.001 to 0. (4) certain adhesives are flexible after curing. (b) Scarfing involves a preparation of the two edges to increase surface area for brazing. (2) inorganic adhesives (e. since each correct answer is worth 1 point.100 in. (3) service temperatures are limited. starch. (3) silk screening. For each question. 32. and (3) synthetic adhesives (e. (b) 0. The surfaces of the adherends must be very clean. Answer. the base metals melt at temperatures above 840°F (450°C) while in soldering they melt at 840°F (450°C) or below: (a) true.2 The strength of a brazed joint is typically which one of the following relative to the filler metal out of which it is made: (a) equal to. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point. (4) surfaces to be bonded must be very clean.20 in..23 What are some of the methods used to apply adhesives in industrial production operations? Answer.010 in.0025 to 0.0 mm (0. Limitations of adhesive bonding: (1) adhesively bonded joints are generally not as strong as other joining techniques.Answer.). Answer.. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers.).3 Scarfing in the brazing of a butt joint involves the wrapping of a sheath around the two parts to be joined to contain the molten filler metal during the heating process: (a) true. Advantages of adhesive bonding: (1) applicable to a wide variety of materials . To attain a perfect score on the quiz. (5) low curing temperatures. (3) bonding occurs over entire surface area of joint. (6) automatic dispensers. or (b) false. (2) use of manual rollers. sodium silicate).025 to 0. (5) spraying. 32. collagen). Answer. 32.0001 to 0. 32. thermoplastic and thermosetting polymers such as epoxies and acrylics).22 What is an important precondition for the success of an adhesive bonding operation? Answer. (2) the adhesive must be compatible with the adherend materials. (b) Neither brazing or soldering involve melting of the base metals. Special surface preparation is sometimes required immediately prior to application of the adhesive in order to insure cleanliness. thus permitting them to tolerate strains encountered in service. and (7) simplified joint design. The categories are: (1) natural adhesives (e.5 to 5. (c) 0. Answer.10 to 0.

Answer. Answer. in which a primary chemical bond is formed between the adhesive and the parts being joined.15 Roughening of the faying surfaces tends to (a) increase. (c) water-soluble organic fluxes. (b) peeling.13 Adhesively bonded joints are strongest under which type of stresses (pick two best answers): (a) cleavage. (c). (b) natural rosin fluxes. Answer. and (c). (c) shear. or (e) tin. (a). (a) 32. (a). 32. and (d) surface tension of the fluid adhesive. (d) adhibit. (d) silver.12 Weldbonding is an adhesive joining method in which heat is used to melt the adhesive: (a) true. (a) Preferred because it is water-soluble. (c) protect the faying surfaces during the process. 32. (b) less heat and energy required than fusion welding.6 Which of the following soldering methods are not used for brazing (more than one)? (a) dip soldering. and (d) tension. Answer. (c) and (d). which one of the following is the term used for the parts that are joined: (a) adherend. 32. or (b) false. (b) adherent. (d) stronger joint than welding. Answer. 32. 32. Answer. (e) ad infinitum. 32. (c) adhesive.7 Which one of the following is not a function of a flux in brazing or soldering? (a) chemically etch the surfaces to increase roughness for better adhesion of the filler metal. (b) promote wetting of the surfaces. or (d) remove or inhibit formation of oxide films. Answer. (b). (c) and (e).Answer. 32.5 Which of the following is an advantage of brazing (more than one): (a) dissimilar metals can be joined.9 Which of the following metals is used in solder alloys (more than one)? (a) antimony.11 In adhesive bonding. (a). (c) soldering iron. (b) gold.10 A soldering gun is capable of injecting molten solder metal into the joint area: (a) true. or (b) reduce the strength of an adhesively bonded joint because it increases the effective area of the joint and promotes mechanical interlocking. (b) infrared soldering. (a) 32. (c) secondary bonding forces between atoms of opposing surfaces. 223 . 32. (b). (c) lead.14 Which of the following are the mechanisms that operate in adhesive bonding (more than one)? (a) chemical bonding. Answer. and (e) wave soldering. Answer.8 Which type of soldering flux is preferred for electrical and electronics connections? (c) inorganic fluxes such as zinc chloride. (b) Weldbonding is a combination of adhesive bonding and spot welding. (c) multiple joints can be brazed simultaneously. or (b) false. (d). (d) torch soldering. and (c). (b) 32. Answer. (b) The trigger on a soldering gun is used to switch on the electric resistance heating elements. (b) mechanical interlocking. and (e).

Answer. (a) 224 .

33. A screw is generally assembled into a blind threaded hole. Torque-turn tightening involves the tightening of the threaded fastener to a certain low torque level. 33.7 What are the three ways in which a threaded fastener can fail during tightening? Answer. it expands to cause an interference fit with its mating part. upon warming to room temperature. and (3) the parts can be designed with self-aligning features. 33. 33. Answer.8 What is a rivet? Answer. welding. many of the mechanical fastening methods allow for disassembly . Then cooling causes an interference fit with the component. whereas a bolt is assembled using a nut. Review Questions 33. to replace worn-out components.)? Answer. 225 . Proof strength can be defined as the maximum tensile stress that an externally threaded fastener can sustain without permanent deformation.3 What is the technical difference between a screw and a bolt? Answer.5 What is torque-turn tightening? Answer.g. or (3) excessive tensile load on the cross-sectional area of the bolt or screw. the internal part is cooled so that it can be readily inserted into the mating component. 33.1 MECHANICAL ASSEMBLY How does mechanical assembly differ from the other methods of assembly discussed in previous chapters (e. etc. For maintenance and repair service. A rivet is an unthreaded headed pin used to join two parts by inserting the pin through holes in the parts and deforming the unheaded portion over the opposite side. A stud is an externally threaded fastener that does not have the usual head possessed by a bolt.not possible with welding and brazing. the outside part is expanded by heating to fit over the mating component. (2) no tooling is required.9 What is the difference between a shrink fit and expansion fit in assembly? Answer.2 What are some of the reasons why assemblies must be sometimes disassembled? Answer. 33. and then advancing the fastener by a specified additional amount of turn. (1) Stripping of the bolt or screw threads. 33. brazing. Then. and to make adjustments. Mechanical assembly uses a mechanical fastening method for joining two (or more) parts. (1) The method is fast. In an expansion fit. 33. In a shrink fit.33 33.4 What is a stud (in the context of threaded fasteners)? Answer. Also.10 What are the advantages of snap fitting? Answer. Both are externally threaded fasteners. (2) stripping of the internal fastener threads.6 Define proof strength as the term applies in threaded fasteners..

Some of the principles and guidelines that apply specifically to automated assembly include: (1) Use modularity in product design. usually from above.14 Identify some of the general principles and guidelines that apply specifically to automated assembly. (a) 33. 33. In stapling. or (d) torque wrench. the number of directions in which new components are added to the existing subassembly. where disassembly or adjustment is required. Answer. Assembly is by simple insertion.12 What are integral fasteners? Answer. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers. (b) snap fit. the fasteners are preformed. retaining rings. Parts with hooks.33.1 Most externally threaded fasteners are produced by: (a) cold forming. In stitching the U-shaped fasteners are formed during the assembly process. instead use snap fits. e. Riley [11] suggests that each module or subassembly to be produced on a single assembly system has a maximum of 12 or 13 parts and should be designed around a base part to which other components are added. 33. Answer. this is the ideal situation. slots. (4) Use only high quality components. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point. (4) Reduce parts orientation difficulties by designing parts to be symmetrical and minimizing the number of asymmetric features. all correct answers must be given. 33.. (3) Limit the required directions of access. If all of the components can be added vertically from above. Poor quality components cause jams in feeding and assembly mechanisms that result in downtime. (2) Reduce the number of threaded fasteners required. holes. 226 . Answer.2 Which of the following methods is used for applying the required torque to achieve a desired preload of a threaded fastener (more than one)? (a) sense of feel by a human operator. and curls are more likely to become entangled in parts bins. To attain a perfect score on the quiz. Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 18 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct). Some of the general principles and guidelines in design for assembly include: (1) Use the fewest number of parts possible to reduce the amount of assembly required. (2) Reduce the need for multiple components to be handled at once. (5) Use of snap fit assembly. The preferred practice for automated assembly is to separate the operations at different stations rather than to simultaneously handle and fasten multiple components at the same workstation. Use threaded fasteners only where justified.13 Identify some of the general principles and guidelines for design for assembly. (c) stall-motor wrenches. that is. frustrating assembly workers or jamming automatic feeders. and similar fastening mechanisms that can be accomplished more rapidly. and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point. This allows easier handling and insertion during assembly.11 What is the difference between industrial stitching and stapling? Answer. or (b) machining. integral fasteners. 33. (3) Standardize fasteners in order to reduce the number of sizes and styles of fasteners required in the product. Integral fasteners make use of a forming operation on one of the parts to be joined to interlock the components and create a mechanically fastened joint. (5) Avoid parts that tangle.g. eliminating the need for threaded fasteners. For each question. since each correct answer is worth 1 point.

or (b) false. and (c).6 The advantages of snap fit assembly include which of the following (more than one)? (a) assembly can be accomplished quickly. Answer. (b).9 Which of the following are considered good product design rules for automated assembly (more than one)? (a) design the assembly with the fewest number of components possible. (c) design with as many different fastener types as possible to achieve maximum flexibility in design.7 The difference between industrial stitching and stapling is that the U-shaped fasteners are formed during the stitching process while in stapling the fasteners are preformed: (a) true. Snap fit joints are not recognized as being stronger than joints produced by other assembly methods. so as to minimize the number of ways the parts will go together. (b) no special tools are required. and (d) 33. 227 . or (d) stripping of the internal or external threads. it is more desirable to use many small threaded fasteners rather than few large ones in order to distribute the stresses more uniformly: (a) true. (c) in some cases involves a melting of the base parts. (c). or (b) false. Answer. Answer. (c) the components can be designed with features that facilitate parts mating. the external part is heated sufficiently to increase its size for assembly. they require less assembly time. (a).4 Which of the following are the common ways in which threaded fasteners fail during tightening (more than one)? (a) excessive pressure applied to the bolt or screw head by the tightening tool (e. (b). Answer (c) certainly includes the scope of mechanical assembly but it is not a reason for using it.3 Which of the following are reasons for using mechanical assembly (more than one)? (a) ease of assembly. the internal part is cooled to contract it for assembly. it then expands to form the interference fit. (a). (b). (c) excessive tensile stresses. Answer. In a shrink fit the external part is heated and then cooled to shrink it onto the internal part. an interference fit is formed. (b). (d) design parts with asymmetric features to mate with other parts having corresponding (but reverse) features. In an expansion fit. (a) 33.Answer. (a) true. (c). (b) excessive shearing stresses on the threads due to inadequate length of engagement. (b) design the product using bolts and nuts wherever possible to allow for disassembly. All of the other answers go against design-for-assembly principles. (a). and (d).5 The difference between a shrink fit and an expansion fit is that in a shrink fit the internal part is cooled to a sufficiently low temperature to reduce its size for assembly. (b) From the standpoint of assembly cost. Answer. (b) ease of disassembly. (a) and (e). Answer.8 From the standpoint of assembly cost. 33. 33. and (d) no heat affected zone in the base parts. Answer. and (d) 33. screwdriver) resulting in failure of the head. whereas in an expansion fit.g.. When brought back to room temperature in either case. or (b) false. 33. it is more desirable to use few large threaded fasteners rather than many small ones because the large fasteners are easier to handle and since there are fewer of them. and (e) limit the required directions of access when adding components to a base part. 33. and (d) the resulting joint is stronger than with most other assembly methods.

Problems Threaded Fasteners 33.0.0775 in2 F = σAs = 33.7 A 1-8 UNC low carbon steel bolt (diameter = 1. T = CDF = 0.20. T = CDF = 0. Torque coefficient C = 0.18.9743/10) 2 = 0. 5/8-11.23.5 A torque wrench is used on a 3/4-10 UNC screw (3/4 in nominal diameter.3 A M16x2 bolt (16 mm diameter. 5/16-18.2875 N-m.000 lb/in 2) that could be used to achieve the same preload from the following standard UNC sizes used by the company: 1/4-20.1 A 5-mm diameter bolt is to be tightened to produce a preload = 25 N.5) 2 = 57. However. 8 threads/in) is currently planned for a certain application.20.5 screw (10 mm diameter. 10 threads/in) in an automobile final assembly plant.334 = 2495 lb/in2 33.9382 x 1. Solution: F = T/CD = 125/(0. 33.0. If the torque coefficient C = 0. 228 .4) = 15. and (b) compare the torque required to obtain the preload for the original 1-in bolt and the alloy steel bolt selected in part (a) if the torque coefficient in both cases C = 0.25π(10 . 33.9382 x 2) 2 = 156. A torque of 125 in-lb is generated by the wrench.1 N-mm = 15. pitch p = 1. determine the tension in the bolt. or 3/4-10. determine the torque that should be applied. Determine the maximum torque that should be used if the torque coefficient C = 0.4 N.94 MPa.334 in2 σ = 833. Determine: (a) the smallest nominal size of an alloy steel bolt (proof strength = 120.0775) = 2557. determine the tensile stress on the bolt.0.25.99 mm2 σ = 0.000 N-mm F = T/CD = 12.99) = 8698. 33.5) = 240 in-lb.6 The designer has specified that a 3/8-16 UNC low-carbon bolt (3/8 in nominal diameter.375)(2557. this bolt is too large for the size of the components involved.3/0.5 lb.20.66 N-m.000 lb/in 2 (Table 33.1).9743/16) 2 = 0.000 lb/in 2 (see Table 33. 3/8-16.75) = 833.22. Solution: As = 0. and a higher strength but smaller bolt would be preferable.25π(0.3 lb.5 mm) is to be turned into a threaded hole and tightened to one/half of its proof strength. Solution: T = CDF = 0. pitch p = 2 mm) is subjected to a torque of 12 N-m during tightening.2 x 0. As = 0.5 N-mm = 0. Solution: T = 12 N-m = 12.1). It is to be preloaded to 75% of its proof strength.0. If the torque coefficient C = 0. If the torque coefficient C = 0.375 . which is 300 MPa.75 .25π(0. Determine the torque that should be used to tighten the bolt. which is 33. 16 threads/in) in a certain application should be stressed to its proof stress of 33.25(0.000/(0.18(10)(8698. Determine the maximum torque that should be used if C = 0.0 in.50)(1000) = 110 in-lb. 33. Solution: As = 0.7 = 23.657. As = 0. 1/2-13.22(0.2 A Metric 10 x 1.2 x 16) = 3750 N.23(5)(250) = 287.7 mm2 σ = 3750/156.5 of 300 MPa = 150 MPa = 150 N/mm2 F = σAs = 150(57.4 A 1/2-in diameter screw is to be preloaded to a tension force F = 1000 lb.000(0. Solution: T = CDF = 0. 33.25π(16 .94 N/mm2 = 23.

02) = 120. For the alloy bolt. and (b) the maximum effective stress in the collar at its inside diameter.8 A dowel pin made of steel (E = 209. The modulus of elasticity of steel E = 30 x 106 lb/in2.1665 in2 = 0.874 in-lb.0)(14.752 -1.0.1. The nominal inside diameter of the ring is 1. As = F/σ = 14992/(0.0.25 . T = CDF = 0.02)/(1. Obviously.6) 229 .0.000(0.625)(14.132) = 643.5364 in. Solution: (a) pf = Ei(Dc2 .6057 in2 F = σAs = 0. none of the D values below 0.0 mm. and the collar has an outside diameter = 25. The nominal internal diameter of the gear = 30 mm and the interference = 0.000 lb/in2 33. The collar has an internal diameter = 0.000 lb/in2 Eq.25π = 0.Dp2)/DpDc2 = 209.10 A steel collar is press fitted onto a steel shaft. Solution: Max σe ≤ Y/SF .302)/(30 x 552) = 161.75 x 120.500 in.0.752) = 40.998 in-lb. Solution: (a) pf = Ei(Dc2 -Dp2)/DpDc2 = 30 x 106(0.25π(D .302) = 460 MPa 33.Dp2)/DpDc2 = 69.992) = 2. It is to be used for the outer ring of a press-fit assembly with a mating shaft made of the same metal.0 mm.02)(252 .000 MPa) is to be press fitted into a steel collar.625 .9) Eq.2(1.Dp2) = 25.9743/8) 2 = 0.992) = 1. (b) Determine the effect of increasing the outside diameter of the collar to 35.1 MPa (b) When Dc = 35 mm.Dp2) = 2(234.002)(1.000(0.000) = 0.0.000 lb/in2 and its modulus of elasticity E = 22 x 106 lb/in2.0 x 1.0.000 MPa) is press-fitted onto an aluminum shaft. determine the maximum interference that should be used with this assembly. (4) 1/2-13.6 MPa Max σe = 2pfDc2/( Dc2 .4605 in.000 in and its outside diameter = 2.132)/(13 x 252) = 234.0. Use 5/8-11 bolt. Using a safety factor SF = 2. > 0. (a) Compute the radial pressure and the maximum effective stress if the interference between the shaft OD and the collar ID is 0.408)(1.992 lb.1665 in 2 As = 0. Determine: the radial (interference) pressure on the assembly. T = CDF = 0.000/2.9743/n) = (0. (33. For the 5/8-11 bolt. use Max σe = Y/SF = 50.6)(252)/(252 . Interference Fits 33.000(0. and (b) the maximum effective stress in the gear at its inside diameter.752 .132) = 643.9743/n) = 0.4605 will be sufficient.0 = 25.000 lb/in2.9743/n) 2 (D .752)/ (1.132)/(13 x 352) = 277.25π(1.1 MPa 33.000 lb/in 2 Max σe = 2pfDc2/(Dc2 . pf = 209.6057) = 14.5 MPa (b) Max σe = 2pfDc2/( Dc2 .10)(552 .408 lb/in2 (b) Max σe = 2pfDc2/( Dc2 .000)(0.0. The pin has a nominal diameter of 13. The gear has a diameter of 55 mm at the base of its teeth.75(33.2(0.0.9743/20) = 0. (6) 3/4-10 Try (1): (D .9 A gear made of aluminum (modulus of elasticity E = 69.212 in2 (D .02)(352 . Solution: (a) pf = Ei(Dc2 .11 The yield strength of a certain metal Y = 50.Solution: (a) As = 0.9743/n) 2 = 0. (5) 5/8-11. σ = 120.02 mm. Possible bolt sizes are: (1) 1/4-20.2013 in.0 . Compute: (a) the radial pressure between the shaft and the gear.Dp2) = 2(40.9743/11) = 0. (2) 5/16-18. The outside diameter of the collar is 1. (33.750 in. (3) 3/8-16.0 mm on the radial pressure and the maximum effective stress.Dp2) = 2(161.000 in.2 MPa Max σe = 2(277.4605 in.10 mm.1665 in2/0.9743/n) = (0.2)(352)/(352 .5)(552)/ (552 .998 in and the shaft has an outside diameter = 1. (b) For the original 1-8 bolt. Try (5): (D .

1.174 = 30.00 mm and 40.00057 in.0 mm in diameter at room temperature (21°C).007 in.8 x 10-6 mm/mm per °C. E = 30.0)(700 .52 .500 + 0.6 + 21 = -180.950)(3.D1 = 0.007.14 A 1-inch diameter steel pin is to be heated from room temperature (70°F) to 700°F.000 lb/in 2 and α = 6. Solution: (a) If the clearance = 0.007 = 1. yield strength = 450 MPa.1 x 10-6(30)(500 .52) = 10. Properties of the pin and collar metal are: coefficient of thermal expansion = 12.7 x 10-6 in/in per °F.8 x 10-6 x 40) = -201.4977 = 0.52)/(22 x 106 x (2.7 x 10-6(1.0 x 10-6 m/m/°C.00233 in.21) D2 = 30 + 0. 33.500(1. The pin is to be reduced in size for assembly into the collar by cooling to a sufficiently low temperature that there is a clearance of 0.7 x 10-6 in/in per °F.02 . (b) the radial pressure and (c) maximum effective stress on the resulting interference fit at room temperature (70°F).4977 in.Dp ) i = 10.13 A steel ring has an inside diameter = 30 mm and an outside diameter = 50 mm at room temperature (21°C). If the coefficient of thermal expansion of steel α = 12. 1. If it must be reduced in size by 0.7 x 10-6 D1(1000 . then the inside diameter of the collar must be D2 = Dp + 0.21 = -0.500 in.20 = 24.00623 D1 = 1. (a) What is the temperature to which the pin must be cooled 230 .507 = D1 + 0.Dp2)/2D c2 = 25.200 lb/in2 33.000 in at room temperature is to be shrink fitted onto a steel shaft by heating it to an elevated temperature while the shaft remains at room temperature.000(2. If the coefficient of thermal expansion of the pin is α = 6.04 mm.0)(2.6° C ° 33.20 mm in order to be expansion fitted into a hole. The shaft diameter = 1.00 mm.500 . (33. At room temperature (20°C). Determine: (a) the initial inside diameter of the collar at room temperature so that this clearance is satisfied.8 x 10-6(40)(T2 .6 T2 = -201. determine the inside diameter of the ring when heated to 500°C.950 lb/in2 (c) Max σe = 2(34. Its coefficient of thermal expansion α = 24.02 mm. the clearance between the shaft and the collar is to be 0.21) T2 .D1 = D2 .0042 in. respectively.Rearranging. 33.52 . For ease of assembly when the collar is heated to an elevated temperature of 1000°F.20/(24.1.1.D1 = 6. pf = 30 x 106 (0.507 .500 lb/in2 pf = Ei(Dc2 -Dp2)/DpDc2 Eq.5 x 3. determine the temperature to which the shaft must be cooled. Solution: D2 .D1) = -0.00623 D1 1. Solution: (D2 .52) = 93.30 = 12.70) 1.507/1.02 .D1) = αD1(T2 . and the pin has a diameter = 40.5) 2 2 2 Rearranging.1 x 10-6 mm/mm per °C. and modulus of elasticity = 209 GPa.000.70) = 4221 x 10-6 = 0.1. Solution: (D2 .02)) = 0.1.02) = 34. determine the increase in diameter of the pin. 33.16 A pin is to be inserted into a collar using an expansion fit.00623 D1 D1 = 1. the outer and inner diameters of the collar = 75.00233)(3. i = pf DpDc /E(Dc .507 .12 A shaft made of aluminum is 40. For steel.52)/(1.00623 = 1.T1) = 6. pf = σe(Dc2 . (b) Interference i = 1.174 mm..15 A steel collar whose outside diameter = 3.02)/(2 x 2.007 in.02)/ (3.

for assembly? (b) What is the radial pressure at room temperature after assembly? (c) What is the safety factor in the resulting assembly? Solution: (a) D2 – D1 = αD1(T2 – T1) = (40.06 = 480.04) – 40. then SF = Y/( Max σe ) = 450/209 = 2.02 = 12(10-6)(40.24(10-6) T2 -50.2(10-6) = 480.395.15 231 .00 – 0.8 MPa (c) Max σe = 2pfDc2/(Dc2 – Dp2) = 2(74.8(10-6) -60.24(10-6) T2 T2 = -104.8(10-6) = 480.Dp2)/DpDc2 pf = 209(109)(0.02)(T2 – 20) -0.8)(752)/(752 – 402) = 209 MPa If Y = 450 MPa and Max σe = Y/SF.000(10-6) + 9604.24(10-6) T2 – 9604.07477(109) N/m2 = 74.9° C ° (b) pf = Ei(Dc2 .02)(752 – 402)/(40(752) = 0.

5 34. and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required 232 . Stereolithography. all correct answers must be given. The layers are bonded one on top of the previous prior to cutting. the entire layer is exposed to an ultraviolet light source through a mask that is positioned above the surface of the liquid polymer. Rapid prototyping consists of a family of fabrication processes developed to make engineering prototypes in minimum possible lead times based on a computer-aided design (CAD) model of the item. Describe the RP technology called solid ground curing.2 34. 34. Answer. (1) Liquid. Instead of using a scanning laser beam to accomplish the curing of a given layer.4 What are the three types of starting materials in rapid prototyping? Answer.3 34. which consists of modeling the component on a CAD system to define its enclosed volume.34 RAPID PROTOTYPING Review Questions 34. (2) solid. A long filament of wax or polymer. The text describes the common approach as a three step process: (1) Geometric modeling. What is the common approach used in all of the material addition technologies to prepare the control instructions for the RP system? Answer. 34.6 Of all of the current rapid prototyping technologies. in which the CAD model is converted into a format that approximates its surfaces by facets (triangles or polygons). Solid ground curing works by curing a photosensitive polymer layer by layer to create a solid model based on CAD geometric data. Answer. The part build process also distinguishes the different RP technologies. since each correct answer is worth 1 point. Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 14 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct).8 What is the starting material in fused deposition modeling? Answer. and (3) powders.7 Describe the RP technology called laminated object manufacturing. (2) tessellation of the geometric model.1 What is rapid prototyping? Provide a definition of the term. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point. 34. Laminated object manufacturing produces a solid physical model by stacking layers of sheet stock that are each cut to an outline corresponding to the cross-sectional shape of a CAD model that has been sliced into layers. Besides the starting material. what other feature distinguishes the rapid prototyping technologies? Answer. To attain a perfect score on the quiz. Answer. For each question. and (3) slicing of the model into layers that approximate the solid geometry. which one is the most widely used? Answer. 34.

Answer.7 Rapid prototyping technologies are never used to make production parts: (a) true or (b) false. and (d) part shrinkage. (d) and (e) 34. parts with intricate internal geometries. (c) laminated object manufacturing. (d) solid ground curing. (d) solid ground curing. (e). (b) fused deposition modeling. The height of the tube (z-direction) = 80 mm.reduces the score by 1 point. and (d) Problems 34. 34. Answer. and (e) stereolithography. (c) selective laser sintering. and (e) stereolithography.6 Which of the following RP technologies uses powders as the starting material (more than one)? (a) ballistic particle manufacturing. (c) selective laser sintering. Answer. and (e) three dimensional printing. 34. (b) limited material variety. (d) solid ground curing. and the beam is moved across the surface of the photopolymer at a velocity of 500 mm/s. (b) fused deposition modeling.4 Which of the following RP technologies use a liquid as the starting material (more than one)? (a) ballistic particle manufacturing. (b) fused deposition modeling. Answer. Answer. 233 . which one is the most widely used? (a) ballistic particle manufacturing. Answer. (e) 34. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers.10 mm. (c) and (e) 34. (b) fused deposition modeling.1 Machining is never used for rapid prototyping because it takes too long: (a) true or (b) false. (c) 34. (b). (d) selective laser sintering. (c) part accuracy. (b) Examples include small batch sizes of plastic parts that could not be economically injection molded. The outside dimension of the square = 100 mm and the inside dimension = 90 mm (wall thickness = 5 mm except at corners). Compute an estimate for the time required to build the part. 34. and (e) stereolithography. Answer.5 Which one of the following RP technologies uses solid sheet stock as the starting material? (a) ballistic particle manufacturing. (b) Desktop milling is the principal material removal technology used for rapid prototyping. and (f) 34. (c). (c) laminated object manufacturing. Answer. if 10 s are lost each layer to lower the height of the platform that holds the part. (c) selective laser sintering. Layer thickness = 0.2 Which of the following rapid prototyping processes starts with a photosensitive liquid polymer to fabricate a component (more than one)? (a) ballistic particle manufacturing. and one-of-a-kind parts such as bone replacements. The diameter of the laser beam (“spot size”) = 0. (e) solid ground curing.3 Of all of the current material addition rapid prototyping technologies. and (f) stereolithography. Neglect the time for postcuring.1 A prototype of a tube with a square cross-section is to be fabricated using stereolithography.25 mm. (b) fused deposition modeling. (a). (d) solid ground curing.8 Which of the following are problems with the current material addition rapid prototyping technologies (more than one)? (a) inability to convert a solid part into layers.

1 except that the layer thickness = 0. Ai = 1002 – 902 = 1900 mm2 Time to complete one layer Ti same for all layers.1 is to be fabricated using fused deposition modeling instead of stereolithography.3 The part in Problem 34.20 mm.9 s = 134. Solution: Cross-sectional area of filament = πD2/4 = 0.22 x 500) = 11. Solution: Use same basic approach as in stereolithography.10 mm/layer) = 800 layers Tc = 800(25. Solution: Volume of cube V = πR2h/3 = π(35) 2(40)/3 = 51.8 mm2 Average time per layer Ti = 1282.8/(0. Compute an estimate for the time required to build the part.2) = 5.24 hr 34. The diameter of the laser beam = 0.6 mm/s) = 37.227 mm)(30.3. and the beam is moved across the surface of the photopolymer at a velocity of 500 mm/s. Ti = (1900 mm2)/(1.2 + 10 = 25.Solution: Layer area Ai same for all layers.25 mm.40 mm.040 s = 84. if 10 s are lost each layer to lower the height of the platform that holds the part. except using the following additional information. Compute an estimate for the time required to build the part.000 mm3)/( 37.20 mm/layer) = 400 layers Tc = 400(20.133 s Number of layers nl = (80 mm)/(0.22 min = 2.24 hr This is very close to previous calculated value .2 Solve Problem 34.13 min = 2.2) = 20. Layer thickness is to be 0.313 mm3)/200 = 256. the feed rate from the spool is zero. The extruder workhead moves in the x-y plane at a speed of 150 mm/s.within round-off error.2 + 10 = 25.133) = 8053.20 mm and the width of the extrudate deposited on the surface of the part = 1.25 mm)(500 mm/s)+ 10 s = 15. It is known that the diameter of the filament fed into the extruder workhead is 1.20 mm. Neglect postcuring time.20 mm/layer) = 200 layers Average volume per layer Vi= (51.4 hr 34.94 + 4000 = 8047.160 s = 336.66 s 234 .55 mm3/s Part volume = part cross sectional area x height = Ah A = 1002 – 902 = 1900 mm2 and h = 80 mm. average area/layer = (256.25π(1. 34.25) 2 = 1.25 mm.6 mm of length per second while the workhead is depositing material.5 A cone-shaped part is to be fabricated using stereolithography.25 mm)(500 mm/s)+ 10 s = 15.40 mm/layer) = 200 layers Tc = 200(25. Part volume V = 1900(80) = 152. and the filament is fed into the workhead from its spool at a rate of 30. Ti = (1900 mm2)/(0. The layer thickness = 0.227 mm2 Volumetric rate of filament deposition = (1.56 mm3)/(0.20 mm) = 1282.22 mm.56 mm3 Since thickness t = 0.6 hr 34. Between layers.0 min = 5. Layer area Ai same for all layers. The radius of the cone at its base = 35 mm and its height = 40 mm.55 mm3/s) + (400 layers)(10 s delay/layer) = 4047.66 + 10 = 21. Ai = 1002 – 902 = 1900 mm2 Time to complete one layer Ti same for all layers.2 s Number of layers nl = (80 mm)/(0.4 Solve Problem 34.2 s Number of layers nl = (80 mm)/(0.33 s = 134.20 mm Number of layers nl = 40 mm/(0. Solution: Layer area Ai same for all layers.000 mm3 Tc = (152. Ti = (1900 mm2)/(0.0 min = 1. Ai = 1002 – 902 = 1900 mm2 Time to complete one layer Ti same for all layers.133 + 10 = 20.313 mm3 Layer thickness t = 0.25 mm)(150 mm/s)+ 10 s = 10. A delay of 10 s is experienced between each layer to reposition the workhead.

handle distance from cup = 70 mm measured from center (axis) of cup to center of handle.5 – 0.25 mm. For a cone.1 = 1212. The thickness at the base of the cup is 10 mm.2 mm2)/(200 layers) = 29. if 10 s are lost each layer to lower the height of the platform that holds the part. which is the outline to be cut by the laser beam. and handle bar.86 hr.2) = 525 layers (3) nl3 = (10 mm)/(0.37 + 10 = 22.0 – 56.20 mm. Compute an estimate for the time required to build the part.5 mm2)/(0.78 min = 3. Solution: For LOM. which is 10 mm thick and includes the handle and handle bar.22 mm2/layer Since layer thickness t = 0.20 mm.1 (in text).20 mm. we need the circumference of each layer. the total surface area (not including the base) = πR(R2 + h2)0.22 mm2)/(0. Layer thickness = 0.Cycle time Tc = 200(21. 34. The laser beam diameter = 0. (2) cup ring and handle.7 Stereolithography is to be used to build the part in Figure 34. Area (1): A1 = π(75) 2/4 + π(12) 2/4 + (approximately)(12 x 32.25 x 500) + 10 = 38.1 mm)/(500 mm/s) + 10 s = 0. The handle bars connecting the cup and handle at the top and bottom of the part have a rectangular cross-section and are 10 mm thick and 12 mm wide.0 – 56.70) + 50(22.4 s = 34. which is 10 mm thick and consists of the cup ring.907 s + 231.66 s) = 4332.5 is to be built using laminated object manufacturing. Layer thickness = 0.20 hr.292) = 2058.5π(12) 2/4) A3 = 1099.20 = 200 layers Tc = 200(10. Solution: The part can be sliced into cross sections that have one of three basic shapes: (1) base.7 mm2 Area (3): A3 = π(752 – 652)/4 + π(12) 2/4 + (approximately)(12 x 32. Let us compute the areas of the three shapes.6 + 113. 235 .5) = 4864. and the beam can be moved across the surface of the photopolymer at = 500 mm/s.1 mm Average time to cut a layer Ti = (146.57 hr. circumference C = (29.5) = 1546. outside diameter = 75 mm.92 + 10 = 48.37) Tc = 13.25 x 500) + 10 = 12. and (3) top of cup.9 + 113.5 A = π(35)(352 + 40)0.5 mm2 Area (2): A2 = π(752 – 652)/4 + π(12) 2/4 = 1099. handle diameter = 12 mm.2 mm2 Average surface area per layer = (5844.5π(12) 2/4) A1 = 4417.92 s (2) Ti2 = (1212. Ignore cutting of the cross-hatched areas outside of the part since the cone should readily drop out of the stack owing to its geometry.2 min = 1.292 + 10 = 10.70 s (3) Ti3 = (1546.3 min = 0.6 +113.2 mm2)/(0. if 10 s are lost each layer to lower the height of the platform that holds the part and advance the sheet stock in preparation for the next layer.2 mm/layer) = 50 layers Time to complete one layers for each of the three shapes: (1) Ti1 = (4864.2 mm2 Number of layers for each area: (1) nl1 = (10 mm)/(0. handle.5 – 0.37 s Total time for all layers Tc = 50(48.4 s = 72.1 + (390. Neglect postcuring time. Compute an estimate of the time required to build the part.92) + 525(19.292 s Number of layers nl = 40/0.1 + (390.5 = 5844.70 + 10 = 19.6 The cone-shaped part in Problem 34.2 mm/layer) = 50 layers (2) nl2 = (125 – 10 – 10)/(0. The laser beam can cut the sheet stock at a velocity of 500 mm/s. inside diameter = 65 mm. Dimensions of the part are: height = 125 mm.20 mm) = 146.7 mm2)/(0. 34.25 x 500) + 10 = 9.

the sensitivity causes either an increase or a decrease in solubility of the polymer to certain chemicals. The three stages are: (1) silicon processing.7 What is the name of the process most commonly used to grow single crystal ingots of silicon for semiconductor processing? Answer. and (3) IC packaging. X-ray lithography. What are the alternatives to photolithography in IC processing? 35.35 35. cigarette smoke.5 microns per cubic foot. and removing layers to create the devices and their intraconnection on the IC chip. in which layers are added. diodes.3 Describe the planar process. to produce very pure silicon and shape it into wafers. A clean room is a room or rooms where the air is purified to reduce airborne particles.1 PROCESSING OF INTEGRATED CIRCUITS What is an integrated circuit? Answer. and hair). altering. and gallium arsenide.5 microns or greater per cubic foot of air. For example. transistors. viruses.. altered. Important semiconductor materials include silicon (most important). 35. resistors) that have been fabricated and electrically intraconnected onto the surface of a small flat chip of semiconductor material. 35. Review Questions 35. and processing equipment (wear particles. (2) IC fabrication. Sources of contaminants include humans (bacteria. Answer. 35. a class 100 clean room contains 100 or fewer particles of size 0. and dirt). A photoresist is a polymer that is sensitive to light radiation in a certain wavelength range. An integrated circuit is a collection of electronic devices (e.8 Answer.adding.g. Alternatives to photolithography are: electron lithography. It is the Czocralski process. in which the wafers are tested. cut into chips. 35. The classification system indicates the quantity of particles of size 0. oil.2 Name some of the important semiconductor materials? Answer. 35. 35. The planar process refers to the fabrication of an IC chip by a sequence of layering processes . and the chips are encapsulated in a package.10 Why is ultraviolet light favored over visible light in photolithography? 236 .5 What is a clean room and explain the classification system by which clean rooms are rated? Answer.6 What are some of the significant sources of contaminants in IC processing? Answer.9 What is a photoresist? Answer. and ion lithography.4 What are the three major stages in the production of silicon-based integrated circuits? Answer. and removed in selected regions to form electronic devices on the face of the wafer. germanium. 35.

35. where C and m are constants for a certain circuit type. the transferred images are sharper.13 What layer material is produced by thermal oxidation in IC fabrication? Answer. (b) device. The three exposure techniques are: (1) contact printing. adding a solid lid to complete the package.17 Name the two categories of component mounting to a printed circuit board. the Rent's Rule equation is: nio = C ncm. 35. (2) proximity printing. encase chip for protection. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers. The two types are: (1) through-hole mounting and (2) surface mount technology. (d) package. Design functions of IC packaging include: provide electrical connections to external circuits. For each question. since each correct answer is worth 1 point.000. SiO 2 is grown on the surface of the Si wafer.14 What are some of the important design functions of IC packaging? Answer.1 How many electronic devices would be contained in an IC chip in order for it to be classified in the VLSI category? (a) 1000. (c) 1 million.11 Name the three exposure techniques in photolithography. (c) 35. (c) die. 35. Rent's Rule indicates the number of input/output terminals nio required for an integrated circuit of a given number of internal circuits nc. 35.12 35. Epitaxial deposition involves growth of a crystalline structure on the surface of a substrate which is an extension of the substrate's structure. 35. Answer. What is a DIP? Answer.16 35. Answer. DIP stands for dual in-line package. all correct answers must be given. and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point. Postmolding refers to the use of transfer molding of epoxy around the chip and leadframe to form the package. Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 17 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct). (b) 10. Because it has a shorter wavelength. or (e) wafer.15 What is Rent's Rule? Answer. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point. 237 . or (d) 100 million. 35. a premolded package is one in which an enclosure is molded beforehand.Answer. an IC package with two rows of terminals on each side of a rectangular body containing the IC chip. To attain a perfect score on the quiz. and the chip and leadframe are then attached to it.18 What is the difference between postmolding and premolding in plastic IC chip packaging? Answer. Answer. and heat dissipation. and (3) projection printing. Define epitaxial deposition. 35.2 An alternative name for chip in semiconductor processing is which one of the following (one answer)? (a) component. Answer.

(b) SiC. (d) physical vapor deposition. Answer.6 Which of the following processes are used to add layers of various materials in IC fabrication (more than one)? (a) chemical vapor deposition. which reduces the length to 950 mm. (c) 35. Answer. Answer. 35.Answer. (c) ion implantation. (e) plasma etching. Answer. Answer. (b) and (c).10 Which etching process produces the more anisotropic etch in IC fabrication? (a) plasma etching. (e) phosphorous. a positive resist becomes which of the following? (a) less soluble or (b) more soluble to the chemical developing fluid. Problems Silicon Processing and IC Fabrication 35. (b) incandescent light. or (b) wet chemical etching. (c) infrared light. or (g) wet etching. Answer. Answer. or (e) X-ray.11 Which of the following are the two principal packaging materials used in IC packaging? (a) aluminum. 35. (b) diffusion. (d) nickel. (c) copper.1 A single crystal boule of silicon is grown by the Czochralski process to an average diameter of 110 mm with length = 1200 mm. (c) gold. The seed and tang ends are removed. (c) gold. (d) 35. (b) aluminum oxide. (a) 35. (e) silicon. (b) and (d). (b) diffusion.3 Which one of the following is the source of silicon for semiconductor processing? (a) pure Si in nature. or (f) silver. (d) nitrogen. or (f) silver. (f) thermal oxidation. or (f) potassium. (c) Si3N4. Answer. (c) 35. (f) thermal oxidation. A 30 mm wide flat is ground on the surface which 238 . (d) ultraviolet light. (b) copper.12 Which of the following metals are commonly used for wire bonding of chip pads to the lead frame (two best answers)? (a) aluminum. and (f). Answer. Answer. (c) boron. (d) epoxies. (e) silicon.5 After exposure to light. (b) copper.7 Which of the following are doping processes in IC fabrication (more than one)? (a) chemical vapor deposition. The diameter is ground to 100 mm.9 Which one of the following is the most common metal for intraconnection of devices in a silicon integrated circuit? (a) aluminum. or (d) SiO 2. (a) and (c). (b) arsenic.4 Which one of the following is the most common form of radiation used in photolithography? (a) electronic beam radiation. or (e) silicon dioxide. (d) physical vapor deposition. (a). (c) ion implantation. (d). (e) plasma etching. or (g) wet etching. (d) nickel. (a) 35. (d) 35. 35.8 Which one of the following impurity elements form electron acceptor (p-type) regions in silicon wafers? (a) antimony. (b) 35.

8 → 1269 wafers (c) Area of one wafer Aw = Ac . Determine: (a) the original volume of the boule. R = 55) = πR2h/3 = 0.820. As = π(50) 2(34.92 = 761.082 = 1125.4605 in.33) = 1144.2 A silicon boule is grown by the Czochralski process to a diameter of 5.994 = 5.354.921/2 = 2.0 mm2 The area of a segment of the circle created by the 30 mm chord As = πR2θ/360 .5) = 3903. The seed and tang ends are cut off. 35. determine: (a) the original volume of the boule. (b) how many wafers are cut from it. (b) how many wafers are cut from it. where Ac = area of the circle of radius R = 50 mm. The ingot is then sliced into wafers of thickness = 0.972) + 9.6 → 1144 wafers (c) Area of one wafer Aw = Ac . assuming the entire 950 mm length can be sliced.0194 in2 The area of a segment of the circle created by the 1.921) = 19.672 in3 (b) Number of wafers = 48.0378) = 1269.101 mm3 Proportion wasted = 5.0.33 mm.25 inches and a length of 5 ft.5(60-48) = 6.5(50) 2 sin 34.333π(55) 2(125) = 395.As.095 mm3 (b) Number of wafers = 950/(0. where Ac = area of the circle of radius R = 4.152 = 9.5(1200-950) = 125.4605) 2 = 19. assuming the entire 4 ft length can be sliced.465.50 + 0.As.25) 2(48)/4 = 1039.820. 0.92°.As = 7854. Assuming that the seed and tang portions cut off the ends of the starting boule were conical in shape. and (c) what is the volumetric proportion of silicon in the starting boule that is wasted during processing? Solution: (a) Volume V = V1 (tang) + V2 (cylinder) + V3 (seed) V1 = V3 = (cone in which h = 0.3 mm2 Aw = Ac .46°. θ = 34.52%. where θ is the angle formed by two radii of the circle and the chord. in 3. and (c) what is the volumetric proportion of silicon in the starting boule that is wasted during processing? Solution: (a) Total volume V = V1 (tang) + V2 (cylinder) + V3 (seed) V1 = V3 = (cone in which h = 0.0/(0.625/4.7(0.025 inch thick. using an abrasive saw blade whose thickness = 0.820. A primary flat of width 1.354.25) = πR2h/3 = 0.5 = 46.082 in 3 V = 2(43. Ac = πR2 = π(2. using an abrasive saw blade whose thickness = 0.972 mm3. 0..50 mm.152 mm3 Total V = 2(395.0) = 43.0 . 239 .028. chord As = πR2θ/360 .625 inch is ground on the surface the entire length of the ingot.5θ = sin-1(15/50) = 17. mm3.295 in3. V2 = πD2L/4 = π(5.3 = 7807. and As = the area of the segment As created by the flat ground on the cylindrical surface.46.715.4.295) + 1039. where θ is the angle formed by two radii of the circle and the chord. D = 5.994 mm3 Volume wasted = 9. Assume that the seed and tang portions are conical in shape.extends from one end to the other. reducing the effective length to 48. .0128 inch.5R2 sin θ.101/9.095 .8) = 4. The ingot is then sliced into wafers 0.465.0128) = 48/(0.028.625 in. V2 = πR2L = π(55) 2(950) = 9.7 mm2 Volume of one wafer Vw = Awt = 7807.095 = 54.0.92)/360 .00 in. D = 110.921 inch (125 mm).28°.333π(5.8 .0.8 mm3 Volume of 1144 wafers = 1144(3903.5R2 sin θ.025 + 0.5θ = sin-1(1.0. The diameter is ground to 4. Ac = πR2 = π(50) 2 = 7854. and As = the area of the segment As created by the flat ground on the cylindrical surface.25/2) 2(6.

8691 in 2 Volume of one wafer Vw = Awt = 18.45.672 . only use a wafer size of 200 mm whose processable area is 175 mm in diameter.8691(0. compared to the values in the previous problem? Solution: Processable area A = πD2/4 = π(175) 2/4 = 24.3)/ 9503.25 = 167.463 in 2 Circumference C = πD = 3.053 mm2 Circumference C = πD = 175π = 549. Thus.025) = 0.25) 2 = 0.0625 in2 The chips on the periphery of the processable area are lost.051 in 3 Proportion wasted = 527.56 = 2.051/1125. Chip area Ac = (0.1 = 311 chips 35. Assume the cut lines (streets) between chips are of negligible width.4605) 2(38.3/25 .56°. and (c) processable wafer area.3 mm2 Circumference C = πD = 110π = 345.672 = 46.0625 .0.θ = 38. Solution: Processable area A = πD2/4 = π(3.11.4605) 2 sin 38.8/5 = 962 .1503 = 18. Solution: Processable area A = πD2/4 = π(110) 2/4 = 9503.65π = 11.25 inch on a side? All chips must lie completely within the processable area. Thus. 35.4717) = 598. Thus.0 inch wafer has a processable area that is only 3.053/25 .1 .4 Solve the previous problem.110 = 852 chips (a) Increase in number of chips = (852 – 311)/311 = 174% increase (b) Increase in wafer diameter = (200 – 125)/125 = 60% increase (c) Increase in processable area = (24.8 mm Chip area Ac = (5) 2 = 25 mm2 The chips on the periphery of the processable area are lost.5 A 4.598.As = 19. (b) wafer diameter.65) 2/4 = 10. our estimated number of chips produced is: n = 10. our estimate of the chips produced is: n = 9503. Assume the cut lines (streets) between chips are of negligible width.1503 in 2 Aw = Ac .3 = 153% increase Note: These results indicate the advantages of increasing wafer size. The number of lost chips can be estimated by dividing the average chip dimension (assumed to be the length of the side) into the circumference of the circle. As = π(2.8869 = 0. How many square IC chips can be fabricated within this area.6 mm Chip area Ac = (5) 2 = 25 mm2 The chips on the periphery of the processable area are lost.5(2.4 .053 .345.0194 .9503.621 = 527. if each chip is 5 mm on a side? All chips must lie completely within the processable area. What is the percent increase in (a) number of chips. if each chip is 0.6/5 = 380. 35.463/0.5 → 121 chips 240 .467 in. The number of lost chips can be estimated by dividing the average chip dimension (assumed to be the length of the side) into the circumference of the circle.9 = 121.69. our estimate of the chips produced is: n = 24.1.65 inches in diameter.621 in 3 Volume wasted = 1125. The number of lost chips can be estimated by dividing the average chip dimension (assumed to be the length of the side) into the circumference of the circle.467/0.0.82%.0372 . How many square IC chips can be processed within this area.56)/360 .549.3 The processable area on a 125 mm diameter wafer is a 110 mm diameter circle.4717 in 3 Volume of 1269 wafers = 1269(0.

0.608 in. what is the final wafer thickness? Solution: A 3 µm film requires a layer of silicon = 0.0 µ m IC Packaging 35.25) 2 = 0.5). The SiO2 film is 3 µm thick. The number of lost chips can be estimated by dividing the average chip dimension (assumed to be the length of the side) into the circumference of the circle. Use Rent's Rule (C = 4.400 mm thick.0 . Use Rent's Rule (C = 4.0625 .2(0) = 10.5) to determine the approximate number of logic gates that could be fabricated in the IC chip for this package.8 It is desired to etch out a region of a silicon dioxide film on the surface of a silicon wafer.25 = 271.5 and m = 0.667 nc = (10.9 In the previous problem.400 + 0. and the number of chips increases by 76%. Chip area Ac = (0.0 inches whose processable area is 5.12 It is desired to determine the effect of package style on the number of circuits (logic gates) that can be fabricated onto an IC chip to which the package is assembled.4 = 213. Solution: Rents rule: nio = Cncm = 4.44d Final thickness tf = 0. This is a principal motivation for using larger wafer diameters. Mask opening size = 10.5 = 48/4.6 Solve the previous problem.2 = 3/1. (b) a square chip carrier with 16 pins on a side .5 and m = 0. and (c) a pin grid array with 16 by 16 pins . u = d/∞ = 0 µm. the wafer area increases by 62%. our estimated of the chips produced is: n = 16. Solution: 48 = 4.65π = 14. 241 . resulting in a SiO 2 film that is 3 µm thick.5) to determine the approximate number of input/output pins required in the package.982/0. if plasma etching is used instead of wet etching.2(2. only use a wafer size of 6. u = d/1.8 → 113 logic gates 35.7 .2.5 = 142. If the degree of anisotropy for the etchant in the process is known to be 1.40168 mm 35.a total of 32 pins.58.2.0625 in2 The chips on the periphery of the processable area are lost. what should be the size of the mask opening? Solution: A = d/u = ∞.5 µm.44(3 x 10-3) + 3 x 10-3 = 0.608/0.50 inches in diameter.65) 2/4 = 16.a total of 256 pins.2 = 2.7 The surface of a silicon wafer is thermally oxidized.3 → 213 chips Note: the wafer diameter increases by about 27%.400 . 35.5 and m = 0.5(nc)0. Thus. what should be the size of the opening in the mask through which the etchant will operate? Solution: A = d/u = 1.5 = 10.667) 2 = 113. If the starting thickness of the wafer was exactly 0.11 A dual-in-line package has a total of 48 leads. The width of the etched-out area is specified to be 10 µm.5(1000) 0. and the degree of anisotropy for plasma etching is infinity.10 An integrated circuit used in a microprocessor will contain 1000 logic gates.a total of 64 I/O pins. What is the percent increase in number of chips compared to the 50% increase in wafer diameter? Solution: Processable area A = πD2/4 = π(4.3 → 142 input/output pins 35. compute the estimated number of devices (logic gates) that could be placed on the chip in the following cases: (a) a DIP with 16 I/O pins on a side .5 nc0.982 in 2 Circumference C = πD = 4.0 µ m 35.0 .5) = 5.35.56(0. Mask opening size = 10.14.003) = 0. Using Rent's Rule (C = 4.

nio = 4.11).00816 nio = nc = 20.5 → 31 pins (b) Eq.333 nc = (5.5 = 1.0 nc0.333) 1/.89 nc = 3236. If a starting boule weighs 75 kg. nc0. 35.5 and (2) nio = nc.143. (35.3 → 3236 logic gates 35.5 ln nio ln nio .0 and m = 0.4427 ln nc ln nc = 32/1.5 = 32/4.0 nc0. find nc if nio = 32.5.5 ln nio = ln 4.12 = (5.18) = 4.5 = 64/4.9 → 19 pins.5(nc)0.12 = nio/6.15 To produce a 1 megabit memory chip. find nc if nio = 64.5 .305 memory cells. Yields in IC Processing 35.5 = 256/4. Solution: We have two equations and two unknowns: (1) nio = 4.4427 ln nc 32 = 1. The closest possible values are nio = nc = 20 or 21.000) = 19.333) 8. Compare the number of input/output pins required using (a) Rent's Rule (C = 6.5 = 56.5 and m = 0.294. and (b) the alternative computation method given in Eq. (35.4427 ln (64 x 64) = 1. and final test yield Yt = 90%.11): nio = 1. find nc if nio = 256. nc0. (35. 35.000) 0.5 + 0.5nc0. wafer yield Yw = 70%.12).12 = 6. as estimated by: (a) Rent's Rule (C = 6.16 Suppose it is desired to produce a memory device that will be contained in a dual-in-line package with 32 I/O leads.4427 ln nc = 1.17 Given the following: crystal yield Yc = 50%.0 and m = 0. (35.0 (1.4427 = 22.11 nc = 50. what is the final weight of silicon that results after final test? 242 .14 A static memory device will have a two dimensional array with 64 by 64 cells.5 ln nio = 0.5nio0.6 → 50 logic gates (b) Using Rent’s rule: nio = 4.4427 ln 4096 = 12 pins.5(nc)0. and (b) the alternative computation given in Eq.13 In the Equation for Rent's Rule with C = 4.12 = 16.3 → 16 pins (b) Eq.5 = 14.0 nc0.12 = 6.0 (64 x 64) 0.0 = 32/6 = 5.12). 35.5 .4427 ln (1. crystal-to.12 nc0.5 ln nio = ln 4.728 memory cells (b) Eq.12 = 31.333 = 1.18 nc = exp(22.22 nc = 202.12 = 6.000.5 . Solution: (a) Rent’s rule: nio = 6.0 and m = 0.11): nio = 1. and (b) the alternative computation method given in Eq.5(nc)0.25.slice yield Ys = 50%. (1).50408 ln nio = 3. Using nio in place of nc in Eq.0(4096) 0. how many I/O pins are predicted by: (a) Rent's Rule (C = 6.11): nio = 1.0.5 = 7. nc0.11)? Solution: (a) Rent’s rule: nio = 6. How many memory cells can be contained in the device. (35.000.3 → 202 logic gates (c) Using Rent’s rule: nio = 4.967. determine the value of n io and n c at which the number of logic gates equals the number of I/O terminals in the package.11)? Solution: (a) Rent’s rule: nio = 6.Solution: (a) Using Rent’s rule: nio = 4.12). (35. multiprobe yield Ym = 60%.

14D) = 0. 35. Eq.83 = 0.70)(0.6525(7854) = 5125 mm2 = 51.806D = 1 . (35.32 defects/in 2. The yield of good chips on this wafer is Ym = 75%.25% of the total wafer area on one side. Solution: Processable area A = π(4.18 A silicon wafer with a nominal diameter of 100 mm is processed to fabricate square chips of 5 mm on a side.419(205) = 85. Eq.14 cm2 0.67 = 0. (35. Eq. 35.806D = 1 118.14D) 0.00130 defects/cm2. (a) Eq.21 In the previous problem.14).14): Ym = e-AD = e-17.9 → 85 good chips 35.60)(0.17/118.22 A silicon wafer has a processable area of 20. what is the density of point defects D? 243 .67 = 0.75 inches in diameter. (35.25 x 0.14D -0.806 = 0. (35.15).75) 2/4 = 17.384 = 0. (35. If the defects are all assumed to be point defects that are uniformly distributed over the surface (Poisson distribution).32) = e-5. Solution: Eq.72 x 0.83 = 1/(1 + 143. The density of point defects in the surface area is 0.419 Number of good chips = 0.20 The yield of good chips in multiprobe for a certain batch of wafers is 83%.251 Number of good chips = 0.14D D = 0.14 = 0.83 + 118. Eq.027 defects/cm2.83(1 + 143.027) = 1/2.90) = 0. and (b) the Bose-Einstein yield estimate. Determine the number of good chips using: (a) the Boltzmann yield estimate. and (b) the Bose-Einstein yield estimate. The density of point defects in the surface area is 0.50)(0.15 35.251(205) = 51.72(0.72 in2 (a) Eq. Eq.00344 (b) Eq.0945(75) = 7.14 cm2 0.09 kg 35.15): Ym = 1/(1 + AD) = 1/(1 + 51. (35.17 D = 0.83 = e-143.0945 Wf = YWi = 0.14).0.4 → 51 good chips (b) Eq. as the method of estimating yield.14): Ym = e-AD Processable area A = π(135) 2/4 = 14. (35.15).83 = -143.19 A 5-inch diameter wafer is processed over a circular area that is 4. determine the density of point defects using Bose-Einstein statistics.0 in 2.314 mm2 = 143. (35.18633/143. (35.027) = e-1. (35. If the defects are all assumed to be point defects that are uniformly distributed over the surface (Poisson distribution). The wafers have a nominal diameter of 150 mm with a processable area that is 135 mm in diameter.14D ln 0. Solution: Wafer area A = π(100) 2/4 = 7854 mm2 Chip area A = 0.384 = 0.15): Ym = 1/(1 + AD) Processable area A = π(135) 2/4 = 14. Number of chips = 5125/25 = 205 chips total. Determine the multiprobe yield using: (a) the Boltzmann yield estimate.14): Ym = e-AD = e-51.25(0. (35.25 cm2 Area of one chip Ac = 5 x 5 = 25 mm. what is their density D? Solution: Eq.32) = 1/6.00143 defects/cm2.15): Ym = 1/(1 + AD) = 1/(1 + 17.314 mm2 = 143.Solution: Overall yield Y = Yc Ys Yw Ym Yt = (0.18633 = -143.5)(0.15). The area of the processed chips occupies 65.

14): Ym = e-AD 0. 244 .2877/20 = 0. (35.2877 = -20D D = 0.75 = -20D -0.Solution: Eq.01438 defects/in2.75 = e-20D ln 0.

What is etching used for in PCB fabrication? Answer. (1) chip to package.4 Define what a printed circuit board (PCB) is. 36.9 What is continuity testing.3 What is the difference between a track and a land on a printed circuit board? Answer. and when is it performed in the PCB fabrication sequence? Answer. and (4) wiring and cabling inside a cabinet.2 Identify the levels of packaging hierarchy in electronics. A PCB is a laminated flat panel of insulating material to which electronic components are attached and electrically interconnected. A track is a copper conducting path on a PCB. and (3) multilayer board. 36. while a land is a small copper area for electrically attaching components.36 36.10 What are the two main categories of printed circuit board assemblies. 36. Review Questions 36.1 ELECTRONICS ASSEMBLY AND PACKAGING What are the functions of a well-designed electronics package? Answer. (2) component to PCB. Answer. A via hole is a hole in the printed circuit board whose sides are plated with copper to serve as a conducting path from one side of a PCB to the other or between intermediate layers in a multilayer board. (3) PCB to rack or chassis. (3) environmental protection. 245 . (2) double -sided board. and (2) photolithography. (5) minimize delays in signal transmission. Etching is used to remove copper cladding on the PCB surface to define the tracks and lands of the circuit. (4) heat dissipation. The two categories are: (1) pin-in-hole technology. 36. The two methods are: (1) screening. (2) structural support. as distinguished by the method of attaching components to the board? Answer. 36. Continuity testing is an electrical test in which contact probes are brought into contact with track and land areas to insure the existence of electrical conduction paths. The levels are: (0) chip intraconnections.6 What is a via hole in a printed circuit board? Answer. and (2) after the board has been populated with components.7 36.8 What are the two basic resist coating methods for printed circuit boards? Answer. Continuity tests are generally used: (1) after the bare board has been fabricated. The principal functions are: (1) power distribution and signal interconnection. 36. such as silk screening. The three types are: (1) single -sided board. also known as through-hole technology.5 Name the three principal types of printed circuit board? Answer. and (2) surface mount technology. 36. Answer.

12 Identify some of the advantages of surface mount technology over conventional through-hole technology. 36. and rework are more difficult. (3) inspection. and (2) pressure connections. 36. 36. (3) components can be mounted on both sides of the board. 36. A press-fit technology in the context of electrical connections is an interference fit between a terminal pin and the plated hole into which it is inserted. A terminal block consists of a series of evenly spaced receptacles that allow connection of individual wires or terminals. (2) higher packing densities.11 What are some of the reasons and defects that make rework an integral step in the PCB fabrication sequence? Answer. Answer. (5) reduced number of holes drilled in the board. A solder paste is a suspension of solder powders in a flux binder.15 What is a solder paste? Answer.14 What are the two methods of component placement and soldering in surface mount technology? Answer. A pin connector is a connector with multiple pins or blades that are inserted into the holes of a mating receptacle to establish electrical contact. and (6) certain undesirable electrical effects are reduced. (4) smaller PCBs are possible for the same function. testing.19 Define what a terminal block is? Answer. The flux binder includes an adhesive that attaches the SMT components to the board surface. and (4) repair of copper film that has lifted from the substrate surface. 36. The two methods are: (1) adhesive bonding and wave soldering. 36. such as spurious surface capacitances and inductances. 36. (2) SMT components are generally more expensive than THT components.13 Identify some of the limitations and disadvantages of surface mount technology? Answer. 36. (2) insert missing components. Advantages of SMT include: (1) smaller components.36.16 36.17 Identify the two basic methods of making electrical connections. and (4) certain types of components are not available in SMT. and (2) solder paste and reflow soldering.20 What is a pin connector? Answer. The two methods are: (1) soldering.18 What is press-fit technology in electrical connections? Answer. Limitations and disadvantages of SMT include: (1) components are more difficult for humans to handle. Answer. (3) repair faulty solder joints. 246 . Crimping involves the mechanical forming of a terminal barrel to form a permanent connection with the stripped end of a conductor wire. The solder constitutes about 85% of the total volume of the paste. Rework is required to correct the following types of defects: (1) replace defective components. Define crimping in the context of electrical connections? Answer.

(c) intraconnections on the chip.1 The second level of packaging refers to which one of the following? (a) component to printed circuit board. (d) phenolic. (c) second. and (f) polypropylene. Answer. (c) 36.001 inch.5 Typical thickness of the copper layer in a printed circuit board is which one of the following? (a) 0.3 Card-on-board (COB) packaging refers to which one of the following levels in the electronics packaging hierarchy? (a) zeroth. 36. (d) third. Answer. or (d) tin. (c) 0.0001 inch. 247 . (a) 36.100 inch. (e) polyethylene. (b) first. Answer.010 inch. or (b) through-hole technology. (d) third. since each correct answer is worth 1 point. or (b) positive resists. (b) first. (a) and (e). or (d) wiring and cabling connections. which one of the following is another common metal plated onto a PCB? (a) aluminum. (d) torch soldering. (b) 36. or (b) electroplating. and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point. (b) IC chip to package.2 Surface mount technology is included within which one of the following levels of packaging? (a) zeroth. 36. (c) epoxy. (c) 36. Which of the following is the most common resist type used in the processing of PCBs? (a) negative resists. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers. Answer. (b) 36. (b) infrared soldering. (d) 36.8 In addition to copper. Answer. For each question. (c) nickel.7 Which of the following plating processes has the higher deposition rate in PCB fabrication? (a) electroless plating. Answer. (a) 36. all correct answers must be given. or (d) 0. To attain a perfect score on the quiz.10 In general. Answer. Answer. 36. or (e) fourth. Answer. (c) reflow soldering. (b) 0.9 Which of the following are the soldering processes used to attach components to printed circuit boards in through-hole technology (more than one)? (a) hand soldering.Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 17 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct). or (e) fourth. (b) gold.4 Which of the following polymeric materials is commonly used as an ingredient in the insulation layer of a printed circuit board (more than one)? (a) copper. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point. which of the following technologies results in greater problems during rework? (a) surface mount technology. (c) second. (b) E-glass. (c) and (d). and (e) wave soldering.6 Photolithography is widely used in PCB fabrication.

Answer.12 Which of the following electrical connection methods produce a separable connection (more than one): (a) crimping of terminals. (a) 36. or (d) pressure connections.11 Which of the following are methods of forming electrical connections (more than one)? (a) soldering. (c) retaining rings. (c) press fitting. (b).Answer. and (d) 36. (b) terminal blocks. (a). (b) insulation displacement. Answer. (b) and (d) 248 . and (d) sockets.

and (4) microsystems and micro-instruments.2 What is the approximate size scale in microsystem technology? Answer: The size range is 10-6 m to 10-3 m.8 What is the difference between bulk micromachining and surface micromachining? Answer: Bulk micromachining refers to a relatively deep wet etching process into a single-crystal silicon substrate (Si wafer). owing to their widespread use in microelectronics. so both the circuit and the microdevice can be fabricated in combination on the same substrate. and (4) use of single-crystal silicon permits the production of physical features to very close tolerances.4 What is a hybrid microsensor? Answer: A hybrid microsensor is a sensing element (transducer) combined with electronics components in the same device. Surface micromachining refers to the planar structuring of the substrate surface using much more shallow layering processes. 37. more conventional size? Answer: Because less material is used in microsystem products. and relatively low density. (3) microstructures and microcomponents. such as high strength and elasticity. 37. Answer: A microelectromechanical system (MEMS) is a miniaturized system consisting of both electronic and mechanical components.37 37.1 MICROFABRICATION TECHNOLOGIES Define microelectromechanical system. good hardness. silicon also possesses useful mechanical properties.6 Why is silicon a desirable work material in microsystem technology? Answer: The reasons given in the text are: (1) the microdevices in MST often include electronic circuits.3 Why is it reasonable to believe that microsystem products would be available at lower costs than products of larger. (2) in addition to its desirable electronic properties. 37.7 What is meant by the term aspect ratio in microsystem technology? Answer: The aspect ratio is the height-to-width ratio of the features produced in the MST device. 249 . Review Questions 37.9 What is meant by the term nanotechnology? Answer: Nanotechnology refers to devices and structures that are even smaller than in microsystems.5 What are some of the basic types of microsystem devices? Answer: The text indicates four classifications: (1) microsensors. 37. 37. 37. (2) microactuators. as well as the associated fabrication processes which involve the control of feature sizes measured on the nanometer (one nm = 10-9 m) scale. (3) the technologies for processing silicon are well-established. 37. typically.

(b)10-6 m to 10-3 m. (b). Answer: (d). (e) temperature sensors for cabin climate control. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point. 37. Answer: (a).1 Microsystem technology includes which of the following (more than one)?(a) LIGA technology. the letters LIGA stand for which one of the following? (a) let it go already.7 Bulk micromachining refers to a relatively deep wet etching process into a single-crystal silicon substrate: (a) true or (b) false. Answer: (e). 37.8 In the LIGA process.9 Photofabrication means the same process as photolithography. 37.Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 15 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct). (b) alcohol blood level sensors. (c) driver identification sensors for theft prevention. (c) nickel. and (c). (c) lithographic applications. (b) microelectromechanical systems. (e) thickness-to-length ratio of the MST device.4 The most common work material used in microsystem technology is which one of the following? (a) boron. Answer: (b).3 Which of the following are current applications of microsystem technology in modern automobiles (more than one)? (a) air-bag release sensors. Answer: (a) and (c). (b) height-to-width ratio of the fabricated features. (d) length-to-width ratio of the fabricated features. and alteration. (e) precision engineering. all correct answers must be given. (b) gold.2 The typical range of feature sizes in microsystem technology is which one of the following? (a) 103 m to 10-2 m.5 The aspect ratio in microsystem technology is best defined by which one of the following? (a) degree of anisotropy in etched features. (c) micromachines. and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point. 37. (b) little itty-bitty grinding apparatus. (c) height-to-width ratio of the MST device. (c) 10-9 m to 10-6 m. grinding. and (e). (d) nanotechnology. 37. 37. (a) True or (b) false. 37. To attain a perfect score on the quiz. (d) potassium hydroxide. For each question. 37. (d) oil pressure sensors. electrodeposition. 37. (e) silicon. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers. since each correct answer is worth 1 point. Answer: (a). (b) natural light. Answer: (b). (c) X-ray radiation. and plastic molding. Answer: (a). 250 . (d). (e) lithography.6 Which of the following forms of radiation have wavelengths shorter than the wavelength of ultraviolet light used in photolithography (more than one)? (a) electron beam radiation. (d) lithography.

10 The typical range of feature sizes in nanotechnology is which one of the following? (a) 10-3 m to 10-2 m. Photofabrication is an industrial process in which ultraviolet exposure through a pattern mask causes a significant increase in the chemical solubility of an optically clear material. Answer: (c). in which resists are used to determine the regions to be etched. (c) 10-9 m to 10-6 m. thus permitting a suitable etchant to remove the exposed regions much more rapidly.Answer: (b). 251 . 37. This is not the same as photolithography. (b)10-6 m to 10-3 m.

38. The three basic components are: (1) part program.1 NUMERICAL CONTROL AND INDUSTRIAL ROBOTICS Review Questions Identify and briefly describe the three basic components of a numerical control system. (2) machine control unit.38 38. 38. In continuous path. the locations are defined relative to the origin of the axis system. the trajectory of the movement is controlled. The processing equipment accomplishes the sequence of processing steps to transform the starting workpart into a completed part. 38. to a rotating shaft whose angular position and velocity are to be measured. In incremental positioning. The disk is connected. 38. measurements of the output (position) are fed back to verify that it corresponds to the desired input value. angular position and rotational speed can be determined. each succeeding location is defined relative to the previous location.5 Under what circumstances is a closed loop positioning system preferable to an open loop system? Answer. Each command specifies a position or motion that is to be accomplished by the workhead relative to the processed object. In absolute positioning. a closed loop system is preferred. Answer. the motion is from one location in space to the next with no regard for the path taken between starting and final locations. and (3) processing equipment. one command at a time. It operates under the control of the machine control unit according to the set of instructions contained in the part program. The machine control unit in modern NC technology is a microcomputer which stores the program and executes it by converting each command into actions by the processing equipment.3 What is the difference between absolute positioning and incremental positioning? Answer.6 Explain the operation of an optical encoder.2 What is the difference between point-to-point and continuous path in a motion control system? Answer. which are converted into an equivalent series of electrical pulses. there is no feedback of the output value. By counting the pulses and computing the frequency of the pulse train. and a disk containing a series of slots through which the light source can shine to energize the photodetector. either directly or through a gear train. 38. Answer. When there is a significant reaction force resisting the motion of the positioning system. An optical encoder is a sensor for measuring angular position and rotational velocity. As the shaft rotates. The part program is the detailed set of commands to be followed by the processing equipment. In an open loop system.7 Why should the electromechanical system be the limiting factor in control resolution rather than the controller storage register? 252 . the slots cause the light source to be seen by the photocell as a series of flashes.4 What is the difference between an open loop positioning system and a closed loop positioning system? Answer. In a closed loop system. 38. a photodetector. In point-to-point. It consists of a light source.

A gripper is one form of end effector. What is an end effector? Answer. (2) electronic component insertion. An industrial robot is a programmable machine possessing certain anthropomorphic features. counting. 38. An end effector is the special tooling that is attached to the robot's wrist to perform a particular application. which are recorded into memory for later execution.13 How is an industrial robot similar to numerical control? Answer. and arithmetic functions to control industrial machinery and processes. what is the difference between powered leadthrough and manual leadthrough? Answer.10 What are some of the benefits usually cited for NC compared to using manual alternative methods? Answer. (4) drafting. In powered leadthrough. Because the control resolution in the controller storage register can be increased simply by increasing the number of bits used to define the axis location. Answer.14 In robot programming.11 What is an industrial robot? Answer.Answer. 38. a teach pendant which controls the drive motors of the individual joints is used to move the manipulator into the desired joint positions. 38. A programmable logic controller (PLC) is a microcomputer-based device that uses programmed instructions to implement logic. the manipulator is physically moved through the desired sequence of positions.12 38. 38. For each question. The applications include: (1) arc welding and resistance welding. (3) electrical wire wrap machines.15 What is a programmable logic controller? Answer. (5) improved accuracy. (5) tape laying for fiber reinforced polymer composites. (3) simpler fixtures. They are both positioning systems that can be programmed and reprogrammed. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point. (2) lower manufacturing lead times. and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required 253 . Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 13 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct). Advantages of NC include: (1) reduced non.productive time. 38. sequencing. Programming is simplified to minimize the amount of training required by the operator. (4) greater flexibility.9 Identify some of the non-machine tool applications of numerical control. Manual data input refers to a method of programming in which the machine tool operator accomplishes the programming of the NC machine using a menu-driven procedure. 38. all correct answers must be given.8 What is manual data input in NC part programming? Answer. timing. which are then recorded into memory. since each correct answer is worth 1 point. To attain a perfect score on the quiz. The most common feature is a manipulator (arm) that can be programmed to perform industrial tasks. In manual leadthrough. 38. and (6) reduced human error. and (6) coordinate measuring machines.

and (e). or (e) resistance welding.1 A leadscrew with a 7.5 The arm-and-body of a robot manipulator generally performs which one of the following functions in an application? (a) orientation. Answer. 38. 38. (c). (d) milling. (d) multiple work shifts. and (d). The leadscrew is powered by a stepping motor which has 250 step angles. Answer. (a) and (e). (b) drilling. or (c) polar coordinates. (b) 38. spray painting applications are which of the following? (a) continuous path. Problems Open Loop Positioning Systems 38. (c). and (f) turning.3 The ability of a positioning system to return to a previously defined location is measured by which one of the following terms? (a) accuracy.6 A SCARA robot is normally associated with which of the following applications (one answer)? (a) arc welding. (a) 38. (c) hole punching in sheet metal. Determine: (a) how many pulses are required to move the table the specified distance. (b). 38. Answer. Answer. (b) control resolution. (b) geometry statement involving a volume of revolution about a central axis. (e) spot welding.point and not continuous path operations (more than one): (a) arc welding. (b) cylindrical coordinates.8 Which of the following are characteristics of work situations that tend to promote the substitution of a robot in place of a human worker (more than one)? (a) frequent job changeovers. (d) point-to-point command. Answer.5 mm pitch drives a worktable in a NC positioning system. or (b) positioning. Answer. (c) 38.7 In robotics. (a) 38.4 The APT command GORGT is which of the following (more than one)? (a) continuous path command. (b) hazardous work environment. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers. (b) 38. and (e) task requires mobility. (d) machine loading and unloading. Answer. (c) name of the monster in a 1960s Japanese science fiction movie. (c) repetitive work cycle.reduces the score by 1 point. Answer. and (b) what is the required motor speed and pulse rate to achieve the desired table speed? 254 .2 Identify which of the following applications are point-to. or (c) repeatability. or (e) tool path command in which the tool must Go Right in the next move. (c) inspection. or (b) point-to-point. (b) assembly. The worktable is programmed to move a distance of 120 mm from its present position at a travel speed of 300 mm/min.1 The standard coordinate system for numerical control machine tools is based on which one of the following? (a) Cartesian coordinates. (b).

250 in.03.3 A stepping motor has 200 step angles.5 x 1.67 Hz 38. Determine: (a) how many pulses are required to move the table the specified distance.005 mm.5 CR + 3 σ = 0. and there are 12 bits in the binary register used by the digital controller to store the programmed position.5(0. 0.00 in at a feed rate of 30.03 mm.69315 B = 9.005) = ± 0.0 in/min.0 in/min.8° np = 360x/pα = 360(5.7212 B = 14.5) = 166. For the positioning system. Thus. set CR1 = CR2. A worktable is driven by the leadscrew. The leadscrew has 6 threads/in.016 = 16. fp = vt ns/ 60p = 20(200)/(60 x 0.667 2B = = 16. and (b) the required motor speed and pulse rate to achieve the desired table speed.122 mm.005) = 0. and (b) what is the required motor speed and pulse rate to achieve the desired table speed? Solution: (a) α = 360/ns = 360/200 = 1. the mechanical inaccuracies in the open loop positioning system can be described by a normal distribution whose standard deviation = 0.25 x 1. and (c) repeatability.025 Use B = 15 bits 38.44° np = 360x/pα = 360(100)/(7.4 A stepping motor with 240 step angles is coupled to a leadscrew through a gear reduction of 5:1 (5 rotations of the motor for each rotation of the leadscrew). The worktable driven by the leadscrew must move a distance = 10.25) = 266. Solution: (a) α = 360/ns = 360/240 = 1.5 mm/rev) = 40 rev/min. (b) Accuracy = 0. (d) What is the minimum number of bits that the binary register should have so that the mechanical drive system becomes the limiting component on control resolution? Solution: (a) CR1 = p/ns = 7.122} = 0. CR2} = Max{0.25 in/rev) = 80 rev/min.Solution: (a) α = 360/ns = 360/250 = 1.5° np = 360 rg x/pα = 360(5)(10)/(0. determine: (a) control resolution.00 in from its present position at a travel speed of 20.0)/(0. The table must move a distance of 5. CR2 = L/2B = 500/212 – 1 = 500/4095 = 0. (d) In order for the mechanical errors to be the limiting factor in control resolution in this problem. Determine: (a) number of pulses required to move the table.668 0.015 mm.03 = 500/(2B –1) 2B – 1 = 500/0.1667) = 3600 Hz 255 .2 Referring to the previous problem. 0.67 Hz 38.1667 in/rev) = 900 rev/min. Its output shaft is directly coupled to leadscrew with pitch = 0.5 mm/250 = 0. CR = Max{CR1.8) = 4000 pulses (b) N = vt /p = (20 in/min)/(0.5) = 72. fp = rg fr ns/ 60p = 5(30)(240)/(60 x 0. The range of the worktable axis is 500 mm.1667 x 1.44) = 4000 pulses (b) N = vt /p = (300 mm/min)/(7.668 B ln 2 = ln 16.000 pulses (b) N = rg fr /p = 5(30 in/min)/(0. (c) Repeatability = ± 3 σ = ± 3(0.122 mm.076 mm. (b) accuracy.122) + 3(0. fp = vt ns/ 60p = 300(250)/(60 x 7.

Assume CR = CR1 CR1 = 0. and table connection are characterized by a normal distribution with standard deviation = 0.001 = 0. The table must have a linear speed = 35 in/min.0.001 in.0008 in.167 Hz 38.5 CR CR = 0.18) = 729.67 Hz 38.0.0003 = 0.7 The drive unit of a positioning table for a component insertion machine is based on a stepping motor and leadscrew mechanism. and table connection are characterized by a normal distribution with standard deviation = 0.0008 = 225 step angles (b) α = 360/225 = 1.0008 = 0. and table connection are characterized by a normal distribution with standard deviation = 0.5 mm.0001) = 0.5 CR + 3(0. Determine: (a) the minimum number of step angles in the stepping motor.0002 in.0008 .5 CR + 0. and (b) the frequency of the pulse train required to drive the table at the desired maximum speed.18/0. gear box. and the gear ratio = 5:1 (5 turns of the motor for each turn of the leadscrew). gear box.2/(2 x 0.02 mm. Mechanical errors in the motor.025 mm.5 CR CR = 0. The pitch of the leadscrew = 0.010 = 0.001) = 100 step angles (b) fp = rg vt ns /60p = 2(40)(100)/(60 x 0. Assume CR = CR1 CR1 = p/(rg ns ) 256 .5 The drive unit for a positioning table is driven by a leadscrew directly coupled to the output shaft of a stepping motor.0001 in.005 mm.0004 = 0.38.5 CR CR = 0.015 = 0. Solution: (a) Accuracy = 0.18/ns ns = 0.5 CR + 3 σ 0. leadscrew. The pitch of the leadscrew = 0.2 in.5 CR + 0.2/2ns ns = 0.001 = p/(rg ns ) = 0. Solution: (a) Accuracy = 0. The mechanical errors in the motor.5 CR + 3(0.0003 0. and (c) the frequency of the pulse train required to drive the table at the desired speed. and (b) the frequency of the pulse train required to drive the table at the desired maximum speed. The pitch of the leadscrew = 4. Determine: (a) the minimum number of step angles in the stepping motor.0002) = 0.0006 0.6 The positioning table for a component insertion machine uses a stepping motor and leadscrew mechanism.005) = 0.001 in. leadscrew. Determine: (a) the minimum number of step angles in the stepping motor to achieve the accuracy.6° ° (c) fp = vt ns /60p = 35(225)/(60 x 0. and a positioning accuracy = 0.025 . (b) the associated step angle.2) = 667. leadscrew.0008 = p/ns = 0.0006 = 0. Assume CR = CR1 CR1 = 0.015 0. The mechanical errors in the motor.5 CR + 0. Solution: (a) Accuracy = 0.001 .5 CR + 3 σ 0.5 CR + 3(0. The specifications are for the table speed to be 25 mm/s over a 600 mm range and for the accuracy to be 0. The design specifications require a table speed of 40 in/min and an accuracy = 0.0.5 CR + 3 σ 0. and the gear ratio = 2:1 (2 turns of the motor for each turn of the leadscrew).18 in.0005 = 0.025 = 0.0008 in.

0 mm and provides an axis range = 300.5/(5 x 0.8 The two axes of an x-y positioning table are each driven by a stepping motor connected to a leadscrew with a 10:1 gear reduction. leadscrew.11 The worktable of a numerical control machine tool is driven by a closed loop positioning system which consists of a servomotor. np = xns/p = 100(200)/5 = 4000 pulses. and (b) the pulse rate and (c) motor speed that correspond to the feed rate of 500 mm/min. ∆y = 150 .25 = 75 mm.0 = 1029 rev/min. The optical encoder is connected directly to the leadscrew and generates 200 pulses/rev of the leadscrew. 25) to (100.25 = 125 mm Angle A = tan-1(125/75) = 59° vtx = 600 cos 59 = 308. The table must move a distance = 100 mm at a feed rate = 500 mm/min. Rearranging. The leadscrew has 6 threads/in and is coupled directly to the motor shaft (gear ratio = 1:1). There are 16 bits in each binary register used by the controller to store position data for the two axes. fpx = Ny ns /60 = 1029(20)/60 = 343.5 mm/min.5 = 1250 Hz 38.4 rev/min.7)/5. Rearranging. Each leadscrew has a pitch = 5.0 = 617.8 Hz vty = 600 sin 59 = 514. 150) ∆x = 100 . leadscrew. np = rg x ns/p = 16(100)(200)/5 = 64. Determine: (a) the pulse count received by the control system to verify that the table has moved exactly 100 mm.25) to point (100.02) = 45 step angles (b) fp = rg vt ns /p = 5(25)(45)/4.0 in/min.0 mm.5)/5.00458} = 0.150)? Ignore acceleration.ns = 4. (a) How many pulses are received by the control system to verify that the 257 .10 Same as the previous problem. (b) fp = fr ns /60p = 500(200)/60(5) = 333. except that the optical encoder is directly coupled to the motor shaft rather than to the leadscrew. and optical encoder.025 mm CR2 = L/(2B – 1)= 300/(216 – 1) = 300/65. fpx = Nx ns/60 = 617.0 Hz Closed Loop Positioning Systems 38. and optical encoder.535 = 0. The optical encoder generates 225 pulses per motor revolution. Solution: (a) x = p np/ns .4(20)/60 = 205.025. 38. Ny = rgvty/p = 10(514.7 mm/min Nx = rgvtx/p = 10(308.9 A NC machine tool table is powered by a servomotor. 38.3 Hz (c) N = rg fr /p = 16 x 500/5 = 1600 rev/min. (a) What is the control resolution of each axis? (b) What are the required the rotational speeds and corresponding pulse train frequencies of each stepping motor in order to drive the table at 600 mm/min in a straight line from point (25. Solution: (a) CR1 = p/rgns = 5.00458 mm CR = Max{0. Solution: (a) x = p np/rg ns .0 mm and is connected to the motor shaft with a gear ratio of 16:1 (16 turns of the motor for each turn of the leadscrew). The number of step angles on each stepping motor is 20.000 pulses.3 Hz (c) N = rg fr /p = 16 x 500/5 = 1600 rev/min. (b) fp = rg fr ns /60p = 16(500)(200)/60(5) = 5333.5 in at a feed rate = 20.0/(10 x 20) = 0.025 mm (b) vt = 600 mm/min from (25. 0. The leadscrew has a pitch = 5. The table has been programmed to move a distance of 7.

5(225)/0.89 rev/s. The motor operates at a speed = 15 rev/s.016 mm.1667) = 450 Hz (c) N = fr /p = 20/0.4 s = 1. and (c) the travel speed of the table at the operating speed of the motor. and (b) rotational speed of the motor and the pulse rate of the encoder at the feed rate indicated. The axis uses a dc servomotor whose output shaft is coupled to a leadscrew with pitch = 6. 38. expressed in linear travel distance of the table axis.14 A leadscrew connected to a dc servomotor is the drive system for a positioning table.002 in. Tm = 300/3. 38.978 mm/s.Rearranging. np = xns/p = 7.978 = 75.978 mm/s)/(6 mm/rev) = 0. The end milling cutter has four teeth and its diameter = 20. Total travel distance = 300 mm in a direction parallel to one of the axes of the worktable.12 A leadscrew coupled directly to a dc servomotor is used to drive one of the table axes of an NC milling machine.25 m/s and chip load = 0. (b) fp = N ns /60 = 800(100)/60 = 1333.33 in/min. (b) fp = N ns /60 = 800(100)/60 = 1333.13 Solve the previous problem only the servomotor is connected to the leadscrew through a gear box whose reduction ratio = 12:1 (12 revolutions of the motor for each revolution of the leadscrew). 38. Determine: (a) feed rate and time to complete the cut. The motor rotates at a maximum speed of 800 rev/min.25 x 103 mm/s)/(20π mm/rev) = 19. The leadscrew pitch = 4 mm.0 mm. (b) the frequency of the pulse train emitted by the optical encoder when the servomotor operates at 14 rev/s.0 mm.002 in.1667 = 10. (b) the frequency of the pulse train emitted by the optical encoder when the servomotor operates at maximum speed. and (c) the travel speed of the table at the maximum rpm of the motor. Solution: (a) CR = p/ns = 0. The optical encoder attached to the leadscrew emits 100 pulses/rev of the leadscrew. (b) N = fr /p = (3.05 mm. The leadscrew has 5 threads/in.2/100 = 0.3 Hz (c) vt = N p/rg = 800(0. (b) fp = N ns = 14(250) = 3500 Hz (c) vt = Np = 14(4) = 56 mm/s 38. fr = N f nt = 19. The optical encoder attached to the leadscrew emits 250 pulses/rev of the leadscrew. 258 .1667 = 120 rev/min. Solution: (a) N = (1.89(0.2/100 = 0. Cutting speed = 1.15 A milling operation is performed on a NC machining center.2)/12 = 13.663 rev/s. expressed in linear travel distance of the table axis. (b) fp = fr ns /60p = 20(225)/60(0. Determine: (a) The control resolution of the system.3 Hz (c) vt = Np = 800(0. Determine: (a) The control resolution of the system.2) = 160 in/min.05)(4) = 3. The feedback sensing device is an optical encoder which emits 250 pulses per revolution. Solution: (a) CR = p/ns = 4/250 = 0.125 pulses. Solution: (a) CR = p/ns = 0.table has moved the programmed distance? What are (b) the pulse rate and (c) motor speed that correspond to the specified feed rate? Solution: (a) x = p np/ns .26 min.

25) = 12.5) to point (1.18 The largest axis of a Cartesian coordinate robot has a total range of 750 mm.5. also (b) the rotational speed of the motor and (c) the frequency of the pulse train emitted by the optical encoder when the desired feed rate is achieved. Angle A = tan-1(5.20 2B – 1 = 750/0.06)(2) = 71.20 CR = CR2 = L/(2B – 1)= 750/(2B – 1) 750/(2B – 1)= 0.25 mm = 0.012/(.fp = ns N = 250(0. It is driven by pulley system capable of a mechanical accuracy = 0. Tm = 325/71.52 Hz Industrial Robotics 38.012 in/min N = frx /p = (-3.3. The feedback sensing device is an optical encoder which emits 400 pulses per revolution.2) in a straight-line trajectory at a feed rate of 7.5 in.8 rev/min. Cutting speed = 30 m/min and chip load = 0.20 = 3750 2B = 3751 259 .15 0.2 . 7.0.10 CR = 0.5 CR = 0. Solution: (a) N = (30 x 103 mm/min)/(16π mm/rev) = 596.15 mm σ = 0.62 = 4.7 = 7.05 mm Accuracy = 0. Solution: Repeatability = ± 3σ = 0. 7.5 CR + 3 σ = 0.0004 in.05 rev/min.7° frx = 7.16 An end milling operation is carried out along a straight line path which is 325 mm in length. (b) Move from (3.8(0. Solution: (a) CR = p/rg ns = 0.62 mm/min. The cut is in a direction parallel to the x-axis on a NC machining center. The motor is coupled directly to the table leadscrew. The optical encoder emits 125 pulses per revolution.15 = 0.05)(125)/60 = 125. ∆y = 7. The x-axis uses a dc servomotor connected directly to a leadscrew whose pitch = 6. An optical encoder is used to provide the feedback measurement.1.0 .250/(5 x 125) = 0.5 = -2. 1. (b) N = fr /p = (71.4017) = -3. To execute a certain programmed instruction.5 in/min.15/3 = 0.54 min.5 CR + 0.5(-0.25 .0 mm. The end milling cutter has two teeth and its diameter = 16. Determine: (a) feed rate and time to complete the cut.75 Hz 38. fr = N f nt = 596..25 mm and repeatability = ±0.2) at fr = 7. fp = ns N/60 = 400(11.62 mm/min)/(6.5) to (1. Determine: (a) the control resolution of the system for the x-axis. It is connected to the leadscrew using a 1:5 gear ratio (one turn of the leadscrew converts to 5 turns of the encoder disk).0.17 A dc servomotor is used to drive the x-axis of a NC milling machine table.94 rev/min. ∆x = 1. and (b) rotational speed of the motor and the pulse rate of the encoder at the feed rate indicated. Determine the minimum number of bits required in the binary register for the axis in the robot's control memory.0.06 mm.58 Hz 38.7/-2.0 mm.94)/60 = 79.7 in.5) = 113.663) = 165. (c) fp = rg ns N/60 = 5(12.0 mm/rev) = 11.5 = 5.15 mm.5. the table must be moved from point (3. which has 4 threads/in.5 cos 113.5 in/min. 1.

5 → ns = 13 step angles 38.030 .92 → 10 bits 260 .2 2B = 969.876 B = 9.2 0.030° of rotation. is specified as 0. (b) Given CR = 0.725/(2B – 1) = 0.15 mm Accuracy = 0.030 in. The motor is attached to a leadscrew through a 2:1 gear reduction (2 turns of the motor for 1 turn of the leadscrew).0005236 rad.030°.0131 in.0131 0.B ln 2 = ln 3751 0. The mechanical inaccuracies of the joint result in a repeatability error = ±0. The pitch of the leadscrew is 5.725 in.05) = ± 0. End-of-link movement = LA where A = angle of movement in radians LA = 25(0.0169 CR = 0.20 The designer of a polar configuration robot is considering a portion of the manipulator consisting of a rotational joint connected to its output link.725/0. Specify the number of step angles that the motor must have in order to meet the accuracy requirement. the specified accuracy should be possible to achieve.0131 Specified accuracy = 0. A stepper motor serves as the drive unit for the linear joint of an industrial robot.0338 = 968.25 mm = 0.030° = 2π(0.0131 = 0. It is assumed that the link is perfectly rigid. Solution: (a) Repeatability = ± 3 σ = ± 0.87 → 12 bits.5 CR + 0.15 = 0.5 CR + 0. CR = L/(2B – 1) = 0.10 CR = 0.5 CR = 0.030 0.0/(2 x 0.030 = 0.5 CR + 0.05 mm. The accuracy of the joint-link combination.0005236) = 0.5 = 0.22978 38. Accuracy = 0. 0.25 . The joint must have an accuracy of 0. expressed as a linear measure at the end of the link which results from rotating the joint.0338 in Since CR is positive. so there are no additional errors due to deflection.0338 32. The mechanical errors in the system (due to backlash of the leadscrew and the gear reducer) can be represented by a normal distribution with standard deviation = ±0.5 CR + 3σ = 0.25 mm.20 mm Assume CR = CR1 = p/rg ns ns = p/(rg CR) = 5.2 B ln 2 = ln 969.5 CR = 0.20) = 12. (a) Show that the specified accuracy can be achieved. The output link is 25 in long and the rotational joint has a range of 75°.0338 2B – 1 = 32.19 B = 11.0 mm.6931 B = 6.0.69315 B = 8.5 CR + 3 σ = 0.15 0.0338 from part (a).0169/0. (b) Determine the minimum number of bits required in the binary register of the robot's control memory to achieve the specified accuracy. given the repeatability error.030)/360 = 0. range = (2π(75)/360) x 25 = 32.0. Solution: Repeatability = ± 3 σ = ± 3(0. total range = 75° Converting this to an arc distance.

1 GROUP TECHNOLOGY AND FLEXIBLE MANUFACTURING SYSTEMS Review Questions Define group technology? Answer. inspection. 39.6 What is a flexible manufacturing system? Answer. GT machine cell designs include: single machines. (3) production control. 39. (4)machine control.4 What is the composite part concept in group technology? Answer. a composite part is a hypothetical part that includes all of the design and/or manufacturing attributes of a given part family.7 What makes an automated manufacturing system flexible? Answer. and (8) general system management. A part family is a collection of parts that are similar in design or manufacturing attributes. flexible manufacturing cells. The tests of flexibility are: (1) process different part styles in non-batch mode. (3) deal gracefully with equipment breakdowns. Answer. 39. What are the advantages of FMS technology.5 Name some of the possible machine cell designs in group technology. (2) accept changes in schedule. Applications include: machining.10 Identify some of the applications of FMS technology. (7) work transport control. Cellular manufacturing involves the production of part families using groups of machines (generally manually operated) to produce a certain part family or a limited set of part families. Functions include: (1) NC part programming. 39. compared to conventional batch operations? 261 .2 What is a part family? Answer. In GT. (6) tool management. A flexible manufacturing system (FMS) is an automated group technology cell consisting of processing stations interconnected by an automated handling system and controlled by a computer. multiple machines with mechanized handling. GT is a general approach in which similarities among parts are identified and exploited in design and manufacturing.8 Name some of the FMS software and control functions. 39. multiple machines with manual handling. and flexible manufacturing systems. The concept is useful in designing cells to produce the part family. and sheet metal processing. assembly. and (4) accommodate new part style introductions. 39.9 39. Answer. 39. (5) workpart control.39 39. Answer. (2) NC part program download.3 Define cellular manufacturing? Answer. 39.

(c) master schedule.3 Which of the following are part design attributes that are likely to be included in a parts classification and coding system (more than one)? (a) annual production. (2) reduced work-in-process. Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 12 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct). and (f). (b) low variety. or (e) rotational parts. 39. (b) design. Answer. To attain a perfect score on the quiz. Answer. 39.8 Flexible manufacturing systems and cells are generally applied in which one of the following areas? (a) high variety.1 Production flow analysis is a method of identifying part families that uses data from which one of the following sources? (a) bill of materials. medium variety production. Answer.6 The physical layout of a flexible manufacturing system is determined principally by which one of the following? (a) computer system.2 Most parts classification and coding systems are based on which of the following types of part attributes (more than one)? (a) annual production rate. (b) and (c). (c) nonrotational parts. (d) production schedule. in general. (d) plastic parts. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers. (b) 39. (e) part dimensions. (e). (d) mass production. (b) 39. all correct answers must be given. Advantages include: (1) higher machine utilization. (b) A flexible manufacturing system does not normally operate in a batch mode. (b) engineering drawings. (c) part family.5 A machine capable of producing different part styles in a batch mode of operation qualifies as a flexible manufacturing system: (a) true or (b) false. Answer. (3) lower manufacturing lead times. (e) 39. low volume production. Answer. (d) major process. most easily handle which of the following part types in a flexible machining system (one best answer)? (a) heavy parts.7 Industrial robots can. Answer. 39. (e) 262 . Answer. (b) material handling system. (b) four machines. or (c) six machines. Answer. or (e) route sheets. or (e) weight of parts processed. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point. (c) low volume. (b) metal parts. For each question. and (f) tolerances. and (4) greater flexibility in production scheduling. (b) batch size. since each correct answer is worth 1 point. (c). and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point. (d) processing equipment. 39. (c) manufacturing.Answer. and (d) weight. (e). (c) length-to-diameter ratio.4 What is the dividing line between a manufacturing cell and a flexible manufacturing system? (a) two machines. (e) medium volume. 39.

39. or (f) transfer lines. (c) manual assembly lines. (b) machine vision. Answer.9 Which of the following technologies is most closely associated with flexible machining systems (one best answer)? (a) lasers. (d) 263 . (d) numerical control.

2 Distinguish between a batch model production line and a mixed model production line. Answer. (2) sometimes collecting them in boxes and then passing the boxes between stations. Because the parts are big and/or heavy and cannot be conveniently removed by a human worker. 40. 40. and (3) getting the right parts to each workstation is more difficult because more parts are involved. 40. 264 . 40. Three principles are described in the text: (1) specialization of labor. Advantages of the mixed model line include: (1) no downtime between different models.3 What are the advantages of the mixed model line for producing different product styles? Answer. with a setup changeover between the products. while a mixed model line produces different products simultaneously. (2) scheduling the models is more difficult.6 Describe how manual methods are used to move parts between workstations on a production line. The methods include: (1) work units are simply passed by hand along a flat worktable from one station to the next. and (3) production rates can be matched to demand rates for different models. Answer.5 Identify two fundamental principles on which manual assembly lines are based. Answer.8 Why are parts sometimes fixed to the conveyor in a continuous transfer system in manual assembly? Answer.4 What are some of the limitations of a mixed model line compared to a batch model line? Answer. and (3) work flow principle. Both lines are used to make multiple product types. Answer. Because all production lines will suffer a certain amount of nonproductive time due to reliability problems. and (3) asynchronous transfer. 40. 40. in which parts all move simultaneously from station-to-station with a stop-and-go action. (2) interchangeable parts.9 Why must a production line be paced at a rate higher than that required to satisfy the demand for the product? Answer. also known as division of labor. and (3) pushing the work units along a conveyor between stations. Limitations include: (1) line balancing problem is more complex. (2) synchronous transfer.40 40.1 PRODUCTION LINES What is a production line? Answer. A batch model line produces the different products in batches.7 Briefly define the three types of mechanized workpart transfer systems used in production lines. in which parts move independently between stations with a stop-and-go action. in which parts move on a conveyor at a steady speed. (2) minimize or avoid high inventories of some models while there are stock-outs of other models. 40. Review Questions 40. The three work transfer systems are: (1) continuous transfer. A production line is a sequence of workstations at which individual tasks are accomplished on each work unit as it moves from one station to the next to progressively make the product.

40.2 Manual methods of workpart transfer are probably closest to which one of the following mechanized methods of transfer? (a) asynchronous. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point..11 Why is the line balancing problem different on an automated transfer line than on a manual assembly line? Answer. Answer.10 What are the reasons why the number of workstations cannot be determined simply from the ratio Twc/Tc? Answer. (d) 265 .13 Why are single station assembly cells generally not suited to high production jobs? Answer. 40.1 Batch model lines are most suited to which one of the following production situations? (a) job shop. Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 10 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct). sudden mechanical and electrical failures.14 What are some of the reasons for downtime on a machining transfer line? Answer. and gradual normal wear and tear on the equipment. For each question. 40. (b) continuous. (b) limiting value on the sum of element times that can be assigned to a worker or station. Reasons include: tool changes. and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point. so single station cells usually operate at relatively slow production rates. 40. (c) order of work stations along the line. or (d) sequence in which the work elements must be done. Answer. The repositioning time is called the transfer time. 40. 40. and (3) multiple manning. or (c) synchronous. since each correct answer is worth 1 point. To attain a perfect score on the quiz. (2) repositioning time during Tc. Answer. machining) involves allocation of (usually) single machining operations to workstations. Reasons are: (1) line balancing losses. all correct answers must be given. it is the time to move parts from one station to the next.3 Precedence constraints are best described by which of the following (one best answer)? (a) launching sequence in a mixed model line. (c) 40. There are many more possible solutions to the line balancing problem in the manual assembly case. or (c) medium production. (b) mass production. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers. The entire work cycle is performed at one station.12 Repositioning time on a synchronous transfer line is known by a different name. (a) 40. what is that name? Answer. Line balancing on a manual assembly line (usually) involves assigning multiple work elements to workers or stations.g. Line balancing on an automated transfer line (e.

09125 = 38. (c). and (f). (d) The line efficiency (proportion uptime) on an automated line can be increased by which of the following approaches (more than one)? (a) improving the reliability of each workstation on the line. (a) and (c). Answer. (b) increasing the number of stations n on the line. The transfer line is most closely associated with which one of the following types of production operations? (a) assembly.000/(50 x 5 x 7.5 40.97.0. line efficiency = 95%. Answer. w = Min Int ≥ 42. (e) requires sensory capability.9/(0. (c) parts passed by hand.95)/50 = 1. (c) involves a single work element. Answer.97)/53.09125 .000 units.5) = 53.5 → 39 stations (b) n = w/M = 47/1.4. or (e) spotwelding.1 A manual assembly line is being designed for a product with annual demand = 100.0.04 min.33 units/hr (b) Tc = E/Rp = 60(. The line will operate 50 wks/year.99125) = 46. and (b) the number of workstations required if multiple manning can be used and the estimated manning level is M = 1.5 hr/shift.0/1.06 → 47 workers 40. and 7. (d) involves straight-line motions.3 A manual assembly line produces a small appliance whose work content time = 25. or (d) synchronous.04) = 26. Assume line efficiency E = 0.1 = 0. Work units will be attached to a continuously moving conveyor.78 → 27 workers 266 .9 min.93 x 1. Ts = Tc . Solution: (a) Rp = 100.1 = 1. (b) consists of multiple work elements.Tr = 1.0 min. (b) automotive chassis fabrication. Repositioning time = 6 sec.99125 min. and repositioning time Tr = 6 sec. (b) continuous.33 = 1. Problems Manual Assembly Lines 40.14 .14 min.92. Solution: (a) nmin = Min Int ≥ Twc/Tc = 42. How many workers are on the line? Solution: Tc = E/Rp = 60(0.4 Which of the following phrases are most appropriate to describe the characteristics of tasks that are performed at automated workstations (more than one)? (a) complex. and (b) number of workers required.09125 min. (d) pressworking. (c) machining. and (f) simple. (d). (c) A dial indexing machine uses which one of the following types of workpart transfer? (a) asynchronous. Work content time = 42.40.7 Answer.0/(. 40.4 = 33.6 40. and (c) reducing the average downtime Td. Desired production rate = 50 units/hr. w = Min Int ≥ 25. Ts = Tc . balancing efficiency Eb = 0. Determine: (a) hourly production rate to meet demand. compute (a) the ideal minimum number of workstations n min.2 In the previous problem.Tr = 1. 5 shifts/wk.92 x 0. and balancing efficiency is 93%.6 → 34 stations 40.

5 = 500 stations 40.0. If 9 seconds will be lost from the cycle time for repositioning. 267 .5 A final assembly plant for a certain automobile model is to have a capacity of 240.95)/60 = 0.5. (2) paint shop. Proportion uptime E = 0. proportion uptime = 95%.0 hours/shift. It will be divided into three departments: (1) body shop.85 min. it is estimated that the manning level will be close to 1.50 min.93 x . (b) number of workers and workstations required in trim-chassis-final if no automated stations are used. w = 24(1. Ts = Tc . 5 days/week. and 8. determine: (a) the cycle time.95)/32 = 1. 40.0.6/8. Determine: (a) hourly production rate of the plant. The required production rate is 30 units per hour.15 = 1.0.90. The workers remain seated along the line.0.6 A product whose total work content time = 50 minutes is to be assembled on a manual production line. and a repositioning time of 0.78125) = 1. w = Min Int ≥ Twc/EbTs = 50/(1.Tr = 0.9 min.5 = 18.7 A manual assembly line has 17 workstations with one operator per station.0(60)/30 = 2. balancing efficiency = 93%.63875 min.08Tc = 0.5.8/(32 x 1. Determine the balance delay. The plant will operate 50 weeks/yr.6 hr on average. The body shop welds the car bodies using robots.000 units annually.8) = 1250 workers n = w/M = 1250/2. Determine: (a) line efficiency.000/(50 x 10 x 8) = 60.Tr = 2.92(1.0 .9325 (c) Tr = 0.15 min is allowed for each worker.85) = 27.78125 min Ts = Tc . This results in an average daily production of 256 units/day. and (b) how many workers and (c) stations will be needed on the line? Solution: (a) Tc = E/Rp = 1.95 min. Both of these departments are highly automated. but downtime during the shift reduces actual production time to 7.0 min/unit (b) Ts = Tc . The product has a Available shift time per day = 8 hr. (3) trim-chassis-final department. two shifts/day. Solution: Tc = E/Rp = 60(0.55 sec.90)/36 = 1. From previous experience with similar products. and (c) repositioning time Tr. Assume E = Eb = 1.25. (b) balancing efficiency.0 = 0. Trim-chassis-final has no automation.03 → 28 workers (c) n = 28/1. Repositioning time per worker Tr is 8% of cycle time Tc. There are 15. where cars are moved by a continuous conveyor.63875) = 0.4 A single model manual assembly line produces a product whose work content time = 48. the average manning level is 2. A synchronous transfer system is used to advance the products from one station to the next.Tr = Tc .95 . Solution: (a) E = 7.92 Tc = 0.25) = 32 workers Eb = Twc/wTs = 47.0 x 1. and the transfer time = 6 seconds.1425 min. The line has 24 workstations with a manning level M = 1.08(1. The production rate of the line = 36 units per hour.95 (b) Rp = 256/8 = 32 units/hr Tc = 60(0. w = Min Int ≥ Twc/EbTs = 15.67 → 19 stations 40.0 units/hr (b) Tc = E/Rp = 60(0.5 x 60/(0.40.15 = 0. Solution: (a) Rp = 240.78125) = 0.5 hours of direct labor content on each car in this department. and the paint shop coats the bodies.2 minutes. = 8. Total work content time to assemble the product = 22.8 min.

78 units/hr Tc = 60E/Rp = 60(.0 min. Eb = Twc/wTs = 22. The remaining stations have one worker. of direct manual labor.0) = 32 workers But with 2 additional workers. (c) the balancing efficiency. Because of the automated stations. (d) What is the average manning level on the line. The work is transported using a continuous overhead conveyor which operates at a speed of 3 ft/min. and (d) average manning level. one-third of which have two workers. what is the balance delay on the line? Solution: (a) Eb = 1.89)/45 = 1.5 min. uptime efficiency = 89%.2 min.2 x 10) = 10 + 14 = 24 stations (c) Eb = Twc/wTs = 32/(34 x 1.0) = 0.068 min.933 40.333(24) x 2 + 0. Repositioning time per worker is 9 sec.Tr = 1.65/.95 = 1.2/(17 x 1.417 40.068) = 55. Repositioning time lost by each worker is 0.40) = 0.1 = 1. then Eb = 1.0/(0.55) = 31.95(60)/47. (b) Ts = Tc .Ts = Tc . (b) number of workstations. There are 24 workstations on the line. w = 0.Tr = 1. w = 32 + 2 = 34 workers (b) n = 10 + (34 .6435 min.0. Rp = 60/Tp = 60/1. and uptime efficiency of the line is 95%. If the balancing efficiency Eb = 0. Ten workstations have two workers on opposite sides of the line so that both sides of the product can be worked on simultaneously.941 (d) M = w/n = 34/24 = 1.2 = 1.95)/31.78 = 1. It is known that 10% of the cycle time is lost due to repositioning. The manual stations each have one worker. The production rate on the line is 45 units/hr. Determine: (a) number of workers. find: (a) cycle time. 268 . Ts = 1. where the average includes the automatic stations? Solution: (a) Tc = E/Rp = 60(0.1867) = 1.10 The total work content for a product assembled on a manual production line is 48 min.15 = 1.2 min/cycle.8 A production line with four automatic workstations (the other stations are manual) produces a certain product whose total assembly work content time = 55.933 = 93. It is known that the number of workers on the line is two more than the number required for perfect balance. The line operates at 95% uptime.55 units/hr (b) Actual Rp = 0.5 = 1.1867 min.9Tc = 0.97 → 56 workers (c) n = 56 + 4 = 60 stations (d) M = 56/60 = 0.40 min.9(1.0 and w = Min Int ≥ Twc/EbTs = 32/(1. the remaining stations each have one worker.Tr = 0. Ts = Twc/wEb = 48/32 = 1.2 .3% 40.737 = 34.5 units per hour.9 Production rate for a certain assembled product is 47.. Tp = Tc/E = 1. The total assembly work content time = 32 minutes of direct manual labor.0. Solution: (a) Tc = E/Rp = 0.5 + . (b) number of workers and (c) workstations on the line. Ts = Tc . Tc = Ts + Tr = 1.7935 min.92 on the manual stations.0.92 x 1.667(24) x 1 = 32 workers w = Twc/EbTs.65 min.7935 .0 x 1.15 = 1.92(34.50 . w= Twc/EbTs = 55. (a) What is the maximum possible hourly production rate if line is assumed to be perfectly balanced? (b) If the actual production rate is only 92% of the maximum possible rate determined in part (a).0 min If perfect balance.737 min.

6375 (d) Twc = Σ Ts = 0.80 2 1.690 40.5/3.95 5 1. A computer monitoring system has been proposed that will cost $25. Determine: (a) the average production rate Rp and (b) the line efficiency E.10 min.12 A dial-indexing table has 6 stations.725 min.00.0) = 0. The line operates 4000 hours per year.50 min. (b) Rp = 1224/40 = 30. EH = 40E = 40 .015) = 0. (d) If the balancing efficiency were computed for this line. If the value added per unit produced = $4. The other five perform processing operations. The number of downtime occurrences = 110. what would be its value? Solution: (a) Tc = 1.0 min to make repairs and restart.0) = 1.60 = 3. and (c) the line efficiency.60.5(60)/1.0 minutes. and hours of downtime = 14. Probability of a station failure is p = 0.6 pc/hr (c) 40E = 25.725 = 82. It costs $75/hour to operate the line. Determine: (a) the number of parts produced during the week.5/0.10 = 1.1 = 19.78/8. and (b) line efficiency.10 3 1.16(10. which is accomplished by a human worker.76 units/hr (b) E = Tc/Tp = 0.11 An automated transfer line has 20 stations and operates with an ideal cycle time of 1.25 = 1224 pc during the 40 hour period. Solution: (a) F = np = 20(0.725 = 0.5 E = 25. the line does not achieve this rate.14 A 12-station transfer line was designed to operate with an ideal production rate = 50 parts/hour.484 40. However.6435) = 0. n(maximum Ts) = 7(1.008 and average downtime when a breakdown occurs is 10. The processing times at each station are: Station Process time (min) 1 0.15) = 8.5 + 0.35 units/hr (b) E = Tc/Tp = 1.95 + 1. Rp = 60/Tp = 60/3. exclusive of materials.15 + 0.225 = 0.015. The longest process takes 25 sec and the indexing time = 5 sec.15 + 0.10 + 1. Determine: (a) hourly production rate.50 + 0. Rp = 60/0. When a failure occurs it takes an average of 3.92 + 0.80 = 6.25 min.06 + 0. Each station has a frequency of failure p = 0.Eb = Twc/wTs = 48/(32 x 1. One station is used for loading and unloading.14.842 40.78 min.5/40 = 0.075 Tp = 0.5 = 25.92 7 0.9127 Automated Production Lines 40.06 6 0.05 = 0.50 + 1.1 = 0. (b) the average actual production rate in parts/hour.008) = 0.15 4 0.5 hours.075(3.5 + .13 A 7-station transfer line has been observed over a 40-hour period.05 min Eb = 6. since the line efficiency E = 0.80 The transfer time between stations = 6 sec.000 (installed) and will reduce downtime on the line by 25%. Solution: (a) Assume p = 0 at the manual station F = np = 1(0) + 5(.80 + 1.16 Tp = 1. will the computer system pay for 269 .5 hrs Q = 25.

and the probability of a station failure that leads to a downtime occurrence p = 0. Ignore material costs in your calculations.000/yr With computer monitoring system: Tc = 1.000 investment. Tp = 1. This is more than enough to justify the $25.00Q = $4.00(120.8/n.15 An automated transfer line is to be designed. Cost to operate line = $75H = $75(4000) = $300.8/n + 0.33) = 133. This is reduced by 25% with new system.333 units/yr Revenues = $4.7 = 1.6 = 1.7/1.8) = 0.2) = 0.000 = $53.5 = 14 stations (b) Tp = 9.0 .8/0.1. Tp = Tc + Ftd = 9.333 .75(0. Based on previous experience.7 + 0. The total work content time = 9. Rp = 60/1.2 min. and Tp = 2.8 = 33. Solution: Tc = 60/Rc = 60/50 = 1. the average downtime per occurrence = 5.8/14 + 0. Rp = 60/1.8 min and is to be divided evenly amongst the workstations.333/yr.01.2 min.333.4 min.000) = $480. Cost to operate line = same as in current system (neglecting increased cost of new system) Difference in revenues = $533.6 min.6 = 2.000 units/yr Revenues = $4. Rp = 60/Tp = 60/2.05n dTp/dn = -9.0 min.33 pc/hr Annual production Q = 4000(33.50 270 . and (b) the production rate Rp and proportion uptime E for your answer to part (a).00(133.itself within one year of operation.8/n + n(0.05(14) = 0.Tc. so that the ideal cycle time for each station = 9.0 = 30 pc/hr In the current system: Annual production Q = 4000Rp = 4000(30) = 120.0) = 9.8/n2 + 0.0 min. Use expected increase in revenues resulting from the computer system as the criterion. 40.8 min.05 = zero at minimum point n2 = 9.2 + 0.01)(5. Tp = Tc/E = 1.0 min.333) = $533. FTd = Tp .000/yr.2/.25%)(2.86 pc/hr E = 0.05 = 196 n = (196) .4 = 42. Solution: (a) Maximizing Rp is equivalent to minimizing Tp.$480.4 = 0. FTd = (1 . Determine: (a) the optimum number of stations n on the line that will maximize production rate.

manufacturing research. (6) work standards (time standards for each operation). and so forth. See Example 41. (4) identification of cutting tools and cutting conditions for machining operations. 41.. Principal activities of manufacturing engineering are: (1) process planning. assembly) and manual portions of machine cycles (e.6 What is a precedence constraint in process planning? Answer.2 MANUFACTURING ENGINEERING Define manufacturing engineering.g. even though the quoted price from the vendor is lower than the internal price? Answer. and (4) advanced manufacturing planning.7 In the make or buy decision. rolled sheet metal. (5) methods for manual operations (e.5 What is the difference between a basic process and a secondary process? Answer.1 lists the following details and decisions in process planning: (1) what processes are required and the sequence in which they are performed. Answer. (7) estimates of production costs. Table 41. (8) consideration must be given to the problem of moving materials and work-in-progress in the factory. A route sheet is a listing of the production operations and their sequence required to make a given part.41 41. molds. 271 . (3) what tools. (3) advising the product designers in design for manufacturability. dies. (2) day-to-day technical problem solving and continuous improvement. 41. Answer.1 41. A precedence constraint is a limitation on the order in which processing or assembly operations can be performed on a given workpart.. 41.1 in the text. loading and unloading a production machine).g. drawn metal bar.g. which includes evaluation of new processing technologies. why is it that purchasing a component from a vendor may cost more than producing the component internally. e.4 What is a route sheet? Answer. a hole must be drilled before it can be tapped. A basic process establishes the starting geometry of the work material. casting.8 Identify some of the important factors that should enter into the make or buy decision. 41. 41. It also lists the equipment and special tooling that is required.. (2) equipment selection. Review Questions 41. Because purchasing the component may cause idle equipment and staff in the factory that the company must still pay for. machining and sheet metal pressworking are common secondary processes.3 Identify some of the details and decisions that are included within the scope of process planning. and gages will be needed. and (9) plant layout and facilities design. What are the principal activities in manufacturing engineering? Answer. fixtures. Secondary processes are used to refine the starting geometry and transform the material into final shape and size. Manufacturing engineering is a technical staff department responsible for planning the manufacturing processes for a product and its components. for example.

11 Identify some of the enabling technologies for concurrent engineering? Answer. 272 . Concurrent engineering is an approach used by companies to reduce the time to bring a new product to market. (3) production quantity. and (4) design for cost. (f) impression die forging. (b) anodizing. Enabling technologies mentioned in the text are rapid prototyping and computer integrated manufacturing (which includes CAD/CAM). (6) supplier reliability. and (7) possible need for alternative sources. Design for life cycle means that factors relating to the product after it has been manufactured should be taken into consideration in design. (5) whether or not the component is a standard commercially available hardware item.10 What is concurrent engineering and what are its important components? Answer. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers. (k) spot welding. (5) Design parts with tolerances that are within process capability. (b) facilities planning. (o) turning. Table 41. (h) sand casting. (3) Use common parts across product lines. (c). (g) rolling. (m) tempering of martensitic steel. reliability. (7) Minimize flexible components. (e) product design. (4) Design for ease of part fabrication. (11) Eliminate or reduce adjustment required. (10) Shape parts and products for ease of packaging. (j) sintering of pressed ceramic powders. It also includes certain organizational changes which attempt to bring different functions in the company together during product design to consider all possible aspects of the product. It includes: (1) design for manufacturability. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point. and (p) ultrasonic machining. and (f). In addition. These factors include installability. 41. (2) whether the process is available internally. (2) Use standard commercially available components. 41. serviceability. 41. all correct answers must be given. (i) sheet metal stamping. 41. (d).Answer. (c) drilling with a twist drill. and disposability. (e) forward hot extrusion to produce aluminum bars. 41. (4) Product life.2 Which of the following would be considered basic processes. (2) design for quality. For each question. maintainability. and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point. (9) Use modular design. The factors include: (1) cost. as opposed to secondary processes (more than one)? (a) annealing. (d) process planning. (8) Design for ease of assembly.5 lists the following DFM principles and guidelines: (1) Minimize number of components.12 What is meant by the term design for life cycle? Answer. Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 18 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct). (l) surface grinding of hardened steel. upgradeability. and (f) solving technical problems in the production departments. 41. electronic data interchange should probably be included in the list. (d) electroplating. (c) process improvement.9 Name three of the general principles and guidelines in design for manufacturability? Answer. (a). (3) design for life cycle.1 Which of the following are the usual responsibilities of the manufacturing engineering department (more than one)? (a) advising on design for manufacturability. (n) trepanning. (6) Design the product to be foolproof during assembly. Answer. To attain a perfect score on the quiz. since each correct answer is worth 1 point.

(n) trepanning. (c) drilling with a twist drill. (h) sand casting. (c) traditional process planning. Answer. as opposed to basic processes (more than one)? (a) annealing. (b) retrieval CAPP. (l) surface grinding of hardened steel. (i). (k) spot welding. (o). (b) anodizing. (m) tempering of martensitic steel.4 Which of the following are operations to enhance physical properties (more than one)? (a) annealing. (c) drilling with a twist drill. (j) sintering of pressed ceramic powders. and (m). 41. (o) turning. (e) forward hot extrusion to produce aluminum bars. (d) electroplating. (f) impression die forging. (f). and (h). (k) spot welding. (b) anodizing. Answer. (e) forward hot extrusion to produce aluminum bars. (j) sintering of pressed ceramic powders. (f) impression die forging. (l). (j).Answer. (e). 41. (n). (l) surface grinding of hardened steel. (c). (m) tempering of martensitic steel. (d) electroplating. 41. (g) rolling. (i) sheet metal stamping. (a). and (p) ultrasonic machining.5 Which one of the following types of computer-aided process planning relies on parts classification and coding in group technology? (a) generative CAPP. (n) trepanning. (h) sand casting. (b) 273 . Answer. and (p) ultrasonic machining. or (d) none of the preceding.3 Which of the following would be considered secondary processes. (g) rolling. (i) sheet metal stamping. (g). (o) turning. and (p).

42. increase number of shifts. Short term adjustments to increase capacity include: increase employment levels.3 42.4 What are the product categories usually listed in the master production schedule. and (3) spare parts. and it is appropriate to carry inventory. Reduction of in-process inventory. an order to restock is issued when the inventory level for the given stock item declines to some point defined as the reorder point. 42. How does aggregate planning differ from the master production scheduling? Answer. usually because the item is a component of an end product subject to independent demand.10 Identify the principal objective in just-in-time production. and (3) inventory record file. 42. Independent demand means that the demand or consumption of the item is unrelated to demand for other items. The inputs to MRP are: (1) master production schedule. as the Japanese view it.9 42. authorize overtime. the master production schedule indicates how many and when of each product model within the product line are to be produced. Production rate is greater than demand rate. What is the difference between dependent and independent demand for products? Answer. End products and spare parts experience independent demand. increase shift hours. Answer. a starting material that is used on more than one component. (2) bill-of-materials file for product structure.42 42.7 Identify the inputs to the MRP processor in material requirements planning. Answer. In a reorder point system. Dependent demand refers to the fact that demand for the item is directly related to demand for something else.1 42.5 Define reorder point inventory system. Aggregate planning is scheduling by general product line. or a component that is used on more than one product. Answer.6 In MRP.8 What are some of the resource changes that can be made to increase plant capacity in the short run? Answer. Make-to-stock is the case in which the company produces to replenish inventories of products. for example. The categories are: (1) firm customer orders. Answer. and subcontracting work to outside vendors. components. or subassemblies that are used for more than one item in the next level above in the product structure. (2) sales forecasts. How is a pull system distinguished from a push system in production and inventory control? 274 . 42. 42. 42.2 PRODUCTION PLANNING AND CONTROL What is meant by the term make-to-stock production? Review Questions Answer. Common use items are materials. what are common use items? Answer.

Answer. (c). The three phases are (1) order release. (b). (d) production equipment. and (3) order progress. (d) mass production. or (e) product design. (c) cost per piece. Answer.4 Which of the following are the terms in the economic order quantity formula (name three)? (a) annual demand rate. (d) mass production quantities. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers. (c) general product lines. (c) low production quantities.range production quantities. (d) orders for maintenance and spare parts. In a pull system.1 Which one of the following terms best describes the overall function of production planning and control? (a) inventory control. (c) obsolescence. Answer. Answer. Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 17 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct). To attain a perfect score on the quiz.Answer. (b) investment.11 What are the three phases in shop floor control? Answer. (b). (e) spoilage.6 With which of the following manufacturing resources is capacity requirements planning primarily concerned (more than one)? (a) component parts. (b) and (d). and (e) mid. (d) setup. (2) order scheduling. 42.3 Inventory carrying costs include which of the following (more than one)? (a) equipment downtime. (d) holding cost. (b) independent demand items. (c) inventory storage space. and (f). (b) and (e). 42. (b) 42. 42. (d) master production schedule. (f) stock-out.5 Order point inventory systems are intended for which of the following (more than one)? (a) dependent demand items. (a). (e) sales forecasts. (e) interest rate. and (f) setup cost. (e).7 The word kanban is most closely associated with which one of the following? (a) capacity planning.2 Which of the following are the categories usually listed in the master production schedule (more than one)? (a) components used to build the final products. (b) direct labor. and (f) spare tires. authorization to produce parts originates from downstream stations. all correct answers must be given. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point. (b) batch size. and (e) raw materials. Answer. and (e). 42. 42. 42. In a push system. (b) economic order quantity. (d). Answer. (b) manufacturing logistics. (b) firm customer orders. (c) just-in-time production. (c) 275 . For each question. and (g). and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point. (c) manufacturing engineering. or (e) material requirements planning. (d). and (g) storage. Answer. authorization to produce derives from parts being produced by upstream stations and forming queues in front of the production station. since each correct answer is worth 1 point. 42.

00)(150) 2/(2 x 2500 x 200) = 0. Demand for each product is 2500 units per year.0 hr. Annual demand for the part is 15. it is desired to produce the components in batch sizes of 150 units (daily requirements for assembly). 276 .5 = 7217 units TIC at EOQ = ChQ/2 + CsuDa/Q = 0. What would the annual savings be if the product were produced in the economic order quantity? Solution: Current TIC = ChQ/2 + CsuDa/Q = 0. Determine: (a) economic order quantity and (b) total inventory costs for this situation. Determine: (a) EOQ and (b) total inventory costs for this data. To keep in-process inventories low. All of the components made on the equipment are of approximately equal value: Cp = $9. Cost of downtime on this machine is estimated at $200/hr.00))0. holding cost rate = 2. Production downtime costs an estimated $200/hr. Determine: (a) economic order quantity and (b) total inventory costs for this situation. Annual demand = 50.025 x 6.00))0.00. Each unit costs $4. cost of downtime on the affected equipment is figured at $250/hr.3 A product is produced in batches. downtime cost during changeover = $200/hr.0 hr. Answer.5 x 250(50.000/6000) = 3000 + 3000 = $6000 42.000/2981) = 2683 + 2684 = $5387 42.5 x 250/(0.06075 hr = 3.825 EOQ = (2D a Csu/Ch)0.8 The term machine loading refers most closely to which one of the following? (a) assigning jobs to a work center.00)(2981/2) + 2 x 200(20. Annual holding cost per part made on the equipment.00)(2000/2) + 2.5 = 6000 units (b) TIC = ChQ/2 + CsuDa/Q = 0.00)(7217/2) + 2. (b) floor foundation in the factory.42. cost per unit = $6. Annual demand is 60.5 hr. In how many minutes must the changeover (setup) between batches be completed in order for 100 units to be the economic order quantity? Solution: EOQ = (2D a CdtTsu /hCp)0.00 and the annual holding cost rate = 25%. Solution: (a) EOQ = (2D a Csu/Ch)0.5%/month.2 Given: annual demand for product X is 20.000 x 2.25 x 4.000 units. Holding cost rate = 30%/yr. Solution: (a) EOQ = (2D a Csu/Ch)0. Ch = $1.5 = (2 x 50.000 x 2 x 200/(12 x .000/7217) = 4330 + 4330 = $8660 Savings = 16.5 Current changeover (setup) time on a certain machine = 3.000/2000) = 1200 + 15.825 .000 units. Setup cost to produce this product is $300.5 = (2 x 60. or (e) sequencing jobs through a machine. changeover (setup) time between products averages 2.025(6.00/unit.30 x 4.000 units. (d) releasing orders to the shop.00))0.65 min. and unit cost of the product = $4.30(4.3(9.8660 = $8165 42. Batch size = 2000 units. (a) Problems Inventory Control 42.process in the factory. and annual holding cost rate = 30%.5 (EOQ)2 = 2Da CdtTsu/hCp Tsu = hCp(EOQ)2/2D a Cdt = 0.000 x 300/(.625 = $16.5 = 2981 units (b) TIC = ChQ/2 + CsuDa/Q = 12 x 0.00.00)(6000/2) + 300(60.30(4.00.1 A product is made-to-stock.5 x 250(50.25(4.000 units.5 = (2 x 20. 42. Setup time to run a batch = 2. (c) managing work-in.4 A certain piece of production equipment is used to produce various components for an assembled product of the XYZ Company.

00(4243/2) + 3.7 Quantity requirements are to be planned for component C2 in product P1.60 42. compared to the economic order quantity? Solution: (a) EOQ = (2D a Csu/Ch)0.000 x 50/1000 = $4.05) 0.447.6.05(1000/2) + 50(40.6 The two-bin approach is used to control inventory for a particular low-cost component.60 + 223.05. Solution: (a) EOQ = (2D a Csu/Ch)0.000/1000) = 250 + 2000 = $2250.79 Material Requirements Planning 42. Required deliveries for P1 are given in Figure 42. manufacturing.7. determine the time-phased requirements for M2.000/8944) = 223.1) = $20.5 = (2 x 15. Cost to order the component is around $50.00 . Each bin holds 1000 units.21 = $1802.00 For the EOQ = 8944. C2.10 = $774.000 x 20/1.000/4243) = 2121.05(8944/2) + 50(40.5 Ch = 2 x 40.14 = $4242.21 Additional cost = 2250. EOQ = (2 x 15.50 + 2121.00(775/2) + 20(15.00) 0. and S1 to meet the master schedule for P1.000/775) = 387. Csu = CdtTsu = 200(0.00 x 200/1. determine: (c) EOQ and (b) total inventory costs.000 x 50/0.1 hr. Solution: Period P1 Requirements Order Release S1 Requirements Order Release C2 Requirements Order Release 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 50 50 100 400 8 50 75 75 9 75 100 100 10 100 50 200 300 75 300 400 200 277 .00 x 200(15. Ignore demand for P1 beyond period 10. and assembly lead times are as follows: Item identification: Lead time (weeks): P1 1 S1 2 C2 1 M2 2 Given the product structure in Figure 42. Assume no common use items and all on-hand inventories and scheduled receipts are zero. TIC = 0. if the changeover time could be reduced to six minutes.000 x 50/Ch)0. Ordering.3 → 8944 pc (c) For the two-bin approach in which Q = 1000. (a) What is the imputed holding cost per unit for this data? (b) If the actual annual holding cost per unit is only 5 cents. The annual usage of the component is 40.5 1000 = (2 x 40. what lot size should be ordered? (c) How much more is the current two-bin approach costing the company annually.000 units.50 + 387.00 annually (b) Given Ch = $0.61 = $447.64 (c) If Tsu = 6 min = 0.00) 0.5 = 4243 pc (b) TIC = ChQ/2 + CsuDa/Q = 1.Also.5 = 8944.2.5 = 775 pc (d) TIC = 1.000 x 3. EOQ = (2 x 40. TIC = 0. Use a format similar to Figure 42.

Use a format similar to Figure 42. C5.7. Required deliveries for P1 are given in Figure 42. Ordering. determine the time-phased requirements for M5. On-hand inventories are: 200 units for M5 and 100 units for C5.8 Requirements are to be planned for component C5 in product P1. Assume no common use items.6. manufacturing. Ignore demand for P1 beyond period 10. Solution: Period P1 Requirements On-hand: 0 Net Requirements Order Release S2 Requirements On hand: 0 Net Requirements Order Release C5 Requirements On hand: 100 Net Requirements 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 50 50 75 150 150 200 400 400 9 75 75 100 200 200 10 100 100 50 100 100 150 300 300 100 200 100 100 278 .8 Solve the previous problem except that the following is known in addition to the information given: scheduled receipts of M5 are 250 units in period (week) 3 and 50 units in period (week) 4. zero for S2.M2 Requirements Order Release 200 300 200 400 300 400 42. and S2 to meet the master schedule for P1. and assembly lead times are as follows: Item identification: Lead time (weeks): P1 1 S2 1 C5 3 M5 2 Given the product structure in Figure 42.2. Solution: Period P1 Requirements On-hand: 0 Net Requirements Order Release S2 Requirements On hand: 0 Net Requirements Order Release C5 Requirements On hand: 100 Net Requirements Order Release M5 Requirements On hand: 200 Net Requirements Order Release 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 50 50 75 150 150 200 400 400 9 75 75 100 200 200 10 100 100 50 100 100 150 300 300 100 200 100 100 100 100 100 0 400 300 300 100 200 400 400 400 0 200 42.

0 7. Product 2: Time per batch = 5.0 13.0 + 750(4/60) = 6 + 50 = 56 hr. Solution: Time to produce each product is the same as given in the preceding solution.0 20.0 ______ 128. The demand and other data for the products are given as follows: Product 1 2 3 4 Weekly demand 750 900 400 400 Setup time 6 hr 5 hr 7 hr 6 hr Operation time 4. five days per week and there are currently 3 work centers in the department.0 min.333 ______ 152. This is fewer than the number of hours required.333 hr.Order Release M5 Requirements Scheduled Receipts On hand: 200 Net Requirements Order Release 100 100 250 450 -350 300 300 300 50 350 -100 400 400 100 300 0 0 Order Scheduling 42.333 Hrs/product 56.333 Totals 42.333 hr Product 4: Time per batch = 6.11 In the previous problem. this will require an additional setup 279 .0 hours per shift). let us propose to produce products 1 and 3 on work centers 1 and 2 and Products 2 and 4 on work centers 3 and 4.0 min. To meet the weekly production.333 20.0 ______ 152.0 min. Solution: Determine time to produce each product. Propose a way of scheduling the machines to meet the weekly demand.0 + 900(3/60) = 5 + 45 = 50 hr Product 3: Time per batch = 7. overtime must be used.0 min. under the assumption that a single setup is required for each product.333 + 26 = 152.0 50. Available hours per week on 4 work centers if normal hours are assumed = 4 x (5 x 7) = 140 hr. The following schedule is proposed: Work center I II III Product 1 2 3 4 Quantity 750 900 400 400 Setup hours 6. To meet the weekly production.0 46. This is fewer than the number of hours required.0 6. The plant normally operates one shift (7.333 = 20. In both cases.0 5. In order to equalize the workload among machines as much as possible.0 + 400(2/60) = 7 + 13. overtime must be used.10 Four products are to be manufactured in Department A. and it is desired to determine how to allocate resources in that department to meet the required demand for these products for a certain week. 2. 3.333 26.0 50.0 _____ 24.333 Hrs/wk center 56.0 Run hours 50.0 + 400(3/60) = 6 + 20 = 26 hr Total hours for all four products = 56 + 50 + 20. Available hours per week on 3 work centers if normal hours are assumed = 3 x (5 x 7) = 105 hr. assuming a single setup for each product: Product 1: Time per batch = 6. 3. propose a way of scheduling to meet the weekly demand if there were four machines instead of three.0 45.

05 QIII) = 0.15) .B .0 .06667(750 .0 + 0. There are three orders (A.0 + 400(2/60) = 76.0 Run hours 35.0 + 0.7 = 2 Sequence = C .50 ______ 163. Work center III: TIII = 5.333 .0 5.0 + QI(4/60) = 6.33 40. The following table indicates the remaining process time and production calendar due date for each order: Order A B C Remaining process time 5 days 16 days 7 days Due date Day 25 Day 34 Day 24 Determine the sequence of the orders that would be scheduled using: (a) first-come-first-serve.80 13.B (d) Least slack time: Order A slack time = (25 .0 7.0.50 9.0 + 0. Solution: (a) FCFS: sequence = A . We next want to equalize the workload on work centers III and IV with Products 2 and 4.0 .10 = 710 TI = 5.333 .05(900 . and (e) critical ratio.A 280 .50 40.06667Q I Work center II: TII =6. (d) least slack time.A .5.B (c) Shortest processing time: sequence = A .20 20.16 = 3 Order C slack time = (24 .B .05 QIII = 76.0 = 71.0 + 0.05 QIII Work center IV: TIV = 5.06667Q I = 76.0 6.20 14. (b) earliest due date.0 + 0. (c) shortest processing time. B.10 QI = 76.13334 QI = 76.50 14.06667(528) = 41.33 Totals 42.C .0.06667 QI) = 0. The orders arrived in the sequence A-B-C at the work center.33 Hrs/wk center 41.15) .00 ______ 163.05(710) = 40.0 6.QIII) + 6.0. Work center I: TI = 6.15) .20 hr TII = 76.0 + 400(3/60) = 76.0.0 + 0.05Q III 2(0. and C) to be processed at a particular work center.50 20.80 20. The following table summarizes the production at each work center: Work center I II III IV Product 1 1 3 2 2 4 Quantity 528 222 400 710 190 400 Setup hours 6.0.0 5.0.50 hr.06667Q I Setting TI = TII: 6.333 QI = 70.33 Hrs/product 41.333 .6.06667(528) = 41.0 + QIII(3/60) = 5.QI) + 7.0 = 70.333/0.0 .We want to equalize the workload on work centers I and II with Products 1 and 3.333 .00 ______ 128.0/0.0 + 0.05 QIII Setting TIII = TIV: 5.06667Q I 2(0.05(710) = 40.0 QI = 71.33 35.0 + 0.C (b) Earliest due date: sequence = C .50 hr TII = 76.133 hr.50 26.12 The current date in the production calendar of the XYZ Company is day 15.0 _____ 35.13 40.20 41.13334 = 528 TI = 6.5 = 5 Order B slack time = (34 .0 .

A 281 .(e) Critical ratio: Order A critical ratio = (25 .C .0 Order B critical ratio = (34 .286 Sequence = B .1875 Order C critical ratio = (24 .15)/7 = 1.15)/16 = 1.15)/5 = 2.

5 Identify the two types of control charts for variables. Answer. The two charts are: (1) p chart for proportion of defects in a sample. 43. 43. To attain a perfect score on the quiz. (b). The limits are defined as the process mean ± 3 standard deviations. and (e) reliability. Process capability is the limits of the random variations of the process when it is in statistical control. 282 . In control charts for attributes. (d). the characteristic of interest is identified as being acceptable of not acceptable. and (4) points consistently near the upper or lower limits.3 Define process capability. Answer. 43. called assignable variation. measurements of the characteristic of interest are made. (d) product weight. (2) trends or cyclical patterns in the data. (b) location of ON/OFF switch. and (2) freedom from deficiencies. Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 12 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct). 43.2 QUALITY CONTROL What are the two principal aspects of product quality? Answer. Answer. rather than a freedom from deficiency (more than one)? (a) components within tolerance. and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point. How is a process operating in statistical control distinguished from one that is not? Answer. Review Questions 43. The two charts are: (1) x chart for sample means and (2) R chart for ranges. and (2) c chart for count of defects in a sample. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers. since each correct answer is worth 1 point.7 When interpreting a control chart. In control charts for variables.43 43. For each question. The two quality aspects are: (1) product features. This indicates that something is wrong with the process.4 What is the difference between control charts for variables and control charts for attributes? Answer.1 Which of the following would be classified as examples of a product feature.6 What are the two basic types of control charts for attributes? Answer.1 43. (c) no missing parts. 43. The process in statistical control is characterized by only random variations. A process that is out of control exhibits additional variation that is not normal. and (e). Problems are indicated by the following: (1) x or R lie outside the LCL or UCL limits. (3) sudden changes in average. what does one look for to identify problems? Answer. all correct answers must be given.

(b) number of reworked parts in a sample. what proportion of parts would fall outside the tolerance limits? Solution: (a) Given process mean µ = 6. (b) process mean plus three standard deviations. In a control chart.6. or (d) proportion of defects in a sample. the design specification on the part is: diameter = 6. Answer. (c) and (e).004 cm.004 = +2. then the percentage of parts that are within tolerance will be closest to which one of the following when the process is operating in statistical control? (a) 35%. (c).263 .255 ± 3(0.004) = 6.2. z = (6. Answer. (c) Which of the following identify an out-of-control condition in a control chart (more than one)? (a) consistently increasing value of x .004 = -4. (b) mean value of part characteristic of interest. (c) number of defects in a sample. On the lower side of the tolerance limit. (c) radius of a cylindrical part. (c) loss function.255 ± 0. and (e) robust design.255 cm. 43. Answer.2 In the previous problem. Answer.250 ±0. (a) What proportion of parts fall outside the tolerance limits? (b) If the process were adjusted so that its mean diameter = 6. (d) Pareto priority index. (e) Which of the following principles and/or approaches are generally credited to G.263.4 43.50. (c) R outside the control limits of the R chart. Answer.013 cm. and (d). (b) The R chart is used for which one of the following product or part characteristics? (a) number of rejects in the sample.0. Solution: Process capability PC = µ ± 3σ = 6.43. or (d) range of sample values.2 If the product tolerance is set so that the process capability index = 1.237 . Taguchi (more than one)? (a) acceptance sampling. (c) 95%.004 cm and tolerance limits 2. (d) 99%. (d) Which one of the following best describes the situations for which the c chart is most suited? (a) control of defective parts. Problems Process Capability and Statistical Tolerancing 43. using the standard normal distribution.1 An automatic turning process is set up to produce parts with a mean diameter = 6.255)/0. The process is in statistical control and the output is normally distributed with a standard deviation = 0. Determine the process capability. (b) control charts. (c) upper design tolerance limit. (b) 65%. (b) points near the central line.5 43.255)/0.255 cm and σ = 0.237 to 2.6 43. or (e) 100%.7 Answer.243 to 6. and (d) x outside the control limits of the x chart.012 cm The upper and lower limits of the process capability range are: 6. (a). or (d) upper value of the maximum range R. z = (6.267 cm 43.3 43. the upper control limit is set equal to which one of the following? (a) process mean.00 283 . Conclusion: there are virtually no defects on the lower side of the tolerance.250 cm and the standard deviation remained the same. On the upper side of the tolerance limit.

0 .02%.28.3 A sheet metal bending operation produces bent parts with an included angle = 92. Pr(z > 3.6 ± 1.77 Using tables of the standard normal distribution.53 = +2. the design specification on the part is: diameter = 28.1°. what proportion of parts would fall outside the tolerance limits? (c) With the adjusted mean at 28. Pr(z < -3.41° to 92.0006 The proportion of defects with the current process mean = 0.0 mm and σ = 0.0001 = 0.23) = 92. Solution: (a) Given process mean µ = 28. Using tables of the standard normal distribution. Using tables of the standard normal distribution.004 = +3.64 Using tables of the standard normal distribution.6)/0.5 In the previous problem. z = (6. 0.25) = 0. using the standard normal distribution.237 to 6.01.53 = -3. The process is in statistical control and the values of included angle are normally distributed with a standard deviation = 0.0 . (a) Determine the process capability.004 = -3. On the lower side of the tolerance limit.250)/0. 43. (a) What proportion of parts fall outside the tolerance limits? (b) If the process were adjusted so that its mean diameter = 28.1 ± 3(0.64) = 0.0 mm.250)/0.0227 The proportion of defects with the current process mean = 0.263.6 mm and σ = 0.258 284 .25.25. determine the value of the process capability index.6.53 = -4.6)/0.6. Solution: (a) PC = 92.79°. (b) Given process mean µ = 28.0°.00) = 0. z = (30. Pr(z > 2. The process is in statistical control and the output is normally distributed with standard deviation = 0. z = (6.77.53 mm and tolerance limits 26. Pr(z > 2.0002 = 0.01 to 30.53 mm.28.0 .Using tables of the standard normal distribution.0001 On the upper side of the tolerance limit. (b) If µ = 90° T = 92° .4 A plastic extrusion process produces extrudate with a critical cross-section dimension = 28.0)/0.0001 + 0.53) = 28.53 = +3.0 to 30. The design specification on the angle = 90 ±2°.6 ± 3(0.0/(6 x 0.77) = approx.0 ±2. Solution: Process capability PC = µ ± 3σ = 28.19 mm.25) = 0. z = (30.53 mm and tolerance limits 26. (c) Process capability index PCI = 4. On the upper side of the tolerance limit.0 mm.0 mm and the standard deviation remained the same.77) = approx.0006 = 0.69°.250 cm and σ = 0. z = (26. Conclusion: there are virtually no defects on the lower side of the tolerance. (b) If the process could be adjusted so that its mean = 90. Pr(z < -3.12%. determine the value of the process capability index.0 mm. On the lower side of the tolerance limit.6 mm.0 mm.237 . (b) Given process mean µ = 6.88° = 4° PCI = 4°/(6 x 0.0041 = 0. The upper and lower limits of the process capability range are: 91.0227 = 2. z = (26.0041 The proportion of defects with the current process mean = 0.0001 The proportion of defects with the current process mean = 0. Using tables of the standard normal distribution.9 → virtually no defects. On the lower side of the tolerance limit. On the upper side of the tolerance limit.59 mm The upper and lower limits of the process capability range are: 27.28.004 cm and tolerance limits 6. 43.0006.263 . 0. Pr(z > 3.41%.0012 = 0.0006 + 0.0)/0.1° ± 0.23°.27%. Determine the process capability.0 to 30.28.53) = 1.0 .23°) = 2. 43.

010 in. Does a statistical tolerancing approach apply in this situation? Why? Solution: If statistical tolerancing were used. The dimensions of the individual parts are each 0.0001 = 10-4 Ti = 10-2 = 0. All parts will have identical bilateral tolerances.9 An assembly consists of three parts stacked to form a final dimension of 30. Given that the part tolerances are to be a constant proportion of the respective dimensions.0333 mm . Thus. significantly beyond the specified tolerance. Let us apportion the tolerances among parts in proportion to their size. which would yield Ta = 20(± 0. T1 + T2 + T3 = T + 2T + 3T = 6T = 0. determine the tolerance for each part using: (a) worst case design and (b) statistical tolerancing.040 in.50 cm dimension are parallel. Assume the opposite sides of each part on the 2. Expressing this as a bilateral tolerance.010 in. The absence of independent processes making the individual components is a violation of one of the fundamental assumptions of statistical tolerancing. Interpret this to be ± 0. T1 = 0.8 The assembly in Figure P43.5 = (0.0004 = 4 Ti2 Ti2 = 0. Solution: Dimension C is determined by two middle parts. 43.0667 mm. whose process capabilities are proportional to their respective dimensions.5 Ta2 = 4 Ti2 (0. Ta = ± 0.002) = ± 0. All of the parts are cut from the same sheet metal coil.20 mm.005) 2 = 0. Ta = (20 x 0.. (b) Statistical tolerancing: Ta = (4 Ti2)0. and 15 mm. and (b) using a statistical tolerancing approach. with a bilateral tolerance Ta = 0. Determine the tolerance (a) under a worst case design approach.00707 cm PC = µ ± 3σ = 2(2.0004/4 = 0. 43. Solution: (a) Worst case tolerancing: Ta = 0.0 mm with tolerance = ±0. so that the thick assembly has the same profile.00032) 0.005 in.0212 cm 43.020 inch (±0. The relevant part dimensions making up the 30 mm total are 5 mm. The sheet metal blanks are all cut with the same punch and die to the desired profile.00005) 0.40 mm. T1 = T. If each part is made from an independent process with process means for part thickness all set to 2.0042)0.100 mm.6 An assembly consists of four components stacked to create an overall dimension of 2.00895 in.00005 σa = (0. which is well within the specified tolerance of ± 0.010.250 ±0.002 inch.010 inch).020) 2 = 0. specifically the rolling process making the starting piece of sheet metal from which the laminating pieces are fabricated.000 ± 0. T = 0.8 has a critical assembly dimension C = 5. T3 = 3T.0667 mm.500) ± 3(0.40/6 = 0.5 = 0. σa2 = 2 σi2 = 2(0.7 An assembly is made by stacking 20 flat pieces of sheet metal to produce a thick laminated structure.00707) = 5.005 cm.005 in.500 cm and standard deviation = 0. However. It would be more appropriate to use worst case tolerancing here. T2 = 2T.0667 mm = ± 0. whose thickness specification is 1/16 inch ±0.43.625 inch. Interpret this to be ± 0. T2 = 0.5 = 0.200 mm = ± 0.0179 in. Parts are produced by independent manufacturing operations.020/4 = 0.000 cm. what is the process capability of the critical dimension C.40 mm. 285 . T3 = 0. 10 mm. Solution: (a) Worst case: Ti = 0.500 inch.1333 mm = ± 0..010 inch. The thickness of the final assembly is specified as 1. this would not be a good application of statistical tolerancing because the process making the components is the same process.

10 Figure P43.17 + 9.23 Solution: x = Σ x /m = (9. 286 .7417 = 0. The calculated values of x and R for each sample are given below (measured values are in mm).373(0.0. Again. Therefore.24) = 9.5 = (8(0.0.26 + 0.23)/10 = 9.30 + 0.0.17 + 0.0.20 R = Σ R/7 = (0.20 + 9.27 + 0. T3 = 0.20 .1105 mm.2) 2)0. Given that assembly PCI = 1.5 = (0. T2 = 2T. Each part used in the assembly.17 0.22 + 9.27 6 9.3207 mm = ± 0.40 = (T1 2 + T22 + T32)0.5 = 0.5 = (14T2)0.15 0. T2 = 0. 43.5 = (T2 + 4T2 + 9T2)0.12 + 9. Solution: Given that parts PCI = 1.28 + 9.2/6 = 0.20 + 9.19 7 9.1069 mm = ± 0. Critical dimension C = 5(10) .1 mm for the thickness.20 0.20 + 0.6 mm = ± 0.2895 mm. Critical dimension C = 5(10) .1069 mm.19 + 9. The PCI for the individual parts is still 1.373(0.2/6 = 0.21 8 9.24) = 9. then Ti = 6σ = 0.10 shows an assembly in which the critical dimension is C.5 = 0. determine the recommended tolerance for C using: (a) worst case design and (b) statistical tolerancing.19 + 0.5.0943 mm Ta = 9(0.283 mm.5 = (0.32) 0. except that the process capability index for the assembly is a more conservative 1. and UCL for the x and R charts.0535 mm .22 0.24 0.23)/10 = 0. Ta = 0. Thus.24 (a) x chart: x = 9.15 + 9.28 0.26 5 9. with process capability = ±0. has a thickness = 10.19 0.2) = 1. Solution: Given that PCI = 1.03333) 2)0.5 PC = 1.24 + 0. (b) Construct the control charts and plot the sample data on the charts.20 0.7417 T T = 0.32 9 9.80 mm.24 2 9.24 + 9.(b) Statistical tolerancing: Ta = 0. 43.5 = (T2 + (2T)2 + (3T)3)0. (a) Worst case tolerancing: there are 8 parts that determine critical dimension C. let us apportion the tolerances among parts in proportion to their size. (b) Statistical tolerancing: Ta = (8Ti2)0.0 mm.2138 mm = ± 0. Ta = 1.40/3.0.21 + 0. then Ti = 6σ = 0.2 mm and σ = 0.8485 = ± 0. Ta = 8Ti = 8(0. Given that the process capability index for the parts PCI = 1.30 4 9.17 3 9.0. T1 = T. including the base part.1069 T1 = 0.11 Solve part (b) of the previous problem.0333 mm.5 = (8(0.40 mm.20 mm = CL LCL = x . each with independent variability.A2 R = 9.566 mm = ± 0. UCL = x + A2 R = 9.5 = 3.2 mm and σ = 0. (a) Determine the values of the center.12 Ten samples of size n = 8 have been collected from a process in statistical control.0333 mm.32 + 0. s x R 1 9. and the dimension of interest has been measured for each part.1604 mm.0943) = 0.3(10) = 20 mm.5.3(10) = 20 mm.008889) 0.23 0.12 0. T3 = 3T.21 + 0.424 mm Control Charts 43. and the PCI for the assembly will also be 1.5 σa = 9 σa Statistical tolerancing: σa = (8σi2)0. LCL.21 10 9.

0133) = 1.004 + 0. (b) Student exercise.013 + 0.00998 cm In nine samples of size n = 10.577(0.027) = 0. and the mean of the ranges of the samples is R = 0.0133) = 0. 43.0205 cm UCL = D4 R = 1.419(0. the grand mean of the samples is x = 100 for the characteristic of interest. (b) Student exercise.5.027) = 6.0133) = 0.0133 = CL LCL = D3 R = 0. the average value of the sample means is x = 6.014 4 1.011 + 0.008 + 0.995 0.0133) = 0.15 n /3 = 0.027) = 6.A2 R = 1.860 + 0.9923 in.0133 (a) x chart: x = 1.076(0.000 + 0. 43.002 + 0.999 0. (a) Determine the values of the center.006)/7 = 1. s x R 1 1.027 cm.860 cm = CL LCL = x .000 R = Σ R/7 = (0.860 .860 cm for the dimension of interest. = CL LCL = x .998 + 1.996 + 0.027) 7 /3 = 0.011 3 0.010 2 0.0.4474 mm.924(0.R chart: R = 0. LCL.0281 in. (c) What is your best estimate of the standard deviation of the process? Solution: (a) x chart: x = 6.996 0.114(0.999 + 0.136(0. Determine: (a) lower and upper control limits for the x chart and (b) lower and upper control limits for the R chart.0133 = CL LCL = D3 R = 0 UCL = D4 R = 2. R chart: R = 0.419(0.006 0.14 In 12 samples of size n = 7. UCL = D4 R = 2.020 + 0. UCL = x + A2 R = 1.0326 mm.013 7 1.13 Seven samples of 5 parts each have been collected from an extrusion process that is in statistical control.0519 cm (c) The x chart is based on ± 3 σx/ n Therefore. and the diameter of the extrudate has been measured for each part.000 in.027 = CL LCL = D3 R = 0.020 5 0.998 0.014 + 0.0077 in.419(0. A2 R = 3 σx/ n σx = A2 R 43.017)/7 = 0.027) = 0.8713 cm (b) R chart: R = 0. The calculated values of x and R for each sample are given below (measured values are in inches).008 6 0.24) = 0. (b) Construct the control charts and plot the sample data on the charts.004 0.0.577(0. Determine: (a) lower and upper 287 .010 + 0.017 Solution: x = Σ x /m = (1.995 + 1.002 0.114(0.8487 cm UCL = x + A2 R = 6. and the mean of the ranges of the samples is R = 8.A2 R = 6.000 . and UCL for x and R charts.

298 43.5) = 102.03545) = 0.308(8.777(8.83)/n = 5. Solution: p = 2.09 .1507 43.17 x 0.A2 R = 100 .11 .7596. Determine the center.13 = CL LCL = p .24.2 → 259 288 . 89) / 25 = 0.11 + 3 0 .14 = 6 p (1 − p ) / n = 6 0 . Determine the center.3 p (1 − p ) / n = 0. 89) / 25 = 0.0196 = 36(0.17)(0.3 0.024 UCL = p + 3 p (1 − p ) / n = 0.223(8. UCL = x + A2 R = 100 + 0.11(0.0202) = 0.09 .0202) = 0.09 (0. UCL = D4 R = 1. p = 11.17 (0 .24 .618.3(0.5(UCL + LCL) = 0.5 = CL LCL = D3 R = 0.10 = 0.87 ) / 90 = 0.03545) = 0. (c) Based on the data given. Determine the center.078 → 0 UCL = p + 3 p (1 − p ) / n = 0.0796/0.75/25 = 0.0.236 43. (b) R chart: R = 8. Solution: p = 0.5) 10 /3 = 2.11(0.13 .8955. 13(0 . The total number of parts in these ten samples was 900 and the total number of defects counted was 117. LCL and UCL for the p chart.10) = 0.1045. LCL and UCL for the p chart.LCL = 0.3(0.0.3 p (1 − p ) / n = 0. 91) / 90 = 0.18 The yield of good chips during a certain step in silicon processing of integrated circuits averages 91%. and UCL for the p chart that might be used for this process.83 ) / n (0.308(8. A2 R = 3 σx/ n σx = A2 R 43.0796/n n = 5.7/90 = 0. 13(0 .11 + 3(0.11 + 3(0.0626) = 0. (c) The x chart is based on ± 3 σx/ n Therefore.83/n) 0. estimate the standard deviation of the process? Solution: (a) x chart: x = 100 = CL LCL = x .5) = 15. 91) / 90 = 0.75.11 + 3 0 .87 ) / 90 = 0.09 = CL LCL = p .17 UCL .0196 = 259.5(.308(8. Determine the sample size n that is used with this control chart.3 p (1 − p ) / n = 0.11 .19 The upper and lower control limits for a p chart are: LCL = 0. Solution: Use p = 1 . A p chart is to be constructed.24 + . and the average number of defects per sample was 2. Solution: d = 117/10 = 11.3(0.13 .19 and UCL = 0.control limits for the x chart and (b) lower and upper control limits for the R chart.09 + 3(0. The number of chips per wafer is 200.91 = 0.382. Six samples of 25 parts each have been collected. LCL.16 n /3 = 0.0.11 = CL LCL = p .0626) = -0.14) 2 = 62 (0.17 Ten samples of equal size are taken to prepare a p chart.7.3 0 .09 (0.11 + 3 0.5) = 1.3 0 .5) = 97.0293 UCL = p + 3 p (1 − p ) / n = 0.

95 ) / n (0.3 p (1 − p ) / n = 0 Therefore.05 LCL = p .5(.3 c = 116 . p = 3 p (1 − p ) / n 0.05 = 3 0.10 + 0) = 0. 05( 0.10.4275/0.05) 2 = 0. Solution: CL = 116 LCL = c .05)(0.21 Twelve cars were inspected after final assembly.5(UCL + LCL) = 0.3 116 = 83.7 → 83 UCL = c + 3 c = 116 + 3 116 = 148.0025 = 32 (0.3 → 148 289 .4275/n n = 0.0025 = 171 43.95)/n = 0.43. Determine the center and upper and lower control limits for the c chart that might be used in this situation. Solution: p = 0. Determine the minimum possible sample size n that is compatible with this control chart. The number of defects found ranged between 87 and 139 defect per car with an average of 116.20 The upper and lower control limits for a p chart are: LCL = 0 and UCL = 0.

Answer.. The desirable features include: high resolution. It is a measurement procedure that is absent of systematic errors. and low cost. Accuracy is the degree to which the measured value agrees with the true value of the quantity of interest. Gaging determines whether the product characteristic (e. The rule of 10 means that the measuring instrument or gage must be ten times more precise than the object (part) being inspected.g. time.11 What is meant by the term graduated measuring device? Answer. length). 44. 44.g. 290 . What is meant by the term calibration? Answer. 44. 44. Precision in measurement is the degree to which random errors are minimized. 44. temperature. and (2) feedback of data to adjust the process. electric current. Besides good accuracy and precision.1 MEASUREMENT AND INSPECTION How is measurement distinguished from inspection? Answer.10 Give an example of a non-contact inspection technique. What are these possible actions? Answer. dimension) satisfies the specification or not. In measurement. In inspection. a product characteristic is examined to see if it conforms to design specifications. and electrical field techniques.4 What is accuracy in measurement? Answer. ease of calibration. Non-contact inspection techniques include machine vision..8 What is the rule of 10? Answer. Calibration means checking the measuring instrument against a known standard. 44. what are the desirable attributes and features of a measuring instrument? Answer. high reliability. 44.3 What are the six fundamental quantities in metrology? Answer. wide operating range.6 44. mass. The six quantities are: length. A graduated measuring device has markings (called graduations) on a linear or angular scale to measure an object's feature of interest (e.5 44. Review Questions 44. Measuring determines the actual value of the characteristic. speed of response.2 How does gaging differ from measuring? Answer. and light radiation.44 44.9 Automated inspection can be integrated with the manufacturing process to accomplish some action. Possible actions discussed in text are: (1) parts sortation. laser measuring methods.7 What is precision in measurement? Answer. an unknown quantity is compared with a known standard and a value of the quantity is obtained using an accepted and consistent system of units.

(c) light radiation. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point. A photodetector on the far side of the object senses the light beam during its sweep except for the short time when it is interrupted by the object. all correct answers must be given. The scanning laser system uses a laser beam deflected by a rotating mirror to produce a beam of light that sweeps past an object. or (g) United States.14 Describe a scanning laser system. (b) 44. and (2) stylus-type electronic instruments which measure average roughness. the x-y-z coordinates are recorded. Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 28 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct). radiation (X-ray). (f) Russia. and (e) units are subdivided decimally. 44. 44. (b) length. Answer. (c) Germany.15 What is a binary vision system? Answer. To attain a perfect score on the quiz. (e) Panama. and ultrasonic techniques (high frequency sound). A CMM is an automated measuring machine consisting of a contact probe and a means to position the probe in three dimensions relative to workpart features and surfaces. and converts from time to a linear dimension. (g) 291 . 44. (b) France. For each question. (d) Japan.2 Which of the following are attributes of the “metric system” of linear measurement (more than one)? (a) based on astronomical distances.1 In measurement and inspection for manufacturing. (d) mass. A microprocessor system measures the time interruption that is related to the size of the object in the path of the laser beam. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers. Answer. 0 or 1). since each correct answer is worth 1 point. In a binary vision system. the light intensity of each pixel is reduced to either of two values (black or white. (d) rational prefixes for units.16 Name some of the non-optical non-contact sensor technologies available for inspection. (d) and (e). Common methods are: (1) comparison of the specimen surface with standard test blocks having known surface roughness values. Answer.3 Which one of the following countries does not embrace the International System of units? (a) China.13 What is a coordinate measuring machine? Answer. inductance). Answer. (b) defined in terms of the human body. This time period can be measured quickly with great accuracy. 44. The technologies include: electrical fields (capacitance. (e) temperature. or (f) time.44. and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point. Answer. which one of the following fundamental physical quantities are we most concerned with? (a) electric current. (c) originated in Great Britain. when the probe contacts the part. 44. 44.12 What are the common methods for assessing surface roughness? Answer.

and (d) sortation of good parts from defects. and (i). Answer. and (e).44. (d) shaft diameter. (f) sine bar. (e) micrometers. (c) master gage. (d) micrometer. (b).10 44. (c) and (d). Answer. (c) granite. Answer. Which one of the following is the most important application of vision systems? (a) inspection. and (h) ultrasonic techniques. (c) divider. (d) checks minimum material condition. (b) coordinate measuring machine.5 44. (d) machine vision. Which of the following are contact sensing methods used in inspection (more than one)? (a) calipers. Answer. or (d) visual guidance and control of a robotic manipulator.11 44. (d). (b) gaging. The second of these inspections uses which one of the following: (a) destructive testing. (b). (a). and (e) surface roughness. (b) and (d) are mentioned in the text. (a). (c) 100% perfect quality. (b) object identification.destructive testing. Answer. Which of the following are examples of contact inspection (more than one)? (a) calipers. A surface plate is most typically made of which one of the following materials? (a) aluminum oxide ceramic. Answer. (b) feedback of data to adjust the process. (b) dial indicator.12 44. (c) measuring. (d). (a). Answer. (b).9 44. (h) surface plate. Answer. or (e) checks minimum size.6 44. (g) snap gages. (c) part length. (g). (e) outside calipers. (d) hard polymers. (b) limit gage. (b) cast iron.7 44. and (f) X-ray radiation. (d) machine vision. (c) dial indicators. and (e) snap gage. In a GO/NO-GO gage. (c) Which of the following are graduated measuring instruments (more than one)? (a) bevel protractor. (c) safety monitoring. (b) checks maximum material condition. and (i) vernier caliper. or (e) stainless steel. (b) coordinate measuring systems. (b) Which of the following are likely to be GO/NO-GO gages (more than one)? (a) gage blocks. (c) laser techniques. (b) Automated 100% inspection can be integrated with the manufacturing process to accomplish which of the following (more than one): (a) better design of products. (d) plug gage. or (d) non. (e). (c) checks maximum size. and (g). An outside micrometer would be appropriate in the measurement of which of the following (more than one)? (a) hole depth. (c). (b). (e) micrometer. Answer. (b) hole diameter. and (e).13 292 . (a) 44. (g) steel rule.4 The two basic types of inspection are inspection by variables and inspection by attributes. which one of the following best describes the function of the GO gage? (a) checks limit of maximum tolerance.8 44. (f) scanning laser systems. Answer.

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