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Mid Term Review MAN 4301 With the aging of its workforce, America is facing a demographic shift as significant

as the massive entry of women into the workforce that began in the 1960s. TRUE
1.

The inability to recruit and maintain a good workforce constitutes a bottleneck for a developing industry TRUE
2.

A strategy is the company's plan on how it will match its internal strengths and weaknesses with its external opportunities and threats. TRUE
3.

When a job involves an equivalent amount of skills, effort and responsibility then an employer must give equal pay. TRUE
4.

It is lawful to segregate or classify your employees on the basis of national origin. FALSE
5.

Mental disabilities like depression account for the greatest number of claims brought under the ADA. TRUE 29
6.

Changing performance appraisal to include components regarding intergroup conflicts is not helpful in managing diversity. TRUE
7.

Title VII forbids testing or screening of job applicants because testing could systematically discriminate against some protected classes. FALSE
8.

A question on an employment application form that requests the dates of attendance and graduation from various schools may be illegal as it could reflect an applicant's age. TRUE
9. 10. 11. 12. 13.

Competency-based job analysis is more job-focused than traditional job analysis. FALSE Effective recruiting results in a large number of applicants. TRUE Local newspapers are the best source for blue-collar help and clerical employees. TRUE

Contingency-based recruiters focus on top management job searches with salaries in the $150,000+ range. FALSE You should not have the candidate sign a release for background checking so as not to alert him/her that you will be checking. FALSE
14. 15. 16. 17.

Validity confirms that one is measuring something consistently. FALSE Once a candidate allows a company to use a test the test taker gives up all rights. FALSE An internal comparison estimate measures internal consistency. TRUE

Management development is a special approach to organizational change in which the employees themselves formulate the change that is required and implement it. FALSE
18. 19. 20. 21.

Behavior modeling actual effect on actual job behavior is unclear. TRUE Trainee assessment usually precedes managerial development programs. TRUE

Employee Appraiser, a Web-based or PC-based software provider, presents a menu of more than a dozen evaluation dimensions that can be used when conducting a performance appraisal. TRUE Managers who receive feedback from subordinates who identify themselves view the upward appraisal process more negatively than do managers who receive anonymous feedback. FALSE
22.

The employee, the manager, and the employer should all share the responsibility for an employee's career development and career success. FALSE
23.

The Worker Adjustment and Retraining Notification Act require employers of 100 or more employees to give 60 days' notice before closing a facility. TRUE
24. 25. 26. 27.

Today the trend is to expand employee rights. TRUE Most people are surprisingly objective and sensible when angry. FALSE

Organizational factors affect whether an employee behaves ethically in addition to the employee's own ethical tendencies. TRUE
28. 29.

What is ethical is always legal. FALSE

A(n. ORGANIZATION 2 is defined as consisting of people with formally defined roles who work together to achieve goals. The term, ETHICS 13, refers to the standards someone uses to decide what his or her conduct should be.
30.

STAFF MANAGERS 4 are responsible for assisting and advising line managers in areas like recruiting, hiring, and compensation.
31.

What tactic will employers likely have to take to fill openings left by retiring employees? INTERNAL RECRUITING 90
32.

Which basic function of management includes maintaining morale and motivating subordinates? LEADING 2
33.

All of the following are a line supervisor's responsibilities for effective HRM except PAGE 4
34.

Which organization provides professional certification for human resource managers? SHRM SOCIETY FOR HUMAN RESOURCE MANAGEMENT 13
35.

Pictures and Promotions Modeling Studio seeks to hire male models for an upcoming fashion show featuring men's wear. The studio is using BONA FIDE OCCUPATIONAL QUALIFICATIONS 33 as a justification for not considering women for the jobs.
36.

The Equal Pay Act of 1963 allows differences in pay based on which of the following factors? 21
37.

Under the Civil Rights Act of 1991, once a plaintiff shows disparate impact, who has the burden of proving that the challenged practice is job related for the position in question? THE EMPLOYER 28
38.

The Age Discrimination in Employment Act of 1967 protects workers who are 40 YEARS 21 and older.
39.

When responding to employment discrimination charges which of the following is recommended? 37-38
40.

Under the Federal Agency Uniform guidelines it may be UNLAWFUL 22 to discriminate against persons even within the 40-plus age bracket.
41.

If a person is in a protected class, he or she is protected by EQUAL OPPURTUNITY LAWS, INCLUDING TITLE VII 27.
42.

According to the Americans with Disabilities Act, which of the following is not considered a disability? 28
43. 44. 45.

Religion may be used as a BFOQ if 33.

The greatest number of claims brought under the ADA is related to MENTAL 29 disabilities. When harassment is of a serious nature, an employee can consider suing for SEXUAL HARRASMENT 22.
46.

Gus is always making sexual jokes at work. Many employees find the jokes funny, but Shelley, Gus's executive assistant, is uncomfortable with the jokes. Eventually, she decided to quit rather than endure the jokes any longer. What form of sexual harassment is Shelley a victim of? HOSTILE ENVIRONMENT CREATED BY SUPERVISORS 23
47.

Sally is known as a big flirt around the office. She often makes sexual innuendos to men at work, both co-workers and her subordinates. What form of sexual harassment is this an example of? HOSTILE ENVIRONMENT CREATED BY COWORKERS 23
48. 49.

All of the following are ways an employee can prove sexual harassment except. 23

The defense of BUSINESS NECESSITY 33 requires showing that there is an overriding business purpose for the discriminatory practice and that the practice is therefore acceptable.
50. 51. 52. 53.

Contingent workers are used in ________ occupations. 96 One of the biggest challenges facing single parents in the job market is ________. 101

WORKFORCE PLANNING 84 is the process of deciding what positions the firm will have to fill. Royall & Company emphasizes a desire for detail-oriented, motivated employees with strong social skills. This part of Royall & Company's job SPECIFICATION 76.
54.

Who is interviewed by managers collecting job analysis data? JOB INCUMBENTS OR ONE OR MORE SUPERVISORS 76
55. 56. 57. 58.

Mandatory alternative dispute resolution agreements require ________. 36-37 Which of the following methods is not used to recruit outside candidates? 90

EXECUTIVE RECRUITERS 97 are special employment agencies retained by employers to seek out top management talent for their clients. JOB ANALYSIS 76 is the procedure through which one determines the duties associated with positions and the characteristics of people to hire for those positions.
59.

Jackie works as a nurse on temporary assignment for hospitals throughout the region on an as-needed basis. Jackie is ALTERNATE STAFFING 96.
60.

When managers need to determine which employees are available for promotion or transfer, they will use PERSONNEL REPLACEMENT CHART 86-87. 214
61.

When a company decides on how to fill top executive positions, the process is called SUCCESSION PLANNING 84.
62. 63. 64. 65. 66. 67.

A relationships statement in a job description may contain all of the following except 78 One uses information from the JOB DESCRIPTION 81 to write a job specification. When constructing the ad, it is important to consider how to best 94-95. Which of the following is not an advantage of using a private employment agency? 95-96

For which of the following jobs is direct observation not recommended to collect data used in a job analysis 76 A 76 summarizes the personal qualities, traits, skills, and background required for getting the job done.
68.

69. 70.

The D in AIDA stands for DESIRE 94. Executive recruiters are also called HEADHUNTERS 97. The ________ is considered by many to be the most important screening tool. The leaderless group discussion is part of the MANAGEMENT ASSESMENT CENTER Which of the following is not a "big five" personality dimension? 128 Which assessment method has a high cost to develop?

71.
72.

132
73. 74. 75.

Which of the following is not usually verified by an employer prior to hiring a job candidate? 140 Because nonperformance is usually the result of PERSONAL CARACHTERISTICS 127, it is important to measure motivation and interpersonal skills as well as cognitive and physical abilities during the selection process.
76. 77. 78.

Which of the following is a commonly verified background area? 140

Careful testing and screening leads to IMPROVED EMPLOYEE AND ORGANIZATIONAL PERFORMANCE (SLIDE 5-2) Dr. Ross is interviewing for a position as Assistant Professor of Human Resource Management. His interview is conducted by a team of other faculty members in the department who interview him simultaneously and then combine their ratings into one score. This is an example of a PANEL 135 interview.
79.

Hiring workers who have criminal backgrounds without proper safeguards is considered NEGLIGENT HIRE.
80. 81. 82.

Which of the following is not a reason that a test might be unreliable? 122-123 What is the second thing you should do to make reference checking more productive?

141 EQUIVALENT FORM ESTIMATE 123 is used as an estimate of reliability when one administers two tests deemed to be equivalent by experts and then compares the test scores from the two tests.
83. 84. 85.

Which of the following is an example of a reliable test? 122-123 Interviews should begin by ASK A NONCONTROVERSIAL QUESTION 138

XWZ Company uses a projective personality test on James. Subsequently James is denied employment. James can CLAIM THE RESULTS ARE FALSE, OR VIOLATE ADA 128
86.

Pilots train on flight simulators for safety, learning efficiency, and cost savings. This is an example of TEST OF MOTOR AND PHISICAL ABILITIES 127.
87.

88.
89.

Which of the following is a management and leadership guideline?

VIDEOCONFERENCING 164 allows people in one location to communicate live with people in another location. Which of the following is meant to counteract potential problems associated with a diverse workforce? DIVERSITY TRAINING 169
90.

Any attempt to improve managerial performance by imparting knowledge, changing attitudes, or increasing skills is called MANAGEMENT DEVELOPMENT 170.
91.

CHANGED REQUIREMENTS OF THE JOB 277 focuses on whether on the job actions have changed.
92. 93. 94.

________ evaluates trains as to whether they thought the training was worthwhile. 176

The STRICTNESS problem occurs when supervisors tend to rate all their subordinates consistently low. When a supervisor must criticize a subordinate in an appraisal interview, it is best to ________. 200-201
95. 96. 97. 98.

Which of the following is not one of the guidelines for effective goal setting? 188-189 Which of the following best captures the meaning of the term, glass ceiling? 213

When a supervisor evaluates performance by assigning predetermined percentages of ratees into performance categories, he or she has used the FORCED DISTRIBUTION 193 method of performance appraisal. In how many ways is performance management different from performance appraisal? FOUR 205
99.

100. What process allows top management to diagnose the management styles of supervisors, identify potential "people" problems, and take corrective action with individual supervisors as necessary?
101. 102.

________ refers to fair process. 278, 261 Which of the following is not one of the types of privacy violations upheld by courts?

275

Which of the bases for dismissal is defined as the persistent failure to perform assigned duties or to meet prescribed standards on the job? UNSATISFACTORY PERFORMANCE 277
103.

When an employee's dismissal does not comply with the law or with the contractual agreement stated or implied by the firm via its employment application forms, employee manuals, or other promises, WRONGFULL DISCHARGE 278 has occurred.
104. 105. 106. 107. 108.

Location monitoring involves 276 Which component of justice in refers to the fairness of a process? 278 Unsatisfactory performance, one of the bases for dismissal, is defined as ________. 277

What is the third step in the guidelines for an effective termination interview? DESCRIBE THE SITUATION 380
109. 110.

All of the following is a step in discipline without punishment except 274 What is the fourth step in the guidelines for an effective termination interview? LISTEN

280 Johnson & Johnson has a corporate ethics code that states "We believe our first responsibility is to the doctors, nurses and patients, to mothers and fathers and all others who use our products and services." This is an example of CLARIFYING EXPECTATIONS 268.
111.

A change in requirements of the job, one of the bases for dismissal, is defined as CHANGED REQUIREMENTS OF THE JOB 277.
112.

Capital One welcomes new employees on a designated day with balloons, parties, and pep rallies. This is an example of RITES AND CEREMONIES 268.
113.

114. Ethics refers to the PRINCIPLES OF CONDUCT THAT GOVERN AN INDIVIDUAL OR A GROUP (SLIDE 9-2) The purpose of DISCIPLINE 272 is to encourage employees to adhere to rules and regulations at work.
115. 116. 117. 118.

Organizational culture refers to the ________. 267 A fair discipline process is built on which of the following? 272-273

What is the second step in the guidelines for an effective termination interview? GET TO THE POINT 280
119. 120.

Employers can facilitate two-way communication by utilizing ________. 272 With a fair appraisal process CHAPTER 7