1) Test Case Coverage can be measured by ____________________. a. Global data coverage b. Statement Coverage c.

All of the listed options d. User specified data coverage e. Traceability 2) Functional testing that verifies the application functions in accordance with user-specified requirements is called __________________. a. User Acceptance testing b. Regression testing c. Ease of Use d. Correctness 3) Test technique to simulate system disaster to verify manual procedures are adequate is called __________. a. Volume testing b. Disaster testing c. Stress d. Security testing 4) When we talk about analysis performed by executing the program code, we are talking about ______________. a. Force field analysis b. Dynamic analysis c. None of the listed options d. Formal analysis 5) The following entrance criteria are prerequisites to test plan EXCEPT: a. People Issues b. Constraints c. Test Objectives d. KT document 6) Which of the following are the important elements of the control environment? a. Both integrity & ethical values b. Integrity c. Integrity only d. Ethical values 7) A white box testing technique that executes possible combinations of condition outcomes in each decision is _____________. a. Condition Coverage b. Decision/condition coverage c. Decision coverage d. Statement coverage 8) The testing technique that is used to verify multiple authorization procedures to perform properly is called ________________. a. Error handling b. Recovery c. Security d. Control

9) The process of verifying the consistency, completeness and correctness of software at each stage of the development lifecycle is ______________. a. Lifecycle testing b. Leadership c. Management d. All of the listed options 10) Which of the following is an Informal Analysis of the program source code yielding computer software ready for testing? a. Functional Review b. Code Inspection c. Code Verification d. Code Walkthrough 11) a. b. c. d. 12) Which among the following is a primary cause of delays in acknowledging a defect? Inability to reproduce the defect Defect caused by user error or misunderstanding Defect is not valid No one else has reported a defect like that

Which one of the following statement is true about defects? a. All of the listed options b. A single defect can cause millions of failures c. A defect has greater impact even if it does not affect customer and the operation of the system d. Defects cannot be found in the supporting documentation

13) Computer systems are interconnected into cycles of chains such that problems in one can cascade into and affect others. Identify this technological development from the following options, which impacts testing approach? a. System Chains b. Integration c. Cascade effect d. Domino effect 14) a. b. c. d. 15) a. b. c. d. 16) a. b. c. d. Walter Shewhart is known for his work on _______________. Scatter Plot Diagrams Run chart Control chart Histogram Test objectives do not include which of the following? Supplemental deliverables, such as application documentation. Enabling the tester and project managers to gauge testing progress and success. Guide to the development of test cases, procedures, and test data. Enhancing of communication both within and outside of the project team by helping to define the scope of the testing effort. An operator verifies that all production jobs are run. This is ________________. Production Planning Disaster recovery Quality Assurance Quality Control

17) Which among the following is the most effective method to solve dispute regarding a defect?

a. Arbitration by software owner and arbitration by software development management b. All of the listed options c. Arbitration by software owner and arbitration by test manager d. Arbitration by software development management 18) _________ is used to verify processing of a single transaction can be reconstructed and examine review trail to verify the appropriate information. a. Audit trail b. Review trail c. Authorization d. Correctness 19) a. b. c. d. 20) a. b. c. d. 21) a. b. c. d. High priority activity in any defect management program should be __________. to prevent defects All of the listed options to improve the process to identify the best prevention techniques and implement them Which among the following is the correct sequence to test execution? All of the listed options Identify test cases and test cycles, assign test scripts, set up test environments, review test cases Set up test environment, identify test case, review test result, assign test scripts Set up test environments, identify test cases and test cycles, assign test scripts, review test results Which among the following techniques is used to create test data? Test beds Production data All of the listed options Scripting

22) With thorough testing it is possible to remove defects from a program prior to delivery to
customer. State True or False. a. b. c. d. 24) a. b. c. d. e. 25) a. b. c. d. 26) 23) When does Test Design begin in SDLC? Testing Phase Low Level Design Phase High Level Design Phase Requirements Phase The test schedule section does not include which of the following? The types of tests that must be conducted. Initial estimates for each activity. Major test activities. Sequence of tests. Dependence on other project activities Pareto voting is used in conjunction with _____________. Statistical process control Vital Few 80-20 Cause and effect (Fishbone)

The result expected from entering the action is _____________. a. Think time

b. Arrival rate c. Sequence d. Expected Result 27) a. b. c. d. The concept of defensive code involves ____________________. adding throw() and catch() None of the listed options adding code to a program so that two parts of program must fail before a major adding a syntax checker in middle of code

28) Which among the following is the most effective method for validating successful integration? a. Test server components b. Test client components c. Test network d. All of the listed options e. Integrate client, server, network 29) Which of the following validates that multiple parts of the system interact according to the system design? a. Unit Testing b. User Acceptance Testing c. Integration Testing d. System Testing 30) A document that describes an input, action or event and an expected response to determine if a feature of an application is working correctly is called as ______________. a. Flowchart b. All of the listed options c. Test case d. Entrance criteria 31) a. b. c. d. 32) a. b. c. d. 33) a. b. c. d. 34) a. b. c. d. ALE estimation stands for _____________. Annual Loss estimation Annual loss expectation Actual loss expectation Actual Loss estimation Which technique is used in test case designing? Boundary Value Analysis Cause Effect Diagram Equivalence Class Partitioning All of the listed options Testing defect correction includes ____________. regression testing All of the listed options verification validation Which one of the following is the most appropriate definition of Assessment? Assessment is the thoughtful analysis of testing results, and then taking corrective action on the identified weaknesses Assessment is taking useful actions on the identified strengths Assessment is the process of taking actions on the identified weaknesses Assessment is the summarization of testing results, and then taking preventive action on the identified weaknesses

b. b.level business risks faced by the software system. b. 40) a. d. b. d. Application workload can be completed in accordance . b. It is not difficult to create test scenarios for high-level risks. c. Limited testing c. c. Strategic risks are the high . b. Compatibility testing for products involves all the following EXCEPT: Certified and Supported client environments High and low level sanity testing Functional and non-functional compatibility Client and Server side compatibility Performing risk analysis during test planning include all EXCEPT: Evaluate risks Form the risk analysis team Select testing priorities Identify risks Which among the following techniques is NOT used for negative testing? Error Guessing Equivalence Partitioning State Transition Boundary Value Analysis Which one of the following statement is incorrect? Policies defines the areas in which processes will be developed Policies are required in all the areas Policies set directions Policies are developed by senior managers Verification methods include EXCEPT: Test Execution Static analyzers Review Walkthroughs Risk analysis is a process which includes evaluating the following EXCEPT: Risk threat control Complexity 41) Which of the following lead to inability to translate user needs into technical requirements? a. Miscommunication b. a. Tactical risks are subsets at a higher level of the strategic risks. 38) a. c. c. 37) a. b. 36) a. Users inability to specify requirements in sufficient details d. c. regression testing is not required no stubs need to be written no drivers need to be written major decision points are tested early 43) 44) Which of the following Software Factors correctly reflects-? "Response time in an online system is within the time span tolerance. d. d. 39) a. Bottom-up integration testing has as its major advantage(s) so that _______________.35) a. d. d. b. c. d. c. Failure to scan output documents 42) Which of the following statement about different risks type is correct? a. c.

b. 51) a. d. b. b. Regression test level best suited for which type of transaction? Multiple transaction multiple terminal Single transaction single terminal Single transaction multiple terminal Multiple transaction single terminal How do you track requirements in test case? Requirements Document None of the listed options Traceability Matrix Test Plan Which of the following is not a perspective of quality? Product . system can no longer function effectively is called _______________. d.based Transcendent User . d.with the application schedule. Recovery testing b. c. 48) a." a. Audit Trail e. 46) a. b. Disaster test d. Performance testing c. Service Levels b. Stress testing . to prevent defects to minimize the impact of defects to find defect as quickly as possible All of the listed options 52) Testing that attempts to find the level of processing at which. d. c. c. Load testing d. Changes to the system can be incorporated within the agreed upon schedule. b. Confirmation or Examination 50) a. c. Authorization c. Tracing c. Spike testing b. a. d. a. c. c. 47) a. Continuity of Process d. Following lead to cascading of errors EXCEPT: Inadequate testing Change of scope Miscommunication Limited testing The primary goal of defect management is __________________. d.Based Translucent All are the risk associated with software development EXCEPT: Repetition of errors concentration of data Inability to control technology Skill of resources 49) Test tool to conduct a recovery test to determine that it can be performed within required time frame is called _____________. b. File Integrity 45) a.

b. a. b. Studies Survey Training Survey etc. a. c. 55) To develop a software test matrix. a. RFP generation(only for formal procurement) applying selection criteria(informal) d. b. usability b.53) In designing a test strategy. Cost of conformance includes ______________. d. Unit testing c. c. system crash and security violations. to present a test process that can reduce cost and time b. 63) . Regression testing b. Functional testing 61) Which among the following does NOT form the part of acquisition activities for informal procurement? a. 56) a. c. fit for use c. Acquisition plan c. to identify the phase of System Development Life Cycle in which testing will occur False 54) Priority of defects should be given to one that causes data corruption. State True or False. to reduce the risk in the system c. 59) a. d. Select tool 62) Defect is anything that causes customer dissatisfaction and this view is called __________. b. Coupling d. State True or False. ease of use Fixing defect involves _________________. follow these steps EXCEPT: Define tests as required Definite test plan Define verification tests Prepare the software test matrix Which among the following is NOT a characteristic of good test case? A good test case should be repeatable but not traceable to the requirements It should be repeatable It is not traceable to the requirements Clear to execute When should you stop testing? When you run out of time When all test cases are done When quality goals established in the beginning of the projects are met None of the listed options 58) Synchronization is not one of the considerations to incorporate into script execution. 57) a. _________ becomes the objective of testing. a. c. Studies and Survey Rework 60) ___________ in a test phase verifies the application being tested could correctly communicate with interrelated application system. d. Score candidates b. d.

None of the listed options d. b. Integration scripting c. c. Absolute compliance to standard and procedures is required a. Thread testing b. d. economical b. effective c. True 65) Which of the following testing demonstrates key functional capabilities by testing a string of units that accomplish a specific function in the application? a. Integration testing 66) Following are the key concepts of the process engineering program EXCEPT: a. b. The use of test tools should be incorporated into test processes so that the use of tools is mandatory. Management provides an organizational structure for the workers to develop their own standards and procedures d. ISO QAI IEEE ANSI 67) 68) Following are the guidelines adhered to tool usage to be more effective and efficient EXCEPT: a. CBOK is prepared and presented by ________________. Pseudo concurrency scripting 71) a. a. c. or the organization that developed the tool 69) Without preparation of a test plan. State True or False. Process is driven by testing projects c. tests may be _______________. d. checklist 64) The largest cost of quality is from production failure. The magnitude of a risk can be determined by any of the following means EXCEPT: consensus hit and trial intuition risk formula . b. d. uneconomical and ineffective 70) Developing scripts to test when there are two or more users accessing the same file at the same time is ___________________. Tester should work together to build open source testing tools c. not optional d. Black box testing c. removing defects from system correcting and verifying one or more deliverables All of the listed options reviewing test data. c. Program is driven by management policies b. Testers should not be permitted to use tools for which they have not received formal training b. at an earlier testing phase.a. Regression scripting b. a. Unit testing d. Stress/performance scripting d. Testers should have access to an individual in their organization.

the risk resulting from the misuse of its computer. The step-by-step method that ensures that standards are met d. budget. Defect tracking system d. Risk can be measured by performing risk analysis. a. Threat includes both hazards and events that can trigger flaws. Assumptions b. _________ and __________. This may include skill level of test resources. the flaw causes the computer system or application to operate in a fashion different from its published specifications and to result in destruction or misuse of equipment or data. b. Functional Coverage b. Threat is a design. Report b. Check sheet All of the listed options Certification Checkpoint Steps involved in defect discovery are ________.72) a. Test script Which one of the following is the correct definition for Policy? a. as well as the authorized but incorrect use of a computer. c. or operations flaw that may be exploited by a threat. as for example. tools available and or entrance or exit criteria. Test log b. Report. c. Communication approach 75) Which of the following is a correct definition of threat? a. Find. and state of the application. Policies provide direction. Which one of the following is this document? a. To log ‘incidents’ which of the following is used? a. Managerial desires and intents concerning either process (intended objectives) or products (desired attributes) b. standards are the rules or measures 76) 77) 78) Test efficiency is always directly proportional to ______________. User Report c. The measure used to evaluate products and identify nonconformance. Test design c. It combines the loss potential for each resource or combination of resources with an estimated rate of occurrence to establish a potential level of damage in dollars or other assets. This may involve unauthorized disclosure. Test data management d. Acknowledge. Acknowledge. Find. The basis upon which adherence to policies is measured c. d. its existing controls. and/or loss of information resources. Acknowledge 74) These document test prerequisites. a. 73) _____________________ is used to record data as it is gathered. implementation. Threat an analysis of an organization’s information resources. Threat is something capable of exploiting vulnerability in the security of a computer system or application. Product Cost . d. Report c. and its remaining organization and computer system vulnerabilities. b. Threat is the potential loss to an organization. Find. Product Delivery c. unauthorized modification.

Black Box d. and other errors identified during testing? a. d. Ease of use . c. logic. White Box 85) Which among the following does NOT form the part of acquisition activities for formal procurement? a. Identify defects that have greatest impact on system d. Thread c. Which of the following is required after this change is implemented? a. Error guessing d. b. Debugging 87) Following are examples of satisfaction metrics EXCEPT: a. All of the listed options c. _________________ is a process that follows the flow of computer logic at execution time. Incremental b. a. True or False 82) a. Desk Checking b. Source Selection 86) Which among process of analyzing and correcting syntactic.d. Unit retesting 81) “Post Mortems Review" is In Process Review. Dynamic Analysis c. RFP Generations b. All of the listed options 84) During software acceptance. User review of candidates d. Design re-verification d. Test scripts Test data None of the listed options (tracing) Test tools 80) A change has been done to the design of an application. Product Reliability 79) a. None of the listed options e. b. the testing technique that is relied upon for more accurate results (than any other testing techniques listed below) is ___________. c. Identify type of defects most likely to occur and to identify defects that have greatest impact on system b. Identify type of defects most likely to occur and identify flaws in process c. Subsystem retesting b. Solicitation of Proposals c. d. 83) Complexity can be measured by the following EXCEPT: Business Complexity Documentation complexity Logic complexity Size of module / unit Which among the following is the best way to identify critical risks? a.

Incremental c. Full Regression Test d. c.000 95) Which among the following are the techniques to prevent defects? . $4. System Testing b. a. Testing team is to choose the appropriate type of regression test to minimize the impact to the project schedule. White Box 93) a.000 c. Alpha testing d. Acceptance criteria met d. $5. d. b. d. a. Black Box b.b. $2. Regional Regression Test c. Which type of regression test would you choose? a.$ 1500 Design . c. $3. The cost of Quality is ______________. exhortations. Customer satisfaction 88) The following tasks are provided to help understand what is necessary to develop a good test plan EXCEPT: a. Build the test plan d. Code review . Analyze the test plan b. The Table of Contents of a test plan might contain the following EXCEPT: Test Matrix Assumptions Test Scope Test Objective 92) When evaluating the paybacks received from various test techniques.500 d. Regression testing 90) Due to a change in design. Which of the following is not one of Deming's 14 points for management? Create constancy of purpose Eliminate slogans.400 b. The developer had to modify the code based on the new requirements. From the above what kind of testing is Joe performing? a. Customer subjective assessment c.$ 1200. _____ testing produces a higher defect yield than other techniques when planned and executed correctly. Thread d. Unit Regression Test 91) a. the requirements for an already coded critical software component got modified in its entirety.$ 800. White-box testing b. Write the test plan c. Understand the characteristics of the software being developed 89) Joe is performing a test to see that it complies with the user requirement that a certain field be populated by using a dropdown box containing a list of values. Black-box testing c.$ 1000 Rework .$ 400 Review of User Documents . and targets for the work force Mobility of management Adopt a new philosophy 94) Given the following costs: User documentation . b.

Software not in a testable mode c. d. 97) a. This may involve unauthorized disclosure. High b. Risk is an analysis of an organization’s information resources. Major. and its remaining organization and computer system vulnerabilities. Quality Control. Critical. Low 99) The functional testing that verifies the procedures to balance file function properly is called ______________. c. as well as the authorized but incorrect use of a computer. b. Minor. Training and Education and Methodology and Standards 96) a. c. Training and Education. Compliance testing c. Inadequate time or resources 101) Which of the following is a correct definition of risk? a. All of the listed options b. Significant problems will not be uncovered during testing d. Critical. Risk is something capable of exploiting vulnerability in the security of a computer system or application. defensive design and code and finally Methodology and Standards d. Risk is the potential loss to an organization. Quality Assurance. c. Quality Assurance. It combines the loss potential for each resource or combination of resources with an estimated rate of occurrence to establish a potential level of damage in dollars or other assets. Major. defensive design and code and finally Methodology and Standards b. b. None of the listed options b. Minor. a. b. d. unauthorized modification. a. Major. and/or loss of information resources. Compatibility testing b. Major. d. d. Following are important to perform the analysis of the test process EXCEPT: Effectiveness and efficiency of the test process Test program meets the test objective Maturity of the test processes test methodology is used correctly 102) . Integration testing 100) Which among the following are major concerns testers have on entering the test execution? a. File Integrity d. its existing controls. Critical. High d. the risk resulting from the misuse of its computer. Quality Assurance. Minor c. Risks include both hazards and events that can trigger flaws. Risk can be measured by performing risk analysis. c. Quality Control and Methodology & Standards c. 98) Risk involves everything EXCEPT: test planning unauthorized disclosure incorrect use of computer loss of information Regression analysis is used for the following EXCEPT: Projecting performance based on multiple variables Cause and effect relationship of two variables Probing to determine the cause of some unfavorable event Find the regression candidates Which among the following is a suggested prioritization method to follow? a. as for example.a. Training and Education.

compliance checkers b. a. is an independent appraisal activity within an organization for the review of operations. True 104) Which among the following is a parse program looking for violations of company standards? a. Metric based test data generation b. Risk Mitigation . Regression Testing b. Black Box Testing c. a. Regression testing 110) Testers insert additional code into a program to collect information about program behavior during program execution. c. Checkpoint review d. Incremental Testing e. All of the listed options d. Instrumentation b.103) Decision rules used to determine whether a software item or feature passes or fails a test is Pass/Fail criteria. a. All of the listed options c. White Box Testing 108) ………………………………. Generate test cases based on black box test techniques 106) __________ testing involves continuous testing of the solution even after software plans are complete and the tested system is implemented. a. Dynamic assertion d. Inspection 111) Activities associated with risk management are ___________. Quality function deployment c. Life Cycle Testing System Testing Maintenance Testing End-to-End Testing 107) Which of the following testing techniques are used in the Acceptance Testing stage? a. Thread Testing b. Internal Auditing e. a. Both White box and Black box testing d. Benchmarking 105) Which among the following is a way to leverage a dynamic analyzer during system testing? a. Determine testing levels b. State True or False. b. Quality Assurance c. This is called as ____________. Adhoc Testing 109) The process of generating test sets for structural testing based on use of complexity or coverage metrics is called _________________. Cyclomatic complexity d. Spend time to do a complete test plan d. Affinity diagram c. and is a service to management. d. Integration Testing c.

Battlemap 117) Testers get involved with the project only when testing steps are about to begin. testers need training 1. Ranking b. 118) Techniques for Reporting a defect may include _______________. Giving testers less time to test will reduce the chance that they will find defects. testers should not be blamed for the defects found in production c. Static d. Defects found in production are the fault of the testers. a. All of the listed options b.b. Incorrectly implemented specification d. c. Operational 119) Which among the following are the key elements in the defect management process? a. d. Specify requirements in a quantifiable manner b. 2. a. giving testers less time to test will reduce the chance that they will find defects d. Checklist 115) Which of the following strategic issues needs to be addressed in successful software testing process? a. Electronic mails. 114) _________________ permits the testing of programs without data. Management Reporting b. Conduct formal technical review prior to testing 116) Amount of resources allocated to each test condition is determined by ______________. help desk c. Immature process c. 3. 4. a. Defect Prevention c. Flow chart b. Computer forums. Risk Reduction Methods Risk Analysis Risk elimination Contingency planning 112) Defects generally occur due to following EXCEPT: a. Global data coverage c. Both global data coverage and ranking d. only programmers need training. State True or False. Specified requirement not built e. Deliverable base lining . None of the listed options 113) Attitude that has shaped a negative view of testing and testers is that ______________. Training c. letting testers find the problems is not the only way to debug b. Testers hold up implementation. Unspecified requirement b. Testers do not need training. Consider using independent test terms c. All of the listed options d. Symbolic Execution d. e. Letting the testers find problems is an appropriate way to debug. a. 5.

ensuring high level sanity c. None of the listed options d. Ensure involved parties are adequately trained b. Failure Costs c. retesting fixed defects d. Define each objective so that you can reference it by a number. processes. Preventive Costs b. Error handling b. Be the driving force behind the process d. True 128) Testing that simulates problem in original environment so that an alternative processing environment can be tested is _____________. checking for side-effects of fixes b. Data bridges and filters c. Validation process for incoming external data b. Functional d. d. Recovery testing b. Affinity diagram d. Benchmarking b. a. a. State True or False. Be highly certified and qualified in process areas 125) To define test objectives testers need not to do following EXCEPT: a. checking the core gaps 124) Process Engineering Manager includes the following EXCEPT: a. Promote the concept of Process engineering c. Development of a model showing the internal and external dependency links among core business areas. and information systems 126) Review falls under which category of Cost of Quality? a. Disaster testing c. Process Improvement 120) Which among the following is the quantitative measure of the current level of performance? a. Pareto analysis c. File integrity c. control c. Risk 123) Regression testing mainly helps in ___________. Baseline 121) The test technique to enter erroneous data to determine it cannot affect the integrity of the files is called _____________. Appraisal Costs 127) Purpose of software reviews is to uncover errors and defects in work products so they can be removed before moving on to the next phase. Performance testing d.d. threat d. Security 122) Risk analysis is a process which includes evaluating the following EXCEPT: a. All of the listed options e. a. Complexity b. Compliance testing .

Develop the test matrix b. a. application integrated correctly into its environment d.129) Objective of integration testing is to _________________. The probability that the negative event will occur. Risk Template b. Cause Effect Diagram 136) The development of an effective test plan involves the following tasks EXCEPT: a. Set test objectives 137) The risk team can use which one of the following methods of risk identification? a. Calibration e. All of the listed options 130) A defect can be defined in ____________. Boundary Value Analysis b. The potential loss or impact associated with the event. All of the listed options c. c. b. The probability of losing a customer. Reliability d. Improves interpersonal skills d. Risk Strategy 132) QAI has identified the following six tests that each measure and metric should be subjected to. a. validate the application design and phase and prove application components can be successfully integrated b. Equivalence Class Partitioning c. EXCEPT: a. Risk analysis plan . Improves communication b. Customer’s viewpoint 131) ___________ is identifying defects in the stage in which they were created. the following major components are taken into consideration EXCEPT: a. Test Combinations d. a. Ease of Use and Simplicity f. Validity c. Collect test metrics d. Stage Containment d. Timeliness 133) Following are the main advantages of using work processes EXCEPT: a. Producer’s viewpoint and customer’s viewpoint d. a. Down stream c. Define test administration c. Enable knowledge transfer c. Defect Validation b. Producer’s viewpoint and tester’s viewpoint b. above and below the edges of classes is called _____________. Consistency b. integrate all components c. Risk Control chart c. Improves Productivity 134) When conducting risk analysis. rather than in later testing stages. 135) Testing on.

Total no. of Defects/ Effort b. Test procedure specification: (specifying a sequence of actions for the execution of a test) . Annual loss Expectation formula b. Structural Testing b. a. Invalid Defects/ Valid Defects d. strangers will test the software mercilessly c. Communication protocol may fail to positively identify the transmitter or receiver of a message.e. Initiate process improvement 147) Test steps are grouped into manageable and schedulable units called ________________. testers do not get involved with the project until testing begins b. use of codes) is used. Major b. True 140) Following are examples of Intentional act EXCEPT: a. 141) One of the most effective methods for estimating expected impact of risk is _____________. Pareto Analysis d. d. Valid Defects/ Effort 143) Following are the valid Defect Severity EXCEPT: a. c. of Defect c. Analyze assessment output b.d. Risk analysis 142) Defect Density is calculated by ______________. Policies help in defining products d. Messages may be recorded and replayed into the system. Risk analysis scenario and risk checklist 138) At a minimum. a. False messages may be inserted into the system. None of the listed options c. Conduct Assessment c. a. Policies are set by senior management 146) Which one of the following is NOT the part of the test process improvement model? a. Showstopper c. True 139) Unit testing is conducted in the development environment. b. Test Scenario c. Test design specification d. quality of software is given as much consideration as the project budget and timeline d. Valid Defects/ Total no.. the developer should always execute Unit Regression testing when a change is made. Policies are set by Test managers b. Critical 144) The best reason for using Independent software testing teams is that ___________________. Derive new processes d. software developers do not need to do any testing 145) Which one of the following statements is correct? a. Policies are guidelines c. keys may be stolen. If encryption (i. a. Minor d.

demonstrate that the application works properly c. Development Manager 154) Requirement Checklist is an example for which of the following testing technique? a. Defect tracking sheet (incidence) d. Test Coverage c. after Design before Requirement collection at the time of Requirement definition after Requirement collection 150) Infeasible path is a sequence of program statements that can be executed. reduce impact if there is a problem 157) The inability of a system or component to perform its required functions within specified requirements is called _______________. bug 158) A catchall term for all software defects or errors __________________. Static Analysis 155) Integration testing should begin once unit testing for the components to be integrated is complete. validate the logical design b. Requirement Study d. None of the listed options b. error b. Operation and maintenance b. Black Box Testing c. Test data 153) _________________ is responsible for conducting Test Readiness Review prior to start of testing. None of the listed options d. a. a. State True 156) Minimizing expected impact of defect involves _______________. Bug . Test log c. Management Directive d. White Box testing b. a. c. False 151) The objective of _________________ is to assure that the requirements are covered for application in test design document. a. All of the listed options d. Failure c. defect d. All of the listed options c. a. None of the listed options 152) ________________ is a record of relevant details about execution of tests. a. a. b. Developer b.148) The purpose of software testing is to ___________. a. d. reducing probability of risk becoming a problem b. detect the existence of defects 149) Test planning should begin ____p251___________. eliminating the risk d. Test Manager c.

a. each element of the test set causes at least one condition to be true. Records in one format may be interpreted according to a different format b. Tracing b. a. Compliance testing c. a. Ensure that appropriate areas of interest are involved c. The evidence from intermediate processing is not retained c. lack of defects count d. Detailed analysis of the technology 160) Following are important factors in selecting the members of Process engineering committee EXCEPT: a. a. Correctness . Make long term assignment to Process engineering committee b. find the problem areas 166) A set of Boolean conditions such that complete test sets for the conditions uncover the same errors is ___________. Consistency b.b. Early use of new software technology d. verification of changes to make sure older programs still works with new changes 164) The tool used to verify the operational system results are in compliance with organizations policies and procedure is called _________________. tracking observations in sequence or time order d. Track changes or trends c. a. Security testing b. d. Fault c. Complete test set: A test set containing data that causes each element of pre-specified set of Boolean conditions to be true. Confirmation or Examination c. Select the highest level manager who accepts the position d. Error 159) The types of conditions that cause erroneous or falsified input data include _____________. lack of metrics b. System testing d. verify authorization rules have been properly implemented b. lack of time 163) Regression testing is _________________. Checklists and inspections 165) Run chart doesn’t help to ___________. a. lack of skilled resources c. In addition. a. ensuring functions are performed correctly c. monitor a process b. Select a tester who lot of experience in audits 161) _____________ testing verifies all the performance criteria have been achieved when the system is placed into production. User acceptance testing 162) One of the most commonly identified weaknesses in software testing is ________________. Consistent condition set c. Fact finding d.

development team size d. Redundant data d. Procedure d. Start Early 176) Which of the following statement is NOT correct? a. a. lines of code b. identify key deliverables and define standards for each deliverable c. 60 percent of software defects originate in the requirements phase of the project d. 90 percent of all defects are caused by process problems b. risks and define standards for each deliverable 168) Performing risk analysis during test planning includes all EXCEPT: a. Policy 175) Guidelines to Writing the Test Plans are EXCEPT: a. Form the risk analysis team d. Valid data c. minimize test maintenance costs b. project efforts 171) A white box testing technique that measures the number of or percentage of decision outcomes covered by the test cases designed is called ______________. minimize test execution cost 173) Testing for the existence or effectiveness of programmed controls requires using ___________. total number of defects c. All of the listed options d. False 170) Defects are measured in relation to ___________.167) Deliverable base lining involves _____________. a. Standard b. Invalid data 174) Work Processes constitute the following EXCEPT: a. a. risks and identify key deliverables b. All of the listed options d. Decision Coverage b. Modified decision coverage d. Select testing priorities b. Basis path coverage c. Over 50 percent of life cycle of software system is spent on requirements . Complex data b. Process c. Identify risks 169) Effectiveness is doing things right and efficiency is doing the right things. detect as many defects as possible c. Calculate the planning effort c. Evaluate risks c. condition coverage 172) The objective in Test design is to _____________. Reviews are generally greater than 65 percent efficient in finding defects c. a. a. Finish early b.

Promotion & Training b. Defect free product 181) Following are the guidelines to establish an organizational structure EXCEPT: a. Test Description & Actual Result c. Functional testing Compliance testing 179) Which among the following is a technique designed to ensure the process employed are adequate to produce the desired result and process is being followed? a. Control consciousness and positive “tone at the top” c. Testing Methodology c. 5. Audit Trail c. Code Walkthroughs c. Represent all IT organizational areas on the Process Engineering Committee. Test Case ID & Expected Result d. 182) Which of the following Software quality Factors correctly reflects .e. Reviews d. Quality Assurance d. Process reengineering committee 1. Expected Result and Actual Result 178) ______________ is the method of testing the maintainability of the application system. Competent people d. Testing Strategy 180) The effective Control environment strives for everything EXCEPT: a. a.) 4. Incentive & Temptations . Over 50% of the life cycle costs of a software system are spent on maintenance 177) Which among the following is an important attribute for test case? a. Let the Standards Ad Hoc Committees develop the technical standard. Establish a Process Engineering Committee compromised of the most senior IT managers possible. Test Description & Expected Result b. Appoint an individual as the Process Engineering Manager. Sales tax paid to a specific state can be substantiated by the supporting invoices. Let the standard Ad Hoc committees develop the technical standard c."Employee gross pay can be substantiated by supporting documentation." a. Inspections b. Authorization d. Establish a Process engineering committee b.e. Payments made to vendors can be substantiated should the vendor disavow receiving the payment. Service Levels 183) Removing or reducing which of the following can help in diminishing the undesirable behavior? a. File Integrity b. Quality Control b. Appoint Ad Hoc Committees (i. 3. Continuity of Process e. 2.. Attitude of integrity b. (Note that this can be a part-time assignment. special task forces) to develop individual standards and procedures. Process engineering committee d.

c. as well as the authorized but incorrect use of a computer. c. Understanding of information services concepts and systems design c. Quality Control b. People who will let the software system happen. Quality Assurance c. as for example. unauthorized modification. ƒ Early user of new software technology 4. People who will make the software system happen e. Early use of new software technology d. Early use of new hardware technology b. None of the listed options 185) Some organizations divide people into four categories when attempting to identify issues EXCEPT: a. 186) Check for defects in process for the primary aim of correcting or establishing new process. Calculate an ALE using the loss and frequency tables b. People who will hope the software system happens d. Improper skill 1. successful use of specific test case design methodologies b. Incentive & Promotion 184) Which of the following is a correct definition of risk analysis? a. This may involve unauthorized disclosure. a percentage of coverage for each coverage category d. Risk analysis is the potential loss to an organization. People who will attempt to make the software system not happen c. Training & Promotion d. Detailed analysis of the technology c. It combines the loss potential for each resource or combination of resources with an estimated rate of occurrence to establish a potential level of damage in dollars or other assets. rate of error detection falls below a specified threshold 189) Following lead to improper use of technology EXCEPT: a. Risk analysis includes both hazards and events that can trigger flaws. the risk resulting from the misuse of its computer. ƒ Systems analysts and systems programmers improperly skilled in the use of technology 2. Make a preliminary assessment of the loss d. Risk can be measured by performing risk analysis. a. Risk analysis is something capable of exploiting vulnerability in the security of a computer system or application. b. ƒ Early user of new hardware technology 3. ƒ Minimal planning for the installation of new hardware and software technology . d. its existing controls. Both Quality Control and Quality Assurance d. and/or loss of information resources. Document the decision reached 188) Decision to stop test execution should be based upon ____________________. None of the listed options 187) The following should be used to estimate ALE EXCEPT: a. and its remaining organization and computer system vulnerabilities. This is a. People who will help the software system happen b. All of the listed options c. Risk analysis is an analysis of an organization’s information resources.

Written code of conduct d. fix defect. Prioritize fix. weak communication 196) Following are the most effective way of communicating moral guidance EXCEPT: a.190) Which of the following factor assures that data is processed in accordance with the intents of management for processing of transactions? a.tested programs as well as between components c. d. CMM and ISO standards 197) Inability to Substantiate Processing includes the following EXCEPT: a. Users inability to specify requirements in sufficient details d. Testing transaction flow. failure to estimate b. c. 10 times c. All of the listed options d. Build the test plan . Verbal communication b. Report resolution b. The evidence from intermediate processing is not retained c. Assess the severity of potential failures b. Report Resolution. Identify the components for the system c. failure to assess risks c. Testing the interfaces between the unit . 100 times 192) Which among the following is the correct order in which Defect Resolution process should follow? a. False 194) What is incremental testing? a. Lead by examples c. ambiguous or incomplete requirements d. Evaluate contingency plans for this system and activities d. Schedule fix c. Report resolution 193) Entering alphabetic characters when numeric characters are expected is not an example of test using valid data. The cost of substantiating processing exceeds the benefits derived from the process b. Prioritize fix. how many times can this be expensive? a. input validation and functional completeness in incremental order 195) Most common cause of defect is ________________. Prioritize fix. Schedule fix. fix defect. a. 1 times d. Evidence is not retained long enough 198) Test team should investigate the following characteristics in order to evaluate the potential magnitude of the risk EXCEPT: a. 1000 times b. Schedule fix. Authorization Maintainability Access Control Service Levels 191) When a defect is fixed in production rather than in requirement. fix defect. b. Testing a string of units that accomplish a specific function in the application b.

Testers skills b. Test item 200) Which among the following is an example of functional testing? a. error in code b. (and successfully completed integration testing . Both proof of correctness and test item b. wrong use of tools and techniques d. Process Management 206) Most common reason for existence of large number of bugs in a software product is ___________. a. Size Risks b. Risk management c. True 204) Which of the following is not a category under tactical risks? a. Output interface file accuracy d. Decision coverage d. Technical Risks 205) A deliverable is subject to _________________ once it is base lined. Configuration Management e. Branch Coverage c. a. Validation of links between the client and server 203) The reason for decomposing the strategic risks into tactical risks is to create test scenarios. Defect Management d. Problems arising from the tools 202) Which among the following are common items to focus on during Integration testing? a. All of the listed options b. Performance and load lists on individual application components c. Proof of correctness c. add this sentence then it’s right )State True or False . Change Request d. All of the listed options b. Organizational obstacles d. Wrong b. Missing 208) System test should begin as soon as a minimal set of components has been integrated.199) A _______________ is a software item that is an object of testing. a. Resource Risks c. inadequate requirement analysis 207) Following are valid defect types EXCEPT: a. Structural Risks d. Condition coverage b. incomplete testing c. Extra c. Cause-Effect Graphing (orange) 201) Difficulties surrounding the introduction of tools can arise in the following areas EXCEPT: a. Obstacles in the computer environment c.

209) Which one of the following is not a valid step to collect Benchmark data? a. Integration Phase c. c. Glass box testing 214) Examples of assumptions include EXCEPT: a. and state of the application. budget. b. All of the listed options c. Construction Phase Action phase 210) Software testing activities should start _____________. 212) Severity is one which determines the order in which defects should be fixed. Test budget 3. Implementation of new test automation tools. during the design stage b. Skill level of test resources. Test Design specification c. 5. Test data management d. Availability of test equipment. Skill level of test resources. 215) These document test prerequisites. 2. d. Structural testing d. State of the application at the start of testing. as soon as possible in development life cycle d. Tools available. 1. Potential of missing logical errors in software. Test procedure specification 217) Which among the following are the key elements in the defect management process? . when the requirements have been formally documented c. Tools available. Which one of the following is this document? a. Possibility of redundant testing. 2. a. as soon as the code is written 211) Which of the following statement is true about Functional Testing? a. Planning Phase d. Assumptions c. Communication approach b. tools available and or entrance or exit criteria. Analysis Phase b. white box testing b. Test data b. Availability of test equipment. Possibility of redundant testing d. Test design 216) Which among the following options specifies the details of the test approach and identifies the associated tests? a. Testing where one wouldn’t think of b. a. Testing of software’s structure logic c. This may include skill level of test resources. Does not mimic real world situations 1. False 213) A testing method in which the test data are derived solely from the program structure is ______________. 4.

coupling 14. Static techniques. Production Planning b. service levels 7. Deliverable base lining Defect Prevention Process Improvement Management Reporting All of the listed options 218) An operator verifies that all production jobs are run.maintainable 12. False 222) Test Plan is not a living document. None of the listed options c. b. False 223) Some of the primary testing risks include EXCEPT: a. Portability b. correctness. 2. e. compliance 9.Portable 13. Lack of management support b. Audit trail 5.ease of use 11. access control 8.performance 15.ease of operations 221) Synchronization is not one of the considerations to incorporate into script execution. Compliance e. This is a. dynamic techniques and operational techniques e. Continuity of Processing d. All of the listed options b. Lack of Customer and User Involvement d. d. operational techniques and functional techniques 220) Which of the following is NOT a test factor? a. Lack of Test Tools c. operational techniques and functional techniques c. Not Enough Training/Lack of Test Competency e. Authorization 3. Dynamic techniques. reliability 10. Static techniques. Disaster recovery c. Functionality 1. c. File integrity 4.a. Continuity of processing 6. None Not Enough Training/Lack of Test Competency Us versus Them Mentality Lack of Test Tools Lack of Management Understanding and Support of Testing Lack of Customer and User Involvement . Static techniques and dynamic techniques d. Quality Control 219) Which among the following techniques are used to find defects? a. Quality Assurance d.

and the _________________ are the means used to meet or comply with the standards. Defect management process should be risk driven c. It combines . Procedures b. standards. Nonexistent or ineffective control d. User specified data coverage d. This may involve unauthorized disclosure. Weak Internal Audit function b. a. False 226) Which of the following does not represent the general of defect management philosophy? a. Risk analysis is the potential loss to an organization. d. Policies. State True or False. c. High Decentralization c. as well as the authorized but incorrect use of a computer. Standards c. Procedures. True 225) Testers get involved with the project only when testing steps are about to begin. Stable/control coverage 228) Which one of the following is the correct definition for Standards? a. Capture and Analysis of defect information should be automated b. Policies. The step-by-step method that ensures that standards are met 229) _________________ provide direction. Managerial desires and intents concerning either process (intended objectives) or products (desired attributes) d. Policies. Risk analysis includes both hazards and events that can trigger flaws. The measure used to evaluate products and identify nonconformance The basis upon which adherence to policies is measured b. Standards. Primary goal is to prevent defects 227) Which among the following is NOT a way to define and measure test coverage? a.Not Enough Schedule or Budget for Testing Over Reliance on Independent Testers Rapid Change Testers are in A Lose-Lose Situation and Having to Say “No” Test Environment New technology and new developmental processes 224) In general the earlier a software defect is discovered and corrected the less costly to the overall project budget. Risk can be measured by performing risk analysis. unauthorized modification. and/or loss of information resources. None of the listed options b. Policies provide direction. and its remaining organization and computer system vulnerabilities. High Centralization 231) Which of the following is a correct definition of risk analysis? a. its existing controls. Modified Decision coverage b. _______________ are the rules or measures by which the implemented policies are measured. the risk resulting from the misuse of its computer. none of the listed options d. Global data coverage c. standards are the rules or measures c. as for example. Risk analysis is something capable of exploiting vulnerability in the security of a computer system or application. procedures 230) Temptations cause employees to engage in the following improper acts EXCEPT: a. Risk analysis is an analysis of an organization’s information resources.

c. d. Management should review the process improvement program regularly c. Defect tracking sheet 239) Distribution of responsibilities reduces the chances of selecting a tool that __________________. Spike testing d. a.the loss potential for each resource or combination of resources with an estimated rate of occurrence to establish a potential level of damage in dollars or other assets. b. b. loss of information c. e. can be available with all the plug-ins b. Feasible and simple Reasonable and understandable Affordable and Flexible Reasonable and Adequate (feasible. contingency plans and Disaster recovery plans and contingency plans All of the listed options Reduce Scope of the system and also do not use latest unproven technology 236) Which among the following is the best strategy to reduce impact if there is a problem? 237) _________ are important element of test objectives. The risks to the organization and its products from using the process should be monitored 235) Test in Test plan should be following EXCEPT: a. Volume testing c. Test data b. a. reasonable. incorrect use of computer 233) Test tool used to verify the application limits have been tested is called _______________. affordable and adequate) 238) ________________ is a record of relevant details about execution of tests. Reusable Controllable Coverage Repeatable Contingency plans Disaster recovery plans. does not meet the recognized needs of the organization 240) A branch is . Load testing b. a. can be used to automate all the applications c. a. None of the listed options c. test planning b. Disaster testing 234) Which of the following statement is correct about monitoring performance? a. c. unauthorized disclosure d. Careful analysis of results of testing should be performed d. c. lacks training d. All of the listed options b. 232) Risk involves everything EXCEPT: a. Test log d. d. b. a. d.

A conditional transfer of control from any statement to any other statement in a component c. b. 242) Data collected during testing should include: a. A mathematical number that shows a relationship between two variables. Choose the correct sequence. An unconditional transfer of control from any statement to any other statement in the component except the next statement b. Build Test Plan d. None of the above represents the tasks involved in building test plan . All of the above 243) Which of the following does not represents ways to define and measure test coverage? a. d. Statement coverage b. b. 244) For building a test plan following tasks are required. Point to point coverage c. Test Factors. None of the above. Build Test Plan. Basic path coverage. Build Test Plan b. a transfer of control to any entry point of the component d. Branch coverage.a. All of the above 241) A metric is: a. When a component has more than one entry point. Form Test Team. Metrics is quantitative measure of the degree to which a system /component or process possesses a given attribute. c. a. Functions/subroutines c. c. Form Test Team. Both (a) and (b) d. Understand Project Risks. Form Test Team. Understand Project Risks. Platforms d. Understand Project Risks.

which of the following is the best approach? a. b. Functional testing not concerned with how processing occurs. None of the above. Declare that it is over when budget is consumed d. Regression Testing – End users.245) Choose the correct from those given below. Operational Techniques b. Let the management decide that 247) Which of the following is not a component of “software fit” for acceptance? a. Declare that it is over when Time is out. a. c. 249) Which of the following is not one of the techniques to find defects? a. File Integrity – Control Totals e. d. 246) To know with adequate confidence. Dynamics Techniques . Rules d. Functional testing techniques help to establish the roles and responsibilities of users during acceptance testing. Functional testing technique help ensure that the requirement/specifications are properly satisfied by the software system c. Data b. Structural testing evaluates all aspects of the structure to verify that the structures is sound b. Black Box Testing – Path Coverage. d. Use test appropriate Metrics c. “when is testing over”. b. Structure and People c. but with the results of process. Models 248) Which of the following statements are not correct? a. Compliance Testing – Business rules.

Relative value of walkthrough and inspections d. Define the size of the quality assurance department. Which problems occur most often b. Functional Techniques d. b. None 252) In statistics. All of the above . Variance b. Preventive b. The Quality Dept. The Training Dept. Why problem occur c. Static Techniques 250) Quality Assurance methods are usually considered a. 254) Pareto analysis will tell us a. the mean and median are called a. Standard deviation c. Be written for quality assurance function c. Corrective c. Control Chart Values. Measure of Central tendency 253) Quality principle dictate that the strategic quality plan should a. Senior Management d. c. Identify individual quality programs d. d. Be incorporated by the quality assurance function b.c. Protective 251) Who has the primary responsibility of setting the quality culture in the organization a.

255) Total quality management is a common term applied to a quality management system. Another way of expressing statistical process control c. Overall software quality requirements b. All the above 258) Risk is defined as a. Interface quality requirements e. Defect discovery/defect naming . A strategy built around control charts d. Probability * Influence 259) Key elements of a defect management process are: a. Performance requirements d. Occurrence * Risk Factor c. A process to produce zero defects b. Risk Factor * Risk Response Number d. is another approach to implementing balance score card method d. is a systematic method to translate customer wants or needs into product or service 257) Which of the following are categories of acceptance requirement from user’s point of view a. Frequency * Occurrence b. Functionality requirements c. Total quality management is a. Defect Prevention b. is testing of previously verified program of application c. A management philosophy 256) Quality Function Deployment a. helps an organization to decide how the Quality function is deployed b.

Defect management process should be risk driven d. The measuring process to be used in verifying that the standard has been met d. 261) ‘Requirement’ is a formal statement of a. The performance standard for the attribute or a function c. An attribute to be possessed by the product/function to be performed by the product b. All of the above 260) which of the following does not represent the general of defect management philosophy a. None of the above 264) A Test Log a. The primary goal is to prevent defects c. The number of decision statements covered in cyclomatic complexity analysis d. the analysis performed by executing the program code d. a powerful way of expressing yourself to make your presence felt 263) Condition coverage is a. is a worksheet/spreadsheet to record test activities b. The property of logical coherence among constituent modules of a system c. All the above 262) Dynamic assertion is a. All the below b. All of the below are the general principles b. helps to record incidents into the defect tracking system . Capture and analysis of the defect information should be automated e. Defect information should be used towards process improvement. Defect resolution d. A black box testing technique b. a way of empowering people in the organization c.c.

Identify test cases and test cycles. All of the above 268) During the recording of test results. Assign test scripts b. Any of the above is a right sequence 266) Which of the following does not represent major concerns in the mind of testers during test execution step? a. Set up Test environment. Set up Test environment. None of the above 267) Which of the following is/are factors used by Test Manager to determine whether the application is ready for production a. Activities involved . Identify test cases and test cycles. deviations must be documented. Assign test scripts. is responsible for conducting the test readiness review d. should contain the procedure environment and tools for test execution e. b. Which of the following attributes should be documented? a. Developer will not appreciate testing e. MTBF Mean time between failures (MTBF) is the predicted elapsed time between inherent failures of a system during operation. All of the following b. Identify test cases and test cycles. Severity level-wise number of open defects d. Set up Test environment. Inadequate time/resources c. Significant problem will not be uncovered during testing d. Risk associated with moving the application into production e. Review test results c. Software not in a testable mode b. Review test results d. only(a) and (b) above 265) Which of the following is the correct sequence to test execution? a. Review test results. Assign test scripts. Failure or % coverage achieve by the executed test c.c.

Identify procedures d. Deficiencies noted e. Avoiding risks c. 2 3.1 What technique is most effective in encouraging participation of attendees at meetings? a. 5. iv. Which of the following represents the correct sequences? a. 4 1. 5. It can help identify error-prone parts of the process b. Having the moderator play the devil’s advocate b. Identify workflow c. Users/Customer served d. iii. It cannot be applied. 1. there is no normal variation in software c. 4. Developing strategies to address risk 272) How could root cause analysis be applied to software? a. 1. Recreate the circumstances i. 4. 270) 5. 4 . 3. 3. 2. Eliminating risks b. Identify people involved e. Role playing and requesting suggestions d. Define the problem b. 2. It cannot be used to identify similar types of failures . Requiring participation 271) Risk management involves identifying risk and ___________ a.c. Tell people that participation will be one of the appraisal factors c. 5 ii. 2. 3. Risk analysis d. The determination of the cause requires a scientific approach. Procedure used to perform work 269) The ‘cause’ is the underlying reason for the ‘condition’.

Keep re-work costs as low as possible . Control c. Zero defects d. Find root causes d. The fourth part of the PDCA cycle is: a. Coordinate d. Assign quality responsibilities c. Check 276) The primary purpose of quality control is to: a. Meeting requirements b. Improve metrics c. Find who cause the error c. Reduce Variability 274) Quality has been defined as: a. Conducting testing d. 275) (a) and (b) Three part of the PDCA cycles are act. Customer satisfaction c. Increase competition b. Create e. It cannot be applied. Find and correct defects e. Identify error not removed previously b. Writing work processes 277) The overall goal of software testing is to: a. software failure expose the root cause directly 273) One of the primary objective of process control is to: a.d. plan and do. Calibrate b. Prevent defect from occurring b.

Logic driven c. None of the above 278) With the acquisition of a testing tool. Identify the goal for the tool usage d. Data driven b. Internal d. After requirements b. Top down driven 282) The most effective test approach is to begin testing when: a. Decide how much to pay b.d. Make sure your management agrees to use the tool 279) The objectives of _________Control are to prevent. A new project begins . the test engineer’s first priority is to: a. Bottom up driven d. System Testing c. Check with end-user first c. Acceptance Testing 281) White box testing is primarily: a. External c. Regression Testing b. a. Unit Testing d. After coding d. Environmental 280) Testing to determine that current changes have NOT adversely affected previous functionality is called: a. After external design c. detect or correct or incorrect processing. Transaction processing system b.

The payback is greater than its cost over time b. Defect Management e. Of continuous improvement 285) The characteristic of an effective meeting for testing related issues include: a. Requirements b. Problem Analysis c. Clearly define the test objective e. Do Procedure c. Develop an agenda b. Define the role of the people attending the meeting c. Input b. Regression Testing . External design c. Encourages attendees to contribute fully d. All the above 286) Which of the following is NOT part of a process workbench? a. Coding e. Internal design d. Output 287) Quality function deployment is most associated with: a. Total Quality Management b. There is a never ending goal to be achieved d.283) Verification is an approach to testing that can occur during: a. It’s difficult to quantify consumer satisfaction c. This is because: a. All of the above 284) Quality is often referred to as being free. Check Procedure d.

None of the listed options d. A requirement implemented incorrectly d. None of the listed options c. a. Test objective b. techniques and tool to be used.is a statement of what the tester is expected to accomplish or validate during a testing activity. Risk analysis 290) Which is the test method satisfying the coverage criteria that each logical path through the program be tested? a. Test design c. Defect Report c. Requirements b. Control c. Performance testing c. File integrity . Test Strategy 292) ---------------------is a test technique that changes a data element in a single file. Integration testing b. Security d. identifying what levels of testing are to be applied and the method. Tracing requirements e. An extra function provided in the system b.is a statement of the overall approach to testing. Interface testing d. Requirement review d. a. Continuous Process Improvement 288) Which among the following is not a defect? a.d. A requirement not implemented in the system 289) ----------. Risk analysis b. Path testing 291) ----------. a. which is redundant in several files. This technique also verifies that other files will be changed accordingly. Usability testing e.

training survey. test data preparation d. studies e. defects present in production environment causes EXCEPT: --------------------- 300) Following are the valid testing certifications EXCEPT: BSTE The defect management process is based on the following general principles: . Error guessing c. use of ineffective test techniques d. requirement trace ability matrix c. All of the listed options b. Force field analysis d. testing at the wrong phase in the life cycle c. all of the listed options b. test plan preparation 299) Most of the problems associated with the testing process occur from one of the following a. survey b. Acknowledge defect c. rework 297) Top-down integration testing has as its major advantage(S) so that low level modules never need testing. Report Defect d.293) Which among the following are techniques that facilitate the recording of the defect at each stage or test process? a. failure to define testing objectives b. State true or false 298) Creating representative processing conditions using test transactions is the concept of a. Exit Criteria b. training survey etc. Formal analysis to be complete and acceptable? 295) Testing cost that exceeds the cost of defect uncovered isn’t a indicator of ‘over-testing” state true or false 296) Cost of non-conformance includes -------------------------------a. Defect naming 294) Which among the following is a set of predefined action items used by tester for a process a. etc c. studies and survey d.

6. In other words. 2. Defect measurement should be integrated into the software development process and be used by the project team to improve the process. in fact. As much as possible. Thus to prevent defects.e. Defect information should be used to improve the process. the goals are to both find the defect as quickly as possible and minimize the impact of the defect. strategies. should capture information on defects at the source. is the primary reason for gathering defect information. the process must be altered. The defect management process should be risk driven -. . by doing their job. 5. the project staff. This.. Where this is not possible or practical. the capture and analysis of the information should be automated. It should not be done after-the-fact by people unrelated to the project or system 4. The primary goal is to prevent defects.1. and resources should be based on the extent to which risk can be reduced. priorities. Most defects are caused by imperfect or flawed processes.i. 3.

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