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59870690-2002NBDE

59870690-2002NBDE

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1.

Just prior to ovulation. the preovulatory follicle produces and secretes large amounts of which of the following hormones? A.

6.

In a mature tooth, what is the location of the FIRST dentin that was produced during crown formation?

B.

(9
2.

C.

Human chorionic gonadotropin Luteinizing hormone Progesterone Androgens Estrogen 7.

A.
B.

@
A.

C.

Adjacent to the pulp In the cervical area Part 01 secondary dentin Part 01 circumpulpal dentin Adjacent to the dentinoename'

;, 'n ction

Enamel spindles might following?

represent which

of the

Protrusion of the tip of the tongue beyond the opening of the oral cavity is accomplished PRIMARIL Y by which of the following muscles?

A. B.

..."

.

_. ..

;

~

MylOhyoid Hyoglossal Styloglossus Genioglossus Intrinsic tongue

C.

D. E.
8.

Areas of organic enamel matrix that are more highly mineralized than other areas of the enamel Odontoblastic processes that extend across the DEJ into enamel Areas 01 more highly mineralized enamel prisms Characteristics of prismless enamel Nerve fibers types of epithelium are

rJ ........
"-.1
1'-.)
'<:---.

('l

I ~

3.

'\\

~r

'J

.,J

~
,~

In a histologic section through the epiphyseal plate of the femur of an 1B-year-old male, which of the following is the zone in which cartilage lacunae appear swollen and the chondrocytes are large?

Which of the following found in the colon?

@
9.

C.

U

,,,,;

,,J

I_r.

['<)

~
C.

E.

D.

Proliferation Bone deposition Reserve cartilage Cartilage calcification Hypertrop y and maturation

D.

Transitional Simple columnar Stratified squamous Pseudostratified ciliated columnar

Inability to move the diaphragm with a total se i the following spinal levels?

is consistent

fK)
4.
B. C.
Each of the following is an ectomesenchymal derivative EXCEPT one. Which one is this

D.
L.

C2 C6 C7
CB

T2
supplies sensation to the (above the vocal fold)?

EXCEPTION?

\
\
5.

@
D.
E.

A.

Pulp Dentin Enamel Alveolar bone Periodontal ligament

10. Which of the following
interior of the larynx

D.

E.

Recurrent laryngeal nerve Superior laryngeal nerve Glossopharyngeal nerve Pharyngeal plexus Mandibular nerve

Sensations of pain and temperature by which of the following tracts? A. Corticospinal Corticobulbar Lateral spinothalamic Ventral reticulospinal Dorsal spinocerebellar

are carried

11.• The middle meningeal
vault through the A. B. foramen foramen foramen foramen superior

artery enters the cranial

~
E.

~

E.

ovale. lacerum. rotundum. spinosum. orbita: fissure.

12. Which of the following structures is likely to be
found within A. the posterior mediastinum? Heart Phrenic nerve Thoracic duct Arch of the aorta Recurrent laryngeal nerve

17. Which of the following
innervated exclusively A.

pairs of muscles by the trigeminal

is nerve?

@

C.

~
E.

D.
E.

13.

Optic nerve fibers from the nasal half of the retina cross the midline and enter the optic tract of the opposite side by way of the

Mylohyoid and geniohyoid Medial and lateral pterygoid Tensor and levator veli palatini Anterior and posterior bellies of the digastric Buccinator and superior pharyngeal constrictor

18.

@
D.
E.

A.

optic chiasma. lateral geniculate body. bipolar cells of the retina. brachium of the superior colliculus. geniculocalcarine tract (optic radiations).

Intercalated disks cell types?

connect which of the following

~

C. D. E.

Schwann Cardiac muscle Skeletal muscle Transitional epithelial Stratified squamous epithelial

14.

Each of the following statements regarding the masseter muscle is correct EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION? A.
,-j Ie masseter muscle possesses two heads of origin. The masseteric nerve reaches the masseter muscle by passing through the mandibular foramen. I nterdigitations of the masseter and medial pterygoid muscles form the pterygomandibular sling. The vascular supply to the masseter

19.

Which of the following represents the anterior boundary of the mandibular fossa of the temporal bone? Styloid process Articular eminence Petrotympanic fissure External auditory meatus Mastoid process of temporal bone

@

~

C. D.
E.

I
15.

C.

D.
E.

20.

W~i~h of the following exhibits phagocytic in the central nervous system?

@
C. D.
E.

Which of the following describes the origin and subsequent spread of the wave of depolarization in the normal human heart? A. Atria, sino-atrial (SA) node, atrioventricular (AV) node, bundle branches, ventricles Sino-atrial (SA) node, atrioventricular (A V) node, bundle branches, atria, ventricles Sino-atrial (SA) node, atria, atrioventricular (AV) node, bundle branches, ventricles Atrioventricular (AV) node, atria, sino-atrial (SA) node, bundle branches, ventricles Atrlqventricular (AV) node, sino-atrial (SA) node, bundle branches, atria, ventricles

Ependymal cell Microglial cell Oligodendrocyte Fibrous astrocyte Protoplasmic astrocyte

~1.

@
C.

Whicl, of the following nerves innervates the taste buds of the anterior two-thirds of the tongue?

@
C.

D.
E.

D. E. 22.

Vagus Facial Trigeminal Hypoglossal Glossoph aryngeal

Sensations from the left face and teeth are interpreted in which of the following lobes? A.

16.

Which of the following bones forms the roof of the orbit? A. B. C. Zygomatic Maxilla Palatine Sphenoid Frontp'

® E.
4

B.

Left frontal Right frontal Left parietal Right parietal Right temporal

b

23.

Which of the following is the major nerve of the posterior aspect of the arm and forearm? Ulnar Radial Median Axillary Musculocutaneous

29.

Cutaneous innervation of the chin and lower lip is mediated by wh ich of the followi n g?

~

C D.

@
D. E.

A.

E.

Mental nerve Facial nerve Inferior alveolar nerve Buccal nerve of V Branches of the maxillary division

of V

24.

A patient has muscle pain when moving the mandible to the left. Which of the following muscles is MOST likely causing the pain in this situation?

30.

If the internal carotid arteries become occluded then blood can still reach the arterial circle . primarily through which of the totlowt ng arteries?

A. B. C.

~
25.

Left masseter Left medial pterygoid Right medial pterygoid Left lateral pterygoid Right lateral pterygoid

~

C.
D. E.

Vertebral Middle cerebral Superior cerebellar Anterior inferior cerebellar Posterior inferior cerebellar

Which of the following is the only part of the gastrointestinal system that has villi, goblet cells, and mucous-secreting glands in the submucosa?

31.

A laceration of the palatal mucosa in the area of the first molar is MOSTlikely to damage which of the following arteries? Posterior superior Greater palatine Lesser palatine Pterygopalatine Nasopalatine alveolar

A. B.

~
26.

Ileum Stomach Jejunum Duodenum Esophagus

~

C.
D. E.

The branches of the maxillary artery supply each of the following EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION? A. B. Nasal septum Mandibular incisors Hard and soft palate Skin of the forehead Muscles of mastlcado'r

32.

The pterygoid plexus is usually formed by veins that are tributaries of which of the following?

~
C. D.

~
27.

E.

Maxillary ve i n Angular vein Facial vein Occipital vein Anterior jugular

vein

Q
B. C. D.

Which of the following differentiates from enamel?

cementum

33.

Which of the following lingual papillae have the THICKEST layer of keratin on their surfaces? Foliate Filiform Fungiform Circumvallate

Presence of collagen fibers Presence of incremental lines Presence of hydroxyapatite crystals Derived from the dental papilla

D.
34.

28.

Each of the following bones contributes to the formation of the calvaria EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPT/ON?

Which of the following represents the MaS T common cartilage found in the embryo and in the adult?

cD

8. C.

A.

Frontal Temporal Parietal Occipital Zygomati',

@)
C.

D.

Fibrocartilage Hyaline cartilage Elastic cartilage Calcified cartilage

5

fundal bone. D. B. Thyrohyoid Hyoglossus Geniohyoid Anterior belly of the digastric posterior belly of the digastric ~ E. A. 40. D. 0 D. it maintains contact with Opposing dentition. Parakeratinized. the transverse cervical artery. & C. columnar stratified squamous stratified squamous stratified squamous The thyrocervical trunk is comprised of the inferior thyroid.ulum Ginyivdl fibers ~ C. E. vertebral. 36. D. B. Which of the following contains cells that secrete trypsinogen? 46. superior thyroid. E. Orthokeratinized. Which one is this EXCEPTION? 41. ~ Ileum Liver Duodenum Pancreas Gallbladder During active eruption. A.tellate rptir. alveolar bone. nerve supply to the facial mucosa and I in which of the following nerves? Mental Lingual Inferior alveolar Buccal nerve of V Posterior superior alveolar Sensory ~ 39. L 38. The lingual artery represents a branch of which of the followin-g arteries? A. ascending pharyngeal. The reticular portion of the dermis is classified as which of the following types of connective tissue? A. Frontal Mastoid Ethmoid Sphenoid Maxillary 42. E. The sella turcica lies directly superior to which of the following sinuses? A. main sensory nucleus of V. coronal enamel. ~ C. and the 45. spinal nucleus of V. apical cementum. S. C. E. Herpetic ulcers could occur in which the following locations? Buccal mucosa Labial mucosa Hard palatal mucosa Mucosa of the soft palate Mucosa of the floor of the mouth ~ D. Each of the following muscles elevates the hyoid bone EXCEPT one. Facial Occipital Maxillary External carotid Internal carotid As a tooth undergoes attrition. nucleus ambiguus. A. Simple columnar Pseudostratifled Non-keratinized. 8. @ 43. $. 6 . Loose Adipose Modified elastic Dense regular Dense irregular ~ 37. This results from the apposition of secondary dentin. E.35. dorsal scapular. B. mesencephalic nucleus of V. ~ D. Ulcers of recurrent herpes occur on masticato mucosa. The cell bodies of proprioceptive nerves carryin information from the periodontal ligament are located in the A. E. trigeminal ganglion. suprascapular. the initial epithelial attachment (junctional epithelium) to the enar surface of the tooth results from the fusion of oral epithelium with which of the following? Periodontal ligament fibers Reduced enamel epithelium Stratum intermedium ~.

Serratus anterior and pectoralis major Subscapularis and pectoralis major Biceps brachii and pectoralis minor Subscapularis and subclavius Deltoid and subclavius A. Cementum Dental pulp Mantle dentin Stellate reticulum Periodontal ligament A. C. Osteocyte Osteoblast Osteoclast Chondrocyte Chondroblast . Mental Spinosum Supraorbital Infraorbital Stylomastoid ~ E. blood vessels. Elastic tissue synovial membrane Hyaline cartilage Typical perichondrium Collagenous connective tissue 53. cranial nerves III. fascial planes. B. @ 54. 57. What volume of fully of orqanlc mineralized enamel matrix? is E. 48. which of the following is the location of persistent epithelial rests (of Malassez)? c9 58. and X.. C. In a normal adult. CariOUS Predentin Intertubular Interglobular Intra(peri)tubular The spleen is in closest following? relation to which of the A. 10% 20% 50% 51. 7 B. A blow that shatters the coracoid process will have a direct effect on which of the following pairs of muscles? A. lymphatic vessels. cw. IX. A. Right hyoglo!'sus Right geniohyoid Left genioglossus Left palatoglossus Left lateral pterygoid (9 56.47. cg? E. hyoid musculature. One terminal branch of the maxillary nerve emerges through which of the following foramina? A. B. B. D. Duodenum Right kidney Ascending colon Right lobe of the liver Inferior surface of the diaphragm Which of the following cells is multinucleated? A. E. <b C. 55. B. B. 49. Fibroblasts Osteoblasts Kupffercells Hassan's corpuscles Sheathed arteries of the spleen A patient's tongue markedly deviates to the left during protrusion. D. B. C. Proteins for extracellular use can be synthesized in which of the following structures? A. Which of the following muscles is unable to contract? The sympathetic innervation head and neck is distributed to structures via the of the A. C. C. @ 52. 50. Which of the following types of dentin is the MOST highly mineralized? A. @. Nucfeolemma Mitochondria Heterochromatin Rough endoplasmic reticulum Smooth endoplasmic reticulum <pmo". B. E. The articulating surface of the adult mandibular condyle is covered by which of the following substances? A. Which of the following are included in the mononuclear phagocytic system? ¥E. » ~ E. VII.

E.59. O. Lateral Capsular Stylohyoid Styloma ndibular Sphenomandibular Calcitonin cells? is produced by which of the following Which of the following arteries is usually the most inferior branch arising from the external carotid artery? Superficial temporal Posterior auricular Superior thyroid Maxillary Lingual A. then which of the foltovving epithelia would MOST likely be associated with it? Transitional Simple cuboidal Simple columnar Simple squamous Pseudostratified columnar If there 65. to distinguish between a section of the arch of the aorta and a section of the brachial artery? A. A B. 60. A. Thyroid follicular Thyroid parafollicular Oxyphil of the parathyroid Principal of the parathyroid Pars intermedia of the pituitary S> D. 67. E. ~ Nucleolemma Polyribosomes Golgi apparatus Rough endoplasmic reticulum Smooth endoplasmic reticulum 63. 70. O. C. A. C. Which of the following ligaments is MOST after damaged in a n inferior alveolar nerve block? A. The The Both The The left lung only right lung only lungs rib cage on the left side left lung and pericardial sac A. ~ 68. of the following produce surfactant? Monocytes Clara cells Goblet cells Type I pneumocytes Type II pneumocytes Bone tissue increases following means? A. Which A. in size by which of the ® 62. 61. ~ O. E. ~ Type of endothelium Width of tunica intima Type of tissue in the tunica adventitia Composition of tissue in the tunica media Type of tissue directly underlying the endothelium Melanocytes migrate to the lamina propria of the oral mucosa from which of the following? A. is an organ that needs to stretch and return to its original shape. O. B. E. Action of osteoclasts Mitotic dlvlslon of osteocytes Appositional growth by osteoblasts Interstitial growth byosteoblasts A stab wound creating a pneumothorax on the left side will usually result in collapse of which of the following? In which of the following structures are C. E. B. B. Nucleolus Microtubules Nuclear pores Rough endoplasmic reticulum Smooth endoplasmic reticulum Usually. @ D. E. ® E. a periapical first premolar drains following spaces? Sublingual Submandibular Parapharyngeal Retropharyngeal Pterygomandibular abscess of a mandibular lingually into which of the Which of the following can be used. cp C. The nucleoptasm is contlnuous with the cytoplasm by 'hdy of which of the following? 69. 64. B. on a histologic level. 8 B. c9 66. Myotome Dermatome Scheratome Neural crest Rathke's pouch . B.

A. 10 . D. Which one is this EXCEPTION? A. C. Each of the following cranial nerves is associated with the cavernous sinus EXCEPT one. E. E.hth. motor branches of the facial nerve. all bones. ~ E. E. Each of the folowing is found In the retrodiscal pad of the TMJ EXCEPT one. Demilunes Striated ducts Intercalated ducts Myoepithelial cells Excessive fat throughout 92. 87. D.JII'I'1::: division of V. sensory branches of the c::. posterior intercostal arteries. The internal thoracic artery gives rise to the A. E. E. D. E. ~ C. ~ costocervical trunk. C. Celiac Splenic Gastric Proper hepatic Superior mesenteric A. D. E. mesenchymal sheets. D. The mature dental pulp is composed primarily which of the following connective tissues? 0 the stroma ~ C. Which one is this EXCEPT/ON? A. flat bones. Dense Loose Mucoid Adipose Elastic B. V1 V2 V3 Facial nerve Vagus nerve hepatic artery is a branch of which (i) 8. sensory branches of the maxillary division of V. long bones. Fossa ovalis Hepatic vein Ligamentum teres Ductus arteriosis Crista terminalis 85. E. superior epigastric and musculophrenic arteries. motor branches of the mandibular division of V. D.82. bronchial and esophageal arteries. B. Which of the following parts of the hypophysis the site of oxytocin release? Pars nervosa Infundibulum Pars distalis Pars tuberalis Pars intermedia i: 86. Ulnar Median Radial Axillary Musculocutaneous Q 8. Facial Abducens Trochlear Trigeminal Oculomotor The common vessel? 90. 93. sensory branches of the frontal nerve. D. C. ~ 8. Which of the following statements BEST describes the zygomaticotemporal and zygomaticofacial nerves? They are A. '. Endochondral formation of ossification Occurs in the A. elastic cartilage. ~ 84. 8. Which of the following does a human possess before birth but not after? normally C. Which of the following is a unique characteristic of a mixed serous and mucous gland? ~ C. then which of the following would be anesthetized? 89. B. If local anesthetic solution were deposited in the pterygopalatine fossa. Elastic fibers A venous plexus Collagen fibers Hyaline cartilage Loose connective tissue 88. 83. Which of the following is the motor nerve innervating most thenar muscles? 91.

Acid solubility of the surface enamel is redur'. Which of the following two muscles prevent food from entering swallowi ng? the nasopharynx during 100. 96. Which of the following correctly matches a part of the urinary of epithelium? A. Cell bod ies of sympathetic fibers in the nerve of the pterygoid following? A. ~ D. system with its characteristic type c9 97.!l3ry teeth initally passes into which of the following lymph node groups? A_ Parotid Submental Submandibular Jugulodigastric Jugulo-omohyoid A. regular. elastic fiber bundles. Lymphatic drainage from may. B. canal come from which of the 99.:--- . C. 98. Large collecting tubule . collagenous bundles. A tendon consists mainly of ~ D.:ld by the !!'-IOri06. The primary cuticle. loose collagenous bundles.. collagenous bundles.. 95. irregular. c.----:--..stratified squamous Thick limb of Henle -. Fluoride coats the tooth forming a uniform protective barrier.stratified cuboidal Bowman's capsule . Facial nerve Su perior cervical ganglion Greater petrosal nerve Glossopharyngeal nerve Otic ganglion reticular fibers.·_·:>ome Centrosome Mitochondrion Gofgi apparatus Endoplasmic reticulum Which of the follOwing represents the basis for the topical application of fluorides in dental caries prevention? A.simple squamous Which of the follOwing is the cellular organelle that contains many types of hydrolytic enzymes? Q B. Keratin content of the enamel is made more insoluble. D. D. E. absorbs the fluoride.. E. dense. E. B. Mylohyoid and the palatoglossus Styloglossus and the palatoglossus Tensor tympani and the stylopharyngeus Tensor veli palatini and the levator veli palatini Musculus uvulae and the inferior pharyngeal constrictor ~ E.simple columnar Urinary bladder . dense. E.1. Fluoride penetrates the enamel through the lamellae. D. being less calcified. cp C.stratified columnar Thin limb of Henle -. 94. . . . C.-. 11 . LYE..

phosphorylase. carbonic anhydrase. A dental patient presents with a bluish discoloration of the mucous membranes indicative of cyanosis.ones? A. j. Decreased capillary permeability Decreased plasma proteins Decreased capillary pressure Increased lymphatic return Increased plasma proteins Which of the following vessels contains the HIGHEST viscosity blood in the body? ~~ ''2 E. D. a decreased hemoglobin concentration. C. increased levels of reduced hemoglobin. E. lung. glucose into muscle. kidney The extracellular edema in patients with cirrhosis of the liver is caused by which of the following? @ C. E. B. Promotes differentiation of epithelial cells. Promotes absorption of calcium. @ B. D. phosphatase. D. C. sodium into an endothelial cell. bone Bone. duodenum. adenylate cyclase. Which of the following provides the immediate energy source for the transport of glucose into intes. c9 @ E. B. J. increased Pco •. Intestine.lnal epithelial cells? A. heart. Which of the following statements BEST describes vitamin A's function? Prevents pellagra. kidney Bone. Aorta Vena cava Vasa recta Pulmonary vein Pulmonary artery . Retinol Pyridoxine Folic acid Cobalamine Pantothenic acid Which of the following clinical manifestations is observed in an adult patient with an adenoma of the pituitary gland causing hypersecretion of Growth Hormone? Hypotension Hyperglycemia Short stature Decreased urine formation Decreased basal metabolic rate D. E. (5 D.)w to the affected area. B. An example of primary active transport is the movement of NADH NADPH Na + gradient across the luminal membrane H+ gradient across the luminal membrane GJ C. C. E. intestine. decreased blood f. B. A. B. Maintains the integrity of connective tissues. kidney Heart. Which of the following are the rncjo: target tissues of the calcium regulati~lg horn. potassium into a nerve cell. Which of the following is MOST often associated with transport of fatty acids and bile acids in ? ~) Albumin Globulin Cholesterol Sphingolipid Mucopolysaccharide stimulation A. E. This condition is MOST likely the result of A. D. a decreased red blood cell concentration. proteins across capillaries. oxygen across the alveolar wall. e ieve to act by way of of the membrane-bound enzyme ~ glutaminase. Stimulates collagen synthesis.Which of the following represents the vitamin necessary for coenzyme A synthesis? A.

codon. ~cV 119. 8. Reduce inhibition of tropomyosin ur the myofilaments. E. A. E. C. muscle glycolysis. inhibiting cyclic AMP . @ E. C. 8. the hydrogen ion graC:!~n: is created l. g? m A. Isolation of mRNA Synthesis of double-stranded cDNA Insertion of the cDNA into the vector DNA ~ Expression of the cloned gene by the bacteria Introduction of recombinant DNA into a bacterial cell During nuclear processing of hnRNA to mRNA. C. anticodon. enhancing the binding of epinephrine to an extracellular membrane receptor./ I r se ac IVI . enhanced glucose reabsorption by renal tubules. ATP NAD Citrate Cyclic AMP Acetyl CoA 114. 121. 113.3ing ene from which of the follov. During oxidative phosphorylation. inducing adenylate cyclase synthesis. Which of the following statements BEST describes the primary role of calcium in the activation of cardiac muscle? Cause depolarization of the muscle Couple myosin and actin to form actinomyosin. E. liver glycogenolysis. the portion of the molecule that is removed is the exon. inhibition of cortisol action. intron.. the growth hormone. Which of the following represenls the princi allosteric regulator of pyruvate metabolism the liver? A. ® D. Which of the following can increase the rate of net flux or diffusion of oxygen through the alveolar membrane? A. Which of the following characterizes generator potential of a receptor? the A. B ADP transport ATP synthesis ATP hydrolysis' Reduction of NAD+ Electron transfers ~ D. Methyl xanthines such as caffeine and theophylline enhance lipolysis in adipose tissue by A. 115. directly activating an intracellular protein kinase. D. Decreasing the temperature Increasing the cross-sectional area ~ Decreasing the concentration gradient Increasing the path length of diffusion 120. At which stage in the process of gene cloning are restriction nucleases used? A. E. An all-ot-none response Propagated in a non-aecremental manner Universally present in all nerve tissues ( Graded according to the strength of the lstimulus 118. Which of the following compounds is an intermediate in the biosynthesis of cholest« Squalene Hexosamine Cholic acid Pregnanediol Deoxycholic acid D. E. D. 116. 8. Activate myosin molecules so that t: can interact with actin filaments. inducing triglyceride lipase synthesis. . 5' cap.r The hyperglycemic effect of glucagon is mediated primarily through 117. C.

increase ~ Each of the following occurs during swallowing EXCEPT one. Cephalin Lecithin Ganglioside Cerebroside Sphingomyelin ~31. Proofreads the DNA proper basepairing. D. E.. Which of the following membrane components consists of glycerol.:) '\) \( C. D. \!:) 123. Serine 'Alanine Glycine Proline Arginine 132. decrease D.. in gastric motility. E. .nerally increases the rate of anabolic (biosynthetic) reactions? r. E. Insulin Glucagon Cortisol Epinephrine Somatostatin BEST During the period of isovolumetric which of the following happe'ls? contraction. B. tJ C. Urea Ammonia Uric acid Pyrimidines Amino acids 128. C. (i) B.. Which of the following statements BEST describes the activity of DNA ligase? A.) ~ecrease C. phosphate. in intestinal motility. 124. D. Larynx is elevated. ® C. alteration in the threshold potential of the muscle cell. The lett ventricular pressure is rising rapidly. The aortic pressure is slightly less than the left ventricular pressure. Epiglottus covers the trachea.diffusion? A. C. 130.~ 122. In the biosynthesis of purines. The right ventricular pressure is greater than the left ventricular pressure. D. C. 126. Transrnlasion of impulses from the motor nerve to the muscle cell regularly produces ~ an action potential in the muscle cell. The semilunar valves are open. Eustacian tubes close. B. C. Which of the following hormones gp.. It is independent of temperature. Linolenic and arachidonic acids serve as precursors to which of the following? Prostaglandins Steroid hormones Cholesterol Cholecalciferol 125. It requires a semipermeable membrane.. which of the following is the source of MOST of the nitrogen? A. Respiration is inhibited. hyperpolarization of the muscle cell. increase (§. 129. in intestinal motility. B. E. a graded potential in the muscle cell. and choline? D.. Which of the following statements characterizes sirnple. . reflex produces a (an) 127. hypo polarization of the muscle cell. E. D. D. It moves down its concentration gradient. Removes the RNA primer from the lagging strand.. B'\ ~ GJ D. Prevents the polymerase from falling off the DNA. D. The enterogastric . fatty acids. Which one is this EXCEPTION? in gastric motility. I C\~ V It requires a carrier. It requires hydrophobic interaction... Which of the following amino acids has a hydroxyl group ~hat sometimes participates enzyme reactions? in ~ C. Seals Single-stranded nicks in DNA.

The respiratory muscles are fatigued. decreased arterial P02. ~ ATP UTP AMP (adenosine-5'·monophosphaIE UDPG (uridine diphosphoglucose) Cyclic AMP (adenosine-3'. Oxaloacetate plays an important role in the body by A. Which of the foJl'"'wing statements explains why hyperventilauc: often produces muscle spasms? A. A dental patient begins to experience acute pain and becomes anxious. 142. . Each of the following is characteristic of creatinine EXCEPT one. These symptoms are the result of A. reabsorbed into the lymph. thiamine and riboflavin. aminoacylt-RNA synthetase initiation and elongation factors. 141. 5'· mono phosphate ) 135. excreted in the feces. participating in transacet lation reactions. After taking part in fat digestion and absorption. decreased arterial PC02. vitamins C and D.e & >: rl const. excreted in the urine. c. C. ~ 139. There is too much O2 available. elevated arterial HC03. Which one is this EXCEPTION? Freely filtered Slightly secreted \0\' Slightly reabsorbed ~ :'rr:-duced endoqenously ra. the bulk of the bile salts are A. C. 140. reacting with coenzyme A to form acetoacetate. vitamins E and K. participating in transmethylation reactions. binding of N-formylmethionyl-tRNA the ribosomes. The pH of the blood has dropped sharply. Bile Urine Saliva Gastric juice Pancreatic juice s: l. Pernicious anemia is frequently associated with a deficiency of A. Decrease renal filtration fraction Increase storage capacity of the bladder Decrease permeability of distoconvoluted tubules and/or collecting ducts to water Increase permeability of distoconvoluted tubules and/or collecting ducts to water 138. 137. t reabsorbed into the portal circulation. vitamin 812 and folic acid. The first step in the utilization of amino acid for protein synthesis requires . 8. self-assembly of 30S and 50S ribosomal subunits.) B. elevated arterial PC02. C. B. Which of the following statements BEST describes the action of antidiuretic hormone? A. D. 8. and becomes dizzy and she signs of loss of consciousness. . Which of the following usually has an H' concentration greater than 1 x 10'] M? A. B. There is not enough phosphate present. B. decreased Hco] '. B. ~ E. begins to hyperventilate.estroyed by bacteria i" the colon. (. C. D. 134. B. Which of the following compounds is direct involved in the action of hormones on their target cells? A. C. C2 136. ~ reacting with acetyl coenzyme A to form citrate.133. vitamins A and D. ~ The loss of CO2 has caused alkalosis. I r. B.

~ Transport is blocked by aldosterone. D. As found in bone and enamel contains no ion substitutions. D. Solubility decreases as [H+) increases.ns 152. Cannotsynthesize phenylalanine. E. 151. (0 ~ 147. E. Secondary protein structures.perte~:il::sb: ::::n Of ~ the following? Reflex vasoconstriction Retention of potassium in blood increas ec output of el.9 percent NaCI. Hypopolarized cell membrane potential Hyperactive neuromuscular reflexes D. Has an amphiphilic surface.. ~0 B.. Have to eat a diet high in phenylalanine. Transport is primarily by active secretion into the tubular fluid. such as betapleated sheets. D. E.. Reduced serum potassium (hypokalemia) might produce which of the follol. C.illephrine .143. C. Dopamine is synthesized in two steps from which of the following compounds? Choline Tyrosine Tryptophan Acetyl CoA Arachidonic acid E.r. Transport from the lumen of the nephron depends upon Na + transport. C. Which of the folie ""ing staten. A O. E. 149.. Transport occurs in exchange for H+.nts describes hydroxyapatite? A. They hydrolyze alpha 1-4 linkages in starch. C D. Contains 12 ions per unit cell.J They bind selectively to dental enamel.. C. Which of the following represents the sensory organs concerned with maintenance of skeletal muscle tonus? Sarcomeres Muscle spindles Gamma efferents Pacinian corpuscles Goigi tendon ore . the erythrocyte is not permeable to NaC/. Can synthesize tyrosine. Have a deficiency of the enzyme phenylalanine hydroxylase.lg results? Reduced membrane threshold potential Elevated membrane threshold potential Hyperpolarized cell membrane D.g-percent solution of sodium chloride is isotonic with blood because A. -/@ 145. B. are stabilized by which of the following? Hydrogen bonds Disulfide bonds van der Waals force Hydrophobic interactions Electrostatic interactions 148. C. They promote calcium phosphate precipitation. Has a higher solubility product constant than fluoroapatite. C. it has the same surface tension as blood it exhibits the same osmolari4' as blood. . Reabsorption is largest in the distal tubule. 144.. Which of the following statements describes a property or function of salivary lysozyrnes? ~ C. 150. '® Y. it has the same salt concentration as b\ood. D. 17 D. BEST B. They have bactericidal activity . vi" 146. blood contains 0. { Reduced renal blood flow can cause ~~ . B. Which of the following statements BEST describes infants with phenylketonuria? A. B. Which of the following BEST describes glucose handling by the kidney? A.

nonpolar Polar. E. B. ribosomal RNA. left side of the body below T2. 161. hydrophilic circumstances w I 2 ~ n 154. might present with which of the following symptoms? 160. hydrophilic Branched. E. 159. as a result of severe vomiting following over-use of a narcotic analgesic. measured clinically as a predictor of glomerular filtration rate? A. Which of the following to produce edema? An increased pulse rate An increased blood pressure Facial edema Distended neck veins Desire to constantly urinate by which of Increased tissue oncotic pressur Increased plasma oncotic press: '''creased tissue hydrostatic pre: Decreased plasma hydrostatic pressure Decreased venous pressure is the major stors in the liver? 155. D. negatively charged Nonpolar. left side of the body above T2. tRNA. &> E. B. (f) B. The amino acid inserted in a polypeptide chain during protein synthesis is determined by a complementary relationship between mRNA and DNA. right side of the body below T2. B. Dextran Glucose Amylose Glycogen Fructose collagen? ct. (§) 164. C.. D. D. A dehydrated dental patient. @ D. Which of the following fatty acids has tI greatest number of double bonds? Oleic Stearic Palmitic Arachidonic Q 158.. B. D. right side of the body above T2. C. Spasticity is BEST characterlzec the following? A. positively charged Cyclic. Which of the following functional group are essential for a substance to act as amphipathic (amphiphilic) molecule? Polar.I 153. A. G. Myosin Myosin Myosin Myosin ATPase kinase reductase phosphatase $ 18 . Which of the following form of carbohydrates A. Which of the following substances is responsible for initiating cross-bridge cycling in smooth muscle? Which of the following is a component coenzyme required for a transarninauo process? A. Failure of recruitment Depressed stretch reflexes Exaggerated stretch reflexes Presence of fibrillary contractions ~ E. E. D. B. q C. Niacin Thiamine Folic acid Pyridoxine Riboflavin <b c. 157. Renin Inulin Fructose Creatinine Angiotensin Destruction of the left spinocerebellar tract at T2 would be expected to eliminate positional sense on the A. amino acids. A soluble fiber of ground substance The most abundant protein in the body A fibrous protein with a high content of tryptophan A globular protein with a high content of hydroxyproline 163.

176. . 186. B. descending limb of the action potential. A. 183. A. E. Tapping on the side of the face eticits a contraction of the masseter muscle. Oxytocin following A. Decreased hydrogen ion Concentratic in blood Increased hydrogen ion concentrauor in blood Marked increase in pulmonary uptake of oxygen Increased oxygen carrying capacity c venous blood Decreased oxygen concentration In arterial blood e-. Q B. Which of the following potential clinical complications should MOST concern the dentist? cb D. A. Which of the following molecules NAD+ and FAD? @ C. B. ® D. positive after-potential. cortisol. Thyroid secretion is stimulated by which of the Iollowinn? A. This is an example of which of the following kinds of reflex? Stretch Polysynaptic Cross extensor Withdrawal Inverse stretch 181. Arginine Adenine Aspartic acid Asparagine Alanine is responsible actions? for which of the The conversion of a circulating vitamin D metabolite to its MOST active form takes place in the A. o I i . Which of the following mediates dissolution the fibrin clot during vessel repair" Plasmin Factor II (thrombin) Factor III (tissue thromboplastin) Factor XIII (fibrin stabilizing factor) ( &J 178. intestinal mucosa. skin.'_' " . D. E. Hypoxia Propylthiouracil Exogenous thyroid hormone High serum iodide concentration Prolonged exposure to a cold environment 182. Production of phosphoenolpyruvate carboxykinase is stimulated by insulin. kidney. is commo C. 177. 180. D E. *$ D. B. Which of the following represents the compound that contains an active (labile) methyl group? Serine Creatine A dental patient is a Type I diabetic and is scheduled for extractions. E. C. ascending limb of the action potential. Sodium permeability (conductance) membrane is maximal during the of an axon 185. B. C. Excessive bleeding Frequent desire to urinate Increased potential for infection Inability to obtain anesthesia Probability of seizure 184. C. bone. D. A. ~ @ 20 Regulating blood calcium levels Preventing formation of gOiters Preventing release of insulin Causing contractions of uterine srnc muscle during labor . 179. negative after-potential. liver. aldosterone. Voluntary overventilation which of the following? of lungs results In B. somatotropin.

D. rapid conduction of impulses through the atria. D. c. This observation represents A.. A ~ 190. 195. Translation Transcription Replication Reverse Transcription 196. Mucins Calcium ions Polysaccharides Salivary protein Glycolytic enzymes Polypeptide hormones generally exert their effect by binding to which of the following? A. Unequal curvature of refracting material of the cornea Eyeball length relative to refractive power of the lens Deficiency of vitamin A for conversion to rhodopsin Loss of elasticity of crystalline lens Detachment of the retina (2. rRNA from cDNA. Intracellular receptors and stimulating protein synthesis Receptors on the cell membrane and stimulating protein synthesis Intracellular receptors and altering the specific activity of certain enzymes Receptors on the cell membrane and altering the specific activity of certain enzymes @ D. is used in vitro to make tRNA from cDNA. D. Each of the following conditions alters the rate of product formation by an enzyme EXCEPT one. mRNA from cDNA. by the Sanger procedure derive from which of the following processes? (i) B. rapid conduction of impulses through the ventricle. Which one is this EXCEPTION? A. 191. D. E. B. B. cDNA from mRNA. slow repolarization of the atria. Edema caused by excessive pulmonary capillary oncotic pressure Edema caused by excessive systemic capillary oncotic pressure Edema caused by excessive pulmonary capillary hydrostatic pressure Edema caused by excessive systemic capillary hydrostatic pressure Ineffective pulmonary lymphatic function A. In evaluating an EKG of a patient. E. slow conduction of impulses through the A-V node.~o. Reverse transcriptase A. C. pH Temperature Ionic strength Iso electric point Substrate conc. slow conduction of impulses through the S-A node. 189. D.187.on W 188. 192. ~ C. E. Which of the following represents a bleeding disorder due to lack of Factor VIII? Thrombosis Hemophilia A Thrombocytopenia Von Willebrand disease B.. B. Alveolar volume decreases Alveolar pressure increases Intrapleural pressure decreases Intrapleural pressure increases @ E.~. cDNA from rRNA. B. E. A. The primary defect in myopia is related to which of the following? A dental patient with left heart failure might show signs of dyspnea when placed in the supine position for which of the following reasons? A. Sucrose will MOST directly contribute to the addition of which of the following to dental plaque? A. it was observed the PR interval was increased. The basic principles for sequencing DNA. C. 21 . 194. Which of the following represents the pressure change when the diaphragm and external Intercostal muscles simultaneously contract? 193. C. B.

Each of the following is necessary for viral antigen recognition by CD4' T-helper cells EXCEPT one. B. E. Which of the following conditions is characterized by a reduction in size and a condensation of nuclear material? D. Mycobacterium avium Treponema pa/lidum Borrelia recurrentis 8. Trachea and bronchus Parenchyma of the lower lobes Parenchyma of the upper lobes Trachea and hilar lymph nodes Subpleural parenchyma and hilar lymph nodes 2 ~ 4. D. antibody binding to endothelial receptors. The upregulation of endothelial adhesion molecules (ICAM-1 and VCAM-1) is in part a response to ~ Lipid A Teichoic acid Core polysaccharide O-specific side chain Keto-deoxy-octanoate ® B.---I( Yu 6. Which of the following produces a bacterial toxi that attaches to presynaptic nerves and blocks the release of acetylcholine? A. Tetanus Injection Placental Antibody measles immunization of gamma globulin transfer of antibody produced during recovery Fe @ D. i\-1 ~ t--A 1. 2. C. ('f'I. Helicobecter pylori Clostridium difficile Clostridium botulinum Staphylococcus aureus Pseudomonas aeruginosa ~ 3. Bacterial iipopc:ysaccharide contains each of the following EXCEPT one. from 2 . B. E.~\. ~-I. B. E. C. €> B. cytokine stimulation. 10. 5. Transition Conjugation Transduction Transformation 7. C. Pyknosis Apoptosis Karyolysis Hypoplasia Karyorrhexis 9. Viral replication in host cells Cleavage of viral proteins into small peptides Transport of viral peptides to a cell surface by MHC Class II molecules Binding of the T cell's TCR to a MHC Clas II bound viral peptide Internalization of the virus (or viral protein) by an antigen presenting cell (fY B. Which one is this EXCEPTION? A. Which of the following organisms is acid-fast? D. An important early event in the chemotactic process is cellular adherence to vascular endothelium.N Which of the following represents the MOST reliable criterion for pathogenicity of staphylococci? . Which of the following forms of bacterial gene transfer is the LEAST susceptible to DNase and does NOT require cer-to-cen contact? o D. Which of the following is the PRIMARY site of Ghon complex? A. Which of the following is an example of naturally-acquired passive immunity in human A. D. Hemolysis Pigment production Coagulase production Mannitol fermentation liquefaction of gelatin D. A._. lysozyme production. protease inhibition !Jy serum anti-proteases . D. E. mast cell degranulation. Which one is this EXCEPTION? A. ~ C. B. C. E.

Which of the following is chiefly an extravascular event? A. u. B. the fecal-oral route. burning pain? 28. E. and histiocytes Lymphocytes. Immunologic injury that involves the activation of complement as an important event in producing damage to tissue is found in which of the following reactions? A. E. and ReedStem berg cells Histiocytes. Lepthothrix bucca/is. Spontaneous gingival bleeding seen in acute leukemia is MOST likely a result of which of the following? @ C. Thrombocytopenia von Willebrand disease Hypoprothrombinemic Vascular fragility Factor VII deficiency . blister-like lesions affecting specific dermatomes and usually causing intense. Hepatitis C virus infection is MOST 0 en transmitted through A. B. ((9 D. rods and cocci and rods and cocci and gram31. eosinophils. Monocytes Neutrophi/s Plasma cells B-Iymphocytes T-lymphocytes 24. Which of the following is characterized by individual. ~ C. Which unique aspect of cariogenic strains 0 Streptococcus mutans sets them apart from other oral acidogenic organisms? Tendency to form chains Secretion of proteolytic enzymes Extracellular polysaccharide made from glucose Formation of water insoluble glucans from sucrose Four equivalents of acid formed per mole of glucose D. Which of the following represents the MOST numerous leukocytes found in gingival crevicular fluid? ~~ A. oral secretions. 27. B. spirochetes and yeasts. E. ~ E.23. and macrophages Basophils. Neutrophils. and basophils Neutrophils. E. gram-positive facultative filamentous bacteria. and mast cells 25. E. mast cells. Such enzymes have been demonstrated as component systems of Potpnyromones species. E. B. Delayed type hypersensitivity Anaphylactic type hypersensitivity Immune-complex mediated hypersensitivity Antibody-dependent cell-mediated cyto to xicity 32. Entamoeba gingiva/is. E. The microflora of the healthy gingival sulcus is predominantly A. E. sexual contact. 29. 26. Stasis Hyperemia Chemotaxis Margination Pavementing © D. respiratory droplets. gram-negative anaerobic fusobacteria. plasma cells. Which of the following groups of cells are characteristic of a chronic inflammatory process? ~{) C. Collagen degradation that is observed in chronic periodontal disease can result directly from the action of collagenase enzymes of oral microbial origin. @ D. D. 8. B. Variola Measles Herpes zoster Infectious mononucleosis Hand-foot-and-mouth disease C. A. D. blood transfusions. Veillon ella species. Reed-Sternberg cells. Enterococcus faecaJis. eosinophils. gram-negative anaerobic positive facultative cocci. gram-positive facultative spirochetes. B. C. 30.

Twenty-four hours later the fragments are manipulated in order to better align before splinting. 54. transformation. Fungi Viruses Protozoa 48. air embolism. cell-mediated immune responses to cellsurface alloantigens. such as allogeneic skin. humoral and cell-mediated responses to intracellular tissue-specific antigens. transduction. G B. E. Vv'llicli of tlie followillg 1lUiliail callcel s is associated with Epstein-Barr virus? T-cell lymphoma Kaposi's sarcoma Hepatocellular carcinoma Nasopharyngeal carcinoma Squamous cell carcinoma of the uterine cervix D. 49. hypovolemic shock. A. Which of the following types of necrosis is particularly characteristic of pyogenic infections? Caseous Gummatous Coagulative Liquefactive Enzymatic fat E. D. are MOST commonly rejected because of A. Which one is this EXCEPTION? ~ G. immediate hypersensitivity reactions. ~ 50. D. fat embolism. Which of the following conditions might be an initial manifestation of early. A bone lesion with radiopaque structures radiating from the periphery suggests which of the following? A. E. C. An 18-year-old male patient sustains a compound fracture of the femur. E. kidney or heart. D. Cutaneous lesions Positive VORL test Development of a gumma Mucous membrane lesions Presence of spirochetes in lesions 53. C. 55. @ D. Adenovirus C-type virus Varicella zoster virus Epstein-Barr virus Human papillomavirus Secondary syphilis is characterized by each of the following EXCEPT one. A. E. Rough pneumococci grown in the presence of DNA from dead smooth pneumococci develop capsules. mutation. The most likely reason for his sudden death is (!) © D. Primary tissue transplants. dominance. Most cases of encephalitis of the following? are caused by which (l3) C. This is an example of bacterial A. Which one is this EXCEPTION? @ 47. induction of armed host macrophages. myocardial infarction. The patient dies suddenly. D. C. humoral immune responses to cell-surface alloantigens. Adenoma Hepatoma Lymphoma Melanoma Seminoma 46. 52. B. D. B. E. B. 6 . C. A. E. C. acute HIV infection? Kaposi's sarcoma Wasting syndrome Oral hairy leukoplakia Mononucleosis-like syndrome Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia B. Osteosarcoma Osteoblastoma Multiple myeloma Giant cell tumor Osteitis deformans 51.45. conjugation. Each of the following denotes a malignant neoplasm EXCEPT one. Bacteria Rickettsia \~ &> E. putrnonary thrornooemootism. A. C. A virus associated with the induction of cervical carcinoma is which of the following? A.

are strict anaerobes. B. &. WI . These clinical findings are MOST consistent with which of the following? 66. G B. D. B. natural killer cells. E. do not grow on nutrient agar. Pseudomonas aeruginosa. Candidiasis Mucormycosis Blastomycosis Histoplasmosis Coccidioidornyccsls A. C.56. T-helper cell adjuvants.. A patient has oral candidiasis but otherwise is in good health. C. Which of the following cells are INCREASED in number in the bloodstream in the case of allergy or parasitic infection? A . C. C. Gout Cystic fibrosis Tay-Sach disease Neurofibromatosis Turner's syndrome . are common in hospital-acquired infections. B. Prevotella intermedia is first detectable oral cavity in the 61. D. Which of the following drugs is the BEST choice for treating this patient? Nystatin Vancomycin Penicillin Tetracycline Streptomycin B-cell immunodeficiency injections of can be treated with ® 63. Basophils Eosinophils Neutrophils Atypical lymphocytes Nucle=t=d erythrocytes 58. C. and palatal perforation. E. A patient with uncontrolled diabetes mellitus presents with nasal obstruction. d> 7 C. D. E. Asepsis Disinfection Sterilization Barrier techniques Universal precautions <e:> D. activated complement components. 65. Which of the following by karyotyping? conditions is diagnosed ® C. highly vascularized connective tissue associated with inflammation is known as which of the following? A. A. Vasodilation and increased vasopermeability lasting f~r several days in an area of inftar-unatloo indicate w~ich of the following? D. are gram-positive. C. B. E. 64. by adolescence. B. fail to ferment glucose. immediately before periodontal disease appears. at birth. E. gamma-globulin.ich of the following is the MOST appropriate sterilization method for a heat-labile item to be used in a surgical procedure? ® 59. 57. 62. E. &> 60. Thrombosis Release of bradykinin Hageman factor activation Formation of granulation tissue Endothelial cell damage and disruption The MOST effective means of preventing disease transmission in the dental office is based on which of the following concepts? A. long after periodontal disease appears. B. Escherichia coli and streptococci share as a property the fact that they A. ~ Scar Angioma Granuloma Purulent exudate Granulation tissue ~ D. Certain staphylococci. proptosis. The newly formed. in the presence of dental caries. A. Dry heat Autoclaving Ethylene oxide Saturated chemical vapor Immersion in chemical sterilant A.

--. The corresponding renal lesion is known as malignant nephrosclerosis. 99.. It may arise de novo or appear suddenly in a patient with previo1ls mild hypertension..h'''' r~~~. E..·.. Patients have markedly elevated levels of plasma renin. [3ch of the following statements concerning malignant hypertension is correct EXCEPT one.-_~ ngn.grl . Patients are generally younger than those with benign hypertension. Which one is this EXCEPTION? ~ c. E. 11 ...1 Association Joint Commission on National Dental Examination~ 111t.. D. D. B. -• ... c. Each of the following is a feature of acute pancreatitis EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPT/Om Patients will live a normal life span if untreated. Fibrosis Hemorrhage Inflammation Fat necrosis Parenchymal necrosis 100.

The distal cusp ridge of the facial cusp on a first premolar The mesial cusp ridge of the facial cusp on a second premolar The distal cusp ridge of the facial cusp on a second premolar The mesial cusp ridge-of the lingual cusp on a second premolar The mesial cusp ridge of a canine Which of the following is normally exhibited by maxillary second premolars? A.' '~.. C. t B... posterior teeth during maximum intercuspation. The maxillary canine is MOST likely to which of the following anomalies? E:". 102. the distal marginal ridge of a maxillary first premolar is in contact with which of the following mandibular structures? 5- 107.. C. The mandibular molars normally exhibit the same number of root branches as which of the following? Q B. the distoincisal aspect of a mandibular central incisor opposes which structure of which maxillary incisor? A. B. D. 10 primary and 10 permanent teeth. Mandibular lateral incisor Mandibular canine Maxillary canine Maxillary first molar . D.. C. 103. 8 primary and 8 permanent teeth. D. B. B. 12 primary and 8 permanent teeth. D. E. posterior teeth during protrusion. A. -"'&. A. Which of the following represents the tooth in the primary dentition that normally erupts immediately after the maxillary lateral incisor? A. c. @ E. Maxillary canine Maxillary first molar I. ~ 101.All test items refer to permanent "primary" is specified. 18 primary and 6 permanent teeth. B. 13 . Which of the following primary teeth is MOST likely to have an oblique ridge? A. c. Terms such as "normal" or "ideal" are synonymous with the above definition. posterior teeth in the retruded contact position. Maxillary second molar'> Mandibular first molar Mandibular second molar 109. In an ideal intercuspal position. . E. teeth unless 105. Agenesis A dwarfed root A lingual tubercle A peg crown form Root bifurcation 106. C9 104. Lingual fossa of a lateral Mesial marginal ridge of a lateral Distal marginal ridge of a central Mesial marginal ridge of a central Lingual fossa of a central 108. . Mandibular first molar All test items relating to occlusion refer to Class I canine and molar relationship unless otherwise specified. --. working side teeth during lateral excursion. B. 20 primary teeth. Two roots A mesial concavity of the crown A facial crown contour that is greatly inclined to the lingual A lingual height of contour in the cervical third of the crown A crown that is wider faciolingually tha: mesiodistally C.. Maxillary first premolars Maxillary second premolars Mandibular first premolars Mandibular second premolars Maxillary molars In the intercuspal position. The erupted dentition of a normally developed 7-year-old child usually consists of A. The GREA TEST influence of Bennett movement is potentially on the A.

one will usually find two pulp canals in which of the following? Mandibular canine Distofacial root of a maxillary molar Distal root of a mandibular first molar Mesial root of a mandibular first molar Lingual root of a maxillary first molar 115. C. Which of the following are notable differences between primary and permanent dentitions? Which of the following is a distinguishing characteristic of a mandibular lateral incisor? @ B. 117. In the intercuspal position. The cervical line curvature is greater distally than mesially.) @ C. During endodontic therapy. the maxillary lateral incisor normally has a root which A. is more blunt at its apex. The mesiodistal dimension of the facial surface is narrower than that of a mandibular central incisor. D. ~- Facial Distal Mesial Distofacial Mesiofacial A. -'1 / A. B. which of the following anterior teeth has the potential contacting both anterior and posterior antagonists? ~--------- of 119. Which of the following represents the developmental groove between the distofacial cusp and the distal cusp of a mandibular first molar? When compared to the maxillary central incisor. Root trunks of primary teeth are less pronounced. clinical symptoms lead the dentist to suspect the presence of a second pulp canal. A. The incisal edge is lingual to the root bisector.. <§? 116. The incisal edge follows the arch curvature in relation to the faciolingual axis. 113. C. @J 114. B. Cervical ridges of permanent teeth are more pronounced. 112. B. the height of contour of the labial surface is normally located in the same horizontal third as which of the following? (. B. ~- Maxillary lateral incisor Mandibular lateral incisor Maxillary canine Mandibular canine cp B.110. tapers less toward the apex.) E. Cingulum Labial developmental depressions Mesial contact area of the same tooth Distal contact area of the same tooth Mesial height of contour of the maxillary canine 118. During an endodontic procedure on Tooth #21. Which of the following anatomic structures effectively divides the temporomandibular joint into two separately functioning compartments? On the crown of the mandibular canine. Which direction is the MOST likely location for the suspected canal? . Which of the following features is found on a maxillary first premolar but not on a maxillary second premolar? A. D. B. E. C. Roots of permanent teeth are longer and slimmer. The incisal edge is perpendicular to the faciolingual axis. 14 A. D. Disc Capsule Condylar head Glenoid fossa Articular eminence B. Facial Distal Lingual Mesial 111. E. is relatively longer in relation to its incisogingival crown length. is more triangular shaped in cross section at the neck. Crowns of primary incisors are longer compared with mesiodistal diameters. A A A A single pulp canal short central groove long central groove short lingual cusp .

On which surface would one expect to see the first evidence of resorption on the root of a primary incisor? Facial Lingual Mesial Distal D. although it is not generally considered a muscle of mastication? A. Omohyoid Geniohyoid Mylohyoid Digastric Stemocleidornastoid A. D. E.or will MOST likely complicate root planing? A. 123. the dentist notices that there is an abnonnally wide mandibular incisor.. Central fossa of a mandibular second Central fossa of a mandibular third Marginal ridges of a mandibular first and a mandibular second Marginal ridges of a mandibular second and a mandibular third Mesial fossa of a mandibular third 125. E. On further examination. In a normal occlusion. 121. B.• 128. 5 2 3 t! D. only three mandibular incisors. This condition is BEST described as which of the following? Mesiodens Fusion Concrescence Gemination Dilaceration 127. 122. E. Curve of Spee Intercondylar distance Vertical overlap of anterior teeth Horizontal overlap of anterior teeth Steepness of the articular eminence When examining a patient for the first time. 5 . Which one is this EXCEPTION? C. Which one is this EXCEPTION? Distal contact Mesial contact Mesial contact incisor Mesial contact incisor Distal contact incisor of the maxillary canine of the maxillary canine of the maxillary lateral of the mandibular of the mandibular lateral lateral 1 C. Root convexity Mesial concavity Distolingual groove Root bifurcation Extreme distal cervical line curvature When viewing mandibular border movements in the frontal plane. C. o B.' 120.. B. E. in which of the following ways is each maxillary posterior tooth positioned in relation to its corresponding mandibular tooth? End to end More facially and distally More facially and mesially More lingually and distally More lingually and mesially C. D. including the abnonnally wide one. the distolingual cusp of a maxillary second molar occludes with which of the following molars? A. are evident. The contact areas of anterior teeth are incisal to the middle thirds in each of the following EXCEPT one.:. E. 126. E. In a nonnal Class I relationship. 124. Each of the following factors affects heights of cusps and depths of fossae on restorations EXCEPT one. D. which number in the illustration below represents the postural position? 3 ~ D.. Which of the following muscles has an important influence on the function of the mandible. E. o. E. cp D. B. Which of the fol!owing anatomic features of a maxillary latei al inc.

Which 'of the following describes the contact relationship between a maxillary central incisor and a maxillary lateral incisor? Contact is offset to the lingual. the lingual cusp of the maxillary second premolar occludes with which fossa of which mandibular tooth? A. Regarding actions of the TMJ. are more divergent. Fluorosis Malnutrition Malformation Anterior open bite Retained primary teeth When compared to the primary mandibular first molar. 131. E. Lingual embrasure is larger than the facial embrasure. the facial of the mandibular and the incisal edge of the maxillary. Oblique ridges Roots Cusps Cervical ridges Transverse ridces W B. are fewer in number. Where is the distal contact area of a maxillary canine usually located? In the In the In the At the thirds middle third incisal third cervical third junction of the incisal and middle D. 138. B. @ 133. Which of the following muscles of mastication is primarily responsible for synchronizing the movement of the condyle and the articular disc? A. D: the lingual of the mandibular and the incisal edge of the maxillary. 135. Lingual ridge Mesial marginal ridge Distal marginal ridge Distolinoual fossa Mesial developmental groove G. 137. B. D. C. are greater in distal inclination. are longer. C. <. In a protrusive movement. The presence of mamelons in a 10-year-old patient suggests which of the following conditions? cf> 139. rotation of the condyle primarily occurs in which of the following joint spaces? I 130. Incisal embrasure is the largest of all the embrasures. the primary mandibular second molar normally exhibits a GREA TER number of which of the following? In a normal occlusion. A. 0-. B. have less potential for fusion. the contacting surfaces of the incisors are 134. ~ Poslerior Superior Anterior Inferior $. the lingual of the maxillary and the incisal edge of the mandibular.. ~ Often bifurcated Flattened faciolingually Broader facially than lingually Frequently sharply curved distally When compared to a maxillary first molar. B. ~ E. Tooth Second premolar Second premolar First molar First molar Fossa Distal Mesial Central Mesial D. A.129. C. Contact is centered incisocervically. Masseter Temporalis Medial pterygoid Lateral pterygoid Which of the following describes the mandibular first premolars? the roots of ® 132. C. the roots of a maxillary second molar A. B. . Which of the following represents the structure on the Grown of a maxillary canine that is located immediately to the mesial of the mesiolingual fossa? A. C. A. Q B. the facial of the maxillary and the incisal edge of the mandibular.::J 136. A.

. Distofacial of first premolar Mesiofacial of second premolar Distofacial of second premolar Mesiofacial of first molar Distofacial of first molar 149. Maxillary central Maxillary lateral Mandibular central Mandibular lateral 141. increased occlusal vertical dimension. (9 146. C. Which of the following exhibit 3 pulp canals? teeth is MOST likely to 145. E. 142. Which of the following roots of teeth would MORE frequently contain a single root canal? Maxillary incisors Mandibular incisors Maxillary first premolars Mesiobucca: root. Facial surfaces of maxillary first ~molars Lingual surfaces of maxillary first molars Facial surfaces of mandibular first premolars Lingual surfaces of mandibular first molars Proximal surfaces of mandibular incisors A mandibular first molar usually has how many roots and canals? Roots Canals Two Three Two Three ~ C. mandibular molars D. D. D. B. C. (0 17 B. B.rwhich. what inclination of the teeth can be observed? A. 4? D. the lingual cusps of the mandibular teeth oppose which landmark of the maxillary dentition? D. Maxillary central Maxillary lateral Mandibular central Mandibular lateral The facial cusp tip of a mandibular second premolar has the potential to contact which of the following maxillary cuspal inclines in a protrusive movement? Q B. D. Each of the following muscles elevates the mandible EXCEPT one. ~ C. 144. posterior teeth are distally inclined. it is MOST difficult to distinguish right from left? A. E. C. B. When eX21mining the normal mandibular arch from a sagittal view. A linguogingival groove is MOST likely to be present on the crown of which of the following incisors? A. C. E. 150. Anterior teeth are mesially inclined. Which one is this EXCEPTION? A. Both anterior and posterior teeth are mesially inclined. posterior teeth are mesially inclined. C. E. g A. Tooth Tooth Tooth Tooth #4 #12 #20 #27 Which of the following represents the incisor crown fO. Anterior and posterior teeth are straight. decreased occlusal vertical dimension. increased rest position. from the facial aspect. 4? D. 143. Three Three 147. Temporalis Masseter Medial pterygoid Lateral pterygoid In a normal occlusion. maxillary molars Mesial root. E. Lingual grooves Lingual grooves Lingual grooves embrasures Lingual grooves embrasures and/or central fossae and/or marginal ridges and/or occlusal and/or lingual . Moving the mandible from a maximum intercuspal position to a retruded contact position usually results in G. B. 148. Both anterior and posterior teeth are distally inclined. D. decreased horizontal overlap: increased vertical overlap. On which of the following surfaces of permanent teeth is pit and fissure caries MOST likely to occur? A.140. Anterior teeth are distally inclined. Two Twr.

B. C. labia lingual #23 an: #9. the cV 159.. Maxillary Maxillary Maxillary supporting Maxillary guiding and mandibular supportin./ D. Mesial Mesial marginal Mesiofacial triangular Mesiolingual triangular Mesiolingual developmental In a faciolingual section of the pulp chamber. 161. B. C. represents linear elevation that extends from the distoincisal angle to the cingulum? A. a mediotrusive (nonworking) interference can occur between which of the following cusps? G C. A.:. Distal and distofacial Central and distofacial Central and facial Central and distal Central and lingual On the crown of a mandibular first premolar. ~ C. Mesial Distal Midfacial Midlingual 160. Maxillary first Maxillary second Mandibular first Mandibular second D. 155. /G. . C. B. Which of the following teeth to erupt? are the :_. 1? 152. but the root form is typical of a permanent molar? In a normal occlusion. #24 In primary first molars..dST ptime. B. Maxillary incisors Mandibular incisors Maxillary canines Mandibular canines Maxillary premolars s: Which of the following ridges. which the following would BEST indicate the locatk of facets due to attrition? Linguoincisal #9.l B. Distal Lingual Cervical Distolingual Distal marginal Which of the following mandibular molal proximal crown surfaces normally exhibits the LARGEST size? Mesial Distal Mesial Distal Mesial of the first of the first of the second of the second of the third When Tooth #9 is in lingual crossbite. B. ~ C. A. A. linguoincisal #9. which of the following grooves extends acros the marginal ridge and onto the mesial surface? A. labioincisal E. The central groove of a maxillary molar crosses the oblique ridge to connect which of the following pits? 157. B. linguoincisal #9. @ 156. @ 158. Maxillary canines Mandibular canines Mandibular first molars Maxillary second molars Mandibular second molars Which primary molar has a crown resembling a permanent premolar. su oportlnq and mandibula 18 . 154. :J. A. Central Distofacial Mesiolingual Mesial marginal $. D. and mandibular guiding guiding and mandibular . which portion of the crown is shorter occlusogingivally? l. _Linguoincisal #25 #24 Labioincisal Labioincisal #24 ar #23 am #24 and #25 A. Which of the following developmental grooves is distinguishing characteristic of the maxillary first premolar? a A. D.151. B. two pulp horns are normally visible in specimens of which of the following teeth? ® 153.

D. B. @ C Mesial Distal Mesial Distal D. laterotrusive (working) side Right lateral. In an ideal intercuspal position. A. E. Maxillary central incisor Mandibular canine Maxillary canine Mandibular first molar Maxillary second molar E. 179. Which of the following represents the MOST powerful muscle of mastication? Masseter Temporalis Geniohyoid Lateral pterygoid Sternocleidomastoid Which of the "following mandibular movements is indicated in the illustration below? C! C. taterctrusive (wor~lng) side Left lateral.173. the distofacial cusp of the mandibular first molar contacts which structure of which maxillary molar(s)? (!) 174. O. middle. cervical third. junction of the incisal and middle junction of the middle and cervica thirds. Each of the following root surfaces on a mandibular fir-st molar normally exhibits a longitudinal groove EXCEPT one. Root Mesial Mesial Distal Distal The mesial contact of a mandibular located in (at) the canin B. A. 178. mediotrusive (non-working) side Left lateral. Which of the following primary teeth has a facial cervical ridge so distinctly prominent t make it a unique tooth? A. 4? C. B. . Bilateral contraction of which of the followir muscles acts to protrude the mandible? $. Which of the following represents the cusp that is never present on the crown of a maxillary second or third molar? A. C. Mesiofacial Mesiolingual Distofacial Distolingual Carabelli 177. C. 181. B. G C. Protrusive Right laterai. Masseter Temporalis Medial pteryqoid Lateral pterygoid Anterior digastric 176. mediotrusive (non-working) side 180. Maxilla[Y molar(s} First First First First and second Second and third Structure Central fossa Mesial fossa Distal fossa Occlusal embrasure Occlusal embrasure The occlusal table of a :nandibular first molar normally exhibits which of the following ridges? 2 4 3 4 5 oblique marginal transverse triangular triangular c9 175. D.' B. E. Which one is this EXCEPTION? Surface A. incisal third. E.third.

the facial cusp ridge of the ML cusp originates at the cusp tip and normally terminates at which of the following? A:I y.V c. ( inhibit the normal masticatory cycle. 8. The oblique ridge of the maxillary molars extends between which two cusps? A.. D. The muscle fibers that extend into the lingual frenum are from which of the following muscles? A. ~ 186. Which of the following represents the root branch qf the mandibular molars which is normally the SHORTEST in length? A. 188. 2 3 4 189. 2 1 3 4 E. the maxillary left central incisor can potentially come in contact with which of the following mandibular teeth? #22 #23 #24 #25 #26 and and and and and #23 #24 #25 #26 #27 184. B. On the crown of the mandibular first molar. @ C. is larger in size. Which of the following statements BEST describes the function of the ligaments associated with the TMJ? They serve to Which premolar frequently horn? Maxillary first Mandibular first Maxillary second Mandibular second has only one pulp ~\ f. Mesial of the first Distal of the first Mesial of the second Distal of the second 190. E. . I I I ~ E. D. Mylohyoid Geniohyoid Hyoglossus Styloglossus Genioglossus 187. D. is darker ilJ color. Which of the following illustrations represents the facial view of a mandibular right canine? . 185. dictate intercuspal position of the mandible. ~ 21 . . A primary mandibular second molar differs from a permanent mandibular first molar in tha it A. protect surrounding and supporting tissues from damages. D. assist musculature in producing movement establish normal resting position. B..• • 182. has four cusps. E. Lingual groove Halfway down the facial surface Halfway down the lingual surface Mesial portion of the central groove Mesiolinguo-occlusal point angle area C. c9 183. has a larger occlusal surface. C. has roots that are more divergent. In a protrusive movement. Mesiofacial and distofacial Mesiolingual and distolingual Mesiolingual and distofacial Mesiofacial and mesiolingual ~~esiofacial and distolingual D.

distofacial. C. 193. mesiolinc. Which of the following teeth has its mesial marginal ridge located more cervically than its distal marginal ridge? Mandibular first premolar Maxillary first premolar Maxillary first molar Primary mandibular first molar Mandibular second molar &:> C. mesioltnqual cusp of a second molar. c9 199. Which of the following is the MOST likely location of the interference? A. E. Maxillary incisors Mandibular canines Mandibular premolars Maxillary premolars Mandibular first molars The crown of the maxillary canine normally exhibi~ a lingual pit. E. Q B. 192. distolingual cusp of a second molar. CD B. each of the following features of an incisor is visible EXCEPT one. a lingual ridge. D. D. which of the following teeth have their long axes at an angle LEAST perpendicular to the occlusal plane? (5) E. Lingual surface of a maxillary lingual cusp Facial surface of a maxillary lingual cusp Facial surface of a maxillary facial cusp Lingual surface of a maxillary facial cusp Occlusal table of the maxillary molar 198. Which one is this EXCEPTION? The distolingual cusp of the right mandibular first molar is fractured by excessive contact with the opposing maxillary molar during right lateral excursion. An extruded mandibular right third molar (maxillary third molar extracted) will MOST often impede which mandibular movement? Protrusive Retrusive Right lateral Left lateral A. B. 194. d? E. The arrow on the illustration the path taken by the below represents 195. ~ E. Cingulum Lingual fossa Cervical line Marginal ridges Mesiofacial developmental depression B. distofacial cusp of a second molar. distolingual. A. distolingual cusp of a first molar. The occlusal view of a normal dental arch segment is shown below. The arrow points to which of the following mandibular teeth? D.191. When viewed sagitally. 197. C. which of the following correctly arranges the cusps from LARGEST to SMALLEST? @ 196. mesiofacial Facial. D. A. 8. Primary right first molar Primary left first molar Permanent right first premolar Permanent left second premolar . mesiofacial cusp of a second molar. C. Lingual. a linguogingival fissure. lingual developmental depressions. mesiofacial. C. distofacial Lingual. When viewed from the incisal aspect. In a three-cusped mandibular second premolar. distolingual Facial. a linguogingival groove. mesiolingual. A.

Mandibular first molar D.B! ~.r' ! • 200.. Mandibular second molar .ciolin::~I:i:~:r :::i::~::::~ Maxillaryfirst molar C. Which of the followingteeth is wider \.

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