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PHYSICS
LAWS OF MOTION
1. If a car accelerates uniformly from rest and attains a speed of 40 m/s in 10 seconds, it covers a distance of
(a) 200m (b)300m (c)356m (d)142m
2. In 15 minutes, a car whose speed is 36 km/h, travels a distance of
(a) 9km (b)4m (c)9m (d)7km
3. When a body moves in a circle, the work done on it is
(a) Positive (b) Negative (c)Zero (d)none of these
4. A body goes from A to B with a velocity of 20 m/s and comes back from B to A with a velocity of 30 m/s.
The average velocity of the body during the whole journey is
(a)Zero (b) 24m/s (c) 25m/s (d) none of these
5. A velocity-time graph with a line parallel to time axis always represents
(a)Zero velocity (b) constant velocity (c) increasing velocity (d) uniform velocity
6. Which of the following is not the characteristic of displacement?
(a)It can be zero (b) it is always positive
(c) It has both magnitude and direction (d) none of these
7. A body moves in a uniform circular motion, then
(a) Its acceleration is zero (b) It is moving with constant velocity
(c) The body has acceleration (d) none of these
8. If a particle travels equal distance in equal interval of time, it is said to
(a)Be at rest (b) Move with constant speed
(c)Move with uniform acceleration (d) Move with uniform acceleration
9. In uniform circular motion
(a) The direction of motion is fixed (b) Velocity remains constant
(c) Acceleration is zero (d) Speed remains constant
10. If a bus accelerates uniformly from rest to attain the speed of 144 km/h in 20 seconds it covers a distance of
(a) 200m (b) 400m (c) 600m (d) 800m
11. Circular motion is a/an___________ motion even when the speed remain constant
(a)Constant (b) Velocity (c) Accelerated (d) Retarded
12. Which of the following cannot be zero?
(a)Distance (b) Displacement (c) Velocity (d) none of these
13. The motion of a freely falling body is an example of
(a)Uniform motion (b) accelerated motion (c) Non uniform motion (d) both ‘b’ and ‘c’
14. The speed of running car at any instant of time is shown by an instrument called
(a)Speedometer (b) Odometer (c) Both ‘a’ and ‘b’ (d) none of these
15. If the velocity of the body is increased by 50% the momentum increases by
(a) 25% (b) 50% (c) 75% (d) 25%
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16. Which of the following is/are the equation of motion?
(a) v = u+at (b) S = ut + 1/2at
2
(c) V
2
= u
2
+2as (d) All of these
17. A body is dropped from the top of the Tower. The quantity which remains constant is
(a) Displacement (b) Speed (c) Velocity (d) Acceleration
18. The acceleration of a body projected upwards with a certain velocity is
(a) 9.8 m/s
2
(b) -9.8 m/s
2
(c) 0 (d) insufficient data
19. In the following graph of displacement versus time

(a) The body is at rest (b) The body has some initial speed
(c) The body moves with constant speed (d) The body moves with constant velocity.
20. If the velocity of a body does not change, its acceleration is
(a) 0 (b) Infinity (c) Unity (d) None of these
21. In a circular motion, the acceleration [CET 2010]
(a)along the tangent (b)along the radius
(c)along the circumference (d)is zero

FORCE & LAWS OF MOTION
22. A long-jumper runs before jumping because
(a) He covers a greater distance (b) He maintains power
(c) He gains energy by running (d) He gains momentum
23. Swimming can be explained by
(a) Newton’s law of gravitation (b) 1
st
law of motion
(c) Second law of motion (d) Third law of motion
24. If A and B are two objects with masses 6kg and 34kg respectively then
(a) A has more inertia then B (b) B has more inertia than A
(c) A and B have the same inertia (d) none of the two has the inertia
25. A man is standing on a boat in still water if he walks towards the shore, the boat will
(a) Move away from the shore (b) Remain stationary
(c) Sink (d) Move towards the shore
26. A bullet of mass 0.01 kg long fired from a gun weighting 5 kg. If the initial speed of the bullet is 250 m/s,
calculate the speed which the gun recoils
(a) -0.50 m/s (b) -0.25 m/s (c) +0.05 m/s (d) +0.25 m/s
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27. A rocket works on the principle of [CET 2008]
(a) First law of motion (b) Second law of motion
(c) Third law of motion (d) Law of conservation of energy
28. The force that opposes the motion of an object is called
(a) Friction (b) Action (c) Inertia (d) Weight
29. Calculate the momentum of a toy of mass 200 grams moving the with a velocity of 5 m/s
(a) 1 kg m/s (b) 2 kg m/s (c) 5 kg m/s (d) 2.5 kg m/s
GRAVITATION
30. The value of g is minimum at
(a)poles (b)equator (c)centre of earth (d)surface of earth
31. Weight is___________ quantity
(a)scalar (b)vector (c)both (d)none
32. What is the value of escape velocity on the surface of the earth?
(a)9.8 m/s (b)9.8km/s (c)11.16m/s (d)11.16km/s
33. If the distance between two objects is doubled thenthe Gravitational Force between them will become
(a)double (b)half (c)one fourth (d)four times
34. When a body is thrown upwards then its
(a)initial velocity is zero (b)final velocity is zero
(c)final velocity is maximum (d)all of these
35. What is the S.I unit of Gravitational constant ?
(a)Nm/Kg (b)Nm
2
/Kg (c)Nm/Kg
2
(d)Nm
2
/Kg
2

36. The value of g at the centre of the earth is
(a)zero (b)maximum (c)minimum (d) 9.8 m/s
2

37. The Universal Law of Gravitation was given by
(a)Kepler (b)Galileo (c)Newton (d)Archimedes
38. An object of mass ‘m’ on the earth when measured on the surface of moon has mass
(a)same as on earth (b)zero (c)m/6 (d)6m
WORK, ENERGY & POWER
39. A bird flying on an altitude possess
(a)only potential energy (b)only kinetic energy
(c)both potential & kinetic energy (d) none
40. Which of the following devices converts electrical energy into sound energy?
(a)microphone (b)loudspeaker (c)TV (d)Cell
41. No work is done when the angle between the force and displacement is
(a)0
0
(b)30
0
(c)90
0
(d)180
0

42. 1 kWh equal to
(a)36 x 10
3
J (b)3.6 X10
5
J (c)3.6 X 10
6
J (d)36 X 10
6
J
43. The work done by an object moving in a circular path is
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(a)zero (b)+ve (c)-ve (d)infinite
44. A man pushes a wall but fails to displace it, he does [CET 2010]
(a)no work at all (b)negative work (c)positive work (d)infinite work
45. If the velocity of a moving object is doubled then its kinetic energy will become
(a)double (b)half (c)four times (d)one fourth
46. Commercial unit of energy is
(a)watt (b)joule (c)kilo watt hour (d)mega joule
47. 1 H.P.=
(a)786 J (b)746 J (c)646 J (d)1000 J
48. Which of the following is not a unit of power?
(a)HP (b)kW (c)Joule/sec (d)kWh
49. 1 Joule =
(a)10
5
erg (b)10
7
erg (c)10
-7
erg (d)10
-5
erg
50. If the momentum of a body is halved then its kinetic energy is
(a)doubled (b)halved (c)one fourth (d)unchanged
51. When a stone is thrown upwards, then at the highest point
(a)K.E. is maximum (b)P.E. is maximum (c)K.E. is zero (d)both b and c
52. If the length of a spring is changed by stretching from 2 m to 10 m, then the Potential energy changes
from ‘u’ to [CET 2010]
(a)25u (b)
u
5
(c)
u
10
(d)
u
25

SOUND
53. The speed of sound is maximum in
(a)gases (b)solids (c)liquids (d)vacuum
54. Sound waves in air are
(a)longitudinal (b)transverse (c)radio waves (d)electromagnetic waves
55. The loudness of sound depends on
(a)frequency (b)amplitude (c)speed (d)wavelength
56. Persistence of sound after reflection is called
(a)echo (b)reverberation (c)acoustics (d)absorption
57. The wave in which the particles of medium travels at right angles to the direction of motion of wave is
called
(a)transverse wave (b)longitudinal wave
(c)electromagnetic wave (d)mechanical wave
58. If the temperature is increased then the velocity of sound
(a)increases (b)decreases (c)remains same (d)none of these
59. Decreasing order of speed of sound [CET 2010]
(a)iron>aluminium>granite>air (b)aluminium>air>iron>granite
(c)aluminium>granite>iron>air (d)air>iron>granite>aluminium
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MISCELLANEOUS PHYSICS

60. The energy in satellite is obtained from [CET 2010]
(a)
92
U
235
(b)CNG (c)Hydrogen (d)Solar Cells
61. The frequency of a tuning Fork is 200 Hz. Its periodic time will be
(a) 10
-2
s (b) 2x10
-2
s (c) 5x10
-2
s (d) 5x10
-3
s
62. Which of the following are not electromagnetic waves?
(a) Waves of visible light (b) Radio waves (c) Sound waves (d) X-ray waves
63. The least distance of distinct vision for a normal eye is
(a) 0.25 m (b) 0.50 m (c) 25 m (d) Infinite
64. The image of an object formed by a convex lens is enlarged and erect when the object is placed
(a) Between f and 2f (c) At a distance greater than 2f
(c) Between the focus of the lens and its optical centre (d) at a distance equal to 2f
65. The refractive index of glass is 1.5. The velocity of light in glass will be
(a) 3 x 10
8
m/s (b) 2 x10
8
m/s (c) 1.5 x10
8
m/s (d) 1x10
8
m/s
66. A ray of light travelling in air falls on the surface of the transparent medium. The angle of incidence is 45
0

and the angle of refraction is 30
0
. The refractive index of the medium will be
(a) 2√2 (b) 2 (c) √S (d) √2
67. How many resistances of 6 ohms should be joined in parallel to draw a current of 2 amperes from a battery
of 3 volts?
(a) 4 (b) 5 (c) 6 (d) 8
68. The biggest planet in the solar system is
(a) Earth (b) Mars (c) Mercury (d) Jupiter
69. Modern solar cells are made of
(a) Iron (b) Cobalt (c) Silicon (d) Helium
70. A bullet is fired from a gun and as a result the gun recoils backward. The kinetic energy of the gun will be
(a) Less than that of the bullet (b) Greater than that of the bullet
(c) Equal to that the bullet (d) May less then, greater than, or equal to that of the bullet
71. A stone dropped from the top of a tower reaches the earth in 4 s. The height of the tower is [g=10 m/s
2
]
(a) 20 m (b) 40 m (c) 80 m (d) 160 m
72. The basic source of sun’s energy is [CET 2007]
(a) Nuclear fusion (b) Nuclear fission (c) Methane (d) Solar cell
73. The planets revolve around the sun in closed_______path. [CET 2009]
(a) Circular (b) Spherical (c) Elliptical (d) Rectangular
74. How many crystals of water are attached with one formula unit of Copper Sulphate?
(a) 3 (b) 5 (c) 7 (d) 10
75. The time period of a simple pendulum in a lift descending with constant acceleration g is
(a) T=2n_
I
g
(b) T=2n_
I
2g
(c) 0 (d) Infinite
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76. Which compound is added to L.P.G to detect leakage?
(a) Ester (b) Mercaptan (c) Methane (d) Bio gas
77. 1 LIGHT YEAR is the unit of [CET 2008]
(a) Distance (b) Intensity of light (c) Speed of light (d) light
78. [ML
2
T
-3
] represent the dimensions of
(a) Pressure (b) Energy (c) Power (d) Force
79. Magnetic field is produced by the flow of current in a straight wire. This phenomenon was discovered by
[CET 2008 ]
(a) Faraday (b) Maxwell (c) Coulomb (d) Oersted
80. Electron-volt is unit of
(a) Potential (b) Charge (c) Power (d) Energy
81. Which colour has maximum speed in glass?
(a) Violet (b) Red (c) Yellow (d) Green
82. Which planets are between the Sun and the Earth?
(a) Mars and Mercury (b) Mercury and Jupiter
(c) Jupiter and Saturn (d) Venus and Mercury
83. For which colour refractive index of glass is maximum? [CET 2008]
(a) Red (b) Violet (c) Green (d) Yellow
84. ‘LIVE WIRE’, ‘NETURAL WIRE’ and ‘EARTH WIRE’ in electrical wiring are respectively represented
by the following color code
(a) Red, Black, Green (b) Red, Green, Black (c) Green, Red, Black (d) Green, Black, Red
85. An electric Bulb is marked ‘220 volts, 100 watt’. Its resistance is
(a) 2.2Ω (b) 320Ω (c) 484Ω (d) 110Ω
86. A defect in which part of the human eye causes color blindness?
(a) Rods cells (b) Cones cells (c) Lens (d) Ciliary muscles
87. A force of 10 Newton; Acting at n angle of 60° with the horizontal, displace a body through 2 m in the
horizontal direction. The work done by the force is
(a) 20 J (b) 10J (c) 5 J (d) 0J
88. ‘PARSEC’ is a unit of
(a) Small time intervals (b) Large time intervals
(c) Very small distance (d) Very Large distance in space
89. The Sun is a
(a) Star (b) Planet (c) Satellite (d) Sign of Zodiac
90. Where an object should be placed in front of convex lens so that its real & inverted image of same size is
obtained?
(a) Between the lens and its focus (c) At the Focus
(c) Between F and 2F (d) At 2F
91. Two resistors of 4 Ω and 2Ω are connected in series, what is the equivalent resistance?
(a)4Ω (b)6Ω (c)8/6Ω (d)8Ω
92. A ball of mass 8 kg is thrown vertically upward from the surface of the earth with a velocity v. If on
reaching the highest point, its Potential energy is 64 joule, the value of v is
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(a) 4 m/s (b) 8 m/s (c) 12 m/s (d) 9.8 m/s
93. Which lens is used as the Magnifying glass? [CET 2008]
(a) Concave lens (b) Convex lens (c) Bifocal lens (d) all of these
94. Sound cannot travel in
(a) Solids (b) Liquids (c) Gases (d) Vacuum
95. Four Resistance of 10Ω each are joined in parallel as shown in the figure. The equivalent resistance of the
combination will be
(a) 2.5Ω (b) 10Ω (c) 20Ω (d) 40Ω
96. If the frequency of a vibrating body is 50 Hz, its Time Period will be
(a) 0.5 sec (b) 0.1 sec (c) 0.2 sec (d) 0.02sec
97. The mass of a gun is 2 kg and that of its bullet is 15 gm. If the bullet leaves the gun with a velocity of 100
ms, what will be the recoil velocity of the gun?
(a) 30 m/s (b) 32 m/s (c) 60 m/s (d) 0.75 m/s
98. Velocity of light in glass is
(a) 2x10
8
m/s (b) 2.5x10
8
m/s (c) 3x10
8
m/s (d) 1.5x10
8
m/s
99. Magnifying power of compound microscope is [ CET 2010]
(a) m
o
xm
e
(b) m
o
/m
e
(c) m
e
/m
o
(d) 1/m
o
xm
e

100. One Kilowatt hour equals
(a) 36x10
8
joules (b) 36x10
3
joules (c) 10
3
joules (d) 105 joules
101. The instrument which converts sound energy into electrical energy is
(a) Loudspeaker (b) Microphone (c) Transformer (d) Electric motor
102. The human eye forms the image of an object at its
(a) Cornea (b) Pupil (c) Iris (d) Retina
103. The ‘near point’ of a normal human eye is
(a) 25 cm (b) 17 cm (c) 1m (d) 25 m
104. Depletion of Ozone layer causes
(a) Swine Flu (b) Skin Cancer (c) Asthma (d) Lung Cancer
105. Snell’s law is
(a) μ =
sìn¡
sìnì
(b) μ=
sìnì
sìn¡
(c)
1
]
=
1
¡
-
1
u
(d)
1
]
=
1
¡
+
1
u

106. The focal length of a plane mirror is
(a) Positive (b) Negative (c) Zero (d) Infinite
107. The relation between u,v and f for a mirror is
(a) f=

¡-u
(b) f=
2u¡
u+¡
(c) f=

u+¡
(d) None of these
108. A convex lens can form a virtual image of the object placed
(a) Between the lens and the focus (b) at the focus of the lens
(c) Between f and 2f (d) at infinity
109. Mirage is an example of
(a) Reflection (b) Refraction (c)Total internal refraction (d) Total Internal Reflection
110. Critical angle for Diamond is
(a) 49° (b) 24° (c) 42° (d) 20°
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111. A man is standing between the two mirror inclined at an angle of 60°. The number of images that he will
be able to see is
(a) 4 (b) 5 (c) 6 (d) 3
112. For a telescope, length of tube, L is
(a) f
0
-f
e
(b) f
0
xf
e
(c) f
0
+f
e
(d) f
0
/f
e

113. The lens present in eyes is
(a) Convex (b) Concave (c) Plane (d) None of these
114. The impression or sensation remains on the retina for about how many second even after removal of the
object?
(a) 1 second (b) 1/16 second (c) 16 second (d) 1 minute
115. 1 coulomb is equivalent to the charge of [CET 2009]
(a) One electron (b) 6.023x10
23
electrons (c) 6.25x19
18
electrons (d) none of these
116. The galvanometer is converted into ammeter by
(a) Using shunt resistance in parallel (b) Using coil
(c) Using pipe (d) Using shunt in series
117. Current that does not change its direction after equal intervals of time is called
(a) Direct Current (b) Indirect current (c) Alternating current (d) Static current
118. Heating effect of sunlight is due to the presence of
(a) Infra- red rays (b) Ultraviolet rays (c) X-rays (d) Gamma rays
119. In case of a virtual and erect image. The magnification of the mirror is
(a) Positive (b) Negative (c) Zero (d) Infinity
120. A spherical mirror and a thin spherical lens each of focal length +15 cm. The mirror and lens are likely
to be
(a) Both are concave (b) Both are convex
(c) The mirror is concave, but the lens is convex (d) the mirror is convex, but the lens is concave
121. The focal length of a convex mirror is
(a) Positive (b) Negative (c) Zero (d) Infinity
122. If the temperature is increased then the frequency of sound will [CET 2010]
(a)increase (b)decrease (c)remain same (d)first increase then decrease
123. The mirror used in search light is
(a) Concave mirror (b) Convex mirror (c) Plane mirror (d) none of these
124. The ratio of the image to the size of the object is known as
(a) Magnification (b) The transformation ratio (c) The efficiency (d) refractive index
125. The angle of incidence of a ray passing through centre of curvature of a spherical mirror is
(a) 0° (b) 90° (c) 45° (d) 180°
126. The unit of magnification is
(a) metre (b)Diopter (c) cm (d) No unit
127. Magnification of a concave mirror may be
(a) Less than 1 (b) More than 1 (c) More or less than 1 (d) Infinity
128. Which lens has virtual focus?
(a) Convex (b) Concave (c) Convex and Concave (d) None of these
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129. Choose the correct option in case of a concave mirror
Object distance Image distance
(a) At c at C
(b) Beyond C between F and C
(c) Between F and C At infinity
(d) At F At infinity
130. The image formed by a concave mirror is real, inverted and of same size as the object. The position of
the object is
131. (a) At C (b) At F (c) between C and F (d) Beyond C
132. To form a Real Image, the mirror required is
(a) Convex (b) Concave (c) Convex or concave (d) None of these
133. If a ray light incident on a plane mirror is such that it makes an angle of 30° with the mirror, the angle of
reflection is
(a) 30° (b) 45° (c) 55° (d) 60°
134. Image of a real object formed by a convex mirror is always
(a) Virtual (b) Erect and diminished
(c) Lies between the pole and the principle focus (d) All of these
135. What is the Value of θ in the following ray diagram? [CET 2008]


(a) 25° (b) 35° (c) 50° (d) None of these
136. A plane mirror produces a magnification of [CET 2008]
(a) -1 (b) +1 (c) Zero (d) between 0 and infinity
137. Which of the following cannot produce a virtual image?
(a) Plane mirror (b) Convex mirror (c) concave mirror (d) None of these
138. The mirror used by a dental surgeon is
(a) Plane (b) Convex (c) Concave (d) All of these
139. To obtain magnified, erect image in a concave mirror, object should be held
(a) At pole (b) At focus (c) Between P and F (d) Beyond 2F
140. Which is the wrong statement out of the following?
(a) A concave mirror can give a virtual image (b) A convex mirror can give a virtual image
(c) A concave mirror can give a diminished virtual image (d) a convex mirror cannot give a real image
141. An object is placed at a distance of 10 cm from a convex mirror of focal length 15 cm. find the position
of the image
(a) 6 cm (b) 10 cm (c) 12 cm (d) 15cm
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142. If an object placed symmetrically between two plane mirrors, inclined at an angle of 72° then total no. of
image formed is
(a) 5 (b) 4 (c) 2 (d) infinite
143. Two adjacent walls and the ceiling of a rectangular room is mirror surfaced. The number of images of
himself that an observer see is given by
(a) 3 (b) 9 (c) 6 (d) 8
144. Laws of reflection are true for
(a) Plane mirror only (b) Convex mirror only
(c) Concave mirror only (d) All type of mirror
145. A candle flame, 3 cm high is at 10 cm from a diverging lens of focal length 15 cm, the size of image will
be
(a) 1.8 cm (b) 2.4 cm (c) 3.2 cm (d) 3.8 cm
146. Which of the following types of mirrors are used to collect heat in solar furnaces?
(a) Plane mirror (b) Convex mirror (c) concave mirror (d) All of these
147. If ‘f’ is the focal length and ‘R’ is Radius of curvature of a spherical mirror, then
(a) R=f /2 (b) R=2f (c) R=3f (d) R= 4f
148. Magnification of a convex mirror is always
(a) Equal to 1 (b) Less than 1 (c) More than 1 (d) Infinity
149. Find the position and the size of the image formed by a spherical mirror from the following data. u = -20
cm, f = -15 cm, h = -1.0 m
(a) -50cm, -3.0cm (b) -60cm, -4.0cm (c) -60cm, -3.0cm (d) -50cm, -4.0cm
150. A ray, emerging from a point on the object, passing through the centre of curvature C strikes the mirror
normally i.e. at 90°, then the angle of incidence is equal to [CET 2008]
(a) 0° (b) 45° (c) 90° (d) 180°
151. The magnification m of an image formed by a spherical mirror is negative. It means the image is
(a) Smaller than the object (b) Larger than the object (c) Erect (d) Inverted
152. What is the value of critical angle of Diamond?
(a) 2.42° (b) 24° (c) 22° (d) 42°
153. Where an object should be placed in front a convex lens to get a real image of the size of the object?
(a) At the focus of lens (b) At twice the focus length
(c) At Infinity (d) between the optical centre and its focus
154. The refractive index of diamond is 2.42. What is the speed of light in Diamond?
(a) 1.60 x 10
8
m/s (b) 1.24 x 10
8
m/s (c) 1.36 x 10
8
m/s (d) 2.42 x 10
8
m/s
155. A convex lens of focal length 40 cm is placed in contact with a concave lens of focal length 25 cm. What
is the power of the combination?
(a) -1.5 D (b) 10 D (c) +1.5 D (d) +2.0 D
156. Calculate the distance at which an object should be placed in front of a thin convex lens of focal length
10 cm to obtain a virtual image of double its size.
(a) -5cm (b) 10 cm (c) 40cm (d) 12 cm
157. Find the focal length of a lens power -2.0 D. What type of lens is this?
(a) -50 cm, concave (b) 50 cm, convex (c) -0.50cm, concave (d) 0.50cm, convex
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158. A convex lens of focal length 15cm forms an image 10cm from the lens. How far the object placed from
the lens?
(a) -20cm (b) 30cm (c) -6cm (d) -30cm
159. Frequency (f) and Wavelength (λ) Velocity(v) of a wave are related as
(a) f=vλ (b) λ=fv (c) v=fλ (d) λ=f/v
160. A lens is of focal length -40cm. What is its power?
(a) 3.5 D (b) -2.5 D (c) -.35 D (d) 2.5 D
161. A diverging or concave lens of focal length 15cm forms an image 10cm from the lens. Find the distance
of the lens from object.
(a) 30cm (b) -20cm (c) -30cm (d) 20cm
162. A person having a myopic eye uses a concave lens of focal length 10cm. What is the power of lens?
(a) -11 D (b) 10 D (c) 11 D (d) -10 D
163. A bulb is rated as 220 V,100 W. What will be its power if it is operated at 110 V [CET 2010]
(a)10 W (b)15 W (c)25 W (d)50 W
164. The Refractive index of Diamond is
(a) 1.5 (b) 1.33 (c) 2.42 (d) 1.8
165. A convex lens is also called a
(a) Diverging lens (b) Converging lens (c) Cylindrical lens (d) None of these
166. Power of a convex lens of focal length 50cm is
(a) -2 D (b) -1/2 D (c) 2 D (d) ½ D
167. The Air Molecules scatter the blue color more than any color, hence the sky appears
(a) Blue (b) Red (c) Yellow (d) White
168. When ray light enters from water to glass, it bends
(a) Towards normal (b) Away from normal
(c) Neither towards nor away from normal (d) cannot say
169. If the angle of incidence is equal to the critical angle, the angle of reflection will be
(a) 0° (b) 45° (c) 90° (d) 180°
170. The focal length of a lens is -0.4m. The lens is
(a) Convex (b) Concave (c) Cylindrical (d) None of these
171. When light goes from one medium to another, the characteristic that remains unaffected is
(a) Speed (b) Direction (c) Wavelength (d) Frequency
172. Light travels the fastest in
(a) Vacuum (b) Air (c) Glass (d) Diamond
173. Which of the following diagram correctly represents the ray of light passing through the optical centre?







174. The ‘far point’ of a normal human eye is
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(a) 25cm (b) 25m (c) 100m (d) At infinity
175. If a current of 4 A is passed through a wire for 30 minutes .If the resistance of the wire is 3125 Ω, then
calculate the power of the total energy consumed during this time. [CET 2010]
(a)0.025 kWh (b)2.5 kWh (c)25 kWh (d)250 kWh
176. The bending of light as it passes from one medium into another is commonly known as
(a) Reflection (b) Refraction (c) Scattering (d) Dispersion
177. The ratio of sine of angle incidence to the sine of angle of reflection is known as
(a) Snell’s law (b) Brewster’s law (c) Reflective index (d) None of these
178. A 4.0cm high object is placed at a distance of 60cm from a concave lens of focal length 20cm. Find the
size of the image
(a) 0.5 cm (b) 1.5cm (c) 1 cm (d) None of these
179. Find the refractive index of glass with respect to water. The refractive indices of these with respect to air
are 3/2 and 4/3 respectively
(a) 7/8 (b) 9/8 (c) 8/7 (d) 8/9
180. If the mass and velocity of a ball are tripled, the kinetic energy is increased by a factor of
(a) 3 (b) 6 (c) 9 (d) 27
181. If the power of a spherical lens is -5D, then its focal length is [CET 2010]
(a)+0.25D (b)-0.25D (c)-0.20D (d)+0.20D
182. If V
a,
V
u
and V
s
are the velocities of audible, ultrasonic and supersonic waves in air respectively, then
(a) V
a
= V
u
>V
s
(b) V
a
>V
u
>V
s
(c) V
s
>V
a
>V
u
(d) V
s
>V
u
>V
a

183. A body weighing ‘W
a
’ in air; weight ‘W
k
’ in kerosene and ‘W
w
’ in water. Then
(a) W
a
>W
k
>W
w
(b) W
a
>W
w
>W
k
(c) W
w
> W
k
> W
a
(d) W
k
> W
a
> W
w

184. The image of an object located the centre of curvature of a concave mirror is
(a) Virtual and Enlarged (b) Real and smaller than the object
(c) Inverted, virtual and of the same size as the object (d) inverted, real and of the same size as the object
185. An object 2cm high is placed 10cm in front of a mirror. What type of mirror and what radius of curvature
in needed for an image that is upright and 4cm tall?
(a) Concave, R=20cm (b) Concave, R=40cm (c) Concave, R= -10cm (d) Concave, R= -20cm
186. A convex lens of power 2 diopters and a concave lens of focal length 20cm are placed in contact. The
power of the combination will be
(a) +5 diopters (b) -5 diopters (c) -3 diopters (d) +3 diopters
187. An object located 90cm from a concave lens, forms an image 60cm from and on the same side of the
lens. The focal length of the lens is
(a) -36cm (b) -75cm (c) -150cm (d) -180cm
188. A person is unable to see objects clearly when they are beyond 100cm. The focal length of the lens
which can be used to correct this defect is
(a) -20cm (b) -33.3cm (c) -100 cm (d) +75cm
189. Which of the following has the longest wavelength? [CET 2010]
(a)red colour (b)X-ray (c)Gamma rays (d)blue colour
190. The unit of power is
(a) Kilowatt hour (b) watt per second (c) ampere-ohm (d) joules per second
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191. If a 500 W heater carries a current of 4.0 A, the voltage across the ends of the heating element is
(a) 2000 V (b) 125 V (c) 250 V (d) 0.008 V
192. Four resistors of 10Ω each are joined to form a square. The equivalent resistance between any two
opposite corners of the combination will be
(a) 10/4Ω (b) 5Ω (c) 10Ω (d) 20Ω
193. Three wires of copper, iron and Nichrome of equal length and equal diameter are joined in series to an
electric circuit. If the rates of heat produced in them are H
c
,H
i
and H
n
respectively, then
(a) H
c
>H
i
>H
N
(b) H
n
>H
i
>H
c
(c) H
i
>H
N>
H
c
(d) H
I
= H
c
>H
N
194. The largest and the smallest resistance that can be obtained by combining 10 resistors of 0.1Ω each will
respectively
(a) 10Ω and 1Ω (b) 1Ω and 0.1Ω (c) 1Ω and 0.01Ω (d) 10Ω and 0.1Ω
195. If ‘A’ is the amplitude of a pendulum and ‘v’ is the velocity at mean position. If the amplitude is doubled
then its velocity will become [CET 2010]
(a)double (b)half (c)four times (d)one fourth
196. Two electric bulbs of 60 W each are connected in series. The total power consumed will be
(a) 120 W (b) 90 W (c) 60 W (d) 30 W
197. You are given ‘n’ resistors each of resistance ‘R’, which you can connect in series or in parallel or in a
mixed combination. The ratio between the maximum and the minimum value of the resistance will be
(a) n (b) n
2
(c) n/R (d) R/n
198. A person cannot distinguish between red and green colors. This defect is due to malfunctioning of the
part of his eye called
(a) Rods cells (b) Cones cells (c) Ciliary muscles (d) Cornea
199. Charge Q flows between two points A and B in time t. The potential difference between A and B is V
and the current is I. The work done in moving the charge is
(a) VQ (b) VI (c) VQt (d) VQ/t
200. Consider two long, straight parallel wires each carrying a current I. If the current in the two wires is
flowing in opposite directions, then the two wires will
(a) Attract each other (b) repel each other
(a) Exert a torque on each other (d) not exert any force
(a) Infra-red rays (b) Ultraviolet rays (c) X-rays (d) Gamma rays
201. What is Hydro-electric power?
(a) Electricity generated in dams by falling water (b) Power generated by sea tides
(c) Electric power in water (d) None of these
202. Speed of sound is maximum in
(a) Vacuum (b) Solids (c) Liquids (d) Gases
203. Dalton’s Atomic Theory proposes that –In a chemical change atoms
(a) are destroyed (b) are converted into new and different kinds of atoms
(c) are created (d) can neither be created nor be destroyed
204. For the maximum projectile range, the angle of projectile should be S [CET 2010]
(a)0
0
(b)30
0
(c)45
0
(d)90
0

205. Wind energy is
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(a) Velocity of wind (b) P.E due to higher wind
(c) K.E of blowing wind (d) Heat energy of air
206. If the direction of electric current is towards north and the direction of magnetic field is downwards, then
what will be the direction of force on conductor
(a) East to West (b) West to East (c) North to South (d) Upwards
207. Rating of fan is 100W, 220V and rating of heater is 1000 W, 220V. Which has high resistance?
(a) Heater (b) Fan (c) Both has same resistance (d) none of these
208. In sunlight, cloths get dried due to
(a) Ultra-violet radiations (b) Infra-red radiations (c) Visible light (d) None of these
209. If a body is taken inside the earth its weight will
(a) Increase (b) Decrease (c) First increase then decrease (d) First decrease then increase
210. When a beta (β) particle is given out, the atomic number of the parent atom
(a) Increased by unity (b) Decreased by unity (c) Remains same (d) Is halved
211. Two objects A and B having masses 1kg and 2 kg respectively and having same momentum. The ratio of
their kinetic energy K
A
:K
B

(a) 4:1 (b) 1:4 (c) 1:2 (d) 2:1
212. A stone and a piece of cotton are dropped from a bridge simultaneously, they will reach on the ground at
the same time in
(a) Vacuum (b) Air (c) Water (d) All of these
213. In a projectile, at the highest point the acceleration is [CET 2010]
(a)upwards (b)in horizontal direction (c)downwards (d)zero
214. The value of current in the given circuit is

(a) 12 amp (b) 3 amp (c) 6amp (d) 4 amp
215. Kilowatt hour is the unit of
(a) Power (b) Energy (c) Time (d) Force
216. Number of images of an object observable between 2 parallel mirrors is [CET 2007]
(a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 6 (d) none of these
217. A real piece of paper when illuminated by green light appears
(a) Black (b) Blue (c) Yellow (d) Green
218. A body is displaced through a distance of 4 m by a force of 20N. Te work done by the force is
(a) 20 J (b) 80J (c) 15 J (d) 4J
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219. Magnification of simple microscope is given by M= [CET 2008]
(a) 1+
P
Ð
(b)
1
Ð
+F (c)
1
P
+D (d) 1+
Ð
P

220. The light with the wave of the longest wavelength is [CET 2010]
(a) Yellow (b) Violet (c) Red (d) Green
221. Which of the following is the best conductor of electricity?
(a) Distilled water (b) Water (c) Salt water (d) Hot water
222. Atom bomb is based on the principle of
(a) Nuclear fission (b) Nuclear fusion (c) Ionisation (d) Electrolysis
223. A particle of mass m has momentum P. Its kinetic energy will be [CET 2008]
(a) mP (b) p
2
m (c) p
2
/m (d) p
2
/2m
224. What is the natural satellite of the Earth?
(a)sun (b)moon (c)Aryabhatt (d)bhaskara
225. When a stone is tied to a string and is whirled in a circle, the work done on its by the string is
(a) Positive (b) Negative (c) Zero (d) undefined
226. LASER is____________________________source of light.
(a) Coherent and monochromatic only (b) Intense and monochromatic only
(c) Intense and coherent only (d) Intense, coherent and monochromatic
227. The device which transforms mechanical energy into electrical energy is
(a) Motor (b) Dynamo (c) galvanometer (d) Transformer
228. Law of Buoyancy was given by
(a) Archimedes (b) Boyle (c) Einstein (d) Nicola Tesla
229. What is the electronic configuration of Phosphorus? [CET 2009]
(a) 2, 8, 3 (b) 2, 8, 5 (c) 2, 8, 6 (d) 2, 8, 1
230. A red coloured object seems red because it
(a) Absorbs red color (b) Allows red color to pass through
(c) Scatters red color (d) Reflects red color
231. The heating element in an electric iron is made of
(a) Nichrome (b) Iron (c) Constantan (d) Tungsten
232. Haemoglobin is
(a) Vitamin (b) Protein (c) Fat (d) Carbohydrate
233. When rays of light fall on a convex lens, it
(a) Converges them (b) Does not bend them (c) Diverge them (d) None of these
234. Three resistance of 2, 3 and 6 ohms are connected in parallel, the total resistance is
(a) 12Ω (b) 7Ω (c) 1Ω (d) 10Ω
235. The instrument which converts sound energy into electric energy is
(a) Loudspeaker (b) Microphone (c) Transformer (d) Electric motor
236. Electromagnetic Induction was discovered by
(a) H.C. Oersted (b) Michael Faraday (c) John Simon Ohm (d) Thomas Edison
237. Heating effect of sunlight is due to the presence of
(a) Infrared rays (b) Ultraviolet rays (c) X-rays (d) Gamma rays
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238. In houses, color of live wire is
(a) Black (b) Red (c) Yellow (d) Green
239. The conductivity of super conductor is
(a) Infinite (b) Very large (c) Very small (d) Zero
240. If momentum of a body increased by 20%, then the percentage increase in its Kinetic Energy is
(a) 36% (b) 44% (c) 20% (d) 60%
241. A lens and a mirror have focal length -1m, the lens and the mirror may be
(a) Convex lens and concave mirror (b) Both concave
(c) Both convex (d) Concave lens and convex mirror
242. A lens and a mirror have focal length -15m, the lens and the mirror may be
(a) Convex lens and concave mirror (b) Both concave
(c) Both convex (d) Concave lens and convex mirror
243. Optical Fiber works on the principle of
(a) TIR (b) Internal Refraction (c) Refraction (d) Reflection
244. Which has more inertia – a man or a child? [CET 2009]
(a) Man (b) Child (c) both has same inertia (d) none of these
245. Relation between force, Mass, and Acceleration was given by
(a) Newton’s 1
st
law (b) Newton’s 2
nd
Law
(c) Newton’s 3
rd
law (d) all of these
246. When a red flower is seen through a green glass it appears
(a) Red (b) Green (c) Yellow (d) Black
247. Which of the following lenses is used when a person feels difficulty in seeing a distant object?
(a) Convex lens (b) Concave lens (c) Both of these (d) None of these
248. Which will fall move faster in vacuum?
(a) A feather (b) A wooden ball (c) A steel ball (d) All of them with same speed
249. Materials which do not transmit light are referred called
(a) Luminous (b) Opaque (c) Transparent (d) Translucent
250. Work done in moving a unit positive charge across two points in an electric circuit called
(a) Current (b) Resistance (c) Power (d) Potential
251. Hypermetropia is corrected by
(a) Concave lens (b) Convex lens (c) concave mirror (d) convex mirror
252. Sun can be seen 2 minutes before actual sunrise and __________after actual sunset
(a) 2 seconds (b) 2 minutes (c) 5 seconds (d) 2 hours
253. The diameter of eye lens will be about
(a) Infinity (b) 2 mm (c) 25 cm (d) 2.3 cm
254. When white light enters a glass prism from air, the angle of deviation is maximum for
[CET 2009]
(a) Blue light (b) Yellow light (c) Violet light (d) Red light
255. Which of the following is not a primary colour?
(a) Red (b) Blue (c) Green (d) Yellow
256. Pigment of yellow and blue when mixed together produce______pigment
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(a) Green (b) Red (c) White (d) None of these
257. Twinkling of stars is due to [CET 2010]
(a) Reflection (b) Atmospheric refraction (c) Dispersion (d) Scattering
258. Which cells respond to the intensity of light?
(a) Rod-shaped (b) cone-shaped (c) Both (d) None of these
259. Myopia is corrected by using [CET 2008]
(a) Convex lens (b) Cylindrical lens (c) Concave lens (d) Bi-focal lens
260. The far point of myopia person is 100 cm. The power of lens used is
(a) +1 D (b) – 1D (c) +2 D (d) – 2 D
261. The change in focal length of an eye lens to focus the image of the object is done by
[CET 2010]
(a) Pupil (b) Retina (c) Ciliary muscles (d) Blind spot
262. Persistence of vision of eyes is [CET 2008]
(a) 1/10 second (b) 1/16 second (c) 1/100 second (d) 16 second
263. For which color of the light, glass has the lowest refractive index? [CET 2008]
(a) Red light (b) Blue light (c) Green light (d) Violet light
264. Short sightedness is also called
(a) Myopia (b) Hypermetropia (c) Astigmatism (d) Color blindness
265. In the bright sunlight the pupil of our eye is very
(a) Large (b) Small (c) Normal (d) none of these
266. In Myopia
(a) Image is formed in front of the retina (b) Image is formed behind the retina
(c) Image of formed on the retina (d) No image is formed
267. Accommodation of normal eyes is from
(a) 5cm to 15cm (b) 15cm to 1m (c) 1m to 3m (d) 20 cm to infinity
268. The velocity of electromagnetic wave in vacuum is
(a) 3 x 10
8
ms
-1
(b) 3 x 10
8
cms
-1
(c) 3 x 10
8
kms
-1
(d) none of these
269. The band of seven colors formed when white light passes through the prism is called
(a) Dispersion (b) Spectrum (c) Scattering (d) total internal reflection
270. Who discovered by his experiments with glass prisms that white light consists of seven colors?
(a) Newton (b) Faraday (c) Maxwell (d) Young
271. Figure shows the eye suffering from

(a) Hypermetropia (b) Myopia (c) Astigmatism (d) none of these
272. If the length of the pendulum is increased by 1%,then the Time Period [CET 2010]
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(a)increases by 1% (b)increases by .5%
(c)decreases by .5% (d)increases by 2%
273. How many 176Ω resistors are required to carry 5 A on 220 V line?
(a) One (b) Two (c) Infinite (d) Four
274. If the length of a wire is doubled, how its resistivity changed?
(a) Doubled to its original (b) Halved to its original
(c) One fourth of its original (d) Unaffected
275. Filament of electric bulb is made up of
(a) Chromium (b) copper (c) Nickel (d) tungsten
276. What is the current ‘I’ in the circuit shown



(a) ½ A (b) 30 A (c) 1/30 A (d) 2 A
277. An ammeter should have
(a) High resistance (b) Very high resistance (c) Very low resistance (d) none of these
278. Which particles constitute the electric current in a metallic conductor?
(a) Electrons (b) Protons (c) Neutrons (d) None
279. Which metal has the lowest resistivity?
(a) Iron (b) Tungsten (c) Aluminum (d) Silver
280. Electromagnetism was discovered by [CET 2010]
(a)Fleming (b)H.C.Oersted (c)Faraday (d)Maxwell
281. Gravitational Force on an object of mass 1 kg kept on the earth is
(a) 9.8 N (b) 98 N (c) 1N (d) 6.6 x10
-11
N
282. By what % will the illumination of bulb decrease if the current drops by 20%?
(a) 20% (b) 36% (c) 60% (d) 10%
283. By keeping the distance constant between the two point charges, if their magnitude of charge be double
then the force becomes
(a) Double (b) Triple (c) 4 times (d) 8 times
284. We have two wires of same cross-section and same material but one is twice the length of the other, how
will be their resistance be different?
(a) 1:1 (b) 2:1 (c) 4:1 (d) none of these
285. The current in a wire depends
(a) Only on the potential difference applied (b) Only on the resistance of the wire
(c) On both of them (d) none of these
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286. The effective resistance of parallel combination of ‘n’ wires will be
(a) R/n
2
(b) n
2
/R (c) R/n (d) R
2
/n
287. An object of mass 2 kg is raised to a height of 5cm, its potential energy at the highest point will be
(a) 10 J (b) 0.98 J (c) 0.098 J (d) 9.8 J
288. According to coulomb’s law force between two charges is mathematically represented as
(a) F=Bql (b) F=q
1
q
2
/r (c) F=kq
1
q
2
/r
2
(d) None of these
289. Magnetic field may be due to
(a) Permanent magnet (b) Straight wire carrying current (c) Solenoid (d) All of these
290. Which of the is/are attracted by magnet
(a) Iron (b) Nickel (c) Cobalt (d) All of these
291. A charged particle experiences minimum force when it travels
(a) Parallel to the magnetic field (c) Perpendicular to the magnetic field
(c) At 45
0
to the field (d) at 75
0
to the field
292. The axis of earth’s magnetic field is inclined at an angle of about
(a) 15
0
with the geographical axis (c) 16
0
with the geographical axis
(c) 23
0
with the geographical axis (d) 24
0
with the geographical axis
293. The value of acceleration due to gravity is maximum at [CET 2010]
(a)Antarctica (b)poles (c)equator (d)kutub minar
294. Two current carrying conductors are held parallel . If the direction of current is same, then the nature of
force between them is
(a) Attractive (b) Repulsive
(c) Attractive and Repulsive depending on the magnitude of current (d) none of these
295. Resistivity of a wire is related to its conductivity as
(a) p=1/σ (b) p=σ (c) p=1/σ
2
(d) p=1/2σ
296. A magnetic field directed in north direction acts on an electron moving in east direction. The magnetic
force on the electron will be
(a) Vertically upwards (b) Towards the east
(c) Vertically downwards (d) Towards the north
297. The magnetic field inside a solenoid is
(a) Zero (b) Non-uniform (c) Uniform (d) None
298. When white light asses through a bubble, the bubble seems colourful due to [CET 2010]
(a)interference (b)dispersion (c)diffraction (d)refraction
299. The best material to make permanent magnets in
(a) Copper (b) Soft iron (c) Aluminum (d) Alnico
300. The electric generator converts
(a) Electric energy into mechanical energy (b) Mechanical energy into electrical energy
(c) Electrical energy into chemical energy (d) None of these
301. Hydrogen Bomb is based on [CET 2010]
(a)nuclear fission (b)nuclear fusion
(c)nuclear reaction (d) electro magnetic induction
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302. Tesla is the unit of
(a) Electric field (b) Magnetic field (c) Force per unit length (d) Work per unit length
303. Fuse is connected in
(a) Live wire (b) Neutral wire (c) Earth wire (d) Any wire
304. In India, the electricity is supply at
(a) 220v, 50Hz (b) 110V, 50Hz (c) 110V, 60Hz (d) 220V, 60Hz
305. A coil of many turns of an insulated copper wire, wound closely in the form of a cylinder is called a
(a) Galvanometer (b) Solenoid (c) Volt meter (d) All of these
306. An electron enters a magnetic field at right angle to it. The direction of force acting on the electron will
be
(a) To the left (b) to the right (c) To upwards (d) Into the page
307. 1 Gauss is equal to
(a) 10
4
Tesla (b) 10
-4
Tesla (c) 10
3
Tesla (d) none of these
308. Which is not a renewable source of energy?
(a) Wind energy (b) Solar energy (c) Nuclear energy (d) Energy from coal
309. In a solar cell the energy from Sun is converted into
(a) Kinetic energy (b) Potential energy (c) Electrical energy (d) None of these
310. The minimum wind speed necessary for satisfactory working of a wind generator is about
(a) 5km/h (b) 10 km/h (c) 15 km/h (d) 20 km/h
311. One watt hour equals [CET 2008]
(a) 3600 J (b) 360 J (c) 36 J (d) 3.6 J
312. One light year is equal to
(a) 9.5 x 10
15
Km (b) 9.46 x 10
15
Km (c) 9.46 x 10
12
km (d) 9.46 x 10
12
m
313. We belong to the galaxy called
(a) Milky way (b) Elliptical galaxy (c) Irregular galaxy (d) Andromeda
314. The number of planet in the solar system is
(a) 5 (b) 7 (c) 8 (d) 9
315. The brightest planet is
(a) Mars (b) Mercury (c) Jupiter (d) Venus
316. The planet nearest to the sun is
(a) Mercury (b) Pluto (c) Earth (d) Venus
317. The hottest planet of the solar system is
(a) Mars (b) Venus (c) Mercury (d) Pluto
318. First artificial satellite launched by India is called
(a) Aryabhatt (b) Rohini (c) Sputnik-1 (d) None of these
319. The planet which has largest number of satellites
(a) Jupiter (b) Saturn (c) Neptune (d) Pluto
320. The refractive index of water with respect to air is 1.33,what is the refractive index of air with respect to
water is [CET 2010]
(a) 0.665 (b)0.75 (c)2.25 (d)1.33
321. The Indian name of Pole star is
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(a) Saptarishi (b) Mriga (c) Mesh (d) Dhruvtara
322. The first Indian man went into space is
(a) Subhash Sharma (b) Rajeev Sharma (c) Rakesh Sharma (d) Kalpana Chawla
323. What is the minimum number of rays required to obtain an image of any real object?
(a)one (b)two (c)three (d)infinite
324. Two resistors R
1
and R
2
,

when connected in parallel combination, their equivalent resistance is 4 Ω and
when they are connected in series, the equivalent resistance is 18Ω.What are the values of R
1
and R
2
?
[CET 2010]
(a)12Ω,6Ω (b)8 Ω,6 Ω (c)6 Ω,2 Ω (d) 18 Ω,4 Ω
325. Which of the following colour has the shortest wavelength? [CET 2010]
(a)violet (b)white (c)red (d)yellow
326. Jet engine and Rocket works on the principle [CET 2010]
(a)conservation of momentum (b)Law of Gravitation
(c)Law of inertia (d)conservation of energy

CHEMISTRY
Matter in our surroundings
1. A substances having a definite shape & definite volume is called
(a) Solid (b) Plasma (c) Liquid (d) Gas
2. The temperature at which a liquid changes into solid by giving out heat energy is called
(a) Melting point (b) Boiling point (c) Freezing point (d) Critical point
3. The boiling point of water occurs at
(a) 373, 273 K (b) 0, 273 K (c) 273, 373 K (d) 100, 373 K
4. The physical state of water at 10
o
C is
(a) Solid (b) Liquid (c) Gas (d) May be solid or liquid
5. In which substances, intermolecular force is strongest
(a) NaCl(s) (b) Water (c) CO
2
(g) (d) Alcohol
6. Intermolecular force is maximum in
(a) A solid at 298 k (b) A solid at 373 k (c) A gas (d) A liquid
7. 300K temperature may be written in Celsius scale as
(a) 300
o
C (b) 127
o
C (c) 27
o
C (d) 573
o
C
8. The solid that can sublime is/are
(a) Camphor (b) Dry ice (c) Napthalene (d) All of these
9. The substance which can readily sublime is
(a) Ammonium Chloride (b) Sodium Chloride (c) Hydrochloric acid (d) Chlorine gas
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10. In summer, we usually prefer which type of cloths?
(a) White cotton (b) White silk (c) Dark silk (d) Nylon
11. The process of change of a liquid to solid state is called
(a)Solidification (b) Liquefaction (c) Sublimation (d) Evaporation
12. The temperature at which a liquid changes into gas is known as
(a) Melting point (b) Transition point (c) Boiling point (d) Kelvin point
13. The melting point of ice on Celsius scale is
(a) 100
o
C (b) 0
o
C (c) -100
o
C (d) None of these
14. The S.I unit of measuring temperature
(a) Celsius (b) Kelvin (c) Water vapour (d) Fog
15. The B.P of water at normal atmospheric pressure is
(a) 273 k (b) 373 K (c) 100 K (d) 0
o
C
16. Freezing point of pure water is
(a) 0
o
C (b) 373 K (c) 273 K (d) Both ‘a’ & ‘c’
17. Solid Carbon dioxide (dry ice) is stored under
(a) High temperature (b) Low temperature (c) High pressure (d) Low pressure
18. ____________has the highest destiny
(a) Cotton (b) Iron (c) Chalk (d) Air
19. 0
o
C is equal to
(a) 0 K (b) 100 K (c) 173 K (d) 273 K
20. Convert the temperature of 25
o
C to the Kelvin scale
(a) 298 K (b) 273 K (c) 27 K (d) 25 K
21. Factors affecting evaporation is
(a) Temperature (b) Surface area (c) Wind speed (d) all of these
22. Name of the substance which sublimes
(a) Camphor (b) Oxygen (c) Coal (d) Helium
23. Which of the following is incorrectly matched
(a) Pressure Pascal (b) Temperature Kelvin
(c) Volume mL (d) Mass Kilograms

Atoms and molecules
24. Which of the following has the largest molecular mass?
(a) NO (b) N
2
O
5
(c) N
2
O
4
(d) NO
2

25. The smallest particle of an (element or compound) which can exist freely is
(a) Atom (b) Molecule (c) Ion (d) Radical
26. How many times an atom of Magnesium is heavier than an atom of Carbon?
(a) 2 times (b) 3 times (c) 4 times (d) 5 times
27. The ratio by mass of C and O in CO
2
is
(a) 1:2 (b) 3:14 (c) 3:8 (d) 3:11
28. The law of definite proportion was proposed by
(a) John Dalton (b) Richter (c) Joseph Proust (d) A. Lavoisier
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29. 10.0g of CaCO
3
on heating gave 4.4g of CO
2
and 5.6g of CaO. The observation is in agreement with the
(a ) Law of constant composition (b) Law of conservation of mass
(c) Law of definite proportion (d) Law of multiple proportion
30. An atom is the
(a) Smallest particle of water (b) Smallest particle of a gas
(c) Smallest indivisible particle of an element that can take part in a chemical change
(d) Radioactive emission
31. The number of moles in 6.4g of SO
2
is
(a) 1 (b) 10 (c) 0.1 (d) 6.4
32. The combining capacity of an atom of element is called as
(a) Valency (b) Variable valency (c) Electro valency (d) Valence electrons
33. The number of valence electrons in X and Y is 2 and 6, their formula will be [CET 2010]
(a)XY (b)XY
2
(c)X
2
Y (d)X
6
Y
2

34. Name the scientist who proposed atomic theory of matters?
(a) John Dalton (b) J.J Thomson (c) Rutherford (d) Maharishi Kanad
35. Which law states that matter can neither be created nor destroyed during any physical and chemical change?
(a) Law of conservation of mass (b) Law of definite proportion
(c) Law of constant proportions (d) Law of multiple proportions
36. The percentage of Oxygen in NaOH is
(a) 40 % (b) 60 % (c) 8 % (d) 10 %
37. The molar mass of C
2
H
4
is
(a) 16 amu (b) 32 amu (c) 28 amu (d) 20 amu
38. Which of the following is a polyatomic ion?
(a) Zn
2+
(b) PO
3-
(c) Mg
2+
(d) Cr
3+

39. What is the weight of 10 mole of Calcium in grams?
(a) 62 g (b) 130 g (c) 316 g (d) 400 g
40. Which is the correct symbol of an element?
(a) SN (b) CO (c) Cu (d) PB
41. What is the mass of 2.5 moles of methane (CH
4
)?
(a) 20 u (b) 40 u (c) 60 u (d) 80 u
42. How many gram moles are present in 18 g of H
2
O?
(a) 6.022 x 10
20
(b) 9 g mole (c) 6.022 x 10
22
(d) 6.022 x 10
23

43. Carbon and Oxygen combine in ratio 3:8 by mass to form carbon dioxide. What mass of oxygen would be
required to react completely with 6 g of carbon?
(a) 22g (b) 13g (c) 16g (d) 6g
44. The number of molecules in 9g of water about
(a) 3 x 10
23
(b) 9 x 10
23
(c) 54 x 10
23
(d) none of these
45. Calculate the formula of aluminium sulphates is
(a) Al
2
SO
4
(b) AlSO
4
(c) Al
2
(SO
4
)
3
(d) Al
3
(SO
4
)
2

46. The formula unit mass of Na
2
SO
4
.10H
2
O is
(a) 142 u (b) 322 u (c) 286 u (d) 23 u
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47. Calculate the formula unit mass of K
2
CO
3

(a) 2.8 u (b) 34.9 u (c) 138 u (d) 230.6 u
48. An element A is tetravalent and element B is divalent. The formula of the compound formed by these to
element is
(a) AB
2
(b) A
2
B (c) A
2
B
4
(d) AB
49. The percentage of Hydrogen in H
2
O is
(a) 44.45 % (b) 5.55 % (c) 88.89 % (d) 11.11 %
50. Which of the following is not correctly matched?
(a) Chlorine Cl (b) Copper Co (c) Silver Ag (d)Hydrogen H

Structure of atom
51. Rutherford’s experiment on scattering of α- particles showed for the first time that the atom has
(a) Nucleus (b) Protons (c) Electrons (d) Neutrons
52. Neutrons were discovered by [CET 2010]
(a)Goldstein (b)Rutherford (c)Chadwick (d)Neils Bohr
53. Isotopes have
(a) Same number of neutrons (b) Same no. of electrons but different no. of protons
(c) Same no. of protons & neutrons (d) same no. of electrons & protons
54. The nitrogen atom has 7 protons and 7 electrons. The N
3-
ion will have
(a) 7 protons & 7 electrons (b) 7 protons & 4 electrons
(c) 4 protons & 7 electrons (d) 7 protons & 10 electrons
55. Nucleons are
(a) Protons and neutrons (b) Neutrons and electrons
(c) Protons and electrons (d) Protons, neutrons & electrons
56. Iron-59 is used for detecting cases of
(a) Cancer (b) Thyroid disorder (c) Rickets (d) Anemia
57. Which configuration of electrons represents Sodium?
(a) 2, 8, 4 (b) 2, 8, 5 (c) 2, 3 (d) 2, 8, 1
58. Which of the following doesn’t have neutrons?
(a) H (b) He (c) Ne (d) C
59. Isotopes have same
(a) Atomic no. (b) Chemical properties (c) no. of protons (d) All of these
60. C-14 is used in
(a) Cancer (b) Leukemia (c) Radio carbon dating (d) Thyroid disorder
61. I-131 is used in the treatment of
(a) Cancer (b) Leukemia (c) Thyroid disorder (d) Blockage of articles
62. Co-60 is used in treatment of [CET 2009]
(a) Cancer tumors (b) AIDS (c) Swine flu (d) Blockage of articles
63. The maximum no. of electrons in II
nd
shell are
(a) 2 (b) 8 (c) 18 (d) 32
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64. The valency of aluminium [13] is
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 5 (d) 1
65. Which of the following has maximum valence electrons?
(a) Na (b) N (c) Mg (d) Si
66. Rutherford’s α scattering experiment was responsible for the discovery of
(a) Atomic nucleus (b) Electron (c) Proton (d) Neutron
67. Isobars are the atoms of
(a) Same elements having same atomic no. (c) Same elements having same atomic mass
(c) Different elements having same atomic mass (d) Different elements having same atomic no.
68. Isotopes of an element has
(a) Same physical properties (b) Different chemical properties
(c) Different no. of neutrons (d) Different atomic no.
69. An orbit (energy level) can accommodate maximum ______ electrons
(a) 2n (b) n
2
(c) 2n
2
(d) (2n)
2

70. No. of valence electrons in Cl
-
ion are
(a) 16 (b) 8 (c) 17 (d) 18
71. Which is correct electronic configuration of sodium?
(a) 2, 8, 1 (b) 8, 2, 1 (c) 2, 1, 8 (d) 2, 8, 2
72. The maximum no. of electron in 1
st
shell is
(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 8 (d) 2
73.
12
6
C contains ____ protons and _______electrons
(a) 6, 12 (b) 6, 6 (c) 12, 6 (d) 6, 0
74. Mercury contains 80 protons and 80 electrons and 120 neutrons. Its mass no. is
(a) 200 (b) 280 (c) 120 (d) 80
75. The electronic configuration of
19
9
F is
(a) 2, 8, 7 (b) 2, 7, 8 (c) 2, 7 (d) 2, 2, 5
76. The formula of iron (III) Oxide is
(a) Fe
2
O (b) FeO (c) Fe
2
O
3
(d) Fe
3
O
2

77. An atom has atomic mass no. 23 & atomic no. 11. The atom has_______electron.
(a) 23 (b) 11 (c) 12 (d) 34
78. The total no. of protons and neutrons in the nucleus of an atom is called its
(a) Atomic no. (b) No. of electrons (c) Mass no. (d) No. of neutron
79. The maximum no. of electrons that can be represented in the outer most shell of an atom is
(a) 18 (b) 8 (c) 2 (d) 10
80. An atom which has a mass no. of 14 and has 8 neutrons is an
(a) Isotopes of oxygen (b) Isobar of oxygen (c) isotope of carbon (d) Isobar of carbon
81. An atom of an element has 26 electrons and has mass no. 56. The nucleus of this atom
contains______neutrons
(a) 26 (b) 36 (c) 30 (d) 56
82. The diagram given below represents an atom of
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(a) Chlorine (b) Magnesium (c) Calcium (d) Argon
83. An element with atomic no. 19. The 19
th
electron will occupy
(a) L- shell (b) M-shell (c) N-shell (d) K-shell
84. Sulphur molecule is found in nature as [CET 2008]
(a) S
2
(b) S
3
(c) S
4
(d) S
8


Chemical reactions & Equations
85. Balance the reaction Fe + H
2
O Fe
3
O
4
+ 3H
2

(a) 4Fe + 3H
2
O Fe
3
O
4
+ 3H
2
(b) 3Fe + 4H
2
O Fe
3
O
4
+ 4H
2

(c) 2Fe + 2H
2
O 2Fe
3
O
4
+ 2H
2
(d) 3Fe + 3H
2
O Fe
3
O
4
+ 3H
2

86. Burning of coal is
(a) Combination rxn (b) Decomposition rxn (c) displacement rxn (d) None of these
87. CaO (s) + H
2
O (I) Ca(OH)
2
+ Heat is a rxn
(a) Double displacement (b) Endothermic (c) Exothermic (d) Both ‘a’ & ‘b’
88. Which of the following is a decomposition reaction?
(a)AgCl sunlight 2 Ag + Cl
2
(b) 2H
2
+O
2
2H
2
O
(c) NaCl + AgNO
3
NaNO
3
+ AgCl (d) CuO + H
2
H
2
O +Cu
89. CaCO
3
heat CaO + CO
2
, It is a reaction
(a) Displacement (b) Combination (c) Exothermic (d) Endothermic
90. Which can act as reducing as well oxidising agent? [CET 2010]
(a)SO
2
(b)SO
3
(c)H
2
SO
4
(d)H
2

91. Formula of marble, Chalk & Limestone is
(a) Na
2
CO
3
, CaCO
3
, CuCO
3
(b) CaCO
3
, CaCO
3,
CaCO
3
(c) CaCO
3
, CaSO
4
, Mg (OH)
2
(d) CaO, CaCO
3
, Ca (OH)
2

92. Zn + CuCO
3
ZnCO
3
+Cu. Which is correct option about the reactivity of Zn & Cu?
(a) Zinc is more reactive than Cu (b) Copper is more reactive than Cu
(c) Both Zn and Cu are equally reactive (d) none of these
93. The reaction in which an insoluble product is formed is called
(a) Neutralization rxn (b) Endothermic reaction
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(c) Exothermic rxn (d) Precipitation reaction
94. Which is exothermic reaction?
(a) N
2
+ 3H
2
2NH
3
+ heat (b) 2H
2
O electricity 2H
2
+ O
2

(c) C + O
2
Co
2
+ Heat (d) both ‘a’ & ‘c’
95. Which compound /element is oxidized in the reaction 3Fe + 4H
2
O Fe
3
O
4
+ 4H
2

(a) Fe (b) H
2
O (c) Fe
3
O
4
(d) H
2

96. In the reaction CuO + H
2
H
2
O + Cu. Oxidizing agent is
(a) CuO (b) H
2
(c) H
2
O (d) Cu
97. MnO
2
+ 4HCl MnCl
2
+ 2H
2
O + Cl
2
. This is a reaction
(a) Combination reaction (b) Decomposition (c) Double displacement (d) Redox reaction
98. Balance the reaction NH
3
+ O
2
N
2
+ H
2
O. [CET 2008]
(a) 3NH
3
+ 2O
2
3N
2
+ 4H
2
O (b) 2NH
3
+ 3O
2
N
2
+ 3H
2
O
(c) 4NH
3
+ 3O
2
2N
2
+ 6H
2
O (d) 6NH
3
+ 2O
2
3N
2
+ 4H
2
O
99. MnO
2
+ 4HCl MnCl
2
+ 2H
2
O + Cl
2
. Which is correct statement?
(a) MnO
2
is oxidized (b) HCl is oxidized
(c) MnO
2
is reducing agent (d) HCl is oxidizing agent
100. Mg
2+
reacts with N
3-
to form
(a) MgN (b) Mg
3
N
2
(c) Mg
5
N
2
(d) Mg
2
N
3

101. Choose the incorrect statement in CuO + H
2
Cu + H
2
O
(a) H
2
is oxidized (b) CuO is oxidizing agent
(c) H
2
is reducing agent (d) CuO is oxidized
102. Corrosion of iron is called
(a) Rusting (b) Corrodition (c) Rancidity (d) Depletion
103. When lead nitrate Pb(NO
3
)
2
is heated the brown fumes evolved are due to the formation of
(a) NO (b) N
2
O (c) N
2
(d) NO
2

104. Which gas is filled in packets of food items to preserve the food? [CET 2009]
(a) O
2
(b) H
2
(c) N
2
(d) CO
2

105. Which is reducing agent in the reaction 2H
2
S + SO
2
2H
2
O + 3S
(a) S (b) H
2
S (c) SO
2
(d) H
2
O
106. The value of co-efficient x and y in the reaction 4Al + xO
2
yAl
2
O
3

(a) 3 & 2 (b) 2 & 3 (c) 1 & 3 (d) 2 & 4
107. The valency of calcium is 2 and that of phosphate radical is 3. The molecular formula phosphate is
(a) CaPO
4
(b) Ca (PO
4
)
2
(c) Ca
3
(PO
4
)
2
(d) Ca
3
PO
4

108. Nitrogen gas is filled in food containers-
(a) To prevent rancidity (b) To prevent corrosion
(c) To make the food sweet smelling (d) To increase the rancidity
109. What is the valency of Fe in Fe
2
O
3
?
(a) 5 (b) 4 (c) 3 (d) 2
110. Respiration is a/an
(a) Endothermic (b) Exothermic (c) Neutralization (d) Decomposition
111. When Hydrogen Peroxide is mixed with Sodium Oxide, which gas is released? [CET 2010]
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(a)dihydrogen (b)dioxygen (c)sodium (d)H
2
O
112. Reduction involves
(a) Loss of electron (b) Gain of oxygen (c) Addition of electrons (d) All of these
113. Electrolysis of water is a
(a) Displacement reaction (b) Precipitation (c) Decomposition reaction (d) Combination
114. The following reaction is an example of 2FeSO
4
(s) heat Fe
2
O
3
(s) +SO
2
(g) + SO
3
(g)
(a) Combination reaction (b) Neutralization reaction
(c) Reduction reaction (d) Decomposition reaction
115. Which statement is not true about oxidation reaction?
(a) Addition of Oxygen (b) Removal of Hydrogen
(c) Gain of electron (d) Release of electron
116. N
2
(g) + O
2
(g) 2NO (g)-Heat. This reaction is
(a) Endothermic (b) Exothermic (c) Decomposition (d) Displacement
117. Hydrogen cannot be displaced by
(a) Al (b) Zn (c) Ag (d) Na
118. The substance oxidized in the reaction is Zn + Ag
+
Zn
++
+ Ag [CET 2009]
(a) Zn (b) Ag
+
(c) Zn
++
(d) Ag
119. In the balanced equation MnO
2
+ HCl MnCl
2
+ C
12
+ H
2
O. The value of a, b, c, and d are
respectively
(a)1,1,2 & 3 (b) 1,1,1& 1 (c) 1,3,2, & 3 (d) 1,4,1 & 2
120. The process of which involves
(a) Removal of hydrogen (b) Gain of electron
(c) Addition of oxygen (d) Loss of electron
121. Oxidation is a process which involves [CET 2008]
(a) Addition of oxygen (b) Addition of hydrogen (c) Gain of electron (d) None of these
122. Which of the following statement is correct?
(a) Oxidation involves gain of electron
(b) Substances which gets reduced acts as a reducing agent
(c) Exothermic reaction produced with absorption of heat
(d) NaHCO
3
is sodium bicarbonate
123. Food items containing fats and oils foul smell when left for a time because of---
(a) Corrosion (b) Acidity (c) Rancidity (d) All of these
124. Which statement about the reaction below is incorrect?
2PbO(s) + C(s) 2Pb(s) + CO
2
(g)
(a) Carbon is oxidized (b) Pb is reduced (c) Co
2
is oxidized (d) none of these
125. The chemical formula of rust [CET 2008]
(a) Fe
2
O
3
(b) FeO (c) Fe
2
O
3
.xH
2
O (d) None of these
126. In the following reaction 3MnO
2
+ 4Al 3 Mn + 2Al
2
O
3
. Then the oxidizing agent is
(a) MnO
2
(b) Al
2
O
3
(c) Mn (d) Al
127. In the following reaction the value of x and y are
Fe
2
O
3
+ xAl Al
2
O
3
+ yFe
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(a) 1 & 2 (b) 2 & 1 (c) 2 & 2 (d) 3 & 2
128. Which of the following is an oxidation process? [CET 2009]
(a) Fe
3+
Fe
2+
(b) Zn
2+
Zn (c) Cl
-
Cl (d) O
-
O
2-

129. In the reaction 2FeCl
2
+ Cl
2
2FeCl
3
. Chlorine may be regarded as
(a) An oxidizing agent (b) A reducing agent
(c) A catalyst (d) Providing an inert medium

Acids, Bases & Salts
130. Which will turn blue litmus to red?
(a) HCl (b) Ca (OH)
2
(c) NaCl (d) NaOH
131. Which gas is released when a metal reacts with an acid?
(a) Cl
2
(b) H
2
(c) O
2
(d) SO
2

132. Acid + Base A + water. A is
(a) Salt (b) Hydrogen (c) NO
2
(d) CO
2

133. Which gas turns lime water milky?
(a) NO
2
(b) SO
2
(c) CO
2
(d) H
2

134. Nature of metallic oxides is
(a) Acidic (b) Neutral (c) Amphoteric (d) Basic
135. Which will give H
+
ions in water?
(a) Glucose (b) Alcohol (c) Sulphuric acid (d) Sodium hydroxide
136. Which statement is incorrect?
(a) Acids give H
+
ions in water (b) Acid conduct electricity in aqueous solution
(c) Acids have pH more than 7 (d) Acids turn blue litmus red.
137. When Sodium Hydroxide is dissolved in water, it produces
(a) Na
+
+ OH (b) Na + OH (c) Na
+
+ OH
+
(d) H
+

138. Choose the incorrect statement about Milk of Magnesia?
(a) Its formula is Mg (OH)
2
(b) It is called antacid
(c) Its pH value is 1 (c) it is used to treat acidity.
139. If Ph of pure water is 7, then the color of pH paper is
(a) Blue (b) Orange (c) Yellow (d) Green
140. Which statement is false?
(a) Acidic nature increases with decrease in pH value (b) Red color indicates the acids
(c) Most alkaline is at 14 (d) A solution having high ph value has more H
+
ions
141. Which has more H
+
ions?
(a) ph=3 (b) pH=8 (c) pH=14 (d) pH=7
142. Acid present in bee sting? [CET 2008]
(a) Methanoic acid (b) Hydrochloric acid (c) Acetic acid (d) Sulphuric acid
143. Tooth decay can be prevented by
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(a) Eating sugar (b) drinking cold water (c) Basic tooth paste (d) both ‘a’ & ‘b’
144. Which acid is present in vinegar?
(a) Citric (b) Acetic acid (c) Lactic acid (d) Tartaric acid
145. pH of a salt formed by a strong acid and weak base is
(a) more than 7 (b) less than 7 (c) equal to 0 (d) equal to 7
146. How many times a solution should be diluted to bring the pH from 2 to 5? [CET 2008]
(a) 3 times (b) 7 times (c) 10 times (d) 1000 times
147. pH of 0.001 M of NaOH is
(a) 0 (b) 3 (c) 11 (d) 14
148. Which is the strongest base?
(a) CaCO
3
(b) NaOH (c) Mg (OH)
2
(d) Na
2
O
149. The compound used to disinfect the water is [CET 2009]
(a) CaOCl
3
(b) CaSO
4
.2H
2
O (c) NaHCO
3
(d) Na
2
CO
3
. 10H
2
O
150. Which is incorrect about Baking Soda?
(a) Its chemical name is Sodium Carbonate (b) It is an ingredient of antacid
(c) It is used to make baking powder (d) It is used in soda –acid fire extinguisher
151. Which is used by doctors to support the fractured bone?
(a) P.O.P (b) Calcium carbonate (c) Bleaching powder (d) Sodium bicarbonate
152. HCl reacts with NaOH to form salt and water, this reaction is called [CET 2009]
(a) Precipitation reaction (b) Neutralization (c) Redox reaction (d) Combination reaction
153. What is the formula of Gypsum? [CET 2009]
(a) CaSO
4
.1/2H
2
O (b) CaSO
4
.2H
2
O (c) CaSO
4
(d) CaCO
3
.2H
2
O
154. Highest OH
-
ion concentration will be when
(a) pH= 0 (b) pH = 7 (c) pH=1 (d) pH=14
155. Aqueous solution of NH
4
Cl, has Ph
(a) < 7 (b) > 7 (c) =7 (d) = 0
156. Na + HCl NaCl + ?
(a) CO
2
(b) N
2
(c) H
2
(d) Cl
2

157. Which is not correctly matched?
(a) Curd Lactic acid (b) Tomato Oxalic acid
(c) Nettle sting Methanoic acid (d) Orange Tartaric acid
158. Bleaching powder is prepared by passing chlorine gas over dry
(a) Calcium chloride (b) Calcium carbonate (c) Slaked lime (d) CaSO
4

159. pH value of blood is [CET 2008 & 2009]
(a) 0 (b) 7 (c) 7.4 (d) 14
160. How many crystals of water are attached to a molecule of Gypsum?
(a) 1 (b) ½ (c) 1 ½ (d) 2
161. Which of the following is a weak acid?
(a) CH
3
COOH (b) H
2
SO
4
(c) HNO
3
(d) HCl
162. Which compound has {H
+
} = {OH
-
}?
(a) H
2
O (b) HCl (c) H
2
SO
4
(d) NaOH
163. Brine is [CET 2009]
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(a) NaCl (s) (b) NaCl (aq) (c) H
2
SO
4
(aq) (d) Ca (OH)
2

164. A solution has pH value 10; it may be [CET 2009]
(a) HCl (b) H
2
O (c) NaOH (d) CH
3
COOH
165. Aqua Regia contains 3:1 mixture of [CET 2008]
(a) HCl & H
2
SO
4
(b) HNO
3
& H
2
SO
4
(c) HCl & HNO
3
(d) HNO
3
& HCl
166. The pH of a solution is 5.0, if H
+
ion concentration is decreased 100 times, then the solution will be
(a) More acidic (b) neutral (c) Basic (d) of the same acidity
167. Which of the following is known as Hydronium ion?
(a) H
+
(b) H
2
O
+
(c) H
3
O
+
(d) OH
-

168. pH value of 1.0 Mole of HCl is
(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 13 (d) 14
169. An element having electronic configuration 2, 8, 2 will form
(a) Acidic oxide (b) Basic oxides (c) Amphoteric Oxides (d) neutral oxides
170. In solution, the Hydrogen ions exist as
(a) H
+
(b) Either H
+
or H
-

(c) H
3
O
+
(d) H
+
surrounded by several water molecules
171. A solution reacts with crushed egg-shells to give a gas that turns lime-water milky. The solution contains
(a) HCl (b) NaCl (c) NaOH (d) KCl
172. What is the pH of acid rain?
(a) > 5 (b) 8 (c) < 5.6 (d) +5
173. pH of human blood lies in between
(a) 6.5-7.0 (b) 7.0-7.8 (c) 7.5-8.0 (d) 8.05-8.35
174. pH of a solution having HCl concentration of 1M is
(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 10 (d) 14
175. The pH of solution is 5. Its Hydrogen ion concentration is decreased 100 times. Then the solution will be
(a) Basic (b) Acidic (c) Neutral (d) none of these
176. The pH of 0.01 M NaOH solution is
(a) 9 (b) 11 (c) 12 (d) 14
177. Tooth enamel contains
(a) Calcium chloride (b) Calcium Phosphate (c) Calcium carbonate (d) Calcium sulphate
178. Bleaching powder is used as
(a) A germicide (b) An oxidizing agent (c) A disinfectant (d) All of these
179. If the pH of the solution is 3 and if its pH changes from 3 to 5 then H
+
ion concentration
(a) Increased by 2 times (b) Increased by 20 times
(c) Increased by 100 times (d) increased by 1000 times
180. If H
3
O
+
ion concentration is increased by 10 times, then its pH will decreased by_______ times
(a) 1 (b) 100 (c) 1000 (d) 10
5

181. Gypsum is
(a) CaSO
4
.2H
2
O (b) CaCO
3
.3H
2
O (c) CaSO
4
.
1
2
H
2
O (d) CaSO
4
. H
2
O
182. Which of the following gases is evolved when baking soda reacts with an acid?
(a) H
2
(b) O
2
(c) CO
2
(d) CH
4

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183. Which of the following is incorrectly matched?
Acid Source
(a) Tartaric acid Tamarind
(b) Ascorbic acid Orange
(c) Citric acid Lemon
(d) Oxalic acid Tomato
Metals and Non-Metals
184. Which non metal is good conductor of electricity? [CET 2010]
(a)Graphite (b)Copper (c)Mercury (d)Gold
185. Correct increasing order of reactivity is
(a) Cu<K<Au<Al (b) Au>Al>K>Cu (c) Au<Cu<Al<K (d) K>Al>Cu>Au
186. Which is the most malleable metal?
(a) Zinc (b) Gold (c) Iron (d) Copper
187. What is the color of iron (Fe), Copper (Cu) and silver (Ag) after corrosion?
(a) Brown, green, black (b) Red, green, yellow
(c) Black, green, brown (d) Brown, black, green
188. An element catches fire at 30
0
and stored in water. What is the element? [CET 2010]
(a)Sodium (b)Potassium (c)Sulphur (d)White Phosphorus
189. Which property of metals is used in the bells of cycle?
(a) Good conductor of electricity (b) Sonority
(c) Ductility (d) Lusture
190. Which statement is true about Hg?
(a) It is metal (b) It is a solid (c) It is a very heavy (d) both ‘a’ & ‘b’
191. PVC stands for
(a) Poly voly chlorides (b) Phosphorous Vinyl Chlorides
(c) Poly Vinyl chlorides (d) Penta Vinyl Chlorides
192. Which reacts with cold water violently?
(a) Sodium (b) Iron (c) Copper (d) Magnesium
193. Which is not true about Mercury?
(a) Liquid at room temperature (b) It is a metal
(c) poor conductor of heat (d) It is very light in weight
194. Correct sequence of acidic, basic, and neutral oxide
(a) SO
2
, H
2
O, CaO (b) H
2
O, CaO, SO
2
(c) SO
2
, CaO, H
2
O (d) none of these
195. Which of the following metals reacts with steam only?
(a) Lead (b) Potassium (c) Magnesium (d) Aluminium
196. What is the nature of Al
2
O
3
in this reaction? Al
2
O
3
+ NaOH NaAlO
2
+ H
2
O
(a) acidic (b) basic (c) neutral (d) Amphoteric
197. Choose the least reactive element
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(a) Copper (b) Potassium (c) Zinc (d) Gold
198. Sodium and potassium should be kept in
(a) Water (b) Kerosene oil (c) air (d) refrigerator
199. Which is the best conductor of electricity? [CET 2009 & 2010]
(a) Copper (b) Graphite (c) Lead (d) Silver
200. Which factors are necessary for rusting of iron?
(a) Water (b) Air (c) CO
2
(d) Water & air
201. Which of the following is not a method to prevent the corrosion of metals?
(a) Greasing (b) Washing (c) Galvanizing (d) Painting
202. Magnesium reacts with
(a) steam only (b) hot water (c) cold water (d) all of these
203. Constituents of bronze are
(a) Copper & Lead (b) Iron & Copper (c) Copper & Zinc (d) Copper & Tin
204. Nature of Na
2
O is
(a) basic (b) acidic (c) neutral (d) Amphoteric
205. Which is not a property of ionic compounds?
(a) Soluble water (b) conduct electricity in molten state (c) brittleness (d) low melting point
206. An alloy of a metal with Mercury is called
(a) Ore (b) Mineral (c) Amalgam (d) rust
207. Which elements react with steam?
(a) Sodium & Potassium (b) Iron, Zinc & Aluminium
(c) Calcium, Magnesium (d) Gold, Silver & Copper
208. Which is liquid non-metal at room temperature? [CET 2009]
(a) Mercury (b) Bromine (c) Chlorine (d) Gallium
209. Pure gold is equal to
(a) 24 carat (b) 22 carat (c) 100 carat (d) 1 carat
210. Metal + acid salt + X. ‘X’ is-
(a) CO
2
(b) H
2
O (c) O
2
(d) H
2

211. Cu + CaSo
4

Products will be
(a) CuSO
4
+ Ca (b) Ca + CuSO
4
(c) CuSO
4
+ CuSO
4
(d) no reaction takes place
212. 3K + FeCl
3
3KCl + Fe. Which is incorrect statement?
(a) K is more reactive than Fe (b) Fe is more reactive than k
(c) It is displacement reaction (d) K has replaced Fe from FeCl
3

213. What is the valency of Al in Al
2
O
3
?
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 5 (d) 1
214. How many total electrons are present in Chlorine anion?
(a) 16 (b) 17 (c) 18 (d) 35
215. Which is correct about F
-
, Ne and Na
+
? [CET 2008]
(a) All have 10 electrons (c) All have 10 protons
(c) all are metals (d) all have same no. of neutrons
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216. Which oxides show both acidic as well as basic nature?
(a) Metallic Oxide (b) non-metallic oxides (c) Amphoteric oxide (d) Neutral Oxides
217. Which metal is used in Thermit reaction? [CET 2008]
(a) Al (b) Zn (c) Fe (d) Cu
218. Which compound contains Ionic Bond?
(a) NH
3
(b) NaCl (c) CO
2
(d) H
2
O
219. Decreasing order of reactivity
(a) Al, Ca, Cu, Fe (b) Ca, Cu, Al, Fe (c) Ca, Al, Fe, Cu (d) Fe, Al, Ca, Cu
220. Roasting is generally done for enriching
(a) Carbonate ore (b) Sulphide ores (c) Silicate ore (d) Oxide ore
221. Galvanisation of iron means coating it with
(a) Zn (b) Ag (c) Pb (d) Sn
222. Which metal is not found in native state?
(a) K (b) Ag (c) Au (d) Pt
223. Which Metal –ore combination is wrong?
(a) Fe- Haemetite (b) Al- Bauxite (c) Pb- Galena (d) Zn- Cinnabar
224. The impurities present in the ore are called
(a) Slag (b) Flux (c) Gangue (d) Alloy
225. The process of heating an ore in the presence of excess air is called [CET 2009]
(a) Smelting (b) Roasting (c) Cacination (d) Vulcanization
226. Composition of Brass and Bronze
(a) Cu + Sn & Cu + Ni (b) Cu + Sn & Cu + Zn
(c) Cu + Zn & Cu + Sn (d) Cu + Zn & Cu + Ni
227. Which of the following statement is incorrect?
(a) Metals are malleable and ductile
(b) Metals form acidic and neutral oxides
(c) Metals replace hydrogen from acids & form salts
(d) Metals are good conductors of heat & electricity
228. Cinnabar is an Ore of
(a) Copper (b) Mercury (c) Iron (d) Aluminium
229. The alloy of lead (50%) and Tin (50%) is
(a) Solder (b) Brass (c) Bronze (d) Steel
230. Which metals can be cut with a knife?
(a) K & Na (b) Zn & Pb (c) Fe & Al (d) Hg & Cu
231. What is the formula of Rust? [CET 2008]
(a) Fe (OH)
3
(b) Fe
3
O
4
(c) Fe
2
O
3
.xH
2
O (d) Fe
2
O
3

232. The lustrous non-metal is used to treat
(a) Cancer (b) Cough (c) Goiter (d) AIDS
233. Which is incorrect?
(a) Al
2
O
3
& ZnO are Amphoteric oxides
(b) In electrolyte refining, anode is made of impure metal
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(c) Anode is negative & cathode is positive
(d) Lead & mercury are conductors of heat
234. ‘A’ is a lustrous non-metal and ‘B’ is a good conductor of electricity. B is also non metal. ‘A’ & ‘B’ are
(a) Sulphur & Graphite (b) Iodine & Graphite (c) Bromine & Diamond (d) Graphite & Silver
235. What is the percentage of silver in German Silver? [CET 2007]
(a) 0% (b) 18% (c) 67% (d) 100 %
236. The most malleable metal is
(a) Sodium (b) Silicon (c) Gold (d) Lead
237. The constituent of Hemoglobin is
(a) Iron (b) Sodium (c) Copper (d) Magnesium
238. Which of the following is most reactive metal?
(a) Ag (b) Au (c) Cu (d) Na
239. Correct order of activity of metals K, Al, Zn, Au & Cu
(a) Zn>Al>K>Au>Cu (b) K>Al>Zn>Cu>Au (c) Al>Zn>K>Au>Cu (d) Cu>Au>K>Zn>Al
240. The foils wrapped around chocolates & medicines are made up from
(a) Al (b) Ag (c) Mixture of Ag & Al (d) Fe
241. Cinnabar is an ore of
(a) Mercury (b) Copper (c) Calcium (d) lead
242. Solder is an alloy of
(a) Lead & Zinc (b) lead & Tin (c) Zn & Cu (d) Iron & Tin
243. Rolled Gold is a mixture of [CET 2010]
(a)copper + silver (b)gold+ aluminium
(c)gold+silver (d)silver+aluminium
244. The most abundant metal in the earth’s crust is
(a) Aluminium (b) Iron (c) Oxygen (d) Copper
245. Which of the following reaction cannot occur?
(a) 2AgNO
3
(aq) + Fe (s) Fe(NO
3
)
2
(aq) + 2Ag(s)
(b) CuSO
4
(aq) + Zn(s) ZnSO
4
(aq) + Cu(s)
(c) CuSO
4
(aq) + 2Ag(s) Cu(s) + Ag
2
SO
4
(aq)
(d) 2AgNO
3
(aq) + Zn (s) ZnSO
4
(aq) + 2Ag(s)
246. The liquid metal is
(a) Calcium (b) Magnesium (c) Mercury (d) Sodium
247. When Pyrite is heated to remove Sulphur, this process is called [CET 2010]
(a)Roasting (b)Calcination (c)Oxidation (d)Vulcanisation
248. Oxides of non-metallic elements are mostly
(a) basic (b) Acidic (c) Amphoteric (d) None of these
249. Gold is used in jewellery because
(a) It is resistant to corrosion (b) Resistant to wear and tear
(c) It is lustrous (d) All of these
250. Stainless steel is an alloy of
(a) Iron & Steel (b) Iron, Nickel & Chromium (c) Nickel & Chromium (d) Iron & Chromium
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251. Which non-metal is a good conductor of electricity?
(a) Phosphorous (b) Silicon (c) Graphite (d) None of these
252. Which of the metal of the best conductor of heat?
(a) Copper (b) Aluminium (c) Gold (d) Silver


Carbon and its Compounds
253. Which is the simplest Hydrocarbon?
(a) CH
3
OH (b) C
2
H
2
(c) CH
4
(d) C
2
H
2
OH
254. Saturated hydrocarbons are
(a) Alkanes (b) alkenes (c) Alkynes (d) all of these
255. Which is unsaturated?
(a) CH
4
(b) C
2
H
6
(c) C
2
H
4
(d) C
4
H
20

256. Which is incorrect? Carbon
(a) is tetravalent (b) is non metal
(c) forms ionic bonds (d) Has catenation power
257. Bonds formed by sharing of electrons are called
(a) Covalent bonds (b) ionic bond (c) Both a & b (d) none of these
258. Double bond is present in
(a) C
3
H
8
(b) C
4
H
8
(c) C
2
H
2
(d) CH
4

259. Which compound has both polar and non polar bond? [CET 2010]
(a)CO
2
(b)HCN (c)NH
4
Cl (d)H
2
O
260. Formula of Ethene is
(a) C
2
H
4
(b) C
4
H
10
(c) C
2
H
2
(d) C
2
H
6
261. Which is saturated?
(a) C
2
H
4
(b) C
5
H
10
(c) C
3
H
8
(d) C
3
H
4

262. Which bond is present in CO
2
And H
2
O?
(a) Covalent (b) Electrovalent (c) Ionic (d) none of these
263. What is the name of this structure?






(a) Pentane (b) Pentene (c) Pentyne (d) Pentanone
264. Which burns with yellow flames?
(a) C
4
H
6
(b) C
3
H
4
(c) C
2
H
2
(d) All of these
265. Two successive compounds of a homologous series differ by
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(a) CH (b) CH
2
(c) C
2
H
2
(d) CH
4

266. Which are saturated?
(a) Fats (b) Vegetable oil (c) Both ‘a’ & ‘b’ (d) none of these
267. Ethanol is used to make
(a) Tincture Iodine (b) Cough Syrup (c) Whisky & Wine (d) all of these
268. Which is the sweet smelling substance?
(a) Ethanol (b) Ethanoic acid (c) Ester (d) Methane
269. Which can be used as dehydrating agent?
(a) H
2
SO
4
(b) HNO
3
(c) KMNO
4
(d) none of these
270. What is the formula of butanone?
(a) C
3
H
8
CO (b) C
3
H
5
COOH (c) C
4
H
8
CO (d) C
4
H
10
CO
271. How many isomers are possible for C
4
H
10
?
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4
272. Formula of benzene is
(a) C
6
H
12
(b) C
6
H
14
(c) C
6
H
6
(d) C
5
H
6

273. First member of Aldehyde is
(a) CH
3
CHO (b) HCOOH (c) CHO (d) Ethyne
274. Name of H-C= C-C-H
(a) Propane (b) Propene (c) Propyne (d) Ketone
275. Which functional group is present in





(a) Alcohol (b) Aldehyde (c) Carboxylic (d) Ketone
276. Carboxylic group is present in
(a) C
2
H
5
OH (b) CH
3
COOH (c) CH
3
COCH
3
(d) C
4
H
9
CHO
277. Tendency of carbon to make bonds with another atom of carbon is called
(a) Tetravalency (b) Catenation (c) Covalent bonding (d) Allotropy
278. First member of Ketone group is
(a) Methanone (b) ethanone (c) Propanone (d) Butanone
279. How many Carbon-Carbon bonds are present in C
4
H
6

(a) 4 (b) 5 (c) 10 (d) 11
280. N
2
molecule has
(a) single bond (b) double bond (c) triple bond (d) ionic bond
281. What is the name of this functional group?
(a) Ketone (b) Carboxylic (c) Alcohol (d) both ‘a’ & ‘b’
282. Structure of Ethyne is [CET 2009]
(a) –C-C=C- (b) –C=C- (c) –C=C- (d) –C-C-
283. Which is third member of Ketone
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(a) Propanone (b) Butanone (c) Pentanone (d) Hexanone
284. What is the product during the combustion reaction of hydrocarbon?
(a) CO
2
(b) CO
2
+ H
2
O (c) CO
2
+ H
2
O + heat & light (d) H
2
O
285. Which will give addition reaction?
(a) C
4
H
8
(b) C
3
H
4
(c) C
5
H
12
(d) Both ‘a’ & ‘b’
286. Which is the hardest substance of the world?
(a) Diamond (b) Iron (c) Graphite (d) Potassium
287. Which is an oxidizing agent?
(a) KMNO
3
(b) K
2
Cr
2
O
7
(c) HNO
3
(d) all of these
288. Esters give back alcohol and carboxylic acid by the reaction called
(a) Esterification (b) Soaponification (c) Addition (d) Substitution
289. C
17
H
35
COONa is an example of [CET 2008]
(a) Esters (b) Soap (c) Detergent (d) Alcohol
290. How much hydrogen is present in Cyclopentane?
(a) 10 (b) 11 (c) 12 (d) 14
291. Which of the following compounds contain Carboxylic group?
(a) CH
3
OH (b) CH
3
COOH (c) CH
3
CHO (d) C
5
H
5

292. Which functional group is present in C
3
H
7
COOH?
(a) Carboxylic (b) Alcohol (c) Ketone (d) Aldehyde
293. Which is the formula of Ester?
(a) CH
3
COOC
2
H
5
(b) CH
3
COOH (c) Methanoic acid (d) Ethanol
294. What is the name of





(a) Methanol (b) Propanone (c) Methanoic acid (d) Ethanol
295. Which of the following does not contain Carbon?
(a) Vegetable oil (b) Graphite (c) Soap (d) Water
296. Which is not an allotrope of carbon?
(a) Diamond (b) Graphite (c) Bauxite (d) Fullerene
297. Diamond is an _________ of Carbon?
(a) Allotrope (b) Isomer (c) Isotopes (d) none of these
298. Saturated Hydrocarbon burn with
(a) blue flame (b) black flame (c) yellow flame (d) brown flame
299. When soap is dissolved then it forms
(a) Colloidal (b) Suspension (c) Emulsion (d) both a and b
300. Ethanoic acid reacts with baking soda to give effervescence due to the formation of
(a) Hydrogen (b) Uranium (c) Oxygen (d) Carbon dioxide
301. How many isomers are possible for Pentane?
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(a) two (b) three (c) four (d) five
302. How many Carbon – Carbon bonds are present in Benzene
(a) four (b) seven (c) eight (d) nine
303. Butanone is a four-Carbon compound with the functional group
(a) Carboxylic acid (b) Aldehyde (c) Ketone (d) Alcohol
304. Ethanoic acid is obtained by the _____________ of ethanol
(a) Combustion (b) Oxidation (c) Reduction (d) Substitution
305. In the reaction, Ch
3
Ch
2
OH hot con. H
2
SO
4
CH
2
= CH
2
+ H
2
O. The concentration H
2
SO
4
acts as
(a) An oxidizing agent (b) Provides acidic medium
(c) A dehydrating agent (d) A drying agent
306. Glacial acetic acid is a
(a) Frozen acetic acid (b) 5-8% of solution of acetic acid in water
(c) Mixture of acetic acid and alcohol (d) None of these
307. What is the name of [CET 2010]

(a)Methanone (b)Propanone (c)Proanoic acid (d)Ethanol
308. The hydrocarbon with the general formula C
n
H
2n+2
is an
(a) Alkane (b) Alkene (c) Alkyne (d) Unsaturated compound
309. Which of the following is an Alkyne?
(a) C
6
H
6
(b) C
6
H
12
(c) C
6
H
10
(d) C
6
H
14

310. Which of the following gives ethane when heated with concentrated sulphuric acid?
(a) CH
3
CHO (b) CH
3
COOH (c) CH
3
OH (d) CH
3
CH
2
OH
311. Which cannot have double bond of Carbon- Carbon?
(a) C
2
H
4
(b) C
3
H
6
(c) C
4
H
8
(d) C
3
H
4



PERIODIC CLASSIFICATION OF ELEMENTS
312. How many periods are there in modern periodic table? [CET 2009]
(a) 6 (b) 7 (c) 8 (d) 18
313. How many groups are there in modern periodic table? [CET 2009]
(a) 7 (b) 8 (c) 17 (d) 18
314. Modern periodic table was discovered by
(a) Dobereiner (b) Henry Moseley (c) Mendeleev (d) Neil’s Bohr
315. Which of the following is mono valent?
(a) K (19) (b) Al (13) (c) Mg (12) (d) S (16)
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316. Which is not an inert gas? [CET 2008]
(a) Neon (b) Hydrogen (c) Chlorine (d) Krypton
317. Which has the smallest atomic radius?
(a) Li (b) Na (c) K (d) Rb
318. Which of these is in the 4
th
period?
(a) Magnesium (b) Calcium (c) Oxygen (d) Hydrogen
319. Which among these is the most reactive element?
(a) K (b) Mg (c) Ca (d) Cu
320. Which is an element of halogen group?
(a) Hydrogen (b) Carbon (c) Chlorine (d) Krypton
321. Atomic radius
(a) Increases from left to right in a period (b) Decreases from top to bottom in a group
(c) Increases from top to bottom (d) none of these
322. What is the valency of Phosphorous (15) ?
(a) -3 (b) +5 (c) +8 (d) 0
323. Increasing order of metallic property of alkalis is
(a) Li<Na<K<Rb (b) Rb<K<Na<>Li (c) Na>Li>Rb>K (d) Li>Na>K>Rb
324. Decreasing order of atomic size of halogens is
(a) F<Cl<Br<I (b) I<Br<Cl<F (c) I>Br>Cl>F (d) F>Cl>Br>I
325. Correct increasing order of elecronegativity of halogens
(a) F<Cl<Br (b) Br<Cl<F (c) Br>Cl>F (d) F>Cl>Br
326. What is the number of valence electrons in alkali metals?
(a) One (b) Two (c) Three (d) Four
327. Which is a metalloid?
(a) Silicon (b) Calcium (c) Argon (d) Beryllium
328. Correct increasing order of non-metallic property C, N and F is
(a) C<N<F (b) F<C<N (c) N>C>F (d) C>N<F
329. Which of the following elements is the most electropositive?
(a) Si (b) Mg (c) Al (d) Na
330. On going down the group atomic size increases because
(a) Number of electrons increases (b) Number of protons increases
(c) Number of orbits increases (d) nuclear charge increase
331. Hydrogen is a/an
(a) Metal (b) Non metal (c) Alkali (d) Inert gas
332. What is the electronic configuration of Phosphorous? [CET 2009]
(a) 2, 8, 3 (b) 2, 8, 1 (c) 2, 8, 5 (d) 2, 8, 6
333. How many electrons are in Chlorine’s anion?
(a) 16 (b) 17 (c) 18 (d) 19
334. How many elements are in 4
th
period? [CET 2008]
(a) 8 (b) 18 (c) 32 (d) 26
335. What is the smaller among Al, P and Cl?
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(a) P (b) Al (c) Si (d) Cl
336. Which element has valency 0?
(a) Ne (b) N (c) C (d) C
337. Which element has 4 valence electrons?
(a) Silicon (b) Sulphur (c) Oxygen (d) Magnesium
338. Which element has more electrons?
(a) Mg
+2
(b) Na (c) Na
+1
(d) Al
+3

339. Elements of group 16 have valency
(a)+1 (b)+6 (c)-2 (d)+2
340. What is the basis of the modern periodic table?
(a)atomic mass (b)atomic number (c)neutrons (d)isobars

MISCELLANEOUS CHEMISTRY

341. Conjugate acid of H
3
O
+
[CET 2010]

342. (a)H
+
(b)OH
-
(c)H
2
O (d)H
2
O
2

343. Size of the nucleus is of the order of
(a) 10
-18
m (b) 10
-14
m (c) 10
-10
m (d) 10
-6
m
344. Water gas is a mixture of
(a) CO
2
and Co (b) CO and N
2
(c) CO and H
2
(d) H
2
& water vapour
345. On increasing number of turns in a solenoid its magnetic effect
(a) Increase (b) Decrease (c) Remains same (d) Doubles
346. The primary colors of light are
(a) Red, blue & green (b) Yellow, blue & green
(c) Red, green & violet (d) Yellow, green & orange
347. Chemical formula of Baking Soda is
(a) Na
2
CO
3
(b) Na
2
CO
3
.2H
2
O (c) Na
2
CO
3
.10H
2
O (d) NAHCO
3

348. The composition of alloy called Solder is
(a) Lead (75%) and Tin (25%) (b) Lead (50%) and Tin (50%)
(c) Lead (25%) and Tin (75%) (d) None of these
349. The Aldehyde group is
(a) = CO (b) –OH (c) –COOH (d) -CHO
350. The nature of SiO
2
is
(a) Acidic (b) Natural (c) Basic (d) Amphoteric
351. Variable valency is general is shown by
(a) Gaseous elements (b) Non-metals (c) s-block elements (d) d-block elements
352. C
17
H
35
COONa is an example of [CET 2008]
(a) Soap (b) Detergent (c) Rayon (d) Rubber
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353. The general formula of alkenes is
(a)C
n
H
2n+2
(b) C
n
H
2n
(c) C
n
H
2n-2
(d) C
n
H
n

354. pH range of acid rain water is
(a) 0 (b) 7 (c) >7 (d) <7
355. What is the formula of Aluminium Sulphate?
(a) Al
2
SO
4
(b) Al
2
SO
3
(c) Al
2
(SO
4
)
3
(d) Al
3
(SO
4
)
2

356. Which belong to the same homologous series? C
3
H
8
, C
3
H
6
, C
4
H
8
, C
4
H
6

(a) C
3
H
8
and C
4
H
8
(b) C
3
H
6
and C
4
H
6
(c) C
3
H
8
and C
4
H
6
(d) C
3
H
6
and C
4
H
8

357. Which of the following has the largest size?
(a) Rb
+
(b) Mg
+2
(c) Li
+
(d) Ba
+2

358. The chemical formula of Plaster of Paris is
(a) CaSO
4
.2H
2
O (b) CaSO
4
(c) CaSO
4
.H
2
O (d) CaSO
4
.1/2 H
2
O
359. Which of the following domestic application contribute to Ozone depletion?
(a) Television (b) Refrigerator (c) Air-cooler (d) heater
360. Energy of ultraviolet rays is
(a) Equal to visible light (b) Greater than visible light
(c) Equal to infrared rays (d) Less than infrared rays
361. Producer gas is a mixture of
(a) CO+N
2
(b) CO+H
2
(c) CO+H
2
O (d) CO+NO
2

362. The surface of sun is called
(a) Atmosphere (b) Photosphere (c) Ionosphere (d) Biosphere
363. Which of the following is good conductor of electricity?
(a) Diamond (b) PVC (c) Graphite (d) Neoprene
364. Which compound may have pH value 10?
(a) HCl (b) H
2
O (c) Ca (OH)
2
(d) CH
3
COOH
365. Bakelite is [CET 2010]
(a)Benzene Formaldehyde (b)Methyl Formaldehyde
(c)Phenol Formaldehyde (d)Malamine
366. What is the ratio of HCl and HNO
3
in Aqua Regia?
(a) 1:3 (b) 3:1 (c) 2:3 (d) 3:2
367. Big bang theory was coined by which one of the following scientist?
(a) Robert Hooke (b) Faraday (c) Neils Bohr (d) Hubble
368. Inter molecular force is maximum in
(a) Solid (b) Liquid (c) Gas (d) All of these
369. The temperature at which combustion takes place is called
(a) Melting Temperature (b) Absolute temperature (c) Ignition temperature (d) Critical temperature
370. Which of the following are isobars
(a)
18
Ar
40
and
20
Ca
40
(b)
17
Cl
35
and
17
Cl
37
(c)
6
C
12
and
6
C
14
(d)
1
H
2
and
1
H
3
371. The most poisonous gas produced during insufficient supply of oxygen is
(a) CO
2
+ H
2
O (b) CO
2
(c) N
2
(d) CO
372. Which is used to disinfect the drinking water?
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(a) Bleaching powder (b) Washing Soda (c) Baking soda (d) Plaster of Paris
373. Controlled nuclear chain reaction is carried out it is
(a) Nuclear reactor (b) Atom bomb (c) Hydrogen bomb (d) Sun
374. Heavy water is called heavy because it is
(a) A heavy liquid (b) An oxide of heavier Isotope of oxygen
(c) Denser than water (d) an oxide of deuterium
375. Nuclear energy is the result of
(a) Conversion of volume to energy (b) A chemical reaction
(c) Conversion of mass into energy (d) Conversion of potential energy to kinetic energy
376. Which reaction takes place when hydrochloric acid and sodium hydroxide react with each other
(a) Combination (b) Decomposition (c) Neutralization (d) Displacement
377. What is the formula of White Vitriol? [CET 2010]
(a)CuSO
4
.5H
2
O (b)ZnSO
4
(c)FeSO
4
.7H
2
O (d)Na
2
SO
4
.10H
2
O
378. In nuclear reactor, which is used as a moderator?
(a) Cadmium (b) Boron (c) Silicon (d) Graphite
379. Acids and bases react to form salt and water. This reaction is called
(a) Hydrolysis (b) Combination (c) Neutralization (d) Electrolysis
380. Brass is an alloy of
(a) Copper & Zinc (b) Copper & Aluminum (c) Copper & Magnesium (d) Copper & Tin
381. Hard water contains
(a) Hydrogen carbonates of Ca or Mg (b) Chlorides of Ca or Mg
(c) Sulphates of Ca or Mg (d) All of these
382. The most ductile metal is
(a) Cu (b) Au (c) Ag (d) Fe
383. Which is NOT an amphoteric oxide?
(a) ZnO (b) Al
2
O
3
(c) Na
2
O (d) SnO
2

384. The Baking Soda is
(a) NaHCO
3
(b) Na
2
CO
3
(c) NaCl (d) CaOCl
2

385. Which statement is not correct for the following reaction CuO + H
2
→ Cu + H
2
O?
(a) CuO is reduced to Cu (b) H
2
is oxidized to H
2
O
(c) CuO is oxidized to Cu (d) None of these
386. pH of 0.001 Mole NaOH is
(a) 3 (b) 11 (c) 14 (d) 2
387. Which of the following is used in bleaching agents and insecticides ? [CET 2010]
(a)dioxygen (b)dihydrogen (c)dichlorine (d)dinitrogen
388. L.P.G is mainly mixture of
(a) Methane + Ethane (b) Butane+Isobutane (c) Acetylene+O
2
(d) Acetylene+H
2

389. Which of the following is saturated hydrocarbon?
(a) C
4
H
10
(b) C
2
H
4
(c) C
2
H
2
(d) C
3
H
5

390. How many molecules are present in 0.2 gm Hydrogen?
(a) 6.023 x 10
23
(b) 6.023 x 10
22
(c) 6.023 x 10
24
(d) None of these
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391. An α particle is
(a) A Hydrogen nucleus (b) A Helium nucleus (c) An electron (d) A proton
392. Which compound can give addition reaction?
(a) Ethene (b) Methane (c) Propane (d) Butane
393. Which of the following is a weak electrolyte?
(a) KCl (b) NaCl (c) KCN (d) CH
3
COOH
394. Which of the following represents an alcohol?
(a) R-COOH (b) R-CHO (c) R-CH
2
-OH (d) R-C=O-R
395. Which of the following is smaller in size?
(a) Na
+
(b) N
3-
(c) O
2-
(d) F
-

396. If we move from top to bottom in a group, atomic radius
(a) Increases (b) Decreases (c) Remains same (d) None of these
397. Aqua Regia is a mixture of concentrated
(a) HCL & H
2
SO
4
(b) HNO
3
& H
2
SO
4
(c) HCL & HNO
3
(d) H
2
CO
3
& H
2
SO
4

398. Which sub atomic particles is not present in Hydrogen?
(a) Electron (b) Proton (c) Neutron (d) Nucleus
399. Homologue of ethyne is
(a) C
6
H
12
(b) C
5
H
10
(c) C
4
H
6
(d) C
3
H
4

400. The acid produced in our stomach is
(a) HCl (b) H
2
SO
4
(c) HNO
3
(d) CH
3
COOH
401. The mass of an atom is expressed in
(a) Kg (b) g (c) a.m.u (d) mg
402. Einstein’s mass – energy relation is:
(a) E=m
2
/c (b) E=mc
2
(c) E=1/2mv
2
(d) E= mgh
403. Which of the following contains ionic as well as covalent solution? [CET 2008]
(a) H
2
O (b) CO
2
(c) NH
4
Cl (d) MgO
404. Which turns pink solution of phenolphthalein into a colorless solution?
(a) Salt (b) Bases (c) Acids (d) None of these
405. Carborundum is
(a) Silicon dioxide (b) Silicon carbide (c) Silicon nitride (d) Silicon Phosphate
406. C
12
H
22
O
11
is formula of
(a) Glucose (b) Sugar (c) Common salt (d) none of these
407. Which of the following is not a noble gas?
(a) Helium (b) Xenon (c) Radium (d) Radon
408. Canal rays were discovered by [CET 2009]
(a) J.J. Thomson (b) Rutherford (c) E. Goldstein (d) Neil Bohr
409. pH of 0.01 mole of HCl is
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 0 (d) 7
410. Acids in water furnish
(a) H
+
ions (b) OH
+
ions (c) O
-
ions (d) None of these
411. Laughing gas is [AMU 2009]
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(a) NO
2
(b) N
2
O (c) NO (d) NH
3

412. Which is non-renewable source of energy?
(a) Coal (b) Gobar Gas (c) Solar energy (d) Tidal energy
413. Which gas is emitted when Tartaric acid is heated with Baking soda?
(a) Cl
2
(b) CO
2
(c) H
2
(d) O
2

414. Which of the following compounds has Electrovalent bond?
(a) CH
3
Cl (b) CH
4
(c) NaCl (d) Cl
2

415. A Covalent bond is formed between two atoms by
(a) Electron transfer (b) Electron sharing (c) Electrostatic attraction (d) Nuclear electrons
416. The catalyst used in the Hydrogenation of oils is
(a) Fe (b) Ni (c) Cu (d) Fe
2
O
3

417. In the modern periodic table the element are arranged in order of increasing
(a) Atomic mass (b) atomic volume (c) atomic number (d) valency
418. In the periodic table the element with atomic number 16 will be
(a) 4
th
group (b) 4
th
period (c) 16
th
period (d) 16
th
group
419. The hardest variety of coal which has maximum carbon content and which burns with very little smoke is
(a) Peat coal (b) Lignite coal (c) Anthracite coal (d) Bituminous coal
420. It is dangerous to sleep in a close room with coal burning inside on a cold winter night because of
(a) Ammonia (b) Silver (c) Carbon monoxide (d) less carbon dioxide
421. Which metal is found in the earth in free state?
(a) Aluminum (b) Silver (c) sodium (d) Iron
422. Which of the following radiations is most harmful?
(a) Alpha- rays (b) Beta-rays (c) Gamma-rays (d) Sun-rays
423. The nucleus of an atom contains
(a) Electrons only (b) Protons only (c) neutrons only (d) Protons and neutrons
424. Which of the following properties of atoms of an element is whole number?
(a) Atomic weight (b) Atomic volume (c) Atomic number (d) Atomic radius
425. What is the percentage of Oxygen in Carbon Dioxide?
(a) 44% (b) 32% (c) 72% (d) 72.73%
426. Biogas is a mixture of
(a) CO+H
2
+CH
4
(b) CO+H
2
(c) CO
2
+CH
4
+H
2
(d) CO
2
+N
2

427. Which Fuel is used to fly a rocker?
(a) Coal (b) Liquid hydrogen (c) Methanol (d) Uranium
428. Brine is [CET 2009]
(a) Aqueous solution of NaCl (b) Solid NaCl
(c) Mixture of NaCl & NaOH (d) Sodium atom
429. The gas which has highest calorific value is
(a) CH
4
(b) CO
2
(c) H
2
(d) N
2

430. Molar mass of C
2
H
6
O
2
[AMU 2009]
(a) 62 amu (b) 44 amu (c) 50 amu (d) 68 amu
431. At 4
0
Celsius, water has maximum
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(a) Density (b) Volume (c) Mass (d) All of these
432. At which of the following temperature Mercury becomes a super conductor?
(a) 4.2 K (b) 4.2
0
C (c)-269
0
C (d) Both ‘a’&’c’
433. Temperature at which magnet is demagnetized is called its
(a) Curie temperature (b) Absolute temperature
(c) Critical temperature (d) None of these
434. Which of the following has the maximum boiling point?
(a) C
4
H
10
(b) C
5
H
12
(c) C
6
H
14
(d) C
7
H
16

435. Which is used as a fuel in nuclear reactors?
(a) Graphite (b) Uranium (c) Boron (d) Cadmium
436. The splitting of a heavy nucleus into two nuclei of nearly equal masses are called as
(a) Nuclear fission (b) Nuclear fusion (c) Chemical reaction (d) Radioactivit
437. Which is a chemical change?
(a) Evaporation of water (b) melting of butter
(c) dissolving of salt in water (d) ripening of fruit
438. The metal which does not corrode is
(a) Copper (b) Lead (c) Platinum (d) Silver
439. Which of the solution will change red litmus to blue?
(a) HCl (aq) (b) NaCl (aq) (c) CH
3
OH (aq) (d) NaOH (aq)
440. What is the pH of a 0.00001 molar HCl solution?
(a) 4 (b) 9 (c) 5 (d) 1
441. In which reaction, maximum heat is released? [CET 2010]
(a)NaOH and HCl (b)NaOH and CH
3
COOH
(c)HCOOH and Ca(OH)
2
(d)Mg(OH)
2
and CH
3
COOH
442. Rutherford’s experiment on scattering of α- particles showed that there is a positively charged centre in an
atom called
(a) Nucleus (b) electrons (c) protons (d) neutron
443. The incomplete chemical equation can be balanced by filling the following coefficients in the blanks
….Fe + ….H
2
O ….Fe
3
O
4
+ … H
2

(a) 1,1,1,1 (b) 1,4,1,4 (c) 3,4,1,4 (d) 1,4,1,1
444. In what ratio should
17
CI
37
and
17
CI
35
be present, so as to obtain
17
CI
35.5
?
(a) 1:2 (b) 1:1 (c) 1:3 (d) 3:1
445. What is a metalloid?
(a) Copper (b) Bromine (c) Sodium (d) Silicon
446. Identify the ionic compound?
(a) H
2
O (b) NH
3
(c) NaCl (d) CO
2
447. Dry ice is [CET 2008 & 2009]
(a) When water is freeze (b) solid CO (c) solid CO
2
(d) when ice is heated
448. Calcium (atomic number-20) and Argon (atomic number-18) fall in the category of:
(a) Isotopes (b) Isobars (c) Metalloids (d) Isomers
449. The electronic configuration of sodium ion is
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(a) 8, 2, 1 (b) 2, 8, 1 (c) 2, 1, 8 (d) 2, 8
450. The molecule having double bond is [CET 2010]
(a) CO
2
(b) N
2
(c) NH
3
(d) O
3

451. The compound used for setting the fractured bones is
(a) Ca (OH)
2
(b) CaOH
2
(c) CaSO
2
½ H
2
O (d) CaCO
3

452. A tank used in storing steam should be made of
(a) Iron (b) Copper (c) Zinc (d) Aluminum
453. In neutral solutions?
(a) [H
+
] = 0 (b) [OH
-
] = 0 (c) [H
+
] = [OH
-
] =0 (d) [H
+
] = [OH
-
]
454. The number of single covalent bonds in ethane (C
2
H
6
) is
(a) 3 (b) 5 (c) 6 (d) 7
455. In the modern periodic table, all the noble gases are placed in
(a) First group (b) seventh group (c) eighteenth group (d) eighth group
456. The element of 17
th
group, having largest atomic size is
(a) I (b) Br (c) Cl (d) F
457. In crooks glass, which of the following substance is also used? [CET 2010]
(a)CO
2
(b)K
2
CO
3
(c)Na
2
O (d)PbO
458. Which of the following is used as food preservative?
(a) Formic acid (b) Acetone (c) Chloroform (d) Acetic acid
459. In the given chemical reaction, SO
2
+ 2H
2
S→ 2H
2
O+S. The reducing agent is
(a) H
2
O (b) SO
2
(c) S (d) H
2
S
460. The correct order of placing sodium, silver, copper and iron in their decreasing order of activity is
(a) Na> Fe> Cu> Ag (b) Fe> Na> Cu> Ag (c) Fe> Na> Ag> Cu (d) Na> Fe> Ag> Cu
461. The gaseous fuel, which is a mixture of methane, carbon dioxide, hydrogen sulphate is
(a) Coal gas (b) Natural gas (c) Bio gas (d) LPG
462. Who discovered Radioactivity? [CET 2008]
(a) Rutherford (b) Chadwick (c) Henery Becquerel (d) Newton
463. The main constituent of natural gas is
(a) Methane (b) Propane (c) Butane (d) Heptane
464. Our body works in the pH range of
(a) 0 to 5 (b) 5 to 7.8 (c) 7 to 7.8 (d) 7.3 to 8.0
465. What is the S.I unit of Temperature?
(a)
0
C (b) Kelvin (c)
0
Fahrenheit (d) joule/sec
466. Which of the following is an Ore of Lead? [CET 2010]
(a)Galena (b)Calamine (c)Pyrite (d)Cinnabar



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BIOLOGY
THE CELL
1. The cell wall is made of
(a)cellulose (b)lignin (c)pectin (d)hemi cellulose
2. Which of the following is called the ‘Power house of cell’?
(a)nucleus (b)lysosomes (c)ribosomes (d)mitochondria
3. Ribosomes are the centre of
(a)lipid synthesis (b)protein synthesis (c)cell division (d)carbohydrate synthesis
4. Who discovered the cell?
(a)Leuwenhoek (b)Robert Hooke (c)Robert Brown (d) Camille Golgi
5. The largest cell of human body
(a)RBC (b)WBC (c)neuron (d)Ostrich egg
6. Lysosomes are called
(a)kitchen of the cell (b)power house of cell
(c)suicidal bag of cell (d)protine factory of cell
7. Which of the following is the fundamental unit of life?
(a)tissue (b)organs (c)cell (d)neuron

TISSUES
8. Which of the following tissues is made up of dead cells?
(a)parenchyma (b)collenchyma (c)sclerenchyma (d)phloem
9. Cardiac muscles are present in
(a)stomach (b)heart (c)brain (d)skin
10. The structural and functional unit of the nervous system is
(a)neuron (b)dendrite (c)axon (d)cyton
11. Which of the following is the example of Compound Tissue?
(a)xylem (b)phloem (c)both (d)none of these
12. Which muscle is called voluntary muscle?
(a)striated muscle (b)unstriated muscle (c)cardiac muscle (d)both a and b
13. A very tough substance lignin is present in
(a)xylem (b)parenchyma (c)collenchyma (d)sclerenchyma
14. Blood is a
(a)epithelium tissue (b)simple tissue (c)fluid connective tissue (d)plant tissue
15. Adipose tissue stores [CET 2008]
(a)protein (b)fats (c)carbohydrate (d)water

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LIFE PROCESSES
16. Villi are present in
(a)liver (b)stomach (c)small intestine (d)oesophagus
17. Which of the following protects the inner lining of the stomach from HCl?
(a)pepsin (b)mucous (c)trypsin (d)bile juice
18. Which part of the human heart receives oxygenated blood from the lungs?
(a) right ventricle (b)left ventricle (c)right atrium (d)left atrium
19. Tubes extending from kidneys to bladder
(a)vas deferens (b)urethra (c)ureters (d)oesophagus
20. Function of stomata
(a)transpiration (b)exchange of gases (c)both (d)none of these
21. During the process of digestion, the intestinal juice converts the carbohydrates into
(a)glycerol (b)amino acid (c)fatty acid (d)glucose
22. Bile Juice is secreted by
(a)liver (b)stomach (c)gall bladder (d)intestine
23. Gastric juice contains
(a)pepsin enzyme (b)HCl (c)mucous (d)all of these
24. Which is the largest vein of the human heart?
(a)vena cava (b)aorta (c) pulmonary vein (d)pulmonary artery
25. Emulsification of fats is done by
(a)amylase (b)pepsin (c)trypsin (d)bile juice
26. The Oxygenated blood is carried from lungs to left auricle by [CET 2010]
(a)vena cava (b)pulmonary vein (c)pulmonary artery (d)aorta


CONTROL & CO-ORDINATION
27. Ageing starts with the disappearance of [CET 2010]
(a)Thymus gland (b)pituitary (c)thyroid gland (d)hypothalamus
28. Diabetes is caused due to deficiency of
(a)adrenaline (b)insulin (c)thyroxine (d)growth hormone
29. Auxin hormone is synthesized in
(a)seeds (b)shoot tip (c)fruits (d)leaves
30. Which is the largest part of the human brain?
(a)medulla (b)cerebellum (c)cerebrum (d)pituitary
31. Insulin hormone is secreted by
(a)gibberelin (b)auxin (c)cytokinin (d)ABA
32. After a heavy exercise, cramps are caused due to the formation of
(a)energy (b)CO
2
(c)glucose (d)lactic acid
33. Equilibrium and balance of the body is controlled by
(a)pons (b)cerebellum (c)cerebrum (d)medulla
34. Which gland is endocrine as well as exocrine ?
(a)pituitary (b)thyroid (c)pancreas (d)liver
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35. The plant of mimosa pudica is sensitive to
(a) touch (b)light (c)water (d)chemical
36. Ductless glands are also called [CET 2010]
(a)endocrine glands (b)exocrine glands
(c)normal glands (d)special glands


HOW DO ORGANISMS REPRODUCE?
37. There is a greater possibility for the evolution of a new species in organisms which reproduce by
(a) Binary fission (b) Budding (c) Fertilisation (d) Regeneration
38. Which of the following is not an artificial method of vegetative propagation?
(a) Cutting (b) Layering (c) Budding (d) Grafting
39. Many unicellular organisms reproduce by the process of
(a) Fission (b) Ovulation (c) Regeneration (d) non-disjunction
40. In roses, the method commonly used to produce new plants is
(a) Cutting (b) Bud grafting (c) Tissue culture (d) Layering
41. The ability of organism to develop hole body from a broken piece of fragment is called
(a) Binary fission (b) Budding (c) Multiple fission (d) Regeneration
42. A multicellular organism reproducing asexually by regeneration is
(a) Cockroach (b) Planaria (c) Aspergillus (d) Yeast
43. Pollen grains are produced by
(a) Ovary (b) Ovule (c) Anther (d) Corolla
44. The fertilisation of the human egg by the sperm takes place in
(a) Vagina (b) Uterus (c) Ovary (d) Oviduct
45. Tubectomy is done in [CET 2010]
(a)males only (b)females only (c)both males and females (d)none of these
46. Which of the following is primary sex organ in a mammal?
(a) Ovary (b) Vagina (c) Uterus (d)Mammary glands
47. The ability to reproduce is lost in a female after
(a) Fertilisation (b) Menstruation (c)Gamete formation (d)Menopause
48. When a sperm is deposited into the vagina which route does it travel?
(a)Vagina → Oviduct → Uterus → Cervix
(a)Vagina → Ovary → Uterus → Oviduct
(a)Vagina → Cervix → Uterus → Oviduct
(a)Vagina → Uterus → Cervix → Oviduct
49. In case the ova does not fertilise, which of the following events will take place?
(a) Menstruation (b) Pregnancy (c) Implantation (d) Ovulation
50. When the foetus is growing inside the uterus it needs nutrients. Which part provides
these nutrients?
(a) Placenta (b) Amniotic sac (c) Oviduct (d) Uterus
51. What marks the beginning of the reproductive life of a woman?
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(a) Menopause (b) Menarche (c) Fertilisation (d) Ovulation
52. Where does fertilisation take place?
(a) Uterus (b) Vagina (c) Fallopian tube (d) Cervix
53. The process of release of an egg from the ovary is called
(a) Menstruation (b) Fertilisation (c) Reproduction (d) Ovulation
54. The development of foetus inside the uterus till birth is called
(a) Lactation (b) Fertilisation (c) Gestation (d) Implantation
55. The pair of duct arising from testis, which carry sperms are
(a) Fallopian blue (b) Vas deferens (c) Oviduct (c) Urethra
56. In a flower, the parts that produce male and female gametes (germ cells) are
(a) Stamen and anther (b) Filament and stigma
(c) Anther and ovary (d)Stamen and style
57. Which of the following is the correct sequence of events of sexual reproduction in a flower?
(a)Pollination, fertilisation, seeding, embryo
(a)Seeding, embryo, fertilisation, pollination
(a)Pollination, fertilisation, embryo, seeding
(a)Embryo, seeding, pollination, fertilisation
58. Characters transmitted from parents to offspring are present in
(a) Cytoplasm (b) Ribosome (c) Golgi bodies (d) Genes
59. A feature of reproduction that is common to Amoeba, Spirogyra and Yeast is that
(a) They reproduce asexually (b) They are all unicellular
(c) They reproduce only sexually (d) They are multicellular
60. The correct sequence of reproductive stages seen in flowering plants is
(a) Gametes, zygote, embryo, seedling (b) Zygote, gametes, embryo, seedling
(c) Seedling, embryo, zygote, gametes (d) gametes, embryo, zygote, seeding
61. Factors responsible for the rapid spread of bread mould on slices of bread are
(i) Large number of spores (ii) Availability of moisture and nutrients in bread
(iii) Presence of tubular branched hyphae (iv) Formation of round-shaped sporangia
(a)(i) and (iii) (b) (ii) and (iv) (c) (i) and (ii) (d) (iii) and (iv)
62. In the given figure the parts A, B and C are sequentially

(a) Cotyledon, plumule and radicle (b) Plumule, radical and cotyledon
(c) Plumule, cotyledon and radicle (d) Radicle, cotyledon and plumule
63. Which among the following is not the function of testis at puberty?
(i) Formation of germs cells (ii) Secretion of testosterone
(iii) Development of Placenta (iv) Secretion of estrogen
(a) (i) and(ii) (b) (ii) and (iii) (c) (iii) and (iv) (d) (i) and (iv)
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64. Which among the following diseases is not sexually transmitted?
(a)Syphilis (b) Hepatitis (c) HIV- AIDS (d)Gonorrhoea

HEREDITY AND EVOLUTION
65. The branch of biology that deals with transmission of characters from one generation to other is termed as
(a) Evolution (b) Genetics (c) Heredity (d) Biogenetic law
66. Theory of in heritance of specific traits became clearer due to
(a) Darwinism (b) Neo-Darwinism
(c) Mendel’s work on garden peas (d) Lamarck’s theory
67. Fingers in humans are an example of
(a) Adaptation (b) Specialization (c) Variation (d) Inheritance
68. Which of the following is a recessive trait in garden pea plant?
(a) Wrinkled seeds (b) Round seeds (c) Oval seeds (d) Coloured seed coat
69. Human offspring’s sex is determined
(a)Through Father’s sex chromosomes. (b) Through Mother’s sex chromosomes.
(c) By hormones. (d) By enzymes
70. Specification takes place when variation occurs with
(a)Death of an organism. (b) Mood changes
(c) Geographical isolation (d) Changes due to accidents
71. In the double helical structure of DNA, double bond between Hydrogen is present in
[CET 2010]
(a)adenine and guanine (b)guanine and cytocine
(c)adenine and uracil (d)adenine and cytocine
72. Wild cabbage has evolved into new varieties like cabbage, broccoli, and cauliflower by
(a) Genetic drift (b) Natural selection
(c) Reproductive isolation (d) Artificial selection
73. The fossil remains of Archaeopteryx is a connecting link between
(a) Reptiles and mammals (b) Reptiles and bird
(c) Fish and amphibian (d) Amphibian and reptile
74. Exchange of genetic material takes place in
(a) Vegetative reproduction (b) Asexual reproduction
(c) Sexual reproduction (d) Budding
75. An example of homologous organs is
(a)Our arm and a dog’s foreleg (b) Our teeth and an elephant’s tusks
(c) Potato and roots of grass (d) All of the above
76. The maleness of child is determined by
(a)The X chromosome in the zygote
(b)The Y chromosome in zygote
(c)The cytoplasm of germ cell which determines the sex
(d)Sex is determined by chance
77. In peas, a pure tall plant (TT) is crossed with a short plant (tt). The ratio of pure tall plats to shorts plants
in F
2
is
(a) 1 : 3 (b) 3 : 1 (c) 1 : 1 (d) 2 : 1
78. The theory of evolution of species by natural selection was given by
(a) Mendel (b) Darwin (c) Morgan (d) Lamarck
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MISCELLANEOUS BIOLOGY
79. The growth of pollen tube is an example of
(a) Geotropism (b) Hydrotropism
(c) Chemotropism (d) Secondary growth
80. Fission is NOT a process of reproduction in
(a) Hydra (b) Bacteria (c) Plasmodium (d) Amoeba
81. Identify the correctly matched pair
(a) Stigma – stamen (b) Plumule – future shoot
(c) Pollen tube – female germ cell (d) Carpel – male gamete
82. Which of the following is a male contraceptive device or method?
(a) Copper-T (b) Vasectomy (c) Oral pills (d) Tubectomy
83. ATP is
(a) An amino acid (b) A protein (c) A glycolipid (d) A nucleotide
84. In case of repeated binary fission, how many amoebae will be produced after ten cycles of fission
from one amoeba? [HARYANA POLYTECHNIC-2010]
(a) 1024 (b) 1012 (c) 1048 (d) 2048
85. Where does the ovum get fertilized in human beings?
(a) Cervix (b) Vagina (c) Fallopian tube (d) Uterus
86. Osteoporosis is caused by deficiency of
(a) Vitamin A (b) Vitamin B (c) Vitamin C (d) Vitamin D
87. DPT vaccine is taken against which of the following group of diseases?
(a) Diphtheria, Polio, Typhoid (b) Diphtheria, Polio, Tetanus
(c) Diphtheria, Pertusis, Typhoid (d) Diphtheria, Pertusis, Tetanus
88. In muscles during exercise, breakdown of glucose produces
(a) Lactic acid (b)Hydrochloric acid (c) Ethanol (d) Pyruvic acid
89. Oxygen – rich blood from the lungs comes to the
(a) Left Atrium (b) Right Atrium (c) Left ventricle (d) Right ventricle
90. Which one of the following is NOT a part of the male reproductive system in human?
(a) Seminal vesicles (b) Prostate gland (c) Vas deferens (d) Fallopian tube
91. Which one of the following is ecofriendly practice?
(a) Use of polyethylene bag (b) Carrying cloths bag to make purchases
(c) Smoking (d) Burning garbage in open
92. Which one of the following is a fungal disease?
(a) AIDS (b) Ring worm (c) Chicken-pox (d) Cancer
93. The process in which different types of bacteria convert the nitrate into elemental nitrogen is
(a) Ammonification (b) Nitrification (c) Denitrification (d) Nitrogen fixation
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94. For his experiment, Mendel selected the plant of [CET 2010]
(a)garden pea (b)wild pea (c)rose (d)tomato
95. Green house gases which are responsible for green house effect are
(a) Carbon dioxide, ammonia (b) Carbon monoxide, ozone
(c) Carbon monoxide, methane (d) Carbon dioxide, methane
96. In the following equation “X” represents:
Pyruvate
Luck o] ox¡gcn
-⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯-“X”+ lactic acid
(a) CO
2
(b) H
2
O (c) Energy (d) glucose
97. Ligament connects [CET 2010]
(a)muscles to bones (b)muscles to muscles (c)bones to bones (d)cells to cells
98. Which is the largest gland in human body?
(a) Stomach (b) Liver (c) Heart (d) Pancreas
99. Which of the following sets of cells organelles contain DNA?
(a) Nucleus, Ribosome, Golgi body (b) Chloroplast, ER, Lysosomes
(c) Vacuole, Nucleus, Chloroplast (d) Nucleus, Mitochondria, Plastid
100. Which of the following is an example of analogous organ?
(a) Wings of bird and wings of fly (b) Forelimbs of frog and human being
(c) Forelimbs of man and horse (d) All of these
101. Crop of cauliflower and cabbage are the examples of
(a) Natural selection (b) artificial selection (c) Speciation (d) Regeneration
102. Human saliva contains
(a) Amylase (b) Lipase (c) trypsin (d) Pepsin
103. The basic functional unit of kidney is
(a) Neuron (b) Nephron (c) Cerebellum (d) Liver
104. Glycolysis for the formation of Pyruvate takes place in
(a) Cytoplasm (b) Mitochondria (c) Chloroplast (d) Nucleus
105. CO
2
and H
2
O are formed during aerobic respiration in
(a) Cytoplasm (b) Chloroplast (c) Mitochondria (d) Chromosome
106. Blood corpuscles which help in the blood clotting at the site of injury are
(a) RBCs (b) WBCs (c) Platelets (d) All of these
107. Instrument used to measure the blood pressure is
(a) Haemocytometer (b) Haemometer
(c) Sphygmomanometer (d) Stethoscope
108. Which part of heart receives oxygenated blood from the lungs?
(a) Right atrium (b) Left atrium (c) Right ventricle (d) Left ventricle
109. The basic functional unit of human kidney is
(a) Nephron (b) Nephridia (c) Glomerulus (d) Bowman’s capsule
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110. Transportation of water and minerals in plants occurs in
(a) Xylem (b) Phloem (c) Mesophyll (d) Parenchyma
111. Transportation of food & other substances takes place in
(a) Phloem (b) Xylem (c) Sclerenchyma (d) Fibers
112. Roots are
(a) Positively geotropic (b) Negative geotropic
(c) Positively phototropic (d) none of these
113. Stem is
(a) Positively geotropic (b) Positively phototropic
(c) Negative geotropic (d) none of these
114. Response of plant roots towards water is called
(a) Chemotropism (b) Phototropism
(c) Hydrotropism (d) Geotropism
115. Leaves of Mimosa pudica are sensitive to
(a) Air (b) Water (c) Chemicals (d) Touch
116. Main function of cerebellum is
(a) Vision (b) Hearing (c) Balancing (d) Memory
117. Which part of the nervous system controls the reflex activities of the body?
(a) Pons (b) Spinal cord (c) Cerebrum (d) Cerebellum
118. Flowering and seed germination in plants are regulated by duration of light, a phenomenon
called
(a) Photosynthesis (b) Phototropism (c) Photoperiodism (d) photolysis
119. Which gland acts as both Endocrine and Exocrine gland?
(a) Liver (b) Adrenals (c) Pancreas (d) Kidneys
120. Diabetes occurs due to deficiency of which hormone?
(a) Testosterone (b) Glucagon (c) Insulin (d) Thyroxin
121. Ductless glands are known as
(a) Exocrine glands (b) Endocrine glands
(c) Heterocrine glands (d) Alveolar glands
122. The Fight, Flight and Fright hormone is
(a) Adrenaline (b) Oxytocin (c)Insulin (d) Glucagon
123. Secretions of ductless glands are called
(a) Enzymes (b) Hormones (c) Mucoids (d) Pheromones
124. Anaerobic respiration in yeast and bacteria is possible by
(a) Fermentation (b) Glycolysis (c) Creb’s cycle (d) Translocation
125. Gene is made up of [CET 2009]
(a) RNA only (b) DNA only (c) DNA and RNA (d) DNA & protein
126. Blood flows from left atrium to
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(a) Left ventricle (b) Vena cava (c) Pulmonary vein (d) Right ventricle
127. The smallest blood vessel in the body is
(a) Artery (b) Capillary (c) Vein (d) None of these
128. Which is the scientific name of vitamin D?
(a) Bacin (b) Pyridoxine (c) Ascorbic acid (d) Calciferol
129. Kwashiorkor is a disease caused by the deficiency of
(a) Vitamins (b) Protein & Energy (c) Iron (d) All of these
130. Vitamin essential in blood clotting is
(a) Vitamin B (b) Vitamin C (c) Vitamin A (d) Vitamin K
131. Adrenaline hormone is secreted by
(a) Pituitary gland (b) Pancreas (c) Thyroid gland (d) Adrenal gland
132. The male reproductive organs in plants are
(a) Sepals (b) Stamens (c) Petals (d) Carpel
133. Name the test to determine AIDS
(a) Ultrasound (b) ELISA (c) X-ray (d) Sonography
134. Pollen grains are produced by
(a) Filament (b) Style (c) Ovary (d) Anther
135. On which plant Medal carried out his investigations?
(a) Gram (b) Pigeon Pea (c) Garden Pea (d) Peanuts
136. An organism called archaeopteryx has got characteristics of both
(a) Birds & Reptiles (b) Birds & Mammals
(c) Reptiles & mammals (d) None of these
137. How many chromosomes are present in human beings? [CET 2010]
(a)44 (b)23 (c)46 (d)22
138. Which of the following organs is not a respiratory organ?
(a) Lungs (b) Gills (c) Kidney (d) Skin
139. Glomerulus is part of
(a) Nephron (b) Brain (c) Neuron (d) Stomach
140. The colour of Lymph is
(a) Red (b) Blue (c) Yellow (d) White
141. Absorption of food occurs in
(a) Stomach (b) Small intestine (c) Large intestine (d) Esophagus
142. Reflex actions are controlled by
(a) Brain (b) Spinal cord (c) Cerebrum (d) Hormones
143. A hormone that promotes falling of leaves
(a) Auxin (b) Cytokinin (c) Ethylene (d) Abscisic Acid
144. Which of the following parts of Bryophyllum take part in vegetative propagation?
(a) Leaves (b) Root (c) Stem (d) Flower
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145. Amoeba reproduces by
(a) Budding (b) Regeneration (c) Fission (d) Spore Formation
146. Instant source of energy in human beings is
(a) Amino acid (b) Fats (c) Protein (d) Glucose
147. Blood cells are manufactured in
(a) Blood (b) Liver (c) Spleen (d) Bone marrow
148. Name of the disease caused by deficiency of Iodine
(a) Goiter (b) Scurvy (c) Rickets (d) None of these
149. End products of aerobic respiration are
(a) CO
2
& H
2
O (b) O
2
& CO
2
(c) O
2
& H
2
O (d) CO
2
& O
2

150. The full form of AIDS
(a) All Immune Down syndrome (b) Active Immune Divide Signal
(c) Advancement in Developing Syndrome (d) Acquired Immune Deficiency Syndrome
151. Male organ of the plant is called
(a) Stigma (b) Stamen (c) Sepal (d) Petal
152. Who is regarded as the Father of Genetics?
(a) Robert Hooke (b) Charles Darwin (c) Lamark (d) Gregor Johan Mendel
153. DNA is
(a) Polynucleotide molecule (b) Deoxyribo Nucleic Acid
(c) Genetic material (d) All of these
154. Enzymes are
(a) Proteins (b) Carbohydrates (c) Fats (d) Minerals
155. Deficiency of Vitamin C causes
(a) Scurvy (b) Rickets (c) Both ‘a’ & ‘b’ (d) Beri- Beri
156. Goiter is the disease which is caused by the deficiency of
(a) Potassium (b) Sodium (c) Iodine (d) Fluorine
157. Blood may be purified by
(a) Dialysis (b) Electro-osmosis (c) Coagulation (d) filtration
158. Pneumatic bones are present in [CET 2010]
(a)reptiles (b)aves (c)amphibians (d)mammals
159. Name of the female sex hormone is
(a) Testosterone (b) Thyroxin (c) Prolactin (d) Estrogen
160. Bio magnification means
(a)increase in population (b)decrease in population
(c)increase in nutrients (d) increase in non biodegradable pollutants in the food chain

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ENGLISH

Select the correct spelling from the following:-
1. (a)decieve (b) deceive (c) deceeve (d) diceive
2. (a) competition (b)competetion (c) compitetion (d)comptition
3. (a)Lieutenant (b) Leiutenant (c) Leftinant (d) Lieutinant
4. (a)definantion (b)definition (c)definition (d)dafination
5. (a)Miscellaneous (b)miscllaneous (c)misllaneous (d)miscellaneous
6. (a)sychology (b)psychology (c)pshycology (d)psychology
7. (a)inteligent (b)intelligent (c)intteligent (d)inttelligent
8. (a)grammer (b)grammar (c)grrammer (d)grammar
9. (a)knoledge (b)knowledge (c)knowladge (d)knowledge
10. (a)twelfth (b)twelth (c)twelvth (d)twelveth
11. (a)temperature (b)temperature (c)temperature (d)temperature
12. (a)fulfil (b)fullfil (c)fulfill (d)fulfil
13. (a)mathmatics (b)mathmetics (c)mathematics (d)mathemetics
14. (a)endevour (b)endeavor (c)endeavour (d)endeavur
15. (a)favarite (b)favorate (c)favourite (d)favourate
16. (a)communication (b)comunication (c)communication (d)communication
17. (a)satelite (b)sattelite (c)satellite (d)satelight
18. (a)shedule (b)sedule (c)scedule (d)schedule
19. (a)continous (b)continuous (c)countinuos (d)continuous
20. (a)eradicate (b)erradicate (c)eredicate (d)irradicate

Select the wrong spelling from the following:-
21. (a)twelfth (b)gesture (c)committee (d)intelligent
22. (a)defination (b)museum (c)receive (d)horizon
23. (a)professor (b)ocasion (c)necessary (d)business [CET-2010]
24. (a)technique (b)democracy (c)voltmeter (d)vacuum
25. (a)transformer (b)revenue (c)continous (d)neighbor
26. (a)litrature (b)tolerance (c)rescue (d)artificial
27. (a)behavior (b)potential (c)difficulty (d)requirement
28. (a)temporary (b)computer (c)training (d)industry
29. (a)innovative (b)correspondence (c)endeavour (d)arcitecture
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30. (a)melodious (b)concentrate (c)admission (d)grammer
Select the correct article to fill in the blanks-
31. Everyone likes him because he is____honest person.
(a) a (b) an (c) the (d)none of these
32. The sunrises in ________East but sets in _____ West.
(a) an,a (b) an,the (c) the,a (d)none of these
33. ______Bible is the holy book of Christians_______Geeta is the holy book of the Hindus.
(a) a,the (b) an,the (c) the,the (d)none of these
34. He is _____ European but lives in India.
(a) a (b) an (c) the (d)none of these
35. _____ Earth revolves around _____sun.
(a) a,the (b) an,a (c) the,a (d)none of these
36. Burj khalifa is _____tallest building in the world.
(a) a (b) an (c) the (d)none of these
37. Her uncle is ____M.L.A. but aunt is______teacher.
(a)a,an (b)an,a (c)the,the (d)an,the
38. The elephant is ______ useful animal.[CET-2010]
(a) a (b) an (c) the (d)none of these
39. I have a book.______book is very knowledgeable.
(a) a (b) an (c) the (d)none of these
40. The water of _____Dead Sea is very salty.
(a) a (b) an (c) the (d)none of these
41. _____Tuberculosis (T.B.) is a curable disease.
(a) a (b) an (c) the (d)none of these
42. Gold is _____ most malleable metal.
(a) a (b) an (c) the (d)none of these
43. Prince Charles is ______heir to the throne of the Great Britain.
(a) a (b) an (c) the (d)none of these

Select the correct Modal from the following:-
44. Everyone _______obey the laws of the country.
(a)should (b)may (c)might (d)must
45. _______God help you !
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(a)can (b)could (c)may (d)will
46. He worked hard so that he________pass.
(a)will (b)would (c)may (d)might
47. He tried hard but ________not solve the question.
(a)could (b)should (c)can (d)might
48. Wok hard lest you_______fail.
(a)would (b)should (c)will (d)shall
49. Perhaps it_______rain today.
(a)can (b)could (c)may (d)might
50. _____would you take tea?
(a) had to (b)must (c)should (d)would
51. How______you talk like this?
(a)need (b)must (c)dare (d)will
52. He _____swim in this river when he was boy.
(a)can (b)may (c)could (d)should
53. What ______ I do for you?
(a)would (b)will (c)shall (d)can
54. ________you qualify the entrance exam !
(a)can (b)may (c)must (d)dare
55. I ______speak as well as write four languages.
(a)may (b)might (c)can (d)could
56. I thought that he _________at home.
(a)might (b)could (c)will (d)shall
57. You _______ not to worry at all.
(a)can (b)dare (c)must (d)should
58. You _________not waste your time?
(a)should (b)must (c)would (d)shall

Select the correct synonym of the following words:-
59. DILIGENT
(a)hard working (b)clever (c)intelligent (d) energetic
60. VICTIM
(a)empty (b)vacant (c)prey (d)target
61. FOE
(a)client (b)partner (c)friend (d)enemy
62. PROFOUND
(a)loss (b)ready (c)deep (d)damage
63. CONSEQUENCE
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(a)result (b)demand (c)uncertain (d)secret
64. ALLOW
(a)accept (b)seek (c)permit (d)wish
65. CIVILISED
(a)social (b)hidden (c)polite (d)educated
66. ABANDON
(a)huge (b)disaster (c)punish (d)give up
67. RESISTANCE
(a)opposition (b)immediate (c)egoist (d)convince
68. FURY
(a) cruel (b)anger (c)greedy (d)query
69. COY
(a)brave (b)occasion (c) shy (d) fulfil
70. ORDINARY [CET-2010]
(a)oratory (b)obligatory (c)common (d)necessary
71. POISON
(a)venom (b)scold (c)admire (d)passion

Select the correct antonym of the following words
72. BRAVE
(a)enemy (b)bold (c)valiant (d)timid
73. CONSTANT
(a)hard (b)brittle (c)bright (d)variable
74. ARTIFICIAL
(a)natural (b)solid (c)authentic (d)truthful
75. EXTERIOR
(a)internal (b)interior (c)inner (d)inwards
76. OPAQUE
(a)misty (b)covered (c)translucent (d)transparent
77. MINOR
(a)heavy (b)tall (c)major (d)big
78. ALIEN
(a)resident (b)natural (c)human (d)native
79. REPEL
(a)attract (b)concentrate (c)attend (d)continue
80. INNOCENT
(a)sinful (b)guilty (c)deadly (d)corruption
81. FRIEND
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(a)rival (b)proud (c)foe (d)stranger
82. URBAN
(a)burden (b)rural (c)village (d)local [CET- 2010]

SOME QUESTIONS OF CET 2010

83. He is junior_____ me.
(a)to (b) on (c)than (d) of
84. Elephant is helpful to us because it_________
(a)is trained (b)should be trained (c)can be trained (d)was trained
85. The price rising has made it difficult to live the ___________ of living.
(a)method (b)way (c)standard (d)life
86. In India, more than one million people do not get a square meal to eat.
(a)meal in plate (b)full meal (c)square plate (d)tasty meal
87. He is working hard.___________?
(a)wasn’t he? (b)Isn’t he? (c)hasn’t he? (d)aren’t he?
88. One who cannot read and write
(a)literate (b)illiterate (c)ignorant (d)illegal
89. I_____________ cooking till yesterday.
(a)has not completed (b)will not complete
(c)had not completed (d)have not completed
90. Meaning of CUT DOWN
(a)reduce (b)separate (c)breakdown (d)to cut into pieces

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