ANTI-INFECTIVE AGENTS 1- Cephalosporin mechanism of action may include: a) Inhibit protein synthesis b) Inhibit cell wall synthesis
c) Inhibit synthesis of essential metabolites d) Alter the function of cell membrane permeability e) Inhibit translation of genetic information
2- The bacteriostatic effect of sulfametoxazole may be increased by: a) Penicillin b) Sulbactam c) Clavulanic acid d) Tarzobactam e) Trimetroprim
3-Correct statements regarding Penicillin V may include which of the following? I-β-lactamase sensitive antibiotic – acid stable II- Has a short half-life because is rapidly excreted by glomerular filtration III- Probenecid increase penicillin’s activity a) I only B) III only c) I and II only d) II and III only e) All are correct
4- The only antibiotic available as chew able tablet includes: a) Penicillin b) Amoxicillin c) Ampicillin d) Erythromycin e) Clarithromycin
5- Correct statements regarding Erythromycin ESTOLATE may include:
I- Primarily effective against gram-positive bacteria and also have activity against some Gram-negative bacteria II- It is a macro lid antibiotic very useful as alternative to penicillin for those that have Allergy to penicillin antibiotics III- Regular erythromycin is better absorbed from GIT that erythromycin estolate a) I only b) III only c) I and II only d) II and III only e) All are correct
6- Penicillin should be administrated 1 hour before meals or 2 to 3 hours after meals in order to: I- Improve the bioavailability II- Maximize the dissolution rate III- Avoid interaction with calcium ions a) I only b) III only c) I and II only d) II and III only e) All are correct
7-Drugs used in the treatment of meningitis are all of the following, EXCEPT: a) Penicillins b) Cephalosporins c) Gentamycin d) Streptomycin e) Sulfonamides
8- Examples of antibiotic that is an acid stable penicillinase resistant include: a) Amoxicillin b) Oxacillin c) Ampicillin D) Carbenicillin e) Penicillin V
9- All of the following penicillins are acid label penicillins, EXCEPT: a) Penicillin V b) Penicillin G c) Methicillin d) Nafcillin e) Carbenicillin
10-Which of the following are/is correct regarding Tetracycline? I- Inhibit protein synthesis II- May be used in dental works III- Cannot be taken for infants less than 8 years old a) I only b) III only c) I and II only d) II and III only e) All are correct
11- Which of the following describes the mechanism of action of sulfametoxazole? a) Inhibit protein synthesis b) Inhibit cell growth by competitive antagonism with folic acid synthesis c) Inhibit synthesis of essential metabolites d) Alter the function of cell membrane permeability e) Inhibit translation of genetic information
Which of the following is NOT an anti-fungal drug? a) Amphotericin B b) Metronidazole c) Griseofulvin
.Mechanism of inhibit protein synthesis is characteristic of all the following antibiotics.Example of drug used in prophylaxis of malaria includes: a) Cloroquine b) Quinine c) Primaquin d) Quinine e) Quinidine
a) Aminoglycosides b) Tetracycline c) Cephalexin d) Chloramphenicol e) Clindamycin
13.Which of the following drugs cannot be taken orally? a) INH b) PASA c) ASA d) Streptomycin e) Oxacillin
15.12.Which of the following agents may interfere with the regular effect of penicillins? a) Antacids b) Food c) Probenecid d) Aminoglycosides e) All of the above
d) Nystatin e) Clotrimazole
17.The effect continue remain after all drug is eliminated III.Examples of drugs that may inhibit DNA gyrase may include: a) Gentamycin b) Ceftriaxone c) Norfloxacin d) Erythromycin e) Penicillin 18.Which of the following statement is/are correct regarding Gray Babies syndrome? I.Correct statements regarding aminoglycosides may include: I.The relation plasma concentration and half-life is not clear a) I only b) III only c) I and II only d) II and III only e) All are correct
20.Glucoronyl transferase is required to detoxify cloramphenicol a) I only b) III only
.Which of the following agents may best treat Meningococcal encephalitis? a) Sulfametoxazole b) Erythromycin c) Cephalexin d) Tetracycline e) Penicillin
19.Due to inability of the infant to metabolize the drug because of glucoronyl transferase deficiency III.Occurs in premature and new born infants when choramphenicol is administrated during the first few days of life II.Has a half-life of 12hours II.
Macrolides antibiotics III.Penicillins a) I only b) III only c) I and II only d) II and III only e) All are correct
.Gonorrhea.Cefixime II.Cephalosporin 3rd generation II.Nosocomial infections may be best treated by which of the following agents? I. a sexually transmitted disease may be treated by which of the following agents? I.Correct statements regarding Pellagra include: I.Ceftriaxone III. diarrhea and dementia a) I only b) III only c) I and II only d) II and III only e) All are correct
22.Characterized by dermatitis.Caused by failure in converting tryptophan to niacin III.c) I and II only d) II and III only e) All are correct
21.Ciprofloxacin a) I only b) III only c) I and II only d) II and III only e) All are correct
23.Caused due to deficiency of niacin II.
a) I only b) III only c) I and II only d) II and III only e) All are correct
26. may be best be treated by which of the following agents? a) Benzyl penicillin b) Ceftriaxone c) Acyclovir d) Streptomycin e) Vancomycin
25.Viral encephalitis.24.Example of drug(s) used to treat pneumonia includes: I.Otitis extern. a CNS infection.Otitis media is an ear infection normally caused by S. pneumoniae and may be best treated by: a) Amoxicillin b) Penicillin V c) Ampicillin d) Amoxicillin clavulanate e) Oxacillin
. an ear infection may be best is best treated by: a) Ciprofloxacin eardrop b) Gentamicin eardrop c) Prednisone eardrop d) Levobunolol eardrop e) Saline solution
27.Ampicillin combined with aminoglycosides II-Clarithromycin III.
ampicillin and metronidazole b) Clarithromycin.First line treatment for UTI-Urinary Tract Infection may include: a) Sulfametoxazole + Trimetoprim b) Amoxicillin clavulanate c) Penicillin procaine d) Erythromycin e) All are very effective in treating UTI
29.Antibiotics that often cause colitis-acute inflammation of colon as side effect include:
.Which of the following agents would be used in the treatment of infections caused by Helicobacter pylori as combination therapy? a) Penicillin. omeprazole and metronidazole c) Clarithromycin.Colitis associated with antibiotic use can best be treated by: a) Cephalosporins b) Macrolides c) Aminoglycosides d) Vancomycin e) Penicillin
32. azithromycin and lansoprazole d) Ceftriaxone and metronidazole only e) Combinations of antibiotic should not be used due to resistance.28.Treatment of large intestine infection mainly caused by food intoxication may include: I. amoxicillin.
30.Ciprofloxacin III.Metronidazole a) I only b) III only c) I and II only d) II and III only e) All are correct
31. amoxicillin.Lots of fluids II.
Broad-spectrum penicillins II.Cephalosporins III.I.Drug used together with chloroquine in the treatment of malaria with the purpose to kill persistants parasites in the liver of a person infected with Plasmodium vivax is:
a) Quinine b) Pyrimethamine c) Sulfadoxine d) Primaquine e) Quinidine
34. Which of the following drugs or combination should be more appropriate for this patient? a) Atovaquone only b) Chloroquine and primaquine c) Quinine and doxacycline d) Mefloquine e) C and D are correct
35.Clindamycin a) I only b) III only c) I and II only d) II and III only e) All are correct
33.Patient is resistant to chloroquine and need to be treated for malaria.Correct statements regarding antibiotics may include: a) Drugs derivated from synthetic substances that can kill or inhibit bacterial growth b) Drugs derivated from natural source that can kill or inhibit bacteria growth c) Drug with ability only to kill bacteria d) Drug with ability only to inhibit bacterial growth e) All are wrong regarding antibiotics
Examples of β-lactamase inhibitors is/are:
.Examples of extended spectrum penicillin may include: a) Amoxicillin b) Ampicillin c) Cloxacillin d) Carbenicillin e) Dicloxacillin
40.Drugs derivated from synthetic substances that can kill bacteria is normally called: a) Bacteriostatic antibiotic b) Bactericidal antibiotic c) Bactericidal antimicrobial d) Bacteriostatic antimicrobial e) Bacteriostatic bactericidal antimicrobial
a) Amoxicillin b) Nafcillin c) Methicillin d) Oxacillin e) All are very narrow spectrum penicillins
39. they can be classified in: a) RNA inhibitors only b) DNA inhibitors only c) RNA and DNA inhibitors d) Protease inhibitors e) All are correct
38.Examples of very narrow spectrum penicillins include all of the following. To overcome these problem penicillins can be administrated together with β-lactamase inhibitors.Antiviral drugs act in many different ways.Resistance is the major problem with penicillins due to ability of bacteria to breakdown the lactam ring of penicillin and inactivates the drug.
Correct statements regarding CEPHALOSPORINS include: I.Correct statement regarding the mechanism of action of Vancomycin may include: a) Inhibit release of tRNA bound to peptyl site after peptide bond formation b) Inhibit peptide bound formation between acylaminoacids bound to the peptyl and acceptor site c) Inhibit stage II of cell wall synthesis preventing polymerization of the linear peptideoglycan d) Inhibit DNA gyrase in the bacteria e) Bind to ergosterol from pores resulting in linkage of cellular *******s
.Clavulanic acid II.Derivated from natural source: Cephalosporium acremonium III.Broad-spectrum agent a) I only b) III only c) I and II only d) II and III only e) All are correct
42.Tazobactam a) I only b) III only c) I and II only d) II and III only e) All are correct
41.Sulbactam III.Bactericidal antimicrobial II.I.Example of fourth generation cephalosporin includes: a) Ceftriaxone b) Cefipime c) Cefixime d) Cefotaxime e) Cefoxitin
EXCEPT: a) Erythromycin b) Azithromycin c) Clarithromycin d) Tetracycline e) Clindamycin
46.Azithromycin II.Clarithromycin III.Which of the following is one of the most common side effects of vancomycin? a) Ototoxicity b) Disulfiram like side effect c) Diarrhea d) Weight gain e) Hallucinations
45.Erythromycin a) I only b) III only c) I and II only d) II and III only
.All of the following are narrow spectrum protein synthesis inhibitors.Which of the following agents can be classified as macrolide antibiotics? I.Which of the following is NOT a side effect of tetracycline? a) Alteration in gut flora b) Disulfiram like reactions c) Teeth permanent discoloration d) Fanconi like syndrome e) Hyperchloremic metabolic acidosis
EXCEPT: a) Nystatin b) Gentamicin c) Amikacin d) Streptomycin e) Garamycin
50.Wrong statement regarding MACROLIDES ANTIBIOTICS include: a) Used in both gram-positive and gram-negative infections b) Used as an alternative to penicillin when patient has allergy to penicillins c) Inhibit cell wall synthesis of microorganisms d) Increase gastric motility causing cramps and diarrhea as major side effect e) Very safe for children 49.Which of the following best classify metronidazole? a) Antiprotozoa b) Antibiotic c) Antifungal
.All of the following are examples of aminoglycosides drugs.Which of the following is an anti-infective agent with lowest therapeutic index? a) Macrolide b) Cephalosporins c) Cloramphenicol d) Aminoglycosides e) Antifungal agents
51.e) All are correct
48.Fluoroquinolone are anti-infective agents analogs of: a) PABA b) Folic acid c) Vitamin K d) Cyanide e) Nalidixic acid
a) I only b) III only c) I and II only d) II and III only e) All are correct
54.Isoniazid II.d) Antiviral e) Antimicrobial
53.Drug of choice in the treatment of percutaneous blood infection-schistosomyasis may include: a) Niclosamide b) Prazinquatel c) Mebendazole d) Dapsone e) Thiabendazole
55.Rifampin III.Example of drug(s) used in treatment of tuberculosis include: I. EXCEPT: a) Niclosamide b) Prazinquatel c) Mebendazole d) Dapsone e) Thiabendazole
56.Which of the following is considered a polyene antifungal agent? a) Miconazole b) Clotrimazole c) Amphotericin d) Itraconazole
.All are examples of antihelmintic drugs.
Which of the following statement is RIGHT regarding influenza treatment? I.
58.Wrong statement regarding antifungal agents includes which of the following? a) Polyene antifungal act binding to ergosterol from pores resulting in linkage of cellular *******s b) Azoles antifungal act blocking the synthesis of ergosterol.Type A influenza is best treated by amantadine and rimantadine II. chills.All of the following are examples of quinolone antimicrobial agents.e) Ketoconazole
57. anorexia.Type B influenza is best treated by oseltamivir and zenamivir III. EXCEPT a) Cephalexin b) Ofloxacin c) Norfloxacin d) Ciprofloxacin e) Levofloxacin
60.Which of the following conditions are quinolone antimicrobial drugs mainly used? a) Respiratory tract infections
.Influenza should not be treated with antiviral agents
a) I only b) III only c) I and II only d) II and III only e) All are correct
59. c) Polyene antifungal has the widest spectrum compared to any other agent d) Side effects of antifungals include fever. headaches and muscle pain e) Side effects of antifungals cannot be treat for Tylenol due to high drug interaction.
Which of the following statements best describes the action of the antitubercular agent ISONIAZID? a) Inhibit cell wall synthesis of mycobacterium b) Inhibit the DNA duplication of mycobacterium c) Inhibit arachydonic acids that feed mycobacterium d) Inhibit mycolic acids that are unique for mycobacterium e) Inhibit protein synthesis of mycobacterium
62.The side effects of isoniazid are potentialized by deficiency of which vitamin? a) Thiamine b) Pyridoxine c) Folic acid d) Niacin e) Cyanocobalamin
64.b) Urinary tract infections c) Gastrointestinal tract infections d) Endocarditis e) Cerebral infections
61.Which of the following complications is considered the gravest side effect associated with isoniazid treatment? a) Cardiac dysfunction b) Mental dysfunction c) Hepatitis d) Renal complications e) Discoloration of skin
63. EXCEPT: a) Ampicillin b) Cloxacillin c) Amoxicillin d) Bicampicilin e) All are correct
.All of the following are examples of amino penicillin.
Acyclovir II.Protein synthesis inhibitors may bind to: a) 30s ribosomal subunit only b) 50s ribosomal subunit only c) 70s ribosomal subunit only d) 30s and 50s and 70s ribosomal subunits
.Which of the following is an antiviral drug used in the treatment of AIDS-HIV? I.Bacterial resistance to an antibiotic may occurs due to: I.65.Stavudine a) I only b) III only c) I and II only d) II and III only e) All are correct
66.Zidovudine III.The effectiveness of VANCOMYCIN is seen ONLY in: a) Virus b) Gram-negative bacterias c) Gram-positive bacterias d) Both gram-positive and negative bacterias e) Plasmodium
68.Adaptation III.Gene transfer
a) I only b) III only c) I and II only d) II and III only e) All are correct
E 14.D 8.e) 30s and 70s ribosomal subunits
69.E 11.B 5.Broad-spectrum antibiotic that may cause severe impairment of bone marrow include which of the following agents? a) Tetracycline b) Aminoglycosides c) Vancomycin d) Cloramphenicol e) Clindamycin
70.C 6.B 2.D
.B 10.E 3.Which of the following agent is classified as lincosamide antibiotic? a) Tetracycline b) Aminoglycosides c) Vancomycin d) Cloramphenicol e) Clindamycin
ANSWERS 1.B 12.B 9.E 4.A 7.C 13.
15- A 16- B 17- C 18- E 19- D 20- E 21- E 22- E 23- A 24- C 25- E 26- B 27- D 28- A 29- B 30- E 31- D 32- E 33- D 34- E. 35- B 36- C 37- E 38- A 39- D 40- E 41- D 42- B 43- C 44- A 45- D 46- B 47- E
48- C 49- A 50- D 51- E 52- A 53- E 54- B 55- D 56- C 57- E 58- C 59- C 60- B 61- D 62- C 63- B 64- B 65- D 66- E 67- C 68- D 69- D 70- E
1-Glycine reaction is normally mediated by: a) Acetyl Coenzyme A
b) UDP Glucoronyl tranferase c) PAPS- Phosphoadenosine-5-Phosphosulfate d) Sulfotranferase e) GST-Glutathione S-Transferase
2- Abundant element in the interstitial fluid may include: a) Potassium b) Sodium c) Magnesium d) Calcium e) Chloro
3- Which is responsible for N in vivo? a) Argenine b) Tryptophan c) Guanine d) Thiamine e) Leucine
4- Enzyme that enables DNA fragments from different sources to be joined: a) DNA polymerase b) DNA gyrase c) DNA ligase d) RNA transferase e) None of the above
5- Which of the followings are types of RNA? I- RNAt - RNA transferase II- RNAm – RNA mensager III-RNAr – RNA ribossome
a) I only b) III only
Which vitamin is/are fat-soluble? I.c) I and II only d) II and III only e) All are correct
6.5mEq/L b) 3.5mEq/L
.Vitamin E II.5 to 5.The most abundant metal ion in human body a) Iron b) Magnesium c) Aluminum d) Phosphorous e) Potassium
9.Vitamin K III.Vitamin B
a) I only b) III only c) I and II only d) II and III only e) All are correct
7-Which of the following vitamin is not water-soluble? a) Vitamin B b) Vitamin C c) Vitamin D d) Folic acid e) Riboflavin
8.0mEq/L c) 5.0 to 3.Which of the following is considered the normal potassium serum in human body? a) 2.0 to 7.
5mEq/L e) 3.5 to 7.Which of the following is considered normal sodium serum in human body? a) 35 to 47 mEq/L b) 147 to 150 mEq/L c) 135 to 147mEq/L d) 75 to 135 mEq/L e) 125 to 145 mEq/L
11.Which of the following hormone acts on cell wall? a) Insulin b) Prolactin c) Cortisol d) Estrogen e) Alanine
13.Which of the following is considered as essential vitamin for breast-feed babies? a) Vitamin A b) Vitamin B c) Vitamin C d) Vitamin D e) Vitamim E
10.What is correct regarding the formation of proteins? a) Formed by condensation of peptic bond
.0 to 6.Which of the following vitamins has tetrahydrofolate coenzyme activity based on its pteridine ring? a) Thiamine b) Vitamin D c) Vitamin K d) Folic acid e) Pyridoxine
Enzymes are catalyst because they are never altered during a reaction III.Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding enzymes? I-Enzymes are proteins II.Biological catalysts responsible for supporting almost all of the chemical reactions that maintain human life process: a) Nucleic acid b) Amino acids c) Carbohydrates d) Oligopeptides e) Enzymes
18.Michaelis-Menten theory describe the enzymatic reactions
a) I only b) III only
.b) Geometric sequence of amino acids c) The formation occurs by complexation of amino acids d) Proteins are formed from carbohydrates e) None of the above is right
15.Which is the strongest endogenous analgesic-pain producer in human body? a) Leukotriene b) Enkephalin c) Bradykinin d) Cytokine e) Angiotensin
16.Which of the following is considered the FIRST precursor of vitamin A formation? a) Retinoic acid b) Carotenoids c) Cobalt d) Calciferol e) Pantothenic acid
Correct statements regarding mutation may include: I.c) I and II only d) II and III only e) All are correct
19.Zwintter ion reacts with a substrate as: a) Neutral ion b) Proton acceptor ion c) Proton donor ion d) Anionic e) Cationic
20.DNAs III.Which pyrimidine base is not present in DNA? a) Thiamine b) Adenine c) Uracil d) Cytosine e) Guanine
22.Both DNAs and RNAs a) I only
.Cell division II.RNAs II.Change in DNA replication altering the gene a) I only b) III only c) I and II only d) II and III only e) All are correct
21.The codon sequence Adenine-Guanine-Cytosine-Uracil is seen in I.Change in genotype III.
Shaped network present in the cell between nucleus and cell wall: a) Ribossomes b) Endoplasmic reticulum c) Mitocondria d) Cell membrane e) Nucleotide
24.The Michaelis-Menten equation-Enzymatic reactions will appears ZERO order when: a) The substrate concentration is much smaller than Km b) When Km is much smaller than the substrate concentration c) When Vmax is much smaller than Km d) When Vmax is much larger than Km e) When Km approaches Vmax
25.False statement regarding vitamin D3 metabolism include: a) Vitamin C facilitates absorption of vitamin D3 in the liver b) Hydroxylation of D3 is in kidney c) Hydroxylation of is D3 in the liver d) Parathyroid hormone activate metabolism of vitamin D3 in the kidney e) Skin activates synthesis of vitamin D3 by sunlight
.b) III only c) I and II only d) II and III only e) All are correct
23.Which vitamin can be classified as hormone? a) Vitamin D b) Vitamin D3 c) Vitamin E d) Vitamin K e) Vitamin B12
Example of compound that is phospholipids include: a) Glycogen b) Leucine c) Lecithin d) Hyaluronic acid e) Phenylalanine
29.Hydrolysis of fixed oils may yields: a) Saturated + Unsaturated acids b) Glycerol + Fatty acids c) Glucose + Fatty acids d) Fatty acids + Triglycerides e) None of the above
28. addition of competitive inhibitor leads to: a) Increase the rate of reaction b) Decrease the rate of reaction c) Same rate of reaction d) Decrease rate and increase substrate concentration e) Decrease both rate and substrate concentration
30.Which of the following is the end product of AEROBIC reactions? a) Pyruvic acid
.In an enzymatic reaction.27.Which of the following is the end product of ANAEROBIC reactions? a) Pyruvic acid b) CO2 c) CO2 + H2O d) Lactic acid e) Proteins
b) CO2 c) CO2 + H2O d) Lactic acid e) Proteins
32.Which of the following is NOT an essential amino acid? a) Methionine b) Argenine c) Leucine d) Tryptophan e) Glycine
34.Which of the following is an essential amino acid? a) Histadiol b) Cysteine c) Methionine d) Aspartene e) Glutamine
33.Which of the following is the end product of proteins? a) Amino acids b) Urea c) Uric acid d) Purine e) Phosphorous
35-Purine may be the end product of: a) Amines b) Amino acids c) Uric acid d) Proteins e) Enzymes
Which of the following is the main carbohydrate of body blood? a) Sorbitol b) Mannitol c) Frutase d) Glucase e) Lactase
38.The conversion of β-carotene to vitamin A is carried out in: a) Pancreas
.Which of the following is the only disaccharide NOT synthesized during human metabolism? a) Lactose b) Maltase c) Fructose d) Glucose e) Cellulose
40.The presence of mitochondria in the living cell can be detected by: a) Neutral reagent b) Jenus green c) Morquis reagent d) Methylene blue e) Phenolphthalein
39.Enzymes of Kreb’s cycle II.In the typical cell.Enzymes of fatty acid cycle a) I only b) III only c) I and II only d) II and III only e) All are correct
37.36. mitochondria may contain: I.Enzymes of respiratory pathway as well cytochrome oxidase III.
b) Spleen c) Liver d) Adrenal cortex e) Nefrons
41. e) All are correct
.The metabolic degradation of hemoglobin takes place principally in: a) RBCs b) Reticulum Endothelial c) Liver d) Kidney e) Pancreas
43.Keratin is an example of: a) Protein b) Peptin c) Scleroprotein d) Albuminoid e) C and D are correct
42.+ mol.Non-protein portion of hemoglobin consist of: a) Ferrous complex of protophorphirin IX b) 3 Heme unit surrounding an iron atom c) 4 Heme unit surrounding a ferric ion d) 4 Pyrrole rings linked through a Fe³.Degradation of hemoglobin in mammal involves: a) Formation of bile pigments b) Formation of urobilinogen c) Formation of biliverdin d) Non-oxidative cleavage of phosphirin ring e) All are correct
Protein disnaturation may happen due to: a) Exposure to air b) Shaking c) Increase in temperature d) Chemical reagents e) All are correct
48.Which of the following enzyme is responsible for the synthesis of DNA? a) DNA polymerase b) DNA gyrase c) DNA ligase d) RNA transferase e) None of the above
49.Which pyrimidine base is not present in RNA sequence? a) Uracil b) Thiamine c) Cytosine d) Guanine
.45.Which of the following is an important enzymatic reaction involved in muscular contraction? a) Glucose-6-phosphatase reaction b) Glycogenolysis c) ATP-Creatine phosphokinase reaction d) Enolase reaction e) Glucogenolysis
47.Which of the following amino acid is an important precursor of hemoglobin? a) Alanine b) Proline c) Leucine d) Glycin e) Histadin
Which of the following is the only polysaccharide NOT synthesized during human metabolism? a) Maltase b) Sucrose c) Glucose d) Cellulose e) Frutose
52.Which of the following is the predominant intracellular element? a) Sodium b) Magnesium c) Potassium d) Calcium e) Phosphorous
51.Enzymes that catalyze the transfer of one group to other group is called: a) Oxidoreductase enzymes b) Transferase enzymes
.Sucrose is a disaccharide formed from two molecules of monosaccharide: a) Glucose + frutose b) Glucose + glucose c) Glucose + galactose d) Frutose + frutose e) Galactose + galactose
54.Heparin synthesized in the body and can be classified as: a) Monosaccharideo b) Polysaccharide c) Disaccharide d) Oligosaccharide e) Amino acid
The formation of glucose from non-carbohydrates sources such as lactate and Kreb’s cycle metabolites is an anabolic process called: a) Glycogenolysis b) Glycolysis c) Glycogenesis d) Gluconeogenesis e) None of the above
57.GLYCOGENESIS is a process characterized by: a) The breakdown of glycogen into glucose b) The transformation of glucose to glycogen c) The breakdown of sugar into pyruvate d) The breakdown of sugar into lactate e) The formation of glucose from non-carbohydrates sources
58.Consume of energy II.Which of the following reactions is controlled by the pancreatic hormone INSULIN? a) Glycogenolysis b) Glycolysis c) Glycogenesis
.Release stored energy from carbohydrates III-Glycogenolysis is an example of carbohydrates catabolism reaction a) I only b) III only c) I and II only d) II and III only e) All are correct
56.Catabolism of carbohydrates is a process characterized by: I.c) Hydrolyses enzymes d) Isomerasis enzymes e) Lyasis enzymes
Which of the following vitamin is derivated from the amino acid tryptophan? a) Thiamine
.d) Gluconeogenesis e) Anaerobic glycolysis
59.Beriberi is caused by deficiency of which of the following vitamins? a) Thiamine b) Riboflavin c) Niacin d) Pyridoxine e) Folic acid
62.Element found in the center of vitamin B12-cyanocobalamin: a) Iron b) Zinc c) Cobalt d) Magnesium e) Calcium
61.Which of the following is the most important vitamin in pregnancy? a) Cyanocobalamin b) Folic acid c) Pantothenic acid d) Pyridoxine e) Niacin
63.Correct statements regarding RNA messenger may include: a) Carrier activated aminoacids to the ribosome b) Specifies aminoacids sequence templant for protein synthesis c) Enable DNA fragments to be joined d) Synthesize RNA e) Carrier the genetic information for all the other cells
Vitamin that requires an intrinsic factor to be carried out to ileum in order to suffer absorption from the small intestine: a) Cyanocobalamin b) Folic acid c) Pantothenic acid d) Pyridoxine e) Niacin
66.Which of the following vitamin has its chemical structure related to PABA? a) Cyanocobalamin b) Folic acid c) Pantothenic acid d) Pyridoxine e) Niacin
65.Widely used in pharmaceutical formulations as antioxidant agent
a) I only b) III only
.Correct statements concerning vitamin E include: I.b) Riboflavin c) Niacin d) Pyridoxine e) Folic acid
64.Which of the following vitamin is the precursor of collagen synthesis? a) Vitanin A b) Vitamin B c) Vitamin C d) Vitamin D e) Vitamin E
67.It is a lipid soluble vitamin stored in adipose tissues II.It is absorbed from the small intestine III.
A : Iron is the most abundant metal ion in human body. Sodium is the most abundant element outside the cells therefore in the interstitial fluid. RNA transferase. 3.D : The most essential vitamin for breast-feed babies is vitamin D. 7.B : Interstitial fluid is situated between parts or in the interspaces of a tissue therefore outside the cells.A : Insulin is a hormone that acts on cell wall 13.Proteins are formed from: a) Purines b) Carbohydrates c) Amino acids d) Monosaccharides e) Nucleosides
CORRECT ANSWERS 1.E : All.C : Vitamin A. 4.Which of the following compounds are considered the building blocks of nucleic acids? a) Nucleotides b) Nucleosides c) Monosaccharides d) Purines e) Amino acids
69.5 to 5.C : DNA ligase is an enzyme that enables DNA fragments from different sources to be joined.A : Glycine reaction is a reaction mediated by acetyl Coenzyme A.C : Normal sodium serum in human body range between 135 to 147mEq/L 11. D.0mEq/L. 12. E and K are fat-soluble vitamins. 8.A : Arginine is an essential amino acid responsible for N. 10.c) I and II only d) II and III only e) All are correct
68. RNA mensager and RNA ribosome are types of RNAs.B : Normal potassium serum in human body range between 3. 9. 2.D : Folic acid is a vitamin B9 that has tetrahydrofolate coenzyme activity based on its pteridine ring.C : All vitamins B and vitamin C are water-soluble.
. 5. 6.
E : Glycine is not an essential amino acid. 25-B : Vitamin D3 man be classified as hormone 26.E : Enzymes are biological catalysts responsible for supporting almost all of the chemical reactions that maintain human life process.C : Addition of competitive inhibitor in an enzymatic reaction does not alter the rate of reaction.C : Uracil is only present in RNAs.A: Maltase and cellulose are both carbohydrates not synthesized during human metabolism. however maltase is disaccharide and cellulose is a polysaccharide carbohydrate. 23.A: Zwintter ion is a neutral ion with two charges. 21.
. 40.B : The metabolic degradation of hemoglobin takes place principally in reticulum Endothelial. 36. 34. 28.C : Lecithin is a phospholipid 29.C: Purine is the end product of uric acid. enzymes of respiratory pathway as well cytochrome oxidase and enzymes of fatty acid cycle are present in the mitochondria structure of the cell. 41.B : Glycerol and fatty acids are the end products of hydrolysis of fixed oils.A : The codon sequence Adenine-Guanine-Cytosine-Uracil is seen in RNAs only. 18. They are called catalyst because are never altered during a reaction.B : Jenus green is a laboratory test that detects the presence of mitochondria in the living cell 39. 32. 19.C : Histadiol.14. and accelerate reactions by lowering the energy of the transition state. 15.D : Pyruvic acid is the end product of anaerobic reactions 31.B : Endoplasmic reticulum is a shaped network present in the cell between nucleus and cell wall. 24. 35.E : The Michaelis-Menten equation-Enzymatic reactions will appears ZERO order when Km approaches Vmax and FIRST order when the substrate concentration is smaller than Km. DNAs differ only in the presence of Thiamine instead of uracil.E : Enzymes are proteins or biological catalysts responsible for supporting almost all of the chemical reactions. usually in a single gene.D : Glucose is the main carbohydrate present in the human blood.C: β-carotene is the precursor of vitamin A. 38. 16.D : Mutation is a permanent transmissible change in the genetic material. 22.E : Keratin is a scleroprotein that also can be called albuminoid. that reacts neutrally with a substrate. aspartame and glutamine are examples of non-essential amino acids 33. 37. 20. 30. 17. cysteine.C : Bradykinin is the strongest endogenous analgesic-pain producer in human body. positive and negative.C : CO2 and H2O are the end products of aerobic reactions.A: Vitamin C does not interfere with absorption of vitamin D3 in the liver. The transformation reaction happens in the liver by oxidation.B : Vitamin A is formed from retinoic acid that is formed from beta-carotene.B : Urea is the end product of proteins.E: Enzymes of Kreb’s cycle. 27. Michaelis-Menten theory describes the enzymatic reactions. 42.A : Proteins are formed by a reaction between amino acids called condensation between peptid bonds.
B: Glycogenesis is the transformation of glucose to glycogen. however maltase is disaccharide and cellulose is a polysaccharide carbohydrate.B: Heparin is a polysaccharide carbohydrate naturally synthesized in the body.B : Folic acid is a vitamin that has its chemical structure similar to PABA structure.C : Potassium is the most predominant intracellular element while sodium is the most predominant extracellular element. during pregnancy and in breast-feeding.E : The degradation of hemoglobin in mammal involve formation of bile pigments.C: Vitamin C is the precursor of collagen synthesis.A: DNA polymerase is the enzyme responsible for the synthesis of DNA.C: B12-cyanocobalamin has a cobalt molecule in the center of its structural molecule.D : Glycin is a non-essential amino acid and important precursor of hemoglobin.A: Beriberi is caused by deficiency of thiamine.A: Sucrose is a disaccharide formed from two molecules of monosaccharide. It is widely used in pharmaceutical formulations as antioxidant agent 68.C : Niacin is derivate from the amino acid tryptophan. 67.C: Proteins are formed from amino acids by condensation of peptide bond
.D : Catabolism of carbohydrates is a process characterized by release of energy stored from carbohydrates.D: Maltase and cellulose are both carbohydrates not synthesized during human metabolism. 59.C : Glycogenesis is an anabolic reaction that transforms glucose to glycogen in the liver and it is controlled by insulin. increase in temperature and addition of chemical reagents in.B: Transferase enzymes catalyzes reactions involved in the transfer of one group to other group 55. 50. 64. formation of biliverdin and non-oxidative cleavage of phorphirin ring 44. 63. 52.A: Nucleotides are considered the building blocks of nucleic acids. 62.E : Protein derivative products are very sensible and may suffer disnaturation by exposure to air. 53. formation of urobilinogen. Glycogenolysis and glycolysis are examples of carbohydrates catabolism reaction 56.B: RNA messenger specifies amino acids sequence templant for protein synthesis. 69. 61.A: Cyanocobalamin is not properly absorbed from the gastro intestinal tract therefore it requires an intrinsic factor to be carried out to ileum in order to suffer absorption from the small intestine 66. glucose and fructose 54. It happens in the liver and skeletal muscle from glucose consumed in the diet its synthesis is controlled by the pancreatic hormone insulin 58.D : Gluconeogenesis is the formation of glucose from non-carbohydrates sources such as lactate and Kreb’s cycle metabolites is an anabolic process called.A : The non-protein portion of hemoglobin consists of ferrous complex of protophorphirin IX.C : ATP-Creatine phosphokinase reaction is the most important enzymatic reaction in muscular contraction.E: Vitamin E is a lipid soluble vitamin stored in adipose tissues and well absorbed from the small intestine.B: Folic acid is one of the most important vitamin to be taken by women that is planning to get pregnant.43.B : Thiamine is the only pyrimidine base not present in RNA sequence. 45. 51. 49. 46. 65. 57. 60. 47. thiamine is only present in DNAs molecule. 48. shaking.
cause blood vessel wall relaxation. e. c.) 1 Folic acid has tetrahydrofolate coenzyme activity which is based on the: a. pyrimidine ring. pteridine ring. purine ring. c.: من مواضيع عمر بن الخطاب 5000 سؤال للبورد الكندي رد مع اقتباس رد مع اقتباس 01-08-2008 09:23 AM #3 عمر بن الخطاب عضــــو
: تاريخ التسجيلAug 2008 القامة : كينيا : النوعMale 22 : المشاركات 0 : معدل التقييم عمر بن الخطابis an unknown quantity at this point عمر بن الخطاب غير متواجد حاليا
(3) Biomedical Sciences (25%. pyridine ring. transmit pain impulses. d. are found only in the central nervous system. 2 Enkephalins are peptides that: a. e. d. have narcotic antagonist activity. exert actions resembling those of opiates.
. b. pyrazine ring. b.
I and II only d. c. I only b. changed chemically in a reaction. Vibrio. a catalyst. retinol. c. a. 7 The anatomical divisions of the small intestine include the: I jejunum. riboflavin. retinoic acid. c. b. b. calciferol. an oligopeptide. 6 Identify the correct pathway of blood flow from the small intestine to the liver: a. d. 4 An enzyme is: a. d. mesenteric vein ? hepatic artery. a nucleic acid. II and III only
. haemorrhoidal vein? inferior vena cava. III only c. III duodenum. 5 Diphtheria is caused by: a. e. e. haemorrhoidal vein ? portal vein. Shigella. II ileum. gastric vein ? hepatic vein. b. e. b. Corynebacterium. d. mesenteric vein ? portal vein. Plasmodium. c. Neisseria. unable to hydrolyse polysaccharides. thiamine. e.3 ?-Carotene is the precursor of: a. d.
20 L. 9 In which of the following organs or tissues is the action of acetylcholine NOT described as "nicotinic"? I Motor endplates of skeletal muscle II Celiac ganglia III Circular muscles of the iris a. I and II only d. b. II and III only e. b. I. 15 L. dopamine in the nigrostriatal pathway. a. acetylcholine in the motor cortex. 5 L. I. e. II and III 10 The blood volume of the average adult is approximately: a.e. III only c. III only c. c. c. III Legionnaires' disease. e. serotonin in the brain stem. II and III 8 Parkinson's disease is characterized by a deficiency of: a. d. d. II and III 12 Common etiologic agents of community-acquired pneumonia include:
. noradrenaline in the spinal motor neurons. gamma amino butyric acid (GABA) in inhibitory pathways. 11 Diseases which are viral infections include: I poliomyelitis. II and III only e. I. I only b. I only b. I and II only d. 25 L. II rabies. 10 L.
a. Pharmaceutical Sciences (55%) 15 If the pKa of phenobarbital is 7.4? a. III Mycoplasma pneumoniae. II and III 13 Gamma aminobutyric acid (GABA) is: I the major inhibitory neurotransmitter in the brain. lymphocytes and eosinophils are rarely involved in its development. a. 90%
. I only b. I. b. EXCEPT: a. II and III 14 All of the following statements are true regarding chronic inflammation. III only c. II found primarily in interneurons. it may occur with autoimmune diseases such as rheumatoid arthritis. III synthesized from glycine. large numbers of macrophages are found in the infiltrate. e. it may develop as a granulomatous inflammation. 10% b. d. I and II only d. 50% d. I. II and III only e. II Haemophilus influenzae. 30% c. III only c.I Escherichia coli. what approximate fraction of the drug would be ionized at pH 8. I only b. it may be caused by persistent infections such as tuberculosis. c. II and III only e.4. I and II only d.
glutamate conjugates. the eutectic temperature is the freezing point of the drug solution. I and II only d. III only c. the liquid must be frozen to below the eutectic temperature. is protein bound. e. b. c. has a small volume of distribution. II and III only e. glucuronide conjugates. has a large volume of distribution. 19 Mercapturic acid derivatives in phase II metabolism can result from reactions of: a. III the intraluminal pressure. water is removed from the frozen mixture by sublimation. b. LaPlace's law relates the tension achieved in a blood vessel wall to: I the length of the vessel. I only b. 100% 16 All of the following statements concerning the lyophilization of a parenteral product are correct. a. sulfate conjugates. glycine conjugates. e. glutathione conjugates. d. the solute usually forms an amorphous glass. d. c. is acidic but not protein bound. II and III 18 Concentration of a drug in breast milk exceeds that in plasma. b. d. II the radius of vessel. I. there is minimal loss of activity in heat labile materials. c. EXCEPT: a. 17 In cardiovascular physiology. e. if the drug: a.e. is basic.
S. II myoglobin. 22 Carbon monoxide binds to: I hemoglobin. pyrrolidine and piperidine rings. I only b.20 Tetrodotoxin is a selective inhibitor of the: a. include: I ascorbic acid. chloride ion channel. e. I. c. II and III 24 Diazepam Injection U. II sodium bisulfite. III only c. I only b. d. II and III only e. I. calcium ion channel. III only c. I and II only d. a. 21 Atropine is the primary example of an important class of muscarinic antagonists which are esters of tropic acid and which contain: a. d. which mechanistically act as reducing agents. sodium ion channel. pyrrolidine and piperazine rings. III cytochrome oxidase. b. aniline and piperazine rings. nicotinic ion channel. e. potassium ion channel. b. a.P
. II and III 23 Antioxidants. aniline and pyrrolidine rings. I and II only d. aniline and piperidine rings. II and III only e. c. III citric acid.
affected by the rate of absorption only. when the substrate concentration is much smaller than Km. enzymatic activities. c.5% Water for Injection qs 100% In the formulation given above. c. They are present in these structures specifically because of their: a. when Vmax is much larger than Km. when Vmax is much smaller than Km. the parameter “Cmax” is: a. e. electron-donating effects. when Km is much smaller than the substrate concentration. the following ingredient(s) function(s) as a cosolvent(s): I ethanol. II propylene glycol. d. e. sizes and shapes. when Km approaches Vmax. a. b. III only c. d. c.Diazepam 5 mg/ml Ethanol 10% Propylene glycol 40% Benzyl alcohol 1. affected by neither rate nor extent of absorption. electron-withdrawing effects. 26 The Michaelis-Menten equation will appear first order: a. 27 With respect to bio*****alence. III benzyl alcohol.
. tautomeric activities. b. b. I. affected by the extent of absorption only. II and III only e. I only b. I and II only d. II and III 25 Both isoxazole and oxazole rings are found as substituents in some bacteriostatic sulfanilamides.
d.d. rotamers. Hydroxyls 1 and 2 29 The above structures are related to one another as: a. e. to protect the drug from stomach acid. 31 Reasons for using coatings on tablets include all of the following. c. 4. bioisosteres. e. to improve the appearance of the tablet. Hydroxyl 4 e. 6. positional (structural) isomers. 5. 9.8 h. The mean half-life is: a. to increase the drug's release rate. Hydroxyl 1 b. to mask the odor of the drug. the only significant parameter. e. d.0 h. d. Hydroxyl 2 c. b. c. 32 Which of the following factors would be important in determining the concentration of drug that would be reached in the cerebrospinal fluid for treatment of meningitis? I Oil/water partition coefficient
. 5. b. enantiomers.0 h. EXCEPT: a. 5.4 h. to mask the taste of the drug. e. affected by both rate and extent of absorption. b. 30 Five subjects given a single intravenous dose of a drug have the following elimination half-lives: 3. 5 and 4 h (hours).0 h. c. homologs. 28 Which of the hydroxyls in the compound above is a tertiary alcohol? a. 6. Hydroxyl 3 d.
Binding agents may be added dry or in solution. II the presence of surfactants in the formulation. III only c. II and III only e. I only b. Disintegrants draw water into the tablet causing it to burst.II Binding to plasma protein III pKa of the drug a. b.
. Hygroscopicity d. Diluents are fillers to add bulk to the tablet. I and II only d. c. a. d. II and III only e. I. II and III 35 Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding tablet formulation? a. III the type of ointment base. e. Condensation 34 Physicochemical factors affecting the rate and extent of percutaneous drug absorption include: I the partition coefficient of the drug molecule. Deliquescence b. Glidants promote the flow of materials during compression. Lubricants help the patient to swallow the tablet more easily. I only b. II and III 33 Which of the following terms indicates a loss of moisture? a. 36 Structure-activity studies of cholinergic drugs indicate that: I maximum activity is achieved when the quaternary nitrogen is three carbons removed from the ester oxo group. I and II only d. Polymorphism e. I. Efflorescence c. III only c.
Nitrofurantoin c. III only c. greater than normal drug accumulation would occur in patients with moderate renal failure. e. a patient with renal function 20% of normal should receive: a. d. 40 Select the drug whose major metabolites have therapeutically
. a. Methenamine d. Phenazopyridine e. II and III 37 Which of the following is an azo dye? a. entero-hepatic recycling is significant.II structures which display a quasi-ring conformation exhibit muscarinic activity. d. III one methyl group of the trimethylammonium group can be replaced by an ethyl group with only slight loss of activity. I. I only b. 125 mg q12h. e. 31. the drug is not bound to plasma proteins. II and III only e. the drug is extensively metabolized. c. c.5 mg q6h. 75 mg q6h. I and II only d.25 mg q6h. Hexachlorophene b. 39 Approximately 50% of dicloxacillin is excreted unchanged in the urine. b. Nalidixic acid 38 If the total body clearance of a drug is 200 mL/min in a normal healthy adult and the renal clearance is 10 mL/min then one may assume that: a. the drug is concentrated in adipose tissue. 25 mg q6h. If the normal dosage schedule for dicloxacillin is 125 mg q6h. 62. b.
significant pharmacological activity: a. oxazepam. b. nitrazepam. c. diazepam. d. triazolam. e. clonazepam. 41 The major pathway for the biotransformation of the following compound is by hydrolysis. Identify the site which would be most susceptible to hydrolysis. a. A b. B c. C d. D e. E 42 Biceps muscles are part of: I the arm. II the thigh. III the rib cage. a. I only b. III only c. I and II only d. II and III only e. I, II and III 43 The mechanism of antipsychotic effect of phenothiazines is thought to be due to: a. improvement of cholinergic transmission. b. blockade of catecholamine re-uptake. c. blockade of dopamine receptors. d. blockade of enkephalinergic neurons. e. prolactin release. 44 Mechanisms of drug interactions with acetylsalicylic acid (ASA) include: a. induction of microsomal enzymes.
b. inhibition of microsomal enzymes. c. inhibition of liposomal enzymes. d. displacement of other drugs bound to serum albumin. e. enhanced platelet aggregation. 45 All of the following drugs will increase the heart rate directly or by reflex when injected intravenously into a young healthy adult, EXCEPT: a. isoproterenol. b. histamine. c. phentolamine. d. phenylephrine. e. atropine. 46 Which of the following diuretics is used to block the Na±H+ exchange system of the renal tubule? a. Furosemide b. Hydrochlorothiazide c. Spironolactone d. Acetazolamide e. Amiloride 47 Atropine poisoning can be recognized by all of the following signs or symptoms, EXCEPT: a. dry skin. b. flushed appearance. c. delirium and restlessness. d. mydriasis. e. diarrhea. 48 The organophosphates commonly found in insecticides are thought to act by which of the following mechanisms? a. Combining with acetylcholine b. Potentiating the action of acetylcholinesterase c. Forming a very stable complex with acetylcholinesterase d. Reacting at the cholinergic receptor e. Preventing the release of acetylcholine from the nerve ending
49 The skeletal structure of the hipbone includes the: I ilium. II ischium. III pubis. a. I only b. III only c. I and II only d. II and III only e. I, II and III 50 Pernicious anemia is: a. due to dietary deficiency of vitamin B12. b. prevented by oral administration of a vitamin B12 supplement. c. treated by parenteral administration of folic acid. d. treated by parenteral administration of vitamin B12. e. caused by dietary iron deficiency. 51 The optic disk is also called the: a. blind spot. b. cornea. c. iris. d. pupil. e. macula lutea. 52 Acarbose smooths and lowers: a. postprandial blood glucose levels by blocking absorption of carbohydrates. b. postprandial blood glucose levels by delaying absorption of carbohydrates. c. preprandial blood glucose levels by blocking absorption of carbohydrates. d. preprandial blood glucose levels by delaying absorption of carbohydrates. e. preprandial and postprandial blood glucose levels by blocking absorption of carbohydrates. 53 Autoimmune disorders include which of the following?
Travellers' diarrhea. chronic alcoholism. I only b. III Orthoclone is a human immunoglobulin product. is to receive lithium therapy with a regimen of lithium carbonate 600 mg q8h. II and III 54 Acute hemorrhagic gastritis is commonly seen with: a. I only b. I. The total body clearance of lithium is 0. c.44 mL/s (1. III only c. I and II only d. II and III only e.I Graves' disease II Systemic Lupus Erythematosus III Osteoarthritis a. e. pylori bacterial infections. b. a 23 year-old female. 55 True statements regarding the use of monoclonal antibodies include which of the following? I Flu-like symptoms commonly occur at the start of therapy. II and III only e. 8 b. carcinoma of the colon. d. I. H. carcinoma of the stomach. I and II only d. III only c. a. II T cells are blocked from initiating the rejection process. II and III Questions 56 to 57 inclusive refer to the following: KJ.6 L/h) and the biological half-life is 18 h. 56 The number of millimoles of lithium (Li+1) that KJ will receive with each dose is: a. The molecular weight of lithium carbonate (Li2CO3) is 74. 16
II and III 59 In some parenteral formulations. b.c. III include the aldosterone antagonists. 24 d. d. II may cause intracellular alkalosis. e. 16 c. III only
. a solubilizer. 24 d. 32 e. I and II only d. an emulsifier. 48 58 The fraction of bound receptors in a well-defined drug-receptor binding system is determined by: I the equilibrium drug-receptor dissociation constant. an antioxidant. a cosolvent. 48 57 The number of milli-*****alents of lithium that KJ will receive with each dose is: a. a. 32 e. II the free drug concentration. 8 b. sodium metabisulphite is included as: a. I only b. c. II and III only e. 60 Potassium-sparing diuretics: I exert their effect in the proximal tubule. I only b. III only c. a. III the total receptor concentration. a chelator. I.
III The information carried in the gene sequence is transferred to RNA. II and III 63 Which of the following agents may cause pulmonary toxicity? I Amiodarone II Bleomycin III Ramipril a. II and III only
. II and III only e. I. II The genetic information contained in the nucleotide sequence of mRNA is translated into a protein structure. I. II and III 62 True statements regarding transcription include which of the following? I The enzyme responsible for initiating transcription is RNA polymerase. III only c. a. I and II only d. II and III only e. III is useful in the treatment of glaucoma. I only b. I only b. I. I and II only d. I and II only d.c. I only b. I and II only d. II and III only e. III only c. II has carbonic anhydrase inhibitor activity. III only c. II and III 61 Dorzolamide: I has a sulfonylurea structure. a.
e. c. lisinopril. enhanced tissue accumulation. e. chemical ionization (CI). e. quinapril. d. atmospheric pressure chemical ionization (APCI).
. reduced renal clearance. b. b. Lamotrigine 66 Once daily dosing of aminoglycosides is effective due to: a. Phenobarbital e. b. II and III 64 An angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor for which both renal elimination and metabolism are important in the elimination of the drug and its active metabolites is: a. electrospray ionization (ESI). fast atom bombardment (FAB) ionization. d. prolonged residence of the antibiotic in the body. c. Warfarin b.e. we respect the rights of others to make choices. Cotrimoxazole c. Pharmacy Practice (20%) 68 The ethical principle of veracity requires that: a. electron impact (EI) ionization. 67 The method of ionization of mass spectrometry which results in well-established diagnostic fragmentation patterns that are useful in the identification of compounds of unknown structure is called: a. fosinopril. I. higher peak-trough differences. enalapril. Amoxicillin d. ramipril. post-antimicrobial effect. d. c. 65 Which of the following agents is NOT associated with the toxic effect of Stevens-Johnson syndrome? a.
I and II only d. have recently become available. we do good to patients. depression. we act with fairness. 69 MT. d. a. and drug D). I. hypertension. constipation.b. headache. the hospital must consider a drug's efficacy. associated workload. He is well-trained and welcomes new learning opportunities. without deception. has worked in a community pharmacy for 5 years. drug C. b. EXCEPT: a. III provide support and followup as required. I only b. now wanting to delegate a new technical project to him. Magnesium hydroxide d. II and III only e. Calcium sulfate e. III only c. Several new antifungal IV drugs (drug A. 72 In deciding what drugs are appropriate for its formulary. II and III 70 Which of the following antacids has cathartic side-effects? a. we act with honesty. His manager. should: I discuss suggested steps to accomplish the project. e. and acquisition cost. a pharmacy technician. all with equal efficacy. II negotiate a time schedule for completion of the project. d. e. c. we avoid. drug B. remove or prevent harm. Aluminum silicate 71 Side effects that may be expected to occur from the administration of oral contraceptives include all of the following. fluid retention. c. Calcium carbonate b. Dihydroxyaluminum sodium carbonate c.
Drug B.50QID14B$2. I. I only b. Statement of changes in financial position d. Drug E. e. which has been available for several years. III only c. Drug A. Income statement e. Data for the medications is as follows: DrugCost/DayDosing FrequencyTreatment Duration (days)A$2. I and II only d. d. true statements include: I tolerance is rarely associated with isosorbide dinitrate. Statement of investments c. a.25QID7 The most appropriate choice for the hospital is: a. b. aa.25BID7E$2 . II tolerance does not occur in patients who are concurrently on metoprolol.Currently the hospital stocks drug E. ac. II and III 74 Which financial statement could be used to determine the total value of prescription drug sales for a pharmacy during the course of a year? a.25once daily14C$5. Balance sheet b. II and III only e. c. b. 73 When evaluating patients with angina for possible development of nitrate tolerance. Drug C. Statement of equity 75 The Latin abbreviation for "before meals" is: a. Drug D.
. III tolerance is dependent upon the administration schedule of nitrate medication.00BID7D$2.
II is a macrolide antibiotic. Bacteriostatic Water for Injection (United States Pharmacopeial standard). Sterile Water for Injection (United States Pharmacopeial standard). d. autocratic. cc. a. III only c. 12.5% w/w.7% w/w. 78 Water used for reconstitution of an additive for a large volume parenteral should be: a. 25. e. 20. d. 76 Erythromycin: I is effective against gram-positive cocci.0% w/w. e. I. c.0% w/w.c. sterile water. b. I and II only d. 16. e.8% w/w. I only b. 79 The style of management in which the owner of a pharmacy emphasizes the development of detailed policies and written procedures for employees to observe at all times is referred to as: a. c. II and III 77 Aerosol OT (AOT) is used in veterinary medicine as a laxative. distilled water. b. d. pc. ic.
. III can increase gastrointestinal tract motility. Water for Injection (United States Pharmacopeial standard). II and III only e. 23. the concentration of AOT in the solution is: a.25 g/mL). If 250 g of AOT is dissolved in 1 000 mL of glycerin (density of glycerin is 1.
adrenaline. hypoglycemia. c. analgesic agent. 81 Sulfinpyrazone is used as a(n): a. skeletal muscle weakness. are effective because they are uricosuric agents. are more effective when given with allopurinol. randomized controlled trial conducted over 2 years. e. 82 In the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis. d. the desired clinical outcome (i. peptic ulceration. c. consultative. e. b. c. specifically reverse the cause of the disease. b. EXCEPT: a. only 15% obtain the same clinical benefit. acetazolamide. anti-inflammatory agent. e. 83 Prednisone may produce all of the following effects. diphenhydramine. salbutamol. uricosuric agent. prevention of a serious cardiovascular event) with a new drug is achieved in 25% of the study sample. stop and often reverse the progressive joint involvement. c. d. participative. c. 80 The shock and airway edema of anaphylaxis are best treated with: a. 84 In an adequately powered. b. d. lowered resistance to infection. bureaucratic. sodium retention. antipyretic agent. e. d.b. provide only analgesic and anti-inflammatory effects. The relative risk reduction achieved with the new drug
. aminophylline. b. agent which increases renal tubular reabsorption of uric acid. benevolent. e. the salicylates: a. d. In the patients who receive a placebo.e.
50%. reduction in leukocytes) with conventional therapy is seen in 0. 15%. 10%. sumatriptan may be used for the second headache. c. 20. only 0. 25%. e. 15. randomized controlled trial conducted over 3 years. c. 2000. e. 200. sumatriptan may be repeated. The maximum dosage in any 24 hour period is six tablets.over the study period is: a. ergotamine may be used. 86 The pharmacist fills a prescription for sumatriptan 100 mg tablets for a migraine patient. If no relief is achieved in two hours. a specific serious side effect (i. 40%.5% of the study sample. If the headache is relieved but another headache occurs eight hours later. e. In patients who receive a newly discovered drug. 85 In an adequately powered. b. If the sumatriptan does not relieve the headache within four hours. no other medication can be used for 24 hours. b. Based on these results. d. Appropriate information to provide to the patient includes which of the following? a. d. 87 Auxiliary labels which should be used on cotrimoxazole suspension include which of the following?
. the minimum number of patients that would have to receive the new drug for 3 years to statistically demonstrate the prevention of one episode of this side effect in at least one patient is: a.45% experience the same side effect. 150.e. d. If relief is not achieved. c. b.
I Shake well before using. II Take with plenty of fluids. III Exposure to sunlight may cause adverse reactions. a. I only b. III only c. I and II only d. II and III only e. I, II and III 88 A patient purchasing sublingual nitroglycerin tablets should be told to store the medication: a. in the refrigerator. b. in a plastic vial with a childproof cap. c. with the original cotton. d. in an amber glass bottle with a metal cap. e. in a warm, dry place. 89 Factors that determine bio*****alence of two brands of a drug include: I the taste of the preparations. II the physical appearance of the preparations. III pharmacokinetic parameters of the preparations. a. I only b. III only c. I and II only d. II and III only e. I, II and III 90 Rx Timolol 0.25% drops Mitte: 15 mL Sig: gtt. i o.d. BID On the prescription label the instructions to the patient should read: a. apply one drop into both eyes twice daily. b. instil one drop into the left eye twice daily. c. instil one drop into the right eye twice daily.
d. shake well and instil one drop into the left eye twice daily. e. shake well and instil one drop into the right ear twice daily. 91 Following the ethical principle of nonmaleficence requires that pharmacists: a. respect the rights of patients to make choices. b. do good to patients, placing the benefit of the patient above all else. c. avoid, remove or prevent harm from people. d. act with fairness, allowing people access to pharmacy care. e. act with honesty, without deception. 92 Dopamine is useful in the treatment of cardiogenic shock because it: I selectively dilates renal and mesenteric vascular beds. II does not induce peripheral vasoconstriction. III decreases the force of myocardial contraction. a. I only b. III only c. I and II only d. II and III only e. I, II and III 93 The following prescription is received in a community pharmacy: Losec® 20 mg S: Take 1 tab BID M: 2 weeks Which of the following is correct labelling for this prescription? a. Take one tablet twice weekly (28 tablets). b. Take one tablet twice weekly (4 tablets). c. Take two tablets twice daily (56 tablets). d. Take one tablet twice daily (28 tablets). e. Take one tablet twice daily (14 tablets) The next section includes an EXAMPLE OF THE CASE SCENARIO FORMAT, in which there are two or more questions in sequence, that are related to the patient information provided in the (bolded) stem shown at the top of
the case. When choosing your response to questions in the case scenario format, you must base your choice on the patient-specific information presented in the case. Questions 94 to 96 inclusive refer to the following: SM is a 34 year old female who, while vacationing in Mexico, began prophylactic treatment for Travellers' Diarrhea. Shortly thereafter she complained of a feeling of fullness in her ears, black stools and a black tongue. SM’s previous history includes an allergy to sulfonamides. 94 Which of the following drugs could be the cause of SM's complaints? a. Bismuth subsalicylate b. Cotrimoxazole c. Doxycycline d. Amoxicillin e. Loperamide 95 Organisms commonly implicated in the cause of Traveller's Diarrhea include: I Bacteroides fragilis. II Escherichia coli. III Shigella sp. a. I only b. III only c. I and II only d. II and III only e. I, II and III 96 Drugs shown to be effective in the prevention of Travellers' Diarrhea, which might have been prescribed for SM include: I doxycycline. II cotrimoxazole. III amoxicillin. a. I only b. III only c. I and II only
d. e. pteridine ring. retinoic acid. b. and do not represent an exact model of the Evaluating Examination in terms of difficulty and proportion of topics. are found only in the central nervous system. pyridine ring. purine ring. cause blood vessel wall relaxation. They also illustrate a variety of the subject areas contained in the examination blueprint. However. Please note that these questions are reviewed and updated periodically. 4 An enzyme is:
. 3 ?-Carotene is the precursor of: *a. c. II and III Answers Evaluating Examination Sample Questions The following sample questions are not intended or designed to be a sample examination. pyrimidine ring. *b. individually. exert actions resembling those of opiates. 2 Enkephalins are peptides that: a. II and III only e. of the types of questions found on the Evaluating Examination. these questions are intended to be representative. b. thiamine. in format and phrasing style. e. retinol. Biomedical Sciences 1 Folic acid has tetrahydrofolate coenzyme activity which is based on the: a. c. d. calciferol. have narcotic antagonist activity. riboflavin.d. *d. c. I. pyrazine ring. e. transmit pain impulses.
haemorrhoidal vein? inferior vena cava. *II ileum. noradrenaline in the spinal motor neurons. e. *b. gamma amino butyric acid (GABA) in inhibitory pathways. haemorrhoidal vein ? portal vein. I. *d. Neisseria. 6 Identify the correct pathway of blood flow from the small intestine to the liver: a. c. Shigella. *e. c. 7 The anatomical divisions of the small intestine include the: *I jejunum. c. mesenteric vein ? hepatic artery. d. acetylcholine in the motor cortex. II and III only *e.
. b. Corynebacterium. d. a catalyst. serotonin in the brain stem. I and II only d. *III duodenum. dopamine in the nigrostriatal pathway. 5 Diphtheria is caused by: a. mesenteric vein ? portal vein. c. e. I only b. unable to hydrolyse polysaccharides. changed chemically in a reaction. Vibrio. an oligopeptide. II and III 8 Parkinson's disease is characterized by a deficiency of: a. b. e. Plasmodium. b. III only c. a.a. gastric vein ? hepatic vein. a nucleic acid. *d.
c. I only b. III only c. e. I only *b. I and II only d. 20 L.9 In which of the following organs or tissues is the action of acetylcholine NOT described as "nicotinic"? I Motor endplates of skeletal muscle II Celiac ganglia *III Circular muscles of the iris a. a. *III Mycoplasma pneumoniae. d. 11 Diseases which are viral infections include: *I poliomyelitis. II and III only
. I. b. I only b. II and III 12 Common etiologic agents of community-acquired pneumonia include: I Escherichia coli. III Legionnaires' disease. III only *c. a. 5 L. 10 L. 25 L. I and II only d. *II Haemophilus influenzae. *II rabies. II and III only e. I. II and III 10 The blood volume of the average adult is approximately: *a. I and II only *d. II and III only e. III only c. 15 L.
. I and II only d. c. III synthesized from glycine. it may be caused by persistent infections such as tuberculosis.e. 30% c. 100% 16 All of the following statements concerning the lyophilization of a parenteral product are correct. d. 90% e. *II found primarily in interneurons. EXCEPT: a. it may develop as a granulomatous inflammation. EXCEPT: a. I. b. II and III only e. III only *c. it may occur with autoimmune diseases such as rheumatoid arthritis. *d. Pharmaceutical Sciences 15 If the pKa of phenobarbital is 7.4? a. c. the liquid must be frozen to below the eutectic temperature. 50% *d. the eutectic temperature is the freezing point of the drug solution.4. what approximate fraction of the drug would be ionized at pH 8. *e. lymphocytes and eosinophils are rarely involved in its development. I. there is minimal loss of activity in heat labile materials. I only b. II and III 13 Gamma aminobutyric acid (GABA) is: *I the major inhibitory neurotransmitter in the brain. large numbers of macrophages are found in the infiltrate. b. a. the solute usually forms an amorphous glass. II and III 14 All of the following statements are true regarding chronic inflammation. 10% b.
is basic. a. e. sodium ion channel. 19 Mercapturic acid derivatives in phase II metabolism can result from reactions of: *a. is acidic but not protein bound. *II the radius of vessel. *b. if the drug: *a. d. b. III only c. II and III 18 Concentration of a drug in breast milk exceeds that in plasma. LaPlace's law relates the tension achieved in a blood vessel wall to: I the length of the vessel. nicotinic ion channel. c. c. e. glutamate conjugates. e. 21 Atropine is the primary example of an important class of muscarinic antagonists which are esters of tropic acid and which contain:
. chloride ion channel. 17 In cardiovascular physiology. b. glutathione conjugates. d. water is removed from the frozen mixture by sublimation. has a large volume of distribution. potassium ion channel. d. II and III only e. glucuronide conjugates. calcium ion channel. c. sulfate conjugates.e. I. I only b. is protein bound. glycine conjugates. I and II only *d. *III the intraluminal pressure. has a small volume of distribution. 20 Tetrodotoxin is a selective inhibitor of the: a.
a. 22 Carbon monoxide binds to: *I hemoglobin.P Diazepam 5 mg/ml Ethanol 10% Propylene glycol 40% Benzyl alcohol 1.
. b. II and III only e. I and II only d. III only c. II and III 23 Antioxidants. aniline and piperazine rings. I only b. I and II only d. aniline and pyrrolidine rings. *II sodium bisulfite. pyrrolidine and piperazine rings. III only *c.S. d. *e. a. which mechanistically act as reducing agents. a. pyrrolidine and piperidine rings. *II myoglobin. *III cytochrome oxidase. II and III only *e. III citric acid. c. II and III 24 Diazepam Injection U. include: *I ascorbic acid. I only b.5% Water for Injection qs 100% In the formulation given above. I. aniline and piperidine rings. the following ingredient(s) function(s) as a cosolvent(s): *I ethanol. I.
d. e. when Km approaches Vmax. III benzyl alcohol. a. the only significant parameter. *e. electron-donating effects. d. Hydroxyl 4
. 28 Which of the hydroxyls in the compound above is a tertiary alcohol? a. *d. the parameter “Cmax” is: a. sizes and shapes. when Vmax is much smaller than Km. II and III 25 Both isoxazole and oxazole rings are found as substituents in some bacteriostatic sulfanilamides. b. affected by neither rate nor extent of absorption. I only b. affected by the rate of absorption only. e. c. enzymatic activities. when Km is much smaller than the substrate concentration. I and II only d. b. c. 27 With respect to bio*****alence. when Vmax is much larger than Km. II and III only e. Hydroxyl 1 *b. III only *c. electron-withdrawing effects. tautomeric activities. They are present in these structures specifically because of their: a. Hydroxyl 2 c.*II propylene glycol. affected by the extent of absorption only. c. I. affected by both rate and extent of absorption. when the substrate concentration is much smaller than Km. Hydroxyl 3 d. 26 The Michaelis-Menten equation will appear first order: *a. b.
d. *d. 5. to increase the drug's release rate.e. d. III only c. *c. II and III only
. rotamers.0 h. bioisosteres. to improve the appearance of the tablet. 30 Five subjects given a single intravenous dose of a drug have the following elimination half-lives: 3. positional (structural) isomers. 5 and 4 h (hours).4 h. 9. to mask the odor of the drug. 32 Which of the following factors would be important in determining the concentration of drug that would be reached in the cerebrospinal fluid for treatment of meningitis? *I Oil/water partition coefficient *II Binding to plasma protein *III pKa of the drug a. 4. Hydroxyls 1 and 2 29 The above structures are related to one another as: a.0 h. I and II only d. 6. 31 Reasons for using coatings on tablets include all of the following. The mean half-life is: a. to mask the taste of the drug. to protect the drug from stomach acid. I only b. e.0 h. 5. c. EXCEPT: a.8 h. 5. *c. b. homologs. b. enantiomers. 6. e. b. e.
*e. Disintegrants draw water into the tablet causing it to burst. III only c. d. *III the type of ointment base. a. Deliquescence *b. II and III 35 Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding tablet formulation? a. II and III 33 Which of the following terms indicates a loss of moisture? a. 36 Structure-activity studies of cholinergic drugs indicate that: I maximum activity is achieved when the quaternary nitrogen is three carbons removed from the ester oxo group. I and II only d. *b. I only b. III only
. Efflorescence c. Lubricants help the patient to swallow the tablet more easily. Binding agents may be added dry or in solution. Condensation 34 Physicochemical factors affecting the rate and extent of percutaneous drug absorption include: *I the partition coefficient of the drug molecule. e. a. I. *II structures which display a quasi-ring conformation exhibit muscarinic activity. *II the presence of surfactants in the formulation. c. Hygroscopicity d. II and III only *e. *III one methyl group of the trimethylammonium group can be replaced by an ethyl group with only slight loss of activity. I only b. Glidants promote the flow of materials during compression. Diluents are fillers to add bulk to the tablet. Polymorphism e. I.
entero-hepatic recycling is significant. e. Hexachlorophene b. a patient with renal function 20% of normal should receive: a. Nalidixic acid 38 If the total body clearance of a drug is 200 mL/min in a normal healthy adult and the renal clearance is 10 mL/min then one may assume that: *a. 125 mg q12h. oxazepam. the drug is concentrated in adipose tissue. the drug is extensively metabolized. II and III 37 Which of the following is an azo dye? a.5 mg q6h. 62. *d. *c. II and III only e.
.25 mg q6h. clonazepam. b. Nitrofurantoin c. 31. 75 mg q6h. I. greater than normal drug accumulation would occur in patients with moderate renal failure. 25 mg q6h. b. the drug is not bound to plasma proteins.c. triazolam. c. d. b. 39 Approximately 50% of dicloxacillin is excreted unchanged in the urine. e. e. diazepam. If the normal dosage schedule for dicloxacillin is 125 mg q6h. I and II only *d. 40 Select the drug whose major metabolites have therapeutically significant pharmacological activity: a. Methenamine *d. c. Phenazopyridine e. d. nitrazepam.
I and II only d. *d. blockade of catecholamine re-uptake. C d. c. a. III the rib cage. blockade of dopamine receptors. b. III only *c. enhanced platelet aggregation. e. 44 Mechanisms of drug interactions with acetylsalicylic acid (ASA) include: a. 45 All of the following drugs will increase the heart rate directly or by reflex when injected intravenously into a young healthy adult. A b. induction of microsomal enzymes. improvement of cholinergic transmission. d. B *c. D e. prolactin release. *II the thigh.41 The major pathway for the biotransformation of the following compound is by hydrolysis. b. inhibition of microsomal enzymes. E 42 Biceps muscles are part of: *I the arm. I. I only b. e. a.
. II and III 43 The mechanism of antipsychotic effect of phenothiazines is thought to be due to: a. Identify the site which would be most susceptible to hydrolysis. *c. inhibition of liposomal enzymes. II and III only e. blockade of enkephalinergic neurons. displacement of other drugs bound to serum albumin.
mydriasis. Combining with acetylcholine b. isoproterenol. 46 Which of the following diuretics is used to block the Na±. Preventing the release of acetylcholine from the nerve ending 49 The skeletal structure of the hipbone includes the: *I ilium. Forming a very stable complex with acetylcholinesterase d. a. *d. phentolamine. e. Hydrochlorothiazide c. Furosemide b. c. Spironolactone *d. Potentiating the action of acetylcholinesterase *c. *II ischium. phenylephrine. Amiloride 47 Atropine poisoning can be recognized by all of the following signs or symptoms. III only
. Reacting at the cholinergic receptor e. c. *III pubis. Acetazolamide e. EXCEPT: a. *e. histamine. delirium and restlessness. I only b. 48 The organophosphates commonly found in insecticides are thought to act by which of the following mechanisms? a. diarrhea. b. flushed appearance. dry skin. d.EXCEPT: a. b.H+ exchange system of the renal tubule? a. atropine.
preprandial and postprandial blood glucose levels by blocking absorption of carbohydrates. c. c. preprandial blood glucose levels by blocking absorption of carbohydrates. II and III 50 Pernicious anemia is: a. due to dietary deficiency of vitamin B12. d. caused by dietary iron deficiency. I and II only d. e. prevented by oral administration of a vitamin B12 supplement.c. c. e. pupil. b. blind spot. I. iris. III only *c. postprandial blood glucose levels by delaying absorption of carbohydrates. *d. cornea. treated by parenteral administration of folic acid. 52 Acarbose smooths and lowers: a. 53 Autoimmune disorders include which of the following? *I Graves' disease *II Systemic Lupus Erythematosus III Osteoarthritis a. I only b. postprandial blood glucose levels by blocking absorption of carbohydrates. 51 The optic disk is also called the: *a. b. I and II only
. treated by parenteral administration of vitamin B12. macula lutea. preprandial blood glucose levels by delaying absorption of carbohydrates. II and III only *e. d. *b. e.
44 mL/s (1. pylori bacterial infections. III only *c. carcinoma of the stomach. H. 8
. The total body clearance of lithium is 0. II and III only e. c. chronic alcoholism.d. III Orthoclone is a human immunoglobulin product. e. II and III Questions 56 to 57 inclusive refer to the following: KJ. Travellers' diarrhea. a 23 year-old female. 16 c. 8 *b. 56 The number of millimoles of lithium (Li+1) that KJ will receive with each dose is: a. a. II and III only e. The molecular weight of lithium carbonate (Li2CO3) is 74. 32 e. d. carcinoma of the colon. 24 d. I and II only d. I only b. 48 57 The number of milli-*****alents of lithium that KJ will receive with each dose is: a. b. 55 True statements regarding the use of monoclonal antibodies include which of the following? *I Flu-like symptoms commonly occur at the start of therapy.6 L/h) and the biological half-life is 18 h. *II T cells are blocked from initiating the rejection process. I. II and III 54 Acute hemorrhagic gastritis is commonly seen with: *a. I. is to receive lithium therapy with a regimen of lithium carbonate 600 mg q8h.
*II has carbonic anhydrase inhibitor activity.
. I and II only d. c. III only c. a. *III include the aldosterone antagonists. b. *II the free drug concentration. II and III only e. a. e. 60 Potassium-sparing diuretics: I exert their effect in the proximal tubule.*b. a chelator. an antioxidant. 48 58 The fraction of bound receptors in a well-defined drug-receptor binding system is determined by: *I the equilibrium drug-receptor dissociation constant. I only b. sodium metabisulphite is included as: *a. d. I and II only *d. I only b. I. III only *c. II and III 61 Dorzolamide: I has a sulfonylurea structure. 24 d. II and III 59 In some parenteral formulations. III the total receptor concentration. a cosolvent. 16 c. an emulsifier. 32 e. *II may cause intracellular alkalosis. II and III only e. I. a solubilizer.
*II The genetic information contained in the nucleotide sequence of mRNA is translated into a protein structure. I. I only b. enalapril.*III is useful in the treatment of glaucoma. III only c. II and III 63 Which of the following agents may cause pulmonary toxicity? *I Amiodarone *II Bleomycin III Ramipril a. I and II only d. III only *c. *III The information carried in the gene sequence is transferred to RNA. I. a. I. II and III 62 True statements regarding transcription include which of the following? *I The enzyme responsible for initiating transcription is RNA polymerase. fosinopril. *b. I only b. II and III only e. II and III only e. I only b. I and II only *d. III only c. a. I and II only d.
. II and III only *e. II and III 64 An angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor for which both renal elimination and metabolism are important in the elimination of the drug and its active metabolites is: a.
*c. we do good to patients. we act with honesty. e. e. c. d. we act with fairness. *b. we avoid. has worked in a community pharmacy for 5 years. post-antimicrobial effect. d. enhanced tissue accumulation. remove or prevent harm. c. quinapril. reduced renal clearance. electrospray ionization (ESI). *b. fast atom bombardment (FAB) ionization. Amoxicillin d. His
. chemical ionization (CI). e. He is well-trained and welcomes new learning opportunities. Warfarin b. d. electron impact (EI) ionization. atmospheric pressure chemical ionization (APCI). 67 The method of ionization of mass spectrometry which results in well-established diagnostic fragmentation patterns that are useful in the identification of compounds of unknown structure is called: a. e. 65 Which of the following agents is NOT associated with the toxic effect of Stevens-Johnson syndrome? a. prolonged residence of the antibiotic in the body. d. Phenobarbital e. Pharmacy Practice 68 The ethical principle of veracity requires that: a. we respect the rights of others to make choices. b. a pharmacy technician. ramipril. without deception. Lamotrigine 66 Once daily dosing of aminoglycosides is effective due to: a. Cotrimoxazole *c.c. higher peak-trough differences. 69 MT. lisinopril.
25once daily14C$5. III only c. EXCEPT: a. Dihydroxyaluminum sodium carbonate *c. have recently become available. II and III only *e. I. e. drug C. headache. Magnesium hydroxide d. Currently the hospital stocks drug E. I and II only d. Data for the medications is as follows: DrugCost/DayDosing FrequencyTreatment Duration (days)A$2. Aluminum silicate 71 Side effects that may be expected to occur from the administration of oral contraceptives include all of the following. c. *II negotiate a time schedule for completion of the project.00BID7D$2. a. I only b. all with equal efficacy.50QID14B$2. *d.25QID7The most appropriate choice for the hospital is: a. and drug D). 72 In deciding what drugs are appropriate for its formulary. which has been available for several years. associated workload.manager. depression. II and III 70 Which of the following antacids has cathartic side-effects? a. hypertension. b. drug B. the hospital must consider a drug's efficacy. Drug A. should: *I discuss suggested steps to accomplish the project. and acquisition cost. Calcium sulfate e. constipation. now wanting to delegate a new technical project to him. *III provide support and followup as required. Calcium carbonate b. fluid retention.
.25BID7E$2 . Several new antifungal IV drugs (drug A.
ac. Statement of investments c. pc. I and II only d. Drug E. d. III only c. II tolerance does not occur in patients who are concurrently on metoprolol. e. Balance sheet b. cc. Statement of equity 75 The Latin abbreviation for "before meals" is: *a. II and III only e.b. b. e. aa. *d. c. I only *b. Income statement e. c. true statements include: I tolerance is rarely associated with isosorbide dinitrate. I. Statement of changes in financial position *d. Drug B.
. Drug D. a. *III tolerance is dependent upon the administration schedule of nitrate medication. 73 When evaluating patients with angina for possible development of nitrate tolerance. Drug C. ic. II and III 74 Which financial statement could be used to determine the total value of prescription drug sales for a pharmacy during the course of a year? a. 76 Erythromycin: *I is effective against gram-positive cocci. *II is a macrolide antibiotic.
7% w/w.8% w/w. I only b. *e. 79 The style of management in which the owner of a pharmacy emphasizes the development of detailed policies and written procedures for employees to observe at all times is referred to as: a. 25. c.5% w/w. II and III only *e. If 250 g of AOT is dissolved in 1 000 mL of glycerin (density of glycerin is 1. 80 The shock and airway edema of anaphylaxis are best treated with: a. b. 78 Water used for reconstitution of an additive for a large volume parenteral should be: a. a. 23. diphenhydramine.*III can increase gastrointestinal tract motility. 20. participative. d. sterile water.0% w/w.0% w/w. e. d. III only c. c. bureaucratic. Bacteriostatic Water for Injection (United States Pharmacopeial standard). b. benevolent. 12. Sterile Water for Injection (United States Pharmacopeial standard). the concentration of AOT in the solution is: a. 16.
. *b. e. Water for Injection (United States Pharmacopeial standard). consultative. I. autocratic. II and III 77 Aerosol OT (AOT) is used in veterinary medicine as a laxative. distilled water.25 g/mL). I and II only d. salbutamol. *b. c. d.
e. peptic ulceration. c. d. The relative risk reduction achieved with the new drug over the study period is: a. sodium retention. anti-inflammatory agent. c. provide only analgesic and anti-inflammatory effects. *e. 50%. 15%. 25%. antipyretic agent. EXCEPT: a. uricosuric agent. *c. 82 In the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis. 83 Prednisone may produce all of the following effects. e. 84 In an adequately powered. e. c. b. In the patients who receive a placebo. adrenaline. randomized controlled trial conducted
.e. stop and often reverse the progressive joint involvement. 10%. hypoglycemia. 85 In an adequately powered. b. d. specifically reverse the cause of the disease. d. aminophylline. d. lowered resistance to infection. *d. are effective because they are uricosuric agents. only 15% obtain the same clinical benefit. *b. agent which increases renal tubular reabsorption of uric acid.*c. randomized controlled trial conducted over 2 years. analgesic agent. prevention of a serious cardiovascular event) with a new drug is achieved in 25% of the study sample. the salicylates: a. e. 81 Sulfinpyrazone is used as a(n): a. skeletal muscle weakness. are more effective when given with allopurinol. the desired clinical outcome (i. 40%. b. acetazolamide.
d. *III Exposure to sunlight may cause adverse reactions. 20. Based on these results. I only b. a. b. In patients who receive a newly discovered drug.over 3 years. 86 The pharmacist fills a prescription for sumatriptan 100 mg tablets for a migraine patient. 2000. only 0. If relief is not achieved. *II Take with plenty of fluids.e. III only c. e. a specific serious side effect (i. the minimum number of patients that would have to receive the new drug for 3 years to statistically demonstrate the prevention of one episode of this side effect in at least one patient is: a. 15. c. sumatriptan may be repeated. The maximum dosage in any 24 hour period is six tablets. sumatriptan may be used for the second headache. reduction in leukocytes) with conventional therapy is seen in 0. If the headache is relieved but another headache occurs eight hours later. *c. d. If no relief is achieved in two hours. no other medication can be used for 24 hours.45% experience the same side effect. If the sumatriptan does not relieve the headache within four hours.5% of the study sample. 200. 150. ergotamine may be used. Appropriate information to provide to the patient includes which of the following? a. *e. b. II and III only
. I and II only d. 87 Auxiliary labels which should be used on cotrimoxazole suspension include which of the following? *I Shake well before using.
. a. BIDOn the prescription label the instructions to the patient should read: a. do good to patients. *c. in an amber glass bottle with a metal cap. b. e. shake well and instil one drop into the right ear twice daily. d. d. with the original cotton. I and II only d. avoid. III only c. b. in a plastic vial with a childproof cap. allowing people access to pharmacy care. placing the benefit of the patient above all else. I. 91 Following the ethical principle of nonmaleficence requires that pharmacists: a. shake well and instil one drop into the left eye twice daily. c. II the physical appearance of the preparations. I. act with fairness. II and III only e.25% dropsMitte: 15 mLSig: gtt. respect the rights of patients to make choices. *III pharmacokinetic parameters of the preparations.*e. I only *b. remove or prevent harm from people. II and III 88 A patient purchasing sublingual nitroglycerin tablets should be told to store the medication: a. *c. 89 Factors that determine bio*****alence of two brands of a drug include: I the taste of the preparations. instil one drop into the left eye twice daily. *d. II and III 90 Rx Timolol 0. b. in the refrigerator. dry place. instil one drop into the right eye twice daily. i o. apply one drop into both eyes twice daily. e. in a warm.d.
in which there are two or more questions in sequence. II does not induce peripheral vasoconstriction. III only c. I only b. Take one tablet twice weekly (4 tablets). 20 mg S: Take 1 tab BID M: 2 weeks Which of the following is correct labelling for this prescription? a. you must base your choice on the patient-specific information presented in the case. while vacationing in Mexico. Take one tablet twice daily (14 tablets) The next section includes an EXAMPLE OF THE CASE SCENARIO FORMAT. b. Take one tablet twice daily (28 tablets). black stools and a black tongue. Shortly thereafter she complained of a feeling of fullness in her ears. e. that are related to the patient information provided in the (bolded) stem shown at the top of the case. 92 Dopamine is useful in the treatment of cardiogenic shock because it: *I selectively dilates renal and mesenteric vascular beds. I and II only d. act with honesty. SM’s previous history includes an allergy to sulfonamides. Take two tablets twice daily (56 tablets).
. *a.e. When choosing your response to questions in the case scenario format. c. II and III 93 The following prescription is received in a community pharmacy: Losec®. without deception. I. Take one tablet twice weekly (28 tablets). *d. Questions 94 to 96 inclusive refer to the following: SM is a 34 year old female who. began prophylactic treatment for Travellers' Diarrhea. III decreases the force of myocardial contraction. II and III only e.
94 Which of the following drugs could be the cause of SM's complaints? *a. III only c. II and III 96 Drugs shown to be effective in the prevention of Travellers' Diarrhea. I. *II Escherichia coli. II cotrimoxazole. *III Shigella sp. I only b. I only b. Cotrimoxazole c. II and III
Top of Form
Delete Reply Forward Bottom of Form
. III amoxicillin. I and II only *d. II and III only e. a. Amoxicillin e. Doxycycline d. I and II only d. Bismuth subsalicylate b. II and III only e. III only c. *a. which might have been prescribed for SM include: *I doxycycline. I. Loperamide 95 Organisms commonly implicated in the cause of Traveller's Diarrhea include: I Bacteroides fragilis.
EXCEPT: a) Penicillin b) Lidocaine c) Celecoxib d) Clindamycin e) Tetracycline
3.: Sulphametoxazole) can take all of the following medications.A patients with allergy to Sulphonamides (i. Which stimulate the release of calcitonin? a) Hypercalcemia b) Hypocalcemia c) Hypophosphatemia
.e. EXCEPT a) Methothrexate b) Sulfasalazine c) Organic Gold Compounds d) Sulfinpyrazone e) Penicillamine
4.Osteoporosis is a disease characterized by loss of bone mass and may be aggravated by: I-Corticosteroids II-Menopausa III-Grave’s disease a) I only b) III only c) I and II only d) II and III only e) All are correct
2.All of the following are examples of DMRA-Disease Modifying Antirheumatic Agents.(4) BONES AND JOINT COMPLICATIONS
1.Calcitonin is mainly classified as hormone liberated by thyroid gland.
Anticoagulants a) I only b) III only c) I and II only d) II and III only e) All are correct
7.The level of which drug should be adjusted during treatment with allopurinol I. D
5.Theophillin III. the best example of a uricosuric agent is: a) Allopurinol b) sulphinpyrazone c) Indomethacin d) Penicillamine e) Methotrexate
8.Uricosuric agents are used in gout treatment by inhibiting the uric acid re-absorption in the proximal tubules.Which of the following statements is/are right regarding CALCITONIN I.It is a vitamin D derivative a) I only b) III only c) I and II only d) II and III only e) All are correct
6. particularly of high calcium meals II.Mercapturic acid II.An oral chelating agent used in the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis is:
.It secretion is normally stimulated during feeding.Prevents hypercalcemia by inhibiting the transport of Ca intro extra cellular fluid and by increasing the renal clearance of calcium
III.d) Hyperphosphatemia e) High concentration of Vit.
Pannus is an inflammatory exudates characterized by: I. a) I only b) III only c) I and II only d) II and III only e) All are correct
11.Drug that inhibits xanthine oxidase and affect the metabolism of 6-mercaptopurine: a) Sulfinpyrazone b) Allopurinol c) Penicillamine d) Purinethol e) Celecoxib
12.Importance of Vitamin D in osteoporosis: I.Normally occurs in patients with rheumatoid arthritis
.In the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis the salicylates: a) Stop and often reverse the progressive joint involvement b) Specifically reverse the cause of the disease c) Provide only analgesic effect d) Are effective because they are uricosuric agents e) Are more effective when given with allopurinol
10.The best vitamin D analog to treat osteoporosis is calcitriol III.Antacids containing aluminum and magnesium may interfere with proper activity of vitamin D.Increase the absorption of calcium from the small intestine II.a) Allopurinol b) Sulphinpyrazone c) Indomethacin d) Penicillamine e) Methotrexate
9.Synovial cell proliferation inside of a joint II.
Colchicine is used as anti-inflammatory agent in the acute treatment of: a) Osteoporosis b) Rheumatoid arthritis c) Osteomyelites d) Gout e) Pressure atrophy
16.The use of indomethacin in gout treatment: a) Inhibit the acute gout arthritis inflammation by inhibition of prostaglandin formation b) Inhibits tubulin synthesis c) Accelerate renal excretion of uric acid d) Inhibit uric acid synthesis
. can give false results of: a) Glucose b) Uric acids c) Urates d) Ketones e) RBCs
15.Intra-articular means: a) In the joint space b) In the tissues space c) In the spinal fluid d) In the spinal column e) In the dermis
14.An immunologic complication a) I only b) III only c) I and II only d) II and III only e) All are correct
13.III. a widely drug used in gout treatment.Colchicines.
a xanthine oxidase inhibitor.Allopurinol.It is a type osteoporosis
a) I only b) III only c) I and II only d) II and III only e) All are correct
20. a group of disorders of purine and pyrimidine metabolism may include: I. xanthine oxidase inhibitor.Characteristics of GOUT.Accelerate renal excretion of uric acid III.e) Inhibit the reabsorption of uric acid by the kidney
17.The joint inflammation is caused by precipitation of uric acid crystals III.Reduce inflammation during acute attacks II. EXCEPT:
. is a derivative of: a) Uric acid b) Purine c) Pyridine d) Pteridine e) Urate salts
18. used in gout treatment may produce all the following side effects.Hereditary metabolite disease marked by inflammation of the joints II.Allopurinol.Goals of gout treatment may include: I.Reduce the conversion of purine to uric acid a) I only b) III only c) I and II only d) II and III only e) All are correct
Osteoporosis is mainly characterized by: a) Loss of joint movements b) Loss of bone mass c) Imbalance of uric acid d) Hormonal imbalance e) All are correct
23.Estrogen enhance calcium retention and retard bone loss II.Estrogen is not effective at increasing bone mass that has already been lost.Use of estrogen in osteoporosis: I. a) I only b) III only c) I and II only d) II and III only e) All are correct
22.Antimalarial drug used in the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis as DMRA-Disease-Modifying Antirheumatic Drug a) Chloroquine b) Quinine c) Sulfasalazine d) Hydroxycloroquine e) Primaquine
24.5mg once a week
.Estrogen is useful in treat osteoporosis associated to menopause III.Which is the correct start dose of methothrexate in the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis?
a) 7.a) Increase in protrombin time b) Hypersensitivity rashes c) GIT intolerance d) Peripheral neuritis e) Necrotizing vasculitis
Substances or conditions that alter the metabolism of bones may predispose or aggravated osteoporosis.Correct administration of Penicillamine in the treatment of rheumatois arthritis include: a) With meals b) In emptying stomach c) With plenty of water d) With orange juice e) Before bedtime
26.E Comments: Osteoporosis is a disease characterized by the loss of bone mass.C Comments: There is a cross-sensitivity drug interaction between sulphonamides and celecoxib
. Example: Corticosteroids.Diflunisal is most likely to be prescribed for the treatment of: a) Wilson’s disease b) Rheumatoid arthritis c) Cysteinuria d) Psoriasis e) Hansen’s disease
1. menopause and Grave’s disease.5mg daily d) 15mg daily e) 22mg once a week
2.b) 15mg once a week c) 7.Which of the following agents is the best choice of treatment for an asthma patient with rheumatoid arthritis who is considered to have aspirin sensitivity? a) Ibuprofen b) Acetaminophen c) Gold therapy d) Azathioprine e) Cyclophosphamide
Indomethacin can be used in rheumatoid arthritis however as NSAID and Methotrexate is used as DMRA agent.E Comments: Allopurinol may inhibit enzymatic metabolism of anticoagulants. Mercapturic acid dosage should be reduced with concomitant use with allopurinol because it induced inhibition of xanthine oxidase decreasing metabolism of mercapturic acid and potentiating therapeutic and toxic effects. Antacids interact with vitamin D in many ways.
6. magnesium containing antacids may lead to hypermagnesemia and aluminum containing antacids have its levels increased leading to aluminum bone toxicity when currently used with vitamin D. lowering plasma calcium and phosphate levels.
5.E Comments: Osteoporosis is characterized by the loss of bone mass.
4. leading to potentiation of the anticoagulant effect. Methotrexate is used to treat rheumatoid arthritis as DMRA agent.B Comments: Allopurinol and indomethacin are used in gout treatment however not as uricosuric agent but as xanthine oxidase inhibitor and NSAID respectively.3.D Comments: Sulphynpyrazone is an uricosuric acid agent used in the treatment of gout.
8.C Comments: Calcitonin is not a vitamin D derivative.A Comments: Calcitonin is a hormone elaborated by the thyroid gland in response to hypercalcemia. It is a hormone elaborated by the thyroid gland in response to hypercalcemia. Vitamin D supplements have been used in the treatment of osteoporosis because vitamin D increases the absorption of calcium that is essential to reduce bone loss.
.C Comments: Salicylates in the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis provides only analgesic effect by reducing prostaglandin synthesis. Allopurinol decrease theophyllin clearance resulting in increased serum theophyllin concentrations
7.D Comments: Allopurinol and sulphynphyrazone are only used in gout treatment.
. 2. macrophages and leukotrienes migration to the affected joint.Reduce the conversion of 6-mercaptopurine to uric acid by inhibition of the enzyme xanthine oxidase.D Comments: Cochicine is only used in gout treatment. phagocytes and leukotrienes B4 to the affected joint.11.E Comments: Colchicine may cause false-positive test results of red blood cells-RBC and hemoglobin in urine.
13. It may also cause decrease in platelet count.
14.A Comments: Indomethacin is a potent NSAID that inhibits the acute gout arthritis inflammation by inhibition of prostaglandin formation and inhibition of crystals phagocytes by macrophages.A Comments: Intra-articular is normally referred to a kind of injection given within a joint. usually occurring in patients with rheumatoid arthritis or related articular rheumatisms.C Comments: Pannus is an inflammatory exudates overlying the lining layer of synovial cells on the inside of a joint.
15.Control the inflammatory response by inhibition of leukocytes.B Comments: Allopurinol is a purine derivative working as xanthine oxidase enzyme inhibitor responsible for the conversion of 6mercaptopurine to uric acid. It has no effect on uric acid therefore it is used just in the acute treatment of gout by inhibiting the migration of leukocytes.
19. and sometimes resulting in fibrous ankylosis of the joints.B Comments: Allopurinol inhibit xanthine oxidase enzyme therefore the conversion of 6-mercaptopurine to uric acid inhibiting the uric acid synthesis-formation
17.Increase the renal clearance of uric acid by inhibiting the reabsorption of uric acid by the kidney and 3.E Comments: The gout disease is normally controlled by three different mechanisms: 1.
20. which may lead to destruction and severe crippling of joints.
25.B Comments: Diflunisal is a NSAID used for both acute and chronic anti-inflammatory treatment of rheumatoid arthritis.5mg every 12hours for 3 doses given as a course once weekly. It is manifested by hyperuricemia.
24. increased 15mg per week after 6 weeks. Quinine and hydroxycloroquine are antimalarial agents and alternatively used in prophylaxis and treatment of muscle cramps leg and rheumatoid arthritis respectively.A Comments: Methotrexate is a Disease-Modifying rheumatoid arthritis agent normally used orally.
21.Comments: Gout is a group of disorders of purine and pyrimidine metabolism.A Comments: Main side effects of allopurinol therapy include: Steven-Johnson’s hypersensitivity rashes reactions.B Comments: In the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis penicillamine should be administrated in an empty stomach.
23.D Comments: Cloroquine and primaquine are normally used together only in the treatment and prevention of malaria. if necessary. recurrent characteristic arthritis induced by deposit of crystals in and around the joint of the extremities. 7. peripheral neuritis and necrotizing vasculitis.
.C Comments: Gould therapy would be the best choice for this particular patient because the other drugs may have cross-sensitivity with aspirin and/or induce brochospasm.E Comments: Estrogen is widely used to prevent bone loss after menopause.
27. Improvement of the condition may take up to 2 to 3 months of therapy
26.B Comments: Osteoporosis is mainly characterized by the loss of bone mass.5mg once a week or 2.
22. Estrogen can enhance calcium retention and retard bone loss but does not increase bone mass that has already been lost. It is the most common of the metabolic bone diseases and is an important cause of morbidity in elderly.
K+ and Cl-. hyperchloremic patient d.
3. spirinolactone c. 280 mosm/L
. hydrochlorthiazide d. high concentration of drug protein c.Patient with renal failure and normal liver function is showing sensitibility to the drug. high accumulation of drugs in tissues
4. Normal osmotic blood pressure in a healthy adult is: a. bleeding from the GIT c. this means that: a. furosemide e. a. high concentration of drug in systemic circulation e. Acetazolamide b. triamterene
2. Myocardial Infarction b. high VD d. Antithrombolytic agents are contraindicated in: a.Share
(5) CARDIOVASCULAR SYSTEM
1. Antidiuretic characterized for the decrease of Na+. high accumulation of metabolite b.
7.280 Osm/mL e. Hydrochlorthiazide C. 280 mOsm/100 mL
5.b. Aldosterone D. Erythromycin II. O e. B c. AB d. all of the above
9. A man with blood group AB can receive blood from: a. 280 mOsm/mL d. Quinidine III. pyrimidine structure c. Acetazolamide. Spirinolactone
6. a carbonic anhydrase diuretic and hydrochlorthiazide. a thiazide diuretic have an identical molecular group very important in their structure known as: a. pyrrolidine
8. Which increase water permeability at collecting tubules? A. ADH B. I. Triamterene E. 280 Osm/L c. His blood monitor shows BD 100/160
. A b. Digoxin is cardiac digitalis widely used in CV which toxicity in increased by: I. sulphonamide group b. purine group d.When would you advise patient that he may suffer from hypertension and he may need to a doctor.
organic acid present naturally in many tissues especiallyin lungs and liver II. all are correct
. aneurism c. It has antithrombin III as its co-factor
14. What is wrong regarding heparin and warfarin a. Heparin and warfarin are very popular anticoagulant agents. Abnormal dilation of blood vessel II. Correct statements regarding embolism include: I. emphysema d. Heparin has activity in vivo & in vitro e. An embolism can be a clot or a foreign material transported in the circulation
13. warfarin has activity in vivo & in vitro c. responds to the most sensible stimulus d. Abnormal persistent dilation of blood vessel is known as: a. artherosclerosis
12. Heparin has activity only in vivo d. embolism b. receive the strongest stimulation b. none of the above
11. starvation e. it is relaxed but is able to respond to stimulus c. both have anticoagulant properties b. During absolute refractory period the myocardial fiber. a. It is a mucopolysaccharide.II. do not respond to any stimulus e. The pharmacy monitor shows BP 100/160 III. His meter shows 80/120
10. It has anticoagulant properties that inhibit the conversion of prothrombin to thrombin and fibrinogen to fibrin III. Which of the following statements regarding Heparin is right: I. Obstruction of a blood vessel by a mass transported in the circulation III.
16. Streptokinase II. an anticoagulant agent has its effects increased by: I. orthostatic hypotension d. RBC. Adjunct therapy with salicylates
18.Heparin III. clofibrate b. cimetidine d.Red blood cells are originated from erythrocytes and have a half-life of 120 days (4 months) II. tachycardia b. Verapamil III. Alpha blockers are readily used in CV complications.K II. A patient with deep vein thrombosis can be treated by: I. hypotension
19. simvastatin e. One of the biggest cautions in using ∂ -blockers is the development of: a. Platelets are involved in blood clot and have half-life of 7 days III. warfarin
20. Important characteristics regarding the blood formed elements may include: I. Warfarin. Adjunct therapy with heparin III. Platelets are originated from myoleoriocytes
17. Deficiency of Vit. Nifedipine II. All are drugs that decrease LDL except: a. Which of the following calcium channel blockers cause bradycardia: I. bradycardia c. genfibrozil c.
internal carotid artery c. All of the following are ACE inhibitors except: a. During inspiration the lowest blood pressure in supine position is: a. 7-10 L
. kidney e. La Place’s Law d. Newtonian Law e.The blood weighs 7 to 8%. pulmonary artery
23. The first ******** where blood is present in case of left ventricular failure a.Which of the following theories relates the tension. radius of vessel and intraluminal pressure achieved in a blood vessel wall: a. ramipril d. enalapril b.How much of these percentage are represented approximately in liter of blood a. Losartan 22.e. lungs c. 4-6 L b. aorta artery d. Fick’s Law b. vena cava b. of the total body weight of a healthy adult. increase in cardiac output
21. heart d. captopril c. Ahhrenius c. sciatic artery e. Henderson Law
24. liver b. heart
25. lisinopril e.
True statement regarding nitrates: I. spironalactone d. amiloride
28. causing hyperchloremic is: a. acetazolamide b. biliary. Nitrates are prodrugs and must be denitrated to exert their therapeutic effect. acetazolamide e. Nitrates are mainly used in angina treatment. very useful in myocardial infarction II. Which of the following diuretics is used to block Na/H exchange system of the remal tubule. Increased myocardial contractility. renal blood flow and sodium excretion
30. Dobutamine is a direct acting inotropic agent parenterally used in cardiac emergencies and characterized by: I. 7-8 L d. Example of diuretics that ↑ levels of Cl-. III. 10 L e. Increased glomerular filtration.
27. proximal tubule b. gastrointestinal and uterine smooth muscles. a. Spironolactone is an aldosterone antagonist diuretic that competes with aldosterone at: a. hydrochlorthiazide
29. amiloride c. Nitrates are esters of nitrous and nitric acid II. furosemide d. ouabain e.c. Nitrates relaxes vascular smooth muscle and in addition relax bronchial. early collecting tubule d. Ouabain c. 15 L
26. Increased cardiac output III. collecting tubule
. Indapamide b. early distal c.
35. What kind of arrhythmia can be caused by an increase in temperature. Ventricular tachycardia E . Prazosin is a sympathetic agent used in hypotension acting as: A . atrial fibrillation C . Clopidogrel III. d. none of the above
33. result in poor pump function
. hypokalemia b. hypoglycemia c. ∂ -adrenergic blocker B . Aspirin
32. CHF is a cardiac disorder which: I. Ventricular premature depolarization B . All are side effect of hydrochlorthiazide except: a. end of collecting tubule
31. II. e . hypercalcemia e. β adrenergic blocker C. A . paroxysmal arrhythmia D . ∂ & β adrenergic blocker
34. Ticlopidine II.e. hyponatremia d. Examples of drug affecting platelet aggregation may include: I. Result from any cardiac disorder that impairs the ability of the ventricle to deliver adequately quantity of blood to the metabolizing tissues.
muscle e. verapamil
. dilatation of blood vessels b. carbohydrates d. fat
40. Cardiac output at rest a. all are correct
37. proteins e. kidney d. sugars b. Vit K d. high pressure in blood vessel
39. Glycosides molecular structure consist of steroidal nucleon and: a. diltiazem II. Calcium channel blockers that may cause myocardial infarction as side effect include: I. polypeptides c. acetaminophen e. accumulation of cholesterol in blood vessel d. Ibuprofen b. liver c. narrowing of blood vessel e.III. Aspirin c. Glycosides are widely used in the treatment of CHF. Stenosis is : a. Drugs that may affect the normal activity if the warfarin include: a. increase in cardiac output c.
38. lungs b. β blockers are the 1st treatment for CHF
it can be given orally
43. chlortalidone d. It depletes fibrinogen III. guanebenz II. spirinolactone b. it has no effect on ∂ & β receptor c. chlorothiazide
44. tremor II. Which of the following diuretics may show a uricosoric activity a. The use of sildenafil together with atenolol may result in: I. An important advantage of using dopamine in cardiac shock may include: a. It is derivated from snake venom II. nifedipine
41. are antithrombolytic agent that is characterized by: I. hydralazine III. triamterene e.III. It will not cross blood brain barrier cause of CNS effect b. It produce dose dependent increasing cardiac output and renal perfusion d. Ancrod. Hypotension III. furosemide c. it will not increase blood pressure e. Visual disturbances
. It is an alternative to heparin
45. Bradycardia and orthosthatic hypotension are characteristic side effect of: I. vasodilation
congestive Heart Failure d. β blocker c. amlodipine d. digitalis e. Drug of choice when treating hypertension in a diabetic patient may include: a. nitrates 48. Hydrochlorthiazide II. indapamide e. captopril
47. Digitalis is contraindicated in the treatment of: a. anger e. exercise b. Angina.46. Furosemide III. overweight 49. a diabetic patient suffering from hypertension is having enalapril. Systemic Lupus or erythomatus lupulus may be a side effect of:
. Drugs used in the treatment of hypertension associated with renal failure may include: I. However he is complaining from severe dry cough that we can associate as a side effect of the enalapril. losartan c. Myocardial Infarction b. Arrythmia e. a cardiovascular complication characterized by oxygen insufficiency may be aggravated by all of the following except: a. Atenolol
50. a. Coronary Heart Disease c. Ramipril b. ACE inhibitor b. hot places c. cold places d. Which would be the best choice for changing this medication. venous congestion
51. Calcium Channel blocker d.
Q2. Digoxin c. HDL (high density lipoproteins) are
(6) Evaluation exam July 2004
Q1. Which best describe the properties of labetalol a.Which is the most commonly user lubricant? Ans . Correct statement regarding blood pressure may include: I. β-2 blocker
53. VLDL (very low density lipoproteins) are formed in the liver II. Cholesterol I. Systolic pressure is the highest arterial pressure during cardiac cycle II. cyclophosphamide d. LDL (Low density Lipoprotein) are formed from VLDL and carry LDL cholesterol that is the bad cholesterol III. Propanolol b. Diastolic pressure is crucial in verifying if a person suffers of high blood pressure
54.alpha pheto protein is elevated in which condition?
. Diastolic pressure is the lowest arterial pressure during cardiac cycle III. hydroxyzine
52. β non selective & ∂ blocker e.a. β blocker b. hydralazine e. ∂ blocker c. ∂ & β 1 blocker d.
Q3. Eye wash
Q10.I ONLY Q6.Ans.which drug can be given in the mild to moderate hypertesion whith chf? a.AGE OVER 65 III.beta blocket b.which improve the flow properties of powder? Ans.what is the English meaning of colyrum? Ans.what is the mode of action of orlistat?
ANS.what is the absolute contraindication of antithrombolytic drugs? K type
Q7.what is extravasation?
. which stucture resemble to gaba? Ans
Q9.GI BLEEDING II. what is the mode of action of fiestride? Ans.ca cahnnel blocker c.
Q15.which condition cause the eryctile dysfunction? a.which is not the side effect of morphine? Ans.what is the structure difference between amphetamine and dopamine? Ans.what is the structure similaritry of antihistamine? Ans.5ht id receptor agonist
Q12.caffine b.flase positive error
Q18.which drug cause the reabsorption of ca++ Ans.
Q14.HKATPASE pump blocker
Q13.mode of action of sumtriptan? Ans.what is type one error? Ans.carbacol has one more ch3 group
Q19.mode of action of omeprazole/ Ans.
Q17.which drug reduce the production of urate? Ans.
Q11.Ans.what is the structure similarity of carbacol and bethanecol? Ans.
mercaptepuric acid is metabolise by which metabolism? Ans.acth hormone is secreted from which part of brain? Ans.cyp3a4
Q23. See shargel
Q30.which enzyme in mostly use for drug metabolism? Ans.which phase 1 metabolsim occour in stomach> Ans.what is the similiraity hemoblogulin and cyp3a4 enzyme? Ans. Thyroid gland
Q27.which is not the part of lymphatic system? Ans.anterior pituitary
.what is the metabolism of salicylic acid? Ans.what is the metabolite of alcohol? Ans.both have heam group
Q25.which drug cause agranulocytosis? Ans.what would happen reaction between ab+ if u add a more? Ans.which metabolic enzyme is most abundant in human being? Ans.
Q39.what r the different types of hernia? Ans.progesterone
Q34.which hormone sustain the action of corpus lutum after pregnenacy? Ans.what is influenza vaccine? Ans.denatrurisation of protein? Ans.Q32. what r the different types of burns? Ans.what is emphysemia? Ans.
Q33.short acting b2 agonist
Q37.what is the dose of alandronate? Ans.where the opoid receptor r found? Ans.live attenuated vaccine
Q36.whch drug is given in excresise induced asthma? Ans.destruction of the air way
toxic shock syndrome is caused by which organism? Ans.doc of athlete foot? Ans.which drug is approved in Canada as monoclonial antibody? Ans.
Q44.who quote the price of otc drugs? Ans.what is the composition of insulin? Ans70/30
48.which is most stable penicillamine? Ans.whiach statement is true regarding the storage of insulin? Ans.dermatitis
ans I only
Q45.Q41.what r the causes of osteoporosis? Ans.leg cramps iii.
.s aureu Q42.rash ii.tolnaftate
Q47.nosocomia infection is caused by which organism? Ans. Don.which is the side effect of raloxifine? K type i.
problem on crclerance?
Q54.what is lymus amibicite test? Ans.
Q59.which drug causes venous pooling? Ans.see pebc exam booklet every year these questions repeate
Q52.problems on auc?
Q62.what is salicylate toxicity? Ans.Q51.problems on relative risk reduction? Ans.problems on t1/2?
Q53.Which drug cause the photosensitivity? Ans.what is not the requirement of otc solution? Ans.what is the moratlity measurement for smoking? Ans see leon shargel
Q61.which maintains the integrity of skin? Ans.moade of action of coxii inhibitor? Ans.
what is isotonic solution? Ans.which is the contraindication of metformin? Ans
Q70.Q63.structure similarity between clozapine and chlorpromazine? Ans.in left ventricular failure he max blood supply goes to which organism? Ans.
Q71.problem on inventory turn over? Ans.
. It contain sugar moiety
Q64.which is the precursor of platelets? Ans.structure of digoxin? Ans.what is the life span of platelets? Ans.
Q68.maximum blood supply goes to which organism? Ans.lungs
Q65.which hormone does not secrete the secretion in stomach? Ans.7-11 days
Q73.which is the ophthalmic antioxidant? Ans? See leonshargel otc cahper of eye and ear an memorise all the antioxidants use din eye preparartion. Megakereblast
causes of bed sores? Ans. Income statement
Q80.which is not a metabolizing enzyme? Ans.during absolute refractory condition heart muscles does not respond? Ans.Q74.which statement is used to see the profitibilty of pharmacy? Ans.which statement is true regarding aids? Ans. Flouroquinolone.counceling of ant scabies drugs? Ans.
Q78.which is the main organism of uti during pregnancy? Ans. what is the treatment? Ans.
Q79.pyouria and bacteuria causes? Ans uti
Q82. To achieve steady state concentration
Q77.which statement is true regarding loading dose?
Ans. Any stimuli
Q83.problems on isotonacity? Ans.
what is another name of herpes simplex virus? Ans.bzd and barbiturates acts on which receptor? Ans bzd receptors
Q87.which statement is true regarding moa and tyramine? Ans.preservative
Q90.gas gangere is caused by whaich organism? Ans.
Q89.bezylconium chloride is used as eye? Ans.which is the shortest acting bzd? Ans.Q85. Triazolam
Q91.edta is used in which toxicity? Ans.what is the meaning of qlay? Ans.what do u mean by pharmacoeconomic? Ans.which enzyme is responsible of rna replication? Ans.
Q94.quality adjusted life per year
Q93.which is used in propellants? Ans. Hypertensive crisis
which drug should be given in the asthmatic shock syndrome? Ans.which condition does not occour in hypovolmia? Ans.
Q104.which changes the colour of urine and feces? Ans.Q96.insulin demand increase in which condition? Ans. whiach statement is true raegaring amphoterecin b? Ans.which drug can be given in acute asthma? Ans.odema
Q99.which is most potent pain mediator? Ans.b2 agonist
Q98.what are the factors which aggravates osteoporisis? Ans.epeniphrine
Q100.what is present in inner most layer of plaque? Ans. It is inactive orally
.what is thixotrophy? Ans.
20. 24. 2.Phenobarbital stimulates hepatic microsomal enzymes.An enzyme is a substance which acts as a catalyst. 17. 8. 18.End product of anaerobic respiration is lactic acid. 3.GABA functions as a neurotransmitter. 6.The feeding of vitamin B12 to pernicious anemia patients overcomes the lack of extrinsic factor.Myxedema is a malfunction of thyroid.A substance found commonly in fermented foods which can be toxic when MAO inhibitors are used is tyramine.Vitamin C may give a false + glucose with Tees – Tape.Inositol triphosphate can act as second messenger. 22.The enzymes involved in ethanol metabolism are primarily alcohol dehydrogenase. 23.The effect of vasopressin on the kidney is that it is antidiuretic. 12. 11.MAO is classified as an enzyme.The anticonvulsant carbamazepine interferes with thyroid function test. 10.(7)
1.Vitamin D has a structure similar to the steroids.The precursor of vitamin A are carotenes.Mitochondria is the power house of the cell.Coenzyme A or aryl transferase is involved in glycine conjugation.The major hallucinogenic component of marijuana is tetrahydrocanabinol(THC). 4.Vitamin E is used occasionally as an antioxidant. 9.Vitamin K is necessary for formation of prothrombin.The average life of a red blood cell is about 4 months. 16. 21.Absence of antidiuretic hormone in the body causes diabetes insipidus.Death due to cyanide poisoning results from cyanide inhibiting cytochrome oxidase.The heat labile factor in the vitamin B complex is thiamine. 14. 19. 5. 15. 13. 7.
.An excess of nitrogenous waste in the blood causes azotemia. 25.
36. 27. 40.To maximize its bioavailability.The end product of purine metabolism is primarily uric acid.According to pharmacokinetics degradation of insulin occurs in the liver.Concentration of a drug is helpful in calculating volume of distribution. 45. This means that 0. 33.Low clearance drugs are affected by increase in plasma protein binding by slow process.9% bound to plasma proteins when the attending total plasma bilrubin concentration is 9mmol/L (0.Rate of elimination is decreased by increased renal reabsorption.In 3 months old Jamey Scott. 42. 30.If the total body clearance of a drug is 200 mL/min in a normal healthy adult and the renal clearance is 10ml/min then one may assume that the drug is extensively metabolized. 39. pKa of 3. the time required to achieve a steady state plasma level depends only on the half life of the drug.Vitamin D3 acts as a hormone. The most important parameters for comparison that can be obtained from such curves are peak concentration. 46. 48. 29. the presence of surfactants in the formulation and the type of ointment base.If a drug appears in the feces after oral administration.Ketone bodies accumulate due to long or acute starvation and hypoglycemia. 51. rate of elimination equals constant rate of infusion. bilirubin is 99.Binding to plasma protein. 47. 35.The relative bioavailability of a drug product can be determined by comparing AUCs and total drug urinary excretion.The Michaelis – Menten equation will appear first order when the substance concentration is much smaller than Km.If a fixed dose of a drug that is eliminated by first order kinetics is administered at regular intervals. 32.Physiochemical factors affecting the rate and extent of percutaneous drug absorption include the partition coefficient of the drug molecule. 38. 41.Metabolism of a drug which is mainly metabolized in liver depends on intrinsic clearance and blood flow. pencillin G should be given on an empty stomach 1 hour before meal.Uracil is not found in DNA molecule. which cannot be easily reabsorbed.26. 43.
34. o/w partition coefficient and pKa of the drug are important factors in determining the concentration of drug which would be reached in the CSF treatment of meningitis.Biological half life does not influence the rate of absorption from solutions to any significant extent. 31.Rate of reaction for first order kinetic is dc/dt = -kc.The excretion of a weakly acidic drug (eg. 28. 50.1% of total plasma bilirubin is not protein bound. time of peak concentration and total AUC.The area under the serum concentration – time curve represents the amount of the drug absorbed. 37. 44.5) will be more rapid in alkaline urine than in acidic urine because the drug will exist primarily in the ionized form.The rich source of vitamin A is fish liver oil.The volume of distribution of a drug is a mathematical relationship between the total amount of drug in the body and the concentration of drug in the blood. parenteral administration of the drug may determine the contribution of the biliary system to the amount of drug in the feces.During constant rate of intravenous infusion at steady state condition.Vitamins act as coenzyme for metabolic processes.5 mg/L). 52.Drug products can also be evaluated by comparing curves of serum concentration vs time. 49.
If the mean.From the original dye N – dealkylation metabolism occurs.Absorption of water is increased by adding a solvent & the process is called partition coefficient. 74.A drug replaced from protein binding undergoes metabolism. 80. 81.Most drugs are metabolized or eliminated from the body by first order kinetics. dried and weighed is to ensure that certain potential impurities remain behind in solution. 71.In gravimetric analysis.In paper chromatography. is an example of neutralization.Two solids melting at room temperature are eutectics.Primary amine undergoes acetylation. the purpose of carrying out a chemical reaction to form an insoluble derivative which is then filtered off. Chi square test and Latin square are statistical techniques for clinical trials.CH3CH2NH is more amphiprotic.The reaction between phenol and aqueous solution of NaOH is considered acid – base reaction. 68. 82. stationary phase is non polar and mobile phase is polar. 57.Free radicals are H2O2. This implies that the amount of drug metabolized or eliminated changes with time and is dependently only on the concentration of drug in the blood. 67.Ammonium chloride is an example of acidifying agent.F test.Amorphous means no specific size and shape.53. the cellulose fibers have a strong affinity for the water in the solvent system and have a weak affinity for the organic solvent in the solvent system.In HPLC.Potency of penicillin is expressed in international of units per mg. 83.Drug excreted by tubular excretion is penicillin. the parameter Cmax is affected by both rate and extent of absorption. 55. pH is adjusted to avoid the precipitation of impurities and facilitate maximum precipitation.1 – methyl cyclopentane is not an isomer of hexane.Much of formation of prodrugs is by bioactivation. 77. shows pharmacological effect and good renal clearance.Pyconometer is an instrument which measure weight of the same volume of different liquids. 72. mode and median are same the population is uniformly distributed. 64.NH4 + OH. 63. 69.In a gravimetric analysis.Co – precipitate occurs by adding rapidly precipitant. 56.Hexaresorcinol of larger particle size is better than resorcinol. 79.Nitrites (organic cyanides) are hydrolyzed to acids when they are heated with aqueous base or acids. if the drug is basic. O2 and OH.Dimethyl formamide is used in the assay of non – aqueous titration of sulfonamides. 59. 61. 65. 73. 58.Concentration of a drug in breast milk exceeds that in plasma. 76. 60. 54.
. 78.With respect to bio*****alance. 66. 75.Order of dissociation in water is COO->COOH->OCH3>CH3. 70.The difference between peak and trough concentrations is greatest when a drug is given at dosing intervals much longer than the half life.= NH3 + H2O. 62.
The error is always smaller than the standard deviation.Disintegration of dx/x is lnx. 110.lne-x is –x. 94. 108. 91. median and mode are the same.In TLC.The temperature above which all the concentrations of a solute are soluble in water is called critical solution temperature.The reaction R – CONH – R = RCOOH + NH2R. 93.H2C = CH. 100. 107. 105. the error is 2.Azeotropic mixture of two volatile liquids in which the azeotrope has a higher vapor pressure than the individual component.
.Folic acid has tetrahydrofolate coenzyme activity which is based on the pteridine ring.Structure activity relationship of antihistaminic must have terminal tertiary amine and hydrocarbon must have one or more than one aryl or hetero aryl group or its *****alent.Phenazopyridine is an azo dye.Nicotine is a nitrogen containing base with two types of heterocyclic rings.4. 112. 97. 106. 90.2 – butene has geometric isomerism. transmission must be gamma rays. if 95% is standard deviation. the distribution is called normal. 90% of the drug will be ionized at pH 8.The molecular structure of clonidine contains a heterocyclic ring which is best described as imidazoline. 85. They are present in these structures specifically because of their electron withdrawing effects. a pyridine and pyrrolidine. 92.When atmospheric pressure is equal to the vapor pressure it is called boiling point.In statistics.In statistics.Cellulose retains water in paper chromatography. 96. M represents the slope of the line. 95.84. 113.4. 104. 88. 102.The equation for a straight line is a = mx + b.A line parallel with X – axis will have zero slope.Conformational isomer means rotation around a single bond. organic phase is moving and silica gel is stationary. 101. 98.5.Structurally. is called deamination.In sulfonamide titration the role of dimethyl formamide is basic solvent.99mTc does not eliminate from the lungs in 30 days.If pKa of phenobarbitone is 7. 103. 89. 87. 86. 109. 99.Both isoxazole and oxazole rings are found as substituents in some bacteriostatic sulfonamides. 114.is called a vinyl group. organic phase is moving and silica gel is stationary.Two immiscible layers are separated by fractional distillation. caffeine belongs to a class of nitrogen bases called purines.In TLC.Ninhydrin is used to identify amino acids. when the mean.For a radio isotope to be useful as an scanning agent. then azeotrope will distill faster.A carbon atom that has four different groups attached to it is an asymmetric carbon atom. 111.
Determination of iodine value depends upon addition of iodine at the double bond of fatty acids. dissolved in HCl.Benzodiazepine can be metabolized by reduction. 128.Iodine is used in Lugol’s solution.
.Capillary action takes place in TLC. 134.Capacity of a buffer to resist. 145. 137.HPLC resolute means scanning of one analyte from others in substance mixture.Hydrolysis of fixed oil gives glycerol + free fatty acids.Zirconium salt is used in Ziradryl. 118. macrophages and monocytes act as reservoir for virus to protect it from body immune system and T cells are destroyed.Superimposible is not true about optical isomers. 120.Boric acid is used in Collyrium. change in pH upon addition of strong acid or base is due to common ion effect. 143.At excited state Boron is 1s2. 126.Clostridium and enterobacter are example of anaerobic organisms.Most of the local anesthetics are esters of p – aminobenzoic acid. 138.Most of the local anesthetics are esters of p – aminobenzoic acid. 133.In paper chromatography cellulose fibers have increase affinity for water and decrease affinity for organic solvents. 122. 142. 129.Zinc undecylenate is used in Desenex.2 – butene gives cis – trans isomerism.Cyclohexane is not an isomer of hexane. 140. 144.Aromatic amines and hydrazides are metabolized by acetylation. 2p1. 121.Enantiomorphs are two isomers that rotate plane polarized light equal amounts in the opposite direction. 119. 127. 2s1.1 NaOH is added.Grignard reagent usually contains Mg.In HIV.The rate of zero order reactions is independent of concentration. 130.115. 132.In assay of amphetamine in plasma it can be extracted by ether.Soap is a form of sodium salt of fatty acid.In HPLC particle size affect resolute. 139. methylene chloride is added and before extraction 0. 141. 124.Electrophoresis is used to separate proteins – amino acids. 117.Pyridium is an azo dye. 123. 125. 146.In assay of epinephrine – HCl. 116. 135. 136.Mechanism of resolution of organic solvent in TLC depends on capillary action. 131. CD4 can be detected in blood of patients.Dipole bond does not exist in ester – ester linkage. tablet is crushed. filter to extract to form base.Glyceryl guaiacolate is used in Robitussin.
Schistosoma mansoni causes liver cirrhosis. 169. 158.
154. organism is isolated after taking mid stream urine. 166.147. 165. 162. 152.Neisseria gonorrheae is gram – negative organism. 153. 173.A drug used as a preventative when travelling to areas in which malaria is endemic is chloroquine phosphate.In UTI.IgG is the most prevalent immune globulin in the body. penicillins should be continued for 10 days.Nosocomial infection can be prevented by using aseptic procedures.Staph. 168. 157. 155. 167.Staph. 148.Lyme disease is caused by Borrelia burgdorferi.In streptococcal infections. stains blue and have teichoic acid in their cell wall while gram negative bacteria stains red. 164.Ferments lactose and sucrose with gas production does not apply to Salmonella. 159. 150. 170. 151. typhi.Limulus amebecyte is a pyrogen test. aureus and Strept. Pneumoniae are gram positive cocci.Organism of Nosocomial infection is Klebsiella pneumoniae. 172. 163.Chloroquine is given weekly intervals as a prophylactic for malaria.Ampicillin is acid resistant but penicillinase sensitive.Difference between gram positive and gram negative bacteria is gram +ve.Tinactin contains tolnafate.Koplik’s spots are associated with measles.The Sabin vaccine is superior to Salk vaccine because it can be administered orally. 171.Cloxacillin is both acid and penicillinase resistant. 160.The disease vericella is commonly known as chickenpox. 174.Cell membrane is a common damage to both human and bacterial cells with the use of antibiotics.The drug of choice for vaginal trichomoniasis in a nonpregnant woman is metronidazole.The causative organism of syphillis is Treponema pallidum.Alpha hemolysis is characteristic of scarlet fever strains of streptococci. aureus has techoic acid in its cell wall.Mycoplasma are resistant to antibiotic penicillin because it has no cell wall. 161.
.Pyoderma is a pus forming skin infection. 156.Gas gangrene is commonly caused by clostridia. 149.
185. venules and vena cava. 192.In Canada the infection of eye in neonates is due to Chlamydia trachomatous and is treated by silver nitrate eye wash. 182. 199.Gram negative bacteria retains red color and have lipopolysaccharide. 196. 188.In case of dental problem.Precursor of platelet is megakaryoblast.Meningitis is caused by Neisseria meningitidis. aureus. result from the refluxof gastric *******s into the stomach. 178.Internal carotid artery supplies blood to the brain.Undulant fever is caused by microorganisms of the genus brucella. wearing tight clothes. 191.Popliteal is present in knee (back space of the knee).
.Diphtheria is caused by cornybacterium diphtheriae.Heartburn is an esophageous symptom. 176. 186. spicy products. 200. 180.An aneurysm is bulging of the wall of an artery. 189. 195. including. its ingestion results in malaise and dizziness followed by ataxia. P. neuropathy. is lowest with supine position in arteries. occurs at night.Leukotrienes are chemical mediators and are derivative of arachidonic acid. 197.Causative organism for endocarditis is Strept. Heartburn is aggrevated by several factors. peptidoglycan in their cell wall.Lack of ACh causes Alzheimer’s disease.Toxic shock syndrome is due to Staph. 198.In UTI. convulsions.Tetrodotoxin is a highly neurotoxic substance.Glucagon counteract the action of insulin.Nicotinic cholinergic receptors are regulating ion channels. lying down or bending over and high fat.At rest the B. caffeine and smoking. 177. a vein or the heart.Life of platelet is 7 – 10 days. The second messenger or system allows signals from cell surface receptors to be converted and amplified into a cellular response.Tinea is a yeast. 194. chocolate. 181.The precursor of collagen is vitamin C.175.Addison’s disease is a syndrome resulting from insufficient production of hormones from the cortex of the adrenal gland (glucocorticoids & mineralocorticoids). viriden. 179.
184. 190. 193. respiratory paralysis and death. coli. 187. cause is due to Streptococus viriden. 183. and coronary artery disease are all complications of diabetes. the organism mostly involved is E.Inositol triphosphate is the second messenger in cell membrane produced by phospholipase C.Retinopathy.
. 215.Gamma globulin is a protein fraction of the blood.Tinea versicolor is a fungal infection of the stratum corneum. 225.Patients with noninsulin dependent mellitus usually have tissue resistance and reduced number of insulin receptors.The pathway of blood flow from the small intestine to the liver is mesenteric vein to portal vein.The ability of hemoglobin to carry oxygen decreases in CO poisoning. 218. 221. 219.The layer of skin that has the greatest effect on percutaneous absorption of drugs is stratum corneum.Crohn’s disease is a disease of the colon. 228. oral decongestant and fenfluramine. 220.Addison’s disease is caused by dysfunction of adrenal cortex.
206. 203.The common bile duct drains bile into the second part of the duodenum 202.Possible cause of secondary hypertension include renal disease.Rods are responsible for night vision.The most likely causes of ventricular arrhythmias are potassium depletion and magnesium depletion.Grave’s disease may be characterized by hyperthyroidism. 229.Osmotic pressure of blood is 280 mOsm/L.standing paranoid delusion. 223.A normal creatinine clearance for an adult male is 120 mL/minute.The outer layer of the eye is composed of the cornea. 211. they secrete HCl and intrinsic factor.The most important complication of venous thrombosis is pulmonary embolism with resultant infarction. 210. 208. 214.Schizophrenia is characterized by long .The effect of the antidiuretic hormone is to increase the rate of resorption of water by the kidney. LaPlace’s law relates the tension achieved in a blood vessel wall to the radius of vessel and the intraluminar pressure. 216.Fibrinogen is synthesized mainly in the liver. 209.Possible causes of hypercalcemia include malignancy and Paget’s disease. 224. 205.201.Enkephalins are peptides that exert actions resembling those of opiates.Progressive fibrosis and scarring of the liver are known as cirrhosis. 213. 227. 226.In cardiovascular physiology. 217. CO2 and iron poisoning.Hodgkin’s disease is usually centered in the lymphatic system. 222. 204.When parietal cells are stimulated.Tetrodotoxin is a selective inhibitor of the sodium ion channel. 207. 212.Major constituents of bile are micelles.Wernicke’s encephalopathy is caused by a thiamine deficiency.
skin of lower calf and the upper surface of foot. 247. 248. 237.In a cell network runs throughout the cytoplasm responsible for enzymatic reaction is endoplasmic reticulum.Normal blood flowing through the body contains prothrombin. the rejection is due to infiltration of T – cells. 239.Schiatic nerve supplies muscles to the calf and back of thigh.Causes of tachycardia are increased temperature.Hernia is a protrusion of the peritonium. 260. 259. 234.Intrinsic factor is present in parietal cells of blood. 252.Arrythmia with respiration and inspiration is called paroxysmal arrythmia.Glutathione protects cell integrity. 255. 251. 231. 262. 232.Structure of intestine consists of jegenum. 254. 244.Epistaxis is bleeding of nose.Coronary artery receives blood from aorta.Ascites means peritoneal retention of fluid. 236.Liver receives maximum cardiac output (27%) at rest.When left ventricle valve has been blocked. 250. 258.Compared to interstitial fluid.An endocrine gland that plays an important role in calcium metabolism is parathyroid. 238. 233.In the post menopausal therapy.The brain receives most of the blood supply from internal carotid artery.During inspiration low blood pressure is in vena cava.Adrenal gland does not secrete in GIT.CHF (right) is manifested by blood accumulation in vena cava. 256.Skeletal muscle is not included in dermis. stimulation of heart autonomous nerves and toxic condition.In organ transplant. lungs get more blood.230.Melanin and smooth muscle are not found in dermis. 253. 243. 261.Signs and symptoms of tardive dyskinesia are oral buccal signs.A substance that naturally occurs in the body is called endogenous. ileum and duodenum. 249. 246. conjugated esterogen carry the risk of endometrial cancer.Parietal cell intrinsic factor is vitamin B12.Colon has the most basic pH.
. 240.Onset of CHF (left) is manifested by accumulation of blood in lungs.A major factor in control of sodium excretion by the kidney is aldosterone. 257.50% of the normal blood plasma protein is albumin.Epilepsy is the result of GABA deficiency. 242. 241. 235. 245. plasma has higher concentration of protein.Edema is the excessive accumulation of the watery fluid in the tissues.
270. decrease blood supply enhance long action of anesthesia. 275. 268. 269. 280.m.INSHAALLAH
263.Benzodiazepine acts on GABAA receptor.Insulin has a pharmacodynamic effect at cell surface due to interaction with receptors. 273. skin and sweat glands help in regulating the body temperature. 278.Giving a vasoconstrictor one hour before introducing anesthesia means.Antineoplastic drugs are given by i. 284.Oxazepam is an intermediate acting benzodiazepine. 267.Celebrex (Celecoxib) is a NSAID drug acts by inhibiting cyclooxygenase II. 265.Allopurinol must be used with care with mercaptopurine.Sumatriptan is a serotonin agonist act by 5 – HT cell membrane receptor type. 281.Nerves in the human body that transmit their impulses by releasing ACh are known as cholinergic nerves. having side effects like dizziness.v.Prostaglandins and Tamoxifen are used to terminate pregnancy. 286.
. 279. ascites and jaundice are complications of cirrhosis. 277.Thyroid is not a part of lymphatic system. 274.Urine.Flumazenil is a benzodiazepine antagonist acts on GABAA receptor. It is used in mold to mild hypertension and contraindicated in pregnancy. 272. 283.Piroxicam decreases prostaglandin synthesis.Pyrivenum is an antehelmintic.Cortisone is a modified antirheumatic drug.Nalbuphine produces opioid withdrawal symptoms if given to morphine dependent patients. is an Angiotensin II receptor inhibitor. decrease side effects and give smoother and good induction of anesthesia. 266. 282. 271. 276.Hemorrhage.Addiction does not occur in case of antitussive doses of codeine. muscle weakness or neck membrane.Gravida is the number of times someone has become pregnant. and i. 285.Greater absorption in small intestine than in stomach is due to greater surface area. inhibits.A drug used to treat delirium tremens is chlordiazepoxide. both the vasoconstrictor and aldosterone – secreting effects.Losartan. routes in chemotherapy.Methyl alcohol causes toxicity to retina. 264.
Clonidine causes rebound hypertension.Extrapyramidal symptoms are side effects of neuroleptics 288. 302. pharmacist give him methadone. hyperlipidemia. 307.Toxicity of acetaminophen is hepatic cirrhosis. and verapamil are calcium channel blockers that cause peripheral edema.Chemical classification of nifidipine is dihydropyridine.Acetaminophen is least used in acute gout.Long-term use of corticosteroid causes Cushing’s syndrome and osteoporosis.Cortisone does not cause hypoglycemia. Therefore not use in Parkinsonism. hyperglycemia.Malignant hyperthermia can be caused by general anesthetics.Thiopental sodium crosses the BBB rapidly.Trimethoprim acts synergistically with sulfonamides. 306. 291.Contraindication of oral contraceptive is pregnancy.Acetazolamide causes hypochloremia.287.Magnesium hydroxide is a non systemic antacid with cathartic side effect 295.Gastrointestinal disturbances are the side effects of indomethacin. 294. 305. 298.Side effects of thiazide diuretics are hypokalemia.In bleach. 304. 309.Metabolism of local anesthetic takes place in liver. 316. 303. lithium carbonate is given.Feldene (Piroxicam) can be given once a day. gasoline and organic acids poisoning there should be no emesis.In absence of embolism. diltiazem. 299.Weak acid (acetic acid) can be given in base poisoning. 296. 293. the drug used in the thrombolysis is streptokinase. hyperthermia and CNS effects.Furosemide is classified as loop diuretic. 314. 300. 313. 310.In maniac depression.Omeprazole is a proton pump inhibitor. 315.
.Ascorbic acid causes a positive Coomb’s test. 290.Nifedipine.An oral antifungal agent is griseofulvin. 292. 301. hyperurecemia. 318.Action of inhalation anesthetic is based upon concentration in brain. 297. 308.Neuroleptics act by inhibiting dopamine receptor. hyponatremia and hypercalcemia.Morphine tolerant patient needs analgesia. 317. 311. 312.Acetaminophen is given to the patient for antipyretic and analgesic action. 289.Pancuronium is a competitive inhibitor of Ach.Side effects of local anesthetics due to amide cause convulsion.
Short acting benzodiazipine is triazolam. 321.Cetrizine is histamine 1 antagonist.A pharmacist receives a prescription order for indomethacin (Indocin) capsules. 338.Pepto-Bismol causes black stools. 324.K+ ATPase. Nasalcrom.Thiazide diuretics may produce an increase in blood levels of uric acid and glucose. 335.Phenobarbital is a microsomal enzyme inducer. 329.The major metabolites of diazepam have therapeutically significant pharmacological activity.Fluorouracil (Adrucil) is classified as an antimetabolite.Vincristine acts by inhibiting spindle formation in cell division. 332.Sulfinpyrazone is used as a uricosuric agent. 344.Viagra (Sildenafil citrate) is contraindicated in patients who are on any form of nitrate drug therapy. 328. 327. a diuretic acts by blocking the Na+ . the pharmacological action of nicotine is not described as nicotine.Sumatriptan’s efficacy in migraine therapy is attributed to selective 5 – HT1 agonist. 341.A drug that is effective in the treatment of alcohol withdrawal syndromes and in the prevention of delirium tremens is chlordiazepoxide (Librium).H+ exchange system of the renal tubule. 333.Diarrhea is not a sign of atropine poisoning.Cromolyn sodium (Intal. 343.319.Flumazenil is a specific antagonist for diazepam.
. 342. 340. 320.Phentolamine (Regitine) is used to prevent local necrosis from norepinephrine infusions.Mechanism of drug interactions with acetylsalicylic acid include displacement of other drugs bound to serum albumin. 323.Phenylephrine does not increase the heart rate directly or by reflex when injected intravenously into a young healthy adult. 326.Pernicious anemia is treated by parenteral administration of vitamin B12. primarily effective against bacteria & adequately absorbed from the gastrointestinal tract.Atropine is the primary example of an important class of muscarinic antagonists which are esters of tropic acid and which contain pyrrolidine and piperidine.Omeprazole acts by inhibiting H+.Best antidote for mercury poisoning is sodium formaldehyde sulfoxylate and egg albumin is given in emergency. 322.Erythromycin estolate.Anticholesterol drug for pregnant women is cholestyramine. 345. He should consult with the physician if the medication record indicates that the patient has a peptic ulcer. 347. 331. 330. 325. 336. 346.Acetazolamide. 334. is a macrolide antibiotic.Salicylaism is also called as Reye’s Syndrome.In circular muscles of the iris. Opticrom) is a drug that is a stabilizer of sensitized mast cells.The shock and airway edema of anaphylaxis are best treated with adrenaline. 339. 337.
350. 362.Heparin is the fastest acting anticoagulant. 374.The thiazide diuretics decrease the excretion of uric acid.Rifampin is a first line drug to treat tuberculosis. 365.The anti – inflammatory effect of aspirin is due to inhibition of synthesis of prostaglandins.A uricosuric drug is one that promotes excretion of uric acid in the urine. 367.Ondanesetron (Zofran) is indicated for use as an antiemetic agent. 358. constriction of capillaries.A very common side effect of morphine is constipation.Carbamazipine (Tegretol) is the drug of choice for trigeminal neuralgia.Tamoxifen (Nolvadex) is an agent that can best be described as an antiestrogenic.The primary site of action of triamterene (Dyrenium) and spirolactone (Aldactone) is the distal tubule. 363. 372.Sulfones such as dapsone are employed commonly in the treatment of leprosy.Methysergide is a serotonin antagonist. 361.
368.Aminophylline is used most frequently in asthma. 370. 364. 359. 356. 369. 349.Carbon monoxide exerts its effects primarily by decreasing the oxygen carrying capacity of the blood. 351.Parkinsonism is probably due to too little dopamine in the brain.Stimulation of gastric secretion is not an effect of atropine on the human body. the greatest amount of iron absorption occurs in the duodenum. 366. 354. 353. 355.Ritodrine (Yutapar) is used to control preterm labor. 373. 357.Pilocarpine is employed in the treatment of glaucoma.Methadone is not an addicting drug. coronary vasoconstriction and increased motility of bowel are all characteristics of vasopressin.Acid rebound most likely to occur with the use of large doses of calcium carbonate.
. It is believed to act as a miotic.Clofibrate is used to lower blood lipid levels.After oral administration. 360.Iron is required by the body to maintain normal oxygen transport. 352.A specific narcotic antagonist is nalorphine. 371.Dicloxacillin is the most useful in the treatment of an infection caused by beta – lactamase – producing staphylococci.348. 375.Antidiuretic effect.The greatest threat from morphine poisoning is respiratory depression.An example of pure narcotic antagonist is naloxone HCl (Narcan).
401. 395.376. procainamide is most similar in action to lidocaine.Penicillin G undergoes marked hydrolysis in the GIT.During ovulation.EDTA is an antidote for lead. 396.Emulsions made with tween are usually o/w. 390.Colchicine is used mainly to treat gout. 382.Penicillins are believed to exert their antibacterial effect by inhibition of bacterial cell wall synthesis. 391. 393. 405. 403.Streptomycin can cause eighth cranial nerve damage.Fatty tissues and protein tissues frequently store drugs.Oxytocin is used to induce labor.Oxytocin is released from the posterior pituitary gland.Polycarbophil can be used to treat both constipation and diarrhea. 378.Terbutaline has a preference for stimulation for Beta 2. 387. effects on dissolution rate of drugs and reduction of interfacial tension. 389. 388. 381. 379. 406. 386.Epinephrine is often included in the administration of local anesthetics because it delays diffusion of the anesthetic from the site of injection. 400. 380. 383.Doxycycline (Vibramycin) has the longest duration of action.As an antiarrhytmic drug. peak plasma concentrations of the FSH and LH will reached. 402. 398.Gold (metal) has been found useful in the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis.Heparin therapy is best controlled with clotting times.The mechanism explaining the clinical picture observed in carbon monoxide poisoning is a chemical union of the carbon monoxide with the hemoglobin of the red blood cells.The emetic action of morphine is due to stimulation of emetic chemoreceptor trigger zone.Pilocarpine produces constriction of pupil of the eye.
. 392. 394. 399.Alcohol in the body is oxidized to CO2 and water.Methanol may cause blindness. 377. 397.Epinephrine HCl is used intravenously in a concentration 1:1000.Hyperstat IV (diazoxide) is used mainly in treating emergency reduction of blood pressure. 385.The toxicity of methanol is due to its conversion in the body to formic acid and formaldehyde.Acetylcysteine is an agent used clinically as a mucolytic.Stimulation of gastric secretion is a pharmacologic action of histamine. 404.Epinephrine may be added to local injections of lidocaine HCl in order to prolong its effect.Surface active agents tend to enhance absorption due to effects on biological membrane. 384.A liquid whose viscosity is increased when stress is applied is classed as dilatant.Large apparent volume of distribution is the first evidence that a drug is being stored in tissues.
419. 427.Glycerin is the most hygroscopic liquid.Cheese is contraindicated with MAO inhibitors.407. 416. 424.5 –7 kg.
.Plasma protein binding slows the process of biotransformation.The HLB system is most applicable for the classification of nonionic surfactant. 423.If a CNS drug is extensively ionized at the pH of blood it will penetrate the BBB slowly.Colostomy pouches are classified by an open Vs closed designs and size of stoma. 432.Glucagon may be used as a diagnostic agent in radiographic examination of the GIT. 414. 422. 418.The most common disintegrator in compressed tablets is starch. 411.Ascorbic acid possesses antioxidant properties. 426. 425.A suspension is not a suitable dosage form for intravenous. pH of solution. 435.Tablet hardness range is normally 3.Sodium lauryl is a wetting agent.A substance that is often used to subcoat tablets is shellac. This phenomenon is known as picking.The solubility of a chemical in a given solvent is influenced by many factors that are dielectric constant. 410.The HLB system is used to classify surfactants. 417. 433. 430.Freons are fluorinated hydrocarbons.Sodium chloride 0. pKa of the chemical and solubility parameters.Oxidation is not a major pathway or type of biotransformation.The major mechanism of degradation of drugs in the GIT is hydrolysis.Poorly manufactured tablets may result in splitting off of the surface of the tablet. 408. 409.An antidote for heparin overdosage is protamine sulfate. 415.9% injection is the most appropriate for an IV admixture of ampicilin (500mg/50mL).The form of water most commonly used as a solvent during the manufacture of parenterals is water for injection USP. 413.The type of flow in which the viscosity of a liquid increases with agitation is dilatant.Riopan product is a chemical combination of aluminum and magnesium hydroxide.
420. 429.An example of nonionic surfactant would be sorbitan monopalmitate.The process of grinding a substance to a very fine powder is termed as trituration.Edetate is a chelating agent.Methotrexate should never be used concurrently with aspirin. 421. 431. 428. 412. 434.Passive diffusion is usually slow.
458. Both verbal and written directions have been suggested. 452.99mTc is considered to be an almost ideal isotope for medical applications and is commercially available as a radioisotope generator. 460.Aggregation of the suspending agent is called micelles.Aluminum acetate is used as astringent in hemorrhoids.The function of papain in a soft contact lens product is to remove proteinaceous residues.436. 451. increasing viscosity by adding shear-thickening agent and reducing the particle size. 448.A person is using long crutches.Constipation is a side effect of cimitidine. 459. 461.Splitting off of the face of a tablet is called capping. 442. 444. 447. 441. osmotic pressure.A number of studies have been done on patient counseling methods.Colligative properties are useful in determining tonicity. 443. INSHAALLAH
.An excellent choice of diluent for a compressed vaginal tablet formulation would be lactose.A second method for adjusting solution to isotonicity is based upon freezing point depression.Surfactants are characterized by the presence of water solubilizing and fat solubilizing groups in the same molecule 454.Bentonite magma is a suspending agent. 464.Levigating agent should form a smooth paste. 437.Gamma radiations have the greatest penetrating power.An osmotic solution has the same osmotic pressure as blood.The ideal antiseptic concentration of ethyl alcohol is 70 %.When less than the average pharmacist cares it is called negligence. 440.Sodium bisulfite is an antioxidant. if the radial nerve is damaged wrist drop will be effected.Penicillamine is often classified as a chelating agent. 453.Another name for methadone is metaphenone. 462. 439. 457. 446. 438.Simethicone relieves flatulence primarily because of defoaming action. should be compatible with ingredients and should be washed off easily.Elevation of boiling point.Starch is not used primarily as a diluent in tablet formulations.Suspension is a two-phase system in which the internal or disperse phase is solid and the external or continuous phase is liquid.The decay of radioactive atoms occurs as a first order reaction. 450. 445. 455. 463.An ingredient that is added to a tablet formula to improve flow properties into a die for compression is known as glidant. lower of freezing point and lowering of vapor pressure are all colligative properties of solution. 456.Prostaglandin E2 is used in the form of vaginal suppositories.In a suspension settling of particles can be overcome by adding non-ionic SAA.
. 477. glucose. which flow freely if recently stirred.
.Role of mineral oil in sulfur ointment is levigating agent.Ampicillin dissolved in 5% dextrose can be kept for 4 hours before use.Most frequently used fillers in tablets are dextrose.In the solution of diazepam. 480.n gel preparation bentonite is not used to increase the viscosity. 470.c.Sterilization of certain hormone is done by radiation. 486. 493. starch. 481.Solid to gas is called sublimation without changing into liquid state.Benzyl alcohol 5% is used as solubilizer in oily preparation. 469.Usually metabolites are having low o/w partition coefficient. lactose. 473.Particle size of aerosol suspension is usually 0. 472. 487.The most efficient /powerful anti oxidant is d . 482.Aqueous antioxidant includes sodium bisulfite.
474. ascorbic acid and EDTA.Acidic drugs in plasma bind with albumin and basic drugs bind with alpha acid glycoprotein. 468.Mottling is uneven distribution of color. 484.Burrow’s solution is astringent. In this solution propylene glycol acts as cosolvent and inhibitor of fermentation.Increase in viscosity by increasing in rate of shear is called dilatancy.v.Glycerin in pharmaceutical preparations is used as humectant.p.Usually metabolites are having low o/w partition coefficient.465. 490. 483.Ice application decreases the absorption at injection site.Thixotrophy is the term used for liquids. 489. local anesthetics. 491. PVP.Intra – arterial injection is given in artery.Most frequently used binders are cellulose.Poly (dl – acetic acid) does not undergo degradation. ethyl alcohol is used and propylene glycol is added to prepare i. injection.Burrow’s solution is aluminum acetate.Better bioavailiability of injection can be achieved by rubbing.Triethanolamine stearate is an emulsifying agent. but gel when left undistributed.Non-aqueous antioxidant includes vitamin E.If we increase the binder in tablet manufacturing then hard granules will be formed and tablet will not be easily disintegrated. 478. sucrose and mannitol. 485.tocopherol. 479. 475. 476. 471. 488. ointments and ophthalmic solutions.10 – 1 millmicron. 492. 466. means after meals. 4 hours in dextrose and 8 hours in saline solution. 467.
water and mineral oil are examples of w/o emulsion. 504. it means 200 mg of zinc oxide will displace 50 mg of theobroma oil. 505.494.Factor responsible for transfer of drug across the placental barrier is molecular size of the drug not the lipid solubility. pyrogen free and free of particles. cetosteryl alcohol.Triethanolamine stearate is an emulsifying agent. 508. 511. nitroglycerin ointment provides a more prolonged effect. 495. 503.Liquid paraffin is emollient laxative.Efflorescence means loss of moisture.White ointment. 518.IM injection is preferred over IV injection to avoid capillary damage.Suppository base. which mechanistically act as reducing agents include ascorbic acid and sodium bisulfite.1 T qid pc & hs means one tablet four times a day (after meals & at bed time). 512. 519. which has polymorphic properties. 499.Compared to the sublingual tablet. 520. is theobroma oil (cocoa butter).Sterilization of articles with ethylene oxide requires sterility.*** 522.Income statement is used to determine the total value of prescription drug sales for a pharmacy during the course of a year. 521. 515. INSHAALLAH
500.Surface active agent for contact lense improves wettability.Dispersion of oil globules in aqueous vehicle is called emulsion. 509. 517. 510. 498.Pharmaceutical care has been defined as the responsible provision of drug therapy for the purposes of achieving definite outcome.22nm.Pharmacoeconomics has been defined as the description and the analysis of the cost of the drug therapy to healthcare systems and society. 507.In parenteral preparation the major contamination is in equipment.A paste containing karaya gum powder is utilized in ostomy patients to protect skin from stomal effluent. 502.Methyl paraben and propyl paraben are used together because both act synergistically. 514.Viscosity can be increased by adding thixotropic gel.A person comes to the pharmacist complaining hard stool after every 2 or 3 days.Insulin preparation can be kept at room temperature for 30 days. 516.Transdermal patch releases drug by diffusion.Acceptable turnover rate of prescription is 5%.Antioxidants.When zinc oxide suppository of 200 mg is prepared where correctional factor is 4. 513.The dissolution rate of nitrofurantoin tablets would be decreased by increasing the force of compression during tableting. 501. 497. sodium lauryl sulfate.Biceps are present in arm muscle. 506.
.Sterilization of articles with ethylene oxide requires aeration with air. 496.The pore size of bacterial filter is 0. Pharmacist will advise him a stool softener (Docusate sodium).
Long use of antiepileptic drugs and folic acid deficiency cause megaloblastic anemia. 547. 525. 531. alcohol acts as cosolvent. 537.Nephrotic syndrome. 528.P. 524.Allupurinol increases the level of mercaptopurine by inhibiting its metabolism (allupurinol – inhibition of xanthine oxidase increases the serum concentration of mercaptopurine). 549.Mercaptopurine is metabolized by glucoronic acid oxidation.b2. 540. INSHAALLAH
548. 541. 545.Difference between interstitial fluid and plasma is protein quantity. 532. 539.Congestive heart failure is not a complication of ischemic heart disease.Pannus is superficial vascularization of cornea with infiltration of granular tissue.Low molecular weight substance combines with high weight substance by heptane protein conjugation process. D1 and D2 receptors.Hernia is at the junction of gastroesophageal and in the strangulated hernia there is no blodd supply. glomerulonephritis and UTI represent bacteriuria and pyouria.A drug accumulates in a dose of 200 mg with a half life of 2 hours given every 8 hours.Mevalonyl coenzyme A is accumulated in patient with megaloblastic anemia in folic acid deficiency and cyanocobalamine deficiency. b1.Congestive heart failure represents a hypervolemic state.Mechanism of action of sulfinpyrazone is inhibition of platelet granule synthesis and prostaglandin synthesis which prevents platelet aggregation.523. 533.S means point of sale in pharmacy. 542.O. 536. GI bleeding and encephalopathy.If a female has not hemophilia and his husband is suffering from hemophilia then the male child will not be hemophilic.Diaper rash in small babies can be treated by zinc oxide cream(zincofax).Cocaine is used as a local anesthetic and vasoconstrictor during ENT procedures. 551.Pigmentation of skin does not affect absorption of drug through skin.If electron withdrawing group is in the vicinity of a weakly acidic drug then pKa will decrease.Permanent alveolar destruction occurs in emphysema. 529. 543.Dissolution is increased by the temperature. 526.Oral metal chelator used in rheumatoid arthritis is auranofin.Complication of liver cirhhosis is ascites.Heme group and oxidation is a similarity between hemoglobin and cytochrome molecule.
.Enols are tautomeric forms. 534. 535.Dopamine acts on a1. 527. 530. 546. 550.In hepatic insufficiency bilirubin increases and albumin decreases. 538.When alcohol and water acts together.Alpha serum fetoprotein is increased in pancreatitis. 544.
Advantages of sustained release tablets are compliance to patients and decreased side effects.Mechanism of action of simvastatin is inhibition of HMG CoA reductase inhibitor.Etidronate (Didronel) is a biphosphonate. thiazide diuretics. 556. 569. 562. 580.Salicylaism is a side effect at the dose of inflammation. 570. 568. 554.Pannus is a particular indication of arthritis. Paget’s disease and osteoporosis.The excretion of a weak acid is increased by NaHCO3.Vitamin E is used as solvent in oily injection.Mannitol is an osmotic diuretic. 575. INSHAALLAH
574. find rapidly in dividing cells and a change in genotype.Mutagensis is change in DNA. 563. inhibiting the transport of NaCl out of the tubules into the interstitial tissue.Alprastidil (PGE2) is used for erectile dysfunction.Hashimoto’s thyroiditis (autoimmune disease) is hypothyroidism.Causes of hypercalcemia are hyperthyroidism. 555. Paget’s diseae.Cholestyramine is a bile acid resin positively charged ammonium polymers. 558. used for malignancy associated with hypercalcemia. Calcium reabsorption in distil convulated tubule is due to parathyroid hormone. vitamin D intoxication and excessive calcium intake. 572. Buffers are usually prepared by weak acid and salt of a weak acid or weak base and salt of the weak base.Horizontal HEPA filters are used in laminar flow for the preparation of cancerous drugs.Zafirlukast is a leukotriene antagonist and used for asthma.Loop diuretics act on the ascending loop of Henle. 565. 557. 564.Prolong treatment adverse effect like pulmonary fibrosis is because of Idoxuridine.Glutathione is a cell stabilizer enzyme. 566. 578. 576. 579. 567.Cholestyramine acts by binding negatively charged bile acids in the small intestine forming insoluble complexes that then excreted in feces. Pharmacist will advise patient to keep taking this medication and refer patient to physician before making any decision. 571.Pharmacist will refer patient in blurred vision. 561. 553.If a drug is 90% protein bound.Amitryptilline and imipramine are also used in nocturnal child enuresis.552.
.Peripheral edema is a result of right ventricular failure. an increase in the dose will effect in accumulation in the body. 577.Bleomycin causes pulmonary fibrosis.W/O emulsion have 1 – 9 HLB.Aldosterone secretion is controlled by ACTH.A patient comes to the pharmacy taking metformin 500 mg and ask pharmacist about the dose reduction. 560. 559. 573.
. 602. 590. 584.In digoxin. bile duct and ******* of the stomach all fall in the duodenum. 588. 592.Extravasation means escape or discharge (blood) from a vessel into the tissue.The name of blind spot is optic disk.Diazepam has active metabolite (half – life 8 hours). This product is absorbed and after processing released from liver.Sinusitis is caused by Hemoph.Calamine lotion (8%) is used to treat poison ivy. 585. leukotriene.Oral contraceptives cannot be given in liver dysfunction.Epinephrine and norepinephrine cause hyperglycemia by increased glycogenolysis. its long use then stopping cause seizures and it changes the normal sleep pattern. 597. 603. 593.Epidermal cells when exposed to UV radiation convert a steroid related to cholesterol into vitamin D3.581. 587. Pneumonia.Morphine is a drug of choice in myocardial infarction.A decrese in ADH means increase thirst and polyurea. the death is due to left ventricular tachycardia and ventricular fibrillation. Influenza and Strept.Long use of hydrocortisone cause decrease resistance to disease.Deficiency of vitamin D causes rickets and and its effects increase in presence of vitamin C. 595. 582.Maxillary bone. histamin.
598. increased glucagons secretion and decreased insulin secretion. inhibits post prandial rise of blood glucose and decrease absorption of starch in the intestine. 591. ethmoid bone. 596. 605. seizure epilepsy. 594. b and d cells. PGs and interleukin – 1 are algesic. 604. 583.Adrenal gland. 601.Methionine is an essential amino acid. deep vein thrombosis. 599.Oral iron preparations are normally preferred. glucose intolerance and hypokelemia.Retinoic acid (Vitamin A) is used in acne.Antidiuretic hormone is secreted from posterior pituitary.Preanesthetic medication means smooth induction of anesthesia. 606. frontal bone and occipital bone all are skull bone. 589. ischium and pubis are all pelvic bone.By – pass is not a condition of heart inflammation. breast cancer and pregnancy. parotid gland.Pancreatic cells are a. 586.Acarbose (Precose) is an alpha glucosidiase inhibitor. relieve anxiety and prevention of post – operative complications.Pelvis.Nitroglycerin and isorbide cause venous pooling.Bradykinin. 600.
616. C4 and D4. INSHAALLAH
620.Urinary tract infection is more common in pregnant women. the routes of administration are I.Neoplastic cells can defend themselves in several ways including increased DNA repair. 623. after giving N – acetylcysteine. VII. decreased drug accumulation and alternative metabolic pathway
. 612. 611.Mode of action of heparin is potentiation the action of antithrombin III which activates thrombin and other factors especially Xa involved in clotting factors..Creatinine in plasma is detected in renal functional test. 618.The most commonly used solvents in HPLC are hexane. 624.If a drug has a high o/w partition coefficient or a high membrane /buffer partition coefficient then it will be absorbed more rapidly across cell membranes and tissues barriers.607.Emphysema means abnormal dilation of the air spaces lying beyond the terminal bronchioles accompanied by destruction of their walls. He is brought to emergency with a very high level of sugar. 608.A patient is having type I diabetes and severely dehydrated. 627. methanol and water.Leukotrienes are derivatives of arachidonic acid and classed are B4.In chemotherapy of cancer. propyl gallate and benzalkonium chloride. 619. changes in target enzymes.Calamine contains combination of magnesium or zinc with ferric oxide. 625. I.Passage of ointment through skin depends on partition coefficient. 610. and oral.Very soluble means less than one part. 626. isooctane. X and protein C and S. 613.Toxicity of paracetamol is due to active metabolite (N – acetyl – p – benzoquinone).In paracetamol (acetaminophen) toxicity. potassium sorbate sorbic acid. 609.Benzalkonium acts as preservative and bactericidal. drug inactivation.Mechanism of action of warfarin is competitively antagonism of vitamin K and it takes 48 – 72 hours.The best method to instill eye drops is to pour drops in lower sac. 621. acetonitrile.In gout patient pain is treated on the priority basis. The treatment would be crystalline zinc insulin suspension.Polar solvents those made up of strong dipolar molecules have hydrogen bonding.Vitamin K is an essential cofactor for synthesis of clotting factors II. 629.V. 628.Glomerulous clearance is detected by creatinine. 614.Common preservatives are chlorobutanol. 615. 622.M. the mortality is safe and can be waited for 10 – 12 hours. IX. 617.
The physician prescribed prednisolone 40 mg stat & taper 5 mg daily .3-dihyrdo pyridine is nifidipine bed sores are caused by pressure atrophy structure of bethancol & carbacol(difference) structure difference b/w amphetamine and dopamine short acting anesthetic is thiopental sumatriptan is indole derivative sumatriptan is 5HT1-receptor antagonist antidote for Alprazolam is Flumazanil antidote for cabon monoxide is Oxygen ninhydrin is used for detection of amino acids which drug inhibit lipoxygenase pathway(Zafirlukast) Nosocomial infection is caused by staphylocus aureas clymada infection in Canada (in childrens eye) Mg stereate is used as a glidient / lubricant question son marketing of drugs which drug is used for prophylaxis of TB(isoniazid) Ca++ is absorbed by the distal tubules in metabolic acidosis the level of bicarbonate is increase hasimoto disease is hypothyroidism
.bacilli) endocarditis caused by stphyllococus aureaus 1.how long the therapy will last(8 days) Which medicine should be taken in empty stomach (sucralfate) POS means (point of sale) Transition metal is (Cu /Co) Which artery supplies blood to brain (internal carotid & Vertebral) Which drug doesn’t causes opoid withdrawal syndrome (Nalbuphene) DIN(drug identification number) questions related to dispencing of schedule drugs paralex of liquid may be minimized by seeing it straight to the level of eye UTI of women(what should pharmacist do in councilling) numerical on inventory turn over AT II receptor anatomist is LOSATAN which organism causes UTI(gram.
30/70) benzodiazepines act on GABA-a receptor meprosin low lipid ibuprofen can be used in children flumazanil is antidote for benzodiazepine AB-blood group can accept blood from every body glycosylated hemoglobin used to measure blood glucose leval teratogenic effect occurs between 3-9 weeks nasal pathway increases blood supply if kidney function is greater than 20%.I131 is used for screening of Hypothyroidism Parkinson disese caused by decrease in the level of dopamine trituration is particle size reduction pulverization with intervention is used to reduce the particle size of camphor non allergic asthma is caused by exercise angina s aggravated by coitus hypertensive crises caused by MAO inhibitor amphotericin B is hydrophilic interaction of sildefanil and Tylenol which drug is not aminoglycoside( Vancomycin) diabetis test is glycosylated Hb cytochrome is not an enzyme which cytochrome is most abandon in the body (CYP3A4) buccal route have not the large surface area nasal route is high capillary permeability and blood supply T-cells rejection is treated with Prograf(Tacrolimus) non allergic asthma is caused by excercize benign prostrate hyperplasia / Prostrate cancer timsulosin is used ratio of aerobic & Anaerobic in colon (90/10. don’t change the dose cream for nappy rash is zinc oxide megaloblastic anemia is caused by deficiency of vitamin B12 and folic acid mineral oil is used as a laxative and it decrease the absorption on oil soluble vitamins insulin can be kept outside refrigerator for 30 days pantoprazole is not an H2-receptor antagonist(it is proton pump inhibitor)
Tylenol and codeine.and biscodyl) methotrexate dose is 25 mg .Hepatitis –A is not transfer from person to person drug of abuse are(caffeine.3tab weekly prograf (tacrolimus) kills T-cells sumatriptan is 5HT1a receptor antagonist in gas chromatography the carrier is gas reasons for hyper calcemia ligase bind DNA-receptor together ratio of albumin and protein in the body methyl alcohol causes blindness asthamatic child has been given prednisolone ACTH is released bythe pituitary pilocarpine causes miosis in job deligation boss tells employees what to do medicine which are female products (for councilling the pharmacist should take the pt along with partner to private place) steroid side effects streatre is lubriacant lithium is used in manica depression antidote of warfarrin is vitamin –K salting out –rapid stirring and cooling heat sterilization relates questions vitamin –D is also act as a hormone cimitidine is not used to treat allergy ( as it is H2-receptor antagonist) celebrex (celecoxib) is COX-II inhibitor mesoprostol is prostaglandin E1 antagonist soft capsules has sorbitol in them what is burros solution herpes simplx is chicken pox mechanism of action of benzodiazepines trituration decresses the particle size of substances what are lipid levels in the healthy individuals aneurism is the narrowing of the blood vessels efflorescent is loss of moisture
O3 question related to net income sciatic nerve supplies to all foot region colligative properties depend on number if particles what is eutectic mixture questions related to pharmacy turn over cholystasis is liver infection during ovulation the level of FSH and LH are increase cromylin is used in allergic treatment loratidine is a non sedative anti histamine ADH act on distal convulated tubules angina is not caused by warm weather aspirin is hydrolysed by hydrolysis penicillamine is a chelating drug COPD is measured by PEFR (Peak Expiratory Flow Rate) treatment of CO poisioning is Oxygen what is embolism osmotic pressure of blood is 280 mm Hg enalapril is ACE-inhibitor rate limiting step in transdermal delivery system is diffusion methotrexate should not be taken with foilc acid in elderly every thing gose down except serum cretinine serum cretinine is measured by glomerular filtration rate similarity between hemo globin and cytochrome is heme vitamin that is heat labile is thiamine iron mainily absorbed in duodenum bone that is not a maxillary bone is hynoid thyroid is not a part of lymphatic system staph.aureus causes anaphylactic shock UTI us caused by gram negative bacilli
.herpes transfer by lesions type I error is false positive blood pressure in borderline hypertension is 160/100 free radicals are H3O.
Zyban a) I only b) III only
.Nicoderm III.Patient has a relevant increase in his asthma symptoms due to environmental allergies. He is currently having salbutamol and fluticasone inhalers.Nicorette II. What would you advise as an adjunct medication to treat his symptoms? a) Oral corticosteroids b) Higher dose of corticosteroid inhalers c) Salmeterol d) Sodium cromoglycate e) Anticholinergic agents
2.main organisms in gut is anaerobic bacteria stratum corneum is the rate limiting step in skin drug absorption water for injection has no pyrogens degrees of burns define pharmacoecnomics bioactivitaion is the activation of prodrug amoxicillin is the only chewable antibiotic transdermal patch should be apply to non hairy area ionized drug are not reabsorbed vitamin C is water soluble vitamin also work as an antioxidant what is ampheprotic
(10) RESPIRATORY COMPLICATIONS
1.Treatment of smoke withdrawal symptoms may include which of the following? I.
Nasal route has more blood vessels III.Nasal route has a higher surface area II.Which is not a drug used for smoke cessation?
.Condition characterized by a reversible form of airflow obstruction is known as: a) Aneurism b) Emphesema c) Embolism d) Cirrhose e) Jaundice
5.Advantages of nasal route over oral route absorption of drugs may include: I.c) I and II only d) II and III only e) All are correct
3.Which of the following vitamins is depleted in the blood by smoke? a) Vitamin C b) Vitamin B c) Vitamin E d) Vitamin D e) Vitamin A
4.Nasal route has a higher onset of absorption
a) I only b) III only c) I and II only d) II and III only e) All are correct
Non-steroidal drug with anti-inflammatory proprieties
.It can be a chronic condition of the tongue seen in pernicious anemia.Which reaction can ozone cause in the lungs? a) Oxidation b) Hydration c) Reduction d) Complexation e) Hydrolysis
9. a) I only b) III only c) I and II only d) II and III only e) All are correct
10.Intal-Sodium cromoglycate is characterized by which of the following statements?
I.a) Nicotine polacrilex b) Transdermal nicotine patches c) Nicotine sublingual tablets d) Bupropion e) Buspirone
7.Correct statements regarding glossitis include which of the following? I.Characterized by presence of pinkish-red central lesions on the dorsal surface of the tongue III.Inflammation of the tongue II.Example of leukotriene antagonist drug include: a) Salbutamol b) Ipratropium c) Zafirlukast d) Montelukast e) C and D are right
II.Chronic progressive lower airway destruction causing reduced pulmonary inspiration and expiratory capacity is known as: a) Asthma b) Bronchitis c) GERD d) COPD e) CHF
13.Which of the following is considered as the best treatment of asthma? a) β2-agonists b) β-Blockers c) α-agonists
.Drug of choice in the treatment of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease may include: a) Salbutamol b) Ipratropium c) Salmereol d) Sodium cromoglycate e) Fluticasone
12.Asthma is a condition of respiratory tract that may be aggravated by: a) Allergens b) Cold weather c) Execise d) Emotion e) All are correct
14.They can be used in prophylaxis of asthma and allergic rhinitis III Used in asthma only a) I only b) III only c) I and II only d) II and III only e) All are correct
d) Anticholinergic drugs e) Cholinergic drugs
15.Examples of drug(s) that may precipitate asthma include all of the following. EXCEPT: a) Aspirin b) β-Blockers c) Ipratropium d) NSAIDs e) Cholinergic drugs
17.The MOST well known characteristic symptom of asthma include: a) Wheezing b) Mucosal edema c) Cough d) Chest tightness e) Tachycardia
19. EXCEPT: a) Airway obstruction and inflammation b) Destructive changes in the alveolar walls c) Thickened smooth muscle of airway d) Mucosal edema e) Narrowed lumen of airway
18.Drug considered as the drug of choice in a specific asthma emergency treatment include: a) Salmeterol
.Which of the following agents or combinations may be appropriated to treat severe intermittent asthma? a) High doses of inhaled corticosteroid b) Long acting β2-agonists c) Short acting β2-agonists d) Oral corticosteroids e) Combination of all the above medication
16.All of the following are pathophysiologic characteristics of asthma.
Salbutamol is short acting β2-agonists that may be used in the treatment of which of the following asthma type? a) Mild asthma b) Emergency asthma c) Severe intermittent asthma d) Moderate asthma e) All kind of asthma
21.b) Adrenaline c) Albuterol d) Cortisone e) Zafirlukst
20.All are correct concerning the action of corticosteroids in asthma status. EXCEPT: a) β2-agonists b) Anticholinergic c) Methyl xanthenes d) Xanthine oxidase inhibitors e) Leukotriene modifiers
. EXCEPT: a) Beclometasone b) Sodium cromoglycate c) Flunisolide d) Fluticasone e) Budesonide
23.All are examples of drugs used in the treatment of bronchoconstriction. EXCEPT: a) Suppress the inflammatory response b) Decrease production of inflammatory mediators c) Decrease airway responsiveness to inflammation d) Relieve brochocontriction e) Increase β-agonist receptors response
22.All are examples of corticosteroids inhalers used in asthma.
Acute treatment II.24.All are β2-agonists used as brochodilators in the treatment of bronchospasm.Indication of leukotrienes modifiers in the treatment of asthma includes which of the following? I.Prophylaxis III.Example of methyl xanthine used in the treatment of respiratory complications include: a) Theophyllin b) Terbutaline c) Ipratropium d) Zafirlukast e) Salmeterol
27.Agents considered as precursor of leukotriene include: a) Tyrosine b) Cyanide c) Arachidonic acid d) Prostaglandins e) Histamine
28. EXCEPT: a) Albuterol b) Salmeterol c) Terbutaline d) Pindolol e) Levalbuterol
26.Best drug used in the prevention of exercise-induced asthma may include: a) Long acting β2-agonists b) Short acting β2-agonists c) Anticholinergics d) Leukotriene modifiers e) Corticoids
Drug known as the new relative cromolyn like drug include: a) Cromolyn sodium b) Cromoglycanate sodium c) Cromolyin disodium d) Disodium cromoglycanate e) Nedocromil sodium
.a) I only b) III only c) I and II only d) II and III only e) All are correct
A Comments: Ozone is a gas that may cause irritation and toxicity of pulmonary system.C Comments: Nicoret and nicoderm are nicotine replacement therapy for smoking cessation.A Comments: Smokers have more tendencies to vitamin C depletetion rather than other vitamins
3. Cirrhoses and jaundice are liver related complications. The main reaction of ozone in the body is oxidation.E Comments: Zafirlukast and montelukast are classics leukotriene antagonists used in the oral treatment of asthma
8.1. therefore their use avoid the smoke withdrawal effect.
6.C Comments: Buspirone is an atypical anxiolitic agent used to treat anxiety disorders.D Comments: Although nasal route has a smaller surface area than intestine drugs administrated by nasal route will have faster onset of action due to large quantity of blood vessels in the nasal route.D Comments: Sodium cromoglycanate would be the best choice because it is a safe anti-inflammatory inhaler for children and very useful in treating environmental allergy and asthma prophylaxis.
7.B Comments: Aneurysm is an abnormal dilatation of a blood vessel while embolism is an obstruction of airway by a mass transported in the circulation.
11.C Comments: Ipratropium is an anticholinergic drug that be used in adjunct treatment of asthma. normally seen in pernicious anemia.A Comments: Inhalated short-acting β-agonists are the most effective drugs available for all the kinds of asthma treatment.
14.E Comments: Asthma is a chronic inflammatory disorder of the airway that may be induced by allergens. Usually presenting pinkish-red central lesions. occupational exposure. drugs and so on.C Comments: Sodium cromoglycanate is an anti-inflammatory. exercise. weather.D Comments: COPD-Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease
10.E Comments: Severe intermittent asthma treatment is best done by short and long-acting β-agonists plus inhaled and oral corticosteroids. nonsteroid inhaler. emotion.
17.B Comments: Ipratropium is a cholinergic antagonist used as the drug of choice in the treatment of COPD-Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease by blocking the brochoconstriction caused by activation of the parasympathetic nervous system.9.
16. mast cell stabilizer used in asthma prophylaxis and as antiallergic agent.E Comments: Glossitis is an inflammatory disease of tongue of unknown etiology characterized by multiple annular areas of desquamation of the filiform papillae on the dorsal surface of the tongue.B Comments: Destructive changes in the alveolar walls are characteristics of a respiratory complication called “Emphysema”
19. shortness of breathing.
25.A Comments: Ipratropium is an anticholinergic drug used in COPD as the drug of choice.E Comments: Salbutamol is a fast acting β-agonist and considered the drug of choice in all kind of asthma.C Comments: Albuterol is the fastest acting β-agonist used in the treatment of bronchocostriction emergencies-asthma. cough. is the most effective drug in the prevention of exercise-induced asthma.C
. antiallergenic and mast cell stabilizer drug. chest tightness.Comments: Mainly symptoms of asthma are: Wheezing.
26.B Comments: Sodium cromoglycanate is an anti-inflammatory.
21.D Comments: Pindolol is a β-blocker used mainly in the treatment of hypertension.B Comments: Xanthine oxidase inhibitor is mainly used in the treatment of gout.D Comments: The use of corticosteroids in asthma suppresses the inflammatory response and decreases the airway hyperesponsiveness by decreasing the production of inflammatory mediators and mucus production.
23.B Comments: Salbutamol.
27. tachypnea and pulses paradoxus. a fast acting β-agonist.
Antidote for mercury may include a)Dimercaprol b)EDTA c)Detoroximine d)Naloxone e)succimer
1.Comments: Cysteinyl leukotrienes are products of arachidonic acid metabolism.D Comments: Leukotriene modifiers are approved for oral prophylaxis and chronic treatment of asthma.
28. Leukotriene modifiers drugs inhibit leukotriene synthesis by inhibiting 5-lipoxygenase that catalyzes the conversion of arachidonic acid to leukotriene.E Comments: Nedocromil sodium is the new relative cromolyn like drug acting in a very similar way as sodium cromoglycanate does.
29.What would be the best treatment for cyanide poisoning
.Which of the ff is benzodiazepine antagonist a)naloxone b)physostigmine c)flumazenil d)naltrexone e)penicillamine
myoglobin III.hemoglobin II.carbon monoxide can be highly toxic because it can easily binds with I.Salicylate poisoning treatment include which of the following
I.a)antivena b)sodium thiosulfate c)acetylcycteine d)oxygen therapy e)sadium bicarbonate
4.Acetaminophen toxicity most well known complication is a)cardiovascular failure b)pulmonary edema c)CNS lethargy d)Liver necrosis e)Sedation
6.Alkalinizaiton of urine with sadium bicarbonate II.cytochrome oxidase
Ans: a)I only b)III only c)I & II d)II & III e)All of the above
5.Decontamination with syrup of IPECAC until 30 mins overdose III.Charcoal every 6 hours
Ans: a) I only b)III only
Correct statement regarding Ipecac may include
I.The organophosphate commonly found in insecticeds are thought to act by which mechanism
a)Combining with acetylcholine b)Potentiating the action of acethycholinesterase c)Forming a very stable complex with d)Reaching at the cholinergic receptor e)Preventing release of ecetylcholine from nerve ending
10.Uses in decontamination procedure during toxic treatment.Hyperphopotemia can be best treated with
a)Magnesium Hydroxide b)Calcium Carbonate c)Aluminum Hydroxide d)Sodium bicarbonate e)Sodium phosphate
8.All of the ff. All of the above
9.It has an expectorant effect when small doses are administered III.It has an emetic effect when large dose are administered II.c)I & II d)II & III e)All of the above 7.
Ans . Can be recognised as Atropine poisoning except:
a)Dry skin b)Mydriasis c)Flushed appearance
N-actyly cysteine may be the antidote of choice for which of the following agents
a)Aspirin b)Warfarin c)Digoxin d)Lead e)Acetaminophen
.Poison ivy can be treated by which of the ff. After 1 hr of administration he exhibited bleeding from his gums. Agents
a)Topical antipruritic b)Antihistamines c)Systemic corticosteroids
13.Antidote for Atropine poisoning include
a)Physostigmine b)Aminophylline c)Pralidoxine d)Flunazeril e)Dimercaprol
12. The pharmacist can advice him to take
a)Ascorbic Acid b)Vitamin K c)Protamine sulfate d)Quinolone
14. while he was brushing his teeth.d)Diarrhea e)Delirium
11.A patient is stabilized with heparin as .
Ans: All of the above
15.Dimercaprol + mercury combination include
I.Dimercaprol best antidote forelemental mercury inhalation poisoning II.They form stable complex excreted renally III.Penicillamine is alternative when mercury GI absorption
Ans. All of the above
16.Naloxone is best antidote for which of the ff overdose agents
a)opioid b)heavy metal c)benzodiazepine
17.Management if toxicity of digoxin toxicity may include
I.May cause heart failure. Cardiac disrythmia, N, V, anorexia & confusion II.Treated by decontamination of supportive therapy III.Treated with digoxin specific overdose known as FAB antibodies
Ans: All of the above
18.Death due to cyanide poisoning
a)Cyanide - RBC complex formation b)Cyanide – HB complex formation c)Cyanide inhibiting cytochrome oxidase d)Cyanide increasing Hb levels e)Coronary vessel oclusion
19.The toxicity of methyl alcohol due to formation
a)ketones b)formaldehyde c)free alcohol radicals d)ethylene e)aldehyde
20.Acetaminophen toxicity is due to
a)oxidation stress b)active metabolite c)free radical chain d)reactive metabolite e)reduction of metabolite
21. Salicylate toxicity excessive respiration is due to
I.Excessive production of CO2
II.Pulmonary inhalation III.Central stimulation in the brain
22.Grayish mouth & loose of teeth are toxic symptoms of
a)Fe salts poisoning b)Cu poisoning c)Pb poisoning
23.Vomiting is contraindicated in poisoning is due to:
I.Bleaching II.Gasoline III.Light petroleum
24.Universal antidote is a mixture of
a)Activated charcoal b)Mg Oxide c)Tannic Acid
25.Amphetamine overdose can be best treated with
a)Salicylates b)Benzodiazepines c)Barbiturates d)Naloxone e)Vit B & C
26.True statement regarding treatment of hyperkalemia
I.If change in ECG is detected give Ca to counteract the excess of K on heart II.Bicarbonate & insulin administration can shift K from extra to intracellular III.Enema of kayexolate (exchange resin) as dialysis helps to remove excess of K from the body
27.Cardiovascular drug that overdose can cause cyanide intoxication include
a)Nitrates b)Nitroglycerin c)Nitroprusside d)Isosorbide e)Isosorbide dinitrate
Best treatment for carbon monoxide poisoning
a)alkalinization of urine b)Oxygen therapy
.28.Lead poisoning can be treated by
a)BAL – Dimercaprol b)EDTA c)Penicillamine
30.Treatment of tricyclic antidepressant dose can be done by all of the ff except
a)Control seizure & cardiotoxicity b)Addition of phenytoin or benzodiazepine to control seizure c)Activated charcoal can be used d)MAO antidepressant can help to overcome patient seizure e)Control acidosis with administration of sodium bicarbonate
32.Atropine used as antidote for
a)organophosphate b)heavy metals c)salicylates d)iron
31.Specific antidote for snake bites
a)Detroxamine b)Aucord c)Antivenom d)Naloxone
a)Vitamin A b)Vitamin B6 c)Vitamin B12 d)Folic acid e)Vitamin E
35.Treat hypoglycemia with 50mL of dextrose 50%.management in treating patient with depressed mental status include
I.Major first step in intoxication & poisoning in the supportive care treatment that involve
a)Detoxification b)Decontamination c)Hydration d)Toxicology lab test e)Evaluation & support of vital treatment (airway.
.B.c)Supportive therapy d)Acidification of urine e)Gastric lavage
34. circulation A.C)
37. breath.Warfarin antidote
a)Vit K b)Heparin c)Protamine d)Vit E
II.Administration of naloxone
38.Intravenous calcium administration is used in which situation
a)verapamil overdose b)cocaine overdose c)verapamil overdose & kyperkalemia d)hyperkalemia e)nifedipine overdose
1A 2C 3B 4E 5D 6E 7C 8E 9C 10D
.Administration of thiamine 100mg IV push III.Decontamination includes
a)Gastric lavage b)Emesis c)Administration of Activated charcoal d)Administration of adsorbant e)All of the above
11A 12E 13C 14E 15E 16A 17E 18B 19B 20D
21A 22B 23E 24E 25E 26E 27C 28E 29B 30A
31D 32C 33B 34B 35A 36E 37E 38E 39C