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1) Origin of bone is from: a. Ectoderm. b. Mesoderm. c. Endoderm. d. All of the above. Acute osteomyelitis is commonly caused by: a. Staph aureus. b. S. pyogenes. c. H. influenzae. d. Salmonella. Acute osteomyelitis usually begins at: a. Epiphysis. b. Metaphysis. c. Diaphysis. d. Any of the above. What is not True of acute pyogenic osteomyelitis: a. Trauma is a predisposing factor. b. Common infecting agent is Staph. Aureus. c. Infection is usually blood borne. d. All are true. What is not True of Brodie's abscess: a. A form of chronic osteomyelitis. b. Intermittent pain and swelling. c. Common to diaphysis. d. Excision is very often required. 2)
Tuberculosis of the spine most likely originates from: a. Intervertebral disk. b. Cancellous vertebral body. c. Ligamentous structures. d. Paravertebral soft tissue. In Pott's spine, the disease starts in the: a. Intervertebral disk. b. Anterior vertebral margin. c. Posterior vertebral margin. d. Paravertebral soft tissue. Melon seed bodies in joint fluid are characteristic of: a. Rheumatoid arthritis. b. Tuberculous arthritis. c. Septic arthritis. d. None of the above. The earliest sign of TB hip in X-ray is: a. Narrow joint space. b. Irregular moth eaten femoral head. c. Periarticular osteoporosis. d. Dislocation. Healing of tuberculous arthritis can lead to: a. Calcification. b. Fibrous ankylosis. c. Boney ankylosis. d. None of the above. Osteoid osteoma originates from: a. Periosteum. b. Cortex. c. Medullary cavity. d. All of the above.
Sun ray appearance of osteosarcoma is because of: a. Periosteal reaction. b. Osteonecrosis. c. Calcification along vessels. d. None of the above. Bone metastasis in male commonly arises from cancer of: a. Lung. b. Prostate. c. Kidney. d. Thyroid. Osteoblastic bone secondaries commonly arise from cancer of: a. Breast. b. Lung. c. Prostate. d. Adrenal. Bone metastasis can be best evaluated by: a. X-ray. b. 99mTC bone scan. c. 111Indium scan. d. Calcium-alkaline phosphatase elevation. The synonym for Paget's disease is: a. Osteitis fibrosa. b. Osteitis proliferans. c. Osteitis deformans. d. None of the above. Multiple myeloma tumor cells resemble: a. Granulocytes. b. Plasma cells. c. Lymphocytes. d. Chondrocytes.
An adamantinoma historically contains: a. Squamous cell rests. b. Pallisading cells. c. Cells resembling basilar cells. d. All of the above. Osteomalacia predominantly affects the: a. Spine. b. Pelvis. c. Skull bones. d. Metatarsals. The enzyme found in osteoclasts but not in osteoblasts is: a. Alkaline phosphatase. b. Acid phosphatase. c. Elastase. d. Cytochrome oxidase. A Gigli saw is: a. An electrically driven circular bone saw. b. A pneumatically driven bone saw. c. A short straight bone saw. d. A long twisted wire bone saw. Osteoclasis can be used to: a. Correct deformity of the tibia due to rickets. b. Curette an osteoclastoma. c. Correct deformity. d. Correct a ricketery rosary. In Dupuytren's contracture which one of the following statements incorrect: a. It is a contracture of the flexor tendons to the ring and little fingers. b. It is a contracture of the palmar fascia. c. It may occur in the plantar fascia. d. There is an association with cirrhosis of the liver.
Carcinoma of the stomach.of tubular bone. All of the above.mataryonline. Varicose veins. d. Reduction impossible to the achieved or maintained. d. b. b. Two liters of blood can be lost without obvious swelling or bruising. c. Scapula. c. b. b. Pulmonary embolism. Occurs chiefly in the elderly. Blunt trauma. Twist. The sign of telescoping is the best way of diagnosing it. The essential examination of the hip in order to clinch the diagnosis of chronic slipped femoral epiphysis is: a. c. e. Proximal humerus in elderly. Direct impact. c. b. d. b. Does not occur in children. c. Trendelenburg's sign is used in the diagnosis of: a. d. It is impossible to diagnose it.24) In an adult patient with a fracture of the shaft of the femur: a. c. c. d. Use a splint to keep the hip joint in 90° flexion and abduction. Rib. d. c. Use a splint to keep the hip joint in 45° flexion and adduction. A-P plain x-ray view of the hip. d. A greenstick fracture: a. b. Which one of these statements is True in diagnosis of congenital hip dislocation in the first few days of life: a. Is a spiral fracture. No blood can be lost without obvious swelling. Palpation of the femoral head. Pathological fracture. 29) Internal reduction is considered in presence of: a. b. Wings of ilium. c. Spiral fracture is due to: a. 33) 3 www. d. Measuring for shortening of the leg. Immobilization. d. Healing is expected to be delayed. The single most important factor in fracture healing is: a. d. There is no possibility of death from hemorrhagic shock. All of the above. 30) 25) 31) 26) 32) 27) 28) Immobilization is not required in fracture involving: a. It is possible to diagnose it by the Van Rosen/Barlow Test. Organization of clot. The Trendelenberg test is the most useful. Congenital dislocation of the hip. No blood can be lost without obvious bruising. Advise operative stabilization. Accurate reduction. Do nothing and re-examine every six months as only a minority of hips develop into a persistent dislocation. Axial compression. Correct bone alignment. If an unstable hip is detected at birth the management policy is: a. b.com . b. c. Is a fracture where part of the cortex is intact and part is crumpled or cracked. Lateral x-ray view of the hip.
1. c. Light. All of the above. 16-20. All of the above.1 year. b. Reduction even if achieved is difficult to maintain. Brachial plexus injury.mataryonline. 6 months . 11-15. d. 1 month . d. b. What is not True about fracture surgical neck of humerus: a. b. Dense. c.5 times the normal union time. b. A radiological feature of the pelvis applied to the diagnosis of congenital dislocation of the hip. Occurs due to fall on outstretched hand. b. b. c. d. c. Knee. First bone to ossify in foetal life is: a. Femur. 2. The average duration of Perthes' disease is: a. Clavicle. d. Any of the above.4 years. None of the above. All are true. c. 40) 35) 41) 36) 42) 37) 43) 38) 44) 4 www. 39) The term delayed union is employed when the fracture fails to unite within: a. A radiological feature of the lungs applied to the diagnosis of pulmonary vein thrombosis. A physical sign applied to the diagnosis of adrenal deficiency. Shoulder. d. The sequestrum in X-ray appears: a. d. d.34) Shenton's line is a sign applicable to: a.com . Osteoporosis is an important risk factor. b. 1-5. d. Ankle. c.5 times the normal union time. Fracture head of humerus. d. Non-union is uncommon. d. c. c. Common to children. b. 6-10. What is True of clavicle fracture: a. Tear of rotator cuff. Abduction and internal rotation. Patella. Twice the normal union time. b. The detection of shortening of the leg on physical examination. Sternum. 1-2 years. Isodense as surrounding bone. d. b. c. Adduction and external rotation. Malunion is of no functional significance. Abduction and external rotation. c. In Perthes' disease the hip movements restricted are: a. c.6 months. 3. b. Tibia. Anterior dislocation of shoulder may be complicated by: a. Perthes' disease is common to age group of: a. Non-union is rare. The joint most likely to have recurrent dislocation is: a.
b. All of the above. d. Monteggia fracture. 46) 52) 47) 53) 48) 54) 49) 55) 56) 50) 5 www. Medial epicondyle. 51) Fracture involving which part of humerus can cause delayed ulnar palsy: a. b. None of the above. c. b. Osteoporosis of carpals and metacarpals. Shaft. Capitate. c. The carpal bone most commonly fractured is: a. Lower end. Medial condyle. d. There is increased blood flow to para-articular areas. c. b. Cervical sympathectomy may be of help.45) Radial nerve palsy may occur in fr of humerus involving: a. Lower third of humerus. Lateral condyle. Madelung's deformity. Pallor of fingers. c. At all of the above locations. c. Flexion. d. Dinner fork deformity. d. Radial. Triquetrum. c. c. c. Shoulder. b. Cubitus valgus of elbow commonly follows fracture of: a. c. b. Extensor pollicis longus. Pain.mataryonline. Lateral epieondyle. Elbow. Capitalum. c. The single dependable sign of early Volkmann's contracture is: a. Myositis ossificans commonly occurs around: a. d. Extension. All are true. b. d. Supracondylar fracture. d. Fracture shaft humerus. Adductor pollicis longus. d. Colles' fracture. What is True of Sudeck's atrophy of hand: a. Surgical neck. b. d. Scaphoid. Colles' fracture can be complicated by late rupture of: a. c. b. b. None of the above. Which nerve is compressed in carpal tunnel syndrome: a. Obliteration of radial pulse. The most common form of supracondylar fracture humerus in children is of which type: a. Hand is painful and swollen. Surgical neck. Abductor pollicis longus. b. e. Ulnar. Buttonaire deformity. d. d. Combination of A & B d. Flexor pollicis longus. Wrist. b.com . Median. Paralysis of flexor muscles of forearm. Hamate. Shaft. Knee. c. Cyanosis of fingers. Volkman's ischemia commonly occurs following: a. The deformity of wrist in Colles' fracture is: a. e.
5%. Internal fixation is preferred. c. Bryant's triangle helps to assess: a. Undiagnosed pathology within knee. Limb shortening with adduction and internal rotation occurs in which type of hip dislocation: a. Fat embolism. Xiphisternum. Pubic tubercle. b.com . Rectum. 25%. 150°. Incomplete removal of the cyst. b. 170°. Anterior. b. 58) 64) 59) 65) 60) 66) 61) 67) 62) 6 www. c. Ischial tuberosity. b. Ischial spine. Fracture femoral neck can be diagnosed from: a. d. Avascular necrosis of femoral head. None of the above. External rotation. Limb shortening. b. b. c. b. 10%. d. A + B. Abduction. c. d. Flexor digitorum superficials. Bladder. Neoplastic change. c.57) The most common injury following pelvic fracture is of: a. Malunion. Central. The communication to the joint is persisting. 90°. c. All of the above. Malunion. c. Nonunion. Nelaton's line joins anterior superior iliac spine to: a. Trochanteric displacement. b. Posterior. d. 63) Which of the following is not True of intertrochanteric fracture of femur: a. Most common complication of fracture shaft femur is: a. Spontaneous bleeding into joints in haemophilia occurs when factor VI level is less than: a. 120°. d. Recurrence of Baker's cyst should make the surgeon suspect: a. d. Vagina. Knee stiffness.mataryonline. All of the above. 50%. d. d. Fracture neck of femur. Limb shortening. d. d. c. b. Urethra. c. b. c. Normal neck-shaft angle of femur is: a. c. Iliac crest displacement. Palmaris longus. Flexion of distal interphalangeal joint with fixing the proximal interphalangeal joint (PIP) tests: a. Flexor digitorum profundus. b. d.
foot e. 8 weeks c. insertion of a figure-of-eight tension band c. is usually compound c. a simple fracture d. a broad arm sling and analgesics A Pott's fracture is a type of fracture of the a. a retained swab Union of a simple uncomplicated transverse fracture of the tibia in an adult normally takes a. 18 weeks e. skull Treatment of a severe comminuted fracture of the patella includes a. is due to a fall on the point of the elbow b. open reduction and plating d. a dead tooth d. d. 12 weeks d. Flexor pollicis longus. Abductor pollicis. wrist b. fracture of the neck of the femur Colles' fracture is a. 26 weeks Fractures which do not impact include a. clavicle rings b. A sequestrum is a. inserting screws or wire e. a transverse fracture of the patella e. a piece of dead skin c. skin traction 74) 70) 75) 71) 76) 72) 77) 7 www. reversed Colles' fracture b. a fracture of the clavicle b. fracture of tile vault of the skull b. common in elderly women d. a fracture about the ankle joint c.68) Stenosing tenovaginitis commonly affects: a. a piece of dead bone e. ankle c. 6 weeks b. fracture dislocation of the first metacarpal e. is a fracture dislocation A fracture of the midshaft of the clavicle is best treated by a.com . fracture of the scaphoid bone in the wrist c. spine d. requires admission of the patient after reduction d. cause of mallet finger Supracondylar fracture of the humerus in a child a. b. physiotherapy alone b.mataryonline. Opponens pollicis. a compression fracture c. a figure-of-eight bandage c. patellectomy d. fracture of die scaphoid 73) 69) Bennett's fracture is a. a fracture of the head of the radius e. requires immediate open reduction e. c. a piece of soft dead tissue b. an intramedullary nail e. All of the above. fracture of the radial styloid (chauffeur's fracture) d.
should be treated by immediate amputation c. a fibroma e. rheumatoid arthritis in childhood c. an osteophyte e. in the synovial membrane b. non-union of a fracture d. delayed union of a fracture c. talipes equinus varus b. spastic diplegia b. a subperiosteal abscess due to infection of the mastoid air cells b. due to tuberculosis Volkmann's contracture a. hematomyelia following trauma b. synonymous with Reiter's disease A benign tumor forming osteoid is a. proliferation of bone 83) 79) Pott's paraplegia is due to a. sclerosis of cartilage c. a chronic abscess of the bone d. damage to die corda equina after a fall e. an adenoma Ewing's tumor affecting the humerus a. is a metastasis from carcinoma of the thyroid b. tuberculous pus and angulation in tuberculosis of the spine d. a chondroma c. looks like a cut onion on x-ray d. follows ischemia of the forearm muscles d. ulnar nerve palsy d. has a soap-bubble appearance on x-ray e. a type pf breast abscess c.78) Malunion of a fracture is a. damage to the cord by a piece of bone when vertebrae collapse in tuberculosis of the spine c. in the capsule e. sclerosis of cartilage c. genu varum e. is due to excessive scarring of the skin of the axilla following a burn e. congenital dislocation of the hip c. a synovioma b. develops at the ankle in a case of chronic venous ulcer c. followed by pseudoarthrosis e. fractured neck of femur 84) 80) 85) 81) 86) 82) 87) 8 www. a pannus The initial abnormality in rheumatoid arthritis is a. an abscess arising in the inguinal lymph nodes e. an abscess forming in an infected varicose vein The initial abnormality in primary osteoarthritis is a. rheumatoid arthritis in the elderly d.com . fibrillation of cartilage b. post-traumatic bone formation in the lateral ligament of the knee e. in the synovial membrane d. an osteoma d. a fracture which unites in a position of deformity b.mataryonline. displays sun-ray spicules on x-ray Barlow's sign is related to the diagnosis of a. affects the palmar fascia b. fracture dislocation of cervical vertebrae Still's disease is a. follows ulnar nerve palsy A Brodie's abscess is a. fibrillation of cartilage d.
osteomyelitis c. a fractured head of radius e. faulty nutrition b. an infected knee 94) 89) 95) 90) 96) 91) 92) 97) 9 www.5 b.com . osteochondritis of the spine b. endochondral ossification e. derangement of the teeth c.88) The reported incidence of unstable hips per 1000 at birth is as much as a.mataryonline. flat feet d. 0. osteosclerosis c. a type of degeneration of adventitia of popliteal artery c. long feet with spidery toes b. an acquired bursa generated from connective tissue d. Cushing b. osteomalacia The name associated with joint neuropathy is that of a. Addison Adrenocorticosteroids administered in excess cause a. hammer toes e. a patient with an above knee amputation d. osteoporosis b. parathyroid tumor d. Moon d. congenital disease with hemivertebrae A Milwaukee brace can be used in a. lateral curvature of the spine b. trauma e. myositis ossificans of the supinator muscle d. osteochondritis of the proximal femoral epiphysis e. fractured clavicle 93) Legg-Calve-Perthe's disease is a. a pseudocyst in the lesser sac (omental bursa) e. ulnar nerve neuritis An adventitious bursa is a. rotation of the spine c. 35-40 The word talipes refers to a. slipped proximal femoral epiphysis d. lateral curvature with rotation of the spine d. 8-20 d. olecranon bursitis b. 'non-articular rheumatism' of the extensor muscles of forearm attached to lateral epicondyle of the humerus c. 25-30 e. sacro-iliac strain b. club feet Bone dysplasia is due strictly to a. tuberculosis of the hip joint c. faulty development Idiopathic scoliosis is a a. scoliosis e. flexion deformity of the spine e. 2-5 c. Osier c. osteosarcoma 'Tennis elbow' is the term used for a. Charcot e. knock knee c. osteochondritis d. an anatomical bursa overlying any joint b.
Tuberosity of the fifth metatarsal The signs of fractured shaft of a bone do not include: a. Loss of all movements in the limb d. Intra-articular fracture extending from the joint surface through the epiphysis and epiphyseal plate to the metaphysic e. Malunion b. Swelling b. Fissures b. Lower third of the tibia d. Separation of the epiphysis with a triangular fragment of the metaphysic c. Impaired blood supply d. Distal joint Non-union is common in fractures of the following bones except the: a. Both proximal and distal joints e.98) A trigger finger is a. a component of syndactyly A Baker's cyst is a. Infection d. Separation of the epiphysis at the metaphyseal side of the epiphyseal plate b. Deformity c. Sudek's atrophy e. Crashing injuries compressing the epiphyseal plate without displacement Local complications of closed fractures do not include: a. Acute localized bone tenderness e. Non-union c. an atrophic index finger in a median nerve palsy c. Interposition of soft parts c.com . Impacted fractures The most severe growth disturbance results from which of the following types of epiphyseal injuries: a. Greenstick fractures d. Inadequate immobilization b. Talus e. Neck of the femur c. Inpsction of the fragments e. Intra-articular fracture involving the articular cartilage epiphysis and epiphyseal plate d. Fractured bone only b. due to stenosing tenovaginitis affecting one of the flexor tendons in the palm d. Joint involved in the fracture c. a prepatellar bursa d. Subperiosteal cracks c. a synovial cyst of the ankle e. Joint stiffness Non-union in closed fractures may due to any of the following except: a. crepitus can be elicited only in: a. a synovial cyst of the popliteal fossa Immobilization of fractures of long bones should include a. a synovial cyst of the wrists of those who knead bread c. Proximal joint d. Carpal scaphoid b. Abnormal mobility in the line of the bone 103) In the following types of fractures of long bones. an essential feature of the carpal tunnel syndrome e. an implantation dermoid cyst occurring in the palms of those who work in a bakery b.mataryonline. Wide separation of the fragments 99) 104) 100) 105) 101) 106) 102) 10 www. an inflamed index finger b. Spiral and oblique fractures e.
Putti-platt1s operation Recurrent shoulder joint dislocation is best treated by: a. Hanging plaster cast e. Hippocrates' method of closed reduction b. Injury to the main vessels c. Closed reduction and shoulder spica b. Open reduction and internal fixation c. the humeral head usually dislocates primarily in which of the following directions: a. Both B and C Concerning fracture of the shaft of the clavicle. Arthrodesis of the joint Fractures of the shaft of the humerus are best treated by: a.com . shoulder loses its rounded contour & becomes flattened b. Continuous skeletal traction c. Prolonged immobilization b. Coaptation plaster splint with a Velpeau dressing 113) 109) 114) 110) 115) 111) 11 www. Laterally 112) 108) The incorrect statement about anterior dislocation of the shoulder joint is that: a. it is untrue that it: a.107) Causes of gangrene after fracture in a limb do not include: a. Open reduction and internal fixation d. Commonly involves the middle third c.mataryonline. Inferiorly b. Clostridial infection The correct ttt of traumatic myositis ossificans is by: a. Direct crushing of the tissues b. Is often associated with overriding of fragments d. Figure-of-eight bandage d. Bankart's operation d. Septic infection e. Nicola's operation c. Open reduction e. Both A and B e. Passive stretching and massage d. Is usually treated by figure-of-eight bandage A child with midclavicular fracture and overriding of the fragments is best treated by: a. Manipulative reduction and abduction splint In shoulder dislocations. Is usually due to direct trauma b. Superiorly c. Supine bed rest with interscapsular sandbag support b. The anterior and posterior folds of the axilla are elevated e. Closed reduction and plaster fixation e. Active exercises c. Posteriorly e. Causes dropping and deformity of shoulder e. Modified Milch's manoevre d. The elbow is abducted from the side c. Kocher's manipulation c. Tight plasters d. All movements of the shoulder are limited and painful d. Physiotherapy b. Anteriorly d. The hand cannot be placed on the opposite shoulder (Duga's test) Recent dislocations of shoulder joint are best treated by: a. Putti-Platt's operation e.
116) The most vulnerable structure in supracondylar fracture of the humerus is the: a. X-ray examination revealed diffuse decalcification of the bones. Combined flexion and rotation 121) In fracture of the olecranon process of the ulna. a 70-year-old ♂ felt severe pain in the hip and could not stand up. Shortening of the upper arm d. Intracapsular fracture of the neck of the femur b.com . She proved to be suffering from: a. Is rarely associated with complications 118) 122) 12 www. Causalgia b. Can be treated by manipulative reduction in children d.mataryonline. Fracture of greater trochanter Tears of the meniscus of the knee result from which of the following strain: a. X-ray examination revealed: a. Abduction c. there was shortening of the limb. Is usually due to a severe blow on the back of the forearm c. she developed severe pain & stiffness of the wrist with coldness and cyanosis of the hand. Radial nerve Posterior dislocation of elbow joint is characterized by the following except: a. O/E. Fracture of acetabulum e. Dislocation of hip d. Hyperextension b. Median nerve d. Rotation e. Consists of fracture of the upper third of the ulna and anterior dislocation of the radial head b. Can be felt as a gap between the olecranon and the shaft c. Tuberculous arthritis of wrist joint c. Loss of the normal relationship of the olecranon with the two eoicondvles 120) 117) An elderly ♀ sustained Colles' fracture which was properly treated. Absence of crepitus e. Pertochanteric fracture of the femur c. Always requires surgical treatment 119) Concerning extension Monoteggia's fracturedislocation. Osteoarthritis of wrist joint Following a stumble on stairs. Adduction d. Sudek's atrophy e. May be complicated by anterior dislocation of the elbow joint e. Always requires surgical treatment in adults e. Brachial artery c. Ulnar nerve e. Traumatic tenosynovitis d. the following statements are true except that it: a. Is usually due to a fall on the elbow b. However. Median cubital vein b. Is rarely associated with hemarthrosis d. Loss of all movements at the elbow joint c. Gross swellinq of the elbow region b. external rotation deformity and tender thickening of the greater trochanter. it is untrue that it: a.
Calcium deposition c. Fracture of the patella A lateral blow at the level of the knee joint may cause: a. Direct trauma b. Has a normal serum concentration of 3-13 KA units b. Use of high-healed shoes e. Osteoporosis Intestinal absorption of calcium is dependent upon: a. Sclerosing osteoperiostitis c. The most probable diagnosis is: a. All of the above e. Hypoparathyroidism e. All of the above 128) 124) 129) 125) 130) 126) 13 www. Thereafter. Bumper fracture of tibia e.com . Syphilis b. All of the above e. None of the above 127) An irregular epiphyseal line with calcifying periosteal haematc found on X-ray examination is indicative of: a. Rupture of medial collateral ligament c.123) In a football game. Is excreted in the bile d. Osteoarthritis d. Vitamin D b. Hypervitaminosis A Osteoporosis is a deficiency in: a. Scurvy c. Jumping from a height c. Rupture of the medial semillunar cartilage e. Rupture of the medial ligament d. Parathoraone c. Bone tumors e. All of the above A march fracture most frequently results from: a. Muscle fatigue from prolonged walking d. Protein supporting tissue d. Solitary loose body b. Is elevated in the serum of patients with healing fractures e. None of the above Which of the following statements is untrue concerning the enzyme alkaline phosphatase: a.mataryonline. the patient suffered from recurrent locking with pain and a feeling of "giving way" in the joint. Fracture of the tibial spine c. Infantile rickets b. Soon after. the joint became swollen and painful but recovery followed rest for 3 weeks. Hemophilia d. Is ↑ in the serum of patients with rickets and osteomalacia Localized bone sclerosis may be due to: a. Rupture of anterior cruciate ligament b. Calcium metabolism b. Calcitonin d. Is present in high concentrations in liver cells c. an athlete felt severe pain in his Rt knee while turning to the left side with the joint flexed and taking the body weight. Avulsion of medial meniscus d.
com . Familial tendency 135) 132) Concerning Ollier's disease. Short extremities b. Prolonged recumbency Achondroplasia is characterized by the following features except: a. Spares the metaphyses of long bones Concerning Osgood-Schlatter's disease. Increased renal excretion of calcium and phosphorus e. Osteoporosis e. Chonrosarcoma may develop in one of the enchonromata The following statements about diaphyseal aclasis are true except that it: a. Achondroplasia Osteomalacia may be due to the following factors except: a. Multiple fractures d. Brittle shell-like bones c.mataryonline. There is a strong hereditary predisposition b.131) Enlarged tender epiphyses with bowing of long bones and X-ray evidence of delayed carpal ossification suggest the diagnosis of: a. Osteogenesis imperfecta e. Enlarged head e. which of the following statements is incorrect: a. Multiple enchondromata occur in small long bones of hands and feet c. Infantile rickets c. Blue sclerae b. Idiopathic steatorrhea d. Syphilitis epiphysitis d. Deformities may arise from unequal affection of metaphyses e. Never affects membrane bones c. Normal trunk length c. Scurvy b. the following statements are true except that it: a. Normal ossification of cartilage Osteogenesis imperfecta is characterized by the following features except: a. Is associated with no radiological signs e. Causes pain and swelling over the tubercle Generalized osteitis fibrosa cystica is characterized by the following features except: a. Multiple gaint-cell tumors e. Is characterized by multiple exostoses d. Starvation b. The affected bones are stunted d. Deficiency of parathormone b. Normal intelligence d. Usually occurs between ages of 10 and 16 years c. Is a common hereditary condition b. Repeated pregnancies c. May be associated with dwarfism e. Is due to traction of the patellar tendon on the tibial tubercle d. Urinary symptoms due to renal calculi 136) 133) 137) 134) 138) 14 www. Cysts containing Brwonish fluid d. Is an avascular necrosis of the epiphysis of the tibia tubercle b. Diffuse decalcification and softening of bones c.
mataryonline. Spontaneous fractures are rare d.139) The following statements about Paget's disease of bones are true except that it: a. Early tuberculous arthritis of the hip joint b. Hemarthrosis c. On examination he looked ill and in severe pain with high fever and swelling of the knee region extending to the thigh which was warm and very tender. X-ray examination confirmed the diagnosis of: a. Is a generalized bone dystrophy of obscure etiology c. Appears as clear ovoid expanding cavity in the X-ray e. Produces no pressure symptoms e. Is often associated with cardiovascular complications Which of the following statements is untrue in Paget's disease: a. Enchondroma c. Enchondroma b. Occurs most often in children and adolescents b. Ends fatally from uraemia at puberty A 7-year-old child presented with intermittent limp and pain in the right hip and knee. Causes deformities in the skull. Bone sarcoma Which of the following is most common in the small bones of the hands and feet: a. Is due to deficient phosphorus. On examination. pelvis and lower limbs d. Traumatic arthritis c. excretion c. Results from renal insufficiency in infancy b. particularly males b. The most probable diagnosis is: a. May be associated with new-bone formation The most common tumor of the small bones of the hands and feet is: a. X-ray examination of the skull is diagnostic e. Traumatic synovitis b. Osteoclastoma d. Tuberculous osteitis 144) 141) 145) 142) 146) 15 www. Acute osteomyelitis of the femur d. Coxa vara 143) 140) A 9-year-old boy presented with limping and pain in the right knee two days after a fall in the street. Slipped upper femoral epiphysis e. Osteochondroma c. Osteoid osteoma d. Perthes' disease d. Bone sarcoma Solitary bone cyst is characterized by the following features except that it: a. Affects elderly subjects. The bones are greatly thickened and very vascular b.com . Causes no deformities in the limbs e. Manifests itself by marked dwarfism d. Osteochondroma b. flexion and extension movements were free and there was no tenderness and no muscle wasting. Septic arthritis of knee e. Often remains symptomless until complicated by pathological fracture d. Osteochondritis juvinelis e. Cranial nerve palsies may occur c. Cancellous osteoma e. spine. Osteogenic sarcoma occurs in over 5% of cases Which statement is untrue in renal rickets: a. Usually arises in the diaphysis of a long bone c.
Is rarely associated with fever and anemia e. Most commonly affects scapula. Abrupt expansion of the bone b. Is radioresistant Ewing's sarcoma is characterized by the following except that it: a. ribs & sternum d. Characteristic soap-bubble appearance c. Malignant metastasis e. Presence of an operculum obliterating the medullary cavity d. Consists of large giant cells in a very vascular stroma of spindle cells d. Causes bone expansion and destruction with irregular opacities in the X-ray e. Is a common tumor of children b. Is a primary malignant tumor of bone marrow b.mataryonline. Always arises in metaphyseal region of cartilaginous bones c. May be associated with leucocytosis e. Curettage of tumor tissue & packing cavity with bone chips b. Produces characteristic radiological signs The most important DD of Ewing's tumor is: a. Acute osteomyelitis d. Chondrosarcoma b. Excision with safety margin of bone c. Reticulum cell sarcoma 148) 152) 149) 153) 150) 154) 16 www. Presents as a fusiform swelling with inflammatory changes in the overlying soft tissues d. the following statements are correct except that it: a. Always arises in the metaphysis of a long bone c. Osteogenic sarcoma c.147) Concerning osteoclastoma. Produces diagnostic radiological signs The radiological signs of osteoclastoma include the following except: a. Presence of areas of bone destruction The treatment of osteoclastoma includes the following measures except: a. Usually occurs between the ages of 15 and 40 years b. Chemotherapy The following statements about multiple myeloma are true except that it:: a. pelvis. Often invades the epiphyseal cartilage and neighbouring joint d. Occurs most often between the ages 20 and 60 yrs b. Occurs between the ages of 40 and 60 years c.com . Produces characteristic new bone formation in the X-ray e. Disseminates rapidly by the blood stream Which one of the following statements is untrue concerning chondro-sarcoma: a. Radiotherapy e. Amputation d. Arises from osteoblasts of the periosteum or bone cortex b. Absence of any new-bone formation e. Is always a primary malignant tumor of bone c. Forms a fusiform mass ensheathing the bone c. Usually presents with bone pain especially in the back d. May cause paraplegia with girdle pains 151) The following statements about bone sarcoma are true except that it: a. Presents as a painless globular swelling with welldefined edge e.
Deficient protein metabolism b. Tibia Sensory end organs are absent from the: a. Slow epiphyseal closure d. Skin and subcutaneous tissues 157) Ostaomalacia is characterized by the following features except: a. Hip e. Occurs most often in children and adolescents b.mataryonline. Synovial membrane e. Ossifying fibroma c. Elbow c. Muscle b. Albumin and laucin d. Bone sarcoma Ivory osteomata occur most often in the: a. Brodies' abscess b. Breast c. X-ray Looser 's zones The following statements about solitary bone cyst are true except that it: a. Beta lipoproteins Septic arthritis of infancy usually affects which of the following joints: a. femur and tibia c. Joint capsule The viscosity of synovial fluid is mainly due to: a. Alpha and beta globulins e. Shoulder b. Periostium c. Articular cartilage e. Prostate 156) The most pain-sensitive structure in a joint is the: a. Knee 160) 161) 158) 162) 163) 17 www. Stomach d. Chondroitin sulphate b. Lung b. Is commonest in the humerus . Bone end b. Joint capsule d.The most common osteolytic metastases in bones are derived from the: a. Hyaluronidase c.com . Spine c. Demineralization of the bones c. Skeletal deformities e. May remain innoticed until complicated by pathological fracture 155) 159) The differential diagnosis of osteoid osteoma includes all the following except: a. Skull b. Femur e. Articular cartilage c. Synovial membrane d. Arises in the diaphysis of the bone d. Kidney e. Wrist d. Metastatic thyroid nodule e. Humerus d. Assumes an avoid shape and may cause bone expansion e. Ewing's tumor d.
com . Synovial chondromatosis d. Articular cartilage b. Capsule e. Osteitis fibrosa cystica d. The most probable diagnosis is: a. sternum. Parosteal fibrosarcoma e. Bony ankylosis of affected joints A 20-year-old male presented because of increasing pain in his left lower thigh. Paget's disease 165) 169) 166) 170) 167) 18 www. Is often associated with vascular disorders A 60-year-old male with 3 months history of severe back-ache anemia and loss of weight. Ligaments Complications of rheumatoid arthritis in the hands include: a. Bone sarcoma d. Multiple myeloma c. Acute osteomyelitis of the lower end of the femur b. X-ray examination of the skeleton revealed multiple punched out defects without any new bone formation. Examination revealed tender fusiform thickening of the lower end of the femur with a small effusion into the knee joint. Subchondral bone c. Frequently first appears during pregnancy e. Arthrotony and drainage e. Carpal tunnel syndrome d. Massive antibiotics b. Ulnar deviation at the metacarpophalangeal joints e.mataryonline. Splintage in the position of function c. Brodie's abscess c. May follow a wrist fracture c. developed severe girdle pains with weakness of the lower limbs. X-ray examination revealed: a. Examination revealed low grade fever with marked tenderness over the spine. Hemophilic joint c. Ewing's tumor 168) Bloody or coffee-ground fluid obtained by aspiration of the knee joint is suggestive of: a. Synovial membrane d. The overlying skin was warm and the seat of dilated veins but movements of the knee were free and painless. Is always due to compression of the median nerve in the carpal tunnel b. Bone metastases from an occult primary b. Excision and Winnett Orr-treatment Rheumatoid arthritis primarily involves the: a.164) The treatment of acute septic synovitis includes the following except: a. ribs. Aspiration and antibiotic injection d. Hand Schuller-Christian's disease e. skull and pelvic bones. Charcot's joint Correct statements regarding the carpal tunnel syndrome include the following except that it: a. Septic arthritis b. Pigmented villonodular synovitis e. May occur in patients with rheumatoid arthritis d. Tenosynovitis b. Rupture of extensor tendons c.
Downward tilting of the pelvis. e. b. X-ray examination of the joint. wasting of the thigh muscles and upward tilting of the pelvis. It predisposes to delayed ulnar neuritis d. Examination revealed a flail joint with irregularly thickened bone ends. c. A 9-year-old boy developed an intermittent limp which soon became constant and associated with pain in the Rt hip & knee. The most probable diagnosis is : a. 174) The X-ray findings in tuberculosis of the hip include the following except : a.mataryonline. d. b. the treatment of tuberculosis of the hip includes the following except : a. Examination of aspirated synovial fluid. He should be suspected to be suffering1 from: a. b. Examination of the nervous system. c. Wandering acetabulum. Tuberculous arthritis. e. d. There is congenital elevation & maldevelopment of scapula. The following statements about cubitus valgus deformity are correct except that : a. In children. Congenital dislocation of the hip. the following statements are correct except that : a. In Sprengel's shoulder. e. d. An ugly prominence in the neck is produced by the superior angle. No ttt is required apart from excision of the supermedial angle of scapula to improve the appearance. Rheumatic arthritis. e. Diminution of the joint space. palpably swollen synovial membrane and marked grating and creaking on passive movement of the joint. c. Tuberculostatic drugs. A 40-year-old male presented with a grossly swollen painless left knee. Examination revealed a flexion deformity of the Rt hip with limitation of flexion and extension movements. Extra-articular arthrodesis. There is no limitation of shoulder movements. The deformity is most obvious when elbow is fully flexed c. It may be due to malunited supracondylar fr of the humerus or non united fr of the lateral condyle b. Weight traction to correct deformity. Legg-Perthes' disease. Treatment of supracondylar osteotomy is necessary only when the deformity is severe 175) 172) 176) 173) 177) 19 www. d. Tuberculous arthritis. d. A band of fibrocartilage or bone anchors the medial border of the scapula to the spine. e. b. c. Arthroscopy and synovial biopsy. Blurring of the joint outline. Rheumatoid arthritis. Diffuse decalcification of the bones. Slipped upper femoral epiphysis. Aspiration of cold abscess.com . c. c. Inherited syphylis. Septic arthritis of infancy. Traumatic synovitis. The first diagnostic step is: a. Fixation of the joint in the position of function. b.171) 12-year-old boy developed bilateral painless effusion of both knees together with blurring of vision and impairment of hearing. e. Serological tests. b. d.
The hypoplastic femoral head. e. d. Extension of the metacarprophalangeal joints with flexion of the interphalangeal joints. especially dorsiflexion. The small shallow acetabulum. e. c. The most characteristic feature of Volkmann's contracture is : a. Flexion deformity of the wrist. Weakness of the hand and fingers.mataryonline. 181) The most effective ttt of sever Dupuytren's contracture is: a. e. The deformity consists of flexion of the metacarprophalangeal and proximal interphalangeal joints with extension of the terminal joint. b. c. The shortened anteverted femoral neck. In congenital dislocation of the hip (CDH). d. Examination revealed radial deviation of the hand with abnormal prominence of the ulna. Apparent shortening of the thigh with the hips and knees flexed to 90°. d. b. Displacement of the femoral head from the acetabulum. The joint capsules and flexor tendons are not affected. The most diagnostic sign of congenital hip dysplasia in the newly borne is : a. The earliest radiological sign in congenital hip dislocation in infants is : a. Shortened hamstrings and adductors. and weakness of the hand. The correct diagnosis is : a. Radical excision of the palmar fascia. Subcutaneous fasciotomy. e. Local injections of fibrinolysin or hydrocortisone. e. Persistent dislocation of the lunate. Distortion of Shenton's line. c. e. Widening of the perineum. Malunited Colles' fracture. Vokamann's phenomenon. Wasting of the forearm. b. Small shallow acetabulum. Thickened adherent joint capsule with an hour-glass constriction. Limitation of hip abduction with hip and knees flexed to 90°. d. c. b. b. Non-united fracture of the scaphoid. 182) 179) 183) 180) 184) 20 www. c. The skin overlying the indurated fascia is often puckered and immobile. b. the pathological changes include the following except : a. c. d. He gave a history of a fall on the outstretched hand in children. especially the grip. Elongated femoral neck. d. Ortalani's sign. The ring and little fingers are severely affected. Rheumatoid arthritis of the wrist joint. d. c. Repeated stretching and night splintage. Snail flattened femoral head lying outside the acetabulum. It is due to contraction of the palmar fascia which starts as an indurated nodule on the ulnar border of the hand. X-ray therapy.178) A 25 years old male complained of limitation of wrist movements. The following statements about Dupuytren's contracture are true except that : a. b. e.com . Madelung's deformity. Asymmetry of the buttocks.
e. cyanosed and cold. The muscles are wasted and flabby. Coxa vara. c. c. c. Paralytic talipes is differentiated from. The best line of treatment is by : a. c. e. b. Raising the heel of the right shoe. d. Varus. d. b. McEwen's osteotomy of the femur. e. Examination revealed separation of the medial malleoli by 3 inches when standing with the knees in contact with each other and the feet directed forwards. Positive Trendelenburg's sign. A 10-year-old male with neglected congenital dislocation of the hip presented because of increasing pain in the back with limping and fatigue. c. The most common congenital deformity of the hindfoot is talipes : a. The limb is atrophied. b. Night splints.mataryonline. addution and eversion of the limb. congenital talipes by the following features except that : a. b. d. Non-united fracture of the femoral neck. Eguinovarus. Coxa vara. c. b. Colonna's arthroplasty. The appropriate management should be : a. Treatment of genu valgum includes the following except: a. d. Antirachitic treatment. Genu valgum. Open reduction with deepening the acetabulum by a shelf procedure. Infantile paralysis of the gluteal muscles. The deformity can be corrected easily by manipulation. d. Corrective splints. Calcaneus. b. 189) A 4-year-old rachitic child developed severe genu varum. d.185) Trenderburg' s sign can be elicited in all of the following except : a. b. Analgesics and anti-inflammatory drugs. e. Usually both sides are affected. The deformity appears later after birth. e.com . e. The clinical features of coxa vara include the following except : a. A 13-year-old boy presented for consultation because his knees tend to knock together and he tends to fall during running. Lorenz's bifurcation osteotomy. Limping and difficulty in kneeling. Congenital dislocation of the hip. Valgus. Equinus. Osteoclasis of the tibia. Limitation of all movements of the hip. e. The correct diagnosis is : a. Shortening. b. riding and separating the legs. c. Wedged shoes. Genu varum. e. Tibial osteotomy. Tuberculous arthritis of the hip joint. Repeated moulding. d. Bilateral flat foot. Osteoclasis of the tibia. d. Talipes calcaneovalgus. Physiotherapy. Raising of the greater trochanter above Nelaton's line. 186) 190) 187) 191) 192) 188) 21 www. c.
Examination revealed that the foot is flat and fixed in extreme eversion by spastic contraction of the peroneal muscles and long extensors of the toes. Pseudarthrosis of the tibia. Denis-Browne splint. d. deltoid and plantar ligaments.mataryonline. An adolescent male complained of severe pain in the foot and leg after prolonged standing. c. e. c. Spastic. b. Tuberculosis of the ankle joint. c. Talonavicular arthritis. e. Retrocalcanean bursitis. Plantar fasciitis. b.193) An 8-year-old child with neglected congenital equinovarus is best treated by : a. Paralytic. Electric stimulation of the intrinsic muscles. e. Traumatic.com . 197) 194) A 25-year-old male suffered from painful swelling of the feet and ankles over the last 6 weeks. Cicatricial. Spasmodic. Which of the following is associated with neurofibromatosis ? a. On examination. Plantar fasciotomy and elongation of the tendo Achilles. e. b. The most likely diagnosis is : a. d. d. Lambrinudi's operation. b. Dunn's triple arthrodesis. b. d. Genu recurvatum. Paralytic. b. d. b. Metatarsus varus. Spasmodic flat foot. Incipient flat foot. The commonest form of acquired talipes is the : a. Statis. Sprain of the ankle joint. The correct diagnosis is : a. Steindler's operation. the arches were preserved but the skin was congested and localized tenderness could be elicited over the navicular bone and the spring. Toe exercises. c. Talipes equinovarus. The commonest variety of flat foot is the : a. d. e. e. Incipient flat foot. c. Repeated manipulation under anaesthesia. 198) 195) 196) 199) 22 www. Congenital hip dysplasia. Dunn's triple arthrodesis. Congenital. Wedge tarsectomy. Sprain of the ankle. Compensatory. c. c. e. d. The best treatment for pes cavus causing severe local pressure on the metatarsal-heads is by : a. Traumatic. Spasmodic flat foot.
Have a linear freely movable scar not exposed to pressure. Delayed repair of nerves. Immediate arterial and venous repair. Have a smoothly rounded cone-shaped end. b. c. d. c. Requires a cheap stump boot. d.200) Regarding hallux valgus. d. Is not progressive. c. Pes cavus. c. Causes hammer-toe deformity in the other toes. Hallux valgus. Be painless with a freely movable joint above and a smooth bone end elbow. Rupture of the extensor expansion. b. The following statements about provisional amputation for infective gangrene are true except that it: a. May be urgently needed to control infection and toxemia. d. 204) 202) 205) 23 www. Overcrowding of the toes by ill-fitting shoes. Be as long as possible. e. Consists of outward deviation of the great toe at the metatarso-phalangeal joint. Shortening of bone. d. The causes of hammer-toe include the following except: a. Should be done as low as possible to allow reamputation at the optimum level.mataryonline. b.com . the following statements are true except that it: a. Limb preservation. Allows the patient to walk around in his room without prosthesis. e. e. May be carried out by the guillotine or flap method without closure. Should be made through the healthy limb above the infected area. Talipes equinus. 203) 201) The ideal amputation should fulfill the following requirements except that it should: a. c. b. Should provide free drainage. c. b. e. e. Reimplantation of a traumatically amputated limb requires all of the following except: a. d. Maintains. the pleasure of "earth feeding". Predisposes to several painful complications. Not include muscle over the bone end. Is not attended with serious complications. b. e. Is less "catastrophic" to the patient. Routine angiograms. Is usually due to badly fitting shoes. Syme's amputation is better than a below-knee amputation except that it: a.
osteoid tissue is formed in an acid pH d. 8. are often associated with fracture of the corocoid process Recurrent dislocation of the shoulder a. a fatigue fracture if it occurs through a diseased bone e. are frequently associated with chest wall injury c. fractures of the fourth metatarsal b. comminuted if there has been associated damage to adjacent nerves or vessels d. can be recognized by the abnormal elevation of the fragment e. A fracture is said to be a. the hematoma is initially invaded by osteoblasts b. 7. lesion is usually due to indirect violence b. Fractures of the clavicle a. the final stage of repair is the remodeling of the callus Non-union is often seen in a. very rarely causes any compression of the trachea or vessels in the neck e. usually requires surgical repair e. is usually accompanied by fracture of the first rib 5. simple when there is a single fracture line c. are often due to a fall on the outstretched hand b. Are usually of the greenstick variety in children under the age b. is usually in the posterior position b. 3. is more common after associated damage to the glenoid labrum d. pathological if it occurs through a bony metastasis In a healing fracture a. fractures of the neck of the femur c. 24 www. 4.mataryonline. Colles’ fractures e. the tissue formed by the invading osteoblasts is termed osteoid c. distal fragment is usually adducted 6. are usually treated by internal fixation Fractures of the neck of the scapula a. fractures of the condyle of the mandible d. is usually in young adults c. can usually be managed without surgical intervention e. 2.True & False 1. are often associated with dislocation of the acromioclavicular d. proximal fragment Is usually internally rotated e. is usually caused by a fall on the outstretched hand b. fragments are usually impacted d. is usually treated by internal fixation d. displaces the clavicle upwards and medially c.com . is surgically managed by tightening the soft tissues over the inferior aspect of the joint In fractures of the surgical neck of the humerus the a. closed if an overlying skin laceration has been sutured b. calcium salts are laid down in the osteoid tissue e. are frequently associated with injury to the subclavian vessels d. scaphoid fractures Dislocation of the sternoclavicular joint a. are usually the result of direct violence c. fracture line usually passes between the greater and lesser tuberosities c.
In a fracture of the distal 1/3 of the shaft of the humerus a. the distal fragment is usually posteriorly angulated by the action of biceps b. the radial nerve is frequently damaged c. delayed radial nerve palsy is usually due to edema d. late onset of radial nerve palsy is usually due to the involvement of the nerve with callus e. ulnar nerve palsy is usually of late onset
13. In a Colles' fracture the distal radial fragment a. is dorsally angulated on the proximal radius b. is usually torn from the intra-articular triangular disc c. is deviated to the ulnar side d. is usually impacted e. commonly damages the median nerve 14. Fractures of the radial styloid a. extend into the wrist joint b. typically have an anterior dislocation of the bony fragment c. are commonly associated with fractures of the triquetral bone d. are commonly associated with fractures of scaphoid e. are commonly associated with dislocation of the wrist joint 15. A transverse fracture of the scaphoid is a. the commonest carpal injury b. prone to infection c. usually seen in young men d. prone to avascular necrosis e. usually seen on an early scaphoid radiograph 16. In pelvic fractures a. avulsion injuries are usually treated by early mobilization b. undisplaced lesions of the ischial or pubic rami are usually treated by early mobilization c. extraperitoneal urinary extravasation may be due to damage either to the membranous urethra or to the base of the bladder d. extraperitoneal urinary extravasation may be due to damage of the base of the bladder e. which are unstable, one half of the pelvis is displaced proximally by the flank muscles f. Reduction may need 40 to 50 Ib (18 to 23 kg) of traction
10. A supracondylar fracture of the humerus a. is a fracture commonly seen in young adults b. is particularly subject to the complication of ischemic muscle contracture c. is held in the position of reduction by the tendon of brachioradialis d. when properly reduced has the index finger pointing approximately to the tip of shoulder of the same side e. is commonly accompanied by ulnar nerve palsy 11. Fractures of the head of the radius a. do not occur in isolation b. are usually associated with dislocation of the radius c. may be associated with dislocation of the elbow joint d. may require surgical excision of the head e. are usually accompanied by damage to the median nerve 12. In a Monteggia fracture dislocation a. the dislocation of the distal radio-ulnar joint brings the ulnar styloid process anterior to the capitulum b. the radial fracture is usually at the junction of the middle and distal thirds c. internal fixation is usually required in the adult d. the causative injury is often a blow on the extensor surface of the forearm with the elbow flexed e. the commonest neurological injury is to the posterior branch of the radial nerve
17. Intracapsular fractures of the upper end of the femur are usually a. after major trauma in the young b. accompanied by shortening of the leg c. accompanied by external rotation of the leg d. accompanied by adduction of the leg e. treated by internal fixation 18. Extracapsular fractures of the upper end of the femur are a. usually subtrochanteric in position b. usually subject to avascular necrosis of the head of the femur c. usually accompanied by internal rotation of the leg d. usually treated by internal fixation e. rarely comminuted 19. In fractures of the mid-shaft of the femur the a. proximal fragment is usually flexed b. proximal fragments is usually abducted c. distal fragment is usually adducted d. common femoral vessels are usually damaged e. femoral nerve is often damaged 20. In fractures of the patella a. comminution is usual when the fracture has been caused by indirect violence b. a transverse fracture without displacement is usually treated by a plaster cylinder with no direct surgical intervention c. aspiration of the Knee joint should be avoided d. a comminuted fracture is best treated by patella excision and replacement by a prosthesis e. weight bearing should be avoided for the first week
21. In fractures of the middle third of the tibia and fibula a. delayed union is common b. indirect violence usually results in a spiral or oblique fracture line c. shortening and anterior angulation of the tibia are common d. comminuted fractures are usually treated by early plating of the tibia e. the tibial nerve is frequently damaged 22. In injuries of the ankle joint a. eversion injuries are the most commonly encountered b. inversion injuries are usually accompanied by a tear of the deltoid ligament c. there is frequently associated posterior tibial nerve damage d. the posterior tibial artery is frequently damaged e. the joint is rendered unstable by rupture of the inferior tibiofibular ligament 23. In rheumatoid arthritis the a. principal lesion is an area of fibrinoid necrosis surrounded by fibroblasts b. synovial membrane characteristically undergoes marked hypertrophy c. fibrosis in the joint capsule and ligaments produces the main deforming forces in the early stages of the disease d. permanent deformity in the late stage of the disease is usually due to bone ankylosis e. radiological signs occur at a late stage in the disease
24. Rheumatoid arthritis a. is characteristically symmetrical in its involvement of the more proximal joints b. has an equivalent disease in childhood which is also associated with pericarditis c. carries a worse prognosis if serological tests (such as the Rose-Waaler and Latex tests) are positive d. is characterized by the pes anserinus deformity e. is characterized by increased activity within an inflamed join 25. In rheumatoid arthritis a. ♀ are affected 7 times more commonly than ♂ b. the onset of the disease is usually in the fourth decade c. the disease is rapidly progressive in 25 per cent of patients d. approximately 50 % of patients nave a remission in the 1st yr e. the symptoms are least apparent in the morning 26. Rheumatoid arthritis often has an associated a. Sacroileitis b. Photosensitivity c. anicteric hepatitis d. conjunctivitis e. Heberden's nodes 27. Acute osteomyelitis in childhood a. is usually the result of compound bony injuries b. is characterized by a constant bone pain c. characteristically produces necrosis of the periosteum overlying the infected bone d. is not usually demonstrable radiologically for the first 2 weeks of the disease e. may be demonstrated by scintigraphy within 2 to 3 days of onset
28. In tuberculosis of the bone a. the local reaction is characterized by extensive new bone formation b. metaphysis of long bones is the commonest site of involvement c. the infection is usually secondary to a primary focus elsewhere in the body d. extension of the bone abscess into a joint is common e. the presentation is typically severe pain over the end of a long bone 29. In osteoarthntis of the hip joint a. the articular cartilage undergoes initia1 hypertrophy and then becomes hardened and eburnated b. the joint capsule becomes stretched and lax c. the leg is usually adducted and externally rotated when the patient lies supine d. a femoral osteotomy usually helps halt the progress of the disease process e. associated changes in the ankle joint are rare 30. Osteoarthitis a. is the commonest arthropathy b. is characterized by marginal osteophyte formation c. commonly presents with back pain d. symptoms are least apparent in the morning e. commonly produces swelling of the distal interphalangeal joints 31. In Paget's disease of the bone a. the serum alkaline phosphatase is considerably raised b. spiral fractures of the femur are common c. deafness is a characteristic of later stages of the diseases d. the fibula is typically affected e. osteogenic sarcoma develops twice as commonly as unaffected people
Idiopathic scoliosis a. Hallux valgus is commonly associated with a. is usually painless 28 www. Injury to the medial meniscus of the knee joint is a. Dupuytren’s contracture of the palm a. multiple fractures and subsequent deformity c. being familial in origin e. clawing of toes c.com . extends proximally along the lateral aspect of the hand 35. the defect cannot be detected until the third week of life b. there is a defect of the posterior rim of the acetabulum c. being inherited as a Mendalian dominant d.mataryonline. Slipped femoral epiphyses a. typically are seen in overweight children c. multiple endochondromas of the fingers and toes e. splinting of the limbs following reduction should be maintained until the femoral epiphysis returns to its normal density on radiographic examination 36. a perforating ulcer beneath the head of the first metatarsal d. In a case of congenital dislocation of the hip a. are displaced downwards and posteriorly in relation to the neck of the femur e. is more common in boys d. a large skull with a short base and a snub nose b.32. characterized by a positive draw sign e. reduction is sometimes hindered by a tight gluteus minimus muscle e. is transmitted as a Mendalian dominant b. congenital dislocation of the hip 33. has an association with glomerulonephritis d. occur between the ages of 5 and 10 years b. often present in cases of locking of the knee d. less common than that of the lateral meniscus c. is the most common type of scoliosis b. reduction of vibration sensation over the tip of the great toe e. usually appears between the ages of 10 and 12 years c. Diaphysial aclasis is characterized by a. often associated with a tear of the quadriceps femoris b. are usually associated with dislocation of the femoral head 37. an increased incidence of sarcomatous bone disease 34. commonly associated with local tenderness 38. short stubby fingers (the trident hand) c. a defect in cartilaginous ossification b. Dyschondroplasia is characterized by a. blue sclera d. are bilateral in 20 per cent of patients d. is predominantly seen in men c. is sometimes familia1 e. which is long-standing. is often associated with 2ry fibrosis of the interphalangeal joints e. a raised medial longitudinal arch b. a dry vasodilated foot 39. on bilateral hip abduction with the knees flexed there is often limited abduction on the diseased side d.
according to the periosteal (proliferative) theory a. usually present soon after puberty 42. chondromata frequently present with pathological fr 41. the callus collars grow toward each other d. fracture of the medial epicondyle of the humerus c. stellate fracture of the patella 45. is cemented to the original cortex e. Chordomata a. An osteoid osteoma a. is a blood-filled cavity lined with a soft membrane 43. includes a V-shaped cartilagenous formation d. which develop in the metaphysic are usually less well differentiated than those occurring around the epiphysis b. In the stages of healing of a fracture of tubular bone. osteochondromata usually occur in the epiphyses of long bones e. the repair includes the formation of fibrocartilagenous tissue e. exhibits an outer layer of chondrocytes c. macrophages remove the hematoma d. callus collars are formed around each fragment c.mataryonline. In benign tumors of cartilage a. is most frequently seen in the bones of the upper limb c. of the base of the skull (spheric-occipital1 develop in the remnants of Rathke's pouch b. chondromata and osteochondrornata occur equally in the two sexes b. the hematoma is invaded by granulation tissue b. of the sacrococcygeal region develop in the remnants of the neural canal c. commonly presents with local pain d. squamous metaplasia occurs e. acanthosis occurs c. are the commonest malignant tumor of bone 44. callus is distributed throughout the area occupied by the fracture hematoma 46. fracture of the medial malleolus of the tibia d. osteogenic cells are stimulated to proliferate within hours of the fracture occurring b. fracture of the medial tibial tubercle b. Chondrosarcomata a. Fracture callus characteristically a.40. mallet finger e. commonly metastasize to lymph nodes d. Examples of traction injuries include a. are commoner in females than in males e. demonstrates a small circular band of bony sclerosis surrounding a translucent area on radiographs e. exhibits bony trabeculae cemented to the shaft b. quite commonly invade the neighbouring blood vessels c. In the stages of healing of a fracture of tubular bone.com . becomes Haversian bone 29 www. chondromata usually occur in epiphyses of long bones d. malignant changes occur in 10 % of cases of multiple osteochondromata c. usually presents in the adult b. are characterized radiologically by central rarefaction of the bone and cortical thinning and expansion d. according to the haematoma theory a. osteogenic cells become osteoblasts 47. characteristically present as a pathological fracture e.
Shift c. treating the patient specifically according to the radiographic appearance b. As an alternative to plaster of Paris a tubular bone fracture can be stabilized by a. normal pulses c. Fracture lines can be described as being a. unprotected stress can lead to re-fracture c. Twist d. A compound fracture a. venous occlusion 30 www. infection of the fracture hematoma c. if compound from without carries a poorer prognosis than a compound fracture from within 49. repair of a main artery to a limb e. Compression e.com . replacing small fragments adjacent to joints b. acute pain on employing the stretch test e. the swelling at the fracture site has disappeared 52. normal sensation distally d. Spiral d. Angulation b. the use of external fixators 53. fractures of the patella c. Characteristic features of acute compartment syndrome in the lower leg include a. is not a cause of septicemia e. Twisted 50. The causes of non-union of a fracture include a. clinical manipulation d. those occurring in infants 56. The name given to the displacement in a fracture of a long bone include a. consolidation has occurred e. external skeletal fixators b. Subluxation 51. Practical schemes for management of fractures include a.48. very slight bending movements during healing phase b. osteoclasis d. intra-medullary nailing 55. the bone bridging the fracture has normal radiological appearance b. skin traction e. open operation e.mataryonline. inevitably is present if a laceration of the skin overlies a spiral fracture of the humerus c. is present if a laceration of mucous membrane connects with the fracture hematoma b. Operative stabilization of a tubular bone fr is of value for a. compression plating c. patients with a head injury d. gross swelling b. Butterfly c. uremia e. Comminuted b. anoxia d. Paget's disease (osteitis deformans) 54. reduction by gravity c. can be present if skin death from ischemia overlies a fractured tibia d. At the stage of clinical union of a fracture of tubular bone a. local palpation produces little or no tenderness d. Distraction e.
gas gangrene c. immobilization by splinting is the method of choice in ttt e. Friedrich's ataxia 58. Complications of fracture of proximal humerus include a. With a midshaft fracture of the clavicle a. Fractures occurring in children differ from those in adults in the following respects: In children a. non-union e. myositis ossificans e. fracture of the surgical neck is common in the elderly c. butterfly fractures e. the fractures unite more slowly b. locking can occur e. Dupuytrens's contracture b. fracture of the anatomical neck may be combined with anterior dislocation of the shoulder d.mataryonline. the coraco-acromial ligament is ruptured b. Blisters b. Sudeck's atrophy d. avascular necrosis of the head of the humerus d. With fractures of the proximal humerus a. the defect is filled with fibrocartilage c. blood within the joint will not clot 62. the late sequel of osteoarthrosis can be treated by excision of the outer end of the clavicle 64. end-on crushes c. ostcoarthritis e. the coraco-clavicular ligament has also ruptured b. osteitis fibrosa cystica 59. the fracture should be reduced d. true healing does not occur b. hypertrophic non-union c. the clavicle is held in place by the clavipectoral fascia c. fracture of the anatomical neck with dislocation of the shoulder is best treated by rest in a sling with active mobilization once pain has subsided 65. muscle wasting surrounding the joint is unusual d. it is acceptable merely to rest the arm in a sling and to mobilize the shoulder when the pain has settled e. involvement of the epiphyseal plate is uncommon as the plate is stronger than the bone 60. malunion is uncommon e. malunion can be partly corrected by growth c. tardy ulnar palsy 31 www. intra-articular fractures d. If a patient presents with an acromioclavicular dislocation a. significant displacement of the bone ends is common c. a fracture line that runs through part of the growth plate lying between calcified and uncalcified cartilage 61. Early complications of lower limb fractures include a. injury is through the anatomical neck characteristically following a fall on the outstretched hand b.57. non-union is possible 63. fracture of surgical neck is treated by excision of the head of the humerus and replacement by a prosthesis e. fat embolism d. numbness of skin over a small area of the deltoid c. With injury and fracture of articular cartilage a. joint stiffness is common after immobilization d. greenstick fractures b. reduction is best maintained by a temporary screw through the clavicle to engage in the coracoid process d. paralysis of the deltoid muscle b. Recognized late complications of fractures include a. Recognized features of fractures involving the growth plate and epiphysis in children include a.com .
com . little pain c. if the mortice is disrupted it must be reconstructed c. a Milwaukee brace 70. diastasis of the inferior tibiofibular joint is caused by a vertical compression injury 32 www. pseudarthrosis is common 67. Arthrodesis c. the knee becomes locked c. the leg is externally rotated d.mataryonline. radial palsy is a complication e. and possibly fracture. the leg is abducted c. active and passive movements of the elbow joint should begin as soon as possible 68. In fracture of the shaft of the humerus a. locking d. a plaster of Paris cylinder e. The immediate management of condylar fractures of the femur includes a. Regarding fracture of medial epicondyle of the humerus a. the condition is predisposed to by an unusually high lateral femoral condyle d. Kuntscher nailing b. in a third-degree external rotation injury the talus is free to slide beneath. excessive posterior glide 72. Swelling b. giving way 73. skeletal traction d. the posterior margin of the tibia d. in an inversion (adduction) injury the media malieolus may be sheared from the tibia e. the fracture should be reduced under an anesthetic c. a rotated fragment requires operative re-attachment to the epicondyle e. In fractures involving the ankle joint a. 50 % of dislocations are followed by avascular necrosis of the femoral head if there is delay in reduction 69. McMurray's sign e. excessive forward glide c. Features in the knee recognized to be consistent with a torn medial meniscus include a. In dislocation of the patella a. reduction is usually easy e. In posterior dislocation of the hip a. patellectomy is the most suitable treatment 71. Features recognized to be associated with the diagnosis of ruptured anterior cruciate ligament include a. minor swelling b. it is an avulsion injury b. the patella dislocates to the medial side of the knee b. the condition is liable to recur spontaneously e. the fragment of bone fortunately does not enter the elbow joint d. the stability of the tibio-fibular mortice determines the outcome b. a butterfly fragment may be present b. the leg is flexed b.66. dislocation of the patella e. the arm should be held by plaster abducted to 60° on a traction frame secured to the body d. the fragment of bone may be rotated c. hemarthrosis d.
is rickets in the adult skeleton b. elbow if unilateral . osteotomy b. widening of the joint space b. hip . The position of ease which joints take up in acute suppurative arthritis includes.74.flexed. synovial pannus d. associated with a march fracture of the metatarsals b. part of neuropathic arthropathy e. knee . synovectomy d.90° of extension semi-pronated b. synovial infiltration with plasma cells b. The clinical features that are associated with osteoarthritis of the hip include a. shoulder – abducted b. arthrodesis c.60° of flexion to allow sitting in a chair d. pain on walking but not at night b. wrist . knee – straight e. produces bone that is stronger than normal bone e. can be brought about by renal tubular acidosis 79. muscle spasm c. subchondral sclerosis d. Transmetatarsal dislocation is a. replacement arthroplasty e. the a. treated by open reduction 75. apparent shortening e. is associated with blind loop syndrome d.slightly dorsiflexed c. ankle – dorsiflexed 76.mataryonline. synonymous with Lisfranc's dislocation c. sympathectomy 33 www. Characteristic features of rheumatoid arthritis include a.extended and supinated c. appearance in childhood b. appears primarily as an osteosclerosis c. osteocsclerosis 82. is consistent with a raised serum alkaline phosphatase e. Characteristic radiological appearances of OA include a.30° of flexion to allow sitting in a chair e. elbow . persistently unremitting pain and stiffness e. Paget's disease of bone a. abducted and internally rotated d. Surgery in relation to the pathology of osteoarthritis include a. associated with ischaemia of the toes d. mild fever d. is due to deficient absorption of vitamin A c. Osteomalacia a. hip . Codman's triangle 81.com . causes deafness d. affects cancellous and cortical bone 78. ankle . muscle wasting 83. effusion c. The most suitable positions for ankylosis of a joint include a. Pathological changes in Rh arthritis of the knee include a. the joint held in the position of ease which is functionally useless d.at a right angle 77. destruction of the cruciate ligaments e. affects men more than women c. telescopic movement 80. subluxation e. can affect any bone in the body b. new born formation c.
the mother can be taught manipulation therapy if the deformity is slight e. neuroectomy e. x-ray is necessary for diagnosis d. most commonly of the equino-valgus variety d. Congenital b. excision arthroplasty 85. insertion of rods and hooks e. occurs with coax vara d. Operations favored for RhA include a. is associated with aortic valve disease 86. synovectomy d.mataryonline. The types of scoliosis include the a. arthrogryphosis can be present c. Blount's disease and bow leg c. Paralytic c. on one side causes a lurching gait downwards towards the unsupported side 87. A positive Trendelenberg sign a. characteristically displays tissue antigen hla-b27 e. known as talipes b. a Denis Browne splint can be used 90. Congenital torticollis a. a consequence of placenta praevia e. repeated comparable AP x-rays of the spine b. osteochondritis and knock knee 34 www. is more common in women than in men c. exhibits a swelling called a potato tumor d. adduction of the bones of the forefoot c. a small os calcis d. insertion of Rush nails 93. congenital c. causes facial asymmetry e. scleroderma 89. affects the small distal joints in the extremeties first b. Postural d. Recognized current procedures in the management of scoliosis include a. There is a recognized association between a. is a true congenital abnormality b. on both sides can make the gait appear normal e. is treated by division of the accessory nerve 91. Ankylosing spondylitis a. characteristically associated with breech presentation 88. the foot can be dorsiflexed until the dorsum touches the chin b. In a neonate with club foot a. osteotomy b. the use of the Milwaukee brace c. erosion of the os clacis b. in-toeing and knock knee d. the use of plaster casts d. replacement arthroplasty c. Club foot is a. abnormal histology of the calf muscles e. is present when the pelvis rises on the unsupported side on walking b.84. occurs with paralysis of hip adductors c. gastro-esophageal 92.com . Recognized features of club foot include a. is associated with pulmonary fibrosis d. rickets and knock knee b. involves infarcted muscles c. Pulmonary e. slipped femora] epiphysis and bow leg e.
Hyperparathyroidism. ostcoclasis d. Traction injuries of the epiphyses include a. broomstick plasters c. Multiple myelomatosis. Acute osteomyelitis. no treatment b. Rickets or osteomalacia. 35 www. diet 97. Osteogenesis imperfecta.94. Scheuermann's disease e. characteristically associated with tenderness of the attachment of the extensor muscles of the forearm c. Osteogenic osteosarcoma. treated by rest e. Osgood Schlatter's disease c. Tennis elbow is a. b. b. tendon calcification c. Supraspinatus tendonitis is associated with a. Features associated with chronic slipped epiphysis include a. c.com . previous poliomyelitis 95. Pancoast syndrome 101. internal fixation with three threaded pins e. high normal loads b. also known as medial epicondylitis b. d. an epiphyseal plate not disposed at right angles to the line of action of the resultant force applied to it e. e. Sever's disease b. isolated limitation of external rotation and abduction 96. d. The commonest local cause of pathological fracture of bones is: a. femoral osteotomy e. Senile osteoporosis. apparent shortening e. pain in the knee c. frozen shoulder e. knock knee b. Denis Browne splints b. compression nail plating d. innominate osteotomy 98. The commonest general cause of bone fragility: a. c. rotator cuff injuries b. Chronic osteomyelitis. Kienbock's disease d. Factors predisposing to slipped femoral epiphysis include a. Congenital bone cyst.mataryonline. The management of Perthe's disease includes a. The management of acute slipped epiphysis in a young adult includes a. Dupuytren's contracture b. pregnancy d. in-toeing d. compound palmar ganglion e. Pressure atrophy by aortic aneurysm. associated with the presence of bone chips d. There is a recognized association between carpal tunnel syndrome and a. Freiberg's disease 99. 103. 'hypogonadal' children d. RhA c. associated with olecranon bursitis 100. a Milwaukee brace c. painful arc syndrome d. Sudeck's atrophy 102. rickets c. e.
108. March fracture. c. Fracture of the patella. All benign tumors are liable to pathological fractures except: a. Osteogenic osteosarcoma. Cancellous osteoma. Direct severe trauma. 105. c. d. Tenderness at fracture site. Delayed or malunion of fracture. Enchondroma. Secondaries from carcinoma of the breast. Ischemia of the limb distal to the plaster. Fracture of the clavicle. Avulsion fracture of the tibial tuberosity. b. Shortening of the affected bone. b. Secondaries from carcinoma of the prostate. 109. 106. e.mataryonline. 113. d. Indirect trauma. c. Multiple myelomatosis. Common complications of plastering of fractures are: a. Relation of the proximal fragment to the distal one. Osteoclastoma. Swelling at the fracture site. e. 107. Fracture radius and or fracture ulna. Spiral fractures are common on top of: a. b. c. Antibiotics. e. Stellate shape fracture of the patella. Multiple bone fractures.com . e. b. Intra-articular fracture. 111. d. b. All primary and secondary bone tumors are liable to pathological fracture except: a. 110. The most important step in 1st aid measure of fracture is: a. Control of hemorrhage. c. c. Distraction displacement is very common in: a. b. e. d. It is done mainly by the surrounding muscles. b. Deformity at the fracture site. 36 www. Venous congestion and venous thrombosis. Comminuted fracture. Electro-convulsi ve therapy. e. c. Skeletal traction and fixation is commonly used in: a. b. Complicated fracture. 112. Ewing sarcoma. d. Relation of the distal fragment to the proximal one. e. c. Fracture of the shaft of the femur. Peripheral neuritis. Fissure fracture of the green -stick type.104. d. b. d. e. usually with rotation. c. Orthostatic oedema of the limb: f. Ivory osteoma. Unstable fracture. Transverse fracture of tibia. Fracture of the tibia or fibula. Fracture with bone loss (bullet injury). Failure of closed reduction. Immobilization of the part affected. Displacement of a fracture: a. b. Relief of pain. Anti-gas gangrene and anti-tetanic serum. f. Indications of open reduction and internal fixation: a. Allergic dermatitis. Ecchondroma. e. Direct trauma. Crepitus except if the fracture is impacted. e. d. c. d. It may anterior or posterior or medio-lateral or rotational displacement. d. It is very valuable to be known before reduction. The most pathognomic sign of fracture is: a.
Anti~tetanic globulins. c. Internal fixation is only indicated in management of compound fracture if: a. U/S is very diagnostic. Interposition by soft tissues. The commonest general complication of fracture is: a. local tenderness of the joint affected. b. Pulmonary embolism. Intra-articular fracture. Spleen. suturing or grafting of damaged vessels. 121. b. It is treated by crepe bandage and analgesics. Sigmoid colon. e.T. f. Left kidney. Marked haemoarthrosis of the joint affected is present. Anaemia. e. Stomach. b. 119. Presence of tendon injuries. Over stretch or partial rupture of a ligament. b.mataryonline. 118. Presence of marked muscle laceration. d. 117. f. Spiral or oblique fracture of the femur. Excessive traction of bone fragments. Broad-spectrum antibiotics. b. d. Usually follows indirect trauma.V. 115.com . c. Cover open fracture by sterile dressings. c. Ligation. Septic shock. Blood transfusion or intra-venous fluids. Fractures complicated by vascular injury. Infected fractures. Division of the deep fascia. c. d. c. Traumatic synovitis is characterized by all except: a. Characterized by swelling. Intero-external fixation of compound fracture. 120. d. Important operative measures in treating compound fractures are all followings except: a. b. b. f. Marked limitation of joint movement is characteristic. Immediate repair of damaged nerve or tendon. 116. Acute renal failure on top of crush syndrome. Paralytic ileus. b. Lung and left pleura. e. e. Pre-operative measures for ttt of compound fr are: a. c. Sprain of a joint: a. Improper immobilization. Presence of nerve injury. Neurogenic shock. Poor blood supply of the fracture site. d. Or torn cartilage. D. Urgent x-ray. It is caused by trauma. d. Excision of dead tissues and removal of foreign bodies. d. 37 www. No spasm of the muscles surrounding the joint: d. b. All are causes of delayed union of fractures: a. Increase amount of synovial fluid inside joint. e. Intero-external fixation is indicated in: a. Infection of bone haematoma. e. Sedation of the patient by morphia. c. Presence of marked skin loss. e.114. 122. e. c. Presence of vascular arterial injury. e. Sprains. d. Viscera liable to be injured by fracture lower ribs of the left side are: a. Simple transverse fracture. c.
Bone graft. e. c. Kirschner wire. Junction of the medial third with lateral two thirds. arthrotomy with evacuation of the synovial fluid. Dislocation of sternoclavicular joint gives ladder step deformity. Bleeding inside the injured joint. It is almost impacted fracture. Lateral fragment is displaced downward and foreword by weight of the upper limb while medial fragment is displaced upward and backward by spasm of the sternomastoid muscle. e. b. c. Hemophilia. Intra-articular fracture. NMR is very diagnostic. None of the above. The commonest site of fracture clavicle caused by indirect trauma in form of fall on outstretched hand is: a. Medial fragment is displaced downward below lateral fragment. 126. Ladder step deformity characteristic of fracture clavicle is: a. d. Junction of the lateral third with medial two thirds. arthroscopic repair of the injured ligaments. Haemarthrosis: a. Plate and screws. No limitation of movements of the joint affected. c. Imrnediate swelling of the joint affected after trauma. Tracheal injury. d. c. 127. Lateral fragment is displaced foreword while medial is displaced backward. 129. d. Distal fragment is abducted by deltoid muscle. Bullet or stab injuries of joints. Internal fixation of fracture clavicle is achieved by: a. Pleural injury in form of haemothorax and pneumothorax. e. Caused by severe trauma or twist of the joint. b. Visceral complications complicating fracture medial third of the clavicle are: a. 130. 124.com . b. d. e. Distal fragment is adducted by teres major and pectoralis major. Screws. d. Dislocation of acromio-clavicular joint. Level (II) fracture shaft of humerus is characterized by the following deformity: a. d. Oesophageal injury with mediastinitis. Middle of the clavicle. b. 38 www. Proximal fragment is adducted by teres major and pectoralis major. e. b. c. Proximal fragment is abducted by the deltoid. e. Purpura. b. c. aseptic aspiration of the fluid if excessive in amount. e. b.123. Severe trauma or twist of a joint. Intramedullary nail. Rupture of the liver. The commonest cause of haemoarthrosis is: a. c. The followings are all lines of treatment of traumatic synovitis except: a. c. e.mataryonline. 125. b. immobilization and firm bandage. 128. d. Lung laceration. arthroscopy with removal of loose bodies or torn cartilage. d. Anywhere.
Colles' fracture is commonly associated with fracture of: a. Extension type supracondylar fracture. Excision is the treatment of choice. Fracture of olecranon process. 7 degrees. c. Marked oedema on the dorsum of the hand. Above elbow plaster in flexion. b. d. Frykmann classified Colles' fracture to: a. 132. d. It affects triceps and biceps muscles more. Cubitus valgus deformity. c. Head of radius. Transcondylar fracture. d. 137. Nervous complication of levels II and III fractures shaft of humerus are: a. d. e. Non union and delayed union. Resection of the spastic segment with grafting.mataryonline. 3 degrees. Complete claw hand. d. Thrombendartrectomy if a thrombus is present. Brachialis muscle is affected in over 90% of cases. d. c. Marked tenderness of wrist joint. c. d. Ulnar nerve injury. Flexion type dislocation of the elbow is treated by: a. d. Styloid process of radius. c. c. Madelung's deformity. 138. Axillary nerve injury. Head of ulna. Steps of ttt of Volkmann's ischaemic contracture are: a. Intercondylar fracture. d. Drop hand and drop wrist. b. d. c. 6 degrees. b. e. Above elbow plaster in extension. Characteristic crepitus at the lower end of the radius. Removal of tight plaster. Characteristic dinner-fork deformity. b. Styloid process of ulna. Volkmann's ischaemic contracture. Below elbow plaster. b. e. e.com . Shoulder spica. c. b. Myositis ossificans complicating supracondylar fracture of the humerus: a. Condylar fractures include all except: a. e. Intra-arterial injection of papaverine solution in the spastic segment.131. 133. Abnormal calcification of muscle haematoma. The most serious complication of supracondylar fracture of the humerus is: a. 134. e. b. b. c. e. b. Open reduction and internal fixation. Lower third of ulna. X-ray is very diagnostic. 4 degrees. 135. e. Radial nerve injury with drop wrist. Reduction of unreduced supracondylar fracture. Styloid process of radius is higher than styloid process of ulna or at the same level. b. e. 8 degrees. The characteristic deformity of Volkmann's ischaemic contracture is: a. The most diagnostic sign of Colles' fracture clinically is: a. Cubitus varus deformity. Flexion type supracondylar fracture. 136. e. 39 www. Posterior interossoeus nerve injury. c. Myositis ossificans of the brachialis muscle. Median nerve injury. 140. Cubitus valgus deformity. Median nerve injury. 139.
c. b. e. pallor or cyanosis of the fingers. e. Wide range of movements of the shoulder. Laxity of the capsule of the shoulder joint. c. Radial deviation of the hand complicating Colles' fracture b. e. and vasomotor symptoms in form of swelling. d. Hamilton ruler sign. c. Shallowness of the glenoid cavity. Commonly complicates Colles' fracture. e. Fraying (rupture) of flexor polilicis tendon: a. It is due non-union of the fracture site. d. It is caused by fall on the back of the hand with severe flexion of the wrist. Fracture lower inch of radius with forward displacement of distal fragment. It is treated by excision of head of ulna. b. Median nerve injury (carpal tunnel syndrome). Ischemia of the hand. d. Plain x-ray of the wrist shows characteristic spotty osteoporosis. c.mataryonline. d.com . d. e. Pseudoarthrosis. Braynt's sign (down displacement of the anterior fold of axilla 40 www. It is treated by tendon transfer from extensor carpiradialis brevis. 144. b. Complicates Colles' fracture. c. Osteoporosis of carpal bones complicating Colles' fracture. b. e. Madelung deformity. c. It is treated by physiotherapy and vasodilators and arthrodesis of the wrist in severe cases. d. There is a wide separation between the two bones. Smith's fracture: a. Very common fracture in children. It presents clinically with loss of extension of the thumb. b. 142. Madelung's deformity: a. d. Lengthening of the upper limb. d. b. It occurs 4-8 weeks after fracture. It is very common complication of Colles' fracture in old age. It occurs immediately after the fracture. Sudek's atrophy. Sudeck's atrophy: a. The followings are characteristic signs of anterior dislocation of the shoulder joint: a. It is due to spasm of the blood supply of carpal bones. c. Lack of support by strong muscles. 143. Gallaway's sign. e. e. Diathesis of inferior radio-ulnar joint: a. 147. Flat shoulder. 145. The head of ulna becomes less prominent.141. Clinically it simulates Colles' fracture. c. b. Trauma of the shoulder is more common. The most serious complication of Colles' fracture is: a. There is loss of supination while pronation is preserved. Treated by above elbow plaster in extension. It is due to arrest of growth of radius with overgrowth of the ulna. It presents clinically by painful stiffness of the wrist. Median nerve injury is more common than in Colles' fracture. 148. 146. Dislocation of shoulder is more common than dislocation hip due the following causes: a.
A ruler can be put straight between tip of acromion and lateral epicondyles of the humerus. e. It is a rare type of dislocation shoulder (9%). e. Shortening of the upper limb on affected side. e. Intra-articular fracture of the distal radius. Posterior dislocation of the shoulder: a. Below elbow plaster for 6 weeks. Above elbow plaster in extension for 6-8 weeks. Duga's sign in dislocation shoulder: a. b. 151. Open reduction and internal fixation by screws. 150. Increase of the circumference of the axilla on the affected side. d. d. c. The commonest complication of dislocation shoulder is: a. c. 152. Fracture of the glenoid cavity. e. c. b. Axillary nerve injury. Inability to touch the tip of the normal shoulder by fingers of the dislocated upper limb. Immobilization in shoulder spica for non-displaced severe fracture. Rupture of the supraspinatus tendon.149. Recurrence of dislocation. The most diagnostic clinical sign of posterior dislocation of the shoulder is: a. There is volar displacement of triangular fragment along with the whole carpus. e. Coracoid process of the scapula. Greater tuberosity. Above elbow plaster for 6-8 weeks. d. Palpable crepitus of associated fracture. Wrapping of the upper limb to the trunk by adhesive plaster. c. d. 153. Marked tenderness at the shoulder joint. Surgical neck of the humerus. Ischemia of the upper limb. Injury of the radial nerve. b. Downward displacement of anterior fold of axilla. b. Greater tuberosity fracture (simple or fissure) is treated by: a. Lateral view x-ray is diagnostic. b. d. b. Sling of the upper limb to the neck. Fixed medial rotation of the arm with flattening of the shoulder joint. Sling of the upper limb to the neck. Lesser tuberosity. b. Colles' fracture in children is called barton's fracture. Duga's sign. Treated by open reduction and Ellis-T-plate. 154. c. b. c. Subacromial type is more common than subspinous type. c. 41 www. Treatment by below elbow plaster. 155.mataryonline. Barton's fracture: a. 156. d. c. Comminuted fracture of greater tuberosity is treated by: a. d. d.com . e. Fractures commonly associated with dislocation shoulder are: a. Immobilization in shoulder spica with abduction 90 degrees and flexion of the elbow 90 degrees. e. Flat shoulder on the affected side. It is caused by direct trauma to front of the shoulder. It is treated by immobilization in shoulder spica for 3-4 weeks. Immediate open reduction and internal fixation by a screw. e.
164. Commonly associates dislocation of the shoulder. b. b. Complications of anterior type of Motegia's fracture include the followings: a. d.com . 159. Anterior type is commoner than posterior type (90% and 10%). Open reduction and internal fixation by plate and screws. Galeazi 's fracture: a. Fracture lower third radius and dislocation of inferior radio-ulnar joint. Closed or open reduction can be used for treatment. d. 158. Fracture upper 1/3 of ulna & dislocation of head of radius b. Flexion type Montegia's fracture: a. needs no treatment. Head of radius must be excised in children but not in adults. Anterior (extension) type is unstable fracture. c. e. Open reduction of the ulna and closed reduction of radius. Fracture lower third of the ulna with diathesis of inferior radio-ulnar joint. In maximally displaced fracture the articular surface of the fractured segment looks medially. It can occur alone on top of severe contraction of subscapularis muscle. e. Fracture lower 1/3 of the ulna with head of radius. Fracture lower 1/3 of radius with dislocation of ulna. 163.157. 42 www. Rare type of montegia's fracture ( 10%). c. Below elbow plaster in extension. Anterior (extension) type is less common (40%). Fracture upper 1/3 of ulna with dislocation of head of ulna. e. b. c. d. d. It may with minimal or maximal displacement. 161. It must be treated by open' reduction and internal fixation by a screw. Non-union. Closed reduction and above elbow plaster for 6-8 weeks. Characters of Montegia's fracture: a. d. It is a stable fracture. c. Minimally displaced fracture is treated by open reduction and internal fixation. Motegia's fracture: a. In adults it is treated by open reduction and compression plate of radius. e. b. Anterior type is less liable to complications. d. c. c. Fracture lateral epicondyle of the humerus: a. 160.mataryonline. Ulna is angulated posteriorly. Fracture lesser tuberosity: a. b. In children it is treated by closed reduction and immobilization in full plaster cast for 6 weeks. Rare fracture of children. It is better treated by open reduction and internal fixation. b. In the anterior type the head is dislocated anteriorly with anterior angulation of the ulna. e. Maximally displaced fracture is treated by closed reduction & above elbow plaster in flexion for 4-6 wks. b. d. e. Cross union between radius and ulna. c. The best line of treatment of fractures radius and ulna at different levels is: a. d. e. Intramedullary nailing of both radius and ulna. Fracture upper 1/3 of radius with dislocation of head of ulna. e. Median nerve injury (carpal tunnel syndrome). Myositis ossificans around the radius. 162. Head of the radius is displaced backward. Persistent dislocation of the radius. It is treated by shoulder spica for 6-8 weeks. c.
Sudek's atrophy. The commonest complication of fracture both bones radius and ulna is: a. Fracture of the lunate bone: a. 170. It is unstable fracture and displaced. It is caused by direct trauma or fall on the radial side of the hand. b. c. e. b. Excision of the head and its replacement by hip prosthesis is indicated in old age and with marked displacement. Hypovolemic shock is very common complication of the following fractures of the lower limb: a. 166. d. Fractures of metacarpal bones and phalanges: a.mataryonline. b. Fracture neck of the femur. e. c. 172. d. is ttt by wire finger splint incorporated in plaster cast. b. It is always impacted fracture. Fragments of fracture phalanges are angulated forward by tension of the lumbrical and interossei. d. Extension of the fingers is pathognomic of lunate fr e. 43 www. It is a vertical type fracture (fracture angle is more than 45 degrees). Displaced fracture neck femur is treated by: a. e. May lead to neurogenic shock. 167. It is oblique fracture of the first metacarpal bone. Ischemia of the forearm muscles. Distal fragment is externally rotated by weight of lower limb. Minimal displacements are present. c. b. Intracapsular fractures are more common than extracapsular ones (80% and 20% respectively). Bennet's fracture dislocation: a. Less liable to healing and more liable to complications. Fracture tibia and fibula. Closed reduction and internal fixation by smith patreson's nail and plate. Non-union of fractures. Fracture neck of femur: a. Recent cases are treated by closed reduction while neglected cases are treated by open reduction and or excision of the lunate bone if necessary. It can be treated by 2-3 pins in children. c. It is usually unstable from displacement of flexor and extensor tendons at the base of the thumb. Recently it is treated by dynamic hip screw (DHS). Carpal bones are treated by dorsal plaster slab for 3 weeks. e. It lies in the carpal tunnel compressing median nerve and flexor tendons. May be transverse or oblique fractures. Fracture patella of the comminuted type with haemoarthrosis of knee joint. d. b. c. d. e. It is characterized clinically by swelling in front of the wrist and limitation of movements of the wrist joint.165. d. b. More common in females. Trauma must be marked severe trauma. Common fracture in old age. 169. Commonly caused by fall on dorsi-flexed hand. c. e. while fractures of the phalanges are treated by correction of the angulation by traction and flexion. Adduction type of transcervical fracture: a. d. Common in boxers. Closed reduction and external fixation by hip spica. Cross union with loss of supination and pronation. c. e. d. 171. Fracture of mid-shaft of the femur. Pott's fracture. 168. c.com . b. Medial nerve injury. Caused by blows or fall on hands.
176. It consists of subtrochanteric osteotomy with abduction of the distal end of the femur. d. e. Common complication of intracapsular fracture neck femur. Coxa valga. b. d. Total hip with replacement of the head and acetabulum is indicated if the acetabulum is diseased or fractured. It is treated by its replacement by artificial head of the Austin-Moore type. Common to complicate adduction type fracture of neck femur. Rejection of the hip commonly occurs on top of infection. 174. e. Used for treatment of talipes valgus deformily of foot. b. Spasm of the femoral artery with ischemia of the L. e. c. c.. c. 44 www. e. d. e. Operation for treatment of tahpes equino-varus. Neck-shaft angle is less than 120 degrees. b. Paralytic ileus. d. it occurs due to cut of the blood supply of head which is mainly comes from the retinacular vessels and the nutrient artery of the femur. Long stay in bed leading to deep vein thrombosis and orthostatic pneumonia. Used for treatment of coxa valga. 179. In Whitman's arthroplasty the head is removed and the acetabular fossa is filled with muscles. c. More serious than coxa valga. It avoids osteoarthritis of the hip joint.mataryonline. Coxa vara. 178. A vascular necrosis of the head. c. b. Hypovolemic shock. Used for treatment of gel1u vilrum. The commonest general complication of fracture neck femur is: a. it corrects the deformity of the hip . Coxa vara deformity: a. 177.com . Commoner than coxa valga.173. e. Excision arthroplasty of the Whitman's type is indicated in severe infection of the hip joint. Austin-Moore type is replacement of the head only. It relieves pain of the hip during walking. Pulmonary embolism. c. The operation of choice for coxa vara defonnity of hip. Neurogenic shock. It is treated by subtrochanteric abduction osteotomy. b. 175.L. Mc Murray abduction osteotomy: a. Avascular necrosis of head of femur: a. d. c. b. Crush syndrome. Operation for treatment of coxa vara deformity of the hip. The main blood supply of the head comes of artery of ligamentum teres. Mc Murray osteotomy: a. Artificial hip prothesis: a. b. d. Head appears denser in the x -ray of the hip. e. The commonest local complication of fracture neck femur (lntracapsular fracture): a. d.
Over-riding. c. complicated fractures or multiple fractures of femur. Level III (supracondylar fracture shaft femur). spiral or comminuted fracture. Fracture mid-shaft femur: a. Hypovolemic shock. c. Distal fragment is strongly flexed by gastrocnemius. a. b. c. e. c. e.com . g. Usually complicate with hypovolemic shock due to big size of its haematoma (may be up to one liter or more). Rarest type of fracture shaft of femur. It may transverse. Neurogenic shock. d. Subtrochanteric fracture shaft of the femur: a. c. Birth fracture is treated by Crede's method. d. Mid shaft fracture of infants and children is treated by gallows's traction. Open reduction and internal fixation is indicated in comminuted fractures. Level I fracture shaft femur (subtrochanteric) is treated by the following measures: a. f. b.180. Distal fragment is pulled upwards & backward by hamstring e. Septicemic shock. Fracture from age of 5-15 years is treated by skin traction on Thomas's splint. The commonest complication of fracture mid shaft is: a. d. Flexed and laterally rotated by liopsoas and glutei muscles. Commonly complicates direct trauma in form of car accidents. b. d. Intra-medullary nail is used for transverse fracture while spiral and comminuted fractures need plate and screw fixation. There is very high liability of injury of the popliteal vessels. Mid shaft fracture in adults is treated by skeletal traction using Kirschner-wire or Steinmann's pin. b. Closed reduction and hip fixation by hip spica. Distal fragment is adducted. Total hip replacement of the austin-moor's type. It is treated by internal fixation with smith-paterson nail and plate. Proximal fragment is pulled forwards by quadriceps femoris muscle. 45 www. It is unstable displaced fracture. Treatment of fracture mid-shaft include: a. b. d. It needs open reduction and internal fixation by plate and screws. Mid-shaft fracture in old age is treated by internal fixation. 185. b. f.mataryonline. Paralytic ileus. Dynamic hip screw (DHS). Intramedullary nail (kutchner nail). 181. f. angulation and rotations are common in this fracture. Proximal fragment is abducted. e. 182. Deep venous thrombosis. e. c. pulled upwards and backwards by the adductors and the hamstring muscles. Proximal fragment is pulled forwards by quadriceps femoris muscle. e. d. 184. 183. Smith-Patreson's nail and plate. Complicated direct severe trauma like car accidents. Crush syndrome.
b. c. Medial popliteal nerve injury: a. d. Abduction type of Pott's fracture: a. b. 192. e. Injury of the medial and lateral popliteal nerves. d. Fracture dislocation of ankle joint. 46 www. e. Usually of the neurtemesis type which is irreparable. 190. Mal-union with angulation deformity. Loss of sensations on posterior aspect of the leg and sole. The commonest local complication of fracture mid-shaft femur is: a. The foot is dropped (plantar flexion). 191. Complicate supracondylar fracture shaft of femur. e.com . Osteoarthritis of the hip and knee joints. Stiffness of the knee joint. d. In the second degree there is fracture of both malleoli. c. Indication of patellactomy are: a. Comminuted fracture patella. There is paralysis of anterior and lateral groups of muscles of the leg e. In the first degree. Tear of the quadriceps tendon. Injury of the medial popliteal nerve. Caused by severe abduction trauma of the foot as in gladiators. Volkmann's ischaemic contracture of the muscles of the leg. A vascular necrosis of the two condyles of femur.B c. d. 193. d. b. b. f. c. There is paralysis of the calf muscles. e. Acute ischemia of the limb distally. Stiffness of the ankle is the commonest complication of Pott's fracture. 188. Traumatic knee effusion. Injury of the lateral popliteal nerve with drop foot. The followings are complications of fracture patella: a. The foot is inverted (varus deformity). e. Disease of the patella as T. Tumours of the patella. Deep vein thrombosis of the calf veins.186. Laceration of the surrounding muscles. d. A vascular necrosis of the head of femur. Fracture patella with haemoarthrosis of the knee joint.mataryonline. 187. c. Compound fracture patella. b. e. Haemoarthrosis. e. Gas-gangrene infection. c. Second and third degrees are treated by open reduction and internal fixation of the ankle. there is fracture of one malleolus. c. 189. g. b. d. d. c. All fractures of the lower ends of tibia and fibula including ankle joint. The vertical type is the most serious type. Deformity can not corrected clinically in comparison to congenital talipes equino-varus. Injury of the lateral popliteal nerve. Talipes equino-varus deformity. b. b. Pott's fracture: a. Deformity is talipes calcaneo-valgus. Abduction type is the commonest type. Lateral popliteal nerve injury: a. The commonest complication of supracondylar fracture femur is: a. . In its third degree there is fracture of three malleoli with ligamentous injuries of the ankle joint.
Third degree of vertical type of Pott's fracture: a. e. Transverse (avulsion) type fracture of medial malleolus. d. 198. 195. Malunion of fracture with varus or valgus deformity of the foot. e. b. Osteoarthritis of the ankle joint. 199. b. e. Transverse fracture of lateral malleolus and oblique fracture of medial malleolus. Posterior part of the lateral malleolus. c. c. Fracture of the medial malleolus. Ankle prosthesis is recently used for severe degrees of Pott's fracture. The commonest local complication of Pott's fracture is: a. c. d. d. Medial rocking of the tibia over the femur is diagnostic of ligamentous rupture with pain and swelling on the medial side. b. 200. d. The third malleous of third degree Pott's fracture is: a. Diathesis of inferior tibio-fibular joint. d. Posterior part of inferior surface of tibia. Closed reduction and external fixation in below knee plaster is done for first degree of Pott's fracture of any type. The commonest general complication of Pott's fracture is: a. Reduction and immobilization of Pott's fracture: a. e. d. Transverse fracture of medial malleolus and oblique fracture of lateral malleolus. Neurogenic shock. c. Posterior part of the talus. Pulmonary embolism. c. Fracture of lateral malleolus. Posterior part of the medial malleolus. First degree of abduction type of fracture consists of the followings: a. Transverse fracture of medial malleolus with fracture of lower end of fibula and diathesis of inferior tibio-fibular joint. Upward displacement of the talus. Oblique or spiral fracture of lateral malleolus. 201. b. c. Treated by knee cast or plaster for 2 ms in case of rupture 47 www. Injury of the anterior tibial vessels. Hypovolemic shock. Caused by severe abduction of the knee. c. Internal immobilization can be achieved by screws or arthrodesis of the ankle joint. Fracture of medial malleolus with fracture shaft of the lower end of fibula. Crush syndrome. Paralytic ileus. Knee effusion is usually found. Second degree of abduction type of Pott's fracture: a. Fracture of medial malleolus with oblique fracture of lateral malleolus and lateral displacement of the talus. b. 196. c. b. e. Abduction of the extended knee will decrease pain markedly. Injury of the musculo-cutaneous nerve. e. e. Injury of tendons of the foot. External immobilization can be achieved by plaster or by traction. d. Oblique or spiral fracture of lateral malleolus.com . b. Comminuted fracture of tibia. d. Fracture of lateral malleolus with tear of medial ligament. 197. b. Open reduction and internal fixation are indicated in second and third degrees of Pott's fracture. Posterior part of the fibula. Medial ligamentous injury of the knee joint: a.mataryonline. Transverse fracture of medial malleolus.194. e.
c. c. 203. e. separation of the symphysis pubis. fracture of the superior ramus of pubic bone. 48 www. crush injury. e. Compound fracture of the tibia is best treated by: a. b. Intero-external fixation is the method of choice. fracture of the inferior ischio-pubic ramus. d. injuries of capillaries leading to severe retroperitoneal haematoma and hypovolaemic shock . c. Upper and lower thirds of tibia are commoner to be fractured than middle third of the tibia. Spiral and oblique fractures are usually unstable. a. injury of the rectum leading to peritonitis. The common types of isolated fractures of the pelvis outside the pelvic ring are. c. paralytic ileus. d.mataryonline. Treated by removal of the torn meniscus either operatively or arthroscopically. 208. e. Both bones are common to be fractured. Common general complications of severe fracture pelvis a. spasm or tear of external iliac artery. injury of the appendix. b. c. anterior superior iliac spine fracture. 204. e. deep vein thrombosis of lower limbs. fracture of ischio-pubic rami. c. injury of the uterus. 210. c. sacro-iliac subluxation. Complete injuries of the pelvic ring with marked displacement include: a. Closed reduction and plaster immobilization. injury of median sacral artery. d. fracture both rami of the pubic bone. Medial meniscus injury is more than lateral meniscus. Common fractures. b. Nothing to be done to the fractured ends. e. subluxation of sacro-iliac joint and fracture of the ilium. double fractures. Visceral complications of fractures pelvis include: a. vascular injuries of fracture of the pelvis: a. Incomplete injuries of the pelvic ring with minimal displacement include: a. 207. hypovolemic shock. External fixation by traction especially in presence of vascular damage. d. c. d. b. as tibia is subcutaneous. fracture of the wing of the ilium . e. Common in foot players.202. 209. rupture of the urinary bladder. Injuries of semilunar cartilages of the knee joint: a. d.. Fractures of tibia and fibula: a. b. b. Internal fixation is mandatory. c. e. tear of the common iliac vein leading to severe hge. b. pulmonary shock. 206. anterior iliac spine. fracture of iliac bone. Weight bearing with external rotation of abducted flexed knee joint. d. 205. b. d. double dislocations. d. fr of pubic ramus with separation of symphysis pubis. Usually complicated by osteoarthritis of knee joint. e. Displacement may be very mild or severe displacement. often associated with overriding and or angulation of bones. b. rupture of the urethra. e. injury of the femoral artery.com . fractures of anterior superior and inferior iliac spines .
it is treated by either a plastic collar or collar of plaster. immediate nervous repair may help. b. Nervous injuries of fracture of tile pelvis: a. lateral flexion trauma. b. d. c. e. c. d. intact anterior longitudinal ligament is the most important factor. e. it occurs on top vertical compression.com . c. f. immediate evacuation of the haematoma and fixation of bone fractures. conservative treatment and surgery if indicated.. 217. comminuted fractures are less stable than noncomminuted ones. 215. whip-lash injury (sudden recoil of head in car accidents) 214. dislocation fracture or subluxation. burst fracture. f. shape of the fracture. Stability of fracture spine depends on: a. Neural arches. posterior ligament is intact. e. f. It must be done after doing pelvic angiography to localize the bleeding vessels. fracture of. d. b. 49 www. c.mataryonline. 218. they end in sensory and motor effects. immediate exploration of the haematoma with control of hge. e. e.211. it is unstable fracture . Extension subluxation fracture: a. Characters of wedge fracture of cervical spine: a. wedge fracture. d. it is a stable fracture. extension trauma. and internal fixation is needed if there is cord injury. conservative ttt with bl transfusion & no surgical ttt at all b. spine is not stable in extension. 212. fracture of odontoid process. it is caused by hyperflexion trauma of the neck. b. spinal cord may be stretched or no. rupture of body of vertebra and inter vertebral disc. 213. d. posterior ligament is intact. rotational flexion or extension trauma. c. e.of the plexus is severe damage. it is treated by external support (collar) in absence of cord injury. 216. Burst fracture of the body of vertebra: a. Severe retroperitoneal haematoma of the pelvis complicating fracture of tile pelvis is treated by: a. c. b. c. injury of lumbo-sacral plexus of nerves . e. d. d. spinal cord is liable to be injured by a piece of bone. intactness of the posterior longitudinal ligament is the most important factor responsible for stability. which is irreversible damage. Fractures of the cervical spine can be caused by one of the following traumas: a. injury . b. e. if the cause of haematoma is injury of the common iliac artery it is repaired immediately by suture or grafting. there is rupture of anterior longitudinal ligament. d. fracture of the atlas. flexion trauma. caused by extension trauma. The commonest type of fracture cervical spine is: a. vertical compression trauma (falls on head). it is treated by flexion of neck in plaster collar for 2 months. c. b. injury of the plexus is mild and needs no treatment. there is high liability of spinal cord injury. wedge fractures are usually unstable.
It starts with retention with overflow. c. lumbar region. sacral region is the most common site of cord damage. Fracture dislocation of cervical spine: a. c. neurtemesis of the cauda lesion is irreversible. retention of urine is characteristic. d. b. c. Flexion subluxation: a. d. cord is not liable to be injured. c. it follows transection of sacral segments of cord or cauda equina.mataryonline. . 222. e.219. recovery is common if the cauda lesion is neurapraxia or axontemesis.. d. e. caused by fall of heavy objects on back. b.com . thoracic region. there is complete sensory loss. Stage of spinal shock in complete cord damage: a. automatic bladder occurs after 1-3 months of cord damage. d. abdominal straining and compression of abdominal wall will induce reflex of bladder emptying. it lasts for 48 hours. f. it follows transection of cord at the cauda level. 223. fracture is unstable if the posterior cord is intact. it is treated by reduction in extension and fixation of spine in a plaster collar for 2 months. internal fixation is mandatory in presence of cord damage. periodic emptying of bladder is dependent upon a local reflex in the bladder wall. d. d. foreword displacement of one vertebra. there is spastic paralysis of muscles affected. Complete cord injury is very common in: a. 225. c. subluxation of vertebra. e. b. wedge fracture. hyperflexion injuries may lead to wedge fracture or burst fracture. fracture dislocation. cord transection is very liable to occur in thoracic injuries. e. 226. Automatic or cord bladder: a. with compression of vertebra or fracture of neural arch. it occurs immediately after cord injury. it is reduced by skull traction under x-ray control. fracture is unstable. 50 www. e. e. no recovery if the cord is completely transected. caused by flexion rotational trauma. 220. very stable fracture. there is suppression of visceral reflexes. b. e. cervical region. associated with severe cord damage. d. c. b. b. Fracture of thoracolumbar spine: a. cauda equine injury is more common with lumbar injuries. burst fracture . thoraco-iumbar region. 221. forward displacement of one vertebra with overriding of articular surface. e. fracture transverse process. The commonest fracture of thoracolumbar spine is: a. it complicated transection of the spinal cord above the sacral segment. b. c. 224. b. c. d. Autonomous bladder: a.
subcutaneous abstess. care of the bladder and rehabilitation.mataryonline. marked tenderness of the bone affected especially at site of abscess. 231. common to affect patients with low resistance. b. irregular cystic tender swelling is diagnostic. sequestrum. b. it must be treated surgically. d. e. e. e. b. d. first 30 days in children. Metaphysis is the commonest site of acute osteomyelitis because: a. b. Treatment of fracture spine: a. presence of sequestrum. the site of muscular attachment (liable to trauma). e. shadow of subperiosteal abscess. thoracic spine injuries are treated by operative correction and internal fixation by plate or by nursing care. c. c. Clinical presentations of acute osteomyelitls: a. e. d. special arrangement of blood vessels in the metaphysis. first 21 days in adults. c. c. The most diagnostic radiological sign of acute osteomyelitis is: a. common below age of 10 years. first 10 days in children. Stages of osteomyelitis are: a. b. c. first 50 days in adults after which it turns chronic. e. the weakest area of the bone. soft tissue shadow of the abscess cavity.227.com . 228. b. upper end of humerus. intraosseous abscess stage on top of infected haematoma. the very rapid circulation in the metaphysis. marked rise of temperature up to septicaemic shock. b. 234. presence of multiple cloaca and involucrum. 233. Acute haematogenous osteomyelitis: a. marked osteoporosis of the bone affected. d. subperiosteal abscess. c. cervical spine injuries are treated by traction through skull calipers if there is no displacement and open reduction and internal fixation if there is bony displacement. lower end of radius. sympathetic effusion of near by joint is present. d. first 2 days in children. involucrum and multiple cloaca. 51 www. care of the paraplegic patient. 229. Plain x-ray of acute osteomyelitis is negative: a. 230. d. no place for medical treatment. e. severe throbbing pain of the bone affected. lower end of tibia. b. c. c. more common in boys. upper end of tibia. f. lower end of femur. thoraco-lumbar region injuries are treated by immediate operation. it may complicate compound fracture of bone. most vascular area of the bone. Bones commonly affected by acute osteomyelitis are: a. e. d. non of the above. 232. d.
52 www. c. amyloidosis. d. f.mataryonline. and saucerization of bone cavity. 241. radius and upper end of humerus.com . d. pathological fracture. d. e. b. moderate virulence of the organisms. c. septicemia or pyaemia. presence of sinuses. surgical treatment in form of sequestrectomy. sequestrum. blood transfusion and fluid therapy. e. staphylococci albus and citrus and streptococci viridans and faecalis are common organisms. sinuses. Sequestrum of chronic osteomyelitis: a. f. b. c. tibia. presents clinically by persistent sinus discharging pus or pieces of bones. d. e. f. involucrum. d. 238. 242. deformity of bone affected. pathological fracture. e. chronicity with sequestrum and cloaca formation. e. pathological fracture is a common complication. it appears more dense than normal bone. presence of bone cavity filled with air. 237. Chronic osteomyelitis: a. presence of foreign bodies (sequestrum). inadequate treatment of acute osteomyelitis. b. Complications of chronic haematogenous osteomyelitis are the followings: a. b. Treatment of chronic osteomyelitis: a. bone drilling of intraosseous abscess. presence of multiple cloacae. it may affect mandible and vertebrae. amputation to avoid septicemia. e. more common in boys. sequestrectomy. d. The most diagnostic radiological findings of chronic osteomyelitis are: a. e. d. common sites of affection are lower ends of femur. malignant transformation. deformity of the bone affected. saucerization. affects children and young adults. The commonest cause of chronic osteomyelitis following acute osteomyelitis is: a. e. b. 236. new bone formation due irritation of periosteum of inflamed bone. 240. Complications of acute osteomyelitis are: a. c. b. c. 239. giving antibiotics in presence of pus. septic arthritis. subcutaneous abscess with sinus discharging pus. Winnet. pathological fracture. Treatment of acute osteomyelitis include the followings measures except: a. and filling of the bone cavity with antibiotic pills. d. septicemia and pyaemia. sequestrectomy.Orr technique is the best line of treatment. it appears less dense than normal bone. medical treatment in form of antibiotics and blood transfusion. broad spectrum antibiotics. c.235. c. Dead part of infected bone due cut of blood supply. analgesics and antipyretics. c. b. amylodosis. b.
peroneal muscle atrophy. f. b. closure of the abscess cavity by muscle flap. e. Inverted bottle of champagne is characteristic of: a. e. Radiological findings characteristic of Brodie's abscess are: a. stiffness of the near by joint. no involucrum. c. deroofing of the abscess cavity. d. pathological fracture. Ewing sarcoma of the long bones. f. d. well-formed abscess cavity. f. osteosarcoma of the bone. chronic specific or non-specific localized type of osteomyelitis.V. 249. d. d. c. c. Treatment of Brodie's abscess include: a.243. The commonest complication of chronic osteomyelitis is: a. sinuses discharging pus or pieces of bone. e. e. syphilitic periostitis. deformity.mataryonline. Cloacae of chronic osteomyelitis are: a. d. 246. d. deep vein thrombosis due to long stay in bed. it simulates bone cyst. saucerization of the abscess cavity with removal of sequestrum if present. chronic septic osteomyelitis. f. multiple bone cavities filled with air. winnet-orr technique. bone sclerosis. bad healing of bone fracture by this technique. 53 www. 250. organisms may be typhoid bacilli or spirochetes of other nonspecific organisms. b.com . e. commonest site is the upper end of the tibia. e. 245. malignant transformation. 244. Pathology of Brodie's abscess is formed of: a. b. d. marked deformity of the bone affected. anaerobic wound infection in form of gas gangrene and tetanus. small or no sequestrum. multiple areas of dead bone inside cavity of osteomyelitis. b. c. e. Brodie's abscess of a long bone. fluids. dense sclerosis around the abscess cavity. b. septicemia and pyaemia. 248. b. amputation of the bone affected for fear of malignancy. multiple deformities of the infected bones. very common to complicate by pathological fracture of the bone. f. large sequestrum filling cavity of bone. acute exacerbation. broad-spectrum antibiotics and I. 247. The most serious complication of Winnet-Orr techique in management of chronic osteomyelitis is: a. c. multiple sinuses filled with air. c. pathological fracture. well-formed abscess cavity (translucent area). c. amyloidosis. d. b. soft tissue shadow of subperiosteal abscess. involucrum. e. multiple irregular areas of new bone formation. it is common to affect young adult males. b. Brodie's abscess: a. c.
b. Sites of cold abscesses complicating cervico-dorsal Pott's disease are: a. e. there are no cloacae. c. marked limitation of spinal movements. b. e. cord compression with paraplegia. affects children and young adults. f. deformity of the spine. f. Tuberculosis of bones: a. 255. human T. f. long bones like femur. c. The commonest site of Pott's disease: a. lumbo-sacral (L5-S1). b. 254. c. d. sternum. short long bones (phalanges of hands and feet). e. infection of bone is almost blood borne infection. Chronic septic osteomyelitis: a. 257. b. d. short -long bones as phalanges of hands and feet. Tuberculous osteitis commonly affects: a. d. 256. vertebrae. Clinical signs characteristic of Pott's disease: a. posterior triangle of the neck. high-thoracic (T6-T7). periosteal (peripheral) type with wedging of the vertebrae and formation of cold abscess. b. skull. it may complicate orthopedic operation. tenderness at site of affected vertebra. d. d. d. e. cold abscess formation. 259. 252. retropharyngeal abscess. e. b. skull. involucrum is in the form of periosteal spur. c. more common to affect males. always secondary (never primary). e. e. c. Clinical presentation of Pott's disease of spine: a. dorso-lumbar (T12-L1). 54 www. d. common organisms are streptococci viridans or staph albus or citrus. sacrum. Pathology of Pott's disease of the spine: a. c. destruction of the vertebra and intervertebral disc occur of children. cold abscess formation. b. c. e. paravertebral. humerus and tibia. cervico-dorsal region (C7-T1). suboccipital triangle. ribs. f. presence of deformity in form of kyphosis or kyphoscoliosis.com . axilla. affects low resistant patients especially diabetics. 253. b. Tuberculous periosteitis commonly found in: a. 258. sequestrum is characteristically ring sequestrum. c. c. b. d. e. cervico-dorsal site is the commonest site of affection. constant dull aching pain which increases by movements. rigidity of the near by muscles. mediastinum. d. sternum.251. complicates compound fractures. vertebrae. very common below age of 10 yrs and may affect young adults. pain may be completely absent until complications occur.B bacilli are more common than bovine ones. it is T. ribs and pelvic bones.mataryonline.B osteitis (osseous tissue of the vertebra).
c. 265. pelvic abscess. d. d. d. b. narrowing of intervertebral disc spaces. pus may burst through the capsule leading to superficial abscess. 267. marked sphincteric troubles of bladder and bowel functions. extension from osteomyelitis (intracapsular metaphysis). b. angular deformity of spine. 264. severe kyphosis of vertebral column. aspiration of the abscess cavity. complicates penetrating injuries. c. b. Pathology of septic arthritis consists of: a. 266. paravertebral. edema of the spinal cord. drainage of the abscess cavity. popliteal abscess. The most recent effective treatment of Pott's disease of the spine consists of the following steps: a. thickened congested synovial membrane. e. b. compression of the cord by cold abscess or by sequestra. c. c.com . Acute suppurative arthritis: a.mataryonline. d. c. anti-tuberculous treatment without surgical drainage. it ends by fibrous or bony ankylosis. antitubercolous treatment and immobilization of cervical spine by plaster of Minerva. affects any age and any sex. thrombosis of the cord vessels.b. e. e. deformity in form kyphosis or scoliosis. 263. may complicate gonorrhea in adults. e. Pott's paraplegia: a. f.260. d. Cold abscess is treated by: a. sites of cold abscesses complicating lumbosacral tuberculosis are: a. follow up of the patient for fear of complications. it is mainly motor. b. compression of blood vessels. e. d. bridging of the bone cavity by bone grafts. less sensory affection. occurs in 10% of cases of Pott's disease. joint cavity is full of serous or sero-purulent fluid. psoas abscess. wedging of the vertebra affected. 261. e. c. e. spinal cord decompression by costo-transversectomy. 262. articular cartilages are destroyed in neglected cases. d. immobilization of the vertebrae by plate and screws. it is reversible if treated early. b. ischio-rectal abscess. osteoporosis of affected vertebra. immobilization of the vertebral column by plaster. e. Radiological signs characteristic of Pott's disease of the spine are: a. it may be blood borne infection (in infants only). The commonest cause of Pott's paraplegia is: a. anterior approach of vertebral column with removal of diseased bones. c. 55 www. c. shadow of the parevertebral abscess. b. d.
headache. tumour of white collagen fibers which is whitish on cut surface. e. joint is swollen warm. loss of weight and night fever and night sweating. f. and malaise are severe with loss of function of the joint affected. large lipoma in white patient. pallor of skin of the joint with tuberculous arthritis due to empty capillaries and thickening of the synovial membrane of joint affected. b. arthrotomy and drainage of pus. d. no spasm or wasting of the surrounding muscles. c.mataryonline. d. septic arthritis.B Bacilli are more common than bovine ones. b. x-ray of joint affected may show diffuse rarefaction and loss of cartilage space in late cases of arthritis. Tumour album: a. 274. affects children. e. synovial membrane is markedly thickened and transformed to tuberculous granulation tissue. d. bony ankylosis of the joint affected. fever. boys are more affected than girls. b. Clinical presentation of tuberculous arthritis: a.com . anorexia. c. 270. 56 www. synovial type affects synovial membrane first (commonest type).268. acute haematogenous osteomyelitis. d. ultrasound guided aspiration. c. d. always secondary. 271. 269. f. Brodie's abscess. 272. malignant transformation. e. severe pain in the joint affected. e. e. The best line of treatment of septic arthritis is: a. e. 273. there is restriction of all movements of the joint. sharp pain occurs at night. swelling of the joint affected. hip and kneeare the common joints to be affected. e. dull aching pain on exercise or at rest. Night stars or night cries are characteristic of: a. human T. chronic osteomyelitis. cold abscess formation. destruction of epiphyseal cartilage occurs first then erosion of the underlying bones. d. tender. b. b. c. rest and antibiotics with splintage of the joint. tuberculous lymphadenitis. arthroscopic drainage of joint with irrigation with antibiotic solution. b. aspiration and immediate physiotherapy treatment to avoid stiffness of the joint affected. osseous type affects epiphysis or metaphysis and then spread to joint (less common type). c. c. sinus formation. Pathological types and changes of tuberculous arthritis: a. sinus discharging caseous material opposite the joint affected. and distended with fluid. dislocation is very common. 275. f. c. b. Clinical picture of septic arthritis: a. c. b. d. sclerosed haemangioma of the skin. Complications of tuberculous arthritis are: a. d. e. tuberculous arthritis. dislocation of joint never occurs. big sized lymphangioma. Tuberculous arthritis: a. amelanotic melanoma.
rarefaction of bones adjacent to joint affected. Neonates. c. 284. e. soft tissue shadow of cold abscess.B arthritis are: a.B of hip joint are: a.B arthritis: a. d. inspection revealed deformity. palpation revealed warmth. Superior pubic ramus. 283. Fibro-caseous type. d. 279. marked atrophy of the surrounding muscles. Very common in adult age. e. Tip of the greater trochanter. Lesser trochanter. Babock's triangle: a.Bhydrops). The commonest age of T. It is characterized by triple subluxation. Lower part of the neck of femur close to epiphysis. c.B arthritis of the hip is diagnostic of: a. thickened synovial membrane and easy palpation of bone ends. b. Local signs characteistics of T.B of the hip joint is: a. Bony ankylosis. c. e. d. Downward in the popliteal fossa. e. e. shortening of the limb is a true shortening. 57 www. Broken or interrupted Shenton's line in T. Tip of the lesser trochanter. c. d. b. c. Osseous type. Rarely in the pelvis. Posteriorly in the region of greater trochanter. Between ages of 30-40 years. d. there is limitation of all types of movements. pathological dislocation. e. Radiological findings characteristic of T. Sites of formation of cold abscess in T. 282. Below age of 2-5 years. b. Destruction of the neck of the femur.mataryonline. Fibrous type.com . 277. d. d. Commonest type is the synovial type. Upper shelf of the acetabulum cavity. b. b. Widening of the acetabulum. Granulomatous type. swelling. Neck-shaft angle of the femur. 281. The common sites of bone rarefaction of tuberculous arthritis of the hip joint: a. Lower part of neck of the femur close to epiphysis. There is limitation of extension of the knee while flexion is normal. b. 278. Upper part of the acetabulum. narrowing of the joint space. c. c. b.B arthritis of the hip is: a. new bone formation. Narrowing of the joint space. d. d. c. e. b. There is thickening of the synovial membrane with effusion of the knee joint (T. Greater trochanter of femur. Tuberculosis of the knee joint: a. Anteriorly in scarpa's triangle. wasting of muscles and sinus formation. 280. Dislocation of the head of the femur. Above age of 50 years. Young adults. Laterally in iliopubic tract.276. tenderness. e. e. Synovial type. b. c. The commonest type of T.
There is supra-trochanteric shortening clinically. Only dislocation of body with lengthening of the limb. c. All general complications like shock crush injury. Rare type of dislocation of the hip joint. Characteristic of rheumatoid arthritis. The common complications of centeral dislocation of the hip of the joint are: a. Visceral complications in form of rupture of the rectum or the urinary bladder. Posterior dislocation of the hip joint: a. e. c. It is caused by forcible abduction and lateral rotation of the hip. e. Injury of the sacral plexus and or obturator nerves. c. The commonest type of dislocation of the hip joint is: a. f. Caused by severe direct trauma on the greater trochanter. b. abduction and lateral rotation. d. c. 58 www. It is characteristically broken if subtrochanteric fracture of shaft of femur. b. Head is displaced inside the pelvis. c. The common complications of posterior dislocation of the hip joint are: a.B arthritis of the knee include: a. 287. b. Arthrodesis by Charnley's intra-articular compression is done at age of 16 years. Central dislocation. Osteoarthritis of the hip joint. b. Anterior dislocation of the hip joint: a. Injury of femoral vessels. It is of two types (obturator and pubic types).mataryonline. d. Commonly associated with fracture of posterior rim of acetabulum. d. Paralytic ileus. Osteoarthritis of the hip joint which may need arthroplasty. It is diagnostic of dislocation of the hip joint. f. 292. Characteristic deformity is flexion. Smooth curve made by neck shaft angle of the femur and inferior surface of superior pubic ramus. Fracture of the acetabulum. c. Broken shenton's line is diagnostic of dislocation. Its deformity is flexion. Rest in bed with immobilization of the knee in a splint for 3-6 months. Very rare type of dislocation of the hip. f. Head of the femur can be felt by pr examination. e. Antituberculous treatment with polyvitamins. Treatment of T. If x-ray shows bone destruction. e. Traumatic posterior dislocation. It may be iliac or sciatic subtypes of posterior dislocation. 288. 286. If x-ray is normal after 3 ms we start active movements. Fracture of the acetabulum. we continue immobilization for 3-6 months again. Shenton's line: a. d. b. f. adduction and internal rotation. It is broken if fracture neck of the femur. Complicates dashboard accident. c. e. c. Artificial knee prosthesis may be used recently. 289. Centeral dislocation of the hip joint: a. d.com . b. 291. paralytic ileus and complications of long stay in bed. Fracture of the neck of the femur. e. e. Sciatic nerve injury. Avascular necrosis of the head of femur. e. b. d. Pathological dislocation on top of tuberculous arthritis. 290. b. Traumatic anterior dislocation. d. d. Best line of ttt is open reduction and internal fixation.285. Congenital dislocation.
f. f.293. e. Hypernephroma of the kidney. Carcinoma of the thyroid. Removal as a trephine disc by giggly saw. b. d. No treatment especially of the inner table. Diaphysis of long bones. orchitis and labrynthitis. b. Endosteium of long bone. Choriocarcinoma. Bronchogenic carcinoma. Hereditary type of syphilis. b. Upper end of the tibia. 301. Ivory osteoma. e. Hamartoma of compact bones. Giant cell tumour. Ivory osteoma of bones: a. Cancellous tumour. b. Osteosarcoma. Ecchondroma. b. Inner table of the skull (frontal and parietal regions). c. Treatment of ivory osteoma of the skull: a. Vertebrae. 299. Epiphyseal cartilage plate of long bone. Outer tables of the skull (frontal region). b. Lymphomas of bones. Other data of syphilis are present as keratitis. The commonest site of cancellous osteoma: a. Irradiation of the tumour. 297. d. c. Chizeling. Enchondroma. c. Lower end of the femur. b. b.com . Metaphysis of long bones. e. Upper end of the humerus. e. d. Sternum and ribs. Chondrosarcoma. 295. Common in children and young adults. Lower end of the radius. Skull is the commonest bone to be affected. d. 300. Fibrosarcoma. c. d. It appears at the puberty age. It produces conductive deafness if affecting the external auditory meatus. 59 www. Periosteum of the bone. Multiple myelomatosis. d. 298.. Mandible. c. e. It causes pathological fracture of the bone from which it arises. e. Origin of cancellous osteoma: a. c. Treatment is mainly medical treatment 294. Carcinoma of the breast. 296. Osteosclerotic secondaries come from the following tumours: a. c. Syphilitic arthritis (clluton's joinf): a. e. Ewing sarcoma. Carcinoma of the prostate. The commonest malignant tumour of bones is: a. e. c. Presents clinically by bilateral painless effusion of a large joint. d. Sites of ivory osteoma are: a.mataryonline. d. Recently it can be treated by laser therapy. Lower end of tibia. The commonest benign tumour of bones is: a. c. d. e. b. f. Maxillary bone.
d. Multiple ecchondromata of long bones. It never turns malignant. Common in young aged boys or girls. Tumour of the epiphysis of the bone with pathological fracture. Hyaline cap must be excised to avoid recurrence. Diaphyseal aclasis: a. 310. 303. e. d. b. d. b. b. b. Soap bubble appearance of the bone affected. Sessile or pedunculated out growth of the bone which is mottled. Eggshell crackling sensation can be elicited in bone affected. Its head is covered by a hyaline cartilage. Excision by chizeling. Precautions in treatment of cancellous osteomata: a. Its attachment to the bone is by a narrow pedicle. bone cyst and or Broidie's abscess. Osteoarthritis of the near by joint. Pedunclated tumour of the bone which is homogeneously opaque. 306. c. Malignant transformation is very common. Common to affect young aged females. c. Usually single and rare to multiple. e. b. Pathological fracture of the tumour. 307. Very common to occur around the knee joint. Multiple enchondromas of flat bones like pelvic bone or ribs. It may affect long bones like femur or humerus. May be associated with haemangioma (maffuci's syndrome). It is a pre-malignant condition. Clinical presentations of enchondromata: a. b. Ecchondroma: a. c. e. Pressure of near by nerve leading to sensory or motor effects. c. b.302. May be single or multiple. Amputation if complicated by malignant transformation. Adventitious bursitis. Rare to affect long bones like femur or humerus. c. Painless expansion of bone. It grows outward from bone like a mushroom. d. It has an expanded head. c. d. Multiple cancellous osteomata of a long bone. X-ray shows a filling defect inside a bone. Rare benign tumour of bones. e. e. c. It affects hands and feet (phalanges and caipal bones). 309. Affects short-long bones like phalanges and carpal bones. c. It may attain a very huge size especially pelvic tumors d. Enchondroma: a. The most diagnostic radiological picture of ecchondroma is: a. 305. Excision of painful or complicated osteoma if the condition is multiple. c. Excision after age of puberty only. b. e. e. The commonest complication of cancellous osteoma is: a. e. d. Pathology of cancellous osteoma: a. Multiple enchondroma of long bones like femur or tibia. 308.B cavity . f. Huge sized bone mass. d.com . It is called dyschondroplsia. Rare type of cancellous osteomata. d.mataryonline. 60 www. Ollier's disease: a. Pressure of near by artery leading to ischaemia. 304. Treated by amputation of the bone affected for fear of malignancy. b. It may simulate T. Pathological fracture due to thinning out of the cortex. e.
d. c. Treatment of enchondroma: a. Soft tissue of tumour shadow outside the bone. Radiological signs of osteoclastoma: a. c. b. b. b. Osteoclastoma: a. b. 315. Curettage of tumour and bone chips application (femur or tibia). d. Excision of bone tumour with bone graft application (mandible). b. Treatment of osteoclastoma: a. Soap-bubble appearance. fibula. There is a medullary plug. e. d. e. d. It arises from metaphysis of long bones. Osteoclasts. e. e. Reddish in colour. b. There is destruction of bone lamellae. Expansion of one end of a bone with thinning out of the cortex. Chondrocytes. Osteocytes.com . Dark brown (maroon) due to haemorrhage and necrosis. or lower end of radius). Osteoblast. Excision or curettage of the tumour. Amputation is indicated for tumour destroying nearby joint. Common to affect males between ages of 15-40 years. Bone site specific for osteosarcoma is: a. c. d. d.311. 61 www. Medullary plug. Cell of origin of osteosarcoma of the bone: a. c. Amputation of the bone affected for fear of malignancy. Greysish -white in colour. Diaphysis of long bone. Pathology of osteoclastoma: a. b. Irradiation is the treatment of choice for osteoclastoma of the lower end of femur and upper end of tibia. Never to be eccentric. b. 312. Benign tumour with tendency of malignant transformation. d. Expansion of one end of a bone. e. Microscopically there is a mixture of spindle cells and osteoclasts. c. e. The cut surface of osteoclastoma is characteristically: a. Excision and bone grafting of bone cavity by bone ships. Epiphyseal cartilage. e. c. 317. Fibroblasts. 316. 318. Golden yellow in colour due high contents of fat. Epiphysis of long bones. No treatment if it presented clinically with pathological fracture. Mandible and vertebrae are very common sites. e. Metaphysis of the bone. Irradiation of the tumour which is very radiosensitive. 314. d. c. Huge soft tissue shadow is characteristic. Which in colour. Excision of bone affected (rib.mataryonline. Non of the above. 313. c. Benign tumour with tendency of recurrence after surgical excision.
323. b. e. Above the age of 50 years. c. The common sites of osteosarcoma of bones are: a. Upper end of tibia.mataryonline. e. d. Cut surface is homogenous.com . e. 325. 321. c. b.319. c. e. e. d. b. b. Infiltration of the skin over the tumour is very common. Fever of unknown origin. Chronic osteomyelitis. The commonest age of osteosarcoma is: a. f. Lymphatic spread to draining lymph nodes. Ultrasonography. Early infiltration of near by joint. c. d. Blood spread to rest of bones of the body. 62 www. Local spread to the near by joint. f. Pulmonary metastases. Vertebrae and ribs. f. greyish white with areas of haemorrhage and necrosis. Pathological fracture. Lower end of femur. d. c. 322. 326. e. Upper end of humerus. 324. Maxilla. Swelling is hard or form or heterogeneous in consistency. f. Selective arteriography of the limb affected. Biopsy of the bone affected is the most diagnostic. The commonest method of spread of osteosarcoma is a. b. Blood spread to the lungs. c. c. b. d. d. d. Benign tumours especially cancellous osteoma. f. The most specific investigations of osteosarcoma are: a. Neonatal age. c. Huge soft tissue swelling. Ischemia of the limb affected. Macroscopic picture of osteosarcoma: a. e. Plain x-ray of the limb affected. Irradiation. The followings are radiological signs of osteosarcoma: a. New bone formation (sun-ray appearance). b. The commonest predisposing factor of osteosarcoma in old age is: a. Marked loss of weight and anemia. Above age of 40 years and below age of 50 years. Cat scanning of the limb. Below age of 5 years. Local spread to the overlying skin. Codmann's triangle. Destroyed epiphyseal cartilage. Trauma. b. Between ages of 10 and 20 years. Severe intractable pain of the bone affected for 1 -2 months before appearance of a swelling. Paget's disease of bones. Radioisotope scanning by tc99 pyrophosphate. Swelling of the bone affected. d. Skull. Local spread to the rest of the bone. 320. e. Deposition of new bone occurs on raised subperiosteal blood vessels. The first presenting symptom of osteosarcoma is: a. Huge fusiform fleshy growth eroding bone cortex.
Diffuse arterio-venous fistula of the bone. It may be totally cystic tumour. b. Triangle of bone erosion by the tumour. Osteoclastoma. b. b. 334. Blood spread to other bones. Characteristic of osteoclastoma. Radioactive hg 203. e. d. Radioactive tc99m pyrophosphate. c. Triangle of metaphysis from which the tumour arises. Large multinucleated cells resembling giant cells. Radioactive iodine. d. b. Pre-operative irradiation by 9000 rads. Codmann's triangle is: a. Blood spread to the liver. Are mesodermal in origin. c. They arise from the endothelial lining of bone. 330. The tumour is pulsating like aneurysm. Radioactive strontium 85 or 87. Telangiectatic type (malignant bone aneurysm). d.327. Triangle of new bone formation at the elevated edge of the tumour due to irritation of subperiosteal blood vessels. b. Huge intraosseous aneurysm. vincristine and methotrexate are given. e. d.mataryonline. The rarest method of spread of Ewing's sarcoma is: a. The commonest type of osteosarcoma is: a. d. e. f. c. The telangiectatic type of osteosarcoma of the bone. Osteolytic osteosarcoma. c. Parosteal osteosarcoma. If there is metastasis in the lungs. headache and malaise. 333. e. b. e. 329. Blood spread is the commonest and early method of spread. Amputation is done if there is no metastasis in the lungs. The typical presentations of Ewing's sarcoma are: a. d. e. e. Lymphatic spread to the lymph nodes. b. Arranged around blood vessels in a rosette shape manner. The cells of Ewing's sarcoma: a. c. Local spread to the surrounding muscles. Radioactive selenium methionine. It arises from the osteoblasts of the bone marrow. c. Waiting for 6 months then x-ray chest is done. b. d. Ewing's sarcoma: a. Post-operative irradiation after amputation. Affects boys between ages of 5-15 years. d. Pathological fracture. 328. c. Painful swelling of the bone affected. Endosteal osteosarcoma. Fever anorexia. e. palliative chemotherapeutics like adriamycin. e. c. 63 www. b. Osteogenic osteosarcoma. No pain at all. d. Sawing pain of the bone affected. Radius is the commonest bone to be affected. Diagnostic of Ewing sarcoma of bone.com . 331. 332. Santford technique used in treatment of osteosarcoma consists of: a. Blood spread to the lungs. c. The isotopes specific for ostesarcoma are: a. Diapphysis is the site of bone to be affected. Malignant bone aneurysm is: a. Small sized cells resembling lymphocytes. 335.
d. d. Recurrent urinary tract stone formation. Femur. dissolved at 80˚C and are reformed on cooling to 55˚C again. Anaemia. The most diagnostic investigation of multiple myeloma is: a. Triple attack in form of pre-operative irradiation. Plasma electrophoresis for myeloma proteins. c. b. Hypercalcaemia. They undergo clotting at 55˚C. Bence-john's proteinuria. Osteolytic osteosarcoma. Multiple myelomatosis. Excision of the tumour and bone grafting. c. 339. c. and loss of weight. They cause new bone formation in concentric layers. The swellings are well defined. c. 342. and post-operative irradiation. d. d. Diagnostic for multiple myelomatosis. c. X-ray of all bones of the body. Formed histologically of large number of plasma cells. Rise of temperature. Santford technique of treatment. Pathological fracture. Bence-john's proteinuria: a. e. 340. d. b. ill defined hard. e. Abnormal gamma globulins. Humerus. Ribs and clavicle. They cause pathological fracture of bones affected. b. 343. Low backache. tender & warm bone swelling. Hyperviscosity with thrombotic complications. fever. Onion-peal appearance of plain x-ray of the bone is charateristic of the following tumour: a. The best line of treatment of multiple myelomatosis is: a. Fibroblasts of the periosteum. The best line of treatment of Ewing's sarcoma is: a. e. 64 www. e. Pathology of multiple myelomatosis: a. b. Bone marrow puncture for abnormal plasma cells: d. b. Irregular. Osteoclasts. c. b. d. 345. Fibrosarcoma. Amputation of the bone affected. Vertebrae especially lower lumbar vertebrae. Osteosarcoma of the osteogenic type.336. e. Positive in only 70% cases of m. Osteoblast. Signs of pathological fracture. Irradiation of all tumours. Skull. Cytotoxic drugs. e. Ewing's sarcoma. d. b. amputation. 341.com . c. b. 344. b. f. b. c. Clinical presentations of multiple myelomatosis: a. Tachycardia. e. 338. They undergo clotting at 80 degrees. e. Cytotoxic drugs.mataryonline. 337. f. Osteoclastoma.myelomatosis. d. General ttt in form of blood transfusion & vitamins. Irradiation (very radiosensitive tumour). d. The cell of origin of multiple myelomatosis is: a. c. Chondroblasts. and scapula. Anaemia and increased sedimentation rate. Signs characteristic of Ewing's sarcoma are: a. Toxaemia. e. The commonest bones to be affected by multiple myelomatosis are: a. Plasma'cells of the bone marrow. Multiple firm or soft swellings. Amputation. sternum. c. e.
350. 351. Fibrosarcoma of bones: a. e. Glycosuria. Common above age of 50 years. d. Treatment of chondrosarcoma is: a. humerus. Amputation is the best line of treatment of operable cases. Osteogenesis imperfecta. and radius are common sites. c. d. Fanconi's syndrome: a. tibia. b. 353. Interferon. b. d. Common in the italian race. Phocomelia. e. Prognosis of treatment is better than osteosarcoma. Chemotherapeutics. b. e.mataryonline. Congenital hip dislocation (CHD. The commonest clinical presentation of chondrosarcoma are: a. b. Hepatomegaly and splenomegaly. c. c. c. Congenital dislocation hip. Pulmonary metastases. d. Bone aches. Immuran therapy. Amputation is the treatment of choice. c. Peripheral type is more common to affect flat bones (ribs and vertebrae). Bilateral in 80% of cases. d.com . Bone swelling. Melphalan (sarcolysin). c. e. Neonates and infants. fibrosarcoma is radioresistant. 352. Malignant tumour of chondroblasts. Clinical presentations of bone metastases are: a. Hypophosphataemia. The drug of choice for treatment of multiple myeloma is: a. c. Diaphyseal aclasis. d. Anaemia and loss of weight. tibia and humerus. Chondrosarcoma: a. e. 65 www. Local excision of bone tumour with bone chips. Painless bone swelling (peripheral type). c. Aminoaciduria. d. Osteopetrosis. b. e. 347. Presents clinically as bone swelling which may be painless or painful (rare). Central type affects long bones like femur. b. c. b. e. Pathological fracture. Common to spread by blood stream to lungs and other bones. 349. Common in adult age (30-50). Painful swelling of the bone affected (central type). f.346. Leukeran. Pathological fracture. Ricketes. Femur. It may be endosteal or parosteal. d. e. Anaemia and loss of weight. e.): a. 354. It is due congenital laxity of ligaments of the hip joint. Examples of generalized bone deformities are: a. Irradiation of the bone affected. b. Affects girls more than boys. b. Methotrexate. d. Primary cause. 348.
mataryonline. e. Ortolani's test is diagnostic. c. and rotation of lower half of bone down and outwards. d. Congenital deformity can be corrected while acquired one can not. Congenital. Ricketes or osteomalacia. NMR of hip joint. Telescopic movement of the limb. The best method of diagnosis of CHD at birth is: a. Kohler's disease. Wide range of movement of the hip joint. Talipes equino-varus: a. 362. Causes of genu valgum (knock-knees): a. Salter's operation: a. Scheurmann's disease. Common between ages of 3-5 years. Malunited fracture. b. c. e. In the acquired type sole of the foot i full of corrugation. Labium of the joint becomes folded in the cavity of the acetabulum. b. Pertdhe's disease. c. e.com .355. 361. Arthroscopy and arthrography. Used for treatment of CHD in infants up to age of 4 years. b. 363.B arthritis. d. Cat scanning of the hip. The most diagnostic investigation of CHD is: a. Changes occuring due to persistence of the head outside the glenoid cavity are: a. Rheumatoid arthritis. d. c. d. Capsule of the joint becomes more elongated. Wide perineum in bilateral cases. d. Rare disease. b. . c. inverted and plantarly flexed foot. Rheumatoid or osteoarthritis. 359. Acetabulum becomes more deep. d. It may be congenital or acquired on top of paralysis of lateral popliteal nerve. Ultrasonography. Acquired deformity is bilateral while congenitalis unilateral. 358. d. Kienbock's disease. e. Upward and lateral displacement of the head with retardation of its growth. 360. Malunited fracture. e. b. malleoli are away from each other. Neck of femur becomes antedated beyond normal angle for infants. Adducted. e. Usually correctable by growth of the boy or the girl. 356. b. 357. It consists of osteotomy of the innominate bone just above acetabulum. Symmetry of the buttocks. c. c. c. Calve's disease. Congenital genu valgum: a. Paget's disease of bones. Paget's disease of bones. X-ray of the hip joint. May be of value in the adult patients suffering from T. c. The commonest cause of genu varum (bow legs): a. Ricketes. e. d. b. Of value if other measures failed for treatment. 66 www. b. d. e. e. Used for treatment of CHD At birth. Congenital. Examples of osteochonddritis with infarction of the epiphysis: a. b. Mc ewen osteotomy can correct cases of adult ages. With knees straight.
Scapula. d. b.mataryonline. d. e. Malunited fracture (pott's fracture) Osteoma of the foot. Dislocation of the head of the hip joint. Osteoarthritis. Spastic type. Perthe's disease of the hip. Morphia. Vertebrae. and regeneration. e. Parathyroid hormone. Calcitonin. 67 www. Common between ages of 3-10 years. d. Congenital (commonest). Bilateral in 15-20% of cases. 368. Malunited fracture is the commonest cause. Head is flat in shape. Paralytic. d. Septic arthritis of the hip joint. Osteoarthritis. 365. Fragmentation of the epiphysis. a. There is limitations to all types of movement except medial rotation. c. Vitamin d. d. c. Radiological signs characteristic of perthes disease are: a. Long bones especially femur. Osteoarthritis. Causes of coxa vara: a. c. Common in italian girls. Presents clinically by pain in the hip joint and limping after walking. 370. c. The commonest bone to affected by paget's disease is: a. b. b. c. The head of the femur undergoes three stages of degeneration. Increase density of the epiphysis. The drug of choice for treatment of pain of perthe's disease is: a. e. flattening. Congenital. d. Flat bones.com . d. Heart failure. Slipped femoral epiphysis. 366. e. f. Skull. Malignant transformation. Perthe's disease: a. b. 369. Causes of flat foot (club plannus).364. b. b. e. e. c. The common complications of paget's disease are: a. Aspirin. b. c. 367. Dislocations.
14. 12. C D C D C E B C A C C C C C B C C B C E E C D 93. 103. 51. 22. 45. 28. 29. 113. D D A B C C E D E C D E C D D A A C C D C C E . 35. 81. 3. 105. 88. 77. 84. 64. 56. 21. 74. 75. 44. B B E A D B A E D B B B C C B D C C D B A A D 70. 37. 23. 115. 15. 72. 82. 71. 40. 62. 92. 49. 111. 48. 89. 10. 6. 13. 60. 43. 101. 9. 65. 4. 114. 107. 8. 97. 66. 7. 106. 58. 85. 33. 104. 54. 90. 16. 68. 100. 91. 55. 31. 61. 79. 50.MCQs Answers 1. 73. 26. 76. 11. B A B D C B B B C B B C B C B C B D A B D A A 24. 46. 53. 108. 36. 20. 38. 27. 112. 57. 17. 25. 32. 30. 110. 95. 98. 69. 67. 78. 41. 5. 63. 99. 52. 83. 94. C D C C E D C B C D B B A B A A C D C D B B B 47. 39. 87. 86. 80. 34. 96. 109. 2. 59. 19. 102. 42. 18.
119. 131. 128. 177. 121. 118. 151. 140. 146. 191. 143. 199. 200. 169. 154. 182. 162. 173. A D D C B C C E B A E D . 134. 117. 127. 167. 129. 163. 155. 147. 201. 149. 122. 205. 148. 126. C C E A B B E E D C B B C B C A C D A C B D E C E C 168. 144. 183. 166. 153. 171. B C C E D B E D E C A B C E E B D E D A E D A D C D 142. 174. 152. 172. 190. 161. 204. 198. 193. 192. 203. 195. 181. 184. 165. 157. 132. 123. 160. 130. 135. C E B C A D E E D B D D E E C D C D E C D D B C D D 194. 141. 179. 196. 164. 176. 158. 188. 175. 138. 178. 187. 136. 185. 150.116. 202. 125. 145. 156. 180. 137. 133. 189. 124. 120. 170. 186. 159. 139. 197.
61. 51. D. 60. 12. D B.C. 90. D. 21. D. D 106. 59. D A. C. 95. B. D. B. D A. C. D B.C. 55.E . E A. B. A. B. A. D.E 120. B. E A. 16. D. 72. 24. C. D. D D. D 105. 66. 89. C. B. 45. B. C D 101. E 97. 67. 34. C. 87. C A. B. C B. E B. 58. D B. 85. 68. 69. D A. B. 7. C. C. D A. D. E A. C A. 13. 54. C. 86.C. 40. B. 75. C. D. E 49. 70. C. D. 41. D A. C. C. B. C. 83. B.B. B. 65. 50. 76.E 117. ALL 112. E A. 38. D A. 84. C. C. 78. C 25. A. 9. D C B. C A. D 111. B.True & False Answers 1. E A. 94. C. B. D B. B. A 119. C. D. 6. E A. D B. D. B B. 20. 91. D NONE B. D. C. D A. 35. D. D B. D B. B. 88. B. D B. 29. A. D 99.D. D 114.D. E B. E C. C. C. 80. 62. 17. B. 15. D. D 118. B. C. C. C. E 113. B A. 56. D B. 57. B. 44. E D A. D B. B. 93. B. 77. B. D. B. C. C. 36. 53. D A. D. B. E A.D 109. 48. ALL 116. E B. C A. A 103. E NONE A. 3. E C. 63. E A. 26. D A. D 108. A. 37. D 100. C B. 81. D. C. D. C D A. 4. D. B. E C. 5.E 110. E A. 10. D A. A. C A A. 74. C A. 31. 64. B. 79. 28. D D C. 43.B. 96. A. E A. C. B 107. E B. E B. B. E B. 47. 14. C. E B. C A. D. B. D A. D A. D E A. E NONE A. E A. D. C. B NONE C. E C. 11. 71. B. 32. 82. 42. C B A. 27. B. C E A. E A. D A A. E 98. D B. 46. 33. 18. A. E A. E 73. 8. D 102. E A. B B. D C. 23. 19. C 115. A 104. E A. 22. E B. E B. 39. 52. D C. 92. D A. 30. C. C. 2.
ALL 227. E 150. ALL 154.B.D 142.E 161. ALL 182. A.C 179.B.D 184. E 166. E 140.121. B.B.C. ALL 204. E 172.C. A. B.E 241.E 146.D.E 209. ALL 168.B.C. ALL 230. F 187.B. B.B.C.B.B.E 223.C.B.B. C.D 206. ALL 181. 171.C.B .E 198. ALL 149. B. A.B.D 141.E 125. E 129. C 134. A. E 197.B.E 212. ALL 193. D 175.C.D 208.D.D 138. A.E 122. ALL 219.C. E 152. ALL 225.E 130.D 216. E 135.E 224.E 220. A. E 177. B.B.C. A. A. A. A.D.C 163.C. A.E 128.C.D 147. B 126.C.C.C.B.D 229.E 124. A. A. A.E 151. A. A 201. B. ALL 153. D 205. ALL 183.C.B. A. F 244.D 249.B.D 189.C.B.C. ALL 226.B. A.D 173. A. A. B 127.B.D 213.E 202. A.B. A. ALL 144.B.C. A. D 165.B.C. A.E 195. A 160.B. A 174.D 234. ALL 228.E 221.B.E 132. A. D 139. A. A. A.E 210.F 248.C. D 246. A.C.E 215.C. A. D 155. ALL 148.B. ALL 194. A. C.F 247.C. A. D 136. A.D.D.D 232.E 191.D 236. A.C.C 211.C.D 222. ALL 176.D 131. F 233. C. ALL 190. D 242.C.E 237. A 217.B.E 170.C.D.D 250.E 196. B 164. E 200. A. A.B.C.B.C 231.C. ALL 203.D 133.C 159. ALL 185.B.D 235. ALL 167.CE.C.D 158. A 186.B. ALL 243. D 245. A.C 162.D. C. B 145.B.B. B. ALL 239.C. D.C 207. A. C 143. A.C 157.B. ALL 180.D. A.E 192. A. A. A. ALL 199. A.D 123. E 156.C. E 238.C.B.C.E 240. ALL 137.B. A. A.B. A. C. A. A. ALL 214. ALL 178.D 218. A. ALL 169.B.B. D 188. B.
D.E 314. ALL 361. C. A 332. A. C 270. ALL 330. ALL 277.E 300. A.C. C 357.B. A.B.D 312. B 287.E 253.B. ALL 367.B. A. E 296.B. ALL 269. A.B. A. ALL 363.C.D 279.D. E 275.E 349. ALL 292.C. E 302.B. ALL 366. ???? 354. ALL 299.D.E 262.C.D. A. D 341. ALL 309.C.B.C 261.D.B. D 283. ALL 268.C. D 339. D 276. A. A. E 305. ALL 304.C 327. A. A. A.B.B.C. ALL 260. F 338. E 284. A.E 328. ALL 259.B.E 307. C 324. C.251.B.E 359. B 281.D 289. C 340. A. B. D 347. A.E 326.D 336.D 290.C.B.C 368.B.D. A 263. A. B. F 365. C 350.D.C 323. ALL 286.F 257. D 318. ALL 291.C. C 315.D. E 295.B 360.B.E 333. ALL 352.C. A.C 316. E 320. A. A.C. ALL 274.E 355.E 356. E 342.D 293. C 322. ALL 362.E 345. A. A. ALL 252.B. C 344. A. A.C 317.B.D 353. A.E 272. C 266.C 280. C 321.B.E. ALL 343. C 329. A. A.E 311. A.B.C .C 303.D. A.D 271.C. A.D 285.B. A.F 258.D 273. A. D 346. B 265. E 308.E 331. C. ALL 267. E 256. D 319. A. ALL 301. D 358.B.B. ALL 288.C.C. D 370. A.C.E 255. E 325. ALL 313. A.E 334.E. C.E 306. ALL 348.B.C 278. A.E 297. ALL 351. ALL 364. A. D 335.C 254.C.C.B.E 298.B. A. ALL 337. A. ALL 294. ALL 310.C. C 282. B.B.D.B.E 369.C. ALL 264. C.
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