1. A cold stimulus applied to a tooth will produce a hypersensitive response if the tooth A. B. C. D. is nonvital. has a periodontal pocket. has a hyperemic pulp. has chronic proliferative pulpitis. 6. The absence of adequate drainage in a periodontal pocket may result in A. B. C. D. cyst formation. abscess formation. epithelial hyperplasia. increased calculus formation.


The location and extent of subgingival calculus is most accurately determined clinically by A. B. C. D. radiopaque solution used in conjunction with radiographs. disclosing solution. probing with a fine instrument. visual inspection.


For an otherwise healthy patient, with an acute localized periodontal abscess, initial treatment must include A. B. C. D. scaling and root planing. occlusal adjustment. prescription of an antibiotic. prescription of an analgesic.


A characteristic sign of aggressive periodontitis in an adolescent (juvenile periodontitis) is A. B. C. D. marginal gingivitis. painful, burning gingivae. hyperplastic gingivitis. drifting of the teeth.


The instrument best suited for root planing is a/an A. B. C. D. E. hoe. file. curette. sickle scaler. ultrasonic scaler.


In an infrabony pocket, the epithelial attachment is located A. B. C. within basal bone. coronal to alveolar bone crest. apical to alveolar bone crest.


The most likely cause of tooth loss following a tunneling procedure to provide complete access for a mandibular Class III furcation involvement is A. B. C. D. root caries. root sensitivity. pulpal involvement. recurrent pocketing.


Which treatment procedure is indicated for a patient with asymptomatic age related gingival recession? A. B. C. D. E. Connective tissue graft. Gingivoplasty. Lateral sliding flap. Gingival graft. No treatment.

10. Maximum shrinkage after gingival curettage can be expected from tissue that is A. B. C. D. E. fibroedematous. edematous. fibrotic. formed within an infrabony pocket. associated with exudate formation.

Bleeding on probing. 2. The oral mucosa covering the base of the alveolar bone A. 15. B. B. 3. suprabony periodontal pocket formation. C. 4. 17. D. 4. All of the above. Decreased pocket depth. base of the pocket to the cementoenamel junction. 16. idiopathic fibromatosis. B. D. is normally non-keratinized but can become keratinized in response to physiological stimulation. free gingival margin to the cementoenamel junction. the measurement is taken from the A. a mandibular Class II furcation involvement. In periodontal therapy. horizontal bone loss. C. D. 4. When using the periodontal probe to measure pocket depth. aphthous stomatitis. a mandibular Class III furcation involvement. A. is closely bound to underlying muscle and bone. E. B. diffuse gingivitis is A. merges with the keratinized gingiva at the mucogingival junction. Diabetes mellitus. has a tightly woven dense collagenous corium. 12. E. C. does not contain elastic fibres. Which of the following systemic diseases does/do NOT predispose a patient to periodontitis? 1. D. C. generalized recession. C. 3. base of the pocket to the crest of the free gingiva. “guided tissue regeneration” is most successful in treating 1. B. Loss of stippling. . B. 2. fiery-red. Gingival hyperplasia. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only. C. 13. A clenching habit may be a factor in A. Which of the following is/are clinical signs of gingivitis? 1. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. 3. marginal gingivitis. Hereditary hypohydrotic ectodermal dysplasia. A. C. a 3-walled infrabony defect. aggressive periodontitis.RELEASED WRITTEN EXAMINATION BOOK 1 11. D. 14. Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome. The most likely diagnosis for a child with a painful. B. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. base of the pocket to the mucogingival junction. E. 2. D. increased tooth mobility. E. A. Cyclic neutropenia. primary herpetic gingivostomatitis. D.

oral hygiene instruction. 2. bone grafting. D. C. eosinophils. The predominant cells in the inflammatory exudate of an acute periodontal abscess are A. Water irrigation devices have been shown to A. increasing plaque retention. B. A. 19. C. free gingival graft. B. E. antibiotic therapy. C. dislodge food particles from between teeth. lymphocytes. vascularity of the gingiva. C. In periodontics. C. eliminate plaque. 3. 20. 23. laterally positioned sliding flap. D. neutrophils. 24. suprabony pockets. B. coronally positioned flap. deep scaling. D. two-wall infrabony pockets. Overhangs on restorations initiate chronic inflammatory periodontal disease by A. periodontal debridement. D. monocytes. basophils. Correction of an inadequate zone of attached gingiva on several adjacent teeth is best accomplished with a/an A. 4. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. apically repositioned flap. 22. 2. thickness of the epithelium. topical steroid therapy. C. 4. causing traumatic occlusion. 25. A. . Irregularly distributed shallow to moderate craters in the interseptal bone are best eliminated by A. 3. three-wall infrabony pockets. C. 21. melanin pigmentation. causing pressure atrophy. prevent calculus formation. B. E. The colour of normal gingiva is affected by the 1. disinfect pockets for up to 18 hours. one-wall infrabony pockets. The most appropriate treatment of necrotizing ulcerative periodontitis (NUP) in a patient with no fever and no lymphadenopathy is 1. double-papilla pedicle graft. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.RELEASED WRITTEN EXAMINATION BOOK 1 18. increasing food retention. B. C. D. B. the best prognosis for bone regeneration follows the surgical treatment of A. D. osteoplasty. B. gingivoplasty. epithelial keratinization. E. E. D. D. B.

Trigeminal nerve V. Bolton point. The mechanism of adjustment to maintain the shape and proportions of bone throughout its growth period is called A. External (lateral) pterygoid. C. is sustained over a longer period of time in girls. Mandibular growth A. C. cortical drift. B. 31. 2. 10 years. nonkeratinized. 2. C. Which of the following muscles has two separate functions in mandibular movement? A. D. Palatoglossus. Lateral (external) pterygoid. B. C. Later than 12 years. D. 28. B. 30. A patient with a tumor in the right infratemporal fossa shows a significant shift of the mandible to the right when opening. C. area relocation. D. A. Superior constrictor. is sustained over a longer period of time in boys. 27. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. D. B. C. Buccinator and orbicularis oris. occurs two years earlier in boys than in girls. E. 3. 3. 12 years. C. Risorius and buccinator. 32. the most stable point in a growing skull is the A. C. Which two muscles are involved in sucking? A. sella turcica. occurs at the same chronologic age in both sexes. 4. B. translatory growth. E. 8 years. Masseter. B. 29. D. B. C. D. D. B. Buccinator. Which of the following muscles comprise the retromolar pad? 1. Hypoglossal nerve XII. nasion. squamous. Buccinator. Broadbent's point. Normal sulcular epithelium in man is 1. Levator labii superioris and zygomaticus major. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. 33. Facial nerve VII. In cephalometry. . D. Geniohyoid. Glossopharyngeal nerve IX. 34. Roots of the permanent maxillary central incisors are completed by what age? A. 4. D. A. B. Which nerve is involved? A. remodeling.RELEASED WRITTEN EXAMINATION BOOK 1 26. Caninus and depressor angularis. stratified. nonpermeable.

E. vertically. 36. multinucleated giant cells. median rhomboid glossitis. Lymphocytes. C. The major stimulator of respiration is A. C. high percentage of blood carbon dioxide. Serum alkaline phosphatase. 38. D. D. This pain is associated with which of the following? A. 44. D. Free nerve endings. Cementoblasts. Mast cells. Golgi receptor. laterally. B. Plasma cells and monocytes. B. Serum phosphorus. D. Hypothyroidism affects the dental developmental pattern by A. a granular cell tumor. undifferentiated mesenchymal cells. D. Following root planing. until the end of mixed dentition. osteoblasts. D. they are replaced by A. Macrophages. . 37. A smooth. horizontally. B. A lowering of serum calcium is the stimulus for the endogenous release of A. B. delaying the eruption timetable. C. C. C. Odontoblastic processes. D. a fibroma. B. accelerating the eruption timetable. E. 42. located in the midline of the dorsum of the tongue immediately anterior to the circumvallate papillae is indicative of A. interfering with jaw growth. causing sclerotic bone to form over the occlusal surface of erupting teeth. D. insulin. B. Serum calcium. C. parathyroid hormone. C. until the complete eruption of permanent teeth. Alveolar bone is undergoing remodeling A. When odontoblasts are destroyed or undergo degeneration. adrenalin. D. D. B. Which cells migrate into the gingival sulcus in the largest numbers in response to the accumulation of plaque? A. 40. obliquely. benign migratory glossitis. 43. low percentage of blood carbon dioxide. B. thyroid hormone. C. 41. elevated. 39. The periodontium is best able to tolerate forces directed to a tooth A. B. E. throughout life. B. low blood pressure. Polymorphonuclear leukocytes.RELEASED WRITTEN EXAMINATION BOOK 1 35. red patch devoid of filiform papillae. A decrease of which of the following is indicative of hypoparathyroidism? A. C. adrenocortical hormone. C. high percentage of blood oxygen. iron deficiency anemia. a patient experiences thermal sensitivity. Thyroid activity. through the primary dentition. ameloblasts.

D. Lactobacilli. With the development of gingivitis. The finding of “acid-fast” microorganisms in sputum suggests the presence of A. spleen. which of the following is correct? A. D. D. ethamine. small intestine. B. B. aldehyde. diplococcal organisms. greater absorption when given orally. saliva with low buffering capacity. D. gram-positive organisms. Neisseria gonorrhoeae. D. Mycobacterium tuberculosis. 46. D. D. E. spirochetes. interfering with the degradation of histamine. E. 47. D. 48. 54. liver. increasing the action of histaminase. Regarding dental caries. B. B. blocking the actions of histamine by competitive inhibition. kidneys. plaque on his teeth. Streptococcus viridans. C. An increase of immunoglobulins is consistent with increased numbers of A. B. The rate of carbohydrate clearance from the oral cavity is not significant. Staphylococcus aureus. C. greater resistance to penicillinase. All carbohydrates are equally cariogenic. E. C. the sulcus becomes predominantly populated by A. gram-negative organisms. C. Enterococci. None of the above.RELEASED WRITTEN EXAMINATION BOOK 1 45. plasma cells. 53. E. 50. More frequent consumption of carbohydrates increases the risk. Lidocaine (Xylocaine®) is an example of a local anesthetic which is chemically classified as an A. 52. . altering the formation of histamine. C. Streptococcus pyogenes. Staphylococcus albus. Increased dietary fat increases the risk. slower renal excretion. C. C. lactic acid in his mouth. B. Antihistamines act by A. C. C. Short-acting barbiturates are metabolized mainly in the A. B. 49. B. amide. D. broader antibacterial spectrum. C. a high lactobacillus count. lymphocytes. A therapeutic advantage of penicillin V over penicillin G is A. D. fibroblasts. Carious lesions are most likely to develop if a patient has A. Which of the following microorganisms are most frequently found in infected root canals? A. 51. neutrophils. ester. Diplococcus pneumoniae. pancreas. B. aminide. B.

RELEASED WRITTEN EXAMINATION BOOK 1 55. sequestration in the body fats. D. Warfarin (Coumadin®) acts by A. Periapical cemento-osseous dysplasia. increased brittleness of the jaws. oxidation. aminide. An end result of ionizing radiation used to treat oral malignancies is A. fluoride. D. B. amide. C. ester. B. a fibroma. In the presence of an acute bacterial infection. C. increased vascularity of the jaws. pulp stones. C. C. magnesium. C. secondary cementum. D. 56. 60. A protective mechanism of the dental pulp to external irritation or caries is the formation of A. C. . D. Which of the following drugs is used in the treatment of mild allergic reactions? A. lymphocytes. Procaine (Novocaine®) is an example of a local anesthetic which is chemically classified as an A. 61. Isoproterenol. D. C. incorporating ionic calcium. polymorphonuclear leukocytes. 58. a keloid. B. 63. primary dentin. B. E. Meperidine hydrochloride. E. C. plasma cells. reduced vascularity of the jaws. B. epithelial hyperplasia. reduction. C. D. 64. The chief mechanism by which the body metabolizes short-acting barbiturates is A. D. laboratory tests will show an increase in A. B. B. hydroxylation and oxidation. D. potassium. Hyperplastic pulpitis. monocytes. The inorganic ion that is implicated in primary hypertension is A. a fibro-epithelial polyp. inhibiting the synthesis of prothrombin in the liver. Chronic periradicular periodontitis. 62. 57. deformity of the jaws. tertiary dentin. D. aldehyde. eosinophils. Internal resorption. B. B. ethamine. Propoxyphene. D. B. preventing formation of thromboplastin. 59. preventing fibrinogen conversion to fibrin. Which of the following is most often associated with a nonvital tooth? A. Excessive formation of scar tissue beyond the wound margin is called A. sodium. Diphenhydramine hydrochloride. C.

Decreasing the water/powder ratio by a small amount. C. minimum OFD (object-film distance) and minimum FFD (focal-film distance). B. Selection of the appropriate kilovoltage for dental films is influenced by A. B. 71. apply a radiation protection badge. D. reduce film density. 69. Using warmer water. gain in moisture content. expansion. When a radiographic examination is warranted for a 10 year old child. maximum OFD (object -film distance) and maximum FFD (focal-film distance). minimum OFD (object-film distance) and maximum FFD (focal-film distance). . Adding a small amount of salt to the water before mixing. In radiography. D. collimation of the X-ray beam. decrease the kilovoltage to 50kVp. Filters are placed in the path of the x-ray beam to A. filter thickness. . E. C. take a panoramic film only. line voltage fluctuation. higher kVp. maximum OFD (object-film distance) and minimum FFD (focal-film distance). Excessive developing time. C. B. a dental stone mixture will exhibit A. Decreasing the mixing time. data obtained from sickness surveys. Epidemiology of disease is best described as the A. loss in compressive strength. control of disease. D. E. B. The greatest single factor in reducing radiation exposure in dentistry is A. Improper safety light. D. 70. B. 73. C. D. B. C. high speed film. the most effective way to decrease radiation exposure is to A. C. usual low level of disease normally found within a population. 66. minimum magnification and maximum definition are achieved by A. During the setting phase. type of timer. C. D.RELEASED WRITTEN EXAMINATION BOOK 1 65. 68. Cold developer. Which of the following modifications to the standard procedure for mixing gypsum products will increase the compressive strength of the set material? A. C. D. contraction. diameter of the primary beam of radiation. Over exposure. use high speed film. reduce exposure time. increase contrast. 67. D. study of disease patterns in a population. B. Which of the following is a possible cause for a low density radiograph (light film)? A. D. use a thyroid collar and lead apron. C. proper filtration. B. B. reduce patient radiation dose. tissue density. 72.

asthma. 4. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. The higher modulus of elasticity of a chromiumcobalt-nickel alloy. A patient who uses nitroglycerine has 75. Increased strength. Corrosion resistance. Tricuspid. more taper. Which valve is most commonly affected by rheumatic heart disease? A. B. low compressive strength. compared to a Type IV gold alloy. Aortic. cerebral hyperemia. a 1% aqueous calcium sulfate solution. B. coronary artery disease. high blood pressure. C. Dental porcelain has 81. C. electrolyte imbalance. water. A. cerebral hypoxia. If an alginate impression must be stored for a few minutes before the cast is poured. high hardness. high tensile strength. B. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. resistance to corrosion. it should be placed in A. 76. 2. 100% relative humidity. E. rheumatic heart disease. 2. A.RELEASED WRITTEN EXAMINATION BOOK 1 74. means that chromium-cobalt-nickel partial denture clasp will require A. D. D. B. C. 3. A. D. B. C. Lowered specific gravity. E. Unconsciousness in syncope results from 1. Mitral. D. melting point. C. 4. strength. D. D. low impact strength. a shallower undercut. B. 3. hardness. 79. C. 80. E. . a heavier cross section for a clasp arm. C. D. neurogenic shock. Pulmonary. B. The addition of platinum to a dental gold alloy results in increased 1. a shorter retentive arm. A. B. 77. Gold contributes which of the following properties to a gold-copper alloy? A. cardiac arrhythmia. Increased hardness. C. 78.

D. D. A patient presents with hypodontia. Bell's palsy. fine. 1. 2. D. insufficient iodine. osteoarthritis. Sweat glands. scanty. 84. ectodermal dysplasia. and an intolerance to hot weather. E. Particulate hydroxyapatite. B. C. 83. achondroplasia. Hair. 90. 88. 86. A 12 year old boy has a history of severe sore throat followed by migratory arthralgia and swollen joints of the extremities. Degenerative arthrosis. is highly biocompatible. excess sodium. B. What is the most likely diagnosis? 89. excess iodine. D. 3. D. Myxedema is associated with A. B. a drug reaction. E. caused by exposure to radiation. Trigeminal neuralgia. B. insufficient parathyroid hormone. C. Psoriatic arthritis. This history is suggestive of A. E. excess calcium. D. C. Which of the following is/are NOT usually affected by hereditary ectodermal dysplasia? A. has a low incidence of secondary infection following surgery. C. Which articular disease most often accompanies Sjögren’s syndrome? A. induces bone formation throughout the implanted material. rheumatoid arthritis. Salivary glands. insufficient fluoride. C. D. when placed subperiostially. A. B. an auto-immune disease. cystic fibrosis. Glossodynia. Fingernails. conical teeth. malignant hyperthermia. a viral infection. C. B. . B. has a tendency to migrate following insertion. Myasthenia gravis. Lupus arthritis. Rheumatoid arthritis. E. Sickle cell anemia is A. fair hair. The most likely diagnosis is A. excessive thyroid hormone. insufficient thyroid hormone. rheumatic fever. B. D. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. C. B. C. Still's disease.RELEASED WRITTEN EXAMINATION BOOK 1 82. C. 85. A. gout. E. a genetic disease. A patient presents with apparent paralysis of one side of the face which appeared the day before. E. 4. Teeth. D. 87. excessive parathyroid hormone. Enlargement of the thyroid gland can be caused by A. Suppurative arthritis.

B. response of pulp to electrical stimulation. Condensing osteitis in the periapical region is indicative of a/an A. Lateral periodontal cyst. B. 97. but in appearance they are grayish and exhibit extensive occlusal and incisal wear. lingual surface of posterior teeth. D. 92. neonatal hypoplasia. type of exudate. 95. C. In the early stage. pain. Diffuse calcification of the pulp. 99. Root resorption of permanent teeth may be associated with 1. C. pulpal abscess. Hypersensitivity to thermal stimuli. 2. B. D. B. cleidocranial dysplasia. occlusal surface of posterior teeth. Chronic periradicular periodontitis. 98. high fever encountered by the patient when he had measles at age 3. periapical cemento-osseous dysplasia.5. D. D. C. B. if left untreated. tenderness to percussion. facial surfaces of teeth. D. 96. Chronic hyperplastic pulpitis. Pain upon biting pressure. D. Dentigerous cyst. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. A 15 year old presents with hypoplastic enamel on tooth 1. chronic inflammation of the pulp. acute inflammation of the pulp. Reversible pulpitis. C. D. hereditary factor.RELEASED WRITTEN EXAMINATION BOOK 1 91. All other teeth are normal. Pulp polyp. A. excessive orthodontic forces. early apical abscess formation. radiographic examination. A 4 year old child has a normal complement of deciduous teeth. generalized calcium deficiency.5. a periapical abscess can be differentiated from a lateral periodontal abscess by A. chronic periradicular periodontitis. D. incisal edges. Abrasion is most commonly seen on the A. E. . Which of the following features would be most indicative of a cracked tooth? A.5 during the development of tooth 1. Absent vitalometric response. Which of the following. E. Which of the following results from a necrotic pulp? A. C. amelogenesis imperfecta. This was most probably caused by a/an A. Periapical radiolucency. 3. C. Radiographic examination indicates some extensive deposits of secondary dentin in these teeth. infection of tooth 5. B. C. Acute suppurative pulpitis. D. 93. C. is most likely to result in a periapical lesion? A. traumatic injury. C. E. 94. dentinogenesis imperfecta. This condition is typical of A. B. 4. vitamin D deficiency. E. B. Internal resorption. B.

Acute apical abscess. C. nonvital. Nasoalveolar cyst. Odontogenic adenomatoid tumor. intact basal cell layer and chronic inflammatory cells are histologic features that may be found in A. An ankylosed tooth is usually A. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. Odontogenic keratocyst. Cementoblastoma. D. Regional odontodysplasia. B. 107. infraerupted. acute maxillary sinusitis. the most likely diagnosis is A. B. the mandible. D. B. 101. C. The microscopic appearance of the central giant cell granuloma of the jaws is similar to that of lesions which occur in A. Periapical cemento-osseous dysplasia. increased mitosis. B. 106. papillofibroma. 3. Median palatal cyst. D. impacted maxillary third molar. 4. C. E. found in the permanent dentition. Calcifying epithelial odontogenic tumor. D. trigeminal neuralgia. C. C. hyperparathyroidism.RELEASED WRITTEN EXAMINATION BOOK 1 100. glossopharyngeal neuralgia. the posterior region of the maxilla. B. C. C. Multiple supernumerary teeth are most commonly found in A. cleidocranial dysplasia. For which of the following pathological conditions would a lower central incisor tooth be expected to respond to heat. Down's syndrome. D. endothelioma. hypothyroidism. the anterior region of the maxilla. 2. 108. C. impacted maxillary canine. in the anterior region of the mandible near the midline. Which of the following is/are associated with an unerupted tooth? 1. E. Apical cyst. B. . Amelogenesis imperfecta. Dentinogenesis imperfecta. E. D. carcinoma in situ. Which of the following has the highest rate of recurrence? A. Paget's disease. C. When a patient experiences continuous pain in the maxillary premolar and molar areas and there is no evidence of dental infection. D. A. near the junction of the body and the ramus. 109. An ameloblastoma is most frequently found in A. dysplasia. 105. cleidocranial dysplasia. Periapical cemento-osseous dysplasia. Which of the following conditions is characterized by abnormally large pulp chambers? A. D. B. Dentinal dysplasia Type I. cherubism. acanthosis. 103. Chronic apical periodontitis. 104. cretinism. B. hyperpituitarism. 102. squamous cell carcinoma. C. D. cold and electric pulp test? A. associated with a root fracture. B. D. Incisive canal cyst. Hyperkeratosis. B.

C. Erythroblastosis fetalis may be a cause of A. Intermittent painful swelling in the submandibular region that increases at mealtime is indicative of A. supernumerary incisors.RELEASED WRITTEN EXAMINATION BOOK 1 110. Which of the following sites for squamous cell carcinoma has the best prognosis? A. Muscle tenderness. E. Buccal mucosa. Prominent fungiform papillae. sialolithiasis. Which of the following is NOT a sign or symptom of the myofascial pain dysfunction syndrome? A. Radiographic changes of the joint. . Pain. Hard palate. E. D. A patient with pain. acute bacterial sialadenitis. 111. Median rhomboid glossitis. C. Which one of the following would be of greatest value in determining the etiology of an oral ulceration? A. Laboratory tests. an epidemic parotitis. blue sclerae. E. B. adenoma. C. sarcoidosis. D. C. a blockage of Stensen's duct. choriocarcinoma. E. 114. 118. B. C. E. 113. chondroma. Lower lip. D. a ranula. C. Fordyce's granules. Ludwig's angina. D. History of the oral lesion. fever and unilateral parotid swelling following a general anesthetic most likely has A. D. Sjögren’s syndrome. B. Epulis fissuratum. Lingual varicosities. B. B. B. An ameloblastoma can develop from the epithelial lining of which of the following cysts? A. 112. Dentigerous. Limitation of jaw motion. D. B. C. E. Periradicular. 116. lower lip. D. Mumps. Mucoceles are most commonly found in the A. Retromolar area. papilloma. 117. C. a blockage of Wharton's duct. Lateral periodontal. D. B. Systemic evaluation. buccal mucosa. 115. C. soft palate. 119. B. D. Residual. E. Gingiva. pigmented teeth. lipoma. D. upper lip. Squamous cell carcinoma. B. E. C. peg lateral incisors. The benign neoplasm that originates from squamous epithelium is called a/an A. tongue. "Clicking" or "popping" noise in the joints. Cytological smear. Hyperplastic lingual tonsils may resemble which of the following? A.

2. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. not clearly distinguishable. C. A. 124. the opening of the incisive canal may be misdiagnosed as a 1. B. D. C. loss of lamina dura. nocturnal bruxism. A. thin radiolucent line around the roots of the teeth. C. calcification of the periodontal membrane. 121. compound odontoma. B. D. mandibular subluxation. 127. 1-2mm apical to the cementoenamel junction. 4. D. 122. A radiopaque area within the alveolar process containing several rudimentary teeth suggests a/an A. E. nasolabial cyst. Radiographically. B. A. The most likely cause is A. Enlargement. thick layer of bone forming the inner surface of the alveolus. Radiographically. 4. 126. 3. 123. B. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. Atrophy. orbital process of the zygomatic bone. B. C. Which gingival manifestation(s) would be expected in a patient with a blood dyscrasia? 1. thin radiopaque line around the roots of the teeth. D. C. the radiopacity that can obliterate the apices of maxillary molars is the A. Pindborg tumor. a circumscribed radiolucency. Her symptoms have been present for the past week and are most pronounced in the morning. periapical cemento-osseous dysplasia. E. at the cementoenamel junction. the normal alveolar crest is A. C. maxillary sinus. 125. B. B. . branchial cyst. fibrous ankylosis of the temporomandibular joints.RELEASED WRITTEN EXAMINATION BOOK 1 120. 3-4mm apical to the cementoenamel junction. C. The apical region of a non-vital tooth with a deep carious lesion may radiographically show 1. A 23 year old female complains of bilateral stiffness and soreness in the preauricular region. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. C. thick layer of cortical bone. periradicular cyst. E. B. D. 3. 4. ameloblastoma. D. palatine bone and the zygoma. On bite-wing radiographs of adults under the age of 30. 3. E. complex odontoma. early osteoarthritis. In the bisecting angle principle of intraoral radiography. Ulceration. Bleeding. D. the lamina dura is a A. widening of the periodontal space. D. zygoma and the zygomatic process of the maxilla. 2. nasopalatine cyst. 2.

a periradicular periodontitis. C. Marginal ridge. dentinogenesis imperfecta. Hutchinson's incisors. vitamin A deficiency may result in A. an apical radiolucency. 133. A well circumscribed 3mm radiolucent lesion is present in the apical region of the mandibular second premolar. D. D. On a bite-wing radiograph of posterior teeth. myositis ossificans. Cemental tear. acute osteitis. which of the following is most likely to be misdiagnosed as proximal caries? A. D. increase the shearing action in mastication. 132. Deficiency of vitamin D. prevent temporomandibular joint syndrome. . C. A. Cemento-enamel junction. C. Carabelli cusp. B. the mental foramen. Frequent ingestion of high sucrosecontaining foods. E. D. A. D. E. The tooth is vital and tender to percussion. C. During tooth development. C. C.RELEASED WRITTEN EXAMINATION BOOK 1 128. osteitis fibrosa cystica. B. Dietary deficiency of vitamin D can result in 129. abnormal formation of osteoid. A patient complains of acute pain 24 hours after the insertion of a restoration in a tooth with no preexisting periapical pathology. normal lamina dura. osteogenesis imperfecta. Dark chocolate. Toffee. a dentigerous cyst. achieve a more favorable direction and distribution of forces of occlusion. D. condensing osteitis. root resorption. E. a rarefying osteitis. The most important objective of occlusal adjustment of a natural dentition is to 130. Which of the following is the greatest risk factor for rampant caries in children? 131. partial anodontia (hypodontia). improve oral hygiene by preventing food impaction. B. C. Cheese. D. C. Jam. Which of the following foods is the most cariogenic? A. D. The tooth responds normally to vitality tests. B. A. The radiograph will show A. E. Frequent ingestion of polysaccharides. Severe enamel hypoplasia. B. B. 134. B. Calculus. peg-shaped teeth. The radiolucency is most likely A. 135. B. Paget's disease. enamel hypoplasia.

pain. anterior teeth only. the protrusive condylar path inclination has its primary influence on the morphology of A. Necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis (NUG) and acute herpetic gingivostomatitis can be differentiated clinically by (the) A. B. 137. temperature of the patient. . overweight man reports that his wife complains that he snores. lymphadenopathy. mesial inclines of maxillary cusps and distal inclines of mandibular cusps. refer for a sleep assessment. C. D. fabricate restorations to increase the patient’s vertical dimension of occlusion. D. B. location of the lesions. A 45 year old. cusp height. The initial management of the patient’s snoring problem is to A. B. C.RELEASED WRITTEN EXAMINATION BOOK 1 136. D. C. In restoring occlusal anatomy. refer for an orthognathic surgery consultation. mesial inclines of mandibular cusps and distal inclines of maxillary cusps. 138. fabricate an appliance to reduce snoring.

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