Referred Quizzes for the Topics on Marketing Management (120 Questions
1. Traditionally, mass marketing of a consumer product results in __________. a. the largest potential market for that product b. increased product prices due to the lack of differentiation and decreased competition c. easier channel selections d. fewer competitors because there are fewer markets e. lower profit margins 2. Bentley produces fine automobiles with price tags in the $300,000 and above range. Because the number of people with sufficient income to purchase a Bentley is relatively small, we might say Bentley is engaged in __________ marketing. a. local b. aggregated c. individual d. niche e. derived 3. A(n) __________ market is characterized by a fairly narrowly defined market with a complete and distinct set of needs, and a willingness to pay a premium to meet those needs. a. local b. niche c. individual d. derived e. homogeneous 4. All of the following are part of an attractive niche EXCEPT: a. the niche has variety-seeking consumers b. consumers in the niche have distinct needs c. the niche is not likely to attract heavy competition d. the niche can specialize and therefore realize certain economies e. the niche has growth potential 5. A southern chain of barbecue restaurants would find it advantageous to prepare a sweet pork sandwich with coleslaw inside for Mississippians, a mustard-based sauce
with pork and coleslaw on the side for Carolinians, and a smoky beef sandwich with thick white bread instead of a bun for Texans. If the chain engages in __________ marketing, it will improve the likelihood of its success. a. local b. niche c. individual d. homogeneous e. demographic 6. An argument against local marketing is that it __________. a. makes it difficult to be profitable because of the small size of the market b. makes it difficult to select a proper distribution channel c. drives up marketing and manufacturing costs by reducing economies of scale d. leads to a homogenization of the market e. solidifies a brand’s overall image in the marketplace because it delivers the same advertising message throughout its market 7. The ultimate level of marketing segmentation is __________ marketing. a. local b. niche c. individual d. homogeneous e. mass 8. __________ combines mass customization with customized marketing. a. Niching b. Specialization c. Customerization d. Concentrated marketing e. Clustered marketing 9. A company is customerized when it is able to respond to individual customers by customizing its products, services and messages on a __________ basis. a. macro b. micro c. uniform d. one-to-one e. cluster
a. a. The Target store in Scottsdale sells trailers but does not stock portable heaters. education e. geoclustering c. demographic segmentation d. mobility d. geoclustering c. lifecycle 11. its basis for segmentation is __________. needs-based c. you will find prayer candles but no bicycle child carriers. demographic segmentation d. If you go to a Target store on the east side of Phoenix. it was described as “a new publication that covers female style and southern life. a. This is an example of __________.” From this statement. Target realizes that the people in each of these neighborhoods do not have the same needs and should therefore not be offered the same products. behavioral segmentation e. Which of the following is NOT one of the five categories of PRIZM groups? a. race c. psychographic segmentation
. demographic d. benefits segmentation b. behavioral b. interests b. If a food company segments a market on the basis of life stage information. geographic e. psychographic 12. When the parent company introduced Southern Belles magazine. behavioral segmentation e. benefits segmentation b. You’d have to go to the Target store in Mesa to find heaters. psychographic segmentation 13. you should be able to describe the segmentation strategy used for the magazines as __________.10.
. Which of the following is an example of a demographic segmentation variable? a. This is an example of __________ segmentation. She is studying __________ data. personality c. Joan has learned that more of the product is consumed in ethnic neighborhoods on a per capita basis than in less homogeneous areas. lifestyle 15. generation c. geographic b. lifestyle e. There are no differences between age and life-cycle segmentation and generational segmentation. and generational segmentation is based on the effects of economic and social status. usage rate 17. age and life-cycle d. generation or social class b. user status 16. multivitamin for active men and women over 50. d. Age and life-cycle segmentation assumes people are influenced by where they are in life. attitude toward the product d. Age and life-cycle segmentation is a relatively straightforward segmentation strategy while generational segmentation is much harder to implement. b. e. user status e. personality e. Perrigo Corporation makes One-Source Mature. c. demographic c. and generational segmentation assumes they are influenced by what they grew up with. Age and life-cycle segmentation assumes the effect of time. a high potency. gender b. Age and life-cycle segmentation is rigid and unchanging over time while generational segmentation changes with each decade. psychological d. While studying consumer-buying patterns for malt liquor.14. Which of the following statements best describes the difference between age and life-cycle segmentation and generational segmentation? a. a. a.
lifestyle d. demographic b. geographic 21. 2) those who wanted to know behind the scenes gossip about the stars. benefit c. age c. Because two-thirds of the sales of new motorcycle policies at Dairyland Insurance Company are to current policyholders. Which of the following is NOT an example of a loyalty status segmentation variable? a. Which of the following is an example of a psychographic variable the owner of the retreat could use in its marketing strategy? a. absolute e. medium b. and belief systems. none c. a. shapes. The Lazy H Dude Ranch is open to people of all sizes. psychographic
. lifestyle d. negligible 19. generation e. behavioral e. A segmentation study of people who would be interested in subscribing to a music and entertainment magazine discovered three distinct groups of potential subscribers: 1) those who wanted reviews of the latest music releases. demographic d. social class e .18. It’s a place people can go to unwind from the stress of daily life. social class c. This magazine discovered its market can be segmented using __________ variables.income 20. education-based b. occupation b. a. strong d. it should use a __________ segmentation strategy. and 3) those who sought to improve their own musicianship.
c. The experiencers segment is primarily motivated by self-expression. a. age-based b. user status c. generation b. Which of the following is an example of a behavioral segmentation variable? a. lifestyle c. benefit e. occupation b. user status d. occasion 23. a.22. social class 26. Over 80. For years Spiral-Cut Hams have been on thousands of Easter dinner tables. loyalty status e.000 new surveys a year are added to the VALS data. Which of the following is an example of a behavioral segmentation variable? a. Which of the following is NOT true of the VALS framework? a. Research by Voicestream Wireless revealed that it serves two different kinds of consumers: chatterboxes who seemed to live on the phone and those that make lots of short calls. Based on this research. e. SpiralCut is working hard to implement other segmentation strategies beyond the limited __________ strategy it used in the past. user rate b. buyer-readiness
. personality d. education level c. d. occupation-based 24. VALS uses date of birth to help determine market segment membership b. usage rate c. it should use a(n) __________ segmentation strategy. 25. SRI identifies eight primary VALS segments in the United States. The Innovators segment has high resources. religion e. family life-cycle d.
Ninety percent of all sales made by GEICO Insurance Company are initiated by the buyer rather than commissioned agents. switcher e. personal characteristics
. demographic variables b. Barton will select either Libby’s or the house brand. operating variables e. splinter loyalist 29. Which of the following is NOT a major business segmentation variable? a. According to Bonoma and Shapiro. operating variables c. a. When dealing with loyalty status. attitude 28. and no other brand. personal characteristics 30. Barton is an example of a __________. buyers can be segmented in a variety of ways. lifestyle e. Before purchasing insurance. geographic (difficult) c. education d. GEICO should develop a strategy around which of the behavioral segmentation strategies? a.d. split loyal c. income c. the most important segmentation variable for business markets is __________. shifting loyal d. a. lifestyle e. family life cycle 27. they felt that GEICO best satisfied their needs. buyer-readiness b. Given this information. When given a choice of canned fruit at the supermarket. demographic b. buyers had typically researched and compared GEICO to other providers. hardcore loyal b. He makes his selection based on which brand first catches his eye. purchasing approaches e. purchasing approaches d. situational factors d.
It is accessible. purchasing attributes d. purchasing attributes d. It is substantial. demographic b. situational factors e.
. situational factors e. A company’s size and physical location are all related to which of the major business market segmentation variables? a. d. personal characteristics 32. Which of the following is NOT necessary to make a market segment useful? a. loyalty c. e. It is measurable. personal characteristics 33. industry e. power structure e. operating variables c. It is satisfied. A company’s power structure and the nature of its existing relationships with suppliers are all related to which of the major business market segmentation variables? a. operating variables c. Which of the following is a situation factor segmentation variable? a. technology d. technology d. demographic b. location b.31. It is actionable. politics 35. Which of the following is a personal characteristic segmentation variable? a. loyalty b. urgency 34. size c. b. c.
The main two things to consider when selecting a target market are: a. if the firm can provide a flexible market offering to fulfill the segment’s needs and if the segment is large enough to be viable
. and accessible c. investigation of the segment showed that this group of individuals could not be reached by any specific media. accessible d. if the segment has potential and if it fits with the company’s objectives and resources b. The last step in segmenting a market is __________. if the segment is easily communicated with and if it is different enough from other segments c. a. actionable. if it is easy to define the needs of the segment and if economies of scale are possible with the segment d. segment “acid test” d. substantial and actionable 37. if the segment is actionable and if the consumers in it are action-oriented e. A marketer wants to market beeping balls to sight-disabled softball players. A sports car manufacturer considered marketing to a market segment made up of individuals separated from their spouses but not yet divorced. and substantial e. immeasurable b. differentiable. segment identification 39. not quantifiable 38. and actionable d. this group was not a(n) _________ market. differentiable. a. However. In effect. marketing mix strategy e. accessible and substantial b. differentiable. differentiable e. accessible. substantial c. concept testing b. measurable. a.36. the survey stage c. This market segment is __________ even if it meets none of the other characteristics needed for a market segment to be useful.
a. product specialization 41. Consumers learn of brands through marketing. full market coverage d. symbol. building and conveying brand history b. Which is NOT true of brands? a. A(n) __________ is a name. Loyalty is easily matched by competitors. or a combination of them. Consumers use savings cues more than brand cues. market specialization e. growing and sustaining brand value 42. c. Which of the following is NOT part of the strategic brand management process? a. logo b. Loyalty provides predictability. Which of the following is NOT a benefit of brand loyalty? a. planning and implementing brand marketing d. trademark d. or design.40. A marketer who selected a __________ segmentation strategy would find this segmentation strategy to possess the greatest amount of risk. c. intended to identify the goods or services of one seller or group of sellers and to differentiate them from those of competitors. 44. d.
. Loyalty allows for company security of demand. copyright e. Good brands reduce consumer risk. e. e. single-segment concentration c. Loyalty can create barriers to entry for other firms. selective specialization b. brand c. d. identifying and establishing brand positioning c. Consumers learn of brands through experiences. measuring and interpreting brand performance e. term. Good brands simplify consumers’ decision making. b. sign. Loyalty can translate into consumer willingness to pay a higher price. b. a. intellectual property 43.
larger margins e. a. inelastic consumer response to the brand d. lower margins e. beliefs. a. brand equity c. images. feelings. Consumer risk reduction c. Branding 46. improved perception of product performance b. experiences. possible licensing opportunities c. higher vulnerability to competitive marketing actions c. Which is NOT a marketing advantage of strong brands? a. and so on that become associated with the brand are known as __________. a. Which is NOT a marketing advantage of strong brands? a. Brand equity b. Customer-based brand equity d. Brand knowledge c. All the thoughts. Brand freedom e. Marketing infusion e.45. greater loyalty d. __________ can be defined as the differential effect that brand knowledge has on customer response to the marketing of that brand. additional brand extension opportunities b. brand loyalty 47. Brand differentials 49. improved perceptions of product performance
. brand knowledge b. __________ is endowing products and services with the power of a brand. Loyalty d. increased marketing communications effectiveness d. Brand power b. less vulnerability to marketing crises 48. brand perceptions e.
to some degree. guarantee d. brand mission c. what they think about the brand b. Consumer knowledge bases d.50. Brand equities c. brand’s equity b. whether they will “grant” or “deny” permission to a particular marketing action or program e. learning test c. implicit warranty e. retention tests 54. a. a. EXCEPT: a. Brand elements b. all of the following. preference tests b. what they feel about the brand d. learning tests c. restoration tests
. association tests d. Brand promises 53. A(n) __________ is the marketer’s vision of what the brand must be and do for consumers. where they believe the brand should go 52. Consumers’ brand knowledge dictates. preference tests b. Which is the name of the research procedure associated with the question “What images come to mind?”? a. a. The name-research procedure associated with the question “How well is the name remembered?” is __________. ___________ are trademarkable devices that serve to identify and differentiate the brand. memory tests e. brand promise (moderate) 51. Intellectual properties e. how they expect the brand to react to competitor brands c.
a. Target marketing b. __________ is about mixing and matching marketing activities to maximize their individual and collective effects. Permission marketing d. __________ is about making sure that the brand and its marketing are as relevant as possible to as many customers as possible. All of the following are criteria for choosing brand elements. How much would you pay? 56. Personalizing marketing e. a. loyalty builder
. or the market that relates to the marketer’s product or service. a. brand brush-up b. Personalizing marketing c. EXCEPT: a. How easily is the name pronounced? c. Integrating marketing d. Integrating marketing e. meaningful d. What question is associated with name-research tests of association? a. Eclectic marketing b. noncontroversial b. A __________ is any information-bearing experience a customer or prospect has with the brand. “Salad tossing” c. the product category. adaptable e. Synergy marketing 59. How well is the name remembered? d. association tests 55. What images come to mind? b. Internal branding 58.d. memorable c. memory tests e. transferable 57. Which names are preferred? e.
motivational training d. Which of the following is NOT one of the ways Jones Soda created a successful “cult” brand? a. made the soda in unusual and bright colors e. like surf shops 64. invited customers to submit photos of unusual product uses c. sold the product through nontraditional outlets. “hook” or “handle” 60. Brand building 63. Informing and inspiring employees about the brand through various activities and processes is called __________. country of origin information
. internal branding b. loyalty inducer d. integration c. Brand image e. externalization d. Brand bonding c. Which is NOT a secondary source of brand knowledge for consumers? a. recruited people on the street and provided samples b. Internal branding b. depersonalization b. all of the above e. indoctrination e. employee coaching c. agreed to large slotting fees to get good shelf placement d. Personalization branding d. Which of the following is a key theme in designing brand-building marketing programs? a. brand contact e. none of the above 62. a.c. initially. a. none of the above 61. __________ occurs when customers experience the company as delivering on its brand promise.
three quarters e. other brands c. there is no numerical average available to answer this question
. A(n) __________ is a consumer-focused exercise that involves a series of procedures to assess the health of the brand. and suggest ways to improve and leverage its equity. portfolio analysis c. all of the above are correct answers 66. With well-known companies. suggest ways to leverage the brand’s equity 68. brand value is typically over __________of the total market capitalization. uncover sources of brand equity d. a. suggest ways to improve the brand’s equity e. one-half d.b. uncover its sources of brand equity. brand inventory d. a. library research 65. assess the health of the brand b. assesses the actual impact of brand knowledge on consumer response to different aspects of the marketing b. is the same as measuring sales outcomes related to marketing communications c. equity examination 67. assesses potential sources of brand equity by identifying and tracking consumer brand knowledge structures e. The indirect approach to measuring brand equity __________. one-tenth b. a. brand audit b. association test e. is preferred by CEOs d. inventory public awareness of brand equity c. one-fourth c. third-party endorsements d. things e. Which of the following is NOT part one of the functions of the brand audit? a.
what needs the brand satisfies d. and c
.69. a. What kinds of advertising would highlight the brand? e. Do certain brand associations need to be strengthened? c. Brand equity is reinforced by marketing actions that consistently convey the meaning of the brand to consumers in terms of all of the following EXCEPT: a. what products the brand represents b. and unique brand associations exist in the consumers’ minds e. all of the above answer the question correctly 73. The United States d. Does the brand lack uniqueness? d. establishing new sources of brand equity c. a “return to its roots” d. relinquishing lost sources of brand equity b. Australia. vigorous preservation of brand “status quo” b. last year’s brand advertising d. only two of the above e. favorable. successful brand positioning c. What brand opportunities exist? 70. In which country do companies NOT list brand equity on their balance sheets? a. there is little reason to deviate from __________. what core benefits the brand supplies c. Unless there is some environmental change. the practices that produce dwindling brand leadership e. Reversing a fading brand’s fortunes may require __________. Are the current sources of brand equity satisfactory? b. how brand fans accept less-than-perfect performances 72. a. The United Kingdom b. b. Hong Kong c. businesses in all these countries list brand equity on their balance sheets 71. which strong. Questions that are answered include all of the following EXCEPT: a. The brand audit can be used to set the strategic direction for the brand. a. e.
Using a parent brand to enter a different product category from that currently served by the parent is a __________. a. deciding the nature of new brand elements c. expand the breadth of brand awareness b. strong corporate image c. improve the uniqueness of brand associations that make up brand image e. applying brand elements to existing products
78.74. Which of the following is NOT on the list of corporate resources that would help a firm weather a brand crisis? a. good lawyers e. strong credibility d. credibility and trustworthiness d. discovering brand elements b. Which of the following is NOT one of the approaches for improving or “refreshing” a brand’s equity? a. deciding the nature of existing brand elements d. improve consumer recognition of the brand 77. in and out c. category extension
. improve consumer recall of the brand d. fast and furious b. swift and sincere 76. high trustworthiness 75. strong brand equity b. applying brand elements to new products e. expand the depth of brand understanding c. brand extension b. What two words best describe how to execute successful brand crisis management? a. Which is NOT part of devising a branding strategy? a. sub-brand c. fess up and settle e.
__________ includes the products or sets of products with which a brand competes and which function as close substitutes. helps guide marketing strategy 82. combining a new brand with an existing brand 81. brand mix d. A good brand positioning helps the firm and consumer by doing all of the following EXCEPT: a. the company’s brand assortment e. parent brand e. Category membership
. helps consumers maximize the benefits of the brand e. brand line c. The definition of a sub-brand is __________. all products sold under a particular brand c. customer-focused value proposition c. branded variant 80. a. A __________ is a cogent (logical or sound) reason why the target market should buy the product. using an established brand to launch a new product b.d. the set of all brand lines that a firm offers to buyers d. An existing brand that “gives birth” to a brand extension is a __________. a. helps clarify the brand’s essence c. market niche service agreement b. Brand choice c. helps consumers understand what the brand will help them achieve d. The evoked set b. a. helps competitors understand where NOT to compete b. marketing campaign e. family brand b. differentiation plan 83. line extension 79. a. parent brand e. price/benefit analysis d.
WOM b. category benefits. category 86. membership. The competition set 84. competitive c. head-to-head b. POPs. announcing category benefits c. POP e. relying on word of mouth among zealous consumers b. membership e. PODs b. comparing to exemplars e. Which of the following is NOT a major way of conveying a brand’s category membership? a. XM Satellite Radio. a. value proposition e. using the brand name of the product to explain the offering’s benefits d. relying on a product descriptor 88. What acronym is associated with the following definition—“attributes or benefits consumers strongly associate with a brand. The inept set e. the brand name. membership. The typical positioning approach is to inform consumers of a brand’s __________ before stating its __________. POD d. POS 85. positioning 87. and believe that they could NOT find to the same extent with a competitor brand”? a. What type of points-of-parity is related to association’s consumer view as necessary to be a legitimate offering within a certain category? a. comparisons to exemplars d.d. positively evaluate. is a perfect example of using which strategy to convey the brand’s category membership?
. WOW c. point-of-difference c. word-of-mouth d. point-of-difference.
__________ refer(s) to the product’s size. the POD must be personally relevant and important to target consumers c. explaining the value proposition 89. defensible. Form b. classy. relying on the product descriptor d. comparing to exemplars c. the POD must be personally relevant and important to target consumers c. defensible. inexpensive. and difficult to attack b. the positioning must be preemptive. sophisticated. target customers must find the POD believable d. the brand must substantiate that it can deliver the desired benefit 90. or physical structure. a. announcing category benefits e. consumers must be given a compelling reason and understandable rationale as to why the brand can deliver the desired benefit 91. the product design and marketing offering must support the desired association e.a. Features c. discount retailer e. Conformance quality e. positive. and difficult to attack b. Performance quality d. low calorie c. shape. high quality d. the positioning must be preemptive. negative 92. which means __________. a. relying on word of mouth among zealous consumers b. which means __________. One criterion for points-of-difference (POD) is the feasibility criterion. target customers must find the POD believable d. a. b. good tasting. the firm must be able to actually create the POD e. One criterion for points-of-difference (POD) is the communicability criterion. Durability
. Which of the following brand position sets would NOT be difficult to pull off in the same campaign? a. tasteful.
Performance quality d. Which of the following is NOT a way of differentiating the product offering? a. Features c. style e. Durability 95. reliability b. __________ is(are) the degree9S0 to which all of the produced units are identical and meet promised specifications.93. Form b. A product’s __________ is a measure of the probability that a product will NOT malfunction or fail within a specified period. Conformance quality e. Form b. Conformance quality e. conformance d. design e. reliability d. quality e. expertise 96. a. Durability 94. style c. repairability b. expertise 97. durability
. a. __________ is(are) the level(s) at which the product’s primary characteristics operate. Which of the following is a way of differentiating services? a. installation c. Performance quality d. Features c. design d. features c. a. form b.
Which of the following is NOT a main service differentiator? a. customer consulting 101. creative responses e. conformance
. When a(n) __________ cannot be differentiated easily. ordering ease c. Design c. ordering ease b. Which of the following is a way of differentiating a marketing offering via personnel? a. product. maintenance and repair d. installation e. idea. Uniqueness e. a. Positioning b. the key to competitive success may lie in adding valued __________ and improving their quality. __________ describes the product’s look and feel to the buyer. value proposition. ordering ease c. A product’s __________ refers to the work done to make a product operational in its planned location. idea. products d. delivery d.98. Distinctiveness d. installation e. a. Style 100. coverage d. creativity b. services c. events e. styling 102. design c. training b. reliability 99. a. service. ethical personnel b.
high fixed costs 105. supplier power e. the segment is growing e. segment rivalry b. supplier power e. Which is NOT one of Porter’s five forces that determine market attractiveness? a. high profits d. Which does NOT add to a segment’s unattractiveness. more firms coming online c. internal resources b. stable returns b. communication d. buyer power d. buyer power d. growing plant capacity c. potential entrants c. more exclusive coverage e. wider coverage b. firms easily dropping out of that business e. chronic overcapacity 106. numerous competitors b. threat of substitutes
. Which of the following is a likely outcome during tough economic time if there are low barriers to entry and high exit barriers? a. potential entrants c. high exit barriers d. according to Porter’s five forces model? a. threat of substitutes 107. performance 104. Which of Porter’s five forces depends heavily on industry entrance and exit barriers? a. Which is NOT a way of differentiating an offering via the channel of distribution? a.103. expertise c.
get the strategic sequence right 112. product represents an insignificant portion of buyers’ costs d. get the strategic sequence right e. publicly versus privately held c.108. Execution principles of Blue Ocean Strategy include: a. Formulation principles of Blue Ocean Strategy include all of the following EXCEPT: a. Which is NOT a reason that buyers’ power might grow or concentrate? a. overcome key organizational hurdles b. build execution strategy 111. when sellers are price sensitive e. degree of globalization 113. Which is NOT a reason that suppliers’ bargaining power might grow? a. focus on the big picture c. reach beyond existing demand d. low switching costs e. look across alternative industries b. when there are few substitutes b. upstream integration possibilities 109. look across strategic groups within industries
. reconstruct market boundaries b. price sensitivity c. when they are well organized 110. cost structure e. Which of the following is NOT a way in which industries are classified? a. reconstruct market boundaries c. reach beyond existing demand e. Which is NOT an example of reconstructing market boundaries? a. when the supplied product is an important input c. undifferentiated product b. when downstream integration possibilities exist d. number of sellers d. degree of product differentiation b.
a. target group c. share of mind b. macro market group d. look across time 114. share of heart d.c. share of category 118. a. “Name the company from which you would prefer to buy (such-and-such) product”? a. Can we attain target cost? d. Which is NOT an example of overcoming key organizational hurdles? a. mass market 117. share of pocketbook
. motivational hurdle d. Is there buyer utility? b. The competitor’s share of the target market is known as __________. look across buyer utility d. Which measure is the percentage of consumers saying a particular brand when asked. target hurdle e. resource hurdle c. share of segment e. What are the adoption challenges? e. political hurdle 115. cognitive hurdle b. look across functional or emotional appeal to buyers e. Which is NOT a question of getting the sequence right? a. strategic group b. micro market group e. share of mind b. Are the alternatives understood? 116. share of market c. Is the price acceptable? c. A group of firms following the same strategy in a given target market is known as a __________.
c. Which of the following represents the idea of share of mind? a. They invest in overcapacity. the percentage that says the brand is the one they think of first c. c. d. the percentage that says the competition’s brand first 120. They try to buy share. They upset the industry’s equilibrium. share of market e. the percentage that says the brand is their preference e. share of wrap-up 119. share of heart d. They take large risks. e.
. b. the percentage that refuses to answer the survey d. They limit themselves to a segment of the industry. Which is a characteristic of a good competitor? a. the percentage of the target market the brand has b.