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IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS
1. Immediately fill in the particulars on this page of the Test Booklet with Blue/Black Ball Point Pen. Use of
Pencil is strictly prohibited.
2. The Answer Sheet is kept inside the Test Booklet. When you are directed to open the Test Booklet, take
out the Answer Sheet and fill in the particulars carefully.
3. The test is of 3 hours duration.
4. The Test Booklet consists of 90 questions. The maximum marks are 360.
5. There are three parts in the question paper A, B, C consisting of Physics, Mathematics, Chemistry having
30 questions in each part of equal weight age. Each question is allotted 4(four) marks for each correct
response.
6. Candidates will be awarded marks as stated above in instruction No. 5 for correct response of each
question ¼ (one fourth) marks will be deducted for indicating incorrect response of each question. No
deduction from the total score will be made if no response is indicated for an item in the answer sheet.
7. There is only one correct response for each question. Filling up more than one response in each question
will be treated as wrong response and marks for wrong response will be deducted accordingly as per
instruction 6 above.
8. Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only for writing particulars/marking responses on Side1 and Side2 of the
Answer Sheet. Use of pencil is strictly prohibited.
9. No candidate is allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, pager, mobile
phone, any electronic device, etc., except the Admit Card inside the examination hall/room.
10. Rough work is to be done on the space provided for this purpose in the Test Booklet only. This space is
given at the bottom of each page and in 3 pages (Pages 21 – 23) at the end of the booklet.
11. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty in the
Room/Hall. However, the candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.
12. The CODE for this Booklet is Q. Make sure that the CODE printed on Side2 of the Answer Sheet is the
same as that on this booklet. In case of discrepancy, the candidate should immediately report the matter to
the Invigilator for replacement of both the Test Booklet and the Answer Sheet.
13. Do not fold or make any stray marks on the Answer Sheet.
AIEEE−2011−2
FIITJEE (Hyderabad Classes) Limited. 5914/B, Saifabad, (Opp. Secretariat) Hyderabad. 500 063. Phone: 04066777000 – 03 Fax: 04066777004
PART A : PHYSICS
1. The transverse displacement ( ) y x,t of a wave on a string is given by ( )
( )
2 2
ax bt 2 ab xt
y x,t e
− + +
= .
This represents a
(1) wave moving in – x direction with speed
b
a
(2) standing wave of frequency b
(3) standing wave of frequency
1
b
(4) wave moving in + x direction with
a
b
2. A screw gauge gives the following reading when used to measure the diameter of a wire.
Main scale reading : 0 mm
Circular scale reading : 52 divisions
Given that 1 mm on main scale corresponds to 100 divisions of the circular scale.
The diameter of wire from the above date is :
(1) 0.052 cm (2) 0.026 cm (3) 0.005 cm (4) 0.52 cm
3. A mass m hangs with the help of a string wrapped around a pulley on a frictionless bearing. The pulley
has mass m and radius R. Assuming pulley to be a perfect uniform circular disc, the acceleration of the
mass m, if the string does not slip on the pulley, is
(1) g (2)
2
g
3
(3)
g
3
(4)
3
g
2
4. Work done in increasing the size of a soap bubble from a radius of 3 cm to 5 cm is nearly (Surface
tension of soap solution = 0.03 Nm
−1
):
(1) 0.2π mJ (2) 2π mJ (3) 0.4 π mJ (4) 4π mJ
5. A thin horizontal circular disc is rotating about a vertical axis passing through its centre. An insect is at
rest at a point near the rim of the disc. The insect now moves along a diameter of the disc to reach its
other end. During the journey of the insect, the angular speed of the disc:
(1) continuously decreases (2) continuously increases
(3) first increases and then decreases (4) remains unchanged
6. Two particles are executing simple harmonic motion of the same amplitude A and frequency ω along the
xaxis. Their mean position is separated by distance ( )
0 0
X X A > . If the maximum separation between
them is ( )
0
X A + , the phase difference between their motion is :
(1)
3
π
(2)
4
π
(3)
6
π
(4)
2
π
7. Two bodies of masses m and 4 m are placed at a distance r. The gravitational potential at a point on the
line joining them where the gravitational field is zero is:
(1)
4Gm
r
− (2)
6Gm
r
− (3)
9Gm
r
− (4) zero
8. Two identical charged spheres suspended from a common point by two massless strings of length l are
initially a distance ( ) d d 1 << apart because of their mutual repulsion. The charge begins to leak from
both the spheres at a constant rate. As a result the charges approach each other with a velocity v. Then
as a function of distance x between them,
(1)
1
v x
−
∝ (2)
1/ 2
v x ∝ (3) v x ∝ (4)
1/ 2
v x
−
∝
AIEEE−2011−3
FIITJEE (Hyderabad Classes) Limited. 5914/B, Saifabad, (Opp. Secretariat) Hyderabad. 500 063. Phone: 04066777000 – 03 Fax: 04066777004
9. A boat is moving due east in a region where the earth’s magnetic field is
5 1 1
5.0 10 NA m
− − −
× due north and
horizontal. The boat carries a vertical aerial 2m long. If the speed of the boat is 1.50 ms
−1
, the
magnitude of the induced emf in the wire of aerial is :
(1) 0.75 mV (2) 0.50 mV (3) 0.15 mV (4) 1 mV
10. An object, moving with a speed of 6.25 m/s, is decelerated at a rate given by :
dv
2.5 v
dt
= −
where v is the instantaneous speed. The time taken by the object, to come to rest, would be :
(1) 2 s (2) 4 s (3) 8 s (4) 1 s
11. A fully charged capacitor C with initial charge q
0
is connected to a coil of self inductance L at t = 0. The
time at which the energy is stored equally between the electric and the magnetic field is :
(1) LC
4
π
(2) 2 LC π (3) LC (4) LC π
12. Let the x – z plane be the boundary between two transparent media. Medium 1 in z ≥ 0 has a refractive
index of 2 and medium 2 with z < 0 has a refractive index of 3 . A ray of light in medium 1 given by
the vector A 6 3 i 8 3 j 10k
→ ∧ ∧ ∧
= + − is incident on the plane of separation. The angle of refraction in
medium 2 is
(1) 45
0
(2) 60
0
(3) 75
0
(4) 30
0
13. A current I flows in an infinitely long wire with cross section in the form of a semicircular ring of radius R.
The magnitude of the magnetic induction along its axis is
(1)
0
2
I
2 R
µ
π
(2)
0
I
2 R
µ
π
(3)
0
2
I
4 R
µ
π
(4)
0
2
I
R
µ
π
14. A thermally insulated vessel contains an ideal gas of molecular mass M and ratio of specific heats γ. It is
moving with speed υ and is suddenly brought to rest. Assuming no heat is lost to the surroundings, its
temperature increases by :
(1)
( )
2
1
M K
2 R
γ −
υ
γ
(2)
2
M
K
2R
γ υ
(3)
( )
2
1
M K
2R
γ −
υ (4)
( )
( )
2
1
M K
2 1 R
γ −
υ
γ +
15. A mass M, attached to a horizontal spring, executes S.H.M. with amplitude A
1
. When the mass M passes
through its mean position then a smaller mass m is placed over it and both of them move together with
amplitude A
2
. The ratio of
1
2
A
A
 

\ .
is :
(1)
M m
M
+
(2)
1/ 2
M
M m
 

+
\ .
(3)
1/ 2
M m
M
+  

\ .
(4)
M
M m +
16. Water is flowing continuously from a tap having an internal diameter
3
8 10 m
−
× . The water velocity as it
leaves the tap is 0.4 ms
−1
. The diameter of the water stream at a distance
1
2 10 m
−
× below the lap is
close to :
(1)
3
7.5 10 m
−
× (2)
3
9.6 10 m
−
× (3)
3
3.6 10 m
−
× (4)
3
5.0 10 m
−
×
AIEEE−2011−4
FIITJEE (Hyderabad Classes) Limited. 5914/B, Saifabad, (Opp. Secretariat) Hyderabad. 500 063. Phone: 04066777000 – 03 Fax: 04066777004
17. This question has Statement – 1 and Statement – 2. Of the four choices given after the statements,
choose the one that best describes the two statements.
Statement1 : Sky wave signals are used for long distance radio communication. These signals are in
general, less stable than ground wave signals.
Statement2 : The state of ionosphere varies from hour to hour, day to day and season to season.
(1) Statement1 is true, Statement2 is true; Statement2 is the correct explanation of Statement1.
(2) Statement1 is true, Statement2 is true; Statement2 is not the correct explanation of Statement1.
(3) Statement1 is false, Statement2 is true.
(4) Statement1 is true, Statement2 is false.
18. Three perfect gases at absolute temperatures T
1
, T
2
and T
3
are mixed. The masses of molecules are m
1
,
m
2
and m
3
and the number of molecules are n
1
, n
2
and n
3
respectively. Assuming no loss of energy, the
final temperature of the mixture is :
(1)
1 1 2 2 3 3
1 2 3
n T n T n T
n n n
+ +
+ +
(2)
2 2
1 1 2 2 3 3
1 1 2 2 3 3
n T n T n T
n T n T n T
+ +
+ +
(3)
2 2 2 2 2 2
1 1 2 2 3 3
1 1 2 2 3 3
n T n T n T
n T n T n T
+ +
+ +
(4)
( )
1 2 3
T T T
3
+ +
19. A pulley of radius 2 m is rotated about its axis by a force
( )
2
F 20t 5t = − Newton (where t is measured in
seconds) applied tangentially. If the moment of inertia of the pulley about its axis of rotation made by the
pulley before its direction of motion if reversed, is :
(1) more than 3 but less than 6 (2) more than 6 but less than 9
(3) more than 9 (4) less than 3
20. A resistor ‘R’ and 2µF capacitor in series is connected through a switch to 200 V direct supply. Across
the capacitor is a neon bulb that lights up at 120 V. Calculate the value of R to make the bulb light up 5 s
after the switch has been closed. ( )
10
log 2.5 0.4 =
(1)
5
1.7 10 × Ω (2)
6
2.7 10 × Ω (3)
7
3.3 10 × Ω (4)
4
1.3 10 × Ω
21. A Carnot engine operating between temperatures T
1
and T
2
has efficiency
1
.
6
When T
2
is lowered by 62
K, its efficiency increases to
1
3
. Then T
1
and T
2
are, respectively :
(1) 372 K and 330 K (2) 330 K and 268 K (3) 310 K and 248 K (4) 372 K and 310 K
22. If a wire is stretched to make it 0.1% longer, its resistance will :
(1) increase by 0.2% (2) decrease by 0.2% (3) decrease by 0.05% (4) increases by 0.05%
23. Direction:
The question has a paragraph followed by two statements, Statement – 1 and statement – 2. Of the
given four alternatives after the statements, choose the one that describes the statements.
A thin air film is formed by putting the convex surface of a plane – convex lens over a plane glass plate.
With monochromatic light, this film gives an interference pattern due to light reflected from the top
(convex) surface and the bottom (glass plate) surface of the film.
Statement1 : When light reflects from the airglass plate interface, the reflected wave suffers a phase
change of π.
Statement2 : The centre of the interference pattern is dark.
(1) Statement1 is true, Statement2 is true; Statement2 is the correct explanation of Statement1.
(2) Statement1 is true, Statement2 is true; Statement2 is not the correct explanation of Statement1.
(3) Statement1 is false, Statement2 is true. (4) Statement1 is true, Statement2 is false.
AIEEE−2011−5
FIITJEE (Hyderabad Classes) Limited. 5914/B, Saifabad, (Opp. Secretariat) Hyderabad. 500 063. Phone: 04066777000 – 03 Fax: 04066777004
24. A car is fitted with a convex sideview mirror of focal length 20cm. A second car 2.8 m behind the first
car is overtaking the first car at relative speed of 15 m/s. The speed of the image of the second car as
seen in the mirror of the first one is :
(1)
1
m/ s
15
(2) 10m/ s (3) 15m/ s (4)
1
m/ s
10
25. Energy required for the electron excitation in Li
++
from the first to the third Bohr orbit is :
(1) 36.3 eV (2) 108.8 eV (3) 122.4 eV (4) 12.1 eV
26. The electrostatic potential inside a charged spherical ball is given by b
2
φ = αρ + where r is the distance
from the centre; a, b are constants. Then the charge density inside ball is
(1)
0
6a r − ε (2)
0
24 a r − π ε (3)
0
6a − ε (4)
0
24 a r − π ε
27. A water fountain on the ground sprinkles water all around it. If the speed of water coming out of the
fountain is v, the total area around the fountain that gets wet is :
(1)
4
2
v
g
π (2)
4
2
v
2 g
π
(3)
2
2
v
g
π (4)
4
v
g
π
28. 100g of water is heated from 30
0
C to 50
0
C. Ignoring the slight expansion of the water, the change in its
internal energy is (specific heat of water is 4148 J/kg/K):
(1) 8.4 kJ (2) 84 kJ (3) 2.1 kJ (4) 4.2 kJ
29. The half life of a radioactive substance is 20 minutes. The approximate time interval ( )
2 1
t t − between
the time t
2
when
2
3
of it has decayed and time t
1
and
1
3
of it had decayed is :
(1) 14 min (2) 20 min (3) 28 min (4) 7 min
30. This question has Statement – 1 and Statement – 2. Of the four choices given after the statements,
choose the one that best describes the two statements.
Statement1 : A metallic surface is irradiated by a monochromatic light of frequency v > v
0
(the threshold
frequency). The maximum kinetic energy and the stopping potential are K
max
and V
0
respectively. If the
frequency incident on the surface doubled, both the K
max
and V
0
are also doubled.
Statement2 : The maximum kinetic energy and the stopping potential of photoelectrons emitted from a
surface are linearly dependent on the frequency of incident light.
(1) Statement1 is true, Statement2 is true; Statement2 is the correct explanation of Statement1.
(2) Statement1 is true, Statement2 is true; Statement2 is not the correct explanation of Statement1.
(3) Statement1 is false, Statement2 is true.
(4) Statement1 is true, Statement2 is false.
AIEEE−2011−6
FIITJEE (Hyderabad Classes) Limited. 5914/B, Saifabad, (Opp. Secretariat) Hyderabad. 500 063. Phone: 04066777000 – 03 Fax: 04066777004
PART B: MATHEMATICS
31. The lines
1
L : y x 0 − = and
2
L : 2x y 0 + = intersect the line
3
L : y 2 0 + = at P and Q respectively. The
bisector of the acute angle between
1
L and
2
L intersect
3
L at R .
Statement – 1 : The ratio PR: RQ equals 2 2 : 5 .
Statement – 2 : In any triangle, bisector of an angle divides the triangle into two similar triangles.
(1) Statement – 1 is true, Statement – 2 is true; Statement – 2 is not a correct explanation for Statement
– 1
(2) Statement – 1 is true, Statement– 2 is false.
(3) Statement – 1 is false, Statement– 2 is true.
(4) Statement – 1 is true, Statement – 2 is true; Statement – 2 is a correct explanation for Statement – 1
32. If
2 4
A sin x cos x = + , then for all real x
(1)
13
A 1
16
≤ ≤ (2) 1 A 2 ≤ ≤ (3)
3 13
A
4 16
≤ ≤ (4)
3
A 1
4
≤ ≤
33. The coefficient of
7
x in the expansion of
( )
6
2 3
1 x x x − − + is
(1) 132 (2) 144 (3)132 (4) 144
34.
( ) { }
x 2
1 cos 2 x 2
lim
x 2 →
 
− −


−

\ .
(1) equals 2 (2) equals 2 − (3) equals
1
2
(4) does not exist
35. Statement – 1 : The number of ways of distributing 10 identical balls in 4 distinct boxes such that no
box is empty is
9
3
C
Statement – 2 : The number of ways of choosing any 3 places from 9 different places is
9
3
C .
(1) Statement – 1 is true, Statement – 2 is true; Statement – 2 is not a correct explanation for Statement
– 1
(2) Statement – 1 is true, Statement– 2 is false.
(3) Statement – 1 is false, Statement– 2 is true.
(4) Statement – 1 is true, Statement – 2 is true; Statement – 2 is a correct explanation for Statement – 1
36.
2
2
d x
dy
equals
(1)
1
3
2
2
d y dy
dx
dx
−
−
 
 
− 


\ .
\ .
(2)
2
2
2
d y dy
dx
dx
−
 
 



\ .
\ .
(3)
3
2
2
d y dy
dx
dx
−
 
 
− 


\ .
\ .
(4)
1
2
2
d y
dx
−
 


\ .
AIEEE−2011−7
FIITJEE (Hyderabad Classes) Limited. 5914/B, Saifabad, (Opp. Secretariat) Hyderabad. 500 063. Phone: 04066777000 – 03 Fax: 04066777004
37. If
dy
y 3 0
dx
= + > and ( ) y 0 2 = , then ( ) y ln2 is equal to
(1) 5 (2) 13 (3) 2 (4) 7
38. Let R be the set of real numbers
Statement – 1 : ( ) { }
A x, y R R: y x is an int eger = ∈ × − is an equivalence relation on R .
Statement – 2 : ( ) { }
B x, y R R: x y for some rational number = ∈ × = α α is an equivalence relation on
R .
(1) Statement – 1 is true, Statement – 2 is true; Statement – 2 is not a correct explanation for Statement
– 1
(2) Statement – 1 is true, Statement– 2 is false.
(3) Statement – 1 is false, Statement– 2 is true.
(4) Statement – 1 is true, Statement – 2 is true; Statement – 2 is a correct explanation for Statement – 1
39. The value of
( )
1
2
0
8log 1 x
dx
1 x
+
+
∫
is
(1) log2
8
π
(2) log2
2
π
(3) log2 (4) log2 π
40. Let , α β be real and z be a complex number. If
2
z z 0 + α + β = has two distinct roots on the line
Rez 1 = , then it is necessary that
(1) ( ) 1, 0 β∈ − (2) 1 β = (3) ( ) 1, β ∈ ∞ (4) ( ) 0, 1 β∈
41. Consider 5 independent Bernoulli’s trials each with probability of success p. If the probability of at least
one failure is greater than or equal to
31
32
, then p lies in the interval
(1)
3 11
,
4 12
 (
(
\ ¸
(2)
1
0,
2
(
(
¸ ¸
(3)
11
, 1
12
 (
(
\ ¸
(4)
1 3
,
2 4
 (
(
\ ¸
42. A man saves Rs. 200 in each of the first three months of his service. In each of the subsequent months
his saving increases by Rs. 40 more than the saving of immediately previous month. His total saving from
the start of service will be Rs. 11040 after
(1) 19 months (2) 20 months (3) 21 months (4) 18 months
43. The domain of the function ( )
1
f x
x x
=
−
is
(1) ( ) 0, ∞ (2) ( ) , 0 −∞ (3) ( ) { } , 0 −∞ ∞ − (4) ( ) , −∞ ∞
44. If the angle between the line
y 1 z 3
x
2
− −
= =
λ
and the plane x 2y 3z 4 + + = is
1
5
cos
14
−
 


\ .
, then λ
equals
(1)
3
2
(2)
2
5
(3)
5
3
(4)
2
3
AIEEE−2011−8
FIITJEE (Hyderabad Classes) Limited. 5914/B, Saifabad, (Opp. Secretariat) Hyderabad. 500 063. Phone: 04066777000 – 03 Fax: 04066777004
45. If
$
( )
1
a 3i k
10
= +
r
$
and
$
( )
1
b 2i 3j 6k
7
= + −
r
$ $
, then the value of
( ) ( ) ( )
2a b . a b a 2b
(
− × × +
¸ ¸
r r r r r r
is
(1) 3 (2) 5 (3) 3 (4) 5
46. Equation of the ellipse whose axes are the axes of coordinates and which passes through the point
( ) 3, 1 − and has eccentricity
2
5
is
(1)
2 2
5x 3y 48 0 + − = (2)
2 2
3x 5y 15 0 + − = (3)
2 2
5x 3y 32 0 + − = (4)
2 2
3x 5y 32 0 + − =
47. Let I be the purchase value of an equipment and ( ) V t be the value after it has been used for t years.
The value ( ) V t depreciates at a rate given by differential equation
( )
( )
dV t
k T t
dt
= − − , where k 0 > is a
constant and T is the total life in years of the equipment. Then the scrap value ( ) V T of the equipment is
(1)
2
kT
I
2
− (2)
( )
2
k T t
I
2
−
− (3)
kT
e
−
(4)
2
I
T
k
−
48. The vector a
r
and b
r
are not perpendicular and c
r
and d
r
are two vectors satisfying: b c b d × = ×
r r r r
and
a.d 0 =
r r
. Then the vector d
r
is equal to
(1)
a.c
c b
a.b
 
+ 

\ .
r r
r r
r r (2)
b.c
b c
a.b
 
+ 

\ .
r r
r r
r r (3)
a.c
c b
a.b
 
− 

\ .
r r
r r
r r (4)
b.c
b c
a.b
 
− 

\ .
r r
r r
r r
49. The two circles
2 2
x y ax + = and ( )
2 2 2
x y c c 0 + = > touch each other if
(1) a c = (2) a 2c = (3) a 2c = (4) 2 a c =
50. If C and D are two events such that C D ⊂ and ( ) P D 0 ≠ , then the correct statement among the
following is
(1) ( ) ( ) P C D P C ≥ (2) ( ) ( ) P C D P C < (3) ( )
( )
( )
P D
P C D
P C
= (4) ( ) ( ) P C D P C =
51. The number of values of k for which the linear equations
4x ky 2z 0 + + = ; kx 4y z 0 + + = ; 2x 2y z 0 + + = possess a nonzero solution is
(1) 2 (2) 1 (3) zero (4) 3
52. Consider the following statements
P : Suman is brilliant
Q : Suman is rich
R : Suman is honest
The negation of the statement “Suman is brilliant and dishonest if and only if Suman is rich” can be
expressed as
(1) ( ) ( )
~ Q P ~ R ↔ ∧ (2) ~ Q ~ P R ↔ ∧ (3) ( ) ~ P ~ R Q ∧ ↔ (4) ( ) ~ P Q ~ R ∧ ↔
53. The shortest distance between line y x 1 − = and curve
2
x y = is
(1)
3 2
8
(2)
8
3 2
(3)
4
3
(4)
3
4
AIEEE−2011−9
FIITJEE (Hyderabad Classes) Limited. 5914/B, Saifabad, (Opp. Secretariat) Hyderabad. 500 063. Phone: 04066777000 – 03 Fax: 04066777004
54. If the mean deviation about the median of the numbers a, 2a, …, 50a is 50, then a equals
(1) 3 (2) 4 (3) 5 (4) 2
55. Statement – 1 : The point ( ) A 1, 0, 7 is the mirror image of the point ( ) B 1, 6, 3 in the line
x y 1 z 2
1 2 3
− −
= = .
Statement – 2 : The line:
x y 1 z 2
1 2 3
− −
= = bisects the line segment joining ( ) A 1, 0, 7 and ( ) B 1, 6, 3 .
(1) Statement – 1 is true, Statement–2 is true; Statement–2 is not a correct explanation for Statement – 1
(2) Statement – 1 is true, Statement– 2 is false.
(3) Statement – 1 is false, Statement– 2 is true.
(4) Statement – 1 is true, Statement – 2 is true; Statement – 2 is a correct explanation for Statement – 1
56. Let A and B be two symmetric matrices of order 3.
Statement – 1 : ( ) A BA and ( ) AB A are symmetric matrices.
Statement – 2 : AB is symmetric matrix if matrix multiplication of A and B is commutative.
(1) Statement – 1 is true, Statement – 2 is true; Statement – 2 is not a correct explanation for Statement
– 1
(2) Statement – 1 is true, Statement– 2 is false.
(3) Statement – 1 is false, Statement– 2 is true.
(4) Statement – 1 is true, Statement – 2 is true; Statement – 2 is a correct explanation for Statement – 1
57. If ( ) 1 ω ≠ is a cube root of unity, and ( )
7
1 A B + ω = + ω. Then ( ) A, B equals
(1) (1, 1) (2) (1, 0) (3) (1, 1) (4) (0, 1)
58. The value of p and q for which the function ( )
( )
2
3 / 2
sin p 1 x sinx
, x 0
x
f x q , x 0
x x x
, x 0
x
¦
+ +
¦
<
¦
¦
= =
´
¦
+ −
¦
>
¦
¹
is continuous for all x in R, is
(1)
5 1
p , q
2 2
= = (2)
3 1
p , q
2 2
= − = (3)
1 3
p , q
2 2
= = (4)
1 3
p , q
2 2
= = −
59. The area of the region enclosed by the curves
1
y x, x e, y
x
= = = and the positive xaxis is
(1) 1 square units (2)
3
2
square units (3)
5
2
square units (4)
1
2
square units
60. For
5
x 0,
2
π  
∈

\ .
, define ( )
x
0
f x t sint dt =
∫
. Then f has
(1) local minimum at π and 2π
(2) local minimum at π and local maximum at 2π
(3) local maximum at π and local minimum at 2π
(4) local maximum at π and 2π
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PART C: CHEMISTRY
61. Among the following the maximum covalent character is shown by the compound :
(1)
2
SnCl (2)
3
AlCl (3)
2
MgCl (4)
2
FeCl
62. The presence or absence of hydroxyl group on which carbon atom of sugar differentiates RNA and DNA
?
(1) 2
nd
(2) 3
rd
(3) 4
th
(4) 1
st
63. Trichloroacetaldehyde was subjected to Cannizzaro’s reaction by using NaOH. The mixture of the
products contains sodium trichloroacetate and another compound. The other compound is :
(1) Trichloromethanol (2) 2, 2, 2Trichloropropanol
(3) Chloroform (4) 2, 2, 2Trichloroethanol
64. Sodium ethoxide has reacted with ethanoyl chloride. The compound that is produced in the above
reaction is :
(1) 2Butanone (2) Ethyl chloride (3) Ethyl ethanoate (4) Diethyl ether
65. The reduction potential of hydrogen half cell will be negative if :
(1) ( )
2
p H = 1 atm and H
+
(
¸ ¸
=1.0 M (2) p( )
2
H =2 atm and H
+
(
¸ ¸
=1.0 M
(3) ( )
2
p H = 2 atm and H
+
(
¸ ¸
= 2.0 M (4) ( )
2
p H =1 atm and H
+
(
¸ ¸
= 2.0 M
66. The strongest acid amongst the following compounds is :
(1) HCOOH (2) ( )
3 2 2
CH CH CH Cl CO H
(3)
2 2 2
ClCH CH CH COOH (4)
3
CH COOH
67. The degree of dissociation ( ) α of a weak electrolyte,
x y
A B is related to van’t Hoff factor (i) by the
expression :
(1)
i 1
x y 1
−
α =
+ +
(2)
x y 1
i 1
+ −
α =
−
(3)
x y 1
i 1
+ +
α =
−
(4)
( )
i 1
x y 1
−
α =
+ −
68. `a’ and `b’ are van der Waals’ constants for gases. Chlorine is more easily liquefied than ethane because
(1) a and b for
2
Cl a < and b for
2 6
C H
(2) a for
2
Cl a < for
2 6
C H but b for
2
Cl b > for
2 6
C H
(3) a for
2
Cl a > for
2 6
C H but b for
2
Cl < b for
2 6
C H
(4) a and b for
2
Cl > a and b for
2 6
C H
69. A vessel at 1000 K contains
2
CO with a pressure of 0.5 atm. Some of the
2
CO is converted into CO on
the addition of graphite. If the total pressure at equilibrium is 0.8 atm, the value of K is
(1) 3 atm (2) 0.3 atm (3) 0.18 atm (4) 1.8 atm
70. Boron cannot form which one of the following anions ?
(1)
4
BH
−
(2) ( )
4
B OH
−
(3)
2
BO
−
(4)
3
6
BF
−
71. Which of the following facts about the complex ( )
3 3
6
Cr NH Cl (
¸ ¸
s wrong ?
(1) The complex is paramagnetic (2) The complex is an outer orbital complex
(3) The complex gives white precipitate with silver nitrate solution
(4) The complex involves
2 3
d sp hybridization and is octahedral in shape.
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72. Ethylene glycol is used as an antifreeze in a cold climate. Mass of ethylene glycol which should be
added to 4 kg of water to prevent it from freezing at
o
6 C − will be :
[
f
K for water = 1.86 K kg mol
1 −
, and molar mass of ethylene glycol = 62g mol
1 −
)
(1) 204.30g (2) 400.00 g (3) 304.60 g (4) 804.32g
73. Which one of the following order represents the correct sequence of the increasing basic nature of the
given oxides ?
(1)
2 2 3 2
MgO K O Al O Na O < < < (2)
2 2 2 3
Na O K O MgO Al O < < <
(3)
2 2 2 3
K O Na O Al O MgO < < < (4)
2 3 2 2
Al O MgO Na O K O < < <
74. The rate of a chemical reaction doubles for every
o
10 C rise of temperature. If the temperature is raised
by
o
50 C, the rate of the reaction increases by about :
(1) 24 times (2) 32 times (3) 64 times (4) 10 times
75. The magnetic moment (spin only) of  
2
4
NiCl
−
is
(1) 5.46 BM (2) 2.83 BM (3) 1.41 BM (4) 1.82 BM
76. The hybridization of orbitals of N atom in
3 2
NO ,NO
− +
and
4
NH
+
are respectively :
(1)
2 3
sp , sp, sp (2)
3 2
sp, sp , sp (3)
2 3
sp , sp , sp (4)
2 3
sp, sp , sp
77. In context of the lanthanoids, which of the following statements is not correct ?
(1) All the members exhibit +3 oxidation state
(2) Because of similar properties the separation of lanthanoids is not easy.
(3) Availability of 4f electrons results in the formation of compounds in +4 state for all the members
of the series.
(4) There is a gradual decrease in the radii of the members with increasing atomic number in the
series.
78. A 5.2 molal aqueous solution of methyl alcohol,
3
CH OH, is supplied. What is the mole fraction of methyl
alcohol in the solution ?
(1) 0.190 (2) 0.086 (3) 0.050 (4) 0.100
79. Which of the following statement is wrong ?
(1) Nitrogen cannot form dπ  pπ bond.
(2) Single N N bond is weaker than the single P – P bond,
(3)
2 4
N O has two resonance structures
(4) The stability of hydrides increases from
3
NH to
3
BiH in group 15 of the periodic table
80. The outer electron configuration of Gd (Atomic No : 64 is :
(1)
8 0 2
4f 5d 6s (2)
4 4 2
4f 5d 6s (3)
7 1 2
4f 5d 6s (4)
3 5 2
4f 4d 6s
81. Which of the following statements regarding sulphur is incorrect ?
(1) The vapour at
o
200 C consists mostly of
8
S rings
(2) At
o
600 C the gas mainly consists of
2
S molecules
(3) The oxidation state of sulphur is never less than +4 in its compounds
(4)
2
S molecule is paramagnetic.
82. The structure of
7
IF is :
(1) trigonal bipyramid (2) octahedral (3) pentagonal bipyramid (4) square pyramid
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83. Ozonolysis of an organic compound gives formaldehyde as one of the products. This confirms the
presence of :
(1) a vinyl group (2) an isopropyl group
(3) an acetylenic triple bond (4) two ethylenic double bonds
84. A gas absorbs a photon of 355 nm and emits at two wavelengths. If one of the emissions is at
680 nm, the other is at :
(1) 325 nm (2) 743 nm (3) 518 nm (4) 1035 nm
85. Silver Mirror test is given by which one of the following compounds ?
(1) Acetone (2) Formaldehyde (3) Benzophenone (4) Acetaldehyde
86. Which of the following reagents may be used to distinguish between phenol and benzoic acid ?
(1) Tollen’s reagent (2) Molisch reagent (3) Neutral Fe
3
Cl (4) Aqueous NaOH
87. Phenol is heated with a solution of mixture of KBr and KBrO
3
. The major product obtained in the above
reaction is
(1) 3Bromophenol (2) 4Bromophenol (3) 2, 4, 6 Tribromophenol (4) 2Bromophenol
88. In a face centred cubic lattice, atom A occupies the corner positions and atom B occupies the face centre
positions. If one atom of B is missing from one of the face centred points, the formula of the compound is
:
(1)
2
AB (2)
2 3
A B (3)
2 5
A B (4)
2
A B
89. The entropy change involved in the isothermal reversible expansion of 2 moles of an ideal gas from a
volume of 10
3
dm to a volume of 100
3
dm at
o
27 C is :
(1) 35.8J mol
1 1
K
− −
(2) 32.3J
1 1
mol K
− −
(3) 42.3J
1 1
mol K
− −
(4) 38.3J
1 1
mol K
− −
90. Identify the compound that exhibits tautomerism.
(1) Lactic acid (2) 2Pentanone (3) Phenol (4) 2 Butene
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READ THE FOLLOWING INSTRUCTIONS CAREFULLY
1. The candidates should fill in the required particulars on the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet (Side–1) with
Blue/Black Ball Point Pen.
2. For writing/marking particulars on Side2 of the Answer Sheet, use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only.
3. The candidates should not write their Roll Numbers anywhere else (except in the specified space) on the
Test Booklet/Answer Sheet.
4. Out of the four options given for each question, only one option is the correct answer.
5. For each incorrect response, onefourth (1/4) of the total marks allotted to the question would be deducted
from the total score. No deduction from the total score, however, will be made if no response is indicated
for an item in the Answer Sheet.
6. Handle the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet with care, as under no circumstances (except for discrepancy in
Test Booklet Code and Answer Sheet Code), will another set be provided.
7. The candidates are not allowed to do any rough work or writing work on the Answer Sheet. All
calculations/writing work are to be done in the space provided for this purpose in the Test Booklet itself,
marked ‘Space for Rough Work’. This space is given at the bottom of each page and in 4 pages (Pages 20 –
23) at the end of the booklet.
8. On completion of the test, the candidates must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty in the
Room/Hall. However, the candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.
9. Each candidate must show on demand his/her Admit Card to the Invigilator.
10. No candidate, without special permission of the Superintendent or Invigilator, should leave his/her seat.
11. The candidates should not leave the Examination Hall without handing over their Answer Sheet to the
Invigilator on duty and sign the Attendance Sheet again. Cases where a candidate has not signed the
Attendance Sheet a second time will be deemed not to have handed over the Answer Sheet and dealt with
as an unfair means case. The candidates are also required to put their left hand THUMB impression in the
space provided in the Attendance Sheet.
12. Use of Electronic/Manual Calculator and any Electronic Item like mobile phone, pager etc. is prohibited.
13. The candidates are governed by all Rules and Regulations of the Board with regard to their conduct in the
Examination Hall. All cases of unfair means will be dealt with as per Rules and Regulations of the Board.
14. No part of the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet shall be detached under any circumstances.
15. Candidates are not allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, pager, mobile
phone, electronic device or any other material except the Admit Card inside the examination hall/room.
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SOLUTIONS
PART A
PHYSICS
1. 1
Sol.
( )
( )
2
x,t
y e a x b t
−
= +
b
V
a
=
Wave moving in − ve x –direction.
2. 1
Sol. Diameter of wire
1
52 0.52mm 0.052cm
100
= × = =
3. 2
Sol. Mg –T = Ma ….. (1)
2
1
T R I MR
2
× = α = α
1
T Ma
2
= ( ) a R = α ….. (2)
From (1) and (2)
2g
a
3
=
α
T
a
Mg
R
4. 3
Sol.
( )
2 2
2 1
W T A T 8 r r 0.4 mJ = × ∆ = × π − = π
5. 3
Sol. 0 τ =
Angular momentum is conserve
1 1
1 1 2 2 2
2
I
I I
I
ω
ω = ω ⇒ ω =
I
2
first decreases and then increases
∴ω first increases and then decreases.
6. 4
Sol.
1
0 φ =
2
2
π
φ =
X
0
X
0
+A
A
7. 3
Sol. Position of the null point from mass m,
r r
x
3
4m
1
m
= =
+
3 12 Gm
V Gm 9
r 2r r
 
= − + = −

\ .
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8. 4
Sol. At any instant of separation between charges is x.
equilibrium condition =
2
2
Q x
K
2 x
= ω
l
2 3
Q Cx ⇒ =
2
dQ dx
2Q C3x
dt dt
⇒ =
3/ 2
1/ 2
2
dx x
x
dt x
−
⇒ ∝ ∝
9. 3
Sol.
H
E B V 0.15mV = = l
10. 1
Sol.
dv
2.5 v
dt
= −
Integrating the above equation.
2 v 2.5t C ⇒ = − +
at t 0,v 6.25 C 5 = = ⇒ =
at
5
v 0 t 2s
2.5
= ⇒ = =
11. 1
Sol. Charge oscillates simple harmonic motion q = q
0
sin ωt,
2
1 q
U
2 C
=
0
q
q t
4
2
π
= ⇒ ω =
T 2
t LC LC
8 8 4
π π
⇒ = = =
12.
Sol. Normal to the plane is z –axis
z
1 1
A 10 1
cos , 60
A 20 2
θ = = = θ =
0
1 1 2 2 2 2
3
sin sin 2 3 sin 45
2
µ θ = µ θ ⇒ × = θ ⇒ θ =
13. 4
Sol.
0
di
dB cos i sin j
2 R
→ ∧ ∧
µ
(
= − θ − θ
(
π ¸ ¸
T
di Rd
R
= θ
π
I
d = θ
π
y
θ
x
θ
dθ
0
2
I
dB cos i sin j
2 R
→ ∧ ∧
µ
 
= − θ − θ

π \ .
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0
2
I
B j
R
→ ∧
µ
= −
π
14. 3
Sol. W U = ∆
2
v
1
mv nC dT
2
=
m R
dT
M 1
=
γ −
( )
2
M 1 v
dT K
2R
γ −
=
15. 3
Sol. Energy of simple harmonic oscillator is constant.
( )
2 2 2 2
1 2
1 1
M A m M A
2 2
⇒ ω = + ω
2
1
2
2
A M m
M A
+
=
1
2
A M m
A M
+
∴ =
16. 3
Sol. Equation of continuity
( ) ( ) a v top a v bottom ⇒ × = ×
( )
2
2 2 2
b
v 0.4 2 9.8 0.2 v u 2gh is used ( − = × × − =
¸ ¸
v
b
= 2m/s (nearly)
3 2
8 10 0.4 d 4
−
( π × × = π ×
¸ ¸
3
d 3.6 10 m
−
≈ ×
17. 1
Sol. Since ionospheric properties change with time, these signals are in general less stable than ground wave
signals.
18. 1
Sol. Data ( )
1 2 2 3 3 1 2 3
n,k,t n kT n kT n n n kT ⇒ + + = + +
1 1 2 2 3 3
1 2 3
n T n T n T
T
n n n
+ +
∴ =
+ +
19. 1
Sol. r × F = I × α
( )
2 2
2 20t 5t 10 4t t − = α ⇒ α = −
2
d
4t t
dt
ω
= −
( )
2 2
d 4t t dt ω = −
3
2
t
2t
3
ω = − (on integration)
0 t 6s ω = ⇒ =
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3
2
d t
2t
dt 3
θ
ω = = −
3
2
t
d 2t dt
3
 
θ = −

\ .
3 4
2t t
3 12
⇒ θ = − (on integration)
( ) in 6s 36rad θ =
2 n 36 ⇒ π =
36
n 6
2
= =<
π
20. 2
Sol.
( )
t / Rc
c
V E 1 e
−
= −
t / Rc
120 3
1 e
200 5
−
− = =
6
6
5
R 2.7 10
1.84 10
−
⇒ = = × Ω
×
21. 4
Sol.
1 2
1
1
T T 1
T 6
−
η = =
( )
1 2
2
1
T T 62
1
T 3
− −
η = =
1 2
1 1
T T 62 1
T T 3
−
⇒ + =
1
1 62 1
6 T 3
+ =
1
62 1
T 6
=
1
T 62 6 372K ∴ = × =
1 2
1
T T 1
T 6
−
=
2
1
T 1
1
T 6
− =
2
T 5
372 6
=
2
T 310K ⇒ =
22. 1
Sol.
2
R ∝ l (for a given volume)
R 2
% %
R
∆ ∆
⇒ =
l
l
Thus when wire is stretched by 0.1% resistance increases by 0.2%
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23. 1
Sol. As light enters from air to glass it suffers a phase change on π and therefore at centre there will be
destructive interference.
24. 1
Sol.
1 1 1
v u f
+ =
2 2
1 dv 1 du
0
dt dt v u
− − =
2
2
dv v du
dt dt u
 
= −

\ .
f = 20 cm
1 1 1
u 280 20
+ =
−
280
v cm
15
⇒ =
2
I
280
v 15
15 280
 
= − ×

×
\ .
1
m/ s
15
=
25. 2
Sol.
2
n 2
Z
E 13.6
n
= −
Li
9
E 13.6 122.4eV
1
++
= − × = −
Li
9
E 13.6 13.6eV
9
+++
= − × = −
( ) E 13.6 122.4 ∆ = − − −
= 108.8 eV
26. 3
Sol. Potential inside (φ) = ar
2
+ b
r
v
E 2ar
r
δ
∴ = − = −
δ
Electric field inside uniformly charged solid volume varies with ‘r’. So charge density is constant
( )
2 3
net
2ar 4 r 8 ar φ = − π = − π
3
3
0
4
r
3
8 ar
σ× π
− π =
ε
0
6a ∴σ = − ε
27. 1
Sol. Max. range
2 2
u v
i.e.,
g g
= (radius of circle)
Area occupied
2
2 4
2
v v
g g
  π
= π =

\ .
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28. 1
Sol. Q U W ∆ = ∆ + ∆ (ignoring expansion)
U ms T 0.1 4.184 20 8.368kJ ∆ = ∆ = × × =
29. 2
Sol.
1
2
t 20 = minutes
2
t
0
N N e
λ −
=
1
t ln3 λ =
2
t
0 0 1
2 1
N N e t ln3
3
λ −
= =
λ
2
t
0 0
2
N N e
3
λ −
=
2
1 3
t ln
2
=
λ
2 1
1 3
t t ln ln3
2
(
− = −
(
λ
¸ ¸
1 1 0.693
ln
2
(
= =
(
λ λ
¸ ¸
= 20 min
30. 3
Sol.
max 0
KE h h = υ − υ
0
h h e v υ − υ = × ∆
0
0
h h
V
e e
υ υ
= −
‘υ’ is doubled
KE
max
= 2hυ − hυ
0
( )
0
0
h 2h
V V
e e
υ υ
′
′
= ∆ = −
max
max
KE
KE
may not be equal to 2
0
0
V
V
′
⇒ may not equal to 2
KE max = hυ  hυ
0
0
h h
V
e e
υ υ
= −
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PART B: MATHEMATICS
31. 2
Sol:
1
L 0 =
O
P
3
L 0 =
Q
2
L 0 =
R
y+2=0 •
( ) ( ) P 2, 2 ; Q 1, 2 − − = −
Equation of angular bisector OR is
( ) ( )
5 2 2 x 5 2 y + = −
PR: RQ 2 2 : 5 ∴ =
32. 4
Sol:
2 4
7 cos4x 3
A sin x cos x A 1
8 4
+
= + = ⇒ ≤ ≤
33. 2
Sol: ( ) ( )
( )
6 6
6
2 2
1 x x 1 x 1 x 1 x
(
− − − = − −
¸ ¸
6 6 6 2 6 3 6 4 6 5 6 6 6 6 2 6 4 6 6
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 0 1 2 3
C C x C x C x C x C x C x C C x C x C x ....
( (
= − + − + − + × − + − +
¸ ¸ ¸ ¸
Coefficient of
7 6 6 6 6 6 6
1 3 3 2 5 1
x C C C C C C 120 300 36 144 = − + = − + = −
34. 4
Sol:
( )
2
x 2
2sin x 2
lim
x 2 →
−
−
( )
x 2
2 sin x 2
lim
x 2 →
−
−
R.H.L. 2 = , L.H.L. 2 = −
Limit does not exist.
35. 4
Sol:
(n 1) (10 1) 9
(r 1) (4 1) 3
C C C
− −
− −
= =
Statement 1 is correct
Statement 2 is also correct
From 9 we can select 3 in
9
3
C ways. It is correct explanation.
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36. 3
Sol:
2
d dx d 1 1 d dy
dy dy dy dy dy dx
dy
dx
dx
 

   

= = −
 

 
\ . \ .  
 

\ . \ .
\ .
2 3
2
2
dy 1 d dy d y dy
dy dx dx dx dx
dx
dx
− −
 
     
= − = − 
  

 
\ . \ . \ .
\ .

\ .
37. 4
Sol:
dy dy
y 3 dx
dx y 3
= + ⇒ =
+
( ) ln y 3 x c + = +
x 0 y 2 = ⇒ =
ln5 0 c ⇒ = +
c ln5 =
( ) ln y 3 x ln5 + = +
x ln5
y 3 e
+
+ =
ln2 ln5
y 3 e
+
⇒ + =
y 3 10 y 7 + = ⇒ =
38. 2
Sol: x y − is an integer
x x 0 − = is an integer A ⇒ is Reflexive
x y − is an integer y x ⇒ − is an integer A ⇒ is symmetric
x y, y z − − are integers
As sum of two integers is an integer.
( ) ( ) x y y z x z ⇒ − + − = − is an integer
A ⇒ is transitive. Hence statement – 1 is true.
Also
x
1
x
= is a rational number B ⇒ is reflexive
x
y
= α is rational
y
x
⇒ need not be rational
i.e.,
0
1
is rational
1
0
⇒ is not rational
Hence B is not symmetric
⇒ B is not an equivalence relation.
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39. 4
Sol:
( )
1
2
0
log 1 x
I 8 dx
1 x
+
=
+
∫
( )
( )
4
2
2
0
log 1 tan
8 sec d let x tan
1 tan
π
+ θ
= θ θ = θ
+ θ
∫
4
0
8 log 1 tan d
4
π
  π  
= + − θ θ


\ .
\ .
∫
4
0
1 tan
8 log 1 d
1 tan
π
− θ  
= + θ

+ θ
\ .
∫
( )
4 4
0 0
8 log2 d 8 log 1 tan d
π π
= θ− + θ θ
∫ ∫
8log2 I
4
π
= −
2I 2 log2 = π
I log2 = π
40. 3
Sol: Suppose roots are 1 pi, 1 qi + +
Sum of roots 1 pi 1 qi + + + = −α which is real
⇒ roots of 1 pi, 1 pi + −
Product of roots ( )
2
1 p 1, = β = + ∈ ∞
p 0 ≠ since roots are distinct.
41. 2
Sol: n 5 =
Success = p
Failure = q
P (at least one failure)
31
32
≥
1 – P (no failure)
31
32
≥
( )
31
1 P x 5
32
− = ≥
5 5
5
31
1 C p
32
− ≥
5
1
p
32
− ≥ −
5
1
p
32
≤
1
p
2
≤
1
p 0,
2
(
∈
(
¸ ¸
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42. 3
Sol:
1 2 3 4 5 6 ……
200 200 200 240 280 ……. ……..
Sum = 11040
120 + 80 + 160 + 40 + 200 + 240 + … = 11040
( )
n
2a n 1 d 80 40 11040
2
( + − + + =
¸ ¸
( )
n
240 n 1 40 10920
2
( + − =
¸ ¸
n 6 n 1 546 + − = (
¸ ¸
( ) n n 5 546 + =
n 21 =
43. 2
Sol:
1
x x 0 x x x
x x
⇒ − > ⇒ > ⇒
−
is negative
( ) x , 0 ∈ −∞
44. 4
Sol:
5
cos
14
θ =
3
sin
14
θ =
2
1 4 3
sin
1 4 1 4 9
+ + λ
θ =
+ + λ + +
2
3 5 3 2
3
14
5 14
+ λ
= ⇒ λ =
+ λ
45. 4
Sol:
( ) ( ) ( ) { } ( ) ( ) ( )
{ }
2a b . a b a 2b 2a b . a. a 2b b b. a 2b a
( (
− × × + = − + − +
( (
¸ ¸ ¸ ¸
( ) ( ) ( )
2 2 2
5 a b 5 a.b 5 = − + = −
46. 4
Sol:
( )
2
2 2 2 2 2
2 3 3a
b a 1 e a 1 a
5 5 5
 
= − = − = =

\ .
2 2
2 2
x y
1
a b
+ =
2 2
9 5
1
a 3a
⇒ + =
2
32
a
3
=
2
32
b
5
=
∴ Required equation of ellipse
2 2
3x 5y 32 0 + − =
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47. 1
Sol: ( ) ( )
dV
k T t dV k T t dt
dt
= − − ⇒ = − −
Integrate
( )
( )
( )
2 2
k T t k T t
V c V c
2 2
− − −
= + ⇒ = +
−
at t 0 V I = ⇒ =
( )
2 2 2
kT kT kT
I c c I c V T I
2 2 2
= + ⇒ = − ⇒ = = −
48. 3
Sol: b c b d × = ×
( ) ( )
a b c a b d ⇒ × × = × ×
( ) ( ) ( ) ( )
a.c b a.b c a.d b a.b d ⇒ − = −
( ) ( ) ( )
a.c b a.b c a.b d ⇒ − = −
a.c
d c b
a.b
 
∴ = − 

\ .
49. 1
Sol: ( )
1 2
a
c , 0 ; c 0, 0
2
 
= =

\ .
1 2
a
r ; r c
2
= =
1 2 1 2
a a
c c r r c c a
2 2
= − ⇒ = − ⇒ =
50. 1
Sol: ( ) ( )
( )
( )
( )
P C D
C
C D C P C D P C P P C
D P D
∩
 
∩ = ⇒ ∩ = ⇒ = ≥

\ .
51. 1
Sol:
2
4 k 2
k 4 1 0 k 6k 8 0 k 4, 2
2 2 1
= ⇒ − + = ⇒ =
52. 1
Sol: ( ) { } ( ) { }
~ P ~ R Q ~ Q P ~ R ∧ ↔ = ↔ ∧
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53. 1
Sol:
( )
2
P y , y =
Perpendicular distance from P to x y 1 0 − + = is
2
y y 1
2
− +
2
y y 1 0 y R − + > ∀ ∈
∴ Coefficient
2
y 0 >
∴ Min value
2
1 4ac b 3
4a
2 4 2
 
−
= = 

\ .
54. 2
Sol:
i
1
x A
n
−
∑
A = Median =
25a 26a
25.5a
2
+
=
Mean deviation
{ } ( ) ( ) { }
1 2
a 25.5a 2a 25.5a 24.5a 23.5a ... 0.5a
50 50
= − + − = + +
{ }
2
312.5a 50
50
= = (Given)
625a 2500 a 4 ⇒ = ⇒ =
55. 1
Sol:
B (1,6,3)
1, 2, 3
A (1,0,7)
•
Statement – 1 : AB is perpendicular to given line and mid point of AB lies on line
Statement – 2 is true but it is not correct explanation as it is bisector only.
If it is perpendicular bisector then only statement – 2 is correct explanation.
56. 1
Sol:
T T
A A, B B = =
( ) ( ) ( )
( )
( ) ( )
T
T
T T T
A BA BA A A B A AB A A BA = = = =
( ) ( ) ( )
( )
( ) ( )
T
T
T T T
AB A A AB A B A A BA AB A = = = =
∴ Statement – 1 is correct
Statement – 2
( )
T
T T
AB B A BA AB = = = (Q AB is commutative)
Statement – 2 is also correct but it is not correct explanation of Statement – 1
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57. 1
Sol:
2
1+ ω = −ω
( )
( )
( ) ( )
7
7
2 14 2
1 1 A B A, B 1, 1 + ω = −ω = −ω = −ω = + ω = + ω ⇒ =
58. 2
( )
2
3 / 2
x 0 x 0
sin p 1 sinx
x x x
lim q lim
x
x
→ →
+ +
+ −
= =
( ) ( )
x 0
1
lim p 1 cos p 1 x cosx q
2 →
+ + + = =
1 3 1
p 1 1 p ; q
2 2 2
⇒ + + = ⇒ = − =
59. 2
Sol:
O 1
e
1 e
0 1
1 1 3
Area xdx dx 1
x 2 2
= + = + =
∫ ∫
60. 3
Sol: ( ) f ' x x sinx =
Given
5
x 0,
2
π  
∈

\ .
( ) f ' x changes sign from +ve to –ve at π
( ) f ' x changes sign from ve to +ve at 2π
f has local max at π, local min at 2π
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PART C: CHEMISTRY
61. (2)
Sol : Greater charge and small size of cation cause more polarization and more covalent is that compound
62. (1)
Sol : In RNA, the sugar is D β − − Ribose, where as in DNA the Sugar is β D2deoxy Ribose
63. (4)
Sol :
( )
3 3 3 2
OH
2CCl CHO CCl COONa CCl CH OH
−
÷÷÷÷→ +
Cannizaro reaction is a disproportionation reaction
One aldehyde molecule is oxidized to salt of the carboxylic Acid, other one is reduced to
Alcohol. So the compound is
3 2
CCl CH OH
IUPAC Name is 2, 2, 2,  Trichloro ethanol
64. (3)
Sol :
2 5 3 3 2 5
( )
C H O Na CH C Cl CH C O C H
 
O O
− ⊕
+ − − → − − − Ethyl ethanoate
65. (2)
Sol :
2
2H 2e H (g)
+ −
+ →
o
E E 0.059 = − log
2
H
2
P
H
+
 


 (
¸ ¸ \ .
(here E is –ve when
2
2
H
P H
+
( >
¸ ¸
)
=
10
0.0591 2
log
2 1
−  

\ .
=
.0591
.3010
2
−
× = negative value
66. (2)
Sol : Electron releasing groups (Alkyl groups) de stabilizes conjugate base.
The +I effect of
3 7
C H is less than  I effect of Cl
K
a
of HCOOH is
5
17.9 10
−
×
a
K of
3 2
CH CH CH COOH

Cl
− is
5
139 10
−
×
67. (4)
Sol : i = 1 ( ) n 1 n 1 α + α = + α −
i 1
n 1
−
= α
−
y x
x y
A B xA yB
+ −
→ +
n = x+y
So
i 1
x y 1
−
α =
+ −
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68. (3)
Sol : ease of liquefaction
a
b
∝
for ethane a = 5.49, b=0.0638
for
2
Cl a = 6.49, b = 0.0562
69. (4)
Sol :
2
CO (g) C +
2CO(g)
Initial moles p O
Equilibriumm moles px 2x
Total pressure at equilibrium = 0.8 atm ; Total no.of moles = p + x.
Therefore p n ∝ ;
0.5 p
x 0.3
0.8 p x
= ⇒ =
+
2
2
CO
p
CO
P 0.6 0.6
K 1.8
P 0.2
×
= = = atm
70. (4)
Sol : As Boron has only four orbitals in the valence shell ( i.e. 2s, 2p
x
, 2p
y
& 2p
z
) it can show a maximum
valency of four only.
Therefore  
3
6
BF
−
is not possible
71. (2)
Sol : ( )
3 3
6
Cr NH Cl (
¸ ¸
involves
2 3
d sp hybridization and it is an inner orbital complex.
72. (4)
Sol :
2
f f f
1 2
w 1000
T K m K
w m
×
∆ = × = ×
×
1
w &
2
w = wt of solvent & solute respecting
2
m = mw of solute
f
T ∆ =
( )
o 0 2
w 1000
0 6 6 1.86
4000 62
×
− − = = ×
×
Therefore
2
w 800g =
73. (4)
Sol : Across a period metallic strength decreases & down the group it increases
74. (2)
Sol : Temperature coefficient µ =2;
T
2 10
1
k
k
∆
µ = ;
50
5 2 10
1
k
2 2 32
k
= = =
Therefore 32
1 2
k k =
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75. (2)
Sol : In  
2
4
NiCl
−
, n = 2
µ = ( ) n n 2 + BM
= ( ) 2 2 2 2.82BM + =
76. (1)
Sol :
77. (3)
Sol : The general o.s of lanthanides is +3, only few elements exhibit +4 o.s.
78. (2)
Sol : Molefraction of solute ( )
2
X in aqueous solution =
m
1000
m
18
+
=
5.2
1000
5.2
18
+
= 0.09
79. (4)
Sol : Stability of hydrides decreases down the group from
3
NH to
3
BiH as MH bond energy decreases.
80. (3)
81. (3)
Sol : `S’ can exhibit a minimum oxidation state of 2
(Ex.
2
H S)
82. (3)
Sol : In
7
IF , I undergoes
3 3
sp d hybridisation
83. (1)
Sol : Vinyl group
2
CH CH
 
= −

\ .
on ozonolosys give formaldehyde
84. (2)
Sol :
absorbed 1 2
1 1 1
= +
λ λ λ
⇒
2
1 1 1
355 680
= +
λ
⇒
2
742.8 λ = ≅ 743 nm
85. (2 , 4)
Sol : Formaldehyde and Acetaldehyde can be oxidized by tollen’s reagent to give silver mirror.
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86. (3)
Sol : Phenol gives violet coloured comlex compound with neutral
3
FeCl , benzoic acid gives pale dull yellow
ppt. with neutral
3
FeCl
87. (3)
Sol : In acidic medium, KBr + KBrO
3
in turn produces
2
Br . Phenol reacts with
2
Br (aq) to give 2, 4, 6
trinitrophenol
88. (3)
Sol : Effective no.of A atoms =
1
8 1
8
× =
Effective no.of B atoms =
1
5
2
× ( One is missing) =
5
2
Therefore formula is
1 5 2 5
2
A B A B =
89. (4)
Sol : For an ideal gas, for isothermal reversible process,
S ∆ = 2.303 nR log
2
1
v
v
 

\ .
= 2.303
100
2 8.314 log
10
 
× × ×

\ .
= 38.3 J
1 1
mol .k
− −
90. 2, (2, 3)
Sol : both 2pentanone, phenol can exhibit tautomerism
AIEEE−2011−2
PART A : PHYSICS
1. The transverse displacement y ( x,t ) of a wave on a string is given by y ( x,t ) = e This represents a (1) wave moving in – x direction with speed (3) standing wave of frequency 2.
1 b
− ax2 + bt 2 + 2 ab xt
(
).
b (2) standing wave of frequency a
b
a b
(4) wave moving in + x direction with
A screw gauge gives the following reading when used to measure the diameter of a wire. Main scale reading : 0 mm Circular scale reading : 52 divisions Given that 1 mm on main scale corresponds to 100 divisions of the circular scale. The diameter of wire from the above date is : (1) 0.052 cm (2) 0.026 cm (3) 0.005 cm (4) 0.52 cm A mass m hangs with the help of a string wrapped around a pulley on a frictionless bearing. The pulley has mass m and radius R. Assuming pulley to be a perfect uniform circular disc, the acceleration of the mass m, if the string does not slip on the pulley, is 2 g 3 (1) g (2) (3) (4) g g 2 3 3 Work done in increasing the size of a soap bubble from a radius of 3 cm to 5 cm is nearly (Surface tension of soap solution = 0.03 Nm−1): (1) 0.2π mJ (2) 2π mJ (3) 0.4 π mJ (4) 4π mJ
3.
4.
5.
A thin horizontal circular disc is rotating about a vertical axis passing through its centre. An insect is at rest at a point near the rim of the disc. The insect now moves along a diameter of the disc to reach its other end. During the journey of the insect, the angular speed of the disc: (1) continuously decreases (2) continuously increases (3) first increases and then decreases (4) remains unchanged Two particles are executing simple harmonic motion of the same amplitude A and frequency ω along the xaxis. Their mean position is separated by distance X0 ( X0 > A ) . If the maximum separation between them is ( X0 + A ) , the phase difference between their motion is : (1) π 3 (2)
π 4
6.
(3)
π 6
(4)
π 2
7.
Two bodies of masses m and 4 m are placed at a distance r. The gravitational potential at a point on the line joining them where the gravitational field is zero is: 4Gm 6Gm 9Gm (2) − (3) − (4) zero (1) − r r r Two identical charged spheres suspended from a common point by two massless strings of length l are initially a distance d ( d << 1) apart because of their mutual repulsion. The charge begins to leak from both the spheres at a constant rate. As a result the charges approach each other with a velocity v. Then as a function of distance x between them, (2) v ∝ x1/ 2 (3) v ∝ x (4) v ∝ x −1/ 2 (1) v ∝ x −1
8.
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AIEEE−2011−3
9.
A boat is moving due east in a region where the earth’s magnetic field is 5.0 × 10−5 NA −1m−1 due north and horizontal. The boat carries a vertical aerial 2m long. If the speed of the boat is 1.50 ms−1, the magnitude of the induced emf in the wire of aerial is : (1) 0.75 mV (2) 0.50 mV (3) 0.15 mV (4) 1 mV An object, moving with a speed of 6.25 m/s, is decelerated at a rate given by : dv = −2.5 v dt where v is the instantaneous speed. The time taken by the object, to come to rest, would be : (1) 2 s (2) 4 s (3) 8 s (4) 1 s A fully charged capacitor C with initial charge q0 is connected to a coil of self inductance L at t = 0. The time at which the energy is stored equally between the electric and the magnetic field is : π LC (2) 2π LC (3) LC (4) π LC (1) 4 Let the x – z plane be the boundary between two transparent media. Medium 1 in z ≥ 0 has a refractive index of 2 and medium 2 with z < 0 has a refractive index of 3 . A ray of light in medium 1 given by the vector A = 6 3 i + 8 3 j − 10k is incident on the plane of separation. The angle of refraction in medium 2 is (2) 600 (3) 750 (4) 300 (1) 450
→ ∧ ∧ ∧
10.
11.
12.
13.
A current I flows in an infinitely long wire with cross section in the form of a semicircular ring of radius R. The magnitude of the magnetic induction along its axis is µ0I µ0I µ0I µI (1) (3) (4) 20 (2) 2πR πR 2π2R 4 π 2R A thermally insulated vessel contains an ideal gas of molecular mass M and ratio of specific heats γ. It is moving with speed υ and is suddenly brought to rest. Assuming no heat is lost to the surroundings, its temperature increases by : ( γ − 1) ( γ − 1) 2 ( γ − 1) 2 γMυ2 Mυ2 K Mυ K (3) (4) K (1) (2) Mυ K 2 ( γ + 1) R 2R 2R 2γR
A mass M, attached to a horizontal spring, executes S.H.M. with amplitude A1. When the mass M passes through its mean position then a smaller mass m is placed over it and both of them move together with A amplitude A2. The ratio of 1 is : A2 (1)
M+m M
14.
15.
M (2) M+m
1/ 2
M+m (3) M
1/ 2
(4)
M M+m
16.
Water is flowing continuously from a tap having an internal diameter 8 × 10−3 m . The water velocity as it leaves the tap is 0.4 ms−1. The diameter of the water stream at a distance 2 × 10 −1m below the lap is close to : (2) 9.6 × 10 −3 m (3) 3.6 × 10 −3 m (4) 5.0 × 10 −3 m (1) 7.5 × 10 −3 m
FIITJEE (Hyderabad Classes) Limited. 5914/B, Saifabad, (Opp. Secretariat) Hyderabad. 500 063. Phone: 04066777000 – 03 Fax: 04066777004
T2 and T3 are mixed. Statement2 is false.05% Direction: The question has a paragraph followed by two statements. Statement2 is false. (4) Statement1 is true. Of the four choices given after the statements.5 = 0. Statement2 : The centre of the interference pattern is dark. this film gives an interference pattern due to light reflected from the top (convex) surface and the bottom (glass plate) surface of the film. respectively : 3 (2) 330 K and 268 K (3) 310 K and 248 K (4) 372 K and 310 K 22. its efficiency increases to (1) 372 K and 330 K 1 . (1) Statement1 is true. These signals are in general. Saifabad. Phone: 04066777000 – 03 Fax: 04066777004 . Statement2 is true. Statement2 is not the correct explanation of Statement1. choose the one that best describes the two statements. 500 063. Statement2 is true. less stable than ground wave signals. Statement – 1 and statement – 2.05% (4) increases by 0. n2 and n3 respectively. Across the capacitor is a neon bulb that lights up at 120 V. Then T1 and T2 are. day to day and season to season. (2) Statement1 is true. (2) 2.4 ) (1) 1. Statement2 is not the correct explanation of Statement1. This question has Statement – 1 and Statement – 2. Calculate the value of R to make the bulb light up 5 s after the switch has been closed. the final temperature of the mixture is : 2 2 ( T1 + T2 + T3 ) n T + n2 T2 + n3 T32 n2 T 2 + n2 T22 + n3 T32 n T + n2 T2 + n3 T3 2 (2) 1 1 (3) 1 1 (4) (1) 1 1 3 n1T1 + n2 T2 + n3 T3 n1T1 + n2 T2 + n3 T3 n1 + n2 + n3 A pulley of radius 2 m is rotated about its axis by a force F = 20t − 5t 2 Newton (where t is measured in 18. A thin air film is formed by putting the convex surface of a plane – convex lens over a plane glass plate. Of the given four alternatives after the statements. Statement1 : When light reflects from the airglass plate interface. Statement2 is the correct explanation of Statement1. is : (1) more than 3 but less than 6 (2) more than 6 but less than 9 (3) more than 9 (4) less than 3 20.AIEEE−2011−4 17. Statement2 is the correct explanation of Statement1. Statement2 : The state of ionosphere varies from hour to hour. the reflected wave suffers a phase change of π. When T2 is lowered by 62 6 A Carnot engine operating between temperatures T1 and T2 has efficiency K. The masses of molecules are m1. (3) Statement1 is false. Statement2 is true. Three perfect gases at absolute temperatures T1.1% longer. its resistance will : (1) increase by 0. 19. Assuming no loss of energy. (1) Statement1 is true. ( log10 2. choose the one that describes the statements. A resistor ‘R’ and 2µF capacitor in series is connected through a switch to 200 V direct supply.2% (2) decrease by 0. (Opp. (2) Statement1 is true. 5914/B. Statement1 : Sky wave signals are used for long distance radio communication. Statement2 is true. Secretariat) Hyderabad.3 × 107 Ω (4) 1. Statement2 is true.2% (3) decrease by 0. FIITJEE (Hyderabad Classes) Limited. (3) Statement1 is false. 23. (4) Statement1 is true. Statement2 is true.3 × 10 4 Ω 1 . With monochromatic light. m2 and m3 and the number of molecules are n1.7 × 106 Ω (3) 3. If the moment of inertia of the pulley about its axis of rotation made by the pulley before its direction of motion if reversed. If a wire is stretched to make it 0. ( ) seconds) applied tangentially.7 × 105 Ω 21.
Secretariat) Hyderabad. Saifabad. The approximate time interval ( t 2 − t1 ) between the time t2 when (1) 14 min 2 1 of it has decayed and time t1 and of it had decayed is : 3 3 (2) 20 min (3) 28 min (4) 7 min 27. If the frequency incident on the surface doubled. This question has Statement – 1 and Statement – 2. both the Kmax and V0 are also doubled. (Opp. 5914/B. a. Statement2 is the correct explanation of Statement1. the change in its internal energy is (specific heat of water is 4148 J/kg/K): (1) 8. Of the four choices given after the statements. Energy required for the electron excitation in Li++ from the first to the third Bohr orbit is : (1) 36. (3) Statement1 is false. A second car 2. 26. 500 063. Then the charge density inside ball is (2) −24π aε0r (3) −6aε0 (4) −24 π aε0r (1) −6aε0r A water fountain on the ground sprinkles water all around it. Statement2 is false. Statement2 is not the correct explanation of Statement1. Statement2 is true.8 m behind the first car is overtaking the first car at relative speed of 15 m/s.8 eV (3) 122. the total area around the fountain that gets wet is : v4 π v4 v2 v4 (1) π 2 (2) (3) π 2 (4) π 2 2g g g g 100g of water is heated from 300C to 500C. Ignoring the slight expansion of the water. Statement2 : The maximum kinetic energy and the stopping potential of photoelectrons emitted from a surface are linearly dependent on the frequency of incident light.3 eV (2) 108. Statement2 is true. 30. choose the one that best describes the two statements.4 eV (4) 12. Statement1 : A metallic surface is irradiated by a monochromatic light of frequency v > v0 (the threshold frequency). (4) Statement1 is true.1 kJ (4) 4. If the speed of water coming out of the fountain is v. A car is fitted with a convex sideview mirror of focal length 20cm. Statement2 is true.AIEEE−2011−5 24. The speed of the image of the second car as seen in the mirror of the first one is : 1 1 m/s m/s (2) 10m / s (3) 15m / s (4) (1) 15 10 25.2 kJ The half life of a radioactive substance is 20 minutes. Phone: 04066777000 – 03 Fax: 04066777004 . b are constants. 29. (2) Statement1 is true. (1) Statement1 is true. The maximum kinetic energy and the stopping potential are Kmax and V0 respectively. FIITJEE (Hyderabad Classes) Limited.1 eV The electrostatic potential inside a charged spherical ball is given by φ = α ρ2 + b where r is the distance from the centre.4 kJ (2) 84 kJ (3) 2. 28.
d2 x dy 2 equals −1 d2 y dy −3 (1) − 2 dx dx d2 y dy −2 (2) 2 dx dx d2 y dy −3 (3) − 2 dx dx d2 y (4) 2 dx −1 FIITJEE (Hyderabad Classes) Limited. Statement– 2 is false. Statement – 2 is true. (4) Statement – 1 is true. Statement– 2 is true. (4) Statement – 1 is true. (Opp. Statement – 1 : Statement – 2 : The number of ways of distributing 10 identical balls in 4 distinct boxes such that no box is empty is 9 C3 The number of ways of choosing any 3 places from 9 different places is 9 C3 . Statement – 2 is true. Statement – 2 is not a correct explanation for Statement –1 (2) Statement – 1 is true. bisector of an angle divides the triangle into two similar triangles. then for all real x 13 ≤ A ≤1 (2) 1 ≤ A ≤ 2 (1) 16 (3) 3 13 ≤A≤ 4 16 (4) 3 ≤ A ≤1 4 33. (1) Statement – 1 is true. Statement – 2 is not a correct explanation for Statement –1 (2) Statement – 1 is true. (3) Statement – 1 is false. Statement– 2 is true. (3) Statement – 1 is false. The coefficient of x 7 in the expansion of 1 − x − x 2 + x 3 (1) 132 1 − cos 2 ( x − 2 ) lim x →2 x−2 ( ) 6 is (4) 144 (2) 144 (3)132 34. 500 063. Secretariat) Hyderabad. Statement – 1 : The ratio PR : RQ equals 2 2 : 5 . Statement – 2 is a correct explanation for Statement – 1 32. { } (1) equals 2 (2) equals − 2 (3) equals 1 2 (4) does not exist 35. Saifabad. Statement – 2 : In any triangle. The lines L1 : y − x = 0 and L 2 : 2x + y = 0 intersect the line L3 : y + 2 = 0 at P and Q respectively. 5914/B. Statement – 2 is true. (1) Statement – 1 is true. Statement – 2 is true. Statement – 2 is a correct explanation for Statement – 1 36. Phone: 04066777000 – 03 Fax: 04066777004 . The bisector of the acute angle between L1 and L 2 intersect L3 at R . Statement– 2 is false.AIEEE−2011−6 PART B: MATHEMATICS 31. If A = sin2 x + cos4 x .
11040 after (1) 19 months (2) 20 months (3) 21 months (4) 18 months The domain of the function f ( x ) = (1) ( 0.y ) ∈ R × R : y − x is an int eger is an equivalence relation on R . Saifabad. then it is necessary that (1) β ∈ ( −1. If dy = y + 3 > 0 and y ( 0 ) = 2 . Statement– 2 is true. Phone: 04066777000 – 03 Fax: 04066777004 . (2) 0. 40 more than the saving of immediately previous month. then λ 14 λ 2 (2) 2 5 (3) 5 3 (4) 2 3 FIITJEE (Hyderabad Classes) Limited. The value of (1) π log2 8 ∫ 0 1 8log (1 + x ) 1 + x2 dx is π log2 2 (2) (3) log2 (4) π log2 40. If the probability of at least 31 one failure is greater than or equal to . Consider 5 independent Bernoulli’s trials each with probability of success p. 43. His total saving from the start of service will be Rs. (3) . Statement – 2 is not a correct explanation for Statement –1 (2) Statement – 1 is true. 1) 41. (1) Statement – 1 is true. ∞ ) (2) ( −∞. (4) Statement – 1 is true. Statement – 2 : { } B = {( x. Let α. If z2 + αz + β = 0 has two distinct roots on the line Re z = 1 . (3) Statement – 1 is false. 0 ) (2) β = 1 (3) β ∈ (1 ∞ ) . ∞ ) − {0} (4) ( −∞. (4) β ∈ ( 0. (Opp. 500 063. Let R be the set of real numbers Statement – 1 : A = ( x. 5914/B. Statement – 2 is true. Statement – 2 is true. is (3) ( −∞. 200 in each of the first three months of his service.y ) ∈ R × R : x = αy for some rational number α} is an equivalence relation on R. then p lies in the interval 32 3 11 1 11 1 3 (1) . Statement– 2 is false. 0 ) 1 x −x 42. then y ( ln2 ) is equal to dx (1) 5 (2) 13 (3) 2 (4) 7 38. Statement – 2 is a correct explanation for Statement – 1 39.AIEEE−2011−7 37. 4 12 2 2 4 12 A man saves Rs. ∞ ) 44. 1 (4) . If the angle between the line x = equals 3 (1) 2 5 y −1 z − 3 = and the plane x + 2y + 3z = 4 is cos−1 . β be real and z be a complex number. In each of the subsequent months his saving increases by Rs. Secretariat) Hyderabad.
2x + 2y + z = 0 possess a nonzero solution is (1) 2 (2) 1 (3) zero (4) 3 Consider the following statements P : Suman is brilliant Q : Suman is rich R : Suman is honest The negation of the statement “Suman is brilliant and dishonest if and only if Suman is rich” can be expressed as (2) ~ Q ↔~ P ∧ R (3) ~ (P∧ ~ R ) ↔ Q (4) ~ P ∧ ( Q ↔~ R ) (1) ~ Q ↔ (P∧ ~ R ) 52. Then the scrap value V ( T ) of the equipment is dV ( t ) (1) I − 48. a × b × a + 2b is 7 ( ) ( ) ( ) ( ) (1) 3 46. 5914/B.c r (2) b + r r c (3) c − r r b (4) b − r r c (1) c + r r b a. then the correct statement among the following is (1) P ( C  D ) ≥ P ( C ) (2) P ( C  D ) < P ( C ) (3) P ( C  D ) = P (D ) P (C) (4) P ( C  D ) = P ( C ) 51. kx + 4y + z = 0 . If C and D are two events such that C ⊂ D and P (D ) ≠ 0 .b a. 500 063.d = 0 .b 49. The number of values of k for which the linear equations 4x + ky + 2z = 0 . ( ) 53. Phone: 04066777000 – 03 Fax: 04066777004 . r If a = $ (3i$ + k ) 10 1 r 1 r r r r r r $ $ $ and b = 2i + 3j − 6k .c r r b.b a.b a. (Opp.AIEEE−2011−8 45. The two circles x 2 + y 2 = ax and x 2 + y 2 = c 2 ( c > 0 ) touch each other if (1) a = c (2) a = 2c (3) a = 2c (4) 2 a = c 50. The shortest distance between line y − x = 1 and curve x = y 2 is (1) 3 2 8 (2) 8 3 2 (3) 4 3 (4) 3 4 FIITJEE (Hyderabad Classes) Limited. where k > 0 is a dt constant and T is the total life in years of the equipment. then the value of 2a − b . Saifabad. Secretariat) Hyderabad. Let I be the purchase value of an equipment and V ( t ) be the value after it has been used for t years.c r r b.c r r a. 1) and has eccentricity 5 (1) 5x 2 + 3y 2 − 48 = 0 (2) 3x 2 + 5y 2 − 15 = 0 (3) 5x 2 + 3y 2 − 32 = 0 (4) 3x 2 + 5y 2 − 32 = 0 47. The value V ( t ) depreciates at a rate given by differential equation k (T − t) 2 = −k ( T − t ) . (2) 5 (3) 3 (4) 5 Equation of the ellipse whose axes are the axes of coordinates and which passes through the point 2 is ( −3. Then the vector d is equal to rr rr rr rr r a. kT 2 2 2 (2) I − (3) e −kT (4) T 2 − I k r r r r r r r r The vector a and b are not perpendicular and c and d are two vectors satisfying: b × c = b × d and rr r a.
AIEEE−2011−9 54. x = e. 1) (2) (1. 0) (3) (1. Statement – 2 is a correct explanation for Statement – 1 57. …. 7 ) is the mirror image of the point B (1. Statement – 2 is true. Statement – 2 : The line: = = 1 2 3 (1) Statement – 1 is true. Phone: 04066777000 – 03 Fax: 04066777004 . 2 ∫ 0 x t sin t dt . Statement– 2 is true. is 5 1 3 1 1 3 1 3 (1) p = . Statement – 1 : AB is symmetric matrix if matrix multiplication of A and B is commutative. 5914/B. A (BA ) and ( AB ) A are symmetric matrices. (3) Statement – 1 is false. x=0 x + x2 − x . 1) (4) (0. 59. 1 2 3 x y −1 z − 2 bisects the line segment joining A (1. q = (2) p = − . y = x 3 5 1 square units (3) square units (4) square units (1) 1 square units (2) 2 2 2 60. (Opp. 500 063. Statement – 2 is true. 6. Statement – 1 : The point A (1. 7 ) and B (1. Statement – 2 : (1) Statement – 1 is true. Let A and B be two symmetric matrices of order 3. Then ( A. sin ( p + 1) x + sin x . then a equals (1) 3 (2) 4 (3) 5 (4) 2 55. Statement–2 is true. 0. 5π . 0. Statement–2 is not a correct explanation for Statement – 1 (2) Statement – 1 is true. q = − 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 1 and the positive xaxis is The area of the region enclosed by the curves y = x. Statement– 2 is false. Saifabad. Then f has (1) local minimum at π and 2π (2) local minimum at π and local maximum at 2π (3) local maximum at π and local minimum at 2π (4) local maximum at π and 2π FIITJEE (Hyderabad Classes) Limited. (3) Statement – 1 is false. Statement – 2 is true. 2a. 50a is 50. 1) 58. q = (4) p = . B ) equals 7 (1) (1. 3 ) . 3 ) in the line x y −1 z − 2 = = . Statement – 2 is a correct explanation for Statement – 1 56. Statement– 2 is true. x<0 x The value of p and q for which the function f ( x ) = q . (4) Statement – 1 is true. q = (3) p = . Statement– 2 is false. 6. (4) Statement – 1 is true. If ω ( ≠ 1) is a cube root of unity. and (1 + ω) = A + Bω . If the mean deviation about the median of the numbers a. Statement – 2 is not a correct explanation for Statement –1 (2) Statement – 1 is true. x>0 x3 / 2 is continuous for all x in R. Secretariat) Hyderabad. define f ( x ) = For x ∈ 0.
0 M (4) p (H2 ) =1 atm and (3) p (H2 ) = 2 atm and The strongest acid amongst the following compounds is : (1) HCOOH (2) CH3CH2CH ( Cl ) CO2H (3) ClCH2CH2CH2COOH 67. 5914/B. Some of the CO2 is converted into CO on the addition of graphite.0 M (2) p (H2 ) =2 atm and H+ =1.0 M H+ = 2.AIEEE−2011−10 PART C: CHEMISTRY 61. 2. 2.18 atm (4) 1. 66. 2Trichloropropanol (3) Chloroform (4) 2. (4) CH3COOH 62. 65. 63. Chlorine is more easily liquefied than ethane because (1) a and b for Cl2 < a and b for C2H6 (2) a for Cl2 < a for C2H6 but b for Cl2 > b for C2H6 (3) a for Cl2 > a for C2H6 but b for Cl2 < b for C2H6 (4) a and b for Cl2 > a and b for C2H6 A vessel at 1000 K contains CO2 with a pressure of 0. The degree of dissociation ( α ) of a weak electrolyte. 500 063. Saifabad.8 atm Boron cannot form which one of the following anions ? (1) BH− 4 (2) B ( OH)4 − − (3) BO2 3 (4) BF6 − 69.0 M H+ = 2. Secretariat) Hyderabad.3 atm (3) 0. the value of K is (1) 3 atm (2) 0. If the total pressure at equilibrium is 0. The mixture of the products contains sodium trichloroacetate and another compound. Phone: 04066777000 – 03 Fax: 04066777004 . 71.8 atm.5 atm. (Opp. The compound that is produced in the above reaction is : (1) 2Butanone (2) Ethyl chloride (3) Ethyl ethanoate (4) Diethyl ether The reduction potential of hydrogen half cell will be negative if : (1) p (H2 ) = 1 atm and H+ =1. 64. Among the following the maximum covalent character is shown by the compound : (1) SnCl2 (2) AlCl3 (3) MgCl2 (4) FeCl2 The presence or absence of hydroxyl group on which carbon atom of sugar differentiates RNA and DNA ? (2) 3rd (3) 4th (4) 1st (1) 2nd Trichloroacetaldehyde was subjected to Cannizzaro’s reaction by using NaOH. A xB y is related to van’t Hoff factor (i) by the expression : i −1 (1) α = x + y +1 (2) α = x + y −1 i −1 (3) α = x + y +1 i −1 (4) α = ( x + y − 1) i −1 68. 2Trichloroethanol Sodium ethoxide has reacted with ethanoyl chloride. FIITJEE (Hyderabad Classes) Limited. The other compound is : (1) Trichloromethanol (2) 2. 70. Which of the following facts about the complex Cr (NH3 )6 Cl3 s wrong ? (1) The complex is paramagnetic (2) The complex is an outer orbital complex (3) The complex gives white precipitate with silver nitrate solution (4) The complex involves d2 sp3 hybridization and is octahedral in shape. `a’ and `b’ are van der Waals’ constants for gases.
(3) Availability of 4f electrons results in the formation of compounds in +4 state for all the members of the series.00 g (3) 304. sp2 (3) sp2 . 78.86 K kg mol −1 . 500 063. (3) N2O4 has two resonance structures (4) The stability of hydrides increases from NH3 to BiH3 in group 15 of the periodic table The outer electron configuration of Gd (Atomic No : 64 is : (1) 4f 8 5d0 6s2 (2) 4f 4 5d4 6s2 (3) 4f 7 5d1 6s2 Which of the following statements regarding sulphur is incorrect ? (1) The vapour at 200o C consists mostly of S8 rings (2) At 600o C the gas mainly consists of S2 molecules (3) The oxidation state of sulphur is never less than +4 in its compounds (4) S2 molecule is paramagnetic.83 BM 2− 73. 5914/B. sp3 In context of the lanthanoids. 82.086 (3) 0. CH3OH .2 molal aqueous solution of methyl alcohol. Secretariat) Hyderabad. What is the mole fraction of methyl alcohol in the solution ? (1) 0. which of the following statements is not correct ? (1) All the members exhibit +3 oxidation state (2) Because of similar properties the separation of lanthanoids is not easy. Ethylene glycol is used as an antifreeze in a cold climate. Saifabad.050 (4) 0. sp2 .190 (2) 0.60 g (4) 804.41 BM (4) 1. If the temperature is raised by 50o C .30g (2) 400. sp (4) sp.N bond is weaker than the single P – P bond. 74. A 5.32g Which one of the following order represents the correct sequence of the increasing basic nature of the given oxides ? (1) MgO < K 2O < Al2O3 < Na2O (2) Na2O < K 2O < MgO < Al2O3 (4) Al2O3 < MgO < Na2O < K 2O (3) K 2O < Na2O < Al2O3 < MgO The rate of a chemical reaction doubles for every 10o C rise of temperature. (4) 4f 3 4d5 6s2 81. (Opp. 79.NO2 and NH+ are respectively : 4 (1) sp2 . sp3 .46 BM (2) 2. − + The hybridization of orbitals of N atom in NO3 . is (3) 1. Mass of ethylene glycol which should be added to 4 kg of water to prevent it from freezing at −6o C will be : [ K f for water = 1.AIEEE−2011−11 72. sp3 . and molar mass of ethylene glycol = 62g mol −1 ) (1) 204. the rate of the reaction increases by about : (1) 24 times (2) 32 times (3) 64 times (4) 10 times The magnetic moment (spin only) of [NiCl4 ] (1) 5. 80. The structure of IF7 is : (1) trigonal bipyramid (2) octahedral (3) pentagonal bipyramid (4) square pyramid FIITJEE (Hyderabad Classes) Limited.82 BM 76. sp3 77. is supplied.pπ bond. 75. (2) sp. Phone: 04066777000 – 03 Fax: 04066777004 . (4) There is a gradual decrease in the radii of the members with increasing atomic number in the series. (2) Single N.100 Which of the following statement is wrong ? (1) Nitrogen cannot form dπ . sp.
88.AIEEE−2011−12 83. 4. If one of the emissions is at 680 nm. Ozonolysis of an organic compound gives formaldehyde as one of the products. FIITJEE (Hyderabad Classes) Limited.Tribromophenol (4) 2Bromophenol In a face centred cubic lattice. (Opp. 85. the other is at : (1) 325 nm (2) 743 nm (3) 518 nm (4) 1035 nm Silver Mirror test is given by which one of the following compounds ? (1) Acetone (2) Formaldehyde (3) Benzophenone (4) Acetaldehyde 84. This confirms the presence of : (1) a vinyl group (2) an isopropyl group (3) an acetylenic triple bond (4) two ethylenic double bonds A gas absorbs a photon of 355 nm and emits at two wavelengths. (1) Lactic acid (2) 2Pentanone (3) Phenol (4) 2. 500 063. atom A occupies the corner positions and atom B occupies the face centre positions. Phone: 04066777000 – 03 Fax: 04066777004 .3J mol−1K −1 (4) 38. 5914/B.3J mol−1K −1 (3) 42. If one atom of B is missing from one of the face centred points. Which of the following reagents may be used to distinguish between phenol and benzoic acid ? (1) Tollen’s reagent (2) Molisch reagent (3) Neutral Fe Cl3 (4) Aqueous NaOH Phenol is heated with a solution of mixture of KBr and KBrO3. Secretariat) Hyderabad.Butene 87. 86. The major product obtained in the above reaction is (1) 3Bromophenol (2) 4Bromophenol (3) 2.8J mol −1K −1 (2) 32. Saifabad. 90. 6. 89.3J mol−1K −1 Identify the compound that exhibits tautomerism. the formula of the compound is : (1) AB2 (2) A 2B3 (3) A 2B5 (4) A 2B The entropy change involved in the isothermal reversible expansion of 2 moles of an ideal gas from a volume of 10 dm3 to a volume of 100 dm3 at 27o C is : (1) 35.
6. For writing/marking particulars on Side2 of the Answer Sheet. No deduction from the total score. will be made if no response is indicated for an item in the Answer Sheet. is prohibited. This space is given at the bottom of each page and in 4 pages (Pages 20 – 23) at the end of the booklet. the candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them. without special permission of the Superintendent or Invigilator. 5914/B. 5.AIEEE−2011−13 READ THE FOLLOWING INSTRUCTIONS CAREFULLY 1. The candidates should not leave the Examination Hall without handing over their Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty and sign the Attendance Sheet again. The candidates are governed by all Rules and Regulations of the Board with regard to their conduct in the Examination Hall. 7. The candidates should fill in the required particulars on the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet (Side–1) with Blue/Black Ball Point Pen. 13. 11. bits of papers. Out of the four options given for each question. (Opp. The candidates are not allowed to do any rough work or writing work on the Answer Sheet. Use of Electronic/Manual Calculator and any Electronic Item like mobile phone. 8. 10. FIITJEE (Hyderabad Classes) Limited. Saifabad. No part of the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet shall be detached under any circumstances. mobile phone. No candidate. Each candidate must show on demand his/her Admit Card to the Invigilator. On completion of the test. onefourth (1/4) of the total marks allotted to the question would be deducted from the total score. 15. electronic device or any other material except the Admit Card inside the examination hall/room. the candidates must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty in the Room/Hall. For each incorrect response. only one option is the correct answer. 4. The candidates should not write their Roll Numbers anywhere else (except in the specified space) on the Test Booklet/Answer Sheet. 3. All calculations/writing work are to be done in the space provided for this purpose in the Test Booklet itself. 2. will another set be provided. Candidates are not allowed to carry any textual material. Secretariat) Hyderabad. The candidates are also required to put their left hand THUMB impression in the space provided in the Attendance Sheet. marked ‘Space for Rough Work’. 14. pager etc. However. Cases where a candidate has not signed the Attendance Sheet a second time will be deemed not to have handed over the Answer Sheet and dealt with as an unfair means case. pager. 9. 500 063. 12. printed or written. should leave his/her seat. All cases of unfair means will be dealt with as per Rules and Regulations of the Board. however. Handle the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet with care. Phone: 04066777000 – 03 Fax: 04066777004 . as under no circumstances (except for discrepancy in Test Booklet Code and Answer Sheet Code). use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only.
x = Gm 3 12 V = −Gm + = −9 r r 2r FIITJEE (Hyderabad Classes) Limited. (2) a Mg From (1) and (2) a = 4.t ) = e − ax+ bt 2 ( ) V= 2.. Sol. (Opp. 7. Phone: 04066777000 – 03 Fax: 04066777004 r 4m 1+ m = r 3 . Sol.4π mJ ( ) 3 τ=0 Angular momentum is conserve Iω I1ω1 = I2 ω2 ⇒ ω2 = 1 1 I2 I2 first decreases and then increases ∴ω first increases and then decreases. Sol. 5.52mm = 0. Saifabad. …. 1 Diameter of wire = 2 Mg –T = Ma T × R = Iα = 1 T = Ma 2 1 MR 2 α 2 1 × 52 = 0. Secretariat) Hyderabad. 500 063. 4 φ1 = 0 φ2 = π 2 X0 A X0+A 6.. 3 W = T × ∆A = T × 8π r22 − r12 = 0. 1 b a Wave moving in − ve x –direction. Sol. 3 Position of the null point from mass m. Sol. 5914/B.AIEEE−2011−14 SOLUTIONS PART A PHYSICS 1.052cm 100 3. Sol. y ( x. (1) α R T ( a = αR ) 2g 3 …. Sol.
Q2 x equilibrium condition = K 2 = ω 2l x ⇒ Q2 = Cx 3 dQ dx ⇒ 2Q = C3x 2 dt dt 3/2 dx x ⇒ ∝ 2 ∝ x −1/ 2 dt x 3 E = BH lV = 0. Sol. 1 Charge oscillates simple harmonic motion q = q0 sin ωt. (Opp. U = 2 T 2π π LC = LC ⇒t= = 8 8 4 q= q0 ⇒ ωt = π 4 1 q2 2C 12. 4 ∧ ∧ µ0 di − cos θ i − sin θ j 2πR T di = Rdθ πR I = dθ π dB = → dB = → ∧ ∧ µ0I − cos θ i − sin θ j 2 2π R FIITJEE (Hyderabad Classes) Limited. Sol.25 ⇒ C = 5 at v = 0 ⇒ t = 5 = 2s 2. Phone: 04066777000 – 03 Fax: 04066777004 . 11. 500 063.v = 6.5 v dt Integrating the above equation.AIEEE−2011−15 8. ⇒ 2 v = −2.5 9. 4 At any instant of separation between charges is x. Sol. Sol. 5914/B.15mV 1 dv = −2. Sol. θ1 = 60 A 20 2 µ1 sin θ1 = µ 2 sin θ2 ⇒ 2 × 3 = 3 sin θ2 ⇒ θ2 = 450 2 y dθ θ θ x 13.5t + C at t = 0. 10. Normal to the plane is z –axis A 10 1 cos θ1 = z = = . Secretariat) Hyderabad. Saifabad. Sol.
Sol.t1 + n2kT2 + n3kT3 = ( n1 + n2 + n3 ) kT ∴T = n1T1 + n2 T2 + n3 T3 n1 + n2 + n3 19. Secretariat) Hyderabad. 1 1 2 ⇒ Mω2 A1 = ( m + M) ω2 A 2 2 2 2 2 A1 M + m = M A2 2 ∴ A1 M+m = A2 M 16. 500 063.AIEEE−2011−16 B=− → µ0I ∧ j π 2R 14. 18. Sol.8 × 0. 1 r×F=I×α 2 20t − 5t 2 = 10α ⇒ α = 4t − t 2 ( ) dω = 4t − t 2 dt dω = 4t 2 − t 2 dt t (on integration) 3 ω = 0 ⇒ t = 6s ( ) ω = 2t 2 − 3 FIITJEE (Hyderabad Classes) Limited.4 = πd2 × 4 d ≈ 3.2 v 2 − u2 = 2gh is used 2 vb = 2m/s (nearly) π 8 × 10 −3 × 0.4 ) = 2 × 9. Sol. 1 Since ionospheric properties change with time. Saifabad. Sol. Sol.k. 5914/B. 3 Equation of continuity ⇒ ( a × v ) top = ( a × v ) bottom 2 v b − ( 0. 3 Energy of simple harmonic oscillator is constant. (Opp. 3 W = ∆U 1 mv 2 = nCv dT 2 m R dT = M γ −1 dT = M ( γ − 1) v 2 2R K 15.6 × 10 −3 m 17. these signals are in general less stable than ground wave signals. Sol. 1 Data ⇒ n. Phone: 04066777000 – 03 Fax: 04066777004 .
1 R ∝ l 2 (for a given volume) ∆R 2 ∆l ⇒ %= % l R Thus when wire is stretched by 0. Sol.AIEEE−2011−17 ω= dθ t3 = 2t 2 − dt 3 t3 dθ = 2t 2 − dt 3 ⇒θ= 2t 3 t 4 − (on integration) 3 12 θ ( in 6s ) = 36rad ⇒ 2πn = 36 36 n= =< 6 2π 20. Sol. Sol. 5914/B.2% FIITJEE (Hyderabad Classes) Limited.84 × 10 T1 − T2 1 = T1 6 T1 21. Phone: 04066777000 – 03 Fax: 04066777004 .1% resistance increases by 0. 4 η1 = η2 = ⇒ T1 − ( T2 − 62 ) = 1 3 T1 − T2 62 1 + = T1 T1 3 1 62 1 + = 6 T1 3 62 1 = T1 6 ∴ T1 = 62 × 6 = 372K T1 − T2 1 = T1 6 1− T2 1 = T1 6 T2 5 = 372 6 ⇒ T2 = 310K 22. Saifabad. Secretariat) Hyderabad.7 × 106 Ω −6 1. 500 063. 2 Vc = E 1 − e − t / Rc ( ) 1 − e − t / Rc = 120 3 = 200 5 5 ⇒R= = 2. (Opp.
6eV 9 ∆E = −13.8 eV 26. (radius of circle) g g 2 v2 πv 4 Area occupied = π = 2 g g FIITJEE (Hyderabad Classes) Limited. (Opp. So charge density is constant φnet = ( −2ar ) 4πr 2 = −8πar 3 −8πar = 3 σ× 4 3 πr 3 ε0 ∴ σ = −6aε0 27. 5914/B. 1 Max.6 Z2 n2 9 = −122. Phone: 04066777000 – 03 Fax: 04066777004 .4 ) ELi + + = −13. Sol.AIEEE−2011−18 23. 1 1 1 1 + = v u f 1 dv 1 du − 2 − =0 v dt u2 dt dv v 2 du =− 2 dt u dt f = 20 cm 1 1 1 + = u −280 20 280 cm ⇒v= 15 280 vI = − × 15 15 × 280 1 m/s = 15 2 25.6 − ( −122. range = u2 v2 i.6 × = −13. 1 As light enters from air to glass it suffers a phase change on π and therefore at centre there will be destructive interference. 500 063. 24. Sol. Sol.6 × = 108.4eV 1 9 ELi ++ + = −13. Saifabad. 2 En = −13. Sol. Sol.e.. Secretariat) Hyderabad. 3 Potential inside (φ) = ar2 + b δv ∴ Er = − = −2ar δr Electric field inside uniformly charged solid volume varies with ‘r’.
N = N0 e − λt2 λt1 = ln3 2 1 N0 = N0 e − λt2 t1 = ln3 3 λ 2 N0 = N0 e − λt2 3 1 3 t 2 = ln λ 2 1 3 t 2 − t1 = ln − ln3 λ 2 1 1 0.1× 4. 500 063.693 = ln = λ 2 λ = 20 min 30. Sol. (Opp. Phone: 04066777000 – 03 Fax: 04066777004 . Secretariat) Hyderabad. Sol. 3 KEmax = hυ − hυ0 hυ − hυ0 = e × ∆v hυ hυ0 − e e ‘υ’ is doubled KEmax = 2hυ − hυ0 2hυ hυ0 V0′ = ( ∆V )′ = − e e KEmax may not be equal to 2 KEmax V0 = ⇒ V0′ may not equal to 2 V0 KE max = hυ .AIEEE−2011−19 28.hυ0 hυ hυ0 V= − e e FIITJEE (Hyderabad Classes) Limited. Sol. 5914/B. 1 ∆Q = ∆U + ∆W (ignoring expansion) ∆U = ms∆T = 0.368kJ 2 t 1 = 20 minutes 2 29.184 × 20 = 8. Saifabad.
H. Sol: 4 (n −1) C(r −1) = (10 −1) C(4 −1) = 9 C3 Statement 1 is correct Statement 2 is also correct From 9 we can select 3 in 9 C3 ways. − 2 ) Equation of angular bisector OR is ∴ PR : RQ = 2 2 : 5 ( 5 +2 2 x = ) ( 5− 2 y ) 32. Phone: 04066777000 – 03 Fax: 04066777004 .AIEEE−2011−20 PART B: MATHEMATICS 31. Sol: 4 A = sin2 x + cos4 x = 2 6 7 + cos 4x 3 ⇒ ≤ A ≤1 8 4 33. FIITJEE (Hyderabad Classes) Limited.. L. Q = (1. Secretariat) Hyderabad. Sol: Q R 2 L2 = 0 • y+2=0 P O L1 = 0 L3 = 0 P ( −2. = − 2 Limit does not exist.. Saifabad. Sol: 4 x →2 lim 2sin2 ( x − 2 ) x−2 2 sin ( x − 2 ) x−2 R. x →2 lim 35.H. 500 063. (Opp.L. = 2 . − 2 ) . 7 6 6 6 6 6 6 Coefficient of x = C1 C3 − C3 C2 + C5 C1 = 120 − 300 + 36 = −144 34. Sol: 1 − x − x 2 (1 − x ) = (1 − x )6 1 − x 2 ( ) 6 = 6 C0 − 6 C1x + 6 C2 x 2 − 6 C3 x 3 + 6 C4 x 4 − 6 C5 x 5 + 6 C6 x 6 × 6 C0 − 6 C1x 2 + 6 C2 x 4 − 6 C3 x 6 + .L.. It is correct explanation. 5914/B.
5914/B. Sol: 4 dy dy = y+3⇒ = dx dx y+3 ln ( y + 3 ) = x + c x=0⇒y=2 ⇒ ln5 = 0 + c c = ln5 ln ( y + 3 ) = x + ln5 y + 3 = e x +ln 5 ⇒ y + 3 = eln 2 +ln 5 y + 3 = 10 ⇒ y = 7 38. x Also = 1 is a rational number ⇒ B is reflexive x x y = α is rational ⇒ need not be rational y x i. FIITJEE (Hyderabad Classes) Limited. Sol: 2 x − y is an integer x − x = 0 is an integer ⇒ A is Reflexive x − y is an integer ⇒ y − x is an integer ⇒ A is symmetric x − y. y − z are integers As sum of two integers is an integer. ⇒ ( x − y ) + ( y − z ) = x − z is an integer ⇒ A is transitive. (Opp. Hence statement – 1 is true. Sol: 3 d dx d 1 1 d dy =− = 2 dy dx dy dy dy dy dy dx dx dy = − dx −2 d2 y dy −3 1 d dy = − 2 dx dx dy dx dx dx 37. 1 0 is rational ⇒ is not rational 0 1 Hence B is not symmetric ⇒ B is not an equivalence relation. 500 063. Phone: 04066777000 – 03 Fax: 04066777004 .. Saifabad.e. Secretariat) Hyderabad.AIEEE−2011−21 36.
Sol: 3 Suppose roots are 1 + pi. 41.AIEEE−2011−22 39. Sol: 2 n=5 Success = p Failure = q P (at least one failure) ≥ 1 – P (no failure) ≥ 31 32 31 1 − 5 C5p5 ≥ 32 1 −p5 ≥ − 32 1 p5 ≤ 32 1 p≤ 2 1 p ∈ 0. 1 − pi Product of roots = β = 1 + p2 ∈ (1. 1 + qi Sum of roots 1 + pi + 1 + qi = −α which is real ⇒ roots of 1 + pi. ∞ ) p ≠ 0 since roots are distinct. 5914/B. Secretariat) Hyderabad. 2 1− P ( x = 5) ≥ 31 32 31 32 FIITJEE (Hyderabad Classes) Limited. Phone: 04066777000 – 03 Fax: 04066777004 . 500 063. Saifabad. Sol: 4 I=8 ∫ 0 1 log (1 + x ) 1 + x2 dx =8 ∫ ∫ 0 π 4 π 4 log (1 + tan θ ) 1 + tan2 θ sec 2 θ dθ ( let x = tan θ ) π 4 π 4 π 4 1 − tan θ π = 8 log 1 + tan − θ dθ = 8 log 1 + dθ = 8 log2 dθ − 8 log (1 + tan θ ) dθ 4 1 + tan θ 0 0 0 0 ∫ ∫ ∫ π −I 4 2I = 2π log2 I = π log2 = 8log2 40. (Opp.
Secretariat) Hyderabad. Sol: 3 1 2 3 4 5 280 6 …….b ) = −5 2 2 2 46.{(a × b) × (a + 2b )} = ( 2a − b ). (Opp. Phone: 04066777000 – 03 Fax: 04066777004 .{a. 500 063. 200 200 200 240 Sum = 11040 120 + 80 + 160 + 40 + 200 + 240 + … = 11040 n 2a + ( n − 1) d + 80 + 40 = 11040 2 n 240 + ( n − 1) 40 = 10920 2 n 6 + n − 1 = 546 n ( n + 5 ) = 546 n = 21 43. 5914/B. Sol: 2 1 x −x ⇒ x − x > 0 ⇒ x > x ⇒ x is negative x ∈ ( −∞.. …… ……. Saifabad.(a + 2b) b − b. Sol: 4 ( 2a − b). Sol: 4 cos θ = sin θ = sin θ = 5 14 3 14 1 + 4 + 3λ 1 + 4 + λ2 1 + 4 + 9 3 5 + 3λ 2 = ⇒λ= 2 3 14 5 + λ 14 45. 0 ) 44.(a + 2b ) a} = −5 ( a ) ( b ) + 5 ( a.AIEEE−2011−23 42. Sol: 4 2 3 3a2 b2 = a 2 1 − e 2 = a 2 1 − = a 2 = 5 5 5 ( ) x2 a 2 b 32 a2 = 3 32 b2 = 5 + y2 2 =1⇒ 9 a 2 + 5 3a2 =1 ∴ Required equation of ellipse 3x 2 + 5y 2 − 32 = 0 FIITJEE (Hyderabad Classes) Limited.
500 063. 0 ) 2 a r1 = . Saifabad. (Opp. Sol: 3 b×c = b×d ⇒ a× b×c = a× b×d ( ) ( ) ⇒ ( a. Sol: 1 C P (C ∩ D) C ∩ D = C ⇒ P (C ∩ D) = P (C) ⇒ P = ≥ P (C) P (D ) D 51.d) b − ( a. 5914/B.b ) c = ( a. Sol: 1 4 k 2 k 4 1 = 0 ⇒ k 2 − 6k + 8 = 0 ⇒ k = 4. r2 = c 2 a a c1c 2 = r1 − r2 ⇒ = c − ⇒ c = a 2 2 50. 0 . Phone: 04066777000 – 03 Fax: 04066777004 . Sol: { } { } FIITJEE (Hyderabad Classes) Limited. c 2 = ( 0. Secretariat) Hyderabad.b ) d ⇒ ( a.b 49.c ∴d = c − b a.b ) d a.b ) c = − ( a.c ) b − ( a.c ) b − ( a. Sol: 1 a c1 = . 2 2 2 1 1 ~ ( P∧ ~ R ) ↔ Q =~ Q ↔ (P∧ ~ R ) 52.AIEEE−2011−24 47. Sol: 1 dV = −k ( T − t ) ⇒ dV = −k ( T − t ) dt dt Integrate V= −k ( T − t ) 2 ( −2 ) +c ⇒ V = k (T − t) 2 2 +c at t = 0 ⇒ V = I I= kT 2 kT 2 kT 2 + c ⇒ c = I− ⇒ c = V (T) = I − 2 2 2 48.
2. Sol: 1 A T = A.5a ) 50 50 2 (Given) = {312. 5914/B.3) 1. Saifabad. Phone: 04066777000 – 03 Fax: 04066777004 . (Opp.5a = Mean deviation = ( 24. Sol: 2 1 n ∑ x −A i 25a + 26a = 25. Secretariat) Hyderabad.5a 2 1 2 a − 25.AIEEE−2011−25 53.. BT = B ( A (BA ) ) = (BA )T A T = ( A TBT ) A = ( AB ) A = A (BA ) T ( ( AB ) A ) = A T ( AB )T = A (BT A T ) = A (BA ) = ( AB ) A T ∴ Statement – 1 is correct Statement – 2 ( AB )T = BT A T = BA = AB (Q AB is commutative) Statement – 2 is also correct but it is not correct explanation of Statement – 1 FIITJEE (Hyderabad Classes) Limited.7) Statement – 1 : AB is perpendicular to given line and mid point of AB lies on line Statement – 2 is true but it is not correct explanation as it is bisector only.5a + 23. 500 063. Sol: 1 B (1. If it is perpendicular bisector then only statement – 2 is correct explanation.5a ) + . 3 •A (1. Sol: 1 P = y2 . ( 0.5a + 2a − 25..6.0. 56. y ( ) y2 − y + 1 2 Perpendicular distance from P to x − y + 1 = 0 is y 2 − y + 1 > 0 ∀y ∈ R ∴ Coefficient y 2 > 0 ∴ Min value = 1 4ac − b2 4a 2 3 = 4 2 54.5a} = 50 50 ⇒ 625a = 2500 ⇒ a = 4 A = Median = { } { } 55.
local min at 2π f ' ( x ) changes sign from ve to +ve at 2π FIITJEE (Hyderabad Classes) Limited. 5914/B.AIEEE−2011−26 57. B ) = (1. Sol: 3 f ' ( x ) = x sin x 5π Given x ∈ 0. Secretariat) Hyderabad. 2 7 = −ω14 = −ω2 = 1 + ω = A + Bω ⇒ ( A. Sol: 2 O 1 1 e e Area = x dx + 0 ∫ ∫ x dx = 2 + 1 = 2 1 1 1 3 60. 2 f ' ( x ) changes sign from +ve to –ve at π f has local max at π . Saifabad. q = 2 2 2 x →0 lim sin ( p + 1) + sin x x = q = lim x + x2 − x x →0 59. 1) x3 / 2 1 lim ( p + 1) cos ( p + 1) x + cos x = q = x →0 2 1 3 1 ⇒ p + 1+ 1 = ⇒ p = − . (Opp. Sol: 1 1+ ω = −ω2 (1 + ω)7 = ( −ω2 ) 58. 500 063. Phone: 04066777000 – 03 Fax: 04066777004 .
α + nα = 1 + α ( n − 1) i −1 =α n −1 A xB y → xA + y + yB− x n = x+y So α = i −1 x + y −1 FIITJEE (Hyderabad Classes) Limited. Secretariat) Hyderabad. So the compound is CCl3 CH2OH IUPAC Name is 2. Sol : (4) i = 1. the sugar is β − D − Ribose.059 log H+ 2 66. 5914/B. . Sol : 63. Sol : 65. Sol : 62.AIEEE−2011−27 PART C: CHEMISTRY 61. Saifabad.3010 = negative value 2 2 1 P H2 E = Eo − 0. where as in DNA the Sugar is β D2deoxy Ribose (4) OH( − ) 2CCl3 CHO CCl3 COONa + CCl3 CH2OH → Cannizaro reaction is a disproportionation reaction One aldehyde molecule is oxidized to salt of the carboxylic Acid. Sol : (2) 2H+ + 2e− → H2 (g) (here E is –ve when P > H+ 2 ) H2 −0.Trichloro ethanol (3) ( −) ⊕ C2H5 O N a + CH3 − C − Cl  O → CH3 − C − O − C2H5 Ethyl ethanoate  O 64. (Opp.I effect of Cl Ka of HCOOH is 17. 2. Sol : (2) Electron releasing groups (Alkyl groups) de stabilizes conjugate base. 2.0591 2 = log10 = × . Phone: 04066777000 – 03 Fax: 04066777004 . other one is reduced to Alcohol.0591 −. 500 063. The +I effect of C3H7 is less than .9 × 10−5 K a of CH3 CH2 CH− COOH is 139 × 10 −5  Cl 67. Sol : (2) Greater charge and small size of cation cause more polarization and more covalent is that compound (1) In RNA.
8 atm PCO2 0. b=0. Sol : (4) CO2 (g) + C 2CO(g) Initial moles p O Equilibriumm moles px 2x Total pressure at equilibrium = 0. 5914/B.49.0638 for Cl2 a = 6. ∆T µ 10 = 50 k2 . = ⇒ x = 0.8 atm .8 p + x Kp = 2 PCO 0. 2py & 2pz) it can show a maximum valency of four only.6 × 0.6 = = 1. 2s. b = 0. Saifabad.2 70.49. Sol : (4) As Boron has only four orbitals in the valence shell ( i. Sol : (2) Cr (NH3 )6 Cl3 involves d2 sp3 hybridization and it is an inner orbital complex.AIEEE−2011−28 68. Phone: 04066777000 – 03 Fax: 04066777004 . 500 063. 2px. Therefore [BF6 ] 3− is not possible 71.of moles = p + x. Sol : w1 & w 2 = wt of solvent & solute respecting m2 = mw of solute ∆Tf = 0o − −60 = 6 = 1.5 p Therefore p ∝ n .86 × ( ) Therefore w 2 = 800g 73. Sol : w 2 × 1000 4000 × 62 (4) Across a period metallic strength decreases & down the group it increases (2) Temperature coefficient µ =2. k1 k2 k1 210 = 25 = 32 = Therefore 32 k1 = k 2 FIITJEE (Hyderabad Classes) Limited. (4) ∆Tf = K f × m = K f × w 2 × 1000 w 1 × m2 72. Sol : (3) a b for ethane a = 5. Sol : 74.3 0. Secretariat) Hyderabad. (Opp. Total no.0562 ease of liquefaction ∝ 69. 0.e.
s of lanthanides is +3. Sol : 84. 4) Formaldehyde and Acetaldehyde can be oxidized by tollen’s reagent to give silver mirror. Saifabad. Secretariat) Hyderabad. (3) (3) `S’ can exhibit a minimum oxidation state of 2 (Ex. Sol : 78.AIEEE−2011−29 75. Sol : In [NiCl4 ] . 500 063.s. H2 S ) (3) In IF7 . Sol : 77. I undergoes sp3 d3 hybridisation (1) Vinyl group CH2 = CH − on ozonolosys give formaldehyde 82. Sol : 80.82BM = 76.8 ≅ 743 nm 85. 81. Sol : 83. Sol : (2 . n = 2 2− (2) µ = n ( n + 2 ) BM 2 ( 2 + 2 ) = 2. (Opp. Phone: 04066777000 – 03 Fax: 04066777004 .09 = 1000 5.2 = 0. Sol : (1) (3) The general o. FIITJEE (Hyderabad Classes) Limited. Sol : (2) 1 λ absorbed ⇒ = 1 1 + λ1 λ 2 1 1 1 = + 355 680 λ 2 ⇒ λ 2 = 742. 5914/B. only few elements exhibit +4 o.2 + 18 79. (2) Molefraction of solute ( X2 ) in aqueous solution = m 1000 m+ 18 5. Sol : (4) Stability of hydrides decreases down the group from NH3 to BiH3 as MH bond energy decreases.
303 nR log 2 v1 100 = 2.303 ×2 × 8.AIEEE−2011−30 86. Sol : (4) For an ideal gas. (Opp.of B atoms = × 5 ( One is missing) = 2 2 Therefore formula is A1B 5 = A 2B5 87. 4. 6trinitrophenol (3) 1 ×8 =1 8 1 5 Effective no. Sol : Effective no.k −1 2. KBr + KBrO3 in turn produces Br2 . 500 063. 5914/B. phenol can exhibit tautomerism 90. Sol : FIITJEE (Hyderabad Classes) Limited. v ∆S = 2. Sol : 88. Sol : (3) Phenol gives violet coloured comlex compound with neutral FeCl3 . for isothermal reversible process. 3) both 2pentanone.3 J mol−1.314 × log 10 = 38. with neutral FeCl3 (3) In acidic medium.of A atoms = 2 89. Phone: 04066777000 – 03 Fax: 04066777004 . benzoic acid gives pale dull yellow ppt. Saifabad. Secretariat) Hyderabad. Phenol reacts with Br2 (aq) to give 2. (2.
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