All team "One vision … One Mission

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The Ear
1. The Following is true about the tympanic membrane EXCEPT: a. It is rounded in shape. b. It is placed obliquely forming acute angle with meatus anteriorly and obtuse one posteriorly. c. The normal tympanic membrane is pearly white in color. d. The light reflex is due to the concave position of the membrane. 2. The following is true about the Eustachian tube EXCEPT: a. It ends 1 cm behind the posterior end of the inferior turbinate. b. The upper 1/3 is bony while the lower 2/3 is fibrocartilagenous. c. It is normally opened at rest. 3. Choose the correct answer: a. Ear washing is not contraindicated in traumatic perforation of the drum. b. Pathological perforation of the drum occurs at any site while traumatic ones occurs in pars tensa only. c. In ear washing, the sterile nozzle of the syringe is directed to the drum directly. d. Ear washing is indicated in the presence of fistula between the middle & inner ear. 4. Pain on mastication is present in: a. Acute mastoiditis. b. Otosclerosis. c. Furunculosis of the external ear. d. Allergic otitis externa. 5. Sagging of the postero-superior wall of the EAC occurs in: a. Acute mastoiditis. b. Furunculosis of the external ear. c. Otitis media. d. Petrositis. 6. The causative agent in otomycosis is: a. Aspergillus nigers & / or Candida albicans. b. Streptococci. c. Staphylococci. d. E.coli e. B. pyocyaneus. 7. Ramsy-Hunt syndrome is: a. Herpes-zoster affection of the geniculate ganglion of the facial nerve. b. Dysphagia in middle aged female. c. Dysphagia in old male. d. Sensory-neural deafness in newly born. 8. Stapedectomy is one line for treatment of: a. Otosclerosis. b. Otomycosis. c. Otitic barotrauma. d. Secretory otitis media. All team "One vision … One Mission" 1

9. Bloody discharge from the ear occurs in: a. Fracture base of the skull. b. Glomus jugular tumor. c. Haemorrhgic otitis media. d. Rupture drum. e. All of the above. f. Non of the above. 10. The most common cause of deafness in children: a. Acute otitis media. b. Secretory otitis media. c. Chronic otitis media. d. Cholesteatoma. 11. In traumatic ossicular disruption, all is true EXCEPT: a. The audiogram shows 55 dB loss. b. Separation of the icudo-stapedial joint is the commonest lesion. c. There is bulging drum. d. C.T scan is indicated. 12. Crescentic hairline is an otoscopic finding in: a. Otomycosis. b. Otosclerosis. c. Secretory otitis media. d. Acute otitis media. 13. Reservoir is a characteristic sign in: a. Acute mastoid abscess. b. Acute otitis media. c. Chronic otitis media. d. Secretory otitis media. 14. Gradinigo syndrome occurs in: a. Acute mastoid abscess. b. Acute petrositis. c. Chronic otitis media. d. Secretory otitis media. 15. Griesinger's sign is: a. Edema & tenderness over the posterior border of the mastoid process. b. Unilateral pulsating otorrhoea. c. Vertigo & nystagmus on increasing the pressure of the EAC. d. Tenderness on the tip of mastoid bone. 16. Fever in lateral sinus thrombosis is: a. Intermittent. b. Remittent. c. Low grade. d. High grade.

All team "One vision … One Mission"

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17. Tobey-Ayer's test is a characteristic sign in: a. Brain abscess. b. Lateral sinus thrombosis. c. Extradural abscess. d. Meningitis. e. Cavernous sinus thrombosis. 18. Pain in acute tonsillitis is referred to the ear through: a. The 5th nerve. b. The 9th nerve. c. The 10th nerve. d. 2nd & 3rd cervical nerve. 19. Pain in acute sinusitis is referred to the ear through: a. The 5th nerve. b. The 9th nerve. c. The 10th nerve. d. 2nd & 3rd cervical nerve. 20. Pain in tempro-mandibular joint is referred to the ear through: a. The 5th nerve. b. The 9th nerve. c. The 10th nerve. d. 2nd & 3rd cervical nerve. 21. Pain in cancer larynx is referred to the ear through: a. The 5th nerve. b. The 9th nerve. c. The 10th nerve. d. 2nd & 3rd cervical nerve. 22. Pain in salivary calculi is referred to the ear through: a. The 5th nerve. b. The 9th nerve. c. The 10th nerve. d. 2nd & 3rd cervical nerve. 23. The fluids presents in secretory otitis media is: a. Mucopurulent. b. Serosanguinous. c. Exudates. d. Transudates. e. Mixture of exudates & transudates. 24. The discharge in case of cholesteatoma is: a. Copious purulent. b. Copious offensive. c. Scanty offensive. d. Thick scanty creamy.

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In lesion of facial nerve at vertical part"below the nerve of stapedius" there is: a. In lesion of the facial nerve at the stylomastoid foramen. c. d. Loss of taste. b. b. c. Impairment of lacrimation. b. 32. b. e. b. d. The following is true about pure tone audiometry EXCEPT: a. d. f. In Weber's test: a. In perceptive deafness: sound is heard better in the healthy ear. It gives the possible cause of deafness. It measures the patency of the Eustachian tube. Endolymphatic sac surgery. c. It gives the type of deafness. It measures fixation and dislocation of the ossicular chain. Comparison of bone conduction of both ears at the same time. No impairment of lacrimation. It helps in follow up of the case. Impairment of salivation. Comparison between air & bone conduction of the same ear. c. No impairment of salivation. 29. d. The following is true about impedance audiometry EXCEPT: a. In conductive deafness: air conduction is better than bone conduction. In Rinne's test: a. Cerebro-spinal otorrhoea. c. Comparison of duration of bone conduction of the patient & the examiner. 27. b. In perceptive deafness: air conduction is better than bone conduction. In perceptive deafness: sound is heard better in the diseased ear. Schwabach's test is: a. It measures the sound emitted from the cochlea. Hyperacusis. It helps in hearing aid selection. 28. 31. e. In conductive deafness: bone conduction is better than air conduction. 30. In conductive deafness: sound is heard better in the diseased ear.M. c. Parotid fistula. d. In conductive deafness: sound is heard better in the healthy ear. It measures the sound emitted from the cochlea. It gives the amount of the hearing loss in dB.L of the facial muscles. L. In perceptive deafness: bone conduction is better than air conduction. d. 26. c. c. d. All team "One vision … One Mission" 4 .25. It measures the pressure changes in the middle ear.N. Acute otitis media. All of the above. No impairment of taste. b. there is: a. b. Watery discharge from the ear occurs in all of the following EXCEPT: a.

Dropping of angle of the affected side. b. Paralysis of the muscles of the lower & upper 1/2 of the face on the opposite side. 40. Virus infection. Hyperacusis. Paralysis of the muscles of the lower & upper 1/2 of the face on the same side.33. All team "One vision … One Mission" 5 . Impairment of lacrimation. there is: a. Impairment of salivation. Hypotonia. Hyperacusis. c. 35. The early symptom of Bell's palsy is: a. Vascular ischemia. Paralysis involves the voluntary. d. b. Internal facial auditory meatus. Cerebellopontine angle. Pain of acute onset behind the ear. b. Loss of taste. Paralysis involves the voluntary but spares the emotional & associative movement. Impairment of salivation. d. b. In LMNL of the facial nerve. 39. In LMNL of the facial nerve. Obliteration of the angle of the mouth. All of the above. c. c. d. Paralysis of the muscles of the lower 1/2 of the face on the opposite side. 36. c. Loss of taste. b. d. In lesion of the facial nerve at the geniculate ganglion. Hypotonia. The cause of Bell's palsy may be one of the following EXCEPT: a. 34. Paralysis of the muscles of the lower 1/2 of the face on the opposite side. Hyporeflexia. b. e. Impairment of lacrimation. b. e. All of the above. Auto immune. 38. there is: a. c. Paralysis involves the voluntary but spares the emotional & associative movement. b. d. c. d. Bacterial infection. there is: a. d. c. there is: a. emotional & associative movement. In UMNL of the facial nerve. Reaction of degeneration. In lesion of the facial nerve at horizontal part. e. Inability to close the eye. Geniculate ganglion. 37. there is: a. Hyporeflexia. Stylomastoid foramen. c. Bell's palsy is LMNL at the level of: a.

Protein diminished. 44. c. c. e. b. Reconstruct the ossicles. c. Throbbing. The aim of radical mastoidectomy is: a. To preserve hearing. Dull aching. Mastoiditis. d. a. 48. c. Reconstruct the tympanic membrane. Reconstruct the tympanic membrane. Intra cranial complications of chronic suppurative otitis media includes: a. It is an endolymphatic hydrops. The pain in acute suppurative otitis media in the suppurative stage is: a. All are correct about Meniere's disease EXCEPT: a. Extra cranial complications of chronic suppurative otitis media includes: a. e. c. b. The type of deafness is conductive. Decompression of the labyrinth is indicated if the vertiginous attack is crippling. c. Brain abscess. d. c. b. b. CSF examination in case of meningitis shows: a. b. 47. Males are more affected than females. c. d. Meningitis.41. Boring. d. Cranial complications of chronic suppurative otitis media includes: a. b. Mastoiditis. Facial nerve paralysis. All of the above. Labyrinthitis. Otitis externa. The aim of modified radical mastoidectomy is: a. b & c. To give safe ear. Mastoiditis. b. 43. d. 45. Sugar diminished. b. Chloride diminished. 46. All team "One vision … One Mission" 6 . Reconstruct the ossicles. d. f. Cell count increased. Bezold abscess. Lateral sinus thrombosis. b. To give safe ear & to preserve hearing. Labyrinthitis. c & d. Burning. d. Petrositis. 42.

50. c. d. It is common in old diabetic. b. d. 54. The commonest organism is pseudomonas. c. Dull aching. 56. In malignant otitis externa all the following is true EXCEPT: a. b. 52. c. LMNL facial palsy. Burning. The pain in acute suppurative otitis media is more severe at: a. 55. c. c. c. There may be facial paralysis.49. 53. b. 20 times. Mainly treated surgically. The pain in acute suppurative otitis media in the catarrhal stage is: a. d. The pain in acute suppurative otitis media disappear after: a. Icudo-stapedial joint. Pure tone audiometry. b. Boring. Dome of the lateral semicircular canal. The middle ear magnifies the sound: a. b. The tympanic part of the facial nerve. Perforation of the drum. b. Profound hearing loss. d. b. Night. McEwen's triangle is the surface landmark of: a. ABR "Auditory Brain stem Response". 22 times. 200 times. Longitudinal fracture of the temporal bone may be associated with all of the following EXCEPT: a. Bulging of the drum. Rinne test. d. c. Congestion of the drum. The test of hearing in infants is: a. b. 21 times. All the day. d. d. Conductive hearing loss. c. Throbbing. Morning. Weber test. 51. Mastoid antrum. Mid-day. Traumatic perforation of the tympanic membrane. All team "One vision … One Mission" 7 .

c. Specific middle ear granuloma. The pathology in case of Bell's palsy is: a. b.57. All of the above. c. Local ear drops are highly indicated. d. Skin in a wrong place. The main treatment is conservative. Aural fullness. d. It heals spontaneously within 3 months. Benign middle ear tumor. Stapedial reflex. 58. b. 61. Cut in the tympanic segment in the facial nerve. 62. Detection of acoustic neuroma. Vertigo. Deafness. c. b. Electromyography. b. Retracted tympanic membrane. c. d. Aphasia. Nerve excitability test. d. In traumatic rupture of the drum. d. 64. Non of the above. all are true EXCEPT: a. Electroneurography. All of the above. 60. b. All team "One vision … One Mission" 8 . 63. d. Hemi paresis. b. Cholesteatoma is: a. The earliest manifestation of cavernous sinus thrombosis is: a. d. b. Edema of the facial nerve inside its bony canal. Hemorrhage in the facial nerve nucleus. Test of hearing in retrochoclear lesion. b. Early acute suppurative otitis media is manifested by: a. Test of hearing in malingering. Ophthalmoplegia. 59. Proptosis. c. The following are the manifestations of temporal lobe abscess EXCEPT: a. ABR "Auditory Brain stem Response" is used in: a. The most accurate diagnostic test to detect degeneration of the facial nerve: a. d. c. Convulsive fits. Facial nerve tumor. c. Fever. Ptosis. c. It may be caused by longitudinal fracture of the temporal bone.

71. Mastoiditis. 70. d. d. 72. Above the ear. Pneumococci. b. c. c. UMNL 7th cranial nerve palsy. c. Ototoxicity. b. 69. Petrositis. Bezold's abscess is a swelling: a. Furunculosis of the external auditory canal. c. The most common vertigo is: a. 68. Petrositis. Below the ear in the neck. Labyrinthitis. d. d. b. 66. Behind the ear. Unilateral hearing loss with pulsating tinnitus is suggestive of: a. LMNL 7th cranial nerve palsy. c. Meningitis. Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo. Conductive deafness is the main presentation of: a. b. Meniere's disease. Extradural abscess. UMNL 5th cranial nerve palsy. In front of the ear. LMNL 5th cranial nerve palsy. Otosclerosis. All team "One vision … One Mission" 9 . 67. d. Lateral sinus thrombosis. b. Haematoma auris. Ear wax. Streptococci. b. d. Non of the above. d. blurring of vision & vomiting is suggestive of: a. Moraxella catarrhalis. The intracranial complications of cholesteatoma are all of the following EXCEPT: a. b. d.65. Brain abscess. Inability to raise the eye brow & close the same eye with deviation of the angle of the mouth to the opposite side is: a. Glomus tumor. Pseudomonas aeroginosa. b. Acoustic neuroma. A case of ear infection followed by headache. c. Extradural abscess complicating CSOM. c. The commonest organism in malignant otitis externa: a. Acoustic neuroma. c.

c. Presbyacusis. c. Meniere's disease. All are true about the Eustachian tube EXCEPT: a. It opens in the oropharynx. b. d. c. Medical treatment. The promontory. Pure tone audiometry. Vestibular nerve section. Otosclerosis. b. The lateral semicircular canal. Acute exacerbation of CSOM. Lateral sinus thrombosis. 74. It ventilates the middle ear. b. 78. Mastoiditis. Labyrinthitis. The oval window. The following are tests of hearing sensitivity EXCEPT: a. b. It opens during swallowing. Extradural abscess. All of the above. Otosclerosis. All team "One vision … One Mission" 10 . In case of Meniere's disease with mild SNHL is treated by all the following EXCEPT: a. 80. b. Mixed hearing loss may be caused by one of the following: a. 76. b. 75. Tympanometry. d. Auditory Brain stem Response. c. d. Ear wax. Acute otitis media with small perforation. The medial wall of the middle ear shows the following EXCEPT: a. c. c. The pyramid. 79. d. Endolymphatic sac decompression. b. 77. Pulsating ear discharge may be found in: a. The triad of ear discharge. c. d. d. b. Acoustic neuroma. Apical petrositis. Fluctuant SNHL usually occurs in: a. c.73. All of the above. retro-orbital pain % 6th nerve paralysis is due to: a. Labyrinthectomy. It is wider & horizontal in children. Meniere's disease. d. d. Tuning fork tests.

85. Acute petrositis. Chronic otitis media. SNHL. All team "One vision … One Mission" 11 . 82. CT scan. b. b. The utricle. Persistent headache. c. d. Squint. Vertigo is a case of cholesteatoma is a suggestive of: a. b. Cholesteatoma only. d. Obliteration of retro-auricular sulcus. d. 86. 87. Facial palsy. The semicircular canal. Acute mastoiditis. headache. Insertion of Grommet tube is indicated in: a. vomiting & neck rigidity in a patient with cholesteatoma is an indication of: a. The saccule. Secretory otitis media resistant to medical treatment. d. d. b. b. Lumbar puncture. Vestibular neuritis. Fever. The earliest symptom in a case with cholesteatoma that indicates intracranial complication is: a. Lateral sinus thrombosis. Benign paroxysmal vertigo. 88. Lateral sinus thrombosis. c. Equilibrium during angular "rotational" movement is the function of: a. d.81. Tenderness over mastoid antrum. c. c. Fundus examination. b. Nystagmus & vertigo induced by pressure on the tragus is a sign of: a. b. All of the above. Continuous ear discharge. Temporal lobe abscess. Acute suppurative otitis media. c. The cochlea. Cerebellar abscess. Fever & rigor developing in a case of cholesteatoma is suggestive of: a. d. c. Acute mastoiditis is manifested by all of the following EXCEPT: a. c. Fistula complicating cholesteatoma. Labyrinthine fistula. 83. Sagging of postero-superior meatal wall. Labyrinthitis. 84. c. b.

The stylomastoid foramen. All of the above. Nasopharyngeal neoplasm. 93. Allergy. 96. A false +ve fistula test is due to: a. 90. All of the above. The concept that the facial nerve supplies the auricle is related to: a. d. b. 94. b. Following ear surgery. Otitis media with effusion. Cholesteatoma.89. c. Inadequate treatment of acute otitis media. Jugular foramen syndrome. Herpetic. c. d. Otitis media with effusion. c. Anesthesia of the face may be caused by: a. d. Otitic barotraumas. All team "One vision … One Mission" 12 . 92. Trigeminal paralysis. 91. Cholesteatoma bridging an inner ear fistula. d. b. 95. Facial paralysis. Hyper mobile footplate of the stapes. Bell's palsy. b. c. Ramsy-Hunt syndrome. Occulomotor paralysis. c. b. b. d. c. Neoplastic. The most common cause of otitis media with effusion is: a. c. Horner's syndrome. Malingering. Traumatic. Bell's palsy. d. Adhesive otitis media is a complication of: a. Tympanosclerosis. Labyrinthine fistula with dead ear. Otosclerosis. The tympanic segment. Non of them. Facial palsy is most commonly: a. b. The internal auditory canal. Both of them. b. d. Slowly progressive conductive deafness in middle aged female with normal drum & Eustachian tube function is most probably due to: a. d. The parotid gland. c. LMNL facial palsy with intact taste sensation of the anterior 2/3 of the tongue indicates injury at the level of: a.

c. Gramycin. Ear discharge & headache. a. anterior ethmoidal & frontal sinuses. Ear discharge & hearing impairment. d. c. The Nose 1. Stapedial reflex. The ostia of the maxillary. c. It is a disease of low immunity & low resistance. Loss of taste of the anterior 2/3 of the tongue. d. Ear discharge & dizziness. 3. Hyperacusis. c. The following drugs are ototoxic: Neomycin. The nasolacrimal duct. d. The ostia of the posterior ethmoidal sinuses. c. c. 98. Roof of the sinus. b. 2. 4. Saliclates. Electroneurography. 100. All are true about rhinoscleroma EXCEPT: a. b. b. It is endemic in Egypt. The inferior meatus receives the opening of: a. 99. c. The middle meatus contains: a. b. Schirmer test. d. Topognostic test is used in the assessment of facial paralysis include all the following EXCEPT: a. b. Between the medial wall & floor of the orbit. Loss of lacrimation of the ipsilateral eye. A patient with uncomplicated CSOM has: a. The anterior ethmoidal sinus. e. The posterior ethmoidal sinus. Ear discharge & fever.97. b. Complete LMNL facial paralysis due to acoustic neuroma may be associated by all the following EXCEPT: a. Kanamycin. b. d. Floor of the sinus. The maxillary sinus. d. b. The ostium of the maxillary sinus opens in: a. d. It is sub-epithelial inflammatory granuloma. Loss of stapedial reflex. All of the above. Gustatory test. Medial wall of the sinus. c. It runs in families due to genetic inheritance. All team "One vision … One Mission" 13 . Nasolacrimal duct.

d. 10. Rhinoscleroma. d. d. Rhinosporodosis. 7. c. 9. 8.B bacillus. c. Rhinosporodosis. 12. Sporozoon. d. Chronic sub-epithelial inflammatory granuloma of upper respiratory tract. Sarcoidosis. c. Treponema Ballidum.B bacillus. The causative agent of lupus vulgaris is: a. Rhinoscleroma.5. Sarcoidosis. c.B. c. Tuberculosis. Syphilis. b. c. Low virulent T. Gram –ve short capsulated diplobacillus. d. Tuberculosis. Rhinosporodosis. Tuberculosis. Perforation of bony part of the nasal septum occurs in: a. Aspergillosis. b. 6. Non caseating granuloma with histological picture similar to T. b. Sarcoidosis is: a. Syphilis. b. All team "One vision … One Mission" 14 . Rhinoscleroma. Rhinoscleroma. Treponema Ballidum. b. b. Syphilis. b. Russell bodies is a characteristic histological finding in: a. c. d. The causative agent of rhinoscleroma is: a. b. Infection with sporozoon. Spontaneous recovery is usual in: a. Mikulicz cell is a characteristic histological finding in: a. Keim test is positive in: a. c. 11. Sarcoidosis. Sarcoidosis. Gram –ve short capsulated diplobacillus. Aspergillosis. Sporozoon. Low virulent T. Sarcoidosis. Fungal infection of nasal mucosa. d. d.

b. Repair should be delayed for 3-10 days.B infection of nasal mucosa. d. d. Reddish in color. Rhinoscleroma. All team "One vision … One Mission" 15 . Tuberculosis. Type 1 hypersensitivity reaction. c. Grayish in color. b. Rigid & non mobile. Eosinophils in great numbers in nasal secretion is a finding in: a. Saroidosis. Unilateral nasal obstruction. Soft & mobile. Bilateral nasal obstruction. Lupus vulgaris. All of the above. c. Must not be followed by rebound congestion. The mechanism of nasal allergy is: a. Apple-jelly nodules of the nasal mucosa is a clinical finding in: a. 15. d. b. Must be isotonic & faintly alkaline.B of nose is represented by: a. 17. 20. F. Secondary to malignancy in the nose. 19. If a patient represented with edema & swelling after nasal trauma: a. b. 21. 18. c. H.influenza infection of the nose. T. The most common type of nasal polypi is: a. d. Type 2 hypersensitivity reaction. Unilateral nasal discharge. Allergic. c. Repair should be done immediately. d. Type 3 hypersensitivity reaction. Nasal furunculosis is due to: a. c. The ideal intranasal decongestant: a. b. Type 4 hypersensitivity reaction. Staphylococcal infection of a pilosebaceous gland. c. d. Acute rhinitis. Atrophic rhinitis. The allergic nasal polyp is: a. b. c. b. Fungal infection of nasal skin. b. 14. Bilateral nasal epistaxis. Chronic rhinitis. c. Must not damage the cilia. b. d. 16. Infective. Allergic rhinitis.13.

Surgery to canalize the stenosed canal. c. b. 25. Clear color. 26. d. 29. b. Sneezing is a prominent feature in: a. 28.22. Lamina papyracea. Inverted papilloma. b. Nasal drops. c. Antrochoanal polyp. All the following lines of treatment could be applied in rhinoscleroma EXCEPT: a. Chronic rhinitis. d. Allergic rhinitis. b. Containing glucose. Allergic nasal polyp. Bulla ethmoidalis. d. All are true about the treatment of CSF rhinorrhea EXCEPT: a. d. The most common site of origin of allergic nasal polpi is: a. d. c. 24. Rhinoscleroma. Haitaus semilunaris. d. c. Chronic rhinitis. Ethmoidal sinus. Rifampicin. 23. b. d. Cleaning & sterilization of the skin of the nasal vestibule. Anterior ethmoid presents bulge in the middle meatus called: a. CSF rhinorrhea. Acute rhinitis. 27. Cytotoxic drugs. c. d. Unilateral polypoidal mass arising from the lateral wall of the nose in 55 years old man is most probably: a. b. b. c. Watery nasal discharge is a finding in: a. Atrophic rhinitis. c. Concha bullosa. Maxillary sinus. Atrophic rhinitis. Sediment formation after standing in a test tube. All team "One vision … One Mission" 16 . Treatment of the cause. Allergic rhinitis. CSF rhinorrea is characterized by all of the following EXCEPT: a. Laser surgery. Frontal sinus. Accelerated flow rate with straining. Antibiotics to avoid infection. Sphenoid sinus. c. b.

b. In diabetes. Elevated serum IGE. Perforation of the bony part of the nasal septum may be due to: a. Leprosy. d. Persistant nasal obstruction. All of the above. b. b. b. b. b. c. d. At puberty. Palatal paralysis. b. Fluid level. Dental origin. Esinophilia in blood.B. All of the above. d. d. At pregnancy. Post nasal discharge may occurs: a. d. d. Orbital origin. 34. Radiological finding of sinusitis include all of the following EXCEPT: a. d.B. c. Opacity of the affected sinus. c. 36. Leprosy. Syphilis. All team "One vision … One Mission" 17 . b. Bone destruction. Syphilis. Attack of severe epistaxis. c. The main presenting symptom of ethmoidal nasal polyp are all of the following EXCEPT: a. Perforation of the cartilaginous part of the nasal septum may be due to: a. c. Nasal origin.30. Cleft palate. All of the above. 32. d. c. 35. Rhinorrhea. Nasal regurgitation occurs in all of the following EXCEPT: a. 33. c. T. Lupus. 31. T. Which of the following is used to confirm nasal allergy: a. Ethmoid carcinoma. c. Unilateral chronic maxillary sinusitis is usually of: a. Esinophilia in nasal secretion. Advanced maxillary sinus carcinoma. 37. Lupus. All of the above. Mucosal thickening.

Non of the above. Little's area is the site of anastomosis of the following arteries EXCEPT: a. 40. b. Little's area. 43. Pyriform fossa. 39. Unilateral nasal obstruction in newly born infant may be due to: a. Mac ewing triangle. Unilateral mucopurulent & purulent nasal discharge may be due to: a. c. c. c. Responses to rifampicin. c. The frontal mucocele may be caused by: a. Resistant epistaxis from below the middle turbinate requires ligation of: a. Anterior ethmoidal artery. Ulceration of the surrounding tissue. b. b. d. FB in the nose.38. c. The sphenopalatine artery. Adenoid abscess. b. The anterior ethmoidal artery. Non of them. c. Hard-like nodules. d. c. Chronic frontal sinusitis. Sphenopalatine artery. Antrochoanal polyp. b. All team "One vision … One Mission" 18 . d. b. Sphenoethmoidal recess. All of them. The maxillary artery. Nasopharyngeal angiofibroma. Allergic nasal polyp. 44. d. Renal failure. d. 46. All of the above. Choanal atresia. All of them. b. The following are some general causes of epistaxis EXCEPT: a. Anemia. Histopathology shows Mikulicz cells. Rhinoscleroma characterized by the following EXCEPT: a. d. Non of them. 41. 45. Arterial hypertension. c. b. Obstruction of a duct of a mucus gland. d. Unilateral sinusitis. 42. b. Post nasal discharge may occurs in: a. The most common site of nasal bleeding is: a. c. The internal jugular vein. Greater palatine artery. Acute & chronic sinusitis. Ascending pharyngeal artery. d.

Orbital. Malignant. d. d. d. d. Extradural abscess. Subperiosteal abscess. b. Maxillary sinusitis. Quinine. d. Ampicllin. c. Infective. c. 5th cranial nerve. The following lesions may leads to proptosis EXCEPT: a. d. Non of the above. Nasopharyngeal carcinoma cause Horner's syndrome as a result of infiltration of: a. Fistula formation. Nasopharyngeal carcinoma. The commonest cause of nasal polypi is: a. 50. c. 51. b. 54. c. Cervical sympathetic chain. Nasopharyngeal angiofibroma. Extradural abscess. c. b. d. c. Periodic headache is a characteristic symptoms in: a. Allergic. c. Adenoid hypertrophy. Traumatic. b. Salicylates. Brain abscess. The following drugs can cause epistaxis EXCEPT: a. b. 7th cranial nerve. Ethmoidal sinusitis. Nasopharyngeal sarcoma. Infective. Osteomylitis of the maxillary & frontal bone. 3rd cranial nerve. The following are cranial complications of sinusitis EXCEPT: a. Secondary to malignancy. 53. 48. c. Congenital. Anticoagulants. 49. Neoplastic. 52. The commonest complication of sinusitis is: a. d.47. Frontal sinusitis. b. The commonest cause of CSF rhinorrhea is: a. b. All team "One vision … One Mission" 19 . Meningitis. b.

The main manifestation of antrochoanal polyp is: a. b. Septal perforation. Angiofibroma. 57. Nasal allergy. Cauterization. Septal haematoma.55. Non symptomatic deviated nasal septum needs: a. Infective. The following is complication of SMR of deviated nasal septum: a. b. Toxic headache. All the day. Sub-mucperichondrial resection. 56. Bilateral choanal atresia. Headache in sinusitis is due to: a. b. c. d. Septoplasty. Alternating nasal obstruction is mainly: a. b. 58. Vacuum headache. Periodic. Neoplastic. The time of occurrence of headache in frontal sinusitis: a. b. Tension headache. c. d. d. Sneezing. b. c. At night. Proptosis. 60. Allergic nasal polypi. Acute laryngitis. All of the above. The commonest cause of epistaxis in 50 years old man is: a. c. Antrochoanal polyp. All team "One vision … One Mission" 20 . Adenoids. b. Allergic. Non of them. All of the above. 62. Hypertension. c. c. d. b. d. No treatment. d. Cyclic asphyxia is the presenting symptom is: a. Headache. c. d. Septal abscess. 61. c. 59. Unilateral nasal obstruction. Non of them. d.

b. b. The posterior part of the middle meatus. Non of them. Unilateral nasal discharge and unilateral nasal obstruction in 13 years old boy is most probably diagnostic of: a. 65. c. c. 66. Remittent fever. All over the middle meatus. c. c. 67. d.63. The inferior meatus. Non of them. The anterior part of the middle meatus. In frontal sinusitis. The inner canthus. The inner canthus. Adenoids. Intermittent fever. The infra-orbital margin. In ethmoidal sinusitis. b. No fever. The point of tenderness in acute frontal sinusitis is: a. 69. 70. d. The posterior part of the middle meatus. c. Non of them. 68. The supra-orbital margin. Nasopharyngeal carcinoma. d. the discharge is in: a. The point of tenderness in acute ethmoidal sinusitis is: a. Choanal atresia. The infra-orbital margin. All team "One vision … One Mission" 21 . The supra-orbital margin. 64. c. d. b. The inferior meatus. b. the discharge is in: a. The inferior meatus. The anterior part of the middle meatus. c. The infra-orbital margin. The supra-orbital margin. Non of them. c. The posterior part of the middle meatus. d. All over the middle meatus. The point of tenderness in acute maxillary sinusitis is: a. d. Low grade fever. In maxillary sinusitis. the discharge is in: a. All over the middle meatus. d. The anterior part of the middle meatus. The inner canthus. b. b. Chronic sinusitis has: a. d. b.

d. d. The nasolacrimal duct opens in: a. c. Cervical origin. Non of them. Catarrhal inflammation. Headache may be due to: a. 78. Mucopurulent fluid in the maxillary sinus indicates: a. 75. Neurogenic origin. Headache may be due to: a. d. Suppurative inflammation with reversible pathology. 72. Headache may be due to: a. Suppurative inflammation with irreversible mucosal damage. Suppurative inflammation with reversible pathology. Superior meatus. d. b. Non of them. b. b. c. 76. b. Allergic sinusitis. d. Catarrhal inflammation. Non of the above. All of them. b. Purulent fluid in the maxillary sinus indicates: a. b. Suppurative inflammation with irreversible mucosal damage. Temporal arteritis. 73. 74. Suppurative inflammation with irreversible mucosal damage. Middle meatus. c. Catarrhal inflammation. c. Suppurative inflammation with reversible pathology. Allergic sinusitis. d. All team "One vision … One Mission" 22 . Eye origin. All of them.71. Mucoid fluid in the maxillary sinus indicates: a. b. Suppurative inflammation with reversible pathology. Non of them. Watery fluid in the maxillary sinus indicates: a. All of the above. Inferior meatus. Allergic sinusitis. d. c. c. Allergic sinusitis. d. Suppurative inflammation with irreversible mucosal damage. b. Sinus origin. Dental origin. c. 77. c. Catarrhal inflammation.

Hypotension. d. Wound sepsis. c. d. Anemia. b. Rising of blood pressure with slipping ligature. Headache may be due to: a. All of the above. c. Unilateral nasal discharge. Unilateral obstruction. d. 80. Headache may be due to: a. Injury of the pharyngeal muscle. Low grade fever. b. Injury of the pharyngeal muscle. Headache may be due to: a. b. Allergic origin. The cause of secondary hemorrhage is: a. d. Unprepared patient. All of the above. d. c. Unilateral epistaxis. Rising of blood pressure with slipping ligature. Premenstrual. All of the above. d. Intermittent fever. Psycogenic. b. 82. b. b. c. 2. 4. Constipation. Hypoglycemia. FB in the nose may be characterized by: a. Injury of the pharyngeal muscle. c. c. c. Non of them. d. c. Fever in diphtheria is: a. d. 3. The pharynx 1. Unprepared patient. High grade fever. Rising of blood pressure with slipping ligature. The cause of primary hemorrhage is: a. Wound sepsis. Unprepared patient. Wound sepsis. All of the above.79. b. 81. The cause of reactionary hemorrhage is: a. Remittent fever. b. All team "One vision … One Mission" 23 . Non of the above.

b. 12. Agranulocytosis. c. Boreli vencenti. b. Barr-epestin virus. 6. Paul-bunnell test is diagnostic for: a. 11. 8. Herpes simplex. Barr-epestin virus. Streptococci. Candida albicans. d. 10. Synchronous with the temperature. b. c. temp 38° & pulse 180/min. d. Barr-epestin virus. c. Boreli vencenti. b.5. d. Candida albicans. Infectious mononucleosis. TB. d. Weak rapid pulse. The causative agent of infectious mononucleosis: a. Acute follicular tonsillitis. Herpes zoster. c. Candida albicans. In a case of 5 years old boy with a membranous faucial lesion . The causative agent of thrush stomatitis is: a. d. b. c. 9. Diphtheria. Full bounding pulse. b. d. Infectious mononucleosis. b. Streptococci. c. The causative agent of vincent`s agent: a. All team "One vision … One Mission" 24 . Acute follicular tonsillitis. All of the above. d. Diphtheria. Pharyngeal ulcer may be due to: a. Infectious mononucleosis. Non synchronous with the temperature. Membranous tonsillitis may be due to : a. b. d. All of the above. Thrush stomatitis. the pulse in diphtheria is: a. c. 7. Streptococci. c. Diphtheria. Boreli vencenti. the most probable diagnosis is: a. Acute follicular tonsillitis.

Precancerous condition. b. d. Non of the above. b. Acute retropharyngeal abscess is treated by: a. Cephalosporin. 17. Non of the above. b. Skin diseases (linchen planus). Pharyngeal ulcer may be due to: a. External drainage posterior to sternomastoid. Non of the above. Suppuration of the retropharyngeal gland. c. External drainage posterior to sternomastoid. Syphilis. Diphtheria bacilli. All of the above. 21. 14. Para Pharyngeal abscess.13. c. Acute tonsillitis may cause all of the following EXCEPT: a. d. d. 18. The following antibiotic is contraindicated in infectious mononucleosis : a. d. d. c. Quinsy. Inflammatory condition. c. c. AIDS. External drainage anterior to sternomastoid. Adenoid hypertrophy may lead to all of the following EXCEPT: a. All team "One vision … One Mission" 25 . Internal drainage via longitudinal incision. Sensory neural deafness. Chronic retropharyngeal abscess. c. Night mares. 19. 15. Chronic retropharyngeal abscess is caused by: a. d. c. c. Erythromycin. d. Leucoplakia of the oral & pharyngeal mucosa is: a. b. External drainage anterior to sternomastoid. Ampicillin. Adenoid face. All of the above. Chronic retropharyngeal abscess is treated by: a. d. TB of bodies of the cervical vertebrae. 20. b. c. b. Internal drainage via longitudinal incision. Acute retropharyngeal abscess. d. Toxic (heavy metals). 16. Otitis media with effusion. Behcet's syndrome. b. b. Toxic condition. b. Non of the above. Blood diseases. Pharyngeal ulcer may be due to: a. Malignant condition.

Cellulitis in the parapharyngeal space. b. d. Sensory neural deafness. Malignancy. All team "One vision … One Mission" 26 . 28. the possible cause of death in case of juvenile nasopharyngeal angiofibroma is: a. b. CHL. Bleeding. b. d. c. TB of bodies of the cervical vertebrae. Mixed deafness. Juvenile nasopharyngeal angiofibroma spread to the surrounding tissue because it is: a. 26. Highly vascular. d. b. The most dangerous complication of ludwig`s angina is: a. 25. d. c. Ludwig's angina is: a. Pre-malignant. Acute retropharyngeal abscess is caused by: a. Nasal obstruction. 24. 27. 23. c. Suppuration of the retropharyngeal gland. c. Non of the above. Malignant. Acute laryngeal edema. All of the above. Cellulitis of the floor of the mouth. c. 29. b. Juvenile nasopharyngeal angiofibroma. Recurrent infection. c. Ludwig's angina. Retropharyngeal abscess. d. Upper respiratory tract obstruction. is a clinical manifestation of: a. c. Soft friable tissue. c. The cause of bleeding in cases of juvenile nasopharyngeal angiofibroma is: a. Non of the above. Diphtheria bacilli. Non of the above. b. d. b. Sever epistaxis. Frog face appearance. Conductive deafness.22. Non capsulated. d. Juvenile nasopharyngeal angiofibroma may cause: a. d. Non muscle coated blood vessels. Cellulitis in the retropharyngeal space. b. Cellulitis of the pyriform fossa. Non capsulated.

33. c. 37. c. Tonsillectomy is indicated in all of the following EXCEPT: a. Non of the above. d. Postcricoid carcinoma. d. All team "One vision … One Mission" 27 . Trotter's syndrome occurs in: a. Posterior to tonsils. Symptoms of septic focus. Non of the above. Malignant hypertension. The swelling in acute retropharyngeal abcess is: a. c. Diphtheria carrier. Tonsillectomy is indicated in all of the following EXCEPT: a. During epidemic of polio. c. d. Nasopharyngeal carcinoma. b. Hypopharyngeal carcinoma. c. Postcricoid carcinoma. The most common site of quinsy is: a. 36. 6th nerve paralysis occurs in the following cases EXCEPT: a. Appears from outside the neck. Locally malignant tumor. Nasopharyngeal carcinoma. b. Chordoma is: a.30. b. d. b. b. 32. Uncontrolled diabetes. Cavernous sinus thrombosis. d. During menses. b. Blood diseases. d. Benign tumor. 38. Malignant tumor. b. b. Tonsillectomy is contraindicated in all of the following EXCEPT: a. Tonsillectomy is contraindicated in all of the following EXCEPT: a. Lateral to the middle line. During epidemic of polio. After peritonsillar abscess. c. After peritonsillar abscess. 34. d. c. c. Inferior to the tonsils. Petrositis. Impacted FB. During acute attack. b. d. Tumors of tonsils. Full stomach. Lateral to tonsils. Oropharyngeal carcinoma. Chronic tonsillitis. Superior to tonsils. d. c. 31. 35. Diphtheria carrier. In the middle line.

Injury of the pharyngeal muscles & mucosa. b. c. 41. d. 45. Extubation spasm. To detect bleeding. d. c. 12th nerve. b. b. Secondary infection. Primary. Reactionary. 5th nerve. All of the above. 43. Inhalation of vomitus or blood clots. Secondary. All team "One vision … One Mission" 28 . b. d. The cause of reactionary hemorrhage after tonsillectomy: a. d. d. Non of the above. Injury of the pharyngeal muscles & mucosa. All of the above. b. 46. c. 10th nerve.39. Secondary infection. To prevent backward falling of tongue. c. d. b. c. Hemorrhage within the 24 hours following tonsillectomy: a. 44. Primary. c. 9th nerve. Primary. The cause of suffocation & laryngeal spasm after tonsillectomy: a. To prevent inhalation of the vomitus or blood. b. Backward of the tongue. Rising blood pr with slipping of ligature. d. Secondary. Reactionary. 40. Rising blood pr with slipping of ligature. Non of the above. Non of the above. Non of the above. The cause of secondary hemorrhage after tonsillectomy : a. Pain in the ear in cases of acute tonsillitis or following tonsellictomy is referred via: a. b. Hemorrhage during the operation of tonsillectomy is: a. Hemorrhage 7 days following tonsillectomy operation is: a. Non of the above. The value of post-tonsillectomy position is: a. Reactionary. 42. c. Secondary. c. d.

b. b. c. 51. b. All of the above. d. Very sever local & systemic symptoms. 49.47. DM. d. Involves the prevertebral space. Linchen planus. Liver disease. Tendency to recur. d. 54. 48. SNHL. c. Cytotoxic drugs. Infection reaching the submental & submandibular space is called: a. Corticosteroids locally & systemic. Ludwig's tumor. Genital ulcer. Stomatitis. corneal opacity. Submandibular sialadenitis. c. Vincent angina is characterized by : a. Lupus erthromatosis. c. Non of them. All of the above. b. Vincent angina. e. All team "One vision … One Mission" 29 . c. 50. d. The following metabolic disorder associated with stomatitis: a. Hemophilia. Very sever systemic symptoms & mild local symptoms. b. herps like lesion. Pemphigus. d. c. b. Uremia. 52. b. Bezold's abscess. Treatment of Behcet's disease consist of: a. Is seen in lateral X-ray of neck. Contraindication of tonsillectomy includes all of the following EXCEPT: a. Stomatitis associated with skin lesions: a. Occur most commonly in infants. d. irridocyclitis. Acute laryngeal abscess is characterized by all of the following EXCEPT: a. Conjunctivitis. Acute attack. Behcet's disease is characterized by a all of the following EXCEPT: a. b. d. One attack of quinsy 2 months ago. Very mild local & systemic symptoms. c. Very sever local symptoms & mild systemic symptoms. Usually occurs with TB of the cervical vertebra. d. c. Active rheumatic arthritis. 53. Antihistaminic.

Pain become throbbing. 58. d. b. Cystic hygroma. Lymph gland enlargement. 62. BULL NECK is known to occur in : a. Chronic tonsillitis. b. Plunging ranula. Pharyngeal pouch. 60. Chronic tonsillitis. c. The following are midline swelling EXCEPT: a. c. The following are submental swelling EXCEPT: a. Fever may become hectic. d. Quinsy. d. Acute tonsillitis. Feeble very rapid pulse is known to occur in: a. Thyroglossal duct cyst. d. c. All team "One vision … One Mission" 30 . Tumor of the sublingual salivary gland. d. Quinsy. c. Chronic tonsillitis. c.55. Dermoid cyst. Tonsillar diphtheria. 61. 56. Tonsillar diphtheria. c. c. b. d. Branchial cleft cyst. Dermoid cyst. d. The following are lateral swelling in neck EXCEPT: a. b. b. Acute tonsillitis. b. Quinsy. d. The following are swelling of the floor of the mouth EXCEPT: a. Tonsillar diphtheria. 59. The following signs of pus collection in quinsy: a. Suprahyoid thyroglossal cyst. Carotid body tumor. All of them. c. Acute tonsillitis. b. Thyroid isthmus nodule. Ranula. Submental LN. Dermoid cyst. Cystic hygroma. Low grad fever is known to occur in: a. b. Softening & fluctuation can be detected. 57.

c. c. 2. Postcricoid carcinoma. X-ray barium swallow showing tea-pot appearance is a finding in: a. Microcytic hypochromic. Fluids then to solids. X-ray barium swallow showing rat-tail appearance is a finding in: a. c. d. b. Fluid & solids at the same time. b. Solids then to fluids. 3. b. Non of the above. b. Solids then to fluids. The dysphagia in plummer-vinson syndrome start to: a. c. d. d. Pharyngeal pouch. Pre-malignant. d. Pharyngeal pouch. Locally malignant. 5. Plummer Vinson syndrome. Pharyngeal pouch. Both. c. Cardiac achalasia. 4. Malignant condition. Plummer-Vinson syndrome is: a. b. d. d. Corrosive oesophagitis. Fluid & solids at the same time. Plummer Vinson syndrome. The dysphagia in cardiac achalasia starts to: a. d. 6. All of the above. c. Cardiac achalasia. b. Cancer oesophagus. d. b. X-ray barium swallow showing parrot-peak appearance is a finding in: a. c. The anemia in Plummer Vinson syndrome is: a. c. Cancer oesophagus. 7. 8.The Oesophagus 1. Fluids then to solids. Cancer oesophagus. Non of the above. Non of them. All team "One vision … One Mission" 31 . Plummer-Vinson syndrome predispose to: a. Cancer larynx. Macrocytic. All of the above. Cancer oesophagus. Cardiac achalasia. b.

All team "One vision … One Mission" 32 . 14. d. Failure of relaxation of cardic sphincter. Compression of the oesophagus by abnormally located RT subclavian artery or double aorta. c. Progressive. 13. d. Regressive. b. c. d. Chronic superficial oesophagitis with web formation. Intermittent. b. b. b. Plummer Vinson syndrome. Dysphagia in cancer oesophagus is : a. d. b. b.9. Plummer Vinson syndrome. The cause of death in corrosive oesphagitis may be: a. 11. d. d. Cardiac achalasia. Cardiac achalasia is: a. Progressive. c. c. Pharyngeal pouch. Regressive. X-ray with barium swallow showing multiple stricture in the oesophagus ia a diagnostic finding in: a. Herniation of the pharyngeal mucosa via kllian dehiscence. Herniation of the pharyngeal mucosa via kllian dehiscence. c. Herniation of the pharyngeal mucosa via kllian dehiscence. Stridor due to laryngeal oedema. Chronic superficial oesophagitis with web formation. Failure of relaxation of cardic sphincter. PATRESON-BROWN-KELLY syndrome is: a. Failure of relaxation of crico-pharyngeal sphincter during swallowing leads to: a. Failure of relaxation of cardic sphincter. d. 12. Chronic superficial oesophagitis with web formation. Dysphagia in cardiac achalasia is: a. c. 15. Compression of the oesophagus by abnormally located RT subclavian artery or double aorta. Cancer oesophagus. Dehydration due to electrolytes imbalance. Stationary. d. c. Cardiac achalasia. Non of them. 16. 10. Both of them. Dysphagia lusoria is: a. c. Compression of the oesophagus by abnormally located RT subclavian artery or double aorta. b. Non of them. b. Chronic corrosive oesophagitis. Stationary. Intermittent.

Cardiac achalasia. Trachea & Bronchi 1. c. All team "One vision … One Mission" 33 . Inhaled smooth small FB is commonly arrested in: a. Rise of the blood carbon dioxide level. Infants. d. Which is true about laryngeal carcinoma: a. The larynx. 21. c. b. b. b. c. 2. b. Enlarged left atrium. d. c. Dysphagia may be due to: a. Cortisone in the acute stage is contraindicated. Is predisposed by smoking. Dysphagia may be due to: a. 19. Wash of the blood carbon dioxide level. Enlarged malignant gland. b. Pharyngeal pouch occurs mostly in: a. b. d. Vomiting is not encouraged. All are correct about corrosive oesophaditis EXCEPT: a. Non of the above. b. Old females. 18. d. 20. c. d. The right bronchus. c. Apnea immediately after opening the trachea is due to: a. Spontaneous rupture of the oesophagus. The trachea. Aneurysm of the aorta. Enlarged thyroid. d. Rise of the blood O2 level. Pharyngeal pouch. Plummer Vinson syndrome. b. Aneurysm of the ICA. Normal feeding is encouraged. c. The Larynx. All of the above. The commonest type is squamous cell carcinoma. d. Commoner in males. d. All of the above. The left bronchus. 3. Shock may occur due to electrolytes imbalance. Violent vomiting or large meal may cause: a. Mediastinal tumor. Adult males. All of the above.17. Old males. c.

30 years old female suffring form bilateral nasal obstruction. crusty nose. 6. Non of the above. At the junction of the anterior 1/3 with posterior 2/3 of the vocal cords. Pneumonia. The commonest cause of breathing difficulty after tracheostomy is: a.4. b. b. At the arytenoids. Epithelial degeneration. Vasomotor rhinitis. Allergic rhinitis. c. b. c. d. hoarseness of voice & stridor. c. Rhino laryngo scleroma. The left recurrent laryngeal nerve swing in the chest around: a. 10. Acute rhinosinusitis. Premalignant nodules. 8. Singer's nodules: a. Left main bronchus. Endoscopy & biopsy. b. The causative agent of acute laryngo-tracheal bronchitis is: a. CT. c. Laryngeal lesions are investigated by: a. Aortic arch. At the epiglottis. Allergic nodules. d. Obstruction of the tube by secretion. Left ventricle. The site of singer`s nodules is: a. c. c. d. Non of the above. b. The most probable cause is: a. d. b. c. Leucoplakia of the larynx is: a. b. 7. All of the above. 9. c. d. Epithelial hypertrophy. Epithelial hyperplasia. d. d. Surgical emphysema. d. Non of the above. Chronic infectious granuloma. Localized epithelial hyperkeratosis on the free edge of the vocal cord. 5. Thoracic duct. MRI. 11. Pneumococci. b. All team "One vision … One Mission" 34 . Pneumothorax. Staphylococci. Streptococcus haemolyticus.

Non of them. 14. 13. TB of the larynx. c. Laryngeal diphtheria. The posterior part. Malignant lesion. The anterior part. Non of the above. Scleroma of the larynx. The middle part. b. The subglottic part. c. Acute epiglottitis. The subglottic part. Both of them. All team "One vision … One Mission" 35 . Bilateral adductor paralysis. Children. Non of them. d. b. b. Scleroma of the larynx affects: a. The anterior part. Syphilis of the larynx affects: a. Acute laryngitis in adult. c. d. Adults. c. Multiple laryngeal papilloma. Precancerous. 19. Syphilis of larynx. Children. d. c. d. Multiple laryngeal papilloma occurs in: a. d. c. The following conditions cause stridor EXCEPT: a. Both of them. The middle part. The posterior part. Adults. 15. Painful cough & dysphagia occur in: a. Locally malignant lesion. b. c. d. The middle part. d. 17.12. b. Acute laryngitis in children. Single laryngeal papilloma is: a. TB of the larynx affects: a. b. The posterior part. Single laryngeal papilloma occurs in: a. Bilateral abductor paralysis. b. d. c. The anterior part. The subglottic part. d. Laryngoscleroma. b. The following conditions cause stridor EXCEPT: a. 20. 18. Lupus of the larynx. c. 16. b.

28. 22. A newborn with cyanosis and respiratory difficulty improved by insertion of an oral airway. 27. d. Mediastinal emphysema after tracheostomy occurs due to: a. Analgesics. Congenital bilateral choanal atresia. c. Both of them. b. b. Expectorants. d. b. c. Pneumothorax after trachestomy occurs due to: a. Non of them. Both of them. Acute laryngitis. The subglottic area. Congenital bilateral choanal atresia. c. Non of them. Injury of the pleura. Cyclic asphyxia is a manifestation of: a. c. The supraglottic area. The narrowest part in the infantile larynx is: a. Laryngeal web. Congenital laryngeal web. c. 25. All team "One vision … One Mission" 36 . d. b. Both of them.21. c. b. When small tube is used and a wide opening made in the trachea. d. Surgical emphysema after tracheostomy occurs due to: a. Non of the above. Injury of the pleura. When the skin is closed tightly. When the pretrachial fascia is sutured tightly. Both of them. b. 24. The pyriform fossa. Non of the above. Non of them. The most probable diagnosis is: a. Opiates. d. Injury of the pleura. Injury of the pleura. c. 23. When the pretrachial fascia is sutured tightly. Non of them. b. Non of them. d. b. Laryngomalacia. c. The following drug is contraindicated after tracheostomy: a. 26. d. Congenital subglottic stenosis. d. Surgical emphysema after tracheostomy occurs due to: a.

b. Pulled out by voilent cough. Endotracheal intubation. Partial obstruction of the bronchus. d. Congenital. b. Ventricular bands. Dyspnea. Injury of the pleura. c. c. d. d. c. On one side. Laryngeal stenosis may be due to: a. Sarcoidosis. d. All of the above. The tube may slip due to: a. d. b. b. c. Aryoepiglottic folds. All of the above. Laryngeal stenosis may be due to: a. Syphilis. 32. Semi-sitting. Vocal cords. Scleroma. b. Perichondritis. 33. Non of them. Valvular obstructive emphysema occurs due to: a. The best position after trachestomy: a. c. c. c. 30. Scleroma. d. All of the above. All of the above. c. 37. Syphilis. High tracheostomy. Loosely tied tape. 35. Complete obstruction of the bronchus. 34. Supine. Standing. Structures in the larynx responsible for sphincteric function: a. 31. Traumatic. When the pretrachial fascia is sutured tightly. d. Pneumothorax. Mediastinal emphysema. Laryngeal stenosis may be due to: a. All team "One vision … One Mission" 37 . 36. TB. d. c. Acute pulmonary edema.29. b. d. All of the above. b. Ulceration of the vocal cord edge (mouth nibbled) occurs in: a. Small sized tube. b. Scleroma. crepitation and expectoration of large amount of frothy stained sputum after trachestomy is suspected of: a. b. TB.

d. 64) b.d. 20) a. 88) a. 29) b. 29) f. 77) d. 62) c. 50) a. 47) d. 18) a. 44) f. 22) c. 72) c. 28) c. 68) a. 47) a.c. 15) c. 78) d. 65) b. 52) d. 70) b.b. 79) d. 51) d. 61) d. 82) d. 70) d. 91) b. 34) a. 93) c. 39) a. 83) b. 49) a. 16) a. 64) b. 15) b.b. 81) d. 48) d. 58) d. 13) c. 51) b. 23) b. 8) a. 8) a. 31) d.  The Nose 1) d. 49) a. 27) a. 41) b. 89) d. 31) e. 59) d. 17) b. 98) c. 100) e. All team "One vision … One Mission" 38 . 35) a. 73) d. 2) c. 17) d. 33) e.d. 74) a.e. 21) c.b. 27) b. 11) b. 79) b. 7) a. 66) d. 84) d. 24) b. 42) e. 26) a. 48) b. 86) d. 99) c. 16) b. 32) a. 60) b. 24) c. 12) b. 53) b. 19) b. 92) c. 71) c. 66) c. 42) c. 20) a. 36) c. 23) e. 81) a. 12) c. 60) d. 96) a. 59) b. 33) b. 5) a. 72) c. 46) a. 36) a. 78) c. 37) d. 80) d. 14) a. 90) b. 10) d. 5) a. 9) b. 55) a. 32) a. 71) d. 9) e. 13) a. 67) a. 3) a. 50) c. 54) d. 54) b. 65) a.c. 2) d. 4) c. 39) c. 6) a. 25) c. 38) c. 62) c. 73) c. 57) d. 67) b. 14) b. 55) b. 82) d.d. 43) a. 22) a. 25) a. 28) b. 57) b.c. 61) d. 74) b. 95) a. 37) b. 58) a. 45) c. 30) a. 18) b. 94) c. 46) d. 87) d. 45) b. 75) a. 97) d. 69) c. 68) c. 63) c. 76) d.c. 53) b. 56) d. 21) a. 3) b. 69) c.The Answers  The Ear 1) a. 75) d. 11) c. 56) a. 40) c. 34) e. 63) d.d. 76) b. 19) a. 85) c. 7) d.c. 77) d. 6) b. 80) b. 41) d. 26) a. 35) d. 40) d. 52) d. 43) b. 44) d.d. 30) d. 4) c. 10) b. 38) d.

20) c. 30) b. 54) d. 50) b. 5) d. 17) a. 53) a. 27) b. Trachea & Bronchi 1) c. 15) c. 11) a. 25) a. 4) c. ‫تم بحمد اهلل‬ All team "One vision … One Mission" 39 . 3) b. 4) a. 56) d. 47) d. 58) d. 16) a. 49) b. 39) c. 23) a. 13) d. 52) d. 7) d.  The Oesophagus 1) a. 30) a. 19) a. 9) a. 24) a. 2) d. 38) d. 33) a. 22) b. 35) d.  The Larynx. 48) c. 29) a. 31) a. 45) d. 5) a. 15) a. 10) d. 23) b. 25) b. 21) d. 43) b. 20) d. 51) c. 21) d. 4) b. 8) a. 11) c. 12) d. 29) b. 6) c. 36) d. 2) b. 62) a. 10) a. 36) a. 6) b. 17) c. 16) c. 12) a. 55) d. 15) b. 61) a. 18) b. 8) b. 46) d. 34) c. 7) d. 37) d. 22) b. 42) a. 13) d. 26) a. 12) c. 19) b. 40) b. 7) a. 31) d. 41) b. 5) a. 3) c. 19) d. 14) c. 10) d. 14) d. 35) c. 6) c. 16) a. 59) d. The Pharynx 1) a. 18) d. 28) c. 44) b. 21) a. 33) a. 11) c. 60) a. 32) a. 17) a. 3) c. 27) a. 18) b. 20) c. 9) b. 28) d. 37) a. 14) c. 13) d. 8) c. 24) b. 34) d. 57) d. 26) b. 32) b. 2) d. 9) b.

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