Exam Name___________________________________

MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) Which of following is a function of the skeletal system? A) protection of internal organs B) body support C) blood cell production D) calcium homeostasis E) all of the above 2) Which of the following bones is classified as "irregular" in shape? A) vertebra B) patella C) ulna 3) The carpal bones are examples of ________ bones. A) long B) sesamoid C) flat 4) A rib is an example of a ________ bone. A) short B) flat

D) frontal

E) metatarsal

D) short

E) irregular

C) long

D) sesamoid

E) sutural

5) The region of a long bone between the end and the shaft is known as the ________. A) medullary cavity B) epiphysis C) osseophysis D) diaphysis E) metaphysis 6) Which of the following labels best matches osteocyte? A) secretes organic matrix C) dissolves matrix

B) stem cell D) mature bone cell

7) Cells that secrete the organic components of the bone matrix are called A) osteoclasts. B) osteocytes. C) osteoprogenitor cells. D) chondrocytes. E) osteoblasts. 8) ________ are squamous cells that develop into osteoblasts. A) Osteoclasts B) Squamous osteons C) Osteomedullary cells D) Osteocytes E) Osteoprogenitor cells


9) Through the action of osteoclasts, A) an organic framework is formed. B) bony matrix is dissolved. C) osteoid is calcified. D) fractured bones regenerate. E) new bone is formed. 10) Which of the following chemicals is not present in bone? A) calcium phosphate. B) hydroxyapatite. C) collagen fibers. D) chondroitin sulfate. E) calcium carbonate. 11) The narrow passageways that contain cytoplasmic extensions of osteocytes are called A) canaliculi. B) medullary cavities. C) foramina. D) lacunae. E) central canals. 12) The central canal of an osteon contains A) osteocytes. B) lacunae. C) blood vessels. D) bone marrow. E) concentric lamellae. 13) The interconnecting tiny arches of bone tissue found in spongy bone are called A) interstitial lamellae. B) concentric lamellae. C) trabeculae. D) osteons. E) lacunae. 14) The type of bone that is adapted to withstand stresses that arrive from many directions is ________ bone. A) lamellar B) spongy C) trabecular D) compact E) irregular 15) The medullary cavity of bones contains A) cartilage. B) compact bone. C) osteons. D) periosteum. E) marrow.


16) The shaft of a long bone is called the A) diaphysis. B) epiphysis. C) metaphysis. D) epiphyseal plate. E) lamella. 17) The lining of the medullary cavity is called the A) periosteum. B) perimysium. C) endosteum. D) perichondrium. E) epimysium. 18) What structure allows a bone to grow in length? A) periosteal bud B) metaphysis C) epiphyseal plate D) lacunae E) trabeculae 19) The following are major steps in the process of intramembranous ossification. 1. 2. 3. 4. Clusters of osteoblasts form osteoid that becomes mineralized. Osteoblasts differentiate within mesenchymal connective tissue. Spicules of bone radiate out from the ossification centers. Mesenchymal cells aggregate.

The correct order for these events is A) 4, 2, 1, 3. B) 4, 1, 2, 3.

C) 2, 3, 1, 4.

D) 2, 1, 3, 4.

20) Which of the following is formed by intramembranous ossification? A) roof of the skull B) carpal bones C) femur D) clavicle E) both A and D 21) Endochondral ossification begins with the formation of a(n) A) cartilage model. B) osteoblasts model. C) calcified model. D) membranous model. E) fibrous connective-tissue model.


24) When production of sex hormones increases at puberty. C) thyroid hormone. 4. 4 .22) The following are important steps in the process of endochondral ossification. Enlarged chondrocytes die. D) in the epiphyses. 4. D) calcitonin. 2. B) is released by some cancer tumors. 4. 4. E) increases the activity of osteoclasts. 26) Elevated levels of calcium ion in the blood stimulate the secretion of the hormone A) parathyroid hormone. 3. D) 2. D) potassium. 3. 5. 1. 1. 5. 23) Secondary ossification centers occur A) in the metaphyses. E) get wider. but mostly in thickness. D) accelerate rapidly. E) in dermal bones. 4. except that it A) produces a severe osteoporosis. Osteoblasts replace calcified cartilage with spongy bone. B) 1. E) sodium. 5. 2. B) phosphorus. 5. C) 3. 3. 5. 3. B) become narrower. D) increases the number of osteoclasts. 5. 1. E) 3. 2. C) is released in large amounts early in life. 4. 27) Osteoclast-activating factor does all of the following. Chondrocytes enlarge and the surrounding matrix begins to calcify. Perichondrial cells become osteoblasts and produce a thin shell of bone. epiphyseal plates A) are hardly affected. E) growth hormone. B) in the diaphysis. 25) The most abundant mineral in the human body is A) hydrogen. C) calcium. 1. B) testosterone. The correct order for these events is A) 1. C) increase slowly. 2. 2. Blood vessels invade the perichondrium. C) at the periosteum.

E) decrease the rate of calcium excretion. C) the organic matrix of bone. 33) A lack of exercise could A) cause bones to become thicker. D) stimulate osteoblasts and inhibit osteoclasts. E) the hormone thyroxine. C) the bone compensates by becoming thinner in the region of stress. D) cause bones to store more calcium. B) cause bones to become longer. A) osteoclast activity increases. 30) Excessive growth hormone prior to puberty could result in A) rickets. B) vitamin D. B) decreases the rate of calcium excretion. C) result in porous and weak bones. C) osteopenia. D) vitamin C. D) increasing osteoclast activity. C) vitamin A. C) decrease the rate of calcium absorption. 31) Factors that are necessary for proper bone formation include all of the following. B) giantism.28) The hormone calcitonin functions to A) stimulate osteoclast activity. 5 . E) stimulates osteoclast activity. B) reducing osteoblast activity. D) the bone becomes thin and brittle. E) cause bones to lose their medullary cavity. E) dwarfism. B) it usually breaks. D) osteoporosis. C) inhibits calcitonin secretion. 29) Parathyroid hormone functions in all of the following ways. except A) vitamin E. 32) Vitamin D is necessary for A) absorption calcium and phosphate ions. D) raises the level of calcium ion in the blood. E) collagen formation. except that it A) increases the rate of calcium absorption. B) decrease the level of calcium ion in the blood. 34) When stress is applied to a bone. E) the minerals in the bone produce a weak electrical field that attracts osteoblasts.

D) crest. the thickened region that results is called the A) condyle B) epiphyseal plate C) fracture facet D) external callus E) dense tuberosity 37) ________ fractures are completely internal. A) compression B) Colles C) greenstick D) Pott E) displaced 39) Bones that develop within tendons are called ________ bones. E) foramen. A) Recurrent B) Closed C) Open D) Compound E) both B and D 38) A fracture at the ankle involving both lower leg bones is often called a ________ fracture.35) A condition in which bone becomes riddled with holes is called A) osteopenia. B) head. A) sesamoid B) tendon C) Wormian D) sutural E) irregular 40) Small. A) sagittal B) irregular C) tendon D) sesamoid E) sutural 41) The large proximal projection on the femur is termed the A) trochanter. E) fossa. E) tuberosity. E) trochlea. 42) A hole through a bone is termed a A) ramus. D) condyle. D) tubercle. C) osteomalacia. B) facet. D) osteoporosis. C) linea. D) fissure. 36) After a fracture of the diaphysis has healed. rounded articular process of a bone is termed a A) ridge. 44) A deep hollow on a bone is termed a A) line. B) tubercle. C) sulcus. 6 . 43) The smooth. B) facet. oddly shaped bones that fill gaps between bones of the skull are called ________ bones. B) osteomyelitis. C) condyle. E) osteitis. they do not break through the skin. C) ramus.

45) The space occupied by an osteocyte is called a A) lacuna. B) Volkmann's canal. C) trabecula. D) Venetian canal. E) Haversian canal. 46) The structural units of mature compact bone are called A) osteons. B) lamellae. C) osteocytes. 47) The deposition of calcium salts in bone tissues is referred to as A) osteogenesis. B) remodeling. C) hardening. D) calcification. E) ossification. 48) A child with rickets often has A) frequent bruises. B) bowed legs. C) inadequate muscle development. D) long fingers. E) oversized facial bones. 49) ________ bones develop inside tendons, commonly near the knees, hands, and feet. A) Irregular B) Flat C) Long D) Sesamoid 50) The humerus is an example of a(n) ________ bone. A) long B) short C) irregular

D) lacunae.

E) canaliculi.

E) Short

D) sesamoid

E) flat

51) The articular cartilage of a typical long bone is composed of what type of cartilage? A) synovial cartilage B) hyaline cartilage C) fibrocartilage D) osseous cartilage E) elastic cartilage 52) Fat is stored within the A) medullary cavity. B) diaphysis. C) epiphysis. D) metaphysis. E) spongy bone.


53) Which of the following is a characteristic of bone? A) The matrix of the bone is very dense and contains deposits of calcium salts. B) The matrix of the bone contains osteoclasts. C) Narrow channels pass through the matrix to allow for an exchange of nutrients. D) all of the above E) both A and C 54) ________ accounts for almost two-thirds of the weight of bone. A) Calcium phosphate B) Calcium carbonate C) Fluoride D) Water E) Collagen fibers 55) The ________ interactions allow bone to be strong, somewhat flexible, and highly resistant to shattering. A) protein-protein B) collagen-fiber C) hydroxyapatite-crystal D) protein-crystal E) mineral-crystal 56) The most abundant cell type in bone is A) osteolytes. B) osteoclasts. C) osteocytes. D) osteoblasts. E) osteoprogenitor cells. 57) ________ cells are located in the inner cellular layer of the periosteum. A) Osteoprogenitor B) Osteocyte C) Osteoblast D) Osteoclast E) Osteoid 58) In relationship to the diaphysis of a long bone, the osteons are A) proximal. B) anterior. C) diagonal.

D) radial.

E) parallel.

59) The femur can withstand ________ times the body weight without breaking. A) 8 B) 30 C) 5 to 10 D) 3 60) ________ marrow is found between the trabeculae of spongy bone. A) Yellow B) Gray C) Red

E) 10 to 15

D) Blue

E) White

61) ________ bone reduces the weight of the skeleton and reduces the load on muscles. A) Short B) Irregular C) Compact D) Long

E) Spongy


62) Intramembranous ossification begins with differentiation of ________ cells. A) mesenchymal B) osteocyte C) osteoprogenitor D) osteoblast E) osteoclast 63) Which of the following statements about Marfan's syndrome is false? A) results from a mutation B) results in short, stubby fingers C) affects connective tissue genes D) affects epiphyseal cartilages E) none of the above 64) Where in the body does the production of calcitriol start? A) liver B) skin C) kidneys D) bone E) small intestine 65) Bone plays a central role in the regulation of blood levels of A) potassium. B) sulfate. C) iron. 66) Bone is composed of ________ percent cells. A) 25 B) 15

D) sodium.

E) calcium.

C) 10

D) 50

E) 2

67) While on a school skiing trip in Colorado, Heidi falls and breaks her tibia and fibula in a Pott fracture. What would you expect as a prominent part of her clinical assessment several hours after the fall? A) erythema B) hematoma C) cyanosis D) hypertension E) tachycardia 68) The lacunae of osseous tissue contain A) capillaries. B) blood cells. C) chondroblasts. D) bone marrow. E) osteocytes. 69) How would removing hydroxyapatite from bone matrix affect the physical properties of a bone? A) The bone would be stronger. B) The bone would be less flexible. C) The bone would be more brittle. D) The bone would be more flexible. E) The bone would be less compressible.


E) osteoblasts are overwhelmed by osteocytes. D) too much calcium in the diet. B) thicker. E) are lined up in the same direction. D) calcified. C) will collapse under stress. B) interstitial bone growth begins. 76) Accelerated closure of the epiphyseal plates could be caused by A) an excess of growth hormone. C) denser. 72) If osteoclasts are more active than osteoblasts. bones A) become thicker. 73) During appositional growth A) the epiphysis fuses with the diaphysis. D) grow wider. B) bones grow longer. C) bones grow wider.70) In compact bone. B) are lined up perpendicular to the long axis. D) are separated by medullary spaces. the osteons A) are lacking in the diaphysis. B) high levels of vitamin D. E) become shorter. A) long bones have reached their adult length. C) are arranged in an irregular pattern. B) grow longer. 75) When cartilage is produced at the epiphyseal side of the metaphysis at the same rate as bone is deposited on the opposite side. E) stronger. D) bone is replaced by cartilage. C) puberty begins. B) are organized parallel to the long axis of the bone. 10 . E) the bone becomes more brittle. 74) When the epiphyseal plate is replaced by bone. E) too little thyroxine. D) appositional bone growth begins. 71) The trabeculae of spongy bone A) are concentrated in the cortex of the diaphysis. E) are organized along stress lines. bones will become A) osteopenic. C) become more porous and weaker. D) are composed mostly of cartilage. C) elevated levels of estrogen.

C) affects mostly women. which of the following would you expect to occur as a result of this condition? A) bone fragility B) decreased bone density C) increases in blood levels of calcium D) all of the above E) A and B only 83) Mary is 50 years old and has entered menopause. D) exercise will have no effect on bone remodeling. 81) Which of the following are not components of the skeletal system? A) bones B) other tissues that connect bones C) ligaments D) cartilage E) tendons 82) If a tumor secretes high levels of osteoclast-activating factor. B) there is no turnover of minerals. During a checkup. E) is caused by too much vitamin D in the diet. What hormone might she prescribe for her patient? A) calcitonin B) estrogen C) thyroid hormone D) parathyroid hormone E) growth hormone 11 .77) In normal adult bones. C) osteoclasts continue to be active long after osteoblast activity ceases. E) a portion of the protein and mineral content is replaced each year. once bone has been formed. A) osteoblast activity exceeds osteoclast activity. D) is rarely seen as people age. B) causes a gradual reduction in bone mass. Her physician suggests hormone therapy. 78) Which is greater? A) osteoclast activity when calcitonin is absent B) osteoclast activity when calcitonin is present 79) Which is greater? A) blood calcium levels when parathyroid hormone is decreased B) blood calcium levels when parathyroid hormone is increased 80) The condition known as osteopenia A) only affects the femur. a bone scan reveals the beginnings of osteoporosis.

Her physician suggests nutritional therapy. What might she recommend for her patient? A) Vitamin C B) calcium supplements C) Vitamin D D) all of the above E) A and C only Figure 6-1 Bone Tissue Use Figure 6-1 to answer the following question(s): 85) Which structure is termed an osteon? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) 5 86) Which structure is characteristic of spongy bone? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 87) The structure labeled "3" is the result of which process? A) bone cells adding matrix between existing osteons B) osteoporosis C) surface growth of bone D) remodeling of compact bone E) remodeling of spongy bone D) 4 E) 5 12 . a bone scan reveals the beginnings of osteoporosis.84) Mary is 50 years old and has entered menopause. During a checkup.

88) Identify the structures labeled "4." A) interstitial lamellae B) periosteum C) trabeculae D) circumferential lamellae E) concentric lamellae 89) Where would osteoclasts be most active? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) 5 Figure 6-2 Endochondral Ossification Use Figure 6-2 to answer the following question(s): 90) Where does growth in length occur? A) 1 B) 2 91) What type of tissue occurs at #1? A) hyaline cartilage B) fibrocartilage C) elastic tissue D) marrow tissue E) bone C) 3 D) 4 E) 5 13 .

" A) marrow cavity B) epiphysis C) metaphysis D) trabeculae E) diaphysis 95) Which of the following is not part of the axial division of the skeletal system? A) pectoral girdle B) hyoid bone C) auditory ossicles D) skull E) vertebral column 96) Which of the following is a function of the axial skeleton? A) provides an attachment for muscles that move the appendicular skeleton B) provides an attachment for muscles that move the head.92) What process is shown at #6? A) secondary ossification B) width growth C) length growth D) primary ossification E) fracture repair 93) Identify the structure at #4. A) sagittal B) lambdoidal C) rostral D) squamosal E) coronal 14 . A) hyaline cartilage B) periosteum C) spongy bone D) mesenchyme E) intramembranous bone 94) Identify the structure labeled "2. and trunk C) provides an attachment for muscles involved in respiration D) all of the above E) B and C only 97) The foramen magnum is found in the ________ bone. A) parietal B) temporal C) occipital D) frontal E) sphenoid 98) The suture that forms the articulation of the parietal bones with the frontal bone is the ________ suture. neck.

and parietal E) temporal. temporal. C) temporal process. except the ________ bone. A) frontal. E) both A and D 15 . parietal. temporal. B) jugular foramen. 104) Which of these is not one of bones of the face? A) vomer B) mandible C) maxilla D) zygomatic E) frontal 105) Each of the following landmarks is associated with the occipital bone except the A) occipital crest. B) muscles that stabilize the skull at the vertebral column. and occipital C) frontal. and occipital 100) Each of the following bones is a component of the orbital complex. D) condyloid process. parietal. C) superficial nuchal lines. D) muscles that turn the head. and occipital D) frontal. 106) The superior and inferior temporal lines mark the points of attachment for A) muscles that open and close the eye. D) hypoglossal canals. C) muscles that close the mouth. B) styloid process. A) nasal B) frontal C) sphenoid D) ethmoid E) lacrimal 101) The zygomatic arch is formed by the union of processes from which two bones? A) frontal and temporal B) sphenoid and temporal C) temporal and maxilla D) temporal and zygomatic E) zygomatic and maxilla 102) The external acoustic meatus is a foramen in which skull bone? A) vomer B) auditory ossicles C) temporal D) zygomatic E) parietal 103) The prominent bulge just posterior and inferior to the external auditory meatus is the A) mastoid process. temporal. and occipital B) frontal. parietal. E) occipital condyle. E) petrous process.99) The calvaria (or skullcap) is formed by the ________ bones.

109) Ligaments that support the hyoid bone are attached to the A) mastoid process. E) posterior clinoid process. B) mastoid cells. D) mastoid foramen. D) lateral palatine process. E) mandibular fossa. D) mastoid process. B) styloid process. 110) The facial nerve (N. C) cribriform plate.107) What organ is located in the lacrimal fossa? A) the inner ear B) the pituitary gland C) tear gland D) the frontal sinus E) the lacrimal ramus 108) A point of attachment for muscles that rotate or extend the head is the A) articular tubercle. C) middle concha. D) styloid process. C) carotid foramen. A) coronal B) sagittal C) squamosal D) rostral E) lambdoidal 112) The lower jaw articulates with the temporal bone at the A) mastoid process. B) superior clinoid process. 16 . B) articular tubercle. VII) passes through internal acoustic meatus and then through the A) stylomastoid foramen. 111) The suture that forms the articulation of the two parietal bones is the ________ suture. D) internal acoustic meatus. C) medial concha. 113) Each of the following is associated with the temporal bone. E) foramen lacerum. E) posterior clinoid process. B) jugular foramen. except the A) mandibular fossa. C) sella turcica. E) petrous portion.

B) crista galli. E) maxillary foramen. E) perpendicular plate. except the A) foramen ovale. D) cribriform plate. E) lacrimal 119) A nerve that carries sensory information from the teeth and gums of the lower jaw passes through the A) condylar process. D) all of the above E) A and C only 121) A skull bone that could be described as looking like a bat with wings extended is the A) cribriform B) sphenoid C) crista galli D) ethmoid E) maxilla 17 . E) pterygoid processes. B) is superior to the larynx. B) mental foramen. C) optic canals. 116) A membrane that stabilizes the position of the brain is attached to the A) cribriform plate. A) sellar B) olfactory C) nasal D) pituitary 115) Each of the following structures is associated with the sphenoid bone. D) condylar process. C) pterygoid processes. D) ramus of the mandible. B) ramus of the mandible. A) palatine B) sphenoid C) maxillary D) vomer E) both A and C 118) Nerves carrying sensory information from the lips and the chin pass through the A) maxillary foramina. E) mental foramina. B) sella turcica.114) The hypophyseal fossa of the sella turcica contains the ________ gland. C) mandibular foramina. 117) The bony roof of the mouth is formed by the ________ bone(s). 120) The hyoid bone A) attaches to tongue muscles. C) is linked to the styloid process by a ligament. C) mandibular foramen. D) styloid process.

124) The paranasal sinuses are located in all of the following bones. D) the growth of the cranium is usually coordinated with the growth of the brain. 123) The nasal conchae A) attach muscles that move the eye. E) ethmoid. D) They provide an extensive area of mucous epithelium. E) gomphosis. 125) Which of the following statements about the functions of the paranasal sinuses is false? A) They support cilia that move the mucus. B) They make skull bones lighter. D) frontal. E) the bones of the skull develop from a single ossification focus. B) sphenoid. D) zygomatic. 126) Each of the following statements concerning the development of the skull is true. 127) The anterior fontanel is located A) posterior to the frontal bone. Which of the following are the secondary curves. except that A) the most significant growth of the skull occurs before the age of 5. except the A) ethmoid. B) anterior to the parietal bones. B) contain the nerves for olfaction.122) The nasal complex consists of all of the following bones. B) kyphosis. B) at birth the cranial bones are connected by areas of fibrous connective tissue. D) scoliosis. D) attach muscles that move the eyelids. C) sphenoid. D) both A and B E) both B and C E) frontal. C) maxillae. C) inferior to frontal bone. C) The mucus they secrete enters the nasal cavities. E) protect the pituitary gland. those that do not appear until several months later? A) thoracic and lumbar B) cervical and sacral C) cervical and lumbar D) thoracic and sacral E) sacral and lumbar 129) An exaggerated lateral curvature is termed A) mentosis. C) the skulls of infants and adults differ in shape and structure of the skeletal elements. C) create turbulence in the nasal passageways. B) maxillary. except the A) zygomatic. 128) The four curves of the adult spinal column are not all present at birth. 18 . E) None of the aboveall are true. C) lordosis.

B) atlas. D) axis. A) 7 B) 4 C) 5 D) 12 E) 31 135) Thoracic vertebrae can be distinguished from other vertebrae by the presence of A) costal cartilages. E) axial C) ribs. Identify the exception. D) all of the above E) A and B only 134) The vertebral column contains ________ thoracic vertebrae. E) facets for the articulation of ribs. A) 31 B) 5 C) 4 137) Which of the following are distinctive features of thoracic vertebrae? A) long spinous processes B) heart-shaped bodies C) rib articulations D) all of the above E) A and C only 138) Which of these types of vertebrae and their numbers is not correct? A) coccygeal3 to 5 B) sacral1 C) thoracic12 D) cervical7 E) lumbral5 D) 7 E) 12 19 . A) cervical B) pelvic C) thoracic D) sacral 131) The odontoid process is found on the A) coccyx. C) cervical vertebrae. A) first cervical B) second cervical C) seventh cervical D) first thoracic E) fifth lumbar 133) The ribs articulate with the A) thoracic vertebrae. C) transverse processes. 132) The vertebra prominens is another name for the ________ vertebra.130) The four spinal curves include all but one of the following. E) sacrum. B) transverse foramina. B) lumbar vertebrae. 136) The vertebral column contains ________ lumbar vertebrae. D) notched spinous processes.

E) manubrium. B) is located on the interior surface. C) ribs 8-12. D) tuberculum. A) 12 B) 32 C) 42 D) 22 E) none of the above D) 10 E) 24 C) 90 D) 50 E) 80 20 . except that it A) provides protection for reproductive. A) 12 B) 6 C) 2 142) The costal groove A) is located on the exterior surface. A) laminae B) auric arches C) spinous processes D) transverse processes E) pedicles 141) Humans normally have ________ pairs of ribs. 144) The true ribs are A) ribs 1-7. D) articulates with the coccyx. C) articulates with the second and third lumbar vertebrae. B) angle. C) marks the path of blood vessels. D) both A and B E) both B and C 145) How many bones make up the axial skeleton? A) 70 B) 60 146) The skull contains ________ bones. digestive. E) articulates with the pelvic bones. B) provides a point of attachment for leg muscles. D) both A and C E) both B and C 143) The part of the sternum that articulates with the clavicles is the A) body. 140) The ribs articulate with the ________ of the vertebrae. B) also called vertebrosternal ribs. and excretory organs.139) All of the following are true of the sacrum. C) xiphoid process.

B) production of mucus that moistens and cleans the air. B) transverse spinous processes. You immediately take him to the emergency room and are not surprised to learn that he has a broken A) zygomatic bone. D) the zygomatic bone and the maxillary bone. B) the occipital bone and the parietal bone. his face looks misaligned.147) Gesturing "no" with the head depends on the structure(s) of which cervical vertebrae? A) atlas B) axis C) vertebra prominens D) both A and B E) both A and C 148) The role(s) of the sinuses include(s) A) making the skull lighter. D) both A and B E) both A and C 151) You witness one of your friends in a fight. C) release of stress hormones. You think to yourself that the correct term for the "soft spot" located at the intersection of the frontal. and coronal sutures is A) sphenoidal fontanel. she comments on her infant's soft spot. E) None of the abovethey are all sutures. D) anterior fontanel. 152) While visiting your friend who recently gave birth. B) temporal bone. D) extra source of air. C) clavicle. E) occipital fontanel. C) the vomer and the zygomatic bone. C) dorsal spinous processes. Your friend Gregg is hit in the jaw and when looking at him. 21 . except between A) the mandible and the cranium. E) both A and B 149) Sutures can be found at all of the joints of an adult skull. sagittal. D) mandible. C) cushion spot. B) mastoid fontanel. 150) The vertebral arch is formed by the pedicles and the A) laminae. E) external auditory meatus.

C) encephalitis. E) 3. You know the nurse suspects possible dehydration when she A) checks the infant's reflexes. D) vertebral body. A) 7 B) 19 C) 11 D) 6 159) As you move caudally along the spinal column. D) 5. D) microcephaly. have ________ cervical vertebrae. B) vertebral arch. C) the dorsal spines grow progressively longer. and C 160) All of the following are true of lumbar vertebrae. B) the vertebral bodies become relatively larger. E) none of the above 158) Most mammals. B. E) none of the above 154) The most significant skull growth occurs before the age of A) 2. C) 4. 155) The term for undersized head is A) encephalopathy.153) While volunteering in an outpatient clinic for underprivileged families in your neighborhood. B) 1. E) 10 22 . B) points out the dryness of the infant's diaper. C) checks the anterior fontanel for depression. A) Primary B) Compensation C) Secondary D) Accommodation E) all of the above 157) The part of the vertebrae that transfers weight along the axis of the vertebral column is the A) articular processes. D) A and B only E) A. you observe the nurse assessing an infant. A) the vertebral foramina become relatively smaller. including humans and giraffes. C) the vertebral foramen is triangular. E) the vertebral bodies are delicate. The mother had complained about the baby not eating and having several episodes of diarrhea lasting 3 days. B) the superior articular processes face medially. B) macrocephaly. E) none of the above 156) ________ curves of the spine develop late in fetal development. C) intervertebral space. except that A) the transverse process is slender and projects dorsolaterally. D) they lack costal facets. D) questions the mother about normal feeding habits.

163) While performing cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) on an unconscious person. C) 6. C) the jugular notch. 23 . C) perpendicular plate of the ethmoid bone. E) parietal bone. which is unpaired? A) palatine B) nasal C) vomer D) maxillary E) none of these 167) The styloid process. E) 16. B) scapula. C) xiphoid process. you are careful to position your hands correctly to avoid damage to the A) ribs. C) temporal bone. B) occipital bone. E) all of the above 162) Ossification of the sternum is not complete until at least age A) 25. B) 10. D) perpendicular plate of the ethmoid and vomer bones.161) The sternum contains A) the manubrium. E) both A and C 164) The sacrum protects these organs: A) reproductive B) urinary C) digestive D) all of the above E) A and C only 165) The bony portion of the nasal septum is formed by the A) vomer and sphenoid bone. 166) Of the following bones. B) the xiphoid process. D) sacrum. D) 50. zygomatic process. D) the body. D) sphenoid. E) nasal bones. and auditory ossicles are associated with the A) ulna. B) perpendicular plate of the ethmoid and sphenoid bones.

E) Wormian bones. least E) frontals 24 . B) fontanels. C) sacral region are fused. A) vertebrae B) sutures C) foramina D) fontanels 173) Vertebrae of the A) lumbar region are fused. A) styloid B) sternocleidomastoid C) sutural D) stylohyoid E) hyoid 170) The function of the hyoid bone is to A) anchor the tongue muscles.168) The membranous areas between the cranial bones of the fetal skull are A) fibrocartilaginous discs. D) foramina. D) both A and B E) A. 169) The hyoid bone is suspended by ________ ligaments. B) coccygeal region are fused. D) both A and C E) both B and C 174) Lumbar vertebrae are ________ massive and ________ mobile. A) most. C) sutures. and C 171) Identify the structure the occipital bone surrounds. B) support the larynx. most C) not. B. C) protect the trachea. least E) most. A) magnum maximus B) maximus minimus C) foramen magnus D) foramina maximus E) foramen magnum 172) Fibrous connective tissue called ________ accommodates brain growth in infants. most B) least. excessively D) least.

E) nasal bones. B) are also called compensation curves. E) attaches the sternum to the ribs. E) anterior and superior nuchal lines. 177) Ridges that anchor muscles that stabilize the head are the A) anterior and posterior nuchal lines. external acoustic meatus B) internal carotid artery. C) helps to hold the head in an upright position. A) acoustic nerve. B) cranial and caudal nuchal lines. C) medial and lateral nuchal lines. D) all of the above E) B and C only 180) Which of these spinal deformities is correctly matched? A) scoliosislateral deviation of the spine B) lordosis"swayback" C) kyphosis"hump-backed" D) ricketsbow-legged E) All are correctly matched. 25 . B) stabilizes the lumbar vertebrae. 181) The ligamentum nuchae A) attaches the ribs to the thoracic vertebrae. B) zygomatic bones. D) lacrimal bones. foramen magnum 179) The primary spinal curves A) develop several months after birth. C) accommodate the thoracic and abdominopelvic viscera. D) attaches the atlas to the occipital bone of the skull. A) crooked B) obstructive C) restrictive D) deviant E) deviated 176) The smallest facial bones are the A) lacerum bones. jugular foramen C) trigeminal nerve. foramen ovale D) internal jugular vein. C) ethmoid bones.175) A bent nasal septum that slows or prevents sinus drainage is known clinically as a ________ septum. D) inferior and superior nuchal lines. 178) The ________ passes through the ________. jugular foramen E) vagus nerve.

C) the vertebrae become larger and heavier. A) sacral B) coccygeal C) thoracic 183) Damage to the temporal bone would most likely affect the sense of A) balance. D) a very broad head. 186) Premature closure of the sagittal suture would result in A) death. and C E) A and B only 184) Which bone(s) include(s) a manubrium? A) clavicle B) sternum C) scapula D) cervical vertebrae #1 and #2 E) all the vertebrae D) lumbar E) cervical 185) If there were no paranasal sinuses. D) all of the above E) A and B only 26 . B) a long and narrow head. B. C) stronger neck muscles would be required. D) A. B) the size of the vertebral foramen decreases. except A) less mucus in the nasal cavity. E) a distorted head with one side being longer than the other. 187) Which of the following statements about the coccyx is true? A) fusion is delayed until mid-20s B) anchors a muscle that constricts the anal opening C) is more flexible in women D) is the most caudal vertebral region E) all of the above 188) As you proceed from the head down the vertebral column A) the transverse foramina become larger.182) The widest intervertebral discs are found in the ________ region. B) hearing. all of the following would be true. E) the ability to sneeze would be impaired. D) reduced ability to trap dust and particles. C) smell. B) the skull would be heavier. C) an unusually small head.

Bill suffers a dislocated jaw. B) supports the upper teeth. D) all of the above E) A and B only 192) As the result of an accident. E) greater cornu of the hyoid bone. Which of the following complaints would you expect her to have? A) a sore back B) a broken jaw C) a sore chest D) a headache E) a black eye 190) Jack gets into a fight and is punched in the nose.189) While playing softball. Gina is struck in the frontal squama by a wild pitch. D) condylar process of the mandible. Which of the following bones might be fractured? A) temporal bone B) parietal bone C) mandible D) sphenoid bone E) ethmoid bone 191) The alveolar process of the mandible A) supports the lower teeth. B) alveolar process of the mandible. C) hyoid bone. This injury would involve the A) stylohyoid ligaments. 27 . C) anchors the tongue.

Figure 7-1 Floor of the Cranial Cavity Use Figure 7-1 to answer the following questions: 193) Which bone has foramina for the olfactory nerves? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 194) Identify the sphenoid bone. A) 1 B) 2 196) Which structure encloses the pituitary gland? A) 4 B) 5 197) What is the name of the structure labeled "8"? A) sella turcica B) foramen rotundum C) foramen ovale D) carotid canal E) foramen spinosum D) 4 E) 5 C) 3 D) 4 E) 5 C) 3 D) 4 E) 5 C) 6 D) 7 E) 8 28 . A) 1 B) 2 195) Identify the internal occipital crest.

" A) lamina B) transverse process C) spinous process D) vertebral body E) pedicle 199) Which structure contacts the intervertebral disc? A) 2 B) 3 C) 4 200) Identify the structure labeled "1." A) superior articular process B) transverse process C) lamina D) pedicle E) inferior articular process 203) Which of the following bones is not part of the appendicular skeleton? A) metacarpals B) scapula C) tibia D) sacrum E) coxal bones D) 5 E) 6 C) 5 D) 6 E) 7 29 .Figure 7-2 Typical Vertebra (inferior view) Use Figure 7-2 to answer the following questions: 198) Identify the structure labeled "7." A) spinous process B) transverse process C) transverse articular facet D) pedicle E) lamina 201) Where is the spinal cord located? A) 3 B) 4 202) Identify the structure labeled "2.

B) distally with the coracoid process. C) glenoid tuberosity. 210) Which of these features is located near the proximal end of the humerus? A) olecranon fossa B) greater tubercle C) capitulum D) lateral epicondyle E) medial epicondyle 30 . D) distally with the manubrium. C) proximally with the coracoid cavity. E) distally with the glenoid cavity. E) coracoid process. 209) The clavicle articulates with the scapula at the A) acromion. B) scapular spine.204) Which of the following is not a component of the appendicular skeleton? A) humerus B) metatarsals C) femur D) scapula E) None of the aboveall are appendicular bones. D) subscapular fossa. 205) Which of these adapts the pectoral girdle to a wide range of movement? A) tough ligaments and tendons B) relatively weak joints C) heavy bones D) all of the above E) A and C only 206) Which of the following is located closest to the jugular notch? A) proximal end of scapula B) distal end of clavicle C) proximal end of clavicle D) distal end of scapula E) both A and B 207) Which of these is most commonly fractured in a fall? A) radius B) clavicle C) glenoid cavity D) scapula E) navicular 208) The clavicle articulates with the scapula A) distally with the acromion.

C) ulna. D) coronoid process. E) carpals. B) intertubercular groove. 215) The radius articulates with the A) humerus. 31 .211) The depression on the posterior surface at the distal end of the humerus is the A) coronoid fossa. B) carpals. A) styloid process B) olecranon process C) radial tuberosity D) capitulum E) coronoid process 217) The bones that form the palm are the A) metatarsals. 212) Which of these is a forearm bone? A) fibula B) tibia C) radius D) humerus E) femur 213) Which of these surface features does the ulna possess? A) styloid process B) trochlear notch C) olecranon D) all of the above E) A and C only 214) The surface feature present along the lateral border of the shaft of the humerus is the A) lateral epicondyle. C) tarsals. B) metacarpals. D) phalanges. E) radial groove. C) radial groove. C) radial fossa. D) all of the above E) A and C only 216) The ________ of the radius helps stabilize the wrist joint. B) medial epicondyle. E) deltoid tuberosity. D) olecranon fossa.

E) iliac notch. E) femur. D) posterior superior iliac spine. 219) The bones that form the fingers are the A) metatarsals. 227) The greater sciatic notch is a feature on the A) pubis. 226) The superior border of the ilium that acts as a point of attachment for both ligaments and muscles is the A) acetabulum. B) ischium. E) tarsals. C) metacarpals. A) 8 B) 4 C) 5 D) 6 E) 7 221) Which of the following is not an upper limb bone? A) ulna B) humerus C) metatarsals 222) Which of the following is not a part of the pelvis? A) coxal bone B) sacrum C) lumbar vertebrae D) coccyx E) both B and D 223) What bone articulates with the coxal bone at the acetabulum? A) sacrum B) fibula C) tibia D) carpals E) radius D) humerus E) femur 224) Each one of the coxal bones is formed by the fusion of ________ bones. E) tarsals. B) iliac crest. A) 3 B) 4 C) 5 D) 2 225) The largest component coxal bone is the A) pubis. D) ischium. B) carpals. E) 6 C) femur. 32 . D) carpals. C) metatarsals.218) The bones that give the hand a wide range of motion are the A) phalanges. E) ilium. C) patella. B) metacarpals. 220) The carpus contains ________ bones. B) tibia. D) phalanges. C) anterior iliac spine. D) ilium.

33 . D) lesser trochanter.228) The sacrum articulates with the A) ilium. 232) The distal end of the tibia articulates with the A) fibula. D) obturator foramen. D) patella. D) obturator foramina. C) femur. B) calcaneus. C) ilium and ischium. C) intercondylar fossa. C) iliac crests. B) posterior inferior iliac spines. D) coxal bone. 230) The pubic and ischial rami encircle the A) pubic symphysis. E) lesser sciatic notch. 229) When seated. D) ischium. 231) The longest and heaviest bone in the body is the A) humerus. B) fibula. E) coxal bone. C) greater sciatic notch. C) fibula. D) femur. D) tibia. E) talus. B) tibia. 233) Powerful hip muscles attach posteriorly to the femur along the A) medial epicondyle. B) acetabulum. 235) The lateral malleolus is found on the A) calcaneus. E) pubis. E) femur. C) talus. C) patella. the weight of the body is borne by the A) inferior rami of the pubis. 234) The medial bulge at your ankle is a projection from the A) fibula. E) ischial tuberosities. B) linea aspera. E) greater trochanter. B) tibia. B) ischium and pubis. E) calcaneus.

E) both C and D 240) Another name for the first toe is A) hallux. D) calcaneus. 241) Which of the following is not a characteristic of the male pelvis? A) ilia extend far above sacrum B) heavy. B) age and nutritional status.236) The medial border of the fibula is bound to the ________ by the interosseous membrane. D) phalanx. C) distal metarsals. rough textured bone C) relatively deep iliac fossa D) heart-shaped pelvic inlet E) angle of pubic arch greater than 100 degrees 242) Which of the following is a not characteristic of the female pelvis? A) sacrum broad and short B) coccyx points anteriorly C) bone markings not very prominent D) ischial spine points posteriorly E) triangular obturator foramen 243) Study of human skeletons can reveal information concerning the person's A) size and handedness. A) navicular B) femur C) patella D) tibia E) both A and B 237) The tarsus contains ________ bones. C) hyoid. D) all of the above E) A and B only C) 8 D) 5 E) 4 C) cuboid D) patella E) talus 34 . B) lateral cuneiform. E) pollex. B) distal metacarpals. C) sex. A) 7 B) 6 238) Which of the following is the heel bone? A) calcaneus B) navicular 239) The weight of the body is supported by the A) proximal metatarsals.

248) Each coxal bone consists of the following three fused bones: A) ulna. B) obturator foramen. E) thoracic cage. C) femur. D) clavicle articulates with the manubrium of the sternum. ischium. E) calcaneus. D) pubic symphysis. D) scapula E) clavicle 35 . E) ishial spine. and humerus. tibia. 249) The largest bone of the lower limb is the A) fibula. C) ishial fossa. and tibia. and pubis. E) femur. 251) The three sides of this bone form a broad triangle. B) tibia. C) vertebral column articulates with the sacrum. and fibula. A) radius B) vertebra C) sternum C) humerus.244) Compared to the male skeleton. the female skeleton A) is larger. patella. C) has a greater angle inferior to the pubic symphysis. D) hamate. D) has a smaller average cranium. E) clavicle articulates with the humerus. radius. B) clavicle articulates with the xiphoid process. B) skull. B) is heavier. C) teeth. B) ilium. 250) The pelvic organs are mostly found within the A) iliac fossa. and trapezium. D) pelvis. D) femur. capitate. E) both C and D 245) The clearest distinction between a male and female skeleton is seen in the characteristics of the A) sacrum. 246) Which of the following is not a developmentally controlled process? A) closure of the fontanels B) appearance of major vertebral curves C) fusion of the coxal bones D) bone remodeling E) reduction in mineral content 247) The only direct connection between the pectoral girdle and the axial skeleton is where the A) coxal bones articulate with the femur.

radius. humerus. A) superior B) distal C) medial D) proximal E) none of these 255) Lateral to the coronoid process. 2 B) 6.252) Which of these constitutes the pectoral girdle? A) clavicle. is an articulation between which two bones? A) clavicle and scapula B) scapula and humerus C) humerus and ulna D) clavicle and humerus E) none of the above 254) In the anatomical position. or shoulder joint. which form ________ rows of bones in the wrist. and carpal bones B) clavicles. 8 257) Each hand has ________ phalangeal bones. 2 D) 10. the radial ________ accommodates the head of the radius in the radio-ulnar joint. A) 14 B) 10 C) 20 D) 18 E) 15 258) Which of these bones was not formed by the fusion of several bones? A) coxal bones B) sacrum C) coccyx D) femur E) none of the above 259) Which surface feature(s) along the ilium mark(s) attachment sites for large hip muscles? A) gluteal lines B) iliac spines C) greater sciatic notch D) both A and C E) none of the above 36 . 3 E) 2. scapula. scapulae. A) notch B) muscle C) groove D) tendon E) ligament 256) There are ________ carpal bones located in the wrist. and ulna 253) The glenohumeral joint. A) 8. scapulae. humerus. 2 C) 4. radius. and humerus C) clavicles and scapulae D) clavicles only E) clavicles. the ulna is located ________ to the radius. ulna.

260) Which of these is not one of the boundaries of the pelvic outlet? A) coccyx B) inferior border of the pubic symphysis C) iliac crest D) ischial tuberosities E) both A and B 261) A male has a ________ pelvic outlet when compared to the woman's pelvic outlet. E) both C and D 263) The Achilles tendon attaches to which anatomical structure? A) lesser trochanter B) cuboid bone C) calcaneus D) talus E) both B and C 264) The hand has 15 phalangeal bones. 265) Which of the following is not a lower limb bone? A) patella B) tibia C) metatarsal E) longer D) femur E) fibia 266) The scapula is roughly triangular in shape. What part of her body was injured? A) wrist B) foot C) forearm D) ankle E) hand 37 . C) humerus. B) The first statement is true and the second statement is true. Which of the following are correct terms for the borders? A) superior border B) inferior border C) lateral border D) all of the above E) A and C only 267) Tina falls and fractures her pisiform bone. B) coxal bone. E) Too much anatomical variability to be sure. A) wider B) smaller C) larger D) deeper 262) The longest bone is the A) sternum. C) The first statement is false but the second statement is true. the foot has 14 phalangeal bones. A) The first statement is true but the second statement is false. D) femur. D) The first statement is false and the second statement is false.

The acetabulum is directed laterally. the ischial spine points medially. 269) The talus contacts the A) navicular bone. E) both C and D. C) calcaneus and proximal metatarsals . 271) Tom stumbles and injures his hallux. most of your weight is transmitted to the ground by the A) calcaneus and talus. B) distally with the glenoid cavity. E) his ankle 38 . C) tibial bone. and C 270) Compared to the hand. What part of his anatomy is injured? A) his knee B) his hand C) his foot D) his hip 272) The clavicle articulates with the scapula A) distally with the coracoid process. C) distally with the acromial process. B. B) has the same number of tarsal bones as the hand has carpal bones. E) talus and cuneiforms. B) calcaneus. D) proximally with the manubrium. E) contains ellipsoidal arches that help distribute body weight. C) a young male. B) a young female. D) talus and proximal metatarsals. D) both A and B E) A. D) has more phalanges. E) Cannot tell on the basis of this information. D) an elderly male. 273) The condition known as "flat feet" is due to a lower-than-normal longitudinal arch in the foot. A problem with which of the following would most likely contribute to this condition? A) weakness in the ligaments that attach the calcaneus to the distal ends of the metatarsals B) weak tarsometatarsal joints C) a loose Achilles tendon D) poor alignment of the phalanges with the metatarsals E) weakness in the ligaments that attach the talus to the tibia 274) On a field trip you discover a skeleton with the following characteristics. C) has fewer metatarsals than the hand has metacarpals.268) When standing normally. The long bones of the arms and legs are relatively light and show epiphyseal plates. B) distal metarsals and calcaneus. the foot A) has a more restricted range of movement. This skeleton is probably from A) an elderly female. and the angle inferior to the pubic symphysis is less than 90 degrees.

Figure 8-1 The Humerus Use Figure 8-1 to answer the following questions: 275) Identify the structure labeled "9." A) greater tubercle B) trochlea C) medial epicondyle D) olecranon process E) lateral epicondyle 39 .

276) Which structure does the radius rotate upon? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) 5 277) When the arm is straight." A) calcaneus B) cuneiform I C) cuboid D) talus E) navicular 40 . A) 1 B) 2 C) 5 279) Which structure articulates with the glenoid cavity? A) 3 B) 4 C) 5 D) 8 E) 9 D) 6 E) 7 D) 6 E) 7 Figure 8-2 Bones of the Ankle and Foot Use Figure 8-2 to answer the following questions: 280) Identify the bone labeled "7. which structure accepts the olecranon? A) 1 B) 3 C) 4 278) Identify the place where the humerus often fractures.

" A) metatarsal B) talus C) calcaneus D) cuneiform V E) cuboid 282) On which bone does the tibia press? A) 7 B) 3 C) 9 D) 1 E) 2 283) Identify the bones named for their wedge shape." A) tarsals B) metacarpals C) carpals D) metatarsals E) coxae D) 1 E) 3 41 . A) 8 B) 2 C) 7 284) Identify the bones labeled "9.281) Identify the bone labeled "1.

" A) acetabulum B) scapular cavity C) scapular notch D) glenoid cavity E) rotator cup 42 C) 3 D) 4 E) 5 ." A) coracoid process B) scapular process C) spine D) scapular notch E) acromion 287) Which structure is the acromion? A) 1 B) 2 288) Identify the structure labeled "2." A) scapular process B) acromion C) scapular notch D) spine E) coracoid process 286) Identify the structure labeled "1.Figure 8-3 The Scapula Use Figure 8-3 to answer the following questions: 285) Identify the structure labeled "7.

289) What bone articulates on the structure labeled "2"? A) manubrium B) clavicle C) humerus D) radius E) femur 43 .

" A) lateral condyle B) greater trochanter C) head D) linea aspera E) lateral epicondyle 44 .Figure 8-4 The Femur Use Figure 8-4 to answer the following questions: 290) Identify the structure labeled "2.

D) amphiarthrosis. E) diarthrosis. C) synarthrosis. E) amphiarthrosis. D) gomphosis. B) symphysis. B) amphiarthrosis. E) amphiarthrosis. D) 5 E) 9 C) 3 D) 5 E) 7 45 . D) syndesmosis." A) lateral condyle B) greater trochanter C) lateral epicondyle D) head E) lesser trochanter 292) Which structure articulates with the acetabulum? A) 1 B) 2 C) 4 293) Identify the diaphysis of the femur. B) synarthrosis. C) diarthrosis. 298) A suture is an example of a(n) A) diarthrosis. A) 1 B) 2 294) Identify the structure labeled "12. 296) A slightly movable joint is a(n) A) synarthrosis." A) greater trochanter B) head C) lateral condyle D) linea aspera E) lateral epicondyle 295) An immovable joint is a(n) A) synarthrosis. B) synostosis. 297) A freely movable joint is a(n) A) symphysis.291) Identify the structure labeled "3. D) syndesmosis. E) symphysis. C) syndesmosis. C) diarthrosis.

B) syndesmosis. C) synostosis. C) gomphosis. E) gomphosis.299) An epiphyseal line is an example of a A) synchondrosis. 302) A ligamentous connection such as an interosseus ligament is termed a A) syndesmosis. E) gomphosis. D) symphysis. B) synchondrosis. B) It secretes synovial fluid. D) symphysis. 303) Which of the following is not a function of synovial fluid? A) provides nutrients B) increases osmotic pressure within joint C) protects articular cartilages D) shock absorption E) lubrication 304) Which of the following is not a characteristic of articular cartilage? A) The matrix contains more water than other cartilages. B) amphiarthrosis. C) synchondrosis. E) synostosis. D) amphiarthrosis. D) Surfaces are normally slick and smooth. E) synarthrosis. C) syndesmosis. D) symphysis. B) syndesmosis. 301) A synovial joint is an example of a(n) A) diarthrosis. 305) Which of these is one of the four major types of synarthrotic joints? A) synostosis B) gomphosis C) synchondrosis D) suture E) all of the above 46 . C) It is composed of hyaline cartilage. 300) Dense connective tissue is to a suture as a periodontal ligament is to a(n) A) synostosis. E) There is no perichondrium.

C) hand. D) rotation. B) retraction. B) around blood vessels. E) dorsiflexion. except A) tendon sheaths. E) arm. D) gliding E) pivot 47 . 310) A common injury to the ankle occurs by excessive turning of the sole inward. D) within connective tissue exposed to friction or pressure. E) opposition. B) inside the joint cavity. 307) Dislocations are quite painful due to stimulation of pain receptors.306) Bursae are found in all of the following areas. C) eversion. 311) Which of the following movements is a good example of depression? A) opening the mouth B) turning the hand palm upward C) extreme bending of the head backwards D) spreading the fingers E) moving the hand toward the shoulder 312) The movements known as dorsiflexion and plantar flexion involve moving the A) leg. 309) To pinch with a thumb and finger involves a movement called A) circumduction. D) protraction. D) within the tendons around the joint. A) saddle B) hinge C) ellipsoid D) abduction. C) inversion. E) both C and D 308) A movement away from the midline of the body is termed A) extension. C) around many synovial joints. C) flexion. E) adduction. B) plantar flexion. B) inversion. termed A) eversion. E) beneath the skin covering a bone. One place these receptors are absent is A) within the joint capsule. 313) The elbow joint is an example of a(n) ________ joint. B) foot. C) within the ligaments around the joint. D) hip.

A) hip B) knee C) shoulder D) wrist E) elbow 320) Which of the following movements is a good example of hyperextension? A) turning the hand palm upward B) moving the hand toward the shoulder C) spreading the fingers D) opening the mouth E) extreme bending of the head backwards 321) Which ligament connects the clavicle and the acromion? A) coracoacromial B) coracohumeral C) acromioclavicular D) coracoclavicular E) glenohumeral 48 . D) only circumduction is possible.314) In a triaxial articulation A) no movement is possible. A) hinge B) saddle C) ball-and-socket D) gliding E) ellipsoid 317) Which type of joint is found between the carpal bones? A) ball-and-socket B) hinge C) saddle D) gliding E) pivot 318) Which of the following types of joints is monoaxial. 315) The joint between the trapezium and metacarpal bone of the thumb is an example of a(n) ________ joint. E) movement can occur in only one axis. but capable of only rotation? A) pivot B) saddle C) gliding D) hinge E) ball-and-socket 319) The joint that permits the greatest range of mobility of any joint in the body is the ________ joint. C) movement can occur in only two axes. A) hinge B) ellipsoid C) gliding D) pivot E) saddle 316) Monaxial joints are known as ________ joints. B) movement can occur in all three axes.

322) The elbow joint is extremely stable because A) the ulna and humerus interlock. A) ellipsoid B) pivot C) gliding 326) Which of the following is not a property of synovial joints? A) covered by a capsule B) freely movable C) covered by a serous membrane D) contain synovial fluid E) lined by a secretory epithelium 327) A herniated intervertebral disc is caused by A) protrusion of the nucleus pulposus. B) strong muscular padding. E) ossification of the vertebral disc. C) the capsule lacks ligaments. C) transformation of fibrocartilage to hyaline cartilage. 323) The radiocarpal joint is a(n) ________ joint. D) tough capsule. A) saddle B) ball-and-socket C) gliding D) hinge E) ellipsoid 325) The joints between vertebrae are examples of ________ joints. E) the joint lacks bursae. 328) Factors that increase the stability of the hip joint include A) almost complete bony socket. A) saddle B) hinge C) ellipsoid D) gliding E) immovable 324) The intercarpal articulations are ________ joints. E) all of the above D) hinge E) saddle 49 . D) the articular capsule is thin. B) loss of annulus fibrosis elasticity. B) several muscles support the joint capsule. D) slippage of the fibrocartilage disc. C) supporting ligaments.

E) both C and D 330) Which of the following ligaments is not associated with the hip joint? A) anterior cruciate ligament B) iliofemoral ligament C) ischiofemoral ligament D) pubofemoral ligament E) ligamentum teres 331) In the knee joint. D) act as cushions and conform to the shape of the articulating surfaces.329) The normal movement of the hip joint during walking involves A) adduction. B) are found between the patella and femur. C) flexion. C) fat pads. B) abduction. C) are cartilages that bind the knee to the tibia. B) popliteal ligaments. A) popliteal B) posterior cruciate C) patellar D) tibial collateral E) anterior cruciate 334) The back of the knee joint is reinforced by ________ ligaments. D) lateral menisci. E) medial menisci. A) tibial collateral B) popliteal C) anterior cruciate D) posterior cruciate E) patellar 335) The medial surface of the knee joint is reinforced by the ________ ligament. 333) The ligament that provides support to the front of the knee joint is the ________ ligament. A) cruciate B) popliteal C) fibular collateral D) tibial collateral E) patellar 50 . D) extension. E) both A and D 332) The structures that assist the bursae in reducing friction between the patella and other tissues are the A) cruciate ligaments. the medial and lateral menisci A) take the place of bursae.

the stronger the joint. A) fibular collateral B) cruciate C) tibial collateral D) patellar E) popliteal 337) The ankle joint is an example of a(n) ________ joint. the stronger the joint. B) the knee contains seven major ligaments. D) ellipsoid joints. E) The tension produced by muscle tendons surrounding a joint help stabilize the joint. 51 . E) saddle joints.336) The ligaments that limit the anterior-posterior movement of the femur and maintain the alignment of the femoral and tibial condyles are the ________ ligaments. C) allow biaxial movement. C) hinge joints. D) The tighter two bones are held together within a joint. E) the knee contains fat pads to absorb shocks. A) ball-and-socket B) ellipsoid C) saddle D) hinge E) gliding 338) The "rotator cuff" of the shoulder functions to A) reinforce the joint capsule. D) bony. Identify the exception. D) all of the above E) both A and B 339) All of the following statements are true. except one. B) limit the range of movements. C) fibrous. E) all of the above 341) The joints that connect the four fingers with the metacarpal bones are A) pivot joints. B) synovial. C) The more movement a joint allows. A) The rotator cuff functions to limit the range of movements of the shoulder joint. D) the knee is protected by the patella. 340) Joints can be classified structurally as A) cartilaginous. C) the femur articulates with the tibia at the knee. 342) Complete dislocation of the knee is a rare because A) the knee is extremely resilient. B) condyloid joints. B) The shapes of the articulating surfaces within the joint help prevent movement in a particular direction and strengthen and stabilize the joint.

C) smooth. C) extension. D) suture. D) rough.343) Which of the following movements is a good example of abduction? A) opening the mouth B) extreme bending of the head backwards C) turning the hand palm upward D) spreading the fingers E) moving the hand toward the shoulder 344) The synarthrosis that binds the teeth to the bony sockets is a A) synotosis. B) The exposed surface changes to a rough feltwork. B) flat. 349) Which of the following movements is a good example of flexion? A) turning the hand palm upward B) moving the hand toward the shoulder C) extreme bending of the head backwards D) opening the mouth E) spreading the fingers 52 . E) both A and C 346) Which of the following occurs when the articular cartilage is damaged? A) Friction in the joint increases. E) none of the above 345) The surface of articular cartilage is A) slick. D) Normal synovial joint function is unable to continue. A) hyperextends B) abducts C) extends D) flexes E) rotates 348) An extension past the anatomical position is known as A) rotation. E) flexion. E) all of the above 347) Curling into the "fetal position" ________ the intervertebral joints. D) hyperextension. B) gomphosis. B) double jointed. C) synchondrosis. C) The matrix begins to break down.

E) none of the above 351) Which foot movement enables the ballerina to stand on her toes? A) rotation B) inversion C) plantar flexion D) dorsiflexion E) eversion 352) All of the following are structural classifications of synovial joints. D) pivot. B) extension. C) eversion. D) flexion. C) lateral flexion. E) dorsiflexion. E) elbow 53 . C) hinge. except A) saddle. D) plantar flexion. B) gliding. 356) Which of the following ligaments assist in stabilization of the shoulder joint? A) coracoacromial B) subscapularis C) coracoclavicular D) all of the above E) both A and C 357) Which of the following athletes are at greatest risk of developing a rotator cuff injury? A) runners B) white-water kayakers C) tennis players D) baseball pitchers E) both B and D E) rolling.350) A twisting motion of the foot that turns the sole of the foot outward is known as A) dorsiflexion. B) inversion. 353) Which of the following joints is an example of a ball-and-socket joint? A) ankle B) knee C) wrist D) shoulder 354) Which of the following movements is a good example of supination? A) opening the mouth B) spreading the fingers C) extreme bending of the head backwards D) moving the hand toward the shoulder E) turning the hand palm upward 355) All of the following movements occur at the intervertebral joints. except A) rotation.

C) mechanical stress. 361) Nodding your head "yes" is an example of A) protraction and retraction. D) lateral and medial rotation. E) humeroradial joint. E) inflammation. C) flexion and extension. D) plantar flexion. B) dorsiflexion. B) pronation and supination.358) The largest and strongest articulation at the elbow is the A) radial joint. 364) Muscles that extend the elbow attach to the A) medial epicondyle. 54 . C) humero-ulnar joint. B) bacterial infection. E) eversion. 359) Which of these is not considered to be an accessory synovial structure? A) menisci B) fat pads C) synovial membrane D) tendons E) bursae 360) Degenerative changes in a joint can be the result of all of the following. C) radial tuberosity. D) lateral epicondyle. B) coronoid process. D) bursitis. E) olecranon process. E) circumduction. D) ulnar joint. 362) Which of the following movements would you associate with chewing food? A) circumduction B) flexion C) pronation D) abduction E) elevation 363) Lifting a stone with the tip of foot is A) inversion. except A) immobilization of the joint. B) ulnaradial joint. C) circumduction.

E) periodontal ligament. 366) The joints that are subjected to the greatest load are found in the A) hips. 368) The most common athletic knee injury produces damage to the A) ligaments. C) patella. D) extension of the forearm. B) tendons. D) completely fused. C) rotation of the shoulder.365) Contraction of the muscle that is attached to the radial tuberosity results in A) flexion of the forearm. D) lateral meniscus. C) fibrous cartilage. 55 . 369) Which of these is not a property of articular cartilage? A) enclosed by a capsule B) smooth. 367) Syndesmosis is to ligament as symphysis is to A) dense regular connective tissue. B) knees. B) rigid cartilaginous bridge. B) adduction of the forearm. C) spine. E) hands. low-friction surface C) covered by perichondrium D) similar to hyaline cartilage E) lubricated by synovial fluid D) ankles. E) abduction of the forearm. E) medial meniscus.

" A) saddle B) gliding C) hinge D) ellipsoid E) gliding C) gliding D) pivot E) saddle C) saddle D) gliding E) hinge C) gliding D) saddle E) hinge C) ellipsoid D) pivot E) hinge 56 ." A) saddle B) pivot 371) Identify the type of joint at label "4." A) ellipsoid B) hinge 372) Identify the type of joint at label "3." A) pivot B) ellipsoid 374) Identify the type of joint at label "1.Figure 9-1 Bones of the Wrist and Hand Use Figure 9-1 to answer the following questions: 370) Identify the type of joint at label "5." A) pivot B) ellipsoid 373) Identify the type of joint at label "2.

" A) synovial membrane B) joint cavity C) bursa D) articular cartilage E) meniscus 376) Which structure acts as a cushion and consists of fibrocartilage? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 377) What type of tissue occurs at the structure labeled "3"? A) fibrocartilage B) synovial membrane C) bone tissue D) dense connective tissue E) hyaline cartilage 378) Identify the structure labeled "2." A) serous membrane B) joint capsule C) periosteum D) synovial membrane E) intracapsular ligament D) 4 E) 5 57 .Figure 9-2 A Simplified Sectional View of the Knee Joint Use Figure 9-2 to answer the following questions: 375) Identify the structure at label "1.

380) Todd is 13 and lives in an urban apartment. during recess. what clinical applications would you cite? 390) Why are ruptured intervertebral discs more common in lumbar vertebrae and dislocations and fractures more common in cervical vertebrae? 391) Sasha has a chronic sinus infection that she has treated herself. His chest is badly bruised and he is experiencing difficulty in breathing.379) Identify the structure labeled "5. After the nose heals. If you were teaching this information to prospective health care professionals. his leg takes longer to heal than expected. He spends most of his time watching TV and eating "junk" food.? 384) What is osteopenia? Name and define two forms of osteopenia. 385) Would you expect to see changes in blood levels of the hormones calcitonin and PTH as a result of vitamin D3 deficiency? Explain. Explain to her how this happened. he falls on the playground and breaks his leg. She develops a dangerous infection of the brain. which is important in a variety of clinical situations. One afternoon. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper." A) intracapsular ligament B) periosteum C) joint capsule D) serous membrane E) synovial membrane ESSAY. What might be the cause of the longer healing time? 381) An elderly patient has a broken femur that is healing very slowly. 386) Frank gets into a brawl at a sports event and receives a broken nose. 58 . Although he appears to be healthy. how is the epiphysis forced farther from the shaft? 383) What is the difference between ossification and calcification. Why might this possibly help? 382) During the growth of a long bone. What is probably the cause of Frank's discomfort? 387) Billy is injured during a high school football game. he starts to have sinus headaches and discomfort in the area of his maxillae. A young resident suggests using a device that will create an electrical field in the area of the fracture to help speed the healing process. What might the problem be? 388) What role do the fontanels play in infant development? 389) The structural features and skeletal components of the sternum make it a part of the axial skeleton.

Why is the curvature of Joe's spine changing. Like many middle-aged men.392) Joe is 40 years old and 30 pounds overweight. What landmarks would you use to make the measurement? 397) Describe the pelvic adaptations to childbearing in the female. what movements does it produce? 400) Why is the inferior region of the shoulder joint most vulnerable to dislocation? 401) A high school student comes to the emergency room complaining of persistent pain and stiffness in her shoulder joint." During an annual physical. Joe's physician advises him that his spine is developing an abnormal curvature. 394) What is the distinction between the false pelvis and the true pelvis? 395) Why is it necessary for the bones of the pelvic girdle to be more massive than the bones of the pectoral girdle? 396) To settle a bet. Joe carries most of this extra weight in his abdomen and jokes with his friends about his "beer gut. In talking with her. What is likely causing the pain? 59 . you need to measure the length of your lower limb (head of femur to distal condyle of tibia). you discover that she has been spending many hours trying to improve her pitching skills for her school's softball team. and what is this condition called? 393) Describe how the arches of the foot assist in weight distribution. 398) How are osteoarthritis and rheumatoid arthritis different? 399) When the triceps brachii muscle contracts.

Answer Key Testname: SKELETAL SYSTEM STUDY GUIDE 1) E 2) A 3) D 4) B 5) E 6) D 7) E 8) E 9) B 10) D 11) A 12) C 13) C 14) C 15) E 16) A 17) C 18) C 19) A 20) E 21) A 22) C 23) D 24) B 25) C 26) D 27) C 28) B 29) C 30) B 31) A 32) A 33) C 34) E 35) D 36) D 37) B 38) D 39) A 40) E 41) A 42) E 43) C 44) E 45) A 46) A 47) E 48) B 49) D 50) A 51) B 52) A 53) E 54) A 55) D 56) C 57) A 58) E 60 .

Answer Key Testname: SKELETAL SYSTEM STUDY GUIDE 59) E 60) C 61) E 62) A 63) B 64) B 65) E 66) E 67) B 68) E 69) D 70) E 71) E 72) A 73) C 74) A 75) B 76) C 77) E 78) A 79) B 80) B 81) E 82) D 83) B 84) D 85) B 86) E 87) D 88) E 89) E 90) C 91) A 92) A 93) B 94) B 95) A 96) E 97) C 98) E 99) B 100) A 101) D 102) C 103) A 104) E 105) E 106) C 107) C 108) D 109) D 110) A 111) B 112) E 113) C 114) D 115) D 116) B 61 .

Answer Key Testname: SKELETAL SYSTEM STUDY GUIDE 117) E 118) E 119) C 120) D 121) B 122) A 123) C 124) D 125) E 126) E 127) D 128) C 129) D 130) E 131) D 132) C 133) A 134) D 135) E 136) B 137) D 138) B 139) C 140) D 141) A 142) E 143) E 144) D 145) E 146) D 147) D 148) E 149) A 150) A 151) D 152) D 153) C 154) D 155) D 156) A 157) D 158) A 159) D 160) E 161) E 162) A 163) E 164) D 165) D 166) C 167) C 168) B 169) D 170) D 171) E 172) D 173) E 174) E 62 .

Answer Key Testname: SKELETAL SYSTEM STUDY GUIDE 175) E 176) D 177) D 178) D 179) C 180) E 181) C 182) D 183) E 184) B 185) E 186) B 187) E 188) E 189) D 190) E 191) A 192) D 193) E 194) B 195) C 196) C 197) C 198) E 199) E 200) B 201) C 202) C 203) D 204) E 205) B 206) C 207) B 208) A 209) A 210) B 211) D 212) C 213) D 214) E 215) D 216) A 217) B 218) D 219) D 220) A 221) C 222) C 223) E 224) A 225) E 226) B 227) D 228) A 229) E 230) D 231) C 232) E 63 .

Answer Key Testname: SKELETAL SYSTEM STUDY GUIDE 233) B 234) B 235) C 236) D 237) A 238) A 239) E 240) A 241) E 242) B 243) D 244) E 245) D 246) D 247) D 248) B 249) D 250) A 251) D 252) C 253) B 254) C 255) A 256) A 257) A 258) D 259) A 260) C 261) B 262) D 263) C 264) C 265) B 266) E 267) A 268) B 269) E 270) A 271) C 272) E 273) A 274) C 275) C 276) C 277) D 278) D 279) C 280) E 281) C 282) E 283) A 284) D 285) D 286) A 287) E 288) D 289) C 290) B 64 .

Answer Key Testname: SKELETAL SYSTEM STUDY GUIDE 291) A 292) D 293) E 294) D 295) A 296) E 297) E 298) C 299) E 300) E 301) A 302) A 303) B 304) B 305) E 306) B 307) B 308) D 309) E 310) C 311) A 312) B 313) B 314) B 315) E 316) A 317) D 318) A 319) C 320) E 321) C 322) A 323) C 324) C 325) C 326) C 327) A 328) E 329) E 330) A 331) D 332) C 333) C 334) B 335) D 336) B 337) D 338) E 339) C 340) E 341) D 342) B 343) D 344) B 345) E 346) E 347) D 348) D 65 .

To maintain homeostasis. "chasing" the expanding epiphyseal cartilage away from the shaft. because release of this hormone is triggered by high blood calcium levels. 384) Osteopenia is a general term for reduced bone mass. Todd's inactivity may also contribute to his slower rate of healing. If the same type of electrical field could be duplicated at the site of the fracture. leading to a shortage of calcium in the blood. would stimulate osteoclasts to release enough calcium from the bone to maintain proper calcium levels in the blood. 381) Osteoblasts are attracted to electrical fields produced by bone crystals when they are stressed. Osteoporosis is a condition of reduced bone density. the decrease in blood calcium would trigger the release of PTH. It is known as rickets in the young. including bone. Osteoporosis and osteomalacia are forms. 382) The chondrocytes of the epiphyseal cartilage enlarge and divide. Osteomalacia is bone weakness caused by insufficient calcium deposits. 66 . Calcification means the depositing of calcium salts in any tissue. On the shaft. The PTH. Todd's problem is probably related to his poor diet. bone weakness.Answer Key Testname: SKELETAL SYSTEM STUDY GUIDE 349) B 350) C 351) C 352) E 353) D 354) E 355) E 356) E 357) E 358) C 359) C 360) D 361) C 362) E 363) B 364) E 365) A 366) D 367) C 368) E 369) C 370) C 371) A 372) C 373) C 374) C 375) C 376) D 377) E 378) D 379) A 380) Assuming that there is no other disease process involved. vitamin C. vitamin A. in turn. osteoblasts may be stimulated to migrate to the area and increase the rate of bone production and thus healing of the fracture. and vitamin D would cause the normal healing process to occur at a much slower rate. increasing the thickness of the cartilage. This is one of the reasons that trabeculae of bones are organized along stress lines. the chondrocytes become ossified. and pain resulting from the loss of mineral from bone with advancing age. 385) A person deficient in vitamin D 3 would not be able to absorb calcium effectively from the digestive tract. Good nutrition is important for promoting the healing process. Insufficient quantities of protein. Levels of calcitonin would decrease. 383) Ossification means specifically the conversion of connective tissue into bone tissue.

and posterior surfaces of the shoulder joint are reinforced by ligaments. 67 . 391) The paranasal sinuses in the frontal bone are only a few millimeters of bone away from the cranial cavity. a dislocation caused by an impact or a violent muscle contraction is most likely to occur at this site. which is an important part of breathing. 398) Osteoarthritis is a "wear-and-tear" disease seen usually in the elderly. which can result from repetitive motion.Answer Key Testname: SKELETAL SYSTEM STUDY GUIDE 386) Frank probably has a deviated septum as the result of his broken nose. Rheumatoid arthritis is an autoimmune disease in which the body's immune system attacks synovial joints. the body of the sternum is often sampled for red bone marrow. As a result. a relatively broad pelvis that does not extend as far superiorly. 392) The curvature of the spine is changing as a result of the heavy abdomen pulling on the anterior cavity. introducing bacteria into the brain case. 394) The true pelvis encloses the pelvic cavity and its superior limit is a line that extends from either side of the base of the sacrum. and tendons. The longitudinal arch absorbs most of the shock of steps. these factors contribute to the rupturing of an intervertebral disc. 401) Her pain is probably caused by injury to the rotator cuff. which is at the same level as the head of the femur. trauma. 400) The anterior. superior. a broader pubic angle. 387) Billy has probably broken one or more of his ribs. When the ribs are broken. This condition is called craniostenosis 389) Because it is accessible. This condition often blocks the drainage of one or more sinuses with resulting sinus headaches. along the arcuate line and pectineal line to the pubic symphysis. Contraction of the triceps brachii muscle causes the ulna to rotate around the distal humerus. The condition is called lordosis because its effects are prevalent in the lumbar region. This extra weight causes abnormal spinal curvature to compensate for balance. bladelike portions of each ilium superior to the pelvic brim. In a deviated septum the cartilaginous portion of the septum is bent where it joins the bone. 397) These include: an enlarged pelvic outlet. wider and more circular pelvic inlet. The false pelvis consists of the expanded. Such a dislocation can tear the inferior capsular wall and the glenoid labrum. breathing can become difficult (labored) because of pain when the ribs are moved. brain development is restricted. As the brain grows. Movement of the ribs changes the size of the thoracic cavity. infections. The cervical vertebrae are more delicate and have small bodies. Chronic infection has permitted the bone to be eroded and penetrated. and sinusitis. You could feel the medial malleolus of the tibia at the ankle. 396) You could feel the inferior iliac notch. 393) The arches absorb shock as weight distribution shifts during movements. to the sternum. The rotator cuff consists of the tendons of four muscles that stabilize the shoulder joint. If torn. surgical repair may be indicated. 390) The lumbar vertebrae have massive bodies and carry a lot of weight. these factors increase the possibility of dislocations and fractures in the cervical vertebrae. or excessive force. while the transverse arch distributes the weight evenly. muscles. this part of the sternum is easily broken. but the inferior capsule is poorly reinforced. less curvature on the sacrum and coccyx. 399) The triceps brachii attaches to the olecranon process. because its only attachment is superior. but do not extend as far superior to the sacrum. triggered by an infection or some other cause. A broken xiphoid process can cause injury to nearby organs. 395) The pelvic girdle must withstand the load of bearing and moving the entire body whereas the pectoral girdle only supports the upper limbs. The xiphoid process is useful landmark in CPR. causing extension of the forearm. and ilia that project farther laterally. leading to skull deformity and mental retardation. the skull bones can move apart and allow for brain growth without interfering with nervous system development and function. If they are prematurely ossified. 388) These fibrous connective tissue structures fill in between the bones of the cranium in a newborn infant.