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Perimetry is fundamental in diagnosing and managing what disease/s? a. Neurological disease b. Glaucoma c. Retinal disease d. A and B only e. All of the above 2. Which of the following is not true regarding glaucomatous visual field loss. a. Early field defects manifests as decreased sensitivity in small regions of the eye. b. In order to diagnose glaucoma, sensitivity differences across the horizontal meridian, especially in the nasal hemifield, are often used clinically. c. It usually occurs first in the areas of the upper and lower hemifields. d. It is considered the hallmark of glaucomatous visual field loss if there is significant decreased sensitivity at a single test. e. None of the above. 3. Which of the following statements best describes threshold and suprathreshold testing? a. Threshold testing is used for visual function while suprathreshold testing is used for visual sensitivity. b. Threshold testing is used for visual sensitivity while suprathreshold testing is used for visual function. c. Both are used for visual function and sensitivity. d. None of the above. 4. Which of the following items below can peripheral testing be useful? a. Drivers b. Insurance purposes c. Reading d. A and B only e. All of the above 5. What does a p<5% probability symbol mean? a. In a given stimulus, fewer than 5% of people with normal eyesight would be expected to have a decreased sensitivity in that spot. b. In a given stimulus, fewer than 5% of people with eye complaints would be expected to have a decreased sensitivity in that spot. c. In a given stimulus, fewer than 5% of people with eye complaints would be expected to have a normal sensitivity in that spot. d. In a given stimulus, fewer than 5% of people with normal eyesight would be expected to have a normal sensitivity in that spot.
6. Which of the following data on STATPAC Single field analysis is essential for diagnosis? a. Numerical Printouts b. Glaucoma Hemifield Test c. Pattern Standard Deviation d. Grayscale Printouts e. None of the above 7. Which of the following is wrong regarding the peripheral vision. a. Peripheral 30 degrees superiorly b. Peripheral >60 degrees temporally c. Peripheral 40 degrees inferiorly d. Peripheral 20 degrees nasally 8. A generally depressed field without localized loss is most commonly caused by what? a. Media opacities b. A <2mm pupil c. Lack of proper refractive correction d. A and B only e. All of the above 9. Which of the following retinal sensitivity values is the brightest? a. 10 dB b. 20 dB c. 30 dB d. 40 dB 10. What is the dimmest stimulus that can be seen foveally by a young, well-trained observer? a. 38 - 48 dB b. 28 - 38 dB c. 38 - 40 dB d. 18 - 28 dB 11. E.S., a 68-year old fruit vendor, came in the eye center complaining of decreased vision. Upon examination, it was noted that there is blindness in the central 30 degrees of both eyes. Upon undergoing perimetry, it was noted that some of the points in the 24-2 instrument can’t sensitize a zero-decibel stimulus. What type of defect is this? a. Relative defect b. Absolute defect c. Irreversible defect d. Its normal. Its just the blind spot 12. What is the standard background illumination as set by the International Council of Opthalmology? a. 31.0 apostilbs b. 21.5 apostilbs c. 31.5 apostilbs d. 21.0 apostilbs
Which is true regarding temporal summation? a. d. because it tests the visual function outside fovea. What technique is being used in order to verify the correctness of the gaze of the patient being tested? a. Heijl-Bengtsson monitor 17. It happens with a duration of 200 milliseconds. A and B are correct e. b. c. All of the above 14. b. In which of the following conditions does the Goldmann test spot size V is/are used? a. In perimetry. c. All of the above 16. Mostly rods c. Media opacities d. A and B only e. SWAP c. what kind of cells does it test? a. Blind spot monitor c. What type of test pattern is used in this patient? a. As the duration of the stimulus increases. Mostly cones d. It is essential to achieve temporal summation in perimetry. 15. As the duration of the stimulus increases. A and C are correct f.13. Advanced field loss b. d. and the sensed stimuli will algebraically summate. 30-2 24-2 10-2 54-2 . Heijl-Krakau perimeter d. Humphrey perimeter b. Ganglion cells b. there is an increased number of cells that are stimulated in order to make the stimuli visible. there is an increased permeability of cells to sodium.
SITA Standard 10-2 c. SWAP is short-wavelength automated perimetry. it produces a low-wavelength stimulus that is perceived by the eye. Which of the following conditions below is not beneficial if you used SWAP? a. 30-2 b. Early diagnosis of glaucoma c. with yellow light having a shorter wavelength than blue. A and B are correct e. 64-2 19. When blue stimuli is presented in a yellow background. A. In SWAP. It consists of 68 test points b.56 degrees diameter stimulus c. blue has shorter wavelength than yellow. M cones d. What test should be ordered considering having perimetry? a. L cones c. It uses blue-yellow light. Blue-yellow color. size 0.J. a 60-year old male complained of partial loss of vision. Both have shorter wavelengths. HPI: pain in movement of the eye. size 0.18. 21. what kind of cells does it test? a. It can be used in late stages of glaucoma d. size 0. It is so-called because: a. like the white-on-white perimetry d. Diabetic retinopathy b. Which of the following is true regarding this? a. What test pattern is being used if the macular area is the only area of interest? a. Noneof the above 22. c. White color. S cones 24. Monitoring of glaucoma d. Family Hx: (+) Multiple Sclerosis in relatives. Blue-yellow color.43 degrees diameter stimulus b. size 0. White color. b. SITA Fast 30-2 d. 280 nm cones b. 23. 24-2 c. No test can just only focus on the macula area only. Neuro-opthalmic disease . SITA Fast 10-2 b.. In the test. The different test points have a spatial resolution of 2 degrees c. 10-2 d. Which of the following is not true regarding the 10-2 test pattern? a. Goldmann size III is used as the standard in computerized static perimetry.43 degrees diameter stimulus 20.56 degrees diameter stimulus d. so any of the test will do.
threshold testing mode d. It is a test for functional scoring of central vision b. Most useful and important printout b. Which of the following formats is not used in SWAP test? a. All of the Above 30. SWAP c. Change Analysis d. It only presents age-corrected normative data c. Which of the following is not true regarding the test for blepharoplasty? a. More points are tested in the central field than peripherally d. a. Humphrey perimetry b. This test is a single-level. It divides te visual fields unequally and on the basis of functional importance c. Overview c. STATPAC 29.25. Which of the following is not true regarding Single Field Analysis? a. white c. Test results are on the basis of percentage of points seen. It uses a stronger stimuli than the conventional perimetry b. Heijl-Bengtsson monitor d. Highlights any sensitivity values or patterns that deviate significantly from normal d. All of the Above 31. Chloroquine-induced maculopathies d. A and B only e. size III stimulus 26. All of the above 27. Esterman Test is used to test what? a. It is used by Humphrey perimeter . in contrast to the standard perimetry 28. Which of the following format is not included in a standard suprathreshold test results? a. Which is not true regarding Estermann test? a. In Humphrey. Driving b. Disability c. SFA b. A tool that analyzes the patient’s visual field result if it is within normal range. Charge Analysis d. Overview c. It uses Goldmann III 4e. SFA b. it uses 10 dB white.
Pattern Deviation Decibel Plot 33. Pattern Deviation Probability Plot d. Retinal Disease . What do you call to the item pointed by the black arrow above? a. Advanced Glaucoma b. Cataract c. Neurological disease d. Total Deviation Probability Plot b. Total Deviation Decibel Plot c. please refer to the picture below: Left Eye 32.For numbers 32-36. What could be the most likely diagnosis? a.
Which of the following is true regarding the GHT of the SFA above? a.5% b. Extremely unsteady b. It is composed by nerve fibers and ganglion cells only that transmit light from the retina to the brain c. There is p<0. There is p<0. Very unsteady c. 9% e. What is the probability that the results are erroneous because the perimetrist didn’t instruct the patient well on when to press the button or not. All of the Above 38. GCP d. Humphrey c. What is the most widely used instrument for manual perimetry? a.02 difference between the sensitivities in one or more zones in the upper half of the field than that of the lower field. Neurons from the temporal superior and inferior retina do not mix. 3% c. Very steady 37. bu respect the TEMPORAL RAPHE . b.34. SITA d. Total Deviation Plots b. SWAP 39. Pattern Deviation Plots c. Its normal 35. Goldmann b. Which of the following is not true regarding the retina? a. 2% 36. There is p<0. d. c. 0. 5% d. resulting in failure to press the button precisely? a. Mildly unsteady d. Longer axons are situated deeper in the retina b. Which of the following is true regarding how steadily the patient gazes at the fixation stimulus? a. Which of the following plots highlight significant localized visual field loss? a. Ganglion cell axons follow an arcuate path to the optic nerve d.03 difference between the sensitivities in one or more zones in the upper half of the field than that of the lower field.01 difference between the sensitivities in one or more zones in the upper half of the field than that of the lower field.
Bjerrum scotoma b. What is the most likely diagnosis by the grayscale shown below? a. Paracentral scotoma c. c. Contractions of the nasal field 41. Which of the following is not true regarding the picture below? a. Nasal steps d. b.40. The point of fixation has virtually no rods The point of fixation has a high density of cones The area point by the arrow is 10 degrees temporal from the point of fixation The area pointed by the arrow has zero sensitivity . d.
a. 90 degrees to the right and left of fixation . 45. Maculopathy c. None of the above Which of the following binocular visual fields is not acceptable for driving? a. Early glaucomatous vision field loss b. Corneal exam d. None of the above Which of the following tests below is not included in the routine monitoring of hydroxychloroquine-associated adverse effect in some countries? a. Superior d. Medial c. Normal blindspot What is the relationship of the macula in relation/ with respect to the optic disc? a. Early Cataract d. What is the most likely diagnosis in the picture below? 43.42. Lateral b. 47 degrees to the right and left of fixation d. Perimetry b. Retinopathy b. Amsler test c. Optha-neuropathy d. 60 degrees to the right and left of fixation c. 44. 50 degrees to the right and left of fixation b. FL d. Snellen test What reliability parameter is mostly altered in a trigger-happy patient? a. Early Retinal disease c. 46. Inferior What is the feared adverse effect of chloroquine in the eyes? a. 47. FN c. FP b.
2 degrees d. It presents data using a non-standard stimulus size and/or color d. Which of the following is true regarding the pointed area in the picture below? a.48. It is used for the evaluation of eyesight of drivers for licensing d. It is used in all disease entities b. It presents box plot summaries of individual tests c. Normal sensitivity values in this area is similar to that of the point of vision area c. What is the resolution of a 30-2 threshold test? a. None of the above . 4 degrees c. There is a high visual field variability in the area b. 6 degrees b. Which of the following is true regarding the picture below? a. It has age correction and probability symbols 49. Dark area in this field is a sure sign of eye disease 50.
FP b. what kind of patient below would most likely have this erroneous result? a. None of the above 53. FL d. b. A 20-yr old female who has retinal disease. d. Which of the following is not true regarding retinal disease? a. Retinochoroiditis may be similar to glaucoma in terms of defect pattern in perimetry c. c. A 3-yr old boy who had congenital glaucoma with ADHD 54. In the picture in #52. In the picture below. What reliability parameter is mostly altered in the picture below? a. and is very eager to be cured d. A 52-yr old woman who has been told that she has stage III pituitary adenocarcinoma b. A complication of diabetes mellitus in the eye may cause a mottled appearance in perimetry 52. where could be the lesion located? a.51. A 70-yr old male who has glaucoma and is frequently undergoing perimetry test c. Left optic nerve Right optic nerve Left optic tract Right optic tract . Retinal detachments and retinoschises usually cause central field defects d. FN c. All retinal diseases have a common field defect b.
58. AION . 56. Right occipital lobe b. What could be the problem with this patient with a perimetry result of the right eye below? a. Occlusion of a branch of central retinal artery b. Left optic tract 59. Right parietal lobe d. Left occipital lobe c.For numbers 55-57. refer to the picture below for the choices: 55. Inferior Nasal Step Biarcuate scotoma Enlarged blind spot Where is the lesion in the patient with perimetry results below? a. 57.
1 only b. 61. Normal Which of the following is not true regarding the bowl of the Humphrey field analyzer? a. 10 Which of the following items below does a Humphrey perimeter can’t perform? a. None of the above How many are Bjerrum areas in an eye? a. Neurological diseases d. None of the above In Humphrey perimeter. 24 cm d. 5 c. 63. 62. 2 d. c. SWAP d. Kinetic testing c. It is patented. Using a size V stimulus b. 37 cm c. 30 cm b. spherical or bullet-shaped. what could be the perimetry result of the other eye? a. c. None of the above . 300 ms c. 250 ms b. surface d. how long does the shutter remain open? a. A and B only e.60. Its surface is textured to provide an almost perfectly matte finish known as a Lambertian surface. 64. All of the above In the picture above. Totally blind c. 65. The same as the picture b. It is where stimuli are projected What is the distance from the eye to the center of the bowl? a. 350 ms d. Blind superiorly d. The distance from the eye to the bowl is the same as the Goldmann perimeter b.
Only the nasal fibers of OD and OS d. The lesion may be localized below the hippocampus 69. The affected fibers in this lesion are the CROSSING FIBERS b.For numbers 66 to 68. Aneurysm in the Circle of Willis c. Pituitary adenomas b. refer to the picture below: 66. None of the above 68. Which of the following is true regarding the fibers that cross the optic chiasm? a. What kind of error does the patient do in the perimetry result below? . This is an advanced defect d. Some of the nasal fibers of OD and OS. Which of the following is not likely to cause this defect? a. Defects caused by infrachiasmal lesions may be limited to the superior part of the hemifield c. The nasal fibers of OD and the temporal fibers of OS b. Meningiomas d. Which of the following is true regarding this lesion? a. The temporal fibers of OD and the nasal fibers of OD c. and some of the temporal fibers of OD and OS 67.
2/20 FP 72. 1/13 FP c. A and B only e. A large difference between two tests done within a short period of time means that the disease progressed. The glaucoma hemifield test differentiate between random test-retest fluctuation and significant changes in glaucomatous fields d. MRI b. Positive strong correction lenses d. All of the above . A series of fields may be qualitatively analyzed for change using an overview printout 71. The patient didn’t look directly at the center c. Which of the following is true regaring following-up of certain cases? a. c. Which of the following perimetry results is not acceptable? a. The patient failed to raise his/her eyelids b. There is a low test-retest variability in perimetry testing of abnormal fields b. Which of the following can be a substitute to perimetry in neurological diseases? a. 6/25 FL b. CT SCAN c. The patient lost his/her attention while performing the test 70.a. 4/20 FL d. Confrontation d.
Demographics d. Progression of the disease b. Visual Field Indices . 24-2 has 6 degrees resolution while 10-2 has 2 degrees resolution c. 24-2 has 54 degrees resolution while 10-2 has 68 degrees resolution 80. a. 54 d. 5 by 7 degrees d. A stimulus with a high intensity of light is the one with: a. High decibel value. 24-2 and 10-2 has 6 degrees resolution d. Tunnel vision is readily seen in 30-2 or 24-2 perimetry d. A and B only e. Reliability Indices c. 76 c. low decibel value c. A large percentage of glaucoma patients have coexisting what disease? a. What is the normal size of the blind spot? a. Field defects in a suprathreshold test are often deep and easily identified 75. How many test points does a 30-2 test pattern have? a. None of the above 74. None of the above 77. Media opacities d. High apostibls value. 24-2 has 6 degrees resolution while 10-2 has 4 degrees resolution b. It tells about which test is performed and on whom performed. High decibel and apostibls values d. 60 79. Numerical Printouts b. All of the above 76. Which of the following is not true regarding retinitis pigmentosa? a. maculopathy c. A sudden and large change in the perimetry result of a glaucoma patient is often due to: a. Which of the following is true regarding the resolution of 24-2 and 10-2 test patterns? a. Retinal disease b. 64 b.73. low apostibls value b. Macular degeneration d. 3 by 5 degrees b. Typical field loss in this disease is circular and initially located midperiphery b. Night blindness generally precedes tunnel vision c. Stroke or retinal vascular occlusion c. 5 by 5 degrees c. Low decibel and apostibls values 78.
Generalized loss of sensitivity d. Myopia c. Astigmatism d. Abnormal d. CPSD c. 1 point <P 1% b. MD b. Small localized field defect c. G. Optic neuritis b. PSD minus SF (PSD – SF) will give what value? a.81. Osler c. Which of the following diseases is the most important to be given corrective lenses? a. Which of the following is not included in the criteria asked in # 83? a. Anderson 84. What do you call to the criteria used in diagnosing early glaucoma through perimetry? a. There’s no such thing 86. Three non-edge adjacent scotomas in pattern deviation probability plot .T. Glaucoma 82. Tobacco-alcohol amblyopia . PSD <P 5% 85.H. What is the most likely diagnosis in a patient with a perimetry result below? a. Sandeep d. Large defects + localized component 83. Abnormal MD and Abnormal CPSD c. Bjerrum b. Normal b.2 points <P 5%. Hyperopia b. GHT d. An abnormal MD and a normal CPSD will give what kind of result? a.
25 dB d. General depression of sensitivity c. Which of the following lies in the range of abnormal vision? a. Deviations of 15 degrees or more d. Deviations of 10 degrees or more b. Glaucoma d. 90. 88. 10-2 d. 40 dB c. All of the above A depressed TDP and a normal PDP can be interpreted as: a.5% of the normal population. Deviations of 7 degrees or more. Cannot be determined 91. Cataract b. 24-2 c. a full-scale spike indicate: a. Outside normal limits b. 30-2 b.87. None of the above In gaze tracker. Is always unreliable What test pattern is used in the perimetry data below? a. Borderline d. c. because the normal blind spot is about 6 degrees c. All of the above . None of the above Appears when the overall sensitivity is higher than expected in 99. Trigger-happy patient c. 35 dB b. 89. a. Mechanical compression of CNII d.
GHT shows abnormally high sensitivity d. 2 d. No change d. Eyelid Artifact c. High fixation loss rate 94. Which of the following is not a sign of excessive FP results? a. How would a shorter testing time affect the normal hill of vision? a. What caused the artifact seen below? . 10 b. Highly positive MD b. What kind of artifact is shown with a patient show below? a. TDP is much worse than PD c. 1 93. Correction lens artifact d. General Depression c. Cloverfield field b. General Rise b. 5 c. How many zones does a GHT utilize? a.92. Variable 95. None of the above 96.
Use of small diamond fixation target c. B and C only 98. d. Patient gazing upward c. The eye tested is the left eye b. it is indicative of a disease 97. Use of size V stimulus b. What is an indication for vision testing with macular degeneration? a. The normal age-adjusted value for the point with a 28 dB value at (+. Lens holder too high d. Those points with two values are those that are tested twice but with inconsistencies in the sensitivity perceived by the patient . The normal age-adjusted value for the point with a 14 dB and a 4 dB value at (-.+) quadrant is 32 Db c. Chin rest too high b.a. This is not an artifact. Use of fixation target other than central fixation target d.-) quadrant is 33 dB. Which of the following is not true regarding the given raw data and TDPP below: a.
Superior Altitudinal Defect . Optic disc pit d. Open angle glaucoma with inferior loss of arcuate nerve fibre layer b. Paracentral scotoma c. What is the most likely diagnosis? a. Arcuate scotoma d. refer to the picture below: 99.For numbers 99-100. What does the visual field show? a. Centrocentral scotoma b. Inferior branch retinal vein occlusion c. All diseases listed above can produce the same perimetry results 100.
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