N.B: Please any suggestions inform me by mail: unis_memon85@yahoo.com thanks. Saudi Counsel Exams for Lab.

Technician Instruction: Select one best answer for the following multiple choice Questions: General Question 1. One is not found (involve) in colorimetric: 1-Cuvett 2-light source 3-Photo sensor and analyzer 4-fule source 5-Filter 2. The atomic mass of an atom is the number of: 1-Protons and neutrons 2-Protons only 3-Neutrons only 4-Electrons 5-Non of the above 3. Deionization of impure water means: 1-Boiling 2-Filtration 3-Exchange of protons and electrons 4. If you see this sign (symbol) in the lab it means: 1-Flammable 2-Corrosive 3-Oxidizing 4-Explosive 5-Toxic 5. Most common method (technique) used to detect hormone amount in the laboratories : 1-Spectrophotometry 2-Enzyme Linked Immuno Surbant Assay (ELIZA) 6. Test should be kept away from light: 1-Serum bilirubin 7. Buffer solution is: 1-Chaing color when chaing pH 2-Resist acidic pH 3-Resist alkaline pH 4-Weak acid + weak base 5-Strong acid + weak base 8. An indicator is: 1-Change color with change pH 2-Resist acidic pH 3-Resist alkaline pH 4-Weak acid + weak base 5-Strong acid + weak base 9. Heparin is: 1-Protein 2-Enzyme

3-Polysaccharide 4-Oligosaccharide

2 5- Non of the above 10. Not find in the flam photometry : Burner Filter Fuel source Cuvete for sample Photo 11. Low effective sterilization with: Ethyl alcohol 70% Methyl alcohol Chloroform 5%phenol 5% cresol 12. Prolonged fast cause: Hyperglycemia Keton in urine 13. Lens near the slid in light microscope : Objective Eye lenses 14. Does not sterile with hot air oven: Dry glassware Oil Powder Waxes Rubber gloves 15. Autoclave sterilize in temp: 121..c-20-30min 16. Alkali skin burn treatment by neutralization with: Sodium bicarbonate powder Boric acid Acetic acid 1% Cold water Hot water 17. You do not take this stage for treatment small cut In emergency : Clean with soap and water Do pressure with piece Immediately rinse mouth well and water Cover it with water dressing Sterilize 18. the (u) unit used to evaluation of : . Protein in serum . Hemoglobin . Hormone assay Enzymatic activity 19. During reaction of two chemical substances , the color produced asses by . Spectrophotometer . Flame photometer

3 20. To detect pH from solution use : . pH meter . Indicator . Micrometer 21. This Symbol means, when you see in laboratory : . acute flammable . Toxic . Corrosive . Explosive 22. The microscope which used in investigate syphilis is? *light microscope *ultra-violet microscope *dark field microscope 23. How much water should we add to 500ml of a solution of 10% of NAOH to bring it to 7.5%? *666 *250 *166 24. Calibrator sera are? *secondary standards *internal standards *primary standards 25. A buffer made of? *a strong acid + a strong salt *a weak acid + a weak salt *a weak acid + a strong salt 26. The difference between plasma & serum is that plasma? *does not contain fibrinogen *has more water *contains fibrinogen (Plasma) 27. Five ml of colored solution has an absorbance of .500nm the absorbance of 10 ml of the same solution is? *1.000nm *0.250nm *0.500nm 28. Plasma or serum should be separated at the earliest time for estimation of g lucose because? *glucose value increases with time *lyses of blood will occur *glucose value decreases with time 29. Wave Length Visible To Naked Eye: 400-700 nm. 30. Purpose of standard deviation : A-to measure external quality control B-to measure internal quality control C-precise & accuracy D-both a & b 31. Substance used in catalyse reaction : H2o2

4 Haematology 1. Neutrophil count is high in: 1-Acute bacterial infection 2- Iron deficiency anemia 3-Megaloblastic anemia 2. HbA2 is consisting of: 1- 3 . chains and 2 . chains 2- 2 . chains and 2 ß chains 3- 2 . chains and 2 d chains 4- 2 . chains and 3 d chains 5- 3 . chains and 2 d chains 3. The main (most) Hb found in adult is: . Hb A . Hb A2 . Hb F 4. Detection of malaria parasite is by: 1- Thick blood film 5. Leukocyte that involve in Adaptive and Acquired immunity: 1- Lymphocyte 2- Neutrophil 3- Monocyte 4- Basophile 5- Eosinophil 6. Normal range of leukocyte is: 1- 4-11 X 10^9 7. Reticulocyte is immature: 1- RBC 2- WBC 3- Platelet 8. Leukocyte responsible for cellular immunity: 1- T-lymphocyte 2- B- lymphocyte 3- Monocyte 4- Basophile 5- Eosinophil 9. Malaria infection transmitted by: 1- Male anopheles mosquito 2- Female anopheles mosquito 10. One stage prothrombin time used to detect (diagnose) disorders in: 1- Extrinsic coagulation pathway (factors) 2- Intrinsic coagulation pathway (factors) 11. Thrombin time is: 1- Extrinsic coagulation pathway (factors) 2- Intrinsic coagulation pathway (factors) 3- The conversion of prothrombin to fibrinogen in addition of thrombin

Eosinophil 22. 75% 23. Most sever (serious) malaria infection caused by: 1.All of the above 13.Neutrophil is a common White blood cell present in blood and the percentage of presence is : . 5.Nutrophile 3. One of these cell the largest leukocyte cell: .Lymphocyte 2.6.Basophile 5. Lymphocyte .Plasmodium Falciparum 2.Plasmodium Vivax 5. S hemoglobin is the same defect of thalassemia but the different is : Long B chain Glutamic acid on B chain is substituted with valine Glutamic acid on a chain is substitutes with valine 20.5X 10^9 24.Plasmodium Malaria 3. With Romanowsky stain . Leukocyte responsible for response to parasitic and allergic infection: 1. Neutrophil . Bleeding time test detect the abnormality in : Defect in vessels and platelets 19.2-5 lobes and give violet or pinkish granules: Nutrophile Eiosinophile Basophile Monocyte 15. Lymphocyte . Neutrophil . Thrombin time measure: Convert fibrinogen to fibrin with activate of thrombin 17. Normal range of erythrocyte 4.Monocyte 4. Monocyte . In presence of clotting defect one of this not measure: Leukocyte count 18.Plasmodium Ovale 4. Monocyte .Eosinophil 14. . 15% . 90% . Which of White blood cell give immunoglobulin : . Hormone that cause replication of RBC: Erythropoietin 21. Basophile . Basophil . Lymphocyte is elevated in : Viral infection Acute bacterial infection Iron deficiency anemia Megaloblastic anemia Non of the above 16.5 12.

LYMPH B. Malaria chizonts are present in? *reticulo-endothelial *leukocyte *RBCs 26.Enlarged RBCs ( Megaloblastic anemia ) = Macrocytic B. The defect of thalassemia occurs in: . HbF (Infant heamoglobin) fetal haemoglobin 33. In iron deficiency anaemia : RBCs are smaller than normal = Microcytic 38. In folic acid deficiency what happens to rbcs :A. dominant in adult 32.Crenated RBCs C.MONOCYTES . Neutrophil Most abundant in WBCs 31. IVY method of bleeding time For vascular and platelets abnormalities (function) 30. increased calcium level 35. Malaria does not grow in? *EDTA blood *heparin zed blood *Plasma 28. Cycle of heme .6 . Neutrophil Firstly increased in bacterial infections 34. HbA (Adult haemoglobin ) for adult. Eosinophil 25. Unidirectional movement of WBCs directly to its target is? *sliding *phagocytes *chemo taxis 27. Glubin chain 47.Haemolyzed RBCs 37. Hemophilia man married to normal woman the incidence of his children is? *carrier male *diseased female *carrier female 29. The malarial sporozoite in man invades:A-white blood cells B-RBCs C-Reticulo-endothelial cells D-all of the above 46. Prolonged application of tourniquet Venous stasis . Best time for collection of blood for malaria :A-before and after paroxsym B-shortly after paroxsym C-later paroxsym D-just before paroxsym 36. All Cells Are Nucleated EXCEPT:A.

Fructose + glucose 4.ADP 3.Only glucose 2. Hydrolysis of sucrose result: 1. seminiferous tubules 2.Eosin + Alkaline methylene blue 2.NADH 5.Direct bilirubin is within the normal 5.NADPH 6. glucagon 2.Normal color of stool 4.Acetyl CoA 2.cells.Total bilirubin is elevated 2.Galactose 3. Presence one from this substance in urine detect abnormal condition.Indian Ink Bio-Chemistry 1.Non of the above 5. One is not true about acid: 1.Maltose + Glucose 7.Methylene blue only 4.Estrogen .High bilirubin in urine 3. .Corpus luteum .Clay color of stool 3.ß.No change in color of urine 4. Pentose phosphate metabolism cycle is important to the cell because it give: 1. One is not correctly paired: 1.Direct bilirubin is within the normal 4. Consider ketose: Glucose Fructose Mannose 8.Total bilirubin is elevated 2.Proton donor 2.cells .React with alkaline to give water and salt 5. In case of obstructive jaundice one is commonly not found: 1. In case of Hemolytic jaundice one is not likely to be found: 1.RBCS D-NEUTROPHIL 48.7 C.Glucose + Glucose 5. calcium 4.Sour taste 4.Turn litmus paper to blue 3.Eosin only 3.Dark color of urine 5.Parathyroid .a. insulin 3.ATP 4.High bilirubin in urine 3. Romanowsky stain consists of: 1. Progesterone 5.

Hyperglycemia . Heart glycogen . In cardiac infraction one of the measurements is not benefited: Creatinine 10. Nucleus . polysaccharide 21. Muscle glycogen Liver glycogen . Triglyceride 20. Of cholesterol: Chylomicron LDL HDL VLDL Apolipoprtein 11. Hypercholesterolemia . Glycolysis done in : . One of the above not present in Diabetic mellitus coma : .8 Calcium Phosphates Glucose Urates 9. Endoplasmic reticulum . Pyrimidin base: Adenine Guanine Thymine Uric acid Urea 14. Non of the above 18. In which substance give blood glucose when hydrolysis : . High number of ketene in urine . Mitochondrion . Alkaline phosphates is the important enzyme to detect function in : . Hyper secretion of insulin cause: Hypoglycemia 12. One use for measure abnormality in kidney : Creatinine 15. Unsaturated fat . One is stimulate on serum calcium level: Prolonged application of tourniquet on arm 17. Cytoplasm . Amino acid . cholesterol . Does not stimulate with slight hemolysis: Cholesterol 16. Non of the above 19. Urea is final product of catabolism of: . Hyperglycemia hormone Glucagon 13. One of the following has highest conc. triglyceride .

his billrubin is: *2.2mg/dl *5. Insulin is regulating blood sugar by? *Increase the influx of glucose into cells *activate glycogensis *All the previous 30. One jaundice patient has yellow skin. The diabetic patient is going to comma when blood glucose is? *120 mg/dl *160 mg/dl *Less than 50mg/dl 25. Liver and heart disease .9 .5mg/dl *1. AST important enzyme to detect abnormality in: . EDTA . Comma of diabetic patient shows? *glucose grater than 200mg/dl *glucose less than 200mg/dl *glucose grater than 500mg/dl 32. Heart disease . Liver and bone . Heparin . Acute diabetic patient has? *blood sugar more than 150mg/dl *blood sugar more than 180mg/dl *Glucose & Acetone in urine 28. Florida Oxalate . To check the intestinal efficacy the following test is done? *pepsin *lipase *stool fats 31. Bone .0mg/dl 27. Amylase value is high in the following disease? *salivary glands *pancreas diseases *All of the previous 26. Liver disease . Bone matrix can also call? *vascular tissue *fibrous tissue *Osteon . One of the following anticoagulant used for blood glucose : . Diabetic patient has one of the following symptoms? *acidosis *alkalosis *Dryness 29. Sodium citrate 23. Non of the above 24. Liver . Non of the above 22. Sodium oxalate .

Which test is better to diagnose chronic bile duct? *total bilirubin *S-GOT *ALP 36. One of the following enzymes is affected by hemolysis? *SGOT *SGPT *LDH 39. One of the following heart enzymes is measured after 4-8hr of chest pain? *GOT *LDH *CPK 42. Serum LDH is elevated in all the following except? *skeletal disease *cardiac/ hepatic diseases *renal disease 34. With age the renal threshold for glucose? *increase *decrease *does not change 37. For glucose tolerance test? *collect 5 blood samples only *collect 5 urin samples only *collect 5 blood samples + 5 urin samples 41. Causes of high serum bilirubin are? *overload on liver *haemolysis *all of the previous 38. Elevated Sodium & Chloride is seen in? *shock *diabetic acidosis *Severe dehydration 35.33. Light effects one of the following? *glucose *urea *billrubin 43. Acid phosphate is? *heart enzyme . HbA1C of diabetic patient is important for? *he has to come fasting *short term follow up *Long term follow up 40. One of the following is important before anesthesia? *alkaline phosphates *acidic phosphates *Pseudocholine esterase 45. One of the following is specific diagnostic liver enzyme? *GOT *LDH *GPT 44.

Useful cholesterol is carried on? *chylomicron . For GTT in adults the dose of glucose is? *50gram *100gram *75gram 52.*liver enzyme *Prostatic enzyme 46. Exogenous triglyceride is carried on? *VLDL *HDL *Chylomicron 55. All of the following are affected by meal except? *glucose *albumin *Creatininine 48. Harmful cholesterol is carried on? *HDL *VLDL *LDL 57. Na+ is the main? *intra cellular anion *intra cellular cation -----(K) *extra cellular cation 49. The best kidney function test? *urea *total protein *creatinine clearance 51. Random blood glucose gives an idea? *to justify blood glucose *fasting patient *blood glucose in urgent cases 54. One of the following electrolytes is affected by hemolisis? *Ca *Mg *k 50. Endogenous triglyceride is carried on? *LDL *HDL *VLDL 56. For GTT in children the dose of glucose is? *30mg *15gram *30gram 53. In Uric acid estimation? *its affected by carbohydrate meal *no need for fasting *The patient has to come fasting 47.

Function of pili of the bacteria: 1-Attachment to the host tissue 2-Movement 3-Reproduction (multiplication) 4-Engulf of food 5-All of the above 3. Strict aerobe bacteria Mycobacterium . Bacteria can cause pathogenesis to human by: 1-Capsullar 2-Secret enzymes 3-Endogenous toxins 4-Exogenous toxins 5-All of the above 2.*LDL *HDL 58.) D-bun (blood urea nitrogen) 61. Which of the following is protected from light :Abilirubin B-cholesterol C-total protein (TP. Purine Associated With A-ADENINE B-GUANINE C-URIC ACID D-RNA Microbiology 1. All of the following can asses the liver function except :AAST B-ALT C-ALP D-Creatinine 62. Test Used To Diagnose Obstructive Bile Duct A-Bilirubin B-biliverdin C-urobilinogen D-none of the above 60. For lipid investigation patient has to fast? *4-6hr *6-8hr *12-14hr 59. Bacteria motile gram-rods: Shigella Bordetela pertusis Pseudomonas aeruginoea Yersenia pestis 4.

A child diagnosis show scarlet fever the cause is: 1-Streptococcus Pyogenes 2-Staphylococci aureus 9. Best sterilization of Nutrient media done by: 1-Hot air oven 2-Autoclaving 12. One is always non motile gram ve rods: 1-Haemophilus Influenza 2-Shigella 3-E. Gram-v bacteria color : Dark purple Pale to dark red Orange . One is motile gram ve rods: 1-Haemophilus Influenza 2-Bacillus anthracis 3-Pseudomonas aerogenes 4-Vibrio cholerae 5-Yersinia Pestis 7. Xylose lysine Deoxycholate (XLD) is: 1-Selective media 2-Simple media 3-Differential media 4-Enriched media 5-Enrichment 10.coli 4-Salmonella 5-Borditella Pertusis 6. Gram +ve cocci arranged in groups (clusters): 1-Streptococci 2-Staphylococci 15.5. Confirmatory test of streptococcus pneumonia: 1-Catalase 2-Optochine disc 3-Coagulase 4-Bile insolubility 5-Bacitracin 14. One is gram +ve oval (cocci): 1-Bacillus anthracis 2-Meningococci 3-Pneumococci 8. Org. One is always oxidase +ve 1-Haemophilus Influenza 2-Pseudomonas aurogenase 16. (bacteria) arranged in Chinese litters: 1-Corynebacteria Diphtheria 2-Bacillus anthraces 13. One is not a Romanowsky stain: 1-Fields stain 2-Gram stain 3-Geimsa stain 4-Leishman stain 11.

H Ag present in : .F: Maconky media 24. Meat extract . 21. Cell membrane 28. Bacteria need dark field to detect T.L.14 17. Pilli . Z. Capsule . Nucleus . Meat extract agar . Blood agar . Non of the above 29. Entameba histolytica . All of the above 26. Org cause bloody in stool: Shigella sp.N stain use for diagnose : Mycobacterium 23. The most source of ATP in cell is : . Agar . Use for clean slide: Ethyl alcohol Methyl alcohol 25. One of these is prokaryotic cell: . 22. Fungi . Disease caused by Pyogen stereptococcus: Scarlet fever. All of the above Non of the above 30. Staphylococci . Media use for differentiate between L. Nutrient agar: Basic media 20.F and N. Minral salts .pallidium (Syphilis) 18. One of these org gram +ve cocci arranged in pairs : . Selective and Differential medium of entero pathogen is: . Cytoplasm . Bacteria . Non of the above . Cell wall 27. . Flagella . Mitochondria . Chocolate agar . DCA medium . The following is ingredient of culture medium: . Citrate test assis : Mycobacterias Staph Strept Colistridia sp 19. Peptone .

One of the following is capsulated bacteria? *streptococci *E. All the following parameters affecting gram staining except? *use H2SO4 *add absolute alcohol after washing *Delaying the dryness of the slide 39.tetani *C. Streptococci . Meningococci .15 . The best sample for the culture of children paralysis virus is? *anal swab *blood culture *stool culture 33. All of the following is true for salmonella except? *motile *produces H2S *oxidase positive 34. The best media for urine culture is? *blood agar *chocolate agar *CLED agar 35.coli *klebsiella Pneumonia 43.coli 42. Which of the following causes UTI & INDOL positive? *klebsiella *staphylococci *E.coli *proteus *Non of the previous 38. Shigella soni colored in maconkey & EMB? *colorless *red *pink 37. Entrococci 31. Which of the following culture media is suitable for semi quantitative bacte rial count in urine samples . The sterilization of autoclave is? *85c for 30min *150c for 30min *121c for 15min 36. Blood sample is used to diagnose? *C. All the following bacteria are interobacter except? *E. Serious that causes food poisoning? *staph albus *salmonella typhi *Salmonella enteritidis 41. Substance used in catalyse reaction : H2O2 32.diphteria *non from them 40.

All statements are true about proteus mirabilis and Proteus vulgaris except :Oxidase negative & liquefies gelatin a-Exhibits swarming on BAP and Mc Conkey's agar b-Urease positive c-KCN and N2S positive d-Positive to INDOLE test 49. The following organisms are lactose fomenters except a-E. Klebsiella pneumonia Capsulated 50. All are true of campylobacter jejuni or Which of the following statements ab out campylobacter is false:aGram negative curved bacilli b-Slow growth c-Grow on XLD medium d-Arranged in pairs 47. Sterilization is best done by 121c 15 PSI for 15-20 minutes 52. All is true about Enterobacteriaceae except :aThey are hemolytic and sorbitol b-Ferments Mannitol c-Grow in Methylene blue medium d-Inhibited growth with 6. Thayer-martin media is the choice for the isolation of the following organis m : APseudomonas Aeroginosa B-Haemophilus influenzae C-Nisseria gonorrhoea 54.a-Mc Conkey agar b-Blood agar c-XLD medium d-Mannitol salt agar e-CLED medium 44. coli b-Enterobacter cloacae c-Shigella sonnei d-Proteus spp. 45. Some organisms are to said to be pathogenic if they are containing the follo wing features :Acoagulase B-catalase C-sugar D-antibodies 51. Organism Soluble In Bile :Astaph B-streptococci C-Pneumococci (streptococcus pneumonia) D-Haemophilous influenzae 53. Confirmatory test for Strept. Pneumoniae : .5 % NaCl and/or at temperature 46. Beta hemolysis is enhanced when group B Streptococci is streaked at an angle in blood agar plate with : A-Streptococci b-Staph aureus c-Micrococcus d-Streptococcus epiedermidis e-Corynebacterim diphteriae 48.

Which of the following organisms is an anaerobic bacterium :AClostiridium spp. Nutrient agar is :ASelective media B-Differential media C-Special media D-Basic medium 58. The Following Organisms Are Encapsulated Except :APseudomonas aeroginosa B-E. Specimen suitable for microfilaria A-TISSUE B-BLOOD C-FLUID 56. Coli C-Haemophilous influenzae D-Streptococcus pneumoniae 59. Vi Ag is seen in :ACAPSULE B-PILI C-SPORE D-FLAGELLA 60.A-Optochin sensitivity disc B-Bacitracin disc sensitivity C-Bile solubility D-Catalase test 55. All are true about enterococci except :-(Strept. and alkaline urine probably indicate urinar y tract infection due to:: A-Staphylococcus epidermidis B-E. Streptococci responsible for the majority of human infections are :AGroup A B-beta-haemolytic streptococci C-bacitracin-s and camp ( -) D-all of these E-none of these 63. Blood culture is indicated in the following bacterial diseases except . B-Haemophilus C-E. puria . Faecalis) A-have carbohydrate antigen of group d streptococci B-positive aesculin hydrolysis C-grow in the presence of bile salts D-Do not grow in the presence of 6. Coli C-Proteus vulgaris D-Pseudomonas aerginosa E-Enterococcus Faecalis 62. Coli D-Yersinia enterocolitica 57.5 % Nacl nor at 45 c 61. To differentiate between nisseria gonorrhoea and nisseria meningitidis : A-fermentation of dextrose and lactose B-Fermentation of dextrose and maltose C-fermentation of maltose and lactose D-Fermentation of maltose and sucrose 64. Significant bacteruria .

The invasiveness of streptococcus pneumoniae is due to the production of: A-haemolsins B-endotoxins C-extotoxins D-Polysaccharide capsule 67. Parasite can cause fetal cerebral infection: 1-Taenia 2-Toxoplasma gondii 4. Non motile protozoa: 1-E. Which of the following statements about campylobacter jejuni is false A-gram negative curved bacilli B-Arranged in pairs (see-gull) C-slow growth D-Grows on XLD medium E-incubation temperature at 42 c 66. Infective stage of Entrobius Vermicularis is: 1-Larva 2-Cercaria 3-Egg 4-Cyst 5-Metacercaria 2. The definitive host is an animal: 1-Entamoeba histolitica 2-Toxoplasma Gondii 3-Trypanosoma cruzi 4-E. Intracellular parasite: E.A-meningitis B-endocarditis C-Gastroenteritis D-pyelonephritis E-pneumonia 65.coli 5-Giardia lamblia 3.coli Toxoplasma gondii Giaradia lamblia Typanosoma cruzi Trichomonas vaginalis 5. Agar is characterized by all the following except? *freezing point is 42c & melting point is 100c *nutritive *un-nutritive Paracytology 1.coli 2-Entamoeba Histolytica 3-Trypanosoma cruzi 4-Giardia lamblia .

5-Trichomonas vaginalis .

histolytica E. Iodine stain of Entamoeba cyst used to detect (diagnose): 1. Generally diagnosed by recovery & identification of typical larva in stool? *hook worms . Shistosoma hematobium diagnosis: Egg in urine with terminal spine 16.Larva 2.Embrocated egg 4. Blood of Microfilaria infection diagnostic with: Wuchereria bancrofti 13.Finding of a typical fertilized egg in stool 11. Cutaneous Leishmanias is transmitted by: Phlebotomus sand fly 15. Cercaria . Metacercaria 18. One of these organism multiply intracellular parasite: .Anclystoma Dudenal 4.Cell wall 3. infective stage of Ascaris lumbricodes : .coli Toxoplasma gondii Giaradia lamblia Typanosoma cruzi 14. Larva . Tryponosoma Cruzi .Trichomonas Vaginalis 12.Cercaria 3.Entrobius Vermicularis 2.Metacercaria 8.19 6. Infective stage of Taenia: 1.Taenia Sp.Ascaris Lumbercoidis 9. 7. E.Cyst 5. Parasite can be detected in vaginal and urethral discharge: 1. Toxoplasma gondii 17. Cyst . Egg . The worm that causes blood in urine? *ascaris *fasciola *Schistosoma haematobium 19. Oocyst benefited to diagnose: E. coli . 3.Chromatoidal bars 2. Gardia lamblia .Nuclei 10. Autoinfection of human can caused in case of: 1. Identification of Leishmania parasite Lymph node aspirate. Entameba histolytica . Diagnostic stage of Ascaris lumbericoidis: 1.

stercoralis 20.20 *t. Glucose .Eggs in stool B-larva in stool C-larva in tissue D-cysticercous bovis 28. The intermediate host of Toxoplasma is :A-dog B. contain sugar source of the spermatozoa energy is: .T.Cat C-mouse D-all E-none 30. Glactose . lumbricoides d. Polio myeletis is transmitted through? *skin *respiration *Feco-oral 22. spiralis 23. vermicularis (Pin Worm) b. The infective stage of Ancylostoma Duodenale is :A. A semen specimen. Mannose . Which of the following is not laying eggs in small intestine? *hook worm *t. Sugar can not be detected in urine using copper reduction test A.A.fructose B.All of the above 24.Galactose C.arabinose D.T.saginata *Pin worm 21.A. Best for identification of parasite if you can not see it in stool ( Negativ e in stool ) Concentration Technique 25. What practical Cardiolipin is applicable in laboratory work? A-FTA B. Identification of fertilized eggs in feces Ascaris Lumbricoides 26.Sucrose 27. A parasite which does not deposit eggs in the intestine a. The causative parasite of Egyptian Bilharisiasis a-Trichomonas Vaginalis b-Schitosoma haematobium c-Schitosoma japonicum d-Schitosoma mansoni e. duodenale c.saginata e.VDRL & RPR C-RPR ONLY D-VDRL ONLY 29.E.trichura *s.

Ig not part of acquired immunity :A-IgM B-IgA C-IgE D-IgG 9. IgE .IgG B-IgA C-IgM D-IgE 6. IgG . To check the intestinal efficacy the following test *pepsin *lipase *stool fats Immunology 1. Fructose Sucrose 27. IgD is done? serum : Infection & Allergy serum : . IgG . Immunoglobulin is? *B globulin *Alfa globulin *Gamma globulin 5.called Plasma cell 3. Ig can cause HDN :A-IgM B-IgA C-IgE D-IgG 8. IgD . ? A-IgM (HEAVIER ) 1St B-IgA C-IgE 7. IgA 4. IgM . B-lymphocyte after attack foreign bodies . The smallest molecular weight Ig is: 1-IgG 2-IgM 3-IgD 4-IgE 5-IgA 2. IgE . One of the immunoglobulin present in trace amount in .21 . One of the immunoglobulin present in trace amount in . Ig ( Immunoglobulin ) Increased In Case Of Parasitic A. IgM .

IgA ELISA 1. The enzyme in ELISA testing is present in the? *buffer *micro plate *conjugate 3. Washing must be done in all heterogeneous ELISA technique because? *increase the specificity *increase the sensitivity *it removes the excess binding 5. Sensitized Ab in serum detect by: Indirect antiglublin test 4.Sensitized RBCs in patient blood 2.IgM 4.Non of the above 3.IgG 3. A standard micro plates in ELISA test has? *98 wells *94 wells *96 wells 2. Direct anti-antibody test used to detect: (Direct Combs Test) 1. Blood medium commonly used in blood bank: 1.22 .Non of the above .Sensitized antibody in patient serum 5.Saline alanin glucose maltose (SAGM) 2.Citrate Phosphate Dextrose adenine (CPD-A) 2.method used to detect hormone in the laboratory : . ELIZA Blood Bank 1. The label in ELISA tests is? *radio active substance *antibody *enzyme 6.Sensitized RBCs in patient blood 2. Antigen antibody complex are? *weakly bound *no bounds *strongly bound 4. Indirect anti-antibody test used to detect: (Indirect Combs Test) 1.Heparin anticoagulant 4.IgM 4.IgG 3.EDTA anticoagulant 3.Sensitized antibody in patient serum 5. .

120 day 3. Anti-Human Immunoglubin is: 1. Anti A1B .c: 1year 1month 4 year 2 year 6year 11. Life span of red blood cells in the circulation (body): 1.Anti-Ab 3.C antigen Non of the above 7. In Anti human globulin test do wash of RBC because all serum contain : .. In O+v person No presence of Ag No presence of Ab 13.Antigen 12. 15 days .D antigen 3.All of the above 5.E antigen 2. Cold agglutination 16. 45 days . 35 days . this Ag not found : D.20 day 5. 5 days . Immunoglobulin 15.130 day 4. In O blood group the Ab in serum is : .23 5.7 days 8. Use O cell tube on lab for: As control To detect Ag To detect Ab 9. a_glubulin .80 days 2. Store FFPs at -80. fibrinogen . CPD_A anticoagulant used to store blood for: .Coombs reagent 2. All cause false v ABO blood grouping except Too short incubation 10. Non of the above 14. Albumin .B antigen 4. Reason of false positive ABO in compatibility: .IgG 4.Non of the above 6. In Rh-v person . b_ globulin . Rh-ve patient means he dose not have: 1.

Exophthalamic goiter 4.Stimulate contraction of uterus 3. . Anti B .Increase Oogenesis 2. All of the above 17.Not putting antisera c.Hypoglycemia 5.ANTI-A B-ANTI-AB C-ANTI-B 23. Function of Estrogen: 1.Exophthalamic goiter 4.Under incubation 20.Increase Oogenesis 2.5-16 *free from syphilis *One year after delivery 18.Increase basal metabolic 2.Increase basal metabolic 4.Cushing disease 2. Cross-Match in (Major X-Matching) Donor Cells + Patient Serum Hormone 1. Why do we have to wash red blood cells in cross matching To remove an excess antibody present in the sample 22. False positive ABO incompatibility/cross matching Cold Agglutinin 21.Stimulate contraction of uterus 3.Cushing disease 2. Function of Thyroxin is: 1. Increase in growth hormone causes: 1.24 .Gigantism 3.Deteriorated reagent b. Causes false negative ABO incomparability/ cross matching :a. Blood transfusion can transmit? *HIV *CMV *All of the previous 19. Blood donor selection in KSA are all of the following except? *Hb% 12. Immunoglobulin pregnancy test related to: . To differentiate anti i from anti I A-A1 CELLS B-A2 CELLS C.Cord Cells D -None of the above 24. Antibody found in blood group Ab individuals : A.Gigantism 3. Anti A .Hypoglycemia 3. Non of the above . Increase in Thyroxin Stimulating Hormone (TSH) causes: 1.

25 1. A. Increase basal metabolic 12.IgG 2. ADH is secreted from? *thyroid gland *anterior pituitary *Posterior pituitary Saudi Counsel Exams for Lab. Hyper secretion of cortisol cuase: Cushing disease 8. C. Technician Instruction: Select one best answer for the following multiple choice Questions: 1.1 1 ug/dl 1 10 mg/dl 10 20 mg/dl 100 -110 mg/dl Laboratory tests of hepatic function include: Serum bilirubin Urine bilirubin Excretory function test . B. E. Target of Prolactin in female: 1. The concentration of total bilirubin in the serum of normal adult ranges at. D.1 1 mg/dl 0.IgM 3. Function of Cortisol : .Human chorionic Gonadotropin 6. B. Increase Oogenesis . Stimulate contraction of uterus .Mammary glands 7. Oxytocine hormone function : . C. Increase Oogenesis . Increase basal metabolic 11. While using the pregnancy test we are measuring? *total HCG *beta HCG &LH *beta HCG 13. A. Regulation of calcium level in serum by: Calcitonine hormone only Parathyroid hormone only Calcionine with parathyroid hormone Vitamin D PTH+Vitamin D+calcitonin 10. 2. Hyperparathyroidism hormone cause: Elevated ca level Decrease ca level 9. Stimulate contraction of uterus . 0.Ovary 2.

A.D. Non of the above C. Acute pancreatitis C. In case of uncontrolled sever diabetes mellitus. Liver and muscle D. Glycogen. Band D 5. All of the above 3. Bone E. . Sever diabetes mellitus bring about which condition A. Electrolyte imbalance E. Band C 4. Allowing entry of glucose from plasma in to muscle and fat tissue B. Muscle tissue C. All the above mechanisms E. Acidosis and Ketosis B. Salivary gland lesions D. Dehydration D. the following biochemical abnor malities appear: A. Marked elevations in serum amylase levels are seen in: A. the storage form of carbohydrates in the body is predominantly found i n. Liver disease E. The hormone insulin helps to maintain constant plasma glucose concentration by: A. Bone disease B. Ketosis C. Non of the above mechanisms 6. All of the above 7. Acidosis B. Inhibiting glycolysis D. Moving glucose out of cells into the plasma C. Liver tissue B.

Non of the above statements is correct 9. In chemical or latent type diabetes: A. FBS >150 B. OGTT is normal E. A technician working in the clinical chemistry lab must immediately report to hi s supervisor a plasma glucose level equal to: A. Presence of acidosis and ketosis C. 50 mg/dl E. 120 mg/dl 11. All of the above 8. Glucose and ketone bodies are found in the urine. 60 mg/dl D. Presence of sugur in urine 10. 70 mg/dl C. Electrolyte imbalance E.Dehydration D. The fasting blood sugur level exceeds 150 mg/dl. Test of intestinal function includes: / A test used to assess intestinal functio n: . Which statement is true about chemical or latent diabetes: A. The 2-hour postprandial serum glucose level exceeds 180 mg/dl D. 80 mg/dl B. The glucose tolerance test result is normal E. C. B. 2HPP >180 D.

D. D-xylose absorption test C. a condition characterized by deposition of bilirubin in the sclera of the eyes and in the skin. Plasma Na+ concentration / Na+ concentration B. Fecal fat analysis E.35 1. A. Directly proportional to the intensity of the color B. 13. 19. becomes evident when the bilirubin serum level reaches a concentration of: A. None of the above / None of the above The best estimate of plasma osmolality is represented by:/ The Principal of body water osmolality is: A. Lactose tolerance test B. 14.36 1. In A.5 mg/dl Exceeds 5 mg/dl None of the above significant bacteriuria the cfu/ml urine is: > 10^5 cfu/ml < 10^5 cfu/ml > 10^3 cfu/ml < 10^3 cfu/ml . The phosphate buffer system C. Non of the above In spectrophotometeric determination. C. Inversely proportional to the amount of solute C. 136 145 mg/dl / 110 220 meq/l C. The acetate/acetic acid buffer system E. 15. B.1 mg/dl Exceeds 2. BothAand B D. D.45 mmol/l /1. The hemoglobin buffer system B. the amount of light of a specific waveleng th absorbed by a colored solution is: A.45 mg/dl / 20 50 mg/dl E. 1.12. Plasma HCO3 Concentration / HCO3-concentration D.36 1.45 mmol/l D. None of the above / CL-concentration The most important buffer system present in blood is: A. Plasma K+ Concentration / K+ concentration C. Directly proportional to the amount of light transmitted B. Measurement of serum caroteniods D. Inversely proportional to the absorbance E. B. 18. Directly proportional to the concentration of the analyte D. 1. the amount of light absorbed is: A. 17. Directly proportional to the concentration of solute in the solution C. The bicarbonate/carbonic acid buffer system D. 1 mg/dl 0. Inversely proportional to the emitted color The concentration of Sodium in normal serum is: / normal Sodium in adult 145 mmol/l / 135 145 mmol/l A. 16. None of the above Jaundice. E. 136 B. C. None of the above In spectrophotometeric.

Oxidase C. Catalase B.The test used to differentiate pathogenic staphylococci is: A. Coagulase .

coli are: A. CSF B. Citrate B. ASO test 20. Green C. Bacitracin D. On EMB or Mac Conkiy agar media. +++D. Yellow-brown 24. members of shigella-salmonella group produce sm all colonies which are: A. Feces E.D. Buffy coat D. Group A Streptococci are differentiated from other Beta-haemolytic streptococci by disc containing: A. Colorless E. Black B. Optochin C. --++ C. Novobiocin 21. For blood culture. The best specimen for recovery of polio virus for culture is: A. Heparin 22. Sodium polyanesthol sulphonate (SPS) D. ++-B. Blood clot or throat washing C. . The IMVIC reaction of E. Pink D. Neomycin B. the best anticoagulant is: A. None of the above 25. ---+ 23. Oxalate C.

All Leishmanial infections are transmitted by / Vector for Leismania infection A. Dipylidium caninum . All of the above E. Cats C.The diagnostic stage for Giardia lamblia in stool is: A. Non of the above 26. Trophozite C. Pigs 27. Mice B. Hymenolepis nana C. Cyst B. Dogs D. House fly/ House fly D. Horse fly/ Anopheles mosquito 28. Tania saginata B. Dwarf tapeworm: A. Sand fly/ Sand fly C. Cyst and/or trophozite D. Tsetse fly/ Tsetse fly B. Taenia solium D. Man may acquire toxoplasma from: A.

Haemophilus influenza C. Grow D. colli B. Are motile B.29. 34. Mannitol salt agar 31. CLED medium D. Enterobacter cloacae C. Shigella sonnei D. White colonies 33. XLD medium E. Quellung s test is positive with the following organisms EXCEPT: A. All are true for salmonella typhi EXCEPT: A. B. they: A. Corynebacterium diphtheria 32. Human is the main reservoir or carrier. Green colonies D. MacConkey s agar B. Streptococcus pneumonia B. Are crystalline C. Reproduce 30. Blood agar C. Blue colonies B. Klebseilla pneumonia D. Viruses resemble living thing. . Proteus spp. The following organisms are lactose fermenters EXCEPT: A. Which of the following culture media is suitable for doing semi-quantitative bac terial count of urine specimens? A. E1. Yellow colonies C. Growth of vibrio cholera on TCBS medium produces: A.

Grows on XLD medium 38. Produces H2 S on TSI. Which of the followings statements about Campylobacter Jejuni is false? A. Arranged in pairs (see-gull) C. Indole positive 36. Campylobacter fetus 37. Urease. Gram negative curved bacilli B. H2S positive with gas E. the main reservoir is human B. XLD & HE media E. Klebsiella rhinoscleromatis B. Direct gram-staining is routinely performed on the following specimens EXCEPT: . Oxidase positive D. Slow growth D. Yersinia pseudotuberculosis E. Serratia liquefaciens C.Possesses H & O antigen C. Produces acid from glucose but no gas 35. Contains O and H antigen C. Providencia alcalifaciens D. KCN and phenylalanine negative D. The following are members of Enterobacteriaceae family EXCEP: A. All is true for salmonella EXCEPT A.

CSF C.60 ù D. Dissecting microscope D. Fluorescent microscope Which of the following microscopes would you use to examine a smear stained with a fluorochrose: A. 0. Stool When using a X10 eye piece and the X10 objective of a bright field microscope. 1000 D. Urine E. 42. aspirated fluids and discharges B. 0. Pus. 8 um/ 5. t he total magnification is: A. 0.8 ù C.002 um Bacteriological culture media are generally sterilized using: A. A. 90 C/30 min D. Bright field microscope B. 43.0 ù The temperature-time cycle when using the autoclave to sterilize is: A. 100 C /15 min Which of the following materials would you sterilize using the oven? .2 um C. sputum D. 0. 41. Dark field microscope C. 6 um/ 0. 46.22 um/ 0. Bunsen burner Serum can be sterilized using membrane filter of porosity / Bacterial sterilizat ion of serum can be accomplished by filtration using a porosity of A. 10 B. C. Filtration D. Dark field microscope C. Bright field microscope B.22 ù B. 47. 100 C. 45. Fluorescent microscope The resolution of the bright field microscope is: A.39. The oven C.02 um D.2 um/ 0. Polarizing microscope D. 2. 121 C /30 min C. 44. The auto calve B.0 um B. 10000 Which of the following microscopes would you use to examine a smear of bacteria stained by Gram stain? A. 40. 2. 100 C /30 min B.

Sand D. Serum C. Distilled water The primary stain of the gram stain is: . Culture media B.A.

Agar is used as a solidifying agent in bacterial culture medium at a concentrati on: A. Which of the following reagents is not used in the gram staining technique? A. 1%-2% . 8%-9% C. X40 D. Crystal violet B. Resin C. Iodine 48. Starch 52. X20 C. Red 50. Iodine 49. The solidifying agent in bacteriological culture media is: A. Which color do gram negative bacteria appear? A. Malachite green D. Crystal violet B. X100 51.A. Yellow D. X10 B. Which objective of the microscope requires the use of immersion oil between the slide and the objective? A. Safranin C. Malachite green D. Green C. Safranin C. Blue B. Wax B. 10%-11% B. Agar D.

1%-3% 53. Which of the following is not true? A. influenza B. tetani D. E. Aureus on blood agar: A. Agar is inert B. Parasite that has a chronatiodal bodies or the cigar shaped: A. What organism that char. H. Histolytica B. Sattelitism around the Staph. None of the above 56. Bacteria which has an optimum temperature for growth at 60 C are termed: A. E. Zoophilic C. Thermophilic D. E. Agar melts at 100 C 54.D. C. H. coli C. Halophilic 55. Agar solidifies at 42 C D. Balantidium Cole E. Mesophilic B. hartmani . Endolimax nana D. dueriyi C. Agar is nutritious C.

hematobium C. D. The causative parasite of Egyptian bilharzias: A. A. ALT D. E. S. In Antigen Antibody reaction the panel should have such A. E. The probable glucose level: 30 mg/dl A. below 25 B. 3 neg & 3 positive control 66. coli C. fasciola Hepatiea B. Sprozoite in man invades:/ Sproziote of malaria invades man through the: A. CK-BB 65. All of the above 63. In urinary infection the ff. Endolinax nana 58. Ingestion of RBC in a trophozeite: A. Schistosoma haematobium C. P. Schistosoma mansoni E. Schistosoma japonicum D. Leukocytes D. 40 mg/dl C. Trichomonas Vaginalis B. histolytica B. Nitritis are positive C. P. S. mansoni 60. AST C. Reticuloendothelial / RES /Muscle tissue / All of the above 59. S. are free in urine: A. P. P. japonicum D. falciparum D. malaria C. 2 neg & 1 positive control C. 60 mg/dl D. CK-MB B. Egyptians Hematuria: A. ovale 62. All of the above 61. T. Enlarge RBC: / Which malarial parasite cause enlargement of the RBC: A. hematuria B. Any of the above 64. Vivax B. trichiurea B. A parasite which does not deposit eggs in the intestine: A. 1 neg & 1 positive control B. Hookworm D. Trichenilla 67.57. WBC / White Blood cell B. Parasites that neither lay eggs nor: A. Ascaris C. RBC / Red blood cell C. vermicularis . In myocardial infection what enzyme are resp. E. 2 neg & 2 positive control D.

B. Of: A. doudenale C. A. spiralis 68. Lactate Dehydrogenises C. Hook worm B. What is the normal value of FBS if it is 100% venous blood? A. Trichiuris 69. In blood transfusion the patients Red cells and donor plasma are req. Glomerular filtration Rate is indi. Somatostatin 73. A. 60-80 mg/dl B. Measurement of Clearance of subs. Glucagon B. 100-120 mg/dl C. That are freely filterable by the glomerular B. In acute pancreatities what is the test to be determine: A. Growth hormone C. Other than Insulin what hormone that maintain the glucose level A. ALT 72. Major cross matching 70. 80-120 mg/dl D. lumbricoides D. AST D. That are freely filterable by the glomerular that se . T. Means of clearable of subs. 200-210 mg/dl 71. Minor cross matching B. T. A. Amylase B. Which of the following neither lays eggs nor deposits larvae in the intestinal c anal: A. saginata E. Trichinella D. Pin worm C.

All of the above 74. Entamoeba gingivalis C. Dysfunction of hepatocellular C.cret by tubules and is retainable C. All of the above 75. Iodamoeba butschlii E. Muscle C. Entamoeba coli D. Heart D. What is the best time to collect blood for malarial smear: A. Esterification of conjugated D. Overloaded of Bilirubin in the liver B. Any of above D. The trophozoite which contains red blood cells in the cytoplasm belongs to this parasite: A. B&C E. Increased Serum bilirubin: A. All of the above 76. Skeletal B. At the beginning or just when the paroxysm is about to start . Creatinine Determination: A. Entamoeba hystolitica B. Non of the above 77.

Period before the paroxysm start C. It is easily stained by Grams stain B. Which of the following indicates a blood agar plate: A. Non of the above 83. Which of the following is an enrichment medium: A. the Sodium Chloride content should be: A. Blood agar B. B. M. CLED B.085 g% C. 60 mg/dl B.5 g% D.5 g% E. C.B. It is stained by an alkaline stain 86. Campylobacter jejni 84. Chocolate Agar E. MAC C. Shigella dysenteriae E. F. Cystine lactose Electrolyte Deficient (CLED) D. Period when the paroxysm starts D. 120 mg/dl 79.50 g% 85. Chocolate agar 82. Yersinia pestis C. Chocolate agar C. diphtheria B. BAP D. it cannot be removed by acid C. 8. tuberculosis C. The only enrichment medium of following is: A. Peptone water C. 0. tularensis E. Mycobacterium tuberculosis is called acid fast because: A. Normal saline D. Selenite broth E.85 g% B. 0. D. 0. Thiocynate broth 80. 6. pertussis D. All of the following is a test for liver function except: . Once stained. It easily decolorizes after stain D. Pseudomonas aeroginosa D. Nutrient broth B. Mac Conkey agar 81. To obtain an isotonic media. 110 mg/dl E. 80 mg/dl D. Period after the paroxysm 78. It is very easy to stain E. 50 mg/dl C. The technician should inform the physician immediately when the blood glucos e level is: A. Klebsiella pneumoniae B. All are member of the Family Enterobacteriaccae are EXCEPT: A. Which of the following is an enriched medium: A.

Beta Hemolysis is enhanced when Group B Streptococcus in streaked at an angle in a blood agar plate with: A. C. Exhibits swarming on BAP and Mackonkey agar C. Viridan B. Bilirubin in Serum C. They are Gamma hemolytic on BAP B. Alpha hemolytic D. All of the above 87. Micrococcaciae 88. Enzyme test E. Most of the pathogenic stains of streptococcus belongs to group: A. Bilirubin in urine B. Streptococcus pneumonia B. Excretory function test D. Beta hemolytic C. All statements are true about Proteus mirabilis and Proteus vulgaris except: A. All are true about Enterococci except: A. Ureas positive D. Positive to Indole test 90.A. Staphylococcus epidermidids E. . diphtheria 89. Oxidase negative and liquefies gelatin B. Growth in Methyline Blue medium E. Reduce litmus milk with acid and coagulation D. KCN and H2S positive E. Group D E. Micrococcus D. Staphylococcus aureus C. Ferments Mannitol and Sorbitol C.

None of these 94. Fermentation of dextrose and maltose B. Do not grow in presence of 6.Inhabited growth with 6. The gonococcus and menigococcus can best be differentiated by their: A.5 % NaCl nor at 45 C 92. All of these E. Blood culture may be indicated for: A. Have carbohydrate antigen or group D streptococci B.5 % NaCl and at temperature 60 C 91. Fermentation of maltose and lactose C. Shigella dysinteriae D. Group A B. infection are: Streptococci responsible for the majority of human A. Mycobacterium tuberculosis E. Corynebacterium diphtheria C. Bacitracin-S and CAMP (-) D. Fermentation of maltose and sucrose . Beta haemolytic C. All are true about Enterococci except: A. Non of the above 93. Clostridium tetani B. Positive esculine-hydrolysis and (+) pyr test C. Grow in the presence of bile salts D.

The organs of adhesion in bacteria are: A.95. Rheumatic fever 97. Fungi D. 15-20 nm 101. 3 minutes 104. A. Scarlet fever C. 1 hour C. Staphylococcus epedermidis B. E. Streptococci pharyngitis and cellulites D. Toxic shock syndrome B. Bacteria B. Enterococcus faecalis 98. The thickness of bacterial cell wall ranges between A. Lipopolysacharides D. pyuria. Identified by finding mainly the rhabditiform larvae in fresh stool: A. Acute glomerulonephritis E. 5-10 nm C. Microcapsule D. Which contain more peptidoglycan A. Polysacharides 103. Gram negative bacilli C. Ascaris lumbricoides B. Strongyloides stercoralis D. 2 hours B. Rickettesia C. Fimbriae C. Trichinella spiralis 96. Chlamydia 99. coli C. Enterobiu vermicularis C. Chlamydia D. Slim layer 100. Significant bacteriuria. 10-15 nm D. Endotoxins are chemically: A. Which of the following are prokaryotes? A. 2-5 nm B. Protozoa E. Mucopeptides B. Proteins C. 15 minutes E. Which of the following is biological indicator used to monitor steam steril izers. Flagella B. Minimum time required for sterilization by moist heat at 136 C is A. Pseudomonas aeruginosa E. Rickettsiae 102. Proteus vulgaris D. and alkaline urine probably indicate urinar y infection due to: A. The determination of ASO titer is used in the laboratory diagnosis of: A. Pseudomonas aeruginasa . Gram positive bacilli B. 45 minutes D.

Stuart s medium C. Transformation B. Neutral Red B. Nitrogen + Carbon dioxide B. It adds nutritive value to the medium 109. India ink preparation B. Hydrogen + Carbon dioxide C. All of the following are transport media except: A. Malachite green 108. The sources of Peptone include: A. Neisseria gonorrhea . Bacillus anthraces D. Casein C. Carry Blair s medium D. It solidifies at about 34 C C. Fibrin D. All of the following are oxidase positive except: A. It doesn t inhibit the growth of bacteria D. 10% D. Mixture of Acetone and Alcohol D. Bacterial genes are transferred by means of all following except: A. 2% B. 5% C. Alkaline peptone water 110. Ammies medium B. The usual concentration of blood in the blood agar medium is: A. 15% 111. Best method of staining bacterial capsule is: A. Conjugation 106. Mutation D. The indicator in Mac Conkey agar is: A. Te rate of decolonization is the fastest in Grams stain with A. Heart muscle B. Bacillus stearothermophilus C. Soya four E. Transduction C. Oxygen + Carbon dioxide D. Leishman s stain D. For providing micro aerophilic atmosphere the preferred mixture is: A. Acetone B.B. Which of the following is not true about Nutrient agar: A. Bromophenol Blue 113. None of the Above 114. Methyl Red C. Phenol Red D. Grams stain C. Acetone plus iodine 107. Clostridium difficile 105. It melts at about 95 C B. Alcohol C. All of the above 112.

Otitis media E. Eikenella corrodens 124. Haemophilus parainfluenza C. Chromobacterium species 123. None of the above 116. Brucella 115. Group B streptococci cause: A. intermmedius D. Respiratory infections C. Proached egg . hominis C. All following species of Staphylococcus do not produce coagulase except A. Neonatal meningitis B. Chemically the oxidase reagent is: A. Which of the following can grow on MacConkey agar: A. Capitis B. Which of the following produce urease: A. S. Selective medium used for the isolation of Staphylococcus aureus is: A. Tetra methyl-P-phenylene diamine C. Gardnerella vaginalis D. Haemophilus influenza cause: A. Septic abortions D. S. Conjunctivitis D. All following produce oxidase except: A. Proteus Vulgaris C. The colonies of Bordetella pertussis look like: A. Hydrogen peroxide B. haemolyticus 121.B. Salmonella gallinarum D. 2% milk agar B. Hyaluronidase C. Escherichia Coli B. Coagulase B. Fibrinolysin D. Haemophilus species B. Chromobaterium violaceum B. Gardnerella vaginalis C. Tributyrim D. All above 120. S. Meningitis B. Streptococcus haemoliti 117. The most commonly tested virulence factor in staphylococci is: A. 10% Sodium chloride broth C. Vibrio cholera E. Thioglycollate broth 118. Salmonella typhi D. All of the above 122. S. Pseudomonas aeruginosa C. Endocarditis C. Enterotoxin 119. Eikenella corrodens D.

Maltose and sucrose C. Vancomycin C. Blood tellurite agar C. Bordet Gangou medium C. Trimethroprim E. Require 5-10% of carbon dioxide for growth D. Which of following is capable of growth at 22 C A. Arranged at acute angles E. Linocomycin C. Throat swab 126. All above 134. Glucose and lactose 129. Mercury drops C. Blood agar B. Which test is used to ascertain toxigenity of C. diphtheria are best developed on: A. Gram positive thin bacilli B. Amphotericin B B. Neisseria catarrhalis D. Erythromycin D. Chocolate agar with bacitracin 127. Loeffler serum slope D. All above 132. Sliver paints D. All of above 131. Cough plate method C. Chocolate agar B. Sucrose and lactose D. Neisseria meningitides utilizes: A. Colistin D. Neisseria gonorrhoeae 128. Presence of metachromatic granule C. Neisseria meningitides B. Oxidase positive C. Which of the following are typical about morphology of Corynebacterium diph theria: A. Post nasal swab D. These are Gram negative diplococci B. All above 130. Neisseria lactamica C. diphtheria: . Glucose and maltose B. The best method of sample collection for Bordetella pertussis: A. The chemotherapeutic agents contained in modified New York City (MNYC) medi um are: A. The best medium for the isolation of Bordetella pertussis is: A. Club shaped at the ends D. Pernasal swab B. Which of the following are true about Neisseria meningitides: A. Chocolate agar 133. JK group of corynebacteria are universal sensitivity to: A. Morphological features of C. Teracycline B. Diamidine-penicillin-flouride medium D.B. Draughtsman 125.

Escherichia coli C. Klebsiella C. A smear stained with Ziehl Neelsen stain should not be declared negative unless it has been examined for at least: A. 5 minutes B. the decolorizing agent used is: A. Elek s test B. None of the above 135. Serratia 138. Dick test C. Selenite F C. leprae. Schick test D. 10 minutes C. All above 139. 20% sulphuric acid 137. 20 minutes 136. Enrichment medium for Salmonella is: A. Salmonella O antigens are also share with: A. 15 minutes D. Shigella B. . Voges proskauer (VP) negative organism is: A. 5% sulphuric acid B. Proteus E. Tetrathionate broth B.A. 10% sulphuric acid C. Citrobacter B. In Ziehl Neelsen staining used for M. Shigella D. Enterobacter D. 15% sulphuric acid D.

sonnei D. Typhoid encephalopathy C. Virulent form of typhoid fever 141. Immunoglobulin in allergic condition C. GPT B. Determination of antibodies to Vi antigen in Widal test helps in diagnosis of: A.Strontium chloride broth D. S. S. Any of above 140. S. CK-MB . ChronicImmunoglobulin D. dysenteriae 142. S. Alpha globulin 143. Intramuscular injection increase the activity of the following enzyme: A. Carrier state D. Acute Immunoglobulin B. ONPG test is positive in all the strains of: A. CPK C. Flexneri B. Early stage of typhoid fever B. IgM is A. boydii C.

Placental enzyme C. One of the following is pancreatic enzyme: A. All of the above 145.D. HBDH 150. Filariasis C. Lipase C. LDH D. Bone enzyme D. Live enzyme B. Cardiac enzyme B. PPBS D. Na. Trypanosoma D. GOT C. GOT D. Flame photo meter C. One of the following is specific diagnostic enzyme A. Vaginal discharge occur with all except: A. Lishmanisasis B. T diagnose pancreatic disease 149. All of the above E. Prostatic enzyme 148. Candida . To diagnose myocardial infection C. ELISA D. Non of the above 152. In blood Glucose estimation the following is required A. CPK B. GPT C. GGT B. K and Cl are best measure? A. Alkaline Phosphatase is A. Estimation of G6PDH is a test A. GOT B. Gardenela B. Female anopheles transmits which disease: A. Spectrophotometer B. AMP pathway enzyme D. RIA 147. Fasting blood glucose B. Glycosylated Hb C. Cardiac LDH can be substituted by one of the following A. LDH 144. To diagnose hemolytic anemia B. Glucose -6-phosphate dehydrogenase is: A. Pancreatic enzyme C. Malaria 146. CPK D. Chlamydia C. Fructoseamine E. CPK 151. Acid phosphates 153.

They men the same D. Staph. Linearity D. Cilia C. Gonorrhea 154.D. None of the above 159. Giardia move by A. Pseudopadia B. Anthrax B. Reversely related C. All of the above 158. Sensitivity and specificity are: A. Sensitivity C. Entamoeba histolytica cyst is appear in which part of gastrointestinal trac t: A. Non of the above 155. Non of the above 160. Albus B. Clostridium spelica D. Non of the above 161. Flagella D. Malaria B. Large intestine D. coli D. A dichromatic analysis is carried to increase A. Lishmania E. None of the above 156. Salmonella typhi . Directly related B. Trypnosoma move by A. Flagella D. Serious orgasm that cause food poisoning: A. Salmonella entreritidis C. Small intestine C. Pseudopodia B. One of the following is Gram positive bacilli: A. Niesseriae C. Trypanosoma D. Stomach B. Specificity B. Cilia C. Trichomonous Vaginalls E. Filaria C. The following parasite can seen in the blood: A. E. None of the above 157.

(Lowenstein Jensen Medium LJ) Slight Haemolysis Cause . Technician) Strong Urea s Producers . (Increased K Level) Visceral Leishmaniasis Caused By (Leishmania Donovan) . (Chlamydia Trachomatis) Identification of Enterobius Vermicularis . (Kala Zar) PTT detects . DCA (Deoxycholate Citrate A gar) What Is The Function Of Thyroxine (T4) . (Cap) Is Best For Haemophilus Influenzae) (Thayer Martin. (intrinsic factor abnormalities). (Alkaline) Gram + Bacteria on Gram Stain . (Extrinsic Factor Abnormalties ) . (For Identification of Chromatoidal Bod ies) Medium for Mycobacterium Tuberculosis Tb . (It Is Used In Metabolism) Chocolate Agar . (Coryenbacterium Diphteria) Alkali burns . (Bordetela Pertusis) (Border Gongour Medium) Albert Stain Is Good For . (Acidic) When It Becomes Blue . (Changes of Color / Ph Range) When It Becomes Red . Acetic acid) An Indicator Means . Prothrombine Time Detects . (Colored Dark Purple) Iodine Stain for Entamoeba Histolytica . (Recovery Of Eggs In Perianal Skin) Causes whopping Cough . (wash with 10 % conc. (Anterior Pituitary Gland) Target Organ Of Prolactin . (Proteus Species) Selective and Differential Medium For Enterobacter .For Nisseria Gonorrhoea) Prolactin Is Produced By . (Mammary Gland) Estrogen Is Produced By .43 SAUDIA LICENSE EXAMINATION FOR TIPS FOR HEALTH SPECIALIST (For Lab. (Ovary) Causes Of Conjuctivitis Trachoma/ Causative Agent .

Pneumonia from Strep. (ketones in urine ). (Staph Aureus) Ziehl Nelson stain is used for . Cellular / Cell Immunity . (70 . (Ethyl Alcohol) Best Fixative for Thin Smear .. (4. (T-Lymphocyte/Lymphocytes) Monocyte . (Flagellar Antigen) Causes Scarlet Fever . (Differentiate between strept. (Metabolsim) Best Fixative for Blood Film . (Glycogen) Prevent atherosclerosis . (Detect Antibody/ Antibody Screening Of Sensitizing Patient's Rbcs) Intermediate host of Leishmania species. (Best for Corynebacterium diphteriae) Best for Sterilizing Media . (has no D antigen) Storage form of glucose . (Tsetse Fly) Identification of malarial parasites & RBCs morphology . Viridans) Chinese letter like bacteria . not in myocardial infarction (MI) . (Pseudomonas Aeroginosa) Function of Cortisol . (Best For Diagnosing Both Liver damage & myocardial infarction) ALT/SGPT . (Increase only in liver damage. (Phlebotomus sand fly) Intermediate Host Of Trypanosoma . (Corynebacterium diphteriae) AST/SGOT .6. (thin smear) Rh negative patients . Citrate Test Differentiates .140 (Random)) H Antigen .5 . (Mycobacterium sp). (HDL Cholesterol) Albert stain . (Streptococcus Pyogene) Causes Scalded Skin Syndrome . (Also Macrophage) Optochin test is used to .44 Found in hyperglycemic coma . (Leishmania (Cutaneous)) Normal Rbcs Count For Male . (Autoclave) Oxidase + . (Ethyl Alcohol) Causes Oriental Scar . (Gram Negative Enterobacteriaceae) Example salmonella is citrate + Indirect antiglobulin test .5) Normal Glucose Level .

I thank full to Dr.Acknowledgement I m thank full to my ALLAH And also I thank full to my friend Mr. Dr. Rabigh General Hospital. Pathologist. Pathologist. KSA 0591-342865 Unis_memon85@yahoo. Sami Khan. KSA. Technician NNP.com . Mostfa. Thanks. Muhammad Abdul Aziz. Technician they help me to answers these questions. Al-Nakheel National Clinic and Mr. Lab. Faiz . he help me in download these d ata. Rabigh. Muhammad Younis Lab.