Microbiology

1. Options for sterilization include: a. ethylene oxide b. gamma irradiation c. 1600 C dry heat for 30 minutes d. low temperature steam of 730 C for 20 minutes e. high temperature steam of 1340 C for 3 minutes 2. Clostridium tetani a. causes gas gangrene b. produces an exotoxin c. has a terminal spore d. is an obligatory anaerobe e. is non-motile
3. True statements concerning necrotizing fasciitis are correct a. antibiotic therapy and hyperbaric oxygen do not limit the spread b. there is a severe infective process, but the skin initially appears normal c. conservative excision of the necrotic fascia and skin and muscle should be carried out within 24 hours d. it is not common after minor trauma e. high doses benzylpenicillin (4 mega units) given intravenously are indicated 4.Keloid scars a. are distinguished from hypertrophic scars by their extent. b. extends beyond the original incisional scar c. are caused by the excess deposition of fibrin in the wound d. are common on the deltoid region e. may be prevented by pressure dressing 5. Staphylococcus aureus is sensitive to a. vancomycin b. cefuroxime c. flucloxacillin d. clindamycin e. methicillin

6. Lignocaine a. inhibits the uptake of sodium into nerve cell membranes b. has a local vasodilatory effect c. toxicity should be suspected if the patient develops slurred speech d. is an alkaline solution e. 1% solution contains 1 g of lignocaine in 100 ml fluid 7. Local anaesthetic injections are less painful if a. the anaesthetic is cooled. b. they are combined with adrenaline c. they are given rapidly d. the pH is neutralized prior to administration e. a thinner needle is used. 8. Adenovirus a. contains double stranded DNA b. possess an envelope c. causes adenoviral keratitis which responds well to topical acyclovir d. can be classified into more than 40 serotypes e. causes skin papilloma 9. Rubella: a. is transmitted through the respiratory tract b. is a RNA virus c. has an incubation period of 14 to 21 days d. has maximal infectivity 24 hours before the patients develop a papulomacular rash e. more likely to cause fetal abnormalities when the mother becomes infected in late trimester 10. Measles a. can be prevented through immunization with a live attenuated strains b. causes fetal abnormalities if the mother becomes infected during pregnancy c. is most infectious before the onset of symptoms d. is associated with secondary bacterial infection which is the main cause of mortality e. causes blindness through corneal scarring

11. Fetal abnormalities occurs if the mother becomes infected with a. hepatitis A b. cytomegalovirus c. syphilis d. toxoplasmosis e. Listeria monocytogenes

12. DNA virus include the following a. hepatitis A b. hepatitis B c. hepatitis C d. molluscum contagiosum e. varicella zoster 13. Human immunodeficiency virus-1 (HIV-1):= a. is a retrovirus containing RNA b. contains env gene which encodes the core nucleocapsid polypeptides c. binds specifically to B lymphocytes d. causes an increase in CD8 lymphocytes during seroconversion e. can be detected in infected individuals by measuring the p24 antigen 14. Normal flora of the conjunctiva include a. chlamydia b. Streptococcus viridens c. Streptococcus epidermidis d. Staphylococcus aureus e. Nocardia 15. Acanthoamoeba a. is the most common cause of infective keratitis in contact lens wearer b. A. castellani and A. polyphaga are the two most common subtypes seen in acanthamoeba keratitis c. can be cultured from the nasopharynx of healthy individuals d. can be killed with 3% hydrogen peroxide e. causes corneal neovascularization early in the course of the disease 16. With regard to Moraxella lacunata a. it is a Gram negative bacillus b. it causes chronic conjunctivitis c. it is implicated in angular blepharitis d. it causes keratitis in debilitating patients e. it causes crystalline keratopathy

17. The following are true about disinfectants that can be used effectively for Skin a. glutaraldehyde b. chlorhexidine

c. ethyl alcohol with povidone-iodine d. ethylene oxide e. chloramphenicol drops 18. Viral with oncogenic properties in humans include a. measles virus b. hepatitis B virus c. papovavirus d. Epstein-Barr virus e. cytomegalovirus 19. Antibiotics that inhibit cell wall synthesis include a. cefuroxime b. erythromycin c. vancomycin d. sulphonamide e. benzylpenicillin 20. Micro-organisms that can cause latent infection include a. Mycobacterium tuberculosis b. varicella-zoster virus c. cytomegalovirus (CMV) d. hepatitis A e. chlamydia trachoma 21. Aminoglycoside a. are active against streptococcus b. acts on the bacterial cell wall c. are useful against anaerobes d. should not be used in patients with renal failure e. damages the cochlear nerve 22. Staphylococcus aureus a. is sensitive to fusidic acid b. is resistant to phagocytosis by neutrophils c. produces exotoxins d. is the most common cause of carbuncle e. phage type I and II are the commonest cause of boils

23. The following can be used to identify Staphylococcus aureus a. identification of Lancefield groups through serology b. phosphatase positivity c. coagulase positivity d. fermentation of mannitol e. golden appearance of colonies 24. The effect of endotoxins include a. inhibition of platelet aggregation b. inhibition of Hageman factor c. release of interleukin 1 d. initial leucopenia e. activation of the alternative complement pathway. 25. True statements about Actinomyces israeli include a. it is a strict anaerobe b. it is a bacteria c. it causes chronic canaliculitis d. it is usually sensitive to penicillin e. infection is associated with discharges containing yellow sulphur granules. 26. With regard to antibiotics a. vancomycin and penicillin inhibit bacterial cell wall synthesis through the same mechanisms. b. vancomycin is poorly absorbed from the gut c. metronidazole crosses the blood-brain barrier readily d. sulphonamides crosses the blood-brain barrier readily e. chloramphenicol is active against Pseudomonas bacteria 27. The following are true about tetanus acquired through traumatic wound a. the diagnosis is depends on microbial findings b. Clostridium tetani travels via the nerves to the anterior horn cells in the spinal cord c. the tetanospasmin component of the exotoxin acts on the post-synaptic neurones and prevents impulse transmission. d. the patient should be given antitoxin intravenously e. the presence of Clostridium tetani in the wound can be identified by a positive Nagler reaction 28. Hepatitis B virus a. is a DNA virus

b. the presence of e antigen indicates increased infectivity c. antibody to surface antigen usually appears within 2 weeks of infection d. the carrier rate is about 0.1% in the UK e. is a recognized cause of liver cancer 29. The following drugs act by inhibiting cell wall synthesis of the micro-organisms a. vancomycin b. gentamicin c. cefuroxime d. amphotericin B e. erythromycin. 30. The Mantoux test a. is positive in all patients with tuberculosis b. involves injecting PPD (purified protein derivative) intradermally c. is more sensitive than the tine test d. becomes positive within 3 weeks of acquiring tuberculosis e. involves the CD4 cells 31. The following are true about Pseudomonas aeruginosa a. it is the most common cause of contact lens acquired infection b. it is a Gram negative bacteria c. it can cause osteomyelitis d. it is sensitive to chloramphenicol e. it is sensitive to ciprofloxacin 32. With regard to Neisseria gonorrhea a. they are Gram negative anaerobic cocci b. they ferment glucose and maltose c. they are oxidase positive d. they contain proteases which break down Ig A e. they are sensitive to silver nitrate 33. The following may be found as commensals in the conjunctivitis a. Neisseria gonorrhoea b. Corynebacteria c. Micrococcus d. coagulase negative Staphylococci e. Chlamydia trachomatis

34. Stains useful for identifying fungus include a. Gram stain b. haematoxylin and eosin c. Gomori methanamine silver d. PAS (periodic acid-Schiff) e. Giemsa 35. Chlamydia trachomatis with serogroups A-C cause a. non-specific urethritis b. trachoma c. ophthalmia neonatorum d. adult inclusion conjunctivitis e. lymphogranuloma venerum 36. The following contain live attenuated live vaccines a. polio b. hepatitis A c. yellow fever d. measles e. rubella 37. The following are true about Clostridium tetani a. it is a Gram positive bacilli with terminal spore b. tetanus can occur weeks after the initial infection c. the symptoms of tetanus is produced by an endotoxin d. tetanus antitoxin is ineffective when the toxin enters the nervous tissue e. gas gangrene can result from Clostridium tetani infection 38. With regard to Treponema pallidum a. the bacteria can be found in lesions of primary syphilis b. the bacteria can be found in lesions of secondary syphilis c. the bacteria can be found in the cerebrospinal fluid of tertiary syphilis d. VDRL is specific for Treponema pallidum infection e. it is resistant to penicillin 39. The following are true about hepatitis B a. it is a RNA virus b. immunity can be acquired by vaccination with a live attenuated virus c. persistent presence of HBsAg increases the risk of chronic liver disease

d. the average incubation period is 30 days e. the presence of antibody to hepatitis B surface antigen is a reliable indicator of non-infectivity 40. Onchocerciasis a. is transmitted by mosquito bite b. is only found in West Africa c. causes nodular lesions in the eyes and skin d. causes corneal scarring e. causes optic neuritis 41. The following are true about leprosy a. it is caused by an acid fast bacteria b. it causes facial nerve palsy c. tuberculoid leprosy occurs in patients with poor cellular immunity d. more bacilli are found in the skin of patients with lepromatous leprosy than tuberculoid leprosy. e. granuloma is a feature of tuberculoid leprosy 42. In toxocariasis a. the infestation is acquired from both dogs and cats b. infestation occurs through ingestion of larvae c. tractional retinal detachment is a cause of poor vision d. intraocular calcification is a common feature of ocular toxocariasis e. steroid is contraindicated 43. Onchoceriasis a. is caused by a protozoan b. transmitted by the bite of fly c. is confined to the African continent d. ocular involvement results from lymphatic migration of the parasites e. can be treated with ivermectin 44. Propiobacterium acnes a. is a Gram positive bacilli b. is an anaerobic bacteria c. is a common commensal of the conjunctiva d. is an important cause of acute post-operative endophthalmitis e. is sensitive to vancomycin

45. The following Gram negative bacteria are known to cause corneal ulcer a. Pseudomonas aeruginosa b. Moraxella lacunata c. Bacillus brevis d. Klebsiella pneumoniae e. Serratia marcescens 46. The following are true about culture media for microbes a. Lowensten-Jensen is used to isolate mycobateria b. thioglycolate broth allows only anaerobes to grow c. MacConkey agar prevents the growth of Gram negative bacteria d. Sabouraud's culture is useful for culturing fungal infection e. Thayer-Martin's media is used to isolate gonococcus 47. The following intrauterine infection are known to cause ocular anomalies a. cytomegalovirus b. chickenpox c. hepatitis A d. Epstein-Barr's virus e. Listeria 48. The following are used to detect antibodies a. polymerase chain reaction b. complement fixation c. haemaglutination inhibition d. coagulase test e. indirect immunofluorescence 49. The following are aminoglycoside antibodies a. vancomycin. b. amikacin c. neomycin d. streptomycin e. clindamycin 50. Neuroretinitis occurs with the following infection a. cat-scratch fever b. Lyme disease c. toxoplasmosis

d. cosackie virus e. syphilis 51. Bacteria spores a. are resistant to antibiotics b. allow the bacteria to multiple in adverse condition c. are usually formed by Gram-negative bacteria d. can be identified with Gram stains. e. are killed by temperature of 1200 for 20 minutes. 52. The following substances are used in Gram staining a. iodine b. crystal violet c. alcohol d. safranin e. congo red 53. Antibiotic resistance in bacteria occurs through a. mutation b. conjugation c. phagocytosis d. plasmid transfer e. spore formation 54. Fungi differ from bacteria in that the former a. are eukaryotic b. contain both DNA and RNA c. contain cell walls d. can reproduce sexually e. can form spores 55. Chlamydia a. possess a Gram negative cell wall b. contain muramic acid in the cell wall c. are obligate intracellular parasites d. can not grow in inanimate media e. appear as basophilic intracytoplasmic inclusion bodies on Giemsa stain

56. The following organisms are common causes of endophthalmitis following cataract surgery a. Staphylococcus aureus b. Candidiasis albican c. Streptococcal species d. Bacillus species e. Neisseria species 57. Sterilization by steam a. does not kill spores b. occurs at a higher temperature than dry heat sterilization c. takes a longer time than dry heat d. is ideal for sterilizing ointments e. occurs at supra-atmospheric pressure 58. The following are live vaccines a. tetanus b. hepatitis B c. measles d. mumps e. rubella 59. The following are recognized features of onchocerciasis a. keratitis b. chorioretinal atrophy c "hanging groin" d. pruritis e. depigmentation 60. Loa loa a. is confined to Central and West Africa b. is spread by mosquito c. may cause a high eosinophilia d. is diagnosed by histological examination of skin snips e. is treated with diethylcabamazine citrate 61. Staphylococcus epidermidis a. is coagulase positive b. on microscopy are Gram positive cocci in chains c. are usually sensitive to penicillin

d. grown in blood cultures are due to contamination and should be ignored e. are destroyed by povodine iodine 62. HIV-associated Kaposi's sarcoma is a. radiosensitive b. chemosensitive c. may be mistaken for subconjunctival haemorrhage d. more common in intravenous drug abusers than homosexuals e. associated with infection by HHV-8 (Herpes hominis virus type 8) 63. The following staphylococci are coagulase positive a. S. aureus b. S. epidermidis c. S. intermedius d. S. hyicus e. S. haemolyticus 64. True statements about Staphylococcus include a. they belong to the bacterial family Micrococcaceae b. only coagulase positive species cause human diseases c. they are oxidase negative d. they are all catalase positive e. the cells are about 1 micrometer in diameter 65. The following are true about Staphylococus aureus a. under microscope they appears as diplococci b. they form yellow colony c. they are found in the nasal passage of normal population d. they cause haemolysis on blood agar e. they are often coagulase positive 66. True statements about Staphylococcus epidermidis a. they form white colony b. they cause haemolysis on blood agar c. they form the normal flora on human skin d. they are often coagulase positive e. in hospital environment, they can become pathogen 67. The following features can distinguish Staphylococcus from Streptococcus a. Staphylococcus is Gram positive whereas Streptococcus is Gram negative

b. Staphylococcus has round cell whereas Streptococcus has slightly oblong cell. c. Staphylococcus is catalase positive whereas Streptococcus is catalase negative d. Staphylococcus appears as clusters under microscope whereas Streptococcus appears as long chain e. Staphylococcus divides in two planes whereas Streptococcus divides in one plane only 68. The following are true about Reiter's syndrome a. it is commoner in people with HLA-B27 b. it is more common in males than females c. it is most commonly seen in patients with gonococcal urethritis d. iritis is commoner than conjunctivitis in affected patients e. it is associated with circinate balanitis 69. Prophylactic antibiotic is recommended in patient with cardiac murmur undergoing a. orbital floor fracture repair b. dacryocystorhinostomy c. trabeculectomy d. cataract extraction e. pterygium excision 70. The following conditions are associated with bacterial infection a. acne rosacea b. marginal keratitis c. phlytenular conjunctivitis d. Vogt-Koyanagi-Harada syndrome e. Mooren's ulcer 71. Bacteria that can penetrate intact corneal epithelium include a. Pseudomonas aeruginosa b. Staphylococcus aureus c. Neisseria gonorrhoea d. Corynebacterium diptheriae e. Listeria monocytogenes 72. Demodex folliculorum a. is a tick inhabiting the hair follicles b. is visible with slit-lamp c. produces clear cylinder case at the base of hair follicles d. can be easily removed with lid hygiene e. is most commonly seen in children